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Title 21: Food and Drugs</TITLE>
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21</IDNO>

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<AMDDATE>June 15, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="1" NODE="21:1" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 1</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:1.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—GENERAL


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1—GENERAL ENFORCEMENT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1333, 1453, 1454, 1455, 4402; 19 U.S.C. 1490, 1491; 21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 332, 333, 334, 335a, 342, 343, 350c, 350d, 350j, 352, 355, 360b, 360ccc, 360ccc-1, 360ccc-2, 362, 371, 374, 381, 382, 384a, 387, 387a, 387c, 393, and 2223; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 243, 262, 264, 271.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.1.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of regulations promulgated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the doing of any act shall be applicable also to the causing of such act to be done.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in sections 201 and 900 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321 and 387) shall be applicable also to such terms when used in regulations promulgated under that act.
</P>
<P>(c) The definition of <I>package</I> in § 1.20 and of <I>principal display panel</I> in §§ 101.1, 201.60, 501.1, 701.10 and 801.60 of this chapter; and the requirements pertaining to uniform location, lack of qualification, and separation of the net quantity declaration in §§ 101.7(f), 201.62(e), 501.105(f), 701.13(f) and 801.62(e) of this chapter to type size requirements for net quantity declaration in §§ 101.7(i), 201.62(h), 501.105(i), 701.13(i) and 801.62(h) of this chapter, to initial statement of ounces in the dual declaration of net quantity in §§ 101.7(j) and (m), 201.62(i) and (k), 501.105(j) and (m), 701.13(j) and (m) and 801.62(i) and (k) of this chapter, to initial statement of inches in declaration of net quantity in §§ 201.62(m), 701.13(o) and 801.62(m) of this chapter, to initial statement of square inches in declaration of net quantity in §§ 201.62(n), 701.13(p) and 801.62(n) of this chapter, to prohibition of certain supplemental net quantity statements in §§ 101.7(o), 201.62(o), 501.105(o), 701.13(q) and 801.62(o) of this chapter, and to servings representations in § 501.8 of this chapter are provided for solely by the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act. The other requirements part of this part are issued under both the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act and the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or by the latter act solely, and are not limited in their application by section 10 of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 17085, Apr. 1, 1993; 75 FR 73953, Nov. 30, 2010; 78 FR 69543, Nov. 20, 2013; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.1.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Labeling</I> includes all written, printed, or graphic matter accompanying an article at any time while such article is in interstate commerce or held for sale after shipment or delivery in interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Label</I> means any display of written, printed, or graphic matter on the immediate container of any article, or any such matter affixed to any consumer commodity or affixed to or appearing upon a package containing any consumer commodity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.4" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.1.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.4   Authority citations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each part of its regulations, the Food and Drug Administration includes a centralized citation of all of the statutory provisions that provide authority for any regulation that is included in that part.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency may rely on any one or more of the authorities that are listed for a particular part in implementing or enforcing any section in that part.
</P>
<P>(c) All citations of authority in this chapter will list the applicable sections in the organic statute if the statute is the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Public Health Service Act, or the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act. References to an act or a section thereof include references to amendments to that act or section. These citations will also list the corresponding United States Code (U.S.C.) sections. For example, a citation to section 701 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act would be listed: Sec. 701 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 371).
</P>
<P>(d) If the organic statute is one other than those specified in paragraph (c) of this section, the citations of authority in this chapter generally will list only the applicable U.S.C. sections. For example, a citation to section 552 of the Administrative Procedure Act would be listed: 5 U.S.C. 552. The agency may, where it determines that such measures are in the interest of clarity and public understanding, list the applicable sections in the organic statute and the corresponding U.S.C. section in the same manner set out in paragraph (c) of this section. References to an act or a section thereof include references to amendments to that act or section.
</P>
<P>(e) Where there is no U.S.C. provision, the agency will include a citation to the U.S. Statutes at Large. Citations to the U.S. Statutes at Large will refer to volume and page.
</P>
<P>(f) The authority citations will include a citation to executive delegations (i.e., Executive Orders), if any, necessary to link the statutory authority to the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 39630, Sept. 27, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Labeling Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.2.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.20   Presence of mandatory label information.</HEAD>
<P>In the regulations specified in § 1.1(c) of this chapter, the term <I>package</I> means any container or wrapping in which any food, drug, device, or cosmetic is enclosed for use in the delivery or display of such commodities to retail purchasers, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(a) Shipping containers or wrappings used solely for the transportation of any such commodity in bulk or in quantity to manufacturers, packers, processors, or wholesale or retail distributors;
</P>
<P>(b) Shipping containers or outer wrappings used by retailers to ship or deliver any such commodity to retail customers if such containers and wrappings bear no printed matter pertaining to any particular commodity; or
</P>
<P>(c) Containers subject to the provisions of the Act of August 3, 1912 (37 Stat. 250, as amended; 15 U.S.C. 231-233), the Act of March 4, 1915 (38 Stat. 1186, as amended; 15 U.S.C. 234-236), the Act of August 31, 1916 (39 Stat. 673, as amended; 15 U.S.C. 251-256), or the Act of May 21, 1928 (45 Stat. 635, as amended; 15 U.S.C. 257-257i).
</P>
<P>(d) Containers used for tray pack displays in retail establishments.
</P>
<P>(e) Transparent wrappers or containers which do not bear written, printed, or graphic matter obscuring the label information required by this part.
</P>
<FP>A requirement contained in this part that any word, statement, or other information appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or information also appears on the outer container or wrapper of the retail package of the article, or, as stated in paragraph (e) of this section, such information is easily legible by virtue of the transparency of the outer wrapper or container. Where a consumer commodity is marketed in a multiunit retail package bearing the mandatory label information as required by this part and the unit containers are not intended to be sold separately, the net weight placement requirement of § 101.7(f) applicable to such unit containers is waived if the units are in compliance with all the other requirements of this part.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 75 FR 73953, Nov. 30, 2010; 78 FR 69543, Nov. 20, 2013; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.2.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.21   Failure to reveal material facts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Labeling of a food, drug, device, cosmetic, or tobacco product shall be deemed to be misleading if it fails to reveal facts that are:
</P>
<P>(1) Material in light of other representations made or suggested by statement, word, design, device or any combination thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) Material with respect to consequences which may result from use of the article under: (i) The conditions prescribed in such labeling or (ii) such conditions of use as are customary or usual.
</P>
<P>(b) Affirmative disclosure of material facts pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section may be required, among other appropriate regulatory procedures, by
</P>
<P>(1) Regulations in this chapter promulgated pursuant to section 701(a) of the act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Direct court enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not:
</P>
<P>(1) Permit a statement of differences of opinion with respect to warnings (including contraindications, precautions, adverse reactions, and other information relating to possible product hazards) required in labeling for food, drugs, devices, cosmetics, or tobacco products under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Permit a statement of differences of opinion with respect to the effectiveness of a drug unless each of the opinions expressed is supported by substantial evidence of effectiveness as defined in sections 505(d) and 512(d) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 77 FR 5176, Feb. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.23" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.2.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.23   Procedures for requesting variations and exemptions from required label statements.</HEAD>
<P>Section 403(e) of the act (in this part 1, the term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act) provides for the establishment by regulation of reasonable variations and exemptions for small packages from the required declaration of net quantity of contents. Section 403(i) of the act provides for the establishment by regulation of exemptions from the required declaration of ingredients where such declaration is impracticable, or results in deception or unfair competition. Section 502(b) of the act provides for the establishment by regulation of reasonable variations and exemptions for small packages from the required declaration of net quantity of contents. Section 602(b) of the act provides for the establishment by regulation of reasonable variations and exemptions for small packages from the required declaration of net quantity of contents. Section 5(b) of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act provides for the establishment by regulation of exemptions from certain required declarations of net quantity of contents, identity of commodity, identity and location of manufacturer, packer, or distributor, and from declaration of net quantity of servings represented, based on a finding that full compliance with such required declarations is impracticable or not necessary for the adequate protection of consumers, and a further finding that the nature, form, or quantity of the packaged consumer commodity or other good and sufficient reasons justify such exemptions. The Commissioner, on his own initiative or on petition of an interested person, may propose a variation or exemption based upon any of the foregoing statutory provisions, including proposed findings if section 5(b) of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act applies, pursuant to parts 10, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, and 19 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.24" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.2.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.24   Exemptions from required label statements.</HEAD>
<P>The following exemptions are granted from label statements required by this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Foods.</I> (1) While held for sale, a food shall be exempt from the required declaration of net quantity of contents specified in this part if said food is received in bulk containers at a retail establishment and is accurately weighed, measured, or counted either within the view of the purchaser or in compliance with the purchaser's order.
</P>
<P>(2) Random food packages, as defined in § 101.7(j) of this chapter, bearing labels declaring net weight, price per pound or per specified number of pounds, and total price shall be exempt from the type size, dual declaration, and placement requirements of § 101.7 of this chapter if the accurate statement of net weight is presented conspicuously on the principal display panel of the package. In the case of food packed in random packages at one place for subsequent shipment and sale at another, the price sections of the label may be left blank provided they are filled in by the seller prior to retail sale. This exemption shall also apply to uniform weight packages of cheese and cheese products labeled in the same manner and by the same type of equipment as random food packages exempted by this paragraph (a)(2) except that the labels shall bear a declaration of price per pound and not price per specified number of pounds.
</P>
<P>(3) Individual serving-size packages of foods containing less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> ounce or less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> fluid ounce for use in restaurants, institutions, and passenger carriers, and not intended for sale at retail, shall be exempt from the required declaration of net quantity of contents specified in this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Individually wrapped pieces of <I>penny candy</I> and other confectionery of less than one-half ounce net weight per individual piece shall be exempt from the labeling requirements of this part when the container in which such confectionery is shipped is in conformance with the labeling requirements of this part. Similarly, when such confectionery items are sold in bags or boxes, such items shall be exempt from the labeling requirements of this part, including the required declaration of net quantity of contents specified in this part when the declaration on the bag or box meets the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Soft drinks packaged in bottles shall be exempt from the placement requirements for the statement of identity prescribed by § 101.3 (a) and (d) of this chapter if such statement appears conspicuously on the bottle closure. When such soft drinks are marketed in a multiunit retail package, the multiunit retail package shall be exempt from the statement of identity declaration requirements prescribed by § 101.3 of this chapter if the statement of identity on the unit container is not obscured by the multiunit retail package.
</P>
<P>(ii) A multiunit retail package for soft drinks shall be exempt from the declaration regarding name and place of business required by § 101.5 of this chapter if the package does not obscure the declaration on unit containers or if it bears a statement that the declaration can be found on the unit containers and the declaration on the unit containers complies with § 101.5 of this chapter. The declaration required by § 101.5 of this chapter may appear on the top or side of the closure of bottled soft drinks if the statement is conspicuous and easily legible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Soft drinks packaged in bottles which display other required label information only on the closure shall be exempt from the placement requirements for the declaration of contents prescribed by § 101.7(f) of this chapter if the required content declaration is blown, formed, or molded into the surface of the bottle in close proximity to the closure.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where a trademark on a soft drink package also serves as, or is, a statement of identity, the use of such trademark on the package in lines not parallel to the base on which the package rests shall be exempted from the requirement of § 101.3(d) of this chapter that the statement be in lines parallel to the base so long as there is also at least one statement of identity in lines generally parallel to the base.
</P>
<P>(v) A multiunit retail package for soft drinks in cans shall be exempt from the declaration regarding name and place of business required by § 101.5 of this chapter if the package does not obscure the declaration on unit containers or if it bears a statement that the declaration can be found on the unit containers and the declaration on the unit containers complies with § 101.5 of this chapter. The declaration required by § 101.5 of this chapter may appear on the top of soft drinks in cans if the statement is conspicuous and easily legible, provided that when the declaration is embossed, it shall appear in type size at least one-eighth inch in height, or if it is printed, the type size shall not be less than one-sixteenth inch in height. The declaration may follow the curvature of the lid of the can and shall not be removed or obscured by the tab which opens the can.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Ice cream, french ice cream, ice milk, fruit sherbets, water ices, quiescently frozen confections (with or without dairy ingredients), special dietary frozen desserts, and products made in semblance of the foregoing, when measured by and packaged in 
<FR>1/2</FR>-liquid pint and 
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon measure-containers, as defined in the “Measure Container Code of National Bureau of Standards Handbook 44,” Specifications, Tolerances, and Other Technical Requirements for Weighing and Measuring Devices, Sec. 4.45 “Measure-Containers,” which is incorporated by reference, are exempt from the requirements of § 101.7(b)(2) of this chapter to the extent that net contents of 8-fluid ounces and 64-fluid ounces (or 2 quarts) may be expressed as 
<FR>1/2</FR> pint and 
<FR>1/2</FR> gallon, respectively. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-150), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) The foods named in paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section, when measured by and packaged in 1-liquid pint, 1-liquid quart, and 
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon measure-containers, as defined in the “Measure Container Code of National Bureau of Standards Handbook 44,” Specifications, Tolerances, and Other Technical Requirements for Weighing and Measuring Devices, Sec. 4.45 “Measure-Containers,” which is incorporated by reference, are exempt from the dual net-contents declaration requirement of § 101.7 of this chapter. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-150), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) The foods named in paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section, when measured by and packaged in 
<FR>1/2</FR>-liquid pint, 1-liquid pint, 1-liquid quart, 
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon, and 1-gallon measured-containers, as defined in the “Measure Container Code of National Bureau of Standards Handbook 44,” Specifications, Tolerances, and Other Technical Requirements for Weighing and Measuring Devices, Sec. 4.45 “Measure-Containers,” which is incorporated by reference, are exempt from the requirement of § 101.7(f) of this chapter that the declaration of net contents be located within the bottom 30 percent of the principal display panel. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-150), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(7)(i) Milk, cream, light cream, coffee or table cream, whipping cream, light whipping cream, heavy or heavy whipping cream, sour or cultured sour cream, half-and-half, sour or cultured half-and-half, reconstituted or recombined milk and milk products, concentrated milk and milk products, skim or skimmed milk, vitamin D milk and milk products, fortified milk and milk products, homogenized milk, flavored milk and milk products, buttermilk, cultured buttermilk, cultured milk or cultured whole buttermilk, low-fat milk (0.5 to 2.0 percent butterfat), and acidified milk and milk products, when packaged in containers of 8- and 64-fluid-ounce capacity, are exempt from the requirements of § 101.7(b)(2) of this chapter to the extent that net contents of 8 fluid ounces and 64 fluid ounces (or 2 quarts) may be expressed as 
<FR>1/2</FR> pint and 
<FR>1/2</FR> gallon, respectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) The products listed in paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section, when packaged in glass or plastic containers of 
<FR>1/2</FR>-pint, 1-pint, 1-quart, 
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon, and 1-gallon capacities are exempt from the placement requirement of § 101.7(f) of this chapter that the declaration of net contents be located within the bottom 30 percent of the principal display panel, provided that other required label information is conspicuously displayed on the cap or outside closure and the required net quantity of contents declaration is conspicuously blown, formed, or molded into or permanently applied to that part of the glass or plastic container that is at or above the shoulder of the container.
</P>
<P>(iii) The products listed in paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section, when packaged in containers of 1-pint, 1-quart, and 
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon capacities are exempt from the dual net-contents declaration requirement of § 101.7(j) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Wheat flour products, as defined by §§ 137.105, 137.155, 137.160, 137.165, 137.170, 137.175, 137.180, 137.185, 137.200, and 137.205 of this chapter, packaged:
</P>
<P>(i) In conventional 2-, 5-, 10-, 25-, 50-, and 100-pound packages are exempt from the placement requirement of § 101.7(f) of this chapter that the declaration of net contents be located within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the principal display panel of the label; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In conventional 2-pound packages are exempt from the dual net-contents declaration requirement of § 101.107 of this chapter provided the quantity of contents is expressed in pounds.
</P>
<P>(9)(i) Twelve shell eggs packaged in a carton designed to hold 1 dozen eggs and designed to permit the division of such carton by the retail customer at the place of purchase into two portions of one-half dozen eggs each are exempt from the labeling requirements of this part with respect to each portion of such divided carton if the carton, when undivided, is in conformance with the labeling requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Twelve shell eggs packaged in a carton designed to hold 1 dozen eggs are exempt from the placement requirements for the declaration of contents prescribed by § 101.7(f) of this chapter if the required content declaration is otherwise placed on the principal display panel of such carton and if, in the case of such cartons designed to permit division by retail customers into two portions of one-half dozen eggs each, the required content declaration is placed on the principal display panel in such a manner that the context of the content declaration is destroyed upon division of the carton.
</P>
<P>(10) Butter as defined in 42 Stat. 1500 (excluding whipped butter):
</P>
<P>(i) In 8-ounce and in 1-pound packages is exempt from the requirements of § 101.7(f) of this chapter that the net contents declaration be placed within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the principal display panel;
</P>
<P>(ii) In 1-pound packages is exempt from the requirements of § 101.7(j)(1) of this chapter that such declaration be in terms of ounces and pounds, to permit declaration of “1-pound” or “one pound”; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In 4-ounce, 8-ounce, and 1-pound packages with continuous label copy wrapping is exempt from the requirements of §§ 101.3 and 101.7(f) of this chapter that the statement of identity and net contents declaration appear in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed, provided that such statement and declaration are not so positioned on the label as to be misleading or difficult to read as the package is customarily displayed at retail.
</P>
<P>(11) Margarine as defined in § 166.110 of this chapter and imitations thereof in 1-pound rectangular packages, except for packages containing whipped or soft margarine or packages that contain more than four sticks, are exempt from the requirement of § 101.7(f) of this chapter that the declaration of the net quantity of contents appear within the bottom 30 percent of the principal display panel and from the requirement of § 101.7(j)(1) of this chapter that such declaration be expressed both in ounces and in pounds to permit declaration of “1-pound” or “one pound,” provided an accurate statement of net weight appears conspicuously on the principal display panel of the package.
</P>
<P>(12) Corn flour and related products, as they are defined by §§ 137.211, 137.215, and §§ 137.230 through 137.290 of this chapter, packaged in conventional 5-, 10-, 25-, 50-, and 100-pound bags are exempt from the placement requirement of § 101.7(f) of this chapter that the declaration of net contents be located within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the principal display panel of the label.
</P>
<P>(13)(i) Single strength and less than single strength fruit juice beverages, imitations thereof, and drinking water when packaged in glass or plastic containers of 
<FR>1/2</FR>-pint, 1-pint, 1-quart, 
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon, and 1-gallon capacities are exempt from the placement requirement of § 101.7(f) of this chapter that the declaration of net contents be located within the bottom 30 percent of the principal display panel: <I>Provided,</I> That other required label information is conspicuously displayed on the cap or outside closure and the required net quantity of contents declaration is conspicuously blown, formed, or molded into or permanently applied to that part of the glass or plastic container that is at or above the shoulder of the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) Single strength and less than single strength fruit juice beverages, imitations thereof, and drinking water when packaged in glass, plastic, or paper (fluid milk type) containers of 1-pint, 1-quart, and 
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon capacities are exempt from the dual net-contents declaration requirement of § 101.7(j) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Single strength and less than single strength fruit juice beverages, imitations thereof, and drinking water when packaged in glass, plastic, or paper (fluid milk type) containers of 8- and 64-fluid-ounce capacity, are exempt from the requirements of § 101.7(b)(2) of this chapter to the extent that net contents of 8 fluid ounces and 64 fluid ounces (or 2 quarts) may be expressed as 
<FR>1/2</FR> pint (or half pint) and 
<FR>1/2</FR> gallon (or half gallon), respectively.
</P>
<P>(14) The unit containers in a multiunit or multicomponent retail food package shall be exempt from regulations of section 403 (e)(1), (g)(2), (i)(2), (k), and (q) of the act with respect to the requirements for label declaration of the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor; label declaration of ingredients; and nutrition information when:
</P>
<P>(i) The multiunit or multicomponent retail food package labeling meets all the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) The unit containers are securely enclosed within and not intended to be separated from the retail package under conditions of retail sale; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Each unit container is labeled with the statement “This Unit Not Labeled For Retail Sale” in type size not less than one-sixteenth of an inch in height. The word “Individual” may be used in lieu of or immediately preceding the word “Retail” in the statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Drugs.</I> Liquid over-the-counter veterinary preparations intended for injection shall be exempt from the declaration of net quantity of contents in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid-ounce subdivisions thereof as required by § 201.62 (b), (i), and (j) of this chapter, and from the dual declaration requirements of § 201.62(i) of this chapter, if such declaration of net quantity of contents is expressed in terms of the liter and milliliter, or cubic centimeter, with the volume expressed at 68 °F (20 °C).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cosmetics.</I> Cosmetics in packages containing less than one-fourth ounce avoirdupois or one-eighth fluid ounce shall be exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 602(b)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and section 4(a)(2) of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act:
</P>
<P>(1) When such cosmetics are affixed to a display card labeled in conformance with all labeling requirements of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) When such cosmetics are sold at retail as part of a cosmetic package consisting of an inner and outer container and the inner container is not for separate retail sale and the outer container is labeled in conformance with all labeling requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 946, Jan. 8, 1982; 47 FR 32421, July 27, 1982; 49 FR 13339, Apr. 4, 1984; 54 FR 9033, Mar. 3, 1989; 58 FR 2174, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 14478, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016; 85 FR 72906, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Electronic Import Entries</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 85870, Nov. 29, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1.70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.70   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart specifies the data elements that are required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to be included in an electronic import entry submitted in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) system or any other U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)-authorized electronic data interchange (EDI) system, which contains an article that is being imported or offered for import into the United States and that is regulated by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.71" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.71   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of subpart D:
</P>
<P><I>ACE filer</I> means the person who is authorized to submit an electronic import entry for an FDA-regulated product in the Automated Commercial Environment or any other CBP-authorized EDI system.
</P>
<P><I>Acidified food</I> means acidified food, as defined in § 114.3(b) of this chapter, and subject to the requirements in parts 108 and 114 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Automated Commercial Environment</I> or <I>ACE</I> means the automated and electronic system for processing commercial importations that is operated by U.S. Customs and Border Protection in accordance with the National Customs Automation Program established in Subtitle B of Title VI—Customs Modernization, in the North American Free Trade Agreement Implementation Act (Pub. L. 103-182, 107 Stat. 2057, 2170, December 8, 1993) (Customs Modernization Act), or any other CBP-authorized EDI system.
</P>
<P><I>Biological product</I> means a biological product as defined in section 351(i)(1) of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P><I>Cosmetic</I> means a cosmetic as defined in section 201(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>CBP or U.S. Customs and Border Protection</I> means the Federal Agency that is primarily responsible for maintaining the integrity of the borders and ports of entry of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Drug</I> means those articles meeting the definition of a drug in section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>FDA or Agency</I> means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> means food as defined in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Food contact substance</I> means any substance, as defined in section 409(h)(6) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, that is intended for use as a component of materials used in manufacturing, packing, packaging, transporting, or holding food if such use is not intended to have any technical effect in such food.
</P>
<P><I>HCT/Ps</I> means human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products, as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Low-acid canned food</I> means a thermally processed low-acid food (as defined in § 113.3(n) of this chapter) in a hermetically sealed container (as defined in § 113.3(j) of this chapter), and subject to the requirements in parts 108 and 113 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Medical device</I> means a device as defined in section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, that is intended for use in humans.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation-emitting electronic product</I> means an electronic product as defined in section 531 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product</I> means a tobacco product as defined in section 201(rr) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Veterinary device</I> means a device as defined in section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, that is intended for use in animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 85870, Nov. 29, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 62984, Oct. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.72" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.72   Data elements that must be submitted in ACE for articles regulated by FDA.</HEAD>
<P><I>General.</I> When filing an entry in ACE, the ACE filer shall submit the following information for food contact substances, drugs, biological products, HCT/Ps, medical devices, veterinary devices, radiation-emitting electronic products, cosmetics, and tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Product identifying information</I> for the article that is being imported or offered for import. This consists of:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>FDA Country of Production,</I> which is the country where the article was last manufactured, processed, or grown (including harvested, or collected and readied for shipment to the United States). The FDA Country of Production for an article that has undergone any manufacturing or processing is the country where that activity occurred provided that the manufacturing or processing had more than a minor, negligible, or insignificant effect on the article.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The Complete FDA Product Code,</I> which must be consistent with the invoice description of the product.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>The Full Intended Use Code.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Importer of record contact information,</I> which is the telephone and email address of the importer of record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 85870, Nov. 29, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 62984, Oct. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.73" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.73   Food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Food contact substances.</I> An ACE filer must submit the information specified in § 1.72 at the time of filing entry in ACE for food that is a food contact substance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Low-acid canned food.</I> For an article of food that is a low-acid canned food, the ACE filer must submit at the time of filing entry the Food Canning Establishment Number and the Submission Identifier, and can dimensions or volume, except that the ACE filer does not need to submit this information in ACE at the time of entry if the article is being imported or offered for import for laboratory analysis only and will not be taste tested or otherwise ingested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acidified food.</I> For an article of food that is an acidified food, the ACE filer must submit at the time of filing entry the Food Canning Establishment Number and the Submission Identifier, and can dimensions or volume, except that the ACE filer does not need to submit this information in ACE at the time of entry if the article is being imported or offered for import for laboratory analysis only and will not be taste tested or otherwise ingested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.74" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.74   Human drugs.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the data required to be submitted in § 1.72, an ACE filer must submit the following information at the time of filing entry in ACE for drugs, including biological products and eligible prescription drugs as defined in § 251.2 of this chapter that are imported or offered for import under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, intended for human use that are regulated by the FDA Center for Drug Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(a) For a drug intended for human use that is not an eligible prescription drug covered under paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Registration and listing.</I> The Drug Registration Number and the Drug Listing Number of the foreign establishment where the human drug was manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed before being imported or offered for import into the United States is required to register and list the drug under part 207 of this chapter. For the purposes of this section, the Drug Registration Number that must be submitted at the time of entry filing in ACE is the unique facility identifier of the foreign establishment where the human drug was manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed before being imported or offered for import into the United States.  The unique facility identifier is the identifier submitted by a registrant in accordance with the system specified under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. For the purposes of this section, the Drug Listing Number is the National Drug Code number of the human drug article being imported or offered for import.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drug application number.</I> For a drug intended for human use that is the subject of an approved application under section 505(b) or 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the number of the new drug application or abbreviated new drug application. For a biological product regulated by the FDA Center for Drug Evaluation and Research that is required to have an approved biologics license application, the number of the applicable application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investigational new drug application number.</I> For a drug intended for human use that is the subject of an investigational new drug application under section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the number of the investigational new drug application.
</P>
<P>(b) For an eligible prescription drug as defined in § 251.2 of this chapter that is imported or offered for import under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Registration and listing.</I> The Drug Registration Number and the Drug Listing Number. For the purposes of this section, the Drug Registration Number that must be submitted in ACE is the unique facility identifier submitted by the Foreign Seller registrant under § 251.9 of this chapter in accordance with the system specified under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. For the purposes of this section, the Drug Listing Number is the National Drug Code number that the Importer will use when relabeling the eligible prescription drug as required in § 251.13 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drug application number.</I> The number of the new drug application or abbreviated new drug application for the counterpart FDA-approved drug.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lot or control number.</I> The lot or control number assigned by the manufacturer of the eligible prescription drug.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>FDA Quantity.</I> FDA Quantity, which is the quantity of each eligible prescription drug in an import line delineated by packaging level, including the type of package from the largest packaging unit to the smallest packaging unit; the quantity of each packaging unit; and the volume and/or weight of each of the smallest of the packaging units.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pre-Import Request number.</I> The Pre-Import Request number assigned by FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 62125, Oct. 1, 2020, as mended at 86 FR 17060, Apr. 1, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.75" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.75   Animal drugs and veterinary devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Animal drugs.</I> In addition to the data required to be submitted in § 1.72, an ACE filer must submit the following information at the time of filing entry in ACE for animal drugs:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Registration and listing.</I> For a drug intended for animal use, the Drug Registration Number and the Drug Listing Number if the foreign establishment where the drug was manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed before being imported or offered for import into the United States is required to register and list the drug under part 207 of this chapter. For the purposes of this section, the Drug Registration Number that must be submitted in ACE at the time of entry is the Unique Facility Identifier of the foreign establishment where the animal drug was manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed before being imported or offered for import into the United States. The Unique Facility Identifier is the identifier submitted by a registrant in accordance with the system specified under section 510(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. For the purposes of this section, the Drug Listing Number is the National Drug Code number of the animal drug article being imported or offered for import.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New animal drug application number.</I> For a drug intended for animal use that is the subject of an approved application under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the number of the new animal drug application or abbreviated new animal drug application. For a drug intended for animal use that is the subject of a conditionally approved application under section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the application number for the conditionally approved new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Veterinary minor species index file number.</I> For a drug intended for use in animals that is the subject of an Index listing under section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Minor Species Index File number of the new animal drug on the Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investigational new animal drug file number.</I> For a drug intended for animal use that is the subject of an investigational new animal drug or generic investigational new animal drug file under part 511 of this chapter, the number of the investigational new animal drug or generic investigational new animal drug file.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Veterinary devices.</I> An ACE filer must submit the data specified in § 1.72 at the time of filing entry in ACE for veterinary devices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 62984, Oct. 18, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.76" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.76   Medical devices.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the data required to be submitted in § 1.72, an ACE filer must submit the following information at the time of filing entry in ACE for medical devices regulated by the FDA Center for Devices and Radiological Health.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Registration and listing.</I> For a medical device, the Registration Number for Foreign Manufacturers, Foreign Exporters, and/or Domestic Manufacturers, and the Device Listing Number, required under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigational devices.</I> For an investigational medical device that has an investigational device exemption granted under section 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Investigational Device Exemption Number. For an investigational medical device being imported or offered for import for use in a nonsignificant risk or exempt study, “NSR” to be entered in the Affirmation of Compliance for the “investigational device exemption” that identifies the device as being used in a nonsignificant risk or exempt study.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Premarket number.</I> For a medical device that has one, the Premarket Number. This is the Premarket Approval Number for those medical devices that have received premarket approval under section 515 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the Product Development Protocol Number for those medical devices for which FDA has declared the product development protocol complete under section 515(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the De Novo number for those medical devices granted marketing authorization under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the Premarket Notification Number for those medical devices that received premarket clearance under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or the Humanitarian Device Exemption Number for those medical devices for which an exemption has been granted under section 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Component.</I> If applicable for a medical device, an affirmation identifying that the article being imported or offered for import is a component that requires further processing or inclusion into a finished medical device.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Lead wire/patient cable.</I> For electrode lead wires and patient cables intended for use with a medical device, an Affirmation of Compliance with the applicable performance standard under § 898.12 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Impact resistant lens.</I> For impact resistant lenses in eyeglasses and sunglasses, an Affirmation of Compliance with the applicable requirements of § 801.410 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Convenience kit.</I> If applicable for a medical device, an Affirmation of Compliance that the article imported or offered for import is a convenience kit or part of a convenience kit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.77" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.77   Radiation-emitting electronic products.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the data required to be submitted in § 1.72, an ACE filer must submit all of the declarations required in Form FDA 2877 electronically in ACE at the time of filing entry for products subject to the standards under parts 1020-1050 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.78" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.78   Biological products, HCT/Ps, and related drugs and medical devices.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the data required to be submitted in § 1.72, an ACE filer must submit the following information at the time of filing entry in ACE for biological products, HCT/Ps, and related drugs and medical devices regulated by the FDA Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Product name</I> which identifies the article being imported or offered for import by the name commonly associated with that article including the established name, trade name, brand name, proper name, or product description if the article does not have an established name, trade name, brand name, or proper name.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>HCT/P registration and affirmation.</I> (1) For an HCT/P regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations in part 1271 of this chapter that is manufactured by an establishment that is required to be registered under part 1271 of this chapter, the HCT/P Registration Number; and
</P>
<P>(2) For an HCT/P regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations in part 1271 of this chapter, an Affirmation of Compliance with the applicable requirements of part 1271 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Licensed biological products.</I> For a biological product that is the subject of an approved biologics license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, the Submission Tracking Number of the biologics license application and/or the Biologics License Number.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Drug registration.</I> For a drug intended for human use, the Drug Registration Number if the foreign establishment where the human drug was manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed before being imported or offered for import into the United States is required to register the drug under part 207 or part 607 of this chapter as applicable. For the purposes of this section, the Drug Registration Number that must be submitted at the time of entry in ACE is the unique facility identifier of the foreign establishment where the human drug was manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed before being imported or offered for import into the United States. The unique facility identifier is the identifier submitted by a registrant in accordance with the system specified under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Drug application number.</I> For a drug intended for human use that is the subject of an approved application under section 505(b) or 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the number of the new drug application or the abbreviated new drug application.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigational new drug application number.</I> For a drug intended for human use that is the subject of an investigational new drug application under section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the number of the investigational new drug application.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Medical device registration and listing.</I> For a medical device subject to the registration and listing procedures contained in part 807 of this chapter, the Registration Number for Foreign Manufacturers, Foreign Exporters, and/or Domestic Manufacturers, and the Device Listing Number, required under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Investigational devices.</I> For an investigational medical device that has an investigational device exemption granted under section 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Investigational Device Exemption Number. For an investigational medical device being imported or offered for import for use in a nonsignificant risk or exempt study, “NSR” to be entered in the Affirmation of Compliance for the “investigational device exemption” that identifies the device as being used in a nonsignificant risk or exempt study.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical device premarket number.</I> For a medical device that has one, the Premarket Number. This is the Premarket Approval Number for those medical devices that have received premarket approval under section 515 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the Product Development Protocol Number for those medical devices for which FDA has declared the product development protocol complete under section 515(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the De Novo number for those medical devices granted marketing authorization under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the Premarket Notification Number for those medical devices that received premarket clearance under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or the Humanitarian Device Exemption Number for those medical devices for which an exemption has been granted under section 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Medical device component.</I> If applicable for a medical device, an affirmation identifying that the article being imported or offered for import is a component that requires further processing or inclusion into a finished medical device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 85870, Nov. 29, 2016, as mended at 86 FR 17060, Apr. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.79" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.79   Tobacco products.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the data required to be submitted in § 1.72, an ACE filer must submit the following information at the time of filing entry in ACE.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Brand name</I> of an article that is a tobacco product that is being imported or offered for import. If the article does not have a specific brand name, the ACE filer must submit a commercial name for the brand name. This data element is not applicable to those products solely intended either for further manufacturing or as investigational tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.80   Cosmetics.</HEAD>
<P>An ACE filer must submit the data specified in § 1.72 at the time of filing entry in ACE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.81" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.4.49.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.81   Rejection of entry filing.</HEAD>
<P>FDA may reject an entry filing for failure to provide complete and accurate information that is required pursuant to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Imports and Exports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.83" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.83   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of regulations prescribed under section 801(a), (b), and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>owner</I> or <I>consignee</I> means the person who makes entry under the provisions of section 484 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484), namely, the “importer of record.”
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>division director</I> means the director of the division of the Food and Drug Administration having jurisdiction over the port of entry through which an article is imported or offered for import, or such officer of the division as he or she may designate to act on his or her behalf in administering and enforcing the provisions of section 801(a), (b), and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 81 FR 85872, Nov. 29, 2016; 85 FR 50781, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.90   Notice of sampling.</HEAD>
<P>When a sample of an article offered for import has been requested by the division director, FDA shall provide to the owner or consignee prompt notice of delivery of, or intention to deliver, such sample. Upon receipt of the notice, the owner or consignee shall hold such article and not distribute it until further notice from the division director or U.S. Customs and Border Protection of the results of examination of the sample.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 50781, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.91" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.91   Payment for samples.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration will pay for all import samples which are found to be in compliance with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Billing for reimbursement should be made by the owner or consignee to the Food and Drug Administration division where the shipment was offered for import. Payment for samples will not be made if the article is found to be in violation of the act, even though subsequently brought into compliance under the terms of an authorization to bring the article into compliance or rendered not a food, drug, device, or cosmetic as set forth in § 1.95.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 85 FR 50781, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.94" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.94   Hearing on refusal of admission or destruction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If it appears that the article may be subject to refusal of admission or that the article is a drug or device that may be subject to destruction under section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the division director shall give the owner or consignee a written or electronic notice to that effect, stating the reasons therefor. The notice shall specify a place and a period of time during which the owner or consignee shall have an opportunity to introduce testimony. Upon timely request giving reasonable grounds therefor, such time and place may be changed. Such testimony shall be confined to matters relevant to the admissibility or destruction of the article, and may be introduced orally or in writing.




</P>
<P>(b) If such owner or consignee submits or indicates his or her intention to submit an application for authorization to relabel or perform other action to bring the article into compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or to render it other than a food, drug, device, or cosmetic, such testimony shall include evidence in support of such application. If such application is not submitted at or prior to the hearing on refusal of admission, the division director shall specify a time limit, reasonable in the light of the circumstances, for filing such application.


</P>
<P>(c) If the article is a drug or device that may be subject to destruction under section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the division director may give the owner or consignee a single written or electronic notice that provides the notice of refusal of admission and the notice of destruction of an article described in paragraph (a) of this section. The division director may also combine the hearing on refusal of admission with the hearing on destruction of the article described in paragraph (a) of this section into a single proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55242, Sept. 15, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 85873, Nov. 29, 2016; 85 FR 50781, Aug. 18, 2020; 89 FR 47080, May 31, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.95" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.95   Application for authorization to relabel and recondition.</HEAD>
<P>Application for authorization to relabel or perform other action to bring the article into compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or to render it other than a food, drug, device, or cosmetic may be filed only by the owner or consignee, and shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Contain detailed proposals for bringing the article into compliance with the act or rendering it other than a food, drug, device, or cosmetic.
</P>
<P>(b) Specify the time and place where such operations will be carried out and the approximate time for their completion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 85 FR 50781, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.96" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.96   Granting of authorization to relabel and recondition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When authorization of a proposal under § 1.95 is granted by the division director, the applicant shall be notified of authorization, in writing, which may include:
</P>
<P>(1) The procedure to be followed;
</P>
<P>(2) The disposition of the rejected articles or portions thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) That the operations are to be carried out under the supervision of an officer of the Food and Drug Administration or U.S. Customs and Border Protection, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(4) A time limit, reasonable in the light of the circumstances, for completion of the operations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other conditions as are necessary to maintain adequate supervision and control over the article.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a written request for extension of time to complete such operations, containing reasonable grounds therefor, the division director may grant such additional time as he or she deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) An authorization may be amended upon a showing of reasonable grounds therefor and the filing of an amended application for authorization with the division director.
</P>
<P>(d) If ownership of an article covered by an authorization changes before the operations specified in the authorization have been completed, the original owner will be held responsible, unless the new owner has executed a bond with U.S. Customs and Border Protection and obtained a new authorization from the Food and Drug Administration division director. Any authorization granted under this section shall supersede and nullify any previously granted authorization with respect to the article.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 9033, Mar. 3, 1989; 85 FR 50781, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.97" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.97   Bonds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The bond requirements under section 801(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act may be satisfied by the owner or consignee executing, on the appropriate U.S. Customs and Border Protection form, a single-transaction or continuous bond, containing a condition for the redelivery of the merchandise or any part thereof upon demand of U.S. Customs and Border Protection and containing a provision for the performance of conditions as may legally be imposed for the relabeling or other action necessary to bring the article into compliance with the act or rendering it other than a food, drug, device, or cosmetic, in such manner as is prescribed for such bond in the customs regulations in force on the date of request for authorization. The bond shall be filed with U.S. Customs and Border Protection.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S. Customs and Border Protection may cancel the liability for liquidated damages incurred under the above-mentioned provisions of such a bond, if U.S. Customs and Border Protection receives an application for relief therefrom, upon the payment of a lesser amount or upon such other terms and conditions as shall be deemed appropriate under the law and in view of the circumstances, but U.S. Customs and Border Protection shall not act under this regulation unless the Food and Drug Administration division director is in full agreement with the action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 50782, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.99" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.99   Costs chargeable in connection with relabeling and reconditioning inadmissible imports.</HEAD>
<P>The cost of supervising the relabeling or other action in connection with an import of food, drugs, devices, or cosmetics which fails to comply with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall be paid by the owner or consignee who files an application requesting such action and executes a bond, pursuant to section 801(b) of the act, as amended. The cost of such supervision shall include, but not be restricted to, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Travel expenses of the supervising officer.
</P>
<P>(b) Per diem in lieu of subsistence of the supervising officer when away from his or her home station, as provided by law.
</P>
<P>(c) The charge for the services of the supervising officer, which shall include administrative support, shall be computed at a rate per hour equal to 267 percent of the hourly rate of regular pay of a grade GS-11/4 employee, except that such services performed by a customs officer and subject to the provisions of the act of February 13, 1911, as amended (sec. 5, 36 Stat. 901, as amended (19 U.S.C. 267)), shall be calculated as provided in that act.
</P>
<P>(d) The charge for the service of the analyst, which shall include administrative and laboratory support, shall be computed at a rate per hour equal to 267 percent of the hourly rate of regular pay of a grade GS-12/4 employee. The rate per hour equal to 267 percent of the equivalent hourly rate of regular pay of the supervising officer (GS-11/4) and the analyst (GS-12/4) is computed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hours
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gross number of working hours in 52 40-hr weeks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">10 legal public holidays—New Year's Day, Birthday of Martin Luther King, Jr., Washington's Birthday, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Columbus Day, Veterans Day, Thanksgiving Day, and Christmas Day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Annual leave—26 d</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">208
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sick leave—13 d</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">392
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Net number of working hours</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,688
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gross number of working hours in 52 40-hr weeks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Working hour equivalent of Government contributions for employee retirement, life insurance, and health benefits computed at 8
<fr>1/2</fr> pct. of annual rate of pay of employee</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Equivalent annual working hours</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Support required to equal to 1 person-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Equivalent gross annual working hours charged to Food and Drug appropriation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,512
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Ratio of equivalent gross annual number of working hours charged to Food and Drug appropriation to net number of annual working hours 4,512/1,688 = 267 pct.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) The minimum charge for services of supervising officers and of analysts shall be not less than the charge for 1 hour, and time after the first hour shall be computed in multiples of 1 hour, disregarding fractional parts less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> hour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15553, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 85 FR 50782, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.5.49.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.101   Notification and recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section pertains to notifications and records required for human drug, biological product, device, animal drug, food, cosmetic, and tobacco product exports under sections 801 or 802 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or (21 U.S.C. 381 and 382) or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recordkeeping requirements for human drugs, biological products, devices, animal drugs, foods, cosmetics, and tobacco products exported under or subject to section 801(e)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</I> Persons exporting an article under section 801(e)(1) of the act or an article otherwise subject to section 801(e)(1) of the act shall maintain records as enumerated in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4) of this section demonstrating that the product meets the requirements of section 801(e)(1) of the act. Such records shall be maintained for the same period of time as required for records subject to good manufacturing practice or quality systems regulations applicable to the product, except that records pertaining to the export of foods and cosmetics under section 801(e)(1) of the act shall be kept for 3 years after the date of exportation. The records shall be made available to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), upon request, during an inspection for review and copying by FDA.
</P>
<P>(1) Records demonstrating that the product meets the foreign purchaser's specifications: The records must contain sufficient information to match the foreign purchaser's specifications to a particular export;
</P>
<P>(2) Records demonstrating that the product does not conflict with the laws of the importing country: This may consist of either a letter from an appropriate foreign government agency, department, or other authorized body stating that the product has marketing approval from the foreign government or does not conflict with that country's laws, or a notarized certification by a responsible company official in the United States that the product does not conflict with the laws of the importing country and that includes a statement acknowledging that he or she is subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 1001;
</P>
<P>(3) Records demonstrating that the product is labeled on the outside of the shipping package that it is intended for export: This may consist of copies of any labels or labeling statements, such as “For export only,” that are placed on the shipping packages or, if the exported product does not have a shipping package or container, on shipping invoices or other documents accompanying the exported product; and
</P>
<P>(4) Records demonstrating that the product is not sold or offered for sale in the United States: This may consist of production and shipping records for the exported product and promotional materials.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional recordkeeping requirements for partially processed biological products exported under section 351(h) of the Public Health Service Act.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, persons exporting a partially processed biological product under section 351(h) of the Public Health Service Act shall maintain, for the same period of time as required for records subject to good manufacturing practice or quality systems regulations applicable to the product, and make available to FDA, upon request, during an inspection for review and copying by FDA, the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Records demonstrating that the product for export is a partially processed biological product and not in a form applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of diseases or injuries of man;
</P>
<P>(2) Records demonstrating that the partially processed biological product was manufactured in conformity with current good manufacturing practice requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) Records demonstrating the distribution of the exported partially processed biological products; and
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all labeling that accompanies the exported partially processed biological product and other records demonstrating that the exported partially processed biological product is intended for further manufacture into a final dosage form outside the United States; this may include a container label with the statement, “Caution: For Further Manufacturing Use Only” and any package insert.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification requirements for drugs, biological products, and devices exported under section 802 of the act.</I> (1) Persons exporting a human drug, biological product, or device under section 802 of the act, other than a drug, biological product, or device for investigational use exported under section 802(c) of the act, or a drug, biological product, or device exported in anticipation of marketing authorization under section 802(d) of the act, shall provide written notification to FDA. The notification shall identify:
</P>
<P>(i) The product's trade name;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the product is a drug or biological product, the product's abbreviated or proper name or, if the product is a device, the type of device;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the product is a drug or biological product, a description of the product's strength and dosage form or, if the product is a device, the product's model number; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the export is to a country not listed in section 802(b)(1) of the act, the country that is to receive the exported article. The notification may, but is not required to, identify countries listed in section 802(b)(1) of the act or state that the export is intended for a listed country without identifying the listed country.
</P>
<P>(2) The notification shall be sent to the following addresses:
</P>
<P>(i) For biological products and devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research—Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(ii) For human drug products, biological products, and devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research—Office of Drug Security, Integrity and Response, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(iii) For devices—DRP2: Division of Establishment Support, Office of Regulatory Programs, Office of Product Evaluation and Quality, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1423, Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recordkeeping requirements for products subject to section 802(g) of the act.</I> (1) Any person exporting a product under any provision of section 802 of the act shall maintain records of all drugs, biological products, and devices exported and the countries to which the products were exported. In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, such records include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The product's trade name;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the product is a drug or biological product, the product's abbreviated or proper name or, if the product is a device, the type of device;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the product is a drug or biological product, a description of its strength and dosage form and the product's lot or control number or, if the product is a device, the product's model number;
</P>
<P>(iv) The consignee's name and address; and
</P>
<P>(v) The date on which the product was exported and the quantity of product exported.
</P>
<P>(2) These records shall be kept at the site from which the products were exported or manufactured, and be maintained for the same period of time as required for records subject to good manufacturing practice or quality systems regulations applicable to the product. The records shall be made available to FDA, upon request, during an inspection for review and copying by FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 65447, Dec. 19, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 48774, Aug. 11, 2004; 70 FR 14980, Mar. 24, 2005; 74 FR 13112, Mar. 26, 2009; 75 FR 20914, Apr. 22, 2010; 77 FR 5176, Feb. 2, 2012; 80 FR 18090, Apr. 3, 2015; 85 FR 50782, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts F-G [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Registration of Food Facilities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 58960, Oct. 10, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="49" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.49" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.225" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.225   Who must register under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must register your facility under this subpart if you are the owner, operator, or agent in charge of either a domestic or foreign facility, as defined in this subpart, and your facility is engaged in the manufacturing/processing, packing, or holding of food for consumption in the United States, unless your facility qualifies for one of the exemptions in § 1.226.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are an owner, operator, or agent in charge of a domestic facility, you must register your facility whether or not the food from the facility enters interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(c) If you are the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility, you may authorize an individual to register your facility on your behalf.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.226" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.226   Who does not have to register under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart does not apply to the following facilities:
</P>
<P>(a) A foreign facility, if food from such facility undergoes further manufacturing/processing (including packaging) by another facility outside the United States. A facility is not exempt under this provision if the further manufacturing/processing (including packaging) conducted by the subsequent facility consists of adding labeling or any similar activity of a <I>de minimis</I> nature;
</P>
<P>(b) Farms;
</P>
<P>(c) Retail food establishments;
</P>
<P>(d) Restaurants;
</P>
<P>(e) Nonprofit food establishments in which food is prepared for, or served directly to, the consumer;
</P>
<P>(f) Fishing vessels, including those that not only harvest and transport fish but also engage in practices such as heading, eviscerating, or freezing intended solely to prepare fish for holding on board a harvest vessel. However, those fishing vessels otherwise engaged in processing fish are subject to this subpart. For the purposes of this section, “processing” means handling, storing, preparing, shucking, changing into different market forms, manufacturing, preserving, packing, labeling, dockside unloading, holding, or heading, eviscerating, or freezing other than solely to prepare fish for holding on board a harvest vessel;
</P>
<P>(g) Facilities that are regulated exclusively, throughout the entire facility, by the U.S. Department of Agriculture under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>), the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>), or the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>);


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.227" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.227   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this subpart. In addition, for the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Calendar day</I> means every day shown on the calendar.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means any establishment, structure, or structures under one ownership at one general physical location, or, in the case of a mobile facility, traveling to multiple locations, that manufactures/processes, packs, or holds food for consumption in the United States. Transport vehicles are not facilities if they hold food only in the usual course of business as carriers. A facility may consist of one or more contiguous structures, and a single building may house more than one distinct facility if the facilities are under separate ownership. The private residence of an individual is not a facility. Nonbottled water drinking water collection and distribution establishments and their structures are not facilities.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Domestic facility</I> means any facility located in any State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico that manufactures/processes, packs, or holds food for consumption in the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign facility</I> means a facility other than a domestic facility that manufactures/processes, packs, or holds food for consumption in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Primary production farm. A primary production farm is an operation under one management in one general (but not necessarily contiguous) physical location devoted to the growing of crops, the harvesting of crops, the raising of animals (including seafood), or any combination of these activities. The term “farm” includes operations that, in addition to these activities:
</P>
<P>(i) Pack or hold raw agricultural commodities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pack or hold processed food, provided that all processed food used in such activities is either consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management, or is processed food identified in paragraph (1)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacture/process food, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) All food used in such activities is consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any manufacturing/processing of food that is not consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management consists only of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), and packaging and labeling such commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing (an example of additional manufacturing/processing is slicing);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Treatment to manipulate the ripening of raw agricultural commodities (such as by treating produce with ethylene gas), and packaging and labeling treated raw agricultural commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Packaging and labeling raw agricultural commodities, when these activities do not involve additional manufacturing/processing (an example of additional manufacturing/processing is irradiation); or
</P>
<P>(2) Secondary activities farm. A secondary activities farm is an operation, not located on a primary production farm, devoted to harvesting (such as hulling or shelling), packing, and/or holding of raw agricultural commodities, provided that the primary production farm(s) that grows, harvests, and/or raises the majority of the raw agricultural commodities harvested, packed, and/or held by the secondary activities farm owns, or jointly owns, a majority interest in the secondary activities farm. A secondary activities farm may also conduct those additional activities allowed on a primary production farm as described in paragraphs (1)(ii) and (iii) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> has the meaning given in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Except for purposes of this subpart, it does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Food contact substances as defined in section 409(h)(6) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Pesticides as defined in 7 U.S.C. 136(u).
</P>
<P>(2) Examples of food include: Fruits, vegetables, fish, dairy products, eggs, raw agricultural commodities for use as food or as components of food, animal feed (including pet food), food and feed ingredients, food and feed additives, dietary supplements and dietary ingredients, infant formula, beverages (including alcoholic beverages and bottled water), live food animals, bakery goods, snack foods, candy, and canned foods.
</P>
<P><I>Harvesting</I> applies to farms and farm mixed-type facilities and means activities that are traditionally performed on farms for the purpose of removing raw agricultural commodities from the place they were grown or raised and preparing them for use as food. Harvesting is limited to activities performed on raw agricultural commodities, or on processed foods created by drying/dehydrating a raw agricultural commodity without additional manufacturing/processing, on a farm. Harvesting does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of harvesting include cutting (or otherwise separating) the edible portion of the raw agricultural commodity from the crop plant and removing or trimming part of the raw agricultural commodity (<I>e.g.,</I> foliage, husks, roots or stems). Examples of harvesting also include cooling, field coring, filtering, gathering, hulling, shelling, sifting, threshing, trimming of outer leaves of, and washing raw agricultural commodities grown on a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that food, such as fumigating food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying or manipulating food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, irradiating, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that engages in both activities that are exempt from registration under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and activities that require the establishment to be registered. An example of such a facility is a “farm mixed-type facility,” which is an establishment that is a farm, but also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit food establishment</I> means a charitable entity that prepares or serves food directly to the consumer or otherwise provides food or meals for consumption by humans or animals in the United States. The term includes central food banks, soup kitchens, and nonprofit food delivery services. To be considered a nonprofit food establishment, the establishment must meet the terms of section 501(c)(3) of the U.S. Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Packaging</I> (when used as a verb) means placing food into a container that directly contacts the food and that the consumer receives.
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing food into a container other than packaging the food and also includes re-packing and activities performed incidental to packing or re-packing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or re-packing of that food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity, as defined in section 201(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Restaurant</I> means a facility that prepares and sells food directly to consumers for immediate consumption. “Restaurant” does not include facilities that provide food to interstate conveyances, central kitchens, and other similar facilities that do not prepare and serve food directly to consumers.
</P>
<P>(1) Entities in which food is provided to humans, such as cafeterias, lunchrooms, cafes, bistros, fast food establishments, food stands, saloons, taverns, bars, lounges, catering facilities, hospital kitchens, day care kitchens, and nursing home kitchens are restaurants; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pet shelters, kennels, and veterinary facilities in which food is provided to animals are restaurants.
</P>
<P><I>Retail food establishment</I> means an establishment that sells food products directly to consumers as its primary function. The term “retail food establishment” includes facilities that manufacture, process, pack, or hold food if the establishment's primary function is to sell from that establishment food, including food that it manufactures, processes, packs, or holds, directly to consumers. A retail food establishment's primary function is to sell food directly to consumers if the annual monetary value of sales of food products directly to consumers exceeds the annual monetary value of sales of food products to all other buyers. The term “consumers” does not include businesses. A “retail food establishment” includes grocery stores, convenience stores, and vending machine locations. A “retail food establishment” also includes certain farm-operated businesses selling food directly to consumers as their primary function.
</P>
<P>(1) Sale of food directly to consumers from an establishment located on a farm includes sales by that establishment directly to consumers:
</P>
<P>(i) At a roadside stand (a stand situated on the side of or near a road or thoroughfare at which a farmer sells food from his or her farm directly to consumers) or farmers' market (a location where one or more local farmers assemble to sell food from their farms directly to consumers);
</P>
<P>(ii) Through a community supported agriculture program. Community supported agriculture (CSA) program means a program under which a farmer or group of farmers grows food for a group of shareholders (or subscribers) who pledge to buy a portion of the farmer's crop(s) for that season. This includes CSA programs in which a group of farmers consolidate their crops at a central location for distribution to shareholders or subscribers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) At other such direct-to-consumer sales platforms, including door-to-door sales; mail, catalog and Internet order, including online farmers markets and online grocery delivery; religious or other organization bazaars; and State and local fairs.
</P>
<P>(2) Sale of food directly to consumers by a farm-operated business includes the sale of food by that farm-operated business directly to consumers:
</P>
<P>(i) At a roadside stand (a stand situated on the side of or near a road or thoroughfare at which a farmer sells food from his or her farm directly to consumers) or farmers' market (a location where one or more local farmers assemble to sell food from their farms directly to consumers);
</P>
<P>(ii) Through a community supported agriculture program. Community supported agriculture (CSA) program means a program under which a farmer or group of farmers grows food for a group of shareholders (or subscribers) who pledge to buy a portion of the farmer's crop(s) for that season. This includes CSA programs in which a group of farmers consolidate their crops at a central location for distribution to shareholders or subscribers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) At other such direct-to-consumer sales platforms, including door-to-door sales; mail, catalog and Internet order, including online farmers markets and online grocery delivery; religious or other organization bazaars; and State and local fairs.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this definition, “farm-operated business” means a business that is managed by one or more farms and conducts manufacturing/processing not on the farm(s).
</P>
<P><I>Trade name</I> means the name or names under which the facility conducts business, or additional names by which the facility is known. A trade name is associated with a facility, and a brand name is associated with a product.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. agent</I> means a person (as defined in section 201(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321(e))) residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States whom a foreign facility designates as its agent for purposes of this subpart. A U.S. agent may not be in the form of a mailbox, answering machine or service, or other place where an individual acting as the foreign facility's agent is not physically present.
</P>
<P>(1) The U.S. agent acts as a communications link between FDA and the foreign facility for both emergency and routine communications. The U.S. agent will be the person FDA contacts when an emergency occurs, unless the registration specifies another emergency contact.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will treat representations by the U.S. agent as those of the foreign facility, and will consider information or documents provided to the U.S. agent the equivalent of providing the information or documents to the foreign facility. FDA will consider the U.S. agent the equivalent of the registrant for purposes of sharing information and communications. The U.S. agent of a foreign facility may view the information submitted in the foreign facility's registration.
</P>
<P>(3) Having a single U.S. agent for the purposes of this subpart does not preclude facilities from having multiple agents (such as foreign suppliers) for other business purposes. A firm's commercial business in the United States need not be conducted through the U.S. agent designated for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>You or registrant</I> means the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility that manufactures/processes, packs, or holds food for consumption in the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56141, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3715, Jan. 22, 2016; 81 FR 45950, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.50" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures for Registration of Food Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.230" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.50.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.230   When must you register or renew your registration?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Registration.</I> You must register before your facility begins to manufacture, process, pack, or hold food for consumption in the United States. You may authorize an individual to register the facility on your behalf.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registration renewal.</I> You must submit a registration renewal containing the information required under § 1.232 every other year, during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31 of each even-numbered year. You may authorize an individual to renew a facility's registration on your behalf. If the individual submitting the registration renewal is not the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, the registration renewal must also include a statement in which the individual certifies that the information submitted is true and accurate, certifies that he/she is authorized to submit the registration renewal, and identifies by name, address, and telephone number, the individual who authorized submission of the registration renewal. In addition, the registration renewal must also identify the individual who authorized submission of the registration renewal by email address, unless FDA has granted a waiver under § 1.245. Each registration renewal must include the name of the individual submitting the registration renewal, and the individual's signature (for the paper option). Each electronic registration renewal must include the name of the individual submitting the renewal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Abbreviated registration renewal process.</I> If you do not have any changes to the information required under § 1.232 since you submitted the preceding registration, registration renewal, or update for your facility, you may use the abbreviated registration renewal process. If you use the abbreviated registration renewal process, you must confirm that no changes have been made to the information required under § 1.232 since you submitted the preceding registration, registration renewal or update, and you must certify that the information submitted is truthful and accurate. Each abbreviated registration renewal must include the name of the individual submitting the abbreviated renewal, and the individual's signature (for the paper option). Each electronic abbreviated registration renewal must include the name of the individual submitting the abbreviated renewal. For abbreviated registration renewals not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, the abbreviated renewal must provide the email address of the individual who authorized submission of the abbreviated renewal, unless FDA has granted a waiver under § 1.245. You must use Form FDA 3537 to submit abbreviated registration renewals to FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45950, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.231" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.50.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.231   How and where do you register or renew your registration?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electronic registration and registration renewal.</I> (1) To register or renew a registration electronically, you must go to <I>http://www.fda.gov/furls,</I> which is available for registration 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. This Web site is available from wherever the Internet is accessible, including libraries, copy centers, schools, and Internet cafes. An individual authorized by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility may also register a facility electronically.
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning on January 4, 2020, you must submit your registration or registration renewal to FDA electronically, unless FDA has granted you a waiver under § 1.245.
</P>
<P>(3) After you submit your electronic registration, FDA will verify the accuracy of your unique facility identifier (UFI) recognized as acceptable by FDA and will also verify that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. FDA will not confirm your registration or provide you with a registration number until FDA verifies the accuracy of your facility's UFI and verifies that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. With respect to electronic registration renewals, after you submit your electronic registration renewal, FDA will provide you with an electronic confirmation of your registration renewal. When you update your facility's UFI as part of your electronic registration renewal, FDA will verify the accuracy of your facility's UFI and will also verify that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. FDA will not provide you with a confirmation of your registration renewal until FDA verifies the accuracy of your UFI and verifies that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration.
</P>
<P>(4) For electronic registrations not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, after submission of the registration, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the registration in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not confirm the registration or provide a registration number until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the submission. With respect to electronic registration renewals, after completion of the electronic registration renewal, FDA will provide an electronic confirmation of the registration renewal. For electronic registration renewals not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the registration renewal in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not provide an electronic confirmation of the registration renewal until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the submission.
</P>
<P>(5) For a foreign facility, after you submit your electronic registration, FDA will verify that the person identified as the U.S. agent for your foreign facility has agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. FDA will not confirm your registration or provide you with a registration number until that person confirms that the person agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. With respect to electronic registration renewals, after you complete your electronic registration renewal, FDA will provide you with an electronic confirmation of your registration renewal. When you update information about your U.S. agent as part of your electronic registration renewal, FDA will verify that the person identified as the U.S. agent for your foreign facility has agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. FDA will not provide you with an electronic confirmation of your registration renewal until that person confirms that the person agreed to serve as your U.S. agent.
</P>
<P>(6) If any information you previously submitted was incorrect at the time of submission, you must immediately update your facility's registration as specified in § 1.234.
</P>
<P>(7) You will be considered registered once FDA electronically sends you your confirmation and registration number.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registration or registration renewal by mail or fax.</I> Beginning January 4, 2020, you must submit your registration or registration renewal to FDA electronically, unless FDA has granted you a waiver under § 1.245. If FDA has granted you a waiver under § 1.245, you may register or renew a registration by mail or by fax.
</P>
<P>(1) You must register or renew a registration (including abbreviated registration renewals) using Form FDA 3537. You may obtain a copy of this form by writing to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr. (HFS-681), College Park, MD 20740 or by requesting the form by phone at 1-800-216-7331 or 301-575-0156.
</P>
<P>(2) When you receive the form, you must fill it out completely and legibly and either mail it to the address in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or fax it to 301-436-2804.
</P>
<P>(3) If any required information on the form is incomplete or illegible when FDA receives it, FDA will return the form to you for revision, provided that your mailing address or fax number is legible and valid. When returning a registration form for revision, FDA will use the means by which the form was received by the Agency (<I>i.e.,</I> by mail or fax).
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will enter complete and legible mailed and faxed registration submissions into its registration system, as soon as practicable, in the order FDA receives them.
</P>
<P>(5) After you submit your registration, FDA will verify the accuracy of your facility's UFI and will also verify that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. FDA will not confirm your registration or provide you with a registration number until FDA verifies the accuracy of your facility's UFI and verifies that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. With respect to registration renewals, after you submit your registration renewal by mail or fax, FDA will provide you with a confirmation of your registration renewal. When you update your facility's UFI as part of your registration renewal, FDA will verify the accuracy of your facility's UFI and will also verify that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. FDA will not provide you with a confirmation of your registration renewal until FDA verifies the accuracy of your UFI and verifies that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration.
</P>
<P>(6) For registrations not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, after submission of the registration by mail or fax, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the registration in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not confirm the registration or provide a registration number until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the submission. With respect to registration renewals, after completion of the registration renewal by mail or fax, FDA will provide a confirmation of the registration renewal. For registration renewals not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the registration renewal in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not provide a confirmation of the registration renewal until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the submission.
</P>
<P>(7) For a foreign facility, after you submit your registration by mail or fax, FDA will verify that the person identified as the U.S. agent for your foreign facility has agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. FDA will not confirm your registration or provide you with a registration number until that person confirms that the person agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. With respect to registration renewals, after you complete your registration renewal by mail or fax, FDA will provide you with a confirmation of your registration renewal. When you update information about your U.S. agent as part of your registration renewal, FDA will verify that the person identified as the U.S. agent for your foreign facility has agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. FDA will not provide you with a confirmation of your registration renewal until that person confirms that the person agreed to serve as your U.S. agent.
</P>
<P>(8) FDA will mail or fax you a copy of the registration as entered, confirmation of registration, and your registration number. When responding to a registration submission, FDA will use the means by which the registration was received by the Agency (<I>i.e.,</I> by mail or fax).
</P>
<P>(9) If any information you previously submitted was incorrect at the time of submission, you must immediately update your facility's registration as specified in § 1.234.
</P>
<P>(10) Your facility is considered registered once FDA enters your facility's registration data into the registration system and the system generates a registration number.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees.</I> No registration fee is required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Language.</I> You must submit all registration information in the English language except an individual's name, the name of a company, the name of a street, and a trade name may be submitted in a foreign language. All information, including these items, must be submitted using the Latin (Roman) alphabet.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45950, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.232" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.50.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.232   What information is required in the registration?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For a domestic and foreign facility, the following information is required:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, full address, and phone number of the facility;
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning October 1, 2020, the facility's UFI recognized as acceptable by FDA;
</P>
<P>(3) The preferred mailing address, if different from that of the facility;
</P>
<P>(4) The name, full address, and phone number of the parent company, if the facility is a subsidiary of the parent company;
</P>
<P>(5) All trade names the facility uses;
</P>
<P>(6) The name, full address, and phone number of the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility. In addition, the email address of the owner, operator, or agent in charge is required, unless FDA has granted you a waiver under § 1.245;
</P>
<P>(7) The applicable food product categories of any food manufactured/processed, packed, or held at the facility as identified on Form FDA 3537;
</P>
<P>(8) The type of activity conducted at the facility for each food product category identified. You may select more than one activity type for each food product category identified. The activity type options are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Ambient human food storage warehouse/holding facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refrigerated human food warehouse/holding facility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Frozen human food warehouse/holding facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) Interstate conveyance caterer/catering point;
</P>
<P>(v) Contract sterilizer;
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeler/relabeler;
</P>
<P>(vii) Manufacturer/processor;
</P>
<P>(viii) Acidified food processor;
</P>
<P>(ix) Low-acid food processor;
</P>
<P>(x) Farm mixed-type facility;
</P>
<P>(xi) Packer/repacker;
</P>
<P>(xii) Salvage operator (reconditioner);
</P>
<P>(xiii) Animal food warehouse/holding facility;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Other activity.
</P>
<P>(9) A statement in which the owner, operator, or agent in charge provides an assurance that FDA will be permitted to inspect the facility at the times and in the manner permitted by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(10) A statement in which the owner, operator, or agent in charge certifies that the information submitted is true and accurate. If the individual submitting the form is not the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, the registration must also include a statement in which the individual certifies that the information submitted is true and accurate, certifies that he/she is authorized to submit the registration, and identifies by name, address, and telephone number, the individual who authorized submission of the registration. In addition, the registration must identify the individual who authorized submission of the registration by email address, unless FDA has granted a waiver under § 1.245. Each registration must include the name of the individual submitting the registration, and the individual's signature (for the paper option).
</P>
<P>(b) For a domestic facility, the following additional information is required:
</P>
<P>(1) The email address for the contact person of the facility;
</P>
<P>(2) An emergency contact phone number and email address if different from the email address for the contact person in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) For a foreign facility, the following additional information is required:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, full address, phone number, and email address of the foreign facility's U.S. agent;
</P>
<P>(2) An emergency contact phone number and email address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45951, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.233" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.50.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.233   Are there optional items included in the registration form?</HEAD>
<P>Yes. FDA encourages, but does not require, you to submit items that are indicated as optional on the Form FDA 3537 that you submit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45952, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.234" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.50.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.234   How and when do you update your facility's registration information?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Update requirements.</I> You must update a facility's registration within 60 calendar days of any change to any of the information previously submitted under § 1.232 (e.g., change of operator, agent in charge, or U.S. agent), except a change of the owner. You may authorize an individual to update a facility's registration on your behalf. For updates not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, the update must provide the email address of the individual who authorized submission of the update, unless FDA has granted a waiver under § 1.245.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cancellation due to ownership changes.</I> If the reason for the update is that the facility has a new owner, the former owner must cancel the facility's registration as specified in § 1.235 within 60 calendar days of the change and the new owner must submit a new registration for the facility as specified in § 1.231. The former owner may authorize an individual to cancel a facility's registration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic update.</I> (1) To update your registration electronically, you must update at <I>http://www.fda.gov/furls.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) After you submit your electronic update, FDA will provide you with an electronic confirmation of your update. When updating UFI information, FDA will verify the accuracy of your facility's UFI and will also verify that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. FDA will not provide you with an electronic confirmation of your registration update until FDA verifies the accuracy of your facility's UFI and verifies that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. For foreign facilities, when updating information about your U.S. agent, FDA will verify that the person identified as the U.S. agent for your foreign facility has agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. FDA will not provide you with an electronic confirmation of your registration update until that person confirms that the person agreed to serve as your U.S. agent.
</P>
<P>(3) For electronic updates not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, after submission of the electronic update, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the update in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not confirm the update to the registration until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the submission.
</P>
<P>(4) Your registration will be considered updated once FDA sends you your update confirmation, unless notified otherwise.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Update by mail or fax.</I> Beginning January 4, 2020, you must submit your update electronically, unless FDA has granted you a waiver under § 1.245. If FDA has granted you a waiver under § 1.245, you may update your facility's registration by mail or by fax.
</P>
<P>(1) You must update your registration using Form FDA 3537. You may obtain a copy of this form by writing to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr. (HFS-681), College Park, MD 20740 or by requesting the form by phone at 1-800-216-7331 or 301-575-0156.
</P>
<P>(2) When you receive the form, you must legibly fill out the sections of the form reflecting your updated information and either mail it to the address in paragraph (d)(1) of this section or fax it to 301-436-2804.
</P>
<P>(3) If the information on the form is incomplete or illegible when FDA receives it, FDA will return the form to you for revision, provided that your mailing address or fax number is legible and valid. When returning a registration form for revision, FDA will use the means by which the registration was received by the Agency (<I>i.e.,</I> by mail or fax).
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will enter complete and legible updates into its registration system as soon as practicable, in the order FDA receives them.
</P>
<P>(5) FDA will then mail to the address or fax to the fax number on the registration form a copy of the update as entered and confirmation of the update. When responding to an update submission, FDA will use the means by which the form was received by the Agency (<I>i.e.,</I> by mail or fax). After you submit your update by mail or fax, FDA will verify the accuracy of your facility's UFI and will also verify that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. FDA will not provide a confirmation of your registration update until FDA verifies the accuracy of your facility's UFI and verifies that the facility-specific address associated with the UFI is the same address associated with your registration. For foreign facilities, when updating information about your U.S. agent, FDA will verify that the person identified as the U.S. agent for your foreign facility has agreed to serve as your U.S. agent. FDA will not provide you with a confirmation of your registration update until that person confirms that the person agreed to serve as your U.S. agent.
</P>
<P>(6) For registration updates not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, after submission of the registration update by mail or fax, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the update in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not confirm the registration update until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the update.
</P>
<P>(7) If any update information you previously submitted was incorrect at the time of submission, you must immediately resubmit your update.
</P>
<P>(8) Your registration will be considered updated once FDA enters your facility's update data into the registration system and the system generates an update confirmation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45952, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.235" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.50.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.235   How and when do you cancel your facility's registration information?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of registration cancellation.</I> You must cancel a registration within 60 calendar days of the reason for cancellation (e.g., your facility ceases operations, ceases providing food for consumption in the United States, or is sold to a new owner).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cancellation requirements.</I> The cancellation of a facility's registration must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The facility's registration number;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the facility is domestic or foreign;
</P>
<P>(3) The facility name and address;
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and email address (if available) of the individual submitting the cancellation;
</P>
<P>(5) For registration cancellations not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, the email address of the individual who authorized submission of the registration cancellation, unless FDA has granted a waiver under § 1.245; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement certifying that the information submitted is true and accurate, and that the person submitting the cancellation is authorized by the facility to cancel its registration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic cancellation.</I> (1) To cancel your registration electronically, you must cancel at <I>http://www.fda.gov/furls.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Once you complete your electronic cancellation, FDA will provide you with an electronic confirmation of your cancellation.
</P>
<P>(3) For registration cancellations not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, after submission of the registration cancellation, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the cancellation in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not confirm the registration cancellation until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the registration cancellation.
</P>
<P>(4) Your registration will be considered cancelled once FDA sends you your cancellation confirmation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cancellation by mail or fax.</I> Beginning January 4, 2020, you must cancel your registration electronically, unless FDA has granted you a waiver under § 1.245. If FDA has granted a waiver under § 1.245, you may cancel your facility's registration by mail or fax.
</P>
<P>(1) You must cancel your registration using Form FDA 3537a. You may obtain a copy of this form by writing to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr. (HFS-681), College Park, MD 20740 or by requesting the form by phone at 1-800-216-7331 or 301-575-0156.
</P>
<P>(2) When you receive the form, you must completely and legibly fill out the form and either mail it to the address in paragraph (d)(1) of this section or fax it to 301-436-2804.
</P>
<P>(3) If the information on the form is incomplete or illegible when FDA receives it, FDA will return the form to you for revision, provided that your mailing address or fax number is legible and valid. When returning a cancellation form for revision, FDA will use the means by which the cancellation was received by the Agency (<I>i.e.,</I> by mail or fax).
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will enter complete and legible mailed and faxed cancellations into its registration system as soon as practicable, in the order FDA receives them.
</P>
<P>(5) FDA will mail to the address or fax to the fax number on the cancellation form a copy of the cancellation as entered and confirmation of the cancellation. When responding to a cancellation, FDA will use the means by which the form was received by the Agency (<I>i.e.,</I> by mail or fax).
</P>
<P>(6) For registration cancellations not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, after submission of the registration cancellation by mail or fax, FDA will verify that the individual identified as having authorized submission of the cancellation in fact authorized the submission on behalf of the facility. FDA will not confirm the registration cancellation until that individual confirms that he or she authorized the registration cancellation.
</P>
<P>(7) Your registration will be considered cancelled once FDA enters your facility's cancellation data into the registration system. FDA will send you your cancellation confirmation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45952, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.51" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.240" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.51.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.240   What other registration requirements apply?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements of this subpart, you must comply with the registration regulations found in part 108 of this chapter, related to emergency permit control, and any other Federal, State, or local registration requirements that apply to your facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.241" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.51.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.241   What are the consequences of failing to register, update, renew, or cancel your registration?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 301 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 331) prohibits the doing of certain acts or causing such acts to be done. Under section 302 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 332), the United States can bring a civil action in Federal court to enjoin a person who commits a prohibited act. Under section 303 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 333), the United States can bring a criminal action in Federal court to prosecute a person who is responsible for the commission of a prohibited act. Under section 306 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 335a), FDA can seek debarment of any person who has been convicted of a felony relating to importation of food into the United States. Failure of an owner, operator, or agent in charge of a domestic or foreign facility to register its facility, renew the registration of its facility, update required elements of its facility's registration, or cancel its registration in accordance with the requirements of this subpart is a prohibited act under section 301(dd) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will consider a registration for a food facility to be expired if the registration is not renewed, as required by § 1.230(b). Thus, if you previously submitted a registration to FDA, but do not submit a registration renewal to FDA during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31 of each even-numbered year, FDA will consider the registration for the facility to be expired. FDA will consider a food facility with an expired registration to have failed to register in accordance with section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will cancel a registration if FDA independently verifies that the facility is no longer in business or has changed owners, and the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility fails to cancel the registration, or if FDA determines that the registration is for a facility that does not exist, is not required to register, or where the information about the facility's address was not updated in a timely manner in accordance with § 1.234(a) or the registration was submitted by a person not authorized to submit the registration under § 1.225. Also, FDA will cancel a registration if the facility's registration has expired because the facility has failed to renew its registration in accordance with § 1.230(b). If FDA cancels a facility's registration, FDA will send a confirmation of the cancellation using contact information submitted by the facility in the registration database.
</P>
<P>(d) If an article of food is imported or offered for import into the United States and a foreign facility that manufactured/processed, packed, or held that article of food has not registered in accordance with this subpart, the disposition of the article of food shall be governed by the procedures set out in subpart I of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45953, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.242" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.51.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.242   What does assignment of a registration number mean?</HEAD>
<P>Assignment of a registration number to a facility means that the facility is registered with FDA. Assignment of a registration number does not in any way convey FDA's approval or endorsement of a facility or its products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.243" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.51.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.243   Is food registration information available to the public?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The list of registered facilities and registration documents submitted under this subpart are not subject to disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552 (the Freedom of Information Act). In addition, any information derived from such list or registration documents that would disclose the identity or location of a specific registered person, is not subject to disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552 (the Freedom of Information Act).
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any information obtained by other means or that has previously been disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.245" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.7.51.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.245   Waiver request.</HEAD>
<P>Under §§ 1.231(a)(2) and (b), 1.234(d), and 1.235(d), beginning January 4, 2020, you must submit your registration, registration renewal, updates, and cancellations to FDA electronically unless FDA has granted a waiver from such requirement. Under § 1.232(a)(6), you must provide the email address of the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility unless FDA has granted a waiver from such requirement. In addition, under §§ 1.230(b) and (c), 1.232(a)(10), 1.234(a), and 1.235(b)(5), registration renewals, abbreviated registration renewals, registrations, updates, and cancellations not submitted by the owner, operator, or agent in charge must include the email address for the individual who authorized the submission, unless FDA has granted a waiver. To request a waiver from these requirements, you must submit a written request to FDA that explains why it is not reasonable for you to submit your registration, registration renewal, update, or cancellation to FDA electronically or to provide the email address of the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility. You must submit your request to: U.S. Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr. (HFS-681), College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45953, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Prior Notice of Imported Food</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="52" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.52" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.276" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.52.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.276   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of terms in section 201 of the act (21 U.S.C. 321) apply when the terms are used in this subpart, unless defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Calendar day</I> means every day shown on the calendar.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Country from which the article originates</I> means FDA Country of Production.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Country from which the article is shipped</I> means the country in which the article of food is loaded onto the conveyance that brings it to the United States or, in the case of food sent by international mail, the country from which the article is mailed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>FDA Country of Production</I> means: (i) For an article of food that is in its natural state, the country where the article of food was grown, including harvested or collected and readied for shipment to the United States. If an article of food is wild fish, including seafood that was caught or harvested outside the waters of the United States by a vessel that is not registered in the United States, the FDA Country of Production is the country in which the vessel is registered. If an article of food that is in its natural state was grown, including harvested or collected and readied for shipment, in a Territory, the FDA Country of Production is the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an article of food that is no longer in its natural state, the country where the article was made; except that, if an article of food is made from wild fish, including seafood, aboard a vessel, the FDA Country of Production is the country in which the vessel is registered. If an article of food that is no longer in its natural state was made in a Territory, the FDA Country of Production is the United States.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Food</I> has the meaning given in section 201(f) of the act, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of this subpart, food does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Food contact substances as defined in section 409(h)(6) of the act (21 U.S.C. 348(h)(6)); or
</P>
<P>(B) Pesticides as defined in 7 U.S.C. 136(u).
</P>
<P>(ii) Examples of food include fruits, vegetables, fish, including seafood, dairy products, eggs, raw agricultural commodities for use as food or as components of food, animal feed (including pet food), food and feed ingredients, food and feed additives, dietary supplements and dietary ingredients, infant formula, beverages (including alcoholic beverages and bottled water), live food animals, bakery goods, snack foods, candy, and canned foods.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Full address</I> means the facility's street name and number; suite/unit number, as appropriate; city; Province or State as appropriate; mail code as appropriate; and country.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Grower</I> means a person who engages in growing and harvesting or collecting crops (including botanicals), raising animals (including fish, which includes seafood), or both.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>International mail</I> means foreign national mail services. International mail does not include express consignment operators or carriers or other private delivery services unless such service is operating under contract as an agent or extension of a foreign mail service.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Manufacturer</I> means the last facility, as that word is defined in § 1.227, that manufactured/processed the food. A facility is considered the last facility even if the food undergoes further manufacturing/processing that consists of adding labeling or any similar activity of a <I>de minimis</I> nature. If the food undergoes further manufacturing/processing that exceeds an activity of a <I>de minimis</I> nature, then the subsequent facility that performed the additional manufacturing/processing is considered the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>No longer in its natural state</I> means that an article of food has been made from one or more ingredients or synthesized, prepared, treated, modified, or manipulated. Examples of activities that render food no longer in its natural state are cutting, peeling, trimming, washing, waxing, eviscerating, rendering, cooking, baking, freezing, cooling, pasteurizing, homogenizing, mixing, formulating, bottling, milling, grinding, extracting juice, distilling, labeling, or packaging. Crops that have been cleaned (e.g., dusted, washed), trimmed, or cooled attendant to harvest or collection or treated against pests, or polished are still in their natural state for purposes of this subpart. Whole fish headed, eviscerated, or frozen attendant to harvest are still in their natural state for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Port of arrival</I> means the water, air, or land port at which the article of food is imported or offered for import into the United States. For an article of food arriving by water or air, this is the port of unloading. For an article of food arriving by land, this is the port where the article of food first crosses the border into the United States. The port of arrival may be different than the port where consumption or warehouse entry or foreign trade zone admission documentation is presented to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Port of entry</I>, in section 801(m) and (l) of the act (21 U.S.C. 381(m) and (l)), means the port of entry as defined in 19 CFR 101.1.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Registration number</I> means the registration number assigned to a facility by FDA under section 415 of the act (21 U.S.C. 350d) and subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Shipper</I> means the owner or exporter of the article of food who consigns and ships the article from a foreign country or the person who sends an article of food by international mail or express consignment operators or carriers or other private delivery service to the United States.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>United States</I> means the Customs territory of the United States (i.e., the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico), but not the Territories.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>You</I> means the person submitting the prior notice, i.e., the submitter or the transmitter, if any.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, as amended at 80 FR 56143, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.277" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.52.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.277   What is the scope of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to all food for humans and other animals that is imported or offered for import into the United States for use, storage, or distribution in the United States, including food for gifts and trade and quality assurance/quality control samples, food for transshipment through the United States to another country, food for future export, and food for use in a U.S. Foreign Trade Zone.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, this subpart does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Food for an individual's personal use when it is carried by or otherwise accompanies the individual when arriving in the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Food that was made by an individual in his/her personal residence and sent by that individual as a personal gift (i.e., for nonbusiness reasons) to an individual in the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Food that is imported then exported without leaving the port of arrival until export;
</P>
<P>(4) Meat food products that at the time of importation are subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(5) Poultry products that at the time of importation are subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of USDA under the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(6) Egg products that at the time of importation are subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of USDA under the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(7) Articles of food subject to Article 27(3) of The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961), i.e., shipped as baggage or cargo constituting the diplomatic bag.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="53" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.53" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements To Submit Prior Notice of Imported Food</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.278" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.278   Who is authorized to submit prior notice?</HEAD>
<P>A prior notice for an article of food may be submitted by any person with knowledge of the required information. This person is the submitter. The submitter also may use another person to transmit the required information on his/her behalf. The person who transmits the information is the transmitter. The submitter and transmitter may be the same person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.279" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.279   When must prior notice be submitted to FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, you must submit the prior notice to FDA and the prior notice submission must be confirmed by FDA for review as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the article of food is arriving by land by road, no less than 2 hours before arriving at the port of arrival;
</P>
<P>(2) If the article of food is arriving by land by rail, no less than 4 hours before arriving at the port of arrival;
</P>
<P>(3) If the article of food is arriving by air, no less than 4 hours before arriving at the port of arrival; or
</P>
<P>(4) If the article of food is arriving by water, no less than 8 hours before arriving at the port of arrival.
</P>
<P>(b) Except in the case of an article of food imported or offered for import by international mail:
</P>
<P>(1) If prior notice is submitted via the Automated Broker Interface/Automated Commercial Environment/International Trade Data System (ABI/ACE/ITDS), you may not submit prior notice more than 30-calendar days before the anticipated date of arrival.
</P>
<P>(2) If prior notice is submitted via the FDA Prior Notice System Interface (FDA PNSI), you may not submit prior notice more than 15-calendar days before the anticipated date of arrival.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, if the article of food is arriving by international mail, you must submit the prior notice before the article of food is sent to the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will notify you that your prior notice has been confirmed for review with a reply message that contains a Prior Notice (PN) Confirmation Number. Your prior notice will be considered submitted and the prior notice time will start when FDA has confirmed your prior notice for review.
</P>
<P>(e) The PN Confirmation Number must accompany any article of food arriving by international mail. The PN Confirmation Number must appear on the Customs Declaration (e.g., CN22 or CN23 or U.S. equivalent) that accompanies the package.
</P>
<P>(f) A copy of the confirmation, including the PN Confirmation Number, must accompany any article of food that is subject to this subpart when it is carried by or otherwise accompanies an individual when arriving in the United States. The copy of the confirmation must be provided to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) or FDA upon arrival.
</P>
<P>(g) The PN Confirmation Number must accompany any article of food for which the prior notice was submitted through the FDA PNSI when the article arrives in the United States and must be provided to CBP or FDA upon arrival.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, as amended at 82 FR 15629, Mar. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.280" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.280   How must you submit prior notice?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must submit the prior notice electronically to FDA. You must submit all prior notice information in the English language, except that an individual's name, the name of a company, and the name of a street may be submitted in a foreign language. All information, including the items listed in the previous sentence, must be submitted using the Latin (Roman) alphabet. Unless paragraph (c) of this section applies, you must submit prior notice through:
</P>
<P>(1) The U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Automated Broker Interface/Automated Commercial Environment/International Trade Data System (ABI/ACE/ITDS); or
</P>
<P>(2) The FDA Prior Notice System Interface (FDA PNSI) at <I>https://www.access.fda.gov/.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) If a customhouse broker's or self-filer's system is not working or if the ABI/ACE/ITDS interface is not working, prior notice must be submitted through the FDA PNSI.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA determines that FDA PNSI or the Operational and Administration System for Import Support (OASIS) is not working, FDA will post prominent notification and instructions at <I>https://www.access.fda.gov</I>—see log-in page. FDA will accept prior notice submissions in the format it deems appropriate during the system(s) outage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, as amended at 82 FR 15629, Mar. 30, 2017; 85 FR 50782, Aug. 18, 2020; 90 FR 46055, Sept. 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.281" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.281   What information must be in a prior notice?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For each article of food that is imported or offered for import into the United States, except by international mail, you must submit the information for the article that is required in paragraphs (a)(1) through (18) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the individual submitting the prior notice and his/her business address, phone number, and e-mail address, and the name and address of the submitting firm, if applicable. If the business address of the individual submitting the prior notice is a registered facility, then the facility's registration number, city, and country may be provided instead of the facility's full address;
</P>
<P>(2) If different from the submitter, the name of the individual and firm, if applicable, transmitting the prior notice on behalf of the submitter and his/her business address, phone number, and e-mail address. If the business address of the individual transmitting the prior notice is a registered facility, then the facility's registration number, city, and country may be provided instead of the facility's full address;
</P>
<P>(3) The entry type;
</P>
<P>(4) The U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) entry identifier (e.g., CBP entry number or in-bond number), if available;
</P>
<P>(5) The identity of the article of food being imported or offered for import, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The complete FDA product code;
</P>
<P>(ii) The common or usual name or market name;
</P>
<P>(iii) The estimated quantity of food that will be shipped, described from largest container to smallest package size; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The lot or code numbers or other identifier of the food if required by the Act or FDA regulations, <I>e.g.,</I> low-acid canned foods, by § 113.60(c) of this chapter; acidified foods, by § 114.80(b) of this chapter; and infant formula, by § 106.80 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) For an article of food that is no longer in its natural state, the identity of the manufacturer, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either the registration number, city, and country of the manufacturer or both the full address of the manufacturer and the reason the registration number is not provided;
</P>
<P>(7) For an article of food that is in its natural state, the name and growing location address of the grower, if known. If the submitter does not know the identity of the grower or, if the article has been consolidated and the submitter does not know the identity of any of the growers, you may provide the name and address of the firm that has consolidated the articles of food from different growers or different growing locations;
</P>
<P>(8) The FDA Country of Production;
</P>
<P>(9) If the shipper is different from the manufacturer, the identity of the shipper, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the shipper; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The full address of the shipper. If the address of the shipper is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the shipper's registered facility;
</P>
<P>(10) The country from which the article is shipped;
</P>
<P>(11) Anticipated arrival information about the article of food being imported or offered for import, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The anticipated port of arrival;
</P>
<P>(ii) The anticipated date on which the article of food will arrive at the anticipated port of arrival;
</P>
<P>(iii) The anticipated time of that arrival; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(11) introductory text and (a)(11)(i) through (iii) of this section, if the article of food is arriving by express consignment operator or carrier, the express consignment operator or carrier tracking number may be submitted in lieu of the information required in paragraphs (a)(11) introductory text and (a)(11)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) The name and full address of the importer. If the business address of the importer is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the importer's registered facility. The identity of the importer is not required for an article of food that is imported or offered for import for transshipment through the United States under a Transportation and Exportation entry;
</P>
<P>(13) The name and full address of the owner if different from the importer or ultimate consignee. If the business address of the owner is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the owner's registered facility. The identity of the owner is not required for an article of food that is imported or offered for import for transshipment through the United States under a Transportation and Exportation entry;
</P>
<P>(14) The name and full address of the ultimate consignee. If the business address of the ultimate consignee is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the ultimate consignee's registered facility. The identity of the ultimate consignee is not required for an article of food that is imported or offered for import for transshipment through the United States under a Transportation and Exportation entry;
</P>
<P>(15) The mode of transportation;
</P>
<P>(16) The Standard Carrier Abbreviation Code (SCAC) or International Air Transportation Association (IATA) code of the carrier which is, or will be, carrying the article of food from the country from which the article is shipped to the United States to the port of arrival, or if this code is not applicable, then the name of the carrier. If the carrier is a privately owned vehicle, the license plate number of the vehicle and the State or Province that issued the license plate number;
</P>
<P>(17) Planned shipment information, as applicable to the mode of transportation and when it exists:
</P>
<P>(i) The Airway Bill number(s) or Bill of Lading number(s), as applicable. This information is not required for an article of food when carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual when entering the United States. If the article of food is arriving by express consignment operator or carrier, the express consignment operator or carrier tracking number may by submitted in lieu of the Airway Bill number(s) or Bill of Lading number(s), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) For food arriving by ocean vessel, the vessel name and voyage number;
</P>
<P>(iii) For food arriving by air carrier, the flight number. If the article of food is arriving by express consignment operator or carrier, the express consignment operator or carrier tracking number may be submitted in lieu of the flight number;
</P>
<P>(iv) For food arriving by truck, bus, or rail, the trip number;
</P>
<P>(v) For food arriving as containerized cargo by water, air, or land, the container number(s). This information is not required for an article of food when carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual when entering the United States; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For food arriving by rail, the car number. This information is not required for an article of food when carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual.
</P>
<P>(18) Any country to which the article has been refused entry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Articles arriving by international mail.</I> For each article of food that is imported or offered for import into the United States by international mail, you must submit the information for the article that is required in paragraphs (b)(1) through (12) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the individual submitting the prior notice and his/her business address, phone number, and e-mail address, and the name and address of the submitting firm, if applicable. If the business address of the individual submitting the prior notice is a registered facility, then the facility's registration number, city, and country may be provided instead of the facility's full address;
</P>
<P>(2) If different from the submitter, the name of the individual and firm, if applicable, transmitting the prior notice on behalf of the submitter and his/her business address, phone number, and e-mail address. If the business address of the individual transmitting the prior notice is a registered facility, then the facility's registration number, city, and country may be provided instead of the facility's full address;
</P>
<P>(3) The entry type (which will be a mail entry);
</P>
<P>(4) The identity of the article of food being imported or offered for import, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The complete FDA product code;
</P>
<P>(ii) The common or usual name or market name;
</P>
<P>(iii) The estimated quantity of food that will be shipped, described from largest container to smallest package size; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The lot or code numbers or other identifier of the food if required by the Act or FDA regulations, <I>e.g.,</I> low-acid canned foods, by § 113.60(c) of this chapter; acidified foods, by § 114.80(b) of this chapter; and infant formula, by § 106.80 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) For an article of food that is no longer in its natural state, the identity of the manufacturer, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either the registration number, city, and country of the manufacturer or both the full address of the manufacturer and the reason the registration number is not provided;
</P>
<P>(6) For an article of food that is in its natural state, the name and growing location address of the grower, if known. If the submitter does not know the identity of the grower or, if the article has been consolidated and the submitter does not know the identity of any of the growers, you may provide the name and address of the firm that has consolidated the articles of food from different growers or different growing locations;
</P>
<P>(7) The FDA Country of Production;
</P>
<P>(8) If the shipper is different from the manufacturer, the identity of the shipper, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the shipper; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The full address of the shipper. If the address of the shipper is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the shipper's registered facility;
</P>
<P>(9) The country from which the article is shipped (i.e., mailed);
</P>
<P>(10) The anticipated date of mailing, and beginning October 1, 2026, the name of the mail service and the mail tracking number;
</P>
<P>(11) The name and address of the U.S. recipient; and
</P>
<P>(12) Any country to which the article has been refused entry.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Refused articles.</I> If the article of food has been refused under section 801(m)(1) of the act and under this subpart, you must submit the information for the article that is required in paragraphs (c)(1) through (19) of this section. However, if the refusal is based on § 1.283(a)(1)(iii) (Untimely Prior Notice), you do not have to resubmit any information previously submitted unless it has changed or the article has been exported and the original prior notice was submitted through ABI/ACE/ITDS. If the refusal is based on § 1.283(a)(1)(ii), you should cancel the previous submission per § 1.282(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the individual submitting the prior notice and his/her business address, phone number, and e-mail address, and the name and address of the submitting firm, if applicable. If the business address of the individual submitting the prior notice is a registered facility, then the facility's registration number, city, and country may be provided instead of the facility's full address;
</P>
<P>(2) If different from the submitter, the name of the individual and firm, if applicable, transmitting the prior notice on behalf of the submitter and his/her business address, phone number, and e-mail address. If the business address of the individual transmitting the prior notice is a registered facility, then the facility's registration number, city, and country may be provided instead of the facility's full address;
</P>
<P>(3) The entry type;
</P>
<P>(4) The CBP entry identifier (e.g., CBP entry number or in-bond number), if available;
</P>
<P>(5) The identity of the article of food being imported or offered for import, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The complete FDA product code;
</P>
<P>(ii) The common or usual name or market name;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity of food that was shipped, described from largest container to smallest package size; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The lot or code numbers or other identifier of the food if required by the Act or FDA regulations, <I>e.g.,</I> low-acid canned foods, by § 113.60(c) of this chapter; acidified foods, by § 114.80(b) of this chapter; and infant formula, by § 106.80 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) For an article of food that is no longer in its natural state, the identity of the manufacturer, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either the registration number, city, and country of the manufacturer or both the full address of the manufacturer and the reason the registration number is not provided;
</P>
<P>(7) For an article of food that is in its natural state, the name and growing location address of the grower, if known. If the submitter does not know the identity of the grower or, if the article has been consolidated and the submitter does not know any of the growers, you may provide the name and address of the firm that has consolidated the articles of food from different growers or different growing locations;
</P>
<P>(8) The FDA Country of Production;
</P>
<P>(9) If the shipper is different from the manufacturer, the identity of the shipper, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the shipper; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The full address of the shipper. If the address of the shipper is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the shipper's registered facility;
</P>
<P>(10) The country from which the article is shipped;
</P>
<P>(11) Arrival information about the article of food being imported or offered for import, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The port of arrival; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the article of food arrived at the port of arrival.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(11) introductory text and (c)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section, if the article of food arrived by express consignment operator or carrier, the express consignment operator or carrier tracking number may be submitted in lieu of the information required in paragraphs (c)(11) introductory text and (c)(11)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) The name and full address of the importer. If the business address of the importer is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the importer's registered facility. The identity of the importer is not required for an article of food that is imported or offered for import for transshipment through the United States under a Transportation and Exportation entry;
</P>
<P>(13) The name and full address of the owner, if different from the importer or ultimate consignee. If the business address of the owner is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the importer's registered facility. The identity of the owner is not required for an article of food that is imported or offered for import for transshipment through the United States under a Transportation and Exportation entry;
</P>
<P>(14) The name and full address of the ultimate consignee. If the business address of the ultimate consignee is a registered facility, you also may submit the registration number of the ultimate consignee's registered facility. The identity of the ultimate consignee is not required for an article of food that is imported or offered for import for transshipment through the United States under a Transportation and Exportation entry;
</P>
<P>(15) The mode of transportation;
</P>
<P>(16) The SCAC or IATA code of the carrier which carried the article of food from the country from which the article is shipped to the United States to the port of arrival, or if this code is not applicable, then the name of the carrier. If the carrier is a privately owned vehicle, the license plate number of the vehicle and the State or Province that issued the license plate number;
</P>
<P>(17) Shipment information, as applicable to the mode of transportation and when it exists:
</P>
<P>(i) The Airway Bill number(s) or Bill of Lading number(s), as applicable; however, this information is not required for an article of food when carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual when entering the United States. If the article of food arrived by express consignment operator or carrier, the express consignment operator or carrier tracking number may be submitted in lieu of the Airway Bill number(s) or Bill of Lading number(s), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) For food that arrived by ocean vessel, the vessel name and voyage number;
</P>
<P>(iii) For food that arrived by air carrier, the flight number. If the article of food arrived by express consignment operator or carrier, the express consignment operator or carrier tracking number may be submitted in lieu of the flight number;
</P>
<P>(iv) For food that arrived by truck, bus, or rail, the trip number;
</P>
<P>(v) For food that arrived as containerized cargo by water, air, or land, the container number(s); however, this information is not required for an article of food when carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual when entering the United States; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For food that arrived by rail, the car number; however, this information is not required for an article of food when carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual;
</P>
<P>(18) The location and address where the article of refused food will be or is being held, the date the article has arrived or will arrive at that location, and identification of a contact at that location.
</P>
<P>(19) Any country to which the article has been refused entry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 25545, May 5, 2011; 82 FR 15629, Mar. 30, 2017; 90 FR 46055, Sept. 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.282" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.282   What must you do if information changes after you have received confirmation of a prior notice from FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) If any of the information required in § 1.281(a), except the information required in:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1.281(a)(5)(iii) (quantity),
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 1.281(a)(11) (anticipated arrival information), or
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 1.281(a)(17) (planned shipment information), changes after you receive notice that FDA has confirmed your prior notice submission for review, you must resubmit prior notice in accordance with this subpart unless the article of food will not be offered for import or imported into the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) If any of the information required in § 1.281(b), except the information required in § 1.281(b)(10) (the anticipated date of mailing), changes after you receive notice that FDA has confirmed your prior notice submission for review, you must resubmit prior notice in accordance with this subpart, unless the article of food will not be offered for import or imported into the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) If you submitted the prior notice via the FDA PNSI, you should cancel the prior notice via the FDA PNSI.
</P>
<P>(c) If you submitted the prior notice via ABI/ACE/ITDS, you should cancel the prior notice via ACE by requesting that CBP cancel the entry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, as amended at 82 FR 15629, Mar. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="54" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.54" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Consequences</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.283" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.54.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.283   What happens to food that is imported or offered for import without adequate prior notice?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each article of food that is imported or offered for import into the United States, except for food arriving by international mail or food carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual, the consequences are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Inadequate prior notice</I>—(i) <I>No prior notice.</I> If an article of food arrives at the port of arrival and no prior notice has been submitted and confirmed by FDA for review, the food is subject to refusal of admission under section 801(m)(1) of the act (21 U.S.C. 381(m)(1)). If an article of food is refused for lack of prior notice, unless U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) concurrence is obtained for export and the article is immediately exported from the port of arrival under CBP supervision, it must be held within the port of entry for the article unless directed by CBP or FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inaccurate prior notice.</I> If prior notice has been submitted and confirmed by FDA for review, but upon review of the notice or examination of the article of food, the notice is determined to be inaccurate, the food is subject to refusal of admission under section 801(m)(1) of the act. If the article of food is refused due to inaccurate prior notice, unless CBP concurrence is obtained for export and the article is immediately exported from the port of arrival under CBP supervision, it must be held within the port of entry for the article unless directed by CBP or FDA.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Untimely prior notice.</I> If prior notice has been submitted and confirmed by FDA for review, but the full time that applies under § 1.279 for prior notice has not elapsed when the article of food arrives, the food is subject to refusal of admission under section 801(m)(1) of the act, unless FDA has already reviewed the prior notice, determined its response to the prior notice, and advised CBP of that response. If the article of food is refused due to untimely prior notice, unless CBP concurrence is obtained for export and the article is immediately exported from the port of arrival under CBP supervision, it must be held within the port of entry for the article unless directed by CBP or FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Status and movement of refused food.</I> (i) An article of food that has been refused under section 801(m)(1) of the act and paragraph (a) of this section shall be considered general order merchandise as described in section 490 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1490).
</P>
<P>(ii) Refused food must be moved under appropriate custodial bond unless immediately exported under CBP supervision. If the food is to be held at the port, FDA must be notified of the location where the food is held at that port before the food is moved there. If the food is to be held at a secure facility outside the port, FDA must be notified of the location of the secure facility before the food is moved there. The refused food shall not be entered and shall not be delivered to any importer, owner, or ultimate consignee. If the food is to be held at a secure facility outside a port, the food must be taken directly to that secure facility.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Segregation of refused foods.</I> If an article of food that is refused is part of a shipment that contains articles of food that have not been placed under hold or other merchandise not subject to this subpart, the refused article of food may be segregated from the rest of the shipment. This segregation must take place where the article is held. FDA or CBP may supervise segregation. If FDA or CBP determines that supervision is necessary, segregation must not take place without supervision.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Costs.</I> Neither FDA nor CBP are liable for transportation, storage, or other expenses resulting from refusal.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Export after refusal.</I> An article of food that has been refused under paragraph (a) of this section may be exported with CBP concurrence and under CBP supervision unless it is seized or administratively detained by FDA or CBP under other authority. If an article of food that has been refused admission under paragraph (a) of this section is exported, the prior notice should be cancelled within 5-business days of exportation.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>No post-refusal submission or request for review.</I> If an article of food is refused under section 801(m)(1) of the Act and no prior notice is submitted or resubmitted in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, no request for FDA review is submitted in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, or export has not occurred in accordance with paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the article of food shall be dealt with as set forth in CBP regulations relating to general order merchandise (19 CFR part 127), except that, unless otherwise agreed to by CBP and FDA, the article may only be sold for export or destroyed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Food carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual.</I> If food carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual arriving in the United States is not for personal use and does not have adequate prior notice or the individual cannot provide FDA or CBP with a copy of the prior notice (PN) confirmation, the food is subject to refusal of admission under section 801(m)(1) of the act. If before leaving the port, the individual does not arrange to have the food held at the port or exported, FDA or CBP may destroy the article of food.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Post-Refusal prior notice submissions.</I> (1) If an article of food is refused under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section (no prior notice) and the food is not exported, prior notice must be submitted in accordance with §§ 1.280 and 1.281(c) within 10 calendar days from the date the notice of refusal was issued or 10 calendar days from the date the response to a request for FDA review under paragraph (d) of this section was issued.
</P>
<P>(2) If an article of food is refused under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section (inaccurate prior notice) and the food is not exported, the prior notice should be canceled in accordance with § 1.282 and you must resubmit prior notice in accordance with §§ 1.280 and 1.281(c) within 10 calendar days from the date the notice of refusal was issued or 10 calendar days from the date the response to a request for FDA review under paragraph (d) of this section was issued.
</P>
<P>(3) Once the prior notice has been submitted or resubmitted and confirmed by FDA for review, FDA will endeavor to review and respond to the prior notice submission within the timeframes set out in § 1.279.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FDA review after refusal.</I> (1) If an article of food has been refused admission under section 801(m)(1) of the act, a request may be submitted asking FDA to review whether the article is subject to the requirements of this subpart under § 1.277, or whether the information submitted in a prior notice is complete and accurate. A request for review may not be used to submit prior notice or to resubmit an inaccurate prior notice.
</P>
<P>(2) A request may be submitted only by the carrier, submitter, importer, owner, or ultimate consignee. A request must identify which one the requester is.
</P>
<P>(3) A request must be submitted in writing to FDA and delivered by fax or e-mail. The location for receipt of a request is listed at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>—see Prior Notice. A request must include all factual and legal information necessary for FDA to conduct its review. Only one request for review may be submitted for each refused article.
</P>
<P>(4) The request must be submitted within 5-calendar days of the refusal. FDA will review and respond within 5-calendar days of receiving the request.
</P>
<P>(5) If FDA determines that the article is not subject to the requirements of this subpart under § 1.277 or that the prior notice submission is complete and accurate, it will notify the requester, the transmitter, and CBP that the food is no longer subject to refusal under section 801(m)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>International mail.</I> If an article of food arrives by international mail with inadequate prior notice or the PN confirmation number is not affixed as required, the parcel will be held by CBP for 72 hours for FDA inspection and disposition. If FDA refuses the article under section 801(m)(1) of the act and there is a return address, the parcel may be returned to sender marked “No Prior Notice—FDA Refused.” If the article is refused and there is no return address or FDA determines that the article of food in the parcel appears to present a hazard, FDA may dispose of or destroy the parcel at its expense. If FDA does not respond within 72 hours of the CBP hold, CBP may return the parcel to the sender or, if there is no return address, destroy the parcel, at FDA expense.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibitions on delivery and transfer.</I> (1) Notwithstanding section 801(b) of the act, an article of food refused under section 801(m)(1) of the act may not be delivered to the importer, owner, or ultimate consignee until prior notice is submitted to FDA in accordance with this subpart, FDA has examined the prior notice, FDA has determined that the prior notice is adequate, and FDA has notified CBP and the transmitter that the article of food is no longer refused admission under section 801(m)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) During the time an article of food that has been refused under section 801(m)(1) of the act is held, the article may not be transferred by any person from the port or other designated secure facility until prior notice is submitted to FDA in accordance with this subpart, FDA has examined the prior notice, FDA has determined that the prior notice is adequate, and FDA has notified CBP and the transmitter that the article of food no longer is refused admission under section 801(m)(1) of the act. After this notification by FDA to CBP and transmitter, entry may be made in accordance with law and regulation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Relationship to other admissibility decisions.</I> A determination that an article of food is no longer refused under section 801(m)(1) of the act is different than, and may come before, determinations of admissibility under other provisions of the act or other U.S. laws. A determination that an article of food is no longer refused under section 801(m)(1) of the act does not mean that it will be granted admission under other provisions of the act or other U.S. laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, as amended at 90 FR 46055, Sept. 25, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.284" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.54.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.284   What are the other consequences of failing to submit adequate prior notice or otherwise failing to comply with this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The importing or offering for import into the United States of an article of food in violation of the requirements of section 801(m) of the act, including the requirements of this subpart, is a prohibited act under section 301(ee) of the act (21 U.S.C. 331(ee)).
</P>
<P>(b) Section 301 of the act prohibits the doing of certain acts or causing such acts to be done.
</P>
<P>(1) Under section 302 of the act (21 U.S.C. 332), the United States can bring a civil action in Federal court to enjoin persons who commit a prohibited act.
</P>
<P>(2) Under sections 301 and 303 of the act (21 U.S.C. 331 and 333), the United States can bring a criminal action in Federal court to prosecute persons who are responsible for the commission of a prohibited act.
</P>
<P>(c) Under section 306 of the act (21 U.S.C. 335a), FDA can seek debarment of any person who has been convicted of a felony relating to importation of food into the United States or any person who has engaged in a pattern of importing or offering for import adulterated food that presents a threat of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.285" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.8.54.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.285   What happens to food that is imported or offered for import from unregistered facilities that are required to register under subpart H of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consequences.</I> If an article of food from a foreign facility that is not registered as required under section 415 of the act (21 U.S.C. 350d) and subpart H of this part is imported or offered for import into the United States, the food is subject to being held under section 801(l) of the act (21 U.S.C. 381(l)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hold.</I> Unless CBP concurrence is obtained for export and the article is immediately exported from the port of arrival, if an article of food has been placed under hold under section 801(l) of the act, it must be held within the port of entry for the article unless directed by CBP or FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Status and movement of held food.</I> (1) An article of food that has been placed under hold under section 801(l) of the act shall be considered general order merchandise as described in section 490 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1490).
</P>
<P>(2) Food under hold under section 801(l) of the act must be moved under appropriate custodial bond unless immediately exported under CBP supervision. If the food is to be held at the port, FDA must be notified of the location where the food is held at the port before the food is moved there. If the food is to be held at a secure facility outside the port, FDA must be notified of the location of the secure facility before the food is moved there. The food subject to hold shall not be entered and shall not be delivered to any importer, owner, or ultimate consignee. If the food is to be held at a secure facility outside a port, the food must be taken directly to that secure facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Segregation of held foods.</I> If an article of food that has been placed under hold under section 801(l) of the act is part of a shipment that contains articles that have not been placed under hold, the food under hold may be segregated from the rest of the shipment. This segregation must take place where the article is held. FDA or CBP may supervise segregation. If FDA or CBP determine that supervision is necessary, segregation must not take place without supervision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Costs.</I> Neither FDA nor CBP will be liable for transportation, storage, or other expenses resulting from any hold.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Export after hold.</I> An article of food that has been placed under hold under section 801(l) of the act may be exported with CBP concurrence and under CBP supervision unless it is seized or administratively detained by FDA or CBP under other authority.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>No registration or request for review.</I> If an article of food is placed under hold under section 801(l) of the Act and no registration number is submitted in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section, or no request for FDA review is submitted in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, or export has not occurred in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, the food shall be dealt with as set forth in CBP regulations relating to general order merchandise (19 CFR part 127). Unless otherwise agreed to by CBP and FDA, the article may only be sold for export or destroyed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Food carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual.</I> If an article of food carried by or otherwise accompanying an individual arriving in the United States is not for personal use and is placed under hold under section 801(l) of the act because it is from a foreign facility that is not registered as required under section 415 of the act and subpart H of this part, the individual may arrange to have the food held at the port or exported. If such arrangements cannot be made, the article of food may be destroyed.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Post-hold submissions.</I> (1) To resolve a hold, if an article of food is held under paragraph (b) of this section because it is from a foreign facility that is not registered, the facility must be registered, and a valid registration number must be obtained and submitted to the FDA Division of Food Defense Targeting within 30 calendar days from the date the notice of hold was issued or 30 calendar days from the date the response to a request for FDA review under paragraph (j) of this section was issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDA Division of Food Defense Targeting must be notified of the applicable registration number in writing. The notification must provide the name and contact information for the person submitting the information. The notification may be delivered to FDA by fax or e-mail. The contact information for these delivery methods is listed at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>—see Prior Notice. The notification should include the applicable CBP entry identifier.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA determines that the article is no longer subject to hold, it will notify the person who provided the registration information and CBP that the food is no longer subject to hold under section 801(l) of the act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>FDA review after hold.</I> (1) If an article of food has been placed under hold under section 801(l) of the act, a request may be submitted asking FDA to review whether the facility associated with the article is subject to the requirements of section 415 of the act. A request for review may not be submitted to obtain a registration number.
</P>
<P>(2) A request may be submitted only by the carrier, submitter, importer, owner, or ultimate consignee of the article. A request must identify which one the requestor is.
</P>
<P>(3) A request must be submitted in writing to FDA and delivered by fax or e-mail. The location for receipt of a request is listed at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>—see Prior Notice. A request must include all factual and legal information necessary for FDA to conduct its review. Only one request for review may be submitted for each article under hold.
</P>
<P>(4) The request must be submitted within 5-calendar days of the hold. FDA will review and respond within 5-calendar days of receiving the request.
</P>
<P>(5) If FDA determines that the article is not from a facility subject to the requirements of section 415 of the act, it will notify the requestor and CBP that the food is no longer subject to hold under section 801(l) of the act.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>International mail.</I> If an article of food that arrives by international mail is from a foreign facility that is not registered as required under section 415 of the act and subpart H of this part, the parcel will be held by CBP for 72 hours for FDA inspection and disposition. If the article is placed under hold under section 801(l) of the act and there is a return address, the parcel may be returned to sender marked “No Registration—No Admission Permitted.” If the article is under hold and there is no return address or FDA determines that the article of food in the parcel appears to present a hazard, FDA may dispose of or destroy the parcel at its expense. If FDA does not respond within 72 hours of the CBP hold, CBP may return the parcel to the sender marked “No Registration—No Admission Permitted” or, if there is no return address, destroy the parcel, at FDA expense.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Prohibitions on delivery and transfer.</I> Notwithstanding section 801(b) of the act, while an article of food is under hold under section 801(l) of the act, it may not be delivered to the importer, owner, or ultimate consignee. If an article of food is no longer subject to hold under section 801(l) of the act, entry may be made in accordance with law and regulation.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Relationship to other admissibility provisions.</I> A determination that an article of food is no longer subject to hold under section 801(l) of the act is different than, and may come before, determinations of admissibility under other provisions of the act or other U.S. laws. A determination that an article of food is no longer under hold under section 801(l) of the act does not mean that it will be granted admission under other provisions of the act or other U.S. laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66402, Nov. 7, 2008, as amended at 82 FR 15629, Mar. 30, 2017; 90 FR 46055, Sept. 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Establishment, Maintenance, and Availability of Records</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 71651, Dec. 9, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.55" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.326" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.55.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.326   Who is subject to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons who manufacture, process, pack, transport, distribute, receive, hold, or import food in the United States are subject to the regulations in this subpart, unless you qualify for one of the exclusions in § 1.327. If you conduct more than one type of activity at a location, you are required to keep records with respect to those activities covered by this subpart, but are not required by this subpart to keep records with respect to activities that fall within one of the exclusions in § 1.327.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons subject to the regulations in this subpart must keep records whether or not the food is being offered for or enters interstate commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.327" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.55.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.327   Who is excluded from all or part of the regulations in this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farms are excluded from all of the requirements in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Restaurants are excluded from all of the requirements in this subpart. A restaurant/retail facility is excluded from all of the requirements in this subpart if its sales of food it prepares and sells to consumers for immediate consumption are more than 90 percent of its total food sales.
</P>
<P>(c) Fishing vessels, including those that not only harvest and transport fish but also engage in practices such as heading, eviscerating, or freezing intended solely to prepare fish for holding on board a harvest vessel, are excluded from all of the requirements in this subpart, except §§ 1.361 and 1.363. However, those fishing vessels otherwise engaged in processing fish are subject to all of the requirements in this subpart. For the purposes of this section, “processing” means handling, storing, preparing, shucking, changing into different market forms, manufacturing, preserving, packing, labeling, dockside unloading, holding or heading, eviscerating, or freezing other than solely to prepare fish for holding on board a harvest vessel.
</P>
<P>(d) Persons who distribute food directly to consumers are excluded from the requirements in § 1.345 to establish and maintain records to identify the nontransporter and transporter immediate subsequent recipients as to those transactions. The term “consumers” does not include businesses.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons who operate retail food establishments that distribute food to persons who are not consumers are subject to all of the requirements in this subpart. However, the requirements in § 1.345 to establish and maintain records to identify the nontransporter and transporter immediate subsequent recipients that are not consumers applies as to those transactions only to the extent the information is reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this section, retail food establishment is defined to mean an establishment that sells food products directly to consumers as its primary function. The term “consumers” does not include businesses.
</P>
<P>(2) A retail food establishment may manufacture/process, pack, or hold food if the establishment's primary function is to sell from that establishment food, including food that it manufactures/processes, packs, or holds, directly to consumers.
</P>
<P>(3) A retail food establishment's primary function is to sell food directly to consumers if the annual monetary value of sales of food products directly to consumers exceeds the annual monetary value of sales of food products to all other buyers.
</P>
<P>(4) A “retail food establishment” includes grocery stores, convenience stores, and vending machine locations.
</P>
<P>(f) Retail food establishments that employ 10 or fewer full-time equivalent employees are excluded from all of the requirements in this subpart, except §§ 1.361 and 1.363. The exclusion is based on the number of full-time equivalent employees at each retail food establishment and not the entire business, which may own numerous retail stores.
</P>
<P>(g) Persons who manufacture, process, pack, transport, distribute, receive, hold, or import food in the United States that is within the exclusive jurisdiction of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>), the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>), or the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>) are excluded from all of the requirements in this subpart with respect to that food while it is under the exclusive jurisdiction of USDA.
</P>
<P>(h) Foreign persons, except for foreign persons who transport food in the United States, are excluded from all of the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) Persons who manufacture, process, pack, transport, distribute, receive, hold, or import food are subject to §§ 1.361 and 1.363 with respect to its packaging (the outer packaging of food that bears the label and does not contact the food). All other persons who manufacture, process, pack, transport, distribute, receive, hold, or import packaging are excluded from all of the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(j) Persons who manufacture, process, pack, transport, distribute, receive, hold, or import food contact substances other than the finished container that directly contacts food are excluded from all of the requirements of this subpart, except §§ 1.361 and 1.363.
</P>
<P>(k) Persons who place food directly in contact with its finished container are subject to all of the requirements of this subpart as to the finished container that directly contacts that food. All other persons who manufacture, process, pack, transport, distribute, receive, hold, or import the finished container that directly contacts the food are excluded from the requirements of this subpart as to the finished container, except §§ 1.361 and 1.363.
</P>
<P>(l) Nonprofit food establishments are excluded from all of the requirements in this subpart, except §§ 1.361 and 1.363.
</P>
<P>(m) Persons who manufacture, process, pack, transport, distribute, receive, hold, or import food for personal consumption are excluded from all of the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(n) Persons who receive or hold food on behalf of specific individual consumers and who are not also parties to the transaction and who are not in the business of distributing food are excluded from all of the requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.328" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.55.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.328   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 321) apply to such terms when used in this subpart. In addition, for the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Primary production farm.</I> A primary production farm is an operation under one management in one general (but not necessarily contiguous) physical location devoted to the growing of crops, the harvesting of crops, the raising of animals (including seafood), or any combination of these activities. The term “farm” includes operations that, in addition to these activities:
</P>
<P>(i) Pack or hold raw agricultural commodities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pack or hold processed food, provided that all processed food used in such activities is either consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management, or is processed food identified in paragraph (1)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacture/process food, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) All food used in such activities is consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any manufacturing/processing of food that is not consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management consists only of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), and packaging and labeling such commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing (an example of additional manufacturing/processing is slicing);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Treatment to manipulate the ripening of raw agricultural commodities (such as by treating produce with ethylene gas), and packaging and labeling treated raw agricultural commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Packaging and labeling raw agricultural commodities, when these activities do not involve additional manufacturing/processing (an example of additional manufacturing/processing is irradiation); or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secondary activities farm.</I> A secondary activities farm is an operation, not located on a primary production farm, devoted to harvesting (such as hulling or shelling), packing, and/or holding of raw agricultural commodities, provided that the primary production farm(s) that grows, harvests, and/or raises the majority of the raw agricultural commodities harvested, packed, and/or held by the secondary activities farm owns, or jointly owns, a majority interest in the secondary activities farm. A secondary activities farm may also conduct those additional activities allowed on a primary production farm as described in paragraphs (1)(ii) and (iii) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> has the meaning given in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of food include, but are not limited to fruits; vegetables; fish; dairy products; eggs; raw agricultural commodities for use as food or as components of food; animal feed, including pet food; food and feed ingredients and additives, including substances that migrate into food from the finished container and other articles that contact food; dietary supplements and dietary ingredients; infant formula; beverages, including alcoholic beverages and bottled water; live food animals; bakery goods; snack foods; candy; and canned foods.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time equivalent employee</I> means all individuals employed by the person claiming the exemption. The number of full-time equivalent employees is determined by dividing the total number of hours of salary or wages paid directly to employees of the person and of all of its affiliates by the number of hours of work in 1 year, 2,080 hours (i.e., 40 hours × 52 weeks).
</P>
<P><I>Harvesting</I> applies to farms and farm mixed-type facilities and means activities that are traditionally performed on farms for the purpose of removing raw agricultural commodities from the place they were grown or raised and preparing them for use as food. Harvesting is limited to activities performed on raw agricultural commodities, or on processed foods created by drying/dehydrating a raw agricultural commodity without additional manufacturing/processing, on a farm. Harvesting does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of harvesting include cutting (or otherwise separating) the edible portion of the raw agricultural commodity from the crop plant and removing or trimming part of the raw agricultural commodity (<I>e.g.,</I> foliage, husks, roots, or stems). Examples of harvesting also include cooling, field coring, filtering, gathering, hulling, shelling, sifting, threshing, trimming of outer leaves of, and washing raw agricultural commodities grown on a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that food, such as fumigating food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying or manipulating food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, irradiating, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that engages in both activities that are exempt from registration under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and activities that require the establishment to be registered. An example of such a facility is a “farm mixed-type facility,” which is an establishment that is a farm, but also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit food establishment</I> means a charitable entity that prepares or serves food directly to the consumer or otherwise provides food or meals for consumption by humans or animals in the United States. The term includes central food banks, soup kitchens, and nonprofit food delivery services. To be considered a nonprofit food establishment, the establishment must meet the terms of section 501(c)(3) of the U.S. Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Nontransporter</I> means a person who owns food or who holds, manufactures, processes, packs, imports, receives, or distributes food for purposes other than transportation.
</P>
<P><I>Nontransporter immediate previous source</I> means a person that last had food before transferring it to another nontransporter.
</P>
<P><I>Nontransporter immediate subsequent recipient</I> means a nontransporter that acquires food from another nontransporter.
</P>
<P><I>Packaging</I> (when used as a noun) means the outer packaging of food that bears the label and does not contact the food. Packaging does not include food contact substances as they are defined in section 409(h)(6) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Packaging</I> (when used as a verb) means placing food into a container that directly contacts the food and that the consumer receives.
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing food into a container other than packaging the food and also includes re-packing and activities performed incidental to packing or re-packing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or re-packing of that food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity, as defined in section 201(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes individual, partnership, corporation, and association.
</P>
<P><I>Recipe</I> means the formula, including ingredients, quantities, and instructions, necessary to manufacture a food product. Because a recipe must have all three elements, a list of the ingredients used to manufacture a product without quantity information and manufacturing instructions is not a recipe.
</P>
<P><I>Restaurant</I> means a facility that prepares and sells food directly to consumers for immediate consumption. “Restaurant” does not include facilities that provide food to interstate conveyances, central kitchens, and other similar facilities that do not prepare and serve food directly to consumers.
</P>
<P>(1) Facilities in which food is directly provided to humans, such as cafeterias, lunchrooms, cafes, bistros, fast food establishments, food stands, saloons, taverns, bars, lounges, catering facilities, hospital kitchens, day care kitchens, and nursing home kitchens, are restaurants.
</P>
<P>(2) Pet shelters, kennels, and veterinary facilities in which food is directly provided to animals are restaurants.
</P>
<P><I>Transporter</I> means a person who has possession, custody, or control of an article of food in the United States for the sole purpose of transporting the food, whether by road, rail, water, or air. Transporter also includes a foreign person that transports food in the United States, regardless of whether that foreign person has possession, custody, or control of that food for the sole purpose of transporting that food.
</P>
<P><I>Transporter's immediate previous source</I> means a person from whom a transporter received food. This source can be either another transporter or a nontransporter.
</P>
<P><I>Transporter's immediate subsequent recipient</I> means a person to whom a transporter delivered food. This recipient can be either another transporter or a nontransporter.
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means a person subject to this subpart under § 1.326.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 71651, Dec. 9, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 56143, Sept. 17, 2015; 81 FR 3715, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.329" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.55.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.329   Do other statutory provisions and regulations apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the regulations in this subpart, you must comply with all other applicable statutory provisions and regulations related to the establishment and maintenance of records for foods except as described in paragraph (b) of this section. For example, the regulations in this subpart are in addition to existing recordkeeping regulations for low acid canned foods, juice, seafood, infant formula, color additives, bottled water, animal feed, and medicated animal feed.
</P>
<P>(b) Records established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) (21 CFR 11.3 (b)(6)) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart but that are also required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.330" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.55.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.330   Can existing records satisfy the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart do not require duplication of existing records if those records contain all of the information required by this subpart. If a covered person keeps records of all of the information as required by this subpart to comply with other Federal, State, or local regulations, or for any other reason, then those records may be used to meet these requirements. Moreover, persons do not have to keep all of the information required by this rule in one set of records. If they have records containing some of the required information, they may keep those existing records and keep, either separately or in a combined form, any new information required by this rule. There is no obligation to create an entirely new record or compilation of records containing both existing and new information, even if the records containing some of the required information were not created at the time the food was received or released.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="56" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.56" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Nontransporters To Establish and Maintain Records To Identify the Nontransporter and Transporter Immediate Previous Sources of Food</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.337" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.337   What information must nontransporters establish and maintain to identify the nontransporter and transporter immediate previous sources of food?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a nontransporter, you must establish and maintain the following records for all food you receive:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the firm, address, telephone number and, if available, the fax number and e-mail address of the nontransporter immediate previous source, whether domestic or foreign;
</P>
<P>(2) An adequate description of the type of food received, to include brand name and specific variety (e.g., brand x cheddar cheese, not just cheese; or romaine lettuce, not just lettuce);
</P>
<P>(3) The date you received the food;
</P>
<P>(4) For persons who manufacture, process, or pack food, the lot or code number or other identifier of the food (to the extent this information exists);
</P>
<P>(5) The quantity and how the food is packaged (e.g., 6 count bunches, 25 pound (lb) carton, 12 ounce (oz) bottle, 100 gallon (gal) tank); and
</P>
<P>(6) The name of the firm, address, telephone number, and, if available, the fax number and e-mail address of the transporter immediate previous source (the transporter who transported the food to you).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="57" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.57" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Nontransporters To Establish and Maintain Records To Identify the Nontransporter and Transporter Immediate Subsequent Recipients of Food</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.345" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.57.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.345   What information must nontransporters establish and maintain to identify the nontransporter and transporter immediate subsequent recipients of food?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a nontransporter, you must establish and maintain the following records for food you release:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the firm, address, telephone number, and, if available, the fax number and e-mail address of the nontransporter immediate subsequent recipient, whether domestic or foreign;
</P>
<P>(2) An adequate description of the type of food released, to include brand name and specific variety (e.g., brand x cheddar cheese, not just cheese; or romaine lettuce, not just lettuce);
</P>
<P>(3) The date you released the food;
</P>
<P>(4) For persons who manufacture, process, or pack food, the lot or code number or other identifier of the food (to the extent this information exists);
</P>
<P>(5) The quantity and how the food is packaged (e.g., 6 count bunches, 25 lb carton, 12 oz bottle, 100 gal tank);
</P>
<P>(6) The name of the firm, address, telephone number, and, if available, the fax number and e-mail address of the transporter immediate subsequent recipient (the transporter who transported the food from you); and
</P>
<P>(b) Your records must include information reasonably available to you to identify the specific source of each ingredient used to make every lot of finished product.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="58" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.58" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Transporters To Establish and Maintain Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.352" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.58.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.352   What information must transporters establish and maintain?</HEAD>
<P>If you are a transporter, you must establish and maintain the following records for each food you transport in the United States. You may fulfill this requirement by either:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishing and maintaining the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Names of the transporter's immediate previous source and transporter's immediate subsequent recipient;
</P>
<P>(2) Origin and destination points;
</P>
<P>(3) Date shipment received and date released;
</P>
<P>(4) Number of packages;
</P>
<P>(5) Description of freight;
</P>
<P>(6) Route of movement during the time you transported the food; and
</P>
<P>(7) Transfer point(s) through which shipment moved; or
</P>
<P>(b) Establishing and maintaining records containing the following information currently required by the Department of Transportation's Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (of roadway interstate transporters (49 CFR 373.101 and 373.103) as of December 9, 2004:
</P>
<P>(1) Names of consignor and consignee;
</P>
<P>(2) Origin and destination points;
</P>
<P>(3) Date of shipment;
</P>
<P>(4) Number of packages;
</P>
<P>(5) Description of freight;
</P>
<P>(6) Route of movement and name of each carrier participating in the transportation; and
</P>
<P>(7) Transfer points through which shipment moved; or
</P>
<P>(c) Establishing and maintaining records containing the following information currently required by the Department of Transportation's Surface Transportation Board of rail and water interstate transporters (49 CFR 1035.1 and 1035.2) as of December 9, 2004:
</P>
<P>(1) Date received;
</P>
<P>(2) Received from;
</P>
<P>(3) Consigned to;
</P>
<P>(4) Destination;
</P>
<P>(5) State of;
</P>
<P>(6) County of;
</P>
<P>(7) Route;
</P>
<P>(8) Delivering carrier;
</P>
<P>(9) Car initial;
</P>
<P>(10) Car no;
</P>
<P>(11) Trailer initials/number;
</P>
<P>(12) Container initials/number;
</P>
<P>(13) No. packages; and
</P>
<P>(14) Description of articles; or
</P>
<P>(d) Establishing and maintaining records containing the following information currently required by the Warsaw Convention of international air transporters on air waybills:
</P>
<P>(1) Shipper's name and address;
</P>
<P>(2) Consignee's name and address;
</P>
<P>(3) Customs reference/status;
</P>
<P>(4) Airport of departure and destination;
</P>
<P>(5) First carrier; and
</P>
<P>(6) Description of goods; or
</P>
<P>(e) Entering into an agreement with the nontransporter immediate previous source located in the United States and/or the nontransporter immediate subsequent recipient located in the United States to establish, maintain, or establish and maintain, the information in § 1.352(a), (b), (c), or (d). The agreement must contain the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Effective date;
</P>
<P>(2) Printed names and signatures of authorized officials;
</P>
<P>(3) Description of the records to be established and/or maintained;
</P>
<P>(4) Provision for the records to be maintained in compliance with § 1.360, if the agreement provides for maintenance of records;
</P>
<P>(5) Provision for the records to be available to FDA as required by § 1.361, if the agreement provides for maintenance of records;
</P>
<P>(6) Acknowledgement that the nontransporter assumes legal responsibility under § 1.363 for establishing and/or maintaining the records as required by this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(7) Provision that if the agreement is terminated in writing by either party, responsibility for compliance with the applicable establishment, maintenance, and access provisions of this subpart reverts to the transporter as of the date of termination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="59" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.59" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.360" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.59.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.360   What are the record retention requirements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must create the required records when you receive and release food, except to the extent that the information is contained in existing records.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are a nontransporter, you must retain for 6 months after the dates you receive and release the food all required records for any food having a significant risk of spoilage, loss of value, or loss of palatability within 60 days after the date you receive or release the food.
</P>
<P>(c) If you are a nontransporter, you must retain for 1 year after the dates you receive and release the food all required records for any food for which a significant risk of spoilage, loss of value, or loss of palatability occurs only after a minimum of 60 days, but within 6 months, after the date you receive or release the food.
</P>
<P>(d) If you are a nontransporter, you must retain for 2 years after the dates you receive and release the food all required records for any food for which a significant risk of spoilage, loss of value, or loss of palatability does not occur sooner than 6 months after the date you receive or release the food, including foods preserved by freezing, dehydrating, or being placed in a hermetically sealed container.
</P>
<P>(e) If you are a nontransporter, you must retain for 1 year after the dates you receive and release the food all required records for animal food, including pet food.
</P>
<P>(f) If you are a transporter or nontransporter retaining records on behalf of a transporter, you must retain for 6 months after the dates you receive and release the food all required records for any food having a significant risk of spoilage, loss of value, or loss of palatability within 60 days after the date the transporter receives or releases the food. If you are a transporter, or nontransporter retaining records on behalf of a transporter, you must retain for 1 year after the dates you receive and release the food, all required records for any food for which a significant risk of spoilage, loss of value, or loss of palatability occurs only after a minimum of 60 days after the date the transporter receives or releases the food.
</P>
<P>(g) You must retain all records at the establishment where the covered activities described in the records occurred (onsite) or at a reasonably accessible location.
</P>
<P>(h) The maintenance of electronic records is acceptable. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.361" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.59.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.361   What are the record availability requirements?</HEAD>
<P>When FDA has a reasonable belief that an article of food, and any other article of food that FDA reasonably believes is likely to be affected in a similar manner, is adulterated and presents a threat of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals, or when FDA believes that there is a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to an article of food, and any other article of food that FDA reasonably believes is likely to be affected in a similar manner, will cause serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals, any records and other information accessible to FDA under section 414 or 704(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350c and 374(a)) must be made readily available for inspection and photocopying or other means of reproduction. Such records and other information must be made available as soon as possible, not to exceed 24 hours from the time of receipt of the official request, from an officer or employee duly designated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services who presents appropriate credentials and a written notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 10662, Feb. 23, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.362" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.59.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.362   What records are excluded from this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The establishment and maintenance of records as required by this subpart does not extend to recipes for food as defined in § 1.328; financial data, pricing data, personnel data, research data, or sales data (other than shipment data regarding sales).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.363" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.59.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.363   What are the consequences of failing to establish or maintain records or make them available to FDA as required by this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The failure to establish or maintain records as required by section 414(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this regulation or the refusal to permit access to or verification or copying of any such required record is a prohibited act under section 301 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The failure of a nontransporter immediate previous source or a nontransporter immediate subsequent recipient who enters an agreement under § 1.352(e) to establish, maintain, or establish and maintain, records required under § 1.352(a), (b), (c), or (d), or the refusal to permit access to or verification or copying of any such required record, is a prohibited act under section 301 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The failure of any person to make records or other information available to FDA as required by section 414 or 704(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this regulation is a prohibited act under section 301 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56144, Sept. 17, 2015


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.60" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Compliance Dates</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.368" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.9.60.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.368   What are the compliance dates for this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The compliance date for the requirements in this subpart is December 9, 2005. However, the compliance dates for small and very small businesses are contained in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. The size of the business is determined using the total number of full-time equivalent employees in the entire business, not each individual location or establishment. A full-time employee counts as one full-time equivalent employee. Two part-time employees, each working half time, count as one full-time equivalent employee.
</P>
<P>(a) The compliance date for the requirements in this subpart is June 9, 2006, for small businesses employing fewer that 500, but more than 10 full-time equivalent employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The compliance date for the requirements in this subpart is December 11, 2006, for very small businesses that employ 10 or fewer full-time equivalent employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 71651, Dec. 9, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 8727, Feb. 23, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Administrative Detention of Food for Human or Animal Consumption</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 31701, June 4, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="61" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.377" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.377   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms that appear in section 201 of the act (21 U.S.C. 321) apply when the terms are used in this subpart. In addition, for the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized FDA representative</I> means an FDA Division Director in whose division the article of food involved is located or an FDA official senior to such director.
</P>
<P><I>Calendar day</I> means every day shown on the calendar.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> has the meaning given in section 201(f) of the act (21 U.S.C. 321(f)). Examples of food include, but are not limited to, fruits, vegetables, fish, dairy products, eggs, raw agricultural commodities for use as food or components of food, animal feed, including pet food, food and feed ingredients and additives, including substances that migrate into food from food packaging and other articles that contact food, dietary supplements and dietary ingredients, infant formula, beverages, including alcoholic beverages and bottled water, live food animals, bakery goods, snack foods, candy, and canned foods.
</P>
<P><I>Perishable food</I> means food that is not heat-treated; not frozen; and not otherwise preserved in a manner so as to prevent the quality of the food from being adversely affected if held longer than 7 calendar days under normal shipping and storage conditions.
</P>
<P><I>We</I> means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
</P>
<P><I>Working day</I> means any day from Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays.
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means any person who received the detention order or that person's representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 31701, June 4, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 16550, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.378" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.378   What criteria does FDA use to order a detention?</HEAD>
<P>An officer or qualified employee of FDA may order the detention of any article of food that is found during an inspection, examination, or investigation under the act if the officer or qualified employee has reason to believe that the article of food is adulterated or misbranded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 25541, May 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.379" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.379   How long may FDA detain an article of food?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may detain an article of food for a reasonable period that may not exceed 20 calendar days after the detention order is issued. However, an article may be detained for 10 additional calendar days if a greater period of time is required to institute a seizure or injunction action. The authorized FDA representative may approve the additional 10-calendar day detention period at the time the detention order is issued, or at any time within the 20-calendar day period by amending the detention order.
</P>
<P>(b) The entire detention period may not exceed 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(c) An authorized FDA representative may, in accordance with § 1.384, terminate a detention order before the expiration of the detention period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.380" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.380   Where and under what conditions must the detained article of food be held?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must hold the detained article of food in the location and under the conditions specified by FDA in the detention order.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA determines that removal to a secure facility is appropriate, the article of food must be removed to a secure facility. A detained article of food remains under detention before, during, and after movement to a secure facility. FDA will also state in the detention order any conditions of transportation applicable to the detained article.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA directs you to move the detained article of food to a secure facility, you must receive a modification of the detention order under § 1.381(c) before you move the detained article of food to a secure facility.
</P>
<P>(d) You must ensure that any required tags or labels under § 1.382 accompany the detained article during and after movement. The tags or labels must remain with the article of food until FDA terminates the detention order or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, unless otherwise permitted by the authorized FDA representative.
</P>
<P>(e) The movement of an article of food in violation of a detention order issued under § 1.393 is a prohibited act under section 301 of the act (21 U.S.C. 331).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.381" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.381   May a detained article of food be delivered to another entity or transferred to another location?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An article of food subject to a detention order under this subpart may not be delivered under the execution of a bond. Notwithstanding section 801(b) of the act (21 U.S.C. 381(b)), while any article of food is subject to a detention order under section 304(h) of the act (21 U.S.C. 334(h)), it may not be delivered to any of its importers, owners, or consignees. This section does not preclude movement at FDA's direction of imported food to a secure facility under an appropriate Customs' bond when that bond is required by Customs' law and regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may transfer a detained article of food within or from the place where it has been ordered detained, or from the place to which it was removed, until an authorized FDA representative releases the article of food under § 1.384 or the detention period expires under § 1.379, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(c) The authorized FDA representative may approve, in writing, a request to modify a detention order to permit movement of a detained article of food for any of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To destroy the article of food,
</P>
<P>(2) To move the detained article of food to a secure facility under the terms of a detention order,
</P>
<P>(3) To maintain or preserve the integrity or quality of the article of food, or
</P>
<P>(4) For any other purpose that the authorized FDA representative believes is appropriate in the case.
</P>
<P>(d) You must submit your request for modification of the detention order in writing to the authorized FDA representative who approved the detention order. You must state in your request the reasons for movement; the exact address of and location in the new facility (or the new location within the same facility) where the detained article of food will be transferred; an explanation of how the new address and location will be secure, if FDA has directed that the article be detained in a secure facility; and how the article will be held under any applicable conditions described in the detention order. If you are requesting modification of a detention order for the purpose of destroying the detained article of food, you also must submit a verified statement identifying the ownership or proprietary interest you have in the detained article of food, in accordance with Supplemental Rule C to the “Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.”
</P>
<P>(e) If FDA approves a request for modification of a detention order, the article may be transferred but remains under detention before, during, and after the transfer. FDA will state any conditions of transportation applicable to the detained article. You may not transfer a detained article of food without FDA supervision unless FDA has declined in writing to supervise the transfer. If FDA has declined in writing to supervise the transfer of a detained article, you must immediately notify in writing the authorized FDA representative who approved the modification of the detention order that the article of food has reached its new location, and the specific location of the detained article within the new location. Such written notification may be in the form of a fax, e-mail, or other form as agreed to by the authorized FDA representative.
</P>
<P>(f) You must ensure that any required tags or labels under § 1.382 accompany the detained article during and after movement. The tags or labels must remain with the article of food until FDA terminates the detention order or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, unless otherwise permitted by the authorized FDA representative who approves the modification of a detention order under this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The transfer of an article of food in violation of a detention order issued under § 1.393 is a prohibited act under section 301 of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.382" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.382   What labeling or marking requirements apply to a detained article of food?</HEAD>
<P>The officer or qualified employee of FDA issuing a detention order under § 1.393 may label or mark the detained article of food with official FDA tags or labels that include the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A statement that the article of food is detained by FDA in accordance with section 304(h) of the act;
</P>
<P>(b) A statement that the article of food must not be consumed, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner for the period shown, without the written permission of an authorized FDA representative;
</P>
<P>(c) A statement that the violation of a detention order or the removal or alteration of the tag or label is a prohibited act, punishable by fine or imprisonment or both; and
</P>
<P>(d) The detention order number, the date and hour of the detention order, the detention period, and the name of the officer or qualified employee of FDA who issued the detention order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.383" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.383   What expedited procedures apply when FDA initiates a seizure action against a detained perishable food?</HEAD>
<P>If FDA initiates a seizure action under section 304(a) of the act against a perishable food subject to a detention order under this subpart, FDA will send the seizure recommendation to the Department of Justice (DOJ) within 4 calendar days after the detention order is issued, unless extenuating circumstances exist. If the fourth calendar day is not a working day, FDA will advise the DOJ of its plans to recommend a seizure action on the last working day before the fourth calendar day and send the recommendation as soon as practicable on the first working day that follows. For purposes of this section, an extenuating circumstance includes, but is not limited to, instances when the results of confirmatory testing or other evidentiary development requires more than 4 calendar days to complete.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.384" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.61.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.384   When does a detention order terminate?</HEAD>
<P>If FDA terminates a detention order or the detention period expires, an authorized FDA representative will issue a detention termination notice releasing the article of food to any person who received the detention order or that person's representative and will remove, or authorize in writing the removal of, the required labels or tags. If FDA fails to issue a detention termination notice and the detention period expires, the detention is deemed to be terminated.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="62" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.62" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>How Does FDA Order a Detention?</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.391" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.391   Who approves a detention order?</HEAD>
<P>An authorized FDA representative must approve a detention order. If prior written approval is not feasible, prior oral approval must be obtained and confirmed in writing as soon as possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 31701, June 4, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 16550, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.392" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.392   Who receives a copy of the detention order?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA must issue the detention order to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the article of food is located. If the owner of the article of food is different from the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the article is detained, FDA must provide a copy of the detention order to the owner of the article of food if the owner's identity can be determined readily.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA issues a detention order for an article of food located in a vehicle or other carrier used to transport the detained article of food, FDA also must provide a copy of the detention order to the shipper of record and the owner and operator of the vehicle or other carrier, if their identities can be determined readily.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.393" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.393   What information must FDA include in the detention order?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA must issue the detention order in writing, in the form of a detention notice, signed and dated by the officer or qualified employee of FDA who has reason to believe that such article of food is adulterated or misbranded.
</P>
<P>(b) The detention order must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The detention order number;
</P>
<P>(2) The date and hour of the detention order;
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of the detained article of food;
</P>
<P>(4) The period of the detention;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the article of food identified in the order is detained for the period shown;
</P>
<P>(6) A brief, general statement of the reasons for the detention;
</P>
<P>(7) The address and location where the article of food is to be detained and the appropriate storage conditions;
</P>
<P>(8) Any applicable conditions of transportation of the detained article of food;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the article of food is not to be consumed, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner during the detention period, unless the detention order is first modified under § 1.381(c);
</P>
<P>(10) The text of section 304(h) of the act and §§ 1.401 and 1.402;
</P>
<P>(11) A statement that any informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter, with certain exceptions described in § 1.403;
</P>
<P>(12) The mailing address, telephone number, email address, fax number, and the name of the FDA Division Director in whose division the detained article of food is located;
</P>
<P>(13) A statement indicating the manner in which approval of the detention order was obtained, <I>i.e.</I>, verbally or in writing; and
</P>
<P>(14) The name and the title of the authorized FDA representative who approved the detention order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 31701, June 4, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 25541, May 5, 2011; 85 FR 16550, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="63" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.63" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>What Is the Appeal Process for a Detention Order?</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.401" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.63.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.401   Who is entitled to appeal?</HEAD>
<P>Any person who would be entitled to be a claimant for the article of food, if seized under section 304(a) of the act, may appeal a detention order as specified in § 1.402. Procedures for establishing entitlement to be a claimant for purposes of section 304(a) of the act are governed by Supplemental Rule C to the “Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.402" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.63.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.402   What are the requirements for submitting an appeal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you want to appeal a detention order, you must submit your appeal in writing to the FDA Division Director in whose division the detained article of food is located, at the mailing address, email address, or fax number identified in the detention order according to the following applicable timeframes:</P>
<P>(1) <I>Perishable food:</I> If the detained article is a perishable food, as defined in § 1.377, you must file an appeal within 2 calendar days of receipt of the detention order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonperishable food:</I> If the detained article is not a perishable food, as defined in § 1.377, you must file a notice of an intent to request a hearing within 4 calendar days of receipt of the detention order. If the notice of intent is not filed within 4 calendar days, you will not be granted a hearing. If you have not filed a timely notice of intent to request a hearing, you may file an appeal without a hearing request. Whether or not it includes a request for hearing, your appeal must be filed within 10 calendar days of receipt of the detention order.
</P>
<P>(b) Your request for appeal must include a verified statement identifying your ownership or proprietary interest in the detained article of food, in accordance with Supplemental Rule C to the “Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.”
</P>
<P>(c) The process for the appeal of a detention order under this section terminates if FDA institutes either a seizure action under section 304(a) of the act or an injunction under section 302 of the act (21 U.S.C. 276) regarding the article of food involved in the detention order.
</P>
<P>(d) As part of the appeals process, you may request an informal hearing. Your request for a hearing must be in writing and must be included in your request for an appeal specified in paragraph (a) of this section. If you request an informal hearing, and FDA grants your request, the hearing will be held within 2 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 31701, June 4, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 16550, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.403" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.63.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.403   What requirements apply to an informal hearing?</HEAD>
<P>If FDA grants a request for an informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order, FDA must conduct the hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) The detention order under § 1.393, rather than the notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides notice of opportunity for a hearing under this section and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) A request for a hearing under this section must be addressed to the FDA Division Director in whose division the article of food involved is located;
</P>
<P>(c) The provision in § 16.22(b) of this chapter, providing that a person not be given less than 3 working days after receipt of notice to request a hearing, does not apply to a hearing under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(d) The provision in § 16.24(e) of this chapter, stating that a hearing may not be required to be held at a time less than 2 working days after receipt of the request for a hearing, does not apply to a hearing under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 1.406, rather than § 16.24(f) of this chapter, describes the statement that will be provided to an appellant where a detention order is based on classified information;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 1.404, rather than § 16.42(a) of this chapter, describes the FDA employees who preside at hearings under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer may require that a hearing conducted under this section be completed within 1 calendar day, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 16.60(e) and (f) of this chapter does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer must prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. The presiding officer must include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and must include a proposed decision, with a statement of reasons. The hearing participant may review and comment on the presiding officer's report within 4 hours of issuance of the report. The presiding officer will then issue the final agency decision.
</P>
<P>(i) Section 16.80(a)(4) of this chapter does not apply to a regulatory hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer's report of the hearing and any comments on the report by the hearing participant under § 1.403(h) are part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(j) No party shall have the right, under § 16.119 of this chapter to petition the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for reconsideration or a stay of the presiding officer's final agency decision.
</P>
<P>(k) If FDA grants a request for an informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order, the hearing must be conducted as a regulatory hearing pursuant to regulation in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that § 16.95(b) does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. With respect to a regulatory hearing under this subpart, the administrative record of the hearing specified in §§ 16.80(a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(5), and 1.403(i) constitutes the exclusive record for the presiding officer's final decision on an administrative detention. For purposes of judicial review under § 10.45 of this chapter, the record of the administrative proceeding consists of the record of the hearing and the presiding officer's final decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 31701, June 4, 2004, as amended at 82 FR 14144, Mar. 17, 2017; 85 FR 16550, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.404" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.63.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.404   Who serves as the presiding officer for an appeal and for an informal hearing?</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer for an appeal, and for an informal hearing, must be an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16550, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.405" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.63.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.405   When does FDA have to issue a decision on an appeal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer must issue a written report that includes a proposed decision confirming or revoking the detention by noon on the fifth calendar day after the appeal is filed; after your 4 hour opportunity for submitting comments under § 1.403(h), the presiding officer must issue a final decision within the 5-calendar day period after the appeal is filed. If FDA either fails to provide you with an opportunity to request an informal hearing, or fails to confirm or terminate the detention order within the 5-calendar day period, the detention order is deemed terminated.
</P>
<P>(b) If you appeal the detention order, but do not request an informal hearing, the presiding officer must issue a decision on the appeal confirming or revoking the detention within 5 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed. If the presiding officer fails to confirm or terminate the detention order during such 5-calendar day period, the detention order is deemed terminated.
</P>
<P>(c) If you appeal the detention order and request an informal hearing and your hearing request is denied, the presiding officer must issue a decision on the appeal confirming or revoking the detention within 5 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed. If the presiding officer fails to confirm or terminate the detention order during such 5-calendar day period, the detention order is deemed terminated.
</P>
<P>(d) If the presiding officer confirms a detention order, the article of food continues to be detained until we terminate the detention under § 1.384 or the detention period expires under § 1.379, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(e) If the presiding officer terminates a detention order, or the detention period expires, FDA must terminate the detention order as specified under § 1.384.
</P>
<P>(f) Confirmation of a detention order by the presiding officer is considered a final agency action for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 702.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.406" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.10.63.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.406   How will FDA handle classified information in an informal hearing?</HEAD>
<P>Where the credible evidence or information supporting the detention order is classified under the applicable Executive order as requiring protection from unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security (“classified information”), FDA will not provide you with this information. The presiding officer will give you notice of the general nature of the information and an opportunity to offer opposing evidence or information, if he or she may do so consistently with safeguarding the information and its source. If classified information was used to support the detention, then any confirmation of such detention will state whether it is based in whole or in part on that classified information. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Foreign Supplier Verification Programs for Food Importers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74340, Nov. 27, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1.500" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.500   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to words and phrases as they are used in this subpart. Other definitions of these terms may apply when they are used in other subparts of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Adequate</I> means that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose in keeping with good public health practice.
</P>
<P><I>Audit</I> means the systematic, independent, and documented examination (through observation, investigation, discussions with employees of the audited entity, records review, and, as appropriate, sampling and laboratory analysis) to assess an audited entity's food safety processes and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Dietary supplement</I> has the meaning given in section 201(ff) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Dietary supplement component</I> means any substance intended for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement, including those that may not appear in the finished batch of the dietary supplement. Dietary supplement components include dietary ingredients (as described in section 201(ff) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act) and other ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental pathogen</I> means a pathogen capable of surviving and persisting within the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding environment such that food may be contaminated and may result in foodborne illness if that food is consumed without treatment to significantly minimize the environmental pathogen. Examples of environmental pathogens for the purposes of this part include <I>Listeria monocytogenes</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. but do not include the spores of pathogenic sporeforming bacteria.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means a domestic facility or a foreign facility that is required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in accordance with the requirements of subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means farm as defined in § 1.227.
</P>
<P><I>Farm mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that is a farm but that also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> has the meaning given in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, except that food does not include pesticides (as defined in 7 U.S.C. 136(u)).
</P>
<P><I>Food allergen</I> means a major food allergen as defined in section 201(qq) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign supplier</I> means, for an article of food, the establishment that manufactures/processes the food, raises the animal, or grows the food that is exported to the United States without further manufacturing/processing by another establishment, except for further manufacturing/processing that consists solely of the addition of labeling or any similar activity of a de minimis nature.
</P>
<P><I>Good compliance standing with a foreign food safety authority</I> means that the foreign supplier—
</P>
<P>(1) Appears on the current version of a list, issued by the food safety authority of the country in which the foreign supplier is located and which has regulatory oversight of the supplier, of food producers that are in good compliance standing with the food safety authority; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has otherwise been designated by such food safety authority as being in good compliance standing.
</P>
<P><I>Harvesting</I> applies to applies to farms and farm mixed-type facilities and means activities that are traditionally performed on farms for the purpose of removing raw agricultural commodities from the place they were grown or raised and preparing them for use as food. Harvesting is limited to activities performed on raw agricultural commodities, or on processed foods created by drying/dehydrating a raw agricultural commodity without additional manufacturing/processing, on a farm. Harvesting does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of harvesting include cutting (or otherwise separating) the edible portion of the raw agricultural commodity from the crop plant and removing or trimming part of the raw agricultural commodity (<I>e.g.,</I> foliage, husks, roots, or stems). Examples of harvesting also include cooling, field coring, filtering, gathering, hulling, shelling, sifting, threshing, trimming of outer leaves of, and washing raw agricultural commodities grown on a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means any biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical agent that is reasonably likely to cause illness or injury.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard requiring a control</I> means a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard for which a person knowledgeable about the safe manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of food would, based on the outcome of a hazard analysis (which includes an assessment of the probability that the hazard will occur in the absence of controls or measures and the severity of the illness or injury if the hazard were to occur), establish one or more controls or measures to significantly minimize or prevent the hazard in a food and components to manage those controls or measures (such as monitoring, corrections or corrective actions, verification, and records) as appropriate to the food, the facility, and the nature of the control or measure and its role in the facility's food safety system.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that food, such as fumigating food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Importer</I> means the U.S. owner or consignee of an article of food that is being offered for import into the United States. If there is no U.S. owner or consignee of an article of food at the time of U.S. entry, the importer is the U.S. agent or representative of the foreign owner or consignee at the time of entry, as confirmed in a signed statement of consent to serve as the importer under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Known or reasonably foreseeable hazard</I> means a biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical hazard that is known to be, or has the potential to be, associated with a food or the facility in which it is manufactured/processed.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means the food produced during a period of time and identified by an establishment's specific code.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying, or manipulating food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, extruding (of animal food), formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, irradiating, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, pelleting (of animal food), rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Microorganisms</I> means yeasts, molds, bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and microscopic parasites and includes species that are pathogens.
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing food into a container other than packaging the food and also includes re-packing and activities performed incidental to packing or re-packing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or re-packing of that food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Pathogen</I> means a microorganism of public health significance.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified auditor</I> means a person who is a qualified individual as defined in this section and has technical expertise obtained through education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform the auditing function as required by § 1.506(e)(1)(i) or § 1.511(c)(5)(i)(A). Examples of potential qualified auditors include:
</P>
<P>(1) A government employee, including a foreign government employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) An audit agent of a certification body that is accredited in accordance with subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual</I> means a person who has the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform an activity required under this subpart, and can read and understand the language of any records that the person must review in performing this activity. A qualified individual may be, but is not required to be, an employee of the importer. A government employee, including a foreign government employee, may be a qualified individual.
</P>
<P><I>Raw agricultural commodity</I> has the meaning given in section 201(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Ready-to-eat food (RTE food)</I> means any food that is normally eaten in its raw state or any food, including a processed food, for which it is reasonably foreseeable that the food will be eaten without further processing that would significantly minimize biological hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving facility</I> means a facility that is subject to subparts C and G of part 117 of this chapter, or subparts C and E of part 507 of this chapter, and that manufactures/processes a raw material or other ingredient that it receives from a supplier.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. owner or consignee</I> means the person in the United States who, at the time of U.S. entry, either owns the food, has purchased the food, or has agreed in writing to purchase the food.
</P>
<P><I>Very small importer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the importation of human food, an importer (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) averaging less than $1 million per year, adjusted for inflation, during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year, in sales of human food combined with the U.S. market value of human food imported, manufactured, processed, packed, or held without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> imported for a fee); and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to the importation of animal food, an importer (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) averaging less than $2.5 million per year, adjusted for inflation, during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year, in sales of animal food combined with the U.S. market value of animal food imported, manufactured, processed, packed, or held without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> imported for a fee).
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means a person who is subject to some or all of the requirements in this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74340, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 25327, Apr. 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.501" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.501   To what foods do the requirements in this subpart apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as specified otherwise in this section, the requirements in this subpart apply to all food imported or offered for import into the United States and to the importers of such food.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions for juice and seafood</I>—(1) <I>Importers of certain juice and seafood products.</I> This subpart does not apply with respect to juice, fish, and fishery products that are imported from a foreign supplier that is required to comply with, and is in compliance with, the requirements in part 120 or part 123 of this chapter. If you import juice or fish and fishery products that are subject to part 120 or part 123, respectively, you must comply with the requirements applicable to importers of those products under § 120.14 or § 123.12 of this chapter, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain importers of juice or seafood raw materials or other ingredients subject to part 120 or part 123 of this chapter.</I> This subpart does not apply with respect to any raw materials or other ingredients that you import and use in manufacturing or processing juice subject to part 120 or fish and fishery products subject to part 123, provided that you are in compliance with the requirements in part 120 or part 123 with respect to the juice or fish or fishery product that you manufacture or process from the imported raw materials or other ingredients.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption for food imported for research or evaluation.</I> This subpart does not apply to food that is imported for research or evaluation use, provided that such food:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not intended for retail sale and is not sold or distributed to the public;
</P>
<P>(2) Is labeled with the statement “Food for research or evaluation use”;
</P>
<P>(3) Is imported in a small quantity that is consistent with a research, analysis, or quality assurance purpose, the food is used only for this purpose, and any unused quantity is properly disposed of; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is accompanied, when filing entry with U.S. Customs and Border Protection, by an electronic declaration that the food will be used for research or evaluation purposes and will not be sold or distributed to the public.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption for food imported for personal consumption.</I> This subpart does not apply to food that is imported for personal consumption, provided that such food is not intended for retail sale and is not sold or distributed to the public. Food is imported for personal consumption only if it is purchased or otherwise acquired by a person in a small quantity that is consistent with a non-commercial purpose and is not sold or distributed to the public.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption for alcoholic beverages.</I> (1) This subpart does not apply with respect to alcoholic beverages that are imported from a foreign supplier that is a facility that meets the following two conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the Federal Alcohol Administration Act (27 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) or chapter 51 of subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 5001 <I>et seq.</I>), the facility is a foreign facility of a type that, if it were a domestic facility, would require obtaining a permit from, registering with, or obtaining approval of a notice or application from the Secretary of the Treasury as a condition of doing business in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the facility is required to register as a facility because it is engaged in manufacturing/processing one or more alcoholic beverages.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply with respect to food that is not an alcoholic beverage that is imported from a foreign supplier described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, provided such food:
</P>
<P>(i) Is in prepackaged form that prevents any direct human contact with such food; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Constitutes not more than 5 percent of the overall sales of the facility, as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(3) This subpart does not apply with respect to raw materials and other ingredients that are imported for use in alcoholic beverages provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The imported raw materials and other ingredients are used in the manufacturing/processing, packing, or holding of alcoholic beverages;
</P>
<P>(ii) Such manufacturing/processing, packing, or holding is performed by the importer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The importer is required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The importer is exempt from the regulations in part 117 of this chapter in accordance with § 117.5(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inapplicability to food that is transshipped or imported for processing and export.</I> This subpart does not apply to food:
</P>
<P>(1) That is transshipped through the United States to another country and is not sold or distributed to the public in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) That is imported for processing and future export and that is not sold or distributed to the public in the United States.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Inapplicability to U.S. food returned.</I> This subpart does not apply to food that is manufactured/processed, raised, or grown in the United States, exported, and returned to the United States without further manufacturing/processing in a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Inapplicability to certain meat, poultry, and egg products.</I> This subpart does not apply with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) Meat food products that at the time of importation are subject to the requirements of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) Poultry products that at the time of importation are subject to the requirements of the USDA under the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(3) Egg products that at the time of importation are subject to the requirements of the USDA under the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74340, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 25327, Apr. 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.502" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.502   What foreign supplier verification program (FSVP) must I have?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, for each food you import, you must develop, maintain, and follow an FSVP that provides adequate assurances that your foreign supplier is producing the food in compliance with processes and procedures that provide at least the same level of public health protection as those required under section 418 (regarding hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls for certain foods) or 419 (regarding standards for produce safety), if either is applicable, and the implementing regulations, and is producing the food in compliance with sections 402 (regarding adulteration) and 403(w) (if applicable) (regarding misbranding with respect to labeling for the presence of major food allergens) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Low-acid canned foods</I>—(1) <I>Importers of low-acid canned foods not subject to further manufacturing or processing.</I> With respect to those microbiological hazards that are controlled by part 113 of this chapter, if you import a thermally processed low-acid food packaged in a hermetically sealed container (low-acid canned food), you must verify and document that the food was produced in accordance with part 113. With respect to all matters that are not controlled by part 113, you must have an FSVP as specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain importers of raw materials or other ingredients subject to part 113 of this chapter.</I> With respect to microbiological hazards that are controlled by part 113, you are not required to comply with the requirements of this subpart for raw materials or other ingredients that you import and use in the manufacturing or processing of low-acid canned food provided that you are in compliance with part 113 with respect to the low-acid canned food that you manufacture or process from the imported raw materials or other ingredients. With respect to all hazards other than microbiological hazards that are controlled by part 113, you must have an FSVP as specified in paragraph (a) of this section for the imported raw materials and other ingredients that you use in the manufacture or processing of low-acid canned foods.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Importers subject to section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</I> You are deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this subpart for a food you import, except for the requirements in § 1.509, if you are a receiving facility as defined in § 117.3 or § 507.3 of this chapter and you are in compliance with the following requirements of part 117 or part 507 of this chapter, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) You implement preventive controls for the hazards in the food in accordance with § 117.135 or § 507.34 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) You are not required to implement a preventive control under § 117.136 or § 507.36 of this chapter with respect to the food; or
</P>
<P>(3) You have established and implemented a risk-based supply-chain program in compliance with subpart G of part 117 or subpart E of part 507 of this chapter with respect to the food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.503" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.503   Who must develop my FSVP and perform FSVP activities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualified individual.</I> A qualified individual must develop your FSVP and perform each of the activities required under this subpart. A qualified individual must have the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform their assigned activities and must be able to read and understand the language of any records that must be reviewed in performing an activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualified auditor.</I> A qualified auditor must conduct any audit conducted in accordance with § 1.506(e)(1)(i) or § 1.511(c)(5)(i)(A). A qualified auditor must have technical expertise obtained through education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform the auditing function.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.504" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.504   What hazard analysis must I conduct?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for a hazard analysis.</I> Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, you must conduct a hazard analysis to identify and evaluate, based on experience, illness data, scientific reports, and other information, known or reasonably foreseeable hazards for each type of food you import to determine whether there are any hazards requiring a control. Your hazard analysis must be written regardless of its outcome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hazard identification.</I> (1) Your analysis of the known or reasonably foreseeable hazards in each food must include the following types of hazards:
</P>
<P>(i) Biological hazards, including microbiological hazards such as parasites, environmental pathogens, and other pathogens;
</P>
<P>(ii) Chemical hazards, including radiological hazards, pesticide and drug residues, natural toxins, decomposition, unapproved food or color additives, food allergens, and (in animal food) nutrient deficiencies or toxicities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Physical hazards (such as stones, glass, and metal fragments).
</P>
<P>(2) Your analysis must include known or reasonably foreseeable hazards that may be present in a food for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) The hazard occurs naturally;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hazard may be unintentionally introduced; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The hazard may be intentionally introduced for purposes of economic gain.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hazard evaluation.</I> (1) Your hazard analysis must include an evaluation of the hazards identified in paragraph (b) of this section to assess the probability that the hazard will occur in the absence of controls and the severity of the illness or injury if the hazard were to occur.
</P>
<P>(2) The hazard evaluation required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include an evaluation of environmental pathogens whenever a ready-to-eat food is exposed to the environment before packaging and the packaged food does not receive a treatment or otherwise include a control or measure (such as a formulation lethal to the pathogen) that would significantly minimize the pathogen.
</P>
<P>(3) Your hazard evaluation must consider the effect of the following on the safety of the finished food for the intended consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) The formulation of the food;
</P>
<P>(ii) The condition, function, and design of the establishment and equipment of a typical entity that manufactures/processes, grows, harvests, or raises this type of food;
</P>
<P>(iii) Raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(iv) Transportation practices;
</P>
<P>(v) Harvesting, raising, manufacturing, processing, and packing procedures;
</P>
<P>(vi) Packaging and labeling activities;
</P>
<P>(vii) Storage and distribution;
</P>
<P>(viii) Intended or reasonably foreseeable use;
</P>
<P>(ix) Sanitation, including employee hygiene; and
</P>
<P>(x) Any other relevant factors, such as the temporal (<I>e.g.,</I> weather-related) nature of some hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> levels of natural toxins).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of another entity's hazard analysis.</I> If another entity (including your foreign supplier) has, using a qualified individual, analyzed the known or reasonably foreseeable hazards for the food to determine whether there are any hazards requiring a control, you may meet your requirement to determine whether there are any hazards requiring a control in a food by reviewing and assessing the hazard analysis conducted by that entity. You must document your review and assessment of that hazard analysis, including documenting that the hazard analysis was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hazards in raw agricultural commodities that are fruits or vegetables.</I> If you are importing a raw agricultural commodity that is a fruit or vegetable that is “covered produce” as defined in § 112.3 of this chapter, you are not required to determine whether there are any biological hazards requiring a control in such food because the biological hazards in such fruits or vegetables require a control and compliance with the requirements in part 112 of this chapter significantly minimizes or prevents the biological hazards. However, you must determine whether there are any other types of hazards requiring a control in such food.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>No hazards requiring a control.</I> If you evaluate the known and reasonably foreseeable hazards in a food and determine that there are no hazards requiring a control, you are not required to conduct an evaluation for foreign supplier approval and verification under § 1.505 and you are not required to conduct foreign supplier verification activities under § 1.506. This paragraph (f) does not apply if the food is a raw agricultural commodity that is a fruit or vegetable that is “covered produce” as defined in § 112.3 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.505" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.505   What evaluation for foreign supplier approval and verification must I conduct?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evaluation of a foreign supplier's performance and the risk posed by a food.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, in approving your foreign suppliers and determining the appropriate supplier verification activities that must be conducted for a foreign supplier of a type of food you import, you must consider the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The hazard analysis of the food conducted in accordance with § 1.504, including the nature of the hazard requiring a control.
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity or entities that will be significantly minimizing or preventing the hazards requiring a control or verifying that such hazards have been significantly minimized or prevented, such as the foreign supplier, the foreign supplier's raw material or other ingredient supplier, or another entity in your supply chain.
</P>
<P>(iii) Foreign supplier performance, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The foreign supplier's procedures, processes, and practices related to the safety of the food;
</P>
<P>(B) Applicable FDA food safety regulations and information relevant to the foreign supplier's compliance with those regulations, including whether the foreign supplier is the subject of an FDA warning letter, import alert, or other FDA compliance action related to food safety (or, when applicable, the relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States, and information relevant to the supplier's compliance with those laws and regulations); and
</P>
<P>(C) The foreign supplier's food safety history, including available information about results from testing foods for hazards, audit results relating to the safety of the food, and responsiveness of the foreign supplier in correcting problems.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other factors as appropriate and necessary, such as storage and transportation practices.
</P>
<P>(2) You must document the evaluation you conduct under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval of foreign suppliers.</I> You must approve your foreign suppliers on the basis of the evaluation that you conducted under paragraph (a) of this section or that you review and assess under paragraph (d) of this section, and document your approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reevaluation of a foreign supplier's performance and the risk posed by a food.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, you must promptly reevaluate the concerns associated with the factors in paragraph (a)(1) of this section when you become aware of new information about these factors, and the reevaluation must be documented. If you determine that the concerns associated with importing a food from a foreign supplier have changed, you must promptly determine (and document) whether it is appropriate to continue to import the food from the foreign supplier and whether the supplier verification activities conducted under § 1.506 or § 1.511(c) need to be changed.
</P>
<P>(2) If at the end of any 3-year period you have not reevaluated the concerns associated with the factors in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, you must reevaluate those concerns and take other appropriate actions, if necessary, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1). You must document your reevaluation and any subsequent actions you take in accordance with paragraph (c)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of another entity's evaluation or reevaluation of a foreign supplier's performance and the risk posed by a food.</I> If an entity other than the foreign supplier has, using a qualified individual, performed the evaluation described in paragraph (a) of this section or the reevaluation described in paragraph (c) of this section, you may meet the requirements of the applicable paragraph by reviewing and assessing the evaluation or reevaluation conducted by that entity. You must document your review and assessment, including documenting that the evaluation or reevaluation was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inapplicability to certain circumstances.</I> You are not required to conduct an evaluation under this section or to conduct foreign supplier verification activities under § 1.506 if one of the circumstances described in § 1.507 applies to your importation of a food and you are in compliance with that section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.506" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.506   What foreign supplier verification and related activities must I conduct?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of approved foreign suppliers.</I> (1) You must establish and follow written procedures to ensure that you import foods only from foreign suppliers you have approved based on the evaluation conducted under § 1.505 (or, when necessary and appropriate, on a temporary basis from unapproved foreign suppliers whose foods you subject to adequate verification activities before importing the food). You must document your use of these procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) You may rely on an entity other than your foreign supplier to establish the procedures and perform and document the activities required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section provided that you review and assess that entity's documentation of the procedures and activities, and you document your review and assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign supplier verification procedures.</I> You must establish and follow adequate written procedures for ensuring that appropriate foreign supplier verification activities are conducted with respect to the foods you import.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement of supplier verification.</I> The foreign supplier verification activities must provide assurance that the hazards requiring a control in the food you import have been significantly minimized or prevented.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of appropriate foreign supplier verification activities</I>—(1)(i) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section, before importing a food from a foreign supplier, you must determine and document which verification activity or activities listed in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section, as well as the frequency with which the activity or activities must be conducted, are needed to provide adequate assurances that the food you obtain from the foreign supplier is produced in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. Verification activities must address the entity or entities that are significantly minimizing or preventing the hazards or verifying that the hazards have been significantly minimized or prevented (<I>e.g.,</I> when an entity other than the grower of produce subject to part 112 of this chapter harvests or packs the produce and significantly minimizes or prevents the hazard or verifies that the hazard has been significantly minimized or prevented, or when the foreign supplier's raw material supplier significantly minimizes or prevents a hazard). The determination of appropriate supplier verification activities must be based on the evaluation of the food and foreign supplier conducted under § 1.505.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appropriate verification activities.</I> The following are appropriate supplier verification activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Onsite audits as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Sampling and testing of a food as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the foreign supplier's relevant food safety records as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) Other appropriate supplier verification activities as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification activities for certain serious hazards.</I> When a hazard in a food will be controlled by the foreign supplier and is one for which there is a reasonable probability that exposure to the hazard will result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals, you must conduct or obtain documentation of an onsite audit of the foreign supplier before initially importing the food and at least annually thereafter, unless you make an adequate written determination that, instead of such initial and annual onsite auditing, other supplier verification activities listed in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section and/or less frequent onsite auditing are appropriate to provide adequate assurances that the foreign supplier is producing the food in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, based on the determination made under § 1.505.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reliance on a determination by another entity.</I> You may rely on a determination of appropriate foreign supplier verification activities in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) or (2) of this section made by an entity other than the foreign supplier if you review and assess whether the entity's determination regarding appropriate activities (including the frequency with which such activities must be conducted) is appropriate. You must document your review and assessment, including documenting that the determination of appropriate verification activities was made by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance of foreign supplier verification activities</I>—(1) <I>Verification activities.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, based on the determination made in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, you must conduct (and document) or obtain documentation of one or more of the supplier verification activities listed in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section for each foreign supplier before importing the food and periodically thereafter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Onsite audit of the foreign supplier.</I> (A) An onsite audit of a foreign supplier must be performed by a qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(B) If the food is subject to one or more FDA food safety regulations, an onsite audit of the foreign supplier must consider such regulations and include a review of the supplier's written food safety plan, if any, and its implementation, for the hazard being controlled (or, when applicable, an onsite audit may consider relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(C) If the onsite audit is conducted solely to meet the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section by an audit agent of a certification body that is accredited in accordance with subpart M of this part, the audit is not subject to the requirements in that subpart.
</P>
<P>(D) You must retain documentation of each onsite audit, including the audit procedures, the dates the audit was conducted, the conclusions of the audit, any corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the audit, and documentation that the audit was conducted by a qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(E) The following inspection results may be substituted for an onsite audit, provided that the inspection was conducted within 1 year of the date by which the onsite audit would have been required to be conducted:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The written results of an appropriate inspection of the foreign supplier for compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations conducted by FDA, representatives of other Federal Agencies (such as the USDA), or representatives of State, local, tribal, or territorial agencies; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The written results of an inspection of the foreign supplier by the food safety authority of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States, provided that the food that is the subject of the onsite audit is within the scope of the official recognition or equivalence determination, and the foreign supplier is in, and under the regulatory oversight of, such country.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sampling and testing of the food.</I> You must retain documentation of each sampling and testing of a food, including identification of the food tested (including lot number, as appropriate), the number of samples tested, the test(s) conducted (including the analytical method(s) used), the date(s) on which the test(s) were conducted and the date of the report of the testing, the results of the testing, any corrective actions taken in response to detection of hazards, information identifying the laboratory conducting the testing, and documentation that the testing was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Review of the foreign supplier's relevant food safety records.</I> You must retain documentation of each record review, including the date(s) of review, the general nature of the records reviewed, the conclusions of the review, any corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the review, and documentation that the review was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other appropriate activity.</I> (A) You may conduct (and document) or obtain documentation of other supplier verification activities that are appropriate based on foreign supplier performance and the risk associated with the food.
</P>
<P>(B) You must retain documentation of each activity conducted in accordance with paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section, including a description of the activity, the date on which it was conducted, the findings or results of the activity, any corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified, and documentation that the activity was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reliance upon performance of activities by other entities.</I> (i) Except as specified in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, you may rely on supplier verification activities conducted in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section by another entity provided that you review and assess the results of these activities in accordance with paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) You may not rely on the foreign supplier itself or employees of the foreign supplier to perform supplier verification activities, except with respect to sampling and testing of food in accordance with paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review of results of verification activities.</I> You must promptly review and assess the results of the verification activities that you conduct or obtain documentation of under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, or that are conducted by other entities in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section. You must document your review and assessment of the results of verification activities. If the results do not provide adequate assurances that the hazards requiring a control in the food you obtain from the foreign supplier have been significantly minimized or prevented, you must take appropriate action in accordance with § 1.508(a). You are not required to retain documentation of supplier verification activities conducted by other entities, provided that you can obtain the documentation and make it available to FDA in accordance with § 1.510(b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Independence of qualified individuals conducting verification activities.</I> There must not be any financial conflicts of interests that influence the results of the verification activities set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and payment must not be related to the results of the activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.507" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.507   What requirements apply when I import a food that cannot be consumed without the hazards being controlled or for which the hazards are controlled after importation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Circumstances.</I> You are not required to conduct an evaluation of a food and foreign supplier under § 1.505 or supplier verification activities under § 1.506 when you identify a hazard requiring a control (identified hazard) in a food and any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(1) You determine and document that the type of food (<I>e.g.,</I> raw agricultural commodities such as cocoa beans and coffee beans) could not be consumed without application of an appropriate control;
</P>
<P>(2) You rely on your customer who is subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in subpart C of part 117 or subpart C of part 507 of this chapter to ensure that the identified hazard will be significantly minimized or prevented and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance, subject to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, that the customer has established and is following procedures (identified in the written assurance) that will significantly minimize or prevent the identified hazard;
</P>
<P>(3) You rely on your customer who is not subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in subpart C of part 117 or subpart C of part 507 of this chapter to provide assurance it is manufacturing, processing, or preparing the food in accordance with the applicable food safety requirements and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance that it is manufacturing, processing, or preparing the food in accordance with applicable food safety requirements;
</P>
<P>(4) You rely on your customer to provide assurance that the food will be processed to control the identified hazard by an entity in the distribution chain subsequent to the customer and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance, subject to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, that your customer:
</P>
<P>(A) Will disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(B) Will only sell the food to another entity that agrees, in writing, it will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Follow procedures (identified in a written assurance) that will significantly minimize or prevent the identified hazard (if the entity is subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in subpart C of part 117 or subpart C of part 507 of this chapter) or manufacture, process, or prepare the food in accordance with applicable food safety requirements (if the entity is not subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in subpart C of part 117 or subpart C of part 507); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Obtain a similar written assurance from the entity's customer, subject to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, as in paragraphs (a)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(5) You have established, documented, and implemented a system that ensures control, at a subsequent distribution step, of the hazards in the food you distribute and you document your implementation of that system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written assurances.</I> Any written assurances required under this section must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Effective date;
</P>
<P>(2) Printed names and signatures of authorized officials; and
</P>
<P>(3) The assurance specified in the applicable paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Provision of assurances.</I> The customer or other subsequent entity in the distribution chain for a food that provides a written assurance under paragraph (a)(2), (3), or (4) of this section must act consistently with the assurance and document its actions taken to satisfy the written assurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.508" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.508   What corrective actions must I take under my FSVP?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must promptly take appropriate corrective actions if you determine that a foreign supplier of food you import does not produce the food in compliance with processes and procedures that provide at least the same level of public health protection as those required under section 418 or 419 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, if either is applicable, and the implementing regulations, or produces food that is adulterated under section 402 or misbranded under section 403(w) (if applicable) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This determination could be based on a review of consumer, customer, or other complaints related to food safety, the verification activities conducted under § 1.506 or § 1.511(c), a reevaluation of the risks posed by the food and the foreign supplier's performance conducted under § 1.505(c) or (d), or any other relevant information you obtain. The appropriate corrective actions will depend on the circumstances but could include discontinuing use of the foreign supplier until the cause or causes of noncompliance, adulteration, or misbranding have been adequately addressed. You must document any corrective actions you take in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) If you determine, by means other than the verification activities conducted under § 1.506 or § 1.511(c) or a reevaluation conducted under § 1.505(c) or (d), that a foreign supplier of food that you import does not produce food in compliance with processes and procedures that provide at least the same level of public health protection as those required under section 418 or 419 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, if either is applicable, and the implementing regulations, or produces food that is adulterated under section 402 or misbranded under section 403(w) (if applicable) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, you must promptly investigate to determine whether your FSVP is adequate and, when appropriate, modify your FSVP. You must document any investigations, corrective actions, and changes to your FSVP that you undertake in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not limit your obligations with respect to other laws enforced by FDA, such as those relating to product recalls.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.509" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.509   How must the importer be identified at entry?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must ensure that, for each line entry of food product offered for importation into the United States, your name, electronic mail address, and unique facility identifier recognized as acceptable by FDA, identifying you as the importer of the food, are provided electronically when filing entry with U.S. Customs and Border Protection.
</P>
<P>(b) Before an article of food is imported or offered for import into the United States, the foreign owner or consignee of the food (if there is no U.S. owner or consignee) must designate a U.S. agent or representative as the importer of the food for the purposes of the definition of “importer” in § 1.500.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.510" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.510   How must I maintain records of my FSVP?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for records.</I> (1) You must keep records as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records.
</P>
<P>(2) You must sign and date records concerning your FSVP upon initial completion and upon any modification of the FSVP.
</P>
<P>(3) All records must be legible and stored to prevent deterioration or loss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record availability.</I> (1) You must make all records required under this subpart available promptly to an authorized FDA representative, upon request, for inspection and copying. Upon FDA request, you must provide within a reasonable time an English translation of records maintained in a language other than English.
</P>
<P>(2) Offsite storage of records, including records maintained by other entities in accordance with § 1.504, § 1.505, or § 1.506, is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(3) If requested in writing by FDA, you must send records to the Agency electronically, or through another means that delivers the records promptly, rather than making the records available for review at your place of business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, you must retain records referenced in this subpart until at least 2 years after you created or obtained the records.
</P>
<P>(2) You must retain records that relate to your processes and procedures, including the results of evaluations and determinations you conduct, for at least 2 years after their use is discontinued (<I>e.g.,</I> because you no longer import a particular food, you no longer use a particular foreign supplier, you have reevaluated the risks associated with a food and the foreign supplier, or you have changed your supplier verification activities for a particular food and foreign supplier).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic records.</I> Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of existing records.</I> (1) You do not need to duplicate existing records you have (<I>e.g.,</I> records that you maintain to comply with other Federal, State, or local regulations) if they contain all of the information required by this subpart. You may supplement any such existing records as necessary to include all of the information required by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) You do not need to maintain the information required by this subpart in one set of records. If existing records you have contain some of the required information, you may maintain any new information required by this subpart either separately or combined with the existing records.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public disclosure.</I> Records obtained by FDA in accordance with this subpart are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.511" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.511   What FSVP must I have if I am importing a food subject to certain requirements in the dietary supplement current good manufacturing practice regulation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Importers subject to certain requirements in the dietary supplement current good manufacturing practice regulation.</I> If you are required to establish specifications under § 111.70(b) or (d) of this chapter with respect to a food that is a dietary supplement or dietary supplement component you import for further manufacturing, processing, or packaging as a dietary supplement, and you are in compliance with the requirements in §§ 111.73 and 111.75 of this chapter applicable to determining whether the specifications you established are met for such food, then for that food you must comply with the requirements in §§ 1.503 and 1.509, but you are not required to comply with the requirements in § 1.502, §§ 1.504 through 1.508, or § 1.510. This requirement does not limit your obligations with respect to part 111 of this chapter or any other laws enforced by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Importers whose customer is subject to certain requirements in the dietary supplement current good manufacturing practice regulation.</I> If your customer is required to establish specifications under § 111.70(b) or (d) of this chapter with respect to a food that is a dietary supplement or dietary supplement component you import for further manufacturing, processing, or packaging as a dietary supplement, your customer is in compliance with the requirements of §§ 111.73 and 111.75 of this chapter applicable to determining whether the specifications it established are met for such food, and you annually obtain from your customer written assurance that it is in compliance with those requirements, then for that food you must comply with the requirements in §§ 1.503, 1.509, and 1.510, but you are not required to comply with the requirements in § 1.502 or §§ 1.504 through 1.508.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other importers of dietary supplements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> If the food you import is a dietary supplement and neither paragraph (a) or (b) of this section is applicable, you must comply with paragraph (c) of this section and the requirements in §§ 1.503, 1.505(a)(1)(ii) through (iv), (a)(2), and (b) through (d), and 1.508 through 1.510, but you are not required to comply with the requirements in §§ 1.504, 1.505(a)(1)(i), 1.506, and 1.507. This requirement does not limit your obligations with respect to part 111 of this chapter or any other laws enforced by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of approved foreign suppliers.</I> (i) You must establish and follow written procedures to ensure that you import foods only from foreign suppliers that you have approved based on the evaluation conducted under § 1.505 (or, when necessary and appropriate, on a temporary basis from unapproved foreign suppliers whose foods you subject to adequate verification activities before importing the food). You must document your use of these procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) You may rely on an entity other than the foreign supplier to establish the procedures and perform and document the activities required under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section provided that you review and assess that entity's documentation of the procedures and activities, and you document your review and assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign supplier verification procedures.</I> You must establish and follow adequate written procedures for ensuring that appropriate foreign supplier verification activities are conducted with respect to the foods you import.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Determination of appropriate foreign supplier verification activities</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section, before importing a dietary supplement from a foreign supplier, you must determine and document which verification activity or activities listed in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section, as well as the frequency with which the activity or activities must be conducted, are needed to provide adequate assurances that the foreign supplier is producing the dietary supplement in accordance with processes and procedures that provide the same level of public health protection as those required under part 111 of this chapter. This determination must be based on the evaluation conducted under § 1.505.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appropriate verification activities.</I> The following are appropriate supplier verification activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Onsite audits as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Sampling and testing of a food as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the foreign supplier's relevant food safety records as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) Other appropriate supplier verification activities as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reliance upon determination by other entity.</I> You may rely on a determination of appropriate foreign supplier verification activities in accordance with paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section made by an entity other than the foreign supplier if you review and assess whether the entity's determination regarding appropriate activities (including the frequency with which such activities must be conducted) is appropriate based on the evaluation conducted in accordance with § 1.505. You must document your review and assessment, including documenting that the determination of appropriate verification activities was made by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Performance of foreign supplier verification activities.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, for each dietary supplement you import under paragraph (c) of this section, you must conduct (and document) or obtain documentation of one or more of the verification activities listed in paragraphs (c)(5)(i)(A) through (D) of this section before importing the dietary supplement and periodically thereafter.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Onsite auditing.</I> You conduct (and document) or obtain documentation of a periodic onsite audit of your foreign supplier.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An onsite audit of a foreign supplier must be performed by a qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The onsite audit must consider the applicable requirements of part 111 of this chapter and include a review of the foreign supplier's written food safety plan, if any, and its implementation (or, when applicable, an onsite audit may consider relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the onsite audit is conducted solely to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(5) of this section by an audit agent of a certification body that is accredited in accordance with subpart M of this part, the audit is not subject to the requirements in that subpart.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) You must retain documentation of each onsite audit, including the audit procedures, the dates the audit was conducted, the conclusions of the audit, any corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the audit, and documentation that the audit was conducted by a qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The following inspection results may be substituted for an onsite audit, provided that the inspection was conducted within 1 year of the date by which the onsite audit would have been required to be conducted:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The written results of appropriate inspection of the foreign supplier for compliance with the applicable requirements in part 111 of this chapter conducted by FDA, representatives of other Federal Agencies (such as the USDA), or representatives of State, local, tribal, or territorial agencies; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The written results of an inspection by the food safety authority of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States, provided that the food that is the subject of the onsite audit is within the scope of the official recognition or equivalence determination, and the foreign supplier is in, and under the regulatory oversight of, such country.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Sampling and testing of the food.</I> You must retain documentation of each sampling and testing of a dietary supplement, including identification of the food tested (including lot number, as appropriate), the number of samples tested, the test(s) conducted (including the analytical method(s) used), the date(s) on which the test(s) were conducted and the date of the report of the testing, the results of the testing, any corrective actions taken in response to detection of hazards, information identifying the laboratory conducting the testing, and documentation that the testing was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Review of the foreign supplier's food safety records.</I> You must retain documentation of each record review, including the date(s) of review, the general nature of the records reviewed, the conclusions of the review, any corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the review, and documentation that the review was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Other appropriate activity.</I> (<I>1</I>) You may conduct (and document) or obtain documentation of other supplier verification activities that are appropriate based on foreign supplier performance and the risk associated with the food.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) You must retain documentation of each activity conducted in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(i)(D)(<I>1</I>) of this section, including a description of the activity, the date on which it was conducted, the findings or results of the activity, any corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified, and documentation that the activity was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reliance upon performance of activities by other entities.</I> (A) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(B) of this section, you may rely on supplier verification activities conducted in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(i) by another entity provided that you review and assess the results of these activities in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) You may not rely on the foreign supplier or employees of the foreign supplier to perform supplier verification activities, except with respect to sampling and testing of food in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Review of results of verification activities.</I> You must promptly review and assess the results of the verification activities that you conduct or obtain documentation of under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, or that are conducted by other entities in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section. You must document your review and assessment of the results of verification activities. If the results show that the foreign supplier is not producing the dietary supplement in accordance with processes and procedures that provide the same level of public health protection as those required under part 111 of this chapter, you must take appropriate action in accordance with § 1.508(a). You are not required to retain documentation of supplier verification activities conducted by other entities, provided that you can obtain the documentation and make it available to FDA in accordance with § 1.510(b).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Independence of qualified individuals conducting verification activities.</I> There must not be any financial conflicts of interest that influence the results of the verification activities set forth in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, and payment must not be related to the results of the activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74340, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 25327, Apr. 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.512" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.512   What FSVP may I have if I am a very small importer or I am importing certain food from certain small foreign suppliers?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> This section applies only if:
</P>
<P>(1) You are a very small importer; or
</P>
<P>(2) You are importing certain food from certain small foreign suppliers as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 117.3 or § 507.3 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) You are importing produce from a foreign supplier that is a farm that grows produce and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a) of this chapter, or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(iii) You are importing shell eggs from a foreign supplier that is not subject to the requirements of part 118 of this chapter because it has fewer than 3,000 laying hens.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicable requirements</I>—(1) <I>Documentation of eligibility</I>—(i) <I>Very small importer status.</I> (A) If you are a very small importer and you choose to comply with the requirements in this section, you must document that you meet the definition of very small importer in § 1.500 with respect to human food and/or animal food before initially importing food as a very small importer and thereafter on an annual basis by December 31 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purpose of determining whether you satisfy the definition of very small importer with respect to human food and/or animal food for a given calendar year, the relevant 3-year period of sales (and U.S. market value of human or animal food, as appropriate) is the period ending 1 year before the calendar year for which you intend to import food as a very small importer. The baseline year for calculating the adjustment for inflation is 2011. If you conduct any food sales in currency other than U.S. dollars, you must use the relevant currency exchange rate in effect on December 31 of the year in which sales occurred to calculate the value of these sales.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small foreign supplier status.</I> If you are a importing food from a small foreign supplier as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and you choose to comply with the requirements in this section, you must obtain written assurance that your foreign supplier meets the criteria in paragraph (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section before first approving the supplier for an applicable calendar year and thereafter on an annual basis by December 31 of each calendar year, for the following calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional requirements.</I> If this section applies and you choose to comply with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, you also are required to comply with the requirements in §§ 1.502, 1.503, and 1.509, but you are not required to comply with the requirements in §§ 1.504 through 1.508 or § 1.510.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign supplier verification activities.</I> (i) If you are a very small importer, for each food you import, you must obtain written assurance, before importing the food and at least every 2 years thereafter, that your foreign supplier is producing the food in compliance with processes and procedures that provide at least the same level of public health protection as those required under section 418 or 419 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, if either is applicable, and the implementing regulations, and is producing the food in compliance with sections 402 and 403(w) (if applicable) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) If your foreign supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 117.3 or § 507.3 of this chapter and you choose to comply with the requirements in this section, you must obtain written assurance, before importing the food and at least every 2 years thereafter, that the foreign supplier is producing the food in compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations (or, when applicable, relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States). The written assurance must include either:
</P>
<P>(A) A brief description of the preventive controls that the supplier is implementing to control the applicable hazard in the food; or
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the supplier is in compliance with State, local, county, tribal, or other applicable non-Federal food safety law, including relevant laws and regulations of foreign countries.
</P>
<P>(iii) If your foreign supplier is a farm that grows produce and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a) of this chapter, or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5 of this chapter, and you choose to comply with the requirements in this section, you must obtain written assurance, before importing the produce and at least every 2 years thereafter, that the farm acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(iv) If your foreign supplier is a shell egg producer that is not subject to the requirements of part 118 of this chapter because it has fewer than 3,000 laying hens and you choose to comply with the requirements in this section, you must obtain written assurance, before importing the shell eggs and at least every 2 years thereafter, that the shell egg producer acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Corrective actions.</I> You must promptly take appropriate corrective actions if you determine that a foreign supplier of food you import does not produce the food consistent with the assurance provided in accordance with § 1.512(b)(3)(i) through (iv). The appropriate corrective actions will depend on the circumstances but could include discontinuing use of the foreign supplier until the cause or causes of noncompliance, adulteration, or misbranding have been adequately addressed. You must document any corrective actions you take in accordance with this paragraph (b)(4). This paragraph (b)(4) does not limit your obligations with respect to other laws enforced by FDA, such as those relating to product recalls.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Records</I>—(i) <I>General requirements for records.</I> (A) You must keep records as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records.
</P>
<P>(B) You must sign and date records concerning your FSVP upon initial completion and upon any modification of the FSVP.
</P>
<P>(C) All records must be legible and stored to prevent deterioration or loss.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Availability.</I> (A) You must make all records required under this subpart available promptly to an authorized FDA representative, upon request, for inspection and copying. Upon FDA request, you must provide within a reasonable time an English translation of records maintained in a language other than English.
</P>
<P>(B) Offsite storage of records, including records retained by other entities in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(C) If requested in writing by FDA, you must send records to the Agency electronically or through another means that delivers the records promptly, rather than making the records available for review at your place of business.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Record retention.</I> (A) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(B) or (C) of this section, you must retain records required under this subpart for a period of at least 2 years after you created or obtained the records.
</P>
<P>(B) If you are subject to paragraph (c) of this section, you must retain records that relate to your processes and procedures, including the results of evaluations of foreign suppliers and procedures to ensure the use of approved suppliers, for at least 2 years after their use is discontinued (<I>e.g.,</I> because you have reevaluated a foreign supplier's compliance history or changed your procedures to ensure the use of approved suppliers).
</P>
<P>(C) You must retain for at least 3 years records that you rely on during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year to support your status as a very small importer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Electronic records.</I> Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this part, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Use of existing records.</I> (A) You do not need to duplicate existing records you have (<I>e.g.,</I> records that you maintain to comply with other Federal, State, or local regulations) if they contain all of the information required by this subpart. You may supplement any such existing records as necessary to include all of the information required by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(B) You do not need to maintain the information required by this subpart in one set of records. If existing records you have contain some of the required information, you may maintain any new information required by this subpart either separately or combined with the existing records.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Public disclosure.</I> Records obtained by FDA in accordance with this subpart are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for importers of food from certain small foreign suppliers.</I> The following additional requirements apply if you are importing food from certain small foreign suppliers as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and you are not a very small importer:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Evaluation of foreign supplier compliance history</I>—(i) <I>Initial evaluation.</I> Except as specified in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, in approving your foreign suppliers, you must evaluate the applicable FDA food safety regulations and information relevant to the foreign supplier's compliance with those regulations, including whether the foreign supplier is the subject of an FDA warning letter, import alert, or other FDA compliance action related to food safety, and document the evaluation. You may also consider other factors relevant to a foreign supplier's performance, including those specified in § 1.505(a)(1)(iii)(A) and (C).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reevaluation of foreign supplier compliance history.</I> (A) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, you must promptly reevaluate the concerns associated with the foreign supplier's compliance history when you become aware of new information about the matters in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, and the reevaluation must be documented. If you determine that the concerns associated with importing a food from a foreign supplier have changed, you must promptly determine (and document) whether it is appropriate to continue to import the food from the foreign supplier.
</P>
<P>(B) If at the end of any 3-year period you have not reevaluated the concerns associated with the foreign supplier's compliance history in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, you must reevaluate those concerns and take other appropriate actions, if necessary, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A). You must document your reevaluation and any subsequent actions you take in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Review of another entity's evaluation or reevaluation of foreign supplier compliance history.</I> If an entity other than the foreign supplier has, using a qualified individual, performed the evaluation described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section or the reevaluation described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii), you may meet the requirements of the applicable paragraph by reviewing and assessing the evaluation or reevaluation conducted by that entity. You must document your review and assessment, including documenting that the evaluation or reevaluation was conducted by a qualified individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval of foreign supplier.</I> You must approve your foreign suppliers on the basis of the evaluation you conducted under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section or that you review and assess under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and document your approval.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of approved foreign suppliers.</I> (i) You must establish and follow written procedures to ensure that you import foods only from foreign suppliers you have approved based on the evaluation conducted under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (or, when necessary and appropriate, on a temporary basis from unapproved foreign suppliers whose foods you subject to adequate verification activities before importing the food). You must document your use of these procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) You may rely on an entity other than the foreign supplier to establish the procedures and perform and document the activities required under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section provided that you review and assess that entity's documentation of the procedures and activities, and you document your review and assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74340, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 25327, Apr. 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.513" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.513   What FSVP may I have if I am importing certain food from a country with an officially recognized or equivalent food safety system?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) If you meet the conditions and requirements of paragraph (b) of this section for a food of the type specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that you are importing, then you are not required to comply with the requirements in §§ 1.504 through 1.508. You would still be required to comply with the requirements in §§ 1.503, 1.509, and 1.510.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to food that is not intended for further manufacturing/processing, including packaged food products and raw agricultural commodities that will not be commercially processed further before consumption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions and requirements.</I> (1) Before importing a food from the foreign supplier and annually thereafter, you must document that the foreign supplier is in, and under the regulatory oversight of, a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent to that of the United States, and that the food is within the scope of that official recognition or equivalency determination.
</P>
<P>(2) Before importing a food from the foreign supplier, you must determine and document whether the foreign supplier of the food is in good compliance standing with the food safety authority of the country in which the foreign supplier is located. You must continue to monitor whether the foreign supplier is in good compliance standing and promptly review any information obtained. If the information indicates that food safety hazards associated with the food are not being significantly minimized or prevented, you must take prompt corrective action. The appropriate corrective action will depend on the circumstances but could include discontinuing use of the foreign supplier. You must document any corrective actions that you undertake in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.514" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.11.64.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.514   What are some consequences of failing to comply with the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Refusal of admission.</I> An article of food is subject to refusal of admission under section 801(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if it appears that the importer of that food fails to comply with this subpart with respect to that food. If there is no U.S. owner or consignee of an article of food at the time the food is offered for entry into the United States, the article of food may not be imported into the United States unless the foreign owner or consignee has appropriately designated a U.S. agent or representative as the importer in accordance with § 1.500.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited act.</I> The importation or offering for importation into the United States of an article of food without the importer having an FSVP that meets the requirements of section 805 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including the requirements of this subpart, is prohibited under section 301(zz) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Accreditation of Third-Party Certification Bodies To Conduct Food Safety Audits and To Issue Certifications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74650, Nov. 27, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1.600" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.600   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>FD&amp;C Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise defined in paragraph (c) of this section, the definitions of terms in section 201 of the FD&amp;C Act apply when the terms are used in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, for the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation</I> means a determination by a recognized accreditation body (or, in the case of direct accreditation, by FDA) that a third-party certification body meets the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation body</I> means an authority that performs accreditation of third-party certification bodies.
</P>
<P><I>Accredited third-party certification body</I> means a third-party certification body that a recognized accreditation body (or, in the case of direct accreditation, FDA) has determined meets the applicable requirements of this subpart and is accredited to conduct food safety audits and to issue food or facility certifications to eligible entities. An accredited third-party certification body has the same meaning as accredited third-party auditor as defined in section 808(a)(4) of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P><I>Assessment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to an accreditation body, an evaluation by FDA of the competency and capacity of the accreditation body under the applicable requirements of this subpart for the defined scope of recognition. An assessment of the competency and capacity of the accreditation body involves evaluating the competency and capacity of the operations of the accreditation body that are relevant to decisions on recognition and, if recognized, an evaluation of its performance and the validity of its accreditation decisions under the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a third-party certification body, an evaluation by a recognized accreditation body (or, in the case of direct accreditation, FDA) of the competency and capacity of a third-party certification body under the applicable requirements of this subpart for the defined scope of accreditation. An assessment of the competency and capacity of the third-party certification body involves evaluating the competency and capacity of the operations of the third-party certification body that are relevant to decisions on accreditation and, if accredited, an evaluation of its performance and the validity of its audit results and certification decisions under the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Audit</I> means the systematic and functionally independent examination of an eligible entity under this subpart by an accredited third-party certification body or by FDA. An audit conducted under this subpart is not considered an inspection under section 704 of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P><I>Audit agent</I> means an individual who is an employee or other agent of an accredited third-party certification body who, although not individually accredited, is qualified to conduct food safety audits on behalf of an accredited third-party certification body. An audit agent includes a contractor of the accredited third-party certification body but excludes subcontractors or other agents under outsourcing arrangements for conducting food safety audits without direct control by the accredited third-party certification body.
</P>
<P><I>Consultative audit</I> means an audit of an eligible entity:
</P>
<P>(i) To determine whether such entity is in compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA regulations, and industry standards and practices;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of which are for internal purposes only; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That is conducted in preparation for a regulatory audit; only the results of a regulatory audit may form the basis for issuance of a food or facility certification under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Direct accreditation</I> means accreditation of a third-party certification body by FDA.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible entity</I> means a foreign entity in the import supply chain of food for consumption in the United States that chooses to be subject to a food safety audit under this subpart conducted by an accredited third-party certification body. Eligible entities include foreign facilities required to be registered under subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means any structure, or structures of an eligible entity under one ownership at one general physical location, or, in the case of a mobile facility, traveling to multiple locations, that manufactures/processes, packs, holds, grows, harvests, or raises animals for food for consumption in the United States. Transport vehicles are not facilities if they hold food only in the usual course of business as carriers. A facility may consist of one or more contiguous structures, and a single building may house more than one distinct facility if the facilities are under separate ownership. The private residence of an individual is not a facility. Non-bottled water drinking water collection and distribution establishments and their structures are not facilities. Facilities for the purposes of this subpart are not limited to facilities required to be registered under subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Facility certification</I> means an attestation, issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act by an accredited third-party certification body, after conducting a regulatory audit and any other activities necessary to establish whether a facility complies with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> has the meaning given in section 201(f) of the FD&amp;C Act, except that food does not include pesticides (as defined in 7 U.S.C. 136(u)).
</P>
<P><I>Food certification</I> means an attestation, issued for purposes of section 801(q) of the FD&amp;C Act by an accredited third-party certification body, after conducting a regulatory audit and any other activities necessary to establish whether a food of an eligible entity complies with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Food safety audit</I> means a regulatory audit or a consultative audit that is conducted to determine compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA regulations, and for consultative audits, also includes conformance with industry standards and practices. An eligible entity must declare that an audit is to be conducted as a regulatory audit or consultative audit at the time of audit planning and the audit will be conducted on an unannounced basis under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign cooperative</I> means an autonomous association of persons, identified as members, who are united through a jointly owned enterprise to aggregate food from member growers or processors that is intended for export to the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Recognized accreditation body</I> means an accreditation body that FDA has determined meets the applicable requirements of this subpart and is authorized to accredit third-party certification bodies under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory audit</I> means an audit of an eligible entity:
</P>
<P>(i) To determine whether such entity is in compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of which are used in determining eligibility for certification under section 801(q) or under section 806 of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P><I>Relinquishment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to an accreditation body, a decision to cede voluntarily its authority to accredit third-party certification bodies as a recognized accreditation body prior to expiration of its recognition under this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a third-party certification body, a decision to cede voluntarily its authority to conduct food safety audits and to issue food and facility certifications to eligible entities as an accredited third-party certification body prior to expiration of its accreditation under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Self-assessment</I> means an evaluation conducted by a recognized accreditation body or by an accredited third-party certification body of its competency and capacity under the applicable requirements of this subpart for the defined scope of recognition or accreditation. For recognized accreditation bodies this involves evaluating the competency and capacity of the entire operations of the accreditation body and the validity of its accreditation decisions under the applicable requirements of this subpart. For accredited third-party certification bodies this involves evaluating the competency and capacity of the entire operations of the third-party certification body and the validity of its audit results under the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Third-party certification body</I> has the same meaning as third-party auditor as that term is defined in section 808(a)(3) of the FD&amp;C Act and means a foreign government, agency of a foreign government, foreign cooperative, or any other third party that is eligible to be considered for accreditation to conduct food safety audits and to certify that eligible entities meet the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations. A third-party certification body may be a single individual or an organization. Once accredited, a third-party certification body may use audit agents to conduct food safety audits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.601" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.601   Who is subject to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accreditation bodies.</I> Any accreditation body seeking recognition from FDA to accredit third-party certification bodies to conduct food safety audits and to issue food and facility certifications under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third-party certification bodies.</I> Any third-party certification body seeking accreditation from a recognized accreditation body or direct accreditation by FDA for:
</P>
<P>(1) Conducting food safety audits; and
</P>
<P>(2) Issuing certifications that may be used in satisfying a condition of admissibility of an article of food under section 801(q) of the FD&amp;C Act; or issuing a facility certification for meeting the eligibility requirements for the Voluntary Qualified Importer Program under section 806 of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible entities.</I> Any eligible entity seeking a food safety audit or a food or facility certification from an accredited third-party certification body under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limited exemptions from section 801(q) of the FD&amp;C Act</I>—(1) <I>Alcoholic beverages.</I> (i) Any certification required under section 801(q) of the FD&amp;C Act does not apply with respect to alcoholic beverages from an eligible entity that is a facility that meets the following two conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Under the Federal Alcohol Administration Act (27 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) or chapter 51 of subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 5001 <I>et seq.</I>), the facility is a foreign facility of a type that, if it were a domestic facility, would require obtaining a permit from, registering with, or obtaining approval of a notice or application from the Secretary of the Treasury as a condition of doing business in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Under section 415 of the FD&amp;C Act, the facility is required to register as a facility because it is engaged in manufacturing/processing one or more alcoholic beverages.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any certification required under section 801(q) of the FD&amp;C Act does not apply with respect to food that is not an alcoholic beverage that is received and distributed by a facility described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, provided such food:
</P>
<P>(A) Is received and distributed in prepackaged form that prevents any direct human contact with such food; and
</P>
<P>(B) Constitutes not more than 5 percent of the overall sales of the facility, as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any certification required under section 801(q) of the FD&amp;C Act does not apply with respect to raw materials or other ingredients that are imported for use in alcoholic beverages provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The imported raw materials or other ingredients are used in the manufacturing/processing, packing, or holding of alcoholic beverages;
</P>
<P>(B) Such manufacturing/processing, packing, or holding is performed by the importer;
</P>
<P>(C) The importer is required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(D) The importer is exempt from the regulations in part 117 of this chapter in accordance with § 117.5(i).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain meat, poultry, and egg products.</I> Any certification required under section 801(q) of the FD&amp;C Act does not apply with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meat food products that at the time of importation are subject to the requirements of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Poultry products that at the time of importation are subject to the requirements of the USDA under the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Egg products that at the time of importation are subject to the requirements of the USDA under the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="64" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Recognition of Accreditation Bodies Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.610" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.610   Who is eligible to seek recognition?</HEAD>
<P>An accreditation body is eligible to seek recognition by FDA if it can demonstrate that it meets the requirements of §§ 1.611 through 1.615. The accreditation body may use documentation of conformance with International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 17011:2004, supplemented as necessary, in meeting the applicable requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.611" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.611   What legal authority must an accreditation body have to qualify for recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accreditation body seeking recognition must demonstrate that it has the authority (as a governmental entity or as a legal entity with contractual rights) to perform assessments of a third-party certification body as are necessary to determine its capability to conduct audits and certify food facilities and food, including authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Review any relevant records;
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct onsite assessments of the performance of third-party certification bodies, such as by witnessing the performance of a representative sample of its agents (or, in the case of a third-party certification body that is an individual, such individual) conducting a representative sample of audits;
</P>
<P>(3) Perform any reassessments or surveillance necessary to monitor compliance of accredited third-party certification bodies; and
</P>
<P>(4) Suspend, withdraw, or reduce the scope of accreditation for failure to comply with the requirements of accreditation.
</P>
<P>(b) An accreditation body seeking recognition must demonstrate that it is capable of exerting the authority (as a governmental entity or as a legal entity with contractual rights) necessary to meet the applicable requirements of this subpart, if recognized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.612" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.612   What competency and capacity must an accreditation body have to qualify for recognition?</HEAD>
<P>An accreditation body seeking recognition must demonstrate that it has:
</P>
<P>(a) The resources required to adequately implement its accreditation program, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate numbers of employees and other agents with relevant knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively evaluate the qualifications of third-party certification bodies seeking accreditation and to effectively monitor the performance of accredited third-party certification bodies; and
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate financial resources for its operations; and
</P>
<P>(b) The capability to meet the applicable assessment and monitoring requirements, the reporting and notification requirements, and the procedures of this subpart, if recognized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.613" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.613   What protections against conflicts of interest must an accreditation body have to qualify for recognition?</HEAD>
<P>An accreditation body must demonstrate that it has:
</P>
<P>(a) Implemented written measures to protect against conflicts of interest between the accreditation body (and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in accreditation activities) and any third-party certification body (and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities) seeking accreditation from, or accredited by, such accreditation body; and
</P>
<P>(b) The capability to meet the applicable conflict of interest requirements of this subpart, if recognized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.614" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.614   What quality assurance procedures must an accreditation body have to qualify for recognition?</HEAD>
<P>An accreditation body seeking recognition must demonstrate that it has:
</P>
<P>(a) Implemented a written program for monitoring and evaluating the performance of its officers, employees, and other agents and its accreditation program, including procedures to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify areas in its accreditation program or performance where deficiencies exist; and
</P>
<P>(2) Quickly execute corrective actions that effectively address deficiencies when identified; and
</P>
<P>(b) The capability to meet the applicable quality assurance requirements of this subpart, if recognized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.615" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.64.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.615   What records procedures must an accreditation body have to qualify for recognition?</HEAD>
<P>An accreditation body seeking recognition must demonstrate that it has:
</P>
<P>(a) Implemented written procedures to establish, control, and retain records (including documents and data) for the period of time necessary to meet its contractual and legal obligations pertaining to this subpart and to provide an adequate basis for evaluating its program and performance; and
</P>
<P>(b) The capability to meet the applicable reporting and notification requirements of this subpart, if recognized.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="65" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.65" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Accreditation Bodies That Have Been Recognized Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.620" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.65.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.620   How must a recognized accreditation body evaluate third-party certification bodies seeking accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to accrediting a third-party certification body under this subpart, a recognized accreditation body must perform, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a foreign government or an agency of a foreign government, such reviews and audits of the government's or agency's food safety programs, systems, and standards as are necessary to determine that it meets the eligibility requirements of § 1.640(b).
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a foreign cooperative or any other third-party seeking accreditation as a third-party certification body, such reviews and audits of the training and qualifications of agents conducting audits for such cooperative or other third party (or in the case of a third-party certification body that is an individual, such individual) and such reviews of internal systems and any other investigation of the cooperative or other third party necessary to determine that it meets the eligibility requirements of § 1.640(c).
</P>
<P>(3) In conducting a review and audit under paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, an observation of a representative sample of onsite audits examining compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations as conducted by the third-party certification body or its agents (or, in the case of a third-party certification body that is an individual, such individual).
</P>
<P>(b) A recognized accreditation body must require a third-party certification body, as a condition of accreditation under this subpart, to comply with the reports and notification requirements of §§ 1.652 and 1.656 and to agree to submit to FDA, electronically and in English, any food or facility certifications it issues for purposes of sections 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P>(c) A recognized accreditation body must maintain records on any denial of accreditation (in whole or in part) and on any withdrawal, suspension, or reduction in scope of accreditation of a third-party certification body under this subpart. The records must include the name and contact information for the third-party certification body; the date of the action; the scope of accreditation denied, withdrawn, suspended, or reduced; and the basis for such action.
</P>
<P>(d) A recognized accreditation body must notify any third-party certification body of an adverse decision associated with its accreditation under this subpart, including denial of accreditation or the withdrawal, suspension, or reduction in the scope of its accreditation. The recognized accreditation body must establish and implement written procedures for receiving and addressing appeals from any third-party certification body challenging such an adverse decision and for investigating and deciding on appeals in a fair and meaningful manner. The appeals procedures must provide similar protections to those offered by FDA under §§ 1.692 and 1.693, and include requirements to:
</P>
<P>(1) Make the appeals procedures publicly available;
</P>
<P>(2) Use competent persons, who may or may not be external to the recognized accreditation body, who are free from bias or prejudice and have not participated in the accreditation decision or be subordinate to a person who has participated in the accreditation decision to investigate and decide appeals;
</P>
<P>(3) Advise third-party certification bodies of the final decisions on their appeals; and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain records under § 1.625 of appeals, final decisions on appeals, and the bases for such decisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.621" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.65.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.621   How must a recognized accreditation body monitor the performance of third-party certification bodies it accredited?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recognized accreditation body must annually conduct a comprehensive assessment of the performance of each third-party certification body it accredited under this subpart by reviewing the accredited third-party certification body's self-assessments (including information on compliance with the conflict of interest requirements of §§ 1.643 and 1.657); its regulatory audit reports and notifications submitted to FDA under § 1.656; and any other information reasonably available to the recognized accreditation body regarding the compliance history of eligible entities the accredited third-party certification body certified under this subpart; or that is otherwise relevant to a determination whether the accredited third-party certification body is in compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) No later than 1 year after the initial date of accreditation of the third-party certification body and every 2 years thereafter for duration of its accreditation under this subpart, a recognized accreditation body must conduct onsite observations of a representative sample of regulatory audits performed by the third-party certification body (or its audit agents) (or, in the case of a third-party certification body that is an individual, such individual) accredited under this subpart and must visit the accredited third-party certification body's headquarters (or other location that manages audit agents conducting food safety audits under this subpart, if different than its headquarters). The recognized accreditation body will consider the results of such observations and visits in the annual assessment of the accredited third-party certification body required by paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.622" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.65.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.622   How must a recognized accreditation body monitor its own performance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recognized accreditation body must annually, and as required under § 1.664(g), conduct a self-assessment that includes evaluation of compliance with this subpart, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The performance of its officers, employees, or other agents involved in accreditation activities and the degree of consistency in conducting accreditation activities;
</P>
<P>(2) The compliance of the recognized accreditation body and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in accreditation activities, with the conflict of interest requirements of § 1.624; and
</P>
<P>(3) If requested by FDA, any other aspects of its performance relevant to a determination whether the recognized accreditation body is in compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) As a means to evaluate the recognized accreditation body's performance, the self-assessment must include onsite observation of regulatory audits of a representative sample of third-party certification bodies it accredited under this subpart. In meeting this requirement, the recognized accreditation body may use the results of onsite observations performed under § 1.621(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Based on the evaluations conducted under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the recognized accreditation body must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify any area(s) where deficiencies exist;
</P>
<P>(2) Quickly implement corrective action(s) that effectively address those deficiencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and maintain records of any such corrective action(s) under § 1.625.
</P>
<P>(d) The recognized accreditation body must prepare, and as required by § 1.623(b) submit, a written report of the results of its self-assessment that includes the following elements. Documentation of conformance to ISO/IEC 17011:2004 may be used, supplemented as necessary, in meeting the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) A description of any corrective actions taken under paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement disclosing the extent to which the recognized accreditation body, and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in accreditation activities, complied with the conflict of interest requirements in § 1.624; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement attesting to the extent to which the recognized accreditation body complied with applicable requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.623" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.65.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.623   What reports and notifications must a recognized accreditation body submit to FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting results of assessments of accredited third-party certification body performance.</I> A recognized accreditation body must submit to FDA electronically, in English, a report of the results of any assessment conducted under § 1.621, no later than 45 days after completing such assessment. The report must include an up-to-date list of any audit agents used by the accredited third-party certification body to conduct food safety audits under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting results of recognized accreditation body self-assessments.</I> A recognized accreditation body must submit to FDA electronically, in English:
</P>
<P>(1) A report of the results of an annual self-assessment required under § 1.622, no later than 45 days after completing such self-assessment; and
</P>
<P>(2) For a recognized accreditation body subject to § 1.664(g)(1), a report of such self-assessment to FDA within 60 days of the third-party certification body's withdrawal. A recognized accreditation body may use a report prepared for conformance to ISO/IEC 17011:2004, supplemented as necessary, in meeting the requirements this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Immediate notification to FDA.</I> A recognized accreditation body must notify FDA electronically, in English, immediately upon:
</P>
<P>(1) Granting (including expanding the scope of) accreditation to a third-party certification body under this subpart, and include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the accredited third-party certification body;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of one or more officers of the accredited third-party certification body;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of the accredited third-party certification body's audit agents; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The scope of accreditation, the date on which it was granted, and its expiration date.
</P>
<P>(2) Withdrawing, suspending, or reducing the scope of an accreditation under this subpart, and include:
</P>
<P>(i) The basis for such action; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any additional changes to accreditation information previously submitted to FDA under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Determining that a third-party certification body it accredited failed to comply with § 1.653 in issuing a food or facility certification under this subpart, and include:
</P>
<P>(i) The basis for such determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any changes to accreditation information previously submitted to FDA under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other notification to FDA.</I> A recognized accreditation body must notify FDA electronically, in English, within 30 days after:
</P>
<P>(1) Denying accreditation (in whole or in part) under this subpart and include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the third-party certification body;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of one or more officers of the third-party certification body;
</P>
<P>(iii) The scope of accreditation requested; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The scope and basis for such denial.
</P>
<P>(2) Making any significant change that would affect the manner in which it complies with the applicable requirements of this subpart and include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the change; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation for the purpose of the change.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.624" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.65.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.624   How must a recognized accreditation body protect against conflicts of interest?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recognized accreditation body must implement a written program to protect against conflicts of interest between the recognized accreditation body (and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in accreditation activities) and any third-party certification body (and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities) seeking accreditation from, or accredited by, such recognized accreditation body, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensuring that the recognized accreditation body (and its officers, employees, or other agents involved in accreditation activities) does not own or have a financial interest in, manage, or otherwise control the third-party certification body (or any affiliate, parent, or subsidiary); and
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibiting officers, employees, or other agents involved in accreditation activities of the recognized accreditation body from accepting any money, gift, gratuity, or item of value from the third-party certification body.
</P>
<P>(3) The items specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section do not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Money representing payment of fees for accreditation services and reimbursement of direct costs associated with an onsite assessment of the third-party certification body; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Lunch of de minimis value provided during the course of an assessment and on the premises where the assessment is conducted, if necessary to facilitate the efficient conduct of the assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) A recognized accreditation body may accept the payment of fees for accreditation services and the reimbursement of direct costs associated with assessment of a certification body only after the date on which the report of such assessment was completed or the date of which the accreditation was issued, whichever comes later. Such payment is not considered a conflict of interest for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The financial interests of the spouses and children younger than 18 years of age of a recognized accreditation body's officers, employees, and other agents involved in accreditation activities will be considered the financial interests of such officers, employees, and other agents involved in accreditation activities.
</P>
<P>(d) A recognized accreditation body must maintain on its Web site an up-to-date list of the third-party certification bodies it accredited under this subpart and must identify the duration and scope of each accreditation and the date(s) on which the accredited third-party certification body paid any fee or reimbursement associated with such accreditation. If the accreditation of a certification body is suspended, withdrawn, or reduced in scope, this list must also include the date of suspension, withdrawal, or reduction in scope and maintain that information for the duration of accreditation or until the suspension is lifted, the certification body is reaccredited, or the scope of accreditation is reinstated, whichever comes first.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.625" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.65.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.625   What records requirements must an accreditation body that has been recognized meet?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accreditation body that has been recognized must maintain electronically for 5 years records created while it is recognized (including documents and data) demonstrating its compliance with this subpart, including records relating to:
</P>
<P>(1) Applications for accreditation and renewal of accreditation under § 1.660;
</P>
<P>(2) Decisions to grant, deny, suspend, withdraw, or expand or reduce the scope of an accreditation;
</P>
<P>(3) Challenges to adverse accreditation decisions under § 1.620(c);
</P>
<P>(4) Its monitoring of accredited third-party certification bodies under § 1.621;
</P>
<P>(5) Self-assessments and corrective actions under § 1.622;
</P>
<P>(6) Regulatory audit reports, including any supporting information, that an accredited third-party certification body may have submitted;
</P>
<P>(7) Any reports or notifications to FDA under § 1.623, including any supporting information; and
</P>
<P>(8) Records of fee payments and reimbursement of direct costs.
</P>
<P>(b) An accreditation body that has been recognized must make records required by paragraph (a) of this section available for inspection and copying promptly upon written request of an authorized FDA officer or employee at the place of business of the accreditation body or at a reasonably accessible location. If the records required by paragraph (a) of this section are requested by FDA electronically, the records must be submitted to FDA electronically not later than 10 business days after the date of the request. Additionally, if the requested records are maintained in a language other than English, the accreditation body must electronically submit an English translation within a reasonable time.
</P>
<P>(c) An accreditation body that has been recognized must not prevent or interfere with FDA's access to its accredited third-party certification bodies and the accredited third-party certification body records required by § 1.658.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="66" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures for Recognition of Accreditation Bodies Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.630" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.630   How do I apply to FDA for recognition or renewal of recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicant for recognition.</I> An accreditation body seeking recognition must submit an application demonstrating that it meets the eligibility requirements in § 1.610.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicant for renewal of recognition.</I> An accreditation body seeking renewal of its accreditation must submit a renewal application demonstrating that it continues to meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> Recognition and renewal applications and any documents provided as part of the application process must be submitted electronically, in English. An applicant must provide any translation and interpretation services needed by FDA during the processing of the application, including during onsite assessments of the applicant by FDA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signature.</I> Recognition and renewal applications must be signed in the manner designated by FDA, by an individual authorized to act on behalf of the applicant for purposes of seeking recognition or renewal of recognition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.631" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.631   How will FDA review my application for recognition or renewal of recognition and what happens once FDA decides on my application?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of recognition or renewal application.</I> FDA will examine an accreditation body's recognition or renewal application for completeness and notify the applicant of any deficiencies. FDA will review an accreditation body's recognition or renewal application on a first in, first out basis according to the date on which the completed application was submitted; however, FDA may prioritize the review of specific applications to meet the needs of the program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation of recognition or renewal.</I> FDA will evaluate any completed recognition or renewal application to determine whether the applicant meets the applicable requirements of this subpart. Such evaluation may include an onsite assessment of the accreditation body. FDA will notify the applicant, in writing, regarding whether the application has been approved or denied. FDA may make such notification electronically. If FDA does not reach a final decision on a renewal application before an accreditation body's recognition terminates by expiration, FDA may extend such recognition for a specified period of time or until the Agency reaches a final decision on the renewal application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuance of recognition.</I> FDA will notify an applicant that its recognition or renewal application has been approved through issuance of recognition that will list any limitations associated with the recognition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Issuance of denial of recognition or renewal application.</I> FDA will notify an applicant that its recognition or renewal application has been denied through issuance of a denial of recognition or denial of a renewal application that will state the basis for such denial and provide the procedures for requesting reconsideration of the application under § 1.691.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of records custodian after denial of an application for renewal of recognition.</I> An applicant whose renewal application was denied must notify FDA electronically, in English, within 10 business days of the date of issuance of a denial of a renewal application, of the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain the records required by § 1.625(a) and make them available to FDA as required by § 1.625(b). The contact information for the custodian must include, at a minimum, an email address and the physical address where the records required by § 1.625(a) will be located.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect of denial of an application for renewal of recognition of an accreditation body on accredited third-party certification bodies.</I> (1) FDA will issue a notice of the denial of a recognition renewal to any third-party certification bodies accredited by the accreditation body whose renewal application was denied. The third-party certification body's accreditation will remain in effect so long as the third-party certification body:
</P>
<P>(i) No later than 60 days after FDA's issuance of the notice of the denial of recognition renewal, conducts a self-assessment under § 1.655 and reports the results of the self-assessment to FDA under § 1.656(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than 1 year after issuance of the notice of denial of recognition renewal or the original date of the expiration of the accreditation, whichever comes first, becomes accredited by another recognized accreditation body or by FDA through direct accreditation.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may withdraw the accreditation of a third-party certification body whenever FDA determines there is good cause for withdrawal of accreditation under § 1.664(c).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of denial of an application for renewal of recognition of an accreditation body on food or facility certifications issued to eligible entities.</I> A food or facility certification issued by a third-party certification body accredited by a recognized accreditation body prior to issuance of a denial of the renewal application will remain in effect until the certification expires. If FDA has reason to believe that a certification issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act is not valid or reliable, FDA may refuse to consider the certification in determining the admissibility of the article of food for which the certification was offered or in determining the importer's eligibility for participation in the voluntary qualified importer program (VQIP).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public notice of denial of an application for renewal of recognition of an accreditation body.</I> FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of the date of issuance of a denial of a renewal application and will describe the basis for the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.632" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.632   What is the duration of recognition?</HEAD>
<P>FDA may grant recognition of an accreditation body for a period not to exceed 5 years from the date of recognition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.633" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.633   How will FDA monitor recognized accreditation bodies?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will evaluate the performance of each recognized accreditation body to determine its compliance with the applicable requirements of this subpart. Such assessment must occur by at least 4 years after the date of recognition for a 5-year recognition period, or by no later than the mid-term point for a recognition period of less than 5 years. FDA may conduct additional assessments of a recognized accreditation body at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) An FDA assessment of a recognized accreditation body may include onsite assessments of a representative sample of third-party certification bodies the recognized accreditation body accredited and onsite audits of a representative sample of eligible entities certified by such third-party certification bodies under this subpart. These may be conducted at any time and, as FDA determines necessary or appropriate, may occur without the recognized accreditation body or, in the case of an audit of an eligible entity, the accredited third-party certification body present.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.634" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.634   When will FDA revoke recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for revocation of recognition.</I> FDA will revoke the recognition of an accreditation body found not to be in compliance with the requirements of this subpart, including for any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Refusal by the accreditation body to allow FDA to access records required by § 1.625, or to conduct an assessment or investigation of the accreditation body or of a third-party certification body it accredited to ensure the accreditation body's continued compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to take timely and necessary corrective action when:
</P>
<P>(i) The accreditation of a third-party certification body it accredited is withdrawn by FDA under § 1.664(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) A significant deficiency is identified through self-assessment under § 1.622, monitoring under § 1.621, or self-assessment by one or more of its accredited third-party certification bodies under § 1.655; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Directed to do so by FDA to ensure compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) A determination by FDA that the accreditation body has committed fraud or has submitted material false statements to the Agency.
</P>
<P>(4) A determination by FDA that there is otherwise good cause for revocation, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrated bias or lack of objectivity when conducting activities under this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure to adequately support one or more decisions to grant accreditation under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure to pay the annual user fee within 90 days of the payment due date, as specified in § 1.725(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records request associated with revocation.</I> To assist in determining whether revocation is warranted under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA may request records of the accreditation body required by § 1.625 or the records, required by § 1.658, of one or more of the third-party certification bodies it accredited under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuance of revocation of recognition.</I> (1) FDA will notify an accreditation body that its recognition has been revoked through issuance of a revocation that will state the grounds for revocation, the procedures for requesting a regulatory hearing under § 1.693 on the revocation, and the procedures for requesting reinstatement of recognition under § 1.636.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 business days of the date of issuance of the revocation, the accreditation body must notify FDA electronically, in English, of the name of the custodian who will maintain the records and make them available to FDA as required by § 1.625. The contact information for the custodian must provide, at a minimum, an email address and the physical address where the records will be located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of revocation of recognition of an accreditation body on accredited third-party certification bodies.</I> (1) FDA will issue a notice of the revocation of recognition to any accredited third-party certification body accredited by the accreditation body whose recognition was revoked. The third-party certification body's accreditation will remain in effect if the third-party certification body:
</P>
<P>(i) No later than 60 days after FDA's issuance of the notice of revocation, conducts a self-assessment under § 1.655 and reports the results of the self-assessment to FDA under § 1.656(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than 1 year after issuance of the notice of the revocation, or the original date of expiration of the accreditation, whichever comes first, becomes accredited by another recognized accreditation body or by FDA through direct accreditation.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may withdraw the accreditation of a third-party certification body whenever FDA determines there is good cause for withdrawal of accreditation under § 1.664(c).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of revocation of recognition of an accreditation body on food or facility certifications issued to eligible entities.</I> A food or facility certification issued by a third-party certification body accredited by a recognized accreditation body prior to issuance of the revocation of recognition will remain in effect until the certificate terminates by expiration. If FDA has reason to believe that a certification issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act is not valid or reliable, FDA may refuse to consider the certification in determining the admissibility of the article of food for which the certification was offered or in determining the importer's eligibility for participation in VQIP.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public notice of revocation of recognition.</I> FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of the issuance of the revocation of recognition of an accreditation body and will describe the basis for revocation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74650, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 90193, Dec. 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.635" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.635   What if I want to voluntarily relinquish recognition or do not want to renew recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to FDA of intent to relinquish or not to renew recognition.</I> A recognized accreditation body must notify FDA electronically, in English, at least 60 days before voluntarily relinquishing recognition or before allowing recognition to expire without seeking renewal. The recognized accreditation body must provide the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain the records required under § 1.625(a) after the date of relinquishment or the date recognition expires, as applicable, and make them available to FDA as required by § 1.625(b). The contact information for the custodian must include, at a minimum, an email address and the physical address where the records required by § 1.625(a) will be located.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to accredited third-party certification bodies of intent to relinquish or not to renew recognition.</I> No later than 15 business days after notifying FDA under paragraph (a) of this section, the recognized accreditation body must notify any currently accredited third-party certification body that it intends to relinquish recognition or to allow its recognition to expire, specifying the date on which relinquishment or expiration will occur. The recognized accreditation body must establish and maintain records of such notification under § 1.625.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Effect of voluntary relinquishment or expiration of recognition on third-party certification bodies.</I> The accreditation of a third-party certification body issued prior to the relinquishment or expiration of its accreditation body's recognition will remain in effect, so long as the third-party certification body:
</P>
<P>(i) No later than 60 days after the date of relinquishment or the date of expiration of the recognition, conducts a self-assessment under § 1.655 and reports the results of the self-assessment to FDA under § 1.656(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than 1 year after the date of relinquishment or the date of expiration of recognition, or the original date of the expiration of the accreditation, whichever comes first, becomes accredited by another recognized accreditation body or by FDA through direct accreditation.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may withdraw the accreditation of a third-party certification body whenever FDA determines there is good cause for withdrawal of accreditation under § 1.664(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of voluntary relinquishment or expiration of recognition of an accreditation body on food or facility certifications issued to eligible entities.</I> A food or facility certification issued by a third-party certification body accredited by a recognized accreditation body prior to relinquishment or expiration of its recognition will remain in effect until the certification expires. If FDA has reason to believe that a certification issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act is not valid or reliable, FDA may refuse to consider the certification in determining the admissibility of the article of food for which the certification was offered or in determining the importer's eligibility for participation in VQIP.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public notice of voluntary relinquishment or expiration of recognition.</I> FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of the voluntary relinquishment or expiration of recognition of an accreditation body under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.636" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.66.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.636   How do I request reinstatement of recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application following revocation.</I> An accreditation body that has had its recognition revoked may seek reinstatement by submitting a new application for recognition under § 1.630. The accreditation body must submit evidence that the grounds for revocation have been resolved, including evidence addressing the cause or conditions that were the basis for revocation and identifying measures that have been implemented to help ensure that such cause(s) or condition(s) are unlikely to recur.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application following relinquishment.</I> An accreditation body that previously relinquished its recognition under § 1.635 may seek recognition by submitting a new application for recognition under § 1.630.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="67" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.67" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Accreditation of Third-Party Certification Bodies Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.640" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.67.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.640   Who is eligible to seek accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A foreign government, agency of a foreign government, foreign cooperative, or any other third party may seek accreditation from a recognized accreditation body (or, where direct accreditation is appropriate, FDA) to conduct food safety audits and to issue food and facility certifications to eligible entities under this subpart. An accredited third-party certification body may use documentation of conformance with ISO/IEC 17021: 2011 or ISO/IEC 17065: 2012, supplemented as necessary, in meeting the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) A foreign government or an agency of a foreign government is eligible for accreditation if it can demonstrate that its food safety programs, systems, and standards meet the requirements of §§ 1.641 through 1.645.
</P>
<P>(c) A foreign cooperative or other third party is eligible for accreditation if it can demonstrate that the training and qualifications of its agents used to conduct audits (or, in the case of a third-party certification body that is an individual, such individual) and its internal systems and standards meet the requirements of §§ 1.641 through 1.645.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.641" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.67.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.641   What legal authority must a third-party certification body have to qualify for accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A third-party certification body seeking accreditation from a recognized accreditation body or from FDA must demonstrate that it has the authority (as a governmental entity or as a legal entity with contractual rights) to perform such examinations of facilities, their process(es), and food(s) as are necessary to determine compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations, and conformance with applicable industry standards and practices and to issue certifications where appropriate based on a review of the findings of such examinations. This includes authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Review any relevant records;
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct onsite audits of an eligible entity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Suspend or withdraw certification for failure to comply with applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) A third-party certification body seeking accreditation must demonstrate that it is capable of exerting the authority (as a governmental entity or as legal entity with contractual rights) necessary to meet the applicable requirements of accreditation under this subpart if accredited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.642" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.67.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.642   What competency and capacity must a third-party certification body have to qualify for accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>A third-party certification body seeking accreditation must demonstrate that it has:
</P>
<P>(a) The resources necessary to fully implement its certification program, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate numbers of employees and other agents with relevant knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively examine for compliance with applicable FDA food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations, conformance with applicable industry standards and practices, and issuance of valid and reliable certifications; and
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate financial resources for its operations; and
</P>
<P>(b) The competency and capacity to meet the applicable requirements of this subpart, if accredited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.643" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.67.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.643   What protections against conflicts of interest must a third-party certification body have to qualify for accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>A third-party certification body must demonstrate that it has:
</P>
<P>(a) Implemented written measures to protect against conflicts of interest between the third-party certification body (and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities) and clients seeking examinations or certification from, or audited or certified by, such third-party certification body; and
</P>
<P>(b) The capability to meet the conflict of interest requirements in § 1.657, if accredited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.644" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.67.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.644   What quality assurance procedures must a third-party certification body have to qualify for accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>A third-party certification body seeking accreditation must demonstrate that it has:
</P>
<P>(a) Implemented a written program for monitoring and evaluating the performance of its officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities, including procedures to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify deficiencies in its auditing and certification program or performance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Quickly execute corrective actions that effectively address any identified deficiencies; and
</P>
<P>(b) The capability to meet the quality assurance requirements of § 1.655, if accredited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.645" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.67.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.645   What records procedures must a third-party certification body have to qualify for accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>A third-party certification body seeking accreditation must demonstrate that it:
</P>
<P>(a) Implemented written procedures to establish, control, and retain records (including documents and data) for a period of time necessary to meet its contractual and legal obligations and to provide an adequate basis for evaluating its program and performance; and
</P>
<P>(b) Is capable of meeting the reporting, notification, and records requirements of this subpart, if accredited.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="68" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Third-Party Certification Bodies That Have Been Accredited Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.650" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.650   How must an accredited third-party certification body ensure its audit agents are competent and objective?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accredited third-party certification body that uses audit agents to conduct food safety audits must ensure that each such audit agent meets the following requirements with respect to the scope of its accreditation under this subpart. If the accredited third-party certification body is an individual, that individual is also subject to the following requirements, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Has relevant knowledge and experience that provides an adequate basis for the audit agent to evaluate compliance with applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations and, for consultative audits, also includes conformance with applicable industry standards and practices;
</P>
<P>(2) Has been determined by the accredited third-party certification body, through observations of a representative sample of audits, to be competent to conduct food safety audits under this subpart relevant to the audits they will be assigned to perform;
</P>
<P>(3) Has completed annual food safety training that is relevant to activities conducted under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) Is in compliance with the conflict of interest requirements of § 1.657 and has no other conflicts of interest with the eligible entity to be audited that might impair the audit agent's objectivity; and
</P>
<P>(5) Agrees to notify its accredited third-party certification body immediately upon discovering, during a food safety audit, any condition that could cause or contribute to a serious risk to the public health.
</P>
<P>(b) In assigning an audit agent to conduct a food safety audit at a particular eligible entity, an accredited third-party certification body must determine that the audit agent is qualified to conduct such audit under the criteria established in paragraph (a) of this section and based on the scope and purpose of the audit and the type of facility, its process(es), and food.
</P>
<P>(c) An accredited third-party certification body cannot use an audit agent to conduct a regulatory audit at an eligible entity if such audit agent conducted a consultative audit or regulatory audit for the same eligible entity in the preceding 13 months, except that such limitation may be waived if the accredited third-party certification body demonstrates to FDA, under § 1.663, there is insufficient access to audit agents in the country or region where the eligible entity is located. If the accredited third-party certification body is an individual, that individual is also subject to such limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.651" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.651   How must an accredited third-party certification body conduct a food safety audit of an eligible entity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Audit planning.</I> Before beginning to conduct a food safety audit under this subpart, an accredited third-party certification body must:
</P>
<P>(1) Require the eligible entity seeking a food safety audit to:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the scope and purpose of the food safety audit, including the facility, process(es), or food to be audited; whether the food safety audit is to be conducted as a consultative or regulatory audit subject to the requirements of this subpart, and if a regulatory audit, the type(s) of certification(s) sought; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a 30-day operating schedule for such facility that includes information relevant to the scope and purpose of the audit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the requested audit is within its scope of accreditation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to audit.</I> In arranging a food safety audit with an eligible entity under this subpart, an accredited third-party certification body must ensure it has authority, whether contractual or otherwise, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct an unannounced audit to determine whether the facility, process(es), and food of the eligible entity (within the scope of the audit) comply with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations and, for consultative audits, also includes conformance with applicable industry standards and practices;
</P>
<P>(2) Access any records and any area of the facility, process(es), and food of the eligible entity relevant to the scope and purpose of such audit;
</P>
<P>(3) When, for a regulatory audit, sampling and analysis is conducted, the accredited third-party certification body must use a laboratory that is accredited in accordance with ISO/IEC 17025:2017 to perform the analysis.
</P>
<P>(4) Notify FDA immediately if, at any time during a food safety audit, the accredited third-party certification body (or its audit agent, where applicable) discovers a condition that could cause or contribute to a serious risk to the public health and provide information required by § 1.656(c);
</P>
<P>(5) Prepare reports of audits conducted under this subpart as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For consultative audits, prepare reports that contain the elements specified in § 1.652(a) and maintain such records, subject to FDA access in accordance with section 414 of the FD&amp;C Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For regulatory audits, prepare reports that contain the elements specified in § 1.652(b) and submit them to FDA and to its recognized accreditation body (where applicable) under § 1.656(a); and
</P>
<P>(6) Allow FDA and the recognized accreditation body that accredited such third-party certification body, if any, to observe any food safety audit conducted under this subpart for purposes of evaluating the accredited third-party certification body's performance under §§ 1.621 and 1.662 or, where appropriate, the recognized accreditation body's performance under §§ 1.622 and 1.633.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Audit protocols.</I> An accredited third-party certification body (or its audit agent, where applicable) must conduct a food safety audit in a manner consistent with the identified scope and purpose of the audit and within the scope of its accreditation.
</P>
<P>(1) With the exception of records review, which may be scheduled, the audit must be conducted without announcement during the 30-day timeframe identified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section and must be focused on determining whether the facility, its process(es), and food are in compliance with applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations, and, for consultative audits, also includes conformance with applicable industry standards and practices that are within the scope of the audit.
</P>
<P>(2) The audit must include records review prior to the onsite examination; an onsite examination of the facility, its process(es), and the food that results from such process(es); and where appropriate or when required by FDA, environmental or product sampling and analysis. When, for a regulatory audit, sampling and analysis is conducted, the accredited third-party certification body must use a laboratory that is accredited in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section to conduct the analysis. The audit may include any other activities necessary to determine compliance with applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations, and, for consultative audits, also includes conformance with applicable industry standards and practices.
</P>
<P>(3) The audit must be sufficiently rigorous to allow the accredited third-party certification body to determine whether the eligible entity is in compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations, and for consultative audits, also includes conformance with applicable industry standards and practices, at the time of the audit; and for a regulatory audit, whether the eligible entity, given its food safety system and practices would be likely to remain in compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations for the duration of any certification issued under this subpart. An accredited third-party certification body (or its audit agent, where applicable) that identifies a deficiency requiring corrective action may verify the effectiveness of a corrective action once implemented by the eligible entity but must not recommend or provide input to the eligible entity in identifying, selecting, or implementing the corrective action.
</P>
<P>(4) Audit observations and other data and information from the examination, including information on corrective actions, must be documented and must be used to support the findings contained in the audit report required by § 1.652 and maintained as a record under § 1.658.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74650, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 68817, Dec. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.652" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.652   What must an accredited third-party certification body include in food safety audit reports?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consultative audits.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must prepare a report of a consultative audit not later than 45 days after completing such audit and must provide a copy of such report to the eligible entity and must maintain such report under § 1.658, subject to FDA access in accordance with the requirements of section 414 of the FD&amp;C Act. A consultative audit report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity of the site or location where the consultative audit was conducted, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address and the FDA Establishment Identifier of the facility subject to the consultative audit and a unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where applicable, the FDA registration number assigned to the facility under subpart H of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The identity of the eligible entity, if different from the facility, including the name, address, the FDA Establishment Identifier and unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA, and, where applicable, registration number under subpart H of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The name(s) and telephone number(s) of the person(s) responsible for compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations
</P>
<P>(4) The dates and scope of the consultative audit;
</P>
<P>(5) The process(es) and food(s) observed during such consultative audit; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any deficiencies observed that relate to or may influence a determination of compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations that require corrective action, the corrective action plan, and the date on which such corrective actions were completed. Such consultative audit report must be maintained as a record under § 1.658 and must be made available to FDA in accordance with section 414 of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory audits.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must, no later than 45 days after completing a regulatory audit, prepare and submit electronically, in English, to FDA and to its recognized accreditation body (or, in the case of direct accreditation, only to FDA) and must provide to the eligible entity a report of such regulatory audit that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity of the site or location where the regulatory audit was conducted, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and FDA Establishment Identifier of the facility subject to the regulatory audit and a unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where applicable, the FDA registration number assigned to the facility under subpart H of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The identity of the eligible entity, if different from the facility, including the name, address, FDA Establishment Identifier, and unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA, and, where applicable, registration number under subpart H of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The dates and scope of the regulatory audit;
</P>
<P>(4) The process(es) and food(s) observed during such regulatory audit;
</P>
<P>(5) The name(s) and telephone number(s) of the person(s) responsible for the facility's compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) Any deficiencies observed during the regulatory audit that present a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to a violative product:
</P>
<P>(i) Will cause serious adverse health consequences or death to humans and animals; or
</P>
<P>(ii) May cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences or where the probability of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals is remote;
</P>
<P>(7) The corrective action plan for addressing each deficiency identified under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, unless corrective action was implemented immediately and verified onsite by the accredited third-party certification body (or its audit agent, where applicable);
</P>
<P>(8) Whether any sampling and laboratory analysis (<I>e.g.,</I> under a microbiological sampling plan) is performed in or used by the facility; and
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the eligible entity has made significant changes to the facility, its process(es), or food products during the 2 years preceding the regulatory audit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of regulatory audit report.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must submit a completed regulatory audit report as required by paragraph (b) of this section, regardless of whether the certification body issued a food or facility certification to the eligible entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice and appeals of adverse regulatory audit results.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must notify an eligible entity of a denial of certification and must establish and implement written procedures for receiving and addressing appeals from eligible entities challenging such adverse regulatory audit results and for investigating and deciding on appeals in a fair and meaningful manner. The appeals procedures must provide similar protections to those offered by FDA under §§ 1.692 and 1.693, including requirements to:
</P>
<P>(1) Make the appeals procedures publicly available;
</P>
<P>(2) Use competent persons, who may or may not be external to the accredited third-party certification body, who are free from bias or prejudice and have not participated in the certification decision or be subordinate to a person who has participated in the certification decision, to investigate and decide appeals;
</P>
<P>(3) Advise the eligible entity of the final decision on its appeal; and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain records under § 1.658 of the appeal, the final decision, and the basis for such decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.653" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.653   What must an accredited third-party certification body do when issuing food or facility certifications?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis for issuance of a food or facility certification.</I> (1) Prior to issuing a food or facility certification to an eligible entity, an accredited third-party certification body (or, where applicable, an audit agent on its behalf) must complete a regulatory audit that meets the requirements of § 1.651 and any other activities that may be necessary to determine compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) If, as a result of an observation during a regulatory audit, an eligible entity must implement a corrective action plan to address a deficiency, an accredited third-party certification body may not issue a food or facility certification to such entity until after the accredited third-party certification body verifies that eligible entity has implemented the corrective action plan through methods that reliably verify the corrective action was taken and as a result the identified deficiency is unlikely to recur, except onsite verification is required for corrective actions required to address deficiencies that are the subject of a notification under § 1.656(c).
</P>
<P>(3) An accredited third-party certification body must consider each observation and the data and other information from a regulatory audit and other activities conducted under § 1.651 to determine whether the entity was in compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations at the time of the audit and whether the eligible entity, given its food safety system and practices, would be likely to remain in compliance for the duration of any certification issued under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) A single regulatory audit may result in issuance of one or more food or facility certifications under this subpart, provided that the requirements of issuance are met as to each such certification.
</P>
<P>(5) Where an accredited third-party certification body uses an audit agent to conduct a regulatory audit of an eligible entity under this subpart, the accredited third-party certification body (and not the audit agent) must make the determination whether to issue a food or facility certification based on the results of such regulatory audit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of a food or facility certification and submission to FDA.</I> (1) Any food or facility certification issued under this subpart must be submitted to FDA electronically and in English. The accredited third-party certification body may issue a food or facility certification under this subpart for a term of up to 12 months.
</P>
<P>(2) A food or facility certification must contain, at a minimum, the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the accredited third-party certification body and the scope and date of its accreditation under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name, address, FDA Establishment Identifier, and unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA, of the eligible entity to which the food or facility certification was issued;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name, address, FDA Establishment Identifier, and unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA, of the facility where the regulatory audit was conducted, if different than the eligible entity;
</P>
<P>(iv) The scope and date(s) of the regulatory audit and the certification number;
</P>
<P>(v) The name of the audit agent(s) (where applicable) conducting the regulatory audit; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The scope of the food or facility certification, date of issuance, and date of expiration.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may refuse to accept any certification for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act, if FDA determines, that such food or facility certification is not valid or reliable because, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) The certification is offered in support of the admissibility of a food that was not within the scope of the certification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The certification was issued by an accredited third-party certification body acting outside the scope of its accreditation under this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The certification was issued without reliable demonstration that the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section were met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.654" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.654   When must an accredited third-party certification body monitor an eligible entity that it has issued a food or facility certification?</HEAD>
<P>If an accredited third-party certification body has reason to believe that an eligible entity to which it issued a food or facility certification may no longer be in compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations, the accredited third-party certification body must conduct any monitoring (including an onsite audit) of such eligible entity necessary to determine whether the entity is in compliance with such requirements. The accredited third-party certification body must immediately notify FDA, under § 1.656(d), if it withdraws or suspends a food or facility certification because it determines that the entity is no longer in compliance with the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations. The accredited third-party certification body must maintain records of such monitoring under § 1.658.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.655" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.655   How must an accredited third-party certification body monitor its own performance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accredited third-party certification body must annually, upon FDA request made for cause, or as required under § 1.631(f)(1)(i), § 1.634(d)(1)(i), or § 1.635(c)(1)(i), conduct a self-assessment that includes evaluation of compliance with this subpart, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The performance of its officers, employees, or other agents involved in auditing and certification activities, including the performance of audit agents in examining facilities, process(es), and food using the applicable food safety requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and FDA regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) The degree of consistency among its officers, employees, or other agents involved in auditing and certification activities, including evaluating whether its audit agents interpreted audit protocols in a consistent manner;
</P>
<P>(3) The compliance of the accredited third-party certification body and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities, with the conflict of interest requirements of § 1.657;
</P>
<P>(4) Actions taken in response to the results of any assessments conducted by FDA or, where applicable, the recognized accreditation body under § 1.621; and
</P>
<P>(5) As requested by FDA, any other aspects of its performance relevant to a determination of whether the accredited third-party certification body is in compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) As a means to assess its performance, the accredited third-party certification body may evaluate the compliance of one or more of eligible entities to which a food or facility certification was issued under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) Based on the assessments and evaluations conducted under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the accredited third-party certification body must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify any deficiencies in complying with the requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Quickly implement corrective action(s) that effectively address the identified deficiencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) Under § 1.658, establish and maintain records of such corrective action(s).
</P>
<P>(d) The accredited third-party certification body must prepare a written report of the results of its self-assessment that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of any corrective action(s) taken under paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement disclosing the extent to which the accredited third-party certification body, and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities, complied with the conflict of interest requirements in § 1.657; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement attesting to the extent to which the accredited third-party certification body complied with the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) An accredited third-party certification body may use a report, supplemented as necessary, on its conformance to ISO/IEC 17021: 2011 or ISO/IEC 17065: 2012 in meeting the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.656" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.656   What reports and notifications must an accredited third-party certification body submit?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting results of regulatory audits.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must submit a regulatory audit report, as described in § 1.652(b), electronically, in English, to FDA and to the recognized accreditation body that granted its accreditation (where applicable), no later than 45 days after completing such audit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting results of accredited third-party certification body self-assessments.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must submit the report of its annual self-assessment required by § 1.655 electronically to its recognized accreditation body (or, in the case of direct accreditation, electronically and in English, to FDA), within 45 days of the anniversary date of its accreditation under this subpart. For an accredited third-party certification body subject to an FDA request for cause, or § 1.631(f)(1)(i), § 1.634(d)(1)(i), or § 1.635(c)(1)(i), the report of its self-assessment must be submitted to FDA electronically, in English, within 60 days of the FDA request, denial of renewal, revocation, or relinquishment of recognition of the accreditation body that granted its accreditation. Such report must include an up-to-date list of any audit agents it uses to conduct audits under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to FDA of a serious risk to public health.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must immediately notify FDA electronically, in English, if during a regulatory or consultative audit, any of its audit agents or the accredited third-party certification body itself discovers a condition that could cause or contribute to a serious risk to the public health, providing the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, physical address, and unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA, of the eligible entity subject to the audit, and, where applicable, the registration number under subpart H of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, physical address, and unique facility identifier, if designated by FDA, of the facility where the condition was discovered (if different from that of the eligible entity) and, where applicable, the registration number assigned to the facility under subpart H of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) The condition for which notification is submitted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Immediate notification to FDA of withdrawal or suspension of a food or facility certification.</I> An accredited third-party certification body must notify FDA electronically, in English, immediately upon withdrawing or suspending any food or facility certification of an eligible entity and the basis for such action.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification to its recognized accreditation body or an eligible entity.</I> (1) After notifying FDA under paragraph (c) of this section, an accredited third-party certification body must immediately notify the eligible entity of such condition and must immediately thereafter notify the recognized accreditation body that granted its accreditation, except for third-party certification bodies directly accredited by FDA. Where feasible and reliable, the accredited third-party certification body may contemporaneously notify its recognized accreditation body and/or the eligible entity when notifying FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) An accredited third-party certification body must notify its recognized accreditation body (or, in the case of direct accreditation, FDA) electronically, in English, within 30 days after making any significant change that would affect the manner in which it complies with the requirements of this subpart and must include with such notification the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the change; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation for the purpose of the change.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.657" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.657   How must an accredited third-party certification body protect against conflicts of interest?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accredited third-party certification body must implement a written program to protect against conflicts of interest between the accredited third-party certification body (and its officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities) and an eligible entity seeking a food safety audit or food or facility certification from, or audited or certified by, such accredited third-party certification body, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensuring that the accredited third-party certification body and its officers, employees, or other agents involved in auditing and certification activities do not own, operate, have a financial interest in, manage, or otherwise control an eligible entity to be certified, or any affiliate, parent, or subsidiary of the entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensuring that the accredited third-party certification body and, its officers, employees, or other agents involved in auditing and certification activities are not owned, managed, or controlled by any person that owns or operates an eligible entity to be certified;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensuring that an audit agent of the accredited third-party certification body does not own, operate, have a financial interest in, manage, or otherwise control an eligible entity or any affiliate, parent, or subsidiary of the entity that is subject to a consultative or regulatory audit by the audit agent; and
</P>
<P>(4) Prohibiting an accredited third-party certification body's officer, employee, or other agent involved in auditing and certification activities from accepting any money, gift, gratuity, or other item of value from the eligible entity to be audited or certified under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) The items specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section do not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Money representing payment of fees for auditing and certification services and reimbursement of direct costs associated with an onsite audit by the third-party certification body; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Lunch of de minimis value provided during the course of an audit and on the premises where the audit is conducted, if necessary to facilitate the efficient conduct of the audit.
</P>
<P>(b) An accredited third-party certification body may accept the payment of fees for auditing and certification services and the reimbursement of direct costs associated with an audit of an eligible entity only after the date on which the report of such audit was completed or the date a food or facility certification was issued, whichever is later. Such payment is not considered a conflict of interest for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The financial interests of the spouses and children younger than 18 years of age of accredited third-party certification body's officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities will be considered the financial interests of such officers, employees, and other agents involved in auditing and certification activities.
</P>
<P>(d) An accredited third-party certification body must maintain on its Web site an up-to-date list of the eligible entities to which it has issued food or facility certifications under this subpart. For each such eligible entity, the Web site also must identify the duration and scope of the food or facility certification and date(s) on which the eligible entity paid the accredited third-party certification body any fee or reimbursement associated with such audit or certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.658" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.68.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.658   What records requirements must a third-party certification body that has been accredited meet?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A third-party certification body that has been accredited must maintain electronically for 4 years records created during its period of accreditation (including documents and data) that document compliance with this subpart, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Any audit report and other documents resulting from a consultative audit conducted under this subpart, including the audit agent's observations, correspondence with the eligible entity, verification of any corrective action(s) taken to address deficiencies identified during the audit;
</P>
<P>(2) Any request for a regulatory audit from an eligible entity;
</P>
<P>(3) Any audit report and other documents resulting from a regulatory audit conducted under this subpart, including the audit agent's observations, correspondence with the eligible entity, verification of any corrective action(s) taken to address deficiencies identified during the audit, and, when sampling and analysis is conducted, laboratory testing records and results from a laboratory that is accredited in accordance with § 1.651(b)(3), and documentation demonstrating such laboratory is accredited in accordance with § 1.651(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) Any notification submitted by an audit agent to the accredited third-party certification body in accordance with § 1.650(a)(5);
</P>
<P>(5) Any challenge to an adverse regulatory audit decision and the disposition of the challenge;
</P>
<P>(6) Any monitoring it conducted of an eligible entity to which food or facility certification was issued;
</P>
<P>(7) Its self-assessments and corrective actions taken to address any deficiencies identified during a self-assessment; and
</P>
<P>(8) Significant changes to its auditing or certification program that might affect compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) An accredited third-party certification body must make the records of a consultative audit required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section available to FDA in accordance with section 414 of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P>(c) An accredited third-party certification body must make the records required by paragraphs (a)(2) through (8) of this section available for inspection and copying promptly upon written request of an authorized FDA officer or employee at the place of business of the accredited third-party certification body or at a reasonably accessible location. If such records are requested by FDA electronically, the records must be submitted electronically not later than 10 business days after the date of the request. Additionally, if the records are maintained in a language other than English, an accredited third-party certification body must electronically submit an English translation within a reasonable time.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="69" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures for Accreditation of Third-Party Certification Bodies Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.660" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.660   Where do I apply for accreditation or renewal of accreditation by a recognized accreditation body and what happens once the recognized accreditation body decides on my application?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of accreditation or renewal application to a recognized accreditation body.</I> A third-party certification body seeking accreditation must submit its request for accreditation or renewal of accreditation by a recognized accreditation body identified on the Web site described in § 1.690.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of records custodian after denial of application for renewal of accreditation.</I> An applicant whose renewal application was denied by a recognized accreditation body must notify FDA electronically, in English, within 10 business days of the date of issuance of a denial of accreditation or denial of the renewal application, of the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain the records required by § 1.658(a) and make them available to FDA as required by § 1.658(b) and (c). The contact information for the custodian must include, at a minimum, an email address and the physical address where the records required by § 1.658(a) will be located.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of denial of an application for renewal of accreditation on food or facility certifications issued to eligible entities.</I> A food or facility certification issued by an accredited third-party certification body prior to issuance of the denial of its renewal application l will remain in effect until the certification expires. If FDA has reason to believe that a certification issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act is not valid or reliable, FDA may refuse to consider the certification in determining the admissibility of the article of food for which the certification was offered or in determining the importer's eligibility for participation in VQIP.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public notice of denial of an application for renewal of accreditation.</I> FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of the date of issuance of a denial of renewal of accreditation of a third-party certification body that had previous been accredited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.661" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.661   What is the duration of accreditation by a recognized accreditation body?</HEAD>
<P>A recognized accreditation body may grant accreditation to a third-party certification body under this subpart for a period not to exceed 4 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.662" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.662   How will FDA monitor accredited third-party certification bodies?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will periodically evaluate the performance of each accredited third-party certification body to determine whether the accredited third-party certification body continues to comply with the applicable requirements of this subpart and whether there are deficiencies in the performance of the accredited third-party certification body that, if not corrected, would warrant withdrawal of its accreditation under § 1.664. FDA will evaluate each directly accredited third-party certification body annually. For a third-party certification body accredited by a recognized accreditation body, FDA will evaluate an accredited third-party certification body not later than 3 years after the date of accreditation for a 4-year term of accreditation, or by no later than the mid-term point for accreditation granted for less than 4 years. FDA may conduct additional performance assessments of an accredited third-party certification body at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) In evaluating the performance of an accredited third-party certification body under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA may review any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulatory audit reports and food and facility certifications;
</P>
<P>(2) The accredited third-party certification body's self-assessments under § 1.655;
</P>
<P>(3) Reports of assessments by a recognized accreditation body under § 1.621;
</P>
<P>(4) Documents and other information relevant to a determination of the accredited third-party certification body's compliance with the applicable requirements of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(5) Information obtained by FDA, including during inspections, audits, onsite observations, or investigations, of one or more eligible entities to which a food or facility certification was issued by such accredited third-party certification body.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may conduct its evaluation of an accredited third-party certification body through a site visit to an accredited third-party certification body's headquarters (or other location that manages audit agents conducting food safety audits under this subpart, if different than its headquarters), through onsite observation of an accredited third party certification body's performance during a food safety audit of an eligible entity, or through document review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.663" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.663   How do I request an FDA waiver or waiver extension for the 13-month limit for audit agents conducting regulatory audits?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accredited third-party certification body may submit a request to FDA to waive the requirements of § 1.650(c) preventing an audit agent from conducting a regulatory audit of an eligible entity if the audit agent (or, in the case that the third-party certification body is an individual, the third-party certification body) has conducted a food safety audit of such entity during the previous 13 months. The accredited third-party certification body seeking a waiver or waiver extension must demonstrate there is insufficient access to audit agents and any third-party certification bodies that are comprised of an individual in the country or region where the eligible entity is located.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for a waiver or waiver extension and all documents provided in support of the request must be submitted to FDA electronically, in English. The requestor must provide such translation and interpretation services as are needed by FDA to process the request.
</P>
<P>(c) The request must be signed by the requestor or by any individual authorized to act on behalf of the requestor for purposes of seeking such waiver or waiver extension.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will review requests for waivers and waiver extensions on a first in, first out basis according to the date on which the completed submission is received; however, FDA may prioritize the review of specific requests to meet the needs of the program. FDA will evaluate any completed waiver request to determine whether the criteria for waiver have been met.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will notify the requestor whether the request for a waiver or waiver extension is approved or denied.
</P>
<P>(f) If FDA approves the request, issuance of the waiver will state the duration of the waiver and list any limitations associated with it. If FDA denies the request, the issuance of a denial of a waiver request will state the basis for denial and will provide the address and procedures for requesting reconsideration of the request under § 1.691.
</P>
<P>(g) Unless FDA notifies a requestor that its waiver request has been approved, an accredited third-party certification body must not use the audit agent to conduct a regulatory audit of such eligible entity until the 13-month limit in § 1.650(c) has elapsed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.664" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.664   When would FDA withdraw accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory withdrawal.</I> FDA will withdraw accreditation from a third-party certification body:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, if the food or facility certified under this subpart is linked to an outbreak of foodborne illness or chemical or physical hazard that has a reasonable probability of causing serious adverse health consequences or death in humans or animals;
</P>
<P>(2) Following an evaluation and finding by FDA that the third-party certification body no longer complies with the applicable requirements of this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(3) Following its refusal to allow FDA to access records under § 1.658 or to conduct an audit, assessment, or investigation necessary to ensure continued compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) If payment of the third-party certification body's annual fee is not received within 90 days of the payment due date, as specified in § 1.725(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> FDA may waive mandatory withdrawal under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) Conducts an investigation of the material facts related to the outbreak of human or animal illness;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviews the relevant audit records and the actions taken by the accredited third-party certification body in support of its decision to certify; and
</P>
<P>(3) Determines that the accredited third-party certification body satisfied the requirements for issuance of certification under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discretionary withdrawal.</I> FDA may withdraw accreditation, in whole or in part, from a third-party certification body when such third-party certification body is accredited by an accreditation body for which recognition is revoked under § 1.634, if FDA determines there is good cause for withdrawal, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrated bias or lack of objectivity when conducting activities under this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(2) Performance that calls into question the validity or reliability of its food safety audits or certifications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records access.</I> FDA may request records of the accredited third-party certification body under § 1.658 and, where applicable, may request records under § 1.625 of an accreditation body that has been recognized under § 1.625, when considering withdrawal under paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice to the third-party certification body of withdrawal of accreditation.</I> (1) FDA will notify a third-party certification body of the withdrawal of its accreditation through issuance of a withdrawal that will state the grounds for withdrawal, the procedures for requesting a regulatory hearing under § 1.693 on the withdrawal, and the procedures for requesting reaccreditation under § 1.666.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 business days of the date of issuance of the withdrawal, the third-party certification body must notify FDA electronically, in English, of the name of the custodian who will maintain the records required by § 1.658, and provide contact information for the custodian, which will at least include an email address, and the street address where the records will be located.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect of withdrawal of accreditation on eligible entities.</I> A food or facility certification issued by a third-party certification body prior to withdrawal will remain in effect until the certification terminates by expiration. If FDA has reason to believe that a certification issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act is not valid or reliable, FDA may refuse to consider the certification in determining the admissibility of the article of food for which the certification was offered or in determining the importer's eligibility for participation in VQIP.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of withdrawal of accreditation on recognized accreditation bodies.</I> (1) FDA will notify a recognized accreditation body if the accreditation of a third-party certification body it accredited is withdrawn by FDA. Such accreditation body's recognition will remain in effect if, no later than 60 days after withdrawal, the accreditation body conducts a self-assessment under § 1.622 and reports the results of the self-assessment to FDA as required by § 1.623(b).
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may revoke the recognition of an accreditation body whenever FDA determines there is good cause for revocation of recognition under § 1.634.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public notice of withdrawal accreditation.</I> FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of its withdrawal of accreditation of a third-party certification body and provide a description of the basis for withdrawal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74650, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 90193, Dec. 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.665" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.665   What if I want to voluntarily relinquish accreditation or do not want to renew accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to FDA of intent to relinquish or not to renew accreditation.</I> A third-party certification body must notify FDA electronically, in English, at least 60 days before voluntarily relinquishing accreditation or before allowing accreditation to expire without seeking renewal. The certification body must provide the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain the records required under § 1.658(a) after the date of relinquishment or the date accreditation expires, as applicable, and make them available to FDA as required by § 1.658(b) and (c). The contact information for the custodian must include, at a minimum, an email address and the physical address where the records required by § 1.658(a) will be located.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to recognized accreditation body and eligible entities of intent to relinquish or not to renew accreditation.</I> No later than 15 business days after notifying FDA under paragraph (a) of this section, the certification body must notify its recognized accreditation body and any eligible entity with current certifications that it intends to relinquish accreditation or to allow its accreditation to expire, specifying the date on which relinquishment or expiration will occur. The recognized accreditation body must establish and maintain records of such notification under § 1.625(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of voluntary relinquishment or expiration of accreditation on food or facility certifications issued to eligible entities.</I> A food or facility certification issued by a third-party certification body prior to relinquishment or expiration of its accreditation will remain in effect until the certification expires. If FDA has reason to believe that a certification issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act is not valid or reliable, FDA may refuse to consider the certification in determining the admissibility of the article of food for which the certification was offered or in determining the importer's eligibility for participation in VQIP.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public notice of voluntary relinquishment or expiration of accreditation.</I> FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of the voluntary relinquishment or expiration of accreditation of a certification body under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.666" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.69.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.666   How do I request reaccreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application following withdrawal.</I> FDA will reinstate the accreditation of a third-party certification body for which it has withdrawn accreditation:
</P>
<P>(1) If, in the case of direct accreditation, FDA determines, based on evidence presented by the third-party certification body, that the third-party certification body satisfies the applicable requirements of this subpart and adequate grounds for withdrawal no longer exist; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a third-party certification body accredited by an accreditation body for which recognition has been revoked under § 1.634:
</P>
<P>(i) If the third-party certification body becomes accredited by another recognized accreditation body or by FDA through direct accreditation no later than 1 year after withdrawal of accreditation, or the original date of the expiration of accreditation, whichever comes first; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Under such conditions as FDA may impose in withdrawing accreditation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application following voluntary relinquishment.</I> A third-party certification body that previously relinquished its accreditation under § 1.665 may seek accreditation by submitting a new application for accreditation under § 1.660 or, where applicable, § 1.670.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.70" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Procedures for Direct Accreditation of Third-Party Certification Bodies Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.670" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.70.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.670   How do I apply to FDA for direct accreditation or renewal of direct accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> (1) FDA will accept applications from third-party certification bodies for direct accreditation or renewal of direct accreditation only if FDA determines that it has not identified and recognized an accreditation body to meet the requirements of section 808 of the FD&amp;C Act within 2 years after establishing the accredited third-party audits and certification program. Such FDA determination may apply, as appropriate, to specific types of third-party certification bodies, types of expertise, or geographic location; or through identification by FDA of any requirements of section 808 of the FD&amp;C Act not otherwise met by previously recognized accreditation bodies. FDA will only accept applications for direct accreditation and renewal applications that are within the scope of the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may revoke or modify a determination under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if FDA subsequently identifies and recognizes an accreditation body that affects such determination.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of a determination under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and of a revocation or modification of the determination under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for direct accreditation or renewal of direct accreditation.</I> (1) A third-party certification body seeking direct accreditation or renewal of direct accreditation must submit an application to FDA, demonstrating that it is within the scope of the determination issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and it meets the eligibility requirements of § 1.640.
</P>
<P>(2) Applications and all documents provided as part of the application process must be submitted electronically, in English. An applicant must provide such translation and interpretation services as are needed by FDA to process the application, including during an onsite audit of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) The application must be signed in the manner designated by FDA by an individual authorized to act on behalf of the applicant for purposes of seeking or renewing direct accreditation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.671" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.70.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.671   How will FDA review my application for direct accreditation or renewal of direct accreditation and what happens once FDA decides on my application?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of a direct accreditation or renewal application.</I> FDA will examine a third-party certification body's direct accreditation or renewal application for completeness and notify the applicant of any deficiencies. FDA will review applications for direct accreditation and for renewal of direct accreditation on a first in, first out basis according to the date the completed submission is received; however, FDA may prioritize the review of specific applications to meet the needs of the program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation of a direct accreditation or renewal application.</I> FDA will evaluate any completed application to determine whether the applicant meets the requirements for direct accreditation under this subpart. If FDA does not reach a final decision on a renewal application before the expiration of the direct accreditation, FDA may extend the duration of such direct accreditation for a specified period of time or until the Agency reaches a final decision on the renewal application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of approval or denial.</I> FDA will notify the applicant that its direct accreditation or renewal application has been approved through issuance of or denied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Issuance of direct accreditation.</I> If an application has been approved, the issuance of the direct accreditation that will list any limitations associated with the accreditation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Issuance of denial of direct accreditation.</I> If FDA issues a denial of direct accreditation or denial of a renewal application, the issuance of the denial of direct accreditation will state the basis for such denial and provide the procedures for requesting reconsideration of the application under § 1.691.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of records custodian after denial of application for renewal of direct accreditation.</I> An applicant whose renewal application was denied must notify FDA electronically, in English, within 10 business days of the date of issuance of a denial of a renewal application, of the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain the records required by § 1.658(a) and make them available to FDA as required by § 1.658(b) and (c). The contact information for the custodian must include, at a minimum, an email address and the physical address where the records required by § 1.658(b) will be located.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of denial of renewal of direct accreditation on food or facility certifications issued to eligible entities.</I> A food or facility certification issued by an accredited third-party certification body prior to issuance of the denial of its renewal application will remain in effect until the certification expires. If FDA has reason to believe that a certification issued for purposes of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act is not valid or reliable, FDA may refuse to consider the certification in determining the admissibility of the article of food for which the certification was offered or in determining the importer's eligibility for participation in VQIP.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public notice of denial of renewal of direct accreditation.</I> FDA will provide notice on the Web site described in § 1.690 of the issuance of a denial of renewal application for direct accreditation under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.672" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.70.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.672   What is the duration of direct accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will grant direct accreditation of a third-party certification body for a period not to exceed 4 years.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="71" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.71" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Eligible Entities Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.680" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.71.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.680   How and when will FDA monitor eligible entities?</HEAD>
<P>FDA may, at any time, conduct an onsite audit of an eligible entity that has received food or facility certification from an accredited third-party certification body under this subpart. Where FDA determines necessary or appropriate, the unannounced audit may be conducted with or without the accredited third-party certification body or the recognized accreditation body (where applicable) present. An FDA audit conducted under this section will be conducted on an unannounced basis and may be preceded by a request for a 30-day operating schedule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.681" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.71.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.681   How frequently must eligible entities be recertified?</HEAD>
<P>An eligible entity seeking recertification of a food or facility certification under this subpart must apply for recertification prior to the expiration of its certification. For certifications used in meeting the requirements of section 801(q) or 806 of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA may require an eligible entity to apply for recertification at any time FDA determines appropriate under such section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="72" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.72" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Requirements of This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.690" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.72.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.690   How will FDA make information about recognized accreditation bodies and accredited third-party certification bodies available to the public?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will place on its Web site a registry of recognized accreditation bodies and accredited third-party certification bodies, including the name, contact information, and scope and duration of recognition or accreditation. The registry may provide information on third-party certification bodies accredited by recognized accreditation bodies through links to the Web sites of such recognized accreditation bodies. FDA will also place on its Web site a list of accreditation bodies for which it has denied renewal of recognition, for which FDA has revoked recognition, and that have relinquished their recognition or have allowed their recognition to expire. FDA will also place in its Web site a list of certification bodies whose renewal of accreditation has been denied, for which FDA has withdrawn accreditation, and that have relinquished their accreditations or have allowed their accreditations to expire. FDA will place on its Web site determinations under § 1.670(a)(1) and modifications of such determinations under § 1.670(a)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.691" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.72.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.691   How do I request reconsideration of a denial by FDA of an application or a waiver request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accreditation body may seek reconsideration of the denial of an application for recognition, renewal of recognition, or reinstatement of recognition no later than 10 business days after the date of the issuance of such denial.
</P>
<P>(b) A third-party certification body may seek reconsideration of the denial of an application for direct accreditation, renewal of direct accreditation, reaccreditation of directly accredited third-party certification body, a request for a waiver of the conflict of interest requirement in § 1.650(b), or a waiver extension no later than 10 business days after the date of the issuance of such denial.
</P>
<P>(c) A request to reconsider an application or waiver request under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section must be signed by the requestor or by an individual authorized to act on its behalf in submitting the request for reconsideration. The request must be submitted electronically in English and must comply with the procedures described in the notice.
</P>
<P>(d) After completing its review and evaluation of the request for reconsideration, FDA will notify the requestor through the issuance of the recognition, direct accreditation, or waiver upon reconsideration or through the issuance of a denial of the application or waiver request under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section upon reconsideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.692" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.72.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.692   How do I request internal agency review of a denial of an application or waiver request upon reconsideration?</HEAD>
<P>(a) No later than 10 business days after the date of issuance of a denial of an application or waiver request upon reconsideration under § 1.691, the requestor may seek internal agency review of such denial under § 10.75(c)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for internal agency review under paragraph (a) of this section must be signed by the requestor or by an individual authorized to act on its behalf in submitting the request for internal review. The request must be submitted electronically in English to the address specified in the denial upon reconsideration and must comply with procedures it describes.
</P>
<P>(c) Under § 10.75(d) of this chapter, internal agency review of such denial must be based on the information in the administrative file, which will include any supporting information submitted under § 1.691(c).
</P>
<P>(d) After completing the review and evaluation of the administrative file, FDA will notify the requestor of its decision to overturn the denial and grant the application or waiver request through issuance of an application or waiver request upon reconsideration or to affirm the denial of the application or waiver request upon reconsideration through issuance of a denial of an application or waiver request upon reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(e) Issuance by FDA of a denial of an application or waiver request upon reconsideration constitutes final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 702.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.693" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.72.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.693   How do I request a regulatory hearing on a revocation of recognition or withdrawal of accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing on revocation.</I> No later than 10 business days after the date of issuance of a revocation of recognition of an accreditation body under § 1.634, an individual authorized to act on the accreditation body's behalf may submit a request for a regulatory hearing on the revocation under part 16 of this chapter. The issuance of revocation issued under § 1.634 will contain all of the elements required by § 16.22 of this chapter and will thereby constitute the notice of an opportunity for hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for hearing on withdrawal.</I> No later than 10 business days after the date of issuance of a withdrawal of accreditation of a third-party certification body under § 1.664, an individual authorized to act on the third-party certification body's behalf may submit a request for a regulatory hearing on the withdrawal under part 16 of this chapter. The issuance of withdrawal under § 1.664 will contain all of the elements required by § 16.22 of this chapter and will thereby constitute the notice of opportunity of hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of request for regulatory hearing.</I> The request for a regulatory hearing under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section must be submitted with a written appeal that responds to the basis for the FDA decision, as described in the issuance of revocation or withdrawal, as appropriate, and includes any supporting information upon which the requestor is relying. The request, appeal, and supporting information must be submitted in English to the address specified in the notice and must comply with the procedures it describes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of submission of request on FDA decision.</I> The submission of a request for a regulatory hearing under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section will not operate to delay or stay the effect of a decision by FDA to revoke recognition of an accreditation body or to withdraw accreditation of a third-party certification body unless FDA determines that a delay or a stay is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Presiding officer.</I> The presiding officer for a regulatory hearing for a revocation or withdrawal under this subpart will be designated after a request for a regulatory hearing is submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Denial of a request for regulatory hearing.</I> The presiding officer may deny a request for regulatory hearing for a revocation or withdrawal under § 16.26(a) of this chapter when no genuine or substantial issue of fact has been raised.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conduct of regulatory hearing.</I> (1) If the presiding officer grants a request for a regulatory hearing for a revocation or withdrawal, the hearing will be held within 10 business days after the date the request was filed or, if applicable, within a timeframe agreed upon in writing by requestor, the presiding officer, and FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer must conduct the regulatory hearing for revocation or withdrawal under part 16 of this chapter, except that, under § 16.5(b) of this chapter, such procedures apply only to the extent that the procedures are supplementary and do not conflict with the procedures specified for regulatory hearings under this subpart. Accordingly, the following requirements of part 16 are inapplicable to regulatory hearings under this subpart: § 16.22 (Initiation of a regulatory hearing); § 16.24(e) (timing) and (f) (contents of notice); § 16.40 (Commissioner); § 16.60(a) (public process); § 16.95(b) (administrative decision and record for decision); and § 16.119 (Reconsideration and stay of action).
</P>
<P>(3) A decision by the presiding officer to affirm the revocation of recognition or the withdrawal of accreditation is considered a final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 702.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.694" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.72.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.694   Are electronic records created under this subpart subject to the electronic records requirements of part 11 of this chapter?</HEAD>
<P>Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.695" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.72.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.695   Are the records obtained by FDA under this subpart subject to public disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>Records obtained by FDA under this subpart are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="73" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.73" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for User Fees Under This Subpart</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 1.700 through 1.725 appear at 81 FR 90193, Dec. 14, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1.700" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.73.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.700   Who is subject to a user fee under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Accreditation bodies submitting applications or renewal applications for recognition in the third-party certification program;
</P>
<P>(b) Recognized accreditation bodies participating in the third-party certification program;
</P>
<P>(c) Third-party certification bodies submitting applications or renewal applications for direct accreditation; and
</P>
<P>(d) Accredited third-party certification bodies (whether accredited by recognized accreditation bodies or by FDA through direct accreditation) participating in the third-party certification program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.705" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.73.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.705   What user fees are established under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following application fees:
</P>
<P>(1) Accreditation bodies applying for recognition are subject to an application fee for the estimated average cost of the work FDA performs in reviewing and evaluating applications for recognition of accreditation bodies.
</P>
<P>(2) Recognized accreditation bodies submitting renewal applications are subject to a renewal application fee for the estimated average cost of the work FDA performs in reviewing and evaluating renewal applications for recognition of accreditation bodies.
</P>
<P>(3) Third-party certification bodies applying for direct accreditation are subject to an application fee for the estimated average cost of the work FDA performs in reviewing and evaluating applications for direct accreditation.
</P>
<P>(4) Accredited third-party certification bodies applying for renewal of direct accreditation are subject to an application fee for the estimated average cost of the work FDA performs in reviewing and evaluating renewal applications for direct accreditation.
</P>
<P>(b) The following annual fees:
</P>
<P>(1) Recognized accreditation bodies are subject to an annual fee for the estimated average cost of the work FDA performs to monitor performance of recognized accreditation bodies under § 1.633.
</P>
<P>(2) Third-party certification bodies directly accredited by FDA are subject to an annual fee for the estimated average cost of the work FDA performs to monitor directly accredited third-party certification bodies under § 1.662.
</P>
<P>(3) Third-party certification bodies accredited by recognized accreditation bodies are subject to an annual fee for the estimated average cost of the work FDA performs to monitor third-party certification bodies that are accredited by a recognized accreditation body under § 1.662.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.710" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.73.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.710   How will FDA notify the public about the fee schedule?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will notify the public of the fee schedule annually. The fee notice will be made publicly available prior to the beginning of the fiscal year for which the fees apply, except for the first fiscal year in which this regulation is effective. Each new fee schedule will be adjusted for inflation and improvements in the estimates of the cost to FDA of performing relevant work for the upcoming year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.715" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.73.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.715   When must a user fee required by this subpart be submitted?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Accreditation bodies applying for recognition and third-party certification bodies applying for direct accreditation must submit a fee concurrently with submitting an application or a renewal application.
</P>
<P>(b) Accreditation bodies and third-party certification bodies subject to an annual fee must submit payment within 30 days of receiving billing for the fee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.720" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.73.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.720   Are user fees under this subpart refundable?</HEAD>
<P>User fees accompanying completed applications and annual fees under this subpart are not refundable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.725" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.12.73.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.725   What are the consequences of not paying a user fee under this subpart on time?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for recognition or renewal of recognition will not be considered complete for the purposes of § 1.631(a) until the date that FDA receives the application fee. An application for direct accreditation or for renewal of direct accreditation will not be considered complete for the purposes of § 1.671(a) until FDA receives the application fee.
</P>
<P>(b) A recognized accreditation body that fails to submit its annual user fee within 30 days of the due date will have its recognition suspended.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will notify the accreditation body electronically that its recognition is suspended. FDA will notify the public of the suspension on the Web site described in § 1.690.
</P>
<P>(2) While an accreditation body's recognition is suspended, the accreditation body will not be able to accredit additional third-party certification bodies. The accreditation of third-party certification bodies that occurred prior to an accreditation body's suspension, as well as food or facility certifications issued by such third-party certification bodies, would remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(3) If payment is not received within 90 days of the payment due date, FDA will revoke the accreditation body's recognition under § 1.634(a)(4)(iii), and provide notice of such revocation in accordance with § 1.634.
</P>
<P>(c) An accredited third-party certification body that fails to submit its annual fee within 30 days of the due date will have its accreditation suspended.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will notify the third-party certification body that its accreditation is suspended, electronically and in English. FDA will notify a recognized accreditation body, electronically and in English, if the accreditation of one if its third-party certification bodies is suspended. FDA will notify the public of the suspension on the Web site described in § 1.690.
</P>
<P>(2) While a third-party certification body's accreditation is suspended, the third-party certification body will not be able to issue food or facility certifications. A food or facility certification issued by a third-party certification body prior to the suspension of the auditor/certification body accreditation will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(3) If payment is not received within 90 days of the payment due date, FDA will withdraw the third-party certification body's accreditation under § 1.664(a)(4), and provide notice of such withdrawal in accordance with § 1.664.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Sanitary Transportation of Human and Animal Food</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 20166, Apr. 6, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="74" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.74" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.900" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.74.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.900   Who is subject to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for non-covered businesses as defined in § 1.904 and as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, the requirements of this subpart apply to shippers, receivers, loaders, and carriers engaged in transportation operations whether or not the food is being offered for or enters interstate commerce. The requirements of this subpart apply in addition to any other requirements of this chapter that are applicable to the transportation of food, <I>e.g.,</I> in 21 CFR parts 1, 117, 118, 225, 507, and 589.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of this subpart do not apply to shippers, receivers, loaders, or carriers when they are engaged in transportation operations:
</P>
<P>(1) Of food that is transshipped through the United States to another country; or
</P>
<P>(2) Of food that is imported for future export, in accordance with section 801(d)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and that is neither consumed nor distributed in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(3) Of food when it is located in food facilities as defined in § 1.227 of this chapter, that are regulated exclusively, throughout the entire facility, by the U.S. Department of Agriculture under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>), the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>), or the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.902" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.74.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.902   How do the criteria and definitions in this subpart apply under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria and definitions of this subpart apply in determining whether food is adulterated within the meaning of section 402(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that the food has been transported or offered for transport by a shipper, carrier by motor vehicle or rail vehicle, loader, or receiver engaged in transportation operations under conditions that are not in compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The failure by a shipper, carrier by motor vehicle or rail vehicle, loader, or receiver engaged in transportation operations to comply with the requirements of this subpart is a prohibited act under section 301(hh) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.904" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.74.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.904   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are applicable to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Adequate</I> means that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose in keeping with good public health practice.
</P>
<P><I>Animal food</I> means food for animals other than man, and includes pet food, animal feed, and raw materials and ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Bulk vehicle</I> means a tank truck, hopper truck, rail tank car, hopper car, cargo tank, portable tank, freight container, or hopper bin, or any other vehicle in which food is shipped in bulk, with the food coming into direct contact with the vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Carrier</I> means a person who physically moves food by rail or motor vehicle in commerce within the United States. The term carrier does not include any person who transports food while operating as a parcel delivery service.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-contact</I> means the unintentional incorporation of a food allergen as defined in section 201(qq) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act into food, except animal food.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> has the meaning given in § 1.227 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Food not completely enclosed by a container</I> means any food that is placed into a container in such a manner that it is partially open to the surrounding environment. Examples of such containers include an open wooden basket or crate, an open cardboard box, a vented cardboard box with a top, or a vented plastic bag. This term does not include food transported in a bulk vehicle as defined in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time equivalent employee</I> is a term used to represent the number of employees of a business entity for the purpose of determining whether the business is a small business. The number of full-time equivalent employees is determined by dividing the total number of hours of salary or wages paid directly to employees of the business entity and of all of its affiliates and subsidiaries by the number of hours of work in 1 year, 2,080 hours (<I>i.e.,</I> 40 hours x 52 weeks). If the result is not a whole number, round down to the next lowest whole number.
</P>
<P><I>Loader</I> means a person that loads food onto a motor or rail vehicle during transportation operations.
</P>
<P><I>Non-covered business</I> means a shipper, loader, receiver, or carrier engaged in transportation operations that has less than $500,000, as adjusted for inflation, in average annual revenues, calculated on a rolling basis, during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year. For the purpose of determining an entity's 3-year average revenue threshold as adjusted for inflation, the baseline year for calculating the adjustment for inflation is 2011.
</P>
<P><I>Operating temperature</I> means a temperature sufficient to ensure that under foreseeable circumstances of temperature variation during transport, <I>e.g.,</I> seasonal conditions, refrigeration unit defrosting, multiple vehicle loading and unloading stops, the operation will meet the requirements of § 1.908(a)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Pest</I> means any objectionable animals or insects including birds, rodents, flies, and larvae.
</P>
<P><I>Receiver</I> means any person who receives food at a point in the United States after transportation, whether or not that person represents the final point of receipt for the food.
</P>
<P><I>Shipper</I> means a person, <I>e.g.,</I> the manufacturer or a freight broker, who arranges for the transportation of food in the United States by a carrier or multiple carriers sequentially.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a business employing fewer than 500 full-time equivalent employees except that for carriers by motor vehicle that are not also shippers and/or receivers, this term would mean a business subject to § 1.900(a) having less than $27,500,000 in annual receipts.
</P>
<P><I>Transportation</I> means any movement of food in by motor vehicle or rail vehicle in commerce within the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Transportation equipment</I> means equipment used in food transportation operations, <I>e.g.,</I> bulk and non-bulk containers, bins, totes, pallets, pumps, fittings, hoses, gaskets, loading systems, and unloading systems. Transportation equipment also includes a railcar not attached to a locomotive or a trailer not attached to a tractor.
</P>
<P><I>Transportation operations</I> means all activities associated with food transportation that may affect the sanitary condition of food including cleaning, inspection, maintenance, loading and unloading, and operation of vehicles and transportation equipment. Transportation operations do not include any activities associated with the transportation of food that is completely enclosed by a container except a food that requires temperature control for safety, compressed food gases, food contact substances as defined in section 409(h)(6) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, human food byproducts transported for use as animal food without further processing, or live food animals except molluscan shellfish. In addition, transportation operations do not include any transportation activities that are performed by a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Vehicle</I> means a land conveyance that is motorized, <I>e.g.,</I> a motor vehicle, or that moves on rails, <I>e.g.,</I> a railcar, which is used in transportation operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="75" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.75" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Vehicles and Transportation Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.906" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.75.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.906   What requirements apply to vehicles and transportation equipment?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vehicles and transportation equipment used in transportation operations must be so designed and of such material and workmanship as to be suitable and adequately cleanable for their intended use to prevent the food they transport from becoming unsafe, <I>i.e.,</I> adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(1), (2), and (4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act during transportation operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Vehicles and transportation equipment must be maintained in such a sanitary condition for their intended use as to prevent the food they transport from becoming unsafe during transportation operations.
</P>
<P>(c) Vehicles and transportation equipment used in transportation operations for food requiring temperature control for safety must be designed, maintained, and equipped as necessary to provide adequate temperature control to prevent the food from becoming unsafe during transportation operations.
</P>
<P>(d) Vehicles and transportation equipment must be stored in a manner that prevents it from harboring pests or becoming contaminated in any other manner that could result in food for which it will be used becoming unsafe during transportation operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="76" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.76" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Transportation Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.908" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.908   What requirements apply to transportation operations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Unless stated otherwise in this section, the requirements of this section apply to all shippers, carriers, loaders, and receivers engaged in transportation operations. A person may be subject to these requirements in multiple capacities, <I>e.g.,</I> the shipper may also be the loader and the carrier, if the person also performs the functions of those respective persons as defined in this subpart. An entity subject to this subpart (shipper, loader, carrier, or receiver) may reassign, in a written agreement, its responsibilities under this subpart to another party subject to this subpart. The written agreement is subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(d).
</P>
<P>(2) Responsibility for ensuring that transportation operations are carried out in compliance with all requirements in this subpart must be assigned to competent supervisory personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) All transportation operations must be conducted under such conditions and controls necessary to prevent the food from becoming unsafe during transportation operations including:
</P>
<P>(i) Taking effective measures such as segregation, isolation, or the use of packaging to protect food from contamination by raw foods and nonfood items in the same load.
</P>
<P>(ii) Taking effective measures such as segregation, isolation, or other protective measures, such as hand washing, to protect food transported in bulk vehicles or food not completely enclosed by a container from contamination and cross-contact during transportation operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Taking effective measures to ensure that food that requires temperature control for safety is transported under adequate temperature control.
</P>
<P>(4) The type of food, <I>e.g.,</I> animal feed, pet food, human food, and its production stage, <I>e.g.,</I> raw material, ingredient or finished food, must be considered in determining the necessary conditions and controls for the transportation operation.
</P>
<P>(5) Shippers, receivers, loaders, and carriers, which are under the ownership or operational control of a single legal entity, as an alternative to meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b), (d), and (e) of this section may conduct transportation operations in conformance with common, integrated written procedures that ensure the sanitary transportation of food consistent with the requirements of this section. The written procedures are subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(e).
</P>
<P>(6) If a shipper, loader, receiver, or carrier becomes aware of an indication of a possible material failure of temperature control or other conditions that may render the food unsafe during transportation, the food shall not be sold or otherwise distributed, and these persons must take appropriate action including, as necessary, communication with other parties to ensure that the food is not sold or otherwise distributed unless a determination is made by a qualified individual that the temperature deviation or other condition did not render the food unsafe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements applicable to shippers engaged in transportation operations.</I> (1) Unless the shipper takes other measures in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section to ensure that vehicles and equipment used in its transportation operations are in appropriate sanitary condition for the transportation of the food, <I>i.e.,</I> that will prevent the food from becoming unsafe, the shipper must specify to the carrier and, when necessary, the loader, in writing, all necessary sanitary specifications for the carrier's vehicle and transportation equipment to achieve this purpose, including any specific design specifications and cleaning procedures. One-time notification shall be sufficient unless the design requirements and cleaning procedures required for sanitary transport change based upon the type of food being transported, in which case the shipper shall so notify the carrier in writing before the shipment. The information submitted by the shipper to the carrier is subject to the records requirements in § 1.912(a).
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the shipper takes other measures in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section to ensure that adequate temperature control is provided during the transportation of food that requires temperature control for safety under the conditions of shipment, a shipper of such food must specify in writing to the carrier, except a carrier who transports the food in a thermally insulated tank, and, when necessary, the loader, an operating temperature for the transportation operation including, if necessary, the pre-cooling phase. One-time notification shall be sufficient unless a factor, <I>e.g.,</I> the conditions of shipment, changes, necessitating a change in the operating temperature, in which case the shipper shall so notify the carrier in writing before the shipment. The information submitted by the shipper to the carrier is subject to the records requirements in § 1.912(a).
</P>
<P>(3) A shipper must develop and implement written procedures, subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(a), adequate to ensure that vehicles and equipment used in its transportation operations are in appropriate sanitary condition for the transportation of the food, <I>i.e.,</I> will prevent the food from becoming unsafe during the transportation operation. Measures to implement these procedures may be accomplished by the shipper or by the carrier or another party covered by this subpart under a written agreement subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(a).
</P>
<P>(4) A shipper of food transported in bulk must develop and implement written procedures, subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(a), adequate to ensure that a previous cargo does not make the food unsafe. Measures to ensure the safety of the food may be accomplished by the shipper or by the carrier or another party covered by this subpart under a written agreement subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(a).
</P>
<P>(5) The shipper of food that requires temperature control for safety under the conditions of shipment must develop and implement written procedures, subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(a), to ensure that the food is transported under adequate temperature control. Measures to ensure the safety of the food may be accomplished by the shipper or by the carrier or another party covered by this subpart under a written agreement subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(a) and must include measures equivalent to those specified for carriers under paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements applicable to loaders engaged in transportation operations.</I> (1) Before loading food not completely enclosed by a container onto a vehicle or into transportation equipment the loader must determine, considering, as appropriate, specifications provided by the shipper in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, that the vehicle or transportation equipment is in appropriate sanitary condition for the transport of the food, <I>e.g.,</I> it is in adequate physical condition, and free of visible evidence of pest infestation and previous cargo that could cause the food to become unsafe during transportation. This may be accomplished by any appropriate means.
</P>
<P>(2) Before loading food that requires temperature control for safety, the loader must verify, considering, as appropriate, specifications provided by the shipper in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, that each mechanically refrigerated cold storage compartment or container is adequately prepared for the transportation of such food, including that it has been properly pre-cooled, if necessary, and meets other sanitary conditions for food transportation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements applicable to receivers engaged in transportation operations.</I> Upon receipt of food that requires temperature control for safety under the conditions of shipment, the receiver must take steps to adequately assess that the food was not subjected to significant temperature abuse, such as determining the food's temperature, the ambient temperature of the vehicle and its temperature setting, and conducting a sensory inspection, <I>e.g.,</I> for off-odors.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirements applicable to carriers engaged in transportation operations.</I> When the carrier and shipper have a written agreement that the carrier is responsible, in whole or in part, for sanitary conditions during the transportation operation, the carrier is responsible for the following functions as applicable per the agreement:
</P>
<P>(1) A carrier must ensure that vehicles and transportation equipment meet the shipper's specifications and are otherwise appropriate to prevent the food from becoming unsafe during the transportation operation.
</P>
<P>(2) A carrier must, once the transportation operation is complete and if requested by the receiver, provide the operating temperature specified by the shipper in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section and, if requested by the shipper or receiver, demonstrate that it has maintained temperature conditions during the transportation operation consistent with the operating temperature specified by the shipper in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Such demonstration may be accomplished by any appropriate means agreeable to the carrier and shipper, such as the carrier presenting measurements of the ambient temperature upon loading and unloading or time/temperature data taken during the shipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Before offering a vehicle or transportation equipment with an auxiliary refrigeration unit for use for the transportation of food that requires temperature control for safety under the conditions of the shipment during transportation, a carrier must pre-cool each mechanically refrigerated cold storage compartment as specified by the shipper in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If requested by the shipper, a carrier that offers a bulk vehicle for food transportation must provide information to the shipper that identifies the previous cargo transported in the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(5) If requested by the shipper, a carrier that offers a bulk vehicle for food transportation must provide information to the shipper that describes the most recent cleaning of the bulk vehicle.
</P>
<P>(6) A carrier must develop and implement written procedures subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(b) that:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify practices for cleaning, sanitizing if necessary, and inspecting vehicles and transportation equipment that the carrier provides for use in the transportation of food to maintain the vehicles and the transportation equipment in appropriate sanitary condition as required by § 1.906(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe how it will comply with the provisions for temperature control in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, and;
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe how it will comply with the provisions for the use of bulk vehicles in paragraphs (e)(4) and (5) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="77" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.77" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Training</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.910" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.910   What training requirements apply to carriers engaged in transportation operations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the carrier and shipper have agreed in a written contract that the carrier is responsible, in whole or in part, for the sanitary conditions during transportation operations, the carrier must provide adequate training to personnel engaged in transportation operations that provides an awareness of potential food safety problems that may occur during food transportation, basic sanitary transportation practices to address those potential problems, and the responsibilities of the carrier under this part. The training must be provided upon hiring and as needed thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b) Carriers must establish and maintain records documenting the training described in paragraph (a) of this section. Such records must include the date of the training, the type of training, and the person(s) trained. These records are subject to the records requirements of § 1.912(c).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="78" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.78" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.912" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.912   What record retention and other records requirements apply to shippers, receivers, loaders, and carriers engaged in transportation operations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Shippers must retain records:
</P>
<P>(1) That demonstrate that they provide specifications and operating temperatures to carriers as required by § 1.908(b)(1) and (2) as a regular part of their transportation operations for a period of 12 months beyond the termination of the agreements with the carriers.
</P>
<P>(2) Of written agreements and the written procedures required by § 1.908(b)(3), (4), and (5), for a period of 12 months beyond when the agreements and procedures are in use in their transportation operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Carriers must retain records of the written procedures required by § 1.908(e)(6) for a period of 12 months beyond when the agreements and procedures are in use in their transportation operations.
</P>
<P>(c) Carriers must retain training records required by § 1.910(b) for a period of 12 months beyond when the person identified in any such records stops performing the duties for which the training was provided.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person subject to this subpart must retain any other written agreements assigning tasks in compliance with this subpart for a period of 12 months beyond the termination of the agreements.
</P>
<P>(e) Shippers, receivers, loaders, and carriers, which operate under the ownership or control of a single legal entity in accordance with the provisions of § 1.908(a)(5), must retain records of the written procedures for a period of 12 months beyond when the procedures are in use in their transportation operations.
</P>
<P>(f) Shippers, receivers, loaders, and carriers must make all records required by this subpart available to a duly authorized individual promptly upon oral or written request.
</P>
<P>(g) All records required by this subpart must be kept as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records.
</P>
<P>(h) Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) Except for the written procedures required by § 1.908(e)(6)(i), offsite storage of records is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. The written procedures required by § 1.908(e)(6)(i) must remain onsite as long as the procedures are in use in transportation operations. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(j) All records required by this subpart are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="79" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Waivers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.914" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.914   Under what circumstances will we waive a requirement of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>We will waive any requirement of this subpart with respect to any class of persons, vehicles, food, or nonfood products, when we determine that:
</P>
<P>(a) The waiver will not result in the transportation of food under conditions that would be unsafe for human or animal health; and
</P>
<P>(b) The waiver will not be contrary to the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.916" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.916   When will we consider whether to waive a requirement of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>We will consider whether to waive a requirement of this subpart on our own initiative or on the petition submitted under § 10.30 of this chapter by any person who is subject to the requirements of this subpart with respect to any class of persons, vehicles, food, or nonfood products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.918" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.918   What must be included in the Statement of Grounds in a petition requesting a waiver?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter, the Statement of Grounds in a petition requesting a waiver must:
</P>
<P>(a) Describe with particularity the waiver requested, including the persons, vehicles, food, or nonfood product(s) to which the waiver would apply and the requirement(s) of this subpart to which the waiver would apply; and
</P>
<P>(b) Present information demonstrating that the waiver will not result in the transportation of food under conditions that would be unsafe for human or animal health and will not be contrary to the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.920" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.920   What information submitted in a petition requesting a waiver or submitted in comments on such a petition is publicly available?</HEAD>
<P>We will presume that information submitted in a petition requesting a waiver and comments submitted on such a petition does not contain information exempt from public disclosure under part 20 of this chapter and would be made public as part of the docket associated with this request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.922" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.922   Who will respond to a petition requesting a waiver?</HEAD>
<P>The Director or Deputy Directors of the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN) or the Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM), or the Director, Office of Compliance, CFSAN, or the Director, Office of Surveillance and Compliance, CVM, will respond to a petition requesting a waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.924" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.924   What process applies to a petition requesting a waiver?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, the procedures set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter govern our response to a petition requesting a waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) Under § 10.30(h)(3) of this chapter, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> requesting information and views on a filed petition, including information and views from persons who could be affected by the waiver if the petition were to be granted.
</P>
<P>(c) Under § 10.30(e)(3) of this chapter, we will respond to the petitioner in writing.
</P>
<P>(1) If we grant the petition, either in whole or in part, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth any waiver and the reasons for such waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) If we deny the petition (including partial denials), our written response to the petitioner will explain the reason(s) for the denial.
</P>
<P>(d) We will make readily accessible to the public, and periodically update, a list of filed petitions requesting waivers, including the status of each petition (for example, pending, granted, or denied).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.926" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.926   Under what circumstances may we deny a petition requesting a waiver?</HEAD>
<P>We may deny a petition requesting a waiver if the petition does not provide the information required under § 1.918 (including the requirements of § 10.30 of this chapter), or if we determine that the waiver could result in the transportation of food under conditions that would be unsafe for human or animal health, or that the waiver could be contrary to the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.928" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.928   What process will we follow when waiving a requirement of this subpart on our own initiative?</HEAD>
<P>If we, on our own initiative, determine that a waiver is appropriate, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth the waiver and the reasons for such waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.930" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.930   When will a waiver that we grant become effective?</HEAD>
<P>Any waiver that we grant will become effective on the date that notice of the waiver is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.932" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.932   Under what circumstances may we modify or revoke a waiver?</HEAD>
<P>We may modify or revoke a waiver if we determine that the waiver could result in the transportation of food under conditions that would be unsafe for human or animal health or that the waiver could be contrary to the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.934" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.14.79.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.934   What procedures apply if we determine that a waiver should be modified or revoked?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We will provide the following notifications:
</P>
<P>(1) We will notify the entity that initially requested the waiver, in writing at the address identified in its petition, if we determine that a waiver granted in response to its petition should be modified or revoked.
</P>
<P>(2) We will publish a notice of our determination that a waiver should be modified or revoked in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This notice will establish a public docket so that interested parties may submit written submissions on our determination.
</P>
<P>(b) We will consider timely written submissions submitted to the public docket from interested parties.
</P>
<P>(c) We will publish a notice of our decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The effective date of the decision will be the date of publication of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Administrative Detention of Drugs Intended for Human or Animal Use</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.980" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.16.80.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.980   Administrative detention of drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section sets forth the procedures for detention of drugs believed to be adulterated or misbranded. Administrative detention is intended to protect the public by preventing distribution or use of drugs encountered during inspections that may be adulterated or misbranded, until the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has had time to consider what action it should take concerning the drugs, and to initiate legal action, if appropriate. Drugs that FDA orders detained may not be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner by any person during the detention period, except as authorized under paragraph (h) of this section, until FDA terminates the detention order under paragraph (j) of this section, or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for ordering detention.</I> Administrative detention of drugs may be ordered in accordance with this section when an authorized FDA representative, during an inspection under section 704 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, has reason to believe that a drug, as defined in section 201(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, is adulterated or misbranded.
</P>
<P/>
<P>(c) <I>Detention period.</I> The detention is to be for a reasonable period that may not exceed 20 calendar days after the detention order is issued, unless the FDA Division Director in whose division the drugs are located determines that a greater period is required to seize the drugs, to institute injunction proceedings, or to evaluate the need for legal action, in which case the Division Director may authorize detention for 10 additional calendar days. The additional 10-calendar-day detention period may be ordered at the time the detention order is issued or at any time thereafter. The entire detention period may not exceed 30 calendar days, except when the detention period is extended under paragraph (g)(6) of this section. An authorized FDA representative may, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, terminate a detention before the expiration of the detention period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Issuance of detention order.</I> (1) The detention order must be issued in writing, in the form of a detention notice, signed by the authorized FDA representative who has reason to believe that the drugs are adulterated or misbranded, and issued to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the drugs are located. If the owner or the user of the drugs is different from the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the drugs are detained, a copy of the detention order must be provided to the owner or user of the drugs if the owner's or user's identity can be readily determined.
</P>
<P>(2) If detention of drugs in a vehicle or other carrier is ordered, a copy of the detention order must be provided to the shipper of record and the owner of the vehicle or other carrier, if their identities can be readily determined.
</P>
<P>(3) The detention order must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the drugs identified in the order are detained for the period shown;
</P>
<P>(ii) A brief, general statement of the reasons for the detention;
</P>
<P>(iii) The location of the drugs;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that these drugs are not to be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner during that period, except as permitted under paragraph (h) of this section, without the written permission of an authorized FDA representative;
</P>
<P>(v) Identification of the detained drugs;
</P>
<P>(vi) The detention order number;
</P>
<P>(vii) The date and hour of the detention order;
</P>
<P>(viii) The period of the detention;
</P>
<P>(ix) The text of section 304(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(x) A statement that any informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter, with certain exceptions described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<P>(xi) The mailing address, telephone number, and name of the FDA Division Director.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Approval of detention order.</I> A detention order, before issuance, must be approved by the FDA Division Director in whose division the drugs are located. If prior written approval is not feasible, prior oral approval must be obtained and confirmed by written memorandum within FDA as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Labeling or marking a detained drug.</I> An FDA representative issuing a detention order under paragraph (d) of this section must label or mark the drugs with official FDA tags that include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the drugs are detained by the U.S. Government in accordance with section 304(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 334(g)).
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the drugs must not be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner for the period shown, without the written permission of an authorized FDA representative, except as authorized in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the violation of a detention order or the removal or alteration of the tag is punishable by fine or imprisonment or both (section 303 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 333)).
</P>
<P>(4) The detention order number, the date and hour of the detention order, the detention period, and the name of the FDA representative who issued the detention order.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appeal of a detention order.</I> (1) A person who would be entitled to claim the drugs, if seized, may appeal a detention order. Any appeal must be submitted in writing to the FDA Division Director in whose division the drugs are located within 5 working days of receipt of a detention order. If the appeal includes a request for an informal hearing, as defined in section 201(x) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321(x)), the appellant must request either that a hearing be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed or that the hearing be held at a later date, which must not be later than 20 calendar days after receipt of a detention order.
</P>
<P>(2) The appellant of a detention order must state the ownership or proprietary interest the appellant has in the detained drugs. If the detained drugs are located at a place other than an establishment owned or operated by the appellant, the appellant must include documents showing that the appellant would have legitimate authority to claim the drugs if seized.
</P>
<P>(3) Any informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under regulation in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) The detention order under paragraph (d) of this section, rather than the notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides notice of opportunity for a hearing under this section and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for a hearing under this section should be addressed to the FDA Division Director;
</P>
<P>(iii) The last sentence of § 16.24(e) of this chapter, stating that a hearing may not be required to be held at a time less than 2 working days after receipt of the request for a hearing, does not apply to a hearing under this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Paragraph (g)(4) of this section, rather than § 16.42(a) of this chapter, describes the FDA employees who preside at hearings under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer of a regulatory hearing on an appeal of a detention order, who also must decide the appeal, must be an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director who is permitted by § 16.42(a) of this chapter to preside over the hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) If the appellant requests a regulatory hearing and requests that the hearing be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed, the presiding officer must, within 5 working days, hold the hearing and render a decision affirming or revoking the detention.
</P>
<P>(6) If the appellant requests a regulatory hearing and requests that the hearing be held at a date later than within 5 working days after the appeal is filed, but not later than 20 calendar days after receipt of a detention order, the presiding officer must hold the hearing at a date agreed upon by FDA and the appellant. The presiding officer must decide whether to affirm or revoke the detention within 5 working days after the conclusion of the hearing. The detention period extends to the date of the decision even if the 5-working-day period for making the decision extends beyond the otherwise applicable 20-calendar-day or 30-calendar-day detention period.
</P>
<P>(7) If the appellant appeals the detention order but does not request a regulatory hearing, the presiding officer must render a decision on the appeal, affirming or revoking the detention within 5 working days after the filing of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(8) If the presiding officer affirms a detention order, the drugs continue to be detained until FDA terminates the detention under paragraph (j) of this section or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(9) If the presiding officer revokes a detention order, FDA must terminate the detention under paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Movement of detained drugs.</I> (1) Except as provided in this paragraph, no person may move detained drugs within or from the place where they have been ordered detained until FDA terminates the detention under paragraph (j) of this section or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(2) If detained drugs are not in final form for shipment, the manufacturer may move them within the establishment where they are detained to complete the work needed to put them in final form. As soon as the drugs are moved for the purpose in the preceding sentence, the individual responsible for their movement must orally notify the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible division office official, of the movement of the drugs. As soon as the drugs are put in final form, they must be segregated from other drugs, and the individual responsible for their movement must orally notify the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible division office official, of their new location. The drugs put in final form must not be moved further without FDA approval.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible division office official, may approve, in writing, the movement of detained drugs for any of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) To prevent interference with an establishment's operations or harm to the drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) To destroy the drugs;
</P>
<P>(iii) To bring the drugs into compliance;
</P>
<P>(iv) For any other purpose that the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or other responsible division office official, believes is appropriate in the case.
</P>
<P>(4) If an FDA representative approves the movement of detained drugs under paragraph (h)(3) of this section, the detained drugs must remain segregated from other drugs and the person responsible for their movement must immediately orally notify the official who approved the movement of the drugs, or another responsible FDA division office official, of the new location of the detained drugs.
</P>
<P>(5) Unless otherwise permitted by the FDA representative who is notified of, or who approves, the movement of drugs under this paragraph, the required tags must accompany the drugs during and after movement and must remain with the drugs until FDA terminates the detention or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Actions involving adulterated or misbranded drugs.</I> If FDA determines that the detained drugs, including any that have been put in final form, are adulterated or misbranded, or both, it may initiate legal action against the drugs or the responsible individuals, or both, or request that the drugs be destroyed or otherwise brought into compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act under FDA's supervision.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Detention termination.</I> If FDA decides to terminate a detention or when the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, an FDA representative authorized to terminate a detention will issue a detention termination notice releasing the drugs to any person who received the original detention order or that person's representative and will remove, or authorize in writing the removal of, the required labels or tags.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> (1) After issuance of a detention order under paragraph (d) of this section, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of any factory, warehouse, other establishment, or consulting laboratory where detained drugs are manufactured, processed, packed, or held, must have, or establish, and maintain adequate records relating to how the detained drugs may have become adulterated or misbranded, records on any distribution of the drugs before and after the detention period, records on the correlation of any in-process detained drugs that are put in final form under paragraph (h) of this section to the completed drugs, records of any changes in, or processing of, the drugs permitted under the detention order, and records of any other movement under paragraph (h) of this section. Records required under this paragraph must be provided to FDA on request for review and copying. Any FDA request for access to records required under this paragraph must be made at a reasonable time, must state the reason or purpose for the request, and must identify to the fullest extent practicable the information or type of information sought in the records to which access is requested.
</P>
<P>(2) Records required under this paragraph must be maintained for a maximum period of 2 years after the issuance of the detention order or for such other shorter period as FDA directs. When FDA terminates the detention or when the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, FDA will advise all persons required under this paragraph to keep records concerning that detention whether further recordkeeping is required for the remainder of the 2-year, or shorter, period. FDA ordinarily will not require further recordkeeping if the Agency determines that the drugs are not adulterated or misbranded or that recordkeeping is not necessary to protect the public health, unless the records are required under other regulations in this chapter (e.g., the good manufacturing practice regulation in part 211 of this chapter).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30719, May 29, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 14144, Mar. 17, 2017; 85 FR 16551, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Laboratory Accreditation for Analyses of Foods</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 68817, Dec. 3, 2021; 87 FR 5660, Feb. 2, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.80" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.80.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1101   What documents are incorporated by reference in this subpart</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration's Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, and is available from the source listed elsewhere in this section. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov</I> or go to <I>https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) International Organization for Standardization (ISO), Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; Telephone 41 22 749 01 11, <I>https://www.iso.org/home.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E), Conformity assessment—Requirements for accreditation bodies accrediting conformity assessment bodies, Second edition, November 2017, IBR approved for §§ 1.1113(a) and (c), 1.1114(b), 1.1120(c), 1.1131(a).
</P>
<P>(2) ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E), General requirements for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories, Third edition, November 2017, IBR approved for §§ 1.1120(c), 1.1121(a), 1.1138(a), 1.1139(b) and (c), 1.1141(a), 1.1152(a) and (d), 1.1153(c), and 1.1161(a).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.80.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1102   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this subpart, unless otherwise specified. For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Analyst</I> means an individual who analyzes samples.
</P>
<P><I>Corrective action</I> means an action taken by an accreditation body or laboratory to investigate and eliminate the cause of a deficiency so that it does not recur.
</P>
<P><I>Directed food laboratory order</I> means an order issued by FDA under § 1.1108 requiring food testing to be conducted under this subpart by or on behalf of an owner or consignee.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> has the meaning given in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, except that food does not include pesticides (as defined in 7 U.S.C. 136(u)).
</P>
<P><I>Food testing</I> and <I>testing of food</I> means the analysis of food product samples or environmental samples.
</P>
<P><I>Laboratory accreditation for analyses of foods (LAAF)-accreditation</I> means a determination by a recognized accreditation body that a laboratory meets the applicable requirements of this subpart to conduct food testing under this subpart using one or more methods of analysis.
</P>
<P><I>LAAF-accredited laboratory</I> means a laboratory that a recognized accreditation body has determined meets the applicable requirements of this subpart and has been LAAF-accredited to conduct food testing under this subpart using one or more methods of analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Owner or consignee</I> means any person with an ownership or consignment interest in the food product or environment that is the subject of food testing conducted under § 1.1107(a).
</P>
<P><I>Recognition</I> means a determination by FDA that an accreditation body meets the applicable requirements of this subpart and is authorized to LAAF-accredit laboratories under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Recognized accreditation body</I> means an accreditation body that FDA has determined meets the applicable requirements of this subpart and is authorized to LAAF-accredit laboratories under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Representative sample</I> means a sample that accurately, to a statistically acceptable degree, represents the characteristics and qualities of the food product or environment from which the sample was collected.
</P>
<P><I>Sampler</I> means an individual who collects samples.
</P>
<P><I>Sampling firm</I> means an entity that provides sampling services.
</P>
<P><I>Scope of LAAF-accreditation</I> refers to the methods of analysis for which the laboratory is LAAF-accredited.
</P>
<P><I>Street address</I> means the full physical address, including the country. For purposes of this rule, a post office box number alone is insufficient; however, a post office box number may be provided in addition to the street address.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1103" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.80.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1103   Who is subject to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accreditation bodies.</I> An accreditation body is subject to this subpart if it has been or is seeking to be recognized by FDA to LAAF-accredit laboratories to conduct food testing under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Laboratories.</I> A laboratory is subject to this subpart if it has been or is seeking to be LAAF-accredited by a recognized accreditation body to conduct food testing under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Owners and consignees.</I> An owner or consignee is subject to this subpart if it is required to use a LAAF-accredited laboratory to conduct food testing under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="81" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.81" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1107" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1107   When must food testing be conducted under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Food testing must be conducted under this subpart whenever such testing is conducted by or on behalf of an owner or consignee:
</P>
<P>(1) In response to explicit testing requirements that address an identified or suspected food safety problem, which are contained in the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Sprouts.</I> Section 112.146(a), (c), and (d) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Shell eggs.</I> Sections 118.4(a)(2)(iii), 118.5(a)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(ii), and 118.6(a)(2) and (e) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Bottled drinking water.</I> Section 129.35(a)(3)(i) of this chapter (for the requirement to test five samples from the same sampling site that originally tested positive for <I>Escherichia coli</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) As required by FDA in a directed food laboratory order issued under § 1.1108;
</P>
<P>(3) To address an identified or suspected food safety problem and presented to FDA as part of evidence for a hearing under section 423(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act prior to the issuance of a mandatory food recall order, as part of a corrective action plan under section 415(b)(3)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act submitted after an order suspending the registration of a food facility, or as part of evidence submitted for an appeal of an administrative detention order under section 304(h)(4)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(4) In support of admission of an article of food under section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(5) To support removal from an import alert through successful consecutive testing.
</P>
<P>(b) When food testing is conducted under paragraph (a) of this section, analysis of samples must be conducted by a laboratory that is LAAF-accredited for the appropriate analytical method by a recognized accreditation body under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) Food testing conducted on articles of food offered for import into the United States under section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) or (a)(5) of this section may only be conducted after the articles offered for import have arrived in the United States unless the owner or consignee has written approval from FDA that a sample taken prior to arrival is or would be a representative sample of the article offered for import into the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1108" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1108   When and how will FDA issue a directed food laboratory order?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may require the owner or consignee to conduct food testing, or to have food testing conducted on their behalf, under this subpart to address an identified or suspected food safety problem, as FDA deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) The directed food laboratory order will specify the food product or environment to be tested; whether the food testing may be conducted using a LAAF-accredited laboratory that is owned, operated, or controlled by the owner or consignee; the timeframe in which the food testing must be conducted; and the manner of the food testing, such as the methods that must be used.
</P>
<P>(c) The directed food laboratory order will contain all the elements required by § 16.22(a) of this chapter and will thereby constitute the notice of an opportunity for hearing under part 16 of this chapter. An affected owner or consignee may request a regulatory hearing on a directed food laboratory order pursuant to § 1.1174.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1109" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1109   How will FDA make information about recognized accreditation bodies and LAAF-accredited laboratories available to the public?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will place on its website a publicly available registry listing of:
</P>
<P>(a) Recognized accreditation bodies, including for each: the name, contact information, and duration of recognition of the recognized accreditation body;
</P>
<P>(b) Accreditation bodies that have a change in recognition, including for each: the name of the accreditation body, the specific change in recognition (<I>i.e.,</I> probation, revocation of recognition, denial of renewal of recognition, relinquishment of recognition, or expiration of recognition) and the effective date of the change;
</P>
<P>(c) LAAF-accredited laboratories, including for each: the name, contact information, and scope of LAAF-accreditation, and the name and contact information of the recognized accreditation body that has LAAF-accredited the laboratory; and
</P>
<P>(d) Laboratories that have a change in LAAF-accreditation, including for each: the name of the laboratory, the specific change in LAAF-accreditation (<I>i.e.,</I> suspension, reduction of scope, or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation by the recognized accreditation body, probation or disqualification by FDA, or relinquishment of LAAF-accreditation), and the effective date of the change.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1110" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1110   What are the general requirements for submitting information to FDA under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applications, reports, notifications, and records submitted to FDA under this subpart must be submitted electronically and in English unless otherwise specified. If FDA requests inspection or submission of records that are maintained in any language other than English, the recognized accreditation body or LAAF-accredited laboratory must provide an English translation within a reasonable time.
</P>
<P>(b) A program applicant must provide any translation and interpretation services needed by FDA during the processing of the application, including during any onsite assessments of the applicant by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="82" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.82" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>FDA Recognition of Accreditation Bodies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1113" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.82.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1113   What are the eligibility requirements for a recognized accreditation body?</HEAD>
<P>A recognized accreditation body or an accreditation body seeking recognition must meet all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) Demonstrates compliance with ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101).
</P>
<P>(b) Demonstrates that it is a full member of the International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperative (ILAC).
</P>
<P>(c) Demonstrates that it is a signatory to the ILAC Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) that has demonstrated competence to ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) with a scope of “Testing: ISO/IEC 17025.”
</P>
<P>(d) Will comply with all additional requirements for recognized accreditation bodies under this subpart while recognized.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1114" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.82.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1114   How does an accreditation body apply to FDA for recognition or renewal of recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for recognition or renewal of recognition.</I> An accreditation body seeking initial recognition or renewal of recognition must submit an application to FDA demonstrating that it meets the eligibility requirements in § 1.1113.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Documentation of conformance with requirements.</I> The accreditation body must submit documentation of conformance with ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) and separate documentation of ILAC membership and ILAC MRA signatory status demonstrating competence to ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) with a scope of “Testing: ISO/IEC 17025,” in meeting the requirements of § 1.1113(a) through (c). The accreditation body also must submit documentation of its compliance with § 1.1113(d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Signature.</I> An application for recognition or renewal of recognition must be signed in the manner designated by FDA by an individual authorized to act on behalf of the applicant for purposes of seeking recognition or renewal of recognition.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1115" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.82.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1115   How will FDA evaluate applications for recognition and renewal of recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of application for recognition or renewal of recognition.</I> FDA will review an accreditation body's application for recognition or renewal of recognition for completeness and notify the applicant of any insufficiencies. FDA generally will review accreditation body applications for recognition or renewal of recognition in the order in which completed applications are received; however, FDA may prioritize the review of specific applications to meet program needs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation of application for recognition or renewal of recognition.</I> FDA will evaluate a complete application for recognition or renewal of recognition to determine whether the applicant meets the requirements for recognition. Such evaluation may include an onsite evaluation of the accreditation body. If FDA does not reach a final decision on an application for renewal of recognition before an accreditation body's recognition expires, FDA may extend the existing term of recognition for a specified period of time or until FDA reaches a final decision on the application for renewal of recognition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grant of recognition.</I> FDA will notify the applicant that its application for recognition or renewal of recognition has been approved and will include any conditions associated with the recognition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration of recognition.</I> FDA may grant recognition of an accreditation body for a period not to exceed 5 years from the date of recognition, except under the circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial of application for recognition or renewal of recognition.</I> FDA will notify the applicant that its application for recognition or renewal of recognition has been denied and will state the basis for such denial and describe the procedures for requesting reconsideration of the application under § 1.1171.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of records custodian after denial of an application for renewal of recognition.</I> Within 10 business days of the date of FDA's issuance of a denial of an application for renewal of recognition, the applicant must provide the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain required records and make them available to FDA under § 1.1124. The contact information must include an email address for the records custodian and the street address where the records required under § 1.1124 will be located.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FDA notice to LAAF-accredited laboratories.</I> FDA will promptly notify all laboratories LAAF-accredited by the accreditation body whose application for renewal of recognition was denied, informing them of such denial.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public notice of denial of an application for renewal of recognition of an accreditation body.</I> FDA will provide public notice on the website described in § 1.1109 of the issuance of a denial of an application for renewal of recognition and will include the date of the issuance of such denial.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1116" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.82.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1116   What must a recognized accreditation body do to voluntarily relinquish or not renew its recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to FDA of intent to relinquish or not to renew recognition.</I> At least 60 calendar days before voluntarily relinquishing its recognition or before allowing its recognition to expire without seeking renewal, a recognized accreditation body must notify FDA of its intention to leave the program, specifying the date on which the relinquishment or expiration will occur. The recognized accreditation body must provide the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain and make available to FDA the records required by §  1.1124 after the date of relinquishment or the date recognition expires, as applicable. The contact information must include an email address for the records custodian and the street address where the records required under §  1.1124 will be located.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to LAAF-accredited laboratories of intent to relinquish or not to renew recognition.</I> At least 60 calendar days before voluntarily relinquishing its recognition or before allowing its recognition to expire without seeking renewal, a recognized accreditation body must notify the laboratories it LAAF accredits of its intention to leave the program, specifying the date on which relinquishment or expiration will occur.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public notice of voluntary relinquishment or expiration of recognition.</I> FDA will provide notice on the website described in §  1.1109 of the voluntary relinquishment or expiration of recognition of an accreditation body.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1117" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.82.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1117   How may an accreditation body request reinstatement of recognition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application following revocation of recognition.</I> An accreditation body that has had its recognition revoked by FDA (as described in § 1.1131) may seek reinstatement by submitting a new application for recognition under §  1.1114. The accreditation body must also submit evidence to FDA with its application to demonstrate that the issues resulting in revocation of recognition have been resolved, including evidence addressing the cause or condition of the grounds for revocation of recognition. The evidence also must identify measures that have been implemented to help ensure that such cause or condition is unlikely to recur.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application following relinquishment or expiration of recognition.</I> An accreditation body that previously relinquished its recognition or allowed its recognition to expire (as described in § 1.1116) may seek reinstatement by submitting a new application for recognition under §  1.1114.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="83" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Recognized Accreditation Bodies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1119" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1119   What are the conflict of interest requirements for a recognized accreditation body?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to meeting the impartiality and conflict of interest requirements of § 1.1113(a), a recognized accreditation body must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the recognized accreditation body (and its officers, employees, or other agents involved in LAAF-accreditation activities) does not own or have a financial interest in, manage, or otherwise control any laboratory (or any affiliate, parent, or subsidiary) it LAAF-accredits, subject to the exceptions in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibit, subject to the exceptions in paragraph (e) of this section, officers, employees, or other agents involved in LAAF-accreditation activities of the recognized accreditation body from accepting any money, gift, gratuity, or other item of value from any laboratory the recognized accreditation body LAAF-accredits or assesses for LAAF-accreditation.
</P>
<P>(b) The financial interests of any children younger than 18 years of age or a spouse of a recognized accreditation body's officers, employees, and other agents involved in LAAF-accreditation activities are considered the financial interests of such officers, employees, and other agents involved in LAAF-accreditation activities.
</P>
<P>(c) An accreditation body (and its officers, employees, or other agents involved in LAAF-accreditation activities) may have an interest in a publicly traded or publicly available investment fund (<I>e.g.,</I> a mutual fund), or a widely held pension or similar fund if the accreditation body (and its officers, employees, or other agents involved in LAAF-accreditation activities) neither exercises control nor has the ability to exercise control over the financial interests held in the fund.
</P>
<P>(d) A recognized accreditation body's agent that is a contract assessor will be permitted to own or have a financial interest in, manage, or otherwise control a LAAF-accredited laboratory if all of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract assessor's primary occupation is owning or having a financial interest in, managing, or otherwise controlling a LAAF-accredited laboratory;
</P>
<P>(2) The assessor contracts with the recognized accreditation body to provide assessment services on an intermittent or part-time basis;
</P>
<P>(3) The contract assessor does not assess the LAAF-accredited laboratory that the assessor owns or has a financial interest in, manages, or otherwise controls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The contract assessor and the recognized accreditation body inform any laboratory that the contract assessor may assess or reassess for LAAF-accreditation that the contract assessor owns or has a financial interest in, manages, or otherwise controls a LAAF-accredited laboratory. The laboratory seeking LAAF-accreditation assessment or reassessment must acknowledge that the contract assessor owns or has a financial interest in, manages, or otherwise controls a LAAF-accredited laboratory and be provided the option to be assessed by a different representative of the recognized accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(e) The prohibited items of value specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Money representing payment of fees for LAAF-accreditation services or reimbursement of direct costs associated with an onsite assessment or reassessment of the laboratory; or
</P>
<P>(2) Meal of de minimis value provided during the course of an assessment or reassessment and on the premises where the assessment or reassessment is conducted, if necessary for the efficient conduct of the assessment or reassessment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1120   How must a recognized accreditation body assess laboratories seeking LAAF-accreditation and oversee LAAF-accredited laboratories?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recognized accreditation body must conduct an initial assessment of a laboratory seeking LAAF-accreditation in accordance with the requirements of this subpart, to determine whether the laboratory meets the requirements of § 1.1138.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the exception in paragraph (c) of this section, the initial assessment must be conducted onsite, although certain assessment activities may be conducted remotely if it will not aid the assessment to conduct them onsite.
</P>
<P>(c) If, within the previous 2 years, the recognized accreditation body conducted an onsite assessment of the laboratory in accordance with ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) to assess whether the laboratory meets the requirements of ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101), then the initial assessment under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) May be conducted remotely, and
</P>
<P>(2) Need only address whether the laboratory meets the requirements of § 1.1138(a)(2) and (3) and (b).
</P>
<P>(d) A recognized accreditation body must oversee the performance of a laboratory it LAAF-accredits in accordance with the requirements of § 1.1113(a), except as otherwise provided by this subpart, to determine whether the LAAF-accredited laboratory continues to meet the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) A recognized accreditation body must conduct a reassessment of a LAAF-accredited laboratory in accordance with this subpart at least every 2 years. Such reassessment must be conducted onsite, although certain reassessment activities may be conducted remotely if it will not aid in the reassessment to conduct the activities onsite.
</P>
<P>(f) If the recognized accreditation body conducted the initial assessment of the LAAF-accredited laboratory remotely in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, the recognized accreditation body must conduct its first reassessment of the LAAF-accredited laboratory no later than 2 years after the recognized accreditation body last conducted an onsite assessment of the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(g) The reassessment at the end of the LAAF-accredited laboratory's ISO/IEC 17025:2017-accreditation cycle, which the recognized accreditation body must conduct in accordance with this subpart, must be conducted onsite, although certain reassessment activities may be conducted remotely if it will not aid the reassessment to conduct them onsite.
</P>
<P>(h) Any assessments or reassessments conducted by a recognized accreditation body in addition to the assessments or reassessments referred to in paragraphs (a), (e), and (g) of this section may be conducted remotely if it will not aid the assessment or reassessment to conduct it onsite.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1121" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1121   When must a recognized accreditation body require corrective action, suspend a LAAF-accredited laboratory, or reduce the scope of or withdraw the LAAF-accreditation of a laboratory?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Corrective action.</I> A recognized accreditation body may require corrective action using the procedures described by ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) section 8.7 to address any deficiencies identified while assessing and overseeing a LAAF-accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>(1) The recognized accreditation body must notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory of all deficiencies requiring corrective action and will either specify a deadline to implement corrective action or will require the LAAF-accredited laboratory to submit a corrective action plan and timeframe for implementation to the recognized accreditation body for approval.
</P>
<P>(2) The LAAF-accredited laboratory must implement appropriate corrective action under ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) section 8.7, and submit the results of the corrective action to the recognized accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(3) The recognized accreditation body will review the corrective action and will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory whether the corrective action is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension.</I> If a recognized accreditation body determines that a laboratory it LAAF-accredits has not effectively implemented corrective action or otherwise fails to address deficiencies identified, the recognized accreditation body may temporarily suspend the LAAF-accredited laboratory for one or more LAAF-accredited methods, and require corrective action under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The recognized accreditation body must notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory of the grounds for the suspension, the LAAF-accredited methods subject to the suspension, and all deficiencies that must be addressed via the process described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The recognized accreditation body must notify FDA of the suspension under this section in accordance with the requirements of § 1.1123(d)(5). FDA will provide notice of the LAAF-accredited laboratory's suspension on the website described in § 1.1109.
</P>
<P>(3) The recognized accreditation body will review the corrective action required under paragraph (b) of this section and will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory whether the corrective action is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(4) A LAAF-accredited laboratory shall remain suspended until it demonstrates to the recognized accreditation body's satisfaction that the LAAF-accredited laboratory has successfully implemented appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(5) If the recognized accreditation body determines that a LAAF-accredited laboratory on suspension has failed to implement appropriate corrective action or otherwise fails to address deficiencies identified, the recognized accreditation body may reduce the scope of or withdraw the LAAF-accreditation of the laboratory under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation.</I> A recognized accreditation body must reduce the scope of or withdraw the LAAF-accreditation of a laboratory it LAAF-accredits when the laboratory substantially fails to comply with this subpart. When only certain methods within the laboratory's scope of LAAF-accreditation are affected by the noncompliance, the recognized accreditation body may reduce the scope of the laboratory's LAAF-accreditation for only those affected methods. If all methods are affected, the recognized accreditation body must withdraw the laboratory's LAAF-accreditation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation.</I> (1) The recognized accreditation body must notify the laboratory of any reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The grounds for the reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The method(s) to which the reduction of scope applies;
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedures for appealing the reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation as described in § 1.1122; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation is effective.
</P>
<P>(2) The recognized accreditation body must notify FDA of the reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation under this section in accordance with the requirements in § 1.1123(d)(4). FDA will provide notice of the reduction of scope or withdrawal of the laboratory's LAAF-accreditation on the website described in § 1.1109.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records request associated with suspension, reduction of scope, or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation.</I> To assist the recognized accreditation body in determining whether a suspension, reduction of scope, or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation is warranted under this section, the recognized accreditation body may require the submission of records that the LAAF-accredited laboratory is required to maintain under § 1.1154.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consequences of suspension, reduction of scope, or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation.</I> (1) A LAAF-accredited laboratory may not conduct food testing under this subpart using suspended methods.
</P>
<P>(2) If the recognized accreditation body withdraws the laboratory's LAAF-accreditation, the laboratory is immediately ineligible to conduct any food testing under this subpart. If the recognized accreditation body reduces the laboratory's scope of LAAF-accreditation, the laboratory is immediately ineligible to use the methods to which the reduction of scope applies to conduct food testing under this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1122" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1122   What procedures must a recognized accreditation body provide for appeals of decisions to suspend, reduce the scope of, withdraw, or deny LAAF-accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>A recognized accreditation body must consider a laboratory's appeal regarding a decision to suspend, reduce the scope of, withdraw, or deny LAAF-accreditation in accordance with the requirements of § 1.1113(a). Appeals must be reviewed and decided by a competent person(s) free from bias or prejudice who has not participated in the LAAF-accreditation decision and is not the subordinate of a person who participated in the LAAF-accreditation decision. For the purposes of appeals, the competent person(s) may be external to the recognized accreditation body.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1123" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1123   What reports, notifications, and documentation must a recognized accreditation body submit to FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> All reports and notifications required by this section must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, street address, telephone number, and email address of the recognized accreditation body associated with the report or notification, and the name of an appropriate point of contact for the recognized accreditation body, and
</P>
<P>(2) If the report or notification concerns a LAAF-accredited laboratory, the name, street address, telephone number, and email address of the LAAF-accredited laboratory, and the name of an appropriate point of contact for the LAAF-accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Internal audit reports.</I> A recognized accreditation body must submit to FDA a report of the results of the internal audit conducted pursuant to § 1.1125 within 45 calendar days of completing the audit. The audit report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the internal audit conducted;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any identified deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any corrective action taken or planned, including the timeline for such corrective action; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement disclosing the extent to which the internal audit was conducted by personnel different from those who perform the activity or activities that were audited.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Changes affecting recognition.</I> A recognized accreditation body must notify FDA within 48 hours when the recognized accreditation body is aware of a change that would affect the recognition of such accreditation body, and the notification must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the change, and
</P>
<P>(2) If the change is one made by the recognized accreditation body, an explanation of the purpose of the change.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Changes in LAAF-accreditation.</I> A recognized accreditation body must notify FDA and submit a certificate reflecting the scope of accreditation within 48 hours when any of the following occur:
</P>
<P>(1) The recognized accreditation body grants or extends LAAF-accreditation of a laboratory, and the notification must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope of LAAF-accreditation requested by the laboratory,
</P>
<P>(ii) The scope of LAAF-accreditation granted, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The effective date of the grant or extension;
</P>
<P>(2) The recognized accreditation body denies LAAF-accreditation of a laboratory, and the notification must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope of LAAF-accreditation requested by the laboratory,
</P>
<P>(ii) The scope of LAAF-accreditation denied, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The grounds for the denial;
</P>
<P>(3) The recognized accreditation body receives notice that a laboratory it LAAF-accredits intends to relinquish its LAAF-accreditation and the laboratory has not provided notice to FDA 60 calendar days prior to relinquishment as required under § 1.1140. The recognized accreditation body's notification must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope of LAAF-accreditation to which the relinquishment applies, as applicable, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The effective date of the relinquishment;
</P>
<P>(4) The recognized accreditation body reduces the scope of or withdraws the LAAF-accreditation of a laboratory, and the notification must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope of LAAF-accreditation to which the reduction applies,
</P>
<P>(ii) The grounds for the reduction of scope or withdrawal, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The effective date of the reduction of scope or withdrawal;
</P>
<P>(5) The recognized accreditation body suspends or lifts the suspension of a LAAF-accredited laboratory, and the notification must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope of LAAF-accreditation to which the suspension applies,
</P>
<P>(ii) The grounds for the suspension or for lifting the suspension, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The effective date of the suspension or date the suspension is lifted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Laboratory fraud.</I> A recognized accreditation body must notify FDA within 48 hours if the recognized accreditation body knows that a laboratory it LAAF-accredits has committed fraud or submitted material false statements to FDA, and the notification must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the basis for the recognized accreditation body's knowledge of the fraud or material false statements,
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the fraud or material false statements, and
</P>
<P>(3) The action(s) taken by the recognized accreditation body with respect to such LAAF-accredited laboratory.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1124" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1124   What are the records requirements for a recognized accreditation body?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to meeting the requirements of § 1.1113(a) related to records, a recognized accreditation body must maintain, for 5 years after the date of creation of the records, records created while it is recognized demonstrating its compliance with this subpart, including records relating to:
</P>
<P>(1) Applications for LAAF-accreditation;
</P>
<P>(2) Assessments, reassessments, and decisions to grant, extend the scope of, renew, deny, reduce the scope of, or withdraw LAAF-accreditation or to suspend or lift the suspension of a LAAF-accredited laboratory;
</P>
<P>(3) Appeals of suspensions, denials, reductions of scope of, and withdrawals of LAAF-accreditation, final decisions on such appeals, and the bases for such final decisions;
</P>
<P>(4) Its oversight of laboratories it has LAAF-accredited;
</P>
<P>(5) Its oversight of its own performance, including all records related to internal audits, complaints, and corrective actions;
</P>
<P>(6) Any reports or notifications required to be submitted to FDA under § 1.1123, including any supporting information;
</P>
<P>(7) Records of fee payments and reimbursement of direct costs; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any documents demonstrating compliance with the requirements for assessment activities by contract assessors with certain financial interests described in § 1.1119(d).
</P>
<P>(b) A recognized accreditation body must make the records it is required to maintain by paragraph (a) of this section available for inspection and copying or for electronic submission upon written request of an authorized officer or employee of FDA. If FDA requests records for inspection and copying, the recognized accreditation body must make such records promptly available at the physical location of the recognized accreditation body or at another reasonably accessible location. If FDA requests electronic submission, the records must be submitted within 10 business days of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) A recognized accreditation body must not prevent or interfere with FDA's access to the records the LAAF-accredited laboratories it LAAF-accredits are required to maintain under § 1.1154.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.83.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1125   What are the internal audit requirements for a recognized accreditation body?</HEAD>
<P>As part of the internal audit a recognized accreditation body is required to conduct pursuant to § 1.1113(a), the recognized accreditation body must audit its compliance with the requirements of § 1.1113(d).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="84" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.84" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>FDA Oversight of Recognized Accreditation Bodies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1130" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.84.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1130   How will FDA oversee recognized accreditation bodies?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will evaluate each recognized accreditation body to determine its compliance with the applicable requirements of this subpart no later than:
</P>
<P>(1) Year 4 of a 5-year recognition period; or
</P>
<P>(2) The midpoint of a recognition period less than 5 years.
</P>
<P>(b) An FDA evaluation of a recognized accreditation body may include review of records, an onsite evaluation of the accreditation body, and onsite reviews of one or more LAAF-accredited laboratories the recognized accreditation body LAAF-accredits, with or without the recognized accreditation body present. Certain evaluation activities may be conducted remotely if it will not aid in the evaluation to conduct them onsite.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may conduct additional evaluations of a recognized accreditation body at any time to determine whether the recognized accreditation body complies with the applicable requirements of this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1131" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.84.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1131   When will FDA require corrective action, put a recognized accreditation body on probation, or revoke the recognition of an accreditation body?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Corrective action.</I> FDA may require corrective action to address any deficiencies identified while evaluating a recognized accreditation body under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will notify the recognized accreditation body of all deficiencies requiring corrective action and will either specify a deadline to implement corrective action or will require the recognized accreditation body to submit a corrective action plan and timeframe for implementation to FDA for approval.
</P>
<P>(2) The recognized accreditation body must handle FDA's notification as a complaint under ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) section 7.12, implement appropriate corrective action under ISO/IEC 17011:2017(E) section 9.5, and submit both the results of the complaint investigation and subsequent corrective action to FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will review the corrective action and will notify the recognized accreditation body whether the corrective action is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Probation.</I> If FDA determines that a recognized accreditation body has not effectively implemented corrective action or otherwise fails to address deficiencies identified, FDA may put the recognized accreditation body on probation and require corrective action under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will notify the recognized accreditation body of the grounds for the probation and all deficiencies requiring corrective action via the process described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify all laboratories LAAF-accredited by the recognized accreditation body that the recognized accreditation body is on probation and will provide notice of the probation on the website described in § 1.1109.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will review the corrective action and will notify the recognized accreditation body whether the corrective action is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(4) A recognized accreditation body shall remain on probation until the recognized accreditation body demonstrates to FDA's satisfaction that it has successfully implemented appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(5) If FDA determines that a recognized accreditation body on probation has failed to implement appropriate corrective action or otherwise fails to address deficiencies identified, FDA may revoke recognition of the recognized accreditation body under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Revocation of recognition.</I> FDA will revoke the recognition of an accreditation body if it fails to meet the requirements of this subpart, if FDA determines the accreditation body has committed fraud or submitted material false statements to FDA, or if FDA determines that a recognized accreditation body on probation has failed to implement appropriate corrective action or otherwise fails to address deficiencies identified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Revocation of recognition procedures.</I> (1) FDA will issue a notice of revocation of recognition to the recognized accreditation body that will include the grounds for revocation, the date on which revocation is effective, the procedures for requesting a regulatory hearing on the revocation under § 1.1173, and the procedures for requesting reinstatement of recognition under § 1.1117.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify all laboratories LAAF-accredited by the recognized accreditation body that recognition has been revoked and will provide notice of the revocation of recognition of an accreditation body on the website described in §  1.1109.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 10 business days of the date of issuance of revocation, the accreditation body must provide the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain records and make them available to FDA as required by § 1.1124. The contact information must include an email address for the records custodian and the street address where the records required by § 1.1124 will be located.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of probation or revocation of recognition on the accreditation body.</I> (1) A recognized accreditation body that is put on probation by FDA must continue to oversee laboratories that it has LAAF-accredited under this subpart and may continue to LAAF-accredit laboratories under § 1.1120.
</P>
<P>(2) An accreditation body that has had its recognition revoked by FDA may not LAAF-accredit laboratories under this subpart or continue to oversee the laboratories it has previously LAAF-accredited while the accreditation body is not recognized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 68817, Dec. 3, 2021; 87 FR 5660, Feb. 2, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="85" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.85" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>LAAF-Accreditation of Laboratories</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1138" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.85.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1138   What are the eligibility requirements for a LAAF-accredited laboratory?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A laboratory that is LAAF-accredited or seeking LAAF-accreditation must demonstrate it is capable of conducting each method of food testing for which it is or will be LAAF-accredited by meeting all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) For each method, the laboratory is accredited by a recognized accreditation body to ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the laboratory has successfully passed a proficiency test provided by a competent proficiency testing organization within the last 12 months for each method within the scope of LAAF-accreditation.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the laboratory determines there is no proficiency testing program available or practicable for a method, it may use a comparison program. A laboratory must request approval from the recognized accreditation body regarding the determination prior to using a comparison program in lieu of an annual proficiency test. The laboratory is required to demonstrate competency through participation in the comparison program.
</P>
<P>(iii) A laboratory must submit all proficiency test and comparison program results, regardless of outcome, to the recognized accreditation body within 30 calendar days of receipt.
</P>
<P>(3) The laboratory ensures that its procedures for monitoring the validity of the results of testing it conducts under this subpart include the use of reference materials or quality control samples with each batch of samples it tests under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Will comply with all additional requirements for LAAF-accredited laboratories under this subpart while LAAF-accredited.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1139" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.85.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1139   How does a laboratory apply for LAAF-accreditation or extend its scope of LAAF-accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for LAAF-accreditation.</I> A laboratory seeking LAAF-accreditation or extension of its scope of LAAF-accreditation must submit its application for LAAF-accreditation to a recognized accreditation body identified on the website described in § 1.1109. The recognized accreditation body will review and assess the application in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. If the laboratory seeking LAAF-accreditation had its LAAF-accreditation withdrawn or one or more methods within its scope of LAAF-accreditation reduced by a recognized accreditation body or has been previously disqualified by FDA, the laboratory must meet the additional requirements specified by § 1.1142(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Documentation of conformance with ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E).</I> The laboratory may use documentation of conformance with ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101), as applicable and supplemented as necessary, in meeting the applicable requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of accreditation.</I> If a LAAF-accredited laboratory maintains compliance with all requirements of this subpart, including accreditation to ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E), the laboratory's LAAF-accreditation will not end until reduced in scope, withdrawn, relinquished, or the laboratory is disqualified, under this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1140" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.85.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1140   What must a LAAF-accredited laboratory do to voluntarily relinquish its LAAF-accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to FDA and the recognized accreditation body of intent to relinquish.</I> A LAAF-accredited laboratory must notify FDA and its recognized accreditation body at least 60 calendar days before voluntarily relinquishing LAAF-accreditation or any method within the scope of LAAF-accreditation. The notice must include the date on which relinquishment will occur. If the laboratory will relinquish all methods within its scope of LAAF-accreditation, the notification must also include the name and contact information of the custodian who will maintain the records required by § 1.1154 after the date of relinquishment. The contact information for the records custodian must include an email address and the street address where the records required by § 1.1154 will be located.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public notice of voluntary relinquishment of accreditation.</I> FDA will provide notice on the website described in § 1.1109 of the voluntary relinquishment of LAAF-accreditation of a laboratory.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1141" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.85.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1141   What is the effect on a LAAF-accredited laboratory if its recognized accreditation body is no longer recognized by FDA?</HEAD>
<P>If a recognized accreditation body has its application for renewal of recognition denied, relinquishes its recognition or allows its recognition to expire, or has its recognition revoked, any laboratory LAAF-accredited by the accreditation body must take either the actions in paragraph (a) of this section or the action in paragraph (b) of this section no later than 30 calendar days after receiving the notice to the LAAF-accredited laboratory required under § 1.1115(g), § 1.1116(b), or § 1.1131(d)(2):
</P>
<P>(a)(1) The LAAF-accredited laboratory must submit to FDA documentation of the LAAF-accredited laboratory's most recent internal audit, required under § 1.1154(a)(5), documentation showing compliance with the conflict of interest requirements in § 1.1147, and documentation of the most recent proficiency test or comparison program result for each test method within the laboratory's scope of LAAF-accreditation, to show compliance with § 1.1138(a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(2) The laboratory must become LAAF-accredited by another recognized accreditation body before the laboratory's ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) accreditation lapses or not later than 1 year after the LAAF-accredited laboratory receives the applicable notice under § 1.1115(g), § 1.1116(b), or § 1.1131(d)(2), whichever is sooner.
</P>
<P>(b) The LAAF-accredited laboratory initiates relinquishment of its LAAF-accreditation under § 1.1140, with the relinquishment to occur within 90 calendar days.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1142" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.85.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1142   How does a laboratory request reinstatement of LAAF-accreditation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application following reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation by a recognized accreditation body or disqualification by FDA.</I> A laboratory that has had any methods within its scope of LAAF-accreditation reduced or has had its LAAF-accreditation withdrawn by a recognized accreditation body or that has been disqualified by FDA may seek reinstatement of LAAF-accreditation by submitting a new application for LAAF-accreditation to a recognized accreditation body under § 1.1139. The laboratory must also:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify FDA prior to submitting a new application for LAAF-accreditation to the recognized accreditation body, including in the notification the name of the laboratory, contact information for the laboratory, the name of the recognized accreditation body to which the laboratory will be submitting the application, and the date that the laboratory expects to submit the new application for LAAF-accreditation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the recognized accreditation body to which it is submitting the new application, that the grounds for the reduction of scope or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation or disqualification have been resolved and that the laboratory has implemented measures to prevent such grounds from recurring.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application following voluntary relinquishment of LAAF-accreditation.</I> A laboratory that voluntarily relinquished any methods within the scope of its LAAF-accreditation pursuant to § 1.1140, may seek reaccreditation by submitting a new application for LAAF-accreditation to a recognized accreditation body under § 1.1139.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="86" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for LAAF-Accredited Laboratories</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1147" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1147   What are the impartiality and conflict of interest requirements for a LAAF-accredited laboratory?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the impartiality and conflict of interest requirements in § 1.1138(a)(1), a LAAF-accredited laboratory must, subject to the exceptions in paragraph (b) of this section, prohibit the LAAF-accredited laboratory's employees, contractors, and agents involved in food testing under this subpart and related activities from accepting any money, gift, gratuity, or other item of value from the owner or consignee of the food that is being tested or will be tested by the LAAF-accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) The prohibited items of value in paragraph (a) of this section do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment of fees for food testing under this subpart and related services;
</P>
<P>(2) Reimbursement of direct costs associated with the food testing by the LAAF-accredited laboratory; and
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a LAAF-accredited laboratory that is owned by the owner or consignee of the food that is or will be tested, payment of the officer's, employee's, contractor's, or agent's compensation in the normal course of business.
</P>
<P>(c) The LAAF-accredited laboratory must require the owner's or consignee's payment to the LAAF-accredited laboratory of fees for food testing services and reimbursement of direct costs associated with food testing to be independent of the outcome of the test results.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1149" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1149   What oversight standards apply to sampling?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Documents.</I> Before analyzing a sample, the LAAF-accredited laboratory must develop (if it collected the sample) or obtain (if another firm collected the sample) the following information to be submitted with test results (see § 1.1152(c)):
</P>
<P>(1) Written documentation of the sampler's applicable qualifications by training and experience. A LAAF-accredited laboratory only needs to develop or obtain documentation of a sampler's qualifications the first time that sampler collects a sample for the LAAF-accredited laboratory under this subpart. If a LAAF-accredited laboratory has previously submitted the sampler's qualifications to FDA under § 1.1152(c), the LAAF-accredited laboratory may refer to its previously submitted qualifications.
</P>
<P>(2) The written sampling plan used to conduct the sampling. The written sampling plan must identify the sampler and sampling firm and must list factors that will be controlled to ensure the sampling does not impact the validity of the subsequent analytical testing, including controlling for the representational nature of the sample; and
</P>
<P>(3) A written sample collection report for each sample collected. The written sample collection report must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The product code of the food product (if product is being sampled) or the location and a description of the environment (if environment is being sampled);
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the sampling;
</P>
<P>(iii) The lot number, size, identity, and quantity of the sample;
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation of sample collection procedures and any sample preparation techniques; and
</P>
<P>(v) Documentation of the chain of custody of the sample and of measures taken to ensure the validity of the subsequent analytical testing, including controlling for the representational nature of the sample.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Potential consequences.</I> If any of the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section is not met, FDA may consider the analysis of the sample to be invalid.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advance notice of sampling.</I> (1) If FDA determines that sampling conducted may materially differ from the sampling documented in the associated sampling plan or sample collection report, or if FDA determines that the sampling otherwise may have been improper, FDA may require the LAAF-accredited laboratory that analyzed the associated sample, and other LAAF-accredited laboratories that have analyzed samples previously collected by the sampling firm, to obtain from the sampling firm, and submit, or require the sampling firm to submit, an advance notice of sampling. The advance notice of sampling must be submitted to FDA at least 48 hours before each of the next 10 occasions that the sampling firm will collect a sample that the LAAF-accredited laboratory will analyze under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify that the requirement applies to samples collected by a particular sampler;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the type of food product or environment that requires advance notice of sampling under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine that an amount of time other than 48 hours in advance is required, from a minimum of 24 hours up to 7 business days in advance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Determine that a number of occasions other than 10 is required, from a minimum of 1 occasion to a maximum of 20 occasions;
</P>
<P>(v) Notify affected LAAF-accredited laboratories that submission of additional notices of sampling are not required; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Notify the owner or consignee that the advance notice applies to sampling for food testing being conducted on their behalf.
</P>
<P>(3) The advance notice of sampling must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A unique identification for the advance notice of sampling;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the LAAF-accredited laboratory that will conduct analysis of the sample;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and street address of the sampling firm that will conduct the sampling;
</P>
<P>(iv) A primary contact (name and phone number) for the sampling firm;
</P>
<P>(v) The reason why the food product or environment will be sampled;
</P>
<P>(vi) The location of the food product or environment that will be sampled, including sufficient information to identify the food product or environment to be sampled;
</P>
<P>(vii) As applicable, the U.S. Customs and Border Protection entry and line number;
</P>
<P>(viii) The product code of the food product (if product is being sampled) or the location and a description of the environment (if environment is being sampled); and
</P>
<P>(ix) The date and approximate time the sampling will begin.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1150" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1150   What are the requirements for analysis of samples by a LAAF-accredited laboratory?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the sample analysis requirements of § 1.1138(a):
</P>
<P>(a) The analysis must be conducted on either the sample received from the sampling firm or, if appropriate, on a representative sample of the sample received from the sampling firm.
</P>
<P>(b) The analyst must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be qualified by appropriate education, training, and/or experience to conduct the analysis;
</P>
<P>(2) Have appropriately demonstrated their ability to perform the method properly in the specific context of the food testing to be conducted; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be in compliance with the conflict of interest requirements of §§ 1.1138(a) and 1.1147.
</P>
<P>(c) The method used to conduct the food testing must meet the requirements of § 1.1151.
</P>
<P>(d) The LAAF-accredited laboratory must document the testing information and test results to the extent necessary to account for all information that is required to be included in a full analytical report (<I>see</I> § 1.1152(d)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1151" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1151   What requirements apply to the methods of analysis a LAAF-accredited laboratory uses to conduct food testing under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements of § 1.1138(a), a LAAF-accredited laboratory must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) The method of analysis used to conduct food testing under this subpart must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Fit for purpose;
</P>
<P>(2) Within the laboratory's scope of LAAF-accreditation;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriately validated for use in such food testing, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriately verified by the LAAF-accredited laboratory for use in such food testing, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Food testing must be conducted using the specified method:
</P>
<P>(1) Under § 1.1107(a)(1), if the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or implementing regulations prescribe a test method.
</P>
<P>(2) Under § 1.1107(a)(2), if the directed food laboratory order prescribes a test method.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A LAAF-accredited laboratory must validate methods in accordance with the requirements of § 1.1138(a).
</P>
<P>(2) A LAAF-accredited laboratory performing validation of a method under this subpart must record the information required by § 1.1138(a) and the supporting analytical data.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Before a LAAF-accredited laboratory conducts food testing under this subpart using a method for a specific intended use for which the method has been validated, but for which the LAAF-accredited laboratory has not previously applied the method under this subpart, the LAAF-accredited laboratory must have verified it can properly perform the method for the specific intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) A LAAF-accredited laboratory performing verification of a method under this subpart must record the method that is the subject of the verification, the intended purpose of the analysis, the results of the verification, the procedure used for the verification, supporting analytical data, and whether the LAAF-accredited laboratory is able to properly perform the method.
</P>
<P>(e) A LAAF-accredited laboratory may submit a written request to FDA requesting permission to use a method outside of its scope of LAAF-accreditation for food testing. FDA may approve the request if both following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) A new method or methodology has been developed and validated but no reasonably available laboratory has been LAAF-accredited to perform such method or methodology, and
</P>
<P>(2) The use of such method is necessary to prevent, control, or mitigate a food emergency or foodborne illness outbreak.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1152" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1152   What notifications, results, reports, and studies must a LAAF-accredited laboratory submit to FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) All notifications, results, reports, and studies required to be submitted to FDA by a LAAF-accredited laboratory under this subpart must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include the name and street address of the LAAF-accredited laboratory;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify a point of contact for the LAAF-accredited laboratory, including email and telephone number, whom FDA may contact with questions or comments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Display an identification unique to the test results, report, notification, or study; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be true, accurate, unambiguous, and objective.
</P>
<P>(2) The LAAF-accredited laboratory that conducts the analysis of the sample under this subpart is responsible for the submission of all notifications, results, reports, and studies to FDA as required by this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the LAAF-accredited laboratory becomes aware that any aspect of the submitted material is inaccurate, the LAAF-accredited laboratory must immediately inform FDA and submit a corrected version. Such corrections must meet the requirements for amendments to reports specified by ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) section 7.8.8.
</P>
<P>(4) Any opinions and interpretations in any notification, result, report, or study submitted to FDA under this subpart must meet the requirements in ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) section 7.8.7 and any statements of conformity to a specification or standard in any notification, result, report, or study submitted to FDA under this subpart must meet the requirements of ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) section 7.8.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test results.</I> (1) The LAAF-accredited laboratory must submit the results of all testing required to be conducted under this subpart directly to FDA via the location specified by the website described in § 1.1109, unless another location is specified by FDA regarding testing conducted under § 1.1107(a)(2) or (3).
</P>
<P>(2) The test results must be clear and identify:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and street address of the owner or consignee for which the testing was conducted,
</P>
<P>(ii) As appropriate, the U.S. Customs and Border Protection entry and line number(s), and
</P>
<P>(iii) The associated notifications, reports, and studies required to be submitted with the test results under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation required to be submitted with test results.</I> The following documentation must be included with each full analytical report (see paragraph (d) of this section) and each abridged analytical report (see § 1.1153) submitted to FDA under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) All sampling plans and sample collection reports related to the food testing conducted as developed or obtained by the LAAF-accredited laboratory in accordance with § 1.1149;
</P>
<P>(2) Written documentation of the sampler's qualifications or an indication that the sampler's qualifications have been submitted previously, in accordance with § 1.1149(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(3) For any validation studies required by § 1.1151(c)(1), the documentation required by § 1.1151(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(4) For any verification studies required by § 1.1151(d)(1), the documentation required by § 1.1151(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(5) The justification for any modification to or deviation from the method(s) of analysis used and documentation of the LAAF-accredited laboratory's authorization for the modification or deviation; and
</P>
<P>(6) A certification from one or more members of the LAAF-accredited laboratory's management certifying that the test results, notifications, reports, and studies are true and accurate; and that the documentation includes the results of all tests conducted under this subpart. The certification must include the name, title, and signature of any certifiers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Full analytical report contents.</I> In addition to the documentation required to be submitted with all test results (see paragraph (c) of this section), a full analytical report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) All information described by ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) sections 7.8.2.1(a) through (p) and 7.8.3.1(a) through (d);
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation of references for the method of analysis used;
</P>
<P>(3) Name and signature of the analyst who conducted each analytical step, including any applicable validation and verification steps, and the date each step was performed;
</P>
<P>(4) Calculations, presented in a legible and logical manner;
</P>
<P>(5) As applicable, references to chromatograms, charts, graphs, observations, photographs of thin layer chromatographic plates, and spectra. References must be in color when appropriate and presented in a clear order;
</P>
<P>(6) Identification of the source and purity of reference standards used, and, as applicable: Certified reference materials, certified reference cultures traceable to a nationally or internationally recognized type culture collection (including concentration, units, preparation, and storage conditions), and reference standard preparation information (including who prepared the reference standard, date of preparation, expiration date, chemical balance, and solvent used);
</P>
<P>(7) A copy of the label from any immediate container sampled, if available, and any additional labeling needed to evaluate the product;
</P>
<P>(8) All original compilations of raw data secured in the course of the analysis, including discarded, unused, or re-worked data, with the justification for discarding or re-working such data, corresponding supporting data, and quality control results (including the expected result and whether it is acceptable), all identified with unique sample identification, date, and time, associated with the test;
</P>
<P>(9) Any other relevant additional supporting information such as the storage location of analyzed samples, appropriate attachments such as instrument printouts, computer generated charts and data sheets, and photocopies or original labels for the product analyzed;
</P>
<P>(10) Identification of any software used;
</P>
<P>(11) Any certificate of analysis for standards and software; and
</P>
<P>(12) The following information about the qualifications of each analyst involved in the analysis conducted under this subpart, if the LAAF-accredited laboratory has not previously submitted documentation of the analyst's qualifications to FDA or the analyst's qualifications have significantly changed since the LAAF-accredited laboratory last submitted documentation of the analyst's qualifications to FDA:
</P>
<P>(i) The analyst's curriculum vitae;
</P>
<P>(ii) Training records for the applicable methods that the analyst is qualified to perform, including the dates of such training and the name of the trainer or training provider; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other documentation of the analyst's ability to perform the method properly in the context of the food testing to be conducted, pursuant to § 1.1150(b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional information about non-standard methods.</I> If the LAAF-accredited laboratory conducts the analysis using a method that is not published in a reputable international or national standard or that is otherwise not publicly and readily available, upon request by FDA the LAAF-accredited laboratory must submit documentation of the method to FDA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Immediate notification of significant changes.</I> The LAAF-accredited laboratory must notify FDA and the recognized accreditation body that LAAF-accredited the laboratory of changes that affect the LAAF-accreditation of the laboratory within 48 hours, including a detailed description of such changes, and an explanation of how such changes affect the LAAF-accreditation of the laboratory. LAAF-accredited laboratories are not required to notify FDA of changes that a recognized accreditation body must provide to FDA under § 1.1123(d).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consequence of omission.</I> If FDA does not receive all information required to be submitted to FDA under this section, FDA may consider the related food testing to be invalid.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1153" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1153   What are the requirements for submitting abridged analytical reports?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requesting permission.</I> A LAAF-accredited laboratory may request permission to submit abridged analytical reports for each major food testing discipline: Biological, chemical, and physical.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will grant permission to submit abridged analytical reports for a single major food testing discipline if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The LAAF-accredited laboratory is not on suspension or probation for any method within the major food testing discipline that is the subject of its request (see § 1.1121(b) or § 1.1161(b));
</P>
<P>(ii) The LAAF-accredited laboratory has successfully implemented any required corrective action under § 1.1121(a) or § 1.1161(a); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The last five full analytical reports for the major food testing discipline contain no shortcomings that call into question the validity of the test results or repeated administrative errors.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory if permission is granted or denied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDA review of abridged analytical reports.</I> (1) FDA will review all abridged analytical reports submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory if FDA identifies a shortcoming that calls into question the validity of the test results or repeated administrative errors, will require corrective action under § 1.1161(a), and may revoke permission to submit abridged analytical reports for the specific major food testing discipline.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA identifies a shortcoming that calls into question the validity of the test results or repeated administrative errors in abridged analytical reports from a LAAF-accredited laboratory that has previously had its permission to submit abridged analytical reports revoked for any major food testing discipline, FDA may put the LAAF-accredited laboratory on probation for one or more methods under § 1.1161(b). Under § 1.1162(a), a laboratory on probation for one or more methods may not submit abridged analytical reports for the major food testing disciplines of which the probationary methods are a part.
</P>
<P>(4) A LAAF-accredited laboratory that has had permission to submit abridged analytical reports revoked for one or more major food testing disciplines may request permission to submit abridged analytical reports as described in paragraph (a) of this section for each major food testing discipline.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of abridged analytical reports.</I> In addition to the documentation required to be submitted with all test results (see § 1.1152(c)), an abridged analytical report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) All information described by ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) sections 7.8.2.1(a) through (p) and 7.8.3.1(a) through (d); and
</P>
<P>(2) Quality control results (including the expected result and whether it is acceptable).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> FDA may require additional documentation or a full analytical report from a LAAF-accredited laboratory permitted to submit abridged analytical reports in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA may require a full analytical report related to an FDA investigation or FDA enforcement proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Occasionally, for the purposes of auditing abridged analytical reports and otherwise protecting the public health and the integrity of this food testing program, FDA will require additional documentation or a full analytical report within 72 hours of FDA's request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consequence of omission.</I> If FDA does not receive all information required to be submitted to FDA under paragraph (c) of this section, FDA may consider the related food testing to be invalid.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1154" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.86.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1154   What other records requirements must a LAAF-accredited laboratory meet?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the records requirements of § 1.1138(a), a LAAF-accredited laboratory must maintain, for 5 years after the date of creation, records created and received while it is LAAF-accredited that relate to compliance with this subpart, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Documents related to the LAAF-accredited laboratory's grant of LAAF-accreditation (and, if applicable, extensions and reductions of scope of LAAF-accreditation) from its recognized accreditation body, including all required proficiency test and comparison program records for each method within the scope of LAAF-accreditation under § 1.1138(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation of food testing the LAAF-accredited laboratory conducted under this subpart sufficient to account for all information required by § 1.1152(d), in accordance with § 1.1150(d);
</P>
<P>(3) All documents that the LAAF-accredited laboratory was required to submit to FDA under §§ 1.1152 and 1.1153, and associated correspondence between the LAAF-accredited laboratory (and its officers, employees, and other agents) and the owner or consignee (and its officers, employees, and other agents) regarding food testing under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) All requests for food testing from an owner or consignee that would be conducted under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) Documentation of any internal investigations, internal audits, and corrective action taken to address any problems or deficiencies related to activities under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(6) All documentation related to suspension, probation, reduction of scope, or withdrawal of LAAF-accreditation, or laboratory disqualification under this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(7) Documentation of changes to its management system or food testing activities that may affect its compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Make the records required by paragraph (a) of this section available for inspection and copying or for electronic submission upon written request of an authorized officer or employee of FDA. If FDA requests records for inspection and copying, the laboratory must make such records promptly available at the physical location of the laboratory or at another reasonably accessible location. If the authorized officer or employee of FDA requests electronic submission, the records must be submitted within 10 business days of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that significant amendments to records described by this section can be tracked to previous and original versions. If such a significant amendment is made, both the original document and amended document must be maintained by the LAAF-accredited laboratory during the time period for which the amended document must be maintained under this subpart. The laboratory must also document the date of amendment, the personnel responsible for the amendment, and a conspicuous indication on the original document stating that the document has been altered and that a more recent version of the document exists.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="87" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.87" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>FDA Oversight of LAAF-Accredited Laboratories</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1159" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.87.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1159   How will FDA oversee LAAF-accredited laboratories?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may review the performance of LAAF-accredited laboratories at any time to determine whether the LAAF-accredited laboratory continues to comply with the applicable requirements of this subpart and whether there are deficiencies in the performance of the LAAF-accredited laboratory that, if not corrected, would warrant corrective action, probation, or disqualification under § 1.1161.
</P>
<P>(b) In evaluating the performance of a LAAF-accredited laboratory, FDA may review any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Records the LAAF-accredited laboratory is required to maintain under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Records the recognized accreditation body that LAAF-accredited the laboratory is required to maintain under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(3) Information obtained by FDA during a review of the LAAF-accredited laboratory conducted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Information obtained by FDA during an evaluation of the recognized accreditation body that LAAF-accredits the laboratory;
</P>
<P>(5) Analytical reports and test results submitted to FDA; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other information obtained by FDA, including during FDA's inspections or investigations of one or more owners or consignees.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may conduct an onsite review of a LAAF-accredited laboratory at any reasonable time, with or without a recognized accreditation body (or its officers, employees, and other agents) present, to review the performance of a LAAF-accredited laboratory under this subpart. Certain review activities may be conducted remotely if it will not aid in the review to conduct them onsite.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may report any observations and deficiencies identified during its review of LAAF-accredited laboratory performance under this subpart to the recognized accreditation body.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1160" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.87.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1160   How will FDA review test results and analytical reports?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA finds that any test result, analytical report, related documents, or the associated analysis contains deficiencies or otherwise indicates that any aspect of the food testing is not being conducted in compliance with this subpart, FDA will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory that submitted the analytical report of any deficiency and may:
</P>
<P>(1) Require the laboratory to correct the test result, analytical report, related documents, or the associated analysis;
</P>
<P>(2) Revoke permission to submit abridged reports for that major food testing discipline under § 1.1153(b);
</P>
<P>(3) Require a corrective action under § 1.1161(a);
</P>
<P>(4) Consider the analysis to be invalid; and/or
</P>
<P>(5) Notify the owner or consignee of the deficiency.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may report any deficiencies identified during its review of any test results, reports, and related documents under this subpart to the recognized accreditation body that LAAF-accredits the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to limit the ability of FDA to review and act on information received about food testing, including determining the sufficiency of such information and testing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1161" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.87.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1161   When will FDA require corrective action, put a LAAF-accredited laboratory on probation, or disqualify a LAAF-accredited laboratory from submitting analytical reports?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Corrective action.</I> FDA may require corrective action to address any deficiencies identified while reviewing a LAAF-accredited laboratory's performance under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory of all deficiencies requiring corrective action and will either specify a deadline to implement corrective action or will require the LAAF-accredited laboratory to submit a corrective action plan and timeframe for implementation to FDA for approval.
</P>
<P>(2) The LAAF-accredited laboratory must handle FDA's notification as a complaint under ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) (incorporated by reference, see § 1.1101) section 7.9, implement appropriate corrective action under ISO/IEC 17025:2017(E) section 8.7, and submit both the results of the complaint investigation and subsequent corrective action to FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will review the corrective action and will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory whether the corrective action is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Probation.</I> If FDA determines that a LAAF-accredited laboratory has not effectively implemented corrective action or otherwise fails to address deficiencies identified, FDA may put the LAAF-accredited laboratory on probation for one or more methods and require corrective action under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory and its recognized accreditation body of the grounds for the probation, the method(s) covered by the probation, and all deficiencies requiring corrective action via the process described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will provide notice of a LAAF-accredited laboratory's probation on the website described in § 1.1109.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will review the corrective action and will notify the LAAF-accredited laboratory and its recognized accreditation body whether the corrective action is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(4) A LAAF-accredited laboratory will remain on probation until the LAAF-accredited laboratory demonstrates to FDA's satisfaction that it has successfully implemented appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(5) If FDA determines that a LAAF-accredited laboratory on probation has failed to implement appropriate corrective action or otherwise fails to address deficiencies identified, FDA may disqualify the LAAF-accredited laboratory under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disqualification.</I> FDA may disqualify a LAAF-accredited laboratory from submitting analytical reports under this subpart for one or more methods for good cause, which may include any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) Deliberate falsification of analytical reports, testing results, or other records submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure of a LAAF-accredited laboratory on probation to effectively implement corrective action or otherwise address identified deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(3) Other failure to substantially comply with this subpart where the laboratory's recognized accreditation body has not reduced the scope of or withdrawn LAAF-accreditation of the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualification procedures.</I> (1) FDA will issue a notice of disqualification to a LAAF-accredited laboratory and its recognized accreditation body, which will include:
</P>
<P>(i) The grounds for disqualification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The method or methods to which the disqualification applies;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date the disqualification will be effective;
</P>
<P>(iv) The procedures for requesting a regulatory hearing on the disqualification under § 1.1173; and
</P>
<P>(v) The procedures for requesting reinstatement after disqualification under § 1.1142.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will provide notice of a LAAF-accredited laboratory's disqualification on the website described in § 1.1109.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1162" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.87.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1162   What are the consequences if FDA puts a LAAF-accredited laboratory on probation or disqualifies a LAAF-accredited laboratory?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A LAAF-accredited laboratory that FDA has put on probation for one or more methods is permitted to continue to conduct food testing under this subpart; however, a LAAF-accredited laboratory that is on probation for one or more methods is not permitted to submit abridged analytical reports for the major food testing discipline of which the probationary methods are part.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA disqualifies a LAAF-accredited laboratory for all methods within its scope of LAAF-accreditation, the laboratory is immediately ineligible to conduct food testing under this subpart. If FDA disqualifies a LAAF-accredited laboratory for specific methods within the scope of LAAF-accreditation, the laboratory is immediately ineligible to use the methods for which the laboratory has been disqualified to conduct food testing under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to food testing conducted by the laboratory prior to its disqualification, FDA may refuse to consider results and associated reports of food testing conducted under this subpart if the basis for the disqualification of the laboratory indicates that the specific food testing conducted by the laboratory may not be reliable.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 10 business days of the date of issuance of disqualification, the laboratory must provide the name and email address of the custodian who will maintain and make available to FDA the records required by § 1.1154, and the street address where the records will be located.
</P>
<P>(e) Within 10 business days of the date of issuance of a notice of probation or disqualification, the laboratory must notify any owners or consignees for which it is conducting food testing using methods for which it is being placed on probation or disqualified under this subpart, that it is on probation or has been disqualified.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="88" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.88" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requesting FDA Reconsideration or Regulatory Hearings of FDA Decisions Under This Subpart</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1171" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.88.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1171   How does an accreditation body request reconsideration by FDA of a decision to deny its application for recognition, renewal, or reinstatement?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing of request.</I> An accreditation body may seek reconsideration of FDA's decision to deny its application for recognition or renewal of recognition under § 1.1114, or reinstatement of recognition under § 1.1117, no later than 10 business days after the date of the issuance of such denial.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of request.</I> The request to reconsider an application under paragraph (a) of this section must be signed by the accreditation body, as appropriate, or by an individual authorized to act on its behalf. The accreditation body must submit the request, together with any supporting information, to FDA in accordance with the procedures described in the notice of denial.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification of FDA's decision.</I> After completing its review and evaluation of the request for reconsideration and any supporting information submitted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, FDA will notify the accreditation body of its decision to grant or deny recognition upon reconsideration.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1173" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.88.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1173   How does an accreditation body or laboratory request a regulatory hearing on FDA's decision to revoke the accreditation body's recognition or disqualify a LAAF-accredited laboratory?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing.</I> No later than 10 business days after the date FDA issued a revocation of recognition of an accreditation body pursuant to § 1.1131 or disqualification of a LAAF-accredited laboratory under § 1.1161, the accreditation body, laboratory, or an individual authorized to act on the accreditation body's or laboratory's behalf, may submit a request for a regulatory hearing, conducted pursuant to part 16 of this chapter, on the revocation or disqualification. The notice of revocation issued under § 1.1131 or notice of disqualification issued under § 1.1161, as applicable, will contain all the elements required by § 16.22(a) of this chapter and will thereby constitute the notice of an opportunity for hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of request for regulatory hearing.</I> The request for a regulatory hearing under this subpart must be submitted with a written appeal that responds to the bases for the FDA decision described in the written notice of revocation or disqualification, together with any supporting information. The request, appeal, and supporting information must be submitted to FDA in accordance with the procedures described in the notice of revocation or disqualification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of submitting a request for a regulatory hearing on an FDA decision.</I> The submission of a request for a regulatory hearing under this subpart will not operate to delay or stay the effect of a decision by FDA to revoke the recognition of an accreditation body or disqualify the LAAF-accredited laboratory unless FDA determines that delay or a stay is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Presiding officer.</I> The presiding officer for a regulatory hearing under this subpart will be designated after a request for a regulatory hearing is submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial of a request for regulatory hearing.</I> The presiding officer may deny a request for regulatory hearing under this subpart pursuant to § 16.26(a) of this chapter when no genuine or substantial issue of fact has been raised.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conduct of regulatory hearing.</I> (1) If the presiding officer grants a request for a regulatory hearing, the hearing will be held within 10 business days after the date the request was filed or, if applicable, within a timeframe agreed upon in writing by the accreditation body or laboratory, and the presiding officer and FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer must conduct the hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that, pursuant to § 16.5(b) of this chapter, the procedures for a regulatory hearing apply only to the extent that such procedures are supplementary and do not conflict with the procedures specified for regulatory hearings under this subpart. Accordingly, the following requirements of part 16 of this chapter are inapplicable to regulatory hearings conducted under this subpart: The requirements of § 16.22 (Initiation of regulatory hearing); § 16.24(e) (timing) and (f) (contents of notice); § 16.40 (Commissioner); § 16.60(a) (public process); § 16.95(b) (administrative decision and record for decision); and § 16.119 (Reconsideration and stay of action).
</P>
<P>(3) A decision by the presiding officer to affirm the revocation of recognition or laboratory disqualification is considered a final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 702.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1174" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.88.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1174   How does an owner or consignee request a regulatory hearing on a directed food laboratory order?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing.</I> No later than 3 business days after FDA has issued the directed food laboratory order, an owner or consignee may submit a request for a regulatory hearing, conducted pursuant to part 16 of this chapter, on the directed food laboratory order. The directed food laboratory order will contain all of the elements required by § 16.22 of this chapter and will thereby constitute the notice of an opportunity for hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of request for regulatory hearing.</I> The request for a regulatory hearing must be submitted with a written appeal that responds to the bases, as appropriate, for FDA's determinations described in the directed food laboratory order, together with any supporting information. The request, appeal, and supporting information must be submitted in accordance with the procedures described in the directed food laboratory order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presiding officer.</I> The presiding officer for a regulatory hearing under this subpart will be designated after a request for a regulatory hearing is submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial of a request for regulatory hearing.</I> The presiding officer may deny a request for regulatory hearing under this subpart pursuant to § 16.26(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conduct of regulatory hearing.</I> (1) If the presiding officer grants a request for a regulatory hearing, such hearing will be held within 2 business days after the date the request was filed or, if applicable, within a timeframe agreed upon in writing by the requestor and the presiding officer and FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may require that a hearing conducted under this subpart be completed within 1 business day, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer must conduct the hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that, pursuant to § 16.5(b) of this chapter, the procedures for a regulatory hearing described in part 16 of this chapter apply only to the extent that such procedures are supplementary and not in conflict with the procedures specified for the conduct of regulatory hearings under this subpart. Accordingly, the following requirements of part 16 of this chapter are inapplicable to regulatory hearings conducted under this subpart: § 16.22 (Initiation of regulatory hearing); § 16.24(e) (timing) and (f) (contents of notice); § 16.40 (Commissioner); § 16.60(a) (public process); § 16.95(b) (administrative decision and record for decision); and § 16.119 (Reconsideration and stay of action).
</P>
<P>(4) A decision by the presiding officer to affirm the directed food laboratory order is considered a final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 702.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="89" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.89" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Electronic Records and Public Disclosure Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1199" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.89.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1199   Are electronic records created under this subpart subject to the electronic records requirements of part 11 of this chapter?</HEAD>
<P>Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1200" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.17.89.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1200   Are the records obtained by FDA under this subpart subject to public disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>Records obtained by FDA under this subpart are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Additional Traceability Records for Certain Foods</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 71077, Nov. 21, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.90" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1300" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.90.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1300   Who is subject to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise specified in this subpart, the requirements in this subpart apply to persons who manufacture, process, pack, or hold foods that appear on the list of foods for which additional traceability records are required in accordance with section 204(d)(2) of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act (Food Traceability List). FDA will publish the Food Traceability List on its website, <I>www.fda.gov.,</I> in accordance with section 204(d)(2)(B) of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1305" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.90.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1305   What foods and persons are exempt from this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemptions for certain small producers.</I> (1) <I>Certain produce farms.</I> (i) This subpart does not apply to farms or the farm activities of farm mixed-type facilities with respect to the produce they grow, when the farm is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a) of this chapter,
</P>
<P>(ii) This subpart does not apply to produce farms when the average annual sum of the monetary value of their sales of produce and the market value of produce they manufacture, process, pack, or hold without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> held for a fee) during the previous 3-year period is no more than $25,000 (on a rolling basis), adjusted for inflation using 2020 as the baseline year for calculating the adjustment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain shell egg producers.</I> This subpart does not apply to shell egg producers with fewer than 3,000 laying hens at a particular farm, with respect to the shell eggs they produce at that farm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain other producers of raw agricultural commodities.</I> This subpart does not apply to producers of raw agricultural commodities other than produce or shell eggs (<I>e.g.,</I> aquaculture operations) when the average annual sum of the monetary value of their sales of raw agricultural commodities and the market value of the raw agricultural commodities they manufacture, process, pack, or hold without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> held for a fee) during the previous 3-year period is no more than $25,000 (on a rolling basis), adjusted for inflation using 2020 as the baseline year for calculating the adjustment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption for farms when food is sold or donated directly to consumers.</I> This subpart does not apply to a farm with respect to food produced on the farm (including food that is also packaged on the farm) that is sold or donated directly to a consumer by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inapplicability to certain food produced and packaged on a farm.</I> This subpart does not apply to food produced and packaged on a farm, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The packaging of the food remains in place until the food reaches the consumer, and such packaging maintains the integrity of the product and prevents subsequent contamination or alteration of the product; and
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling of the food that reaches the consumer includes the name, complete address (street address, town, State, country, and zip or other postal code for a domestic farm and comparable information for a foreign farm), and business phone number of the farm on which the food was produced and packaged. FDA will waive the requirement to include a business phone number, as appropriate, to accommodate a religious belief of the individual in charge of the farm.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions and partial exemptions for foods that receive certain types of processing.</I> This subpart does not apply to the following foods that receive certain types of processing:
</P>
<P>(1) Produce that receives commercial processing that adequately reduces the presence of microorganisms of public health significance, provided the conditions set forth in § 112.2(b) of this chapter are met for the produce;
</P>
<P>(2) Shell eggs when all eggs produced at the particular farm receive a treatment (as defined in § 118.3 of this chapter) in accordance with § 118.1(a)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Food that you subject to a kill step, provided that you maintain records containing:
</P>
<P>(i) The information specified in § 1.1345 for your receipt of the food to which you apply the kill step (unless you have entered into a written agreement concerning your application of a kill step to the food in accordance with paragraph (d)(6) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(ii) A record of your application of the kill step;
</P>
<P>(4) Food that you change such that the food is no longer on the Food Traceability List, provided that you maintain records containing the information specified in § 1.1345 for your receipt of the food you change (unless you have entered into a written agreement concerning your changing of the food such that the food is no longer on the Food Traceability List in accordance with paragraph (d)(6) of this section);


</P>
<P>(5) Food that you receive that has previously been subjected to a kill step or that has previously been changed such that the food is no longer on the Food Traceability List;
</P>
<P>(6) Food that will be subjected to a kill step by an entity other than a retail food establishment, restaurant, or consumer; or that will be changed by an entity other than a retail food establishment, restaurant, or consumer, such that the food will no longer be on the Food Traceability List, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) There is a written agreement between the shipper of the food and the receiver stating that the receiver will apply a kill step to the food or change the food such that it is no longer on the Food Traceability List; or
</P>
<P>(ii) There is a written agreement between the shipper of the food and the receiver stating that an entity in the supply chain subsequent to the receiver will apply a kill step to the food or change the food such that it is no longer on the Food Traceability List and that the receiver will only ship the food to another entity that agrees, in writing, it will:
</P>
<P>(A) Apply a kill step to the food or change the food such that it is no longer on the Food Traceability List; or
</P>
<P>(B) Enter into a similar written agreement with a subsequent receiver stating that a kill step will be applied to the food or that the food will be changed such that it is no longer on the Food Traceability List.
</P>
<P>(iii) A written agreement entered into in accordance with paragraph (d)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section must include the effective date, printed names and signatures of the persons entering into the agreement, and the substance of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A written agreement entered into in accordance with paragraph (d)(6)(i) or (ii) must be maintained by both parties for as long as it is in effect and must be renewed at least once every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption for produce that is rarely consumed raw.</I> This subpart does not apply to produce that is listed as rarely consumed raw in § 112.2(a)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exemption for raw bivalve molluscan shellfish.</I> This subpart does not apply to raw bivalve molluscan shellfish that are covered by the requirements of the National Shellfish Sanitation Program, subject to the requirements of part 123, subpart C, and § 1240.60 of this chapter, or covered by a final equivalence determination by FDA for raw bivalve molluscan shellfish.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemption for persons who manufacture, process, pack, or hold certain foods subject to regulation by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).</I> This subpart does not apply to persons who manufacture, process, pack, or hold food on the Food Traceability List during or after the time when the food is within the exclusive jurisdiction of the USDA under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>), the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>), or the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Partial exemption for commingled raw agricultural commodities.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section, this subpart does not apply to commingled raw agricultural commodities (which, as defined in § 1.1310, do not include types of fruits and vegetables to which the standards for the growing, harvesting, packing, and holding of produce for human consumption in part 112 of this chapter apply).
</P>
<P>(2) Except as specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section, this subpart does not apply to a raw agricultural commodity that will become a commingled raw agricultural commodity, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) There is a written agreement between the shipper of the raw agricultural commodity and the receiver stating that the receiver will include the commodity as part of a commingled raw agricultural commodity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) There is a written agreement between the shipper of the raw agricultural commodity and the receiver stating that an entity in the supply chain subsequent to the receiver will include the commodity as part of a commingled raw agricultural commodity and that the receiver will only ship the raw agricultural commodity to another entity that agrees, in writing, it will either:
</P>
<P>(A) Include the raw agricultural commodity as part of a commingled raw agricultural commodity; or
</P>
<P>(B) Enter into a similar written agreement with a subsequent receiver stating that the raw agricultural commodity will become part of a commingled raw agricultural commodity;
</P>
<P>(iii) A written agreement entered into in accordance with paragraph (h)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section must include the effective date, printed names and signatures of the persons entering into the agreement, and the substance of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A written agreement entered into in accordance with paragraph (h)(2)(i) or (ii) must be maintained by both parties for as long as it is in effect and must be renewed at least once every 3 years;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a commingled raw agricultural commodity that qualifies for either of the exemptions set forth in paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section, if a person who manufactures, processes, packs, or holds such commodity is required to register with FDA under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of the applicable raw agricultural commodity, such person must maintain records identifying the immediate previous source of such raw agricultural commodity and the immediate subsequent recipient of such food in accordance with §§ 1.337 and 1.345. Such records must be maintained for 2 years.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption for small retail food establishments and small restaurants.</I> This subpart does not apply to retail food establishments and restaurants with an average annual monetary value of food sold or provided during the previous 3-year period of no more than $250,000 (on a rolling basis), adjusted for inflation using 2020 as the baseline year for calculating the adjustment.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Partial exemption for retail food establishments and restaurants purchasing directly from a farm.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (j)(2) of this section, this subpart does not apply to a retail food establishment or restaurant with respect to a food that is produced on a farm (including food produced and packaged on the farm) and both sold and shipped directly to the retail food establishment or restaurant by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of that farm.
</P>
<P>(2) When a retail food establishment or restaurant purchases a food directly from a farm in accordance with paragraph (j)(1) of this section, the retail food establishment or restaurant must maintain a record documenting the name and address of the farm that was the source of the food. The retail food establishment or restaurant must maintain such a record for 180 days.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Partial exemption for retail food establishments and restaurants making certain purchases from another retail food establishment or restaurant.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (k)(2) of this section, this subpart does not apply to either entity when a purchase is made by a retail food establishment or restaurant from another retail food establishment or restaurant, and the purchase occurs on an ad hoc basis outside of the buyer's usual purchasing practice (<I>e.g.,</I> not pursuant to a contractual agreement to purchase food from the seller).
</P>
<P>(2) When a retail food establishment or restaurant purchases a food on the Food Traceability List from another retail food establishment or restaurant in accordance with paragraph (k)(1) of this section, the retail food establishment or restaurant that makes the purchase must maintain a record (<I>e.g.,</I> a sales receipt) documenting the name of the product purchased, the date of purchase, and the name and address of the place of purchase.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Partial exemption for farm to school and farm to institution programs.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (l)(2) of this section, this subpart does not apply to an institution operating a child nutrition program authorized under the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act or Section 4 of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966, or any other entity conducting a farm to school or farm to institution program, with respect to a food that is produced on a farm (including food produced and packaged on the farm) and sold or donated to the school or institution.
</P>
<P>(2) When a school or institution conducting a farm to school or farm to institution program obtains a food from a farm in accordance with paragraph (l)(1) of this section, the school food authority or relevant food procurement entity must maintain a record documenting the name and address of the farm that was the source of the food. The school food authority or relevant food procurement entity must maintain such record for 180 days.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Partial exemption for owners, operators, or agents in charge of fishing vessels.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (m)(2) of this section, with respect to a food that is obtained from a fishing vessel, this subpart does not apply to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the fishing vessel, and this subpart also does not apply to persons who manufacture, process, pack, or hold the food until such time as the food is sold by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the fishing vessel.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any person who receives the partial exemption set forth in paragraph (m)(1) of this section, if such person is required to register with FDA under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of the applicable food, such person must maintain records identifying the immediate previous source of such food and the immediate subsequent recipient of such food in accordance with §§ 1.337 and 1.345. Such records must be maintained for 2 years.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Exemption for transporters.</I> This subpart does not apply to transporters of food.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Exemption for nonprofit food establishments.</I> This subpart does not apply to nonprofit food establishments.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Exemption for persons who manufacture, process, pack, or hold food for personal consumption.</I> This subpart does not apply to persons who manufacture, process, pack, or hold food for personal consumption.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Exemption for certain persons who hold food on behalf of individual consumers.</I> This subpart does not apply to persons who hold food on behalf of specific individual consumers, provided that these persons:
</P>
<P>(1) Are not parties to the transaction involving the food they hold; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are not in the business of distributing food.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Exemption for food for research or evaluation.</I> This subpart does not apply to food for research or evaluation use, provided that such food:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not intended for retail sale and is not sold or distributed to the public; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is accompanied by the statement “Food for research or evaluation use.”


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 71077, Nov. 21, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 65815, Sept. 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1310" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.90.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1310   What definitions apply to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this subpart. In addition, the following definitions apply to words and phrases as they are used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Commingled raw agricultural commodity</I> means any commodity that is combined or mixed after harvesting but before processing, except that the term “commingled raw agricultural commodity” does not include types of fruits and vegetables that are raw agricultural commodities to which the standards for the growing, harvesting, packing, and holding of produce for human consumption in part 112 of this chapter apply. For the purpose of this definition, a commodity is “combined or mixed” only when the combination or mixing involves food from different farms under different company management; except that for food obtained from a fishing vessel, a commodity is “combined or mixed” only when the combination or mixing involves food from different landing vessels and occurs after the vessels have landed. Also, for the purpose of this definition, the term “processing” means operations that alter the general state of the commodity, such as canning, cooking, freezing, dehydration, milling, grinding, pasteurization, or homogenization.
</P>
<P><I>Cooling</I> means active temperature reduction of a raw agricultural commodity using hydrocooling, icing (except icing of seafood), forced air cooling, vacuum cooling, or a similar process.
</P>
<P><I>Critical tracking event</I> means an event in the supply chain of a food involving the harvesting, cooling (before initial packing), initial packing of a raw agricultural commodity other than a food obtained from a fishing vessel, first land-based receiving of a food obtained from a fishing vessel, shipping, receiving, or transformation of the food.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means farm as defined in § 1.328. For producers of shell eggs, “farm” means all poultry houses and grounds immediately surrounding the poultry houses covered under a single biosecurity program, as set forth in § 118.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>First land-based receiver</I> means the person taking possession of a food for the first time on land directly from a fishing vessel.
</P>
<P><I>Fishing vessel</I> means any vessel, boat, ship, or other craft which is used for, equipped to be used for, or of a type which is normally used for fishing or aiding or assisting one or more vessels at sea in the performance of any activity relating to fishing, including, but not limited to, preparation, supply, storage, refrigeration, transportation, or processing, as set forth in the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1802(18)).
</P>
<P><I>Food Traceability List</I> means the list of foods for which additional traceability records are required to be maintained, as designated in accordance with section 204(d)(2) of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act. The term “Food Traceability List” includes both the foods specifically listed and foods that contain listed foods as ingredients, provided that the listed food that is used as an ingredient remains in the same form (<I>e.g.,</I> fresh) in which it appears on the list.
</P>
<P><I>Harvesting</I> applies to farms and farm mixed-type facilities and means activities that are traditionally performed on farms for the purpose of removing raw agricultural commodities from the place they were grown or raised and preparing them for use as food. Harvesting is limited to activities performed on raw agricultural commodities, or on processed foods created by drying/dehydrating a raw agricultural commodity without additional manufacturing/processing, on a farm. Harvesting does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of harvesting include cutting (or otherwise separating) the edible portion of the raw agricultural commodity from the crop plant and removing or trimming part of the raw agricultural commodity (<I>e.g.,</I> foliage, husks, roots, or stems). Examples of harvesting also include cooling, field coring, filtering, gathering, hulling, shelling, sifting, threshing, trimming of outer leaves of, and washing raw agricultural commodities grown on a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that food, such as fumigating food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Initial packing</I> means packing a raw agricultural commodity (other than a food obtained from a fishing vessel) for the first time.
</P>
<P><I>Key data element</I> means information associated with a critical tracking event for which a record must be maintained and/or provided in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Kill step</I> means lethality processing that significantly minimizes pathogens in a food.
</P>
<P><I>Location description</I> means key contact information for the location where a food is handled, specifically the business name, phone number, physical location address (or geographic coordinates), and city, State, and zip code for domestic locations and comparable information for foreign locations, including country.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying, or manipulating food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, irradiating, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that engages in both activities that are exempt from registration under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and activities that require the establishment to be registered. An example of such a facility is a “farm mixed-type facility,” which is an establishment that is a farm, but also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit food establishment</I> means a charitable entity that prepares or serves food directly to the consumer or otherwise provides food or meals for consumption by humans or animals in the United States. The term includes central food banks, soup kitchens, and nonprofit food delivery services. To be considered a nonprofit food establishment, the establishment must meet the terms of section 501(c)(3) of the U.S. Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing food into a container other than packaging the food and also includes re-packing and activities performed incidental to packing or re-packing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or re-packing of that food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, and association.
</P>
<P><I>Point of contact</I> means an individual having familiarity with an entity's procedures for traceability, including their name and/or job title, and their phone number.
</P>
<P><I>Produce</I> means produce as defined in § 112.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Product description</I> means a description of a food product and includes the product name (including, if applicable, the brand name, commodity, and variety), packaging size, and packaging style. For seafood, the product name may include the species and/or acceptable market name.
</P>
<P><I>Raw agricultural commodity</I> means “raw agricultural commodity” as defined in section 201(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving</I> means an event in a food's supply chain in which a food is received by someone other than a consumer after being transported (<I>e.g.,</I> by truck or ship) from another location. Receiving includes receipt of an intracompany shipment of food from one location at a particular street address of a firm to another location at a different street address of the firm.
</P>
<P><I>Reference document</I> means a business transaction document, record, or message, in electronic or paper form, that may contain some or all of the key data elements for a critical tracking event in the supply chain of a food. A reference document may be established by you or obtained from another person. Reference document types may include, but are not limited to, bills of lading, purchase orders, advance shipping notices, work orders, invoices, database records, batch logs, production logs, field tags, catch certificates, and receipts.
</P>
<P><I>Reference document number</I> means the identification number assigned to a specific reference document.
</P>
<P><I>Restaurant</I> means a facility that prepares and sells food directly to consumers for immediate consumption. “Restaurant” does not include facilities that provide food to interstate conveyances, central kitchens, and other similar facilities that do not prepare and serve food directly to consumers.
</P>
<P>(1) Entities in which food is provided to humans, such as cafeterias, lunchrooms, cafes, bistros, fast food establishments, food stands, saloons, taverns, bars, lounges, catering facilities, hospital kitchens, day care kitchens, and nursing home kitchens are restaurants; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pet shelters, kennels, and veterinary facilities in which food is provided to animals are restaurants.
</P>
<P><I>Retail food establishment</I> means an establishment that sells food products directly to consumers as its primary function. The term “retail food establishment” includes facilities that manufacture, process, pack, or hold food if the establishment's primary function is to sell from that establishment food, including food that it manufactures, processes, packs, or holds, directly to consumers. A retail food establishment's primary function is to sell food directly to consumers if the annual monetary value of sales of food products directly to consumers exceeds the annual monetary value of sales of food products to all other buyers. The term “consumers” does not include businesses. A “retail food establishment” includes grocery stores, convenience stores, and vending machine locations. A “retail food establishment” also includes certain farm-operated businesses selling food directly to consumers as their primary function.
</P>
<P>(1) Sale of food directly to consumers from an establishment located on a farm includes sales by that establishment directly to consumers:
</P>
<P>(i) At a roadside stand (a stand situated on the side of or near a road or thoroughfare at which a farmer sells food from his or her farm directly to consumers) or farmers' market (a location where one or more local farmers assemble to sell food from their farms directly to consumers);
</P>
<P>(ii) Through a community supported agriculture program. Community supported agriculture (CSA) program means a program under which a farmer or group of farmers grows food for a group of shareholders (or subscribers) who pledge to buy a portion of the farmer's crop(s) for that season. This includes CSA programs in which a group of farmers consolidate their crops at a central location for distribution to shareholders or subscribers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) At other such direct-to-consumer sales platforms, including door-to-door sales; mail, catalog and internet order, including online farmers' markets and online grocery delivery; religious or other organization bazaars; and State and local fairs.
</P>
<P>(2) Sale of food directly to consumers by a farm-operated business includes the sale of food by that farm-operated business directly to consumers:
</P>
<P>(i) At a roadside stand (a stand situated on the side of or near a road or thoroughfare at which a farmer sells food from his or her farm directly to consumers) or farmers' market (a location where one or more local farmers assemble to sell food from their farms directly to consumers);
</P>
<P>(ii) Through a community supported agriculture program. Community supported agriculture (CSA) program means a program under which a farmer or group of farmers grows food for a group of shareholders (or subscribers) who pledge to buy a portion of the farmer's crop(s) for that season. This includes CSA programs in which a group of farmers consolidate their crops at a central location for distribution to shareholders or subscribers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) At other such direct-to-consumer sales platforms, including door-to-door sales; mail, catalog and internet order, including online farmers' markets and online grocery delivery; religious or other organization bazaars; and State and local fairs.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this definition, “farm-operated business” means a business that is managed by one or more farms and conducts manufacturing/processing not on the farm(s).
</P>
<P><I>Shipping</I> means an event in a food's supply chain in which a food is arranged for transport (<I>e.g.,</I> by truck or ship) from one location to another location. Shipping does not include the sale or shipment of a food directly to a consumer or the donation of surplus food. Shipping includes sending an intracompany shipment of food from one location at a particular street address of a firm to another location at a different street address of the firm.
</P>
<P><I>Traceability lot</I> means a batch or lot of food that has been initially packed (for raw agricultural commodities other than food obtained from a fishing vessel), received by the first land-based receiver (for food obtained from a fishing vessel), or transformed.
</P>
<P><I>Traceability lot code</I> means a descriptor, often alphanumeric, used to uniquely identify a traceability lot within the records of the traceability lot code source.
</P>
<P><I>Traceability lot code source</I> means the place where a food was assigned a traceability lot code.
</P>
<P><I>Traceability lot code source reference</I> means an alternative method for providing FDA with access to the location description for the traceability lot code source as required under this subpart. Examples of a traceability lot code source reference include, but are not limited to, the FDA Food Facility Registration Number for the traceability lot code source or a web address that provides FDA with the location description for the traceability lot code source.
</P>
<P><I>Transformation</I> means an event in a food's supply chain that involves manufacturing/processing a food or changing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> by commingling, repacking, or relabeling) or its packaging or packing, when the output is a food on the Food Traceability List. Transformation does not include the initial packing of a food or activities preceding that event (<I>e.g.,</I> harvesting, cooling).
</P>
<P><I>Transporter</I> means a person who has possession, custody, or control of an article of food for the sole purpose of transporting the food, whether by road, rail, water, or air.
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means a person subject to this subpart under § 1.1300.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="91" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.91" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Traceability Plan</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1315" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1315   What traceability plan must I have for foods on the Food Traceability List that I manufacture, process, pack, or hold?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are subject to the requirements in this subpart, you must establish and maintain a traceability plan containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the procedures you use to maintain the records you are required to keep under this subpart, including the format and location of these records.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the procedures you use to identify foods on the Food Traceability List that you manufacture, process, pack, or hold;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of how you assign traceability lot codes to foods on the Food Traceability List in accordance with § 1.1320, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement identifying a point of contact for questions regarding your traceability plan and records; and
</P>
<P>(5) If you grow or raise a food on the Food Traceability List (other than eggs), a farm map showing the areas in which you grow or raise such foods.
</P>
<P>(i) Except as specified in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section, the farm map must show the location and name of each field (or other growing area) in which you grow a food on the Food Traceability List, including geographic coordinates and any other information needed to identify the location of each field or growing area.
</P>
<P>(ii) For aquaculture farms, the farm map must show the location and name of each container (<I>e.g.,</I> pond, pool, tank, cage) in which you raise seafood on the Food Traceability List, including geographic coordinates and any other information needed to identify the location of each container.
</P>
<P>(b) You must update your traceability plan as needed to ensure that the information provided reflects your current practices and to ensure that you are in compliance with the requirements of this subpart. You must retain your previous traceability plan for 2 years after you update the plan.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1320" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1320   When must I assign traceability lot codes to foods on the Food Traceability List?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must assign a traceability lot code when you do any of the following: Initially pack a raw agricultural commodity other than a food obtained from a fishing vessel; perform the first land-based receiving of a food obtained from a fishing vessel; or transform a food.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise specified in this subpart, you must not establish a new traceability lot code when you conduct other activities (<I>e.g.,</I> shipping) for a food on the Food Traceability List.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="92" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.92" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records of Critical Tracking Events</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1325" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.92.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1325   What records must I keep and provide when I harvest or cool a raw agricultural commodity on the Food Traceability List?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Harvesting.</I> (1) For each raw agricultural commodity (not obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List that you harvest, you must maintain records containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The location description for the immediate subsequent recipient (other than a transporter) of the food;
</P>
<P>(ii) The commodity and, if applicable, variety of the food;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity and unit of measure of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> 75 bins, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(iv) The location description for the farm where the food was harvested;
</P>
<P>(v) For produce, the name of the field or other growing area from which the food was harvested (which must correspond to the name used by the grower), or other information identifying the harvest location at least as precisely as the field or other growing area name;
</P>
<P>(vi) For aquacultured food, the name of the container (<I>e.g.,</I> pond, pool, tank, cage) from which the food was harvested (which must correspond to the container name used by the aquaculture farmer) or other information identifying the harvest location at least as precisely as the container name;
</P>
<P>(vii) The date of harvesting; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The reference document type and reference document number.
</P>
<P>(2) For each raw agricultural commodity (not obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List that you harvest, you must provide (in electronic, paper, or other written form) your business name, phone number, and the information in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section to the initial packer of the raw agricultural commodity you harvest, either directly or through the supply chain.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cooling before initial packing.</I> (1) For each raw agricultural commodity (not obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List that you cool before it is initially packed, you must maintain records containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The location description for the immediate subsequent recipient (other than a transporter) of the food;
</P>
<P>(ii) The commodity and, if applicable, variety of the food;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity and unit of measure of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> 75 bins, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(iv) The location description for where you cooled the food;
</P>
<P>(v) The date of cooling;
</P>
<P>(vi) The location description for the farm where the food was harvested; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The reference document type and reference document number.
</P>
<P>(2) For each raw agricultural commodity (not obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List that you cool before it is initially packed, you must provide (in electronic, paper, or other written form) the information in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section to the initial packer of the raw agricultural commodity you cool, either directly or through the supply chain.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1330" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.92.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1330   What records must I keep when I am performing the initial packing of a raw agricultural commodity (other than a food obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, for each traceability lot of a raw agricultural commodity (other than a food obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List you initially pack, you must maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(1) The commodity and, if applicable, variety of the food received;
</P>
<P>(2) The date you received the food;
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity and unit of measure of the food received (<I>e.g.,</I> 75 bins, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(4) The location description for the farm where the food was harvested;
</P>
<P>(5) For produce, the name of the field or other growing area from which the food was harvested (which must correspond to the name used by the grower), or other information identifying the harvest location at least as precisely as the field or other growing area name;
</P>
<P>(6) For aquacultured food, the name of the container (<I>e.g.,</I> pond, pool, tank, cage) from which the food was harvested (which must correspond to the container name used by the aquaculture farmer) or other information identifying the harvest location at least as precisely as the container name;
</P>
<P>(7) The business name and phone number for the harvester of the food;
</P>
<P>(8) The date of harvesting;
</P>
<P>(9) The location description for where the food was cooled (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(10) The date of cooling (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(11) The traceability lot code you assigned;
</P>
<P>(12) The product description of the packed food;
</P>
<P>(13) The quantity and unit of measure of the packed food (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 cases, 25 reusable plastic containers, 100 tanks, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(14) The location description for where you initially packed the food (<I>i.e.,</I> the traceability lot code source), and (if applicable) the traceability lot code source reference;
</P>
<P>(15) The date of initial packing; and
</P>
<P>(16) The reference document type and reference document number.
</P>
<P>(b) For each traceability lot of sprouts (except soil- or substrate-grown sprouts harvested without their roots) you initially pack, you must also maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(1) The location description for the grower of seeds for sprouting and the date of seed harvesting, if either is available;
</P>
<P>(2) The location description for the seed conditioner or processor, the associated seed lot code, and the date of conditioning or processing;
</P>
<P>(3) The location description for the seed packinghouse (including any repackers), the date of packing (and of repacking, if applicable), and any associated seed lot code assigned by the seed packinghouse;
</P>
<P>(4) The location description for the seed supplier, any seed lot code assigned by the seed supplier (including the master lot and sub-lot codes), and any new seed lot code assigned by the sprouter;
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the seeds, including the seed type or taxonomic name, growing specifications, type of packaging, and (if applicable) antimicrobial treatment;
</P>
<P>(6) The date of receipt of the seeds by the sprouter; and
</P>
<P>(7) The reference document type and reference document number.
</P>
<P>(c) For each traceability lot of a raw agricultural commodity (other than a food obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List you initially pack that you receive from a person to whom this subpart does not apply, you must maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(1) The commodity and, if applicable, variety of the food received;
</P>
<P>(2) The date you received the food;
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity and unit of measure of the food received (<I>e.g.,</I> 75 bins, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(4) The location description for the person from whom you received the food;
</P>
<P>(5) The traceability lot code you assigned;
</P>
<P>(6) The product description of the packed food;
</P>
<P>(7) The quantity and unit of measure of the packed food (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 cases, 25 reusable plastic containers, 100 tanks, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(8) The location description for where you initially packed the food (<I>i.e.,</I> the traceability lot code source), and (if applicable) the traceability lot code source reference;
</P>
<P>(9) The date of initial packing; and
</P>
<P>(10) The reference document type and reference document number.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1335" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.92.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1335   What records must I keep when I am the first land-based receiver of a food on the Food Traceability List that was obtained from a fishing vessel?</HEAD>
<P>For each traceability lot of a food obtained from a fishing vessel for which you are the first land-based receiver, you must maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(a) The traceability lot code you assigned;
</P>
<P>(b) The species and/or acceptable market name for unpackaged food, or the product description for packaged food;
</P>
<P>(c) The quantity and unit of measure of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> 300 kg);
</P>
<P>(d) The harvest date range and locations (as identified under the National Marine Fisheries Service Ocean Geographic Code, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization Major Fishing Area list, or any other widely recognized geographical location standard) for the trip during which the food was caught;
</P>
<P>(e) The location description for the first land-based receiver (<I>i.e.,</I> the traceability lot code source), and (if applicable) the traceability lot code source reference;
</P>
<P>(f) The date the food was landed; and
</P>
<P>(g) The reference document type and reference document number.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1340" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.92.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1340   What records must I keep and provide when I ship a food on the Food Traceability List?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each traceability lot of a food on the Food Traceability List you ship, you must maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(1) The traceability lot code for the food;
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity and unit of measure of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 cases, 25 reusable plastic containers, 100 tanks, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(3) The product description for the food;
</P>
<P>(4) The location description for the immediate subsequent recipient (other than a transporter) of the food;
</P>
<P>(5) The location description for the location from which you shipped the food;
</P>
<P>(6) The date you shipped the food;
</P>
<P>(7) The location description for the traceability lot code source, or the traceability lot code source reference; and
</P>
<P>(8) The reference document type and reference document number.
</P>
<P>(b) You must provide (in electronic, paper, or other written form) the information in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section to the immediate subsequent recipient (other than a transporter) of each traceability lot that you ship.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to the shipment of a food that occurs before the food is initially packed (if the food is a raw agricultural commodity not obtained from a fishing vessel).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1345" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.92.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1345   What records must I keep when I receive a food on the Food Traceability List?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, for each traceability lot of a food on the Food Traceability List you receive, you must maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(1) The traceability lot code for the food;
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity and unit of measure of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 cases, 25 reusable plastic containers, 100 tanks, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(3) The product description for the food;
</P>
<P>(4) The location description for the immediate previous source (other than a transporter) for the food;
</P>
<P>(5) The location description for where the food was received;
</P>
<P>(6) The date you received the food;
</P>
<P>(7) The location description for the traceability lot code source, or the traceability lot code source reference; and
</P>
<P>(8) The reference document type and reference document number.
</P>
<P>(b) For each traceability lot of a food on the Food Traceability List you receive from a person to whom this subpart does not apply, you must maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(1) The traceability lot code for the food, which you must assign if one has not already been assigned (except that this paragraph does not apply if you are a retail food establishment or restaurant);
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity and unit of measure of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 cases, 25 reusable plastic containers, 100 tanks, 200 pounds);
</P>
<P>(3) The product description for the food;
</P>
<P>(4) The location description for the immediate previous source (other than a transporter) for the food;
</P>
<P>(5) The location description for where the food was received (<I>i.e.,</I> the traceability lot code source), and (if applicable) the traceability lot code source reference;
</P>
<P>(6) The date you received the food; and
</P>
<P>(7) The reference document type and reference document number.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to receipt of a food that occurs before the food is initially packed (if the food is a raw agricultural commodity not obtained from a fishing vessel) or to the receipt of a food by the first land-based receiver (if the food is obtained from a fishing vessel).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1350" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.92.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1350   What records must I keep when I transform a food on the Food Traceability List?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, for each new traceability lot of food you produce through transformation, you must maintain records containing the following information and linking this information to the new traceability lot:
</P>
<P>(1) For the food on the Food Traceability List used in transformation (if applicable), the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The traceability lot code for the food;
</P>
<P>(ii) The product description for the food to which the traceability lot code applies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For each traceability lot used, the quantity and unit of measure of the food used from that lot.
</P>
<P>(2) For the food produced through transformation, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The new traceability lot code for the food;
</P>
<P>(ii) The location description for where you transformed the food (<I>i.e.,</I> the traceability lot code source), and (if applicable) the traceability lot code source reference;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date transformation was completed;
</P>
<P>(iv) The product description for the food;
</P>
<P>(v) The quantity and unit of measure of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 cases, 25 reusable plastic containers, 100 tanks, 200 pounds); and
</P>
<P>(vi) The reference document type and reference document number for the transformation event.
</P>
<P>(b) For each traceability lot produced through transformation of a raw agricultural commodity (other than a food obtained from a fishing vessel) on the Food Traceability List that was not initially packed prior to your transformation of the food, you must maintain records containing the information specified in § 1.1330(a) or (c), and, if the raw agricultural commodity is sprouts, the information specified in § 1.1330(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to retail food establishments and restaurants with respect to foods they do not ship (<I>e.g.,</I> foods they sell or send directly to consumers).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="93" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures for Modified Requirements and Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1360" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1360   Under what circumstances will FDA modify the requirements in this subpart that apply to a food or type of entity or exempt a food or type of entity from the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, FDA will modify the requirements of this subpart applicable to a food or type of entity, or exempt a food or type of entity from the requirements of this subpart, when we determine that application of the requirements that would otherwise apply to the food or type of entity is not necessary to protect the public health.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registered facilities.</I> If a person to whom modified requirements or an exemption applies under paragraph (a) of this section (including a person who manufactures, processes, packs, or holds a food to which modified requirements or an exemption applies under paragraph (a) of this section) is required to register with FDA under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (and in accordance with the requirements of subpart H of this part) with respect to the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of the applicable food, such person must maintain records identifying the immediate previous source of such food and the immediate subsequent recipient of such food in accordance with §§ 1.337 and 1.345. Such records must be maintained for 2 years.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1365" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1365   When will FDA consider whether to adopt modified requirements or grant an exemption from the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will consider modifying the requirements of this subpart applicable to a food or type of entity, or exempting a food or type of entity from the requirements of this subpart, on our own initiative or in response to a citizen petition submitted under § 10.30 of this chapter by any interested party.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1370" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1370   What must be included in a petition requesting modified requirements or an exemption from the requirements?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to meeting the requirements on the content and format of a citizen petition in § 10.30 of this chapter, a petition requesting modified requirements or an exemption from the requirements of this subpart must:
</P>
<P>(a) Specify the food or type of entity to which the modified requirements or exemption would apply;
</P>
<P>(b) If the petition requests modified requirements, specify the proposed modifications to the requirements of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(c) Present information demonstrating why application of the requirements requested to be modified or from which exemption is requested is not necessary to protect the public health.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1375" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1375   What information submitted in a petition requesting modified requirements or an exemption, or information in comments on such a petition, is publicly available?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will presume that information submitted in a petition requesting modified requirements or an exemption, as well as information in comments submitted on such a petition, does not contain information exempt from public disclosure under part 20 of this chapter and will be made public as part of the docket associated with the petition.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1380" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1380   What process applies to a petition requesting modified requirements or an exemption?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, the procedures set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter govern FDA's response to a petition requesting modified requirements or an exemption. An interested person may submit comments on such a petition in accordance with § 10.30(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Under § 10.30(h)(3) of this chapter, FDA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> requesting information and views on a submitted petition, including information and views from persons who could be affected by the modified requirements or exemption if we granted the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) Under § 10.30(e)(3) of this chapter, we will respond to the petitioner in writing, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If we grant the petition either in whole or in part, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth any modified requirements or exemptions and the reasons for them.
</P>
<P>(2) If we deny the petition (including a partial denial), our written response to the petitioner will explain the reasons for the denial.
</P>
<P>(d) We will make readily accessible to the public, and periodically update, a list of petitions requesting modified requirements or exemptions, including the status of each petition (for example, pending, granted, or denied).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1385" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1385   What process will FDA follow when adopting modified requirements or granting an exemption on our own initiative?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA, on our own initiative, determines that adopting modified requirements or granting an exemption from the requirements for a food or type of entity is appropriate, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth the proposed modified requirements or exemption and the reasons for the proposal. The notice will establish a public docket so that interested persons may submit written comments on the proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) After considering any comments timely submitted, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating whether we are adopting modified requirements or granting an exemption, and the reasons for our decision.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1390" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1390   When will modified requirements that we adopt or an exemption that we grant become effective?</HEAD>
<P>Any modified requirements that FDA adopts or exemption that we grant will become effective on the date that notice of the modified requirements or exemption is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E><I>,</I> unless otherwise stated in the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1395" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1395   Under what circumstances may FDA revise or revoke modified requirements or an exemption?</HEAD>
<P>FDA may revise or revoke modified requirements or an exemption if we determine that such revision or revocation is necessary to protect the public health.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1400" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.93.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1400   What procedures apply if FDA tentatively determines that modified requirements or an exemption should be revised or revoked?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA tentatively determines that we should revise or revoke modified requirements or an exemption, we will provide the following notifications:
</P>
<P>(1) We will notify the person that originally requested the modified requirements or exemption (if we adopted modified requirements or granted an exemption in response to a petition) in writing at the address identified in the petition; and
</P>
<P>(2) We will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of our tentative determination that the modified requirements or exemption should be revised or revoked and the reasons for our tentative decision. The notice will establish a public docket so that interested persons may submit written comments on our tentative determination.
</P>
<P>(b) After considering any comments timely submitted, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of our decision whether to revise or revoke the modified requirements or exemption and the reasons for the decision. If we do revise or revoke the modified requirements or exemption, the effective date of the decision will be 1 year after the date of publication of the notice, unless otherwise stated in the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="94" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Waivers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1405" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1405   Under what circumstances will FDA waive one or more of the requirements of this subpart for an individual entity or a type of entity?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will waive one or more of the requirements of this subpart when we determine that:
</P>
<P>(a) Application of the requirements would result in an economic hardship for an individual entity or a type of entity, due to the unique circumstances of the individual entity or type of entity;
</P>
<P>(b) The waiver will not significantly impair our ability to rapidly and effectively identify recipients of a food to prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak or to address credible threats of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals as a result of such food being adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(c) The waiver will not otherwise be contrary to the public interest.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1410" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1410   When will FDA consider whether to waive a requirement of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will consider whether to waive a requirement of this subpart on our own initiative or in response to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A written request for a waiver for an individual entity; or
</P>
<P>(b) A citizen petition requesting a waiver for a type of entity submitted under § 10.30 of this chapter by any person subject to the requirements of this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1415" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1415   How may I request a waiver for an individual entity?</HEAD>
<P>You may request a waiver of one or more requirements of this subpart for an individual entity by submitting a written request to the Food and Drug Administration as described at <I>www.fda.gov.</I> The request for a waiver must include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The name, address, and point of contact of the individual entity to which the waiver would apply;
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of this subpart to which the waiver would apply;
</P>
<P>(c) Information demonstrating why application of the requirements requested to be waived would result in an economic hardship for the entity, including information about the unique circumstances faced by the entity that result in unusual economic hardship from the application of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(d) Information demonstrating why the waiver will not significantly impair FDA's ability to rapidly and effectively identify recipients of a food to prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak or to address credible threats of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals as a result of such food being adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(e) Information demonstrating why the waiver would not otherwise be contrary to the public interest.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1420" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1420   What process applies to a request for a waiver for an individual entity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering the information submitted in a request for a waiver for an individual entity, we will respond in writing to the person that submitted the waiver request stating whether we are granting the waiver (in whole or in part) and the reasons for the decision.
</P>
<P>(b) Any waiver for an individual entity that FDA grants will become effective on the date we issue our response to the waiver request, unless otherwise stated in the response.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1425" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1425   What must be included in a petition requesting a waiver for a type of entity?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to meeting the requirements on the content and format of a citizen petition in § 10.30 of this chapter, a petition requesting a waiver for a type of entity must:
</P>
<P>(a) Specify the type of entity to which the waiver would apply and the requirements of this subpart to which the waiver would apply;
</P>
<P>(b) Present information demonstrating why application of the requirements requested to be waived would result in an economic hardship for the type of entity, including information about the unique circumstances faced by the type of entity that result in unusual economic hardship from the application of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(c) Present information demonstrating why the waiver will not significantly impair FDA's ability to rapidly and effectively identify recipients of a food to prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak or to address credible threats of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals as a result of such food being adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(d) Present information demonstrating why the waiver would not otherwise be contrary to the public interest.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1430" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1430   What information submitted in a petition requesting a waiver for a type of entity, or information in comments on such a petition, is publicly available?</HEAD>
<P>FDA will presume that information submitted in a petition requesting a waiver for a type of entity, as well as information in comments submitted on such a petition, does not contain information exempt from public disclosure under part 20 of this chapter and will be made public as part of the docket associated with the petition.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1435" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1435   What process applies to a petition requesting a waiver for a type of entity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, the procedures set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter govern FDA's response to a petition requesting a waiver. An interested person may submit comments on such a petition in accordance with § 10.30(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Under § 10.30(h)(3) of this chapter, FDA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> requesting information and views on a submitted petition requesting a waiver for a type of entity, including information and views from persons who could be affected by the waiver if we granted the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) Under § 10.30(e)(3) of this chapter, we will respond to the petitioner in writing, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If we grant the petition either in whole or in part, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth any requirements we have waived and the reasons for the waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) If we deny the petition (including a partial denial), our written response to the petitioner will explain the reasons for the denial.
</P>
<P>(d) We will make readily accessible to the public, and periodically update, a list of petitions requesting waivers for types of entities, including the status of each petition (for example, pending, granted, or denied).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1440" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1440   What process will FDA follow when waiving a requirement of this subpart on our own initiative?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA, on our own initiative, determines that a waiver of one or more requirements for an individual entity or type of entity is appropriate, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth the proposed waiver and the reasons for such waiver. The notice will establish a public docket so that interested persons may submit written comments on the proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) After considering any comments timely submitted, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating whether we are granting the waiver (in whole or in part) and the reasons for our decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Any waiver for a type of entity that FDA grants will become effective on the date that notice of the waiver is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> unless otherwise stated in the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1445" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1445   Under what circumstances may FDA modify or revoke a waiver?</HEAD>
<P>FDA may modify or revoke a waiver if we determine that:
</P>
<P>(a) Compliance with the waived requirements would no longer impose a unique economic hardship on the individual entity or type of entity to which the waiver applies;
</P>
<P>(b) The waiver could significantly impair our ability to rapidly and effectively identify recipients of a food to prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak or to address credible threats of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals as a result of such food being adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(c) The waiver is otherwise contrary to the public interest.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1450" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.94.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1450   What procedures apply if FDA tentatively determines that a waiver should be modified or revoked?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waiver for an individual entity.</I> (1) If FDA tentatively determines that we should modify or revoke a waiver for an individual entity, we will notify the person that had received the waiver in writing of our tentative determination that the waiver should be modified or revoked. The notice will provide the waiver recipient 60 days in which to submit information stating why the waiver should not be modified or revoked.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon consideration of any information submitted by the waiver recipient, we will respond in writing stating our decision whether to modify or revoke the waiver and the reasons for the decision. If we modify or revoke the waiver, the effective date of the decision will be 1 year after the date of our response to the waiver recipient, unless otherwise stated in the response.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver for a type of entity.</I> (1) If FDA tentatively determines that we should modify or revoke a waiver for a type of entity, we will provide the following notifications:
</P>
<P>(i) We will notify the person that originally requested the waiver (if we granted the waiver in response to a petition) in writing at the address identified in the petition.
</P>
<P>(ii) We will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of our tentative determination that the waiver should be modified or revoked and the reasons for our tentative decision. The notice will establish a public docket so that interested persons may submit written comments on our tentative determination.
</P>
<P>(2) After considering any comments timely submitted, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of our decision whether to modify or revoke the waiver and the reasons for the decision. If we do modify or revoke the waiver, the effective date of the decision will be 1 year after the date of publication of the notice, unless otherwise stated in the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="95" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.95" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records Maintenance and Availability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1455" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.95.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1455   How must records required by this subpart be maintained and made available?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for records.</I> (1) You must keep records as original paper or electronic records or true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, or other accurate reproductions of the original records). Electronic records may include valid, working electronic links to the information required to be maintained under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) All records must be legible and stored to prevent deterioration or loss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment and maintenance of records by another entity.</I> You may have another entity establish and maintain records required under this subpart on your behalf, but you are responsible for ensuring that such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record availability.</I> (1) You must make all records required under this subpart available to an authorized FDA representative, upon request, within 24 hours (or within some reasonable time to which FDA has agreed) after the request, along with any information needed to understand these records, such as internal or external coding systems, glossaries, abbreviations, and a description of how the records you provide correspond to the information required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Offsite storage of records is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(3) When necessary to help FDA prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak, or to assist in the implementation of a recall, or to otherwise address a threat to the public health, including but not limited to situations where FDA has a reasonable belief that an article of food (and any other article of food that FDA reasonably believes is likely to be affected in a similar manner) presents a threat of serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals as a result of the food being adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, you must make available, within 24 hours (or within some reasonable time to which FDA has agreed) of a request made in-person or remotely (<I>e.g.,</I> by phone) by an authorized FDA representative, the information you are required to maintain under this subpart, for the foods and date ranges or traceability lot codes specified in the request.
</P>
<P>(i) If FDA's request for the information specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is made by phone, we will also provide the request to you in writing upon your request; however, you must provide the requested information within 24 hours (or within some reasonable time to which FDA has agreed) of the phone request.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section, when the information requested by FDA under paragraph (c)(3) of this section is information you are required to maintain under §§ 1.1325 through 1.1350, you must provide such information in an electronic sortable spreadsheet, along with any other information needed to understand the information in the spreadsheet.
</P>
<P>(iii) You may provide the information requested by FDA under paragraph (c)(3) of this section in a form other than an electronic sortable spreadsheet if you are:
</P>
<P>(A) A farm whose average annual sum of the monetary value of their sales of raw agricultural commodities and the market value of raw agricultural commodities they manufacture, process, pack, or hold without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> held for a fee) during the previous 3-year period is no more than $250,000 (on a rolling basis), adjusted for inflation using 2020 as the baseline year for calculating the adjustment;
</P>
<P>(B) A retail food establishment or restaurant with an average annual monetary value of food sold or provided during the previous 3-year period of no more than $1 million (on a rolling basis), adjusted for inflation using 2020 as the baseline year for calculating the adjustment; or
</P>
<P>(C) A person (other than a farm, retail food establishment, or restaurant) whose average annual sum of the monetary value of their sales of food and the market value of food they manufacture, process, pack, or hold without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> held for a fee) during the previous 3-year period is no more than $1 million (on a rolling basis), adjusted for inflation using 2020 as the baseline year for calculating the adjustment.
</P>
<P>(iv) FDA will withdraw a request for an electronic sortable spreadsheet under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, as appropriate, to accommodate a religious belief of a person asked to provide such a spreadsheet.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon FDA request, you must provide within a reasonable time an English translation of records required under this subpart maintained in a language other than English.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record retention.</I> Except as specified otherwise in this subpart, you must maintain records containing the information required by this subpart for 2 years from the date you created or obtained the records.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Electronic records.</I> Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter, if not otherwise exempt.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use of existing records.</I> You do not need to duplicate existing records you have (<I>e.g.,</I> records that you keep in the ordinary course of business or that you maintain to comply with other Federal, State, Tribal, territorial, or local regulations) if they contain the information required by this subpart. You may supplement any such existing records as necessary to include all of the information required by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of multiple sets of records.</I> You do not have to keep all of the information required by this subpart in a single set of records. However, your traceability plan must indicate the format and location of the records you are required to keep under this subpart, in accordance with § 1.1315(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public disclosure.</I> Records obtained by FDA in accordance with this subpart are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="96" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.96" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Consequences of Failure To Comply</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1460" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.96.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1460   What consequences could result from failing to comply with the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited act.</I> The violation of any recordkeeping requirement under section 204 of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act, including the violation of any requirement of this subpart, is prohibited under section 301(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, except when such violation is committed by a farm.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Refusal of admission.</I> An article of food is subject to refusal of admission under section 801(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if it appears that the recordkeeping requirements under section 204 of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act (other than the requirements under subsection (f) of that section), including the requirements of this subpart, have not been complied with regarding such article.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="97" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.97" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Updating the Food Traceability List</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1465" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.1.18.97.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1465   How will FDA update the Food Traceability List?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When FDA tentatively concludes, in accordance with section 204(d)(2) of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act, that it is appropriate to revise the Food Traceability List, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating the proposed changes to the list and the reasons for these changes and requesting information and views on the proposed changes.
</P>
<P>(b) After considering any information and views submitted on the proposed changes to the Food Traceability List, FDA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating whether we are making any changes to the list and the reasons for the decision. If FDA revises the list, we will also publish the revised list on our website.
</P>
<P>(c) When FDA updates the Food Traceability List in accordance with this section, any deletions from the list will become effective immediately. Any additions to the list will become effective 2 years after the date of publication of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice announcing the revised list, unless otherwise stated in the notice.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2—GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULINGS AND DECISIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 402, 409; 21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 335, 342, 343, 346a, 348, 351, 352, 355, 360b, 361, 362, 371, 372, 374; 42 U.S.C. 7671 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15559, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.5   Imminent hazard to the public health.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within the meaning of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act an imminent hazard to the public health is considered to exist when the evidence is sufficient to show that a product or practice, posing a significant threat of danger to health, creates a public health situation (1) that should be corrected immediately to prevent injury and (2) that should not be permitted to continue while a hearing or other formal proceeding is being held. The <I>imminent hazard</I> may be declared at any point in the chain of events which may ultimately result in harm to the public health. The occurrence of the final anticipated injury is not essential to establish that an <I>imminent hazard</I> of such occurrence exists.
</P>
<P>(b) In exercising his judgment on whether an <I>imminent hazard</I> exists, the Commissioner will consider the number of injuries anticipated and the nature, severity, and duration of the anticipated injury.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.10   Examination and investigation samples.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When any officer or employee of the Department collects a sample of a food, drug, or cosmetic for analysis under the act, the sample shall be designated as an official sample if records or other evidence is obtained by him or any other officer or employee of the Department indicating that the shipment or other lot of the article from which such sample was collected was introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, or was in or was received in interstate commerce, or was manufactured within a Territory. Only samples so designated by an officer or employee of the Department shall be considered to be official samples.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of determining whether or not a sample is collected for analysis, the term <I>analysis</I> includes examinations and tests.
</P>
<P>(3) The owner of a food, drug, or cosmetic of which an official sample is collected is the person who owns the shipment or other lot of the article from which the sample is collected.
</P>
<P>(b) When an officer or employee of the Department collects an official sample of a food, drug, or cosmetic for analysis under the act, he shall collect at least twice the quantity estimated by him to be sufficient for analysis, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the article available and reasonably accessible for sampling is less than twice the quantity so estimated, in which case he shall collect as much as is available and reasonably accessible.
</P>
<P>(2) The cost of twice the quantity so estimated exceeds $150.
</P>
<P>(3) The sample cannot by diligent use of practicable preservation techniques available to the Food and Drug Administration be kept in a state in which it could be readily and meaningfully analyzed in the same manner and for the same purposes as the Food and Drug Administration's analysis.
</P>
<P>(4) The sample is collected from a shipment or other lot which is being imported or offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P>(5) The sample is collected from a person named on the label of the article or his agent, and such person is also the owner of the article.
</P>
<P>(6) The sample is collected from the owner of the article, or his agent, and such article bears no label or, if it bears a label, no person is named thereon.
</P>
<FP>In addition to the quantity of sample set forth in this paragraph, the officer or employee shall, if practicable, collect such further amount as he estimates will be sufficient for use as trial exhibits.
</FP>
<P>(c) After the Food and Drug Administration has completed such analysis of an official sample of a food, drug, or cosmetic as it determines, in the course of analysis and interpretation of analytical results, to be adequate to establish the respects, if any, in which the article is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act, or otherwise subject to the prohibitions of the act, and has reserved an amount of the article it estimates to be adequate for use as exhibits in the trial of any case that may arise under the act based on the sample, a part of the sample, if any remains available, shall be provided for analysis, upon written request, by any person named on the label of the article, or the owner thereof, or the attorney or agent of such person or owner, except when:
</P>
<P>(1) After collection, the sample or remaining part thereof has become decomposed or otherwise unfit for analysis, or
</P>
<P>(2) The request is not made within a reasonable time before the trial of any case under the act, based on the sample to which such person or owner is a party. The person, owner, attorney, or agent who requests the part of sample shall specify the amount desired. A request from an owner shall be accompanied by a showing of ownership, and a request from an attorney or agent by a showing of authority from such person or owner to receive the part of sample. When two or more requests for parts of the same sample are received the requests shall be complied with in the order in which they were received so long as any part of the sample remains available therefor.
</P>
<P>(d) When an official sample of food, drug, or cosmetic is the basis of a notice given under section 305 of the act, or of a case under the act, and the person to whom the notice was given, or any person who is a party to the case, has no right under paragraph (c) of this section to a part of the sample, such person or his attorney or agent may obtain a part of the sample upon request accompanied by a written waiver of right under such paragraph (c) from each person named on the label of the article and owner thereof, who has not exercised his right under such paragraph (c). The operation of this paragraph shall be subject to the exceptions, terms, and conditions prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) The Food and Drug Administration is authorized to destroy:
</P>
<P>(1) Any official sample when it determines that no analysis of such sample will be made;
</P>
<P>(2) Any official sample or part thereof when it determines that no notice under section 305 of the act, and no case under the act, is or will be based on such sample;
</P>
<P>(3) Any official sample or part thereof when the sample was the basis of a notice under section 305 of the act, and when, after opportunity for presentation of views following such notice, it determines that no other such notice, and no case under the act, is or will be based on such sample;
</P>
<P>(4) Any official sample or part thereof when the sample was the basis of a case under the act which has gone to final judgment, and when it determines that no other such case is or will be based on such sample;
</P>
<P>(5) Any official sample or part thereof if the article is perishable;
</P>
<P>(6) Any official sample or part thereof when, after collection, such sample or part has become decomposed or otherwise unfit for analysis;
</P>
<P>(7) That part of any official sample which is in excess of three times the quantity it estimates to be sufficient for analysis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15559, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 63 FR 51299, Sept. 25, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.19" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Human and Animal Foods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.25   Grain seed treated with poisonous substances; color identification to prevent adulteration of human and animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In recent years there has developed increasing use of poisonous treatments on seed for fungicidal and other purposes. Such treated seed, if consumed, presents a hazard to humans and livestock. It is not unusual for stocks of such treated food seeds to remain on hand after the planting season has passed. Despite the cautions required by the Federal Seed Act (53 Stat. 1275, as amended 72 Stat. 476, 7 U.S.C. 1551 <I>et seq.</I>) in the labeling of the treated seed, the Food and Drug Administration has encountered many cases where such surplus stocks of treated wheat, corn, oats, rye, barley, and sorghum seed had been mixed with untreated seed and sent to market for food or feed use. This has resulted in livestock injury and in legal actions under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act against large quantities of food adulterated through such admixture of poisonous treated seeds with good food. Criminal cases were brought against some firms and individuals. Where the treated seeds are prominently colored, buyers and users or processors of agricultural food seed for food purposes are able to detect the admixture of the poisonous seed and thus reject the lots; but most such buyers, users, and processors do not have the facilities or scientific equipment to determine the presence of the poisonous chemical at the time crops are delivered, in cases where the treated seeds have not been so colored. A suitable color for this use is one that is in sufficient contrast to the natural color of the food seed as to make admixture of treated, denatured seeds with good food easily apparent, and is so applied that it is not readily removed.
</P>
<P>(b) On and after December 31, 1964, the Food and Drug Administration will regard as adulterated any interstate shipment of the food seeds wheat, corn, oats, rye, barley, and sorghum bearing a poisonous treatment in excess of a recognized tolerance or treatment for which no tolerance or exemption from tolerance is recognized in regulations promulgated pursuant to section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless such seeds have been adequately denatured by a suitable color to prevent their subsequent inadvertent use as food for man or feed for animals.
</P>
<P>(c) Attention is called to the labeling requirements of the Federal Hazardous Substances Act, where applicable to denatured seeds in packages suitable for household use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.35   Use of secondhand containers for the shipment or storage of food and animal feed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Investigations by the Food and Drug Administration, the National Communicable Disease Center of the U.S. Public Health Service, the Consumer and Marketing Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture, and by various State public health agencies have revealed practices whereby food and animal feed stored or shipped in secondhand containers have been rendered dangerous to health. Such contamination has been the result of the original use of these containers for the storage and shipment of articles containing or bearing disease organisms or poisonous or deleterious substances.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner concludes that such dangerous or potentially dangerous practices include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Some vegetable growers and packers employ used poultry crates for shipment of fresh vegetables, including cabbage and celery. Salmonella organisms are commonly present on dressed poultry and in excreta and fluid exudates from dressed birds. Thus wooden crates in which dressed poultry has been iced and packed are potential sources of Salmonella or other enteropathogenic microorganisms that may contaminate fresh vegetables which are frequently consumed without heat treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) Some potato growers and producers of animal feeds use secondhand bags for shipment of these articles. Such bags may have originally been used for shipping or storing pesticide-treated seed or other articles bearing or containing poisonous substances. Thus these secondhand bags are potential sources of contamination of the food or animal feed stored or shipped therein.
</P>
<P>(c) In a policy statement issued April 11, 1968, the Food and Drug Administration declared adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shipments of vegetables or other edible food in used crates or containers that may render the contents injurious to health. This policy statement is extended so that the Food and Drug Administration will regard as adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a) of the act shipments of vegetables, other edible food, or animal feed in used crates, bags, or other containers that may render the contents injurious to health.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Caustic Poisons</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.110" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.110   Definition of ammonia under Federal Caustic Poison Act.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of determining whether an article containing ammonia is subject to the Federal Caustic Poison Act, the ammonia content is to be calculated as NH<E T="52">3</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Provisions Applicable to Specific Products Subject to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.2.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.125   Use of ozone-depleting substances in foods, drugs, devices, or cosmetics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this section, <I>ozone-depleting substance</I> (ODS) means any class I substance as defined in 40 CFR part 82, appendix A to subpart A, or class II substance as defined in 40 CFR part 82, appendix B to subpart A.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any food, drug, device, or cosmetic that is, consists in part of, or is contained in an aerosol product or other pressurized dispenser that releases an ODS is not an essential use of the ODS under the Clean Air Act.
</P>
<P>(c) A food, drug, device, or cosmetic that is, consists in part of, or is contained in an aerosol product or other pressurized dispenser that releases an ODS is an essential use of the ODS under the Clean Air Act if paragraph (e) of this section specifies the use of that product as essential. For drugs, including biologics and animal drugs, and for devices, an investigational application or an approved marketing application must be in effect, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) The use of ODSs in the following products is essential:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Metered-dose corticosteroid human drugs for oral inhalation.</I> Oral pressurized metered-dose inhalers containing the following active moieties:
</P>
<P>(i)-(v) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Metered-dose short-acting adrenergic bronchodilator human drugs for oral inhalation.</I> Oral pressurized metered-dose inhalers containing the following active moieties:
</P>
<P>(i)-(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other essential uses.</I> (i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Anesthetic drugs for topical use on accessible mucous membranes of humans where a cannula is used for application.
</P>
<P>(iv)-(ix) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) Any person may file a petition under part 10 of this chapter to request that FDA initiate rulemaking to amend paragraph (e) of this section to add an essential use. FDA may initiate notice-and-comment rulemaking to add an essential use on its own initiative or in response to a petition, if granted.
</P>
<P>(1) If the petition is to add use of a noninvestigational product, the petitioner must submit compelling evidence that:
</P>
<P>(i) Substantial technical barriers exist to formulating the product without ODSs;
</P>
<P>(ii) The product will provide an unavailable important public health benefit; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of the product does not release cumulatively significant amounts of ODSs into the atmosphere or the release is warranted in view of the unavailable important public health benefit.
</P>
<P>(2) If the petition is to add use of an investigational product, the petitioner must submit compelling evidence that:
</P>
<P>(i) Substantial technical barriers exist to formulating the investigational product without ODSs;
</P>
<P>(ii) A high probability exists that the investigational product will provide an unavailable important public health benefit; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of the investigational product does not release cumulatively significant amounts of ODSs into the atmosphere or the release is warranted in view of the high probability of an unavailable important public health benefit.
</P>
<P>(g) Any person may file a petition under part 10 of this chapter to request that FDA initiate rulemaking to amend paragraph (e) of this section to remove an essential use. FDA may initiate notice-and-comment rulemaking to remove an essential use on its own initiative or in response to a petition, if granted. If the petition is to remove an essential use from paragraph (e) of this section, the petitioner must submit compelling evidence of any one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The product using an ODS is no longer being marketed; or
</P>
<P>(2) After January 1, 2005, FDA determines that the product using an ODS no longer meets the criteria in paragraph (f) of this section after consultation with a relevant advisory committee(s) and after an open public meeting; or
</P>
<P>(3) For individual active moieties marketed as ODS products and represented by one new drug application (NDA):
</P>
<P>(i) At least one non-ODS product with the same active moiety is marketed with the same route of administration, for the same indication, and with approximately the same level of convenience of use as the ODS product containing that active moiety;
</P>
<P>(ii) Supplies and production capacity for the non-ODS product(s) exist or will exist at levels sufficient to meet patient need;
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate U.S. postmarketing use data is available for the non-ODS product(s); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Patients who medically required the ODS product are adequately served by the non-ODS product(s) containing that active moiety and other available products; or
</P>
<P>(4) For individual active moieties marketed as ODS products and represented by two or more NDAs:
</P>
<P>(i) At least two non-ODS products that contain the same active moiety are being marketed with the same route of delivery, for the same indication, and with approximately the same level of convenience of use as the ODS products; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements of paragraphs (g)(3)(ii), (g)(3)(iii), and (g)(3)(iv) of this section are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 48384, July 24, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 70873, Dec. 7, 2006; 70 FR 17192, Apr. 4, 2005; 75 FR 19241, Apr. 14, 2010; 73 FR 69552, Nov. 19, 2008; 75 FR 19241, Apr. 14, 2010; 81 FR 74302, Oct. 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 3—PRODUCT JURISDICTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 353, 355, 360, 360c-360f, 360h-360j, 360gg-360ss, 360bbb-2, 371(a), 379e, 381, 394; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 58756, Nov. 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Assignment of Agency Component for Review of Premarket Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation relates to agency management and organization and has two purposes. The first is to implement section 503(g) of the act, as added by section 16 of the Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 (Public Law 101-629) and amended by section 204 of the Medical Device User Fee and Modernization Act of 2002 (Public Law 107-250), by specifying how FDA will determine the organizational component within FDA designated to have primary jurisdiction for the premarket review and regulation of products that are comprised of any combination of a drug and a device; a device and a biological; a biological and a drug; or a drug, a device and a biological. This determination will eliminate, in most cases, the need to receive approvals from more than one FDA component for such combination products. The second purpose of this regulation is to enhance the efficiency of agency management and operations by providing procedures for determining which agency component will have primary jurisdiction for any drug, device, or biological product where such jurisdiction is unclear or in dispute. Nothing in this section prevents FDA from using any agency resources it deems necessary to ensure adequate review of the safety and effectiveness of any product, or the substantial equivalence of any device to a predicate device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58756, Nov. 21, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 37077, June 23, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency component</I> means the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, or alternative organizational component of the agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicant</I> means any person who submits or plans to submit an application to the Food and Drug Administration for premarket review. For purposes of this section, the terms “sponsor” and “applicant” have the same meaning.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Biological product</I> has the meaning given the term in section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(a)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Combination product</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A product comprised of two or more regulated components, i.e., drug/device, biologic/device, drug/biologic, or drug/device/biologic, that are physically, chemically, or otherwise combined or mixed and produced as a single entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Two or more separate products packaged together in a single package or as a unit and comprised of drug and device products, device and biological products, or biological and drug products;
</P>
<P>(3) A drug, device, or biological product packaged separately that according to its investigational plan or proposed labeling is intended for use only with an approved individually specified drug, device, or biological product where both are required to achieve the intended use, indication, or effect and where upon approval of the proposed product the labeling of the approved product would need to be changed, e.g., to reflect a change in intended use, dosage form, strength, route of administration, or significant change in dose; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any investigational drug, device, or biological product packaged separately that according to its proposed labeling is for use only with another individually specified investigational drug, device, or biological product where both are required to achieve the intended use, indication, or effect.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Device</I> has the meaning given the term in section 201(h) of the act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Drug</I> has the meaning given the term in section 201(g)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>FDA</I> means Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Letter of designation</I> means the written notice issued by the product jurisdiction officer specifying the agency component with primary jurisdiction for a combination product.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Letter of request</I> means an applicant's written submission to the product jurisdiction officer seeking the designation of the agency component with primary jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Mode of action</I> is the means by which a product achieves an intended therapeutic effect or action. For purposes of this definition, “therapeutic” action or effect includes any effect or action of the combination product intended to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease, or affect the structure or any function of the body. When making assignments of combination products under this part, the agency will consider three types of mode of action: The actions provided by a biological product, a device, and a drug. Because combination products are comprised of more than one type of regulated article (biological product, device, or drug), and each constituent part contributes a biological product, device, or drug mode of action, combination products will typically have more than one identifiable mode of action.
</P>
<P>(1) A constituent part has a biological product mode of action if it acts by means of a virus, therapeutic serum, toxin, antitoxin, vaccine, blood, blood component or derivative, allergenic product, or analogous product applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of a disease or condition of human beings, as described in section 351(i) of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(2) A constituent part has a device mode of action if it meets the definition of device contained in section 201(h)(1) to (h)(3) of the act, it does not have a biological product mode of action, and it does not achieve its primary intended purposes through chemical action within or on the body of man or other animals and is not dependent upon being metabolized for the achievement of its primary intended purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) A constituent part has a drug mode of action if it meets the definition of drug contained in section 201(g)(1) of the act and it does not have a biological product or device mode of action.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Premarket review</I> includes the examination of data and information in an application for premarket review described in sections 505, 510(k), 513(f), 515, or 520(g) or 520(l) of the act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act of data and information contained in any investigational new drug (IND) application, investigational device exemption (IDE), new drug application (NDA), biologics license application, device premarket notification, device reclassification petition, and premarket approval application (PMA).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Primary mode of action</I> is the single mode of action of a combination product that provides the most important therapeutic action of the combination product. The most important therapeutic action is the mode of action expected to make the greatest contribution to the overall intended therapeutic effects of the combination product.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Product</I> means any article that contains any drug as defined in section 201(g)(1) of the act; any device as defined in section 201(h) of the act; or any biologic as defined in section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(a)).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Product jurisdiction officer</I> is the person or persons responsible for designating the component of FDA with primary jurisdiction for the premarket review and regulation of a combination product or any product requiring a jurisdictional designation under this part.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Sponsor</I> means “applicant” (see § 3.2(c)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58756, Nov. 21, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 398, Jan. 5, 1999; 64 FR 56447, Oct. 20, 1999; 68 FR 37077, June 23, 2003; 70 FR 49861, Aug. 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This section applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) Any combination product, or
</P>
<P>(b) Any product where the agency component with primary jurisdiction is unclear or in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.4" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.4   Designated agency component.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To designate the agency component with primary jurisdiction for the premarket review and regulation of a combination product, the agency shall determine the primary mode of action of the product. Where the primary mode of action is that of:
</P>
<P>(1) A drug (other than a biological product), the agency component charged with premarket review of drugs shall have primary jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(2) A device, the agency component charged with premarket review of devices shall have primary jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(3) A biological product, the agency component charged with premarket review of biological products shall have primary jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) In some situations, it is not possible to determine, with reasonable certainty, which one mode of action will provide a greater contribution than any other mode of action to the overall therapeutic effects of the combination product. In such a case, the agency will assign the combination product to the agency component that regulates other combination products that present similar questions of safety and effectiveness with regard to the combination product as a whole. When there are no other combination products that present similar questions of safety and effectiveness with regard to the combination product as a whole, the agency will assign the combination product to the agency component with the most expertise related to the most significant safety and effectiveness questions presented by the combination product.
</P>
<P>(c) The designation of one agency component as having primary jurisdiction for the premarket review and regulation of a combination product does not preclude consultations by that component with other agency components or, in appropriate cases, the requirement by FDA of separate applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58756, Nov. 21, 1991, as amended at 70 FR 49861, Aug. 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.5   Procedures for identifying the designated agency component.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, and the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research have entered into agreements clarifying product jurisdictional issues. These guidance documents are on display in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and are entitled “Intercenter Agreement Between the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research and the Center for Devices and Radiological Health;” “Intercenter Agreement Between the Center for Devices and Radiological Health and the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research;” “Intercenter Agreement Between the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research and the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.” The availability of any amendments to these intercenter agreements will be announced by <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice.
</P>
<P>(2) These guidance documents describe the allocation of responsibility for categories of products or specific products. These intercenter agreements, and any amendments thereto, are nonbinding determinations designed to provide useful guidance to the public.
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor of a premarket application or required investigational filing for a combination or other product covered by these guidance documents may contact the designated agency component identified in the intercenter agreement before submitting an application of premarket review or to confirm coverage and to discuss the application process.
</P>
<P>(b) For a combination product not covered by a guidance document or for a product where the agency component with primary jurisdiction is unclear or in dispute, the sponsor of an application for premarket review should follow the procedures set forth in § 3.7 to request a designation of the agency component with primary jurisdiction before submitting the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58756, Nov. 21, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45064, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.6" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.6   Product jurisdiction officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Combination Products (Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, rm. 5129, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-8930,, e-mail: <I>combination@fda.gov,</I> is the designated product jurisdiction officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 37077, June 23, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 16033, Mar. 30, 2006; 75 FR 13678, Mar. 23, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.7" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.7   Request for designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Who should file: the sponsor of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any combination product the sponsor believes is not covered by an intercenter agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any product where the agency component with primary jurisdiction is unclear or in dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) When to file: a sponsor should file a request for designation before filing any application for premarket review, whether an application for marketing approval or a required investigational notice. Sponsors are encouraged to file a request for designation as soon as there is sufficient information for the agency to make a determination.
</P>
<P>(c) What to file: an original and two copies of the request for designation must be filed. The request for designation must not exceed 15 pages, including attachments, and must set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity of the sponsor, including company name and address, establishment registration number, company contact person and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the product, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Classification, name of the product and all component products, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Common, generic, or usual name of the product and all component products;
</P>
<P>(iii) Proprietary name of the product;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of any component of the product that already has received premarket approval, is marketed as not being subject to premarket approval, or has received an investigational exemption, the identity of the sponsors, and the status of any discussions or agreements between the sponsors regarding the use of this product as a component of a new combination product.
</P>
<P>(v) Chemical, physical, or biological composition;
</P>
<P>(vi) Status and brief reports of the results of developmental work, including animal testing;
</P>
<P>(vii) Description of the manufacturing processes, including the sources of all components;
</P>
<P>(viii) Proposed use or indications;
</P>
<P>(ix) Description of all known modes of action, the sponsor's identification of the single mode of action that provides the most important therapeutic action of the product, and the basis for that determination.
</P>
<P>(x) Schedule and duration of use;
</P>
<P>(xi) Dose and route of administration of drug or biologic;
</P>
<P>(xii) Description of related products, including the regulatory status of those related products; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor's recommendation as to which agency component should have primary jurisdiction based on the mode of action that provides the most important therapeutic action of the combination product. If the sponsor cannot determine with reasonable certainty which mode of action provides the most important therapeutic action of the combination product, the sponsor's recommendation must be based on the assignment algorithm set forth in § 3.4(b) and an assessment of the assignment of other combination products the sponsor wishes FDA to consider during the assignment of its combination product.
</P>
<P>(d) Where to file: all communications pursuant to this subpart shall be addressed to the attention of the product jurisdiction officer. Such a request, in its mailing cover should be plainly marked “Request for Designation.” Concurrent submissions of electronic copies of Requests for Designation may be addressed to <I>combination@fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58756, Nov. 21, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 37077, June 23, 2003; 70 FR 49861, Aug. 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.8" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.8   Letter of designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each request for designation will be reviewed for completeness within 5 working days of receipt. Any request for designation determined to be incomplete will be returned to the applicant with a request for the missing information. The sponsor of an accepted request for designation will be notified of the filing date.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 60 days of the filing date of a request for designation, the product jurisdiction officer will issue a letter of designation to the sponsor, with copies to the centers, specifying the agency component designated to have primary jurisdiction for the premarket review and regulation of the product at issue, and any consulting agency components. The product jurisdiction officer may request a meeting with the sponsor during the review period to discuss the request for designation. If the product jurisdiction officer has not issued a letter of designation within 60 days of the filing date of a request for designation, the sponsor's recommendation of the center with primary jurisdiction, in accordance with § 3.7(c)(3), shall become the designated agency component.
</P>
<P>(c) Request for reconsideration by sponsor: If the sponsor disagrees with the designation, it may request the product jurisdiction officer to reconsider the decision by filing, within 15 days of receipt of the letter of designation, a written request for reconsideration not exceeding 5 pages. No new information may be included in a request for reconsideration. The product jurisdiction officer shall review and act on the request in writing within 15 days of its receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.9" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.9   Effect of letter of designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The letter of designation constitutes an agency determination that is subject to change only as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The product jurisdiction officer may change the designated agency component with the written consent of the sponsor, or without its consent to protect the public health or for other compelling reasons. A sponsor shall be given 30 days written notice of any proposed nonconsensual change in designated agency component. The sponsor may request an additional 30 days to submit written objections, not to exceed 15 pages, to the proposed change, and shall be granted, upon request, a timely meeting with the product jurisdiction officer and appropriate center officials. Within 30 days of receipt of the sponsor's written objections, the product jurisdiction officer shall issue to the sponsor, with copies to appropriate center officials, a written determination setting forth a statement of reasons for the proposed change in designated agency component. A nonconsensual change in the designated agency component requires the concurrence of the Principal Associate Commissioner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58756, Nov. 21, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 37077, June 23, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.1.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.10   Stay of review time.</HEAD>
<P>Any filing with or review by the product jurisdiction officer stays the review clock or other established time periods for agency action for an application for marketing approval or required investigational notice during the pendency of the review by the product jurisdiction officer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4—REGULATION OF COMBINATION PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360b-360f, 360h-360j, 360l, 360hh-360ss, 360aaa-360bbb, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 371(a), 372-374, 379e, 381, 383, 394; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263a, 264, 271.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 4321, Jan. 22, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Current Good Manufacturing Practice Requirements for Combination Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.1   What is the scope of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to combination products. It establishes which current good manufacturing practice requirements apply to these products. This subpart clarifies the application of current good manufacturing practice regulations to combination products, and provides a regulatory framework for designing and implementing the current good manufacturing practice operating system at facilities that manufacture co-packaged or single-entity combination products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.2   How does FDA define key terms and phrases in this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The terms listed in this section have the following meanings for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Biological product</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(d) of this chapter. A biological product also meets the definitions of either a drug or device as these terms are defined under this section.
</P>
<P><I>Combination product</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Constituent part</I> is a drug, device, or biological product that is part of a combination product.
</P>
<P><I>Co-packaged combination product</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(e)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Current good manufacturing practice operating system</I> means the operating system within an establishment that is designed and implemented to address and meet the current good manufacturing practice requirements for a combination product.
</P>
<P><I>Current good manufacturing practice requirements</I> means the requirements set forth under § 4.3(a) through (e).
</P>
<P><I>Device</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(f) of this chapter. A device that is a constituent part of a combination product is considered a finished device within the meaning of the Quality Management System Regulation (QMSR).
</P>
<P><I>Drug</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(g) of this chapter and includes medical gas as defined in section 575(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Medical gas includes designated medical gases as defined in section 575(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and medical gases approved under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A drug other than a medical gas that is a constituent part of a combination product is considered a drug product within the meaning of the drug current good manufacturing practice (CGMP) requirements. A drug that is a medical gas that is a constituent part of a combination product is considered a medical gas within the meaning of the medical gas CGMP requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Drug CGMP requirements</I> refers to the current good manufacturing practice regulations set forth in parts 210 and 211 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>HCT/Ps</I> refers to human cell, tissue, and cellular and tissue-based products, as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter. An HCT/P that is not regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act may be a constituent part of a combination product. Such an HCT/P is subject to part 1271 of this chapter and is also regulated as a drug, device, and/or biological product.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacture</I> includes, but is not limited to, designing, fabricating, assembling, filling, processing, testing, labeling, packaging, repackaging, holding, and storage.
</P>
<P><I>Medical gas CGMP requirements</I> refers to the current good manufacturing practice regulations set forth in part 213 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>QMSR</I> refers to the requirements under part 820 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Single-entity combination product</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(e)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Type of constituent part</I> refers to the category of the constituent part, which can be either a biological product, a device, or a drug, as these terms are defined under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 57165, June 2, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.3   What current good manufacturing practice requirements apply to my combination product?</HEAD>
<P>If you manufacture a combination product, the requirements listed in this section apply as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The current good manufacturing practice requirements in parts 210 and 211 of this chapter apply to a combination product that includes a drug constituent part other than a medical gas;
</P>
<P>(b) The current good manufacturing practice requirements in part 820 of this chapter apply to a combination product that includes a device constituent part;
</P>
<P>(c) The current good manufacturing practice requirements among the requirements (including standards) for biological products in parts 600 through 680 of this chapter apply to a combination product that includes a biological product constituent part to which those requirements would apply if that constituent part were not part of a combination product;


</P>
<P>(d) The current good tissue practice requirements including donor eligibility requirements for HCT/Ps in part 1271 of this chapter apply to a combination product that includes an HCT/P; and
</P>
<P>(e) The current good manufacturing practice requirements in part 213 of this chapter apply to a combination product that includes a drug constituent part that is a medical gas.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 4321, Jan. 22, 2013, as amended at 89 FR 51766, June 18, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.4" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.4   How can I comply with these current good manufacturing practice requirements for a co-packaged or single-entity combination product?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under this subpart, for single entity or co-packaged combination products, compliance with all applicable current good manufacturing practice requirements for the combination product shall be achieved through the design and implementation of a current good manufacturing practice operating system that is demonstrated to comply with:
</P>
<P>(1) The specifics of each set of current good manufacturing practice regulations listed under § 4.3 as they apply to each constituent part included in the combination product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) If you elect to establish a current good manufacturing practice operating system in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the following requirements apply:






</P>
<P>(1) If the combination product includes a device constituent part and a drug constituent part, and the current good manufacturing practice operating system has been shown to comply with the drug CGMP requirements or the medical gas CGMP requirements, as applicable, the following clauses of ISO 13485 (together with the definitions in Clause 3 of ISO 9000), which is incorporated by reference into the QMSR under § 820.7 of this chapter, and certain other provisions within the QMSR must also be shown to have been satisfied; upon demonstration that these requirements have been satisfied, no additional showing of compliance with respect to the QMSR need be made:




</P>
<P>(i) <I>General requirements and management responsibility.</I> Clause 4.1, Clause 5 and its subclauses, Clause 6.1 of ISO 13485, and § 820.10 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Design and development.</I> Clause 7.3 and its subclauses of ISO 13485. The organization shall document one or more processes for risk management in product realization. Records of risk management activities shall be maintained;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Purchasing.</I> Clause 7.4. and its subclauses of ISO 13485;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Analysis of data, improvement, and complaint handling.</I> Clause 8.2.2 and § 820.35(a) of this chapter, Clause 8.4, and Clause 8.5. and its subclauses of ISO 13485;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Installation activities.</I> Clause 7.5.3 of ISO 13485; and
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Servicing activities.</I> Clause 7.5.4 of ISO 13485 and § 820.35(b) of this chapter.


















</P>
<P>(2) If the combination product includes a device constituent part and a drug constituent part other than a medical gas, and the current good manufacturing practice operating system has been shown to comply with the QMSR requirements for devices, the following provisions of the drug CGMP requirements must also be shown to have been satisfied; upon demonstration that these requirements have been satisfied, no additional showing of compliance with respect to the drug CGMP requirements need be made:
















</P>
<P>(i) Section 211.84 of this chapter. Testing and approval or rejection of components, drug product containers, and closures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 211.103 of this chapter. Calculation of yield.
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 211.132 of this chapter. Tamper-evident packaging requirements for over-the-counter (OTC) human drug products.
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 211.137 of this chapter. Expiration dating.
</P>
<P>(v) Section 211.165 of this chapter. Testing and release for distribution.
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 211.166 of this chapter. Stability testing.
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 211.167 of this chapter. Special testing requirements.
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 211.170 of this chapter. Reserve samples.
</P>
<P>(3) If the combination product includes a device constituent part and a drug constituent part that is a medical gas, and the current good manufacturing practice operating system has been shown to comply with the QMSR regulation, the following provisions of the medical gas CGMP requirements must also be shown to have been satisfied; upon demonstration that these requirements have been satisfied, no additional showing of compliance with respect to the medical gas CGMP requirements need be made:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 213.84 of this chapter. Testing and approval or rejection of components, containers, and closures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 213.94 of this chapter. Medical gas containers and closures.
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 213.122 of this chapter. Materials examination and usage criteria.
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 213.165 of this chapter. Testing and release for distribution.
</P>
<P>(v) Section 213.166 of this chapter. Stability testing and expiration dating for medical gases marketed under applications submitted under section 505 or section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 213.204 of this chapter. Returned medical gases.
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 213.208 of this chapter. Salvaging of medical gases.




</P>
<P>(4) In addition to being shown to comply with the other applicable manufacturing requirements listed under § 4.3, if the combination product includes a biological product constituent part, the current good manufacturing practice operating system must also be shown to implement and comply with all manufacturing requirements identified under § 4.3(c) that would apply to that biological product if that constituent part were not part of a combination product.
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to being shown to comply with the other applicable current good manufacturing practice requirements listed under § 4.3, if the combination product includes an HCT/P, the current good manufacturing practice operating system must also be shown to implement and comply with all current good tissue practice requirements identified under § 4.3(d) that would apply to that HCT/P if it were not part of a combination product.
</P>
<P>(c) During any period in which the manufacture of a constituent part to be included in a co-packaged or single entity combination product occurs at a separate facility from the other constituent part(s) to be included in that single-entity or co-packaged combination product, the current good manufacturing practice operating system for that constituent part at that facility must be demonstrated to comply with all current good manufacturing practice requirements applicable to that type of constituent part.
</P>
<P>(d) When two or more types of constituent parts to be included in a single-entity or co-packaged combination product have arrived at the same facility, or the manufacture of these constituent parts is proceeding at the same facility, application of a current good manufacturing process operating system that complies with paragraph (b) of this section may begin.


</P>
<P>(e) The requirements set forth in this subpart and in parts 210, 211, 213, 820, 600 through 680, and 1271 of this chapter listed in § 4.3, supplement, and do not supersede, each other unless the regulations explicitly provide otherwise. In the event of a conflict between regulations applicable under this subpart to combination products, including their constituent parts, the regulations most specifically applicable to the constituent part in question shall supersede the more general.






</P>
<P>(f) The material listed in this paragraph (f) is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FDA at Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852; 240-402-7500; <I>https://www.regulations.gov/document/FDA-2013-S-0610-0003.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov</I>. In addition, the terms and definitions given in ISO 9000:2015 are available for viewing, without cost, at <I>https://www.iso.org/obp/ui#iso:std:iso:9000:ed-4:v1:en.</I> This material is available from the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), BIBC II, Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; +41-22-749-01-11; <I>customerservice@iso.org, https://www.iso.org/store.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO 9000:2015(E), (“ISO 9000”), <I>Quality Management systems—Fundamentals and vocabulary,</I> Clause 3—<I>Terms and definitions,</I> Fourth edition, September 15, 2015.
</P>
<P>(2) ISO 13485:2016(E), (“ISO 13485”), <I>Medical devices—Quality management systems—Requirements for regulatory purposes,</I> Third edition, March 1, 2016.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 4321, Jan. 22, 2013, as amended at 89 FR 7522, Feb. 2, 2024; 89 FR 51766, June 18, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Postmarketing Safety Reporting for Combination Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 92624, Dec. 20, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4.100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.100   What is the scope of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart identifies postmarketing safety reporting requirements for combination product applicants and constituent part applicants.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not apply to investigational combination products, combination products that have not received marketing authorization, or to persons other than combination product applicants and constituent part applicants.
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart supplements and does not supersede other provisions of this chapter, including the provisions in parts 314, 600, 606, 803, and 806 of this chapter, unless a regulation explicitly provides otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.101   How does the FDA define key terms and phrases in this subpart?</HEAD>
<P><I>Abbreviated new drug application (ANDA)</I> has the same meaning given the term “abbreviated application” in § 314.3(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Agency or we</I> means Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means, for the purposes of this subpart, a person holding an application under which a combination product or constituent part of a combination product has received marketing authorization (such as approval, licensure, or clearance). For the purposes of this subpart, applicant is used interchangeably with the term “you.”
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means, for purposes of this subpart, a BLA, an NDA, an ANDA, or a device application, including all amendments and supplements to them.
</P>
<P><I>Biological product</I> has the meaning given the term in section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262).
</P>
<P><I>Biological product deviation report (BPDR)</I> is a report as described in §§ 600.14 and 606.171 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Biologics license application (BLA)</I> has the meaning given the term in section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262) and § 601.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Combination product</I> has the meaning given the term in § 3.2(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Combination product applicant</I> means an applicant that holds the application(s) for a combination product.
</P>
<P><I>Constituent part</I> has the meaning given the term in § 4.2.
</P>
<P><I>Constituent part applicant</I> means the applicant for a constituent part of a combination product the constituent parts of which are marketed under applications held by different applicants.
</P>
<P><I>Correction or removal report</I> is a report as described in § 806.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>De novo classification request</I> is a submission requesting <I>de novo</I> classification under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Device</I> has the meaning given the term in section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Device application</I> means a PMA, PDP, premarket notification submission, <I>de novo</I> classification request, or HDE.
</P>
<P><I>Drug</I> has the meaning given the term in section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Field alert report</I> is a report as described in § 314.81 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Fifteen-day report</I> is a report required to be submitted within 15 days as described in § 314.80 of this chapter or § 600.80 of this chapter, as well as followup reports to such a report<I>.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Five-day report</I> is a report as described in §§ 803.3 and 803.53 of this chapter, as well as supplemental or followup reports to such a report as described in § 803.56 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Humanitarian device exemption (HDE)</I> has the meaning given the term in § 814.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Malfunction report</I> is a report as described in § 803.50 of this chapter as well as supplemental or followup reports to such a report as described in § 803.56 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>New drug application (NDA)</I> has the meaning given the term “application” in § 314.3(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Premarket approval application (PMA)</I> has the meaning given the term in § 814.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Premarket notification submission</I> is a submission as described in § 807.87 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Product Development Protocol (PDP)</I> is a submission as set forth in section 515(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.102   What reports must you submit to FDA for your combination product or constituent part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If you are a constituent part applicant, the reporting requirements applicable to you that are identified in this section apply to your constituent part, and if you are a combination product applicant, the reporting requirements applicable to you that are identified in this section apply to your combination product as a whole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirements applicable to both combination product applicants and constituent part applicants.</I> If you are a combination product applicant or constituent part applicant, you must comply with the reporting requirements identified in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) of this section for your product based on its application type. If you are a combination product applicant, you are required to submit a report as specified in this paragraph unless you have already submitted a report in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section for the same event that: Includes the information required under the applicable regulations identified in this paragraph, is required to be submitted in the same manner under § 4.104, and meets the deadlines under the applicable regulations identified in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) If your combination product or device constituent part received marketing authorization under a device application, you must comply with the requirements for postmarketing safety reporting described in parts 803 and 806 of this chapter with respect to your product.
</P>
<P>(2) If your combination product or drug constituent part received marketing authorization under an NDA or ANDA, you must comply with the requirements for postmarketing safety reporting described in part 314 of this chapter with respect to your product.
</P>
<P>(3) If your combination product or biological product constituent part received marketing authorization under a BLA, you must comply with the requirements for postmarketing safety reporting described in parts 600 and 606 of this chapter with respect to your product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements applicable only to combination product applicants.</I> If you are a combination product applicant, in addition to compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, you must also comply with the reporting requirements identified under this paragraph as applicable to your product based on its constituent parts. If you are a combination product applicant, you are required to submit a report as specified in this paragraph unless you have already submitted a report in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section for the same event that: Includes the information required under the applicable regulations for the report identified in this paragraph; is required to be submitted in the same manner under § 4.104 of this chapter; and, unless otherwise specified in this paragraph, meets the deadlines under the applicable regulations for the report identified in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) If your combination product contains a device constituent part, you must submit:
</P>
<P>(i) Five-day reports;
</P>
<P>(ii) Malfunction reports; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Correction or removal reports, and maintain records as described in § 806.20 of this chapter for corrections and removals not required to be reported.
</P>
<P>(2) If your combination product contains a drug constituent part, you must submit:
</P>
<P>(i) Field alert reports; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Fifteen-day reports as described in § 314.80 of this chapter, which must be submitted within 30 calendar days instead of 15 calendar days if your combination product received marketing authorization under a device application.
</P>
<P>(3) If your combination product contains a biological product constituent part, you must submit:
</P>
<P>(i) Biological product deviation reports; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Fifteen-day reports as described in § 600.80 of this chapter, which must be submitted within 30 calendar days instead of 15 calendar days if your combination product received marketing authorization under a device application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other reporting requirements for combination product applicants.</I> (1) If you are the combination product applicant for a combination product that contains a device constituent part and that received marketing authorization under an NDA, ANDA, or BLA, in addition to the information otherwise required in the periodic safety reports you submit under § 314.80 or § 600.80 of this chapter, your periodic safety reports must also include a summary and analysis of the reports identified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section that were submitted during the report interval.
</P>
<P>(2) If you are the combination product applicant for a combination product that received marketing authorization under a device application, in addition to the reports required under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, you must submit reports regarding postmarketing safety events if notified by the Agency in writing that the Agency requires additional information. We will specify what safety information is needed and will require such information if we determine that protection of the public health requires additional or clarifying safety information for the combination product. In any request under this section, we will state the reason or purpose for the safety information request, specify the due date for submitting the information, and clearly identify the reported event(s) related to our request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.103" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.103   What information must you share with other constituent part applicants for the combination product?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When you receive information regarding an event that involves a death or serious injury as described in § 803.3 of this chapter, or an adverse experience as described in § 314.80(a) of this chapter or § 600.80(a) of this chapter, associated with the use of the combination product, you must provide the information to the other constituent part applicant(s) for the combination product no later than 5 calendar days of your receipt of the information.
</P>
<P>(b) With regard to information you must provide to the other constituent part applicant(s) for the combination product, you must maintain records that include:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the information you provided,
</P>
<P>(2) The date the information was received by you,
</P>
<P>(3) The date the information was provided to the other constituent part applicant(s), and
</P>
<P>(4) The name and address of the other constituent part applicant(s) to whom you provided the information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.104" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.104   How and where must you submit postmarketing safety reports for your combination product or constituent part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a constituent part applicant, you must submit postmarketing safety reports in accordance with the regulations identified in § 4.102(b) that are applicable to your product based on its application type.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are a combination product applicant, you must submit postmarketing safety reports required under § 4.102 in the manner specified in the regulation applicable to the type of report, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) You must submit the postmarketing safety reports identified in § 4.102(c)(1)(i) and (ii) in accordance with § 314.80(g) of this chapter if your combination product received marketing authorization under an NDA or ANDA or in accordance with § 600.80(h) of this chapter if your combination product received marketing authorization under a BLA.
</P>
<P>(2) You must submit the postmarketing safety reports identified in § 4.102(c)(2)(ii) and (c)(3)(ii) in accordance with § 803.12(a) of this chapter if your combination product received marketing authorization under a device application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.4.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.105   What are the postmarketing safety reporting recordkeeping requirements for your combination product or constituent part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a constituent part applicant:
</P>
<P>(1) You must maintain records in accordance with the recordkeeping requirements in the applicable regulation(s) described in § 4.102(b).
</P>
<P>(2) You must maintain records required under § 4.103(b) for the longest time period required for records under the postmarketing safety reporting regulations applicable to your product under § 4.102(b).
</P>
<P>(b) If you are a combination product applicant, you must maintain records in accordance with the longest time period required for records under the regulations applicable to your product under § 4.102.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 5—ORGANIZATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 21 U.S.C. 301-397.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 15962, Mar. 19, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts A-L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Organization</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.1100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.5.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.1100   Agency Organization Information.</HEAD>
<P>Information about the organization of the Food and Drug Administration (including its central and field offices) is available on the Agency's website at <I>http://www.fda.gov,</I> including in FDA's Staff Manual Guides. Relevant contact information for Agency offices, including email addresses, is also available on the Agency's website.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 35886, June 15, 2026]















	


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="7" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 7—ENFORCEMENT POLICY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321-393; 42 U.S.C. 241, 262, 263b-263n, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15567, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part governs the practices and procedures applicable to regulatory enforcement actions initiated by the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>) and other laws that it administers. This part also provides guidance for manufacturers and distributors to follow with respect to their voluntary removal or correction of marketed violative products. This part is promulgated to clarify and explain the regulatory practices and procedures of the Food and Drug Administration, enhance public understanding, improve consumer protection, and assure uniform and consistent application of practices and procedures throughout the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26218, June 16, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 56476, Sept. 19, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Citation</I> or <I>cite</I> means a document and any attachments thereto that provide notice to a person against whom criminal prosecution is contemplated of the opportunity to present views to the agency regarding an alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Respondent</I> means a person named in a notice who presents views concerning an alleged violation either in person, by designated representative, or in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responsible individual</I> includes those in positions of power or authority to detect, prevent, or correct violations of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Product</I> means an article subject to the jurisdiction of the Food and Drug Administration, including any food, drug, and device intended for human or animal use, any cosmetic and biologic intended for human use, any tobacco product intended for human use, and any item subject to a quarantine regulation under part 1240 of this chapter. <I>Product</I> does not include an electronic product that emits radiation and is subject to parts 1003 and 1004 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Recall</I> means a firm's removal or correction of a marketed product that the Food and Drug Administration considers to be in violation of the laws it administers and against which the agency would initiate legal action, e.g., seizure. <I>Recall</I> does not include a market withdrawal or a stock recovery.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Correction</I> means repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection (including patient monitoring) of a product without its physical removal to some other location.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Recalling firm</I> means the firm that initiates a recall or, in the case of a Food and Drug Administration-requested recall, the firm that has primary responsibility for the manufacture and marketing of the product to be recalled.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Market withdrawal</I> means a firm's removal or correction of a distributed product which involves a minor violation that would not be subject to legal action by the Food and Drug Administration or which involves no violation, e.g., normal stock rotation practices, routine equipment adjustments and repairs, etc.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Stock recovery</I> means a firm's removal or correction of a product that has not been marketed or that has not left the direct control of the firm, i.e., the product is located on premises owned by, or under the control of, the firm and no portion of the lot has been released for sale or use.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Recall strategy</I> means a planned specific course of action to be taken in conducting a specific recall, which addresses the depth of recall, need for public warnings, and extent of effectiveness checks for the recall.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Recall classification</I> means the numerical designation, i.e., I, II, or III, assigned by the Food and Drug Administration to a particular product recall to indicate the relative degree of health hazard presented by the product being recalled.
</P>
<P>(1) Class I is a situation in which there is a reasonable probability that the use of, or exposure to, a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II is a situation in which use of, or exposure to, a violative product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences or where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote.
</P>
<P>(3) Class III is a situation in which use of, or exposure to, a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Consignee</I> means anyone who received, purchased, or used the product being recalled.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15567, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 26218, June 16, 1978; 44 FR 12167, Mar. 6, 1979; 77 FR 5176, Feb. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.12" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.12   Guaranty.</HEAD>
<P>In case of the giving of a guaranty or undertaking referred to in section 303(c)(2) or (3) of the act, each person signing such guaranty or undertaking shall be considered to have given it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.13" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.13   Suggested forms of guaranty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A guaranty or undertaking referred to in section 303(c)(2) of the act may be:
</P>
<P>(1) Limited to a specific shipment or other delivery of an article, in which case it may be a part of or attached to the invoice or bill of sale covering such shipment or delivery, or
</P>
<P>(2) General and continuing, in which case, in its application to any shipment or other delivery of an article, it shall be considered to have been given at the date such article was shipped or delivered by the person who gives the guaranty or undertaking.
</P>
<P>(b) The following are suggested forms of guaranty or undertaking under section 303(c)(2) of the act:
</P>
<P>(1) Limited form for use on invoice or bill of sale.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(Name of person giving the guaranty or undertaking) hereby guarantees that no article listed herein is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or is an article which may not, under the provisions of section 404, 505, or 512 of the act, be introduced into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(Signature and post-office address of person giving the guaranty or undertaking.)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) General and continuing form.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The article comprising each shipment or other delivery hereafter made by (name of person giving the guaranty or undertaking) to, or in the order of (name and post-office address of person to whom the guaranty or undertaking is given) is hereby guaranteed, as of the date of such shipment or delivery, to be, on such date, not adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and not an article which may not, under the provisions of section 404, 505, or 512 of the act, be introduced into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(Signature and post-office address of person giving the guaranty of undertaking.)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The application of a guaranty or undertaking referred to in section 303(c)(2) of the act to any shipment or other delivery of an article shall expire when such article, after shipment or delivery by the person who gave such guaranty or undertaking, becomes adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act, or becomes an article which may not, under the provisions of section 404, 505, or 512 of the act, be introduced into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(d) A guaranty or undertaking referred to in section 303(c)(3) of the act shall state that the shipment or other delivery of the color additive covered thereby was manufactured by a signer thereof. It may be a part of or attached to the invoice or bill of sale covering such color. If such shipment or delivery is from a foreign manufacturer, such guaranty or undertaking shall be signed by such manufacturer and by an agent of such manufacturer who resides in the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) The following are suggested forms of guaranty or undertaking under section 303(c)(3) of the act:
</P>
<P>(1) For domestic manufacturers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(Name of manufacturer) hereby guarantees that all color additives listed herein were manufactured by him, and (where color additive regulations require certification) are from batches certified in accordance with the applicable regulations promulgated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(Signature and post-office address of manufacturer.)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) For foreign manufacturers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(Name of manufacturer and agent) hereby severally guarantee that all color additives listed herein were manufactured by (name of manufacturer), and (where color additive regulations require certification) are from batches certified in accordance with the applicable regulations promulgated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(Signature and post-office address of manufacturer.)
</P>
<P>(Signature and post-office address of agent.)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) For the purpose of a guaranty or undertaking under section 303(c)(3) of the act the manufacturer of a shipment or other delivery of a color additive is the person who packaged such color.
</P>
<P>(g) A guaranty or undertaking, if signed by two or more persons, shall state that such persons severally guarantee the article to which it applies.
</P>
<P>(h) No representation or suggestion that an article is guaranteed under the act shall be made in labeling.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Recalls (Including Product Corrections)—Guidance on Policy, Procedures, and Industry Responsibilities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 26218, June 16, 1978, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 7.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.40   Recall policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recall is an effective method of removing or correcting consumer products that are in violation of laws administered by the Food and Drug Administration. Recall is a voluntary action that takes place because manufacturers and distributors carry out their responsibility to protect the public health and well-being from products that present a risk of injury or gross deception or are otherwise defective. This section and §§ 7.41 through 7.59 recognize the voluntary nature of recall by providing guidance so that responsible firms may effectively discharge their recall responsibilities. These sections also recognize that recall is an alternative to a Food and Drug Administration-initiated court action for removing or correcting violative, distributed products by setting forth specific recall procedures for the Food and Drug Administration to monitor recalls and assess the adequacy of a firm's efforts in recall.
</P>
<P>(b) Recall may be undertaken voluntarily and at any time by manufacturers and distributors, or at the request of the Food and Drug Administration. A request by the Food and Drug Administration that a firm recall a product is reserved for urgent situations and is to be directed to the firm that has primary responsibility for the manufacture and marketing of the product that is to be recalled.
</P>
<P>(c) Recall is generally more appropriate and affords better protection for consumers than seizure, when many lots of product have been widely distributed. Seizure, multiple seizure, or other court action is indicated when a firm refuses to undertake a recall requested by the Food and Drug Administration, or where the agency has reason to believe that a recall would not be effective, determines that a recall is ineffective, or discovers that a violation is continuing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26218, June 16, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 56476, Sept. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.41" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.41   Health hazard evaluation and recall classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An evaluation of the health hazard presented by a product being recalled or considered for recall will be conducted by an ad hoc committee of Food and Drug Administration scientists and will take into account, but need not be limited to, the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether any disease or injuries have already occurred from the use of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether any existing conditions could contribute to a clinical situation that could expose humans or animals to a health hazard. Any conclusion shall be supported as completely as possible by scientific documentation and/or statements that the conclusion is the opinion of the individual(s) making the health hazard determination.
</P>
<P>(3) Assessment of hazard to various segments of the population, e.g., children, surgical patients, pets, livestock, etc., who are expected to be exposed to the product being considered, with particular attention paid to the hazard to those individuals who may be at greatest risk.
</P>
<P>(4) Assessment of the degree of seriousness of the health hazard to which the populations at risk would be exposed.
</P>
<P>(5) Assessment of the likelihood of occurrence of the hazard.
</P>
<P>(6) Assessment of the consequences (immediate or long-range) of occurrence of the hazard.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of this determination, the Food and Drug Administration will assign the recall a classification, i.e., Class I, Class II, or Class III, to indicate the relative degree of health hazard of the product being recalled or considered for recall.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.42" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.42   Recall strategy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A recall strategy that takes into account the following factors will be developed by the agency for a Food and Drug Administration-requested recall and by the recalling firm for a firm-initiated recall to suit the individual circumstances of the particular recall:
</P>
<P>(i) Results of health hazard evaluation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ease in identifying the product.
</P>
<P>(iii) Degree to which the product's deficiency is obvious to the consumer or user.
</P>
<P>(iv) Degree to which the product remains unused in the market-place.
</P>
<P>(v) Continued availability of essential products.
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration will review the adequacy of a proposed recall strategy developed by a recalling firm and recommend changes as appropriate. A recalling firm should conduct the recall in accordance with an approved recall strategy but need not delay initiation of a recall pending review of its recall strategy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elements of a recall strategy.</I> A recall strategy will address the following elements regarding the conduct of the recall:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Depth of recall.</I> Depending on the product's degree of hazard and extent of distribution, the recall strategy will specify the level in the distribution chain to which the recall is to extend, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Consumer or user level, which may vary with product, including any intermediate wholesale or retail level; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Retail level, including any intermediate wholesale level; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Wholesale level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public warning.</I> The purpose of a public warning is to alert the public that a product being recalled presents a serious hazard to health. It is reserved for urgent situations where other means for preventing use of the recalled product appear inadequate. The Food and Drug Administration in consultation with the recalling firm will ordinarily issue such publicity. The recalling firm that decides to issue its own public warning is requested to submit its proposed public warning and plan for distribution of the warning for review and comment by the Food and Drug Administration. The recall strategy will specify whether a public warning is needed and whether it will issue as:
</P>
<P>(i) General public warning through the general news media, either national or local as appropriate, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Public warning through specialized news media, e.g., professional or trade press, or to specific segments of the population such as physicians, hospitals, etc.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effectiveness checks.</I> The purpose of effectiveness checks is to verify that all consignees at the recall depth specified by the strategy have received notification about the recall and have taken appropriate action. The method for contacting consignees may be accomplished by personal visits, telephone calls, letters, or a combination thereof. A guide entitled “Methods for Conducting Recall Effectiveness Checks” that describes the use of these different methods is available upon request from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. The recalling firm will ordinarily be responsible for conducting effectiveness checks, but the Food and Drug Administration will assist in this task where necessary and appropriate. The recall strategy will specify the method(s) to be used for and the level of effectiveness checks that will be conducted, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Level A—100 percent of the total number of consignees to be contacted;
</P>
<P>(ii) Level B—Some percentage of the total number of consignees to be contacted, which percentage is to be determined on a case-by-case basis, but is greater that 10 percent and less than 100 percent of the total number of consignees;
</P>
<P>(iii) Level C—10 percent of the total number of consignees to be contacted;
</P>
<P>(iv) Level D—2 percent of the total number of consignees to be contacted; or
</P>
<P>(v) Level E—No effectiveness checks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26218, June 16, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 59 FR 14363, Mar. 28, 1994; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45064, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.45   Food and Drug Administration-requested recall.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs or designee may request a firm to initiate a recall when the following determinations have been made:
</P>
<P>(1) That a product that has been distributed presents a risk of illness or injury or gross consumer deception.
</P>
<P>(2) That the firm has not initiated a recall of the product.
</P>
<P>(3) That an agency action is necessary to protect the public health and welfare.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner or his designee will notify the firm of this determination and of the need to begin immediately a recall of the product. Such notification will be by letter or telegram to a responsible official of the firm, but may be preceded by oral communication or by a visit from an authorized representative of the local Food and Drug Administration district office, with formal, written confirmation from the Commissioner or his designee afterward. The notification will specify the violation, the health hazard classification of the violative product, the recall strategy, and other appropriate instructions for conducting the recall.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a request to recall, the firm may be asked to provide the Food and Drug Administration any or all of the information listed in § 7.46(a). The firm, upon agreeing to the recall request, may also provide other information relevant to the agency's determination of the need for the recall or how the recall should be conducted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26218, June 16, 1978, as amended at 69 FR 17290, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.46" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.46   Firm-initiated recall.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A firm may decide of its own volition and under any circumstances to remove or correct a distributed product. A firm that does so because it believes the product to be violative is requested to notify immediately the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office listed in § 5.115 of this chapter. Such removal or correction will be considered a recall only if the Food and Drug Administration regards the product as involving a violation that is subject to legal action, e.g., seizure. In such cases, the firm will be asked to provide the Food and Drug Administration the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Identity of the product involved.
</P>
<P>(2) Reason for the removal or correction and the date and circumstances under which the product deficiency or possible deficiency was discovered.
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluation of the risk associated with the deficiency or possible deficiency.
</P>
<P>(4) Total amount of such products produced and/or the timespan of the production.
</P>
<P>(5) Total amount of such products estimated to be in distribution channels.
</P>
<P>(6) Distribution information, including the number of direct accounts and, where necessary, the identity of the direct accounts.
</P>
<P>(7) A copy of the firm's recall communication if any has issued, or a proposed communication if none has issued.
</P>
<P>(8) Proposed strategy for conducting the recall.
</P>
<P>(9) Name and telephone number of the firm official who should be contacted concerning the recall.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration will review the information submitted, advise the firm of the assigned recall classification, recommend any appropriate changes in the firm's strategy for the recall, and advise the firm that its recall will be placed in the weekly FDA Enforcement Report. Pending this review, the firm need not delay initiation of its product removal or correction.
</P>
<P>(c) A firm may decide to recall a product when informed by the Food and Drug Administration that the agency has determined that the product in question violates the law, but the agency has not specifically requested a recall. The firm's action also is considered a firm-initiated recall and is subject to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A firm that initiates a removal or correction of its product which the firm believes is a market withdrawal should consult with the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office when the reason for the removal or correction is not obvious or clearly understood but where it is apparent, e.g., because of complaints or adverse reactions regarding the product, that the product is deficient in some respect. In such cases, the Food and Drug Administration will assist the firm in determining the exact nature of the problem.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.49" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.49   Recall communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recalling firm is responsible for promptly notifying each of its affected direct accounts about the recall. The format, content, and extent of a recall communication should be commensurate with the hazard of the product being recalled and the strategy developed for that recall. In general terms, the purpose of a recall communication is to convey:
</P>
<P>(1) That the product in question is subject to a recall.
</P>
<P>(2) That further distribution or use of any remaining product should cease immediately.
</P>
<P>(3) Where appropriate, that the direct account should in turn notify its customers who received the product about the recall.
</P>
<P>(4) Instructions regarding what to do with the product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation.</I> A recall communication can be accomplished by telegrams, mailgrams, or first class letters conspicuously marked, preferably in bold red type, on the letter and the envelope: <E T="04">“drug</E> [or <E T="04">food, biologic,</E> etc.] <E T="04">recall</E> [or <E T="04">correction]”.</E> The letter and the envelope should be also marked: <E T="04">“urgent”</E> for class I and class II recalls and, when appropriate, for class III recalls. Telephone calls or other personal contacts should ordinarily be confirmed by one of the above methods and/or documented in an appropriate manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) A recall communication should be written in accordance with the following guidelines:
</P>
<P>(i) Be brief and to the point;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify clearly the product, size, lot number(s), code(s) or serial number(s) and any other pertinent descriptive information to enable accurate and immediate identification of the product;
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain concisely the reason for the recall and the hazard involved, if any;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide specific instructions on what should be done with respect to the recalled products; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a ready means for the recipient of the communication to report to the recalling firm whether it has any of the product, e.g., by sending a postage-paid, self-addressed postcard or by allowing the recipient to place a collect call to the recalling firm.
</P>
<P>(2) The recall communication should not contain irrelevant qualifications, promotional materials, or any other statement that may detract from the message. Where necessary, followup communications should be sent to those who fail to respond to the initial recall communication.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responsibility of recipient.</I> Consignees that receive a recall communication should immediately carry out the instructions set forth by the recalling firm and, where necessary, extend the recall to its consignees in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.50   Public notification of recall.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration will promptly make available to the public in the weekly FDA Enforcement Report a descriptive listing of each new recall according to its classification, whether it was Food and Drug Administration-requested or firm-initiated, and the specific action being taken by the recalling firm. The Food and Drug Administration will intentionally delay public notification of recalls of certain drugs and devices where the agency determines that public notification may cause unnecessary and harmful anxiety in patients and that initial consultation between patients and their physicians is essential. The report will not include a firm's product removals or corrections which the agency determines to be market withdrawals or stock recoveries. The report, which also includes other Food and Drug Administration regulatory actions, e.g., seizures that were effected and injunctions and prosecutions that were filed, is available upon request from the Office of Public Affairs (HFI-1), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.53" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.53   Recall status reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The recalling firm is requested to submit periodic recall status reports to the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office so that the agency may assess the progress of the recall. The frequency of such reports will be determined by the relative urgency of the recall and will be specified by the Food and Drug Administration in each recall case; generally the reporting interval will be between 2 and 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified or inappropriate in a given recall case, the recall status report should contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Number of consignees notified of the recall, and date and method of notification.
</P>
<P>(2) Number of consignees responding to the recall communication and quantity of products on hand at the time it was received.
</P>
<P>(3) Number of consignees that did not respond (if needed, the identity of nonresponding consignees may be requested by the Food and Drug Administration).
</P>
<P>(4) Number of products returned or corrected by each consignee contacted and the quantity of products accounted for.
</P>
<P>(5) Number and results of effectiveness checks that were made.
</P>
<P>(6) Estimated time frames for completion of the recall.
</P>
<P>(c) Recall status reports are to be discontinued when the recall is terminated by the Food and Drug Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.55   Termination of a recall.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recall will be terminated when the Food and Drug Administration determines that all reasonable efforts have been made to remove or correct the product in accordance with the recall strategy, and when it is reasonable to assume that the product subject to the recall has been removed and proper disposition or correction has been made commensurate with the degree of hazard of the recalled product. Written notification that a recall is terminated will be issued by the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office to the recalling firm.
</P>
<P>(b) A recalling firm may request termination of its recall by submitting a written request to the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office stating that the recall is effective in accordance with the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, and by accompanying the request with the most current recall status report and a description of the disposition of the recalled product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.59" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.3.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.59   General industry guidance.</HEAD>
<P>A recall can be disruptive of a firm's operation and business, but there are several steps a prudent firm can take in advance to minimize this disruptive effect. Notwithstanding similar specific requirements for certain products in other parts of this chapter, the following is provided by the Food and Drug Administration as guidance for a firm's consideration:
</P>
<P>(a) Prepare and maintain a current written contingency plan for use in initiating and effecting a recall in accordance with §§ 7.40 through 7.49, 7.53, and 7.55.
</P>
<P>(b) Use sufficient coding of regulated products to make possible positive lot identification and to facilitate effective recall of all violative lots.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain such product distribution records as are necessary to facilitate location of products that are being recalled. Such records should be maintained for a period of time that exceeds the shelf life and expected use of the product and is at least the length of time specified in other applicable regulations concerning records retention.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Criminal Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.84" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.84   Opportunity for presentation of views before report of criminal violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a) (2) and (3) of this section, a person against whom criminal prosecution under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is contemplated by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs shall be given appropriate notice and an opportunity to present information and views to show cause why criminal prosecution should not be recommended to a United States attorney.
</P>
<P>(2) Notice and opportunity need not be provided if the Commissioner has reason to believe that they may result in the alteration or destruction of evidence or in the prospective defendant's fleeing to avoid prosecution.
</P>
<P>(3) Notice and opportunity need not be provided if the Commissioner contemplates recommending further investigation by the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(b) If a statute enforced by the Commissioner does not contain a provision for an opportunity to present views, the Commissioner need not, but may in the Commissioner's discretion, provide notice and an opportunity to present views.
</P>
<P>(c) If an apparent violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act also constitutes a violation of any other Federal statute(s), and the Commissioner contemplates recommending prosecution under such other statute(s) as well, the notice of opportunity to present views will include all violations.
</P>
<P>(d) Notice of an opportunity to present views may be by letter, standard form, or other document(s) identifying the products and/or conduct alleged to violate the law. The notice shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be sent by registered or certified mail, telegram, telex, personal delivery, or any other appropriate mode of written communication;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the time and place where those named may present their views;
</P>
<P>(3) Summarize the violations that constitute the basis of the contemplated prosecution;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the purpose and procedure of the presentation; and
</P>
<P>(5) Furnish a form on which the legal status of any person named in the notice may be designated.
</P>
<P>(e) If more than one person is named in a notice, a separate opportunity for presentation of views shall be scheduled on request. Otherwise, the time and place specified in a notice may be changed only upon a showing of reasonable grounds. A request for any change shall be addressed to the Food and Drug Administration office that issued the notice and shall be received in that office at least 3 working days before the date set in the notice.
</P>
<P>(f) A person who has received a notice is under no legal obligation to appear or answer in any manner. A person choosing to respond may appear personally, with or without a representative, or may designate a representative to appear for him or her. Alternatively, a person may respond in writing. If a person elects not to respond on or before the time scheduled, the Commissioner will, without further notice, decide whether to recommend criminal prosecution to a United States attorney on the basis of the information available.
</P>
<P>(g) If a respondent chooses to appear solely by designated representative, that representative shall present a signed statement of authorization. If a representative appears for more than one respondent, the representative shall submit independent documentation of authority to act for each respondent. If a representative appears without written authorization, the opportunity to present views with respect to that respondent may be provided at that time only if the authenticity of the representative's authority is first verified by telephone or other appropriate means.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 12167, Mar. 6, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.85" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.85   Conduct of a presentation of views before report of criminal violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presentation of views shall be heard by a designated Food and Drug Administration employee. Other Food and Drug Administration employees may be present.
</P>
<P>(b) A presentation of views shall not be open to the public. The agency employee designated to receive views will permit participation of other persons only if they appear with the respondent or the respondent's designated representative, and at the request of, and on behalf of, the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) A respondent may present any information of any kind bearing on the Commissioner's determination to recommend prosecution. Information may include statements of persons appearing on the respondent's behalf, letters, documents, laboratory analyses, if applicable, or other relevant information or arguments. The opportunity to present views shall be informal. The rules of evidence shall not apply. Any information given by a respondent, including statements by the respondent, shall become part of the agency's records concerning the matter and may be used for any official purpose. The Food and Drug Administration is under no obligation to present evidence or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) If the respondent holds a “guaranty or undertaking” as described in section 303(c) of the act (21 U.S.C. 333(c)) that is applicable to the notice, that document, or a verified copy of it, may be presented by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(e) A respondent may have an oral presentation recorded and transcribed at his or her expense, in which case a copy of the transcription shall be furnished to the Food and Drug Administration office from which the notice issued. The employee designated to receive views may order a presentation of views recorded and transcribed at agency expense, in which case a copy of such transcription shall be provided to each respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) If an oral presentation is not recorded and transcribed, the agency employee designated to receive views shall dictate a written summary of the presentation. A copy of the summary shall be provided to each respondent.
</P>
<P>(g) A respondent may comment on the summary or may supplement any response by additional written or documentary evidence. Any comment or addition shall be furnished to the Food and Drug Administration office where the respondent's views were presented. If materials are submitted within 10 calendar days after receipt of the copy of the summary or transcription of the presentation, as applicable, they will be considered before a final decision as to whether or not to recommend prosecution. Any materials received after the supplemental response period generally will be considered only if the final agency decision has not yet been made.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) When consideration of a criminal prosecution recommendation involving the same violations is closed by the Commissioner with respect to all persons named in the notice, the Commissioner will so notify each person in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) When it is determined that a person named in a notice will not be included in the Commissioner's recommendation for criminal prosecution, the Commissioner will so notify that person, if and when the Commissioner concludes that notification will not prejudice the prosecution of any other person.
</P>
<P>(3) When a United States attorney informs the agency that no persons recommended will be prosecuted, the Commissioner will so notify each person in writing, unless the United States attorney has already done so.
</P>
<P>(4) When a United States attorney informs the agency of intent to prosecute some, but not all, persons who had been provided an opportunity to present views and were subsequently named in the Commissioner's recommendation for criminal prosecution, the Commissioner, after being advised by the United States attorney that the notification will not prejudice the prosecution of any other person, will so notify those persons eliminated from further consideration, unless the United States attorney has already done so.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 12168, Mar. 6, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.87" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.6.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.87   Records related to opportunities for presentation of views conducted before report of criminal violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records related to a section 305 opportunity for presentation of views constitute investigatory records for law enforcement purposes and may include inter- and intra-agency memorandums.
</P>
<P>(1) Notwithstanding the rule established in § 20.21 of this chapter, no record related to a section 305 presentation is available for public disclosure until consideration of criminal prosecution has been closed in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, except as provided in § 20.82 of this chapter. Only very rarely and only under circumstances that demonstrate a compelling public interest will the Commissioner exercise, in accordance with § 20.82 of this chapter, the authorized discretion to disclose records related to a section 305 presentation before the consideration of criminal prosecution is closed.
</P>
<P>(2) After consideration of criminal prosecution is closed, the records are available for public disclosure in response to a request under the Freedom of Information Act, except to the extent that the exemptions from disclosure in subpart D of part 20 of this chapter are applicable. No statements obtained through promises of confidentiality shall be available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Consideration of criminal prosecution based on a particular section 305 notice of opportunity for presentation of views shall be deemed to be closed within the meaning of this section and § 7.85 when a final decision has been made not to recommend criminal prosecution to a United States attorney based on charges set forth in the notice and considered at the presentation, or when such a recommendation has been finally refused by the United States attorney, or when criminal prosecution has been instituted and the matter and all related appeals have been concluded, or when the statute of limitations has run.
</P>
<P>(c) Before disclosure of any record specifically reflecting consideration of a possible recommendation for criminal prosecution of any individual, all names and other information that would identify an individual whose prosecution was considered but not recommended, or who was not prosecuted, shall be deleted, unless the Commissioner concludes that there is a compelling public interest in the disclosure of the names.
</P>
<P>(d) Names and other information that would identify a Food and Drug Administration employee shall be deleted from records related to a section 305 presentation of views before public disclosure only under § 20.32 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 12168, Mar. 6, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 10—ADMINISTRATIVE PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 551-558, 701-706; 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-397, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 10 appear at 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003, and at 88 FR 45064, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 10 governs practices and procedures for petitions, hearings, and other administrative proceedings and activities conducted by the Food and Drug Administration under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Public Health Service Act, and other laws which the Commissioner of Food and Drugs administers.
</P>
<P>(b) If a requirement in another part of title 21 differs from a requirement in this part, the requirements of this part apply to the extent that they do not conflict with the other requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part and parts 12, 13, 14, 15, and 16 to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part and parts 12, 13, 14, 15, and 16 to <I>publication,</I> or to the day or date of publication, or use of the phrase <I>to publish,</I> refer to publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 69 FR 17290, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following definitions apply in this part and parts 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, and 19:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless otherwise indicated.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative action</I> includes every act, including the refusal or failure to act, involved in the administration of any law by the Commissioner, except that it does not include the referral of apparent violations to U.S. attorneys for the institution of civil or criminal proceedings or an act in preparation of a referral.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative file</I> means the file or files containing all documents pertaining to a particular administrative action, including internal working memoranda, and recommendations.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative record</I> means the documents in the administrative file of a particular administrative action on which the Commissioner relies to support the action.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Counsel</I> means the Chief Counsel of the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, Food and Drug Administration, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or the Commissioner's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Dockets Management Staff</I> means the Dockets Management Staff, Office of Management and Operations of the Food and Drug Administration, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P><I>Ex parte communication</I> means an oral or written communication not on the public record for which reasonable prior notice to all parties is not given, but does not include requests for status reports on a matter.
</P>
<P><I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Food and Drug Administration employee</I> or <I>Food and Drug Administration representative</I> includes members of the Food and Drug Division of the office of the General Counsel of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Formal evidentiary public hearing</I> means a hearing conducted under part 12.
</P>
<P><I>Interested person</I> or <I>any person who will be adversely affected</I> means a person who submits a petition or comment or objection or otherwise asks to participate in an informal or formal administrative proceeding or court action.
</P>
<P><I>Meeting</I> means any oral discussion, whether by telephone or in person.
</P>
<P><I>Office of the Commissioner</I> includes the offices of the Associate Commissioners but not the centers or the regional or district offices.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means the final agency disposition, other than the issuance of a regulation, in a proceeding concerning any matter and includes action on a new drug application, new animal drug application, or biological license.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means any person participating in any proceeding, including each party and any other interested person.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means the center of the Food and Drug Administration responsible for a matter involved and every person who either has exercised a right to request or has been granted the right by the Commissioner to have a hearing under part 12 or part 16 or who has waived the right to a hearing to obtain the establishment of a Public Board of Inquiry under part 13 and as a result of whose action a hearing or a Public Board of Inquiry has been established.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity.
</P>
<P><I>Petition</I> means a petition, application, or other document requesting the Commissioner to establish, amend, or revoke a regulation or order, or to take or not to take any other form of administrative action, under the laws administered by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Presiding officer</I> means the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee or an administrative law judge appointed as provided in 5 U.S.C. 3105.
</P>
<P><I>Proceeding</I> and <I>administrative proceeding</I> means any undertaking to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation or order, or to take or refrain from taking any other form of administrative action.
</P>
<P><I>Public advisory committee</I> or <I>advisory committee</I> means any committee, board, commission, council, conference, panel, task force, or other similar group, or any subcommittee or other subgroup of an advisory committee, that is not composed wholly of full-time employees of the Federal Government and is established or utilized by the Food and Drug Administration to obtain advice or recommendations.
</P>
<P><I>Public Board of Inquiry</I> or <I>Board</I> means an administrative law tribunal constituted under part 13.
</P>
<P><I>Public hearing before a public advisory committee</I> means a hearing conducted under part 14.
</P>
<P><I>Public hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry</I> means a hearing conducted under part 13.
</P>
<P><I>Public hearing before the Commissioner</I> means a hearing conducted under part 15.
</P>
<P><I>Regulations</I> means an agency rule of general or particular applicability and future effect issued under a law administered by the Commissioner or relating to administrative practices and procedures. In accordance with § 10.90(a), each agency regulation will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and codified in the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration</I> means a hearing conducted under part 16.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>The laws administered by the Commissioner</I> or <I>the laws administered by the Food and Drug Administration</I> means all the laws that the Commissioner is authorized to administer.
</P>
<P>(b) A term that is defined in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or part 1 has the same definition in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Words in the singular form include the plural, words in the masculine form include the feminine, and vice versa.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever a reference is made in this part to a person in FDA, e.g., the director of a center, the reference includes all persons to whom that person has delegated the specific function involved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 8994, Mar. 6, 1985; 54 FR 6886, Feb. 15, 1989; 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 59 FR 14363, Mar. 28, 1994; 69 FR 17290, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.10   Summaries of administrative practices and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>To encourage public participation in all agency activities, the Commissioner will prepare for public distribution summaries of FDA administrative practices and procedures in readily understandable terms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.19" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.19   Waiver, suspension, or modification of procedural requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner or a presiding officer may, either voluntarily or at the request of a participant, waive, suspend, or modify any provision in parts 12 through 16 applicable to the conduct of a public hearing by announcement at the hearing or by notice in advance of the hearing if no participant will be prejudiced, the ends of justice will thereby be served, and the action is in accordance with law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Administrative Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.20   Submission of documents to Dockets Management Staff; computation of time; availability for public disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A submission to the Dockets Management Staff of a petition, comment, objection, notice, compilation of information, or any other document is to be filed in four copies except as otherwise specifically provided in a relevant <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice or in another section of this chapter. The Dockets Management Staff is the agency custodian of these documents.
</P>
<P>(b) A submission is to be signed by the person making it, or by an attorney or other authorized representative of that person. Submissions by trade associations are also subject to the requirements of § 10.105(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Information referred to or relied upon in a submission is to be included in full and may not be incorporated by reference, unless previously submitted in the same proceeding.
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of an article or other reference or source cited must be included, except where the reference or source is:
</P>
<P>(i) A reported Federal court case;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDA document that is routinely publicly available; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A recognized medical or scientific textbook that is readily available to the agency.
</P>
<P>(2) If a part of the material submitted is in a foreign language, it must be accompanied by an English translation verified to be complete and accurate, together with the name, address, and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person making the translation. A translation of literature or other material in a foreign language is to be accompanied by copies of the original publication.
</P>
<P>(3) Where relevant information is contained in a document also containing irrelevant information, the irrelevant information is to be deleted and only the relevant information is to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(4) Under § 20.63 (a) and (b), the names and other information that would identify patients or research subjects are to be deleted from any record before it is submitted to the Dockets Management Staff in order to preclude a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(5) Defamatory, scurrilous, or intemperate matter is to be deleted from a record before it is submitted to the Dockets Management Staff. 
</P>
<P>(6) The failure to comply with the requirements of this part or with § 12.80 or § 13.20 will result in rejection of the submission for filing or, if it is filed, in exclusion from consideration of any portion that fails to comply. If a submission fails to meet any requirement of this section and the deficiency becomes known to theDockets Management Staff, the Dockets Management Staff shall not file the submission but return it with a copy of the applicable regulations indicating those provisions not complied with. A deficient submission may be corrected or supplemented and subsequently filed. The office of the Dockets Management Staff does not make decisions regarding the confidentiality of submitted documents.
</P>
<P>(d) The filing of a submission means only that the Dockets Management Staff has identified no technical deficiencies in the submission. The filing of a petition does not mean or imply that it meets all applicable requirements or that it contains reasonable grounds for the action requested or that the action requested is in accordance with law.
</P>
<P>(e) Except as provided in § 10.31(b), all submissions to the Dockets Management Staff will be considered as submitted on the date they are postmarked or, if delivered in person during regular business hours, on the date on which they are delivered, unless a provision in this part, an applicable <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, or an order issued by an administrative law judge specifically states that the documents must be received by a specified date, <I>e.g.</I>, § 10.33(g) relating to a petition for reconsideration, in which case they will be submitted on the date received.
</P>
<P>(f) All submissions are to be mailed or delivered in person to theDockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(g) FDA ordinarily will not acknowledge or give receipt for documents, except:
</P>
<P>(1) Documents delivered in person or by certified or registered mail with a return receipt requested; and
</P>
<P>(2) Petitions for which acknowledgment of receipt of filing is provided by regulation or by customary practice, e.g., § 10.30(c) relating to a citizen petition.
</P>
<P>(h) Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal legal holidays are included in computing the time allowed for the submission of documents, except that when the time for submission expires on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal legal holiday, the period will be extended to include the next business day.
</P>
<P>(i) All submissions to the Dockets Management Staff are representations that, to the best of the knowledge, information, and belief of the person making the submission, the statements made in the submission are true and accurate. All submissions are subject to the False Reports to the Government Act (18 U.S.C. 1001) under which a willfully false statement is a criminal offense.
</P>
<P>(j) The availability for public examination and copying of submissions to the Dockets Management Staff is governed by the following rules:
</P>
<P>(1) Except to the extent provided in paragraphs (j)(2) and (3) of this section, the following submissions, including all supporting material, will be on public display and will be available for public examination between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. Requests for copies of submissions will be filed and handled in accordance with subpart C of part 20:
</P>
<P>(i) Petitions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Comments on petitions, on documents published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and on similar public documents.
</P>
<P>(iii) Objections and requests for hearings filed under part 12.
</P>
<P>(iv) Material submitted at a hearing under § 12.32(a)(2) and parts 12, 13, and 15.
</P>
<P>(v) Material placed on public display under the regulations in this chapter, e.g., agency guidance documents developed under § 10.115.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Material prohibited from public disclosure under § 20.63 (clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy) and, except as provided in paragraph (j)(3) of this section, material submitted with objections and requests for hearing filed under part 12, or at a hearing under part 12 or part 13, or an alternative form of public hearing before a public advisory committee or a hearing under § 12.32(a) (2) or (3), of the following types will not be on public display, will not be available for public examination, and will not be available for copying or any other form of verbatim transcription unless it is otherwise available for public disclosure under part 20:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Safety and effectiveness information, which includes all studies and tests of an ingredient or product on animals and humans and all studies and tests on the ingredient or product for identity, stability, purity, potency, bioavailability, performance, and usefulness.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A protocol for a test or study.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Production, sales distribution, and similar information, except any compilation of information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal confidential information.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Information on product design or construction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Material submitted under paragraph (j)(2) of this section is to be segregated from all other submitted material and clearly so marked. A person who does not agree that a submission is properly subject to paragraph (j)(2) may request a ruling from the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs whose decision is final, subject to judicial review under § 20.48.
</P>
<P>(3) Material listed in paragraph (j)(2)(i) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section may be disclosed under a protective order issued by the administrative law judge or other presiding officer at a hearing referenced in paragraph (j)(2)(i). The administrative law judge or presiding officer shall permit disclosure of the data only in camera and only to the extent necessary for the proper conduct of the hearing. The administrative law judge or presiding officer shall direct to whom the information is to be made available (e.g., to parties or participants, or only to counsel for parties or participants), and persons not specifically permitted access to the data will be excluded from the in camera part of the proceeding. The administrative law judge or other presiding officer may impose other conditions or safeguards. The limited availability of material under this paragraph does not constitute prior disclosure to the public as defined in § 20.81, and no information subject to a particular order is to be submitted to or received or considered by FDA in support of a petition or other request from any other person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 49 FR 7363, Feb. 29, 1984; 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 59 FR 14363, Mar. 28, 1994; 64 FR 69190, Dec. 10, 1999; 65 FR 56477, Sept. 19, 2000; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003; 81 FR 78505, Nov. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.25   Initiation of administrative proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>An administrative proceeding may be initiated in the following three ways:
</P>
<P>(a) An interested person may petition the Commissioner to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation or order, or to take or refrain from taking any other form of administrative action. A petition must be either: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the form specified in other applicable FDA regulations, <I>e.g.,</I> the form for a color additive petition in § 71.1, for a food additive petition in § 171.1 or § 571.1, for a new drug application in § 314.50, for a request to establish or amend an import tolerance in § 510.205, for a new animal drug application in § 514.1, or
</P>
<P>(2) in the form for a citizen petition in § 10.30.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may initiate a proceeding to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation or order or take or refrain from taking any other form of administrative action. FDA has primary jurisdiction to make the initial determination on issues within its statutory mandate, and will request a court to dismiss, or to hold in abeyance its determination of or refer to the agency for administrative determination, any issue which has not previously been determined by the agency or which, if it has previously been determined, the agency concluded should be reconsidered and subject to a new administrative determination. The Commissioner may utilize any of the procedures established in this part in reviewing and making a determination on any matter initiated under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner will institute a proceeding to determine whether to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation or order, or take or refrain from taking any other form of administrative action whenever any court, on its own initiative, holds in abeyance or refers any matter to the agency for an administrative determination and the Commissioner concludes that an administrative determination is feasible within agency priorities and resources.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 86 FR 52409, Sept. 21, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.30   Citizen petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to any petition submitted by a person (including a person who is not a citizen of the United States) except to the extent that other sections of this chapter apply different requirements to a particular matter.
</P>
<P>(b) A petition (including any attachments) must be submitted in accordance with § 10.20 and, if applicable, § 10.31. The certification requirement in this section does not apply to petitions subject to the certification requirement of § 10.31. The petition must also be submitted in accordance with the following paragraphs, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Electronic submission.</I> Petitions (including any attachments) may be electronically submitted in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section and § 10.20 through <I>http://www.regulations.gov</I> at Docket No. FDA 2013-S-0610. It is only necessary to submit one copy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mail, delivery services, or other non-electronic submissions.</I> A petition (including any attachments), that is not electronically submitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, must be submitted in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section and § 10.20 and delivered to this address: Dockets Management Staff, Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. Submit two copies (original and redacted version) for confidential petitions. Otherwise, only one copy is necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petition format.</I> A petition submitted under paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section must be in accordance with § 10.20 and in the following format:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Citizen Petition
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>The undersigned submits this petition under ____ (relevant statutory sections, if known) of the ____ (Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or the Public Health Service Act or any other statutory provision for which authority has been delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs) to request the Commissioner of Food and Drugs to____ (issue, amend, or revoke a regulation or order or take or refrain from taking any other form of administrative action).
</P>
<HD2>A. Action Requested
</HD2>
<P>((1) If the petition requests the Commissioner to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation, the exact wording of the existing regulation (if any) and the proposed regulation or amendment requested.)
</P>
<P>((2) If the petition requests the Commissioner to issue, amend, or revoke an order, a copy of the exact wording of the citation to the existing order (if any) and the exact wording requested for the proposed order.)
</P>
<P>((3) If the petition requests the Commissioner to take or refrain from taking any other form of administrative action, the specific action or relief requested.)
</P>
<HD2>B. Statement of Grounds
</HD2>
<P>(A full statement, in a well-organized format, of the factual and legal grounds on which the petitioner relies, including all relevant information and views on which the petitioner relies, as well as representative information known to the petitioner which is unfavorable to the petitioner's position.)
</P>
<HD2>C. Environmental Impact
</HD2>
<P>(A) Claim for categorical exclusion under §§ 25.30, 25.31, 25.32, 25.33, or § 25.34 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.)
</P>
<HD2>D. Economic Impact
</HD2>
<P>(The following information is to be submitted only when requested by the Commissioner following review of the petition: A statement of the effect of requested action on: (1) Cost (and price) increases to industry, government, and consumers; (2) productivity of wage earners, businesses, or government; (3) competition; (4) supplies of important materials, products, or services; (5) employment; and (6) energy supply or demand.)
</P>
<HD2>E. Certification
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned certifies, that, to the best knowledge and belief of the undersigned, this petition includes all information and views on which the petition relies, and that it includes representative data and information known to the petitioner which are unfavorable to the petition.
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Signature)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Name of petitioner)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Mailing address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Telephone number)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) A petition that appears to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, § 10.20, and, if applicable, § 10.31, will be filed by the Dockets Management Staff, stamped with the date of filing, and assigned a unique docket number. The unique docket number identifies the docket file established by the Dockets Management Staff for all submissions relating to the petition, as provided in this part. Subsequent submissions relating to the matter must refer to the assigned docket number assigned in this paragraph and will be filed in the established docket file. Related petitions may be filed together and given the same docket number. The Dockets Management Staff will promptly notify the petitioner of the filing and unique docket number of the petition.
</P>
<P>(d) An interested person may submit comments to the Dockets Management Staff on a filed petition, which comments become part of the docket file. The comments are to specify the docket number of the petition and include, if applicable, the verification under § 10.31, and may support or oppose the petition in whole or in part. A request for alternative or different administrative action must be submitted as a separate petition.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The Commissioner shall, in accordance with paragraph (e)(2), rule upon each petition filed under paragraph (c) of this section, taking into consideration (i) available agency resources for the category of subject matter, (ii) the priority assigned to the petition considering both the category of subject matter involved and the overall work of the agency, and (iii) time requirements established by statute.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(4) and (5) of this section, the Commissioner shall furnish a response to each petitioner within 180 days of receipt of the petition. The response will either:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the petition, in which case the Commissioner shall concurrently take appropriate action (e.g., publication of a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice) implementing the approval;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny the petition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Dismiss the petition if at any time the Commissioner determines that changes in law, facts, or circumstances since the date on which the petition was submitted have rendered the petition moot; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide a tentative response, indicating why the agency has been unable to reach a decision on the petition, e.g., because of the existence of other agency priorities, or a need for additional information. The tentative response may also indicate the likely ultimate agency response, and may specify when a final response may be furnished.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner may grant or deny such a petition, in whole or in part, and may grant such other relief or take other action as the petition warrants. If, at any time, the Commissioner determines that changes in law, facts, or circumstances since the date on which the petition was submitted have rendered the petition moot, the Commissioner may dismiss the petition. The petitioner is to be notified of the Commissioner's decision. The decision will be placed in the public docket file and may also be in the form of a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(4) The Commissioner shall furnish a response to each petitioner within 90 days of receipt of a petition filed under section 505(j)(2)(C) of the act. The response will either approve or disapprove the petition. Agency action on a petition shall be governed by § 314.93 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commissioner intends to furnish a response to each petitioner within 150 days of receipt of a petition subject to section 505(q) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(f) If a petition filed under paragraph (c) of this section requests the Commissioner to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation, § 10.40 or § 10.50 also apply.
</P>
<P>(g) A petitioner may supplement, amend, or withdraw a petition without Agency approval and without prejudice to resubmission at any time until the Commissioner rules on the petition, unless the petition has been referred for a hearing under parts 12, 13, 14, or 15 of this chapter. After a ruling or referral, a petition may be supplemented, amended, or withdrawn only with the approval of the Commissioner. The Commissioner may approve withdrawal, with or without prejudice against resubmission of the petition.
</P>
<P>(h) In reviewing a petition the Commissioner may use the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Conferences, meetings, discussions, and correspondence under § 10.65.
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing under parts 12, 13, 14, 15, or 16.
</P>
<P>(3) A <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice requesting information and views.
</P>
<P>(4) A proposal to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation, in accordance with § 10.40 or § 12.20.
</P>
<P>(5) Any other specific public procedure established in this chapter and expressly applicable to the matter.
</P>
<P>(i) The record of the administrative proceeding consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The petition, including all information on which it relies, filed by the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) All comments received on the petition, including all information submitted as a part of the comments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the petition resulted in a proposal to issue, amend, or revoke a regulation, all of the documents specified in § 10.40(g).
</P>
<P>(4) The record, consisting of any transcripts, minutes of meetings, reports, <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices, and other documents resulting from the optional procedures specified in paragraph (h) of this section, except a transcript of a closed portion of a public advisory committee meeting.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commissioner's decision on the petition, including all information identified or filed by the Commissioner with the Dockets Management Staff as part of the record supporting the decision.
</P>
<P>(6) All documents filed with the Dockets Management Staff under § 10.65(h).
</P>
<P>(7) If a petition for reconsideration or for a stay of action is filed under paragraph (j) of this section, the administrative record specified in § 10.33(k) or § 10.35(h).
</P>
<P>(j) The administrative record specified in paragraph (i) of this section is the exclusive record for the Commissioner's decision. The record of the administrative proceeding closes on the date of the Commissioner's decision unless some other date is specified. Thereafter any interested person may submit a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33 or a petition for stay of action under § 10.35. A person who wishes to rely upon information or views not included in the administrative record shall submit them to the Commissioner with a new petition to modify the decision in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(k) This section does not apply to the referral of a matter to a United States attorney for the initiation of court enforcement action and related correspondence, or to requests, suggestions, and recommendations made informally in routine correspondence received by FDA. Routine correspondence does not constitute a petition within the meaning of this section unless it purports to meet the requirements of this section. Action on routine correspondence does not constitute final administrative action subject to judicial review under § 10.45.
</P>
<P>(l) The Dockets Management Staff will maintain a chronological list of each petition filed under this section and § 10.85, but not of petitions submitted elsewhere in the agency under § 10.25(a)(1), showing:
</P>
<P>(1) The docket number;
</P>
<P>(2) The date the petition was filed by the Dockets Management Staff;
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(4) The subject matter involved; and
</P>
<P>(5) The disposition of the petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 16656, Apr. 26, 1985; 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 57 FR 17980, Apr. 28, 1992; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997; 66 FR 6467, Jan. 22, 2001; 66 FR 12848, Mar. 1, 2001; 78 FR 76749, Dec. 19, 2013; 81 FR 78505, Nov. 8, 2016; 88 FR 45064, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.31   Citizen petitions and petitions for stay of action related to abbreviated new drug applications, certain new drug applications, or certain biologics license applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to a citizen petition or petition for stay of action that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The petition requests that the Commissioner take any form of action that could, if taken, delay approval of an abbreviated new drug application submitted under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a new drug application submitted through the pathway described by section 505(b)(2) of the Federal, Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, or a biologics license application submitted under section 351(k) of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(2) The petition is submitted on or after September 27, 2007.
</P>
<P>(3) The petition is submitted in writing and under § 10.30 (for citizen petitions) or § 10.35 (for petitions for stay of action).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Date of submission.</I> A petition subject to this section and submitted in accordance with § 10.20, § 10.30, § 10.31, or § 10.35 is regarded as submitted on the date on which the petition is received by the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification.</I> (1) FDA will not consider for review a petition that is subject to this section unless the petition is in writing and contains the following certification:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08no16.000.gif"/>
<P>(2) The certification in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must contain one or more specific dates (month, day, and year) in the first blank space provided. If different categories of information become known at different times, the certification must contain each estimated relevant date. The information associated with a particular date must be identified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification.</I> (1) FDA will not accept for review any supplemental information or comments on a petition that is subject to this section unless the supplemental information or comments are in writing and contain the following verification:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08no16.001.gif"/>
<P>(2) The verification in paragraph (d)(1) of this section must contain one or more specific dates (month, day, and year) in the first blank space provided. If different categories of information become known at different times, the verification must contain each estimated relevant date. The information associated with a particular date must be identified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 78506, Nov. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.33" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.33   Administrative reconsideration of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may at any time reconsider a matter, on the Commissioner's own initiative or on the petition of an interested person.
</P>
<P>(b) An interested person may request reconsideration of part or all of a decision of the Commissioner on a petition submitted under § 10.25. Each request for reconsideration must be submitted in accordance with § 10.20 and in the following form no later than 30 days after the date of the decision involved. The Commissioner may, for good cause, permit a petition to be filed after 30 days. In the case of a decision published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the day of publication is the day of decision.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<P>Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, rm. 1-23, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<HD1>Petition for Reconsideration
</HD1>
<HD3>[Docket No.]
</HD3>
<P>The undersigned submits this petition for reconsideration of the decision of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs in Docket No. ____.
</P>
<HD2>A. Decision involved
</HD2>
<P>(A concise statement of the decision of the Commissioner which the petitioner wishes to have reconsidered.)
</P>
<HD2>B. Action requested
</HD2>
<P>(The decision which the petitioner requests the Commissioner to make upon reconsideration of the matter.)
</P>
<HD2>C. Statement of grounds
</HD2>
<P>(A full statement, in a well-organized format, of the factual and legal grounds upon which the petitioner relies. The grounds must demonstrate that relevant information and views contained in the administrative record were not previously or not adequately considered by the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(No new information or views may be included in a petition for reconsideration.)
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Signature)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Name of petitioner)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Mailing address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Telephone number)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) A petition for reconsideration relating to a petition submitted under § 10.25(a)(2) is subject to the requirements of § 10.30 (c) and (d), except that it is filed in the same docket file as the petition to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner shall promptly review a petition for reconsideration. The Commissioner may grant the petition when the Commissioner determines it is in the public interest and in the interest of justice. The Commissioner shall grant a petition for reconsideration in any proceeding if the Commissioner determines all of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The petition demonstrates that relevant information or views contained in the administrative record were not previously or not adequately considered.
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner's position is not frivolous and is being pursued in good faith.
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner has demonstrated sound public policy grounds supporting reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(4) Reconsideration is not outweighed by public health or other public interests.
</P>
<P>(e) A petition for reconsideration may not be based on information and views not contained in the administrative record on which the decision was made. An interested person who wishes to rely on information or views not included in the administrative record shall submit them with a new petition to modify the decision under § 10.25(a).
</P>
<P>(f) The decision on a petition for reconsideration is to be in writing and placed on public display as part of the docket file on the matter in the office of the Dockets Management Staff. A determination to grant reconsideration will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Commissioner's original decision was so published. Any other determination to grant or deny reconsideration may also be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(g) The Commissioner may consider a petition for reconsideration only before the petitioner brings legal action in the courts to review the action, except that a petition may also be considered if the Commissioner has denied a petition for stay of action and the petitioner has petitioned for judicial review of the Commissioner's action and requested the reviewing court to grant a stay pending consideration of review. A petition for reconsideration submitted later than 30 days after the date of the decision involved will be denied as untimely unless the Commissioner permits the petition to be filed after 30 days. A petition for reconsideration will be considered as submitted on the day it is received by the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(h) The Commissioner may initiate the reconsideration of all or part of a matter at any time after it has been decided or action has been taken. If review of the matter is pending in the courts, the Commissioner may request that the court refer the matter back to the agency or hold its review in abeyance pending administrative reconsideration. The administrative record of the proceeding is to include all additional documents relating to such reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(i) After determining to reconsider a matter, the Commissioner shall review and rule on the merits of the matter under § 10.30(e). The Commissioner may reaffirm, modify, or overrule the prior decision, in whole or in part, and may grant such other relief or take such other action as is warranted.
</P>
<P>(j) The Commissioner's reconsideration of a matter relating to a petition submitted under § 10.25(a)(2) is subject to § 10.30 (f) through (h), (j), and (k).
</P>
<P>(k) The record of the administrative proceeding consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The record of the original petition specified in § 10.30(i).
</P>
<P>(2) The petition for reconsideration, including all information on which it relies, filed by the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(3) All comments received on the petition, including all information submitted as a part of the comments.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commissioner's decision on the petition under paragraph (f) of this section, including all information identified or filed by the Commissioner with the Dockets Management Staff as part of the record supporting the decision.
</P>
<P>(5) Any <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices or other documents resulting from the petition.
</P>
<P>(6) All documents filed with the Dockets Management Staff under § 10.65(h).
</P>
<P>(7) If the Commissioner reconsiders the matter, the administrative record relating to reconsideration specified in § 10.30(i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 66 FR 6467, Jan. 22, 2001; 66 FR 12848, Mar. 1, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.35   Administrative stay of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may at any time stay or extend the effective date of an action pending or following a decision on any matter.
</P>
<P>(b) An interested person may request the Commissioner to stay the effective date of any administrative action. A stay may be requested for a specific time period or for an indefinite time period. A request for stay must be submitted in accordance with § 10.20 and in the following form (except that a request for stay subject to § 10.31 must also include the certification provided in § 10.31(c)) no later than 30 days after the date of the decision involved. The Commissioner may, for good cause, permit a petition to be filed after 30 days. In the case of a decision published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the day of publication is the date of decision.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<P>Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<HD1>Petition for Stay of Action
</HD1>
<P>The undersigned submits this petition requesting that the Commissioner of Food and Drugs stay the effective date of the following matter.
</P>
<HD2>A. Decision involved
</HD2>
<P>(The specific administrative action being taken by the Commissioner for which a stay is requested, including the docket number or other citation to the action involved.)
</P>
<HD2>B. Action requested
</HD2>
<P>(The length of time for which the stay is requested, which may be for a specific or indefinite time period.)
</P>
<HD2>C. Statement of grounds
</HD2>
<P>(A full statement, in a well-organized format, of the factual and legal grounds upon which the petitioner relies for the stay.)
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Signature)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Name of petitioner)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Mailing address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Telephone number)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) A petition for stay of action relating to a petition submitted under § 10.25(a)(2) is subject to the requirements of § 10.30 (c) and (d), except that it will be filed in the same docket file as the petition to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(d) Neither the filing of a petition for a stay of action nor action taken by an interested person in accordance with any other administrative procedure in this part or in any other section of this chapter, e.g., the filing of a citizen petition under § 10.30 or a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33 or a request for an advisory opinion under § 10.85, will stay or otherwise delay any administrative action by the Commissioner, including enforcement action of any kind, unless one of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner determines that a stay or delay is in the public interest and stays the action.
</P>
<P>(2) A statute requires that the matter be stayed.
</P>
<P>(3) A court orders that the matter be stayed.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commissioner shall promptly review a petition for stay of action. The Commissioner may grant or deny a petition, in whole or in part; and may grant such other relief or take such other action as is warranted by the petition. If, at any time, the Commissioner determines that changes in law, facts, or circumstances since the date on which the petition was submitted have rendered the petition moot, the Commissioner may dismiss the petition. The Commissioner may grant a stay in any proceeding if it is in the public interest and in the interest of justice. The Commissioner shall grant a stay in any proceeding if all of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner will otherwise suffer irreparable injury.
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner's case is not frivolous and is being pursued in good faith.
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner has demonstrated sound public policy grounds supporting the stay.
</P>
<P>(4) The delay resulting from the stay is not outweighted by public health or other public interests.
</P>
<P>(f) The Commissioner's decision on a petition for stay of action is to be in writing and placed on public display as part of the file on the matter in the office of the Dockets Management Staff. A determination to grant a stay will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Commissioner's original decision was so published. Any other determination to grant or to deny a stay may also be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(g) A petition for a stay of action submitted later than 30 days after the date of the decision involved will be denied as untimely unless the Commissioner permits the petition to be filed after 30 days. A petition for a stay of action is considered submitted on the day it is received by the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(h) The record of the administrative proceeding consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The record of the proceeding to which the petition for stay of action is directed.
</P>
<P>(2) The petition for stay of action, including all information on which it relies, filed by the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(3) All comments received on the petition, including all information submitted as a part of the comments.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commissioner's decision on the petition under paragraph (e) of this section, including all information identified or filed by the Commissioner with the Dockets Management Staff as part of the record supporting the decision.
</P>
<P>(5) Any <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices or other documents resulting from the petition.
</P>
<P>(6) All documents filed with the Dockets Management Staff under § 10.65(h).
</P>
<P>(i) A petitioner may supplement, amend, or withdraw a petition for stay of action in writing without Agency approval and without prejudice to resubmission at any time until the Commissioner rules on the petition, provided the resubmission is made in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, unless the petition for stay of action has been referred for a hearing under parts 12, 13, 14, or 15 of this chapter. After a ruling or referral, a petition for stay of action may be supplemented, amended, or withdrawn only with the approval of the Commissioner. The Commissioner may approve withdrawal with or without prejudice against resubmission of the petition for stay of action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 66 FR 6468, Jan. 22, 2001; 66 FR 12848, Mar. 1, 2001; 81 FR 78506, Nov. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.40   Promulgation of regulations for the efficient enforcement of the law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may propose and promulgate regulations for the efficient enforcement of the laws administered by FDA whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so. The issuance, amendment, or revocation of a regulation may be initiated in any of the ways specified in § 10.25.
</P>
<P>(1) This section applies to any regulation: (i) Not subject to § 10.50 and part 12, or (ii) if it is subject to § 10.50 and part 12, to the extent that those provisions make this section applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) A regulation proposed by an interested person in a petition submitted under § 10.25(a) will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as a proposal if:
</P>
<P>(i) The petition contains facts demonstrating reasonable grounds for the proposal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The petition substantially shows that the proposal is in the public interest and will promote the objectives of the act and the agency.
</P>
<P>(3) Two or more alternative proposed regulations may be published on the same subject to obtain comment on the different alternatives.
</P>
<P>(4) A regulation proposed by an interested person in a petition submitted under § 10.25(a) may be published together with the Commissioner's preliminary views on the proposal and any alternative proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, each regulation must be the subject of a notice of proposed rulemaking published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> (1) The notice will contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature of the action, e.g., proposed rule, or notice;
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary in the first paragraph describing the substance of the document in easily understandable terms;
</P>
<P>(iv) Relevant dates, e.g., comment closing date, and proposed effective date(s);
</P>
<P>(v) The name, business address, and phone number of an agency contact person who can provide further information to the public about the notice;
</P>
<P>(vi) An address for submitting written comments;
</P>
<P>(vii) Supplementary information about the notice in the form of a preamble that summarizes the proposal and the facts and policy underlying it, includes references to all information on which the Commissioner relies for the proposal (copies or a full list of which are a part of the docket file on the matter in the office of the Dockets Management Staff), and cites the authority under which the regulation is proposed;
</P>
<P>(viii) Either the terms or substance of the proposed regulation or a description of the subjects and issues involved;
</P>
<P>(ix) A reference to the existence or lack of need for an environmental impact statement under § 25.52 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(x) The docket number of the matter, which identifies the docket file established by the Dockets Management Staff for all relevant submissions.
</P>
<P>(2) The proposal will provide 60 days for comment, although the Commissioner may shorten or lengthen this time period for good cause. In no event is the time for comment to be less than 10 days.
</P>
<P>(3) After publication of the proposed rule, any interested person may request the Commissioner to extend the comment period for an additional specified period by submitting a written request to the Dockets Management Staff stating the grounds for the request. The request is submitted under § 10.35 but should be headed “REQUEST FOR EXTENSION OF COMMENT PERIOD.”
</P>
<P>(i) A request must discuss the reason comments could not feasibly be submitted within the time permitted, or that important new information will shortly be available, or that sound public policy otherwise supports an extension of the time for comment. The Commissioner may grant or deny the request or may grant an extension for a time period different from that requested. An extension may be limited to specific persons who have made and justified the request, but will ordinarily apply to all interested persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) A comment time extension of 30 days or longer will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and will be applicable to all interested persons. A comment time extension of less than 30 days will be the subject either of a letter or memorandum filed with the Dockets Management Staff or of a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(4) A notice of proposed rulemaking will request that four copies of all comments be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, except that individuals may submit single copies. Comments will be stamped with the date of receipt and will be numbered chronologically.
</P>
<P>(5) Persons submitting comments critical of a proposed regulation are encouraged to include their preferred alternative wording.
</P>
<P>(c) After the time for comment on a proposed regulation has expired, the Commissioner will review the entire administrative record on the matter, including all comments and, in a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> will terminate the proceeding, issue a new proposal, or promulgate a final regulation.
</P>
<P>(1) The quality and persuasiveness of the comments will be the basis for the Commissioner's decision. The number or length of comments will not ordinarily be a significant factor in the decision unless the number of comments is material where the degree of public interest is a legitimate factor for consideration.
</P>
<P>(2) The decision of the Commissioner on the matter will be based solely upon the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(3) A final regulation published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> will have a preamble stating: (i) The name of the agency, (ii) the nature of the action e.g., final rule, notice, (iii) a summary first paragraph describing the substance of the document in easily understandable terms, (iv) relevant dates, e.g., the rule's effective date and comment closing date, if an opportunity for comment is provided, (v) the name, business address, and phone number of an agency contact person who can provide further information to the public about the notice, (vi) an address for the submission of written comments when they are permitted, (vii) supplementary information about the regulation in the body of the preamble that contains references to prior notices relating to the same matter and a summary of each type of comment submitted on the proposal and the Commissioner's conclusions with respect to each. The preamble is to contain a thorough and comprehensible explanation of the reasons for the Commissioner's decision on each issue.
</P>
<P>(4) The effective date of a final regulation may not be less than 30 days after the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> except for:
</P>
<P>(i) A regulation that grants an exemption or relieves a restriction; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A regulation for which the Commissioner finds, and states in the notice good cause for an earlier effective date.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions for notice and comment in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section apply only to the extent required by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551, 552, and 553). As a matter of discretion, however, the Commissioner may voluntarily follow those provisions in circumstances in which they are not required by the Administrative Procedure Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The requirements of notice and public procedure in paragraph (b) of this section do not apply in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) When the Commissioner determines for good cause that they are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. In these cases, the notice promulgating the regulation will state the reasons for the determination, and provide an opportunity for comment to determine whether the regulation should subsequently be modified or revoked. A subsequent notice based on those comments may, but need not, provide additional opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(2) Food additive and color additive petitions, which are subject to the provisions of § 12.20(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) New animal drug regulations, which are promulgated under section 512(i) of the act.
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the notice and public procedure required under paragraph (b) of this section, the Commissioner may also subject a proposed or final regulation, before or after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> to the following additional procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Conferences, meetings, discussions, and correspondence under § 10.65.
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing under parts 12, 13, 14, or 15.
</P>
<P>(3) A notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> requesting information and views before the Commissioner determines whether to propose a regulation.
</P>
<P>(4) A draft of a proposed regulation placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff. If this procedure is used, the Commissioner shall publish an appropriate notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating that the document is available and specifying the time within which comments on the draft proposal may be submitted orally or in writing.
</P>
<P>(5) A revised proposal published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> which proposal is subject to all the provisions in this section relating to proposed regulations.
</P>
<P>(6) A tentative final regulation or tentative revised final regulation placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff and, if deemed desirable by the Commissioner, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If the tentative regulation is placed on display only, the Commissioner shall publish an appropriate notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating that the document is available and specifying the time within which comments may be submitted orally or in writing on the tentative final regulation. The Commissioner shall mail a copy of the tentative final regulation and the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice to each person who submitted comments on the proposed regulation if one has been published.
</P>
<P>(7) A final regulation published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that provides an opportunity for the submission of further comments, in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Any other public procedure established in this chapter and expressly applicable to the matter.
</P>
<P>(g) The record of the administrative proceeding consists of all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the regulation was initiated by a petition, the administrative record specified in § 10.30(i).
</P>
<P>(2) If a petition for reconsideration or for a stay of action is filed, the administrative record specified in §§ 10.33(k) and 10.35(h).
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed rule published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> including all information identified or filed by the Commissioner with the Dockets Management Staff on the proposal.
</P>
<P>(4) All comments received on the proposal, including all information submitted as a part of the comments.
</P>
<P>(5) The notice promulgating the final regulation, including all information identified or filed by the Commissioner with the Dockets Management Staff as part of the administrative record of the final regulation.
</P>
<P>(6) The transcripts, minutes of meetings, reports, <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices, and other documents resulting from the procedures specified in paragraph (f) of this section, but not the transcript of a closed portion of a public advisory committee meeting.
</P>
<P>(7) All documents submitted to the Dockets Management Staff under § 10.65(h).
</P>
<P>(h) The record of the administrative proceeding closes on the date of publication of the final regulation in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless some other date is specified. Thereafter, any interested person may submit a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33 or a petition for stay of action under § 10.35. A person who wishes to rely upon information or views not included in the administrative record shall submit it to the Commissioner with a new petition to modify the final regulation.
</P>
<P>(i) The Dockets Management Staff shall maintain a chronological list of all regulations proposed and promulgated under this section and § 10.50 (which list will not include regulations resulting from petitions filed and assigned a docket number under § 10.30) showing—
</P>
<P>(1) The docket number (for a petition submitted directly to a center, the list also includes the number or other designation assigned by the center, e.g., the number assigned to a food additive petition);
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the petitioner, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) The subject matter involved; and
</P>
<P>(4) The disposition of the petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 36401, Sept. 29, 1987; 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 56 FR 13758, Apr. 4, 1991; 62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997; 66 FR 6468, Jan. 22, 2001; 66 FR 12848, Mar. 1, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.45   Court review of final administrative action; exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to court review of final administrative action taken by the Commissioner, including action taken under §§ 10.25 through 10.40 and § 16.1(b), except action subject to § 10.50 and part 12.
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the Commissioner take or refrain from taking any form of administrative action must first be the subject of a final administrative decision based on a petition submitted under § 10.25(a) or, where applicable, a hearing under § 16.1(b) before any legal action is filed in a court complaining of the action or failure to act. If a court action is filed complaining of the action or failure to act before the submission of the decision on a petition under § 10.25(a) or, where applicable, a hearing under § 16.1(b), the Commissioner shall request dismissal of the court action or referral to the agency for an initial administrative determination on the grounds of a failure to exhaust administrative remedies, the lack of final agency action as required by 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> and the lack of an actual controversy as required by 28 U.S.C. 2201.
</P>
<P>(c) A request that administrative action be stayed must first be the subject of an administrative decision based upon a petition for stay of action submitted under § 10.35 before a request is made that a court stay the action. If a court action is filed requesting a stay of administrative action before the Commissioner's decision on a petition submitted in a timely manner pursuant to § 10.35, the Commissioner shall request dismissal of the court action or referral to the agency for an initial determination on the grounds of a failure to exhaust administrative remedies, the lack of final agency action as required by 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> and the lack of an actual controversy as required by 28 U.S.C. 2201. If a court action is filed requesting a stay of administrative action after a petition for a stay of action is denied because it was submitted after expiration of the time period provided under § 10.35, or after the time for submitting such a petition has expired, the Commissioner will request dismissal of the court action on the ground of a failure to exhaust administrative remedies.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise provided, the Commissioner's final decision constitutes final agency action (reviewable in the courts under 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I> and, where appropriate, 28 U.S.C. 2201) on a petition submitted under § 10.25(a), on a petition for reconsideration submitted under § 10.33, on a petition for stay of action submitted under § 10.35, on an advisory opinion issued under § 10.85, on a matter involving administrative action which is the subject of an opportunity for a hearing under § 16.1(b) of this chapter, or on the issuance of a final regulation published in accordance with § 10.40, except that the agency's response to a petition filed under section 505(j)(2)(C) of the act (21 U.S.C. 355(j)(2)(C)) and § 314.93 of this chapter will not constitute final agency action until any petition for reconsideration submitted by the petitioner is acted on by the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(1) It is the position of FDA except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Final agency action exhausts all administrative remedies and is ripe for preenforcement judicial review as of the date of the final decision, unless applicable law explicitly requires that the petitioner take further action before judicial review is available;
</P>
<P>(ii) An interested person is affected by, and thus has standing to obtain judicial review of final agency action; and
</P>
<P>(iii) It is not appropriate to move to dismiss a suit for preenforcement judicial review of final agency action on the ground that indispenable parties are not joined or that it is an unconsented suit against the United States if the defect could be cured by amending the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner shall object to judicial review of a matter if:
</P>
<P>(i) The matter is committed by law to the discretion of the Commissioner, e.g., a decision to recommend or not to recommend civil or criminal enforcement action under sections 302, 303, and 304 of the act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Review is not sought in a proper court.
</P>
<P>(e) An interested person may request judicial review of a final decision of the Commissioner in the courts without first petitioning the Commissioner for reconsideration or for a stay of action, except that in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, the person shall request a stay by the Commissioner under § 10.35 before requesting a stay by the court.
</P>
<P>(f) The Commissioner shall take the position in an action for judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> whether or not it includes a request for a declaratory judgment under 28 U.S.C. 2201, or in any other case in which the validity of administrative action is properly challenged, that the validity of the action must be determined solely on the basis of the administrative record specified in §§ 10.30(i), 10.33(k), 10.35(h), 10.40(g), and 16.80(a) or the administrative record applicable to any decision or action under the regulations referenced in § 16.1(b), and that additional information or views may not be considered. An interested person who wishes to rely upon information or views not included in the administrative record shall submit them to the Commissioner with a new petition to modify the action under § 10.25(a).
</P>
<P>(g) The Commissioner requests that all petitions for judicial review of a particular matter be filed in a single U.S. District court. If petitions are filed in more than one jurisdiction, the Commissioner will take appropriate action to prevent a multiplicity of suits in various jurisdictions, such as:
</P>
<P>(1) A request for transfer of one or more suits to consolidate separate actions, under 28 U.S.C. 1404(a) or 28 U.S.C. 2112(a);
</P>
<P>(2) A request that actions in all but one jurisdiction be stayed pending the conclusion of one proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) A request that all but one action be dismissed pending the conclusion of one proceeding, with the suggestion that the other plaintiffs intervene in that one suit; or
</P>
<P>(4) A request that one of the suits be maintained as a class action in behalf of all affected persons.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) For the purpose of 28 U.S.C. 2112(a), a copy of any petition filed in any U.S. Court of Appeals challenging a final action of the Commissioner shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, or by personal delivery to the Chief Counsel of FDA. The petition copy shall be time-stamped by the clerk of the court when the original is filed with the court. The petition copy should be addressed to: Office of the Chief Counsel (GCF-1), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857. The Chief Counsel requests that the purpose of all petitions mailed or delivered to the Office of Chief Counsel to satisfy 28 U.S.C. 2112(a) be clearly identified in a cover letter.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Chief Counsel receives two or more petitions filed in two or more U.S. Courts of Appeals for review of any agency action within 10 days of the effective date of that action for the purpose of judicial review, the Chief Counsel will notify the U.S. Judicial Panel on Multidistrict Litigation of any petitions that were received within the 10-day period, in accordance with the applicable rule of the panel.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of determining whether a petition for review has been received within the 10-day period under paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the petition shall be considered to be received on the date of delivery, if personally delivered. If the delivery is accomplished by mail, the date of receipt shall be the date noted on the return receipt card.
</P>
<P>(i) Upon judicial review of administrative action under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) If a court determines that the administrative record is inadequate to support the action, the Commissioner shall determine whether to proceed with such action. (i) If the Commissioner decides to proceed with the action, the court will be requested to remand the matter to the agency to reopen the administrative proceeding and record, or on the Commissioner's own initiative the administrative proceeding and record may be reopened upon receipt of the court determination. A reopened administrative proceeding will be conducted under the provisions of this part and in accordance with any directions of the court.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Commissioner concludes that the public interest requires that the action remain in effect pending further administrative proceedings, the court will be requested not to stay the matter in the interim and the Commissioner shall expedite the further administrative proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) If a court determines that the administrative record is adequate, but the rationale for the action must be further explained:
</P>
<P>(i) The Commissioner shall request either that further explanation be provided in writing directly to the court without further administrative proceedings, or that the administrative proceeding be reopened in accordance with paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Commissioner concludes that the public interest requires that the action remain in effect pending further court or administrative proceedings, the court will be requested not to stay the matter in the interim and the Commissioner shall expedite the further proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 6886, Feb. 15, 1989; 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 57 FR 17980, Apr. 28, 1992; 65 FR 56477, Sept. 19, 2000; 69 FR 31705, June 4, 2004] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.50   Promulgation of regulations and orders after an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner shall promulgate regulations and orders after an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing under part 12 whenever all of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The subject matter of the regulation or order is subject by statute to an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) The person requesting the hearing has a right to an opportunity for a hearing and submits adequate justification for the hearing as required by §§ 12.20 through 12.22 and other applicable provisions in this chapter, e.g., §§ 314.200, 514.200, and 601.7(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may order a formal evidentiary public hearing on any matter whenever it would be in the public interest to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of the act, and other laws, that afford a person who would be adversely affected by administrative action an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing as listed below. The list imparts no right to a hearing where the statutory section provides no opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(1) Section 401 on any action for the amendment or repeal of any definition and standard of identity for any dairy product (including products regulated under parts 131, 133, and 135 of this chapter) or maple sirup (regulated under § 168.140 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(2) Section 403(j) on regulations for labeling of foods for special dietary uses.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 404(a) on regulations for emergency permit control.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 406 on tolerances for poisonous substances in food.
</P>
<P>(5) Section 409 (c), (d), and (h) on food additive regulations.
</P>
<P>(6) Section 501(b) on tests or methods of assay for drugs described in official compendia.
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) Section 502(h) on regulations designating requirements for drugs liable to deterioration.
</P>
<P>(9) Section 502(n) on prescription drug advertising regulations.
</P>
<P>(10)-(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) Section 512(n)(5) on regulations for animal antibiotic drugs and certification requirements.
</P>
<P>(13) Section 721 (b) and (c) on regulations for color additive listing and certification.
</P>
<P>(14) Section 4(a) of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act on food, drug, device, and cosmetic labeling.
</P>
<P>(15) Section 5(c) of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act on additional economic regulations for food, drugs, devices, and cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(16) Section 505 (d) and (e) on new drug applications.
</P>
<P>(17) Section 512 (d), (e) and (m) (3) and (4) on new animal drug applications.
</P>
<P>(18) Section 515(g) on device premarket approval applications and product development protocols.
</P>
<P>(19) Section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act on a biologics license for a biological product.
</P>
<P>(20) Section 306 on debarment, debarment period and considerations, termination of debarment under section 306(d)(3), suspension, and termination of suspension.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9034, Mar. 3, 1989; 58 FR 49190, Sept. 22, 1993; 60 FR 38626, July 27, 1995; 63 FR 26697, May 13, 1998; 64 FR 398, Jan. 5, 1999; 64 FR 56448, Oct. 20, 1999; 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.55   Separation of functions; ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to any matter subject by statute to an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing, as listed in § 10.50(c), and any matter subject to a hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry under part 13.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a matter listed in § 10.50(c) (1) through (10) and (12) through (15):
</P>
<P>(1) An interested person may meet or correspond with any FDA representative concerning a matter prior to publication of a notice announcing a formal evidentiary public hearing or a hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry on the matter; the provisions of § 10.65 apply to the meetings and correspondence; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon publication of a notice announcing a formal evidentiary public hearing or a hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry, the following separation of functions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The center responsible for the matter is, as a party to the hearing, responsible for all investigative functions and for presentation of the position of the center at the hearing and in any pleading or oral argument before the Commissioner. Representatives of the center may not participate or advise in any decision except as witness or counsel in public proceedings. There is to be no other communication between representatives of the center and representatives of the office of the Commissioner concerning the matter before the decision of the Commissioner. The Commissioner may, however, designate representatives of a center to advise the office of the Commissioner, or designate members of that office to advise a center. The designation will be in writing and filed with the Dockets Management Staff no later than the time specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for the application of separation of functions. All members of FDA other than representatives of the involved center (except those specifically designated otherwise) shall be available to advise and participate with the office of the Commissioner in its functions relating to the hearing and the final decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Chief Counsel for FDA shall designate members of the office of General Counsel to advise and participate with the center in its functions in the hearing and members who are to advise the office of the Commissioner in its functions related to the hearing and the final decision. The members of the office of General Counsel designated to advise the center may not participate or advise in any decision of the Commissioner except as counsel in public proceedings. The designation is to be in the form of a memorandum filed with the Dockets Management Staff and made a part of the administrative record in the proceeding. There may be no other communication between those members of the office of General Counsel designated to advise the office of the Commissioner and any other persons in the office of General Counsel or in the involved center with respect to the matter prior to the decision of the Commissioner. The Chief Counsel may assign new attorneys to advise either the center or the office of the Commissioner at any stage of the proceedings. The Chief Counsel will ordinarily advise and participate with the office of the Commissioner in its functions relating to the hearing and the final decision.
</P>
<P>(iii) The office of the Commissioner is responsible for the agency review and final decision of the matter, with the advice and participation of anyone in FDA other than representatives of the involved center and those members of the office of General Counsel designated to assist in the center's functions in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) In a matter listed in § 10.50(c) (11) and (16) through (19), the provisions relating to separation of functions set forth in §§ 314.200(f), 514.200, and 601.7(a) are applicable before publication of a notice announcing a formal evidentiary public hearing or a hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry. Following publication of the notice of hearing, the rules in paragraph (b)(2) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, between the date that separation of functions applies under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section and the date of the Commissioner's decision on the matter, communication concerning the matter involved in the hearing will be restricted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No person outside the agency may have an ex parte communication with the presiding officer or any person representing the office of the Commissioner concerning the matter in the hearing. Neither the presiding officer nor any person representing the office of the Commissioner may have any ex parte communication with a person outside the agency concerning the matter in the hearing. All communications are to be public communications, as witness or counsel, under the applicable provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A participant in the hearing may submit a written communication to the office of the Commissioner with respect to a proposal for settlement. These communications are to be in the form of pleadings, served on all other participants, and filed with the Dockets Management Staff like any other pleading.
</P>
<P>(3) A written communication contrary to this section must be immediately served on all other participants and filed with the Dockets Management Staff by the presiding officer at the hearing, or by the Commissioner, depending on who received the communication. An oral communication contrary to this section must be immediately recorded in a written memorandum and similarly served on all other participants and filed with the Dockets Management Staff. A person, including a representative of a participant in the hearing, who is involved in an oral communication contrary to this section, must, if possible, be made available for cross-examination during the hearing with respect to the substance of that conversation. Rebuttal testimony pertinent to a written or oral communication contrary to this section will be permitted. Cross-examination and rebuttal testimony will be transcribed and filed with the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(e) The prohibitions specified in paragraph (d) of this section apply to a person who knows of a notice of hearing in advance of its publication from the time the knowledge is acquired.
</P>
<P>(f) The making of a communication contrary to this section may, consistent with the interests of justice and the policy of the underlying statute, result in a decision adverse to the person knowingly making or causing the making of such a communication.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 8994, Mar. 6, 1985; 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 64 FR 398, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.60   Referral by court.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies when a Federal, State, or local court holds in abeyance, or refers to the Commissioner, any matter for an initial administrative determination under § 10.25(c) or § 10.45(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner shall promptly agree or decline to accept a court referral. Whenever feasible in light of agency priorities and resources, the Commissioner shall agree to accept a referral and shall proceed to determine the matter referred.
</P>
<P>(c) In reviewing the matter, the Commissioner may use the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Conferences, meetings, discussions, and correspondence under § 10.65.
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing under parts 12, 13, 14, 15, or 16.
</P>
<P>(3) A notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> requesting information and views.
</P>
<P>(4) Any other public procedure established in other sections of this chapter and expressly applicable to the matter under those provisions.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commissioner's review of the matter results in a proposed rule, the provisions of § 10.40 or § 10.50 also apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.65" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.65   Meetings and correspondence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to public hearings and proceedings established under this part and other sections of this chapter, meetings may be held and correspondence may be exchanged between representatives of FDA and an interested person outside FDA on a matter within the jurisdiction of the laws administered by the Commissioner. Action on meetings and correspondence does not constitute final administrative action subject to judicial review under § 10.45.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may conclude that it would be in the public interest to hold an open public meeting to discuss a matter (or class of matters) pending before FDA, in which any interested person may participate.
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner shall inform the public of the time and place of the meeting and of the matters to be discussed.
</P>
<P>(2) The meeting will be informal, i.e., any interested person may attend and participate in the discussion without prior notice to the agency unless the notice of the meeting specifies otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) Every person outside the Federal Government may request a private meeting with a representative of FDA in agency offices to discuss a matter. FDA will make reasonable efforts to accommodate such requests.
</P>
<P>(1) The person requesting a meeting may be accompanied by a reasonable number of employees, consultants, or other persons with whom there is a commercial arrangement within the meaning of § 20.81(a) of this chapter. Neither FDA nor any other person may require the attendance of a person who is not an employee of the executive branch of the Federal Government without the agreement of the person requesting the meeting. Any person may attend by mutual consent of the person requesting the meeting and FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will determine which representatives of the agency will attend the meeting. The person requesting the meeting may request, but not require or preclude, the attendance of a specific FDA employee.
</P>
<P>(3) A person who wishes to attend a private meeting, but who is not invited to attend either by the person requesting the meeting or by FDA, or who otherwise cannot attend the meeting, may request a separate meeting with FDA to discuss the same matter or an additional matter.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA employees have a responsibility to meet with all segments of the public to promote the objectives of the laws administered by the agency. In pursuing this responsibility, the following general policy applies where agency employees are invited by persons outside the Federal Government to attend or participate in meetings outside agency offices as representatives of the agency.
</P>
<P>(1) A person outside the executive branch may invite an agency representative to attend or participate in a meeting outside agency offices. The agency representative is not obligated to attend or participate, but may do so where it is in the public interest and will promote the objectives of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency representative may request that the meeting be open if that would be in the public interest. The agency representative may decline to participate in a meeting held as a private meeting if that will best serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) An agency representative may not knowingly participate in a meeting that is closed on the basis of gender, race, or religion.
</P>
<P>(e) An official transcript, recording, or memorandum summarizing the substance of any meeting described in this section will be prepared by a representative of FDA when the agency determines that such documentation will be useful.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA promptly will file in the appropriate administrative file memoranda of meetings prepared by FDA representatives and all correspondence, including any written summary of a meeting from a participant, that relate to a matter pending before the agency.
</P>
<P>(g) Representatives of FDA may initiate a meeting or correspondence on any matter concerning the laws administered by the Commissioner. Unless otherwise required by law, meetings may be public or private at FDA's discretion.
</P>
<P>(h) A meeting of an advisory committee is subject to the requirements of part 14 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6468, Jan. 22, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.70   Documentation of significant decisions in administrative file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to every significant FDA decision on any matter under the laws administered by the Commissioner, whether it is raised formally, for example, by a petition or informally, for example, by correspondence.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA employees responsible for handling a matter are responsible for insuring the completeness of the administrative file relating to it. The file must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate documentation of the basis for the decision, including relevant evaluations, reviews, memoranda, letters, opinions of consultants, minutes of meetings, and other pertinent written documents; and
</P>
<P>(2) The recommendations and decisions of individual employees, including supervisory personnel, responsible for handling the matter.
</P>
<P>(i) The recommendations and decisions are to reveal significant controversies or differences of opinion and their resolution.
</P>
<P>(ii) An agency employee working on a matter and, consistent with the prompt completion of other assignments, an agency employee who has worked on a matter may record individual views on that matter in a written memorandum, which is to be placed in the file.
</P>
<P>(c) A written document placed in an administrative file must:
</P>
<P>(1) Relate to the factual, scientific, legal or related issues under consideration;
</P>
<P>(2) Be dated and signed by the author;
</P>
<P>(3) Be directed to the file, to appropriate supervisory personnel, and to other appropriate employees, and show all persons to whom copies were sent;
</P>
<P>(4) Avoid defamatory language, intemperate remarks, undocumented charges, or irrelevant matters (e.g., personnel complaints);
</P>
<P>(5) If it records the views, analyses, recommendations, or decisions of an agency employee in addition to the author, be given to the other employees; and
</P>
<P>(6) Once completed (i.e., typed in final form, dated, and signed) not be altered or removed. Later additions to or revisions of the document must be made in a new document.
</P>
<P>(d) Memoranda or other documents that are prepared by agency employees and are not in the administrative file have no status or effect.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA employees working on a matter have access to the administrative file on that matter, as appropriate for the conduct of their work. FDA employees who have worked on a matter have access to the administrative file on that matter so long as attention to their assignments is not impeded. Reasonable restrictions may be placed upon access to assure proper cataloging and storage of documents, the availability of the file to others, and the completeness of the file for review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.75" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.75   Internal agency review of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A decision of an FDA employee, other than the Commissioner, on a matter, is subject to review by the employee's supervisor under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) At the request of the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) On the initiative of the supervisor.
</P>
<P>(3) At the request of an interested person outside the agency.
</P>
<P>(4) As required by delegations of authority.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The review will be made by consultation between the employee and the supervisor or by review of the administrative file on the matter, or both. The review will ordinarily follow the established agency channels of supervision or review for that matter.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor, applicant, or manufacturer of a drug or device regulated under the act or the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262), may request review of a scientific controversy by an appropriate scientific advisory panel as described in section 505(n) of the act, or an advisory committee as described in section 515(g)(2)(B) of the act. The reason(s) for any denial of a request for such review shall be briefly set forth in writing to the requester. Persons who receive a Center denial of their request under this section may submit a request for review of the denial. The request should be sent to the Chief Mediator and Ombudsman.
</P>
<P>(c) An interested person outside the agency may request internal agency review of a decision through the established agency channels of supervision or review. Personal review of these matters by center directors or the office of the Commissioner will occur for any of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To resolve an issue that cannot be resolved at lower levels within the agency (e.g., between two parts of a center or other component of the agency, between two centers or other components of the agency, or between the agency and an interested person outside the agency).
</P>
<P>(2) To review policy matters requiring the attention of center or agency management.
</P>
<P>(3) In unusual situations requiring an immediate review in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(4) As required by delegations of authority.
</P>
<P>(d) Internal agency review of a decision must be based on the information in the administrative file. If an interested person presents new information not in the file, the matter will be returned to the appropriate lower level in the agency for reevaluation based on the new information.
</P>
<P>(e) Each request by an interested person for review of a decision within the Center for Devices and Radiological Health shall also comply with § 800.75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 8994, Mar. 6, 1985; 63 FR 63982, Nov. 18, 1998; 84 FR 31477, July 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.80   Dissemination of draft Federal Register notices and regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A representative of FDA may discuss orally or in writing with an interested person ideas and recommendations for notices or regulations. FDA welcomes assistance in developing ideas for, and in gathering the information to support, notices and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) (1) Once it is determined that a notice or proposed regulation will be prepared, the general concepts may be discussed by a representative of FDA with an interested person. Details of a draft of a notice or proposed regulation may be discussed with a person outside the executive branch only with the specific permission of the Commissioner. The permission must be in writing and filed with the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) A draft of a notice or proposed regulation or its preamble, or a portion of either, may be furnished to an interested person outside the executive branch only if it is made available to all interested persons by a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A draft of a notice or proposed regulation made available in this manner may, without the prior permission of the Commissioner, be discussed with an interested person to clarify and resolve questions raised and concerns expressed about the draft.
</P>
<P>(c) After publication of a notice or proposed regulation in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and before preparation of a draft of the final notice or regulation, a representative of FDA may discuss the proposal with an interested person as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) (1) Details of a draft of a final notice or regulation may be discussed with an interested person outside the executive branch only with the specific permission of the Commissioner. The permission must be in writing and filed with the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) A draft of a final notice or regulation or its preamble, or any portion of either, may be furnished to an interested person outside the executive branch only if it is made available to all interested persons by a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section. A draft of a final notice or regulation made available to an interested person in this manner may, without the prior permission of the Commissioner, be discussed as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The final notice or regulation and its preamble will be prepared solely on the basis of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(ii) If additional technical information from a person outside the executive branch is necessary to draft the final notice or regulation or its preamble, it will be requested by FDA in general terms and furnished directly to the Dockets Management Staff to be included as part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(iii) If direct discussion by FDA of a draft of a final notice or regulation or its preamble is required with a person outside the executive branch, appropriate protective procedures will be undertaken to make certain that a full and impartial administrative record is established. Such procedures may include either:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The scheduling of an open public meeting under § 10.65(b) at which interested persons may participate in review of and comment on the draft document; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The preparation of a tentative final regulation or tentative revised final regulation under § 10.40(f)(6), on which interested persons will be given an additional period of time for oral and written comment.
</P>
<P>(e) After a final regulation is published, an FDA representative may discuss any aspect of it with an interested person.
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the requirements of this section, the provisions of § 10.55 apply to the promulgation of a regulation subject to § 10.50 and part 12.
</P>
<P>(g) A draft of a final food additive color additive, or new animal drug regulation may be furnished to the petitioner for comment on the technical accuracy of the regulation. Every meeting with a petitioner relating to the draft will be recorded in a written memorandum, and all memoranda and correspondence will be filed with the Dockets Management Staff as part of the administrative record of the regulation under the provisions of § 10.65.


</P>
<P>(h) In accordance with section 534 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Commissioner shall consult with interested persons and with the Technical Electronic Product Radiation Safety Standards Committee (TEPRSSC) before prescribing any performance standard for an electronic product. Accordingly, the Commissioner shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> an announcement when a proposed or final performance standard, including any amendment, is being considered for an electronic product, and any draft of any proposed or final standard will be furnished to an interested person upon request and may be discussed in detail.
</P>
<P>(i) The provisions of § 10.65 apply to meetings and correspondence relating to draft notices and regulations.
</P>
<P>(j) The provisions of this section restricting discussion and disclosure of draft notices and regulations do not apply to situations covered by §§ 20.83 through 20.89.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 64 FR 398, Jan. 5, 1999; 88 FR 16879, Mar. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.85" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.85   Advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An interested person may request an advisory opinion from the Commissioner on a matter of general applicability.
</P>
<P>(1) The request will be granted whenever feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) The request may be denied if:
</P>
<P>(i) The request contains incomplete information on which to base an informed advisory opinion;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner concludes that an advisory opinion cannot reasonably be given on the matter involved;
</P>
<P>(iii) The matter is adequately covered by a prior advisory opinion or a regulation;
</P>
<P>(iv) The request covers a particular product or ingredient or label and does not raise a policy issue of broad applicability; or
</P>
<P>(v) The Commissioner otherwise concludes that an advisory opinion would not be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for an advisory opinion is to be submitted in accordance with § 10.20, is subject to the provisions of § 10.30 (c) through (l), and must be in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<P>Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<HD1>Request for Advisory Opinion
</HD1>
<P>The undersigned submits this request for an advisory opinion of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs with respect to ______ (the general nature of the matter involved).
</P>
<P>A. <I>Issues involved.</I>
</P>
<P>(A concise statement of the issues and questions on which an opinion is requested.)
</P>
<P>B. <I>Statement of facts and law.</I>
</P>
<P>(A full statement of all facts and legal points relevant to the request.)
</P>
<P>The undersigned certifies that, to the best of his/her knowledge and belief, this request includes all data, information, and views relevant to the matter, whether favorable or unfavorable to the position of the undersigned, which is the subject of the request.
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Signature)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Person making request)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Mailing address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Telephone number)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The Commissioner may respond to an oral or written request to the agency as a request for an advisory opinion, in which case the request will be filed with the Dockets Management Staff and be subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement of policy or interpretation made in the following documents, unless subsequently repudiated by the agency or overruled by a court, will constitute an advisory opinion:
</P>
<P>(1) Any portion of a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice other than the text of a proposed or final regulation, e.g., a notice to manufacturers or a preamble to a proposed or final regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) Trade Correspondence (T.C. Nos. 1-431 and 1A-8A) issued by FDA between 1938 and 1946.
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance policy guides issued by FDA beginning in 1968 and codified in the Compliance Policy Guides manual.
</P>
<P>(4) Other documents specifically identified as advisory opinions, e.g., advisory opinions on the performance standard for diagnostic X-ray systems, issued before July 1, 1975, and filed in a permanent public file for prior advisory opinions maintained by the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)” and adding in its place “(the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>)
</P>
<P>(e) An advisory opinion represents the formal position of FDA on a matter and except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, obligates the agency to follow it until it is amended or revoked. The Commissioner may not recommend legal action against a person or product with respect to an action taken in conformity with an advisory opinion which has not been amended or revoked.
</P>
<P>(f) In unusual situations involving an immediate and significant danger to health, the Commissioner may take appropriate civil enforcement action contrary to an advisory opinion before amending or revoking the opinion. This action may be taken only with the approval of the Commissioner, who may not delegate this function. Appropriate amendment or revocation of the advisory opinion involved will be expedited.
</P>
<P>(g) An advisory opinion may be amended or revoked at any time after it has been issued. Notice of amendment or revocation will be given in the same manner as notice of the advisory opinion was originally given or in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and will be placed on public display as part of the file on the matter in the office of the Dockets Management Staff. The Dockets Management Staff shall maintain a separate chronological index of all advisory opinions filed. The index will specify the date of the request for the advisory opinion, the date of the opinion, and identification of the appropriate file.
</P>
<P>(h) Action undertaken or completed in conformity with an advisory opinion which has subsequently been amended or revoked is acceptable to FDA unless the Commissioner determines that substantial public interest considerations preclude continued acceptance. Whenever possible, an amended or revoked advisory opinion will state when action previously undertaken or completed does not remain acceptable, and any transition period that may be applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person may submit written comments on an advisory opinion or modified advisory opinion. Four copies of any comments are to be sent to the Dockets Management Staff for inclusion in the public file on the advisory opinion. Individuals may submit only one copy. Comments will be considered in determining whether further modification of an advisory opinion is warranted.
</P>
<P>(j) An advisory opinion may be used in administrative or court proceedings to illustrate acceptable and unacceptable procedures or standards, but not as a legal requirement.
</P>
<P>(k) A statement made or advice provided by an FDA employee constitutes an advisory opinion only if it is issued in writing under this section. A statement or advice given by an FDA employee orally, or given in writing but not under this section or § 10.90, is an informal communication that represents the best judgment of that employee at that time but does not constitute an advisory opinion, does not necessarily represent the formal position of FDA, and does not bind or otherwise obligate or commit the agency to the views expressed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 65 FR 56477, Sept. 19, 2000; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.90   Food and Drug Administration regulations, recommendations, and agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulations.</I> FDA regulations are issued in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 10.40 or § 10.50 and codified in the Code of Federal Regulations. Regulations may contain provisions that will be enforced as legal requirements, or which are intended only as guidance documents and recommendations, or both. The dissemination of draft notices and regulations is subject to § 10.80.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recommendations.</I> In addition to the guidance documents subject to § 10.115, FDA often formulates and disseminates recommendations about matters which are authorized by, but do not involve direct regulatory action under, the laws administered by the Commissioner, e.g., model State and local ordinances, or personnel practices for reducing radiation exposure, issued under 42 U.S.C. 243 and 21 U.S.C. 360ii. These recommendations may, in the discretion of the Commissioner, be handled under the procedures established in § 10.115, except that the recommendations will be included in a separate public file of recommendations established by the Dockets Management Staff and will be separated from the guidance documents in the notice of availability published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as regulations under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agreements.</I> Formal agreements, memoranda of understanding, or other similar written documents executed by FDA and another person will be included in the public file on agreements established by the Division of Freedom of Information  (ELEM-1029)” and adding in its place “(the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>) under § 20.108. A document not included in the public file is deemed to be rescinded and has no force or effect whatever.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 65 FR 56477, Sept. 19, 2000; 75 FR 16346, Apr. 1, 2010; 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.95" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.95   Participation in outside standard-setting activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section applies to participation by FDA employees in standard-setting activities outside the agency. Standard-setting activities include matters such as the development of performance characteristics, testing methodology, manufacturing practices, product standards, scientific protocols, compliance criteria, ingredient specifications, labeling, or other technical or policy criteria. FDA encourages employee participation in outside standard-setting activities that are in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard-setting activities by other Federal Government agencies.</I> (1) An FDA employee may participate in these activities after approval of the activity under procedures specified in the current agency Staff Manual Guide.
</P>
<P>(2) Approval forms and all pertinent background information describing the activity will be included in the public file on standard-setting activities established by the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)” and adding in its place “(the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) If a member of the public is invited by FDA to present views to, or to accompany, the FDA employee at a meeting, the invitations will be extended to a representative sampling of the public, including consumer groups, industry associations, professional societies, and academic institutions.
</P>
<P>(4) An FDA employee appointed as the liaison representative to an activity shall refer all requests for information about or participation in the activity to the group or organization responsible for the activity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard-setting activities by State and local government agencies and by United Nations organizations and other international organizations and foreign governments pursuant to treaty.</I> (1) An FDA employee may participate in these activities after approval of the activity under procedures specified in the current agency Staff Manual Guide.
</P>
<P>(2) Approval forms and all pertinent background information describing the activity will be included in the public file on standard-setting activities established by the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)” and adding in its place “(the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) The availability for public disclosure of records relating to the activity will be governed by part 20.
</P>
<P>(4) If a member of the public is invited by FDA to present views to, or to accompany, the FDA employee at a meeting, the invitation will be extended to a representative sampling of the public, including consumer groups, industry associations, professional societies, and academic institutions.
</P>
<P>(5) An FDA employee appointed as the liaison representative to an activity shall refer all requests for information about or participation in the activity to the group or organization responsible for the activity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standard-setting activities by private groups and organizations.</I> (1) An FDA employee may engage in these activities after approval of the activity under procedures specified in the current agency Staff Manual Guide. A request for official participation must be made by the group or organization in writing, must describe the scope of the activity, and must demonstrate that the minimum standards set out in paragraph (d)(5) of this section are met. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, a request that is granted will be the subject of a letter from the Commissioner or the center director to the organization stating—
</P>
<P>(i) Whether participation by the individual will be as a voting or nonvoting liaison representative;
</P>
<P>(ii) That participation by the individual does not connote FDA agreement with, or endorsement of, any decisions reached; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That participation by the individual precludes service as the deciding official on the standard involved if it should later come before FDA. The deciding official is the person who signs a document ruling upon the standard.
</P>
<P>(2) The letter requesting official FDA participation, the approval form, and the Commissioner's or center director's letter, together with all pertinent background information describing the activities involved, will be included in the public file on standard-setting activities established by the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)” and adding in its place “(the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) The availability for public disclosure of records relating to the activities will be governed by part 20.
</P>
<P>(4) An FDA employee appointed as the liaison representative to an activity shall refer all requests for information about or participation in the activity to the group or organization responsible for the activity.
</P>
<P>(5) The following minimum standards apply to an outside private standard-setting activity in which FDA employees participate:
</P>
<P>(i) The activity will be based upon consideration of sound scientific and technological information, will permit revision on the basis of new information, and will be designed to protect the public against unsafe, ineffective, or deceptive products or practices.
</P>
<P>(ii) The activity and resulting standards will not be designed for the economic benefit of any company, group, or organization, will not be used for such antitrust violations as fixing prices or hindering competition, and will not involve establishment of certification or specific approval of individual products or services.
</P>
<P>(iii) The group or organization responsible for the standard-setting activity must have a procedure by which an interested person will have an opportunity to provide information and views on the activity and standards involved, without the payment of fees, and the information and views will be considered. How this is accomplished, including whether the presentation will be in person or in writing, will be decided by the group or organization responsible for the activity.
</P>
<P>(6) Membership of an FDA employee in an organization that also conducts a standard-setting activity does not invoke the provisions of this section unless the employee participates in the standard-setting activity. Participation in a standard-setting activity is subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(7) The Commissioner may determine in writing that, because direct involvement by FDA in a particular standard-setting activity is in the public interest and will promote the objectives of the act and the agency, the participation is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) (ii) and/or (iii) of this section. This determination will be included in the public file on standard-setting activities established by the Division of Freedom of Information  (ELEM-1029)” and adding in its place “(the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>) and in any relevant administrative file. The activity may include the establishment and validation of analytical methods for regulatory use, drafting uniform laws and regulations, and the development of recommendations concerning public health and preventive medicine practices by national and international organizations.
</P>
<P>(8) Because of the close daily cooperation between FDA and the associations of State and local government officials listed below in this paragraph, and the large number of agency employees who are members of or work with these associations, participation in the activities of these associations is exempt from paragraphs (d)(1) through (7) of this section, except that a list of the committees and other groups of these associations will be included in the public file on standard-setting activities established by the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)” and adding in its place “(the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(i) American Association of Food Hygiene Veterinarians (AAFHV).
</P>
<P>(ii) American Public Health Association (APHA).
</P>
<P>(iii) Association of American Feed Control Officials, Inc. (AAFCO).
</P>
<P>(iv) Association of Food and Drug Officials (AFDO).
</P>
<P>(v) AOAC INTERNATIONAL (AOAC).
</P>
<P>(vi) Association of State and Territorial Health Officials (ASTHO).
</P>
<P>(vii) Conference for Food Protection (CFP).
</P>
<P>(viii) Conference of State Health and Environmental Managers (COSHEM).
</P>
<P>(ix) Conference of Radiation Control Program Directors (CRCPD).
</P>
<P>(x) International Association of Milk, Food, and Environmental Sanitation, Inc. (IAMFES).
</P>
<P>(xi) Interstate Shellfish Sanitation Conference (ISSC).
</P>
<P>(xii) National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP).
</P>
<P>(xiii) National Association of Departments of Agriculture (NADA).
</P>
<P>(xiv) National Conference on Interstate Milk Shipments (NCIMS).
</P>
<P>(xv) National Conference of Local Environmental Health Administrators (NCLEHA).
</P>
<P>(xvi) National Conference on Weights and Measures (NCWW).
</P>
<P>(xvii) National Environmental Health Association (NEHA).
</P>
<P>(xviii) National Society of Professional Sanitarians (NSPS).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22323, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8455, Jan. 27, 1981; 52 FR 35064, Sept. 17, 1987; 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.100   Public calendar.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public calendar.</I> A public calendar will be prepared and made publicly available by FDA each week showing, to the extent feasible, significant events of the previous week, including significant meetings with persons outside the executive branch, that involve the representatives of FDA designated under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Public calendar entries will include:
</P>
<P>(i) Significant meetings with members of the judiciary, representatives of Congress, or staffs of congressional committees when the meeting relates to a pending court case, administrative hearing, or other regulatory action or decision;
</P>
<P>(ii) Significant meetings, conferences, seminars, and speeches; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Social events sponsored by the regulated industry.
</P>
<P>(2) The public calendar will not include reports of meetings that would prejudice law enforcement activities (e.g., a meeting with an informant) or invade privacy (e.g., a meeting with a candidate for possible employment at FDA), meetings with members of the press, or meetings with onsite contractors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calendar entries.</I> The calendar will specify for each entry the date, person(s), and subject matter involved. If a large number of persons are in attendance, the name of each individual need not be specified. When more than one FDA representative is in attendance, the most senior agency official will report the meeting on the public calendar.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affected persons.</I> The following FDA representatives are subject to the requirements of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) Senior Associate Commissioners.
</P>
<P>(3) Deputy Commissioners.
</P>
<P>(4) Associate Commissioner for Regulatory Affairs.
</P>
<P>(5) Center Directors.
</P>
<P>(6) Chief Counsel for the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public display.</I> The public calendar will be placed on public display at the following locations:
</P>
<P>(1) Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) Office of the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDA home page, to the extent feasible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6468, Jan. 22, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.105   Representation by an organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An organization may represent its members by filing petitions, comments, and objections, and otherwise participating in an administrative proceeding subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A petition, comment, objection, or other representation by an organization will not abridge the right of a member to take individual action of a similar type, in the member's own name.
</P>
<P>(c) It is requested that each organization participating in FDA administrative proceedings file annually with the Dockets Management Staff a current list of all of the members of the organization.
</P>
<P>(d) The filing by an organization of an objection or request for hearing under §§ 12.20 through 12.22 does not provide a member a legal right with respect to the objection or request for hearing that the member may individually exercise. A member of an organization wishing to file an objection or request for hearing must do so individually.
</P>
<P>(e) In a court proceeding in which an organization participates, the Commissioner will take appropriate legal measures to have the case brought or considered as a class action or otherwise as binding upon all members of the organization except those specifically excluded by name. Regardless of whether the case is brought or considered as a class action or as otherwise binding upon all members of the organization except those specifically excluded by name, the Commissioner will take the position in any subsequent suit involving the same issues and a member of the organization that the issues are precluded from further litigation by the member under the doctrines of collateral estoppel or res judicata.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.110" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.110   Settlement proposals.</HEAD>
<P>At any time in the course of a proceeding subject to this part, a person may propose settlement of the issues involved. A participant in a proceeding will have an opportunity to consider a proposed settlement. Unaccepted proposals of settlement and related matters, e.g., proposed stipulations not agreed to, will not be admissible in evidence in an FDA administrative proceeding. FDA will oppose the admission in evidence of settlement information in a court proceeding or in another administrative proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.115" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.2.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.115   Good guidance practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What are good guidance practices?</I> Good guidance practices (GGP's) are FDA's policies and procedures for developing, issuing, and using guidance documents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What is a guidance document?</I> (1) Guidance documents are documents prepared for FDA staff, applicants/sponsors, and the public that describe the agency's interpretation of or policy on a regulatory issue.
</P>
<P>(2) Guidance documents include, but are not limited to, documents that relate to: The design, production, labeling, promotion, manufacturing, and testing of regulated products; the processing, content, and evaluation or approval of submissions; and inspection and enforcement policies.
</P>
<P>(3) Guidance documents do not include: Documents relating to internal FDA procedures, agency reports, general information documents provided to consumers or health professionals, speeches, journal articles and editorials, media interviews, press materials, warning letters, memoranda of understanding, or other communications directed to individual persons or firms.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What other terms have a special meaning?</I> (1) “Level 1 guidance documents” include guidance documents that:
</P>
<P>(i) Set forth initial interpretations of statutory or regulatory requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Set forth changes in interpretation or policy that are of more than a minor nature;
</P>
<P>(iii) Include complex scientific issues; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Cover highly controversial issues.
</P>
<P>(2) “Level 2 guidance documents” are guidance documents that set forth existing practices or minor changes in interpretation or policy. Level 2 guidance documents include all guidance documents that are not classified as Level 1.
</P>
<P>(3) “You” refers to all affected parties outside of FDA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Are you or FDA required to follow a guidance document?</I> (1) No. Guidance documents do not establish legally enforceable rights or responsibilities. They do not legally bind the public or FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) You may choose to use an approach other than the one set forth in a guidance document. However, your alternative approach must comply with the relevant statutes and regulations. FDA is willing to discuss an alternative approach with you to ensure that it complies with the relevant statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Although guidance documents do not legally bind FDA, they represent the agency's current thinking. Therefore, FDA employees may depart from guidance documents only with appropriate justification and supervisory concurrence.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Can FDA use means other than a guidance document to communicate new agency policy or a new regulatory approach to a broad public audience?</I> The agency may not use documents or other means of communication that are excluded from the definition of guidance document to informally communicate new or different regulatory expectations to a broad public audience for the first time. These GGP's must be followed whenever regulatory expectations that are not readily apparent from the statute or regulations are first communicated to a broad public audience.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How can you participate in the development and issuance of guidance documents?</I> (1) You can provide input on guidance documents that FDA is developing under the procedures described in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) You can suggest areas for guidance document development. Your suggestions should address why a guidance document is necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) You can submit drafts of proposed guidance documents for FDA to consider. When you do so, you should mark the document “Guidance Document Submission” and submit it to Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. If you wish to submit the draft of a proposed guidance document electronically, submit it through <I>https://www.regulations.gov</I> at Docket No. FDA-2013-S-0610. It is only necessary to submit one copy.
</P>
<P>(4) You can, at any time, suggest that FDA revise or withdraw an already existing guidance document. Your suggestion should address why the guidance document should be revised or withdrawn and, if applicable, how it should be revised.
</P>
<P>(5) Once a year, FDA will publish, both in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and on the Internet, a list of possible topics for future guidance document development or revision during the next year. You can comment on this list (e.g., by suggesting alternatives or making recommendations on the topics that FDA is considering).
</P>
<P>(6) To participate in the development and issuance of guidance documents through one of the mechanisms described in paragraphs (f)(1), (f)(2), or (f)(4) of this section, you should contact the center or office that is responsible for the regulatory activity covered by the guidance document.
</P>
<P>(7) If FDA agrees to draft or revise a guidance document, under a suggestion made under paragraphs (f)(1), (f)(2), (f)(3) or (f)(4) of this section, you can participate in the development of that guidance document under the procedures described in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>What are FDA's procedures for developing and issuing guidance documents?</I> (1) FDA's procedures for the development and issuance of Level 1 guidance documents are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Before FDA prepares a draft of a Level 1 guidance document, FDA can seek or accept early input from individuals or groups outside the agency. For example, FDA can do this by participating in or holding public meetings and workshops.
</P>
<P>(ii) After FDA prepares a draft of a Level 1 guidance document, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(A) Publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing that the draft guidance document is available;
</P>
<P>(B) Post the draft guidance document on the Internet and make it available in hard copy; and
</P>
<P>(C) Invite your comment on the draft guidance document. Paragraph (h) of this section tells you how to submit your comments.
</P>
<P>(iii) After FDA prepares a draft of a Level 1 guidance document, FDA also can:
</P>
<P>(A) Hold public meetings or workshops; or
</P>
<P>(B) Present the draft guidance document to an advisory committee for review.
</P>
<P>(iv) After providing an opportunity for public comment on a Level 1 guidance document, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(A) Review any comments received and prepare the final version of the guidance document that incorporates suggested changes, when appropriate;
</P>
<P>(B) Publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing that the guidance document is available;
</P>
<P>(C) Post the guidance document on the Internet and make it available in hard copy; and
</P>
<P>(D) Implement the guidance document.
</P>
<P>(v) After providing an opportunity for comment, FDA may decide that it should issue another draft of the guidance document. In this case, FDA will follow the steps in paragraphs (g)(1)(ii), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will not seek your comment before it implements a Level 1 guidance document if the agency determines that prior public participation is not feasible or appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will use the following procedures for developing and issuing Level 1 guidance documents under the circumstances described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) After FDA prepares a guidance document, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(A) Publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing that the guidance document is available;
</P>
<P>(B) Post the guidance document on the Internet and make it available in hard copy;
</P>
<P>(C) Immediately implement the guidance document; and
</P>
<P>(D) Invite your comment when it issues or publishes the guidance document. Paragraph (h) of this section tells you how to submit your comments.
</P>
<P>(ii) If FDA receives comments on the guidance document, FDA will review those comments and revise the guidance document when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will use the following procedures for developing and issuing Level 2 guidance documents:
</P>
<P>(i) After it prepares a guidance document, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(A) Post the guidance document on the Internet and make it available in hard copy;
</P>
<P>(B) Immediately implement the guidance document, unless FDA indicates otherwise when the document is made available; and
</P>
<P>(C) Invite your comment on the Level 2 guidance document. Paragraph (h) of this section tells you how to submit your comments.
</P>
<P>(ii) If FDA receives comments on the guidance document, FDA will review those comments and revise the document when appropriate. If a version is revised, the new version will be placed on the Internet.
</P>
<P>(5) You can comment on any guidance document at any time. Paragraph (h) of this section tells you how to submit your comments. FDA will revise guidance documents in response to your comments when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>How should you submit comments on a guidance document?</I> (1) If you choose to submit comments on any guidance document under paragraph (g) of this section, you must send them to the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(2) Comments should identify the docket number on the guidance document, if such a docket number exists. For documents without a docket number, the title of the guidance document should be included.
</P>
<P>(3) Comments will be available to the public in accordance with FDA's regulations on submission of documents to the Dockets Management Staff specified in § 10.20(j).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>What standard elements must FDA include in a guidance document?</I> (1) A guidance document must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include the term “guidance,”
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the center(s) or office(s) issuing the document,
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the activity to which and the people to whom the document applies,
</P>
<P>(iv) Prominently display a statement of the document's nonbinding effect,
</P>
<P>(v) Include the date of issuance,
</P>
<P>(vi) Note if it is a revision to a previously issued guidance and identify the document that it replaces, and
</P>
<P>(vii) Contain the word “draft” if the document is a draft guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) Guidance documents must not include mandatory language such as “shall,” “must,” “required,” or “requirement,” unless FDA is using these words to describe a statutory or regulatory requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) When issuing draft guidance documents that are the product of international negotiations (e.g., guidances resulting from the International Conference on Harmonisation), FDA need not apply paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of this section. However, any final guidance document issued according to this provision must contain the elements in paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Who, within FDA, can approve issuance of guidance documents?</I> Each center and office must have written procedures for the approval of guidance documents. Those procedures must ensure that issuance of all documents is approved by appropriate senior FDA officials.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>How will FDA review and revise existing guidance documents?</I> (1) The agency will periodically review existing guidance documents to determine whether they need to be changed or withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(2) When significant changes are made to the statute or regulations, the agency will review and, if appropriate, revise guidance documents relating to that changed statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) As discussed in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, you may at any time suggest that FDA revise a guidance document.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>How will FDA ensure that FDA staff are following GGP's?</I> (1) All current and new FDA employees involved in the development, issuance, or application of guidance documents will be trained regarding the agency's GGP's.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA centers and offices will monitor the development and issuance of guidance documents to ensure that GGP's are being followed.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>How can you get copies of FDA's guidance documents?</I> FDA will make copies available in hard copy and, as feasible, through the Internet.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>How will FDA keep you informed of the guidance documents that are available?</I> (1) FDA will maintain on the Internet a current list of all guidance documents. New documents will be added to this list within 30 days of issuance.
</P>
<P>(2) Once a year, FDA will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> its comprehensive list of guidance documents. The comprehensive list will identify documents that have been added to the list or withdrawn from the list since the previous comprehensive list.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA's guidance document lists will include the name of the guidance document, issuance and revision dates, and information on how to obtain copies of the document.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>What can you do if you believe that someone at FDA is not following these GGP's?</I> If you believe that someone at FDA did not follow the procedures in this section or that someone at FDA treated a guidance document as a binding requirement, you should contact that person's supervisor in the center or office that issued the guidance document. If the issue cannot be resolved, you should contact the next highest supervisor. You can also contact the center or office ombudsman for assistance in resolving the issue. If you are unable to resolve the issue at the center or office level or if you feel that you are not making progress by going through the chain of command, you may ask the Office of the Chief Mediator and Ombudsman to become involved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56477, Sept. 19, 2000, as amended at 83 FR 13416, Mar. 29, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Electronic Media Coverage of Public Administrative Proceedings; Guideline on Policy and Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 14726, Apr. 13, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 10.200" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.200   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This guideline describes FDA's policy and procedures applicable to electronic media coverage of agency public administrative proceedings. It is a guideline intended to clarify and explain FDA's policy on the presence and operation of electronic recording equipment at such proceedings and to assure uniform and consistent application of practices and procedures throughout the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.203" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.203   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public administrative proceeding</I> as used in this guideline means any FDA proceeding which the public has a right to attend. This includes a formal evidentiary public hearing as set forth in part 12, a public hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry as set forth in part 13, a public hearing before a Public Advisory Committee as set forth in part 14, a public hearing before the Commissioner as set forth in part 15, a regulatory hearing before FDA as set forth in part 16, consumer exchange meetings, and Commissioner's public meetings with health professionals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance notice</I> as used in this guideline means written or telephone notification to FDA's Office of Public Affairs (Press Relations Staff) of intent to electronically record an agency public administrative proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic recording</I> as used in this guideline means any visual or audio recording made by videotape recording equipment or moving film camera, and/or other electronic recording equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 14726, Apr. 13, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.204" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.204   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA has for many years willingly committed itself to a policy of openness. In many instances FDA has sought to make the open portions of agency public administrative proceedings more accessible to public participation. Similarly, FDA has sought, wherever possible, to allow full written media access to its proceedings, so that members of the press would have the opportunity to provide first-hand reports. However, because electronic media coverage presents certain difficulties that are easier to resolve with advance notice to the agency and all participants, FDA believes that codification of its policy will facilitate and further increase media access to its public administrative proceedings. The agency intends to refer to this guideline when notices of hearing, or individual advisory committee meetings, are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Thus, all parties to a proceeding will be on notice that the proceeding may be recorded electronically and any person interested in videotaping or otherwise recording the proceeding will be notified that there are established procedures to be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) The designated presiding officer of a public administrative proceeding retains the existing discretionary authority set forth in specific regulations pertaining to each type of administrative proceeding to regulate the conduct of the proceeding over which he or she presides. The responsibilities of the presiding officer, established elsewhere in parts 10 through 16, include an obligation to be concerned with the timely conduct of a hearing, the limited availability of certain witnesses, and reducing disruptions to the proceeding which may occur. Each proceeding varies, and the presiding officer cannot anticipate all that might occur. Discretionary authority to regulate conduct at a proceeding has traditionally been granted to presiding officers to enable them to fulfill their responsibility to maintain a fair and orderly hearing conducted in an expeditious manner.
</P>
<P>(c) This guideline provides the presiding officer with a degree of flexibility in that it sets forth the agency's policy as well as the procedures that presiding officers should ordinarily follow, but from which they may depart in particular situations if necessary, subject to the presumption of openness of public proceedings to electronic media coverage. The presiding officer's discretion to establish additional procedures or to limit electronic coverage is to be exercised only in the unusual circumstances defined in this guideline. Even though a presiding officer may establish additional procedures or limits as may be required in a particular situation, he or she will be guided by the policy expressed in this guideline in establishing these conditions. The presiding officer may also be less restrictive, taking into account such factors as the duration of a hearing and the design of the room.
</P>
<P>(d) If a portion or all of a proceeding is closed to the public because material is to be discussed that is not disclosable to the public under applicable laws, the proceeding also will be closed to electronic media coverage.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency requests advance notice of intent to record a proceeding electronically to facilitate the orderly conduct of the proceeding. Knowledge of anticipated media coverage will allow the presiding officer to make any special arrangements required by the circumstances of the proceeding. The agency believes that this guideline establishes sufficiently specific criteria to promote uniformity.
</P>
<P>(f) The agency would like to allow all interested media representatives to videotape a proceeding in which they have an interest. However, should space limitations preclude a multitude of cameras, the presiding officer may require pool sharing. In such a case, pool sharing arrangements of the resulting videotape should be made between those allowed to film and those who were excluded. Arrangements for who is designated to present the pool and a method of distributing the resulting film or tape may be determined by the established networks' pooling system. However, the agency has a strong commitment to ensuring that media representatives other than the major networks also be able to obtain a copy of the tape at cost. FDA is concerned that if the network pool representative wishes to record only a short portion of a proceeding, but an excluded party wishes to record the entire proceeding, confusion will result. The agency expects the interested media representatives to negotiate a suitable agreement among themselves before commencement of the proceeding. For example, the network pool representatives might agree to record a portion of the proceeding up to a break in the proceeding, at which time, while the network representative is disassembling equipment, another media representative might set up to continue recording. If an agreement cannot be reached before the proceeding, the agency will use the time of receipt of any advance notice to determine the representation for each category of media, e.g., one network reporter, one independent reporter. The agency recommends that parties intending to videotape provide as much advance notice as possible, so that the agency may best respond to the needs of the electronic media.
</P>
<P>(g) To ensure the timely conduct of agency hearings and to prevent disruptions, equipment is to be stationary during a proceeding and should be set up and taken down when the proceeding is not in progress. As noted previously, the presiding officer may, at his or her discretion, be less restrictive if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) The agency recognizes that electronic media representatives may desire only short footage of a proceeding, a facsimile of the proceeding, and/or interview opportunities and may be unnecessarily restricted by requirements for setting up before a proceeding and then waiting until a break in the proceeding before being permitted to take down their equipment. To accommodate this possibility, FDA's Press Relations Staff will attempt to make arrangements to respond to such needs by, for example, requesting that the presiding officer provide a break shortly after commencement of the proceeding to permit take down of equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) The agency is making a full commitment to allowing, whenever possible, electronic coverage of its public administrative proceedings subject to the limited restrictions established in this guideline.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.205" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.205   Electronic media coverage of public administrative proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may record electronically any open public administrative proceeding, subject to the procedures specified in this guideline. The procedures include a presumption that agency public proceedings are open to the electronic media. Whenever possible, FDA will permit all interested persons access to record agency public administrative proceedings. Restrictions other than those listed in § 10.206 will be imposed only under exceptional circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) A videotape recording of an FDA public administrative proceeding is not an official record of the proceeding. The only official record is the written transcript of the proceeding, which is taken by the official reporter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.206" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.7.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.206   Procedures for electronic media coverage of agency public administrative proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To facilitate the agency's response to media needs, a person intending to videotape an FDA public administrative proceeding should, whenever possible, provide advance notice to the Press Relations Staff (HFI-20), Office of Public Affairs, Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, in writing or by telephone (telephone 301-443-4177), at least 48 hours in advance of the proceeding. The Press Relations Staff will inform the presiding officer that the proceeding will be attended by representatives of the electronic media, and ascertain whether any special provisions in addition to those set forth in this subpart are required by the presiding officer. If so, the Press Relations Staff will function as a liaison between the presiding officer and the person intending to record the proceeding in facilitating any procedures in addition to those outlined in this subpart. The presiding officer will not deny access for failure to provide a 48-hour advance notice. Any advance notice may describe the intended length of recording if known, the amount and type of equipment to be used, and any special needs such as interviews.
</P>
<P>(b) Cameras should be completely set up before a proceeding is scheduled to begin or during a break in the proceeding and should remain standing in the area designated for electronic media equipment. Cameras may be taken down only during breaks or after the hearing is over. Roving cameras will not be permitted during the proceeding. Any artificial lighting should be unobtrusive. Microphones, like cameras, should be in place before the start of a proceeding and may be taken down as indicated in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) When space in the hearing room is limited, the presiding officer may restrict the number of cameras or the equipment present. Should such a restriction become necessary, the pool arrangements are the responsibility of the participating media. The agency encourages the network pool to make copies of the tape, film, or other product available at cost to nonpool participants. However, if this is not possible, the agency may need to use the time of receipt of any advance notice to determine the representation for each category, e.g., one network reporter, one independent reporter, etc.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Off the record</I> portions of a proceeding may not be videotaped.
</P>
<P>(e) Before or during the proceeding, the presiding officer may establish other conditions specific to the proceeding for which the request is being made. These conditions may be more or less restrictive than those stated in this guideline, except that the presiding officer shall observe the agency's presumption of openness of its public proceedings to the electronic media. Only a substantial and clear threat to the agency's interests in order, fairness, and timeliness authorizes the presiding officer to impose additional restrictions. This threat must outweigh the public interest in electronic media coverage of agency proceedings. Additional restrictions shall be narrowly drawn to the particular circumstances. The following factors are listed to assist presiding officers in determining whether the agency's interest is sufficiently compelling to call for the unusual step of imposing additional restrictions. Generally this step is justified when one of the following factors is met:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic recording would result in a substantial likelihood of disruption that clearly cannot be contained by the procedures established in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Electronic recording would result in a substantial likelihood of prejudicial impact on the fairness of the proceeding or the substantive discussion in a proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) There is a substantial likelihood that a witness' ability to testify may be impaired due to unique personal circumstances such as the age or psychological state of the witness or the particularly personal or private nature of the witness' testimony, if the witness' testimony were electronically recorded.
</P>
<P>(f) Before the proceeding, the Press Relations Staff will, upon request, provide written copies of any additional conditions imposed by the presiding officer (as described in paragraph (e) of this section) to requesting members of the media. Any appeals should be made in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer retains authority to restrict or discontinue videotaping or other recording of a proceeding, or parts of a proceeding, should such a decision become necessary. The presiding officer's responsibility to conduct the hearing includes the right and duty to remove a source of substantial disruption. In exercising his or her authority, the presiding officer shall observe the presumption that agency public proceedings are open to the electronic media. The presiding officer shall exercise his or her discretion to restrict or discontinue electronic coverage of a public proceeding, or portions of a public proceeding, only if he or she determines that the agency's interest in the fair and orderly administrative process is substantially threatened. A clear and substantial threat to the integrity of agency proceedings must clearly outweigh the public interest in electronic media coverage of the proceedings before additional restrictions are imposed on the electronic media during the course of the proceedings. The factors noted in paragraph (e) of this section indicate the kind of substantial threat to the agency interests that may require imposing additional restrictions during the course of the proceedings. If additional requirements are established during the hearing, the presiding officer shall notify immediately the Deputy Commissioner of Food and Drugs of that fact by telephone and submit a written explanation of the circumstances that necessitated such an action within 24 hours or sooner if requested by the Deputy Commissioner. In the absence or unavailability of the Deputy Commissioner, the presiding officer shall notify the Associate Commissioner for Regulatory Affairs.
</P>
<P>(h) A decision by a presiding officer, made either before the proceeding or during the course of a proceeding, to establish requirements in addition to the minimum standards set forth in this guideline may be appealed by any adversely affected person who intends to record the proceeding electronically. Appeals may be made in writing or by phone to the Deputy Commissioner or, in his or her absence, to the Associate Commissioner for Regulatory Affairs. The filing of an appeal, whether before or during a proceeding, does not require the presiding officer to interrupt the proceeding. However, the Deputy Commissioner or, in his or her absence, the Associate Commissioner for Regulatory Affairs will resolve an appeal as expeditiously as possible so as to preserve, to the extent possible, the reporters' opportunity to record the proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 14726, Apr. 13, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="11" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 11—ELECTRONIC RECORDS; ELECTRONIC SIGNATURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321-393; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 13464, Mar. 20, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part set forth the criteria under which the agency considers electronic records, electronic signatures, and handwritten signatures executed to electronic records to be trustworthy, reliable, and generally equivalent to paper records and handwritten signatures executed on paper.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to records in electronic form that are created, modified, maintained, archived, retrieved, or transmitted, under any records requirements set forth in agency regulations. This part also applies to electronic records submitted to the agency under requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the Public Health Service Act, even if such records are not specifically identified in agency regulations. However, this part does not apply to paper records that are, or have been, transmitted by electronic means.
</P>
<P>(c) Where electronic signatures and their associated electronic records meet the requirements of this part, the agency will consider the electronic signatures to be equivalent to full handwritten signatures, initials, and other general signings as required by agency regulations, unless specifically excepted by regulation(s) effective on or after August 20, 1997.
</P>
<P>(d) Electronic records that meet the requirements of this part may be used in lieu of paper records, in accordance with § 11.2, unless paper records are specifically required.
</P>
<P>(e) Computer systems (including hardware and software), controls, and attendant documentation maintained under this part shall be readily available for, and subject to, FDA inspection.
</P>
<P>(f) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by §§ 1.326 through 1.368 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of part 1, subpart J of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(g) This part does not apply to electronic signatures obtained under § 101.11(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) This part does not apply to electronic signatures obtained under § 101.8(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by part 117 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of part 117 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(j) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by part 507 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of part 507 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(k) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by part 112 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of part 112 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(l) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by subpart L of part 1 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of subpart L of part 1 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(m) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by subpart M of part 1 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of subpart M of part 1 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(n) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by subpart O of part 1 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of subpart O of part 1 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(o) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by part 121 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of part 121 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(p) This part does not apply to records required to be established or maintained by subpart R of part 1 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of subpart R of part 1 of this chapter, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13464, Mar. 20, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 71655, Dec. 9, 2004; 79 FR 71253, 71291, Dec. 1, 2014; 80 FR 56144, 56336, Sept. 17, 2015; 80 FR 74352, 74547, 74667, Nov. 27, 2015; 81 FR 20170, Apr. 6, 2016; 81 FR 34218, May 27, 2016; 86 FR 68830, Dec. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.2   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For records required to be maintained but not submitted to the agency, persons may use electronic records in lieu of paper records or electronic signatures in lieu of traditional signatures, in whole or in part, provided that the requirements of this part are met.
</P>
<P>(b) For records submitted to the agency, persons may use electronic records in lieu of paper records or electronic signatures in lieu of traditional signatures, in whole or in part, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of this part are met; and
</P>
<P>(2) The document or parts of a document to be submitted have been identified in public docket No. 92S-0251 as being the type of submission the agency accepts in electronic form. This docket will identify specifically what types of documents or parts of documents are acceptable for submission in electronic form without paper records and the agency receiving unit(s) (e.g., specific center, office, division, branch) to which such submissions may be made. Documents to agency receiving unit(s) not specified in the public docket will not be considered as official if they are submitted in electronic form; paper forms of such documents will be considered as official and must accompany any electronic records. Persons are expected to consult with the intended agency receiving unit for details on how (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, and technical protocols) and whether to proceed with the electronic submission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the act apply to those terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms also apply to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (secs. 201-903 (21 U.S.C. 321-393)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agency</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Biometrics</I> means a method of verifying an individual's identity based on measurement of the individual's physical feature(s) or repeatable action(s) where those features and/or actions are both unique to that individual and measurable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Closed system</I> means an environment in which system access is controlled by persons who are responsible for the content of electronic records that are on the system.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Digital signature</I> means an electronic signature based upon cryptographic methods of originator authentication, computed by using a set of rules and a set of parameters such that the identity of the signer and the integrity of the data can be verified.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Electronic record</I> means any combination of text, graphics, data, audio, pictorial, or other information representation in digital form that is created, modified, maintained, archived, retrieved, or distributed by a computer system.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Electronic signature</I> means a computer data compilation of any symbol or series of symbols executed, adopted, or authorized by an individual to be the legally binding equivalent of the individual's handwritten signature.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Handwritten signature</I> means the scripted name or legal mark of an individual handwritten by that individual and executed or adopted with the present intention to authenticate a writing in a permanent form. The act of signing with a writing or marking instrument such as a pen or stylus is preserved. The scripted name or legal mark, while conventionally applied to paper, may also be applied to other devices that capture the name or mark.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Open system</I> means an environment in which system access is not controlled by persons who are responsible for the content of electronic records that are on the system.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Electronic Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.10   Controls for closed systems.</HEAD>
<P>Persons who use closed systems to create, modify, maintain, or transmit electronic records shall employ procedures and controls designed to ensure the authenticity, integrity, and, when appropriate, the confidentiality of electronic records, and to ensure that the signer cannot readily repudiate the signed record as not genuine. Such procedures and controls shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Validation of systems to ensure accuracy, reliability, consistent intended performance, and the ability to discern invalid or altered records.
</P>
<P>(b) The ability to generate accurate and complete copies of records in both human readable and electronic form suitable for inspection, review, and copying by the agency. Persons should contact the agency if there are any questions regarding the ability of the agency to perform such review and copying of the electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) Protection of records to enable their accurate and ready retrieval throughout the records retention period.
</P>
<P>(d) Limiting system access to authorized individuals.
</P>
<P>(e) Use of secure, computer-generated, time-stamped audit trails to independently record the date and time of operator entries and actions that create, modify, or delete electronic records. Record changes shall not obscure previously recorded information. Such audit trail documentation shall be retained for a period at least as long as that required for the subject electronic records and shall be available for agency review and copying.
</P>
<P>(f) Use of operational system checks to enforce permitted sequencing of steps and events, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) Use of authority checks to ensure that only authorized individuals can use the system, electronically sign a record, access the operation or computer system input or output device, alter a record, or perform the operation at hand.
</P>
<P>(h) Use of device (e.g., terminal) checks to determine, as appropriate, the validity of the source of data input or operational instruction.
</P>
<P>(i) Determination that persons who develop, maintain, or use electronic record/electronic signature systems have the education, training, and experience to perform their assigned tasks.
</P>
<P>(j) The establishment of, and adherence to, written policies that hold individuals accountable and responsible for actions initiated under their electronic signatures, in order to deter record and signature falsification.
</P>
<P>(k) Use of appropriate controls over systems documentation including:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate controls over the distribution of, access to, and use of documentation for system operation and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(2) Revision and change control procedures to maintain an audit trail that documents time-sequenced development and modification of systems documentation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.30   Controls for open systems.</HEAD>
<P>Persons who use open systems to create, modify, maintain, or transmit electronic records shall employ procedures and controls designed to ensure the authenticity, integrity, and, as appropriate, the confidentiality of electronic records from the point of their creation to the point of their receipt. Such procedures and controls shall include those identified in § 11.10, as appropriate, and additional measures such as document encryption and use of appropriate digital signature standards to ensure, as necessary under the circumstances, record authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.50   Signature manifestations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Signed electronic records shall contain information associated with the signing that clearly indicates all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The printed name of the signer;
</P>
<P>(2) The date and time when the signature was executed; and
</P>
<P>(3) The meaning (such as review, approval, responsibility, or authorship) associated with the signature.
</P>
<P>(b) The items identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of this section shall be subject to the same controls as for electronic records and shall be included as part of any human readable form of the electronic record (such as electronic display or printout).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.70   Signature/record linking.</HEAD>
<P>Electronic signatures and handwritten signatures executed to electronic records shall be linked to their respective electronic records to ensure that the signatures cannot be excised, copied, or otherwise transferred to falsify an electronic record by ordinary means.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Electronic Signatures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.100   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each electronic signature shall be unique to one individual and shall not be reused by, or reassigned to, anyone else.
</P>
<P>(b) Before an organization establishes, assigns, certifies, or otherwise sanctions an individual's electronic signature, or any element of such electronic signature, the organization shall verify the identity of the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons using electronic signatures shall, prior to or at the time of such use, certify to the agency that the electronic signatures in their system, used on or after August 20, 1997, are intended to be the legally binding equivalent of traditional handwritten signatures.
</P>
<P>(1) The certification shall be signed with a traditional handwritten signature and submitted in electronic or paper form. Information on where to submit the certification can be found on FDA's web page on Letters of Non-Repudiation Agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) Persons using electronic signatures shall, upon agency request, provide additional certification or testimony that a specific electronic signature is the legally binding equivalent of the signer's handwritten signature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13464, Mar. 20, 1997, as amended at 88 FR 13018, Mar. 2, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.200" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.200   Electronic signature components and controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Electronic signatures that are not based upon biometrics shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Employ at least two distinct identification components such as an identification code and password.
</P>
<P>(i) When an individual executes a series of signings during a single, continuous period of controlled system access, the first signing shall be executed using all electronic signature components; subsequent signings shall be executed using at least one electronic signature component that is only executable by, and designed to be used only by, the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an individual executes one or more signings not performed during a single, continuous period of controlled system access, each signing shall be executed using all of the electronic signature components.
</P>
<P>(2) Be used only by their genuine owners; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be administered and executed to ensure that attempted use of an individual's electronic signature by anyone other than its genuine owner requires collaboration of two or more individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) Electronic signatures based upon biometrics shall be designed to ensure that they cannot be used by anyone other than their genuine owners.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.300" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.8.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.300   Controls for identification codes/passwords.</HEAD>
<P>Persons who use electronic signatures based upon use of identification codes in combination with passwords shall employ controls to ensure their security and integrity. Such controls shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintaining the uniqueness of each combined identification code and password, such that no two individuals have the same combination of identification code and password.
</P>
<P>(b) Ensuring that identification code and password issuances are periodically checked, recalled, or revised (e.g., to cover such events as password aging).
</P>
<P>(c) Following loss management procedures to electronically deauthorize lost, stolen, missing, or otherwise potentially compromised tokens, cards, and other devices that bear or generate identification code or password information, and to issue temporary or permanent replacements using suitable, rigorous controls.
</P>
<P>(d) Use of transaction safeguards to prevent unauthorized use of passwords and/or identification codes, and to detect and report in an immediate and urgent manner any attempts at their unauthorized use to the system security unit, and, as appropriate, to organizational management.
</P>
<P>(e) Initial and periodic testing of devices, such as tokens or cards, that bear or generate identification code or password information to ensure that they function properly and have not been altered in an unauthorized manner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="12" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 12—FORMAL EVIDENTIARY PUBLIC HEARING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-393, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b-263n, 264; 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 5 U.S.C. 551-558, 701-721; 28 U.S.C. 2112.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 12 appear at 88 FR 45064, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this part apply when—
</P>
<P>(a) A person has a right to an opportunity for a hearing under the laws specified in § 10.50; or
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner concludes that it is in the public interest to hold a formal evidentiary public hearing on any matter before FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Initiation of Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.20   Initiation of a hearing involving the issuance, amendment, or revocation of a regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A proceeding under section 409(f), 502(n), 512(n)(5), 701(e), or 721(d) of the act or section 4 or 5 of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act may be initiated—
</P>
<P>(1) By the Commissioner on the Commissioner's own initiative, e.g., as provided in § 170.15 for food additives; or
</P>
<P>(2) By a petition—
</P>
<P>(i) In the form specified elsewhere in this chapter, e.g., the form for a color additive petition in § 71.1; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If no form is specified, by a petition under § 10.30.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commissioner receives a petition under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the Commissioner will—
</P>
<P>(1) If it involves any matter subject to section 701(e) of the act or section 4 or 5 of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act, and meets the requirements for filing, follow the provisions of § 10.40 (b) through (f);
</P>
<P>(2) If it involves a color additive or food additive, and meets the requirements for filing in §§ 71.1 and 71.2, or in §§ 171.1, 171.6, 171.7, and 171.100, publish a notice of filing of the petition within 30 days after the petition is filed instead of a notice of proposed rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) The notice promulgating the regulation will describe how to submit objections and requests for hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) On or before the 30th day after the date of publication of a final regulation, or of a notice withdrawing a proposal initiated by a petition under § 10.25(a), a person may submit to the Commissioner written objections and a request for a hearing. The 30-day period may not be extended except that additional information supporting an objection may be received after 30 days upon a showing of inadvertent omission and hardship, and if review of the objection and request for hearing will not thereby be impeded. If, after a final color additive regulation is published, a petition or proposal relating to the regulation is referred to an advisory committee in accordance with section 721(b)(5)(C) of the act, objections and requests for a hearing may be submitted on or before the 30th day after the date on which the order confirming or modifying the Commissioner's previous order is published.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.21   Initiation of a hearing involving the issuance, amendment, or revocation of an order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A proceeding under section 505 (d) or (e), 512 (d), (e), (m) (3) or (4), of section 515(g)(1) of the act, or section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act, may be initiated—
</P>
<P>(1) By the Commissioner on the Commissioner's own initiative;
</P>
<P>(2) By a petition in the form specified elsewhere in this chapter, e.g., § 314.50 for new drug applications, § 514.1 for new animal drug applications, or § 601.3 for licenses for biologic products; or
</P>
<P>(3) By a petition under § 10.30.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of opportunity for hearing on a proposal to deny or revoke approval of all or part of an order will be published together with an explanation of the grounds for the proposed action. The notice will describe how to submit requests for hearing. A person subject to the notice has 30 days after its issuance to request a hearing. The 30-day period may not be extended.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner may use an optional procedure specified in § 10.30(h) to consider issuing, amending, or revoking an order.
</P>
<P>(d) In a proceeding under sections 505(e), 512(e) or (m), or 515(e) of the act in which a party wishes to apply for reimbursement of certain expenses under the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504 and 504 note), FDA will follow the Department of Health and Human Services' regulations in 45 CFR part 13.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 25734, June 15, 1982; 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 85 FR 72906, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.22   Filing objections and requests for a hearing on a regulation or order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Objections and requests for a hearing under § 12.20(d) must be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff and will be accepted for filing if they meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) They are submitted within the time specified in § 12.20(e).
</P>
<P>(2) Each objection is separately numbered.
</P>
<P>(3) Each objection specifies with particularity the provision of the regulation or proposed order objected to.
</P>
<P>(4) Each objection on which a hearing is requested specifically so states. Failure to request a hearing on an objection constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing on that objection.
</P>
<P>(5) Each objection for which a hearing is requested includes a detailed description and analysis of the factual information to be presented in support of the objection. Failure to include a description and analysis for an objection constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing on that objection. The description and analysis may be used only for the purpose of determining whether a hearing has been justified under § 12.24, and do not limit the evidence that may be presented if a hearing is granted.
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of any report, article, survey, or other written document relied upon must be submitted, except if the document is—
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) An FDA document that is routinely publicly available; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A recognized medical or scientific textbook that is readily available to the agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the nondocumentary testimony to be presented by any witnesses relied upon must be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for hearing submitted under § 12.21 will be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff and will be accepted for filing if they meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) They are submitted on or before the 30th day after the date of publication of the notice of opportunity for hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) They comply with §§ 314.200, 514.200, or 601.7(a).
</P>
<P>(c) If an objection or request for a public hearing fails to meet the requirements of this section and the deficiency becomes known to the Dockets Management Staff, the Dockets Management Staff shall return it with a copy of the applicable regulations, indicating those provisions not complied with. A deficient objection or request for a hearing may be supplemented and subsequently filed if submitted within the 30-day time period specified in § 12.20(e) or § 12.21(b).
</P>
<P>(d) If another person objects to a regulation issued in response to a petition submitted under § 12.20(a)(2), the petitioner may submit a written reply to the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 64 FR 69190, Dec. 10, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.23" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.23   Notice of filing of objections.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the expiration of the time for filing objections to and requests for hearing on agency action involving the issuance, amendment, or revocation of a regulation under sections 502(n), 701(e), or 721(d) of the act or sections 4 or 5 of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act, the Commissioner shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> specifying those parts of the regulation that have been stayed by the filing of proper objections and, if no objections have been filed, stating that fact. The notice does not constitute a determination that a hearing is justified on any objections or requests for hearing that have been filed. When to do so will cause no undue delay, the notice required by this section may be combined with the notices described in §§ 12.28 and 12.35.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.24" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.24   Ruling on objections and requests for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As soon as possible the Commissioner will review all objections and requests for hearing filed under § 12.22 and determine—
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the regulation should be modified or revoked under § 12.26;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether a hearing has been justified; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether, if requested, a hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry under part 13 or before a public advisory committee under part 14 or before the Commissioner under part 15 has been justified.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for a hearing will be granted if the material submitted shows the following:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a genuine and substantial issue of fact for resolution at a hearing. A hearing will not be granted on issues of policy or law.
</P>
<P>(2) The factual issue can be resolved by available and specifically identified reliable evidence. A hearing will not be granted on the basis of mere allegations or denials or general descriptions of positions and contentions.
</P>
<P>(3) The data and information submitted, if established at a hearing, would be adequate to justify resolution of the factual issue in the way sought by the person. A hearing will be denied if the Commissioner concludes that the data and information submitted are insufficient to justify the factual determination urged, even if accurate.
</P>
<P>(4) Resolution of the factual issue in the way sought by the person is adequate to justify the action requested. A hearing will not be granted on factual issues that are not determinative with respect to the action requested, e.g., if the Commissioner concludes that the action would be the same even if the factual issue were resolved in the way sought, or if a request is made that a final regulation include a provision not reasonably encompassed by the proposal. A hearing will be granted upon proper objection and request when a food standard or other regulation is shown to have the effect of excluding or otherwise affecting a product or ingredient.
</P>
<P>(5) The action requested is not inconsistent with any provision in the act or any regulation in this chapter particularizing statutory standards. The proper procedure in those circumstances is for the person requesting the hearing to petition for an amendment or waiver of the regulation involved.
</P>
<P>(6) The requirements in other applicable regulations, e.g., §§ 10.20, 12.21, 12.22, 314.200, 514.200, and 601.7(a), and in the notice promulgating the final regulation or the notice of opportunity for hearing are met.
</P>
<P>(c) In making the determination in paragraph (a) of this section, the Commissioner may use any of the optional procedures specified in § 10.30(h) or in other applicable regulations, e.g., §§ 314.200, 514.200, and 601.7(a).
</P>
<P>(d) If it is uncertain whether a hearing has been justified under the principles in paragraph (b) of this section, and the Commissioner concludes that summary decision against the person requesting a hearing should be considered, the Commissioner may serve upon the person by registered mail a proposed order denying a hearing. The person has 30 days after receipt of the proposed order to demonstrate that the submission justifies a hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.26" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.26   Modification or revocation of regulation or order.</HEAD>
<P>If the Commissioner determines upon review of an objection or request for hearing that the regulation or order should be modified or revoked, the Commissioner will promptly take such action by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Further objections to or requests for hearing on the modification or revocation may be submitted under §§ 12.20 through 12.22 but no further issue may be taken with other provisions in the regulation or order. Objections and requests for hearing that are not affected by the modification or revocation will remain on file and be acted upon in due course.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.28" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.28   Denial of hearing in whole or in part.</HEAD>
<P>If the Commissioner determines upon review of the objections or requests for hearing that a hearing is not justified, in whole or in part, a notice of the determination will be published.
</P>
<P>(a) The notice will state whether the hearing is denied in whole or in part. If the hearing is denied in part, the notice will be combined with the notice of hearing required by § 12.35, and will specify the objections and requests for hearing that have been granted and denied.
</P>
<P>(1) Any denial will be explained. A denial based on an analysis of the information submitted to justify a hearing will explain the inadequacy of the information.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice will confirm or modify or stay the effective date of the regulation or order involved.
</P>
<P>(b) The record of the administrative proceeding relating to denial of a public hearing in whole or in part on an objection or request for hearing consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the proceeding involves a regulation—
</P>
<P>(i) The documents specified in § 10.40(g);
</P>
<P>(ii) The objections and requests for hearing filed by the Dockets Management Staff;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the proceeding involves a color additive regulation referred to an advisory committee in accordance with section 721(b)(5)(C) of the act, the committee's report and the record of the committee's proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The notice denying a formal evidentiary public hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the proceeding involves an order—
</P>
<P>(i) The notice of opportunity for hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requests for hearing filed by the Dockets Management Staff;
</P>
<P>(iii) The transcripts, minutes of meetings, reports, <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices, and other documents constituting the record of any of the optional procedures specified in § 12.24(c) used by the Commissioner, but not the transcript of a closed portion of a public advisory committee meeting; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The notice denying the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The record specified in paragraph (b) of this section is the exclusive record for the Commissioner's decision on the complete or partial denial of a hearing. The record of the proceeding will be closed as of the date of the Commissioner's decision unless another date is specified. A person who requested and was denied a hearing may submit a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33 or a petition for stay of action under § 10.35. A person who wishes to rely upon information or views not included in the administrative record shall submit them to the Commissioner with a petition under § 10.25(a) to modify the final regulation or order.
</P>
<P>(d) Denial of a request for a hearing in whole or in part is final agency action reviewable in the courts, under the statutory provisions governing the matter involved, as of the date of publication of the denial in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(1) Before requesting a court for a stay of action pending review, a person shall first submit a petition for a stay of action under § 10.35.
</P>
<P>(2) Under 28 U.S.C. 2112(a), FDA will request consolidation of all petitions on a particular matter.
</P>
<P>(3) The time for filing a petition for judicial review of a denial of a hearing on an objection or issue begins on the date the denial is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> (i) When an objection or issues relates to a regulation, if a hearing is denied on all objections and issues concerning a part of the proposal the effectiveness of which has not been deferred pending a hearing on other parts of the proposal; or (ii) when an issue relates to an order, if a hearing is denied on all issues relating to a particular new drug application, new animal drug application, device premarket approval application or product development protocol, or biologics license. The failure to file a petition for judicial review within the period established in the statutory provision governing the matter involved constitutes a waiver of the right to judicial review of the objection or issue, regardless whether a hearing has been granted on other objections and issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.30   Judicial review after waiver of hearing on a regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person with a right to submit objections and a request for hearing under § 12.20(d) may submit objections and waive the right to a hearing. The waiver may be either an explicit statement, or a failure to request a hearing, as provided in 12.22(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) If a person waives the right to a hearing, the Commissioner will rule upon the person's objections under §§ 12.24 through 12.28. As a matter of discretion, the Commissioner may also order a hearing on the matter under any of the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commissioner rules adversely on a person's objection, the person may petition for judicial review in a U.S. Court of Appeals under the act.
</P>
<P>(1) The record for judicial review is the record designated in § 12.28(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The time for filing a petition for judicial review begins as of the date of publication of the Commissioner's ruling on the objections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.32   Request for alternative form of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person with a right to request a hearing may waive that right and request one of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) A hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry under part 13.
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing before a public advisory committee under part 14.
</P>
<P>(3) A hearing before the Commissioner under part 15.
</P>
<P>(b) The request—
</P>
<P>(1) May be on the person's own initiative or at the suggestion of the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(2) Must be submitted in the form of a citizen petition under § 10.30 before publication of a notice of hearing under § 12.35 or a denial of hearing under § 12.28; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must be—
</P>
<P>(i) In lieu of a request for a hearing under this part; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If submitted after or with a request for hearing, in the form of a waiver of the right to request a hearing conditioned on an alternative form of hearing. Upon acceptance by the Commissioner, the waiver becomes binding and may be withdrawn only by waiving any right to any form of hearing unless the Commissioner determines otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) When more than one person requests and justifies a hearing under this part, an alternative form of hearing may by used only if all the persons concur and waive their right to request a hearing under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner will determine whether an alternative form of hearing should be used, and if so, which alternative is acceptable, after considering the requests submitted and the appropriateness of the alternatives for the issues raised in the objections. The Commissioner's acceptance is binding unless, for good cause, the Commissioner determines otherwise.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commissioner will publish a notice of an alternative form of hearing setting forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The regulation or order that is the subject of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement specifying any part of the regulation or order that has been stayed by operation of law or in the Commissioner's discretion.
</P>
<P>(3) The time, date, and place of the hearing, or a statment that such information will be contained in a later notice.
</P>
<P>(4) The parties to the hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) The issues at the hearing. The statement of issues determines the scope of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(6) If the hearing will be conducted by a Public Board of Inquiry, the time within which—
</P>
<P>(i) The parties should submit nominees for the Board under § 13.10(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) A notice of participation under § 12.45 should be filed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Participants should submit written information under § 13.25. The notice will list the contents of the portions of the administrative record relevant to the issues at the hearing before the Board. The portions listed will be placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff before the notice is published. Additional copies of material already submitted under § 13.25 need not be included with any later submissions.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) The decision of a hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry or a public advisory committee under this section has legal status of and will be handled as an initial decision under § 12.120.
</P>
<P>(2) The decision of a public hearing before the Commissioner under this section will be issued as a final order. The final order will have the same content as an initial decision, as specified in § 12.120 (b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(3) Thereafter, the participants in the proceeding may pursue the administrative and court remedies specified in §§ 12.120 through 12.159.
</P>
<P>(g) If a hearing before a public advisory committee or a hearing before the Commissioner is used as an alternative form of hearing, all submissions will be made to the Dockets Management Staff, and § 10.20(j) governs their availability for public examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(h) This section does not affect the right to an opportunity for a hearing before a public advisory committee under section 515(g)(2) of the act regarding device premarket approval applications and product development protocols. Advisory committee hearing procedures are found in part 14. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.35   Notice of hearing; stay of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Commissioner determines upon review of the objections and requests for hearing that a hearing is justified on any issue, the Commissioner will publish a notice setting forth the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The regulation or order that is the subject of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement specifying any part of the regulation or order that has been stayed by operation of law or in the Commissioner's discretion.
</P>
<P>(3) The parties to the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) The issues of fact on which a hearing has been justified.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of any objections or requests for hearing for which a hearing has not been justified, which are subject to § 12.28.
</P>
<P>(6) The presiding officer, or a statement that the presiding officer will be designated in a later notice.
</P>
<P>(7) The time within which notices of participation should be filed under § 12.45.
</P>
<P>(8) The date, time, and place of the prehearing conference, or a statement that the date, time, and place will be announced in a later notice. The pre-hearing conference may not commence until after the time expires for filing the notice of participation required by § 12.45(a).
</P>
<P>(9) The time within which participants should submit written information and views under § 12.85. The notice will list the contents of the portions of the administrative record relevant to the issues at the hearing. The portions listed will be placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff before the notice is published. Additional copies of material already submitted under § 12.85 need not be included with any later submissions.
</P>
<P>(b) The statement of the issues determines the scope of the hearing and the matters on which evidence may be introduced. The issues may be revised by the presiding officer. A participant may obtain interlocutory review by the Commissioner of a decision by the presiding officer to revise the issues to include an issue on which the Commissioner has not granted a hearing or to eliminate an issue on which a hearing has been granted.
</P>
<P>(c) A hearing is deemed to begin on the date of publication of the notice of hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 26375, June 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.37" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.37   Effective date of a regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If no objections are filed and no hearing is requested on a regulation under § 12.20(e), the regulation is effective on the date specified in the regulation as promulgated.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner shall publish a confirmation of the effective date of the regulation. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> document confirming the effective date of the regulation may extend the time for compliance with the regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.38" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.2.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.38   Effective date of an order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person who is subject to a notice of opportunity for hearing under § 12.21(b) does not request a hearing, the Commissioner will—
</P>
<P>(1) Publish a final order denying or withdrawing approval of an NDA, NADA, device premarket approval application, or biologics license, in whole or in part, or revoking a device product development protocol or notice of completion, or declaring that such a protocol has not been completed, and stating the effective date of the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the order involves withdrawal of approval of an NADA, forthwith revoke, in whole or in part, the applicable regulation, under section 512(i) of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) If a person who is subject to a notice of opportunity for hearing under § 12.21(b) requests a hearing and others do not, the Commissioner may issue a final order covering all the drug or device products at once or may issue more than one final order covering different drug or device products at different times.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Appearance and Participation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.40   Appearance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person who has filed a notice of participation under § 12.45 may appear in person or by counsel or other representative in any hearing and, subject to § 12.89, may be heard concerning all relevant issues.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer may strike a person's appearance for violation of the rules of conduct in § 12.90.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.45   Notice of participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after publication of the notice of hearing under § 12.35, a person desiring to participate in a hearing is to file with the Dockets Management Staff under § 10.20 a notice of participation in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>   (Date)
</FP>
<P>Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<HD1>Notice of Participation
</HD1>
<DOCKETHD>Docket No. ____
</DOCKETHD>
<P>Under 21 CFR part 12, please enter the participation of:
</P>
<FP-DASH>   (Name)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>   (Street address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>   (City and State)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>   (Telephone number)
</FP-DASH>
<P>Service on the above will be accepted by:
</P>
<FP-DASH>   (Name)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>   (Street address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>   (City and State)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>   (Telephone number)
</FP-DASH>
<P>The following statements are made as part of this notice of participation:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Specific interests.</I> (A statement of the specific interest of the person in the proceeding, including the specific issues of fact concerning which the person desires to be heard. This part need not be completed by a party to the proceeding.)
</P>
<P>B. <I>Commitment to participate.</I> (A statement that the person will present documentary evidence or testimony at the hearing and will comply with the requirements of 21 CFR 12.85, or, in the case of a hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry, with the requirements of 21 CFR 13.25.)
</P>
<FP-DASH>   (Signed)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) An amendment to a notice of participation should be filed with the Dockets Management Staff and served on all participants.
</P>
<P>(c) No person may participate in a hearing who has not filed a written notice of participation or whose participation has been stricken under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer may permit the late filing of a notice of participation upon a showing of good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer may strike the participation of a person for nonparticipation in the hearing or failure to comply with any requirement of this subpart, e.g., disclosure of information as required by § 12.85 or the prehearing order issued under § 12.92. Any person whose participation is stricken may petition the Commissioner for interlocutory review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.50   Advice on public participation in hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designated agency contact.</I> All inquiries from the public about scheduling, location, and general procedures should be addressed to the Deputy Commissioner for Policy (HF-22), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, or telephone 301-443-3480. The staff of the Associate Commissioner for Regulatory Affairs will attempt to respond promptly to all inquiries from members of the public, as well as to simple requests for information from participants in hearings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing schedule changes.</I> Requests by hearing participants for changes in the schedule of a hearing or for filing documents, briefs, or other pleadings should be made in writing directly to the Administrative Law Judge (HF-3), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Legal advice to individuals.</I> FDA does not have the resources to provide legal advice to members of the public concerning participation in hearings. Furthermore, to do so would compromise the independence of the Commissioner's office and invite charges of improper interference in the hearing process. Accordingly, the Deputy Commissioner for Policy (HF-22) will not answer questions about the strengths or weaknesses of a party's position at a hearing, litigation strategy, or similar matters.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Role of the office of the Chief Counsel.</I> Under no circumstances will the office of the Chief Counsel of FDA directly provide advice about a hearing to any person who is participating or may participate in the hearing. In every hearing, certain attorneys in the office are designated to represent the center or centers whose action is the subject of the hearing. Other members of the office, including ordinarily the Chief Counsel, are designated to advise the Commissioner on a final decision in the matter. It is not compatible with these functions, nor would it be professionally responsible, for the attorneys in the office of the Chief Counsel also to advise other participants in a hearing, or for any attorney who may be called on to advise the Commissioner to respond to inquiries from other participants in the hearing, for such participants may be urging views contrary to those of the center involved or to what may ultimately be the final conclusions of the Commissioner. Accordingly, members of the office of the Chief Counsel, other than the attorneys responsible for representing the center whose action is the subject of the hearing, will not answer questions about the hearing from any participant or potential participant.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Communication between participants and attorneys.</I> Participants in a hearing may communicate with the attorneys responsible for representing the center whose action is the subject of the hearing, in the same way that they may communicate with counsel for any other party in interest about the presentation of matters at the hearing. It would be inappropriate to bar discussion of such matters as stipulations of fact, joint presentation of witnesses, or possible settlement of hearing issues. Members of the public, including participants at hearings, are advised, however, that all such communications, including those by telephone, will be recorded in memoranda that can be filed with the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22329, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 8994, Mar. 6, 1985; 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 58 FR 17096, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Presiding Officer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.60   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer in a hearing will be the Commissioner, a member of the Commissioner's office to whom the responsibility for the matter involved has been delegated, or an administrative law judge qualified under 5 U.S.C. 3105.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.62" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.62   Commencement of functions.</HEAD>
<P>The functions of the presiding officer begin upon designation and end upon the filing of the initial decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.70   Authority of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer has all powers necessary to conduct a fair, expeditious, and orderly hearing, including the power to—
</P>
<P>(a) Specify and change the date, time, and place of oral hearings and conferences;
</P>
<P>(b) Establish the procedures for use in developing evidentiary facts, including the procedures in § 12.92(b) and to rule on the need for oral testimony and cross-examination under § 12.87(b);
</P>
<P>(c) Prepare statements of the areas of factual disagreement among the participants;
</P>
<P>(d) Hold conferences to settle, simplify, or determine the issues in a hearing or to consider other matters that may expedite the hearing;
</P>
<P>(e) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(f) Control the course of the hearing and the conduct of the participants;
</P>
<P>(g) Examine witnesses and strike their testimony if they fail to respond fully to proper questions;
</P>
<P>(h) Rule on, admit, exclude, or limit evidence;
</P>
<P>(i) Set the time for filing pleadings;
</P>
<P>(j) Rule on motions and other procedural matters;
</P>
<P>(k) Rule on motions for summary decision under § 12.93;
</P>
<P>(l) Conduct the hearing in stages if the number of parties is large or the issues are numerous and complex;
</P>
<P>(m) Waive, suspend, or modify any rule in this subpart under § 10.19 if the presiding officer determines that no party will be prejudiced, the ends of justice will be served, and the action is in accordance with law;
</P>
<P>(n) Strike the participation of any person under § 12.45(e) or exclude any person from the hearing under § 12.90, or take other reasonable disciplinary action; and
</P>
<P>(o) Take any action for the fair, expeditious, and orderly conduct of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.75" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.75   Disqualification of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant may request the presiding officer to disqualify himself/herself and withdraw from the proceeding. The ruling on any such request may be appealed in accordance with § 12.97(b).
</P>
<P>(b) A presiding officer who is aware of grounds for disqualification shall withdraw from the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.78" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.78   Unavailability of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the presiding officer is unable to act for any reason, the Commissioner will assign the powers and duties to another presiding officer. The substitution will not affect the hearing, except as the new presiding officer may order.
</P>
<P>(b) Any motion based on the substitution must be made within 10 days.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.80   Filing and service of submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Submissions, including pleadings in a hearing, are to be filed with Dockets Management Staff under § 10.20 of this chapter except that two copies need be submitted (original and redacted version) for confidential petitions. Otherwise, only one copy is necessary. To determine compliance with filing deadlines in a hearing, a submission is considered submitted on the date it is actually received by Dockets Management Staff. When this part allows a response to a submission and prescribes a period of time for the filing of the response, an additional 3 days are allowed for the filing of the response if the submission is served by mail.


</P>
<P>(b) The person making a submission shall serve copies of it on the other participants. Submissions of documentary data and information are not required to be served on each participant, but any accompanying transmittal letter, pleading, summary, statement of position, certification under paragraph (d) of this section, or similar document must be served on each participant.


</P>
<P>(c) Service is accomplished by mailing a submission to the address shown in the notice of participation or by personal delivery.
</P>
<P>(d) All submissions are to be accompanied by a certificate of service, or a statement that service is not required.
</P>
<P>(e) No written submission or other portion of the administrative record may be held in confidence, except as provided in § 12.105.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.82" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.82   Petition to participate in forma pauperis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant who believes that compliance with the filing and service requirements of this section constitutes an unreasonable financial burden may submit to the Commissioner a petition to participate in forma pauperis.
</P>
<P>(b) The petition will be in the form specified in § 10.30 except that the heading will be “Request to Participate in Forma Pauperis, Docket No. ____.” Filing and service requirements for the petition are described in paragraph (c) of this section, whether or not the petition is granted. The petition must demonstrate that either: (1) The person is indigent and a strong public interest justifies participation, or (2) the person's participation is in the public interest because it can be considered of primary benefit to the general public.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner may grant or deny the petition. If the petition is granted, the participant need file only one copy of each submission with the Dockets Management Staff. TheDockets Management Staff will make sufficient additional copies for the administrative record, and serve a copy on each other participant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.83" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.83   Advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>Before or during a hearing, a person may, under § 10.85, request the Commissioner for an advisory opinion on whether any regulation or order under consideration in the proceeding applies to a specific situation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.85" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.85   Disclosure of data and information by the participants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before the notice of hearing is published under § 12.35, the director of the center responsible for the matters involved in the hearing shall submit the following to the Dockets Management Staff:
</P>
<P>(1) The relevant portions of the administrative record of the proceeding. Portions of the administrative record not relevant to the issues in the hearing are not part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(2) All documents in the director's files containing factual information, whether favorable or unfavorable to the director's position, which relate to the issues involved in the hearing. <I>Files</I> means the principal files in the center in which documents relating to the issues in the hearing are ordinarily kept, e.g., the food additive master file and the food additive petition in the case of issues concerning a food additive, or the new drug application in the case of issues concerning a new drug. Internal memoranda reflecting the deliberative process, and attorney work product and material prepared specifically for use in connection with the hearing, are not required to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(3) All other documentary data and information relied upon.
</P>
<P>(4) A narrative position statement on the factual issues in the notice of hearing and the type of supporting evidence the director intends to introduce.
</P>
<P>(5) A signed statement that, to the director's best knowledge and belief, the submission complies with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 60 days of the publication of the notice of hearing or, if no participant will be prejudiced, within another period of time set by the presiding officer, each participant shall submit to the Dockets Management Staff all data and information specified in paragraph (a)(2) through (5) of this section, and any objections that the administrative record filed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is incomplete. With respect to the data and information specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, participants shall exercise reasonable diligence in identifying documents in files comparable to those described in that paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) Submissions required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be supplemented later in the proceeding, with the approval of the presiding officer, upon a showing that the material contained in the supplement was not reasonably known or available when the submission was made or that the relevance of the material contained in the supplement could not reasonably have been forseen.
</P>
<P>(d) A participant's failure to comply substantially and in good faith with this section constitutes a waiver of the right to participate further in the hearing; failure of a party to comply constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) Participants may reference each other's submissions. To reduce duplicative submissions, participants are encouraged to exchange and consolidate lists of documentary evidence. If a particular document is bulky or in limited supply and cannot reasonably be reproduced, and it constitutes relevant evidence, the presiding officer may authorize submission of a reduced number of copies.
</P>
<P>(f) The presiding officer will rule on questions relating to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.87" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.87   Purpose; oral and written testimony; burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The objective of a formal evidentiary hearing is the fair determination of relevant facts consistent with the right of all interested persons to participate and the public interest in promptly settling controversial matters affecting the public health and welfare.
</P>
<P>(b) Accordingly, the evidence at a hearing is to be developed to the maximum extent through written submissions, including written direct testimony, which may be in narrative or in question-and-answer form.
</P>
<P>(1) In a hearing, the issues may have general applicability and depend on general facts that do not concern particular action of a specific party, e.g., the safety or effectiveness of a class of drug products, the safety of a food or color additive, or a definition and standard of identity for a food; or the issues may have specific applicability to past action and depend upon particular facts concerning only that party, e.g., the applicability of a grandfather clause to a particular brand of a drug or the failure of a particular manufacturer to meet required manufacturing and processing specifications or other general standards.
</P>
<P>(i) If the proceeding involves general issues, direct testimony will be submitted in writing, except on a showing that written direct testimony is insufficient for a full and true disclosure of relevant facts and that the participant will be prejudiced if unable to present oral direct testimony. If the proceeding involves particular issues, each party may determine whether, and the extent to which, each wishes to present direct testimony orally or in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Oral cross-examination of witnesses will be permitted if it appears that alternative means of developing the evidence are insufficient for a full and true disclosure of the facts and that the party requesting oral cross-examination will be prejudiced by denial of the request or that oral cross-examination is the most effective and efficient means to clarify the matters at issue.
</P>
<P>(2) Witnesses shall give testimony under oath.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, in a hearing involving issuing, amending, or revoking a regulation or order, the originator of the proposal or petition or of any significant modification will be, within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 556(d), the proponent of the regulation or order, and will have the burden of proof. A participant who proposes to substitute a new provision for a provision objected to has the burden of proof in relation to the new provision.
</P>
<P>(d) At a hearing involving issuing, amending, or revoking a regulation or order relating to the safety or effectiveness of a drug, device, food additive, or color additive, the participant who is contending that the product is safe or effective or both and who is requesting approval or contesting withdrawal of approval has the burden of proof in establishing safety or effectiveness or both and thus the right to approval. The burden of proof remains on that participant in an amendment or revocation proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.89" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.89   Participation of nonparties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A nonparty participant may—
</P>
<P>(1) Attend all conferences (including the prehearing conference), oral proceedings, and arguments;
</P>
<P>(2) Submit written testimony and documentary evidence for inclusion in the record;
</P>
<P>(3) File written objections, briefs, and other pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(4) Present oral argument.
</P>
<P>(b) A nonparty participant may not—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit written interrogatories; and
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(c) A person whose petition is the subject of the hearing has the same right as a party.
</P>
<P>(d) A nonparty participant will be permitted additional rights if the presiding officer concludes that the participant's interests would not be adequately protected otherwise or that broader participation is required for a full and true disclosure of the facts, but the rights of a nonparty participant may not exceed the rights of a party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 48 FR 51770, Nov. 14, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.90   Conduct at oral hearings or conferences.</HEAD>
<P>All participants in a hearing will conduct themselves with dignity and observe judicial standards of practice and ethics. They may not indulge in personal attacks, unseemly wrangling, or intemperate accusations or characterizations. Representatives of parties shall, to the extent possible, restrain clients from improprieties in connection with any proceeding. Disrespectful, disorderly, or contumacious language or conduct, refusal to comply with directions, use of dilatory tactics, or refusal to adhere to reasonable standards of orderly and ethical conduct during any hearing, constitute grounds for immediate exclusion from the proceeding by the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.91" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.91   Time and place of prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>A prehearing conference will commence at the date, time, and place announced in the notice of hearing, or in a later notice, or as specified by the presiding officer in a notice modifying a prior notice. At that conference the presiding officer will establish the methods and procedures to be used in developing the evidence, determine reasonable time periods for the conduct of the hearing, and designate the times and places for the production of witnesses for direct and cross-examination if leave to conduct oral examination is granted on any issue, as far as practicable at that time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.92" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.92   Prehearing conference procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Participants in a hearing are to appear at the prehearing conference prepared to discuss and resolve all matters specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) To expedite the hearing, participants are encouraged to prepare in advance for the prehearing conference. Participants should cooperate with each other, and request information and begin preparation of testimony at the earliest possible time. Failure of a participant to appear at the prehearing conference or to raise matters that could reasonably be anticipated and resolved at that time will not delay the progress of the hearing, and constitutes a waiver of the rights of the participant regarding such matters as objections to the agreements reached, actions taken, or rulings issued by the presiding officer and may be grounds for striking the participation under § 12.45.
</P>
<P>(2) Participants shall bring to the prehearing conference the following specific information, which will be filed with the Dockets Management Staff under § 12.80:
</P>
<P>(i) Any additional information to supplement the submission filed under § 12.85, which may be filed if approved under § 12.85(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of all witnesses whose testimony will be offered, orally or in writing, at the hearing, with a full curriculum vitae for each. Additional witnesses may later be identified, with the approval of the presiding officer, on a showing that the witness was not reasonably available at the time of the prehearing conference or the relevance of the witness' views could not reasonably have been foreseen at that time.
</P>
<P>(iii) All prior written statements including articles and any written statement signed or adopted, or a recording or transcription of an oral statement made, by persons identified as witnesses if—
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The statement is available without making request of the witness or any other person;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The statement relates to the subject matter of the witness' testimony; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The statement either was made before the time the person agreed to become a witness or has been made publicly available by the person.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer will conduct a prehearing conference for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To determine the areas of factual disagreement to be considered at the hearing. The presiding officer may hold conferences off the record in an effort to reach agreement on disputed factual questions.
</P>
<P>(2) To identify the most appropriate techniques for developing evidence on issues in controversy and the manner and sequence in which they will be used, including, where oral examination is to be conducted, the sequence in which witnesses will be produced for, and the time and place of, oral examination. The presiding officer may consider—
</P>
<P>(i) Submission of narrative statements of position on factual issues in controversy;
</P>
<P>(ii) Submission of evidence or identification of previously submitted evidence to support such statements, such as affidavits, verified statements of fact, data, studies, and reports;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exchange of written interrogatories directed to particular witnesses;
</P>
<P>(iv) Written requests for the production of additional documentation, data, or other relevant information;
</P>
<P>(v) Submission of written questions to be asked by the presiding officer of a specific witness; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Identification of facts for which oral examination and/or cross-examination is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) To group participants with substantially like interests for presenting evidence, making motions and objections, including motions for summary decision, filing briefs, and presenting oral argument.
</P>
<P>(4) To hear and rule on objections to admitting into evidence information submitted under § 12.85.
</P>
<P>(5) To obtain stipulations and admissions of facts.
</P>
<P>(6) To take other action that may expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer shall issue, orally or in writing, a prehearing order reciting the actions taken at the prehearing conference and setting forth the schedule for the hearing. The order will control the subsequent course of the hearing unless modified by the presiding officer for good cause.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.93" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.93   Summary decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the hearing commences, a participant may move, with or without supporting affidavits, for a summary decision on any issue in the hearing. Any other participant may, within 10 days after service of the motion, which time may be extended for an additional 10 days for good cause, serve opposing affidavits or countermove for summary decision. The presiding officer may set the matter for argument and call for the submission of briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer will grant the motion if the objections, requests for hearing, other pleadings, affidavits, and other material filed in connection with the hearing, or matters officially noticed, show that there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and that a participant is entitled to summary decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Affidavits should set forth facts that would be admissible in evidence and show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated. When a properly supported motion for summary decision is made, a participant opposing the motion may not rest upon mere allegations or denials or general descriptions of positions and contentions; affidavits or other responses must set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue of fact for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) Should it appear from the affidavits of a participant opposing the motion that for sound reasons stated, facts essential to justify the opposition cannot be presented by affidavit, the presiding officer may deny the motion for summary decision, order a continuance to permit affidavits or additional evidence to be obtained, or issue other just order.
</P>
<P>(e) If on motion under this section a summary decision is not rendered upon the whole case or for all the relief asked. and evidentiary facts need to be developed, the presiding officer will issue an order specifying the facts that appear without substantial controversy and directing further evidentiary proceedings. The facts so specified will be deemed established.
</P>
<P>(f) A participant may obtain interlocutory review by the Commissioner of a summary decision of the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.94" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.94   Receipt of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A hearing consists of the development of evidence and the resolution of factual issues as set forth in this subpart and in the prehearing order.
</P>
<P>(b) All orders, transcripts, written statements of position, written direct testimony, written interrogatories and responses, and any other written material submitted in the proceeding is a part of the administrative record of the hearing, and will be promptly placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff, except as provided in § 12.105.
</P>
<P>(c) Written evidence, identified as such, is admissible unless a participant objects and the presiding officer excludes it on objection of a participant or on the presiding officer's own initiative.
</P>
<P>(1) The presiding officer may exclude written evidence as inadmissible only if—
</P>
<P>(i) The evidence is irrelevant, immaterial, unreliable, or repetitive;
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclusion of part or all of the written evidence of a participant is necessary to enforce the requirements of this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The evidence was not submitted as required by § 12.85.
</P>
<P>(2) Items of written evidence are to be submitted as separate documents, sequentially numbered, except that a voluminous document may be submitted in the form of a cross-reference to the documents filed under § 12.85.
</P>
<P>(3) Written evidence excluded by the presiding officer as inadmissible remains a part of the administrative record, as an offer of proof, for judicial review.
</P>
<P>(d) Testimony, whether on direct or on cross-examination, is admissible as evidence unless a participant objects and the presiding officer excludes it.
</P>
<P>(1) The presiding officer may exclude oral evidence as inadmissible only if—
</P>
<P>(i) The evidence is irrelevant, immaterial, unreliable, or repetitive; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclusion of part or all of the evidence is necessary to enforce the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If oral evidence is excluded as inadmissible, the participant may take written exception to the ruling in a brief to the Commissioner, without taking oral exception at the hearing. Upon review, the Commissioner may reopen the hearing to permit the evidence to be admitted if the Commissioner determines that its exclusion was erroneous and prejudicial.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer may schedule conferences as needed to monitor the program of the hearing, narrow and simplify the issues, and consider and rule on motions, requests, and other matters concerning the development of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(f) The presiding officer will conduct such proceedings as are necessary for the taking of oral testimony, for the oral examination of witnesses by the presiding officer on the basis of written questions previously submitted by the parties, and for the conduct of cross-examination of witnesses by the parties. The presiding officer shall exclude irrelevant or repetitious written questions and limit oral cross-examination to prevent irrelevant or repetitious examination.
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer shall order the proceedings closed for the taking of oral testimony relating to matters specified in § 10.20(j)(2)(i) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>). Such closed proceedings will be conducted in accordance with § 10.20(j)(3). Participation in closed proceedings will be limited to the witness, the witness' counsel, and Federal Government executive branch employees and special government employees. Closed proceedings will be permitted only for, and will be limited to, oral testimony directly relating to matters specified in § 10.20(j)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.95" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.95   Official notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Official notice may be taken of such matters as might be judicially noticed by the courts of the United States or of any other matter peculiarly within the general knowledge of FDA as an expert agency.
</P>
<P>(b) If official notice is taken of a material fact not appearing in the evidence of record, a participant, on timely request, will be afforded an opportunity to show the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.96" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.96   Briefs and arguments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Promptly after the taking of evidence is completed, the presiding officer will announce a schedule for the filing of briefs. Briefs are to be filed ordinarily within 45 days of the close of the hearing. Briefs must include a statement of position on each issue, with specific and complete citations to the evidence and points of law relied on. Briefs must contain proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer may, as a matter of discretion, permit oral argument after the briefs are filed.
</P>
<P>(c) Briefs and oral argument are to refrain from disclosing specific details of written and oral testimony and documents relating to matters specified in § 10.20(j)(2)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>), except as specifically authorized in a protective order issued under § 10.20(j)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.97" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.97   Interlocutory appeal from ruling of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and in §§ 12.35(b), 12.45(e), 12.93(f), and 12.99(d), when an interlocutory appeal is specifically authorized by this subpart, rulings of the presiding officer may not be appealed to the Commissioner before the Commissioner's consideration of the entire record of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) A ruling of the presiding officer is subject to interlocutory appeal to the Commissioner if the presiding officer certifies on the record or in writing that immediate review is necessary to prevent exceptional delay, expense, or prejudice to any participant, or substantial harm to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) When an interlocutory appeal is made to the Commissioner, a participant may file a brief with the Commissioner only if specifically authorized by the presiding officer or the Commissioner, and if such authorization is granted, within the period the Commissioner directs. If a participant is authorized to file a brief, any other participant may file a brief in opposition, within the period the Commissioner directs. If no briefs are authorized, the appeal will be presented as an oral argument to the Commissioner. The oral argument will be transcribed. If briefs are authorized, oral argument will be heard only at the discretion of the Commissioner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.98" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.98   Official transcript.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer will arrange for a verbatim stenographic transcript of oral testimony and for necessary copies of the transcript.
</P>
<P>(b) One copy of the transcript will be placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in § 12.105, copies of the transcript may be obtained by application to the official reporter and payment of costs thereof or under part 20.
</P>
<P>(d) Witnesses, participants, and counsel have 30 days from the time the transcript becomes available to propose corrections in the transcript of oral testimony. Corrections are permitted only for transcription errors. The presiding officer shall promptly order justified corrections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.99" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.5.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.99   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A motion on any matter relating to the proceeding is to be filed under § 12.80, and must include a draft order, except one made in the course of an oral hearing before the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(b) A response may be filed within 10 days of service of a motion. The time may be shortened or extended by the presiding officer for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(c) The moving party has no right to reply, except as permitted by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer shall rule upon the motion and may certify that ruling to the Commissioner for interlocutory review.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Administrative Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.100   Administrative record of a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The record of a hearing consists of—
</P>
<P>(1) The order or regulation or notice of opportunity for hearing that gave rise to the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) All objections and requests for hearing filed by the Dockets Management Staff under §§ 12.20 through 12.22;
</P>
<P>(3) The notice of hearing published under § 12.35;
</P>
<P>(4) All notices of participation filed under § 12.45;
</P>
<P>(5) All <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices pertinent to the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(6) All submissions filed under § 12.82, e.g., the submissions required by § 12.85, all other documentary evidence and written testimony, pleadings, statements of position, briefs, and other similar documents;
</P>
<P>(7) The transcript, written order, and all other documents relating to the prehearing conference, prepared under § 12.92;
</P>
<P>(8) All documents relating to any motion for summary decision under § 12.93;
</P>
<P>(9) All documents of which official notice is taken under § 12.95;
</P>
<P>(10) All pleadings filed under § 12.96;
</P>
<P>(11) All documents relating to any interlocutory appeal under § 12.97;
</P>
<P>(12) All transcripts prepared under § 12.98; and
</P>
<P>(13) Any other document relating to the hearing and filed with the Dockets Management Staff by the presiding officer or any participant;
</P>
<P>(b) The record of the administrative proceeding is closed—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the taking of evidence, when specified by the presiding officer; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to pleadings, at the time specified in § 12.96(a) for the filing of briefs.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer may reopen the record to receive further evidence at any time before the filing of the initial decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.6.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.105   Examination of record.</HEAD>
<P>Documents in the record will be publicly available in accordance with § 10.20(j). Documents available for examination or copying will be placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff promptly upon receipt in that office.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Initial and Final Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.7.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.120   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall prepare and file an initial decision as soon as possible after the filing of briefs and oral argument.
</P>
<P>(b) The initial decision must contain—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact based issued upon relevant, material, and reliable evidence of record;
</P>
<P>(2) Conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(3) A discussion of the reasons for the findings and conclusions, including a discussion of the significant contentions made by any participant;
</P>
<P>(4) Citations to the record supporting the findings and conclusions;
</P>
<P>(5) An appropriate regulation or order supported by substantial evidence of record and based upon the findings of fact and conclusions of law; and
</P>
<P>(6) An effective date for the regulation or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The initial decision must refrain from disclosing specific details of matters specified in § 10.20(j)(2)(i) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>), except as specifically authorized in a protective order issued pursuant to § 10.20(j)(3).
</P>
<P>(d) The initial decision is to be filed with the Dockets Management Staff  and served upon all participants. Once the initial decision is filed with the Dockets Management Staff, the presiding officer has no further jurisdiction over the matter, and any motions or requests filed with the Dockets Management Staff will be decided by the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(e) The initial decision becomes the final decision of the Commissioner by operation of law unless a participant files exceptions with the Dockets Management Staff under § 12.125(a) or the Commissioner files a notice of review under § 12.125(f).
</P>
<P>(f) Notice that an initial decision has become the decision of the Commissioner without appeal to or review by the Commissioner will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or the Commissioner may publish the decision when it is of widespread interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.7.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.125   Appeal from or review of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant may appeal an initial decision to the Commissioner by filing exceptions with the Dockets Management Staff, and serving them on the other participants, within 60 days of the date of the initial decision.
</P>
<P>(b) Exceptions must specifically identify alleged errors in the findings of fact or conclusions of law in the initial decision, and provide supporting citations to the record. Oral argument before the Commissioner may be requested in the exceptions.
</P>
<P>(c) Any reply to the exceptions is to be filed and served within 60 days of the end of the period for filing exceptions.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner may extend the time for filing exceptions under paragraph (a) of this section or replies to exceptions under paragraph (c) of this section only upon a showing by a participant of extraordinary circumstances. Such an extension shall be requested by filing a written request with the Commissioner's Executive Secretariat (HF-40) and serving copies of the request on the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), the Chief Counsel (GCF-1), and all hearing participants.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Commissioner decides to hear oral argument, the participants will be informed of the date, time, and place, the amount of time allotted to each participant, and the issues to be addressed.
</P>
<P>(f) Within 10 days following the expiration of the time for filing exceptions (including any extensions), the Commissioner may file with the Dockets Management Staff, and serve on the participants, a notice of the Commissioner's determination to review the initial decision. The Commissioner may invite the participants to file briefs or present oral argument on the matter. The time for filing briefs or presenting oral argument will be specified in that or a later notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22339, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 29453, Aug. 5, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.130" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.7.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.130   Decision by Commissioner on appeal or review of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On appeal from or review of the initial decision, the Commissioner has all the powers given to make the initial decision. On the Commissioner's own initiative or on motion, the Commissioner may remand the matter to the presiding officer for any further action necessary for a proper decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The scope of the issues on appeal is the same as the scope of the issues at the public hearing unless the Commissioner specifies otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) As soon as possible after the filing of briefs and any oral argument, the Commissioner will issue a final decision in the proceeding, which meets the requirements established in § 12.120 (b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner may adopt the initial decision as the final decision.
</P>
<P>(e) Notice of the Commissioner's decision will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or the Commissioner may publish the decision when it is of widespread interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.139" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.7.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.139   Reconsideration and stay of action.</HEAD>
<P>Following notice or publication of the final decisions, a participant may petition the Commissioner for reconsideration of any part or all of the decision under § 10.33 or may petition for a stay of the decision under § 10.35.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Judicial Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.140" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.8.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.140   Review by the courts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner's final decision constitutes final agency action from which a participant may petition for judicial review under the statutes governing the matter involved. Before requesting an order from a court for a stay of action pending review, a participant shall first submit a petition for a stay of action under § 10.35.
</P>
<P>(b) Under 28 U.S.C. 2112(a), FDA will request consolidation of all petitions related to a particular matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.159" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.9.8.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.159   Copies of petitions for judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Counsel for FDA has been designated by the Secretary as the officer on whom copies of petitions of judicial review are to be served. This officer is responsible for filing the record on which the final decision is based. The record of the proceeding is certified by the Commissioner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="13" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 13—PUBLIC HEARING BEFORE A PUBLIC BOARD OF INQUIRY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 551-558, 701-721; 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-393, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b-263n, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 22348, Apr. 13, 1979, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 13 appear at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this part apply when—
</P>
<P>(a) The Commissioner concludes, as a matter of discretion, that it is in the public interest to hold a public hearing before a Public Board of Inquiry (<I>Board</I>) with respect to any matter before FDA;
</P>
<P>(b) Under specific sections of this chapter a matter before FDA is subject to a hearing before a Board; or
</P>
<P>(c) Under § 12.32, a person who has a right to an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing waives that opportunity and requests that a Board act as an administrative law tribunal concerning the matters involved, and the Commissioner decides to accept this request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.5   Notice of a hearing before a Board.</HEAD>
<P>If the Commissioner determines that a Board should be established to conduct a hearing on any matter, a notice of hearing will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) If the hearing is under § 13.1 (a) or (b), all applicable information described in § 12.32(e).
</P>
<P>(1) Any written document that is to be the subject matter of the hearing will be published as a part of the notice, or the notice will refer to it if the document has already been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or state that the document is available from the Dockets Management Staff or an agency employee designated in the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of a hearing under § 13.1 (a) or (b), all participants who file a notice of participation under § 12.32(e)(6)(ii) are deemed to be parties and entitled to participate in selection of the Board under § 13.15(b).
</P>
<P>(b) If the hearing is in lieu of a formal evidentiary hearing, as provided in § 13.1(c), all of the information described in § 12.32(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22348, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 26375, June 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.10   Members of a Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All members of a Board are to have medical, technical, scientific, or other qualifications relevant to the issues to be considered, are subject to the conflict of interest rules applicable to special Government employees, and are to be free from bias or prejudice concerning the issues involved. A member of a Board may be a full-time or part-time Federal Government employee or may serve on an FDA advisory committee but, except with the agreement of all parties, may not currently be a full-time or part-time employee of FDA or otherwise act as a special Government employee of FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 30 days of publication of the notice of hearing, the director of the center of FDA responsible for a matter before a Board, the other parties to the proceeding, and any person whose petition was granted and is the subject of the hearing, shall each submit to the Dockets Management Staff the names and full curricula vitae of five nominees for members of the Board. Nominations are to state that the nominee is aware of the nomination, is interested in becoming a member of the Board, and appears to have no conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(1) Any two or more persons entitled to nominate members may agree upon a joint list of five qualified nominees.
</P>
<P>(2) The lists of nominees must be submitted to the persons entitled to submit a list of nominees under this paragraph but not to all participants. Within 10 days of receipt of the lists of nominees, such persons may submit comments to the Dockets Management Staff on whether the nominees of the other persons meet the criteria established in paragraph (a) of this section. A person submitting comments to the Dockets Management Staff shall submit them to all persons entitled to submit a list of nominees.
</P>
<P>(3) The lists of nominees and comments on them are to be held in confidence by the Dockets Management Staff as part of the administrative record of the proceeding and are not to be made available for public disclosure, and all persons who submit or receive them shall similarly hold them in confidence. This portion of the administrative record remains confidential but is available for judicial review in the event that it becomes relevant to any issue before a court.
</P>
<P>(c) After reviewing the lists of nominees and any comments, the Commissioner will choose three qualified persons as members of a Board. One member will be from the lists of nominees submitted by the director of the center and by any person whose petition was granted and is the subject of the hearing. The second will be from the lists of nominees submitted by the other parties. The Commissioner may choose the third member from any source. That member is the Chairman of the Board.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Commissioner is unable to find a qualified person with no conflict of interest from among a list of nominees or if additional information is needed, the Commissioner will request the submission of the required additional nominees or information.
</P>
<P>(2) If a person fails to submit a list of nominees as required by paragraph (b) of this section, the Commissioner may choose a qualified member without further consultation with that person.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner will announce the members of a Board by filing a memorandum in the record of the proceeding and sending a copy to all participants.
</P>
<P>(d) Instead of using the selection method in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the director of the center, the other parties to the proceeding, and any person whose petition was granted and is the subject of the hearing, may, with the approval of the Commissioner, agree that a standing advisory committee listed in § 14.80 constitutes the Board for a particular proceeding, or that another procedure is to be used for selection of the members of the Board, or that the Board consists of a larger number of members.
</P>
<P>(e) The members of a Board serve as consultants to the Commissioner and are special Government employees or Government employees. A Board functions as an administrative law tribunal in the proceeding and is not an advisory committee subject to the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act or part 14.
</P>
<P>(f) The Chairman of the Board has the authority of a presiding officer set out in § 12.70.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22348, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 8994, Mar. 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.15" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.15   Separation of functions; ex parte communications; administrative support.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The proceeding of a Board are subject to the provisions of § 10.55 relating to separation of functions and ex parte communications. Representatives of the participants in any proceeding before a Board, including any members of the office of the Chief Counsel of FDA assigned to advise the center responsible for the matter, may have no contact with the members of the Board, except as participants in the proceeding, and may not participate in the deliberations of the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) Administrative support for a Board is to be provided only by the office of the Commissioner and the office of the Chief Counsel for FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22348, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.20   Submissions to a Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Submissions are to be filed with the Dockets Management Staff under § 10.20.
</P>
<P>(b) The person making a submission shall serve copies of it on each participant in the proceeding, except as provided in §§ 13.10(b)(2) and 13.45. Submissions of documentary data and information need not be sent to each participant, but any accompanying transmittal letter, summary, statement of position, certification under paragraph (d) of this section, or similar document must be.
</P>
<P>(c) A submission must be mailed to the address shown in the notice of appearance or personally delivered.
</P>
<P>(d) All submissions are to be accompanied by a certificate of service, or a statement that service is not required.
</P>
<P>(e) No written submission or other portion of the administrative record may be held in confidence, except as provided in §§ 13.10(b)(2) and 13.45.
</P>
<P>(f) A participant who believes that compliance with the requirements of this section constitutes an unreasonable financial burden may submit to the Commissioner a petition to participate in forma pauperis in the form and manner specified in § 12.82. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.25   Disclosure of data and information by the participants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before the notice of hearing is published under § 13.5, the director of the center responsible for the matters involved in the hearing must submit to the Dockets Management Staff—
</P>
<P>(1) The relevant portions of the existing administrative record of the proceeding. Portions of the administrative record not relevant to the issues in the hearing are not part of the administrative record;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of all persons whose views will be presented orally or in writing at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) All documents in the director's files containing factual information, whether favorable or unfavorable to the director's position, which relate to the issues involved in the hearing. <I>Files</I> means the principal files in the center in which documents relating to the issues in the hearing are ordinarily kept, e.g., the food additive master file and the food additive petition in the case of issues concerning a food additive, or the new drug application in the case of issues concerning a new drug. Internal memoranda reflecting the deliberative process, and attorney work product and material prepared specifically for use in connection with the hearing, are not required to be submitted;
</P>
<P>(4) All other documentary information relied on; and
</P>
<P>(5) A signed statement that, to the best of the director's knowledge and belief, the submission complies with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Within the time prescribed in the notice of hearing published under § 13.5, each participant shall submit to the Dockets Management Staff all information specified in paragraph (a)(2) through (5) of this section and any objections that the administrative record filed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is incomplete. With respect to the information specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, participants are to exercise reasonable diligence in identifying documents in files comparable to those described in that paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) The submissions required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be supplemented later in the proceeding, with the approval of the Board, on a showing that the views of the persons or the material contained in the supplement was not known or reasonably available when the initial submission was made or that the relevance of the views of the persons or the material contained in the supplement could not reasonably have been foreseen.
</P>
<P>(d) The failure to comply substantially and in good faith with this section in the case of a participant constitutes a waiver of the right to participate further in the hearing and in the case of a party constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) The Chairman rules on questions relating to this section. Any participant dissatisfied with a ruling may petition the Commissioner for interlocutory review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22348, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 8994, Mar. 6, 1985; 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.30   Proceedings of a Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of a Board is to review medical, scientific, and technical issues fairly and expeditiously. The proceedings of a Board are conducted as a scientific inquiry rather than a legal trial.
</P>
<P>(b) A Board may not hold its first hearing until after all participants have submitted the information required by § 13.25.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chairman calls the first hearing of the Board. Notice of the time and location of the first hearing is to be published at least 15 days in advance and the hearing will be open to the public. All participants will have an opportunity at the first hearing to make an oral presentation of the information and views which in their opinion are pertinent to the resolution of the issues being considered by a Board. A participant's presentation may be made by more than one person. The Chairman determines the order of the presentation. Participants may not interrupt a presentation, but members of the Board may ask questions. At the conclusion of a presentation, each of the other participants may briefly comment on the presentation and may request that the Board conduct further questioning on specified matters. Members of the Board may then ask further questions. Any other participant may be permitted to ask questions if the Chairman determines that it will help resolve the issues.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing is informal and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views may be made or considered, but other participants may comment upon or rebut all such information and views. No participant may interrupt the presentation of another participant for any reason.
</P>
<P>(e) Within the time specified by the Board after its first hearing, participants may submit written rebuttal information and views in accordance with § 13.20. The Chariman will then schedule a second hearing, if requested and justified by a participant. A second hearing, and any subsequent hearing, will be called only if the Chairman concludes that it is needed to fully and fairly present information that cannot otherwise adequately be considered and to properly resolve the issues. Notice of the time and location of any hearing is to be published at least 15 days in advance. The hearing is open to the public.
</P>
<P>(f) A Board may consult with any person who it concludes may have information or views relevant to the issues.
</P>
<P>(1) The consultation may occur only at an announced hearing of a Board. Participants have the right to suggest or, with the permission of the Chairman, ask questions of the consultant and present rebuttal information and views, as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section except that written statements may be submitted to the Board with the consent of all participants.
</P>
<P>(2) A participant may submit a request that the Board consult with a specific person who may have information or views relevant to the issues. The request will state why the person should be consulted and why the person's views cannot be furnished to the Board by means other than having FDA arrange for the person's appearance. The Board may, in its discretion, grant or deny the request.
</P>
<P>(g) All hearings are to be transcribed. All hearings are open to the public, except that a hearing under § 10.20(j)(3) is closed to all persons except those persons making and participating in the presentation and Federal Government executive branch employees and special Government employees. At least a majority of Board members are to be present at every hearing. The executive sessions of a Board, during which a Board deliberates on the issues, are to be closed and are not transcribed. All members of the Board shall vote on the report of the Board.
</P>
<P>(h) All legal questions are to be referred to the Chief counsel for FDA for resolution. The Chief Counsel's advice on any matter of procedure or legal authority is to be transmitted in writing and made a part of the record or presented in open session and transcribed.
</P>
<P>(i) At the conclusion of all public hearings the Board will announce that the record is closed to receiving information. The Board will provide an opportunity for participants to submit written statements of their positions, with proposed findings and conclusions, and may in its discretion, provide an opportunity for participants to summarize their positions orally.
</P>
<P>(j) The Board will prepare a decision on all issues. The decision is to include specific findings and references supporting and explaining the Board's conclusions, and a detailed statement of the reasoning on which the conclusions are based. Any member of the Board may file a separate report stating additional or dissenting views.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Records of a Hearing Before a Board</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.40   Administrative record of a Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative record of a hearing before a Board consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All relevant <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices.
</P>
<P>(2) All written submissions under § 13.20.
</P>
<P>(3) The transcripts of all hearings of the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) The initial decision of the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) The record of the administrative proceeding is closed—
</P>
<P>(1) Relevant to receiving information and data, at the time specified in § 13.30(i); and
</P>
<P>(2) Relevant to pleadings, at the time specified in § 13.30(i) for filing a written statement of position with proposed findings and conclusions.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board may, in its discretion, reopen the record to receive further evidence at any time before filing an initial decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.45   Examination of administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The availability for public examination and copying of each document which is a part of the administrative record of the hearing is governed by § 10.20(j). Each document available for public examination or copying is placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff promptly upon receipt in that office.
</P>
<P>(b) Lists of nominees and comments submitted on them under § 13.10(b)(3) are not subject to disclosure unless they become an issue in a court proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.10.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.50   Record for administrative decision.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative record of the hearing specified in § 13.40(a) constitutes the exclusive record for decision.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="14" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 14—PUBLIC HEARING BEFORE A PUBLIC ADVISORY COMMITTEE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.;</I> 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 41-50, 141-149, 321-394, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b, 264, 284m, 284m-1; Pub. L. 107-109, 115 Stat. 1419.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 14 appear at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part governs the procedures when any of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner concludes, as a matter of discretion, that it is in the public interest for a standing or ad hoc policy or technical public advisory committee (<I>advisory committee</I> or <I>committee</I>) to hold a public hearing and to review and make recommendations on any matter before FDA and for interested persons to present information and views at an oral public hearing before the advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(2) Under specific provisions in the FD&amp;C Act or other sections of this chapter, a matter is subject to a hearing before an advisory committee. The specific provisions are—
</P>
<P>(i) Section 14.120 on review of a performance standard for an electronic product by the Technical Electronic Product Radiation Safety Standards Committee (TEPRSSC);
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 14.140 on review of the safety of color additives;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 14.160 on review of the safety and effectiveness of human prescription drugs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 330.10 on review of the safety and effectiveness of over-the-counter drugs;
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) Part 860, on classification of devices;
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 514(b)(5) of the FD&amp;C Act on establishment, amendment, or revocation of a device performance standard;
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 515 of the FD&amp;C Act on review of device premarket approval applications and product development protocols; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Section 520(f) of the FD&amp;C Act on review of device good manufacturing practice regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) A person who has a right to an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing under part 12 waives that opportunity and instead under § 12.32 requests a hearing before an advisory committee, and the Commissioner, as a matter of discretion, accepts the request.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether a group is a <I>public advisory committee</I> as defined in § 10.3(a) and thus subject to this part and to the Federal advisory Committee Act, the following guidelines will be used:
</P>
<P>(1) An advisory committee may be a standing advisory committee or an ad hoc advisory committee. All standing advisory committees are listed in § 14.100.
</P>
<P>(2) An advisory committee may be a policy advisory committee or a technical advisory committee. A policy advisory committee advises on broad and general matters. A technical advisory committee advises on specific technical or scientific issues, which may relate to regulatory decisions before FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) An advisory committee includes any of its subgroups when the subgroup is working on behalf of the committee. Section 14.40(d) describes when a subgroup will be established as an advisory committee separate from the parent committee.
</P>
<P>(4) A committee composed entirely of full-time Federal Government employees is not an advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(5) An advisory committee ordinarily has a fixed membership, a defined purpose of providing advice to the agency on a particular subject, regular or periodic meetings, and an organizational structure, for example, a Chairperson and staff, and serves as a source of independent expertise and advice rather than as a representative of or advocate for any particular interest. The following groups are not advisory committees:
</P>
<P>(i) A group of persons convened on an ad hoc basis to discuss a matter of current interest to FDA, but which has no continuing function or organization and does not involve substantial special preparation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A group of two or more FDA consultants meeting with the agency on an ad hoc basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) A group of experts who are employed by a private company or a trade association which has been requested by FDA to provide its views on a regulatory matter pending before FDA.
</P>
<P>(iv) A consulting firm hired by FDA to provide advice regarding a matter.
</P>
<P>(6) An advisory committee that is utilized by FDA is subject to this subpart even though it was not established by FDA. In general, a committee is <I>utilized</I> when FDA requests advice or recommendations from the committee on a specific matter in order to obtain an independent review and consideration of the matter, and not when FDA is merely seeking the comments of all interested persons or of persons who have a specific interest in the matter.
</P>
<P>(i) A committee formed by an independent scientific or technical organization is utilized if FDA requests advice of that committee rather than of the parent organization, or if the circumstances show that the advice given is that of the committee and not of the parent organization. A committee formed by an independent scientific or technical organization is not utilized if FDA requests advice of the organization rather than of a committee and if the recommendations of any committee formed in response to the request are subject to substantial independent policy and factual review by the governing body of the parent organization.
</P>
<P>(ii) A committee is not utilized by FDA if it provides only information, as contrasted with advice or opinions or recommendations.
</P>
<P>(iii) FDA is charged with seeking out the views of all segments of the public on enforcement of the laws administered by the Commissioner. The fact that a group of individuals or a committee meets regularly with FDA, for example, a monthly meeting with consumer representatives, does not make that group or committee an advisory committee. Thus, this subpart does not apply to routine meetings, discussions, and other dealings, including exchanges of views, between FDA and any committee representing or advocating the particular interests of consumers, industry, professional organizations, or others.
</P>
<P>(7) The inclusion of one or two FDA consultants who are special Government employees on an internal FDA committee does not make that committee an advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(8) A Public Board of Inquiry established under part 13, or other similar group convened by agreement between the parties to a regulatory proceeding pending before FDA to review and prepare an initial decision on the issues in lieu of a formal evidentiary public hearing, is acting as an administrative law tribunal and is not an advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(9) An open public conference or meeting conducted under § 10.65(b) is not an advisory committee meeting.
</P>
<P>(10) An FDA committee that primarily has operational responsibility rather than that of providing advice and recommendations is not an advisory committee, for example, the Research Involving Human Subjects Committee (RIHSC).
</P>
<P>(c) This part applies only when a committee convenes to conduct committee business. Site visits, social gatherings, informal discussions by telephone or during meals or while traveling or at other professional functions, or other similar activities do not constitute a meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) An advisory committee that is utilized but not established by FDA is subject to this part only to the extent of such utilization, and not concerning any other activities of such committee.
</P>
<P>(e) Any conference or meeting between an employee of FDA and a committee or group which is not an advisory committee shall be subject to § 10.65 or other provisions specifically applicable to the committee or group, for example, part 13 for a Public Board of Inquiry.
</P>
<P>(f) This part applies to all FDA advisory committees, except to the extent that specific statutes require otherwise for a particular committee, for example, TEPRSSC and advisory committees established under the Medical Device Amendments of 1976.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013; 81 FR 45409, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.5   Purpose of proceedings before an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An advisory committee is utilized to conduct public hearings on matters of importance that come before FDA, to review the issues involved, and to provide advice and recommendations to the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner has sole discretion concerning action to be taken and policy to be expressed on any matter considered by an advisory committee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.7" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.7   Administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>A person who alleges noncompliance by the Commissioner or an advisory committee with any provision of this part or the Federal Advisory Committee Act may pursue the following administrative remedies:
</P>
<P>(a) If the person objects to any action, including a failure to act, other than denial of access to an advisory committee document, the person shall submit a petition in the form and in accordance with the requirements of § 10.30. The provisions of § 10.45 relating to exhaustion of administrative remedies are applicable.
</P>
<P>(1) If the person objects to past action, the person shall submit the petition within 30 days after the action objected to. If the Commissioner determines that there was noncompliance with any provision of this subpart or of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Commissioner will grant any appropriate relief and take appropriate steps to prevent its future recurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) If the person objects to proposed future action, the Commissioner will expedite the review of the petition and make a reasonable effort to render a decision before the action concerned in the petition.
</P>
<P>(3) If the person objects to action that is imminent or occurring and which could not reasonably have been anticipated, e.g., the closing of a portion of a meeting which is made known for the first time on the day of the meeting, the matter may be handled by an oral petition in lieu of a written petition.
</P>
<P>(b) If the person objects to a denial of access to an advisory committee document, administrative review is in accordance with the procedures established by the Department of Health and Human Services under 45 CFR 5.61—and 45 CFR 5.64.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 1404, Jan. 16, 1990; 85 FR 72906, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.10   Applicability to Congress.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to Congress, individual Members of Congress, and other employees or representatives of Congress in the same way that they apply to any other member of the public, except that disclosure of advisory committee records to Congress is governed by § 20.87.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.15" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.1.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.15   Committees working under a contract with FDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may enter into contracts with independent scientific or technical organizations to obtain advice and recommendations on particular matters, and these organizations may in turn undertake such work through existing or new committees. Whether a particular committee working under such a contract is an advisory committee subject to the Federal Advisory Committee Act and this subpart depends upon application of the criteria and principles in § 14.1(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The following minimum standards apply to any committee of an independent scientific or technical organization which is working under a contract initially executed with FDA after July 1, 1975, but which is determined not to be an advisory committee:
</P>
<P>(1) The committee shall give public notice of its meetings and agenda, and provide interested persons an opportunity to submit relevant information and views in writing at any time, and orally at specified times. The notice may be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or disseminated by other reasonable means. It is in any event to be filed with the Dockets Management Staff not less than 15 days before the meeting. The time for oral presentations and the extent to which the committee meets in open session other than for such oral presentations is in the discretion of the committee.
</P>
<P>(2) Minutes of open sessions are to be maintained, with all written submissions attached which were made to the committee in open session. After approval, the minutes are to be forwarded to the Dockets Management Staff and placed on public display. The extent to which the committee maintains minutes of closed sessions is in the discretion of the committee.
</P>
<P>(3) In selecting the members of the committee, the organization involved is to apply the principles relating to conflicts of interest that FDA uses in establishing a public advisory committee. Those principles are set out or cross-referenced in this part and in part 19. Upon request, FDA will assist or provide guidance to any organization in meeting this requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Meeting Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.20   Notice of hearing before an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before the first of each month, and at least 15 days in advance of a meeting, the Commissioner will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of all advisory committee meetings to be held during the month. Any advisory committee meetings for that month called after the publication of the general monthly notice are to be announced in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on an individual basis at least 15 days in advance. The Commissioner may authorize an exception to these notice requirements in an emergency or for other reasons requiring an immediate meeting of an advisory committee, in which case public notice will be given at the earliest time and in the most accessible form feasible including, whenever possible, publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will include—
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the committee;
</P>
<P>(2) The date, time, and place of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(3) The general function of the committee;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of all agenda items, showing whether each will be discussed in an open or closed portion of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(5) If any portion of the meeting is closed, a statement of the time of the open and closed portions;
</P>
<P>(6) The nature of the subjects to be discussed during, and the reasons for closing, any closed portion of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(7) The time set aside for oral statements and other public participation;
</P>
<P>(8) The name, address, and telephone number of the advisory committee Designated Federal Officer and any other agency employee designated as responsible for the administrative support for the advisory committee;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that written submissions may be made to the advisory committee through the Designated Federal Officer at any time, unless a cutoff date has been established under § 14.35(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(10) When a notice is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> less than 15 days before a meeting, an explanation for the lateness of the notice; and
</P>
<P>(c) If a public hearing before an advisory committee is used in lieu of a formal evidentiary public hearing under § 14.1(a)(3), an initial notice of hearing is to be published separately in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> containing all the information described in § 12.32(e). This procedure may be used for any other hearing before an advisory committee when the Commissioner concludes, as a matter of discretion, that it would be informative to the public.
</P>
<P>(d) A list of advisory committee meetings will be distributed to the press by the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 26375, June 1, 1982; 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 66 FR 6469, Jan. 22, 2001; 66 FR 12850, Mar. 1, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.22   Meetings of an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No advisory committee may conduct a meeting except at the call or with the advance approval of, and with an agenda approved by, the designated Federal employee or alternate. No meeting may be held in the absence of the designated Federal employee.
</P>
<P>(1) If any matter is added to the agenda after its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 14.20(b)(4), an attempt is to be made to inform persons known to be interested in the matter, and the change is to be announced at the beginning of the open portion of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The advisory committee meeting is to be conducted in accordance with the approved final agenda insofar as practical.
</P>
<P>(b) Advisory committee meetings will be held at places that are reasonably accessible to the public. All advisory committee meetings will be held in Washington, DC, or Rockville, MD, or the immediate vicinity, unless the Commissioner receives and approves a written request from the advisory committee for a different location. A different location may be approved when one or more of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) The total cost of the meeting to the Government will be reduced.
</P>
<P>(2) A substantial number of the committee members will be at the location at no expense to FDA for other reasons, e.g., for a meeting of a professional association.
</P>
<P>(3) It is a central location more readily accessible to committee members.
</P>
<P>(4) There is a need for increased participation available at that location.
</P>
<P>(5) The committee wishes to review work or facilities in a specific location.
</P>
<P>(6) The committee is concerned with matters that functionally or historically occur in some other location, e.g., the Science Advisory Board of the National Center for Toxicological Research will generally hold meetings in the Little Rock, AR, vicinity.
</P>
<P>(c) Advisory committee members may, with the approval of FDA, conduct onsite visits relevant to their work.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the committee charter provides otherwise, a quorum for an advisory committee is a majority of the current voting members of the committee, except as provided in § 14.125(c) for TEPRSSC. Any matter before the advisory committee is to be decided by a majority vote of the voting members present at the time, except that the designated Federal official may require that any final report be voted upon by all current voting members of the committee. Any current voting member of the committee may file a separate report with additional or minority views.
</P>
<P>(e) If space is available, any interested person may attend any portion of any advisory committee meeting which is not closed.
</P>
<P>(f) Whenever feasible, meetings are to be held in government facilities or other facilities involving the least expense to the public. The size of the meeting room is to be reasonable, considering such factors as the size of the committee, the number of persons expected to attend a meeting, and the resources and facilities available.
</P>
<P>(g) The Commissioner may authorize a meeting to be held by conference telephone call. For these meetings, a speaker phone will be provided in a conference room located in Washington, DC, or Rockville, MD, or the immediate vicinity, to permit public participation in open portions of the meetings, as provided in §§ 14.25 and 14.29. These meetings generally will be brief, and authorized—
</P>
<P>(1) For the purpose of taking final votes or otherwise confirming actions taken by the committee at other meetings; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where time does not permit a meeting to be held at a central location.
</P>
<P>(h) Any portion of a meeting will be closed by the committee Chairperson only when matters are to be discussed which the Commissioner has determined may be considered in closed session under § 14.27(b). If a portion of the meeting is closed, the closed portion will be held after the conclusion of the open portion whenever practicable.
</P>
<P>(i) Any committee member may take notes during meetings and report and discuss committee deliberations after a meeting is completed and before official minutes or a report are available, within the rules and regulations adopted by FDA and by the advisory committee with the concurrence of FDA, including all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) There may be no attribution of individual views expressed in a closed session or revealing of numerical votes.
</P>
<P>(2) There may be no reporting or discussion of any particular matter if the committee or FDA specifically so directs, e.g., where deliberations are incomplete or involve a sensitive regulatory decision that requires preparation or implementation.
</P>
<P>(3) There may be no reporting or discussion of information prohibited from public disclosure under § 14.75.
</P>
<P>(4) Notes or minutes kept or reports prepared by a committee member have no status or effect unless adopted into the official minutes or report by the committee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979; 48 FR 40887, Sept. 12, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.25   Portions of advisory committee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>An advisory committee meeting has the following portions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The open public hearing.</I> Every committee meeting includes an open portion, which constitutes a public hearing during which interested persons may present relevant information or views orally or in writing. The hearing is conducted in accordance with § 14.29.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The open committee discussion.</I> A committee discusses any matter pending before it in an open portion of its meeting unless the meeting has been closed for that matter under § 14.27. To the maximum extent feasible, consistent with the policy expressed in § 14.27, a committee conducts its discussion of pending matters in an open portion. No public participation is permissible during this portion of the meeting except with the consent of the committee Chairperson.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The closed presentation of data.</I> Information prohibited from public disclosure under part 20 and the regulations referenced therein is presented to the committee in a closed portion of its meeting. However, if information is in the form of a summary that is not prohibited from public disclosure, the presentation is to be made in an open portion of a meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The closed committee deliberations.</I> Deliberations about matters before an advisory committee may be held in a closed portion of a meeting only upon an appropriate determination by the Commissioner under § 14.27.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.27" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.27   Determination to close portions of advisory committee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No committee meeting may be entirely closed. A portion of a meeting may be closed only in accordance with a written determination by the Commissioner under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee shall prepare the initial request for a determination to close a portion of a meeting, specifying the matter(s) to be discussed during the closed portion and the reasons why the portion should be closed. The Commissioner, based upon this request and with the concurrence of the Chief Counsel, will determine whether to close a portion of a meeting. The reasons for closing a portion of a meeting will be announced in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the meeting under § 14.20 in accordance with the following rules:
</P>
<P>(1) Any determination to close a portion of a meeting restricts the closing to the shortest possible time consistent with the policy in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A portion of a meeting may be closed only if the Commissioner determines that the closing is permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), and that the closing is necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Portions of meetings may ordinarily be closed if they concern the review, discussion, and evaluation of drafts or regulations, guidance documents or similar preexisting internal agency documents, but only if their premature disclosure would significantly impede proposed agency action; review of trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information; consideration of matters involving investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes; and review of matters, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(4) Portions of meetings ordinarily may not be closed if they concern review, discussion, and evaluation of general preclinical and clinical test protocols and procedures for a class of drugs or devices; consideration of labeling requirements for a class of marketed drugs and devices; review of information on specific investigational or marketed drugs and devices that have previously been made public; presentation of any other information not exempt from public disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552b(c); the formulation of advice and recommendations to FDA on matters that do not independently justify closing.
</P>
<P>(5) No portion of a meeting devoted to matters other than those designated in paragraph (b) (1) through (3) of this section may be closed.
</P>
<P>(6) A matter which is properly considered in an open portion of a meeting may instead be considered in a closed portion only if it is so inextricably intertwined with matters to be discussed in a closed portion that it is not feasible to separate them or discussion of the matter in an open portion would compromise the matters to be discussed in the closed portion.
</P>
<P>(c) Attendance at a closed portion of a meeting is governed by the following rules:
</P>
<P>(1) A portion of a meeting closed for the presentation or discussion of information that constitutes a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 may be attended only by voting advisory committee members, nonvoting members representing consumer interests who are also special government employees as provided in § 14.80(b), the Designated Federal Officer of the advisory committee, a transcriber, consultants, and such other regular employees of FDA (including members of the Office of the Chief Counsel) as the Chairperson of the advisory committee may invite, and by those persons authorized to be present under § 14.25(c), for presentation of information prohibited from public disclosure. A person making a presentation described in § 14.25(c) may be accompanied by a reasonable number of employees, consultants, or other persons in a commercial arrangement within the meaning of § 20.81(a).
</P>
<P>(2) A portion of a meeting that has been closed for consideration of existing internal agency documents falling within § 20.62 where premature disclosure is likely to significantly impede proposed agency action; personnel, medical, and similar files, disclosure of which would be a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy within the meaning of § 20.63; or investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes as defined in § 20.64 may be attended only by committee members (voting and nonvoting), the Designated Federal Officer of the committee, a transcriber, and other regular employees of FDA (including members of the Office of the Chief Counsel) whom the Chairperson of the committee may invite. Consultants, individuals performing personal service contracts, employees of other Federal agencies, and the general public may not attend such portions.
</P>
<P>(3) If a person other than a person permitted to attend in accordance with paragraph (c) (1) and (2) of this section attempts to attend a closed portion of a meeting without the approval of the Designated Federal Officer and the Chairperson, and the matter is brought to their attention, the person will be required to leave the meeting immediately. This inadvertent and unauthorized attendance does not enable other unauthorized persons to attend, nor does it, of itself, constitute grounds for release of transcripts of closed portions or any other documents otherwise exempt from disclosure under § 14.75 and part 20.
</P>
<P>(4) If a person other than a person permitted to attend in accordance with paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section is allowed by the Designated Federal Officer and the Chairperson to attend a closed portion of a meeting, that portion is open to attendance by any interested person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.29" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.29   Conduct of a hearing before an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each meeting, the open portion for public participation, which constitutes a public hearing under § 14.25(a), will be at least 1 hour, unless public participation does not last that long, and may last for whatever longer time the committee Chairperson determines will facilitate the work of the committee. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice published under § 14.20 will designate the time specifically reserved for the hearing, which is ordinarily the first portion of the meeting. Further public participation in any open portion of the meeting under § 14.25(b) is solely at the discretion of the Chairperson.
</P>
<P>(b) An interested person who wishes to be assured of the right to make an oral presentation at a meeting shall inform the Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee, orally or in writing, before the meeting.
</P>
<P>(1) The person shall state the general nature of the presentation and the approximate time desired. Whenever possible, all written information to be discussed by that person at the meeting should be furnished in advance to the Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee. This material may be distributed or mailed by FDA to the committee members in advance of the meeting if time permits, and otherwise will be distributed to the members when they arrive for the meeting. The mailing or distribution may be undertaken only by FDA unless FDA grants permission to a person to mail or distribute the material
</P>
<P>(2) Before the meeting, the Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee shall determine the amount of time allocated to each person for oral presentation and the time that the presentation is to begin. Each person will be so informed in writing, if time permits, or by telephone. FDA may require persons with common interests to make joint presentations.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chairperson of the committee shall preside at the meeting in accordance with § 14.30 and be accompanied by other committee members, who serve as a panel in conducting the hearing portion of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person may use the allotted time as desired, consistent with an orderly hearing. A person may be accompanied by additional persons, and may present any written information or views for inclusion in the record of the hearing, subject to the requirements of § 14.35(c).
</P>
<P>(e) If a person is absent at the time specified for that person's presentation, the persons following will appear in order. An attempt will be made to hear the person at the conclusion of the hearing. Interested persons attending the hearing who did not request an opportunity to make an oral presentation may be given an opportunity to do so at the discretion of the Chairperson.
</P>
<P>(f) The Chairperson and other members may question a person concerning that person's presentation. No other person, however, may question the person. The Chairperson may allot additional time when it is in the public interest, but may not reduce the time allotted without consent of the person.
</P>
<P>(g) Participants may question a committee member only with that member's permission and only about matters before the committee.
</P>
<P>(h) The hearing is informal, and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views may be made or considered, but other participants may comment upon or rebut matters presented. No participant may interrupt the presentation of another participant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.30   Chairperson of an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The advisory committee Chairperson has the authority to conduct hearings and meetings, including the authority to adjourn a hearing or meeting if the Chairperson determines that adjournment is in the public interest, to discontinue discussion of a matter, to conclude the open portion of a meeting, or to take any other action to further a fair and expeditious hearing or meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Chairperson is not a full-time employee of FDA, the Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee, or alternate, is to be the <I>designated Federal employee</I> who is assigned to the advisory committee. The designated Federal employee is also authorized to adjourn a hearing or meeting if the employee determines adjournment to be in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.31   Consultation by an advisory committee with other persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A committee may confer with any person who may have information or views relevant to any matter pending before the committee.
</P>
<P>(b) An interested person may submit to the committee a written request that it confer with specific persons about any matter pending before the committee. The request is to contain adequate justification. The committee may, in its discretion, grant the request.
</P>
<P>(c) A committee may confer with a person who is not a Federal Government executive branch employee only during the open portions of a meeting. The person may, however, submit views in writing to the committee as part of the administrative record under § 14.70. The person may participate at the closed portions of a meeting only if appointed as a special Government employee by the Commissioner as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. This paragraph (c) is not intended to bar the testimony of a person during a closed portion of a meeting about matters prohibited from public disclosure under §§ 14.25(c) and 14.27(c).
</P>
<P>(d) To prevent inadvertent violation of Federal conflict of interest laws and laws prohibiting disclosure of trade secrets (18 U.S.C. 208, 21 U.S.C. 331(j), 18 U.S.C. 1905), Federal executive branch employees who are not employees of the Department may not confer, testify, or otherwise participate (other than as observers) at any portion of an advisory committee meeting unless they are appointed as special Government employees by the Commissioner under paragraph (e) of this section. this paragraph does not apply to Federal executive branch employees who are appointed as members of TEPRSSC, as provided in § 14.127.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commissioner may appoint persons as special Government employees to be consultants to an advisory committee. Consultants may be appointed to provide expertise, generally concerning a highly technical matter, not readily available from the members of the committee. Consultants may be either from outside the Government or from agencies other than the Food and Drug Administration. Reports, data, information, and other written submissions made to a public advisory committee by a consultant are part of the administrative record itemized in § 14.70.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 42703, Oct. 23, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.33" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.33   Compilation of materials for members of an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner shall prepare and provide to all committee members a compilation of materials bearing upon members' duties and responsibilities, including—
</P>
<P>(a) All applicable conflict of interest laws and regulations and a summary of their principal provisions;
</P>
<P>(b) All applicable laws and regulations relating to trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information that may not be disclosed publicly and a summary of their principal provisions;
</P>
<P>(c) All applicable laws, regulations, and guidance documents relating to the subject matter covered by the advisory committee and a summary of their principal provisions;
</P>
<P>(d) All applicable laws, regulations, including the regulations in part 20 of this chapter, advisory committee charters, <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices, curricula vitae, rules adopted by the advisory committee, and other material relating to the formation, composition, and operation of the advisory committee, and a summary of their principal provisions;
</P>
<P>(e) Instructions on whom to contact when questions arise; and
</P>
<P>(f) Other material relating to FDA and the subject matter covered by the committee which may facilitate the work of the committee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.35   Written submissions to an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ten copies of written submissions to a committee are to be sent to the Designated Federal Officer unless an applicable <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice or other regulations in this chapter specify otherwise. Submissions are subject to the provisions of § 10.20, except that it is not necessary to send copies to the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(b) At the request of a committee, or on the Commissioner's own initiative, the Commissioner may issue in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice requesting the submission to the committee of written information and views pertinent to a matter being reviewed by the committee. The notice may specify the manner in which the submission should be made.
</P>
<P>(c) At the request of a committee, or on the Commissioner's own initiative, the Commissioner may at any time request the applicant or sponsor of an application or petition about a specific product on which action is pending before FDA, and is being reviewed by an advisory committee, to present or discuss safety, effectiveness, or other data concerning the product during a regularly scheduled meeting of the committee. The request may be for an oral presentation or for a concise, well-organized written summary of pertinent information for review by the committee members before the meeting, or both. Unless specified otherwise, one copy of the written summary along with a proposed agenda outlining the topics to be covered and identifying the participating industry staff members or consultants that will present each topic is to be submitted to the Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee at least 3 weeks before the meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) An interested person may submit to a committee written information or views on any matter being reviewed. Voluminous data is to be accompanied by a summary. A submission is to be made to the Designated Federal Officer and not directly to a committee member.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will distribute submissions to each member, either by mail or at the next meeting. Submissions will be considered by the committee in its review of the matter.
</P>
<P>(2) A committee may establish, and give public notice of, a cutoff date after which submissions about a matter will no longer be received or considered.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commissioner will provide the committee all information the Commissioner deems relevant. A member will, upon request, also be provided any material available to FDA which the member believes appropriate for an independent judgment on the matter, e.g., raw data underlying a summary or report, or a briefing on the legal aspects of the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.39" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.2.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.39   Additional rules for a particular advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to these rules, an advisory committee may, with the concurrence of the designated Federal employee, adopt additional rules which are not inconsistent with this subpart or with other legal requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Any additional rules will be included in the minutes of the meeting when adopted and in the materials compiled under § 14.33 and will be available for public disclosure under § 14.65(c).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Establishment of Advisory Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.40   Establishment and renewal of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An advisory committee may be established or renewed whenever it is necessary or appropriate for the committee to hold a public hearing and to review and make recommendations on any matter pending before FDA. Except for committees established by statute, before a committee is established or renewed it must first be approved by the Department pursuant to 45 CFR part 11 and by the General Services Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) When an advisory committee is established or renewed, the Commissioner will issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice certifying that the establishment or renewal is in the public interest and stating the structure, function, and purposes of the committee and, if it is a standing advisory committee, shall amend § 14.100 to add it to the list of standing advisory committees. A notice of establishment will be published at least 15 days before the filing of the advisory committee charter under paragraph (c) of this section. A notice of renewal does not require the 15-day notice.
</P>
<P>(c) No committee may meet or take action until its charter is prepared and filed as required by section 9(c) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. This requirement is to be met by an advisory committee utilized by FDA, even though it is not established by the agency, prior to utilization.
</P>
<P>(d) The regulations of the Department cited in paragraph (a) of this section provide that the charter of a parent committee may incorporate information concerning activities of a subgroup. In such instances, a subgroup will not be established as a committee distinct from the parent committee. However, a subgroup will be established as a separate committee when the charter of the parent committee does not incorporate the activities of the subgroup, or when the subgroup includes members who are not all drawn from the parent committee.
</P>
<P>(e) An advisory committee not required to be established by law will be established or utilized only if it is in the public interest and only if its functions cannot reasonably be performed by other existing advisory committees or by FDA.
</P>
<P>(f) An advisory committee must meet the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) Its purpose is clearly defined.
</P>
<P>(2) Its membership is balanced fairly in terms of the points of view represented in light of the functions to be performed. Although proportional representation is not required, advisory committee members are selected without regard to race, color, national origin, religion, age, or sex.
</P>
<P>(3) It is constituted and utilizes procedures designed to assure that its advice and recommendations are the result of the advisory committee's independent judgment.
</P>
<P>(4) Its staff is adequate. The Commissioner designates an Designated Federal Officer and alternate for every advisory committee, who are employees of FDA. The Designated Federal Officer is responsible for all staff support unless other agency employees are designated for this function.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever feasible, or required by statute, it includes representatives of the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 42703, Oct. 23, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.55   Termination of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a standing advisory committee is terminated when it is no longer needed, or not later than 2 years after its date of establishment unless it is renewed for an additional 2-year period. A committee may be renewed for as many 2-year periods as the public interest requires. The requirements for establishment of a committee under § 14.40 also apply to its renewal.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice announcing the reasons for terminating a committee and, if it is a standing committee, amending § 14.100 to delete it from the list.
</P>
<P>(c) TEPRSSC is a permanent statutory advisory committee established by section 358(f)(1)(A) of the Public Health Service Act, as added by the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968, transferred to the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 360kk(f)(1)(A)), and is not subject to termination and renewal under paragraph (a) of this section, except that a new charter is prepared and filed at the end of each 2-year period as provided in § 14.40(c). Also, the statutory medical device classification panels established under section 513(b)(1) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c(b)(1)) and part 860, and the statutory medical device good manufacturing practice advisory committees established under section 520(f)(3) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 360j(f)(3)), are specifically exempted from the normal 2-year duration period.
</P>
<P>(d) Color additive advisory committees are required to be established under the circumstances specified in sections 721(b)(5)(C) and (D) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 379e(b)(5)(C) and (D)). A color additive advisory committee is subject to the termination and renewal requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The Tobacco Products Scientific Advisory Committee is a permanent statutory advisory committee established by section 917 of the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (21 U.S.C. 387q) (Pub. L. 111-31) and is not subject to termination and renewal under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 75 FR 73953, Nov. 30, 2010; 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records of Meetings and Hearings Before Advisory Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.60   Minutes and reports of advisory committee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee prepares detailed minutes of all advisory committee meetings, except that less detailed minutes may be prepared for open portions of meetings which under § 14.61, must be transcribed or recorded by the agency. Their accuracy is approved by the committee and certified by the Chairperson. The approval and certification may be accomplished by mail or by telephone.
</P>
<P>(b) The minutes include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The time and place of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The members, committee staff, and agency employees present, and the names and affiliations or interests of public participants.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of or reference to all written information made available for consideration by the committee at the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(4) A complete and accurate description of matters discussed and conclusions reached. A description is to be kept separately for the following portions of the meeting to facilitate their public disclosure: The open portions specified in § 14.25 (a) and (b), any closed portion during which a presentation is made under § 14.25(c), and any closed deliberative portion under § 14.25(d). The minutes of a closed deliberative portion of a meeting may not refer to members by name, except upon their request, or to data or information described in § 14.75(b). Any inadvertent references that occur are to be deleted before public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of or reference to all reports received, issued, or approved by the committee.
</P>
<P>(6) The extent to which the meeting was open to the public.
</P>
<P>(7) The extent of public participation, including a list of members of the public who presented oral or written statements.
</P>
<P>(c) For a meeting that has a closed portion, either (1) the minutes of the closed portion are available for public disclosure under § 14.75(a)(6)(i), or (2) if under § 14.75(a)(6)(ii) they are not promptly available, the Designated Federal Officer or other designated agency employee shall prepare a brief summary of the matters considered in an informative manner to the public, consistent with 5 U.S.C. 552(b).
</P>
<P>(d) Where a significant portion of the meeting of a committee is closed, the committee will issue a report at least annually setting forth a summary of its activities and related matters informative to the public consistent with 5 U.S.C. 552(b). This report is to be a compilation of or be prepared from the individual reports on closed portions of meeting prepared under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 45 FR 85725, Dec. 30, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.61" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.61   Transcripts of advisory committee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency will arrange for a transcript or recording to be made for each portion of a meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) A transcript or recording of an open portion of a meeting made by FDA is to be included in the record of the committee proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) A transcript or recording of any closed portion of a meeting made by FDA will not be included in the administrative record of the committee proceedings. The transcript or recording will be retained as confidential by FDA, and will not be discarded or erased.
</P>
<P>(d) Any transcript or recording of a meeting or portion thereof which is publicly available under this section will be available at actual cost of duplication, which will be, where applicable, the fees established in § 20.45. FDA may furnish the requested transcript or recording for copying to a private contractor who shall charge directly for the cost of copying under § 20.53.
</P>
<P>(e) A person attending any open portion of a meeting may, consistent with the orderly conduct of the meeting, record or otherwise take a transcript of the meeting. This transcription will not be part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(f) Only FDA may make a transcript or recording of a closed portion of a meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.65" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.65   Public inquiries and requests for advisory committee records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Public inquiries on general committee matters, except requests for records, are to be directed to the Committee Management Officer in the Advisory Committee Oversight and Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 5103, Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(b) Public inquiries on matters relating to a specific committee, except requests for records, are to be directed to the Designated Federal Officer or the designated agency employee listed in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices published under § 14.20.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for public advisory committee records, including minutes, are to be made, to FDA's Division of Freedom of Information  (the Freedom of Information Staff's address is available on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>) under § 20.40 and the related provisions of part 20.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013; 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.70   Administrative record of a public hearing before an advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Advice or recommendations of an advisory committee may be given only on matters covered in the administrative record of the committee's proceedings. Except as specified in other FDA regulations, the administrative record consists of all the following items relating to the matter:
</P>
<P>(1) Any transcript or recording of an open portion of a meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The minutes of all portions of all meetings, after any deletions under § 14.60(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) All written submissions to and information considered by the committee.
</P>
<P>(4) All reports made by the committee.
</P>
<P>(5) Any reports prepared by a consultant under § 14.31(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The record of the proceeding is closed at the time the advisory committee renders its advice or recommendations or at any earlier time specified by the committee or in other sections in this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.75" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.75   Examination of administrative record and other advisory committee records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative record and other committee records are available for public disclosure under part 20, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, at the following times:
</P>
<P>(1) The written information for consideration by the committee at any meeting: at the same time it is made available to the committee. 
</P>
<P>(2) The transcript or recording of any open portion of a meeting: as soon as it is available.
</P>
<P>(3) The minutes of any open portion of a meeting: after they have been approved by the committee and certified by the Chairperson.
</P>
<P>(4) The brief summary of any closed portion of a meeting prepared under § 14.60(c): as soon as it is available.
</P>
<P>(5) All written information or views submitted to the committee at an open portion of a meeting: as soon as they are submitted.
</P>
<P>(6) The minutes or portions thereof of a closed portion of a meeting—
</P>
<P>(i) For a matter not directed to be maintained as confidential under § 14.22(i)(2): After they have been approved by the committee and certified by the Chairperson; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For a matter directed to be maintained as confidential under § 14.22(i)(2): After the advice or report of the committee relevant to those minutes or portions thereof is acted upon by the Commissioner, or upon a determination by the Commissioner that such minutes or portions thereof may be made available for public disclosure without undue interference with agency or advisory committee operations.
</P>
<P>(7) Formal advice or a report of the committee: After it has been acted upon, i.e., approved, disapproved, or rejected as inadequate, by the Commissioner, or upon a determination by the Commissioner that such formal advice or report may be made available for public disclosure without undue interference with agency or committee operations. Such formal advice or report may be retained as confidential while it is under active advisement.
</P>
<P>(8) Any other committee records relating to the matter, except transcripts and recordings of closed portions of meetings: After the advice or report of the committee relevant to those records is acted upon by the Commissioner, or upon a determination by the Commissioner that the records may be made available for public disclosure without undue interference with agency or committee operations.
</P>
<P>(b) The following information contained in the administrative record is not available for public examination or copying except as provided in § 12.32(g):
</P>
<P>(1) Material provided to the committee by FDA that is exempt from public disclosure under part 20 and the regulations referenced there.
</P>
<P>(2) Material provided to the advisory committee by a person making a presentation described in § 14.25(c) and which is prohibited from public disclosure under part 20 and the regulations referenced there.
</P>
<P>(c) The Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305) will maintain a file for each committee containing the following principal records for ready access by the public:
</P>
<P>(1) The committee charter.
</P>
<P>(2) A list of committee members and their curricula vitae.
</P>
<P>(3) The minutes of committee meetings.
</P>
<P>(4) Any formal advice or report of the committee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Members of Advisory Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.80   Qualifications for members of standing policy and technical advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Members of a policy advisory committee—
</P>
<P>(1) Shall have diverse interests, education, training, and experience; specific technical expertise is not a requirement;
</P>
<P>(2) Are subject to the conflict of interest laws and regulations either as special Government employees or as members of the uniformed services, including the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service (the Commissioner has determined that, because members representing particular interests, e.g., a representative of labor, industry, consumers, or agriculture, are included on advisory committees specifically for the purpose of representing these interests, any financial interest covered by 18 U.S.C. 208(a) in the class which the member represents is irrelevant to the services which the Government expects from them and thus is hereby exempted under 18 U.S.C. 208(b) as too remote and inconsequential to affect the integrity of their services); and
</P>
<P>(3) Shall be voting members.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Technical advisory committee.</I> (1) Voting members of technical advisory committees—
</P>
<P>(i) Shall have expertise in the subject matter with which the committee is concerned and have diverse professional education, training, and experience so that the committee will reflect a balanced composition of sufficient scientific expertise to handle the problems that come before it; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for members of the Technical Electronic Product Radiation Safety Standards Committee (TEPRSSC), are subject to the conflict of interest laws and regulations either as special Government employees or as members of the uniformed services, including the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner shall, when required by statute, and may when not required by statute, provide for nonvoting members of a technical advisory committee to serve as representatives of and liaison with interested organizations. Nonvoting members—
</P>
<P>(i) Shall be selected by the interested organizations, as provided in § 14.84; technical expertise in the subject matter with which the committee is involved is not a requirement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) May be special Government employees subject to the conflict of interest laws and regulations, except as provided in § 14.84(e).
</P>
<P>(c) A person may serve as a voting or nonvoting member on only one FDA advisory committee unless the Commissioner determines in writing that dual membership will aid the work of the committees involved and is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) Members of FDA advisory committees, and the Chairperson, are appointed from among those nominated under §§ 14.82 and 14.84 and from any other sources by the Secretary, or, by delegation of authority, by the Assistant Secretary for Health, or the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(e) Members appointed to an advisory committee serve for the duration of the committee, or until their terms of appointment expire, they resign, or they are removed from membership by the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(f) A committee member may be removed from membership for good cause. Good cause includes excessive absenteeism from committee meetings, a demonstrated bias that interferes with the ability to render objective advice, failure to abide by the procedures established in this subpart, or violation of other applicable rules and regulations, e.g., for nonvoting members, the provisions of § 14.86(c).
</P>
<P>(g) Consultants appointed under § 14.31(e) are not members of advisory committees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 50949, Dec. 19, 1988; 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.82" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.82   Nominations of voting members of standing advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner will publish one or more notices in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> each year requesting nominations for voting members of all existing standing advisory committees. The notice will invite the submission of nominations for voting members from both individuals and organizations.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice announcing the establishment of a new committee under § 14.40(b) will invite the submission of nominations for voting members.
</P>
<P>(c) A person may nominate one or more qualified persons to an advisory committee. Nominations will specify the advisory committee for which the nominee is recommended and will include a complete curriculum vitae of the nominee. Nominations are to state that the nominee is aware of the nomination, is willing to serve as a member of the advisory committee, and appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude membership.
</P>
<P>(d) Voting members serve as individuals and not as representatives of any group or organization which nominated them or with which they may be affiliated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.84" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.84   Nominations and selection of nonvoting members of standing technical advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies when the Commissioner concludes that a technical advisory committee should include nonvoting members to represent and serve as a liaison with interested individuals and organizations.
</P>
<P>(b) Except when the Commissioner concludes otherwise, nonvoting members of a technical advisory committee are selected in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section and are normally limited to one person selected by consumer groups and organizations and one person selected by industry groups and organizations.
</P>
<P>(c) To select a nonvoting member to represent consumer interests, except as provided in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the Commissioner publishes a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> requesting nominations for each specific committee, or subcommittee, for which nonvoting members are to be appointed.
</P>
<P>(1) A period of 30 days will be permitted for submission of nominations for that committee or subcommittee. Interested persons may nominate one or more qualified persons to represent consumer interests. Although nominations from individuals will be accepted, individuals are encouraged to submit their nominations through consumer organizations as defined in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. Nominations of qualified persons for general consideration as nonvoting members of unspecified advisory committees or subcommittees may be made at any time. All nominations are to be submitted in writing to Advisory Committee Oversight and Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, rm. 1503, Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(2) A complete curriculum vitae of any nominee is to be included. Nominations must state that the nominee is aware of the nomination, is willing to serve as a member of an advisory committee, and appears to have no conflict of interest. The nomination must state whether a nominee is interested only in a particular advisory committee or subcommittee, or whether the nominee is interested in becoming a member of any advisory committee or subcommittee. Nominations that do not comply with the requirements of this paragraph will not be considered.
</P>
<P>(3) The Advisory Committee Oversight and Management Staff will compile a list of organizations whose objectives are to promote, encourage, and contribute to the advancement of consumer education and to the resolution of consumer problems. All organizations listed are entitled to vote upon the nominees. The list will include organizations representing the public interest, consumer advocacy groups, and consumer/health branches of Federal, State, and local governments. Any organization that meets the criteria may be included on such list on request.
</P>
<P>(4) The executive secretary, or other designated agency employee, will review the list of nominees and select three to five qualified nominees to be placed on a ballot. Names not selected will remain on a list of eligible nominees and be reviewed periodically by the Advisory Committee Oversight and Management Staff to determine continued interest. Upon selection of the nominees to be placed on the ballot, the curriculum vitae for each of the nominees will be sent to each of the organizations on the list complied under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, together with a ballot to be filled out and returned within 30 days. After the time for return of the ballots has expired, the ballots will be counted and the nominee who has received the highest number of votes will be selected as the nonvoting member representing consumer interests for that particular advisory committee or subcommittee. In the event of a tie, the Commissioner will select the winner by lot from among those tied for the highest number of votes
</P>
<P>(5) If a member representing consumer interests resigns or is removed before termination of the committee on which the member is serving, the following procedures will be used to appoint a replacement to serve out the term of the former member:
</P>
<P>(i) The Commissioner will appoint the runner-up, in order of number of ballots received, on the original ballot submitted under paragraph (c)(4) of this section to fill the vacancy. If the runner-up is no longer willing to serve as a member, then the next runner-up will be appointed.
</P>
<P>(ii) If none of the nominees on the original ballot is willing to serve, or if there was only one nominee on the original ballot, the Advisory Committee Oversight and Management Staff will contact by telephone eligible individuals whose names have been submitted in the past as candidates for membership as representatives of consumer interests. A list of persons who are interested in serving on an advisory committee will then be prepared. The curricula vitae of these persons, together with a ballot, will be sent to a representative number of consumer organizations that have been determined to be eligible to vote for consumer representatives in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section. After 4 days have elapsed, the Advisory Committee Oversight and Management Staff will contact the consumer organizations by telephone and elicit their votes. The candidate who has received the highest number of votes will be selected. In the event of a tie, the Commissioner will select the winner by lot from among those tied for the highest number of votes.
</P>
<P>(d) To select a nonvoting member to represent industry interests, the Commissioner will publish, for each committee for which the Commissioner has determined to appoint a nonvoting member, a notice requesting that, within 30 days, any industry organization interested in participating in the selection of an appropriate nonvoting member to represent industry interests send a letter stating that interest to the FDA employee designated in the notice. After 30 days, a letter will be sent to each organization that has expressed an interest, attaching a complete list of all such organizations, and stating that it is their responsibility to consult with each other in selecting, within 60 days after receipt of the letter, a single nonvoting member to represent industry interests for that committee. If no individual is selected within 60 days, the Commissioner will select the nonvoting member representing industry interests.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commissioner has determined that, because nonvoting members representing consumer and industry interests are included on advisory committees specifically for the purpose of representing such interests and have no vote, any financial interest covered by 18 U.S.C. 208(a) in the class which the member represents is irrelevant to the services the Government expects from them and thus is hereby exempted under 18 U.S.C. 208(b) as too remote and inconsequential to affect the integrity of their services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9035, Mar. 3, 1989; 75 FR 15342, Mar. 29, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.86" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.5.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.86   Rights and responsibilities of nonvoting members of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A nonvoting member of an advisory committee selected to represent and serve as a liaison with interested individuals, associations, and organizations has the same rights as any other committee member except that—
</P>
<P>(1) A nonvoting member may vote only on procedural matters such as additional rules adopted under § 14.39(a), approval of minutes under § 14.60(a), decisions on transcripts under § 14.61(b), and future meeting dates;
</P>
<P>(2) A nonvoting member who is a representative of industry interest may have access to data and information that constitute a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 only if the person has been appointed as a special Government employee under § 14.80(b).
</P>
<P>(b) A nonvoting member of an advisory committee is subject to, and shall abide by, all rules and regulations adopted by FDA and the committee.
</P>
<P>(c) It is the responsibility of the nonvoting consumer and industry members of an advisory committee to represent the consumer and industry interests in all deliberations.
</P>
<P>(1) A nonvoting member does not represent any particular organization or group, but rather represents all interested persons within the class which the member is selected to represent. Accordingly, an interested person within the class represented by that nonvoting member may, upon request, have access to all written statements or oral briefings concerning the committee prepared by the nonvoting member for distribution to any person outside the committee. When documents are prepared with non-Government funds, persons desiring copies may be required to pay a reasonable fee to cover printing and similar costs.
</P>
<P>(2) The nonvoting member reviews all official committee minutes to assure their completeness and accuracy.
</P>
<P>(3) The nonvoting member acts as a liaison between the committee and the interested persons whom that member represents, and transmits requests for information from the committee and relevant information and views to the committee. The nonvoting member takes the initiative in contacting interested persons whom the member represents to seek out relevant information and views and to relate the progress of the advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(4) A nonvoting industry member represents all members of the industry, and not any particular association, company, product, or ingredient. If a matter comes before the committee that directly or indirectly affects the company employing the nonvoting industry member, the member shall so inform the committee but need not be absent during the discussion or decline to participate in the discussion. a nonvoting industry member may not discuss the company's position as such, but may discuss any matter in general terms. All presentations and discussions of scientific data and their interpretation on behalf of a company will occur in open session, except as provided in § 14.25(c).
</P>
<P>(5) A nonvoting member of an advisory committee may not make any presentation to that advisory committee during a hearing conducted by that committee.
</P>
<P>(6) Although a nonvoting member serves in a representative capacity, the nonvoting member shall exercise restraint in performing such functions and may not engage in unseemly advocacy or attempt to exert undue influence over the other members of the committee.
</P>
<P>(d) A nonvoting member of an advisory committee may be removed by the Commissioner for failure to comply with this section as well as § 14.80(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.5.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.90   Ad hoc advisory committee members.</HEAD>
<P>In selecting members of an ad hoc advisory committee, the Commissioner may use the procedures in §§ 14.82 and 14.84 or any other procedure deemed appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.95" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.5.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.95   Compensation of advisory committee members.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a) (2) and (3) of this section, all voting advisory committee members shall, and nonvoting members may, be appointed as special Government employees and receive a consultant fee and be reimbursed for travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, unless such compensation and reimbursement are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) Members of the Technical Electronic Product Radiation Safety Standards Committee (TEPRSSC) are not appointed as special Government employees. Any member of TEPRSSC who is not a Federal employee or member of the uniformed services, including the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service, shall receive a consultant fee and be reimbursed for travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, unless such compensation and reimbursement are waived.
</P>
<P>(3) Voting and nonvoting advisory committee members who are members of the uniformed services, including the Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service, provide service on Food and Drug Administration advisory committees as part of their assigned functions, are not appointed as special government employees, but are reimbursed by the Food and Drug Administration for travel expenses.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the member's primary residence, an advisory committee member, while attending meetings of the full committee or a subcommittee, will be paid whether the meetings are held in the Washington, DC, area or elsewhere.
</P>
<P>(c) A committee member who participates in any agency-directed assignment will be paid at an hourly rate when doing assigned work at home, a place of business, or in an FDA facility located within the member's commuting area, and at a daily rate when required to travel outside of that commuting area to perform the assignment. A committee member will not be paid for time spent on normal preparation for a committee meeting.
</P>
<P>(1) An agency-directed assignment is an assignment that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) An activity that requires undertaking a definitive study. The activity must produce a tangible end product, usually a written report. Examples are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) An analysis of the risks and benefits of the use of a class of drugs or a report on a specific problem generated by an IND or NDA;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The performance of similar investigations or analysis of complex industry submissions to support advisory committee deliberations other than normal meeting preparation;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The preparation of a statistical analysis leading to an estimate of toxicologically safe dose levels; and
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The design or analysis of animal studies of toxicity, mutagenicity, teratogenicity, or carcinogenicity.
</P>
<P>(ii) The performance of an IND or NDA review or similar review.
</P>
<P>(2) A committee member who undertakes a special assignment, the end product of which does not represent the end product of the advisory committee, but rather of the committee member's own assignment, can be compensated. Should this preparatory work by members collectively result in an end product of the committee, this is to be considered normal meeting preparation and committee members are not to be compensated for this work.
</P>
<P>(d) Salary while in travel status is authorized when a committee member's ordinary pursuits are interrupted for the substantial portion of an additional day beyond the day or days spent in performing those services, and as a consequence the committee member loses some regular compensation. This applies on weekends and holidays if the special Government employee loses income that would otherwise be earned on that day. For travel purposes, a substantial portion of a day is defined as 50 percent of the working day, and the traveler will be paid at a daily rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 50949, Dec. 19, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Standing Advisory Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.100   List of standing advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>Standing advisory committees and the dates of their establishment are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Office of the Commissioner</I>—(1) <I>Science Board to the Food and Drug Administration.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Date established: June 26, 1992.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: The board shall provide advice primarily to the agency's Senior Science Advisor and, as needed, to the Commissioner and other appropriate officials on specific complex and technical issues as well as emerging issues within the scientific community in industry and academia. Additionally, the board will provide advice to the agency on keeping pace with technical and scientific evolutions in the fields of regulatory science; on formulating an appropriate research agenda; and on upgrading its scientific and research facilities to keep pace with these changes. It will also provide the means for critical review of agency sponsored intramural and extramural scientific research programs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pediatric Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: June 18, 2004.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Advises on pediatric therapeutics, pediatric research, and other matters involving pediatrics for which the Food and Drug Administration has regulatory responsibility.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk Communication Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date rechartered: July 9, 2009.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: The committee reviews and evaluates strategies and programs designed to communicate with the public about the risks and benefits of FDA-regulated products so as to facilitate optimal use of these products. The committee also reviews and evaluates research relevant to such communication to the public by both FDA and other entities. It also facilitates interactively sharing risk and benefit information with the public to enable people to make informed independent judgments about use of FDA-regulated products.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tobacco Products Scientific Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date Established: August 12, 2009.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: The committee reviews and evaluates safety, dependence, and health issues relating to tobacco products and provides appropriate advice, information, and recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. Specifically, the committee will submit reports and recommendations on tobacco-related topics, including: The impact of the use of menthol in cigarettes on the public health, including such use among children, African Americans, Hispanics and other racial and ethnic minorities; the nature and impact of the use of dissolvable tobacco products on the public health, including such use on children; the effects of the alteration of nicotine yields from tobacco products and whether there is a threshold level below which nicotine yields do not produce dependence on the tobacco product involved; and any application submitted by a manufacturer for a modified risk tobacco product. The committee may provide recommendations to the Secretary of Health and Human Services regarding any regulations to be issued under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and may review any applications for new tobacco products or petitions for exemption under section 906(e) of the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act. The committee may consider and provide recommendations on any other matter as provided in the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research</I>—(1) <I>Cellular, Tissue and Gene Therapies Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: October 28, 1988.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates available data relating to the safety, effectiveness, and appropriate use of human cells, human tissues, gene transfer therapies and xenotransplantation products which are intended for transplantation, implantation, infusion, and transfer in the prevention and treatment of a broad spectrum of human diseases and in the reconstruction, repair or replacement of tissues for various conditions. The Committee also considers the quality and relevance of FDA's research program which provides scientific support for the regulation of these products, and makes appropriate recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Blood Products Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: May 13, 1980.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness, and appropriate use of blood products intended for use in the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of human diseases.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vaccines and Related Biological Products Advisory Committee</I>—
</P>
<P>(i) Date established: December 31, 1979.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of vaccines intended for use in the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of human diseases.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Center for Drug Evaluation and Research</I>—(1) <I>Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: May 1, 1978.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Function:</I> Reviews and evaluates data concerning the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drug products including analgesics, <I>e.g.,</I> abuse-deterrent opioids, novel analgesics, and issues related to opioid abuse, and those for use in anesthesiology.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Antimicrobial Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: October 7, 1980.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates available data concerning the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drug products for use in the treatment of infectious diseases and disorders.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cardiovascular and Renal Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: August 27, 1970.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drugs for use in cardiovascular and renal disorders.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Dermatologic and Ophthalmic Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: October 7, 1980.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates available data concerning the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drug products for use in the treatment of dermatologic and ophthalmic disorders.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: May 31, 1978.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on risk management plans, provides active surveillance methodologies, trademark studies, methodologies for risk management communication, and related issues.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Endocrinologic and Metabolic Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: August 27, 1970.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drugs for use in endocrine and metabolic disorders.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Obstetrics, Reproductive and Urologic Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: March 23, 1978.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: The committee reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drug products for use in the practice of obstetrics, gynecology, urology and related specialties, and makes appropriate recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: March 3, 1978.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drugs for use in gastrointestinal diseases.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Oncologic Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: September 1, 1978.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drugs for use in treatment of cancer.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Peripheral and Central Nervous System Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: June 4, 1974.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drugs for use in neurological disease.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Psychopharmacologic Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: June 4, 1974.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drugs for use in the practice of psychiatry and related fields.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Pulmonary-Allergy Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: February 17, 1972.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drugs for use in the treatment of pulmonary disease and diseases with allergic and/or immunologic mechanisms.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Medical Imaging Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: May 18, 2011.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data concerning the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drug products for use in diagnostic and therapeutic procedures using radioactive pharmaceuticals and contrast media used in diagnostic radiology.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Pharmaceutical Science and Clinical Pharmacology Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: January 22, 1990.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: The committee shall provide advice on scientific, clinical and technical issues related to safety and effectiveness of drug products for use in the treatment of a broad spectrum of human diseases, the quality characteristics which such drugs purport or are represented to have and as required, any other product for which the Food and Drug Administration has regulatory responsibility, and make appropriate recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. The Committee may also review agency sponsored intramural and extramural biomedical research programs in support of FDA's drug regulatory responsibilities and its critical path initiatives related to improving the efficacy and safety of drugs and improving the efficiency of drug development.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Nonprescription Drugs Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: August 27, 1991.
</P>
<P>(ii) Functions: The committee reviews and evaluates available data concerning the safety and effectiveness of over-the-counter (nonprescription) human drug products for use in the treatment of a broad spectrum of human symptoms and diseases.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Pharmacy Compounding Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date re-established: April 25, 2012.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Provides advice on scientific, technical, and medical issues concerning drug compounding under sections 503A and 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and, as required, any other product for which the Food and Drug Administration has regulatory responsibility, and makes appropriate recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.


</P>
<P>(17) <I>Genetic Metabolic Diseases Advisory Committee.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Date Established: December 12, 2023.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational human drug and biologic products for use in the treatment of genetic metabolic diseases and makes appropriate recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Center for Devices and Radiological Health</I>—(1) <I>Medical Devices Advisory Committee.</I> (i) <I>Date established:</I> October 27, 1990.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Function:</I> Reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational devices and makes recommendations for their regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Device Good Manufacturing Practice Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: May 17, 1987.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Reviews proposed regulations for good manufacturing practices governing the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, packing, storage, and installation of devices, and makes recommendations on the feasibility and reasonableness of the proposed regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Technical Electronic Product Radiation Safety Standards Committee.</I> (i) Date established: October 18, 1968.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Advises on technical feasibility, reasonableness, and practicability of performance standards for electronic products to control the emission of radiation under 42 U.S.C. 263f(f)(1)(A).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>National Mammography Quality Assurance Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date established: July 6, 1993.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Advises on developing appropriate quality standards and regulations for the use of mammography facilities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Patient Engagement Advisory Committee.</I> (i) Date Established: October 6, 2015.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Provides advice to the Commissioner on complex issues relating to medical devices, the regulation of devices, and their use by patients. Agency guidance and policies, clinical trial or registry design, patient preference study design, benefit-risk determinations, device labeling, unmet clinical needs, available alternatives, patient reported outcomes, and device-related quality of life or health status issues are among the topics that may be considered by the Committee. The Committee provides relevant skills and perspectives in order to improve communication of benefits, risks, and clinical outcomes, and increase integration of patient perspectives into the regulatory process for medical devices. It performs its duties by identifying new approaches, promoting innovation, recognizing unforeseen risks or barriers, and identifying unintended consequences that could result from FDA policy.
</P>
<P>(6) Digital Health Advisory Committee.
</P>
<P>(i) Date established: October 11, 2023.
</P>
<P>(ii) Function: Advises the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or designee in discharging responsibilities as they relate to ensuring that digital health technologies (DHTs) intended for use as a stand-alone medical product, as part of a medical product, or as a companion, complement, or adjunct to a medical product are safe and effective for human use.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 9036, Mar. 3, 1989]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 14.100, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Technical Electronic Products Radiation Safety Standards Committee</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.7.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.120   Establishment of the Technical Electronic Product Radiation Safety Standards Committee (TEPRSSC).</HEAD>
<P>The Technical Electronic Product Radiation Safety Standards Committee (TEPRSSC), consisting of 15 members, is established in accordance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360kk(f)(1)(A)) to provide consultation before the Commissioner prescribes any performance standard for an electronic product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.122" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.7.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.122   Functions of TEPRSSC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In performing its function of advising the Commissioner, TEPRSSC—
</P>
<P>(1) May propose electronic product radiation safety standards to the Commissioner for consideration;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides consultation to the Commissioner on all performance standards proposed for consideration under 21 U.S.C. 360kk; and
</P>
<P>(3) May make recommendations to the Commissioner on any other matters it deems necessary or appropriate in fulfilling the purposes of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) Responsibility for action on performance standards under 21 U.S.C. 360kk rests with the Commissioner, after receiving the advice of TEPRSSC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.7.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.125   Procedures of TEPRSSC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Commissioner is considering promulgation of a performance standard for an electronic product, or an amendment of an existing standard, before issuing a proposed regulation in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the Commissioner will submit to TEPRSSC the proposed standard or amendment under consideration, together with other relevant information to aid TEPRSSC in its deliberations.
</P>
<P>(b) The agenda and other material to be considered at any meeting will be sent to members whenever possible at least 2 weeks before the meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) Ten members constitute a quorum, provided at least three members are present from each group specified in 21 U.S.C. 360kk(f)(1)(A) and in § 14.127(a), i.e., Government, industry, and the public.
</P>
<P>(d) The Chairperson of TEPRSSC will ordinarily submit a report to the Commissioner of the committee's consideration of any proposed performance standard for an electronic product within 60 days after consideration. If the Chairperson believes that more time is needed, the Chairperson will inform the Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health in writing, in which case an additional 30 days will be allowed to make the report.
</P>
<P>(e) Sections 14.1 through 14.7 apply to TEPRSSC, except where other provisions are specifically included in §§ 14.120 through 14.130.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9037, Mar. 3, 1989; 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.127" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.7.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.127   Membership of TEPRSSC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner will appoint the members after consultation with public and private organizations concerned with the technical aspect of electronic product radiation safety. TEPRSSC consists of 15 members, each of whom is technically qualified by training and experienced in one or more fields of science or engineering applicable to electronic product radiation safety, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Five members selected from government agencies, including State and Federal Governments.
</P>
<P>(2) Five members selected from the affected industries after consultation with industry representatives.
</P>
<P>(3) Five members selected from the general public, of whom at least one shall be a representative of organized labor.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner will appoint a committee member as Chairperson of TEPRSSC.
</P>
<P>(c) Appointments of members are for a term of 3 years or as specified by the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(1) The Chairperson is appointed for a term concurrent with the Chairperson's term as a member of TEPRSSC. If the Chairpersonship becomes vacant without adequate notice, the Designated Federal Officer may appoint a committee member as temporary Chairperson pending appointment of a new Chairperson by the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(2) Members may not be reappointed for a second consecutive full term.
</P>
<P>(d) A person otherwise qualified for membership is not eligible for selection as a member of TEPRSSC from Government agencies or the general public if the Commissioner determines that the person does not meet the requirements of the conflict of interest laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) Retention of membership is conditioned upon the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Continued status as a member of the group from which the member was selected as specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Absence of any conflict of interest during the term of membership as specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Active participation in TEPRSSC activities.
</P>
<P>(f) Appointment as a member of TEPRSSC is conditioned on certification that the prospective member:
</P>
<P>(1) Agrees to the procedures and criteria specified in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Has no conflict of interest as specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Will notify the Designated Federal Officer of TEPRSSC before any change in representative status on TEPRSSC which may be contrary to the conditions of the appointment.
</P>
<P>(g) Members of TEPRSSC who are not full-time officers or employees of the United States receive compensation under § 14.95, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 210(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.130" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.7.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.130   Conduct of TEPRSSC meeting; availability of TEPRSSC records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with 21 U.S.C. 360kk(f)(1)(B), all proceedings of TEPRSSC are recorded, and the record of each proceeding is available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(b) All proceedings of TEPRSSC are open except when the Commissioner has determined, under § 14.27, that a portion of a meeting may be closed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 78 FR 17087, Mar. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Color Additive Advisory Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.140" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.8.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.140   Establishment of a color additive advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner will establish a color additive advisory committee under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) The Commissioner concludes, as a matter of discretion, that it would be in the public interest for a color additive advisory committee to review and make recommendations about the safety of a color additive on which important issues are pending before FDA and for interested persons to present information and views at an oral public hearing before a color additive advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(b) There is an issue arising under section 721(b)(5)(B) of the FD&amp;C Act concerning the safety of a color additive, including its potential or actual carcinogenicity, that requires the exercise of scientific judgment and a person who would be adversely affected by the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a regulation listing a color additive requests that the matter, or the Commissioner as a matter of discretion determines that the matter should, be referred to a color additive advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(1) Paragraph (b) does not apply to any issue arising under the transitional provisions in section 203 of the Color Additive Amendments of 1960 relating to provisional listing of commercially established colors. A color additive advisory committee to consider any such matter will be established under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for establishment of a color additive advisory committee is to be made in accordance with § 10.30. The Commissioner may deny any petition if inadequate grounds are stated for establishing a color additive advisory committee. A request for establishment of a color additive advisory committee may not rest on mere allegations or denials, but must set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact that requires scientific judgment and justifies a hearing before a color additive advisory committee. When it conclusively appears from the request for a color additive advisory committee that the matter is premature or that it does not involve an issue arising under section 721(b)(5)(B) of the FD&amp;C Act or that there is no genuine and substantial issue of fact requiring scientific judgment, or for any other reason a color additive advisory committee is not justified, the Commissioner may deny the establishment of a color additive advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(3) Establishment of a color additive advisory committee on the request of an interested person is conditioned upon receipt of the application fee specified in § 14.155.
</P>
<P>(4) Any person adversely affected may request referral of the matter to a color additive advisory committee at any time before, or within 30 days after, publication of an order of the Commissioner acting upon a color additive petition or proposal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.142" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.8.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.142   Functions of a color additive advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A color additive advisory committee reviews all available information relating to the matter referred to it, including all information contained in any pertinent color additive petition and in FDA files. All information reviewed is placed on public display and is available for review at the office of the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner specifies to the color additive advisory committee, in writing, the issues on which review and recommendations are requested.
</P>
<P>(c) The date of the first meeting of a color additive advisory committee, following receipt of the administrative record by each of the committee members, is designated as the beginning of the period allowed for consideration of the matter by the committee. Within 60 days after the first meeting, unless the time is extended as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Chairperson of the committee shall certify to the Commissioner the report containing the recommendations of the committee, including any minority report. The report states the recommendations of the committee and the reasons or basis for them. The report includes copies of all material considered by the committee in addition to the administrative record furnished to it.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Chairperson concludes that the color additive advisory committee needs additional time, the Chairperson shall so inform the Commissioner in writing and may certify the report of the committee to the Commissioner within 90 days instead of 60 days.
</P>
<P>(e) More than one matter may be handled concurrently by a color additive advisory committee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.145" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.8.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.145   Procedures of a color additive advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A color additive advisory committee is subject to all the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) All interested persons have a right to consult with the color additive advisory committee reviewing a matter and to submit information and views to a color additive advisory committee, in accordance with the procedures in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.147" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.8.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.147   Membership of a color additive advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The members of a color additive advisory committee are selected in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) If a color additive advisory committee is established for purposes that do not include review of an issue arising under section 721(b)(5)(B) of the act, or is established on the initiative of the Commissioner, the Commissioner may use the procedure in paragraph (a)(2) of this section to select the members or may use an existing standing advisory committee listed in § 14.100, or may establish a new advisory committee under this subpart. Once the Commissioner has established a color additive advisory committee under this paragraph and has referred to it a matter relating to a color additive, no interested person may subsequently request that an additional or different color additive advisory committee be established to review and make recommendations about that color additive.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Commissioner established a color additive advisory committee to review an issue arising under section 721(b)(5)(B) of the FD&amp;C Act on the request of an interested person, it shall be established under the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) (ii) and (iii) of this section, the Commissioner will request the National Academy of Sciences to select the members of a color additive advisory committee from among experts qualified in the subject matter to be reviewed by the committee, and of adequately diversified professional backgrounds. The Commissioner will appoint one of the members as the Chairperson.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the National Academy of Sciences is unable or refuses to select the members of a color additive advisory committee, the Commissioner will select the members.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Commissioner and the requesting party agree, section 721(b)(5)(D) of the FD&amp;C Act may be waived and the matter may be referred to any standing advisory committee listed in § 14.100 or to any advisory committee established under any other procedure that is mutually agreeable. Once the Commissioner has established a color additive advisory committee and has referred to it a matter relating to a color additive, no interested person may subsequently request that an additional or different color additive advisory committee be established to review and make recommendations about that color additive.
</P>
<P>(b) Members of a color additive advisory committee are subject to the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and this subpart, except that no member of a color additive advisory committee may by reason of such membership alone be a special government employee or be subject to the conflict of interest laws and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.155" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.8.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.155   Fees and compensation pertaining to a color additive advisory committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a matter is referred to a color additive advisory committee, all related costs, including personal compensation of committee members, travel, materials, and other costs, are borne by the person requesting the referral, such costs to be assessed on the basis of actual cost to the government. The compensation of such costs includes personal compensation of committee members at a rate not to exceed $128.80 per member per day.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a request for referral to a color additive advisory committee, a special advance deposit is to be made in the amount of $2,500. Where required, further advances in increments of $2,500 each are to be made upon request of the Commissioner. All deposits for referrals to a color additive advisory committee in excess of actual expenses will be refunded to the depositor.
</P>
<P>(c) All deposits and fees required by this section are to be paid by money order, bank draft, or certified check drawn to the order of the Food and Drug Administration, collectible at par in Washington, DC. All deposits and fees are to be forwarded to the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, and after appropriate record of them is made, they will be transmitted to the Treasurer of the United States for deposit in the special account “Salaries and Expenses, Certification, Inspection, and Other Services, Food and Drug Administration.”
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner may waive or refund such fees in whole or in part when, in the Commissioner's judgment, such action will promote the public interest. Any person who believes that payment of these fees will be a hardship may petition the Commissioner under § 10.30 to waive or refund the fees.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Advisory Committees for Human Prescription Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.160" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.9.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.160   Establishment of standing technical advisory committees for human prescription drugs.</HEAD>
<P>The standing technical advisory committees for human prescription drugs are established to advise the Commissioner:
</P>
<P>(a) Generally on the safety and effectiveness, including the labeling and advertising, and regulatory control of the human prescription drugs falling within the pharmacologic class covered by the advisory committee and on the scientific standards appropriate for a determination of safety and effectiveness in that class of drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) Specifically on any particular matter involving a human prescription drug pending before FDA, including whether the available information is adequate to support a determination that—
</P>
<P>(1) A particular IND study may properly be conducted;
</P>
<P>(2) A particular drug meets the statutory standard for proof of safety and effectiveness necessary for approval or continued approval for marketing; or
</P>
<P>(3) A particular drug is properly classified as a new drug, an old drug, or a banned drug.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.171" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.9.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.171   Utilization of an advisory committee on the initiative of FDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any matter involving a human prescription drug under review within the agency may, in the discretion of the Commissioner, be the subject of a public hearing and continuing or periodic review by the appropriate standing technical advisory committee for human prescription drugs. The Commissioner's determinations on the agenda of the committee are based upon the priorities of the various matters pending before the agency which fall within the pharmacologic class covered by that committee.
</P>
<P>(b) High priority for such hearing and review by the appropriate standing technical advisory committee for human prescription drugs are given to the following types of human prescription drugs:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigational drugs which are potential therapeutic advances over currently marketed products from the standpoint of safety or effectiveness, or which pose significant safety hazards, or which present narrow benefit-risk considerations requiring a close judgmental decision on approval for marketing, or which have a novel delivery system or formulation, or which are the subject of major scientific or public controversy, or which may be subject to special regulatory requirements such as a limitation on clinical trials, a patient followup requirement, postmarketing Phase IV studies, distributional controls, or boxed warnings.
</P>
<P>(2) Marketed drugs for which an important new use has been discovered or which pose newly discovered safety hazards, or which are the subject of major scientific or public controversy, or which may be subject to important regulatory actions such as withdrawal of approval for marketing, boxed warnings, distributional controls, or newly required scientific studies.
</P>
<P>(c) The committee may request the Commissioner for an opportunity to hold a public hearing and to review any matter involving a human prescription drug which falls within the pharmacologic class covered by the committee. The Commissioner may, after consulting with the committee on such request, grant or deny the request in light of the priorities of the other matters pending before the committee. Whenever feasible, consistent with the other work of the committee, the request will be granted.
</P>
<P>(d) For a drug that meets any of the criteria established in paragraph (b) of this section, one or more members of or consultants to the appropriate advisory committee may be selected for more detailed monitoring of the matter and consultation with FDA on behalf of the committee. The member or consultant may be invited to attend appropriate meetings and shall assist the center in any briefing of the committee on that matter.
</P>
<P>(e) An advisory committee may obtain advice and recommendations from other agency advisory committees, consultants, and experts which the advisory committee and the center conclude would facilitate the work of the advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(f) Presentation of all relevant information about the matter will be made in open session unless it relates to an IND the existence of which has not previously been disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 or is otherwise prohibited from public disclosure under part 20 and the regulations referenced therein. Sections 314.430 and 601.51 determine whether, and the extent to which, relevant information may be made available for public disclosure, summarized and discussed in open session but not otherwise made available for public disclosure, or not in any way discussed or disclosed in open session or otherwise disclosed to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22351, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9037, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.172" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.9.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.172   Utilization of an advisory committee at the request of an interested person.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may request, under § 10.30, that a specific matter relating to a particular human prescription drug be submitted to an appropriate advisory committee for a hearing and review and recommendations. The request must demonstrate the importance of the matter and the reasons why it should be submitted for a hearing at that time. The Commissioner may grant or deny the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.174" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.11.9.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.174   Advice and recommendations in writing.</HEAD>
<P>Advice and recommendations given by a committee on a specific drug or a class of drugs are ordinarily in the form of a written report. The report may consist of the approved minutes of the meeting or a separate written report. The report responds to the specific issues or questions which the Commissioner has addressed to the advisory committee, and states the basis of the advice and recommendations of the committee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="15" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 15—PUBLIC HEARING BEFORE THE COMMISSIONER
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 553; 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-393, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b-263n, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 22366, Apr. 13, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 15 appear at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this part apply when:
</P>
<P>(a) The Commissioner concludes, as a matter of discretion, that it is in the public interest to permit persons to present information and views at a public hearing on any matter pending before the Food and Drug Administation.
</P>
<P>(b) The act or regulation specifically provides for a public hearing before the Commissioner on a matter, e.g., § 330.10(a)(8) relating to over-the-counter drugs and sections 520 (b) and (f)(1)(B), and 521 of the act relating to proposals to allow persons to order custom devices, to proposed device good manufacturing practice regulations, and to proposed exemptions from preemption of State and local device requirements under § 808.25(e).
</P>
<P>(c) A person who has right to an opportunity for a formal evidentiary public hearing under part 12 waives that opportunity and instead requests under § 12.32 a public hearing before the Commissioner, and the Commissioner, as a matter of discretion, accepts the request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Public Hearing Before the Commissioner</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.20   Notice of a public hearing before the Commissioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Commissioner determines that a public hearing should be held on a matter, the Commissioner will publish a notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the hearing is under § 15.1 (a) or (b), the notice will state the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The purpose of the hearing and the subject matter to be considered. If a written document is to be the subject matter of the hearing, it will be published as part of the notice, or reference made to it if it has already been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or the notice will state that the document is available from an agency office identified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) The time, date, and place of the hearing, or a statement that the information will be contained in a subsequent notice.
</P>
<P>(2) If the hearing is in lieu of a formal evidentiary public hearing under § 15.1(c), all of the information described in § 12.32(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The scope of the hearing is determined by the notice of hearing and any regulation under which the hearing is held. If a regulation, e.g., § 330.10(a)(10), limits a hearing to review of an existing administrative record, information not already in the record may not be considered at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice of hearing may require participants to submit the text of their presentations in advance of the hearing if the Commissioner determines that advance submissions are necessary for the panel to formulate useful questions to be posed at the hearing under § 15.30(e). The notice may provide for the submission of a comprehensive outline as an alternative to the submission of the text if the Commissioner determines that submission of an outline will be sufficient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22366, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 26375, June 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.21   Notice of participation; schedule for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice of hearing will provide persons an opportunity to file a written notice of participation with the Dockets Management Staff within a specified period of time containing the information specified in the notice, e.g., name of participant, address, phone number, affiliation, if any, topic of presentation and approximate amount of time requested for the presentation. If the public interest requires, e.g., a hearing is to be conducted within a short period of time or is to be primarily attended by individuals without an organizational affiliation, the notice may name a specific FDA employee and telephone number to whom an oral notice of participation may be given or provide for submitting notices of participation at the time of the hearing. A written or oral notice of participation must be received by the designated person by the close of business of the day specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) Promptly after expiration of the time for filing a notice, the Commissioner will determine the amount of time allotted to each person and the approximate time that oral presentation is scheduled to begin. If more than one hearing is held on the same subject, a person will ordinarily be allotted time for a presentation at only one hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals and organizations with common interests are urged to consolidate or coordinate their presentations and to request time for a joint presentation. The Commissioner may require joint presentations by persons with common interests.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner will prepare a hearing schedule showing the persons making oral presentations and the time alloted to each person, which will be filed with the Dockets Management Staff and mailed or telephoned before the hearing to each participant.
</P>
<P>(e) The hearing schedule will state whether participants must be present by a specified time to be sure to be heard in case the absence of participants advances the schedule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.25   Written submissions.</HEAD>
<P>A person may submit information or views on the subject of the hearing in writing to the Dockets Management Staff, under § 10.20. The record of the hearing will remain open for 15 days after the hearing is held for any additional written submissions, unless the notice of the hearing specifies otherwise or the presiding officer rules otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.30   Conduct of a public hearing before the Commissioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner or a designee may preside at the hearing, except where a regulation provides that the Commissioner will preside personally. The presiding officer may be accompanied by other FDA employees or other Federal Government employees designated by the Commissioner, who may serve as a panel in conducting the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing will be transcribed.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons may use their alloted time in whatever way they wish, consistent with a reasonable and orderly hearing. A person may be accompanied by any number of additional persons, and may present any written information or views for inclusion in the record of the hearing, subject to the requirements of § 15.25. The presiding officer may allot additional time to any person when the officer concludes that it is in the public interest, but may not reduce the time allotted for any person without the consent of the person.
</P>
<P>(d) If a person is not present at the time specified for the presentation, the persons following will appear in order, with adjustments for those appearing at their scheduled time. An attempt will be made to hear any person who is late at the conclusion of the hearing. Other interested persons attending the hearing who did not request an opportunity to make an oral presentation will be given an opportunity to make an oral presentation at the conclusion of the hearing, in the discretion of the presiding officer, to the extent that time permits.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer and any other persons serving on a panel may question any person during or at the conclusion of the presentation. No other person attending the hearing may question a person making a presentation. The presiding officer may, as a matter of discretion, permit questions to be submitted to the presiding officer or panel for response by them or by persons attending the hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) The hearing is informal in nature, and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views may be made or considered, but other participants may comment upon or rebut all such information and views. No participant may interrupt the presentation of another participant at any hearing for any reason.
</P>
<P>(g) The hearing may end early only if all persons scheduled for a later presentation have already appeared or it is past the time specified in the hearing schedule, under § 15.21(e), by which participants must be present.
</P>
<P>(h) The Commissioner or the presiding officer may, under § 10.19, suspend, modify, or waive any provision of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Records of a Public Hearing Before the Commissioner</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.40   Administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative record of a public hearing before the Commissioner consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All relevant <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices, including any documents to which they refer.
</P>
<P>(2) All written submissions under § 15.25.
</P>
<P>(3) The transcript of the oral hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The record of the administrative proceeding will be closed at the time specified in § 15.25.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.12.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.45   Examination of administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>Section 10.20(j) governs the availability for public examination and copying of each document in the administrative record of the hearing


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="16" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 16—REGULATORY HEARING BEFORE THE FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-394, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201-262, 263b, 364.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this part apply when:
</P>
<P>(a) The Commissioner is considering any regulatory action, including a refusal to act, and concludes, as a matter of discretion, on the Commissioner's initiative or at the suggestion of any person, to offer an opportunity for a regulatory hearing to obtain additional information before making a decision or taking action.
</P>
<P>(b) The act or a regulation provides a person with an opportunity for a hearing on a regulatory action, including proposed action, and the act or a regulation either specifically provides an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under this part or provides an opportunity for a hearing for which no procedures are specified by regulation. Listed below are the statutory and regulatory provisions under which regulatory hearings are available:
</P>
<P>(1) Statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>Section 304(g) of the act relating to the administrative detention of devices and drugs (see §§ 800.55(g) and 1.980(g) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>Section 304(h) of the act relating to the administrative detention of food for human or animal consumption (see part 1, subpart k of this chapter).
</P>
<P>Section 419(c)(2)(D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act relating to the modification or revocation of a variance from the requirements of section 419 (see part 112, subpart P of this chapter).
</P>
<P>Section 515(e)(1) of the act relating to the proposed withdrawal of approval of a device premarket approval application.
</P>
<P>Section 515(e)(3) of the act relating to the temporary suspension of approval of a premarket approval application.
</P>
<P>Section 515(f)(6) of the act relating to a proposed order revoking a device product development protocol or declaring a protocol not completed.
</P>
<P>Section 515(f)(7) of the act relating to revocation of a notice of completion of a product development protocol.
</P>
<P>Section 516(b) of the act regarding a proposed regulation to ban a medical device with a special effective date.
</P>
<P>Section 518(b) of the act relating to a determination that a device is subject to a repair, replacement, or refund order or that a correction plan, or revised correction plan, submitted by a manufacturer, importer, or distributor is inadequate.
</P>
<P>Section 518(e) of the act relating to a cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order concerning a medical device for human use.
</P>
<P>Section 520(f)(2)(D) of the act relating to exemptions or variances from device current good manufacturing practice requirements (see § 820.1(d)).
</P>
<P>Section 520(g)(4) and (g)(5) of the act relating to disapproval and withdrawal of approval of an application from an investigational device exemption (see §§ 812.19(c), 812.30(c), 813.30(d), and 813.35(c) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>Section 903(a)(8)(B)(ii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act relating to the misbranding of tobacco products.
</P>
<P>Section 906(e)(1)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act relating to the establishment of good manufacturing practice requirements for tobacco products.
</P>
<P>Section 910(d)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act relating to the withdrawal of an order allowing a new tobacco product to be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>Section 911(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act relating to the withdrawal of an order allowing a modified risk tobacco product to be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce.


</P>
<P>(2) The regulatory provisions are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sections 1.634 and 1.664, relating to revocation of recognition of an accreditation body and withdrawal of accreditation of third-party certification bodies that conduct food safety audits of eligible entities in the food import supply chain and issue food and facility certifications.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1.1173, relating to the revocation of recognition of an accreditation body, and the disqualification of a laboratory, with respect to food testing conducted under part 1, subpart R of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1.1174, relating to the issuance of a directed food laboratory order by FDA pursuant to § 1.1108.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 56.121(a), relating to disqualifying an institutional review board or an institution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 58.204(b), relating to disqualifying a testing facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 71.37(a), relating to use of food containing a color additive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 80.31(b), relating to refusal to certify a batch of a color additive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 80.34(b), relating to suspension of certification service for a color additive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 99.401(c), relating to a due diligence determination concerning the conduct of studies necessary for a supplemental application for a new use of a drug or device.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sections 112.201 through 112.213, (see part 112, subpart R of this chapter), relating to withdrawal of a qualified exemption.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sections 117.251 through 117.287 (part 117, subpart E of this chapter), relating to withdrawal of a qualified facility exemption.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 130.17(1), relating to a temporary permit to vary from a food standard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 170.17(b), relating to use of food containing an investigational food additive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 202.1(j)(5), relating to approval of prescription drug advertisements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 230.150(b), relating to revocation of the grant of a certification for a designated medical gas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 312.70, relating to whether an investigator is eligible to receive test articles under part 312 of this chapter and eligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, including drugs, biologics, devices, new animal drugs, foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, and tobacco products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sections 312.70(d) and 312.44, relating to termination of an IND for a sponsor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 312.160(b), relating to termination of an IND for tests in vitro and in laboratory research animals for a sponsor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 507.60 through 507.85 (part 507, subpart D of this chapter) relating to withdrawal of a qualified facility exemption.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 511.1(b)(5), relating to use of food containing an investigational new animal drug.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 511.1(c)(1), relating to whether an investigator is eligible to receive test articles under part 511 of this chapter and eligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA including drugs, biologics, devices, new animal drugs, foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, and tobacco products; and any nonclinical laboratory study intended to support an application for a research or marketing permit for a new animal drug.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 511.1(c)(4) and (d), relating to termination of an INAD for a sponsor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 812.119, relating to whether an investigator is eligible to receive test articles under part 812 of this chapter and eligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA including drugs, biologics, devices, new animal drugs, foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, and tobacco products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 814.46(c) relating to withdrawal of approval of a device premarket approval application.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 822.7(a)(3), relating to an order to conduct postmarket surveillance of a medical device under section 522 of the act.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 830.130, relating to suspension or revocation of the accreditation of an issuing agency.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 895.30(c), regarding a proposed regulation to ban a medical device with a special effective date.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 900.7, relating to approval, reapproval, or withdrawal of approval of mammography accreditation bodies or rejection of a proposed fee for accreditation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 900.14, relating to suspension or revocation of a mammography certificate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 900.25, relating to approval or withdrawal of approval of certification agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1003.11(a)(3), relating to the failure of an electronic product to comply with an applicable standard or to a defect in an electronic product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1003.31(d), relating to denial of an exemption from notification requirements for an electronic product which fails to comply with an applicable standard or has a defect.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1004.6, relating to plan for repurchase, repair, or replacement of an electronic product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1107.1(d), relating to rescission of an exemption from the requirement of demonstrating substantial equivalence for a tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1107.50, relating to rescission of an order finding a tobacco product substantially equivalent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1210.30, relating to denial, suspension, or revocation of a permit under the Federal Import Milk Act.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1270.43(e), relating to the retention, recall, and destruction of human tissue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Section 1271.440(e) relating to the retention, recall, and destruction of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps), and/or the cessation of manufacturing HCT/Ps.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 16.1, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.5   Inapplicability and limited applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Informal presentation of views before reporting a criminal violation under section 305 of the act and section 5 of the Federal Import Milk Act and § 1210.31.
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing on a refusal of admission of a food, drug, device, or cosmetic under section 801(a) of the act and § 1.94, or of an electronic product under section 360(a) of the Public Health Service Act and § 1005.20.
</P>
<P>(3) Factory inspections, recalls (except mandatory recalls of medical devices intended for human use), regulatory letters, and similar compliance activities related to law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(4) A hearing on an order for relabeling, diversion, or destruction of shell eggs under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 264) and §§ 101.17(h) and 115.50 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(5) A hearing on an order for diversion or destruction of shell eggs under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 264), and § 118.12 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) If a regulation provides a person with an opportunity for hearing and specifies some procedures for the hearing but not a comprehensive set of procedures, the procedures in this part apply to the extent that they are supplementary and not in conflict with the other procedures specified for the hearing. Thus, the procedures in subpart A of part 108 relating to emergency permit control are supplemented by the nonconflicting procedures in this part, e.g., the right to counsel, public notice of the hearing, reconsideration and stay, and judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 57 FR 58403, Dec. 10, 1992; 65 FR 76110, Dec. 5, 2000; 74 FR 33095, July 9, 2009; 89 FR 83781, Oct. 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Initiation of Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.22   Initiation of regulatory hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A regulatory hearing is initiated by a notice of opportunity for hearing from FDA. The notice will—
</P>
<P>(1) Be sent by mail, telegram, telex, personal delivery, or any other mode of written communication;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the facts and the action that are the subject of the opportunity for a hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) State that the notice of opportunity for hearing and the hearing are governed by this part; and
</P>
<P>(4) State the time within which a hearing may be requested, and state the name, address, and telephone number of the FDA employee to whom any request for hearing is to be addressed.
</P>
<P>(5) Refer to FDA's guideline on electronic media coverage of its administrative proceedings (21 CFR part 10, subpart C).
</P>
<P>(b) A person offered an opportunity for a hearing has the amount of time specified in the notice, which may not be less than 3 working days after receipt of the notice, within which to request a hearing. The request may be filed by mail, telegram, telex, personal delivery, or any other mode of written communication, addressed to the designated FDA employee. If no response is filed within that time, the offer is deemed to have been refused and no hearing will be held.
</P>
<P>(c) If a hearing is requested, the Commissioner will designate a presiding officer, and the hearing will take place at a time and location agreed upon by the party requesting the hearing, the FDA, and the presiding officer or, if agreement cannot be reached, at a reasonable time and location designated by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(d) A notice of opportunity for hearing under this section will not operate to delay or stay any administrative action, including enforcement action by the agency unless the Commissioner, as a matter of discretion, determines that delay or a stay is in the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 32173, Aug. 13, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.24" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.24   Regulatory hearing required by the act or a regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A regulatory hearing required by the act or a regulation under § 16.1(b) will be initiated in the same manner as other regulatory hearings subject to the additional procedures in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) The notice will state whether any action concerning the matter that is the subject of the opportunity for hearing is or is not being taken pending the hearing under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner may take such action pending a hearing under this section as the Commissioner concludes is necessary to protect the public health, except where expressly prohibited by statute or regulation. A hearing to consider action already taken, and not stayed by the Commissioner, will be conducted on an expedited basis.
</P>
<P>(e) The hearing may not be required to be held at a time less than 2 working days after receipt of the request for hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) Before the hearing, FDA will give to the party requesting the hearing reasonable notice of the matters to be considered at the hearing, including a comprehensive statement of the basis for the decision or action taken or proposed that is the subject of the hearing and a general summary of the information that will be presented by FDA at the hearing in support of the decision or action. This information may be given orally or in writing, in the discretion of FDA.
</P>
<P>(g) FDA and the party requesting the hearing will, if feasible, at least 1 day before the hearing provide to each other written notice of any published articles or written information to be presented at or relied on at the hearing. A copy will also be provided in advance if the other participant could not reasonably be expected to have or be able to obtain a copy. If written notice or a copy is not provided, the presiding officer may, if time permits, allow the party who did not receive the notice or copy additional time after the close of the hearing to make a submission concerning the article or information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 26375, June 18, 1982; 54 FR 9037, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.26" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.26   Denial of hearing and summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for a hearing may be denied, in whole or in part, if the Commissioner or the FDA official to whom authority is delegated to make the final decision on the matter determines that no genuine and substantial issue of fact has been raised by the material submitted. If the Commissioner or his or her delegate determines that a hearing is not justified, written notice of the determination will be given to the parties explaining the reason for denial.
</P>
<P>(b) After a hearing commences, the presiding officer may issue a summary decision on any issue in the hearing if the presiding officer determines from the material submitted in connection with the hearing, or from matters officially noticed, that there is no genuine and substantial issue of fact respecting that issue. For the purpose of this paragraph, a hearing commences upon the receipt by FDA of a request for hearing submitted under § 16.22(b).
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner or his or her delegate may review any summary decision of the presiding officer issued under paragraph (b) of this section at the request of a party or on the Commissioner's or his or her delegate's own initiative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 4615, Feb. 17, 1988, as amended at 69 FR 17290, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Commissioner and Presiding Officer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.40   Commissioner.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Commissioner has delegated authority on a matter for which a regulatory hearing is available under this part, the functions of the Commissioner under this part may be performed by any of the officials to whom the authority has been delegated, e.g., a center director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17290, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.42" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.42   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FDA employee to whom the Commissioner delegates such authority, or any other agency employee designated by an employee to whom such authority is delegated, or, consistent with 5 CFR 930.209(b) or (c), an administrative law judge to whom such authority is delegated, may serve as the presiding officer and conduct a regulatory hearing under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In a regulatory hearing required by the act or a regulation, the presiding officer is to be free from bias or prejudice and may not have participated in the investigation or action that is the subject of the hearing or be subordinate to a person, other than the Commissioner, who has participated in such investigation or action.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Commissioner or the delegate under § 16.40 is not precluded by this section from prior participation in the investigation or action that is the subject of the hearing. If there has been prior participation, the Commissioner or the delegate should, if feasible, designate a presiding officer for the hearing who is not a subordinate. Thus, if the Commissioner's authority to make a final decision has been delegated to a center director, the presiding officer may be an official in another center or the office of the Commissioner. The exercise of general supervisory responsibility, or the designation of the presiding officer, does not constitute prior participation in the investigation or action that is the subject of the hearing so as to preclude the Commissioner or delegate from designating a subordinate as the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(2) The party requesting a hearing may make a written request to have the Commissioner or the delegate under § 16.40 be the presiding officer, notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section. If accepted, as a matter of discretion, by the Commissioner or the delegate, the request is binding upon the party making the request.
</P>
<P>(3) A different presiding officer may be substituted for the one originally designated under § 16.22 without notice to the parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9037, Mar. 3, 1989; 67 FR 53306, Aug. 15, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.44" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.44   Communication to presiding officer and Commissioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Regulatory hearings are not subject to the separation of functions rules in § 10.55.
</P>
<P>(b) Those persons who are directly involved in the investigation or presentation of the position of FDA or any party at a regulatory hearing that is required by the act or a regulation should avoid any off-the-record communication on the matter to the presiding officer or the Commissioner or their advisors if the communication is inconsistent with the requirement of § 16.95(b)(1) that the administrative record be the exclusive record for decision. If any communication of this type occurs, it is to be reduced to writing and made part of the record, and the other party provided an opportunity to respond.
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of any letter or memorandum of meeting between a participant in the hearing and the presiding officer or the Commissioner, e.g., a response by the presiding officer to a request for a change in the time of the hearing, is to be sent to all participants by the person writing the letter or the memorandum.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures for Regulatory Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.60   Hearing procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A regulatory hearing is public, except when the Commissioner determines that all or part of a hearing should be closed to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; to prevent the disclosure of a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information that is not available for public disclosure under § 20.61; or to protect investigatory records complied for law enforcement purposes that are not available for public disclosure under § 20.64.
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner may determine that a regulatory hearing is closed either on the Commissioner's initiative or on a request by the party asking for a regulatory hearing, in the request for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the hearing is a private hearing, no persons other than the party requesting the hearing, counsel and witnesses, and an employee or consultant or other person subject to a commercial arrangement as defined in § 20.81(a) and FDA representatives with a direct professional interest in the subject matter of the proceeding are entitled to attend.
</P>
<P>(b) A regulatory hearing will be conducted by a presiding officer. Employees of FDA will first give a full and complete statement of the action which is the subject of the hearing, together with the information and reasons supporting it, and may present any oral or written information relevant to the hearing. The party requesting the hearing may then present any oral or written information relevant to the hearing. All parties may confront and conduct reasonable cross-examination of any person (except for the presiding officer and counsel for the parties) who makes any statement on the matter at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing is informal in nature, and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views will be made or considered, but any other party may comment upon or rebut all such data, information, and views.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer may order the hearing to be transcribed. The party requesting the hearing may have the hearing transcribed, at the party's expense, in which case a copy of the transcript is to be furnished to FDA. Any transcript of the hearing will be included with the presiding officer's report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer shall prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. Whenever time permits, the parties to the hearing will be given the opportunity to review and comment on the presiding officer's report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) The presiding officer shall include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and shall include a recommended decision, with a statement of reasons, unless the Commissioner directs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer has the power to take such actions and make such rulings as are necessary or appropriate to maintain order and to conduct a fair, expeditious, and impartial hearing, and to enforce the requirements of this part concerning the conduct of hearings. The presiding officer may direct that the hearing be conducted in any suitable manner permitted by law and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(h) The Commissioner or the presiding officer has the power under § 10.19 to suspend, modify, or waive any provision of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 66 FR 6469, Jan. 22, 2001; 66 FR 12850, Mar. 1, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.62" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.62   Right to counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a hearing under this part has the right at all times to be advised and accompanied by counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Administrative Record and Decision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.80   Administrative record of a regulatory hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative record of the regulatory hearing consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The notice of opportunity for hearing and the response.
</P>
<P>(2) All written information and views submitted to the presiding officer at the hearing or after if specifically permitted by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(3) Any transcript of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer's report of the hearing and comments on the report under § 16.60(e).
</P>
<P>(5) All letters and memoranda of meetings or communications between participants and the presiding officer or the Commissioner referred to in § 16.44(c).
</P>
<P>(b) The record of the regulatory hearing is closed to the submission of information and views, at the close of the hearing, unless the presiding officer specifically permits additional time for a further submission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.85" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.85   Examination of administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>Part 20 governs the availability for public disclosure of each document that is a part of the administrative record of a regulatory hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.95" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.95   Administrative decision and record for decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to a regulatory hearing at the Commissioner's initiative under § 16.1(a), the Commissioner shall consider the administrative record of the hearing specified in § 16.80(a) together with all other relevant information and views available to FDA in determining whether regulatory action should be taken and, if so, in what form.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a regulatory hearing required by the act or a regulation under § 16.1(b)—
</P>
<P>(1) The administrative record of the hearing specified in § 16.80(a) constitutes the exclusive record for decision;
</P>
<P>(2) On the basis of the administrative record of the hearing, the Commissioner shall issue a written decision stating the reasons for the Commissioner's administrative action and the basis in the record; and
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of judicial review under § 10.45, the record of the administrative proceeding consists of the record of the hearing and the Commissioner's decision.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Reconsideration and Stay</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.119" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.119   Reconsideration and stay of action.</HEAD>
<P>After any final administrative action that is the subject of a hearing under this part, any party may petition the Commissioner for reconsideration of any part or all of the decision or action under § 10.33 or may petition for a stay of the decision or action under § 10.35.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 22367, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 9037, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Judicial Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.13.7.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.120   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Section 10.45 governs the availability of judicial review concerning any regulatory action which is the subject of a hearing under this part


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="17" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 17—CIVIL MONEY PENALTIES HEARINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-394, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201-262, 263b, 364.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 38626, July 27, 1995, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 17 appear at 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003, and at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 17.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth practices and procedures for hearings concerning the administrative imposition of civil money penalties by FDA. Listed below are the statutory provisions that authorize civil money penalties that are governed by these procedures.
</P>
<P>(a) Section 303(b)(2) and (b)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) authorizing civil money penalties for certain violations of the act that relate to prescription drug marketing practices.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 303(f)(1) of the act authorizing civil money penalties for certain violations of the act that relate to medical devices and section 303(f)(2) of the act authorizing civil money penalties for certain violations of the act that relate to pesticide residues.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 303(f)(3) of the act authorizing civil money penalties for certain violations relating to the submission of certifications and/or clinical trial information to the clinical trial data bank and section 303(f)(4) of the act authorizing civil money penalties for certain violations of the act relating to postmarket studies, clinical trial requirements, and risk evaluation and mitigation strategies for drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 303(g)(1) of the act authorizing civil money penalties for certain violations of the act that relate to dissemination of direct-to-consumer advertisements for approved drugs or biological products.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 307 of the act authorizing civil money penalties for certain actions in connection with an abbreviated new drug application or certain actions in connection with a person or individual debarred under section 306 of the act.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 539(b)(1) of the act authorizing civil money penalties for certain violations of the act that relate to electronic products.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 351(d)(2) of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act) authorizing civil money penalties for violations of biologic recall orders.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 354(h)(3) of the PHS Act, as amended by the Mammography Quality Standards Act of 1992 and the Mammography Quality Standards Act of 1998, authorizing civil money penalties for failure to obtain a certificate and failure to comply with established standards, among other things.
</P>
<P>(i) Section 2128(b)(1) of the PHS Act authorizing civil money penalties for intentionally destroying, altering, falsifying, or concealing any record or report required to be prepared, maintained, or submitted by vaccine manufacturers under section 2128 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(j) Section 303(f) of the act authorizing civil money penalties for any person who violates a requirement of the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act which relates to tobacco products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 38626, July 27, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 43301, July 20, 2004; 73 FR 66752, Nov. 12, 2008; 75 FR 73953, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.2   Maximum penalty amounts.</HEAD>
<P>The maximum civil money penalties associated with the statutory provisions authorizing civil money penalties under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or the Public Health Service Act can be found at 45 CFR part 102. The table of these maximum civil money penalties can be found at 45 CFR 102.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 62358, Sept. 9, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions are applicable in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) For specific acts giving rise to civil money penalty actions brought under 21 U.S.C. 333(f)(1):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Significant departure,</I> for the purpose of interpreting 21 U.S.C. 333(f)(1)(B)(i), means a departure from requirements that is either a single major incident or a series of incidents that collectively are consequential.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Knowing departure,</I> for the purposes of interpreting 21 U.S.C. 333(f)(1)(B)(i), means a departure from a requirement taken:
</P>
<P>(i) With actual knowledge that the action is such a departure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In deliberate ignorance of a requirement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In reckless disregard of a requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minor violations,</I> for the purposes of interpreting 21 U.S.C. 333(f)(1)(B)(ii), means departures from requirements that do not rise to a level of a single major incident or a series of incidents that are collectively consequential.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Defective,</I> for the purposes of interpreting 21 U.S.C. 333(f)(1)(B)(iii), includes any defect in performance, manufacture, construction, components, materials, specifications, design, installation, maintenance, or service of a device, or any defect in mechanical, physical, or chemical properties of a device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Person</I> or <I>respondent</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, scientific or academic establishment, government agency or organizational unit thereof, or other legal entity, or as may be defined in the act or regulation pertinent to the civil penalty action being brought.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presiding officer</I> means an administrative law judge qualified under 5 U.S.C. 3105.
</P>
<P>(d) Any term that is defined in the act has the same definition for civil money penalty actions that may be brought under that act.
</P>
<P>(e) Any term that is defined in Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations has the same definition for civil money penalty actions that may arise from the application of the regulation(s).
</P>
<P>(f) Any term that is defined in the PHS Act has the same definition for civil money penalty actions that may be brought under that act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Departmental Appeals Board (DAB)</I> means the Departmental Appeals Board of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 38626, July 27, 1995, as amended at 82 FR 34402, July 25, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.5   Complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Center with principal jurisdiction over the matter involved shall begin all administrative civil money penalty actions by serving on the respondent(s) a complaint signed by the Office of the Chief Counsel attorney for the Center and by filing a copy of the complaint with the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. For a civil money penalty action against retailers of tobacco products, the complaint may be signed by any Agency employee designated by the Chief Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint shall state:
</P>
<P>(1) The allegations of liability against the respondent, including the statutory basis for liability, the identification of violations that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons that the respondent is responsible for the violations;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of penalties and assessments that the Center is seeking;
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions for filing an answer to request a hearing, including a specific statement of the respondent's right to request a hearing by filing an answer and to retain counsel to represent the respondent; and
</P>
<P>(4) That failure to file an answer within 30 days of service of the complaint will result in the imposition of the proposed amount of penalties and assessments, as provided in § 17.11.
</P>
<P>(c) The Center may, on motion, subsequently amend its complaint to conform with the evidence adduced during the administrative process, as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer will be assigned to the case upon the filing of the complaint under this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 38626, July 27, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 6091, Feb. 3, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.7" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.7   Service of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of a complaint may be made by:
</P>
<P>(1) Certified or registered mail or similar mail delivery service with a return receipt record reflecting receipt; or
</P>
<P>(2) Delivery in person to:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual respondent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An officer or managing or general agent in the case of a corporation or unincorporated business.
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom the complaint was served, and the manner and date of service, may be made by:
</P>
<P>(1) Affidavit or declaration under penalty of perjury of the individual serving the complaint by personal delivery;
</P>
<P>(2) A United States Postal Service or similar mail delivery service return receipt record reflecting receipt; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written acknowledgment of receipt by the respondent or by the respondent's counsel or authorized representative or agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.9" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.9   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The respondent may request a hearing by filing an answer with the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, within 30 days of service of the complaint. Unless stated otherwise, an answer shall be deemed to be a request for hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) In the answer, the respondent:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint; allegations not specifically denied in an answer are deemed admitted;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall state all defenses on which the respondent intends to rely;
</P>
<P>(3) Shall state all reasons why the respondent contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the requested amount; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall state the name, address, and telephone number of the respondent's counsel, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) If the respondent is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section within the time provided, the respondent shall, before the expiration of 30 days from service of the complaint, file a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The presiding officer may, for good cause shown, grant the respondent up to 30 additional days within which to file an answer that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The respondent may, on motion, amend its answer to conform with the evidence as justice may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.11" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.11   Default upon failure to file an answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the respondent does not file an answer within the time prescribed in § 17.9 and if service has been effected as provided in § 17.7, the presiding officer shall assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true, and, if such facts establish liability under the relevant statute, the presiding officer shall issue an initial decision within 30 days of the time the answer was due, imposing:
</P>
<P>(1) The maximum amount of penalties provided for by law for the violations alleged; or
</P>
<P>(2) The amount asked for in the complaint, whichever amount is smaller.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer, the respondent waives any right to a hearing and to contest the amount of the penalties and assessments imposed under paragraph (a) of this section, and the initial decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued.
</P>
<P>(c) If, before such a decision becomes final, the respondent files a motion seeking to reopen on the grounds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the respondent from filing an answer, the initial decision shall be stayed pending a decision on the motion.
</P>
<P>(d) If, on such motion, the respondent can demonstrate extraordinary circumstances excusing the failure to file an answer in a timely manner, the presiding officer may withdraw the decision under paragraph (a) of this section, if such a decision has been issued, and shall grant the respondent an opportunity to answer the complaint as provided in § 17.9(a).
</P>
<P>(e) If the presiding officer decides that the respondent's failure to file an answer in a timely manner is not excused, he or she shall affirm the decision under paragraph (a) of this section, and the decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the presiding officer issues the decision on the respondent's motion filed under paragraph (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.13" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.13   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>After an answer has been filed, the Center shall serve a notice of hearing on the respondent. Such notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) The date, time, and place of a prehearing conference, if any, or the date, time, and place of the hearing if there is not to be a prehearing conference;
</P>
<P>(b) The nature of the hearing and the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(c) A description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(d) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the representatives of the government and of the respondent, if any; and
</P>
<P>(e) Such other matters as the Center or the presiding officer deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.15" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.15   Parties to the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties to the hearing shall be the respondent and the Center(s) with jurisdiction over the matter at issue. No other person may participate.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties may at any time prior to a final decision by the entity deciding any appeal agree to a settlement of all or a part of the matter. The settlement agreement shall be filed in the docket and shall constitute complete or partial resolution of the administrative case as so designated by the settlement agreement. The settlement document shall be effective upon filing in the docket and need not be ratified by the presiding officer or the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(c) The parties may be represented by counsel, who may be present at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.17" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.17   Summary decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time after the filing of a complaint, a party may move, with or without supporting affidavits (which, for purposes of this part, shall include declarations under penalty of perjury), for a summary decision on any issue in the hearing. The other party may, within 30 days after service of the motion, which may be extended for an additional 10 days for good cause, serve opposing affidavits or countermove for summary decision.
</P>
<P>The presiding officer may set the matter for argument and call for the submission of briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer shall grant the motion if the pleadings, affidavits, and other material filed in the record, or matters officially noticed, show that there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and that the party is entitled to summary decision as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(c) Affidavits shall set forth only such facts as would be admissible in evidence and shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated. When a motion for summary decision is made and supported as provided in this regulation, a party opposing the motion may not rest on mere allegations or denials or general descriptions of positions and contentions; affidavits or other responses must set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue of material fact for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) If, on motion under this section, a summary decision is not rendered on all issues or for all the relief asked, and if additional facts need to be developed, the presiding officer will issue an order specifying the facts that appear without substantial controversy and directing further evidentiary proceedings on facts still at issue. The facts specified not to be at issue shall be deemed established.
</P>
<P>(e) Except as provided in § 17.18, a party may not obtain interlocutory review by the entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB) of a partial summary decision of the presiding officer. A review of final summary decisions on all issues may be had through the procedure set forth in § 17.47.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.18" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.18   Interlocutory appeal from ruling of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, rulings of the presiding officer may not be appealed before consideration on appeal of the entire record of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) A ruling of the presiding officer is subject to interlocutory appeal to the entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB) if the presiding officer certifies on the record or in writing that immediate review is necessary to prevent exceptional delay, expense, or prejudice to any participant, or substantial harm to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) When an interlocutory appeal is made, a participant may file a brief on the appeal only if specifically authorized by the presiding officer or the entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB), and if such authorization is granted, only within the period allowed by the presiding officer or the entity deciding the appeal. If a participant is authorized to file a brief, any other participant may file a brief in opposition, within the period allowed by the entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB). The deadline for filing an interlocutory appeal is subject to the discretion of the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.19" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.19   Authority of the presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer has the authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing on reasonable notice to the parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable time;
</P>
<P>(3) Require parties to attend conferences for settlement, to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(5) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence that relates to the matter under investigation;
</P>
<P>(6) Rule on motions and other procedural matters;
</P>
<P>(7) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery consistent with § 17.23;
</P>
<P>(8) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties;
</P>
<P>(9) Examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(10) Upon motion of a party for good cause shown, the presiding officer may allow a witness to be recalled for additional testimony;
</P>
<P>(11) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;
</P>
<P>(12) Upon motion of a party or on the presiding officer's own motion, take official notice of facts;
</P>
<P>(13) Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary decision when there is no genuine issue of material fact;
</P>
<P>(14) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone;
</P>
<P>(15) Consolidate related or similar proceedings or sever unrelated matters;
</P>
<P>(16) Limit the length of pleadings;
</P>
<P>(17) Waive, suspend, or modify any rule in this part if the presiding officer determines that no party will be prejudiced, the ends of justice will be served, and the action is in accordance with law;
</P>
<P>(18) Issue protective orders pursuant to § 17.28; and
</P>
<P>(19) Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the presiding officer under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer does not have the authority to find Federal statutes or regulations invalid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.20   Ex parte contacts.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the presiding officer's office) shall communicate in any way with the presiding officer on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.21   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer may schedule prehearing conferences as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the motion of any party, the presiding officer shall schedule at least one prehearing conference at a reasonable time in advance of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer may use a prehearing conference to discuss the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleadings, including the need for a more definite statement;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations and admissions of fact as to the contents and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether a party chooses to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence (subject to the objection of the other party) and written argument;
</P>
<P>(6) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits;
</P>
<P>(8) Discovery and scheduling dates for completion of discovery;
</P>
<P>(9) The date, time, and place for the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(10) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the fair and just disposition of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer shall issue an order containing all matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the presiding officer at a prehearing conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.23" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.23   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No later than 60 days prior to the hearing, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer, a party may make a request to another party for production, inspection, and copying of documents that are relevant to the issues before the presiding officer. Documents must be provided no later than 30 days after the request has been made.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this part, the term <I>documents</I> includes information, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained in this section may be interpreted to require the creation of a document, except that requested data stored in an electronic data storage system must be produced in a form readily accessible to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for documents, requests for admissions, written interrogatories, depositions, and any forms of discovery, other than those permitted under paragraphs (a) and (e) of this section, are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Within 10 days of service of a request for production of documents, a party may file a motion for a protective order.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may grant a motion for a protective order, in whole or in part, if he or she finds that the discovery sought:
</P>
<P>(i) Is unduly costly or burdensome,
</P>
<P>(ii) Will unduly delay the proceeding, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Seeks privileged information.
</P>
<P>(3) The burden of showing that a protective order is necessary shall be on the party seeking the order.
</P>
<P>(4) The burden of showing that documents should be produced is on the party seeking their production.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer shall order depositions upon oral questions only upon a showing that:
</P>
<P>(1) The information sought cannot be obtained by alternative methods, and
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial reason to believe that relevant and probative evidence may otherwise not be preserved for presentation by a witness at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.25   Exchange of witness lists, witness statements, and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 30 days before the hearing, or by such other time as is specified by the presiding officer, the parties shall exchange witness lists, copies of prior written statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including written testimony.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If a party objects to the proposed admission of evidence not exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the presiding officer will exclude such evidence if he or she determines that the failure to comply with paragraph (a) of this section should result in its exclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the presiding officer finds that extraordinary circumstances justified the failure to make a timely exchange of witness lists under paragraph (a) of this section, he or she must exclude from the party's hearing evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list.
</P>
<P>(3) If the presiding officer finds that extraordinary circumstances existed, the presiding officer must then determine whether the admission of the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness lists exchanged under paragraph (a) of this section would cause substantial prejudice to the objecting party. If the presiding officer finds that there is not substantial prejudice, the evidence may be admitted. If the presiding officer finds that there is substantial prejudice, the presiding officer may exclude the evidence, or at his or her discretion, may postpone the hearing for such time as is necessary for the objecting party to prepare and respond to the evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless a party objects within 5 days prior to the hearing, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section will be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.27" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.27   Hearing subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may, when authorized by law, request that the presiding officer issue a subpoena.
</P>
<P>(b) A subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of an individual may also require the individual to produce documents at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) A party seeking a subpoena shall file a written request therefor not less than 20 days before the date fixed for the hearing unless otherwise allowed by the presiding officer, upon a showing by the party of good cause. Such request shall specify any documents to be produced and shall designate the witnesses and describe the address and location thereof with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found.
</P>
<P>(d) The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any documents the witness is to produce.
</P>
<P>(e) The party seeking the subpoena shall serve it in the manner prescribed for service of a complaint in § 17.7.
</P>
<P>(f) If a party or the individual to whom the subpoena is directed believes a subpoena to be unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, or if it wishes to raise any other objection or privilege recognized by law, the party or individual may file a motion to quash the subpoena within 10 days after service or on or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance if it is less than 10 days after service. Such a filing will state the basis for the motion to quash. The presiding officer may quash or modify the subpoena or order it implemented, as justice may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.28" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.28   Protective order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party or a prospective witness may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by a party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) When issuing a protective order, the presiding officer may make any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from oppression or undue burden or expense, or to protect trade secrets or confidential commercial information, as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter, information the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, or other information that would be withheld from public disclosure under 21 CFR part 20. Such orders may include, but are not limited to, one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That the discovery not be had;
</P>
<P>(2) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;
</P>
<P>(3) That the discovery may be had only through a method of discovery provided for by this part other than that requested;
</P>
<P>(4) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(5) That the contents of discovery or evidence be sealed;
</P>
<P>(6) That the information not be disclosed to the public or be disclosed only in a designated way; or
</P>
<P>(7) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.29" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.29   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena shall pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in a United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage shall accompany the subpoena when served.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.30   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act or event, and includes the last day of the period, unless either such day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, in which event the time includes the next business day.
</P>
<P>(b) When the period of time allowed is less than 7 days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays shall be excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>(c) When a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional 5 days will be added to the time permitted for any response.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.31   Form, filing, and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> (1) Documents filed with Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, shall include two copies (original and redacted version) for confidential petitions. Otherwise, only one copy is necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) The first page of every pleading and paper filed in the proceeding shall contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number assigned by the Office of the Chief Counsel, and designation of the pleading or paper (e.g., “motion to quash subpoena”).
</P>
<P>(3) Every pleading shall be signed by, and shall contain the address and telephone number of, the party or the person on whose behalf the pleading was filed, or his or her counsel.
</P>
<P>(4) Pleadings or papers are considered filed when they are received by the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> A party filing a document with the Dockets Management Staff under this part shall, no later than the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other party. Service upon any party of any document, other than service of a complaint, shall be made by delivering a copy personally or by placing a copy of the document in the United States mail or express delivery service, postage prepaid and addressed, to the party's last known address. When a party is represented by counsel, service shall be made on such counsel in lieu of the actual party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate of the individual serving the document by personal delivery or by mail, setting forth the time and manner of service, shall be proof of service.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 38626, July 27, 1995, as amended at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.32   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application to the presiding officer for an order or ruling shall be by motion. Motions shall state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged, and shall be filed with the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, delivered to the presiding officer, and served on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions shall be in writing. The presiding officer may require that oral motions be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or such other time as may be fixed by the presiding officer, any party may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.33" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.33   The hearing and burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall conduct a hearing on the record to determine whether the respondent is liable for a civil money penalty and, if so, the appropriate amount of any such civil money penalty considering any aggravating or mitigating factors.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to prevail, the Center must prove respondent's liability and the appropriateness of the penalty under the applicable statute by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The respondent must prove any affirmative defenses and any mitigating factors by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer, who may order closure only to protect trade secrets or confidential commercial information, as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter, information the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, or other information that would be withheld from public disclosure under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.34" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.34   Determining the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When determining an appropriate amount of civil money penalties and assessments, the presiding officer and the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or entity designated by the Commissioner to decide the appeal (currently the DAB) shall evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and shall articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer and the entity deciding the appeal shall refer to the factors identified in the statute under which the penalty is assessed for purposes of determining the amount of penalty.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the presiding officer or the entity deciding the appeal from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.35   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer may sanction a person, including any party or counsel for:
</P>
<P>(1) Failing to comply with an order, subpoena, rule, or procedure governing the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Failing to prosecute or defend an action; or
</P>
<P>(3) Engaging in other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such sanction, including, but not limited to, those listed in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, shall reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct.
</P>
<P>(c) When a party fails to comply with a discovery order, including discovery and subpoena provisions of this part, the presiding officer may:
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an inference in favor of the requesting party with regard to the information sought;
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibit the party failing to comply with such order from introducing evidence concerning, or otherwise relying upon, testimony relating to the information sought; and
</P>
<P>(3) Strike any part of the pleadings or other submissions of the party failing to comply with such request.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer may exclude from participation in the hearing any legal counsel, party, or witness who refuses to obey an order of the presiding officer. In the case of repeated refusal, the presiding officer may grant judgment to the opposing party.
</P>
<P>(e) If a party fails to prosecute or defend an action under this part after service of a notice of hearing, the presiding officer may dismiss the action or may issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments.
</P>
<P>(f) The presiding officer may refuse to consider any motion, request, response, brief, or other document that is not filed in a timely fashion or in compliance with the rules of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) Sanctions imposed under this section may be the subject of an interlocutory appeal as allowed in § 17.18(b), provided that no such appeal will stay or delay a proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.37" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.37   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, testimony at the hearing shall be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(b) Direct testimony shall be admitted in the form of a written declaration submitted under penalty of perjury. Any such written declaration must be provided to all other parties along with the last known address of the witness. Any prior written statements of witnesses proposed to testify at the hearing shall be exchanged as provided in § 17.25(a).
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer shall exercise reasonable control over the manner and order of questioning witnesses and presenting evidence so as to:
</P>
<P>(1) Make the examination and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth;
</P>
<P>(2) Avoid undue consumption of time; and
</P>
<P>(3) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer shall permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the presiding officer, a witness may be cross-examined on relevant matters without regard to the scope of his or her direct examination. To the extent permitted by the presiding officer, a witness may be cross-examined on relevant matters with regard to the scope of his or her direct examination. To the extent permitted by the presiding officer, cross-examination on matters outside the scope of direct examination shall be conducted in the manner of direct examination and may proceed by leading questions only if the witness is a hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon motion of any party, the presiding officer may order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of the other witnesses. This rule does not authorize exclusion of:
</P>
<P>(1) A party who is an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party designated to be the party's sole representative for purposes of the hearing; or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual employed by a party engaged in assisting counsel for the party.
</P>
<P>(g) If a witness' testimony is submitted in writing prior to cross-examination, the cross-examining party need not subpoena the witness or pay for his or her travel to the hearing. The sponsoring party is responsible for producing the witness at its own expense, and failure to do so shall result in the striking of the witness' testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.39" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.39   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this part, the presiding officer shall not be bound by the “Federal Rules of Evidence.” However, the presiding officer may apply the “Federal Rules of Evidence” when appropriate, e.g., to exclude unreliable evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer shall exclude evidence that is not relevant or material.
</P>
<P>(d) Relevant evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) Relevant evidence may be excluded if it is privileged under Federal law.
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence of furnishing or offering or promising to furnish, or accepting or offering or promising to accept, a valuable consideration in settling or attempting to settle a civil money penalty assessment which was disputed as to either validity or amount, is not admissible to prove liability for or invalidity of the civil money penalty or its amount. Evidence of conduct or statements made in settlement negotiations is likewise not admissible. This rule does not require the exclusion of any evidence otherwise discoverable merely because it is presented in the course of settlement negotiations. This rule also does not require exclusion when the evidence is offered for another purpose, such as proving bias or prejudice of a witness or opposing a contention of undue delay.
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer may in his or her discretion permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence.
</P>
<P>(h) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer pursuant to § 17.28.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.41" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.41   The administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing will be recorded and transcribed. Witnesses, participants, and counsel have 30 days from the time the transcript becomes available to propose corrections in the transcript of oral testimony. Corrections are permitted only for transcription errors. The presiding officer shall promptly order justified corrections. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the Dockets Management Staff at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of testimony, exhibits, and other evidence admitted at the hearing and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the administrative record for the decision by the presiding officer and the entity designated by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs to decide the appeal, currently the DAB.
</P>
<P>(c) The administrative record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by anyone unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer, who shall upon motion of any party order otherwise when necessary to protect trade secrets or confidential commercial information, as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter, information the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, or other information that would be withheld from public disclosure under part 20.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.43" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.43   Posthearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>Any party may file a posthearing brief. The presiding officer shall fix the time for filing such briefs (which shall be filed simultaneously), which shall not exceed 60 days from the date the parties received the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The presiding officer may permit the parties to file responsive briefs. No brief may exceed 30 pages (exclusive of proposed findings and conclusions) unless the presiding officer has previously found that the issues in the proceeding are so complex, or the administrative record is so voluminous, as to justify longer briefs, in which case the presiding officer may set a longer page limit. Proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law shall not exceed 30 pages unless the presiding officer has previously found that the issues in the proceeding are so complex, or the administrative record is so voluminous, as to justify longer proposed findings and conclusions, in which case the presiding officer may set a longer page limit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.45   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall issue an initial decision based only on the administrative record. The decision shall contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the amount of any penalties and assessments imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings of fact shall include a finding on each of the following issues:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the allegations in the complaint are true, and, if so, whether respondent's actions identified in the complaint violated the law;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether any affirmative defenses are meritorious; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the respondent is liable for penalties or assessments, the appropriate amount of any such penalties or assessments, considering any mitigating or aggravating factors that he or she finds in the case.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer shall serve the initial decision or the decision granting summary decision on all parties within 90 days after the time for submission of posthearing briefs and responsive briefs (if permitted) has expired. If the presiding officer believes that he or she cannot meet the 90-day deadline, he or she shall notify the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or other entity designated by the Commissioner to decide the appeal of the reason(s) therefor, and the Commissioner or that entity may then set a new deadline.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the initial decision or the decision granting summary decision of the presiding officer is timely appealed, the initial decision or the decision granting summary decision shall constitute the final decision of FDA and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued by the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.47" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.47   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Either the Center or any respondent may appeal an initial decision, including a decision not to withdraw a default judgment, or a decision granting summary decision to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or other entity the Commissioner designates to decide the appeal. The Commissioner has currently designated the Departmental Appeals Board (DAB) to decide appeals under this part. Parties may appeal to the DAB by filing a notice of appeal with the DAB, Appellate Division MS6127, Departmental Appeals Board, United States Department of Health and Human Services, 330 Independence Ave. SW., Cohen Bldg., rm. G-644, Washington, DC 20201, and the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A notice of appeal may be filed at any time within 30 days after the presiding officer issues an initial decision or decision granting summary decision.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner or the entity designated by the Commissioner to hear appeals may, within his or her discretion, extend the initial 30-day period for an additional period of time if the Center or any respondent files a request for an extension within the initial 30-day period and shows good cause.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief of no greater length than that allowed for the posthearing brief. The notice must identify specific exceptions to the initial decision, must support each exception with citations to the record, and must explain the basis for each exception.
</P>
<P>(d) The opposing party may file a brief of no greater length than that allowed for the posthearing brief in opposition to exceptions within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief, unless such time period is extended by the Commissioner or the entity designated by the Commissioner to hear appeals on request of the opposing party for good cause shown. Any brief in opposition to exceptions shall be filed with the Dockets Management Staff and the DAB (addresses above).
</P>
<P>(e) The appellant may file a reply brief not more than 10 pages in length within 10 days of being served with appellee's brief.
</P>
<P>(f) There is no right to appear personally before the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or other entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB).
</P>
<P>(g) The entity deciding the appeal will consider only those issues raised before the presiding officer, except that the appellee may make any argument based on the record in support of the initial decision or decision granting summary decision.
</P>
<P>(h) If on appeal the entity deciding the appeal considers issues not adequately briefed by the parties, the entity may ask for additional briefing. However, no such additional briefs will be considered unless so requested.
</P>
<P>(i) If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB) that additional evidence not presented at the hearing is relevant and material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to adduce such evidence at the hearing, the entity deciding the appeal may remand the matter to the presiding officer for consideration of the additional evidence.
</P>
<P>(j) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs or other entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB) will issue a decision on the appeal within 60 days, if practicable, of the due date for submission of the appellee's brief. In the decision, the entity deciding the appeal may decline to review the case, affirm the initial decision or decision granting summary decision (with or without an opinion), or reverse the initial decision or decision granting summary decision, or increase, reduce, reverse, or remand any civil money penalty determined by the presiding officer in the initial decision. If the entity deciding the appeal declines to review the case, the initial decision or the decision granting summary decision shall constitute the final decision of FDA and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after the declination by the entity deciding the appeal.
</P>
<P>(k) The standard of review on a disputed issue of fact is whether the initial decision is supported by substantial evidence on the whole record. The standard of review on a disputed issue of law is whether the initial decision is erroneous.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 38626, July 27, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 5979, Feb. 6, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.48" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.48   Harmless error.</HEAD>
<P>No error in either the admission or the exclusion of evidence, and no error or defect in any ruling or order or in any act done or omitted by the presiding officer or by any of the parties is grounds for vacating, modifying, or otherwise disturbing an otherwise appropriate ruling or order or act, unless refusal to take such action appears to the presiding officer or the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or other entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB) to be inconsistent with substantial justice. The presiding officer and the entity deciding the appeal at every stage of the proceeding will disregard any error or defect in the proceeding that does not affect the substantial rights of the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.51   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The final decision of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or other entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB) constitutes final agency action from which a respondent may petition for judicial review under the statutes governing the matter involved. Although the filing of a petition for judicial review does not stay a decision under this part, a respondent may file a petition for stay of such decision under § 10.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chief Counsel of FDA has been designated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services as the officer on whom copies of petitions for judicial review are to be served. This officer is responsible for filing the record on which the final decision is based. The record of the proceeding is certified by the entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB).
</P>
<P>(c) Exhaustion of an appeal to the entity deciding the appeal (currently the DAB) is a jurisdictional prerequisite to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.54" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.14.0.98.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.54   Deposit in the Treasury of the United States.</HEAD>
<P>All amounts assessed pursuant to this part shall be delivered to the Director, Division of Financial Management (HFA-100), Food and Drug Administration, rm. 11-61, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, and shall be deposited as miscellaneous receipts in the Treasury of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="19" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 19—STANDARDS OF CONDUCT AND CONFLICTS OF INTEREST
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15615, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part governs the standards of conduct for, and establishes regulations to prevent conflicts of interest by, all Food and Drug Administration employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.5   Reference to Department regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of 45 CFR part 73, establishing standards of conduct for all Department employees, are fully applicable to all Food and Drug Administration employees, except that such regulations shall be applicable to special government employees, i.e., consultants to the Food and Drug Administration, only to the extent stated in subpart L of 45 CFR part 73.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of 45 CFR part 73a supplement the Department standards of conduct and apply only to Food and Drug Administration employees except special government employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.6" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.6   Code of ethics for government service.</HEAD>
<P>The following code of ethics, adopted by Congress on July 11, 1958, shall apply to all Food and Drug Administration employees:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Code of Ethics for Government Service
</HD1>
<P>Any person in Government service should:
</P>
<P>1. Put loyalty to the highest moral principles and to country above loyalty to persons, party, or Government department.
</P>
<P>2. Uphold the Constitution, laws, and legal regulations of the United States and of all governments therein and never be a party to their evasion.
</P>
<P>3. Give a full day's labor for a full day's pay; giving to the performance of his duties his earnest effort and best thought.
</P>
<P>4. Seek to find and employ more efficient and economical ways of getting tasks accomplished.
</P>
<P>5. Never discriminate unfairly by the dispensing of special favors or privileges to anyone, whether for remuneration or not; and never accept, for himself or his family, favors or benefits under circumstances which might be construed by reasonable persons as influencing the performance of his governmental duties.
</P>
<P>6. Make no private promises of any kind binding upon the duties of office, since a Government employee has no private word which can be binding on public duty.
</P>
<P>7. Engage in no business with the Government, either directly or indirectly, which is inconsistent with the conscientious performance of his governmental duties.
</P>
<P>8. Never use any information coming to him confidentially in the performance of governmental duties as a means for making private profit.
</P>
<P>9. Expose corruption wherever discovered.
</P>
<P>10. Uphold these principles, ever conscious that public office is a public trust.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.10   Food and Drug Administration Conflict of Interest Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner shall establish a permanent five-member Conflict of Interest Review Board, which shall review and make recommendations to the Commissioner on all specific or policy matters relating to conflicts of interest arising within the Food and Drug Administration that are forwarded to it by: (1) The Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations or (2) anyone who is the subject of an adverse determination by the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations on any matter arising under the conflict of interest laws, except a determination of an apparent violation of law. The Director, Division of Ethics and Program Integrity, Office of Management and Operations, shall serve as executive secretary of the Review Board.
</P>
<P>(b) It shall be the responsibility of every Food and Drug Administration employee with whom any specific or policy issue relating to conflicts of interest is raised, or who otherwise wishes to have any such matter resolved, to forward the matter to the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations for resolution, except that reporting of apparent violations of law are governed by § 19.21.
</P>
<P>(c) All general policy relating to conflicts of interest shall be established in guidance documents pursuant to the provisions of § 10.90(b) of this chapter and whenever feasible shall be incorporated in regulations in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) All decisions relating to specific individuals shall be placed in a public file established for this purpose by the Division of Freedom of Information, e.g., a determination that a consultant may serve on an advisory committee with specific limitations or with public disclosure of stock holdings, except that such determination shall be written in a way that does not identify the individual in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) A determination that an employee must dispose of prohibited financial interests or refrain from incompatible outside activities in accordance with established Department or agency regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) A determination that a proposed consultant is not eligible for employment by the agency.
</P>
<P>(3) A determination that public disclosure of any information would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy in violation of § 20.63 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15615, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985; 55 FR 1404, Jan. 16, 1990; 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reporting of Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.21   Duty to report violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of Internal Affairs, Office of the Commissioner, is responsible for obtaining factual information for the Food and Drug Administration on any matter relating to allegations of misconduct, impropriety, conflict of interest, or other violations of Federal statutes by agency personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) Any Food and Drug Administration employee who has factual information showing or who otherwise believes that any present or former Food and Drug Administration employee has violated or is violating any provision of this subpart or of 45 CFR parts 73 or 73a or of any statute listed in appendix A to 45 CFR part 73 should report such information directly to the Office of Internal Affairs. Any such reports shall be in writing or shall with the assistance of the Office of Internal Affairs, be reduced to writing, and shall be promptly investigated.
</P>
<P>(c) Any report pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section and any records relating to an investigation of such reports shall be maintained in strict confidence in the files of the Office of Internal Affairs, shall be exempt from public disclosure, and may be reviewed only by authorized Food and Drug Administration employees who are required to do so in the performance of their duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15615, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985; 60 FR 47478, Sept. 13, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Disqualification Conditions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.45   Temporary disqualification of former employees.</HEAD>
<P>Within 1 year after termination of employment with the Food and Drug Administration, no former Food and Drug Administration employee, including a special government employee, shall appear personally before the Food and Drug Administration or other federal agency or court as agent or attorney for any person other than the United States in connection with any proceeding or matter in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest and which was under his official responsibility at any time within one year preceding termination of such responsibility. The term <I>official responsibility</I> means the direct administrative or operating authority, whether intermediate or final, and either exercisable alone or with others, and either personally or through subordinates, to approve, disapprove, or otherwise direct government action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.15.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.55   Permanent disqualification of former employees.</HEAD>
<P>No former Food and Drug Administration employee, including a special government employee, shall knowingly act as agent or attorney for anyone other than United States in connection with any judicial or other proceeding, application, request for a ruling or other determination, contract, claim, controversy, charge, accusation, or other particular matter involving a specific party or parties in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest and in which he participated personally and substantially through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, rendering of advice, investigation, or otherwise as a Food and Drug Administration employee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 20—PUBLIC INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 18 U.S.C. 1905; 19 U.S.C. 2531-2582; 21 U.S.C. 321-393, 1401-1403; 42 U.S.C. 241, 242, 242a, 242l, 242n, 243, 262, 263, 263b-263n, 264, 265, 300u-300u-5, 300aa-1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Official Testimony and Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1   Testimony by Food and Drug Administration employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration or of any other office or establishment in the Department of Health and Human Services, except as authorized by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs pursuant to this section or in the discharge of his official duties under the laws administered by the Food and Drug Administration, shall give any testimony before any tribunal pertaining to any function of the Food and Drug Administration or with respect to any information acquired in the discharge of his official duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a subpoena, in appropriate form, has been lawfully served upon an officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration commanding the giving of any testimony, such officer or employee shall, unless otherwise authorized by the Commissioner, appear in response thereto and respectfully decline to testify on the grounds that it is prohibited by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A person who desires testimony from any employee may make written request therefor, verified by oath, directed to the Commissioner setting forth his interest in the matter sought to be disclosed and designating the use to which such testimony will be put in the event of compliance with such request: <I>Provided,</I> That a written request therefor made by a health, food, or drug officer, prosecuting attorney, or member of the judiciary of any State, Territory, or political subdivision thereof, acting in his official capacity, need not be verified by oath. If it is determined by the Commissioner, or any other officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration whom he may designate to act on his behalf for the purpose, that such testimony will be in the public interest and will promote the objectives of the act and the agency, the request may be granted. Where a request for testimony is granted, one or more employees of the Food and Drug Administration may be designated to appear, in response to a subpoena, and testify with respect thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2   Production of records by Food and Drug Administration employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any request for records of the Food and Drug Administration, whether it be by letter or by a subpena duces tecum or by any other writing, shall be handled pursuant to the procedures established in subpart B of this part, and shall comply with the rules governing public disclosure established in subparts C, D, E, and F of this part and in other regulations cross-referenced in § 20.100(c).
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a subpoena duces tecum, in appropriate form, has been lawfully served upon an officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration commanding the production of any record, such officer or employee shall appear in response thereto, respectfully decline to produce the record on the ground that it is prohibited by this section, and state that the production of the record(s) involved will be handled by the procedures established in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.3   Certification and authentication of Food and Drug Administration records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon request, the Food and Drug administration will certify the authenticity of copies of records that are requested to be disclosed pursuant to this part or will authenticate copies of records previously disclosed.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for certified copies of records or for authentication of records shall be sent in writing to the Division of Freedom of Information at the address located on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.20   Policy on disclosure of Food and Drug Administration records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) will make the fullest possible disclosure of records to the public, consistent with the rights of individuals to privacy, the property rights of persons in trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information, and the need for the Agency to promote frank internal policy deliberations and to pursue its regulatory activities without disruption.
</P>
<P>(b) Except where specifically exempt pursuant to the provisions of this part, all FDA records shall be made available for public disclosure. FDA will withhold requested information only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Agency reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, all nonexempt records shall be made available for public disclosure upon request regardless of whether any justification or need for such records have been shown.
</P>
<P>(d) Under § 21.71 of this chapter, a statement of the purposes to which the record requested is to be put, and a certification that the record will be so used, may be requested when:
</P>
<P>(1) The requested record is contained in a Privacy Act Record System as defined in § 21.3(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The requester is a person other than the individual who is the subject of the record that is so retrieved or a person acting on his behalf; and
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure is one that is discretionary; <I>i.e.,</I> not required under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) “Record” and any other term used in this part in reference to information includes any information that would be an Agency record subject to the requirements of this part when maintained by the Agency in any format, including an electronic format.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA will establish procedures for identifying records of general interest or use to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records in a publicly accessible electronic format.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 55911, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.21   Uniform access to records.</HEAD>
<P>Any record of the Food and Drug Administration that is disclosed in an authorized manner to any member of the public is available for disclosure to all members of the public, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) Data and information subject to the exemptions established in § 20.61 for trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information, and in § 20.63 for personal privacy, shall be disclosed only to the persons for the protection of whom these exemptions exist.
</P>
<P>(b) The limited disclosure of records permitted in § 7.87(c) of this chapter for section 305 hearing records, in § 20.80(b) regarding certain limitations on exemptions, in § 20.103(b) for certain correspondence, and in § 20.104(b) for certain summaries of oral discussions, shall be subject to the special rules stated therein.
</P>
<P>(c) Disclosure of a record about an individual, as defined in § 21.3(a) of this chapter, that is retrieved by the individual's name or other personal identifier and is contained in a Privacy Act Record System, as defined in § 21.3(c) of this chapter, shall be subject to the special requirements of part 21 of this chapter. Disclosure of such a record to an individual who is the subject of the record does not invoke the rule established in this section that such records shall be made available for disclosure to all members of the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 9037, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.22   Partial disclosure of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a record contains both disclosable and nondisclosable information, the nondisclosable information will be deleted and the remaining record will be disclosed unless the two are so inextricably intertwined that it is not feasible to separate them or release of the disclosable information would compromise or impinge upon the nondisclosable portion of the record.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Whenever information is deleted from a record that contains both disclosable and nondisclosable information, the amount of information deleted shall be indicated on the portion of the record that is made available, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by an exemption under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(2) When technically feasible, the amount of information deleted shall be indicated at the place in the record where the deletion is made.
</P>
<P>(3) The exemption(s) under which the information has been deleted shall be noted at the site of the deletion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003; 87 FR 55911, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.23" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.23   Request for existing records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any written request to the Food and Drug Administration for existing records not prepared for routine distribution to the public shall be deemed to be a request for records pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, whether or not the Freedom of Information Act is mentioned in the request, and shall be governed by the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Records or documents prepared by the Food and Drug Administration for routine public distribution, e.g., pamphlets, speeches, and educational materials, shall be furnished free of charge upon request as long as the supply lasts. The provisions of this part shall not be applicable to such requests except when the supply of such material is exhausted and it is necessary to reproduce individual copies upon specific request.
</P>
<P>(c) All existing Food and Drug Administration records are subject to routine destruction according to standard record retention schedules.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.24" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.24   Preparation of new records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Freedom of Information Act and the provisions of this part apply only to existing records that are reasonably described in a request filed with the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to the procedures established in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may, in his discretion, prepare new records in order to respond adequately to a request for information when he concludes that it is in the public interest and promotes the objectives of the act and the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.25   Retroactive application of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to all records in Food and Drug Administration files.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.26" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.26   Electronic availability and indexes of certain records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Indexes shall be maintained, and revised at least quarterly, and, as required, copies of electronic records shall be made available for the following Food and Drug Administration records:


</P>
<P>(1) Final orders published in the <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E> with respect to every denial or withdrawal of approval of a new drug application or a new animal drug application for which a public hearing has been requested.
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of policy and interpretation adopted by the agency and still in force and not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public.
</P>
<P>(4) Records that have been released to any person in response to a Freedom of Information request, and that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Agency has determined have become, or are likely to become, the subject of subsequent Freedom of Information requests for substantially the same records; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Have been requested three or more times under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Each such record and index will be made available by accessing the Agency's website at <I>https://www.fda.gov.</I> A printed copy of each index is available by writing or visiting the Freedom of Information Staff's address on the Agency's website at <I>https://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014; 87 FR 55911, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.27" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.27   Submission of records marked as confidential.</HEAD>
<P>Marking records submitted to the Food and Drug Administration as confidential, or with any other similar term, raises no obligation by the Food and Drug Administration to regard such records as confidential, to return them to the person who has submitted them, to withhold them from disclosure to the public, or to advise the person submitting them when a request for their public disclosure is received or when they are in fact disclosed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.28" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.28   Food and Drug Administration determinations of confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>A determination that data or information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration will be held in confidence and will not be available for public disclosure shall be made only in the form of a regulation published or cross-referenced in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.29" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.29   Prohibition on withdrawal of records from Food and Drug Administration files.</HEAD>
<P>No person may withdraw records submitted to the Food and Drug Administration. All Food and Drug Administration records shall be retained by the agency until disposed of pursuant to routine record disposal procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.30   Food and Drug Administration Division of Freedom of Information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The office responsible for Agency compliance with the Freedom of Information Act and this part is the Division of Freedom of Informationat the address located on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) All requests for Agency records shall be sent in writing to this office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.31   Retention schedule of requests for Food and Drug Administration records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless unusual circumstances dictate otherwise, the Food and Drug Administration shall maintain and dispose of files of requests and reponses furnished thereto within the time limits authorized by GSA General Records Schedule 14, FPMR 101-11-4, January 10, 1977, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Files created by the receipt of and response to freedom of information requests, except denials and/or appeals, may be destroyed 2 years from date of final response.
</P>
<P>(2) Files created by a freedom of information request which was wholly or partially denied may be destroyed 5 years after the denial letter was issued.
</P>
<P>(3) Files created by a freedom of information request which was wholly or partially denied and which denial was subsequently appealed to the Department of Health and Human Services may be destroyed 4 years after final determination by FDA or 3 years after final adjudication by courts, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(b) This destruction schedule will automatically be revised whenever the time limits pertaining to these records are revised by the GSA General Records Schedule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 24277, June 4, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.32   Disclosure of Food and Drug Administration employee names.</HEAD>
<P>The names of Food and Drug Administration employees will not be deleted from disclosable records except where such deletion is necessary to prevent disclosure of an informant or danger to the life or physical safety of the employee or under other extraordinary circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.33" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.33   Form or format of response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration shall make reasonable efforts to provide a record in any requested form or format if the record is readily reproducible by the agency in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(b) If the agency determines that a record is not readily reproducible in the requested form or format, the agency may notify the requester of alternative forms and formats that are available. If the requester does not express a preference for an alternative in response to such notification, the agency may provide its response in the form and format of the agency's choice.
</P>
<P>(c) Response letters shall contain contact information for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 55912, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.34" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.2.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.34   Search for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In responding to a request for records, the Food and Drug Administration shall make reasonable efforts to search for records kept in electronic form or format, except when such efforts would significantly interfere with the operation of the agency's automated information systems.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “search” means to review, manually or by automated means, agency records for the purpose of locating those records that are responsive to the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures and Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.40   Filing a request for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All requests for Food and Drug Administration records shall be made in writing by mailing or delivering the request to the Freedom of Information Staff at the address on the Agency's website at <I>https://www.fda.gov,</I> by faxing it to the fax number listed on the Agency's website at <I>https://www.fda.gov,</I> or by submission through the Agency's online FOIA submission portal at <I>https://www.fda.gov.</I> All requests must contain the postal address and telephone number of the requester and the name of the person responsible for payment of any fees that may be charged.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for Food and Drug Administration records shall reasonably describe the records being sought, in a way that they can be identified and located. A request should include all pertinent details that will help identify the records sought.
</P>
<P>(1) If the description is insufficient to locate the records requested, the Food and Drug Administration will so notify the person making the request and indicate the additional information needed to identify the records requested.
</P>
<P>(2) Every reasonable effort shall be made by the Food and Drug Administration to assist in the identification and location of the records sought.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a request for records, the Division of Freedom of Information shall enter it in a public log. The log shall state the date received, the name of the person making the request, the nature of the record requested, the action taken on the request, the date of determination letter sent pursuant to § 20.41(b), and the date(s) any records are subsequently furnished.
</P>
<P>(d) A request by an individual, as defined in § 21.3(a) of this chapter, for a record about himself shall be subject to:
</P>
<P>(1) The special requirements of part 21 of this chapter (the privacy regulations), and not to the provisions of this subpart, if the record requested is retrieved by the individual's name or other personal identifier and is contained in a Privacy Act Record System, as defined in § 21.3(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of this subpart if the record requested is not retrieved by the individual's name or other personal identifier, whether or not the record is contained in a Privacy Act Record System.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68114, Nov. 14, 2014; 87 FR 55912, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.41" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.41   Time limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All time limitations prescribed pursuant to this section shall begin as of the time at which a request for records is logged in by the Division of Freedom of Information pursuant to § 20.40(c). An oral request for records shall not begin any time requirement. A written request for records sent elsewhere within the agency shall not begin any time requirement until it is redirected to the Division of Freedom of Information and is logged in there in accordance with § 20.40(c).
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) after a request for records is logged in at the Division of Freedom of Information, the agency shall send a letter to the requester providing the agency's determination as to whether, or the extent to which, the agency will comply with the request, and, if any records are denied, the reasons for the denial.
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the records requested have been located and a final determination has been made with respect to disclosure of all of the records requested, the letter shall so state.
</P>
<P>(2) If all of the records have not been located or a final determination has not yet been made with respect to disclosure of all of the records requested, e.g., because it is necessary to consult the person affected pursuant to § 20.47, the letter shall state the extent to which the records involved shall be disclosed pursuant to the rules established in this part. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) In unusual circumstances, the agency may extend the time for sending the letter for an additional period.
</P>
<P>(A) The Agency may provide for an extension of up to 10 working days by providing written notice to the requester setting out the reasons for the extension and the date by which a determination is expected to be sent. In the written notice, the Agency will inform the requester of the right to contact the Freedom of Information Act Public Liaison and to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(B) The agency may provide for an extension of more than 10 working days by providing written notice to the requester setting out the reasons for the extension. The notice also will give the requester an opportunity to limit the scope of the request so that it may be processed in a shorter time and/or an opportunity to agree on a timeframe longer than the 10 extra working days for processing the request.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unusual circumstances may exist under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) There is a need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other components that are separate from the agency component responsible for processing the request;
</P>
<P>(B) There is a need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records that are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(C) There is need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more components of the Food and Drug Administration having substantial subject-matter interest in the determination.
</P>
<P>(4) The Agency may contact the requester for clarification about the request or regarding fee assessment. The Agency may toll the 20-day period as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) One time while it is awaiting a response from the requester regarding clarification that it has reasonably requested from the requester; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more times while the Agency is awaiting a response from the requester regarding fee assessment.
</P>
<P>(5) If any record is denied, the letter shall state the right of the person requesting such record to appeal any adverse determination to the appropriate review official, in accordance with the provisions of 45 CFR 5.62.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration shall provide a determination of whether to provide expedited processing within 10 calendar days of receipt by the Division of Freedom of Information of the request and the required documentation of compelling need in accordance with § 20.44(b).
</P>
<P>(d) If a court determines that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the Freedom of Information Act, the Agency's failure to comply with a time limit shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8456, Jan. 27, 1981; 55 FR 1405, Jan. 16, 1990; 59 FR 533, Jan. 5, 1994; 68 FR 25285, May 12, 2003; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 87 FR 55912, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.42" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.42   Aggregation of certain requests.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration may aggregate certain requests by the same requester, or by a group of requesters acting in concert, if the requests involve clearly related matters and the agency reasonably believes that such requests actually constitute a single request which would otherwise satisfy the unusual circumstances specified in § 20.41(b)(3)(ii)(B). FDA may extend the time for processing aggregated requests in accordance with the unusual circumstances provisions of § 20.41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.43" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.43   Multitrack processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Food and Drug Administration component is responsible for determining whether to use a multitrack system to process requests for records maintained by that component. A multitrack system provides two or more tracks for processing requests, based on the amount of work and/or time required for a request to be processed. The availability of multitrack processing does not affect expedited processing in accordance with § 20.44.
</P>
<P>(b) If multitrack processing is not adopted by a particular agency component, that component will process all requests in a single track, ordinarily on a first-in, first-out basis.
</P>
<P>(c) If a multitrack processing system is established by a particular agency component, that component may determine how many tracks to establish and the specific criteria for assigning requests to each track. Multiple tracks may be established for requests based on the amount of work and/or time required for a request to be processed.
</P>
<P>(d) Requests assigned to a given track will ordinarily be processed on a first-in, first-out basis within that track.
</P>
<P>(e) If a request does not qualify for the fastest processing track, the requester may be provided an opportunity to limit the scope of the request in order to qualify for faster processing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.44" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.44   Expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will provide expedited processing of a request for records when the requester demonstrates a compelling need, or in other cases as determined by the agency. A compelling need exists when:
</P>
<P>(1) A failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, there is a demonstrated urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for expedited processing made under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be made by the specific individual who is subject to an imminent threat, or by a family member, medical or health care professional, or other authorized representative of the individual, and must demonstrate a reasonable basis for concluding that failure to obtain the requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose a specific and identifiable imminent threat to the life or safety of the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for expedited processing made under paragraph (a)(2) of this section must demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(1) The requester is primarily engaged in disseminating information to the general public and not merely to a narrow interest group;
</P>
<P>(2) There is an urgent need for the requested information and that it has a particular value that will be lost if not obtained and disseminated quickly; however, a news media publication or broadcast deadline alone does not qualify as an urgent need, nor does a request for historical information; and
</P>
<P>(3) The request for records specifically concerns identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(d) All requests for expedited processing shall be filed in writing as provided by § 20.40. Each such request shall include information that demonstrates a reasonable basis for concluding that a compelling need exists within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section and a certification that the information provided in the request is true and correct to the best of the requester's knowledge and belief. Any statements made in support of a request for expedited processing are subject to the False Reports to the Government Act (18 U.S.C. 1001).
</P>
<P>(e) The Director, Division of Freedom of Information, (or delegatee) will determine whether to grant a request for expedited processing within 10 days of receipt by the Division of Freedom of Information of all information required to make a decision.
</P>
<P>(f) If the agency grants a request for expedited processing, the agency shall process the request as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(g) If the agency denies a request for expedited processing, the agency shall process the request with other nonexpedited requests.
</P>
<P>(h) If the agency denies a request for expedited processing, the requester may appeal the agency's decision by writing to the official identified in the denial letter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 87 FR 55912, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.45   Fees to be charged.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Categories of requests.</I> Paragraphs (a) (1) through (3) of this section state, for each category of request, the type of fees that the Food and Drug Administration will generally charge. However, for each of these categories, the fees may be limited, waived, or reduced for the reasons given in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and in § 20.46 or for other reasons.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use request.</I> If the request is for a commercial use, the Food and Drug Administration will charge for the costs of search, review, and duplication. The Agency shall not assess search fees if the Agency fails to comply with any time limit, as described in § 20.41, if no unusual or exceptional circumstances apply to the processing of the request. If unusual circumstances, as outlined in § 20.41, apply and more than 5,000 pages are responsive to the request, the Food and Drug Administration may charge search fees if timely written notice has been made to the requester and the Agency has discussed with the requester via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational and scientific institutions and news media.</I> If the request is from an educational institution or a noncommercial scientific institution, operated primarily for scholarly or scientific research, or a representative of the news media, and the request is not for a commercial use, the Food and Drug Administration will charge only for the duplication of documents. Also, the Food and Drug Administration will not charge the copying costs for the first 100 pages of duplication (or its cost equivalent of other media). The Agency shall not assess duplication fees if the Agency fails to comply with any time limit, as described in § 20.41, if no unusual or exceptional circumstances apply to the processing of the request. If unusual circumstances, as outlined in § 20.41, apply and more than 5,000 pages are responsive to the request, the Food and Drug Administration may charge duplication fees if timely written notice has been made to the requester and the Agency has discussed with the requester via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other requests.</I> If the request is not the kind described in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, then the Food and Drug Administration will charge only for the search and the duplication. Also, the Food and Drug Administration will not charge for the first 2 hours of search time or for the copying costs of the first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent of other media). The Agency shall not assess search or duplication fees if the Agency fails to comply with any time limit, as described in § 20.41, if no unusual or exceptional circumstances apply to the processing of the request. If unusual circumstances, as outlined in § 20.41, apply and more than 5,000 pages are responsive to the request, the Food and Drug Administration may charge search or duplication fees if timely written notice has been made to the requester and the Agency has discussed with the requester via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General provisions.</I> (1) The Food and Drug Administration may charge search fees even if the records found are exempt from disclosure or if no records are found.
</P>
<P>(2) If, under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, there is no charge for the first 2 hours of search time, and those 2 hours are spent on a computer search, then the 2 free hours are the first 2 hours of the operator's own operation. If the operator spends less than 2 hours on the search, the total search fees will be reduced by the average hourly rate for the operator's time, multiplied by 2.
</P>
<P>(3) If, under paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section, there is no charge for the first 100 pages of duplication, then those 100 pages are the first 100 pages of photocopies of standard size pages, or the first 100 pages of computer printout. If this method to calculate the fee reduction cannot be used, then the total duplication fee will be reduced by the normal charge for photocopying a standard size page, multiplied by 100.
</P>
<P>(4) No charge will be made if the costs of routine collection and processing of the fee are likely to equal or exceed the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(5) If it is determined that a requester (acting either alone or together with others) is breaking down a single request into a series of requests in order to avoid (or reduce) the fees charged, all these requests may be aggregated for purposes of calculating the fees charged.
</P>
<P>(6) Interest will be charged on unpaid bills beginning on the 31st day following the day the bill was sent. Provisions in 45 CFR part 30, the Department of Health and Human Services regulations governing claims collection, will be used in assessing interest, administrative costs, and penalties, and in taking actions to encourage payment.
</P>
<P>(7) Requesters may contact Agency Freedom of Information Act staff or the Freedom of Information Act Public Liaison to assist in reformulating a request to meet their needs at lower cost.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee schedule.</I> The Food and Drug Administration charges the following fees in accordance with the regulations of the Department of Health and Human Services at 45 CFR part 5.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Manual searching for or reviewing of records.</I> When the search or review is performed by employees at grade GS-1 through GS-8 (or equivalent), an hourly rate based on the salary of a GS-5, step 7, employee; when done by a GS-9 through GS-14 (or equivalent), an hourly rate based on the salary of a GS-12, step 4, employee; and when done by a GS-15 or above (or equivalent), an hourly rate based on the salary of a GS-15, step 7, employee. In each case, the hourly rate will be computed by taking the current hourly rate for the specified grade and step in the General Schedule Locality Pay Table for the Locality of Washington-Baltimore-Northern Virginia, DC-MD-VA-WV-PA, adding 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits, and rounding to the nearest whole dollar. When a search involves employees at more than one of these levels, the Food and Drug Administration will charge the rate appropriate for each.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic searching.</I> Charges for the time spent by the operator to search the computer, database, or network, including development of any specialized programming required to perform the search, at the rate given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section plus the cost of any materials.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Photocopying standard size pages.</I> $0.10 per page. Freedom of Information Officers may charge lower fees for particular documents where:
</P>
<P>(i) The document has already been printed in large numbers;
</P>
<P>(ii) The program office determines that using existing stock to answer this request, and any other anticipated Freedom of Information requests, will not interfere with program requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Freedom of Information Officer determines that the lower fee is adequate to recover the prorated share of the original printing costs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Photocopying odd-size documents (such as punchcards or blueprints), or reproducing other records (such as tapes).</I> The actual costs of operating the machine, plus the actual cost of the materials used, plus charges for the time spent by the operator, at the rates given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certifying that records are true copies.</I> This service is not required by the Freedom of Information Act. If the Food and Drug Administration agrees to provide certification, there is a $10 charge per certification.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sending records by express mail or other special methods.</I> This service is not required by the Freedom of Information Act. If the Food and Drug Administration agrees to provide this service, the requester will be required to directly pay, or be directly charged by, the courier. The agency will not agree to any special delivery method that does not permit the requester to directly pay or be directly charged for the service.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Performing any other special service in connection with a request to which the Food and Drug Administration has agreed.</I> Actual costs of operating any machinery, plus actual cost of any materials used, plus charges for the time of the Food and Drug Administration's employees, at the rates given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for assessing and collecting fees</I>—(1) <I>Agreement to pay.</I> The Food and Drug Administration generally assumes that a requester is willing to pay the fees charged for services associated with the request. The requester may specify a limit on the amount to be spent. If it appears that the fees will exceed the limit, the Food and Drug Administration will consult the requester to determine whether to proceed with the search.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advance payment.</I> If a requester has failed to pay previous bills in a timely fashion, or if the Food and Drug Administration's initial review of the request indicates that the charges will exceed $250, the requester will be required to pay past due fees and/or the estimated fees, or a deposit, before the search for the requested records begins. In such cases, the requester will be notified promptly upon receipt of the request, and the administrative time limits prescribed in § 20.41 will begin only after there is an agreement with the requester over payment of fees, or a decision that fee waiver or reduction is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Billing and payment.</I> Ordinarily, the requester will be required to pay all fees before the Food and Drug Administration will furnish the records. At its discretion, the Food and Drug Administration may send the requester a bill along with or following the records. For example, the Food and Drug Administration may do this if the requester has a history of prompt payment. The Food and Drug Administration may also, at its discretion, aggregate the charges for certain time periods in order to avoid sending numerous small bills to frequent requesters, or to businesses or agents representing requesters. For example, the Food and Drug Administration might send a bill to such a requester once a month. Fees should be paid in accordance with the instructions furnished by the person who responds to the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 533, Jan. 5, 1994. Redesignated and amended at 68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003; 87 FR 55912, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.46" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.46   Waiver or reduction of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard.</I> The Assistant Commissioner for Public Affairs (or delegatee) will waive or reduce the fees that would otherwise be charged if disclosure of the information meets both of the following tests:
</P>
<P>(1) Is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government; and
</P>
<P>(2) It is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. These two tests are explained in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public interest.</I> Disclosure of information satisfies the first test only if it furthers the specific public interest of being likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of Government operations or activities, regardless of any other public interest it may further. In analyzing this question, the Food and Drug Administration will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the records to be disclosed pertain to the operations or activities of the Federal Government;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether disclosure of the records would reveal any meaningful information about Government operations or activities that is not already public knowledge;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether disclosure will advance the understanding of the general public as distinguished from a narrow segment of interested persons. Under this factor, the Food and Drug Administration may consider whether the requester is in a position to contribute to public understanding. For example, the Food and Drug Administration may consider whether the requester has such knowledge or expertise as may be necessary to understand the information, and whether the requester's intended use of the information would be likely to disseminate the information to the public. An unsupported claim to be doing research for a book or article does not demonstrate that likelihood, while such a claim by a representative of the news media is better evidence; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the contribution to public understanding will be a significant one, i.e., will the public's understanding of the Government's operations be substantially greater as a result of the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Not primarily in the requester's commercial interest.</I> If disclosure passes the test of furthering the specific public interest described in paragraph (b) of this section, the Food and Drug Administration will determine whether disclosure also furthers the requester's commercial interest and, if so, whether this effect outweighs the advancement of that public interest. In applying this second test, the Food and Drug Administration will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether disclosure would further a commercial interest of the requester, or of someone on whose behalf the requester is acting. Commercial interests include interests relating to business, trade, and profit. Both profit and nonprofit-making corporations have commercial interests, as well as individuals, unions, and other associations. The interest of a representative of the news media in using the information for news dissemination purposes will not be considered a commercial interest.
</P>
<P>(2) If disclosure would further a commercial interest of the requester, whether that effect outweighs the advancement of the public interest as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deciding between waiver and reduction.</I> If the disclosure of the information requested passes both tests described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Food and Drug Administration will normally waive fees. However, in some cases the Food and Drug Administration may decide only to reduce the fees. For example, the Food and Drug Administration may do this when disclosure of some but not all of the requested records passes the tests.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedure for requesting a waiver or reduction.</I> A requester must request a waiver or reduction of fees at the same time as the request for records. The requester should explain why a waiver or reduction is proper under the factors set forth in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. Only the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs may make the decision whether to waive or reduce the fees. If the Food and Drug Administration does not completely grant the request for a waiver or reduction, the denial letter will designate a review official. The requester may appeal the denial to that official. The appeal letter should address reasons for the Associate Commissioner's decision that are set forth in the denial letter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 534, Jan. 5, 1994. Redesignated and amended at 68 FR 25286, 25287, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.47" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.47   Situations in which confidentiality is uncertain.</HEAD>
<P>In situations where the confidentiality of data or information is uncertain and there is a request for public disclosure, the Food and Drug Administration will consult with the person who has submitted or divulged the data or information or who would be affected by disclosure before determining whether or not such data or information is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977. Redesignated at 68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.48" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.48   Judicial review of proposed disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Food and Drug Administration consults with a person who will be affected by a proposed disclosure of data or information contained in Food and Drug Administration records pursuant to § 20.47, and rejects the person's request that part or all of the records not be made available for public disclosure, the decision constitutes final agency action that is subject to judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. chapter 7. The person affected will be permitted 5 days after receipt of notification of such decision within which to institute suit in a United States District Court to enjoin release of the records involved. If suit is brought, the Food and Drug Administration will not disclose the records involved until the matter and all related appeals have been concluded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977. Redesignated and amended at 68 FR 25286, 25287, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.49" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.49   Denial of a request for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A denial of a request for records, in whole or in part, shall be signed by the Director, Division of Freedom of Information (or delegatee).
</P>
<P>(b) The name and title or position of each person who participated in the denial of a request for records shall be set forth in the letter denying the request. This requirement may be met by attaching a list of such individuals to the letter.
</P>
<P>(c) A letter denying a request for records, in whole or in part, shall state the reasons for the denial, the appropriate review official and address to which the appeal should be sent, and that an appeal must be transmitted within 90 calendar days from the date of the adverse determination, in accordance with 45 CFR 5.61. The Agency will also make a reasonable effort to include in the letter an estimate of the volume of the records denied, unless providing such an estimate would harm an interest protected by an exemption under the Freedom of Information Act. This estimate will ordinarily be provided in terms of the approximate number of pages or some other reasonable measure. This estimate will not be provided if the volume of records denied is otherwise indicated through deletions on records disclosed in part. The letter will also include contact information for the Freedom of Information Act Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8457, Jan. 27, 1981; 55 FR 1405, Jan. 16, 1990. Redesignated and amended at 68 FR 25286, 25287, May 12, 2003; 87 FR 55913, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.50   Nonspecific and overly burdensome requests.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration will make every reasonable effort to comply fully with all requests for disclosure of nonexempt records. Nonspecific requests or requests for a large number of documents that require the deployment of a substantial amount of agency man-hours to search for and compile will be processed taking into account the staff-hours required, the tasks from which these resources must be diverted, the impact that this diversion will have upon the agency's consumer protection activities, and the public policy reasons justifying the requests. A decision on the processing of such a request for information shall be made after balancing the public benefit to be gained by the disclosure against the public loss that will result from diverting agency personnel from their other responsibilities. In any situation in which it is determined that a request for voluminous records would unduly burden and interfere with the operations of the Food and Drug Administration, the person making the request will be asked to be more specific and to narrow the request, and to agree on an orderly procedure for the production of the requested records, in order to satisfy the request without disproportionate adverse effects on agency operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977. Redesignated at 68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.51   Referral to primary source of records.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a request for a record or document which is contained in Food and Drug Administration files but which is available elsewhere at a lower cost, the person requesting the record or document shall be referred to the primary source of the record or document. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977. Redesignated at 68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.52" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.52   Availability of records at National Technical Information Service.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration is furnishing a number of records to the National Technical Information Service (NTIS), 5285 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22162, which reproduces and distributes such information to the public at cost. A single copy of each such record shall be available for public review at the Food and Drug Administration. All persons requesting copies of such records shall be answered by referring the person requesting the records to NTIS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989. Redesignated at 68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.53" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.53   Use of private contractor for copying.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration may furnish requested records to a private contractor for copying after deletion of all nondisclosable data and information. Under these circumstances, the Food and Drug Administration will charge the person requesting the records for all of the fees involved pursuant to § 20.45.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977. Redesignated and amended at 68 FR 25286, 25287, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.54" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.54   Request for review without copying.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person requesting disclosure of records shall be permitted an opportunity to review them without the necessity for copying them where the records involved contain only disclosable data and information. Under these circumstances, the Food and Drug Administration will charge only for the costs of searching for the records.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a request is made for review of records without copying, and the records involved contain both disclosable and nondisclosable information, the records containing nondisclosable information shall first be copied with the nondisclosable information blocked out and the Food and Drug Administration will charge for the costs of searching and copying.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977. Redesignated at 68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.3.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.55   Indexing trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Food and Drug Administration denies a request for a record or portion thereof on the grounds that the record or portion thereof is exempt from public disclosure as trade secret or confidential commercial or financial data and information under § 20.61, and the person requesting the record subsequently contests the denial in the courts, the Food and Drug Administration will so inform the person affected, i.e., the person who submitted the record, and will require that such person intervene to defend the exempt status of the record. If a court requires the Food and Drug Administration to itemize and index such records, the Food and Drug Administration will so inform the person affected and will require that such person undertake the itemization and indexing of the records. If the affected person fails to intervene to defend the exempt status of the records and to itemize and index the disputed records, the Food and Drug Administration will take this failure into consideration in deciding whether that person has waived such exemption so as to require the Food and Drug Administration to promptly make the records available for public disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 535, Jan. 5, 1994. Redesignated at 68 FR 25286, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.60   Applicability of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The exemptions established in this subpart shall apply to all Food and Drug Administration records, except as provided in subpart E of this part. Accordingly, a record that is ordinarily available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions in subpart F of this part or of another regulation cross-referenced in § 20.100(c) is not available for such disclosure to the extent that it falls within an exemption contained in this subpart, except as provided by the limitations on exemptions specified in subpart E of this part. For example, correspondence that is ordinarily disclosable under § 20.103 is not disclosable to the extent that it contains trade secrets exempt from disclosure under § 20.61 and is not subject to discretionary release under § 20.82.
</P>
<P>(b) Where application of one or more exemptions results in a record being disclosable in part and nondisclosable in part, the rule established in § 20.22 shall apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.61" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.61   Trade secrets and commercial or financial information which is privileged or confidential.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A trade secret may consist of any commercially valuable plan, formula, process, or device that is used for the making, preparing, compounding, or processing of trade commodities and that can be said to be the end product of either innovation or substantial effort. There must be a direct relationship between the trade secret and the productive process.
</P>
<P>(b) Commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential means valuable data or information which is used in one's business and is of a type customarily held in strict confidence or regarded as privileged and not disclosed to any member of the public by the person to whom it belongs.
</P>
<P>(c) Data and information submitted or divulged to the Food and Drug Administration which fall within the definitions of a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information are not available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(d) A person who submits records to the Government may designate part or all of the information in such records as exempt from disclosure under exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act. The person may make this designation either at the time the records are submitted to the Government or within a reasonable time thereafter. The designation must be in writing. Where a legend is required by a request for proposals or request for quotations, pursuant to 48 CFR 352.215-12, then that legend is necessary for this purpose. Any such designation will expire 10 years after the records were submitted to the Government.
</P>
<P>(e) The procedures in this paragraph apply to records on which the submitter has designated information as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. These procedures also apply to records that were submitted to the Food and Drug Administration when the agency has substantial reason to believe that information in the records could reasonably be considered exempt under exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act. Certain exceptions to these procedures are set forth in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) When the Food and Drug Administration receives a request for such records and determines that disclosure may be required, the Food and Drug Administration will make reasonable efforts to notify the submitter about these facts. The notice will include a copy of the request, and it will inform the submitter about the procedures and time limits for submission and consideration of objections to disclosure. If the Food and Drug Administration must notify a large number of submitters, notification may be done by posting or publishing a notice in a place where the submitters are reasonably likely to become aware of it.
</P>
<P>(2) The submitter has 10 working days from the date of the notice to object to disclosure of any part of the records and to state all bases for its objections. The Division of Freedom of Information may extend this period as appropriate and necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) The Food and Drug Administration will give consideration to all bases that have been stated in a timely manner by the submitter. If the Food and Drug Administration decides to disclose the records, the Food and Drug Administration will notify the submitter in writing. This notice will briefly explain why the agency did not sustain the submitter's objections. The Food and Drug Administration will include with the notice a copy of the records about which the submitter objected, as the agency proposes to disclose them. The notice will state that the Food and Drug Administration intends to disclose the records 5 working days after the submitter receives the notice unless a U.S. District Court orders the agency not to release them.
</P>
<P>(4) If a requester files suit under the Freedom of Information Act to obtain records covered by this paragraph, the Food and Drug Administration will promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever the Food and Drug Administration sends a notice to a submitter under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Food and Drug Administration will notify the requester that the Food and Drug Administration is giving the submitter a notice and an opportunity to object. Whenever the Food and Drug Administration sends a notice to a submitter under paragraph (e)(3) of this section, the Food and Drug Administration will notify the requester of this fact.
</P>
<P>(f) The notice requirements in paragraph (e) of this section do not apply in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) The Food and Drug Administration decided not to disclose the records;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has previously been published or made generally available;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure is required by a regulation issued after notice and opportunity for public comment, that specifies narrow categories of records that are to be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act, but in this case a submitter may still designate records as described in paragraph (d) of this section, and in exceptional cases, the Food and Drug Administration may, at its discretion, follow the notice procedures in paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) The information requested has not been designated by the submitter as exempt from disclosure when the submitter had an opportunity to do so at the time of submission of the information or within a reasonable time thereafter, unless the Food and Drug Administration has substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the information would result in competitive harm; or
</P>
<P>(5) The designation appears to be obviously frivolous, but in this case the Food and Drug Administration will still give the submitter the written notice required by paragraph (e)(3) of this section (although this notice need not explain our decision or include a copy of the records), and the Food and Drug Administration will notify the requester as described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 535, Jan. 5, 1994; 87 FR 55913, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.62" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.62   Inter- or intra-agency memoranda or letters.</HEAD>
<P>Interagency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the Food and Drug Administration may be withheld from public disclosure except that factual information that is reasonably segregable in accordance with the rule established in § 20.22 is available for public disclosure. The deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 55913, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.63" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.63   Personnel, medical, and similar files, disclosure of which constitutes a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The names or other information which would identify patients or research subjects in any medical or similar report, test, study, or other research project shall be deleted before the record is made available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) The names and other information which would identify patients or research subjects should be deleted from any record before it is submitted to the Food and Drug Administration. If the Food and Drug Administration subsequently needs the names of such individuals, a separate request will be made.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for deletion of business or product names prior to disclosure of any record to the public shall not be granted on the ground of privacy, but such deletion may be justified under another exemption established in this subpart, e.g., the exemption for trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61.
</P>
<P>(d) Names of individuals conducting investigations, studies, or tests on products or ingredients shall not be deleted prior to disclosure of any record to the public unless extraordinary circumstances are shown.
</P>
<P>(e) A request for all records relating to a specific individual will be denied as a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy unless accompanied by the written consent of the individual named.
</P>
<P>(f) The names and any information that would identify the voluntary reporter or any other person associated with an adverse event involving a human drug, biologic, or medical device product shall not be disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration or by a manufacturer in possession of such reports in response to a request, demand, or order. Information that would identify the voluntary reporter or persons identified in the report includes, but is not limited to, the name, address, institution, or any other information that would lead to the identities of the reporter or persons identified in a report. This provision does not affect disclosure of the identities of reporters required by a Federal statute or regulation to make adverse event reports. Disclosure of the identities of such reporters is governed by the applicable Federal statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) Identities may be disclosed if both the voluntary reporter and the person identified in an adverse event report or that person's legal representative consent in writing to disclosure, but neither FDA nor any manufacturer in possession of such reports shall be required to seek consent for disclosure from the voluntary reporter or the person identified in the adverse event report or that person's legal representative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Identities of the voluntary reporter and the person who experienced the reported adverse event may be disclosed pursuant to a court order in the course of medical malpractice litigation involving both parties; or (iii) The report, excluding the identities of any other individuals, shall be disclosed to the person who is the subject of the report upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preemption.</I> No State or local governing entity shall establish or continue in effect any law, rule, regulation, or other requirement that permits or requires disclosure of the identities of the voluntary reporter or other person identified in an adverse event report except as provided in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 60 FR 16968, Apr. 3, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.64" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.64   Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes may be withheld from public disclosure pursuant to the provisions of this section to the extent that disclosure of such records or information:
</P>
<P>(1) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(2) Would deprive a person to a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(3) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(4) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis; and information furnished by a confidential source in the case of a record compiled by the Food and Drug Administration or any other criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation;
</P>
<P>(5) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(6) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual.
</P>
<P>(b) Records include all records relating to regulatory enforcement action, including both administrative and court action, which have not been disclosed to any member of the public, including any person who is the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) Any record which is disclosed to any person, including any person who is the subject of a Food and Drug Administration investigation, and any data or information received from any person who is the subject of a Food and Drug Administration investigation relating to such investigation, is available for public disclosure at that time in accordance with the rule established in § 20.21, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure of such records shall be subject to the other exemptions established in this subpart and to the limitations on exemptions established in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The record of a section 305 hearing shall be available for public disclosure only in accordance with the provisions of § 7.87 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Records for law enforcement purposes shall be subject to the following rules:
</P>
<P>(1) No such record is available for public disclosure prior to the consideration of regulatory enforcement action based upon that record's being closed, except as provided in § 20.82. The Commissioner will exercise his discretion to disclose records relating to possible criminal prosecution pursuant to § 20.82 prior to consideration of criminal prosecution being closed only very rarely and only under circumstances that demonstrate a compelling public interest.
</P>
<P>(2) After the consideration of regulatory enforcement action is closed, such records shall be made available for public disclosure except to the extent that other exemptions from disclosure in this subpart are applicable. No statements of witnesses obtained through promises of confidentiality are available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) The consideration of regulatory enforcement action based upon a particular record shall be deemed to be closed within the meaning of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) If it relates to administrative action, when a final decision has been made not to take such action or such action has been taken and the matter has been concluded.
</P>
<P>(ii) If it relates to court action, when a final decision has been made not to recommend such action to a United States attorney based upon that record, or a recommendation has been finally refused by a United States attorney, or court action has been instituted and the matter and all related appeals have been concluded, or the statute of limitations runs.
</P>
<P>(iii) If it relates to both administrative and court action, when the events described in both paragraph (d)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section have occurred.
</P>
<P>(4) Prior to disclosure of any record specifically reflecting consideration of possible criminal prosecution of any individual, all names and other information that would identify an individual who was considered for criminal prosecution but who was not prosecuted shall be deleted unless the Commissioner concludes that there is a compelling public interest in the disclosure of such names.
</P>
<P>(e) Names and other information that would identify a Food and Drug Administration employee shall be deleted from records prior to public disclosure only pursuant to § 20.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 536, Jan. 5, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.65" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.65   National defense and foreign policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records or information may be withheld from public disclosure if they are:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy; and
</P>
<P>(2) In fact properly classified under such Executive order.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 41958, July 21, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.66" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.66   Internal personnel rules and practices.</HEAD>
<P>Records or information may be withheld from public disclosure if they are related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Under this exemption, FDA may withhold records or information about routine internal agency practices and procedures. Under this exemption, the agency may also withhold internal records whose release would help some persons circumvent the law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 41958, July 21, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.67" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.4.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.67   Records exempted by other statutes.</HEAD>
<P>Records or information may be withheld from public disclosure if a statute specifically allows the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to withhold them. FDA may use another statute to justify withholding records and information only if it absolutely prohibits disclosure, sets forth criteria to guide our decision on releasing material, or identifies particular types of matters to be withheld.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 41958, July 21, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Limitations on Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.80   Applicability of limitations on exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The limitations on exemptions established in this subpart shall apply to all Food and Drug Administration records, except as specifically provided herein. Accordingly, a record that is ordinarily exempt from public disclosure in accordance with the provisions in subpart D of this part is available for such disclosure to the extent that it falls within a limitation on the exemption contained in this subpart. For example, an investigatory record that is ordinarily exempt from disclosure under § 20.64 is disclosable to Congress in accordance with the provisions of § 20.87.
</P>
<P>(b) Disclosure of a record to any member of the public pursuant to the provisions in § 20.81, data and information previously disclosed to the public, in § 20.82, discretionary disclosure by the Commissioner, and in § 20.83, disclosure pursuant to a court order, shall involve the rule established in § 20.21 that the record shall be made available for disclosure to all members of the public who request it. Disclosure of a record only to the limited categories of persons and under the conditions specified in § 20.84, special government employees, in § 20.85, other Federal government departments and agencies, in § 20.86, in camera disclosure in administrative or court proceedings, in § 20.87(b), Congress, in § 20.88, State and local government officials, in § 20.89, foreign government officials, and in § 20.90, contractors, which does not result in disclosure of the record to any member of the public in an authorized manner, shall not invoke the rule established in § 20.21.
</P>
<P>(c) Disclosure to government employees and special government employees of records exempt from public disclosure shall subject those persons to the same restrictions with respect to the disclosure of such records as any Food and Drug Administration employee.
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of a record in a Privacy Act Record System, as defined in § 21.3(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) The availability to an individual, as defined in § 21.3(a), of a record about himself that is retrieved by the individual's name or other personal identifier and is contained in a Privacy Act Record System shall be subject to the special requirements of part 21 of this chapter (the privacy regulations) and shall not be subject to the exemptions in subpart D of this part except that where the system is exempt and the requested record is not available under § 21.61 of this chapter, the provisions of this part shall apply.
</P>
<P>(2) The availability of a record about an individual to persons other than the individual who is the subject of the record shall be subject to the special requirements of part 21, subpart G, of this chapter (restrictions on disclosure in the privacy regulations), and shall not be subject to the limitations on exemptions in this subpart except as provided in part 21, subpart G, of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.81" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.81   Data and information previously disclosed to the public.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any Food and Drug Administration record that is otherwise exempt from public disclosure pursuant to subpart D of this part is available for public disclosure to the extent that it contains data or information that have previously been disclosed in a lawful manner to any member of the public, other than an employee or consultant or pursuant to other commercial arrangements with appropriate safeguards for secrecy.
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this section, an individual shall be deemed to be a consultant only if disclosure of the information was necessary in order to perform that specific consulting service and the purpose of the disclosure was solely to obtain that service. The number of consultants who have received such information shall have been limited to the number reasonably needed to perform that particular consulting service.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, other commercial arrangements shall include licenses, contracts, and similar legal relationships between business associates.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, data and information disclosed to clinical investigators or members of institutional review committees, whether required by regulations of the Food and Drug Administration, or made voluntarily, if accompanied by appropriate safeguards to assure secrecy and otherwise in accordance with this section, are not deemed to have been previously disclosed to any member of the public within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Any statement relating to prior public disclosure is subject to the False Reports to the Government Act, 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989; 59 FR 536, Jan. 5, 1994; 68 FR 25287, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.82" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.82   Discretionary disclosure by the Commissioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Commissioner may, in his or her discretion, disclose part or all of any Food and Drug Administration (FDA) record that is otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to subpart D of this part. As set forth in § 20.20(b), FDA will withhold requested information only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Agency reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure is prohibited by law. FDA shall exercise its discretion to disclose such records whenever it determines that such disclosure is in the public interest, will promote the objectives of the Freedom of Information Act and the Agency, and is, for example, consistent with the rights of individuals to privacy, the property rights of persons in trade secrets, and the need for the Agency to promote frank internal policy deliberations and to pursue its regulatory activities without disruption.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner shall not make available for public disclosure any record that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Exempt from public disclosure pursuant to § 20.61.
</P>
<P>(2) Exempt from public disclosure pursuant to § 20.63.
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibited from public disclosure under statute.
</P>
<P>(4) Contained in a Privacy Act Record System where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy or is otherwise in violation of 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), as applied in part 21, subpart G, of this chapter (restrictions on disclosure in the privacy regulations).
</P>
<P>(c) Discretionary disclosure of a record pursuant to this section shall invoke the requirement that the record shall be disclosed to any person who requests it pursuant to § 20.21, but shall not set a precedent for discretionary disclosure of any similar or related record and shall not obligate the Commissioner to exercise his discretion to disclose any other record that is exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 41958, July 21, 2005; 87 FR 55913, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.83" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.83   Disclosure required by court order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records of the Food and Drug Administration which the Commissioner has determined are not available for public disclosure, in the form of a regulation published or cross-referenced in this part, shall nevertheless be made available for public disclosure in compliance with a final court order requiring such disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Food and Drug Administration record ordered disclosed under paragraph (a) of this section is a record about an individual that is not available for public disclosure under § 20.63, the Food and Drug Administration shall attempt to notify the individual who is the subject of the record of the disclosure, by sending a notice to the individual's last known address.
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply where the name or other personal identifying information is deleted prior to disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 68 FR 25287, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.84" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.84   Disclosure to consultants, advisory committees, State and local government officials commissioned pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 372(a), and other special government employees.</HEAD>
<P>Data and information otherwise exempt from public disclosure may be disclosed to Food and Drug Administration consultants, advisory committees, State and local government officials commissioned pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 372(a), and other special government employees for use only in their work with the Food and Drug Administration. Such persons are thereafter subject to the same restrictions with respect to the disclosure of such data and information as any other Food and Drug Administration employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.85" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.85   Disclosure to other Federal Government departments and agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Any Food and Drug Administration (FDA) record otherwise exempt from public disclosure may be disclosed to other Federal Government departments and agencies, except that trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information prohibited from disclosure by 21 U.S.C. 331(j), 21 U.S.C. 360j(c), 21 U.S.C. 360ll(d), 21 U.S.C. 360nn(e), and 21 U.S.C. 387f(c) may be released only as provided by those sections. Any disclosure under this section shall be pursuant to a written agreement that the record shall not be further disclosed by the other department or agency except with the written permission of FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 55913, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.86" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.86   Disclosure in administrative or court proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Data and information otherwise exempt from public disclosure may be revealed in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) administrative proceedings, such as those pursuant to parts 10, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, and 19 of this chapter, or court proceedings, where data or information are relevant. FDA will take appropriate measures, or request that appropriate measures be taken, to reduce disclosure to the minimum necessary under the circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 55913, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.87" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.87   Disclosure to Congress.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All records of the Food and Drug Administration shall be disclosed to Congress upon an authorized request.
</P>
<P>(b) An authorized request for Food and Drug Administration records by Congress shall be made by the chairman of a committee or subcommittee of Congress acting pursuant to committee business.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual member of Congress who requests a record for his own use or on behalf of any constituent shall be subject to the same rules in this part that apply to any other member of the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 536, Jan. 5, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.88" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.88   Communications with State and local government officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State or local government official commissioned by the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 372(a) shall have the same status with respect to disclosure of Food and Drug Administration records as any special government employee.
</P>
<P>(b) Communications with State and local government officials with respect to law enforcement activities undertaken pursuant to a contract between the Food and Drug Administration and such officials shall be subject to the rules for public disclosure established in § 20.64.
</P>
<P>(c) Communications with State and local government officials who are not commissioned pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 372(a) or under a contract to perform law enforcement activities shall have the same status as communications with any member of the public, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes by State and local government officials who perform counterpart functions to the Food and Drug Administration at the State and local level, and trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information obtained by such officials, which are voluntarily disclosed to the Food and Drug Administration as part of cooperative law enforcement and regulatory efforts, shall be exempt from public disclosure to the same extent to which the records would be so exempt pursuant to §§ 20.61 and 20.64, as if they had been prepared by or submitted directly to Food and Drug Administration employees, except that investigatory records shall be exempt from disclosure for a longer period of time if the State or local government officials so require as a condition of their furnishing the information to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure of investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes by the Food and Drug Administration to State and local government officials who perform counterpart functions to the Food and Drug Administratrion at the State and local level as part of cooperative law enforcement efforts does not invoke the rule established in § 20.21 that such records shall be made available for disclosure to all members of the public.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs (or delegatee) may authorize the disclosure of confidential commercial information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, or incorporated into Agency-prepared records, to State and local government officials as part of cooperative law enforcement or regulatory efforts, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The State or local government agency has provided both a written statement establishing its authority to protect confidential commercial information from public disclosure and a written commitment not to disclose any such information provided without the written permission of the sponsor or written confirmation by the Food and Drug Administration that the information no longer has confidential status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs or the Commissioner's designee makes one or more of the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(A) The sponsor of the product application has provided written authorization for the disclosure;
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosure would be in the interest of public health by reason of the State or local government's possessing information concerning the safety, effectiveness, or quality of a product or information concerning an investigation, or by reason of the State or local government being able to exercise its regulatory authority more expeditiously than the Food and Drug Administration; or
</P>
<P>(C) The disclosure is to a State or local government scientist visiting the Food and Drug Administration on the Agency's premises as part of a joint review or long-term cooperative training effort authorized under section 708 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the review is in the interest of public health, the Food and Drug Administration retains physical control over the information, the Food and Drug Administration requires the visiting State or local government scientist to sign a written commitment to protect the confidentiality of the information, and the visiting State or local government scientist provides a written assurance that he or she has no financial interest in the regulated industry of the type that would preclude participation in the review of the matter if the individual were subject to the conflict of interest rules applicable to the Food and Drug Administration advisory committee members under § 14.80(b)(1) of this chapter. Subject to all the foregoing conditions, a visiting State or local government scientist may have access to trade secret information, entitled to protection under section 301(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in those cases where such disclosures would be a necessary part of the joint review or training.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided under paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(C) of this section, the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section do not authorize the disclosure to State and local government officials of trade secret information concerning manufacturing methods and processes prohibited from disclosure by section 301(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless pursuant to an express written authorization provided by the submitter of the information.
</P>
<P>(3) Any disclosure under this section of information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration or incorporated into agency-prepared records does not invoke the rule established in § 20.21 that such records shall be made available to all members of the public.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs or (delegatee), may authorize the disclosure to, or receipt from, an official of a State or local government agency of nonpublic, predecisional documents concerning the Food and Drug Administration's or the other Government agency's regulations or other regulatory requirements, or other nonpublic information relevant to either agency's activities, as part of efforts to improve Federal-State and/or Federal-local uniformity, cooperative regulatory activities, or implementation of Federal-State and/or Federal-local agreements, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The State or local government agency has the authority to protect such nonpublic documents from public disclosure and will not disclose any such documents provided without the written confirmation by the Food and Drug Administration that the documents no longer have nonpublic status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner (or delegatee) makes the determination that the exchange is reasonably necessary to improve Federal-State and/or Federal-local uniformity, cooperative regulatory activities, or implementation of Federal-State and/or Federal-local agreements.
</P>
<P>(2) Any exchange under this section of nonpublic documents does not invoke the rule established at § 20.21 that such records shall be made available to all members of the public.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, the term <I>official of a State or local government agency</I> includes, but is not limited to, an agent contracted by the State or local government, and an employee of an organization of State or local officials having responsibility to facilitate harmonization of State or local standards and requirements in the Food and Drug Administration's areas of responsibility. For such officials, the statement and commitment required by paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section shall be provided by both the organization and the individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 60 FR 63381, Dec. 8, 1995; 65 FR 11887, Mar. 7, 2000; 87 FR 55913, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.89" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.89   Communications with foreign government officials.</HEAD>
<P>Communications with foreign government officials shall have the same status as communications with any member of the public, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) Investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes by foreign government officials who perform counterpart functions to the Food and Drug Administration in a foreign country, and trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information obtained by such officials, which are voluntarily disclosed to the Food and Drug Administration as part of cooperative law enforcement and regulatory efforts, shall be exempt from public disclosure to the same extent to which the records would be so exempt pursuant to §§ 20.61 and 20.64, as if they had been prepared by or submitted directly to Food and Drug Administration employees, except that investigatory records shall be exempt from disclosure for a longer period of time if the foreign government officials so require as a condition of their furnishing the information to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) Disclosure of investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes by the Food and Drug Administration to foreign government officials who perform counterpart functions to the Food and Drug Administration in a foreign country as part of cooperative law enforcement efforts does not invoke the rule established in § 20.21 that such records shall be made available for disclosure to all members of the public.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, or any other officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration whom the Commissioner may designate to act on his or her behalf for the purpose, may authorize the disclosure of confidential commercial information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, or incorporated into agency-prepared records, to foreign government officials who perform counterpart functions to the Food and Drug Administration as part of cooperative law enforcement or regulatory efforts, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign government agency has provided both a written statement establishing its authority to protect confidential commercial information from public disclosure and a written commitment not to disclose any such information provided without the written permission of the sponsor or written confirmation by the Food and Drug Administration that the information no longer has confidential status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs or the Commissioner's designee makes one or more of the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(A) The sponsor of the product application has provided written authorization for the disclosure;
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosure would be in the interest of public health by reason of the foreign government's possessing information concerning the safety, efficacy, or quality of a product or information concerning an investigation; or
</P>
<P>(C) The disclosure is to a foreign scientist visiting the Food and Drug Administration on the agency's premises as part of a joint review or long-term cooperative training effort authorized under section 708 of the act, the review is in the interest of public health, the Food and Drug Administration retains physical control over the information, the Food and Drug Administration requires the visiting foreign scientist to sign a written commitment to protect the confidentiality of the information, and the scientist provides a written assurance that he or she has no financial interest in the regulated industry of the type that would preclude participation in the review of the matter if the individual were subject to the conflict of interest rules applicable to the Food and Drug Administration advisory committee members under § 14.80(b)(1) of this chapter. Subject to all of the foregoing conditions, visiting foreign scientists may have access to trade secret information, entitled to protection under section 301(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), in those cases where such disclosures would be a necessary part of the joint review or training.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided under paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(C) of this section, this provision does not authorize the disclosure to foreign government officials of other countries of trade secret information concerning manufacturing methods and processes prohibited from disclosure by section 301(j) of the act, unless pursuant to an express written authorization provided by the submitter of the information.
</P>
<P>(3) Any disclosure under this section of information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration or incorporated into agency-prepared records does not invoke the rule established in § 20.21 that such records shall be made available to all members of the public.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs (or delegatee) may authorize the disclosure to, or receipt from, an official of a foreign government agency of nonpublic, predecisional documents concerning the Food and Drug Administration's or the other Government agency's regulations or other regulatory requirements, or other nonpublic information relevant to either agency's activities, as part of cooperative efforts to facilitate global harmonization of regulatory requirements, cooperative regulatory activities, or implementation of international agreements, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign government agency has the authority to protect such nonpublic documents from public disclosure and will not disclose any such documents provided without the written confirmation by the Food and Drug Administration that the documents no longer have nonpublic status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner (or delegatee) makes the determination that the exchange is reasonably necessary to facilitate global harmonization of regulatory requirements, cooperative regulatory activities, or implementation of international agreements.
</P>
<P>(2) Any exchange under this section of nonpublic documents does not invoke the rule established in § 20.21 that such records shall be made available to all members of the public.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this section, the term “official of a foreign government agency” includes, but is not limited to, employees (whether temporary or permanent) of and agents contracted by the foreign government, or by an international organization established by law, treaty, or other governmental action and having responsibility to facilitate global or regional harmonization of standards and requirements in FDA's areas of responsibility or to promote and coordinate public health efforts. For such officials, the statement and commitment required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be provided on behalf of both the organization and the individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 61603, Nov. 19, 1993; 60 FR 63382, Dec. 8, 1995; 65 FR 11888, Mar. 7, 2000; 87 FR 55914, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.90   Disclosure to contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Data and information otherwise exempt from public disclosure may be disclosed to contractors with the Food and Drug Administration and their employees for use only in their work for the Food and Drug Administration. Contractors and their employees are thereafter subject to the same legal restrictions and penalties with respect to the disclosure of such data and information as Food and Drug Administration employees.
</P>
<P>(b) A written agreement between the Food and Drug Administration and any contractor shall be entered into before data and information otherwise exempt from public disclosure may be disclosed to the contractor. The contractor shall agree to establish and follow security precautions considered by the Food and Drug Administration to be necessary to ensure proper and confidential handling of the data and information. The written agreement shall include, where appropriate, provisions establishing:
</P>
<P>(1) Restrictions on access to the data and information by the contractor, its employees, or other persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Physical storage requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements for the handling and accountability of the data and information by the contractor and its employees;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitations on reproduction, transmission, and disclosure of the data and information;
</P>
<P>(5) A requirement of advance approval by the Food and Drug Administration of the use by the contractor of subcontractors, vendors, or suppliers;
</P>
<P>(6) Procedures to be followed when the contractor employs time-shared computer operations;
</P>
<P>(7) Methods of destroying source documents or related waste material; and
</P>
<P>(8) The period during which the contractor may retain such data and information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.91" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.5.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.91   Use of data or information for administrative or court enforcement action.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part or this chapter shall prevent the Food and Drug Administration from using any data or information, whether obtained voluntarily or involuntarily and whether or not it is available for public disclosure, as the basis for taking any administrative or court enforcement action within its jurisdiction. Data and information otherwise exempt from public disclosure are nevertheless available for public disclosure to the extent necessary to effectuate such action, e.g., the brand name, code designation, and distribution information are released when a product is recalled.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Availability of Specific Categories of Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.100   Applicability; cross-reference to other regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions set forth in this subpart or cross-referenced in paragraph (c) of this section state the way in which specific categories of Food and Drug Administration records are handled upon a request for public disclosure. The exemptions established in subpart D of this part and the limitations on exemptions established in subpart E of this part shall be applicable to all Food and Drug Administration records, as provided in §§ 20.60 and 20.80. Accordingly, a record that is ordinarily available for public disclosure in accordance with this part or under other regulations is not available for such disclosure to the extent that it falls within an exemption contained in subpart D of this part except as provided by the limitations on exemptions specified in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner, on his own initiative or on the petition of any interested person, may amend this subpart or promulgate and cross-reference additional regulations to state the status of additional categories of documents to settle pending questions or to reflect court decisions.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the provisions of this part, rules on the availability of the following specific categories of Food and Drug Administration records are established by regulations in this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 305 hearing records, in § 7.87(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Flavor ingredient records and notes, in § 101.22(i)(4)(iv) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental assessments; finding of no significant impact, in § 25.51 of this chapter, or draft and final environmental impact statements, in § 25.52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Color additive petitions, in § 71.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Food standard temporary permits, in § 130.17(k) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) Information on thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers, in §§ 108.25(k) and 108.35(l) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) Food additive petitions, in §§ 171.1(h) and 571.1(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Action levels for natural and unavoidable defects in food for human use, in § 110.110(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) Drug establishment registrations and drug listings, in § 207.81 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(10) Investigational new animal drug notices, in § 514.12 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(11) New animal drug application files, in § 514.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(12) Investigational new animal drug notice and a new animal drug application file for an antibiotic drug, in § 514.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(13) Methadone patient records, in § 291.505(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(14) Investigational new drug notice, in § 312.130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(15) Labeling for and lists of approved new drug applications, in § 314.430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(16) Master file for a new drug application, in § 312.420 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(17) New drug application file, in § 314.430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(18) Data and information submitted for in vitro diagnostic products, in § 809.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(19) Data and information submitted for OTC drug review, in § 330.10(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(20)-(22) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(23) Investigational new drug notice for a biological product, in § 601.50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(24) Applications for biologics licenses for biological products, in § 601.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(25) Cosmetic establishment registrations, in § 710.7 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(26) Cosmetic product ingredient and cosmetic raw material composition statements, § 720.8 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(27) Cosmetic product experience reports, in § 730.7 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(28) Device premarket notification submissions, in § 807.95 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(29) Electronic product information, in §§ 1002.4 and 1002.42 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(30) Data and information submitted to the Commissioner or to classification panels in connection with the classification or reclassification of devices intended for human use, in § 860.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(31) Data and information submitted in offers to develop a proposed performance standard for medical devices, in § 861.26 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(32) Investigational device exemptions in § 812.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(33) Health claims petitions, in § 101.70 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(34) Premarket approval application, in § 814.9 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(35) Report of certain adverse experiences with a medical device, in § 803.9 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(36) Disqualification determination of an institutional review board, in § 56.122 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(37) Disqualification determination of a nonclinical laboratory, in § 58.213 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(38) Minutes or records regarding a public advisory committee, in § 14.65(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(39) Data submitted regarding persons receiving an implanted pacemaker device or lead, in § 805.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(40) Humanitarian device exemption application, in § 814.122 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(41) Premarket notifications for food contact substances, in § 170.102 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(42) Registration of food facilities, in § 1.243 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(43) Minor-use or minor-species (MUMS) drug designations, in § 516.52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(44) Minor-species drug index listings, in § 516.171 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(45) Postmarket notifications of a permanent discontinuance or an interruption in manufacturing of certain drugs or biological products, in §§ 310.306, 314.81(b)(3)(iii), and 600.82 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(46) Generally recognized as safe (GRAS) notices, in part 170, subpart E and part 570, subpart E of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(47) Requests to establish or amend import tolerances, in § 510.205 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(48) Status reports of postmarketing study commitments in §§ 314.81(b)(2)(vii)(b) and 601.70(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 19989, Apr. 15, 1977; 42 FR 42526, Aug. 28, 1977; 42 FR 58889, Nov. 11, 1977; 43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978; 51 FR 22475, June 19, 1986; 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989; 58 FR 2533, Jan. 6, 1993; 59 FR 536, Jan. 5, 1994; 61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996; 62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997; 64 FR 56448, Oct. 20, 1999; 67 FR 13717, Mar. 26, 2002; 67 FR 35729, May 21, 2002; 68 FR 58965, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 41017, July 26, 2007; 72 FR 69118, Dec. 6, 2007; 80 FR 38938, July 8, 2015; 81 FR 45409, July 14, 2016; 81 FR 55046, Aug. 17, 2016; 81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016; 86 FR 52410, Sept. 21, 2021; 87 FR 55914, Sept. 13, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.101   Administrative enforcement records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All Food and Drug Administration records relating to administrative enforcement action disclosed to any member of the public, including the person who is the subject of such action, are available for public disclosure at the time such disclosure is first made. Such records include correspondence with companies following factory inspection, recall or detention requests, notice of refusal of admission of an imported product, regulatory letters, information letters, Forms FD-483 and FD-2275 furnished to companies after factory inspection, and similar records.
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent that any of such records fall within the exemption for investigatory records established in § 20.64, the Commissioner determines that they are subject to discretionary release pursuant to § 20.82.
</P>
<P>(c) Records relating to administrative enforcement action that are not disclosed to any member of the public constitute investigatory records that are subject to the rules for disclosure established in § 20.64. For example, an establishment inspection report is an investigatory record and thus subject to § 20.64 except insofar as the Commissioner exercises his discretion to release it pursuant to § 20.82.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.102   Court enforcement records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All records and documents filed in the courts are available for public disclosure unless the court orders otherwise. The Food and Drug Administration will make available for public disclosure such records or documents if the agency can determine that it has an accurate copy of the actual record or document filed in the court. If the Food and Drug Administration cannot determine whether it has an accurate copy of such a record or document, the person requesting a copy shall be referred to the court involved.
</P>
<P>(b) After a recommendation for court action has been finally refused by a United States attorney, the correspondence with the United States attorney and the Department of Justice with respect to that recommendation, including the pleadings recommended for filing with the court, is available for public disclosure. Prior to disclosure of any record specifically reflecting consideration of possible criminal prosecution of any individual, all names and other information that would identify an individual who was considered for criminal prosecution but who was not prosecuted shall be deleted unless the Commissioner concludes that there is a compelling public interest in the disclosure of such names.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.103" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.103   Correspondence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All correspondence to and from members of the public, members of Congress, organization or company officials, or other persons, except members of the Executive Branch of the Federal Government and special government employees, is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such correspondence is available for public disclosure at the time that it is sent or received by the Food and Drug Administration unless a different time for such disclosure is specified in other rules established or cross-referenced in this part, e.g., correspondence relating to an IND notice or an NDA in § 314.430 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.104" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.104   Summaries of oral discussions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All written summaries of oral discussions, whether in person or by telephone, with members of the public, members of Congress, organization or company officials, or other persons, except members of the Executive Branch of the Federal government or special government employees, are available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such summary is available for public disclosure at the time that it is prepared by the Food and Drug Administration unless a different time for such disclosure is specified in other rules established or cross-referenced in this part, e.g., summaries of oral discussions relating to a food additive petition in § 171.1(h)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) If more than one summary of an oral discussion exists in a Food and Drug Administration file, all such summaries shall be disclosed in response to any request for such summary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.105   Testing and research conducted by or with funds provided by the Food and Drug Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any list that may be prepared by the Food and Drug Administration of testing and research being conducted by or with funds provided by the Food and Drug Administration is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Any contract relating to agency testing and research, and any progress report relating thereto, is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) The results of all testing or research conducted by or with funds provided by the Food and Drug Administration, such as toxicological testing, compliance assays, methodology studies, and product testing, are available for public disclosure when the final report is complete and accepted by the responsible Food and Drug Administration official, after deletion of any information that would reveal confidential investigative techniques and procedures, e.g., the use of “markers” to document adulteration of a product. If such results are disclosed in an authorized manner to any member of the public before the final report is available, they are immediately available for public disclosure to any member of the public who requests them.
</P>
<P>(d) Access to all raw data, slides, worksheets, and other similar working materials shall be provided at the same time that the final report is disclosed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.106" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.106   Studies and reports prepared by or with funds provided by the Food and Drug Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following types of reports and studies prepared by or with funds provided by the Food and Drug Administration are available for public disclosure upon their acceptance by the responsible agency official:
</P>
<P>(1) Quarterly and annual reports of the agency.
</P>
<P>(2) External investigations or review of agency needs and performance.
</P>
<P>(3) Surveys, compilations, and summaries of data and information.
</P>
<P>(4) Consumer surveys.
</P>
<P>(5) Compliance surveys.
</P>
<P>(6) Compliance programs, except that names of specific firms, the location of specific activities, and details about sampling numbers or sizes shall be deleted until implementation of the program is completed.
</P>
<P>(7) Work plans prepared by Food and Drug Administration centers, field offices, and other components, except that names of specific firms, the location of specific activities, and details about sampling numbers or sizes shall be deleted until implementation of the plan is completed.
</P>
<P>(b) The following types of reports and studies prepared by or with funds provided by the Food and Drug Administration are not available for public disclosure:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal audits of agency needs and performance.
</P>
<P>(2) Records relating to the internal planning and budget process.
</P>
<P>(3) Legislative proposals or comments prior to submission to Congress.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 8995, Mar. 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.107" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.107   Food and Drug Administration manuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Food and Drug Administration administrative staff manuals and instructions that affect a member of the public are available for public disclosure. An index of all such manuals is available by writing to the Division of Freedom of Informationat the address located on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>; or by visiting the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room, located in rm. 1050, at the same address. The index and all manuals created by the agency on or after November 1, 1996, will be made available through the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Manuals relating solely to internal personnel rules and practices are not available for public disclosure except to the extent that the Commissioner determines that they should be disclosed pursuant to § 20.82.
</P>
<P>(c) All Food and Drug Administration action levels which are used to determine when the agency will take regulatory action against a violative product, limits of sensitivity and variability of analytical methods which are used in determining whether a product violates the law, and direct reference levels above which Food and Drug Administration field offices may request legal action directly to the office of the General Counsel, are available for public disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8457, Jan. 27, 1981; 46 FR 14340, Feb. 27, 1981; 68 FR 25287, May 12, 2003; 76 FR 31469, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.108" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.108   Agreements between the Food and Drug Administration and other departments, agencies, and organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All written agreements and understandings signed by the Food and Drug Administration and other departments, agencies, and organizations are available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) All written agreements and memoranda of understanding between FDA and any entity, including, but not limited to other departments, Agencies, and organizations will be made available through the Food and Drug Administration Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I> once finalized.
</P>
<P>(c) Agreements and understandings signed by officials of FDA with respect to activities of the Office of Criminal Investigations are exempt from the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. Although such agreements and understandings will not be made available through the FDA Web site, these agreements will be available for disclosure in response to a request from the public after deletion of information that would disclose confidential investigative techniques or procedures, or information that would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8457, Jan. 27, 1981; 58 FR 48794, 48796, Sept. 20, 1993; 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 77 FR 50591, Aug. 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.109" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.109   Data and information obtained by contract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All data and information obtained by the Food and Drug Administration by contract, including all progress reports pursuant to a contract, are available for public disclosure when accepted by the responsible agency official except to the extent that they remain subject to an exemption established in subpart D of this part, e.g., they relate to law enforcement matters as provided in § 20.88(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the awarding of a contract by the Food and Drug Administration, the technical proposal submitted by the successful offeror will be available for public disclosure. All cost proposals and the technical proposals of unsuccessful offerors submitted in response to a request for proposals are exempt from disclosure as confidential commercial or financial information pursuant to § 20.61.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.110" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.110   Data and information about Food and Drug Administration employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The name, title, grade, position description, salary, work address, and work telephone number for every Food and Drug Administration employee are available for public disclosure. The home address and home telephone number of any such employee are not available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Statistics on the prior employment experience of present agency employees, and subsequent employment of past agency employees, are available for public disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.111" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.111   Data and information submitted voluntarily to the Food and Drug Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this section shall apply only to data and information submitted voluntarily to the Food and Drug Administration, whether in the course of a factory inspection or at any other time, and not as a part of any petition, application, master file, or other required submission or request for action. Data and information that may be required to be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration but that are submitted voluntarily instead are not subject to the provisions of this section and will be handled as if they had been required to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) A determination that data or information submitted voluntarily will be held in confidence and will not be available for public disclosure shall be made only in the form of a regulation published or cross-referenced in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The following data and information submitted voluntarily to the Food and Drug Administration are available for public disclosure unless extraordinary circumstances are shown:
</P>
<P>(1) All safety, effectiveness, and functionality data and information for a marketed ingredient or product, except as provided in § 330.10(a)(2) of this chapter for OTC drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 for trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information.
</P>
<P>(3) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information shall be disclosed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If submitted by a consumer or user of the product, the record is available for public disclosure after deletion of names and other information that would identify the person submitting the information.
</P>
<P>(ii) If submitted by the manufacturer of the product, the record is available for public disclosure after deletion of:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Names and any other information that would identify the manufacturer or the brand designation of the product, but not the type of product or its ingredients.
</P>
<P>(iii) If submitted by a third party, such as a physician or hospital or other institution, the record is available for public disclosure after deletion of:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution.
</P>
<P>(iv) If obtained through a Food and Drug Administration investigation, the record shall have the same status as the initial report which led to the investigation, i.e., it shall be disclosed in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Any compilation of data, information, and reports prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this section is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a person requests a copy of any such record relating to a specific individual or a specific incident, such request will be denied unless accompanied by the written consent to such disclosure of the person who submitted the report to the Food and Drug Administration and the individual who is the subject of the report. The record will be disclosed to the individual who is the subject of the report upon request.
</P>
<P>(4) A list of all ingredients contained in a food or cosmetic, whether or not it is in descending order of predominance, or a list of all active ingredients and any inactive ingredients previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 contained in a drug, or a list of all ingredients or components in a device. 
</P>
<P>(5) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61.
</P>
<P>(d) The following data and information submitted voluntarily to the Food and Drug Administration are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61:
</P>
<P>(1) All safety, effectiveness, and functionality data and information for a developmental ingredient or product that has not previously been disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(4) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this regulation, safety, effectiveness, and functionality data include all studies and tests of an ingredient or a product on animals and humans and all studies and tests on the ingredient or product for identity, stability, purity, potency, bioavailability, performance, and usefulness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 68 FR 25287, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.112" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.112   Voluntary drug experience reports submitted by physicians and hospitals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A voluntary drug experience report to the Food and Drug Administration on FDA Form 3500 shall be handled in accordance with the rules established in § 20.111(c)(3)(iii).
</P>
<P>(b) If a person requests a copy of any such record relating to a specific individual or a specific incident, such request will be denied unless accompanied by the written consent to such disclosure of the person who submitted the report to the Food and Drug Administration and the individual who is the subject of the report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989; 62 FR 52249, Oct. 7, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.113" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.113   Voluntary product defect reports.</HEAD>
<P>Voluntary reports of defects in products subject to the jurisdiction of the Food and Drug Administration are available for public disclosure:
</P>
<P>(a) If the report is submitted by the manufacturer, after deletion of data and information falling within the exemptions established in § 20.61 for trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information and in § 20.63 for personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(b) If the report is submitted by any person other than the manufacturer, after deletion of names and other information that would identify the person submitting the report and any data or information falling within the exemption established in § 20.63 for personal privacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.114" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.114   Data and information submitted pursuant to cooperative quality assurance agreements.</HEAD>
<P>Data and information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to a cooperative quality assurance agreement shall be handled in accordance with the rules established in § 20.111.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.115" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.115   Product codes for manufacturing or sales dates.</HEAD>
<P>Data or information in Food and Drug Administration files which provide a means for deciphering or decoding a manufacturing date or sales date or use date contained on the label or in labeling or otherwise used in connection with a product subject to the jurisdiction of the Food and Drug Administration are available for public disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.116" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.116   Drug and device registration and listing information.</HEAD>
<P>Information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to section 510(a) through (j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall be subject only to the special disclosure provisions established in §§ 207.81 and 807.37 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.117" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.117   New drug information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following computer printouts are available for public inspection in the Food and Drug Administration's Freedom of Information Public Room:
</P>
<P>(1) A numerical listing of all new drug applications and abbreviated new drug applications approved since 1938, showing the NDA number, the trade name, the applicant, the approval date, and, where applicable, the date the approval was withdrawn and the date the Food and Drug Administration was notified that marketing of the product was discontinued.
</P>
<P>(2) A numerical listing of all new drug applications and abbreviated new drug applications approved since 1938 which are still approved, showing the same information as is specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section except that it does not show a withdrawal date.
</P>
<P>(3) A listing of new drug applications, abbreviated new drug applications, which were approved since 1938 and which are still approved, covering marketed prescription drug products except prescription drug products covered by applications deemed approved under the Drug Amendments of 1962 and not yet determined to be effective in the Drug Efficacy Study Implementation program. The listing includes the name of the active ingredient, the type of dosage form, the route of administration, the trade name of the product, the name of the application holder, and the strength or potency of the product. The listing also includes, for each active ingredient in a particular dosage form for which there is more than one approved application, an evaluation of the therapeutic equivalence of the drug products covered by such applications.
</P>
<P>(b) Other computer printouts containing IND and NDA information are available to the extent that they do not reveal data or information prohibited from disclosure under §§ 20.61, 312.130, and 314.430 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15616, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 72608, Oct. 31, 1980; 46 FR 8457, Jan. 27, 1981; 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.118" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.118   Advisory committee records.</HEAD>
<P>All advisory committee records shall be handled in accordance with the rules established in parts 10, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, and 19 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.119" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.119   Lists of names and addresses.</HEAD>
<P>Names and addresses of individuals in Food and Drug Administration records shall not be sold or rented. Names and addresses shall not be disclosed if disclosure is prohibited as a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, e.g., lists of names and home addresses of Food and Drug Administration employees, which shall not be disclosed under § 20.110.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.16.6.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.120   Records available in Food and Drug Administration Public Reading Rooms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Freedom of Information Staff and the Dockets Management Staff Public Reading Room are located at the same address. Both are located in Rm. 1061, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852. The telephone number for the Docket Management Staff is 240-402-7500; the telephone number for the Freedom of Information Staff's Public Reading Room is located at the address on the Agency's website at <I>https://www.fda.gov.</I> Both public reading rooms are open from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal public holidays.
</P>
<P>(b) The following records are available at the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room:
</P>
<P>(1) A guide for making requests for records or information from the Food and Drug Administration;
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Food and Drug Administration records which have been released to any person in response to a Freedom of Information request and which the agency has determined have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records;
</P>
<P>(4) Indexes of records maintained in the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other records and information as the agency determines are appropriate for inclusion in the public reading room.
</P>
<P>(c) The following records are available in the Dockets Management Staff's Public Reading Room:
</P>
<P>(1) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as orders, made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of policy and interpretation adopted by the agency that are still in force and not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) Indexes of records maintained in the Dockets Management Staff's Public Reading Room; and
</P>
<P>(4) Such other records and information as the agency determines are appropriate for inclusion in the public reading room.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency will make reading room records created by the Food and Drug Administration on or after November 1, 1996, available electronically through the Internet at the agency's World Wide Web site which can be found at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I> At the agency's discretion, the Food and Drug Administration may also make available through the Internet such additional records and information it believes will be useful to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25287, May 12, 2003; 68 FR 65392, Nov. 20, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014; 87 FR 55914, Sept. 13, 2022; 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 21—PROTECTION OF PRIVACY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371; 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes procedures to implement the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a). It applies to records about individuals that are maintained, collected, used, or disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration and contained in Privacy Act Record Systems.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not:
</P>
<P>(1) Apply to Food and Drug Administration record systems that are not Privacy Act Record Systems or make available to an individual records that may include references to him but that are not retrieved by his name or other personal identifier, whether or not contained in a Privacy Act Record System. part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations) and other regulations referred to therein determine when records are made available in such cases.
</P>
<P>(2) Make any records available to persons other than (i) individuals who are the subjects of the records, (ii) persons accompanying such individuals under § 21.43, (iii) persons provided records pursuant to individual consent under § 21.72, or (iv) persons acting on behalf of such individuals as legal guardians under § 21.75. Part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations) and other regulations referred to therein determine when Food and Drug Administration records are disclosable to members of the public generally. Subpart G of this part limits the provisions of part 20 of this chapter with respect to disclosures of records about individuals from Privacy Act Record Systems to persons other than individuals who are the subjects of the records.
</P>
<P>(3) Make available information compiled by the Food and Drug Administration in reasonable anticipation of court litigation or formal administrative proceedings. The availability of such information to any member of the public, including any subject individual or party to such litigation or proceeding shall be governed by applicable constitutional principles, rules of discovery, and part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations).
</P>
<P>(4) Apply to personnel records maintained by the Division of Human Resources Management, Food and Drug Administration, except as provided in § 21.32. Such records are subject to regulations of the Office of Personnel Management in 5 CFR parts 293, 294, and 297.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8457, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual</I> means a natural living person who is a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence. Individual does not include sole proprietorships, partnerships, or corporations engaged in the production or distribution of products regulated by the Food and Drug Administration or with which the Food and Drug Administration has business dealings. Any such business enterprise that is identified by the name of one or more individuals is not an individual within the meaning of this part. Employees of regulated business enterprises are considered individuals. Accordingly, physicians and other health professionals who are engaged in business as proprietors of establishments regulated by the Food and Drug Administration are not considered individuals; however, physicians and other health professionals who are engaged in clinical investigations, employed by regulated enterprises, or the subjects of records concerning their own health, e.g., exposure to excessive radiation, are considered individuals. Food and Drug Administration employees, consultants, and advisory committee members, State and local officials, and consumers are considered individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records about individuals</I> means items, collections, or groupings of information about individuals contained in Privacy Act Record Systems, including, but not limited to education, financial transactions, medical history, criminal history, or employment history, that contain names or personal identifiers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privacy Act Record System</I> means a system of records about individuals under the control of the Food and Drug Administration from which information is retrieved by individual names or other personal identifiers. The term includes such a system of records whether subject to a notice published by the Food and Drug Administration, the Department, or another agency. Where records are retrieved only by personal identifiers other than individual names, a system of records is not a Privacy Act Record System if the Food and Drug Administration cannot, by reference to information under its control, or by reference to records of contractors that are subject to this part under § 21.30, ascertain the identity of individuals who are the subjects of the records.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Personal identifiers</I> includes individual names, identifying numbers, symbols, or other identifying designations assigned to individuals. <I>Personal identifiers</I> does not include names, numbers, symbols, or other identifying designations that identify products, establishments, or actions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Personnel records</I> means any personal information maintained in a Privacy Act Record System that is needed for personnel management programs or processes such as staffing, employee development, retirement, and grievances and appeals.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Department</I> means Department of Health and Human Services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.10   Policy concerning records about individuals.</HEAD>
<P>Information about individuals in Food and Drug Administration records shall be collected, maintained, used, and disseminated so as to protect the right to privacy of the individual to the fullest possible extent consistent with laws relating to disclosure of information to the general public, the law enforcement responsibilities of the agency, and administrative and program management needs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Food and Drug Administration Privacy Act Record Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.20   Procedures for notice of Food and Drug Administration Privacy Act Record Systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration shall issue in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on or before August 30 of each year a notice concerning each Privacy Act Record System as defined in § 21.3(c) that is not covered by a notice published by the Department, the Office of Personnel Management, or another agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and location(s) of the system.
</P>
<P>(2) The categories of individuals about whom records are maintained in the system.
</P>
<P>(3) The categories of records maintained in the system.
</P>
<P>(4) The authority for the system.
</P>
<P>(5) Each routine use of the records contained in the system (i.e., use outside the Department of Health and Human Services that is compatible with the purpose for which the records were collected and described in the notice) including the categories of users and the purposes of such use.
</P>
<P>(6) The policies and practices of the Food and Drug Administration regarding storage, retrievability (i.e., how the records are indexed and what intra-agency uses are made of the records), access controls, retention, and disposal of the records in that system.
</P>
<P>(7) The title and business address of the official who is responsible for the system of records.
</P>
<P>(8) The notification procedure, i.e., the address of the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator, whom any individual can contact to seek notification whether the system contains a record about him/her.
</P>
<P>(9) The record access and contest procedures, which shall be the same as the notification procedure except that a reference shall be included to any exemption from access and contest.
</P>
<P>(10) Where any records in the system are subject to an exemption under § 21.61, a reference to this exemption.
</P>
<P>(11) The categories of sources of records in the system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8457, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.21   Changes in systems and new systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration shall notify the designated Department official, the Office of Management and Budget (Information Systems Division), and the Congress of proposals to change or establish Privacy Act Record Systems in accordance with procedures of the Department and the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration shall issue a notice, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and § 21.20(b), of any change in a Privacy Act Record System which:
</P>
<P>(1) Increases the number or types of individuals about whom records are maintained;
</P>
<P>(2) Expands the type or amount of information about individuals that is maintained;
</P>
<P>(3) Increases the number of categories of agencies or other persons who may have access to those records;
</P>
<P>(4) Alters the manner in which the records are organized so as to change the nature or scope of those records, such as the combining of two or more existing systems;
</P>
<P>(5) Modifies the way in which the system operates or its location(s) in a manner that alters the process by which individuals can exercise their rights under this part, such as the ways in which they seek access or request amendment of a record; or
</P>
<P>(6) Changes the equipment configuration on which the system is operated so as to create the potential for greater access, such as adding a telecommunications capability.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration shall issue a notice of its intention to establish new Privacy Act Record Systems in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and § 21.20(b).
</P>
<P>(d) Notices under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for comment at least 30 days prior to implementation of the proposed changes or establishment of new systems. Interested persons shall have the opportunity to submit written data, views, or arguments on such proposed new uses or systems.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Specific Categories of Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.30   Records of contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Systems of records that are required to be operated, or as a matter of practical necessity must be operated, by contractors to accomplish Food and Drug Administration functions, from which information is retrieved by individual names or other personal identifiers, may be subject to the provisions of this part. If the contract is agreed to on or after September 27, 1975, the criminal penalties set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(i) are applicable to such contractor, and any employee of such contractor, for disclosures prohibited in § 21.71 or for maintenance of a system of records without notice as required in § 21.20.
</P>
<P>(b) A contract is considered to accomplish a Food and Drug Administration function if the proposal or activity it supports is principally operated on behalf of and is under the direct management of the Food and Drug Administration. Systems of records from which information is retrieved by individual names or other personal identifiers and that are operated under contracts to accomplish Food and Drug Administration functions are deemed to be maintained by the agency and shall be subject to the procedures and requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A contract is not considered to accomplish a Food and Drug Administration function if the program or activity it supports is not principally operated on behalf of, or is not under the direct management of, the Food and Drug Administration. For example, this part does not apply to systems of records:
</P>
<P>(1) Operated under contract with the Food and Drug Administration by State or local government agencies, or organizations representing such agencies, when such agencies or organizations are also performing State or local government functions.
</P>
<P>(2) Operated by contractors with the Food and Drug Administration by individuals or organizations whose primary function is delivery of health services, such as hospitals, physicians, pharmacists, and other health professionals, and that report information concerning products, e.g., injuries or product defects, to the Food and Drug Administration. Before such contractors submit information to the Food and Drug Administration, the names and other personal identifiers of patients or research subjects in any medical or similar report, test, study, or other research project shall be deleted, unless the contract provides otherwise. If the Food and Drug Administration subsequently needs the names of such individuals, a separate request will be made.
</P>
<P>(3) Relating to individuals whom the contractor employs, or with whom the contractor otherwise deals, in the course of providing goods and services to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(4) Operated under grants.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of this part shall apply when a contractor who operates a system of records not subject to this part reports to the Food and Drug Administration information that is a system of records about individuals from which personal information is retrieved by names or other personal identifiers. Where the information would be a new Privacy Act Record System, or a change in an existing Privacy Act Record System of a type described in § 21.21, the Food and Drug Administration shall comply with the requirements of § 21.21.
</P>
<P>(e) The Food and Drug Administration will review all contracts before award to determine whether operation of a system from which information is retrieved by individual names or other personal identifiers will be required of the contractor, by the terms of the contract or as a matter of practical necessity. If such operation will be required, the solicitation and contract shall include the following clause, or a clause of similar effect:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Whenever the contractor or any of his employees is required by this contract to operate a system of records from which information is retrieved by individual names or other personal identifiers in order to accomplish a Food and Drug Administration function, the contractor and every employee is considered to be an employee of the Food and Drug Administration and shall operate such system of records in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), regulations of the Food and Drug Administration in 21 CFR part 21, and rules of conduct that apply to Food and Drug Administration employees who work with such systems of records. The contractor and his employees are subject to the criminal penalties set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(i) for violations of the Privacy Act.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.31   Records stored by the National Archives and Records Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Food and Drug Administration records that are stored, processed, and serviced by the National Archives and Records Administration in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3103 shall be considered to be maintained by the Food and Drug Administration. The National Archives and Records Administration shall not disclose the record except to authorized Food and Drug Administration employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Food and Drug Administration record pertaining to an identifiable individual that was transferred to the National Archives of the United States as a record determined by the National Archives to have sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation shall be considered to be maintained by the National Archives and shall not be subject to the provisions of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.32   Personnel records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Present and former Food and Drug Administration employees desiring access to personnel records about themselves should consult system notices applicable to the agency's personnel records that are published by the Office of Personnel Management and the Department as well as any notice issued by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The procedures of the Office of Personnel Management at 5 CFR parts 293, 294, and 297 rather than the procedures in § 21.33 and subparts D through F of this part, govern systems of personnel records about Food and Drug Administration employees that are subject to notice published by the Office of Personnel Management, i.e., systems that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Office of Personnel Management maintains.
</P>
<P>(ii) Are maintained by the Division of Human Resources Management, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(iii) Are maintained by Department Regional Offices, concerning field employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The Office of Personnel Management's procedures may, if necessary, be supplemented in the Food and Drug Administration Staff Manual Guide. Current Food and Drug Administration employees should mail or deliver written requests under the Privacy Act for access to personnel records described in this paragraph to the Office of Personnel Management in accordance with 5 CFR 297.106, the Director, Division of Human Resources Management HR-BETHPL RM7114, HFA-705, 7700 Wisconsin Ave., 7th &amp; 8th floors, Bethesda, MD 20814, or the personnel officer in the servicing HHS Regional Personnel Office. An employee may consult with or direct his or her request to the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator (the Privacy Act Coordinator is part of the Freedom of Information Staff, the address for which is located on the Agency Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>). Requests for access to personnel records of former employees that are located in Federal Records Centers should be directed to the Office of Personnel Management. Requests under the Privacy Act for amendment of personnel records should be directed to these same officials who are responsible for access to personnel records under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to records subject to paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Refusal to grant access to a record, or refusal to amend a record upon request of an employee, shall only be made by the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations or his or her designate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Appeals of refusals under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section may be made to the Office of Personnel Management in accordance with 5 CFR 297.108(g)(3) and 297.113(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Any other Privacy Act Record Systems that contain personnel records, or records that otherwise concern agency employees, that are maintained by offices of the Food and Drug Administration rather than the Division of Human Resources Management but which are not subject to the Department's notice for personnel records in operating offices are subject to this part, except that refusals under this part to grant access to or amend records about present or former employees shall be made by the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations rather than the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs.
</P>
<P>(d) The following procedures shall govern requests under the Privacy Act for personnel records that are maintained by the operating offices of the Food and Drug Administration in which employees work:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee shall upon request be told whether records about him are maintained. An employee shall be given access to records about himself that are subject to this paragraph in response to an oral or written request and through informal procedures, rather than the procedures specified in §§ 21.40 through 21.43.
</P>
<P>(2) Employee identity may be verified, if necessary, by an FDA ID card rather than in accordance with § 21.44.
</P>
<P>(3) Generally no fee shall be charged for records requested under this paragraph. However, in cases where the records requested are voluminous, a fee may be charged in accordance with § 21.45.
</P>
<P>(4) Records that are subject to this paragraph shall be available for access to an individual, except to the extent that access is refused by the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations or his or her designate on the grounds that the record is subject to an exemption under § 21.61 or 5 CFR 297.111.
</P>
<P>(5) Requests under the Privacy Act for amendment of records subject to this paragraph should be directed to the Director, Division of Human Resources Management (HFA-400). Such requests shall be reviewed in accordance with subpart E of this part. Refusal to amend a record subject to this paragraph (d)(5) shall only be made by the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations or his or her designate.
</P>
<P>(6) Appeals of refusals under paragraph (d) (4) or (5) of this section may be made to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, except where the Associate Commissioner for Management and Operations or his or her designate indicates with his or her refusal that the appeal should be made to the Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(7) Disclosures of records subject to this paragraph are subject to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8457, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985; 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.33" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.33   Medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, an individual is entitled to have access to any medical records about himself in Privacy Act Record Systems maintained by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration may apply the following special procedures in disclosing medical records to an individual:
</P>
<P>(1) The agency may review the records to determine whether disclosure of the record to the individual who is the subject of the records might have an adverse effect on him. If it is determined that disclosure is not likely to have an adverse effect on the individual, the record shall be disclosed to him. If it is determined that disclosure is very likely to have an adverse effect on the individual, he may be requested to designate, in writing, a representative to whom the record shall be disclosed. Such representative may be a physician, other health professional, or other responsible person who would be willing to review the record and discuss it with the individual.
</P>
<P>(2) The availability of the record may be subject to any procedures for disclosure to an individual of medical records about himself under part 20 of this chapter, in addition to or in lieu of the procedures in paragraph (b)(1), that are not inconsistent with § 21.41(f).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures for Notification of and Access to Records in Privacy Act Record Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.40   Procedures for submitting requests for notification and access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual may request that the Food and Drug Administration notify him whether a Privacy Act Record System contains records about him that are retrieved by reference to his name or other personal identifier. An individual may at the same time, or after receiving notification that such a record about him exists, requests that he be given access to the record.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual desiring notification or access to records shall mail or deliver a request for records in any Food and Drug Administration Privacy Act Records System to the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator (address is located on the agency web site at <I>http://www.gov.fda</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) Requests shall be in writing and shall name the Privacy Act Record System or Systems concerning which the individual requests notification of whether there are records about him that are retrieved by reference to his name or other personal identifier. To help assure a prompt response, an individual should indicate that he is making a “Privacy Act Request” on the envelope and in a prominent manner in the letter.
</P>
<P>(d) An individual who merely wishes to be notified whether a Privacy Act Record System contains a record about him ordinarily need not provide any verification of his identity other than his name. The mere fact that the Food and Drug Administration has a record about an individual in any of its Privacy Act Records Systems would not be likely to constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Where mere disclosure of the fact that a record about the individual exists would be a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, further verification of the identity of the individual shall be required.
</P>
<P>(e) An individual who requests that he be given access to a copy of records about himself, if any exist, should indicate whether he prefers (1) to have copies of any such records mailed to him in accordance with § 21.43(a)(1), which may involve a fee under § 21.45, including information to verify his identity under § 21.44 or (2) to use the procedures for access in person under § 21.43(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) A request for notification and access may be submitted under this subpart concerning any Privacy Act Record System that is exempt under § 21.61, as indicated in the notice for the system. An individual seeking access to records under § 21.65(b)(2) to investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes other than criminal law enforcement purposes should submit a description of the right, benefit, or privilege that he believes he was denied as the result of the Food and Drug Administration's maintenance of the records. Where the system is exempt under § 21.61, and access to the requested records is not granted under § 21.65, the request shall be handled under the provisions of part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8458, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985; 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.41" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.41   Processing of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual or his guardian under § 21.75 shall not be required to show any justification or need to obtain notification under § 21.42 or access to a record under § 21.43.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration will determine whether a request by an individual for records about himself is appropriately treated as a request under this subpart, or under the provision of part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations), or both. Where appropriate, the Food and Drug Administration will consult with the individual concerning the appropriate treatment of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) The FDA Privacy Act Coordinator in the Division of Freedom of Information (address is located on the agency web site at <I>http://www.gov.fda</I>) shall be responsible for the handling of Privacy Act requests received by the Food and Drug Administration. Requests mailed or delivered to any other office shall be promptly redirected to the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator. Where this procedure would unduly delay the agency's response, however, the agency employee who received the request should consult with the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator and obtain advice as to whether the employee can respond to the request directly.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of a request by the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator, a record shall promptly be made that a request has been received and the date.
</P>
<P>(e) A letter in accordance with § 21.42 responding to the request for notification shall issue as promptly as possible after receipt of the request by the Food and Drug Administration. Upon determination by the Division of Freedom of Information  (address is located on the agency web site at <I>http://www.gov.fda</I>) that a request for access to records is appropriately treated as a request under part 20 of this chapter rather than part 21, or under both parts, the time limitations prescribed in § 21.41 shall apply. In any case, access to available records shall be provided as promptly as possible.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided in § 21.32, an individual's access to records about him/herself that are retrieved by his/her name or other personal identifiers and contained in any Privacy Act Record System may only be denied by the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs or his or her designate. An individual shall not be denied access to any record that is otherwise available to him/her under this part except on the grounds that it is exempt under § 21.65(a)(2), that it was compiled in reasonable anticipation of court litigation of formal administrative proceedings, or to the extent that it is exempt or prohibited from disclosure because it includes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential information the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy of another individual.
</P>
<P>(g) The FDA Privacy Act Coordinator shall ensure that records are maintained of the number, status, and disposition of requests under this subpart, including the number of requests for records exempt from access under this subpart and other information required for purposes of the annual report to Congress under the Privacy Act. These temporary administrative management records shall not be considered to be Privacy Act Record Systems. All records required to be kept under this paragraph shall only include requesting individuals' names or personal identifiers for so long as any request for notification, access, or amendment is pending. The identity of individuals making request under this subpart shall be regarded as confidential and shall not be disclosed under part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations) to any other person or agency except as is necessary for the processing of requests under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8458, Jan. 27, 1981; 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.42" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.42   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDA shall respond to an individual's request for notification as to whether a Privacy Act Record System contains records about him that are retrieved by his name or other personal identifier by sending a letter under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) If there are no records about the individual that are retrieved by his name or other personal identifier in the named Privacy Act Record System, or the requester is not an “individual” under § 21.3(a), the letter shall so state. Where appropriate, the letter shall indicate that the Food and Drug Administration's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter prescribe general rules governing the availability of information to members of the public, and that a request may be made in accordance with part 20 of this chapter for records that are not retrieved by the requester's name or other personal identifier from a Privacy Act Record System.
</P>
<P>(2) If there are records about the individual that are retrieved by his name or other personal identifier and the named Privacy Act Record System is not exempt from individual access and contest under § 21.61, or the system is exempt but access is allowed or required under § 21.65, the letter shall inform him that the records exist and shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Enclose a copy of the records under § 21.43(a)(1) or indicate that the records will be sent under separate cover, where there has been adequate verification of the identity of the individual under § 21.44 and the fees under § 21.45 do not exceed $25, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the individual of the procedures to obtain access to the records by mail or in person under § 21.43(a)(2), as well as the approximate dates by which the requested records can be provided (if the records are not then available), the locations at which access in person may be had, and the information needed, if any, to verify the identity of the individual under § 21.44.
</P>
<P>(3) If the named Privacy Act Record System contains records about the individual that are retrieved by his name or other personal identifier, and the system is exempt from individual access and contest under § 21.61 and access is not allowed or required under § 21.65, the letter should inform him that the records are exempted from access and contest by § 21.61. The letter shall also inform him if the records sought are not available because they were compiled in reasonable anticipation of court litigation or formal administrative proceedings or are otherwise not available under § 21.41(b). Where appropriate, the letter shall also indicate whether the records are available under part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations), and it may disclose the records in accordance with part 20.
</P>
<P>(4) If the named Privacy Act Record System contains records about the individual that are retrieved by his name or other personal identifier, but a final determination has not yet been made with respect to disclosure of all of the records covered by the request, e.g., because it is necessary to consult another person or agency having an interest in the confidentiality of the records, the letter shall explain the circumstances and indicate when a final answer will be given.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 21.32, access to a record may only be denied by the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs or his or her designate. If access to any record is denied wholly or in substantial part, the letter shall state the right of the individual to appeal to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(c) If a request for a copy of the records will result in a fee of more than $25, the letter shall specify or estimate the fee involved. Where the individual has requested a copy of any records about him and copying the records would result in a fee of over $50, the Food and Drug Administration shall require advance deposit as well as payment of any amount not yet received as a result of any previous request by the individual for a record about himself, under this subpart or part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations) before the records are made available. If the fee is less than $50, prepayment shall not be required unless payment has not yet been received for records disclosed as a result of a previous request by the individual for a record about himself under this subpart or part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8458, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.43" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.43   Access to requested records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Access may be granted to requested records by:
</P>
<P>(1) Mailing a copy of the records to the requesting individual, or
</P>
<P>(2) Permitting the requesting individual to review the records in person between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. at the office of the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator, at the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room (address is located on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>), or at any Food and Drug Administration field office, listed in part 5, subpart M of this chapter, or at another location or time upon which the Food and Drug Administration and the individual agree. Arrangement for such review can be made by consultation between the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator and the individual. An individual seeking to review records in person shall generally be permitted access to the file copy, except that where the records include nondisclosable information, a copy shall be made of that portion of the records, with the nondisclosable information blocked out. Where the individual is not given a copy of the record to retain, no charge shall be made for the cost of copying a record to make it available to an individual who reviews a record in person under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual may request that a record be disclosed to or discussed in the presence of another individual, such as an attorney. The individual may be required to furnish a written statement authorizing the disclosure or discussion in such other individual's presence.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration will make every reasonable effort to assure that records made available under this section can be understood by the individual, such as by providing an oral or written explanation of the records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8458, Jan. 27, 1981; 69 FR 17290, Apr. 2, 2004; 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.44" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.44   Verification of identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual seeking access to records in a Privacy Act Record System may be required to comply with reasonable requirements to enable the Food and Drug Administration to determine his identity. The identification required shall be suitable considering the nature of the records sought. No identification shall be required to receive access to information that is required to be disclosed to any member of the public under part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations).
</P>
<P>(b) An individual who appears in person for access to records about himself shall be required to provide at least one document to identify himself, e.g., driver's license, passport, or alien or voter registration card to verify his identity. If an individual does not have any such document or requests access to records about himself without appearing in person under circumstances in which his identity cannot be verified from the request itself, he shall be required to certify in writing that he is the individual he claims to be and that he understands that the knowing and willful request for or acquisition of a record pertaining to an individual under false pretenses is a criminal offense subject to a $5,000 fine.
</P>
<P>(c) In making requests under § 21.75, a parent of a minor child or legal guardian of an incompetent individual may be required to verify his relationship to the minor child or the incompetent individual, in addition to verifying his own identity, by providing a copy of the minor's birth certificate, a court order, or other evidence of guardianship.
</P>
<P>(d) Where an individual seeks access to particularly sensitive records, such as medical records, the individual may be required to provide additional information beyond that specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, such as the individual's years of attendance at a particular educational institution, rank attained in the uniformed services, date or place of birth, names of parents, an occupation, or the specific times the individual received medical treatment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.4.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.45   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where applicable, fees for copying records shall be charged in accordance with the schedule set forth in this section. Fees may only be charged where an individual has requested that a copy be made of a record to which he is granted access. No fee may be charged for making a search of a Privacy Act Record System whether the search is manual, mechanical, or electronic. Where a copy of the record must be made to provide access to the record, e.g., computer printout where no screen reading is available, the copy shall be made available to the individual without cost. Where a medical record is made available to a representative designated by the individual under § 21.33, no fee will be charged.
</P>
<P>(b) The fee schedule is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Copying of records susceptible to photocopying—$.10 per page.
</P>
<P>(2) Copying of records not susceptible to photocopying, e.g., punch cards or magnetic tapes—at actual cost to the determined on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(3) No charge will be made if the total amount of copying for an individual does not exceed $25.
</P>
<P>(c) When a fee is to be assessed, the individual shall be notified prior to the processing of the copies, and be given an opportunity to amend his request. Payment shall be made by check or money order made payable to the “Food and Drug Administration,” and shall be sent to the Accounting Branch (HFA-120), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857. Advance deposit shall be required where the total amount exceeds $50.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Procedures for Requests for Amendment of Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.50   Procedures for submitting requests for amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual who received access to a record about himself under subpart D of this part may request that the record be amended if he believes that the record or an item of information is not accurate, relevant to a Food and Drug Administration purpose, timely, or complete.
</P>
<P>(b) Amendments under this subpart shall not violate existing statute, regulation, or administrative procedure.
</P>
<P>(1) This subpart does not permit alteration of evidence presented in the course of judicial proceedings or Food and Drug Administration adjudicatory or rule making proceedings or collateral attack upon that which has already been the subject of any such proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) If the accuracy, relevancy, timeliness, or completeness of the records may be contested in any other pending or imminent agency proceeding, the Food and Drug Administration may refer the individual to the other proceeding as the appropriate means to obtain relief. If the accuracy, relevance, timeliness, or completeness of a record is, or has been, an issue in another agency proceeding, the request under this section shall be disposed of in accordance with the decision in the other proceeding, absent unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests to amend records shall be submitted, in writing, to the FDA Privacy Act Coordinator in accordance with § 21.40(b). Such requests shall include information sufficient to enable the Food and Drug Administration to locate the record, a brief description of the items of information requested to be amended, and the reasons why the record should be amended together with any appropriate documentation or arguments in support of the requested amendment. An edited copy of the record showing the described amendment may be included. Verification of identity should be provided in accordance with § 21.44.
</P>
<P>(d) Written acknowledgement of the receipt of a request to amend a record shall be provided within 10 working days to the individual who requested the amendment. Such acknowledgement may request any additional information needed to verify identity or make a determination. No acknowledgement need be made if the request can be reviewed, processed, and the individual notified of the agency's agreement with the request or refusal within the 10-day period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8459, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.51   Responses to requests for amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration shall take one of the following actions on a request for amendment of records as promptly as possible:
</P>
<P>(1) Amend any portion of the record which the agency has determined, based upon a preponderance of the evidence, is not accurate, relevant to a Food and Drug Administration purpose, timely, or complete, and, in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section, inform the individual and previous recipients of the record that has been amended of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the individual of its refusal to amend any portion of the record in the manner requested, the reason for the refusal, and the opportunity for administrative appeal to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. Except as provided in § 21.32, such refusal may only be issued by the Associate Commissioner for Public Affairs or his or her designate.
</P>
<P>(3) Where another agency was the source of and has control of the record, refer the request to that agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency may, for good cause, extend the period for taking action an additional 30 working days if notice is provided to the individual explaining the circumstances of the delay.
</P>
<P>(c) The officials charged with reviewing a record to determine how to respond to a request to amend it, shall assess its accuracy, relevance to a Food and Drug Administration purpose, timeliness, or completeness. The determination shall be made in the light of the purpose for which the records or system is used, the agency's need for the record, and the possible adverse consequences to the individual from the record if not amended. Whenever the Food and Drug Administration receives a request for deletion of a record, or portions of a record, it shall consider anew whether the contested information in the record is relevant and necessary to a Food and Drug Administration purpose.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Food and Drug Administration agrees with an individual's request, it shall take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) So inform the individual in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with statute, regulation, or procedure, amend the record to make it accurate, relevant to a Food and Drug Administration purpose, timely, or complete, making note of the date and fact of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(3) If an accounting was made under § 21.71(d) of a disclosure of the record under § 21.71(a), provide a copy of the record as amended, to all previous recipients of the record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8459, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.52" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.52   Administrative appeals of refusals to amend records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an individual disagrees with a refusal under § 21.51(a)(2) to amend a record, he or she may appeal that refusal to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs,(see the address on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) If, upon appeal, the Commissioner upholds the refusal to amend the record as requested, he shall inform the individual:
</P>
<P>(1) Of his decision and the reasons for it.
</P>
<P>(2) Of the individual's right to file with the Food and Drug Administration a concise statement of the individual's reasons for disagreeing with the agency's decision not to amend the record as requested.
</P>
<P>(3) That the statement of disagreement will be made available to all persons listed in an accounting as having previously received the record and any person to whom the record is subsequently disclosed together with, in the discretion of the Food and Drug Administration, a brief statement summarizing its reasons for refusing to amend the record. Any individual who includes false information in the statement of disagreement filed with the Food and Drug Administration may be subject to penalties under 18 U.S.C. 1001, the False Reports to the Government Act.
</P>
<P>(4) That the individual has a right to seek judicial review of the refusal to amend the record.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commissioner on administrative appeal or a court on judicial review determines that the record should be amended in accordance with the individual's request, the Food and Drug Administration shall proceed in accordance with § 21.51(d).
</P>
<P>(d) A final determination on the individual's administrative appeal of the initial refusal to amend the record shall be concluded within 30 working days of the request for such review under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the Commissioner extends such period for good cause and informs the individual in writing of the reasons for the delay and of the approximate date on which a decision of the appeal can be expected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.53" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.5.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.53   Notation and disclosure of disputed records.</HEAD>
<P>When an individual has filed a statement of disagreement under § 21.52(b)(2), the Food and Drug Administration shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Mark any portion of the record that is disputed to assure that the record will clearly show that portion is disputed whenever the record is disclosed.
</P>
<P>(b) In any subsequent disclosure under § 21.70 or § 21.71(a), provide a copy of the statement of disagreement and, if the Food and Drug Administration deems it appropriate, a concise statement of the agency's reasons for not making the amendment(s) requested. While the individual shall have access to any such statement, it shall not be subject to a request for amendment under § 21.50.
</P>
<P>(c) If an accounting was made under § 21.71(d) and (e) of a disclosure of the record under § 21.71(a), provide to all previous recipients of the record a copy of the statement of disagreement and the agency statement, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.54" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.5.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.54   Amended or disputed records received from other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Food and Drug Administration is notified that a record that it received from another agency was amended or is the subject of a statement of disagreement, the Food and Drug Administration shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Discard the record, or clearly note the amendment or the fact of disagreement in its copy of the record, and
</P>
<P>(b) Refer persons who subsequently request the record to the agency that provided it.
</P>
<P>(c) If an accounting was made under § 21.71 (d) and (e) of the disclosure of the record under § 21.71(a), inform all previous recipients of the record about the amendment or provide to them the statement of disagreement and the agency statement, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.60   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Food and Drug Administration that record systems should be exempted from the Privacy Act only to the extent essential to the performance of law enforcement functions under the laws that are administered and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration or that govern the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.61" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.6.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.61   Exempt systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, including criminal law enforcement purposes, in the Food and Drug Administration Privacy Act Record Systems listed in paragraph (b) of this section are exempt from the following provisions of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Such records are exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and § 21.71(e)(4), requiring that an individual be provided with the accounting of disclosures of records about himself from a Privacy Act Record System.
</P>
<P>(2) Except where access is required under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and § 21.65(a)(2), (such records are exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1) through (4) and (f)) and §§ 21.40 through 21.54, requiring procedures for an individual to be given notification of and access to records about himself in a Privacy Act Record System and to be allowed to challenge the accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness of such records.
</P>
<P>(3) Such records are exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) and § 21.20(b)(1) requiring inclusion in the notice for the system of information about agency procedures for notification, access, and contest.
</P>
<P>(4) Such records are exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3) requiring that individuals asked to supply information be provided a form outlining the authority for the request, the purposes for which the information will be used, the routine uses in the notice for the Privacy Act Record System, and the consequences to the individual of not providing the information, but only with respect to records compiled by the Food and Drug Administration in a criminal law enforcement investigation where the conduct of the investigation would be prejudiced by such procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) Records in the following Food and Drug Administration Privacy Act Record Systems that concern individuals who are subject to Food and Drug Administration enforcement action and consist of investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, including criminal law enforcement purposes, are exempt under 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) and (k)(2) from the provisions enumerated in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Bio-research Monitoring Information System—HHS/FDA/09-10-0010.
</P>
<P>(2) Regulated Industry Employee Enforcement Records—HHS/FDA/ACMO/09-10-002.
</P>
<P>(3) Employee Conduct Investigative Records—HHS/FDA/ACMO/09-10-0013.
</P>
<P>(c) The system described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section includes investigatory records compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualification for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, and access to classified information. These records are exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) to the extent that the disclosure would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under a promise of confidentiality, which must be an express promise if the information was furnished after September 27, 1975. Any individual who is refused access to a record that would reveal a confidential source shall be advised in a general way that the record includes information that would reveal a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(d) Records in the following Food and Drug Administration Privacy Act Records Systems are exempt under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and (k)(5) from the provisions enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) through paragraph (a)(3) of this section: FDA Records Related to Research Misconduct Proceedings, HHS/FDA/OC, 09-10-0020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8459, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985; 78 FR 39186, July 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.65" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.6.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.65   Access to records in exempt systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a Privacy Act Record System is exempt and the requested records are unavailable under § 21.61, an individual may nevertheless make a request under § 21.40 for notification concerning whether any records about him exist and request access to such records where they are retrieved by his name or other personal identifier.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual making a request under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(1) May be given access to the records where available under part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations) or the Commissioner may, in his discretion, entertain a request under any or all of the provisions of §§ 21.40 through 21.54; and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall be given access upon request if the records requested are subject to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) and not to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) (i.e., because they consist of investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than criminal law enforcement purposes) and maintenance of the records resulted in denial to the individual of any right, benefit, or privilege to which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, or for which he would otherwise be eligible. An individual given access to a record under this paragraph (b)(2) is not entitled to seek amendment under subpart E of this part. The FDA may refuse to disclose a record that would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under a promise of confidentiality, which must be an express promise if the information was furnished on or after September 27, 1975. Any individual refused access to a record that would reveal a confidential source shall be advised in a general way that the record contains information that would reveal a confidential source.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner shall not make available any record that is prohibited from public disclosure under § 20.82(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Discretionary disclosure of a record pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not set a precedent for discretionary disclosure of a similar or related record and shall not obligate the Commissioner to exercise his discretion to disclose any other record in a system that is exempt under § 21.61.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Disclosure of Records in Privacy Act Record Systems to Persons Other Than the Subject Individual</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.7.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.70   Disclosure and intra-agency use of records in Privacy Act Record Systems; no accounting required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A record about an individual which is contained in a Privacy Act Record System may be disclosed:
</P>
<P>(1) To the individual who is the subject of the record, or his legal guardian under § 21.75;
</P>
<P>(2) To a third party pursuant to a written request by, or within a written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, or his legal guardian under § 21.75;
</P>
<P>(3) To any person:
</P>
<P>(i) Where the names and other identifying information are first deleted, and under circumstances in which the recipient is unlikely to know the identity of the subject of the record;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where disclosure is required by part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations); or
</P>
<P>(4) Within the Department of Health and Human Services to officers and employees who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties in connection with the laws administered and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration or that govern the agency. For purposes of this section, officers or employees of the Department shall include the following categories of individuals, who shall thereafter be subject to the same restrictions with respect to disclosure as any Food and Drug Administration employee: Food and Drug Administration consultants and advisory committees, State and local government employees for use only in their work with the Food and Drug Administration, and contractors and their employees to the extent that the records of such contractors are subject to the requirements of this part under § 21.30.
</P>
<P>(b) No accounting is required for any disclosure or use under paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.71" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.7.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.71   Disclosure of records in Privacy Act Record Systems; accounting required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 21.70, a record about an individual that is contained in a Privacy Act Record System shall not be disclosed by any method of communication except under any of the following circumstances, which are subject to the limitations of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and to the accounting requirement of paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) To those officers and employees of the agency which maintains the record who have a need for the record in the perfomance of their duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Required under section 552 of the Freedom of Information Act;
</P>
<P>(3) For a routine use as described in the routine use section of each specific system notice;
</P>
<P>(4) To the Bureau of Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of title 13 of the U.S. Code;
</P>
<P>(5) To a recipient who has provided the agency with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and that the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable;
</P>
<P>(6) To the National Archives and Records Administration of the United States as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the U.S. Government, or to the Archivist of the United States or his or her designee for evaluation to determine whether the record has such value;
</P>
<P>(7) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any government jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the agency which maintains the record specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought;
</P>
<P>(8) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if, upon such disclosure, notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual;
</P>
<P>(9) To either House of Congress or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee;
</P>
<P>(10) To the Comptroller General, or any of his or her authorized representatives in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office;
</P>
<P>(11) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(12) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3(d) of the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966 (31 U.S.C. 952(d)). (This “Special Disclosure” statement does not apply to any FDA system of records.)
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration may in its discretion refuse to make a disclosure permitted under paragraph (a) of this section, if the disclosure would in the judgment of the agency, invade the privacy of the individual or be inconsistent with the purpose for which the information was collected.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration may require any person requesting a disclosure of a record under paragraph (a) of this section to provide:
</P>
<P>(1) Information about the purposes to which the disclosed record is to be put, and
</P>
<P>(2) A written statement certifying that the record will be used only for the stated purposes and will not be further disclosed without the written permission of the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<FP>Under 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3), any person who knowingly or willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from an agency under false pretenses shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000. Such person may also be subject to prosecution under the False Reports to the Government Act, 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</FP>
<P>(d) An accounting shall be made, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, of any disclosure under paragraph (a) of this section of a record that is not a disclosure under § 21.70.
</P>
<P>(e) Where an accounting is required under paragraph (d) of this section, the Food and Drug Administration shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Record the name and address of the person or agency to whom the disclosure is made and the date, nature, and purpose of the disclosure. The accounting shall not be considered a Privacy Act Record System.
</P>
<P>(2) Retain the accounting for 5 years or for the life of the record, whichever is longer, following the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) Notify those recipients listed in the accounting of amendments or disputes concerning the records previously disclosed to them pursuant to § 21.51(d)(3), § 21.53(c), or § 21.54(c).
</P>
<P>(4) Except when the record is exempt from individual access and contest under § 21.61 or to the extent that the accounting describes a transfer for a law enforcement purpose pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section, make the accounting available to the individual to whom the record pertains, in accordance with procedures of subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) A single accounting may be used to cover disclosure(s) that consist of a continuing dialogue between two agencies over a prolonged period, such as discussion of an enforcement action between the Food and Drug Administration and the Department of Justice. In such cases, a general notation may be made that, as of a certain date, contract was initiated, to continue until resolution of the matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15626, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 52278, Dec. 23, 1985; 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.72" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.7.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.72   Individual consent to disclosure of records to other persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals may consent to disclosure of records about themselves to other persons in several ways, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual may give consent at the time that the information is collected for disclosure for specific purposes or to specific persons.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual may give consent for disclosure of his records to a specific person.
</P>
<P>(3) An individual may request the Food and Drug Administration to transcribe a specific record for submission to another person.
</P>
<P>(b) In each case the consent shall be in writing and shall specify the individual, organizational unit, or class of individuals or organizational units to whom the record may be disclosed, which record may be disclosed, and, if applicable, for what time period. A blanket consent to release all of an individual's records to unspecified individuals or organizational units will not be honored. Verification of the identity of the individual and, where applicable, of the person to whom the record is to be disclosed shall be made in accordance with § 21.44. Consent documents shall be retained for a period of at least 2 years. If such documents are used as a means of accounting for the disclosure, they shall be retained as provided in § 21.71(e)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.73" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.7.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.73   Accuracy, completeness, timeliness, and relevance of records disclosed from Privacy Act Record Systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration shall make reasonable efforts to assure that a record about an individual in a Privacy Act Record System is accurate, relevant to a Food and Drug Administration purpose, timely, and complete before such record is disclosed under § 21.71.
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to disclosures that are required under part 20 of this chapter (the public information regulations) or made to other Federal Government departments and agencies. Where appropriate, the letter disclosing the information shall indicate that the Food and Drug Administration has not reviewed the record to assure that it is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.74" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.7.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.74   Providing notice that a record is disputed.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever an individual has filed a statement of disagreement with the Food and Drug Administration concerning a refusal to amend a record under § 21.51(a)(2) or with another agency that provides the record to the Food and Drug Administration, the Food and Drug Administration shall in any subsequent disclosure under this subpart provide a copy of the statement of disagreement and a concise statement by the agency, if one has been prepared, of the reasons for not making the amendment(s) requested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.75" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.17.7.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.75   Rights of legal guardians.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the parent of any individual who is a minor or the legal guardian of any individual who has been declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction may act on behalf of the individual.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 25—ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT CONSIDERATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321-393; 42 U.S.C. 262, 263b-264; 42 U.S.C. 4321, 4332; 40 CFR parts 1500-1508; E.O. 11514, 35 FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1971 Comp., p. 531-533 as amended by E.O. 11991, 42 FR 26967, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 123-124 and E.O. 12114, 44 FR 1957, 3 CFR, 1980 Comp., p. 356-360.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 25 appear at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended, directs that, to the fullest extent possible, the policies, regulations, and public laws of the United States shall be interpreted and administered in accordance with the policies set forth in NEPA. All agencies of the Federal Government shall comply with the procedures in section 102(2) of NEPA except where compliance would be inconsistent with other statutory requirements. The regulations in this part implement section 102(2) of NEPA in a manner that is consistent with FDA's authority under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the Public Health Service Act. This part also supplements the regulations for implementing the procedural provisions of NEPA that were published by the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) in 40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508 and the procedures included in the “HHS General Administration Manual, part 30: Environmental Protection” (45 FR 76519 to 76534, November 19, 1980). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.5   Terminology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions that apply to the terms used in this part are set forth in the CEQ regulations under 40 CFR part 1508. The terms and the sections of 40 CFR part 1508 in which they are defined follow:
</P>
<P>(1) Categorical exclusion (40 CFR 1508.4).
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperating agency (40 CFR 1508.5).
</P>
<P>(3) Cumulative impact (40 CFR 1508.7).
</P>
<P>(4) Effects (40 CFR 1508.8).
</P>
<P>(5) Environmental assessment (EA) (40 CFR 1508.9).
</P>
<P>(6) Environmental document (40 CFR 1508.10).
</P>
<P>(7) Environmental impact statement (EIS) (40 CFR 1508.11).
</P>
<P>(8) Federal agency (40 CFR 1508.12).
</P>
<P>(9) Finding of no significant impact (40 CFR 1508.13).
</P>
<P>(10) Human environment (40 CFR 1508.14).
</P>
<P>(11) Lead agency (40 CFR 1508.16).
</P>
<P>(12) Legislation (40 CFR 1508.17).
</P>
<P>(13) Major Federal action (40 CFR 1508.18).
</P>
<P>(14) Mitigation (40 CFR 1508.20).
</P>
<P>(15) NEPA process (40 CFR 1508.21).
</P>
<P>(16) Notice of intent (40 CFR 1508.22).
</P>
<P>(17) Proposal (40 CFR 1508.23).
</P>
<P>(18) Scope (40 CFR 1508.25).
</P>
<P>(19) Significantly (40 CFR 1508.27).
</P>
<P>(b) The following terms are defined solely for the purpose of implementing the supplemental procedures provided by this part and are not necessarily applicable to any other statutory or regulatory requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Abbreviated application</I> applies to an abbreviated new drug application and an abbreviated new animal drug application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Active moiety</I> means the molecule or ion, excluding those appended portions of the molecule that cause the drug to be an ester, salt (including a salt with hydrogen or coordination bonds), or other noncovalent derivative (such as a complex chelate or clathrate) of the molecule responsible for the physiological or pharmacological action of the drug substance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agency</I> means the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Increased use</I> of a drug or biologic product may occur if the drug will be administered at higher dosage levels, for longer duration or for different indications than were previously in effect, or if the drug is a new molecular entity. The term “use” also encompasses disposal of FDA-regulated articles by consumers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Responsible agency official</I> means the agency decisionmaker designated in the delegated authority for the underlying actions.
</P>
<P>(c) The following acronyms are used in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) CEQ—Council on Environmental Quality.
</P>
<P>(2) CGMP—Current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(3) EA—Environmental assessment.
</P>
<P>(4) EIS—Environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(5) The act—Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(6) FIFRA—Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.
</P>
<P>(7) FONSI—Finding of no significant impact.
</P>
<P>(8) GLP—Good laboratory practice.
</P>
<P>(9) GRAS—Generally recognized as safe.
</P>
<P>(10) HACCP—Hazard analysis critical control point.
</P>
<P>(11) IDE—Investigational device exemption.
</P>
<P>(12) IND—Investigational new drug application.
</P>
<P>(13) INAD—Investigational new animal drug application.
</P>
<P>(14) NADA—New animal drug application.
</P>
<P>(15) NDA—New drug application.
</P>
<P>(16) NEPA—National Environmental Policy Act of 1969.
</P>
<P>(17) OTC—Over-the-counter.
</P>
<P>(18) PDP—Product development protocol.
</P>
<P>(19) PMA—Premarket approval application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999; 69 FR 17291, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.10   Policies and NEPA planning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All FDA's policies and programs will be planned, developed, and implemented to achieve the policies declared by NEPA and required by CEQ's regulations to ensure responsible stewardship of the environment for present and future generations.
</P>
<P>(b) Assessment of environmental factors continues throughout planning and is integrated with other program planning at the earliest possible time to ensure that planning and decisions reflect environmental values, to avoid delays later in the process, and to avoid potential conflicts.
</P>
<P>(c) For actions initiated by the agency, the NEPA process will begin when the agency action under consideration is first identified. For actions initiated by applicants or petitioners, NEPA planning begins when FDA receives from an applicant or petitioner an EA or a claim that a categorical exclusion applies, or when FDA personnel consult with applicants or petitioners on the NEPA-related aspects of their requested actions. FDA may issue a public call for environmental data or otherwise consult with affected individuals or groups when a contemplated action in which it is or may be involved poses potential significant environmental effects.
</P>
<P>(d) Environmental documents shall concentrate on timely and significant issues, not amass needless detail.
</P>
<P>(e) If a proposed action for which an EIS will be prepared involves possible environmental effects that are required to be considered under statutes or Executive Orders other than those referred to under “Authority” in this part, these effects shall be considered in the NEPA review, consistent with 40 CFR 1502.25 and the HHS General Administration Manual, part 30: Environmental Protection.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Agency Actions Requiring Environmental Consideration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.15" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.15   General procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applications or petitions requesting agency action require the submission of an EA or a claim of categorical exclusion. A claim of categorical exclusion shall include a statement of compliance with the categorical exclusion criteria and shall state that to the applicant's knowledge, no extraordinary circumstances exist. Failure to submit an adequate EA for an application or petition requesting action by the agency of a type specified in § 25.20, unless the agency can determine that the action qualifies for exclusion under §§ 25.30, 25.31, 25.32, 25.33, 25.34, or 25.35 is sufficient grounds for FDA to refuse to file or approve the application or petition. An EA adequate for filing is one that addresses the relevant environmental issues. An EA adequate for approval is one that contains sufficient information to enable the agency to determine whether the proposed action may significantly affect the quality of the human environment.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible agency officials will evaluate the information contained in the EA to determine whether it is accurate and objective, whether the proposed action may significantly affect the quality of the human environment, and whether an EIS will be prepared. If significant effects requiring the preparation of an EIS are identified, FDA will prepare an EIS for the action in accordance with the procedures in subparts D and E of this part. If significant effects requiring the preparation of an EIS are not identified, resulting in a decision not to prepare an EIS, the responsible agency official will prepare a FONSI in accordance with § 25.41.
</P>
<P>(c) Classes of actions that individually or cumulatively do not significantly affect the quality of the human environment ordinarily are excluded from the requirement to prepare an EA or an EIS. The classes of actions that qualify as categorical exclusions are set forth in §§ 25.30, 25.31, 25.32, 25.33, 25.34, or 25.35.
</P>
<P>(d) A person submitting an application or petition of a type subject to categorical exclusion under §§ 25.30, 25.31, 25.32, 25.33, 25.34, or 25.35, or proposing to dispose of an article as provided in § 25.30(d) or 25.32(h), is not required to submit an EA if the person states that the action requested qualifies for a categorical exclusion, citing the particular categorical exclusion that is claimed, and states that to the applicant's knowledge, no extraordinary circumstances exist.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 80 FR 57535, Sept. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.16" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.16   Public health and safety emergencies.</HEAD>
<P>There are certain regulatory actions that, because of their immediate importance to the public health or safety, may make full adherence to the procedural provisions of NEPA and CEQ's regulations impossible. For such actions, the responsible agency official shall consult with CEQ about alternative arrangements before the action is taken, or after the action is taken, if time does not permit prior consultation with CEQ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.20   Actions requiring preparation of an environmental assessment.</HEAD>
<P>Any proposed action of a type specified in this section normally requires at least the preparation of an EA, unless it is an action in a specific class that qualifies for exclusion under §§ 25.30, 25.31, 25.32, 25.33, 25.34, or 25.35:
</P>
<P>(a) Major recommendations or reports made to Congress on proposals for legislation in instances where the agency has primary responsibility for the subject matter involved.
</P>
<P>(b) Destruction or other disposition of articles condemned after seizure or whose distribution or use has been enjoined, unless categorically excluded in §§ 25.30(d) or 25.32(h).
</P>
<P>(c) Destruction or other disposition of articles following detention or recall at agency request, unless categorically excluded in §§ 25.30(d) or 25.32(h).
</P>
<P>(d) Disposition of FDA laboratory waste materials, unless categorically excluded in § 25.30(m).
</P>
<P>(e) Intramural and extramural research supported in whole or in part through contracts, other agreements, or grants, unless categorically excluded in § 25.30 (e) or (f).
</P>
<P>(f) Establishment by regulation of labeling requirements, a standard, or a monograph, unless categorically excluded in §§ 25.30(k) or 25.31 (a), (b), (c), (h), (i), or (j), or 25.32 (a) or (p).
</P>
<P>(g) Issuance, amendment, and enforcement of FDA regulations, or an exemption or variance from FDA regulations, unless categorically excluded in § 25.30 (h), (i), or (j), or § 25.32 (e), (g), (n), or (p).
</P>
<P>(h) Withdrawal of existing approvals of FDA-approved articles, unless categorically excluded in §§ 25.31 (d) or (k), 25.32(m), or 25.33 (g) or (h).
</P>
<P>(i) Approval of food additive petitions and color additive petitions, approval of requests for exemptions for investigational use of food additives, the granting of requests for exemption from regulation as a food additive under § 170.39 of this chapter, and allowing notifications submitted under 21 U.S.C. 348(h) to become effective, unless categorically excluded in § 25.32(b), (c), (i), (j), (k), (l), (o), (q), or (r).
</P>
<P>(j) Establishment of a tolerance for unavoidable poisonous or deleterious substances in food or in packaging materials to be used for food.
</P>
<P>(k) Establishment or amendment of a regulation for a food substance as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use for humans or animals under parts 182, 184, 186, 582, or 584 of this chapter, or establishment or amendment of a regulation for a prior-sanctioned food ingredient, as defined in §§ 170.3(l) and 181.5(a) of this chapter, unless categorically excluded in § 25.32(f), (i), (j), (k), or (r).
</P>
<P>(l) Approval of NDA's, abbreviated applications, applications for marketing approval of a biologic product, supplements to such applications, and actions on IND's, unless categorically excluded in § 25.31 (a), (b), (c), (e), or (l).
</P>
<P>(m) Approval of NADA's, abbreviated applications, supplements, actions on INAD's, and granting of requests for determination of eligibility for indexing, unless categorically excluded under § 25.33 (a), (c), (d), or (e).
</P>
<P>(n) Approval of PMA's for medical devices, notices of completion of PDP's for medical devices, authorizations to commence clinical investigation under an approved PDP, or applications for an IDE, unless categorically excluded in § 25.34.
</P>
<P>(o) Issuance of an order finding a tobacco product substantially equivalent under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or granting of a request for an exemption under 21 CFR part 1107 from the requirement of demonstrating substantial equivalence, unless categorically excluded under § 25.35.
</P>
<P>(p) Issuance of an order authorizing marketing of a new tobacco product under section 910 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or an order authorizing marketing of a modified risk tobacco product under section 911 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless categorically excluded under § 25.35.
</P>
<P>(q) Establishment, amendment, or revocation of an import tolerance in accordance with subpart C of part 510 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 30355, May 11, 2000; 72 FR 69118, Dec. 6, 2007; 80 FR 57535, Sept. 24, 2015; 81 FR 55047, Aug. 17, 2016; 86 FR 52410, Sept. 21, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.21   Extraordinary circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>As required under 40 CFR 1508.4, FDA will require at least an EA for any specific action that ordinarily would be excluded if extraordinary circumstances indicate that the specific proposed action may significantly affect the quality of the human environment (see 40 CFR 1508.27 for examples of significant impacts). Examples of such extraordinary circumstances include:
</P>
<P>(a) Actions for which available data establish that, at the expected level of exposure, there is the potential for serious harm to the environment; and
</P>
<P>(b) Actions that adversely affect a species or the critical habitat of a species determined under the Endangered Species Act or the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna to be endangered or threatened or wild flora or fauna that are entitled to special protection under some other Federal law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.22   Actions requiring the preparation of an environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There are no categories of agency actions that routinely significantly affect the quality of the human environment and that therefore ordinarily require the preparation of an EIS.
</P>
<P>(b) EIS's are prepared for agency actions when evaluation of data or information in an EA or otherwise available to the agency leads to a finding by the responsible agency official that a proposed action may significantly affect the quality of the human environment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Categorical Exclusions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.30   General.</HEAD>
<P>The classes of actions listed in this section and §§ 25.31 through 25.35 are categorically excluded and, therefore, ordinarily do not require the preparation of an EA or an EIS:
</P>
<P>(a) Routine administrative and management activities, including inspections, and issuance of field compliance programs, program circulars, or field investigative assignments.
</P>
<P>(b) Recommendation for an enforcement action to be initiated in a Federal court.
</P>
<P>(c) Agency requests for initiation of recalls.
</P>
<P>(d) Destruction or disposition of any FDA-regulated article condemned after seizure or the distribution or use of which has been enjoined or following detention or recall at agency request if the method of destruction or disposition of the article, including packaging material, is in compliance with all Federal, State, and local requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) Extramural contracts, other agreements, or grants for statistical and epidemiological studies, surveys and inventories, literature searches, and report and manual preparation, or any other studies that will not result in the production or distribution of any substance and, therefore, will not result in the introduction of any substance into the environment.
</P>
<P>(f) Extramural contracts, other agreements, and grants for research for such purposes as to develop analytical methods or other test methodologies.
</P>
<P>(g) Activities of voluntary Federal-State cooperative programs, including issuance of model regulations proposed for State adoption. 
</P>
<P>(h) Issuance, amendment, or revocation of procedural or administrative regulations and guidance documents, including procedures for submission of applications for product development, testing and investigational use, and approval. 
</P>
<P>(i) Corrections and technical changes in regulations.
</P>
<P>(j) Issuance of CGMP regulations, HACCP regulations, establishment standards, emergency permit control regulations, GLP regulations, and issuance or denial of permits, exemptions, variances, or stays under these regulations.
</P>
<P>(k) Establishment or repeal by regulation of labeling requirements for marketed articles if there will be no increase in the existing levels of use or change in the intended uses of the product or its substitutes.
</P>
<P>(l) Routine maintenance and minor construction activities such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Repair to or replacement of equipment or structural components (e.g., door, roof, or window) of facilities controlled by FDA;
</P>
<P>(2) Lease extensions, renewals, or succeeding leases;
</P>
<P>(3) Construction or lease construction of 10,000 square feet or less of occupiable space;
</P>
<P>(4) Relocation of employees into existing owned or currently leased space;
</P>
<P>(5) Acquisition of 20,000 square feet or less of occupiable space in a structure that was substantially completed before the issuance of solicitation for offers; and
</P>
<P>(6) Acquisition of between 20,000 square feet and 40,000 square feet of occupiable space if it constitutes less than 40 percent of the occupiable space in a structure that was substantially completed before the solicitation for offers.
</P>
<P>(m) Disposal of low-level radioactive waste materials (as defined in the Nuclear Regulatory Commission regulations at 10 CFR 61.2) and chemical waste materials generated in the laboratories serviced by the contracts administered by FDA, if the waste is disposed of in compliance with all applicable Federal, State, and local requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000; 80 FR 57535, Sept. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.31   Human drugs and biologics.</HEAD>
<P>The classes of actions listed in this section are categorically excluded and, therefore, ordinarily do not require the preparation of an EA or an EIS:
</P>
<P>(a) Action on an NDA, abbreviated application, application for marketing approval of a biologic product, or a supplement to such applications, or action on an OTC monograph, if the action does not increase the use of the active moiety.
</P>
<P>(b) Action on an NDA, abbreviated application, or a supplement to such applications, or action on an OTC monograph, if the action increases the use of the active moiety, but the estimated concentration of the substance at the point of entry into the aquatic environment will be below 1 part per billion.
</P>
<P>(c) Action on an NDA, abbreviated application, application for marketing approval of a biologic product, or a supplement to such applications, or action on an OTC monograph, for substances that occur naturally in the environment when the action does not alter significantly the concentration or distribution of the substance, its metabolites, or degradation products in the environment.
</P>
<P>(d) Withdrawal of approval of an NDA or an abbreviated application.
</P>
<P>(e) Action on an IND.
</P>
<P>(f) Testing and release by the Food and Drug Administration of lots or batches of a licensed biologic product.
</P>
<P>(g) Establishment of bioequivalence requirements for a human drug or a comparability determination for a biologic product subject to licensing.
</P>
<P>(h) Issuance, revocation, or amendment of a standard for a biologic product.
</P>
<P>(i) Revocation of a license for a biologic product.
</P>
<P>(j) Action on an application for marketing approval for marketing of a biologic product for transfusable human blood or blood components and plasma.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 26697, May 13, 1998; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999; 70 FR 14980, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.32   Foods, food additives, and color additives.</HEAD>
<P>The classes of actions listed in this section are categorically excluded and, therefore, ordinarily do not require the preparation of an EA or an EIS:
</P>
<P>(a) Issuance, amendment, or repeal of a food standard.
</P>
<P>(b) Action on a request for exemption for investigational use of a food additive if the food additive to be shipped under the request is intended to be used for clinical studies or research.
</P>
<P>(c) Approval of a color additive petition to change a provisionally listed color additive to permanent listing for use in food, drugs, devices, or cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(d) Testing and certification of batches of a color additive.
</P>
<P>(e) Issuance of an interim food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(f) Establishment or amendment of a regulation for a food substance as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use for humans or animals under parts 182, 184, 186, 582, or 584 of this chapter, and establishment or amendment of a regulation for a prior-sanctioned food ingredient, as defined in §§ 170.3(l) and 181.5(a) of this chapter, if the substance or food ingredient is already marketed in the United States for the proposed use.
</P>
<P>(g) Issuance and enforcement of regulations relating to the control of communicable diseases or to interstate conveyance sanitation under parts 1240 and 1250 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) Approval of a request for diversion of adulterated or misbranded food for humans or animals to use as animal feeds.
</P>
<P>(i) Approval of a food additive petition, establishment or amendment of a regulation for a food substance as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use for humans or animals under parts 182, 184, 186, 582, or 584 of this chapter, the granting of a request for exemption from regulation as a food additive under § 170.39 of this chapter, or allowing a notification submitted under 21 U.S.C. 348(h) to become effective, when the substance is present in finished food-packaging material at not greater than 5 percent-by-weight and is expected to remain with finished food-packaging material through use by consumers or when the substance is a component of a coating of a finished food-packaging material.
</P>
<P>(j) Approval of a food additive petition, establishment or amendment of a regulation for a food substance as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use for humans or animals under parts 182, 184, 186, 582, or 584 of this chapter, the granting of a request for exemption from regulation as a food additive under § 170.39 of this chapter, or allowing a notification submitted under 21 U.S.C. 348(h) to become effective, when the substance is to be used as a component of a food-contact surface of permanent or semipermanent equipment or of another food-contact article intended for repeated use.
</P>
<P>(k) Approval of a food additive petition or color additive petition, establishment or amendment of a regulation for a food substance as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use for humans or animals under parts 182, 184, 186, 582, or 584 of this chapter, or allowing a notification submitted under 21 U.S.C. 348(h) to become effective, for substances added directly to food that are intended to remain in food through ingestion by consumers and that are not intended to replace macronutrients in food.
</P>
<P>(l) Approval of a petition for color additives used in contact lenses, sutures, filaments used as supporting haptics in intraocular lenses, bone cement, and in other FDA-regulated products having similarly low levels of use.
</P>
<P>(m) Action to prohibit or otherwise restrict or reduce the use of a substance in food, food packaging, or cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(n) Issuance, amendment, or revocation of a regulation pertaining to infant formulas.
</P>
<P>(o) Approval of a food additive petition for the intended expression product(s) present in food derived from new plant varieties.
</P>
<P>(p) Issuance, amendment, or revocation of a regulation in response to a reference amount petition as described in § 101.12(h) of this chapter, a nutrient content claim petition as described in § 101.69 of this chapter, a health claim petition as described in § 101.70 of this chapter, or a petition pertaining to the label declaration of ingredients as described in § 10.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(q) Approval of a food additive petition, the granting of a request for exemption from regulation as a food additive under § 170.39 of this chapter, or allowing a notification submitted under 21 U.S.C. 348(h) to become effective for a substance registered by the Environmental Protection Agency under FIFRA for the same use requested in the petition, request for exemption, or notification.
</P>
<P>(r) Approval of a food additive petition or color additive petition, establishment or amendment of a regulation for a food substance as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use for humans or animals under parts 182, 184, 186, 582, or 584 of this chapter, or allowing a notification submitted under 21 U.S.C. 348(h) to become effective for a substance that occurs naturally in the environment, when the action does not alter significantly the concentration or distribution of the substance, its metabolites, or degradation products in the environment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 30355, May 11, 2000; 76 FR 59248, Sept. 26, 2011; 81 FR 55047, Aug. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.33" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.33   Animal drugs.</HEAD>
<P>The classes of actions listed in this section are categorically excluded and, therefore, ordinarily do not require the preparation of an EA or an EIS:
</P>
<P>(a) Action on an NADA, abbreviated application, request for determination of eligibility for indexing, a supplement to such applications, or a modification of an index listing, if the action does not increase the use of the drug. Actions to which this categorical exclusion applies may include:
</P>
<P>(1) An animal drug to be marketed under the same conditions of approval as a previously approved animal drug;
</P>
<P>(2) A combination of previously approved animal drugs;
</P>
<P>(3) A new premix or other formulation of a previously approved animal drug;
</P>
<P>(4) Changes specified in § 514.8(b)(3), (b)(4), or (c)(3) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) A change of sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(6) A previously approved animal drug to be contained in medicated feed blocks under § 510.455 of this chapter or as a liquid feed supplement under § 558.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Action on an NADA, abbreviated application, request for determination of eligibility for indexing, a supplement to such applications, or a modification of an index listing, for substances that occur naturally in the environment when the action does not alter significantly the concentration or distribution of the substance, its metabolites, or degradation products in the environment.
</P>
<P>(d) Action on an NADA, abbreviated application, request for determination of eligibility for indexing, a supplement to such applications, or a modification of an index listing, for:
</P>
<P>(1) Drugs intended for use in nonfood animals;
</P>
<P>(2) Anesthetics, both local and general, that are individually administered;
</P>
<P>(3) Nonsystemic topical and ophthalmic animal drugs;
</P>
<P>(4) Drugs for minor species, including wildlife and endangered species, when the drug has been previously approved for use in another or the same species where similar animal management practices are used; and
</P>
<P>(5) Drugs intended for use under prescription or veterinarian's order for therapeutic use in terrestrial species.
</P>
<P>(e) Action on an INAD.
</P>
<P>(f) Action on an application submitted under section 512(m) of the act.
</P>
<P>(g) Withdrawal of approval of an NADA or an abbreviated NADA or removal of a new animal drug from the index.
</P>
<P>(h) Withdrawal of approval of a food additive petition that reduces or eliminates animal feed uses of a food additive. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 71 FR 74782, Dec. 13, 2006; 72 FR 69119, Dec. 6, 2007; 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.34" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.34   Devices and electronic products.</HEAD>
<P>The classes of actions listed in this section are categorically excluded and, therefore, ordinarily do not require the preparation of an EA or an EIS:
</P>
<P>(a) Action on a device premarket notification submission under subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Classification or reclassification of a device under part 860 of this chapter, including the establishment of special controls, if the action will not result in increases in the existing levels of use of the device or changes in the intended use of the device or its substitutes.
</P>
<P>(c) Issuance, amendment, or repeal of a standard for a class II medical device or an electronic product, and issuance of exemptions or variances from such a standard.
</P>
<P>(d) Approval of a PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP or amended or supplemental applications or notices for a class III medical device if the device is of the same type and for the same use as a previously approved device.
</P>
<P>(e) Changes in the PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP for a class III medical device that do not require submission of an amended or supplemental application or notice. 
</P>
<P>(f) Issuance of a restricted device regulation if it will not result in increases in the existing levels of use or changes in the intended uses of the product or its substitutes.
</P>
<P>(g) Action on an application for an IDE or an authorization to commence a clinical investigation under an approved PDP.
</P>
<P>(h) Issuance of a regulation exempting from preemption a requirement of a State or political subdivision concerning a device, or a denial of an application for such exemption.
</P>
<P>(i) Approval of humanitarian device exemption under subpart H of part 814 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 70 FR 69277, Nov. 15, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.35   Tobacco product applications.</HEAD>
<P>The classes of actions listed in this section are categorically excluded and, therefore, normally do not require the preparation of an EA or an EIS:
</P>
<P>(a) Issuance of an order finding a tobacco product substantially equivalent under section 910(a)(2)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(b) Issuance of an order finding a tobacco product not substantially equivalent under section 910(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, denial of a request for an exemption under 21 CFR part 1107 from the requirement of demonstrating substantial equivalence, issuance of an order under section 910(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that a new tobacco product may not be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, or issuance of an order under section 911 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that a modified risk tobacco product may not be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce;
</P>
<P>(c) Rescission or temporary suspension of an order authorizing the marketing of a new tobacco product under section 910 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(d) Rescission of an order authorizing the marketing of a modified risk tobacco product under section 911 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(e) Rescission of an order granting an exemption request under § 1107.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 57535, Sept. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Preparation of Environmental Documents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.40   Environmental assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As defined by CEQ in 40 CFR 1508.9, an EA is a concise public document that serves to provide sufficient evidence and analysis for an agency to determine whether to prepare an EIS or a FONSI. The EA shall include brief discussions of the need for the proposal, of alternatives as required by section 102(2)(E) of NEPA, of the environmental impacts of the proposed action and alternatives, and a listing of agencies and persons consulted. An EA shall be prepared for each action not categorically excluded in § 25.30, § 25.31, § 25.32, § 25.33, or § 25.34, or § 25.35. The EA shall focus on relevant environmental issues relating to the use and disposal from use of FDA-regulated articles and shall be a concise, objective, and well-balanced document that allows the public to understand the agency's decision. If potentially adverse environmental impacts are identified for an action or a group of related actions, the EA shall discuss any reasonable alternative course of action that offers less environmental risk or that is environmentally preferable to the proposed action. The use of a scientifically justified tiered testing approach, in which testing may be stopped when the results suggest that no significant impact will occur, is an acceptable approach.
</P>
<P>(b) Generally, FDA requires an applicant to prepare an EA and make necessary corrections to it. Ultimately, FDA is responsible for the scope and content of EA's and may include additional information in environmental documents when warranted.
</P>
<P>(c) Information concerning the nature and scope of information that an applicant or petitioner shall submit in an EA may be obtained from the center or other office of the agency having responsibility for the action that is the subject of the environmental evaluation. Applicants and petitioners are encouraged to submit proposed protocols for environmental studies for technical review by agency staff. Applicants and petitioners also are encouraged to consult applicable FDA EA guidance documents, which provide additional advice on how to comply with FDA regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) Consistent with 40 CFR 1500.4(j) and 1502.21, EA's may incorporate by reference information presented in other documents that are available to FDA and to the public. 
</P>
<P>(e) The agency evaluates the information contained in an EA and any public input to determine whether it is accurate and objective, whether the proposed action may significantly affect the quality of the human environment, and whether an EIS or a FONSI will be prepared. The responsible agency official examines the environmental risks of the proposed action and the alternative courses of action, selects a course of action, and ensures that any necessary mitigating measures are implemented as a condition for approving the selected course of action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 17291, Apr. 2, 2004; 80 FR 57535, Sept. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.41" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.41   Findings of no significant impact.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As defined by the CEQ regulations (40 CFR 1508.13), a FONSI is a document prepared by a Federal agency stating briefly why an action, not otherwise excluded, will not significantly affect the human environment and for which, therefore, an EIS will not be prepared. A FONSI includes the EA or a summary of it and a reference to any other related environmental documents.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency official(s) responsible for approving the FONSI will sign the document, thereby establishing that the official(s) approve(s) the conclusion not to prepare an EIS for the action under consideration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.42" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.42   Environmental impact statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As defined by CEQ regulations (40 CFR 1508.11) and section 102(2)(C) of NEPA, an EIS should be a clear, concise, and detailed written statement describing:
</P>
<P>(1) The environmental impacts of a proposed action;
</P>
<P>(2) Any adverse effects that cannot be avoided if the action is implemented;
</P>
<P>(3) Alternatives to the action; 
</P>
<P>(4) The relationship between local short-term uses of the environment and the maintenance and enhancement of long-term productivity; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any irreversible and irretrievable commitments of resources that would be involved in the proposed action should it be implemented.
</P>
<P>(b) The CEQ regulations (40 CFR 1501.7 and part 1502) describe the process for determining the scope of an EIS and provide detailed requirements for the preparation of draft and final EIS's. CEQ format and procedures for preparing EIS shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the conditions prescribed in 40 CFR 1502.9, the agency will prepare a supplement for a draft or final EIS and introduce the supplement into the administrative record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.43" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.43   Records of decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In cases requiring environmental impact statements, at the time of its decision, the agency shall prepare a concise public record of decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The record of decision shall:
</P>
<P>(1) State what the decision was;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify and discuss alternatives considered by the agency in reaching its decision;
</P>
<P>(3) State whether all practicable means to avoid or minimize environmental harm have been adopted, and if not, why not; and
</P>
<P>(4) Summarize the program for monitoring and enforcing the practicable means adopted to avoid or minimize the environmental harm. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.44" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.44   Lead and cooperating agencies.</HEAD>
<P>For actions requiring the preparation of an EIS, FDA and other affected Federal agencies will agree which will be the lead agency and which will be the cooperating agencies. The responsibilities of lead agencies and cooperating agencies are described in the CEQ regulations (40 CFR 1501.5 and 1501.6, respectively). If an action affects more than one center within FDA, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs will designate one of these units to be responsible for coordinating the preparation of any required environmental documentation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.4.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.45   Responsible agency official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible agency official prepares the environmental documents or ensures that they are prepared.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible agency official will weigh any environmental impacts of each alternative course of action, including possible mitigation measures, and will balance environmental impacts with the agency's objectives in choosing an appropriate course of action. The weighing of any environmental impacts of alternatives in selecting a final course of action will be reflected in the agency's record of formal decisionmaking as required by 40 CFR 1505.2. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 17291, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Public Participation and Notification of Environmental Documents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.50   General information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent actions are not protected from disclosure by existing law applicable to the agency's operation, FDA will involve the public in preparing and implementing its NEPA procedures and will provide public notice of NEPA-related hearings, public meetings, and the availability of environmental documents.
</P>
<P>(b) Many FDA actions involving investigations, review, and approval or market authorization of applications, and premarket notifications for human drugs, animal drugs, biologic products, devices, and tobacco products are protected from disclosure under the Trade Secret Act, 18 U.S.C. 1905, and section 301(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. These actions are also protected from disclosure under FDA's regulations including part 20, §§ 312.130(a), 314.430(b), 514.11(b), 514.12(a), 601.50(a), 601.51(a), 807.95(b), 812.38(a), and 814.9(b) of this chapter. Even the existence of applications for human drugs, animal drugs, biologic products, devices, and tobacco products is protected from disclosure under these regulations. Therefore, unless the existence of applications for human drugs, animal drugs, biologic products, tobacco products, or premarket notification for devices has been made publicly available, the release of the environmental document before approval or authorization of human drugs, animal drugs, biologic products, devices and tobacco products is inconsistent with statutory requirements imposed on FDA. Appropriate environmental documents, comments, and responses will be included in the administrative record to the extent allowed by applicable laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 80 FR 57535, Sept. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.51   Environmental assessments and findings of no significant impact.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Data and information that are protected from disclosure by 18 U.S.C. 1905 or 21 U.S.C. 331(j) or 360j(c) shall not be included in the portion of environmental documents that is made public. When such data and information are pertinent to the environmental review of a proposed action, an applicant or petitioner shall submit such data and information separately in a confidential section and shall summarize the confidential data and information in the EA to the extent possible.
</P>
<P>(b) FONSI's and EA's will be available to the public in accordance with 40 CFR 1506.6 as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When the proposed action is the subject of a notice of proposed rulemaking or a notice of filing published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the notice shall state that no EIS is necessary and that the FONSI and the EA are available for public inspection at FDA's Dockets Management Staff. If the responsible agency official is unable to complete environmental consideration of the proposed action before a notice of filing of a food or color additive petition is required to be published under the act, and if the subsequent environmental analysis leads to the conclusion that no EIS is necessary, the final regulation rather than the notice of filing shall state that no EIS is necessary and that the FONSI and the EA are available upon request and filed in FDA's Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) For actions for which notice is not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the FONSI and the EA shall be made available to the public upon request according to the procedures in 40 CFR 1506.6.
</P>
<P>(3) For a limited number of actions, the agency may make the FONSI and EA available for public review (including review by State and areawide information clearinghouses) for 30 days before the agency makes its final determination whether to prepare an EIS and before the action may begin, as described in 40 CFR 1501.4(e). This procedure will be followed when the proposed action is, or is closely similar to, one that normally requires an EIS or when the proposed action is one without precedent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.52" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.52   Environmental impact statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA determines that an EIS is necessary for an action involving investigations, approvals, or market authorizations for drugs, animal drugs, biologic products, devices, or tobacco products, an EIS will be prepared but will become available only at the time of the approval or market authorization of the product. The EIS will in all other respects conform to the requirements for EIS's as specified in 40 CFR part 1502 and 1506.6(f).
</P>
<P>(b) Comments on the EIS may be submitted after the approval or market authorization of the drug, animal drug, biologic product, device, or tobacco product. Those comments can form the basis for the Agency to consider beginning an action to withdraw the approval or market authorization of applications for a drug, animal drug, biologic product, or tobacco product, or to withdraw premarket notifications or premarket approval applications for devices.
</P>
<P>(c) In those cases where the existence of applications and premarket notifications for drugs, animal drugs, biologic products, devices, or tobacco products has already been disclosed before the Agency approves the action, the Agency will ensure appropriate public involvement consistent with 40 CFR 1506.6 and part 1503 in preparing and implementing the NEPA procedures related to preparing EISs while following its own disclosure requirements including those listed in part 20 and §§ 312.130(b), 314.430(d), 514.11(d), 514.12(b), 601.51(d), 807.95(e), 812.38(b), and 814.9(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Draft and final EIS's, comments, and responses will be included in the administrative record and will be available from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40592, July 29, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 80 FR 57535, Sept. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Other Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.18.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.60   Environmental effects abroad of major agency actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with Executive Order 12114, “Environmental Effects Abroad of Major Federal Actions” of January 4, 1979 (44 FR 1957, January 9, 1979), the responsible agency official, in analyzing actions under his or her program, shall consider the environmental effects abroad, including whether the actions involve:
</P>
<P>(1) Potential environmental effects on the global commons and areas outside the jurisdiction of any nation, e.g., oceans and the upper atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(2) Potential environmental effects on a foreign nation not participating with or otherwise involved in an FDA activity.
</P>
<P>(3) The export of products (or emissions) that in the United States are prohibited or strictly regulated because their effects on the environment create a serious public health risk.
</P>
<P>(4) Potential environmental effects on natural and ecological resources of global importance designated under the Executive Order.
</P>
<P>(b) Before deciding on any action falling into the categories specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the responsible agency official shall determine, in accordance with section 2-3 of the Executive Order, whether such actions may have a significant environmental effect abroad.
</P>
<P>(c) If the responsible agency official determines that an action may have a significant environmental effect abroad, the responsible agency official shall determine, in accordance with section 2-4 (a) and (b) of the Executive Order, whether the subject action calls for:
</P>
<P>(1) An EIS;
</P>
<P>(2) A bilateral or multilateral environmental study; or
</P>
<P>(3) A concise environmental review.
</P>
<P>(d) In preparing environmental documents under this subpart, the responsible official shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine, as provided in section 2-5 of the Executive Order, whether proposed actions are subject to the exemptions, exclusions, and modification in contents, timing, and availability of documents.
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate all communications with foreign governments concerning environmental agreements and other arrangements in implementing the Executive Order. 






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 50—PROTECTION OF HUMAN SUBJECTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 343, 346, 346a, 348, 350a, 350b, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360c-360f, 360h-360j, 371, 379e, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 262.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 36390, May 30, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all clinical investigations regulated by the Food and Drug Administration under sections 505(i) and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as well as clinical investigations that support applications for research or marketing permits for products regulated by the Food and Drug Administration, including foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, drugs for human use, medical devices for human use, biological products for human use, and electronic products. Additional specific obligations and commitments of, and standards of conduct for, persons who sponsor or monitor clinical investigations involving particular test articles may also be found in other parts (e.g., parts 312 and 812). Compliance with these parts is intended to protect the rights and safety of subjects involved in investigations filed with the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to sections 403, 406, 409, 412, 413, 502, 503, 505, 510, 513-516, 518-520, 721, and 801 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and sections 351 and 354-360F of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 36390, May 30, 1980; 46 FR 8979, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 63 FR 26697, May 13, 1998; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999; 66 FR 20597, Apr. 24, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (secs. 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 321-392)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for research or marketing permit</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A color additive petition, described in part 71.
</P>
<P>(2) A food additive petition, described in parts 171 and 571.
</P>
<P>(3) Data and information about a substance submitted as part of the procedures for establishing that the substance is generally recognized as safe for use that results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food, described in §§ 170.30 and 570.30.
</P>
<P>(4) Data and information about a food additive submitted as part of the procedures for food additives permitted to be used on an interim basis pending additional study, described in § 180.1.
</P>
<P>(5) Data and information about a substance submitted as part of the procedures for establishing a tolerance for unavoidable contaminants in food and food-packaging materials, described in section 406 of the act.
</P>
<P>(6) An investigational new drug application, described in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) A new drug application, described in part 314.
</P>
<P>(8) Data and information about the bioavailability or bioequivalence of drugs for human use submitted as part of the procedures for issuing, amending, or repealing a bioequivalence requirement, described in part 320.
</P>
<P>(9) Data and information about an over-the-counter drug for human use submitted as part of the procedures for classifying these drugs as generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded, described in part 330.
</P>
<P>(10) Data and information about a prescription drug for human use submitted as part of the procedures for classifying these drugs as generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded, described in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) An application for a biologics license, described in part 601 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(13) Data and information about a biological product submitted as part of the procedures for determining that licensed biological products are safe and effective and not misbranded, described in part 601.
</P>
<P>(14) Data and information about an in vitro diagnostic product submitted as part of the procedures for establishing, amending, or repealing a standard for these products, described in part 809.
</P>
<P>(15) An <I>Application for an Investigational Device Exemption,</I> described in part 812.
</P>
<P>(16) Data and information about a medical device submitted as part of the procedures for classifying these devices, described in section 513.
</P>
<P>(17) Data and information about a medical device submitted as part of the procedures for establishing, amending, or repealing a standard for these devices, described in section 514.
</P>
<P>(18) An application for premarket approval of a medical device, described in section 515.
</P>
<P>(19) A product development protocol for a medical device, described in section 515.
</P>
<P>(20) Data and information about an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for establishing, amending, or repealing a standard for these products, described in section 358 of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(21) Data and information about an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for obtaining a variance from any electronic product performance standard, as described in § 1010.4.
</P>
<P>(22) Data and information about an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for granting, amending, or extending an exemption from a radiation safety performance standard, as described in § 1010.5.
</P>
<P>(23) Data and information about a clinical study of an infant formula when submitted as part of an infant formula notification under section 412(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(24) Data and information submitted in a petition for a nutrient content claim, described in § 101.69 of this chapter, or for a health claim, described in § 101.70 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(25) Data and information from investigations involving children submitted in a new dietary ingredient notification, described in § 190.6 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clinical investigation</I> means any experiment that involves a test article and one or more human subjects and that either is subject to requirements for prior submission to the Food and Drug Administration under section 505(i) or 520(g) of the act, or is not subject to requirements for prior submission to the Food and Drug Administration under these sections of the act, but the results of which are intended to be submitted later to, or held for inspection by, the Food and Drug Administration as part of an application for a research or marketing permit. The term does not include experiments that are subject to the provisions of part 58 of this chapter, regarding nonclinical laboratory studies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investigator</I> means an individual who actually conducts a clinical investigation, i.e., under whose immediate direction the test article is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, a subject, or, in the event of an investigation conducted by a team of individuals, is the responsible leader of that team.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sponsor</I> means a person who initiates a clinical investigation, but who does not actually conduct the investigation, i.e., the test article is administered or dispensed to or used involving, a subject under the immediate direction of another individual. A person other than an individual (e.g., corporation or agency) that uses one or more of its own employees to conduct a clinical investigation it has initiated is considered to be a sponsor (not a sponsor-investigator), and the employees are considered to be investigators.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sponsor-investigator</I> means an individual who both initiates and actually conducts, alone or with others, a clinical investigation, i.e., under whose immediate direction the test article is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, a subject. The term does not include any person other than an individual, e.g., corporation or agency.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Human subject</I> means an individual who is or becomes a participant in research, either as a recipient of the test article or as a control. A subject may be either a healthy human or a patient.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution</I> means any public or private entity or agency (including Federal, State, and other agencies). The word <I>facility</I> as used in section 520(g) of the act is deemed to be synonymous with the term <I>institution</I> for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Institutional review board</I> (IRB) means any board, committee, or other group formally designated by an institution to review biomedical research involving humans as subjects, to approve the initiation of and conduct periodic review of such research. The term has the same meaning as the phrase <I>institutional review committee</I> as used in section 520(g) of the act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Test article</I> means any drug (including a biological product for human use), medical device for human use, human food additive, color additive, electronic product, or any other article subject to regulation under the act or under sections 351 and 354-360F of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262 and 263b-263n).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Minimal risk</I> means that the probability and magnitude of harm or discomfort anticipated in the research are not greater in and of themselves than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations or tests.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Legally authorized representative</I> means an individual or judicial or other body authorized under applicable law to consent on behalf of a prospective subject to the subject's particpation in the procedure(s) involved in the research.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Family member</I> means any one of the following legally competent persons: Spouse; parents; children (including adopted children); brothers, sisters, and spouses of brothers and sisters; and any individual related by blood or affinity whose close association with the subject is the equivalent of a family relationship.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Assent</I> means a child's affirmative agreement to participate in a clinical investigation. Mere failure to object should not, absent affirmative agreement, be construed as assent.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Children</I> means persons who have not attained the legal age for consent to treatments or procedures involved in clinical investigations, under the applicable law of the jurisdiction in which the clinical investigation will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Parent</I> means a child's biological or adoptive parent.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Ward</I> means a child who is placed in the legal custody of the State or other agency, institution, or entity, consistent with applicable Federal, State, or local law.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Permission</I> means the agreement of parent(s) or guardian to the participation of their child or ward in a clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Guardian</I> means an individual who is authorized under applicable State or local law to consent on behalf of a child to general medical care.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 36390, May 30, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 8950, Jan. 27, 1981; 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989; 56 FR 28028, June 18, 1991; 61 FR 51528, Oct. 2, 1996; 62 FR 39440, July 23, 1997; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999; 64 FR 56448, Oct. 20, 1999; 66 FR 20597, Apr. 24, 2001; 78 FR 12950, Feb. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Informed Consent of Human Subjects</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 8951, Jan. 27, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 50.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.20   General requirements for informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 50.22, 50.23, and 50.24, no investigator may involve a human being as a subject in research covered by these regulations unless the investigator has obtained the legally effective informed consent of the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.



 An investigator shall seek such consent only under circumstances that provide the prospective subject or the representative sufficient opportunity to consider whether or not to participate and that minimize the possibility of coercion or undue influence. The information that is given to the subject or the representative shall be in language understandable to the subject or the representative. No informed consent, whether oral or written, may include any exculpatory language through which the subject or the representative is made to waive or appear to waive any of the subject's legal rights, or releases or appears to release the investigator, the sponsor, the institution, or its agents from liability for negligence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8951, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 64 FR 10942, Mar. 8, 1999; 88 FR 88248, Dec. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.22   Exception from informed consent requirements for minimal risk clinical investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The IRB responsible for the review, approval, and continuing review of the clinical investigation described in this section may approve an informed consent procedure that does not include or that alters some or all of the elements of informed consent set forth in § 50.25(a) and (b), or may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent, provided the IRB finds and documents the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The clinical investigation involves no more than minimal risk to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(b) The clinical investigation could not practicably be carried out without the requested waiver or alteration;
</P>
<P>(c) If the clinical investigation involves using identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, the clinical investigation could not practicably be carried out without using such information or biospecimens in an identifiable format;
</P>
<P>(d) The waiver or alteration will not adversely affect the rights and welfare of the subjects; and
</P>
<P>(e) Whenever appropriate, the subjects or legally authorized representatives will be provided with additional pertinent information after participation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 88248, Dec. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.23" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.23   Exception from general requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The obtaining of informed consent shall be deemed feasible unless, before use of the test article (except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section), both the investigator and a physician who is not otherwise participating in the clinical investigation certify in writing all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The human subject is confronted by a life-threatening situation necessitating the use of the test article.
</P>
<P>(2) Informed consent cannot be obtained from the subject because of an inability to communicate with, or obtain legally effective consent from, the subject.
</P>
<P>(3) Time is not sufficient to obtain consent from the subject's legal representative.
</P>
<P>(4) There is available no alternative method of approved or generally recognized therapy that provides an equal or greater likelihood of saving the life of the subject.
</P>
<P>(b) If immediate use of the test article is, in the investigator's opinion, required to preserve the life of the subject, and time is not sufficient to obtain the independent determination required in paragraph (a) of this section in advance of using the test article, the determinations of the clinical investigator shall be made and, within 5 working days after the use of the article, be reviewed and evaluated in writing by a physician who is not participating in the clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) The documentation required in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall be submitted to the IRB within 5 working days after the use of the test article.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Under 10 U.S.C. 1107(f) the President may waive the prior consent requirement for the administration of an investigational new drug to a member of the armed forces in connection with the member's participation in a particular military operation. The statute specifies that only the President may waive informed consent in this connection and the President may grant such a waiver only if the President determines in writing that obtaining consent: Is not feasible; is contrary to the best interests of the military member; or is not in the interests of national security. The statute further provides that in making a determination to waive prior informed consent on the ground that it is not feasible or the ground that it is contrary to the best interests of the military members involved, the President shall apply the standards and criteria that are set forth in the relevant FDA regulations for a waiver of the prior informed consent requirements of section 505(i)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(i)(4)). Before such a determination may be made that obtaining informed consent from military personnel prior to the use of an investigational drug (including an antibiotic or biological product) in a specific protocol under an investigational new drug application (IND) sponsored by the Department of Defense (DOD) and limited to specific military personnel involved in a particular military operation is not feasible or is contrary to the best interests of the military members involved the Secretary of Defense must first request such a determination from the President, and certify and document to the President that the following standards and criteria contained in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(4) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(i) The extent and strength of evidence of the safety and effectiveness of the investigational new drug in relation to the medical risk that could be encountered during the military operation supports the drug's administration under an IND.
</P>
<P>(ii) The military operation presents a substantial risk that military personnel may be subject to a chemical, biological, nuclear, or other exposure likely to produce death or serious or life-threatening injury or illness.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is no available satisfactory alternative therapeutic or preventive treatment in relation to the intended use of the investigational new drug.
</P>
<P>(iv) Conditioning use of the investigational new drug on the voluntary participation of each member could significantly risk the safety and health of any individual member who would decline its use, the safety of other military personnel, and the accomplishment of the military mission.
</P>
<P>(v) A duly constituted institutional review board (IRB) established and operated in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section, responsible for review of the study, has reviewed and approved the investigational new drug protocol and the administration of the investigational new drug without informed consent. DOD's request is to include the documentation required by § 56.115(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(vi) DOD has explained:
</P>
<P>(A) The context in which the investigational drug will be administered, e.g., the setting or whether it will be self-administered or it will be administered by a health professional;
</P>
<P>(B) The nature of the disease or condition for which the preventive or therapeutic treatment is intended; and
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent there are existing data or information available, information on conditions that could alter the effects of the investigational drug.
</P>
<P>(vii) DOD's recordkeeping system is capable of tracking and will be used to track the proposed treatment from supplier to the individual recipient.
</P>
<P>(viii) Each member involved in the military operation will be given, prior to the administration of the investigational new drug, a specific written information sheet (including information required by 10 U.S.C. 1107(d)) concerning the investigational new drug, the risks and benefits of its use, potential side effects, and other pertinent information about the appropriate use of the product.
</P>
<P>(ix) Medical records of members involved in the military operation will accurately document the receipt by members of the notification required by paragraph (d)(1)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) Medical records of members involved in the military operation will accurately document the receipt by members of any investigational new drugs in accordance with FDA regulations including part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(xi) DOD will provide adequate followup to assess whether there are beneficial or adverse health consequences that result from the use of the investigational product.
</P>
<P>(xii) DOD is pursuing drug development, including a time line, and marketing approval with due diligence.
</P>
<P>(xiii) FDA has concluded that the investigational new drug protocol may proceed subject to a decision by the President on the informed consent waiver request.
</P>
<P>(xiv) DOD will provide training to the appropriate medical personnel and potential recipients on the specific investigational new drug to be administered prior to its use.
</P>
<P>(xv) DOD has stated and justified the time period for which the waiver is needed, not to exceed one year, unless separately renewed under these standards and criteria.
</P>
<P>(xvi) DOD shall have a continuing obligation to report to the FDA and to the President any changed circumstances relating to these standards and criteria (including the time period referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(xv) of this section) or that otherwise might affect the determination to use an investigational new drug without informed consent.
</P>
<P>(xvii) DOD is to provide public notice as soon as practicable and consistent with classification requirements through notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> describing each waiver of informed consent determination, a summary of the most updated scientific information on the products used, and other pertinent information.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Use of the investigational drug without informed consent otherwise conforms with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) The duly constituted institutional review board, described in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section, must include at least 3 nonaffiliated members who shall not be employees or officers of the Federal Government (other than for purposes of membership on the IRB) and shall be required to obtain any necessary security clearances. This IRB shall review the proposed IND protocol at a convened meeting at which a majority of the members are present including at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas and, if feasible, including a majority of the nonaffiliated members. The information required by § 56.115(a)(2) of this chapter is to be provided to the Secretary of Defense for further review.
</P>
<P>(3) The duly constituted institutional review board, described in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section, must review and approve:
</P>
<P>(i) The required information sheet;
</P>
<P>(ii) The adequacy of the plan to disseminate information, including distribution of the information sheet to potential recipients, on the investigational product (e.g., in forms other than written);
</P>
<P>(iii) The adequacy of the information and plans for its dissemination to health care providers, including potential side effects, contraindications, potential interactions, and other pertinent considerations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An informed consent form as required by part 50 of this chapter, in those circumstances in which DOD determines that informed consent may be obtained from some or all personnel involved.
</P>
<P>(4) DOD is to submit to FDA summaries of institutional review board meetings at which the proposed protocol has been reviewed.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in these criteria or standards is intended to preempt or limit FDA's and DOD's authority or obligations under applicable statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Obtaining informed consent for investigational in vitro diagnostic devices used to identify chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear agents will be deemed feasible unless, before use of the test article, both the investigator (e.g., clinical laboratory director or other responsible individual) and a physician who is not otherwise participating in the clinical investigation make the determinations and later certify in writing all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The human subject is confronted by a life-threatening situation necessitating the use of the investigational in vitro diagnostic device to identify a chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear agent that would suggest a terrorism event or other public health emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Informed consent cannot be obtained from the subject because:
</P>
<P>(A) There was no reasonable way for the person directing that the specimen be collected to know, at the time the specimen was collected, that there would be a need to use the investigational in vitro diagnostic device on that subject's specimen; and
</P>
<P>(B) Time is not sufficient to obtain consent from the subject without risking the life of the subject.
</P>
<P>(iii) Time is not sufficient to obtain consent from the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(iv) There is no cleared or approved available alternative method of diagnosis, to identify the chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear agent that provides an equal or greater likelihood of saving the life of the subject.
</P>
<P>(2) If use of the investigational device is, in the opinion of the investigator (e.g., clinical laboratory director or other responsible person), required to preserve the life of the subject, and time is not sufficient to obtain the independent determination required in paragraph (e)(1) of this section in advance of using the investigational device, the determinations of the investigator shall be made and, within 5 working days after the use of the device, be reviewed and evaluated in writing by a physician who is not participating in the clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) The investigator must submit the written certification of the determinations made by the investigator and an independent physician required in paragraph (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this section to the IRB and FDA within 5 working days after the use of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) An investigator must disclose the investigational status of the in vitro diagnostic device and what is known about the performance characteristics of the device in the report to the subject's health care provider and in any report to public health authorities. The investigator must provide the IRB with the information required in § 50.25 (except for the information described in § 50.25(a)(8)) and the procedures that will be used to provide this information to each subject or the subject's legally authorized representative at the time the test results are provided to the subject's health care provider and public health authorities.
</P>
<P>(5) The IRB is responsible for ensuring the adequacy of the information required in section 50.25 (except for the information described in § 50.25(a)(8)) and for ensuring that procedures are in place to provide this information to each subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(6) No State or political subdivision of a State may establish or continue in effect any law, rule, regulation or other requirement that informed consent be obtained before an investigational in vitro diagnostic device may be used to identify chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear agent in suspected terrorism events and other potential public health emergencies that is different from, or in addition to, the requirements of this regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8951, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 55 FR 52817, Dec. 21, 1990; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999; 64 FR 54188, Oct. 5, 1999; 71 FR 32833, June 7, 2006; 76 FR 36993, June 24, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.24" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.24   Exception from informed consent requirements for emergency research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The IRB responsible for the review, approval, and continuing review of the clinical investigation described in this section may approve that investigation without requiring that informed consent of all research subjects be obtained if the IRB (with the concurrence of a licensed physician who is a member of or consultant to the IRB and who is not otherwise participating in the clinical investigation) finds and documents each of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The human subjects are in a life-threatening situation, available treatments are unproven or unsatisfactory, and the collection of valid scientific evidence, which may include evidence obtained through randomized placebo-controlled investigations, is necessary to determine the safety and effectiveness of particular interventions.
</P>
<P>(2) Obtaining informed consent is not feasible because:
</P>
<P>(i) The subjects will not be able to give their informed consent as a result of their medical condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) The intervention under investigation must be administered before consent from the subjects' legally authorized representatives is feasible; and
</P>
<P>(iii) There is no reasonable way to identify prospectively the individuals likely to become eligible for participation in the clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) Participation in the research holds out the prospect of direct benefit to the subjects because:
</P>
<P>(i) Subjects are facing a life-threatening situation that necessitates intervention;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate animal and other preclinical studies have been conducted, and the information derived from those studies and related evidence support the potential for the intervention to provide a direct benefit to the individual subjects; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Risks associated with the investigation are reasonable in relation to what is known about the medical condition of the potential class of subjects, the risks and benefits of standard therapy, if any, and what is known about the risks and benefits of the proposed intervention or activity.
</P>
<P>(4) The clinical investigation could not practicably be carried out without the waiver.
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed investigational plan defines the length of the potential therapeutic window based on scientific evidence, and the investigator has committed to attempting to contact a legally authorized representative for each subject within that window of time and, if feasible, to asking the legally authorized representative contacted for consent within that window rather than proceeding without consent. The investigator will summarize efforts made to contact legally authorized representatives and make this information available to the IRB at the time of continuing review.
</P>
<P>(6) The IRB has reviewed and approved informed consent procedures and an informed consent document consistent with § 50.25. These procedures and the informed consent document are to be used with subjects or their legally authorized representatives in situations where use of such procedures and documents is feasible. The IRB has reviewed and approved procedures and information to be used when providing an opportunity for a family member to object to a subject's participation in the clinical investigation consistent with paragraph (a)(7)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Additional protections of the rights and welfare of the subjects will be provided, including, at least:
</P>
<P>(i) Consultation (including, where appropriate, consultation carried out by the IRB) with representatives of the communities in which the clinical investigation will be conducted and from which the subjects will be drawn;
</P>
<P>(ii) Public disclosure to the communities in which the clinical investigation will be conducted and from which the subjects will be drawn, prior to initiation of the clinical investigation, of plans for the investigation and its risks and expected benefits;
</P>
<P>(iii) Public disclosure of sufficient information following completion of the clinical investigation to apprise the community and researchers of the study, including the demographic characteristics of the research population, and its results;
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishment of an independent data monitoring committee to exercise oversight of the clinical investigation; and
</P>
<P>(v) If obtaining informed consent is not feasible and a legally authorized representative is not reasonably available, the investigator has committed, if feasible, to attempting to contact within the therapeutic window the subject's family member who is not a legally authorized representative, and asking whether he or she objects to the subject's participation in the clinical investigation. The investigator will summarize efforts made to contact family members and make this information available to the IRB at the time of continuing review.
</P>
<P>(b) The IRB is responsible for ensuring that procedures are in place to inform, at the earliest feasible opportunity, each subject, or if the subject remains incapacitated, a legally authorized representative of the subject, or if such a representative is not reasonably available, a family member, of the subject's inclusion in the clinical investigation, the details of the investigation and other information contained in the informed consent document. The IRB shall also ensure that there is a procedure to inform the subject, or if the subject remains incapacitated, a legally authorized representative of the subject, or if such a representative is not reasonably available, a family member, that he or she may discontinue the subject's participation at any time without penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled. If a legally authorized representative or family member is told about the clinical investigation and the subject's condition improves, the subject is also to be informed as soon as feasible. If a subject is entered into a clinical investigation with waived consent and the subject dies before a legally authorized representative or family member can be contacted, information about the clinical investigation is to be provided to the subject's legally authorized representative or family member, if feasible.
</P>
<P>(c) The IRB determinations required by paragraph (a) of this section and the documentation required by paragraph (e) of this section are to be retained by the IRB for at least 3 years after completion of the clinical investigation, and the records shall be accessible for inspection and copying by FDA in accordance with § 56.115(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Protocols involving an exception to the informed consent requirement under this section must be performed under a separate investigational new drug application (IND) or investigational device exemption (IDE) that clearly identifies such protocols as protocols that may include subjects who are unable to consent. The submission of those protocols in a separate IND/IDE is required even if an IND for the same drug product or an IDE for the same device already exists. Applications for investigations under this section may not be submitted as amendments under §§ 312.30 or 812.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) If an IRB determines that it cannot approve a clinical investigation because the investigation does not meet the criteria in the exception provided under paragraph (a) of this section or because of other relevant ethical concerns, the IRB must document its findings and provide these findings promptly in writing to the clinical investigator and to the sponsor of the clinical investigation. The sponsor of the clinical investigation must promptly disclose this information to FDA and to the sponsor's clinical investigators who are participating or are asked to participate in this or a substantially equivalent clinical investigation of the sponsor, and to other IRB's that have been, or are, asked to review this or a substantially equivalent investigation by that sponsor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 51528, Oct. 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.25   Elements of informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic elements of informed consent.</I> In seeking informed consent, the following information shall be provided to each subject:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the study involves research, an explanation of the purposes of the research and the expected duration of the subject's participation, a description of the procedures to be followed, and identification of any procedures which are experimental.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any reasonably foreseeable risks or discomforts to the subject.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any benefits to the subject or to others which may reasonably be expected from the research.
</P>
<P>(4) A disclosure of appropriate alternative procedures or courses of treatment, if any, that might be advantageous to the subject.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing the extent, if any, to which confidentiality of records identifying the subject will be maintained and that notes the possibility that the Food and Drug Administration may inspect the records.
</P>
<P>(6) For research involving more than minimal risk, an explanation as to whether any compensation and an explanation as to whether any medical treatments are available if injury occurs and, if so, what they consist of, or where further information may be obtained.
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to pertinent questions about the research and research subjects' rights, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related injury to the subject.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that participation is voluntary, that refusal to participate will involve no penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled, and that the subject may discontinue participation at any time without penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional elements of informed consent.</I> When appropriate, one or more of the following elements of information shall also be provided to each subject:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the particular treatment or procedure may involve risks to the subject (or to the embryo or fetus, if the subject is or may become pregnant) which are currently unforeseeable.
</P>
<P>(2) Anticipated circumstances under which the subject's participation may be terminated by the investigator without regard to the subject's consent.
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional costs to the subject that may result from participation in the research.
</P>
<P>(4) The consequences of a subject's decision to withdraw from the research and procedures for orderly termination of participation by the subject.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that significant new findings developed during the course of the research which may relate to the subject's willingness to continue participation will be provided to the subject.
</P>
<P>(6) The approximate number of subjects involved in the study.
</P>
<P>(c) When seeking informed consent for applicable clinical trials, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 282(j)(1)(A), the following statement shall be provided to each clinical trial subject in informed consent documents and processes. This will notify the clinical trial subject that clinical trial information has been or will be submitted for inclusion in the clinical trial registry databank under paragraph (j) of section 402 of the Public Health Service Act. The statement is: “A description of this clinical trial will be available on <I>http://www.ClinicalTrials.gov,</I> as required by U.S. Law. This Web site will not include information that can identify you. At most, the Web site will include a summary of the results. You can search this Web site at any time.”
</P>
<P>(d) The informed consent requirements in these regulations are not intended to preempt any applicable Federal, State, or local laws which require additional information to be disclosed for informed consent to be legally effective.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in these regulations is intended to limit the authority of a physician to provide emergency medical care to the extent the physician is permitted to do so under applicable Federal, State, or local law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8951, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 76 FR 270, Jan. 4, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.27" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.27   Documentation of informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 56.109(c), informed consent shall be documented by the use of a written consent form approved by the IRB and signed and dated by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative at the time of consent. A copy shall be given to the person signing the form.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 56.109(c), the consent form may be either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A written consent document that embodies the elements of informed consent required by § 50.25. This form may be read to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, but, in any event, the investigator shall give either the subject or the representative adequate opportunity to read it before it is signed.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>short form</I> written consent document stating that the elements of informed consent required by § 50.25 have been presented orally to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. When this method is used, there shall be a witness to the oral presentation. Also, the IRB shall approve a written summary of what is to be said to the subject or the representative. Only the short form itself is to be signed by the subject or the representative. However, the witness shall sign both the short form and a copy of the summary, and the person actually obtaining the consent shall sign a copy of the summary. A copy of the summary shall be given to the subject or the representative in addition to a copy of the short form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8951, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 61 FR 57280, Nov. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Safeguards for Children in Clinical Investigations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 20598, Apr. 24, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 50.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.50   IRB duties.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to other responsibilities assigned to IRBs under this part and part 56 of this chapter, each IRB must review clinical investigations involving children as subjects covered by this subpart D and approve only those clinical investigations that satisfy the criteria described in § 50.51, § 50.52, or § 50.53 and the conditions of all other applicable sections of this subpart D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.51   Clinical investigations not involving greater than minimal risk.</HEAD>
<P>Any clinical investigation within the scope described in §§ 50.1 and 56.101 of this chapter in which no greater than minimal risk to children is presented may involve children as subjects only if the IRB finds that:
</P>
<P>(a) No greater than minimal risk to children is presented; and
</P>
<P>(b) Adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of the children and the permission of their parents or guardians as set forth in § 50.55.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12951, Feb. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.52" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.52   Clinical investigations involving greater than minimal risk but presenting the prospect of direct benefit to individual subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Any clinical investigation within the scope described in §§ 50.1 and 56.101 of this chapter in which more than minimal risk to children is presented by an intervention or procedure that holds out the prospect of direct benefit for the individual subject, or by a monitoring procedure that is likely to contribute to the subject's well-being, may involve children as subjects only if the IRB finds that:
</P>
<P>(a) The risk is justified by the anticipated benefit to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(b) The relation of the anticipated benefit to the risk is at least as favorable to the subjects as that presented by available alternative approaches; and
</P>
<P>(c) Adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of the children and permission of their parents or guardians as set forth in § 50.55.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 20598, Apr. 24, 2001, as amended at 78 FR 12951, Feb. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.53" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.53   Clinical investigations involving greater than minimal risk and no prospect of direct benefit to individual subjects, but likely to yield generalizable knowledge about the subjects' disorder or condition.</HEAD>
<P>Any clinical investigation within the scope described in §§ 50.1 and 56.101 of this chapter in which more than minimal risk to children is presented by an intervention or procedure that does not hold out the prospect of direct benefit for the individual subject, or by a monitoring procedure that is not likely to contribute to the well-being of the subject, may involve children as subjects only if the IRB finds that:
</P>
<P>(a) The risk represents a minor increase over minimal risk;
</P>
<P>(b) The intervention or procedure presents experiences to subjects that are reasonably commensurate with those inherent in their actual or expected medical, dental, psychological, social, or educational situations;
</P>
<P>(c) The intervention or procedure is likely to yield generalizable knowledge about the subjects' disorder or condition that is of vital importance for the understanding or amelioration of the subjects' disorder or condition; and
</P>
<P>(d) Adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of the children and permission of their parents or guardians as set forth in § 50.55.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 20598, Apr. 24, 2001, as amended at 78 FR 12951, Feb. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.54" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.54   Clinical investigations not otherwise approvable that present an opportunity to understand, prevent, or alleviate a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of children.</HEAD>
<P>If an IRB does not believe that a clinical investigation within the scope described in §§ 50.1 and 56.101 of this chapter and involving children as subjects meets the requirements of § 50.51, § 50.52, or § 50.53, the clinical investigation may proceed only if:
</P>
<P>(a) The IRB finds that the clinical investigation presents a reasonable opportunity to further the understanding, prevention, or alleviation of a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of children; and
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, after consultation with a panel of experts in pertinent disciplines (for example: science, medicine, education, ethics, law) and following opportunity for public review and comment, determines either:
</P>
<P>(1) That the clinical investigation in fact satisfies the conditions of § 50.51, § 50.52, or § 50.53, as applicable, or
</P>
<P>(2) That the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical investigation presents a reasonable opportunity to further the understanding, prevention, or alleviation of a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of children;
</P>
<P>(ii) The clinical investigation will be conducted in accordance with sound ethical principles; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of children and the permission of their parents or guardians as set forth in § 50.55.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 20598, Apr. 24, 2001, as amended at 78 FR 12951, Feb. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.55   Requirements for permission by parents or guardians and for assent by children.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the determinations required under other applicable sections of this subpart D, the IRB must determine that adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of the children when in the judgment of the IRB the children are capable of providing assent.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether children are capable of providing assent, the IRB must take into account the ages, maturity, and psychological state of the children involved. This judgment may be made for all children to be involved in clinical investigations under a particular protocol, or for each child, as the IRB deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) The assent of the children is not a necessary condition for proceeding with the clinical investigation if the IRB determines:
</P>
<P>(1) That the capability of some or all of the children is so limited that they cannot reasonably be consulted, or
</P>
<P>(2) That the intervention or procedure involved in the clinical investigation holds out a prospect of direct benefit that is important to the health or well-being of the children and is available only in the context of the clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) Even where the IRB determines that the subjects are capable of assenting, the IRB may still waive the assent requirement if it finds and documents that:
</P>
<P>(1) The clinical investigation involves no more than minimal risk to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(2) The waiver will not adversely affect the rights and welfare of the subjects;
</P>
<P>(3) The clinical investigation could not practicably be carried out without the waiver; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever appropriate, the subjects will be provided with additional pertinent information after participation.
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the determinations required under other applicable sections of this subpart D, the IRB must determine, in accordance with and to the extent that consent is required under part 50, that the permission of each child's parents or guardian is granted.
</P>
<P>(1) Where parental permission is to be obtained, the IRB may find that the permission of one parent is sufficient for clinical investigations to be conducted under § 50.51 or § 50.52.
</P>
<P>(2) Where clinical investigations are covered by § 50.53 or § 50.54 and permission is to be obtained from parents, both parents must give their permission unless one parent is deceased, unknown, incompetent, or not reasonably available, or when only one parent has legal responsibility for the care and custody of the child.
</P>
<P>(f) Permission by parents or guardians must be documented in accordance with and to the extent required by § 50.27.
</P>
<P>(g) When the IRB determines that assent is required, it must also determine whether and how assent must be documented.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 20598, Apr. 24, 2001, as amended at 78 FR 12951, Feb. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.56" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.19.4.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.56   Wards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Children who are wards of the State or any other agency, institution, or entity can be included in clinical investigations approved under § 50.53 or § 50.54 only if such clinical investigations are:
</P>
<P>(1) Related to their status as wards; or
</P>
<P>(2) Conducted in schools, camps, hospitals, institutions, or similar settings in which the majority of children involved as subjects are not wards.
</P>
<P>(b) If the clinical investigation is approved under paragraph (a) of this section, the IRB must require appointment of an advocate for each child who is a ward.
</P>
<P>(1) The advocate will serve in addition to any other individual acting on behalf of the child as guardian or in loco parentis.
</P>
<P>(2) One individual may serve as advocate for more than one child.
</P>
<P>(3) The advocate must be an individual who has the background and experience to act in, and agrees to act in, the best interest of the child for the duration of the child's participation in the clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(4) The advocate must not be associated in any way (except in the role as advocate or member of the IRB) with the clinical investigation, the investigator(s), or the guardian organization.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="54" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 54—FINANCIAL DISCLOSURE BY CLINICAL INVESTIGATORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360c-360j, 371, 372, 373, 374, 375, 376, 379; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 5250, Feb. 2, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 54.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.20.0.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) evaluates clinical studies submitted in marketing applications, required by law, for new human drugs and biological products and marketing applications and reclassification petitions for medical devices.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency reviews data generated in these clinical studies to determine whether the applications are approvable under the statutory requirements. FDA may consider clinical studies inadequate and the data inadequate if, among other things, appropriate steps have not been taken in the design, conduct, reporting, and analysis of the studies to minimize bias. One potential source of bias in clinical studies is a financial interest of the clinical investigator in the outcome of the study because of the way payment is arranged (e.g., a royalty) or because the investigator has a proprietary interest in the product (e.g., a patent) or because the investigator has an equity interest in the sponsor of the covered study. This section and conforming regulations require an applicant whose submission relies in part on clinical data to disclose certain financial arrangements between sponsor(s) of the covered studies and the clinical investigators and certain interests of the clinical investigators in the product under study or in the sponsor of the covered studies. FDA will use this information, in conjunction with information about the design and purpose of the study, as well as information obtained through on-site inspections, in the agency's assessment of the reliability of the data.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.20.0.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Compensation affected by the outcome of clinical studies</I> means compensation that could be higher for a favorable outcome than for an unfavorable outcome, such as compensation that is explicitly greater for a favorable result or compensation to the investigator in the form of an equity interest in the sponsor of a covered study or in the form of compensation tied to sales of the product, such as a royalty interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significant equity interest in the sponsor of a covered study</I> means any ownership interest, stock options, or other financial interest whose value cannot be readily determined through reference to public prices (generally, interests in a nonpublicly traded corporation), or any equity interest in a publicly traded corporation that exceeds $50,000 during the time the clinical investigator is carrying out the study and for 1 year following completion of the study.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proprietary interest in the tested product</I> means property or other financial interest in the product including, but not limited to, a patent, trademark, copyright or licensing agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Clinical investigator</I> means only a listed or identified investigator or subinvestigator who is directly involved in the treatment or evaluation of research subjects. The term also includes the spouse and each dependent child of the investigator.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Covered clinical study</I> means any study of a drug or device in humans submitted in a marketing application or reclassification petition subject to this part that the applicant or FDA relies on to establish that the product is effective (including studies that show equivalence to an effective product) or any study in which a single investigator makes a significant contribution to the demonstration of safety. This would, in general, not include phase l tolerance studies or pharmacokinetic studies, most clinical pharmacology studies (unless they are critical to an efficacy determination), large open safety studies conducted at multiple sites, treatment protocols, and parallel track protocols. An applicant may consult with FDA as to which clinical studies constitute “covered clinical studies” for purposes of complying with financial disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Significant payments of other sorts</I> means payments made by the sponsor of a covered study to the investigator or the institution to support activities of the investigator that have a monetary value of more than $25,000, exclusive of the costs of conducting the clinical study or other clinical studies, (e.g., a grant to fund ongoing research, compensation in the form of equipment or retainers for ongoing consultation or honoraria) during the time the clinical investigator is carrying out the study and for 1 year following the completion of the study.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicant</I> means the party who submits a marketing application to FDA for approval of a drug, device, or biologic product. The applicant is responsible for submitting the appropriate certification and disclosure statements required in this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Sponsor of the covered clinical study</I> means the party supporting a particular study at the time it was carried out.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 5250, Feb. 2, 1998, as amended at 63 FR 72181, Dec. 31, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.20.0.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements in this part apply to any applicant who submits a marketing application for a human drug, biological product, or device and who submits covered clinical studies. The applicant is responsible for making the appropriate certification or disclosure statement where the applicant either contracted with one or more clinical investigators to conduct the studies or submitted studies conducted by others not under contract to the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.4" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.20.0.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.4   Certification and disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, an applicant must submit a list of all clinical investigators who conducted covered clinical studies to determine whether the applicant's product meets FDA's marketing requirements, identifying those clinical investigators who are full-time or part-time employees of the sponsor of each covered study. The applicant must also completely and accurately disclose or certify information concerning the financial interests of a clinical investigator who is not a full-time or part-time employee of the sponsor for each covered clinical study. Clinical investigators subject to investigational new drug or investigational device exemption regulations must provide the sponsor of the study with sufficient accurate information needed to allow subsequent disclosure or certification. The applicant is required to submit for each clinical investigator who participates in a covered study, either a certification that none of the financial arrangements described in § 54.2 exist, or disclose the nature of those arrangements to the agency. Where the applicant acts with due diligence to obtain the information required in this section but is unable to do so, the applicant shall certify that despite the applicant's due diligence in attempting to obtain the information, the applicant was unable to obtain the information and shall include the reason.
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant (of an application submitted under sections 505, 506, 510(k), 513, or 515 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act) that relies in whole or in part on clinical studies shall submit, for each clinical investigator who participated in a covered clinical study, either a certification described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or a disclosure statement described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Certification: The applicant covered by this section shall submit for all clinical investigators (as defined in § 54.2(d)), to whom the certification applies, a completed Form FDA 3454 attesting to the absence of financial interests and arrangements described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. The form shall be dated and signed by the chief financial officer or other responsible corporate official or representative.
</P>
<P>(2) If the certification covers less than all covered clinical data in the application, the applicant shall include in the certification a list of the studies covered by this certification.
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure Statement: For any clinical investigator defined in § 54.2(d) for whom the applicant does not submit the certification described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the applicant shall submit a completed Form FDA 3455 disclosing completely and accurately the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any financial arrangement entered into between the sponsor of the covered study and the clinical investigator involved in the conduct of a covered clinical trial, whereby the value of the compensation to the clinical investigator for conducting the study could be influenced by the outcome of the study;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any significant payments of other sorts from the sponsor of the covered study, such as a grant to fund ongoing research, compensation in the form of equipment, retainer for ongoing consultation, or honoraria;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any proprietary interest in the tested product held by any clinical investigator involved in a study;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any significant equity interest in the sponsor of the covered study held by any clinical investigator involved in any clinical study; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any steps taken to minimize the potential for bias resulting from any of the disclosed arrangements, interests, or payments.
</P>
<P>(b) The clinical investigator shall provide to the sponsor of the covered study sufficient accurate financial information to allow the sponsor to submit complete and accurate certification or disclosure statements as required in paragraph (a) of this section. The investigator shall promptly update this information if any relevant changes occur in the course of the investigation or for 1 year following completion of the study.
</P>
<P>(c) Refusal to file application. FDA may refuse to file any marketing application described in paragraph (a) of this section that does not contain the information required by this section or a certification by the applicant that the applicant has acted with due diligence to obtain the information but was unable to do so and stating the reason.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 5250, Feb. 2, 1998; 63 FR 35134, June 29, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.20.0.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.5   Agency evaluation of financial interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evaluation of disclosure statement.</I> FDA will evaluate the information disclosed under § 54.4(a)(2) about each covered clinical study in an application to determine the impact of any disclosed financial interests on the reliability of the study. FDA may consider both the size and nature of a disclosed financial interest (including the potential increase in the value of the interest if the product is approved) and steps that have been taken to minimize the potential for bias.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of study design.</I> In assessing the potential of an investigator's financial interests to bias a study, FDA will take into account the design and purpose of the study. Study designs that utilize such approaches as multiple investigators (most of whom do not have a disclosable interest), blinding, objective endpoints, or measurement of endpoints by someone other than the investigator may adequately protect against any bias created by a disclosable financial interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency actions to ensure reliability of data.</I> If FDA determines that the financial interests of any clinical investigator raise a serious question about the integrity of the data, FDA will take any action it deems necessary to ensure the reliability of the data including:
</P>
<P>(1) Initiating agency audits of the data derived from the clinical investigator in question;
</P>
<P>(2) Requesting that the applicant submit further analyses of data, e.g., to evaluate the effect of the clinical investigator's data on overall study outcome;
</P>
<P>(3) Requesting that the applicant conduct additional independent studies to confirm the results of the questioned study; and
</P>
<P>(4) Refusing to treat the covered clinical study as providing data that can be the basis for an agency action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.6" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.20.0.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.6   Recordkeeping and record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Financial records of clinical investigators to be retained.</I> An applicant who has submitted a marketing application containing covered clinical studies shall keep on file certain information pertaining to the financial interests of clinical investigators who conducted studies on which the application relies and who are not full or part-time employees of the applicant, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Complete records showing any financial interest or arrangement as described in § 54.4(a)(3)(i) paid to such clinical investigators by the sponsor of the covered study.
</P>
<P>(2) Complete records showing significant payments of other sorts, as described in § 54.4(a)(3)(ii), made by the sponsor of the covered clinical study to the clinical investigator.
</P>
<P>(3) Complete records showing any financial interests held by clinical investigators as set forth in § 54.4(a)(3)(iii) and (a)(3)(iv).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for maintenance of clinical investigators' financial records.</I> (1) For any application submitted for a covered product, an applicant shall retain records as described in paragraph (a) of this section for 2 years after the date of approval of the application.
</P>
<P>(2) The person maintaining these records shall, upon request from any properly authorized officer or employee of FDA, at reasonable times, permit such officer or employee to have access to and copy and verify these records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="56" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 56—INSTITUTIONAL REVIEW BOARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 343, 346, 346a, 348, 350a, 350b, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360c-360f, 360h, 360i, 360j, 360hh-360ss, 371, 379e, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains the general standards for the composition, operation, and responsibility of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) that reviews clinical investigations regulated by the Food and Drug Administration under sections 505(i) and 520(g) of the act, as well as clinical investigations that support applications for research or marketing permits for products regulated by the Food and Drug Administration, including foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, drugs for human use, medical devices for human use, biological products for human use, and electronic products. Compliance with this part is intended to protect the rights and welfare of human subjects involved in such investigations.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999; 66 FR 20599, Apr. 24, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (secs. 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 321-392)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for research or marketing permit</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A color additive petition, described in part 71.
</P>
<P>(2) Data and information regarding a substance submitted as part of the procedures for establishing that a substance is generally recognized as safe for a use which results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food, described in § 170.35.
</P>
<P>(3) A food additive petition, described in part 171.
</P>
<P>(4) Data and information regarding a food additive submitted as part of the procedures regarding food additives permitted to be used on an interim basis pending additional study, described in § 180.1.
</P>
<P>(5) Data and information regarding a substance submitted as part of the procedures for establishing a tolerance for unavoidable contaminants in food and food-packaging materials, described in section 406 of the act.
</P>
<P>(6) An investigational new drug application, described in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) A new drug application, described in part 314.
</P>
<P>(8) Data and information regarding the bioavailability or bioequivalence of drugs for human use submitted as part of the procedures for issuing, amending, or repealing a bioequivalence requirement, described in part 320.
</P>
<P>(9) Data and information regarding an over-the-counter drug for human use submitted as part of the procedures for classifying such drugs as generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded, described in part 330.
</P>
<P>(10) An application for a biologics license, described in part 601 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(11) Data and information regarding a biological product submitted as part of the procedures for determining that licensed biological products are safe and effective and not misbranded, as described in part 601 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(12) An Application for an Investigational Device Exemption, described in part 812.
</P>
<P>(13) Data and information regarding a medical device for human use submitted as part of the procedures for classifying such devices, described in part 860.
</P>
<P>(14) Data and information regarding a medical device for human use submitted as part of the procedures for establishing, amending, or repealing a standard for such device, described in part 861.
</P>
<P>(15) An application for premarket approval of a medical device for human use, described in section 515 of the act.
</P>
<P>(16) A product development protocol for a medical device for human use, described in section 515 of the act.
</P>
<P>(17) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for establishing, amending, or repealing a standard for such products, described in section 358 of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(18) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for obtaining a variance from any electronic product performance standard, as described in § 1010.4.
</P>
<P>(19) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for granting, amending, or extending an exemption from a radiation safety performance standard, as described in § 1010.5.
</P>
<P>(20) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for obtaining an exemption from notification of a radiation safety defect or failure of compliance with a radiation safety performance standard, described in subpart D of part 1003.
</P>
<P>(21) Data and information about a clinical study of an infant formula when submitted as part of an infant formula notification under section 412(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(22) Data and information submitted in a petition for a nutrient content claim, described in § 101.69 of this chapter, and for a health claim, described in § 101.70 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(23) Data and information from investigations involving children submitted in a new dietary ingredient notification, described in § 190.6 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clinical investigation</I> means any experiment that involves a test article and one or more human subjects, and that either must meet the requirements for prior submission to the Food and Drug Administration under section 505(i) or 520(g) of the act, or need not meet the requirements for prior submission to the Food and Drug Administration under these sections of the act, but the results of which are intended to be later submitted to, or held for inspection by, the Food and Drug Administration as part of an application for a research or marketing permit. The term does not include experiments that must meet the provisions of part 58, regarding nonclinical laboratory studies. The terms <I>research, clinical research, clinical study, study,</I> and <I>clinical investigation</I> are deemed to be synonymous for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency use</I> means the use of a test article on a human subject in a life-threatening situation in which no standard acceptable treatment is available, and in which there is not sufficient time to obtain IRB approval.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Human subject</I> means an individual who is or becomes a participant in research, either as a recipient of the test article or as a control. A subject may be either a healthy individual or a patient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution</I> means any public or private entity or agency (including Federal, State, and other agencies). The term <I>facility</I> as used in section 520(g) of the act is deemed to be synonymous with the term <I>institution</I> for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Institutional Review Board (IRB)</I> means any board, committee, or other group formally designated by an institution to review, to approve the initiation of, and to conduct periodic review of, biomedical research involving human subjects. The primary purpose of such review is to assure the protection of the rights and welfare of the human subjects. The term has the same meaning as the phrase <I>institutional review committee</I> as used in section 520(g) of the act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Investigator</I> means an individual who actually conducts a clinical investigation (i.e., under whose immediate direction the test article is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, a subject) or, in the event of an investigation conducted by a team of individuals, is the responsible leader of that team.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Minimal risk</I> means that the probability and magnitude of harm or discomfort anticipated in the research are not greater in and of themselves than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations or tests.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Sponsor</I> means a person or other entity that initiates a clinical investigation, but that does not actually conduct the investigation, i.e., the test article is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, a subject under the immediate direction of another individual. A person other than an individual (e.g., a corporation or agency) that uses one or more of its own employees to conduct an investigation that it has initiated is considered to be a sponsor (not a sponsor-investigator), and the employees are considered to be investigators.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Sponsor-investigator</I> means an individual who both initiates and actually conducts, alone or with others, a clinical investigation, i.e., under whose immediate direction the test article is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, a subject. The term does not include any person other than an individual, e.g., it does not include a corporation or agency. The obligations of a sponsor-investigator under this part include both those of a sponsor and those of an investigator.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Test article</I> means any drug for human use, biological product for human use, medical device for human use, human food additive, color additive, electronic product, or any other article subject to regulation under the act or under sections 351 or 354-360F of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>IRB approval</I> means the determination of the IRB that the clinical investigation has been reviewed and may be conducted at an institution within the constraints set forth by the IRB and by other institutional and Federal requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 9038, Mar. 3, 1989; 56 FR 28028, June 18, 1991; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999; 64 FR 56448, Oct. 20, 1999; 65 FR 52302, Aug. 29, 2000; 66 FR 20599, Apr. 24, 2001; 74 FR 2368, Jan. 15, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.103" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.103   Circumstances in which IRB review is required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in §§ 56.104 and 56.105, any clinical investigation which must meet the requirements for prior submission (as required in parts 312, 812, and 813) to the Food and Drug Administration shall not be initiated unless that investigation has been reviewed and approved by, and remains subject to continuing review by, an IRB meeting the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in §§ 56.104 and 56.105, the Food and Drug Administration may decide not to consider in support of an application for a research or marketing permit any data or information that has been derived from a clinical investigation that has not been approved by, and that was not subject to initial and continuing review by, an IRB meeting the requirements of this part. The determination that a clinical investigation may not be considered in support of an application for a research or marketing permit does not, however, relieve the applicant for such a permit of any obligation under any other applicable regulations to submit the results of the investigation to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) Compliance with these regulations will in no way render inapplicable pertinent Federal, State, or local laws or regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981; 46 FR 14340, Feb. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.104" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.104   Exemptions from IRB requirement.</HEAD>
<P>The following categories of clinical investigations are exempt from the requirements of this part for IRB review:
</P>
<P>(a) Any investigation which commenced before July 27, 1981 and was subject to requirements for IRB review under FDA regulations before that date, provided that the investigation remains subject to review of an IRB which meets the FDA requirements in effect before July 27, 1981.
</P>
<P>(b) Any investigation commenced before July 27, 1981 and was not otherwise subject to requirements for IRB review under Food and Drug Administration regulations before that date.
</P>
<P>(c) Emergency use of a test article, provided that such emergency use is reported to the IRB within 5 working days. Any subsequent use of the test article at the institution is subject to IRB review.
</P>
<P>(d) Taste and food quality evaluations and consumer acceptance studies, if wholesome foods without additives are consumed or if a food is consumed that contains a food ingredient at or below the level and for a use found to be safe, or agricultural, chemical, or environmental contaminant at or below the level found to be safe, by the Food and Drug Administration or approved by the Environmental Protection Agency or the Food Safety and Inspection Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 28028, June 18, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.1.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.105   Waiver of IRB requirement.</HEAD>
<P>On the application of a sponsor or sponsor-investigator, the Food and Drug Administration may waive any of the requirements contained in these regulations, including the requirements for IRB review, for specific research activities or for classes of research activities, otherwise covered by these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Organization and Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.106" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.106   Registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must register?</I> Each IRB in the United States that reviews clinical investigations regulated by FDA under sections 505(i) or 520(g) of the act and each IRB in the United States that reviews clinical investigations that are intended to support applications for research or marketing permits for FDA-regulated products must register at a site maintained by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). (A research permit under section 505(i) of the act is usually known as an investigational new drug application (IND), while a research permit under section 520(g) of the act is usually known as an investigational device exemption (IDE).) An individual authorized to act on the IRB's behalf must submit the registration information. All other IRBs may register voluntarily.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must an IRB register?</I> Each IRB must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, mailing address, and street address (if different from the mailing address) of the institution operating the IRB and the name, mailing address, phone number, facsimile number, and electronic mail address of the senior officer of that institution who is responsible for overseeing activities performed by the IRB;
</P>
<P>(2) The IRB's name, mailing address, street address (if different from the mailing address), phone number, facsimile number, and electronic mail address; each IRB chairperson's name, phone number, and electronic mail address; and the name, mailing address, phone number, facsimile number, and electronic mail address of the contact person providing the registration information.
</P>
<P>(3) The approximate number of active protocols involving FDA-regulated products reviewed. For purposes of this rule, an “active protocol” is any protocol for which an IRB conducted an initial review or a continuing review at a convened meeting or under an expedited review procedure during the preceding 12 months; and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the types of FDA-regulated products (such as biological products, color additives, food additives, human drugs, or medical devices) involved in the protocols that the IRB reviews.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When must an IRB register?</I> Each IRB must submit an initial registration. The initial registration must occur before the IRB begins to review a clinical investigation described in paragraph (a) of this section. Each IRB must renew its registration every 3 years. IRB registration becomes effective after review and acceptance by HHS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where can an IRB register?</I> Each IRB may register electronically through <I>http://ohrp.cit.nih.gov/efile.</I> If an IRB lacks the ability to register electronically, it must send its registration information, in writing, to the Office of Good Clinical Practice, Office of Special Medical Programs, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 5129, Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>How does an IRB revise its registration information?</I> If an IRB's contact or chair person information changes, the IRB must revise its registration information by submitting any changes in that information within 90 days of the change. An IRB's decision to review new types of FDA-regulated products (such as a decision to review studies pertaining to food additives whereas the IRB previously reviewed studies pertaining to drug products), or to discontinue reviewing clinical investigations regulated by FDA is a change that must be reported within 30 days of the change. An IRB's decision to disband is a change that must be reported within 30 days of permanent cessation of the IRB's review of research. All other information changes may be reported when the IRB renews its registration. The revised information must be sent to FDA either electronically or in writing in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 2368, Jan. 15, 2009, as amended at 78 FR 16401, Mar. 15, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.107" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.107   IRB membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each IRB shall have at least five members, with varying backgrounds to promote complete and adequate review of research activities commonly conducted by the institution. The IRB shall be sufficiently qualified through the experience and expertise of its members, and the diversity of the members, including consideration of race, gender, cultural backgrounds, and sensitivity to such issues as community attitudes, to promote respect for its advice and counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects. In addition to possessing the professional competence necessary to review the specific research activities, the IRB shall be able to ascertain the acceptability of proposed research in terms of institutional commitments and regulations, applicable law, and standards of professional conduct and practice. * * * The IRB shall therefore include persons knowledgeable in these areas. If an IRB regularly reviews research that involves a vulnerable category of subjects, such as children, prisoners, pregnant women, or handicapped or mentally disabled persons, consideration shall be given to the inclusion of one or more individuals who are knowledgeable about and experienced in working with those subjects.
</P>
<P>(b) Every nondiscriminatory effort will be made to ensure that no IRB consists entirely of men or entirely of women, including the instituton's consideration of qualified persons of both sexes, so long as no selection is made to the IRB on the basis of gender. No IRB may consist entirely of members of one profession.
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB shall include at least one member whose primary concerns are in the scientific area and at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas.
</P>
<P>(d) Each IRB shall include at least one member who is not otherwise affiliated with the institution and who is not part of the immediate family of a person who is affiliated with the institution.
</P>
<P>(e) No IRB may have a member participate in the IRB's initial or continuing review of any project in which the member has a conflicting interest, except to provide information requested by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(f) An IRB may, in its discretion, invite individuals with competence in special areas to assist in the review of complex issues which require expertise beyond or in addition to that available on the IRB. These individuals may not vote with the IRB.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 28028, June 18, 1991; 56 FR 29756, June 28, 1991; 78 FR 16401, Mar. 15, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—IRB Functions and Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.108" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.108   IRB functions and operations.</HEAD>
<P>In order to fulfill the requirements of these regulations, each IRB shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Follow written procedures: (1) For conducting its initial and continuing review of research and for reporting its findings and actions to the investigator and the institution; (2) for determining which projects require review more often than annually and which projects need verification from sources other than the investigator that no material changes have occurred since previous IRB review; (3) for ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB of changes in research activity; and (4) for ensuring that changes in approved research, during the period for which IRB approval has already been given, may not be initiated without IRB review and approval except where necessary to eliminate apparent immediate hazards to the human subjects.
</P>
<P>(b) Follow written procedures for ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB, appropriate institutional officials, and the Food and Drug Administration of: (1) Any unanticipated problems involving risks to human subjects or others; (2) any instance of serious or continuing noncompliance with these regulations or the requirements or determinations of the IRB; or (3) any suspension or termination of IRB approval.
</P>
<P>(c) Except when an expedited review procedure is used (see § 56.110), review proposed research at convened meetings at which a majority of the members of the IRB are present, including at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas. In order for the research to be approved, it shall receive the approval of a majority of those members present at the meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 28028, June 18, 1991; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.109" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.109   IRB review of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all research activities covered by these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) An IRB shall require that information given to subjects as part of informed consent is in accordance with § 50.25. The IRB may require that information, in addition to that specifically mentioned in § 50.25, be given to the subjects when in the IRB's judgment the information would meaningfully add to the protection of the rights and welfare of subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) An IRB shall require documentation of informed consent in accordance with § 50.27 of this chapter, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The IRB may, for some or all subjects, waive the requirement that the subject, or the subject's legally authorized representative, sign a written consent form if it finds that the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and involves no procedures for which written consent is normally required outside the research context; or
</P>
<P>(2) The IRB may, for some or all subjects, find that the requirements in § 50.24 of this chapter for an exception from informed consent for emergency research are met.
</P>
<P>(d) In cases where the documentation requirement is waived under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the IRB may require the investigator to provide subjects with a written statement regarding the research.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB shall notify investigators and the institution in writing of its decision to approve or disapprove the proposed research activity, or of modifications required to secure IRB approval of the research activity. If the IRB decides to disapprove a research activity, it shall include in its written notification a statement of the reasons for its decision and give the investigator an opportunity to respond in person or in writing. For investigations involving an exception to informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, an IRB shall promptly notify in writing the investigator and the sponsor of the research when an IRB determines that it cannot approve the research because it does not meet the criteria in the exception provided under § 50.24(a) of this chapter or because of other relevant ethical concerns. The written notification shall include a statement of the reasons for the IRB's determination.
</P>
<P>(f) An IRB shall conduct continuing review of research covered by these regulations at intervals appropriate to the degree of risk, but not less than once per year, and shall have authority to observe or have a third party observe the consent process and the research.
</P>
<P>(g) An IRB shall provide in writing to the sponsor of research involving an exception to informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter a copy of information that has been publicly disclosed under § 50.24(a)(7)(ii) and (a)(7)(iii) of this chapter. The IRB shall provide this information to the sponsor promptly so that the sponsor is aware that such disclosure has occurred. Upon receipt, the sponsor shall provide copies of the information disclosed to FDA.
</P>
<P>(h) When some or all of the subjects in a study are children, an IRB must determine that the research study is in compliance with part 50, subpart D of this chapter, at the time of its initial review of the research. When some or all of the subjects in a study that was ongoing on April 30, 2001, are children, an IRB must conduct a review of the research to determine compliance with part 50, subpart D of this chapter, either at the time of continuing review or, at the discretion of the IRB, at an earlier date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 61 FR 51529, Oct. 2, 1996; 66 FR 20599, Apr. 24, 2001; 78 FR 12951, Feb. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.110" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.110   Expedited review procedures for certain kinds of research involving no more than minimal risk, and for minor changes in approved research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration has established, and published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a list of categories of research that may be reviewed by the IRB through an expedited review procedure. The list will be amended, as appropriate, through periodic republication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) An IRB may use the expedited review procedure to review either or both of the following: (1) Some or all of the research appearing on the list and found by the reviewer(s) to involve no more than minimal risk, (2) minor changes in previously approved research during the period (of 1 year or less) for which approval is authorized. Under an expedited review procedure, the review may be carried out by the IRB chairperson or by one or more experienced reviewers designated by the IRB chairperson from among the members of the IRB. In reviewing the research, the reviewers may exercise all of the authorities of the IRB except that the reviewers may not disapprove the research. A research activity may be disapproved only after review in accordance with the nonexpedited review procedure set forth in § 56.108(c).
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB which uses an expedited review procedure shall adopt a method for keeping all members advised of research proposals which have been approved under the procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration may restrict, suspend, or terminate an institution's or IRB's use of the expedited review procedure when necessary to protect the rights or welfare of subjects.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 28029, June 18, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.111" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.111   Criteria for IRB approval of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to approve research covered by these regulations the IRB shall determine that all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Risks to subjects are minimized: (i) By using procedures which are consistent with sound research design and which do not unnecessarily expose subjects to risk, and (ii) whenever appropriate, by using procedures already being performed on the subjects for diagnostic or treatment purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Risks to subjects are reasonable in relation to anticipated benefits, if any, to subjects, and the importance of the knowledge that may be expected to result. In evaluating risks and benefits, the IRB should consider only those risks and benefits that may result from the research (as distinguished from risks and benefits of therapies that subjects would receive even if not participating in the research). The IRB should not consider possible long-range effects of applying knowledge gained in the research (for example, the possible effects of the research on public policy) as among those research risks that fall within the purview of its responsibility.
</P>
<P>(3) Selection of subjects is equitable. In making this assessment the IRB should take into account the purposes of the research and the setting in which the research will be conducted and should be particularly cognizant of the special problems of research involving vulnerable populations, such as children, prisoners, pregnant women, handicapped, or mentally disabled persons, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons.
</P>
<P>(4) Informed consent will be sought from each prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in accordance with and to the extent required by part 50.
</P>
<P>(5) Informed consent will be appropriately documented, in accordance with and to the extent required by § 50.27.
</P>
<P>(6) Where appropriate, the research plan makes adequate provision for monitoring the data collected to ensure the safety of subjects.
</P>
<P>(7) Where appropriate, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(b) When some or all of the subjects, such as children, prisoners, pregnant women, handicapped, or mentally disabled persons, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, are likely to be vulnerable to coercion or undue influence additional safeguards have been included in the study to protect the rights and welfare of these subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to approve research in which some or all of the subjects are children, an IRB must determine that all research is in compliance with part 50, subpart D of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 28029, June 18, 1991; 66 FR 20599, Apr. 24, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.112" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.112   Review by institution.</HEAD>
<P>Research covered by these regulations that has been approved by an IRB may be subject to further appropriate review and approval or disapproval by officials of the institution. However, those officials may not approve the research if it has not been approved by an IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.113" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.113   Suspension or termination of IRB approval of research.</HEAD>
<P>An IRB shall have authority to suspend or terminate approval of research that is not being conducted in accordance with the IRB's requirements or that has been associated with unexpected serious harm to subjects. Any suspension or termination of approval shall include a statement of the reasons for the IRB's action and shall be reported promptly to the investigator, appropriate institutional officials, and the Food and Drug Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.114" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.3.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.114   Cooperative research.</HEAD>
<P>In complying with these regulations, institutions involved in multi-institutional studies may use joint review, reliance upon the review of another qualified IRB, or similar arrangements aimed at avoidance of duplication of effort.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.115" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.115   IRB records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An institution, or where appropriate an IRB, shall prepare and maintain adequate documentation of IRB activities, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Copies of all research proposals reviewed, scientific evaluations, if any, that accompany the proposals, approved sample consent documents, progress reports submitted by investigators, and reports of injuries to subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) Minutes of IRB meetings which shall be in sufficient detail to show attendance at the meetings; actions taken by the IRB; the vote on these actions including the number of members voting for, against, and abstaining; the basis for requiring changes in or disapproving research; and a written summary of the discussion of controverted issues and their resolution.
</P>
<P>(3) Records of continuing review activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all correspondence between the IRB and the investigators.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of IRB members identified by name; earned degrees; representative capacity; indications of experience such as board certifications, licenses, etc., sufficient to describe each member's chief anticipated contributions to IRB deliberations; and any employment or other relationship between each member and the institution; for example: full-time employee, part-time employee, a member of governing panel or board, stockholder, paid or unpaid consultant.
</P>
<P>(6) Written procedures for the IRB as required by § 56.108 (a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(7) Statements of significant new findings provided to subjects, as required by § 50.25.
</P>
<P>(b) The records required by this regulation shall be retained for at least 3 years after completion of the research, and the records shall be accessible for inspection and copying by authorized representatives of the Food and Drug Administration at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration may refuse to consider a clinical investigation in support of an application for a research or marketing permit if the institution or the IRB that reviewed the investigation refuses to allow an inspection under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 56 FR 28029, June 18, 1991; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Administrative Actions for Noncompliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.120   Lesser administrative actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If apparent noncompliance with these regulations in the operation of an IRB is observed by an FDA investigator during an inspection, the inspector will present an oral or written summary of observations to an appropriate representative of the IRB. The Food and Drug Administration may subsequently send a letter describing the noncompliance to the IRB and to the parent institution. The agency will require that the IRB or the parent institution respond to this letter within a time period specified by FDA and describe the corrective actions that will be taken by the IRB, the institution, or both to achieve compliance with these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the IRB's or the institution's response, FDA may schedule a reinspection to confirm the adequacy of corrective actions. In addition, until the IRB or the parent institution takes appropriate corrective action, the Agency may require the IRB to:
</P>
<P>(1) Withhold approval of new studies subject to the requirements of this part that are conducted at the institution or reviewed by the IRB;
</P>
<P>(2) Direct that no new subjects be added to ongoing studies subject to this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) Terminate ongoing studies subject to this part when doing so would not endanger the subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) When the apparent noncompliance creates a significant threat to the rights and welfare of human subjects, FDA may notify relevant State and Federal regulatory agencies and other parties with a direct interest in the Agency's action of the deficiencies in the operation of the IRB.
</P>
<P>(d) The parent institution is presumed to be responsible for the operation of an IRB, and the Food and Drug Administration will ordinarily direct any administrative action under this subpart against the institution. However, depending on the evidence of responsibility for deficiencies, determined during the investigation, the Food and Drug Administration may restrict its administrative actions to the IRB or to a component of the parent institution determined to be responsible for formal designation of the IRB.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8975, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 81 FR 19035, Apr. 4, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.121" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.121   Disqualification of an IRB or an institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the IRB or the institution has failed to take adequate steps to correct the noncompliance stated in the letter sent by the agency under § 56.120(a), and the Commissioner of Food and Drugs determines that this noncompliance may justify the disqualification of the IRB or of the parent institution, the Commissioner will institute proceedings in accordance with the requirements for a regulatory hearing set forth in part 16.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may disqualify an IRB or the parent institution if the Commissioner determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The IRB has refused or repeatedly failed to comply with any of the regulations set forth in this part, and
</P>
<P>(2) The noncompliance adversely affects the rights or welfare of the human subjects in a clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commissioner determines that disqualification is appropriate, the Commissioner will issue an order that explains the basis for the determination and that prescribes any actions to be taken with regard to ongoing clinical research conducted under the review of the IRB. The Food and Drug Administration will send notice of the disqualification to the IRB and the parent institution. Other parties with a direct interest, such as sponsors and clinical investigators, may also be sent a notice of the disqualification. In addition, the agency may elect to publish a notice of its action in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration will not approve an application for a research permit for a clinical investigation that is to be under the review of a disqualified IRB or that is to be conducted at a disqualified institution, and it may refuse to consider in support of a marketing permit the data from a clinical investigation that was reviewed by a disqualified IRB as conducted at a disqualified institution, unless the IRB or the parent institution is reinstated as provided in § 56.123.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.122" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.122   Public disclosure of information regarding revocation.</HEAD>
<P>A determination that the Food and Drug Administration has disqualified an institution and the administrative record regarding that determination are disclosable to the public under part 20.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.123" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.5.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.123   Reinstatement of an IRB or an institution.</HEAD>
<P>An IRB or an institution may be reinstated if the Commissioner determines, upon an evaluation of a written submission from the IRB or institution that explains the corrective action that the institution or IRB plans to take, that the IRB or institution has provided adequate assurance that it will operate in compliance with the standards set forth in this part. Notification of reinstatement shall be provided to all persons notified under § 56.121(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 56.124" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.21.5.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 56.124   Actions alternative or additional to disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>Disqualification of an IRB or of an institution is independent of, and neither in lieu of nor a precondition to, other proceedings or actions authorized by the act. The Food and Drug Administration may, at any time, through the Department of Justice institute any appropriate judicial proceedings (civil or criminal) and any other appropriate regulatory action, in addition to or in lieu of, and before, at the time of, or after, disqualification. The agency may also refer pertinent matters to another Federal, State, or local government agency for any action that that agency determines to be appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="58" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 58—GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE FOR NONCLINICAL LABORATORY STUDIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 346, 346a, 348, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360b-360f, 360h-360j, 371, 379e, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263b-263n.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part prescribes good laboratory practices for conducting nonclinical laboratory studies that support or are intended to support applications for research or marketing permits for products regulated by the Food and Drug Administration, including food and color additives, animal food additives, human and animal drugs, medical devices for human use, biological products, and electronic products. Compliance with this part is intended to assure the quality and integrity of the safety data filed pursuant to sections 406, 408, 409, 502, 503, 505, 506, 510, 512-516, 518-520, 721, and 801 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and sections 351 and 354-360F of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33779, Sept. 4, 1987; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the following terms shall have the meanings specified:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (secs. 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 321-392)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test article</I> means any food additive, color additive, drug, biological product, electronic product, medical device for human use, or any other article subject to regulation under the act or under sections 351 and 354-360F of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control article</I> means any food additive, color additive, drug, biological product, electronic product, medical device for human use, or any article other than a test article, feed, or water that is administered to the test system in the course of a nonclinical laboratory study for the purpose of establishing a basis for comparison with the test article.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonclinical laboratory study</I> means in vivo or in vitro experiments in which test articles are studied prospectively in test systems under laboratory conditions to determine their safety. The term does not include studies utilizing human subjects or clinical studies or field trials in animals. The term does not include basic exploratory studies carried out to determine whether a test article has any potential utility or to determine physical or chemical characteristics of a test article.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application for research or marketing permit</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A color additive petition, described in part 71.
</P>
<P>(2) A food additive petition, described in parts 171 and 571.
</P>
<P>(3) Data and information regarding a substance submitted as part of the procedures for establishing that a substance is generally recognized as safe for use, which use results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food, described in §§ 170.35 and 570.35.
</P>
<P>(4) Data and information regarding a food additive submitted as part of the procedures regarding food additives permitted to be used on an interim basis pending additional study, described in § 180.1.
</P>
<P>(5) An <I>investigational new drug application,</I> described in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) A <I>new drug application,</I> described in part 314.
</P>
<P>(7) Data and information regarding an over-the-counter drug for human use, submitted as part of the procedures for classifying such drugs as generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded, described in part 330.
</P>
<P>(8) Data and information about a substance submitted as part of the procedures for establishing a tolerance for unavoidable contaminants in food and food-packaging materials, described in parts 109 and 509.
</P>
<P>(9) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(10) A <I>Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Animal Drug,</I> described in part 511.
</P>
<P>(11) A <I>new animal drug application,</I> described in part 514.
</P>
<P>(12) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(13) An <I>application for a biologics license,</I> described in part 601 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(14) An <I>application for an investigational device exemption,</I> described in part 812.
</P>
<P>(15) An <I>Application for Premarket Approval of a Medical Device,</I> described in section 515 of the act.
</P>
<P>(16) A <I>Product Development Protocol for a Medical Device,</I> described in section 515 of the act.
</P>
<P>(17) Data and information regarding a medical device submitted as part of the procedures for classifying such devices, described in part 860.
</P>
<P>(18) Data and information regarding a medical device submitted as part of the procedures for establishing, amending, or repealing a performance standard for such devices, described in part 861.
</P>
<P>(19) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for obtaining an exemption from notification of a radiation safety defect or failure of compliance with a radiation safety performance standard, described in subpart D of part 1003.
</P>
<P>(20) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for establishing, amending, or repealing a standard for such product, described in section 358 of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(21) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for obtaining a variance from any electronic product performance standard as described in § 1010.4.
</P>
<P>(22) Data and information regarding an electronic product submitted as part of the procedures for granting, amending, or extending an exemption from any electronic product performance standard, as described in § 1010.5.
</P>
<P>(23) A premarket notification for a food contact substance, described in part 170, subpart D, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sponsor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A person who initiates and supports, by provision of financial or other resources, a nonclinical laboratory study;
</P>
<P>(2) A person who submits a nonclinical study to the Food and Drug Administration in support of an application for a research or marketing permit; or
</P>
<P>(3) A testing facility, if it both initiates and actually conducts the study.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Testing facility</I> means a person who actually conducts a nonclinical laboratory study, i.e., actually uses the test article in a test system. <I>Testing facility</I> includes any establishment required to register under section 510 of the act that conducts nonclinical laboratory studies and any consulting laboratory described in section 704 of the act that conducts such studies. <I>Testing facility</I> encompasses only those operational units that are being or have been used to conduct nonclinical laboratory studies.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, scientific or academic establishment, government agency, or organizational unit thereof, and any other legal entity.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Test system</I> means any animal, plant, microorganism, or subparts thereof to which the test or control article is administered or added for study. <I>Test system</I> also includes appropriate groups or components of the system not treated with the test or control articles.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Specimen</I> means any material derived from a test system for examination or analysis.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Raw data</I> means any laboratory worksheets, records, memoranda, notes, or exact copies thereof, that are the result of original observations and activities of a nonclinical laboratory study and are necessary for the reconstruction and evaluation of the report of that study. In the event that exact transcripts of raw data have been prepared (e.g., tapes which have been transcribed verbatim, dated, and verified accurate by signature), the exact copy or exact transcript may be substituted for the original source as raw data. <I>Raw data</I> may include photographs, microfilm or microfiche copies, computer printouts, magnetic media, including dictated observations, and recorded data from automated instruments.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Quality assurance unit</I> means any person or organizational element, except the study director, designated by testing facility management to perform the duties relating to quality assurance of nonclinical laboratory studies.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Study director</I> means the individual responsible for the overall conduct of a nonclinical laboratory study.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Batch</I> means a specific quantity or lot of a test or control article that has been characterized according to § 58.105(a).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Study initiation date</I> means the date the protocol is signed by the study director.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Study completion date</I> means the date the final report is signed by the study director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33779, Sept. 4, 1987; 54 FR 9039, Mar. 3, 1989; 64 FR 56448, Oct. 20, 1999; 67 FR 35729, May 21, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.10   Applicability to studies performed under grants and contracts.</HEAD>
<P>When a sponsor conducting a nonclinical laboratory study intended to be submitted to or reviewed by the Food and Drug Administration utilizes the services of a consulting laboratory, contractor, or grantee to perform an analysis or other service, it shall notify the consulting laboratory, contractor, or grantee that the service is part of a nonclinical laboratory study that must be conducted in compliance with the provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.15" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.15   Inspection of a testing facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A testing facility shall permit an authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, to inspect the facility and to inspect (and in the case of records also to copy) all records and specimens required to be maintained regarding studies within the scope of this part. The records inspection and copying requirements shall not apply to quality assurance unit records of findings and problems, or to actions recommended and taken.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration will not consider a nonclinical laboratory study in support of an application for a research or marketing permit if the testing facility refuses to permit inspection. The determination that a nonclinical laboratory study will not be considered in support of an application for a research or marketing permit does not, however, relieve the applicant for such a permit of any obligation under any applicable statute or regulation to submit the results of the study to the Food and Drug Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Organization and Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.29" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.29   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each individual engaged in the conduct of or responsible for the supervision of a nonclinical laboratory study shall have education, training, and experience, or combination thereof, to enable that individual to perform the assigned functions.
</P>
<P>(b) Each testing facility shall maintain a current summary of training and experience and job description for each individual engaged in or supervising the conduct of a nonclinical laboratory study.
</P>
<P>(c) There shall be a sufficient number of personnel for the timely and proper conduct of the study according to the protocol.
</P>
<P>(d) Personnel shall take necessary personal sanitation and health precautions designed to avoid contamination of test and control articles and test systems.
</P>
<P>(e) Personnel engaged in a nonclinical laboratory study shall wear clothing appropriate for the duties they perform. Such clothing shall be changed as often as necessary to prevent microbiological, radiological, or chemical contamination of test systems and test and control articles.
</P>
<P>(f) Any individual found at any time to have an illness that may adversely affect the quality and integrity of the nonclinical laboratory study shall be excluded from direct contact with test systems, test and control articles and any other operation or function that may adversely affect the study until the condition is corrected. All personnel shall be instructed to report to their immediate supervisors any health or medical conditions that may reasonably be considered to have an adverse effect on a nonclinical laboratory study.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.31   Testing facility management.</HEAD>
<P>For each nonclinical laboratory study, testing facility management shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Designate a study director as described in § 58.33, before the study is initiated.
</P>
<P>(b) Replace the study director promptly if it becomes necessary to do so during the conduct of a study.
</P>
<P>(c) Assure that there is a quality assurance unit as described in § 58.35.
</P>
<P>(d) Assure that test and control articles or mixtures have been appropriately tested for identity, strength, purity, stability, and uniformity, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) Assure that personnel, resources, facilities, equipment, materials, and methodologies are available as scheduled.
</P>
<P>(f) Assure that personnel clearly understand the functions they are to perform.
</P>
<P>(g) Assure that any deviations from these regulations reported by the quality assurance unit are communicated to the study director and corrective actions are taken and documented.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.33" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.33   Study director.</HEAD>
<P>For each nonclinical laboratory study, a scientist or other professional of appropriate education, training, and experience, or combination thereof, shall be identified as the study director. The study director has overall responsibility for the technical conduct of the study, as well as for the interpretation, analysis, documentation and reporting of results, and represents the single point of study control. The study director shall assure that:
</P>
<P>(a) The protocol, including any change, is approved as provided by § 58.120 and is followed.
</P>
<P>(b) All experimental data, including observations of unanticipated responses of the test system are accurately recorded and verified.
</P>
<P>(c) Unforeseen circumstances that may affect the quality and integrity of the nonclinical laboratory study are noted when they occur, and corrective action is taken and documented.
</P>
<P>(d) Test systems are as specified in the protocol.
</P>
<P>(e) All applicable good laboratory practice regulations are followed.
</P>
<P>(f) All raw data, documentation, protocols, specimens, and final reports are transferred to the archives during or at the close of the study.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978; 44 FR 17657, Mar. 23, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.35   Quality assurance unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A testing facility shall have a quality assurance unit which shall be responsible for monitoring each study to assure management that the facilities, equipment, personnel, methods, practices, records, and controls are in conformance with the regulations in this part. For any given study, the quality assurance unit shall be entirely separate from and independent of the personnel engaged in the direction and conduct of that study.
</P>
<P>(b) The quality assurance unit shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain a copy of a master schedule sheet of all nonclinical laboratory studies conducted at the testing facility indexed by test article and containing the test system, nature of study, date study was initiated, current status of each study, identity of the sponsor, and name of the study director.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain copies of all protocols pertaining to all nonclinical laboratory studies for which the unit is responsible.
</P>
<P>(3) Inspect each nonclinical laboratory study at intervals adequate to assure the integrity of the study and maintain written and properly signed records of each periodic inspection showing the date of the inspection, the study inspected, the phase or segment of the study inspected, the person performing the inspection, findings and problems, action recommended and taken to resolve existing problems, and any scheduled date for reinspection. Any problems found during the course of an inspection which are likely to affect study integrity shall be brought to the attention of the study director and management immediately.
</P>
<P>(4) Periodically submit to management and the study director written status reports on each study, noting any problems and the corrective actions taken.
</P>
<P>(5) Determine that no deviations from approved protocols or standard operating procedures were made without proper authorization and documentation.
</P>
<P>(6) Review the final study report to assure that such report accurately describes the methods and standard operating procedures, and that the reported results accurately reflect the raw data of the nonclinical laboratory study.
</P>
<P>(7) Prepare and sign a statement to be included with the final study report which shall specify the dates inspections were made and findings reported to management and to the study director.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsibilities and procedures applicable to the quality assurance unit, the records maintained by the quality assurance unit, and the method of indexing such records shall be in writing and shall be maintained. These items including inspection dates, the study inspected, the phase or segment of the study inspected, and the name of the individual performing the inspection shall be made available for inspection to authorized employees of the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(d) A designated representative of the Food and Drug Administration shall have access to the written procedures established for the inspection and may request testing facility management to certify that inspections are being implemented, performed, documented, and followed-up in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.41" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.41   General.</HEAD>
<P>Each testing facility shall be of suitable size and construction to facilitate the proper conduct of nonclinical laboratory studies. It shall be designed so that there is a degree of separation that will prevent any function or activity from having an adverse effect on the study.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.43" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.43   Animal care facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A testing facility shall have a sufficient number of animal rooms or areas, as needed, to assure proper: (1) Separation of species or test systems, (2) isolation of individual projects, (3) quarantine of animals, and (4) routine or specialized housing of animals.
</P>
<P>(b) A testing facility shall have a number of animal rooms or areas separate from those described in paragraph (a) of this section to ensure isolation of studies being done with test systems or test and control articles known to be biohazardous, including volatile substances, aerosols, radioactive materials, and infectious agents.
</P>
<P>(c) Separate areas shall be provided, as appropriate, for the diagnosis, treatment, and control of laboratory animal diseases. These areas shall provide effective isolation for the housing of animals either known or suspected of being diseased, or of being carriers of disease, from other animals.
</P>
<P>(d) When animals are housed, facilities shall exist for the collection and disposal of all animal waste and refuse or for safe sanitary storage of waste before removal from the testing facility. Disposal facilities shall be so provided and operated as to minimize vermin infestation, odors, disease hazards, and environmental contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.45   Animal supply facilities.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be storage areas, as needed, for feed, bedding, supplies, and equipment. Storage areas for feed and bedding shall be separated from areas housing the test systems and shall be protected against infestation or contamination. Perishable supplies shall be preserved by appropriate means.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.47" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.47   Facilities for handling test and control articles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As necessary to prevent contamination or mixups, there shall be separate areas for:
</P>
<P>(1) Receipt and storage of the test and control articles.
</P>
<P>(2) Mixing of the test and control articles with a carrier, e.g., feed.
</P>
<P>(3) Storage of the test and control article mixtures.
</P>
<P>(b) Storage areas for the test and/or control article and test and control mixtures shall be separate from areas housing the test systems and shall be adequate to preserve the identity, strength, purity, and stability of the articles and mixtures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.49" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.49   Laboratory operation areas.</HEAD>
<P>Separate laboratory space shall be provided, as needed, for the performance of the routine and specialized procedures required by nonclinical laboratory studies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.51   Specimen and data storage facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Space shall be provided for archives, limited to access by authorized personnel only, for the storage and retrieval of all raw data and specimens from completed studies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.61" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.61   Equipment design.</HEAD>
<P>Equipment used in the generation, measurement, or assessment of data and equipment used for facility environmental control shall be of appropriate design and adequate capacity to function according to the protocol and shall be suitably located for operation, inspection, cleaning, and maintenance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.63" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.63   Maintenance and calibration of equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Equipment shall be adequately inspected, cleaned, and maintained. Equipment used for the generation, measurement, or assessment of data shall be adequately tested, calibrated and/or standardized.
</P>
<P>(b) The written standard operating procedures required under § 58.81(b)(11) shall set forth in sufficient detail the methods, materials, and schedules to be used in the routine inspection, cleaning, maintenance, testing, calibration, and/or standardization of equipment, and shall specify, when appropriate, remedial action to be taken in the event of failure or malfunction of equipment. The written standard operating procedures shall designate the person responsible for the performance of each operation.
</P>
<P>(c) Written records shall be maintained of all inspection, maintenance, testing, calibrating and/or standardizing operations. These records, containing the date of the operation, shall describe whether the maintenance operations were routine and followed the written standard operating procedures. Written records shall be kept of nonroutine repairs performed on equipment as a result of failure and malfunction. Such records shall document the nature of the defect, how and when the defect was discovered, and any remedial action taken in response to the defect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Testing Facilities Operation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.81" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.81   Standard operating procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A testing facility shall have standard operating procedures in writing setting forth nonclinical laboratory study methods that management is satisfied are adequate to insure the quality and integrity of the data generated in the course of a study. All deviations in a study from standard operating procedures shall be authorized by the study director and shall be documented in the raw data. Significant changes in established standard operating procedures shall be properly authorized in writing by management.
</P>
<P>(b) Standard operating procedures shall be established for, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Animal room preparation.
</P>
<P>(2) Animal care.
</P>
<P>(3) Receipt, identification, storage, handling, mixing, and method of sampling of the test and control articles.
</P>
<P>(4) Test system observations.
</P>
<P>(5) Laboratory tests.
</P>
<P>(6) Handling of animals found moribund or dead during study.
</P>
<P>(7) Necropsy of animals or postmortem examination of animals.
</P>
<P>(8) Collection and identification of specimens.
</P>
<P>(9) Histopathology.
</P>
<P>(10) Data handling, storage, and retrieval.
</P>
<P>(11) Maintenance and calibration of equipment.
</P>
<P>(12) Transfer, proper placement, and identification of animals.
</P>
<P>(c) Each laboratory area shall have immediately available laboratory manuals and standard operating procedures relative to the laboratory procedures being performed. Published literature may be used as a supplement to standard operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) A historical file of standard operating procedures, and all revisions thereof, including the dates of such revisions, shall be maintained.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.83" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.83   Reagents and solutions.</HEAD>
<P>All reagents and solutions in the laboratory areas shall be labeled to indicate identity, titer or concentration, storage requirements, and expiration date. Deteriorated or outdated reagents and solutions shall not be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.90   Animal care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be standard operating procedures for the housing, feeding, handling, and care of animals.
</P>
<P>(b) All newly received animals from outside sources shall be isolated and their health status shall be evaluated in accordance with acceptable veterinary medical practice.
</P>
<P>(c) At the initiation of a nonclinical laboratory study, animals shall be free of any disease or condition that might interfere with the purpose or conduct of the study. If, during the course of the study, the animals contract such a disease or condition, the diseased animals shall be isolated, if necessary. These animals may be treated for disease or signs of disease provided that such treatment does not interfere with the study. The diagnosis, authorizations of treatment, description of treatment, and each date of treatment shall be documented and shall be retained.
</P>
<P>(d) Warm-blooded animals, excluding suckling rodents, used in laboratory procedures that require manipulations and observations over an extended period of time or in studies that require the animals to be removed from and returned to their home cages for any reason (e.g., cage cleaning, treatment, etc.), shall receive appropriate identification. All information needed to specifically identify each animal within an animal-housing unit shall appear on the outside of that unit.
</P>
<P>(e) Animals of different species shall be housed in separate rooms when necessary. Animals of the same species, but used in different studies, should not ordinarily be housed in the same room when inadvertent exposure to control or test articles or animal mixup could affect the outcome of either study. If such mixed housing is necessary, adequate differentiation by space and identification shall be made.
</P>
<P>(f) Animal cages, racks and accessory equipment shall be cleaned and sanitized at appropriate intervals.
</P>
<P>(g) Feed and water used for the animals shall be analyzed periodically to ensure that contaminants known to be capable of interfering with the study and reasonably expected to be present in such feed or water are not present at levels above those specified in the protocol. Documentation of such analyses shall be maintained as raw data.
</P>
<P>(h) Bedding used in animal cages or pens shall not interfere with the purpose or conduct of the study and shall be changed as often as necessary to keep the animals dry and clean.
</P>
<P>(i) If any pest control materials are used, the use shall be documented. Cleaning and pest control materials that interfere with the study shall not be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33780, Sept. 4, 1987; 54 FR 15924, Apr. 20, 1989; 56 FR 32088, July 15, 1991; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Test and Control Articles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.105   Test and control article characterization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The identity, strength, purity, and composition or other characteristics which will appropriately define the test or control article shall be determined for each batch and shall be documented. Methods of synthesis, fabrication, or derivation of the test and control articles shall be documented by the sponsor or the testing facility. In those cases where marketed products are used as control articles, such products will be characterized by their labeling.
</P>
<P>(b) The stability of each test or control article shall be determined by the testing facility or by the sponsor either: (1) Before study initiation, or (2) concomitantly according to written standard operating procedures, which provide for periodic analysis of each batch.
</P>
<P>(c) Each storage container for a test or control article shall be labeled by name, chemical abstract number or code number, batch number, expiration date, if any, and, where appropriate, storage conditions necessary to maintain the identity, strength, purity, and composition of the test or control article. Storage containers shall be assigned to a particular test article for the duration of the study.
</P>
<P>(d) For studies of more than 4 weeks' duration, reserve samples from each batch of test and control articles shall be retained for the period of time provided by § 58.195.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33781, Sept. 4, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.107" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.6.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.107   Test and control article handling.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures shall be established for a system for the handling of the test and control articles to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(a) There is proper storage.
</P>
<P>(b) Distribution is made in a manner designed to preclude the possibility of contamination, deterioration, or damage.
</P>
<P>(c) Proper identification is maintained throughout the distribution process.
</P>
<P>(d) The receipt and distribution of each batch is documented. Such documentation shall include the date and quantity of each batch distributed or returned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.113" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.6.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.113   Mixtures of articles with carriers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each test or control article that is mixed with a carrier, tests by appropriate analytical methods shall be conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) To determine the uniformity of the mixture and to determine, periodically, the concentration of the test or control article in the mixture.
</P>
<P>(2) To determine the stability of the test and control articles in the mixture as required by the conditions of the study either:
</P>
<P>(i) Before study initiation, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Concomitantly according to written standard operating procedures which provide for periodic analysis of the test and control articles in the mixture.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Where any of the components of the test or control article carrier mixture has an expiration date, that date shall be clearly shown on the container. If more than one component has an expiration date, the earliest date shall be shown.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 24865, Apr. 11, 1980; 52 FR 33781, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Protocol for and Conduct of a Nonclinical Laboratory Study</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.7.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.120   Protocol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each study shall have an approved written protocol that clearly indicates the objectives and all methods for the conduct of the study. The protocol shall contain, as applicable, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A descriptive title and statement of the purpose of the study.
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the test and control articles by name, chemical abstract number, or code number.
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the sponsor and the name and address of the testing facility at which the study is being conducted.
</P>
<P>(4) The number, body weight range, sex, source of supply, species, strain, substrain, and age of the test system.
</P>
<P>(5) The procedure for identification of the test system.
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the experimental design, including the methods for the control of bias.
</P>
<P>(7) A description and/or identification of the diet used in the study as well as solvents, emulsifiers, and/or other materials used to solubilize or suspend the test or control articles before mixing with the carrier. The description shall include specifications for acceptable levels of contaminants that are reasonably expected to be present in the dietary materials and are known to be capable of interfering with the purpose or conduct of the study if present at levels greater than established by the specifications.
</P>
<P>(8) Each dosage level, expressed in milligrams per kilogram of body weight or other appropriate units, of the test or control article to be administered and the method and frequency of administration.
</P>
<P>(9) The type and frequency of tests, analyses, and measurements to be made.
</P>
<P>(10) The records to be maintained.
</P>
<P>(11) The date of approval of the protocol by the sponsor and the dated signature of the study director.
</P>
<P>(12) A statement of the proposed statistical methods to be used.
</P>
<P>(b) All changes in or revisions of an approved protocol and the reasons therefore shall be documented, signed by the study director, dated, and maintained with the protocol.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33781, Sept. 4, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.130" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.7.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.130   Conduct of a nonclinical laboratory study.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The nonclinical laboratory study shall be conducted in accordance with the protocol.
</P>
<P>(b) The test systems shall be monitored in conformity with the protocol.
</P>
<P>(c) Specimens shall be identified by test system, study, nature, and date of collection. This information shall be located on the specimen container or shall accompany the specimen in a manner that precludes error in the recording and storage of data.
</P>
<P>(d) Records of gross findings for a specimen from postmortem observations should be available to a pathologist when examining that specimen histopathologically.
</P>
<P>(e) All data generated during the conduct of a nonclinical laboratory study, except those that are generated by automated data collection systems, shall be recorded directly, promptly, and legibly in ink. All data entries shall be dated on the date of entry and signed or initialed by the person entering the data. Any change in entries shall be made so as not to obscure the original entry, shall indicate the reason for such change, and shall be dated and signed or identified at the time of the change. In automated data collection systems, the individual responsible for direct data input shall be identified at the time of data input. Any change in automated data entries shall be made so as not to obscure the original entry, shall indicate the reason for change, shall be dated, and the responsible individual shall be identified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33781, Sept. 4, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts H-I [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.185" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.9.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.185   Reporting of nonclinical laboratory study results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A final report shall be prepared for each nonclinical laboratory study and shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address of the facility performing the study and the dates on which the study was initiated and completed.
</P>
<P>(2) Objectives and procedures stated in the approved protocol, including any changes in the original protocol.
</P>
<P>(3) Statistical methods employed for analyzing the data.
</P>
<P>(4) The test and control articles identified by name, chemical abstracts number or code number, strength, purity, and composition or other appropriate characteristics.
</P>
<P>(5) Stability of the test and control articles under the conditions of administration.
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the methods used.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the test system used. Where applicable, the final report shall include the number of animals used, sex, body weight range, source of supply, species, strain and substrain, age, and procedure used for identification.
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the dosage, dosage regimen, route of administration, and duration.
</P>
<P>(9) A description of all circumstances that may have affected the quality or integrity of the data.
</P>
<P>(10) The name of the study director, the names of other scientists or professionals, and the names of all supervisory personnel, involved in the study.
</P>
<P>(11) A description of the transformations, calculations, or operations performed on the data, a summary and analysis of the data, and a statement of the conclusions drawn from the analysis.
</P>
<P>(12) The signed and dated reports of each of the individual scientists or other professionals involved in the study.
</P>
<P>(13) The locations where all specimens, raw data, and the final report are to be stored.
</P>
<P>(14) The statement prepared and signed by the quality assurance unit as described in § 58.35(b)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) The final report shall be signed and dated by the study director.
</P>
<P>(c) Corrections or additions to a final report shall be in the form of an amendment by the study director. The amendment shall clearly identify that part of the final report that is being added to or corrected and the reasons for the correction or addition, and shall be signed and dated by the person responsible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33781, Sept. 4, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.190" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.9.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.190   Storage and retrieval of records and data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All raw data, documentation, protocols, final reports, and specimens (except those specimens obtained from mutagenicity tests and wet specimens of blood, urine, feces, and biological fluids) generated as a result of a nonclinical laboratory study shall be retained.
</P>
<P>(b) There shall be archives for orderly storage and expedient retrieval of all raw data, documentation, protocols, specimens, and interim and final reports. Conditions of storage shall minimize deterioration of the documents or specimens in accordance with the requirements for the time period of their retention and the nature of the documents or specimens. A testing facility may contract with commercial archives to provide a repository for all material to be retained. Raw data and specimens may be retained elsewhere provided that the archives have specific reference to those other locations.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual shall be identified as responsible for the archives.
</P>
<P>(d) Only authorized personnel shall enter the archives.
</P>
<P>(e) Material retained or referred to in the archives shall be indexed to permit expedient retrieval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33781, Sept. 4, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.195" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.9.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.195   Retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Record retention requirements set forth in this section do not supersede the record retention requirements of any other regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, documentation records, raw data and specimens pertaining to a nonclinical laboratory study and required to be made by this part shall be retained in the archive(s) for whichever of the following periods is shortest:
</P>
<P>(1) A period of at least 2 years following the date on which an application for a research or marketing permit, in support of which the results of the nonclinical laboratory study were submitted, is approved by the Food and Drug Administration. This requirement does not apply to studies supporting investigational new drug applications (IND's) or applications for investigational device exemptions (IDE's), records of which shall be governed by the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A period of at least 5 years following the date on which the results of the nonclinical laboratory study are submitted to the Food and Drug Administration in support of an application for a research or marketing permit.
</P>
<P>(3) In other situations (e.g., where the nonclinical laboratory study does not result in the submission of the study in support of an application for a research or marketing permit), a period of at least 2 years following the date on which the study is completed, terminated, or discontinued.
</P>
<P>(c) Wet specimens (except those specimens obtained from mutagenicity tests and wet specimens of blood, urine, feces, and biological fluids), samples of test or control articles, and specially prepared material, which are relatively fragile and differ markedly in stability and quality during storage, shall be retained only as long as the quality of the preparation affords evaluation. In no case shall retention be required for longer periods than those set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The master schedule sheet, copies of protocols, and records of quality assurance inspections, as required by § 58.35(c) shall be maintained by the quality assurance unit as an easily accessible system of records for the period of time specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Summaries of training and experience and job descriptions required to be maintained by § 58.29(b) may be retained along with all other testing facility employment records for the length of time specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Records and reports of the maintenance and calibration and inspection of equipment, as required by § 58.63(b) and (c), shall be retained for the length of time specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Records required by this part may be retained either as original records or as true copies such as photocopies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records.
</P>
<P>(h) If a facility conducting nonclinical testing goes out of business, all raw data, documentation, and other material specified in this section shall be transferred to the archives of the sponsor of the study. The Food and Drug Administration shall be notified in writing of such a transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 52 FR 33781, Sept. 4, 1987; 54 FR 9039, Mar. 3, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Disqualification of Testing Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.200" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.200   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purposes of disqualification are:
</P>
<P>(1) To permit the exclusion from consideration of completed studies that were conducted by a testing facility which has failed to comply with the requirements of the good laboratory practice regulations until it can be adequately demonstrated that such noncompliance did not occur during, or did not affect the validity or acceptability of data generated by, a particular study; and
</P>
<P>(2) To exclude from consideration all studies completed after the date of disqualification until the facility can satisfy the Commissioner that it will conduct studies in compliance with such regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) The determination that a nonclinical laboratory study may not be considered in support of an application for a research or marketing permit does not, however, relieve the applicant for such a permit of any obligation under any other applicable regulation to submit the results of the study to the Food and Drug Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.202" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.202   Grounds for disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner may disqualify a testing facility upon finding all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The testing facility failed to comply with one or more of the regulations set forth in this part (or any other regulations regarding such facilities in this chapter);
</P>
<P>(b) The noncompliance adversely affected the validity of the nonclinical laboratory studies; and
</P>
<P>(c) Other lesser regulatory actions (e.g., warnings or rejection of individual studies) have not been or will probably not be adequate to achieve compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.204" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.204   Notice of and opportunity for hearing on proposed disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Commissioner has information indicating that grounds exist under § 58.202 which in his opinion justify disqualification of a testing facility, he may issue to the testing facility a written notice proposing that the facility be disqualified.
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing on the disqualification shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements for a regulatory hearing set forth in part 16 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.206" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.206   Final order on disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Commissioner, after the regulatory hearing, or after the time for requesting a hearing expires without a request being made, upon an evaluation of the administrative record of the disqualification proceeding, makes the findings required in § 58.202, he shall issue a final order disqualifying the facility. Such order shall include a statement of the basis for that determination. Upon issuing a final order, the Commissioner shall notify (with a copy of the order) the testing facility of the action.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commissioner, after a regulatory hearing or after the time for requesting a hearing expires without a request being made, upon an evaluation of the administrative record of the disqualification proceeding, does not make the findings required in § 58.202, he shall issue a final order terminating the disqualification proceeding. Such order shall include a statement of the basis for that determination. Upon issuing a final order the Commissioner shall notify the testing facility and provide a copy of the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.210" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.210   Actions upon disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once a testing facility has been disqualified, each application for a research or marketing permit, whether approved or not, containing or relying upon any nonclinical laboratory study conducted by the disqualified testing facility may be examined to determine whether such study was or would be essential to a decision. If it is determined that a study was or would be essential, the Food and Drug Administration shall also determine whether the study is acceptable, notwithstanding the disqualification of the facility. Any study done by a testing facility before or after disqualification may be presumed to be unacceptable, and the person relying on the study may be required to establish that the study was not affected by the circumstances that led to the disqualification, e.g., by submitting validating information. If the study is then determined to be unacceptable, such data will be eliminated from consideration in support of the application; and such elimination may serve as new information justifying the termination or withdrawal of approval of the application.
</P>
<P>(b) No nonclinical laboratory study begun by a testing facility after the date of the facility's disqualification shall be considered in support of any application for a research or marketing permit, unless the facility has been reinstated under § 58.219. The determination that a study may not be considered in support of an application for a research or marketing permit does not, however, relieve the applicant for such a permit of any obligation under any other applicable regulation to submit the results of the study to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 59 FR 13200, Mar. 21, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.213" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.213   Public disclosure of information regarding disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon issuance of a final order disqualifying a testing facility under § 58.206(a), the Commissioner may notify all or any interested persons. Such notice may be given at the discretion of the Commissioner whenever he believes that such disclosure would further the public interest or would promote compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in this part. Such notice, if given, shall include a copy of the final order issued under § 58.206(a) and shall state that the disqualification constitutes a determination by the Food and Drug Administration that nonclinical laboratory studies performed by the facility will not be considered by the Food and Drug Administration in support of any application for a research or marketing permit. If such notice is sent to another Federal Government agency, the Food and Drug Administration will recommend that the agency also consider whether or not it should accept nonclinical laboratory studies performed by the testing facility. If such notice is sent to any other person, it shall state that it is given because of the relationship between the testing facility and the person being notified and that the Food and Drug Administration is not advising or recommending that any action be taken by the person notified.
</P>
<P>(b) A determination that a testing facility has been disqualified and the administrative record regarding such determination are disclosable to the public under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.215" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.215   Alternative or additional actions to disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Disqualification of a testing facility under this subpart is independent of, and neither in lieu of nor a precondition to, other proceedings or actions authorized by the act. The Food and Drug Administration may, at any time, institute against a testing facility and/or against the sponsor of a nonclinical laboratory study that has been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration any appropriate judicial proceedings (civil or criminal) and any other appropriate regulatory action, in addition to or in lieu of, and prior to, simultaneously with, or subsequent to, disqualification. The Food and Drug Administration may also refer the matter to another Federal, State, or local government law enforcement or regulatory agency for such action as that agency deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration may refuse to consider any particular nonclinical laboratory study in support of an application for a research or marketing permit, if it finds that the study was not conducted in accordance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in this part, without disqualifying the testing facility that conducted the study or undertaking other regulatory action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.217" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.217   Suspension or termination of a testing facility by a sponsor.</HEAD>
<P>Termination of a testing facility by a sponsor is independent of, and neither in lieu of nor a precondition to, proceedings or actions authorized by this subpart. If a sponsor terminates or suspends a testing facility from further participation in a nonclinical laboratory study that is being conducted as part of any application for a research or marketing permit that has been submitted to any Center of the Food and Drug Administration (whether approved or not), it shall notify that Center in writing within 15 working days of the action; the notice shall include a statement of the reasons for such action. Suspension or termination of a testing facility by a sponsor does not relieve it of any obligation under any other applicable regulation to submit the results of the study to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60013, Dec. 22, 1978, as amended at 50 FR 8995, Mar. 6, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 58.219" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.22.10.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 58.219   Reinstatement of a disqualified testing facility.</HEAD>
<P>A testing facility that has been disqualified may be reinstated as an acceptable source of nonclinical laboratory studies to be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration if the Commissioner determines, upon an evaluation of the submission of the testing facility, that the facility can adequately assure that it will conduct future nonclinical laboratory studies in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in this part and, if any studies are currently being conducted, that the quality and integrity of such studies have not been seriously compromised. A disqualified testing facility that wishes to be so reinstated shall present in writing to the Commissioner reasons why it believes it should be reinstated and a detailed description of the corrective actions it has taken or intends to take to assure that the acts or omissions which led to its disqualification will not recur. The Commissioner may condition reinstatement upon the testing facility being found in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations upon an inspection. If a testing facility is reinstated, the Commissioner shall so notify the testing facility and all organizations and persons who were notified, under § 58.213 of the disqualification of the testing facility. A determination that a testing facility has been reinstated is disclosable to the public under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="60" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 60—PATENT TERM RESTORATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 348, 355, 360e, 360j, 371, 379e; 35 U.S.C. 156; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 60 appear at 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003, and at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth procedures and requirements for the Food and Drug Administration's review of applications for the extension of the term of certain patents under 35 U.S.C. 156. Patent term restoration is available for certain patents related to drug products (as defined in 35 U.S.C. 156(f)(2)), and to medical devices, food additives, or color additives subject to regulation under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or the Public Health Service Act. Food and Drug Administration actions in this area include:
</P>
<P>(1) Assisting the United States Patent and Trademark Office in determining eligibility for patent term restoration;
</P>
<P>(2) Determining the length of a product's regulatory review period;
</P>
<P>(3) If petitioned, reviewing and ruling on due diligence challenges to the Food and Drug Administration's regulatory review period determinations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Conducting hearings to review initial Food and Drug Administration findings on due diligence challenges.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 56261, Nov. 27, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to establish a thorough yet efficient process for the Food and Drug Administration review of patent term restoration applications. To achieve this purpose, the regulations are intended to:
</P>
<P>(1) Facilitate determinations of patent term restoration eligibility and regulatory review period length, and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that parties interested in due diligence challenges will have an opportunity to participate in that process, including informal hearings.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations are intended to complement those promulgated by the United States Patent and Trademark Office to implement those parts of the law which are under that agency's jurisdiction. These regulations shall be construed in light of these objectives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions contained in 35 U.S.C. 156 apply to those terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms apply to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (secs. 201-901, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 301-392)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Active ingredient</I> means any component that is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or of animals. The term includes those components that may undergo chemical change in the manufacture of the drug product and be present in the drug product in a modified form intended to furnish the specified activity or effect.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicant</I> means any person who submits an application or an amendment or supplement to an application under 35 U.S.C. 156 seeking patent term restoration.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Application</I> means an application for patent term restoration submitted under 35 U.S.C. 156.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Clinical investigation or study</I> means any experiment that involves a test article and one or more subjects and that is either subject to requirements for prior submission to the Food and Drug Administration under section 505(i), 512(j), or 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or is not subject to the requirements for prior submission to FDA under those sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, but the results of which are intended to be submitted later to, or held for inspection by, FDA as part of an application for a research or marketing permit. The term does not include experiments that are subject to the provisions of part 58 regarding nonclinical laboratory studies.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Color additive</I> means any substance that meets the definition in section 201(t) of the Act and which is subject to premarketing approval under section 721 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Due diligence petition</I> means a petition submitted under § 60.30(a).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Food additive</I> means any substance that meets the definition in section 201(s) of the Act and which is subject to premarketing approval under section 409 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Human drug product</I> means the active ingredient of a new drug or human biologic product (as those terms are used in the Act and the Public Health Service Act), including any salt or ester of the active ingredient, as a single entity or in combination with another active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Marketing applicant</I> means any person who submits an application for premarketing approval by FDA under:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 505(b) of the Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (human drug products);
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 515 of the Act (medical devices);
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 409 or 721 of the Act (food and color additives); or
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 512 of the Act (animal drug products).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Marketing application</I> means an application for:
</P>
<P>(i) Human drug products submitted under section 505(b) of the Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical devices submitted under section 515 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Food and color additives submitted under section 409 or 721 of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Animal drug products submitted under section 512 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Medical device</I> means any article that meets the definition in section 201(h) of the Act and which is subject to premarketing approval under section 515 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Product</I> means a human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive, as those terms are defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>PTO</I> means the United States Patent and Trademark Office.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Animal drug product</I> means the active ingredient of a new animal drug (as that term is used in the Act) that is not primarily manufactured using recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), recombinant ribonucleic acid (RNA), hybridoma technology, or other processes involving site-specific genetic manipulation techniques, including any salt or ester of the active ingredient, as a single entity or in combination with another active ingredient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 56261, Nov. 27, 1992; 64 FR 399, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Eligibility Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.10   FDA assistance on eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written request from the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office, FDA will assist the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office in determining whether a patent related to a product is eligible for patent term restoration as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Verifying whether the product was subject to a regulatory review period before its commercial marketing or use;
</P>
<P>(2) For human drug products, food additives, color additives, and medical devices, determining whether the permission for commercial marketing or use of the product after the regulatory review period is the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product either:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the provision of law under which the regulatory review period occurred; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the process claimed in the patent when the patent claims a method of manufacturing the product that primarily uses recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) technology in the manufacture of the product;
</P>
<P>(3) For animal drug products, determining whether the permission for commercial marketing or use of the product after the regulatory review period:
</P>
<P>(i) Is the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product for administration to a food-producing animal, whichever is applicable, under the provision of law under which the regulatory review period occurred;
</P>
<P>(4) Informing the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office whether the patent term restoration application was submitted within 60 days after the product was approved for marketing or use, or, if the product is an animal drug approved for use in a food-producing animal, verifying whether the application was filed within 60 days of the first approval for marketing or use in a food-producing animal; and
</P>
<P>(5) Providing the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office with any other information relevant to the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office's determination of whether a patent related to a product is eligible for patent term restoration.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will notify the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office of its findings in writing, send a copy of this notification to the applicant, and file a copy of the notification in the docket established for the application in FDA's Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 56261, Nov. 27, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Regulatory Review Period Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.20   FDA action on regulatory review period determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will consult its records and experts to verify the dates contained in the application and to determine the length of the product's regulatory review period under § 60.22. The application shall contain information relevant to the determination of the regulatory review period as stated in the “Guidelines for Extension of Patent Term Under 35 U.S.C. 156” published on October 9, 1984, in PTO's <I>Official Gazette</I> and as required by 37 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(b) After determining the length of the regulatory review period, FDA will notify PTO in writing of its determination, send a copy of this determination to the applicant, and file a copy of the determination in the docket established for the application in FDA's Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will also publish the regulatory review period determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice will include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) The trade name and generic name (if applicable) of the product;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of the patent for which an extension of the term is sought;
</P>
<P>(4) The approved indications or uses for the product;
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation of any discrepancies between the dates in the application and FDA records;
</P>
<P>(6) Where appropriate, an explanation that FDA has no record in which to review the date(s) contained in the application; and
</P>
<P>(7) The regulatory review period determination, including a statement of the length of the testing and approval phases and the dates used in calculating each phase.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.22   Regulatory review period determinations.</HEAD>
<P>In determining a product's regulatory review period, which consists of the sum of the lengths of a testing phase and an approval phase, FDA will review the information in each application using the following definitions of the testing phase and the approval phase for that class of products.
</P>
<P>(a) For human drugs:
</P>
<P>(1) The testing phase begins on the date an exemption under section 505(i) of the Act becomes effective (or the date an exemption under former section 507(d) of the Act became effective) for the approved human drug product and ends on the date a marketing application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act or section 505 of the act is initially submitted to FDA (or was initially submitted to FDA under former section 507 of the Act), and
</P>
<P>(2) The approval phase begins on the date a marketing application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act or section 505(b) of the Act is initially submitted to FDA (or was initially submitted under former section 507 of the Act) and ends on the date the application is approved.
</P>
<P>(b) For food and color additives:
</P>
<P>(1) The testing phase begins on the date a major health or environmental effects test is begun and ends on the date a petition relying on the test and requesting the issuance of a regulation for use of the additive under section 409 or 721 of the Act is initially submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The approval phase begins on the date a petition requesting the issuance of a regulation for use of the additive under section 409 or 721 of the Act is initially submitted to FDA and ends upon whichever of the following occurs last:
</P>
<P>(i) The regulation for the additive becomes effective; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Objections filed against the regulation that result in a stay of effectiveness are resolved and commercial marketing is permitted; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Proceedings resulting from objections to the regulation, after commercial marketing has been permitted and later stayed pending resolution of the proceedings, are finally resolved and commercial marketing is permitted.
</P>
<P>(c) For medical devices:
</P>
<P>(1) The testing phase begins on the date a clinical investigation on humans is begun and ends on the date an application for premarket approval of the device or a notice of completion of a product development protocol is initially submitted under section 515 of the Act. For purposes of this part, a clinical investigation is considered to begin on whichever of the following dates applies:
</P>
<P>(i) If an investigational device exemption (IDE) under section 520(g) of the Act is required, the effective date of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an IDE is not required, but institutional review board (IRB) approval under section 520(g)(3) of the Act is required, the IRB approval date.
</P>
<P>(iii) If neither an IDE nor IRB approval is required, the date on which the device is first used with human subjects as part of a clinical investigation to be filed with FDA to secure premarket approval of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The approval phase either:
</P>
<P>(i) Begins on the date an application for premarket approval of the device is initially submitted under section 515 of the Act and ends on the date the application is approved; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Begins on the date a notice of completion of a product development protocol is initially submitted under section 515 of the Act and ends on the date the protocol is declared to be completed.
</P>
<P>(d) For animal drugs:
</P>
<P>(1) The testing phase begins on the date a major health or environmental effects test is begun or the date on which the agency acknowledges the filing of a notice of claimed investigational exemption for a new animal drug, whichever is earlier, and ends on the date a marketing application under section 512 of the Act is initially submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The approval phase begins on the date a marketing application under section 512 of the Act is initially submitted to FDA and ends on the date the application is approved.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this section, a “major health or environmental effects test” may be any test which:
</P>
<P>(1) Is reasonably related to the evaluation of the product's health or environmental effects, or both:
</P>
<P>(2) Produces data necessary for marketing approval; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is conducted over a period of no less than 6 months duration, excluding time required to analyze or evaluate test results.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of determining the regulatory review period for any product, a marketing application, a notice of completion of a product development protocol, or a petition is <I>initially submitted</I> on the date it contains sufficient information to allow FDA to commence review of the application. A marketing application, a notice of completion of a product development protocol, or a petition is <I>approved</I> on the date FDA sends the applicant a letter informing it of the approval or, by order declares a product development protocol to be completed, or, in the case of food and color additives, on the effective date of the final rule listing the additive for use as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or, in the case of a new animal drug in a Category II Type A medicated article, on the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice of approval pursuant to section 512(i) of the Act. For purposes of this section, the regulatory review period for an animal drug shall mean either the regulatory review period relating the drug's approval for use in nonfood-producing animals or the regulatory review period relating to the drug's approval for use in food-producing animals, whichever is applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 56262, Nov. 27, 1992; 64 FR 400, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.24" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.24   Revision of regulatory review period determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may request a revision of the regulatory review period determination within 60 days after its initial publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The request shall be sent to the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. The request shall specify the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The type of action requested;
</P>
<P>(2) The identity of the product;
</P>
<P>(3) The identity of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(4) The FDA docket number; and
</P>
<P>(5) The basis for the request for revision, including any documentary evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless the applicant is the person requesting the revision, the applicant shall respond to the request within 15 days. In responding to the request, the applicant may submit information which is relevant to the events during the regulatory review period but which was not included in the original patent term restoration application. A request for a revision is not equivalent to a due diligence petition under § 60.30 or a request for a hearing under § 60.40. If no response is submitted, FDA will decide the matter on the basis of the information in the patent term restoration application, request for revision, and FDA records.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA shall apply the provisions of § 60.22 in considering the request for a revision of the regulatory review period determination. lf FDA revises its prior determination, FDA will notify PTO of the revision, send a copy of this notification to the applicant, and publish the revision in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> including a statement giving the reasons for the revision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.26" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.26   Final action on regulatory review period determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will consider a regulatory review period determination to be final upon expiration of the 180-day period for filing a due diligence petition under § 60.30 unless FDA receives:
</P>
<P>(1) New information from PTO records, FDA records, or FDA centers that affects the regulatory review period determination;
</P>
<P>(2) A request under § 60.24 for revision of the regulatory review period determination;
</P>
<P>(3) A due diligence petition filed under § 60.30; or
</P>
<P>(4) A request for a hearing filed under § 60.40.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will notify PTO that the regulatory review period determination is final upon:
</P>
<P>(1) The expiration of the 180-day period for filing a due diligence petition; or
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA has received a request for a revision, a due diligence petition, or a request for a hearing, upon resolution of the request for a revision, the petition, or the hearing, whichever is later. FDA will send a copy of the notification to the applicant and file a copy of the notification in the docket established for the application in FDA's Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.28" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.28   Time frame for determining regulatory review periods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will determine the regulatory review period for a product within 30 days of the receipt of a written request from PTO for such a determination and a copy of the patent term restoration application.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may extend the 30-day period if:
</P>
<P>(1) A related FDA action that may affect the regulatory review period determination is pending; or
</P>
<P>(2) PTO requests that FDA temporarily suspend the determination process; or
</P>
<P>(3) PTO or FDA receives new information about the product that warrants an extension of the time required for the determination of the regulatory review period.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to applications withdrawn by the applicant or applications that PTO determines are ineligible for patent term restoration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Due Diligence Petitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.30   Filing, format, and content of petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may file a petition with FDA, no later than 180 days after the publication of a regulatory review period determination under § 60.20, that challenges FDA's determination by alleging that the applicant for patent term restoration did not act with due diligence in seeking FDA approval of the product during the regulatory review period.
</P>
<P>(b) The petition shall be filed in accordance with § 10.20, under the docket number of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the agency's regulatory review period determination, and shall be in the format specified in § 10.30. The petition shall contain the information specified in § 10.30 and any additional information required by this subpart. If any provision of § 10.20 or § 10.30 is inconsistent with any provision of this part, FDA will consider the petition in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The petition shall claim that the applicant did not act with due diligence during some part of the regulatory review period and shall set forth sufficient facts, including dates if possible, to merit an investigation by FDA of whether the applicant acted with due diligence.
</P>
<P>(d) The petition shall contain a certification that the petitioner has served a true and complete copy of the petition upon the applicant by certified or registered mail (return receipt requested) or by personal delivery.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.32   Applicant response to petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant shall file with FDA a written response to the petition no later than 30 days after the applicant's receipt of a copy of the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant's response may present additional facts and circumstances to address the assertions in the petition, but shall be limited to the issue of whether the applicant acted with due diligence during the regulatory review period. The applicant's response may include documents that were not in the original patent extension application.
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicant does not respond to the petition, FDA will decide the matter on the basis of the information submitted in the patent term restoration application, due diligence petition, and FDA records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.34" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.34   FDA action on petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 90 days after FDA receives a petition filed under § 60.30(a), the agency will either deny the petition under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section or investigate and determine under § 60.36 whether the applicant acted with due diligence during the regulatory review period. FDA will publish its due diligence determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> notify PTO of the due diligence determination in writing, and send copies of the notice to PTO, the applicant, and the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may deny a due diligence petition without considering the merits of the petition if:
</P>
<P>(1) The petition is not filed in accordance with § 60.30;
</P>
<P>(2) The petition is not filed in accordance with § 10.20;
</P>
<P>(3) The petition does not contain the information required by § 10.30;
</P>
<P>(4) The petition fails to contain information or allegations upon which it may reasonably be determined that the applicant did not act with due diligence during the applicable regulatory review period; or
</P>
<P>(5) The petition fails to allege a sufficient total amount of time during which the applicant did not exercise due diligence such that, even if the petition were granted, the petition would not affect the maximum patent extension the applicant sought in the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.36" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.36   Standard of due diligence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining the due diligence of an applicant, FDA will examine the facts and circumstances of the applicant's actions during the regulatory review period to determine whether the applicant exhibited that degree of attention, continuous directed effort, and timeliness as may reasonably be expected from, and are ordinarily exercised by, a person during a regulatory review period. FDA will take into consideration all relevant factors, such as the amount of time between the approval of an investigational exemption or research permit and the commencement of a clinical investigation and the amount of time required to conduct a clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part, the actions of the marketing applicant shall be imputed to the applicant for patent term restoration. The actions of an agent, attorney, contractor, employee, licensee, or predecessor in interest of the marketing applicant or applicant for patent term restoration shall be imputed to the applicant for patent term restoration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Due Diligence Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.40   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may request, not later than 60 days after the publication under § 60.34(a) of FDA's due diligence determination, that FDA conduct an informal hearing on the due diligence determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for a hearing under this section shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be sent by mail, personal delivery, or any other mode of written communication to the Dockets Management Staff and filed under the relevant product file;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the facts and the action that are the subject of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the name and address of the person requesting the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(4) Certify that the requesting party has served a true and complete copy of the request upon the petitioner and the applicant by certified or registered mail (return receipt requested) or by personal delivery.
</P>
<P>(c) The request shall state whether the requesting party seeks a hearing within 30 days or 60 days of FDA's receipt of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7305, Mar. 7, 1988, as amended at 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.42" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.42   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Ten days before the hearing, FDA will notify the requesting party, the applicant, and the petitioner, orally or in writing, of the date, time, and location of the hearing. The agency will provide the requesting party, the applicant, and the petitioner with an opportunity to participate as a party in the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.44" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.44   Hearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The due diligence hearing shall be conducted in accordance with this part, supplemented by the nonconflicting procedures in part 16. During the due diligence hearing, the applicant and the petitioner shall enjoy all the rights and privileges accorded a person requesting a hearing under part 16. The standard of due diligence set forth in § 60.36 will apply in the due diligence hearing. The party requesting the due diligence hearing shall have the burden of proof at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.46" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.23.5.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.46   Administrative decision.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after the completion of the due diligence hearing, the Commissioner will affirm or revise the determination made under § 60.34(a) and will publish the due diligence redetermination in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> notify PTO of the redetermination, and send copies of the notice to PTO and to the requesting party, the applicant, and the petitioner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 70—COLOR ADDITIVES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 342, 343, 348, 351, 360b, 361, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15636, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act as amended.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Color Certification Branch</I> means the unit established within the Food and Drug Administration located in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, charged with the responsibility for the mechanics of the certification procedure hereinafter described, and including the examination of samples of color additives subject to certification.
</P>
<P>(f) A <I>color additive</I> is any material, not exempted under section 201(t) of the act, that is a dye, pigment, or other substance made by a process of synthesis or similar artifice, or extracted, isolated, or otherwise derived, with or without intermediate or final change of identity, from a vegetable, animal, mineral, or other source and that, when added or applied to a food, drug, or cosmetic or to the human body or any part thereof, is capable (alone or through reaction with another substance) of imparting a color thereto. Substances capable of imparting a color to a container for foods, drugs, or cosmetics are not color additives unless the customary or reasonably foreseeable handling or use of the container may reasonably be expected to result in the transmittal of the color to the contents of the package or any part thereof. Food ingredients such as cherries, green or red peppers, chocolate, and orange juice which contribute their own natural color when mixed with other foods are not regarded as <I>color additives</I>; but where a food substance such as beet juice is deliberately used as a color, as in pink lemonade, it is a <I>color additive.</I> Food ingredients as authorized by a definitions and standard of identity prescribed by regulations pursuant to section 401 of the act are <I>color additives,</I> where the ingredients are specifically designated in the definitions and standards of identity as permitted for use for coloring purposes. An ingredient of an animal feed whose intended function is to impart, through the biological processes of the animal, a color to the meat, milk, or eggs of the animal is a color additive and is not exempt from the requirements of the statute. This definition shall apply whether or not such ingredient has nutritive or other functions in addition to the property of imparting color. An ingested drug the intended function of which is to impart color to the human body is a <I>color additive.</I> For the purposes of this part, the term <I>color</I> includes black, white, and intermediate grays, but substances including migrants from packaging materials which do not contribute any color apparent to the naked eye are not <I>color additives.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) For a material otherwise meeting the definition of <I>color additive</I> to be exempt from section 721 of the act, on the basis that it is used (or intended to be used) solely for a purpose or purposes other than coloring, the material must be used in a way that any color imparted is clearly unimportant insofar as the appearance, value, marketability, or consumer acceptability is concerned. (It is not enough to warrant exemption if conditions are such that the primary purpose of the material is other than to impart color.)
</P>
<P>(h) The exemption that applies to a pesticide chemical, soil or plant nutrient, or other agricultural chemical, where its coloring effect results solely from its aiding, retarding, or otherwise affecting directly or indirectly, the growth or other natural physiological processes of produce of the soil, applies only to color developed in such product through natural physiological processes such as enzymatic action. If the pesticide chemical, soil or plant nutrient, or other agricultural chemical itself acts as a color or carries as an ingredient a color, and because of this property colors the produce of the soil, it is a <I>color additive</I> and is not exempt.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Safe</I> means that there is convincing evidence that establishes with reasonable certainty that no harm will result from the intended use of the color additive.
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>straight color</I> means a color additive listed in parts 73, 74, and 81 of this chapter, and includes lakes and such substances as are permitted by the specifications for such color.
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>mixture</I> means a color additive made by mixing two or more straight colors, or one or more straight colors and one or more diluents.
</P>
<P>(l) The term <I>lake</I> means a straight color extended on a substratum by adsorption, coprecipitation, or chemical combination that does not include any combination of ingredients made by simple mixing process.
</P>
<P>(m) The term <I>diluent</I> means any component of a color additive mixture that is not of itself a color additive and has been intentionally mixed therein to facilitate the use of the mixture in coloring foods, drugs, or cosmetics or in coloring the human body. The diluent may serve another functional purpose in the foods, drugs, or cosmetics, as for example sweetening, flavoring, emulsifying, or stabilizing, or may be a functional component of an article intended for coloring the human body.
</P>
<P>(n) The term <I>substratum</I> means the substance on which the pure color in a lake is extended.
</P>
<P>(o) The term <I>pure color</I> means the color contained in a color additive, exclusive of any intermediate or other component, or of any diluent or substratum contained therein.
</P>
<P>(p) The term <I>batch</I> means a homogeneous lot of color additive or color additive mixture produced by an identified production operation, which is set apart and held as a unit for the purpose of obtaining certification of such quantity.
</P>
<P>(q) The term <I>batch number</I> means the number assigned to a batch by the person who requests certification thereof.
</P>
<P>(r) The term <I>lot number</I> means an identifying number or symbol assigned to a batch by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(s) The term <I>area of the eye</I> means the area enclosed with in the circumference of the supra-orbital ridge and the infra-orbital ridge, including the eyebrow, the skin below the eyebrow, the eyelids and the eyelashes, and conjunctival sac of the eye, the eyeball, and the soft areolar tissue that lies within the perimeter of the infra-orbital ridge.
</P>
<P>(t) The term <I>package</I> means the immediate container in which a color additive or color additive mixture has been packed for shipment or delivery. If the package is then packed in a shipping carton or other protective container, such container shall not be considered to be the immediate container. In the case of color additive mixtures for household use containing less than 15 percent pure color, when two or more containers of 3 ounces each or less, each containing a different color, are distributed as a unit, the immediate container for such unit shall be considered to be the package as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(u) The <I>hair dye</I> exemption in section 601(a) of the act applies to coal tar hair dyes intended for use in altering the color of the hair and which are, or which bear or contain, color additives derived from coal tar with the sensitization potential of causing skin irritation in certain individuals and possible blindness when used for dyeing the eyelashes or eyebrows. The exemption is permitted with the condition that the label of any such article bear conspicuously the statutory caution and adequate directions for preliminary patch-testing. The exemption does not apply to coloring ingredients in hair dyes not derived from coal tar, and it does not extend to poisonous or deleterious diluents that may be introduced as wetting agents, hair conditions, emulsifiers, or other components in a color shampoo, rinse, tint, or similar dual-purpose cosmetic that alter the color of the hair.
</P>
<P>(v) The terms <I>externally applied drugs</I> and <I>externally applied cosmetics</I> mean drugs or cosmetics applied only to external parts of the body and not to the lips or any body surface covered by mucous membrane.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15636, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 61 FR 14478, Apr. 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.5   General restrictions on use of color additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Color additives for use in the area of the eye.</I> No listing or certification of a color additive shall be considered to authorize the use of any such color additive in any article intended for use in the area of the eye unless such listing or certification of such color additive specifically provides for such use. Any color additive used in or on any article intended for use in the area of the eye, the listing or certification of which color additive does not provide for such use, shall be considered to be a color additive not listed under parts 73, 74, and 81 of this chapter, even though such color additive is certified and/or listed for other uses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Color additives for use in injections.</I> No listing or certification of a color additive shall be considered to authorize the use of any such color additive in any article intended for use in injections unless such listing or certification of such color additive specifically provides for such use. Any color additive used in or on any article intended for use in injections, the listing or certification of which color additive does not provide for such use, shall be considered to be a color additive not listed under parts 73, 74, and 81 of this chapter, even though such color additive is certified and/or listed for other uses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Color additives for use in surgical sutures.</I> No listing or certification of a color additive shall be considered to authorize the use of any such color additive in any article intended for use as a surgical suture unless such listing or certification of such color additive specifically provides for such use. Any color additive used in or on any article intended for use as a surgical suture, the listing or certification of which color additive does not provide for such use, shall be considered to be a color additive not listed under parts 73, 74, and 81 of this chapter, even though such color additive is certified and/or listed for other uses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.10   Color additives in standardized foods and new drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standardized foods.</I> (1) Where a petition is received for issuance or amendment of a regulation establishing a definition and standard of identity for a food under section 401 of the act, which proposes the inclusion of a color additive in the standardized food, the provisions of the regulations in part 71 of this chapter shall apply with respect to the information that must be submitted with respect to the safety of the color additive (if such information has not previously been submitted and safety of the color additive for the intended use has not been already established), and the petition must show also that the use of the color additive in the standardized food would be in conformance with section 401 of the act or with the terms of a temporary permit issued under § 130.17 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) If a petition for a definition and standard of identity contains a proposal for a color additive regulation, and the petitioner fails to designate it as such, the Commissioner, upon determining that the petition includes a proposal for a color additive regulation, shall so notify the petitioner and shall thereafter proceed in accordance with the regulations in part 71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation will not be issued allowing the use of a color additive in a food for which a definition and standard of identity is established, unless its issuance is in conformance with section 401 of the act or with the terms of a temporary permit issued under § 130.17 of this chapter. When the contemplated use of such additive complies with the terms of a temporary permit, the color additive regulation will be conditioned on such compliance and will expire with the expiration of the temporary permit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New drugs.</I> (1) Where an application for a new drug is received and this application proposes, for coloring purposes only, the inclusion of a color additive, the provisions of the regulations in part 71 of this chapter shall apply with respect to the information that must be submitted about the safety of the color additive, if such information has not previously been submitted and safety of the color additive for the intended use has not already been established.
</P>
<P>(2) If an application for a new drug inferentially contains a proposal for a color additive regulation, and the applicant fails to designate it as such, the Commissioner, upon determining that the application includes a proposal for a color additive regulation, shall so notify the applicant and shall thereafter proceed in accordance with the regulations in part 71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a petition for a color additive must be filed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the date of filing of the color additive petition shall be considered as the date of filing of the new-drug application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15636, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 64 FR 400, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.11" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.11   Related substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Different color additives may cause similar or related pharmacological or biological effects, and, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, those that do so will be considered to have additive toxic effects.
</P>
<P>(b) Food additives may also cause pharmacological or biological effects similar or related to such effects caused by color additives, and, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, those that do so will be considered as having additive toxic effects.
</P>
<P>(c) Pesticide chemicals may also cause pharmacological or biological effects similar or related to such effects caused by color additives, and, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, those that do so will be considered to have additive toxic effects.
</P>
<P>(d) In establishing tolerances for color additives, the Commissioner will take into consideration, among other things, the amount of any common component permitted in other color additives, in food additives, and in pesticide chemical residues as well as the similar biological activity (such as cholinesterase inhibition) produced by such substance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.19" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.1.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.19   Fees for listing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each petition for the listing of a color additive shall be accompanied by a deposit of $3,000.00 if the proposal is for listing the color additive for use generally in or on foods, in or on drugs, and in or on cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(b) If the petition for the listing is for use in or on foods only, the deposit shall be $3,000.00.
</P>
<P>(c) If the petition for the listing is for use in or on drugs and/or cosmetics only, the deposit shall be $2,600.00.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section shall be applicable, whether or not the proposal contemplates any tolerances, limitations, or other restrictions placed upon the use of the color additive.
</P>
<P>(e) If a petition proposing the issuance of a regulation is withdrawn before it is finally accepted for filing, the deposit, less a $600.00 fee for clerical handling and administrative and technical review, shall be returned to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(f) If a petition proposing the issuance of a regulation is withdrawn within 30 days after filing, the deposit, less $1,800.00 if the petition is covered by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, and less $1,600.00, if the petition is covered by paragraph (c) of this section, shall be returned to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(g) When a petition is withdrawn after filing and resubmitted within 6 months, it shall be accompanied by a deposit of $1,800.00 for a petition filed under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, and $1,600.00 for a petition filed under paragraph (c) of this section. If a petition is resubmitted after 6 months, it shall be accompanied by the deposit that would be required if it were being submitted for the first time.
</P>
<P>(h) When the resubmission pertains to a petition that had been withdrawn before acceptance for filing, a new advance deposit shall be made in full as prescribed in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) After a color additive has been listed, any request for an amendment or additional tolerance shall be accompanied by a deposit of $1,800.00 for use in the items specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, or $1,600.00 for use in items specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) The fee for services in listing a diluent under § 80.35 for use in color additive mixtures shall be $250.00.
</P>
<P>(k) Objections and request for public hearing under section 721(d) of the act or section 203(d)(2)(C) of Pub. L. 86-618 (74 Stat. 404; 21 U.S.C. 379e, note) shall be accompanied by a filing fee of $250.00.
</P>
<P>(l) In the event of a referral of a petition under this section to an advisory committee, all costs related thereto (including personal compensation of committee members, travel materials, and other costs) shall be borne by the person or organization requesting the referral, such costs to be assessed on the basis of actual cost to the Government: <I>Provided,</I> That the compensation of such costs shall include personal compensation of advisory committee members at a rate not to exceed $75.00 per member per day.
</P>
<P>(m) In the case of requests of referrals to advisory committees, a special advance deposit shall be made in the amount of $2,500.00. Where required, further advance in increments of $2,500.00 each shall be made upon request of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. All deposits for referrals to advisory committees in excess of actual expenses shall be refunded to the depositor.
</P>
<P>(n) All requests for pharmacological or other scientific studies shall be accompanied by an advance deposit of $5,000.00. Further advance deposits shall be made upon request of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs when necessary to prevent arrears in such cost. Any deposits in excess of actual expenses will be refunded to the depositor. If a request is denied the advance deposit will be refunded less such costs as are incurred for review of the request.
</P>
<P>(o) The person who files a petition for judicial review of an order under section 721(d) of the act shall pay the costs of preparing a transcript of the record on which the order is based.
</P>
<P>(p) All deposits and fees required by the regulations in this section shall be paid by money order, bank draft or certified check drawn to the order of the Food and Drug Administration, collectible at par at Washington, DC All deposits and fees shall be forwarded to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, whereupon after making appropriate record thereof they will be transmitted to the Treasurer of the United States for deposit in the special account “Salaries and Expenses, Certification, Inspection, and Other Services, Food and Drug Administration.”
</P>
<P>(q) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may waive or refund such fees in whole or in part when in his judgment such action will promote the public interest.
</P>
<P>(r) Any person who believes that payment of these fees will work a hardship on him may petition the Commissioner of Food and Drugs to waive or refund the fees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15636, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 24890, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14478, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Packaging and Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.20   Packaging requirements for straight colors (other than hair dyes).</HEAD>
<P>Straight colors shall be packaged in containers which prevent changes in composition. Packages shall be sealed so that they cannot be opened without breaking the seal. An unavoidable change in moisture content caused by the ordinary and customary exposure that occurs in good storage, packing, and distribution practice is not considered a change in composition. If the packaging material is a food additive it shall be authorized by an appropriate regulation in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.25   Labeling requirements for color additives (other than hair dyes).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General labeling requirements.</I> All color additives shall be labeled with sufficient information to assure their safe use and to allow a determination of compliance with any limitations imposed by this part and parts 71, 73, 74, 80, and 81 of this chapter. In addition to all other information required by the act, labels for color additives, except those in a form suitable for coloring the human body, shall state:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the straight color or the name of each ingredient comprising the color additive, if it is a mixture.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement indicating general limitations for the use of the color additive, such as “for food use only”; “for food, drug, and cosmetic use”; “for use in drugs for external application only.”
</P>
<P>(3) Where regulations issued impose quantitative limitations for a general or specific use of a straight color, the amount of each such straight color in terms of weight per unit/volume or percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(4) An expiration date if stability data require it.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special labeling for color additives with tolerances.</I> Where tolerances are imposed for a general or specific use of a color additive, the label shall in addition provide directions for use of the color additive which if followed will preclude the food, drug, or cosmetic to which it is added from containing an amount of the color additive in excess of the tolerance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special labeling for color additives with other limitations.</I> If use of the color additive is subject to other limitations prescribed in this part, such limitations shall be stated on the label of the color additive by a plain and conspicuous statement. Examples of such limitation statements are: “Do not use in products used in the area of the eye”; “Do not use for coloring drugs for injection.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special labeling for color additives not exempt from certification.</I> Color additives not exempt from the certification procedures shall in addition include in the labeling the lot number assigned by the Color Certification Branch, except that in the case of any mixture for household use which contains not more than 15 percent of pure color and which is in packages containing not more than 3 ounces there appears on the label, a code number which the manufacturer has identified with the lot number by giving to the Food and Drug Administration written notice that such code number will be used in lieu of the lot number.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Safety Evaluation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.40   Safety factors to be considered.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with section 721(b)(5)(A)(iii) of the act, the following safety factor will be applied in determining whether the proposed use of a color additive will be safe: Except where evidence is submitted which justifies use of a different safety factor, a safety factor of 100 to 1 will be used in applying animal experimentation data to man; that is, a color additive for use by man will not be granted a tolerance that will exceed 1/100th of the maximum no-effect level for the most susceptible experimental animals tested. The various species of experimental animals used in the tests shall conform to good pharmacological practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.42" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.42   Criteria for evaluating the safety of color additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In deciding whether a petition is complete and suitable for filing and in reaching a decision on any petition filed, the Commissioner will apply the “safe-for-use” principle. This will require the presentation of all needed scientific data in support of a proposed listing to assure that each listed color additive will be safe for its intended use or uses in or on food, drugs, or cosmetics. The Commissioner may list a color additive for use generally in or on food, in or on drugs, or in or on cosmetics when he finds from the data presented that such additive is suitable and may safely be employed for such general use; he may list an additive only for more limited use or uses for which it is proven suitable and may safely be employed; and he is authorized to prescribe broadly the conditions under which the additive may be safely employed for such use or uses. This may allow the use of a particular dye, pigment, or other substance with certain diluents, but not with others, or at a higher concentration with some than with others.
</P>
<P>(b) The safety for external color additives will normally be determined by tests for acute oral toxicity, primary irritation, sensitization, subacute dermal toxicity on intact and abraded skin, and carcinogenicity by skin application. The Commissioner may waive any of such tests if data before him otherwise establish that such test is not required to determine safety for the use proposed.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon written request describing the proposed use of a color additive and the proposed experiments to determine its safety, the Commissioner will advise a person who wishes to establish the safety of a color additive whether he believes the experiments planned will yield data adequate for an evaluation of the safety of the additive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.45" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.45   Allocation of color additives.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever, in the consideration of a petition or a proposal to list a color additive or to alter an existing listing, the data before the Commissioner fail to show that it would be safe to list the color additive for all the uses proposed or at the levels proposed, the Commissioner will notify the petitioner and other interested persons by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that it is necessary to allocate the safe tolerance for the straight color in the color additive among the competing needs. This notice shall call for the presentation of data by all interested persons on which the allocation can be made in accordance with section 721(b)(8) of the act. The time for acting upon the petition shall be stayed until such data are presented, whereupon the time limits shall begin to run anew. As promptly as possible after presentation of the data, the Commissioner will, by order, announce the allocation and the tolerance limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.50   Application of the cancer clause of section 721 of the act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Color additives that may be ingested.</I> Whenever (1) the scientific data before the Commissioner (either the reports from the scientific literature or the results of biological testing) suggest the possibility that the color additive including its components or impurities has induced cancer when ingested by man or animal; or (2) tests which are appropriate for the evaluation of the safety of additives in food suggest that the color additive, including its components or impurities, induces cancer in man or animal, the Commissioner shall determine whether, based on the judgment of appropriately qualified scientists, cancer has been induced and whether the color additive, including its components or impurities, was the causative substance. If it is his judgment that the data do not establish these facts, the cancer clause is not applicable; and if the data considered as a whole establish that the color additive will be safe under the conditions that can be specified in the applicable regulation, it may be listed for such use. But if in the judgment of the Commissioner, based on information from qualified scientists, cancer has been induced, no regulation may issue which permits its use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Color additives that will not be ingested.</I> Whenever the scientific data before the Commissioner suggest the possibility that the color additive, including its components or impurities, has induced cancer in man or animals by routes other than ingestion, the Commissioner shall determine whether, based on the judgment of appropriately qualified scientists, the test suggesting the possibility of carcinogenesis is appropriate for the evaluation of the color additive for a use which does not involve ingestion, cancer has been induced, and the color additive, including its components or impurities, was the causative substance. If it is his judgment that the data do not establish these facts, the cancer clause is not applicable to preclude external drug and cosmetic uses, and if the data as a whole establish that the color additive will be safe under conditions that can be specified in the regulations, it may be listed for such use. But if, in the judgment of the Commissioner, based on information from qualified scientists, the test is an appropriate one for the consideration of safety for the proposed external use, and cancer has been induced by the color additive, including its components or impurities, no regulation may issue which permits its use in external drugs and cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Color additives for use as an ingredient of feed for animals that are raised for food production.</I> Color additives that are an ingredient of the feed for animals raised for food production and that have the potential to contaminate human food with residues whose consumption could present a risk of cancer to people must satisfy the requirements of subpart E of part 500 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15636, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 22675, May 26, 1978; 52 FR 49586, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.51   Advisory committee on the applicability of the anticancer clause.</HEAD>
<P>All requests for and procedures governing any advisory committee on the anticancer clause shall be subject to the provisions of part 14 of this chapter, and particularly subpart H of that part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.55" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.24.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.55   Request for scientific studies.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner will consider requests by any interested person who desires the Food and Drug Administration to conduct scientific studies to support a petition for a regulation for a color additive. If favorably acted upon, such studies will be limited to pharmacological investigations, studies of the chemical and physical structure of the color additive, and methods of analysis of the pure color additive (including impurities) and its identification and determination in foods, drugs, or cosmetics, as the case may be. All requests for such studies shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 70.19.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="71" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 71—COLOR ADDITIVE PETITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 351, 355, 360, 360b-360f, 360h-360j, 361, 371, 379e, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15639, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.1   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person may propose the listing of a color additive for use in or on any food, drug, or cosmetic or for coloring the human body. Such proposal shall be made in a petition in the form prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. The petition shall be submitted in triplicate (quadruplicate, if intended uses include uses in meat, meat food product, or poultry product). If any part of the material submitted is in a foreign language, it shall be accompanied by an accurate and complete English translation. The petitioner shall state the post-office address in the United States to which published notices or orders issued or objections filed pursuant to section 721 of the act may be sent.
</P>
<P>(b) Pertinent information may be incorporated in, and will be considered as part of, a petition on the basis of specific reference to such information submitted to and retained in the files of the Food and Drug Administration. However, any reference to unpublished information furnished by a person other than the applicant will not be considered unless use of such information is authorized in a written statement signed by the person who submitted the information. Any reference to published information offered in support of a color additive petition should be accompanied by reprints or photostatic copies of such references.
</P>
<P>(c) Petitions shall include the following data and be submitted in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FRP>__________________ (Date)
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>Name of petitioner
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Post-office address
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of color additive and proposed use
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200),
</FP>
<FP-1>Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition,
</FP-1>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>5001 Campus Dr., 
</FP>
<FP>College Park, MD 20740
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>Petitioner submits this pursuant to section 721(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act requesting listing by the Commissioner of the color additive __________ as suitable and safe for use in or on __________ subject to the conditions that ______________. [Petitioner may propose a listing for general use in food, drugs, or cosmetics or, if such general listing is not believed suitable and safe, the petitioner shall describe the conditions under which he believes the additive can be safely used and for which it will be suitable. These conditions may include tolerance limitations, specifications as to the manner in which the additive may be added or used, and directions and other labeling or packaging safeguards that should be applied. The level of use proposed should not be higher than reasonably required to accomplish the intended color effect.]
</P>
<P>Attached hereto, in triplicate (quadruplicate, if intended uses include uses in meat, meat food product, or poultry product), and constituting a part of this petition are the following:
</P>
<P>A. The name and all pertinent information concerning the color additive, including chemical identity and composition of the color additive, its physical, chemical, and biological properties, and specifications prescribing its component(s) and identifying and limiting the reaction byproducts and other impurities.
</P>
<P>The petition shall contain a description of the chemical and physical tests relied upon to identify the color additive and shall contain a full description of the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the production of the color additive. These shall establish that it is a substance of reproducible composition. Alternative methods and controls and variations in methods and controls, within reasonable limits, that do not affect the characteristics of the substance or the reliability of the controls may be specified.
</P>
<P>The petition shall supply a list of all substances used in the synthesis, extraction, or other method of preparation of any straight color, regardless of whether they undergo chemical change in the process. Each substance should be identified by its common or usual name and its complete chemical name, using structural formulas when necessary for specific identification. If any proprietary preparation is used as a component, the proprietary name should be followed by a complete quantitive statement of composition. Reasonable alternatives for any listed substance may be specified.
</P>
<P>If the petitioner does not himself perform all the manufacturing, processing, and packing operations for a color additive, the petitioner shall identify each person who will perform a part of such operations and designate the part.
</P>
<P>The petition shall include stability data, and, if the data indicate that it is needed to insure the identity, strength, quality, or purity of the color additive, the expiration period that will be employed as well as any packaging and labeling precautions needed to preserve stability.
</P>
<P>B. The amount of the color additive proposed for use and the color effect intended to be achieved, together with all directions, recommendations, and suggestions regarding the proposed use, as well as specimens of the labeling proposed for the color additive. If the color effect results or may reasonably be expected to result from use of the color additive in packaging material, the petitioner shall show how this may occur and what residues may reasonably be anticipated.
</P>
<P>Typewritten or other draft-labeling copy will be accepted for consideration of the petition provided final printed labeling identical in content to the draft copy is submitted as soon as available, and prior to the marketing of the color additive. The printed labeling shall conform in prominence and conspicuousness with the requirements of the act.
</P>
<P>If the color additive is one for which a tolerance limitation is required to assure its safety, the level of use proposed should be no higher than the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or other technical effect, even though the safety data may support a higher tolerance. If the safety data will not support the use of the amount of the color additive reasonably needed to accomplish the desired color effect, the requested tolerance will not be established. Petitioners are expected to propose the use of color additives in accordance with sound color chemistry.
</P>
<P>C.1. A description of practicable methods to determine the pure color and all intermediates, subsidiary colors, and other components of the color additive.
</P>
<P>2. A description of practicable methods to determine the amount of the color additive in any raw, processed, and/or finished food, drug, or cosmetic in which use of the color additive is proposed. (The tests proposed shall be those that can be used for food, drug, or cosmetic control purposes and can be applied with consistent results by any properly equipped laboratory and trained personnel.)
</P>
<P>3. A description of methods for identification and determination of any substance formed in or on such food, drug, or cosmetic because of the use of the color additive. (If it is the petitioner's view that any such method would not be needed, under the terms of section 721(b)(5)(A)(iv), a statement shall be submitted in lieu of methods as to the basis for such view.)
</P>
<P>D. Full reports of investigation made with respect to the safety of the color additive.
</P>
<P>(A petition will be regarded as incomplete unless it includes full reports of adequate tests reasonably applicable to show whether or not the color additive will be safe for its intended use. The reports ordinarily should include detailed data derived from appropriate animal and other biological experiments in which the methods used and the results obtained are clearly set forth. The petition shall not omit without explanation any data that would influence the evaluation of the safety of the color additive).
</P>
<P>E. Complete data which will allow the Commissioner to consider, among other things, the probable consumption of, and/or other relevant exposure from the additive and of any substance formed in or on food, drugs, or cosmetics because of such additive; and the cumulative effect, if any, of such additive in the diet of man or animals, taking into account the same or any chemically or pharmacologically related substance or substances in the diet including, but not limited to food additives and pesticide chemicals for which tolerances or exemptions from tolerances have been established.
</P>
<P>F. Proposed tolerances and other limitations on the use of the color additive, if tolerances and limitations are required in order to insure its safety. A petitioner may include a proposed regulation.
</P>
<P>G. If exemption from batch certification is requested, the reasons why it is believed such certification is not necessary (including supporting data to establish the safety of the intended use).
</P>
<P>H. If submitting a petition to alter an existing regulation issued pursuant to section 721(b) of the act, full information on each proposed change that is to be made in the original regulation must be submitted. The petition may omit statements made in the original petition concerning which no change is proposed. A supplemental petition must be submitted for any change beyond the variations provided for in the original petition and the regulation issued on the basis of the original petition.
</P>
<P>I. The prescribed fee of $____________ for admitting the color additive to listing is enclosed (unless there is an advance deposit adequate to cover the fee).
</P>
<P2>Yours very truly,
</P2>
<FP-DASH>(Petitioner)
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>By ______________ (Indicate authority)
</FRP>
<P>J. The petitioner is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) The petitioner will be notified of the date on which his petition is filed; and an incomplete petition, or one that has not been submitted in triplicate, will be retained but not filed. A petition shall be retained but shall not be filed if any of the data listed in the above form are lacking or are not set forth so as to be readily understood or if the prescribed fee has not been submitted. The petitioner will be notified in what respects his petition is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(e) The petition must be signed by the petitioner or by his attorney or authorized agent, who is a resident of the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) The data specified under the several lettered headings should be submitted on separate sheets or sets of sheets, suitably identified. If such data have already been submitted with an earlier application, the present petition may incorporate it by specific reference to the earlier petition.
</P>
<P>(g) If nonclinical laboratory studies are involved, petitions filed with the Commissioner under section 721(b) of the act shall include with respect to each nonclinical study contained in the petition, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) If clinical investigations involving human subjects are involved, petitions filed with the Commissioner under section 721(b) of the act shall include statements regarding each such clinical investigation contained in the petition that it either was conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to such requirements in accordance with §§ 56.104 or 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) If intended uses of the color additive include uses in meat, meat food product, or poultry product subject to regulation by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) under the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Federal Meat Inspection Act (FMIA) (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>), FDA shall, upon filing of the petition, forward a copy of the petition or relevant portions thereof to the Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA, for simultaneous review under the PPIA and FMIA.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will ask USDA to advise whether the proposed meat and poultry uses comply with the FMIA and PPIA or, if not, whether use of the substance would be permitted in products under USDA jurisdiction under specified conditions or restrictions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15639, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 60021, Dec. 22, 1978; 46 FR 8952, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 7491, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 54 FR 24890, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14478, Apr. 2, 1996; 62 FR 40598, July 29, 1997; 65 FR 51762, Aug. 25, 2000; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.2" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.2   Notice of filing of petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where the petition involves a new drug, the Commissioner, within 15 days after receipt, will notify the petitioner of acceptance or nonacceptance of a petition, and if not accepted the reasons therefor. If accepted, the date of the notification letter sent to petitioner becomes the date of filing for the purposes of section 721(d)(1) of the act. If the petitioner desires, he may supplement a deficient petition after being notified regarding deficiencies. If the supplementary material or explanation of the petition is deemed acceptable, petitioner shall be notified. The date of such notification becomes the date of filing. If the petitioner does not wish to supplement or explain the petition and requests in writing that it be filed as submitted, the petition shall be filed and the petitioner so notified. The date of such notification becomes the date of filing. Where the petition involves a new drug, notification to the petitioner will be made in accordance with § 70.10(b)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 30 days from the date of filing of such petition a notice of the filing, the name of the petitioner, and a brief description of the proposal in general terms. A copy of the notice will be mailed to the petitioner when the original document is signed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15639, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 64 FR 400, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.4" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.4   Samples; additional information.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner may request samples of the color additive, articles used as components thereof, or of the food, drug, or cosmetic in which the color additive is proposed to be used, or which comprises the color additive, and any additional information needed to clarify a submitted method or other aspect of a petition at any time while a petition is under consideration. The Commissioner shall specify in the request for a sample of the color additive, or articles used as components thereof, or of the food, drug, or cosmetic in which the color additive is proposed to be used, or which comprises the color additive, a quantity deemed adequate to permit tests of analytical methods to determine quantities of the color additive present in products for which it is intended to be used or adequate for any study or investigation reasonably required with respect to the safety of the color additive or the physical or technical effect it produces. The date used for computing the 90-day limit for the purposes of section 721(d)(1) of the act shall be moved forward 1 day for each day, after mailing date of the request, taken by the petitioner to submit the information and/or sample. If the information or sample is requested a reasonable time in advance of the 180 days, but is not submitted within such 180 days after filing of the petition, the petition will be considered withdrawn without prejudice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.6" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.6   Extension of time for studying petitions; substantive amendments; withdrawal of petitions without prejudice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Extension of time for studying petitions.</I> If the Commissioner determines that additional time is needed to study and investigate the petition, he shall by written notice to the petitioner extend the 90-day period for not more than 180 days after the filing of the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substantive amendments.</I> After a petition has been filed, the petitioner may submit additional information or data in support thereof. In such cases, if the Commissioner determines that the additional information or data amounts to a substantive amendment, the petition as amended will be given a new filing date, and the time limitation will begin to run anew. If nonclinical laboratory studies are involved, additional information and data submitted in support of filed petitions shall include, with respect to each nonclinical laboratory study contained in the petition, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. If clinical investigations involving human subjects are involved, additional information or data submitted in support of filed petitions shall include statements regarding each such clinical investigation from which the information or data are derived, that it either was conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to such requirements in accordance with § 56.104 or § 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withdrawal of petitions without prejudice.</I> (1) In some cases the Commissioner may notify the petitioner that the petition, while technically complete, is inadequate to justify the establishment of a regulation or the regulation requested by petitioner. This may be due to the fact that the data are not sufficiently clear or complete. In such cases, the petitioner may withdraw the petition pending its clarification or the obtaining of additional data. This withdrawal will be without prejudice to a future filing. Upon refiling, the time limitation will begin to run anew from the date of refiling.
</P>
<P>(2) At any time before the order provided for in § 71.20 has been forwarded to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication the petitioner may withdraw the petition without prejudice to a future filing. Upon refiling, the time limitation will begin to run anew.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15636, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 60021, Dec. 22, 1978; 46 FR 8952, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 7491, Feb. 22, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.15" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.1.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.15   Confidentiality of data and information in color additive petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following data and information in a color additive petition are available for public disclosure, unless extraordinary circumstances are shown, after the notice of filing of the petition is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or, if the petition is not promptly filed because of deficiencies in it, after the petitioner is informed that it will not be filed because of the deficiencies involved:
</P>
<P>(1) All safety and functionality data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information, after deletion of:
</P>
<P>(i) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution.
</P>
<P>(4) A list of all ingredients contained in a color additive, whether or not it is in descending order of predominance. A particular ingredient or group of ingredients shall be deleted from any such list prior to public disclosure if it is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter, and a notation shall be made that any such ingredient list is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(5) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) All records showing the Food and Drug Administration's testing of or action on a particular lot of a certifiable color additive.
</P>
<P>(b) The following data and information in a color additive petition are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<P>(c) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to a color additive petition are available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter when the color additive regulation is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this regulation, safety and functionality data include all studies and tests of a color additive on animals and humans and all studies and tests on a color additive for identity, stability, purity, potency, performance, and usefulness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.18" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.1.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.18   Petition for exemption from certification.</HEAD>
<P>A manufacturer, packer, or distributor of a color additive or color additive mixture may petition for an exemption from certification pursuant to part 10 of this chapter. Any such petition shall show why such certification is not necessary for the protection of public health.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Action on Petitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.20" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.20   Publication of regulation.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner will forward for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> within 90 days after filing of the petition (or within 180 days if the time is extended as provided for in section 721(d)(1) of the act):
</P>
<P>(a) A regulation listing in part 73 or 74 of this chapter the color additive on the appropriate list or lists as provided under section 721(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(1) Such a regulation may list the color additive for use generally in or on foods, drugs, or cosmetics or for use in coloring the human body, as the case may be, or may prescribe the conditions under which the color additive may be safely used (including, but not limited to, specifications as to the particular food, drug, or cosmetic or classes of food, drugs, or cosmetics in or on which such color additive may be used, or for the material intended for coloring the human body; the maximum quantity of any straight color or diluent that may be used or permitted to remain in or on such food, drug, or cosmetic or article intended for coloring the human body; the manner in which such color additive may be added to or used in or on such food, drug, or cosmetic or for coloring the human body; and any directions or other labeling or packing requirements for such color additives deemed necessary to assure the safety of such use).
</P>
<P>(2) Such regulations shall list the color additive only for the use or uses for which it has been found suitable and for which it may safely be employed. Alternatively, the Commissioner shall by order deny the petition, and notify the petitioner of such order and the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(3) The regulation shall list any use or uses in meat, meat food product, or poultry product subject to the Federal Meat Inspection Act (FMIA) (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Poultry Products Inspection (PPIA) (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>) for which the color additive has been found suitable and for which it may safely be employed.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Commissioner finds that batch certification is not necessary for the protection of the public health he will, by order, exempt the color additive from the certification procedure. In determining whether certification of a color additive is necessary, the Commissioner will consider the composition of the additive, its manufacturing process, possible impurities, its toxic potential, control and analytical procedures necessary to assure compliance with the listing specifications, and the variability of its composition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15639, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 65 FR 51762, Aug. 25, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.22   Deception as a basis for refusing to issue regulations; deceptive use of a color additive for which a regulation has issued.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner shall refuse to issue a regulation listing a color additive, if in his judgment the data before him show that such proposed use would promote deception of the consumer or would result in misbranding or adulteration within the meaning of the act. Such a finding shall be by order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> subject to the filing of objections and a request for a hearing by adversely affected parties. The issuance of a regulation for a color additive authorizing its use generally in or on a food, drug, or cosmetic shall not be construed as authorization to use the color additive in a manner that may promote deception or conceal damage or inferiority. The use of a color additive to promote deception or conceal damage or inferiority shall be considered as the use of a color additive for which no regulation has issued pursuant to section 721(b) of the act, even though the regulation is effective for other uses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.25" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.25   Condition for certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Commissioner cannot conclude from the information before him that there is a basis for exempting a color additive from the requirement of batch certification, he will so order by appropriate listing in part 74 of this chapter. The Commissioner's order shall state in detail the specifications that shall be met by the color additive.
</P>
<P>(b) Each order shall state a period of time after which use of a color additive subject to batch certification but not from a batch certified by procedure prescribed in this section would result in adulteration of the product in which it is used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.26" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.26   Revocation of exemption from certification.</HEAD>
<P>If information becomes available to the Commissioner that a color additive that has been granted exemption from certification should not, for the protection of the public health, be so exempted, such exemption will be canceled by a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.27" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.27   Listing and exemption from certification on the Commissioner's initiative.</HEAD>
<P>Where a petition for a regulation to list a color additive has not been received and the Commissioner has available facts which demonstrate that a color additive should be listed and/or that certification procedure is not necessary in order to protect the public health, he may list such color additive by appropriate regulation and listing in part 73 or 74 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.30   Procedure for filing objections to regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Objections and hearings relating to color additive regulations under section 721 (b) and (c) of the act shall be governed by parts 10, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, and 19 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The fees specified in § 70.19 of this chapter shall be applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.37" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.25.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.37   Exemption of color additives for investigational use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A shipment or other delivery of a color additive or of a food, drug, or cosmetic containing such a color additive for investigational use by experts qualified to determine safety shall be exempt from the requirements of section 402(c), 501(a), or 601(e) of the act, provided that the color additive or the food, drug, or cosmetic containing the color additive bears a label which states prominently, “Caution—Contains new color additive—For investigational use only.” No animals used in such investigations, or their products, such as milk or eggs, shall be used for food purposes, unless the sponsor or the investigator has submitted to the Commissioner data demonstrating that such use will be consistent with the public health, and the Commissioner, proceeding as he would in a matter involving section 409(i) of the act, has notified the sponsor or investigator that the proposed disposition for food is authorized. Any person who contests a refusal to grant such authorization shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The person who introduced such shipment or who delivers the color additive or a food, drug, or cosmetic containing such an additive into interstate commerce shall maintain adequate records showing the name and post-office address of the expert to whom the color additive is shipped, date, quantity, and batch or code mark of each shipment and delivery for a period of 2 years after such shipment and delivery. Upon the request of a properly authorized employee of the Department, at reasonable times, he shall make such records available for inspection and copying.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="73" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 73—LISTING OF COLOR ADDITIVES EXEMPT FROM CERTIFICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 342, 343, 348, 351, 352, 355, 361, 362, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 73 appear at 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Foods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1   Diluents in color additive mixtures for food use exempt from certification.</HEAD>
<P>The following substances may be safely used as diluents in color additive mixtures for food use exempt from certification, subject to the condition that each straight color in the mixture has been exempted from certification or, if not so exempted, is from a batch that has previously been certified and has not changed in composition since certification. If a specification for a particular diluent is not set forth in this part 73, the material shall be of a purity consistent with its intended use.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General use.</I> (1) Substances that are generally recognized as safe under the conditions set forth in section 201(s) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances meeting the definitions and specifications set forth under subchapter B of this chapter, and which are used only as prescribed by such regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) The following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definitions and specifications
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium disodium EDTA (calcium disodium ethyl- enediamine- tetraacetate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains calcium disodium ethyl- enediamine- tetraacetate dihydrate (CAS Reg. No. 6766-87-6) as set forth in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed., p. 50, 1981</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used in aqueous solutions and aqueous dispersions as a preservative and sequestrant in color additive mixtures intended only for ingested use; the color additive mixture (solution or dispersion) may contain not more than 1 percent by weight of the diluent (calculated as anhydrous calcium disodium ethyl-enediamine-tetraacetate).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in U.S.P. XVI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 500 p.p.m. in the finished food. Labeling of color additive mixtures containing castor oil shall bear adequate directions for use that will result in a food meeting this restriction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dioctylsodium sulfosuccinate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.810 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 9 p.p.m. in the finished food. Labeling of color additive mixtures containing dioctylsodium sulfosuccinate shall bear adequate directions for use that will result in a food meeting this restriction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium EDTA (disodium ethyl- enediamine- tetraacetate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains disodium ethyl- enediamine- tetraacetate dihydrate (CAS Reg. No. 6381-92-6) as set forth in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed., p. 104, 1981</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used in aqueous solutions and aqueous dispersions as a preservative and sequestrant in color additive mixtures intended only for ingested use; the color additive mixture (solution or dispersion) may contain not more than 1 percent by weight of the diluent (calculated as anhydrous disodium ethyl- enediamine- tetraacetate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Special use</I>—(1) <I>Diluents in color additive mixtures for marking food</I>—(i) <I>Inks for marking food supplements in tablet form, gum, and confectionery.</I> Items listed in paragraph (a) of this section and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definitions and specifications
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alcohol, SDA-3A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in 26 CFR pt. 212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No residue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cetyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in N.F. XI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl cellulose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.868 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate (polysorbate 80)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.840 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Molecular weight, minimum 2,000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinylpyrrolidone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 173.55 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosin and rosin derivatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.615 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shellac, purified</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Food grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Inks for marking fruit and vegetables.</I> Items listed in paragraph (a) of this section and the following:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definitions and specifications
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in N.F. XI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No residue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alcohol, SDA-3A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in 26 CFR pt. 212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzoin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in U.S.P. XVI
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copal, Manila</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in N.F. XI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl cellulose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.868 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinylpyrrolidone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 173.55 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosin and rosin derivatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.615 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.480 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 2 pct of the ink solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terpene resins, natural</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.615 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terpene resins, synthetic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polymers of α- and β-pinene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Diluents in color additive mixtures for coloring shell eggs.</I> Items listed in paragraph (a) of this section and the following, subject to the condition that there is no penetration of the color additive mixture or any of its components through the eggshell into the egg:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol, denatured, formula 23A (26 CFR part 212), Internal Revenue Service.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Damar gum (resin).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylene glycol distearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl cellulose (as identified in § 172.868 of this chapter).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol distearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Japan wax.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Limed rosin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Naphtha. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol ester of fumaric acid-rosin adduct.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene glycol 6000 (as identified in § 172.820 of this chapter).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rosin and rosin derivatives (as identified in § 172.615 of this chapter).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Miscellaneous special uses.</I> Items listed in paragraph (a) of this section and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definitions and specifications
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinylpyrrolidone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 173.55 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In or as food-tablet coatings; limit, not more than 0.1 pct in the finished food; labeling of color additive mixtures containing polyvinylpyrrolidone shall bear adequate directions for use that will result in a food meeting this restriction.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 32175, July 21, 1992; 69 FR 24511, May 4, 2004]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.30   Annatto extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive annatto extract is an extract prepared from annatto seed, <I>Bixa orellana</I> L., using any one or an appropriate combination of the food-grade extractants listed in paragraph (a)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Alkaline aqueous solution, alkaline propylene glycol, ethyl alcohol or alkaline solutions thereof, edible vegetable oils or fats, mono- and diglycerides from the glycerolysis of edible vegetable oils or fats. The alkaline alcohol or aqueous extracts may be treated with food-grade acids to precipitate annatto pigments, which are separated from the liquid and dried, with or without intermediate recrystallization, using the solvents listed under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. Food-grade alkalis or carbonates may be added to adjust alkalinity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Acetone, ethylene dichloride, hexane, isopropyl alcohol, methyl alcohol, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with annatto extract may contain only diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Annatto extract, including pigments precipitated therefrom, shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million; lead as Pb, not more than 10 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(2) When solvents listed under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section are used, annatto extract shall contain no more solvent residue than is permitted of the corresponding solvents in spice oleoresins under applicable food additive regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Annatto extract may be safely used for coloring foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter. Labels shall bear information showing that the color is derived from annatto seed. The requirements of § 70.25(a) of this chapter that all ingredients shall be listed by name shall not be construed as requiring the declaration of residues of solvents listed in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.32   Antarctic krill meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive Antarctic krill meal consists of the cooked, dried, and ground biomass of whole <I>Euphausia superba</I> (Antarctic krill), with or without removal of the lipid fraction. The lipid fraction may be fully or partially extracted with ethanol, followed by removal of residual ethanol, to produce defatted Antarctic krill meal. Whole Antarctic krill meal, produced when the lipid fraction is not removed, may contain ethoxyquin as a preservative.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for fish feed use made with Antarctic krill meal may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Antarctic krill meal must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Physical state, solid.
</P>
<P>(2) Ethoxyquin, not more than 250 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (250 parts per million (ppm)) in whole Antarctic krill meal.
</P>
<P>(3) Lead, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 ppm).
</P>
<P>(4) Arsenic, not more than 5 mg/kg (5 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(6) Cadmium, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 ppm).
</P>
<P>(7) Fluoride, not more than 2,500 mg/kg (2,500 ppm).
</P>
<P>(8) Astaxanthin, not more than 170 mg/kg (170 ppm) in whole Antarctic krill meal; not more than 90 mg/kg (90 ppm) in defatted Antarctic krill meal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Antarctic krill meal may be safely used in salmonid feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the pink to orange-red color of the flesh of salmonid fish;
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive may be used at levels not to exceed 4 percent by weight in freshwater salmonid feed and 12 percent by weight in marine salmonid feed;
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of the color additive incorporated in the feed is such that the finished feed meets the tolerance limitation for ethoxyquin in animal feed prescribed in § 573.380 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity of astaxanthin in the finished feed, from Antarctic krill meal when used alone or in combination with other astaxanthin color additive sources listed in this part, must not exceed 80 mg/kg astaxanthin (72 grams per ton) in the finished feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The labeling of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom must bear expiration dates for the sealed and open container (established through generally accepted stability testing methods), other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, a statement of the concentration of ethoxyquin contained therein (whole Antarctic krill meal only), and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The presence of the color additive in finished fish feed prepared according to paragraph (c) of this section must be declared in accordance with § 501.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the color additive in salmonid fish that have been fed feeds containing Antarctic krill meal must be declared in accordance with §§ 101.22(b), (c), and (k)(2) and 101.100(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 27935, May 10, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.35   Astaxanthin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive astaxanthin is 3, 3′-dihydroxy-β, β-carotene-4, 4′-dione.
</P>
<P>(2) Astaxanthin may be added to the fish feed only as a component of a stabilized color additive mixture. Color additive mixtures for fish feed use made with astaxanthin may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Astaxanthin shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Physical state, solid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>0.05 percent solution in chloroform, complete and clear.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Absorption maximum wavelength 484-493 nanometers (in chloroform).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Residue on ignition, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total carotenoids other than astaxanthin, not more than 4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 5 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic, not more than 2 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury, not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heavy metals, not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assay, minimum 96 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Astaxanthin may be safely used in the feed of salmonid fish in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the pink to orange-red color of the flesh of salmonid fish.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of color additive in feed is such that the color additive shall not exceed 80 milligrams per kilogram (72 grams per ton) of finished feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The labeling of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear expiration dates for the sealed and open container (established through generally accepted stability testing methods), other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The presence of the color additive in finished fish feed prepared according to paragraph (c) of this section shall be declared in accordance with § 501.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the color additive in salmonid fish that have been fed feeds containing astaxanthin shall be declared in accordance with §§ 101.22(k)(2) and 101.100(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 18738, Apr. 13, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.37" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.37   Astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate is 3,3′-bis(4-methoxy-1,4-dioxobutoxy)-β,β-carotene-4,4′-dione.
</P>
<P>(2) Astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate may be added to the fish feed only as a component of a stabilized mixture. Color additive mixtures for fish feed use made with astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Physical state, solid.
</P>
<P>(2) 0.05 percent solution in chloroform, complete and clear.
</P>
<P>(3) Absorption maximum wavelength 484-493 nanometers (in chloroform).
</P>
<P>(4) Residue on ignition, not more than 0.1 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) Total carotenoids other than astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate, not more than 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Lead, not more than 5 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (5 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(7) Arsenic, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(8) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 part per million).
</P>
<P>(9) Heavy metals, not more than 10 mg/kg (10 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(10) Assay including astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate, astaxanthin monomethylsuccinate, and astaxanthin, minimum 96 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate may be safely used in the feed of salmonid fish in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the pink to orange-red color of the flesh of salmonid fish.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate in the finished feed, when used alone or in combination with other astaxanthin color additive sources listed in this part 73, shall not exceed 110 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg), which is equivalent to 80 mg/kg astaxanthin (72 grams per ton).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The labeling of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear expiration dates for the sealed and open container (established through generally accepted stability testing methods), other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The presence of the color additive in finished fish feed prepared according to paragraph (c) of this section shall be declared in accordance with § 501.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the color additive in salmonid fish that have been fed feeds containing astaxanthin dimethyldisuccinate shall be declared in accordance with §§ 101.22(b), (c), and (k)(2), and 101.100(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 57251, Nov. 5, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.39" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.39   xxx</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260206" REFID="23">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 5298, Feb. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260324" REFID="44a">This amendment was delayed indefinitely at 91 FR 13951, Mar. 24, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.40" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.40   Dehydrated beets (beet powder).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive dehydrated beets is a dark red powder prepared by dehydrating sound, mature, good quality, edible beets.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with dehydrated beets may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter, not more than 4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid insoluble ash, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Dehydrated beets may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.50   Ultramarine blue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive ultramarine blue is a blue pigment obtained by calcining a mixture of kaolin, sulfur, sodium carbonate, and carbon at temperatures above 700 °C. Sodium sulfate and silica may also be incorporated in the mixture in order to vary the shade. The pigment is a complex sodium aluminum sulfo-silicate having the approximate formula Na<E T="52">7</E>Ai<E T="52">6</E>Si<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">2</E><E T="52">4</E> S<E T="52">3</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ultramarine blue shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive ultramarine blue may be safely used for coloring salt intended for animal feed subject to the restriction that the quantity of ultramarine blue does not exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the salt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The color additive shall be labeled in accordance with the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.69" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.69   Butterfly pea flower extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive butterfly pea flower extract is a dark blue liquid prepared by the aqueous extraction of dried butterfly pea flowers from <I>Clitoria ternatea.</I> The extract is further processed by ultrafiltration to remove residues of plant products, followed by concentration and pasteurization. Citric acid may be used to control the pH. The color additive contains anthocyanins as the principal coloring component.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with butterfly pea flower extract may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Butterfly pea flower extract must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) pH, not less than 3.0 and not more than 4.5 at 25 °C.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead, not more than 1 milligram per kilogram (mg/kg) (1 part per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(3) Arsenic, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(4) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Cadmium, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Butterfly pea flower extract may be safely used for coloring alcoholic beverages, sport and energy drinks, flavored or carbonated water, fruit drinks (including smoothies and grain drinks), carbonated soft drinks (fruit-flavored or juice, ginger ale, and root beer), fruit and vegetable juice, nutritional beverages, chewing gum, teas, coated nuts, liquid coffee creamers (dairy and non-dairy), ice cream and frozen dairy desserts, hard candy, dairy and non-dairy drinks, fruit preparations in yogurts, soft candy, ready-to-eat cereals, crackers, snack mixes, hard pretzels, plain potato chips (restructured or baked), and plain corn chips, tortilla chips, and multigrain chips. Amounts must be consistent with good manufacturing practice. Butterfly pea flower extract may not be used for coloring foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 49233, Sept. 2, 2021, as amended at 90 FR 20104, May 12, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.70" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.70   Calcium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive calcium carbonate is a fine, white powder consisting essentially of calcium carbonate (CaCO<E T="52">3</E>) prepared either by grinding naturally occurring limestone or synthetically, by precipitation.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with calcium carbonate may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Calcium carbonate must meet the specifications given in calcium carbonate (FCC 13) and limestone, ground (FCC 13).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Calcium carbonate may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color dietary supplement tablets and capsules (including coatings and printing inks), soft and hard candies and mints, and in inks used on the surface of chewing gum, except that it may not be used to color chocolate for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and, therefore, batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> Material listed in this paragraph (f) is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact the Food and Drug Administration between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday at: Dockets Management Staff, (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov;</I> website: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> You may obtain the material from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852; website: <I>www.usp.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Limestone, Ground, <I>Food Chemicals Codex,</I> 13th edition, effective June 1, 2022 (FCC 13).
</P>
<P>(2) Calcium Carbonate, <I>Food Chemicals Codex,</I> 13th edition, effective June 1, 2022 (FCC 13).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 51557, Nov. 7, 2017, as amended at 87 FR 58448, Sept. 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.75" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.75   Canthaxanthin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive canthaxanthin is β-carotene-4,4′-dione.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with canthaxanthin may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Canthaxanthin shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Physical state, solid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1 percent solution in chloroform, complete and clear.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melting range (decomposition), 207 °C. to 212 °C. (corrected).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loss on drying, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Residue on ignition, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total carotenoids other than trans-canthaxanthin, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic, not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury, not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assay, 96 to 101 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Use and restrictions.</I> (1) The color additive canthaxanthin may be safely used for coloring foods generally subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of canthaxanthin does not exceed 30 milligrams per pound of solid or semisolid food or per pint of liquid food; and
</P>
<P>(ii) It may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Canthaxanthin may be safely used in broiler chicken feed to enhance the yellow color of broiler chicken skin in accordance with the following conditions: The quantity of canthaxanthin incorporated in the feed shall not exceed 4.41 milligrams per kilogam (4 grams per ton) of complete feed to supplement other known sources of xanthophyll and associated carotenoids to accomplish the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(3) Canthaxanthin may be safely used in the feed of salmonid fish in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Canthaxanthin may be added to the fish feed only in the form of a stabilized color additive mixture;
</P>
<P>(ii) The color additive is used to enhance the pink to orange-red color of the flesh of salmonid fish; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity of color additive in feed shall not exceed 80 milligrams per kilogram (72 grams per ton) of finished feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The labeling of the color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of coloring fish, the labeling of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear expiration dates (established through generally accepted stability testing methods) for the sealed and open container, other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the color additive in finished fish feed prepared according to paragraph (c)(3) of this section shall be declared in accordance with § 501.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The presence of the color additive in salmonid fish that have been fed feeds containing canthaxanthin shall be declared in accordance with §§ 101.22(b), (c), and (k)(2), and 101.100(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 47534, Nov. 19, 1985; 63 FR 14817, Mar. 27, 1998]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.80   Calcium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive calcium phosphate is a white, synthetically prepared powder consisting predominantly of precipitated Ca<E T="52">5</E>OH(PO<E T="52">4</E>)<E T="52">3.</E>
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with calcium phosphate may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Calcium phosphate must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Loss on ignition, not more than 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Assay (Ca): 36.0-40.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Fluoride, not more than 75 milligrams/kilogram (mg/kg) (75 parts per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(4) Lead, not more than 0.25 mg/kg (0.25 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Arsenic, not more than 3 mg/kg (3 ppm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Calcium phosphate may be safely used for coloring foods intended for human consumption, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) In ready-to-eat chicken products in an amount not exceeding 1.5 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(2) In white candy melts in an amount not exceeding 0.25 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(3) In doughnut sugar in an amount not exceeding 2.0 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(4) In sugar for coated candies in an amount not exceeding 5.25 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 20100, May 12, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.85" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.85   Caramel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive caramel is the dark-brown liquid or solid material resulting from the carefully controlled heat treatment of the following food-grade carbohydrates:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dextrose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Invert sugar.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lactose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Malt sirup.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Molasses.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Starch hydrolysates and fractions thereof.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sucrose.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The food-grade acids, alkalis, and salts listed in this subparagraph may be employed to assist caramelization, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(i) Acids:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphoric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfuric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfurous acid.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Alkalis:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ammonium hydroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium hydroxide U.S.P.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium hydroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium hydroxide.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Salts: Ammonium, sodium, or potassium carbonate, bicarbonate, phosphate (including dibasic phosphate and monobasic phosphate), sulfate, and sulfite.
</P>
<P>(3) Polyglycerol esters of fatty acids, identified in § 172.854 of this chapter, may be used as antifoaming agents in amounts not greater than that required to produce the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(4) Color additive mixtures for food use made with caramel may contain only diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Caramel shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 0.1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Caramel may be safely used for coloring foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.90" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.90   β-Apo-8′-carotenal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive is β-apo-8′-carotenal.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with β-apo-8′-carotenal may contain only diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> β-Apo-8′-carotenal shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Physical state, solid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1 percent solution in chloroform, clear.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melting point (decomposition), 136 °C.-140 °C. (corrected).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loss of weight on drying, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Residue on ignition, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assay (spectrophotometric), 96-101 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive β-apo-8′-carotenal may be safely used for coloring foods generally, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of β-apo-8′-carotenal does not exceed 15 milligrams per pound of solid or semisolid food or 15 milligrams per pint of liquid food.
</P>
<P>(2) It may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.95" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.95   β-Carotene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive is β-carotene prepared synthetically or obtained from natural sources.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with β-carotene may contain only diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> β-carotene shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Physical state, solid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1 percent solution in chloroform, clear.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loss of weight on drying, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Residue on ignition, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assay (spectrophotometric), 96-101 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive β-carotene may be safely used for coloring foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color those foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.100   Cochineal extract; carmine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive cochineal extract is the concentrated solution obtained after removing the alcohol from an aqueous-alcoholic extract of cochineal (<I>Dactylopius coccus costa</I> (<I>Coccus cacti</I> L.)). The coloring principle is chiefly carminic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive carmine is the aluminum or calcium-aluminum lake on an aluminum hydroxide substrate of the coloring principles, chiefly carminic acid, obtained by an aqueous extraction of cochineal (<I>Dactylopius coccus costa</I> (<I>Coccus cacti</I> L.)).
</P>
<P>(3) Color additive mixtures for food use made with cochineal extract or carmine may contain only diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Cochineal extract shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>pH, not less than 5.0 and not more than 5.5 at 25 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Protein (N × 6.25), not more than 2.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total solids, not less than 5.7 and not more than 6.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl alcohol, not more than 150 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carminic acid, not less than 1.8 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Carmine shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C. for 3 hours), not more than 20.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ash, not more than 12.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carminic acid, not less than 50.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Carmine and cochineal extract shall be pasteurized or otherwise treated to destroy all viable Salmonella microorganisms. Pasteurization or such other treatment is deemed to permit the adding of safe and suitable substances (other than chemical preservatives) that are essential to the method of pasteurization or other treatment used. For the purposes of this paragraph, safe and suitable substances are those substances that perform a useful function in the pasteurization or other treatment to render the carmine and cochineal extract free of viable Salmonella microorganisms, which substances are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the act or, if they are food additives as so defined, are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Carmine and cochineal extract may be safely used for coloring foods generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that they may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The label of the color additives and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of food products intended for human use, including butter, cheese, and ice cream, that contain cochineal extract or carmine shall specifically declare the presence of the color additive by listing its respective common or usual name, “cochineal extract” or “carmine,” in the statement of ingredients in accordance with § 101.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of these color additives is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 74 FR 216, Jan. 5, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.125   Sodium copper chlorophyllin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive sodium copper chlorophyllin is a green to black powder prepared from chlorophyll by saponification and replacement of magnesium by copper. Chlorophyll is extracted from alfalfa (<I>Medicago sativa</I>) using any one or a combination of the solvents acetone, ethanol, and hexane.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with sodium copper chlorophyllin may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Sodium copper chlorophyllin shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Moisture, not more than 5.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Solvent residues (acetone, ethanol, and hexane), not more than 50 parts per million, singly or, in combination.
</P>
<P>(3) Total copper, not less than 4 percent and not more than 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Free copper, not more than 200 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(5) Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(6) Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(7) Mercury (as Hg), not more than 0.5 part per million.
</P>
<P>(8) Ratio of absorbance at 405 nanometers (nm) to absorbance at 630 nm, not less than 3.4 and not more than 3.9.
</P>
<P>(9) Total copper chlorophyllins, not less than 95 percent of the sample dried at 100 °C for 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Sodium copper chlorophyllin may be safely used to color citrus-based dry beverage mixes in an amount not exceeding 0.2 percent in the dry mix.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 35431, May 20, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.140" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.140   Toasted partially defatted cooked cottonseed flour.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive toasted partially defatted cooked cottonseed flour is a product prepared as follows: Food quality cottonseed is delinted and decorticated; the meats are screened, aspirated, and rolled; moisture is adjusted, the meats heated, and the oil expressed; the cooked meats are cooled, ground, and reheated to obtain a product varying in shade from light to dark brown.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with toasted partially defatted cooked cottonseed flour may contain only diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Toasted partially defatted cooked cottonseed flour shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Arsenic: It contains no added arsenic compound and therefore may not exceed a maximum natural background level of 0.2 part per million total arsenic, calculated as As.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Free gossypol content, not more than 450 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive toasted partially defatted cooked cottonseed flour may be safely used for coloring foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.160" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.160   Ferrous gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive ferrous gluconate is the ferrous gluconate defined in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 122-123, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ferrous gluconate shall meet the specifications given in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ferrous gluconate may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice for the coloring of ripe olives.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 946, Jan. 8, 1982; 49 FR 10089, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.165" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.165   Ferrous lactate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive ferrous lactate is the ferrous lactate defined in § 184.1311 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ferrous lactate shall meet the specifications given in the Food Chemicals Codex, 4th ed. (1996), pp. 154 to 155, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ferrous lactate may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice for the coloring of ripe olives.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40319, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 81 FR 5590, Feb. 3, 2016]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.167" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.167   Galdieria extract blue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive galdieria extract blue is a liquid or powder prepared by the filtered aqueous extraction of the dried biomass of a non-pathogenic and non-toxigenic strain of <I>Galdieria sulphuraria.</I> The biomass is prepared by heterotrophic fermentation of <I>G. sulphuraria.</I> The color additive contains C-phycocyanin as the principal coloring component.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with galdieria extract blue may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Galdieria extract blue must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead, not more than 0.5 milligram/kilogram (mg/kg) (0.5 parts per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(2) Arsenic, not more than 0.5 mg/kg (0.5 ppm).
</P>
<P>(3) Mercury, not more than 0.05 mg/kg (0.05 ppm).
</P>
<P>(4) Cadmium, not more than 0.5 mg/kg (0.5 ppm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Galdieria extract blue may be safely used for coloring non-alcoholic beverages and beverage bases, fruit drinks, fruit smoothies, fruit juices, vegetable juices, dairy-based smoothies, milk shakes and flavored milks, yogurt drinks, milk-based meal replacement and nutritional beverages, breakfast cereal coatings, hard candy, soft candy and chewing gum, flavored frostings, ice cream and frozen dairy desserts, frozen fruits, water ices and popsicles, gelatin desserts, puddings and custards, whipped cream, yogurt, frozen or liquid creamers (including non-dairy alternatives), and whipped toppings (including non-dairy alternatives), at levels consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the use of the added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 20108, May 12, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.168" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.168   Gardenia (genipin) blue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive gardenia (genipin) blue is prepared by reacting genipin extracted from the fruit of <I>Gardenia jasminoides</I> Ellis with soy protein hydrolysate. The color additive contains a genipin-peptide polymer as the principal coloring component.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with gardenia (genipin) blue may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Gardenia (genipin) blue must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Genipin, not more than 5 milligram per kilogram (mg/kg) (5 part per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(2) Geniposide, not more than 80 mg/kg (80 ppm).
</P>
<P>(3) Methanol, not more than 300 mg/kg (300 ppm)
</P>
<P>(4) Lead, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Arsenic, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 ppm).
</P>
<P>(6) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(7) Cadmium, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Gardenia (genipin) blue may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice for coloring sport drinks, flavored or enhanced noncarbonated water, fruit drinks and ades, ready-to-drink teas, hard candy, and soft candy, except that it may not be used for coloring foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter. The label of the powdered form of the additive must also declare any additional ingredients used in its manufacture.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches of the color additive are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 31590, July 15, 2025, as amended at 90 FR 37793, Aug. 6, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.169" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.169   Grape color extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive grape color extract is an aqueous solution of anthocyanin grape pigments made from Concord grapes or a dehydrated water soluble powder prepared from the aqueous solution. The aqueous solution is prepared by extracting the pigments from precipitated lees produced during the storage of Concord grape juice. It contains the common components of grape juice, namely anthocyanins, tartrates, malates, sugars, and minerals, etc., but not in the same proportion as found in grape juice. The dehydrated water soluble powder is prepared by spray drying the aqueous solution containing added malto-dextrin.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with grape color extract may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Grape color extract shall conform to the following specifications: Pesticide residues, not more than permitted in or on grapes by regulations promulgated under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million. Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Grape color extract may be safely used for the coloring of nonbeverage food, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 47532, Sept. 29, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.170" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.170   Grape skin extract (enocianina).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive grape skin extract (enocianina) is a purplish-red liquid prepared by the aqueous extraction (steeping) of the fresh deseeded marc remaining after grapes have been pressed to produce grape juice or wine. It contains the common components of grape juice; namely, anthocyanins, tartaric acid, tannins, sugars, minerals, etc., but not in the same proportions as found in grape juice. During the steeping process, sulphur dioxide is added and most of the extracted sugars are fermented to alcohol. The extract is concentrated by vacuum evaporation, during which practically all of the alcohol is removed. A small amount of sulphur dioxide may be present.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with grape skin extract (enocianina) may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Grape skin extract (enocianina) shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Pesticide residues, not more than permitted in or on grapes by regulations promulgated under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Grape skin extract (enocianina) may be safely used for the coloring of still and carbonated drinks and ades, beverage bases, and alcoholic beverages subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) It may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless artificial color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Its use in alcoholic beverages shall be in accordance with the provisions of parts 4 and 5, title 27 CFR.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter. The common or usual name of the color additive is “grape skin extract” followed, if desired, by “(enocianina)”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.185" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.185   Haematococcus algae meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive haematococcus algae meal consists of the comminuted and dried cells of the alga <I>Haematococcus pluvialis.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Haematococcus algae meal may be added to the fish feed only as a component of a stabilized color additive mixture. Color additive mixtures for fish feed use made with haematococcus algae meal may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Haematococcus algae meal shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Physical state, solid. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 5 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic, not more than 2 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury, not more than 1 part per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heavy metals (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Astaxanthin, not less than 1.5 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Haematococcus algae meal may be safely used in the feed of salmonid fish in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the pink to orange-red color of the flesh of salmonid fish.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of astaxanthin in finished feed, from haematococcus algae meal when used alone or in combination with other astaxanthin color additive sources listed in this part 73, shall not exceed 80 milligrams per kilogram (72 grams per ton) of finished feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The labeling of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear expiration dates for the sealed and open container (established through generally accepted stability testing methods), other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The presence of the color additive in finished fish feed prepared according to paragraph (c) of this section shall be declared in accordance with § 501.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the color additive in salmonid fish that have been fed feeds containing haematococcus algae meal shall be declared in accordance with §§ 101.22(b), (c), and (k)(2), and 101.100(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 41584, July 6, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.200" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.200   Synthetic iron oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive synthetic iron oxide consists of any one or any combination of synthetically prepared iron oxides, including the hydrated forms. It is free from admixture with other substances.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with synthetic iron oxide may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Synthetic iron oxide for human food use shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (3 parts per million (ppm)).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 5 mg/kg (5 ppm).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Synthetic iron oxide for dog and cat food use shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 5 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) Synthetic iron oxide may be safely used for human food use subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(i) In sausage casings intended for human consumption in an amount not exceeding 0.10 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(ii) In soft and hard candy, mints, and chewing gum at levels consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the use of the added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(iii) In dietary supplement tablets and capsules, including coatings and printing inks, such that the total amount of elemental iron per day for labeled dosages does not exceed 5 milligrams.
</P>
<P>(2) Synthetic iron oxide may be safely used for the coloring of dog and cat foods in an amount not exceeding 0.25 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 10578, Mar. 7, 1994;  80 FR 14842, Mar. 20, 2015; 83 FR 54872, Nov. 1, 2018]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.225" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.225   Jagua (genipin-glycine) blue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive jagua (genipin-glycine) blue is a dark blue powder or liquid prepared from the juice of the unripe fruit of <I>Genipa americana</I> by reacting the genipin in the juice with glycine using mild heat. The color additive contains a polymer as the principal coloring component and three dimers as minor coloring components.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with jagua (genipin-glycine) blue may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Jagua (genipin-glycine) blue must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Arsenic, not more than 1 milligram/kilogram (mg/kg) (1 part per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(2) Cadmium, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(3) Lead, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(4) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Genipin, not more than 20 mg/kg (20 ppm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Jagua (genipin-glycine) blue may be safely used for coloring flavored milk; dairy drinks and substitutes; dairy and dairy alternative yogurt; ice cream, frozen dairy and dairy alternative desserts, puddings, gelatins, ices, sorbets; ready-to-eat multicolored cereals; flavored potato chips, tortilla, corn, and other chips; candy and chewing gum; non-alcoholic fruit based/flavored drinks, nutritional beverages and smoothies; flavored cream cheese-based spreads; and icings, frostings, jams, syrups, and fruit toppings and fillings at levels consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used for coloring foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 75494, Nov. 3, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.250" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.250   Fruit juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive fruit juice is prepared either by expressing the juice from mature varieties of fresh, edible fruits, or by the water infusion of the dried fruit. The color additive may be concentrated or dried. The definition of fruit juice in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only and shall not be construed as a standard of identity under section 401 of the act. However, where a standard of identity for a particular fruit juice has been promulgated under section 401 of the act, it shall conform to such standard.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with fruit juice may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Fruit juice may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 60 FR 52629, Oct. 10, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.260" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.260   Vegetable juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive vegetable juice is prepared either by expressing the juice from mature varieties of fresh, edible vegetables, or by the water infusion of the dried vegetable. The color additive may be concentrated or dried. The definition of vegetable juice in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only, and shall not be construed as a standard of identity under section 401 of the act. However, where a standard of identity for a particular vegetable juice has been promulgated under section 401 of the act, it shall conform to such standard.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with vegetable juice may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Vegetable juice may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 60 FR 52629, Oct. 10, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.275" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.275   Dried algae meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive dried algae meal is a dried mixture of algae cells (genus <I>Spongiococcum,</I> separated from its culture broth), molasses, cornsteep liquor, and a maximum of 0.3 percent ethoxyquin. The algae cells are produced by suitable fermentation, under controlled conditions, from a pure culture of the genus <I>Spongiococcum.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive dried algae meal may be safely used in chicken feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the yellow color of chicken skin and eggs.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of the color additive incorporated in the feed is such that the finished feed:
</P>
<P>(i) Is supplemented sufficiently with xanthophyll and associated carotenoids so as to accomplish the intended effect described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets the tolerance limitation for ethoxyquin in animal feed prescribed in § 573.380 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additives and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear in addition to the information required by § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the concentrations of xanthophyll and ethoxyquin contained therein.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions to provide a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.295" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.295   Tagetes (Aztec marigold) meal and extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive tagetes (Aztec marigold) meal is the dried, ground flower petals of the Aztec marigold (<I>Tagetes erecta</I> L.) mixed with not more than 0.3 percent ethoxyquin.
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive tagetes (Aztec marigold) extract is a hexane extract of the flower petals of the Aztec marigold (<I>Tagetes erecta</I> L.). It is mixed with an edible vegetable oil, or with an edible vegetable oil and a hydrogenated edible vegetable oil, and not more than 0.3 percent ethoxyquin. It may also be mixed with soy flour or corn meal as a carrier.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Tagetes (Aztec marigold) meal is free from admixture with other plant material from <I>Tageteserecta</I> L. or from plant material or flowers of any other species of plants.
</P>
<P>(2) Tagetes (Aztec marigold) extract shall be prepared from tagetes (Aztec marigold) petals meeting the specifications set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and shall conform to the following additional specifications:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melting point</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">53.5-55.0 °C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">132-145.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saponification value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">175-200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60-1.20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35.5-37.0 °C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsaponifiable matter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">23.0 percent-27.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexane residue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 25 p.p.m.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>All determinations, except the hexane residue, shall be made on the initial extract of the flower petals (after drying in a vacuum oven at 60 °C. for 24 hours) prior to the addition of the oils and ethoxyquin. The hexane determination shall be made on the color additive after the addition of the vegetable oils, hydrogenated vegetable oils, and ethoxyquin.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additives tagetes (Aztec marigold) meal and extract may be safely used in chicken feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additives are used to enhance the yellow color of chicken skin and eggs.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of the color additives incorporated in the feed is such that the finished feed:
</P>
<P>(i) Is supplemented sufficiently with xanthophyll and associated carotenoids so as to accomplish the intended effect described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets the tolerance limitation for ethoxyquin in animal feed prescribed in § 573.380 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additives and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the information required by § 70.25 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the concentrations of xanthophyll and ethoxyquin contained therein.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions to provide a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.297" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.297   Myoglobin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive myoglobin is a stabilized product of controlled fermentation of a non-pathogenic and non-toxicogenic strain of the yeast, <I>Komagataella phaffii,</I> genetically engineered to express the myoglobin protein from <I>Bos taurus.</I> Myoglobin protein is the principal coloring component of the color additive and imparts a red color.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with myoglobin may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Myoglobin must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Myoglobin protein purity on protein basis (weight/weight), not less than 85 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead, not more than 0.01 milligrams per kilogram (0.01 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Myoglobin may be safely used in ground meat and ground poultry analogue products (<I>i.e.,</I> plant-based ground meat- and poultry-like food products subject to FDA regulation) where the amount of myoglobin protein does not exceed 2 percent by weight of the uncooked analogue product.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore, batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5594, Jan. 17, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.300" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.300   Carrot oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive carrot oil is the liquid or the solid portion of the mixture or the mixture itself obtained by the hexane extraction of edible carrots (<I>Daucus carota</I> L.) with subsequent removal of the hexane by vacuum distillation. The resultant mixture of solid and liquid extractives consists chiefly of oils, fats, waxes, and carrotenoids naturally occurring in carrots. The definition of carrot oil in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only and shall not be construed as setting forth an official standard for carrot oil or carrot oleoresin under section 401 of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with carrot oil may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Carrot oil shall contain no more than 25 parts per million of hexane.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Carrot oil may be safely used for coloring foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.315" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.315   Corn endosperm oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive corn endosperm oil is a reddish-brown liquid composed chiefly of glycerides, fatty acids, sitosterols, and carotenoid pigments obtained by isopropyl alcohol and hexane extraction from the gluten fraction of yellow corn grain. The definition of corn endosperm oil in this paragraph is for the purpose of definition as a color additive only and shall not be construed as a food standard of identity under section 401 of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with corn endosperm oil may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Corn endosperm oil conforms to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Total fatty acids, not less than 85 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine value, 118 to 134.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification value, 165 to 185.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unsaponifiable matter, not more than 14 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexane, not more than 25 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl alcohol, not more than 100 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive corn endosperm oil may be safely used in chicken feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the yellow color of chicken skin and eggs.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of the color additive incorporated in the feed is such that the finished feed is supplemented sufficiently with xanthophyll and associated carotenoids so as to accomplish the intended effect described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, a statement of the concentration of xanthophyll contained therein.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.340" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.340   Paprika.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive paprika is the ground dried pod of mild capsicum (<I>Capsicum annuum</I> L.). The definition of paprika in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only and shall not be construed as setting forth an official standard for paprika under section 401 of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with paprika may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Paprika may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.345" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.345   Paprika oleoresin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive paprika oleoresin is the combination of flavor and color principles obtained from paprika (<I>Capsicum annuum</I> L.) by extraction, using any one or a combination of the following solvents:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Acetone</LI>
<LI>Ethyl alcohol</LI>
<LI>Ethylene dichloride</LI>
<LI>Hexane</LI>
<LI>Isopropyl alcohol</LI>
<LI>Methyl alcohol</LI>
<LI>Methylene chloride</LI>
<LI>Trichloroethylene</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<FP>The definition of paprika oleoresin in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only, and shall not be construed as setting forth an official standard for paprika oleoresin under section 401 of the act.
</FP>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with paprika oleoresin may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Paprika oleoresin shall contain no more residue of the solvents listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section than is permitted of the corresponding solvents in spice oleoresins under applicable food additive regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Paprika oleoresin may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.350" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.350   Mica-based pearlescent pigments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive is formed by depositing titanium salts onto mica, followed by heating to produce titanium dioxide on mica. Mica used to manufacture the color additive shall conform in identity to the requirements of § 73.1496(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with mica-based pearlescent pigments may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring food.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Mica-based pearlescent pigments shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead (as Pb), not more than 4 parts per million (ppm).
</P>
<P>(2) Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as a color additive in food as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In amounts up to 1.25 percent, by weight, in the following foods: Cereals, confections and frostings, gelatin desserts, hard and soft candies (including lozenges), nutritional supplement tablets and gelatin capsules, and chewing gum.
</P>
<P>(ii) In amounts up to 0.07 percent, by weight, in the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Distilled spirits containing not less than 18 percent and not more than 25 percent alcohol by volume.
</P>
<P>(B) Cordials, liqueurs, flavored alcoholic malt beverages, wine coolers, and cocktails.
</P>
<P>(C) Non-alcoholic cocktail mixes and mixers, such as margarita mix, Bloody Mary mix, and daiquiri mix, but excluding eggnog, tonic water, and beverages that are typically consumed without added alcohol (<I>e.g.,</I> fruit juices, fruit juice drinks, and soft drinks).
</P>
<P>(iii) In egg decorating kits used for coloring the shells of eggs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the act, unless the use of the added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 31929, June 2, 2006, as amended at 78 FR 35117, June 12, 2013; 80 FR 32307, June 8, 2015; 80 FR 58602, Sept. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.352" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.352   Paracoccus pigment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive paracoccus pigment consists of the heat-killed, dried cells of a nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic strain of the bacterium <I>Paracoccus carotinifaciens</I> and may contain added calcium carbonate to adjust the astaxanthin level.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for fish feed use made with paracoccus pigment may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Paracoccus pigment shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Physical state, solid.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead, not more than 5 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (5 parts per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(3) Arsenic, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 ppm).
</P>
<P>(4) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Heavy metals (as Pb), not more than 10 mg/kg (10 ppm).
</P>
<P>(6) Astaxanthin, not less than 1.75 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Paracoccus pigment may be safely used in the feed of salmonid fish in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the pink to orange-red color of the flesh of salmonid fish.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of astaxanthin in finished feed, from paracoccus pigment when used alone or in combination with other astaxanthin color additive sources listed in this part 73, shall not exceed 80 mg/kg (72 grams per ton) of finished feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The labeling of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear expiration dates for the sealed and open container (established through generally accepted stability testing methods), other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The presence of the color additive in finished fish feed prepared according to paragraph (c) of this section shall be declared in accordance with § 501.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the color additive in salmonid fish that have been fed feeds containing paracoccus pigment shall be declared in accordance with §§ 101.22(b), (c), and (k)(2), and 101.100(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore, batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 58845, Nov. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.355" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.355   Phaffia yeast.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive phaffia yeast consists of the killed, dried cells of a nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic strain of the yeast <I>Phaffia rhodozyma.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Phaffia yeast may be added to the fish feed only as a component of a stabilized color additive mixture. Color additive mixtures for fish feed use made with phaffia yeast may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Phaffia yeast shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Physical state, solid. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 5 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic, not more than 2 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury, not more than 1 part per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heavy metals (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Astaxanthin, not less than 0.4 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Phaffia yeast may be safely used in the feed of salmonid fish in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive is used to enhance the pink to orange-red color of the flesh of salmonid fish.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of astaxanthin in finished feed, from phaffia yeast when used alone or in combination with other astaxanthin color additive sources listed in this part 73, shall not exceed 80 milligrams per kilogram (72 grams per ton) of finished feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The labeling of the color additive and any premixes prepared therefrom shall bear expiration dates for the sealed and open container (established through generally accepted stability testing methods), other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The presence of the color additive in finished fish feed prepared according to paragraph (c) of this section shall be declared in accordance with § 501.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the color additive in salmonid fish that have been fed feeds containing phaffia yeast shall be declared in accordance with §§ 101.22(b), (c), and (k)(2) and 101.100(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 41587, July 6, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.450" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.450   Riboflavin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive riboflavin is the riboflavin defined in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 262-263, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with riboflavin may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Riboflavin shall meet the specifications given in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Riboflavin may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice; except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 947, Jan. 8, 1982; 49 FR 10089, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.500" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.500   Saffron.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive saffron is the dried stigma of Crocus sativus L. The definition of saffron in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only, and shall not be construed as setting forth an official standard for saffron under section 401 of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with saffron may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Saffron may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.520" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.520   Soy leghemoglobin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive soy leghemoglobin is a stabilized product of controlled fermentation of a non-pathogenic and non-toxicogenic strain of the yeast, <I>Pichia pastoris,</I> genetically engineered to express soy leghemoglobin protein. Soy leghemoglobin protein is the principal coloring component of the color additive and imparts a reddish-brown color.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with soy leghemoglobin may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Soy leghemoglobin shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Soy leghemoglobin protein purity on protein basis (weight/weight), not less than 65 percent, as determined by sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead, not more than 0.4 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (0.4 parts per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(3) Arsenic, not more than 0.05 mg/kg (0.05 ppm).
</P>
<P>(4) Mercury, not more than 0.05 mg/kg (0.05 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Cadmium, not more than 0.2 mg/kg (0.2 ppm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Soy leghemoglobin may be safely used in ground beef analogue products such that the amount of soy leghemoglobin protein does not exceed 0.8 percent by weight of the uncooked ground beef analogue product.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 37576, Aug. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.530" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.530   Spirulina extract.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260206" REFID="22">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 5295, Feb. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260324" REFID="44b">This amendment was delayed indefinitely at 91 FR 13951, Mar. 24, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive spirulina extract is prepared by the filtered aqueous extraction of the dried biomass of <I>Arthrospira platensis.</I> The color additive contains phycocyanins as the principal coloring components.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with spirulina extract may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Spirulina extract must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead, not more than 2 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (2 part per million (ppm));
</P>
<P>(2) Arsenic, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 ppm);
</P>
<P>(3) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm); and
</P>
<P>(4) Negative for microcystin toxin.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Spirulina extract may be safely used for coloring confections (including candy and chewing gum), frostings, ice cream and frozen desserts (including non-dairy frozen dessert), dessert coatings and toppings, beverage mixes and powders, yogurts (including non-dairy yogurt alternatives), custards, puddings (including non-dairy puddings), cottage cheese, gelatin, breadcrumbs, ready-to-eat cereals (excluding extruded cereals), alcoholic beverages with less than 20 percent alcohol-by-volume content, non-alcoholic beverages, seasoning mixes (unheated), salad dressings, condiments and sauces, dips, coating formulations applied to dietary supplement tablets and capsules, at levels consistent with good manufacturing practice, and to seasonally color the shells of hard-boiled eggs, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the use of the added color is authorized by such standards.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes must conform to § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 49120, Aug. 13, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20098, May 13, 2014; 80 FR 50765, Aug. 21, 2015; 82 FR 30734, July 3, 2017; 87 FR 67789, Nov. 10, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.575" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.575   Titanium dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive titanium dioxide is synthetically prepared TiO<E T="52">2</E>, free from admixture with other substances.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with titanium dioxide may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring foods, and the following: Silicon dioxide, SiO<E T="52">2</E> and/or aluminum oxide, Al<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">3</E>, as dispersing aids—not more than 2 percent total.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Titanium dioxide shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Antimony (as Sb), not more than 2 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loss on ignition at 800 °C. (after drying for 3 hours at 105 °C.), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water soluble substances, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid soluble substances, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TiO<E T="52">2</E>, not less than 99.0 percent after drying for 3 hours at 105 °C.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Lead, arsenic, and antimony shall be determined in the solution obtained by boiling 10 grams of the titanium dioxide for 15 minutes in 50 milliliters of 0.5<I>N</I> hydrochloric acid.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive titanium dioxide may be safely used for coloring foods generally, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of titanium dioxide does not exceed 1 percent by weight of the food.
</P>
<P>(2) It may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.585" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.585   Tomato lycopene extract; tomato lycopene concentrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive tomato lycopene extract is a red to dark brown viscous oleoresin extracted with ethyl acetate from tomato pulp followed by removal of the solvent by evaporation. The pulp is produced from fresh, edible varieties of the tomato by removing the liquid. The main coloring component is lycopene.
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive tomato lycopene concentrate is a powder prepared from tomato lycopene extract by removing most of the tomato lipids with ethyl acetate and then evaporating off the solvent.
</P>
<P>(3) Color additive mixtures made with tomato lycopene extract or tomato lycopene concentrate may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring food.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Tomato lycopene extract shall conform to the following specification: Lycopene, not less than 5.5 percent of oleoresin as determined by the method entitled “Qualitative Analysis of Lycopene, Its Isomers and Other Carotenoids in Different Concentrations of Lyc-O-Mato ® (Tomato Oleoresin) and in Tomato Pulp by High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC),” S.O.P. number : Lab/119/01, Revision 01, dated May 30, 2001, published by LycoRed Natural Products Industries, which is incorporated by reference, or an equivalent method. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy of the method from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. You may inspect a copy at theFood and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Tomato lycopene concentrate shall conform to the following specification: Lycopene, not less than 60 percent of oleoresin as determined by the method identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Tomato lycopene extract and tomato lycopene concentrate may be safely used for coloring foods generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that they may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been issued under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 43045, July 26, 2005, as amended at 81 FR 5590, Feb. 3, 2016; 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.600" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.600   Turmeric.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive turmeric is the ground rhizome of Curcuma longa L. The definition of turmeric in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only, and shall not be construed as setting forth an official standard for turmeric under section 401 of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with turmeric may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Turmeric may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.615" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.1.98.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.615   Turmeric oleoresin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive turmeric oleoresin is the combination of flavor and color principles obtained from turmeric (Curcuma longa L.) by extraction using any one or a combination of the following solvents:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Acetone</LI>
<LI>Ethyl alcohol</LI>
<LI>Ethylene dichloride</LI>
<LI>Hexane</LI>
<LI>Isopropyl alcohol</LI>
<LI>Methyl alcohol</LI>
<LI>Methylene chloride</LI>
<LI>Trichloroethylene</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<FP>The definition of turmeric oleoresin in this paragraph is for the purpose of identity as a color additive only, and shall not be construed as setting forth an official standard for turmeric oleoresin under section 401 of the act.
</FP>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with turmeric oleoresin may contain as diluents only those substances listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Turmeric oleoresin shall contain no more residue of the solvents listed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section than is permitted for the corresponding solvents in spice oleoresins under applicable food additive regulation in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Turmeric oleoresin may be safely used for the coloring of foods generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act, unless the use of added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1001" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1001   Diluents in color additive mixtures for drug use exempt from certification.</HEAD>
<P>The following diluents may be safely used in color additive mixtures that are exempt from certification and which are to be used for coloring drugs, subject to the condition that each straight color in the mixture has been exempted from certification or, if not so exempted, is from a batch that has previously been certified and has not changed in composition since certification. Such listing of diluents is not to be construed as superseding any of the other requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to drugs, including new drugs. If a definition and specification for a particular diluent is not set forth in this subpart, the material shall be of a purity consistent with its intended use.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ingested drugs</I>—(1) <I>General use.</I> Diluents listed in § 73.1(a) and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definitions and specifications
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alcohol, specially denatured</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in 26 CFR, pt. 212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in 26 CFR, pt. 211.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cetyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in N.F. XI
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In color coatings for pharmaceutical forms, no residue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monostearate (Polysorbate 60)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.836 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan tristearate (Polysorbate 65)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.838 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.840 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl-pyrrolidone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 173.55 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monostearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in sec. 172.842 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan trioleate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Special use; inks for branding pharmaceutical forms.</I> Items listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, § 73.1(b)(1)(i), and the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ethyl lactate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaurate (20)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Externally applied drugs.</I> Diluents listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definitions and specifications
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in N.F. XI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl cellulose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in § 172.868 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxyethyl cellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxypropyl cellulose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As set forth in § 172.870 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1010" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1010   Alumina (dried aluminum hydroxide).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive alumina (dried aluminum hydroxide) is a white, odorless, tasteless, amorphous powder consisting essentially of aluminum hydroxide (Al<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">3</E>· XH<E T="52">2</E> O).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with alumina (dried aluminum hydroxide) may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Alumina (dried aluminum hydroxide) shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acidity or alkalinity: Agitate 1 gram of the color additive with 25 milliliters of water and filter. The filtrate shall be neutral to litmus paper.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in dilute hydrochloric acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum oxide (Al<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">3</E>), not less than 50 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Alumina (dried aluminum hydroxide) may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color drugs generally.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1015" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1015   Chromium-cobalt-aluminum oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive chromium-cobalt-aluminum oxide is a blue-green pigment obtained by calcining a mixture of chromium oxide, cobalt carbonate, and aluminum oxide. It may contain small amounts (less than 1 percent each) of oxides of barium, boron, silicon, and nickel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Chromium-cobalt-aluminum oxide shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Chromium, calculated as Cr<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">3</E>, 34-37 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cobalt, calculated as CoO, 29-34 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum, calculated as AL<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">3</E>, 29-35 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 30 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total oxides of aluminum, chromium, and cobalt not less than 97 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Lead and arsenic shall be determined in the solution obtained by boiling 10 grams of the chromium-cobalt-aluminum oxide for 15 minutes in 50 milliliters of 0.5 <I>N</I> hydrochloric acid.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive chromium-cobalt-aluminum oxide may be safely used for coloring linear polyethylene surgical sutures, United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.), for use in general surgery, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) For coloring procedure, the color additive is blended with the polyethylene resin. The mixture is heated to a temperature of 500-550 °F. and extruded through a fixed orifice. The filaments are cooled, oriented by drawing, and set by annealing.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of the color additive does not exceed 2 percent by weight of the suture material.
</P>
<P>(3) The dyed suture shall conform in all respects to the requirements of the U.S.P. XX (1980).
</P>
<P>(4) When the sutures are used for the purpose specified in their labeling, there is no migration of the color additive to the surrounding tissue.
</P>
<P>(5) If the suture is a new drug, an approved new drug application, pursuant to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, is in effect for it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10089, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1025" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1025   Ferric ammonium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive ferric ammonium citrate consists of complex chelates prepared by the interaction of ferric hydroxide with citric acid in the presence of ammonia. The complex chelates occur in brown and green forms, are deliquescent in air, and are reducible by light.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ferric ammonium citrate shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Iron (as Fe), not less than 14.5 percent and not more than 18.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 p/m.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 p/m.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ferric ammonium citrate may be safely used in combination with pyrogallol (as listed in § 73.1375), for coloring plain and chromic catgut sutures for use in general and ophthalmic surgery subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The dyed suture shall conform in all respects to the requirements of the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980).
</P>
<P>(2) The level of the ferric ammonium citrate-pyrogallol complex shall not exceed 3 percent of the total weight of the suture material.
</P>
<P>(3) When the sutures are used for the purposes specified in their labeling, there is no migration of the color additive to the surrounding tissue.
</P>
<P>(4) If the suture is a new drug, an approved new drug application, pursuant to section 505 of the act, is in effect for it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The labeling of the color-additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10089, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1030" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1030   Annatto extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive annatto extract shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.30(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with annatto extract may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring ingested drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Annatto extract may be safely used for coloring drugs generally, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter. Labels shall bear information showing that the color is derived from annatto seed. The requirements of § 70.25(a) of this chapter that all ingredients shall be listed by name shall not be construed as requiring the declaration of residues of solvents listed in § 73.30(a)(1)(ii) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are evempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 36994, July 19, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1070" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1070   Calcium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive calcium carbonate is a fine, white, synthetically prepared powder consisting essentially of precipitated calcium carbonate (CaCO<E T="52">3</E>).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with calcium carbonate may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Calcium carbonate shall meet the specifications for precipitated calcium carbonate in the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Calcium carbonate may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manudacturing practice to color drugs generally.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10089, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1075" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1075   Canthaxanthin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive canthaxanthin shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.75(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for ingested drug use made with canthaxanthin may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring ingested drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Canthaxanthin may be safely used for coloring ingested drugs generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1085" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1085   Caramel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive caramel shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.85(a) (1), (2), and (3) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) The diluents in color additive mixtures for drug use containing caramel shall be limited to those listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Caramel may be used for coloring ingested and topically applied drugs generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirement of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1095" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1095   β-Carotene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive β-carotene shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.95(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) The diluents in color additive mixtures for drug use containing β-carotene are limited to those listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring ingested drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive β-carotene may be safely used in coloring drugs generally, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The labeling of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 33722, July 1, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1100   Cochineal extract; carmine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additives cochineal extract and carmine shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.100(a) (1) and (2) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with carmine and cochineal extract may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Cochineal extract and carmine may be safely used for coloring ingested and externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additives and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of these color additives is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1125   Potassium sodium copper chloropyhllin (chlorophyllin-copper complex).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive potassium sodium copper chlorophyllin is a green to black powder obtained from chlorophyll by replacing the methyl and phytyl ester groups with alkali and replacing the magnesium with copper. The source of the chlorophyll is dehydrated alfalfa.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with potassium sodium copper chlorophyllin may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Potassium sodium copper chlorophyllin shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Moisture, not more than 5.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrogen, not more than 5.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>pH of 1 percent solution, 9 to 11.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total copper, not less than 4 percent and not more than 6 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Free copper, not more than 0.25 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb)), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 5 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ratio, absorbance at 405 mμ to absorbance at 630 mμ, not less than 3.4 and not more than 3.9.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 75 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Potassium sodium copper chlorophyllin may be safely used for coloring dentifrices that are drugs at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent. Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of section 505 of the act with respect to the drug in which it is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1150" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1150   Dihydroxyacetone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive dihydroxyacetone is 1,3-dihydroxy-2-propanone.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with dihydroxyacetone may contain only those diluents that are listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Dihydroxyacetone shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 34.6 °C. for 3 hours at a pressure of not more than 30 mm. mercury), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Residue on ignition, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron (as Fe), not more than 25 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-dihydroxy-2-propanone, not less than 98 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Dihydroxyacetone may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice in externally applied drugs intended solely or in part to impart a color to the human body. Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of section 505 of the act with respect to the drug in which it is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1162" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1162   Bismuth oxychloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive bismuth oxychloride is a synthetically prepared white or nearly white amorphous or finely crystalline, odorless powder consisting principally of BiOCl.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with bismuth oxychloride may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive bismuth oxychloride shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth oxychloride, not less than 98 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive bismuth oxychloride may be safely used in coloring externally applied drugs, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52394, Sept. 30, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1200" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1200   Synthetic iron oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive synthetic iron oxide consists of any one or any combination of synthetically prepared iron oxides, including the hydrated forms. It is free from admixture with other substances.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with synthetic iron oxide may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Synthetic iron oxide shall conform to the following specifications, all on an “as is” basis:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive synthetic iron oxide may be safely used to color ingested or topically applied drugs generally subject to the restriction that if the color additive is used in drugs ingested by man the amount consumed in accordance with labeled or prescribed dosages shall not exceed 5 milligrams, calculated as elemental iron, per day.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1298" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1298   Ferric ammonium ferrocyanide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive ferric ammonium ferrocyanide is the blue pigment obtained by oxidizing under acidic conditions with sodium dichromate the acid digested precipitate resulting from mixing solutions of ferrous sulfate and sodium ferrocyanide in the presence of ammonium sulfate. The oxidized product is filtered, washed, and dried. The pigment consists principally of ferric ammonium ferrocyanide with smaller amounts of ferric ferrocyanide and ferric sodium ferrocyanide.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with ferric ammonium ferrocyanide may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ferric ammonium ferrocyanide shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free of impurities other than those named to the extent that the other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Oxalic acid or its salts, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water soluble matter, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water soluble cyanide, not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Volatile matter, not more than 4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nickel (as Ni), not more than 200 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cobalt (as Co), not more than 200 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total iron (as Fe corrected for volatile matter), not less than 33 percent and not more than 39 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ferric ammonium ferrocyanide may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color externally applied drugs, including those for use in the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therfore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 38562, July 29, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 28322, May 15, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1299" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1299   Ferric ferrocyanide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive ferric ferrocyanide is a ferric hexacyanoferrate pigment characterized by the structual formula Fe<E T="52">4</E>[Fe(CN)<E T="52">6</E>]<E T="52">3</E>·XH<E T="52">2</E>O, which may contain small amounts of ferric sodium ferrocyanide and ferric potassium ferrocyanide.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with ferric ferrocyanide may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ferric ferrocyanide shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Water soluble cyanide, not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nickel (as Ni), not more than 200 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cobalt (as Co), not more than 200 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxalic acid, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water soluble matter, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Volatile matter, not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total iron (as Fe corrected for volatile matter), not less than 37 percent and not more than 45 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ferric ferrocyanide may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color externally applied drugs including those intended for use in the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 54235, Nov. 21, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1326" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1326   Chromium hydroxide green.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive chromium hydroxide green is principally hydrated chromic sesquioxide (Cr<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>·XH<E T="52">2</E>O).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with chromium hydroxide green may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Chromium hydroxide green shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Water soluble matter, not more than 2.5%.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chromium in 2% NaOH extract, not more than 0.1% as Cr<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E> (based on sample weight).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boron (as B<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>), not more than 8 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total volatile matter at 1000 °C, not more than 20%.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cr<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E> not less than 75%.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Chromium hydroxide green may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color externally applied drugs, including those for use in the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom lintended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 36451, July 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 59852, Nov. 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1327" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1327   Chromium oxide greens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive chromium oxide greens is principally chromic sesquioxide (Cr<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with chromium oxide greens may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> the color additive chormium oxide greens shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Chromium in 2% NaOH extract, not more than 0.075% as Cr<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E> (based on sample weight).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cr<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>, not less than 95%.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Chromium oxide greens is safe for use in coloring externally applied drugs, including those intended for use in the area of eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches therof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 36451, July 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1329" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1329   Guanine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive guanine is the crystalline material obtained from fish scales and consists principally of the two purines, guanine and hypoxanthine. The guanine content will vary from 75 to 97 percent, and the hypoxanthine will vary from 3 to 25 percent, depending on the particular fish and tissue from which the crystals are derived.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with guanine may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive guanine shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Guanine, not less than 75 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hypoxanthine, not more than 25 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ash (ignition at 800 °C), not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assay, not less than 96 percent total purines.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Guanine is safe for use in coloring externally applied drugs, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches therof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37537, July 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1350" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1350   Mica-based pearlescent pigments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive is formed by depositing titanium and/or iron salts onto mica, followed by heating to produce one of the following combinations: Titanium dioxide on mica; iron oxide on mica; titanium dioxide and iron oxide on mica. Mica used to manufacture the color additive shall conform in identity to the requirements of § 73.1496(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with mica-based pearlescent pigments may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring ingested drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Mica-based pearlescent pigments shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead (as Pb), not more than 4 parts per million (ppm).
</P>
<P>(2) Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Mica-based pearlescent pigments may be safely used to color ingested drugs in amounts up to 3 percent, by weight, of the final drug product. The maximum amount of iron oxide to be used in producing said pigments is not to exceed 55 percent, by weight, in the finished pigment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 42273, July 22, 2005. Redesignated at 72 FR 10357, Mar. 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1375" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1375   Pyrogallol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive pyrogallol is 1,2,3-trihydroxybenzene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Pyrogallol shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Melting point, between 130° and 133 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Residue on ignition, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 p/m (parts per million).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 p/m.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Pyrogallol may be safely used in combination with ferric ammonium citrate (as listed in § 73.1025), for coloring plain and chromic catgut sutures for use in general and ophthalmic surgery, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The dyed suture shall conform in all respects to the requirements of the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980).
</P>
<P>(2) The level of the ferric ammonium citrate-pyrogallol complex shall not exceed 3 percent of the total weight of the suture material.
</P>
<P>(3) When the sutures are used for the purposes specified in their labeling, there is no migration of the color additive to the surrounding tissues.
</P>
<P>(4) If the suture is a new drug, an approved new drug application, pursuant to section 505 of the act, is in effect for it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10089, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1400" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1400   Pyrophyllite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive pyrophyllite is a naturally occurring mineral substance consisting predominantly of a hydrous aluminum silicate, Al<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>·4SiO<E T="52">2</E>·H<E T="52">2</E> O, intimately mixed with lesser amounts of finely divided silica, SiO<E T="52">2</E>. Small amounts, usually less than 3 percent, of other silicates, such as potassium aluminum silicate, may be present. Pyrophyllite may be identified and semiquantitatively determined by its characteristic X-ray powder diffraction pattern and by its optical properties.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with pyrophyllite are limited to those listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Pyrophyllite shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Lead and arsenic shall be determined in the solution obtained by boiling 10 grams of the pyrophyllite for 15 minutes in 50 milliliters of 0.5<I>N</I> hydrochloric acid.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Pyrophyllite may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color drugs that are to be externally applied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The labeling of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1410" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1410   Logwood extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive logwood extract is a reddish brown-to-black solid material extracted from the heartwood of the leguminous tree <I>Haematoxylon campechianum.</I> The active colorant substance is principally hematein. The latent coloring material is the unoxidized or leuco form of hematein called hematoxylin. The leuco form is oxidized by air.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Logwood extract shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such imnurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 110 °C), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfated ash, not more than 20 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hematein, not less than 5 percent and not more than 20 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 70 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 4 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Use and restrictions.</I> Logwood extract may be safely used to color nylon 66 (the copolymer of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid), nylon 6 (the polymer of <I>e</I>-caprolactam), or silk non-absorable sutures for use in general and ophthalmic surgery subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of color additive does not exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the suture.
</P>
<P>(2) When the sutures are used for the purposes specified in their labeling, there is no migration of the color additive to the surrounding tissue.
</P>
<P>(3) If the suture is a new drug, an approved new drug application, pursuant to section 505 of the act, is in effect for it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52393, Sept. 30, 1977; 43 FR 1490, Jan. 10, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1496" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1496   Mica.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive mica is a white powder obtained from the naturally occurring mineral, muscovite mica, consisting predominantly of a potassium aluminum silicate, K<E T="52">2</E>Al<E T="52">4</E>(Al<E T="52">2</E>Si<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">20</E>)(OH)<E T="52">4</E> or, alternatively, H<E T="52">2</E>KAl<E T="52">3</E> (SiO<E T="52">4</E>)<E T="52">3</E>. Mica may be identified and semiquantitatively determined by its characteristic X-ray diffraction pattern and by its optical properties.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with mica may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Mica shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Fineness, 100 percent shall pass through a 100-mesh sieve.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loss on ignition at 600-650 °C, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Mica may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color dentifrices and externally applied drugs, including those for use in the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches therof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 38561, July 29, 1977, as amended at 52 FR 29665, Aug. 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1530" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1530   Spirulina extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive spirulina extract is prepared by the filtered aqueous extraction of the dried biomass of <I>Arthrospira platensis.</I> The color additive contains phycocyanins as the principal coloring components.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with spirulina extract may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in this subpart as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring ingested drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Spirulina extract must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead, not more than 2 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (2 parts per million (ppm));
</P>
<P>(2) Arsenic, not more than 2 mg/kg (2 ppm);
</P>
<P>(3) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm); and
</P>
<P>(4) Negative for microcystin toxin.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Spirulina extract may be safely used for coloring coating formulations applied to drug tablets and capsules, at levels consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 50765, Aug. 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1550" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1550   Talc.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive talc is a finely powdered, native, hydrous magnesium silicate sometimes containing a small proportion of aluminum silicate.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with talc may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Talc shall meet the specifications for talc in the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980) and the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Lead and arsenic shall be determined in the solution obtained by boiling 10 grams of the talc for 15 minutes in 50 milliliters of 0.5<I>N</I> hydrochloric acid.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Talc may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice to color drugs generally.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and of any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15643, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10089, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1575" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1575   Titanium dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive titanium dioxide shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.575(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with titanium dioxide may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in this subpart as safe in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs, and the following: Silicon dioxide, SiO<E T="52">2</E>, and/or aluminum oxide, Al<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>, as dispersing aids—not more than 2 percent total.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive titanium dioxide may be used for coloring ingested and externally applied drugs generally, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice. External application includes use in the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of the chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1645" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1645   Aluminum powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive aluminum powder shall be composed of finely divided particles of aluminum prepared from virgin aluminum. It is free from admixture with other substances.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for external drug use made with aluminum powder may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Aluminum powder shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Fineness, 100 percent shall pass through a 200-mesh screen and 95 percent shall pass through a 325-mesh screen.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury, not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic, not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum, not less than 99 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Aluminum powder is safe for use in externally applied drugs, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches therof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 38563, July 29, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1646" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1646   Bronze powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive bronze powder is a very fine metallic powder prepared from alloys consisting principally of virgin electrolytic copper and zinc with small amounts of the virgin metals aluminum and tin. It contains small amounts of stearic or oleic acid as lubricants.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with bronze powder may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Bronze powder shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Stearic or oleic acid, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium (as Cd), not more than 15 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum (as Al), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tin (as Sn), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper (as Cu), not more than 95 percent and not less than 70 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc (as Zn), not more than 30 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum particle size 45µ (95 percent minimum).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Aluminum, zinc, tin, and copper content shall be based on the weight of the dried powder after being thoroughly washed with ether.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Bronze powder may be safely used in color externally applied drugs, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of the color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 33723, July 1, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1647" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1647   Copper powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive copper powder is a very fine free-flowing metallic powder prepared from virgin electrolytic copper. It contains small amounts of stearic or oleic acid as lubricants.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with copper powder may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Copper powder shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Stearic or oleic acid, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium (as Cd), not more than 15 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper (as Cu), not less than 95 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum particle size 45µ (95 percent minimum).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Copper powder may be safely used in coloring externally applied drugs, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of the color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 33723, July 1, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1991" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.2.98.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1991   Zinc oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive zinc oxide is a white or yellow-white amorphous powder manufactured by the French process (described as the indirect process whereby zinc metal isolated from the zinc-containing ore is vaporized and then oxidized). It is principally composed of Zn.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with zinc oxide may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Zinc oxide shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Zinc oxide (as ZnO), not less than 99 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loss on ignition at 800 °C, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium (as Cd), not more than 15 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive zinc oxide may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs, including those used in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtues prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches therof are exempt from the certifiation pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37537, July 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Cosmetics</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2030" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2030   Annatto.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specification.</I> The color additive annatto shall conform in identify and specification to the requirements for annatto extract in § 73.30(a) (1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use and restriction.</I> The color additive annatto may be safely used in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 36994, July 19, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2085" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2085   Caramel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive caramel shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.85(a)(1), (2), and (3) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Caramel is safe for use in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics applied to the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirement of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 38501, July 28, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2087" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2087   Carmine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive carmine shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.100 (a)(2) and (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use and restrictions.</I> Carmine may be safely used in cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> (1) The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Cosmetics containing carmine that are not subject to the requirements of § 701.3 of this chapter shall specifically declare the presence of carmine prominently and conspicuously at least once in the labeling. For example: “Contains carmine as a color additive.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 32228, June 24, 1977, as amended at 74 FR 216, Jan. 5, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2095" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2095   β-Carotene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive β-carotene shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.95(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive β-carotene may be safely used in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches therof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 33722, July 1, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2110" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2110   Bismuth citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive bismuth citrate is the synthetically prepared crystalline salt of bismuth and citric acid, consisting principally of BiC<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>O<E T="52">7</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive bismuth citrate shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that those impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bismuth citrate, not less than 97 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Volatile matter, not more than 1 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive bismuth citrate may be safely used in cosmetics intended for coloring hair on the scalp, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of bismuth citrate in the cosmetic shall not be in excess of 2.0 percent (w/v).
</P>
<P>(2) The cosmetic may not be used for coloring eyelashes, eyebrows, or hair on parts of the body other than the scalp.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> (1) The label of the color additive bismuth citrate shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of a cosmetic containing the color additive bismuth citrate shall bear, in addition to other information required by law, the following statement, conspicuously displayed thereon:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Keep this product out of children's reach. Do not use on cut or abraded scalp. Do not use to color eyelashes, eyebrows, or hair on parts of the body other than the scalp. Wash hands thoroughly after each use.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive for the prescribed use is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and, therefore, batches thereof are exempt from certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 44831, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 75 FR 14493, Mar. 26, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2120   Disodium EDTA-copper.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive disodium EDTA-copper is disodium [[<I>N,N′-</I> 1,2- ethanediylbis[<I>N</I> - (carboxymethyl) glycinato]] (4-)-<I>N,N′,O,O′,O</I>
<SU>N</SU>,<I>O</I>
<SU>N</SU>′] cuprate (2-).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Disodium EDTA-copper shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Total copper, not less than 13.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total (ethylene-dinitrilo) tetracetic acid, not less than 62.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Free copper, not more than 100 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Free disodium salt of (ethylene-dinitrilo) tetraacetic acid, not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Moisture, not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Disodium EDTA-copper may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practices in the coloring of shampoos which are cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The labeling of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2125   Potassium sodium copper chlorophyllin (chlorophyllin-copper complex).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive potassium sodium copper chlorophyllin shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1125(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Potassium sodium copper chlorophyllin may be safely used for coloring dentifrices that are cosmetics subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) It shall not be used at a level in excess of 0.1 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) It may be used only in combination with the following substances:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Water.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium carboxymethylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrasodium pyrophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium phosphate, tribasic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium phosphate, dibasic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium <I>N</I>-lauroyl sarcosinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Artificial sweeteners that are generally recognized as safe or that are authorized under subchapter B of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Flavors that are generally recognized as safe or that are authorized under subchapter B of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Preservatives that are generally recognized as safe or that are authorized under subchapter B of this chapter.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2150" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2150   Dihydroxyacetone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive dihydroxyacetone shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1150 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Dihydroxyacetone may be safely used in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice in externally applied cosmetics intended solely or in part to impart a color to the human body.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The labeling of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2162" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2162   Bismuth oxychloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive bismuth oxychloride shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1162(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures of bismuth oxychloride may contain the following diluents:
</P>
<P>(i) For coloring cosmetics generally, only those diluents listed under § 73.1001(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) For coloring externally applied cosmetics, only those diluents listed in § 73.1001(b) and, in addition, nitrocellulose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive bismuth oxychloride may be safely used in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52394, Sept. 30, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2180" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2180   Guaiazulene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive, guaiazulene, is principally 1,4-dimethyl-7-isopropyl-azulene.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures of guaiazulene for cosmetic use may contain the following diluent:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Polyethylene glycol-40 castor oil (PEG-40 castor oil).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification No., 60 to 70.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl No., 63 to 78.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid No., 2.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Specific gravity, 1.05 to 1.07.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Guaiazulene shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Melting point, 30.5 °C to 31.5 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 99 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Guaiazulene may be safely used in externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive for the prescribed use is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2190" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2190   Henna.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive henna is the dried leaf and petiole of <I>Lawsonia alba</I> Lam. (<I>Lawsonia inermis</I> L.). It may be identified by its characteristic odor and by characteristic plant histology.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Henna shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>It shall not contain more than 10 percent of plant material from <I>Lawsonia alba</I> Lam. (<I>Lawsonia inermis</I> L.) other than the leaf and petiole, and shall be free from admixture with material from any other species of plant.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Moisture, not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total ash, not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid-insoluble ash, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive henna may be safely used for coloring hair only. It may not be used for coloring the eyelashes or eyebrows, or generally in the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label for henna shall bear the information required by § 70.25 of this chapter and the following statements or their equivalent:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>“Do not use in the area of the eye.”
</FP>
<FP>“Do not use on cut or abraded scalp.”</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive for the prescribed use is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2250" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2250   Iron oxides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additives iron oxides consist of any one or any combination of synthetically prepared iron oxides, including the hydrated forms. It is free from admixture with other substances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Iron oxides shall conform to the following specifications, all on an “as is” basis:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 3 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Iron oxides are safe for use in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics applied to the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2298" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2298   Ferric ammonium ferrocyanide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive ferric ammonium ferrocyanide shall conform in identify and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1298 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ferric ammonium ferrocyanide is safe for use in coloring externally applied cosmetics, including cosmetics applied to the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 38562, July 29, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 6939, Feb. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2299" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2299   Ferric ferrocyanide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive ferric ferrocyanide shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1299(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ferric ferrocyanide is safe for use in coloring externally applied cosmetics, including cosmetics applied to the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification under section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 54236, Nov. 21, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2326" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2326   Chromium hydroxide green.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive chromium hydroxide green shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1326 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Chromium hydroxide green is safe for use in coloring externally applied cosmetics, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 36452, July 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2327" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2327   Chromium oxide greens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive chromium oxide greens shall conform in identify and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1327 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive chromium oxide greens may be safely used in externally applied cosmetics, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 36452, July 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2329" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2329   Guanine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive guanine shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1329 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures of guanine may contain the following diluents:
</P>
<P>(i) For coloring cosmetics generally, only those diluents listed under § 73.1001(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) For coloring externally applied cosmetics, only those diluents listed in § 73.1001(b) and, in addition, nitrocellulose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use and restrictions.</I> The color additive guanine may be safely used in cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37537, July 22, 1977]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2400" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2400   Pyrophyllite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive pyrophyllite shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1400 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Pyrophyllite may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The labeling of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to all applicable requirements of law, including the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2496" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2496   Mica.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive mica shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1496(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Mica is safe for use in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics applied to the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 38561, July 29, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2500" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2500   Silver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive, silver, is a crystalline powder of high purity silver prepared by the reaction of silver nitrate with ferrous sulfate in the presence of nitric, phosphoric and sulfuric acids. Polyvinyl alcohol is used to prevent the agglomeration of crystals and the formation of amorphous silver.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures of silver may contain only those diluents listed in § 73.1001(b) and, in addition, nitrocellulose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Silver shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 5 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silver (as Ag), not less than 99.9 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive silver may be safely used for coloring fingernail polish at a level not to exceed 1 percent of the final product.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any other information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 65974, Nov. 16, 1979]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2550" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2550   Silver nitrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive silver nitrate is a purified inorganic compound obtained as the recrystallized precipitate from the concentrated reaction mixture of silver and excess nitric acid at elevated temperatures, followed by drying the decanted, filtered, and washed crystals. The color additive has the chemical formula AgNO<E T="52">3.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Silver nitrate shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Arsenic, not more than 3 milligrams/kilogram (mg/kg) (3 parts per million (ppm)).
</P>
<P>(2) Cadmium, not more than 5 mg/kg (5 ppm).
</P>
<P>(3) Lead, not more than 10 mg/kg (10 ppm).
</P>
<P>(4) Mercury, not more than 1 mg/kg (1 ppm).
</P>
<P>(5) Volatile matter, calculated as water, not more than 0.1 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Total color, not less than 99.9 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive silver nitrate may be safely used in externally applied professional-use only cosmetics intended to impart color to the eyebrows and eyelashes subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of silver nitrate in the cosmetic product shall not be more than 4 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(2) The viscosity of the cosmetic formulation shall be not less than 120 Pascal-seconds (Pa⋅s) and not more than 180 Pa⋅s at normal temperature and pressure.
</P>
<P>(3) The cosmetic containing silver nitrate is not intended for use on persons under the age of 16.
</P>
<P>(4) Application of the cosmetic containing silver nitrate is not intended to exceed 1 minute and is intended to be followed by immediate removal.
</P>
<P>(5) The cosmetic containing silver nitrate is applied by a professional.
</P>
<P>(6) The cosmetic containing silver nitrate is not distributed or directly sold to consumers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The label of the color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter and include adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of any cosmetic containing the color additive silver nitrate, in addition to other information required by law, shall contain the following statements: Contains silver nitrate. Silver nitrate may permanently stain skin with which it comes into contact. Silver nitrate may irritate the eyes. For application by professionals only for dyeing eyebrows and eyelashes, in accordance with the directions for use. Not for use on persons under the age of 16. Apply to eyebrows and eyelashes for no more than 1 minute, followed by immediate removal. Rinse eyes immediately if product comes into contact with them. Consult a physician if any irritation persists. Not for distribution or direct sale to consumers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification require]ments of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 55498, Oct. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2575" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2575   Titanium dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive titanium dioxide shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements on § 73.575 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive titanium dioxide may be safely used in cosmetics, including cosmetics intended for use in the ara of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any other information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2645" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2645   Aluminum powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive aluminum powder shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1645 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Aluminum powder may be safely used in coloring externally applied cosmetics, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with the provisions of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 38563, July 29, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2646" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2646   Bronze powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive bronze powder shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1646 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Bronze powder may be safely used in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of the color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 33724, July 1, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2647" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2647   Copper powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive copper powder shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1647 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Copper powder may be safely used in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of the color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 33724, July 1, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2725" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2725   Ultramarines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additives, ultramarines (blue, green, pink, red, and violet) are pigments obtained by calcining at temperatures above 700 °C. a mixture of kaolin, sulfur, sodium carbonate, silicious matter, sodium sulfate, and carbonaceous matter, but not necessarily all these substances, to produce a single color. The ultramarines are complex sodium aluminum sulfosilicates having a typical formula Na(AlSiO)S with proportions of each element varying with each color.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The ultramarines shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The ultramarine pigments may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The color additives and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any other information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2775" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2775   Manganese violet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive manganese violet is a violet pigment obtained by reacting phosphoric acid, ammonium dihydrogen orthophosphate, and manganese dioxide at temperatures above 450 °F. The pigment is a manganese ammonium pyrophosphate complex having the approximate formula: Mn(III)NH<E T="52">4</E>P<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">7</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Manganese violet shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ash (at 600 °C), not less than 81 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Volatile matter at 135 °C for 3 hours, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water soluble substances, not more than 6 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>pH of filtrate of 10 grams color additive (shaken occasionally for 2 hours with 100 milliliters of freshly boiled distilled water), not more than 4.7 and not less than 2.5.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, based on Mn content in “as is” sample, not less than 93 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Manganese violet is safe for use in coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics applied to the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2991" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2991   Zinc oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive zinc oxide shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1991 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Zinc oxide may be safely used in cosmetics, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The color additive and any mixture prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall bear, in addition to any information required by law, labeling in accordance with § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification pursuant to section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37538, July 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2995" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.3.98.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2995   Luminescent zinc sulfide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive luminescent zinc sulfide is zinc sulfide containing a copper activator. Following excitation by daylight or a suitable artificial light, luminescent zinc sulfide produces a yellow-green phosphorescence with a maximum at 530 nanometers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Luminescent zinc sulfide shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfide, not less than 99.8 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper, 100<E T="52">±</E>5 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 20 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic, not more than 3 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury, not more than 1 part per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium, not more than 15 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive luminescent zinc sulfide may be safely used for coloring externally applied facial makeup preparations and nail polish included under § 720.4(c)(7)(ix) and (c)(8)(v) of this chapter, respectively, to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of luminescent zinc sulfide in facial makeup preparations shall not exceed 10 percent by weight of the final product.
</P>
<P>(2) Facial makeup preparations containing luminescent zinc sulfide are intended for use only on limited, infrequent occasions, e.g., Halloween, and not for regular or daily use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom shall bear expiration dates for the sealed and open container (established through generally accepted stability testing methods), other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter, and adequate directions to prepare a final product complying with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of a facial makeup preparation containing the color additive shall bear, in addition to other information required by the law, the following statement conspicuously displayed:
</P>
<P>Do not use in the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 48377, Aug. 8, 2000; 65 FR 75158, Dec. 1, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Medical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3100" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3100   1,4-Bis[(2-hydroxyethyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione bis(2-methyl-2-propenoic)ester copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additives are the copolymers formed as the reaction product of 1,4-bis[(2-hydroxyethyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione bis(2-methyl-2-propenoic)ester (C.I. Reactive Blue 247) (CAS Reg. No. 109561-07-1) with one or more vinyl and/or acrylic monomers to form the contact lens material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substances listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with these uses shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to the contact lens made from the color additives.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additives shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of these color additives is not necessary for the protection of the public health and therefore the color additives are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 51586, Oct. 3, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 19415, Apr. 1, 2013]]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3105   1,4-Bis[(2-methylphenyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is 1,4-bis[(2-methylphenyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione (CAS Reg. No. 6737-68-4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act). A person intending to introduce a device containing 1,4-bis[(2-methylphenyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione listed under this section into commerce shall submit to the Food and Drug Administration either a premarket notification in accordance with subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, if the device is not subject to premarket approval, or submit and receive approval of an original or supplemental premarket approval application if the device is subject to premarket approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 30066, July 26, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3106" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3106   1,4-Bis[4-(2-methacryloxyethyl)phenylamino]anthraquinone copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additives are the copolymers formed as the reaction product of 1,4-bis[4-(2-methacryloxyethyl)phenylamino]anthraquinone (C.I. Reactive Blue 246) (CAS Reg. No. 121888-69-5) with one or more vinyl and/or acrylic monomers to form the contact lens material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substances listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with these uses shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to contact lenses made from the color additives.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additives shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of these color additives is not necessary for the protection of the public health and, therefore, the color additives are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 17507, Apr. 5, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 10497, Feb. 27, 1995; 78 FR 19415, Apr. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3107" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3107   Carbazole violet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is carbazole violet (Pigment Violet 23) (CAS Reg. No. 6358-30-1, Colour Index No. 51319).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 41324, Oct. 21, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3110" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3110   Chlorophyllin-copper complex, oil soluble.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additve is chlorophyllin-copper complex, oil soluble. The chlorophyllin is obtained by extraction from a mixture of fescue and rye grasses. The chlorophyll is acid-treated to remove chelated magnesium which is replaced with hydrogen, which is turn is replaced with copper. This mixture is diluted to a 5 percent concentration with a mixture of palm oil, peanut oil, and hydrogenated peanut oil.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive chlorophyllin-copper complex, oil soluble (5 percent in palm oil, peanut oil, and hydrogenated peanut oil), shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Moisture, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrogen, not less than 0.2 percent and not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total copper, not less than 0.2 percent and not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Free copper, not more than 200 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic, not more than 5 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfated ash, not more than 2.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 4.5 percent and not more than 5.5 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The color additive chlorophyllin-copper complex, oil soluble (5 percent in palm oil, peanut oil, and hydrogenated peanut oil), may be safely used to color polymethylmethacrylate bone cement. Chlorophyllin-copper complex may be used at levels that do not exceed 0.003 percent by weight of the bone cement.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the polymethylmethacrylate bone cement in which chlorophyllin-copper complex, oil soluble, is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 56370, Dec. 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3110a" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3110a   Chromium-cobalt-aluminum oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive chromium-cobalt-aluminum oxide (Pigment Blue 36) (CAS Reg. No. 68187-11-1, Colour Index No. 77343) shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1015 (a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 41325, Oct. 21, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3111" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3111   Chromium oxide greens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive chromium oxide greens (chromic oxide) (CAS Reg. No. 1308-38-9), Color Index No. 77288, shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1327 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lenses in which the additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24816, July 9, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3112" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3112   C.I. Vat Orange 1.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is C.I. Vat Orange 1, Colour Index No. 59105.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used. A person intending to introduce a device containing C.I. Vat Orange 1 into commerce shall submit to the Food and Drug Administration either a premarket notification in accordance with subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, if the device is not subject to premarket approval, or submit and receive approval of an original or supplemental premarket approval application if the device is subject to premarket approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 20407, May 16, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3115" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3115   2-[[2,5-Diethoxy-4-[(4-methylphenyl)thiol]phenyl]azo]-1,3,5-benzenetriol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive2-[[2,5-diethoxy-4-[(4-methylphenyl)thio]phenyl]azo]-1,3,5-benzenetriol is formed in situ in soft (hydrophilic) contact lenses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive 2-[[2,5-diethoxy-4-[(4-methylphenyl)thio]phenyl]azo]-1,3,5-benzenetriol may be safely used to mark soft (hydrophilic) contact lenses with the letter R or the letter L for identification purposes subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of the color additive does not exceed 1.1 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> grams in a soft (hydrophilic) contact lens.
</P>
<P>(2) When used as specified in the labeling, there is no measurable migration of the color additive from the contact lens to the surrounding ocular tissue.
</P>
<P>(3) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of section 510(k) and 515 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 22706, May 20, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3117" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3117   16,23-Dihydrodinaphtho[2,3-a:2′,3′-i] naphth [2′,3′:6,7] indolo [2,3-c] carbazole-5,10,15,17,22,24-hexone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is 16,23-dihydrodinaphtho [2,3- <I>a:</I>2′,3′-<I>i</I>] napth [2′,3′:6,7] indolo [2, 3-<I>c</I>] carbazole-5,10, 15,17,22,24-hexone (CAS Reg. No. 2475-33-4), Colour Index No. 70800.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 31375, July 8, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3118" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3118   N,N′-(9,10-Dihydro-9,10-dioxo-1,5-anthracenediyl) bisbenzamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is <I>N</I>,<I>N</I>′-(9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-1,5-anthracenediyl) bisbenzamide (CAS Reg. No. 82-18-8), Colour Index No. 61725.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 31375, July 8, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3119" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3119   7,16-Dichloro-6,15-dihydro-5,9,14,18-anthrazinetetrone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is 7,16-dichloro-6,15-dihydro-5,9,14,18-anthrazinetetrone (CAS Reg. No. 130-20-1), Colour Index No. 69825.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 31376, July 8, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3120" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3120   16,17-Dimethoxydinaphtho [1,2,3-cd:3′,2′,1′-lm] perylene-5,10-dione.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is 16,17-dimethoydinaphtho[1,2,3,-<I>cd:</I>3′,2′,1′-<I>lm</I>]perylene-5,10-dione (CAS Reg. No. 128-58-5), Colour Index No. 59825.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 31376, July 8, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3121" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3121   Poly(hydroxyethyl methacrylate)-dye copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additives are formed by reacting one or more of the reactive dyes listed in this paragraph with poly(hydroxyethyl methacrylate), so that the sulfate group (or groups) or chlorine substituent of the dye is replaced by an ether linkage to poly(hydroxyethyl methacrylate). The dyes that may be used alone or in combination are
</P>
<P>(1) Reactive Black 5 [2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 4-amino-5-hydroxy-3,6-bis((4-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)azo)-tetrasodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 17095-24-8);
</P>
<P>(2) Reactive Blue 21 [copper, (29<I>H</I>,31<I>H</I>-phthalocyaninato(2-)-<I>N</I>
<SU>29</SU>,<I>N</I>
<SU>30</SU>,<I>N</I>
<SU>31</SU>,<I>N</I>
<SU>32</SU>)-, sulfo((4-((2-sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)amino) sulfonyl derivs] (CAS Reg. No. 73049-92-0);
</P>
<P>(3) Reactive Orange 78 [2-naphthalenesulfonic acid, 7-(acetylamino)-4-hydroxy-3-((4-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl) sulfonyl)phenyl)azo)-] CAS Reg. No. 68189-39-9);
</P>
<P>(4) Reactive Yellow 15 [benzensulfonic acid, 4-(4,5-dihydro-4-((2-methoxy-5-methyl-4-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl) sulfonyl)phenyl)azo)-3-methyl-5-oxo-1<I>H</I>-pyrazol-1-yl)-] (CAS Reg. No. 60958-41-0);
</P>
<P>(5) Reactive Blue No. 19 [2-anthracene-sulfonic acid, 1-amino-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-4-((3-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)amino)-, disodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 2580-78-1);
</P>
<P>(6) Reactive Blue No. 4 [2-anthracenesulfonic acid, 1-amino-4-(3-((4,6-dichloro-s-triazin-2-yl)amino)-4-sulfoanilino)-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo, disodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 4499-01-8);
</P>
<P>(7) C.I. Reactive Red 11 [5-((4,6-dichloro-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl)amino)-4-hydroxy-3-((1-sulfo-2-naphthalenyl)azo)-2, 7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid, trisodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 12226-08-3);
</P>
<P>(8) C.I. Reactive Yellow 86 [1,3-benzenedisulfonic acid, 4-((5-aminocarbonyl-1-ethyl-1,6-dihydro-2-hydroxy-4-methyl-6-oxo-3-pyridinyl)azo)-6-(4,6-dichloro-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl)amino)-, disodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 61951-86-8);
</P>
<P>(9) C.I. Reactive Blue 163 [triphenodioxazinedisulfonic acid, 6,13-dichloro-3, 10-bis((4-((4.6-dichloro-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl)amino) sulfophenyl)amino)-, tetrasodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 72847-56-4); and
</P>
<P>(10) C.I. Reactive Red 180 [5-(benzoylamino)-4-hydroxy-3-((1-sulfo-6-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)-2-naphthalenyl)azo)-2,7- naphthalenedisulfonic acid, tetrasodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 98114-32-0).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substances listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used to color contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the manufacturing process, the lenses containing the color additives are thoroughly washed to remove unbound reactive dyes.
</P>
<P>(3) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act). A person intending to introduce a device containing a poly(hydroxyethyl methacrylate)-dye copolymer listed under this section into commerce shall submit to the Food and Drug Administration either a premarket notification in accordance with subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, if the device is not subject to premarket approval, or submit and receive approval of an original or supplemental premarket approval application if the device is subject to premarket approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additives shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of these color additives is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore these color additives are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 373, Jan. 4, 1984; 49 FR 5094, Feb. 10, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 9425, Mar. 8, 1985; 50 FR 33338, Aug. 19, 1985; 50 FR 37845, Sept. 18, 1985; 50 FR 45993, Nov. 6, 1985; 58 FR 9541, Feb. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3122" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3122   4-[(2,4-dimethylphenyl)azo]-2,4-dihydro-5-methyl-2-phenyl-3H-pyrazol-3-one.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is 4-[(2,4-dimethylphenyl)azo]-2,4-dihydro-5-methyl-2-phenyl-3<I>H-</I> pyrazol-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 6407-78-9).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substances listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 11432, Apr. 3, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3123" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3123   6-Ethoxy-2-(6-ethoxy-3-oxobenzo[b]thien-2(3H)-ylidene) benzo[b]thiophen-3 (2H)-one.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is 6-ethoxy-2-(6-ethoxy-3-oxobenzo [<I>b</I>]thien-2(3<I>H</I>)-ylidene)benzo[<I>b</I>]thiophen-3(2<I>H</I>)-one (CAS Reg. No. 3263-31-8), Colour Index No. 73335.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 11436, Apr. 3, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3124" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3124   Phthalocyanine green.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is phthalocyanine green (CAS Reg. No. 1328-53-6), Colour Index No. 74260.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 11433, Apr. 3, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3125" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3125   Iron oxides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive iron oxides (CAS Reg. No. 1332-37-2), Color Index No. 77491, shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.2250 (a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24816, July 9, 1986, as amended at 69 FR 24511, May 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3126" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3126   Titanium dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive titanium dioxide (CAS Reg. No. 13463-67-7), Color Index No. 77891, shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.575(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses and intraocular lens orientation marks in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lenses in which the additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore the color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24816, July 9, 1986, as amended at 81 FR 75692, Nov. 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3127" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3127   Vinyl alcohol/methyl methacrylate-dye reaction products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additives are formed by reacting the dyes, either alone or in combination, with a vinyl alcohol/methyl methacrylate copolymer, so that the sulfate groups of the dyes are replaced by ether linkages to the vinyl alcohol/methyl methacrylate copolymer. The dyes are:
</P>
<P>(1) C.I. Reactive Red 180 [5-(benzoylamino)-4-hydroxy-3-((1-sulfo-6-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)-2-naphthalenyl)azo)-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid, tetrasodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 98114-32-0).
</P>
<P>(2) C.I. Reactive Black 5 [2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 4-amino-5-hydroxy-3,6-bis((4-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)azo)-, tetrasodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 17095-24-8).
</P>
<P>(3) C.I. Reactive Orange 78 [2-naphthalenesulfonic acid, 7-(acetylamino)-4-hydroxy-3-((4-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)azo)-] (CAS Reg. No. 68189-39-9).
</P>
<P>(4) C.I. Reactive Yellow 15 [benzenesulfonic acid, 4-(4,5-dihydro-4-((2-methoxy-5-methyl-4-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)azo)-3-methyl-5-oxo-1<I>H</I>-pyrazol-1-yl)-] (CAS Reg. No. 60958-41-0).
</P>
<P>(5) C.I. Reactive Blue No. 19 [2-anthracenesulfonic acid, 1-amino-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-4-((3-((2-(sulfooxy)ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)amino)-, disodium salt] (CAS Reg. No. 2580-78-1).
</P>
<P>(6) C.I. Reactive Blue 21 [copper, (29<I>H</I>,31<I>H</I>-phthalocyaninato(2-)-<I>N</I>
<SU>29</SU>, <I>N</I>
<SU>30</SU>, <I>N</I>
<SU>31</SU>, <I>N</I>
<SU>32</SU>)-, sulfo((4-((2-(sulfooxy) ethyl)sulfonyl)phenyl)amino)sulfonyl derivatives] (CAS Reg. No. 73049-92-0).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substances listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used to color contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the manufacturing process, the lenses containing the color additives are thoroughly washed to remove unbound reactive dye.
</P>
<P>(3) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act). A person intending to introduce a device containing a vinyl alcohol/methyl methacrylate-dye reaction product listed under this section into commerce shall submit to the Food and Drug Administration either a premarket notification in accordance with subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, if the device is not subject to premarket approval, or submit and receive approval of an original or supplemental premarket approval application if the device is subject to premarket approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore, this color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 3227, Jan. 8, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 17510, Apr. 5, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3128" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3128   Mica-based pearlescent pigments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive is formed by depositing titanium or iron salts from a basic solution onto mica, followed by calcination to produce titanium dioxide or iron oxides on mica. Mica used to manufacture the color additive shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 73.1496(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) Mica-based pearlescent pigments listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to the contact lenses in which the additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements in § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 65312, Oct. 24, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3129" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.26.4.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3129   Disodium 1-amino-4-[[4-[(2-bromo-1-oxoallyl)amino]-2-sulfonatophenyl]amino]-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxoanthracene-2-sulfonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is disodium 1-amino-4-[[4-[(2-bromo-1-oxoallyl)amino]-2-sulfonatophenyl]amino]-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxoanthracene-2-sulfonate (Reactive Blue 69) (CAS Reg. No. 70209-99-3, Colour Index No. 612037).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lenses in which the additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements in § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption from certification.</I> Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore batches thereof are exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 25235, May 4, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 14664, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="74" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 74—LISTING OF COLOR ADDITIVES SUBJECT TO CERTIFICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 342, 343, 348, 351, 352, 355, 361, 362, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Foods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.101   FD&amp;C Blue No. 1.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 is principally the disodium salt of ethyl [4-[<I>p</I>-[ethyl (<I>m</I>-sulfobenzyl) amino]-α-(<I>o</I>-sulfophenyl) benzylidene] - 2,5 -cyclohexadien - 1 - ylidene] (<I>m</I>-sulfobenzyl) ammonium hydroxide inner salt with smaller amounts of the isomeric disodium salts of ethyl [4-[<I>p</I>-[ethyl(<I>p</I>-sulfobenzyl) amino]-α-(<I>o</I>-sulfophenyl) benzylidene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene] (<I>p</I>-sulfobenzyl) ammonium hydroxide inner salt and ethyl [4-[<I>p</I>-[ethyl (<I>o</I>-sulfobenzyl) amino] - α - (<I>o</I> -sulfophenyl) benzylidene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene] (<I>o</I>-sulfobenzyl) ammonium hydroxide inner salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use (including dietary supplements) made with FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Leuco base, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of <I>o</I>-, <I>m</I>-, and <I>p</I>-sulfobenzaldehydes, not more than 1.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N</I>-Ethyl,<I>N</I>-(<I>m</I>-sulfobenzyl)sulfanilic acid, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 6.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chromium (as Cr), not more than 50 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Manganese (as Mn), not more than 100 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 may be safely used for coloring foods (including dietary supplements) generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 17511, Apr. 5, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.102   FD&amp;C Blue No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 is principally the disodium salt of 2-(1,3-dihydro-3-oxo-5-sulfo-2<I>H</I>-indol-2-ylidene)-2,3-dihydro-3-oxo-1<I>H</I>-indole-5-sulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 860-22-0) with smaller amounts of the disodium salt of 2-(1,3-dihydro-3-oxo-7-sulfo-2<I>H</I>-indol-2-ylidene)-2,3-dihydro-3-oxo-1<I>H</I>-indole-5-sulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 54947-75-0) and the sodium salt of 2-(1,3-dihydro-3-oxo-2<I>H</I>-indol-2-ylidene)-2,3-dihydro-3-oxo-1<I>H</I>-indole-5-sulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 605-18-5). Additionally, FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 is obtained by heating indigo (or indigo paste) in the presence of sulfuric acid. The color additive is isolated and subjected to purification procedures. The indigo (or indigo paste) used above is manufactured by the fusion of <I>N</I>-phenylglycine (prepared from aniline and formaldehyde) in a molten mixture of sodamide and sodium and potassium hydroxides under ammonia pressure. The indigo is isolated and subjected to purification procedures prior to sulfonation.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use (including dietary supplements) made with FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water insoluble matter, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isatin-5-sulfonic acid, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-Sulfoanthranilic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of 2-(1,3-dihydro-3-oxo-7-sulfo-2<I>H</I>-indol-2-ylidene)-2,3-dihydro-3-oxo-1<I>H</I>-indole-5-sulfonic acid, not more than 18 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salt of 2-(1,3-dihydro-3-oxo-2<I>H</I>-indol-2-ylidene)-2,3-dihydro-3-oxo-1<I>H</I>-indole-5-sulfonic acid, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 may be safely used for coloring foods (including dietary supplements) generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 5260, Feb. 4, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.203" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.203   FD&amp;C Green No. 3.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 is principally the inner salt disodium salt of <I>N</I>-ethyl-<I>N-</I>[4-[[4-[ethyl[(3-sulfophenyl)methyl]amino]phenyl](4-hydroxy-2-sulfophenyl)methylene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene]-3-sulfobenzenemethanaminium hydroxide (CAS Reg. No. 2353-45-9); with smaller amounts of the isomeric inner salt disodium salt of <I>N</I>-ethyl-<I>N-</I>[4-[[4-[ethyl[(3-sulfophenyl)methyl] amino]phenyl](4-hydroxy-2-sulfophenyl)methylene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene]-4-sulfobenzenemethanaminium hydroxide; of <I>N</I>-ethyl-<I>N-</I>[4-[[4-[ethyl[(4-sulfophenyl)methyl]amino]phenyl](4-hydroxy-2-sulfophenyl)methylene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene]-4-sulfobenzenemethanaminium hydroxide and of <I>N</I>-ethyl-<I>N-</I>[4-[[4-[ethyl[(2-sulfophenyl)methyl]amino]phenyl](4-hydroxy-2-sulfophenyl)methylene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene]-3-sulfobenzenemethanaminium hydroxide. Additionally, FD&amp;C Green No. 3 is manufactured by the acid catalyzed condensation of one molecule of 2-formyl-5-hydroxybenzenesulfonic acid with two molecules from a mixture consisting principally of 3-[(ethylphenylamino)methyl]
</P>
<FP>benzensulfonic acid, and smaller amounts of 4-[(ethylphenylamino)methyl]
</FP>
<FP>benzenesulfonic acid and 2-[(ethylphenylamino)methyl]
</FP>
<FP>benzenesulfonic acid to form the leuco base. The leuco base is then oxidized with lead dioxide and acid or with dichromate and acid to form the dye. The intermediate 2-formyl-5-hydroxybenzenesulfonic acid is prepared by the potassium permanganate oxidation of 2,2′-(1,2-ethenediyl)-bis(5-aminobenzenesulfonic acid) to sodium 5-amino-2-formylbenzenesulfonate. This amine is diazotized and the resulting diazonium salt is hydrolyzed to the desired 2-formyl-5-hydroxybenzenesulfonic acid.
</FP>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use (including dietary supplements) made with FD&amp;C Green No. 3 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring food.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Leuco base, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of 2-,3-,4-formylbenzenesulfonic acids, sodium salts, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of 3- and 4-[[ethyl(4-sulfophenyl)amino]methyl] benzenesulfonic acid, disodium salts, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Formyl-5-hydroxybenzenesulfonic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 6 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chromium (as Cr), not more than 50 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 may be safely used for coloring foods (including dietary supplements) generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Green No. 3 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 52143, Nov. 19, 1982; 47 FR 56489, Dec. 17, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.250" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.250   Orange B.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive Orange B is principally the disodium salt of 1-(4-sulfophenyl)-3-ethylcarboxy-4-(4-sulfonaphthylazo)-5-hydro-xypyrazole.
</P>
<P>(2) The diluents in color additive mixtures for food use containing Orange B are limited to those listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe and suitable in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Orange B shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C.), not more than 6.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorides and sulfates (calculated as the sodium salts), not more than 7.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(4-Sulfophenyl)-3-ethylcarboxy-5-hydroxypyrazolone and 1-(4-sulfophenyl)-3-carboxy-5-hydroxypyrazolone, not more than 0.7 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Naphthionic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylhydrazine-<I>p</I>-sulfonic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The trisodium salt of 1-(4-sulfophenyl)-3-carboxy-4-(4-sulfonaphthylazo)-5-hydroxypyrazole, not more than 6.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Other subsidiary dyes, not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 87.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Orange B may be safely used for coloring the casings or surfaces of frankfurters and sausages subject to the restriction that the quantity of the color additive does not exceed 150 parts per million by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of Orange B shall be certified in accordance with regulations promulgated under part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.302" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.302   Citrus Red No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive Citrus Red No. 2 is principally 1-(2,5-dimethoxyphenylazo)-2-naphthol.
</P>
<P>(2) The following diluents may be used in aqueous suspension, in the percentages specified, to facilitate application to oranges in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Suitable diluents used in accordance with § 73.1(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Volatile solvents that leave no residue after application to the orange.
</P>
<P>(iii) Salts of fatty acids meeting the requirements of § 172.863 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Sodium tripolyphosphate, not more than 0.05 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Citrus Red No. 2 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 100 °C.), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-soluble matter, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in carbon tetrachloride, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uncombined intermediates, not more than 0.05 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary dyes, not more than 2.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 98 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) Citrus Red No. 2 shall be used only for coloring the skins of oranges that are not intended or used for processing (or if so used are designated in the trade as <I>Packinghouse elimination</I>) and that meet minimum maturity standards established by or under the laws of the States in which the oranges are grown.
</P>
<P>(2) Oranges colored with Citrus Red No. 2 shall bear not more than 2.0 parts per million of such color additive, calculated on the basis of the weight of the whole fruit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter. To meet the requirements of § 70.25 (b) and (c) of this chapter the label shall bear:
</P>
<P>(1) The statement (or its equivalent) “To be used only for coloring skins of oranges.”
</P>
<P>(2) Directions for use to limit the amount of the color additive to not more than 2.0 parts per million, calculated on the basis of the weight of the whole fruit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of Citrus Red No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.303" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.303   FD&amp;C Red No. 3.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250116" REFID="27">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 4634, Jan. 16, 2025.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 3 is principally the monohydrate of 9 (<I>o-</I> carboxyphenyl)-6-hydroxy - 2,4,5,7-tetraiodo-3H-xanthen-3-one, disodium salt, with smaller amounts of lower imdinated fluoresceins.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with FD&amp;C Red No. 3 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 3 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C.) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as the sodium salts), total not more than 13 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unhalogenated intermediates, total not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium iodide, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triiodoresorcinol, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2(2′,4′-Dihydroxy-3′, 5′-diiodobenzoyl) benzoic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monoiodofluoresceins not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Other lower iodinated fluoresceins, not more than 9.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 87.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 3 may be safely used for coloring foods generally (including dietary supplements) in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Red No. 3 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.340" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.340   FD&amp;C Red No. 40.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 40 is principally the disodium salt of 6-hydroxy-5-[(2-methoxy-5-methyl-4-sulfophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenesulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use (including dietary supplements) made with FD&amp;C Red No. 40 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(3) The listing of this color additive includes lakes prepared as described in § 82.51 of this chapter, except that the color additive used is FD&amp;C Red No. 40 and the resultant lakes meet the specification and labeling requirements prescribed by § 82.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 40 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C.) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 14.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Higher sulfonated subsidiary colors (as sodium salts), not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lower sulfonated subsidiary colors (as sodium salts), not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of 6-hydroxy-5-[(2-methoxy-5-methyl-4-sulfophenyl) azo] -8-(2-methoxy-5-methyl-4-sulfophenoxy)-2-naphthalenesulfonic acid, not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salt of 6-hydroxy-2-naphthalenesulfonic acid (Schaeffer's salt), not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Amino-5-methoxy-<I>o-</I> toluenesulfonic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of 6,6′-oxybis (2-naphthalene-sulfonic acid), not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 40 may be safely used for coloring foods (including dietary supplements) generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any lakes or mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Red No. 40 and lakes thereof shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.705" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.705   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 is principally the trisodium salt of 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-4-[4-sulfophenyl-azo]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid (CAS Reg. No. 1934-21-0). To manufacture the additive, 4-amino-benzenesulfonic acid is diazotized using hydrochloric acid and sodium nitrite. The diazo compound is coupled with 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid or with the methyl ester, the ethyl ester, or a salt of this carboxylic acid. The resulting dye is purified and isolated as the sodium salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 13 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-[4,5-Dihydro-5-oxo-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)hydrazono]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazol-1,3-diyl]bis[benzenesulfonic acid], trisodium salt, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-[(4′,5-Disulfo[1,1′-biphenyl]-2-yl)hydrazono]-4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, tetrasodium salt, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl or methyl 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)hydrazono]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylate, disodium salt, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-phenyl-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, disodium salt, and 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-4-(phenylazo)-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, disodium salt, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminobenzenesulfonic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,5-Dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, disodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl or methyl 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylate, sodium salt, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-(1-Triazene-1,3-diyl)bis[benzenesulfonic acid], disodium salt, not more than 0.05 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminoazobenzene, not more than 75 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminobiphenyl, not more than 5 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aniline, not more than 100 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Azobenzene, not more than 40 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzidine, not more than 1 part per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Diphenyltriazene, not more than 40 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 87 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 may be safely used for coloring foods (including dietary supplements) generally in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Foods for human use that contain FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5, including butter, cheese, and ice cream, shall specifically declare the presence of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 by listing the color additive as FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 among the list of ingredients.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977; 44 FR 17658, Mar. 23, 1979, as amended at 44 FR 37220, June 26, 1979; 51 FR 24519, July 7, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.706" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.1.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.706   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 is principally the disodium salt of 6-hydroxy-5-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenesulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 2783-94-0). The trisodium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 50880-65-4) may be added in small amounts. The color additive is manufactured by diazotizing 4-aminobenzenesulfonic acid using hydrochloric acid and sodium nitrite or sulfuric acid and sodium nitrite. The diazo compound is coupled with 6-hydroxy-2-naphthalene-sulfonic acid. The dye is isolated as the sodium salt and dried. The trisodium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid which may be blended with the principal color is prepared in the same manner except the diazo benzenesulfonic acid is coupled with 3-hydroxy-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for food use made with FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 13 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salt of 4-aminobenzenesulfonic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salt of 6-hydroxy-2-naphthalenesulfonic acid, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of 6,6′-oxybis[2-naphthalenesulfonic acid], not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of 4,4′-(1-triazene-1,3-diyl)bis[benzenesulfonic acid], not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of the sodium salt of 6-hydroxy-5-(phenylazo)-2-naphthalenesulfonic acid and the sodium salt of 4-[(2-hydroxy-1-naphthalenyl)azo]benzenesulfonic acid, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of the trisodium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid and other higher sulfonated subsidiaries, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminoazobenzene, not more than 50 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminobiphenyl, not more than 15 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aniline, not more than 250 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Azobenzene, not more than 200 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzidine, not more than 1 part per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Diphenyltriazene, not more than 40 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(Phenylazo)-2-naphthalenol, not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 87 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 may be safely used for coloring foods (including dietary supplements) generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice, except that it may not be used to color foods for which standards of identity have been promulgated under section 401 of the act unless added color is authorized by such standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41782, Nov. 19, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 21508, June 8, 1987; 53 FR 49138, Dec. 6, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1101   FD&amp;C Blue No. 1</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) For ingested drugs, the color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall conform in identity to the requirements of § 74.101(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) For externally applied drugs, the color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall conform in identity to the requirements of § 74.2101(a).
</P>
<P>(3) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 for use in coloring drugs generally shall conform in specifications to the requirements of § 74.101(b).
</P>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 Aluminum Lake shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 82.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 may be safely used for coloring drugs, including drugs intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 Aluminum Lake may be safely used for coloring drugs intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice, subject to the restrictions on the use of color additives in § 70.5(b) and (c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42565, Sept. 28, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 7638, Feb. 16, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1102   FD&amp;C Blue No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 shall conform in identity to the requirements of § 74.102(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in ingested drugs made with FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 for use in coloring ingested drugs shall conform to the specifications in § 74.102(b).
</P>
<P>(c) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 may be safely used for coloring ingested drugs in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 5260, Feb. 4, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 10090, Mar. 19, 1984; 64 FR 48290, Sept. 3, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1104" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1104   D&amp;C Blue No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Blue No. 4 is principally the diammonium salt of ethyl[4-[<I>p</I>[ethyl(<I>m-</I> sulfobenzyl)ami-no]-α-(<I>o-</I> sulfophenyl)benzylidene]-2,5-cyclo-hexadien-1-ylidene] (<I>m-</I> sulfobenzyl) ammonium hydroxide inner salt with smaller amounts of the isomeric diammonium salts of ethyl [4-[<I>p-</I>[ethyl(<I>p-</I> sulfobenzyl) amino]-α-(<I>o-</I> sulfophenyl) benzylidene]-2,5-cyclohexadien - 1-ylidene](<I>p-</I> sulfobenzyl) ammonium hydroxide inner salt and ethyl[4-[<I>p-</I>[ethyl (<I>o-</I> sulfobenzyl)amino]-α-(<I>o-</I> sulfophenyl) benzylidene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene] (<I>o-</I> sulfobenzyl) ammonium hydroxide inner salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in externally applied drugs made with D&amp;C Blue No. 4 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Blue No. 4 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Leuco base, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of <I>o-, m</I>, and <I>p-</I> sulfobenzaldehydes, ammonium salt, not more than 1.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-ethyl, N-(<I>m-</I> sulfobenzyl) sulfanilic acid ammonium salt, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 6 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chromium (as Cr), not more than 50 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Blue No. 4 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Blue No. 4 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1109" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1109   D&amp;C Blue No. 9.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Blue No. 9 is principally 7,16-dichloro-6,15 - dihydro - 5,9,14,18 - anthrazine-tetrone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Blue No. 9 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C.), not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter extractable by alcoholic HCl (0.1 ml of concentrated hydrochloric acid per 50 ml of 95 percent ethyl alcohol), not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Amino anthraquinone, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Organically combined chlorine in pure dye, 13.0-14.8 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 p/m.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 p/m.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 97 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Blue No. 9 may be safely used for coloring cotton and silk surgical sutures, including sutures for ophthalmic use, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The dyed suture shall conform in all respects to the requirements of the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980).
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of the color additive does not exceed 2.5 percent by weight of the suture.
</P>
<P>(3) When the sutures are used for the purposes specified in their labeling, the color additive does not migrate to the surrounding tissue.
</P>
<P>(4) If the suture is a new drug, a new-drug application approved pursuant to section 505 of the act is in effect for it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Blue No. 9 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10090, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 17098, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1203" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1203   FD&amp;C Green No. 3.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.203(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with FD&amp;C Green No. 3 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Green No. 3 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 52144, Nov. 19, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1205" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1205   D&amp;C Green No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 5 is principally the disodium salt of 2,2′-[(9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-1,4-anthracenediyl)diimino]bis-[5-methylbenzenesulfonic acid] (CAS Reg. No. 4403-90-1).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in drugs made with D&amp;C Green No. 5 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and those that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) D&amp;C Green No. 5 for use in coloring surgical sutures shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 20 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Dihydroxyanthraquinone, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Amino-<I>m</I>-toluenesulfonic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 80 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) D&amp;C Green No. 5 for use in coloring drugs shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 20 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Dihydroxyanthraquinone, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfonated toluidines, total not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p</I>-Toluidine, not more than 0.0015 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of monosulfonated D&amp;C Green No. 6 and Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 80 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Use and restrictions.</I> (1) D&amp;C Green No. 5 may be safely used to color nylon 66 (the copolymer of adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine) and/or nylon 6[poly-(<I>e</I>-caprolactam)]nonabsorbable surgical sutures for use in general surgery, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of color additive does not exceed 0.6 percent by weight of the suture.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the sutures are used for the purposes specified in their labeling, there is no migration of the color additive to the surrounding tissue.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the suture is a new drug, an approved new drug application, under section 505 of the act, is in effect for it.
</P>
<P>(2) D&amp;C Green No. 5 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally, including drugs intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Green No. 5 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 24284, June 4, 1982; 47 FR 27551, June 25, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 40805, Aug. 10, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1206" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1206   D&amp;C Green No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 is 1,4-bis[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione (CAS. Reg. No. 128-80-3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 for use in coloring externally applied drugs shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C), not more than 2.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-soluble matter, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in carbon tetrachloride, not more than 1.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p</I>-Toluidine, not more than 0.1 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Dihydroxyanthraquinone, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Hydroxy-4-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-9, 10-anthracenedione, not more than 5.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 96.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Green No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations promulgated under part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 14146, Apr. 2, 1982; 47 FR 24278, June 4, 1982; 51 FR 9784, Mar. 21, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1208" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1208   D&amp;C Green No. 8.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 8 is principally the trisodium salt of 8-hydroxy-1,3,6-pyrene-trisulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in externally applied drugs made with D&amp;C Green No. 8 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Green No. 8 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practices:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salt), not more than 20 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The trisodium salt of 1,3,6-pyrenetrisulfonic acid, not more than 6 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The tetrasodium salt of 1,3,6,8-pyrenetetrasulfonic acid, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyrene, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 65 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Green No. 8 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts not exceeding 0.01 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Green No. 8 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1254" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1254   D&amp;C Orange No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) the color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 4 is principally the sodium salt of 4-[(2-hydroxy-1-naphthalenyl)azo]benzenesulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in externally applied drugs made with D&amp;C Orange No. 4 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 4 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 13 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Naphthol, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfanilic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-(Diazoamino)-dibenzenesulfonic acid, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 87 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 4 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 4 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52396, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 14642, Apr. 7, 1978; 46 FR 8461, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1255" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1255   D&amp;C Orange No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) the color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 5 is a mixture consisting principally the sodium salt of 4′,5′-dibromofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 596-03-2) and 2′,4′,5′-tribromofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 25709-83-5) and 2′,4′,5′,7′-tetrabromofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 15086-94-9). D&amp;C Orange No. 5 is manufactured by brominating fluorescein with elemental bromine. The fluorescein is manufactured by the acid condensation of resorcinol and phthalic acid or its anhydride. The fluorescein is isolated and partially purified prior to bromination.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Orange No. 5 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 5 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>4′,5′-dibromofluorescein, not less than 50 percent and not more than 65 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′-tribromofluorescein, not less than 30 percent and not more than 40 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-tetrabromofluorescein, not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of 2′,4′-dibromofluorescein and 2′,5′-dibromofluorescein, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4′-Bromofluorescein, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorescein, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-(3,5-Dibromo-2,4-dihydroxybenzoyl) benzoic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brominated resorcinol, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and halides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insoluble matter (alkaline solution), not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 5 may be safely used for coloring mouthwashes and dentifrices that are ingested drugs in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice. D&amp;C Orange No. 5 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts not exceeding 5 milligrams per daily dose of the drug.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 5 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 44635, Nov. 2, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 13342, Apr. 4, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1260" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1260   D&amp;C Orange No. 10.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 10 is a mixture consisting principally of 4′,5′-diiodofluorescein, 2′,4′,5′-triiodofluorescein, and 2′,4′,5′,7′-tetraiodofluorescein.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Orange No. 10 may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 10 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and halides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 8 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insoluble matter (alkaline solution), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-[3′,5′-Diiodo-2′,4′-dihydroxybenzoyl] benzoic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorescein, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4′-Iodofluorescein, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′-Diiodofluorescein and 2′,5′-diiodofluorescein, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′-Triiodofluorescein, not more than 35 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetraiodofluorescein, not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4′,5′-Diiodofluorescein, not less than 60 percent and not more than 95 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 92 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 10 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 10 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 18953, Mar. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1261" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1261   D&amp;C Orange No. 11.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 11 is a mixture consisting principally of the disodium salts of 4′,5′-diiodofluorescein, 2′,4′,5′-triiodofluorescein and 2′,4′,5′,7′-tetraiodofluorescein.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Orange No. 11 may contain only those diluents listed in this subpart as safe and suitable for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 11 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and halides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 8 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-[3′,5′-Diiodo-2′,4′-dihydroxybenzoyl] benzoic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorescein, disodium salt, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4′-Iodofluorescein, disodium salt, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′-Diiodofluorescein and 2′,5′-diiodofluorescein, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′-Triiodofluorescein, not more than 35 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetraiodofluorescein, disodium salt, not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4′,5′-Diiodofluorescein, disodium salt, not less than 60 percent and not more than 95 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 92 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 11 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 11 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 18953, Mar. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1303" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1303   FD&amp;C Red No. 3.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250116" REFID="28">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 4634, Jan. 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250116" REFID="29">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 4634, Jan. 16, 2025.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 3 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.303(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for ingested drug used made with FD&amp;C Red No. 3 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring ingested drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 3 may be safely used for coloring ingested drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Red No. 3 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1304" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1304   FD&amp;C Red No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 4 is principally the disodium salt of 3-[(2,4-dimethyl-5-sulfophenyl)azo] -4-hydroxy-1-naphthalenesulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in externally applied drugs made with FD&amp;C Red No. 4 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 4 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C.) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 13 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-Amino-2,4-dimethyl-1-benzenesulfonic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Hydroxy-1-naphthalenesulfonic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 87 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 4 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Red No. 4 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1306" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1306   D&amp;C Red No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 6 is principally the disodium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-[(4-methyl-2-sulfophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid (CAS Reg. No. 5858-81-1). To manufacture the additive, 2-amino-5-methylbenzenesulfonic acid is diazotized with hydrochloric acid and sodium nitrite. The diazo compound is coupled in alkaline medium with 3-hydroxy-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid. The resulting dye precipitates as the disodium salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 6 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 6 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-[(4-methylphenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenol, not more than 0.015 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Amino-5-methylbenzenesulfonic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxy-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxy-4-[(4-methylphenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I> Toluidine, not more than 15 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 6 may be safely used for coloring drugs such that the combined total of D&amp;C Red No. 6 and D&amp;C Red No. 7 does not exceed 5 milligrams per daily dose of the drug.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57687, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 77 FR 39923, July 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1307" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1307   D&amp;C Red No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 7 is principally the calcium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-[(4-methyl-2-sulfophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid (CAS Reg. No. 5281-04-9). To manufacture the additive, 2-amino-5-methylbenzenesulfonic acid is diazotized with hydrochloric acid and sodium nitrite. The diazo compound is coupled in alkaline medium with 3-hydroxy-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid and the resulting dye converted to the calcium salt with calcium chloride.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 7 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 7 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-[(4-methylphenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenol, not more than 0.015 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Amino-5-methylbenzenesulfonic acid, calcium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxy-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid, calcium salt, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxy-4-[(4-methylphenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid, calcium salt, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p</I>-Toluidine, not more than 15 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 7 may be safely used for coloring drugs such that the combined total of D&amp;C Red No. 6 and D&amp;C Red No. 7 does not exceed 5 milligrams per daily dose of the drug.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 7 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57687, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 77 FR 39923, July 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1317" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1317   D&amp;C Red No. 17.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 17 is principally 1-[[4-(phenylazo)phenyl]azo]-2-naphthalenol.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 17 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 17 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C), not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in both toluene and water (color additive mixed in toluene and the resultant residue isolated and mixed with water to obtain the matter insoluble in both toluene and water), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aniline, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminoazobenzene, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Naphthol, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(Phenylazo)-2-naphthol, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-[[2-(phenylazo) phenyl]azo]-2-naphthalenol, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 17 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 17 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 27225, May 27, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1321" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1321   D&amp;C Red No. 21.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 21 is principally 2′,4′,5′,7′-tetrabromofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 15086-94-9), and may contain smaller amounts of 2′,4′,5′-tribromofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 25709-83-5) and 2′,4′,7′-tribromofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 25709-84-6). The color additive is manufactured by brominating fluorescein with elemental bromine. The fluorescein is manufactured by the acid condensation of resorcinol and phthalic acid or its anhydride. The fluorescein is isolated and partially purified prior to bromination.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 21 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 21 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and halides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insoluble matter (alkaline solution), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-(3,5-Dibromo-2,4-dihydroxybenzoyl) benzoic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetrabromofluorescein, ethyl ester, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brominated resorcinol, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorescein, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of mono- and dibromofluoresceins, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tribromofluoresceins, not more than 11 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetrabromofluorescein, not less than 87 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 21 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 21 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 53846, Nov. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1322" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1322   D&amp;C Red No. 22.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 22 is principally the disodium salt of 2′,4′,5′7′-tetrabromofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 17372-87-1) and may contain smaller amounts of the disodium salts of 2′,4′,5′-tribromofluorescein and 2′,4′,7′-tribromofluorescein. The color additive is manufactured by alkaline hydrolysis of 2′,4′,5′,7′-tetrabromofluorescein. 2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetrabromofluorescein is manufactured by brominating fluorescein with elemental bromine. The fluorescein is manufactured by the acid condensation of resorcinol and phthalic acid or its anhydride. Fluorescein is isolated and partially purified prior to bromination.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with Red No. 22 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 22 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and halides and sulfates (calculated as soduim salts), not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of phthalic acid, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salt of 2-(3,5-Dibromo-2,4-dihydroxybenzoyl)benzoic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetrabromofluorescein, ethyl ester, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brominated resorcinol, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of disodium salts of mono- and dibromofluoresceins, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of disodium salts of tribromofluoresceins, not more than 25 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of 2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetrabromofluorescein, not less than 72 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 22 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 22 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 53846, Nov. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1327" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1327   D&amp;C Red No. 27.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 27 is principally 2′,4′,5′,7′-tetrabromo-4,5,6,7-tetrachlorofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 13473-26-2). The color additive is manufactured by brominating 4,5,6,7-tetrachlorofluorescein with elemental bromine. The 4,5,6,7-tetrachlorofluorescein is manufactured by the acid condensation of resorcinol and tetrachlorophthalic acid or its anhydride. The 4,5,6,7-tetrachlorofluorescein is isolated and partially purified prior to bromination.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 27 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 27 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and halides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insoluble matter (alkaline solution), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrachlorophthalic acid, not more than 1.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brominated resorcinol, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3,4,5-Tetrachloro-6-(3,5-dibromo-2,4-dihydroxybenzoyl) benzoic acid, not more than 0.7 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetrabromo-4,5,6,7-tetrachlorofluorescein, ethyl ester, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lower halogenated subsidiary colors, not more than 4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 27 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 27 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42567, Sept. 28, 1982; 47 FR 51106, Nov. 12, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1328" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1328   D&amp;C Red No. 28.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 28 is principally the disodium salt of 2′,4′,5′,7′-tetrabromo-4,5,6,7-tetrachlorofluorescein (CAS Reg. No. 18472-87-2) formed by alkaline hydrolysis of the parent tetrabromotetrachlorofluorescein.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 28 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 28 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and halides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insoluble matter (alkaline solution), not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrachlorophthalic acid, not more than 1.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brominated resorcinol, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3,4,5-Tetrachloro-6-(3,5-dibromo-2,4-dihydroxybenzoyl)benzoic acid, not more than 0.7 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2′,4′,5′,7′-Tetrabromo-4,5,6,7-tetrachlorofluorescein, ethyl ester, not more than 2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lower halogenated subsidiary colors, not more than 4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 28 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 28 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42568, Sept. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1330" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1330   D&amp;C Red No. 30.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 30 is principally 6-chloro-2-(6-chloro-4-methyl-3-oxobenzo[<I>b</I>]thien-2(3<I>H</I>)-ylidene)-4-methyl-benzo[<I>b</I>]thiophen-3(2<I>H</I>)-one (CAS Reg. No. 2379-74-0).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 30 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 30 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C), not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter soluble in acetone, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 30 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 30 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 22510, May 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1331" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1331   D&amp;C Red No. 31.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 31 is principally the calcium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-(phenylazo)-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 31 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 31 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aniline, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxy-2-naphthoic acid, calcium salt, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 90 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 31 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 31 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1333" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1333   D&amp;C Red No. 33.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 33 is principally the disodium salt of 5-amino-4-hydroxy-3-(phenylazo)-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 3567-66-6). To manufacture the additive, the product obtained from the nitrous acid diazotization of aniline is coupled with 4-hydroxy-5-amino-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid in an alkaline aqueous medium. The color additive is isolated as the sodium salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 33 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 33 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practices:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 18 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Amino-5-hydroxy-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid, disodium salt, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,5-Dihydroxy-3-(phenylazo)-2,7-naphthalenedisulfonic acid, disodium salt, not more than 3.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aniline, not more than 25 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminoazobenzene, not more than 100 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Diphenyltriazene, not more than 125 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminobiphenyl, not more than 275 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Azobenzene, not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzidine, not more than 20 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 82 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red. No 33 may be safely used for coloring ingested drugs, other than mouthwashes and dentifrices, in amounts not to exceed 0.75 milligram per daily dose of the drug. D&amp;C Red No. 33 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs, mouthwashes, and dentifrices in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 33 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 33120, Aug. 30, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1334" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1334   D&amp;C Red No. 34.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 34 is principally the calcium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-[(1-sulfo-2-naphthalenyl)azo]-2-naphthalene-carboxylic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 34 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 34 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated at sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Amino-1-naphthalenesulfonic acid, calcium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxy-2-naphthoic acid, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 34 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 34 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1336" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1336   D&amp;C Red No. 36.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 36 is 1-[(2-chloro-4-nitrophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenol (CAS Reg. No. 2814-77-9). The color additive is manufactured by diazotization of 2-chloro-4-nitrobenzenamine in acid medium and coupling with 2-naphthalenol in acid medium.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with D&amp;C Red No. 36 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 36 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F), not more than 1.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in toluene, not more than 1.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Chloro-4-nitrobenzenamine, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Naphthalenol, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dinitrobenzenamine, not more than 0.02 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-[(2,4-Dinitrophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenol, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-[(2-Chloro-4-nitrophenyl)azo]-1-naphthalenol, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-[(4-Nitrophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenol, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-[(4-Chloro-2-nitrophenyl)azo]-2-naphthalenol, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 95 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 36 may be safely used for coloring ingested drugs, other than mouthwashes and dentifrices, in amounts not to exceed 1.7 milligrams per daily dose of the drug for drugs that are taken continuously only for less than 1 year. For drugs taken continuously for longer than 1 year, the color additive shall not be used in amounts to exceed 1.0 milligram per daily dose of the drug. D&amp;C Red No. 36 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 36 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29031, Aug. 2, 1988; 53 FR 35255, Sept. 12, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 52130, Dec. 27, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1339" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1339   D&amp;C Red No. 39.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 39 is <I>o-</I>[<I>p</I>(β,β′-dihydroxy-diethylamino)-phenylazo]-benzoic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with D&amp;C Red No. 39 may contain the following diluents: Water, acetone, isopropyl alcohol, and specially denatured alcohols used in accordance with 26 CFR part 212.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 39 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 100 °C.), not more than 2.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in acetone, not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anthranilic acid, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N-</I>(β,β′-Dihydroxy-diethyl) aniline, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 3.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 95.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 39 may be safely used for the coloring of quaternary ammonium type germicidal solutions intended for external application only, and subject to the further restriction that the quantity of the color additive does not exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the finished drug product.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 39 shall be certified in accordance with regulations promulgated under part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1340" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1340   FD&amp;C Red No. 40.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 40 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.340(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with FD&amp;C Red No. 40 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) The listing of this color additive includes lakes prepared as described in §§ 82.51 and 82.1051 of this chapter, except that the color additive used is FD&amp;C Red No. 40 and the resultant lakes meet the specification and labeling requirements prescribed by §§ 82.51 or 82.1051 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) FD&amp;C Red No. 40 and FD&amp;C Red No. 40 Aluminum Lake may be safely used in coloring drugs, including those intended for use in the area of the eye, subject to the restrictions on the use of color additives in § 70.5(b) and (c) of this chapter, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) Other lakes of FD&amp;C Red No. 40 may be safely used in coloring drugs, subject to the restrictions on the use of color additives in § 70.5 of this chapter, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any lakes or mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Red No. 40 and lakes thereof shall be certified in accordance with regulations, in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 7636, Feb. 16, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1602" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1602   D&amp;C Violet No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Violet No. 2 is principally 1-hydroxy -4-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in externally applied drugs made with D&amp;C Violet No. 2 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities can be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C.), not more than 2.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in both carbon tetrachloride and water, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I> Toluidine, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Hydroxy-9,10-anthracenedione, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Dihydroxy-9,10-anthracenedione, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 1.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 96.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Violet No. 2 may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 62978, Sept. 23, 1980; 55 FR 18868, May 7, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1705" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1705   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.705 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 Aluminum Lake shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 82.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally, including drugs intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 Aluminum Lake may be safely used for coloring drugs intended for use in the area of the eye, when prepared in accordance with § 82.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of OTC and prescription drug products intended for human use administered orally, nasally, rectally, or vaginally, or for use in the area of the eye, containing FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall specifically declare the presence of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 by listing the color additive using the names FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 and tartrazine. The label shall bear a statement such as “Contains FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine) as a color additive” or “Contains color additives including FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine).” The labels of certain drug products subject to this labeling requirement that are also cosmetics, such as: antibacterial mouthwashes and fluoride toothpastes, need not comply with this requirement provided they comply with the requirements of § 701.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For prescription drugs for human use containing FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 that are administered orally, nasally, vaginally, or rectally, or for use in the area of the eye, the labeling required by § 201.100(d) of this chapter shall, in addition to the label statement required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, bear the warning statement “This product contains FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine) which may cause allergic-type reactions (including bronchial asthma) in certain susceptible persons. Although the overall incidence of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine) sensitivity in the general population is low, it is frequently seen in patients who also have aspirin hypersensitivity.” This warning statement shall appear in the “Precautions” section of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 37220, June 26, 1979; 50 FR 35782, Sept. 4, 1985; 51 FR 24519, July 7, 1986; 59 FR 60897, Nov. 29, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1706" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1706   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.706(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The label of the color additive and any mixtures intended solely or in part for coloring purposes prepared therefrom shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41782, Nov. 19, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 21508, June 8, 1987; 53 FR 49138, Dec. 6, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1707" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1707   D&amp;C Yellow No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 is principally fluorescein.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in externally applied drugs made with D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of water and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 6 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in alkaline water, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-2,4-(Dihydroxybenzoyl) benzoic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 94 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1707a" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1707a   Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 is principally the disodium salt of 8-hydroxy-5,7-di-nitro-2-naphthalenesulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for drug use made with Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Naphthol, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dinitro-1-naphthol, not more than 0.03 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1708" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1708   D&amp;C Yellow No. 8.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 is principally the disodium salt of fluorescein.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures for use in externally applied drugs made with D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of water and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in alkaline water, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-(2,4-Dihydroxybenzoyl) benzoic acid, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1710" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1710   D&amp;C Yellow No. 10.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 is a mixture of the sodium salts of the mono- and disulfonic acids of 2-(2-quinolinyl)-1<I>H</I>-indene-1,3 (2<I>H</I>)-dione consisting principally of the sodium salts of 2-(2,3-dihydro-1,3-dioxo-1<I>H</I>-indene-2-yl)-6-quinolinesulfonic acid and 2-(2,3-dihydro-1,3-dioxo-1<I>H</I>-indene-2-yl)-8-quinolinesulfonic acid with lesser amounts of the disodium salts of the disulfonic acids of 2-(2-quinolinyl)-1<I>H</I>-indene-1,3(2<I>H</I>)-dione (CAS Reg. No. 8004-92-0). D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 is manufactured by condensing quinaldine with phthalic anhydride to give the unsulfonated dye, which is then sulfonated with oleum.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures made with D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 for drug use may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in both water and chloroform, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total sulfonated quinaldines, sodium salts, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total sulfonated phthalic acids, sodium salts, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-(2-Quinolinyl)-1<I>H</I>-indene-1,3 (2<I>H</I>)-dione, not more than 4 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of sodium salts of the monosulfonates of 2-(2-quinolinyl)-1<I>H</I>-indene-1,3 (2<I>H</I>)-dione, not less than 75 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of sodium salts of the disulfonates of 2-(2-quinolinyl)-1<I>H</I>-indene-1,3 (2<I>H</I>)-dione, not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-(2,3-Dihydro-1,3-dioxo-1<I>H</I>-indene-2-yl)-6, 8-quinolinedisulfonic acid, disodium salt, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl ether soluble matter other than that specified, not more than 2 parts per million, using added 2-(2-quinolinyl)-1<I>H</I>-indene-1,3 (2<I>H</I>)-dione for calibration.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 may be safely used for coloring drugs generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom and intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 39219, Aug. 30, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 8432, Mar. 7, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1711" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.2.98.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1711   D&amp;C Yellow No. 11.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 is principally 2-(2-quinolyl)-1,3-indandione.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additive mixtures, for drug use made with D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 may contain only those diluents that are suitable and that are listed in part 73 of this chapter as safe for use in color additive mixtures for coloring externally applied drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter (at 135 °C), not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl alcohol-insoluble matter, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Quinaldine, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 96 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 may be safely used in externally applied drugs in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Cosmetics</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2052" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2052   D&amp;C Black No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Black No. 2 is a high-purity carbon black prepared by the oil furnace process. It is manufactured by the combustion of aromatic petroleum oil feedstock and consists essentially of pure carbon, formed as aggregated fine particles with a surface area range of 200 to 260 meters (m)
<SU>2</SU>/gram.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Black No. 2 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Surface area by nitrogen BET (Brunauer, Emmett, Teller) method, 200 to 260 m
<SU>2</SU>/gram.
</P>
<P>(2) Weight loss on heating at 950 °C for 7 minutes (predried for 1 hour at 125 °C), not more than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Ash content, not more than 0.15 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Arsenic (total), not more than 3 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (3 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(5) Lead (total), not more than 10 mg/kg (10 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(6) Mercury (total), not more than 1 mg/kg (1 part per million).
</P>
<P>(7) Total sulfur, not more than 0.65 percent.
</P>
<P>(8) Total PAHs, not more than 0.5 mg/kg (500 parts per billion).
</P>
<P>(9) Benzo[<I>a</I>]pyrene, not more than 0.005 mg/kg (5 parts per billion).
</P>
<P>(10) Dibenz[<I>a,h</I>]anthracene, not more than 0.005 mg/kg (5 parts per billion).
</P>
<P>(11) Total color (as carbon), not less than 95 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Black No. 2 may be safely used for coloring the following cosmetics in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice: Eyeliner, brush-on-brow, eye shadow, mascara, lipstick, blushers and rouge, makeup and foundation, and nail enamel.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Black No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 44930, July 28, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 10357]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2053" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2053   D&amp;C Black No. 3.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Black No. 3 is a washed bone char prepared from calcined cattle bones. The bones are twice heated in excess of 700 °C for at least 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Black No. 3 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practices:
</P>
<P>(1) Calcium hydroxyapatite (CaO and P<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">5</E>), not less than 75 percent and not more than 84 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) Elemental carbon, not less than 7 percent;
</P>
<P>(3) Moisture, not more than 7 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) Silica (SiO<E T="52">2</E>), not more than 5 percent;
</P>
<P>(5) Arsenic, not more than 3 milligrams (mg)/kilogram (kg) (3 parts per million (ppm));
</P>
<P>(6) Lead, not more than 10 mg/kg (10 ppm); and
</P>
<P>(7) Total polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), not more than 5 mg/kg (5 ppm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Cosmetics containing D&amp;C Black No. 3 must comply with § 700.27 of this chapter with respect to prohibited cattle materials in cosmetic products. D&amp;C Black No. 3 may be safely used for coloring the following cosmetics in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice: Eyeliner, eye shadow, mascara, and face powder.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Black No. 3 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 33666, June 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2101   FD&amp;C Blue No. 1.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 is principally the disodium salt of ethyl[4-[<I>p</I>-[ethyl(<I>m</I>-sulfobenzyl)amino]-α-(<I>o</I>-sulfophenyl)benzylidene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene](<I>m</I>-sulfobenzyl)ammonium hydroxide inner salt with smaller amounts of the isomeric disodium salts of ethyl[4-[<I>p</I>-[ethyl(<I>p</I>-sulfobenzyl)amino]-α-(<I>o</I>-sulfophenyl)benzylidene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene](<I>p</I>-sulfobenzyl)ammonium hydroxide inner salt and ethyl[4-[<I>p</I>-[ethyl(<I>o</I>-sulfobenzyl)amino]-α-(<I>o</I>-sulfophenyl)benzylidene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene](<I>o</I>-sulfobenzyl)ammonium hydroxide inner salt. Additionally, FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 is manufactured by the acid catalyzed condensation of one mole of sodium 2-formylbenzenesulfonate with two moles from a mixture consisting principally of 3-[(ethylphenylamino)methyl] benzenesulfonic acid, and smaller amounts of 4-[(ethylphenylamino)methyl] benzenesulfonic acid and 2-[(ethylphenylamino)methyl] benzenesulfonic acid to form the leuco base. The leuco base is then oxidized with lead dioxide and acid, or with dichromate and acid, or with manganese dioxide and acid to form the dye. The intermediate sodium 2-formylbenzenesulfonate is prepared from 2-chlorobenzaldehyde and sodium sulfite.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall conform in specifications to the requirements of § 74.101(b).
</P>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 Aluminum Lake shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 82.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 Aluminum Lake may be safely used for coloring cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42565, Sept. 28, 1982, as amended at 58 FR 17511, Apr. 5, 1993; 59 FR 7638, Feb. 16, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2104" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2104   D&amp;C Blue No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Blue No. 4 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1104(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Blue No. 4 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Blue No. 4 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2151" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2151   D&amp;C Brown No. 1.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Brown No. 1 is a mixture of the sodium salts of 4[[5-[(dialkylphenyl)- azo]-2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]azo]-benzene sulfonic acid. The alkyl group is principally the methyl group.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Brown No. 1 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 16 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfanilic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Xylidines, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium salt of 4[[5-[(4-sulfophenyl)-azo]-2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monosodium salt of 4[[5-[(2,4-dimethyl-phenyl)azo] -2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not less than 29 percent and not more than 39 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monosodium salt of 4[[5-[(2,5-dimethyl-phenyl)azo] -2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not less than 12 percent and not more than 17 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monosodium salt of 4[[5-[(2,3-dimethyl-phenyl)azo] - 2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not less than 6 percent and not more than 13 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monosodium salt of 4[[5-[(2-ethylphenyl)-azo]-2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]-azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not less than 5 percent and not more than 12 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monosodium salt of 4[[5-[(3,4-dimethyl-phenyl)azo] -2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not less than 3 percent and not more than 9 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monosodium salt of 4[[5-[(2,6-dimethyl-phenyl)azo] -2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not less than 3 percent and not more than 8 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monosodium salt of 4[[5-[(4-ethylphenyl) azo]-2,4-dihydroxyphenyl]-azo] benzenesulfonic acid, not less than 2 percent and not more than 8 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 84 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Brown No. 1 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Brown No. 1 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2203" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2203   FD&amp;C Green No. 3.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.203(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Green No. 3 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 52144, Nov. 19, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2205" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2205   D&amp;C Green No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 5 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1205 (a)(1) and (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Green No. 5 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Green No. 5 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 24285, June 4, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 40805, Aug. 10, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2206" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2206   D&amp;C Green No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1206 (a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Green No. 6 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Green No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 14146, Apr. 4, 1982, as amended at 51 FR 9784, Mar. 21, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2208" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2208   D&amp;C Green No. 8.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 8 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1208(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Green No. 8 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts not exceeding 0.01 percent by weight of the finished cosmetic product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Green No. 8 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2254" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2254   D&amp;C Orange No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 4 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1254 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 4 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 4 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52396, Sept. 30, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2255" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2255   D&amp;C Orange No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 5 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1255 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 5 may be safely used for coloring mouthwashes and dentifrices that are ingested cosmetics in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice. D&amp;C Orange No. 5 may be safely used for coloring lipsticks and other cosmetics intended to be applied to the lips in amounts not exceeding 5.0 percent by weight of the finished cosmetic products. D&amp;C Orange No. 5 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 5 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 49635, Nov. 2, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 13342, Apr. 4, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2260" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2260   D&amp;C Orange No. 10.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 10 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1260(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 10 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 11 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 18954, Mar. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2261" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2261   D&amp;C Orange No. 11.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 11 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1261(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Orange No. 11 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Orange No. 11 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 18954, Mar. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2304" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2304   FD&amp;C Red No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 4 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1304(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 4 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Red No. 4 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2306" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2306   D&amp;C Red No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 6 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1306 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 6 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57688, Dec. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2307" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2307   D&amp;C Red No. 7</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 7 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1307 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 7 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 7 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57688, Dec. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2317" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2317   D&amp;C Red No. 17.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 17 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1317(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 17 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 17 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2321" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2321   D&amp;C Red No. 21.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 21 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1321(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 21 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 21 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 53846, Nov. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2322" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2322   D&amp;C Red No. 22.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 22 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1322(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 22 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 22 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 53846, Nov. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2327" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2327   D&amp;C Red No. 27.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 27 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1327 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 27 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 27 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42568, Sept. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2328" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2328   D&amp;C Red No. 28.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 28 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1328 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 28 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 28 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42568, Sept. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2330" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2330   D&amp;C Red No. 30.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 30 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1330 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 30 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 30 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 22511, May 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2331" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2331   D&amp;C Red No. 31.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 31 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1331(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 31 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 31 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2333" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2333   D&amp;C Red No. 33.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 33 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1333(a) (1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 33 may be safely used for coloring cosmetic lip products in amounts not to exceed 3 percent total color by weight of the finished cosmetic products. D&amp;C Red No. 33 may be safely used for coloring mouthwashes (including breath fresheners), dentifrices, and externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive and any mixtures prepared therefrom intended solely or in part for coloring purposes shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 33 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 33120, Aug. 30, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2334" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2334   D&amp;C Red No. 34.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 34 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1334(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Red No. 34 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 34 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2336" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2336   D&amp;C Red No. 36.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 36 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1336 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 36 may be safely used for coloring cosmetic lip products in amounts not to exceed 3 percent total color by weight of the finished cosmetic products. D&amp;C Red No. 36 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 36 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29031, Aug. 2, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2340" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2340   FD&amp;C Red No. 40.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 40 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.340(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The listing of this color additive includes lakes prepared as described in §§ 82.51 and 82.1051 of this chapter, except that the color additive used is FD&amp;C Red No. 40 and the resultant lakes meet the specification and labeling requirements prescribed by § 82.51 or § 82.1051 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Red No. 40 may be safely used in coloring cosmetics generally, except that only FD&amp;C Red No. 40 and FD&amp;C Red No. 40 Aluminum Lake may be safely used in coloring cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye. These uses are subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The color additive may be used in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive shall not be exposed to oxidizing or reducing agents that may affect the integrity of the color additives or any other condition that may affect their integrity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Red No. 40 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15654, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 7636, Feb. 16, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2602" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2602   D&amp;C Violet No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1602(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Violet No. 2 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2602a" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2602a   Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2 is principally the monosodium salt of 2-[(9,10-dihydro-4-hydroxy -9,10-dioxo-1-anthracenyl) amino]-5-methyl-benzenesulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities, other than those named, to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 18 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Hydroxy-9,10-anthracenedione, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Dihydroxy-9,10-anthracenedione, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I> Toluidine, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I> Toluidine sulfonic acids, sodium salts, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 80 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2705" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2705   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 is principally the trisodium salt of 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-(1-4-sulfophenyl)-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid (CAS Reg. No. 1934-21-0). To manufacture the additive, 4-aminobenzenesulfonic acid is diazotized using hydrochloric acid and sodium nitrite. The diazo compound is coupled with 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid or with the methyl ester, the ethyl ester, or a salt of this carboxylic acid. The resulting dye is purified and isolated as the sodium salt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 13 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water-insoluble matter, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-[4,5-Dihydro-5-oxo-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)hydrazono]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazol-1,3-diyl]bis[benzenesulfonic acid], trisodium salt, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-[(4′,5-Disulfo[1,1′-biphenyl]-2-yl)hydrazono]-4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, tetrasodium salt, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl or methyl 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)hydrazono]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylate, disodium salt, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sum of 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-phenyl-4-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, disodium salt, and 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-4-(phenylazo)-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, disodium salt, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminobenzenesulfonic acid, sodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,5-Dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid, disodium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl or methyl 4,5-dihydro-5-oxo-1-(4-sulfophenyl)-1<I>H</I>-pyrazole-3-carboxylate, sodium salt, not more than 0.1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-(1-Triazene-1,3-diyl)bis[benzenesulfonic acid], disodium salt, not more than 0.05 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminoazobenzene, not more than 75 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminobiphenyl, not more than 5 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aniline, not more than 100 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Azobenzene, not more than 40 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzidine, not more than 1 part per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Diphenyltriazene, not more than 40 parts per billion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 87 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 Aluminum Lake shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 82.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally, including cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 Aluminum Lake may be safely used for coloring cosmetics intended for use in the area of the eye, subject to the restrictions on use of color additives in § 70.5(b) and (c) of this chapter, in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 35782, Sept. 4, 1985, as amended at 51 FR 24524, July 7, 1986; 59 FR 60898, Nov. 29, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2706" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2706   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.706 (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41782, Nov. 19, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2707" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2707   D&amp;C Yellow No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1707(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2707a" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2707a   Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1707a (a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2708" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2708   D&amp;C Yellow No. 8.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1708(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2710" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2710   D&amp;C Yellow No. 10.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1710(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 may be safely used for coloring cosmetics generally in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 39220, Aug. 30, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 8432, Mar. 7, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2711" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.3.98.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2711   D&amp;C Yellow No. 11.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1711(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 may be safely used for coloring externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Medical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3045" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3045   [Phthalocyaninato(2-)] copper.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive is [phthalocyaninato(2-)] copper (CAS Reg. No. 147-14-8) having the structure shown in Colour Index No. 74160.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive [phthalocyaninato(2-)] copper shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter 135 °C (275 °F), not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salt content (as NaC1), not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alcohol soluble matter, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Organic chlorine, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aromatic amines, not more than 0.05 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 40 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 98.5 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The color additive [phthalocyaninato(2-)] copper may be safely used to color polypropylene sutures, polybutester (the generic designation for the suture fabricated from 1,4-benzenedicarboxylic acid, polymer with 1,4-butanediol and <I>alpha</I>-hydro-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly(oxy-1,4-butanediyl), CAS Reg. No. 37282-12-5) nonabsorbable sutures for use in general and ophthalmic surgery, polybutylene terephthalate nonabsorbable monofilament sutures for general and ophthalmic surgery, nonabsorbable sutures made from poly(vinylidene fluoride) and poly(vinylidene fluoride-co-hexafluoropropylene) for general and ophthalmic surgery, polymethylmethacrylate monofilament used as supporting haptics for intraocular lenses, and polymers used in orientation marks for intraocular lenses, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of the color additive does not exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the suture, haptic material, or orientation mark.
</P>
<P>(ii) The dyed suture shall conform in all respects to the requirements of the U.S. Pharmacopeia.
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive [phthalocyaninato(2-)] copper may be safely used for coloring contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(3) Authorization for these uses shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of section 510(k), 515, or 520(g) the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the medical device in which [phthalocyaninato(2-)] copper is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of [phthalocyaninato (2-)] copper shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 34947, Aug. 2, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 16228, Apr. 25, 1985; 51 FR 22929, June 24, 1986; 51 FR 28930, Aug. 13, 1986; 51 FR 39371, Oct. 28, 1986; 52 FR 15945, May 1, 1987; 55 FR 19620, May 10, 1990; 64 FR 23186, Apr. 30, 1999; 81 FR 75692, Nov. 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3054" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3054   D&amp;C Black No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Black No. 4 is a high-purity carbon black prepared by the oil furnace process. It is manufactured by the combustion of aromatic petroleum oil feedstock and consists essentially of pure carbon, formed as aggregated fine particles with a surface area range of 50 to 260 meters (m)
<SU>2</SU>/gram.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Black No. 4 must conform to the following specifications and must be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such other impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<P>(1) Surface area by nitrogen BET (Brunauer, Emmett, Teller) method, 50 to 260 m
<SU>2</SU>/gram.
</P>
<P>(2) Weight loss on heating at 950 °C for 7 minutes (predried for 1 hour at 125 °C), not more than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Ash content, not more than 0.15 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Arsenic (total), not more than 3 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) (3 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(5) Lead (total), not more than 10 mg/kg (10 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(6) Mercury (total), not more than 1 mg/kg (1 part per million).
</P>
<P>(7) Total sulfur, not more than 0.65 percent.
</P>
<P>(8) Total polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), not more than 0.5 mg/kg (500 parts per billion).
</P>
<P>(9) Benzo[<I>a</I>]pyrene, not more than 0.005 mg/kg (5 parts per billion).
</P>
<P>(10) Dibenz[<I>a,h</I>]anthracene, not more than 0.005 mg/kg (5 parts per billion).
</P>
<P>(11) Total color (as carbon), not less than 95 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) D&amp;C Black No. 4 may be safely used at a level not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene non-absorbable sutures for general surgical use.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization and compliance with this use must not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene surgical sutures in which D&amp;C Black No. 4 is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive must conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Black No. 4 must be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 26359, June 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3102   FD&amp;C Blue No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 shall conform in identity to the requirements of § 74.102(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 for use in coloring surgical sutures shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by current good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water insoluble matter, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isatin-5-sulfonic acid, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isomeric colors, not more than 18 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lower sulfonated subsidiary colors, not more than 5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2-Aluminum Lake on alumina for use in bone cement shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 82.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 may be safely used for coloring nylon (the copolymer of adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine) surgical sutures for use in general surgery subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of color additive does not exceed 1 percent by weight of the suture;
</P>
<P>(ii) The dyed suture shall conform in all respects to the requirements of the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980); and
</P>
<P>(iii) When the sutures are used for the purposes specified in their labeling, the color additive does not migrate to the surrounding tissues.
</P>
<P>(2) The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2-Aluminum Lake on alumina may be safely used for coloring bone cement at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the bone cement.
</P>
<P>(3) Authorization and compliance with these uses shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the medical device in which the color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 and the color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2-Aluminum Lake on alumina are used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The labels of the color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 and the color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2-Aluminum Lake on alumina shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 and its lake shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 48290, Sept. 3, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3106" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3106   D&amp;C Blue No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Blue No. 6 is principally [Δ2,2′-biindoline]-3,3′ dione (CAS Reg. No. 482-89-3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> D&amp;C Blue No. 6 shall conform to the following specifications and shall be free from impurities other than those named to the extent that such impurities may be avoided by good manufacturing practice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Volatile matter at 135 °C (275 °F), not more than 3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matter insoluble in <I>N,N-</I> dimethylformamide, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isatin, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anthranilic acid, not more than 0.3 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Indirubin, not more than 1 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color, not less than 95 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) D&amp;C Blue No. 6 may be safely used at a level—
</P>
<P>(i) Not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring polyethylene terephthalate surgical sutures for general surgical use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring plain or chromic collagen absorbable sutures for general surgical use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring plain or chromic collagen absorbable sutures for ophthalmic surgical use;
</P>
<P>(iv) Not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring polypropylene surgical sutures for general surgical use; and
</P>
<P>(v) Not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring polydioxanone synthetic absorbable sutures for ophthalmic and general surgical use.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for these uses shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the medical device in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Blue No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 29956, July 25, 1984; 49 FR 34447, Aug. 31, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 30698, July 29, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3206" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3206   D&amp;C Green No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 shall conform in identity to the requirements of § 74.1206(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 for use in medical devices shall conform to the specifications of § 74.1206(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 may be safely used at a level
</P>
<P>(i) Not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the lens material for coloring contact lenses;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not to exceed 0.75 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring polyethylene terephthalate surgical sutures, including sutures for ophthalmic use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring polyglycolic acid surgical sutures with diameter greater than U.S.P. size 8-0, including sutures for ophthalmic use;
</P>
<P>(iv) Not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring polyglycolic acid surgical sutures with diameter not greater than U.S.P. size 8-0, including sutures for ophthalmic use;
</P>
<P>(v) Not to exceed 0.21 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring poly(glycolic acid-<I>co</I>-trimethylene carbonate) sutures (also referred to as 1,4-dioxan-2,5-dione polymer with 1,3-dioxan-2-one) for general surgical use; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Not to exceed 0.10 percent by weight of the haptic material for coloring polymethylmethacrylate support haptics of intraocular lenses.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for these uses shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the medical device in which D&amp;C Green No. 6 is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Green No. 6 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 13022, Mar. 29, 1983, as amended at 51 FR 9784, Mar. 21, 1986; 51 FR 37909, Oct. 27, 1986; 58 FR 21542, Apr. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3230" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3230   D&amp;C Red No. 17.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 17 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1317(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The substance listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a color additive in contact lens in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of section 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Red No. 17 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 22898, June 5, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3602" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3602   D&amp;C Violet No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1602(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The color additive, D&amp;C Violet No. 2, may be safely used for coloring contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) D&amp;C Violet No. 2 may be safely used for coloring sutures for use in surgery subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) At a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring copolymers of 90 percent glycolide and 10 percent L-lactide synthetic absorbable sutures for use in general and ophthalmic surgery; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At a level not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring polydioxanone synthetic absorbable sutures for use in general and ophthalmic surgery.
</P>
<P>(iii) At a level not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring poliglecaprone 25 (ε-caprolactone/glycolide copolymer) synthetic absorbable sutures for use in general surgery.
</P>
<P>(iv) At a level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring poly(ε-caprolactone) absorbable sutures for use in general surgery.
</P>
<P>(v) At a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring glycolide/dioxanone/trimethylene carbonate tripolymer absorbable sutures for use in general surgery.
</P>
<P>(vi) At a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the suture material for coloring absorbable sutures prepared from homopolymers of glycolide for use in general surgery.
</P>
<P>(3) The color additive, D&amp;C Violet No. 2, may be safely used for coloring polymethylmethacrylate intraocular lens haptics at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the haptic material.
</P>
<P>(4) The color additive, D&amp;C Violet No. 2, may be safely used for coloring absorbable meniscal tacks made from poly (L-lactic acid) at a level not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of the tack material.
</P>
<P>(5) Authorization for these uses shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the medical devices in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 19722, May 27, 1987, as amended at 55 FR 18868, May 7, 1990; 58 FR 60109, Nov. 15, 1993; 59 FR 11720, Mar. 14, 1994; 63 FR 20098, Apr. 23, 1998; 64 FR 32805, June 18, 1999; 65 FR 46344, July 28, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3708" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3708   D&amp;C Yellow No. 8.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity and specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1708(a)(1) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 may be safely used for coloring contact lens solution for coloring disposable daily-wear hydrogel-based soft (hydrophilic) contact lenses at a level not to exceed 0.044 percent in the contact lens solution. Following excitation by ultraviolet light, the colored contact lenses fluoresce a yellow-green color. The contact lens solution colored with D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 is distributed by prescription only and used in accordance with the supplied directions for use. Contact lens solutions containing D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 are intended for use only for coloring contact lenses that are worn for infrequent, celebratory occasions, and not for regular or daily use.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens solution in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48375, Sept. 25, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.3710" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.27.4.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.3710   D&amp;C Yellow No. 10.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 shall conform to the identity requirements of § 74.1710(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 for use in contact lenses shall conform to the specifications of § 74.1710(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses and restrictions.</I> (1) The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 may be used for coloring contact lenses in amounts not to exceed the minimum reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for this use shall not be construed as waiving any of the requirements of sections 510(k), 515, and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the contact lens in which the color additive is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label of the color additive shall conform to the requirements of § 70.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification.</I> All batches of D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 shall be certified in accordance with regulations in part 80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 28690, Aug. 3, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="80" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 80—COLOR ADDITIVE CERTIFICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15662, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.10   Fees for certification services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees for straight colors including lakes.</I> The fee for the services provided by the regulations in this part in the case of each request for certification submitted in accordance with § 80.21(j)(1) and (2) shall be $0.45 per pound of the batch covered by such requests, but no such fee shall be less than $288.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees for repacks of certified color additives and color additive mixtures.</I> The fees for the services provided under the regulations in this part in the case of each request for certification submitted in accordance with § 80.21(j)(3) and (4) shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 pounds or less—$45.
</P>
<P>(2) Over 100 pounds but not over 1,000 pounds—$45 plus $0.08 for each pound over 100 pounds.
</P>
<P>(3) Over 1,000 pounds—$114 plus $0.03 for each pound over 1,000 pounds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advance deposits.</I> Any person regularly requesting certification services may deposit funds in advance of requests as prepayment of fees required by this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Method of payment.</I> All deposits and fees required by this section shall be paid by money order, bank draft, or certified check, drawn to the order of the Food and Drug Administration, collectible at par at Washington, DC. All such deposits and fees shall be forwarded to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-100), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, whereupon after making appropriate records thereof, they will be transmitted to the Treasurer of the United States for deposit to the special account “Salaries and Expenses, Certification, Inspection, and Other Services, Food and Drug Administration.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Refunds from advance deposits.</I> Whenever in the judgment of the Commissioner the ratio between fees collected (which are based upon experience and the best estimate of costs and the best estimate of earnings) and the costs of providing the service during an elapsed period of time, in the light of all circumstances and contingencies, warrants a refund from the fund collected during such period, he shall make ratable refunds to those persons to whom the services were rendered and charged, except that no refund shall be made where the computed ratable amount for the elapsed period is less than $5.00.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15662, Mar. 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 24692, June 8, 1982; 54 FR 24890, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 60899, Nov. 29, 1994; 61 FR 3572, Feb. 1, 1996; 61 FR 14479, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 70 FR 15756, Mar. 29, 2005; 71 FR 70875, Dec. 7, 2006; 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016; 89 FR 88641, Nov. 8, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Certification Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.21" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.21   Request for certification.</HEAD>
<P>A request for certification of a batch of color additive shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Be addressed to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) Be prepared in the manner set forth in paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Be submitted in duplicate.
</P>
<P>(d) Be signed by a responsible officer of the person requesting certification of the batch. In the case of a foreign manufacturer, the request for certification must be signed by a responsible officer of such firm, and, by his agent who resides in the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) Show the name and post office address of the actual manufacturer in case such manufacturer is not the person requesting certification of the batch.
</P>
<P>(f) Be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 80.10 unless the person has established with the Food and Drug Administration an advanced deposit to be used for prepayment of such fees. In no case shall the Commissioner consider a request for certification of a batch of color additive if the fee accompanying such request is less than that required by § 80.10 or if such fee exceeds the amount held in the advance deposit account of the manufacturer submitting such request for certification.
</P>
<P>(g) Be accompanied by the sample prescribed in § 80.22 consisting of:
</P>
<P>(1) Four ounces in the case of straight colors and lakes.
</P>
<P>(2) Two ounces in the case of repacks and mixtures.
</P>
<FP>A sample accompanying a request for certification must be submitted under separate cover and should be addressed to the Color Certification Branch.
</FP>
<P>(h) The name of a color additive shall be given in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of a straight color shall be the name of the color as listed in parts 74 and 81 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of a lake shall be the name derived in the manner described in part 82 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The name of a mixture shall be the name given to such mixture by the person requesting certification.
</P>
<P>(4) The name of a repack shall be the name described in paragraph (h)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, whichever is applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) The information and samples enumerated in paragraphs (a) to (h), inclusive, of this section are the minimum required. Additional information and samples shall be submitted at the request of the Food and Drug Administration when such additional information and samples are necessary to determine compliance with the requirements of § 80.31 for the issuance of a certificate.
</P>
<P>(j) The form for submission of the application shall be one of the following, depending upon whether the color additive is a straight color, a lake, a repack of a previously certified color additive, or a color additive mixture.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Request for certification of a batch of straight color additive.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FRP>Date ________
</FRP>
<FP>Office of Cosmetics and Colors (HFS-100),
</FP>
<FP>Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition,
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>5001 Campus Dr., 
</FP>
<FP>College Park, MD 20740
</FP>
<P>In accordance with the regulations promulgated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, we hereby make application for the certification of a batch of straight color additive.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name of color
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(As listed in 21 CFR part 74)
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>Batch number
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(Manufacturer's number)
</FRP>
<FP>Batch weighs ____ pounds
</FP>
<FP>Batch manufactured by ____________ at __________________ (Name and address of actual manufacturer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>How stored pending certification
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>(State conditions of storage, with kind and size of containers, location, etc.)
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>Certification requested of this color for use in
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P2>  (State proposed uses)
</P2>
<FP>Required fee, $____ (drawn to the order of Food and Drug Administration).
</FP>
<P>The accompanying sample was taken after the batch was mixed in accordance with 21 CFR 80.22 and is accurately representative thereof.
</P>
<FRP>(Signed) ____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>By ____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Title)  </FRP></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Request for certification of a batch of color additive lake.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FRP>Date ________
</FRP>
<FP>Office of Cosmetics and Colors (HFS-100),
</FP>
<FP>Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition,
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>5001 Campus Dr., 
</FP>
<FP>College Park, MD 20740
</FP>
<P>In accordance with the regulations promulgated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, we hereby make application for the certification of a batch of color additive lake.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name of color 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Batch number
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(Manufacturer's number)
</FRP>
<FP>Batch weighs ____ pounds
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Name of color used
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Quantity ____ pounds
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Lot number
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(When certification of the lake
</FRP>
<FRP>for use in foods is requested) 
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>Precipitant used
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Substratum used
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Quantity ____ pounds
</FP>
<FP>Batch manufactured by __________ at ______________ (Name and address of actual manufacturer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>How stored pending certification
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>(State conditions of storage, with kind and size of containers, location, etc.)
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>Certification requested of this color for use in
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P2>  (State proposed uses)
</P2>
<FP-1>Required fee, $____ (drawn to the order of Food and Drug Administration).
</FP-1>
<P>The accompanying sample was taken after the batch was mixed in accordance with 21 CFR 80.22 and is accurately representative thereof.
</P>
<FRP>(Signed) ____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>By ____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Title)  </FRP></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Request for certification of a repack of a batch of certified color additive.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FRP>Date __________
</FRP>
<FP>Office of Cosmetics and Colors (HFS-100),
</FP>
<FP>Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition,
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>5001 Campus Dr., 
</FP>
<FP>College Park, MD 20740
</FP>
<P>In accordance with the regulations promulgated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, we hereby make application for the certification of a batch of color additive repack.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name of color
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>(As listed in regulations and as certified; or repacker's name, if a mixture)
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>Original lot number
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Certified color content
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>This color obtained from
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Batch number
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Batch weighs ____ pounds
</FP>
<FP-DASH>How stored pending certification
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>(State conditions of storage, with kind and size of containers, location, etc.)
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>Certification requested for use in
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P2>  (State proposed uses)
</P2>
<FP-1>Required fee, $____ (drawn to the order of Food and Drug Administration).
</FP-1>
<P>The accompanying sample was taken after the batch was mixed in accordance with 21 CFR 80.22 and is accurately representative thereof.
</P>
<FRP>(Signed) __________________
</FRP>
<FRP>By ____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Title)  </FRP></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Request for certification of a batch of color additive mixture.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FRP>Date __________
</FRP>
<FP>Office of Cosmetics and Colors (HFS-100),
</FP>
<FP>Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition,
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>5001 Campus Dr., 
</FP>
<FP>College Park, MD 20740
</FP>
<P>In accordance with the regulations promulgated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, we hereby make application for the certification of a batch of color additive mixture.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name of mixture
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(Manufacturer's trade name)
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>Batch number
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(Manufacturer's number)
</FRP>
<FP>Weight of batch ____ pounds
</FP>
<FP>Volume of batch ____ (If liquid) gallons
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Batch manufactured by
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Constituents of the mixture:
</FP>
<FP-2>1. Color(s). (List separately each color and each lot number.)
</FP-2>
<P1><I>Name of color</I>
</P1>
<P2>as certified     Lot number
</P2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P1><I>Quantity used</I>
</P1>
<P2>(<I>in pounds</I>)    <I>Obtained from</I>
</P2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>2. List of diluents. (List separately each diluent.)
</FP-2>
<HD2>Name of diluent
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD2>Quantity used
</HD2>
<FRP>By volume 
</FRP>
<FRP>By weight      (<I>if liquid</I>) 
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Batch mixed as follows
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(Describe in detail)
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>How stored pending certification 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>(State conditions of storage, with kind and size of containers, location, etc.)
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>Certification requested for use in
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P2>  (State proposed uses)
</P2>
<FP-1>Required fee, $____ (drawn to the order of Food and Drug Administration).
</FP-1>
<P>The accompanying sample was taken after the batch was mixed in accordance with 21 CFR 80.22 and is accurately representative thereof.
</P>
<FRP>(Signed) ____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>By __________________
</FRP>
<FRP>____________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Title)  </FRP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15662, Mar. 22, 1977; 44 FR 17658, Mar. 23, 1979; 44 FR 22053, Apr. 13, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 24890, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14479, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.22" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.22   Samples to accompany requests for certification.</HEAD>
<P>A sample of a batch of color additive which is to accompany a request for certification shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Be taken only after such batch has been so thoroughly mixed as to be of uniform composition throughout.
</P>
<P>(b) Held under the control of the person requesting certification until certified.
</P>
<P>(c) Be labeled to show:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the color additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's batch number.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of such batch.
</P>
<P>(4) The name and post-office address of the person requesting certification of such batch.
</P>
<P>(5) Be accompanied by any label or labeling intended to be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.31" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.31   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Commissioner determines, after such investigations as he considers to be necessary, that:
</P>
<P>(1) A request submitted in accordance with § 80.21 appears to contain no untrue statement of a material fact;
</P>
<P>(2) Such color additive conforms to the specifications and any other conditions set forth therefor in parts 81 and 82 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The batch covered by such request otherwise appears to comply with the regulations in this chapter, the Commissioner shall issue to the person who submitted such request a certificate showing the lot number assigned to such batch and that such batch, subject to the terms, conditions, and restrictions prescribed by part 74, 81, and 82 of this chapter, is a certified batch.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commissioner determines, after such investigation as he considers to be necessary, that a request submitted in accordance with § 80.21, or the batch of color additive covered by such request, does not comply with the requirements prescribed by paragraph (a) of this section for the issuance of a certificate, the Commissioner shall refuse to certify such batch and shall give notice thereof to the person who submitted such request, stating his reasons for refusal. Any person who contests such refusal shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.32" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.32   Limitations of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a certificate is obtained through fraud or misrepresentation of a material fact, such certificate shall not be effective, and a color additive from the batch on which such certificate was issued shall be considered to be from a batch that has not been certified in accordance with the regulations in this part. Whenever, the Commissioner learns that any certificate has been obtained through fraud or material misrepresentation, he shall notify the holder of the certificate that it is of no effect.
</P>
<P>(b) If between the time a sample of color additive accompanying a request for certification is taken and the time a certificate covering the batch of such color additive is received by the person to whom it is issued, any such color additive becomes changed in composition, such certificates shall not be effective with respect to such changed color additive and such changed color additive shall be considered to be from a batch that has not been certified in accordance with the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If at any time after a certificate is received by the person to whom it is issued any color additive from the batch covered by such certificate becomes changed in composition, such certificate shall expire with respect to such changed color additive. After such expiration, such color additive shall be considered to be from a batch that has not been certified in accordance with this part; except that such color additive shall not be so considered when used for coloring a food, drug, or cosmetic, or for the purpose of certifying a batch of a mixture in which such color additive was used as an ingredient, or for use in preparing a batch of a mixture for which exemption from certification has been authorized, if such change resulted solely from such use.
</P>
<P>(d) A certificate shall expire with respect to any color additive covered thereby if the package in which such color additive was closed for shipment or delivery is opened. After such expiration such color additive shall be considered to be from a batch that has not been certified, except that such color additive shall not be so considered when the package is opened;
</P>
<P>(1) and such color additive is used, subject to the restrictions prescribed by paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section, in coloring a food, drug, or cosmetic;
</P>
<P>(2) for the purpose of certifying a batch made by repacking such color;
</P>
<P>(3) for the purpose of certifying a batch of a mixture in which such color is used as an ingredient; or
</P>
<P>(4) for the purpose of preparing a batch of a mixture for which exemption from certification has been authorized; or
</P>
<P>(5) when the package is reopened solely for repackaging by the person to whom such certificate was issued.
</P>
<P>(e) A certificate shall not be effective with respect to a package of color additive and such color additive shall be considered to be from a batch that has not been certified if such package is shipped or delivered under a label which does not bear all words, statements, and other information required by § 70.25 of this chapter to appear thereon.
</P>
<P>(f) A certificate shall not be effective with respect to a package of color additive, and such color additive shall be considered to be from a batch that has not been certified if:
</P>
<P>(1) Such package has not been sealed in accordance with § 70.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Such package has been sealed in accordance with § 70.20 of this chapter and the seal has been broken, intentionally or accidentally, unless such seal has been broken for the purpose of using color additive in accordance with § 80.38, or, such package has been opened by a duly authorized representative of the Administration or Department in the performance of his official duties, and he has immediately resealed the package in conformance with § 70.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) A certificate shall not be effective with respect to a package of color additive and such color additive shall be considered to be from a batch that has not been certified if such color additive is used in any manner other than that for which it was certified.
</P>
<P>(h) When the listing or the specifications for a color additive are revoked or amended, the final order effecting the revocation or amendment may specify, in addition to its own effective date, a date on which all certificates for existing batches and portions of batches of such a color additive theretofore issued under such revoked or amended regulations shall cease to be effective; and any such lots of the color additive shall be regarded as uncertified after the date specified unless a new certificate can be and is obtained in conformance with the new regulations. When a certificate thus ceases to be effective for a color additive, any certificates previously issued for a color additive mixture containing that color additive shall cease to be effective on the same date. Use of such color additive or color additive mixture after such specified date without the new certificate in preparing foods, drugs, or cosmetics will result in such food, drugs, or cosmetics being adulterated. When a certified color additive has been used in food, drugs, or cosmetics and the status of the color additive is thereafter changed by amendment or revocation of its listing or specification regulations, such food, drugs, and cosmetics will not be regarded as adulterated by reason of the use of such color additive, unless the hazard to health is such that existing stocks of the foods, drugs, or cosmetics cannot be safely used, in which cases findings to that effect will be made and regulations appropriate for such special cases will be issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.34" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.34   Authority to refuse certification service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When it appears to the Commissioner that a person has:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtained, or attempted to obtain, a certificate through fraud or misrepresentation of a material fact.
</P>
<P>(2) Falsified the records required to be kept by § 80.39; or
</P>
<P>(3) Failed to keep such records, or to make them available, or to accord full opportunity to make inventory of stocks on hand or otherwise to check the correctness of such records, as required by § 80.39; or
</P>
<P>(4) Refused to permit duly authorized employees of the Food and Drug Administration free access to all manufacturing facilities, processes, and formulae involved in the manufacture of color additives and intermediates from which such color additives are derived; he may immediately suspend certification service to such person and may continue such suspension until adequate corrective action has been taken.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who contests suspension of service shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.35" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.35   Color additive mixtures; certification and exemption from certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Color additive mixtures to be certified.</I> Any color additive mixture that contains one or more straight colors listed in part 74 of this chapter, together with any diluents listed in such subparts for use with such straight colors, shall be certified if intended for use in foods, drugs, or cosmetics, or in coloring the human body, as the case may be, subject to any restriction prescribed in parts 70 and 71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Color additive mixtures exempted from certification.</I> A color additive mixture prepared from a previously certified batch of one or more straight colors, with or without any diluent that has been listed in part 73 of this chapter for use in mixtures, shall be exempt from batch certification if the straight color used has not changed in composition in any manner whatsoever since its certification and if it is simply mixed with the approved diluents for exempt mixtures. The label of such color additive mixtures shall not bear the lot number assigned by the Food and Drug Administration to the certified straight color components, but shall bear the manufacturer's control number through which the history of the straight color can be determined.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additions to the list of diluents.</I> A person requesting additions to the list of diluents authorized for the purposes described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall submit a petition in accordance with the provisions of § 71.1 of this chapter. Each such petition shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 70.19 of this chapter, unless there is an advance deposit to be used for prepayment of such fees.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The provisions of § 80.35 with respect only to diluents for use in cosmetic color additive mixtures were stayed, until a regulation is effected listing safe diluents for cosmetic use, including cosmetics which color the human body, 29 FR 18495, Dec. 29, 1964.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.37" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.37   Treatment of batch pending certification.</HEAD>
<P>Immediately after the sample that is to accompany a request for certification of a batch of color additive is taken, the batch shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) Stored in containers of such kind as to prevent change in composition.
</P>
<P>(b) Held under the control of the person requesting certification until certified.
</P>
<P>(c) Marked, by labeling or otherwise, in a manner such that there can be no question as to the identity of the batch and no question that it is not to be used until the requested certificate has been issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.38" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.38   Treatment of batch after certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately upon notification that a batch of color additive has been certified, the person requesting certification thereof shall identify such batch, by labeling, with the certified lot number.
</P>
<P>(b) The person requesting certification shall maintain storage in such manner as to prevent change in composition until such batch has been packaged and labeled as required by §§ 70.20 and 70.25 of this chapter, except that the person requesting certification may use such color additive for the purpose of coloring a food, drug, or cosmetic.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.39" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.28.2.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.39   Records of distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The person to whom a certificate is issued shall keep complete records showing the disposal of all the color additive from the batch covered by such certificate. Upon the request of any officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration or of any other officer or employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services, such person, at all reasonable hours until at least 2 years after disposal of all such color additive, shall make such records available to any such officer or employee, and shall accord to such officer or employee full opportunity to make inventory of stocks of such color additive on hand and otherwise to check the correctness of such records.
</P>
<P>(b) The records required to be kept by paragraph (a) of this section shall show:
</P>
<P>(1) Each quantity used by such person from such batch and the date and kind of such use.
</P>
<P>(2) The date and quantity of each shipment or delivery from such batch, and the name and post-office address of the person to whom such shipment or delivery was made.
</P>
<P>(c) The records required to be kept by paragraph (a) of this section shall be kept separately from all other records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="81" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 81—GENERAL SPECIFICATIONS AND GENERAL RESTRICTIONS FOR PROVISIONAL COLOR ADDITIVES FOR USE IN FOODS, DRUGS, AND COSMETICS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371, 379e, 379e note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 81.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.1   Provisional lists of color additives.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs finds that the following lists of color additives are provisionally listed under section 203(b) of the Color Additive Amendments of 1960 (sec. 203(b), 74 Stat. 405 (21 U.S.C. 379e note)). Except for color additives for which petitions have been filed, progress reports are required by January 1, 1968, and at 6-month intervals thereafter. Specifications for color additives listed in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section appear in the respective designated sections. The listing of color additives in this section is not to be construed as a listing for surgical suture use unless color additive petitions have been submitted for such use or the Commissioner has been notified of studies underway to establish the safety of the color additive for such use. The color additives listed in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section may not be used in products which are intended to be used in the area of the eye. The color additives listed in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section are provisionally listed until the closing dates set forth therein.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Color additives previously and presently subject to certification and provisionally listed for food, drug, and cosmetic use.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Color additive
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Closing date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drug and cosmetic use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lakes (FD&amp;C) (sec. 82.51 of this chapter)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Color additives previously and presently subject to certification and provisionally listed for drug and cosmetic use.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Closing date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lakes (D&amp;C) (Sec. 82.2051 of this chapter)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Color additives previously and presently subject to certification and provisionally listed for use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Closing date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Restrictions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lakes (Ext. D&amp;C) (sec. 82.105(1) of this chapter)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15665, Mar. 22, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 81.1, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.10" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.10   Termination of provisional listings of color additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ext. D&amp;C Yellow Nos. 9 and 10.</I> These colors cannot be produced with any assurance that they do not contain β-naphthylamine as an impurity. While it has been asserted that the two colors can be produced without the impurity named, no method of analysis has been suggested to establish the fact. β-Naphthylamine is a known carcinogen; therefore, there is no scientific evidence that will support a safe tolerance for these colors in products to be used in contact with the skin. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, having concluded that such action is necessary to protect the public health, hereby terminated the provisional listing of Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 9 and Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 10.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FD&amp;C Red No. 1.</I> Results of recent feeding tests of this color additive have demonstrated it to be toxic upon ingestion:
</P>
<P>(1) Groups of 50 rats are being fed diets containing FD&amp;C Red No. 1 at levels of 5 percent, 2 percent, 1 percent, 0.5 percent, and 0 percent. At this stage of the tests, which have now been in progress for from 15 months to 18 months, 116 animals from the 250 being fed FD&amp;C Red No. 1 at various levels and 27 of the 100 controls have died. Of these, 11 being fed at the 5 percent level, 16 being fed at the 2 percent level, 11 being fed at the 1 percent level, and 2 being fed at the 0.5 percent level, have shown liver damage. None of the controls that have died have shown liver damage.
</P>
<P>(2) Groups of 100 mice are being fed diets containing 2 percent, 1 percent, 0.5 percent, and 0.1 percent FD&amp;C Red No. 1, with 400 mice as controls. All mice on dosage levels of 2 percent and 1 percent died before the seventieth week. Gross liver damage has been observed in all groups fed at the 0.5 percent diet and above.
</P>
<P>(3) Groups of 4 dogs are being fed diets containing 2 percent, 1 percent, 0.25 percent, and 0 percent FD&amp;C Red No. 1. Three of the dogs on the 2 percent dosage level died before 32 weeks; the other is living. Three of the dogs on the 1 percent dosage level died or were sacrificed within 13 months. All deceased or sacrificed dogs have shown liver damage grossly and/or microscopically. Deceased dogs on the 1 percent and 2 percent dosage level showed poor physical condition.
</P>
<FP>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs having concluded that ingestion of this color additive over a long period of time would be unsafe, and in order to protect the public health, hereby terminates the provisional listing of FD&amp;C Red No. 1 for use in foods, drugs, and cosmetics.
</FP>
<P>(d) <I>FD&amp;C Red No. 4.</I> Feeding tests of this color additive have been conducted with three species:
</P>
<P>(1) Rats of the Osborne-Mendel and Sprague-Dawley strains were fed FD&amp;C Red No. 4 for 2 years at levels of 5 percent, 2 percent, 1 percent, and 0.5 percent of the diet. No effect was found.
</P>
<P>(2) Mice of the C3Hf and C57BL strains were fed FD&amp;C Red No. 4 for 2 years at levels of 2 percent and 1 percent of the diet. No effect was found.
</P>
<P>(3) Dogs were fed FD&amp;C Red No. 4 at levels of 2 percent and 1 percent of the diet. Adverse effects were found at both levels in the urinary bladder and in the adrenals. Three dogs of five fed on the 2-percent level died after 6 months, 9 months, and 5
<FR>1/2</FR> years on the test. Two of the dogs on the 2-percent level and all five of the dogs on the 1-percent level survived to the completion of the 7 year study.
</P>
<FP>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs has concluded that available data do not permit the establishment of a safe level of use of this color additive in food, ingested drugs and ingested cosmetics. In order to protect the public health, the Commissioner hereby terminates the provisional listing of FD&amp;C Red No. 4 for use in food and ingested drugs. The Commissioner has previously terminated the provisional listing of FD&amp;C Red No. 4 for use in ingested cosmetics. FD&amp;C Red No. 4 is listed for use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics by §§ 74.1304 and 74.2304 of this chapter, respectively. Section 82.304 of this chapter is retained in part 82 of this chapter to permit the use of lakes of FD&amp;C Red No. 4 in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.
</FP>
<P>(e) <I>FD&amp;C Violet No. 1.</I> The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, in order to protect the public health, hereby terminates the provisional listing of FD&amp;C Violet No. 1 for use in foods, drugs, and cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FD&amp;C Red No. 2.</I> The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, in order to protect the public health, hereby terminates the provisional listing of FD&amp;C Red No. 2 for use in food, drugs, and cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Carbon black</I> (<I>prepared by the “impingement” or “channel” process</I>). The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, in order to protect the public health, hereby terminates the provisional listing of carbon black (prepared by the <I>impingement</I> or <I>channel</I> process) for use in food, drugs, and cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>D&amp;C Red Nos. 10, 11, 12, and 13.</I> The petition for these color additives was withdrawn so that there no longer exists a basis for their continued provisional listing. In addition, the Commissioner has learned of the possible contamination of D&amp;C Red No. 10, D&amp;C Red No. 11, D&amp;C Red No. 12, and D&amp;C Red No. 13 with β-naphthyl-amine. The Commissioner concludes that these colors cannot be produced with any reasonable assurance that they will not contain β-naphthylamine as an impurity or not yield β-naphthylamine from the metabolism of subsidiary colors present in them. β-Naphthylamine is a known carcinogen; therefore, there is no scientific evidence that will support a safe tolerance for these colors in drugs or cosmetics. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, upon withdrawal of the petition for their use and in order to protect the public health, hereby terminates the provisional listing of D&amp;C Red No. 10, D&amp;C Red No. 11, D&amp;C Red No. 12, and D&amp;C Red No. 13 for use in drugs and cosmetics, effective December 13, 1977.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 1.</I> The Commissioner has learned of the contamination of Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 1 with 4-aminobiphenyl. The Commissioner concludes that this color cannot be produced with any reasonable assurance that it will not contain 4-aminobiphenyl as an impurity or not yield benzidine from the decomposition of a subsidiary reaction product that might be present in the color. 4-Aminobiphenyl and benzidine are known carcinogens; therefore, there is no scientific evidence that will support a safe tolerance for these colors in drugs or cosmetics. In addition, insufficient data have been submitted to permit establishment of appropriate specifications for the batch certification of the color. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, in order to protect the public health, hereby terminates the provisional listing of Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 1 for use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics, effective December 13, 1977.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Graphite.</I> Data have been developed that show the contamination of graphite with polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons (PNA's). There is no reasonable assurance this color can be produced so that it will not contain PNA's as an impurity. The presence of certain PNA's in graphite would indicate that PNA's known to be carcinogenic to animals and humans may also be present. Therefore, there is no scientific evidence that will support a safe tolerance for this color in drugs or cosmetics. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, in order to protect the public health, hereby terminates the provisional listing of graphite for use in externally applied cosmetics, effective November 29, 1977.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Ext. D&amp;C Green No. 1.</I> The Commissioner concludes that there are inadequate analytical methods to permit certification of the color additive Ext. D&amp;C Green No. 1. In addition, the Commissioner has found that there was a failure to comply with the conditions attached to the postponement of the closing date in accordance with section 203(a)(2) of the transitional provisions of the Color Additive Amendments of 1960. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs hereby terminates the provisional listing of Ext. D&amp;C Green No. 1 for use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics, effective November 29, 1977.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>D&amp;C Orange Nos. 10 and 11.</I> In the absense of a petition to list D&amp;C Orange No. 10 and D&amp;C Orange No. 11 for use in ingested drugs and cosmetics, there no longer exists a basis for provisional listing for such uses. Therefore, FDA is terminating the provisional listing of D&amp;C Orange No. 10 and D&amp;C Orange No. 11 for use in ingested drugs and cosmetics, effective April 28, 1981.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>D&amp;C Blue No. 6.</I> The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, having concluded that unresolved questions remain concerning the chemistry of unidentified minor components, hereby terminates the provisional listing of D&amp;C Blue No. 6 for use in drugs and cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>D&amp;C Green No. 6.</I> In the absence of a petition to list D&amp;C Green No. 6 for use in ingested drugs and cosmetics, there no longer exists a basis for provisional listing for such uses. Accordingly, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs hereby terminates the provisional listing of D&amp;C Green No. 6 for use in ingested drugs and cosmetics, effective March 27, 1981.
</P>
<P>(p) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q)(1) <I>D&amp;C Red No. 19 and D&amp;C Red No. 37.</I> Having concluded that, when ingested, D&amp;C Red No. 19 causes cancer in rats and mice, the agency hereby terminates the provisional listings of D&amp;C Red No. 19 and chemically related D&amp;C Red No. 37 for use in ingested drugs and ingested cosmetics, effective February 4, 1983.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>D&amp;C Red No. 37.</I> In the absence of a petition to list D&amp;C Red No. 37 for external uses, there no longer exists a basis for provisional listing for such uses. Accordingly, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs hereby terminates the provisional listings of D&amp;C Red No. 37 for use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics, effective June 6, 1986.
</P>
<P>(r) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(s) <I>D&amp;C Orange No. 17.</I> Having concluded that, when ingested, D&amp;C Orange No. 17 causes cancer in rats and mice, the agency has terminated the provisional listing of D&amp;C Orange No. 17 for use in ingested drugs and ingested cosmetics, effective March 31, 1983.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>D&amp;C Red No. 8 and D&amp;C Red No. 9.</I> In the absence of a petition to list D&amp;C Red No. 8 and D&amp;C Red No. 9 for mouthwash, dentifrices, and ingested drugs, except ingested drug lip products, there no longer exists a basis for provisional listing for such uses. Accordingly, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs hereby terminates the provisional listings of D&amp;C Red No. 8 and D&amp;C Red No. 9 for use in mouthwash, dentifrices, and ingested drugs, except ingested drug lip products, effective January 6, 1987.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>FD&amp;C Red No. 3.</I> Having concluded that FD&amp;C Red No. 3 causes cancer in rats, the agency hereby terminates the provisional listing of FD&amp;C Red No. 3 for use in cosmetics and externally applied drugs and the provisional listing of the lakes of FD&amp;C Red No. 3 for use in food, drug, and cosmetic products, effective January 29, 1990.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15665, Mar. 22, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 81.10, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.30" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.30   Cancellation of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certificates issued heretofore for colors being removed from the provisional list (§ 81.10(a)) are cancelled and of no effect after December 1, 1960, and use of such color additives in drugs or cosmetics after that date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Certificates issued heretofore for the color additive designated FD&amp;C Red No. 1 are cancelled as of the date of the publication of this Order, and use of this color additive in the manufacture of foods, drugs, or cosmetics after that date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds that no action needs to be taken to remove foods, drugs, and cosmetics containing this color additive from the market on the basis of the scientific evidence before him, taking into account that the additive is not an acute toxic substance and that it is only used in small amounts in foods, drugs, and cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(c) Certificates issued for FD&amp;C Red No. 4 and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect after September 23, 1976 insofar as food, ingested drugs, and ingested cosmetics are concerned, and use of this color additive in the manufacture of food, ingested drugs, and ingested cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration. The certificates shall continue in effect for the use of FD&amp;C Red No. 4 in externally applied drugs and cosmetics. The Commissioner finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before him that no action has to be taken to remove from the market food, ingested drugs and ingested cosmetics containing the color additive.
</P>
<P>(d) Certificates issued for the following color additives and all mixtures containing these color additives are canceled and have no effect after October 4, 1966, and use of such color additives in the manufacture of foods, drugs, or cosmetics after that date will result in adulteration:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>FD&amp;C Green No. 1.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FD&amp;C Green No. 2.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Green No. 7.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Red No. 5.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Red No. 14.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Red No. 18.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Red No. 24.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Red No. 29.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Red No. 35.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Red No. 38.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Orange No. 3.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Orange No. 8.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Orange No. 14.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Orange No. 15.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Orange No. 16.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Blue No. 7.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D&amp;C Black No. 1.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 5.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 6.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 1.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 2.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 3.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 10.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 11.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 13.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 14.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 15.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Blue No. 1.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Blue No. 4.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Orange No. 1.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Orange No. 4.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) Certificates issued for the following color additives and all mixtures containing these color additives are canceled and have no effect after July 1, 1968, and use of such color additives in the manufacture of drugs or cosmetics after that date will result in adulteration:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 3.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 8
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ext. D&amp;C Orange No. 3.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Yellow No. 11 and all mixtures containing this color additive are canceled and have no effect after April 30, 1968, insofar as ingested use is concerned. Use of this color additive in the manufacture of ingested drugs or cosmetics subject to ingestion after that date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(g) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 17, D&amp;C Red No. 31, D&amp;C Red No. 34, D&amp;C Orange No. 4, and D&amp;C Violet No. 2, and all mixtures containing these color additives, are canceled and have no effect after December 31, 1968, insofar as ingested use is concerned. Use of these color additives in the manufacture of ingested drugs or cosmetics subject to ingestion after that date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Certificates issued for FD&amp;C Violet No. 1 and all mixtures containing this color additive are canceled and have no effect after April 10, 1973, and use of such color additive in the manufacture of foods, drugs, or cosmetics after that date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds that no action needs to be taken to remove foods, drugs, and cosmetics containing this color additive from the market on the basis of the scientific evidence before him.
</P>
<P>(i) Certificates issued prior to July 1, 1968, for D&amp;C Brown No. 1 and Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2 and all mixtures containing these colors are canceled and have no effect. This cancellation does not apply to certificates issued after March 15, 1973, for D&amp;C Brown No. 1 and Ext. D&amp;C Violet No. 2, which are provisionally listed in § 81.1(b) and (c) respectively for coloring externally applied cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) Certificates issued for FD&amp;C Red No. 2 and all mixtures containing this color additive are canceled and have no effect after January 28, 1976, and use of this color additive in the manufacture of food, drugs, or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before him, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market food, drugs, and cosmetics containing the color additive.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 10, D&amp;C Red No. 11, D&amp;C Red No. 12, and D&amp;C Red No. 13, their lakes and all mixtures containing these color additives or their lakes are cancelled and have no effect after December 13, 1977, and use of these color additivies in the manufacture of drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before him, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market, drug and cosmetic products containing the color additives.
</P>
<P>(l)(1) Certificates issued for Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 1 and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect after December 13, 1977, and use of this color additive in the manufacture of drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before him, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market drugs and cosmetics containing the color additive.
</P>
<P>(m)(1) Certificates issued for Ext. D&amp;C Green No. 1 and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect after November 29, 1977, and use of the color additive in the manufacture of drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before him, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market drugs and cosmetics containing the color additive.
</P>
<P>(n)(1) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Orange No. 10, D&amp;C Orange No. 11, their lakes, and all mixtures containing these color additives are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to their use in ingested drugs and cosmetics after April 28, 1981 and use of these color additives in the manufacture of ingested drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market drugs and cosmetics to which the color additives were added on or before April 28, 1981.
</P>
<P>(o)(1) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Blue No. 6 and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled insofar as its use in drugs and cosmetics is concerned and have no effect after December 13, 1977, and use of the color additive in the manufacture of drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration. The color will continue to be certified for use in the coloring of surgical sutures.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before him, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market drugs and cosmetics containing the color additive.
</P>
<P>(p)(1) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Green No. 6, its lakes and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to their use in ingested drugs and cosmetics after May 4, 1982 and use of the color additive in the manufacture of ingested drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market ingested drugs and cosmetics containing the color additive.
</P>
<P>(q) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(r)(1) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 19 and D&amp;C Red No. 37, their lakes, and all mixtures containing these color additives are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to their use in ingested drugs and cosmetics after February 4, 1983, and use of these color additives in the manufacture of ingested drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency finds, on the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market ingested drugs and cosmetics to which D&amp;C Red No. 19 and D&amp;C Red No. 37 were added on or before February 4, 1983, or externally applied drugs and cosmetics to which D&amp;C Red No. 37 was added on or before June 6, 1986.
</P>
<P>(3) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 37, its lakes, and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to its use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics after June 6, 1986, and use of this color additive in the manufacture of externally applied drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(4) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 19, its lakes, and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to its use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics after July 15, 1988, and use of this color in the manufacture of externally applied drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency finds, on the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market externally applied drugs and cosmetics to which D&amp;C Red No. 19 was added on or before July 15, 1988.
</P>
<P>(s)(1) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 8 and D&amp;C Red No. 9, their lakes, and all mixtures containing these color additives are canceled and have no effect as pertains to their use in mouthwash, dentifrices, and ingested drugs, except ingested drug lip products, after January 6, 1987, and use of these color additives in the manufacture of mouthwash, dentifrices, and ingested drugs, except ingested drug lip products, after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market mouthwash, dentifrices, and ingested drugs to which the color additives were added on or before January 6, 1987. 
</P>
<P>(3) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 8, and D&amp;C Red No. 9, their lakes, and all mixtures containing these color additives are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to their use in ingested drug and cosmetic lip products and in externally applied drugs and cosmetics after July 15, 1988, and use of these color additives in the manufacture of ingested drugs and cosmetic lip products and in externally applied drugs and cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency finds, on the basis of the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market ingested drug and cosmetic lip products and externally applied drugs and cosmetics to which the color additives were added on or before July 15, 1988.
</P>
<P>(t)(1) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Orange No. 17, its lakes, and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to its use in ingested drugs and ingested cosmetics after March 31, 1983 and use of this color additive in the manufacture of ingested drugs or ingested cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency finds, on the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market drugs and cosmetics to which the color additive was added on or before March 31, 1983.
</P>
<P>(3) Certificates issued for D&amp;C Orange No. 17, its lakes and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to its use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics after July 15, 1988, and use of this color in the manufacture of externally applied drugs or cosmetics after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency finds, on the scientific evidence before it, that no action has to be taken to remove from the market externally applied drugs and cosmetics to which D&amp;C Orange No. 17 was added on or before July 15, 1988.
</P>
<P>(u)(1) Certificates issued for FD&amp;C Red No. 3 and all mixtures containing this color additive are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to their use in cosmetics and externally applied drugs after January 29, 1990. Certificates issued for FD&amp;C Red No. 3 lakes and all mixtures containing these lakes are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to their use in food, drugs, and cosmetics after January 29, 1990. Certificates issued for D&amp;C Red No. 3 lakes and all mixtures containing those lakes are cancelled and have no effect as pertains to their use in drugs and cosmetics after January 29, 1990. Use of this color additve in the manufacture of cosmetics and of externally applied drugs and any use of the lakes of FD&amp;C Red No. 3 (including the lakes of D&amp;C Red No. 3) after this date will result in adulteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency finds, on the scientific evidence before it, that no action must be taken to remove from the market food, drugs, and cosmetics to which the provisionally listed color additive or its lakes were added on or before January 29, 1990.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 15665, Mar. 22, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 81.30, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="82" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 82—LISTING OF CERTIFIED PROVISIONALLY LISTED COLORS AND SPECIFICATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371, 379e, 379e note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 15669, Mar. 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a)-(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>alumina</I> means a suspension in water of precipitated aluminum hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>blanc fixe</I> means a suspension in water of precipitated barium sulfate.
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>gloss white</I> means a suspension in water of co-precipitated aluminum hydroxide and barium sulfate.
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>mixed oxides</I> means the sum of the quantities of aluminum, iron, calcium, and magnesium (in whatever combination they may exist in a coal-tar color) calculated as aluminum trioxide, ferric oxide, calcium oxide, and magnesium oxide.
</P>
<P>(k)-(m) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) The term <I>externally applied drugs and cosmetics</I> means drugs and cosmetics which are applied only to external parts of the body and not to the lips or any body surface covered by mucous membrane.
</P>
<P>(o)-(p) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q) The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall be applicable also to such terms when used in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.5" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.5   General specifications for straight colors.</HEAD>
<P>No batch of a straight color listed in subpart B, C, or D shall be certified under this part unless:
</P>
<P>(a) It is free from all impurities (other than those named in paragraph (b) of this section or in the specifications set forth in such paragraph for such color) to the extent that such impurities can be avoided by good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(b) It conforms to the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a straight color listed in subpart B:
</P>
<P>(i) Lead (as Pb), not more than 0.001 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Arsenic (as As<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>), not more than 0.00014 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Heavy metals (except Pb and As) (by precipitation as sulfides), not more than trace.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a straight color listed in subpart C or D:
</P>
<P>(i) Lead (as Pb), not more than 0.002 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Arsenic (as As<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>), not more than 0.0002 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Heavy metals (except Pb and As) (by precipitation as sulfides), not more than 0.003 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a straight color which contains a barium salt listed in subpart C or D—soluble barium (in dilute HCl) (as BaCl<E T="52">2</E>), not more than 0.05 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.6" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.1.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.6   Certifiable mixtures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A batch of a mixture which contains no straight color listed in subpart C or D may be certified for use in food, drugs and cosmetics, if:
</P>
<P>(1) Each coal-tar color used as an ingredient in mixing such batch is from a previously certified batch and such color has not changed in composition in any manner whatever since such previous certification, except by mixing into such batch of mixture;
</P>
<P>(2) Each diluent in such batch of mixture is harmless and suitable for use therein; and
</P>
<P>(3) No diluent (except resins, natural gum, pectin and, in the case of mixtures which are aqueous solutions or aqueous pastes, sodium benzoate in a quantity of not more than 
<FR>1/10</FR> of 1 percent) in such mixture is a nonnutritive substance, unless such mixture is for external application to shell eggs, or for use in coloring a food specified in the requests for certification of such batch submitted in accordance with § 80.21 of this chapter, and such diluent, in the usual process of manufacturing such food, is removed and does not become a component of such food.
</P>
<P>(b) A batch of a mixture which contains no straight color listed in subpart D, or which contains a diluent not permitted by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, may be certified in accordance with the provisions of this part, for use only in drugs and cosmetics, if:
</P>
<P>(1) Each coal-tar color used as an ingredient in mixing such batch is from a previously certified batch and such color has not changed in composition in any manner whatever since such previous certification, except by mixing into such batch of mixture.
</P>
<P>(2) Each diluent in such batch of mixture is harmless and suitable for use therein.
</P>
<P>(c) A batch of a mixture which contains a straight color listed in subpart D may be certified in accordance with the provisions of this part, for use only in externally applied drugs and cosmetics, if:
</P>
<P>(1) Each coal-tar color used as an ingredient in mixing such batch is from a previously certified batch and such color has not changed in composition in any manner whatever since such previous certification, except by mixing into such batch of mixture; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each diluent in such batch of mixture is harmless and suitable for use therein.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Foods, Drugs, and Cosmetics</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.50" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.50   General.</HEAD>
<P>A batch of a straight color listed in this subpart may be certified, in accordance with the provisions of the regulations in this part, for use in food, drugs, and cosmetics, if such batch conforms to the requirements of § 82.5 and to the specifications in this subpart set forth for such color.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.51" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.51   Lakes (FD&amp;C).</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General.</I> Any lake made by extending on a substratum of alumina, a salt prepared from one of the certified water-soluble straight colors hereinbefore listed in this subpart by combining such color with the basic radical aluminum or calcium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specifications.</I> Prepared from previously certified colors listed in this subpart.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Soluble chlorides and sulfates (as sodium salts), not more than 2.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Inorganic matter, insoluble HCl, not more than 0.5 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Each lake made as prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section shall be considered to be a straight color and to be listed therein under the name which is formed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The listed name of the color from which the lake is prepared;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the basic radical combined in such color; and
</P>
<P>(3) The word “Lake”.
</P>
<FP>(For example, the name of a lake prepared by extending the aluminum salt prepared from FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 upon the substratum would be FD&amp;C Blue No. 1—Aluminum Lake.)


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.101   FD&amp;C Blue No. 1.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 1 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.101(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.102" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.102   FD&amp;C Blue No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive FD&amp;C Blue No. 2 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.102(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 5261, Feb. 4, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.203" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.203   FD&amp;C Green No. 3.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive FD&amp;C Green No. 3 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.203(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 52144, Nov. 19, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.304" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.304   FD&amp;C Red No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive FD&amp;C Red No. 4 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1304(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. FD&amp;C Red No. 4 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.705" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.705   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.705 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24519, July 7, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.706" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.2.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.706   FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The color additive FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.706 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) All lakes including current D&amp;C external and D&amp;C lakes of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall be manufactured from previously certified batches of the straight color additive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 21509, June 8, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Drugs and Cosmetics</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1050" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1050   General.</HEAD>
<P>A batch of a straight color listed in this subpart may be certified, in accordance with the provisions of this part, for use only in drugs and cosmetics, if such batch conforms to the requirements of § 82.5 and to the specifications set forth in this subpart for such color.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1051" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1051   Lakes (D&amp;C).</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General.</I> Any lake, other than those listed in subpart B, made by extending on a substratum of alumina, blanc fixe, gloss white, clay, titanium dioxide, zinc oxide, talc, rosin, aluminum benzoate, calcium carbonate, or any combination of two or more of these, (i) one of the straight colors (except lakes) listed in subpart B or hereinbefore listed in this subpart, which color is a salt in which is combined the basic radical sodium, potassium, aluminum, barium, calcium, strontium, or zirconium; or (ii) a salt prepared from one of the straight colors (except lakes) listed in subpart B, or hereinbefore listed in this subpart, by combining such color with the basic radical sodium, potassium, aluminum, barium, calcium, strontium, or zirconium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specifications.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ether extracts, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soluble chlorides and sulfates (as sodium salts), not more than 3.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Intermediates, not more than 0.2 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Each lake made as prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section shall be considered to be a straight color and to be listed therein under the name which is formed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The listed name of the color from which the lake is prepared, except that if such name contains the symbol “FD&amp;C” such symbol shall be changed to “D&amp;C”;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the basic radical combined in such color; and
</P>
<P>(3) The word “Lake.”
</P>
<FP>(For example, the name of a lake prepared by extending the color D&amp;C Red No. 9 upon a substratum is “D&amp;C Red No. 9—Barium Lake”, and a lake prepared by extending the aluminum salt prepared from FD&amp;C Green No. 1 upon a substratum other than alumina is “D&amp;C Green No. 1—Aluminum Lake”.)


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1104" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1104   D&amp;C Blue No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Blue No. 4 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1104(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Blue No. 4 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1205" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1205   D&amp;C Green No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 5 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1205(a)(1) and (b)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 24285, June 4, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1206" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1206   D&amp;C Green No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Green No. 6 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1206 (a) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Green No. 6 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 14147, Apr. 2, 1982, as amended at 51 FR 9785, Mar. 21, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1254" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1254   D&amp;C Orange No. 4.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 4 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1254(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Orange No. 4 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52396, Sept. 30, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1255" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1255   D&amp;C Orange No. 5.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 5 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1255(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Orange No. 5 is restricted to the uses described in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 5. may be safely used for coloring externally applied drugs in amounts not exceeding 5 milligrams per daily dose of the drug. The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 5 may be safely used for coloring lipsticks and other cosmetics intended to be applied to the lips in amounts not exceeding 5.0 percent by weight of the finished cosmetic products, and for coloring mouthwashes, dentifrices, and externally applied cosmetics in amounts consistent with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 13343, Apr. 4, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1260" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1260   D&amp;C Orange No. 10.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 10 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements to § 74.1260(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Orange No. 10 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 18954, Mar. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1261" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1261   D&amp;C Orange No. 11.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Orange No. 11 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1261(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Orange No. 11 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 18954, Mar. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1306" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1306   D&amp;C Red No. 6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 6 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1306 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 6 may be safely used for coloring drugs such that the combined total of D&amp;C Red No. 6 and D&amp;C Red No. 7 does not exceed 5 milligrams per daily dose of the drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57691, Dec. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1307" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1307   D&amp;C Red No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 7 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1307 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 7 may be safely used for coloring drugs such that the combined total of D&amp;C Red No. 6 and D&amp;C Red No. 7 does not exceed 5 milligrams per daily dose of the drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57691, Dec. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1317" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1317   D&amp;C Red No. 17.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 17 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1317 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Red No. 17 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1321" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1321   D&amp;C Red No. 21.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 21 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1321 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 53847, Nov. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1322" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1322   D&amp;C Red No. 22.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 22 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1322 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 53847, Nov. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1327" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1327   D&amp;C Red No. 27.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 27 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1327 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42568, Sept. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1328" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1328   D&amp;C Red No. 28.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 28 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1328 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 42568, Sept. 28, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1330" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1330   D&amp;C Red No. 30.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 30 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1330 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 22511, May 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1331" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1331   D&amp;C Red No. 31.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 31 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1331(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Red No. 31 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1333" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1333   D&amp;C Red No. 33.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The color additive D&amp;C Red. No. 33 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1333(a) (1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) All lakes of D&amp;C Red. No. 33 shall be manufactured from previously certified batches of the straight color additive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 33121, Aug. 30, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1334" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1334   D&amp;C Red No. 34.</HEAD>
<P>Calcium salt of 3-hydroxy-4-[(1-sulfo-2 -naphthalenyl)azol-2-naphthalenecarboxylic acid.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sum of volatile matter (at 135 °C) and chlorides and sulfates (calculated as sodium salts), not more than 15 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Amino-1-naphthalenesulfonic acid, calcium salt, not more than 0.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxy-2-naphthoic acid, not more than 0.4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subsidiary colors, not more than 4 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total color not less than 85 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1336" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1336   D&amp;C Red No. 36.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The color additive D&amp;C Red No. 36 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1336 (a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) All lakes of D&amp;C Red No. 36 shall be manufactured from previously certified batches of the straight color additive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29031, Aug. 2, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1602" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1602   D&amp;C Violet No. 2.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Violet No. 2 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1602(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1707" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1707   D&amp;C Yellow No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1707(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1708" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1708   D&amp;C Yellow No. 8.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1707(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. D&amp;C Yellow No. 8 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.1710" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.3.98.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.1710   D&amp;C Yellow No. 10.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive D&amp;C Yellow No. 10 shall conform in identity and specifications to the requirements of § 74.1710(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 39220, Aug. 30, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Externally Applied Drugs and Cosmetics</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.2050" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.2050   General.</HEAD>
<P>A batch of a straight color listed in this subpart may be certified, in accordance with the provisions of this part, for use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics, if such batch conforms to the requirements of § 82.5 and to the specifications set forth in this subpart for such color.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.2051" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.2051   Lakes (Ext. D&amp;C).</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General.</I> Any lake made by extending on a substratum of alumina, blanc fixe, gloss white, clay, titanium dioxide, zinc oxide, talc, rosin, aluminum benzoate, calcium carbonate, or on any combination of two or more of these (i) one of the straight colors hereinbefore listed in this subpart, which color is a salt in which is combined the basic radical sodium, potassium, barium, or calcium; or (ii) a salt prepared from one of the straight colors hereinbefore listed in this subpart by combining such color with the basic radical sodium, potassium, aluminum, barium, calcium, strontium, or zirconium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specifications.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ether extracts, not more than 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soluble chlorides and sulfates (as sodium salts), not more than 3.0 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Intermediates, not more than 0.2 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Each lake made as prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section shall be considered to be a straight color and to be listed therein under the name which is formed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The listed name of the color from which the lake is prepared;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the basic radical combined in such color; and
</P>
<P>(3) The word “Lake.” (For example, the name of a lake prepared by extending the color Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 2 upon a substratum is “Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 2—Calcium Lake,” and a lake prepared by extending the barium salt prepared from Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 2 upon the substratum is “Ext. D&amp;C Red No. 2—Barium Lake.”)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 82.2707a" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.30.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 82.2707a   Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7.</HEAD>
<P>The color additive Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 shall conform in identity with specifications to the requirements of § 74.1707a(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter. Ext. D&amp;C Yellow No. 7 is restricted to use in externally applied drugs and cosmetics.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="83-98" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 83-98 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="99" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 99—DISSEMINATION OF INFORMATION ON UNAPPROVED/NEW USES FOR MARKETED DRUGS, BIOLOGICS, AND DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 355, 360, 360c, 360e, 360aa-360aaa-6, 371, and 374; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 64581, Nov. 20, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.1" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.1.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the dissemination of information on human drugs, including biologics, and devices where the information to be disseminated:
</P>
<P>(1) Concerns the safety, effectiveness, or benefit of a use that is not included in the approved labeling for a drug or device approved by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing or in the statement of intended use for a device cleared by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Will be disseminated to a health care practitioner, pharmacy benefit manager, health insurance issuer, group health plan, or Federal or State Government agency.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to a manufacturer's dissemination of information that responds to a health care practitioner's unsolicited request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.3" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.1.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> or <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part, a <I>clinical investigation</I> is an investigation in humans that tests a specific clinical hypothesis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Group health plan</I> means an employee welfare benefit plan (as defined in section 3(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002(1))) to the extent that the plan provides medical care (as defined in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section and including items and services paid for as medical care) to employees or their dependents (as defined under the terms of the plan) directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise. For purposes of this part, the term <I>medical care</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Amounts paid for the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or amounts paid for the purpose of affecting any structure or function of the body;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts paid for transportation primarily for and essential to medical care referred to in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Amounts paid for insurance covering medical care referred to in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Health care practitioner</I> means a physician or other individual who is a health care provider and licensed under State law to prescribe drugs or devices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Health insurance issuer</I> means an insurance company, insurance service, or insurance organization (including a health maintenance organization, as defined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section) which is licensed to engage in the business of insurance in a State and which is subject to State law which regulates insurance (within the meaning of section 514(b)(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1144(b)(2))).
</P>
<P>(1) Such term does not include a group health plan.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, the term <I>health maintenance organization</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A Federally qualified health maintenance organization (as defined in section 1301(a) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300e(a)));
</P>
<P>(ii) An organization recognized under State law as a health maintenance organization; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A similar organization regulated under State law for solvency in the same manner and to the same extent as such a health maintenance organization.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Manufacturer</I> means a person who manufactures a drug or device or who is licensed by such person to distribute or market the drug or device. For purposes of this part, the term may also include the sponsor of the approved, licensed, or cleared drug or device.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>New use</I> means a use that is not included in the approved labeling of an approved drug or device, or a use that is not included in the statement of intended use for a cleared device.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pharmacy benefit manager</I> means a person or entity that has, as its principal focus, the implementation of one or more device and/or prescription drug benefit programs.
</P>
<P>(i) A <I>reference publication</I> is a publication that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has not been written, edited, excerpted, or published specifically for, or at the request of, a drug or device manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(2) Has not been edited or significantly influenced by such a manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not solely distributed through such a manufacturer, but is generally available in bookstores or other distribution channels where medical textbooks are sold;
</P>
<P>(4) Does not focus on any particular drug or device of a manufacturer that disseminates information under this part and does not have a primary focus on new uses of drugs or devices that are marketed or are under investigation by a manufacturer supporting the dissemination of information; and
</P>
<P>(5) Does not present materials that are false or misleading.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Scientific or medical journal</I> means a scientific or medical publication:
</P>
<P>(1) That is published by an organization that has an editorial board, that uses experts who have demonstrated expertise in the subject of an article under review by the organization and who are independent of the organization, to review and objectively select, reject, or provide comments about proposed articles, and that has a publicly stated policy, to which the organization adheres, of full disclosure of any conflict of interest or biases for all authors or contributors involved with the journal or organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Whose articles are peer-reviewed and published in accordance with the regular peer-review procedures of the organization;
</P>
<P>(3) That is generally recognized to be of national scope and reputation;
</P>
<P>(4) That is indexed in the Index Medicus of the National Library of Medicine of the National Institutes of Health; and
</P>
<P>(5) That is not in the form of a special supplement that has been funded in whole or in part by one or more manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Supplemental application</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For drugs, a supplement to support a new use to an approved new drug application;
</P>
<P>(2) For biologics, a supplement to an approved license application;
</P>
<P>(3) For devices that are the subject of a cleared 510(k) submission and devices that are exempt from the 510(k) process, a new 510(k) submission to support a new use or, for devices that are the subject of an approved premarket approval application, a supplement to support a new use to an approved premarket approval application.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Information To Be Disseminated</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.101" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.2.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.101   Information that may be disseminated.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer may disseminate written information concerning the safety, effectiveness, or benefit of a use not described in the approved labeling for an approved drug or device or in the statement of intended use for a cleared device, provided that the manufacturer complies with all other relevant requirements under this part. Such information shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be about a drug or device that has been approved, licensed, or cleared for marketing by FDA;
</P>
<P>(2) Be in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) An unabridged reprint or copy of an article, peer-reviewed by experts qualified by scientific training or experience to evaluate the safety or effectiveness of the drug or device involved, which was published in a scientific or medical journal. In addition, the article must be about a clinical investigation with respect to the drug or device and must be considered to be scientifically sound by the experts described in this paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An unabridged reference publication that includes information about a clinical investigation with respect to the drug or device, which experts qualified by scientific training or experience to evaluate the safety or effectiveness of the drug or device that is the subject of the clinical investigation would consider to be scientifically sound;
</P>
<P>(3) Not pose a significant risk to the public health;
</P>
<P>(4) Not be false or misleading. FDA may consider information disseminated under this part to be false or misleading if, among other things, the information includes only favorable publications when unfavorable publications exist or excludes articles, reference publications, or other information required under § 99.103(a)(4) or the information presents conclusions that clearly cannot be supported by the results of the study; and
</P>
<P>(5) Not be derived from clinical research conducted by another manufacturer unless the manufacturer disseminating the information has the permission of such other manufacturer to make the dissemination.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will find that all journal articles and reference publications (as those terms are defined in § 99.3) are scientifically sound except:
</P>
<P>(i) Letters to the editor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Abstracts of a publication;
</P>
<P>(iii) Those regarding Phase 1 trials in healthy people;
</P>
<P>(iv) Flagged reference publications that contain little or no substantive discussion of the relevant clinical investigation; and
</P>
<P>(v) Those regarding observations in four or fewer people that do not reflect any systematic attempt to collect data, unless the manufacturer demonstrates to FDA that such reports could help guide a physician in his/her medical practice.
</P>
<P>(2) A reprint or copy of an article or reference publication is “unabridged” only if it retains the same appearance, form, format, content, or configuration as the original article or publication. Such reprint, copy of an article, or reference publication shall not be disseminated with any information that is promotional in nature. A manufacturer may cite a particular discussion about a new use in a reference publication in the explanatory or other information attached to or otherwise accompanying the reference publication under § 99.103.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.103" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.2.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.103   Mandatory statements and information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any information disseminated under this part shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A prominently displayed statement disclosing:
</P>
<P>(i) For a drug, “This information concerns a use that has not been approved by the Food and Drug Administration.” For devices, the statement shall read, “This information concerns a use that has not been approved or cleared by the Food and Drug Administration.” If the information to be disseminated includes both an approved and unapproved use or uses or a cleared and uncleared use or uses, the manufacturer shall modify the statement to identify the unapproved or uncleared new use or uses. The manufacturer shall permanently affix the statement to the front of each reprint or copy of an article from a scientific or medical journal and to the front of each reference publication disseminated under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) If applicable, the information is being disseminated at the expense of the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(iii) If applicable, the names of any authors of the information who were employees of, or consultants to, or received compensation from the manufacturer, or who had a significant financial interest in the manufacturer during the time that the study that is the subject of the dissemination was conducted up through 1 year after the time the article/reference publication was written and published;
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, a statement that there are products or treatments that have been approved or cleared for the use that is the subject of the information being disseminated; and
</P>
<P>(v) The identification of any person that has provided funding for the conduct of a study relating to the new use of a drug or device for which such information is being disseminated; and
</P>
<P>(2) The official labeling for the drug or device;
</P>
<P>(3) A bibliography of other articles (that concern reports of clinical investigations both supporting and not supporting the new use) from a scientific reference publication or scientific or medical journal that have been previously published about the new use of the drug or device covered by the information that is being disseminated, unless the disseminated information already includes such a bibliography; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any additional information required by FDA under § 99.301(a)(2). Such information shall be attached to the front of the disseminated information or, if attached to the back of the disseminated information, its presence shall be made known to the reader by a sticker or notation on the front of the disseminated information and may consist of:
</P>
<P>(i) Objective and scientifically sound information pertaining to the safety or effectiveness of the new use of the drug or device and which FDA determines is necessary to provide objectivity and balance. This may include information that the manufacturer has submitted to FDA or, where appropriate, a summary of such information and any other information that can be made publicly available; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An objective statement prepared by FDA, based on data or other scientifically sound information, bearing on the safety or effectiveness of the new use of the drug or device.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(4) of this section, the statements, bibliography, and other information required by this section shall be attached to such disseminated information.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, factors to be considered in determining whether a statement is “prominently displayed” may include, but are not limited to, type size, font, layout, contrast, graphic design, headlines, spacing, and any other technique to achieve emphasis or notice. The required statements shall be outlined, boxed, highlighted, or otherwise graphically designed and presented in a manner that achieves emphasis or notice and is distinct from the other information being disseminated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.105" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.2.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.105   Recipients of information.</HEAD>
<P>A manufacturer disseminating information on a new use under this part may only disseminate that information to a health care practitioner, a pharmacy benefit manager, a health insurance issuer, a group health plan, or a Federal or State Government agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Manufacturer's Submissions, Requests, and Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.201" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.3.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.201   Manufacturer's submission to the agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sixty days before disseminating any written information concerning the safety, effectiveness, or benefit of a new use for a drug or device, a manufacturer shall submit to the agency:
</P>
<P>(1) An identical copy of the information to be disseminated, including any information (e.g., the bibliography) and statements required under § 99.103;
</P>
<P>(2) Any other clinical trial information which the manufacturer has relating to the effectiveness of the new use, any other clinical trial information that the manufacturer has relating to the safety of the new use, any reports of clinical experience pertinent to the safety of the new use, and a summary of such information. For purposes of this part, clinical trial information includes, but is not limited to, published papers and abstracts, even if not intended for dissemination, and unpublished manuscripts, abstracts, and data analyses from completed or ongoing investigations. The reports of clinical experience required under this paragraph shall include case studies, retrospective reviews, epidemiological studies, adverse event reports, and any other material concerning adverse effects or risks reported for or associated with the new use. If the manufacturer has no knowledge of clinical trial information relating to the safety or effectiveness of the new use or reports of clinical experience pertaining to the safety of the new use, the manufacturer shall provide a statement to that effect;
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of the manufacturer's method of selecting the articles for the bibliography (e.g., the databases or sources and criteria (i.e., subject headings/keywords) used to generate the bibliography and the time period covered by the bibliography); and
</P>
<P>(4) If the manufacturer has not submitted a supplemental application for the new use, one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the manufacturer has completed studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for the new use:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the protocol for each completed study or, if such protocol was submitted to an investigational new drug application or an investigational device exemption, the number(s) for the investigational new drug application or investigational device exemption covering the new use, the date of submission of the protocol(s), the protocol number(s), and the date of any amendments to the protocol(s); and
</P>
<P>(B) A certification stating that, “On behalf of [insert manufacturer's name], I certify that [insert manufacturer's name] has completed the studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for [insert new use] and will submit a supplemental application for such new use to the Food and Drug Administration no later than [insert date no later than 6 months from date that dissemination of information under this part can begin]”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the manufacturer has planned studies that will be needed for the submission of a supplemental application for the new use:
</P>
<P>(A) The proposed protocols and schedule for conducting the studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for the new use. The protocols shall comply with all applicable requirements in parts 312 of this chapter (investigational new drug applications) and 812 of this chapter (investigational device exemptions). The schedule shall include the projected dates on which the manufacturer expects the principal study events to occur (e.g., initiation and completion of patient enrollment, completion of data collection, completion of data analysis, and submission of the supplemental application); and
</P>
<P>(B) A certification stating that, “On behalf of [insert manufacturer's name], I certify that [insert manufacturer's name] will exercise due diligence to complete the clinical studies necessary to submit a supplemental application for [insert new use] and will submit a supplemental application for such new use to the Food and Drug Administration no later than [insert date no later than 36 months from date that dissemination of information under this part can begin or no later than such time period as FDA may specify pursuant to an extension granted under § 99.303(a)];” or
</P>
<P>(iii) An application for exemption from the requirement of a supplemental application; or
</P>
<P>(5) If the manufacturer has submitted a supplemental application for the new use, a cross-reference to that supplemental application.
</P>
<P>(b) The manufacturer's attorney, agent, or other authorized official shall sign the submission and certification statement or application for exemption. If the manufacturer does not have a place of business in the United States, the submission and certification statement or application for exemption shall contain the signature, name, and address of the manufacturer's attorney, agent, or other authorized official who resides or maintains a place of business in the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer shall send three copies of the submission and certification statement or application for exemption to FDA. The outside of the shipping container shall be marked as “Submission for the Dissemination of Information on an Unapproved/New Use.” The manufacturer shall send the submission and certification statement or application for exemption to the appropriate FDA component listed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) For biological products and devices regulated by the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002;
</P>
<P>(2) For human drug products, biological products, and devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, the Division of Drug Marketing, Advertising, and Communications (HFD-42), Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857; or
</P>
<P>(3) For medical devices, the Promotion and Advertising Policy Staff (HFZ-302), Office of Compliance, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 2098 Gaither Rd., Rockville, MD 20850.
</P>
<P>(d) The 60-day period shall begin when FDA receives a manufacturer's submission, including, where applicable, a certification statement or an application for an exemption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 64581, Nov. 20, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 14980, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18090, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.203" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.3.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.203   Request to extend the time for completing planned studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer may request, prior to or at the time of making a submission to FDA under § 99.201, that FDA extend the 36-month time period for completing the studies and submitting a supplemental application for the new use that is the subject of the information to be disseminated. Such request must set forth the reasons that such studies cannot be completed and submitted in a supplemental application within 36 months.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer who has certified that it will complete the studies necessary to submit a supplemental application for a new use within a specified period of time from the date that dissemination of information under this part can begin under § 99.201(a)(4)(ii), but later finds that it will be unable to complete such studies and submit a supplemental application within that time period may request an extension of time from FDA. The manufacturer, in its request for extension, shall identify the product, the new use, and shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the study or studies that cannot be completed on time and explain why the study or studies cannot be completed on time;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the current status of the incomplete study or studies and summarize the work conducted, including the dates on which principal events concerning the study or studies occurred; and
</P>
<P>(3) Estimate the additional time needed to complete the studies and submit a supplemental application. The requested extension shall not exceed an additional 24 months.
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer shall send three copies of the request for extension to the same FDA office that received the manufacturer's initial submission and certification statement. The outside of the envelope shall be marked as “Request for Time Extension—Dissemination of Information on an Unapproved Use.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.205" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.3.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.205   Application for exemption from the requirement to file a supplemental application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In certain circumstances, described in paragraph (b) of this section, a manufacturer may submit an application for an exemption from the requirement to submit a supplemental application for a new use for purposes of disseminating information on that use.
</P>
<P>(b) The manufacturer's application for an exemption shall identify the basis for the proposed exemption and shall include materials demonstrating that it would be economically prohibitive or that it would be unethical to conduct the studies necessary to submit a supplemental application for the new use.
</P>
<P>(1) If the basis for the manufacturer's application for exemption is that it would be economically prohibitive to incur the costs necessary to submit a supplemental application for a new use, the manufacturer shall, at a minimum, provide:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence explaining why existing data characterizing the safety and effectiveness of the drug or device, including data from the study described in the information to be disseminated, are not adequate to support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use. Such evidence shall include an analysis of all data relevant to the safety and effectiveness of the use, a summary of those data, and any documentation resulting from prior discussions with the agency concerning the adequacy of the existing data; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evidence demonstrating that the cost of the study or studies for the new use reasonably exceeds the expected revenue from the new use minus the costs of goods sold and marketing and administrative expenses attributable to the new use of the product. Such evidence shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the additional studies that the manufacturer believes are necessary to support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use, including documentation from prior discussions, if any, with the agency concerning the studies that would be needed, and an estimate of the projected costs for such studies;
</P>
<P>(B) The expected patient population for the new use;
</P>
<P>(C) The expected revenue for the new use, including an explanation of the price at which the drug or device will be sold;
</P>
<P>(D) Any exclusivity for the drug or device for the new use; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any other information that the manufacturer has showing that conducting the studies on the new use would be economically prohibitive; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An attestation by a responsible individual of the manufacturer or an individual acting on the manufacturer's behalf verifying that the estimates included with the submission are accurate and were prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting procedures. The data underlying and supporting the estimates shall be made available to FDA upon request. Alternatively, a manufacturer may submit a report of an independent certified public accountant in accordance with the Statement of Standards for Attestation established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants and agreed upon procedures performed with respect to the estimates submitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the basis for the manufacturer's application for exemption is that it would be unethical to conduct the studies necessary for the supplemental application for a new use, the manufacturer shall provide evidence:
</P>
<P>(i) Explaining why existing data characterizing the safety and effectiveness of the drug or device, including data from the study described in the information to be disseminated, are not adequate to support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use. Such evidence shall include an analysis of all data relevant to the safety and effectiveness of the new use, a summary of those data, and any documentation resulting from prior discussions with the agency concerning the adequacy of the existing data; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Explaining why it would be unethical to conduct the further studies that would be necessary for the approval of the new use. Such evidence shall establish that, notwithstanding the insufficiency of available data to support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use, the data are persuasive to the extent that withholding the drug or device in a controlled study (e.g., by providing no therapy, a placebo, an alternative therapy, or an alternative dose) would pose an unreasonable risk of harm to human subjects. In assessing the appropriateness of conducting studies to support the new use, the manufacturer may provide evidence showing that the new use is broadly accepted as current standard medical treatment or therapy. The manufacturer shall also address the possibility of conducting studies in different populations or of modified design (e.g., adding the new therapy to existing treatments or using an alternative dose if monotherapy studies could not be conducted).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—FDA Action on Submissions, Requests, and Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.301" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.4.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.301   Agency action on a submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submissions.</I> Within 60 days after receiving a submission under this part, FDA may:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine that the manufacturer does not comply with the requirements under this part and that, as a result, the manufacturer shall not disseminate any information under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) After providing the manufacturer notice and an opportunity for a meeting, determine that the information submitted regarding a new use fails to provide data, analyses, or other written matter that is objective and balanced and:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the manufacturer to disseminate additional information, including information that the manufacturer has submitted to FDA or, where appropriate, a summary of such information or any other information that can be made publicly available, which, in the agency's opinion:
</P>
<P>(A) Is objective and scientifically sound;
</P>
<P>(B) Pertains to the safety or effectiveness of the new use; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is necessary to provide objectivity and balance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the manufacturer to disseminate an objective statement prepared by FDA that is based on data or other scientifically sound information available to the agency and bears on the safety or effectiveness of the drug or device for the new use; and
</P>
<P>(3) Require the manufacturer to maintain records that will identify individual recipients of the information that is to be disseminated when such individual records are warranted due to special safety considerations associated with the new use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protocols/Studies.</I> Within 60 days after receiving a submission under this part, FDA shall:
</P>
<P>(1) If the manufacturer has planned studies that will be needed for the submission of a supplemental application for the new use, review the manufacturer's proposed protocols and schedule for completing such studies and determine whether the proposed protocols are adequate and whether the proposed schedule for completing the studies is reasonable. FDA shall notify the manufacturer of its determination; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the manufacturer has completed studies that the manufacturer believes would be an adequate basis for the submission of a supplemental application for the new use, conduct a review of the protocols submitted for such studies to determine whether they are adequate. FDA shall notify the manufacturer of its determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.303" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.4.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.303   Extension of time for completing planned studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon review of a drug or device manufacturer's proposed protocols and schedules for conducting studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for a new use, FDA may, with or without a request for an extension from the manufacturer, determine that such studies cannot be completed and submitted within 36 months. The agency may exercise its discretion in extending the time period for completing the studies and submitting a supplemental application. Extensions under this paragraph are not subject to any time limit, but shall be made before the manufacturer begins the studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for the new use.
</P>
<P>(b) The manufacturer may, after beginning the studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for a new use, request in writing that FDA extend the time period for conducting studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for a new use and submitting a supplemental application to FDA. FDA may grant or deny the request or, after consulting the manufacturer, grant an extension different from that requested by the manufacturer. FDA may grant a manufacturer's request for an extension if FDA determines that the manufacturer has acted with due diligence to conduct the studies needed for the submission of a supplemental application for a new use and to submit such a supplemental application to FDA in a timely manner and that, despite such actions, the manufacturer needs additional time to complete the studies and submit the supplemental application. Extensions under this paragraph shall not exceed 24 months.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA extends the time period for completing the studies and submitting a supplemental application under paragraph (a) of this section after the manufacturer has submitted a certification under § 99.201(a)(4)(ii)(B), or if FDA grants a manufacturer's request for an extension under paragraph (b) of this section, the manufacturer shall submit a new certification under § 99.201(a)(4)(ii)(B) that sets forth the timeframe within which clinical studies will be completed and a supplemental application will be submitted to FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.305" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.4.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.305   Exemption from the requirement to file a supplemental application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after receipt of an application for an exemption from the requirement of a supplemental application, FDA shall approve or deny the application.
</P>
<P>(1) If FDA does not act on the application for an exemption within the 60-day period, the application for an exemption shall be deemed to be approved.
</P>
<P>(2) If an application for an exemption is deemed to be approved, FDA may, at any time, terminate such approval if it determines that the requirements for granting an exemption have not been met. FDA shall notify the manufacturer if the approval is terminated.
</P>
<P>(b) In reviewing an application for an exemption, FDA shall consider the materials submitted by the manufacturer and may consider any other appropriate information, including, but not limited to, any pending or previously approved applications for exemption submitted by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may grant an application for an exemption if FDA determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) It would be economically prohibitive for the manufacturer to incur the costs necessary to submit a supplemental application for a new use, which at a minimum requires:
</P>
<P>(i) That existing data characterizing the safety and effectiveness of the drug or device, including data from the study described in the information to be disseminated are not adequate to support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That the cost of the study or studies for the new use reasonably exceeds the expected revenue from the new use minus the cost of goods sold and marketing and administrative expenses attributable to the new use of the product, and there are not less expensive ways to obtain the needed information; or
</P>
<P>(2) It would be unethical to conduct clinical studies needed to support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use because:
</P>
<P>(i) Existing data characterizing the safety and effectiveness of the drug or device, including data from the study described in the information to be disseminated are not adequate to support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Although available evidence would not support the submission of a supplemental application for the new use, the data are persuasive to the extent that withholding the drug or device in a controlled study would pose an unreasonable risk of harm to human subjects and no studies in different populations or of modified design can be utilized. In determining whether it would be unethical to conduct clinical studies, the agency shall consider, in addition to the persuasiveness of available evidence of effectiveness, whether the new use of the drug or device is broadly accepted as current standard medical treatment or therapy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Corrective Actions and Cessation of Dissemination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.401" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.5.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.401   Corrective actions and cessation of dissemination of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FDA actions based on post dissemination data.</I> If FDA receives data after a manufacturer has begun disseminating information on a new use and, based on that data, determines that the new use that is the subject of information disseminated under this part may not be effective or may present a significant risk to public health, FDA shall consult the manufacturer and, after such consultation, take appropriate action to protect the public health. Such action may include ordering the manufacturer to cease disseminating information on the new use and to take appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDA actions based on information disseminated by a manufacturer.</I> If FDA determines that a manufacturer is disseminating information that does not comply with the requirements under this part, FDA may:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide to the manufacturer an opportunity to bring itself into compliance with the requirements under this part if the manufacturer's noncompliance constitutes a minor violation of these requirements; or
</P>
<P>(2) Order the manufacturer to cease dissemination of information and to take corrective action. FDA shall issue such an order only after it has:
</P>
<P>(i) Provided notice to the manufacturer regarding FDA's intent to issue an order to cease dissemination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided to the manufacturer an opportunity for a meeting. FDA need not provide an opportunity for a meeting if the manufacturer certified that it will submit a supplemental application for the new use within 6 months of the date that dissemination can begin and the noncompliance involves a failure to submit such supplemental application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FDA actions based on a manufacturer's supplemental application.</I> FDA may order a manufacturer to cease disseminating information under this part and to take corrective action if:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a manufacturer that has submitted a supplemental application for the new use, FDA determines that the supplemental application does not contain adequate information for approval of the new use;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a manufacturer that has certified that it will submit a supplemental application for the new use within 6 months, the manufacturer has not, within the 6-month period, submitted a supplemental application for the new use;
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a manufacturer that has certified that it will submit a supplemental application for the new use within 36 months or within such time as FDA has determined to be appropriate under § 99.303(a) or (b), such manufacturer has not submitted the supplemental application within the certified time, or FDA, after an informal hearing, has determined that the manufacturer is not acting with due diligence to initiate or complete the studies necessary to support a supplemental application for the new use; or
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a manufacturer that has certified that it will submit a supplemental application for the new use within 36 months or within such time as FDA has determined to be appropriate under § 99.303(a) or (b), the manufacturer has discontinued or terminated the clinical studies that would be necessary to support a supplemental application for a new use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective date of orders to cease dissemination.</I> An order to cease dissemination of information shall be effective upon date of receipt by the manufacturer, unless otherwise stated in such order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cessation of dissemination by a noncomplying manufacturer.</I> A manufacturer that begins to disseminate information in compliance with this part, but subsequently fails to comply with this part, shall immediately cease disseminating information under this part. A manufacturer that discontinues, terminates, or fails to conduct with due diligence clinical studies that it certified it would complete under § 99.201(a)(4)(ii) shall be deemed not in compliance with this part. A manufacturer shall notify FDA immediately if it ceases dissemination under this paragraph.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.403" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.5.98.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.403   Termination of approvals of applications for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may, at any time, terminate the approval of an application for an exemption from the requirement to file a supplemental application if:
</P>
<P>(1) The application for an exemption had been deemed to be approved because the agency had not acted on the application within 60 days after its receipt by FDA;
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer is disseminating written information on the new use; and
</P>
<P>(3) FDA determines that it would be economically and ethically possible for the manufacturer to conduct the clinical studies needed to submit a supplemental application for the new use.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA terminates a deemed approval of an application for an exemption under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA also may:
</P>
<P>(1) Order the manufacturer to cease disseminating information; and
</P>
<P>(2) Order the manufacturer to take action to correct the information that has been disseminated if FDA determines that the new use described in the disseminated information would pose a significant risk to public health.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA shall notify the manufacturer if it terminates the deemed approval of an application for an exemption under paragraph (a) of this section. If FDA also issues an order to cease dissemination of information, the manufacturer shall comply with the order no later than 60 days after its receipt.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may, at any time, terminate the approval of an application for an exemption from the requirement to file a supplemental application for a new use if, after consulting with the manufacturer that was granted such exemption, FDA determines that the manufacturer no longer meets the requirements for an exemption on the basis that it is economically prohibitive or unethical to conduct the studies needed to submit a supplemental application for the new use.
</P>
<P>(e) If FDA terminates an approval of an application for an exemption under paragraph (d) of this section, the manufacturer must, within 60 days of being notified by FDA that its exemption approval has been terminated, file a supplemental application for the new use that is the subject of the information being disseminated under the exemption, certify, under § 99.201(a)(4)(i) or (a)(4)(ii) that it will file a supplemental application for the new use, or cease disseminating the information on the new use. FDA may require a manufacturer that ceases dissemination of information on the new use to undertake corrective action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.405" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.5.98.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.405   Applicability of labeling, adulteration, and misbranding authority.</HEAD>
<P>The dissemination of information relating to a new use for a drug or device may constitute labeling, evidence of a new intended use, adulteration, or misbranding of the drug or device if such dissemination fails to comply with section 551 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 360aaa) and the requirements of this part. A manufacturer's failure to exercise due diligence in submitting the clinical studies that are necessary for the approval of a new use that is the subject of information disseminated under this part or in beginning or completing such clinical studies shall be deemed a failure to comply with section 551 of the act and the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Recordkeeping and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.501" NODE="21:1.0.1.1.32.6.98.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.501   Recordkeeping and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer disseminating information under this part shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain records sufficient to allow the manufacturer to take corrective action as required by FDA. The manufacturer shall make such records available to FDA, upon request, for inspection and copying. Such records shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify, by name, those persons receiving the disseminated information; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify, by category, the recipients of the disseminated information, unless FDA requires the manufacturer to retain records identifying individual recipients of the disseminated information. Manufacturers whose records identify recipients by category only shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify subcategories of recipients where appropriate (e.g., oncologists, pediatricians, obstetricians, etc.); and
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that any corrective action to be taken will be sufficiently conspicuous to individuals within that category of recipients;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain an identical copy of the information disseminated under this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Upon the submission of a supplemental application to FDA, notify the appropriate office identified in § 99.201(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer disseminating information on a new use for a drug or device shall, on a semiannual basis, submit to the FDA office identified in § 99.201(c) of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) A list containing the titles of articles and reference publications relating to the new use of drugs or devices that the manufacturer disseminated to a health care practitioner, pharmacy benefit manager, health insurance issuer, group health plan, or Federal or State Government agency. The list shall cover articles and reference publications disseminated in the 6-month period preceding the date on which the manufacturer provides the list to FDA;
</P>
<P>(2) A list identifying the categories of health care practitioners, pharmacy benefit managers, health insurance issuers, group health plans, or Federal or State Government agencies that received the articles and reference publications in the 6-month period described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The list shall also identify which category of recipients received a particular article or reference publication;
</P>
<P>(3) A notice and summary of any additional clinical research or other data relating to the safety or effectiveness of the new use, and, if the manufacturer possesses such clinical research or other data, a copy of the research or data. Such other data may include, but is not limited to, new articles published in scientific or medical journals, reference publications, and summaries of adverse effects that are or may be associated with the new use;
</P>
<P>(4) If the manufacturer is conducting studies necessary for the submission of a supplemental application, the manufacturer shall submit periodic progress reports on these studies to FDA. Such reports shall describe the studies' current status (i.e., progress on patient enrollment, any significant problems that could affect the manufacturer's ability to complete the studies, and expected completion dates). If the manufacturer discontinues or terminates a study before completing it, the manufacturer shall, as part of the next periodic progress report, state the reasons for such discontinuation or termination; and
</P>
<P>(5) If the manufacturer was granted an exemption from the requirements to submit a supplemental application for the new use, any new or additional information that relates to whether the manufacturer continues to meet the requirements for such exemption. This information may include, but is not limited to, new or additional information regarding revenues from the product that is the subject of the dissemination and new or additional information regarding the persuasiveness of the data on the new use, including information regarding whether the new use is broadly accepted as current standard medical treatment or therapy.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer shall maintain a copy of all information, lists, records, and reports required or disseminated under this part for 3 years after it has ceased dissemination of such information and make such documents available to FDA for inspection and copying.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Sept. 22, 2025
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="2" NODE="21:2" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 2</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>100


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:2.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES (CONTINUED)  <P>(Parts 100 to 169)</P></HEAD>

<DIV4 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—FOOD FOR HUMAN CONSUMPTION


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 100—GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 337, 342, 343, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14306, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 100 appear at 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—State and Local Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.1   Petitions requesting exemption from preemption for State or local requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> (1) This subpart applies to the submission and consideration of petitions under section 403A(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), by a State or a political subdivision of a State, requesting exemption of a State requirement from preemption under section 403A(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 403A(b) of the act provides that where a State requirement has been preempted under section 403A(a) of the act, the State may petition the agency for an exemption. The agency may grant the exemption, under such conditions as it may prescribe by regulation, if the agency finds that the State requirement will not cause any food to be in violation of any applicable requirement under Federal law, will not unduly burden interstate commerce, and is designed to address a particular need for information that is not met by the preemptive Federal requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agency</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>State</I> means a State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act (which includes a territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico) or any political subdivision of a State having authority to issue food standards and food labeling regulations having force of law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>State requirement</I> means any statute, standard, regulation, or other requirement that is issued by a State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prerequisites for petitions for exemption from preemption.</I> The Food and Drug Administration will consider a petition for exemption from preemption on its merits only if the petition demonstrates that:
</P>
<P>(1) The State requirement was enacted or was issued as a final rule by an authorized official of the State and is in effect or would be in effect but for the provisions of section 403A of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) The State requirement is subject to preemption under section 403A(a) of the act because of a statutory provision listed in that section or because of a Federal standard or other Federal regulation that is in effect, or that has been published as a final rule with a designated effective date, and that was issued under the authority of a statutory provision listed in that section. For the purposes of this subpart, all petitions seeking exemption from preemption under section 403A(a)(3) through (a)(5) of the act submitted before May 8, 1992, will be considered timely even though the applicable statutory provisions or regulations are not yet in effect.
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner is an official of a State having authority to act for, or on behalf of, the Government in applying for an exemption of State requirements from preemption.
</P>
<P>(4) The State requirement is subject to preemption under section 403A(a) of the act because it is not identical to the requirement of the preemptive Federal statutory provision or regulation including a standard of identity, quality, and fill. “Not identical to” does not refer to the specific words in the requirement but instead means that the State requirement directly or indirectly imposes obligations or contains provisions concerning the composition or labeling of food, or concerning a food container, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are not imposed by or contained in the applicable provision (including any implementing regulation) of section 401 or 403 of the act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Differ from those specifically imposed by or contained in the applicable provision (including any implementing regulation) of section 401 or 403 of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of petition.</I> (1) All information included in the petition should meet the general requirements of § 10.20(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) An original and one copy of the petition shall be submitted, or the petitioner may submit an original and a computer readable disk containing the petition. Contents of the disk should be in a standard format, such as ASCII format. (Petitioners interested in submitting a disk should contact the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition for details.)
</P>
<P>(3) Petitions for exemption from preemption for a State requirement shall be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(Date) ________________
</FP>
<FP>Dockets Management Staff,
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP-1>Department of Health and Human Services,
</FP-1>
<FP>5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061,
</FP>
<FP>Rockville, MD 20852.
</FP>
<HD1>Petition Requesting Exemption from Preemption for State Requirement
</HD1>
<P>The undersigned submits this petition under section 403A(b)of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to request that the Food and Drug Administration exempt a State requirement from preemption.
</P>
<P>The undersigned has authority to act for, or on behalf of, the (<I>identify State or political subdivision of the State</I>) because (<I>document petitioner's authority to submit petition on behalf of the State</I>).
</P>
<HD2>A. Action Requested
</HD2>
<P>1. Identify and give the exact wording of the State requirement and give date it was enacted or issued in final form.
</P>
<P>2. Identify the specific standard or regulation that is believed to preempt the State requirement and the section and paragraph of the act that the standard or regulation implements.
</P>
<HD2>B. Documentation of State Requirement
</HD2>
<P>Provide a copy of the State requirement that is the subject of the application. Where available, the application should also include copies of any legislative history or background materials used in issuing the requirement, including hearing reports or studies concerning the development or consideration of the requirement.
</P>
<HD2>C. Statement of Grounds
</HD2>
<P>A petition for an exemption from preemption should contain the following:
</P>
<P>1. An explanation of the State requirement and its rationale, and a comparison of State and Federal requirements to show differences.
</P>
<P>2. An explanation of why compliance with the State requirement would not cause a food to be in violation of any applicable requirement under Federal law.
</P>
<P>3. Information on the effect that granting the State petition will have on interstate commerce. The petition should contain information on economic feasibility, i.e., whether the State and Federal requirements have significantly different effects on the production and distribution of the food product; comparison of the costs of compliance as shown by data or information on the actual or anticipated effect of the State and Federal requirements on the sale and price of the food product in interstate commerce; and the effect of the State requirement on the availability of the food product to consumers. To the extent possible, the petition should include information showing that it is practical and feasible for producers of food products to comply with the State requirement. Such information may be submitted in the form of statements from affected persons indicating their ability to comply.
</P>
<P>4. Identification of a particular need for information that the State requirement is designed to meet, which need is not met by Federal law. The petition should describe the conditions that require the State to petition for an exemption, the information need that the State requirement fulfills, the inadequacy of the Federal requirement in addressing this need, and the geographical area or political subdivision in which such need exists.
</P>
<HD2>D. Environmental Impact
</HD2>
<P>The petition shall contain a claim for categorical exclusion under 21 CFR 25.24 or an environmental assessment under 21 CFR 25.31.
</P>
<HD2>E. Notification
</HD2>
<P>Provide name and address of person, branch, department, or other instrumentality of the State government that should be notified of the Commissioner's action concerning the petition.
</P>
<HD2>F. Certification
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned certifies, that, to the best knowledge and belief of the undersigned, this petition includes all information and views on which the petition relies.
</P>
<FP>(Signature) ________________________
</FP>
<FP>(Name of petitioner) ________________
</FP>
<FP>(Mailing address) __________________
</FP>
<FP>(Telephone number) ________________
</FP>
<P>(Information collection requirements in this section were approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB number 0910-0277)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of petition for exemption; public disclosure.</I> The availability for public disclosure of a petition for exemption will be governed by the rules specified in § 10.20(j) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Agency consideration of petitions.</I> (1) Unless otherwise specified in this section, all relevant provisions and requirements of subpart B of part 10 of this chapter, are applicable to State petitions requesting exemption from Federal preemption under section 403A(b) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) If a petition does not meet the prerequisite requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, the agency will issue a letter to the petitioner denying the petition and stating in what respect the petition does not meet these requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) If a petition appears to meet the prerequisite requirements in paragraph (c) of this section, it will be filed by the Dockets Management Staff, stamped with the date of filing, and assigned a docket number. The docket number identifies the file established by the Dockets Management Staff for all submissions relating to the petition, as provided in this part. Subsequent submissions relating to the matter must refer to the docket number and will be filed in the docket file. The Dockets Management Staff will promptly notify the petitioner in writing of the filing and docket number of a petition.
</P>
<P>(4) Any interested person may submit written comments to the Dockets Management Staff on a filed petition as provided in § 10.30(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Within 90 days of the date of filing the agency will furnish a response to the petitioner. The response will either:
</P>
<P>(i) State that the agency has tentatively determined that the petition merits the granting of an exemption, and that it intends to publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a proposal to grant the exemption through rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny the petition and state the reasons for such denial; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a tentative response indicating why the agency has been unable to reach a decision on the petition, e.g., because of other agency priorities or a need for additional information.
</P>
<P>(g) If a State submitted a petition for exemption of a State requirement from preemption under section 403A(a)(3) through (a)(5) of the act before May 8, 1992, that State requirement will not be subject to preemption until:
</P>
<P>(1) November 8, 1992; or
</P>
<P>(2) Action on the petition, whichever occurs later.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2468, Jan. 6, 1993, as amended at 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.2" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.2   State enforcement of Federal regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 307 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), a State may bring, in its own name and within its own jurisdiction, proceedings for the civil enforcement, or to restrain violations, of sections 401, 403(b), 403(c), 403(d), 403(e), 403(f), 403(g), 403(h), 403(i), 403(k), 403(q), or 403(r) of the act if the food that is the subject of the proceedings is located in the State.
</P>
<P>(b) No proceeding may be commenced by a State under paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Before 30 days after the State has given notice to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that the State intends to bring such proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Before 90 days after the State has given notice to FDA of such intent if FDA has, within such 30 days, commenced an informal or formal enforcement action pertaining to the food which would be the subject of such proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA is diligently prosecuting a proceeding in court pertaining to such food, has settled such proceeding, or has settled the informal or formal enforcement action pertaining to such food.
</P>
<P>(c) A State may intervene as a matter of right, in any court proceeding described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The notification that a State submits in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section should include the following information and be submitted in the following recommended format:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(Date) ________________
</FP>
<FP>Name of State agency ____________
</FP>
<FP>Post office address ____________
</FP>
<FP>Street address ____________
</FP>
<FP>City, State, and ZIP code ____________
</FP>
<FP-1>Name of product(s) covered by the notification ____________
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reporting official, title, and telephone no. ____________
</FP-1>
<FP>FAX No. ____________
</FP>
<FP-1>Agency contact (if different from reporting official), title, and telephone no. ____________
</FP-1>
<FP>Director,
</FP>
<FP>Division of Enforcement (HFS-605),
</FP>
<FP-1>Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition,
</FP-1>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>5001 Campus Dr.,
</FP>
<FP>College Park, MD 20740.
</FP>
<FP>To Whom It May Concern:
</FP>
<P>The undersigned, ______, submits this letter of notification pursuant to section 307(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
</P>
<FP>(21 U.S.C. 337(b)(1)) with respect to ________. (name of products covered by the notification and the enforcement action that is to be initiated)
</FP>
<FP>Attached hereto, and constituting a part of this letter of notification are the following:
</FP>
<P>A. The name of the product.
</P>
<P>B. The type and size of each product container.
</P>
<P>C. Copy of the label and labeling of the product.
</P>
<P>D. Manufacturing code (if applicable).
</P>
<P>E. Name and address of firm believed to be responsible for violations.
</P>
<P>F. Name and address of parent firm (if known).
</P>
<P>G. Reason for the anticipated State enforcement action (list specific violations, including sections of the law violated).
</P>
<P>H. Name of firm against which action is anticipated (if applicable).
</P>
<P>I. Type of enforcement action.
</P>
<P>Yours very truly,
</P>
<FP>Reporting Agency
</FP>
<FP>By ____________
</FP>
<FP>(Indicate authority)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The letter of notification should be signed by a State official authorized by the State to institute the contemplated enforcement actions.
</P>
<P>(f) The letter of notification should be sent to the Division of Enforcement (HFS-605), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, FAX number 202-205-4642.
</P>
<P>(g) FDA will notify the State of the date in which its letter of notification was received by FDA, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Division of Enforcement (HFS-605) (within 2 working days after date of receipt). This date will be the date of notification for the purposes of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) The Director, Division of Enforcement, Office of Field Programs, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, FDA, will respond to the State's notification within 30 days of the date of notification by advising:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether FDA has commenced an informal or formal enforcement action pertaining to the food that is the subject of the notification; or
</P>
<P>(2) Whether FDA is prosecuting a proceeding in court pertaining to such food, has settled such proceeding, or has settled informal or formal enforcement action pertaining to such food.
</P>
<P>(i) Information contained in State notification letters shall be exempt from public disclosure to the same extent to which such information would be so exempt pursuant to §§ 20.61, 20.64, and 20.88 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Informal enforcement actions</I> include warning letters, recalls, detentions, or other administrative enforcement actions that pertain to the food in question.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Formal enforcement actions</I> include seizures, injunctions, or other civil judicial enforcement actions that pertain to the food in question. (Information collection requirements in this section were approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB control number 0910-0275.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2460, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17097, Apr. 1, 1993, as amended at 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts B-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Misbranding for Reasons Other Than Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.100   Misleading containers.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with section 403(d) of the act, a food shall be deemed to be misbranded if its container is so made, formed, or filled as to be misleading.
</P>
<P>(a) A container that does not allow the consumer to fully view its contents shall be considered to be filled as to be misleading if it contains nonfunctional slack-fill. Slack-fill is the difference between the actual capacity of a container and the volume of product contained therein. Nonfunctional slack-fill is the empty space in a package that is filled to less than its capacity for reasons other than:
</P>
<P>(1) Protection of the contents of the package;
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of the machines used for enclosing the contents in such package;
</P>
<P>(3) Unavoidable product settling during shipping and handling;
</P>
<P>(4) The need for the package to perform a specific function (e.g., where packaging plays a role in the preparation or consumption of a food), where such function is inherent to the nature of the food and is clearly communicated to consumers;
</P>
<P>(5) The fact that the product consists of a food packaged in a reusable container where the container is part of the presentation of the food and has value which is both significant in proportion to the value of the product and independent of its function to hold the food, e.g., a gift product consisting of a food or foods combined with a container that is intended for further use after the food is consumed; or durable commemorative or promotional packages; or
</P>
<P>(6) Inability to increase level of fill or to further reduce the size of the package (e.g., where some minimum package size is necessary to accommodate required food labeling (excluding any vignettes or other nonmandatory designs or label information), discourage pilfering, facilitate handling, or accommodate tamper-resistant devices).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 537, Jan. 5, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Specific Administrative Rulings and Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.1.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.155   Salt and iodized salt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this section, the term <I>iodized salt</I> or <I>iodized table salt</I> is designated as the name of salt for human food use to which iodide has been added in the form of cuprous iodide or potassium iodide permitted by §§ 184.1265 and 184.1634 of this chapter. In the labeling of such products, all words in the name shall be equal in prominence and type size. The statement “This salt supplies iodide, a necessary nutrient” shall appear on the label immediately following the name and shall be in letters which are not less in height than those required for the declaration of the net quantity of contents as specified in § 101.7 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Salt or table salt for human food use to which iodide has not been added shall bear the statement, “This salt does not supply iodide, a necessary nutrient.” This statement shall appear immediately following the name of the food and shall be in letters which are not less in height than those required for the declaration of the net quantity of contents as specified in § 101.7 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Salt, table salt, iodized salt, or iodized table salt to which anticaking agents have been added may bear in addition to the ingredient statement designating the anticaking agent(s), a label statement describing the characteristics imparted by such agent(s) (for example, “free flowing”), providing such statement does not appear with greater prominence or in type size larger than the statements which immediately follow the name of the food as required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Individual serving-sized packages containing less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> ounce and packages containing more than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds of a food described in this section shall be exempt from declaration of the statements which paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section require immediately following the name of the food. Such exemption shall not apply to the outer container or wrapper of a multiunit retail package. 
</P>
<P>(e) All salt, table salt, iodized salt, or iodized table salt in packages intended for retail sale shipped in interstate commerce 18 months after the date of publication of this statement of policy in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> shall be labeled as prescribed by this section; and if not so labeled, the Food and Drug Administration will regard them as misbranded within the meaning of sections 403 (a) and (f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14306, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 10811, Mar. 15, 1983; 49 FR 24119, June 12, 1984; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="101" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 101—FOOD LABELING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1453, 1454, 1455; 21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 342, 343, 348, 371; 42 U.S.C. 243, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 101 appear at 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; and 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.1   Principal display panel of package form food.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>principal display panel</I> as it applies to food in package form and as used in this part, means the part of a label that is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. The principal display panel shall be large enough to accommodate all the mandatory label information required to be placed thereon by this part with clarity and conspicuousness and without obscuring design, vignettes, or crowding. Where packages bear alternate principal display panels, information required to be placed on the principal display panel shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. For the purpose of obtaining uniform type size in declaring the quantity of contents for all packages of substantially the same size, the term <I>area of the principal display panel</I> means the area of the side or surface that bears the principal display panel, which area shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a rectangular package where one entire side properly can be considered to be the principal display panel side, the product of the height times the width of that side;
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a cylindrical or nearly cylindrical container, 40 percent of the product of the height of the container times the circumference;
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of any otherwise shaped container, 40 percent of the total surface of the container: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where such container presents an obvious “principal display panel” such as the top of a triangular or circular package of cheese, the area shall consist of the entire top surface. In determining the area of the principal display panel, exclude tops, bottoms, flanges at tops and bottoms of cans, and shoulders and necks of bottles or jars. In the case of cylindrical or nearly cylindrical containers, information required by this part to appear on the principal display panel shall appear within that 40 percent of the circumference which is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.2" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.2   Information panel of package form food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>information panel</I> as it applies to packaged food means that part of the label immediately contiguous and to the right of the principal display panel as observed by an individual facing the principal display panel with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) If the part of the label immediately contiguous and to the right of the principal display panel is too small to accommodate the necessary information or is otherwise unusable label space, e.g., folded flaps or can ends, the panel immediately contiguous and to the right of this part of the label may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) If the package has one or more alternate principal display panels, the information panel is immediately contiguous and to the right of any principal display panel.
</P>
<P>(3) If the top of the container is the principal display panel and the package has no alternate principal display panel, the information panel is any panel adjacent to the principal display panel.
</P>
<P>(b) All information required to appear on the label of any package of food under §§ 101.4, 101.5, 101.8, 101.9, 101.13, 101.17, 101.36, subpart D of part 101, and part 105 of this chapter shall appear either on the principal display panel or on the information panel, unless otherwise specified by regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) All information appearing on the principal display panel or the information panel pursuant to this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously, but in no case may the letters and/or numbers be less than one-sixteenth inch in height unless an exemption pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section is established. The requirements for conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications of §§ 101.7(h)(1) and (2) and 101.15.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Soft drinks packaged in bottles manufactured before October 31, 1975 shall be exempt from the requirements prescribed by this section to the extent that information which is blown, lithographed, or formed onto the surface of the bottle is exempt from the size and placement requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Soft drinks packaged in bottles shall be exempt from the size and placement requirements prescribed by this section if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) If the soft drink is packaged in a bottle bearing a paper, plastic foam jacket, or foil label, or is packaged in a nonreusable bottle bearing a label lithographed onto the surface of the bottle or is packaged in metal cans, the product shall not be exempt from any requirement of this section other than the exemptions created by § 1.24(a)(5) (ii) and (v) of this chapter and the label shall bear all required information in the specified minimum type size, except the label will not be required to bear the information required by § 101.5 if this information appears on the bottle closure or on the lid of the can in a type size not less than one-sixteenth inch in height, or if embossed on the lid of the can in a type size not less than one-eighth inch in height.
</P>
<P>(B) If the soft drink is packaged in a bottle which does not bear a paper, plastic foam jacket or foil label, or is packaged in a reusable bottle bearing a label lithographed onto the surface of the bottle:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Neither the bottle nor the closure is required to bear nutrition labeling in compliance with § 101.9, except that any multiunit retail package in which it is contained shall bear nutrition labeling if required by § 101.9; and any vending machine in which it is contained shall bear nutrition labeling if nutrition labeling is not present on the bottle or closure, if required by § 101.9.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All other information pursuant to this section shall appear on the top of the bottle closure prominently and conspicuously in letters and/or numbers no less than one thirty-second inch in height, except that if the information required by § 101.5 is placed on the side of the closure in accordance with § 1.24(a)(5)(ii) of this chapter, such information shall appear in letters and/or numbers no less than one-sixteenth inch in height.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Upon the petition of any interested person demonstrating that the bottle closure is too small to accommodate this information, the Commissioner may by regulation establish an alternative method of disseminating such information. Information appearing on the closure shall appear in the following priority:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The statement of ingredients.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The statement of identity.
</P>
<P>(2) Individual serving-size packages of food served with meals in restaurants, institutions, and on board passenger carriers, and not intended for sale at retail, are exempt from type-size requirements of this paragraph, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The package has a total area of 3 square inches or less available to bear labeling;
</P>
<P>(ii) There is insufficient area on the package available to print all required information in a type size of 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in height;
</P>
<P>(iii) The information required by paragraph (b) of this section appears on the label in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph, except that the type size is not less than 
<FR>1/32</FR> inch in height.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Except as provided by §§ 101.9(j)(13) and (j)(17) and 101.36(i)(2) and (i)(5), all information required to appear on the principal display panel or on the information panel under this section shall appear on the same panel unless there is insufficient space. In determining the sufficiency of the available space, except as provided by §§ 101.9(j)(17) and 101.36(i)(5), any vignettes, designs, and other nonmandatory label information shall not be considered. If there is insufficient space for all of this information to appear on a single panel, it may be divided between these two panels, except that the information required under any given section or part shall all appear on the same panel. A food whose label is required to bear the ingredient statement on the principal display panel may bear all other information specified in paragraph (b) of this section on the information panel.
</P>
<P>(2) Any food, not otherwise exempted in this section, if packaged in a container consisting of a separate lid and body, and bearing nutrition labeling pursuant to § 101.9, and if the lid qualifies for and is designed to serve as a principal display panel, shall be exempt from the placement requirements of this section in the following respects:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and place of business information required by § 101.5 shall not be required on the body of the container if this information appears on the lid in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The nutrition information required by § 101.9 shall not be required on the lid if this information appears on the container body in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The statement of ingredients required by § 101.4 shall not be required on the lid if this information appears on the container body in accordance with this section. Further, the statement of ingredients is not required on the container body if this information appears on the lid in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(e) All information appearing on the information panel pursuant to this section shall appear in one place without other intervening material.
</P>
<P>(f) If the label of any package of food is too small to accommodate all of the information required by §§ 101.4, 101.5, 101.8, 101.9, 101.13, 101.17, 101.36, subpart D of part 101, and part 105 of this chapter, the Commissioner may establish by regulation an acceptable alternative method of disseminating such information to the public, e.g., a type size smaller than one-sixteenth inch in height, or labeling attached to or inserted in the package or available at the point of purchase. A petition requesting such a regulation, as an amendment to this paragraph, shall be submitted under part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 45905, Sept. 13, 1977; 42 FR 47191, Sept. 20, 1977; 44 FR 16006, Mar. 16, 1979; 49 FR 13339, Apr. 4, 1984; 53 FR 16068, May 5, 1988; 58 FR 44030, Aug. 18, 1993; 60 FR 17205, Apr. 5, 1995; 62 FR 43074, Aug. 12, 1997; 62 FR 49847, Sept. 23, 1997; 63 FR 14817, Mar. 27, 1998; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.3   Identity labeling of food in packaged form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of a food in package form shall bear as one of its principal features a statement of the identity of the commodity.
</P>
<P>(b) Such statement of identity shall be in terms of:
</P>
<P>(1) The name now or hereafter specified in or required by any applicable Federal law or regulation; or, in the absence thereof,
</P>
<P>(2) The common or usual name of the food; or, in the absence thereof,
</P>
<P>(3) An appropriately descriptive term, or when the nature of the food is obvious, a fanciful name commonly used by the public for such food.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a food is marketed in various optional forms (whole, slices, diced, etc.), the particular form shall be considered to be a necessary part of the statement of identity and shall be declared in letters of a type size bearing a reasonable relation to the size of the letters forming the other components of the statement of identity; except that if the optional form is visible through the container or is depicted by an appropriate vignette, the particular form need not be included in the statement. This specification does not affect the required declarations of identity under definitions and standards for foods promulgated pursuant to section 401 of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) This statement of identity shall be presented in bold type on the principal display panel, shall be in a size reasonably related to the most prominent printed matter on such panel, and shall be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed.
</P>
<P>(e) Under the provisions of section 403(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a food shall be deemed to be misbranded if it is an imitation of another food unless its label bears, in type of uniform size and prominence, the word “imitation” and, immediately thereafter, the name of the food imitated.
</P>
<P>(1) A food shall be deemed to be an imitation and thus subject to the requirements of section 403(c) of the act if it is a substitute for and resembles another food but is nutritionally inferior to that food. 
</P>
<P>(2) A food that is a substitute for and resembles another food shall not be deemed to be an imitation provided it meets each of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) It is not nutritionally inferior to the food for which it substitutes and which it resembles.
</P>
<P>(ii) Its label bears a common or usual name that complies with the provisions of § 102.5 of this chapter and that is not false or misleading, or in the absence of an existing common or usual name, an appropriately descriptive term that is not false or misleading. The label may, in addition, bear a fanciful name which is not false or misleading.
</P>
<P>(3) A food for which a common or usual name is established by regulation (e.g., in a standard of identity pursuant to section 401 of the act, in a common or usual name regulation pursuant to part 102 of this chapter, or in a regulation establishing a nutritional quality guideline pursuant to part 104 of this chapter), and which complies with all of the applicable requirements of such regulation(s), shall not be deemed to be an imitation.
</P>
<P>(4) Nutritional inferiority includes: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any reduction in the content of an essential nutrient that is present in a measurable amount, but does not include a reduction in the caloric or fat content provided the food is labeled pursuant to the provisions of § 101.9, and provided the labeling with respect to any reduction in caloric content complies with the provisions applicable to caloric content in part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of this section, a measurable amount of an essential nutrient in a food shall be considered to be 2 percent or more of the Daily Reference Value (DRV) of protein listed under § 101.9(c)(7)(iii) and of potassium listed under § 101.9(c)(9) per reference amount customarily consumed and 2 percent or more of the Reference Daily Intake (RDI) of any vitamin or mineral listed under § 101.9(c)(8)(iv) per reference amount customarily consumed, except that selenium, molybdenum, chromium, and chloride need not be considered.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Commissioner concludes that a food is a substitute for and resembles another food but is inferior to the food imitated for reasons other than those set forth in this paragraph, he may propose appropriate revisions to this regulation or he may propose a separate regulation governing the particular food.
</P>
<P>(f) A label may be required to bear the percentage(s) of a characterizing ingredient(s) or information concerning the presence or absence of an ingredient(s) or the need to add an ingredient(s) as part of the common or usual name of the food pursuant to subpart B of part 102 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) Dietary supplements shall be identified by the term “dietary supplement” as a part of the statement of identity, except that the word “dietary” may be deleted and replaced by the name of the dietary ingredients in the product (e.g., calcium supplement) or an appropriately descriptive term indicating the type of dietary ingredients that are in the product (e.g., herbal supplement with vitamins).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 10811, Mar. 15, 1983; 58 FR 2227, Jan. 6, 1993; 60 FR 67174, Dec. 28, 1995; 62 FR 49847, Sept. 23, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.4" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.4   Food; designation of ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Ingredients required to be declared on the label or labeling of a food, including foods that comply with standards of identity, except those ingredients exempted by § 101.100, shall be listed by common or usual name in descending order of predominance by weight on either the principal display panel or the information panel in accordance with the provisions of § 101.2, except that ingredients in dietary supplements that are listed in the nutrition label in accordance with § 101.36 need not be repeated in the ingredient list. Paragraph (g) of this section describes the ingredient list on dietary supplement products.
</P>
<P>(2) The descending order of predominance requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply to ingredients present in amounts of 2 percent or less by weight when a listing of these ingredients is placed at the end of the ingredient statement following an appropriate quantifying statement, e.g., “Contains __ percent or less of ______” or “Less than __ percent of ______.” The blank percentage within the quantifying statement shall be filled in with a threshold level of 2 percent, or, if desired, 1.5 percent, 1.0 percent, or 0.5 percent, as appropriate. No ingredient to which the quantifying phrase applies may be present in an amount greater than the stated threshold.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of an ingredient shall be a specific name and not a collective (generic) name, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Spices, flavorings, colorings and chemical preservatives shall be declared according to the provisions of § 101.22.
</P>
<P>(2) An ingredient which itself contains two or more ingredients and which has an established common or usual name, conforms to a standard established pursuant to the Meat Inspection or Poultry Products Inspection Acts by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, or conforms to a definition and standard of identity established pursuant to section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, shall be designated in the statement of ingredients on the label of such food by either of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(i) By declaring the established common or usual name of the ingredient followed by a parenthetical listing of all ingredients contained therein in descending order of predominance except that, if the ingredient is a food subject to a definition and standard of identity established in subchapter B of this chapter that has specific labeling provisions for optional ingredients, optional ingredients may be declared within the parenthetical listing in accordance with those provisions.
</P>
<P>(ii) By incorporating into the statement of ingredients in descending order of predominance in the finished food, the common or usual name of every component of the ingredient without listing the ingredient itself.
</P>
<P>(3) Skim milk, concentrated skim milk, reconstituted skim milk, and nonfat dry milk may be declared as “skim milk” or “nonfat milk”.
</P>
<P>(4) Milk, concentrated milk, reconstituted milk, and dry whole milk may be declared as “milk”.
</P>
<P>(5) Bacterial cultures may be declared by the word “cultured” followed by the name of the substrate, e.g., “made from cultured skim milk or cultured buttermilk”.
</P>
<P>(6) Sweetcream buttermilk, concentrated sweetcream buttermilk, reconstituted sweetcream buttermilk, and dried sweetcream buttermilk may be declared as “buttermilk”.
</P>
<P>(7) Whey, concentrated whey, reconstituted whey, and dried whey may be declared as “whey”.
</P>
<P>(8) Cream, reconstituted cream, dried cream, and plastic cream (sometimes known as concentrated milk fat) may be declared as “cream”.
</P>
<P>(9) Butteroil and anhydrous butterfat may be declared as “butterfat”.
</P>
<P>(10) Dried whole eggs, frozen whole eggs, and liquid whole eggs may be declared as “eggs”.
</P>
<P>(11) Dried egg whites, frozen egg whites, and liquid egg whites may be declared as “egg whites”.
</P>
<P>(12) Dried egg yolks, frozen egg yolks, and liquid egg yolks may be declared as “egg yolks”.
</P>
<P>(13) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(14) Each individual fat and/or oil ingredient of a food intended for human consumption shall be declared by its specific common or usual name (e.g., “beef fat”, “cottonseed oil”) in its order of predominance in the food except that blends of fats and/or oils may be designated in their order of predominance in the foods as “______ shortening” or “blend of ______ oils”, the blank to be filled in with the word “vegetable”, “animal”, “marine”, with or without the terms “fat” or “oils”, or combination of these, whichever is applicable if, immediately following the term, the common or usual name of each individual vegetable, animal, or marine fat or oil is given in parentheses, e.g., “vegetable oil shortening (soybean and cottonseed oil)”. For products that are blends of fats and/or oils and for foods in which fats and/or oils constitute the predominant ingredient, i.e., in which the combined weight of all fat and/or oil ingredients equals or exceeds the weight of the most predominant ingredient that is not a fat or oil, the listing of the common or usual names of such fats and/or oils in parentheses shall be in descending order of predominance. In all other foods in which a blend of fats and/or oils is used as an ingredient, the listing of the common or usual names in parentheses need not be in descending order of predominance if the manufacturer, because of the use of varying mixtures, is unable to adhere to a constant pattern of fats and/or oils in the product. If the fat or oil is completely hydrogenated, the name shall include the term <I>hydrogenated,</I> or if partially hydrogenated, the name shall include the term <I>partially hydrogenated.</I> If each fat and/or oil in a blend or the blend is completely hydrogenated, the term “hydrogenated” may precede the term(s) describing the blend, e.g., “hydrogenated vegetable oil (soybean, cottonseed, and palm oils)”, rather than preceding the name of each individual fat and/or oil; if the blend of fats and/or oils is partially hydrogenated, the term “partially hydrogenated” may be used in the same manner. Fat and/or oil ingredients not present in the product may be listed if they may sometimes be used in the product. Such ingredients shall be identified by words indicating that they may not be present, such as “or”, “and/or”, “contains one or more of the following:”, e.g., “vegetable oil shortening (contains one or more of the following: cottonseed oil, palm oil, soybean oil)”. No fat or oil ingredient shall be listed unless actually present if the fats and/or oils constitute the predominant ingredient of the product, as defined in this paragraph (b)(14).
</P>
<P>(15) When all the ingredients of a wheat flour are declared in an ingredient statement, the principal ingredient of the flour shall be declared by the name(s) specified in §§ 137.105, 137.200, 137.220 and 137.225 of this chapter, i.e., the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of flour, or bromated flour, or enriched flour, or self-rising flour is “flour”, “white flour”, “wheat flour”, or “plain flour”; the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of durum flour is “durum flour”; the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of whole wheat flour, or bromated whole wheat flour is “whole wheat flour”, “graham flour”, or “entire wheat flour”; and the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of whole durum wheat flour is “whole durum wheat flour”.
</P>
<P>(16) Ingredients that act as leavening agents in food may be declared in the ingredient statement by stating the specific common or usual name of each individual leavening agent in parentheses following the collective name “leavening”, e.g., “leavening (baking soda, monocalcium phosphate, and calcium carbonate)”. The listing of the common or usual name of each individual leavening agent in parentheses shall be in descending order of predominance: <I>Except,</I> That if the manufacturer is unable to adhere to a constant pattern of leavening agents in the product, the listing of individual leavening agents need not be in descending order of predominance. Leavening agents not present in the product may be listed if they are sometimes used in the product. Such ingredients shall be identified by words indicating that they may not be present, such as “or”, “and/or”, “contains one or more of the following:”.
</P>
<P>(17) Ingredients that act as yeast nutrients in foods may be declared in the ingredient statement by stating the specific common or usual name of each individual yeast nutrient in parentheses following the collective name “yeast nutrients”, e.g., “yeast nutrients (calcium sulfate and ammonium phosphate)”. The listing of the common or usual name of each individual yeast nutrient in parentheses shall be in descending order of predominance: <I>Except,</I> That if the manufacturer is unable to adhere to a constant pattern of yeast nutrients in the product, the listing of the common or usual names of individual yeast nutrients need not be in descending order of predominance. Yeast nutrients not present in the product may be listed if they are sometimes used in the product. Such ingredients shall be identified by words indicating that they may not be present, such as “or”, “and/or”, or “contains one or more of the following:”.
</P>
<P>(18) Ingredients that act as dough conditioners may be declared in the ingredient statement by stating the specific common or usual name of each individual dough conditioner in parentheses following the collective name “dough conditioner”, e.g., “dough conditioners (L-cysteine, ammonium sulfate)”. The listing of the common or usual name of each dough conditioner in parentheses shall be in descending order of predominance: <I>Except,</I> That if the manufacturer is unable to adhere to a constant pattern of dough conditioners in the product, the listing of the common or usual names of individual dough conditioners need not be in descending order of predominance. Dough conditioners not present in the product may be listed if they are sometimes used in the product. Such ingredients shall be identified by words indicating that they may not be present, such as “or”, “and/or”, or “contains one or more of the following:”.
</P>
<P>(19) Ingredients that act as firming agents in food (e.g., salts of calcium and other safe and suitable salts in canned vegetables) may be declared in the ingredient statement, in order of predominance appropriate for the total of all firming agents in the food, by stating the specific common or usual name of each individual firming agent in descending order of predominance in parentheses following the collective name “firming agents”. If the manufacturer is unable to adhere to a constant pattern of firming agents in the food, the listing of the individual firming agents need not be in descending order of predominance. Firming agents not present in the product may be listed if they are sometimes used in the product. Such ingredients shall be identified by words indicating that they may not be present, such as “or”, “and/or”, “contains one or more of the following:”.
</P>
<P>(20) For purposes of ingredient labeling, the term <I>sugar</I> shall refer to sucrose, which is obtained from sugar cane or sugar beets in accordance with the provisions of § 184.1854 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(21) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(22) Wax and resin ingredients on fresh produce when such produce is held for retail sale, or when held for other than retail sale by packers or repackers shall be declared collectively by the phrase “coated with food-grade animal-based wax, to maintain freshness” or the phrase “coated with food-grade vegetable-, petroleum-, beeswax-, and/or shellac-based wax or resin, to maintain freshness” as appropriate. The terms “food-grade” and “to maintain freshness” are optional. The term <I>lac-resin</I> may be substituted for the term <I>shellac.</I>
</P>
<P>(23) When processed seafood products contain fish protein ingredients consisting primarily of the myofibrillar protein fraction from one or more fish species and the manufacturer is unable to adhere to a constant pattern of fish species in the fish protein ingredient, because of seasonal or other limitations of species availability, the common or usual name of each individual fish species need not be listed in descending order of predominance. Fish species not present in the fish protein ingredient may be listed if they are sometimes used in the product. Such ingredients must be identified by words indicating that they may not be present, such as “or”, “and/or”, or “contains one or more of the following:” Fish protein ingredients may be declared in the ingredient statement by stating the specific common or usual name of each fish species that may be present in parentheses following the collective name “fish protein”, e.g., “fish protein (contains one or more of the following: Pollock, cod, and/or pacific whiting)”.
</P>
<P>(c) When water is added to reconstitute, completely or partially, an ingredient permitted by paragraph (b) of this section to be declared by a class name, the position of the ingredient class name in the ingredient statement shall be determined by the weight of the unreconstituted ingredient plus the weight of the quantity of water added to reconstitute that ingredient, up to the amount of water needed to reconstitute the ingredient to single strength. Any water added in excess of the amount of water needed to reconstitute the ingredient to single strength shall be declared as “water” in the ingredient statement.
</P>
<P>(d) When foods characterized on the label as “nondairy” contain a caseinate ingredient, the caseinate ingredient shall be followed by a parenthetical statement identifying its source. For example, if the manufacturer uses the term “nondairy” on a creamer that contains sodium caseinate, it shall include a parenthetical term such as “a milk derivative” after the listing of sodium caseinate in the ingredient list.
</P>
<P>(e) If the percentage of an ingredient is included in the statement of ingredients, it shall be shown in parentheses following the name of the ingredient and expressed in terms of percent by weight. Percentage declarations shall be expressed to the nearest 1 percent, except that where ingredients are present at levels of 2 percent or less, they may be grouped together and expressed in accordance with the quantifying guidance set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided in § 101.100, ingredients that must be declared on labeling because there is no label for the food, including foods that comply with standards of identity, shall be listed prominently and conspicuously by common or usual name in the manner prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) When present, the ingredient list on dietary supplement products shall be located immediately below the nutrition label, or, if there is insufficient space below the nutrition label, immediately contiguous and to the right of the nutrition label and shall be preceded by the word “Ingredients,” unless some ingredients (i.e., sources) are identified within the nutrition label in accordance with § 101.36(d), in which case the ingredients listed outside the nutrition label shall be in a list preceded by the words “Other ingredients.” Ingredients in dietary supplements that are not dietary ingredients or that do not contain dietary ingredients, such as excipients, fillers, artificial colors, artificial sweeteners, flavors, or binders, shall be included in the ingredient list.
</P>
<P>(h) The common or usual name of ingredients of dietary supplements that are botanicals (including fungi and algae) shall be consistent with the names standardized in <I>Herbs of Commerce,</I> 1992 edition, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the American Herbal Products Association, 8484 Georgia Ave., suite 370, Silver Spring, MD 20910, 301-588-1171, FAX 301-588-1174, e-mail: <I>ahpa@ahpa.org,</I> or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The listing of these names on the label shall be followed by statements of:
</P>
<P>(1) The part of the plant (e.g., root, leaves) from which the dietary ingredient is derived (e.g., “Garlic bulb” or “Garlic (bulb)”), except that this designation is not required for algae. The name of the part of the plant shall be expressed in English (e.g., “flower” rather than “flos”);
</P>
<P>(2) The Latin binomial name of the plant, in parentheses, except that this name is not required when it is available in the reference entitled: <I>Herbs of Commerce</I> for the common or usual name listed on the label, and, when required, the Latin binomial name may be listed before the part of the plant. Any name in Latin form shall be in accordance with internationally accepted rules on nomenclature, such as those found in the <I>International Code of Botanical Nomenclature</I> and shall include the designation of the author or authors who published the Latin name, when a positive identification cannot be made in its absence. The <I>International Code of Botanical Nomenclature</I> (Tokyo Code), 1994 edition, a publication of the International Association for Plant Taxonomy, is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of the <I>International Code of Botanical Nomenclature</I> may be obtained from Koeltz Scientific Books, D-61453 Konigstein, Germany, and University Bookstore, Southern Illinois University, Carbondale, IL 62901-4422, 618-536-3321, FAX 618-453-5207, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) On labels of single-ingredient dietary supplements that do not include an ingredient list, the identification of the Latin binomial name, when needed, and the part of the plant may be prominently placed on the principal display panel or information panel, or included in the nutrition label.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 12858, Mar. 28, 1978; 43 FR 24519, June 6, 1978; 48 FR 8054, Feb. 25, 1983; 55 FR 17433, Apr. 25, 1990; 58 FR 2875, Jan. 6, 1993; 62 FR 49847, Sept. 23, 1997; 62 FR 64634, Dec. 8, 1997; 64 FR 50448, Sept. 17, 1999; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 81 FR 5590, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17716, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.5   Food; name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a food in packaged form shall specify conspicuously the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for declaration of the name of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor shall be deemed to be satisfied, in the case of a corporation, only by the actual corporate name, which may be preceded or followed by the name of the particular division of the corporation. In the case of an individual, partnership, or association, the name under which the business is conducted shall be used.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the food is not manufactured by the person whose name appears on the label, the name shall be qualified by a phrase that reveals the connection such person has with such food; such as “Manufactured for ______”, “Distributed by ______”, or any other wording that expresses the facts.
</P>
<P>(d) The statement of the place of business shall include the street address, city, State, and ZIP code; however, the street address may be omitted if it is shown in a current city directory or telephone directory. The requirement for inclusion of the ZIP code shall apply only to consumer commodity labels developed or revised after the effective date of this section. In the case of nonconsumer packages, the ZIP code shall appear either on the label or the labeling (including invoice).
</P>
<P>(e) If a person manufactures, packs, or distributes a food at a place other than his principal place of business, the label may state the principal place of business in lieu of the actual place where such food was manufactured or packed or is to be distributed, unless such statement would be misleading.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.7   Declaration of net quantity of contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of a food in package form shall bear a declaration of the net quantity of contents. This shall be expressed in the terms of weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of numerical count and weight or measure. The statement shall be in terms of fluid measure if the food is liquid, or in terms of weight if the food is solid, semisolid, or viscous, or a mixture of solid and liquid; except that such statement may be in terms of dry measure if the food is a fresh fruit, fresh vegetable, or other dry commodity that is customarily sold by dry measure. If there is a firmly established general consumer usage and trade custom of declaring the contents of a liquid by weight, or a solid, semisolid, or viscous product by fluid measure, it may be used. Whenever the Commissioner determines that an existing practice of declaring net quantity of contents by weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination in the case of a specific packaged food does not facilitate value comparisons by consumers and offers opportunity for consumer confusion, he will by regulation designate the appropriate term or terms to be used for such commodity.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Statements of weight shall be in terms of avoirdupois pound and ounce.
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of fluid measure shall be in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid ounce subdivisions thereof, and shall:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of frozen food that is sold and consumed in a frozen state, express the volume at the frozen temperature.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of refrigerated food that is sold in the refrigerated state, express the volume at 40 °F (4 °C).
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of other foods, express the volume at 68 °F (20 °C).
</P>
<P>(3) Statements of dry measure shall be in terms of the U.S. bushel of 2,150.42 cubic inches and peck, dry quart, and dry pint subdivisions thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) When the declaration of quantity of contents by numerical count does not give adequate information as to the quantity of food in the package, it shall be combined with such statement of weight, measure, or size of the individual units of the foods as will provide such information.
</P>
<P>(d) The declaration may contain common or decimal fractions. A common fraction shall be in terms of halves, quarters, eighths, sixteenths, or thirty-seconds; except that if there exists a firmly established general consumer usage and trade custom of employing different common fractions in the net quantity declaration of a particular commodity, they may be employed. A common fraction shall be reduced to its lowest terms; a decimal fraction shall not be carried out to more than two places. A statement that includes small fractions of an ounce shall be deemed to permit smaller variations than one which does not include such fractions.
</P>
<P>(e) The declaration shall be located on the principal display panel of the label, and with respect to packages bearing alternate principal panels it shall be duplicated on each principal display panel.
</P>
<P>(f) The declaration shall appear as a distinct item on the principal display panel, shall be separated (by at least a space equal to the height of the lettering used in the declaration) from other printed label information appearing above or below the declaration and (by at least a space equal to twice the width of the letter “N” of the style of type used in the quantity of contents statement) from other printed label information appearing to the left or right of the declaration. It shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count (such as “jumbo quart” and “full gallon”) that tends to exaggerate the amount of the food in the container. It shall be placed on the principal display panel within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed: <I>Provided,</I> That on packages having a principal display panel of 5 square inches or less, the requirement for placement within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel shall not apply when the declaration of net quantity of contents meets the other requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) The declaration shall accurately reveal the quantity of food in the package exclusive of wrappers and other material packed therewith: <I>Provided,</I> That in the case of foods packed in containers designed to deliver the food under pressure, the declaration shall state the net quantity of the contents that will be expelled when the instructions for use as shown on the container are followed. The propellant is included in the net quantity declaration.
</P>
<P>(h) The declaration shall appear in conspicuous and easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast (by typography, layout, color, embossing, or molding) to other matter on the package; except that a declaration of net quantity blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface is permissible when all label information is so formed on the surface. Requirements of conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio of height to width (of the letter) shall not exceed a differential of 3 units to 1 unit (no more than 3 times as high as it is wide).
</P>
<P>(2) Letter heights pertain to upper case or capital letters. When upper and lower case or all lower case letters are used, it is the lower case letter “o” or its equivalent that shall meet the minimum standards.
</P>
<P>(3) When fractions are used, each component numeral shall meet one-half the minimum height standards.
</P>
<P>(i) The declaration shall be in letters and numerals in a type size established in relationship to the area of the principal display panel of the package and shall be uniform for all packages of substantially the same size by complying with the following type specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of 5 square inches or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-eighth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 5 but not more than 25 square inches.
</P>
<P>(3) Not less than three-sixteenths inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 25 but not more than 100 square inches.
</P>
<P>(4) Not less than one-fourth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 100 square inches, except not less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch in height if the area is more than 400 square inches.
</P>
<FP>Where the declaration is blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface rather than by printing, typing, or coloring, the lettering sizes specified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (4) of this section shall be increased by one-sixteenth of an inch.
</FP>
<P>(j) On packages containing less than 4 pounds or 1 gallon and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure:
</P>
<P>(1) The declaration shall be expressed both in ounces, with identification by weight or by liquid measure and, if applicable (1 pound or 1 pint or more) followed in parentheses by a declaration in pounds for weight units, with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound (see examples set forth in paragraphs (m) (1) and (2) of this section), or in the case of liquid measure, in the largest whole units (quarts, quarts and pints, or pints, as appropriate) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (see examples in paragraphs (m) (3) and (4) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) If the net quantity of contents declaration appears on a random package, that is a package which is one of a lot, shipment, or delivery of packages of the same consumer commodity with varying weights and with no fixed weight pattern, it may, when the net weight exceeds 1 pound, be expressed in terms of pounds and decimal fractions of the pound carried out to not more than two decimal places. When the net weight does not exceed 1 pound, the declaration on the random package may be in decimal fractions of the pound in lieu of ounces (see example in paragraph (m)(5) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) The declaration may appear in more than one line. The term “net weight” shall be used when stating the net quantity of contents in terms of weight. Use of the terms “net” or “net contents” in terms of fluid measure or numerical count is optional. It is sufficient to distinguish avoirdupois ounce from fluid ounce through association of terms; for example, “Net wt. 6 oz” or “6 oz Net wt.” and “6 fl oz” or “Net contents 6 fl oz”.
</P>
<P>(k) On packages containing 4 pounds or 1 gallon or more and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure, the declaration shall be expressed in pounds for weight units with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fraction of the pound, or in the case of fluid measure, it shall be expressed in the largest whole unit (gallons followed by common or decimal fraction of a gallon or by the next smaller whole unit or units (quarts, or quarts and pints)) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (see paragraph (m)(6) of this section).
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) Examples:
</P>
<P>(1) A declaration of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds weight shall be expressed as “Net Wt. 24 oz (1 lb 8 oz),” “Net Wt. 24 oz (1
<FR>1/2</FR> lb),” or “Net Wt. 24 oz (1.5 lb)”.
</P>
<P>(2) A declaration of three-fourths pound avoirdupois weight shall be expressed as “Net Wt. 12 oz”.
</P>
<P>(3) A declaration of 1 quart liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net 32 fl oz (1 qt)”.
</P>
<P>(4) A declaration of 1
<FR>3/4</FR> quarts liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 56 fluid ounces (1 quart 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pints)” or as “Net 56 fluid oz (1 qt 1 pt 8 oz)”, but not in terms of quart and ounce such as “Net 56 fluid oz (1 quart 24 ounces)”.
</P>
<P>(5) On a random package, declaration of three-fourths pound avoirdupois may be expressed as “Net Wt. .75 lb”.
</P>
<P>(6) A declaration of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons,” “Net contents 2.5 gallons,” or “Net contents 2 gallons 2 quarts” and not as “2 gallons 4 pints”.
</P>
<P>(n) For quantities, the following abbreviations and none other may be employed (periods and plural forms are optional):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>weight wt</LI>
<LI>ounce oz</LI>
<LI>pound lb</LI>
<LI>gallon gal</LI>
<LI>pint pt</LI>
<LI>quart qt</LI>
<LI>fluid fl</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<P>(o) Nothing in this section shall prohibit supplemental statements at locations other than the principal display panel(s) describing in nondeceptive terms the net quantity of contents; <I>Provided,</I> that such supplemental statements of net quantity of contents shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count that tends to exaggerate the amount of the food contained in the package; for example, “jumbo quart” and “full gallon”. Dual or combination declarations of net quantity of contents as provided for in paragraphs (a), (c), and (j) of this section (for example, a combination of net weight plus numerical count, net contents plus dilution directions of a concentrate, etc.) are not regarded as supplemental net quantity statements and may be located on the principal display panel.
</P>
<P>(p) A separate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system is not regarded as a supplemental statement and an accurate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure may also appear on the principal display panel or on other panels.
</P>
<P>(q) The declaration of net quantity of contents shall express an accurate statement of the quantity of contents of the package. Reasonable variations caused by loss or gain of moisture during the course of good distribution practice or by unavoidable deviations in good manufacturing practice will be recognized. Variations from stated quantity of contents shall not be unreasonably large.
</P>
<P>(r) The declaration of net quantity of contents on pickles and pickle products, including relishes but excluding one or two whole pickles in clear plastic bags which may be declared by count, shall be expressed in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid ounce subdivisions thereof.
</P>
<P>(s) On a multiunit retail package, a statement of the quantity of contents shall appear on the outside of the package and shall include the number of individual units, the quantity of each individual unit, and, in parentheses, the total quantity of contents of the multiunit package in terms of avoirdupois or fluid ounces, except that such declaration of total quantity need not be followed by an additional parenthetical declaration in terms of the largest whole units and subdivisions thereof, as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this section. A multiunit retail package may thus be properly labeled: “6-16 oz bottles—(96 fl oz)” or “3-16 oz cans—(net wt. 48 oz)”. For the purposes of this section, “multiunit retail package” means a package containing two or more individually packaged units of the identical commodity and in the same quantity, intended to be sold as part of the multiunit retail package but capable of being individually sold in full compliance with all requirements of the regulations in this part. Open multiunit retail packages that do not obscure the number of units or prevent examination of the labeling on each of the individual units are not subject to this paragraph if the labeling of each individual unit complies with the requirements of paragraphs (f) and (i) of this section. The provisions of this section do not apply to that butter or margarine covered by the exemptions in § 1.24(a) (10) and (11) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(t) Where the declaration of net quantity of contents is in terms of net weight and/or drained weight or volume and does not accurately reflect the actual quantity of the contents or the product falls below the applicable standard of fill of container because of equipment malfunction or otherwise unintentional product variation, and the label conforms in all other respects to the requirements of this chapter (except the requirement that food falling below the applicable standard of fill of container shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter), the mislabeled food product, including any food product that fails to bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, may be sold by the manufacturer or processor directly to institutions operated by Federal, State or local governments (schools, prisons, hospitals, etc.): <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The purchaser shall sign a statement at the time of sale stating that he is aware that the product is mislabeled to include acknowledgment of the nature and extent of the mislabeling, (e.g., “Actual net weight may be as low as __% below labeled quantity”) and that any subsequent distribution by him of said product except for his own institutional use is unlawful. This statement shall be kept on file at the principal place of business of the manufacturer or processor for 2 years subsequent to the date of shipment of the product and shall be available to the Food and Drug Administration upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) The product shall be labeled on the outside of its shipping container with the statement(s):
</P>
<P>(i) When the variation concerns net weight and/or drained weight or volume, “Product Mislabeled. Actual net weight (drained weight or volume where appropriate) may be as low as __% below labeled quantity. This Product Not for Retail Distribution”, the blank to be filled in with the maximum percentage variance between the labeled and actual weight or volume of contents of the individual packages in the shipping container, and
</P>
<P>(ii) When the variation is in regard to a fill of container standard, “Product Mislabeled. Actual fill may be as low as __% below standard of fill. This Product Not for Retail Distribution”.
</P>
<P>(3) The statements required by paragraphs (t)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section, which may be consolidated where appropriate, shall appear prominently and conspicuously as compared to other printed matter on the shipping container and in boldface print or type on a clear, contrasting background in order to render them likely to be read and understood by the purchaser under ordinary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977. Redesignated at 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.8" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.8   Vending machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this section. In addition, for the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Authorized official of a vending machine operator</I> means an owner, operator, agent in charge, or any other person authorized by a vending machine operator who is not otherwise subject to section 403(q)(5)(H)(viii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 343(q)(5)(H)(viii)), to register the vending machine operator with the Food and Drug Administration (“FDA”) for purposes of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Vending machine</I> means a self-service machine that, upon insertion of a coin, paper currency, token, card, or key, or by optional manual operation, dispenses servings of food in bulk or in packages, or prepared by the machine, without the necessity of replenishing the machine between each vending operation.
</P>
<P><I>Vending machine operator</I> means a person(s) or entity that controls or directs the function of the vending machine, including deciding which articles of food are sold from the machine or the placement of the articles of food within the vending machine, and is compensated for the control or direction of the function of the vending machine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Articles of food not covered.</I> Articles of food sold from a vending machine are not covered vending machine food if:
</P>
<P>(1) The prospective purchaser can view:	
</P>
<P>(i) The calories, serving size, and servings per container listed in the Nutrition Facts label on the vending machine food without any obstruction. The Nutrition Facts label must be in the format required in § 101.9(c) and (d). The Nutrition Facts label must be in a size that permits the prospective purchaser to be able to easily read the nutrition information contained in the Nutrition Facts label on the article of food in the vending machine. Smaller formats allowed for Nutrition Facts for certain food labeling under FDA regulation at § 101.9 are not considered to be a size that a prospective purchaser is able to easily read; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The calories, serving size, and servings per container listed in a reproduction of the Nutrition Facts label on the vending machine food, provided that the reproduction is a reproduction of an actual Nutrition Facts label that complies with § 101.9 for a vending machine food, is presented in a size that permits the prospective purchaser to be able to easily read the nutrition information, and the calories, serving size, and servings per container are displayed by the vending machine before the prospective purchaser makes his or her purchase; or
</P>
<P>(2) The prospective purchaser can otherwise view visible nutrition information, including, at a minimum, the total number of calories for the article of food as sold at the point of purchase. This visible nutrition information must appear on the food label itself. The visible nutrition information must be clear and conspicuous and able to be easily read on the article of food while in the vending machine, in a type size at least 150 percent of the size required by § 101.7(i) for the net quantity of contents declaration on the front of the package, and with sufficient color and contrasting background to other print on the label to permit the prospective purchaser to clearly distinguish the information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for calorie labeling for certain food sold from vending machines</I>—(1) <I>Applicability; covered vending machine food.</I> For the purposes of this section, the term “covered vending machine food” means an article of food that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Sold from a vending machine that does not permit the prospective purchaser to examine the Nutrition Facts label prior to purchase as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or otherwise provide visible nutrition information at the point of purchase as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Sold from a vending machine that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is operated by a person engaged in the business of owning or operating 20 or more vending machines; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is operated by a vending machine operator that has voluntarily elected to be subject to the requirements of this section by registering with FDA under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calorie declaration.</I> (i) The number of calories for a covered vending machine food must be declared in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(A) To the nearest 5-calorie increment up to and including 50 calories and 10-calorie increment above 50 calories, except that amounts less than 5 calories may be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(B) The term “Calories” or “Cal” must appear adjacent to the caloric content value for each food in the vending machine.
</P>
<P>(C) The calorie declaration for a packaged food must include the total calories present in the packaged food, regardless of whether the packaged food contains a single serving or multiple servings. The vending machine operator may voluntarily disclose calories per serving in addition to the total calories for the food.
</P>
<P>(D) If a covered vending machine food is one where the prospective purchaser selects among options to produce a final vended product (<I>e.g.,</I> vended coffee, hot chocolate or tea with options for added sugar, sugar substitute, milk, and cream), calories must be declared per option or for the final vended products.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calorie declarations for covered vending machine food must be clear and conspicuous and placed prominently in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(A) The calorie declarations may be placed on a sign in close proximity to the article of food or selection button, <I>i.e.,</I> in, on, or adjacent to the vending machine, but not necessarily attached to the vending machine, so long as the calorie declaration is visible at the same time as the food, its name, price, selection button, or selection number is visible. The sign must give calorie declarations for those articles of food that are sold from that particular vending machine.
</P>
<P>(B) When the calorie declaration is in or on the vending machine, the calorie declaration must be in a type size no smaller than the name of the food on the machine (not the label), selection number, or price of the food as displayed on the vending machine, whichever is smallest, with the same prominence, <I>i.e.,</I> the same color, or in a color at least as conspicuous, as the color of the name, if applicable, or price of the food or selection number, and the same contrasting background, or a background at least as contrasting as the background used for the item it is in closest proximity to, <I>i.e.,</I> name, selection number, or price of the food item as displayed on the machine.
</P>
<P>(C) When the calorie declaration is on a sign adjacent to the vending machine, the calorie declaration must be in a type size large enough to render it likely to be read and understood by the prospective purchaser under customary conditions of purchase and use, and in a type that is all black or one color on a white or other neutral background that contrasts with the type color.
</P>
<P>(D) Where the vending machine only displays a picture or other representation or name of the food item, the calorie declaration must be in close proximity to the picture or other representation or name, or in close proximity to the selection button.
</P>
<P>(E) For electronic vending machines (<I>e.g.,</I> machines with digital or electronic or liquid crystal display (LCD) displays), the calorie declaration must be displayed before the prospective purchaser makes his or her purchase.
</P>
<P>(F) For vending machines with few choices, <I>e.g.,</I> popcorn, the calorie declaration may appear on the face of the machine so long as the declaration is prominent, not crowded by other labeling on the machine, and the type size is no smaller than the name of the food on the machine (not the label), selection number, or price of the food as displayed on the vending machine, whichever is smallest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voluntary provision of calorie labeling for foods sold from vending machines</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> A vending machine operator that is not subject to the requirements of section 403(q)(5)(H)(viii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act may, through its authorized official, voluntarily register with FDA to be subject to the requirements established in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. An authorized official of a vending machine operator that voluntarily registers cannot be subject to any State or local nutrition labeling requirements that are not identical to the requirements in 403(q)(5)(H) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Who may register</I>? A vending machine operator that is not otherwise subject to the requirements of section 403(q)(5)(H) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act may register with FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>What information is required</I>? The vending machine operator must provide FDA with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The contact information (including name, address, phone number, email address), for the vending machine operator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The address of the location of each vending machine owned or operated by the vending machine operator that is being registered;
</P>
<P>(iii) Preferred mailing address (if different from the vending machine operator address), for purposes of receiving correspondence; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Certification that the information submitted is true and accurate, that the person or firm submitting it is authorized to do so, and that each registered vending machine will be subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Information should be submitted by email by typing complete information into the portable document format (PDF) form, saving it on the registrant's computer, and sending it by email to <I>menulawregistration@fda.hhs.gov.</I> If email is not available, the registrant can either fill in the PDF form and print it out (or print out the blank PDF and fill in the information by hand or typewriter), and either fax the completed form to 301-436-2804 or mail it to FDA, CFSAN Menu and Vending Machine Labeling Registration, White Oak Building 22, rm. 0209, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(vi) Authorized officials of a vending machine operator who elect to be subject to the Federal requirements can register by visiting <I>http://www.fda.gov/food/ingredientspackaginglabeling/labelingnutrition/ucm217762.htm.</I> FDA has created a form that contains fields requesting the information in paragraph (d) of this section and made the form available at this Web site. Registrants must use this form to ensure that complete information is submitted.
</P>
<P>(vii) To keep the establishment's registration active, the authorized official of the vending machine operator must register every other year within 60 days prior to the expiration of the vending machine operator's current registration with FDA. Registration will automatically expire if not renewed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Vending machine operator contact information.</I> (1) A vending machine operator that is subject to section 403(q)(5)(H)(viii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or a vending machine operator that voluntarily registers to be subject to the requirements under paragraph (d) of this section must provide its contact information for vending machines selling covered vending machine food. The contact information must list the vending machine operator's name, telephone number, and mailing address or email address.
</P>
<P>(2) The contact information must be readable and may be placed on the face of the vending machine, or otherwise must be placed with the calorie declarations as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> on the sign in, on, or adjacent to the vending machine).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Signatures.</I> Signatures obtained under paragraph (d) of this section that meet the definition of electronic signatures in § 11.3(b)(7) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 71291, Dec. 1, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 57610, Oct. 28, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.9" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.9   Nutrition labeling of food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nutrition information relating to food shall be provided for all products intended for human consumption and offered for sale unless an exemption is provided for the product in paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) When food is in package form, the required nutrition labeling information shall appear on the label in the format specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) When food is not in package form, the required nutrition labeling information shall be displayed clearly at the point of purchase (e.g., on a counter card, sign, tag affixed to the product, or some other appropriate device). Alternatively, the required information may be placed in a booklet, looseleaf binder, or other appropriate format that is available at the point of purchase.
</P>
<P>(3) Solicitation of requests for nutrition information by a statement “For nutrition information write to ______________________ ” on the label or in the labeling or advertising for a food, or providing such information in a direct written reply to a solicited or unsolicited request, does not subject the label or the labeling of a food exempted under paragraph (j) of this section to the requirements of this section if the reply to the request conforms to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If any vitamin or mineral is added to a food so that a single serving provides 50 percent or more of the Reference Daily Intake (RDI) for the age group for which the product is intended, as specified in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section, of any one of the added vitamins or minerals, unless such addition is permitted or required in other regulations, e.g., a standard of identity or nutritional quality guideline, or is otherwise exempted by the Commissioner, the food shall be considered a food for special dietary use within the meaning of § 105.3(a)(1)(iii) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 101.9(h)(3), all nutrient and food component quantities shall be declared in relation to a serving as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>serving</I> or <I>serving size</I> means an amount of food customarily consumed per eating occasion by persons 4 years of age or older which is expressed in a common household measure that is appropriate to the food. When the food is specially formulated or processed for use by infants or by toddlers, a serving or serving size means an amount of food customarily consumed per eating occasion by infants up to 12 months of age or by children 1 through 3 years of age, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4), and (b)(6) of this section and for products that are intended for weight control and are available only through a weight-control or weight-maintenance program, serving size declared on a product label shall be determined from the “Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed Per Eating Occasion * * * *” (reference amounts) that appear in § 101.12(b) using the procedures described below. For products that are both intended for weight control and available only through a weight-control program, a manufacturer may determine the serving size that is consistent with the meal plan of the program. Such products must bear a statement, “for sale only through the ______ program” (fill in the blank with the name of the appropriate weight-control program, e.g., Smith's Weight Control), on the principal display panel. However, the reference amounts in § 101.12(b) shall be used for purposes of evaluating whether weight-control products that are available only through a weight-control program qualify for nutrient content claims or health claims.
</P>
<P>(i) For products in discrete units (e.g., muffins, sliced products, such as sliced bread, or individually packaged products within a multiserving package) and for products which consist of two or more foods packaged and presented to be consumed together where the ingredient represented as the main ingredient is in discrete units (e.g., pancakes and syrup), the serving size shall be declared as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If a unit weighs 50 percent or less of the reference amount, the serving size shall be the number of whole units that most closely approximates the reference amount for the product category;
</P>
<P>(B) If a unit weighs more than 50 percent, but less than 67 percent of the reference amount, the manufacturer may declare one unit or two units as the serving size;
</P>
<P>(C) If a unit weighs 67 percent or more, but less than 200 percent of the reference amount, the serving size shall be one unit;
</P>
<P>(D) If a unit weighs at least 200 percent and up to and including 300 percent of the applicable reference amount, the serving size shall be the amount that approximates the reference amount. In addition to providing a column within the Nutrition Facts label that lists the quantitative amounts and percent Daily Values per serving size, the manufacturer shall provide a column within the Nutrition Facts label that lists the quantitative amounts and percent Daily Values per individual unit. The first column would be based on the serving size for the product and the second column would be based on the individual unit. The exemptions in paragraphs (b)(12)(i)(A), (B), and (C) of this section apply to this provision.
</P>
<P>(E) The serving size for maraschino cherries shall be expressed as 1 cherry with the parenthetical metric measure equal to the average weight of a medium size cherry.
</P>
<P>(F) The serving size for products that naturally vary in size (e.g., pickles, shellfish, whole fish, and fillet of fish) may be the amount in ounces that most closely approximates the reference amount for the product category. Manufacturers shall adhere to the requirements in paragraph (b)(5)(vi) of this section for expressing the serving size in ounces.
</P>
<P>(G) For products which consist of two or more foods packaged and presented to be consumed together where the ingredient represented as the main ingredient is in discrete units (e.g., pancakes and syrup), the serving size may be the number of discrete units represented as the main ingredient plus proportioned minor ingredients used to make the reference amount for the combined product determined in § 101.12(f).
</P>
<P>(H) For packages containing several individual single-serving containers, each of which is labeled with all required information including nutrition labeling as specified in § 101.9 (that is, are labeled appropriately for individual sale as single-serving containers), the serving size shall be 1 unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) For products in large discrete units that are usually divided for consumption (e.g., cake, pie, pizza, melon, cabbage), for unprepared products where the entire contents of the package is used to prepare large discrete units that are usually divided for consumption (e.g., cake mix, pizza kit), and for products which consist of two or more foods packaged and presented to be consumed together where the ingredient represented as the main ingredient is a large discrete unit usually divided for consumption (e.g., prepared cake packaged with a can of frosting), the serving size shall be the fractional slice of the ready-to-eat product (e.g., 
<FR>1/12</FR> cake, 
<FR>1/8</FR> pie, 
<FR>1/4</FR> pizza, 
<FR>1/4</FR> melon, 
<FR>1/6</FR> cabbage) that most closely approximates the reference amount for the product category, and may be the fraction of the package used to make the reference amount for the unprepared product determined in § 101.12(c) or the fraction of the large discrete unit represented as the main ingredient plus proportioned minor ingredients used to make the reference amount for the combined product determined in § 101.12(f). In expressing the fractional slice, manufacturers shall use 
<FR>1/2</FR>, 
<FR>1/3</FR>, 
<FR>1/4</FR>, 
<FR>1/5</FR>, 
<FR>1/6</FR>, or smaller fractions that can be generated by further division by 2 or 3.
</P>
<P>(iii) For nondiscrete bulk products (e.g., breakfast cereal, flour, sugar, dry mixes, concentrates, pancake mixes, macaroni and cheese kits), and for products which consist of two or more foods packaged and presented to be consumed together where the ingredient represented as the main ingredient is a bulk product (e.g., peanut butter and jelly), the serving size shall be the amount in household measure that most closely approximates the reference amount for the product category and may be the amount of the bulk product represented as the main ingredient plus proportioned minor ingredients used to make the reference amount for the combined product determined in § 101.12(f).
</P>
<P>(3) The serving size for meal products and main dish products as defined in § 101.13 (l) and (m) that comes in single-serving containers as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section shall be the entire content (edible portion only) of the package. Serving size for meal products and main dish products in multiserving containers shall be based on the reference amount applicable to the product in § 101.12(b) if the product is listed in § 101.12(b). Serving size for meal products and main dish products in multiserving containers that are not listed in § 101.12(b) shall be based on the reference amount according to § 101.12(f).
</P>
<P>(4) A variety pack, such as a package containing several varieties of single-serving units as defined in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, and a product having two or more compartments with each compartment containing a different food, shall provide nutrition information for each variety or food per serving size that is derived from the reference amount in § 101.12(b) applicable for each variety or food and the procedures to convert the reference amount to serving size in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) For labeling purposes, the term <I>common household measure</I> or <I>common household unit</I> means cup, tablespoon, teaspoon, piece, slice, fraction (e.g., 
<FR>1/4</FR> pizza), ounce (oz), fluid ounce (fl oz), or other common household equipment used to package food products (e.g., jar, tray). In expressing serving size in household measures, except as specified in paragraphs (b)(5)(iv), (b)(5)(v), (b)(5)(vi), and (b)(5)(vii) of this section, the following rules shall be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Cups, tablespoons, or teaspoons shall be used wherever possible and appropriate except for beverages. For beverages, a manufacturer may use fluid ounces. Cups shall be expressed in 1/4- or 1/3-cup increments. Tablespoons shall be expressed as 1, 1 1/3, 1 1/2, 1 2/3, 2, or 3 tablespoons. Teaspoons shall be expressed as 1/8, 1/4, 1/2, 3/4, 1, or 2 teaspoons.
</P>
<P>(ii) If cups, tablespoons or teaspoons are not applicable, units such as piece, slice, tray, jar, and fraction shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) If paragraphs (b)(5)(i) and (b)(5)(ii) of this section are not applicable, ounces may be used with an appropriate visual unit of measure such as a dimension of a piece, e.g., 1 oz (28 g/about 
<FR>1/2</FR> pickle). Ounce measurements shall be expressed in 0.5 oz increments most closely approximating the reference amount.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the individual container or package shall be used for single serving containers and for individually packaged products within multiserving containers (e.g., can, box, package). A description of the individual unit shall be used for other products in discrete units (e.g., piece, slice, cracker, bar).
</P>
<P>(v) For unprepared products where the entire contents of the package is used to prepare large discrete units that are usually divided for consumption (e.g., cake mix, pizza kit), the fraction or portion of the package may be used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Ounces with an appropriate visual unit of measure, as described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii) of this section, may be used for products that naturally vary in size as provided for in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) As provided for in § 101.9(h)(1), for products that consist of two or more distinct ingredients or components packaged and presented to be consumed together (e.g. dry macaroni and cheese mix, cake and muffin mixes with separate ingredient packages, pancakes and syrup), nutrition information may be declared for each component or as a composite. The serving size may be provided in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2)(i), (b)(2)(ii), and (b)(2)(iii) of this section, or alternatively in ounces with an appropriate visual unit of measure, as described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii) of this section (e.g., declared as separate components: “3 oz dry macaroni (84 g/about 
<FR>2/3</FR> cup)” and “1 oz dry cheese mix (28 g/about 2 tbsp);” declared as a composite value: “4 oz (112 g/about 
<FR>2/3</FR> cup macaroni and 2 tbsp dry cheese mix)”).
</P>
<P>(viii) For nutrition labeling purposes, a teaspoon means 5 milliliters (mL), a tablespoon means 15 mL, a cup means 240 mL, 1 fl oz means 30 mL, and 1 oz in weight means 28 g.
</P>
<P>(ix) When a serving size, determined from the reference amount in § 101.12(b) and the procedures described in this section, falls exactly half way between two serving sizes, e.g., 2.5 tbsp, manufacturers shall round the serving size up to the next incremental size.
</P>
<P>(6) A product that is packaged and sold individually that contains less than 200 percent of the applicable reference amount must be considered to be a single-serving container, and the entire content of the product must be labeled as one serving. In addition to providing a column within the Nutrition Facts label that lists the quantitative amounts and percent Daily Values per serving, for a product that is packaged and sold individually that contains more than 150 percent and less than 200 percent of the applicable reference amount, the Nutrition Facts label may voluntarily provide, to the left of the column that provides nutrition information per container (<I>i.e.,</I> per serving), an additional column that lists the quantitative amounts and percent Daily Values per common household measure that most closely approximates the reference amount.
</P>
<P>(7) A label statement regarding a serving shall be the serving size expressed in common household measures as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(6) of this section and shall be followed by the equivalent metric quantity in parenthesis (fluids in milliliters and all other foods in grams) except for single-serving containers.
</P>
<P>(i) For a single-serving container, the parenthetical metric quantity, which will be presented as part of the net weight statement on the principal display panel, is not required except where nutrition information is required on a drained weight basis according to § 101.9(b)(9). However, if a manufacturer voluntarily provides the metric quantity on products that can be sold as single servings, then the numerical value provided as part of the serving size declaration must be identical to the metric quantity declaration provided as part of the net quantity of contents statement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The gram or milliliter quantity equivalent to the household measure should be rounded to the nearest whole number except for quantities that are less than 5 g (mL). The gram (mL) quantity between 2 and 5 g (mL) should be rounded to the nearest 0.5 g (mL) and the g (mL) quantity less than 2 g (mL) should be expressed in 0.1-g (mL) increments.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition, serving size may be declared in ounce and fluid ounce, in parenthesis, following the metric measure separated by a slash where other common household measures are used as the primary unit for serving size, e.g., 1 slice (28 g/1 oz) for sliced bread. The ounce quantity equivalent to the metric quantity should be expressed in 0.1 oz increments.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a manufacturer elects to use abbreviations for units, the following abbreviations shall be used: tbsp for tablespoon, tsp for teaspoon, g for gram, mL for milliliter, oz for ounce, and fl oz for fluid ounce.
</P>
<P>(v) For products that only require the addition of water or another ingredient that contains insignificant amounts of nutrients in the amount added and that are prepared in such a way that there are no significant changes to the nutrient profile, the amount of the finished product may be declared in parentheses at the end of the serving size declaration (e.g., 
<FR>1/2</FR> cup (120 mL) concentrated soup (makes 1 cup prepared)).
</P>
<P>(vi) To promote uniformity in label serving sizes in household measures declared by different manufacturers, FDA has provided a guidance document entitled, “Guidelines for Determining the Gram Weight of the Household Measure.” The guidance document can be obtained from the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(8) Determination of the number of servings per container shall be based on the serving size of the product determined by following the procedures described in this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The number of servings shall be rounded to the nearest whole number except for the number of servings between 2 and 5 servings and random weight products. The number of servings between 2 and 5 servings shall be rounded to the nearest 0.5 serving. Rounding should be indicated by the use of the term <I>about</I> (e.g., about 2 servings, about 3.5 servings).
</P>
<P>(ii) When the serving size is required to be expressed on a drained solids basis and the number of servings varies because of a natural variation in unit size (e.g., maraschino cherries, pickles), the manufacturer may state the typical number of servings per container (e.g., usually 5 servings).
</P>
<P>(iii) For random weight products, manufacturers may declare “varied” for the number of servings per container provided the nutrition information is based on the reference amount expressed in the appropriate household measure based on the hierarchy described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. Random weight products are foods such as cheeses that are sold as random weights that vary in size, such that the net contents for different containers would vary. The manufacturer may provide the typical number of servings in parentheses following the “varied” statement.
</P>
<P>(iv) For packages containing several individual single-serving containers, each of which is labeled with all required information including nutrition labeling as specified in § 101.9 (that is, are labeled appropriately for individual sale as single-serving containers), the number of servings shall be the number of individual packages within the total package.
</P>
<P>(v) For packages containing several individually packaged multiserving units, the number of servings shall be determined by multiplying the number of individual multiserving units in the total package by the number of servings in each individual unit.
</P>
<P>(9) The declaration of nutrient and food component content shall be on the basis of food as packaged or purchased with the exception of raw fish covered under § 101.42 (see 101.44), packaged single-ingredient products that consist of fish or game meat as provided for in paragraph (j)(11) of this section, and of foods that are packed or canned in water, brine, or oil but whose liquid packing medium is not customarily consumed (e.g., canned fish, maraschino cherries, pickled fruits, and pickled vegetables). Declaration of nutrient and food component content of raw fish shall follow the provisions in § 101.45. Declaration of the nutrient and food component content of foods that are packed in liquid which is not customarily consumed shall be based on the drained solids.
</P>
<P>(10) Another column of figures may be used to declare the nutrient and food component information:
</P>
<P>(i) Per 100 g or 100 mL, or per 1 oz or 1 fl oz of the food as packaged or purchased;
</P>
<P>(ii) Per one unit if the serving size of a product in discrete units is more than 1 unit.
</P>
<P>(iii) Per cup popped for popcorn in a multiserving container.
</P>
<P>(11) If a product is promoted on the label, labeling, or advertising for a use that differs in quantity by twofold or greater from the use upon which the reference amount in § 101.12(b) was based (e.g., liquid cream substitutes promoted for use with breakfast cereals), the manufacturer shall provide a second column of nutrition information based on the amount customarily consumed in the promoted use, in addition to the nutrition information per serving derived from the reference amount in § 101.12(b), except that nondiscrete bulk products that are used primarily as ingredients (e.g., flour, sweeteners, shortenings, oils), or traditionally used for multipurposes (e.g., eggs, butter, margarine), and multipurpose baking mixes are exempt from this requirement.
</P>
<P>(12)(i) Products that are packaged and sold individually and that contain at least 200 percent and up to and including 300 percent of the applicable reference amount must provide an additional column within the Nutrition Facts label that lists the quantitative amounts and percent Daily Values for the entire package, as well as a column listing the quantitative amounts and percent Daily Values for a serving that is less than the entire package (<I>i.e.,</I> the serving size derived from the reference amount). The first column would be based on the serving size for the product and the second column would be based on the entire contents of the package.
</P>
<P>(A) This provision does not apply to products that meet the requirements to use the tabular format in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section or to products that meet the requirements to use the linear format in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) This provision does not apply to raw fruits, vegetables, and seafood for which voluntary nutrition labeling is provided in the product labeling or advertising or when claims are made about the product.
</P>
<P>(C) This provision does not apply to products that require further preparation and provide an additional column of nutrition information under paragraph (e) of this section, to products that are commonly consumed in combination with another food and provide an additional column of nutrition information under paragraph (e) of this section, to products that provide an additional column of nutrition information for two or more groups for which RDIs are established (<I>e.g.,</I> both infants and children less than 4 years of age), to popcorn products that provide an additional column of nutrition information per 1 cup popped popcorn, or to varied-weight products covered under paragraph (b)(8)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a nutrient content claim or health claim is made on the label of a product that uses a dual column as required in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D) or (b)(12)(i) of this section, the claim must be followed by a statement that sets forth the basis on which the claim is made, except that the statement is not required for products when the nutrient that is the subject of the claim meets the criteria for the claim based on the reference amount for the product and the entire container or the unit amount. When a nutrient content claim is made, the statement must express that the claim refers to the amount of the nutrient per serving (<I>e.g.,</I> “good source of calcium per serving” or “per X [insert unit]__serving”) or per reference amount (<I>e.g.,</I> “good source of calcium per [insert reference amount (<I>e.g.,</I> per 8 ounces)]), as required based on § 101.12(g). When a health claim is made, the statement shall be “A serving of __ounces of this product conforms to such a diet.”
</P>
<P>(c) The declaration of nutrition information on the label and in labeling of a food shall contain information about the level of the following nutrients, except for those nutrients whose inclusion, and the declaration of amounts, is voluntary as set forth in this paragraph. No nutrients or food components other than those listed in this paragraph as either mandatory or voluntary may be included within the nutrition label. Except as provided for in paragraphs (f) or (j) of this section, nutrient information shall be presented using the nutrient names specified and in the following order in the formats specified in paragraphs (d) or (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) “Calories, total,” “Total calories,” or “Calories”: A statement of the caloric content per serving, expressed to the nearest 5-calorie increment up to and including 50 calories, and 10-calorie increment above 50 calories, except that amounts less than 5 calories may be expressed as zero. Energy content per serving may also be expressed in kilojoule units, added in parentheses immediately following the statement of the caloric content.
</P>
<P>(i) Caloric content may be calculated by the following methods. Where either specific or general food factors are used, the factors shall be applied to the actual amount (i.e., before rounding) of food components (e.g., fat, carbohydrate, protein, or ingredients with specific food factors) present per serving.
</P>
<P>(A) Using specific Atwater factors (<I>i.e.,</I> the Atwater method) given in table 13, USDA Handbook No. 74 (slightly revised, 1973),
</P>
<P>(B) Using the general factors of 4, 4, and 9 calories per gram for protein, total carbohydrate, and total fat, respectively, as described in USDA Handbook No. 74 (slightly revised, 1973) pp. 9-11;
</P>
<P>(C) Using the general factors of 4, 4, and 9 calories per gram for protein, total carbohydrate (less the amount of non-digestible carbohydrates and sugar alcohols), and total fat, respectively, as described in USDA Handbook No. 74 (slightly revised, 1973) pp. 9-11. A general factor of 2 calories per gram for soluble non-digestible carbohydrates shall be used. The general factors for caloric value of sugar alcohols provided in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(F) of this section shall be used;
</P>
<P>(D) Using data for specific food factors for particular foods or ingredients approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and provided in parts 172 or 184 of this chapter, or by other means, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(E) Using bomb calorimetry data subtracting 1.25 calories per gram protein to correct for incomplete digestibility, as described in USDA Handbook No. 74 (slightly revised, 1973) p. 10; or
</P>
<P>(F) Using the following general factors for caloric value of sugar alcohols: Isomalt—2.0 calories per gram, lactitol—2.0 calories per gram, xylitol—2.4 calories per gram, maltitol—2.1 calories per gram, sorbitol—2.6 calories per gram, hydrogenated starch hydrolysates—3.0 calories per gram, mannitol—1.6 calories per gram, and erythritol—0 calories per gram.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Calories from saturated fat” or “Calories from saturated” (VOLUNTARY): A statement of the caloric content derived from saturated fat as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section in a serving may be declared voluntarily, expressed to the nearest 5-calorie increment, up to and including 50 calories, and the nearest 10-calorie increment above 50 calories, except that amounts less than 5 calories may be expressed as zero. This statement shall be indented under the statement of calories as provided in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) “Fat, total” or “Total fat”: A statement of the number of grams of total fat in a serving defined as total lipid fatty acids and expressed as triglycerides where fatty acids are aliphatic carboxylic acids consisting of a chain of alkyl groups and characterized by a terminal carboxyl group. Amounts shall be expressed to the nearest 0.5 (
<FR>1/2</FR>) gram increment below 5 grams and to the nearest gram increment above 5 grams. If the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content shall be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(i) “Saturated fat,” or “Saturated”: A statement of the number of grams of saturated fat in a serving defined as the sum of all fatty acids containing no double bonds, except that label declaration of saturated fat content information is not required for products that contain less than 0.5 gram of total fat in a serving if no claims are made about fat, fatty acid, or cholesterol content, and if “calories from saturated fat” is not declared. Except as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, if a statement of the saturated fat content is not required and, as a result, not declared, the statement “Not a significant source of saturated fat” shall be placed at the bottom of the table of nutrient values. Saturated fat content shall be indented and expressed as grams per serving to the nearest 0.5 gram (
<FR>1/2</FR>) gram increment below 5 grams and to the nearest gram increment above 5 grams. If the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content shall be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Trans fat” or “Trans”: A statement of the number of grams of trans fat in a serving, defined as the sum of all unsaturated fatty acids that contain one or more isolated (<I>i.e.,</I> nonconjugated) double bonds in a trans configuration, except that label declaration of trans fat content information is not required for products that contain less than 0.5 gram of total fat in a serving if no claims are made about fat, fatty acid or cholesterol content. The word “trans” may be italicized to indicate its Latin origin. Trans fat content shall be indented and expressed as grams per serving to the nearest 0.5 (
<FR>1/2</FR>)-gram increment below 5 grams and to the nearest gram increment above 5 grams. If the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content, when declared, shall be expressed as zero. Except as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, if a statement of the trans fat content is not required and, as a result, not declared, the statement “Not a significant source of trans fat” shall be placed at the bottom of the table of nutrient values.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Polyunsaturated fat” or “Poly-unsaturated” (VOLUNTARY): A statement of the number of grams of polyunsaturated fat in a serving defined as cis,cis-methylene-interrupted polyunsaturated fatty acids may be declared voluntarily, except that when monounsaturated fat is declared, or when a claim about fatty acids or cholesterol is made on the label or in labeling of a food other than one that meets the criteria in § 101.62(b)(1) for a claim for “fat free,” label declaration of polyunsaturated fat is required. Polyunsaturated fat content shall be indented and expressed as grams per serving to the nearest 0.5 (
<FR>1/2</FR>) gram increment below 5 grams and to the nearest gram increment above 5 grams. If the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content shall be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(iv) “Monounsaturated fat” or “Monounsaturated” (VOLUNTARY): A statement of the number of grams of monounsaturated fat in a serving defined as cis-monounsaturated fatty acids may be declared voluntarily except that when polyunsaturated fat is declared, or when a claim about fatty acids or cholesterol is made on the label or in labeling of a food other than one that meets the criteria in § 101.62(b)(1) for a claim for “fat free,” label declaration of monounsaturated fat is required. Monounsaturated fat content shall be indented and expressed as grams per serving to the nearest 0.5 (
<FR>1/2</FR>) gram increment below 5 grams and to the nearest gram increment above 5 grams. If the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content shall be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(3) “Cholesterol”: A statement of the cholesterol content in a serving expressed in milligrams to the nearest 5-milligram increment, except that label declaration of cholesterol information is not required for products that contain less than 2 milligrams cholesterol in a serving and make no claim about fat, fatty acids, or cholesterol content, or such products may state the cholesterol content as zero. Except as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, if cholesterol content is not required and, as a result, not declared, the statement “Not a significant source of cholesterol” shall be placed at the bottom of the table of nutrient values in the same type size. If the food contains 2 to 5 milligrams of cholesterol per serving, the content may be stated as “less than 5 milligrams.”
</P>
<P>(4) “Sodium”: A statement of the number of milligrams of sodium in a specified serving of food expressed as zero when the serving contains less than 5 milligrams of sodium, to the nearest 5-milligram increment when the serving contains 5 to 140 milligrams of sodium, and to the nearest 10-milligram increment when the serving contains greater than 140 milligrams.
</P>
<P>(5) “Fluoride” (VOLUNTARY): A statement of the number of milligrams of fluoride in a specified serving of food may be declared voluntarily, except that when a claim is made about fluoride content, label declaration shall be required. Fluoride content shall be expressed as zero when the serving contains less than 0.1 milligrams of fluoride, to the nearest 0.1-milligram increment when the serving contains less than or equal to 0.8 milligrams of fluoride, and the nearest 0.2 milligram-increment when a serving contains more than 0.8 milligrams of fluoride. Bottled water that bears a statement about added fluoride, as permitted by § 101.13(q)(8), must bear nutrition labeling that complies with requirements for the simplified format in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) “Carbohydrate, total” or “Total carbohydrate”: A statement of the number of grams of total carbohydrate in a serving expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used as an alternative, or if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero. Total carbohydrate content shall be calculated by subtraction of the sum of the crude protein, total fat, moisture, and ash from the total weight of the food. This calculation method is described in A. L. Merrill and B. K. Watt, “Energy Value of Foods—Basis and Derivation,” USDA Handbook 74 (slightly revised 1973) pp. 2 and 3, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51 (the availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section).
</P>
<P>(i) “Dietary fiber”: A statement of the number of grams of total dietary fiber in a serving, indented and expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, declaration of dietary fiber is not required or, alternatively, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used, and if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero. Dietary fiber is defined as non-digestible soluble and insoluble carbohydrates (with 3 or more monomeric units), and lignin that are intrinsic and intact in plants; isolated or synthetic non-digestible carbohydrates (with 3 or more monomeric units) determined by FDA to have physiological effects that are beneficial to human health. Except as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, if dietary fiber content is not required, and as a result not declared, the statement “Not a significant source of dietary fiber” shall be placed at the bottom of the table of nutrient values in the same type size. The following isolated or synthetic nondigestible carbohydrate(s) have been determined by FDA to have physiological effects that are beneficial to human health and, therefore, shall be included in the calculation of the amount of dietary fiber: [beta]-glucan soluble fiber (as described in § 101.81(c)(2)(ii)(A)), psyllium husk (as described in § 101.81(c)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)), cellulose, guar gum, pectin, locust bean gum, and hydroxypropylmethylcellulose. The manufacturer must make and keep records in accordance with paragraphs (g)(10) and (11) of this section to verify the declared amount of dietary fiber in the label and labeling of food when a mixture of dietary fiber, and added nondigestible carbohydrate(s) that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber, is present in the food.
</P>
<P>(A) “Soluble fiber” (VOLUNTARY): A statement of the number of grams of soluble dietary fiber in a serving may be declared voluntarily except that when a claim is made on the label or in labeling about soluble fiber, label declaration shall be required. Soluble fiber must meet the definition of dietary fiber in this paragraph (c)(6)(i). The manufacturer must make and keep records in accordance with paragraphs (g)(10) and (11) of this section to verify the declared amount of soluble fiber in the label and labeling of food when a mixture of soluble fiber and added non-digestible carbohydrate(s) that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber is present in the food. Soluble fiber content shall be indented under dietary fiber and expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used as an alternative, and if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero.”
</P>
<P>(B) “Insoluble fiber” (VOLUNTARY): A statement of the number of grams of insoluble dietary fiber in a serving may be declared voluntarily except that when a claim is made on the label or in labeling about insoluble fiber, label declaration shall be required. Insoluble fiber must meet the definition of dietary fiber in this paragraph (c)(6)(i). The manufacturer must make and keep records in accordance with paragraphs (g)(10) and (11) of this section to verify the declared amount of insoluble fiber in the label and labeling of food when a mixture of insoluble and added non-digestible carbohydrate(s) that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber is present in the food. Insoluble fiber content shall be indented under dietary fiber and expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used as an alternative, and if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Total Sugars”: A statement of the number of grams of sugars in a serving, except that the label declaration of sugars content is not required for products that contain less than 1 gram of sugars in a serving if no claims are made about sweeteners, sugars, or sugar alcohol content. Except as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, if a statement of the total sugars content is not required and, as a result, not declared, the statement “Not a significant source of total sugars” shall be placed at the bottom of the table of nutrient values in the same type size. Total sugars shall be defined as the sum of all free mono- and disaccharides (such as glucose, fructose, lactose, and sucrose). Total sugars content shall be indented and expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used as an alternative, and if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Added Sugars”: A statement of the number of grams of added sugars in a serving, except that label declaration of added sugars content is not required for products that contain less than 1 gram of added sugars in a serving if no claims are made about sweeteners, sugars, added sugars, or sugar alcohol content. Except as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, if a statement of the added sugars content is not required and, as a result, not declared, the statement “Not a significant source of added sugars” shall be placed at the bottom of the table of nutrient values in the same type size. Added sugars are either added during the processing of foods, or are packaged as such, and include sugars (free, mono and disaccharides), sugars from syrups and honey, and sugars from concentrated fruit or vegetable juices that are in excess of what would be expected from the same volume of 100 percent fruit or vegetable juice of the same type, except that fruit or vegetable juice concentrated from 100 percent juices sold to consumers, fruit or vegetable juice concentrates used towards the total juice percentage label declaration under § 101.30 or for Brix standardization under § 102.33(g)(2) of this chapter, fruit juice concentrates which are used to formulate the fruit component of jellies, jams, or preserves in accordance with the standard of identities set forth in §§ 150.140 and 150.160 of this chapter, or the fruit component of fruit spreads shall not be labeled as added sugars. Added sugars content shall be indented under Total Sugars and shall be prefaced with the word “Includes” followed by the amount (in grams) “Added Sugars” (“Includes `X' g Added Sugars”). It shall be expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used as an alternative, and if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero. When a mixture of naturally occurring and added sugars is present in the food, and for specific foods containing added sugars, alone or in combination with naturally occurring sugars, where the added sugars are subject to fermentation and/or non-enzymatic browning, the manufacturer must make and keep records in accordance with paragraphs (g)(10) and (11) of this section to verify the declared amount of added sugars in the label and labeling of food.
</P>
<P>(iv) “Sugar alcohol” (VOLUNTARY): A statement of the number of grams of sugar alcohols in a serving may be declared voluntarily on the label, except that when a claim is made on the label or in labeling about sugar alcohol or total sugars, or added sugars when sugar alcohols are present in the food, sugar alcohol content shall be declared. For nutrition labeling purposes, sugar alcohols are defined as the sum of saccharide derivatives in which a hydroxyl group replaces a ketone or aldehyde group and whose use in the food is listed by FDA (<I>e.g.,</I> mannitol or xylitol) or is generally recognized as safe (<I>e.g.,</I> sorbitol). In lieu of the term “sugar alcohol,” the name of the specific sugar alcohol (<I>e.g.,</I> “xylitol”) present in the food may be used in the nutrition label provided that only one sugar alcohol is present in the food. Sugar alcohol content shall be indented and expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used as an alternative, and if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(7) “Protein”: A statement of the number of grams of protein in a serving, expressed to the nearest gram, except that if a serving contains less than 1 gram, the statement “Contains less than 1 gram” or “less than 1 gram” may be used as an alternative, and if the serving contains less than 0.5 gram, the content may be expressed as zero. When the protein in foods represented or purported to be for adults and children 4 or more years of age has a protein quality value that is a protein digestibility-corrected amino acid score of less than 20 expressed as a percent, or when the protein in a food represented or purported to be for children greater than 1 but less than 4 years of age has a protein quality value that is a protein digestibility-corrected amino acid score of less than 40 expressed as a percent, either of the following shall be placed adjacent to the declaration of protein content by weight: The statement “not a significant source of protein,” or a listing aligned under the column headed “Percent Daily Value” of the corrected amount of protein per serving, as determined in paragraph (c)(7)(ii) of this section, calculated as a percentage of the Daily Reference Value (DRV) or Reference Daily Intake (RDI), as appropriate, for protein and expressed as a Percent of Daily Value. When the protein quality in a food as measured by the Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is less than 40 percent of the reference standard (casein) for a food represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months, the statement “not a significant source of protein” shall be placed adjacent to the declaration of protein content. Protein content may be calculated on the basis of the factor 6.25 times the nitrogen content of the food as determined by the appropriate method of analysis as given in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the AOAC International,” except when official AOAC procedures described in this paragraph (c)(7) require a specific factor other than 6.25, that specific factor shall be used.
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the corrected amount of protein per serving, as determined in paragraph (c)(7)(ii) of this section, calculated as a percentage of the RDI or DRV for protein, as appropriate, and expressed as Percent of Daily Value, may be placed on the label, except that such a statement shall be given if a protein claim is made for the product, or if the product is represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months or children 1 through 3 years of age. When such a declaration is provided, it should be placed on the label adjacent to the statement of grams of protein and aligned under the column headed “Percent Daily Value,” and expressed to the nearest whole percent. However, the percentage of the RDI for protein shall not be declared if the food is represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months and the protein quality value is less than 40 percent of the reference standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) The “corrected amount of protein (gram) per serving” for foods represented or purported for adults and children 1 or more years of age is equal to the actual amount of protein (gram) per serving multiplied by the amino acid score corrected for protein digestibility. If the corrected score is above 1.00, then it shall be set at 1.00. The protein digestibility-corrected amino acid score shall be determined by methods given in sections 5.4.1, 7.2.1, and 8.00 in “Report of the Joint FAO/WHO Expert Consultation on Protein Quality Evaluation,” except that when official AOAC procedures described in paragraph (c)(7) of this section require a specific factor other than 6.25, that specific factor shall be used. For foods represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months, the corrected amount of protein (grams) per serving is equal to the actual amount of protein (grams) per serving multiplied by the relative protein quality value. The relative protein quality value shall be determined by dividing the subject food protein PER value by the PER value for casein. If the relative protein value is above 1.00, it shall be set at 1.00.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the purpose of labeling with a percent of the DRV or RDI, a value of 50 grams of protein shall be the DRV for adults and children 4 or more years of age, a value of 11 grams of protein shall be the RDI for infants through 12 months, a value of 13 grams shall be the DRV for children 1 through 3 years of age, and a value of 71 grams of protein shall be the RDI for pregnant women and lactating women.
</P>
<P>(8) “Vitamins and minerals”: The requirements related to including a statement of the amount per serving of vitamins and minerals are described in this paragraph (c)(8).
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of declaration of percent of Daily Value as provided for in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, foods represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months, children 1 through 3 years, pregnant women, and lactating women shall use the RDIs that are specified for the intended group. For foods represented or purported to be specifically for both infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age, the percent of Daily Value shall be presented by separate declarations according to paragraph (e) of this section based on the RDI values for infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age. When such dual declaration is used on any label, it shall be included in all labeling, and equal prominence shall be given to both values in all such labeling. The percent Daily Value based on the RDI values for pregnant women and lactating women shall be declared on food represented or purported to be specifically for pregnant women and lactating women. All other foods shall use the RDI for adults and children 4 or more years of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) The declaration of vitamins and minerals as a quantitative amount by weight and percent of the RDI shall include vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium in that order, for infants through 12 months, children 1 through 3 years of age, pregnant women, lactating women, and adults and children 4 or more years of age, except quantitative weights for these vitamins and minerals are not required for labels described in paragraph (j)(13) of this section. The declaration of folic acid shall be included as a quantitative amount by weight when added as a nutrient supplement or a claim is made about the nutrient. The declaration of vitamins and minerals in a food, as a quantitative amount by weight and percent of the RDI, may include any of the other vitamins and minerals listed in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section. The declaration of vitamins and minerals shall include any of the other vitamins and minerals listed in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section as a statement of the amount per serving of the vitamins and minerals as described in this paragraph (c)(8)(ii), calculated as a percent of the RDI and expressed as a percent of the Daily Value, when they are added as a nutrient supplement, or when a claim is made about them, unless otherwise stated as quantitative amount by weight and percent of the Daily Value. Other vitamins and minerals need not be declared if neither the nutrient nor the component is otherwise referred to on the label or the labeling or advertising and the vitamins and minerals are:
</P>
<P>(A) Required or permitted in a standardized food (e.g., thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin in enriched flour) and that standardized food is included as an ingredient (i.e., component) in another food; or
</P>
<P>(B) Included in a food solely for technological purposes and declared only in the ingredient statement. The declaration may also include any of the other vitamins and minerals listed in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section when they are naturally occurring in the food. The additional vitamins and minerals shall be listed in the order established in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The percentages for vitamins and minerals shall be expressed to the nearest 2-percent increment up to and including the 10-percent level, the nearest 5-percent increment above 10 percent and up to and including the 50-percent level, and the nearest 10-percent increment above the 50-percent level. Quantitative amounts and percentages of vitamins and minerals present at less than 2 percent of the RDI are not required to be declared in nutrition labeling but may be declared by a zero or by the use of an asterisk (or other symbol) that refers to another asterisk (or symbol) that is placed at the bottom of the table and that is followed by the statement “Contains less than 2 percent of the Daily Value of this (these) nutrient (nutrients)” or “Contains &lt;2 percent of the Daily Value of this (these) nutrient (nutrients).” Alternatively, except as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, if vitamin D, calcium, iron, or potassium is present in amounts less than 2 percent of the RDI, label declaration of the nutrient(s) is not required if the statement “Not a significant source of—(listing the vitamins or minerals omitted)” is placed at the bottom of the table of nutrient values. Either statement shall be in the same type size as nutrients that are indented. The quantitative amounts of vitamins and minerals, excluding sodium, shall be the amount of the vitamin or mineral included in one serving of the product, using the units of measurement and the levels of significance given in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section, except that zeros following decimal points may be dropped, and additional levels of significance may be used when the number of decimal places indicated is not sufficient to express lower amounts (<I>e.g.,</I> the RDI for zinc is given in whole milligrams, but the quantitative amount may be declared in tenths of a milligram).
</P>
<P>(iv) The following RDIs, nomenclature, and units of measure are established for the following vitamins and minerals which are essential in human nutrition:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">RDI
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nutrient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit of measure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adults and children ≥ 4 years
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Infants 
<sup>1</sup> through 12 months
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Children 1 through 3 years
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pregnant women and lactating women
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms RAE 
<sup>3</sup> (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg) 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin K</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams NE 
<sup>5</sup> (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Folate 
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms DFE 
<sup>7</sup> (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Biotin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pantothenic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">460</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">290
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">420</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms (mcg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Choline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">550
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protein</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>8</sup> 71
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> RDIs are based on dietary reference intake recommendations for infants through 12 months of age.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The amount of vitamin D may, but is not required to, be expressed in international units (IU), in addition to the mandatory declaration in mcg. Any declaration of the amount of vitamin D in IU must appear in parentheses after the declaration of the amount of vitamin D in mcg.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> RAE = Retinol activity equivalents; 1 microgram RAE = 1 microgram retinol, 2 micrograms supplemental β-carotene, 12 micrograms dietary β-carotene, or 24 micrograms dietary α-carotene, or 24 micrograms dietary β-cryptoxanthin.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> 1 mg α-tocopherol (label claim) = 1 mg α-tocopherol = 1 mg RRR- α-tocopherol = 2 mg <E T="03">all rac</E>-α-tocopherol.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> NE = Niacin equivalents, 1 mg NE = 1 mg niacin = 60 milligrams tryptophan.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> “Folate” and “Folic Acid” must be used for purposes of declaration in the labeling of conventional foods and dietary supplements. The declaration for folate must be in mcg DFE (when expressed as a quantitative amount by weight in a conventional food or a dietary supplement), and percent DV based on folate in mcg DFE. Folate may be expressed as a percent DV in conventional foods. When folic acid is added or when a claim is made about the nutrient, folic acid must be declared in parentheses, as mcg of folic acid.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> DFE = Dietary Folate Equivalents; 1 DFE = 1 mcg naturally occurring folate = 0.6 mcg folic acid.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> Based on the reference caloric intake of 2,000 calories for adults and children aged 4 years and older, and for pregnant women and lactating women.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) The following synonyms may be added in parentheses immediately following the name of the nutrient or dietary component:
</P>
<FP-1>Calories—Energy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin C—Ascorbic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiamin—Vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Riboflavin—Vitamin B<E T="52">2</E>
</FP-1>
<P>(vi) A statement of the percent of vitamin A that is present as <I>beta</I>-carotene may be declared voluntarily. When the vitamins and minerals are listed in a single column, the statement shall be indented under the information on vitamin A. When vitamins and minerals are arrayed horizontally, the statement of percent shall be presented in parenthesis following the declaration of vitamin A and the percent DV of vitamin A in the food (e.g., “Percent Daily Value: Vitamin A 50 (90 percent as <I>beta</I>-carotene)”). When declared, the percentages shall be expressed in the same increments as are provided for vitamins and minerals in paragraph (c)(8)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) When the amount of folate is declared in the labeling of a conventional food or a dietary supplement, the nutrient name “folate” shall be listed for products containing folate (natural folate, and/or synthetic folate as a component of dietary supplement, such as calcium salt of L-5-MTHF), folic acid, or a mixture of folate and folic acid. The name of the synthetic form of the nutrient “folic acid”, when added or a claim is made about the nutrient, shall be included in parentheses after this declaration with the amount of folic acid. The declaration must be folate in mcg DFE (when expressed as a quantitative amount by weight in a conventional food or a dietary supplement) and the percent DV based on folate in mcg DFE, or for conventional food, may be expressed as folate and the percent DV based on folate in mcg DFE. When declared, folic acid must be in parentheses, mcg of folic acid as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section in the display that illustrates voluntary declaration of nutrition information.
</P>
<P>(9) The following DRVs, nomenclature, and units of measure are established for the following food components:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit of measure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adults and children ≥4 years
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Infants through 12 months
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Children 1 through 3 years
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pregnant women and lactating women
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saturated fat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cholesterol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total carbohydrate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 275
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dietary Fiber</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protein</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Added Sugars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 50
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Based on the reference caloric intake of 2,000 calories for adults and children aged 4 years and older, and for pregnant women and lactating women
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Based on the reference caloric intake of 1,000 calories for children 1 through 3 years of age.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d)(1) Nutrient information specified in paragraph (c) of this section shall be presented on foods in the following format, as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section, except on foods where the tabular display is permitted as provided for in paragraph (d)(11) of this section, on which dual columns of nutrition information are declared as provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, on those food products on which the simplified format is required to be used as provided for in paragraph (f) of this section, on foods for infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age as provided for in paragraph (j)(5) of this section, and on foods in small or intermediate-sized packages as provided for in paragraph (j)(13) of this section. In the interest of uniformity of presentation, FDA strongly recommends that the nutrition information be presented using the graphic specifications set forth in appendix B to part 101.
</P>
<P>(i) The nutrition information shall be set off in a box by use of hairlines and shall be all black or one color type, printed on a white or other neutral contrasting background whenever practical.
</P>
<P>(ii) All information within the nutrition label shall utilize:
</P>
<P>(A) Except as provided for in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, a single easy-to-read type style,
</P>
<P>(B) Upper and lower case letters,
</P>
<P>(C) At least one point leading (i.e., space between two lines of text) except that at least four points leading shall be utilized for the information required by paragraphs (d)(7) and (d)(8) of this section as shown in paragraph (d)(12), and
</P>
<P>(D) Letters should never touch.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information required in paragraphs (d)(7) and (8) of this section shall be in type size no smaller than 8 point. Information required in paragraph (d)(5) of this section for the “Calories” declaration shall be highlighted in bold or extra bold and shall be in a type size no smaller than 16 point except the type size for this information required in the tabular displays as shown in paragraphs (d)(11), (e)(6)(ii), and (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section and the linear display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section shall be in a type size no smaller than 10 point. The numeric amount for the information required in paragraph (d)(5) of this section shall also be highlighted in bold or extra bold type and shall be in a type size no smaller than 22 point, except the type size for this information required for the tabular display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, and for the linear display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section no smaller than 14 point. The information required in paragraphs (d)(4), (6), and (9) of this section shall be in a type size no smaller than 6 point. When provided, the information described in paragraph (d)(10) of this section shall be in a type size no smaller than 6 point.
</P>
<P>(iv) The headings required by paragraphs (d)(2), (d)(3)(ii), (d)(4), and (d)(6) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> “Nutrition Facts,” “Serving size,” “Amount per serving,” and “% Daily Value*”), the names of all nutrients that are not indented according to requirements of paragraph (c) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> “Calories,” “Total Fat,” “Cholesterol,” “Sodium,” “Total Carbohydrate” and “Protein”), and the percentage amounts required by paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section shall be highlighted in bold or extra bold type or other highlighting (reverse printing is not permitted as a form of highlighting) that prominently distinguishes it from other information. No other information shall be highlighted.
</P>
<P>(v) A hairline rule that is centered between the lines of text shall separate “Nutrition Facts” from the servings per container statement required in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section and shall separate each nutrient and its corresponding percent Daily Value required in paragraphs (d)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section from the nutrient and percent Daily Value above and below it, as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section and in Appendix B to Part 101.
</P>
<P>(2) The information shall be presented under the identifying heading of “Nutrition Facts” which shall be set in a type size no smaller than all other print size in the nutrition label except for the numerical information for “Calories” required in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, and except for labels presented according to the format provided for in paragraphs (d)(11), (d)(13)(ii), (e)(6)(ii), (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), and (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, unless impractical, shall be set the full width of the information provided under paragraph (d)(7) of this section, as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Information on servings per container and serving size shall immediately follow the heading as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section. Such information shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) “____ servings per container”: The number of servings per container, except that this statement is not required on single serving containers as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section or on other food containers when this information is stated in the net quantity of contents declaration. The information required in this paragraph shall be located immediately after the “Nutrition Facts” heading and shall be in a type size no smaller than 10 point, except the type size for this information shall be no smaller than 9 point in the tabular display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section and the linear display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section. For the linear display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the actual number of servings may be listed after the servings per container declaration.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Serving size”: A statement of the serving size as specified in paragraph (b)(7) of this section which shall immediately follow the “____servings per container” declaration. The information required in this paragraph shall be highlighted in bold or extra bold and be in a type size no smaller than 10 point, except the type size shall be no smaller than 9 point for this information in the tabular displays as shown in paragraphs (d)(11) and (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the tabular display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, and the linear display for small packages as shown in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section. The serving size amount must be right justified if adequate space is available. If the “Serving size” declaration does not fit in the allocated space a type size of no smaller than 8 point may be used on packages of any size.
</P>
<P>(4) A subheading “Amount per serving” shall be separated from the serving size information by a bar as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section, except this information is not required for the dual column formats shown in paragraphs (e)(5), (e)(6)(i), and (e)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Information on calories shall immediately follow the subheading “Amount per serving” and shall be declared in one line. If “Calories from saturated fat” is declared, it shall be indented under “Calories” and shall be in a type size no smaller than 8 point.
</P>
<P>(6) The column heading “% Daily Value,” followed by an asterisk (e.g., “% Daily Value*”), shall be separated from information on calories by a bar as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section. The position of this column heading shall allow for a list of nutrient names and amounts as described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section to be to the left of, and below, this column heading. The column headings “Percent Daily Value,” “Percent DV,” or “% DV” may be substituted for “% Daily Value.”
</P>
<P>(7) Except as provided for in paragraph (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, nutrient information for both mandatory and any voluntary nutrients listed in paragraph (c) of this section that are to be declared in the nutrition label, except for folic acid in conventional food and voluntarily declared vitamins and minerals expressed as a statement of the amount per serving calculated as a percent of the RDI and expressed as a percent Daily Value, shall be declared as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of each nutrient, as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, shall be given in a column and followed immediately by the quantitative amount by weight for that nutrient appended with a “g” for grams, “mg” for milligrams, or “mcg” for micrograms as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section. The symbol “&lt;” may be used in place of “less than.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A listing of the percent of the DRV as established in paragraphs (c)(7)(iii) and (c)(9) of this section shall be given in a column aligned under the heading “% Daily Value” established in paragraph (d)(6) of this section with the percent expressed to the nearest whole percent for each nutrient declared in the column described in paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section for which a DRV has been established, except that the percent for protein may be omitted as provided in paragraph (c)(7) of this section. The percent shall be calculated by dividing either the amount declared on the label for each nutrient or the actual amount of each nutrient (i.e., before rounding) by the DRV for the nutrient, except that the percent for protein shall be calculated as specified in paragraph (c)(7)(ii) of this section. The numerical value shall be followed by the symbol for percent (i.e., %).
</P>
<P>(8) Nutrient information for vitamins and minerals (except sodium) shall be separated from information on other nutrients by a bar and may be arrayed vertically as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section (<I>e.g.,</I> Vitamin D 2 mcg 10%, Calcium 260 mg 20%, Iron 8 mg 45%, Potassium 235 mg 6%) or may be listed horizontally. When listed horizontally in two columns, vitamin D and calcium should be listed on the first line and iron and potassium should be listed on the second line, as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section in the side-by-side display. When more than four vitamins and minerals are declared voluntarily as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section in the label which illustrates the mandatory plus voluntary provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, they may be declared vertically with percentages listed under the column headed “% Daily Value.”
</P>
<P>(9) A footnote, preceded by an asterisk, shall be placed beneath the list of vitamins and minerals and shall be separated from the list by a bar, except that the footnote may be omitted from foods that can use the terms “calorie free,” “free of calories,” “without calories,” “trivial source of calories,” “negligible source of calories,” or “dietary insignificant source of calories” on the label or in the labeling of foods as defined in § 101.60(b). The first sentence of the footnote: “The % Daily Value tells you how much a nutrient in a serving of food contributes to a daily diet” may be used on foods that can use the terms “calorie free,” “free of calories,” “without calories,” “trivial source of calories,” “negligible source of calories,” or “dietary insignificant source of calories” on the label or in the labeling of foods as defined in § 101.60(b). The footnote shall state: “*The % Daily Value tells you how much a nutrient in a serving of food contributes to a daily diet. 2,000 calories a day is used for general nutrition advice.” If the food product is represented or purported to be for children 1 through 3 years of age, the second sentence of the footnote shall substitute “1,000 calories” for “2,000 calories.”
</P>
<P>(10) Caloric conversion information on a per gram basis for fat, carbohydrate, and protein may be presented beneath the information required in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, separated from that information by a hairline. This information may be presented horizontally as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section (i.e., “Calories per gram: fat 9, carbohydrate 4, protein 4”) or vertically in columns.
</P>
<P>(11)(i) If the space beneath the information on vitamins and minerals is not adequate to accommodate the information required in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, the information required in paragraph (d)(9) may be moved to the right of the column required in paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section and set off by a line that distinguishes it and sets it apart from the percent Daily Value information. The caloric conversion information provided for in paragraph (d)(10) of this section may be presented beneath either side or along the full length of the nutrition label.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the space beneath the mandatory declaration of potassium is not adequate to accommodate any remaining vitamins and minerals to be declared or the information required in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, the remaining information may be moved to the right and set off by a line that distinguishes it and sets it apart from the nutrients and the percent DV information given to the left. The caloric conversion information provided for in paragraph (d)(10) of this section may be presented beneath either side or along the full length of the nutrition label.
</P>
<P>(iii) If there is not sufficient continuous vertical space (<I>i.e.,</I> approximately 3 in) to accommodate the required components of the nutrition label up to and including the mandatory declaration of potassium, the nutrition label may be presented in a tabular display as shown in the following sample label.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.011.gif"/>
<P>(12) The following sample labels illustrate the mandatory provisions and mandatory plus voluntary provisions of paragraph (d) of this section and the side-by-side display.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.003.gif"/>
<P>(13)(i) Nutrition labels on the outer label of packages of products that contain two or more separately packaged foods that are intended to be eaten individually (e.g., variety packs of cereals or snack foods) or of packages that are used interchangeably for the same type of food (e.g., round ice cream containers) may use an aggregate display.
</P>
<P>(ii) Aggregate displays shall comply with the format requirements of paragraph (d) of this section to the maximum extent possible, except that the identity of each food shall be specified immediately to the right of the “Nutrition Facts” heading, and both the quantitative amount by weight (<I>i.e.,</I> g/mg/mcg amounts) and the percent Daily Value for each nutrient shall be listed in separate columns under the name of each food. The following sample label illustrates an aggregate display.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.004.gif"/>
<P>(14) In accordance with § 101.15(c)(2), when nutrition labeling must appear in a second language, the nutrition information may be presented in a separate nutrition label for each language or in one nutrition label with the information in the second language following that in English. Numeric characters that are identical in both languages need not be repeated (e.g., “Protein/Proteinas 2 g”). All required information must be included in both languages.
</P>
<P>(e) Nutrition information may be presented for two or more forms of the same food (<I>e.g.,</I> both “as purchased” and “as prepared”) or for common combinations of food as provided for in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, for different units (<I>e.g.,</I> slices of bread or per 100 grams) as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, or for two or more groups for which RDIs are established (<I>e.g.,</I> both infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age) as shown in paragraph (e)(5) of this section. When such dual labeling is provided, equal prominence shall be given to both sets of values. Information shall be presented in a format consistent with paragraph (d) of this section, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Following the serving size information there shall be two or more column headings accurately describing the amount per serving size of the form of the same food (<I>e.g.,</I> “Per 
<FR>1/4</FR> cup mix” and “Per prepared portion”), the combinations of food, the units, or the RDI groups that are being declared as shown in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantitative information by weight as required in paragraph (d)(7)(i) and the information required in paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section shall be presented for the form of the product as packaged and for any other form of the product (<I>e.g.,</I> “as prepared” or combined with another ingredient as shown in paragraph (e)(5) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) When the dual labeling is presented for two or more forms of the same food, for combinations of food, for different units, or for two or more groups for which RDIs are established, the quantitative information by weight and the percent Daily Value shall be presented in two columns and the columns shall be separated by vertical lines as shown in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Nutrient information for vitamins and minerals (except sodium) shall be separated from information on other nutrients by a bar and shall be arrayed vertically in the following order: Vitamin D, calcium, iron, potassium as shown in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The following sample label illustrates the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.010.gif"/>
<P>(6) When dual labeling is presented for a food on a per serving basis and per container basis as required in paragraph (b)(12)(i) of this section or on a per serving basis and per unit basis as required in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D) of this section, the quantitative information by weight as required in paragraph (d)(7)(i) and the percent Daily Value as required in paragraph (d)(7)(ii) shall be presented in two columns, and the columns shall be separated by vertical lines as shown in the displays in paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Nutrient information for vitamins and minerals shall be separated from information on other nutrients by a bar and shall be arrayed vertically in the following order: Vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium as shown in the following sample labels.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.012.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The following sample label illustrates the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(D) and (b)(12)(i) of this section for labels that use the tabular display.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.013.gif"/>
<P>(f) The declaration of nutrition information may be presented in the simplified format set forth herein when a food product contains insignificant amounts of eight or more of the following: Calories, total fat, saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, total sugars, added sugars, protein, vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium; except that for foods intended for infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age to which paragraph (j)(5)(i) of this section applies, nutrition information may be presented in the simplified format when a food product contains insignificant amounts of six or more of the following: Calories, total fat, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, total sugars, added sugars, protein, vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium.
</P>
<P>(1) An “insignificant amount” shall be defined as that amount that allows a declaration of zero in nutrition labeling, except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it shall be an amount that allows a declaration of “less than 1 gram.”
</P>
<P>(2) The simplified format shall include information on the following nutrients:
</P>
<P>(i) Total calories, total fat, total carbohydrate, protein, and sodium;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other nutrients identified in paragraph (f) of this section that are present in the food in more than insignificant amounts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any vitamins and minerals listed in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section when they are required to be added as a nutrient supplement to foods for which a standard of identity exists.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any vitamins or minerals listed in paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section voluntarily added to the food as nutrient supplements.
</P>
<P>(3) Other nutrients that are naturally present in the food in more than insignificant amounts may be voluntarily declared as part of the simplified format.
</P>
<P>(4) If any nutrients are declared as provided in paragraphs (f)(2)(iii), (f)(2)(iv), or (f)(3) of this section as part of the simplified format or if any nutrition claims are made on the label or in labeling, the statement “Not a significant source of ________” (with the blank filled in with the name(s) of any nutrient(s) identified in paragraph (f) of this section that are present in insignificant amounts) shall be included at the bottom of the nutrition label.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.008.gif"/>
<P>(5) Except as provided for in paragraphs (j)(5) and (j)(13) of this section, nutrient information declared in the simplified format shall be presented in the same manner as specified in paragraphs (d) or (e) of this section, except that the footnote required in paragraph (d)(9) of this section is not required, and an asterisk shall be placed at the bottom of the label followed by the statement “% DV = % Daily Value” when “Daily Value” is not spelled out in the heading, as shown in paragraph (f)(4).
</P>
<P>(g) Compliance with this section shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style produced under conditions as nearly uniform as possible, designated by a common container code or marking, or in the absence of any common container code or marking, a day's production, constitutes a “lot.”
</P>
<P>(2) The sample for nutrient analysis shall consist of a composite of 12 subsamples (consumer units), taken 1 from each of 12 different randomly chosen shipping cases, to be representative of a lot. Unless a particular method of analysis is specified in paragraph (c) of this section, composites shall be analyzed by appropriate methods as given in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the AOAC International,” or, if no AOAC method is available or appropriate, by other reliable and appropriate analytical procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) Two classes of nutrients are defined for purposes of compliance:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Class I.</I> Added nutrients in fortified or fabricated foods; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Class II. Naturally occurring (indigenous) nutrients. When a nutrient is naturally occurring (indigenous) in a food or an ingredient that is added to a food, the total amount of such nutrient in the final food product is subject to class II requirements, except that when an exogenous source of the nutrient is also added to the final food product, the total amount of the nutrient in the final food product (indigenous and exogenous) is subject to class I requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) A food with a label declaration of a vitamin, mineral, protein, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, soluble fiber, insoluble fiber, polyunsaturated or monounsaturated fat shall be deemed to be misbranded under section 403(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) unless it meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) When a vitamin, mineral, protein, or dietary fiber meets the definition of a Class I nutrient, the nutrient content of the composite must be formulated to be at least equal to the value for that nutrient declared on the label.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a vitamin, mineral, protein, total carbohydrate, polyunsaturated or monounsaturated fat, or dietary fiber meets the definition of a Class II nutrient, the nutrient content of the composite must be at least equal to 80 percent of the value for that nutrient declared on the label. <I>Provided,</I> That no regulatory action will be based on a determination of a nutrient value that falls below this level by a factor less than the variability generally recognized for the analytical method used in that food at the level involved.
</P>
<P>(5) A food with a label declaration of calories, total sugars, added sugars (when the only source of sugars in the food is added sugars), total fat, saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, cholesterol, or sodium shall be deemed to be misbranded under section 403(a) of the act if the nutrient content of the composite is greater than 20 percent in excess of the value for that nutrient declared on the label. <I>Provided,</I> That no regulatory action will be based on a determination of a nutrient value that falls above this level by a factor less than the variability generally recognized for the analytical method used in that food at the level involved.
</P>
<P>(6) Reasonable excesses of vitamins, minerals, protein, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, soluble fiber, insoluble fiber, sugar alcohols, polyunsaturated or monounsaturated fat over labeled amounts are acceptable within current good manufacturing practice. Reasonable deficiencies of calories, total sugars, added sugars, total fat, saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, cholesterol, or sodium under labeled amounts are acceptable within current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(7) Compliance will be based on the metric measure specified in the label statement of serving size.
</P>
<P>(8) Alternatively, compliance with the provisions set forth in paragraphs (g)(1) through (6) of this section may be provided by use of an FDA approved database that has been computed following FDA guideline procedures and where food samples have been handled in accordance with current good manufacturing practice to prevent nutrition loss. FDA approval of a database shall not be considered granted until the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition has agreed to all aspects of the database in writing. The approval will be granted where a clear need is presented (<I>e.g.,</I> raw produce and seafood). Approvals will be in effect for a limited time, <I>e.g.,</I> 10 years, and will be eligible for renewal in the absence of significant changes in agricultural or industry practices. Approval requests shall be submitted in accordance with the provisions of § 10.30 of this chapter. Guidance in the use of databases may be found in the “FDA Nutrition Labeling Manual—A Guide for Developing and Using Data Bases,” available from the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740 or by going to <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(9) When it is not technologically feasible, or some other circumstance makes it impracticable, for firms to comply with the requirements of this section (e.g., to develop adequate nutrient profiles to comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section), FDA may permit alternative means of compliance or additional exemptions to deal with the situation. Firms in need of such special allowances shall make their request in writing to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-800), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(10) The manufacturer must make and keep written records (<I>e.g.,</I> analyses of databases, recipes, formulations, information from recipes or formulations, or batch records) to verify the declared amount of that nutrient on the Nutrition Facts label as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When a mixture of dietary fiber, and added non-digestible carbohydrate(s) that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber, is present in the food, a manufacturer must make and keep written records of the amount of non-digestible carbohydrate(s) added to the food that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a mixture of soluble fiber and added non-digestible carbohydrate(s) that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber is present in the food, a manufacturer must make and keep written records necessary to verify the amount of the non-digestible carbohydrate(s) added to the food that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a mixture of insoluble fiber and added non-digestible carbohydrate(s) that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber is present in the food, a manufacturer must make and keep written records necessary to verify the amount of the non-digestible carbohydrate(s) added to the food that does not meet the definition of dietary fiber.
</P>
<P>(iv) When a mixture of naturally occurring and added sugars is present in the food, a manufacturer must make and keep written records of the amount of added sugars added to the food during the processing of the food, and if packaged as a separate ingredient, as packaged (whether as part of a package containing one or more ingredients or packaged as a single ingredient).
</P>
<P>(v) When the amount of sugars added to food products is reduced through non-enzymatic browning and/or fermentation, manufacturers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Make and keep records of all relevant scientific data and information relied upon by the manufacturer that demonstrates the amount of added sugars in the food after non-enzymatic browning and/or fermentation and a narrative explaining why the data and information are sufficient to demonstrate the amount of added sugars declared in the finished food, provided the data and information used is specific to the type of food that is subject to non-enzymatic browning and/or fermentation; or
</P>
<P>(B) Make and keep records of the amount of added sugars added to the food before and during the processing of the food, and if packaged as a separate ingredient, as packaged (whether as part of a package containing one or more ingredients or packaged as a single ingredient) and in no event shall the amount of added sugars declared exceed the amount of total sugars on the label; or
</P>
<P>(C) Submit a petition, under 21 CFR 10.30, to request an alternative means of compliance. The petition must provide scientific data or other information for why the amount of added sugars in a serving of the product is likely to have a significant reduction in added sugars compared to the amount added prior to non-enzymatic browning and/or fermentation. A significant reduction would be where reduction in added sugars after non-enzymatic browning and/or fermentation may be significant enough to impact the label declaration for added sugars by an amount that exceeds the reasonable deficiency acceptable within good manufacturing practice under paragraph (g)(6) of this section. In addition, the scientific data or other information must include the reason that the manufacturer is unable to determine a reasonable approximation of the amount of added sugars in a serving of their finished product and a description of the process that they used to come to that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(vi) When a mixture of <I>all rac</I>-α-tocopherol and RRR-α-tocopherol is present in a food, manufacturers must make and keep written records of the amount of <I>all rac</I>-α-tocopherol added to the food and RRR-α-tocopherol in the finished food.
</P>
<P>(vii) When a mixture of folate and folic acid is present in a food, manufacturers must make and keep written records of the amount of synthetic folate and/or folic acid added to the food and the amount of naturally-occurring folate in the finished food.
</P>
<P>(11) Records necessary to verify certain nutrient declarations that are specified in paragraph (g)(10) of this section must be kept for a period of at least 2 years after introduction or delivery for introduction of the food into interstate commerce. Such records must be provided to FDA upon request, during an inspection, for official review and photocopying or other means of reproduction. Records required to verify information on the label may be kept either as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records which must be kept in accordance with part 11 of this chapter. These records must be accurate, indelible, and legible.
</P>
<P>Failure to make and keep the records or provide the records to appropriate regulatory authorities, as required by this paragraph (g)(11), would result in the food being misbranded under section 403(a)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(h) Products with separately packaged ingredients or foods, with assortments of food, or to which other ingredients are added by the user may be labeled as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If a product consists of two or more separately packaged ingredients enclosed in an outer container or of assortments of the same type of food (e.g., assorted nuts or candy mixtures) in the same retail package, nutrition labeling shall be located on the outer container or retail package (as the case may be) to provide information for the consumer at the point of purchase. However, when two or more food products are simply combined together in such a manner that no outer container is used, or no outer label is available, each product shall have its own nutrition information, e.g., two boxes taped together or two cans combined in a clear plastic overwrap. When separately packaged ingredients or assortments of the same type of food are intended to be eaten at the same time, the nutrition information may be specified per serving for each component or as a composite value.
</P>
<P>(2) If a product consists of two or more separately packaged foods that are intended to be eaten individually and that are enclosed in an outer container (e.g., variety packs of cereals or snack foods), the nutrition information shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be specified per serving for each food in a location that is clearly visible to the consumer at the point of purchase; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be presented in separate nutrition labels or in one aggregate nutrition label with separate columns for the quantitative amount by weight and the percent Daily Value for each food.
</P>
<P>(3) If a package contains a variety of foods, or an assortment of foods, and is in a form intended to be used as a gift, the nutrition labeling shall be in the form required by paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section, but it may be modified as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Nutrition information may be presented on the label of the outer package or in labeling within or attached to the outer package.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the absence of a reference amount customarily consumed in § 101.12(b) that is appropriate for the variety or assortment of foods in a gift package, the following may be used as the standard serving size for purposes of nutrition labeling of foods subject to this paragraph: 1 ounce for solid foods; 2 fluid ounces for nonbeverage liquids (<I>e.g.,</I> syrups); 8 ounces for beverages that consist of milk and fruit juices, nectars and fruit drinks; and 12 fluid ounces for other beverages. However, the reference amounts customarily consumed in § 101.12(b) shall be used for purposes of evaluating whether individual foods in a gift package qualify for nutrient content claims or health claims.
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of servings per container may be stated as “varied.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Nutrition information may be provided per serving for individual foods in the package, or, alternatively, as a composite per serving for reasonable categories of foods in the package having similar dietary uses and similar significant nutritional characteristics. Reasonable categories of foods may be used only if accepted by FDA. In determining whether a proposed category is reasonable, FDA will consider whether the values of the characterizing nutrients in the foods proposed to be in the category meet the compliance criteria set forth in paragraphs (g)(3) through (6) of this section. Proposals for such categories may be submitted in writing to the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(v) If a food subject to paragraph (j)(13) of this section because of its small size is contained in a gift package, the food need not be included in the determination of nutrition information under paragraph (h) of this section if it is not specifically listed in a promotional catalogue as being present in the gift package, and:
</P>
<P>(A) It is used in small quantities primarily to enhance the appearance of the gift package; or
</P>
<P>(B) It is included in the gift package as a free gift or promotional item.
</P>
<P>(4) If a food is commonly combined with other ingredients or is cooked or otherwise prepared before eating, and directions for such combination or preparations are provided, another column of figures may be used to declare nutrition information on the basis of the food as consumed in the format required in paragraph (e) of this section; <I>e.g.,</I> a dry ready-to-eat cereal may be described with the percent Daily Value and the quantitative amounts for the cereal as sold (<I>e.g.,</I> per ounce), and the percent Daily Value and the quantitative amounts for the cereal and milk as suggested in the label (<I>e.g.,</I> per ounce of cereal and 
<FR>1/2</FR>cup of vitamin D fortified skim milk); and a cake mix may be labeled with the percent Daily Value and the quantitative amounts for the dry mix (per serving) and the percent Daily Value and the quantitative amounts for the serving of the final cake when prepared, as shown in paragraph (e)(5) of this section: Provided, that, the type and quantity of the other ingredients to be added to the product by the user and the specific method of cooking and other preparation shall be specified prominently on the label.
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (j)(13) and (j)(17) of this section, the location of nutrition information on a label shall be in compliance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(j) The following foods are exempt from this section or are subject to special labeling requirements:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Food offered for sale by a person who makes direct sales to consumers (<I>e.g.,</I> a retailer) who has annual gross sales made or business done in sales to consumers that is not more than $500,000 or has annual gross sales made or business done in sales of food to consumers of not more than $50,000, <I>Provided,</I> That the food bears no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising. Claims or other nutrition information subject the food to the provisions of this section, § 101.10, or § 101.11, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, calculation of the amount of sales shall be based on the most recent 2-year average of business activity. Where firms have been in business less than 2 years, reasonable estimates must indicate that annual sales will not exceed the amounts specified. For foreign firms that ship foods into the United States, the business activities to be included shall be the total amount of food sales, as well as other sales to consumers, by the firm in the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in § 101.11, food products that are:
</P>
<P>(i) Served in restaurants, <I>Provided,</I> That the food bears no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising. Claims or other nutrition information subject the food to the provisions of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Served in other establishments in which food is served for immediate human consumption (<I>e.g.,</I> institutional food service establishments, such as schools, hospitals, and cafeterias; transportation carriers, such as trains and airplanes; bakeries, delicatessens, and retail confectionery stores where there are facilities for immediate consumption on the premises; food service vendors, such as lunch wagons, ice cream shops, mall cookie counters, vending machines, and sidewalk carts where foods are generally consumed immediately where purchased or while the consumer is walking away, including similar foods sold from convenience stores; and food delivery systems or establishments where ready-to-eat foods are delivered to homes or offices), <I>Provided,</I> That the food bears no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising, except as provided in § 101.8(c). Claims or other nutrition information, except as provided in § 101.8(c), subject the food to the provisions of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Sold only in such facilities, <I>Provided,</I> That the food bears no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising. Claims or other nutrition information subject the food to the provisions of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Used only in such facilities and not served to the consumer in the package in which they are received (e.g., foods that are not packaged in individual serving containers); or
</P>
<P>(v) Sold by a distributor who principally sells food to such facilities: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(A) This exemption shall not be available for those foods that are manufactured, processed, or repackaged by that distributor for sale to any persons other than restaurants or other establishments that serve food for immediate human consumption, and
</P>
<P>(B) The manufacturer of such products is responsible for providing the nutrition information on the products if there is a reasonable possibility that the product will be purchased directly by consumers.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in § 101.11, food products that are:
</P>
<P>(i) Of the type of food described in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (j)(2)(ii) of this section,
</P>
<P>(ii) Ready for human consumption,
</P>
<P>(iii) Offered for sale to consumers but not for immediate human consumption,
</P>
<P>(iv) Processed and prepared primarily in a retail establishment, and
</P>
<P>(v) Not offered for sale outside of that establishment (e.g., ready-to-eat foods that are processed and prepared on-site and sold by independent delicatessens, bakeries, or retail confectionery stores where there are no facilities for immediate human consumption; by in-store delicatessen, bakery, or candy departments; or at self-service food bars such as salad bars), <I>Provided,</I> That the food bears no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising. Claims or other nutrition information subject the food to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in § 101.11, foods that contain insignificant amounts of all of the nutrients and food components required to be included in the declaration of nutrition information under paragraph (c) of this section, <I>Provided,</I> That the food bears no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising. Claims or other nutrition information, except as provided in § 101.8(c), subject the food to the provisions of this section. An insignificant amount of a nutrient or food component shall be that amount that allows a declaration of zero in nutrition labeling, except that for total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, and protein, it shall be an amount that allows a declaration of “less than 1 gram.” Examples of foods that are exempt under this paragraph include coffee beans (whole or ground), tea leaves, plain unsweetened instant coffee and tea, condiment-type dehydrated vegetables, flavor extracts, and food colors.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Foods, other than infant formula, represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age shall bear nutrition labeling. The nutrients declared for infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age shall include calories, total fat, saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrates, dietary fiber, total sugars, added sugars, protein, and the following vitamins and minerals: Vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium.
</P>
<P>(ii) Foods, other than infant formula, represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months of age shall bear nutrition labeling, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) Such labeling shall not declare a percent Daily Value for saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, cholesterol, sodium, dietary fiber, total sugars, or added sugars and shall not include a footnote.
</P>
<P>(B) The following sample label illustrates the provisions of paragraph (j)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.012.gif"/>
<P>(C)-(E) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(iii) Foods, other than infant formula, represented or purported to be specifically for children 1 through 3 years of age shall include a footnote that states: “*The % Daily Value tells you how much a nutrient in a serving of food contributes to a daily diet. 1,000 calories a day is used for general nutrition advice.”
</P>
<P>(A) The following sample label illustrates the provisions of paragraph (j)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.010.gif"/>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Dietary supplements, except that such foods shall be labeled in compliance with § 101.36.
</P>
<P>(7) Infant formula subject to section 412 of the act, as amended, except that such foods shall be labeled in compliance with part 107 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Medical foods as defined in section 5(b) of the Orphan Drug Act (21 U.S.C. 360ee(b)(3)). A medical food is a food which is formulated to be consumed or administered enterally under the supervision of a physician and which is intended for the specific dietary management of a disease or condition for which distinctive nutritional requirements, based on recognized scientific principles, are established by medical evaluation. A food is subject to this exemption only if:
</P>
<P>(i) It is a specially formulated and processed product (as opposed to a naturally occurring foodstuff used in its natural state) for the partial or exclusive feeding of a patient by means of oral intake or enteral feeding by tube;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is intended for the dietary management of a patient who, because of therapeutic or chronic medical needs, has limited or impaired capacity to ingest, digest, absorb, or metabolize ordinary foodstuffs or certain nutrients, or who has other special medically determined nutrient requirements, the dietary management of which cannot be achieved by the modification of the normal diet alone;
</P>
<P>(iii) It provides nutritional support specifically modified for the management of the unique nutrient needs that result from the specific disease or condition, as determined by medical evaluation;
</P>
<P>(iv) It is intended to be used under medical supervision; and
</P>
<P>(v) It is intended only for a patient receiving active and ongoing medical supervision wherein the patient requires medical care on a recurring basis for, among other things, instructions on the use of the medical food.
</P>
<P>(9) Food products shipped in bulk form that are not for distribution to consumers in such form and that are for use solely in the manufacture of other foods or that are to be processed, labeled, or repacked at a site other than where originally processed or packed.
</P>
<P>(10) Raw fruits, vegetables, and fish subject to section 403(q)(4) of the act, except that the labeling of such foods should adhere to guidelines in § 101.45. This exemption is contingent on the food bearing no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising. Claims or other nutrition information subject the food to nutrition labeling in accordance with § 101.45. The term <I>fish</I> includes freshwater or marine fin fish, crustaceans, and mollusks, including shellfish, amphibians, and other forms of aquatic animal life.
</P>
<P>(11) Packaged single-ingredient products that consist of fish or game meat (i.e., animal products not covered under the Federal Meat Inspection Act or the Poultry Products Inspection Act, such as flesh products from deer, bison, rabbit, quail, wild turkey, or ostrich) subject to this section may provide required nutrition information for a 3-ounce cooked edible portion (i.e., on an “as prepared” basis), except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Such products that make claims that are based on values as packaged must provide nutrition information on an as packaged basis, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Nutrition information is not required for custom processed fish or game meats.
</P>
<P>(12) Game meats (i.e., animal products not covered under the Federal Meat Inspection Act or the Poultry Products Inspection Act, such as flesh products from deer, bison, rabbit, quail, wild turkey, or ostrich) may provide required nutrition information on labeling in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13)(i) Foods in small packages that have a total surface area available to bear labeling of less than 12 square inches, <I>Provided,</I> That the labels for these foods bear no nutrition claims or other nutrition information in any context on the label or in labeling or advertising, except as provided in § 101.8(c). Claims or other nutrition information, except as provided in § 101.8(c), subject the food to the provisions of this section. Foods in packages subject to requirements of paragraphs (j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section do not require the information in paragraphs (d)(9) and (f)(5) related to the footnote, however the abbreviated footnote statement “% DV = % Daily Value” may be used.
</P>
<P>(A) The manufacturer, packer, or distributor shall provide on the label of packages that qualify for and use this exemption an address or telephone number that a consumer can use to obtain the required nutrition information (<I>e.g.,</I> “For nutrition information, call 1-800-123-4567”).
</P>
<P>(B) When such products bear nutrition labeling, either voluntarily or because nutrition claims or other nutrition information is provided, all required information shall be in type size no smaller than 6 point or all upper-case type of 
<FR>1/16</FR> inches minimum height, except that individual serving-size packages of food served with meals in restaurants, institutions, and on board passenger carriers, and not intended for sale at retail, may comply with § 101.2(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) Foods in packages that have a total surface area available to bear labeling of 40 or less square inches may modify the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) and (i) of this section by one or more of the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) Presenting the required nutrition information in a tabular or, as provided below, linear (i.e., string) fashion rather than in vertical columns if the product has a total surface area available to bear labeling of less than 12 square inches, or if the product has a total surface area available to bear labeling of 40 or less square inches and the package shape or size cannot accommodate a standard vertical column or tabular display on any label panel. Nutrition information may be given in a linear fashion only if the label will not accommodate a tabular display.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The following sample label illustrates the tabular display for small packages.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.013.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The following sample label illustrates the linear display.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.014.gif"/>
<P>(B) Using any of the following abbreviations:
</P>
<FP-1>Serving size—Serv size
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Servings per container—Servings
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calories from saturated fat—Sat fat cal
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saturated fat—Sat fat
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monounsaturated fat—Monounsat fat
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyunsaturated fat—Polyunsat fat
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cholesterol—Cholest
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total carbohydrate—Total carb. This abbreviation can also be used on dual-column displays as shown in paragraphs (e)(5), (e)(6)(i), and (e)(6)(ii) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dietary fiber—Fiber
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soluble fiber—Sol fiber
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Insoluble fiber—Insol fiber
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sugar alcohol—Sugar alc
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin—Vit. This abbreviation can also be used on the standard vertical side-by-side display as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium—Potas. This abbreviation can also be used on the standard vertical side-by-side display as shown in paragraph (d)(12) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Includes—Incl. This abbreviation can also be used on dual-column displays as shown in paragraphs (e)(5), (e)(6)(i), and (e)(6)(ii) of this section.
</FP-1>
<P>(C) Presenting the required nutrition information on any label panel.
</P>
<P>(14) Shell eggs packaged in a carton that has a top lid designed to conform to the shape of the eggs are exempt from outer carton label requirements where the required nutrition information is clearly presented immediately beneath the carton lid or in an insert that can be clearly seen when the carton is opened.
</P>
<P>(15) The unit containers in a multiunit retail food package where:
</P>
<P>(i) The multiunit retail food package labeling contains all nutrition information in accordance with the requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The unit containers are securely enclosed within and not intended to be separated from the retail package under conditions of retail sale; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Each unit container is labeled with the statement “This Unit Not Labeled For Retail Sale” in type size not less than 1/16-inch in height, except that this statement shall not be required when the inner unit containers bear no labeling at all. The word “individual” may be used in lieu of or immediately preceding the word “Retail” in the statement.
</P>
<P>(16) Food products sold from bulk containers: <I>Provided,</I> That nutrition information required by this section be displayed to consumers either on the labeling of the bulk container plainly in view or in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(17) Foods in packages that have a total surface area available to bear labeling greater than 40 square inches but whose principal display panel and information panel do not provide sufficient space to accommodate all required information may use any alternate panel that can be readily seen by consumers for the nutrition label. The space needed for vignettes, designs, and other nonmandatory label information on the principal display panel may be considered in determining the sufficiency of available space on the principal display panel for the placement of the nutrition label. Nonmandatory label information on the information panel shall not be considered in determining the sufficiency of available space for the placement of the nutrition label.
</P>
<P>(18) Food products that are low-volume (that is, they meet the requirements for units sold in paragraphs (j)(18)(i) or (j)(18)(ii) of this section); that, except as provided in paragraph (j)(18)(iv) of this section, are the subject of a claim for an exemption that provides the information required under paragraph (j)(18)(iv) of this section, that is filed before the beginning of the time period for which the exemption is claimed, and that is filed by a person, whether it is the manufacturer, packer, or distributor, that qualifies to claim the exemption under the requirements for average full-time equivalent employees in paragraphs (j)(18)(i) or (j)(18)(ii) of this section; and whose labels, labeling, and advertising do not provide nutrition information or make a nutrient content or health claim. 
</P>
<P>(i) For food products first introduced into interstate commerce before May 8, 1994, the product shall be exempt for the period: 
</P>
<P>(A) Between May 8, 1995, and May 7, 1996, if, for the period between May 8, 1994, and May 7, 1995, the person claiming the exemption employed fewer than an average of 300 full-time equivalent employees and fewer than 400,000 units of that product were sold in the United States; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Between May 8, 1996, and May 7, 1997, if for the period between May 8, 1995, and May 7, 1996, the person claiming the exemption employed fewer than an average of 200 full-time equivalent employees and fewer than 200,000 units of that product were sold in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For all other food products, the product shall be eligible for an exemption for any 12-month period if, for the preceding 12 months, the person claiming the exemption employed fewer than an average of 100 full-time equivalent employees and fewer than 100,000 units of that product were sold in the United States, or in the case of a food product that was not sold in the 12-month period preceding the period for which exemption is claimed, fewer than 100,000 units of such product are reasonably anticipated to be sold in the United States during the period for which exemption is claimed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If a person claims an exemption under paragraphs (j)(18)(i) or (j)(18)(ii) of this section for a food product and then, during the period of such exemption, the number of full-time equivalent employees of such person exceeds the appropriate number, or the number of food products sold in the United States exceeds the appropriate number, or, if at the end of the period of such exemption, the food product no longer qualifies for an exemption under the provisions of paragraphs (j)(18)(i) or (j)(18)(ii) of this section, such person shall have 18 months from the date that the product was no longer qualified as a low-volume product of a small business to comply with this section. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A notice shall be filed with the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740 and contain the following information, except that if the person is not an importer and has fewer than 10 full-time equivalent employees, that person does not have to file a notice for any food product with annual sales of fewer than 10,000 total units:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and address of person requesting exemption. This should include a telephone number or FAX number that can be used to contact the person along with the name of a specific contact; 
</P>
<P>(B) Names of the food products (including the various brand names) for which exemption is claimed; 
</P>
<P>(C) Name and address of the manufacturer, distributor, or importer of the food product for which an exemption is claimed, if different than the person that is claiming the exemption; 
</P>
<P>(D) The number of full-time equivalent employees. Provide the average number of full-time equivalent individuals employed by the person and its affiliates for the 12 months preceding the period for which a small business exemption is claimed for a product. The average number of full-time equivalent employees is to be determined by dividing the total number of hours of salary or wages paid to employees of the person and its affiliates by the number of hours of work in a year, 2,080 hours (i.e., 40 hours × 52 weeks); 
</P>
<P>(E) Approximate total number of units of the food product sold by the person in the United States in the 12-month period preceding that for which a small business exemption is claimed. Provide the approximate total number of units sold, or expected to be sold, in a 12-month period for each product for which an exemption is claimed. For products that have been in production for 1 year or more prior to the period for which exemption is claimed, the 12-month period is the period immediately preceding the period for which an exemption is claimed. For other products, the 12-month period is the period for which an exemption is claimed; and 
</P>
<P>(F) The notice shall be signed by a responsible individual for the person who can certify the accuracy of the information presented in the notice. The individual shall certify that the information contained in the notice is a complete and accurate statement of the average number of full-time equivalent employees of this person and its affiliates and of the number of units of the product for which an exemption is claimed sold by the person. The individual shall also state that should the average number of full-time equivalent employees or the number of units of food products sold in the United States by the person exceed the applicable numbers for the time period for which exemption is claimed, the person will notify FDA of that fact and the date on which the number of employees or the number of products sold exceeded the standard. 
</P>
<P>(v) FDA may by regulation lower the employee or units of food products requirements of paragraph (j)(18)(ii) of this section for any food product first introduced into interstate commerce after May 8, 2002, if the agency determines that the cost of compliance with such lower requirement will not place an undue burden on persons subject to it. 
</P>
<P>(vi) For the purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Unit</I> means the packaging or, if there is no packaging, the form in which a food product is offered for sale to consumers. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Food product</I> means food in any sized package which is manufactured by a single manufacturer or which bears the same brand name, which bears the same statement of identity, and which has similar preparation methods. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Person</I> means all domestic and foreign affiliates, as defined in 13 CFR 121.401, of the corporation, in the case of a corporation, and all affiliates, as defined in 13 CFR 121.401, of a firm or other entity, when referring to a firm or other entity that is not a corporation. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Full-time equivalent employee</I> means all individuals employed by the person claiming the exemption. This number shall be determined by dividing the total number of hours of salary or wages paid directly to employees of the person and of all of its affiliates by the number of hours of work in a year, 2,080 hours (i.e., 40 hours × 52 weeks). 
</P>
<P>(k) A food labeled under the provisions of this section shall be deemed to be misbranded under sections 201(n) and 403(a) of the act if its label or labeling represents, suggests, or implies:
</P>
<P>(1) That the food, because of the presence or absence of certain dietary properties, is adequate or effective in the prevention, cure, mitigation, or treatment of any disease or symptom. Information about the relationship of a dietary property to a disease or health-related condition may only be provided in conformance with the requirements of § 101.14 and part 101, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(2) That the lack of optimum nutritive quality of a food, by reason of the soil on which that food was grown, is or may be responsible for an inadequacy or deficiency in the quality of the daily diet.
</P>
<P>(3) That the storage, transportation, processing, or cooking of a food is or may be responsible for an inadequacy or deficiency in the quality of the daily diet.
</P>
<P>(4) That a natural vitamin in a food is superior to an added or synthetic vitamin.
</P>
<P>(l) The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-2404 and is available from the sources indicated below. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) AOAC Reseller. Techstreet, 6300 Interfirst Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108, Toll free in United States: 1-800-699-9277, Outside United States: 1-734-780-8000, Fax: 1-734-780-2046, <I>www.techstreet.com, techstreet.service@thomsonreuters.com</I>. FDA does not endorse any particular reseller and notes that other resellers also may have the reference for sale. Consult FDA at 240-402-2404 for more information on additional resellers.
</P>
<P>(i) “Official Methods of Analysis of the AOAC INTERNATIONAL,” 19th Edition, Volumes 1 and 2, 2012.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations/World Health Organization (FAO/WHO), Publications Division, Viale delle Terme di Caracalla, 00100 Rome, Italy
</P>
<P>(i) FAO Food and Nutrition Paper 51,”Report of the Joint FAO/WHO Expert Consultation on Protein Quality Evaluation,” Rome, 1991. <I>http://apps.who.int/iris/bitstream/10665/38133/1/9251030979_eng.pdf</I>.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), Agricultural Research Service, Washington, DC, Nutrient Data Laboratory, Bldg. 005 Room 105 BARC-West, Beltsville, MD 20705, 301-504-0630. <I>http://www.ars.usda.gov/News/docs.htm?docid=9447</I>.
</P>
<P>(i) USDA Handbook No. 74, Energy Value of Foods—basis and derivation, by A. L. Merrill and B. K. Watt, (slightly revised, 1973) <I>http://www.ars.usda.gov/SP2UserFiles/Place/80400525/Data/Classics/ah74.pdf</I>.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2175, Jan. 6, 1993]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 101.9, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.10   Nutrition labeling of restaurant foods whose labels or labeling bear nutrient content claims or health claims.</HEAD>
<P>Nutrition labeling in accordance with § 101.9 shall be provided upon request for any restaurant food or meal for which a nutrient content claim (as defined in § 101.13 or in subpart D of this part) or a health claim (as defined in § 101.14 and permitted by a regulation in subpart E of this part) is made, except that information on the nutrient amounts that are the basis for the claim (<I>e.g.,</I> “low fat, this meal provides less than 10 grams of fat”) may serve as the functional equivalent of complete nutrition information as described in § 101.9. For the purposes of this section, restaurant food includes two categories of food. It includes food which is served in restaurants or other establishments in which food is served for immediate human consumption or which is sold for sale or use in such establishments. It also includes food which is processed and prepared primarily in a retail establishment, which is ready for human consumption, which is of the type described in the previous sentence, and which is offered for sale to consumers but not for immediate human consumption in such establishment and which is not offered for sale outside such establishment. For standard menu items that are offered for sale in covered establishments (as defined in § 101.11(a)), the information in the written nutrition information required by § 101.11(b)(2)(ii)(A) will serve to meet the requirements of this section. Nutrient levels may be determined by nutrient databases, cookbooks, or analyses or by other reasonable bases that provide assurance that the food or meal meets the nutrient requirements for the claim. Presentation of nutrition labeling may be in various forms, including those provided in § 101.45 and other reasonable means.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 71253, Dec. 1, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.11" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.11   Nutrition labeling of standard menu items in covered establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this section. In addition, for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Authorized official of a restaurant or similar retail food establishment</I> means the owner, operator, agent in charge, or other person authorized by the owner, operator, or agent in charge to register the restaurant or similar retail food establishment, which is not otherwise subject to section 403(q)(5)(H) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, with FDA for the purposes of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Combination meal</I> means a standard menu item that consists of more than one food item, for example a meal that includes a sandwich, a side dish, and a drink. A combination meal may be represented on the menu or menu board in narrative form, numerically, or pictorially. Some combination meals may include a variable menu item or be a variable menu item as defined in this paragraph where the components may vary. For example, the side dish may vary among several options (<I>e.g.,</I> fries, salad, or onion rings) or the drinks may vary (<I>e.g.,</I> soft drinks, milk, or juice) and the customer selects which of these items will be included in the meal.
</P>
<P><I>Covered establishment</I> means a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is a part of a chain with 20 or more locations doing business under the same name (regardless of the type of ownership, <I>e.g.,</I> individual franchises) and offering for sale substantially the same menu items, as well as a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is registered to be covered under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Custom order</I> means a food order that is prepared in a specific manner based on an individual customer's request, which requires the covered establishment to deviate from its usual preparation of a standard menu item, <I>e.g.,</I> a club sandwich without the bacon if the establishment usually includes bacon in its club sandwich.
</P>
<P><I>Daily special</I> means a menu item that is prepared and offered for sale on a particular day, that is not routinely listed on a menu or menu board or offered by the covered establishment, and that is promoted by the covered establishment as a special menu item for that particular day.
</P>
<P><I>Doing business under the same name</I> means sharing the same name. The term “name” refers to either:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the establishment presented to the public; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is no name of the establishment presented to the public (<I>e.g.,</I> an establishment with the generic descriptor “concession stand”), the name of the parent entity of the establishment. When the term “name” refers to the name of the establishment presented to the public under paragraph (i) of this definition, the term “same” includes names that are slight variations of each other, for example, due to the region, location, or size (<I>e.g.,</I> “New York Ave. Burgers” and “Pennsylvania Ave. Burgers” or “ABC” and “ABC Express”).
</P>
<P><I>Food on display</I> means restaurant-type food that is visible to the customer before the customer makes a selection, so long as there is not an ordinary expectation of further preparation by the consumer before consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Food that is part of a customary market test</I> means food that appears on a menu or menu board for less than 90 consecutive days in order to test consumer acceptance of the product.
</P>
<P><I>Location</I> means a fixed position or site.
</P>
<P><I>Menu or menu board</I> means the primary writing of the covered establishment from which a customer makes an order selection, including, but not limited to, breakfast, lunch, and dinner menus; dessert menus; beverage menus; children's menus; other specialty menus; electronic menus; and menus on the Internet. Determining whether a writing is or is part of the primary writing of the covered establishment from which a customer makes an order selection depends on a number of factors, including whether the writing lists the name of a standard menu item (or an image depicting the standard menu item) and the price of the standard menu item, and whether the writing can be used by a customer to make an order selection at the time the customer is viewing the writing. The menus may be in different forms, <I>e.g.,</I> booklets, pamphlets, or single sheets of paper. Menu boards include those inside a covered establishment as well as drive-through menu boards at covered establishments.
</P>
<P><I>Offering for sale substantially the same menu items</I> means offering for sale a significant proportion of menu items that use the same general recipe and are prepared in substantially the same way with substantially the same food components, even if the name of the menu item varies, (<I>e.g.,</I> “Bay View Crab Cake” and “Ocean View Crab Cake”). “Menu items” in this definition refers to food items that are listed on a menu or menu board or that are offered as self-service food or food on display. Restaurants and similar retail food establishments that are part of a chain can still be offering for sale substantially the same menu items if the availability of some menu items varies within the chain. Having the same name may indicate, but does not necessarily guarantee, that menu items are substantially the same.
</P>
<P><I>Restaurant or similar retail food establishment</I> means a retail establishment that offers for sale restaurant-type food, except if it is a school as defined by 7 CFR 210.2 or 220.2.
</P>
<P><I>Restaurant-type food</I> means food that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Usually eaten on the premises, while walking away, or soon after arriving at another location; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either:
</P>
<P>(A) Served in restaurants or other establishments in which food is served for immediate human consumption or which is sold for sale or use in such establishments; or
</P>
<P>(B) Processed and prepared primarily in a retail establishment, ready for human consumption, of the type described in paragraph (ii)(A) of this definition, and offered for sale to consumers but not for immediate human consumption in such establishment and which is not offered for sale outside such establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Self-service food</I> means restaurant-type food that is available at a salad bar, buffet line, cafeteria line, or similar self-service facility and that is served by the customers themselves. Self-service food also includes self-service beverages.
</P>
<P><I>Standard menu item</I> means a restaurant-type food that is routinely included on a menu or menu board or routinely offered as a self-service food or food on display.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary menu item</I> means a food that appears on a menu or menu board for less than a total of 60 days per calendar year. The 60 days includes the total of consecutive and non-consecutive days the item appears on the menu.
</P>
<P><I>Variable menu item</I> means a standard menu item that comes in different flavors, varieties, or combinations, and is listed as a single menu item.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for nutrition labeling for food sold in covered establishments</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> (i) The labeling requirements in this paragraph (b) apply to standard menu items offered for sale in covered establishments.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The labeling requirements in this paragraph (b) do not apply to foods that are not standard menu items, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Items such as condiments that are for general use, including those placed on the table or on or behind the counter; daily specials; temporary menu items; custom orders; food that is part of a customary market test; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Self-service food and food on display that is offered for sale for less than a total of 60 days per calendar year or fewer than 90 consecutive days in order to test consumer acceptance.
</P>
<P>(B) The labeling requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section do not apply to alcoholic beverages that are foods on display and are not self-service foods.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nutrition information.</I> (i) Except as provided by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>8</I>) of this section, the following must be provided on menus and menu boards:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of calories contained in each standard menu item listed on the menu or menu board, as usually prepared and offered for sale. In the case of multiple-serving standard menu items, this means the calories declared must be for the whole menu item listed on the menu or menu board as usually prepared and offered for sale (<I>e.g.,</I> “pizza pie: 1600 cal”); or per discrete serving unit as long as the discrete serving unit (<I>e.g.,</I> pizza slice) and total number of discrete serving units contained in the menu item are declared on the menu or menu board, and the menu item is usually prepared and offered for sale divided in discrete serving units (<I>e.g.,</I> “pizza pie: 200 cal/slice, 8 slices”). The calories must be declared in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The number of calories must be listed adjacent to the name or the price of the associated standard menu item, in a type size no smaller than the type size of the name or the price of the associated standard menu item, whichever is smaller, in the same color, or a color at least as conspicuous as that used for the name of the associated standard menu item, and with the same contrasting background or a background at least as contrasting as that used for the name of the associated standard menu item.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To the nearest 5-calorie increment up to and including 50 calories and to the nearest 10-calorie increment above 50 calories, except that amounts less than 5 calories may be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The term “Calories” or “Cal” must appear as a heading above a column listing the number of calories for each standard menu item or adjacent to the number of calories for each standard menu item. If the term “Calories” or “Cal” appears as a heading above a column of calorie declarations, the term must be in a type size no smaller than the smallest type size of the name or price of any menu item on that menu or menu board in the same color or a color at least as conspicuous as that used for that name or price and in the same contrasting background or a background at least as contrasting as that used for that name or price. If the term “Calories” or “Cal” appears adjacent to the number of calories for the standard menu item, the term “Calories” or “Cal” must appear in the same type size and in the same color and contrasting background as the number of calories.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Additional requirements that apply to each individual variable menu item:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) When the menu or menu board lists flavors or varieties of an entire individual variable menu item (such as soft drinks, ice cream, doughnuts, dips, and chicken that can be grilled or fried), the calories must be declared separately for each listed flavor or variety. Where flavors or varieties have the same calorie amounts (after rounding in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section), the calorie declaration for such flavors or varieties can be listed as a single calorie declaration adjacent to the flavors or varieties, provided that the calorie declaration specifies that the calorie amount listed represents the calorie amounts for each individual flavor or variety.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) When the menu or menu board does not list flavors or varieties for an entire individual variable menu item, and only includes a general description of the variable menu item (<I>e.g.,</I> “soft drinks”), the calories must be declared for each option with a slash between the two calorie declarations where only two options are available (<I>e.g.,</I> “150/250 calories”) or as a range in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(7) of this section where more than two options are available (<I>e.g.,</I> “100-250 calories”).
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) When the menu or menu board describes flavors or varieties for only part of an individual variable menu item (such as different types of cheese offered in a grilled cheese sandwich (<I>e.g.,</I> “Grilled Cheese (Cheddar or Swiss)”), the calories must be declared for each option with a slash between the two calorie declarations where only two options are available (<I>e.g.,</I> “450/500 calories”) or as a range in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>7</I>) of this section where more than two options are available (<I>e.g.,</I> “450-550 calories”).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Additional requirements that apply to a variable menu item that is offered for sale with the option of adding toppings listed on the menu or menu board. When the menu or menu board lists toppings that can be added to a menu item (such as pizza or ice cream):
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The calories must be declared for the basic preparation of the menu item as listed (<I>e.g.,</I> “small pizza pie,” “single scoop ice cream”).
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The calories must be separately declared for each topping listed on the menu or menu board (<I>e.g.,</I> pepperoni, sausage, green peppers, onions on pizza; fudge, almonds, sprinkles on ice cream), specifying that the calories are added to the calories contained in the basic preparation of the menu item. Where toppings have the same calorie amounts (after rounding in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section), the calorie declaration for such toppings can be listed as a single calorie declaration adjacent to the toppings, provided that the calorie declaration specifies that the calorie amount listed represents the calorie amount for each individual topping.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The calories for the basic preparation of the menu item must be declared for each size of the menu item. The calories for each topping listed on the menu or menu board must be declared for each size of the menu item, or declared using a slash between the two calorie declarations for each topping where only two sizes of the menu item are available (<I>e.g.,</I> “adds 150/250 cal”) or as a range for each topping in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>7</I>) of this section where more than two sizes of the menu item are available (<I>e.g.,</I> “adds 100-250 cal”). If a slash between two calorie declarations or a range of calorie declarations is used, the menu or menu board must indicate that the variation in calories for each topping arises from the size of the menu item to which the toppings are added.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) If the amount of the topping included on the basic preparation of the menu item decreases based on the total number of toppings ordered for the menu item (such as is sometimes the case with pizza toppings), the calories for each topping must be declared as single values representing the calories for each topping when added to a one-topping menu item, specifying that the calorie declaration is for the topping when added to a one-topping menu item.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Additional requirements that apply to a combination meal. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>6</I>)(<I>iv</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) When the menu or menu board lists two options for menu items in a combination meal (<I>e.g.,</I> a sandwich with a side salad or chips), the calories must be declared for each option with a slash between the two calorie declarations (<I>e.g.,</I> “350/450 calories”).
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) When the menu or menu board lists three or more options for menu items in a combination meal (<I>e.g.,</I> a sandwich with chips, a side salad, or fruit), the calories must be declared as a range in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>7</I>) of this section (<I>e.g.,</I> “350-500 calories”).
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) When the menu or menu board includes a choice to increase or decrease the size of a combination meal, the calorie difference must be declared for the increased or decreased size with a slash between two calorie declarations (<I>e.g.,</I> “Adds 100/150 calories,” “Subtracts 100/150 calories”) if the menu or menu board lists two options for menu items in the combination meal, or as a range in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>7</I>) of this section (<I>e.g.,</I> “Adds 100-250 calories,” “Subtracts 100-250 calories”) if the menu or menu board lists three or more options for menu items in the combination meal.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Where the menu or menu board describes an opportunity for a consumer to combine standard menu items for a special price (<I>e.g.,”</I>Combine Any Sandwich with Any Soup or Any Salad for $8.99”), and the calories for each standard menu item, including each size option as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A)(6)(<I>iii</I>) of this section if applicable, available for the consumer to combine are declared elsewhere on the menu or menu board, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A)(<I>6</I>)(<I>i</I>), (<I>ii</I>), and (<I>iii</I>) of this section do not apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Additional format requirements for declaring calories for an individual variable menu item, a combination meal, and toppings as a range, if applicable. Calories declared as a range must be in the format “xx-yy,” where “xx” is the caloric content of the lowest calorie variety, flavor, or combination, and “yy” is the caloric content of the highest calorie variety, flavor, or combination.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Exception for a variable menu item that has no clearly identifiable upper bound to the range of calories: If the variable menu item appears on the menu or menu board and is a self-service food or food on display, and there is no clearly identifiable upper bound to the range, <I>e.g.,</I> all-you-can-eat buffet, then the menu or menu board must include a statement, adjacent to the name or price of the item, referring customers to the self-service facility for calorie information, <I>e.g.,</I> “See buffet for calorie declarations.” This statement must appear in a type size no smaller than the type size of the name or price of the variable menu item, whichever is smaller, and in the same color or a color at least as conspicuous as that used for that name or price, with the same contrasting background or a background at least as contrasting as that used for that name or price.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Additional requirements that apply to beverages that are not self-service. For beverages that are not self-service, calories must be declared based on the full volume of the cup served without ice, unless the covered establishment ordinarily dispenses and offers for sale a standard beverage fill (<I>i.e.,</I> a fixed amount that is less than the full volume of the cup per cup size) or dispenses a standard ice fill (<I>i.e.,</I> a fixed amount of ice per cup size). If the covered establishment ordinarily dispenses and offers for sale a standard beverage fill or dispenses a standard ice fill, the covered establishment must declare calories based on such standard beverage fill or standard ice fill.
</P>
<P>(B) The following statement designed to enable consumers to understand, in the context of a total daily diet, the significance of the calorie information provided on menus and menu boards: “2,000 calories a day is used for general nutrition advice, but calorie needs vary.” For menus and menu boards targeted to children, the following options may be used as a substitute for or in addition to the succinct statement: “1,200 to 1,400 calories a day is used for general nutrition advice for children ages 4 to 8 years, but calorie needs vary.” or “1,200 to 1,400 calories a day is used for general nutrition advice for children ages 4 to 8 years and 1,400 to 2,000 calories a day for children ages 9 to 13 years, but calorie needs vary.”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) This statement must be posted prominently and in a clear and conspicuous manner in a type size no smaller than the smallest type size of any calorie declaration appearing on the same menu or menu board and in the same color or in a color at least as conspicuous as that used for the calorie declarations and with the same contrasting background or a background at least as contrasting as that used for the calorie declarations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For menus, this statement must appear on the bottom of each page of the menu. On menu pages that also bear the statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section, this statement must appear immediately above, below, or beside the statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For menu boards, this statement must appear on the bottom of the menu board, immediately above, below, or beside the statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) The following statement regarding the availability of the additional written nutrition information required in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section must be on all forms of the menu or menu board: “Additional nutrition information available upon request.”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) This statement must be posted prominently and in a clear and conspicuous manner in a type size no smaller than the smallest type size of any calorie declaration appearing on the same menu or menu board and in the same color or in a color at least as conspicuous as that used for the caloric declarations, and with the same contrasting background or a background at least as contrasting as that used for the caloric declarations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For menus, the statement must appear on the bottom of the first page with menu items immediately above, below, or beside the succinct statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For menu boards, the statement must appear on the bottom of the menu board immediately above, below, or beside the succinct statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following nutrition information for a standard menu item must be available in written form on the premises of the covered establishment and provided to the customer upon request. This nutrition information must be presented in the order listed and using the measurements listed, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section. Rounding of these nutrients must be in compliance with § 101.9(c). The information must be presented in a clear and conspicuous manner, including using a color, type size, and contrasting background that render the information likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use. Covered establishments may use the abbreviations allowed for Nutrition Facts for certain packaged foods in § 101.9(j)(13)(ii)(B):
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Total calories (cal);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Calories from fat (fat cal);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Total fat (g);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Saturated fat (g);
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Tran</I>s fat (g);
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Cholesterol (mg);
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Sodium (mg);
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Total carbohydrate (g);
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Dietary fiber (g);
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Sugars (g); and
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Protein (g).
</P>
<P>(B) If a standard menu item contains insignificant amounts of all the nutrients required to be disclosed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, the establishment is not required to include nutrition information regarding the standard menu item in the written form. However, if the covered establishment makes a nutrient content claim or health claim, the establishment is required to provide nutrition information on the nutrient that is the subject of the claim in accordance with § 101.10. For standard menu items that contain insignificant amounts of six or more of the required nutrients, the declaration of nutrition information required by paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section may be presented in a simplified format.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An insignificant amount is defined as that amount that allows a declaration of zero in nutrition labeling, except that for total carbohydrates, dietary fiber, and protein, it must be an amount that allows a declaration of “less than one gram.”
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The simplified format must include information, in a column, list, or table, on the following nutrients:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Total calories, total fat, total carbohydrates, protein, and sodium; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Calories from fat, and any other nutrients identified in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section that are present in more than insignificant amounts.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the simplified format is used, the statement “Not a significant source of ____” (with the blank filled in with the names of the nutrients required to be declared in the written nutrient information and calories from fat that are present in insignificant amounts) must be included at the bottom of the list of nutrients.
</P>
<P>(C) For variable menu items, the nutrition information listed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section must be declared as follows for each size offered for sale:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The nutrition information required in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section must be declared for the basic preparation of the item and, separately, for each topping, flavor, or variable component.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Additional format requirements for toppings if the amount of the topping included on the basic preparation of the menu item decreases based on the total number of toppings ordered for the menu item (such as is sometimes the case with pizza toppings). The nutrients for such topping must be declared as single values representing the nutrients for each topping when added to a one-topping menu item, specifying that the nutrient declaration is for the topping when added to a one-topping menu item.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the calories and other nutrients are the same for different flavors, varieties, and variable components of the combination meal, each variety, flavor, and variable component of the combination meal is not required to be listed separately. All items that have the same nutrient values could be listed together with the nutrient values listed only once.
</P>
<P>(D) The written nutrition information required in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section may be provided on a counter card, sign, poster, handout, booklet, loose leaf binder, or electronic device such as a computer, or in a menu, or in any other form that similarly permits the written declaration of the required nutrient content information for all standard menu items. If the written nutrition information is not in a form that can be given to the customer upon request, it must be readily available in a manner and location on the premises that allows the customer/consumer to review the written nutrition information upon request.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following must be provided for a standard menu item that is self-service or on display.
</P>
<P>(A) Calories per displayed food item (<I>e.g.,</I> a bagel, a slice of pizza, or a muffin), or if the food is not offered for sale in a discrete unit, calories per serving (<I>e.g.,</I> scoop, cup), and the serving or discrete unit used to determine the calorie content (<I>e.g.,</I> “per scoop” or “per muffin”) on either: A sign adjacent to and clearly associated with the corresponding food; (<I>e.g.,</I> “150 calories per scoop); a sign attached to a sneeze guard with the calorie declaration and the serving or unit used to determine the calorie content above each specific food so that the consumer can clearly associate the calorie declaration with the food, except that if it is not clear to which food the calorie declaration and serving or unit refers, then the sign must also include the name of the food, <I>e.g.,</I> “Broccoli and cheese casserole—200 calories per scoop”; or a single sign or placard listing the calorie declaration for several food items along with the names of the food items, so long as the sign or placard is located where a consumer can view the name, calorie declaration, and serving or unit of a particular item while selecting that item.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, “per displayed food item”; means per each discrete unit offered for sale, for example, a bagel, a slice of pizza, or a muffin.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, “per serving” means, for each food:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Per serving instrument used to dispense the food offered for sale, provided that the serving instrument dispenses a uniform amount of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> a scoop or ladle);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If a serving instrument that dispenses a uniform amount of food is not used to dispense the food, per each common household measure (<I>e.g.,</I> cup or tablespoon) offered for sale or per unit of weight offered for sale, <I>e.g.,</I> per quarter pound or per 4 ounces; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Per total number of fluid ounces in the cup in which a self-service beverage is served and, if applicable, the description of the cup size (<I>e.g.,</I> “140 calories per 12 fluid ounces (small)”).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The calories must be declared in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) To the nearest 5-calorie increment up to and including 50 calories and to the nearest 10-calorie increment above 50 calories except that amounts less than 5 calories may be expressed as zero.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the calorie declaration is provided on a sign with the food's name, price, or both, the calorie declaration, accompanied by the term “Calories” or “Cal” and the amount of the serving or displayed food item on which the calories declaration is based must be in a type size no smaller than the type size of the name or price of the menu item whichever is smaller, in the same color, or a color that is at least as conspicuous as that used for that name or price, using the same contrasting background or a background at least as contrasting as that used for that name or price. If the calorie declaration is provided on a sign that does not include the food's name, price, or both, the calorie declaration, accompanied by the term “Calories” or “Cal” and the amount of the serving or displayed food item on which the calorie declaration is based must be clear and conspicuous.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For self-service beverages, calorie declarations must be accompanied by the term “fluid ounces” and, if applicable, the description of the cup size (<I>e.g.,</I> “small,” “medium”).
</P>
<P>(B) For food that is self-service or on display and is identified by an individual sign adjacent to the food itself where such sign meets the definition of a menu or menu board under paragraph (a) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section and the statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section. These two statements may appear on the sign adjacent to the food itself; on a separate, larger sign, in close proximity to the food that can be easily read as the consumer is making order selections; or on a large menu board that can be easily read as the consumer is viewing the food.
</P>
<P>(C) The nutrition information in written form required by paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, except for packaged food insofar as it bears nutrition labeling information required by and in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section and the packaged food, including its label, can be examined by a consumer before purchasing the food.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of nutrient content.</I> (1) A covered establishment must have a reasonable basis for its nutrient declarations. Nutrient values may be determined by using nutrient databases (with or without computer software programs), cookbooks, laboratory analyses, or other reasonable means, including the use of Nutrition Facts on labels on packaged foods that comply with the nutrition labeling requirements of section 403(q)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 101.9, FDA nutrient values for raw fruits and vegetables in Appendix C of this part, or FDA nutrient values for cooked fish in Appendix D of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Nutrient declarations for standard menu items must be accurate and consistent with the specific basis used to determine nutrient values. A covered establishment must take reasonable steps to ensure that the method of preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> types and amounts of ingredients, cooking temperatures) and amount of a standard menu item offered for sale adhere to the factors on which its nutrient values were determined.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered establishment must provide to FDA, within a reasonable period of time upon request, information substantiating nutrient values including the method and data used to derive these nutrient values. This information must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For nutrient databases:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and version (including the date of the version) of the database, and, as applicable, the name of the applicable software company and any Web site address for the database. The name and version of a database would include the name and version of the computer software, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The recipe or formula used as a basis for the nutrient declarations;
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Information on:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The amount of each nutrient that the specified amount of each ingredient identified in the recipe contributes to the menu item; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) How the database was used including calculations or operations (<I>e.g.,</I> worksheets or computer printouts) to determine the nutrient values for the standard menu items;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the information in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section is not available, certification attesting that the database will provide accurate results when used appropriately and that the database was used in accordance with its instructions;
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed listing (<I>e.g.,</I> printout) of the nutrient values determined for each standard menu item.
</P>
<P>(E) Any other information pertinent to the final nutrient values of the standard menu item (<I>e.g.,</I> information about what might cause slight variations in the nutrient profile such as moisture variations);
</P>
<P>(F) A statement signed and dated by a responsible individual, employed at the covered establishment or its corporate headquarters or parent entity, who can certify that the information contained in the nutrient analysis is complete and accurate; and
</P>
<P>(G) A statement signed and dated by a responsible individual employed at the covered establishment certifying that the covered establishment has taken reasonable steps to ensure that the method of preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> types and amounts of ingredients in the recipe, cooking temperatures) and amount of a standard menu item offered for sale adhere to the factors on which its nutrient values were determined.
</P>
<P>(ii) For published cookbooks that contain nutritional information for recipes in the cookbook:
</P>
<P>(A) The name, author, and publisher of the cookbook used;
</P>
<P>(B) If available, information provided by the cookbook or from the author or publisher about how the nutrition information for the recipes was obtained;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the recipe used to prepare the standard menu item and a copy of the nutrition information for that standard menu item as provided by the cookbook; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement signed and dated by a responsible individual employed at the covered establishment certifying that that the covered establishment has taken reasonable steps to ensure that the method of preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> types and amounts of ingredients in the recipe, cooking temperatures) and amount of a standard menu item offered for sale adhere to the factors on which its nutrient values were determined. (Recipes may be divided as necessary to accommodate differences in the portion size derived from the recipe and that are served as the standard menu item but no changes may be made to the proportion of ingredients used.)
</P>
<P>(iii) For laboratory analyses:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the recipe for the standard menu item used for the nutrient analysis;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and address of the laboratory performing the analysis;
</P>
<P>(C) Copies of analytical worksheets, including the analytical method, used to determine and verify nutrition information;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement signed and dated by a responsible individual, employed at the covered establishment or its corporate headquarters or parent entity, who can certify that the information contained in the nutrient analysis is complete and accurate; and
</P>
<P>(E) A statement signed and dated by a responsible individual employed at the covered establishment certifying that the covered establishment has taken reasonable steps to ensure that the method of preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> types and amounts of ingredients in the recipe, cooking temperatures) and amount of a standard menu item offered for sale adhere to the factors on which its nutrient values were determined.
</P>
<P>(iv) For nutrition information provided by other reasonable means:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the means used to determine the nutrition information;
</P>
<P>(B) A recipe or formula used as a basis for the nutrient determination;
</P>
<P>(C) Any data derived in determining the nutrient values for the standard menu item, <I>e.g.,</I> nutrition information about the ingredients used with the source of the nutrient information;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement signed and dated by a responsible individual, employed at the covered establishment or its corporate headquarters or parent entity, who can certify that the information contained in the nutrient analysis is complete and accurate; and
</P>
<P>(E) A statement signed and dated by a responsible individual employed at the covered establishment certifying that the covered establishment has taken reasonable steps to ensure that the method of preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> types and amounts of ingredients in the recipe, cooking temperatures) and amount of a standard menu item offered for sale adhere to the factors on which its nutrient values were determined.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voluntary registration to be subject to the menu labeling requirements</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> A restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is not part of a chain with 20 or more locations doing business under the same name and offering for sale substantially the same menu items may voluntarily register to be subject to the requirements established in this section. Restaurants and similar retail food establishments that voluntarily register will no longer be subject to non-identical State or local nutrition labeling requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Who may register?</I> The authorized official of a restaurant or similar retail food establishment as defined in paragraph (a) of this section, which is not otherwise subject to paragraph (b) of this section, may register with FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>What information is required?</I> Authorized officials for restaurants and similar retail food establishments must provide FDA with the following information on Form FDA 3757:
</P>
<P>(i) The contact information (including name, address, phone number, and email address) for the authorized official;
</P>
<P>(ii) The contact information (including name, address, phone number, and email address) of each restaurant or similar retail food establishment being registered, as well as the name and contact information for an official onsite, such as the owner or manager, for each specific restaurant or similar retail food establishment;
</P>
<P>(iii) All trade names the restaurant or similar retail food establishment uses;
</P>
<P>(iv) Preferred mailing address (if different from location address for each establishment) for purposes of receiving correspondence; and
</P>
<P>(v) Certification that the information submitted is true and accurate, that the person submitting it is authorized to do so, and that each registered restaurant or similar retail food establishment will be subject to the requirements of section 403(q)(5)(H) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>How to register.</I> Authorized officials of restaurants and similar retail food establishments who elect to be subject to requirements in section 403(q)(5)(H) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act can register by visiting <I>http://www.fda.gov/food/ingredientspackaginglabeling/labelingnutrition/ucm217762.htm.</I> FDA has created a form (Form 3757) that contains fields requesting the information in paragraph (d)(3) of this section and made the form available at this Web site. Registrants must use this form to ensure that complete information is submitted.
</P>
<P>(i) Information should be submitted by email by typing complete information into the form (PDF), saving it on the registrant's computer, and sending it by email to <I>menulawregistration@fda.hhs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>If email is not available, the registrant</I> can either fill in the form (PDF) and print it out (or print out the blank PDF and fill in the information by hand or typewriter), and either fax the completed form to 301-436-2804 or mail it to FDA, CFSAN Menu and Vending Machine Registration, White Oak Building 22, Rm. 0209, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>When to renew the registration.</I> To keep the establishment's registration active, the authorized official of the restaurant or similar retail food establishment must register every other year within 60 days prior to the expiration of the establishment's current registration with FDA. Registration will automatically expire if not renewed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Signatures.</I> Signatures obtained under paragraph (d) of this section that meet the definition of electronic signatures in § 11.3(b)(7) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Misbranding.</I> A standard menu item offered for sale in a covered establishment shall be deemed misbranded under sections 201(n), 403(a), 403(f) and/or 403(q) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if its label or labeling is not in conformity with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 71253, Dec. 1, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.12   Reference amounts customarily consumed per eating occasion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The general principles and factors that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) considered in arriving at the reference amounts customarily consumed per eating occasion (reference amounts) which are set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, are that:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA calculated the reference amounts for persons 4 years of age or older to reflect the amount of food customarily consumed per eating occasion by persons in this population group. These reference amounts are based on data set forth in appropriate national food consumption surveys.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA calculated the reference amounts for an infant or child under 4 years of age to reflect the amount of food customarily consumed per eating occasion by infants up to 12 months of age or by children 1 through 3 years of age, respectively. These reference amounts are based on data set forth in appropriate national food consumption surveys. Such reference amounts are to be used only when the food is specially formulated or processed for use by an infant or by a child under 4 years of age.
</P>
<P>(3) An appropriate national food consumption survey includes a large sample size representative of the demographic and socioeconomic characteristics of the relevant population group and must be based on consumption data under actual conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(4) To determine the amount of food customarily consumed per eating occasion, FDA considered the mean, median, and mode of the consumed amount per eating occasion.
</P>
<P>(5) When survey data were insufficient, FDA took various other sources of information on serving sizes of food into consideration. These other sources of information included:
</P>
<P>(i) Serving sizes used in dietary guidance recommendations or recommended by other authoritative systems or organizations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Serving sizes recommended in comments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Serving sizes used by manufacturers and grocers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Serving sizes used by other countries.
</P>
<P>(6) Because they reflect the amount customarily consumed, the reference amount and, in turn, the serving size declared on the product label are based on only the edible portion of food, and not bone, seed, shell, or other inedible components.
</P>
<P>(7) The reference amount is based on the major intended use of the food (e.g., milk as a beverage and not as an addition to cereal).
</P>
<P>(8) The reference amounts for products that are consumed as an ingredient of other foods, but that may also be consumed in the form in which they are purchased (e.g., butter), are based on use in the form purchased.
</P>
<P>(9) FDA sought to ensure that foods that have similar dietary usage, product characteristics, and customarily consumed amounts have a uniform reference amount.
</P>
<P>(b) The following reference amounts shall be used as the basis for determining serving sizes for specific products:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed per Eating Occasion: Foods for Infants and Young Children 1 Through 3 Years of Age 
<sup>1 2 3</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Label statement 
<sup>4</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cereals, dry instant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cereals, prepared, ready-to-serve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other cereal and grain products, dry ready-to-eat, e.g., ready-to-eat cereals, cookies, teething biscuits, and toasts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 g for infants and 20 g for young children (1 through 3 years of age) for ready-to-eat cereals; 7 g for all others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g) for ready-to-eat cereals; piece(s) (__ g) for others
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinners, deserts, fruits, vegetables or soups, dry mix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinners, desserts, fruits, vegetables or soups, ready-to-serve, junior type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g); cup(s) (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinners, desserts, fruits, vegetables or soups, ready-to-serve, strained type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g); cup(s) (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinners, stews or soups for young children, ready-to-serve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">170 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g); cup(s) (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fruits for young children, ready-to-serve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vegetables for young children, ready-to-serve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eggs/egg yolks, ready-to serve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Juices all varieties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 fl oz (120 mL)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> These values represent the amount of food customarily consumed per eating occasion and were primarily derived from the 1977-1978 and the 1987-1988 Nationwide Food Consumption Surveys conducted by the U.S. Department of Agriculture. We further considered data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, 2003-2004, 2005-2006, and 2007-2008 conducted by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, in the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unless otherwise noted in the reference amount column, the reference amounts are for the ready-to-serve or almost ready-to-serve form of the product (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> heat and serve, brown and serve). If not listed separately, the reference amount for the unprepared form (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> dry mixes, concentrates, dough, batter, fresh and frozen pasta) is the amount required to make the reference amount of the prepared form. Prepared means prepared for consumption (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> cooked).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Manufacturers are required to convert the reference amount to the label serving size in a household measure most appropriate to their specific product using the procedures in 21 CFR 101.9(b).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The label statements are meant to provide examples of serving size statements that may be used on the label, but the specific wording may be changed as appropriate for individual products. The term “piece” is used as a generic description of a discrete unit. Manufacturers should use the description of a unit that is most appropriate for the specific product (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> sandwich for sandwiches, cookie for cookies, and bar for frozen novelties).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed Per Eating Occasion: General Food Supply 
<sup>1 2 3</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Label statement 
<sup>4</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bakery Products:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bagels, toaster pastries, muffins (excluding English muffins)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Biscuits, croissants, tortillas, soft bread sticks, soft pretzels, corn bread, hush puppies, scones, crumpets, English muffins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Breads (excluding sweet quick type), rolls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for sliced bread and distinct pieces (e.g., rolls); 2 oz (56 g/__ inch slice) for unsliced bread
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bread sticks—see crackers
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Toaster pastries—see bagels, toaster pastries, muffins (excluding English muffins)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Brownies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces; fractional slice (__ g) for bulk
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cakes, heavyweight (cheese cake; pineapple upside-down cake; fruit, nut, and vegetable cakes with more than or equal to 35 percent of the finished weight as fruit, nuts, or vegetables or any of these combinations) 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces (e.g., sliced or individually packaged products); __ fractional slice (__ g) for large discrete units
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cakes, mediumweight (chemically leavened cake with or without icing or filling except those classified as light weight cake; fruit, nut, and vegetable cake with less than 35 percent of the finished weight as fruit, nuts, or vegetables or any of these combinations; light weight cake with icing; Boston cream pie; cupcake; eclair; cream puff) 
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces (e.g., cupcake); __ fractional slice (__ g) for large discrete units
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cakes, lightweight (angel food, chiffon, or sponge cake without icing or filling) 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces (e.g., sliced or individually packaged products); __ fractional slice (__ g) for large discrete units
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Coffee cakes, crumb cakes, doughnuts, Danish, sweet rolls, sweet quick type breads</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for sliced bread and distinct pieces (e.g., doughnut); 2 oz (56 g/visual unit of measure) for bulk products (e.g., unsliced bread)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cookies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Crackers that are usually not used as snack, melba toast, hard bread sticks, ice cream cones 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Crackers that are usually used as snacks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Croutons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g); __ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Eggroll, dumpling, wonton, or potsticker wrappers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ sheet (__ g); wrapper (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">French toast, crepes, pancakes, variety mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g prepared for French toast, crepes, and pancakes; 40 g dry mix for variety mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g) for dry mix
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Grain-based bars with or without filling or coating, e.g., breakfast bars, granola bars, rice cereal bars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ice cream cones—see crackers
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pies, cobblers, fruit crisps, turnovers, other pastries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces; __ fractional slice (__ g) for large discrete units
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pie crust, pie shells, pastry sheets, (e.g., phyllo, puff pastry sheets)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the allowable declaration closest to an 8 square inch surface area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ fractional slice(s) (__ g) for large discrete units; __ shells (__ g); __ fractional __ sheet(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces (e.g., Pastry sheet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pizza crust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ fractional slice (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Taco shells, hard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ shell(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Waffles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beverages:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Carbonated and noncarbonated beverages, wine coolers, water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">360 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 fl oz (360 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Coffee or tea, flavored and sweetened</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">360 mL prepared</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 fl oz (360 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cereals and Other Grain Products:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Breakfast cereals (hot cereal type), hominy grits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cup prepared; 40 g plain dry cereal; 55 g flavored, sweetened cereal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Breakfast cereals, ready-to-eat, weighing less than 20 g per cup, e.g., plain puffed cereal grains</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Breakfast cereals, ready-to-eat, weighing 20 g or more but less than 43 g per cup; high fiber cereals containing 28 g or more of fiber per 100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Breakfast cereals, ready-to-eat, weighing 43 g or more per cup; biscuit types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large distinct pieces (e.g., biscuit type); __ cup(s) (__ g) for all others
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bran or wheat germ</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Flours or cornmeal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Grains, e.g., rice, barley, plain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 g prepared; 45 g dry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pastas, plain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 g prepared; 55 g dry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g); __ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces (e.g., large shells or lasagna noodles) or 2 oz (56 g/visual unit of measure) for dry bulk products (e.g., spaghetti)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pastas, dry, ready-to-eat, e.g., fried canned chow mein noodles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Starches, e.g., cornstarch, potato starch, tapioca, etc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Stuffing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dairy Products and Substitutes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cheese, cottage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cheese used primarily as ingredients, e.g., dry cottage cheese, ricotta cheese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cheese, grated hard, e.g., Parmesan, Romano</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cheese, all others except those listed as separate categories—includes cream cheese and cheese spread</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces; __ tbsp(s) (__ g) for cream cheese and cheese spread; 1 oz (28 g/visual unit of measure) for bulk
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cheese sauce—see sauce category
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cream or cream substitutes, fluid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp (15 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cream or cream substitutes, powder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cream, half &amp; half</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (30 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Eggnog</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> cup (120 mL); 4 fl oz (120 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Milk, condensed, undiluted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (30 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Milk, evaporated, undiluted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (30 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Milk, milk-substitute beverages, milk-based drinks, e.g., instant breakfast, meal replacement, cocoa, soy beverage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">240 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cup (240 mL); 8 fl oz (240 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Shakes or shake substitutes, e.g., dairy shake mixes, fruit frost mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">240 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cup (240 mL); 8 fl oz (240 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sour cream</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Yogurt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">170 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desserts:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ice cream, frozen yogurt, sherbet, frozen flavored and sweetened ice and pops, frozen fruit juices: all types bulk and novelties (e.g., bars, sandwiches, cones, cups)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>2/3</fr> cup—includes the volume for coatings and wafers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>2/3</fr> cup (__ g), __ piece(s) (__ g) for individually wrapped or packaged products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sundae</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Custards, gelatin, or pudding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> cup prepared; amount to make 
<fr>1/2</fr> cup prepared when dry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct unit (e.g., individually packaged products); 
<fr>1/2</fr> cup (__ g) for bulk
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dessert Toppings and Fillings:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cake frostings or icings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other dessert toppings, e.g., fruits, syrups, spreads, marshmallow cream, nuts, dairy and non-dairy whipped toppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (__ g); 2 tbsp (30 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pie fillings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Egg and Egg Substitutes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Egg mixtures, e.g., egg foo young, scrambled eggs, omelets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; __ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Eggs (all sizes) 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 large, medium, etc. (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Egg whites, sugared eggs, sugared egg yolks, and egg substitutes (fresh, frozen, dried)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An amount to make 1 large (50 g) egg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and Oils:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Butter, margarine, oil, shortening</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp (__ g); 1 tbsp (15 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Butter replacement, powder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tsp(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dressings for salads</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp (__ g); __ tbsp (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mayonnaise, sandwich spreads, mayonnaise-type dressings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Spray types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">About __ seconds spray (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fish, Shellfish, Game Meats,
<sup>9</sup> and Meat or Poultry Substitutes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bacon substitutes, canned anchovies,
<sup>10</sup> anchovy pastes, caviar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; __ tbsp(s) (__ g) for others
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dried, e.g., jerky</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entrees with sauce, e.g., fish with cream sauce, shrimp with lobster sauce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 g cooked</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g); 5 oz (140 g/visual unit of measure) if not measurable by cup
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entrees without sauce, e.g., plain or fried fish and shellfish, fish and shellfish cake</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 g cooked; 110 g uncooked 
<sup>11</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; __ cup(s) (__ g); __ oz (__ g/visual unit of measure) if not measurable by cup 
<sup>12</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fish, shellfish, or game meat 
<sup>9</sup>, canned 
<sup>10</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; __ cup(s) (__ g); 3 oz (85 g/__ cup) for products that are difficult to measure the g weight of cup measure (e.g., tuna); 3 oz (85 g/__ pieces) for products that naturally vary in size (e.g., sardines)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Substitute for luncheon meat, meat spreads, Canadian bacon, sausages, frankfurters, and seafood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces (e.g., slices, links); __ cup(s) (__ g); 2 oz (56 g/visual unit of measure) for nondiscrete bulk product
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Smoked or pickled fish,
<sup>10</sup> shellfish, or game meat 
<sup>9</sup>; fish or shellfish spread</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for distinct pieces (e.g., slices, links) or __ cup(s) (__ g); 2 oz (56 g/visual unit of measure) for nondiscrete bulk product
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Substitutes for bacon bits—see Miscellaneous
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fruits and Fruit Juices:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Candied or pickled 
<sup>10</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dehydrated fruits—see snack category
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces (e.g., dates, figs, prunes); __ cup(s) (__ g) for small pieces (e.g., raisins)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fruits for garnish or flavor, e.g., maraschino cherries 
<sup>10</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cherry (__ g); __ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fruit relishes, e.g., cranberry sauce, cranberry relish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fruits used primarily as ingredients, avocado</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See footnote 
<sup>12</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fruits used primarily as ingredients, others (cranberries, lemon, lime)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large fruits; __ cup(s) (__ g) for small fruits measurable by cup
<sup>12</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Watermelon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">280 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See footnote 
<sup>12</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">All other fruits (except those listed as separate categories), fresh, canned or frozen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces (e.g., strawberries, prunes, apricots, etc.); __ cup(s) (__ g) for small pieces (e.g., blueberries, raspberries, etc.) 
<sup>12</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Juices, nectars, fruit drinks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">240 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 fl oz (240 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Juices used as ingredients, e.g., lemon juice, lime juice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tsp (5 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Legumes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tofu,
<sup>10</sup> tempeh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; 3 oz (84 g/visual unit of measure) for bulk products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Beans, plain or in sauce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">130 g for beans in sauce or canned in liquid and refried beans prepared; 90 g for others prepared; 35 g dry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Miscellaneous:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Baking powder, baking soda, pectin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Baking decorations, e.g., colored sugars and sprinkles for cookies, cake decorations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tsp or 4 g if not measurable by teaspoon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; 1 tsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Batter mixes, bread crumbs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Chewing gum 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cocoa powder, carob powder, unsweetened</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cooking wine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (30 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dietary supplements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The maximum amount recommended, as appropriate, on the label for consumption per eating occasion or, in the absence of recommendations, 1 unit, e.g., tablet, capsule, packet, teaspoonful, etc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tablet(s), __ capsules(s), __ packet(s), __ tsp(s) (__ g), etc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Meat, poultry, and fish coating mixes, dry; seasoning mixes, dry, e.g., chili seasoning mixes, pasta salad seasoning mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount to make one reference amount of final dish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tsp(s) (__ g); __ tbsp(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Milk, milk substitute, and fruit juice concentrates (without alcohol) (e.g., drink mixers, frozen fruit juice concentrate, sweetened cocoa powder)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount to make 240 mL drink (without ice)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ fl oz (__ mL); __ tsp (<E T="03">__ </E> g); tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Drink mixes (without alcohol): All other types (e.g., flavored syrups and powdered drink mixes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount to make 360 mL drink (without ice)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ fl oz (__ mL); __ tsp (__ g); __ tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Salad and potato toppers, e.g., salad crunchies, salad crispins, substitutes for bacon bits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Salt, salt substitutes, seasoning salts (e.g., garlic salt)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> tsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> tsp (__ g); __ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces (e.g., individually packaged products)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Seasoning oils and seasoning sauces (e.g., coconut concentrate, sesame oil, almond oil, chili oil, coconut oil, walnut oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Seasoning pastes (e.g., garlic paste, ginger paste, curry paste, chili paste, miso paste), fresh or frozen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Spices, herbs (other than dietary supplements)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> tsp or 0.5 g if not measurable by teaspoon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> tsp (__ g); __ piece(s) (__ g) if not measurable by teaspoons (e.g., bay leaf)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed Dishes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Appetizers, hors d'oeuvres, mini mixed dishes, e.g., mini bagel pizzas, breaded mozzarella sticks, egg rolls, dumplings, potstickers, wontons, mini quesadillas, mini quiches, mini sandwiches, mini pizza rolls, potato skins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 g, add 35 g for products with gravy or sauce topping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Measurable with cup, e.g., casseroles, hash, macaroni and cheese, pot pies, spaghetti with sauce, stews, etc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Not measurable with cup, e.g., burritos, enchiladas, pizza, pizza rolls, quiche, all types of sandwiches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 g, add 55 g for products with gravy or sauce topping, e.g., enchilada with cheese sauce, crepe with white sauce 
<sup>13</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; __ fractional slice (__ g) for large discrete units
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nuts and Seeds:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Nuts, seeds and mixtures, all types: Sliced, chopped, slivered, and whole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces (e.g., unshelled nuts); __ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g) for small pieces (e.g., peanuts, sunflower seeds)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Nut and seed butters, pastes, or creams</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Coconut, nut and seed flours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potatoes and Sweet Potatoes/Yams:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">French fries, hash browns, skins, or pancakes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 g prepared; 85 g for frozen unprepared French fries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large distinct pieces (e.g., patties, skins); 2.5 oz (70 g/__ pieces) for prepared fries; 3 oz (84 g/__ pieces) for unprepared fries
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mashed, candied, stuffed or with sauce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces (e.g., stuffed potato); __ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Plain, fresh, canned, or frozen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g for fresh or frozen; 125 g for vacuum packed; 160 g for canned in liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces; __ cup(s) (__ g) for sliced or chopped products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salads:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Gelatin salad</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pasta or potato salad</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">All other salads, e.g., egg, fish, shellfish, bean, fruit, or vegetable salads</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sauces, Dips, Gravies, and Condiments:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Barbecue sauce, hollandaise sauce, tartar sauce, tomato chili sauce, other sauces for dipping (e.g., mustard sauce, sweet and sour sauce), all dips (e.g., bean dips, dairy-based dips, salsa)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (__ g); 2 tbsp (30 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Major main entree sauces, e.g., spaghetti sauce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g); __ cup (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Minor main entree sauces (e.g., pizza sauce, pesto sauce, Alfredo sauce), other sauces used as toppings (e.g., gravy, white sauce, cheese sauce), cocktail sauce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> cup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> cup (__ g); 
<fr>1/4</fr> cup (60 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Major condiments, e.g., catsup, steak sauce, soy sauce, vinegar, teriyaki sauce, marinades</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp (__ g); 1 tbsp (15 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Minor condiments, e.g., horseradish, hot sauces, mustards, Worcestershire sauce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tsp (__ g); 1 tsp (5 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Snacks:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">All varieties, chips, pretzels, popcorn, extruded snacks, fruit and vegetable-based snacks (e.g., fruit chips), grain-based snack mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g) for small pieces (e.g., popcorn); __ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces (e.g., large pretzels; pressed dried fruit sheet); 1 oz (28g/visual unit of measure) for bulk products (e.g., potato chips)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soups:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">All varieties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">245 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g); __ cup (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dry soup mixes, bouillon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount to make 245 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g); __ cup (__ mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sugars and Sweets:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Baking candies (e.g., chips)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces; __ tbsp(s) (__ g) for small pieces; 
<fr>1/2</fr> oz (14 g/visual unit of measure) for bulk products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">After-dinner confectioneries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Hard candies, breath mints 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Hard candies, roll-type, mini-size in dispenser packages</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Hard candies, others; powdered candies, liquid candies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 mL for liquid candies; 15 g for all others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces; __ tbsp(s) (__ g) for “mini-size” candies measurable by tablespoon; __ straw(s) (__ g) for powdered candies; __ wax bottle(s) (__ mL) for liquid candies; 
<fr>1/2</fr> oz (14 g/visual unit of measure) for bulk products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">All other candies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g); 1 oz (30 g/visual unit of measure) for bulk products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Confectioner's sugar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Honey, jams, jellies, fruit butter, molasses, fruit pastes, fruit chutneys</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 tbsp (__ g); 1 tbsp (15 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Marshmallows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup(s) (__ g) for small pieces; __ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sugar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tsp (__ g); __ piece(s) (__ g) for discrete pieces (e.g., sugar cubes, individually packaged products)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sugar substitutes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An amount equivalent to one reference amount for sugar in sweetness</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tsp(s) (__ g) for solids; __ drop(s) (__ g) for liquid; __ piece(s) (__ g) (e.g., individually packaged products)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Syrups</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 mL for all syrups</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 tbsp (30 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vegetables:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dried vegetables, dried tomatoes, sun-dried tomatoes, dried mushrooms, dried seaweed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 g, add 5 g for products packaged in oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s); 
<fr>1/3</fr> cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dried seaweed sheets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vegetables primarily used for garnish or flavor (e.g., pimento,
<sup>10</sup> parsley, fresh or dried)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g); __ tbsp(s) (__ g) for chopped products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fresh or canned chili peppers, jalapeno peppers, other hot peppers, green onion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) 
<sup>12</sup>; __ tbsp(s) (__ g); __ cup(s) (__ g) for sliced or chopped products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">All other vegetables without sauce: Fresh, canned, or frozen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 g for fresh or frozen; 95 g for vacuum packed; 130 g for canned in liquid, cream-style corn, canned or stewed tomatoes, pumpkin, or winter squash</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces (e.g., Brussels sprouts); __ cup(s) (__ g) for small pieces (e.g., cut corn, green peas); 3 oz (84 g/visual unit of measure) if not measurable by cup
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">All other vegetables with sauce: Fresh, canned, or frozen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g) for large pieces (e.g., Brussels sprouts); __ cup(s) (__ g) for small pieces (e.g., cut corn, green peas); 4 oz (112 g/visual unit of measure) if not measurable by cup
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vegetable juice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">240 mL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 fl oz (240 mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Olives 
<sup>10</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ piece(s) (__ g); __ tbsp(s) (__ g) for sliced products
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pickles and pickled vegetables, all types 
<sup>10</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz (28 g/visual unit of measure)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pickle relishes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sprouts, all types: Fresh or canned</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/4 cup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> cup (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vegetable pastes, e.g., tomato paste</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ tbsp (__ g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vegetable sauces or purees, e.g., tomato sauce, tomato puree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__ cup (__ g); __ cup (__ mL)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> These values represent the amount (edible portion) of food customarily consumed per eating occasion and were primarily derived from the 1977-1978 and the 1987-1988 Nationwide Food Consumption Surveys conducted by the U.S. Department of Agriculture and updated with data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, 2003-2004, 2005-2006 and 2007-2008 conducted by the Centers for Diseases Control and Prevention, in the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unless otherwise noted in the Reference Amount column, the reference amounts are for the ready-to-serve or almost ready-to-serve form of the product (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> heat and serve, brown and serve). If not listed separately, the reference amount for the unprepared form (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> dry mixes, concentrates, dough, batter, fresh and frozen pasta) is the amount required to make the reference amount of the prepared form. Prepared means prepared for consumption (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> cooked).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Manufacturers are required to convert the reference amount to the label serving size in a household measure most appropriate to their specific product using the procedures in 21 CFR 101.9(b).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The label statements are meant to provide examples of serving size statements that may be used on the label, but the specific wording may be changed as appropriate for individual products. The term “piece” is used as a generic description of a discrete unit. Manufacturers should use the description of a unit that is most appropriate for the specific product (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> sandwich for sandwiches, cookie for cookies, and bar for ice cream bars). The guidance provided is for the label statement of products in ready-to-serve or almost ready-to-serve form. The guidance does not apply to the products which require further preparation for consumption (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> dry mixes, concentrates) unless specifically stated in the product category, reference amount, or label statement column that it is for these forms of the product. For products that require further preparation, manufacturers must determine the label statement following the rules in § 101.9(b) using the reference amount determined according to § 101.12(c).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Includes cakes that weigh 10 g or more per cubic inch. The serving size for fruitcake is 1 
<fr>1/2</fr> ounces.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Includes cakes that weigh 4 g or more per cubic inch but less than 10 g per cubic inch.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Includes cakes that weigh less than 4 g per cubic inch.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> Label serving size for ice cream cones, eggs, and breath mints of all sizes will be 1 unit. Label serving size of all chewing gums that weigh more than the reference amount that can reasonably be consumed at a single-eating occasion will be 1 unit.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>9</sup> Animal products not covered under the Federal Meat Inspection Act or the Poultry Products Inspection Act, such as flesh products from deer, bison, rabbit, quail, wild turkey, geese, ostrich, etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>10</sup> If packed or canned in liquid, the reference amount is for the drained solids, except for products in which both the solids and liquids are customarily consumed (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> canned chopped clam in juice).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>11</sup> The reference amount for the uncooked form does not apply to raw fish in § 101.45 or to single-ingredient products that consist of fish or game meat as provided for in § 101.9(j)(11).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>12</sup> For raw fruit, vegetables, and fish, manufacturers should follow the label statement for the serving size specified in Appendices C and D to part 101 (21 CFR part 101) Code of Federal Regulations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>13</sup> Pizza sauce is part of the pizza and is not considered to be sauce topping.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) If a product requires further preparation, <I>e.g.,</I> cooking or the addition of water or other ingredients, and if paragraph (b) of this section provides a reference amount for the product in the prepared form, but not the unprepared form, then the reference amount for the unprepared product must be the amount of the unprepared product required to make the reference amount for the prepared product as established in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The reference amount for an imitation or substitute food or altered food, such as a “low calorie” version, shall be the same as for the food for which it is offered as a substitute.
</P>
<P>(e) If a food is modified by incorporating air (aerated), and thereby the density of the food is lowered by 25 percent or more in weight than that of an appropriate reference regular food as described in § 101.13(j)(1)(ii)(A), and the reference amount of the regular food is in grams, the manufacturer may determine the reference amount of the aerated food by adjusting for the difference in density of the aerated food relative to the density of the appropriate reference food provided that the manufacturer will show FDA detailed protocol and records of all data that were used to determine the density-adjusted reference amount for the aerated food. The reference amount for the aerated food shall be rounded to the nearest 5-g increment. Such products shall bear a descriptive term indicating that extra air has been incorporated (e.g., whipped, aerated). The density-adjusted reference amounts described in paragraph (b) of this section may not be used for cakes except for cheese cake. The differences in the densities of different types of cakes having different degrees of air incorporation have already been taken into consideration in determining the reference amounts for cakes in § 101.12(b). In determining the difference in density of the aerated and the regular food, the manufacturer shall adhere to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The regular and the aerated product must be the same in size, shape, and volume. To compare the densities of products having nonsmooth surfaces (e.g., waffles), manufacturers shall use a device or method that ensures that the volumes of the regular and the aerated products are the same.
</P>
<P>(2) Sample selections for the density measurements shall be done in accordance with the provisions in § 101.9(g).
</P>
<P>(3) Density measurements of the regular and the aerated products shall be conducted by the same trained operator using the same methodology (e.g., the same equipment, procedures, and techniques) under the same conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Density measurements shall be replicated a sufficient number of times to ensure that the average of the measurements is representative of the true differences in the densities of the regular and the “aerated” products.
</P>
<P>(f) For products that have no reference amount listed in paragraph (b) of this section for the unprepared or the prepared form of the product and that consist of two or more foods packaged and presented to be consumed together (e.g., peanut butter and jelly, cracker and cheese pack, pancakes and syrup, cake and frosting), the reference amount for the combined product shall be determined using the following rules:
</P>
<P>(1) The reference amount for the combined product must be the reference amount, as established in paragraph (b) of this section, for the ingredient that is represented as the main ingredient (<I>e.g.,</I> peanut butter, pancakes, cake) plus proportioned amounts of all minor ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) If the reference amounts are in compatible units, the weights or volumes must be summed (<I>e.g.,</I> the reference amount for equal volumes of peanut butter and jelly for which peanut butter is represented as the main ingredient would be 4 tablespoons (tbsp) (2 tbsp peanut butter plus 2 tbsp jelly)). If the reference amounts are in incompatible units, all amounts must be converted to weights and summed, <I>e.g.,</I> the reference amount for pancakes and syrup would be 110 g (the reference amount for pancakes) plus the weight of the proportioned amount of syrup.
</P>
<P>(g) The reference amounts set forth in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section shall be used in determining whether a product meets the criteria for nutrient content claims, such as “low calorie,” and for health claims. If the serving size declared on the product label differs from the reference amount, and the product meets the criteria for the claim only on the basis of the reference amount, the claim shall be followed by a statement that sets forth the basis on which the claim is made. That statement shall include the reference amount as it appears in paragraph (b) of this section followed, in parenthesis, by the amount in common household measure if the reference amount is expressed in measures other than common household measures (e.g., for a beverage, “Very low sodium, 35 mg or less per 240 mL (8 fl oz)”).
</P>
<P>(h) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his or her own initiative or in response to a petition submitted pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, may issue a proposal to establish or amend a reference amount in paragraph (b) of this section. A petition to establish or amend a reference amount shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Objective of the petition;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the product;
</P>
<P>(3) A complete sample product label including nutrition label, using the format established by regulation;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the form (e.g., dry mix, frozen dough) in which the product will be marketed;
</P>
<P>(5) The intended dietary uses of the product with the major use identified (e.g., milk as a beverage and chips as a snack);
</P>
<P>(6) If the intended use is primarily as an ingredient in other foods, list of foods or food categories in which the product will be used as an ingredient with information on the prioritization of the use;
</P>
<P>(7) The population group for which the product will be offered for use (e.g., infants, children under 4 years of age);
</P>
<P>(8) The names of the most closely related products (or in the case of foods for special dietary use and imitation or substitute foods, the names of the products for which they are offered as substitutes);
</P>
<P>(9) The suggested reference amount (the amount of edible portion of food as consumed, excluding bone, seed, shell, or other inedible components) for the population group for which the product is intended with full description of the methodology and procedures that were used to determine the suggested reference amount. In determining the reference amount, general principles and factors in paragraph (a) of this section should be followed.
</P>
<P>(10) The suggested reference amount shall be expressed in metric units. Reference amounts for fluids shall be expressed in milliliters. Reference amounts for other foods shall be expressed in grams except when common household units such as cups, tablespoons, and teaspoons, are more appropriate or are more likely to promote uniformity in serving sizes declared on product labels. For example, common household measures would be more appropriate if products within the same category differ substantially in density, such as frozen desserts.
</P>
<P>(i) In expressing the reference amounts in milliliters, the following rules shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(A) For volumes greater than 30 milliliters (mL), the volume shall be expressed in multiples of 30 mL.
</P>
<P>(B) For volumes less than 30 mL, the volume shall be expressed in milliliters equivalent to a whole number of teaspoons or 1 tbsp, i.e., 5, 10, or 15 mL.
</P>
<P>(ii) In expressing the reference amounts in grams, the following general rules shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(A) For quantities greater than 10 g, the quantity shall be expressed in the nearest 5-g increment.
</P>
<P>(B) For quantities less than 10 g, exact gram weights shall be used.
</P>
<P>(11) A petition to create a new subcategory of food with its own reference amount shall include the following additional information:
</P>
<P>(i) Data that demonstrate that the new subcategory of food will be consumed in amounts that differ enough from the reference amount for the parent category to warrant a separate reference amount. Data must include sample size; and the mean, standard deviation, median, and modal consumed amount per eating occasion for the petitioned product and for other products in the category, excluding the petitioned product. All data must be derived from the same survey data.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation supporting the difference in dietary usage and product characteristics that affect the consumption size that distinguishes the petitioned product from the rest of the products in the category.
</P>
<P>(12) A claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter, and
</P>
<P>(13) In conducting research to collect or process food consumption data in support of the petition, the following general guidelines should be followed.
</P>
<P>(i) Sampled population selected should be representative of the demographic and socioeconomic characteristics of the target population group for which the food is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sample size (i.e., number of eaters) should be large enough to give reliable estimates for customarily consumed amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) The study protocol should identify potential biases and describe how potential biases are controlled for or, if not possible to control, how they affect interpretation of results.
</P>
<P>(iv) The methodology used to collect or process data should be fully documented and should include: study design, sampling procedures, materials used (e.g., questionnaire, and interviewer's manual), procedures used to collect or process data, methods or procedures used to control for unbiased estimates, and procedures used to correct for nonresponse.
</P>
<P>(14) A statement concerning the feasibility of convening associations, corporations, consumers, and other interested parties to engage in negotiated rulemaking to develop a proposed rule consistent with the Negotiated Rulemaking Act (5 U.S.C. 561).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 44051, Aug. 18, 1993; 58 FR 60109, Nov. 15, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 371, Jan. 4, 1994; 59 FR 24039, May 10, 1994; 62 FR 40598, July 29, 1997; 62 FR 49848, Sept. 23, 1997; 63 FR 14818, Mar. 27, 1998; 64 FR 12890, Mar. 16, 1999; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 34041, May 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.13" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.13   Nutrient content claims—general principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section and the regulations in subpart D of this part apply to foods that are intended for human consumption and that are offered for sale, including conventional foods and dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(b) A claim that expressly or implicitly characterizes the level of a nutrient of the type required to be in nutrition labeling under § 101.9 or under § 101.36 (that is, a nutrient content claim) may not be made on the label or in labeling of foods unless the claim is made in accordance with this regulation and with the applicable regulations in subpart D of this part or in part 105 or part 107 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) An expressed nutrient content claim is any direct statement about the level (or range) of a nutrient in the food, e.g., “low sodium” or “contains 100 calories.”
</P>
<P>(2) An implied nutrient content claim is any claim that:
</P>
<P>(i) Describes the food or an ingredient therein in a manner that suggests that a nutrient is absent or present in a certain amount (e.g., “high in oat bran”); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Suggests that a food, because of its nutrient content, may be useful in maintaining healthy dietary practices, where there is also implied or explicit information about the nutrition content of the food (<I>e.g.,</I> “healthy”).
</P>
<P>(3) Except for claims regarding vitamins and minerals described in paragraph (q)(3) of this section, no nutrient content claims may be made on food intended specifically for use by infants and children less than 2 years of age unless the claim is specifically provided for in parts 101, 105, or 107 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Reasonable variations in the spelling of the terms defined in part 101 and their synonyms are permitted provided these variations are not misleading (e.g., “hi” or “lo”).
</P>
<P>(5) For dietary supplements, claims for calories, fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol may not be made on products that meet the criteria in § 101.60(b)(1) or (b)(2) for “calorie free” or “low calorie” claims, except, in the case of calorie claims, when an equivalent amount of a similar dietary supplement (e.g., another protein supplement) that the labeled food resembles and for which it substitutes, normally exceeds the definition for “low calorie” in § 101.60(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) Information that is required or permitted by § 101.9 or § 101.36, as applicable, to be declared in nutrition labeling, and that appears as part of the nutrition label, is not a nutrient content claim and is not subject to the requirements of this section. If such information is declared elsewhere on the label or in labeling, it is a nutrient content claim and is subject to the requirements for nutrient content claims.
</P>
<P>(d) A “substitute” food is one that may be used interchangeably with another food that it resembles, i.e., that it is organoleptically, physically, and functionally (including shelf life) similar to, and that it is not nutritionally inferior to unless it is labeled as an “imitation.”
</P>
<P>(1) If there is a difference in performance characteristics that materially limits the use of the food, the food may still be considered a substitute if the label includes a disclaimer adjacent to the most prominent claim as defined in paragraph (j)(2)(iii) of this section, informing the consumer of such difference (e.g., “not recommended for frying”).
</P>
<P>(2) This disclaimer shall be in easily legible print or type and in a size no less than that required by § 101.7(i) for the net quantity of contents statement, except where the size of the claim is less than two times the required size of the net quantity of contents statement, in which case the disclaimer shall be no less than one-half the size of the claim but no smaller than one-sixteenth of an inch, unless the package complies with § 101.2(c)(5), in which case the disclaimer may be in type of not less than one thirty-second of an inch.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Because the use of a “free” or “low” claim before the name of a food implies that the food differs from other foods of the same type by virtue of its having a lower amount of the nutrient, only foods that have been specially processed, altered, formulated, or reformulated so as to lower the amount of the nutrient in the food, remove the nutrient from the food, or not include the nutrient in the food, may bear such a claim (e.g., “low sodium potato chips”).
</P>
<P>(2) Any claim for the absence of a nutrient in a food, or that a food is low in a nutrient when the food has not been specially processed, altered, formulated, or reformulated to qualify for that claim shall indicate that the food inherently meets the criteria and shall clearly refer to all foods of that type and not merely to the particular brand to which the labeling attaches (e.g., “corn oil, a sodium-free food”).
</P>
<P>(f) A nutrient content claim shall be in type size no larger than two times the statement of identity and shall not be unduly prominent in type style compared to the statement of identity.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h)(1) If a food, except a meal product as defined in § 101.13(l), a main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m), or food intended specifically for use by infants and children less than 2 years of age, contains more than 13.0 g of fat, 4.0 g of saturated fat, 60 milligrams (mg) of cholesterol, or 480 mg of sodium per reference amount customarily consumed, per labeled serving, or, for a food with a reference amount customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less, per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50 g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form), then that food must bear a statement disclosing that the nutrient exceeding the specified level is present in the food as follows: “See nutrition information for ____ content” with the blank filled in with the identity of the nutrient exceeding the specified level, e.g., “See nutrition information for fat content.”
</P>
<P>(2) If a food is a meal product as defined in § 101.13(l), and contains more than 26 g of fat, 8.0 g of saturated fat, 120 mg of cholesterol, or 960 mg of sodium per labeled serving, then that food must disclose, in accordance with the requirements as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, that the nutrient exceeding the specified level is present in the food.
</P>
<P>(3) If a food is a main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m), and contains more than 19.5 g of fat, 6.0 g of saturated fat, 90 mg of cholesterol, or 720 mg of sodium per labeled serving, then that food must disclose, in accordance with the requirements as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, that the nutrient exceeding the specified level is present in the food.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The disclosure statement “See nutrition information for ____ content” shall be in easily legible boldface print or type, in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a size no less than that required by § 101.7(i) for the net quantity of contents statement, except where the size of the claim is less than two times the required size of the net quantity of contents statement, in which case the disclosure statement shall be no less than one-half the size of the claim but no smaller than one-sixteenth of an inch, unless the package complies with § 101.2(c)(2), in which case the disclosure statement may be in type of not less than one thirty-second of an inch.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure statement shall be immediately adjacent to the nutrient content claim and may have no intervening material other than, if applicable, other information in the statement of identity or any other information that is required to be presented with the claim under this section (e.g., see paragraph (j)(2) of this section) or under a regulation in subpart D of this part (e.g., see §§ 101.54 and 101.62). If the nutrient content claim appears on more than one panel of the label, the disclosure statement shall be adjacent to the claim on each panel except for the panel that bears the nutrition information where it may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a single panel of a food label or labeling contains multiple nutrient content claims or a single claim repeated several times, a single disclosure statement may be made. The statement shall be adjacent to the claim that is printed in the largest type on that panel.
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in § 101.9 or § 101.36, as applicable, or in paragraph (q)(3) of this section, the label or labeling of a product may contain a statement about the amount or percentage of a nutrient if:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of the statement on the food implicitly characterizes the level of the nutrient in the food and is consistent with a definition for a claim, as provided in subpart D of this part, for the nutrient that the label addresses. Such a claim might be, “less than 3 g of fat per serving;”
</P>
<P>(2) The use of the statement on the food implicitly characterizes the level of the nutrient in the food and is not consistent with such a definition, but the label carries a disclaimer adjacent to the statement that the food is not “low” in or a “good source” of the nutrient, such as “only 200 mg sodium per serving, not a low sodium food.” The disclaimer must be in easily legible print or type and in a size no less than that required by § 101.7(i) for the net quantity of contents statement except where the size of the claim is less than two times the required size of the net quantity of contents statement, in which case the disclaimer shall be no less than one-half the size of the claim but no smaller than one-sixteenth of an inch unless the package complies with § 101.2(c)(5), in which case the disclaimer may be in type of not less than one thirty-second of an inch, or
</P>
<P>(3) The statement does not in any way implicitly characterize the level of the nutrient in the food and it is not false or misleading in any respect (e.g., “100 calories” or “5 grams of fat”), in which case no disclaimer is required.
</P>
<P>(4) “Percent fat free” claims are not authorized by this paragraph. Such claims shall comply with § 101.62(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(j) A food may bear a statement that compares the level of a nutrient in the food with the level of a nutrient in a reference food. These statements shall be known as “relative claims” and include “light,” “reduced,” “less” (or “fewer”), and “more” claims.
</P>
<P>(1) To bear a relative claim about the level of a nutrient, the amount of that nutrient in the food must be compared to an amount of nutrient in an appropriate reference food as specified below.
</P>
<P>(i)(A) For “less” (or “fewer”) and “more” claims, the reference food may be a dissimilar food within a product category that can generally be substituted for one another in the diet (e.g., potato chips as reference for pretzels, orange juice as a reference for vitamin C tablets) or a similar food (e.g., potato chips as reference for potato chips, one brand of multivitamin as reference for another brand of multivitamin).
</P>
<P>(B) For “light,” “reduced,” “added,” “extra,” “plus,” “fortified,” and “enriched” claims, the reference food shall be a similar food (e.g., potato chips as a reference for potato chips, one brand of multivitamin for another brand of multivitamin), and 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) For “light” claims, the reference food shall be representative of the type of food that includes the product that bears the claim. The nutrient value for the reference food shall be representative of a broad base of foods of that type; e.g., a value in a representative, valid data base; an average value determined from the top three national (or regional) brands, a market basket norm; or, where its nutrient value is representative of the food type, a market leader. Firms using such a reference nutrient value as a basis for a claim, are required to provide specific information upon which the nutrient value was derived, on request, to consumers and appropriate regulatory officials.
</P>
<P>(B) For relative claims other than “light,” including “less” and “more” claims, the reference food may be the same as that provided for “light” in paragraph (j)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, or it may be the manufacturer's regular product, or that of another manufacturer, that has been offered for sale to the public on a regular basis for a substantial period of time in the same geographic area by the same business entity or by one entitled to use its trade name. The nutrient values used to determine the claim when comparing a single manufacturer's product to the labeled product shall be either the values declared in nutrition labeling or the actual nutrient values, provided that the resulting label is internally consistent to (i.e., that the values stated in the nutrition information, the nutrient values in the accompanying information and the declaration of the percentage of nutrient by which the food has been modified are consistent and will not cause consumer confusion when compared), and that the actual modification is at least equal to the percentage specified in the definition of the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) For foods bearing relative claims:
</P>
<P>(i) The label or labeling must state the identity of the reference food and the percentage (or fraction) of the amount of the nutrient in the reference food by which the nutrient in the labeled food differs (e.g., “50 percent less fat than (reference food)” or “1/3 fewer calories than (reference food)”),
</P>
<P>(ii) This information shall be immediately adjacent to the most prominent claim. The type size shall be in accordance with paragraph (h)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The determination of which use of the claim is in the most prominent location on the label or labeling will be made based on the following factors, considered in order:
</P>
<P>(A) A claim on the principal display panel adjacent to the statement of identity;
</P>
<P>(B) A claim elsewhere on the principal display panel;
</P>
<P>(C) A claim on the information panel; or
</P>
<P>(D) A claim elsewhere on the label or labeling.
</P>
<P>(iv) The label or labeling must also bear:
</P>
<P>(A) Clear and concise quantitative information comparing the amount of the subject nutrient in the product per labeled serving with that in the reference food; and
</P>
<P>(B) This statement shall appear adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(3) A relative claim for decreased levels of a nutrient may not be made on the label or in labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the requirement for a “low” claim for that nutrient (e.g., 3 g fat or less).
</P>
<P>(k) The term “modified” may be used in the statement of identity of a food that bears a relative claim that complies with the requirements of this part, followed immediately by the name of the nutrient whose content has been altered (e.g., “Modified fat cheesecake”). This statement of identity must be immediately followed by the comparative statement such as “Contains 35 percent less fat than ______.” The label or labeling must also bear the information required by paragraph (j)(2) of this section in the manner prescribed.
</P>
<P>(l) For purposes of making a claim, a “meal product shall be defined as a food that:
</P>
<P>(1) Makes a major contribution to the total diet by:
</P>
<P>(i) Weighing at least 10 ounces (oz) per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Containing not less than three 40-g portions of food, or combinations of foods, from two or more of the following four food groups, except as noted in paragraph (l)(1)(ii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Bread, cereal, rice, and pasta group;
</P>
<P>(B) Fruits and vegetables group;
</P>
<P>(C) Milk, yogurt, and cheese group;
</P>
<P>(D) Meat, poultry, fish, dry beans, eggs, and nuts group; except that;
</P>
<P>(E) These foods shall not be sauces (except for foods in the above four food groups that are in the sauces), gravies, condiments, relishes, pickles, olives, jams, jellies, syrups, breadings or garnishes; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is represented as, or is in a form commonly understood to be, a breakfast, lunch, dinner, or meal. Such representations may be made either by statements, photographs, or vignettes.
</P>
<P>(m) For purposes of making a claim, a “main dish product” shall be defined as a food that:
</P>
<P>(1) Makes a major contribution to a meal by
</P>
<P>(i) Weighing at least 6 oz per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Containing not less than 40 g of food, or combinations of foods, from each of at least two of the following four food groups, except as noted in paragraph (m)(1)(ii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Bread, cereal, rice, and pasta group;
</P>
<P>(B) Fruits and vegetables group;
</P>
<P>(C) Milk, yogurt, and cheese group;
</P>
<P>(D) Meat, poultry, fish, dry beans, eggs, and nuts groups; except that:
</P>
<P>(E) These foods shall not be sauces (except for foods in the above four food groups that are in the sauces) gravies, condiments, relishes, pickles, olives, jams, jellies, syrups, breadings, or garnishes; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is represented as, or is in a form commonly understood to be, a main dish (e.g., not a beverage or a dessert). Such representations may be made either by statements, photographs, or vignettes.
</P>
<P>(n) Nutrition labeling in accordance with § 101.9, § 101.10, or § 101.36, as applicable, shall be provided for any food for which a nutrient content claim is made.
</P>
<P>(o) Except as provided in § 101.10, compliance with requirements for nutrient content claims in this section and in the regulations in subpart D of this part, will be determined using the analytical methodology prescribed for determining compliance with nutrition labeling in § 101.9.
</P>
<P>(p)(1) Unless otherwise specified, the reference amount customarily consumed set forth in § 101.12(b) through (f) shall be used in determining whether a product meets the criteria for a nutrient content claim. If the serving size declared on the product label differs from the reference amount customarily consumed, and the amount of the nutrient contained in the labeled serving does not meet the maximum or minimum amount criterion in the definition for the descriptor for that nutrient, the claim shall be followed by the criteria for the claim as required by § 101.12(g) (e.g., “very low sodium, 35 mg or less per 240 milliliters (8 fl oz.)”).
</P>
<P>(2) The criteria for the claim shall be immediately adjacent to the most prominent claim in easily legible print or type and in a size in accordance with paragraph (h)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(q) The following exemptions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Nutrient content claims that have not been defined by regulation and that are contained in the brand name of a specific food product that was the brand name in use on such food before October 25, 1989, may continue to be used as part of that brand name for such product, provided that they are not false or misleading under section 403(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act). However, foods bearing such claims must comply with section 403(f), (g), and (h) of the act;
</P>
<P>(2) A soft drink that used the term <I>diet</I> as part of its brand name before October 25, 1989, and whose use of that term was in compliance with § 105.66 of this chapter as that regulation appeared in the Code of Federal Regulations on that date, may continue to use that term as part of its brand name, provided that its use of the term is not false or misleading under section 403(a) of the act. Such claims are exempt from the requirements of section 403(r)(2) of the act (e.g., the disclosure statement also required by § 101.13(h)). Soft drinks marketed after October 25, 1989, may use the term “diet” provided they are in compliance with the current § 105.66 of this chapter and the requirements of § 101.13.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A statement that describes the percentage of a vitamin or mineral in the food, including foods intended specifically for use by infants and children less than 2 years of age, in relation to a Reference Daily Intake (RDI) as defined in § 101.9 may be made on the label or in labeling of a food without a regulation authorizing such a claim for a specific vitamin or mineral unless such claim is expressly prohibited by regulation under section 403(r)(2)(A)(vi) of the act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Percentage claims for dietary supplements. Under section 403(r)(2)(F) of the act, a statement that characterizes the percentage level of a dietary ingredient for which a reference daily intake (RDI) or daily reference value (DRV) has not been established may be made on the label or in labeling of dietary supplements without a regulation that specifically defines such a statement. All such claims shall be accompanied by any disclosure statement required under paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Simple percentage claims.</I> Whenever a statement is made that characterizes the percentage level of a dietary ingredient for which there is no RDI or DRV, the statement of the actual amount of the dietary ingredient per serving shall be declared next to the percentage statement (e.g., “40 percent omega-3 fatty acids, 10 mg per capsule”).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Comparative percentage claims.</I> Whenever a statement is made that characterizes the percentage level of a dietary ingredient for which there is no RDI or DRV and the statement draws a comparison to the amount of the dietary ingredient in a reference food, the reference food shall be clearly identified, the amount of that food shall be identified, and the information on the actual amount of the dietary ingredient in both foods shall be declared in accordance with paragraph (j)(2)(iv) of this section (e.g., “twice the omega-3 fatty acids per capsule (80 mg) as in 100 mg of menhaden oil (40 mg)”).
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of this section do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Infant formulas subject to section 412(h) of the act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical foods defined by section 5(b) of the Orphan Drug Act.
</P>
<P>(5) A nutrient content claim used on food that is served in restaurants or other establishments in which food is served for immediate human consumption or which is sold for sale or use in such establishments shall comply with the requirements of this section and the appropriate definition in subpart D of this part, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Such claim is exempt from the requirements for disclosure statements in paragraph (h) of this section and §§ 101.54(d), 101.62(c), (d)(1)(ii)(D), (d)(2)(iii)(C), (d)(3), (d)(4)(ii)(C), and (d)(5)(ii)(C); and
</P>
<P>(ii) In lieu of analytical testing, compliance may be determined using a reasonable basis for concluding that the food that bears the claim meets the definition for the claim. This reasonable basis may derive from recognized data bases for raw and processed foods, recipes, and other means to compute nutrient levels in the foods or meals and may be used provided reasonable steps are taken to ensure that the method of preparation adheres to the factors on which the reasonable basis was determined (e.g., types and amounts of ingredients, cooking temperatures, etc.). Firms making claims on foods based on this reasonable basis criterion are required to provide to appropriate regulatory officials on request the specific information on which their determination is based and reasonable assurance of operational adherence to the preparation methods or other basis for the claim; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A term or symbol that may in some contexts constitute a claim under this section may be used, provided that the use of the term or symbol does not characterize the level of a nutrient, and a statement that clearly explains the basis for the use of the term or symbol is prominently displayed and does not characterize the level of a nutrient. For example, a term such as “lite fare” followed by an asterisk referring to a note that makes clear that in this restaurant “lite fare” means smaller portion sizes than normal; or an item bearing a symbol referring to a note that makes clear that this item meets the criteria for the dietary guidance established by a recognized dietary authority would not be considered a nutrient content claim under § 101.13.
</P>
<P>(6) Nutrient content claims that were part of the common or usual names of foods that were subject to a standard of identity on November 8, 1990, are not subject to the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (h) of this section or to definitions in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Implied nutrient content claims may be used as part of a brand name, provided that the use of the claim has been authorized by the Food and Drug Administration. Petitions requesting approval of such a claim may be submitted under § 101.69(o).
</P>
<P>(8) The term <I>fluoridated, fluoride added</I> or <I>with added fluoride</I> may be used on the label or in labeling of bottled water that contains added fluoride.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2410, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17341, 17342, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44030, Aug. 18, 1993; 59 FR 393, Jan. 4, 1994; 59 FR 15051, Mar. 31, 1994; 60 FR 17205, Apr. 5, 1995; 61 FR 11731, Mar. 22, 1996; 61 FR 40332, Aug. 2, 1996; 61 FR 67452, Dec. 23, 1996; 62 FR 31339, June 9, 1997; 62 FR 49867, Sept. 23, 1997; 63 FR 14818, Mar. 27, 1998; 63 FR 26980, May 15, 1998; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016; 89 FR 106162, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.14" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.14   Health claims: general requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Health claim</I> means any claim made on the label or in labeling of a food, including a dietary supplement, that expressly or by implication, including “third party” references, written statements (e.g., a brand name including a term such as “heart”), symbols (e.g., a heart symbol), or vignettes, characterizes the relationship of any substance to a disease or health-related condition. Implied health claims include those statements, symbols, vignettes, or other forms of communication that suggest, within the context in which they are presented, that a relationship exists between the presence or level of a substance in the food and a disease or health-related condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Substance</I> means a specific food or component of food, regardless of whether the food is in conventional food form or a dietary supplement that includes vitamins, minerals, herbs, or other similar nutritional substances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nutritive value</I> means a value in sustaining human existence by such processes as promoting growth, replacing loss of essential nutrients, or providing energy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disqualifying nutrient levels</I> means the levels of total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, or sodium in a food above which the food will be disqualified from making a health claim. These levels are 13.0 grams (g) of fat, 4.0 g of saturated fat, 60 milligrams (mg) of cholesterol, or 480 mg of sodium, per reference amount customarily consumed, per label serving size, and, only for foods with reference amounts customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less, per 50 g. For dehydrated foods that must have water added to them prior to typical consumption, the per 50-g criterion refers to the as prepared form. Any one of the levels, on a per reference amount customarily consumed, a per label serving size or, when applicable, a per 50 g basis, will disqualify a food from making a health claim unless an exception is provided in subpart E of this part, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) The levels for a meal product as defined in § 101.13(l) are 26.0 g of fat, 8.0 g of saturated fat, 120 mg of cholesterol, or 960 mg of sodium per label serving size, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The levels for a main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m) are 19.5 g of fat, 6.0 g of saturated fat, 90 mg of cholesterol, or 720 mg of sodium per label serving size.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disease or health-related condition</I> means damage to an organ, part, structure, or system of the body such that it does not function properly (e.g., cardiovascular disease), or a state of health leading to such dysfunctioning (e.g., hypertension); except that diseases resulting from essential nutrient deficiencies (e.g., scurvy, pellagra) are not included in this definition (claims pertaining to such diseases are thereby not subject to § 101.14 or § 101.70).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility.</I> For a substance to be eligible for a health claim:
</P>
<P>(1) The substance must be associated with a disease or health-related condition for which the general U.S. population, or an identified U.S. population subgroup (e.g., the elderly) is at risk, or, alternatively, the petition submitted by the proponent of the claim otherwise explains the prevalence of the disease or health-related condition in the U.S. population and the relevance of the claim in the context of the total daily diet and satisfies the other requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the substance is to be consumed as a component of a conventional food at decreased dietary levels, the substance must be a nutrient listed in 21 U.S.C. 343(q)(1)(C) or (q)(1)(D), or one that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has required to be included in the label or labeling under 21 U.S.C. 343(q)(2)(A); or
</P>
<P>(3) If the substance is to be consumed at other than decreased dietary levels:
</P>
<P>(i) The substance must, regardless of whether the food is a conventional food or a dietary supplement, contribute taste, aroma, or nutritive value, or any other technical effect listed in § 170.3(o) of this chapter, to the food and must retain that attribute when consumed at levels that are necessary to justify a claim; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The substance must be a food or a food ingredient or a component of a food ingredient whose use at the levels necessary to justify a claim has been demonstrated by the proponent of the claim, to FDA's satisfaction, to be safe and lawful under the applicable food safety provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Validity requirement.</I> FDA will promulgate regulations authorizing a health claim only when it determines, based on the totality of publicly available scientific evidence (including evidence from well-designed studies conducted in a manner which is consistent with generally recognized scientific procedures and principles), that there is significant scientific agreement, among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate such claims, that the claim is supported by such evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General health claim labeling requirements.</I> (1) When FDA determines that a health claim meets the validity requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, FDA will propose a regulation in subpart E of this part to authorize the use of that claim. If the claim pertains to a substance not provided for in § 101.9 or § 101.36, FDA will propose amending that regulation to include declaration of the substance.
</P>
<P>(2) When FDA has adopted a regulation in subpart E of this part providing for a health claim, firms may make claims based on the regulation in subpart E of this part, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) All label or labeling statements about the substance-disease relationship that is the subject of the claim are based on, and consistent with, the conclusions set forth in the regulations in subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) The claim is limited to describing the value that ingestion (or reduced ingestion) of the substance, as part of a total dietary pattern, may have on a particular disease or health-related condition;
</P>
<P>(iii) The claim is complete, truthful, and not misleading. Where factors other than dietary intake of the substance affect the relationship between the substance and the disease or health-related condition, such factors may be required to be addressed in the claim by a specific regulation in subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) All information required to be included in the claim appears in one place without other intervening material, except that the principal display panel of the label or labeling may bear the reference statement, “See ______ for information about the relationship between ______ and ______,” with the blanks filled in with the location of the labeling containing the health claim, the name of the substance, and the disease or health-related condition (e.g., “See attached pamphlet for information about calcium and osteoporosis”), with the entire claim appearing elsewhere on the other labeling, Provided that, where any graphic material (e.g., a heart symbol) constituting an explicit or implied health claim appears on the label or labeling, the reference statement or the complete claim shall appear in immediate proximity to such graphic material;
</P>
<P>(v) The claim enables the public to comprehend the information provided and to understand the relative significance of such information in the context of a total daily diet; and
</P>
<P>(vi) If the claim is about the effects of consuming the substance at decreased dietary levels, the level of the substance in the food is sufficiently low to justify the claim. To meet this requirement, if a definition for use of the term <I>low</I> has been established for that substance under this part, the substance must be present at a level that meets the requirements for use of that term, unless a specific alternative level has been established for the substance in subpart E of this part. If no definition for “low” has been established, the level of the substance must meet the level established in the regulation authorizing the claim; or
</P>
<P>(vii) If the claim is about the effects of consuming the substance at other than decreased dietary levels, the level of the substance is sufficiently high and in an appropriate form to justify the claim. To meet this requirement, if a definition for use of the term <I>high</I> for that substance has been established under this part, the substance must be present at a level that meets the requirements for use of that term, unless a specific alternative level has been established for the substance in subpart E of this part. If no definition for “high” has been established (e.g., where the claim pertains to a food either as a whole food or as an ingredient in another food), the claim must specify the daily dietary intake necessary to achieve the claimed effect, as established in the regulation authorizing the claim; <I>Provided</I> That:
</P>
<P>(A) Where the food that bears the claim meets the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2)(vi) or (d)(2)(vii) of this section based on its reference amount customarily consumed, and the labeled serving size differs from that amount, the claim shall be followed by a statement explaining that the claim is based on the reference amount rather than the labeled serving size (e.g., “Diets low in sodium may reduce the risk of high blood pressure, a disease associated with many factors. A serving of __ ounces of this product conforms to such a diet.”).
</P>
<P>(B) Where the food that bears the claim is sold in a restaurant or in other establishments in which food that is ready for immediate human consumption is sold, the food can meet the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2)(vi) or (d)(2)(vii) of this section if the firm that sells the food has a reasonable basis on which to believe that the food that bears the claim meets the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2)(vi) or (d)(2)(vii) of this section and provides that basis upon request.
</P>
<P>(3) Nutrition labeling shall be provided in the label or labeling of any food for which a health claim is made in accordance with § 101.9; for restaurant foods, in accordance with § 101.10; or for dietary supplements, in accordance with § 101.36.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited health claims.</I> No expressed or implied health claim may be made on the label or in labeling for a food, regardless of whether the food is in conventional food form or dietary supplement form, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim is specifically provided for in subpart E of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The claim conforms to all general provisions of this section as well as to all specific provisions in the appropriate section of subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) None of the disqualifying levels identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section is exceeded in the food, unless specific alternative levels have been established for the substance in subpart E of this part; or unless FDA has permitted a claim despite the fact that a disqualifying level of a nutrient is present in the food based on a finding that such a claim will assist consumers in maintaining healthy dietary practices, and, in accordance with the regulation in subpart E of this part that makes such a finding, the label bears a disclosure statement that complies with § 101.13(h), highlighting the nutrient that exceeds the disqualifying level;
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, no substance is present at an inappropriate level as determined in the specific provision authorizing the claim in subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(5) The label does not represent or purport that the food is for infants and toddlers less than 2 years of age except if the claim is specifically provided for in subpart E of this part; and
</P>
<P>(6) Except for dietary supplements or where provided for in other regulations in part 101, subpart E, the food contains 10 percent or more of the Reference Daily Intake or the Daily Reference Value for vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, protein, or fiber per reference amount customarily consumed prior to any nutrient addition.
</P>
<P>(f) The requirements of this section do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Infant formulas subject to section 412(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and
</P>
<P>(2) Medical foods defined by section 5(b) of the Orphan Drug Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to foods intended for human consumption that are offered for sale, regardless of whether the foods are in conventional food form or dietary supplement form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2533, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17097, Apr. 1, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44038, Aug. 18, 1993; 59 FR 425, Jan. 4, 1994; 59 FR 15050, Mar. 31, 1994; 61 FR 40332, Aug. 2, 1996; 62 FR 49867, Sept. 23, 1997; 63 FR 26980, May 15, 1998; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.15" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.15   Food; prominence of required statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A word, statement, or other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label may lack that prominence and conspicuousness required by section 403(f) of the act by reason (among other reasons) of:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on the part or panel of the label which is presented or displayed under customary conditions of purchase;
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on two or more parts or panels of the label, each of which has sufficient space therefor, and each of which is so designed as to render it likely to be, under customary conditions of purchase, the part or panel displayed;
</P>
<P>(3) The failure of the label to extend over the area of the container or package available for such extension, so as to provide sufficient label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information;
</P>
<P>(4) Insufficiency of label space (for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information) resulting from the use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label;
</P>
<P>(5) Insufficiency of label space (for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information) resulting from the use of label space to give materially greater conspicuousness to any other word, statement, or information, or to any design or device; or
</P>
<P>(6) Smallness or style of type in which such word, statement, or information appears, insufficient background contrast, obscuring designs or vignettes, or crowding with other written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(b) No exemption depending on insufficiency of label space, as prescribed in regulations promulgated under section 403 (e) or (i) of the act, shall apply if such insufficiency is caused by:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label;
</P>
<P>(2) The use of label space to give greater conspicuousness to any word, statement, or other information than is required by section 403(f) of the act; or
</P>
<P>(3) The use of label space for any representation in a foreign language.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) All words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear thereon in the English language: <I>Provided, however,</I> That in the case of articles distributed solely in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be substituted for English.
</P>
<P>(2) If the label contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label shall appear thereon in the foreign language: <I>Provided, however,</I> That individual serving-size packages of foods containing no more than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> avoirdupois ounces or no more than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> fluid ounces served with meals in restaurants, institutions, and passenger carriers and not intended for sale at retail are exempt from the requirements of this paragraph (c)(2), if the only representation in the foreign language(s) is the name of the food.
</P>
<P>(3) If any article of labeling (other than a label) contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear on such article of labeling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.17" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.17   Food labeling warning, notice, and safe handling statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Self-pressurized containers.</I> (1) The label of a food packaged in a self-pressurized container and intended to be expelled from the package under pressure shall bear the following warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>WARNING—Avoid spraying in eyes. Contents under pressure. Do not puncture or incinerate. Do not store at temperature above 120 °F. Keep out of reach of children.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) In the case of products intended for use by children, the phrase “except under adult supervision” may be added at the end of the last sentence in the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of products packaged in glass containers, the word “break” may be substituted for the word “puncture” in the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The words “Avoid spraying in eyes” may be deleted from the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section in the case of a product not expelled as a spray.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Self-pressurized containers with halocarbon or hydrocarbon propellants.</I> (1) In addition to the warning required by paragraph (a) of this section, the label of a food packaged in a self-pressurized container in which the propellant consists in whole or in part of a halocarbon or a hydrocarbon shall bear the following warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>WARNING—Use only as directed. Intentional misuse by deliberately concentrating and inhaling the contents can be harmful or fatal.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The warning required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not required for the following products:
</P>
<P>(i) Products expelled in the form of a foam or cream, which contain less than 10 percent propellant in the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) Products in a container with a physical barrier that prevents escape of the propellant at the time of use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than 2 ounces that are designed to release a measured amount of product with each valve actuation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than one-half ounce.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Food containing or manufactured with a chlorofluorocarbon or other ozone-depleting substance.</I> Labeling requirements for foods that contain or are manufactured with a chlorofluorocarbon or other ozone-depleting substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are set forth in 40 CFR part 82.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Protein products.</I> (1) The label and labeling of any food product in liquid, powdered, tablet, capsule, or similar forms that derives more than 50 percent of its total caloric value from either whole protein, protein hydrolysates, amino acid mixtures, or a combination of these, and that is represented for use in reducing weight shall bear the following warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>WARNING: Very low calorie protein diets (below 400 Calories per day) may cause serious illness or death. Do Not Use for Weight Reduction in Such Diets Without Medical Supervision. Not for use by infants, children, or pregnant or nursing women.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Products described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section are exempt from the labeling requirements of that paragraph if the protein products are represented as part of a nutritionally balanced diet plan providing 400 or more Calories (kilocalories) per day and the label or labeling of the product specifies the diet plan in detail or provides a brief description of that diet plan and adequate information describing where the detailed diet plan may be obtained and the label and labeling bear the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Notice: For weight reduction, use only as directed in the accompanying diet plan (the name and specific location in labeling of the diet plan may be included in this statement in place of “accompanying diet plan”). Do not use in diets supplying less than 400 Calories per day without medical supervision.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The label and labeling of food products represented or intended for dietery (food) supplementation that derive more than 50 percent of their total caloric value from either whole protein, protein hydrolysates, amino acid mixtures, or a combination of these, that are represented specifically for purposes other than weight reduction; and that are not covered by the requirements of paragraph (d) (1) and (2) of this section; shall bear the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Notice:</E> Use this product as a food supplement only. Do not use for weight reduction.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) The provisions of this paragraph are separate from and in addition to any labeling requirements promulgated by the Federal Trade Commission for protein supplements.
</P>
<P>(5) Protein products shipped in bulk form for use solely in the manufacture of other foods and not for distribution to consumers in such container are exempt from the labeling requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(6) The warning and notice statements required by paragraphs (d) (1), (2), and (3) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the principal display panel of the package label and any other labeling.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dietary supplements containing iron or iron salts.</I> (1) The labeling of any dietary supplement in solid oral dosage form (e.g., tablets or capsules) that contains iron or iron salts for use as an iron source shall bear the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">WARNING:</E> Accidental overdose of iron-containing products is a leading cause of fatal poisoning in children under 6. Keep this product out of reach of children. In case of accidental overdose, call a doctor or poison control center immediately.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2)(i) The warning statement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the information panel of the immediate container label.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a product is packaged in unit-dose packaging, and if the immediate container bears labeling but not a label, the warning statement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the immediate container labeling in a way that maximizes the likelihood that the warning is intact until all of the dosage units to which it applies are used.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the immediate container is not the retail package, the warning statement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall also appear prominently and conspicuously on the information panel of the retail package label.
</P>
<P>(4) The warning statement shall appear on any labeling that contains warnings.
</P>
<P>(5) The warning statement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be set off in a box by use of hairlines.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foods containing psyllium husk.</I> (1) Foods containing dry or incompletely hydrated psyllium husk, also known as psyllium seed husk, and bearing a health claim on the association between soluble fiber from psyllium husk and reduced risk of coronary heart disease, shall bear a label statement informing consumers that the appropriate use of such foods requires consumption with adequate amounts of fluids, alerting them of potential consequences of failing to follow usage recommendations, and informing persons with swallowing difficulties to avoid consumption of the product (e.g., “NOTICE: This food should be eaten with at least a full glass of liquid. Eating this product without enough liquid may cause choking. Do not eat this product if you have difficulty in swallowing.”). However, a product in conventional food form may be exempt from this requirement if a viscous adhesive mass is not formed when the food is exposed to fluids.
</P>
<P>(2) The statement shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the information panel or principal display panel of the package label and any other labeling to render it likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use. The statement shall be preceded by the word “NOTICE” in capital letters.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Juices that have not been specifically processed to prevent, reduce, or eliminate the presence of pathogens.</I> (1) For purposes of this paragraph (g), “juice” means the aqueous liquid expressed or extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, purees of the edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrate of such liquid or puree.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of:
</P>
<P>(i) Any juice that has not been processed in the manner described in paragraph (g)(7) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any beverage containing juice where neither the juice ingredient nor the beverage has been processed in the manner described in paragraph (g)(7) of this section, shall bear the following warning statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>WARNING: This product has not been pasteurized and, therefore, may contain harmful bacteria that can cause serious illness in children, the elderly, and persons with weakened immune systems.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The warning statement required by this paragraph (g) shall not apply to juice that is not for distribution to retail consumers in the form shipped and that is for use solely in the manufacture of other foods or that is to be processed, labeled, or repacked at a site other than originally processed, provided that for juice that has not been processed in the manner described in paragraph (g)(7) of this section, the lack of such processing is disclosed in documents accompanying the juice, in accordance with the practice of the trade.
</P>
<P>(4) The warning statement required by paragraph (g)(2) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the information panel or on the principal display panel of the label of the container.
</P>
<P>(5) The word “WARNING” shall be capitalized and shall appear in bold type.
</P>
<P>(6) The warning statement required by paragraph (g)(2) of this section, when on a label, shall be set off in a box by use of hairlines.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) The requirements in this paragraph (g) shall not apply to a juice that has been processed in a manner that will produce, at a minimum, a reduction in the pertinent microorganism for a period at least as long as the shelf life of the product when stored under normal and moderate abuse conditions, of the following magnitude:
</P>
<P>(A) A 5-log (i.e., 100,000-fold) reduction; or
</P>
<P>(B) A reduction that is equal to, or greater than, the criterion established for process controls by any final regulation requiring the application of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) principles to the processing of juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this paragraph (g), the “pertinent microorganism” is the most resistant microorganism of public health significance that is likely to occur in the juice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Shell eggs.</I> (1) The label of all shell eggs, whether in intrastate or interstate commerce, shall bear the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>SAFE HANDLING INSTRUCTIONS: To prevent illness from bacteria: keep eggs refrigerated, cook eggs until yolks are firm, and cook foods containing eggs thoroughly.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The label statement required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously, with the words “SAFE HANDLING INSTRUCTIONS” in bold type, on the principal display panel, the information panel, or on the inside of the lid of egg cartons. If this statement appears on the inside of the lid, the words “Keep Refrigerated” must appear on the principal display panel or information panel.
</P>
<P>(3) The label statement required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section shall be set off in a box by use of hairlines. 
</P>
<P>(4) Shell eggs that have been, before distribution to consumers, specifically processed to destroy all viable <I>Salmonella</I> shall be exempt from the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) The safe handling statement for shell eggs that are not for direct sale to consumers, e.g., those that are to be repacked or labeled at a site other than where originally processed, or are sold for use in food service establishments, may be provided on cartons or in labeling, e.g., invoices or bills of lading in accordance with the practice of the trade. 
</P>
<P>(6) Under sections 311 and 361 of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act), any State or locality that is willing and able to assist the agency in the enforcement of paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(5) of this section, and is authorized to inspect or regulate establishments handling packed shell eggs, may in its own jurisdiction, enforce paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(5) of this section through inspections under paragraph (h)(8) of this section and through administrative enforcement remedies identified in paragraph (h)(7) of this section until FDA notifies the State or locality in writing that such assistance is no longer needed. When providing such assistance, a State or locality may follow the hearing procedures set out in paragraphs (h)(7)(ii)(C) through (h)(7)(ii)(D) of this section, substituting, where necessary, appropriate State or local officials for designated FDA officials or may utilize State or local hearing procedures if such procedures satisfy due process. 
</P>
<P>(7) This paragraph (h) is established under authority of both the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and the PHS Act. Under the act, the agency can enforce the food misbranding provisions under 21 U.S.C. 331, 332, 333, and 334. However, 42 U.S.C. 264 provides for the issuance of implementing enforcement regulations; therefore, FDA has established the following administrative enforcement procedures for the relabeling, diversion, or destruction of shell eggs and informal hearings under the PHS Act: 
</P>
<P>(i) Upon finding that any shell eggs are in violation of this section an authorized FDA representative or State or local representative in accordance with paragraph (h)(6) of this section may order such eggs to be relabeled under the supervision of said representative, diverted, under the supervision of said representative for processing in accordance with the Egg Products Inspection Act (EPIA) (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>), or destroyed by or under the supervision of an officer or employee of the FDA, or, if applicable, of the State or locality, in accordance with the following procedures: 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Order for relabeling, diversion, or destruction under the PHS Act.</I> Any division office of FDA or any State or locality acting under paragraph (h)(6) of this section, upon finding shell eggs held in violation of this section, may serve upon the person in whose possession such eggs are found a written order that such eggs be relabeled with the required statement in paragraph (h)(1) of this section before further distribution. If the person chooses not to relabel, the division office of FDA or, if applicable, the appropriate State or local agency may serve upon the person a written order that such eggs be diverted (from direct consumer sale, <I>e.g.,</I> to food service) under the supervision of an officer or employee of the issuing entity, for processing in accordance with the EPIA (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>) or destroyed by or under the supervision of the issuing entity, within 10 working days from the date of receipt of the order. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Issuance of order.</I> The order shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement that the shell eggs identified in the order are subject to relabeling, diversion for processing in accordance with the EPIA, or destruction; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A detailed description of the facts that justify the issuance of the order; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The location of the eggs; 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A statement that these eggs shall not be sold, distributed, or otherwise disposed of or moved except as provided in paragraph (h)(7)(i)(E) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Identification or description of the eggs; 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The order number; 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The date of the order; 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The text of this entire section; 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) A statement that the order may be appealed by written appeal or by requesting an informal hearing; 
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) The name and phone number of the person issuing the order; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) The location and telephone number of the responsible office or agency and the name of its director. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Approval of director.</I> An order, before issuance, shall be approved by the director of the office or agency issuing the order. If prior written approval is not feasible, prior oral approval shall be obtained and confirmed by written memorandum as soon as possible. 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Labeling or marking of shell eggs under order.</I> An FDA, State, or local representative issuing an order under paragraph (h)(7)(i)(A) of this section shall label or mark the shell eggs with official tags that include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement that the shell eggs are detained in accordance with regulations issued under section 361(a) of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 264(a)). 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A statement that the shell eggs shall not be sold, distributed or otherwise disposed of or moved except, after notifying the issuing entity in writing, to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Relabel, divert them for processing in accordance with the EPIA, or destroy them, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Move them to another location for holding pending appeal. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A statement that the violation of the order or the removal or alteration of the tag is punishable by fine or imprisonment or both (section 368 of the PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 271). 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The order number and the date of the order, and the name of the government representative who issued the order. 
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Sale or other disposition of shell eggs under order.</I> After service of the order, the person in possession of the shell eggs that are the subject of the order shall not sell, distribute, or otherwise dispose of or move any eggs subject to the order unless and until the notice is withdrawn after an appeal except, after notifying FDA's division office or, if applicable, the State or local agency in writing, to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Relabel, divert, or destroy them as specified in paragraph (h)(7)(i) of this section, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Move them to another location for holding pending appeal. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The person on whom the order for relabeling, diversion, or destruction is served may either comply with the order or appeal the order to an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Appeal of a detention order.</I> Any appeal shall be submitted in writing to the FDA Division Director in whose division the shell eggs are located within 5 working days of the issuance of the order. If the appeal includes a request for an informal hearing, the hearing shall be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed or, if requested by the appellant, at a later date, which shall not be later than 20 calendar days after the issuance of the order. The order may also be appealed within the same period of 5 working days by any other person having an ownership or proprietary interest in such shell eggs. The appellant of an order shall state the ownership or proprietary interest the appellant has in the shell eggs.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Summary decision.</I> A request for a hearing may be denied, in whole or in part and at any time after a request for a hearing has been submitted, if the Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director determines that no genuine and substantial issue of fact has been raised by the material submitted in connection with the hearing or from matters officially noticed. If the presiding FDA official determines that a hearing is not justified, written notice of the determination will be given to the parties explaining the reason for denial.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Informal hearing.</I> Appearance by any appellant at the hearing may be by mail or in person, with or without counsel. The informal hearing shall be conducted by an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director, and a written summary of the proceedings shall be prepared by the presiding FDA official.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The presiding FDA official may direct that the hearing be conducted in any suitable manner permitted by law and this section. The presiding FDA official has the power to take such actions and make such rulings as are necessary or appropriate to maintain order and to conduct an informal, fair, expeditious, and impartial hearing, and to enforce the requirements concerning the conduct of hearings.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Employees of FDA will first give a full and complete statement of the action which is the subject of the hearing, together with the information and reasons supporting it, and may present oral or written information relevant to the hearing. The party requesting the hearing may then present oral or written information relevant to the hearing. All parties may conduct reasonable examination of any person (except for the presiding officer and counsel for the parties) who makes any statement on the matter at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The hearing shall be informal in nature, and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views will be made or considered, but any party may comment upon or rebut any information and views presented by another party. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The party requesting the hearing may have the hearing transcribed, at the party's expense, in which case a copy of the transcript is to be furnished to FDA. Any transcript of the hearing will be included with the presiding FDA official's report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The presiding FDA official shall prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. Whenever time permits, the presiding FDA official may give the parties the opportunity to review and comment on the report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The presiding FDA official shall include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and shall include a recommended decision, with a statement of reasons.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Written appeal.</I> If the appellant appeals the detention order but does not request a hearing, the presiding FDA official shall render a decision on the appeal affirming or revoking the detention within 5-working days after the receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Presiding FDA official's decision.</I> If, based on the evidence presented at the hearing or by the appellant in a written appeal, the presiding FDA official finds that the shell eggs were held in violation of this section, he shall affirm the order that they be relabeled, diverted under the supervision of an officer or employee of FDA for processing under the EPIA, or destroyed by or under the supervision of an officer or employee of FDA; otherwise, the presiding FDA official shall issue a written notice that the prior order is withdrawn. If the presiding FDA official affirms the order, he shall order that the relabeling, diversion, or destruction be accomplished within 10-working days from the date of the issuance of his decision. The presiding FDA official's decision shall be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for the decision. The decision of the presiding FDA official shall constitute final agency action, reviewable in the courts.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>No appeal.</I> If there is no appeal of the order and the person in possession of the shell eggs that are subject to the order fails to relabel, divert, or destroy them within 10 working days, or if the demand is affirmed by the presiding FDA official after an appeal and the person in possession of such eggs fails to relabel, divert, or destroy them within 10 working days, the FDA division office, or, if applicable, the State or local agency may designate an officer or employee to divert or destroy such eggs. It shall be unlawful to prevent or to attempt to prevent such diversion or destruction of the shell eggs by the designated officer or employee.
</P>
<P>(8) Persons engaged in handling or storing packed shell eggs for retail distribution shall permit authorized representatives of FDA to make at any reasonable time such inspection of the establishment in which shell eggs are being held, including inspection and sampling of the labeling of such eggs as may be necessary in the judgment of such representatives to determine compliance with the provisions of this section. Inspections may be made with or without notice and will ordinarily be made during regular business hours. 
</P>
<P>(9) No State or local governing entity shall establish or continue in effect any law, rule, regulation, or other requirement requiring safe handling instructions on unpasteurized shell eggs that are less stringent than those required in paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 101.17, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.18" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.18   Misbranding of food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Among representations in the labeling of a food which render such food misbranded is a false or misleading representation with respect to another food or a drug, device, or cosmetic.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling of a food which contains two or more ingredients may be misleading by reason (among other reasons) of the designation of such food in such labeling by a name which includes or suggests the name of one or more but not all such ingredients, even though the names of all such ingredients are stated elsewhere in the labeling.
</P>
<P>(c) Among representations in the labeling of a food which render such food misbranded is any representation that expresses or implies a geographical origin of the food or any ingredient of the food except when such representation is either:
</P>
<P>(1) A truthful representation of geographical origin.
</P>
<P>(2) A trademark or trade name provided that as applied to the article in question its use is not deceptively misdescriptive. A trademark or trade name composed in whole or in part of geographical words shall not be considered deceptively misdescriptive if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Has been so long and exclusively used by a manufacturer or distributor that it is generally understood by the consumer to mean the product of a particular manufacturer or distributor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is so arbitrary or fanciful that it is not generally understood by the consumer to suggest geographic origin.
</P>
<P>(3) A part of the name required by applicable Federal law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(4) A name whose market significance is generally understood by the consumer to connote a particular class, kind, type, or style of food rather than to indicate geographical origin.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Food Labeling Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.22" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.22   Foods; labeling of spices, flavorings, colorings and chemical preservatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The term <I>artificial flavor</I> or <I>artificial flavoring</I> means any substance, the function of which is to impart flavor, which is not derived from a spice, fruit or fruit juice, vegetable or vegetable juice, edible yeast, herb, bark, bud, root, leaf or similar plant material, meat, fish, poultry, eggs, dairy products, or fermentation products thereof. Artificial flavor includes the substances listed in §§ 172.515(b) and 182.60 of this chapter except where these are derived from natural sources. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>spice</I> means any aromatic vegetable substance in the whole, broken, or ground form, except for those substances which have been traditionally regarded as foods, such as onions, garlic and celery; whose significant function in food is seasoning rather than nutritional; that is true to name; and from which no portion of any volatile oil or other flavoring principle has been removed. Spices include the spices listed in § 182.10 and part 184 of this chapter, such as the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Allspice, Anise, Basil, Bay leaves, Caraway seed, Cardamon, Celery seed, Chervil, Cinnamon, Cloves, Coriander, Cumin seed, Dill seed, Fennel seed, Fenugreek, Ginger, Horseradish, Mace, Marjoram, Mustard flour, Nutmeg, Oregano, Paprika, Parsley, Pepper, black; Pepper, white; Pepper, red; Rosemary, Saffron, Sage, Savory, Star aniseed, Tarragon, Thyme, Turmeric.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Paprika, turmeric, and saffron or other spices which are also colors, shall be declared as “spice and coloring” unless declared by their common or usual name.
</FP>
<P>(3) The term <I>natural flavor</I> or <I>natural flavoring</I> means the essential oil, oleoresin, essence or extractive, protein hydrolysate, distillate, or any product of roasting, heating or enzymolysis, which contains the flavoring constituents derived from a spice, fruit or fruit juice, vegetable or vegetable juice, edible yeast, herb, bark, bud, root, leaf or similar plant material, meat, seafood, poultry, eggs, dairy products, or fermentation products thereof, whose significant function in food is flavoring rather than nutritional. Natural flavors include the natural essence or extractives obtained from plants listed in §§ 182.10, 182.20, 182.40, and 182.50 and part 184 of this chapter, and the substances listed in § 172.510 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>artificial color</I> or <I>artificial coloring</I> means any “color additive” as defined in § 70.3(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>chemical preservative</I> means any chemical that, when added to food, tends to prevent or retard deterioration thereof, but does not include common salt, sugars, vinegars, spices, or oils extracted from spices, substances added to food by direct exposure thereof to wood smoke, or chemicals applied for their insecticidal or herbicidal properties.
</P>
<P>(b) A food which is subject to the requirements of section 403(k) of the act shall bear labeling, even though such food is not in package form.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of artificial flavoring, artificial coloring, or chemical preservative shall be placed on the food or on its container or wrapper, or on any two or all three of these, as may be necessary to render such statement likely to be read by the ordinary person under customary conditions of purchase and use of such food. The specific artificial color used in a food shall be identified on the labeling when so required by regulation in part 74 of this chapter to assure safe conditions of use for the color additive.
</P>
<P>(d) A food shall be exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403(k) of the act if it is not in package form and the units thereof are so small that a statement of artificial flavoring, artificial coloring, or chemical preservative, as the case may be, cannot be placed on such units with such conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use.
</P>
<P>(e) A food shall be exempt while held for sale from the requirements of section 403(k) of the act (requiring label statement of any artificial flavoring, artificial coloring, or chemical preservatives) if said food, having been received in bulk containers at a retail establishment, is displayed to the purchaser with either (1) the labeling of the bulk container plainly in view or (2) a counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously the information required to be stated on the label pursuant to section 403(k).
</P>
<P>(f) A fruit or vegetable shall be exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403(k) of the act with respect to a chemical preservative applied to the fruit or vegetable as a pesticide chemical prior to harvest.
</P>
<P>(g) A flavor shall be labeled in the following way when shipped to a food manufacturer or processor (but not a consumer) for use in the manufacture of a fabricated food, unless it is a flavor for which a standard of identity has been promulgated, in which case it shall be labeled as provided in the standard:
</P>
<P>(1) If the flavor consists of one ingredient, it shall be declared by its common or usual name.
</P>
<P>(2) If the flavor consists of two or more ingredients, the label either may declare each ingredient by its common or usual name or may state “All flavor ingredients contained in this product are approved for use in a regulation of the Food and Drug Administration.” Any flavor ingredient not contained in one of these regulations, and any nonflavor ingredient, shall be separately listed on the label.
</P>
<P>(3) In cases where the flavor contains a solely natural flavor(s), the flavor shall be so labeled, e.g., “strawberry flavor”, “banana flavor”, or “natural strawberry flavor”. In cases where the flavor contains both a natural flavor and an artificial flavor, the flavor shall be so labeled, e.g., “natural and artificial strawberry flavor”. In cases where the flavor contains a solely artificial flavor(s), the flavor shall be so labeled, e.g., “artificial strawberry flavor”.
</P>
<P>(h) The label of a food to which flavor is added shall declare the flavor in the statement of ingredients in the following way:
</P>
<P>(1) Spice, natural flavor, and artificial flavor may be declared as “spice”, “natural flavor”, or “artificial flavor”, or any combination thereof, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(2) An incidental additive in a food, originating in a spice or flavor used in the manufacture of the food, need not be declared in the statement of ingredients if it meets the requirements of § 101.100(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) Substances obtained by cutting, grinding, drying, pulping, or similar processing of tissues derived from fruit, vegetable, meat, fish, or poultry, e.g., powdered or granulated onions, garlic powder, and celery powder, are commonly understood by consumers to be food rather than flavor and shall be declared by their common or usual name.
</P>
<P>(4) Any salt (sodium chloride) used as an ingredient in food shall be declared by its common or usual name “salt.”
</P>
<P>(5) Any monosodium glutamate used as an ingredient in food shall be declared by its common or usual name “monosodium glutamate.”
</P>
<P>(6) Any pyroligneous acid or other artificial smoke flavors used as an ingredient in a food may be declared as artificial flavor or artificial smoke flavor. No representation may be made, either directly or implied, that a food flavored with pyroligneous acid or other artificial smoke flavor has been smoked or has a true smoked flavor, or that a seasoning sauce or similar product containing pyroligneous acid or other artificial smoke flavor and used to season or flavor other foods will result in a smoked product or one having a true smoked flavor.
</P>
<P>(7) Because protein hydrolysates function in foods as both flavorings and flavor enhancers, no protein hydrolysate used in food for its effects on flavor may be declared simply as “flavor,” “natural flavor,” or “flavoring.” The ingredient shall be declared by its specific common or usual name as provided in § 102.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) If the label, labeling, or advertising of a food makes any direct or indirect representations with respect to the primary recognizable flavor(s), by word, vignette, e.g., depiction of a fruit, or other means, or if for any other reason the manufacturer or distributor of a food wishes to designate the type of flavor in the food other than through the statement of ingredients, such flavor shall be considered the characterizing flavor and shall be declared in the following way:
</P>
<P>(1) If the food contains no artificial flavor which simulates, resembles or reinforces the characterizing flavor, the name of the food on the principal display panel or panels of the label shall be accompanied by the common or usual name of the characterizing flavor, e.g., “vanilla”, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the name of the food, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) If the food is one that is commonly expected to contain a characterizing food ingredient, e.g., strawberries in “strawberry shortcake”, and the food contains natural flavor derived from such ingredient and an amount of characterizing ingredient insufficient to independently characterize the food, or the food contains no such ingredient, the name of the characterizing flavor may be immediately preceded by the word “natural” and shall be immediately followed by the word “flavored” in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the name of the characterizing flavor, e.g., “natural strawberry flavored shortcake,” or “strawberry flavored shortcake”.
</P>
<P>(ii) If none of the natural flavor used in the food is derived from the product whose flavor is simulated, the food in which the flavor is used shall be labeled either with the flavor of the product from which the flavor is derived or as “artificially flavored.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If the food contains both a characterizing flavor from the product whose flavor is simulated and other natural flavor which simulates, resembles or reinforces the characterizing flavor, the food shall be labeled in accordance with the introductory text and paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section and the name of the food shall be immediately followed by the words “with other natural flavor” in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the name of the characterizing flavor.
</P>
<P>(2) If the food contains any artificial flavor which simulates, resembles or reinforces the characterizing flavor, the name of the food on the principal display panel or panels of the label shall be accompanied by the common or usual name(s) of the characterizing flavor, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the name of the food and the name of the characterizing flavor shall be accompanied by the word(s) “artificial” or “artificially flavored”, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the name of the characterizing flavor, e.g., “artificial vanilla”, “artificially flavored strawberry”, or “grape artificially flavored”.
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the characterizing flavor appears on the label (other than in the statement of ingredients) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words prescribed by this paragraph shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without any intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Where the characterizing flavor and a trademark or brand are presented together, other written, printed, or graphic matter that is a part of or is associated with the trademark or brand may intervene if the required words are in such relationship with the trademark or brand as to be clearly related to the characterizing flavor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the finished product contains more than one flavor subject to the requirements of this paragraph, the statements required by this paragraph need appear only once in each statement of characterizing flavors present in such food, e.g., “artificially flavored vanilla and strawberry”.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the finished product contains three or more distinguishable characterizing flavors, or a blend of flavors with no primary recognizable flavor, the flavor may be declared by an appropriately descriptive generic term in lieu of naming each flavor, e.g., “artificially flavored fruit punch”.
</P>
<P>(4) A flavor supplier shall certify, in writing, that any flavor he supplies which is designated as containing no artificial flavor does not, to the best of his knowledge and belief, contain any artificial flavor, and that he has added no artificial flavor to it. The requirement for such certification may be satisfied by a guarantee under section 303(c)(2) of the act which contains such a specific statement. A flavor user shall be required to make such a written certification only where he adds to or combines another flavor with a flavor which has been certified by a flavor supplier as containing no artificial flavor, but otherwise such user may rely upon the supplier's certification and need make no separate certification. All such certifications shall be retained by the certifying party throughout the period in which the flavor is supplied and for a minimum of three years thereafter, and shall be subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The certifying party shall make such certifications available upon request at all reasonable hours to any duly authorized office or employee of the Food and Drug Administration or any other employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services. Such certifications are regarded by the Food and Drug Administration as reports to the government and as guarantees or other undertakings within the meaning of section 301(h) of the act and subject the certifying party to the penalties for making any false report to the government under 18 U.S.C. 1001 and any false guarantee or undertaking under section 303(a) of the act. The defenses provided under section 303(c)(2) of the act shall be applicable to the certifications provided for in this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever possible, the Food and Drug Administration shall verify the accuracy of a reasonable number of certifications made pursuant to this section, constituting a representative sample of such certifications, and shall not request all such certifications.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where no person authorized to provide such information is reasonably available at the time of inspection, the certifying party shall arrange to have such person and the relevant materials and records ready for verification as soon as practicable: <I>Provided,</I> That, whenever the Food and Drug Administration has reason to believe that the supplier or user may utilize this period to alter inventories or records, such additional time shall not be permitted. Where such additional time is provided, the Food and Drug Administration may require the certifying party to certify that relevant inventories have not been materially disturbed and relevant records have not been altered or concealed during such period.
</P>
<P>(iv) The certifying party shall provide, to an officer or representative duly designated by the Secretary, such qualitative statement of the composition of the flavor or product covered by the certification as may be reasonably expected to enable the Secretary's representatives to determine which relevant raw and finished materials and flavor ingredient records are reasonably necessary to verify the certifications. The examination conducted by the Secretary's representative shall be limited to inspection and review of inventories and ingredient records for those certifications which are to be verified.
</P>
<P>(v) Review of flavor ingredient records shall be limited to the qualitative formula and shall not include the quantitative formula. The person verifying the certifications may make only such notes as are necessary to enable him to verify such certification. Only such notes or such flavor ingredient records as are necessary to verify such certification or to show a potential or actual violation may be removed or transmitted from the certifying party's place of business: <I>Provided,</I> That, where such removal or transmittal is necessary for such purposes the relevant records and notes shall be retained as separate documents in Food and Drug Administration files, shall not be copied in other reports, and shall not be disclosed publicly other than in a judicial proceeding brought pursuant to the act or 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<P>(j) A food to which a chemical preservative(s) is added shall, except when exempt pursuant to § 101.100 bear a label declaration stating both the common or usual name of the ingredient(s) and a separate description of its function, e.g., “preservative”, “to retard spoilage”, “a mold inhibitor”, “to help protect flavor” or “to promote color retention”.
</P>
<P>(k) The label of a food to which any coloring has been added shall declare the coloring in the statement of ingredients in the manner specified in paragraphs (k)(1) and (k)(2) of this section, except that colorings added to butter, cheese, and ice cream, if declared, may be declared in the manner specified in paragraph (k)(3) of this section, and colorings added to foods subject to §§ 105.62 and 105.65 of this chapter shall be declared in accordance with the requirements of those sections.
</P>
<P>(1) A color additive or the lake of a color additive subject to certification under 721(c) of the act shall be declared by the name of the color additive listed in the applicable regulation in part 74 or part 82 of this chapter, except that it is not necessary to include the “FD&amp;C” prefix or the term “No.” in the declaration, but the term “Lake” shall be included in the declaration of the lake of the certified color additive (e.g., Blue 1 Lake). Manufacturers may parenthetically declare an appropriate alternative name of the certified color additive following its common or usual name as specified in part 74 or part 82 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additives not subject to certification and not otherwise required by applicable regulations in part 73 of this chapter to be declared by their respective common or usual names may be declared as “Artificial Color,” “Artificial Color Added,” or “Color Added” (or by an equally informative term that makes clear that a color additive has been used in the food). Alternatively, such color additives may be declared as “Colored with ________________” or “________________ color,” the blank to be filled in with the name of the color additive listed in the applicable regulation in part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) When a coloring has been added to butter, cheese, or ice cream, it need not be declared in the ingredient list unless such declaration is required by a regulation in part 73 or part 74 of this chapter to ensure safe conditions of use for the color additive. Voluntary declaration of all colorings added to butter, cheese, and ice cream, however, is recommended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 3963, Jan. 19, 1979; 44 FR 37220, June 26, 1979; 54 FR 24891, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2875, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14818, Mar. 27, 1998; 74 FR 216, Jan. 5, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.30" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.30   Percentage juice declaration for foods purporting to be beverages that contain fruit or vegetable juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to any food that purports to be a beverage that contains any fruit or vegetable juice (i.e., the product's advertising, label, or labeling bears the name of, or variation on the name of, or makes any other direct or indirect representation with respect to, any fruit or vegetable juice), or the label or labeling bears any vignette (i.e., depiction of a fruit or vegetable) or other pictorial representation of any fruit or vegetable, or the product contains color and flavor that gives the beverage the appearance and taste of containing a fruit or vegetable juice. The beverage may be carbonated or noncarbonated, concentrated, full-strength, diluted, or contain no juice. For example, a soft drink (soda) that does not represent or suggest by its physical characteristics, name, labeling, ingredient statement, or advertising that it contains fruit or vegetable juice does not purport to contain juice and therefore does not require a percent juice declaration.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If the beverage contains fruit or vegetable juice, the percentage shall be declared by the words “Contains __ percent (or %) ______ juice” or “__ percent (or %) juice,” or a similar phrase, with the first blank filled in with the percentage expressed as a whole number not greater than the actual percentage of the juice and the second blank (if used) filled in with the name of the particular fruit or vegetable (e.g., “Contains 50 percent apple juice” or “50 percent juice”).
</P>
<P>(2) If the beverage contains less than 1 percent juice, the total percentage juice shall be declared as “less than 1 percent juice” or “less than 1 percent ______ juice” with the blank filled in with the name of the particular fruit or vegetable.
</P>
<P>(3) If the beverage contains 100 percent juice and also contains non-juice ingredients that do not result in a diminution of the juice soluble solids or, in the case of expressed juice, in a change in the volume, when the 100 percent juice declaration appears on a panel of the label that does not also bear the ingredient statement, it must be accompanied by the phrase “with added ______,” the blank filled in with a term such as “ingredient(s),” “preservative,” or “sweetener,” as appropriate (e.g., “100% juice with added sweetener”), except that when the presence of the non-juice ingredient(s) is declared as a part of the statement of identity of the product, this phrase need not accompany the 100 percent juice declaration.
</P>
<P>(c) If a beverage contains minor amounts of juice for flavoring and is labeled with a flavor description using terms such as “flavor”, “flavored”, or “flavoring” with a fruit or vegetable name and does not bear:
</P>
<P>(1) The term “juice” on the label other than in the ingredient statement; or
</P>
<P>(2) An explicit vignette depicting the fruit or vegetable from which the flavor derives, such as juice exuding from a fruit or vegetable; or
</P>
<P>(3) Specific physical resemblance to a juice or distinctive juice characteristic such as pulp then total percentage juice declaration is not required.
</P>
<P>(d) If the beverage does not meet the criteria for exemption from total juice percentage declaration as described in paragraph (c) of this section and contains no fruit or vegetable juice, but the labeling or color and flavor of the beverage represents, suggests, or implies that fruit or vegetable juice may be present (e.g., the product advertising or labeling bears the name, a variation of the name, or a pictorial representation of any fruit or vegetable, or the product contains color and flavor that give the beverage the appearance and taste of containing a fruit or vegetable juice), then the label shall declare “contains zero (0) percent (or %) juice”. Alternatively, the label may declare “Containing (or contains) no ______ juice”, or “no ______ juice”, or “does not contain ______ juice”, the blank to be filled in with the name of the fruits or vegetables represented, suggested, or implied, but if there is a general suggestion that the product contains fruit or vegetable juice, such as the presence of fruit pulp, the blank shall be filled in with the word “fruit” or “vegetable” as applicable (e.g., “contains no fruit juice”, or “does not contain fruit juice”).
</P>
<P>(e) If the beverage is sold in a package with an information panel as defined in § 101.2, the declaration of amount of juice shall be prominently placed on the information panel in lines generally parallel to other required information, appearing:
</P>
<P>(1) Near the top of the information panel, with no other printed label information appearing above the statement except the brand name, product name, logo, or universal product code; and
</P>
<P>(2) In easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, in a height not less than the largest type found on the information panel except that used for the brand name, product name, logo, universal product code, the title phrase “Nutrition Facts,” the declaration of “Serving size,” “Calories” and the numerical value for “Calories appearing in the nutrition information as required by § 101.9.
</P>
<P>(f) The percentage juice declaration may also be placed on the principal display panel, provided that the declaration is consistent with that presented on the information panel.
</P>
<P>(g) If the beverage is sold in a package that does not bear an information panel as defined in § 101.2, the percentage juice declaration shall be placed on the principal display panel, in type size not less than that required for the declaration of net quantity of contents statement in § 101.7(i), and be placed near the name of the food.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) In enforcing these regulations, the Food and Drug Administration will calculate the labeled percentage of juice from concentrate found in a juice or juice beverage using the minimum Brix levels listed below where single-strength (100 percent) juice has at least the specified minimum Brix listed below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Juice
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100 percent juice 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acerola</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apple</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apricot</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Banana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blackberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blueberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boysenberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cantaloupe Melon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carambola</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carrot</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Casaba Melon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cashew (Caju)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Celery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cherry, dark, sweet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cherry, red, sour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crabapple</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cranberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Currant (Black)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Currant (Red)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Date</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dewberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elderberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fig</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gooseberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grape</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grapefruit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup>10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guanabana (soursop)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guava</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Honeydew melon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kiwi</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lime</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="52">2</E> 4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loganberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mango</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nectarine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup>11.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Papaya</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Passion Fruit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peach</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pear</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pineapple</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pomegranate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prune</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quince</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raspberry (Black)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raspberry (Red)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhubarb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strawberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tangerine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup>11.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tomato</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Watermelon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Youngberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Indicates Brix value unless other value specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Indicates anhydrous citrus acid percent by weight.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Brix values determined by refractometer for citrus juices may be corrected for citric acid.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) If there is no Brix level specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, the labeled percentage of that juice from concentrate in a juice or juice beverage will be calculated on the basis of the soluble solids content of the single-strength (unconcentrated) juice used to produce such concentrated juice.
</P>
<P>(i) Juices directly expressed from a fruit or vegetable (i.e., not concentrated and reconstituted) shall be considered to be 100 percent juice and shall be declared as “100 percent juice.”
</P>
<P>(j) Calculations of the percentage of juice in a juice blend or a diluted juice product made directly from expressed juice (i.e., not from concentrate) shall be based on the percentage of the expressed juice in the product computed on a volume/volume basis.
</P>
<P>(k) If the product is a beverage that contains a juice whose color, taste, or other organoleptic properties have been modified to the extent that the original juice is no longer recognizable at the time processing is complete, or if its nutrient profile has been diminished to a level below the normal nutrient range for the juice, then that juice to which such a major modification has been made shall not be included in the total percentage juice declaration.
</P>
<P>(l) A beverage required to bear a percentage juice declaration on its label, that contains less than 100 percent juice, shall not bear any other percentage declaration that describes the juice content of the beverage in its label or in its labeling (e.g., “100 percent natural” or “100 percent pure”). However, the label or labeling may bear percentage statements clearly unrelated to juice content (e.g., “provides 100 percent of U.S. RDA of vitamin C”).
</P>
<P>(m) Products purporting to be beverages that contain fruit or vegetable juices are exempted from the provisions of this section until May 8, 1994. All products that are labeled on or after that date shall comply with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2925, Jan. 6, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44063, Aug. 18, 1993; 58 FR 49192, Sept. 22, 1993; 81 FR 33994, May 27, 2016; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specific Nutrition Labeling Requirements and Guidelines</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 60890, Nov. 27, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 101.36" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.36   Nutrition labeling of dietary supplements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a dietary supplement that is offered for sale shall bear nutrition labeling in accordance with this regulation unless an exemption is provided for the product in paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The declaration of nutrition information on the label and in labeling shall contain the following information, using the subheadings and the format specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Serving size.</I> (i) The subheading “Serving Size” shall be placed under the heading “Supplement Facts” and aligned on the left side of the nutrition label. The serving size shall be determined in accordance with §§ 101.9(b) and 101.12(b), Table 2. Serving size for dietary supplements shall be expressed using a term that is appropriate for the form of the supplement, such as “tablets,” “capsules,” “packets,” or “teaspoonfuls.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) The subheading “Servings Per Container” shall be placed under the subheading “Serving Size” and aligned on the left side of the nutrition label, except that this information need not be provided when it is stated in the net quantity of contents declaration. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information on dietary ingredients that have a Reference Daily Intake (RDI) or a Daily Reference Value (DRV) as established in § 101.9(c) and their subcomponents (hereinafter referred to as “(b)(2)-dietary ingredients”).</I> (i) The (b)(2)-dietary ingredients to be declared, that is, total calories, total fat, saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, total sugars, added sugars, protein, vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium, shall be declared when they are present in a dietary supplement in quantitative amounts by weight that exceed the amount that can be declared as zero in nutrition labeling of foods in accordance with § 101.9(c). Calories from saturated fat, polyunsaturated fat, monounsaturated fat, soluble fiber, insoluble fiber, and sugar alcohol may be declared, but they shall be declared when a claim is made about them. Any (b)(2)-dietary ingredients that are not present, or that are present in amounts that can be declared as zero in § 101.9(c), shall not be declared (<I>e.g.,</I> amounts corresponding to less than 2 percent of the RDI for vitamins and minerals). Protein shall not be declared on labels of products that, other than ingredients added solely for technological reasons, contain only individual amino acids.
</P>
<P>(A) The names and the quantitative amounts by weight of each (b)(2)-dietary ingredient shall be presented under the heading “Amount Per Serving.” When the quantitative amounts by weight are presented in a separate column, the heading may be centered over a column of quantitative amounts, described by paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, if space permits. A heading consistent with the declaration of the serving size, such as “Each Tablet Contains,” or “Amount Per 2 Tablets” may be used in place of the heading “Amount Per Serving.” Other appropriate terms, such as capsule, packet, or teaspoonful, also may be used in place of the term “Serving.” 
</P>
<P>(B) The names of dietary ingredients that are declared under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section shall be presented in a column aligned on the left side of the nutritional label in the order and manner of indentation specified in § 101.9(c), except that calcium and iron shall follow choline, and sodium and potassium shall follow chloride. This results in the following order for vitamins and minerals: Vitamin A, vitamin C, vitamin D, vitamin E, vitamin K, thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, vitamin B6, folate and folic acid, vitamin B12, biotin, pantothenic acid, choline, calcium, iron, phosphorus, iodine, magnesium, zinc, selenium, copper, manganese, chromium, molybdenum, chloride, sodium, potassium, and fluoride. The (b)(2)-dietary ingredients shall be listed according to the nomenclature specified in § 101.9 or in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When “Calories” are declared, they shall be listed first in the column of names, beneath a light bar separating the heading “Amount Per Serving” from the list of names. When “Calories from saturated fat” are declared, they shall be indented under “Calories.”
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The following synonyms may be added in parentheses immediately following the name of these (b)(2)-dietary ingredients: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid), thiamin (vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>), riboflavin (vitamin B<E T="52">2</E>), and calories (energy). Energy content per serving may be expressed in kilojoule units, added in parentheses immediately following the statement of caloric content.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Beta-carotene may be declared as the percent of vitamin A that is present as beta-carotene, except that the declaration is required when a claim is made about beta-carotene. When declared, the percent shall be declared to the nearest whole percent, immediately adjacent to or beneath the name vitamin A (<I>e.g.,</I> “Vitamin A (90% as beta-carotene)”). The amount of beta-carotene in terms of micrograms (mcg) may be included in the parentheses following the percent statement (<I>e.g.,</I> “Vitamin A (90% (810 mcg) as beta-carotene)”).
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of calories, if declared, and the quantitative amount by weight per serving of each dietary ingredient required to be listed under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section shall be presented either in a separate column aligned to the right of the column of names or immediately following the listing of names within the same column. The quantitative amounts by weight shall represent the weight of the dietary ingredient rather than the weight of the source of the dietary ingredient (e.g., the weight of calcium rather than that of calcium carbonate).
</P>
<P>(A) The amounts shall be expressed in the increments specified in § 101.9(c)(1) through (7), which includes increments for sodium.
</P>
<P>(B) The amounts of vitamins and minerals, excluding sodium, shall be the amount of the vitamin or mineral included in one serving of the product, using the units of measurement and the levels of significance given in § 101.9(c)(8)(iv), except that zeros following decimal points may be dropped, and additional levels of significance may be used when the number of decimal places indicated is not sufficient to express lower amounts (<I>e.g.,</I> the RDI for zinc is given in whole milligrams (mg), but the quantitative amount may be declared in tenths of a mg). The amount of vitamin D may, but is not required to, be expressed in IUs, in addition to the mandatory declaration in mcg. Any declaration of the amount of vitamin D in IUs must appear in parentheses after the declaration of the amount of vitamin D in mcg.
</P>
<P>(iii) The percent of the Daily Value of all dietary ingredients declared under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section shall be listed, except that the percent Daily Value for protein, when present, shall be calculated using the corrected amount of protein as specified in § 101.9(c)(7)(ii); no percent of the Daily Value shall be given for subcomponents for which DRVs or RDIs have not been established (<I>e.g.,</I> total sugars). Additionally, the percentage of the RDI for protein shall be omitted when a food is purported to be for infants through 12 months of age.
</P>
<P>(A) When information on the percent of Daily Values is listed, this information shall be presented in one column aligned under the heading of “% Daily Value” and to the right of the column of amounts. The headings “% Daily Value (DV),” “% DV,” “Percent Daily Value,” or “Percent DV” may be substituted for “% Daily Value.” The heading “% Daily Value” shall be placed on the same line as the heading “Amount Per Serving.” When the acronym “DV” is unexplained in the heading and a footnote is required under (b)(2)(iii)(D), (b)(2)(iii)(F), or (b)(3)(iv) of this section, the footnote shall explain the acronym (e.g. “Daily Value (DV) not established”). 
</P>
<P>(B) The percent of Daily Value shall be calculated by dividing the quantitative amount by weight of each (b)(2)-dietary ingredient by the RDI as established in § 101.9(c)(8)(iv) or the DRV as established in § 101.9(c)(9) for the specified dietary ingredient and multiplying by 100, except that the percent of Daily Value for protein, when present, shall be calculated as specified in § 101.9(c)(7)(ii). The quantitative amount by weight of each dietary ingredient in this calculation shall be the unrounded amount, except that for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, sodium, potassium, total carbohydrate, and dietary fiber, the quantitative amount by weight declared on the label (i.e., rounded amount) may be used. The numerical value shall be followed by the symbol for percent (i.e., %).
</P>
<P>(C) The percentages based on RDI's and on DRV's shall be expressed to the nearest whole percent, except that for dietary ingredients for which DRV's have been established, “Less than 1%” or “&lt;1%” shall be used to declare the “% Daily Value” when the quantitative amount of the dietary ingredient by weight is great enough to require that the dietary ingredient be listed, but the amount is so small that the “% Daily Value” when rounded to the nearest percent is zero (e.g., a product that contains 1 gram of total carbohydrate would list the percent Daily Value as “Less than 1%” or “&lt;1%”). 
</P>
<P>(D) If the percent of Daily Value is declared for total fat, saturated fat, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, or protein, or added sugars, a symbol shall follow the value listed for those nutrients that refers to the same symbol that is placed at the bottom of the nutrition label, below the bar required under paragraph (e)(6) of this section and inside the box, that is followed by the statement “Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet.” If the product is represented or purported to be for use by children 1 through 3 years of age, and if the percent of Daily Value is declared for total fat, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, or protein, or added sugars, a symbol shall follow the value listed for those nutrients that refers to the same symbol that is placed at the bottom of the nutrition label, below the bar required under paragraph (e)(6) of this section and inside the box, that is followed by the statement “Percent Daily Values are based on a 1,000 calorie diet.”
</P>
<P>(E) The percent of Daily Value shall be based on RDI or DRV values for adults and children 4 or more years of age, unless the product is represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months of age, children 1 through 3 years of age, pregnant women, or lactating women, in which case the column heading shall clearly state the intended group. If the product is for persons within more than one group, the percent of Daily Value for each group shall be presented in separate columns as shown in paragraph (e)(11)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) For declared subcomponents that have no DRVs or RDIs, a symbol (<I>e.g.,</I> an asterisk) shall be placed in the “Percent Daily Value” column that shall refer to the same symbol that is placed at the bottom of the nutrition label, below the last heavy bar and inside the box, and followed by a statement “Daily Value not established.”
</P>
<P>(G) When calories or calories from saturated fat are declared, the space under the “% DV” column shall be left blank for these items. When there are no other (b)(2)-dietary ingredients listed for which a value must be declared in the “% DV” column, the column may be omitted as shown in paragraph (e)(11)(vii) of this section. When the “% DV” column is not required, but the dietary ingredients listed are subject to paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(F) of this section, the symbol required in that paragraph shall immediately follow the quantitative amount by weight for each dietary ingredient listed under “Amount Per Serving.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information on dietary ingredients for which RDI's and DRV's have not been established.</I> (i) Dietary ingredients for which FDA has not established RDI's or DRV's and that are not subject to regulation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section (hereinafter referred to as “other dietary ingredients”) shall be declared by their common or usual name when they are present in a dietary supplement, in a column that is under the column of names described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section or, as long as the constituents of an other dietary ingredient are not listed, in a linear display, under the heavy bar described in paragraph (e)(6) of this section, except that if no (b)(2)-dietary ingredients are declared, other dietary ingredients shall be declared directly beneath the heading “Amount Per Serving” described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantitative amount by weight per serving of other dietary ingredients shall be presented in the same manner as the corresponding information required in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section or, when a linear display is used, shall be presented immediately following the name of the other dietary ingredient. The quantitative amount by weight shall be the weight of the other dietary ingredient listed and not the weight of any component, or the source, of that dietary ingredient. 
</P>
<P>(A) These amounts shall be expressed using metric measures in appropriate units.
</P>
<P>(B) For any dietary ingredient that is a liquid extract from which the solvent has not been removed, the quantity listed shall be the volume or weight of the total extract. Information on the condition of the starting material shall be indicated when it is fresh and may be indicated when it is dried. Information may be included on the concentration of the dietary ingredient and the solvent used, e.g., “fresh dandelion root extract, x (y:z) in 70% ethanol,” where x is the number of milliliters (mL) or mg of the entire extract, y is the weight of the starting material and z is the volume (mL) of solvent. Where the solvent has been partially removed (not to dryness), the final concentration, when indicated, shall be stated (e.g., if the original extract was 1:5 and 50 percent of the solvent was removed, then the final concentration shall be stated as 1:2.5). Where the name of the solvent used is not included in the nutrition label, it is required to be listed in the ingredient statement in accordance with § 101.4(g).
</P>
<P>(C) For a dietary ingredient that is an extract from which the solvent has been removed, the weight of the ingredient shall be the weight of the dried extract.
</P>
<P>(iii) The constituents of a dietary ingredient described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section may be listed indented under the dietary ingredient and followed by their quantitative amounts by weight per serving, except that dietary ingredients described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be listed in accordance with that section. When the constituents of a dietary ingredient described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section are listed, all other dietary ingredients shall be declared in a column; however, the constituents themselves may be declared in a column or in a linear display.
</P>
<P>(iv) Other dietary ingredients shall bear a symbol (e.g., an asterisk) in the column under the heading of “% Daily Value” that refers to the same symbol placed at the bottom of the nutrition label and followed by the statement “Daily Value not established,” except that when the heading “% Daily Value” is not used, the symbol shall follow the quantitative amount by weight for each dietary ingredient listed. 
</P>
<P>(c) A proprietary blend of dietary ingredients shall be included in the list of dietary ingredients described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section and identified by the term “Proprietary Blend” or other appropriately descriptive term or fanciful name and may be highlighted by bold type. Except as specified in this paragraph, all other requirements for the listing of dietary ingredients in dietary supplements are applicable.
</P>
<P>(1) Dietary ingredients contained in the proprietary blend that are listed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be declared in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Dietary ingredients contained in the proprietary blend that are listed under paragraph (b)(3) of this section (i.e., “other dietary ingredients”) shall be declared in descending order of predominance by weight, in a column or linear fashion, and indented under the term “Proprietary Blend” or other appropriately descriptive term or fanciful name. 
</P>
<P>(3) The quantitative amount by weight specified for the proprietary blend shall be the total weight of all other dietary ingredients contained in the proprietary blend and shall be placed on the same line to the right of the term “Proprietary Blend” or other appropriately descriptive term or fanciful name underneath the column of amounts described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. A symbol (e.g., asterisk), which refers to the same symbol placed at the bottom of the nutrition label that is followed by the statement “Daily Value not established,” shall be placed under the heading “% Daily Value,” if present, or immediately following the quantitative amount by weight for the proprietary blend. 
</P>
<P>(4) The sample label shown in paragraph (e)(11)(v) of this section illustrates one method of nutrition labeling a proprietary blend of dietary ingredients.
</P>
<P>(d) The source ingredient that supplies a dietary ingredient may be identified within the nutrition label in parentheses immediately following or indented beneath the name of a dietary ingredient and preceded by the words “as” or “from”, e.g., “Calcium (as calcium carbonate),” except that manner of presentation is unnecessary when the name of the dietary ingredient (e.g., Oriental ginseng) or its synonym (e.g., ascorbic acid) is itself the source ingredient. When a source ingredient is identified in parentheses within the nutrition label, or when the name of the dietary ingredient or its synonym is the source ingredient, it shall not be required to be listed again in the ingredient statement that appears outside of the nutrition label. When a source ingredient is not identified within the nutrition label, it shall be listed in an ingredient statement in accordance with § 101.4(g), which shall appear outside and immediately below the nutrition label or, if there is insufficient space below the nutrition label, immediately contiguous and to the right of the nutrition label.
</P>
<P>(1) Source ingredients shall be identified in accordance with § 101.4 (i.e., shall be listed by common or usual name, and the listing of botanicals shall specify the part of the plant from which the ingredient is derived) regardless of whether they are listed in an ingredient statement or in the nutrition label.
</P>
<P>(2) When source ingredients are listed within the nutrition label, and two or more are used to provide a single dietary ingredient, all of the sources shall be listed within the parentheses in descending order by weight.
</P>
<P>(3) Representations that the source ingredient conforms to an official compendium may be included either in the nutrition label or in the ingredient list (e.g., “Calcium (as calcium carbonate USP)”). 
</P>
<P>(e) Except as provided for small and intermediate sized packages under paragraph (h)(3)(i)(2) of this section, information other than the title, headings, and footnotes shall be in uniform type size no smaller than 8 point. Type size no smaller than 6 point may be used for column headings (<I>e.g.,</I> “Amount Per Serving” and “% Daily Value”) and for footnotes (<I>e.g.,</I> “Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet”).
</P>
<P>(1) The title, “Supplement Facts,” shall be set in a type size larger than all other print size in the nutrition label and, unless impractical, shall be set full width of the nutrition label. The title and all headings shall be bolded to distinguish them from other information. 
</P>
<P>(2) The nutrition information shall be enclosed in a box by using hairlines.
</P>
<P>(3) All information within the nutrition label shall utilize:
</P>
<P>(i) A single easy-to-read type style, 
</P>
<P>(ii) All black or one color type, printed on a white or other neutral contrasting background whenever practical,
</P>
<P>(iii) Upper- and lowercase letters, except that all uppercase lettering may be utilized for packages that have a total surface area available to bear labeling of less than 12 square inches,
</P>
<P>(iv) At least one point leading (i.e., space between lines of text), and
</P>
<P>(v) Letters that do not touch.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided for small and intermediate-sized packages under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, information other than the title, headings, and footnotes shall be in uniform type size no smaller than 8 point. Type size no smaller than 6 point may be used for column headings (e.g., “Amount Per Serving” and “% Daily Value”) and for footnotes (e.g., “Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet”). 
</P>
<P>(5) A hairline rule that is centered between the lines of text shall separate each dietary ingredient required in paragraph (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section from the dietary ingredient above and beneath it, as shown in paragraph (e)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) A heavy bar shall be placed:
</P>
<P>(i) Beneath the subheading “Servings Per Container” except that if “Servings Per Container” is not required and, as a result, not declared, the bar shall be placed beneath the subheading “Serving Size,”
</P>
<P>(ii) Beneath the last dietary ingredient to be listed under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, if any, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Beneath the last other dietary ingredient to be listed under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, if any.
</P>
<P>(7) A light bar shall be placed beneath the headings “Amount Per Serving” and “% Daily Value.”
</P>
<P>(8) If the product contains two or more separately packaged dietary supplements that differ from each other (<I>e.g.,</I> the product has a packet of supplements to be taken in the morning and a different packet to be taken in the afternoon), the quantitative amounts and percent of Daily Value may be presented as specified in this paragraph in individual nutrition labels or in one aggregate nutrition label as illustrated in paragraph (e)(11)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9)(i) The quantitative amount by weight (or volume, if permitted) and the percent of Daily Value of each dietary ingredient may be presented on a “per unit” basis in addition to the “per serving” basis required by paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(iii) of this section for (b)(2)-dietary ingredients and (b)(3)(ii) and (b)(3)(iv) of this section for other dietary ingredients. If “per unit” information is provided, it must be presented in additional columns to the right of the “per serving” information and be clearly identified by appropriate headings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Alternatively, if a recommendation is made in other parts of the label that a dietary supplement be consumed more than once per day, the total quantitative amount by weight (or volume, if permitted) and the percent of Daily Value of each dietary ingredient may be presented on a “per day” basis in addition to the “per serving” basis required by paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(iii) of this section for (b)(2)-dietary ingredients and (b)(3)(ii) and (b)(3)(iv) of this section for other dietary ingredients. If “per day” information is provided, it must be presented in additional columns to the right of the “per serving” information and be clearly identified by appropriate headings and/or be presented in a parenthetical statement as part of the “Serving Size” declaration. A sample illustration for “per day” information in a column format is provided in paragraph (e)(11)(viii) of this section. As illustrated, the additional “Per Day” column heading is followed parenthetically by the number of servings recommended per day in other parts of the label (e.g., “Per Day (3 Caplets)”). When the parenthetical statement format following the “Serving Size” declaration is used as an alternative to the column format, the statement must provide no more than simple instructions regarding how to calculate the “per day” amount for the number of servings per day recommended in other parts of the label (e.g., “Serving Size: 1 Caplet (Multiply amounts by 3 for total daily amount)”). When the parenthetical statement format following the “Serving Size” declaration is used in addition to the column format, the statement must provide no more than a simple declaration of the number of servings recommended in other parts of the label (e.g., “Serving Size: 1 Caplet (Total daily amount: 3 caplets per day)”).
</P>
<P>(10) In the interest of uniformity of presentation, FDA urges that the information be presented using the graphic specifications set forth in appendix B to part 101, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(11) The following sample labels are presented for the purpose of illustration: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.413.gif"/>
<P>(ii) Multiple vitamins for children and adults (excludes Servings Per Container which is stated in the net quantity of contents declaration):
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.415.gif"/>
<P>(iv) Dietary supplement containing dietary ingredients with and without RDIs and DRVs:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.015.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.417.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.418.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er27my16.419.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25mr22.000.gif"/>
<P>(12) If space is not adequate to list the required information as shown in the sample labels in paragraph (e)(11) of this section, the list may be split and continued to the right as long as the headings are repeated. The list to the right must be set off by a line that distinguishes it and sets it apart from the dietary ingredients and percent of Daily Value information given to the left. The following sample label illustrates this display:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.016.gif"/>
<P>(f)(1) Compliance with this section will be determined in accordance with § 101.9(g)(1) through (g)(8), (g)(10), and (g)(11), except that the sample for analysis shall consist of a composite of 12 subsamples (consumer packages) or 10 percent of the number of packages in the same inspection lot, whichever is smaller, randomly selected to be representative of the lot. The criteria on class I and class II nutrients given in § 101.9(g)(3) and (g)(4) also are applicable to other dietary ingredients described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. Reasonable excesses over labeled amounts are acceptable within current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) When it is not technologically feasible, or some other circumstance makes it impracticable, for firms to comply with the requirements of this section, FDA may permit alternative means of compliance or additional exemptions to deal with the situation in accordance with § 101.9(g)(9). Firms in need of such special allowances shall make their request in writing to the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(g) Except as provided in paragraphs (i)(2) and (i)(5) of this section, the location of nutrition information on a label shall be in compliance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(h) Dietary supplements are subject to the exemptions specified as follows in:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 101.9(j)(1) for foods that are offered for sale by a person who makes direct sales to consumers (i.e., a retailer) who has annual gross sales or business done in sales to consumers that is not more than $500,000 or has annual gross sales made or business done in sales of food to consumers of not more than $50,000, and whose labels, labeling, and advertising do not provide nutrition information or make a nutrient content or health claim;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 101.9(j)(18) for foods that are low-volume products (that is, they meet the requirements for units sold in § 101.9(j)(18)(i) or (j)(18)(ii)); that, except as provided in § 101.9(j)(18)(iv), are the subject of a claim for an exemption that provides the information required under § 101.9(j)(18)(iv), that is filed before the beginning of the time period for which the exemption is claimed, and that is filed by a person, whether it is the manufacturer, packer, or distributor, that qualifies to claim the exemption under the requirements for average full-time equivalent employees in § 101.9(j)(18)(i) or (j)(18)(ii), and whose labels, labeling, and advertising do not provide nutrition information or make a nutrient content or health claim; 
</P>
<P>(3) Section 101.9(j)(9) for foods shipped in bulk form that are not for distribution to consumers in such form and that are for use solely in the manufacture of other dietary supplements or that are to be processed, labeled, or repacked at a site other than where originally processed or packed.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) Dietary supplements are subject to the special labeling provisions specified in § 101.9(j)(5)(i) for foods other than infant formula, represented or purported to be specifically for infants through 12 months of age and children 1 through 3 years of age.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 101.9(j)(13) for foods in small or intermediate-sized packages, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) All information within the nutrition label on small-sized packages, which have a total surface area available to labeling of less than 12 square inches, shall be in type size no smaller than 4.5 point;
</P>
<P>(ii) All information within the nutrition label on intermediate-sized packages, which have from 12 to 40 square inches of surface area available to bear labeling, shall be in type size no smaller than 6 point, except that type size no smaller than 4.5 point may be used on packages that have less than 20 square inches available for labeling and more than 8 dietary ingredients to be listed and on packages that have 20 to 40 square inches available for labeling and more than 16 dietary ingredients to be listed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) When the nutrition information is presented on any panel under § 101.9(j)(13)(ii)(D), the ingredient list shall continue to be located immediately below the nutrition label, or, if there is insufficient space below the nutrition label, immediately contiguous and to the right of the nutrition label as specified in § 101.4(g). 
</P>
<P>(iv) When it is not possible for a small or intermediate-sized package that is enclosed in an outer package to comply with these type size requirements, the type size of the nutrition label on the primary (inner) container may be as small as needed to accommodate all of the required label information provided that the primary container is securely enclosed in outer packaging, the nutrition labeling on the outer packaging meets the applicable type size requirements, and such outer packaging is not intended to be separated from the primary container under conditions of retail sale. 
</P>
<P>(v) Where there is not sufficient space on a small or intermediate-sized package for a nutrition label that meets minimum type size requirements of 4.5 points if hairlines are used in accordance with paragraph (e)(5) of this section, the hairlines may be omitted and replaced by a row of dots connecting the columns containing the name of each dietary ingredient and the quantitative amounts (by weight and as a percent of Daily Value).
</P>
<P>(3) Section 101.9(j)(15) for foods in multiunit food containers; 
</P>
<P>(4) Section 101.9(j)(16) for foods sold in bulk containers; and
</P>
<P>(5) Section 101.9(j)(17) for foods in packages that have a total surface area available to bear labeling greater than 40 square inches but whose principal display panel and information panel do not provide sufficient space to accommodate all required label information, except that the ingredient list shall continue to be located immediately below the nutrition label, or, if there is insufficient space below the nutrition label, immediately contiguous and to the right of the nutrition label as specified in § 101.4(g).
</P>
<P>(j) Dietary supplements shall be subject to the misbranding provisions of § 101.9(k).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 49849, Sept. 23, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 30620, June 5, 1998; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 71 FR 51726, Aug. 31, 2006; 71 FR 74791, Dec. 13, 2006; 81 FR 33994, May 27, 2016; 83 FR 65502, Dec. 21, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.42" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.42   Nutrition labeling of raw fruit, vegetables, and fish.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) urges food retailers to provide nutrition information, as provided in § 101.9(c), for raw fruit, vegetables, and fish at the point-of-purchase. If retailers choose to provide such information, they should do so in a manner that conforms to the guidelines in § 101.45.
</P>
<P>(b) In § 101.44, FDA has listed the 20 varieties of raw fruit, vegetables, and fish that are most frequently consumed during a year and to which the guidelines apply.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA has also defined in § 101.43, the circumstances that constitute substantial compliance by food retailers with the guidelines.
</P>
<P>(d) By May 8, 1993, FDA will issue a report on actions taken by food retailers to provide consumers with nutrition information for raw fruit, vegetables, and fish under the guidelines established in § 101.45.
</P>
<P>(1) The report will include a determination of whether there is substantial compliance, as defined in § 101.43, with the guidelines.
</P>
<P>(2) In evaluating substantial compliance, FDA will consider only the 20 varieties of raw fruit, vegetables, and fish most frequently consumed as identified in § 101.44.
</P>
<P>(e) If FDA finds that there is substantial compliance with the guidelines for the nutrition labeling of raw fruit and vegetables or of fish, the agency will so state in the report, and the guidelines will remain in effect. FDA will reevaluate the market place for substantial compliance every 2 years.
</P>
<P>(f) If FDA determines that there is not substantial compliance with the guidelines for raw fruit and vegetables or for raw fish, the agency will at that time issue proposed regulations requiring that any person who offers raw fruit and vegetables or fish to consumers provide, in a manner prescribed by regulations, the nutrition information required by § 101.9. Final regulations would have to be issued 6 months after issuance of proposed regulations, and they would become effective 6 months after the date of their promulgation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.43" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.43   Substantial compliance of food retailers with the guidelines for the voluntary nutrition labeling of raw fruit, vegetables, and fish.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) will judge a food retailer who sells raw agricultural commodities or raw fish to be in compliance with the guidelines in § 101.45 with respect to raw agricultural commodities if the retailer displays or provides nutrition labeling for at least 90 percent of the raw agricultural commodities listed in § 101.44 that it sells, and with respect to raw fish if the retailer displays or provides nutrition labeling for at least 90 percent of the types of raw fish listed in § 101.44 that it sells. To be in compliance, the nutrition labeling shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be presented in the store or other type of establishment in a manner that is consistent with § 101.45(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) Be presented in content and format that are consistent with § 101.45 (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4); and
</P>
<P>(3) Include data that have been provided by FDA in appendices C and D to part 101 of this chapter, except that the information on potassium is voluntary.
</P>
<P>(b) To determine whether there is substantial compliance by food retailers with the guidelines in § 101.45 for the voluntary nutrition labeling of raw fruit and vegetables and of raw fish, FDA will select a representative sample of 2,000 stores, allocated by store type and size, for raw fruit and vegetables and for raw fish.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will find that there is substantial compliance with the guidelines in § 101.45 if it finds based on paragraph (a) of this section that at least 60 percent of all stores that are evaluated are in compliance.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will evaluate substantial compliance separately for raw agricultural commodities and for raw fish.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 60890, Nov. 27, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 42759, Aug. 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.44" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.44   What are the 20 most frequently consumed raw fruits, vegetables, and fish in the United States?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The 20 most frequently consumed raw fruits are: Apple, avocado (California), banana, cantaloupe, grapefruit, grapes, honeydew melon, kiwifruit, lemon, lime, nectarine, orange, peach, pear, pineapple, plums, strawberries, sweet cherries, tangerine, and watermelon.
</P>
<P>(b) The 20 most frequently consumed raw vegetables are: Asparagus, bell pepper, broccoli, carrot, cauliflower, celery, cucumber, green (snap) beans, green cabbage, green onion, iceberg lettuce, leaf lettuce, mushrooms, onion, potato, radishes, summer squash, sweet corn, sweet potato, and tomato.
</P>
<P>(c) The 20 most frequently consumed raw fish are: Blue crab, catfish, clams, cod, flounder/sole, haddock, halibut, lobster, ocean perch, orange roughy, oysters, pollock, rainbow trout, rockfish, salmon (Atlantic/coho/Chinook/sockeye, chum/pink), scallops, shrimp, swordfish, tilapia, and tuna.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 42044, July 25, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.45" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.45   Guidelines for the voluntary nutrition labeling of raw fruits, vegetables, and fish.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nutrition labeling for raw fruits, vegetables, and fish listed in § 101.44 should be presented to the public in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Nutrition labeling information should be displayed at the point of purchase by an appropriate means such as by a label affixed to the food or through labeling including shelf labels, signs, posters, brochures, notebooks, or leaflets that are readily available and in close proximity to the foods. The nutrition labeling information may also be supplemented by a video, live demonstration, or other media.
</P>
<P>(2) Serving sizes should be determined, and nutrients declared, in accordance with § 101.9 (b) and (c), respectively, except that the nutrition labeling data should be based on the raw edible portion for fruits and vegetables and on the cooked edible portion for fish. The methods used to cook fish should be those that do not add fat, breading, or seasoning (e.g., salt or spices).
</P>
<P>(3) When nutrition labeling information is provided for more than one raw fruit, vegetable, or fish on signs, posters, brochures, notebooks, or leaflets, it may be presented in charts with horizontal or vertical columns or as a compilation of individual nutrition labels. Nutrition labeling that is presented in a linear display (see § 101.9(j)(13)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>)) will not be considered to be in compliance. The heading “Nutrition Facts” must be in a type size larger than all other print in the nutrition label. The required information (i.e., headings, serving sizes, list of nutrients, quantitative amounts by weight (except for vitamins and minerals), and percent of Daily Values (DV's) (except for sugars and protein) must be clearly presented and of sufficient type size and color contrast to be plainly legible, with numeric values for percent of DV highlighted in contrast to the quantitative amounts by weight and hairlines between all nutrients.
</P>
<P>(i) Declaration of the number of servings per container need not be included in the nutrition labeling of raw fruits, vegetables, and fish.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for the statement “Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet,” the footnote required in § 101.9(d)(9) is not required. However, when labeling is provided in brochures, notebooks, leaflets, or similar types of materials, retailers are encouraged to include the footnote.
</P>
<P>(iii) When retailers provide nutrition labeling information for more than one raw fruit or vegetable on signs or posters or in brochures, notebooks, or leaflets, the listings for saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, and cholesterol may be omitted from the charts or individual nutrition labels if a footnote states that most fruits and vegetables provide negligible amounts of these nutrients, but that avocados contain 0.5 gram (g) of saturated fat per ounce (e.g., “Most fruits and vegetables provide negligible amounts of saturated fat, <I>trans</I> fat, and cholesterol; avocados provide 0.5 g of saturated fat per ounce”). The footnote also may contain information about the polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fat content of avocados.
</P>
<P>(iv) When retailers provide nutrition labeling information for more than one raw fish on signs or posters or in brochures, notebooks, or leaflets, the listings for <I>trans</I> fat, dietary fiber, and sugars may be omitted from the charts or individual nutrition labels if the following footnote is used, “Fish provide negligible amounts of <I>trans</I> fat, dietary fiber, and sugars.”
</P>
<P>(4) When nutrition labeling is provided for individual raw fruits, vegetables, or fish on packages or on signs, posters, brochures, notebooks, or leaflets, it should be displayed in accordance with § 101.9, except that the declaration of the number of servings per container need not be included. For individual labels provided by retailers on signs and posters, the footnote required in § 101.9(d)(9) may be shortened to “Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet.”
</P>
<P>(b) Nutrition label values provided by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in Appendices C and D to part 101 for the 20 most frequently consumed raw fruits, vegetables, and fish listed in § 101.44 shall be used to ensure uniformity in declared values. FDA will publish proposed updates of the 20 most frequently consumed raw fruits, vegetables, and fish and nutrition label data for these foods (or a notice that the data sets have not changed from the previous publication) at least every 4 years in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(1) The agency encourages the submission of data bases with new or additional nutrient data for any of the most frequently consumed raw fruits, vegetables, and fish to the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, for review and evaluation. FDA may incorporate these data in the next revision of the nutrition labeling information for the top 20 raw fruits, vegetables, and fish.
</P>
<P>(i) Guidance in the development of data bases may be found in the “FDA Nutrition Labeling Manual: A Guide for Developing and Using Data Bases,” available from the Office of Nutrition and Food Labeling (HFS-800), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(ii) The submission to FDA should include, but need not be limited to, information on the following: Source of the data (names of investigators, name of organization, place of analyses, dates of analyses), number of samples, sampling design, analytical methods, and statistical treatment of the data. Proposed quantitative label declarations may be included. The proposed values for declaration should be determined in accordance with the “FDA Nutrition Labeling Manual: A Guide for Developing and Using Data Bases.”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Data bases of nutrient values for raw fruits, vegetables, and fish that are not among the 20 most frequently consumed may be used to develop nutrition labeling values for these foods. This includes data bases of nutrient values for specific varieties, species, or cultivars of raw fruits, vegetables, and fish not specifically identified among the 20 most frequently consumed.
</P>
<P>(1) The food names and descriptions for the fruits, vegetables, and fish should clearly identify these foods as distinct from foods among the most frequently consumed list for which FDA has provided data.
</P>
<P>(2) Guidance in the development of data bases may be found in the “FDA Nutrition Labeling Manual: A Guide for Developing and Using Data Bases.”
</P>
<P>(3) Nutrition labeling values computed from data bases are subject to the compliance provisions of § 101.9(g).
</P>
<P>(i) Compliance with the provisions of § 101.9(g) may be achieved by use of a data base that has been developed following FDA guideline procedures and approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(A) The submission to FDA for approval should include but need not be limited to information on the following: Source of the data (names of investigators, name of organization, place of analyses, dates of analyses), number of samples, sampling design, analytical methods, statistical treatment of the data, and proposed quantitative label declarations. The values for declaration should be determined in accordance with the “FDA Nutrition Labeling Manual: A Guide for Developing and Using Databases.”
</P>
<P>(B) FDA approval of a data base and nutrition labeling values shall not be considered granted until the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition has agreed to all aspects of the data base in writing. Approvals will be in effect for a limited time, e.g., 10 years, and will be eligible for renewal in the absence of significant changes in agricultural or industry practices (e.g., a change occurs in a predominant variety produced). FDA will take steps to revoke its approval of the data base and nutrition labeling values if FDA monitoring suggests that the data base or nutrition labeling values are no longer representative of the item sold in this country. Approval requests shall be submitted in accordance with the provision of § 101.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 42760, Aug. 16, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 71 FR 42044, July 25, 2006; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Specific Requirements for Nutrient Content Claims</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 101.54" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.54   Nutrient content claims for “good source,” “high,” “more,” and “high potency.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a claim about the level of a nutrient in a food in relation to the Reference Daily Intake (RDI) established for that nutrient in § 101.9(c)(8)(iv) or Daily Reference Value (DRV) established for that nutrient in § 101.9(c)(9), (excluding total carbohydrates) may only be made on the label or in labeling of the food if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim uses one of the terms defined in this section in accordance with the definition for that term;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is made in accordance with the general requirements for nutrient content claims in § 101.13; and
</P>
<P>(3) The food for which the claim is made is labeled in accordance with § 101.9, § 101.10, or § 101.36, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“High” claims.</I> (1) The terms “high,” “rich in,” or “excellent source of” may be used on the label and in the labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that the food contains 20 percent or more of the RDI or the DRV per reference amount customarily consumed.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be used on the label and in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product contains a food that meets the definition of “high” in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The label or labeling clearly identifies the food that is the subject of the claim (e.g., the serving of broccoli in this product is high in vitamin C).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>“Good Source” claims.</I> (1) The terms “good source,” “contains,” or “provides” may be used on the label and in the labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that the food contains 10 to 19 percent of the RDI or the DRV per reference amount customarily consumed.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may be used on the label and in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product contains a food that meets the definition of “good source” in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The label or labeling clearly identifies the food that is the subject of the claim (e.g., the serving of sweet potatoes in this product is a “good source” of fiber).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>“Fiber” claims.</I> (1) If a nutrient content claim is made with respect to the level of dietary fiber, that is, that the product is high in fiber, a good source of fiber, or that the food contains “more” fiber, and the food is not “low” in total fat as defined in § 101.62(b)(2) or, in the case of a meal product, as defined in § 101.13(l), or main dish product, as defined in § 101.13(m), is not “low” in total fat as defined in § 101.62(b)(3), then the label shall disclose the level of total fat per labeled serving.
</P>
<P>(2) The disclosure shall appear in immediate proximity to such claim, be in a type size no less than one-half the size of the claim and precede any disclosure statement required under § 101.13(h) (e.g., “contains [<I>x amount</I>] of total fat per serving. See nutrition information for fat content”).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>“More” claims.</I> (1) A relative claim using the terms “more,” “fortified,” “enriched,” “added,” “extra,” and “plus” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods to describe the level of protein, vitamins, minerals, dietary fiber, or potassium, except as limited by § 101.13(j)(1)(i) and except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 10 percent more of the RDI for vitamins or minerals or of the DRV for protein, dietary fiber, or potassium (expressed as a percent of the Daily Value) per reference amount customarily consumed than an appropriate reference food; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the claim is based on a nutrient that has been added to the food, that fortification is in accordance with the policy on fortification of foods in § 104.20 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percentage (or fraction) that the nutrient is greater relative to the RDI or DRV are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “contains 10 percent more of the Daily Value for fiber than white bread”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of the nutrient in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Fiber content of white bread is 1 gram (g) per serving; (this product) 3.5 g per serving”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(2) A relative claim using the terms “more,” “fortified,” “enriched,” “added,” “extra,” and “plus” may be used on the label or in labeling to describe the level of protein, vitamins, minerals, dietary fiber or potassium, except as limited in § 101.13(j)(1)(i), in meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) or main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 10 percent more of the RDI for vitamins or minerals or of the DRV for protein, dietary fiber, or potassium (expressed as a percent of the Daily Value) per 100 g of food than an appropriate reference food.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the claim is based on a nutrient that has been added to the food, that fortification is in accordance with the policy on fortification of foods in § 104.20 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percentage (or fraction) that the nutrient was increased relative to the RDI or DRV are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “contains 10 percent more of the Daily Value for fiber per 3 oz than does ‘X brand of product’ ”), and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of the nutrient in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “The fiber content of ‘X brand of product’ is 2 g per 3 oz. This product contains 4.5 g per 3 oz.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>“High potency” claims.</I> (1)(i) The term “high potency” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods to describe individual vitamins or minerals that are present at 100 percent or more of the RDI per reference amount customarily consumed.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the term “high potency” is used to describe individual vitamins or minerals in a product that contains other nutrients or dietary ingredients, the label or labeling shall clearly identify which vitamin or mineral is described by the term “high potency” (e.g., “Botanical ‘X’ with high potency vitamin E”).
</P>
<P>(2) The term “high potency” may be used on the label or in the labeling of a multiingredient food product to describe the product if the product contains 100 percent or more of the RDI for at least two-thirds of the vitamins and minerals that are listed in § 101.9(c)(8)(iv) and that are present in the product at 2 percent or more of the RDI (e.g., “High potency multivitamin, multimineral dietary supplement tablets”).
</P>
<P>(3) Where compliance with paragraphs (f)(1)(i), (f)(1)(ii), or (f)(2) of this section is based on a nutrient that has been added to a food (other than a dietary supplement), that fortification shall be in accordance with the policy on fortification of foods in § 104.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nutrient content claims using the term “antioxidant.”</I> A nutrient content claim that characterizes the level of antioxidant nutrients present in a food may be used on the label or in the labeling of that food when:
</P>
<P>(1) An RDI has been established for each of the nutrients;
</P>
<P>(2) The nutrients that are the subject of the claim have recognized antioxidant activity; that is, when there exists scientific evidence that, following absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, the substance participates in physiological, biochemical, or cellular processes that inactivate free radicals or prevent free radical-initiated chemical reactions;
</P>
<P>(3) The level of each nutrient that is the subject of the claim is sufficient to qualify for the § 101.54 (b), (c), or (e) claim (e.g., to bear the claim ”high in antioxidant vitamin C,” the product must contain 20 percent or more of the RDI for vitamin C). Beta-carotene may be a subject of the claim when the level of vitamin A present as beta-carotene in the food that bears the claim is sufficient to qualify for the claim. For example, for the claim “good source of antioxidant beta-carotene,” 10 percent or more of the RDI for vitamin A must be present as beta-carotene per reference amount customarily consumed; and
</P>
<P>(4) The names of the nutrients that are the subject of the claim are included as part of the claim (e.g., “high in antioxidant vitamins C and E”). Alternatively, when used as part of a nutrient content claim, the term “antioxidant” or “antioxidants” (as in “high in antioxidants”) may be linked by a symbol (e.g., an asterisk) that refers to the same symbol that appears elsewhere on the same panel of a product label followed by the name or names of the nutrients with recognized antioxidant activity. The list of nutrients shall appear in letters of a type size height no smaller than the larger of one-half of the type size of the largest nutrient content claim or 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17342, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 394, Jan. 4, 1994; 59 FR 15051, Mar. 31, 1994; 60 FR 17206, Apr. 5, 1995; 61 FR 11731, Mar. 22, 1996; 62 FR 31339, June 9, 1997; 62 FR 49867, 49880, Sept. 23, 1997; 63 FR 26980, May 15, 1998; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.56" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.56   Nutrient content claims for “light” or “lite.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A claim using the term <I>light</I> or <I>lite</I> to describe a food may only be made on the label or in labeling of the food if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim uses one of the terms defined in this section in accordance with the definition for that term;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is made in accordance with the general requirements for nutrient content claims in § 101.13; and
</P>
<P>(3) The food is labeled in accordance with § 101.9 or § 101.10, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“Light” claims.</I> The terms “light” or “lite” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), without further qualification, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) If the food derives 50 percent or more of its calories from fat, its fat content is reduced by 50 percent or more per reference amount customarily consumed compared to an appropriate reference food as specified in § 101.13(j)(1); or
</P>
<P>(2) If the food derives less than 50 percent of its calories from fat:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of calories is reduced by at least one-third (33
<FR>1/3</FR> percent) per reference amount customarily consumed compared to an appropriate reference food; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Its fat content is reduced by 50 percent or more per reference amount customarily consumed compared to the reference food that it resembles or for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(j)(1); and
</P>
<P>(3) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the calories and the fat were reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim, (e.g., “1/3 fewer calories and 50 percent less fat than our regular cheese cake”);
</P>
<P>(ii) Quantitative information comparing the level of calories and fat content in the product per labeled serving size with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “lite cheesecake—200 calories, 4 grams (g) fat per serving; regular cheesecake—300 calories, 8 g fat per serving”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the labeled food contains less than 40 calories or less than 3 g fat per reference amount customarily consumed, the percentage reduction for that nutrient need not be declared.
</P>
<P>(4) A “light” claim may not be made on a food for which the reference food meets the definition of “low fat” and “low calorie.”
</P>
<P>(c)(1)(i) A product for which the reference food contains 40 calories or less and 3 g fat or less per reference amount customarily consumed may use the term “light” or “lite” without further qualification if it is reduced by 50 percent or more in sodium content compared to the reference food; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the sodium was reduced shall be declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., 50 percent less sodium than our regular soy sauce); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of sodium per labeled serving size with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “lite soy sauce 500 milligrams (mg) sodium per serving; regular soy sauce 1,000 mg per serving”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A product for which the reference food contains more than 40 calories or more than 3 g fat per reference amount customarily consumed may use the term “light in sodium” or “lite in sodium” if it is reduced by 50 percent or more in sodium content compared to the reference food, provided that “light” or “lite” is presented in immediate proximity with “in sodium” and the entire term is presented in uniform type size, style, color, and prominence; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the sodium was reduced shall be declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., 50 percent less sodium than our regular canned peas); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of sodium per labeled serving size with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “lite canned peas, 175 mg sodium per serving; regular canned peas 350 mg per serving”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except for meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), a “light in sodium” claim may not be made on a food for which the reference food meets the definition of “low in sodium”.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The terms “light” or “lite” may be used on the label or in the labeling of a meal product as defined in § 101.13(l) and a main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food meets the definition of:
</P>
<P>(A) “Low in calories” as defined in § 101.60(b)(3); or
</P>
<P>(B) “Low in fat” as defined in § 101.62(b)(3); and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A statement appears on the principal display panel that explains whether “light” is used to mean “low fat,” “low calories,” or both (e.g., “Light Delight, a low fat meal”); and
</P>
<P>(B) The accompanying statement is no less than one-half the type size of the “light” or “lite” claim.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The term “light in sodium” or “lite in sodium” may be used on the label or in the labeling of a meal product as defined in § 101.13(l) and a main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that the food meets the definition of “low in sodium” as defined in § 101.61(b)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(ii) “Light” or “lite” and “in sodium” are presented in uniform type size, style, color, and prominence.
</P>
<P>(e) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, the term “light” or “lite” may not be used to refer to a food that is not reduced in fat by 50 percent, or, if applicable, in calories by 
<FR>1/3</FR> or, when properly qualified, in sodium by 50 percent unless:
</P>
<P>(1) It describes some physical or organoleptic attribute of the food such as texture or color and the information (e.g., “light in color” or “light in texture”) so stated, clearly conveys the nature of the product; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The attribute (e.g., “color” or “texture”) is in the same style, color, and at least one-half the type size as the word “light” and in immediate proximity thereto.
</P>
<P>(f) If a manufacturer can demonstrate that the word “light” has been associated, through common use, with a particular food to reflect a physical or organoleptic attribute (e.g., light brown sugar, light corn syrup, or light molasses) to the point where it has become part of the statement of identity, such use of the term “light” shall not be considered a nutrient content claim subject to the requirements in this part.
</P>
<P>(g) The term “lightly salted” may be used on a product to which has been added 50 percent less sodium than is normally added to the reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1)(i)(B) and (j)(1)(ii)(B), provided that if the product is not “low in sodium” as defined in § 101.61(b)(4), the statement “not a low sodium food,” shall appear adjacent to the nutrition label of the food bearing the claim, or, if the nutrition label is on the information panel, it may appear elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2 and the information required to accompany a relative claim shall appear on the label or labeling as specified in § 101.13(j)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17342, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 17206, Apr. 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.60" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.60   Nutrient content claims for the calorie content of foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A claim about the calorie or sugar content of a food may only be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim uses one of the terms defined in this section in accordance with the definition for that term;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is made in accordance with the general requirements for nutrient content claims in § 101.13;
</P>
<P>(3) The food for which the claim is made is labeled in accordance with § 101.9, § 101.10, or § 101.36, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) For dietary supplements, claims regarding calories may not be made on products that meet the criteria in § 101.60(b)(1) or (b)(2) for “calorie free” or “low calorie” claims except when an equivalent amount of a similar dietary supplement (e.g., another protein supplement) that the labeled food resembles and for which it substitutes, normally exceeds the definition for “low calorie” in § 101.60(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calorie content claims.</I> (1) The terms “calorie free,” “free of calories,” “no calories,” “zero calories,” “without calories,” “trivial source of calories,” “negligible source of calories,” or “dietarily insignificant source of calories” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains less than 5 calories per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeled serving.
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food meets this condition without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower the caloric content, it is labeled to disclose that calories are not usually present in the food (e.g., “cider vinegar, a calorie free food”).
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “low calorie,” “few calories,” “contains a small amount of calories,” “low source of calories,” or “low in calories” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed greater than 30 grams (g) or greater than 2 tablespoons and does not provide more than 40 calories per reference amount customarily consumed; or
</P>
<P>(B) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less and does not provide more than 40 calories per reference amount customarily consumed and, except for sugar substitutes, per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50 g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to vary the caloric content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches (e.g., “celery, a low calorie food”).
</P>
<P>(3) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be used on the label or in labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) or main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product contains 120 calories or less per 100 g; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the product meets this condition without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower the calorie content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which it attaches.
</P>
<P>(4) The terms “reduced calorie,” “reduced in calories,” “calorie reduced,” “fewer calories,” “lower calorie,” or “lower in calories” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, except as limited by § 101.13(j)(1)(i) and except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent fewer calories per reference amount customarily consumed than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the calories differ between the two foods are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., reduced calorie cupcakes “33
<FR>1/3</FR> percent fewer calories than regular cupcakes”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of the nutrient per labeled serving size with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Calorie content has been reduced from 150 to 100 calories per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section may not be made on the label or labeling of foods if the reference food meets the definition for “low calorie.”
</P>
<P>(5) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent fewer calories per 100 g of food than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the calories differ between the two foods are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., Larry's Reduced Calorie Lasagna, “25 percent fewer calories per oz (or 3 oz) than our regular Lasagna”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of the nutrient in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Calorie content has been reduced from 108 calories per 3 oz to 83 calories per 3 oz.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section may not be made on the label or labeling of food if the reference food meets the definition for “low calorie.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sugar content claims</I>—(1) <I>Use of terms such as “sugar free,” “free of sugar,” “no sugar,” “zero sugar,” “without sugar,” “sugarless,” “trivial source of sugar,” “negligible source of sugar,” or “dietarily insignificant source of sugar.”</I> Consumers may reasonably be expected to regard terms that represent that the food contains no sugars or sweeteners e.g., “sugar free,” or “no sugar,” as indicating a product which is low in calories or significantly reduced in calories. Consequently, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a food may not be labeled with such terms unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains less than 0.5 g of sugars, as defined in § 101.9(c)(6)(ii), per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeled serving or, in the case of a meal product or main dish product, less than 0.5 g of sugars per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The food contains no ingredient that is a sugar or that is generally understood by consumers to contain sugars unless the listing of the ingredient in the ingredient statement is followed by an asterisk that refers to the statement below the list of ingredients, which states “adds a trivial amount of sugar,” “adds a negligible amount of sugar,” or “adds a dietarily insignificant amount of sugar;” and
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) It is labeled “low calorie” or “reduced calorie” or bears a relative claim of special dietary usefulness labeled in compliance with paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), or (b)(5) of this section, or, if a dietary supplement, it meets the definition in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for “low calorie” but is prohibited by §§ 101.13(b)(5) and 101.60(a)(4) from bearing the claim; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such term is immediately accompanied, each time it is used, by either the statement “not a reduced calorie food,” “not a low calorie food,” or “not for weight control.”
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “no added sugar,” “without added sugar,” or “no sugar added” may be used only if:
</P>
<P>(i) No amount of sugars, as defined in § 101.9(c)(6)(ii), or any other ingredient that contains sugars that functionally substitute for added sugars is added during processing or packaging; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product does not contain an ingredient containing added sugars such as jam, jelly, or concentrated fruit juice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sugars content has not been increased above the amount present in the ingredients by some means such as the use of enzymes, except where the intended functional effect of the process is not to increase the sugars content of a food, and a functionally insignificant increase in sugars results; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The food that it resembles and for which it substitutes normally contains added sugars; and
</P>
<P>(v) The product bears a statement that the food is not “low calorie” or “calorie reduced” (unless the food meets the requirements for a “low” or “reduced calorie” food) and that directs consumers' attention to the nutrition panel for further information on sugar and calorie content.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall not apply to a factual statement that a food, including foods intended specifically for infants and children less than 2 years of age, is unsweetened or contains no added sweeteners in the case of a food that contains apparent substantial inherent sugar content, e.g., juices.
</P>
<P>(4) The claims provided for in paragraph (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section may be used on labels or in labeling of dietary supplements of vitamins or minerals that are intended specifically for use by infants and children less than 2 years of age.
</P>
<P>(5) The terms “reduced sugar,” “reduced in sugar,” “sugar reduced,” “less sugar,” “lower sugar” or “lower in sugar” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l), main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), and dietary supplements of vitamins or minerals, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less sugar per reference amount customarily consumed than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the sugar differs between the two foods are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “these corn flakes contain 25 percent less sugar than our sugar coated corn flakes”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of the sugar in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Sugar content has been lowered from 8 g to 6 g per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(6) The terms defined in paragraph (c)(5) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of a meal product as defined in § 101.13(l) and a main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less sugars per 100 g of food than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1), and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the sugars differ between the two foods are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., reduced sweet and sour shrimp dinner, “25 percent less sugar per 3 oz than our regular sweet and sour shrimp dinner”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of the nutrient in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Sugar content has been reduced from 17 g per 3 oz to 13 g per 3 oz.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17342, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44031, Aug. 18, 1993; 59 FR 394, Jan. 4, 1994; 60 FR 17206, Apr. 5, 1995; 62 FR 15342, Mar. 31, 1997; 62 FR 49881, Sept. 23, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.61" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.61   Nutrient content claims for the sodium content of foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A claim about the level of sodium or salt in a food may only be made on the label or in the labeling of the food if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim uses one of the terms defined in this section in accordance with the definition for that term;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is made in accordance with the general requirements for nutrient content claims in § 101.13; and
</P>
<P>(3) The food for which the claim is made is labeled in accordance with § 101.9, § 101.10, or § 101.36, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sodium content claims.</I> (1) The terms “sodium free,” “free of sodium,” “no sodium,” “zero sodium,” “without sodium,” “trivial source of sodium,” “negligible source of sodium,” or “dietary insignificant source of sodium” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains less than 5 milligrams (mg) of sodium per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeled serving or, in the case of a meal product or a main dish product, less than 5 mg of sodium per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The food contains no ingredient that is sodium chloride or is generally understood by consumers to contain sodium, unless the listing of the ingredient in the ingredient statement is followed by an asterisk that refers to the statement below the list of ingredients, which states: “Adds a trivial amount of sodium,” “adds a negligible amount of sodium” or “adds a dietarily insignificant amount of sodium;” and
</P>
<P>(iii) As required in § 101.13(e)(2) if the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower the sodium content, it is labeled to disclose that sodium is not usually present in the food (e.g., “leaf lettuce, a sodium free food”).
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “very low sodium,” or “very low in sodium,” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed greater than 30 grams (g) or greater than 2 tablespoons and contains 35 mg or less sodium per reference amount customarily consumed; or
</P>
<P>(B) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less and contains 35 mg or less sodium per reference amount customarily consumed and per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form);
</P>
<P>(ii) If the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to vary the sodium content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches (e.g., “potatoes, a very low-sodium food”).
</P>
<P>(3) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be used on the label or in labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product contains 35 mg or less of sodium per 100 g of product; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the product meets this condition without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower the sodium content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches.
</P>
<P>(4) The terms “low sodium,” or “low in sodium,” “little sodium,” “contains a small amount of sodium,” or “low source of sodium” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed greater than 30 g or greater than 2 tablespoons and contains 140 mg or less sodium per reference amount customarily consumed; or
</P>
<P>(B) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less and contains 140 mg or less sodium per reference amount customarily consumed and per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to vary the sodium content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches (e.g., “fresh spinach, a low sodium food”); and
</P>
<P>(5) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section may be used on the label or in labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product contains 140 mg or less sodium per 100 g; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the product meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower the sodium content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches.
</P>
<P>(6) The terms “reduced sodium,” “reduced in sodium,” “sodium reduced,” “less sodium,” “lower sodium,” or “lower in sodium” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less sodium per reference amount customarily consumed than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) As required for § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the sodium differs from the labeled food are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “reduced sodium ______, 50 percent less sodium than regular ______”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of the sodium in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Sodium content has been lowered from 300 to 150 mg per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section may not be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low sodium.”
</P>
<P>(7) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less sodium per 100 g of food than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1), and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the sodium differs from the reference food are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., reduced sodium eggplant parmigiana dinner “30 percent less sodium per oz (or 3 oz) than our regular eggplant parmigiana dinner”).
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of sodium in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Sodium content has been reduced from 217 mg per 3 oz to 150 mg per 3 oz.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section may not be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low sodium.”
</P>
<P>(c) The term “salt” is not synonymous with “sodium.” Salt refers to sodium chloride. However, references to salt content such as “unsalted,” “no salt,” “no salt added” are potentially misleading.
</P>
<P>(1) The term “salt free” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods only if the food is “sodium free” as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “unsalted,” “without added salt,” and “no salt added” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods only if:
</P>
<P>(i) No salt is added during processing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The food that it resembles and for which it substitutes is normally processed with salt; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the food is not sodium free, the statement, “not a sodium free food” or “not for control of sodium in the diet” appears adjacent to the nutrition label of the food bearing the claim, or, if the nutrition label is on the information panel, it may appear elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (c)(2) of this section shall not apply to a factual statement that a food intended specifically for infants and children less than 2 years of age is unsalted, provided such statement refers to the taste of the food and is not otherwise false and misleading.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17342, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44032, Aug. 18, 1993; 59 FR 394, Jan. 4, 1994; 60 FR 17206, Apr. 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.62" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.62   Nutrient content claims for fat, fatty acid, and cholesterol content of foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A claim about the level of fat, fatty acid, and cholesterol in a food may only be made on the label or in the labeling of foods if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim uses one of the terms defined in this section in accordance with the definition for that term;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is made in accordance with the general requirements for nutrient content claims in § 101.13;
</P>
<P>(3) The food for which the claim is made is labeled in accordance with § 101.9, § 101.10, or § 101.36, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) For dietary supplements, claims for fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol may not be made on products that meet the criteria in § 101.60(b)(1) or (b)(2) for “calorie free” or “low calorie” claims.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fat content claims.</I> (1) The terms “fat free,” “free of fat,” “no fat,” “zero fat,” “without fat,” “negligible source of fat,” or “dietarily insignificant source of fat” or, in the case of milk products, “skim” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains less than 0.5 gram (g) of fat per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeled serving or, in the case of a meal product or main dish product, less than 0.5 g of fat per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The food contains no added ingredient that is a fat or is generally understood by consumers to contain fat unless the listing of the ingredient in the ingredient statement is followed by an asterisk that refers to the statement below the list of ingredients, which states “adds a trivial amount of fat,” “adds a negligible amount of fat,” or “adds a dietarily insignificant amount of fat;” and
</P>
<P>(iii) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower fat content, it is labeled to disclose that fat is not usually present in the food (e.g., “broccoli, a fat free food”).
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “low fat,” “low in fat,” “contains a small amount of fat,” “low source of fat,” or “little fat” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed greater than 30 g or greater than 2 tablespoons and contains 3 g or less of fat per reference amount customarily consumed; or
</P>
<P>(B) The food has a reference amount customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less and contains 3 g or less of fat per reference amount customarily consumed and per 50 g of food (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower fat content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches (e.g., “frozen perch, a low fat food”).
</P>
<P>(3) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be used on the label or in labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) or main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product contains 3 g or less of total fat per 100 g and not more than 30 percent of calories from fat; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the product meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower fat content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches.
</P>
<P>(4) The terms “reduced fat,” “reduced in fat,” “fat reduced,” “less fat,” “lower fat,” or “lower in fat” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less fat per reference amount customarily consumed than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the fat differs between the two foods and are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “reduced fat—50 percent less fat than our regular brownies”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of fat in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Fat content has been reduced from 8 g to 4 g per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section may not be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low fat.”
</P>
<P>(5) The terms defined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less fat per 100 g of food than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the fat differs between the two foods are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., reduced fat spinach souffle, “33 percent less fat per 3 oz than our regular spinach souffle”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of fat in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Fat content has been reduced from 7.5 g per 3 oz to 5 g per 3 oz.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim, to the nutrition label, or, if the nutrition label is located on the information panel, it may appear elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section may not be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low fat.”
</P>
<P>(6) The term “__ percent fat free” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food meets the criteria for “low fat” in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The percent declared and the words “fat free” are in uniform type size; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A “100 percent fat free” claim may be made only on foods that meet the criteria for “fat free” in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, that contain less than 0.5 g of fat per 100 g, and that contain no added fat.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fatty acid content claims.</I> The label or labeling of foods that bear claims with respect to the level of saturated fat shall disclose the level of total fat and cholesterol in the food in immediate proximity to such claim each time the claim is made and in type that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used for the claim with respect to the level of saturated fat. Declaration of cholesterol content may be omitted when the food contains less than 2 milligrams (mg) of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed or in the case of a meal or main dish product less than 2 mg of cholesterol per labeled serving. Declaration of total fat may be omitted with the term defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section when the food contains less than 0.5 g of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed or, in the case of a meal product or a main dish product, when the product contains less than 0.5 g of total fat per labeled serving. The declaration of total fat may be omitted with the terms defined in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(5) of this section when the food contains 3 g or less of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed or in the case of a meal product or a main dish product, when the product contains 3 g or less of total fat per 100 g and not more than 30 percent calories from fat.
</P>
<P>(1) The terms “saturated fat free,” “free of saturated fat,” “no saturated fat,” “zero saturated fat,” “without saturated fat,” “trivial source of saturated fat,” “negligible source of saturated fat,” or “dietarily insignificant source of saturated fat” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains less than 0.5 g of saturated fat and less than 0.5 g <I>trans</I> fatty acid per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeled serving, or in the case of a meal product or main dish product, less than 0.5 g of saturated fat and less than 0.5 g <I>trans</I> fatty acid per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The food contains no ingredient that is generally understood by consumers to contain saturated fat unless the listing of the ingredient in the ingredient statement is followed by an asterisk that refers to the statement below the list of ingredients which states, “adds a trivial amount of saturated fat,” “adds a negligible amount of saturated fat,” or “adds a dietarily insignificant amount of saturated fat;” and
</P>
<P>(iii) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower saturated fat content, it is labeled to disclose that saturated fat is not usually present in the food.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “low in saturated fat,” “low saturated fat,” “contains a small amount of saturated fat,” “low source of saturated fat,” or “a little saturated fat” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains 1 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed and not more than 15 percent of calories from saturated fatty acids; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a food meets these conditions without benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower saturated fat content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches (e.g., “raspberries, a low saturated fat food”).
</P>
<P>(3) The terms defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product contains 1 g or less of saturated fatty acids per 100 g and less than 10 percent calories from saturated fat; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the product meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower saturated fat content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of its type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches.
</P>
<P>(4) The terms “reduced saturated fat,” “reduced in saturated fat,” “saturated fat reduced,” “less saturated fat,” “lower saturated fat,” or “lower in saturated fat” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, except as limited by § 101.13(j)(1)(i) and except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less saturated fat per reference amount customarily consumed than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the saturated fat differs between the two foods are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “reduced saturated fat. Contains 50 percent less saturated fat than the national average for nondairy creamers”); and
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of saturated fat in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Saturated fat reduced from 3 g to 1.5 g per serving”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section may not be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low saturated fat.”
</P>
<P>(5) The terms defined in paragraph (c)(4) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food contains at least 25 percent less saturated fat per 100 g of food than an appropriate reference food as described in § 101.13(j)(1), and
</P>
<P>(ii) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the reference food, and the percent (or fraction) that the fat differs between the two foods are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., reduced saturated fat Macaroni and Cheese, “33 percent less saturated fat per 3 oz than our regular Macaroni and Cheese”).
</P>
<P>(B) Quantitative information comparing the level of saturated fat in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Saturated fat content has been reduced from 2.5 g per 3 oz to 1.7 g per 3 oz.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label in on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section may not be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low saturated fat.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cholesterol content claims.</I> (1) The terms “cholesterol free,” “free of cholesterol,” “zero cholesterol,” “without cholesterol,” “no cholesterol,” “trivial source of cholesterol,” “negligible source of cholesterol,” or “dietarily insignificant source of cholesterol” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) For foods that contain 13 g or less of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed, per labeled serving, and per 50 g if the reference amount customarily consumed is 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form), or, in the case of meal products, 26.0 g or less total fat per labeled serving, or, in the case of main dish products, 19.5 g or less total fat per labeled serving:
</P>
<P>(A) The food contains less than 2 mg of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeling serving or, in the case of a meal product or main dish product, less than 2 mg of cholesterol per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains no ingredient that is generally understood by consumers to contain cholesterol, unless the listing of the ingredient in the ingredient statement is followed by an asterisk that refers to the statement below the list of ingredients, which states “adds a trivial amount of cholesterol,” “adds a negligible amount of cholesterol,” or “adds a dietarily insignificant amount of cholesterol;” and
</P>
<P>(C) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed or, in the case of a meal product or main dish product, 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(D) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food contains less than 2 mg of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed or in the case of a meal product or main dish product, less than 2 mg of cholesterol per labeled serving without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower cholesterol content, it is labeled to disclose that cholesterol is not usually present in the food (e.g., “applesauce, a cholesterol-free food”).
</P>
<P>(ii) For food that contain more than 13 g of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed, per labeling serving, or per 50 g if the reference amount customarily consumed is 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form), or in the case of a meal product, more than 26 g of total fat per labeled serving, or, in the case of a main dish product more than 19.5 g of total fat per labeled serving:
</P>
<P>(A) The food contains less than 2 mg of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeling serving or, in the case of a meal product or main dish product, less than 2 mg of cholesterol per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains no ingredient that is generally understood by consumers to contain cholesterol, unless the listing of the ingredient in the ingredient statement is followed by an asterisk that refers to the statement below the list of ingredients, which states “adds a trivial amount of cholesterol,” “adds a negligible amount of cholesterol,” or “adds a dietarily insignificant amount of cholesterol;” and
</P>
<P>(C) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed or, in the case of a meal product or main dish product less than 2 g of saturated fatty acids per labeled serving; and
</P>
<P>(D) The label or labeling discloses the level of total fat in a serving (as declared on the label) of the food. Such disclosure shall appear in immediate proximity to such claim preceding any disclosure statement required under § 101.13(h) in type that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used for such claim. If the claim appears on more than one panel, the disclosure shall be made on each panel except for the panel that bears nutrition labeling. If the claim appears more than once on a panel, the disclosure shall be made in immediate proximity to the claim that is printed in the largest type; and
</P>
<P>(E) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food contains less than 2 mg of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed or in the case of a meal product or main dish product less than 2 mg of cholesterol per labeled serving without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower cholesterol content, it is labeled to disclose that cholesterol is not usually present in the food (e.g., “canola oil, a cholesterol-free food, contains 14 g of fat per serving”); or
</P>
<P>(F) If the food contains less than 2 mg of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed or in the case of a meal product or main dish product less than 2 mg of cholesterol per labeled serving only as a result of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation, the amount of cholesterol is substantially less (i.e., meets requirements of paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(A) of this section) than the food for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(d) that has a significant (e.g., 5 percent or more of a national or regional market) market share. As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the cholesterol was reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “cholesterol-free margarine, contains 100 percent less cholesterol than butter”); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantitative information comparing the level of cholesterol in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Contains no cholesterol compared with 30 mg cholesterol in one serving of butter. Contains 13 g of fat per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “low in cholesterol,” “low cholesterol,” “contains a small amount of cholesterol,” “low source of cholesterol,” or “little cholesterol” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) For foods that have a reference amount customarily consumed greater than 30 g or greater than 2 tablespoons and contain 13 g or less of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed and per labeled serving:
</P>
<P>(A) The food contains 20 mg or less of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed;
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed; and
</P>
<P>(C) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower cholesterol content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of that type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches (e.g., “low fat cottage cheese, a low cholesterol food.”).
</P>
<P>(ii) For foods that have a reference amount customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less and contain 13 g or less of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed, per labeled serving, and per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form);
</P>
<P>(A) The food contains 20 mg or less of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed and per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form);
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed; and
</P>
<P>(C) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower cholesterol content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of that type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches (e.g., “low fat cottage cheese, a low cholesterol food”).
</P>
<P>(iii) For foods that have a reference amount customarily consumed greater than 30 g or greater than 2 tablespoons and contain more than 13 g of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed or per labeled serving,
</P>
<P>(A) The food contains 20 mg or less of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed;
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed;
</P>
<P>(C) The label or labeling discloses the level of total fat in a serving (as declared on the label) of the food. Such disclosure shall appear in immediate proximity to such claim preceding any disclosure statement required under § 101.13(h) in type that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used for such claim. If the claim appears on more than one panel, the disclosure shall be made on each panel except for the panel that bears nutrition labeling. If the claim is made more than once on a panel, the disclosure shall be made in immediate proximity to the claim that is printed in the largest type; and
</P>
<P>(D) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower cholesterol content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of that type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches; or
</P>
<P>(E) If the food contains 20 mg or less of cholesterol only as a result of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation, the amount of cholesterol is substantially less (i.e., meets requirements of paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(A) of this section) than the food for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(d) that has a significant (e.g., 5 percent or more of a national or regional market) market share. As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the cholesterol has been reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “low-cholesterol peanut butter sandwich crackers, contains 83 percent less cholesterol than our regular peanut butter sandwich crackers”); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantitative information comparing the level of cholesterol in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Cholesterol lowered from 30 mg to 5 mg per serving; contains 13 g of fat per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iv) For foods that have a reference amount customarily consumed of 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less and contain more than 13 g of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed, per labeled serving, or per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form),
</P>
<P>(A) The food contains 20 mg or less of cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed and per 50 g (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form),
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed;
</P>
<P>(C) The label or labeling discloses the level of total fat in a serving (as declared on the label) of the food. Such disclosure shall appear in immediate proximity to such claim preceding any disclosure statement required under § 101.13(h) in type that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used for such claim. If the claim appears on more than one panel, the disclosure shall be made on each panel except for the panel that bears nutrition labeling. If the claim is made more than once on a panel, the disclosure shall be made in immediate proximity to the claim that is printed in the largest type; and
</P>
<P>(D) As required in § 101.13(e)(2), if the food meets these conditions without the benefit of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation to lower cholesterol content, it is labeled to clearly refer to all foods of that type and not merely to the particular brand to which the label attaches; or
</P>
<P>(E) If the food contains 20 mg or less of cholesterol only as a result of special processing, alteration, formulation, or reformulation, the amount of cholesterol is substantially less (i.e., meets requirements of paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(A) of this section) than the food for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(d) that has a significant (i.e., 5 percent or more of a national or regional market) market share. As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the cholesterol has been reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “low-cholesterol peanut butter sandwich crackers, contains 83 percent less cholesterol than our regular peanut butter sandwich crackers”); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantitative information comparing the level of cholesterol in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Cholesterol lowered from 30 mg to 5 mg per serving; contains 13 g of fat per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(3) The terms defined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section may be used on the label and in labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) or a main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m) provided that the product meets the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section except that the determination as to whether paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (d)(2)(iii) of this section applies to the product will be made only on the basis of whether the meal product contains 26 g or less of total fat per labeled serving or the main dish product contain 19.5 g or less of total fat per labeled serving, the requirement in paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(A) and (d)(2)(iii)(A) of this section shall be limited to 20 mg of cholesterol per 100 g, and the requirement in paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(B) and (d)(2)(iii)(B) of this section shall be modified to require that the food contain 2 g or less of saturated fat per 100 g rather than per reference amount customarily consumed.
</P>
<P>(4) The terms “reduced cholesterol,” “reduced in cholesterol,” “cholesterol reduced,” “less cholesterol,” “lower cholesterol,” or “lower in cholesterol” except as limited by § 101.13(j)(1)(i) may be used on the label or in labeling of foods or foods that substitute for those foods as specified in § 101.13(d), excluding meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) For foods that contain 13 g or less of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed, per labeled serving, and per 50 g if the reference amount customarily consumed is 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form):
</P>
<P>(A) The food has been specifically formulated, altered, or processed to reduce its cholesterol by 25 percent or more from the reference food it resembles as defined in § 101.13(j)(1) and for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(d) that has a significant (i.e., 5 percent or more) market share; and
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed; and
</P>
<P>(C) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the cholesterol has been reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantitative information comparing the level of cholesterol in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “[labeled product] 50 mg cholesterol per serving; [reference product] 30 mg cholesterol per serving”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(ii) For foods that contain more than 13 g of total fat per reference amount customarily consumed, per labeled serving, or per 50 g if the reference amount customarily consumed is 30 g or less or 2 tablespoons or less (for dehydrated foods that must be reconstituted before typical consumption with water or a diluent containing an insignificant amount, as defined in § 101.9(f)(1), of all nutrients per reference amount customarily consumed, the per 50-g criterion refers to the “as prepared” form):
</P>
<P>(A) The food has been specifically formulated, altered, or processed to reduce its cholesterol by 25 percent or more from the reference food it resembles as defined in § 101.13(j)(1) and for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(d) that has a significant (i.e., 5 percent or more of a national or regional market) market share;
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per reference amount customarily consumed;
</P>
<P>(C) The label or labeling discloses the level of total fat in a serving (as declared on the label) of the food. Such disclosure shall appear in immediate proximity to such claim preceding any disclosure statement required under § 101.13(h) in type that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used for such claim. If the claim appears on more than one panel, the disclosure shall be made on each panel except for the panel that bears nutrition labeling. If the claim is made more than once on a panel, the disclosure shall be made in immediate proximity to the claim that is printed in the largest type; and
</P>
<P>(D) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the cholesterol has been reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., 25 percent less cholesterol than ______); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantitative information comparing the level of cholesterol in the product per labeled serving with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Cholesterol lowered from 55 mg to 30 mg per serving. Contains 13 g of fat per serving.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section may not be made on the label or in labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low cholesterol.”
</P>
<P>(5) The terms defined in paragraph (d)(4) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) For meal products that contain 26.0 g or less of total fat per labeled serving or for main dish products that contain 19.5 g or less of total fat per labeled serving;
</P>
<P>(A) The food has been specifically formulated, altered, or processed to reduce its cholesterol by 25 percent or more from the reference food it resembles as defined in § 101.13(j)(1) and for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(d) that has a significant (e.g., 5 percent or more of a national or regional market) market share;
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per 100 g; and
</P>
<P>(C) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identity of the reference food, and the percent (or fraction) that the cholesterol has been reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., “25% less cholesterol per 3 oz than ______); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantitative information comparing the level of cholesterol in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Cholesterol content has been reduced from 35 mg per 3 oz to 25 mg per 3 oz.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(ii) For meal products that contain more than 26.0 g of total fat per labeled serving or for main dish products that contain more than 19.5 g of total fat per labeled serving:
</P>
<P>(A) The food has been specifically formulated, altered, or processed to reduce its cholesterol by 25 percent or more from the reference food it resembles as defined in § 101.13(j)(1) and for which it substitutes as specified in § 101.13(d) that has a significant (e.g., 5 percent or more of a national or regional market) market share.
</P>
<P>(B) The food contains 2 g or less of saturated fatty acids per 100 g;
</P>
<P>(C) The label or labeling discloses the level of total fat in a serving (as declared on the label) of the food. Such disclosure shall appear in immediate proximity to such claim preceding any disclosure statement required under § 101.13(h) in type that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used for such claim. If the claim appears on more than one panel the disclosure shall be made on each panel except for the panel that bears nutrition labeling. If the claim is made more than once on a panel, the disclosure shall be made in immediate proximity to the claim that is printed in the largest type; and
</P>
<P>(D) As required in § 101.13(j)(2) for relative claims:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The identity of the reference food and the percent (or fraction) that the cholesterol has been reduced are declared in immediate proximity to the most prominent such claim (e.g., 25 percent less cholesterol than ______); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Quantitative information comparing the level of cholesterol in the product per specified weight with that of the reference food that it replaces (e.g., “Cholesterol lowered from 30 mg to 22 mg per 3 oz of product.”) is declared adjacent to the most prominent claim or to the nutrition label, except that if the nutrition label is on the information panel, the quantitative information may be located elsewhere on the information panel in accordance with § 101.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims described in paragraph (d)(5) of this section may not be made on the label or in the labeling of a food if the nutrient content of the reference food meets the definition for “low cholesterol.”
</P>
<P>(e) “<I>Lean” and “extra lean” claims.</I> (1) The term “lean” may be used on the label or in labeling of foods except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m) provided that the food is a seafood or game meat product and as packaged contains less than 10 g total fat, 4.5 g or less saturated fat, and less than 95 mg cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed and per 100 g;
</P>
<P>(2) The term defined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section may be used on the label or in labeling of a mixed dish not measurable with a cup as defined in § 101.12(b) in table 2, provided that the food contains less than 8 g total fat, 3.5 g or less saturated fat and less than 80 mg cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed;
</P>
<P>(3) The term defined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section may be used on the label or in the labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) or main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m) provided that the food contains less than 10 g total fat, 4.5 g or less saturated fat, and less than 95 mg cholesterol per 100 g and per labeled serving;
</P>
<P>(4) The term “extra lean” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods except meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m) provided that the food is a discrete seafood or game meat product and as packaged contains less than 5 g total fat, less than 2 g saturated fat, and less than 95 mg cholesterol per reference amount customarily consumed and per 100 g; and
</P>
<P>(5) The term defined in paragraph (e)(4) of this section may be used on the label or in labeling of meal products as defined in § 101.13(l) and main dish products as defined in § 101.13(m) provided that the food contains less than 5 g of fat, less than 2 g of saturated fat, and less than 95 mg of cholesterol per 100 g and per labeled serving.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Misbranding.</I> Any label or labeling containing any statement concerning fat, fatty acids, or cholesterol that is not in conformity with this section shall be deemed to be misbranded under sections 201(n), 403(a), and 403(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17342, 17343, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44032, Aug. 18, 1993; 58 FR 60105, Nov. 15, 1993; 59 FR 394, Jan. 4, 1994; 60 FR 17207, Apr. 5, 1995; 61 FR 59001, Nov. 20, 1996; 63 FR 26980, May 15, 1998; 72 FR 1459, Jan. 12, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.65" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.65   Implied nutrient content claims and related label statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> An implied nutrient content claim can only be made on the label and in labeling of the food if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim uses one of the terms described in this section in accordance with the definition for that term;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is made in accordance with the general requirements for nutrient content claims in § 101.13, with the exception of § 101.13(h) when the nutrient content claim is made in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) The food for which the claim is made is labeled in accordance with § 101.9, § 101.10, or § 101.36, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Label statements that are not implied claims.</I> Certain label statements about the nature of a product are not nutrient content claims unless such statements are made in a context that would make them an implied claim under § 101.13(b)(2). The following types of label statements are generally not implied nutrient content claims and, as such, are not subject to the requirements of § 101.13 and this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A claim that a specific ingredient or food component is absent from a product, provided that the purpose of such claim is to facilitate avoidance of the substances because of food allergies (see § 105.62 of this chapter), food intolerance, religious beliefs, or dietary practices such as vegetarianism or other nonnutrition related reason, e.g., “100 percent milk free;”
</P>
<P>(2) A claim about a substance that is nonnutritive or that does not have a nutritive function, e.g., “contains no preservatives,” “no artificial colors;”
</P>
<P>(3) A claim about the presence of an ingredient that is perceived to add value to the product, e.g., “made with real butter,” “made with whole fruit,” or “contains honey,” except that claims about the presence of ingredients other than vitamins or minerals or that are represented as a source of vitamins and minerals are not allowed on labels or in labeling of dietary supplements of vitamins and minerals that are not in conventional food form.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of identity for a food in which an ingredient constitutes essentially 100 percent of a food (e.g., “corn oil,” “oat bran,” “dietary supplement of vitamin C 60 mg tablet”).
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of identity that names as a characterizing ingredient, an ingredient associated with a nutrient benefit (e.g., “corn oil margarine,” “oat bran muffins,” or “whole wheat bagels”), unless such claim is made in a context in which label or labeling statements, symbols, vignettes, or other forms of communication suggest that a nutrient is absent or present in a certain amount; and
</P>
<P>(6) A label statement made in compliance with a specific provision of part 105 of this chapter, solely to note that a food has special dietary usefulness relative to a physical, physiological, pathological, or other condition, where the claim identifies the special diet of which the food is intended to be a part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Particular implied nutrient content claims.</I> (1) Claims about the food or an ingredient therein that suggest that a nutrient or an ingredient is absent or present in a certain amount (e.g., “high in oat bran”) are implied nutrient content claims and must comply with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The phrases “contains the same amount of [nutrient] as a [food]” and “as much [nutrient] as a [food]” may be used on the label or in the labeling of foods, provided that the amount of the nutrient in the reference food is enough to qualify that food as a “good source” of that nutrient, and the labeled food, on a per serving basis, is an equivalent, good source of that nutrient (e.g., “as much fiber as an apple,” “Contains the same amount of Vitamin C as an 8 oz glass of orange juice.”).
</P>
<P>(3) Claims may be made that a food contains or is made with an ingredient that is known to contain a particular nutrient, or is prepared in a way that affects the content of a particular nutrient in the food, if the finished food is either “low” in or a “good source” of the nutrient that is associated with the ingredient or type of preparation. If a more specific level is claimed (e.g., “high in ______), that level of the nutrient must be present in the food. For example, a claim that a food contains oat bran is a claim that it is a good source of dietary fiber; that a food is made only with vegetable oil is a claim that it is low in saturated fat; and that a food contains no oil is a claim that it is fat free.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General nutritional claims.</I> (1) This paragraph covers labeling claims that are implied nutrient content claims because they suggest that a food may help consumers maintain healthy dietary practices due to its nutrient content, where there is also implied or explicit information about the nutrition content of the food.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a “food group equivalent” identifies qualifying amounts of foods from each food group based on nutritional content. A food group equivalent is equal to the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)(2)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food group
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food group equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Vegetable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup equivalent vegetable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup cooked green beans; 1 cup raw spinach
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Fruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup equivalent fruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup strawberries; 
<fr>1/2</fr> cup 100% orange juice; 
<fr>1/4</fr> cup raisins
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Grains</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3/4 oz equivalent whole grain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 slice of bread; 
<fr>1/2</fr> cup cooked brown rice
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Dairy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2/3 cup equivalent dairy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2/3 cup fat free milk; 1 oz nonfat cheese
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Protein foods</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
<fr>1/2</fr> oz equivalent game meat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
<fr>1/2</fr> oz venison
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent seafood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz tuna
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent egg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 large egg
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent beans, peas, or lentils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/4 cup black beans
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent nuts, seeds, or soy products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 oz walnuts</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) You may use the term “healthy” or derivative terms “health,” “healthful,” “healthfully,” “healthfulness,” “healthier,” “healthiest,” “healthily,” and “healthiness” as an implied nutrient content claim on the label or in labeling of a food that is useful in creating a diet that is consistent with dietary recommendations if the food meets the criteria of one or more of the following paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (vi) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual food or mixed product that is comprised of one or more of the following foods that are the foundation of a healthy dietary pattern, with no other added ingredients except for water:
</P>
<P>(A) Vegetable;
</P>
<P>(B) Fruit;
</P>
<P>(C) Whole grains;
</P>
<P>(D) Fat-free or low-fat dairy;
</P>
<P>(E) Lean meat, seafood, eggs, beans, peas, lentils, nuts, or seeds.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individual foods.
</P>
<P>(A) An individual food that has a reference amount customarily consumed (RACC) greater than 50 g or greater than 3 tablespoons and meets the conditions per RACC in table 2 of this section; or
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)(3)(ii)(A)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">If the food is . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">It must contain at least . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">The added sugars content must be no greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">The sodium content must be no greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">The saturated fat content must be no greater than . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Main category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sub-category
<br/>(if applicable)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) A vegetable product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup equivalent vegetable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) A fruit product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup equivalent fruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">3</E>) A grain product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3/4 oz equivalent whole grain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">4</E>) A dairy product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2/3 cup equivalent dairy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">5</E>) Protein Foods</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(i)</E> Game meats</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
<fr>1/2</fr> oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(ii)</E> Seafood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV, excluding saturated fat inherent in seafood.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(iii)</E> Egg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(iv)</E> Beans, peas, and lentils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(v)</E> Nuts, seeds, and soy products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV, excluding saturated fat inherent in nuts, seeds, and soybeans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">6</E>) Oils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(i)</E> 100% Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% of total fat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(ii)</E> Oil-based spreads whose fats come solely from oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% of total fat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(iii)</E> Oil-based dressing containing at least 30% oil and oils meet the requirements in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(A) or (B)(6)(<E T="03">i)</E> of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% of total fat.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) An individual food that has a RACC of 50 g or less or 3 tablespoons or less and meets the conditions per 50 g of food in table 3 of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)(3)(ii)(B)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">If the food is . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">It must contain at least . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">The added sugars content must be no greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">The sodium content must be no greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">The saturated fat content must be no greater than . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Main category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sub-category


<br/>(if applicable)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) A vegetable product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup equivalent vegetable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) A fruit product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2 cup equivalent fruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">3</E>) A grain product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3/4 oz equivalent whole grain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">4</E>) A dairy product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2/3 cup equivalent dairy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">5</E>) Protein Foods</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(i)</E> Game meats</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
<fr>1/2</fr> oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(ii)</E> Seafood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV, excluding saturated fat inherent in seafood.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(iii)</E> Egg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(iv)</E> Beans, peas, and lentils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(v)</E> Nuts, seeds, and soy products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 oz equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% DV, excluding saturated fat inherent in nuts, seeds, and soybeans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">6</E>) Oils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(i)</E> 100% Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% of total fat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(ii)</E> Oil-based spreads whose fats come solely from oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% of total fat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">(iii)</E> Oil-based dressing containing at least 30% oil and oils meet the requirements in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(A) or (B)(6)(<E T="03">i)</E> of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% of total fat.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) A mixed product that meets the following conditions per RACC:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraphs <E T="01">(d)(3)(iii)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the mixed product contains at least . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The added sugars content must be


<br/>no greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The sodium content


<br/>must be no

<br/>greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Excluding saturated fat inherent in


<br/>seafood, nuts, seeds, and soybeans

<br/>in soy products (if applicable),

<br/>the saturated fat content must be

<br/>no greater than . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One total food group equivalent with no less than 
<fr>1/4</fr> food group equivalent from at least two food groups, as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% DV.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) A main dish product as defined in § 101.13(m) that meets the following conditions per labeled serving:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)(3)(iv)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the main dish product contains at least . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The added sugars content must be no greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The sodium content


<br/>must be no

<br/>greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Excluding the saturated fat inherent in


<br/>seafood, nuts, seeds, and soybeans

<br/>in soy products (if applicable),

<br/>the saturated fat content must be

<br/>no greater than . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two total food group equivalents with no less than 
<fr>1/2</fr> food group equivalent from at least two food groups, as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15% DV.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) A meal product as defined in § 101.13(l) that meets the following conditions per labeled serving:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)(3)(v)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the meal product contains at least . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The added sugars content must be no


<br/>greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The sodium content


<br/>must be no

<br/>greater than . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Excluding the saturated fat inherent in


<br/>seafood, nuts, seeds, and soybeans

<br/>in soy products (if applicable),

<br/>the saturated fat content must be

<br/>no greater than . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three total food group equivalents with no less than 
<fr>1/2</fr> food group equivalent from at least three food groups, as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30% DV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% DV.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) All water, tea, and coffee with less than 5 calories per RACC and per labeled serving.
</P>
<P>(4) Each manufacturer of a food (other than foods where the standard information required on the food label, such as the list of ingredients, provides sufficient information to verify that the food meets the food group equivalent requirements to bear the claim, and foods described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (vi) of this section) that bears the implied nutrient content claim “healthy” must make and keep written records (<I>e.g.,</I> analyses of databases, recipes, formulations, information from recipes or formulations, or batch records) to verify that the food meets the food group equivalent requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section. These records must be kept for a period of at least 2 years after introduction or delivery for introduction of the food into interstate commerce. Such records must be provided to FDA upon request, during an inspection, for official review and photocopying or other means of reproduction. Records may be kept either as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records that must be kept in accordance with part 11 of this chapter. These records must be accurate, indelible, and legible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17343, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 394, Jan. 4, 1994; 59 FR 24249, May 10, 1994; 59 FR 50828, Oct. 6, 1994; 62 FR 49858, Sept. 23, 1997; 63 FR 14355, Mar. 25, 1998; 70 FR 56848, Sept. 29, 2005; 89 FR 106162, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.67" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.67   Use of nutrient content claims for butter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims may be made to characterize the level of nutrients, including fat, in butter if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim complies with the requirements of § 101.13 and with the requirements of the regulations in this subpart that define the particular nutrient content claim that is used and how it is to be presented. In determining whether a claim is appropriate, the calculation of the percent fat reduction in milkfat shall be based on the 80 percent milkfat requirement provided by the statutory standard for butter (21 U.S.C. 321a);
</P>
<P>(2) The product contains cream or milk, including milk constituents (including, but not limited to, whey, casein, modified whey, and salts of casein), or both, with or without added salt, with or without safe and suitable colorings, with or without nutrients added to comply with paragraph (a)(3) of this section, and with or without safe and suitable bacterial cultures. The product may contain safe and suitable ingredients to improve texture, prevent syneresis, add flavor, extend shelf life, improve appearance, and add sweetness. The product may contain water to replace milkfat although the amount of water in the product shall be less than the amount of cream, milk, or milk constituents;
</P>
<P>(3) The product is not nutritionally inferior, as defined in § 101.3(e)(4), to butter as produced under 21 U.S.C. 321a; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the product would violate 21 U.S.C. 321a but for the nutrient content claim that characterizes the level of nutrients, that claim shall be an explicit claim that is included as part of the common or usual name of the product.
</P>
<P>(b) Deviations from the ingredient provisions of 21 U.S.C. 321a must be the minimum necessary to achieve similar performance characteristics as butter as produced under 21 U.S.C. 321a, or the food will be deemed to be adulterated under section 402(b) of the act. The performance characteristics (e.g., physical properties, organoleptic characteristics, functional properties, shelf life) of the product shall be similar to butter as produced under 21 U.S.C. 321a. If there is a significant difference in performance characteristics (that materially limits the uses of the product compared to butter,) the label shall include a statement informing the consumer of such difference (e.g., if appropriate, “not recommended for baking purposes”). Such statement shall comply with the requirements of § 101.13(d). The modified product shall perform at least one of the principal functions of butter substantially as well as butter as produced under 21 U.S.C. 321a.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Safe and suitable ingredients added to improve texture, prevent syneresis, add flavor, extend shelf life, improve appearance, or add sweetness and water added to replace milkfat shall be identified with an asterisk in the ingredient statement. The statement “*Ingredients not in regular butter” shall immediately follow the ingredient statement in the same type size.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2455, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.69" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.69   Petitions for nutrient content claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section pertains to petitions for claims, expressed or implied, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Characterize the level of any nutrient which is of the type required to be in the label or labeling of food by section 403(q)(1) or (q)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act); and
</P>
<P>(2) That are not exempted under section 403(r)(5)(A) through (r)(5)(C) of the act from the requirements for such claims in section 403(r)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) Petitions included in this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Petitions for a new (heretofore unauthorized) nutrient content claim;
</P>
<P>(2) Petitions for a synonymous term (i.e., one that is consistent with a term defined by regulation) for characterizing the level of a nutrient; and
</P>
<P>(3) Petitions for the use of an implied claim in a brand name.
</P>
<P>(c) An original and one copy of the petition to be filed under the provisions of section 403(r)(4) of the act shall be submitted, or the petitioner may submit an original and a computer readable disk containing the petition. Contents of the disk should be in a standard format, such as ASCII format. Petitioners interested in submitting a disk should contact the Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition for details. If any part of the material submitted is in a foreign language, it shall be accompanied by an accurate and complete English translation. The petition shall state the petitioner's post office address to which published notices as required by section 403 of the act may be sent.
</P>
<P>(d) Pertinent information may be incorporated in, and will be considered as part of, a petition on the basis of specific reference to such information submitted to and retained in the files of FDA. However, any reference to unpublished information furnished by a person other than the applicant will not be considered unless use of such information is authorized (with the understanding that such information may in whole or part be subject to release to the public) in a written statement signed by the person who submitted it. Any reference to published information should be accompanied by reprints or photostatic copies of such references.
</P>
<P>(e) If nonclinical laboratory studies are included in a petition submitted under section 403(r)(4) of the act, the petition shall include, with respect to each nonclinical study contained in the petition, either a statement that the study has been, or will be, conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations as set forth in part 58 of this chapter or, if any such study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(f) If clinical investigations are included in a petition submitted under section 403(r)(4) of the act, the petition shall include a statement regarding each such clinical investigation relied upon in the petition that the study either was conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter or was not subject to such requirements in accordance with § 56.104 or § 56.105 of this chapter, and that it was conducted in compliance with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) The availability for public disclosure of petitions submitted to the agency under this section will be governed by the rules specified in § 10.20(j) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) All petitions submitted under this section shall include either a claim for a categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) The data specified under the several lettered headings should be submitted on separate sheets or sets of sheets, suitably identified. If such data have already been submitted with an earlier application from the petitioner, the present petition may incorporate it by specific reference to the earlier petition.
</P>
<P>(j) The petition must be signed by the petitioner or by his attorney or agent, or (if a corporation) by an authorized official.
</P>
<P>(k) The petition shall include a statement signed by the person responsible for the petition, that to the best of his knowledge, it is a representative and balanced submission that includes unfavorable information, as well as favorable information, known to him pertinent to the evaluation of the petition.
</P>
<P>(l) All applicable provisions of part 10—Administrative Practices and Procedures, may be used by FDA, the petitioner or any outside party with respect to any agency action on the petition.
</P>
<P>(m)(1) Petitions for a new nutrient content claim shall include the following data and be submitted in the following form.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(Date) ____________
</FP>
<FP>Name of petitioner ____________
</FP>
<FP>Post office address ____________
</FP>
<FP>Subject of the petition ____________
</FP>
<FP>Office of Nutritional Products, Labeling and Dietary Supplements (HFS-800)
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>Department of Health and Human Services,
</FP>
<FP>Washington, DC 20204.
</FP>
<FP>To Whom It May Concern:
</FP>
<P>The undersigned, ________________________ submits this petition under section 403(r)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to (statement of the claim and its proposed use).
</P>
<P>Attached hereto and constituting a part of this petition, are the following:
</P>
<P>A. A statement identifying the descriptive term and the nutrient that the term is intended to characterize with respect to the level of such nutrient. The statement should address why the use of the term as proposed will not be misleading. The statement should provide examples of the nutrient content claim as it will be used on labels or labeling, as well as the types of foods on which the claim will be used. The statement shall specify the level at which the nutrient must be present or what other conditions concerning the food must be met for the use of the term in labels or labeling to be appropriate, as well as any factors that would make the use of the term inappropriate.
</P>
<P>B. A detailed explanation, supported by any necessary data, of why use of the food component characterized by the claim is of importance in human nutrition by virtue of its presence or absence at the levels that such claim would describe. This explanation shall also state what nutritional benefit to the public will derive from use of the claim as proposed, and why such benefit is not available through the use of existing terms defined by regulation under section 403(r)(2)(A)(i) of the act. If the claim is intended for a specific group within the population, the analysis should specifically address nutritional needs of such group, and should include scientific data sufficient for such purpose.
</P>
<P>C. Analytical data that shows the amount of the nutrient that is the subject of the claim and that is present in the types of foods for which the claim is intended. The assays should be performed on representative samples using the AOAC INTERNATIONAL (AOAC International) methods where available. If no AOAC International method is available, the petitioner shall submit the assay method used, and data establishing the validity of the method for assaying the nutrient in the particular food. The validation data should include a statistical analysis of the analytical and product variability.
</P>
<P>D. A detailed analysis of the potential effect of the use of the proposed claim on food consumption and of any corresponding changes in nutrient intake. The latter item shall specifically address the intake of nutrients that have beneficial and negative consequences in the total diet. If the claim is intended for a specific group within the population, the above analysis shall specifically address the dietary practices of such group and shall include data sufficient to demonstrate that the dietary analysis is representative of such group.
</P>
<P>E. The petitioner is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Yours very truly,
</P>
<P>Petitioner ____________
</P>
<P>By ____________
</P>
<P>(Indicate authority)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Within 15 days of receipt of the petition, the petitioner will be notified by letter of the date on which the petition was received by the agency. Such notice will inform the petitioner:
</P>
<P>(i) That the petition is undergoing agency review (in which case a docket number will be assigned to the petition), and the petitioner will subsequently be notified of the agency's decision to file or deny the petition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That the petition is incomplete, e.g., it lacks any of the data required by this part, it presents such data in a manner that is not readily understood, or it has not been submitted in quadruplicate, in which case the petition will be denied, and the petitioner will be notified as to what respect the petition is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 100 days of the date of receipt of the petition, FDA will notify the petitioner by letter that the petition has either been filed or denied. If denied, the notification shall state the reasons therefor. If filed, the date of the notification letter becomes the date of filing for the purposes of section 403(r)(4)(A)(i) of the act. If FDA does not act within such 100 days, the petition shall be deemed to be denied unless an extension is mutually agreed upon by the FDA and the petitioner. A petition that has been denied, or has been deemed to be denied, without filing shall not be made available to the public. A filed petition shall be available to the public as provided under paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 90 days of the date of filing FDA will by letter of notification to the petitioner:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny the petition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the petitioner that a proposed regulation to provide for the requested use of the new term will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> FDA will publish the proposal to amend the regulations to provide for the requested use of the nutrient content claim in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 90 days of the date of filing. The proposal will also announce the availability of the petition for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) If FDA does not act within 90 days of the date of filing, the petition shall be deemed to be denied unless an extension is mutually agreed upon by FDA and the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(5) If FDA issues a proposal, the rulemaking shall be completed within 540 days of the date of receipt of the petition.
</P>
<P>(n)(1) Petitions for a synonymous term shall include the following data and be submitted in the following form.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(Date)____________
</FP>
<FP>Name of petitioner ____________
</FP>
<FP>Post office address ____________
</FP>
<FP>Subject of the petition ____________
</FP>
<FP>Office of Nutritional Products, Labeling and Dietary Supplements (HFS-800)
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>Department of Health and Human Services,
</FP>
<FP>Washington, DC 20204.
</FP>
<FP>To Whom It May Concern:
</FP>
<P>The undersigned, ____________ submits this petition under section 403(r)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to (statement of the synonymous term and its proposed use in a nutrient content claim that is consistent with an existing term that has been defined under section 403(r)(2) of the act).
</P>
<P>Attached hereto and constituting a part of this petition, are the following:
</P>
<P>A. A statement identifying the synonymous descriptive term, the existing term defined by a regulation under section 403(r)(2)(A)(i) of the act with which the synonymous term is claimed to be consistent. The statement should address why the proposed synonymous term is consistent with the term already defined by the agency, and why the use of the synonymous term as proposed will not be misleading. The statement should provide examples of the nutrient content claim as it will be used on labels or labeling, as well as the types of foods on which the claim will be used. The statement shall specify whether any limitations not applicable to the use of the defined term are intended to apply to the use of the synonymous term.
</P>
<P>B. A detailed explanation, supported by any necessary data, of why use of the proposed term is requested, including an explanation of whether the existing defined term is inadequate for the purpose of effectively characterizing the level of a nutrient. This item shall also state what nutritional benefit to the public will derive from use of the claim as proposed, and why such benefit is not available through the use of existing term defined by regulation. If the claim is intended for a specific group within the population, the analysis should specifically address nutritional needs of such group, and should include scientific data sufficient for such purpose.
</P>
<P>C. The petitioner is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Yours very truly,
</P>
<P>Petitioner ____________
</P>
<P>By ____________
</P>
<P>(Indicate authority)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Within 15 days of receipt of the petition the petitioner will be notified by letter of the date on which the petition was received. Such notice will inform the petitioner:
</P>
<P>(i) That the petition is undergoing agency review (in which case a docket number will be assigned to the petition) and the petitioner will subsequently be notified of the agency's decision to grant the petitioner permission to use the proposed term or to deny the petition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That the petition is incomplete, e.g., it lacks any of the data required by this part, it presents such data in a manner that is not readily understood, or it has not been submitted in quadruplicate, in which case the petition will be denied, and the petitioner will be notified as to what respect the petition is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 90 days of the date of receipt of the petition that is accepted for review (i.e., that has not been found to be incomplete and consequently denied, FDA will notify the petitioner by letter of the agency's decision to grant the petitioner permission to use the proposed term, with any conditions or limitations on such use specified, or to deny the petition, in which case the letter shall state the reasons therefor. Failure of the petition to fully address the requirements of this section shall be grounds for denial of the petition.
</P>
<P>(4) As soon as practicable following the agency's decision to either grant or deny the petition, FDA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> informing the public of his decision. If the petition is granted the Food and Drug Administration will list, the approved synonymous term in the regulations listing terms permitted for use in nutrient content claims.
</P>
<P>(o)(1) Petitions for the use of an implied nutrient content claim in a brand name shall include the following data and be submitted in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(Date)____________
</FP>
<FP>Name of petitioner ____________
</FP>
<FP>Post office address ____________
</FP>
<FP>Subject of the petition ____________
</FP>
<FP>Office of Nutritional Products, Labeling and Dietary Supplements (HFS-800),
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>Department of Health and Human Services,
</FP>
<FP>Washington, DC 20204.
</FP>
<FP>To Whom It May Concern:
</FP>
<P>The undersigned, ______________________ submits this petition under section 403(r)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to (statement of the implied nutrient content claim and its proposed use in a brand name).
</P>
<P>Attached hereto and constituting a part of this petition, are the following:
</P>
<P>A. A statement identifying the implied nutrient content claim, the nutrient the claim is intended to characterize, the corresponding term for characterizing the level of such nutrient as defined by a regulation under section 403(r)(2)(A)(i) of the act, and the brand name of which the implied claim is intended to be a part. The statement should address why the use of the brandname as proposed will not be misleading. It should address in particular what information is required to accompany the claim or other ways in which the claim meets the requirements of sections 201(n) and 403(a) of the act. The statement should provide examples of the types of foods on which the brand name will appear. It shall also include data showing that the actual level of the nutrient in the food qualifies the food to bear the corresponding term defined by regulation. Assay methods used to determine the level of a nutrient should meet the requirements stated under petition format item C in paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>B. A detailed explanation, supported by any necessary data, of why use of the proposed brand name is requested. This item shall also state what nutritional benefit to the public will derive from use of the brand name as proposed. If the branded product is intended for a specific group within the population, the analysis should specifically address nutritional needs of such group and should include scientific data sufficient for such purpose.
</P>
<P>C. The petitioner is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Yours very truly,
</P>
<P>Petitioner ____________
</P>
<P>By ____________</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Within 15 days of receipt of the petition the petitioner will be notified by letter of the date on which the petition was received. Such notice will inform the petitioner:
</P>
<P>(i) That the petition is undergoing agency review (in which case a docket number will be assigned to the petition); or
</P>
<P>(ii) That the petition is incomplete, e.g., it lacks any of the data required by this part, it presents such data in a manner that is not readily understood, or it has not been submitted in quadruplicate, in which case the petition will be denied, and the petitioner will be notified as to what respect the petition is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will publish a notice of the petition in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its availability to the public and seeking comment on the petition. The petition shall be available to the public to the extent provided under paragraph (g) of this section. The notice shall allow 30 days for comments.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 100 days of the date of receipt of the petition that is accepted for review (i.e., that has not been found to be incomplete and subsequently returned to the petitioner), FDA will:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the petitioner by letter of the agency's decision to grant the petitioner permission to use the proposed brand name if such use is not misleading, with any conditions or limitations on such use specified; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny the petition, in which case the letter shall state the reasons therefor. Failure of the petition to fully address the requirements of this section shall be grounds for denial of the petition. Should FDA not notify the petitioner of his decision on the petition within 100 days, the petition shall be considered to be granted.
</P>
<P>(5) As soon as practicable following the granting of a petition, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> informing the public of such fact.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2413, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17343, Apr. 2, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44033, Aug. 18, 1993; 62 FR 40598, July 29, 1997; 63 FR 26718, May 14, 1998; 63 FR 40024, July 27, 1998; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002; 69 FR 16481, Mar. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Specific Requirements for Health Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.70" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.70   Petitions for health claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person may petition the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to issue a regulation regarding a health claim. An original and one copy of the petition shall be submitted, or the petitioner may submit an original and a computer readable disk containing the petition. Contents of the disk should be in a standard format, such as ASCII format. (Petitioners interested in submitting a disk should contact the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition for details.) If any part of the material submitted is in a foreign language, it shall be accompanied by an accurate and complete English translation. The petition shall state the petitioner's post office address to which any correspondence required by section 403 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act may be sent.
</P>
<P>(b) Pertinent information may be incorporated in, and will be considered as part of, a petition on the basis of specific reference to such information submitted to and retained in the files of FDA. Such information may include any findings, along with the basis of the findings, of an outside panel with expertise in the subject area. Any reference to published information shall be accompanied by reprints, or easily readable copies of such information.
</P>
<P>(c) If nonclinical laboratory studies are included in a petition, the petition shall include, with respect to each nonclinical study contained in the petition, either a statement that the study has been conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations as set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if any such study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(d) If clinical or other human investigations are included in a petition, the petition shall include a statement that they were either conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or were not subject to such requirements in accordance with § 56.104 or § 56.105, and a statement that they were conducted in compliance with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) All data and information in a health claim petition are available for public disclosure after the notice of filing of petition is issued to the petitioner, except that clinical investigation reports, adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information shall only be available after deletion of:
</P>
<P>(1) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product.
</P>
<P>(2) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution.
</P>
<P>(f) Petitions for a health claim shall include the following data and be submitted in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(Date)____________
</FP>
<FP>Name of petitioner ____________
</FP>
<FP>Post office address ____________
</FP>
<FP>Subject of the petition ____________
</FP>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration,
</FP>
<FP>Office of Nutritional Products, Labeling and Dietary Supplements (HFS-800),
</FP>
<FP>5001 Campus Dr.,
</FP>
<FP>College Park, MD 20740,
</FP>
<P>The undersigned, __________________ submits this petition pursuant to section 403(r)(4) or 403(r)(5)(D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to (statement of the substance and its health claim).
</P>
<P>Attached hereto, and constituting a part of this petition, are the following:
</P>
<P>A. Preliminary requirements. A complete explanation of how the substance conforms to the requirements of § 101.14(b) (21 CFR 101.14(b)). For petitions where the subject substance is a food ingredient or a component of a food ingredient, the petitioner should compile a comprehensive list of the specific ingredients that will be added to the food to supply the substance in the food bearing the health claim. For each such ingredient listed, the petitioner should state how the ingredient complies with the requirements of § 101.14(b)(3)(ii), e.g., that its use is generally recognized as safe (GRAS), listed as a food additive, or authorized by a prior sanction issued by the agency, and what the basis is for the GRAS claim, the food additive status, or prior sanctioned status.
</P>
<P>B. Summary of scientific data. The summary of scientific data provides the basis upon which authorizing a health claim can be justified as providing the health benefit. The summary must establish that, based on the totality of publicly available scientific evidence (including evidence from well-designed studies conducted in a manner which is consistent with generally recognized scientific procedures and principles), there is significant scientific agreement among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate such claims, that the claim is supported by such evidence.
</P>
<P>The summary shall state what public health benefit will derive from use of the claim as proposed. If the claim is intended for a specific group within the population, the summary shall specifically address nutritional needs of such group and shall include scientific data showing how the claim is likely to assist in meeting such needs.
</P>
<P>The summary shall concentrate on the findings of appropriate review articles, National Institutes of Health consensus development conferences, and other appropriate resource materials. Issues addressed in the summary shall include answers to such questions as:
</P>
<P>1. Is there an optimum level of the particular substance to be consumed beyond which no benefit would be expected?
</P>
<P>2. Is there any level at which an adverse effect from the substance or from foods containing the substance occurs for any segment of the population?
</P>
<P>3. Are there certain populations that must receive special consideration?
</P>
<P>4. What other nutritional or health factors (both positive and negative) are important to consider when consuming the substance?
</P>
<P>In addition, the summary of scientific data shall include a detailed analysis of the potential effect of the use of the proposed claim on food consumption, specifically any change due to significant alterations in eating habits and corresponding changes in nutrient intake resulting from such changes in food consumption. The latter item shall specifically address the effect on the intake of nutrients that have beneficial and negative consequences in the total diet.
</P>
<P>If the claim is intended for a significant subpopulation within the general U.S. population, the analysis shall specifically address the dietary practices of such group, and shall include data sufficient to demonstrate that the dietary analysis is representative of such group (e.g., adolescents or the elderly).
</P>
<P>If appropriate, the petition shall explain the prevalence of the disease or health-related condition in the U.S. population and the relevance of the claim in the context of the total daily diet.
</P>
<P>Also, the summary shall demonstrate that the substance that is the subject of the proposed claim conforms to the definition of the term “substance” in § 101.14(a)(2).
</P>
<P>C. Analytical data that show the amount of the substance that is present in representative foods that would be candidates to bear the claim should be obtained from representative samples using methods from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL (AOAC), where available. If no AOAC method is available, the petitioner shall submit the assay method used and data establishing the validity of the method for assaying the substance in food. The validation data should include a statistical analysis of the analytical and product variability.
</P>
<P>D. Model health claim. One or more model health claims that represent label statements that may be used on a food label or in labeling for a food to characterize the relationship between the substance in a food to a disease or health-related condition that is justified by the summary of scientific data provided in section C of the petition. The model health claim shall include:
</P>
<P>1. A brief capsulized statement of the relevant conclusions of the summary, and
</P>
<P>2. A statement of how this substance helps the consumer to attain a total dietary pattern or goal associated with the health benefit that is provided.
</P>
<P>E. The petition shall include the following attachments:
</P>
<P>1. Copies of any computer literature searches done by the petitioner (e.g., Medline).
</P>
<P>2. Copies of articles cited in the literature searches and other information as follows:
</P>
<P>a. All information relied upon for the support of the health claim, including copies of publications or other information cited in review articles and used to perform meta-analyses.
</P>
<P>b. All information concerning adverse consequences to any segment of the population (e.g., sensitivity to the substance).
</P>
<P>c. All information pertaining to the U.S. population.
</P>
<P>F. The petitioner is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Yours very truly,
</P>
<P>Petitioner ____________
</P>
<P>By ____________
</P>
<P>(Indicate authority)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) The data specified under the several lettered headings should be submitted on separate pages or sets of pages, suitably identified. If such data have already been submitted with an earlier application from the petitioner or any other final petition, the present petition may incorporate it by specific reference to the earlier petition.
</P>
<P>(h) The petition shall include a statement signed by the person responsible for the petition that, to the best of his/her knowledge, it is a representative and balanced submission that includes unfavorable information as well as favorable information, known to him/her to be pertinent to the evaluation of the proposed health claim.
</P>
<P>(i) The petition shall be signed by the petitioner or by his/her attorney or agent, or (if a corporation) by an authorized official.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Agency action on the petition.</I> (1) Within 15 days of receipt of the petition, the petitioner will be notified by letter of the date on which the petition was received. Such notice will inform the petitioner that the petition is undergoing agency review and that the petitioner will subsequently be notified of the agency's decision to file for comprehensive review or deny the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 100 days of the date of receipt of the petition, FDA will notify the petitioner by letter that the petition has either been filed for comprehensive review or denied. The agency will deny a petition without reviewing the information contained in “B. Summary of Scientific Data” if the information in “A. Preliminary Requirements” is inadequate in explaining how the substance conforms to the requirements of § 101.14(b). If the petition is denied, the notification will state the reasons therefor, including justification of the rejection of any report from an authoritative scientific body of the U.S. Government. If filed, the date of the notification letter becomes the date of filing for the purposes of this regulation. If FDA does not act within such 100 days, the petition shall be deemed to be denied unless an extension is mutually agreed upon by FDA and the petitioner. A petition that has been denied, or has been deemed to be denied, without filing will not be made available to the public. A filed petition will be available to the public to the extent provided under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 90 days of the date of filing, FDA will by letter of notification to the petitioner:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny the petition, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the petitioner that a proposed regulation to provide for the requested use of the health claim will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If the petition is denied, the notification will state the reasons therefor, including justification for the rejection of any report from an authoritative scientific body of the U.S. Government. FDA will publish the proposal to amend the regulations to provide for the requested use of the health claim in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 90 days of the date of filing. The proposal will also announce the availability of the petition for public review.
</P>
<P>(iii) If FDA does not act within 90 days of the date of filing, the petition shall be deemed to be denied unless an extension is mutually agreed upon by FDA and the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Within 270 of the date of publication of the proposal, FDA will publish a final rule that either authorizes use of the health claim or explains why the agency has decided not to authorize one.
</P>
<P>(ii) For cause, FDA may extend, no more than twice, the period in which it will publish a final rule; each such extension will be for no more than 90 days. FDA will publish a notice of each extension in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The document will state the basis for the extension, the length of the extension, and the date by which the final rule will be published, which date shall be within 540 days of the date of receipt of the petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2534, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17097, Apr. 1, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 425, Jan. 4, 1994; 62 FR 28232, May 22, 1997; 62 FR 40599, July 29, 1997; 63 FR 26719, May 14, 1998; 63 FR 40024, July 27, 1998; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.71" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.71   Health claims: claims not authorized.</HEAD>
<P>Health claims not authorized for foods in conventional food form or for dietary supplements of vitamins, minerals, herbs, or other similar substances:
</P>
<P>(a) Dietary fiber and cardiovascular disease.
</P>
<P>(b) Zinc and immune function in the elderly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2534, Jan. 6, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 2548, 2578, 2620, 2639, 2664, 2714, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17100, Apr. 1, 1993; 59 FR 437, Jan. 4, 1994; 65 FR 58918, Oct. 3, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.72" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.72   Health claims: calcium, vitamin D, and osteoporosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between calcium, vitamin D, and osteoporosis.</I> An inadequate intake of calcium or calcium and vitamin D contributes to low peak bone mass, which has been identified as one of many risk factors in the development of osteoporosis. Peak bone mass is the total quantity of bone present at maturity, and experts believe that it has the greatest bearing on whether a person will be at risk of developing osteoporosis and related bone fractures later in life. Another factor that influences total bone mass and susceptibility to osteoporosis is the rate of bone loss after skeletal maturity. Vitamin D is required for normal absorption of calcium and to prevent the occurrence of high serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) concentration, which stimulates mobilization of calcium from the skeleton and can lower bone mass. Calcium, along with vitamin D and several other nutrients, is required for normal bone mineralization. While vitamin D is required for optimal bone mineralization, it is more effective when calcium intake is adequate. An adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D is thought to exert a positive effect during adolescence and early adulthood in optimizing the amount of bone that is laid down. However, the upper limit of peak bone mass is genetically determined. The mechanism through which adequate intakes of calcium and vitamin D and optimal peak bone mass reduce the risk of osteoporosis is thought to be as follows. All persons lose bone with age. Hence, those with higher bone mass at maturity take longer to reach the critically reduced mass at which bones can fracture easily. The rate of bone loss after skeletal maturity also influences the amount of bone present at old age and can influence an individual's risk of developing osteoporosis. Maintenance of adequate intakes of calcium and vitamin D later in life is thought to be important in reducing the rate of bone loss particularly in the elderly and in women during the first decade following menopause, but a significant protective effect is also seen among men and younger women.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of calcium or calcium and vitamin D.</I> Adequate calcium intake, or adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, is not the only recognized risk factor in the development of osteoporosis, which is a multifactorial bone disease. Maintenance of adequate calcium and vitamin D intakes throughout life is necessary to achieve optimal peak bone mass and to reduce the risk of osteoporosis in later life. However, vitamin D is most effective in this regard when calcium intake is adequate. Increasing intake of calcium has been shown to have beneficial effects on bone health independent of dietary vitamin D.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating calcium or, when appropriate, calcium and vitamin D with a reduced risk of osteoporosis may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (d)(1) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim makes clear the importance of adequate calcium intake, or when appropriate, adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, throughout life, in a healthful diet, are essential to reduce osteoporosis risk. The claim does not imply that adequate calcium intake, or when appropriate, adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, is the only recognized risk factor for the development of osteoporosis;
</P>
<P>(B) The claim does not attribute any degree of reduction in risk of osteoporosis to maintaining an adequate dietary calcium intake, or when appropriate, an adequate dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, throughout life.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> (A) The food shall meet or exceed the requirements for a “high” level of calcium as defined in § 101.54(b);
</P>
<P>(B) The calcium content of the product shall be assimilable;
</P>
<P>(C) Dietary supplements shall meet the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standards for disintegration and dissolution applicable to their component calcium salts, except that dietary supplements for which no USP standards exist shall exhibit appropriate assimilability under the conditions of use stated on the product label;
</P>
<P>(D) A food or total daily recommended supplement intake shall not contain more phosphorus than calcium on a weight per weight basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may include the term “vitamin D” if the food meets or exceeds the requirements for a “high” level of vitamin D as defined in § 101.54(b);
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may make reference to physical activity.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States, including the number of people in certain subpopulations in the United States, who have osteoporosis or low bone density. The sources of this information must be identified, and it must be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or the National Osteoporosis Foundation.
</P>
<P>(5) The claim may state that the role of adequate calcium intake, or when appropriate, the role of adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, throughout life is linked to reduced risk of osteoporosis through the mechanism of optimizing peak bone mass during adolescence and early adulthood. The phrase “build and maintain good bone health” may be used to convey the concept of optimizing peak bone mass. The claim may also state that adequate intake of calcium, or when appropriate, adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D, is linked to reduced risk of osteoporosis through the mechanism of slowing the rate of bone loss for persons with a family history of the disease, post-menopausal women, and elderly men and women.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claims.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between calcium and osteoporosis:
</P>
<FP>Adequate calcium throughout life, as part of a well-balanced diet, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
</FP>
<FP>Adequate calcium as part of a healthful diet, along with physical activity, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in later life.
</FP>
<P>(f) <I>Model additional health claims for calcium and vitamin D.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between calcium, vitamin D, and osteoporosis:
</P>
<FP>Adequate calcium and vitamin D throughout life, as part of a well-balanced diet, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
</FP>
<FP>Adequate calcium and vitamin D as part of a healthful diet, along with physical activity, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in later life.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 56486, Sept. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.73" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.73   Health claims: dietary lipids and cancer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between fat and cancer.</I> (1) Cancer is a constellation of more than 100 different diseases, each characterized by the uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells. Cancer has many causes and stages in its development. Both genetic and environmental risk factors may affect the risk of cancer. Risk factors include a family history of a specific type of cancer, cigarette smoking, alcohol consumption, overweight and obesity, ultraviolet or ionizing radiation, exposure to cancer-causing chemicals, and dietary factors.
</P>
<P>(2) Among dietary factors, the strongest positive association has been found between total fat intake and risk of some types of cancer. Based on the totality of the publicly available scientific evidence, there is significant scientific agreement among experts, qualified by training and experience to evaluate such evidence, that diets high in total fat are associated with an increased cancer risk. Research to date, although not conclusive, demonstrates that the total amount of fats, rather than any specific type of fat, is positively associated with cancer risk. The mechanism by which total fat affects cancer has not yet been established.
</P>
<P>(3) A question that has been the subject of considerable research is whether the effect of fat on cancer is site-specific. Neither human nor animal studies are consistent in the association of fat intake with specific cancer sites.
</P>
<P>(4) Another question that has been raised is whether the association of total fat intake to cancer risk is independently associated with energy intakes, or whether the association of fat with cancer risk is the result of the higher energy (caloric) intake normally associated with high fat intake. FDA has concluded that evidence from both animal and human studies indicates that total fat intake alone, independent of energy intake, is associated with cancer risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between fat intake and risk of cancer.</I> (1) Cancer is ranked as a leading cause of death in the United States. The overall economic costs of cancer, including direct health care costs and losses due to morbidity and mortality, are very high.
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. diets tend to be high in fat and high in calories. The average U.S. diet is estimated to contain 36 to 37 percent of calories from total fat. Current dietary guidelines from the Federal Government and other national health professional organizations recommend that dietary fat intake be reduced to a level of 30 percent or less of energy (calories) from total fat. In order to reduce intake of total fat, individuals should choose diets which are high in vegetables, fruits, and grain products (particularly whole grain products), choose lean cuts of meats, fish, and poultry, substitute low-fat dairy products for higher fat products, and use fats and oils sparingly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets low in fat with reduced risk of cancer may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets low in fat “may” or “might” reduce the risk of some cancers;
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “some types of cancer” or “some cancers”;
</P>
<P>(C) In specifying the nutrient, the claim uses the term “total fat” or “fat”;
</P>
<P>(D) The claim does not specify types of fat or fatty acid that may be related to the risk of cancer;
</P>
<P>(E) The claim does not attribute any degree of cancer risk reduction to diets low in fat; and
</P>
<P>(F) The claim indicates that the development of cancer depends on many factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> The food shall meet all of the nutrient content requirements of § 101.62 for a “low fat” food; except that fish and game meats (i.e., deer, bison, rabbit, quail, wild turkey, geese, ostrich) may meet the requirements for “extra lean” in § 101.62.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may identify one or more of the following risk factors for development of cancer: Family history of a specific type of cancer, cigarette smoking, alcohol consumption, overweight and obesity, ultraviolet or ionizing radiation, exposure to cancer-causing chemicals, and dietary factors.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section which summarize the relationship between dietary fat and cancer and the significance of the relationship.
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may indicate that it is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have cancer. The sources of this information must be identified, and it must be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” USDA and DHHS, Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claims.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between dietary fat and cancer:
</P>
<P>(1) Development of cancer depends on many factors. A diet low in total fat may reduce the risk of some cancers.
</P>
<P>(2) Eating a healthful diet low in fat may help reduce the risk of some types of cancers. Development of cancer is associated with many factors, including a family history of the disease, cigarette smoking, and what you eat.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2801, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17343, Apr. 2, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.74" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.74   Health claims: sodium and hypertension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between sodium and hypertension (high blood pressure).</I> (1) Hypertension, or high blood pressure, generally means a systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) or a diastolic blood pressure of greater than 90 mm Hg. Normotension, or normal blood pressure, is a systolic blood pressure below 140 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure below 90 mm Hg. Sodium is specified here as the chemical entity or electrolyte “sodium” and is distinguished from sodium chloride, or salt, which is 39 percent sodium by weight.
</P>
<P>(2) The scientific evidence establishes that diets high in sodium are associated with a high prevalence of hypertension or high blood pressure and with increases in blood pressure with age, and that diets low in sodium are associated with a low prevalence of hypertension or high blood pressure and with a low or no increase of blood pressure with age.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of sodium in relation to high blood pressure.</I> (1) High blood pressure is a public health concern primarily because it is a major risk factor for mortality from coronary heart disease and stroke. Early management of high blood pressure is a major public health goal that can assist in reducing mortality associated with coronary heart disease and stroke. There is a continuum of mortality risk that increases as blood pressures rise. Individuals with high blood pressure are at greatest risk, and individuals with moderately high, high normal, and normal blood pressure are at steadily decreasing risk. The scientific evidence indicates that reducing sodium intake lowers blood pressure and associated risks in many but not all hypertensive individuals. There is also evidence that reducing sodium intake lowers blood pressure and associated risks in many but not all normotensive individuals as well.
</P>
<P>(2) The populations at greatest risk for high blood pressure, and those most likely to benefit from sodium reduction, include those with family histories of high blood pressure, the elderly, males because they develop hypertension earlier in life than females, and black males and females. Although some population groups are at greater risk than others, high blood-pressure is a disease of public health concern for all population groups. Sodium intake, alcohol consumption, and obesity are identified risk factors for high blood pressure.
</P>
<P>(3) Sodium intakes exceed recommended levels in almost every group in the United States. One of the major public health recommendations relative to high blood pressure is to decrease consumption of salt. On a population-wide basis, reducing the average sodium intake would have a small but significant effect on reducing the average blood pressure, and, consequently, reducing mortality from coronary heart disease and stroke.
</P>
<P>(4) Sodium is an essential nutrient, and experts have recommended a safe minimum level of 500 milligrams (mg) sodium per day and an upper level of 2,400 mg sodium per day, the FDA Daily Value for sodium.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets low in sodium with reduced risk of high blood pressure may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets low in sodium “may” or “might” reduce the risk of high blood pressure;
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the term “high blood pressure”;
</P>
<P>(C) In specifying the nutrient, the claim uses the term “sodium”;
</P>
<P>(D) The claim does not attribute any degree of reduction in risk of high blood pressure to diets low in sodium; and
</P>
<P>(E) The claim indicates that development of high blood pressure depends on many factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> The food shall meet all of the nutrient content requirements of § 101.61 for a “low sodium” food.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may identify one or more of the following risk factors for development of high blood pressure in addition to dietary sodium consumption: Family history of high blood pressure, growing older, alcohol consumption, and excess weight.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarizes the relationship between dietary sodium and high blood pressure and the significance of the relationship.
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have high blood pressure. The sources of this information must be identified, and it must be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may indicate that it is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: U.S. Dietary Guidelines for Americans, DHHS and USDA, Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(5) In specifying the nutrient, the claim may include the term “salt” in addition to the term “sodium.”
</P>
<P>(6) In specifying the disease, the claim may include the term “hypertension” in addition to the term “high blood pressure.”
</P>
<P>(7) The claim may state that individuals with high blood pressure should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment. If the claim defines high or normal blood pressure, then the health claim must state that individuals with high blood pressure should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claims.</I> The following are model health claims that may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between dietary sodium and high blood pressure:
</P>
<P>(1) Diets low in sodium may reduce the risk of high blood pressure, a disease associated with many factors.
</P>
<P>(2) Development of hypertension or high blood pressure depends on many factors. [This product] can be part of a low sodium, low salt diet that might reduce the risk of hypertension or high blood pressure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2836, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17100, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.75" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.75   Health claims: dietary saturated fat and cholesterol and risk of coronary heart disease.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between dietary saturated fat and cholesterol and risk of coronary heart disease.</I> (1) Cardiovascular disease means diseases of the heart and circulatory system. Coronary heart disease is the most common and serious form of cardiovascular disease and refers to diseases of the heart muscle and supporting blood vessels. High blood total- and low density lipoprotein (LDL)- cholesterol levels are major modifiable risk factors in the development of coronary heart disease. High coronary heart disease rates occur among people with high blood cholesterol levels of 240 milligrams/decaliter (mg/dL) (6.21 millimoles per liter (mmol/L)) or above and LDL-cholesterol levels of 160 mg/dL (4.13 mmol/L) or above. Borderline high risk blood cholesterol levels range from 200 to 239 mg/dL (5.17 to 6.18 mmol/L) and 130 to 159 mg/dL (3.36 to 4.11 mmol/L) of LDL-cholesterol. Dietary lipids (fats) include fatty acids and cholesterol. Total fat, commonly referred to as fat, is composed of saturated fat (fatty acids containing no double bonds), and monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fat (fatty acids containing one or more double bonds).
</P>
<P>(2) The scientific evidence establishes that diets high in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with increased levels of blood total- and LDL-cholesterol and, thus, with increased risk of coronary heart disease. Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with decreased levels of blood total- and LDL-cholesterol, and thus, with decreased risk of developing coronary heart disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between dietary saturated fat and cholesterol and risk of coronary heart disease.</I> (1) Coronary heart disease is a major public health concern in the United States, primarily because it accounts for more deaths than any other disease or group of diseases. Early management of risk factors for coronary heart disease is a major public health goal that can assist in reducing risk of coronary heart disease. There is a continuum of mortality risk from coronary heart disease that increases with increasing levels of blood LDL-cholesterol. Individuals with high blood LDL-cholesterol are at greatest risk. A larger number of individuals with more moderately elevated cholesterol also have increased risk of coronary events; such individuals comprise a substantial proportion of the adult U.S. population. The scientific evidence indicates that reducing saturated fat and cholesterol intakes lowers blood LDL-cholesterol and risk of heart disease in most individuals. There is also evidence that reducing saturated fat and cholesterol intakes in persons with blood cholesterol levels in the normal range also reduces risk of heart disease.
</P>
<P>(2) Other risk factors for coronary heart disease include a family history of heart disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, cigarette smoking, obesity (body weight 30 percent greater than ideal body weight), and lack of regular physical exercise.
</P>
<P>(3) Intakes of saturated fat exceed recommended levels in many people in the United States. Intakes of cholesterol are, on average, at or above recommended levels. One of the major public health recommendations relative to coronary heart disease risk is to consume less than 10 percent of calories from saturated fat, and an average of 30 percent or less of total calories from all fat. Recommended daily cholesterol intakes are 300 mg or less per day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met, except § 101.14(e)(6) with respect to a raw fruit or vegetable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol with reduced risk of coronary heart disease may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol “may” or “might” reduce the risk of heart disease;
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the terms “heart disease” or “coronary heart disease;”
</P>
<P>(C) In specifying the nutrient, the claim uses the terms “saturated fat” and “cholesterol” and lists both;
</P>
<P>(D) The claim does not attribute any degree of risk reduction for coronary heart disease to diets low in dietary saturated fat and cholesterol; and
</P>
<P>(E) The claim states that coronary heart disease risk depends on many factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> (A) The food shall meet all of the nutrient content requirements of § 101.62 for a “low saturated fat” and “low cholesterol” food.
</P>
<P>(B) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirements of § 101.62 for a “low fat” food, unless it is a raw fruit or vegetable; except that fish and game meats (<I>i.e.,</I> deer, bison, rabbit, quail, wild turkey, geese, and ostrich) may meet the requirements for “extra lean” in § 101.62.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may identify one or more of the following risk factors in addition to saturated fat and cholesterol about which there is general scientific agreement that they are major risk factors for this disease: A family history of coronary heart disease, elevated blood total and LDL-cholesterol, excess body weight, high blood pressure, cigarette smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may indicate that the relationship of saturated fat and cholesterol to heart disease is through the intermediate link of “blood cholesterol” or “blood total- and LDL cholesterol.”
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarize the relationship between dietary saturated fat and cholesterol and risk of coronary heart disease, and the significance of the relationship.
</P>
<P>(4) In specifying the nutrients, the claim may include the term “total fat” in addition to the terms “saturated fat” and “cholesterol”.
</P>
<P>(5) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have coronary heart disease. The sources of this information shall be identified, and it shall be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(6) The claim may indicate that it is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” DHHS and USDA, Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(7) The claim may state that individuals with elevated blood total- or LDL-cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment. If the claim defines high or normal blood total- or LDL-cholesterol levels, then the claim shall state that individuals with high blood cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claims.</I>The following are model health claims that may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between dietary saturated fat and cholesterol and risk of heart disease:
</P>
<P>(1) While many factors affect heart disease, diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of this disease;
</P>
<P>(2) Development of heart disease depends upon many factors, but its risk may be reduced by diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and healthy lifestyles;
</P>
<P>(3) Development of heart disease depends upon many factors, including a family history of the disease, high blood LDL-cholesterol, diabetes, high blood pressure, being overweight, cigarette smoking, lack of exercise, and the type of dietary pattern. A healthful diet low in saturated fat, total fat, and cholesterol, as part of a healthy lifestyle, may lower blood cholesterol levels and may reduce the risk of heart disease;
</P>
<P>(4) Many factors, such as a family history of the disease, increased blood- and LDL-cholesterol levels, high blood pressure, cigarette smoking, diabetes, and being overweight, contribute to developing heart disease. A diet low in saturated fat, cholesterol, and total fat may help reduce the risk of heart disease; and
</P>
<P>(5) Diets low in saturated fat, cholesterol, and total fat may reduce the risk of heart disease. Heart disease is dependent upon many factors, including diet, a family history of the disease, elevated blood LDL-cholesterol levels, and physical inactivity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2757, Jan. 6, 1993, as amended at 81 FR 91722, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.76" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.76   Health claims: fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables and cancer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables and cancer risk.</I> (1) Cancer is a constellation of more than 100 different diseases, each characterized by the uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells. Cancer has many causes and stages in its development. Both genetic and environmental risk factors may affect the risk of cancer. Risk factors include: A family history of a specific type of cancer, cigarette smoking, overweight and obesity, alcohol consumption, ultraviolet or ionizing radiation, exposure to cancer-causing chemicals, and dietary factors.
</P>
<P>(2) The scientific evidence establishes that diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables are associated with a reduced risk of some types of cancer. Although the specific role of total dietary fiber, fiber components, and the multiple nutrients and other substances contained in these foods are not yet fully understood, many studies have shown that diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing foods are associated with reduced risk of some types of cancer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between consumption of diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables and risk of cancer.</I> (1) Cancer is ranked as a leading cause of death in the United States. The overall economic costs of cancer, including direct health care costs and losses due to morbidity and mortality, are very high.
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. diets tend to be high in fat and low in grain products, fruits, and vegetables. Studies in various parts of the world indicate that populations who habitually consume a diet high in plant foods have lower risks of some cancers. These diets generally are low in fat and rich in many nutrients, including, but not limited to, dietary fiber. Current dietary guidelines from Federal government agencies and nationally recognized health professional organizations recommend decreased consumption of fats (less than 30 percent of calories), maintenance of desirable body weight, and increased consumption of fruits and vegetables (five or more servings daily), and grain products (six or more servings daily).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables with reduced risk of cancer may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables “may” or “might” reduce the risk of some cancers;
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “some types of cancer,” or “some cancers”;
</P>
<P>(C) The claim is limited to grain products, fruits, and vegetables that contain dietary fiber;
</P>
<P>(D) The claim indicates that development of cancer depends on many factors;
</P>
<P>(E) The claim does not attribute any degree of cancer risk reduction to diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables;
</P>
<P>(F) In specifying the dietary fiber component of the labeled food, the claim uses the term “fiber”, “dietary fiber” or “total dietary fiber”; and
</P>
<P>(G) The claim does not specify types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> (A) The food shall be or shall contain a grain product, fruit, or vegetable.
</P>
<P>(B) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirements of § 101.62 for a “low fat” food.
</P>
<P>(C) The food shall meet, without fortification, the nutrient content requirements of § 101.54 for a “good source” of dietary fiber.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarize the relationship between diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables, and some types of cancer and the significance of the relationship.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may identify one or more of the following risk factors for development of cancer: Family history of a specific type of cancer, cigarette smoking, overweight and obesity, alcohol consumption, ultraviolet or ionizing radiation, exposure to cancer causing chemicals, and dietary factors.
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may indicate that it is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have cancer. The sources of this information must be identified, and it must be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” USDA and DHHS, Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claims.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to characterize the relationship between diets low in fat and high in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables and cancer risk:
</P>
<P>(1) Low fat diets rich in fiber-containing grain products, fruits, and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors.
</P>
<P>(2) Development of cancer depends on many factors. Eating a diet low in fat and high in grain products, fruits, and vegetables that contain dietary fiber may reduce your risk of some cancers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2548, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.77" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.77   Health claims: fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber, particularly soluble fiber, and risk of coronary heart disease.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber, particularly soluble fiber, and risk of coronary heart disease.</I> (1) Cardiovascular disease means diseases of the heart and circulatory system. Coronary heart disease is the most common and serious form of cardiovascular disease and refers to diseases of the heart muscle and supporting blood vessels. High blood total- and low density lipoprotein (LDL)- cholesterol levels are major modifiable risk factors in the development of coronary heart disease. High coronary heart disease rates occur among people with high blood cholesterol levels of 240 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) (6.21 (mmol/L)) or above and LDL-cholesterol levels of 160 mg/dL (4.13 mmol/L) or above. Borderline high risk blood cholesterol levels range from 200 to 239 mg/dL (5.17 to 6.18 mmol/L) and 130 to 159 mg/dL (3.36 to 4.11 mmol/L) of LDL-cholesterol. Dietary lipids (fats) include fatty acids and cholesterol. Total fat, commonly referred to as fat, is composed of saturated fat (fatty acids containing no double bonds), and monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fat (fatty acids containing one or more double bonds).
</P>
<P>(2) The scientific evidence establishes that diets high in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with increased levels of blood total- and LDL-cholesterol and, thus, with increased risk of coronary heart disease. Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with decreased levels of blood total- and LDL-cholesterol, and thus, with decreased risk of developing coronary heart disease.
</P>
<P>(3) Populations with relatively low blood cholesterol levels tend to have dietary patterns that are not only low in total fat, especially saturated fat and cholesterol, but are also relatively high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products. Although the specific roles of these plant foods are not yet fully understood, many studies have shown that diets high in plant foods are associated with reduced risk of coronary heart disease. These studies correlate diets rich in fruits, vegetables, and grain products and nutrients from these diets, such as some types of fiber, with reduced coronary heart disease risk. Persons consuming these diets frequently have high intakes of dietary fiber, particularly soluble fibers. Currently, there is not scientific agreement as to whether a particular type of soluble fiber is beneficial, or whether the observed protective effects of fruits, vegetables, and grain products against heart disease are due to other components, or a combination of components, in these diets, including, but not necessarily limited to, some types of soluble fiber, other fiber components, other characteristics of the complex carbohydrate content of these foods, other nutrients in these foods, or displacement of saturated fat and cholesterol from the diet.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol, and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber, particularly soluble fiber, and risk of coronary heart disease.</I> (1) Coronary heart disease is a major public health concern in the United States, primarily because it accounts for more deaths than any other disease or group of diseases. Early management of risk factors for coronary heart disease is a major public health goal that can assist in reducing risk of coronary heart disease. There is a continuum of mortality risk from coronary heart disease that increases with increasing levels of blood LDL-cholesterol. Individuals with high blood LDL-cholesterol are at greatest risk. A larger number of individuals with more moderately elevated cholesterol also have increased risk of coronary events; such individuals comprise a substantial proportion of the adult U.S. population. The scientific evidence indicates that reducing saturated fat and cholesterol intakes lowers blood LDL-cholesterol and risk of heart disease in most individuals, including persons with blood cholesterol levels in the normal range. Additionally, consuming diets high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products, foods that contain soluble fiber, may be a useful adjunct to a low saturated fat and low cholesterol diet.
</P>
<P>(2) Other risk factors for coronary heart disease include a family history of heart disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, cigarette smoking, obesity (body weight 30 percent greater than ideal body weight), and lack of regular physical exercise.
</P>
<P>(3) Intakes of saturated fat exceed recommended levels in many people in the United States. Intakes of cholesterol are, on average, at or above recommended levels. Intakes of fiber-containing fruits, vegetables, and grain products are about half of recommended intake levels. One of the major public health recommendations relative to coronary heart disease risk is to consume less than 10 percent of calories from saturated fat, and an average of 30 percent or less of total calories from all fat. Recommended daily cholesterol intakes are 300 mg or less per day. Recommended total dietary fiber intakes are about 25 grams (g) daily, of which about 25 percent (about 6 g) should be soluble fiber.
</P>
<P>(4) Current dietary guidance recommendations encourage decreased consumption of dietary fat, especially saturated fat and cholesterol, and increased consumption of fiber-rich foods to help lower blood LDL-cholesterol levels. Results of numerous studies have shown that fiber-containing fruits, vegetables, and grain products can help lower blood LDL-cholesterol.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber, particularly soluble fiber, with reduced risk of heart disease may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber “may” or “might” reduce the risk of heart disease;
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “heart disease” or “coronary heart disease;”
</P>
<P>(C) The claim is limited to those fruits, vegetables, and grains that contain fiber;
</P>
<P>(D) In specifying the dietary fiber, the claim uses the term “fiber,” “dietary fiber,” “some types of dietary fiber,” “some dietary fibers,” or “some fibers;” the term “soluble fiber” may be used in addition to these terms;
</P>
<P>(E) In specifying the fat component, the claim uses the terms “saturated fat” and “cholesterol;” and
</P>
<P>(F) The claim indicates that development of heart disease depends on many factors; and
</P>
<P>(G) The claim does not attribute any degree of risk reduction for coronary heart disease to diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> (A) The food shall be or shall contain a fruit, vegetable, or grain product.
</P>
<P>(B) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirements of § 101.62 for a “low saturated fat,” “low cholesterol,” and “low fat” food.
</P>
<P>(C) The food contains, without fortification, at least 0.6 g of soluble fiber per reference amount customarily consumed;
</P>
<P>(D) The content of soluble fiber shall be declared in the nutrition information panel, consistent with § 101.9(c)(6)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may identify one or more of the following risk factors for heart disease about which there is general scientific agreement: A family history of coronary heart disease, elevated blood-, total- and LDL-cholesterol, excess body weight, high blood pressure, cigarette smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may indicate that the relationship of diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol, and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber to heart disease is through the intermediate link of “blood cholesterol” or “blood total- and LDL-cholesterol.”
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarize the relationship between diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber and coronary heart disease, and the significance of the relationship.
</P>
<P>(4) In specifying the nutrients, the claim may include the term “total fat” in addition to the terms “saturated fat” and “cholesterol.”
</P>
<P>(5) The claim may indicate that it is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office (GPO).
</P>
<P>(6) The claim may state that individuals with elevated blood total- and LDL-cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment. If the claim defines high or normal blood total- and LDL-cholesterol levels, then the claim shall state that individuals with high blood cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment.
</P>
<P>(7) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have heart disease. The sources of this information shall be identified, and it shall be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” USDA and DHHS, GPO.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claims.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to characterize the relationship between diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain soluble fiber:
</P>
<P>(1) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol and rich in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain some types of dietary fiber, particularly soluble fiber, may reduce the risk of heart disease, a disease associated with many factors.
</P>
<P>(2) Development of heart disease depends on many factors. Eating a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and grain products that contain fiber may lower blood cholesterol levels and reduce your risk of heart disease.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2578, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.78" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.78   Health claims: fruits and vegetables and cancer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between substances in diets low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables and cancer risk.</I> (1) Cancer is a constellation of more than 100 different diseases, each characterized by the uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells. Cancer has many causes and stages in its development. Both genetic and environmental risk factors may affect the risk of cancer. Risk factors include a family history of a specific type of cancer, cigarette smoking, alcohol consumption, overweight and obesity, ultraviolet or ionizing radiation, exposure to cancer-causing chemicals, and dietary factors.
</P>
<P>(2) Although the specific roles of the numerous potentially protective substances in plant foods are not yet understood, many studies have shown that diets high in plant foods are associated with reduced risk of some types of cancers. These studies correlate diets rich in fruits and vegetables and nutrients from these diets, such as vitamin C, vitamin A, and dietary fiber, with reduced cancer risk. Persons consuming these diets frequently have high intakes of these nutrients. Currently, there is not scientific agreement as to whether the observed protective effects of fruits and vegetables against cancer are due to a combination of the nutrient components of diets rich in fruits and vegetables, including but not necessarily limited to dietary fiber, vitamin A (as beta-carotene) and vitamin C, to displacement of fat from such diets, or to intakes of other substances in these foods which are not nutrients but may be protective against cancer risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between consumption of diets low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables and risk of cancer.</I> (1) Cancer is ranked as a leading cause of death in the United States. The overall economic costs of cancer, including direct health care costs and losses due to morbidity and mortality, are very high.
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. diets tend to be high in fat and low in fruits and vegetables. Studies in various parts of the world indicate that populations who habitually consume a diet high in plant foods have lower risks of some cancers. These diets generally are low in fat and rich in many nutrients, including, but not limited to, dietary fiber, vitamin A (as beta-carotene), and vitamin C. Current dietary guidelines from Federal Government agencies and nationally recognized health professional organizations recommend decreased consumption of fats (less than 30 percent of calories), maintenance of desirable body weight, and increased consumption of fruits and vegetables (5 or more servings daily), particularly those fruits and vegetables which contain dietary fiber, vitamin A, and vitamin C.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating substances in diets low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables with reduced risk of cancer may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables “may” or “might” reduce the risk of some cancers;
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “some types of cancer”, or “some cancers”;
</P>
<P>(C) The claim characterizes fruits and vegetables as foods that are low in fat and may contain vitamin A, vitamin C, and dietary fiber;
</P>
<P>(D) The claim characterizes the food bearing the claim as containing one or more of the following, for which the food is a good source under § 101.54: dietary fiber, vitamin A, or vitamin C;
</P>
<P>(E) The claim does not attribute any degree of cancer risk reduction to diets low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables;
</P>
<P>(F) In specifying the fat component of the labeled food, the claim uses the term “total fat” or “fat”;
</P>
<P>(G) The claim does not specify types of fats or fatty acids that may be related to risk of cancer;
</P>
<P>(H) In specifying the dietary fiber component of the labeled food, the claim uses the term “fiber”, “dietary fiber”, or “total dietary fiber”;
</P>
<P>(I) The claim does not specify types of dietary fiber that may be related to risk of cancer; and
</P>
<P>(J) The claim indicates that development of cancer depends on many factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> (A) The food shall be or shall contain a fruit or vegetable.
</P>
<P>(B) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirements of § 101.62 for a “low fat” food.
</P>
<P>(C) The food shall meet, without fortification, the nutrient content requirements of § 101.54 for a “good source” of at least one of the following: vitamin A, vitamin C, or dietary fiber.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarize the relationship between diets low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables and some types of cancer and the significance of the relationship.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may identify one or more of the following risk factors for development of cancer: Family history of a specific type of cancer, cigarette smoking, alcohol consumption, overweight and obesity, ultraviolet or ionizing radiation, exposure to cancer-causing chemicals, and dietary factors.
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may use the word “beta-carotene” in parentheses after the term vitamin A, provided that the vitamin A in the food bearing the claim is beta-carotene.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may indicate that it is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(5) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have cancer. The sources of this information must be identified, and it must be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” USDA and DHHS, Government Printing Office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claims.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to characterize the relationship between substances in diets low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables and cancer:
</P>
<P>(1) Low fat diets rich in fruits and vegetables (foods that are low in fat and may contain dietary fiber, vitamin A, and vitamin C) may reduce the risk of some types of cancer, a disease associated with many factors. Broccoli is high in vitamins A and C, and it is a good source of dietary fiber.
</P>
<P>(2) Development of cancer depends on many factors. Eating a diet low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables, foods that are low in fat and may contain vitamin A, vitamin C, and dietary fiber, may reduce your risk of some cancers. Oranges, a food low in fat, are a good source of fiber and vitamin C.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2639, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.79" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.79   Health claims: Folate and neural tube defects.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between folate and neural tube defects</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Neural tube defects are serious birth defects of the brain or spinal cord that can result in infant mortality or serious disability. The birth defects anencephaly and spina bifida are the most common forms of neural tube defects and account for about 90 percent of these defects. These defects result from failure of closure of the covering of the brain or spinal cord during early embryonic development. Because the neural tube forms and closes during early pregnancy, the defect may occur before a woman realizes that she is pregnant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relationship.</I> The available data show that diets adequate in folate may reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The strongest evidence for this relationship comes from an intervention study by the Medical Research Council of the United Kingdom that showed that women at risk of recurrence of a neural tube defect pregnancy who consumed a supplement containing 4 milligrams (mg)(4,000 micrograms (mcg)) folic acid daily before conception and continuing into early pregnancy had a reduced risk of having a child with a neural tube defect. (Products containing this level of folic acid are drugs). In addition, based on its review of a Hungarian intervention trial that reported periconceptional use of a multivitamin and multimineral preparation containing 800 mcg (0.8 mg) of folic acid, and its review of the observational studies that reported periconceptional use of multivitamins containing 0 to 1,000 mcg of folic acid, the Food and Drug Administration concluded that most of these studies had results consistent with the conclusion that folate, at levels attainable in usual diets, may reduce the risk of neural tube defects.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of folate</I>—(1) <I>Public health concern.</I> Neural tube defects occur in approximately 0.6 of 1,000 live births in the United States (i.e., approximately 6 of 10,000 live births; about 2,500 cases among 4 million live births annually). Neural tube defects are believed to be caused by many factors. The single greatest risk factor for a neural tube defect-affected pregnancy is a personal or family history of a pregnancy affected with a such a defect. However, about 90 percent of infants with a neural tube defect are born to women who do not have a family history of these defects. The available evidence shows that diets adequate in folate may reduce the risk of neural tube defects but not of other birth defects.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Populations at risk.</I> Prevalence rates for neural tube defects have been reported to vary with a wide range of factors including genetics, geography, socioeconomic status, maternal birth cohort, month of conception, race, nutrition, and maternal health, including maternal age and reproductive history. Women with a close relative (i.e., sibling, niece, nephew) with a neural tube defect, those with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, and women with seizure disorders who are being treated with valproic acid or carbamazepine are at significantly increased risk compared with women without these characteristics. Rates for neural tube defects vary within the United States, with lower rates observed on the west coast than on the east coast.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Those who may benefit.</I> Based on a synthesis of information from several studies, including those which used multivitamins containing folic acid at a daily dose level of ≥400 mcg (≥0.4 mg), the Public Health Service has inferred that folate alone at levels of 400 mcg (0.4 mg) per day may reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The protective effect found in studies of lower dose folate measured by the reduction in neural tube defect incidence, ranges from none to substantial; a reasonable estimate of the expected reduction in the United States is 50 percent. It is expected that consumption of adequate folate will avert some, but not all, neural tube defects. The underlying causes of neural tube defects are not known. Thus, it is not known what proportion of neural tube defects will be averted by adequate folate consumption. From the available evidence, the Public Health Service estimates that there is the potential for averting 50 percent of cases that now occur (i.e., about 1,250 cases annually). However, until further research is done, no firm estimate of this proportion will be available.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> The label or labeling of food may contain a folate/neural tube defect health claim provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The health claim for a food meets all of the general requirements of § 101.14 for health claims, except that a food may qualify to bear the health claim if it meets the definition of the term “good source.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim</I>—(A) <I>Relationship.</I> A health claim that women who are capable of becoming pregnant and who consume adequate amounts of folate daily during their childbearing years may reduce their risk of having a pregnancy affected by spina bifida or other neural tube defects may be made on the label or labeling of food provided that:
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Specifying the nutrient.</I> In specifying the nutrient, the claim shall use the terms “folate,” “folic acid,” “folacin,” “folate, a B vitamin,” “folic acid, a B vitamin,” or “folacin, a B vitamin.”
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Specifying the condition.</I> In specifying the health- related condition, the claim shall identify the birth defects as “neural tube defects,” “birth defects spina bifida or anencephaly,” “birth defects of the brain or spinal cord anencephaly or spina bifida,” “spina bifida and anencephaly, birth defects of the brain or spinal cord,” “birth defects of the brain or spinal cord;” or “brain or spinal cord birth defects.”
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Multifactorial nature.</I> The claim shall not imply that folate intake is the only recognized risk factor for neural tube defects.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Reduction in risk.</I> The claim shall not attribute any specific degree of reduction in risk of neural tube defects from maintaining an adequate folate intake throughout the childbearing years. The claim shall state that some women may reduce their risk of a neural tube defect pregnancy by maintaining adequate intakes of folate during their childbearing years. Optional statements about population-based estimates of risk reduction may be made in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Safe upper limit of daily intake.</I> Claims on foods that contain more than 100 percent of the Daily Value (DV) (400 mcg) when labeled for use by adults and children 4 or more years of age, or 800 mcg when labeled for use by pregnant or lactating women) shall identify the safe upper limit of daily intake with respect to the DV. The safe upper limit of daily intake value of 1,000 mcg (1 mg) may be included in parentheses.
</P>
<P>(G) The claim shall state that folate needs to be consumed as part of a healthful diet. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the food</I>—(A) <I>Requirements.</I> The food shall meet or exceed the requirements for a “good source” of folate as defined in § 101.54;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Dietary supplements.</I> Dietary supplements shall meet the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standards for disintegration and dissolution, except that if there are no applicable USP standards, the folate in the dietary supplement shall be shown to be bioavailable under the conditions of use stated on the product label.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitation.</I> The claim shall not be made on foods that contain more than 100 percent of the RDI for vitamin A as retinol or preformed vitamin A or vitamin D per serving or per unit.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nutrition labeling.</I> The nutrition label shall include information about the amount of folate in the food. This information shall be declared after the declaration for iron if only the levels of vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium, and iron are provided, or in accordance with § 101.9 (c)(8) and (c)(9) if other optional vitamins or minerals are declared.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional information</I>—(i) <I>Risk factors.</I> The claim may specifically identify risk factors for neural tube defects. Where such information is provided, it may consist of statements from § 101.79(b)(1) or (b)(2) (e.g., Women at increased risk include those with a personal history of a neural tube defect-affected pregnancy, those with a close relative (i.e., sibling, niece, nephew) with a neural tube defect; those with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus; those with seizure disorders who are being treated with valproic acid or carbamazepine) or from other parts of this paragraph (c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Relationship between folate and neural tube defects.</I> The claim may include statements from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section that summarize the relationship between folate and neural tube defects and the significance of the relationship except for information specifically prohibited from the claim.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Personal history of a neural tube defect-affected pregnancy.</I> The claim may state that women with a history of a neural tube defect pregnancy should consult their physicians or health care providers before becoming pregnant. If such a statement is provided, the claim shall also state that all women should consult a health care provider when planning a pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Daily value.</I> The claim may identify 100 percent of the DV (100% DV; 400 mcg) for folate as the target intake goal.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Prevalence.</I> The claim may provide estimates, expressed on an annual basis, of the number of neural tube defect-affected births among live births in the United States. Current estimates are provided in § 101.79(b)(1), and are approximately 6 of 10,000 live births annually (i.e., about 2,500 cases among 4 million live births annually). Data provided in § 101.79(b)(1) shall be used, unless more current estimates from the U.S. Public Health Service are available, in which case the latter may be cited.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Reduction in risk.</I> An estimate of the reduction in the number of neural tube defect-affected births that might occur in the United States if all women consumed adequate folate throughout their childbearing years may be included in the claim. Information contained in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be used. If such an estimate (i.e., 50 percent) is provided, the estimate shall be accompanied by additional information that states that the estimate is population-based and that it does not reflect risk reduction that may be experienced by individual women.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Diets adequate in folate.</I> The claim may identify diets adequate in folate by using phrases such as “Sources of folate include fruits, vegetables, whole grain products, fortified cereals, and dietary supplements.” or “Adequate amounts of folate can be obtained from diets rich in fruits, dark green leafy vegetables, legumes, whole grain products, fortified cereals, or dietary supplements.” or “Adequate amounts of folate can be obtained from diets rich in fruits, including citrus fruits and juices, vegetables, including dark green leafy vegetables, legumes, whole grain products, including breads, rice, and pasta, fortified cereals, or a dietary supplement.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Model health claims.</I> The following are examples of model health claims that may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between folate and neural tube defects:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Examples 1 and 2.</I> Model health claims appropriate for foods containing 100 percent or less of the DV for folate per serving or per unit (general population). The examples contain only the required elements:
</P>
<P>(i) Healthful diets with adequate folate may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate folate in healthful diets may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 3.</I> Model health claim appropriate for foods containing 100 percent or less of the DV for folate per serving or per unit. The example contains all required elements plus optional information: Women who consume healthful diets with adequate folate throughout their childbearing years may reduce their risk of having a child with a birth defect of the brain or spinal cord. Sources of folate include fruits, vegetables, whole grain products, fortified cereals, and dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 4.</I> Model health claim appropriate for foods intended for use by the general population and containing more than 100 percent of the DV of folate per serving or per unit: Women who consume healthful diets with adequate folate may reduce their risk of having a child with birth defects of the brain or spinal cord. Folate intake should not exceed 250% of the DV (1,000 mcg).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 8779, Mar. 5, 1996; 61 FR 48529, Sept. 13, 1996, as amended at 65 FR 58918, Oct. 3, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.80" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.80   Health claims: dietary noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners and dental caries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between dietary carbohydrates and dental caries.</I> (1) Dental caries, or tooth decay, is a disease caused by many factors. Both environmental and genetic factors can affect the development of dental caries. Risk factors include tooth enamel crystal structure and mineral content, plaque quantity and quality, saliva quantity and quality, individual immune response, types and physical characteristics of foods consumed, eating behaviors, presence of acid producing oral bacteria, and cultural influences.
</P>
<P>(2) The relationship between consumption of fermentable carbohydrates, i.e., dietary sugars and starches, and tooth decay is well established. Sucrose, also known as sugar, is one of the most, but not the only, cariogenic sugars in the diet. Bacteria found in the mouth are able to metabolize most dietary carbohydrates, producing acid and forming dental plaque. The more frequent and longer the exposure of teeth to dietary sugars and starches, the greater the risk for tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(3) Dental caries continues to affect a large proportion of Americans. Although there has been a decline in the prevalence of dental caries among children in the United States, the disease remains widespread throughout the population, imposing a substantial burden on Americans. Recent Federal government dietary guidelines recommend that Americans choose diets that are moderate in sugars and avoid excessive snacking. Frequent between-meal snacks that are high in sugars and starches may be more harmful to teeth than eating such foods at meals and then brushing.
</P>
<P>(4) Noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners, such as sugar alcohols, can be used to replace dietary sugars, such as sucrose and corn sweeteners, in foods such as chewing gums and certain confectioneries. Noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners are significantly less cariogenic than dietary sugars and other fermentable carbohydrates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners and dental caries.</I> Noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners do not promote dental caries. The noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section are slowly metabolized by bacteria to form some acid. The rate and amount of acid production is significantly less than that from sucrose and other fermentable carbohydrates and does not cause the loss of important minerals from tooth enamel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met, except that noncariogenic carbohydrate sweetener-containing foods listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section are exempt from § 101.14(e)(6).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim relating noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners, compared to other carbohydrates, and the nonpromotion of dental caries may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim shall state that frequent between-meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches can promote tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(B) The claim shall state that the noncariogenic carbohydrate sweetener present in the food “does not promote,” “may reduce the risk of,” “useful [or is useful] in not promoting,” or “expressly [or is expressly] for not promoting” dental caries.
</P>
<P>(C) In specifying the nutrient, the claim shall state “sugar alcohol,” “sugar alcohols,” or the name or names of the substances listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, e.g., “sorbitol.” D-tagatose may be identified as “tagatose.”
</P>
<P>(D) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “dental caries” or “tooth decay.”
</P>
<P>(E) The claim shall not attribute any degree of the reduction in risk of dental caries to the use of the noncariogenic carbohydrate sweetener-containing food.
</P>
<P>(F) The claim shall not imply that consuming noncariogenic carbohydrate sweetener-containing foods is the only recognized means of achieving a reduced risk of dental caries.
</P>
<P>(G) Packages with less than 15 square inches of surface area available for labeling are exempt from paragraphs (A) and (C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) When the substance that is the subject of the claim is a noncariogenic sugar, the claim shall identify the substance as a sugar that, unlike other sugars, does not promote the development of dental caries.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the substance.</I> Eligible noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners are:
</P>
<P>(A) The sugar alcohols xylitol, sorbitol, mannitol, maltitol, isomalt, lactitol, hydrogenated starch hydrolysates, hydrogenated glucose syrups, and erythritol, or a combination of these.
</P>
<P>(B) The sugars D-tagatose and isomaltulose.
</P>
<P>(C) Sucralose.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Nature of the food.</I> (A) The food shall meet the requirement in § 101.60(c)(1)(i) with respect to sugars content, except that the food may contain D-tagatose or isomaltulose. 
</P>
<P>(B) A food whose labeling includes a health claim under this section shall contain one or more of the noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) When carbohydrates other than those listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section are present in the food, the food shall not lower plaque pH below 5.7 by bacterial fermentation either during consumption or up to 30 minutes after consumption, as measured by the indwelling plaque pH test found in “Identification of Low Caries Risk Dietary Components,” dated 1983, by T. N. Imfeld, in Volume 11, <I>Monographs in Oral Science,</I> 1983. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register has approved the incorporation by reference of this material in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from Karger AG Publishing Co., P.O. Box, Ch-4009 Basel, Switzerland, or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which describe the relationship between diets containing noncariogenic carbohydrate sweeteners and dental caries.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may indicate that development of dental caries depends on many factors and may identify one or more of the following risk factors for dental caries: Frequent consumption of fermentable carbohydrates, such as dietary sugars and starches; presence of oral bacteria capable of fermenting carbohydrates; length of time fermentable carbohydrates are in contact with the teeth; lack of exposure to fluoride; individual susceptibility; socioeconomic and cultural factors; and characteristics of tooth enamel, saliva, and plaque.
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may indicate that oral hygiene and proper dental care may help to reduce the risk of dental disease.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may indicate that a substance listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section serves as a sweetener.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claim.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between noncariogenic carbohydrate sweetener-containing foods and dental caries.
</P>
<P>(1) Examples of the full claim:
</P>
<P>(i) Frequent eating of foods high in sugars and starches as between-meal snacks can promote tooth decay. The sugar alcohol [name, optional] used to sweeten this food may reduce the risk of dental caries.
</P>
<P>(ii) Frequent between-meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches promotes tooth decay. The sugar alcohols in [name of food] do not promote tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(iii) Frequent eating of foods high in sugars and starches as between-meal snacks can promote tooth decay. [Name of sugar from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section], the sugar used to sweeten this food, unlike other sugars, may reduce the risk of dental caries.
</P>
<P>(iv) Frequent between-meal consumption of foods high in sugars and starches promotes tooth decay. [Name of sugar from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section], the sugar in [name of food], unlike other sugars, does not promote tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(v) Frequent eating of foods high in sugars and starches as between-meal snacks can promote tooth decay. Sucralose, the sweetening ingredient used to sweeten this food, unlike sugars, does not promote tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(2) Example of the shortened claim for small packages:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not promote tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(ii) May reduce the risk of tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Name of sugar from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section] sugar does not promote tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Name of sugar from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section] sugar may reduce the risk of tooth decay.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 43446, Aug. 23, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 63655, Dec. 2, 1997; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 67 FR 71470, Dec. 2, 2002; 71 FR 15563, Mar. 29, 2006; 72 FR 52789, Sept. 17, 2007; 81 FR 5590, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.81" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.81   Health claims: Soluble fiber from certain foods and risk of coronary heart disease (CHD).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from certain foods and the risk of CHD.</I> (1) Cardiovascular disease means diseases of the heart and circulatory system. Coronary heart disease (CHD) is one of the most common and serious forms of cardiovascular disease and refers to diseases of the heart muscle and supporting blood vessels. High blood total cholesterol and low density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol levels are associated with increased risk of developing coronary heart disease. High CHD rates occur among people with high total cholesterol levels of 240 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) (6.21 (mmol/L)) or above and LDL-cholesterol levels of 160 mg/dL (4.13 mmol/L) or above. Borderline high risk total cholesterol levels range from 200 to 239 mg/dL (5.17 to 6.18 mmol/L) and 130 to 159 mg/dL (3.36 to 4.11 mmol/L) of LDL-cholesterol. The scientific evidence establishes that diets high in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with increased levels of blood total- and LDL-cholesterol and, thus, with increased risk of CHD.
</P>
<P>(2) Populations with a low incidence of CHD tend to have relatively low blood total cholesterol and LDL-cholesterol levels. These populations also tend to have dietary patterns that are not only low in total fat, especially saturated fat and cholesterol, but are also relatively high in fiber-containing fruits, vegetables, and grain products, such as whole oat products. 
</P>
<P>(3) Scientific evidence demonstrates that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of CHD. Other evidence demonstrates that the addition of soluble fiber from certain foods to a diet that is low in saturated fat and cholesterol may also help to reduce the risk of CHD.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from certain foods and the risk of CHD.</I> (1) CHD is a major public health concern in the United States. It accounts for more deaths than any other disease or group of diseases. Early management of risk factors for CHD is a major public health goal that can assist in reducing risk of CHD. High blood total and LDL-cholesterol are major modifiable risk factors in the development of CHD.
</P>
<P>(2) Intakes of saturated fat exceed recommended levels in the diets of many people in the United States. One of the major public health recommendations relative to CHD risk is to consume less than 10 percent of calories from saturated fat and an average of 30 percent or less of total calories from all fat. Recommended daily cholesterol intakes are 300 milligrams (mg) or less per day. Scientific evidence demonstrates that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with lower blood total- and LDL-cholesterol levels. Soluble fiber from certain foods, when included in a low saturated fat and cholesterol diet, also helps to lower blood total- and LDL-cholesterol levels.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met. The label and labeling of foods containing psyllium husk shall be consistent with the provisions of § 101.17(f).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from certain foods with reduced risk of heart disease may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from certain foods “may” or “might” reduce the risk of heart disease.
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “heart disease” or “coronary heart disease”;
</P>
<P>(C) In specifying the substance, the claim uses the term “soluble fiber” qualified by the name of the eligible source of soluble fiber (provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)) of this section. Additionally, the claim may use the name of the food product that contains the eligible source of soluble fiber;
</P>
<P>(D) In specifying the fat component, the claim uses the terms “saturated fat” and “cholesterol”;
</P>
<P>(E) The claim does not attribute any degree of risk reduction for CHD to diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from the eligible food sources from paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(F) The claim does not imply that consumption of diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from the eligible food sources from paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section is the only recognized means of achieving a reduced risk of CHD.
</P>
<P>(G) The claim specifies the daily dietary intake of the soluble fiber source that is necessary to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease and the contribution one serving of the product makes to the specified daily dietary intake level. Daily dietary intake levels of soluble fiber sources listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section that have been associated with reduced risk coronary heart disease are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 3 g or more per day of β-glucan soluble fiber from either whole oats or barley, or a combination of whole oats and barley.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 7 g or more per day of soluble fiber from psyllium seed husk.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the substance—Eligible sources of soluble fiber.</I> (A) Beta (β) glucan soluble fiber from the whole oat and barley sources listed below. β-glucan soluble fiber will be determined by method No. 992.28 from the “Official Methods of Analysis of the AOAC INTERNATIONAL,” 16th ed. (1995), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>;
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Oat bran.</I> Oat bran is produced by grinding clean oat groats or rolled oats and separating the resulting oat flour by suitable means into fractions such that the oat bran fraction is not more than 50 percent of the original starting material and provides at least 5.5 percent (dry weight basis (dwb)) β-glucan soluble fiber and a total dietary fiber content of 16 percent (dwb), and such that at least one-third of the total dietary fiber is soluble fiber;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Rolled oats.</I> Rolled oats, also known as oatmeal, produced from 100 percent dehulled, clean oat groats by steaming, cutting, rolling, and flaking, and provides at least 4 percent (dwb) of β-glucan soluble fiber and a total dietary fiber content of at least 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Whole oat flour.</I> Whole oat flour is produced from 100 percent dehulled, clean oat groats by steaming and grinding, such that there is no significant loss of oat bran in the final product, and provides at least 4 percent (dwb) of β-glucan soluble fiber and a total dietary fiber content of at least 10 percent (dwb).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Oatrim.</I> The soluble fraction of alpha-amylase hydrolyzed oat bran or whole oat flour, also known as oatrim. Oatrim is produced from either oat bran as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section or whole oat flour as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section by solubilization of the starch in the starting material with an alpha-amylase hydrolysis process, and then removal by centrifugation of the insoluble components consisting of a high portion of protein, lipid, insoluble dietary fiber, and the majority of the flavor and color components of the starting material. Oatrim shall have a beta-glucan soluble fiber content up to 10 percent (dwb) and not less than that of the starting material (dwb).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Whole grain barley and dry milled barley.</I> Dehulled and hull-less whole grain barley with a β-glucan soluble fiber content of at least 4 percent (dwb) and a total dietary fiber content of at least 10 percent (dwb). Dry milled barley grain products include barley bran, barley flakes, barley grits, pearl barley, barley flour, barley meal, and sieved barley meal that are produced from clean, sound dehulled or hull-less barley grain using standard dry milling techniques, which may include steaming or tempering, and that contain at least 4 percent (dwb) of β-glucan soluble fiber and at least 8 percent (dwb) of total dietary fiber, except barley bran and sieved barley meal for which the minimum β-glucan soluble fiber content is 5.5 percent (dwb) and minimum total dietary fiber content is 15 percent (dwb). Dehulled barley, hull-less barley, barley bran, barley flakes, barley grits, pearl barley, and barley flour are as defined in the Barley Glossary (AACC Method 55-99), published in Approved Methods of the American Association of Cereal Chemists, 10th ed. (2000), pp. 1 and 2, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the American Association of Cereal Chemists, Inc., 3340 Pilot Knob Rd., St. Paul, Minnesota, 55121, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Barley meal is unsifted, ground barley grain not subjected to any processing to separate the bran, germ, and endosperm. Sieved barley meal is an endosperm cell wall-enriched fraction of ground barley separated from meal by sieving or by air classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Barley betafiber.</I> Barley betafiber is the ethanol precipitated soluble fraction of cellulase and alpha-amylase hydrolyzed whole grain barley. Barley betafiber is produced by hydrolysis of whole grain barley flour, as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>) of this section, with a cellulase and alpha-amylase enzyme preparation, to produce a clear aqueous extract that contains mainly partially hydrolyzed beta-glucan and substantially hydrolyzed starch. The soluble, partially hydrolyzed beta-glucan is separated from the insoluble material by centrifugation, and after removal of the insoluble material, the partially hydrolyzed beta-glucan soluble fiber is separated from the other soluble compounds by precipitation with ethanol. The product is then dried, milled and sifted. Barley betafiber shall have a beta-glucan soluble fiber content of at least 70 percent on a dry weight basis.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Psyllium husk from the dried seed coat (epidermis) of the seed of <I>Plantago</I> (<I>P.</I>) ovata, known as blond psyllium or Indian psyllium, <I>P. indica,</I> or <I>P. psyllium.</I> To qualify for this claim, psyllium seed husk, also known as psyllium husk, shall have a purity of no less than 95 percent, such that it contains 3 percent or less protein, 4.5 percent or less of light extraneous matter, and 0.5 percent or less of heavy extraneous matter, but in no case may the combined extraneous matter exceed 4.9 percent, as determined by U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP) methods described in USP's “The National Formulary,” USP 23, NF 18, p. 1341, (1995), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) FDA will determine the amount of soluble fiber that is provided by psyllium husk by using a modification of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists' International (AOAC's) method for soluble dietary fiber (991.43) described by Lee et al., “Determination of Soluble and Insoluble Dietary Fiber in Psyllium-containing Cereal Products,” <I>Journal of the AOAC International,</I> 78 (No. 3):724-729, 1995, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Nature of the food eligible to bear the claim.</I> (A) The food product shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) One or more of the whole oat or barley foods from paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), (<I>3</I>), and (<I>5</I>) of this section, and the whole oat or barley foods shall contain at least 0.75 gram (g) of soluble fiber per reference amount customarily consumed of the food product; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The food containing the oatrim from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>) of this section or the barley betafiber from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section shall contain at least 0.75 g of beta-glucan soluble fiber per reference amount customarily consumed of the food product; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Psyllium husk that complies with paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, and the psyllium food shall contain at least 1.7 g of soluble fiber per reference amount customarily consumed of the food product;
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of soluble fiber shall be declared in the nutrition label, consistent with § 101.9(c)(6)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>(C) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirement in § 101.62 for a “low saturated fat” and “low cholesterol” food; and
</P>
<P>(D) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirement in § 101.62(b)(2) for a “low fat” food, unless the food exceeds this requirement due to fat content derived from whole oat sources listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may state that the development of heart disease depends on many factors and may identify one or more of the following risk factors for heart disease about which there is general scientific agreement: A family history of CHD; elevated blood total and LDL-cholesterol; excess body weight; high blood pressure; cigarette smoking; diabetes; and physical inactivity. The claim may also provide additional information about the benefits of exercise and management of body weight to help lower the risk of heart disease;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may state that the relationship between intake of diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from the eligible food sources from paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section and reduced risk of heart disease is through the intermediate link of “blood cholesterol” or “blood total- and LDL-cholesterol;”
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarize the relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from certain foods and coronary heart disease and the significance of the relationship;
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may specify the name of the eligible soluble fiber;
</P>
<P>(5) The claim may state that a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol that includes soluble fiber from whole oats or barley is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office (GPO);
</P>
<P>(6) The claim may state that individuals with elevated blood total- and LDL-cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment. If the claim defines high or normal blood total- and LDL-cholesterol levels, then the claim shall state that individuals with high blood cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment;
</P>
<P>(7) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have heart disease. The sources of this information shall be identified, and it shall be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” USDA and DHHS, GPO.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claim.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soluble fiber from certain foods and reduced risk of heart disease:
</P>
<P>(1) Soluble fiber from foods such as [name of soluble fiber source from paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section and, if desired, the name of food product], as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol, may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [ name of food] supplies ________ grams of the [grams of soluble fiber specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(G) of this section] soluble fiber from [name of the soluble fiber source from paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section] necessary per day to have this effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that include [________ grams of soluble fiber specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(G) of this section] of soluble fiber per day from [name of soluble fiber source from paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section and, if desired, the name of the food product] may reduce the risk of heart disease. One serving of [name of food] provides ________ grams of this soluble fiber.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 3600, Jan. 23, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 15344, Mar. 31, 1997; 63 FR 8119, Feb. 18, 1998; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 67 FR 61782, Oct. 2, 2002; 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 76162, Dec. 23, 2005; 73 FR 9947, Feb. 25, 2008; 73 FR 23953, May 1, 2008; 81 FR 5590, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.82" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.82   Health claims: Soy protein and risk of coronary heart disease (CHD).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein and the risk of CHD.</I> (1) Cardiovascular disease means diseases of the heart and circulatory system. CHD is one of the most common and serious forms of cardiovascular disease and refers to diseases of the heart muscle and supporting blood vessels. High blood total cholesterol and low density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol levels are associated with increased risk of developing CHD. High CHD rates occur among people with high total cholesterol levels of 240 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) (6.21 millimole per liter (mmol/L)) or above and LDL-cholesterol levels of 160 mg/dL (4.13 mmol/L) or above. Borderline high risk total cholesterol levels range from 200 to 239 mg/dL (5.17 to 6.18 mmol/L) and 130 to 159 mg/dL (3.36 to 4.11 mmol/L) of LDL-cholesterol. The scientific evidence establishes that diets high in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with increased levels of blood total and LDL-cholesterol and, thus, with increased risk of CHD.
</P>
<P>(2) Populations with a low incidence of CHD tend to have relatively low blood total cholesterol and LDL-cholesterol levels. These populations also tend to have dietary patterns that are not only low in total fat, especially saturated fat and cholesterol, but are also relatively high in plant foods that contain dietary fiber and other components.
</P>
<P>(3) Scientific evidence demonstrates that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of CHD. Other evidence demonstrates that the addition of soy protein to a diet that is low in saturated fat and cholesterol may also help to reduce the risk of CHD.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein and the risk of CHD.</I> (1) CHD is a major public health concern in the United States. It accounts for more deaths than any other disease or group of diseases. Early management of risk factors for CHD is a major public health goal that can assist in reducing risk of CHD. High blood total and LDL-cholesterol are major modifiable risk factors in the development of CHD.
</P>
<P>(2) Intakes of saturated fat exceed recommended levels in the diets of many people in the United States. One of the major public health recommendations relative to CHD risk is to consume less than 10 percent of calories from saturated fat and an average of 30 percent or less of total calories from all fat. Recommended daily cholesterol intakes are 300 mg or less per day. Scientific evidence demonstrates that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with lower blood total and LDL-cholesterol levels. Soy protein, when included in a low saturated fat and cholesterol diet, also helps to lower blood total and LDL-cholesterol levels.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein with reduced risk of heart disease may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein “may” or “might” reduce the risk of heart disease;
</P>
<P>(B) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “heart disease” or “coronary heart disease”;
</P>
<P>(C) In specifying the substance, the claim uses the term “soy protein”;
</P>
<P>(D) In specifying the fat component, the claim uses the terms “saturated fat” and “cholesterol”;
</P>
<P>(E) The claim does not attribute any degree of risk reduction for CHD to diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein;
</P>
<P>(F) The claim does not imply that consumption of diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein is the only recognized means of achieving a reduced risk of CHD; and
</P>
<P>(G) The claim specifies the daily dietary intake of soy protein that is necessary to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease and the contribution one serving of the product makes to the specified daily dietary intake level. The daily dietary intake level of soy protein that has been associated with reduced risk of coronary heart disease is 25 grams (g) or more per day of soy protein.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the substance.</I> (A) Soy protein from the legume seed Glycine max.
</P>
<P>(B) FDA will assess qualifying levels of soy protein in the following fashion: FDA will measure total protein content by the appropriate method of analysis given in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the AOAC International,” as described at § 101.9(c)(7). For products that contain no sources of protein other than soy, FDA will consider the amount of soy protein as equivalent to the total protein content. For products that contain a source or sources of protein in addition to soy, FDA will, using the measurement of total protein content, calculate the soy protein content based on the ratio of soy protein ingredients to total protein ingredients in the product. FDA will base its calculation on information identified and supplied by manufacturers, such as nutrient data bases or analyses, recipes or formulations, purchase orders for ingredients, or any other information that reasonably substantiates the ratio of soy protein to total protein. Manufacturers must maintain records sufficient to substantiate the claim for as long as the products are marketed and provide these records, on written request, to appropriate regulatory officials.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Nature of the food eligible to bear the claim.</I> (A) The food product shall contain at least 6.25 g of soy protein per reference amount customarily consumed of the food product;
</P>
<P>(B) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirements in § 101.62 for a “low saturated fat” and “low cholesterol” food; and
</P>
<P>(C) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirement in § 101.62 for a “low fat” food, unless it consists of or is derived from whole soybeans and contains no fat in addition to the fat inherently present in the whole soybeans it contains or from which it is derived.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may state that the development of heart disease depends on many factors and may identify one or more of the following risk factors for heart disease about which there is general scientific agreement: A family history of CHD; elevated blood total and LDL-cholesterol; excess body weight; high blood pressure; cigarette smoking; diabetes; and physical inactivity. The claim may also provide additional information about the benefits of exercise and management of body weight to help lower the risk of heart disease;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may state that the relationship between intake of diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein and reduced risk of heart disease is through the intermediate link of “blood cholesterol” or “blood total and LDL-cholesterol”;
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarize the relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein and CHD and the significance of the relationship;
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may state that a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol that includes soy protein is consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office (GPO);
</P>
<P>(5) The claim may state that individuals with elevated blood total and LDL-cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment. If the claim defines high or normal blood total and LDL-cholesterol levels, then the claim shall state that individuals with high blood cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment;
</P>
<P>(6) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have heart disease. The sources of this information shall be identified, and it shall be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” USDA and DHHS, GPO;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claim.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between diets that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol and that include soy protein and reduced risk of heart disease:
</P>
<P>(1) 25 grams of soy protein a day, as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol, may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [name of food] supplies ____ grams of soy protein.
</P>
<P>(2) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that include 25 grams of soy protein a day may reduce the risk of heart disease. One serving of [name of food] provides ____ grams of soy protein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 57732, Oct. 26, 1999]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 64 FR 57732, Oct. 26, 1999, § 101.82 was added. Paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section contains information collection and recordkeeping requirements and will not become effective until approval has been given by the Office of Management and Budget.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.83" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.83   Health claims: plant sterol/stanol esters and risk of coronary heart disease (CHD).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship between diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters and the risk of CHD.</I> (1) Cardiovascular disease means diseases of the heart and circulatory system. Coronary heart disease (CHD) is one of the most common and serious forms of cardiovascular disease and refers to diseases of the heart muscle and supporting blood vessels. High blood total cholesterol and low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels are associated with increased risk of developing coronary heart disease. High CHD rates occur among people with high total cholesterol levels of 240 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) (6.21 millimole per liter (mmol/l)) or above and LDL cholesterol levels of 160 mg/dL (4.13 mmol/l) or above. Borderline high risk blood cholesterol levels range from 200 to 239 mg/dL (5.17 to 6.18 mmol/l) for total cholesterol, and 130 to 159 mg/dL (3.36 to 4.11 mmol/l) of LDL cholesterol. 
</P>
<P>(2) Populations with a low incidence of CHD tend to have relatively low blood total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol levels. These populations also tend to have dietary patterns that are not only low in total fat, especially saturated fat and cholesterol, but are also relatively high in plant foods that contain dietary fiber and other components. 
</P>
<P>(3) Scientific evidence demonstrates that diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters may reduce the risk of CHD.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significance of the relationship between diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters and the risk of CHD.</I> (1) CHD is a major public health concern in the United States. It accounts for more deaths than any other disease or group of diseases. Early management of risk factors for CHD is a major public health goal that can assist in reducing risk of CHD. High blood total and LDL cholesterol are major modifiable risk factors in the development of CHD. 
</P>
<P>(2) The scientific evidence establishes that including plant sterol/stanol esters in the diet helps to lower blood total and LDL cholesterol levels. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> All requirements set forth in § 101.14 shall be met, except § 101.14(a)(4) with respect to the disqualifying level for total fat per 50 grams (g) in dressings for salad and spreads and § 101.14(e)(6) with respect to dressings for salad. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(i) <I>Nature of the claim.</I> A health claim associating diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters with reduced risk of heart disease may be made on the label or labeling of a food described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(A) The claim states that plant sterol/stanol esters should be consumed as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol; 
</P>
<P>(B) The claim states that diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters “may” or “might” reduce the risk of heart disease; 
</P>
<P>(C) In specifying the disease, the claim uses the following terms: “heart disease” or “coronary heart disease”; 
</P>
<P>(D) In specifying the substance, the claim uses the term “plant sterol esters” or “plant stanol esters,” except that if the sole source of the plant sterols or stanols is vegetable oil, the claim may use the term “vegetable oil sterol esters” or “vegetable oil stanol esters”; 
</P>
<P>(E) The claim does not attribute any degree of risk reduction for CHD to diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters; 
</P>
<P>(F) The claim does not imply that consumption of diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters is the only recognized means of achieving a reduced risk of CHD; and 
</P>
<P>(G) The claim specifies the daily dietary intake of plant sterol or stanol esters that is necessary to reduce the risk of CHD and the contribution one serving of the product makes to the specified daily dietary intake level. Daily dietary intake levels of plant sterol and stanol esters that have been associated with reduced risk of are: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1.3 g or more per day of plant sterol esters.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 3.4 g or more per day of plant stanol esters. 
</P>
<P>(H) The claim specifies that the daily dietary intake of plant sterol or stanol esters should be consumed in two servings eaten at different times of the day with other foods. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nature of the substance</I>—(A) <I>Plant sterol esters.</I> (<I>1</I>) Plant sterol esters prepared by esterifying a mixture of plant sterols from edible oils with food-grade fatty acids. The plant sterol mixture shall contain at least 80 percent beta-sitosterol, campesterol, and stigmasterol (combined weight). 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) FDA will measure plant sterol esters by the method entitled “Determination of the Sterol Content in Margarines, Halvarines, Dressings, Fat Blends and Sterol Fatty Acid Ester Concentrates by Capillary Gas Chromatography,” developed by Unilever United States, Inc., dated February 1, 2000. The method, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, may be obtained from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Office of Nutrition, Labeling and Dietary Supplements, Nutrition Programs Staff, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Plant stanol esters.</I> (<I>1</I>) Plant stanol esters prepared by esterifying a mixture of plant stanols derived from edible oils or byproducts of the kraft paper pulping process with food-grade fatty acids. The plant stanol mixture shall contain at least 80 percent sitostanol and campestanol (combined weight).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) FDA will measure plant stanol esters by the following methods developed by McNeil Consumer Healthcare dated February 15, 2000: “Determination of Stanols and Sterols in Benecol Tub Spread”; “Determination of Stanols and Sterols in Benecol Dressing”; “Determination of Stanols and Sterols in Benecol Snack Bars”; or “Determination of Stanols and Sterols in Benecol Softgels.” These methods are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Office of Nutrition, Labeling and Dietary Supplements, Nutrition Programs Staff, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Nature of the food eligible to bear the claim.</I> (A) The food product shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) At least 0.65 g of plant sterol esters that comply with paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section per reference amount customarily consumed of the food products eligible to bear the health claim, specifically spreads and dressings for salad, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least 1.7 g of plant stanol esters that comply with paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section per reference amount customarily consumed of the food products eligible to bear the health claim, specifically spreads, dressings for salad, snack bars, and dietary supplements in softgel form. 
</P>
<P>(B) The food shall meet the nutrient content requirements in § 101.62 for a “low saturated fat” and “low cholesterol” food; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The food must meet the limit for total fat in § 101.14(a)(4), except that spreads and dressings for salad are not required to meet the limit for total fat per 50 g if the label of the food bears a disclosure statement that complies with § 101.13(h); and 
</P>
<P>(D) The food must meet the minimum nutrient contribution requirement in § 101.14(e)(6) unless it is a dressing for salad. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional information.</I> (1) The claim may state that the development of heart disease depends on many factors and may identify one or more of the following risk factors for heart disease about which there is general scientific agreement: A family history of CHD; elevated blood total and LDL cholesterol; excess body weight; high blood pressure; cigarette smoking; diabetes; and physical inactivity. The claim may also provide additional information about the benefits of exercise and management of body weight to help lower the risk of heart disease. 
</P>
<P>(2) The claim may state that the relationship between intake of diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters and reduced risk of heart disease is through the intermediate link of “blood cholesterol” or “blood total and LDL cholesterol.” 
</P>
<P>(3) The claim may include information from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, which summarize the relationship between diets that include plant sterol/stanol esters and the risk of CHD and the significance of the relationship. 
</P>
<P>(4) The claim may include information from the following paragraph on the relationship between saturated fat and cholesterol in the diet and the risk of CHD: The scientific evidence establishes that diets high in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with increased levels of blood total and LDL cholesterol and, thus, with increased risk of CHD. Intakes of saturated fat exceed recommended levels in the diets of many people in the United States. One of the major public health recommendations relative to CHD risk is to consume less than 10 percent of calories from saturated fat and an average of 30 percent or less of total calories from all fat. Recommended daily cholesterol intakes are 300 mg or less per day. Scientific evidence demonstrates that diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol are associated with lower blood total and LDL cholesterol levels. 
</P>
<P>(5) The claim may state that diets that include plant sterol or stanol esters and are low in saturated fat and cholesterol are consistent with “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office (GPO). 
</P>
<P>(6) The claim may state that individuals with elevated blood total and LDL cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment. If the claim defines high or normal blood total and LDL cholesterol levels, then the claim shall state that individuals with high blood cholesterol should consult their physicians for medical advice and treatment. 
</P>
<P>(7) The claim may include information on the number of people in the United States who have heart disease. The sources of this information shall be identified, and it shall be current information from the National Center for Health Statistics, the National Institutes of Health, or “Nutrition and Your Health: Dietary Guidelines for Americans,” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Government Printing Office (GPO). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model health claim.</I> The following model health claims may be used in food labeling to describe the relationship between diets that include plant sterol or stanol esters and reduced risk of heart disease: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For plant sterol esters:</I> (i) Foods containing at least 0.65 g per serving of plant sterol esters, eaten twice a day with meals for a daily total intake of at least 1.3 g, as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol, may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [name of the food] supplies ______grams of vegetable oil sterol esters.
</P>
<P>(ii) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that include two servings of foods that provide a daily total of at least 1.3 g of vegetable oil sterol esters in two meals may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [name of the food] supplies ______grams of vegetable oil sterol esters. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For plant stanol esters:</I> (i) Foods containing at least 1.7 g per serving of plant stanol esters, eaten twice a day with meals for a total daily intake of at least 3.4 g, as part of a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol, may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [name of the food] supplies ______grams of plant stanol esters. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol that include two servings of foods that provide a daily total of at least 3.4 g of vegetable oil stanol esters in two meals may reduce the risk of heart disease. A serving of [name of the food] supplies ______grams of vegetable oil stanol esters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 54717, Sept. 8, 2000; 65 FR 70466, Nov. 24, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 70 FR 41958, July 21, 2005; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Specific Requirements for Descriptive Claims That Are Neither Nutrient Content Claims nor Health Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.91" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.91   Gluten-free labeling of food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) The term “gluten-containing grain” means any one of the following grains or their crossbred hybrids (e.g., triticale, which is a cross between wheat and rye):
</P>
<P>(i) Wheat, including any species belonging to the genus <I>Triticum;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Rye, including any species belonging to the genus <I>Secale;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) Barley, including any species belonging to the genus <I>Hordeum.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The term “gluten” means the proteins that naturally occur in a gluten-containing grain and that may cause adverse health effects in persons with celiac disease (e.g., prolamins and glutelins).
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling claim “gluten-free” means:
</P>
<P>(i) That the food bearing the claim in its labeling:
</P>
<P>(A) Does not contain any one of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An ingredient that is a gluten-containing grain (e.g., spelt wheat);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has not been processed to remove gluten (e.g., wheat flour); or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has been processed to remove gluten (e.g., wheat starch), if the use of that ingredient results in the presence of 20 parts per million (ppm) or more gluten in the food (i.e., 20 milligrams (mg) or more gluten per kilogram (kg) of food); or
</P>
<P>(B) Inherently does not contain gluten; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any unavoidable presence of gluten in the food bearing the claim in its labeling is below 20 ppm gluten (i.e., below 20 mg gluten per kg of food).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) A food that bears the claim “gluten-free” in its labeling and fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section and, if applicable, paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section will be deemed misbranded.
</P>
<P>(2) A food that bears the claim “no gluten,” “free of gluten,” or “without gluten” in its labeling and fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section and, if applicable, paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section will be deemed misbranded.
</P>
<P>(3) A food that bears the term “wheat” in the ingredient list or in a separate “Contains wheat” statement in its labeling, as required by 21 U.S.C. 343(w)(1)(A), and also bears the claim “gluten-free” or a claim identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section will be deemed misbranded unless the word “wheat” in the ingredient list or in the “Contains wheat” statement is followed immediately by an asterisk (or other symbol) that refers to another asterisk (or other symbol) in close proximity to the ingredient statement that immediately precedes the following: “The wheat has been processed to allow this food to meet the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requirements for gluten-free foods.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance.</I> (1) When compliance with paragraph (b) of this section is based on an analysis of the food, FDA will use a scientifically valid method that can reliably detect and quantify the presence of 20 ppm gluten in a variety of food matrices, including both raw and cooked or baked products.
</P>
<P>(2) When a scientifically valid method pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section is not available because the food is fermented or hydrolyzed, the manufacturer of such foods bearing the claim must make and keep records regarding the fermented or hydrolyzed food demonstrating adequate assurance that:
</P>
<P>(i) The food is “gluten-free” in compliance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section before fermentation or hydrolysis;
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufacturer has adequately evaluated their processing for any potential for gluten cross-contact; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Where a potential for gluten cross-contact has been identified, the manufacturer has implemented measures to prevent the introduction of gluten into the food during the manufacturing process.
</P>
<P>(3) When a scientifically valid method pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section is not available because the food contains one or more ingredients that are fermented or hydrolyzed, the manufacturer of such foods bearing the claim must make and keep records demonstrating adequate assurance that the fermented or hydrolyzed ingredients are “gluten-free” as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Records necessary to verify compliance with paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section must be retained for at least 2 years after introduction or delivery for introduction of the food into interstate commerce and may be kept as original records, as true copies, or as electronic records. Manufacturers must provide those records to us for examination and copying during an inspection upon request.
</P>
<P>(5) When a scientifically valid method pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section is not available because the food is distilled, FDA will evaluate compliance with paragraph (b) of this section by verifying the absence of protein in the distilled component using scientifically valid analytical methods that can reliably detect the presence or absence of protein or protein fragments in the food.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preemption.</I> A State or political subdivision of a State may not establish or continue into effect any law, rule, regulation, or other requirement that is different from the requirements in this section for the definition and use of the claim “gluten-free,” as well as the claims “no gluten,” “free of gluten,” or “without gluten.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 47178, Aug. 5, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 49260, Aug. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.93" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.93   Certain types of statements for dietary supplements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) No later than 30 days after the first marketing of a dietary supplement that bears one of the statements listed in section 403(r)(6) or the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the dietary supplement shall notify the Office of Dietary Supplement Programs (HFS-810), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, that it has included such a statement on the label or in the labeling of its product. An original and two copies of this notification shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) The notification shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the dietary supplement that bears the statement;
</P>
<P>(ii) The text of the statement that is being made;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the dietary ingredient or supplement that is the subject of the statement, if not provided in the text of the statement; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The name of the dietary supplement (including brand name), if not provided in response to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) on whose label, or in whose labeling, the statement appears.
</P>
<P>(3) The notice shall be signed by a responsible individual or the person who can certify the accuracy of the information presented and contained in the notice. The individual shall certify that the information contained in the notice is complete and accurate, and that the notifying firm has substantiation that the statement is truthful and not misleading.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclaimer.</I> The requirements in this section apply to the label or labeling of dietary supplements where the dietary supplement bears a statement that is provided for by section 403(r)(6) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), and the manufacturer, packer, or distributor wishes to take advantage of the exemption to section 201(g)(1)(C) of the act that is provided by compliance with section 403(r)(6) of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Text for disclaimer.</I> (1) Where there is one statement, the disclaimer shall be placed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and shall state:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This statement has not been evaluated by the Food and Drug Administration. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Where there is more than one such statement on the label or in the labeling, each statement shall bear the disclaimer in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, or a plural disclaimer may be placed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and shall state:
</P>
<P>These statements have not been evaluated by the Food and Drug Administration. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Placement.</I> The disclaimer shall be placed adjacent to the statement with no intervening material or linked to the statement with a symbol (e.g., an asterisk) at the end of each such statement that refers to the same symbol placed adjacent to the disclaimer specified in paragraphs (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section. On product labels and in labeling (e.g., pamphlets, catalogs), the disclaimer shall appear on each panel or page where there such is a statement. The disclaimer shall be set off in a box where it is not adjacent to the statement in question.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Typesize.</I> The disclaimer in paragraph (c) of this section shall appear in boldface type in letters of a typesize no smaller than one-sixteenth inch.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Permitted structure/function statements.</I> Dietary supplement labels or labeling may, subject to the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, bear statements that describe the role of a nutrient or dietary ingredient intended to affect the structure or function in humans or that characterize the documented mechanism by which a nutrient or dietary ingredient acts to maintain such structure or function, provided that such statements are not disease claims under paragraph (g) of this section. If the label or labeling of a product marketed as a dietary supplement bears a disease claim as defined in paragraph (g) of this section, the product will be subject to regulation as a drug unless the claim is an authorized health claim for which the product qualifies.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disease claims.</I> (1) For purposes of 21 U.S.C. 343(r)(6), a “disease” is damage to an organ, part, structure, or system of the body such that it does not function properly (e.g., cardiovascular disease), or a state of health leading to such dysfunctioning (e.g., hypertension); except that diseases resulting from essential nutrient deficiencies (e.g., scurvy, pellagra) are not included in this definition.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will find that a statement about a product claims to diagnose, mitigate, treat, cure, or prevent disease (other than a classical nutrient deficiency disease) under 21 U.S.C. 343(r)(6) if it meets one or more of the criteria listed below. These criteria are not intended to classify as disease claims statements that refer to the ability of a product to maintain healthy structure or function, unless the statement implies disease prevention or treatment. In determining whether a statement is a disease claim under these criteria, FDA will consider the context in which the claim is presented. A statement claims to diagnose, mitigate, treat, cure, or prevent disease if it claims, explicitly or implicitly, that the product:
</P>
<P>(i) Has an effect on a specific disease or class of diseases;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an effect on the characteristic signs or symptoms of a specific disease or class of diseases, using scientific or lay terminology;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has an effect on an abnormal condition associated with a natural state or process, if the abnormal condition is uncommon or can cause significant or permanent harm;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has an effect on a disease or diseases through one or more of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the product;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement about the formulation of the product, including a claim that the product contains an ingredient (other than an ingredient that is an article included in the definition of “dietary supplement” under 21 U.S.C. 321(ff)(3)) that has been regulated by FDA as a drug and is well known to consumers for its use or claimed use in preventing or treating a disease;
</P>
<P>(C) Citation of a publication or reference, if the citation refers to a disease use, and if, in the context of the labeling as a whole, the citation implies treatment or prevention of a disease, e.g., through placement on the immediate product label or packaging, inappropriate prominence, or lack of relationship to the product's express claims;
</P>
<P>(D) Use of the term “disease” or “diseased,” except in general statements about disease prevention that do not refer explicitly or implicitly to a specific disease or class of diseases or to a specific product or ingredient; or
</P>
<P>(E) Use of pictures, vignettes, symbols, or other means;
</P>
<P>(v) Belongs to a class of products that is intended to diagnose, mitigate, treat, cure, or prevent a disease;
</P>
<P>(vi) Is a substitute for a product that is a therapy for a disease;
</P>
<P>(vii) Augments a particular therapy or drug action that is intended to diagnose, mitigate, treat, cure, or prevent a disease or class of diseases;
</P>
<P>(viii) Has a role in the body's response to a disease or to a vector of disease;
</P>
<P>(ix) Treats, prevents, or mitigates adverse events associated with a therapy for a disease, if the adverse events constitute diseases; or
</P>
<P>(x) Otherwise suggests an effect on a disease or diseases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 49886, Sept. 23, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 49867, Sept. 23, 1997; 65 FR 1050, Jan. 6, 2000; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.95" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.95   “Fresh,” “freshly frozen,” “fresh frozen,” “frozen fresh.”</HEAD>
<P>The terms defined in this section may be used on the label or in labeling of a food in conformity with the provisions of this section. The requirements of the section pertain to any use of the subject terms as described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section that expressly or implicitly refers to the food on labels or labeling, including use in a brand name and use as a sensory modifier. However, the use of the term “fresh” on labels or labeling is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the term does not suggest or imply that a food is unprocessed or unpreserved. For example, the term “fresh” used to describe pasteurized whole milk is not subject to paragraph (a) of this section because the term does not imply that the food is unprocessed (consumers commonly understand that milk is nearly always pasteurized). However, the term “fresh” to describe pasta sauce that has been pasteurized or that contains pasteurized ingredients would be subject to paragraph (a) of this section because the term implies that the food is not processed or preserved. Uses of fresh not subject to this regulation will be governed by the provisions of 403(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).
</P>
<P>(a) The term “fresh,” when used on the label or in labeling of a food in a manner that suggests or implies that the food is unprocessed, means that the food is in its raw state and has not been frozen or subjected to any form of thermal processing or any other form of preservation, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The terms “fresh frozen” and “frozen fresh,” when used on the label or in labeling of a food, mean that the food was quickly frozen while still fresh (i.e., the food had been recently harvested when frozen). Blanching of the food before freezing will not preclude use of the term “fresh frozen” to describe the food. “Quickly frozen” means frozen by a freezing system such as blast-freezing (sub-zero Fahrenheit temperature with fast moving air directed at the food) that ensures the food is frozen, even to the center of the food, quickly and that virtually no deterioration has taken place.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Provisions and restrictions.</I> (1) The following do not preclude the food from use of the term “fresh:”
</P>
<P>(i) The addition of approved waxes or coatings;
</P>
<P>(ii) The post-harvest use of approved pesticides;
</P>
<P>(iii) The application of a mild chlorine wash or mild acid wash on produce; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The treatment of raw foods with ionizing radiation not to exceed the maximum dose of 1 kiloGray in accordance with § 179.26 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A food meeting the definition in paragraph (a) of this section that is refrigerated is not precluded from use of “fresh” as provided by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2426, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Exemptions From Food Labeling Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.100   Food; exemptions from labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following foods are exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403(i)(2) of the act (requiring a declaration on the label of the common or usual name of each ingredient when the food is fabricated from two or more ingredients).
</P>
<P>(1) An assortment of different items of food, when variations in the items that make up different packages packed from such assortment normally occur in good packing practice and when such variations result in variations in the ingredients in different packages, with respect to any ingredient that is not common to all packages. Such exemption, however, shall be on the condition that the label shall bear, in conjunction with the names of such ingredients as are common to all packages, a statement (in terms that are as informative as practicable and that are not misleading) indicating by name other ingredients which may be present.
</P>
<P>(2) A food having been received in bulk containers at a retail establishment, if displayed to the purchaser with either:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling of the bulk container plainly in view, provided ingredient information appears prominently and conspicuously in lettering of not less than one-fourth of an inch in height; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously, but in no case with lettering of less than one-fourth of an inch in height, the information required to be stated on the label pursuant to section 403(i)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).
</P>
<P>(3) Incidental additives that are present in a food at insignificant levels and do not have any technical or functional effect in that food. For the purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), incidental additives are:
</P>
<P>(i) Substances that have no technical or functional effect but are present in a food by reason of having been incorporated into the food as an ingredient of another food, in which the substance did have a functional or technical effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) Processing aids, which are as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Substances that are added to a food during the processing of such food but are removed in some manner from the food before it is packaged in its finished form.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Substances that are added to a food during processing, are converted into constituents normally present in the food, and do not significantly increase the amount of the constituents naturally found in the food.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Substances that are added to a food for their technical or functional effect in the processing but are present in the finished food at insignificant levels and do not have any technical or functional effect in that food.
</P>
<P>(iii) Substances migrating to food from equipment or packaging or otherwise affecting food that are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the act; or if they are food additives as so defined, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(4) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, any sulfiting agent (sulfur dioxide, sodium sulfite, sodium bisulfite, potassium bisulfite, sodium metabisulfite, and potassium metabisulfite) that has been added to any food or to any ingredient in any food and that has no technical effect in that food will be considered to be present in an insignificant amount only if no detectable amount of the agent is present in the finished food. A detectable amount of sulfiting agent is 10 parts per million (ppm or mg/kg) or more of the sulfite in the finished food. Compliance with this paragraph (a)(4) will be determined using either:
</P>
<P>(i) Determination of Sulfite in Food by Liquid Chromatography Tandem Mass Spectrometry; or
</P>
<P>(ii) AOAC Official Method 990.28.
</P>
<P>(b) A food repackaged in a retail establishment is exempt from the following provisions of the act if the conditions specified are met.
</P>
<P>(1) Section 403(e)(1) of the act (requiring a statement on the label of the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor).
</P>
<P>(2) Section 403(g)(2) of the act (requiring the label of a food which purports to be or is represented as one for which a definition and standard of identity has been prescribed to bear the name of the food specified in the definition and standard and, insofar as may be required by the regulation establishing the standard the common names of the optional ingredients present in the food), if the food is displayed to the purchaser with its interstate labeling clearly in view, or with a counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously the information required by these provisions.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 403(i)(1) of the act (requiring the label to bear the common or usual name of the food), if the food is displayed to the purchaser with its interstate labeling clearly in view, or with a counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously the common or usual name of the food, or if the common or usual name of the food is clearly revealed by its appearance.
</P>
<P>(c) An open container (a container of rigid or semirigid construction, which is not closed by lid, wrapper, or otherwise other than by an uncolored transparent wrapper which does not obscure the contents) of a fresh fruit or fresh vegetable, the quantity of contents of which is not more than 1 dry quart, shall be exempt from the labeling requirements of sections 403(e), (g)(2) (with respect to the name of the food specified in the definition and standard), and (i)(1) of the act; but such exemption shall be on the condition that if two or more such containers are enclosed in a crate or other shipping package, such crate or package shall bear labeling showing the number of such containers enclosed therein and the quantity of the contents of each.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, a shipment or other delivery of a food which is, in accordance with the practice of the trade, to be processed, labeled, or repacked in substantial quantity at an establishment other than that where originally processed or packed, shall be exempt, during the time of introduction into and movement in interstate commerce and the time of holding in such establishment, from compliance with the labeling requirements of section 403 (c), (e), (g), (h), (i), (k), and (q) of the act if:
</P>
<P>(1) The person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce is the operator of the establishment where such food is to be processed, labeled, or repacked; or
</P>
<P>(2) In case such person is not such operator, such shipment or delivery is made to such establishment under a written agreement, signed by and containing the post office addresses of such person and such operator, and containing such specifications for the processing, labeling, or repacking, as the case may be, of such food in such establishment as will ensure, if such specifications are followed, that such food will not be adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act upon completion of such processing, labeling, or repacking. Such person and such operator shall each keep a copy of such agreement until 2 years after the final shipment or delivery of such food from such establishment, and shall make such copies available for inspection at any reasonable hour to any officer or employee of the Department who requests them.
</P>
<P>(3) The article is an egg product subject to a standard of identity promulgated in part 160 of this chapter, is to be shipped under the conditions specified in paragraph (d) (1) or (2) of this section and for the purpose of pasteurization or other treatment as required in such standard, and each container of such egg product bears a conspicuous tag or label reading “Caution—This egg product has not been pasteurized or otherwise treated to destroy viable Salmonella microorganisms”. In addition to safe and suitable bactericidal processes designed specifically for Salmonella destruction in egg products, the term “other treatment” in the first sentence of this paragraph shall include use in acidic dressings in the processing of which the pH is not above 4.1 and the acidity of the aqueous phase, expressed as acetic acid, is not less than 1.4 percent, subject also to the conditions that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement required in paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall also state that the operator agrees to utilize such unpasteurized egg products in the processing of acidic dressings according to the specifications for pH and acidity set forth in this paragraph, agrees not to deliver the acidic dressing to a user until at least 72 hours after such egg product is incorporated in such acidic dressing, and agrees to maintain for inspection adequate records covering such processing for 2 years after such processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the caution statement referred to above, the container of such egg product shall also bear the statement “Unpasteurized ______ for use in acidic dressings only”, the blank being filled in with the applicable name of the eggs or egg product.
</P>
<P>(e) Conditions affecting expiration of exemptions: 
</P>
<P>(1) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a food under paragraph (d) (1) or (3) of this section shall, at the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment become void ab initio if the food comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed.
</P>
<P>(2) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a food under paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section shall become void ab initio with respect to the person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce upon refusal by such person to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a food under paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section shall expire:
</P>
<P>(i) At the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment if the food constituting such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon refusal by the operator of the establishment where such food is to be processed, labeled, or repacked, to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such paragraph.
</P>
<P>(f) The word “processed” as used in this paragraph shall include the holding of cheese in a suitable warehouse at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for the purpose of aging or curing to bring the cheese into compliance with requirements of an applicable definition and standard of identity. The exemptions provided for in paragraph (d) of this section shall apply to cheese which is, in accordance with the practice of the trade, shipped to a warehouse for aging or curing, on condition that the cheese is identified in the manner set forth in one of the applicable following paragraphs, and in such case the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section shall also apply:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of varieties of cheese for which definitions and standards of identity require a period of aging whether or not they are made from pasteurized milk, each such cheese shall bear on the cheese a legible mark showing the date at which the preliminary manufacturing process has been completed and at which date curing commences, and to each cheese, on its wrapper or immediate container, shall be affixed a removable tag bearing the statement “Uncured ______ cheese for completion of curing and proper labeling”, the blank being filled in with the applicable name of the variety of cheese. In the case of swiss cheese, the date at which the preliminary manufacturing process had been completed and at which date curing commences is the date on which the shaped curd is removed from immersion in saturated salt solution as provided in the definition and standard of identity for swiss cheese, and such cheese shall bear a removable tag reading, “To be cured and labeled as ‘swiss cheese,’ but if eyes do not form, to be labeled as ‘swiss cheese for manufacturing’ ”.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of varieties of cheeses which when made from unpasteurized milk are required to be aged for not less than 60 days, each such cheese shall bear a legible mark on the cheese showing the date at which the preliminary manufacturing process has been completed and at which date curing commences, and to each such cheese or its wrapper or immediate container shall be affixed a removable tag reading, “______ cheese made from unpasteurized milk. For completion of curing and proper labeling”, the blank being filled in with the applicable name of the variety of cheese.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, and brick cheese made from unpasteurized milk, each such cheese shall bear a legible mark on the cheese showing the date at which the preliminary manufacturing process has been completed and at which date curing commences, and to each such cheese or its wrapper or immediate container shall be affixed a removable tag reading “______ cheese made from unpasteurized milk. For completion of curing and proper labeling, or for labeling as ______ cheese for manufacturing”, the blank being filled in with the applicable name of the variety of cheese.
</P>
<P>(g) The label declaration of a harmless marker used to identify a particular manufacturer's product may result in unfair competition through revealing a trade secret. Exemption from the label declaration of such a marker is granted, therefore, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The person desiring to use the marker without label declaration of its presence has submitted to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs full information concerning the proposed usage and the reasons why he believes label declaration of the marker should be subject to this exemption; and
</P>
<P>(2) The person requesting the exemption has received from the Commissioner of Food and Drugs a finding that the marker is harmless and that the exemption has been granted.
</P>
<P>(h) Wrapped fish fillets of nonuniform weight intended to be unpacked and marked with the correct weight at or before the point of retail sale in an establishment other than that where originally packed shall be exempt from the requirement of section 403(e)(2) of the act during introduction and movement in interstate commerce and while held for sale prior to weighing and marking:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Provided,</I> That (i) The outside container bears a label declaration of the total net weight; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual packages bear a conspicuous statement “To be weighed at or before time of sale” and a correct statement setting forth the weight of the wrapper;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provided further,</I> That it is the practice of the retail establishment to weigh and mark the individual packages with a correct net-weight statement prior to or at the point of retail sale. A statement of the weight of the wrapper shall be set forth so as to be readily read and understood, using such term as “wrapper tare—ounce”, the blank being filled in with the correct average weight of the wrapper used.
</P>
<P>(3) The act of delivering the wrapped fish fillets during the retail sale without the correct net-weight statement shall be deemed an act which results in the product's being misbranded while held for sale. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as requiring net-weight statements for wrapped fish fillets delivered into institutional trade provided the outside container bears the required information.
</P>
<P>(i) Wrapped clusters (consumer units) of bananas of nonuniform weight intended to be unpacked from a master carton or container and weighed at or before the point of retail sale in an establishment other than that where originally packed shall be exempt from the requirements of section 403(e)(2) of the act during introduction and movement in interstate commerce and while held for sale prior to weighing:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Provided,</I> That (i) The master carton or container bears a label declaration of the total net weight; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual packages bear a conspicuous statement “To be weighed at or before the time of sale” and a correct statement setting forth the weight of the wrapper; using such term as “wrapper tare __ ounce”, the blank being filled in with the correct average weight of the wrapper used;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provided further,</I> That it is the practice of the retail establishment to weigh the individual packages either prior to or at the time of retail sale.
</P>
<P>(3) The act of delivering the wrapped clusters (consumer units) during the retail sale without an accurate net weight statement or alternatively without weighing at the time of sale shall be deemed an act which results in the product's being misbranded while held for sale. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as requiring net-weight statements for clusters (consumer units) delivered into institutional trade, provided that the master container or carton bears the required information.
</P>
<P>(j) The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration's, Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, and available from the other sources listed in this paragraph (j). It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email <I>fedreg.legal@nara.gov</I> or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) AOAC International, 2275 Research Blvd., Ste. 300, Rockville, MD 20850-3250.
</P>
<P>(i) AOAC Official Method 990.28, Sulfites in Foods, Optimized Monier-Williams Method, Section 47.3.43, Official Methods of Analysis, 21st edition, 2019.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determination of Sulfite in Food by Liquid Chromatography Tandem Mass Spectrometry: Collaborative Study, Katherine S. Carlos and Lowri S. De Jager; <I>Journal of AOAC International,</I> Vol. 100, No. 6, 2017, pp. 1785-1794.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14308, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 25017, July 9, 1986; 58 FR 2188, 2876, Jan. 6, 1993; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001; 87 FR 2546, Jan. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.108" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.108   Temporary exemptions for purposes of conducting authorized food labeling experiments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food industry is encouraged to experiment voluntarily, under controlled conditions and in collaboration with the Food and Drug Administration, with and other formats for presenting nutrition and other related food labeling information that is consistent with the current quantitative system in §§ 101.9 and 105.66 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any firm that intends to undertake a labeling experiment that requires exemptions from certain requirements of §§ 101.9 and 105.66 of this chapter should submit a written proposal containing a thorough discussion of each of the following information items that apply to the particular experiment:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the labeling format to be tested;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the criteria to be used in the experiment for assigning foods to categories, e.g., nutrient or other values defining “low” and “reduced”;
</P>
<P>(3) A draft of the material to be used in the store, e.g., shelf tags, booklets, posters, etc.;
</P>
<P>(4) The dates on which the experiment will begin and end and on which a written report of analysis of the experimental data will be submitted to FDA, together with a commitment not to continue the experiment beyond the proposed ending date without FDA approval;
</P>
<P>(5) The geographic area or areas in which the experiment is to be conducted;
</P>
<P>(6) The mechanism to measure the effectiveness of the experiment;
</P>
<P>(7) The method for conveying to consumers the required nutrition and other labeling information that is exempted from the label during the experiment;
</P>
<P>(8) The method that will be or has been used to determine the actual nutritional characteristics of foods for which a claim is made; and
</P>
<P>(9) A statement of the sections of the regulations for which an exemption is sought.
</P>
<P>(c) The written proposal should be sent to the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. The proposal should be clearly identified as a request for a temporary exemption for purposes of conducting authorized food labeling experiments and submitted as a citizen petition under § 10.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Approval for food labeling experiments will be given by FDA in writing. Foods labeled in violation of existing regulations will be subject to regulatory action unless an FDA-approved exemption to the specific regulation has been granted for that specific product.
</P>
<P>(e) Reporting requirements contained in § 101.108(b) have been approved by this Office of Management and Budget and assigned number 0910-0151.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 15240, Apr. 8, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 62 FR 15343, Mar. 31, 1997; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.9.1.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 101 [Reserved]







</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.9.1.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 101—Graphic Enhancements Used by the FDA

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de18.018.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 65504, Dec. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.9.1.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 101—Nutrition Facts for Raw Fruits and Vegetables

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er17au06.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17au06.008.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="04">[71 FR 47439, Aug. 17, 2006]</E></BCAP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.2.9.1.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 101—Nutrition Facts for Cooked Fish

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er17au06.009.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="04">[71 FR 47439, Aug. 17, 2006]</E></BCAP>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="102" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 102—COMMON OR USUAL NAME FOR NONSTANDARDIZED FOODS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 343, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14322, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 102 appear at 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.5   General principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of a food, which may be a coined term, shall accurately identify or describe, in as simple and direct terms as possible, the basic nature of the food or its characterizing properties or ingredients. The name shall be uniform among all identical or similar products and may not be confusingly similar to the name of any other food that is not reasonably encompassed within the same name. Each class or subclass of food shall be given its own common or usual name that states, in clear terms, what it is in a way that distinguishes it from different foods.
</P>
<P>(b) The common or usual name of a food shall include the percentage(s) of any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) when the proportion of such ingredient(s) or component(s) in the food has a material bearing on price or consumer acceptance or when the labeling or the appearance of the food may otherwise create an erroneous impression that such ingredient(s) or component(s) is present in an amount greater than is actually the case. The following requirements shall apply unless modified by a specific regulation in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) The percentage of a characterizing ingredient or component shall be declared on the basis of its quantity in the finished product (i.e., weight/weight in the case of solids, or volume/volume in the case of liquids).
</P>
<P>(2) The percentage of a characterizing ingredient or component shall be declared by the words “containing (or contains) __ percent (or %) ______” or “__ percent (or %) ______” with the first blank filled in with the percentage expressed as a whole number not greater than the actual percentage of the ingredient or component named and the second blank filled in with the common or usual name of the ingredient or component. The word “containing” (or “contains”), when used, shall appear on a line immediately below the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraph (a) of this section. For each characterizing ingredient or component, the words “__ percent or %) ______” shall appear following or directly below the word “containing” (or contains), or directly below the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraph (a) of this section when the word “containing” (or contains) is not used, in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(i) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and not less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type appearing in the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The common or usual name of a food shall include a statement of the presence or absence of any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) and/or the need for the user to add any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) when the presence or absence of such ingredient(s) or component(s) in the food has a material bearing on price or consumer acceptance or when the labeling or the appearance of the food may otherwise create an erroneous impression that such ingredient(s) or component(s) is present when it is not, and consumers may otherwise be misled about the presence or absence of the ingredient(s) or component(s) in the food. The following requirements shall apply unless modified by a specific regulation in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) The presence or absence of a characterizing ingredient or component shall be declared by the words “containing (or contains) ______” or “containing (or contains) no ______” or “no ______” or “does not contain ______”, with the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the ingredient or component.
</P>
<P>(2) The need for the user of a food to add any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) shall be declared by an appropriate informative statement.
</P>
<P>(3) The statement(s) required under paragraph (c)(1) and/or (2) of this section shall appear following or directly below the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the alternatives established under paragraphs (b)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A common or usual name of a food may be established by common usage or by establishment of a regulation in subpart B of this part, in part 104 of this chapter, in a standard of identity, or in other regulations in this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.19" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.19   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition, may publish a proposal to issue, amend, or revoke, under this part, a regulation prescribing a common or usual name for a food, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) If the principal display panel of a food for which a common or usual name regulation is established is too small to accommodate all mandatory requirements, the Commissioner may establish by regulation an acceptable alternative, e.g., a smaller type size. A petition requesting such a regulation, which would amend the applicable regulation, shall be submitted pursuant to part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14322, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Nonstandardized Foods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.22" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.22   Protein hydrolysates.</HEAD>
<P>The common or usual name of a protein hydrolysate shall be specific to the ingredient and shall include the identity of the food source from which the protein was derived.
</P>
<P>(a) “Hydrolyzed wheat gluten,” “hydrolyzed soy protein,” and “autolyzed yeast extract” are examples of acceptable names. “Hydrolyzed casein” is also an example of an acceptable name, whereas “hydrolyzed milk protein” is not an acceptable name for this ingredient because it is not specific to the ingredient (hydrolysates can be prepared from other milk proteins). The names “hydrolyzed vegetable protein” and “hydrolyzed protein” are not acceptable because they do not identify the food source of the protein.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2876, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.23" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.23   Peanut spreads.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of a spreadable peanut product that does not conform to § 164.150 of this chapter, and more than 10 percent of which consists of nonpeanut ingredients, shall consist of the term “peanut spread” and a statement of the percentage by weight of peanuts in the product in the manner set forth in § 102.5(b), except that peanut percentages shall be based on the amount of peanuts used to make the finished food and shall be declared in 5-percent increments expressed as a multiple of 5, not to exceed the actual percentage of peanuts in the products.
</P>
<P>(b) A spreadable peanut product that is nutritionally inferior to peanut butter shall be labeled as an imitation of peanut butter under § 101.3(e)(2) of this chapter; a spreadable peanut product shall be considered nutritionally equivalent to peanut butter if it meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Protein.</I> (i) The protein content of the product is at least 24 percent by weight of the finished product, and the overall biological quality of the protein contained in the product is at least 68 percent that of casein; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The protein content of the product is at least 16.6 percent by weight of the finished product, and the overall biological quality of the protein contained in the product is equal to or greater than that of casein.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other nutrients.</I> The product contains the following levels of nutrients per 100 grams of product:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nutrient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount (milligrams)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Folic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">173.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section shall be determined by methods described in the following references except that in determining protein quantity in products with mixed protein sources a nitrogen conversion factor of 6.25 may be used.
</P>
<P>(1) Protein quantity: “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in section 27.007, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Biological quality of protein: AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in sections 43.212-43.216, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Niacin: AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in sections 43.044-43.046, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Vitamin B<E T="52">6</E>: AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in sections 43.188-43.193, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Folic acid: Using the method described in U.S. Department of Agriculture Handbook No. 29, modified by use of ascorbate buffer as described by Ford and Scott, <I>Journal of Dairy Research,</I> 35:85-90 (1968), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-800), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(6) Iron: AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in sections 43.217-43.219, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Zinc: AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in sections 25.150-25.153, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Copper: AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in sections 25.038-25.043, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) Magnesium: AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), using the method described in sections 2.109-2.113, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 36455, July 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11821, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 5609, Feb. 14, 1984; 54 FR 24891, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14479, Apr. 2, 1996; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.26" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.26   Frozen “heat and serve” dinners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A frozen “heat and serve” dinner:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall contain at least three components, one of which shall be a significant source of protein and each of which shall consist of one or more of the following: meat, poultry, fish, cheese, eggs, vegetables, fruit, potatoes, rice, or other cereal based products (other than bread or rolls).
</P>
<P>(2) May also contain other servings of food (e.g., soup, bread or rolls, beverage, dessert).
</P>
<P>(b) The common or usual name of the food consists of all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The phrase “frozen ‘heat and serve’ dinner,” except that the name of the predominant characterizing ingredient or other appropriately descriptive term may immediately precede the word “dinner” (e.g., “frozen chicken dinner” or “frozen heat and serve beef dinner”). The words “heat and serve” are optional. The word “frozen” is also optional, provided that the words “Keep Frozen” or the equivalent are prominently and conspicuously placed on the principal display panel in type size not less than that specified in § 102.5(b)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) The phrase “containing (or contains) ______” the blank to be filled in with an accurate description of each of the three or more dish components listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in their order of descending predominance by weight (e.g., ham, mashed potatoes, and peas), followed by any of the other servings specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section contained in the package (e.g., onion soup, enriched white bread, and artificially flavored vanilla pudding) in their order of descending predominance by weight. This part of the name shall be placed immediately following or directly below the part specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section in the manner set forth in § 102.5(c)(3). The words “contains” or “containing” are optional.
</P>
<P>(3) If the labeling implies that the package contains other foods and these foods are not present in the package, e.g., if a vignette on the package depicts a “serving suggestion” which includes any foods not present in the package, the principal display panel shall bear a statement that such foods are not present, in type size not less than that specified in § 102.5(b)(2)(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.28" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.28   Foods packaged for use in the preparation of “main dishes” or “dinners.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of a packaged food which is represented on the principal display panel by word or vignette to be used in the preparation of a “main dish”, “dinner”, or other such food serving, and to which some other important characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) not present in the package must be added, consists of all the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The common or usual name of each important ingredient or component in the package, in descending order of predominance by weight (e.g., “noodles and tomato sauce”).
</P>
<P>(2) An appropriate informative statement identifying the food to be prepared by use of the package contents (e.g., “for preparation of chicken casserole”).
</P>
<P>(3) An appropriate informative statement that additional characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) must be added and which names the additional characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) (e.g., “you must add ______ to complete the recipe,” the blank to be filled in with the name(s) of the important characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) that must be added).
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling required by paragraph (a) of this section shall appear on the principal display panel.
</P>
<P>(1) No word in the statement required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section may appear on the principal display panel more conspicuously or in larger type than the smallest and least conspicuous type employed on the panel for any word, phrase or statement within the scope of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Every word in the statement required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall appear on the principal display panel in easily legible bold face print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(i) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and not less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type appearing in the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Any vignette which shows any food or characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) not included in the package shall be accompanied either by the statement required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by a separate statement specifying the food or characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) shown in the vignette but not included in the package.
</P>
<P>(d) If the statement specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used on any panel in addition to the principal display panel as a product identification statement, the complete common or usual name shall appear on such panel in the manner specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) When a brand name or other prominent product designation contains a word or words that includes or suggests an important characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) that must be added, or otherwise states or implies that the package contains a complete main dish, dinner, or other food serving, the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall appear in direct conjunction with such brand name or other designation and in type size not less than one-half the height of the largest type appearing in such brand name or other designation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.33" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.33   Beverages that contain fruit or vegetable juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For a carbonated or noncarbonated beverage that contains less than 100 percent and more than 0 percent fruit or vegetable juice, the common or usual name shall be a descriptive name that meets the requirements of § 102.5(a) and, if the common or usual name uses the word “juice,” shall include a qualifying term such as “beverage,” “cocktail,” or “drink” appropriate to advise the consumer that the product is less than 100 percent juice (e.g., “diluted grape juice beverage” or “grape juice drink”).
</P>
<P>(b) If the product is a diluted multiple-juice beverage or blend of single-strength juices and names, other than in the ingredient statement, more than one juice, then the names of those juices, except in the ingredient statement, must be in descending order of predominance by volume unless the name specifically shows that the juice with the represented flavor is used as a flavor (e.g., raspberry-flavored apple and pear juice drink). In accordance with § 101.22(i)(1)(iii) of this chapter, the presence of added natural flavors is not required to be declared in the name of the beverage unless the declared juices alone do not characterize the product before the addition of the added flavors.
</P>
<P>(c) If a diluted multiple-juice beverage or blend of single-strength juices contains a juice that is named or implied on the label or labeling other than in the ingredient statement (represented juice), and also contains a juice other than the named or implied juice (nonrepresented juice), then the common or usual name for the product shall indicate that the represented juice is not the only juice present (e.g., “Apple blend; apple juice in a blend of two other fruit juices.”)
</P>
<P>(d) In a diluted multiple-juice beverage or blend of single-strength juices where one or more, but not all, of the juices are named on the label other than in the ingredient statement, and where the named juice is not the predominant juice, the common or usual name for the product shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Indicate that the named juice is present as a flavor or flavoring (e.g., “Raspcranberry”; raspberry and cranberry flavored juice drink); or
</P>
<P>(2) Include the amount of the named juice, declared in a 5- percent range (e.g., Raspcranberry; raspberry and cranberry juice beverage, 10- to 15-percent cranberry juice and 3- to 8-percent raspberry juice). The 5-percent range, when used, shall be declared in the manner set forth in § 102.5(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) The common or usual name of a juice that has been modified shall include a description of the exact nature of the modification (e.g., “acid-reduced cranberry juice,” “deflavored, decolored grape juice”).
</P>
<P>(f) If the product is a beverage that contains a juice whose color, taste, or other organoleptic properties have been modified to the extent that the original juice is no longer recognizable at the time processing is complete, or if its nutrient profile has been diminished to a level below the normal nutrient range for the juice, then the source fruits or vegetables from which the modified juice was derived may not be depicted on the label by vignette or other pictorial representation.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) If one or more juices in a juice beverage is made from concentrate, the name of the juice must include a term indicating that fact, such as “from concentrate,” or “reconstituted.” Such terms must be included in the name of each individual juice or it may be stated once adjacent to the product name so that it applies to all the juices, (e.g., “cherry juice (from concentrate) in a blend of two other juices” or “cherry juice in a blend of 2 other juices (from concentrate)”). The term shall be in a type size no less than one-half the height of the letters in the name of the juice.
</P>
<P>(2) If the juice is 100 percent single species juice consisting of juice directly expressed from a fruit or vegetable whose Brix level has been raised by the addition of juice concentrate from the same fruit or vegetable, the name of the juice need not include a statement that the juice is from concentrate. However, if water is added to this 100 percent juice mixture to adjust the Brix level, the product shall be labeled with the term “from concentrate” or “reconstituted.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2926, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17103, Apr. 1, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 44063, Aug. 18, 1993; 62 FR 15343, Mar. 31, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.37" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.37   Mixtures of edible fat or oil and olive oil.</HEAD>
<P>The common or usual name of a mixture of edible fats and oils containing less than 100 percent and more than 0 percent olive oil shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) A descriptive name for the product meeting the requirements of § 102.5(a), e.g., “cottonseed oil and olive oil” or another descriptive phrase, and
</P>
<P>(b) When the label bears any representation, other than in the ingredient listing, of the presence of olive oil in the mixture, the descriptive name shall be followed by a statement of the percentage of olive oil contained in the product in the manner set forth in § 102.5(b)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.39" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.39   Onion rings made from diced onion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of the food product that resembles and is of the same composition as onion rings, except that it is composed of comminuted onions, shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When the product is composed of dehydrated onions, the name shall be “onion rings made from dried diced onions.”
</P>
<P>(2) When the product is composed of any form of onion other than dehydrated, the name shall be “onion rings made from diced onions.”
</P>
<P>(b) The words “made from dried diced onions” or “made from diced onions” shall immediately follow or appear on a line(s) immediately below the words “onion rings” in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and not less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type used in the words “onion rings.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.41" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.41   Potato chips made from dried potatoes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of the food product that resembles and is of the same composition as potato chips, except that it is composed of dehydrated potatoes (buds, flakes, granules, or other form), shall be “potato chips made from dried potatoes.”
</P>
<P>(b) The words “made from dried potatoes” shall immediately follow or appear on a line(s) immediately below the words “potato chips” in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and not less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type used in the words “potato chips.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.45" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.45   Fish sticks or portions made from minced fish.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of the food product that resembles and is of the same composition as fish sticks or fish portions, except that it is composed of comminuted fish flesh, shall be “fish ______ made from minced fish,” the blank to be filled in with the word “sticks” or “portions” as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(b) The words “made from minced fish” shall immediately follow or appear on a line(s) immediately below the words “fish ______” in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and not less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type used in the words “fish ______.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.46" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.46   Pacific whiting.</HEAD>
<P>“Pacific whiting” or “North Pacific whiting” is the common or usual name of the food fish <I>Merluccius productus.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 45617, Aug. 3, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.47" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.47   Bonito.</HEAD>
<P>“Bonito” or “bonito fish” is the common or usual name of the following food fishes:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>Cybiosarda elegans</I> (Whitely, 1935)—Leaping bonito
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Gymnosarda unicolor</I> (Ruppell, 1838)—Dogtooth tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Orcynopsis unicolor</I> (Geoffroy St. Hilaire, 1817)—Plain bonito
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sarda australis</I> (Macleay, 1880)—Australian bonito
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sarda chiliensis</I> (Cuvier, 1831)—Eastern Pacific bonito
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sarda orientalis</I> (Temminck and Schlegel, 1844)—Striped bonito
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sarda sarda</I> (Bloch, 1793)—Atlantic bonito</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 45797, Oct. 31, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.49" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.49   Fried clams made from minced clams.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of the food product that resembles and is of the same composition as fried clams, except that it is composed of comminuted clams, shall be “fried clams made from minced clams.”
</P>
<P>(b) The words “made from minced clams” shall immediately follow or appear on a line(s) immediately below the words “fried clams” and in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and not less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type used in the words “fried clams.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.50" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.50   Crabmeat.</HEAD>
<P>The common or usual name of crabmeat derived from each of the following designated species of crabs shall be as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scientific name of crab
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common or usual name of crabmeat
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Chionoecetes opilio, Chionoecetes tanneri, Chionoecetes bairdii, and Chionoecetes angulatus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Snow crabmeat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Erimacrus isenbeckii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Korean variety crabmeat or Kegani crabmeat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Lithodes aequispinus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Golden King crabmeat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Paralithodes brevipes</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">King crabmeat or Hanasaki crabmeat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Paralithodes camtschaticus and Paralithodes platypus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">King crabmeat.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14322, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 60 FR 34460, July 3, 1995; 83 FR 19431, May 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.54" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.54   Seafood cocktails.</HEAD>
<P>The common or usual name of a seafood cocktail in package form fabricated with one or more seafood ingredients shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) When the cocktail contains only one seafood ingredient, the name of the seafood ingredient followed by the word “cocktail” (e.g., shrimp cocktail, crabmeat cocktail) and a statement of the percentage by weight of that seafood ingredient in the product in the manner set forth in § 102.5(b).
</P>
<P>(b) When the cocktail contains more than one seafood ingredient, the term “seafood cocktail” and a statement of the percentage by weight of each seafood ingredient in the product in the manner set forth in § 102.5(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.55" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.55   Nonstandardized breaded composite shrimp units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common on usual name of the food product that conforms to the definition and standard of identity described by § 161.175(c)(6) of this chapter, except that the food is made from comminuted shrimp and is not in raw frozen form, shall be “______ made from minced shrimp,” the blank to be filled in with the words “breaded shrimp sticks” or “breaded shrimp cutlets” depending upon the shape of the product, or if prepared in a shape other than that of sticks or cutlets “breaded shrimp ______ made from minced shrimp,” the blank to be filled by a word or phrase that accurately describes the shape and that is not misleading.
</P>
<P>(b) The words “made from minced shrimp” shall immediately follow or appear on a line(s) immediately below the other words required by this section in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and no less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type used in the words “breaded shrimp sticks” or the other comparable words required by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.57" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.3.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.57   Greenland turbot (<E T="7462">Reinhardtius hippoglossoides</E>).</HEAD>
<P>“Greenland turbot” is the common or usual name of the food fish <I>Reinhardtius hippoglossoides,</I> a species of <I>Pleuronectidae</I> right-eye flounders. The term “halibut” may be associated only with Atlantic halibut (<I>Hippoglossus hippoglossus</I>) or Pacific halibut (<I>Hippoglossus stenolepis</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="104" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 104—NUTRITIONAL QUALITY GUIDELINES FOR FOODS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 343, 371(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14327, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 104.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 104.5   General principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A nutritional quality guideline prescribes the minimum level or range of nutrient composition (nutritional quality) appropriate for a given class of food.
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling for a product which complies with all of the requirements of the nutritional quality guideline established for its class of food may state “This product provides nutrients in amounts appropriate for this class of food as determined by the U.S. Government,” except that the words “this product” are optional. This statement, if used, shall be printed on the principal display panel, and may also be printed on the information panel, in letters not larger than twice the size of the minimum type required for the declaration of net quantity of contents by § 101.7 of this chapter. Labeling of noncomplying products may not include any such statement or otherwise represent, suggest, or imply the product as being, in whole or in part, in compliance with a guideline.
</P>
<P>(c) A product bearing the statement provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, in addition to meeting the requirements of the applicable nutritional quality guideline, shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the product shall bear the common or usual name of the food in accordance with the provisions of the guideline and §§ 101.3 and 102.5(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the product shall bear nutrition labeling in accordance with §§ 101.2 and 101.9 of this chapter and all other labeling required by applicable sections of part 101 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) No claim or statement may be made on the label or in labeling representing, suggesting, or implying any nutritional or other differences between a product to which nutrient addition has or has not been made in order to meet the guideline, except that a nutrient addition shall be declared in the ingredient statement.
</P>
<P>(e) Compliance with a nutrient level specified in a nutritional quality guideline shall be determined by the procedures and requirements established in § 101.9(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) A product within a class of food for which a nutritional quality guideline has been established and to which has been added a discrete nutrient either for which no minimum nutrient level or nutrient range or other allowance has been established as appropriate in the nutritional quality guideline, or at a level that exceeds any maximum established as appropriate in the guideline, shall be ineligible to bear the guideline statement provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, and such a product shall also be deemed to be misbranded under the act unless the label and all labeling bear the following prominent and conspicuous statement: “The addition of ______ to (or “The addition of ______ at the level contained in) this product has been determined by the U.S. Government to be unnecessary and inappropriate and does not increase the dietary value of the food,” the blank to be filled in with the common or usual name of the nutrient(s) involved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14327, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 63 FR 14818, Mar. 27, 1998; 81 FR 59131, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Fortification Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 104.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 104.20   Statement of purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The fundamental objective of this subpart is to establish a uniform set of principles that will serve as a model for the rational addition of nutrients to foods. The achievement and maintenance of a desirable level of nutritional quality in the nation's food supply is an important public health objective. The addition of nutrients to specific foods can be an effective way of maintaining and improving the overall nutritional quality of the food supply. However, random fortification of foods could result in over- or underfortification in consumer diets and create nutrient imbalances in the food supply. It could also result in deceptive or misleading claims for certain foods. The Food and Drug Administration does not encourage indiscriminate addition of nutrients to foods, nor does it consider it appropriate to fortify fresh produce; meat, poultry, or fish products; sugars; or snack foods such as candies and carbonated beverages. To preserve a balance of nutrients in the diet, manufacturers who elect to fortify foods are urged to utilize these principles when adding nutrients to food. It is reasonable to anticipate that the Reference Daily Intakes (RDI's) as delineated in § 101.9 of this chapter and in paragraph (d) of this section will be amended from time to time to list additional nutrients and/or to change the levels of specific RDI's as improved knowledge about human nutrient requirements and allowances develops. The policy set forth in this section is based on U.S. dietary practices and nutritional needs and may not be applicable in other countries.
</P>
<P>(b) A nutrient(s) listed in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may appropriately be added to a food to correct a dietary insufficiency recognized by the scientific community to exist and known to result in nutritional deficiency disease if:
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficient information is available to identify the nutritional problem and the affected population groups, and the food is suitable to act as a vehicle for the added nutrients. Manufacturers contemplating using this principle are urged to contact the Food and Drug Administration before implementing a fortification plan based on this principle.
</P>
<P>(2) The food is not the subject of any other Federal regulation for a food or class of food that requires, permits, or prohibits nutrient additions. (Other Federal regulations include, but are not limited to, standards of identity promulgated under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, nutritional quality guidelines established in subpart C of this part, and common or usual name regulations established in part 102 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(c) A nutrient(s) listed in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may appropriately be added to a food to restore such nutrient(s) to a level(s) representative of the food prior to storage, handling, and processing, when:
</P>
<P>(1) The nutrient is shown by adequate scientific documentation to have been lost in storage, handling, or processing in a measurable amount equal to at least 2 percent of the Daily Reference Value (DRV) of protein and of potassium and 2 percent of the Reference Daily Intake (RDI) in a normal serving of the food.
</P>
<P>(2) Good manufacturing practices and normal storage and handling procedures cannot prevent the loss of such nutrient(s),
</P>
<P>(3) All nutrients, including protein, iodine and vitamin D, that are lost in a measurable amount are restored and all ingredients of the food product that contribute nutrients are considered in determining restoration levels; and
</P>
<P>(4) The food is not the subject of any other Federal regulation that requires or prohibits nutrient addition(s), or the food has not been fortified in accordance with any other Federal regulation that permits voluntary nutrient additions.
</P>
<P>(d) A nutrient(s) listed in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may be added to a food in proportion to the total caloric content of the food, to balance the vitamin, mineral, and protein content if:
</P>
<P>(1) A normal serving of the food contains at least 40 kilocalories (that is, 2 percent of a daily intake of 2,000 kilocalories);
</P>
<P>(2) The food is not the subject of any other Federal regulation for a food or class of food that requires, permits, or prohibits nutrient additions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The food contains all of the following nutrients per 100 calories based on 2,000 calorie total intake as a daily standard: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nutrient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit of measurement
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DRV or RDI 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount per 100 calories
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protein</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">grams (g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">International Unit (IU)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">milligrams (mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">g</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IU</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Folate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">micrograms (µg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Biotin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pantothenic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">g</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">µg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> RDI's for adults and children 4 or more years of age.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) A nutrient(s) may appropriately be added to a food that replaces traditional food in the diet to avoid nutritional inferiority in accordance with § 101.3(e)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Nutrient(s) may be added to foods as permitted or required by applicable regulations established elsewhere in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) A nutrient added to a food is appropriate only when the nutrient:
</P>
<P>(1) Is stable in the food under customary conditions of storage, distribution, and use;
</P>
<P>(2) Is physiologically available from the food;
</P>
<P>(3) Is present at a level at which there is a reasonable assurance that consumption of the food containing the added nutrient will not result in an excessive intake of the nutrient, considering cumulative amounts from other sources in the diet; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is suitable for its intended purpose and is in compliance with applicable provisions of the act and regulations governing the safety of substances in food.
</P>
<P>(h) Any claims or statements in the labeling of food about the addition of a vitamin, mineral, or protein to a food shall be made only if the claim or statement is not false or misleading and otherwise complies with the act and any applicable regulations. The following label claims are acceptable:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling claim “fully restored with vitamins and minerals” or “fully restored with vitamins and minerals to the level of unprocessed ______” (the blank to be filled in with the common or usual name of the food) may be used to describe foods fortified in accordance with the principles established in paragraph (c) of the section.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling claim, “vitamins and minerals (and “protein” when appropriate) added are in proportion to caloric content” may be used to describe food fortified in accordance with the principles established in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When labeling claims are permitted, the term “enriched,” “fortified,” “added,” or similar terms may be used interchangeably to indicate the addition of one or more vitamins or minerals or protein to a food, unless an applicable Federal regulation requires the use of specific words or statements.
</P>
<P>(i) It is inappropriate to make any claim or statement on a label or in labeling, other than in a listing of the nutrient ingredients as part of the ingredient statement, that any vitamin, mineral, or protein has been added to a food to which nutrients have been added pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 6323, Jan. 25, 1980, as amended at 58 FR 2228, Jan. 6, 1993] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specific Nutritional Quality Guidelines</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 104.47" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 104.47   Frozen “heat and serve” dinner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A product, for which a common or usual name is established in § 102.26 of this chapter, in order to be eligible to bear the guideline statement set forth at § 104.5(b), shall contain at least the following three components:
</P>
<P>(1) One or more sources of protein derived from meat, poultry, fish, cheese, or eggs.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more vegetables or vegetable mixtures other than potatoes, rice, or cereal-based product.
</P>
<P>(3) Potatoes, rice, or cereal-based product (other than bread or rolls) or another vegetable or vegetable mixture.
</P>
<P>(b) The three or more components named in paragraph (a) of this section, including their sauces, gravies, breading, etc.:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall contribute not less than the minimum levels of nutrients prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Shall be selected so that one or more of the listed protein sources of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, excluding their sauces, gravies, breading, etc., shall provide not less than 70 percent of the total protein supplied by the components named in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) If it is necessary to add any nutrient(s) in order to meet the minimum nutrient levels prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section, the addition of each such nutrient may not result in a total nutrient level exceeding 150 percent of the minimum level prescribed. Nutrients used for such addition shall be biologically available in the final product.
</P>
<P>(d) Minimum levels of nutrients for a frozen “heat and serve” dinner are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nutrient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum levels for frozen “heat and serve” dinner—
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">For each 100 Calories (keal) of the total components specified in par. (a)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">For the total components specified in par. (a)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protein, grams</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin A, IU</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">520.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamine, mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin, mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin, mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pantothenic acid, mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin, B<E T="52">6</E>, mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin, B<E T="52">1</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron, mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(1) A frozen “heat and serve” dinner prepared from conventional food ingredients listed in paragraph (a) of this section will also contain folic acid, magnesium, iodine, calcium, and zinc. Minimum levels for these nutrients cannot be established at the present time but may be specified as additional data are obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum levels for pantothenic acid, vitamin B-6, and vitamin B-12 are tentative. Final levels will be established when sufficient data are available. Until final levels are established, a product containing less than the tentative levels will not be deemed to be misbranded when labeled in accordance with § 104.5(b).
</P>
<P>(3) When technologically practicable, iodized salt shall be used or iodine shall be present at a level equivalent to that which would be present if iodized salt were used in the manufacture of the product.
</P>
<P>(4) When technologically practicable, product components and ingredients shall be selected to obtain the desirable calcium to phosphorous ratio of 1:1. Technological addition of phosphates shall be minimized and shall not exceed the amount necessary for the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(e) If the product includes servings of food which are not prescribed by paragraph (a) of this section (e.g., soup, bread or rolls, beverage, or dessert), their contribution shall not be considered in determining compliance with the nutrient levels established in paragraph (d) of this section but shall be included in any nutrition labeling.
</P>
<P>(f) For the purposes of labeling, an “average serving” shall be one entire frozen “heat and serve” dinner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14327, Mar. 5, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="105" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 105—FOODS FOR SPECIAL DIETARY USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 350, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14328, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 105.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 105.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (hereafter “the act”) shall be applicable with the following additions:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) The term <I>special dietary uses,</I> as applied to food for man, means particular (as distinguished from general) uses of food, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Uses for supplying particular dietary needs which exist by reason of a physical, physiological, pathological or other condition, including but not limited to the conditions of diseases, convalescence, pregnancy, lactation, allergic hypersensitivity to food, underweight, and overweight;
</P>
<P>(ii) Uses for supplying particular dietary needs which exist by reason of age, including but not limited to the ages of infancy and childhood;
</P>
<P>(iii) Uses for supplementing or fortifying the ordinary or usual diet with any vitamin, mineral, or other dietary property. Any such particular use of a food is a special dietary use, regardless of whether such food also purports to be or is represented for general use.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of an artificial sweetener in a food, except when specifically and solely used for achieving a physical characteristic in the food which cannot be achieved with sugar or other nutritive sweetener, shall be considered a use for regulation of the intake of calories and available carbohydrate, or for use in the diets of diabetics and is therefore a special dietary use.
</P>
<P>(b)-(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of the regulations in this part, the terms <I>infant, child,</I> and <I>adult</I> mean persons not more than 12 months old, more than 12 months but less than 12 years old, and 12 years or more old, respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14328, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 16006, Mar. 16, 1979; 44 FR 49665, Aug. 24, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Label Statements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 105.62" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 105.62   Hypoallergenic foods.</HEAD>
<P>If a food purports to be or is represented for special dietary use by reason of the decrease or absence of any allergenic property or by reason of being offered as food suitable as a substitute for another food having an allergenic property, the label shall bear:
</P>
<P>(a) The common or usual name and the quantity or proportion of each ingredient (including spices, flavoring, and coloring) in case the food is fabricated from two or more ingredients.
</P>
<P>(b) A qualification of the name of the food, or the name of each ingredient thereof in case the food is fabricated from two or more ingredients, to reveal clearly the specific plant or animal that is the source of such food or of such ingredient, if such food or such ingredient consists in whole or in part of plant or animal matter and such name does not reveal clearly the specific plant or animal that is such a source. 
</P>
<P>(c) An informative statement of the nature and effect of any treatment or processing of the food or any ingredient thereof, if the changed allergenic property results from such treatment or processing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 105.65" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 105.65   Infant foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a food (other than a dietary supplement of vitamins and/or minerals alone) purports to be or is represented for special dietary use for infants, the label shall bear, if such food is fabricated from two or more ingredients, the common or usual name of each ingredient, including spices, flavoring, and coloring.
</P>
<P>(b) If such food, or any ingredient thereof, consists in whole or in part of plant or animal matter and the name of such food or ingredient does not clearly reveal the specific plant or animal which is its source, such name shall be so qualified as to reveal clearly the specific plant or animal that is such source.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14328, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 947, Jan. 8, 1982; 49 FR 10090, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 1840, Jan. 14, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 105.66" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 105.66   Label statements relating to usefulness in reducing or maintaining body weight.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Any food that purports to be or is represented for special dietary use because of usefulness in reducing or maintaining body weight shall bear:
</P>
<P>(1) Nutrition labeling in conformity with § 101.9, or, where applicable, § 101.36 of this chapter, unless exempt under that section; and
</P>
<P>(2) A conspicuous statement of the basis upon which the food claims to be of special dietary usefulness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonnutritive ingredients.</I> (1) Any food subject to paragraph (a) of this section that achieves its special dietary usefulness by use of a nonnutritive ingredient (i.e., one not utilized in normal metabolism) shall bear on its label a statement that it contains a nonnutritive ingredient and the percentage by weight of the nonnutritive ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) A special dietary food may contain a nonnutritive sweetener or other ingredient only if the ingredient is safe for use in the food under the applicable law and regulations of this chapter. Any food that achieves its special dietary usefulness in reducing or maintaining body weight through the use of a nonnutritive sweetener shall bear on its label the statement required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, but need not state the percentage by weight of the nonnutritive sweetener. If a nutritive sweetener(s) as well as nonnutritive sweetener(s) is added, the statement shall indicate the presence of both types of sweetener, e.g., “Sweetened with nutritive sweetener(s) and nonnutritive sweetener(s).”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>“Low calorie” foods.</I> A food purporting to be “low calorie” must comply with the criteria set forth for such foods in § 101.60(b)(2) and (b)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>“Reduced calorie” foods and other comparative calorie claims.</I> A food purporting to be “reduced calorie” or otherwise containing fewer calories than a reference food must comply with the criteria set forth for such food in § 101.60(b)(4) and (b)(5) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label terms suggesting usefulness as low calorie or reduced calorie foods.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section, and in § 101.13(q)(2) of this chapter for soft drinks, a food may be labeled with terms such as “diet,” “dietetic,” “artificially sweetened,” or “sweetened with nonnutritive sweetener” only if the claim is not false and misleading, and the food is labeled “low calorie” or “reduced calorie” or bears another comparative calorie claim in compliance with part 101 of this chapter and this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall not apply to any use of such terms that is specifically authorized by regulation governing a particular food, or, unless otherwise restricted by regulation, to any use of the term “diet” that clearly shows that the food is offered solely for a dietary use other than regulating body weight, e.g., “for low-sodium diets.”
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall not apply to any use of such terms on a formulated meal replacement or other food that is represented to be of special dietary use as a whole meal, pending the issuance of a regulation governing the use of such terms on foods.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>“Sugar free,” and “no added sugar.”</I> Criteria for the use of the terms “sugar free” and “no added sugar” are provided for in § 101.60(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2430, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Standards of Identity [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="106" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 106—INFANT FORMULA REQUIREMENTS PERTAINING TO CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE, QUALITY CONTROL PROCEDURES, QUALITY FACTORS, RECORDS AND REPORTS, AND NOTIFICATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 350a, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 106 appear at 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.1   Status and applicability of the regulations in part 106.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria set forth in subparts B, C, and D of this part prescribe the steps that manufacturers shall take under section 412(b)(2) and (b)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(b)(2) and (b)(3)) in processing infant formula. If the processing of the formula does not comply with any regulation in subparts B, C, or D of this part, the formula will be deemed to be adulterated under section 412(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria set forth in subpart E of this part prescribe the requirements for quality factors that infant formula shall meet under section 412(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. If the formula fails to comply with any regulation in subpart E of this part, it will be deemed to be adulterated under section 412(a)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The criteria set forth in subpart F of this part prescribe records requirements for quality factors under section 412(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and for good manufacturing practices and quality control procedures, including distribution and audit records, under section 412(b)(2). If an infant formula manufacturer fails to comply with the quality factor record requirements in subpart F of this part with respect to an infant formula, the formula will be deemed to be adulterated under section 412(a)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. If an infant formula manufacturer fails to comply with the good manufacturing practices or quality control procedures record requirements in subpart F of this part with respect to an infant formula, the infant formula will be deemed to be adulterated under section 412(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The criteria set forth in subpart F of this part also implement record retention requirements under section 412(b)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Failure to comply with any regulation in subpart F of this part is a violation of section 301(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 331(e)).
</P>
<P>(d) The criteria set forth in subpart G of this part describe, in part, certain good manufacturing practices, quality control procedures, and quality factor records requirements under section 412(b)(1) and (b)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act. If an infant formula manufacturer fails to comply with such records requirements with respect to an infant formula, the infant formula will be deemed to be adulterated under section 412(a)(2) or (a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as applicable. The criteria set forth in subpart G of this part also describe the circumstances in which an infant formula manufacturer is required to register with, submit to, or notify the Food and Drug Administration, and the content of a registration, submission, or notification, under section 412(c), (d), and (e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Failure to comply with any regulation in subpart G of this part is a violation of section 301(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in this section and the definitions contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321) shall apply to infant formula requirements in 21 CFR parts 106 and 107 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible infant formula</I> means an infant formula that could be lawfully distributed in the United States on December 8, 2014.
</P>
<P><I>Final product stage</I> means the point in the manufacturing process, before distribution of an infant formula, at which the infant formula is homogeneous and is not subject to further degradation due to processing.
</P>
<P><I>Indicator nutrient</I> means a nutrient whose concentration is measured during the manufacture of an infant formula to confirm complete addition and uniform distribution of a premix or other substance of which the indicator nutrient is a part.
</P>
<P><I>Infant</I> means a person not more than 12 months of age.
</P>
<P><I>Infant formula</I> means a food which purports to be or is represented for special dietary use solely as a food for infants by reason of its simulation of human milk or its suitability as a complete or partial substitute for human milk.
</P>
<P><I>In-process production aggregate</I> means a combination of ingredients at any point in the manufacturing process before packaging.
</P>
<P><I>Major change</I> in an infant formula means any new formulation, or any change of ingredients or processes where experience or theory would predict a possible significant adverse impact on levels of nutrients or bioavailability of nutrients, or any change that causes an infant formula to differ fundamentally in processing or in composition from any previous formulation produced by the manufacturer. Examples of infant formulas deemed to differ fundamentally in processing or in composition include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any infant formula produced by a manufacturer who is entering the U.S. market;
</P>
<P>(2) Any infant formula powder processed and distributed by a manufacturer who previously only produced liquids (or vice versa);
</P>
<P>(3) Any infant formula having a significant revision, addition, or substitution of a macronutrient (i.e., protein, fat, or carbohydrate), with which the manufacturer has not had previous experience;
</P>
<P>(4) Any infant formula manufactured on a new processing line or in a new plant;
</P>
<P>(5) Any infant formula manufactured containing a new constituent not listed in section 412(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(i)), such as taurine or L-carnitine;
</P>
<P>(6) Any infant formula processed by a manufacturer on new equipment that utilizes a new technology or principle (e.g., from terminal sterilization to aseptic processing); or
</P>
<P>(7) An infant formula for which there has been a fundamental change in the type of packaging used (e.g., changing from metal cans to plastic pouches).
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means a person who prepares, reconstitutes, or otherwise changes the physical or chemical characteristics of an infant formula or packages or labels the product in a container for distribution. The term “manufacturer” does not include a person who prepares, reconstitutes, or mixes infant formula exclusively for an infant under his/her direct care or the direct care of the institution employing such person.
</P>
<P><I>Microorganisms</I> means yeasts, molds, bacteria, and viruses and includes, but is not limited to, species having public health significance.
</P>
<P><I>New infant formula</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An infant formula manufactured by a person that has not previously manufactured an infant formula, and
</P>
<P>(2) An infant formula manufactured by a person that has previously manufactured infant formula and in which there is a major change in processing or formulation from a current or any previous formulation produced by such manufacturer, or which has not previously been the subject of a submission under section 412(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for the U.S. market.
</P>
<P><I>Nutrient</I> means any vitamin, mineral, or other substance or ingredient that is required in accordance with the “Nutrients” table set out in section 412(i)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or by regulations issued under section 412(i)(2) or that is identified as essential for infants by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine through its development of a Dietary Reference Intake, or that has been identified as essential for infants by the Food and Drug Administration through a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication.
</P>
<P><I>Nutrient premix</I> means a combination of ingredients containing two or more nutrients received from a supplier or prepared by an infant formula manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Production aggregate</I> means a quantity of product, or, in the case of an infant formula produced by continuous process, a specific identified amount produced in a unit of time, that is intended to have uniform composition, character, and quality, within specified limits, and is produced according to a master manufacturing order.
</P>
<P><I>Production unit</I> means a specific quantity of an infant formula produced during a single cycle of manufacture that has uniform composition, character, and quality, within specified limits.
</P>
<P><I>Production unit number or production aggregate number</I> means any distinctive combination of letters, numbers, symbols, or any combination of them, from which the complete history of the manufacture, processing, packing, holding, and distribution of a production aggregate or a production unit of infant formula can be determined.
</P>
<P><I>Quality factors</I> means those factors necessary to demonstrate the safety of the infant formula and the bioavailability of its nutrients, as prepared for market and when fed as the sole source of nutrition, to ensure the healthy growth of infants.
</P>
<P><I>Representative sample</I> means a sample that consists of a number of units that are drawn based on rational criteria, such as random sampling, and intended to ensure that the sample accurately portrays the material being sampled.
</P>
<P><I>Shall</I> is used to state mandatory requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33070, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Current Good Manufacturing Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.5   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations set forth in this subpart define the minimum current good manufacturing practices that are to be used in, and the facilities or controls that are to be used for, the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of an infant formula. Compliance with these provisions is necessary to ensure that such infant formula provides the nutrients required under § 107.100 of this chapter and is manufactured in a manner designed to prevent its adulteration. A liquid infant formula that is a thermally processed low-acid food packaged in a hermetically sealed container is also subject to the regulations in part 113 of this chapter, and an infant formula that is an acidified food, as defined in § 114.3(b) of this chapter, is also subject to the regulations in part 114 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The failure to comply with any regulation in this subpart in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of an infant formula shall render such infant formula adulterated under section 412(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(3)); the failure to comply with any regulation in part 113 of this chapter in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a liquid infant formula shall render such infant formula adulterated under section 412(a)(3); and the failure to comply with any regulation in part 114 of this chapter in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of an infant formula that is an acidified food shall render such infant formula adulterated under section 412(a)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.6   Production and in-process control system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall conform to the requirements of this subpart by implementing a system of production and in-process controls. This production and in-process control system shall cover all stages of processing, from the receipt and acceptance of the raw materials, ingredients, and components through the storage and distribution of the finished product and shall be designed to ensure that all the requirements of this subpart are met.
</P>
<P>(b) The production and in-process control system shall be set out in a written plan or set of procedures that is designed to ensure that an infant formula is manufactured in a manner that will prevent adulteration of the infant formula.
</P>
<P>(c) At any point, step, or stage in the production process where control is necessary to prevent adulteration, a manufacturer shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish specifications to be met;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor the production and in-process control point, step, or stage;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish a corrective action plan for use when a specification established in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section is not met;
</P>
<P>(4) Review the results of the monitoring required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and review and evaluate the public health significance of any deviation from specifications that have been established in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section. For any specification established in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section that a manufacturer fails to meet, an individual qualified by education, training, or experience shall conduct a documented review and shall make a material disposition decision to reject the affected article, to reprocess or otherwise recondition the affected article, or to approve and release the article for use or distribution; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish recordkeeping procedures, in accordance with § 106.100(e)(3), that ensure that compliance with the requirements of this section is documented.
</P>
<P>(d) Any article that fails to meet a specification established in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent its use pending the completion of a documented review and material disposition decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.10   Controls to prevent adulteration by workers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall employ sufficient personnel, qualified by education, training, or experience, to perform all operations, including all required recordkeeping, in the manufacture, processing, packing, and holding of each infant formula and to supervise such operations to ensure that the operations are correctly and fully performed.
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel working directly with infant formula, infant formula raw materials, infant formula packaging, or infant formula equipment or utensil contact surfaces shall practice good personal hygiene to protect the infant formula against contamination. Good personal hygiene includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Wearing clean outer garments and, as necessary, protective apparel such as head, face, hand, and arm coverings; and
</P>
<P>(2) Washing hands thoroughly in a hand washing facility with soap and running water at a suitable temperature before starting work, after each absence from the work station, and at any other time when the hands may become soiled or contaminated.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who reports that he or she has, or appears by medical examination or supervisory observation to have, an illness, open lesion (including boils, sores, or infected wounds), or any other source of microbial contamination that creates a reasonable possibility that the safety of an infant formula may be adversely affected, shall be excluded from direct contact with ingredients, containers, closures, in-process materials, equipment, utensils, and infant formula product until the condition is corrected or determined by competent medical personnel not to jeopardize the safety of the infant formula.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.20   Controls to prevent adulteration caused by facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Buildings used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of infant formula shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition and shall have space for the separation of incompatible operations, such as the handling of raw materials, the manufacture of the product, and packaging and labeling operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Separate areas or another system of separation, such as a computerized inventory control, a written card system, or an automated system of segregation, shall be used for holding raw materials, in-process materials, and final infant formula product at the following times:
</P>
<P>(1) Pending release for use in infant formula production or pending release of the final product;
</P>
<P>(2) After rejection for use in, or as, infant formula; and
</P>
<P>(3) After release for use in infant formula production or after release of the final product.
</P>
<P>(c) Lighting shall allow easy identification of raw materials, packaging, labeling, in-process materials, and finished products that have been released for use in infant formula production and shall permit the easy reading of instruments and controls necessary in processing, packaging, and laboratory analysis. Any lighting fixtures directly over or adjacent to exposed raw materials, in-process materials, or bulk (unpackaged) finished product shall be protected to prevent glass from contaminating the product in the event of breakage.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer shall provide adequate ventilation or control equipment to minimize odors and vapors (including steam and noxious fumes) in areas where they may contaminate the infant formula; and shall minimize the potential for contamination of raw materials, in-process materials, final product infant formula, packing materials, and infant formula-contact surfaces, through the use of appropriate measures, which may include the use of air filtration.
</P>
<P>(e) All rodenticides, insecticides, fungicides, fumigating agents, and cleaning and sanitizing agents shall be stored and used in a manner that protects against contamination of infant formula.
</P>
<P>(f) Potable water used in the manufacture of infant formula shall meet the standards prescribed in the Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA's) Primary Drinking Water regulations in 40 CFR part 141, except that the water used in infant formula manufacturing shall not be fluoridated or shall be defluoridated to a level as low as possible prior to use.
</P>
<P>(1) The water shall be supplied under continuous positive pressure in a plumbing system that is free of defects that could contaminate an infant formula.
</P>
<P>(2) A manufacturer shall test representative samples of the potable water drawn at a point in the system at which the water is in the same condition that it will be when it is used in infant formula manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(3) A manufacturer shall conduct the tests required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section with sufficient frequency to ensure that the water meets the EPA's Primary Drinking Water Regulations but shall not conduct these tests less frequently than annually for chemical contaminants, every 4 years for radiological contaminants, and weekly for bacteriological contaminants.
</P>
<P>(4) A manufacturer shall make and retain records, in accordance with § 106.100(f)(1), of the frequency and results of testing of the water used in the production of infant formula.
</P>
<P>(g) There shall be no backflow from, or cross-connection between, piping systems that discharge waste water or sewage and piping systems that carry water for infant formula manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(h) Only culinary steam shall be used at all direct infant formula product contact points. Culinary steam shall be in compliance with the 3-A Sanitary Standards, No. 60903, which is incorporated by reference at § 106.160. Boiler water additives in the steam shall be used in accordance with § 173.310 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) Each infant formula manufacturing site shall provide its employees with readily accessible toilet facilities and hand washing facilities that include hot and cold water, soap or detergent, single-service towels or air dryers in toilet facilities. These facilities shall be maintained in good repair and in a sanitary condition at all times. These facilities shall provide for proper disposal of the sewage. Doors to the toilet facility shall not open into areas where infant formula, ingredients, containers, or closures are processed, handled, or stored, except where alternate means have been taken to protect against contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33070, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.30" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.30   Controls to prevent adulteration caused by equipment or utensils.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall ensure that equipment and utensils used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of an infant formula are of appropriate design and are installed to facilitate their intended function and their cleaning and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer shall ensure that equipment and utensils used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of an infant formula are constructed so that surfaces that contact ingredients, in-process materials, or infant formula are made of nontoxic materials and are not reactive or absorptive. A manufacturer shall ensure that such equipment and utensils are designed to be easily cleanable and to withstand the environment of their intended use and that all surfaces that contact ingredients, in-process materials, or infant formula are cleaned and sanitized, as necessary, and are maintained to protect infant formula from being contaminated by any source. All sanitizing agents used on such equipment and utensils that are regulated as pesticide chemicals under 21 U.S.C. 346a(a) shall comply with the Environmental Protection Agency's regulations established under such section, and all other such sanitizers shall comply with all applicable Food and Drug Administration laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer shall ensure that any substance, such as a lubricant or a coolant, that is required for operation of infant formula manufacturing equipment and which would render the infant formula adulterated if such substance were to come in contact with the formula, does not come in contact with formula ingredients, containers, closures, in-process materials, or with infant formula product during the manufacture of an infant formula.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer shall ensure that each instrument used for measuring, regulating, or controlling mixing time and speed, temperature, pressure, moisture, water activity, or other parameter at any point, step, or stage where control is necessary to prevent adulteration of an infant formula during processing is accurate, easily read, properly maintained, and present in sufficient number for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(1) The instruments and controls shall be calibrated against a known reference standard at the time of or before first use and thereafter at routine intervals, as specified in writing by the manufacturer of the instrument or control, or as otherwise deemed necessary to ensure the accuracy of the instrument or control. The known reference standard shall be certified for accuracy at the intervals specified in writing by the manufacturer of the instrument or control, or at routine intervals otherwise deemed necessary to ensure the accuracy of the instrument or control. A manufacturer shall make and retain records of the calibration activities in accordance with § 106.100(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) Instruments and controls that cannot be adjusted to agree with the reference standard shall be repaired or replaced.
</P>
<P>(3) If calibration of an instrument shows a failure to meet a specification for a point where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration of infant formula product, a written evaluation of all affected product, and of any actions that need to be taken with respect to that product, shall be made, in accordance with § 106.100(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) The following provisions apply to thermal processing and cold storage of infant formulas:
</P>
<P>(1) Equipment and procedures for thermal processing of infant formula packaged in hermetically sealed containers shall conform to the requirements in 21 CFR parts 108 and 113.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, a manufacturer shall maintain all areas of cold storage at a temperature of 40 °F (4.4 °C) or below.
</P>
<P>(ii) A manufacturer may maintain a cold storage area for an in-process infant formula or for a final infant formula at a temperature not to exceed 45 °F (7.2 °C) for a defined period of time provided that the manufacturer has scientific data and other information to demonstrate that the time and temperature conditions of such storage are sufficient to ensure that there is no significant growth of microorganisms of public health significance during the period of storage of the in-process or final infant formula product.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Cold storage compartments and thermal processing equipment shall be equipped with easily readable, accurate temperature-indicating devices.
</P>
<P>(ii) A manufacturer shall ensure that the temperature of each cold storage compartment is maintained by:
</P>
<P>(A) Monitoring the temperature of the cold storage compartment on a temperature-indicating device and recording this temperature in a record with such frequency as is necessary to ensure that temperature control is maintained;
</P>
<P>(B) Equipping the cold storage compartment with one or more temperature-recording devices that will reflect, on a continuing basis, the true temperature, within the compartment;
</P>
<P>(C) Equipping the cold storage compartment with a high temperature alarm that has been validated to function properly and recording the temperature in a record with such frequency as is necessary to ensure that temperature control is maintained; or
</P>
<P>(D) Equipping the cold storage compartment with a maximum-indicating thermometer that has been validated to function properly and recording this temperature in a record with such frequency as is necessary to ensure that temperature control is maintained.
</P>
<P>(iii) A manufacturer shall, in accordance with § 106.100(f)(3), make and retain records of the temperatures recorded in compliance with § 106.30(e)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(4) When a manufacturer uses a temperature-recording device for a cold storage compartment, such device shall not read lower than the reference temperature-indicating device.
</P>
<P>(5) A manufacturer shall monitor the temperature in thermal processing equipment at points where temperature control is necessary to prevent adulteration. Such monitoring shall be at such frequency as is required by regulation or is necessary to ensure that temperature control is maintained.
</P>
<P>(f) A manufacturer shall ensure that equipment and utensils used in the manufacture of infant formula are cleaned, sanitized, and maintained at regular intervals to prevent adulteration of the infant formula.
</P>
<P>(1) An individual qualified by education, training, or experience to conduct such a review shall review all cleaning, sanitizing, and maintenance to ensure that it has been satisfactorily completed.
</P>
<P>(2) A manufacturer shall make and retain records on equipment cleaning, sanitizing, and maintenance, in accordance with § 106.100(f)(4).
</P>
<P>(g) A manufacturer shall ensure that compressed air or other gases that are mechanically introduced into infant formula, that are used to clean any equipment, or that come into contact with any other surface that contacts ingredients, in-process materials, or infant formula product are treated in such a way that their use will not contaminate the infant formula with unlawful or other chemical, physical, or microbiological contaminants. When compressed gases are used at product filling machines to replace air removed from the headspace of containers, a manufacturer shall install, as close as practical to the end of the gas line that feeds gas into the space, a filter capable of retaining particles 0.5 micrometer or smaller.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33071, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.35" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.35   Controls to prevent adulteration due to automatic (mechanical or electronic) equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) “Hardware” means all automatic equipment, including mechanical and electronic equipment (such as computers), that is used in production or quality control of infant formula.
</P>
<P>(2) “Software” means any programs, procedures, rules, and associated documentation used in the operation of a system.
</P>
<P>(3) “System” means a collection of components (including software and hardware) organized to accomplish a specific function or set of functions in a specified environment.
</P>
<P>(4) “Validation” means establishing documented evidence that provides a high degree of assurance that a system will consistently produce a product meeting its predetermined specifications and quality characteristics. Validation can be accomplished through any suitable means, such as verification studies or modeling.
</P>
<P>(b) All systems shall be designed, installed, tested, and maintained in a manner that will ensure that they are capable of performing their intended function and of producing or analyzing infant formula in accordance with this subpart and subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) A manufacturer shall ensure, at any point, step, or stage where control is necessary to prevent adulteration of the infant formula, that all hardware is routinely inspected and checked according to written procedures and that hardware that is capable of being calibrated is routinely calibrated according to written procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) A manufacturer shall check and document the accuracy of input into, and output generated by, any system used in the production or quality control of an infant formula to ensure that the infant formula is not adulterated. The degree and frequency of input/output verification shall be based on the complexity and reliability of the system and the level of risk associated with the safe operation of the system.
</P>
<P>(3) A manufacturer shall ensure that each system is validated prior to the release for distribution of any infant formula manufactured using the system.
</P>
<P>(4) A manufacturer shall ensure that any system that is modified is revalidated following the modification and prior to the release for distribution of any infant formula manufactured using the modified system. All modifications to software shall be made by a designated individual and shall be checked by the infant formula manufacturer to ensure that infant formula that is produced or analyzed using the modified software complies with this subpart and with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer shall make and retain records, in accordance with § 106.100(f)(5), concerning mechanical or electronic equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33071, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.40" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.40   Controls to prevent adulteration caused by ingredients, containers, and closures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The only substances that may be used in an infant formula are substances that are safe and suitable for use in infant formula under the applicable food safety provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; that is, a substance is used in accordance with the Agency's food additive regulations, is generally recognized as safe (GRAS) for such use, or is authorized by a prior sanction.
</P>
<P>(b) Infant formula containers and closures shall not be reactive or absorptive so as to affect the safety of the infant formula. The following substances may be used as packaging material that comes in contact with an infant formula:
</P>
<P>(1) A food additive that is the subject of a regulation issued under section 409(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 348(c)) and is used consistent with the conditions of use of that regulation;
</P>
<P>(2) A food contact substance that is the subject of an effective notification under section 409(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and is used consistent with the conditions of use in that notification;
</P>
<P>(3) A substance that is exempt from regulation as a food additive under § 170.39 of this chapter and its use conforms to the use identified in the exemption letter;
</P>
<P>(4) A substance that is generally recognized as safe for use in or on infant formula or for use in infant formula packaging;
</P>
<P>(5) A substance the use of which is authorized by a prior sanction from the Food and Drug Administration or from the U.S. Department of Agriculture; and
</P>
<P>(6) A substance that is not a food additive within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321(s)) because the substance is not reasonably expected to become a component of food or otherwise affect the characteristics of food.
</P>
<P>(c) Ingredients, containers, and closures used in the manufacture of infant formula shall be identified with a lot number to be used in recording their disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer shall develop written specifications for ingredients, containers, and closures used in manufacturing infant formula and shall develop and follow written procedures to determine whether all ingredients, containers, and closures meet these specifications. When any specification is not met, an individual qualified by education, training, or experience shall conduct a documented review, shall determine whether a failure to meet such a specification could result in an adulterated infant formula, and shall make and document a material disposition decision to reject the ingredient, container, or closure or the affected infant formula; to reprocess or otherwise recondition the ingredient, container, or closure or the affected infant formula; or to approve and release the ingredient, container, or closure or the affected infant formula for use.
</P>
<P>(e) Ingredients, containers, and closures shall be stored in separate areas or separated by a system of segregation, such as a computerized inventory control, a written card system, or an automated system of segregation, clearly designated for materials pending release for use; materials released for use; or materials rejected for use in infant formula production.
</P>
<P>(1) Any lot of an ingredient, a container, or a closure that does not meet the manufacturer's specifications shall be quarantined under a system designed to prevent its use in the manufacture of infant formula until an individual qualified by education, training, or experience has conducted a documented review, has determined whether such failure could result in an adulterated infant formula, and has made and documented a material disposition decision to reject the ingredient, container, closure, or the affected infant formula; to reprocess or otherwise recondition the ingredient, container, closure, or the affected infant formula; or to approve and release the ingredient, container, closure, or the affected infant formula for use.
</P>
<P>(2) Any ingredient, container, or closure that has been reprocessed or otherwise reconditioned shall be the subject of a documented review and material disposition decision by an individual qualified by education, training, or experience to determine whether it may be released for use.
</P>
<P>(3) A manufacturer shall not reprocess or otherwise recondition an ingredient, container, or closure rejected because it is contaminated with microorganisms of public health significance or other contaminants, such as heavy metals.
</P>
<P>(f) If an ingredient, container, or closure that complies with a manufacturer's specifications, or that has been released for use following a material review and disposition decision, is subsequently exposed to air, heat, or other conditions that may adversely affect it, or if a manufacturer reasonably believes that an ingredient, container, or closure that complies with a manufacturer's specifications, or that has been released for use following a material review and disposition decision, has been exposed to air, heat, or other conditions that may adversely affect it, the ingredient, container, or closure shall be quarantined under a system designed to prevent its use in the manufacture of infant formula until an individual qualified by education, training, or experience has conducted a documented review and has made and documented a material disposition decision to reject the ingredient, container, or closure; to reprocess or otherwise recondition the ingredient, container, or closure; or to approve and release the ingredient, container, or closure for use.
</P>
<P>(1) Any ingredient, container, or closure that is reprocessed or otherwise reconditioned shall be retested or reexamined and be the subject of a documented review and material disposition decision by an individual qualified by education, training, or experience to determine whether the ingredient, container, or closure should be rejected, further reprocessed or otherwise further reconditioned, or approved and released for use.
</P>
<P>(2) Any rejected ingredient, container, or closure shall be clearly identified as having been rejected for use in infant formula manufacturing or processing operations and shall be controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent its use in infant formula manufacturing or processing operations.
</P>
<P>(3) Any ingredient, container, or closure that has not been manufactured, packaged, labeled, or held under conditions to prevent adulteration under section 402(a)(1) through (a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 342(a)(1) through (a)(4)) shall not be approved and released for use.
</P>
<P>(g) A manufacturer shall make and retain records, in accordance with § 106.100(f)(6), on the ingredients, containers, and closures used in the manufacture of infant formula.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.50" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.50   Controls to prevent adulteration during manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall prepare and follow a written master manufacturing order that establishes controls and procedures for the production of an infant formula.
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer shall make and retain records, in accordance with § 106.100(e), that include complete information relating to the production and control of the production aggregate. An individual qualified by education, training, or experience shall conduct an investigation of any deviations from the master manufacturing order and document any corrective action taken.
</P>
<P>(2) Changes made to the master manufacturing order shall be reviewed and approved by a responsible official and include an evaluation of the effect of the change on the nutrient content and the suitability of the formula for infants.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer shall establish controls to ensure that each raw or in-process ingredient required by the master manufacturing order is examined by one person and checked by a second person or system. This checking shall ensure that the correct ingredient is added during the manufacturing process, that the ingredient has been released for use in infant formula, and that the correct weight or measure of the ingredient is added to the production unit.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer shall establish a system of identification for the contents of all compounding and storage containers, processing lines, and major equipment used during the manufacture of a production aggregate of an infant formula. The system shall permit the identification of the processing stage and the unique identification number for the particular production unit or production aggregate of infant formula.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer shall establish controls to ensure that the nutrient levels required by § 107.100 of this chapter are maintained in the formula, and that the formula is not contaminated with microorganisms or other contaminants. Such controls shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The mixing time; the speed, temperature, and flow rate of product; and other critical parameters necessary to ensure the addition of required ingredients to, and the homogeneity of, the formula;
</P>
<P>(2) The spray-drying process for powdered infant formula, including the filtering of the intake air before heating, to prevent microbial and other contamination;
</P>
<P>(3) The removal of air from the finished product to ensure that nutrient deterioration does not occur;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensuring that each container of finished product is properly sealed. Such controls shall involve use of established procedures, specifications, and intervals of examination that are designed by qualified individuals and are sufficient to:
</P>
<P>(i) Detect visible closure or seal defects, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine closure strength through destructive testing. A manufacturer of a liquid infant formula that is a thermally processed low-acid food packaged in a hermetically sealed container shall perform such closure integrity testing in accordance with § 113.60(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) A manufacturer shall establish controls that ensure that the equipment used at points where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration is monitored, so that personnel will be alerted to malfunctions.
</P>
<P>(f) A manufacturer shall establish controls for in-process material as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For any specification established in accordance with § 106.6(c)(1) that a manufacturer fails to meet for in-process material, an individual qualified by education, training, or experience shall conduct a documented review and shall make a material disposition decision to reject the affected in-process material, to reprocess or otherwise recondition the affected in-process material, or to approve and release the affected in-process material for use or distribution;
</P>
<P>(2) Pending a documented review and material disposition decision, any in-process material that fails to meet any specification established in accordance with § 106.6(c)(1) shall be clearly identified as such and shall be controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent its use in manufacturing or processing operations until completion of the documented review and material disposition decision;
</P>
<P>(3) Any in-process material that has been reprocessed or otherwise reconditioned shall be the subject of a documented review and material disposition decision by an individual qualified by education, training, or experience to determine whether it may be released for use; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any rejected in-process material shall be clearly identified as having been rejected for use in infant formula and shall be controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent its use in infant formula manufacturing or processing operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33071, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.55" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.55   Controls to prevent adulteration from microorganisms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer of infant formula shall establish a system of process controls covering all stages of processing that is designed to ensure that infant formula does not become adulterated due to the presence of microorganisms in the formula or in the processing environment.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer of liquid infant formula shall comply, as appropriate, with the procedures specified in part 113 of this chapter for thermally processed low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers and part 114 of this chapter for acidified foods.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer of powdered infant formula shall test representative samples of each production aggregate of powdered infant formula at the final product stage, before distribution, to ensure that each production aggregate meets the microbiological quality standards in the table in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer shall make and retain records, in accordance with § 106.100(e)(5)(ii) and (f)(7), on the testing of infant formulas for microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(e) A powdered infant formula that contains any microorganism that exceeds the M value listed for that microorganism in the table in paragraph (e) of this section shall be deemed adulterated under sections 402(a)(1), 402(a)(4), and 412(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(3)). The Food and Drug Administration will determine compliance with the M values listed below using the latest edition of the <I>Bacteriological Analytical Manual</I> (BAM) (<I>http://www.fda.gov/Food/FoodScienceResearch/LaboratoryMethods/BacteriologicalAnalyticalManualBAM/default.htm</I>) (accessed April 8, 2013).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Microorganism
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">n 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sample size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">M value
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Cronobacter</E> spp.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 g (grams)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Salmonella</E> spp.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 g</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 0.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Number of samples.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> None detected.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.60" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.60   Controls to prevent adulteration during packaging and labeling of infant formula.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall examine packaged and labeled infant formula during finishing operations to ensure that all containers and packages in the production aggregate have the correct label, the correct use-by date, and the correct code established under § 106.80.
</P>
<P>(b) Labels shall be designed, printed, and applied so that the labels remain legible and attached during the conditions of processing, storage, handling, distribution, and use.
</P>
<P>(c) Packaging used to hold multiple containers of an infant formula product shall be labeled as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all containers are the same infant formula product and all bear the same code established under § 106.80, the packaging label shall include the product name, the name of the manufacturer, distributor, or shipper, and the code established under § 106.80.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the containers are not the same infant formula product or do not all bear the same code established under § 106.80, the packaging label shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Include the product name of each product, the name of the manufacturer, distributor, or shipper of each product, the code established under § 106.80 for each product, and a “use by” date that is no later than the “use by” date of the container exhibiting the closest “use by” date applied to satisfy the requirement of § 107.20(c) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Include a unique identification number assigned by the packager, provided that the distributor of the package maintains a record linked to such unique number that identifies the product name of each product, the name of the manufacturer, distributor, or shipper of each product, the code established under § 106.80 for each product, and the “use by” date for each product applied to satisfy the requirement of § 107.20(c) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.70" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.70   Controls on the release of finished infant formula.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall control under a quarantine system designed to prevent use or distribution of each production aggregate of infant formula until it determines that the production aggregate meets all of the manufacturer's specifications, including those adopted to meet the standards of § 106.55 on microbiological contamination and of § 106.91(a) on quality control procedures, or until the documented review of the failure to meet any of the manufacturer's specifications finds that the failure does not result in, or could not lead to, adulteration of the product.
</P>
<P>(b) Any production aggregate of infant formula that fails to meet any of the manufacturer's specifications shall be quarantined under a system designed to prevent its use in the manufacture of infant formula or its distribution until an individual qualified by education, training, or experience has conducted a documented review and has made and documented a material disposition decision to reject the infant formula; to reprocess or otherwise recondition the infant formula; or to approve and release the infant formula. Any production aggregate of infant formula that is reprocessed or otherwise reconditioned shall be the subject of a documented review and material disposition decision by an individual qualified by education, training, or experience to determine whether it may be released for use or distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) Any rejected infant formula shall be clearly identified as having been rejected for use and shall be controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent its release or distribution.
</P>
<P>(d) A production aggregate of infant formula, including a reprocessed or reconditioned production aggregate, that does not meet the nutrient requirements of section 412(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(i)) or that has not been manufactured, packaged, labeled, and held under conditions to prevent adulteration under sections 402(a)(1) through (a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 342(a)(1) through (a)(4)) shall not be approved and released for distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.80" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.80   Traceability.</HEAD>
<P>Each production aggregate of infant formula shall be coded with a sequential number that identifies the product and the establishment where the product was packed and that permits tracing of all stages of manufacture of that production aggregate, including the year, the days of the year, and the period during those days that the product was packed, and the receipt and handling of raw materials used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.90" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.90   Audits of current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer of an infant formula, or an agent of such manufacturer, shall conduct regularly scheduled audits to determine whether the manufacturer has complied with the current good manufacturing practice regulations in this subpart. Such audits shall be conducted at a frequency that is required to ensure compliance with such regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) The audits required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be performed by an individual or a team of individuals who, as a result of education, training, or experience, is knowledgeable in all aspects of infant formula production and of the Agency's regulations concerning current good manufacturing practice that such individual or team is responsible for auditing. This individual or team of individuals shall have no direct responsibility for the matters that such individual or team is auditing and shall have no direct interest in the outcome of the audit.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Quality Control Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.91" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.91   General quality control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During manufacture, a manufacturer shall test each production aggregate for nutrients as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Each nutrient premix used in the manufacture of an infant formula shall be tested for each nutrient (required under § 107.100 of this chapter or otherwise added by the manufacturer) that the manufacturer is relying on the premix to provide, to ensure that the premix is in compliance with the manufacturer's specifications;
</P>
<P>(2) During the manufacturing process, after the addition of the premix, or at the final product stage but before distribution, each production aggregate of infant formula shall be tested for at least one indicator nutrient for each of the nutrient premixes used in the infant formula to confirm that the nutrients supplied by each of the premixes are present, in the proper concentration, in the production aggregate of infant formula.
</P>
<P>(3) At the final product stage, before distribution of an infant formula, each production aggregate shall be tested for vitamins A, C, E, and thiamin.
</P>
<P>(4) During the manufacturing process or at the final product stage, before distribution, each production aggregate shall be tested for all nutrients required to be included in such formula under § 107.100 of this chapter for which testing is not conducted for compliance with paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(3) of this section and for any nutrient added by the manufacturer for which testing is not conducted for compliance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer shall test each production aggregate of finished product for nutrients as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) For an infant formula that is a new infant formula the manufacturer shall collect, from each manufacturing site and at the final product stage, a representative sample of the first production aggregate of packaged, finished formula in each physical form (powder, ready-to-feed, or concentrate) and evaluate the levels of all nutrients required under § 107.100 of this chapter and all other nutrients added by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall repeat such testing every 4 months thereafter throughout the shelf life of the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Food and Drug Administration will exempt the manufacturer from the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section if the manufacturer of a new infant formula requests an exemption and provides analytical data, as required under § 106.120(b)(7), that demonstrates that the stability of the new infant formula will likely not differ from the stability of formulas with similar composition, processing, and packaging for which there are extensive stability data. A manufacturer exempt from the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section would be required to test the first production aggregate according to the requirements of § 106.91(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer shall collect, from each manufacturing site and at the final product stage, a representative sample of each subsequent production aggregate of packaged, finished formula in each physical form (powder, ready-to-feed, or concentrate) and evaluate the levels of all nutrients required under § 107.100 of this chapter and all other nutrients added by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall repeat such testing at the end of the shelf life of the product.
</P>
<P>(3) If the results of the testing required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section do not substantiate the shelf life of the infant formula, the manufacturer shall address, as appropriate, all production aggregates of formula released and pending release for distribution that are implicated by the testing results, such as by conducting the testing required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section on a subsequently produced production aggregate to substantiate the shelf life of the infant formula or revising the use by date for such product so that such date is substantiated by the stability testing results.
</P>
<P>(4) If results of the testing required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section show that any required nutrient is not present in the production aggregate of infant formula at the level required by § 107.100 of this chapter or that any nutrient added by the manufacturer is not present at the level declared on the label of the production aggregate of infant formula, the manufacturer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Investigate the cause of such variance in the level of any required or added nutrient;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate the significance, if any, of the results for other production aggregates of the same formula that have been released for distribution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Address, as appropriate, all production aggregates of formula released and pending release for distribution that are implicated by the testing results; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Determine whether it is necessary to conduct the testing required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The testing required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section is not required to evaluate the level of minerals present in the infant formula.
</P>
<P>(c) All quality control testing shall be conducted using appropriate, scientifically valid test methods.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer shall make and retain quality control records in accordance with § 106.100(e)(5)(i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33071, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.92" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.92   Audits of quality control procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer of an infant formula, or an agent of such a manufacturer, shall conduct regularly scheduled audits to determine whether the manufacturer has complied with the requirements for quality control procedures that are necessary to ensure that an infant formula provides nutrients in accordance with section 412(b) and (i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(b) and (i)) and is manufactured in a manner designed to prevent adulteration of the infant formula under section 412(a)(1) and (a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Such audits shall be conducted at a frequency that is required to ensure compliance with the requirements for quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) The audits required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be performed by an individual or a team of individuals who, as a result of education, training, or experience, is knowledgeable in all aspects of infant formula production and of the regulations concerning quality control procedures that such individual or team is responsible for auditing. This individual or team of individuals shall have no direct responsibility for the matters that such individual or team is auditing and shall have no direct interest in the outcome of the audit.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Conduct of Audits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.94" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.94   Audit plans and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall develop and follow a written audit plan that is available at the manufacturing facility for Food and Drug Administration inspection.
</P>
<P>(b) The audit plan shall include audit procedures that set out the methods the manufacturer uses to determine whether the facility is operating in accordance with current good manufacturing practice, with the quality control procedures that are necessary to ensure that an infant formula provides nutrients in accordance with sections 412(b) and (i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and in a manner designed to prevent adulteration of the infant formula.
</P>
<P>(c) The audit procedures shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) An evaluation of the production and in-process control system established under § 106.6(b) by:
</P>
<P>(i) Observing the production of infant formula and comparing the observed process to the written production and in-process control plan required under § 106.6(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing records of the monitoring of points, steps, or stages where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviewing records of how deviations from any specification at points, steps, or stages where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration were handled; and
</P>
<P>(2) A review of a representative sample of all records maintained in accordance with § 106.100(e) and (f).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Quality Factors for Infant Formulas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.96" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.96   Requirements for quality factors for infant formulas.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations set forth in this subpart define the minimum requirements for quality factors for infant formulas:
</P>
<P>(a) An infant formula shall meet the quality factor of normal physical growth.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer of an infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula shall demonstrate that a formula supports normal physical growth in infants when fed as a sole source of nutrition by conducting, in accordance with good clinical practice, an adequate and well-controlled growth monitoring study of the infant formula that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is no less than 15 weeks in duration, enrolling infants no more than 2 weeks old at time of entry into the study;
</P>
<P>(2) Includes the collection and maintenance of data on formula intake and anthropometric measures of physical growth, including body weight, recumbent length, head circumference, average daily weight increment, and average daily recumbent length increment;
</P>
<P>(3) Includes anthropometric measurements made at the beginning and end of the study, and at least four additional measurements made at intermediate time points with three of the six total measurements made within the first 4 weeks of the study and three measurements made at approximately 4-week intervals over the remaining 11 weeks of the study;
</P>
<P>(4) Compares the anthropometric data for the test group to a concurrent control group or groups at each time point and compares the anthropometric data for each infant (body weight for age, body length for age, head circumference for age, and weight for length) in the test group and the control group to the 2009 CDC growth charts, which are incorporated by reference at § 106.160; and
</P>
<P>(5) Compares the data on formula intake of the test group with a concurrent control group or groups and a scientifically appropriate reference.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration will exempt a manufacturer from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer requests an exemption and provides assurances, as required under § 106.121(b), that the changes made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula are limited to changing the type of packaging of an existing infant formula (e.g., changing from metal cans to plastic pouches); or
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer requests an exemption and provides assurances, as required under § 106.121, which demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(i) An alternative method or study design that is based on sound scientific principles is available to show that the formula supports normal physical growth in infants when the formula is fed as the sole source of nutrition;
</P>
<P>(ii) The change made by the manufacturer to an existing formula does not affect the ability of the formula to support normal physical growth; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer markets a formulation in more than one form (e.g., liquid and powdered forms) and the quality factor requirements are met by the form of the formula that is processed using the method that has the greatest potential for adversely affecting nutrient content and bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer of a new infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula shall, in accordance with § 106.100(p)(1), make and retain records demonstrating that the formula meets the quality factor of normal physical growth.
</P>
<P>(e) An infant formula shall meet the quality factor of sufficient biological quality of protein.
</P>
<P>(f) A manufacturer of an infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula shall demonstrate that a formula meets the quality factor of sufficient biological quality of protein by establishing the biological quality of the protein in the infant formula when fed as the sole source of nutrition using an appropriate modification of the Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) rat bioassay described in the “Official Methods of Analysis of AOAC International,” 18th ed., sections 45.3.04 and 45.3.05, “AOAC Official Method 960.48 Protein Efficiency Ratio Rat Bioassay,” which is incorporated by reference at § 106.160. The PER rat bioassay shall be conducted on a formula and the results evaluated prior to the initiation of a growth monitoring study of the formula that is required under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The Food and Drug Administration will exempt a manufacturer from the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer requests an exemption and provides assurances as required under § 106.121(g) that the changes made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula are limited to changing the type of packaging of an existing infant formula (e.g., changing from metal cans to plastic pouches); or
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer requests an exemption and provides assurances, as required under § 106.121(h), that demonstrate that the change made by the manufacturer to an existing formula does not affect the bioavailability of the protein.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer requests an exemption and provides assurances, as required under § 106.121(i), that demonstrate that an alternative method to the PER that is based on sound scientific principles is available to demonstrate that the formula supports the quality factor for the biological quality of the protein.
</P>
<P>(h) A manufacturer of a new infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula shall, in accordance with § 106.100(q), make and retain records demonstrating that the formula meets the quality factor of sufficient biological quality of protein.
</P>
<P>(i) The following provisions for requirements for quality factors apply only to an “eligible infant formula” as defined in § 106.3:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible infant formula that fulfills one or more of the following criteria meets the quality factor of normal physical growth:
</P>
<P>(i) The scientific evidence on such infant formula meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula;
</P>
<P>(ii) The scientific evidence on such infant formula meets the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(A) The evidence is an adequate and well-controlled growth study, conducted in accordance with good clinical practice, to determine whether an infant formula supports normal physical growth in infants when the formula is fed as the sole source of nutrition;
</P>
<P>(B) The growth study is no less than 4 months in duration, enrolling infants no more than 1 month old at time of entry into the study;
</P>
<P>(C) The growth study collects from the study subjects data on anthropometric measures of physical growth, including body weight, recumbent length, head circumference, and average daily weight increment, and plots the data on the following charts from “Physical Growth: National Center for Health Statistics Percentiles” for body weight, body length, and head circumference, which are incorporated by reference at § 106.160:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Figure 1.</I> Length by age percentiles for girls aged birth-36 months (p. 609);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Figure 2.</I> Length by age percentiles for boys aged birth-36 months (p. 610);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Figure 3.</I> Weight by age percentiles for girls aged birth-36 months (p. 611);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Figure 4.</I> Weight by age percentiles for boys aged birth-36 months (p. 612);
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Figure 5.</I> Head circumference by age percentiles for girls aged birth-36 months (p. 613);
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Figure 6.</I> Weight by length percentiles for girls aged birth-36 months (p. 613);
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Figure 7.</I> Head circumference by age percentiles for boys aged birth-36 months (p. 614); and
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Figure 8.</I> Weight by length percentiles for boys aged birth-36 months (p. 614); and
</P>
<P>(D) The growth study collects anthropometric measurements at the beginning of the growth study, at 2 weeks, at 4 weeks, at least monthly thereafter, and at the conclusion of the study; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The scientific evidence on such infant formula otherwise demonstrates that such formula supports normal physical growth.
</P>
<P>(2) An eligible infant formula that fulfills one or more of the following criteria meets the quality factor of sufficient biological quality of the protein:
</P>
<P>(i) The scientific evidence on such infant formula meets the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section that apply to infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula;
</P>
<P>(ii) The scientific evidence on such infant formula is a study that establishes the biological quality of the protein in an infant formula by demonstrating that the protein source supports adequate growth using the Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) rat bioassay described in sections 45.3.04 and 45.3.05 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 16th ed., which are incorporated by reference at § 106.160; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The scientific evidence on such infant formula otherwise demonstrates that the protein in such infant formula is of sufficient biological quality.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer of an eligible infant formula may, not later than November 12, 2015, submit a petition to the Food and Drug Administration under § 10.30 of this chapter that:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrates that such formula fulfills one or more of the criteria in paragraph (i)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrates that such formula fulfills one or more of the criteria in paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A petition filed under paragraph (i)(3) of this section shall address only one infant formula formulation and shall contain all data and information relied upon by the manufacturer to demonstrate that such formulation fulfills one or more of the criteria in paragraph (i)(1) or in paragraph (i)(2) of this section. A manufacturer may combine petitions submitted under paragraphs (i)(3)(i) and (i)(3)(ii) of this section that relate to the same formulation.
</P>
<P>(5) The manufacturer of each eligible infant formula shall make and retain, in accordance with § 106.100(p)(2), records to demonstrate that such formula supports normal physical growth in infants when fed as the sole source of nutrition and shall make and retain, in accordance with § 106.100(q)(2), records to demonstrate that that the protein in such infant formula is of sufficient biological quality. The records required by this paragraph shall include all relevant scientific data and information and a narrative explanation of why the data and information demonstrate that the formula supports normal physical growth and a narrative explanation of why the data and information demonstrate that the protein in such infant formula is of sufficient biological quality.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33071, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.100   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer of infant formula shall maintain the records specified in this regulation in order to permit the Food and Drug Administration to determine whether each manufacturer is in compliance with section 412 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a)).
</P>
<P>(b) The manufacturer shall maintain all records that pertain to food-packaging materials subject to § 174.5 of this chapter and that bear on whether such materials would cause an infant formula to be adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(2)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 342(a)(2)(C)).
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer shall maintain all records that pertain to nutrient premix testing that it generates or receives. Such records shall include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any results of testing conducted to ensure that each nutrient premix is in compliance with the premix certificate and guarantee and specifications that have been provided to the manufacturer by the premix supplier, including tests conducted when nutrients exceed their expiration date or shelf life (retest date).
</P>
<P>(2) All certificates and guarantees given by premix suppliers concerning the nutrients required by section 412(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 107.100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The premix supplier shall maintain the results of all testing conducted to provide all certificates and guarantees concerning nutrient premixes for infant formulas. Such records shall include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The results of tests conducted to determine the purity of each nutrient required by section 412(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or § 107.100 of this chapter and any other nutrient listed in the certificate and guarantee;
</P>
<P>(2) The weight of each nutrient added;
</P>
<P>(3) The results of any quantitative tests conducted to determine the amount of each nutrient certified or guaranteed; and
</P>
<P>(4) The results of any quantitative tests conducted to identify the nutrient levels present when nutrient premixes exceed their expiration date or shelf life (retest date).
</P>
<P>(e) For each production aggregate of infant formula, a manufacturer shall prepare and maintain records that include complete information relating to the production and control of the production aggregate. These records shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The master manufacturing order. The master manufacturing order shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The significant steps in the production of the production aggregate and the date on which each significant step occurred;
</P>
<P>(ii) For a manufacturing facility that has more than one set of equipment or more than one processing line, the identity of equipment and processing lines for which the manufacturer has identified points, steps, or stages in the production process where control is necessary to prevent adulteration;
</P>
<P>(iii) The identity of each lot of ingredients, containers, and closures used in producing the production aggregate of formula;
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of each ingredient to be added to the production aggregate of infant formula and a check (verification) that the correct amount was added; and
</P>
<P>(v) A copy of each infant formula label used on a finished production aggregate of infant formula and the results of examinations conducted during the finishing operations to provide assurance that the containers and packages have the correct label.
</P>
<P>(2) Any deviations from the master manufacturing order and any corrective actions taken because of the deviations.
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation, in accordance with § 106.6(c), of the monitoring at any point, step, or stage in the manufacturer 's production process where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration. These records shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the specifications established at each point, step, or stage in the production process where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration, in accordance with § 106.6(c)(1), including documentation of the scientific basis for each specification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actual values obtained during the monitoring operation, any deviations from established specifications, and any corrective actions taken; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of the person monitoring each point, step, or stage in the production process where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration.
</P>
<P>(4) The conclusions and followup, along with the identity of the individual qualified by education, training, or experience who investigated:
</P>
<P>(i) Any deviation from the master manufacturing order and any corrective actions taken;
</P>
<P>(ii) A finding that a production aggregate or any of its ingredients failed to meet the infant formula manufacturer's specifications; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A failure to meet any specification at any point, step, or stage in the production process where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration.
</P>
<P>(5) The results of all testing performed on the production aggregate of infant formula, including testing on the in-process production aggregate, at the final product stage, and on finished product throughout the shelf life of the product. The results recorded shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The results of all quality control testing conducted in accordance with § 106.91(a) and (b) to verify that each nutrient required by § 107.100 of this chapter is present in each production aggregate of infant formula at the level required by § 107.100 of this chapter, and that all other nutrients added by the manufacturer are present at the appropriate level. The record of the results of the quality control testing shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A summary document identifying the stages of the manufacturing process at which the nutrient analysis for each required nutrient is conducted as required under § 106.91(a); and
</P>
<P>(B) A summary document on the stability testing program conducted under § 106.91(b), including the nutrients tested and the frequency of nutrient testing throughout the shelf life of the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) For powdered infant formula, the results of any testing conducted in accordance with § 106.55(c) to verify compliance with the microbiological quality standards in § 106.55(e).
</P>
<P>(f) A manufacturer shall make and retain all records described in subparts B and C of this part, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Records, in accordance with § 106.20(f)(4), of the frequency and results of testing of the water used in the production of infant formula;
</P>
<P>(2) Records, in accordance with § 106.30(d), of accuracy checks of instruments and controls. A certification of accuracy of any known reference standard used and a history of recertification shall be maintained. At a minimum, such records shall specify the instrument or control being checked, the date of the accuracy check, the standard used, the calibration method used, the results found, any actions taken if the instrument is found to be out of calibration, and the initials or name of the individual performing the test. If calibration of an instrument shows that a specification at a point, step, or stage in the production process where control is deemed necessary to prevent adulteration has not been met, a written evaluation of all affected product, and any actions that need to be taken with respect to that product, shall be made.
</P>
<P>(3) Records, in accordance with § 106.30(e)(3)(iii).
</P>
<P>(4) Records, in accordance with § 106.30(f), on equipment cleaning, sanitizing, and maintenance that show the date and time of such cleaning, sanitizing, and maintenance and the production aggregate number of each infant formula processed between equipment startup and shutdown for cleaning, sanitizing, and maintenance. The person performing and checking the cleaning, sanitizing, and maintenance shall date and sign or initial the record indicating that the work was performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Records, in accordance with § 106.35(c), on all mechanical and electronic equipment used in the production or quality control of infant formula. These records shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of all systems used with a description of the computer files and the defined capabilities and inherent limitations of each system;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of all software used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Records that document installation, calibration, testing or validation, and maintenance of the systems used;
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of all persons authorized to create or modify software;
</P>
<P>(v) Records that document modifications to software, including the identity of the person who modified the software;
</P>
<P>(vi) Records that document retesting or revalidation of modified systems; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A backup file of data entered into a computer or related system. The backup file shall consist of a hard copy or alternative system, such as duplicate electronic records, tapes, or microfilm, designed to ensure that backup data are exact and complete, and that they are secure from alteration, inadvertent erasures, or loss.
</P>
<P>(6) Records, in accordance with § 106.40(g), on ingredients, containers, and closures used in the manufacture of infant formula. These records shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity and quantity of each lot of ingredients, containers, and closures;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the supplier;
</P>
<P>(iii) The supplier's lot numbers;
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and location of the manufacturer of the ingredient, container, or closure, if different from the supplier;
</P>
<P>(v) The date of receipt;
</P>
<P>(vi) The receiving code as specified; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The results of any test or examination (including retesting and reexamination) performed on the ingredients, containers, or closures and the conclusions derived there from and the disposition of all ingredients, containers, or closures.
</P>
<P>(7) A full description of the methodology used to test powdered infant formula to verify compliance with the microbiological quality standards of § 106.55(c) and the methodology used to do quality control testing, in accordance with § 106.91(a).
</P>
<P>(g) A manufacturer shall maintain all records pertaining to distribution of the infant formula, including records that show that formula produced for export only is exported. Such records shall include all information and data necessary to effect and monitor recalls of the manufacturer's infant formula products in accordance with subpart E of part 107 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) The manufacturer shall maintain all records pertaining to the microbiological quality and purity of raw materials and finished powdered infant formula.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) The manufacturer shall make and retain records pertaining to regularly scheduled audits, including the audit plans and procedures, the findings of the audit, and a listing of any changes made in response to these findings. The manufacturer shall make readily available for authorized inspection the audit plans and procedures and a statement of assurance that the regularly scheduled audits are being conducted. The findings of the audit and any changes made in response to these findings shall be maintained for the time period required under paragraph (n) of this section, but need not be made available to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(k) The manufacturer shall maintain procedures describing how all written and oral complaints regarding infant formula will be handled. The manufacturer shall follow these procedures and shall include in them provisions for the review of any complaint involving an infant formula and for determining the need for an investigation of the possible existence of a hazard to health.
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this section, every manufacturer shall interpret a “complaint” as any communication that contains any allegation, written or oral, expressing dissatisfaction with a product for any reason, including concerns about the possible existence of a hazard to health and about appearance, taste, odor, and quality. Correspondence about prices, package size or shape, or other matters that could not possibly reveal the existence of a hazard to health shall not, for compliance purposes, be considered a complaint and therefore need not be made available to a Food and Drug Administration investigator.
</P>
<P>(2) When a complaint shows that a hazard to health possibly exists, the manufacturer shall conduct an investigation into the validity of the complaint. Where such an investigation is conducted, the manufacturer shall include in its file on the complaint the determination as to whether a hazard to health exists and the basis for that determination. No investigation is necessary when the manufacturer determines that there is no possibility of a hazard to health. When no investigation is necessary, the manufacturer shall include in the record the reason that an investigation was found to be unnecessary and the name of the responsible person making that determination.
</P>
<P>(3) When there is a reasonable possibility of a causal relationship between the consumption of an infant formula and an infant's death, the manufacturer shall, within 15 days of receiving such information, conduct an investigation and notify the Agency as required in § 106.150.
</P>
<P>(4) The manufacturer shall maintain in designated files all records pertaining to the complaints it receives. The manufacturer shall separate the files into two classes:
</P>
<P>(i) Those complaints that allege that the infant became ill from consuming the product or required treatment by a physician or health care provider and
</P>
<P>(ii) Those complaints that may involve a possible existence of a hazard to health but do not refer to an infant becoming ill or the need for treatment by physician or a health care provider.
</P>
<P>(5) The manufacturer shall include in a complaint file the following information concerning the complaint:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the infant formula;
</P>
<P>(ii) The production aggregate number;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of complainant;
</P>
<P>(iv) A copy of the complaint or a memo of the telephone conversation or meeting and all correspondence with the complainant;
</P>
<P>(v) By reference or copy, all the associated manufacturing records and complaint investigation records needed to evaluate the complaint. When copies of such records are not maintained in the complaint file, they must be available within 24 hours when requested by a Food and Drug Administration official.
</P>
<P>(vi) All actions taken to followup on the complaint; and
</P>
<P>(vii) All findings and evaluations of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(6) The manufacturer should maintain the files regarding infant formula complaints at the establishment where the infant formula was manufactured, processed, or packed. When the manufacturer wishes to maintain all consumer complaints for the entire firm at one location other than at the facility where an infant formula was manufactured, processed, or packed, the manufacturer may do so as long as all records required by this section are available within 24 hours of request for inspection at that facility. However, all records of consumer complaints, including summaries, any reports, and any files, maintained at the manufacturing facility or at any other facility shall be made available to investigators for review and copying upon request.
</P>
<P>(l) The manufacturer shall make readily available for authorized inspection all records required under this part or copies of such records. Records shall be available at any reasonable time at the establishment where the activities described in such records occurred. (Infant formula complaint files may be maintained at one facility, as provided in paragraph (k)(6) of this section, if all required records are readily available at that facility.) These records or copies thereof shall be subject to photocopying or other means of reproduction as part of such inspection. Records that can be immediately retrieved from another location by electronic means shall be considered as meeting the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(m) A manufacturer shall maintain all records required under this part in a manner that ensures that both the manufacturer and the Food and Drug Administration can be provided with access to such records within 24 hours. The manufacturer may maintain the records required under this part as original records, as true copies such as photocopies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records, or as electronic records. Where reduction techniques, such as microfilming, are used, suitable reader and photocopying equipment shall be readily available. All electronic records maintained under this part shall comply with part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(n) Production control, product testing, testing results, complaints, and distribution records necessary to verify compliance with parts 106, 107, 109, 110, 113, and 117 of this chapter, or with other appropriate regulations, shall be retained for 1 year after the expiration of the shelf life of the infant formula or 3 years from the date of manufacture, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(o) The manufacturer shall maintain quality control records that contain sufficient information to permit a public health evaluation of any production aggregate of infant formula.
</P>
<P>(p) A manufacturer shall make and retain records that demonstrate that the formula meets the quality factor of normal physical growth.
</P>
<P>(1) For an infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula, in accordance with § 106.96(d), these records shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Records demonstrating compliance with the requirements in § 106.96(b), including records made in compliance with § 106.121; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Records demonstrating satisfaction of an applicable exemption under § 106.96(c), including records made in compliance with § 106.121.
</P>
<P>(2) For an eligible infant formula, in accordance with § 106.96(i)(5), these records shall include records demonstrating that the formula fulfills one or more of the criteria listed in § 106.96(i)(1).
</P>
<P>(q) A manufacturer shall make and retain records that demonstrate that a formula meets the quality factor of sufficient biological quality of protein.
</P>
<P>(1) For an infant formula that is not an eligible infant formula, in accordance with § 106.96(h), these records shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Records demonstrating compliance with the requirements in § 106.96(f), including records made in compliance with § 106.121; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Records demonstrating satisfaction of an applicable exemption under § 106.96(g), including records made in compliance with § 106.121.
</P>
<P>(2) For an eligible infant formula, in accordance with § 106.96(i)(5), these records shall include records demonstrating that the formula fulfills one or more of the criteria listed in § 106.96(i)(2).
</P>
<P>(r) The failure to comply with the records requirements in this section applicable to the quality factors shall render the formula adulterated under section 412(a)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The failure to comply with the records requirements in this section applicable to the good manufacturing practices and quality control procedures, including distribution and audit records requirements, with respect to an infant formula shall render the formula adulterated under section 412(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A failure to retain or make available records applicable to the quality factor requirements, quality control procedures, or current good manufacturing practices requirements in compliance with paragraph (l), (m), or (n) of this section with respect to a formula shall render the formula adulterated under section 412(a)(2) or (a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33072, June 10, 2014; 80 FR 56144, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Registration, Submission, and Notification Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.110   New infant formula registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before a new infant formula may be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, including a new infant formula for export only, the manufacturer of the formula shall register with the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Office of Nutrition, Labeling, and Dietary Supplements, Infant Formula and Medical Foods Staff (HFS-850), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740-3835.
</P>
<P>(b) The new infant formula registration shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the new infant formula;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(3) The street address of the place of business of the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name and street address of each establishment at which the manufacturer intends to manufacture such new infant formula.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.120   New infant formula submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 90 days before a new infant formula is introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, a manufacturer shall submit notice of its intent to do so to the Food and Drug Administration at the address given in § 106.110(a). An original and two paper copies of such notice of intent shall be submitted, unless the notice is submitted in conformance with part 11 of this chapter, in which case a single copy shall be sufficient.
</P>
<P>(b) The new infant formula submission shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and description of the physical form (e.g., powder, ready-to feed, or concentrate) of the infant formula;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of why the formula is a new infant formula;
</P>
<P>(3) The quantitative formulation of each form of the infant formula that is the subject of the notice in units per volume or units per weight for liquid formulas, specified either as sold or as fed, and units per dry weight for powdered formulas, and the weight of powder to be reconstituted with a specified volume of water, and, when applicable, a description of any reformulation of the infant formula, including a listing of each new or changed ingredient and a discussion of the effect of such changes on the nutrient levels in the formulation;
</P>
<P>(4) A description, when applicable, of any change in processing of the infant formula. Such description shall identify the specific change in processing, including side-by-side, detailed schematic diagrams comparing the new processing to the previous processing and processing times and temperatures;
</P>
<P>(5) Assurance that the infant formula will not be marketed unless the formula meets the requirements for quality factors of section 412(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(b)(1)) and the nutrient content requirements of section 412(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(i) Assurance that the formula meets the requirements for quality factors, which are set forth in § 106.96, shall be provided by a submission that complies with § 106.121;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assurance that the formula complies with the nutrient content requirements, which are set forth in § 107.100 of this chapter, shall be provided by a statement that the formula will not be marketed unless it meets the nutrient requirements of § 107.100 of this chapter, as demonstrated by testing required under subpart C of this part; and
</P>
<P>(6) Assurance that the processing of the infant formula complies with section 412(b)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Such assurance shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the formula will be produced in accordance with subparts B and C of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The basis on which each ingredient meets the requirements of § 106.40(a), e.g. that it is an approved food additive, that it is authorized by a prior sanction, or that it is generally recognized as safe (GRAS) for its intended use. Any claim that an ingredient is GRAS shall be supported by a citation to the Agency's regulations or by an explanation, including a list of published studies and a copy of those publications, for why, based on the published studies, there is general recognition of the safety of the use of the ingredient in infant formula.
</P>
<P>(7) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption under § 106.91(b)(1)(ii), the manufacturer shall include the scientific evidence that the manufacturer is relying on to demonstrate that the stability of the new infant formula will likely not differ from the stability of formulas with similar composition, processing, and packaging for which there are extensive stability data.
</P>
<P>(c) For a new infant formula for export only, a manufacturer may submit, in lieu of the information required under paragraphs (b)(5) and (b)(6) of this section, a statement certifying that the infant formula meets the specifications of the foreign purchaser, the infant formula does not conflict with the laws of the country to which it is intended for export, the infant formula is labeled on the outside of the shipping package to indicate that it is intended for export only, and the infant formula will not be sold or offered for sale in domestic commerce. Such manufacturer shall also submit a statement certifying that it has adequate controls in place to ensure that such formula is actually exported.
</P>
<P>(d) The submission will not constitute notice under section 412 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless it complies fully with paragraph (b) of this section, as applicable, and the information that it contains is set forth in a manner that is readily understandable. The Agency will notify the manufacturer if the notice is not complete because it does not meet the requirements in section 412(c) and (d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(e) If a new infant formula submission contains all the information required by paragraph (b) of this section, as applicable, the Food and Drug Administration will acknowledge its receipt and notify the manufacturer of the date of receipt. The date that the Agency receives a new infant formula submission that is complete is the filing date for such submission. The manufacturer shall not market the new infant formula before the date that is 90 days after the filing date. If the information in the submission does not provide the assurances required under section 412(d)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the regulations of this chapter, the Food and Drug Administration will so notify the manufacturer before the expiration of the 90th day.
</P>
<P>(f) If the manufacturer provides additional information in support of a new infant formula submission, the Agency will determine whether the additional information is a substantive amendment to the new infant formula submission. If the Agency determines that the new submission is a substantive amendment, the Food and Drug Administration will assign the new infant formula submission a new filing date. The Food and Drug Administration will acknowledge receipt of the additional information and, when applicable, notify the manufacturer of the new filing date, which is the date of receipt by the Food and Drug Administration of the information that constitutes the substantive amendment to the new infant formula submission.
</P>
<P>(g) Submissions relating to exempt infant formulas are subject to the provisions of § 107.50 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33072, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.121" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.121   Quality factor assurances for infant formulas.</HEAD>
<P>To provide assurance that an infant formula meets the requirements for quality factors set forth in § 106.96, the manufacturer shall submit the following data and information:
</P>
<P>(a) Unless the manufacturer of a new infant formula can claim an exemption under § 106.96(c)(1) or (c)(2), the following assurances shall be provided to ensure that the requirements of § 106.96(a) and (b) have been met:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation, in narrative form, setting forth how requirements for quality factors in § 106.96(b) have been met;
</P>
<P>(2) Records that contain the information required by § 106.96(b) to be collected during the study for each infant enrolled in the study. The records shall be identified by subject number, age, feeding group, gender, and study day of collection.
</P>
<P>(3) Data, which shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Statistical evaluation for all measurements, including group means, group standard deviations, and measures of statistical significance for all measurements for each feeding group at the beginning of the study and at every point where measurements were made throughout the study, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculations of the statistical power of the study before study initiation and at study completion.
</P>
<P>(4) A report on attrition and on all occurrences of adverse events during the study, which shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the infant by subject number and feeding group and a complete description of the adverse event, including comparisons of the frequency and nature of occurrence in each feeding group and information on the health of the infant during the course of the study, including the occurrence and duration of any illness;
</P>
<P>(ii) A clinical assessment by a health care provider of the infant's health during each suspected adverse event; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of all subjects who did not complete the study, including the subject number and the reason that each subject did not complete the study.
</P>
<P>(b) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption from the growth monitoring study requirements under § 106.96(c)(1), the manufacturer shall include a detailed description of the change made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula and an explanation of why the change made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula satisfies the criteria of § 106.96(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption under § 106.96(c)(2)(i), the manufacturer shall include a detailed description of the alternative method or alternative study design, an explanation of why the method or study design is based on sound scientific principles, and data that demonstrate that the formula supports normal physical growth in infants when the formula is fed as the sole source of nutrition.
</P>
<P>(d) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption under § 106.96(c)(2)(ii), the manufacturer shall include a detailed description of the change and an explanation of why the change made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula does not the affect the ability of the formula to support normal physical growth.
</P>
<P>(e) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption under § 106.96(c)(2)(iii), the manufacturer shall include a detailed description of the two formulations and an explanation of why the quality factor requirement of normal physical growth is met by the form of the formula that is processed using the method that has the greatest potential for adversely affecting nutrient content and bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless the manufacturer of a new infant formula is requesting an exemption under § 106.96(g), the results of the Protein Efficiency Ratio bioassay shall be provided in accordance with § 106.96(f).
</P>
<P>(g) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption under § 106.96(g)(1), the manufacturer shall include a detailed description of the change made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula and an explanation of why the change made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula satisfies the criteria listed in § 106.96(g)(1).
</P>
<P>(h) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption under § 106.96(g)(2), the manufacturer shall include a detailed description of the change and an explanation of why the change made by the manufacturer to an existing infant formula does not affect the bioavailability of the protein.
</P>
<P>(i) If the manufacturer is requesting an exemption under § 106.96(g)(3), the manufacturer shall include a detailed explanation of the alternative method, an explanation of why the method is based on sound scientific principles, and the data that demonstrate that the quality factor for the biological quality of the protein has been met.
</P>
<P>(j) A statement certifying that the manufacturer has collected and considered all information and data concerning the ability of the infant formula to meet the requirements for quality factors and that the manufacturer is not aware of any information or data that would show that the formula does not meet the requirements for quality factors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 33072, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.130   Verification submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall, after the first production and before the introduction into interstate commerce of a new infant formula (except for a new infant formula that is for export only for which a submission is received in compliance with § 106.120(c)), verify in a written submission to the Food and Drug Administration at the address given in § 106.110(a) that the infant formula complies with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and is not adulterated.
</P>
<P>(b) The verification submission shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the new infant formula; the filing date for the new infant formula submission, in accordance with § 106.120, for the subject formula; and the identification number assigned by the Agency to the new infant formula submission:
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the infant formula to be introduced into interstate commerce is the same as the infant formula that was the subject of the new infant formula notification and for which the manufacturer provided assurances in accordance with the requirements of § 106.120;
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of test results of the level of each nutrient required by § 107.100 of this chapter and any nutrient added by the manufacturer in the formula, presented in units per 100 kilocalories at the final product stage.
</P>
<P>(4) A certification that the manufacturer has established current good manufacturing practices, including quality control procedures and in-process controls, and testing required by current good manufacturing practice, designed to prevent adulteration of this formula in accordance with subparts B and C of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The submission shall not constitute written verification under section 412(d)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(d)(2)) when any data prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section are lacking or are not set forth so as to be readily understood. In such circumstances, the Agency will notify the manufacturer that the notice is not adequate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.140   Submission concerning a change in infant formula that may adulterate the product.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a manufacturer makes a change in the formulation or processing of the formula that may affect whether the formula is adulterated under section 412(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)), the manufacturer shall, before the first processing of such formula, make a submission to the Food and Drug Administration at the address given in § 106.110(a). An original and two copies shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) The submission shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and physical form of the infant formula (i.e., powder, ready-to-feed, or concentrate);
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An explanation of why the change in formulation or processing may affect whether the formula is adulterated; and
</P>
<P>(ii) What steps will be taken to ensure that, before the formula is introduced into interstate commerce, the formula will not be adulterated; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the submission complies with § 106.120(b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6). When appropriate, a statement to the effect that the information required by § 106.120(b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(5), or (b)(6) has been provided to the Agency previously and has not been affected by the changes that are the subject of the current submission, together with the identification number assigned by the Agency to the relevant infant formula submission, may be provided in lieu of such statement.
</P>
<P>(c) The submission shall not constitute notice under section 412 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless it complies fully with paragraph (b) of this section, and the information that it contains is set forth in a manner that is readily understandable. The Agency will notify the manufacturer if the notice is not adequate because it does not meet the requirements of section 412(d)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.150   Notification of an adulterated or misbranded infant formula.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer shall promptly notify the Food and Drug Administration in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section when the manufacturer has knowledge (that is, actual knowledge that the manufacturer had, or the knowledge which a reasonable person would have had under like circumstances or which would have been obtained upon the exercise of due care) that reasonably supports the conclusion that an infant formula that has been processed by the manufacturer and that has left an establishment subject to the control of the manufacturer:
</P>
<P>(1) May not provide the nutrients required by section 412(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(i)) or by regulations issued under section 412(i)(2); or
</P>
<P>(2) May be otherwise adulterated or misbranded.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification made according to paragraph (a) of this section shall be made by telephone, to the Director of the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office. After normal business hours (8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.), the Food and Drug Administration's emergency number, 1-866-300-4374 shall be used. The manufacturer shall promptly send written confirmation of the notification to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Office of Compliance, Division of Enforcement (HFS-605), Recall Coordinator, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and to the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8059, Feb. 10, 2014, as amended at 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 106.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.6.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 106.160   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the Food and Drug Administration must publish notice of change in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration library at 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Building 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, and is available from the sources listed below. This material is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) 3-A Sanitary Standards, Inc., 6888 Elm St., Suite 2D, McLean, VA 22101-3829, 703-790-0295, and may be ordered online at <I>http://www.3-a.org/</I>:
</P>
<P>(1) 3-A Sanitary Standards, No. 609-03: A Method of Producing Culinary Steam, adopted November 21, 2004, into § 106.20(h).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) American Society for Nutrition, 9650 Rockville Pike, Bethesda, MD 20814-3998, 301-634-7279, <I>http://www.nutrition.org</I>:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical growth: National Center for Health Statistics percentiles,</I> Hamill, P.V.V., T.A. Drizd, C.L. Johnson, R.B. Reed, A.F. Roche, and W.M. Moore, <I>American Journal of Clinical Nutrition,</I> vol. 32, pp. 607-614, dated March 1979, into § 106.96(i)(1)(ii)(c).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) AOAC International, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877-2417, 301-924-7078:
</P>
<P>(1) Official Methods of Analysis of AOAC International, 16th ed., dated 1995, into § 106.96(i)(2)(ii):
</P>
<P>(i) Section 45.3.04, AOAC Official Method 960.48 Protein Efficiency Ratio Rat Bioassay, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 45.3.05, AOAC Official Method 982.30 Protein Efficiency Ratio Calculation Method.
</P>
<P>(2) Official Methods of Analysis of AOAC International, 18th ed., dated 2005, into § 106.96(f):
</P>
<P>(i) Section 45.3.04, AOAC Official Method 960.48 Protein Efficiency Ratio Rat Bioassay, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 45.3.05, AOAC Official Method 982.30 Protein Efficiency Ratio Calculation Method.
</P>
<P>(e) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Rd., Atlanta, GA 30333, 1-800-232-4636, <I>http://www.cdc.gov/growthcharts/who_charts.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Birth to 24 months:</I> Boys Head circumference-for-age and Weight-for-length percentiles, dated November 1, 2009, into § 106.96(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Birth to 24 months:</I> Boys Length-for-age and Weight-for-age percentiles, dated November 1, 2009, into § 106.96(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Birth to 24 months:</I> Girls Head circumference-for-age and Weight-for-length percentiles, dated November 1, 2009, into § 106.96(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Birth to 24 months:</I> Girls Length-for-age and Weight-for-age percentiles, dated November 1, 2009, into § 106.96(b)(4).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="107" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 107—INFANT FORMULA
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 343, 350a, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 1840, Jan. 14, 1985, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 107 appear at 81 FR 49895, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.1   Status and applicability of the regulations in part 107.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria in subpart B of this part describe the labeling requirements applicable to infant formula under section 403 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C 343). Failure to comply with any regulation in subpart B of this part will render an infant formula misbranded under section 403 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria in subpart C of this part describe the terms and conditions for the exemption of an infant formula from the requirements of section 412(a), (b), and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a), (b), and (c)). Failure to comply with any regulations in subpart C of this part will result in withdrawal of the exemption given under section 412(h)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart D of this part contains the nutrient requirements for infant formula under section 412(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Failure to comply with any regulation in subpart D of this part will render an infant formula adulterated under section 412(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) An exempt infant formula is subject to the provisions of § 107.50 and other applicable Food and Drug Administration food regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8074, Feb. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions shall apply, in addition to the definitions contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act):
</P>
<P><I>Exempt formula.</I> An exempt infant formula is an infant formula intended for commercial or charitable distribution that is represented and labeled for use by infants who have inborn errors of metabolism or low birth weight, or who otherwise have unusual medical or dietary problems.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer.</I> A person who prepares, reconstitutes, or otherwise changes the physical or chemical characteristics of an infant formula or packages or labels the product in a container for distribution. The term “manufacturer” does not include a person who prepares, reconstitutes, or mixes infant formula exclusively for an infant under his/her direct care or the direct care of the institution employing such person.
</P>
<P><I>References.</I> References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 48186, Nov. 22, 1985, as amended at 79 FR 8074, Feb. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.10   Nutrient information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of infant formulas, as defined in section 201(z) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, shall bear in the order given, in the units specified, and in tabular format, the following information regarding the product as prepared in accordance with label directions for infant consumption:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the number of fluid ounces supplying 100 kilocalories (in case of food label statements, a kilocalorie is represented by the word “Calorie”); and
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the amount, supplied by 100 kilocalories, of each of the following nutrients and of any other nutrient added by the manufacturer:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nutrients </TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit of measurement
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protein </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fat </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbohydrate </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linoleic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Vitamins</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin A </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">International Units
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin D </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin E </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin K </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamine (Vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin (Vitamin B<E T="52">2</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Folic acid (Folacin) </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pantothenic acid </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Biotin </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Choline </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inositol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Minerals</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloride </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) In addition the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Vitamin A content may also be declared on the label in units of microgram retinol equivalents, vitamin D content in units of micrograms cholecalciferol, vitamin E content in units of milligram alpha-tocopherol equivalents, and sodium, potassium, and chloride content in units of millimoles, micromoles, or milliequivalents. When these declarations are made they shall appear in parentheses immediately following the declarations in International Units for vitamins A, D, and E, and immediately following the declarations in milligrams for sodium, potassium, and chloride.
</P>
<P>(2) Biotin, choline, and inositol content shall be declared except when they are not added to milk-based infant formulas.
</P>
<P>(3) Each of the listed nutrients, and the caloric density, may also be declared on the label on other bases, such as per 100 milliliters or per liter, as prepared for infant consumption.
</P>
<P>(4) One of the following statements shall appear on the principal display panel, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The statement “Infant Formula With Iron”, or a similar statement, if the product contains 1 milligram or more of iron in a quantity of product that supplies 100 kilocalories when prepared in accordance with label directions for infant consumption.
</P>
<P>(ii) The statement “Additional Iron May Be Necessary”, or a similar statement, if the product contains less than 1 milligram of iron in a quantity of product that supplies 100 kilocalories when prepared in accordance with label directions for infant consumption.
</P>
<P>(5) Any additional vitamin may be declared at the bottom of the vitamin list and any additional minerals may be declared between iodine and sodium, provided that any additionally declared nutrient:
</P>
<P>(i) Has been identified as essential by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine through its development of a Dietary Reference Intake, or has been identified as essential by the Food and Drug Administration through a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is provided at a level considered in these publications as having biological significance, when these levels are known.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 1840, Jan. 14, 1985, as amended at 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002; 79 FR 8074, Feb. 10, 2014; 80 FR 35840, June 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.20   Directions for use.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the applicable labeling requirements in parts 101 and 105 of this chapter, the product label shall bear:
</P>
<P>(a) Under the heading “Directions For Preparation and Use”, directions for:
</P>
<P>(1) Storage of infant formula before and after the container has been opened, including a statement indicating that prolonged storage at excessive temperatures should be avoided;
</P>
<P>(2) Agitating liquid infant formula before opening the container, such as “Shake Well Before Opening”;
</P>
<P>(3) “Sterilization” of water, bottle, and nipples when necessary for preparing infant formula for use;
</P>
<P>(4) Dilution of infant formula, when appropriate. Directions for powdered infant formula shall contain the weight and volume of powdered formula to be reconstituted.
</P>
<P>(b) In close proximity to the “Directions for Preparation and Use” a pictogram depicting the major steps for preparation of that infant formula, such as (for a concentrated formula):
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.366.gif"/>
<P>(c) A “Use by ______” date, the blank to be filled in with the month and year selected by the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the infant formula on the basis of tests or other information showing that the infant formula, until that date, under the conditions of handling, storage, preparation, and use prescribed by label directions, will: (1) when consumed, contain not less than the quantity of each nutrient, as set forth on its label; and (2) otherwise be of an acceptable quality (e.g., pass through an ordinary bottle nipple).
</P>
<P>(d) The statement “Add Water” or “Do Not Add Water”, as appropriate, to appear on the principal display panel of concentrated or ready-to-feed infant formulas. In close proximity to the statement “Add Water”, a symbol such as
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec01mr93.000.gif"/>
<FP>if the addition of water is necessary. The symbol shall be placed on a white background encircled by a dark border.
</FP>
<P>(e) A warning statement beneath or in close proximity to the “Directions For Preparation and Use” that cautions against improper preparation or use of an infant formula, such as “THE HEALTH OF YOUR INFANT DEPENDS ON CAREFULLY FOLLOWING THE DIRECTIONS FOR PREPARATION AND USE”.
</P>
<P>(f) A statement indicating that parents should consult their physicians about the use of infant formulas, such as “USE AS DIRECTED BY A PHYSICIAN”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 1840, Jan. 14, 1985, as amended at 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.30" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.30   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>When containers of ready-to-feed infant formula, to be sold at the retail level, are contained within a multiunit package, the labels of the individual containers shall contain all of the label information required by section 403 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), §§ 107.10 and 107.20, and all appropriate sections of part 101 of this chapter, except that the labels of the individual containers contained within the outer package shall be exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403 (e)(1) and (i)(2) of the act; and §§ 107.10 (a) and (b)(2) and 107.20 (b), (e), and (f), provided that (a) the multiunit package meets all the requirements of this part; (b) individual containers are securely enclosed within and are not intended to be separated from the retail package under conditions of retail sale; and (c) the label on each individual container includes the statement “This Unit Not Intended For Individual Sale” in type size not less than one-sixteenth inch in height. The word “Retail” may be used in lieu of or immediately following the word “Individual” in the statement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Exempt Infant Formulas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.50" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.50   Terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Terms and conditions.</I> Section 412(f)(1) of the act exempts from the requirements of section 412(a), (b), and (c)(1)(A) of the act infant formulas that are represented and labeled for use by an infant who has an inborn error of metabolism or low birth weight or who otherwise has an unusual medical or dietary problem, if such formulas comply with regulations prescribed by the Secretary. The regulations in this subpart establish the terms and conditions that a manufacturer must meet with respect to such infant formulas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Infant formulas generally available at the retail level.</I> (1) These exempt infant formulas can generally be purchased from retail store shelves that are readily available to the public. Such formulas are also typically represented and labeled for use to provide dietary management for diseases or conditions that are not clinically serious or life-threatening, even though such formulas may also be represented and labeled for use in clinically serious or life-threatening disorders.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) of this section, an infant formula manufacturer shall, with respect to each formula covered by this paragraph, comply with the nutrient requirements of section 412(g) of the act or of regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act, the quality control procedure requirements of part 106, and the labeling requirements of subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) To retain the exempt status of an infant formula covered by this paragraph, the manufacturer shall submit to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), at the address specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, on or before May 21, 1986, or on or before the 90th day before the first processing of the infant formula for commercial or charitable distribution, whichever occurs later, the label and other labeling of the infant formula, a complete quantitative formulation for the infant formula, and a detailed description of the medical conditions for which the infant formula is represented. FDA will review the information under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) To retain the exempt status of an infant formula covered by this paragraph, when any change in ingredients or processes that may result in an adverse impact on levels of nutrients or availability of nutrients is instituted, the manufacturer shall submit to FDA at the address specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, before the first processing of the infant formula, the label and other labeling of the infant formula, a complete quantitative formulation for the infant formula, a detailed description of the reformulation and the rationale for the reformulation, a complete description of the change in processing, and a detailed description of the medical conditions for which the infant formula is represented. FDA will review that information under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) A manufacturer may deviate from the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section only with respect to those specific requirements for which it submits to FDA, at the address specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the medical, nutritional, scientific, or technological rationale (including any appropriate animal or human clinical studies). FDA will review that information under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Infant formulas not generally available at the retail level.</I> (1) These exempt infant formulas are not generally found on retail shelves for general consumer purchase. Such formulas typically are prescribed by a physician, and must be requested from a pharmacist or are distributed directly to institutions such as hospitals, clinics, and State or Federal agencies. Such formulas are also generally represented and labeled solely to provide dietary management for specific diseases or conditions that are clinically serious or life-threatening and generally are required for prolonged periods of time. Exempt infant formulas distributed directly to institutions such as hospitals, clinics, and State or Federal agencies that are of the same formulation as those generally available at the retail level are subject to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section rather than to the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided for in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, an infant formula manufacturer shall, with respect to each formula covered by this paragraph, comply with the nutrient requirements of section 412(g) of the act or of regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act, and the labeling requirements of subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Each manufacturer of an infant formula covered by this paragraph shall establish quality control procedures designed to ensure that the infant formula meets applicable nutrient requirements of this section, including any special nutritional characteristics for the specific disorders or conditions for which the formula is represented for use. Each manufacturer shall maintain records of such quality control procedures sufficient to permit a public health evaluation of each manufactured batch of infant formula and shall permit any authorized FDA employee at all reasonable times to have access to and to copy and verify the records referred to in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) To retain the exempt status of an infant formula covered by this paragraph, the manufacturer shall submit the information required by paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) A manufacturer may deviate from the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section only with respect to those specific requirements for which it submits to FDA, at the address specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the medical, nutritional, scientific, or technological rationale (including any appropriate animal or human clinical studies). FDA will review that information under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The requirements of this section do not apply to an infant formula specially and individually prepared for one or more specific infants on a physician's request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FDA review of exempt status.</I> (1) FDA's Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition will review information submitted by infant formula manufacturers under paragraph (b) (3), (b) (4), or (c)(4) of this section. On the basis of such review and other information available to the agency, the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition may impose additional conditions on, or modify requirements for, the quality control procedures, nutrient specifications, or labeling of an infant formula, or withdraw a product's exempt status. Such determinations will be made by the Director of the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If after completing its review of all information submitted, the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition concludes that additional or modified quality control, nutrient, or labeling requirements are needed, or that a product's exempt status is withdrawn, the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition will so notify the manufacturer and this notification will specify the reasons therefor. Upon receipt of this notification, the manufacturer has 10 working days to have the decision reviewed under § 10.75 by the office of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. A determination by the Director of the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition that is not appealed becomes a final agency decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) After a final decision by the Director or by the office of the Commissioner that a product's exempt status is withdrawn, the manufacturer shall comply with the nutrient requirements of section 412(g) of the act or of regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act, the quality control requirements of part 106, and the labeling requirements of subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The compliance date for the withdrawal of a product's exempt status or the imposition of additional or modified quality control, nutrient, or labeling requirements is 60 calendar days after issuance of the final decision except as otherwise provided for reasons stated in the decision. If the agency determines that a health hazard may exist and so notifies the manufacturer, withdrawal of a product's exempt status shall be effective on the date of receipt of notification from the Director of the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition. Additional or modified requirements, or the withdrawal of an exemption, apply only to those formulas that are manufactured after the compliance date. A postponement of the compliance date may be granted for good cause.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may decide that withdrawal of an exemption is necessary when, on the basis of its review under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, it concludes that quality control procedures are not adequate to ensure that the formula contains all required nutrients, that deviations in nutrient levels are not supported by generally accepted scientific, nutritional, or medical rationale, or that deviations from subpart B of this part are not necessary to provide appropriate directions for preparation and use of the infant formula, or that additional labeling information is necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will use the following criteria in determining whether deviations from the requirements of this subpart are necessary and will adequately protect the public health:
</P>
<P>(i) A deviation from the nutrient requirements of section 412(g) of the act or of regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act is necessary to provide an infant formula that is appropriate for the dietary management of a specific disease, disorder, or medical condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) For exempt infant formulas subject to paragraph (b) of this section, a deviation from the quality control procedures requirements of part 106 is necessary because of unusual or difficult technological problems in manufacturing the infant formula; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A deviation from the labeling requirements of subpart B of this part is necessary because label information, including pictograms and symbols required by those regulations, could lead to inappropriate use of the product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification requirements.</I> (1) Information required by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Office of Nutrition, Labeling, and Dietary Supplements, Infant Formula and Medical Foods Staff (HFS-850), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer shall promptly notify the Food and Drug Administration when the manufacturer has knowledge (as defined in section 412(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act) that reasonably supports the conclusion that an exempt infant formula that has been processed by the manufacturer and that has left an establishment subject to the control of the manufacturer may not provide the nutrients required by paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, or when there is an exempt infant formula that may be otherwise adulterated or misbranded and if so adulterated or misbranded presents a risk of human health. This notification shall be made, by telephone, to the Director of the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office specified in part 5, subpart M of this chapter. After normal business hours (8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.), contact the Food and Drug Administration Emergency Call Center at 866-300-4374. The manufacturer shall send a followup written confirmation to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-605), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and to the appropriate FDA district office specified in part 5, subpart M of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 48187, Nov. 22, 1985, as amended at 61 FR 14479, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002; 75 FR 32659, June 9, 2010; 79 FR 8074, Feb. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Nutrient Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.100   Nutrient specifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An infant formula shall contain the following nutrients at a level not less than the minimum level specified and not more than the maximum level specified for each 100 kilocalories of the infant formula in the form prepared for consumption as directed on the container:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nutrients
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit of measurement
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protein</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grams</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent calories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linoleic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent calories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Vitamins</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">International Units</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin K</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamine (Vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin (Vitamin B<E T="52">2</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin B<E T="52">12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Folic acid (Folacin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pantothenic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Biotin 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Choline 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inositol 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Minerals</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micrograms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milligrams</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The generic term “niacin” includes niacin (nicotinic acid) and niacinamide (nicotinamide).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Required only for non-milk-based infant formulas.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Vitamin E shall be present at a level of at least 0.7 International Unit of vitamin E per gram of linoleic acid.
</P>
<P>(c) Any vitamin K added shall be in the form of phylloquinone.
</P>
<P>(d) Vitamin B<E T="52">6</E> shall be present at a level of at least 15 micrograms of vitamin B<E T="52">6</E> for each gram of protein in excess of 1.8 grams of protein per 100 kilocalories of infant formula in the form prepared for consumption as directed on the container.
</P>
<P>(e) The ratio of calcium to phosphorus in infant formula in the form prepared for consumption as directed on the container shall be no less than 1.1 and not more than 2.0.
</P>
<P>(f) Protein shall be present in an amount not to exceed 4.5 grams per 100 kilocalories regardless of quality, and not less than 1.8 grams per 100 kilocalories of infant formula in the form prepared for consumption as directed on the container when its biological quality is equivalent to or better than that of casein. If the biological quality of the protein is less than that of casein, the minimum amount of protein shall be increased proportionately to compensate for its lower biological quality. For example, an infant formula containing protein with a biological quality of 75 percent of casein shall contain at least 2.4 grams of protein (1.8/0.75). No protein with a biological quality less than 70 percent of casein shall be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 45108, Oct. 30, 1985, as amended at 80 FR 35841, June 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Infant Formula Recalls</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 4008, Jan. 27, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 107.200" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.200   Food and Drug Administration-required recall.</HEAD>
<P>When the Food and Drug Administration determines that an adulterated or misbranded infant formula presents a risk to human health, a manufacturer shall immediately take all actions necessary to recall that formula, extending to and including the retail level, consistent with the requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.210" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.210   Firm-initiated product removals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a manufacturer has determined to recall voluntarily from the market an infant formula that is not subject to § 107.200 but that otherwise violates the laws and regulations administered by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and that would be subject to legal action, the manufacturer, upon prompt notification to FDA, shall administer such voluntary recall consistent with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) If a manufacturer has determined to withdraw voluntarily from the market an infant formula that is adulterated or misbranded in only a minor way and that would not be subject to legal action, such removal from the market is deemed to be a market withdrawal, as defined in § 7.3(j) of this chapter. As required by § 107.240(a), the manufacturer shall promptly notify FDA of such violative formula and may, but is not required to, conduct such market withdrawal consistent with the requirements of this subpart pertaining to product recalls.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.220" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.220   Scope and effect of infant formula recalls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of this subpart apply:
</P>
<P>(1) When the Food and Drug Administration has determined that it is necessary to remove from the market a distributed infant formula that is in violation of the laws and regulations administered by the Food and Drug Administration and that poses a risk to human health; or
</P>
<P>(2) When a manufacturer has determined that it is necessary to remove from the market a distributed infant formula that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is no longer subject to the manufacturer's control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is in violation of the laws and regulations administered by the Food and Drug Administration and against which the agency could initiate legal or regulatory action; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not present a human risk.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration will monitor continually the recall action and will take appropriate actions to ensure that the violative infant formula is removed from the market.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.230" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.230   Elements of an infant formula recall.</HEAD>
<P>A recalling firm shall conduct an infant formula recall with the following elements:
</P>
<P>(a) The recalling firm shall evaluate in writing the hazard to human health associated with the use of the infant formula. This health hazard evaluation shall include consideration of any disease, injury, or other adverse physiological effect that has been or that could be caused by the infant formula and of the seriousness, likelihood, and consequences of the diseases, injury, or other adverse physiological effect. The Food and Drug Administration will conduct its own health hazard evaluation and promptly notify the recalling firm of the results of that evaluation if the criteria for recall under § 107.200 have been met.
</P>
<P>(b) The recalling firm shall devise a written recall strategy suited to the individual circumstances of the particular recall. The recall strategy shall take into account the health hazard evaluation and specify the following: The extent of the recall; if necessary, the public warning to be given about any hazard presented by the infant formula; the disposition of the recalled infant formula; and the effectiveness checks that will be made to determine that the recall is carried out.
</P>
<P>(c) The recalling firm shall promptly notify each of its affected direct accounts about the recall. The format of a recall communication shall be distinctive, and the content and extent of a recall communication shall be commensurate with the hazard of the infant formula being recalled and the strategy developed for the recall. The recall communication shall instruct consignees to report back quickly to the recalling firm about whether they are in possession of the recalled infant formula and shall include a means of doing so. The recalled communication shall also advise consignees how to return the recall infant formula to the manufacturer or otherwise dispose of it. The recalling firm shall send a followup recall communication to any consignee that does not respond to the initial recall communication.
</P>
<P>(d) If the infant formula presents a risk to human health, the recalling firm shall request that each establishment, at which such infant formula is sold or available for sale, post at the point of purchase of such formula a notice of such recall at such establishment. The notice shall be provided by the recalling firm after approval of the notice by the Food and Drug Administration. The recalling firm shall also request that each retail establishment maintain such notice on display until such time as the Food and Drug Administration notifies the recalling firm that the agency considers the recall completed.
</P>
<P>(e) The recalling firm shall furnish promptly to the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office listed in part 5, subpart M of this chapter, as they are available, copies of the health hazard evaluation, the recall strategy, and all recall communications (including, for a recall under § 107.200, the notice to be displayed at retail establishments) directed to consignees, distributors, retailers, and members of the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 4008, Jan. 27, 1989, as amended at 66 FR 17358, Mar. 30, 2001; 69 FR 17291, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.240" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.240   Notification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Telephone report.</I> When a determination is made that an infant formula is to be recalled, the recalling firm shall telephone within 24 hours the appropriate Food and Drug Administration district office listed in § 5.115 of this chapter and shall provide relevant information about the infant formula that is to be recalled.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial written report.</I> Within 14 days after the recall has begun, the recalling firm shall provide a written report to the appropriate FDA district office. The report shall contain relevant information, including the following cumulative information concerning the infant formula that is being recalled:
</P>
<P>(1) Number of consignees notified of the recall and date and method of notification, including recalls required by § 107.200, information about the notice provided for retail display, and the request for its display.
</P>
<P>(2) Number of consignees responding to the recall communication and quantity of recalled infant formula on hand at each consignee at the time the communication was received.
</P>
<P>(3) Quantity of recalled infant formula returned or corrected by each consignee contacted and the quantity of recalled infant formula accounted for.
</P>
<P>(4) Number and results of effectiveness checks that were made.
</P>
<P>(5) Estimated timeframes for completion of the recall.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Status reports.</I> The recalling firm shall submit to the appropriate FDA district office a written status report on the recall at least every 14 days until the recall is terminated. The status report shall describe the steps taken by the recalling firm to carry out the recall since the last report and the results of these steps.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8074, Feb. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.250" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.250   Termination of an infant formula recall.</HEAD>
<P>The recalling firm may submit a recommendation for termination of the recall to the appropriate FDA district office for transmittal to the Recall Coordinator, Division of Enforcement (HFS-605), Office of Compliance, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or by email to <I>CFSAN.RECALL@fda.hhs.gov</I>, for action. Any such recommendation shall contain information supporting a conclusion that the recall strategy has been effective. The Agency will respond within 15 days of receipt by the Division of Enforcement of the request for termination. The recalling firm shall continue to implement the recall strategy until it receives final written notification from the Agency that the recall has been terminated. The Agency will send such notification, unless the Agency has information from FDA's own audits or from other sources demonstrating that the recall has not been effective. The Agency may conclude that a recall has not been effective if:
</P>
<P>(a) The recalling firm's distributors have failed to retrieve the recalled infant formula; or
</P>
<P>(b) Stocks of the recalled infant formula remain in distribution channels that are not in direct control of the recalling firm.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 4008, Jan. 27, 1989, as amended at 61 FR 14479, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 17359, Mar. 30, 2001; 69 FR 17291, Apr. 2, 2004; 79 FR 8075, Feb. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.260" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.260   Revision of an infant formula recall.</HEAD>
<P>If after a review of the recalling firm's recall strategy or periodic reports or other monitoring of the recall, the Food and Drug Administration concludes that the actions of the recalling firm are deficient, the agency shall notify the recalling firm of any serious deficiency. The agency may require the firm to:
</P>
<P>(a) Change the extent of the recall, if the agency concludes on the basis of available data that the depth of the recall is not adequate in light of the risk to human health presented by the infant formula.
</P>
<P>(b) Carry out additional effectiveness checks, if the agency's audits, or other information, demonstrate that the recall has not been effective.
</P>
<P>(c) Issue additional notifications to the firm's direct accounts, if the agency's audits, or other information demonstrate that the original notifications were not received, or were disregarded in a significant number of cases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.270" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.270   Compliance with this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>A recalling firm may satisfy the requirements of this subpart by any means reasonable calculated to meet the obligations set forth in this Subpart E. The recall guidance in subpart C of part 7 of this chapter specify procedures that may be useful to a recalling firm in determining how to comply with these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 4008, Jan. 27, 1989, as amended at 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 107.280" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 107.280   Records retention.</HEAD>
<P>Each manufacturer of an infant formula shall make and retain such records respecting the distribution of the infant formula through any establishment owned or operated by such manufacturer as may be necessary to effect and monitor recalls of the formula. Such records shall be retained for at least 1 year after the expiration of the shelf life of the infant formula.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 4008, Jan. 27, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="108" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 108—EMERGENCY PERMIT CONTROL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 344, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14334, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 108 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are applicable to such terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permit</I> means an emergency permit issued by the Commissioner pursuant to section 404 of the act for such temporary period of time as may be necessary to protect the public health.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Manufacture, processing, or packing of food in any locality</I> means activities conducted in a single plant or establishment, a series of plants under a single management, or all plants in an industry or region, by a manufacturer, processor, or packer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.5   Determination of the need for a permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Commissioner determines after investigation that a manufacturer, processor, or packer of a food for which a regulation has been promulgated in subpart B of this part does not meet the mandatory conditions and requirements established in such regulation, he shall issue to such manufacturer, processor, or packer an order determining that a permit shall be required before the food may be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce by that person. The order shall specify the mandatory conditions and requirements with which there is a lack of compliance.
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer, processor, or packer shall have 3 working days after receipt of such order within which to file objections. Such objections may be filed by telegram, telex, or any other mode of written communication addressed to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration (HFS-605), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. If such objections are filed, the determination is stayed pending a hearing to be held within 5 working days after the filing of objections on the issues involved unless the Commissioner determines that the objections raise no genuine and substantial issue of fact to justify a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Commissioner finds that there is an imminent hazard to health, the order shall contain this finding and the reasons therefor, and shall state that the determination of the need for a permit is effective immediately pending an expedited hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing under this section shall be conducted by the Commissioner or his designee at a location agreed upon by the objector and the Commissioner or, if such agreement cannot be reached, at a location designated by the Commissioner. The manufacturer, processor, or packer shall have the right to cross-examine the Food and Drug Administration's witnesses and to present witnesses on his own behalf.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 5 working days after the hearing, and based on the evidence presented at the hearing, the Commissioner shall determine whether a permit is required and shall so inform the manufacturer, processor, or packer in writing, with the reasons for his decision.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner's determination of the need for a permit constitutes final agency action from which appeal lies to the courts. The Commissioner will not stay a determination of the need for a permit pending court appeal except in unusual circumstances, but will participate in expediting any such appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14334, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 24891, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14479, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.6   Revocation of determination of need for permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A permit shall be required only during such temporary period as is necessary to protect the public health.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Commissioner has reason to believe that a permit holder is in compliance with the mandatory requirements and conditions established in subpart B of this part and is likely to remain in compliance, he shall, on his own initiative or on the application of the permit holder, revoke both the determination of need for a permit and the permit that had been issued. If denied, the applicant shall, upon request, be afforded a hearing conducted in accordance with § 108.5 (b) and (c) as soon as practicable. Such revocation is without prejudice to the initiation of further permit proceedings with respect to the same manufacturer, processor, or packer should later information again show the need for a permit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.7   Issuance or denial of permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After a determination and notification by the Commissioner in accordance with the provisions of § 108.5 that a manufacturer, processor, or packer requires a permit, such manufacturer, processor, or packer may not thereafter introduce or deliver for introduction into interstate commerce any such food manufactured, processed, or packed by him unless he holds a permit issued by the Commissioner or obtains advance written approval of the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to § 108.12(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Any manufacturer, processor, or packer for whom the Commissioner has made a determination that a permit is necessary may apply to the Commissioner for the issuance of such a permit. The application shall contain such data and information as is necessary to show that all mandatory requirements and conditions for the manufacturer, processing or packing of a food for which regulations are established in subpart B of this part are met and, in particular, shall show that the deviations specified in the Commissioner's determination of the need for a permit have been corrected or suitable interim measures established. Within 10 working days after receipt of such application, (except that the Commissioner may extend such time an additional 10 working days where necessary), the Commissioner shall issue a permit, deny the permit, or offer the applicant a hearing conducted in accordance with § 108.5 (b) and (c) as to whether the permit should be issued. The Commissioner shall issue such a permit to which shall be attached, in addition to the mandatory requirements and conditions of subpart B of this part, any additional requirements or conditions which may be necessary to protect the public health if he finds that all mandatory requirements and conditions of subpart B of this part are met or suitable interim measures are established.
</P>
<P>(c) Denial of a permit constitutes final agency action from which appeal lies to the courts. The Commissioner will not stay such denial pending court appeal except in unusual circumstances, but will participate in expediting any such appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.10   Suspension and reinstatement of permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Commissioner finds that a permit holder is not in compliance with the mandatory requirements and conditions established by the permit, he shall immediately suspend the permit and so inform the permit holder, with the reasons for the suspension.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon application for reinstatement of a permit, the Commissioner shall, within 10 working days, reinstate the permit if he finds that the person is in compliance with the mandatory requirements and conditions established by the permit or deny the application.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person whose permit has been suspended or whose application for reinstatement has been denied may request a hearing. The hearing shall be conducted by the Commissioner or his designee within 5 working days of receipt of the request at a location agreed upon by the objector and the Commissioner or, if an agreement cannot be reached, at a location designated by the Commissioner. The permit holder shall have the right to present witnesses on his own behalf and to cross-examine the Food and Drug Administration's witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 5 working days after the hearing, and based on the evidence presented at the hearing, the Commissioner shall determine whether the permit shall be reinstated and shall so inform the permit holder, with the reasons for his decision.
</P>
<P>(e) Denial of an application for reinstatement of a permit constitutes final agency action from which appeal lies to the courts. The Commissioner will not stay such denial pending court appeal except in unusual circumstances, but will participate in expediting any such appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.12   Manufacturing, processing, or packing without a permit, or in violation of a permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer, processor, or packer may continue at his own risk to manufacture, process, or pack without a permit a food for which the Commissioner has determined that a permit is required. All food so manufactured, processed, or packed during such period without a permit shall be retained by the manufacturer, processor, or packer and may not be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce without the advance written approval of the Food and Drug Administration. Such approval may be granted only upon an adequate showing that such food is free from microorganisms of public health significance. The manufacturer, processor, or packer may provide to the Commissioner, for his consideration in making any such determination, an evaluation of the potential public health significance of such food by a competent authority in accordance with procedures recognized as being adequate to detect any potential hazard to public health. Within 20 working days after receipt of a written request for such written approval the Food and Drug Administration shall either issue such written approval or deny the request. If the request is denied, the applicant shall, upon request, be afforded a prompt hearing conducted in accordance with § 108.5 (b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no manufacturer, processor, or packer may introduce or deliver for introduction into interstate commerce without a permit or in violation of a permit a food for which the Commissioner has determined that a permit is required. Where a manufacturer, processor, or packer utilizes a consolidation warehouse or other storage facility under his control, interstate shipment of any such food from the point of production to that warehouse or storage facility shall not violate this paragraph, provided that no further introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce is made from that consolidated warehouse or storage facility except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.19" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.19   Establishment of requirements for exemption from section 404 of the act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Commissioner finds after investigation that the distribution in interstate commerce of any class of food may, by reason of contamination with microorganisms during the manufacture, processing, or packing thereof in any locality, be injurious to health, and that such injurious nature cannot be adequately determined after such articles have entered interstate commerce, he shall promulgate regulations in Subpart B of this part establishing requirements and conditions governing the manufacture, processing, or packing of the food necessary to protect the public health. Such regulations may be proposed by the Commissioner on his own initiative or in response to a petition from any interested person pursuant to part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer, processor, or packer of a food for which a regulation has been promulgated in subpart B of this part shall be exempt from the requirement for a permit only if he meets all of the mandatory requirements and conditions established in that regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14334, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Requirements and Conditions for Exemption From or Compliance With an Emergency Permit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.25" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.25   Acidified foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Inadequate or improper manufacture, processing, or packing of acidified foods may result in the distribution in interstate commerce of processed foods that may be injurious to health. The harmful nature of such foods cannot be adequately determined after these foods have entered into interstate commerce. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs therefore finds that, to protect the public health, it may be necessary to require any commercial processor, in any establishment engaged in the manufacture, processing, or packing of acidified foods, to obtain and hold a temporary emergency permit provided for under section 404 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Such a permit may be required whenever the Commissioner finds, after investigation, that the commercial processor has failed to fulfill all the requirements of this section, including registration and filing of process information, and the mandatory portions of §§ 114.10, 114.80(a) (1) and (2), and (b), 114.83, 114.89, and 114.100 (b), (c), and (d) of this chapter as they relate to acidified foods. These requirements are intended to ensure safe manufacturing, processing, and packing processes and to permit the Food and Drug Administration to verify that these processes are being followed. Failure to meet these requirements shall constitute a prima facie basis for the immediate application of the emergency permit control provisions of section 404 of the act to that establishment, under the procedures established in subpart A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions in § 114.3 of this chapter are applicable when those terms are used in this section.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Registration.</I> A commercial processor, when first engaging in the manufacture, processing, or packing of acidified foods in any State, as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act, shall, not later than 10 days after first so engaging, register and file with the Food and Drug Administration on Form FDA 2541 (food canning establishment registration) information including, but not limited to, the name of the establishment, principal place of business, the location of each establishment in which that processing is carried on, the processing method in terms of acidity and pH control, and a list of foods so processed in each establishment. These forms are available from the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-303), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at any Food and Drug Administration district office. The completed form shall be submitted to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-565), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. These forms also are available on the Food and Drug Administration's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceRegulation/FoodFacilityRegistration/AcidifiedLACFRegistration/ucm2007436.htm.</I> For electronic submission go to FDA's Industry Systems Web site at <I>www.access.fda.gov.</I> Foreign processors shall register before any offering of foods for import into the United States. Commercial processors duly registered under this section shall notify the Food and Drug Administration not later than 90 days after the commercial processor ceases or discontinues the manufacture, processing, or packing of the foods in any establishment, except that this notification shall not be required for temporary cessations due to the seasonal character of an establishment's production or by temporary conditions including, but not limited to, labor disputes, fire, or acts of God.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Process filing.</I> A commercial processor engaged in the processing of acidified foods shall, not later than 60 days after registration, and before packing any new product, provide the Food and Drug Administration information on the scheduled processes including, as necessary, conditions for heat processing and control of pH, salt, sugar, and preservative levels and source and date of the establishment of the process, for each acidified food in each container size. Filing of this information does not constitute approval of the information by the Food and Drug Administration, and information concerning processes and other data so filed shall be regarded as trade secrets within the meaning of 21 U.S.C. 331(j) and 18 U.S.C. 1905. This information shall be submitted on Form FDA 2541e (Food Process Filing for Acidified Method). Forms are available from the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-303), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at any Food and Drug Administration district office. The completed form shall be submitted to the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-618), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. These forms also are available on the Food and Drug Administration's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceRegulation/FoodFacilityRegistration/AcidifiedLACFRegistration/ucm2007436.htm.</I> For electronic submission go to FDA's Industry Systems Web site at <I>www.access.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Process adherence and information</I>—(i) <I>Scheduling.</I> A commercial processor engaged in processing acidified foods in any registered establishment shall process each food in conformity with at least the scheduled processes filed under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Process and pH information availability.</I> When requested by the Food and Drug Administration in writing, a commercial processor engaged in the processing of acidified foods shall provide the Food and Drug Administration with any process and procedure information that the Food and Drug Administration deems necessary to determine the adequacy of the process. Furnishing of this information does not constitute approval by the Food and Drug Administration of the content of the information filed, and the information concerning processes and other data so furnished shall be considered trade secrets within the meaning of 21 U.S.C. 331(j) and 18 U.S.C. 1905 (to the extent that they qualify under those provisions).
</P>
<P>(d) A commercial processor engaged in the processing of acidified foods shall promptly report to the Food and Drug Administration any instance of spoilage, process deviation, or contamination with microorganisms, the nature of which has potential health-endangering significance, where any lot of such food has in whole or in part entered distribution in commerce.
</P>
<P>(e) A commercial processor engaged in the processing of acidified foods shall prepare and maintain files on a current procedure for use for products under the processor's control, which that processor will ask the distributor to follow, including plans for recalling products that may be injurious to health; for identifying, collecting, warehousing, and controlling products; for determining the effectiveness of recalls; for notifying the Food and Drug Administration of any recalls; and for implementing recall programs.
</P>
<P>(f) All plant personnel involved in acidification, pH control, heat treatment, or other critical factors of the operation shall be under the operating supervision of a person who has attended a school approved by the Commissioner for giving instruction in food-handling techniques, food protection principles, personal hygiene, plant sanitation practices, pH controls, and critical factors in acidification, and who has satisfactorily completed the prescribed course of instruction. The Commissioner will consider students who have satisfactorily completed the required portions of the courses presented under § 108.35 and part 113 of this chapter before March 16, 1979, as having satisfactorily completed the prescribed course of instruction under this section and part 114 of this chapter. The Commissioner will not withhold approval of any school qualified to give such instruction.
</P>
<P>(g) A commercial processor engaged in the processing of acidified foods shall prepare, review, and retain at the processing plant or other reasonably accessible location for a period of 3 years from the date of manufacture, all records of processing, deviations in processing, pH, and other records specified in part 114 of this chapter. Upon written demand during the course of a factory inspection under section 704 of the act by a duly authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration, a commercial processor shall permit the inspection and copying by that employee of these records to verify the pH and the adequacy of processing.
</P>
<P>(h) This section shall not apply to the commercial processing of any food processed under the continuous inspection of the meat and poultry inspection program of the Food Safety and Inspection Service of the Department of Agriculture under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (34 Stat. 1256, as amended by 81 Stat. 584 (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>)) and the Poultry Products Inspection Act (71 Stat. 441, as amended by 82 Stat. 791 (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>)).
</P>
<P>(i) Wherever the Commissioner finds that any State regulates the commercial processing of acidified foods under effective regulations specifying at least the requirements of part 114 of this chapter, the Commissioner shall issue a notice stating that compliance with such State regulations shall constitute compliance with this section, if the State through its regulatory agency or each processor of acidified foods in the State files with the Food and Drug Administration the registration information and the processing information prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Imports.</I> (1) This section applies to any foreign commercial processor engaged in the processing of acidified foods and offering those foods for import into the United States except that, in lieu of providing for the issuance of an emergency permit under paragraph (a) of this section, the Commissioner will request the Secretary of the Treasury to refuse admission into the United States, under section 801 of the act, to any acidified foods which the Commissioner determines, after investigation, may result in the distribution in interstate commerce of processed foods that may be injurious to health as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any acidified food so refused admission shall not be admitted until the Commissioner determines that the commercial processor offering the food for import has complied with the requirements of this section and that the food is not injurious to health. To assist the Commissioner in making this determination, a duly authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration shall be permitted to inspect the commercial processor's manufacturing, processing, and packing facilities.
</P>
<P>(k) The following information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration under this section is not available for public disclosure unless it has been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or it relates to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and no longer represents a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control information.
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar information, except that any compilation of the information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16207, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 24891, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14479, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 46831, July 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 108.35" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 108.35   Thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Inadequate or improper manufacture, processing, or packing of thermally processed low-acid foods in hermetically sealed containers may result in the distribution in interstate commerce of processed foods that may be injurious to health. The harmful nature of such foods cannot be adequately determined after these foods have entered into interstate commerce. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs therefore finds that, in order to protect the public health, it may be necessary to require any commercial processor, in any establishment engaged in the manufacture, processing, or packing of thermally processed low-acid foods in hermetically sealed containers, to obtain and hold a temporary emergency permit provided for under section 404 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Such a permit may be required whenever the Commissioner finds, after investigation, that the commercial processor has failed to fulfill all the requirements of this section, including registration and the filing of process information, and the mandatory portions of part 113 of this chapter. These requirements are intended to ensure safe manufacture, processing, and packing procedures and to permit the Food and Drug Administration to verify that these procedures are being followed. Such failure shall constitute a prima facie basis for the immediate application of the emergency permit control provisions of section 404 of the act to that establishment, pursuant to the procedures established in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions in § 113.3 of this chapter are applicable when such terms are used in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Registration and process filing</I>—(1) <I>Registration.</I> A commercial processor when first engaging in the manufacture, processing, or packing of thermally processed low-acid foods in hermetically sealed containers in any State, as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act, shall, not later than 10 days after first so engaging, register with the Food and Drug Administration on Form FDA 2541 (food canning establishment registration) information including (but not limited to) his name, principal place of business, the location of each establishment in which such processing is carried on, the processing method in terms of the type of processing equipment employed, and a list of the low-acid foods so processed in each such establishment. These forms are available from the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-303), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at any Food and Drug Administration district office. The completed form shall be submitted to the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-618), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. These forms also are available on the Food and Drug Administration's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceRegulation/FoodFacilityRegistration/AcidifiedLACFRegistration/default.htm.</I> For electronic submission go to FDA's Industry Systems Web site at <I>www.access.fda.gov.</I> Commercial processors duly registered in accordance with this section shall notify the Food and Drug Administration not later than 90 days after such commercial processor ceases or discontinues the manufacture, processing, or packing of thermally processed foods in any establishment: <I>Provided,</I> that such notification shall not be required as to the temporary cessation necessitated by the seasonal character of the particular establishment's production or caused by temporary conditions including but not limited to strikes, lockouts, fire, or acts of God.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Process filing.</I> A commercial processor engaged in the thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers shall, not later than 60 days after registration and prior to the packing of a new product, provide the Food and Drug Administration information as to the scheduled processes including but not limited to the processing method, type of retort or other thermal processing equipment employed, minimum initial temperatures, times and temperatures of processing, sterilizing value (Fo), or other equivalent scientific evidence of process adequacy, critical control factors affecting heat penetration, and source and date of the establishment of the process, for each such low-acid food in each container size: <I>Provided,</I> that the filing of such information does not constitute approval of the information by the Food and Drug Administration, and that information concerning processes and other data so filed shall be regarded as trade secrets within the meaning of 21 U.S.C. 331(j) and 18 U.S.C. 1905. This information shall be submitted on the following forms as appropriate: Form FDA 2541d (Food Process Filing for Low-Acid Retorted Method), Form FDA 2541f (Food Process Filing for Water Activity/Formulation Control Method), or Form FDA 2541g (Food Process Filing for Low-Acid Aseptic Systems). These forms are available from the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-303), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at any Food and Drug Administration district office. The completed form(s) shall be submitted to the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-303), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. These forms also are available on the Food and Drug Administration's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/Food/GuidanceRegulation/FoodFacilityRegistration/AcidifiedLACFRegistration/default.htm.</I> For electronic submission, go to FDA's Industry Systems Web site at <I>www.access.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) If all the necessary information is not available for existing products, the processor shall, at the time the existing information is provided to the Food and Drug Administration request in writing an extension of time for submission of such information, specifying what additional information is to be supplied and the date by which it is to be submitted. Within 30 working days after receipt of such request the Food and Drug Administration shall either grant or deny such request in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a packer intentionally makes a change in a previously filed scheduled process by reducing the initial temperature or retort temperature, reducing the time of processing, or changing the product formulation, the container, or any other condition basic to the adequacy of scheduled process, he shall prior to using such changed process obtain substantiation by qualified scientific authority as to its adequacy. Such substantiation may be obtained by telephone, telegram, or other media, but must be promptly recorded, verified in writing by the authority, and contained in the packer's files for review by the Food and Drug Administration. Within 30 days after first use, the packer shall submit to the LACF Registration Coordinator (HFS-303), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740 a complete description of the modifications made and utilized, together with a copy of his file record showing prior substantiation by a qualified scientific authority as to the safety of the changed process. Any intentional change of a previously filed scheduled process or modification thereof in which the change consists solely of a higher initial temperature, a higher retort temperature, or a longer processing time, shall not be considered a change subject to this paragraph, but if that modification is thereafter to be regularly scheduled, the modified process shall be promptly filed as a scheduled process, accompanied by full information on the specified forms as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iii) Many packers employ an “operating” process in which retort operators are instructed to use retort temperatures and/or processing times slightly in excess of those specified in the scheduled process as a safety factor to compensate for minor fluctuations in temperature or time to assure that the minimum times and temperatures in the scheduled process are always met. This would not constitute a modification of the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Process adherence and information.</I> (i) A commercial processor engaged in the thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers in any registered establishment shall process each low-acid food in each container size in conformity with at least the scheduled processes and modifications filed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Process information availability: When requested by the Food and Drug Administration in writing, a commercial processor engaged in thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers shall provide the Food and Drug Administration with any information concerning processes and procedures which is deemed necessary by the Food and Drug Administration to determine the adequacy of the process: <I>Provided,</I> That the furnishing of such information does not constitute approval of the information by the Food and Drug Administration, and that the information concerning processes and other data so furnished shall be regarded as trade secrets within the meaning of 21 U.S.C. 331(j) and 18 U.S.C. 1905.
</P>
<P>(d) A commercial processor engaged in the thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers shall promptly report to the Food and Drug Administration any instance of spoilage or process deviation the nature of which indicates potential health significance where any lot of such food has in whole or in part entered distribution.
</P>
<P>(e) A commercial processor engaged in thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers shall promptly report to the Food and Drug Administration any instance wherein any lot of such food, which may be injurious to health by reason of contamination with microorganisms, has in whole or in part entered distribution.
</P>
<P>(f) A commercial processor engaged in the thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers shall have prepared and in his files a current procedure which he will use for products under his control and which he will ask his distributor to follow, including plans for effecting recalls of any product that may be injurious to health; for identifying, collecting, warehousing, and controlling the product; for determining the effectiveness of such recall; for notifying the Food and Drug Administration of any such recall; and for implementing such recall program.
</P>
<P>(g) All operators of retorts, thermal processing systems, aseptic processing and packaging systems, or other thermal processing systems, and container closure inspectors shall be under the operating supervision of a person who has attended a school approved by the Commissioner for giving instruction in retort operations, aseptic processing and packaging systems operations or other thermal processing systems operations, and container closure inspections, and has satisfactorily completed the prescribed course of instruction: <I>Provided,</I> That this requirement shall not apply in the State of California as listed in paragraph (j) of this section. The Commissioner will not withhold approval of any school qualified to give such instruction.
</P>
<P>(h) A commercial processor engaged in the thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers shall prepare, review, and retain at the processing plant for a period of not less than one year, and at the processing plant or other reasonably accessible location for an additional two years, all records of processing, deviations in processing, container closure inspections, and other records specified in part 113 of this chapter. If during the first year of the three-year record retention period the processing plant is closed for a prolonged period between seasonal packs, the records may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location at the end of the seasonal pack. Upon written demand during the course of a factory inspection pursuant to section 704 of the act by a duly authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration, a commercial processor shall permit the inspection and copying by such employee of these records to verify the adequacy of processing, the integrity of container closures, and the coding of the products.
</P>
<P>(i) This section shall not apply to the commercial processing of any food processed under the continuous inspection of the meat and poultry inspection program of the Food Safety and Inspection Service of the Department of Agriculture under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (34 Stat. 1256, as amended by 81 Stat. 584 (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>)) and the Poultry Products Inspection Act (71 Stat. 441, as amended by 82 Stat. 791 (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>)).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Compliance with State regulations.</I> (1) Wherever the Commissioner finds that any State regulates the commercial thermal processing of low-acid foods in accordance with effective regulations specifying at least the requirements of part 113 of this chapter, he shall issue a notice stating that compliance with such State regulations shall constitute compliance with part 113 of this chapter. However, the provisions of this section shall remain applicable to the commercial processing of low-acid foods in any such State, except that, either the State through its regulatory agency or each processor of low-acid foods in such State shall file with the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition the registration information and the processing information prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner finds that the regulations adopted by the State of California under the laws relating to cannery inspections governing thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers satisfy the requirements of part 113 of this chapter.
</P>
<FP>Accordingly, processors, who under the laws relating to cannery inspections are licensed by the State of California and who comply with such state regulations, shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of part 113 of this chapter.
</FP>
<P>(k) <I>Imports.</I> (1) This section shall apply to any foreign commercial processor engaged in the thermal processing of low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers and offering such foods for import into the United States except that, in lieu of providing for the issuance of an emergency permit under paragraph (a) of this section, the Commissioner will request the Secretary of the Treasury to refuse admission into the United States, pursuant to section 801 of the act, of any such low-acid foods which the Commissioner determines, after investigation, may result in the distribution in interstate commerce of processed foods that may be injurious to health as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any such food refused admission shall not be admitted until such time as the Commissioner may determine that the commercial processor offering the food for import is in compliance with the requirements and conditions of this section and that such food is not injurious to health. For the purpose of making such determination, the Commissioner reserves the right for a duly authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration to inspect the commercial processor's manufacturing, processing, and packing facilities.
</P>
<P>(l) The following data and information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to this section are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control information.
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14334, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977; 54 FR 24891, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14480, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 46831, July 19, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="109" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 109—UNAVOIDABLE CONTAMINANTS IN FOOD FOR HUMAN CONSUMPTION AND FOOD-PACKAGING MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 336, 342, 346, 346a, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 52819, Sept. 30, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 109 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 109.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 109.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of terms contained in section 201 of the act are applicable to such terms when used in this part unless modified in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A <I>naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance</I> is a poisonous or deleterious substance that is an inherent natural constituent of a food and is not the result of environmental, agricultural, industrial, or other contamination.
</P>
<P>(d) An <I>added poisonous or deleterious substance</I> is a poisonous or deleterious substance that is not a naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance. When a naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance is increased to abnormal levels through mishandling or other intervening acts, it is an added poisonous or deleterious substance to the extent of such increase.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Food</I> includes human food and substances migrating to food from food-contact articles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 109.4" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 109.4   Establishment of tolerances, regulatory limits, and action levels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When appropriate under the criteria of § 109.6, a tolerance for an added poisonous or deleterious substance, which may be a food additive, may be established by regulation in subpart B of this part under the provisions of section 406 of the act. A tolerance may prohibit any detectable amount of the substance in food.
</P>
<P>(b) When appropriate under the criteria of § 109.6, and under section 402(a)(1) of the act, a regulatory limit for an added poisonous or deleterious substance, which may be a food additive, may be established by regulation in subpart C of this part under the provisions of sections 402(a)(1) and 701(a) of the act. A regulatory limit may prohibit any detectable amount of the substance in food. The regulatory limit established represents the level at which food is adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) When appropriate under the criteria of § 109.6, an action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance, which may be a food additive, may be established to define a level of contamination at which a food may be regarded as adulterated.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever an action level is established or changed, a notice shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as soon as practicable thereafter. The notice shall call attention to the material supporting the action level which shall be on file with the Dockets Management Staff before the notice is published. The notice shall invite public comment on the action level.
</P>
<P>(d) A regulation may be established in subpart D of this part to identify a food containing a naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance which will be deemed to be adulterated under section 402(a)(1) of the act. These regulations do not constitute a complete list of such foods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52819, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 20785, May 21, 1990; 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 109.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 109.6   Added poisonous or deleterious substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Use of an added poisonous or deleterious substance, other than a pesticide chemical, that is also a food additive, will be controlled by a regulation issued under section 409 of the act when possible. When such a use cannot be approved under the criteria of section 409 of the act, or when the added poisonous or deleterious substance is not a food additive, a tolerance, regulatory limit, or action level may be established pursuant to the criteria in paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this section. Residues resulting from the use of an added poisonous or deleterious substance that is also a pesticide chemical will ordinarily be controlled by a tolerance established in a regulation issued under sections 406, 408, or 409 of the act by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). When such a regulation has not been issued, an action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance that is also a pesticide chemical may be established by the Food and Drug Administration. The Food and Drug Administration will request EPA to recommend such an action level pursuant to the criteria established in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A tolerance for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The substance cannot be avoided by good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) The tolerance established is sufficient for the protection of the public health, taking into account the extent to which the presence of the substance cannot be avoided and the other ways in which the consumer may be affected by the same or related poisonous or deleterious substances.
</P>
<P>(3) No technological or other changes are foreseeable in the near future that might affect the appropriateness of the tolerance established. Examples of changes that might affect the appropriateness of the tolerance include anticipated improvements in good manufacturing practice that would change the extent to which use of the substance is unavoidable and anticipated studies expected to provide significant new toxicological or use data.
</P>
<P>(c) A regulatory limit for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established when each of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(1) The substance cannot be avoided by current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(2) There is no tolerance established for the substance in the particular food under sections 406, 408, or 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) There is insufficient information by which a tolerance may be established for the substance under section 406 of the act or technological changes appear reasonably possible that may affect the appropriateness of a tolerance. The regulatory limit established represents the level at which food is adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) An action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established when the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section are met, except that technological or other changes that might affect the appropriateness of the tolerance are foreseeable in the near future. An action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established at a level at which the Food and Drug Administration may regard the food as adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(1) of the act, without regard to the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section or in section 406 of the act. An action level will be withdrawn when a tolerance or regulatory limit for the same substance and use has been established.
</P>
<P>(e) Tolerances will be established under authority appropriate for action levels (sections 306, 402(a), and 701(a) of the act, together with section 408 or 409 of the act, if appropriate) as well as under authority appropriate for tolerances (sections 406 and 701 of the act). In the event the effectiveness of a tolerance is stayed pursuant to section 701(e)(2) of the act by the filing of an objection, the order establishing the tolerance shall be deemed to be an order establishing an action level until final action is taken upon such objection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52819, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 20785, May 21, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 109.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 109.7   Unavoidability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tolerances and action levels in this part are established at levels based on the unavoidability of the poisonous or deleterious substance concerned and do not establish a permissible level of contamination where it is avoidable.
</P>
<P>(b) Compliance with tolerances, regulatory limits, and action levels does not excuse failure to observe either the requirement in section 402(a)(4) of the act that food may not be prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions or the other requirements in this chapter that food manufacturers must observe current good manufacturing practices. Evidence obtained through factory inspection or otherwise indicating such a violation renders the food unlawful, even though the amounts of poisonous or deleterious substances are lower than the currently established tolerances, regulatory limits, or action levels. The manufacturer of food must at all times utilize quality control procedures which will reduce contamination to the lowest level currently feasible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52819, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 20785, May 21, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 109.15" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 109.15   Use of polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) in establishments manufacturing food-packaging materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) represent a class of toxic industrial chemicals manufactured and sold under a variety of trade names, including: Aroclor (United States); Phenoclor (France); Colphen (Germany); and Kanaclor (Japan). PCB's are highly stable, heat resistant, and nonflammable chemicals. Industrial uses of PCB's include, or did include in the past, their use as electrical transformer and capacitor fluids, heat transfer fluids, hydraulic fluids, and plasticizers, and in formulations of lubricants, coatings, and inks. Their unique physical and chemical properties and widespread, uncontrolled industrial applications have caused PCB's to be a persistent and ubiquitous contaminant in the environment, causing the contamination of certain foods. In addition, incidents have occurred in which PCB's have directly contaminated animal feeds as a result of industrial accidents (leakage or spillage of PCB fluids from plant equipment). These accidents in turn caused the contamination of food products intended for human consumption (meat, milk and eggs). Investigations by the Food and Drug Administration have revealed that a significant percentage of paper food-packaging material contains PCB's which can migrate to the packaged food. The origin of PCB's in such material is not fully understood. Reclaimed fibers containing carbonless copy paper (contains 3 to 5 percent PCB's) have been identified as a primary source of PCB's in paper products. Some virgin paper products have also been found to contain PCB's, the source of which is generally attributed to direct contamination from industrial accidents from the use of PCB-containing equipment and machinery in food packaging manufacturing establishments. Since PCB's are toxic chemicals, the PCB contamination of food-packaging materials as a result of industrial accidents, which can cause the PCB contamination of food, represents a hazard to public health. It is therefore necessary to place certain restrictions on the industrial uses of PCB's in establishments manufacturing food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(b) The following special provisions are necessary to preclude the accidental PCB contamination of food-packaging materials:
</P>
<P>(1) New equipment or machinery for manufacturing food-packaging materials shall not contain or use PCB's. 
</P>
<P>(2) On or before September 4, 1973, the management of establishments manufacturing food-packaging materials shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Have the heat exchange fluid used in existing equipment for manufacturing food-packaging materials sampled and tested to determine whether it contains PCB's or verify the absence of PCB's in such formulations by other appropriate means. On or before Sept. 4, 1973, any such fluid formulated with PCB's must to the fullest extent possible commensurate with current good manufacturing practices be replaced with a heat exchange fluid that does not contain PCB's.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eliminate to the fullest extent possible commensurate with current good manufacturing practices from the establishment any other PCB-containing equipment, machinery and materials wherever there is a reasonable expectation that such articles could cause food-packaging materials to become contaminated with PCB's either as a result of normal use or as a result of accident, breakage, or other mishap.
</P>
<P>(iii) The toxicity and other characteristics of fluids selected as PCB replacements must be adequately determined so that the least potentially hazardous replacement is used. In making this determination with respect to a given fluid, consideration should be given to (<I>a</I>) its toxicity; (<I>b</I>) the maximum quantity that could be spilled onto a given quantity of food before it would be noticed, taking into account its color and odor; (<I>c</I>) possible signaling devices in the equipment to indicate a loss of fluid, etc.; and (<I>d</I>) its environmental stability and tendency to survive and be concentrated through the food chain. The judgment as to whether a replacement fluid is sufficiently non-hazardous is to be made on an individual installation and operation basis.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of this section do not apply to electrical transformers and condensers containing PCB's in sealed containers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 109.16" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 109.16   Ornamental and decorative ceramicware.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lead is a toxic metal that is used as a component of glazes and decorative decals on ceramics, including some ornamental and decorative ceramicware. The use of ornamental or decorative ceramicware to prepare, serve, or hold food may result in the leaching of lead from the glaze or decoration into the food. The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section are necessary to ensure that ornamental or decorative ceramicware bear adequate indications that they are not to be used for food-handling purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) Ornamental or decorative ceramicware initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce on or after July 13, 1994 appears to be suitable for food use will be considered to be for food use unless:
</P>
<P>(1) It bears:
</P>
<P>(i) A conspicuous stick-on label on a surface clearly visible to consumers that states in legible script in letters at least 3.2 millimeters (0.125 inch) in height one of the following messages: “Not for Food Use. May Poison Food,” “Not for Food Use. Glaze contains lead. Food Use May Result in Lead Poisoning,” and “Not for Food Use—Food Consumed from this Vessel May be Harmful,” and
</P>
<P>(ii) A conspicuous and legible permanent statement of the message selected from paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section molded or fired onto the exterior surface of the base or, when the ceramicware is not fired after decoration, permanently painted onto the exterior surface of the base. This permanent statement shall be in letters at least 3.2 millimeters (0.125 inch) in height, except that if insufficient space exists for the permanent statement in letters of such height, the statement shall be in the largest letters that will allow it to fit on the base of the piece, provided that the letters are at least 1.6 millimeters (0.062 inch) in height; or
</P>
<P>(2) A hole is bored through the potential food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to steps required under paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section, the following optional information may be provided on the ware:
</P>
<P>(1) A further explanatory statement concerning the decorative nature of the piece, such as “Decorative” or “For Decorative Purposes Only,” may be used; however, such additional statement shall be placed after the required statement.
</P>
<P>(2) A symbol may be used to advise that a piece of ornamental or decorative ceramicware is not to be used with food, as illustrated below.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.368.gif"/>
<FP>The circle of the above symbol should be at least 2.54 centimeters (1 inch) in diameter. The symbol may be used on the temporary label or applied to the base of the piece in the same manner as the permanent statement.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 1641, Jan. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Tolerances for Unavoidable Poisonous or Deleterious Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 109.30" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 109.30   Tolerances for polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) are toxic, industrial chemicals. Because of their widespread, uncontrolled industrial applications, PCB's have become a persistent and ubiquitous contaminant in the environment. As a result, certain foods and animal feeds, principally those of animal and marine origin, contain PCB's as unavoidable, environmental contaminants. PCB's are transmitted to the food portion (meat, milk, and eggs) of food-producing animals ingesting PCB-contaminated animal feed. In addition, a significant percentage of paper food-packaging materials contain PCB's which may migrate to the packaged food. The source of PCB's in paper food-packaging materials is primarily of certain types of carbonless copy paper (containing 3 to 5 percent PCB's) in waste paper stocks used for manufacturing recycled paper. Therefore, temporary tolerances for residues of PCB's as unavoidable environmental or industrial contaminants are established for a sufficient period of time following the effective date of this paragraph to permit the elimination of such contaminants at the earliest practicable time. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term “polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's)” is applicable to mixtures of chlorinated biphenyl compounds, irrespective of which mixture of PCB's is present as the residue. The temporary tolerances for residues of PCB's are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) 1.5 parts per million in milk (fat basis).
</P>
<P>(2) 1.5 parts per million in manufactured dairy products (fat basis).
</P>
<P>(3) 3 parts per million in poultry (fat basis).
</P>
<P>(4) 0.3 parts per million in eggs.
</P>
<P>(5) 0.2 parts per million in finished animal feed for food-producing animals (except the following finished animal feeds: feed concentrates, feed supplements, and feed premixes).
</P>
<P>(6) 2 parts per million in animal feed components of animal origin, including fishmeal and other by-products of marine origin and in finished animal feed concentrates, supplements, and premixes intended for food producing animals.
</P>
<P>(7) 2 parts per million in fish and shellfish (edible portion). The edible portion of fish excludes head, scales, viscera, and inedible bones.
</P>
<P>(8) 0.2 parts per million in infant and junior foods.
</P>
<P>(9) 10 parts per million in paper food-packaging material intended for or used with human food, finished animal feed and any components intended for animal feeds. The tolerance shall not apply to paper food-packaging material separated from the food therein by a functional barrier which is impermeable to migration of PCB's.
</P>
<P>(b) A compilation entitled “Analytical Methodology for Polychlorinated Biphenyls, June 1979” for determining compliance with the tolerances established in this section is available from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(c) A barrier is functional for purposes of paragraph (a)(9) of this section if the barrier limits migration of PCB's from the packaging material to food to a level not exceeding the migration which occurs under the same test conditions from packaging material containing 10 parts per million PCB without the use of a barrier. A class of barrier material is functional for purposes of paragraph (a)(9) of this section if a representative barrier of the class limits migration of PCB's from the packaging material to food to a level not exceeding the migration which occurs under the same test conditions from packaging material containing 10 parts per million PCB without the use of a barrier. Migration levels shall be determined for purpose of this paragraph solely by use of testing conditions described in “Test Procedures for Determination of PCB Permeability of Food Packaging, Inner-Wraps, September 1976, revised May 1983”, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> A class of barrier material shall be deemed functional only if the definition of the class and the designation of one or more representative barriers has been approved by the Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration. In the event that the Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, does not approve a proposal made to the Center regarding the definition of a class of barrier material or the designation of representative barriers, the Director shall advise the person making the proposal of the reasons for the Center's disapproval within 90 days of receipt of the proposal. All proposals for definition of classes and determinations of the Food and Drug Administration regarding such proposals shall be on file with the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who asserts that a barrier or class of barriers is functional shall submit the results of tests conducted to determine the functionality of the barrier or class of barriers to Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-308), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. All barriers or classes of barriers shall be tested with the four solid food receptors specified in “Test Procedures for Determination of PCB Permeability of Food Packaging, Inner-Wraps, September 1976, revised May 1983”, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this reference is given in paragraph (c) of this section. The test results as to each barrier shall be accompanied by (1) a description of the barrier's composition adequate to enable identification; and (2) a specific definition of the barrier by relevant technical characteristics. The Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition shall review submitted test results promptly. Within 60 days of the receipt of test results, the Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, shall notify the person submitting the test results whether the tests were conducted in accordance with the “Analytical Methodology for Polychlorinated Biphenyls; June 1979”, which is incorporated by reference, or the “Test Procedures for Determination of PCB Permeability of Food Packaging, Inner-Wraps, September 1976, revised May 1983” and whether, therefore, the barrier or class of barriers is deemed functional within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section. The test results and any response of the Food and Drug Administration shall be placed on file with the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52819, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 38340, June 29, 1979; 46 FR 8459, Jan. 27, 1981; 48 FR 10811, Mar. 15, 1983; 48 FR 37021, Aug. 16, 1983; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 61 FR 14480, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 38 FR 22794, Aug. 24, 1973, the following appeared concerning § 109.30(a)(9) (formerly 122.10(a)(9)):
</PSPACE>
<FP>* * * § 109.30(a)(9) is hereby stayed pending full review of the objections and requests for hearing. * * *
</FP><PSPACE>In the interim, as stated in the final order (38 FR 18098) the Food and Drug Administration will enforce the temporary tolerance level established by § 109.30(a)(9) by seizing any paper food-packaging material shipped in interstate commerce after September 4, 1973 containing higher than the specified level of PCB's as adulterated in violation of sec. 402 of the act.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Regulatory Limits for Added Poisonous or Deleterious Substances [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Naturally Occurring Poisonous or Deleterious Substances [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 110—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE IN MANUFACTURING, PACKING, OR HOLDING HUMAN FOOD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 22475, June 19, 1986, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 110 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) are applicable to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions shall also apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acid foods or acidified foods</I> means foods that have an equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adequate</I> means that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose in keeping with good public health practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Batter</I> means a semifluid substance, usually composed of flour and other ingredients, into which principal components of food are dipped or with which they are coated, or which may be used directly to form bakery foods.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Blanching,</I> except for tree nuts and peanuts, means a prepackaging heat treatment of foodstuffs for a sufficient time and at a sufficient temperature to partially or completely inactivate the naturally occurring enzymes and to effect other physical or biochemical changes in the food.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Critical control point</I> means a point in a food process where there is a high probability that improper control may cause, allow, or contribute to a hazard or to filth in the final food or decomposition of the final food.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Food</I> means food as defined in section 201(f) of the act and includes raw materials and ingredients.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Food-contact surfaces</I> are those surfaces that contact human food and those surfaces from which drainage onto the food or onto surfaces that contact the food ordinarily occurs during the normal course of operations. “Food-contact surfaces” includes utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Lot</I> means the food produced during a period of time indicated by a specific code.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Microorganisms</I> means yeasts, molds, bacteria, and viruses and includes, but is not limited to, species having public health significance. The term “undesirable microorganisms” includes those microorganisms that are of public health significance, that subject food to decomposition, that indicate that food is contaminated with filth, or that otherwise may cause food to be adulterated within the meaning of the act. Occasionally in these regulations, FDA used the adjective “microbial” instead of using an adjectival phrase containing the word microorganism. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Pest</I> refers to any objectionable animals or insects including, but not limited to, birds, rodents, flies, and larvae.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Plant</I> means the building or facility or parts thereof, used for or in connection with the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, or holding of human food.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Quality control operation</I> means a planned and systematic procedure for taking all actions necessary to prevent food from being adulterated within the meaning of the act.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Rework</I> means clean, unadulterated food that has been removed from processing for reasons other than insanitary conditions or that has been successfully reconditioned by reprocessing and that is suitable for use as food.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Safe-moisture level</I> is a level of moisture low enough to prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms in the finished product under the intended conditions of manufacturing, storage, and distribution. The maximum safe moisture level for a food is based on its water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>). An a<E T="52">w</E> will be considered safe for a food if adequate data are available that demonstrate that the food at or below the given a<E T="52">w</E> will not support the growth of undesirable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Sanitize</I> means to adequately treat food-contact surfaces by a process that is effective in destroying vegetative cells of microorganisms of public health significance, and in substantially reducing numbers of other undesirable microorganisms, but without adversely affecting the product or its safety for the consumer.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Shall</I> is used to state mandatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Should</I> is used to state recommended or advisory procedures or identify recommended equipment.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Water activity</I> (a<E T="52">w</E>) is a measure of the free moisture in a food and is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.5   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria and definitions in this part shall apply in determining whether a food is adulterated (1) within the meaning of section 402(a)(3) of the act in that the food has been manufactured under such conditions that it is unfit for food; or (2) within the meaning of section 402(a)(4) of the act in that the food has been prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions whereby it may have become contaminated with filth, or whereby it may have been rendered injurious to health. The criteria and definitions in this part also apply in determining whether a food is in violation of section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 264).
</P>
<P>(b) Food covered by specific current good manufacturing practice regulations also is subject to the requirements of those regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.10   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The plant management shall take all reasonable measures and precautions to ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Disease control.</I> Any person who, by medical examination or supervisory observation, is shown to have, or appears to have, an illness, open lesion, including boils, sores, or infected wounds, or any other abnormal source of microbial contamination by which there is a reasonable possibility of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials becoming contaminated, shall be excluded from any operations which may be expected to result in such contamination until the condition is corrected. Personnel shall be instructed to report such health conditions to their supervisors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cleanliness.</I> All persons working in direct contact with food, food-contact surfaces, and food-packaging materials shall conform to hygienic practices while on duty to the extent necessary to protect against contamination of food. The methods for maintaining cleanliness include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Wearing outer garments suitable to the operation in a manner that protects against the contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining adequate personal cleanliness.
</P>
<P>(3) Washing hands thoroughly (and sanitizing if necessary to protect against contamination with undesirable microorganisms) in an adequate hand-washing facility before starting work, after each absence from the work station, and at any other time when the hands may have become soiled or contaminated.
</P>
<P>(4) Removing all unsecured jewelry and other objects that might fall into food, equipment, or containers, and removing hand jewelry that cannot be adequately sanitized during periods in which food is manipulated by hand. If such hand jewelry cannot be removed, it may be covered by material which can be maintained in an intact, clean, and sanitary condition and which effectively protects against the contamination by these objects of the food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(5) Maintaining gloves, if they are used in food handling, in an intact, clean, and sanitary condition. The gloves should be of an impermeable material.
</P>
<P>(6) Wearing, where appropriate, in an effective manner, hair nets, headbands, caps, beard covers, or other effective hair restraints.
</P>
<P>(7) Storing clothing or other personal belongings in areas other than where food is exposed or where equipment or utensils are washed.
</P>
<P>(8) Confining the following to areas other than where food may be exposed or where equipment or utensils are washed: eating food, chewing gum, drinking beverages, or using tobacco.
</P>
<P>(9) Taking any other necessary precautions to protect against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials with microorganisms or foreign substances including, but not limited to, perspiration, hair, cosmetics, tobacco, chemicals, and medicines applied to the skin.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Education and training.</I> Personnel responsible for identifying sanitation failures or food contamination should have a background of education or experience, or a combination thereof, to provide a level of competency necessary for production of clean and safe food. Food handlers and supervisors should receive appropriate training in proper food handling techniques and food-protection principles and should be informed of the danger of poor personal hygiene and insanitary practices.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supervision.</I> Responsibility for assuring compliance by all personnel with all requirements of this part shall be clearly assigned to competent supervisory personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22475, June 19, 1986, as amended at 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.19" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.19   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following operations are not subject to this part: Establishments engaged solely in the harvesting, storage, or distribution of one or more “raw agricultural commodities,” as defined in section 201(r) of the act, which are ordinarily cleaned, prepared, treated, or otherwise processed before being marketed to the consuming public.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA, however, will issue special regulations if it is necessary to cover these excluded operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Buildings and Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.20   Plant and grounds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds.</I> The grounds about a food plant under the control of the operator shall be kept in a condition that will protect against the contamination of food. The methods for adequate maintenance of grounds include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Properly storing equipment, removing litter and waste, and cutting weeds or grass within the immediate vicinity of the plant buildings or structures that may constitute an attractant, breeding place, or harborage for pests.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining roads, yards, and parking lots so that they do not constitute a source of contamination in areas where food is exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequately draining areas that may contribute contamination to food by seepage, foot-borne filth, or providing a breeding place for pests.
</P>
<P>(4) Operating systems for waste treatment and disposal in an adequate manner so that they do not constitute a source of contamination in areas where food is exposed.
</P>
<FP>If the plant grounds are bordered by grounds not under the operator's control and not maintained in the manner described in paragraph (a) (1) through (3) of this section, care shall be exercised in the plant by inspection, extermination, or other means to exclude pests, dirt, and filth that may be a source of food contamination.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Plant construction and design.</I> Plant buildings and structures shall be suitable in size, construction, and design to facilitate maintenance and sanitary operations for food-manufacturing purposes. The plant and facilities shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide sufficient space for such placement of equipment and storage of materials as is necessary for the maintenance of sanitary operations and the production of safe food.
</P>
<P>(2) Permit the taking of proper precautions to reduce the potential for contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials with microorganisms, chemicals, filth, or other extraneous material. The potential for contamination may be reduced by adequate food safety controls and operating practices or effective design, including the separation of operations in which contamination is likely to occur, by one or more of the following means: location, time, partition, air flow, enclosed systems, or other effective means.
</P>
<P>(3) Permit the taking of proper precautions to protect food in outdoor bulk fermentation vessels by any effective means, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Using protective coverings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Controlling areas over and around the vessels to eliminate harborages for pests.
</P>
<P>(iii) Checking on a regular basis for pests and pest infestation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Skimming the fermentation vessels, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) Be constructed in such a manner that floors, walls, and ceilings may be adequately cleaned and kept clean and kept in good repair; that drip or condensate from fixtures, ducts and pipes does not contaminate food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials; and that aisles or working spaces are provided between equipment and walls and are adequately unobstructed and of adequate width to permit employees to perform their duties and to protect against contaminating food or food-contact surfaces with clothing or personal contact.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide adequate lighting in hand-washing areas, dressing and locker rooms, and toilet rooms and in all areas where food is examined, processed, or stored and where equipment or utensils are cleaned; and provide safety-type light bulbs, fixtures, skylights, or other glass suspended over exposed food in any step of preparation or otherwise protect against food contamination in case of glass breakage.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide adequate ventilation or control equipment to minimize odors and vapors (including steam and noxious fumes) in areas where they may contaminate food; and locate and operate fans and other air-blowing equipment in a manner that minimizes the potential for contaminating food, food-packaging materials, and food-contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(7) Provide, where necessary, adequate screening or other protection against pests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.35" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.35   Sanitary operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General maintenance.</I> Buildings, fixtures, and other physical facilities of the plant shall be maintained in a sanitary condition and shall be kept in repair sufficient to prevent food from becoming adulterated within the meaning of the act. Cleaning and sanitizing of utensils and equipment shall be conducted in a manner that protects against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substances used in cleaning and sanitizing; storage of toxic materials.</I> (1) Cleaning compounds and sanitizing agents used in cleaning and sanitizing procedures shall be free from undesirable microorganisms and shall be safe and adequate under the conditions of use. Compliance with this requirement may be verified by any effective means including purchase of these substances under a supplier's guarantee or certification, or examination of these substances for contamination. Only the following toxic materials may be used or stored in a plant where food is processed or exposed:
</P>
<P>(i) Those required to maintain clean and sanitary conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Those necessary for use in laboratory testing procedures; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Those necessary for plant and equipment maintenance and operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Those necessary for use in the plant's operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Toxic cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, and pesticide chemicals shall be identified, held, and stored in a manner that protects against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials. All relevant regulations promulgated by other Federal, State, and local government agencies for the application, use, or holding of these products should be followed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pest control.</I> No pests shall be allowed in any area of a food plant. Guard or guide dogs may be allowed in some areas of a plant if the presence of the dogs is unlikely to result in contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials. Effective measures shall be taken to exclude pests from the processing areas and to protect against the contamination of food on the premises by pests. The use of insecticides or rodenticides is permitted only under precautions and restrictions that will protect against the contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, and food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanitation of food-contact surfaces.</I> All food-contact surfaces, including utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment, shall be cleaned as frequently as necessary to protect against contamination of food.
</P>
<P>(1) Food-contact surfaces used for manufacturing or holding low-moisture food shall be in a dry, sanitary condition at the time of use. When the surfaces are wet-cleaned, they shall, when necessary, be sanitized and thoroughly dried before subsequent use.
</P>
<P>(2) In wet processing, when cleaning is necessary to protect against the introduction of microorganisms into food, all food-contact surfaces shall be cleaned and sanitized before use and after any interruption during which the food-contact surfaces may have become contaminated. Where equipment and utensils are used in a continuous production operation, the utensils and food-contact surfaces of the equipment shall be cleaned and sanitized as necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-food-contact surfaces of equipment used in the operation of food plants should be cleaned as frequently as necessary to protect against contamination of food.
</P>
<P>(4) Single-service articles (such as utensils intended for one-time use, paper cups, and paper towels) should be stored in appropriate containers and shall be handled, dispensed, used, and disposed of in a manner that protects against contamination of food or food-contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(5) Sanitizing agents shall be adequate and safe under conditions of use. Any facility, procedure, or machine is acceptable for cleaning and sanitizing equipment and utensils if it is established that the facility, procedure, or machine will routinely render equipment and utensils clean and provide adequate cleaning and sanitizing treatment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Storage and handling of cleaned portable equipment and utensils.</I> Cleaned and sanitized portable equipment with food-contact surfaces and utensils should be stored in a location and manner that protects food-contact surfaces from contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22475, June 19, 1986, as amended at 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.37" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.37   Sanitary facilities and controls.</HEAD>
<P>Each plant shall be equipped with adequate sanitary facilities and accommodations including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Water supply.</I> The water supply shall be sufficient for the operations intended and shall be derived from an adequate source. Any water that contacts food or food-contact surfaces shall be safe and of adequate sanitary quality. Running water at a suitable temperature, and under pressure as needed, shall be provided in all areas where required for the processing of food, for the cleaning of equipment, utensils, and food-packaging materials, or for employee sanitary facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plumbing.</I> Plumbing shall be of adequate size and design and adequately installed and maintained to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry sufficient quantities of water to required locations throughout the plant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Properly convey sewage and liquid disposable waste from the plant.
</P>
<P>(3) Avoid constituting a source of contamination to food, water supplies, equipment, or utensils or creating an unsanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide adequate floor drainage in all areas where floors are subject to flooding-type cleaning or where normal operations release or discharge water or other liquid waste on the floor.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide that there is not backflow from, or cross-connection between, piping systems that discharge waste water or sewage and piping systems that carry water for food or food manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sewage disposal.</I> Sewage disposal shall be made into an adequate sewerage system or disposed of through other adequate means.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Toilet facilities.</I> Each plant shall provide its employees with adequate, readily accessible toilet facilities. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintaining the facilities in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Keeping the facilities in good repair at all times.
</P>
<P>(3) Providing self-closing doors.
</P>
<P>(4) Providing doors that do not open into areas where food is exposed to airborne contamination, except where alternate means have been taken to protect against such contamination (such as double doors or positive air-flow systems).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hand-washing facilities.</I> Hand-washing facilities shall be adequate and convenient and be furnished with running water at a suitable temperature. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by providing:
</P>
<P>(1) Hand-washing and, where appropriate, hand-sanitizing facilities at each location in the plant where good sanitary practices require employees to wash and/or sanitize their hands.
</P>
<P>(2) Effective hand-cleaning and sanitizing preparations.
</P>
<P>(3) Sanitary towel service or suitable drying devices.
</P>
<P>(4) Devices or fixtures, such as water control valves, so designed and constructed to protect against recontamination of clean, sanitized hands.
</P>
<P>(5) Readily understandable signs directing employees handling unprotected food, unprotected food-packaging materials, of food-contact surfaces to wash and, where appropriate, sanitize their hands before they start work, after each absence from post of duty, and when their hands may have become soiled or contaminated. These signs may be posted in the processing room(s) and in all other areas where employees may handle such food, materials, or surfaces.
</P>
<P>(6) Refuse receptacles that are constructed and maintained in a manner that protects against contamination of food.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rubbish and offal disposal.</I> Rubbish and any offal shall be so conveyed, stored, and disposed of as to minimize the development of odor, minimize the potential for the waste becoming an attractant and harborage or breeding place for pests, and protect against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, water supplies, and ground surfaces.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.40" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.40   Equipment and utensils.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All plant equipment and utensils shall be so designed and of such material and workmanship as to be adequately cleanable, and shall be properly maintained. The design, construction, and use of equipment and utensils shall preclude the adulteration of food with lubricants, fuel, metal fragments, contaminated water, or any other contaminants. All equipment should be so installed and maintained as to facilitate the cleaning of the equipment and of all adjacent spaces. Food-contact surfaces shall be corrosion-resistant when in contact with food. They shall be made of nontoxic materials and designed to withstand the environment of their intended use and the action of food, and, if applicable, cleaning compounds and sanitizing agents. Food-contact surfaces shall be maintained to protect food from being contaminated by any source, including unlawful indirect food additives.
</P>
<P>(b) Seams on food-contact surfaces shall be smoothly bonded or maintained so as to minimize accumulation of food particles, dirt, and organic matter and thus minimize the opportunity for growth of microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(c) Equipment that is in the manufacturing or food-handling area and that does not come into contact with food shall be so constructed that it can be kept in a clean condition.
</P>
<P>(d) Holding, conveying, and manufacturing systems, including gravimetric, pneumatic, closed, and automated systems, shall be of a design and construction that enables them to be maintained in an appropriate sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(e) Each freezer and cold storage compartment used to store and hold food capable of supporting growth of microorganisms shall be fitted with an indicating thermometer, temperature-measuring device, or temperature-recording device so installed as to show the temperature accurately within the compartment, and should be fitted with an automatic control for regulating temperature or with an automatic alarm system to indicate a significant temperature change in a manual operation.
</P>
<P>(f) Instruments and controls used for measuring, regulating, or recording temperatures, pH, acidity, water activity, or other conditions that control or prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms in food shall be accurate and adequately maintained, and adequate in number for their designated uses.
</P>
<P>(g) Compressed air or other gases mechanically introduced into food or used to clean food-contact surfaces or equipment shall be treated in such a way that food is not contaminated with unlawful indirect food additives.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.80" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.80   Processes and controls.</HEAD>
<P>All operations in the receiving, inspecting, transporting, segregating, preparing, manufacturing, packaging, and storing of food shall be conducted in accordance with adequate sanitation principles. Appropriate quality control operations shall be employed to ensure that food is suitable for human consumption and that food-packaging materials are safe and suitable. Overall sanitation of the plant shall be under the supervision of one or more competent individuals assigned responsibility for this function. All reasonable precautions shall be taken to ensure that production procedures do not contribute contamination from any source. Chemical, microbial, or extraneous-material testing procedures shall be used where necessary to identify sanitation failures or possible food contamination. All food that has become contaminated to the extent that it is adulterated within the meaning of the act shall be rejected, or if permissible, treated or processed to eliminate the contamination.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Raw materials and other ingredients.</I> (1) Raw materials and other ingredients shall be inspected and segregated or otherwise handled as necessary to ascertain that they are clean and suitable for processing into food and shall be stored under conditions that will protect against contamination and minimize deterioration. Raw materials shall be washed or cleaned as necessary to remove soil or other contamination. Water used for washing, rinsing, or conveying food shall be safe and of adequate sanitary quality. Water may be reused for washing, rinsing, or conveying food if it does not increase the level of contamination of the food. Containers and carriers of raw materials should be inspected on receipt to ensure that their condition has not contributed to the contamination or deterioration of food.
</P>
<P>(2) Raw materials and other ingredients shall either not contain levels of microorganisms that may produce food poisoning or other disease in humans, or they shall be pasteurized or otherwise treated during manufacturing operations so that they no longer contain levels that would cause the product to be adulterated within the meaning of the act. Compliance with this requirement may be verified by any effective means, including purchasing raw materials and other ingredients under a supplier's guarantee or certification.
</P>
<P>(3) Raw materials and other ingredients susceptible to contamination with aflatoxin or other natural toxins shall comply with current Food and Drug Administration regulations and action levels for poisonous or deleterious substances before these materials or ingredients are incorporated into finished food. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by purchasing raw materials and other ingredients under a supplier's guarantee or certification, or may be verified by analyzing these materials and ingredients for aflatoxins and other natural toxins.
</P>
<P>(4) Raw materials, other ingredients, and rework susceptible to contamination with pests, undesirable microorganisms, or extraneous material shall comply with applicable Food and Drug Administration regulations and defect action levels for natural or unavoidable defects if a manufacturer wishes to use the materials in manufacturing food. Compliance with this requirement may be verified by any effective means, including purchasing the materials under a supplier's guarantee or certification, or examination of these materials for contamination.
</P>
<P>(5) Raw materials, other ingredients, and rework shall be held in bulk, or in containers designed and constructed so as to protect against contamination and shall be held at such temperature and relative humidity and in such a manner as to prevent the food from becoming adulterated within the meaning of the act. Material scheduled for rework shall be identified as such.
</P>
<P>(6) Frozen raw materials and other ingredients shall be kept frozen. If thawing is required prior to use, it shall be done in a manner that prevents the raw materials and other ingredients from becoming adulterated within the meaning of the act.
</P>
<P>(7) Liquid or dry raw materials and other ingredients received and stored in bulk form shall be held in a manner that protects against contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manufacturing operations.</I> (1) Equipment and utensils and finished food containers shall be maintained in an acceptable condition through appropriate cleaning and sanitizing, as necessary. Insofar as necessary, equipment shall be taken apart for thorough cleaning.
</P>
<P>(2) All food manufacturing, including packaging and storage, shall be conducted under such conditions and controls as are necessary to minimize the potential for the growth of microorganisms, or for the contamination of food. One way to comply with this requirement is careful monitoring of physical factors such as time, temperature, humidity, a<E T="52">w</E>, pH, pressure, flow rate, and manufacturing operations such as freezing, dehydration, heat processing, acidification, and refrigeration to ensure that mechanical breakdowns, time delays, temperature fluctuations, and other factors do not contribute to the decomposition or contamination of food.
</P>
<P>(3) Food that can support the rapid growth of undesirable microorganisms, particularly those of public health significance, shall be held in a manner that prevents the food from becoming adulterated within the meaning of the act. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by any effective means, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintaining refrigerated foods at 45 °F (7.2 °C) or below as appropriate for the particular food involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining frozen foods in a frozen state.
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintaining hot foods at 140 °F (60 °C) or above.
</P>
<P>(iv) Heat treating acid or acidified foods to destroy mesophilic microorganisms when those foods are to be held in hermetically sealed containers at ambient temperatures.
</P>
<P>(4) Measures such as sterilizing, irradiating, pasteurizing, freezing, refrigerating, controlling pH or controlling a<E T="52">w</E> that are taken to destroy or prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms, particularly those of public health significance, shall be adequate under the conditions of manufacture, handling, and distribution to prevent food from being adulterated within the meaning of the act.
</P>
<P>(5) Work-in-process shall be handled in a manner that protects against contamination.
</P>
<P>(6) Effective measures shall be taken to protect finished food from contamination by raw materials, other ingredients, or refuse. When raw materials, other ingredients, or refuse are unprotected, they shall not be handled simultaneously in a receiving, loading, or shipping area if that handling could result in contaminated food. Food transported by conveyor shall be protected against contamination as necessary.
</P>
<P>(7) Equipment, containers, and utensils used to convey, hold, or store raw materials, work-in-process, rework, or food shall be constructed, handled, and maintained during manufacturing or storage in a manner that protects against contamination.
</P>
<P>(8) Effective measures shall be taken to protect against the inclusion of metal or other extraneous material in food. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by using sieves, traps, magnets, electronic metal detectors, or other suitable effective means.
</P>
<P>(9) Food, raw materials, and other ingredients that are adulterated within the meaning of the act shall be disposed of in a manner that protects against the contamination of other food. If the adulterated food is capable of being reconditioned, it shall be reconditioned using a method that has been proven to be effective or it shall be reexamined and found not to be adulterated within the meaning of the act before being incorporated into other food.
</P>
<P>(10) Mechanical manufacturing steps such as washing, peeling, trimming, cutting, sorting and inspecting, mashing, dewatering, cooling, shredding, extruding, drying, whipping, defatting, and forming shall be performed so as to protect food against contamination. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by providing adequate physical protection of food from contaminants that may drip, drain, or be drawn into the food. Protection may be provided by adequate cleaning and sanitizing of all food-contact surfaces, and by using time and temperature controls at and between each manufacturing step.
</P>
<P>(11) Heat blanching, when required in the preparation of food, should be effected by heating the food to the required temperature, holding it at this temperature for the required time, and then either rapidly cooling the food or passing it to subsequent manufacturing without delay. Thermophilic growth and contamination in blanchers should be minimized by the use of adequate operating temperatures and by periodic cleaning. Where the blanched food is washed prior to filling, water used shall be safe and of adequate sanitary quality.
</P>
<P>(12) Batters, breading, sauces, gravies, dressings, and other similar preparations shall be treated or maintained in such a manner that they are protected against contamination. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by any effective means, including one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Using ingredients free of contamination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employing adequate heat processes where applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Using adequate time and temperature controls.
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing adequate physical protection of components from contaminants that may drip, drain, or be drawn into them.
</P>
<P>(v) Cooling to an adequate temperature during manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(vi) Disposing of batters at appropriate intervals to protect against the growth of microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(13) Filling, assembling, packaging, and other operations shall be performed in such a way that the food is protected against contamination. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by any effective means, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Use of a quality control operation in which the critical control points are identified and controlled during manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate cleaning and sanitizing of all food-contact surfaces and food containers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Using materials for food containers and food- packaging materials that are safe and suitable, as defined in § 130.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing physical protection from contamination, particularly airborne contamination.
</P>
<P>(v) Using sanitary handling procedures.
</P>
<P>(14) Food such as, but not limited to, dry mixes, nuts, intermediate moisture food, and dehydrated food, that relies on the control of a<E T="52">w</E> for preventing the growth of undesirable microorganisms shall be processed to and maintained at a safe moisture level. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by any effective means, including employment of one or more of the following practices:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring the a<E T="52">w</E> of food.
</P>
<P>(ii) Controlling the soluble solids-water ratio in finished food.
</P>
<P>(iii) Protecting finished food from moisture pickup, by use of a moisture barrier or by other means, so that the a<E T="52">w</E> of the food does not increase to an unsafe level.
</P>
<P>(15) Food such as, but not limited to, acid and acidified food, that relies principally on the control of pH for preventing the growth of undesirable microorganisms shall be monitored and maintained at a pH of 4.6 or below. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by any effective means, including employment of one or more of the following practices:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring the pH of raw materials, food in process, and finished food.
</P>
<P>(ii) Controlling the amount of acid or acidified food added to low-acid food.
</P>
<P>(16) When ice is used in contact with food, it shall be made from water that is safe and of adequate sanitary quality, and shall be used only if it has been manufactured in accordance with current good manufacturing practice as outlined in this part.
</P>
<P>(17) Food-manufacturing areas and equipment used for manufacturing human food should not be used to manufacture nonhuman food-grade animal feed or inedible products, unless there is no reasonable possibility for the contamination of the human food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22475, June 19, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.93" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.93   Warehousing and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>Storage and transportation of finished food shall be under conditions that will protect food against physical, chemical, and microbial contamination as well as against deterioration of the food and the container.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Defect Action Levels</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.10.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.110   Natural or unavoidable defects in food for human use that present no health hazard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Some foods, even when produced under current good manufacturing practice, contain natural or unavoidable defects that at low levels are not hazardous to health. The Food and Drug Administration establishes maximum levels for these defects in foods produced under current good manufacturing practice and uses these levels in deciding whether to recommend regulatory action.
</P>
<P>(b) Defect action levels are established for foods whenever it is necessary and feasible to do so. These levels are subject to change upon the development of new technology or the availability of new information.
</P>
<P>(c) Compliance with defect action levels does not excuse violation of the requirement in section 402(a)(4) of the act that food not be prepared, packed, or held under unsanitary conditions or the requirements in this part that food manufacturers, distributors, and holders shall observe current good manufacturing practice. Evidence indicating that such a violation exists causes the food to be adulterated within the meaning of the act, even though the amounts of natural or unavoidable defects are lower than the currently established defect action levels. The manufacturer, distributor, and holder of food shall at all times utilize quality control operations that reduce natural or unavoidable defects to the lowest level currently feasible.
</P>
<P>(d) The mixing of a food containing defects above the current defect action level with another lot of food is not permitted and renders the final food adulterated within the meaning of the act, regardless of the defect level of the final food.
</P>
<P>(e) A compilation of the current defect action levels for natural or unavoidable defects in food for human use that present no health hazard may be obtained upon request from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-565), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22475, June 19, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 14480, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="111" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 111—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE IN MANUFACTURING, PACKAGING, LABELING, OR HOLDING OPERATIONS FOR DIETARY SUPPLEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 371, 374, 381, 393; 42 U.S.C. 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 34942, June 25, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.1   Who is subject to this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, you are subject to this part if you manufacture, package, label, or hold a dietary supplement, including:
</P>
<P>(1) A dietary supplement you manufacture but that is packaged or labeled by another person; and
</P>
<P>(2) A dietary supplement imported or offered for import in any State or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements pertaining to holding dietary supplements do not apply to you if you are holding those dietary supplements at a retail establishment for the sole purpose of direct retail sale to individual consumers. A retail establishment does not include a warehouse or other storage facility for a retailer or a warehouse or other storage facility that sells directly to individual consumers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.3   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) apply to such terms when used in this part. For the purpose of this part, the following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Actual yield</I> means the quantity that is actually produced at any appropriate step of manufacture or packaging of a particular dietary supplement.
</P>
<P><I>Batch</I> means a specific quantity of a dietary supplement that is uniform, that is intended to meet specifications for identity, purity, strength, and composition, and that is produced during a specified time period according to a single manufacturing record during the same cycle of manufacture.
</P>
<P><I>Batch number, lot number, or control number</I> means any distinctive group of letters, numbers, or symbols, or any combination of them, from which the complete history of the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, and/or holding of a batch or lot of dietary supplements can be determined.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> means any substance intended for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement, including those that may not appear in the finished batch of the dietary supplement. Component includes dietary ingredients (as described in section 201(ff) of the act) and other ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Contact surface</I> means any surface that contacts a component or dietary supplement, and those surfaces from which drainage onto the component or dietary supplement, or onto surfaces that contact the component or dietary supplement, occurs during the normal course of operations. Examples of contact surfaces include containers, utensils, tables, contact surfaces of equipment, and packaging.
</P>
<P><I>Ingredient</I> means any substance that is used in the manufacture of a dietary supplement and that is intended to be present in the finished batch of the dietary supplement. An ingredient includes, but is not necessarily limited to, a dietary ingredient as defined in section 201(ff) of the act.
</P>
<P><I>In-process material</I> means any material that is fabricated, compounded, blended, ground, extracted, sifted, sterilized, derived by chemical reaction, or processed in any other way for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means a batch, or a specific identified portion of a batch, that is uniform and that is intended to meet specifications for identity, purity, strength, and composition; or, in the case of a dietary supplement produced by continuous process, a specific identified amount produced in a specified unit of time or quantity in a manner that is uniform and that is intended to meet specifications for identity, purity, strength, and composition.
</P>
<P><I>Microorganisms</I> means yeasts, molds, bacteria, viruses, and other similar microscopic organisms having public health or sanitary concern. This definition includes species that:
</P>
<P>(1) May have public health significance;
</P>
<P>(2) May cause a component or dietary supplement to decompose;
</P>
<P>(3) Indicate that the component or dietary supplement is contaminated with filth; or
</P>
<P>(4) Otherwise may cause the component or dietary supplement to be adulterated.
</P>
<P><I>Must</I> is used to state a requirement.
</P>
<P><I>Pest</I> means any objectionable insect or other animal including birds, rodents, flies, mites, and larvae.
</P>
<P><I>Physical plant</I> means all or any part of a building or facility used for or in connection with manufacturing, packaging, labeling, or holding a dietary supplement.
</P>
<P><I>Product complaint</I> means any communication that contains any allegation, written, electronic, or oral, expressing concern, for any reason, with the quality of a dietary supplement, that could be related to current good manufacturing practice. Examples of product complaints are: Foul odor, off taste, illness or injury, disintegration time, color variation, tablet size or size variation, under-filled container, foreign material in a dietary supplement container, improper packaging, mislabeling, or dietary supplements that are superpotent, subpotent, or contain the wrong ingredient, or contain a drug or other contaminant (e.g., bacteria, pesticide, mycotoxin, glass, lead).
</P>
<P><I>Quality</I> means that the dietary supplement consistently meets the established specifications for identity, purity, strength, and composition, and limits on contaminants, and has been manufactured, packaged, labeled, and held under conditions to prevent adulteration under section 402(a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of the act.
</P>
<P><I>Quality control</I> means a planned and systematic operation or procedure for ensuring the quality of a dietary supplement.
</P>
<P><I>Quality control personnel</I> means any person, persons, or group, within or outside of your organization, who you designate to be responsible for your quality control operations.
</P>
<P><I>Representative sample</I> means a sample that consists of an adequate number of units that are drawn based on rational criteria, such as random sampling, and that are intended to ensure that the sample accurately portrays the material being sampled.
</P>
<P><I>Reprocessing</I> means using, in the manufacture of a dietary supplement, clean, uncontaminated components or dietary supplements that have been previously removed from manufacturing and that have been made suitable for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve sample</I> means a representative sample of product that is held for a designated period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Sanitize</I> means to adequately treat cleaned equipment, containers, utensils, or any other cleaned contact surface by a process that is effective in destroying vegetative cells of microorganisms of public health significance, and in substantially reducing numbers of other microorganisms, but without adversely affecting the product or its safety for the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Theoretical yield</I> means the quantity that would be produced at any appropriate step of manufacture or packaging of a particular dietary supplement, based upon the quantity of components or packaging to be used, in the absence of any loss or error in actual production.
</P>
<P><I>Water activity</I> (a<E T="52">w</E>) is a measure of the free moisture in a component or dietary supplement and is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.
</P>
<P><I>We</I> means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means a person who manufactures, packages, labels, or holds dietary supplements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.5   Do other statutory provisions and regulations apply?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to this part, you must comply with other applicable statutory provisions and regulations under the act related to dietary supplements. For importers of dietary supplements and dietary supplement components, the regulation on foreign supplier verification programs can be found in subpart L of part 1 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 34942, June 25, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 74352, Nov. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.8" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.8   What are the requirements under this subpart B for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.10   What requirements apply for preventing microbial contamination from sick or infected personnel and for hygienic practices?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preventing microbial contamination.</I> You must take measures to exclude from any operations any person who might be a source of microbial contamination, due to a health condition, where such contamination may occur, of any material, including components, dietary supplements, and contact surfaces used in the manufacture, packaging, labeling, or holding of a dietary supplement. Such measures include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding from working in any operations that may result in contamination any person who, by medical examination, the person's acknowledgement, or supervisory observation, is shown to have, or appears to have, an illness, infection, open lesion, or any other abnormal source of microbial contamination, that could result in microbial contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces, until the health condition no longer exists; and
</P>
<P>(2) Instructing your employees to notify their supervisor(s) if they have or if there is a reasonable possibility that they have a health condition described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that could result in microbial contamination of any components, dietary supplements, or any contact surface.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hygienic practices.</I> If you work in an operation during which adulteration of the component, dietary supplement, or contact surface could occur, you must use hygienic practices to the extent necessary to protect against such contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces. These hygienic practices include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Wearing outer garments in a manner that protects against the contamination of components, dietary supplements, or any contact surface;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining adequate personal cleanliness;
</P>
<P>(3) Washing hands thoroughly (and sanitizing if necessary to protect against contamination with microorganisms) in an adequate hand-washing facility:
</P>
<P>(i) Before starting work; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At any time when the hands may have become soiled or contaminated;
</P>
<P>(4) Removing all unsecured jewelry and other objects that might fall into components, dietary supplements, equipment, or packaging, and removing hand jewelry that cannot be adequately sanitized during periods in which components or dietary supplements are manipulated by hand. If hand jewelry cannot be removed, it must be covered by material that is maintained in an intact, clean, and sanitary condition and that effectively protects against contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(5) Maintaining gloves used in handling components or dietary supplements in an intact, clean, and sanitary condition. The gloves must be of an impermeable material;
</P>
<P>(6) Wearing, where appropriate, in an effective manner, hair nets, caps, beard covers, or other effective hair restraints;
</P>
<P>(7) Not storing clothing or other personal belongings in areas where components, dietary supplements, or any contact surfaces are exposed or where contact surfaces are washed;
</P>
<P>(8) Not eating food, chewing gum, drinking beverages, or using tobacco products in areas where components, dietary supplements, or any contact surfaces are exposed, or where contact surfaces are washed; and
</P>
<P>(9) Taking any other precautions necessary to protect against the contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces with microorganisms, filth, or any other extraneous materials, including perspiration, hair, cosmetics, tobacco, chemicals, and medicines applied to the skin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.12   What personnel qualification requirements apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must have qualified employees who manufacture, package, label, or hold dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(b) You must identify who is responsible for your quality control operations. Each person who is identified to perform quality control operations must be qualified to do so and have distinct and separate responsibilities related to performing such operations from those responsibilities that the person otherwise has when not performing such operations.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person engaged in manufacturing, packaging, labeling, or holding, or in performing any quality control operations, must have the education, training, or experience to perform the person's assigned functions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.13" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.13   What supervisor requirements apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must assign qualified personnel to supervise the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, or holding of dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(b) Each supervisor whom you use must be qualified by education, training, or experience to supervise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.14" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.14   Under this subpart B, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart B in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart B; and
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation of training, including the date of the training, the type of training, and the person(s) trained.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Physical Plant and Grounds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.15" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.15   What sanitation requirements apply to your physical plant and grounds?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds.</I> You must keep the grounds of your physical plant in a condition that protects against the contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces. The methods for adequate ground maintenance include:
</P>
<P>(1) Properly storing equipment, removing litter and waste, and cutting weeds or grass within the immediate vicinity of the physical plant so that it does not attract pests, harbor pests, or provide pests a place for breeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining roads, yards, and parking lots so that they do not constitute a source of contamination in areas where components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces are exposed;
</P>
<P>(3) Adequately draining areas that may contribute to the contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces by seepage, filth or any other extraneous materials, or by providing a breeding place for pests;
</P>
<P>(4) Adequately operating systems for waste treatment and disposal so that they do not constitute a source of contamination in areas where components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces are exposed; and
</P>
<P>(5) If your plant grounds are bordered by grounds not under your control, and if those other grounds are not maintained in the manner described in this section, you must exercise care in the plant by inspection, extermination, or other means to exclude pests, dirt, and filth or any other extraneous materials that may be a source of contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Physical plant facilities.</I> (1) You must maintain your physical plant in a clean and sanitary condition; and
</P>
<P>(2) You must maintain your physical plant in repair sufficient to prevent components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces from becoming contaminated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, pesticides, and other toxic materials.</I> (1) You must use cleaning compounds and sanitizing agents that are free from microorganisms of public health significance and that are safe and adequate under the conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) You must not use or hold toxic materials in a physical plant in which components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces are manufactured or exposed, unless those materials are necessary as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) To maintain clean and sanitary conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) For use in laboratory testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) For maintaining or operating the physical plant or equipment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) For use in the plant's operations.
</P>
<P>(3) You must identify and hold cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, pesticides, pesticide chemicals, and other toxic materials in a manner that protects against contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pest control.</I> (1) You must not allow animals or pests in any area of your physical plant. Guard or guide dogs are allowed in some areas of your physical plant if the presence of the dogs will not result in contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(2) You must take effective measures to exclude pests from the physical plant and to protect against contamination of components, dietary supplements, and contact surfaces on the premises by pests; and
</P>
<P>(3) You must not use insecticides, fumigants, fungicides, or rodenticides, unless you take precautions to protect against the contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Water supply.</I> (1) You must provide water that is safe and sanitary, at suitable temperatures, and under pressure as needed, for all uses where water does not become a component of the dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(2) Water that is used in a manner such that the water may become a component of the dietary supplement, e.g., when such water contacts components, dietary supplements, or any contact surface, must, at a minimum, comply with applicable Federal, State, and local requirements and not contaminate the dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plumbing.</I> The plumbing in your physical plant must be of an adequate size and design and be adequately installed and maintained to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry sufficient amounts of water to required locations throughout the physical plant;
</P>
<P>(2) Properly convey sewage and liquid disposable waste from your physical plant;
</P>
<P>(3) Avoid being a source of contamination to components, dietary supplements, water supplies, or any contact surface, or creating an unsanitary condition;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide adequate floor drainage in all areas where floors are subject to flooding-type cleaning or where normal operations release or discharge water or other liquid waste on the floor; and
</P>
<P>(5) Not allow backflow from, or cross connection between, piping systems that discharge waste water or sewage and piping systems that carry water used for manufacturing dietary supplements, for cleaning contact surfaces, or for use in bathrooms or hand-washing facilities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Sewage disposal.</I> You must dispose of sewage into an adequate sewage system or through other adequate means.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bathrooms.</I> You must provide your employees with adequate, readily accessible bathrooms. The bathrooms must be kept clean and must not be a potential source of contamination to components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hand-washing facilities.</I> You must provide hand-washing facilities that are designed to ensure that an employee's hands are not a source of contamination of components, dietary supplements, or any contact surface, by providing facilities that are adequate, convenient, and furnish running water at a suitable temperature.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Trash disposal.</I> You must convey, store, and dispose of trash to:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimize the development of odors;
</P>
<P>(2) Minimize the potential for the trash to attract, harbor, or become a breeding place for pests;
</P>
<P>(3) Protect against contamination of components, dietary supplements, any contact surface, water supplies, and grounds surrounding your physical plant; and
</P>
<P>(4) Control hazardous waste to prevent contamination of components, dietary supplements, and contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Sanitation supervisors.</I> You must assign one or more employees to supervise overall sanitation. Each of these supervisors must be qualified by education, training, or experience to develop and supervise sanitation procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.16" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.16   What are the requirements under this subpart C for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for cleaning the physical plant and for pest control.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.20   What design and construction requirements apply to your physical plant?</HEAD>
<P>Any physical plant you use in the manufacture, packaging, labeling, or holding of dietary supplements must:
</P>
<P>(a) Be suitable in size, construction, and design to facilitate maintenance, cleaning, and sanitizing operations;
</P>
<P>(b) Have adequate space for the orderly placement of equipment and holding of materials as is necessary for maintenance, cleaning, and sanitizing operations and to prevent contamination and mixups of components and dietary supplements during manufacturing, packaging, labeling, or holding;
</P>
<P>(c) Permit the use of proper precautions to reduce the potential for mixups or contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces, with microorganisms, chemicals, filth, or other extraneous material. Your physical plant must have, and you must use, separate or defined areas of adequate size or other control systems, such as computerized inventory controls or automated systems of separation, to prevent contamination and mixups of components and dietary supplements during the following operations:
</P>
<P>(1) Receiving, identifying, holding, and withholding from use, components, dietary supplements, packaging, and labels that will be used in or during the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, or holding of dietary supplements;
</P>
<P>(2) Separating, as necessary, components, dietary supplements, packaging, and labels that are to be used in manufacturing from components, dietary supplements, packaging, or labels that are awaiting material review and disposition decision, reprocessing, or are awaiting disposal after rejection;
</P>
<P>(3) Separating the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, and holding of different product types including different types of dietary supplements and other foods, cosmetics, and pharmaceutical products;
</P>
<P>(4) Performing laboratory analyses and holding laboratory supplies and samples;
</P>
<P>(5) Cleaning and sanitizing contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(6) Packaging and label operations; and
</P>
<P>(7) Holding components or dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(d) Be designed and constructed in a manner that prevents contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(1) The design and construction must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Floors, walls, and ceilings that can be adequately cleaned and kept clean and in good repair;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fixtures, ducts, and pipes that do not contaminate components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces by dripping or other leakage, or condensate;
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate ventilation or environmental control equipment such as airflow systems, including filters, fans, and other air-blowing equipment, that minimize odors and vapors (including steam and noxious fumes) in areas where they may contaminate components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(iv) Equipment that controls temperature and humidity, when such equipment is necessary to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(v) Aisles or working spaces between equipment and walls that are adequately unobstructed and of adequate width to permit all persons to perform their duties and to protect against contamination of components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces with clothing or personal contact.
</P>
<P>(2) When fans and other air-blowing equipment are used, such fans and equipment must be located and operated in a manner that minimizes the potential for microorganisms and particulate matter to contaminate components, dietary supplements, or contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(e) Provide adequate light in:
</P>
<P>(1) All areas where components or dietary supplements are examined, processed, or held;
</P>
<P>(2) All areas where contact surfaces are cleaned; and
</P>
<P>(3) Hand-washing areas, dressing and locker rooms, and bathrooms.
</P>
<P>(f) Use safety-type light bulbs, fixtures, skylights, or other glass or glass-like materials when the light bulbs, fixtures, skylights or other glass or glass-like materials are suspended over exposed components or dietary supplements in any step of preparation, unless your physical plant is otherwise constructed in a manner that will protect against contamination of components or dietary supplements in case of breakage of glass or glass-like materials.
</P>
<P>(g) Provide effective protection against contamination of components and dietary supplements in bulk fermentation vessels, by, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Use of protective coverings;
</P>
<P>(2) Placement in areas where you can eliminate harborages for pests over and around the vessels;
</P>
<P>(3) Placement in areas where you can check regularly for pests, pest infestation, filth or any other extraneous materials; and
</P>
<P>(4) Use of skimming equipment.
</P>
<P>(h) Use adequate screening or other protection against pests, where necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.23" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.23   Under this subpart C, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart C in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep records of the written procedures for cleaning the physical plant and for pest control.
</P>
<P>(c) You must make and keep records that show that water, when used in a manner such that the water may become a component of the dietary supplement, meets the requirements of § 111.15(e)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Equipment and Utensils</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.25" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.25   What are the requirements under this subpart D for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart D, including written procedures for:
</P>
<P>(a) Calibrating instruments and controls that you use in manufacturing or testing a component or dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(b) Calibrating, inspecting, and checking automated, mechanical, and electronic equipment; and
</P>
<P>(c) Maintaining, cleaning, and sanitizing, as necessary, all equipment, utensils, and any other contact surfaces that are used to manufacture, package, label, or hold components or dietary supplements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.27" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.27   What requirements apply to the equipment and utensils that you use?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must use equipment and utensils that are of appropriate design, construction, and workmanship to enable them to be suitable for their intended use and to be adequately cleaned and properly maintained.
</P>
<P>(1) Equipment and utensils include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Equipment used to hold or convey;
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment used to measure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment using compressed air or gas;
</P>
<P>(iv) Equipment used to carry out processes in closed pipes and vessels; and
</P>
<P>(v) Equipment used in automated, mechanical, or electronic systems.
</P>
<P>(2) You must use equipment and utensils of appropriate design and construction so that use will not result in the contamination of components or dietary supplements with:
</P>
<P>(i) Lubricants;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fuel;
</P>
<P>(iii) Coolants;
</P>
<P>(iv) Metal or glass fragments;
</P>
<P>(v) Filth or any other extraneous material;
</P>
<P>(vi) Contaminated water; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other contaminants.
</P>
<P>(3) All equipment and utensils you use must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Installed and maintained to facilitate cleaning the equipment, utensils, and all adjacent spaces;
</P>
<P>(ii) Corrosion-resistant if the equipment or utensils contact components or dietary supplements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Made of nontoxic materials;
</P>
<P>(iv) Designed and constructed to withstand the environment in which they are used, the action of components or dietary supplements, and, if applicable, cleaning compounds and sanitizing agents; and
</P>
<P>(v) Maintained to protect components and dietary supplements from being contaminated by any source.
</P>
<P>(4) Equipment and utensils you use must have seams that are smoothly bonded or maintained to minimize accumulation of dirt, filth, organic material, particles of components or dietary supplements, or any other extraneous materials or contaminants.
</P>
<P>(5) Each freezer, refrigerator, and other cold storage compartment you use to hold components or dietary supplements:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be fitted with an indicating thermometer, temperature-measuring device, or temperature-recording device that indicates and records, or allows for recording by hand, the temperature accurately within the compartment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Must have an automated device for regulating temperature or an automated alarm system to indicate a significant temperature change in a manual operation.
</P>
<P>(6) Instruments or controls used in the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, or holding of a dietary supplement, and instruments or controls that you use to measure, regulate, or record temperatures, hydrogen-ion concentration (pH), water activity, or other conditions, to control or prevent the growth of microorganisms or other contamination must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Accurate and precise;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequately maintained; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate in number for their designated uses.
</P>
<P>(7) Compressed air or other gases you introduce mechanically into or onto a component, dietary supplement, or contact surface or that you use to clean any contact surface must be treated in such a way that the component, dietary supplement, or contact surface is not contaminated.
</P>
<P>(b) You must calibrate instruments and controls you use in manufacturing or testing a component or dietary supplement. You must calibrate:
</P>
<P>(1) Before first use; and
</P>
<P>(2) At the frequency specified in writing by the manufacturer of the instrument and control; or
</P>
<P>(3) At routine intervals or as otherwise necessary to ensure the accuracy and precision of the instrument and control.
</P>
<P>(c) You must repair or replace instruments or controls that cannot be adjusted to agree with the reference standard.
</P>
<P>(d) You must maintain, clean, and sanitize, as necessary, all equipment, utensils, and any other contact surfaces used to manufacture, package, label, or hold components or dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(1) Equipment and utensils must be taken apart as necessary for thorough maintenance, cleaning, and sanitizing.
</P>
<P>(2) You must ensure that all contact surfaces, used for manufacturing or holding low-moisture components or dietary supplements, are in a dry and sanitary condition when in use. When the surfaces are wet-cleaned, they must be sanitized, when necessary, and thoroughly dried before subsequent use.
</P>
<P>(3) If you use wet processing during manufacturing, you must clean and sanitize all contact surfaces, as necessary, to protect against the introduction of microorganisms into components or dietary supplements. When cleaning and sanitizing is necessary, you must clean and sanitize all contact surfaces before use and after any interruption during which the contact surface may have become contaminated. If you use contact surfaces in a continuous production operation or in consecutive operations involving different batches of the same dietary supplement, you must adequately clean and sanitize the contact surfaces, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) You must clean surfaces that do not come into direct contact with components or dietary supplements as frequently as necessary to protect against contaminating components or dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(5) Single-service articles (such as utensils intended for one-time use, paper cups, and paper towels) must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Stored in appropriate containers; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Handled, dispensed, used, and disposed of in a manner that protects against contamination of components, dietary supplements, or any contact surface.
</P>
<P>(6) Cleaning compounds and sanitizing agents must be adequate for their intended use and safe under their conditions of use;
</P>
<P>(7) You must store cleaned and sanitized portable equipment and utensils that have contact surfaces in a location and manner that protects them from contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 34942, June 25, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 13124, Mar. 12, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.30" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.30   What requirements apply to automated, mechanical, or electronic equipment?</HEAD>
<P>For any automated, mechanical, or electronic equipment that you use to manufacture, package, label, or hold a dietary supplement, you must:
</P>
<P>(a) Design or select equipment to ensure that dietary supplement specifications are consistently met;
</P>
<P>(b) Determine the suitability of the equipment by ensuring that your equipment is capable of operating satisfactorily within the operating limits required by the process;
</P>
<P>(c) Routinely calibrate, inspect, or check the equipment to ensure proper performance. Your quality control personnel must periodically review these calibrations, inspections, or checks;
</P>
<P>(d) Establish and use appropriate controls for automated, mechanical, and electronic equipment (including software for a computer controlled process) to ensure that any changes to the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, holding, or other operations are approved by quality control personnel and instituted only by authorized personnel; and
</P>
<P>(e) Establish and use appropriate controls to ensure that the equipment functions in accordance with its intended use. These controls must be approved by quality control personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.35" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.35   Under this subpart D, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart D in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart, including written procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Calibrating instruments and controls that you use in manufacturing or testing a component or dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Calibrating, inspecting, and checking automated, mechanical, and electronic equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintaining, cleaning, and sanitizing, as necessary, all equipment, utensils, and any other contact surfaces that are used to manufacture, package, label, or hold components or dietary supplements;
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation, in individual equipment logs, of the date of the use, maintenance, cleaning, and sanitizing of equipment, unless such documentation is kept with the batch record;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of any calibration, each time the calibration is performed, for instruments and controls that you use in manufacturing or testing a component or dietary supplement. In your documentation, you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the instrument or control calibrated;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the date of calibration;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the reference standard used including the certification of accuracy of the known reference standard and a history of recertification of accuracy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify the calibration method used, including appropriate limits for accuracy and precision of instruments and controls when calibrating;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide the calibration reading or readings found;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify the recalibration method used, and reading or readings found, if accuracy or precision or both accuracy and precision limits for instruments and controls were not met; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Include the initials of the person who performed the calibration and any recalibration.
</P>
<P>(4) Written records of calibrations, inspections, and checks of automated, mechanical, and electronic equipment;
</P>
<P>(5) Backup file(s) of current software programs (and of outdated software that is necessary to retrieve records that you are required to keep in accordance with subpart P of this part, when current software is not able to retrieve such records) and of data entered into computer systems that you use to manufacture, package, label, or hold dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(i) Your backup file (e.g., a hard copy of data you have entered, diskettes, tapes, microfilm, or compact disks) must be an exact and complete record of the data you entered.
</P>
<P>(ii) You must keep your backup software programs and data secure from alterations, inadvertent erasures, or loss; and
</P>
<P>(6) Documentation of the controls that you use to ensure that equipment functions in accordance with its intended use.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Requirement to Establish a Production and Process Control System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.55" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.55   What are the requirements to implement a production and process control system?</HEAD>
<P>You must implement a system of production and process controls that covers all stages of manufacturing, packaging, labeling, and holding of the dietary supplement to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.60" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.60   What are the design requirements for the production and process control system?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Your production and in-process control system must be designed to ensure that the dietary supplement is manufactured, packaged, labeled, and held in a manner that will ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record; and
</P>
<P>(b) The production and in-process control system must include all requirements of subparts E through L of this part and must be reviewed and approved by quality control personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.65" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.65   What are the requirements for quality control operations?</HEAD>
<P>You must implement quality control operations in your manufacturing, packaging, labeling, and holding operations for producing the dietary supplement to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.70" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.70   What specifications must you establish?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish a specification for any point, step, or stage in the manufacturing process where control is necessary to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record.
</P>
<P>(b) For each component that you use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement, you must establish component specifications as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) You must establish an identity specification;
</P>
<P>(2) You must establish component specifications that are necessary to ensure that specifications for the purity, strength and composition of dietary supplements manufactured using the components are met; and
</P>
<P>(3) You must establish limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate or may lead to adulteration of the finished batch of the dietary supplement to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(c) For the in-process production:
</P>
<P>(1) You must establish in-process specifications for any point, step, or stage in the master manufacturing record where control is necessary to help ensure that specifications are met for the identity, purity, strength, and composition of the dietary supplements and, as necessary, for limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate or may lead to adulteration of the finished batch of the dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(2) You must provide adequate documentation of your basis for why meeting the in-process specifications, in combination with meeting component specifications, will help ensure that the specifications are met for the identity, purity, strength, and composition of the dietary supplements and for limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate or may lead to adulteration of the finished batch of the dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Quality control personnel must review and approve the documentation that you provide under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) You must establish specifications for dietary supplement labels (label specifications) and for packaging that may come in contact with dietary supplements (packaging specifications). Packaging that may come into contact with dietary supplements must be safe and suitable for its intended use and must not be reactive or absorptive or otherwise affect the safety or quality of the dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(e) For each dietary supplement that you manufacture you must establish product specifications for the identity, purity, strength, and composition of the finished batch of the dietary supplement, and for limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate, or that may lead to adulteration of, the finished batch of the dietary supplement to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(f) If you receive a product from a supplier for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier), you must establish specifications to provide sufficient assurance that the product you receive is adequately identified and is consistent with your purchase order.
</P>
<P>(g) You must establish specifications for the packaging and labeling of the finished packaged and labeled dietary supplements, including specifications that ensure that you used the specified packaging and that you applied the specified label.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.73" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.73   What is your responsibility for determining whether established specifications are met?</HEAD>
<P>You must determine whether the specifications you establish under § 111.70 are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.75" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.75   What must you do to determine whether specifications are met?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before you use a component, you must:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Conduct at least one appropriate test or examination to verify the identity of any component that is a dietary ingredient, unless you petition the agency under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section and the agency exempts you from such testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) You may submit a petition, under 21 CFR 10.30, to request an exemption from the testing requirements in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. The petition must set forth the scientific rationale, and must be accompanied by the supporting data and information, for proposed alternative testing that will demonstrate that there is no material diminution of assurance, compared to the assurance provided by 100 percent identity testing, of the identity of the dietary ingredient before use when the dietary ingredient is obtained from one or more suppliers identified in the petition. If FDA grants the petition, you must conduct the tests and examinations for the dietary ingredient, otherwise required under § 111.75(a)(1)(i), under the terms specified by FDA when the petition is granted; and
</P>
<P>(2) Confirm the identity of other components and determine whether other applicable component specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(b) are met. To do so, you must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct appropriate tests or examinations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Rely on a certificate of analysis from the supplier of the component that you receive, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) You first qualify the supplier by establishing the reliability of the supplier's certificate of analysis through confirmation of the results of the supplier's tests or examinations;
</P>
<P>(B) The certificate of analysis includes a description of the test or examination method(s) used, limits of the test or examinations, and actual results of the tests or examinations;
</P>
<P>(C) You maintain documentation of how you qualified the supplier;
</P>
<P>(D) You periodically re-confirm the supplier's certificate of analysis; and
</P>
<P>(E) Your quality control personnel review and approve the documentation setting forth the basis for qualification (and re-qualification) of any supplier.
</P>
<P>(b) You must monitor the in-process points, steps, or stages where control is necessary to ensure the quality of the finished batch of dietary supplement to:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the in-process specifications are met; and
</P>
<P>(2) Detect any deviation or unanticipated occurrence that may result in a failure to meet specifications.
</P>
<P>(c) For a subset of finished dietary supplement batches that you identify through a sound statistical sampling plan (or for every finished batch), you must verify that your finished batch of the dietary supplement meets product specifications for identity, purity, strength, composition, and for limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate or that may lead to adulteration of the finished batch of the dietary supplement. To do so:
</P>
<P>(1) You must select one or more established specifications for identity, purity, strength, composition, and the limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate or that may lead to adulteration of the dietary supplement that, if tested or examined on the finished batches of the dietary supplement, would verify that the production and process control system is producing a dietary supplement that meets all product specifications (or only those product specifications not otherwise exempted from this provision by quality control personnel under paragraph (d) of this section);
</P>
<P>(2) You must conduct appropriate tests or examinations to determine compliance with the specifications selected in paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) You must provide adequate documentation of your basis for determining that compliance with the specification(s) selected under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, through the use of appropriate tests or examinations conducted under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, will ensure that your finished batch of the dietary supplement meets all product specifications for identity, purity, strength, and composition, and the limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate, or that may lead to the adulteration of, the dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(4) Your quality control personnel must review and approve the documentation that you provide under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) You may exempt one or more product specifications from verification requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if you determine and document that the specifications you select under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for determination of compliance with specifications are not able to verify that the production and process control system is producing a dietary supplement that meets the exempted product specification and there is no scientifically valid method for testing or examining such exempted product specification at the finished batch stage. In such a case, you must document why, for example, any component and in-process testing, examination, or monitoring, and any other information, will ensure that such exempted product specification is met without verification through periodic testing of the finished batch; and
</P>
<P>(2) Your quality control personnel must review and approve the documentation that you provide under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Before you package or label a product that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier), you must visually examine the product and have documentation to determine whether the specifications that you established under § 111.70 (f) are met.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Before you use packaging, you must, at a minimum, conduct a visual identification of the containers and closures and review the supplier's invoice, guarantee, or certification to determine whether the packaging specifications are met; and
</P>
<P>(2) Before you use labels, you must, at a minimum, conduct a visual examination of the label and review the supplier's invoice, guarantee, or certification to determine whether label specifications are met.
</P>
<P>(g) You must, at a minimum, conduct a visual examination of the packaging and labeling of the finished packaged and labeled dietary supplements to determine whether you used the specified packaging and applied the specified label.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) You must ensure that the tests and examinations that you use to determine whether the specifications are met are appropriate, scientifically valid methods.
</P>
<P>(2) The tests and examinations that you use must include at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Gross organoleptic analysis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Macroscopic analysis;
</P>
<P>(iii) Microscopic analysis;
</P>
<P>(iv) Chemical analysis; or
</P>
<P>(v) Other scientifically valid methods.
</P>
<P>(i) You must establish corrective action plans for use when an established specification is not met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 34942, June 25, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 34968, June 25, 2007; 73 FR 27727, May 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.77" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.77   What must you do if established specifications are not met?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For specifications established under § 111.70(a), (b)(2), (b)(3), (c), (d), (e), and (g) that you do not meet, quality control personnel, in accordance with the requirements in subpart F of this part, must reject the component, dietary supplement, package or label unless such personnel approve a treatment, an in-process adjustment, or reprocessing that will ensure the quality of the finished dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record. No finished batch of dietary supplements may be released for distribution unless it complies with § 111.123(b).
</P>
<P>(b) For specifications established under § 111.70(b)(1) that you do not meet, quality control personnel must reject the component and the component must not be used in manufacturing the dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(c) For specifications established under § 111.70(f) that you do not meet, quality control personnel must reject the product and the product may not be packaged or labeled for distribution as a dietary supplement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.80" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.80   What representative samples must you collect?</HEAD>
<P>The representative samples that you must collect include:
</P>
<P>(a) Representative samples of each unique lot of components, packaging, and labels that you use to determine whether the components, packaging, and labels meet specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(b) and (d), and as applicable, § 111.70(a) (and, when you receive components, packaging, or labels from a supplier, representative samples of each unique shipment, and of each unique lot within each unique shipment);
</P>
<P>(b) Representative samples of in-process materials for each manufactured batch at points, steps, or stages, in the manufacturing process as specified in the master manufacturing record where control is necessary to ensure the identity, purity, strength, and composition of dietary supplements to determine whether the in-process materials meet specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(c), and as applicable, § 111.70(a);
</P>
<P>(c) Representative samples of a subset of finished batches of each dietary supplement that you manufacture, which you identify through a sound statistical sampling plan (or otherwise every finished batch), before releasing for distribution to verify that the finished batch of dietary supplement meets product specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e), and as applicable, § 111.70(a);
</P>
<P>(d) Representative samples of each unique shipment, and of each unique lot within each unique shipment, of product that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier) to determine whether the received product meets specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(f), and as applicable, § 111.70(a); and
</P>
<P>(e) Representative samples of each lot of packaged and labeled dietary supplements to determine whether the packaging and labeling of the finished packaged and labeled dietary supplements meet specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(g), and as applicable, § 111.70(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.83" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.83   What are the requirements for reserve samples?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must collect and hold reserve samples of each lot of packaged and labeled dietary supplements that you distribute.
</P>
<P>(b) The reserve samples must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be held using the same container-closure system in which the packaged and labeled dietary supplement is distributed, or if distributing dietary supplements to be packaged and labeled, using a container-closure system that provides essentially the same characteristics to protect against contamination or deterioration as the one in which it is distributed for packaging and labeling elsewhere;
</P>
<P>(2) Be identified with the batch, lot, or control number;
</P>
<P>(3) Be retained for 1 year past the shelf life date (if shelf life dating is used), or for 2 years from the date of distribution of the last batch of dietary supplements associated with the reserve sample, for use in appropriate investigations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Consist of at least twice the quantity necessary for all tests or examinations to determine whether or not the dietary supplement meets product specifications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.87" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.87   Who conducts a material review and makes a disposition decision?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control personnel must conduct all required material reviews and make all required disposition decisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.90" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.90   What requirements apply to treatments, in-process adjustments, and reprocessing when there is a deviation or unanticipated occurrence or when a specification established in accordance with § 111.70 is not met?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must not reprocess a rejected dietary supplement or treat or provide an in-process adjustment to a component, packaging, or label to make it suitable for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Quality control personnel conduct a material review and make a disposition decision to approve the reprocessing, treatment, or in-process adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(2) The reprocessing, treatment, or in-process adjustment is permitted by § 111.77;
</P>
<P>(b) You must not reprocess any dietary supplement or treat or provide an in-process adjustment to a component to make it suitable for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Quality control personnel conduct a material review and make a disposition decision that is based on a scientifically valid reason and approves the reprocessing, treatment, or in-process adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(2) The reprocessing, treatment or in-process adjustment is permitted by § 111.77;
</P>
<P>(c) Any batch of dietary supplement that is reprocessed, that contains components that you have treated, or to which you have made in-process adjustments to make them suitable for use in the manufacture of the dietary supplement must be approved by quality control personnel and comply with § 111.123(b) before releasing for distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.95" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.95   Under this subpart E, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart E in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Under this subpart E, you must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) The specifications established;
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation of your qualification of a supplier for the purpose of relying on the supplier's certificate of analysis;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation for why meeting in-process specifications, in combination with meeting component specifications, helps ensure that the dietary supplement meets the specifications for identity, purity, strength, and composition; and for limits on those types of contamination that may adulterate or may lead to adulteration of the finished batch of the dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(4) Documentation for why the results of appropriate tests or examinations for the product specifications selected under § 111.75(c)(1) ensure that the dietary supplement meets all product specifications;
</P>
<P>(5) Documentation for why any component and in-process testing, examination, or monitoring, and any other information, will ensure that a product specification that is exempted under § 111.75(d) is met without verification through periodic testing of the finished batch, including documentation that the selected specifications tested or examined under § 111.75 (c)(1) are not able to verify that the production and process control system is producing a dietary supplement that meets the exempted product specification and there is no scientifically valid method for testing or examining such exempted product specification at the finished batch stage.
</P>
<P>(6) Documentation of FDA's response to a petition submitted under § 111.75(a)(1)(ii) providing for an exemption from the provisions of § 111.75(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 34942, June 25, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 34968, June 25, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Production and Process Control System: Requirements for Quality Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.103" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.103   What are the requirements under this subpart F for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for the responsibilities of the quality control operations, including written procedures for conducting a material review and making a disposition decision, and for approving or rejecting any reprocessing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.105" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.105   What must quality control personnel do?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control personnel must ensure that your manufacturing, packaging, labeling, and holding operations ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record. To do so, quality control personnel must perform operations that include:
</P>
<P>(a) Approving or rejecting all processes, specifications, written procedures, controls, tests, and examinations, and deviations from or modifications to them, that may affect the identity, purity, strength, or composition of a dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(b) Reviewing and approving the documentation setting forth the basis for qualification of any supplier;
</P>
<P>(c) Reviewing and approving the documentation setting forth the basis for why meeting in-process specifications, in combination with meeting component specifications, will help ensure that the identity, purity, strength, and composition of the dietary supplement are met;
</P>
<P>(d) Reviewing and approving the documentation setting forth the basis for why the results of appropriate tests or examinations for each product specification selected under § 111.75(c)(1) will ensure that the finished batch of the dietary supplement meets product specifications;
</P>
<P>(e) Reviewing and approving the basis and the documentation for why any product specification is exempted from the verification requirements in § 111.75(c)(1), and for why any component and in-process testing, examination, or monitoring, or other methods will ensure that such exempted product specification is met without verification through periodic testing of the finished batch;
</P>
<P>(f) Ensuring that required representative samples are collected;
</P>
<P>(g) Ensuring that required reserve samples are collected and held;
</P>
<P>(h) Determining whether all specifications established under § 111.70(a) are met; and
</P>
<P>(i) Performing other operations required under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.110   What quality control operations are required for laboratory operations associated with the production and process control system?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control operations for laboratory operations associated with the production and process control system must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Reviewing and approving all laboratory control processes associated with the production and process control system;
</P>
<P>(b) Ensuring that all tests and examinations required under § 111.75 are conducted; and
</P>
<P>(c) Reviewing and approving the results of all tests and examinations required under § 111.75.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.113" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.113   What quality control operations are required for a material review and disposition decision?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Quality control personnel must conduct a material review and make a disposition decision if:
</P>
<P>(1) A specification established in accordance with § 111.70 is not met;
</P>
<P>(2) A batch deviates from the master manufacturing record, including when any step established in the master manufacturing record is not completed and including any deviation from specifications;
</P>
<P>(3) There is any unanticipated occurrence during the manufacturing operations that adulterates or may lead to adulteration of the component, dietary supplement, or packaging, or could lead to the use of a label not specified in the master manufacturing record;
</P>
<P>(4) Calibration of an instrument or control suggests a problem that may have resulted in a failure to ensure the quality of a batch or batches of a dietary supplement; or
</P>
<P>(5) A dietary supplement is returned.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) When there is a deviation or unanticipated occurrence during the production and in-process control system that results in or could lead to adulteration of a component, dietary supplement, or packaging, or could lead to the use of a label not specified in the master manufacturing record, quality control personnel must reject the component, dietary supplement, packaging, or label unless it approves a treatment, an in-process adjustment, or reprocessing to correct the applicable deviation or occurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) When a specification established in accordance with § 111.70 is not met, quality control personnel must reject the component, dietary supplement, package or label, unless quality control personnel approve a treatment, an in-process adjustment, or reprocessing, as permitted in § 111.77.
</P>
<P>(c) The person who conducts a material review and makes the disposition decision must, at the time of performance, document that material review and disposition decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.117" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.117   What quality control operations are required for equipment, instruments, and controls?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control operations for equipment, instruments, and controls must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Reviewing and approving all processes for calibrating instruments and controls;
</P>
<P>(b) Periodically reviewing all records for calibration of instruments and controls;
</P>
<P>(c) Periodically reviewing all records for calibrations, inspections, and checks of automated, mechanical, or electronic equipment; and
</P>
<P>(d) Reviewing and approving controls to ensure that automated, mechanical, or electronic equipment functions in accordance with its intended use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.120   What quality control operations are required for components, packaging, and labels before use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control operations for components, packaging, and labels before use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Reviewing all receiving records for components, packaging, and labels;
</P>
<P>(b) Determining whether all components, packaging, and labels conform to specifications established under § 111.70 (b) and (d);
</P>
<P>(c) Conducting any required material review and making any required disposition decision;
</P>
<P>(d) Approving or rejecting any treatment and in-process adjustments of components, packaging, or labels to make them suitable for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(e) Approving, and releasing from quarantine, all components, packaging, and labels before they are used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.123" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.123   What quality control operations are required for the master manufacturing record, the batch production record, and manufacturing operations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Quality control operations for the master manufacturing record, the batch production record, and manufacturing operations must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Reviewing and approving all master manufacturing records and all modifications to the master manufacturing records;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing and approving all batch production-related records;
</P>
<P>(3) Reviewing all monitoring required under subpart E;
</P>
<P>(4) Conducting any required material review and making any required disposition decision;
</P>
<P>(5) Approving or rejecting any reprocessing;
</P>
<P>(6) Determining whether all in-process specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(c) are met;
</P>
<P>(7) Determining whether each finished batch conforms to product specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e); and
</P>
<P>(8) Approving and releasing, or rejecting, each finished batch for distribution, including any reprocessed finished batch.
</P>
<P>(b) Quality control personnel must not approve and release for distribution:
</P>
<P>(1) Any batch of dietary supplement for which any component in the batch does not meet its identity specification;
</P>
<P>(2) Any batch of dietary supplement, including any reprocessed batch, that does not meet all product specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e);
</P>
<P>(3) Any batch of dietary supplement, including any reprocessed batch, that has not been manufactured, packaged, labeled, and held under conditions to prevent adulteration under section 402(a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of the act; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any product received from a supplier for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier) for which sufficient assurance is not provided to adequately identify the product and to determine that the product is consistent with your purchase order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.127" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.127   What quality control operations are required for packaging and labeling operations?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control operations for packaging and labeling operations must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Reviewing the results of any visual examination and documentation to ensure that specifications established under § 111.70(f) are met for all products that you receive for packaging and labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier);
</P>
<P>(b) Approving, and releasing from quarantine, all products that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier) before they are used for packaging or labeling;
</P>
<P>(c) Reviewing and approving all records for packaging and label operations;
</P>
<P>(d) Determining whether the finished packaged and labeled dietary supplement conforms to specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(g);
</P>
<P>(e) Conducting any required material review and making any required disposition decision;
</P>
<P>(f) Approving or rejecting any repackaging of a packaged dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(g) Approving or rejecting any relabeling of a packaged and labeled dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(h) Approving for release, or rejecting, any packaged and labeled dietary supplement (including a repackaged or relabeled dietary supplement) for distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.130   What quality control operations are required for returned dietary supplements?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control operations for returned dietary supplements must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Conducting any required material review and making any required disposition decision; including:
</P>
<P>(1) Determining whether tests or examination are necessary to determine compliance with product specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e); and
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing the results of any tests or examinations that are conducted to determine compliance with product specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e);
</P>
<P>(b) Approving or rejecting any salvage and redistribution of any returned dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(c) Approving or rejecting any reprocessing of any returned dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(d) Determining whether the reprocessed dietary supplement meets product specifications and either approving for release, or rejecting, any returned dietary supplement that is reprocessed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.135   What quality control operations are required for product complaints?</HEAD>
<P>Quality control operations for product complaints must include reviewing and approving decisions about whether to investigate a product complaint and reviewing and approving the findings and followup action of any investigation performed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.140   Under this subpart F, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep the records required under this subpart F in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for the responsibilities of the quality control operations, including written procedures for conducting a material review and making a disposition decision and written procedures for approving or rejecting any reprocessing;
</P>
<P>(2) Written documentation, at the time of performance, that quality control personnel performed the review, approval, or rejection requirements by recording the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Date that the review, approval, or rejection was performed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Signature of the person performing the review, approval, or rejection; and
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of any material review and disposition decision and followup. Such documentation must be included in the appropriate batch production record and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the specific deviation or the unanticipated occurrence;
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of your investigation into the cause of the deviation from the specification or the unanticipated occurrence;
</P>
<P>(iii) Evaluation of whether or not the deviation or unanticipated occurrence has resulted in or could lead to a failure to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement or a failure to package and label the dietary supplement as specified in the master manufacturing record;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of the action(s) taken to correct, and prevent a recurrence of, the deviation or the unanticipated occurrence;
</P>
<P>(v) Explanation of what you did with the component, dietary supplement, packaging, or label;
</P>
<P>(vi) A scientifically valid reason for any reprocessing of a dietary supplement that is rejected or any treatment or in-process adjustment of a component that is rejected; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The signature of the individual(s) designated to perform the quality control operation, who conducted the material review and made the disposition decision, and of each qualified individual who provides information relevant to that material review and disposition decision.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Production and Process Control System: Requirements for Components, Packaging, and Labels and for Product That You Receive for Packaging or Labeling as a Dietary Supplement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.153" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.153   What are the requirements under this subpart G for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart G.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.155   What requirements apply to components of dietary supplements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must visually examine each immediate container or grouping of immediate containers in a shipment that you receive for appropriate content label, container damage, or broken seals to determine whether the container condition may have resulted in contamination or deterioration of the components;
</P>
<P>(b) You must visually examine the supplier's invoice, guarantee, or certification in a shipment you receive to ensure the components are consistent with your purchase order;
</P>
<P>(c) You must quarantine components before you use them in the manufacture of a dietary supplement until:
</P>
<P>(1) You collect representative samples of each unique lot of components (and, for components that you receive, of each unique shipment, and of each unique lot within each unique shipment);
</P>
<P>(2) Quality control personnel review and approve the results of any tests or examinations conducted on components; and
</P>
<P>(3) Quality control personnel approve the components for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement, including approval of any treatment (including in-process adjustments) of components to make them suitable for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement, and releases them from quarantine.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) You must identify each unique lot within each unique shipment of components that you receive and any lot of components that you produce in a manner that allows you to trace the lot to the supplier, the date received, the name of the component, the status of the component (e.g., quarantined, approved, or rejected); and to the dietary supplement that you manufactured and distributed.
</P>
<P>(2) You must use this unique identifier whenever you record the disposition of each unique lot within each unique shipment of components that you receive and any lot of components that you produce.
</P>
<P>(e) You must hold components under conditions that will protect against contamination and deterioration, and avoid mixups.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.160   What requirements apply to packaging and labels received?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must visually examine each immediate container or grouping of immediate containers in a shipment for appropriate content label, container damage, or broken seals to determine whether the container condition may have resulted in contamination or deterioration of the packaging and labels.
</P>
<P>(b) You must visually examine the supplier's invoice, guarantee, or certification in a shipment to ensure that the packaging or labels are consistent with your purchase order.
</P>
<P>(c) You must quarantine packaging and labels before you use them in the manufacture of a dietary supplement until:
</P>
<P>(1) You collect representative samples of each unique shipment, and of each unique lot within each unique shipment, of packaging and labels and, at a minimum, conduct a visual identification of the immediate containers and closures;
</P>
<P>(2) Quality control personnel review and approve the results of any tests or examinations conducted on the packaging and labels; and
</P>
<P>(3) Quality control personnel approve the packaging and labels for use in the manufacture of a dietary supplement and release them from quarantine.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) You must identify each unique lot within each unique shipment of packaging and labels in a manner that allows you to trace the lot to the supplier, the date received, the name of the packaging and label, the status of the packaging and label (e.g., quarantined, approved, or rejected); and to the dietary supplement that you distributed; and
</P>
<P>(2) You must use this unique identifier whenever you record the disposition of each unique lot within each unique shipment of packaging and labels.
</P>
<P>(e) You must hold packaging and labels under conditions that will protect against contamination and deterioration, and avoid mixups.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.165" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.165   What requirements apply to a product received for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must visually examine each immediate container or grouping of immediate containers in a shipment of product that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier) for appropriate content label, container damage, or broken seals to determine whether the container condition may have resulted in contamination or deterioration of the received product.
</P>
<P>(b) You must visually examine the supplier's invoice, guarantee, or certification in a shipment of the received product to ensure that the received product is consistent with your purchase order.
</P>
<P>(c) You must quarantine the received product until:
</P>
<P>(1) You collect representative samples of each unique shipment, and of each unique lot within each unique shipment, of received product;
</P>
<P>(2) Quality control personnel review and approve the documentation to determine whether the received product meets the specifications that you established under § 111.70(f); and
</P>
<P>(3) Quality control personnel approve the received product for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement and release the received product from quarantine.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) You must identify each unique lot within each unique shipment of received product in a manner that allows you to trace the lot to the supplier, the date received, the name of the received product, the status of the received product (e.g., quarantined, approved, or rejected), and to the product that you packaged or labeled and distributed as a dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(2) You must use this unique identifier whenever you record the disposition of each unique lot within each unique shipment of the received product.
</P>
<P>(e) You must hold the received product under conditions that will protect against contamination and deterioration, and avoid mixups.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.170   What requirements apply to rejected components, packaging, and labels, and to rejected products that are received for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement?</HEAD>
<P>You must clearly identify, hold, and control under a quarantine system for appropriate disposition any component, packaging, and label, and any product that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier), that is rejected and unsuitable for use in manufacturing, packaging, or labeling operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.180   Under this subpart G, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart G in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Receiving records (including records such as certificates of analysis, suppliers' invoices, and suppliers' guarantees) for components, packaging, and labels and for products that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier); and
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation that the requirements of this subpart were met.
</P>
<P>(i) The person who performs the required operation must document, at the time of performance, that the required operation was performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The date that the components, packaging, labels, or products that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement were received;
</P>
<P>(B) The initials of the person performing the required operation;
</P>
<P>(C) The results of any tests or examinations conducted on components, packaging, or labels, and of any visual examination of product that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any material review and disposition decision conducted on components, packaging, labels, or products that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Production and Process Control System: Requirements for the Master Manufacturing Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.205" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.205   What is the requirement to establish a master manufacturing record?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must prepare and follow a written master manufacturing record for each unique formulation of dietary supplement that you manufacture, and for each batch size, to ensure uniformity in the finished batch from batch to batch.
</P>
<P>(b) The master manufacturing record must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify specifications for the points, steps, or stages in the manufacturing process where control is necessary to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish controls and procedures to ensure that each batch of dietary supplement that you manufacture meets the specifications identified in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) You must make and keep master manufacturing records in accordance with subpart P of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.210" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.210   What must the master manufacturing record include?</HEAD>
<P>The master manufacturing record must include:
</P>
<P>(a) The name of the dietary supplement to be manufactured and the strength, concentration, weight, or measure of each dietary ingredient for each batch size;
</P>
<P>(b) A complete list of components to be used;
</P>
<P>(c) An accurate statement of the weight or measure of each component to be used;
</P>
<P>(d) The identity and weight or measure of each dietary ingredient that will be declared on the Supplement Facts label and the identity of each ingredient that will be declared on the ingredients list of the dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(e) A statement of any intentional overage amount of a dietary ingredient;
</P>
<P>(f) A statement of theoretical yield of a manufactured dietary supplement expected at each point, step, or stage of the manufacturing process where control is needed to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement, and the expected yield when you finish manufacturing the dietary supplement, including the maximum and minimum percentages of theoretical yield beyond which a deviation investigation of a batch is necessary and material review is conducted and disposition decision is made;
</P>
<P>(g) A description of packaging and a representative label, or a cross-reference to the physical location of the actual or representative label;
</P>
<P>(h) Written instructions, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifications for each point, step, or stage in the manufacturing process where control is necessary to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for sampling and a cross-reference to procedures for tests or examinations;
</P>
<P>(3) Specific actions necessary to perform and verify points, steps, or stages in the manufacturing process where control is necessary to ensure the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record.
</P>
<P>(i) Such specific actions must include verifying the weight or measure of any component and verifying the addition of any component; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For manual operations, such specific actions must include:
</P>
<P>(A) One person weighing or measuring a component and another person verifying the weight or measure; and
</P>
<P>(B) One person adding the component and another person verifying the addition.
</P>
<P>(4) Special notations and precautions to be followed; and
</P>
<P>(5) Corrective action plans for use when a specification is not met.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Production and Process Control System: Requirements for the Batch Production Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.255" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.255   What is the requirement to establish a batch production record?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must prepare a batch production record every time you manufacture a batch of a dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(b) Your batch production record must include complete information relating to the production and control of each batch;
</P>
<P>(c) Your batch production record must accurately follow the appropriate master manufacturing record and you must perform each step in the production of the batch; and
</P>
<P>(d) You must make and keep batch production records in accordance with subpart P of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.260" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.260   What must the batch record include?</HEAD>
<P>The batch production record must include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The batch, lot, or control number:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the finished batch of dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(2) That you assign in accordance with § 111.415(f) for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Each lot of packaged and labeled dietary supplement from the finished batch of dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each lot of dietary supplement, from the finished batch of dietary supplement, that you distribute to another person for packaging or labeling;
</P>
<P>(b) The identity of equipment and processing lines used in producing the batch;
</P>
<P>(c) The date and time of the maintenance, cleaning, and sanitizing of the equipment and processing lines used in producing the batch, or a cross-reference to records, such as individual equipment logs, where this information is retained;
</P>
<P>(d) The unique identifier that you assigned to each component (or, when applicable, to a product that you receive from a supplier for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement), packaging, and label used;
</P>
<P>(e) The identity and weight or measure of each component used;
</P>
<P>(f) A statement of the actual yield and a statement of the percentage of theoretical yield at appropriate phases of processing;
</P>
<P>(g) The actual results obtained during any monitoring operation;
</P>
<P>(h) The results of any testing or examination performed during the batch production, or a cross-reference to such results;
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation that the finished dietary supplement meets specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e) and (g);
</P>
<P>(j) Documentation, at the time of performance, of the manufacture of the batch, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which each step of the master manufacturing record was performed; and
</P>
<P>(2) The initials of the persons performing each step, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The initials of the person responsible for weighing or measuring each component used in the batch;
</P>
<P>(ii) The initials of the person responsible for verifying the weight or measure of each component used in the batch;
</P>
<P>(iii) The initials of the person responsible for adding the component to the batch; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The initials of the person responsible for verifying the addition of components to the batch;
</P>
<P>(k) Documentation, at the time of performance, of packaging and labeling operations, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The unique identifier that you assigned to packaging and labels used, the quantity of the packaging and labels used, and, when label reconciliation is required, reconciliation of any discrepancies between issuance and use of labels;
</P>
<P>(2) An actual or representative label, or a cross-reference to the physical location of the actual or representative label specified in the master manufacturing record; and
</P>
<P>(3) The results of any tests or examinations conducted on packaged and labeled dietary supplements (including repackaged or relabeled dietary supplements), or a cross-reference to the physical location of such results;
</P>
<P>(l) Documentation at the time of performance that quality control personnel:
</P>
<P>(1) Reviewed the batch production record, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Review of any monitoring operation required under subpart E of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Review of the results of any tests and examinations, including tests and examinations conducted on components, in-process materials, finished batches of dietary supplements, and packaged and labeled dietary supplements;
</P>
<P>(2) Approved or rejected any reprocessing or repackaging; and
</P>
<P>(3) Approved and released, or rejected, the batch for distribution, including any reprocessed batch; and
</P>
<P>(4) Approved and released, or rejected, the packaged and labeled dietary supplement, including any repackaged or relabeled dietary supplement.
</P>
<P>(m) Documentation at the time of performance of any required material review and disposition decision.
</P>
<P>(n) Documentation at the time of performance of any reprocessing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Production and Process Control System: Requirements for Laboratory Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.303" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.303   What are the requirements under this subpart J for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for laboratory operations, including written procedures for the tests and examinations that you conduct to determine whether specifications are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.310" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.310   What are the requirements for the laboratory facilities that you use?</HEAD>
<P>You must use adequate laboratory facilities to perform whatever testing and examinations are necessary to determine whether:
</P>
<P>(a) Components that you use meet specifications;
</P>
<P>(b) In-process specifications are met as specified in the master manufacturing record; and
</P>
<P>(c) Dietary supplements that you manufacture meet specifications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.315" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.315   What are the requirements for laboratory control processes?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow laboratory control processes that are reviewed and approved by quality control personnel, including the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Use of criteria for establishing appropriate specifications;
</P>
<P>(b) Use of sampling plans for obtaining representative samples, in accordance with subpart E of this part, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Components, packaging, and labels;
</P>
<P>(2) In-process materials;
</P>
<P>(3) Finished batches of dietary supplements;
</P>
<P>(4) Product that you receive for packaging or labeling as a dietary supplement (and for distribution rather than for return to the supplier); and
</P>
<P>(5) Packaged and labeled dietary supplements.
</P>
<P>(c) Use of criteria for selecting appropriate examination and testing methods;
</P>
<P>(d) Use of criteria for selecting standard reference materials used in performing tests and examinations; and
</P>
<P>(e) Use of test methods and examinations in accordance with established criteria.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.320" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.320   What requirements apply to laboratory methods for testing and examination?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must verify that the laboratory examination and testing methodologies are appropriate for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(b) You must identify and use an appropriate scientifically valid method for each established specification for which testing or examination is required to determine whether the specification is met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.325" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.325   Under this subpart J, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart J in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for laboratory operations, including written procedures for the tests and examinations that you conduct to determine whether specifications are met;
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation that laboratory methodology established in accordance with this subpart J is followed.
</P>
<P>(i) The person who conducts the testing and examination must document, at the time of performance, that laboratory methodology established in accordance with this subpart J is followed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The documentation for laboratory tests and examinations must include the results of the testing and examination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Production and Process Control System: Requirements for Manufacturing Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.353" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.353   What are the requirements under this subpart K for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for manufacturing operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.355" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.355   What are the design requirements for manufacturing operations?</HEAD>
<P>You must design or select manufacturing processes to ensure that product specifications are consistently met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.360" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.360   What are the requirements for sanitation?</HEAD>
<P>You must conduct all manufacturing operations in accordance with adequate sanitation principles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.365" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.365   What precautions must you take to prevent contamination?</HEAD>
<P>You must take all the necessary precautions during the manufacture of a dietary supplement to prevent contamination of components or dietary supplements. These precautions include:
</P>
<P>(a) Performing manufacturing operations under conditions and controls that protect against the potential for growth of microorganisms and the potential for contamination;
</P>
<P>(b) Washing or cleaning components that contain soil or other contaminants;
</P>
<P>(c) Using water that, at a minimum, complies with the applicable Federal, State, and local requirements and does not contaminate the dietary supplement when the water may become a component of the finished batch of dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(d) Performing chemical, microbiological, or other testing, as necessary to prevent the use of contaminated components;
</P>
<P>(e) Sterilizing, pasteurizing, freezing, refrigerating, controlling hydrogen-ion concentration (pH), controlling humidity, controlling water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>), or using any other effective means to remove, destroy, or prevent the growth of microorganisms and prevent decomposition;
</P>
<P>(f) Holding components and dietary supplements that can support the rapid growth of microorganisms of public health significance in a manner that prevents the components and dietary supplements from becoming adulterated;
</P>
<P>(g) Identifying and holding any components or dietary supplements, for which a material review and disposition decision is required, in a manner that protects components or dietary supplements that are not under a material review against contamination and mixups with those that are under a material review;
</P>
<P>(h) Performing mechanical manufacturing steps (such as cutting, sorting, inspecting, shredding, drying, grinding, blending, and sifting) by any effective means to protect the dietary supplements against contamination, by, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleaning and sanitizing contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(2) Using temperature controls; and
</P>
<P>(3) Using time controls.
</P>
<P>(i) Using effective measures to protect against the inclusion of metal or other foreign material in components or dietary supplements, by, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Filters or strainers,
</P>
<P>(2) Traps,
</P>
<P>(3) Magnets, or
</P>
<P>(4) Electronic metal detectors.
</P>
<P>(j) Segregating and identifying all containers for a specific batch of dietary supplements to identify their contents and, when necessary, the phase of manufacturing; and
</P>
<P>(k) Identifying all processing lines and major equipment used during manufacturing to indicate their contents, including the name of the dietary supplement and the specific batch or lot number and, when necessary, the phase of manufacturing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.370" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.370   What requirements apply to rejected dietary supplements?</HEAD>
<P>You must clearly identify, hold, and control under a quarantine system for appropriate disposition any dietary supplement that is rejected and unsuitable for use in manufacturing, packaging, or labeling operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.375" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.375   Under this subpart K, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart K in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep records of the written procedures for manufacturing operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Production and Process Control System: Requirements for Packaging and Labeling Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.403" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.403   What are the requirements under this subpart L for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for packaging and labeling operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.410" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.410   What requirements apply to packaging and labels?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must take necessary actions to determine whether packaging for dietary supplements meets specifications so that the condition of the packaging will ensure the quality of your dietary supplements;
</P>
<P>(b) You must control the issuance and use of packaging and labels and reconciliation of any issuance and use discrepancies. Label reconciliation is not required for cut or rolled labels if a 100-percent examination for correct labels is performed by appropriate electronic or electromechanical equipment during or after completion of finishing operations; and
</P>
<P>(c) You must examine, before packaging and labeling operations, packaging and labels for each batch of dietary supplement to determine whether the packaging and labels conform to the master manufacturing record; and
</P>
<P>(d) You must be able to determine the complete manufacturing history and control of the packaged and labeled dietary supplement through distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.415" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.415   What requirements apply to filling, assembling, packaging, labeling, and related operations?</HEAD>
<P>You must fill, assemble, package, label, and perform other related operations in a way that ensures the quality of the dietary supplement and that the dietary supplement is packaged and labeled as specified in the master manufacturing record. You must do this using any effective means, including the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Cleaning and sanitizing all filling and packaging equipment, utensils, and dietary supplement packaging, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) Protecting manufactured dietary supplements from contamination, particularly airborne contamination;
</P>
<P>(c) Using sanitary handling procedures;
</P>
<P>(d) Establishing physical or spatial separation of packaging and label operations from operations on other components and dietary supplements to prevent mixups;
</P>
<P>(e) Identifying, by any effective means, filled dietary supplement containers that are set aside and held in unlabeled condition for future label operations, to prevent mixups;
</P>
<P>(f) Assigning a batch, lot, or control number to:
</P>
<P>(1) Each lot of packaged and labeled dietary supplement from a finished batch of dietary supplement; and,
</P>
<P>(2) Each lot of dietary supplement, from a finished batch of dietary supplement, that you distribute to another person for packaging or labeling.
</P>
<P>(g) Examining a representative sample of each batch of the packaged and labeled dietary supplement to determine whether the dietary supplement meets specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(g); and
</P>
<P>(h) Suitably disposing of labels and packaging for dietary supplements that are obsolete or incorrect to ensure that they are not used in any future packaging and label operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.420" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.420   What requirements apply to repackaging and relabeling?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may repackage or relabel dietary supplements only after quality control personnel have approved such repackaging or relabeling.
</P>
<P>(b) You must examine a representative sample of each batch of repackaged or relabeled dietary supplements to determine whether the repackaged or relabeled dietary supplements meet all specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(g).
</P>
<P>(c) Quality control personnel must approve or reject each batch of repackaged or relabeled dietary supplement prior to its release for distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.425" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.425   What requirements apply to a packaged and labeled dietary supplement that is rejected for distribution?</HEAD>
<P>You must clearly identify, hold, and control under a quarantine system for appropriate disposition any packaged and labeled dietary supplement that is rejected for distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.430" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.12.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.430   Under this subpart L, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart L in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep records of the written procedures for packaging and labeling operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Holding and Distributing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.453" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.453   What are the requirements under this subpart for M written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures for holding and distributing operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.455" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.455   What requirements apply to holding components, dietary supplements, packaging, and labels?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must hold components and dietary supplements under appropriate conditions of temperature, humidity, and light so that the identity, purity, strength, and composition of the components and dietary supplements are not affected.
</P>
<P>(b) You must hold packaging and labels under appropriate conditions so that the packaging and labels are not adversely affected.
</P>
<P>(c) You must hold components, dietary supplements, packaging, and labels under conditions that do not lead to the mixup, contamination, or deterioration of components, dietary supplements, packaging, and labels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.460" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.460   What requirements apply to holding in-process material?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must identify and hold in-process material under conditions that protect against mixup, contamination, and deterioration.
</P>
<P>(b) You must hold in-process material under appropriate conditions of temperature, humidity, and light.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.465" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.465   What requirements apply to holding reserve samples of dietary supplements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must hold reserve samples of dietary supplements in a manner that protects against contamination and deterioration. This includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Holding the reserve samples under conditions consistent with product labels or, if no storage conditions are recommended on the label, under ordinary storage conditions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Using the same container-closure system in which the packaged and labeled dietary supplement is distributed, or if distributing dietary supplements to be packaged and labeled, using a container-closure system that provides essentially the same characteristics to protect against contamination or deterioration as the one in which you distribute the dietary supplement for packaging and labeling elsewhere.
</P>
<P>(b) You must retain reserve samples for 1 year past the shelf life date (if shelf life dating is used), or for 2 years from the date of distribution of the last batch of dietary supplements associated with the reserve samples, for use in appropriate investigations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.470" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.13.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.470   What requirements apply to distributing dietary supplements?</HEAD>
<P>You must distribute dietary supplements under conditions that will protect the dietary supplements against contamination and deterioration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.475" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.13.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.475   Under this subpart M, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart M in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for holding and distributing operations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Records of product distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Returned Dietary Supplements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.503" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.503   What are the requirements under this subpart N for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures to fulfill the requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.510" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.510   What requirements apply when a returned dietary supplement is received?</HEAD>
<P>You must identify and quarantine returned dietary supplements until quality control personnel conduct a material review and make a disposition decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.515" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.515   When must a returned dietary supplement be destroyed, or otherwise suitably disposed of?</HEAD>
<P>You must destroy, or otherwise suitably dispose of, any returned dietary supplement unless the outcome of a material review and disposition decision is that quality control personnel do the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Approve the salvage of the returned dietary supplement for redistribution or
</P>
<P>(b) Approve the returned dietary supplement for reprocessing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.520" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.520   When may a returned dietary supplement be salvaged?</HEAD>
<P>You may salvage a returned dietary supplement only if quality control personnel conduct a material review and make a disposition decision to allow the salvage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.525" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.525   What requirements apply to a returned dietary supplement that quality control personnel approve for reprocessing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must ensure that any returned dietary supplements that are reprocessed meet all product specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e); and
</P>
<P>(b) Quality control personnel must approve or reject the release for distribution of any returned dietary supplement that is reprocessed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.530" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.530   When must an investigation be conducted of your manufacturing processes and other batches?</HEAD>
<P>If the reason for a dietary supplement being returned implicates other batches, you must conduct an investigation of your manufacturing processes and each of those other batches to determine compliance with specifications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.535" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.14.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.535   Under this subpart N, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep records required under this subpart N in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart N.
</P>
<P>(2) Any material review and disposition decision on a returned dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(3) The results of any testing or examination conducted to determine compliance with product specifications established under § 111.70(e); and,
</P>
<P>(4) Documentation of the reevaluation by quality control personnel of any dietary supplement that is reprocessed and the determination by quality control personnel of whether the reprocessed dietary supplement meets product specifications established in accordance with § 111.70(e).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Product Complaints</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.553" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.553   What are the requirements under this subpart O for written procedures?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish and follow written procedures to fulfill the requirements of this subpart O.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.560" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.560   What requirements apply to the review and investigation of a product complaint?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A qualified person must:
</P>
<P>(1) Review all product complaints to determine whether the product complaint involves a possible failure of a dietary supplement to meet any of its specifications, or any other requirements of this part 111, including those specifications and other requirements that, if not met, may result in a risk of illness or injury; and
</P>
<P>(2) Investigate any product complaint that involves a possible failure of a dietary supplement to meet any of its specifications, or any other requirements of this part, including those specifications and other requirements that, if not met, may result in a risk of illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(b) Quality control personnel must review and approve decisions about whether to investigate a product complaint and review and approve the findings and followup action of any investigation performed.
</P>
<P>(c) The review and investigation of the product complaint by a qualified person, and the review by quality control personnel about whether to investigate a product complaint, and the findings and followup action of any investigation performed, must extend to all relevant batches and records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.570" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.570   Under this subpart O, what records must you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make and keep the records required under this subpart O in accordance with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures for fulfilling the requirements of this subpart,
</P>
<P>(2) A written record of every product complaint that is related to good manufacturing practice,
</P>
<P>(i) The person who performs the requirements of this subpart must document, at the time of performance, that the requirement was performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written record of the product complaint must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and description of the dietary supplement;
</P>
<P>(B) The batch, lot, or control number of the dietary supplement, if available;
</P>
<P>(C) The date the complaint was received and the name, address, or telephone number of the complainant, if available;
</P>
<P>(D) The nature of the complaint including, if known, how the product was used;
</P>
<P>(E) The reply to the complainant, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Findings of the investigation and followup action taken when an investigation is performed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Records and Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.605" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.605   What requirements apply to the records that you make and keep?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must keep written records required by this part for 1 year past the shelf life date, if shelf life dating is used, or 2 years beyond the date of distribution of the last batch of dietary supplements associated with those records.
</P>
<P>(b) Records must be kept as original records, as true copies (such as photocopies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or as electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) All electronic records must comply with part 11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 111.610" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.11.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 111.610   What records must be made available to FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must have all records required under this part, or copies of such records, readily available during the retention period for inspection and copying by FDA when requested.
</P>
<P>(b) If you use reduction techniques, such as microfilming, you must make suitable reader and photocopying equipment readily available to FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="112" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 112—STANDARDS FOR THE GROWING, HARVESTING, PACKING, AND HOLDING OF PRODUCE FOR HUMAN CONSUMPTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 342, 350h, 371; 42 U.S.C. 243, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 112 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.1   What food is covered by this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless it is excluded from this part under § 112.2, food that is produce within the meaning of this part and that is a raw agricultural commodity (RAC) is covered by this part. This includes a produce RAC that is grown domestically and a produce RAC that will be imported or offered for import in any State or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this part and subject to the exemptions and qualified exemptions therein, covered produce includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Fruits and vegetables such as almonds, apples, apricots, apriums, Artichokes-globe-type, Asian pears, avocados, babacos, bananas, Belgian endive, blackberries, blueberries, boysenberries, brazil nuts, broad beans, broccoli, Brussels sprouts, burdock, cabbages, Chinese cabbages (Bok Choy, mustard, and Napa), cantaloupes, carambolas, carrots, cauliflower, celeriac, celery, chayote fruit, cherries (sweet), chestnuts, chicory (roots and tops), citrus (such as clementine, grapefruit, lemons, limes, mandarin, oranges, tangerines, tangors, and uniq fruit), cowpea beans, cress-garden, cucumbers, curly endive, currants, dandelion leaves, fennel-Florence, garlic, genip, gooseberries, grapes, green beans, guavas, herbs (such as basil, chives, cilantro, oregano, and parsley), honeydew, huckleberries, Jerusalem artichokes, kale, kiwifruit, kohlrabi, kumquats, leek, lettuce, lychees, macadamia nuts, mangos, other melons (such as Canary, Crenshaw and Persian), mulberries, mushrooms, mustard greens, nectarines, onions, papayas, parsnips, passion fruit, peaches, pears, peas, peas-pigeon, peppers (such as bell and hot), pine nuts, pineapples, plantains, plums, plumcots, quince, radishes, raspberries, rhubarb, rutabagas, scallions, shallots, snow peas, soursop, spinach, sprouts (such as alfalfa and mung bean), strawberries, summer squash (such as patty pan, yellow and zucchini), sweetsop, Swiss chard, taro, tomatoes, turmeric, turnips (roots and tops), walnuts, watercress, watermelons, and yams; and
</P>
<P>(2) Mixes of intact fruits and vegetables (such as fruit baskets).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.2" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.2   What produce is not covered by this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following produce is not covered by this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Produce that is rarely consumed raw, specifically the produce on the following exhaustive list: Asparagus; beans, black; beans, great Northern; beans, kidney; beans, lima; beans, navy; beans, pinto; beets, garden (roots and tops); beets, sugar; cashews; cherries, sour; chickpeas; cocoa beans; coffee beans; collards; corn, sweet; cranberries; dates; dill (seeds and weed); eggplants; figs; ginger; hazelnuts; horseradish; lentils; okra; peanuts; pecans; peppermint; potatoes; pumpkins; squash, winter; sweet potatoes; and water chestnuts.
</P>
<P>(2) Produce that is produced by an individual for personal consumption or produced for consumption on the farm or another farm under the same management; and
</P>
<P>(3) Produce that is not a raw agricultural commodity.
</P>
<P>(b) Produce is eligible for exemption from the requirements of this part (except as noted in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), and (3) of this section) under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The produce receives commercial processing that adequately reduces the presence of microorganisms of public health significance. Examples of commercial processing that adequately reduces the presence of microorganisms of public health significance are processing in accordance with the requirements of part 113, 114, or 120 of this chapter, treating with a validated process to eliminate spore-forming microorganisms (such as processing to produce tomato paste or shelf-stable tomatoes), and processing such as refining, distilling, or otherwise manufacturing/processing produce into products such as sugar, oil, spirits, wine, beer or similar products; and
</P>
<P>(2) You must disclose in documents accompanying the produce, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to adequately reduce the presence of microorganisms of public health significance;” and
</P>
<P>(3) You must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Annually obtain written assurance, subject to the requirements of paragraph (b)(6) of this section, from the customer that performs the commercial processing described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that the customer has established and is following procedures (identified in the written assurance) that adequately reduce the presence of microorganisms of public health significance; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain written assurance, subject to the requirements of paragraph (b)(6) of this section, from your customer that an entity in the distribution chain subsequent to the customer will perform commercial processing described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and that the customer:
</P>
<P>(A) Will disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to adequately reduce the presence of microorganisms of public health significance”; and
</P>
<P>(B) Will only sell to another entity that agrees, in writing, it will either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Follow procedures (identified in a written assurance) that adequately reduce the presence of microorganisms of public health significance; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Obtain a similar written assurance from its customer that the produce will receive commercial processing described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and that there will be disclosure in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to adequately reduce the presence of microorganisms of public health significance”; and
</P>
<P>(4) You must establish and maintain documentation of your compliance with applicable requirements in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Documents containing disclosures required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annual written assurances obtained from customers required under paragraph (b)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) The requirements of this subpart and subpart Q of this part apply to such produce; and
</P>
<P>(6) An entity that provides a written assurance under § 112.2(b)(3)(i) or (ii) must act consistently with the assurance and document its actions taken to satisfy the written assurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.3   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Adequate</I> means that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose in keeping with good public health practice.
</P>
<P><I>Adequately reduce microorganisms of public health significance</I> means reduce the presence of such microorganisms to an extent sufficient to prevent illness.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural tea</I> means a water extract of biological materials (such as stabilized compost, manure, non-fecal animal byproducts, peat moss, pre-consumer vegetative waste, table waste, or yard trimmings), excluding any form of human waste, produced to transfer microbial biomass, fine particulate organic matter, and soluble chemical components into an aqueous phase. Agricultural teas are held for longer than one hour before application. Agricultural teas are soil amendments for the purposes of this rule.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural tea additive</I> means a nutrient source (such as molasses, yeast extract, or algal powder) added to agricultural tea to increase microbial biomass.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural water</I> means water used in covered activities on covered produce where water is intended to, or is likely to, contact covered produce or food contact surfaces, including water used in growing activities (including irrigation water applied using direct water application methods, water used for preparing crop sprays, and water used for growing sprouts) and in harvesting, packing, and holding activities (including water used for washing or cooling harvested produce and water used for preventing dehydration of covered produce).
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural water assessment</I> means an evaluation of an agricultural water system, agricultural water practices, crop characteristics, environmental conditions, and other relevant factors (including test results, where appropriate) related to growing activities for covered produce (other than sprouts) to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify any condition(s) that are reasonably likely to introduce known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into or onto covered produce or food contact surfaces; and
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether measures are reasonably necessary to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce or food contact surfaces with such known or reasonably foreseeable hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural water system</I> means a source of agricultural water, the water distribution system, any building or structure that is part of the water distribution system (such as a well house, pump station, or shed), and any equipment used for application of agricultural water to covered produce during growing, harvesting, packing, or holding activities.
</P>
<P><I>Animal excreta</I> means solid or liquid animal waste.
</P>
<P><I>Application interval</I> means the time interval between application of an agricultural input (such as a biological soil amendment of animal origin) to a growing area and harvest of covered produce from the growing area where the agricultural input was applied.
</P>
<P><I>Biological soil amendment</I> means any soil amendment containing biological materials such as stabilized compost, manure, non-fecal animal byproducts, peat moss, pre-consumer vegetative waste, sewage sludge biosolids, table waste, agricultural tea, or yard trimmings, alone or in combination.
</P>
<P><I>Biological soil amendment of animal origin</I> means a biological soil amendment which consists, in whole or in part, of materials of animal origin, such as manure or non-fecal animal byproducts including animal mortalities, or table waste, alone or in combination. The term “biological soil amendment of animal origin” does not include any form of human waste.
</P>
<P><I>Composting</I> means a process to produce stabilized compost in which organic material is decomposed by the actions of microorganisms under thermophilic conditions for a designated period of time (for example, 3 days) at a designated temperature (for example, 131 °F (55 °C)), followed by a curing stage under cooler conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Covered activity</I> means growing, harvesting, packing, or holding covered produce on a farm. Covered activity includes manufacturing/processing of covered produce on a farm, but only to the extent that such activities are performed on raw agricultural commodities and only to the extent that such activities are within the meaning of “farm” as defined in this chapter. Providing, acting consistently with, and documenting actions taken in compliance with written assurances as described in § 112.2(b) are also covered activities. This part does not apply to activities of a facility that are subject to part 117 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Covered produce</I> means produce that is subject to the requirements of this part in accordance with §§ 112.1 and 112.2. The term “covered produce” refers to the harvestable or harvested part of the crop.
</P>
<P><I>Curing</I> means the final stage of composting, which is conducted after much of the readily metabolized biological material has been decomposed, at cooler temperatures than those in the thermophilic phase of composting, to further reduce pathogens, promote further decomposition of cellulose and lignin, and stabilize composition. Curing may or may not involve insulation, depending on environmental conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Direct water application method</I> means using agricultural water in a manner whereby the water is intended to, or is likely to, contact covered produce or food contact surfaces during use of the water.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Primary production farm.</I> A primary production farm is an operation under one management in one general (but not necessarily contiguous) physical location devoted to the growing of crops, the harvesting of crops, the raising of animals (including seafood), or any combination of these activities. The term “farm” includes operations that, in addition to these activities:
</P>
<P>(i) Pack or hold raw agricultural commodities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pack or hold processed food, provided that all processed food used in such activities is either consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management, or is processed food identified in paragraph (1)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacture/process food, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) All food used in such activities is consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any manufacturing/processing of food that is not consumed on that farm or another farm under the same management consists only of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), and packaging and labeling such commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing (an example of additional manufacturing/processing is slicing);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Treatment to manipulate the ripening of raw agricultural commodities (such as by treating produce with ethylene gas), and packaging and labeling treated raw agricultural commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Packaging and labeling raw agricultural commodities, when these activities do not involve additional manufacturing/processing (an example of additional manufacturing/processing is irradiation); or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secondary activities farm.</I> A secondary activities farm is an operation, not located on a primary production farm, devoted to harvesting (such as hulling or shelling), packing, and/or holding of raw agricultural commodities, provided that the primary production farm(s) that grows, harvests, and/or raises the majority of the raw agricultural commodities harvested, packed, and/or held by the secondary activities farm owns, or jointly owns, a majority interest in the secondary activities farm. A secondary activities farm may also conduct those additional activities allowed on a primary production farm as described in paragraphs (1)(ii) and (iii) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> means food as defined in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and includes seeds and beans used to grow sprouts.
</P>
<P><I>Food contact surfaces</I> means those surfaces that contact human food and those surfaces from which drainage, or other transfer, onto the food or onto surfaces that contact the food ordinarily occurs during the normal course of operations. “Food contact surfaces” includes food contact surfaces of equipment and tools used during harvest, packing and holding.
</P>
<P><I>Ground water</I> means the supply of fresh water found beneath the Earth's surface, usually in aquifers, which supply wells and springs. Ground water does not include any water that meets the definition of surface water.
</P>
<P><I>Growth media</I> means material that acts as a substrate during the growth of covered produce (such as mushrooms and some sprouts) that contains, may contain, or consists of components that may include any animal waste (such as stabilized compost, manure, non-fecal animal byproducts or table waste).
</P>
<P><I>Harvesting</I> applies to farms and farm mixed-type facilities and means activities that are traditionally performed on farms for the purpose of removing raw agricultural commodities from the place they were grown or raised and preparing them for use as food. Harvesting is limited to activities performed on raw agricultural commodities, or on processed foods created by drying/dehydrating a raw agricultural commodity without additional manufacturing/processing, on a farm. Harvesting does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of harvesting include cutting (or otherwise separating) the edible portion of the raw agricultural commodity from the crop plant and removing or trimming part of the raw agricultural commodity (<I>e.g.,</I> foliage, husks, roots or stems). Examples of harvesting also include cooling, field coring, filtering, gathering, hulling, shelling, sifting, threshing, trimming of outer leaves of, and washing raw agricultural commodities grown on a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means any biological agent that has the potential to cause illness or injury in the absence of its control.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that food, such as fumigating food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Known or reasonably foreseeable hazard</I> means a biological hazard that is known to be, or has the potential to be, associated with the farm or the food.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying or manipulating food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Manure</I> means animal excreta, alone or in combination with litter (such as straw and feathers used for animal bedding) for use as a soil amendment.
</P>
<P><I>Microorganisms</I> means yeasts, molds, bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and microscopic parasites and includes species having public health significance. The term “undesirable microorganisms” includes those microorganisms that are of public health significance, that subject food to decomposition, that indicate that food is contaminated with filth, or that otherwise may cause food to be adulterated.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that engages in both activities that are exempt from registration under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and activities that require the establishment to be registered. An example of such a facility is a “farm mixed-type facility,” which is an establishment that is a farm, but that also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered.
</P>
<P><I>Monitor</I> means to conduct a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess whether a process, point or procedure is under control and, when required, to produce an accurate record of the observation or measurement.
</P>
<P><I>Non-fecal animal byproduct</I> means solid waste (other than manure) that is animal in origin (such as meat, fat, dairy products, eggs, carcasses, blood meal, bone meal, fish meal, shellfish waste (such as crab, shrimp, and lobster waste), fish emulsions, and offal) and is generated by commercial, institutional, or agricultural operations.
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing food into a container other than packaging the food and also includes re-packing and activities performed incidental to packing or re-packing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or re-packing of that food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Pest</I> means any objectionable animals or insects, including birds, rodents, flies, and larvae.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-consumer vegetative waste</I> means solid waste that is purely vegetative in origin, not considered yard trash, and derived from commercial, institutional, or agricultural operations without coming in contact with animal products, byproducts or manure or with an end user (consumer). Pre-consumer vegetative waste includes material generated by farms, packing houses, canning operations, wholesale distribution centers and grocery stores; products that have been removed from their packaging (such as out-of-date juice, vegetables, condiments, and bread); and associated packaging that is vegetative in origin (such as paper or corn-starch based products). Pre-consumer vegetative waste does not include table waste, packaging that has come in contact with materials (such as meat) that are not vegetative in origin, or any waste generated by restaurants.
</P>
<P><I>Produce</I> means any fruit or vegetable (including mixes of intact fruits and vegetables) and includes mushrooms, sprouts (irrespective of seed source), peanuts, tree nuts, and herbs. A fruit is the edible reproductive body of a seed plant or tree nut (such as apple, orange, and almond) such that fruit means the harvestable or harvested part of a plant developed from a flower. A vegetable is the edible part of an herbaceous plant (such as cabbage or potato) or fleshy fruiting body of a fungus (such as white button or shiitake) grown for an edible part such that vegetable means the harvestable or harvested part of any plant or fungus whose fruit, fleshy fruiting bodies, seeds, roots, tubers, bulbs, stems, leaves, or flower parts are used as food and includes mushrooms, sprouts, and herbs (such as basil or cilantro). Produce does not include food grains meaning the small, hard fruits or seeds of arable crops, or the crops bearing these fruits or seeds, that are primarily grown and processed for use as meal, flour, baked goods, cereals and oils rather than for direct consumption as small, hard fruits or seeds (including cereal grains, pseudo cereals, oilseeds and other plants used in the same fashion). Examples of food grains include barley, dent- or flint-corn, sorghum, oats, rice, rye, wheat, amaranth, quinoa, buckwheat, and oilseeds (<I>e.g.,</I> cotton seed, flax seed, rapeseed, soybean, and sunflower seed).
</P>
<P><I>Production batch of sprouts</I> means all sprouts that are started at the same time in a single growing unit (<I>e.g.,</I> a single drum or bin, or a single rack of trays that are connected to each other), whether or not the sprouts are grown from a single lot of seed (including, for example, when multiple types of seeds are grown in a single growing unit).
</P>
<P><I>Qualified end-user,</I> with respect to a food, means the consumer of the food (where the term consumer does not include a business); or a restaurant or retail food establishment (as those terms are defined in § 1.227) that is located:
</P>
<P>(1) In the same State or the same Indian reservation as the farm that produced the food; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than 275 miles from such farm.
</P>
<P><I>Raw agricultural commodity (RAC)</I> means “raw agricultural commodity” as defined in section 201(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Sanitize</I> means to adequately treat cleaned surfaces by a process that is effective in destroying vegetative cells of microorganisms of public health significance, and in substantially reducing numbers of other undesirable microorganisms, but without adversely affecting the product or its safety for the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Sewage sludge biosolids</I> means the solid or semi-solid residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a treatment works within the meaning of the definition of “sewage sludge” in 40 CFR 503.9(w).
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a farm that is subject to any of the requirements of this part and, on a rolling basis, the average annual monetary value of produce (as defined in this section) the farm sold during the previous 3-year period is no more than $500,000; and the farm is not a very small business as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Soil amendment</I> means any chemical, biological, or physical material (such as elemental fertilizers, stabilized compost, manure, non-fecal animal byproducts, peat moss, perlite, pre-consumer vegetative waste, sewage sludge biosolids, table waste, agricultural tea and yard trimmings) intentionally added to the soil to improve the chemical or physical condition of soil in relation to plant growth or to improve the capacity of the soil to hold water. The term soil amendment also includes growth media that serve as the entire substrate during the growth of covered produce (such as mushrooms and some sprouts).
</P>
<P><I>Spent sprout irrigation water</I> means water that has been used in the growing of sprouts.
</P>
<P><I>Stabilized compost</I> means a stabilized (<I>i.e.,</I> finished) biological soil amendment produced through a controlled composting process.
</P>
<P><I>Static composting</I> means a process to produce stabilized compost in which air is introduced into biological material (in a pile (or row) that may or may not be covered with insulating material, or in an enclosed vessel) by a mechanism that does not include turning. Examples of structural features for introducing air include embedded perforated pipes and a constructed permanent base that includes aeration slots. Examples of mechanisms for introducing air include passive diffusion and mechanical means (such as blowers that suction air from the composting material or blow air into the composting material using positive pressure).
</P>
<P><I>Surface water</I> means all water open to the atmosphere (rivers, lakes, reservoirs, streams, impoundments, seas, estuaries, etc.) and all springs, wells, or other collectors that are directly influenced by surface water.
</P>
<P><I>Table waste</I> means any post-consumer food waste, irrespective of whether the source material is animal or vegetative in origin, derived from individuals, institutions, restaurants, retail operations, or other sources where the food has been served to a consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Turned composting</I> means a process to produce stabilized compost in which air is introduced into biological material (in a pile, row, or enclosed vessel) by turning on a regular basis. Turning is the process of mechanically mixing biological material that is undergoing a composting process with the specific intention of moving the outer, cooler sections of the material being composted to the inner, hotter sections.
</P>
<P><I>Very small business</I> means a farm that is subject to any of the requirements of this part and, on a rolling basis, the average annual monetary value of produce (as defined in this section) the farm sold during the previous 3-year period is no more than $250,000.
</P>
<P><I>Visitor</I> means any person (other than personnel) who enters your covered farm with your permission.
</P>
<P><I>Water distribution system</I> means a system to carry water from its primary source to its point of use, including pipes, sprinklers, irrigation canals, pumps, valves, storage tanks, reservoirs, meters, and fittings.
</P>
<P><I>We</I> means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
</P>
<P><I>Yard trimmings</I> means purely vegetative matter resulting from landscaping maintenance or land clearing operations, including materials such as tree and shrub trimmings, grass clippings, palm fronds, trees, tree stumps, untreated lumber, untreated wooden pallets, and associated rocks and soils.
</P>
<P><I>You,</I> for purposes of this part, means the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a covered farm that is subject to some or all of the requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 26467, May 3, 2016; 89 FR 37514, May 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.4" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.4   Which farms are subject to the requirements of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a farm or farm mixed-type facility with an average annual monetary value of produce (as “produce” is defined in § 112.3) sold during the previous 3-year period of more than $25,000 (on a rolling basis), adjusted for inflation using 2011 as the baseline year for calculating the adjustment, is a “covered farm” subject to this part. Covered farms subject to this part must comply with all applicable requirements of this part when conducting a covered activity on covered produce.
</P>
<P>(b) A farm is not a covered farm if it satisfies the requirements in § 112.5 and we have not withdrawn the farm's exemption in accordance with the requirements of subpart R of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 12490, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.5   Which farms are eligible for a qualified exemption and associated modified requirements based on average monetary value of all food sold and direct farm marketing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A farm is eligible for a qualified exemption and associated modified requirements in a calendar year if:
</P>
<P>(1) During the previous 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year, the average annual monetary value of the food (as defined in § 112.3) the farm sold directly to qualified end-users (as defined in § 112.3) during such period exceeded the average annual monetary value of the food the farm sold to all other buyers during that period; and
</P>
<P>(2) The average annual monetary value of all food (as defined in § 112.3) the farm sold during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year was less than $500,000, adjusted for inflation.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of determining whether the average annual monetary value of all food sold during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year was less than $500,000, adjusted for inflation, the baseline year for calculating the adjustment for inflation is 2011.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 12490, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.6   What modified requirements apply to me if my farm is eligible for a qualified exemption in accordance with § 112.5?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If your farm is eligible for a qualified exemption in accordance with § 112.5, you are subject to the requirements of:
</P>
<P>(1) This subpart (General Provisions);
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart O of this part (Records);
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart Q of this part (Compliance and Enforcement); and
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart R of this part (Withdrawal of Qualified Exemption).
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, you are subject to the following modified requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) When a food packaging label is required on food that would otherwise be covered produce under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or its implementing regulations, you must include prominently and conspicuously on the food packaging label the name and the complete business address of the farm where the produce was grown.
</P>
<P>(2) When a food packaging label is not required on food that would otherwise be covered produce under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, you must prominently and conspicuously display, at the point of purchase, the name and complete business address of the farm where the produce was grown, on a label, poster, sign, placard, or documents delivered contemporaneously with the produce in the normal course of business, or, in the case of Internet sales, in an electronic notice.
</P>
<P>(3) The complete business address that you must include in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section must include the street address or post office box, city, state, and zip code for domestic farms, and comparable full address information for foreign farms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.7   What records must I establish and keep if my farm is eligible for a qualified exemption in accordance with § 112.5?</HEAD>
<P>If your farm is eligible for a qualified exemption in accordance with § 112.5:
</P>
<P>(a) You must establish and keep records required under this provision in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part, except that the requirement in § 112.161(a)(4) for a signature or initial of the person performing the activity is not required for sales receipts kept in the normal course of business. Such receipts must be dated as required under § 112.161(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) You must establish and keep adequate records necessary to demonstrate that your farm satisfies the criteria for a qualified exemption that are described in § 112.5, including a written record reflecting that you have performed an annual review and verification of your farm's continued eligibility for the qualified exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.11" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.11   What general requirements apply to persons who are subject to this part?</HEAD>
<P>You must take appropriate measures to minimize the risk of serious adverse health consequences or death from the use of, or exposure to, covered produce, including those measures reasonably necessary to prevent the introduction of known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into covered produce, and to provide reasonable assurances that the produce is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act on account of such hazards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.12   Are there any alternatives to the requirements established in this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may establish alternatives to certain specific requirements of subpart E of this part, as specified in § 112.45(b), provided that you satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) You may establish and use an alternative to any of the requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this section, provided you have adequate scientific data or information to support a conclusion that the alternative would provide the same level of public health protection as the applicable requirement established in this part, and would not increase the likelihood that your covered produce will be adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in light of your covered produce, practices, and conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) Scientific data and information used to support an alternative to a requirement specified in paragraph (a) of this section may be developed by you, available in the scientific literature, or available to you through a third party. You must establish and maintain documentation of the scientific data and information on which you rely in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part. You are not required to notify or seek prior approval from FDA regarding your decision to establish or use an alternative under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 37515, May 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Personnel Qualifications and Training</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.21" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.21   What requirements apply regarding qualifications and training for personnel who handle (contact) covered produce or food contact surfaces?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements apply regarding qualifications and training for personnel who handle (contact) covered produce or food contact surfaces:
</P>
<P>(a) All personnel (including temporary, part time, seasonal, and contracted personnel) who handle covered produce or food contact surfaces, or who are engaged in the supervision thereof, must receive adequate training, as appropriate to the person's duties, upon hiring, and periodically thereafter, at least once annually.
</P>
<P>(b) All personnel (including temporary, part time, seasonal, and contracted personnel) who handle covered produce or food contact surfaces, or who are engaged in the supervision thereof, must have a combination of education, training, and experience necessary to perform the person's assigned duties in a manner that ensures compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Training must be conducted in a manner that is easily understood by personnel being trained.
</P>
<P>(d) Training must be repeated as necessary and appropriate in light of observations or information indicating that personnel are not meeting standards established by FDA in subparts C through O of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.22" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.22   What minimum requirements apply for training personnel who conduct a covered activity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) At a minimum, all personnel who handle (contact) covered produce during covered activities or supervise the conduct of such activities must receive training that includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Principles of food hygiene and food safety;
</P>
<P>(2) The importance of health and personal hygiene for all personnel and visitors, including recognizing symptoms of a health condition that is reasonably likely to result in contamination of covered produce or food contact surfaces with microorganisms of public health significance; and
</P>
<P>(3) The standards established by FDA in subparts C through O of this part that are applicable to the employee's job responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons who conduct harvest activities for covered produce must also receive training that includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Recognizing covered produce that must not be harvested, including covered produce that may be contaminated with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards;
</P>
<P>(2) Inspecting harvest containers and equipment to ensure that they are functioning properly, clean, and maintained so as not to become a source of contamination of covered produce with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards; and
</P>
<P>(3) Correcting problems with harvest containers or equipment, or reporting such problems to the supervisor (or other responsible party), as appropriate to the person's job responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(c) At least one supervisor or responsible party for your farm must have successfully completed food safety training at least equivalent to that received under standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by the Food and Drug Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.23" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.23   What requirements apply regarding supervisors?</HEAD>
<P>You must assign or identify personnel to supervise (or otherwise be responsible for) your operations to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.30" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.30   Under this subpart, what requirements apply regarding records?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish and keep records required under this subpart in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must establish and keep records of training that document required training of personnel, including the date of training, topics covered, and the persons(s) trained.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Health and Hygiene</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.31" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.31   What measures must I take to prevent ill or infected persons from contaminating covered produce with microorganisms of public health significance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must take measures to prevent contamination of covered produce and food contact surfaces with microorganisms of public health significance from any person with an applicable health condition (such as communicable illnesses that present a public health risk in the context of normal work duties, infection, open lesion, vomiting, or diarrhea).
</P>
<P>(b) The measures you must take to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section must include all of the following measures:
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding any person from working in any operations that may result in contamination of covered produce or food contact surfaces with microorganisms of public health significance when the person (by medical examination, the person's acknowledgement, or observation) is shown to have, or appears to have, an applicable health condition, until the person's health condition no longer presents a risk to public health; and
</P>
<P>(2) Instructing personnel to notify their supervisor(s) (or a responsible party) if they have, or if there is a reasonable possibility that they have an applicable health condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.32" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.32   What hygienic practices must personnel use?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Personnel who work in an operation in which covered produce or food contact surfaces are at risk of contamination with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards must use hygienic practices while on duty to the extent necessary to protect against such contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) The hygienic practices that personnel use to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section when handling (contacting) covered produce or food contact surfaces during a covered activity must include all of the following practices:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintaining adequate personal cleanliness to protect against contamination of covered produce and food contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(2) Avoiding contact with animals other than working animals, and taking appropriate steps to minimize the likelihood of contamination of covered produce when in direct contact with working animals;
</P>
<P>(3) Washing hands thoroughly, including scrubbing with soap (or other effective surfactant) and running water that satisfies the requirements of § 112.44(a) (as applicable) for water used to wash hands, and drying hands thoroughly using single-service towels, sanitary towel service, electric hand dryers, or other adequate hand drying devices:
</P>
<P>(i) Before starting work;
</P>
<P>(ii) Before putting on gloves;
</P>
<P>(iii) After using the toilet;
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon return to the work station after any break or other absence from the work station;
</P>
<P>(v) As soon as practical after touching animals (including livestock and working animals), or any waste of animal origin; and
</P>
<P>(vi) At any other time when the hands may have become contaminated in a manner that is reasonably likely to lead to contamination of covered produce with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards;
</P>
<P>(4) If you choose to use gloves in handling covered produce or food contact surfaces, maintaining gloves in an intact and sanitary condition and replacing such gloves when no longer able to do so;
</P>
<P>(5) Removing or covering hand jewelry that cannot be adequately cleaned and sanitized during periods in which covered produce is manipulated by hand; and
</P>
<P>(6) Not eating, chewing gum, or using tobacco products in an area used for a covered activity (however, drinking beverages is permitted in designated areas).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.33" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.33   What measures must I take to prevent visitors from contaminating covered produce and food contact surfaces with microorganisms of public health significance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must make visitors aware of policies and procedures to protect covered produce and food contact surfaces from contamination by people and take all steps reasonably necessary to ensure that visitors comply with such policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) You must make toilet and hand-washing facilities accessible to visitors.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Agricultural Water</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 37515, May 6, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 112.40" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.40   What requirements of this subpart apply to my covered farm?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to agricultural water used for, or intended for use in, growing, harvesting, packing, or holding covered produce. If you are using agricultural water for a covered activity listed in the first column, then you must meet the requirements in the second column. You also must meet the requirements in the third column, if applicable.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 112.40
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
If you use agricultural water for this covered activity</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Then you must meet these requirements</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">If applicable, you also must meet these requirements
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) Growing covered produce (other than sprouts)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(quality standard)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(measures).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(inspections and maintenance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(treatment).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(agricultural water assessment)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(who may test).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(records)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(test methods).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) Sprout irrigation water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(quality standard)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.44(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(testing untreated ground water).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(inspections and maintenance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(measures).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.44(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(microbial quality criterion)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(treatment).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(records)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(who may test).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(test methods).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) Harvesting, packing, or holding covered produce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(quality standard)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.44(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(testing untreated ground water).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(inspections and maintenance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(measures).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.44(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(microbial quality criterion)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(treatment).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.44(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(additional management and monitoring)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(who may test).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(records)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">§ 112.151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(test methods)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.41" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.41   What requirements apply to the quality of my agricultural water?</HEAD>
<P>All agricultural water must be safe and of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.42" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.42   What requirements apply to inspecting and maintaining my agricultural water systems?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inspection of your agricultural water systems.</I> At the beginning of a growing season, as appropriate, but at least once annually, you must inspect all of your agricultural water systems, to the extent they are under your control, to identify any conditions that are reasonably likely to introduce known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into or onto covered produce or food contact surfaces, including consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of each agricultural water source (for example, whether it is ground water or surface water);
</P>
<P>(2) The extent of your control over each agricultural water source;
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of protection of each agricultural water source;
</P>
<P>(4) Use of adjacent and nearby land; and
</P>
<P>(5) The likelihood of introduction of known or reasonably foreseeable hazards to agricultural water by another user of agricultural water before the water reaches your covered farm.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maintenance of your agricultural water systems.</I> You must adequately maintain all agricultural water systems, to the extent they are under your control, as necessary and appropriate to prevent the systems from being a source of contamination to covered produce, food contact surfaces, or areas used for a covered activity. Such maintenance includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Regularly monitoring each system to identify any conditions that are reasonably likely to introduce known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into or onto covered produce or food contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(2) Correcting any significant deficiencies (such as control of cross-connections and repairs to well caps, well casings, sanitary seals, piping tanks, and treatment equipment);
</P>
<P>(3) Properly storing equipment and keeping the source and distribution system free of debris, trash, domesticated animals, and other possible sources of contamination of covered produce to the extent practicable and appropriate under the circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(4) As necessary and appropriate, implementing measures reasonably necessary to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards resulting from contact of covered produce with pooled water (for example, through use of protective barriers or through equipment adjustments).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.43" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.43   What requirements apply to assessing agricultural water used in growing covered produce (other than sprouts)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Elements of an agricultural water assessment.</I> Based in part on the results of any inspections and maintenance you conducted under § 112.42, at the beginning of the growing season, as appropriate, but at least once annually, you must prepare a written agricultural water assessment for water that you apply to covered produce (other than sprouts) using a direct application method during growing activities. The agricultural water assessment must identify conditions that are reasonably likely to introduce known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into or onto covered produce (other than sprouts) or food contact surfaces, based on an evaluation of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Each agricultural water system you use for growing activities for the covered produce, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The location and nature of the water source (for example, whether it is ground water or surface water);
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of water distribution system (for example, open or closed conveyance); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The degree of protection from possible sources of contamination, including by other water users; animal impacts; and adjacent and nearby land uses related to animal activity (for example, grazing or commercial animal feeding operations of any size), application of biological soil amendment(s) of animal origin, or presence of untreated or improperly treated human waste;
</P>
<P>(2) Agricultural water practices associated with each agricultural water system, including the type of direct application method (such as foliar spray or drip irrigation of covered produce growing underground) and the time interval between the last direct application of agricultural water and harvest of the covered produce;
</P>
<P>(3) Crop characteristics, including the susceptibility of the covered produce to surface adhesion or internalization of hazards;
</P>
<P>(4) Environmental conditions, including the frequency of heavy rain or extreme weather events that may impact the agricultural water system (such as by stirring sediments) or covered produce (such as damage to edible leaves) during growing activities, air temperatures, and sun exposure; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other relevant factors, including, if applicable, the results of any testing conducted pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> You do not need to prepare a written agricultural water assessment for water that you directly apply during growing activities for covered produce (other than sprouts), if your water meets the criteria in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) You can demonstrate that the water:
</P>
<P>(i) Meets the requirements in § 112.44(a), including the microbial quality criterion and the prohibition on the use of untreated surface water, and if untreated ground water, also meets the testing requirements in §§ 112.44(b), 112.47, and 112.151;
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets the requirements in § 112.44(c) for water from a public water system or public water supply; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is treated in accordance with § 112.46.
</P>
<P>(2) It is reasonably likely that the quality of water in paragraph (b)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section will not change prior to the water being used as agricultural water (for example, due to the manner in which the water is held, stored, or conveyed).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Outcomes.</I> Based on your evaluation under paragraph (a) of this section, you must determine whether measures under § 112.45 are reasonably necessary to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce (other than sprouts) or food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards associated with your agricultural water used in growing covered produce (other than sprouts). You must record your determination in the assessment, and you must take necessary and appropriate action, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If your agricultural water is not safe or is not of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use(s), as required under § 112.41, you must immediately discontinue use of the water and take corrective measures under § 112.45(a) before resuming such use(s);
</P>
<P>(2) If you have identified one or more conditions that are reasonably likely to introduce known or reasonably foreseeable hazards and are related to animal activity, application of a biological soil amendment of animal origin, or the presence of untreated or improperly treated human waste on adjacent or nearby lands, you must implement any mitigation measures under § 112.45(b) promptly, and no later than the same growing season as the agricultural water assessment;
</P>
<P>(3) If you have not identified any conditions that are reasonably likely to introduce a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard for which measures under § 112.45 are reasonably necessary to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce (other than sprouts) or food contact surfaces, you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly inspect and adequately maintain your agricultural water system(s) under § 112.42; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reassess your agricultural water annually and whenever a significant change occurs (such as a change in the manner or timing of water application) that increases the likelihood that a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard will be introduced into or onto covered produce or food contact surfaces; and
</P>
<P>(4) If your agricultural water does not meet the criteria in paragraphs (c)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, you must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Implement mitigation measures under § 112.45(b) as soon as practicable and no later than 1 year after the date of the agricultural water assessment (as required by this section); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Test the water pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, consider the results as part of your assessment, and take appropriate action under paragraphs (c)(1), (2), or (3), or (c)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Testing as part of an assessment.</I> In conducting testing to be used as part of your assessment under paragraph (a)(5) of this section, you must use scientifically valid collection and testing methods and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Any sampling conducted for purposes of paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section must be collected aseptically immediately prior to or during the growing season and must be representative of the water you use in growing covered produce (other than sprouts).
</P>
<P>(2) The sample(s) must be tested for generic <I>Escherichia coli</I> (<I>E. coli</I>) as an indicator of fecal contamination (or for another scientifically valid indicator organism, index organism, or other analyte).
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency of testing samples and any microbial criterion (or criteria) applied must be scientifically valid and appropriate to assist in determining, in conjunction with other data and information evaluated under paragraph (a) of this section, whether measures under § 112.45 are reasonably necessary to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce (other than sprouts) or food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards associated with your agricultural water used in growing covered produce (other than sprouts).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reassessment.</I> You must conduct an agricultural water assessment and take appropriate action under paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) At least once annually when you apply agricultural water to covered produce (other than sprouts) during growing activities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever a significant change occurs in your agricultural water system(s) (including changes relating to animal activity, the application of biological soil amendments of animal origin, or the presence of untreated or improperly treated human waste associated with adjacent or nearby land uses), agricultural water practices, crop characteristics, environmental conditions, or other relevant factors that make it reasonably likely that a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard will be introduced into or onto covered produce (other than sprouts) or food contact surfaces through direct application of agricultural water during growing activities. Your reassessment must evaluate any factors and conditions that are affected by such change.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.44" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.44   What requirements apply to agricultural water used as sprout irrigation water and in harvesting, packing, and holding covered produce?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Microbial quality criterion.</I> When you use agricultural water for any one or more of the following purposes, you must ensure there is no detectable generic <I>Escherichia coli</I> (<I>E. coli</I>) in 100 milliliters (mL) of agricultural water, and you must not use untreated surface water for any of these purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) Used as sprout irrigation water;
</P>
<P>(2) Used during or after harvest activities in a manner that directly contacts covered produce (for example, water that is applied to covered produce for washing or cooling activities, water that is applied to harvested crops to prevent dehydration before cooling, and water that is used to make ice that directly contacts covered produce during or after harvest activities);
</P>
<P>(3) Used to contact food contact surfaces or to make ice that will contact food contact surfaces; and
</P>
<P>(4) Used for washing hands during and after harvest activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Untreated ground water.</I> You must test any untreated ground water used as sprout irrigation water or for harvesting, packing, or holding covered produce to determine if it meets the microbial quality criterion in paragraph (a) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) You must initially test the microbial quality of each source of the untreated ground water at least four times during the growing season or over a period of 1 year, using a minimum total of four samples collected aseptically and representative of the intended use(s). Based on these results, you must determine whether the water can be used for the intended purpose(s), in accordance with § 112.45(a).
</P>
<P>(2) If your four initial sample results meet the microbial quality criterion, you may test once annually thereafter, using a minimum of one sample collected aseptically and representative of the intended use(s).
</P>
<P>(3) If any annual test fails to meet the microbial quality criterion, you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately discontinue the use(s) and meet the requirements of § 112.45(a) before resuming such use(s); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Resume testing at least four times per growing season or year, as required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, until all of the survey results collected in a year meet the microbial quality criterion.
</P>
<P>(4) You may meet these testing requirements using test results or data collected by a third party, as provided in § 112.47.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> There is no requirement to test agricultural water that is used as sprout irrigation water or for harvesting, packing, or holding covered produce when:
</P>
<P>(1) You receive the water from a public water system, as defined under the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) regulations, 40 CFR part 141, that furnishes water that meets the microbial requirements under those regulations or under the regulations of a State (as defined in 40 CFR 141.2) approved to administer the SDWA public water supply program, and you have public water system results or certificates of compliance that demonstrate that the water meets those microbial requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) You receive the water from a public water supply that furnishes water that meets the microbial quality criterion in paragraph (a) of this section, and you have public water system results or certificates of compliance that demonstrate that the water meets that requirement; or
</P>
<P>(3) You treat water in accordance with the requirements of § 112.46.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional management and monitoring practices.</I> (1) You must manage water used in harvesting, packing, and holding covered produce as necessary, including by establishing and following water change schedules for non-single-pass water (including recirculated water or reused water) to maintain its safe and adequate sanitary quality and minimize the potential for contamination of covered produce and food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards (for example, hazards that may be introduced into the water from soil adhering to the covered produce).
</P>
<P>(2) You must visually monitor the quality of water that you use during harvesting, packing, and holding activities for covered produce (for example, water used for washing covered produce in dump tanks, flumes, or wash tanks; and water used for cooling covered produce in hydrocoolers) for buildup of organic material (such as soil and plant debris).
</P>
<P>(3) You must maintain and monitor the temperature of water that you use during harvesting, packing, and holding activities for covered produce at a temperature that is appropriate for the commodity and operation (considering the time and depth of submersion) and that is adequate to minimize the potential for infiltration of microorganisms of public health significance into covered produce.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.45" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.45   What measures must I take for agricultural water to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce or food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discontinue use(s).</I> If you have determined or have reason to believe that your agricultural water is not safe or of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use(s) in growing, harvesting, packing, or holding covered produce as required under § 112.41, and/or if your agricultural water used as sprout irrigation water or for harvesting, packing, or holding activities does not meet the requirements in § 112.44(a) (including the microbial quality criterion), you must immediately discontinue such use(s). Before you may use the water source and/or distribution system again for the intended use(s), you must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Re-inspect the entire affected agricultural water system to the extent it is under your control, identify any conditions that are reasonably likely to introduce known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into or onto covered produce or food contact surfaces, make necessary changes, and take adequate measures to determine if your changes were effective, and as applicable, adequately ensure that your agricultural water meets the microbial quality criterion in § 112.44(a); or
</P>
<P>(2) Treat the water in accordance with the requirements of § 112.46.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implement mitigation measures.</I> (1) You must implement any mitigation measures that are reasonably necessary to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce (other than sprouts) or food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards associated with your agricultural water. Such measures must be implemented as soon as practicable and no later than 1 year after the date of your agricultural water assessment or reassessment (as required by § 112.43), except that mitigation measures for known or reasonably foreseeable hazards related to animal activity, the application of biological soil amendments of animal origin, or the presence of untreated or improperly treated human waste on adjacent or nearby lands must be implemented promptly, and no later than the same growing season as such assessment or reassessment. Mitigation measures include:
</P>
<P>(i) Making necessary changes (for example, repairs) to address any conditions that are reasonably likely to introduce such known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into or onto the covered produce or food contact surfaces;
</P>
<P>(ii) Increasing the time interval between the last direct application of agricultural water and harvest of the covered produce to allow for microbial die-off, provided you have scientifically valid supporting data and information;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increasing the time interval between harvest and the end of storage to allow for microbial die-off, and/or conducting other activities during or after harvest to allow for microbial die-off or removal, provided you have scientifically valid supporting data and information;
</P>
<P>(iv) Changing the method of water application to reduce the likelihood of contamination of the covered produce (such as by changing from overhead spray to subsurface drip irrigation of certain crops);
</P>
<P>(v) Treating the water in accordance with § 112.46; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Taking an alternative mitigation measure, provided that you satisfy the requirements of § 112.12.
</P>
<P>(2) If you fail to implement appropriate mitigation measures in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or if you determine that your mitigation measures were not effective to reduce the potential for contamination of the covered produce or food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards, you must discontinue use of the agricultural water until you have implemented mitigation measures adequate to reduce the potential for such contamination, consistent with § 112.41.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.46" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.46   What requirements apply to treating agricultural water?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any method you use to treat agricultural water (such as with physical treatment, including using a pesticide device as defined by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA); EPA-registered antimicrobial pesticide product; or other suitable method) must be effective to make the water safe and of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use(s) and/or meet the microbial quality criterion in § 112.44(a), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(b) You must deliver any treatment of agricultural water in a manner to ensure that the treated water is consistently safe and of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use(s) and, if applicable, also meets the microbial quality criterion in § 112.44(a); and
</P>
<P>(c) You must monitor any treatment of agricultural water using an adequate method and frequency to ensure that the treated water is consistently safe and of adequate sanitary quality for its intended use(s) and, if applicable, also meets the microbial quality criterion in § 112.44(a).
</P>
<P>(d) Treatment may be conducted by you or by a person or entity acting on your behalf.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.47" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.47   Who must perform the tests required under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may meet the requirements related to agricultural water testing required under §§ 112.43(c)(4)(ii) and 112.44 using:
</P>
<P>(1) Results from agricultural water testing performed by you or by a person or entity acting on your behalf; or
</P>
<P>(2) Data collected by a third party or parties, provided the water sampled by the third party or parties adequately represents your agricultural water source(s) and all other applicable requirements of this part are met.
</P>
<P>(b) Agricultural water samples must be aseptically collected and tested using methods as set forth in § 112.151, as applicable.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 112.48-112.49" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 112.48-112.49   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.50" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.50   Under this subpart, what requirements apply regarding records?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish and keep records required under this subpart in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must establish and keep the following records, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) The findings of inspections of your agricultural water systems in accordance with the requirements of § 112.42(a);
</P>
<P>(2) Your written agricultural water assessments, including descriptions of factors evaluated and written determinations, in accordance with § 112.43;
</P>
<P>(3) Scientific data or information that you rely on to support the use of an index organism, indicator organism, or other analyte, other than testing for generic <I>E.coli</I> for purposes of § 112.43(c)(4)(ii);
</P>
<P>(4) Scientific data or information that you rely on to support the frequency of testing and any microbial criterion (or criteria) you applied for purposes of § 112.43(c)(4)(ii), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) Documentation of the results of all analytical tests for purposes of compliance with this subpart, including any testing conducted under §§ 112.43 and 112.44;
</P>
<P>(6) Annual documentation of the results or certificates of compliance from a public water system required under § 112.44(c)(1) or (2), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(7) Documentation of actions you take in accordance with § 112.45;
</P>
<P>(8) Scientific data or information you rely on to support the time interval between last direct application of agricultural water and harvest in § 112.45(b)(1)(ii), and/or the time interval between harvest and end of storage and/or use of other activities during or after harvest in § 112.45(b)(1)(iii);
</P>
<P>(9) Scientific data or information you rely on to support an alternative mitigation measure that you establish and use in accordance with § 112.45(b)(1)(vi).
</P>
<P>(10) Scientific data or information you rely on to support the adequacy of a treatment method used to satisfy the requirements of § 112.46(a) and (b);
</P>
<P>(11) Documentation of the results of water treatment monitoring under § 112.46(c); and
</P>
<P>(12) Any analytical methods you use in lieu of the method that is incorporated by reference in § 112.151(a).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Biological Soil Amendments of Animal Origin and Human Waste</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.51" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.51   What requirements apply for determining the status of a biological soil amendment of animal origin?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A biological soil amendment of animal origin is treated if it has been processed to completion to adequately reduce microorganisms of public health significance in accordance with the requirements of § 112.54, or, in the case of an agricultural tea, the biological materials of animal origin used to make the tea have been so processed, the water used to make the tea is not untreated surface water, and the water used to make the tea has no detectable generic <I>Escherichia coli</I> (<I>E. coli</I>) in 100 milliliters (mL) of water.
</P>
<P>(b) A biological soil amendment of animal origin is untreated if it:
</P>
<P>(1) Has not been processed to completion in accordance with the requirements of § 112.54, or in the case of an agricultural tea, the biological materials of animal origin used to make the tea have not been so processed, or the water used to make the tea is untreated surface water, or the water used to make the tea has detectable generic <I>E. coli</I> in 100 mL of water;
</P>
<P>(2) Has become contaminated after treatment;
</P>
<P>(3) Has been recombined with an untreated biological soil amendment of animal origin;
</P>
<P>(4) Is or contains a component that is untreated waste that you know or have reason to believe is contaminated with a hazard or has been associated with foodborne illness; or
</P>
<P>(5) Is an agricultural tea made with biological materials of animal origin that contains an agricultural tea additive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.52" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.52   How must I handle, convey, and store biological soil amendments of animal origin?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must handle, convey and store any biological soil amendment of animal origin in a manner and location such that it does not become a potential source of contamination to covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, water sources, water distribution systems, and other soil amendments. Agricultural teas that are biological soil amendments of animal origin may be used in water distribution systems provided that all other requirements of this rule are met.
</P>
<P>(b) You must handle, convey and store any treated biological soil amendment of animal origin in a manner and location that minimizes the risk of it becoming contaminated by an untreated or in-process biological soil amendment of animal origin.
</P>
<P>(c) You must handle, convey, and store any biological soil amendment of animal origin that you know or have reason to believe may have become contaminated as if it was untreated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.53" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.53   What prohibitions apply regarding use of human waste?</HEAD>
<P>You may not use human waste for growing covered produce, except sewage sludge biosolids used in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 503, subpart D, or equivalent regulatory requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.54" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.54   What treatment processes are acceptable for a biological soil amendment of animal origin that I apply in the growing of covered produce?</HEAD>
<P>Each of the following treatment processes are acceptable for a biological soil amendment of animal origin that you apply in the growing of covered produce, provided that the resulting biological soil amendments are applied in accordance with the applicable requirements of § 112.56:
</P>
<P>(a) A scientifically valid controlled physical process (<I>e.g.,</I> thermal), chemical process (<I>e.g.,</I> high alkaline pH), biological process (<I>e.g.,</I> composting), or a combination of scientifically valid controlled physical, chemical and/or biological processes that has been validated to satisfy the microbial standard in § 112.55(a) for <I>Listeria monocytogenes</I> (<I>L. monocytogenes</I>), <I>Salmonella</I> species, and <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7; or
</P>
<P>(b) A scientifically valid controlled physical, chemical, or biological process, or a combination of scientifically valid controlled physical, chemical, and/or biological processes, that has been validated to satisfy the microbial standard in § 112.55(b) for <I>Salmonella</I> species and fecal coliforms. Examples of scientifically valid controlled biological (<I>e.g.,</I> composting) processes that meet the microbial standard in § 112.55(b) include:
</P>
<P>(1) Static composting that maintains aerobic (<I>i.e.,</I> oxygenated) conditions at a minimum of 131 °F (55 °C) for 3 consecutive days and is followed by adequate curing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Turned composting that maintains aerobic conditions at a minimum of 131 °F (55 °C) for 15 days (which do not have to be consecutive), with a minimum of five turnings, and is followed by adequate curing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.55" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.55   What microbial standards apply to the treatment processes in § 112.54?</HEAD>
<P>The following microbial standards apply to the treatment processes in § 112.54 as set forth in that section.
</P>
<P>(a) For <I>L. monocytogenes,</I> <I>Salmonella</I> species, and <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7, the relevant standards in the table in this paragraph (a); or
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">For the microorganism—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The microbial standard is—
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) <E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not detected using a method that can detect one colony forming unit (CFU) per 5 gram (or milliliter, if liquid is being sampled) analytical portion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) <E T="03">Salmonella</E> species</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not detected using a method that can detect three most probable numbers (MPN) per 4 grams (or milliliter, if liquid is being sampled) of total solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) <E T="03">E. coli</E> O157:H7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not detected using a method that can detect 0.3 MPN per 1 gram (or milliliter, if liquid is being sampled) analytical portion.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Salmonella</I> species are not detected using a method that can detect three MPN <I>Salmonella</I> species per 4 grams (or milliliter, if liquid is being sampled) of total solids; and less than 1,000 MPN fecal coliforms per gram (or milliliter, if liquid is being sampled) of total solids.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 26468, May 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.56" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.56   What application requirements and minimum application intervals apply to biological soil amendments of animal origin?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must apply the biological soil amendments of animal origin specified in the first column of the table in this paragraph (a) in accordance with the application requirements specified in the second column of the table in this paragraph (a) and the minimum application intervals specified in the third column of the table in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the biological soil amendment of animal origin is—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then the biological soil amendment of animal origin must be applied—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">And then the
<br/>minimum application interval is—
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1)(i) Untreated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In a manner that does not contact covered produce during application and minimizes the potential for contact with covered produce after application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Reserved].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Untreated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In a manner that does not contact covered produce during or after application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 days.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Treated by a scientifically valid controlled physical, chemical, or biological process, or combination of scientifically valid controlled physical, chemical, and/or biological processes, in accordance with the requirements of § 112.54(b) to meet the microbial standard in § 112.55(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In a manner that minimizes the potential for contact with covered produce during and after application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 days.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Treated by a scientifically valid controlled physical, chemical, or biological process, or combination of scientifically valid controlled physical, chemical, or biological processes, in accordance with the requirements of § 112.54(a) to meet the microbial standard in § 112.55(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In any manner (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, no restrictions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 days.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.60" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.60   Under this subpart, what requirements apply regarding records?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish and keep records required under this subpart in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) For any biological soil amendment of animal origin you use, you must establish and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) For a treated biological soil amendment of animal origin you receive from a third party, documentation (such as a Certificate of Conformance) at least annually that:
</P>
<P>(i) The process used to treat the biological soil amendment of animal origin is a scientifically valid process that has been carried out with appropriate process monitoring; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The biological soil amendment of animal origin has been handled, conveyed and stored in a manner and location to minimize the risk of contamination by an untreated or in process biological soil amendment of animal origin; and
</P>
<P>(2) For a treated biological soil amendment of animal origin you produce for your own covered farm(s), documentation that process controls (for example, time, temperature, and turnings) were achieved.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G-H [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Domesticated and Wild Animals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.81" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.81   How do the requirements of this subpart apply to areas where covered activities take place?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of this subpart apply when a covered activity takes place in an outdoor area or a partially-enclosed building and when, under the circumstances, there is a reasonable probability that animals will contaminate covered produce.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of this subpart do not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) When a covered activity takes place in a fully-enclosed building; or
</P>
<P>(2) To fish used in aquaculture operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.83" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.83   What requirements apply regarding grazing animals, working animals, and animal intrusion?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must take the steps set forth in paragraph (b) of this section if under the circumstances there is a reasonable probability that grazing animals, working animals, or animal intrusion will contaminate covered produce.
</P>
<P>(b) You must:
</P>
<P>(1) Assess the relevant areas used for a covered activity for evidence of potential contamination of covered produce as needed during the growing season (based on your covered produce; your practices and conditions; and your observations and experience); and
</P>
<P>(2) If significant evidence of potential contamination is found (such as observation of animals, animal excreta or crop destruction), you must evaluate whether the covered produce can be harvested in accordance with the requirements of § 112.112 and take measures reasonably necessary during growing to assist you later during harvest when you must identify, and not harvest, covered produce that is reasonably likely to be contaminated with a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.84" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.84   Does this regulation require covered farms to take actions that would constitute a “taking” of threatened or endangered species; to take measures to exclude animals from outdoor growing areas; or to destroy animal habitat or otherwise clear farm borders around outdoor growing areas or drainages?</HEAD>
<P>No. Nothing in this regulation authorizes the “taking” of threatened or endangered species as that term is defined by the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531-1544) (<I>i.e.,</I> to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct), in violation of the Endangered Species Act. This regulation does not require covered farms to take measures to exclude animals from outdoor growing areas, or to destroy animal habitat or otherwise clear farm borders around outdoor growing areas or drainages.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Growing, Harvesting, Packing, and Holding Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.111" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.111   What measures must I take if I grow, harvest, pack or hold both covered and excluded produce?</HEAD>
<P>If you grow, harvest, pack or hold produce that is not covered in this part (<I>i.e.,</I> excluded produce in accordance with § 112.2) and also conduct such activities on covered produce, and the excluded produce is not grown, harvested, packed or held in accordance with this part, you must take measures during these covered activities, as applicable, to:
</P>
<P>(a) Keep covered produce separate from excluded produce (except when covered produce and excluded produce are placed in the same container for distribution); and
</P>
<P>(b) Adequately clean and sanitize, as necessary, any food contact surfaces that contact excluded produce before using such food contact surfaces for covered activities on covered produce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.112" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.112   What measures must I take immediately prior to and during harvest activities?</HEAD>
<P>You must take all measures reasonably necessary to identify, and not harvest, covered produce that is reasonably likely to be contaminated with a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard, including steps to identify and not harvest covered produce that is visibly contaminated with animal excreta. At a minimum, identifying and not harvesting covered produce that is reasonably likely to be contaminated with animal excreta or that is visibly contaminated with animal excreta requires a visual assessment of the growing area and all covered produce to be harvested, regardless of the harvest method used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.113" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.113   How must I handle harvested covered produce during covered activities?</HEAD>
<P>You must handle harvested covered produce during covered activities in a manner that protects against contamination with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards—for example, by avoiding, to the degree practicable, contact of cut surfaces of harvested produce with soil.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.114" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.114   What requirements apply to dropped covered produce?</HEAD>
<P>You must not distribute dropped covered produce. Dropped covered produce is covered produce that drops to the ground before harvest. Dropped covered produce does not include root crops that grow underground (such as carrots), crops that grow on the ground (such as cantaloupe), or produce that is intentionally dropped to the ground as part of harvesting (such as almonds).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.115   What measures must I take when packaging covered produce?</HEAD>
<P>You must package covered produce in a manner that prevents the formation of <I>Clostridium botulinum</I> toxin if such toxin is a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard (such as for mushrooms).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.116" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.116   What measures must I take when using food-packing (including food packaging) material?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must use food-packing material that is adequate for its intended use, which includes being:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleanable or designed for single use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Unlikely to support growth or transfer of bacteria.
</P>
<P>(b) If you reuse food-packing material, you must take adequate steps to ensure that food contact surfaces are clean, such as by cleaning food-packing containers or using a clean liner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Equipment, Tools, Buildings, and Sanitation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.121" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.121   What equipment and tools are subject to the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>Equipment and tools subject to the requirements of this subpart are those that are intended to, or likely to, contact covered produce; and those instruments or controls used to measure, regulate, or record conditions to control or prevent the growth of microorganisms of public health significance. Examples include knives, implements, mechanical harvesters, waxing machinery, cooling equipment (including hydrocoolers), grading belts, sizing equipment, palletizing equipment, and equipment used to store or convey harvested covered produce (such as containers, bins, food-packing material, dump tanks, flumes, and vehicles or other equipment used for transport that are intended to, or likely to, contact covered produce).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.122" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.122   What buildings are subject to the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>Buildings subject to the requirements of this subpart include:
</P>
<P>(a) Any fully- or partially-enclosed building used for covered activities, including minimal structures that have a roof but do not have any walls; and
</P>
<P>(b) Storage sheds, buildings, or other structures used to store food contact surfaces (such as harvest containers and food-packing materials).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.123" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.123   What general requirements apply regarding equipment and tools subject to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements apply regarding equipment and tools subject to this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) You must use equipment and tools that are of adequate design, construction, and workmanship to enable them to be adequately cleaned and properly maintained; and
</P>
<P>(b) Equipment and tools must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Installed and maintained as to facilitate cleaning of the equipment and of all adjacent spaces; and
</P>
<P>(2) Stored and maintained to protect covered produce from being contaminated with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards and to prevent the equipment and tools from attracting and harboring pests.
</P>
<P>(c) Seams on food contact surfaces of equipment and tools that you use must be either smoothly bonded, or maintained to minimize accumulation of dirt, filth, food particles, and organic material and thus minimize the opportunity for harborage or growth of microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) You must inspect, maintain, and clean and, when necessary and appropriate, sanitize all food contact surfaces of equipment and tools used in covered activities as frequently as reasonably necessary to protect against contamination of covered produce.
</P>
<P>(2) You must maintain and clean all non-food-contact surfaces of equipment and tools subject to this subpart used during harvesting, packing, and holding as frequently as reasonably necessary to protect against contamination of covered produce.
</P>
<P>(e) If you use equipment such as pallets, forklifts, tractors, and vehicles such that they are intended to, or likely to, contact covered produce, you must do so in a manner that minimizes the potential for contamination of covered produce or food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.124" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.124   What requirements apply to instruments and controls used to measure, regulate, or record?</HEAD>
<P>Instruments or controls you use to measure, regulate, or record temperatures, hydrogen-ion concentration (pH), sanitizer efficacy or other conditions, in order to control or prevent the growth of microorganisms of public health significance, must be:
</P>
<P>(a) Accurate and precise as necessary and appropriate in keeping with their purpose;
</P>
<P>(b) Adequately maintained; and
</P>
<P>(c) Adequate in number for their designated uses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.125" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.125   What requirements apply to equipment that is subject to this subpart used in the transport of covered produce?</HEAD>
<P>Equipment that is subject to this subpart that you use to transport covered produce must be:
</P>
<P>(a) Adequately clean before use in transporting covered produce; and
</P>
<P>(b) Adequate for use in transporting covered produce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.126" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.126   What requirements apply to my buildings?</HEAD>
<P>(a) All of the following requirements apply regarding buildings:
</P>
<P>(1) Buildings must be suitable in size, construction, and design to facilitate maintenance and sanitary operations for covered activities to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce or food contact surfaces with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards. Buildings must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide sufficient space for placement of equipment and storage of materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit proper precautions to be taken to reduce the potential for contamination of covered produce, food contact surfaces, or packing materials with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards. The potential for contamination must be reduced by effective design including the separation of operations in which contamination is likely to occur, by one or more of the following means: Location, time, partition, enclosed systems, or other effective means; and
</P>
<P>(2) You must provide adequate drainage in all areas where normal operations release or discharge water or other liquid waste on the ground or floor of the building.
</P>
<P>(b) You must implement measures to prevent contamination of your covered produce and food contact surfaces in your buildings, as appropriate, considering the potential for such contamination through:
</P>
<P>(1) Floors, walls, ceilings, fixtures, ducts, or pipes; and
</P>
<P>(2) Drip or condensate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.127" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.127   What requirements apply regarding domesticated animals in and around a fully-enclosed building?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must take reasonable precautions to prevent contamination of covered produce, food contact surfaces, and food-packing materials in fully-enclosed buildings with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards from domesticated animals by:
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding domesticated animals from fully-enclosed buildings where covered produce, food contact surfaces, or food-packing material is exposed; or
</P>
<P>(2) Separating domesticated animals in a fully enclosed building from an area where a covered activity is conducted on covered produce by location, time, or partition.
</P>
<P>(b) Guard or guide dogs may be allowed in some areas of a fully enclosed building if the presence of the dogs is unlikely to result in contamination of produce, food contact surfaces, or food-packing materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.128" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.128   What requirements apply regarding pest control in buildings?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must take those measures reasonably necessary to protect covered produce, food contact surfaces, and food-packing materials from contamination by pests in buildings, including routine monitoring for pests as necessary and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) For fully-enclosed buildings, you must take measures to exclude pests from your buildings.
</P>
<P>(c) For partially-enclosed buildings, you must take measures to prevent pests from becoming established in your buildings (such as by use of screens or by monitoring for the presence of pests and removing them when present).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.129" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.129   What requirements apply to toilet facilities?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements apply to toilet facilities:
</P>
<P>(a) You must provide personnel with adequate, readily accessible toilet facilities, including toilet facilities readily accessible to growing areas during harvesting activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Your toilet facilities must be designed, located, and maintained to:
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent contamination of covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, water sources, and water distribution systems with human waste;
</P>
<P>(2) Be directly accessible for servicing, be serviced and cleaned at a frequency sufficient to ensure suitability of use, and be kept supplied with toilet paper; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for the sanitary disposal of waste and toilet paper.
</P>
<P>(c) During growing activities that take place in a fully-enclosed building, and during covered harvesting, packing, or holding activities, you must provide a hand-washing station in sufficiently close proximity to toilet facilities to make it practical for persons who use the toilet facility to wash their hands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.130   What requirements apply for hand-washing facilities?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements apply to hand-washing facilities:
</P>
<P>(a) You must provide personnel with adequate, readily accessible hand-washing facilities during growing activities that take place in a fully-enclosed building, and during covered harvest, packing, or holding activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Your hand-washing facilities must be furnished with:
</P>
<P>(1) Soap (or other effective surfactant);
</P>
<P>(2) Running water that satisfies the requirements of § 112.44(a) for water used to wash hands; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate drying devices (such as single service towels, sanitary towel service, or electric hand dryers).
</P>
<P>(c) You must provide for appropriate disposal of waste (for example, waste water and used single-service towels) associated with a hand-washing facility and take appropriate measures to prevent waste water from a hand-washing facility from contaminating covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, agricultural water sources, and agricultural water distribution systems with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards.
</P>
<P>(d) You may not use antiseptic hand rubs as a substitute for soap (or other effective surfactant) and water.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.131" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.131   What must I do to control and dispose of sewage?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements apply for the control and disposal of sewage:
</P>
<P>(a) You must dispose of sewage into an adequate sewage or septic system or through other adequate means.
</P>
<P>(b) You must maintain sewage and septic systems in a manner that prevents contamination of covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, agricultural water sources, and agricultural water distribution systems with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) You must manage and dispose of leakages or spills of human waste in a manner that prevents contamination of covered produce, and prevents or minimizes contamination of food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, agricultural water sources, or agricultural water distribution systems.
</P>
<P>(d) After a significant event (such as flooding or an earthquake) that could negatively impact a sewage or septic system, you must take appropriate steps to ensure that sewage and septic systems continue to operate in a manner that does not contaminate covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, agricultural water sources, or agricultural water distribution systems.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.132" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.132   What must I do to control and dispose of trash, litter, and waste in areas used for covered activities?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements apply to the control and disposal of trash, litter, and waste in areas used for covered activities:
</P>
<P>(a) You must convey, store, and dispose of trash, litter and waste to:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimize the potential for trash, litter, or waste to attract or harbor pests; and
</P>
<P>(2) Protect against contamination of covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, agricultural water sources, and agricultural water distribution systems with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards.
</P>
<P>(b) You must adequately operate systems for waste treatment and disposal so that they do not constitute a potential source of contamination in areas used for a covered activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.133" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.133   What requirements apply to plumbing?</HEAD>
<P>The plumbing must be of an adequate size and design and be adequately installed and maintained to:
</P>
<P>(a) Distribute water under pressure as needed, in sufficient quantities, in all areas where used for covered activities, for sanitary operations, or for hand-washing and toilet facilities;
</P>
<P>(b) Properly convey sewage and liquid disposable waste;
</P>
<P>(c) Avoid being a source of contamination to covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, or agricultural water sources; and
</P>
<P>(d) Not allow backflow from, or cross connection between, piping systems that discharge waste water or sewage and piping systems that carry water used for a covered activity, for sanitary operations, or for use in hand-washing facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.134" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.134   What must I do to control animal excreta and litter from domesticated animals that are under my control?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you have domesticated animals, to prevent contamination of covered produce, food contact surfaces, areas used for a covered activity, agricultural water sources, or agricultural water distribution systems with animal waste, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequately control their excreta and litter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain a system for control of animal excreta and litter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.11.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.140   Under this subpart, what requirements apply regarding records?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish and keep records required under this subpart in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must establish and keep documentation of the date and method of cleaning and sanitizing of equipment subject to this subpart used in:
</P>
<P>(1) Growing operations for sprouts; and
</P>
<P>(2) Covered harvesting, packing, or holding activities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Sprouts</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.141" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.141   What commodities are subject to this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this subpart apply to growing, harvesting, packing, and holding of all sprouts, except soil- or substrate-grown sprouts harvested without their roots.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.142" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.142   What requirements apply to seeds or beans used to grow sprouts?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements of this part, all of the following requirements apply to seeds or beans used to grow sprouts.
</P>
<P>(a) You must take measures reasonably necessary to prevent the introduction of known or reasonably foreseeable hazards into or onto seeds or beans that you will use for sprouting.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, if you know or have reason to believe that a lot of seeds or beans may be contaminated with a pathogen (either because it has been associated with foodborne illness; or based on microbial test results, including a positive finding of a pathogen in tests required under § 112.144(b)), you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Discontinue use of all seeds or beans from that lot for sprout production and ensure that sprouts grown from that lot of seeds or beans do not enter commerce; and
</P>
<P>(2) Report the information (association with illness and/or findings of microbial testing) to the seed grower, distributor, supplier, or other entity from whom you received the seeds or beans.
</P>
<P>(c) If your reason to believe that a lot of seeds or beans may be contaminated was based only on microbial test results:
</P>
<P>(1) You are not required to take the steps set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if you treat your lot of seeds or beans with a process that is reasonably certain to achieve destruction or elimination in the seeds or beans of the most resistant microorganisms of public health significance that are likely to occur in the seeds or beans; or
</P>
<P>(2) You are not required to take the steps set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section if you later reasonably determine, through appropriate followup actions, that the lot of seeds or beans is not the source of contamination (<I>e.g.,</I> the lot of seeds or beans is not the source of a pathogen found in spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts).
</P>
<P>(d) You must visually examine seeds and beans, and packaging used to ship seeds or beans, for signs of potential contamination with known or reasonably foreseeable hazards.
</P>
<P>(e) You must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Treat seeds or beans that will be used to grow sprouts using a scientifically valid method to reduce microorganisms of public health significance; or
</P>
<P>(2) Rely on prior treatment of seeds or beans conducted by a grower, distributor, or supplier of the seeds or beans (whether to fulfill this requirement completely or for the purpose of considering such prior treatment when applying appropriate additional treatment of the seeds or beans at the covered farm immediately before sprouting), provided that you obtain documentation (such as a Certificate of Conformance) from the grower, distributor, or supplier that:
</P>
<P>(i) The prior treatment was conducted using a scientifically valid method to reduce microorganisms of public health significance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The treated seeds or beans were handled and packaged following the treatment in a manner that minimizes the potential for contamination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.143" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.143   What measures must I take for growing, harvesting, packing, and holding sprouts?</HEAD>
<P>You must take all of the following measures for growing, harvesting, packing, and holding sprouts:
</P>
<P>(a) You must grow, harvest, pack, and hold sprouts in a fully-enclosed building.
</P>
<P>(b) Any food contact surfaces you use to grow, harvest, pack, or hold sprouts must be cleaned and sanitized before contact with sprouts or seeds or beans used to grow sprouts.
</P>
<P>(c) You must conduct testing during growing, harvesting, packing, and holding sprouts, as specified in § 112.144.
</P>
<P>(d) You must establish and implement a written environmental monitoring plan as specified in § 112.145.
</P>
<P>(e) You must take certain actions if you detect <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> in the growing, harvesting, packing, or holding environment, as specified in § 112.146.
</P>
<P>(f) You must establish and implement a written sampling plan to test spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts for pathogens as specified in § 112.147.
</P>
<P>(g) You must take certain actions if the samples of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts test positive for a pathogen as specified in § 112.148.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.144" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.144   What testing must I do during growing, harvesting, packing, and holding sprouts?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following testing must be done during growing, harvesting, packing, and holding sprouts:
</P>
<P>(a) You must test the growing, harvesting, packing, and holding environment for <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> in accordance with the requirements of § 112.145.
</P>
<P>(b) You must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Test spent sprout irrigation water from each production batch of sprouts for <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7, <I>Salmonella</I> species, and any pathogens meeting the criteria in paragraph (c) of this section, in accordance with the requirements of § 112.147; or
</P>
<P>(2) If testing spent sprout irrigation water is not practicable (for example, soil-grown sprouts harvested with roots or for hydroponically grown sprouts that use very little water), test each production batch of sprouts at the in-process stage (<I>i.e.,</I> while sprouts are still growing) for <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7, <I>Salmonella</I> species, and any pathogens meeting the criteria in paragraph (c) of this section, in accordance with the requirements of § 112.147.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7 and <I>Salmonella</I> species, you must conduct tests as provided in paragraph (b) of this section for additional pathogens when the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) Testing for the pathogen is reasonably necessary to minimize the risk of serious adverse health consequences or death from use of, or exposure to, sprouts; and
</P>
<P>(2) A scientifically valid test method for the pathogen is available to detect the pathogen in spent sprout irrigation water (or sprouts).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.145   What requirements apply to testing the environment for Listeria species or L. monocytogenes?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following testing requirements apply for the growing, harvesting, packing, and holding environment for <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) You must establish and implement a written environmental monitoring plan that is designed to identify <I>L. monocytogenes</I> if it is present in the growing, harvesting, packing, or holding environment.
</P>
<P>(b) Your written environmental monitoring plan must be directed to sampling and testing for either <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Your written environmental monitoring plan must include a sampling plan that specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) What you will test collected samples for (<I>i.e., Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) How often you will collect environmental samples, which must be no less than monthly, and at what point during production you will collect the samples; and
</P>
<P>(3) Sample collection sites; the number and location of sampling sites must be sufficient to determine whether measures are effective and must include appropriate food contact surfaces and non-food-contact surfaces of equipment, and other surfaces within the growing, harvesting, packing, and holding environment.
</P>
<P>(d) You must aseptically collect environmental samples and test them for <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> using a method as set forth in § 112.152.
</P>
<P>(e) Your written environmental monitoring plan must include a corrective action plan that, at a minimum, requires you to take the actions in § 112.146, and details when and how you will accomplish those actions, if the growing, harvesting, packing, or holding environment tests positive for <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.146" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.146   What actions must I take if the growing, harvesting, packing, or holding environment tests positive for Listeria species or L. monocytogenes?</HEAD>
<P>You must, at a minimum, take the following actions if you detect <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> in the growing, harvesting, packing, or holding environment:
</P>
<P>(a) Conduct additional testing of surfaces and areas surrounding the area where <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> was detected to evaluate the extent of the problem, including the potential for <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> to have become established in a niche;
</P>
<P>(b) Clean and sanitize the affected surfaces and surrounding areas;
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct additional sampling and testing to determine whether the <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> has been eliminated;
</P>
<P>(d) Conduct finished product testing when appropriate;
</P>
<P>(e) Perform any other actions necessary to prevent recurrence of the contamination; and
</P>
<P>(f) Take appropriate action to prevent any food that is adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act from entering into commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.147" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.147   What must I do to collect and test samples of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts for pathogens?</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements apply for collecting and testing samples of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts for pathogens as required in § 112.144(b):
</P>
<P>(a) You must establish and implement a written sampling plan that identifies the number and location of samples (of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts) to be collected for each production batch of sprouts to ensure that the collected samples are representative of the production batch when testing for contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with the written sampling plan required under paragraph (a) of this section, you must aseptically collect samples of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts, and test the collected samples for pathogens using a method as set forth in § 112.153. You must not allow the production batch of sprouts to enter into commerce unless the results of the testing of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts are negative for <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7, <I>Salmonella</I> species, and, if applicable, a pathogen meeting the criteria in § 112.144(c).
</P>
<P>(c) Your written sampling plan must include a corrective action plan that at a minimum, requires you to take the actions in § 112.148, and details when and how you will accomplish those actions, if the samples of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts test positive for <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7, <I>Salmonella</I> species, or a pathogen meeting the criteria in § 112.144(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.148" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.148   What actions must I take if the samples of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts test positive for a pathogen?</HEAD>
<P>You must, at a minimum, take the following actions if the samples of spent sprout irrigation water or sprouts test positive for <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7, <I>Salmonella</I> species, or a pathogen meeting the criteria in § 112.144(c):
</P>
<P>(a) Take appropriate action to prevent any food that is adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act from entering into commerce;
</P>
<P>(b) Take the steps required in § 112.142(b) with respect to the lot of seeds or beans used to grow the affected production batch of sprouts (except as allowed under § 112.142(c));
</P>
<P>(c) Clean and sanitize the affected surfaces and surrounding areas; and
</P>
<P>(d) Perform any other actions necessary to prevent reoccurrence of the contamination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.12.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.150   Under this subpart, what requirements apply regarding records?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish and keep records required under this subpart in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) You must establish and keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation of your treatment of seeds or beans to reduce microorganisms of public health significance in the seeds or beans, at your farm; or alternatively, documentation (such as a Certificate of Conformance) from your seed supplier that seeds or beans are treated to reduce microorganisms of public health significance and are appropriately handled and packaged following the treatment, in accordance with the requirements of § 112.142(e);
</P>
<P>(2) Your written environmental monitoring plan in accordance with the requirements of § 112.145;
</P>
<P>(3) Your written sampling plan for each production batch of sprouts in accordance with the requirements of § 112.147(a) and (c);
</P>
<P>(4) Documentation of the results of all analytical tests conducted for purposes of compliance with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) Any analytical methods you use in lieu of the methods that are incorporated by reference in §§ 112.152 and 112.153; and
</P>
<P>(6) Documentation of actions you take in accordance with §§ 112.142(b) and (c), 112.146, and 112.148.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Analytical Methods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.151" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.151   What methods must I use to test the quality of water to satisfy the requirements of subpart E of this part?</HEAD>
<P>You must test the quality of water using:
</P>
<P>(a) The method of analysis published by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), “Method 1603: <I>Escherichia coli</I> (<I>E. coli</I>) in Water by Membrane Filtration Using Modified membrane-Thermotolerant <I>Escherichia coli</I> Agar (Modified mTEC), EPA-821-R-09-007),” December, 2009. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from EPA, Office of Water (4303T), 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20460. You may inspect a copy at FDA's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A scientifically valid method that is at least equivalent to the method of analysis in § 112.151(a) in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity; or
</P>
<P>(2) For any other indicator of fecal contamination, index organism, or other analyte you may test for pursuant to § 112.43(d), a scientifically valid method.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 37518, May 6, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.152" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.152   What methods must I use to test the growing, harvesting, packing, and holding environment for Listeria species or L. monocytogenes to satisfy the requirements of § 112.144(a)?</HEAD>
<P>You must test the growing, harvesting, packing, and holding environment for <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L.</I> <I>monocytogenes</I> using:
</P>
<P>(a) The method of analysis described in “Testing Methodology for <I>Listeria</I> species or <I>L. monocytogenes</I> in Environmental Samples,” Version 1, October 2015, U.S. Food and Drug Administration. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 5. You may obtain a copy from, and/or inspect a copy at, the Division of Produce Safety, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN), U.S. Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1600; FDA's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039; <I>http://www.fda.gov/fsma</I>; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>; or
</P>
<P>(b) A scientifically valid method that is at least equivalent to the method of analysis in § 112.152(a) in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.153" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.153   What methods must I use to test spent sprout irrigation water (or sprouts) from each production batch of sprouts for pathogens to satisfy the requirements of § 112.144(b) and (c)?</HEAD>
<P>You must test spent sprout irrigation water (or sprouts) from each production batch for pathogens using:
</P>
<P>(a) For <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7, <I>Salmonella</I> species:
</P>
<P>(1) The method of analysis described in “Testing Methodologies for <I>E. coli</I> O157:H7 and <I>Salmonella</I> species in Spent Sprout Irrigation Water (or Sprouts),” Version 1, October 2015, U.S. Food and Drug Administration. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 5. You may obtain a copy from, and/or inspect a copy at, the Division of Produce Safety, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1600; FDA's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039; <I>http://www.fda.gov/fsma</I>; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>; or
</P>
<P>(2) A scientifically valid method that is at least equivalent to the method of analysis in § 112.153(a)(1) in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity; and
</P>
<P>(b) For any other pathogen(s) meeting the criteria in § 112.144(c), a scientifically valid method.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.161" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.161   What general requirements apply to records required under this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise specified, all records required under this part must:
</P>
<P>(1) Include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and location of your farm;
</P>
<P>(ii) Actual values and observations obtained during monitoring;
</P>
<P>(iii) An adequate description (such as the commodity name, or the specific variety or brand name of a commodity, and, when available, any lot number or other identifier) of covered produce applicable to the record;
</P>
<P>(iv) The location of a growing area (for example, a specific field) or other area (for example, a specific packing shed) applicable to the record; and
</P>
<P>(v) The date and time of the activity documented;
</P>
<P>(2) Be created at the time an activity is performed or observed;
</P>
<P>(3) Be accurate, legible, and indelible; and
</P>
<P>(4) Be dated, and signed or initialed by the person who performed the activity documented.
</P>
<P>(b) Records required under §§ 112.7(b); 112.30(b); 112.50(b)(2), (5), (7), and (11); 112.60(b)(2); 112.140(b)(1) and (2); and 112.150(b)(1), (4), and (6) must be reviewed, dated, and signed, within a reasonable time after the records are made, by a supervisor or responsible party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 12491, Apr. 2, 2019; 89 FR 37519, May 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.162" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.162   Where must I store records?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Offsite storage of records is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review.
</P>
<P>(b) Electronic records are considered to be onsite at your farm if they are accessible from an onsite location at your farm.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.163" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.163   May I use existing records to satisfy the requirements of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Existing records (<I>e.g.,</I> records that are kept to comply with other Federal, State, or local regulations, or for any other reason) do not need to be duplicated if they contain all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this part. Existing records may be supplemented as necessary to include all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The information required by this part does not need to be kept in one set of records. If existing records contain some of the required information, any new information required by this part may be kept either separately or combined with the existing records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.164" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.164   How long must I keep records?</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) You must keep records required by this part for at least 2 years past the date the record was created.
</P>
<P>(2) Records that a farm relies on during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year to satisfy the criteria for a qualified exemption, in accordance with §§ 112.5 and 112.7, must be retained as long as necessary to support the farm's status during the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) Records that relate to the general adequacy of the equipment or processes or records that relate to analyses, sampling, or action plans being used by a farm, including the results of scientific studies, tests, and evaluations, must be retained at the farm for at least 2 years after the use of such equipment or processes, or records related to analyses, sampling, or action plans, is discontinued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.165" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.165   What formats are acceptable for the records I keep?</HEAD>
<P>You must keep records as:
</P>
<P>(a) Original records;
</P>
<P>(b) True copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records); or
</P>
<P>(c) Electronic records. Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this part and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this part, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.166" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.166   What requirements apply for making records available and accessible to FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must have all records required under this part readily available and accessible during the retention period for inspection and copying by FDA upon oral or written request, except that you have 24 hours to obtain records you keep offsite and make them available and accessible to FDA for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(b) If you use electronic techniques to keep records, or to keep true copies of records, or if you use reduction techniques such as microfilm to keep true copies of records, you must provide the records to FDA in a format in which they are accessible and legible.
</P>
<P>(c) If your farm is closed for a prolonged period, the records may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location but must be returned to your farm within 24 hours for official review upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.167" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.14.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.167   Can records that I provide to FDA be disclosed to persons outside of FDA?</HEAD>
<P>Records obtained by FDA in accordance with this part are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Variances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.171" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.171   Who may request a variance from the requirements of this part?</HEAD>
<P>A State, Federally-recognized tribe (or “tribe”), or a foreign country from which food is imported into the United States may request a variance from one or more requirements of this part, where the State, tribe, or foreign country determines that:
</P>
<P>(a) The variance is necessary in light of local growing conditions; and
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures, processes, and practices to be followed under the variance are reasonably likely to ensure that the produce is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and to provide the same level of public health protection as the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.172" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.172   How may a State, tribe, or foreign country request a variance from one or more requirements of this part?</HEAD>
<P>To request a variance from one or more requirements of this part, the competent authority (<I>i.e.,</I> the regulatory authority for food safety) for a State, tribe, or a foreign country must submit a petition under § 10.30 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.173" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.173   What must be included in the Statement of Grounds in a petition requesting a variance?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter, the Statement of Grounds in a petition requesting a variance must:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide a statement that the applicable State, tribe, or foreign country has determined that the variance is necessary in light of local growing conditions and that the procedures, processes, and practices to be followed under the variance are reasonably likely to ensure that the produce is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act and to provide the same level of public health protection as the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Describe with particularity the variance requested, including the persons to whom the variance would apply and the provision(s) of this part to which the variance would apply;
</P>
<P>(c) Present information demonstrating that the procedures, processes, and practices to be followed under the variance are reasonably likely to ensure that the produce is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 342) and to provide the same level of public health protection as the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.174" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.174   What information submitted in a petition requesting a variance or submitted in comments on such a petition are publicly available?</HEAD>
<P>We will presume that information submitted in a petition requesting a variance and comments submitted on such a petition, including a request that a variance be applied to its similarly situated persons, does not contain information exempt from public disclosure under part 20 of this chapter and will be made public as part of the docket associated with this request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.175" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.175   Who responds to a petition requesting a variance?</HEAD>
<P>The Director or Deputy Directors of the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN), or the Director, Office of Compliance, CFSAN, responds to a request for a variance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.176" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.176   What process applies to a petition requesting a variance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, the procedures set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter govern our response to a petition requesting a variance.
</P>
<P>(b) Under § 10.30(h)(3) of this chapter, we will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> requesting information and views on a filed petition, including information and views from persons who could be affected by the variance if the petition were to be granted (<I>e.g.,</I> because their farm is covered by the petition or as a person similarly situated to persons covered by the petition).
</P>
<P>(c) Under § 10.30(e)(3) of this chapter, we will respond to the petitioner in writing and will also make public a notice on FDA's Web site announcing our decision to either grant or deny the petition.
</P>
<P>(1) If we grant the petition, either in whole or in part, we will specify the persons to whom the variance applies and the provision(s) of this part to which the variance applies.
</P>
<P>(2) If we deny the petition (including partial denials), our written response to the petitioner and our public notice announcing our decision to deny the petition will explain the reason(s) for the denial.
</P>
<P>(d) We will make readily accessible to the public, and periodically update, a list of filed petitions requesting variances, including the status of each petition (for example, pending, granted, or denied).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.177" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.177   Can an approved variance apply to any person other than those identified in the petition requesting that variance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State, tribe, or a foreign country that believes that a variance requested by a petition submitted by another State, tribe, or foreign country should also apply to similarly situated persons in its jurisdiction may request that the variance be applied to its similarly situated persons by submitting comments in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter. These comments must include the information required in § 112.173. If FDA determines that these comments should instead be treated as a separate request for a variance, FDA will notify the State, tribe, or foreign country that submitted these comments that a separate request must be submitted in accordance with §§ 112.172 and 112.173.
</P>
<P>(b) If we grant a petition requesting a variance, in whole or in part, we may specify that the variance also applies to persons in a specific location who are similarly situated to those identified in the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) If we specify that the variance also applies to persons in a specific location who are similarly situated to those identified in the petition, we will inform the applicable State, tribe, or foreign country where the similarly situated persons are located of our decision in writing and will publish a notice on our Web site announcing our decision to apply the variance to similarly situated persons in that particular location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.178" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.178   Under what circumstances may FDA deny a petition requesting a variance?</HEAD>
<P>We may deny a variance request if it does not provide the information required under § 112.173 (including the requirements of § 10.30 of this chapter), or if we determine that the variance is not reasonably likely to ensure that the produce is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act and to provide the same level of public health protection as the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.179" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.179   When does a variance approved by FDA become effective?</HEAD>
<P>A variance approved by FDA becomes effective on the date of our written decision on the petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.180   Under what circumstances may FDA modify or revoke an approved variance?</HEAD>
<P>We may modify or revoke a variance if we determine that such variance is not reasonably likely to ensure that the produce is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and to provide the same level of public health protection as the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.181" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.181   What procedures apply if FDA determines that an approved variance should be modified or revoked?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We will provide the following notifications:
</P>
<P>(1) We will notify a State, tribe, or a foreign country directly, in writing at the address identified in its petition, if we determine that a variance granted in response to its petition should be modified or revoked. Our direct, written notification will provide the State, tribe, or foreign country with an opportunity to request an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) We will publish a notice of our determination that a variance should be modified or revoked in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This notice will establish a public docket so that interested parties may submit written comments on our determination.
</P>
<P>(3) When applicable, we will:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify in writing any States, tribes, or foreign countries where a variance applies to similarly situated persons of our determination that the variance should be modified or revoked;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide those States, tribes, or foreign countries with an opportunity to request an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section public notification of our decision to modify or revoke the variance granted to States, tribes, or foreign countries in which similarly situated persons are located.
</P>
<P>(b) We will consider submissions from affected States, tribes, or foreign countries and from other interested parties as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) We will consider requests for hearings by affected States, tribes, or foreign countries under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) If FDA grants a hearing, we will provide the State, tribe, or foreign country with an opportunity to make an oral submission. We will provide notice on our Web site of the hearing, including the time, date, and place of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) If more than one State, tribe, or foreign country requests an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter about our determination that a particular variance should be modified or revoked, we may consolidate such requests (for example, into a single hearing).
</P>
<P>(2) We will consider written submissions submitted to the public docket from interested parties.
</P>
<P>(c) We will provide notice of our final decision as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) On the basis of the administrative record, FDA will issue a written decision, as provided for under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) We will publish a notice of our decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The effective date of the decision will be the date of publication of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.182" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.15.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.182   What are the permissible types of variances that may be granted?</HEAD>
<P>A variance(s) may be requested for one or more requirements in subparts A through O of this part. Examples of permissible types of variances include:
</P>
<P>(a) Variance from the microbial quality criteria when agricultural water is used during growing activities for covered produce (other than sprouts) using a direct water application method, established in § 112.44(b);
</P>
<P>(b) Variance from the microbial die-off rate that is used to determine the time interval between last irrigation and harvest, and/or the accompanying maximum time interval, established in § 112.45(b)(1)(i); and
</P>
<P>(c) Variance from the approach or frequency for testing water used for purposes that are subject to the requirements of § 112.44(b), established in § 112.46(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Compliance and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.192" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.192   What is the applicability and status of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The failure to comply with the requirements of this part, issued under section 419 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, is a prohibited act under section 301(vv) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria and definitions in this part apply in determining whether a food is:
</P>
<P>(1) Adulterated within the meaning of:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 402(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that the food has been grown, harvested, packed, or held under such conditions that it is unfit for food; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 402(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that the food has been prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions whereby it may have become contaminated with filth, or whereby it may have been rendered injurious to health;
</P>
<P>or
</P>
<P>(2) In violation of section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 264).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.193" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.193   What are the provisions for coordination of education and enforcement?</HEAD>
<P>Under section 419(b)(2)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, FDA coordinates education and enforcement activities by State, territorial, tribal, and local officials by helping develop education, training, and enforcement approaches.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Withdrawal of Qualified Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.201" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.201   Under what circumstances can FDA withdraw a qualified exemption in accordance with the requirements of § 112.5?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We may withdraw your qualified exemption under § 112.5:
</P>
<P>(1) In the event of an active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak that is directly linked to your farm; or
</P>
<P>(2) If we determine that it is necessary to protect the public health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak based on conduct or conditions associated with your farm that are material to the safety of the food that would otherwise be covered produce grown, harvested, packed or held at your farm.
</P>
<P>(b) Before FDA issues an order to withdraw your qualified exemption, FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) May consider one or more other actions to protect the public health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak, including a warning letter, recall, administrative detention, refusal of food offered for import, seizure, and injunction;
</P>
<P>(2) Must notify the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm, in writing, of circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw the exemption, and provide an opportunity for the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm to respond in writing, within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the notification, to FDA's notification; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must consider the actions taken by the farm to address the circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.202" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.202   What procedure will FDA use to withdraw an exemption?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FDA Division Director in whose division the farm is located (or, in the case of a foreign farm, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition), or an FDA official senior to either such Director, must approve an order to withdraw the exemption before the order is issued.
</P>
<P>(b) Any officer or qualified employee of FDA may issue an order to withdraw the exemption after it has been approved in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA must issue an order to withdraw the exemption to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA must issue an order to withdraw the exemption in writing, signed and dated by the officer or qualified employee of FDA who is issuing the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16552, Mar. 24, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.203" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.203   What information must FDA include in an order to withdraw a qualified exemption?</HEAD>
<P>An order to withdraw a qualified exemption applicable to a farm under § 112.5 must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The date of the order;
</P>
<P>(b) The name, address and location of the farm;
</P>
<P>(c) A brief, general statement of the reasons for the order, including information relevant to one or both of the following circumstances that leads FDA to issue the order:
</P>
<P>(1) An active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak that is directly linked to the farm; or
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct or conditions associated with a farm that are material to the safety of the food that would otherwise be covered produce grown, harvested, packed and held at such farm.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement that the farm must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with subparts B through O of this part on the date that is 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; or
</P>
<P>(2) Appeal the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order in accordance with the requirements of § 112.206.
</P>
<P>(e) A statement that a farm may request that FDA reinstate an exemption that was withdrawn by following the procedures in § 112.213;
</P>
<P>(f) The text of section 419(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(g) A statement that any informal hearing on an appeal of the order must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter, with certain exceptions described in § 112.208;
</P>
<P>(h) The mailing address, telephone number, email address, fax number, and name of the FDA Division Director in whose division the farm is located (or for foreign farms, the same information for the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition); and
</P>
<P>(i) The name and the title of the FDA representative who approved the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16552, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.204" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.204   What must I do if I receive an order to withdraw a qualified exemption applicable to my farm?</HEAD>
<P>The owner, operator, or agent in charge of a farm that receives an order to withdraw a qualified exemption applicable to that farm under § 112.5 must either:
</P>
<P>(a) Comply with applicable requirements of this part within 120 calendar days of the date from receipt of the order or, if operations have ceased and will not resume within 120 calendar days, before the beginning of operations in the next growing season, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; or
</P>
<P>(b) Appeal the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order in accordance with the requirements of § 112.206.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.205" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.205   Can I appeal or request a hearing on an order to withdraw a qualified exemption applicable to my farm?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Submission of an appeal, including submission of a request for an informal hearing, will not operate to delay or stay any administrative action, including enforcement action by FDA, unless the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, as a matter of discretion, determines that delay or a stay is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm appeals the order, and FDA confirms the order:
</P>
<P>(1) The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm must comply with applicable requirements of this part within 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order, or, if operations have ceased and will not resume within 120 calendar days, before the beginning of operations in the next growing season, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm is no longer subject to the modified requirements in §§ 112.6 and 112.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.206" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.206   What is the procedure for submitting an appeal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To appeal an order to withdraw a qualified exemption applicable to a farm under § 112.5, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm must:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the appeal in writing to the FDA Division Director in whose division the farm is located (or in the case of a foreign farm, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition), at the mailing address, email address, or fax number identified in the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) Respond with particularity to the facts and issues contained in the order, including any supporting documentation upon which the owner, operator or agent in charge of the farm relies.
</P>
<P>(b) In a written appeal of the order withdrawing an exemption provided under § 112.5, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm may include a written request for an informal hearing as provided in § 112.207.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16552, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.207" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.207   What is the procedure for requesting an informal hearing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm appeals the order, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm:
</P>
<P>(1) May request an informal hearing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must submit any request for an informal hearing together with its written appeal submitted in accordance with § 112.206 within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for an informal hearing may be denied, in whole or in part, if the presiding officer determines that no genuine and substantial issue of material fact has been raised by the material submitted. If the presiding officer determines that a hearing is not justified, a written notice of the determination will be given to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm explaining the reason for the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.208" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.208   What requirements are applicable to an informal hearing?</HEAD>
<P>If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm requests an informal hearing, and FDA grants the request:
</P>
<P>(a) The hearing will be held within 15 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed or, if applicable, within a timeframe agreed upon in writing by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm and FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer may require that a hearing conducted under this subpart be completed within 1 calendar day, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA must conduct the hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The order withdrawing an exemption under § 112.5, rather than the notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides notice of the opportunity for a hearing under this section and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for a hearing under this subpart must be addressed to the FDA Division Director (or, in the case of a foreign farm, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition) as provided in the order withdrawing an exemption.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 112.209, rather than § 16.42(a) of this chapter, describes the FDA employees who preside at hearings under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 16.60(e) and (f) of this chapter does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer must prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. The presiding officer must include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and must include a proposed decision, with a statement of reasons. The hearing participant may review and comment on the presiding officer's report within 2 calendar days of issuance of the report. The presiding officer will then issue the final decision.
</P>
<P>(5) Section 16.80(a)(4) of this chapter does not apply to a regulatory hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer's report of the hearing and any comments on the report by the hearing participant under § 112.208(c)(4) are part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(6) No party shall have the right, under § 16.119 of this chapter to petition the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for reconsideration or a stay of the presiding officer's final decision.
</P>
<P>(7) If FDA grants a request for an informal hearing on an appeal of an order withdrawing an exemption, the hearing must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under a regulation in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that § 16.95(b) does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. With respect to a regulatory hearing under this subpart, the administrative record of the hearing specified in §§ 16.80(a)(1), (2), (3), and (5) of this chapter and 112.208(c)(5) constitutes the exclusive record for the presiding officer's final decision. For purposes of judicial review under § 10.45 of this chapter, the record of the administrative proceeding consists of the record of the hearing and the presiding officer's final decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16552, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.209" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.209   Who is the presiding officer for an appeal and for an informal hearing?</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer for an appeal, and for an informal hearing, must be an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16552, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.210" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.210   What is the timeframe for issuing a decision on an appeal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a farm appeals the order without requesting a hearing, the presiding officer must issue a written report that includes a final decision confirming or revoking the withdrawal by the 10th calendar day after the appeal is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a farm appeals the order and requests an informal hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) If FDA grants the request for a hearing and the hearing is held, the presiding officer must provide a 2 calendar day opportunity for the hearing participants to review and submit comments on the report of the hearing under § 112.208(c)(4), and must issue a final decision within 10 calendar days after the hearing is held; or
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA denies the request for a hearing, the presiding officer must issue a final decision on the appeal confirming or revoking the withdrawal within 10 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.211" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.211   When is an order to withdraw a qualified exemption applicable to a farm revoked?</HEAD>
<P>An order to withdraw a qualified exemption applicable to a farm under § 112.5 is revoked if:
</P>
<P>(a) The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm appeals the order and requests an informal hearing, FDA grants the request for an informal hearing, and the presiding officer does not confirm the order within the 10 calendar days after the hearing, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time; or
</P>
<P>(b) The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm appeals the order and requests an informal hearing, FDA denies the request for an informal hearing, and FDA does not confirm the order within the 10 calendar days after the appeal is filed, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time; or
</P>
<P>(c) The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the farm appeals the order without requesting an informal hearing, and FDA does not confirm the order within the 10 calendar days after the appeal is filed, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time.
</P>
<P>(d) Confirmation of a withdrawal order by the presiding officer is considered a final Agency action for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 702.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 112.213" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.12.17.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 112.213   If my qualified exemption is withdrawn, under what circumstances would FDA reinstate my qualified exemption?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the FDA Division Director in whose division your farm is located (or, in the case of a foreign farm, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition) determines that the farm has adequately resolved any problems with the conduct and conditions that are material to the safety of the food produced or harvested at such farm, and that continued withdrawal of the exemption is not necessary to protect the public health or prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak, the FDA Division Director in whose division your farm is located (or, in the case of a foreign farm, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition) will, on his or her own initiative or at the request of a farm, reinstate the qualified exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) You may ask FDA to reinstate a qualified exemption that has been withdrawn under the procedures of this subpart as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a request, in writing, to the FDA Division Director in whose division your farm is located (or, in the case of a foreign farm, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition); and
</P>
<P>(2) Present, in writing, data and information to demonstrate that you have adequately resolved any problems with the conduct and conditions that are material to the safety of the food produced and harvested at your farm, such that continued withdrawal of the exemption is not necessary to protect the public health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak.
</P>
<P>(c) If your qualified exemption was withdrawn under § 112.201(a)(1) and FDA later determines, after finishing the active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak, that the outbreak is not directly linked to your farm, FDA will reinstate your qualified exemption under § 112.5, and FDA will notify you in writing that your exempt status has been reinstated.
</P>
<P>(d) If your qualified exemption was withdrawn under § 112.201(a)(1) and (2) and FDA later determines, after finishing the active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak, that the outbreak is not directly linked to your farm, FDA will inform you of this finding, and you may ask FDA to reinstate your qualified exemption under § 112.5, in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74547, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16552, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="113" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 113—THERMALLY PROCESSED LOW-ACID FOODS PACKAGED IN HERMETICALLY SEALED CONTAINERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 16215, Mar. 16, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Aseptic processing and packaging</I> means the filling of a commercially sterilized cooled product into presterilized containers, followed by aseptic hermetical sealing, with a presterilized closure, in an atmosphere free of microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bleeders</I> means openings used to remove air that enters with steam from retorts and steam chambers and to promote circulation of steam in such retorts and steam chambers. Bleeders may serve as a means of removing condensate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Come-up-time</I> means the time which elapses between the introduction of steam into the closed retort and the time when the retort reaches the required processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commercial processor</I> includes any person engaged in commercial, custom, or institutional (church, school, penal, or other organization) processing of food, including pet food. Persons engaged in the production of foods that are to be used in market or consumer tests are also included.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial sterility:</I> (1) “Commercial sterility” of thermally processed food means the condition achieved—
</P>
<P>(i) By the application of heat which renders the food free of—
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Microorganisms capable of reproducing in the food under normal nonrefrigerated conditions of storage and distribution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Viable microorganisms (including spores) of public health significance; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By the control of water activity and the application of heat, which renders the food free of microorganisms capable of reproducing in the food under normal nonrefrigerated conditions of storage and distribution.
</P>
<P>(2) “Commercial sterility” of equipment and containers used for aseptic processing and packaging of food means the condition achieved by application of heat, chemical sterilant(s), or other appropriate treatment that renders the equipment and containers free of viable microorganisms having public health significance, as well as microorganisms of nonhealth significance, capable of reproducing in the food under normal nonrefrigerated conditions of storage and distribution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Critical factor</I> means any property, characteristic, condition, aspect, or other parameter, variation of which may affect the scheduled process and the attainment of commercial sterility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Flame sterilizer</I> means an apparatus in which hermetically sealed containers are agitated at atmospheric pressure, by either continuous, discontinuous, or reciprocating movement, with impinging gas flames to achieve sterilization temperatures. A holding period in a heated section may follow the initial heating period.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Headspace, gross</I> is the vertical distance between the level of the product (generally the liquid surface) in an upright rigid container and the top edge of the container (the top of the double seam of a can or the top edge of a glass jar).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Headspace, net</I> of a container is the vertical distance between the level of the product (generally the liquid surface) in the upright rigid container and the inside surface of the lid.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hermetically sealed container</I> means a container that is designed and intended to be secure against the entry of microorganisms and thereby to maintain the commercial sterility of its contents after processing.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Incubation</I> means the holding of a sample(s) at a specified temperature for a specified period of time for the purpose of permitting or stimulating the growth of microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Initial temperature</I> means the average temperature of the contents of the coldest container to be processed at the time the thermal processing cycle begins, as determined after thorough stirring or shaking of the filled and sealed container.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Lot</I> means that amount of a product produced during a period of time indicated by a specific code.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Low-acid foods</I> means any foods, other than alcoholic beverages, with a finished equilibrium pH greater than 4.6 and a water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>) greater than 0.85. Tomatoes and tomato products having a finished equilibrium pH less than 4.7 are not classed as low-acid foods.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Minimum thermal process</I> means the application of heat to food, either before or after sealing in a hermetically sealed container, for a period of time and at a temperature scientifically determined to be adequate to ensure destruction of microorganisms of public health significance.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Operating process</I> means the process selected by the processor that equals or exceeds the minimum requirements set forth in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Retort</I> means any closed vessel or other equipment used for the thermal processing of foods.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Scheduled process</I> means the process selected by the processor as adequate under the conditions of manufacture for a given product to achieve commercial sterility. This process may be in excess of that necessary to ensure destruction of microorganisms of public health significance, and shall be at least equivalent to the process established by a competent processing authority to achieve commercial sterility.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Shall</I> is used to state mandatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Should</I> is used to state recommended or advisory procedures or to identify recommended equipment.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Vacuum-packed products</I> means those products that are sealed in a container under the vacuum specified in the scheduled process, the maintenance of which vacuum is critical to the adequacy of the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Vents</I> means openings through the retort shell, controlled by gate, plug cock, or other adequate valves used for the elimination of air during the venting period.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Water activity</I> (a<E T="52">w</E>) is a measure of the free moisture in a product and is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.5   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>The criteria in §§ 113.10, 113.40, 113.60, 113.81, 113.83, 113.87, 113.89, and 113.100 shall apply in determining whether the facilities, methods, practices, and controls used by the commercial processor in the manufacture, processing, or packing of low-acid foods in hermetically sealed containers are operated or administered in a manner adequate to protect the public health. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.10   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The operators of processing systems, retorts, aseptic processing and packaging systems and product formulating systems (including systems wherein water activity is used in conjunction with thermal processing) and container closure inspectors shall be under the operating supervision of a person who has attended a school approved by the Commissioner for giving instruction appropriate to the preservation technology involved and who has been identified by that school as having satisfactorily completed the prescribed course of instruction. This person shall supervise only in those areas for which a school approved by the Commissioner identifies the person as having satisfactorily completed training.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.40" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.40   Equipment and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Equipment and procedures for pressure processing in steam in still retorts</I>—(1) <I>Temperature-indicating device.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with at least one temperature-indicating device that accurately indicates the temperature during processing. Each temperature-indicating device shall have a sensor and a display. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device by appropriate standard procedures, upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure accuracy during processing. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall have a tag, seal, or other means of identity.
</P>
<P>(i) The design of the temperature-indicating device shall ensure that the accuracy of the device is not affected by electromagnetic interference and environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(iii) A temperature-indicating device that is defective or cannot be adjusted to the accurate calibrated reference device shall be repaired before further use or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iv) A temperature-indicating device shall be accurate to 1 °F (0.5 °C). The temperature range of a mercury-in-glass thermometer shall not exceed 17 °F per inch (4 °C per centimeter) of graduated scale. A mercury-in-glass thermometer that has a divided mercury column shall be considered defective.
</P>
<P>(v) Each temperature-indicating device shall be installed where it can be accurately and easily read. The temperature-indicating device sensor shall be installed either within the retort shell or in external wells attached to the retort. External wells or pipes shall be connected to the retort through at least a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch (2 centimeters) diameter opening and equipped with a 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (1.5 millimeters) or larger bleeder opening so located as to provide a full flow of steam past the length of the temperature-indicating device sensor. The bleeders for external wells shall emit steam continuously during the entire processing period. The temperature-indicating device—not the temperature recording device—shall be the reference instrument for indicating the processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temperature-recording device.</I> Each retort shall have an accurate temperature-recording device. Each temperature-recording device shall have a sensor and a mechanism for recording temperatures to a permanent record, such as a temperature-recording chart. The temperature-recording device sensor shall be installed either within the retort shell or in a well attached to the shell. Each temperature-recording device sensor well shall have a 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (1.5 millimeters) or larger bleeder that emits steam continuously during the processing period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Temperature-recording devices that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. Each chart shall have a working scale of not more than 55 °F per inch (12 °C per centimeter) within a range of 20 °F (10 °C) of the process temperature. Chart graduations shall not exceed 2 °F (1 °C) within a range of 10 °F (5 °C) of the process temperature. Temperature-recording devices that create multipoint plottings of temperature readings shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital records may be used. Such a device shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adjustments.</I> The temperature-recording device shall be adjusted with sufficient frequency to ensure agreement as nearly as possible with, but to be in no event higher than, the temperature-indicating device during processing. A means of preventing unauthorized changes in adjustment shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the temperature-recording device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Temperature controller.</I> The temperature-recording device may be combined with the steam controller and may be a recorder-controller.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pressure gages.</I> Each retort should be equipped with a pressure gage that is accurate to 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals) or less.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Steam controller.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with an automatic steam controller to maintain the retort temperature. This may be a recorder-controller when combined with a temperature-recording device. The steam controller may be air-operated and actuated by a temperature sensor positioned near the temperature-indicating device in the retort. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air. A steam controller activated by the steam pressure of the retort is acceptable if it is carefully maintained mechanically so that it operates satisfactorily.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Steam inlet.</I> The steam inlet to each still retort shall be large enough to provide sufficient steam for proper operation of the retort. Steam may enter either the top portion or the bottom portion of the retort but, in any case, shall enter the portion of the retort opposite the vent; for example, steam inlet in bottom portion and vent in top portion.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Crate supports.</I> A bottom crate support shall be used in vertical still retorts. Baffle plates shall not be used in the bottom of still retorts.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Steam spreaders.</I> Steam spreaders are continuations of the steam inlet line inside the retort. Horizontal still retorts shall be equipped with steam spreaders that extend the length of the retort. For steam spreaders along the bottom of the retort, the perforations should be along the top 90° of the pipe, that is, within 45° on either side of the top center. Horizontal still retorts over 30 feet (9.1 meters) long should have two steam inlets connected to the spreader. In vertical still retorts, the steam spreaders, if used, should be perforated along the center line of the pipe facing the interior of the retort or along the sides of the pipe. The number of perforations should be such that the total cross-sectional area of the perforations is equal to 1.5 to 2 times the cross-sectional area of the smallest restriction in the steam inlet line.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Bleeders.</I> Bleeders, except those for temperature-indicating device wells, shall be 1/8-inch (3 millimeters) or larger and shall be wide open during the entire process, including the come-up time. For horizontal still retorts, bleeders shall be located within approximately 1 foot (30.5 centimeters) of the outermost locations of containers at each end along the top of the retort. Additional bleeders shall be located not more than 8 feet (2.4 meters) apart along the top. Bleeders may be installed at positions other than those specified in this paragraph, as long as there is evidence in the form of heat distribution data that they accomplish adequate removal of air and circulation of steam within the retort. Vertical retorts shall have at least one bleeder opening located in that portion of the retort opposite the steam inlet. In retorts having top steam inlet and bottom venting, a bleeder shall be installed in the bottom of the retort to remove condensate. All bleeders shall be arranged so that the operator can observe that they are functioning properly.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Stacking equipment and position of containers.</I> Crates, trays, gondolas, <I>etc.,</I> for holding containers shall be made of strap iron, adequately perforated sheet metal, or other suitable material. When perforated sheet metal is used for the bottoms, the perforations should be approximately the equivalent of 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) holes on 2-inch (5.1 centimeters) centers. If dividers are used between the layers of containers, they should be perforated as stated in this paragraph. The positioning of containers in the retort, when specified in the scheduled process, shall be in accordance with that process.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Air valves.</I> Retorts using air for pressure cooling shall be equipped with a suitable valve to prevent air leakage into the retort during processing.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Water valves.</I> Retorts using water for cooling shall be equipped with a suitable valve to prevent leakage of water into the retort during processing.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Vents.</I> Vents shall be installed in such a way that air is removed from the retort before timing of the process is started. Vents shall be controlled by gate, plug cock, or other adequate type valves which shall be fully open to permit rapid discharge of air from the retort during the venting period. Vents shall not be connected directly to a closed drain system. If the overflow is used as a vent, there shall be an atmospheric break in the line before it connects to a closed drain. The vent shall be located in that portion of the retort opposite the steam inlet; for example, steam inlet in bottom portion and vent in top portion. Where a retort manifold connects several vent pipes from a single still retort, it shall be controlled by a gate, plug cock, or other adequate type of valve. The retort manifold shall be of a size that the cross-sectional area of the pipe is larger than the total cross-sectional area of all connecting vents. The discharge shall not be directly connected to a closed drain without an atmospheric break in the line. A manifold header connecting vents or manifolds from several still retorts shall lead to the atmosphere. The manifold header shall not be controlled by a valve and shall be of a size that the cross-sectional area is at least equal to the total cross-sectional area of all connecting retort manifold pipes from all retorts venting simultaneously. Timing of the process shall not begin until the retort has been properly vented and the processing temperature has been reached. Some typical installations and operating procedures reflecting the requirements of this section for venting still retorts without divider plates are given in paragraphs (a)(12)(i)(A) through (a)(12)(i)(D) and (a)(12)(ii)(A) and (a)(12)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Venting horizontal retorts.</I> (A) Venting through multiple 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) vents discharging directly to atmosphere.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03mr11.000.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Specifications.</I> One 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) vent for every 5 feet (1.5 meters) of retort length equipped with a gate or plug cock valve and discharging to atmosphere; end vents not more than 2.5 feet (76 centimeters) from ends of retort.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Venting method.</I> Vent valves should be wide open for at least 5 minutes and to at least 225 °F (107 °C), or at least 7 minutes and to at least 220 °F (104.5 °C).
</P>
<P>(B) Venting through multiple 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) vents discharging through a manifold to atmosphere.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03mr11.001.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Specifications.</I> One 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) vent for every 5 feet (1.5 meters) of retort length; and vents not over 2.5 feet (76 centimeters) from ends of retort. Size of manifold—for retorts less than 15 feet (4.6 meters) in length, 2.5 inches (6.4 centimeters); for retorts 15 feet (4.6 meters) and over in length, 3 inches (7.6 centimeters).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Venting method.</I> Manifold vent gate or plug cock valve should be wide open for at least 6 minutes and to at least 225 °F (107 °C), or for at least 8 minutes and to at least 220 °F (104.5 °C).
</P>
<P>(C) Venting through water spreaders.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03mr11.002.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Size of vent and vent valve.</I> For retorts less than 15 feet (4.6 meters) in length, 2 inches (5.1 centimeters); for retorts 15 feet (4.6 meters) and over in length, 2.5 inches (6.4 centimeters).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Size of water spreader.</I> For retorts less than 15 feet (4.6 meters) in length, 1.5 inches (3.8 centimeters); for retorts 15 feet (4.6 meters) and over in length, 2 inches (5.1 centimeters). The number of holes should be such that their total cross-sectional area is approximately equal to the cross-sectional area of the vent pipe inlet.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Venting method.</I> Water spreader vent gate or plug cock valve should be wide open for at least 5 minutes and to at least 225 °F (107 °C), or for at least 7 minutes and to at least 220 °F (104.5 °C).
</P>
<P>(D) Venting through a single 2.5-inch (6.4 centimeters) top vent (for retorts not exceeding 15 feet (4.6 meters) in length).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03mr11.003.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Specifications.</I> A 2.5-inch (6.4 centimeters) vent equipped with a 2.5-inch (6.4 centimeters) gate or plug cock valve and located within 2 feet (61 centimeters) of the center of the retort.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Venting method.</I> Vent gate or plug cock valve should be wide open for at least 4 minutes and to at least 220 °F (104.5 °C).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Venting vertical retorts.</I> (A) Venting through a 1.5-inch (3.8 centimeters) overflow.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03mr11.004.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Specifications.</I> A 1.5-inch (3.8 centimeters) overflow pipe equipped with a 1.5-inch (3.8 centimeters) gate or plug cock valve and with not more than 6 feet (1.8 meters) of 1.5-inch (3.8 centimeters) pipe beyond the valve before break to the atmosphere or to a manifold header.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Venting method.</I> Vent gate or plug cock valve should be wide open for at least 4 minutes and to at least 218 °F (103.5 °C), or for at least 5 minutes and to at least 215 °F (102 °C).
</P>
<P>(B) Venting through a single 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) side or top vent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03mr11.005.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Specifications.</I> A 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) vent in lid or top side, equipped with a 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) gate or plug cock valve and discharging directly into the atmosphere or to a manifold header.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Venting method.</I> Vent gate or plug cock valve should be wide open for at least 5 minutes and to at least 230 °F (110 °C), or for at least 7 minutes and to at least 220 °F (104.5 °C).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other procedures.</I> Other installations and operating procedures that deviate from the requirements in paragraph (a)(12) of this section may be used if there is evidence in the form of heat distribution data, which shall be kept on file, that they accomplish adequate venting of air.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(i) When maximum fill-in or drained weight is specified in the scheduled process, it shall be measured and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the weight of the product does not exceed the maximum for the given container size specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Closing machine vacuum in vacuum-packed products shall be observed and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the vacuum is as specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(iii) Such measurements and recordings should be made at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the product style results in stratification or layering of the primary product in the containers, the positioning of containers in the retort shall be according to the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment and procedures for pressure processing in water in still retorts</I>—(1) <I>Temperature-indicating device.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with at least one temperature-indicating device that accurately indicates the temperature during processing. Each temperature-indicating device shall have a sensor and a display. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device by appropriate standard procedures, upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure accuracy during processing. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall have a tag, seal, or other means of identity.
</P>
<P>(i) The design of the temperature-indicating device shall ensure that the accuracy of the device is not affected by electromagnetic interference and environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(iii) A temperature-indicating device that is defective or cannot be adjusted to the accurate calibrated reference device shall be repaired before further use or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iv) A temperature-indicating device shall be accurate to 1 °F (0.5 °C). The temperature range of a mercury-in-glass thermometer shall not exceed 17 °F per inch (4 °C per centimeter) of graduated scale. A mercury-in-glass thermometer that has a divided mercury column shall be considered defective.
</P>
<P>(v) Each temperature-indicating device shall be installed where it can be accurately and easily read. In both horizontal and vertical retorts, the temperature-indicating device sensor shall be inserted directly into the retort shell or in a separate well or sleeve attached to the retort. The temperature-indicating device sensor shall be located so that it is beneath the surface of the water throughout the process and where there is adequate circulation to ensure accurate temperature measurement. On horizontal retorts, the temperature-indicating device sensor should be located in the side at the center of the retort. The temperature-indicating device—not the temperature-recording device—shall be the reference instrument for indicating the processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temperature-recording device.</I> Each retort shall have an accurate temperature-recording device. Each temperature-recording device shall have a sensor and a mechanism for recording temperatures to a permanent record, such as a temperature-recording chart.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Temperature-recording devices that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. Each chart shall have a working scale of not more than 55 °F per inch (12 °C per centimeter) within a range of 20 °F (10 °C) of the process temperature. Chart graduations shall not exceed 2 °F (1 °C) within a range of 10 °F (5 °C) of the process temperature. Temperature-recording devices that create multipoint plottings of temperature readings shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital records may be used. Such a device shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adjustments.</I> The temperature-recording device shall be adjusted with sufficient frequency to ensure agreement as nearly as possible with, but to be in no event higher than, the temperature-indicating device during processing. A means of preventing unauthorized changes in adjustment shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the temperature-recording device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Temperature controller.</I> The temperature-recording device may be combined with the steam controller and may be a combination recorder-controller. For a vertical retort equipped with a combination recorder-controller, the temperature recorder-controller sensor shall be located at the bottom of the retort below the lowest crate rest in such a position that the steam does not strike it directly. For a horizontal retort equipped with a combination recorder-controller, the temperature recorder-controller sensor shall be located between the water surface and the horizontal plane passing through the center of the retort so that there is no opportunity for direct steam impingement on the sensor. For all still retort systems that pressure process in water and are equipped with combination recorder-controllers, the temperature recorder-controller sensors shall be located where the recorded temperature is an accurate measurement of the scheduled process temperature and is not affected by the heating media.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pressure gages.</I> (i) Each retort should be equipped with a pressure gage that is accurate to 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals) or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each retort should have an adjustable pressure relief or control valve of a capacity sufficient to prevent an undesired increase in retort pressure when the water valve is wide open and should be installed in the overflow line.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Steam controller.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with an automatic steam controller to maintain the retort temperature. The steam controller may be combined with a temperature-recording device and, thus, may be a combination recorder-controller. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Steam introduction.</I> Steam shall be distributed in the bottom of the retort in a manner adequate to provide uniform heat distribution throughout the retort. In vertical retorts, uniform steam distribution can be achieved by any of several methods. In horizontal retorts, the steam distributor shall run the length of the bottom of the retort with perforations distributed uniformly along the upper part of the pipe.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Crate supports.</I> A bottom crate support shall be used in vertical still retorts. Baffle plates shall not be used in the bottom of the retort. Centering guides should be installed so as to ensure that there is about a 1.5-inch (3.8 centimeters) clearance between the side wall of the crate and the retort wall.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Stacking equipment and position of containers.</I> Crates, trays, gondolas, <I>etc.,</I> for holding containers shall be made of strap iron, adequately perforated sheet metal, or other suitable material. When perforated sheet metal is used for the bottoms, the perforations should be approximately the equivalent of 1-inch (2.5 centimeters) holes on 2-inch (5.1 centimeters) centers. If divider plates are used between the layers of containers, they should be perforated as stated in this paragraph. The positioning of containers in the retort, when specified in the scheduled process, shall be in accordance with that process. Dividers, racks, trays, or other means of positioning of flexible containers shall be designed and employed to ensure even circulation of heating medium around all containers in the retort.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Drain valve.</I> A nonclogging, water-tight valve shall be used. A screen shall be installed or other suitable means shall be used on all drain openings to prevent clogging.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Air supply and controls.</I> In both horizontal and vertical still retorts for pressure processing in water, a means shall be provided for introducing compressed air at the proper pressure and rate. The proper pressure shall be controlled by an automatic pressure control unit. A check valve shall be provided in the air supply line to prevent water from entering the system. Air or water circulation shall be maintained continuously during the come-up time and during processing and cooling periods. The adequacy of the air or water circulation for uniform heat distribution within the retort shall be established in accordance with procedures recognized by a competent processing authority and records shall be kept on file. If air is used to promote circulation, it shall be introduced into the steam line at a point between the retort and the steam control valve at the bottom of the retort.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Water level indicator.</I> There shall be a means of determining the water level in the retort during operation, e.g., by using a sensor, gage, water glass, or petcock(s). Water shall cover the top layer of containers during the entire come-up time and processing periods and should cover the top layer of containers during the cooling periods. The operator shall check and record the water level at intervals sufficient to ensure its adequacy.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Water circulation.</I> When a water circulating system is used for heat distribution, it shall be installed in such a manner that water will be drawn from the bottom of the retort through a suction manifold and discharged through a spreader which extends the length of the top of the retort. The holes in the water spreader shall be uniformly distributed and should have an aggregate area not greater than the cross-sectional area of the outlet line from the pump. The suction outlets shall be protected with nonclogging screens or other suitable means shall be used to keep debris from entering the circulating system. The pump shall be designed to provide proper flow on startup and during operation, such as with a bleeder or other suitable means to remove air during startup and with an appropriate device or design to prevent pump cavitation during operation. The pump shall be equipped with a signaling device to warn the operator when it is not running. Alternative methods for circulation of water in the retort may be used when established by a competent authority as adequate for even heat distribution.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Cooling water supply.</I> In vertical retorts, the cooling water should be introduced at the top of the retort between the water and container levels. In horizontal retorts the cooling water should be introduced into the suction side of the pump. A check valve should be included in the cooling water line.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Retort headspace.</I> The headspace necessary to control the air pressure should be maintained between the water level and the top of the retort shell.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Vertical and horizontal still retorts.</I> Vertical and horizontal still retorts should follow the arrangements in the diagrams in this paragraph. Other installation and operating procedures that deviate from these arrangements may be used, as long as there is evidence in the form of heat distribution data or other suitable information, which shall be kept on file, which demonstrates that the heat distribution is adequate.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03mr11.006.gif"/>
<HD1>Legend for Vertical and Horizontal Still Retorts
</HD1>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>A—Water line.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B—Steam line.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C—Temperature control.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D—Overflow line.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E<E T="52">1</E>—Drain line.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E<E T="52">2</E>—Screens.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>F—Check valves.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>G—Line from hot water storage.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H—Suction line and manifold.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>I—Circulating pump.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J—Petcocks.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>K—Recirculating line.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>L—Steam distributor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>M—Temperature-controller sensor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N—Temperature-indicating device sensor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>O—Water spreader.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P—Safety valve.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Q—Vent valve for steam processing.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R—Pressure gage.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>S—Inlet air control.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T—Pressure control.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>U—Air line.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>V—To pressure control instrument.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>W—To temperature control instrument.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>X—Wing nuts.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Y<E T="52">1</E>—Crate support.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Y<E T="52">2</E>—Crate guides.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Z—Constant flow orifice valve.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Z<E T="52">1</E>—Constant flow orifice valve used during come-up.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Z<E T="52">2</E>—Constant flow orifice valve used during cook.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(15) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(i) When maximum fill-in or drained weight is specified in the scheduled process, it shall be measured and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the weight of the product does not exceed the maximum for the given container size specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Closing machine vacuum in vacuum-packed products shall be observed and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the vacuum is as specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(iii) Such measurements and recordings should be made at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the product style results in stratification or layering of the primary product in the containers, the positioning of containers in the retort shall be according to the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment and procedures for pressure processing in steam in continuous agitating retorts</I>—(1) <I>Temperature-indicating device.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with at least one temperature-indicating device that accurately indicates the temperature during processing. Each temperature-indicating device shall have a sensor and a display. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device by appropriate standard procedures, upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure accuracy during processing. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall have a tag, seal, or other means of identity.
</P>
<P>(i) The design of the temperature-indicating device shall ensure that the accuracy of the device is not affected by electromagnetic interference and environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(iii) A temperature-indicating device that is defective or cannot be adjusted to the accurate calibrated reference device shall be repaired before further use or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iv) A temperature-indicating device shall be accurate to 1 °F (0.5 °C). The temperature range of a mercury-in-glass thermometer shall not exceed 17 °F per inch (4 °C per centimeter) of graduated scale. A mercury-in-glass thermometer that has a divided mercury column shall be considered defective.
</P>
<P>(v) Each temperature-indicating device shall be installed where it can be accurately and easily read. The temperature-indicating device sensor shall be installed either within the retort shell or in external wells attached to the retort. External wells or pipes shall be connected to the retort through at least a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch (2 centimeters) diameter opening and equipped with a 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (1.5 millimeters) or larger bleeder opening so located as to provide a full flow of steam past the length of the temperature-indicating device sensor. The bleeders for external wells shall emit steam continuously during the entire processing period. The temperature-indicating device—not the temperature-recording device—shall be the reference instrument for indicating the processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temperature-recording device.</I> Each retort shall have an accurate temperature-recording device. Each temperature-recording device shall have a sensor and a mechanism for recording temperatures to a permanent record, such as a temperature-recording chart. The temperature-recording device sensor shall be installed either within the retort shell or in a well attached to the shell. Each temperature-recording device sensor well shall have a 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (1.5 millimeters) or larger bleeder that emits steam continuously during the processing period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Temperature-recording devices that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. Each chart shall have a working scale of not more than 55 °F per inch (12 °C per centimeter) within a range of 20 °F (10 °C) of the process temperature. Chart graduations shall not exceed 2 °F (1 °C) within a range of 10 °F (5 °C) of the process temperature. Temperature-recording devices that create multipoint plottings of temperature readings shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital records may be used. Such a device shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adjustments.</I> The temperature-recording device shall be adjusted with sufficient frequency to ensure agreement as nearly as possible with, but to be in no event higher than, the temperature-indicating device during processing. A means of preventing unauthorized changes in adjustment shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the temperature-recording device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Temperature controller.</I> The temperature-recording device may be combined with the steam controller and may be a recorder-controller.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pressure gages.</I> Each retort should be equipped with a pressure gage that is accurate to 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals) or less.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Steam controller.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with an automatic steam controller to maintain the retort temperature. This may be a recorder-controller when combined with a temperature-recording device. A steam controller activated by the steam pressure of the retort is acceptable if it is carefully maintained mechanically so that it operates satisfactorily. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Bleeders.</I> Bleeders, except those for temperature-indicating device wells, shall be 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (3 millimeters) or larger and shall be wide open during the entire process, including the come-up time. Bleeders shall be located within approximately 1 foot (30.5 centimeters) of the outermost location of containers at each end along the top of the retort. Additional bleeders shall be located not more than 8 feet (2.4 meters) apart along the top of the retort. All bleeders shall be arranged so that the operator can observe that they are functioning properly. The condensate bleeder shall be checked with sufficient frequency to ensure adequate removal of condensate or shall be equipped with an automatic alarm system(s) that would serve as a continuous monitor of condensate-bleeder functioning. Visual checks should be done at intervals of not more than 15 minutes. A record of such checks should be kept to show that the bleeder is functioning properly.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Venting and condensate removal.</I> Vents shall be located in that portion of the retort opposite the steam inlet. Air shall be removed before processing is started. Heat distribution data or documentary proof from the manufacturer or from a competent processing authority, demonstrating that adequate venting is achieved, shall be kept on file. At the time steam is turned on, the drain should be opened for a time sufficient to remove steam condensate from the retort, and provision shall be made for continuing drainage of condensate during the retort operation. The condensate bleeder in the bottom of the shell serves as an indicator of continuous condensate removal.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Retort speed timing.</I> The rotational speed of the retort shall be specified in the scheduled process. The speed shall be adjusted and recorded when the retort is started, at any time a speed change is made, and at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the retort speed is maintained as specified in the scheduled process. These adjustments and recordings should be made every 4 hours or less. Alternatively, a recording tachometer may be used to provide a continuous record of the speed. A means of preventing unauthorized speed changes on retorts shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the speed adjustment device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Emergency stops.</I> If a retort jams or breaks down during processing operations, necessitating cooling the retort for repairs, the retort shall be operated in such a way that ensures that the product is commercially sterile, or the retort is to be cooled promptly and all containers either reprocessed, repacked and reprocessed, or discarded. When operated as a still retort, all containers shall be given a full still retort process before the retort is cooled. If, in such an emergency, a scheduled still process or another process established to ensure commercial sterility is to be used, it shall be made readily available to the retort operator.
</P>
<P>(i) Any containers in the retort intake valve or in transfer valves between cooker shells of a continuous retort at the time of breakdown shall either be reprocessed, repacked and reprocessed, or discarded.
</P>
<P>(ii) Both the time at which the reel stopped and the time the retort was used for a still retort process, if so used, shall be indicated on the temperature-recording device record and entered on the other production records required in this chapter. If the alternative procedure of prompt cooling is followed, the subsequent handling methods used for the containers in the retort at the time of stopping and cooling shall be entered on the production records.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Temperature drop.</I> If the temperature of the continuous retort drops below the temperature specified in the scheduled process while containers are in the retort, the retort reel shall be stopped promptly. An automatic device should be used to stop the reel when the temperature drops below the specified process temperature. Before the reel is restarted, all containers in the retort shall be given a complete scheduled still retort process if the temperature drop was 10 °F (5 °C) or more below the specified temperature, or alternatively, container entry to the retort shall be stopped and the reel restarted to empty the retort. The discharged containers shall be either reprocessed, repacked and reprocessed, or discarded. Both the time at which the reel stopped and the time the retort was used for a still retort process, if so used, shall be indicated on the temperature-recording device record and entered on the other production records required in this chapter. If the alternative procedure of emptying the retort is followed, the subsequent handling methods used for the containers in the retort at the time of the temperature drop shall be entered on the production records. If the temperature drop was less than 10 °F (5 °C), a scheduled authorized emergency still process approved by a qualified person(s) having expert knowledge of thermal processing requirements may be used before restarting the retort reel. Alternatively, container entry to the retort shall be stopped and an authorized emergency agitating process may be used before container entry to the retort is restarted. When emergency procedures are used, no containers may enter the retort and the process and procedures used shall be noted on the production records.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process. The minimum headspace of containers, if specified in the scheduled process, shall be measured and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the headspace is as specified in the scheduled process. The headspace of solder-tipped, lapseam (vent hole) cans may be measured by net weight determinations. The headspace of double seamed cans may also be measured by net weight determinations for homogenous liquids, taking into account the specific can end profile and other factors which affect the headspace, if proof of the accuracy of such measurements is maintained and the procedure and resultant headspace is in accordance with the scheduled process. When the product consistency is specified in the scheduled process, the consistency of the product shall be determined by objective measurements on the product taken from the filler before processing and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the consistency is as specified in the scheduled process. Minimum closing machine vacuum in vacuum-packed products, maximum fill-in or drained weight, minimum net weight, and percent solids shall be as specified in the scheduled process for all products when deviations from such specifications may affect the scheduled process. All measurements and recordings of critical factors should be made at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Equipment and procedures for pressure processing in steam in discontinuous agitating retorts</I>—(1) <I>Temperature-indicating device.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with at least one temperature-indicating device that accurately indicates the temperature during processing. Each temperature-indicating device shall have a sensor and a display. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device by appropriate standard procedures, upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure accuracy during processing. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall have a tag, seal, or other means of identity.
</P>
<P>(i) The design of the temperature-indicating device shall ensure that the accuracy of the device is not affected by electromagnetic interference and environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(iii) A temperature-indicating device that is defective or cannot be adjusted to the accurate calibrated reference device shall be repaired before further use or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iv) A temperature-indicating device shall be accurate to 1 °F (0.5 °C). The temperature range of a mercury-in-glass thermometer shall not exceed 17 °F per inch (4 °C per centimeter) of graduated scale. A mercury-in-glass thermometer that has a divided mercury column shall be considered defective.
</P>
<P>(v) Each temperature-indicating device shall be installed where it can be accurately and easily read. The temperature-indicating device sensor shall be installed either within the retort shell or in external wells attached to the retort. External wells or pipes shall be connected to the retort through at least a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch (2 centimeters) diameter opening and equipped with a 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (1.5 millimeters) or larger bleeder opening so located as to provide a full flow of steam past the length of the temperature-indicating device sensor. The bleeders for external wells shall emit steam continuously during the entire processing period. The temperature-indicating device—not the temperature-recording device—shall be the reference instrument for indicating the processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temperature-recording device.</I> Each retort shall have an accurate temperature-recording device. Each temperature-recording device shall have a sensor and a mechanism for recording temperatures to a permanent record, such as a temperature-recording chart. The temperature-recording device sensor shall be installed either within the retort shell or in a well attached to the shell. Each temperature-recording device sensor well shall have a 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (1.5 millimeters) or larger bleeder that emits steam continuously during the processing period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Temperature-recording devices that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. Each chart shall have a working scale of not more than 55 °F per inch (12 °C per centimeter) within a range of 20 °F (10 °C) of the process temperature. Chart graduations shall not exceed 2 °F (1 °C) within a range of 10 °F (5 °C) of the process temperature. Temperature-recording devices that create multipoint plottings of temperature readings shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital records may be used. Such a device shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adjustments.</I> The temperature-recording device shall be adjusted with sufficient frequency to ensure agreement as nearly as possible with, but to be in no event higher than, the temperature-indicating device during processing. A means of preventing unauthorized changes in adjustment shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the temperature-recording device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Temperature controller.</I> The temperature-recording device may be combined with the steam controller and may be a recorder-controller.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pressure gages.</I> Each retort should be equipped with a pressure gage that is accurate to 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals) or less.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Steam controller.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with an automatic steam controller to maintain the retort temperature. This may be a recorder-controller when combined with a temperature-recording device. A steam controller activated by the steam pressure of the retort is acceptable if it is mechanically maintained so that it operates satisfactorily. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Bleeders.</I> Bleeders, except those for temperature-indicating device wells, shall be 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (3 millimeters) or larger and shall be wide open during the entire process, including the come-up time. Bleeders shall be located within approximately 1 foot (30.5 centimeters) of the outermost location of containers, at each end along the top of the retort; additional bleeders shall be located not more than 8 feet (2.4 meters) apart along the top. Bleeders may be installed at positions other than those specified in this paragraph, as long as there is evidence in the form of heat distribution data that they accomplish adequate removal of air and circulation of heat within the retort. In retorts having top steam inlet and bottom venting, a bleeder shall be installed in the bottom of the retort to remove condensate. All bleeders shall be arranged in a way that enables the operator to observe that they are functioning properly.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Venting and condensate removal.</I> The air in each retort shall be removed before processing is started. Heat distribution data or documentary proof from the manufacturer or from a competent processing authority, demonstrating that adequate venting is achieved, shall be kept on file. At the time steam is turned on, the drain should be opened for a time sufficient to remove steam condensate from the retort and provision should be made for continuing drainage of condensate during the retort operation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Retort speed timing.</I> The rotational speed of the retort shall be specified in the scheduled process. The speed shall be adjusted, as necessary, to ensure that the speed is as specified in the scheduled process. The rotational speed as well as the process time shall be recorded for each retort load processed. Alternatively, a recording tachometer may be used to provide a continuous record of the speed. A means of preventing unauthorized speed changes on retorts shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the speed-adjustment device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process. The minimum headspace of containers in each retort load to be processed, if specified in the scheduled process, shall be measured and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the headspace is as specified in the scheduled process. The headspace of solder-tipped, lap seam (vent hole) cans may be measured by net weight determinations. When the product consistency is specified in the scheduled process, the consistency of the product shall be determined by objective measurements on the product taken from the filler before processing and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the consistency is as specified in the scheduled process. Minimum closing machine vacuum in vacuum-packed products, maximum fill-in or drained weight, minimum net weight, and percent solids shall be as specified in the scheduled process for all products for which deviations from such specifications may affect the scheduled process. All measurements and recordings of critical factors should be made at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equipment and procedures for pressure processing in water in discontinuous agitating retorts</I>—(1) <I>Temperature-indicating device.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with at least one temperature-indicating device that accurately indicates the temperature during processing. Each temperature-indicating device shall have a sensor and a display. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device by appropriate standard procedures, upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure accuracy during processing. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall have a tag, seal, or other means of identity.
</P>
<P>(i) The design of the temperature-indicating device shall ensure that the accuracy of the device is not affected by electromagnetic interference and environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(iii) A temperature-indicating device that is defective or cannot be adjusted to the accurate calibrated reference device shall be repaired before further use or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iv) A temperature-indicating device shall be accurate to 1 °F (0.5 °C). The temperature range of a mercury-in-glass thermometer shall not exceed 17 °F per inch (4 °C per centimeter) of graduated scale. A mercury-in-glass thermometer that has a divided mercury column shall be considered defective.
</P>
<P>(v) Each temperature-indicating device shall be installed where it can be accurately and easily read. In both horizontal and vertical retorts, the temperature-indicating device sensor shall be inserted directly into the retort shell or in a separate well or sleeve attached to the retort. The temperature-indicating device sensor shall be located so that it is beneath the surface of the water throughout the process and where there is adequate circulation to ensure accurate temperature measurement. On horizontal retorts, the temperature-indicating device sensor should be located in the side at the center of the retort. The temperature-indicating device—not the temperature-recording device—shall be the reference instrument for indicating the processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temperature-recording device.</I> Each retort shall have an accurate temperature-recording device. Each temperature-recording device shall have a sensor and a mechanism for recording temperatures to a permanent record, such as a temperature-recording chart. The temperature-recording device sensor shall be installed either within the retort shell or in a well attached to the shell.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Temperature-recording devices that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. Each chart shall have a working scale of not more than 55 °F per inch (12 °C per centimeter) within a range of 20 °F (10 °C) of the process temperature. Chart graduations shall not exceed 2 °F (1 °C) within a range of 10 °F (5 °C) of the process temperature. Temperature-recording devices that create multipoint plottings of temperature readings shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital records may be used. Such a device shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adjustments.</I> The temperature-recording device shall be adjusted with sufficient frequency to ensure agreement as nearly as possible with, but to be in no event higher than, the temperature-indicating device during processing. A means of preventing unauthorized changes in adjustment shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the temperature-recording device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Temperature controller.</I> The temperature-recording device may be combined with the steam controller and may be a recorder-controller. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pressure gages.</I> Each retort should be equipped with a pressure gage that is accurate to 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals) or less.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Steam controller.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with an automatic steam controller to maintain the retort temperature. This may be a recorder-controller when combined with a temperature-recording device. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Retort speed timing.</I> The rotational speed of the retort shall be specified in the scheduled process. The speed shall be adjusted, as necessary, to ensure that the speed is as specified in the scheduled process. The rotational speed as well as the process time shall be recorded for each retort load processed. Alternatively, a recording tachometer may be used to provide a continuous record of the speed. A means of preventing unauthorized speed changes shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the speed adjustment device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustment is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Air supply and controls.</I> When air is used to provide overpressure:
</P>
<P>(i) A means shall be provided for introducing compressed air at the proper pressure and rate. The proper pressure shall be controlled by an automatic pressure control unit. A check valve shall be provided in the air supply line to prevent water from entering the system.
</P>
<P>(ii) A water level indicator, e.g., sensor, gage, water glass, or petcock(s), shall be used for determining the water level in the retort during operation. Water shall cover the top layer of containers during the entire come-up time and processing periods and should also cover the top layer of containers during the cooling periods. The operator shall check and record the water level at intervals sufficient to ensure its adequacy.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Water circulation.</I> When a water circulating system is used for heat distribution, it shall be installed in such a manner that water will be drawn from the bottom of the retort through a suction manifold and discharged through a spreader which extends the length of the top of the retort. The holes in the water spreader shall be uniformly distributed and should have an aggregate area not greater than the cross-sectional area of the outlet line from the pump. The suction outlets shall be protected with nonclogging screens or other suitable means shall be used to keep debris from entering the circulating system. The pump shall be designed to provide proper flow on startup and during operation, such as with a bleeder or other suitable means to remove air during startup and with an appropriate device or design to prevent pump cavitation during operation. The pump shall be equipped with a signaling device to warn the operator when it is not running. Alternative methods for circulation of water in the retort may be used when established by a competent authority as adequate for even heat distribution.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Drain valve.</I> A nonclogging, water-tight valve shall be used. A screen shall be installed or other suitable means shall be used on all drain openings to prevent clogging.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process. The minimum headspace of containers, if specified in the scheduled process, shall be measured and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the headspace is as specified in the scheduled process. The headspace of solder-tipped, lap seam (vent hole) cans may be measured by net weight determinations. When the product consistency is specified in the scheduled process, the consistency of the product shall be determined by objective measurements on the product taken from the filler before processing and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the consistency is as specified in the scheduled process. Minimum closing machine vacuum in vacuum-packed products, maximum fill-in or drained weight, minimum net weight, and percent solids shall be as specified in the scheduled process for all products when deviations from such specifications may affect the scheduled process. All measurements and recordings of critical factors should be made at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equipment and procedures for pressure processing in steam in hydrostatic retorts</I>—(1) <I>Temperature-indicating device.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with at least one temperature-indicating device that accurately indicates the temperature during processing. Each temperature-indicating device shall have a sensor and a display. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device by appropriate standard procedures, upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure accuracy during processing. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall have a tag, seal, or other means of identity.
</P>
<P>(i) The design of the temperature-indicating device shall ensure that the accuracy of the device is not affected by electromagnetic interference and environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(iii) A temperature-indicating device that is defective or cannot be adjusted to the accurate calibrated reference device shall be repaired before further use or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iv) A temperature-indicating device shall be accurate to 1 °F (0.5 °C). The temperature range of a mercury-in-glass thermometer shall not exceed 17 °F per inch (4 °C per centimeter) of graduated scale. A mercury-in-glass thermometer that has a divided mercury column shall be considered defective.
</P>
<P>(v) Each temperature-indicating device shall be installed where it can be accurately and easily read. The temperature-indicating device sensor shall be located in the steam dome near the steam-water interface. When the scheduled process specifies maintenance of particular temperatures in the hydrostatic water legs, a temperature-indicating device sensor shall be located in each hydrostatic water leg in a position near the bottom temperature-recording device sensor. The temperature-indicating device—not the temperature-recording device—shall be the reference instrument for indicating the processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temperature-recording device.</I> Each retort shall have an accurate temperature-recording device. Each temperature-recording device shall have a sensor and a mechanism for recording temperatures to a permanent record, such as a temperature-recording chart. The temperature-recording device sensor shall be installed either within the steam dome or in a well attached to the dome. Each temperature-recording device sensor well shall have a 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (1.5 millimeters) or larger bleeder that emits steam continuously during the processing period. Additional temperature-recording device sensors shall be installed in the hydrostatic water legs in situations where the scheduled process specifies maintenance of particular temperatures in the hydrostatic water legs.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Temperature-recording devices that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. Each chart shall have a working scale of not more than 55 °F per inch (12 °C per centimeter) within a range of 20 °F (10 °C) of the process temperature. Chart graduations shall not exceed 2 °F (1 °C) within a range of 10 °F (5 °C) of the process temperature. Temperature-recording devices that create multipoint plottings of temperature readings shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital recordings may be used. Such a device shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adjustments.</I> The temperature-recording device shall be adjusted with sufficient frequency to ensure agreement as nearly as possible with, but to be in no event higher than, the temperature-indicating device during processing. A means of preventing unauthorized changes in adjustment shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the temperature-recording device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Temperature controller.</I> The temperature-recording device may be combined with the steam controller and may be a recorder-controller.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pressure gages.</I> Each retort should be equipped with a pressure gage that is accurate to 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals) or less.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Recording of temperatures.</I> Temperatures indicated by the temperature-indicating device or devices shall be entered on a suitable form during processing operations. Temperatures shall be recorded by an accurate temperature-recording device or devices at the following points:
</P>
<P>(i) In the steam chamber between the steam-water interface and the lowest container position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Near the top and the bottom of each hydrostatic water leg if the scheduled process specifies maintenance of particular temperatures in the legs.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Steam controller.</I> Each retort shall be equipped with an automatic steam controller to maintain the retort temperature. This may be a recorder-controller when combined with a temperature-recording device. A steam controller activated by the steam pressure of the retort is acceptable if it is carefully mechanically maintained so that it operates satisfactorily. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Venting.</I> Before the start of processing operations, the retort steam chamber or chambers shall be vented to ensure removal of air.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bleeders.</I> Bleeder openings 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch (6 millimeters) or larger shall be located at the top of the steam chamber or chambers opposite the point of steam entry. Bleeders shall be wide open and shall emit steam continuously during the entire process, including the come-up time. All bleeders shall be arranged in such a way that the operator can observe that they are functioning properly.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Retort speed.</I> The speed of the container-conveyor chain shall be specified in the scheduled process and shall be determined and recorded at the start of processing and at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the retort speed is maintained as specified. The speed should be determined and recorded every 4 hours. An automatic device should be used to stop the chain when the temperature drops below that specified in the scheduled process. A means of preventing unauthorized speed changes shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the speed-adjusting device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(i) When maximum fill-in or drained weight is specified in the scheduled process, it shall be measured and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the weight of the product does not exceed the maximum for the given container size specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Closing machine vacuum in vacuum-packed products shall be observed and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the vacuum is as specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(iii) Such measurements and recordings should be made at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Aseptic processing and packaging systems</I>—(1) <I>Product sterilizer</I>—(i) <I>Equipment</I>—(A) <I>Temperature-indicating device.</I> Each product sterilizer shall be equipped with at least one temperature-indicating device that accurately indicates the temperature during processing. Each temperature-indicating device shall have a sensor and a display. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device by appropriate standard procedures, upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure accuracy during processing. Each temperature-indicating device and each reference device that is maintained by the processor shall have a tag, seal, or other means of identity.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The design of the temperature-indicating device shall ensure that the accuracy of the device is not affected by electromagnetic interference and environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A temperature-indicating device that is defective or cannot be adjusted to the accurate calibrated reference device shall be repaired before further use or replaced.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A temperature-indicating device shall be accurate to 1 °F (0.5 °C). The temperature range of a mercury-in-glass thermometer shall not exceed 17 °F per inch (4 °C per centimeter) of graduated scale. A mercury-in-glass thermometer that has a divided mercury column shall be considered defective.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Each temperature-indicating device shall be installed where it can be accurately and easily read. The temperature-indicating device—not the temperature-recording device—shall be the reference instrument for indicating the processing temperature.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Temperature-recording device.</I> Each product sterilizer shall have an accurate temperature-recording device. Each temperature-recording device shall have a sensor and a mechanism for recording temperatures to a permanent record, such as a temperature-recording chart. A temperature-recording device sensor shall be installed in the product at the holding-tube outlet between the holding tube and the inlet to the cooler. Additional temperature-recording device sensors shall be located at each point where temperature is specified as a critical factor in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Temperature-recording devices that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. Each chart shall have a working scale of not more than 55 °F per inch (12 °C per centimeter) within a range of 20 °F (10 °C) of the desired product sterilization temperature. Chart graduations shall not exceed 2 °F (1 °C) within a range of 10 °F (5 °C) of the process temperature. Temperature-recording devices that create multipoint plottings of temperature readings shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Temperature-recording devices, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital recordings may be used. Such a device shall record the temperature at intervals that will assure that the parameters of the process time and process temperature have been met.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Adjustments.</I> The temperature-recording device shall be adjusted with sufficient frequency to ensure agreement as nearly as possible with, but to be in no event higher than, the temperature-indicating device during processing. A means of preventing unauthorized changes in adjustment shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the temperature-recording device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Temperature controller.</I> An accurate temperature controller shall be installed and capable of ensuring that the desired product sterilization temperature is maintained. Air-operated temperature controllers should have adequate filter systems to ensure a supply of clean, dry air.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Product-to-product regenerators.</I> When a product-to-product regenerator is used to heat the cold unsterilized product entering the sterilizer by means of a heat exchange system, it shall be designed, operated, and controlled so that the pressure of the sterilized product in the regenerator is greater than the pressure of any unsterilized product in the regenerator to ensure that any leakage in the regenerator is from the sterilized product into the unsterilized product.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Differential pressure recorder-controller.</I> When a product-to-product regenerator is used, it shall be equipped with an accurate differential pressure recorder-controller. The differential pressure recorder-controller shall be accurate to within 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals). One pressure sensor shall be installed at the sterilized product regenerator outlet and the other pressure sensor shall be installed at the unsterilized product regenerator inlet. The sensor and recorder of the differential pressure recorder-controller shall be tested for accuracy against an accurate reference device upon installation and at least once every 3 months of operation thereafter, or more frequently if necessary, to ensure its accuracy.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Analog or graphical recordings.</I> Differential pressure recorder-controllers that create analog or graphical recordings may be used. Differential pressure recorder-controllers that record to charts shall be used only with the appropriate chart. The scale divisions of the chart shall not exceed 2 pounds per square inch (13.8 kilopascals) on a working scale of not more than 20 pounds per square inch per inch of scale (55 kilopascals per centimeter).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Digital recordings.</I> Differential pressure recorder-controllers, such as data loggers, that record numbers or create other digital recordings may be used. Such differential pressure recorder-controllers shall record the differential pressure at intervals that will assure that the minimum differential pressure is maintained.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Flow control.</I> A flow control device shall be located upstream from the holding tube and shall be operated to maintain the required rate of product flow. A means of preventing unauthorized flow adjustments shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the flow controlling device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Product holding tube.</I> The product-sterilizing holding tube shall be designed to give continuous holding of every particle of food for at least the minimum holding time specified in the scheduled process. The holding tube shall be designed so that no portion of the tube between the product inlet and the product outlet can be heated, and it must be sloped upward at least 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch per foot (2.1 centimeters per meter).
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Flow-diversion systems.</I> If a processor elects to install a flow-diversion system, it should be installed in the product piping located between the product cooler and the product filler or aseptic surge tank and should be designed to divert flow away from the filler or aseptic surge tank automatically. Controls and/or warning systems should be designed and installed with necessary sensors and actuators to operate whenever the sterilizing temperature in the holding tube or pressure differential in the product regenerator drops below specified limits. Flow-diversion systems should be designed and operated in accordance with recommendations of an aseptic processing and packaging authority.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Equipment downstream from the holding tube.</I> Product coolers, aseptic surge tanks, or any other equipment downstream from the holding tube, with rotating or reciprocating shafts, valve stems, instrument connections, or other such points, are subject to potential entry of microorganisms into the product. Such locations in the system should be equipped with steam seals or other effective barriers at the potential access points. Appropriate means should be provided to permit the operator to monitor the performance of the seals or barriers during operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Operation</I>—(A) <I>Startup.</I> Before the start of aseptic processing operations the product sterilizer and all product-contact surfaces downstream shall be brought to a condition of commercial sterility.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Temperature drop in product-sterilizing holding tube.</I> When product temperature in the holding tube drops below the temperature specified in the scheduled process, product flow should be diverted away from the filler or aseptic surge tank by means of a flow-diversion system. If for any reason product subjected to a temperature drop below the scheduled process is filled into containers, the product shall be segregated from product that received the scheduled process. The processing deviation shall be handled in accordance with § 113.89. The product holding tube and any further system portions affected shall be returned to a condition of commercial sterility before product flow is resumed to the filler or to the aseptic surge tank.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Loss of proper pressures in the regenerator.</I> When a regenerator is used, the product may lose sterility whenever the pressure of sterilized product in the regenerator is less than 1 pound per square inch (6.9 kilopascals) greater than the pressure of unsterilized product in the regenerator. In this case, product flow should be diverted away from the filler or aseptic surge tank by means of the flow-diversion system. If for any reason the product is filled into containers, the product shall be segregated from product that received the scheduled process. The processing deviation shall be handled in accordance with § 113.89. Product flow to the filler or to the aseptic surge tank shall not be resumed until the cause of the improper pressure relationships in the regenerator has been corrected and the affected system(s) has been returned to a condition of commercial sterility.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Loss of sterile air pressure or other protection level in the aseptic surge tank.</I> When an aseptic surge tank is used, conditions of commercial sterility may be lost when the sterile air overpressure or other means of protection drops below the scheduled process value. Product flow to and/or from the aseptic surge tank shall not be resumed until the potentially contaminated product in the tank is removed, and the aseptic surge tank has been returned to a condition of commercial sterility.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Records.</I> Readings at the following points shall be observed and recorded at the start of aseptic packaging operations and at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that these values are as specified in the scheduled process: Temperature-indicating device in holding tube outlet; temperature-recording device in holding tube outlet; differential pressure recorder-controller, if a product-to-product regenerator is used; product flow rate as established by the flow control device or as determined by filling and closing rates and, if an aseptic surge tank is used, sterile air pressure or other protection means; and proper performance of steam seals or other similar devices. The measurements and recordings should be made at intervals not to exceed 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Container sterilizing, filling, and closing operation</I>—(i) <I>Equipment</I>—(A) <I>Recording device.</I> The container and closure sterilization system and product filling and closing system shall be instrumented to demonstrate that the required sterilization is being accomplished continuously. Recording devices shall be used to record, when applicable, the sterilization media flow rates, temperature, concentration, or other factors. When a batch system is used for container sterilization, the sterilization conditions shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Timing method(s).</I> A method(s) shall be used either to give the retention time of containers, and closures if applicable, in the sterilizing environment specified in the scheduled process, or to control the sterilization cycle at the rate specified in the scheduled process. A means of preventing unauthorized speed changes must be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the speed adjusting device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Operation</I>—(A) <I>Startup.</I> Before the start of packaging operations, both the container and closure sterilizing system and the product filling and closing system shall be brought to a condition of commercial sterility.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Loss of sterility.</I> A system shall be provided to stop packaging operations, or alternatively to ensure segregation of any product packaged when the packaging conditions fall below scheduled processes. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by diverting product away from the filler, by preventing containers from entering the filler, or by other suitable means. In the event product is packaged under conditions below those specified in the scheduled process, all such product shall be segregated from product that received the scheduled process. The processing deviation shall be handled in accordance with § 113.89. In the event of loss of sterility, the system(s) shall be returned to a condition of commercial sterility before resuming packaging operations.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Records.</I> Observations and measurements of operating conditions shall be made and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that commercial sterility of the food product is being achieved; such measurements shall include the sterilization media flow rates, temperatures, the container and closure rates (if applicable) through the sterilizing system, and the sterilization conditions if a batch system is used for container sterilization. The measurements and recordings should be made at intervals not to exceed 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Incubation.</I> Incubation tests should be conducted on a representative sample of containers of product from each code; records of the test results should be maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process. Such measurements and recordings should be done at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Equipment and procedures for flame sterilizers.</I> The container conveyor speed shall be specified in the scheduled process. The container conveyor speed shall be measured and recorded at the start of operations and at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the conveyor speed is as specified in the scheduled process. Such measurements and recordings should be done at 1-hour intervals. Alternatively, a recording tachometer may be used to provide a continuous record of the speed. A means of preventing changes in flame intensity and unauthorized speed changes on the conveyor shall be provided. A lock or a notice from management posted at or near the speed adjusting device that provides a warning that only authorized persons are permitted to make adjustments is a satisfactory means of preventing unauthorized changes. The surface temperature of at least one container from each conveyor channel shall be measured and recorded at the entry and at the end of the holding period at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the temperatures specified in the scheduled process are maintained. Such measurements and recordings should be done at intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Process interruption.</I> In the event of process interruption wherein the temperature of the product may have dropped, an authorized, scheduled emergency plan approved by a qualified person having expert knowledge of the process requirements may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Critical factors.</I> Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded on the processing record at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Equipment and procedures for thermal processing of foods wherein critical factors such as water activity are used in conjunction with thermal processing.</I> The methods and controls used for the manufacture, processing, and packing of such foods shall be as established in the scheduled process and shall be operated or administered in a manner adequate to ensure that the product is safe. The time and temperature of processing and other critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured with instruments having the accuracy and dependability adequate to ensure that the requirements of the scheduled process are met. All measurements shall be made and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the critical factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other systems.</I> All systems, whether or not specifically mentioned in this part, for the thermal processing of low-acid foods in hermetically sealed containers shall conform to the applicable requirements of this part and the methods and controls used for the manufacture, processing, and packing of these foods shall be as established in the scheduled process. These systems shall be operated or administered in a manner adequate to ensure that commercial sterility is achieved. Critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall be measured and recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure that the critical factors are within the limits specified in the scheduled process. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 11906, Mar. 3, 2011; 76 FR 81363, Dec. 28, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Control of Components, Food Product Containers, Closures, and In-Process Materials</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.60" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.60   Containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Closures.</I> Regular observations shall be maintained during production runs for gross closure defects. Any such defects shall be recorded and corrective action taken and recorded. At intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure proper closure, the operator, closure supervisor, or other qualified container closure inspection person shall visually examine either the top seam of a can randomly selected from each seaming head or the closure of any other type of container being used and shall record the observations made. For double-seam cans, each can should be examined for cutover or sharpness, skidding or deadheading, false seam, droop at the crossover or lap, and condition of inside of countersink wall for evidence of broken chuck. Such measurements and recordings should be made at intervals not to exceed 30 minutes. Additional visual closure inspections shall be made immediately following a jam in a closing machine, after closing machine adjustment, or after startup of a machine following a prolonged shutdown. All pertinent observations shall be recorded. When irregularities are found, the corrective action shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>(1) Teardown examinations for double-seam cans shall be performed by a qualified individual and the results therefrom shall be recorded at intervals of sufficient frequency on enough containers from each seaming station to ensure maintenance of seam integrity. Such examinations and recordings should be made at intervals not to exceed 4 hours. The results of the teardown examinations shall be recorded and the corrective action taken, if any, shall be noted.
</P>
<P>(i) Required and optional can seam measurements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Micrometer measurement system:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Optional
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cover hook</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Overlap (by calculation).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Body hook</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Countersink.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Width (length, height)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tightness (observation for wrinkle)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thickness</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Seam scope or projector:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Optional
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Body hook</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Width (length, height).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Overlap</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cover hook.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tightness (observation for wrinkle)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Countersink.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thickness by micrometer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Can double seam terminology:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.376.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) “Crossover”: The portion of a double seam at the lap.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) “Cutover”: A fracture, sharp bend, or break in the metal at the top of the inside portion of the double seam.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) “Deadhead”: A seam which is incomplete due to chuck spinning in the countersink.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) “Droop”: Smooth projection of double seam below bottom of normal seam.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) “False seam”: A small seam breakdown where the cover hook and the body hook are not overlapped.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) “Lap”: Two thicknesses of material bonded together.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two measurements at different locations, excluding the side seam, shall be made for each double seam characteristic if a seam scope or seam projector is used. When a micrometer is used, three measurements shall be made at points approximately 120° apart, excluding the side seam.
</P>
<P>(iii) Overlap length can be calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<FP>The theoretical overlap length = CH + BH + T − W, where
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>CH = cover hook
</P>
<P>BH = body hook
</P>
<P>T = cover thickness, and
</P>
<P>W = seam width (height, length)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) For glass containers with vacuum closures, capper efficiency must be checked by a measurement of the cold water vacuum. This shall be done before actual filling operations, and the results shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>(3) For closures other than double seams and glass containers, appropriate detailed inspections and tests shall be conducted by qualified personnel at intervals of sufficient frequency to ensure proper closing machine performance and consistently reliable hermetic seal production. Records of such tests shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cooling water.</I> Container cooling water shall be chlorinated or otherwise sanitized as necessary for cooling canals and for recirculated water supplies. There should be a measurable residual of the sanitizer employed at the water discharge point of the container cooler.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coding.</I> Each hermetically sealed container of low-acid processed food shall be marked with an identifying code that shall be permanently visible to the naked eye. When the container does not permit the code to be embossed or inked, the label may be legibly perforated or otherwise marked, if the label is securely affixed to the product container. The required identification shall identify in code the establishment where packed, the product contained therein, the year packed, the day packed, and the period during which packed. The packing period code shall be changed with sufficient frequency to enable ready identification of lots during their sale and distribution. Codes may be changed on the basis of one of the following: intervals of 4 to 5 hours; personnel shift changes; or batches, as long as the containers that constitute the batch do not extend over a period of more than one personnel shift.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Postprocess handling.</I> Container handling equipment used in handling filled containers shall be designed, constructed, and operated to preserve the can seam or other container closure integrity. Container handling equipment, including automated and non-automated equipment, shall be checked with sufficient frequency and repaired or replaced as necessary to prevent damage to containers and container closures. When cans are handled on belt conveyors, the conveyors should be constructed to minimize contact by the belt with the double seam, <I>i.e.,</I> cans should not be rolled on the double seam. All worn and frayed belting, can retarders, cushions, <I>etc.</I> should be replaced with new nonporous material. All tracks and belts that come into contact with the can seams should be thoroughly scrubbed and sanitized at intervals of sufficient frequency to avoid product contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16215, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 76 FR 11922, Mar. 3, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.81" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.81   Product preparation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before using raw materials and ingredients susceptible to microbiological contamination, the processor shall ensure that those materials and ingredients are suitable for use in processing low-acid food. Compliance with this requirement may be accomplished by receiving the raw materials and ingredients under a supplier's guarantee that they are suitable for use, by examining them for their microbiological condition, or by other acceptable means.
</P>
<P>(b) Blanching by heat, when required in the preparation of food for canning, should be effected by heating the food to the required temperature, holding it at this temperature for the required time, and then either rapidly cooling the food or passing it to subsequent processing without delay. Thermophilic growth and contamination in blanchers should be minimized by the use of adequate operating temperatures and by cleaning. If the blanched food product is washed before filling, potable water should be used.
</P>
<P>(c) The filling of containers, either mechanically or by hand, shall be controlled so as to ensure that the filling requirements specified in the scheduled process are met.
</P>
<P>(d) The exhausting of containers for the removal of air shall be controlled so as to meet the conditions for which the process was designed. Compliance with the requirement may be accomplished by heat exhausting, mechanical exhausting, hot brining, or steam injection.
</P>
<P>(e) When the maintenance of pH (above 4.6) of a normally low-acid food is a basis for a scheduled process, there shall be careful supervision to ensure that the equilibrium pH of the finished product meets that of the scheduled process. The methodology described in § 114.90 of this chapter should be used.
</P>
<P>(f) When the scheduled process sets forth critical factors to prevent the growth of microorganisms not destroyed by the thermal process, the factors shall be carefully controlled to ensure that the limits established in the scheduled process are not exceeded. When normally low-acid foods require sufficient solute to permit safe processing at low temperatures, such as in boiling water, there shall be careful supervision to ensure that the equilibrium water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>) of the finished product meets that of the scheduled process. The scheduled thermal processes for foods having an a<E T="52">w</E> greater than 0.85 and less than the a<E T="52">w</E> that would allow the growth of spores of microorganisms of public health significance shall be sufficient to render the food free of microorganisms capable of reproducing in the food under normal nonrefrigerated conditions of storage and distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.83" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.83   Establishing scheduled processes.</HEAD>
<P>Scheduled processes for low-acid foods shall be established by qualified persons having expert knowledge of thermal processing requirements for low-acid foods in hermetically sealed containers and having adequate facilities for making such determinations. The type, range, and combination of variations encountered in commercial production shall be adequately provided for in establishing the scheduled process. Variations include those that occur due to seasonal or growing fluctuations, variety differences, supplier processes, reprocessing, and mixing a batch of processed product with the same unprocessed product before it is processed. Critical factors, e.g., minimum headspace, consistency, maximum fill-in or drained weight, a<E T="52">w</E>, <I>etc.,</I> that may affect the scheduled process, shall be specified in the scheduled process. Acceptable scientific methods of establishing heat sterilization processes shall include, when necessary, but shall not be limited to, the use of microbial thermal death time data, process calculations based on product heat penetration data, and inoculated packs. Calculation shall be performed according to procedures recognized by competent processing authorities. If incubation tests are necessary for process confirmation, they shall include containers from test trials and from actual commercial production runs during the period of instituting the process. The incubation tests for confirmation of the scheduled processes should include the containers from the test trials and a number of containers from each of four or more actual commercial production runs. The number of containers from actual commercial production runs should be determined on the basis of recognized scientific methods to be of a size sufficient to ensure the adequacy of the process. Complete records covering all aspects of the establishment of the process and associated incubation tests shall be prepared and shall be permanently retained by the person or organization making the determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 11922, Mar. 3, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.87" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.87   Operations in the thermal processing room.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Operating processes and retort venting procedures to be used for each product and container size being packed shall either be posted in a conspicuous place near the processing equipment or be made readily available to the retort or processing system operator and any duly authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration. Scheduled processes must be made readily available to the supervisor and any duly authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) A system for product traffic control in the retort room shall be established to prevent unretorted product from bypassing the retort process. Each retort basket, truck, car, or crate used to hold containers in a retort, or one or more containers therein, shall, if it contains any retorted food product, be plainly and conspicuously marked with a heat-sensitive indicator, or by other effective means that will indicate visually, to thermal processing personnel, those units that have been retorted. A visual check shall be performed to determine whether or not the appropriate change has occurred in the heat-sensitive indicator as a result of retorting for all retort baskets, trucks, cars, or crates, to ensure that each unit of product has been retorted. A record of these checks should be made.
</P>
<P>(c) The initial temperature of the contents of the containers to be processed shall be accurately determined and recorded with sufficient frequency to ensure that the temperature of the product is no lower than the minimum initial temperature specified in the scheduled process. For those operations that use water during the filling of the retort or during processing, provision shall be made to ensure that the water will not, before the start of each thermal process, lower the initial temperature of the product below that specified in the scheduled process. The temperature-indicating device used to determine the initial temperature shall be tested for accuracy against a reference device for which the accuracy is traceable to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or other national metrology institute, standard reference device, by appropriate standard procedures, with sufficient frequency to ensure that initial temperature measurements are accurate. Records of the accuracy of the temperature-indicating device and of a reference device that is maintained by the processor shall be established and maintained in accordance with § 113.100(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(d) Timing devices used in recording thermal process time information shall be accurate to the extent needed to ensure that the processing time and venting time specified in the scheduled process are achieved. Pocket or wrist watches are not considered satisfactory for timing purposes. Digital clocks may be used if the operating process and the venting schedule have a 1-minute or greater safety factor over the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(e) Clock times on temperature-recording device records shall reasonably correspond to the time of day on the processing records to provide correlation of these records.
</P>
<P>(f) The steam supply to the thermal processing system shall be adequate to the extent needed to ensure that sufficient steam pressure is maintained during thermal processing, regardless of other demands of steam by the plant.
</P>
<P>(g) If mufflers are used on bleeders or vent systems, evidence that the bleeders or vents are operated in a manner that does not significantly impede the removal of air shall be kept on file. This evidence may be in the form of heat distribution data or other satisfactory evidence such as a letter from the manufacturer, the designer, or a competent processing authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16215, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 76 FR 11923, Mar. 3, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.89" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.89   Deviations in processing, venting, or control of critical factors.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any process is less than the scheduled process or when critical factors are out of control for any low-acid food or container system as disclosed from records by processor check or otherwise, the commercial processor of that low-acid food shall either fully reprocess that portion of the production involved, keeping full records of the reprocessing conditions or, alternatively, must set aside that portion of the product involved for further evaluation as to any potential public health significance. Such evaluation shall be made by a competent processing authority and shall be in accordance with procedures recognized by competent processing authorities as being adequate to detect any potential hazard to public health. Unless this evaluation demonstrates that the product had been given a thermal process that rendered it free of microorganisms of potential public health significance, the product set aside shall be either fully reprocessed to render it commercially sterile or destroyed. A record shall be made of the evaluation procedures used and the results. Either upon completion of full reprocessing and the attainment of commercial sterility or after the determination that no significant potential for public health hazard exists, that portion of the product involved may be shipped in normal distribution. Otherwise, the portion of the product involved shall be destroyed. All process deviations involving a failure to satisfy the minimum requirements of the scheduled process, including emergencies arising from a jam or breakdown of a continuous agitating retort necessitating cooling the retort for repairs, shall be recorded and made the subject of a separate file (or a log identifying the appropriate data) detailing those deviations and the actions taken.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 113.100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 113.100   Processing and production records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Processing and production information shall be entered at the time it is observed by the retort or processing system operator, or other designated person, on forms that include the product, the code number, the date, the retort or processing system number, the size of container, the approximate number of containers per coding interval, the initial temperature, the actual processing time, the temperature-indicating device and temperature-recording device readings, and other appropriate processing data. Closing machine vacuum in vacuum-packed products, maximum fill-in or drained weight, or other critical factors specified in the scheduled process shall also be recorded. In addition, the following records shall be maintained:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Still retorts.</I> Time steam on; time temperature up to processing temperature; time steam off; venting time and temperature to which vented.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agitating retorts.</I> Functioning of condensate bleeder; retort speed; and, when specified in the scheduled process, headspace, consistency, maximum drained weight, minimum net weight, and percent solids.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hydrostatic retorts.</I> The temperature in the steam chamber between the steam-water interface and the lowest container position; speed of the container conveyor chain; and, when the scheduled process specifies maintenance of particular temperatures in the hydrostatic water legs, the temperatures near the top and the bottom of each hydrostatic water leg.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Aseptic processing and packaging systems.</I> Product temperature in the holding tube outlet as indicated by the temperature-indicating device and the temperature-recording device; differential pressure as indicated by the differential pressure recorder-controller, if a product-to-product regenerator is used; product flow rate, as determined by the flow controlling device or by filling and closing rates; sterilization media flow rate or temperature or both; retention time of containers, and closures when applicable, in the sterilizing environment; and, when a batch system is used for container and/or closure sterilization, sterilization cycle times and temperatures.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Flame sterilizers.</I> Container conveyor speed; surface temperature at the beginning and at the end of the holding period; nature of container.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Food preservation methods wherein critical factors such as water activity are used in conjunction with thermal processing.</I> Product formulation and scheduled processes used, including the thermal process, its associated critical factors, as well as other critical factors, and results of a<E T="52">w</E> determinations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Other systems.</I> Critical factors specified in the formulation of the product or in the scheduled process.
</P>
<P>(b) Temperature-recording device records shall be identified by date, retort number, and other data as necessary, so they can be correlated with the record of lots processed. Each entry on the processing and production records shall be made by the retort or processing system operator, or other designated person, at the time the specific retort or processing system condition or operation occurs, and this retort or processing system operator or other designated person shall sign or initial each record form. Not later than 1 working day after the actual process, and before shipment or release for distribution, a representative of plant management who is qualified by suitable training or experience shall review all processing and production records for completeness and to ensure that the product received the scheduled process. The records, including temperature-recording device records, shall be signed or initialed and dated by the reviewer.
</P>
<P>(c) Records of the accuracy of a temperature-indicating device shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A reference to the tag, seal, or other means of identity used by the processor to identify the temperature-indicating device;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the manufacturer of the temperature-indicating device;
</P>
<P>(3) The identity of the reference device, equipment, and procedures used for the accuracy test and to adjust the temperature-indicating device or, if an outside facility is used to conduct the accuracy test for the temperature-indicating device, a guarantee, certificate of accuracy, certificate of calibration, or other document from the facility that includes a statement or other documentation regarding the traceability of the accuracy to a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) or other national metrology institute standard;
</P>
<P>(4) The identity of the person or facility that performed the accuracy test and adjusted or calibrated the temperature-indicating device;
</P>
<P>(5) The date and results of each accuracy test, including the amount of calibration adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(6) The date on or before which the next accuracy test must be performed.
</P>
<P>(d) Records of the accuracy of a reference device maintained by the processor shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A reference to the tag, seal, or other means of identity used by the processor to identify the reference device;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the manufacturer of the reference device;
</P>
<P>(3) The identity of the equipment and reference to procedures used for the accuracy test and to adjust or calibrate the reference device or, if an outside facility is used to conduct the accuracy test for the reference device, a guarantee, certificate of accuracy, certificate of calibration, or other document from the facility that includes a statement or other documentation regarding the traceability of the accuracy to a NIST or other national metrology institute standard;
</P>
<P>(4) The identity of the person or facility that performed the accuracy test and adjusted or calibrated the reference device;
</P>
<P>(5) The date and results of each accuracy test, including the amount of calibration adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(6) The date on or before which the next accuracy test must be performed.
</P>
<P>(e) Records of all container closure examinations shall specify the product code, the date and time of container closure inspections, the measurements obtained, and all corrective actions taken. Records shall be signed or initialed by the container closure inspector and reviewed by management with sufficient frequency to ensure that the containers are hermetically sealed. The records shall be signed or initialed and dated by the reviewer.
</P>
<P>(f) Records shall be maintained to identify the initial distribution of the finished product to facilitate, when necessary, the segregation of specific food lots that may have become contaminated or otherwise rendered unfit for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(g) Copies of all records provided for in this part, except those required under § 113.83 establishing scheduled processes, shall be retained at the processing plant for a period of not less than 1 year from the date of manufacture, and at the processing plant or other reasonably accessible location for an additional 2 years. If, during the first year of the 3-year record-retention period, the processing plant is closed for a prolonged period between seasonal packs, the records may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location at the end of the seasonal pack.
</P>
<P>(h) Records of this part may be maintained electronically, provided they are in compliance with part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16215, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 76 FR 11923, Mar. 3, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="114" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 114—ACIDIFIED FOODS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 16235, Mar. 16, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acid foods</I> means foods that have a natural pH of 4.6 or below.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acidified foods</I> means low-acid foods to which acid(s) or acid food(s) are added; these foods include, but are not limited to, beans, cucumbers, cabbage, artichokes, cauliflower, puddings, peppers, tropical fruits, and fish, singly or in any combination. They have a water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>) greater than 0.85 and have a finished equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below. These foods may be called, or may purport to be, “pickles” or “pickled ______.” Carbonated beverages, jams, jellies, preserves, acid foods (including such foods as standardized and nonstandardized food dressings and condiment sauces) that contain small amounts of low-acid food(s) and have a resultant finished equilibrium pH that does not significantly differ from that of the predominant acid or acid food, and foods that are stored, distributed, and retailed under refrigeration are excluded from the coverage of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lot</I> means the product produced during a period indicated by a specific code.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Low-acid foods</I> means any foods, other than alcoholic beverages, with a finished equilibrium pH greater than 4.6 and a water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>) greater than 0.85. Tomatoes and tomato products having a finished equilibrium pH less than 4.7 are not classed as low-acid foods.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Scheduled process</I> means the process selected by a processor as adequate for use under the conditions of manufacture for a food in achieving and maintaining a food that will not permit the growth of microorganisms having public health significance. It includes control of pH and other critical factors equivalent to the process established by a competent processing authority.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Shall</I> is used to state mandatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Should</I> is used to state recommended or advisory procedures or to identify recommended equipment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Water activity</I> (a<E T="52">w</E>) is a measure of the free moisture in a product and is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16235, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.5   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>The criteria in §§ 114.10, 114.80, 114.83, 114.89, and 114.100, as well as the criteria in parts 110 and 117 of this chapter, apply in determining whether an article of acidified food is adulterated:
</P>
<P>(a) Within the meaning of section 402(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that it has been manufactured under such conditions that it is unfit for food; or
</P>
<P>(b) Within the meaning of section 402(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that it has been prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions whereby it may have become contaminated with filth, or whereby it may have been rendered injurious to health.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56144, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.10   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>All operators of processing and packaging systems shall be under the operating supervisions of a person who has attended a school approved by the Commissioner for giving instruction in food-handling techniques, food-protection principles, personal hygiene and plant sanitation practices, pH controls and critical factors in acidification, and who has been identified by that school as having satisfactorily completed the prescribed course of instruction. The Commissioner will consider students who have satisfactorily completed the required portions of the courses presented under § 108.35 and part 113 of this chapter before March 16, 1979, to be in compliance with the requirement of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts B-D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.80" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.80   Processes and controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing operations.</I> The manufacturer shall employ appropriate quality control procedures to ensure that finished foods do not present a health hazard.
</P>
<P>(1) Acidified foods shall be so manufactured, processed, and packaged that a finished equilibrium pH value of 4.6 or lower is achieved within the time designated in the scheduled process and maintained in all finished foods. Manufacturing shall be in accordance with the scheduled process. Acidified foods shall be thermally processed to an extent that is sufficient to destroy the vegetative cells of microorganisms of public health significance and those of nonhealth significance capable of reproducing in the food under the conditions in which the food is stored, distributed, retailed and held by the user. Permitted preservatives may be used to inhibit reproduction of microorganisms of nonhealth significance (in lieu of thermal processing).
</P>
<P>(2) Sufficient control, including frequent testing and recording of results, shall be exercised so that the finished equilibrium pH values for acidified foods are not higher than 4.6. Measurement of acidity of foods in-process may be made by potentiometric methods, titratable acidity, or colorimetric methods. If the finished equilibrium pH of the food is above 4.0, the measurement of the finished equilibrium pH shall be by a potentiometric method, and the in-process measurements by titration or colorimetry shall be related to the finished equilibrium pH. If the finished equilibrium pH is 4.0 or below, then the measurement of acidity of the final product may be made by any suitable method. Special care should be taken when food ingredients have been subjected to lye, lime, or similar high pH materials.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures for acidification to attain acceptable equilibrium pH levels in the final food include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Blanching of the food ingredients in acidified aqueous solutions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Immersion of the blanched food in acid solutions. Although immersion of food in an acid solution is a satisfactory method for acidification, care must be taken to ensure that the acid concentration is properly maintained.
</P>
<P>(iii) Direct batch acidification, which can be achieved by adding a known amount of an acid solution to a specified amount of food during acidification.
</P>
<P>(iv) Direct addition of a predetermined amount of acid to individual containers during production. Liquid acids are generally more effective than solid or pelleted acids. Care must be taken to ensure that the proper amount of acid is added to each container.
</P>
<P>(v) Addition of acid foods to low-acid foods in controlled proportions to conform to specific formulations.
</P>
<P>(4) Testing and examinations of containers shall occur often enough to ensure that the container suitably protects the food from leakage or contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coding.</I> Each container or product shall be marked with an identifying code permanently visible to the naked eye. If the container does not permit the code to be embossed or inked, the label may be legibly perforated or otherwise marked, as long as the label is securely affixed to the product container. The required identification shall specify in code the establishment where the product was packed, the product contained therein, and the year, day, and period during which it was packed. The packing period code shall be changed often enough to enable ready identification of lots during their sale and distribution. Codes may be changed periodically on one of the following bases: intervals of 4 to 5 hours; personnel shift changes; or batches, as long as the containers constituting the batch do not represent those processed during more than one personnel shift.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.83" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.83   Establishing scheduled processes.</HEAD>
<P>The scheduled process shall be established by a qualified person who has expert knowledge acquired through appropriate training and experience in the acidification and processing of acidified foods.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.89" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.89   Deviations from scheduled processes.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any process operation deviates from the scheduled process for any acidified food and/or the equilibrium pH of the finished product is higher than 4.6, the commercial processor of the acidified food shall either: (a) Fully reprocess that portion of the food by a process established by a competent processing authority as adequate to ensure a safe product; (b) thermally process it as a low-acid food under part 113 of this chapter; or (c) set aside that portion of the food involved for further evaluation as to any potential public health significance. The evaluation shall be made by a competent processing authority and shall be in accordance with procedures recognized by competent processing authorities as being adequate to detect any potential hazard to public health. Unless the evaluation demonstrates that the food has undergone a process that has rendered it safe, the food set aside shall either be fully reprocessed to render it safe, or be destroyed. A record shall be made of the procedures used in the evaluation and the results. Either upon completion of full reprocessing and the attainment of a safe food, or after the determination that no significant potential for public health hazard exists, that portion of the food involved may be shipped in normal distribution. Otherwise, the portion of the food involved shall be destroyed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.90" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.90   Methodology.</HEAD>
<P>Methods that may be used to determine pH or acidity for acidified foods include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Potentiometric method for the determination of pH</I>—(1) <I>Principles.</I> The term “pH” is used to designate the intensity or degree of acidity. The value of pH, the logarithm of the reciprocal of the hydrogen ion concentration in solution, is determined by measuring the difference in potential between two electrodes immersed in a sample solution. A suitable system consists of a potentiometer, a glass electrode, and a reference electrode. A precise pH determination can be made by making an electromotive force (emf) measurement of a standard buffer solution whose pH is known, and then comparing that measurement to an emf measurement of a sample of the solution to be tested.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Instruments.</I> The primary instrument for use in pH determination is the pH meter or potentiometer. For most work, an instrument with a direct-reading pH scale is necessary. Battery and line-operated instruments are available commercially. If the line voltage is unstable, line-operated instruments should be fitted with voltage regulators to eliminate drifting of meter-scale readings. Batteries should be checked frequently to ensure proper operation of battery operated instruments. An instrument using an expanded unit scale or a digital readout system is preferred since it allows more precise measurements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electrodes.</I> The typical pH meter is equipped with a glass membrane electrode and a reference electrode or a single probe combination electrode. Various types of electrodes designed for specific uses are available. The most commonly used reference electrode is the calomel electrode, which incorporates a salt bridge filled with saturated potassium chloride solution.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Care and use of electrodes.</I> Calomel electrodes should be kept filled with saturated potassium chloride solution or other solution specified by the manufacturer because they may become damaged if they are allowed to dry out. For best results, electrodes should be soaked in buffer solution, distilled or deionized water, or other liquid specified by the manufacturer for several hours before using and kept ready by storing with tips immersed in distilled water or in buffer solution used for standardization. Electrodes should be rinsed with water before immersing in the standard buffers and rinsed with water or the solution to be measured next between sample determinations. A lag in meter response may indicate aging effects or fouling of the electrodes, and cleaning and rejuvenation of the electrodes may be necessary and may be accomplished by placing the electrodes in 0.1 molar sodium hydroxide solution for 1 minute and then transferring them to 0.1 molar hydrochloric acid solution for 1 minute. The cycle should be repeated two times, ending with the electrodes in the acid solution. The electrodes should then be thoroughly rinsed with water and blotted with soft tissue before proceeding with the standardization.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Temperature.</I> To obtain accurate results, a uniform temperature should be maintained for the electrodes, the standard buffer solutions, and the samples. Tests should be made at a temperature between 20° and 30 °C, the optimum being 25 °C. Any temperature determinations made without meter compensation may affect pH values. An automatic temperature compensator may be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accuracy.</I> The accuracy of most pH meters is stated to be approximately 0.1 pH unit, and reproducibility is usually ±0.05 pH unit or less. Some meters permit the expansion of any pH unit range to cover the entire scale and have an accuracy of approximately ±0.01 pH unit and a reproducibility of ±0.005 pH units.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>General procedure for determining pH.</I> When operating an instrument, the operator should use the manufacturer's instructions and should observe the following techniques for pH determinations:
</P>
<P>(i) Switch the instrument on and allow the electronic components to warm up and stabilize before proceeding.
</P>
<P>(ii) Standardize the instrument and electrodes with commercially prepared standard 4.0 pH buffer or with freshly prepared 0.05 molar potassium acid phthalate buffer solution prepared as outlined in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), section 50.007(c), under “Buffer Solutions for Calibration of pH Equipment—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Note the temperature of the buffer solution and set the temperature compensator control at the observed temperature (room temperature is near 25 °C).
</P>
<P>(iii) Rinse the electrodes with water and blot, but do not wipe, with soft tissue.
</P>
<P>(iv) Immerse the tips in the buffer solution and take the pH reading, allowing about 1 minute for the meter to stabilize. Adjust the standardization control so that the meter reading corresponds to the pH of the known buffer (for example, 4.0) for the temperature observed. Rinse the electrodes with water and blot with soft tissue. Repeat procedure with fresh portions of buffer solution until the instrument remains in balance on two successive trials. To check the operation of the pH meter, check the pH reading using another standard buffer such as one having a pH of 7.0, or check it with freshly prepared 0.025 molar phosphate solution prepared as outlined in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), section 50.007(e), which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section. Expanded scale pH meters may be checked with pH 3.0 or pH 5.0 standard buffers. Buffers and instruments can be further checked by comparison with values obtained with a second properly standardized instrument.
</P>
<P>(v) Indicating electrodes may be checked for proper operation by first using an acid buffer and then a base buffer. First standardize the electrodes using a pH 4.0 buffer at or near 25 °C. Standardization control should be adjusted so that the meter reads exactly 4.0. Electrodes should be rinsed with water, then blotted and immersed in a pH 9.18 borax buffer prepared as outlined in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), section 50.007(f), which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section. The pH reading should be within ±0.3 units of the 9.18 value.
</P>
<P>(vi) The pH meter can be tested for proper operation by shorting the glass and reference electrode inputs, thereby reducing the voltage to zero. In some meters this shorting is done by switching the instrument to standby, and in other instruments by use of a shorting strap. With the instrument shorted out, standardization control should be turned from one extreme to another. This operation should produce a deflection greater than ±1.5 pH unit from center scale.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Determining pH on samples.</I> (i) Adjust the temperature of the sample to room temperature (25 °C), and set the temperature compensator control to the observed temperature. With some expanded scale instruments, the sample temperature must be the same as the temperature of the buffer solution used for the standardization.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rinse and blot the electrodes. Immerse the electrodes in the sample and take the pH reading, allowing 1 minute for the meter to stabilize. Rinse and blot the electrodes and repeat on a fresh portion of sample. Oil and grease from the samples may coat the electrodes; therefore, it is advisable to clean and standardize the instrument frequently. When oily samples cause fouling problems, it may become necessary to rinse the electrodes with ethyl ether.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine two pH values on the well-mixed sample. These readings should agree with one another to indicate that the sample is homogeneous. Report values to the nearest 0.05 pH unit.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Preparation of samples.</I> Some food products may consist of a mixture of liquid and solid components that differ in acidity. Other food products may be semisolid in character. The following are examples of preparation procedures for pH testing for each of these categories:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Liquid and solid component mixtures.</I> Drain the contents of the container for 2 minutes on a U.S. standard No. 8 sieve (preferably stainless steel) inclined at a 17- to 20-degree angle. Record weight of the liquid and solid portions and retain each portion separately.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) If the liquid contains sufficient oil to cause electrode fouling, separate the layers with a separatory funnel and retain the aqueous layer. The oil layer may be discarded. Adjust the temperature of the aqueous layer to 25 °C and determine its pH.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Remove the drained solids from the sieve, blend to a uniform paste, adjust the temperature of the paste to 25 °C and determine its pH.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Mix aliquots of solid and liquid fractions in the same ratio as found in the original container and blend to a uniform consistency. Adjust the temperature of the blend to 25 °C and determine the equilibriated pH. Alternatively, blend the entire contents of the container to a uniform paste, adjust the temperature of the paste to 25 °C, and determine the equilibriated pH. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Marinated oil products.</I> Separate the oil from the solid product. Blend the solid in a blender to a paste consistency; it may become necessary to add a small amount of distilled water to some samples to facilitate the blending. A small amount of added water will not alter the pH of most food products, but caution must be exercised concerning poorly buffered foods. No more than 20 milliliters of distilled water should be added to each 100 grams of product. Determine the pH by immersing electrodes in the prepared paste after adjusting the temperature to 25 °C.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Semisolid products.</I> Food products of a semisolid consistency, such as puddings, potato salad, etc., may be blended to a paste consistency, and the pH may be determined on the prepared paste. If more fluidity is required, 10 to 20 milliliters of distilled water may be added to 100 grams of product. Adjust the temperature of the prepared paste to 25 °C and determine its pH.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Special product mixtures.</I> For special product mixtures such as antipasto, pour off the oil, blend the remaining product to a paste, and determine the pH of the blended paste. If more fluidity is required, add 10 to 20 milliliters of distilled water to each 100 grams of product and blend. Adjust the temperature of the prepared paste to 25 °C and determine its pH.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Process pH determination.</I> Obtain sample portions of material for pH determination.
</P>
<P>(i) For process liquids, adjust the temperature of the liquid to 25 °C and determine the pH by immersing the electrodes in the liquid.
</P>
<P>(ii) Drain solid materials on a sieve and blend to a workable paste. Adjust the temperature of the prepared paste to 25 °C and determine its pH.
</P>
<P>(iii) If enough solid materials are available to make a paste, blend representative aliquots of liquid and solid materials to a workable paste. Adjust the temperature of the prepared paste to 25 °C and determine the equilibrated pH. Alternatively, blend the entire contents of the container to a uniform paste, adjust the temperature of the paste to 25 °C, and determine the equilibrated pH.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Colorimetric methods for the determination of pH.</I> This method may be used in lieu of the potentiometric method if the pH is 4.0 or lower.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Principle.</I> The colorimetric method for pH involves the use of indicator dyes in solutions that gradually change color over limited pH ranges. An indicator that has the greatest color change at approximately the pH of the sample being tested is selected. The pH is determined by the color of the indicator when exposed to the sample under test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indicator solutions.</I> Most indicator solutions are prepared as a 0.04 percent solution of the indicator dye in alcohol. In testing, a few drops of indicator solution are added to 10-milliliter portions of the sample solution. Colors should be compared using a bright background. Approximate determinations can be made on white porcelain spot plates, the test colors being compared thereon with a set of color standards. More accurate colorimetric tests can be made using a comparator block fitted with sets of tubes of standard indicator solutions of known pH.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Indicator paper.</I> A paper tape treated with indicator dye is dipped into the sample solution. Depending upon the pH of the solution, the tape will change color and an approximate pH can be determined by comparison with a standard color chart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Titratable acidity.</I> Acceptable methods for determining titratable acidity are described in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), section 22.060, under “Titratable Acidity—Official Final Action,” for “Indicator Method,” and section 22.061 for “Glass Electrode Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section. The procedure for preparing and standardizing the sodium hydroxide solution is described in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), sections 50.032-50.035, under “Sodium Hydroxide—Official Final Action” by the “Standard Potassium Hydroxide Phthalate Method,” which is also incorporated by reference and available as set forth in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16235, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 11822, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 5609, Feb. 14, 1984; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 114.100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.14.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 114.100   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records shall be maintained of examinations of raw materials, packaging materials, and finished products, and of suppliers' guarantees or certifications that verify compliance with Food and Drug Administration regulations and guidance documents or action levels.
</P>
<P>(b) Processing and production records showing adherence to scheduled processes, including records of pH measurements and other critical factors intended to ensure a safe product, shall be maintained and shall contain sufficient additional information such as product code, date, container size, and product, to permit a public health hazard evaluation of the processes applied to each lot, batch, or other portion of production.
</P>
<P>(c) All departures from scheduled processes having a possible bearing on public health or the safety of the food shall be noted and the affected portion of the product identified; these departures shall be recorded and made the subject of a separate file (or log identifying the appropriate data) delineating them, the action taken to rectify them, and the disposition of the portion of the product involved.
</P>
<P>(d) Records shall be maintained identifying initial distribution of the finished product to facilitate, when necessary, the segregation of specific food lots that may have become contaminated or otherwise unfit for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(e) Copies of all records provided for in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be retained at the processing plant or other reasonably accessible location for a period of 3 years from the date of manufacture.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16235, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 115—SHELL EGGS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 371; 42 U.S.C. 243, 264, 271.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 115.50" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 115.50   Refrigeration of shell eggs held for retail distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section a “retail establishment” is an operation that stores, prepares, packages, serves, vends, or otherwise provides food for human consumption directly to consumers. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, all shell eggs, whether in intrastate or interstate commerce, held for retail distribution: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall promptly be placed under refrigeration as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section upon receipt at a retail establishment, except that, when short delays are unavoidable, the eggs shall be placed under refrigeration, as soon as reasonably possible; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall be stored and displayed under refrigeration at an ambient temperature not greater than 7.2 °C (45 °F) while held at a retail establishment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Shell eggs that have been specifically processed to destroy all viable <I>Salmonella</I> shall be exempt from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) Under sections 311 and 361 of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act), any State or locality that is willing and able to assist the agency in the enforcement of paragraph (b) of this section, and is authorized to inspect or regulate retail establishments, may, in its own jurisdiction, enforce paragraph (b) of this section through inspections under paragraph (f) of this section and through administrative enforcement remedies identified in paragraph (e) of this section until FDA notifies the State or locality in writing that such assistance is no longer needed. When providing assistance under paragraph (e) of this section, a State or locality may follow the hearing procedures set out in paragraphs (e)(2)(iii) through (e)(2)(iv) of this section, substituting, where necessary, appropriate State or local officials for designated FDA officials or may utilize State or local hearing procedures if such procedures satisfy due process. 
</P>
<P>(e) This section is established under authority of both the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and the PHS Act. Under the act, the agency can enforce the food adulteration provisions under 21 U.S.C. 331, 332, 333, and 334. However, 42 U.S.C. 264 provides for the issuance of implementing enforcement regulations; therefore, FDA has established the following administrative enforcement procedures for the diversion or destruction of shell eggs and for informal hearings under the PHS Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) Upon finding that any shell eggs have been held in violation of this section, an authorized FDA representative or a State or local representative in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section may order such eggs to be diverted, under the supervision of said representative, for processing in accordance with the Egg Products Inspection Act (EPIA) (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>) or destroyed by or under the supervision of an officer or employee of the FDA, or, if applicable, of the State or locality in accordance with the following procedures: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order for diversion or destruction.</I> Any division office of FDA or any State or local agency acting under paragraph (d) of this section, upon finding shell eggs held in violation of this section, may serve upon the person in whose possession such eggs are found a written order that such eggs be diverted, under the supervision of an officer or employee of the issuing entity, for processing in accordance with the EPIA (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>) or destroyed by or under the supervision of said division office, within 10 working days from the date of receipt of the order. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Issuance of order.</I> The order shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the shell eggs identified in the order are subject to diversion for processing in accordance with the EPIA or destruction; 
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of the facts that justify the issuance of the order; 
</P>
<P>(C) The location of the eggs; 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that these eggs shall not be sold, distributed, or otherwise disposed of or moved except as provided in paragraph (e)(1)(v) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(E) Identification or description of the eggs; 
</P>
<P>(F) The order number; 
</P>
<P>(G) The date of the order; 
</P>
<P>(H) The text of this entire section; 
</P>
<P>(I) A statement that the order may be appealed by written appeal or by requesting an informal hearing; 
</P>
<P>(J) The name and phone number of the person issuing the order; and 
</P>
<P>(K) The location and telephone number of the office or agency and the name of its director. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Approval of Division Director.</I> An order, before issuance, shall be approved by the FDA Division Director in whose division the shell eggs are located. If prior written approval is not feasible, prior oral approval shall be obtained and confirmed by written memorandum as soon as possible. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Labeling or marking of shell eggs under order.</I> An FDA, State, or local agency representative issuing an order under paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall label or mark the shell eggs with official tags that include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the shell eggs are detained in accordance with regulations issued under section 361(a) of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 264(a)). 
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the shell eggs shall not be sold, distributed or otherwise disposed of or moved except, after notifying the issuing entity in writing, to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Divert them for processing in accordance with the EPIA or destroy them; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Move them to an another location for holding pending appeal. 
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the violation of the order or the removal or alteration of the tag is punishable by fine or imprisonment or both (section 368 of the PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 271). 
</P>
<P>(D) The order number and the date of the order, and the name of the government representative who issued the order. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sale or other disposition of shell eggs under order.</I> After service of the order, the person in possession of the shell eggs that are the subject of the order shall not sell, distribute, or otherwise dispose of or move any eggs subject to the order unless and until the notice is withdrawn after an appeal except, after notifying FDA's division office or, if applicable, the State or local agency in writing, to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Divert or destroy them as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Move them to another location for holding pending appeal. 
</P>
<P>(2) The person on whom the order for diversion or destruction is served may either comply with the order or appeal the order to an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appeal of a detention order.</I> Any appeal shall be submitted in writing to FDA's Division Director in whose division the shell eggs are located within 5 working days of the issuance of the order. If the appeal includes a request for an informal hearing, the hearing shall be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed or, if requested by the appellant, at a later date, which shall not be later than 20 calendar days after the issuance of the order. The order may also be appealed within the same period of 5 working days by any other person having an ownership or proprietary interest in such shell eggs. The appellant of an order shall state the ownership or proprietary interest the appellant has in the shell eggs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Summary decision.</I> A request for a hearing may be denied, in whole or in part and at any time after a request for a hearing has been submitted, if the Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director determines that no genuine and substantial issue of fact has been raised by the material submitted in connection with the hearing or from matters officially noticed. If the presiding FDA official determines that a hearing is not justified, written notice of the determination will be given to the parties explaining the reason for denial.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Informal hearing.</I> Appearance by any appellant at the hearing may be by mail or in person, with or without counsel. The informal hearing shall be conducted by the Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director, and a written summary of the proceedings shall be prepared by the presiding FDA official.
</P>
<P>(A) The presiding FDA official may direct that the hearing be conducted in any suitable manner permitted by law and this section. The presiding FDA official has the power to take such actions and make such rulings as are necessary or appropriate to maintain order and to conduct an informal, fair, expeditious, and impartial hearing, and to enforce the requirements concerning the conduct of hearings.
</P>
<P>(B) Employees of FDA will first give a full and complete statement of the action which is the subject of the hearing, together with the information and reasons supporting it, and may present oral or written information relevant to the hearing. The party requesting the hearing may then present oral or written information relevant to the hearing. All parties may conduct reasonable examination of any person (except for the presiding officer and counsel for the parties) who makes any statement on the matter at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(C) The hearing shall be informal in nature, and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views will be made or considered, but any party may comment upon or rebut any information and views presented by another party. 
</P>
<P>(D) The party requesting the hearing may have the hearing transcribed, at the party's expense, in which case a copy of the transcript is to be furnished to FDA. Any transcript of the hearing will be included with the presiding FDA official's report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(E) The presiding FDA official shall prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. Whenever time permits, the presiding FDA official may give the parties the opportunity to review and comment on the report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(F) The presiding FDA official shall include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and shall include a recommended decision, with a statement of reasons.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Written appeal.</I> If the appellant appeals the detention order but does not request a hearing, the presiding FDA official shall render a decision on the appeal affirming or revoking the detention within 5-working days after the receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Presiding FDA official's decision.</I> If, based on the evidence presented at the hearing or by the appellant in a written appeal, the presiding FDA official finds that the shell eggs were held in violation of this section, he shall affirm the order that they be diverted, under the supervision of an officer or employee of FDA for processing under the EPIA or destroyed by or under the supervision of an officer or employee of FDA; otherwise, the presiding FDA official shall issue a written notice that the prior order is withdrawn. If the presiding FDA official affirms the order, he shall order that the diversion or destruction be accomplished within 10-working days from the date of the issuance of his decision. The presiding FDA official's decision shall be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for the decision. The decision of the presiding FDA official shall constitute final agency action, reviewable in the courts.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>No appeal.</I> If there is no appeal of the order and the person in possession of the shell eggs that are subject to the order fails to divert or destroy them within 10 working days, or if the demand is affirmed by the presiding FDA official after an appeal and the person in possession of such eggs fails to divert or destroy them within 10 working days, FDA's division office or appropriate State or local agency may designate an officer or employee to divert or destroy such eggs. It shall be unlawful to prevent or to attempt to prevent such diversion or destruction of the shell eggs by the designated officer or employee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inspection.</I> Persons engaged in retail distribution of shell eggs shall permit authorized representatives of FDA to make at any reasonable time such inspection of the retail establishment in which shell eggs are being held, including inspection and sampling of such eggs and the equipment in which shell eggs are held and any records relating to such equipment or eggs, as may be necessary in the judgement of such representatives to determine compliance with the provisions of this section. Inspections may be made with or without notice and will ordinarily be made during regular business hours. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Preemption.</I> No State or local governing entity shall establish or continue in effect any law, rule, regulation, or other requirement allowing refrigeration of unpasteurized shell eggs at retail establishments at any temperature greater than 7.2 °C (45 °F).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 76112, Dec. 5, 2000, as amended at 82 FR 14145, Mar. 17, 2017; 85 FR 16552, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="117" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 117—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE, HAZARD ANALYSIS, AND RISK-BASED PREVENTIVE CONTROLS FOR HUMAN FOOD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 342, 343, 350d note, 350g, 350g note, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 243, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 117 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.1   Applicability and status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria and definitions in this part apply in determining whether a food is:
</P>
<P>(1) Adulterated within the meaning of:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 402(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that the food has been manufactured under such conditions that it is unfit for food; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 402(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that the food has been prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions whereby it may have become contaminated with filth, or whereby it may have been rendered injurious to health; and
</P>
<P>(2) In violation of section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 264).
</P>
<P>(b) The operation of a facility that manufactures, processes, packs, or holds food for sale in the United States if the owner, operator, or agent in charge of such facility is required to comply with, and is not in compliance with, section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or subpart C, D, E, F, or G of this part is a prohibited act under section 301(uu) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Food covered by specific current good manufacturing practice regulations also is subject to the requirements of those regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3715, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Acid foods</I> or <I>acidified foods</I> means foods that have an equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below.
</P>
<P><I>Adequate</I> means that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose in keeping with good public health practice.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any facility that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another facility.
</P>
<P><I>Allergen cross-contact</I> means the unintentional incorporation of a food allergen into a food.
</P>
<P><I>Audit</I> means the systematic, independent, and documented examination (through observation, investigation, records review, discussions with employees of the audited entity, and, as appropriate, sampling and laboratory analysis) to assess an audited entity's food safety processes and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Batter</I> means a semifluid substance, usually composed of flour and other ingredients, into which principal components of food are dipped or with which they are coated, or which may be used directly to form bakery foods.
</P>
<P><I>Blanching,</I> except for tree nuts and peanuts, means a prepackaging heat treatment of foodstuffs for an adequate time and at an adequate temperature to partially or completely inactivate the naturally occurring enzymes and to effect other physical or biochemical changes in the food.
</P>
<P><I>Calendar day</I> means every day shown on the calendar.
</P>
<P><I>Correction</I> means an action to identify and correct a problem that occurred during the production of food, without other actions associated with a corrective action procedure (such as actions to reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur, evaluate all affected food for safety, and prevent affected food from entering commerce).
</P>
<P><I>Critical control point</I> means a point, step, or procedure in a food process at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce such hazard to an acceptable level.
</P>
<P><I>Defect action level</I> means a level of a non-hazardous, naturally occurring, unavoidable defect at which FDA may regard a food product “adulterated” and subject to enforcement action under section 402(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental pathogen</I> means a pathogen capable of surviving and persisting within the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding environment such that food may be contaminated and may result in foodborne illness if that food is consumed without treatment to significantly minimize the environmental pathogen. Examples of environmental pathogens for the purposes of this part include <I>Listeria monocytogenes</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. but do not include the spores of pathogenic sporeforming bacteria.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means a domestic facility or a foreign facility that is required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in accordance with the requirements of part 1, subpart H of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means farm as defined in § 1.227 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> means food as defined in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and includes raw materials and ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Food allergen</I> means a major food allergen as defined in section 201(qq) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Food-contact surfaces</I> are those surfaces that contact human food and those surfaces from which drainage, or other transfer, onto the food or onto surfaces that contact the food ordinarily occurs during the normal course of operations. “Food-contact surfaces” includes utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time equivalent employee</I> is a term used to represent the number of employees of a business entity for the purpose of determining whether the business qualifies for the small business exemption. The number of full-time equivalent employees is determined by dividing the total number of hours of salary or wages paid directly to employees of the business entity and of all of its affiliates and subsidiaries by the number of hours of work in 1 year, 2,080 hours (<I>i.e.,</I> 40 hours × 52 weeks). If the result is not a whole number, round down to the next lowest whole number.
</P>
<P><I>Harvesting</I> applies to farms and farm mixed-type facilities and means activities that are traditionally performed on farms for the purpose of removing raw agricultural commodities from the place they were grown or raised and preparing them for use as food. Harvesting is limited to activities performed on raw agricultural commodities, or on processed foods created by drying/dehydrating a raw agricultural commodity without additional manufacturing/processing, on a farm. Harvesting does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of harvesting include cutting (or otherwise separating) the edible portion of the raw agricultural commodity from the crop plant and removing or trimming part of the raw agricultural commodity (<I>e.g.,</I> foliage, husks, roots or stems). Examples of harvesting also include cooling, field coring, filtering, gathering, hulling, shelling, sifting, threshing, trimming of outer leaves of, and washing raw agricultural commodities grown on a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means any biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical agent that has the potential to cause illness or injury.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard requiring a preventive control</I> means a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard for which a person knowledgeable about the safe manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of food would, based on the outcome of a hazard analysis (which includes an assessment of the severity of the illness or injury if the hazard were to occur and the probability that the hazard will occur in the absence of preventive controls), establish one or more preventive controls to significantly minimize or prevent the hazard in a food and components to manage those controls (such as monitoring, corrections or corrective actions, verification, and records) as appropriate to the food, the facility, and the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that food, such as fumigating food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Known or reasonably foreseeable hazard</I> means a biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical hazard that is known to be, or has the potential to be, associated with the facility or the food.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means the food produced during a period of time and identified by an establishment's specific code.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying or manipulating food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, irradiating, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Microorganisms</I> means yeasts, molds, bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and microscopic parasites and includes species that are pathogens. The term “undesirable microorganisms” includes those microorganisms that are pathogens, that subject food to decomposition, that indicate that food is contaminated with filth, or that otherwise may cause food to be adulterated.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that engages in both activities that are exempt from registration under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and activities that require the establishment to be registered. An example of such a facility is a “farm mixed-type facility,” which is an establishment that is a farm, but also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered.
</P>
<P><I>Monitor</I> means to conduct a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess whether control measures are operating as intended.
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing food into a container other than packaging the food and also includes re-packing and activities performed incidental to packing or re-packing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or re-packing of that food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Pathogen</I> means a microorganism of public health significance.
</P>
<P><I>Pest</I> refers to any objectionable animals or insects including birds, rodents, flies, and larvae.
</P>
<P><I>Plant</I> means the building or structure or parts thereof, used for or in connection with the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of human food.
</P>
<P><I>Preventive controls</I> means those risk-based, reasonably appropriate procedures, practices, and processes that a person knowledgeable about the safe manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of food would employ to significantly minimize or prevent the hazards identified under the hazard analysis that are consistent with the current scientific understanding of safe food manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding at the time of the analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Preventive controls qualified individual</I> means a qualified individual who has successfully completed training in the development and application of risk-based preventive controls at least equivalent to that received under a standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by FDA or is otherwise qualified through job experience to develop and apply a food safety system.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified auditor</I> means a person who is a qualified individual as defined in this part and has technical expertise obtained through education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform the auditing function as required by § 117.180(c)(2). Examples of potential qualified auditors include:
</P>
<P>(1) A government employee, including a foreign government employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) An audit agent of a certification body that is accredited in accordance with regulations in part 1, subpart M of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified end-user,</I> with respect to a food, means the consumer of the food (where the term consumer does not include a business); or a restaurant or retail food establishment (as those terms are defined in § 1.227 of this chapter) that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is located:
</P>
<P>(i) In the same State or the same Indian reservation as the qualified facility that sold the food to such restaurant or establishment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than 275 miles from such facility; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is purchasing the food for sale directly to consumers at such restaurant or retail food establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified facility</I> means (when including the sales by any subsidiary; affiliate; or subsidiaries or affiliates, collectively, of any entity of which the facility is a subsidiary or affiliate) a facility that is a very small business as defined in this part, or a facility to which both of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) During the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year, the average annual monetary value of the food manufactured, processed, packed or held at such facility that is sold directly to qualified end-users (as defined in this part) during such period exceeded the average annual monetary value of the food sold by such facility to all other purchasers; and
</P>
<P>(2) The average annual monetary value of all food sold during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year was less than $500,000, adjusted for inflation.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified facility exemption</I> means an exemption applicable to a qualified facility under § 117.5(a).
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual</I> means a person who has the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to manufacture, process, pack, or hold clean and safe food as appropriate to the individual's assigned duties. A qualified individual may be, but is not required to be, an employee of the establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Quality control operation</I> means a planned and systematic procedure for taking all actions necessary to prevent food from being adulterated.
</P>
<P><I>Raw agricultural commodity</I> has the meaning given in section 201(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Ready-to-eat food (RTE food)</I> means any food that is normally eaten in its raw state or any other food, including a processed food, for which it is reasonably foreseeable that the food will be eaten without further processing that would significantly minimize biological hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving facility</I> means a facility that is subject to subparts C and G of this part and that manufactures/processes a raw material or other ingredient that it receives from a supplier.
</P>
<P><I>Rework</I> means clean, unadulterated food that has been removed from processing for reasons other than insanitary conditions or that has been successfully reconditioned by reprocessing and that is suitable for use as food.
</P>
<P><I>Safe-moisture level</I> is a level of moisture low enough to prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms in the finished product under the intended conditions of manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding. The safe moisture level for a food is related to its water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>). An a<E T="52">w</E> will be considered safe for a food if adequate data are available that demonstrate that the food at or below the given a<E T="52">w</E> will not support the growth of undesirable microorganisms.
</P>
<P><I>Sanitize</I> means to adequately treat cleaned surfaces by a process that is effective in destroying vegetative cells of pathogens, and in substantially reducing numbers of other undesirable microorganisms, but without adversely affecting the product or its safety for the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Significantly minimize</I> means to reduce to an acceptable level, including to eliminate.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means, for purposes of this part, a business (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) employing fewer than 500 full-time equivalent employees.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means any company which is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by another company.
</P>
<P><I>Supplier</I> means the establishment that manufactures/processes the food, raises the animal, or grows the food that is provided to a receiving facility without further manufacturing/processing by another establishment, except for further manufacturing/processing that consists solely of the addition of labeling or similar activity of a <I>de minimis</I> nature.
</P>
<P><I>Supply-chain-applied control</I> means a preventive control for a hazard in a raw material or other ingredient when the hazard in the raw material or other ingredient is controlled before its receipt.
</P>
<P><I>Unexposed packaged food</I> means packaged food that is not exposed to the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Validation</I> means obtaining and evaluating scientific and technical evidence that a control measure, combination of control measures, or the food safety plan as a whole, when properly implemented, is capable of effectively controlling the identified hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Verification</I> means the application of methods, procedures, tests and other evaluations, in addition to monitoring, to determine whether a control measure or combination of control measures is or has been operating as intended and to establish the validity of the food safety plan.
</P>
<P><I>Very small business</I> means, for purposes of this part, a business (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) averaging less than $1,000,000, adjusted for inflation, per year, during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year in sales of human food plus the market value of human food manufactured, processed, packed, or held without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> held for a fee).
</P>
<P><I>Water activity</I> (a<E T="52">w</E>) is a measure of the free moisture in a food and is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.
</P>
<P><I>Written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients</I> means written procedures to ensure that raw materials and other ingredients are received only from suppliers approved by the receiving facility (or, when necessary and appropriate, on a temporary basis from unapproved suppliers whose raw materials or other ingredients are subjected to adequate verification activities before acceptance for use).
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means, for purposes of this part, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3715, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.4" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.4   Qualifications of individuals who manufacture, process, pack, or hold food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The management of an establishment must ensure that all individuals who manufacture, process, pack, or hold food subject to subparts B and F of this part are qualified to perform their assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(2) The owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility must ensure that all individuals who manufacture, process, pack, or hold food subject to subpart C, D, E, F, or G of this part are qualified to perform their assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifications of all individuals engaged in manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding food.</I> Each individual engaged in manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding food (including temporary and seasonal personnel) or in the supervision thereof must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a qualified individual as that term is defined in § 117.3—<I>i.e.,</I> have the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to manufacture, process, pack, or hold clean and safe food as appropriate to the individual's assigned duties; and
</P>
<P>(2) Receive training in the principles of food hygiene and food safety, including the importance of employee health and personal hygiene, as appropriate to the food, the facility and the individual's assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional qualifications of supervisory personnel.</I> Responsibility for ensuring compliance by individuals with the requirements of this part must be clearly assigned to supervisory personnel who have the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to supervise the production of clean and safe food.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> Records that document training required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be established and maintained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.5   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by subpart E of this part, subparts C and G of this part do not apply to a qualified facility. Qualified facilities are subject to the modified requirements in § 117.201.
</P>
<P>(b) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply with respect to activities that are subject to part 123 of this chapter (Fish and Fishery Products) at a facility if you are required to comply with, and are in compliance with, part 123 of this chapter with respect to such activities.
</P>
<P>(c) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply with respect to activities that are subject to part 120 of this chapter (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) Systems) at a facility if you are required to comply with, and are in compliance with, part 120 of this chapter with respect to such activities.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply with respect to activities that are subject to part 113 of this chapter (Thermally Processed Low-Acid Foods Packaged in Hermetically Sealed Containers) at a facility if you are required to comply with, and are in compliance with, part 113 of this chapter with respect to such activities.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption in paragraph (d)(1) of this section is applicable only with respect to the microbiological hazards that are regulated under part 113 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Subparts C and G do not apply to any facility with regard to the manufacturing, processing, packaging, or holding of a dietary supplement that is in compliance with the requirements of part 111 of this chapter (Current Good Manufacturing Practice in Manufacturing, Packaging, Labeling, or Holding Operations for Dietary Supplements) and section 761 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (Serious Adverse Event Reporting for Dietary Supplements).
</P>
<P>(f) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply to activities of a facility that are subject to section 419 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (Standards for Produce Safety).
</P>
<P>(g)(1) The exemption in paragraph (g)(3) of this section applies to packing or holding of processed foods on a farm mixed-type facility, except for processed foods produced by drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins, and drying/dehydrating fresh herbs to produce dried herbs), and packaging and labeling such commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing (such as chopping and slicing), the packing and holding of which are within the “farm” definition in § 1.227 of this chapter. Activities that are within the “farm” definition, when conducted on a farm mixed-type facility, are not subject to the requirements of subparts C and G of this part and therefore do not need to be specified in the exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of paragraphs (g)(3) and (h)(3) of this section, the following terms describe the foods associated with the activity/food combinations. Several foods that are fruits or vegetables are separately considered for the purposes of these activity/food combinations (<I>i.e.,</I> coffee beans, cocoa beans, fresh herbs, peanuts, sugarcane, sugar beets, tree nuts, seeds for direct consumption) to appropriately address specific hazards associated with these foods and/or processing activities conducted on these foods.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dried/dehydrated fruit and vegetable products</I> includes only those processed food products such as raisins and dried legumes made without additional manufacturing/processing beyond drying/dehydrating, packaging, and/or labeling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other fruit and vegetable products</I> includes those processed food products that have undergone one or more of the following processes: acidification, boiling, canning, coating with things other than wax/oil/resin, cooking, cutting, chopping, grinding, peeling, shredding, slicing, or trimming. Examples include flours made from legumes (such as chickpea flour), pickles, and snack chips made from potatoes or plantains. Examples also include dried fruit and vegetable products made with additional manufacturing/processing (such as dried apple slices; pitted, dried plums, cherries, and apricots; and sulfited raisins). This category does not include dried/dehydrated fruit and vegetable products made without additional manufacturing/processing as described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section. This category also does not include products that require time/temperature control for safety (such as fresh-cut fruits and vegetables).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Peanut and tree nut products</I> includes processed food products such as roasted peanuts and tree nuts, seasoned peanuts and tree nuts, and peanut and tree nut flours.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Processed seeds for direct consumption</I> include processed food products such as roasted pumpkin seeds, roasted sunflower seeds, and roasted flax seeds.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dried/dehydrated herb and spice products</I> includes only processed food products such as dried intact herbs made without additional manufacturing/processing beyond drying/dehydrating, packaging, and/or labeling.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Other herb and spice products</I> includes those processed food products such as chopped fresh herbs, chopped or ground dried herbs (including tea), herbal extracts (<I>e.g.,</I> essential oils, extracts containing more than 20 percent ethanol, extracts containing more than 35 percent glycerin), dried herb- or spice-infused honey, and dried herb- or spice-infused oils and/or vinegars. This category does not include dried/dehydrated herb and spice products made without additional manufacturing/processing beyond drying/dehydrating, packaging, and/or labeling as described in paragraph (g)(2)(v) of this section. This category also does not include products that require time/temperature control for safety, such as fresh herb-infused oils.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Grains</I> include barley, dent- or flint-corn, sorghum, oats, rice, rye, wheat, amaranth, quinoa, buckwheat and oilseeds for oil extraction (such as cotton seed, flax seed, rapeseed, soybeans, and sunflower seed).
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Milled grain products</I> include processed food products such as flour, bran, and corn meal.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Baked goods</I> include processed food products such as breads, brownies, cakes, cookies, and crackers. This category does not include products that require time/temperature control for safety, such as cream-filled pastries.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Other grain products</I> include processed food products such as dried cereal, dried pasta, oat flakes, and popcorn. This category does not include milled grain products as described in paragraph (g)(2)(viii) of this section or baked goods as described in paragraph (g)(2)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply to on-farm packing or holding of food by a small or very small business, and § 117.201 does not apply to on-farm packing or holding of food by a very small business, if the only packing and holding activities subject to section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that the business conducts are the following low-risk packing or holding activity/food combinations—<I>i.e.,</I> packing (or re-packing) (including weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing); sorting, culling, or grading incidental to packing or storing; and storing (ambient, cold and controlled atmosphere) of:
</P>
<P>(i) Baked goods (<I>e.g.,</I> bread and cookies);
</P>
<P>(ii) Candy (<I>e.g.,</I> hard candy, fudge, maple candy, maple cream, nut brittles, taffy, and toffee);
</P>
<P>(iii) Cocoa beans (roasted);
</P>
<P>(iv) Cocoa products;
</P>
<P>(v) Coffee beans (roasted);
</P>
<P>(vi) Game meat jerky;
</P>
<P>(vii) Gums, latexes, and resins that are processed foods;
</P>
<P>(viii) Honey (pasteurized);
</P>
<P>(ix) Jams, jellies, and preserves;
</P>
<P>(x) Milled grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> flour, bran, and corn meal);
</P>
<P>(xi) Molasses and treacle;
</P>
<P>(xii) Oils (<I>e.g.,</I> olive oil and sunflower seed oil);
</P>
<P>(xiii) Other fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> flours made from legumes; pitted, dried fruits; sliced, dried apples; snack chips);
</P>
<P>(xiv) Other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> dried pasta, oat flakes, and popcorn);
</P>
<P>(xv) Other herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopped or ground dried herbs, herbal extracts);
</P>
<P>(xvi) Peanut and tree nut products (<I>e.g.,</I> roasted peanuts and tree nut flours);
</P>
<P>(xvii) Processed seeds for direct consumption (<I>e.g.,</I> roasted pumpkin seeds);
</P>
<P>(xviii) Soft drinks and carbonated water;
</P>
<P>(xix) Sugar;
</P>
<P>(xx) Syrups (<I>e.g.,</I> maple syrup and agave syrup);
</P>
<P>(xxi) Trail mix and granola;
</P>
<P>(xxii) Vinegar; and
</P>
<P>(xxiii) Any other processed food that does not require time/temperature control for safety (e.g., vitamins, minerals, and dietary ingredients (<I>e.g.,</I> bone meal) in powdered, granular, or other solid form).
</P>
<P>(h)(1) The exemption in paragraph (h)(3) of this section applies to manufacturing/processing of foods on a farm mixed-type facility, except for manufacturing/processing that is within the “farm” definition in § 1.227 of this chapter. Drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins, and drying/dehydrating fresh herbs to produce dried herbs), and packaging and labeling such commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing (such as chopping and slicing), are within the “farm” definition in § 1.227 of this chapter. In addition, treatment to manipulate ripening of raw agricultural commodities (such as by treating produce with ethylene gas), and packaging and labeling the treated raw agricultural commodities, without additional manufacturing/processing, is within the “farm” definition. In addition, coating intact fruits and vegetables with wax, oil, or resin used for the purpose of storage or transportation is within the “farm” definition. Activities that are within the “farm” definition, when conducted on a farm mixed-type facility, are not subject to the requirements of subparts C and G of this part and therefore do not need to be specified in the exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms in paragraph (g)(2) of this section describe certain foods associated with the activity/food combinations in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply to on-farm manufacturing/processing activities conducted by a small or very small business for distribution into commerce, and § 117.201 does not apply to on-farm manufacturing/processing activities conducted by a very small business for distribution into commerce, if the only manufacturing/processing activities subject to section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that the business conducts are the following low-risk manufacturing/processing activity/food combinations:
</P>
<P>(i) Boiling gums, latexes, and resins;
</P>
<P>(ii) Chopping, coring, cutting, peeling, pitting, shredding, and slicing acid fruits and vegetables that have a pH less than 4.2 (<I>e.g.,</I> cutting lemons and limes), baked goods (<I>e.g.,</I> slicing bread), dried/dehydrated fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> pitting dried plums), dried herbs and other spices (<I>e.g.,</I> chopping intact, dried basil), game meat jerky, gums/latexes/resins, other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> shredding dried cereal), peanuts and tree nuts, and peanut and tree nut products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopping roasted peanuts);
</P>
<P>(iii) Coating dried/dehydrated fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> coating raisins with chocolate), other fruit and vegetable products except for non-dried, non-intact fruits and vegetables (<I>e.g.,</I> coating dried plum pieces, dried pitted cherries, and dried pitted apricots with chocolate are low-risk activity/food combinations but coating apples on a stick with caramel is not a low-risk activity/food combination), other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> adding caramel to popcorn or adding seasonings to popcorn provided that the seasonings have been treated to significantly minimize pathogens, peanuts and tree nuts (<I>e.g.,</I> adding seasonings provided that the seasonings have been treated to significantly minimize pathogens), and peanut and tree nut products (<I>e.g.,</I> adding seasonings provided that the seasonings have been treated to significantly minimize pathogens));
</P>
<P>(iv) Drying/dehydrating (that includes additional manufacturing or is performed on processed foods) other fruit and vegetable products with pH less than 4.2 (<I>e.g.,</I> drying cut fruit and vegetables with pH less than 4.2), and other herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> drying chopped fresh herbs, including tea);
</P>
<P>(v) Extracting (including by pressing, by distilling, and by solvent extraction) dried/dehydrated herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> dried mint), fresh herbs (<I>e.g.,</I> fresh mint), fruits and vegetables (<I>e.g.,</I> olives, avocados), grains (<I>e.g.,</I> oilseeds), and other herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopped fresh mint, chopped dried mint);
</P>
<P>(vi) Freezing acid fruits and vegetables with pH less than 4.2 and other fruit and vegetable products with pH less than 4.2 (<I>e.g.,</I> cut fruits and vegetables);
</P>
<P>(vii) Grinding/cracking/crushing/milling baked goods (<I>e.g.,</I> crackers), cocoa beans (roasted), coffee beans (roasted), dried/dehydrated fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> raisins and dried legumes), dried/dehydrated herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> intact dried basil), grains (<I>e.g.,</I> oats, rice, rye, wheat), other fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> dried, pitted dates), other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> dried cereal), other herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopped dried herbs), peanuts and tree nuts, and peanut and tree nut products (<I>e.g.,</I> roasted peanuts);
</P>
<P>(viii) Labeling baked goods that do not contain food allergens, candy that does not contain food allergens, cocoa beans (roasted), cocoa products that do not contain food allergens), coffee beans (roasted), game meat jerky, gums/latexes/resins that are processed foods, honey (pasteurized), jams/jellies/preserves, milled grain products that do not contain food allergens (<I>e.g.,</I> corn meal) or that are single-ingredient foods (<I>e.g.,</I> wheat flour, wheat bran), molasses and treacle, oils, other fruit and vegetable products that do not contain food allergens (<I>e.g.,</I> snack chips made from potatoes or plantains), other grain products that do not contain food allergens (<I>e.g.,</I> popcorn), other herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopped or ground dried herbs), peanut or tree nut products, (provided that they are single-ingredient, or are in forms in which the consumer can reasonably be expected to recognize the food allergen(s) without label declaration, or both (<I>e.g.,</I> roasted or seasoned whole nuts, single-ingredient peanut or tree nut flours)), processed seeds for direct consumption, soft drinks and carbonated water, sugar, syrups, trail mix and granola (other than those containing milk chocolate and provided that peanuts and/or tree nuts are in forms in which the consumer can reasonably be expected to recognize the food allergen(s) without label declaration), vinegar, and any other processed food that does not require time/temperature control for safety and that does not contain food allergens (<I>e.g.,</I> vitamins, minerals, and dietary ingredients (<I>e.g.,</I> bone meal) in powdered, granular, or other solid form);
</P>
<P>(ix) Making baked goods from milled grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> breads and cookies);
</P>
<P>(x) Making candy from peanuts and tree nuts (<I>e.g.,</I> nut brittles), sugar/syrups (<I>e.g.,</I> taffy, toffee), and saps (<I>e.g.,</I> maple candy, maple cream);
</P>
<P>(xi) Making cocoa products from roasted cocoa beans;
</P>
<P>(xii) Making dried pasta from grains;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Making jams, jellies, and preserves from acid fruits and vegetables with a pH of 4.6 or below;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Making molasses and treacle from sugar beets and sugarcane;
</P>
<P>(xv) Making oat flakes from grains;
</P>
<P>(xvi) Making popcorn from grains;
</P>
<P>(xvii) Making snack chips from fruits and vegetables (<I>e.g.,</I> making plantain and potato chips);
</P>
<P>(xviii) Making soft drinks and carbonated water from sugar, syrups, and water;
</P>
<P>(xix) Making sugars and syrups from fruits and vegetables (<I>e.g.,</I> dates), grains (<I>e.g.,</I> rice, sorghum), other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> malted grains such as barley), saps (<I>e.g.,</I> agave, birch, maple, palm), sugar beets, and sugarcane;
</P>
<P>(xx) Making trail mix and granola from cocoa products (<I>e.g.,</I> chocolate), dried/dehydrated fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> raisins), other fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopped dried fruits), other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> oat flakes), peanut and tree nut products, and processed seeds for direct consumption, provided that peanuts, tree nuts, and processed seeds are treated to significantly minimize pathogens;
</P>
<P>(xxi) Making vinegar from fruits and vegetables, other fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> fruit wines, apple cider), and other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> malt);
</P>
<P>(xxii) Mixing baked goods (<I>e.g.,</I> types of cookies), candy (<I>e.g.,</I> varieties of taffy), cocoa beans (roasted), coffee beans (roasted), dried/dehydrated fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> dried blueberries, dried currants, and raisins), dried/dehydrated herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> dried, intact basil and dried, intact oregano), honey (pasteurized), milled grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> flour, bran, and corn meal), other fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> dried, sliced apples and dried, sliced peaches), other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> different types of dried pasta), other herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopped or ground dried herbs, dried herb- or spice-infused honey, and dried herb- or spice-infused oils and/or vinegars), peanut and tree nut products, sugar, syrups, vinegar, and any other processed food that does not require time/temperature control for safety (<I>e.g.,</I> vitamins, minerals, and dietary ingredients (<I>e.g.,</I> bone meal) in powdered, granular, or other solid form);
</P>
<P>(xxiii) Packaging baked goods (<I>e.g.,</I> bread and cookies), candy, cocoa beans (roasted), cocoa products, coffee beans (roasted), game meat jerky, gums/latexes/resins that are processed foods, honey (pasteurized), jams/jellies/preserves, milled grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> flour, bran, corn meal), molasses and treacle, oils, other fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> pitted, dried fruits; sliced, dried apples; snack chips), other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> popcorn), other herb and spice products (<I>e.g.,</I> chopped or ground dried herbs), peanut and tree nut products, processed seeds for direct consumption, soft drinks and carbonated water, sugar, syrups, trail mix and granola, vinegar, and any other processed food that does not require time/temperature control for safety (<I>e.g.,</I> vitamins, minerals, and dietary ingredients (<I>e.g.,</I> bone meal) in powdered, granular, or other solid form);
</P>
<P>(xxiv) Pasteurizing honey;
</P>
<P>(xxv) Roasting and toasting baked goods (<I>e.g.,</I> toasting bread for croutons);
</P>
<P>(xxvi) Salting other grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> soy nuts), peanut and tree nut products, and processed seeds for direct consumption; and
</P>
<P>(xxvii) Sifting milled grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> flour, bran, corn meal), other fruit and vegetable products (<I>e.g.,</I> chickpea flour), and peanut and tree nut products (<I>e.g.,</I> peanut flour, almond flour).
</P>
<P>(i)(1) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply with respect to alcoholic beverages at a facility that meets the following two conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the Federal Alcohol Administration Act (27 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) or chapter 51 of subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 5001 <I>et seq.</I>) the facility is required to obtain a permit from, register with, or obtain approval of a notice or application from the Secretary of the Treasury as a condition of doing business in the United States, or is a foreign facility of a type that would require such a permit, registration, or approval if it were a domestic facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act the facility is required to register as a facility because it is engaged in manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding one or more alcoholic beverages.
</P>
<P>(2) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply with respect to food that is not an alcoholic beverage at a facility described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section, provided such food:
</P>
<P>(i) Is in prepackaged form that prevents any direct human contact with such food; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Constitutes not more than 5 percent of the overall sales of the facility, as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(j) Subparts C and G of this part do not apply to facilities that are solely engaged in the storage of raw agricultural commodities (other than fruits and vegetables) intended for further distribution or processing.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) Except as provided by paragraph (k)(2) of this section, subpart B of this part does not apply to any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) “Farms” (as defined in § 1.227 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(ii) Fishing vessels that are not subject to the registration requirements of part 1, subpart H of this chapter in accordance with § 1.226(f) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishments solely engaged in the holding and/or transportation of one or more raw agricultural commodities;
</P>
<P>(iv) Activities of “farm mixed-type facilities” (as defined in § 1.227 of this chapter) that fall within the definition of “farm”; or
</P>
<P>(v) Establishments solely engaged in hulling, shelling, drying, packing, and/or holding nuts (without additional manufacturing/processing, such as roasting nuts).
</P>
<P>(2) If a “farm” or “farm mixed-type facility” dries/dehydrates raw agricultural commodities that are produce as defined in part 112 of this chapter to create a distinct commodity, subpart B of this part applies to the packaging, packing, and holding of the dried commodities. Compliance with this requirement may be achieved by complying with subpart B of this part or with the applicable requirements for packing and holding in part 112 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3716, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.7   Applicability of subparts C, D, and G of this part to a facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability of subparts C and G.</I> Subparts C and G of this part do not apply to a facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged food.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability of subpart D.</I> A facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged food, including unexposed packaged food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens is subject to the modified requirements in § 117.206 for any unexposed packaged food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.8" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.8   Applicability of subpart B of this part to the off-farm packing and holding of raw agricultural commodities.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided by § 117.5(k)(1), subpart B of this part applies to the off-farm packaging, packing, and holding of raw agricultural commodities. Compliance with this requirement for raw agricultural commodities that are produce as defined in part 112 of this chapter may be achieved by complying with subpart B of this part or with the applicable requirements for packing and holding in part 112 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3956, Jan. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.9" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.9   Records required for this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records that document training required by § 117.4(b)(2) must be established and maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) The records that must be established and maintained are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Current Good Manufacturing Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.10   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The management of the establishment must take reasonable measures and precautions to ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Disease control.</I> Any person who, by medical examination or supervisory observation, is shown to have, or appears to have, an illness, open lesion, including boils, sores, or infected wounds, or any other abnormal source of microbial contamination by which there is a reasonable possibility of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials becoming contaminated, must be excluded from any operations which may be expected to result in such contamination until the condition is corrected, unless conditions such as open lesions, boils, and infected wounds are adequately covered (<I>e.g.,</I> by an impermeable cover). Personnel must be instructed to report such health conditions to their supervisors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cleanliness.</I> All persons working in direct contact with food, food-contact surfaces, and food-packaging materials must conform to hygienic practices while on duty to the extent necessary to protect against allergen cross-contact and against contamination of food. The methods for maintaining cleanliness include:
</P>
<P>(1) Wearing outer garments suitable to the operation in a manner that protects against allergen cross-contact and against the contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining adequate personal cleanliness.
</P>
<P>(3) Washing hands thoroughly (and sanitizing if necessary to protect against contamination with undesirable microorganisms) in an adequate hand-washing facility before starting work, after each absence from the work station, and at any other time when the hands may have become soiled or contaminated.
</P>
<P>(4) Removing all unsecured jewelry and other objects that might fall into food, equipment, or containers, and removing hand jewelry that cannot be adequately sanitized during periods in which food is manipulated by hand. If such hand jewelry cannot be removed, it may be covered by material which can be maintained in an intact, clean, and sanitary condition and which effectively protects against the contamination by these objects of the food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(5) Maintaining gloves, if they are used in food handling, in an intact, clean, and sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(6) Wearing, where appropriate, in an effective manner, hair nets, headbands, caps, beard covers, or other effective hair restraints.
</P>
<P>(7) Storing clothing or other personal belongings in areas other than where food is exposed or where equipment or utensils are washed.
</P>
<P>(8) Confining the following to areas other than where food may be exposed or where equipment or utensils are washed: eating food, chewing gum, drinking beverages, or using tobacco.
</P>
<P>(9) Taking any other necessary precautions to protect against allergen cross-contact and against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials with microorganisms or foreign substances (including perspiration, hair, cosmetics, tobacco, chemicals, and medicines applied to the skin).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.20   Plant and grounds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds.</I> The grounds about a food plant under the control of the operator must be kept in a condition that will protect against the contamination of food. The methods for adequate maintenance of grounds must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Properly storing equipment, removing litter and waste, and cutting weeds or grass within the immediate vicinity of the plant that may constitute an attractant, breeding place, or harborage for pests.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining roads, yards, and parking lots so that they do not constitute a source of contamination in areas where food is exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequately draining areas that may contribute contamination to food by seepage, foot-borne filth, or providing a breeding place for pests.
</P>
<P>(4) Operating systems for waste treatment and disposal in an adequate manner so that they do not constitute a source of contamination in areas where food is exposed.
</P>
<P>(5) If the plant grounds are bordered by grounds not under the operator's control and not maintained in the manner described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, care must be exercised in the plant by inspection, extermination, or other means to exclude pests, dirt, and filth that may be a source of food contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plant construction and design.</I> The plant must be suitable in size, construction, and design to facilitate maintenance and sanitary operations for food-production purposes (<I>i.e.,</I> manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding). The plant must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide adequate space for such placement of equipment and storage of materials as is necessary for maintenance, sanitary operations, and the production of safe food.
</P>
<P>(2) Permit the taking of adequate precautions to reduce the potential for allergen cross-contact and for contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials with microorganisms, chemicals, filth, and other extraneous material. The potential for allergen cross-contact and for contamination may be reduced by adequate food safety controls and operating practices or effective design, including the separation of operations in which allergen cross-contact and contamination are likely to occur, by one or more of the following means: location, time, partition, air flow systems, dust control systems, enclosed systems, or other effective means.
</P>
<P>(3) Permit the taking of adequate precautions to protect food in installed outdoor bulk vessels by any effective means, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Using protective coverings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Controlling areas over and around the vessels to eliminate harborages for pests.
</P>
<P>(iii) Checking on a regular basis for pests and pest infestation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Skimming fermentation vessels, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) Be constructed in such a manner that floors, walls, and ceilings may be adequately cleaned and kept clean and kept in good repair; that drip or condensate from fixtures, ducts and pipes does not contaminate food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials; and that aisles or working spaces are provided between equipment and walls and are adequately unobstructed and of adequate width to permit employees to perform their duties and to protect against contaminating food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials with clothing or personal contact.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide adequate lighting in hand-washing areas, dressing and locker rooms, and toilet rooms and in all areas where food is examined, manufactured, processed, packed, or held and where equipment or utensils are cleaned; and provide shatter-resistant light bulbs, fixtures, skylights, or other glass suspended over exposed food in any step of preparation or otherwise protect against food contamination in case of glass breakage.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide adequate ventilation or control equipment to minimize dust, odors and vapors (including steam and noxious fumes) in areas where they may cause allergen cross-contact or contaminate food; and locate and operate fans and other air-blowing equipment in a manner that minimizes the potential for allergen cross-contact and for contaminating food, food-packaging materials, and food-contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(7) Provide, where necessary, adequate screening or other protection against pests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.35" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.35   Sanitary operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General maintenance.</I> Buildings, fixtures, and other physical facilities of the plant must be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition and must be kept in repair adequate to prevent food from becoming adulterated. Cleaning and sanitizing of utensils and equipment must be conducted in a manner that protects against allergen cross-contact and against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substances used in cleaning and sanitizing; storage of toxic materials.</I> (1) Cleaning compounds and sanitizing agents used in cleaning and sanitizing procedures must be free from undesirable microorganisms and must be safe and adequate under the conditions of use. Compliance with this requirement must be verified by any effective means, including purchase of these substances under a letter of guarantee or certification or examination of these substances for contamination. Only the following toxic materials may be used or stored in a plant where food is processed or exposed:
</P>
<P>(i) Those required to maintain clean and sanitary conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Those necessary for use in laboratory testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Those necessary for plant and equipment maintenance and operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Those necessary for use in the plant's operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Toxic cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, and pesticide chemicals must be identified, held, and stored in a manner that protects against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pest control.</I> Pests must not be allowed in any area of a food plant. Guard, guide, or pest-detecting dogs may be allowed in some areas of a plant if the presence of the dogs is unlikely to result in contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials. Effective measures must be taken to exclude pests from the manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding areas and to protect against the contamination of food on the premises by pests. The use of pesticides to control pests in the plant is permitted only under precautions and restrictions that will protect against the contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, and food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanitation of food-contact surfaces.</I> All food-contact surfaces, including utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment, must be cleaned as frequently as necessary to protect against allergen cross-contact and against contamination of food.
</P>
<P>(1) Food-contact surfaces used for manufacturing/processing, packing, or holding low-moisture food must be in a clean, dry, sanitary condition before use. When the surfaces are wet-cleaned, they must, when necessary, be sanitized and thoroughly dried before subsequent use.
</P>
<P>(2) In wet processing, when cleaning is necessary to protect against allergen cross-contact or the introduction of microorganisms into food, all food-contact surfaces must be cleaned and sanitized before use and after any interruption during which the food-contact surfaces may have become contaminated. Where equipment and utensils are used in a continuous production operation, the utensils and food-contact surfaces of the equipment must be cleaned and sanitized as necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Single-service articles (such as utensils intended for one-time use, paper cups, and paper towels) must be stored, handled, and disposed of in a manner that protects against allergen cross-contact and against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sanitation of non-food-contact surfaces.</I> Non-food-contact surfaces of equipment used in the operation of a food plant must be cleaned in a manner and as frequently as necessary to protect against allergen cross-contact and against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, and food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Storage and handling of cleaned portable equipment and utensils.</I> Cleaned and sanitized portable equipment with food-contact surfaces and utensils must be stored in a location and manner that protects food-contact surfaces from allergen cross-contact and from contamination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.37" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.37   Sanitary facilities and controls.</HEAD>
<P>Each plant must be equipped with adequate sanitary facilities and accommodations including:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Water supply.</I> The water supply must be adequate for the operations intended and must be derived from an adequate source. Any water that contacts food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials must be safe and of adequate sanitary quality. Running water at a suitable temperature, and under pressure as needed, must be provided in all areas where required for the processing of food, for the cleaning of equipment, utensils, and food-packaging materials, or for employee sanitary facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plumbing.</I> Plumbing must be of adequate size and design and adequately installed and maintained to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry adequate quantities of water to required locations throughout the plant.
</P>
<P>(2) Properly convey sewage and liquid disposable waste from the plant.
</P>
<P>(3) Avoid constituting a source of contamination to food, water supplies, equipment, or utensils or creating an unsanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide adequate floor drainage in all areas where floors are subject to flooding-type cleaning or where normal operations release or discharge water or other liquid waste on the floor.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide that there is not backflow from, or cross-connection between, piping systems that discharge waste water or sewage and piping systems that carry water for food or food manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sewage disposal.</I> Sewage must be disposed of into an adequate sewerage system or disposed of through other adequate means.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Toilet facilities.</I> Each plant must provide employees with adequate, readily accessible toilet facilities. Toilet facilities must be kept clean and must not be a potential source of contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hand-washing facilities.</I> Each plant must provide hand-washing facilities designed to ensure that an employee's hands are not a source of contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, or food-packaging materials, by providing facilities that are adequate, convenient, and furnish running water at a suitable temperature.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rubbish and offal disposal.</I> Rubbish and any offal must be so conveyed, stored, and disposed of as to minimize the development of odor, minimize the potential for the waste becoming an attractant and harborage or breeding place for pests, and protect against contamination of food, food-contact surfaces, food-packaging materials, water supplies, and ground surfaces.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.40" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.40   Equipment and utensils.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All plant equipment and utensils used in manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding food must be so designed and of such material and workmanship as to be adequately cleanable, and must be adequately maintained to protect against allergen cross-contact and contamination.
</P>
<P>(2) Equipment and utensils must be designed, constructed, and used appropriately to avoid the adulteration of food with lubricants, fuel, metal fragments, contaminated water, or any other contaminants.
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment must be installed so as to facilitate the cleaning and maintenance of the equipment and of adjacent spaces.
</P>
<P>(4) Food-contact surfaces must be corrosion-resistant when in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(5) Food-contact surfaces must be made of nontoxic materials and designed to withstand the environment of their intended use and the action of food, and, if applicable, cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, and cleaning procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) Food-contact surfaces must be maintained to protect food from allergen cross-contact and from being contaminated by any source, including unlawful indirect food additives.
</P>
<P>(b) Seams on food-contact surfaces must be smoothly bonded or maintained so as to minimize accumulation of food particles, dirt, and organic matter and thus minimize the opportunity for growth of microorganisms and allergen cross-contact.
</P>
<P>(c) Equipment that is in areas where food is manufactured, processed, packed, or held and that does not come into contact with food must be so constructed that it can be kept in a clean and sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(d) Holding, conveying, and manufacturing systems, including gravimetric, pneumatic, closed, and automated systems, must be of a design and construction that enables them to be maintained in an appropriate clean and sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(e) Each freezer and cold storage compartment used to store and hold food capable of supporting growth of microorganisms must be fitted with an indicating thermometer, temperature-measuring device, or temperature-recording device so installed as to show the temperature accurately within the compartment.
</P>
<P>(f) Instruments and controls used for measuring, regulating, or recording temperatures, pH, acidity, water activity, or other conditions that control or prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms in food must be accurate and precise and adequately maintained, and adequate in number for their designated uses.
</P>
<P>(g) Compressed air or other gases mechanically introduced into food or used to clean food-contact surfaces or equipment must be treated in such a way that food is not contaminated with unlawful indirect food additives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.80" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.80   Processes and controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) All operations in the manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding of food (including operations directed to receiving, inspecting, transporting, and segregating) must be conducted in accordance with adequate sanitation principles.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate quality control operations must be employed to ensure that food is suitable for human consumption and that food-packaging materials are safe and suitable.
</P>
<P>(3) Overall sanitation of the plant must be under the supervision of one or more competent individuals assigned responsibility for this function.
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate precautions must be taken to ensure that production procedures do not contribute to allergen cross-contact and to contamination from any source.
</P>
<P>(5) Chemical, microbial, or extraneous-material testing procedures must be used where necessary to identify sanitation failures or possible allergen cross-contact and food contamination.
</P>
<P>(6) All food that has become contaminated to the extent that it is adulterated must be rejected, or if appropriate, treated or processed to eliminate the contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Raw materials and other ingredients.</I> (1) Raw materials and other ingredients must be inspected and segregated or otherwise handled as necessary to ascertain that they are clean and suitable for processing into food and must be stored under conditions that will protect against allergen cross-contact and against contamination and minimize deterioration. Raw materials must be washed or cleaned as necessary to remove soil or other contamination. Water used for washing, rinsing, or conveying food must be safe and of adequate sanitary quality. Water may be reused for washing, rinsing, or conveying food if it does not cause allergen cross-contact or increase the level of contamination of the food.
</P>
<P>(2) Raw materials and other ingredients must either not contain levels of microorganisms that may render the food injurious to the health of humans, or they must be pasteurized or otherwise treated during manufacturing operations so that they no longer contain levels that would cause the product to be adulterated.
</P>
<P>(3) Raw materials and other ingredients susceptible to contamination with aflatoxin or other natural toxins must comply with FDA regulations for poisonous or deleterious substances before these raw materials or other ingredients are incorporated into finished food.
</P>
<P>(4) Raw materials, other ingredients, and rework susceptible to contamination with pests, undesirable microorganisms, or extraneous material must comply with applicable FDA regulations for natural or unavoidable defects if a manufacturer wishes to use the materials in manufacturing food.
</P>
<P>(5) Raw materials, other ingredients, and rework must be held in bulk, or in containers designed and constructed so as to protect against allergen cross-contact and against contamination and must be held at such temperature and relative humidity and in such a manner as to prevent the food from becoming adulterated. Material scheduled for rework must be identified as such.
</P>
<P>(6) Frozen raw materials and other ingredients must be kept frozen. If thawing is required prior to use, it must be done in a manner that prevents the raw materials and other ingredients from becoming adulterated.
</P>
<P>(7) Liquid or dry raw materials and other ingredients received and stored in bulk form must be held in a manner that protects against allergen cross-contact and against contamination.
</P>
<P>(8) Raw materials and other ingredients that are food allergens, and rework that contains food allergens, must be identified and held in a manner that prevents allergen cross-contact.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manufacturing operations.</I> (1) Equipment and utensils and food containers must be maintained in an adequate condition through appropriate cleaning and sanitizing, as necessary. Insofar as necessary, equipment must be taken apart for thorough cleaning.
</P>
<P>(2) All food manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding must be conducted under such conditions and controls as are necessary to minimize the potential for the growth of microorganisms, allergen cross-contact, contamination of food, and deterioration of food.
</P>
<P>(3) Food that can support the rapid growth of undesirable microorganisms must be held at temperatures that will prevent the food from becoming adulterated during manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding.
</P>
<P>(4) Measures such as sterilizing, irradiating, pasteurizing, cooking, freezing, refrigerating, controlling pH, or controlling a<E T="52">w</E> that are taken to destroy or prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms must be adequate under the conditions of manufacture, handling, and distribution to prevent food from being adulterated.
</P>
<P>(5) Work-in-process and rework must be handled in a manner that protects against allergen cross-contact, contamination, and growth of undesirable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(6) Effective measures must be taken to protect finished food from allergen cross-contact and from contamination by raw materials, other ingredients, or refuse. When raw materials, other ingredients, or refuse are unprotected, they must not be handled simultaneously in a receiving, loading, or shipping area if that handling could result in allergen cross-contact or contaminated food. Food transported by conveyor must be protected against allergen cross-contact and against contamination as necessary.
</P>
<P>(7) Equipment, containers, and utensils used to convey, hold, or store raw materials and other ingredients, work-in-process, rework, or other food must be constructed, handled, and maintained during manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding in a manner that protects against allergen cross-contact and against contamination.
</P>
<P>(8) Adequate measures must be taken to protect against the inclusion of metal or other extraneous material in food.
</P>
<P>(9) Food, raw materials, and other ingredients that are adulterated:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be disposed of in a manner that protects against the contamination of other food; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the adulterated food is capable of being reconditioned, it must be:
</P>
<P>(A) Reconditioned (if appropriate) using a method that has been proven to be effective; or
</P>
<P>(B) Reconditioned (if appropriate) and reexamined and subsequently found not to be adulterated within the meaning of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act before being incorporated into other food.
</P>
<P>(10) Steps such as washing, peeling, trimming, cutting, sorting and inspecting, mashing, dewatering, cooling, shredding, extruding, drying, whipping, defatting, and forming must be performed so as to protect food against allergen cross-contact and against contamination. Food must be protected from contaminants that may drip, drain, or be drawn into the food.
</P>
<P>(11) Heat blanching, when required in the preparation of food capable of supporting microbial growth, must be effected by heating the food to the required temperature, holding it at this temperature for the required time, and then either rapidly cooling the food or passing it to subsequent manufacturing without delay. Growth and contamination by thermophilic microorganisms in blanchers must be minimized by the use of adequate operating temperatures and by periodic cleaning and sanitizing as necessary.
</P>
<P>(12) Batters, breading, sauces, gravies, dressings, dipping solutions, and other similar preparations that are held and used repeatedly over time must be treated or maintained in such a manner that they are protected against allergen cross-contact and against contamination, and minimizing the potential for the growth of undesirable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(13) Filling, assembling, packaging, and other operations must be performed in such a way that the food is protected against allergen cross-contact, contamination and growth of undesirable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(14) Food, such as dry mixes, nuts, intermediate moisture food, and dehydrated food, that relies principally on the control of a<E T="52">w</E> for preventing the growth of undesirable microorganisms must be processed to and maintained at a safe moisture level.
</P>
<P>(15) Food, such as acid and acidified food, that relies principally on the control of pH for preventing the growth of undesirable microorganisms must be monitored and maintained at a pH of 4.6 or below.
</P>
<P>(16) When ice is used in contact with food, it must be made from water that is safe and of adequate sanitary quality in accordance with § 117.37(a), and must be used only if it has been manufactured in accordance with current good manufacturing practice as outlined in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.93" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.93   Warehousing and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>Storage and transportation of food must be under conditions that will protect against allergen cross-contact and against biological, chemical (including radiological), and physical contamination of food, as well as against deterioration of the food and the container.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.95" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.95   Holding and distribution of human food by-products for use as animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Human food by-products held for distribution as animal food without additional manufacturing or processing by the human food processor, as identified in § 507.12 of this chapter, must be held under conditions that will protect against contamination, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Containers and equipment used to convey or hold human food by-products for use as animal food before distribution must be designed, constructed of appropriate material, cleaned as necessary, and maintained to protect against the contamination of human food by-products for use as animal food;
</P>
<P>(2) Human food by-products for use as animal food held for distribution must be held in a way to protect against contamination from sources such as trash; and
</P>
<P>(3) During holding, human food by-products for use as animal food must be accurately identified.
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling that identifies the by-product by the common or usual name must be affixed to or accompany human food by-products for use as animal food when distributed.
</P>
<P>(c) Shipping containers (<I>e.g.,</I> totes, drums, and tubs) and bulk vehicles used to distribute human food by-products for use as animal food must be examined prior to use to protect against contamination of the human food by-products for use as animal food from the container or vehicle when the facility is responsible for transporting the human food by-products for use as animal food itself or arranges with a third party to transport the human food by-products for use as animal food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.110   Defect action levels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The manufacturer, processor, packer, and holder of food must at all times utilize quality control operations that reduce natural or unavoidable defects to the lowest level currently feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) The mixing of a food containing defects at levels that render that food adulterated with another lot of food is not permitted and renders the final food adulterated, regardless of the defect level of the final food. For examples of defect action levels that may render food adulterated, see the Defect Levels Handbook, which is accessible at<I>http://www.fda.gov/pchfrule</I> and at<I>http://www.fda.gov</I>.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hazard Analysis and Risk-Based Preventive Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.126" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.126   Food safety plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for a food safety plan.</I> (1) You must prepare, or have prepared, and implement a written food safety plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The food safety plan must be prepared, or its preparation overseen, by one or more preventive controls qualified individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of a food safety plan.</I> The written food safety plan must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The written hazard analysis as required by § 117.130(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) The written preventive controls as required by § 117.135(b);
</P>
<P>(3) The written supply-chain program as required by subpart G of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The written recall plan as required by § 117.139(a); and
</P>
<P>(5) The written procedures for monitoring the implementation of the preventive controls as required by § 117.145(a);
</P>
<P>(6) The written corrective action procedures as required by § 117.150(a)(1); and
</P>
<P>(7) The written verification procedures as required by § 117.165(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> The food safety plan required by this section is a record that is subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 12491, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.130   Hazard analysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for a hazard analysis.</I> (1) You must conduct a hazard analysis to identify and evaluate, based on experience, illness data, scientific reports, and other information, known or reasonably foreseeable hazards for each type of food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at your facility to determine whether there are any hazards requiring a preventive control.
</P>
<P>(2) The hazard analysis must be written regardless of its outcome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hazard identification.</I> The hazard identification must consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Known or reasonably foreseeable hazards that include:
</P>
<P>(i) Biological hazards, including microbiological hazards such as parasites, environmental pathogens, and other pathogens;
</P>
<P>(ii) Chemical hazards, including radiological hazards, substances such as pesticide and drug residues, natural toxins, decomposition, unapproved food or color additives, and food allergens; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Physical hazards (such as stones, glass, and metal fragments); and
</P>
<P>(2) Known or reasonably foreseeable hazards that may be present in the food for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) The hazard occurs naturally;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hazard may be unintentionally introduced; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The hazard may be intentionally introduced for purposes of economic gain.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hazard evaluation.</I> (1)(i) The hazard analysis must include an evaluation of the hazards identified in paragraph (b) of this section to assess the severity of the illness or injury if the hazard were to occur and the probability that the hazard will occur in the absence of preventive controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hazard evaluation required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section must include an evaluation of environmental pathogens whenever a ready-to-eat food is exposed to the environment prior to packaging and the packaged food does not receive a treatment or otherwise include a control measure (such as a formulation lethal to the pathogen) that would significantly minimize the pathogen.
</P>
<P>(2) The hazard evaluation must consider the effect of the following on the safety of the finished food for the intended consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) The formulation of the food;
</P>
<P>(ii) The condition, function, and design of the facility and equipment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(iv) Transportation practices;
</P>
<P>(v) Manufacturing/processing procedures;
</P>
<P>(vi) Packaging activities and labeling activities;
</P>
<P>(vii) Storage and distribution;
</P>
<P>(viii) Intended or reasonably foreseeable use;
</P>
<P>(ix) Sanitation, including employee hygiene; and
</P>
<P>(x) Any other relevant factors, such as the temporal (<I>e.g.,</I> weather-related) nature of some hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> levels of some natural toxins).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.135   Preventive controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) You must identify and implement preventive controls to provide assurances that any hazards requiring a preventive control will be significantly minimized or prevented and the food manufactured, processed, packed, or held by your facility will not be adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Preventive controls required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls at critical control points (CCPs), if there are any CCPs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls, other than those at CCPs, that are also appropriate for food safety.
</P>
<P>(b) Preventive controls must be written.
</P>
<P>(c) Preventive controls include, as appropriate to the facility and the food:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Process controls.</I> Process controls include procedures, practices, and processes to ensure the control of parameters during operations such as heat processing, acidifying, irradiating, and refrigerating foods. Process controls must include, as appropriate to the nature of the applicable control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(i) Parameters associated with the control of the hazard; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum or minimum value, or combination of values, to which any biological, chemical, or physical parameter must be controlled to significantly minimize or prevent a hazard requiring a process control.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Food allergen controls.</I> Food allergen controls include procedures, practices, and processes to control food allergens. Food allergen controls must include those procedures, practices, and processes employed for:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensuring protection of food from allergen cross-contact, including during storage, handling, and use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling the finished food, including ensuring that the finished food is not misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sanitation controls.</I> Sanitation controls include procedures, practices, and processes to ensure that the facility is maintained in a sanitary condition adequate to significantly minimize or prevent hazards such as environmental pathogens, biological hazards due to employee handling, and food allergen hazards. Sanitation controls must include, as appropriate to the facility and the food, procedures, practices, and processes for the:
</P>
<P>(i) Cleanliness of food-contact surfaces, including food-contact surfaces of utensils and equipment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevention of allergen cross-contact and cross-contamination from insanitary objects and from personnel to food, food packaging material, and other food-contact surfaces and from raw product to processed product.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supply-chain controls.</I> Supply-chain controls include the supply-chain program as required by subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Recall plan.</I> Recall plan as required by § 117.139.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other controls.</I> Preventive controls include any other procedures, practices, and processes necessary to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. Examples of other controls include hygiene training and other current good manufacturing practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.136" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.136   Circumstances in which the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a manufacturing/processing facility is not required to implement a preventive control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Circumstances.</I> If you are a manufacturer/processor, you are not required to implement a preventive control when you identify a hazard requiring a preventive control (identified hazard) and any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(1) You determine and document that the type of food (<I>e.g.,</I> raw agricultural commodities such as cocoa beans, coffee beans, and grains) could not be consumed without application of an appropriate control.
</P>
<P>(2) You rely on your customer who is subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in this subpart to ensure that the identified hazard will be significantly minimized or prevented and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance, subject to the requirements of § 117.137, that the customer has established and is following procedures (identified in the written assurance) that will significantly minimize or prevent the identified hazard.
</P>
<P>(3) You rely on your customer who is not subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in this subpart to provide assurance it is manufacturing, processing, or preparing the food in accordance with applicable food safety requirements and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance that it is manufacturing, processing, or preparing the food in accordance with applicable food safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) You rely on your customer to provide assurance that the food will be processed to control the identified hazard by an entity in the distribution chain subsequent to the customer and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance, subject to the requirements of § 117.137, that your customer:
</P>
<P>(A) Will disclose in documents accompanying the food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(B) Will only sell to another entity that agrees, in writing, it will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Follow procedures (identified in a written assurance) that will significantly minimize or prevent the identified hazard (if the entity is subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in this subpart) or manufacture, process, or prepare the food in accordance with applicable food safety requirements (if the entity is not subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in this subpart); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Obtain a similar written assurance from the entity's customer, subject to the requirements of § 117.137, as in paragraphs (a)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(5) You have established, documented, and implemented a system that ensures control, at a subsequent distribution step, of the hazards in the food you distribute and you document the implementation of that system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records.</I> You must document any circumstance, specified in paragraph (a) of this section, that applies to you, including:
</P>
<P>(1) A determination, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, that the type of food could not be consumed without application of an appropriate control;
</P>
<P>(2) The annual written assurance from your customer in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) The annual written assurance from your customer in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) The annual written assurance from your customer in accordance with paragraph (a)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Your system, in accordance with paragraph (a)(5) of this section, that ensures control, at a subsequent distribution step, of the hazards in the food you distribute.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3716, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.137" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.137   Provision of assurances required under § 117.136(a)(2), (3), and (4).</HEAD>
<P>A facility that provides a written assurance under § 117.136(a)(2), (3), or (4) must act consistently with the assurance and document its actions taken to satisfy the written assurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.139" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.139   Recall plan.</HEAD>
<P>For food with a hazard requiring a preventive control:
</P>
<P>(a) You must establish a written recall plan for the food.
</P>
<P>(b) The written recall plan must include procedures that describe the steps to be taken, and assign responsibility for taking those steps, to perform the following actions as appropriate to the facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly notify the direct consignees of the food being recalled, including how to return or dispose of the affected food;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the public about any hazard presented by the food when appropriate to protect public health;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct effectiveness checks to verify that the recall is carried out; and
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriately dispose of recalled food—<I>e.g.,</I> through reprocessing, reworking, diverting to a use that does not present a safety concern, or destroying the food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.140   Preventive control management components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the preventive controls required under § 117.135 are subject to the following preventive control management components as appropriate to ensure the effectiveness of the preventive controls, taking into account the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitoring in accordance with § 117.145;
</P>
<P>(2) Corrective actions and corrections in accordance with § 117.150; and
</P>
<P>(3) Verification in accordance with § 117.155.
</P>
<P>(b) The supply-chain program established in subpart G of this part is subject to the following preventive control management components as appropriate to ensure the effectiveness of the supply-chain program, taking into account the nature of the hazard controlled before receipt of the raw material or other ingredient:
</P>
<P>(1) Corrective actions and corrections in accordance with § 117.150, taking into account the nature of any supplier non-conformance;
</P>
<P>(2) Review of records in accordance with § 117.165(a)(4); and
</P>
<P>(3) Reanalysis in accordance with § 117.170.
</P>
<P>(c) The recall plan established in § 117.139 is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.145   Monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>As appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Written procedures.</I> You must establish and implement written procedures, including the frequency with which they are to be performed, for monitoring the preventive control; and
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Monitoring.</I> You must monitor the preventive controls with adequate frequency to provide assurance that they are consistently performed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> (1) <I>Requirement to document monitoring.</I> You must document the monitoring of preventive controls in accordance with this section in records that are subject to verification in accordance with § 117.155(a)(2) and records review in accordance with § 117.165(a)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception records.</I> (i) Records of refrigeration temperature during storage of food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens may be affirmative records demonstrating temperature is controlled or exception records demonstrating loss of temperature control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exception records may be adequate in circumstances other than monitoring of refrigeration temperature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3716, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.150   Corrective actions and corrections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Corrective action procedures.</I> As appropriate to the nature of the hazard and the nature of the preventive control, except as provided by paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) You must establish and implement written corrective action procedures that must be taken if preventive controls are not properly implemented, including procedures to address, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The presence of a pathogen or appropriate indicator organism in a ready-to-eat product detected as a result of product testing conducted in accordance with § 117.165(a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The presence of an environmental pathogen or appropriate indicator organism detected through the environmental monitoring conducted in accordance with § 117.165(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) The corrective action procedures must describe the steps to be taken to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate action is taken to identify and correct a problem that has occurred with implementation of a preventive control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate action is taken, when necessary, to reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur;
</P>
<P>(iii) All affected food is evaluated for safety; and
</P>
<P>(iv) All affected food is prevented from entering into commerce, if you cannot ensure that the affected food is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corrective action in the event of an unanticipated food safety problem.</I> (1) Except as provided by paragraph (c) of this section, you are subject to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) of this section if any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(i) A preventive control is not properly implemented and a corrective action procedure has not been established;
</P>
<P>(ii) A preventive control, combination of preventive controls, or the food safety plan as a whole is found to be ineffective; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A review of records in accordance with § 117.165(a)(4) finds that the records are not complete, the activities conducted did not occur in accordance with the food safety plan, or appropriate decisions were not made about corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(2) If any of the circumstances listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section apply, you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Take corrective action to identify and correct the problem, reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur, evaluate all affected food for safety, and, as necessary, prevent affected food from entering commerce as would be done following a corrective action procedure under paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) When appropriate, reanalyze the food safety plan in accordance with § 117.170 to determine whether modification of the food safety plan is required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Corrections.</I> You do not need to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) You take action, in a timely manner, to identify and correct conditions and practices that are not consistent with the food allergen controls in § 117.135(c)(2)(i) or the sanitation controls in § 117.135(c)(3)(i) or (ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) You take action, in a timely manner, to identify and correct a minor and isolated problem that does not directly impact product safety.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> All corrective actions (and, when appropriate, corrections) taken in accordance with this section must be documented in records. These records are subject to verification in accordance with § 117.155(a)(3) and records review in accordance with § 117.165(a)(4)(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.155   Verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Verification activities.</I> Verification activities must include, as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(1) Validation in accordance with § 117.160.
</P>
<P>(2) Verification that monitoring is being conducted as required by § 117.140 (and in accordance with § 117.145).
</P>
<P>(3) Verification that appropriate decisions about corrective actions are being made as required by § 117.140 (and in accordance with § 117.150).
</P>
<P>(4) Verification of implementation and effectiveness in accordance with § 117.165; and
</P>
<P>(5) Reanalysis in accordance with § 117.170.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Documentation.</I> All verification activities conducted in accordance with this section must be documented in records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.160   Validation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must validate that the preventive controls identified and implemented in accordance with § 117.135 are adequate to control the hazard as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system.
</P>
<P>(b) The validation of the preventive controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Must be performed (or overseen) by a preventive controls qualified individual:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Prior to implementation of the food safety plan; or
</P>
<P>(B) When necessary to demonstrate the control measures can be implemented as designed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Within 90 calendar days after production of the applicable food first begins; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 90 calendar days after production of the applicable food first begins;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a change to a control measure or combination of control measures could impact whether the control measure or combination of control measures, when properly implemented, will effectively control the hazards; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever a reanalysis of the food safety plan reveals the need to do so;
</P>
<P>(2) Must include obtaining and evaluating scientific and technical evidence (or, when such evidence is not available or is inadequate, conducting studies) to determine whether the preventive controls, when properly implemented, will effectively control the hazards; and
</P>
<P>(c) You do not need to validate:
</P>
<P>(1) The food allergen controls in § 117.135(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) The sanitation controls in § 117.135(c)(3);
</P>
<P>(3) The recall plan in § 117.139;
</P>
<P>(4) The supply-chain program in subpart G of this part; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other preventive controls, if the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification that validation is not applicable based on factors such as the nature of the hazard, and the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.165" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.165   Verification of implementation and effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Verification activities.</I> You must verify that the preventive controls are consistently implemented and are effectively and significantly minimizing or preventing the hazards. To do so you must conduct activities that include the following, as appropriate to the facility, the food, and the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(1) Calibration of process monitoring instruments and verification instruments (or checking them for accuracy);
</P>
<P>(2) Product testing, for a pathogen (or appropriate indicator organism) or other hazard;
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental monitoring, for an environmental pathogen or for an appropriate indicator organism, if contamination of a ready-to-eat food with an environmental pathogen is a hazard requiring a preventive control, by collecting and testing environmental samples; and
</P>
<P>(4) Review of the following records within the specified timeframes, by (or under the oversight of) a preventive controls qualified individual, to ensure that the records are complete, the activities reflected in the records occurred in accordance with the food safety plan, the preventive controls are effective, and appropriate decisions were made about corrective actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Records of monitoring and corrective action records within 7 working days after the records are created or within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 7 working days; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of calibration, testing (<I>e.g.,</I> product testing, environmental monitoring), supplier and supply-chain verification activities, and other verification activities within a reasonable time after the records are created; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other activities appropriate for verification of implementation and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written procedures.</I> As appropriate to the facility, the food, the nature of the preventive control, and the role of the preventive control in the facility's food safety system, you must establish and implement written procedures for the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) The method and frequency of calibrating process monitoring instruments and verification instruments (or checking them for accuracy) as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Product testing as required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Procedures for product testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be scientifically valid;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the test microorganism(s) or other analyte(s);
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the procedures for identifying samples, including their relationship to specific lots of product;
</P>
<P>(iv) Include the procedures for sampling, including the number of samples and the sampling frequency;
</P>
<P>(v) Identify the test(s) conducted, including the analytical method(s) used;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify the laboratory conducting the testing; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Include the corrective action procedures required by § 117.150(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental monitoring as required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Procedures for environmental monitoring must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be scientifically valid;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the test microorganism(s);
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the locations from which samples will be collected and the number of sites to be tested during routine environmental monitoring. The number and location of sampling sites must be adequate to determine whether preventive controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify the timing and frequency for collecting and testing samples. The timing and frequency for collecting and testing samples must be adequate to determine whether preventive controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(v) Identify the test(s) conducted, including the analytical method(s) used;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify the laboratory conducting the testing; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Include the corrective action procedures required by § 117.150(a)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.170   Reanalysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food safety plan as a whole at least once every 3 years;
</P>
<P>(b) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food safety plan as a whole, or the applicable portion of the food safety plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever a significant change in the activities conducted at your facility creates a reasonable potential for a new hazard or creates a significant increase in a previously identified hazard;
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever you become aware of new information about potential hazards associated with the food;
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever appropriate after an unanticipated food safety problem in accordance with § 117.150(b); and
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever you find that a preventive control, combination of preventive controls, or the food safety plan as a whole is ineffective.
</P>
<P>(c) You must complete the reanalysis required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and validate, as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system, any additional preventive controls needed to address the hazard identified:
</P>
<P>(1) Before any change in activities (including any change in preventive control) at the facility is operative; or
</P>
<P>(2) When necessary to demonstrate the control measures can be implemented as designed:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 90 calendar days after production of the applicable food first begins; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 90-calendar days after production of the applicable food first begins.
</P>
<P>(d) You must revise the written food safety plan if a significant change in the activities conducted at your facility creates a reasonable potential for a new hazard or a significant increase in a previously identified hazard or document the basis for the conclusion that no revisions are needed.
</P>
<P>(e) A preventive controls qualified individual must perform (or oversee) the reanalysis.
</P>
<P>(f) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food safety plan when FDA determines it is necessary to respond to new hazards and developments in scientific understanding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.180   Requirements applicable to a preventive controls qualified individual and a qualified auditor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) One or more preventive controls qualified individuals must do or oversee the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Preparation of the food safety plan (§ 117.126(a)(2));
</P>
<P>(2) Validation of the preventive controls (§ 117.160(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(3) Written justification for validation to be performed in a timeframe that exceeds the first 90 calendar days of production of the applicable food;
</P>
<P>(4) Determination that validation is not required (§ 117.160(c)(5));
</P>
<P>(5) Review of records (§ 117.165(a)(4));
</P>
<P>(6) Written justification for review of records of monitoring and corrective actions within a timeframe that exceeds 7 working days;
</P>
<P>(7) Reanalysis of the food safety plan (§ 117.170(d)); and
</P>
<P>(8) Determination that reanalysis can be completed, and additional preventive controls validated, as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system, in a timeframe that exceeds the first 90 calendar days of production of the applicable food.
</P>
<P>(b) A qualified auditor must conduct an onsite audit (§ 117.435(a)).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) To be a preventive controls qualified individual, the individual must have successfully completed training in the development and application of risk-based preventive controls at least equivalent to that received under a standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by FDA or be otherwise qualified through job experience to develop and apply a food safety system. Job experience may qualify an individual to perform these functions if such experience has provided an individual with knowledge at least equivalent to that provided through the standardized curriculum. This individual may be, but is not required to be, an employee of the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) To be a qualified auditor, a qualified individual must have technical expertise obtained through education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform the auditing function.
</P>
<P>(d) All applicable training in the development and application of risk-based preventive controls must be documented in records, including the date of the training, the type of training, and the person(s) trained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.190" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.190   Implementation records required for this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish and maintain the following records documenting implementation of the food safety plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation, as required by § 117.136(b), of the basis for not establishing a preventive control in accordance with § 117.136(a);
</P>
<P>(2) Records that document the monitoring of preventive controls;
</P>
<P>(3) Records that document corrective actions;
</P>
<P>(4) Records that document verification, including, as applicable, those related to:
</P>
<P>(i) Validation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Verification of monitoring;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verification of corrective actions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Calibration of process monitoring and verification instruments;
</P>
<P>(v) Product testing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Environmental monitoring;
</P>
<P>(vii) Records review; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Reanalysis;
</P>
<P>(5) Records that document the supply-chain program; and
</P>
<P>(6) Records that document applicable training for the preventive controls qualified individual and the qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(b) The records that you must establish and maintain are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Modified Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.201" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.201   Modified requirements that apply to a qualified facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Attestations to be submitted.</I> A qualified facility must submit the following attestations to FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) An attestation that the facility is a qualified facility as defined in § 117.3. For the purpose of determining whether a facility satisfies the definition of qualified facility, the baseline year for calculating the adjustment for inflation is 2011; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An attestation that you have identified the potential hazards associated with the food being produced, are implementing preventive controls to address the hazards, and are monitoring the performance of the preventive controls to ensure that such controls are effective; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An attestation that the facility is in compliance with State, local, county, tribal, or other applicable non-Federal food safety law, including relevant laws and regulations of foreign countries, including an attestation based on licenses, inspection reports, certificates, permits, credentials, certification by an appropriate agency (such as a State department of agriculture), or other evidence of oversight.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for submission.</I> The attestations required by paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to FDA by one of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Electronic submission.</I> To submit electronically, go to <I>http://www.fda.gov/furls</I> and follow the instructions. This Web site is available from wherever the Internet is accessible, including libraries, copy centers, schools, and Internet cafes. FDA encourages electronic submission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submission by mail.</I> (i) You must use Form FDA 3942a. You may obtain a copy of this form by any of the following mechanisms:
</P>
<P>(A) Download it from <I>http://www.fda.gov/pchfrule</I>;
</P>
<P>(B) Write to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (HFS-681), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740; or
</P>
<P>(C) Request a copy of this form by phone at 1-800-216-7331 or 301-575-0156.
</P>
<P>(ii) Send a paper Form FDA 3942a to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (HFS-681), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. We recommend that you submit a paper copy only if your facility does not have reasonable access to the Internet.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Frequency of determination of status and submission.</I> (1) A facility must determine and document its status as a qualified facility on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) The attestations required by paragraph (a) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Submitted to FDA initially:
</P>
<P>(A) By December 17, 2018, for a facility that begins manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding food before September 17, 2018;
</P>
<P>(B) Before beginning operations, for a facility that begins manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding food after September 17, 2018; or
</P>
<P>(C) By July 31 of the applicable calendar year, when the status of a facility changes from “not a qualified facility” to “qualified facility” based on the annual determination required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning in 2020, submitted to FDA every 2 years during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31.
</P>
<P>(3) When the status of a facility changes from “qualified facility” to “not a qualified facility” based on the annual determination required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the facility must notify FDA of that change in status using Form 3942a by July 31 of the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timeframe for compliance with subparts C and G of this part when the facility status changes to “not a qualified facility.”</I> When the status of a facility changes from “qualified facility” to “not a qualified facility,” the facility must comply with subparts C and G of this part no later than December 31 of the applicable calendar year unless otherwise agreed to by FDA and the facility.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification to consumers.</I> A qualified facility that does not submit attestations under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must provide notification to consumers as to the name and complete business address of the facility where the food was manufactured or processed (including the street address or P.O. box, city, state, and zip code for domestic facilities, and comparable full address information for foreign facilities), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If a food packaging label is required, the notification required by paragraph (e) of this section must appear prominently and conspicuously on the label of the food.
</P>
<P>(2) If a food packaging label is not required, the notification required by paragraph (e) of this section must appear prominently and conspicuously, at the point of purchase, on a label, poster, sign, placard, or documents delivered contemporaneously with the food in the normal course of business, or in an electronic notice, in the case of Internet sales.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records.</I> (1) A qualified facility must maintain those records relied upon to support the attestations that are required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The records that a qualified facility must maintain are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3716, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.206" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.206   Modified requirements that apply to a facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a facility that is solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged food stores any such refrigerated packaged food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by pathogens, the facility must conduct the following activities as appropriate to ensure the effectiveness of the temperature controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish and implement temperature controls adequate to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor the temperature controls with adequate frequency to provide assurance that the temperature controls are consistently performed;
</P>
<P>(3) If there is a loss of temperature control that may impact the safety of such refrigerated packaged food, take appropriate corrective actions to:
</P>
<P>(i) Correct the problem and reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate all affected food for safety; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Prevent the food from entering commerce, if you cannot ensure the affected food is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(4) Verify that temperature controls are consistently implemented by:
</P>
<P>(i) Calibrating temperature monitoring and recording devices (or checking them for accuracy);
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing records of calibration within a reasonable time after the records are created; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviewing records of monitoring and corrective actions taken to correct a problem with the control of temperature within 7 working days after the records are created or within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 7 working days;
</P>
<P>(5) Establish and maintain the following records:
</P>
<P>(i) Records (whether affirmative records demonstrating temperature is controlled or exception records demonstrating loss of temperature control) documenting the monitoring of temperature controls for any such refrigerated packaged food;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of corrective actions taken when there is a loss of temperature control that may impact the safety of any such refrigerated packaged food; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Records documenting verification activities.
</P>
<P>(b) The records that a facility must establish and maintain under paragraph (a)(5) of this section are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Withdrawal of a Qualified Facility Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.251" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.251   Circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may withdraw a qualified facility exemption under § 117.5(a):
</P>
<P>(1) In the event of an active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak that is directly linked to the qualified facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA determines that it is necessary to protect the public health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak based on conditions or conduct associated with the qualified facility that are material to the safety of the food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at such facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Before FDA issues an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption, FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) May consider one or more other actions to protect the public health or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak, including a warning letter, recall, administrative detention, suspension of registration, refusal of food offered for import, seizure, and injunction;
</P>
<P>(2) Must notify the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, in writing, of circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw the exemption, and provide an opportunity for the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility to respond in writing, within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the notification, to FDA's notification; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must consider the actions taken by the facility to address the circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.254" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.254   Issuance of an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FDA Division Director in whose division the qualified facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition), or an FDA official senior to either such Director, must approve an order to withdraw the exemption before the order is issued.
</P>
<P>(b) Any officer or qualified employee of FDA may issue an order to withdraw the exemption after it has been approved in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA must issue an order to withdraw the exemption to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA must issue an order to withdraw the exemption in writing, signed and dated by the officer or qualified employee of FDA who is issuing the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16553, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.257" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.257   Contents of an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption under § 117.5(a) must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The date of the order;
</P>
<P>(b) The name, address, and location of the qualified facility;
</P>
<P>(c) A brief, general statement of the reasons for the order, including information relevant to one or both of the following circumstances that leads FDA to issue the order:
</P>
<P>(1) An active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak that is directly linked to the facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) Conditions or conduct associated with a qualified facility that are material to the safety of the food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at such facility.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement that the facility must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with subparts C and G of this part on the date that is 120 calendar days after the date of receipt of the order, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; or
</P>
<P>(2) Appeal the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order in accordance with the requirements of § 117.264.
</P>
<P>(e) A statement that a facility may request that FDA reinstate an exemption that was withdrawn by following the procedures in § 117.287;
</P>
<P>(f) The text of section 418(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(g) A statement that any informal hearing on an appeal of the order must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter, with certain exceptions described in § 117.270;
</P>
<P>(h) The mailing address, telephone number, email address, fax number, and name of the FDA Division Director in whose division the facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the same information for the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition); and
</P>
<P>(i) The name and the title of the FDA representative who approved the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3716, Jan. 22, 2016; 85 FR 16553, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.260" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.260   Compliance with, or appeal of, an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you receive an order under § 117.254 to withdraw a qualified facility exemption, you must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with applicable requirements of this part within 120 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; or
</P>
<P>(2) Appeal the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order in accordance with the requirements of § 117.264.
</P>
<P>(b) Submission of an appeal, including submission of a request for an informal hearing, will not operate to delay or stay any administrative action, including enforcement action by FDA, unless the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, as a matter of discretion, determines that delay or a stay is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) If you appeal the order, and FDA confirms the order:
</P>
<P>(1) You must comply with applicable requirements of this part within 120 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) You are no longer subject to the modified requirements in § 117.201.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.264" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.264   Procedure for submitting an appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To appeal an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the appeal in writing to the FDA Division Director in whose division the facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition), at the mailing address, email address, or fax number identified in the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of confirmation of the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) Respond with particularity to the facts and issues contained in the order, including any supporting documentation upon which you rely.
</P>
<P>(b) In a written appeal of the order withdrawing an exemption provided under § 117.5(a), you may include a written request for an informal hearing as provided in § 117.267.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3716, Jan. 22, 2016; 85 FR 16553, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.267" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.267   Procedure for requesting an informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you appeal the order, you:
</P>
<P>(1) May request an informal hearing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must submit any request for an informal hearing together with your written appeal submitted in accordance with § 117.264 within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for an informal hearing may be denied, in whole or in part, if the presiding officer determines that no genuine and substantial issue of material fact has been raised by the material submitted. If the presiding officer determines that a hearing is not justified, written notice of the determination will be given to you explaining the reason for the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.270" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.270   Requirements applicable to an informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If you request an informal hearing, and FDA grants the request:
</P>
<P>(a) The hearing will be held within 15 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed or, if applicable, within a timeframe agreed upon in writing by you and FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer may require that a hearing conducted under this subpart be completed within 1-calendar day, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA must conduct the hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The order withdrawing an exemption under §§ 117.254 and 117.257, rather than the notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides notice of opportunity for a hearing under this section and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for a hearing under this subpart must be addressed to the FDA Division Director (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition) as provided in the order withdrawing an exemption.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 117.274, rather than § 16.42(a) of this chapter, describes the FDA employees who preside at hearings under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 16.60(e) and (f) of this chapter does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer must prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. The presiding officer must include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and must include a proposed decision, with a statement of reasons. The hearing participant may review and comment on the presiding officer's report within 2-calendar days of issuance of the report. The presiding officer will then issue the final decision.
</P>
<P>(5) Section 16.80(a)(4) of this chapter does not apply to a regulatory hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer's report of the hearing and any comments on the report by the hearing participant under § 117.270(c)(4) are part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(6) No party shall have the right, under § 16.119 of this chapter to petition the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for reconsideration or a stay of the presiding officer's final decision.
</P>
<P>(7) If FDA grants a request for an informal hearing on an appeal of an order withdrawing an exemption, the hearing must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under a regulation in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that § 16.95(b) of this chapter does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. With respect to a regulatory hearing under this subpart, the administrative record of the hearing specified in §§ 16.80(a)(1) through (3) and (a)(5) of this chapter and 117.270(c)(5) constitutes the exclusive record for the presiding officer's final decision. For purposes of judicial review under § 10.45 of this chapter, the record of the administrative proceeding consists of the record of the hearing and the presiding officer's final decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16553, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.274" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.274   Presiding officer for an appeal and for an informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer for an appeal, and for an informal hearing, must be an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16553, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.277" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.277   Timeframe for issuing a decision on an appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you appeal the order without requesting a hearing, the presiding officer must issue a written report that includes a final decision confirming or revoking the withdrawal by the 10th calendar day after the appeal is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) If you appeal the order and request an informal hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) If FDA grants the request for a hearing and the hearing is held, the presiding officer must provide a 2-calendar day opportunity for the hearing participants to review and submit comments on the report of the hearing under § 117.270(c)(4), and must issue a final decision within 10-calendar days after the hearing is held; or
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA denies the request for a hearing, the presiding officer must issue a final decision on the appeal confirming or revoking the withdrawal within 10 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.280" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.280   Revocation of an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption is revoked if:
</P>
<P>(a) You appeal the order and request an informal hearing, FDA grants the request for an informal hearing, and the presiding officer does not confirm the order within the 10-calendar days after the hearing, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time; or
</P>
<P>(b) You appeal the order and request an informal hearing, FDA denies the request for an informal hearing, and FDA does not confirm the order within the 10-calendar days after the appeal is filed, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time; or
</P>
<P>(c) You appeal the order without requesting an informal hearing, and FDA does not confirm the order within the 10-calendar days after the appeal is filed, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.284" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.284   Final agency action.</HEAD>
<P>Confirmation of a withdrawal order by the presiding officer is considered a final agency action for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 702.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.287" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.287   Reinstatement of a qualified facility exemption that was withdrawn.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the FDA Division Director in whose division your facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition) determines that a facility has adequately resolved any problems with the conditions and conduct that are material to the safety of the food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at the facility and that continued withdrawal of the exemption is not necessary to protect public health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak, the FDA Division Director in whose division your facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition) will, on his or her own initiative or on the request of a facility, reinstate the exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) You may ask FDA to reinstate an exemption that has been withdrawn under the procedures of this subpart as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a request, in writing, to the FDA Division Director in whose division your facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Office of Compliance in the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition); and
</P>
<P>(2) Present data and information to demonstrate that you have adequately resolved any problems with the conditions and conduct that are material to the safety of the food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at your facility, such that continued withdrawal of the exemption is not necessary to protect public health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak.
</P>
<P>(c) If your exemption was withdrawn under § 117.251(a)(1) and FDA later determines, after finishing the active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak, that the outbreak is not directly linked to your facility, FDA will reinstate your exemption under § 117.5(a), and FDA will notify you in writing that your exempt status has been reinstated.
</P>
<P>(d) If your exemption was withdrawn under both § 117.251(a)(1) and (2) and FDA later determines, after finishing the active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak, that the outbreak is not directly linked to your facility, FDA will inform you of this finding, and you may ask FDA to reinstate your exemption under § 117.5(a) in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16553, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Requirements Applying to Records That Must Be Established and Maintained</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.301" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.301   Records subject to the requirements of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, all records required by this part are subject to all requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of § 117.310 apply only to the written food safety plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of § 117.305(b), (d), (e), and (f) do not apply to the records required by § 117.201.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.305" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.305   General requirements applying to records.</HEAD>
<P>Records must:
</P>
<P>(a) Be kept as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records;
</P>
<P>(b) Contain the actual values and observations obtained during monitoring and, as appropriate, during verification activities;
</P>
<P>(c) Be accurate, indelible, and legible;
</P>
<P>(d) Be created concurrently with performance of the activity documented;
</P>
<P>(e) Be as detailed as necessary to provide history of work performed; and
</P>
<P>(f) Include:
</P>
<P>(1) Information adequate to identify the plant or facility (<I>e.g.,</I> the name, and when necessary, the location of the plant or facility);
</P>
<P>(2) The date and, when appropriate, the time of the activity documented;
</P>
<P>(3) The signature or initials of the person performing the activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, the identity of the product and the lot code, if any.
</P>
<P>(g) Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this part and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this part, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.310" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.310   Additional requirements applying to the food safety plan.</HEAD>
<P>The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility must sign and date the food safety plan:
</P>
<P>(a) Upon initial completion; and
</P>
<P>(b) Upon any modification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.315" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.315   Requirements for record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All records required by this part must be retained at the plant or facility for at least 2 years after the date they were prepared.
</P>
<P>(2) Records that a facility relies on during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year to support its status as a qualified facility must be retained at the facility as long as necessary to support the status of a facility as a qualified facility during the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) Records that relate to the general adequacy of the equipment or processes being used by a facility, including the results of scientific studies and evaluations, must be retained by the facility for at least 2 years after their use is discontinued (<I>e.g.,</I> because the facility has updated the written food safety plan (§ 117.126) or records that document validation of the written food safety plan (§ 117.155(b)));
</P>
<P>(c) Except for the food safety plan, offsite storage of records is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. The food safety plan must remain onsite. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(d) If the plant or facility is closed for a prolonged period, the food safety plan may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location but must be returned to the plant or facility within 24 hours for official review upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.320" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.320   Requirements for official review.</HEAD>
<P>All records required by this part must be made promptly available to a duly authorized representative of the Secretary of Health and Human Services for official review and copying upon oral or written request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.325" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.325   Public disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Records obtained by FDA in accordance with this part are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.330" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.330   Use of existing records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Existing records (<I>e.g.,</I> records that are kept to comply with other Federal, State, or local regulations, or for any other reason) do not need to be duplicated if they contain all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this subpart. Existing records may be supplemented as necessary to include all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The information required by this part does not need to be kept in one set of records. If existing records contain some of the required information, any new information required by this part may be kept either separately or combined with the existing records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.335" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.335   Special requirements applicable to a written assurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any written assurance required by this part must contain the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Effective date;
</P>
<P>(2) Printed names and signatures of authorized officials;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicable assurance under:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 117.136(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 117.136(a)(3);
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 117.136(a)(4);
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 117.430(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(v) Section 117.430(d)(2); or
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 117.430(e)(2);
</P>
<P>(b) A written assurance required under § 117.136(a)(2), (3), or (4) must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Acknowledgement that the facility that provides the written assurance assumes legal responsibility to act consistently with the assurance and document its actions taken to satisfy the written assurance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provision that if the assurance is terminated in writing by either entity, responsibility for compliance with the applicable provisions of this part reverts to the manufacturer/processor as of the date of termination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Supply-Chain Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.405" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.405   Requirement to establish and implement a supply-chain program.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Except as provided by paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, the receiving facility must establish and implement a risk-based supply-chain program for those raw materials and other ingredients for which the receiving facility has identified a hazard requiring a supply-chain-applied control.
</P>
<P>(2) A receiving facility that is an importer, is in compliance with the foreign supplier verification program requirements under part 1, subpart L of this chapter, and has documentation of verification activities conducted under § 1.506(e) of this chapter (which provides assurance that the hazards requiring a supply-chain-applied control for the raw material or other ingredient have been significantly minimized or prevented) need not conduct supplier verification activities for that raw material or other ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements in this subpart do not apply to food that is supplied for research or evaluation use, provided that such food:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not intended for retail sale and is not sold or distributed to the public;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is labeled with the statement “Food for research or evaluation use”;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is supplied in a small quantity that is consistent with a research, analysis, or quality assurance purpose, the food is used only for this purpose, and any unused quantity is properly disposed of; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is accompanied with documents, in accordance with the practice of the trade, stating that the food will be used for research or evaluation purposes and cannot be sold or distributed to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) The supply-chain program must be written.
</P>
<P>(c) When a supply-chain-applied control is applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier (<I>e.g.,</I> when a non-supplier applies controls to certain produce (<I>i.e.,</I> produce covered by part 112 of this chapter), because growing, harvesting, and packing activities are under different management), the receiving facility must:
</P>
<P>(1) Verify the supply-chain-applied control; or
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain documentation of an appropriate verification activity from another entity, review and assess the entity's applicable documentation, and document that review and assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015; 81 FR 3956, Jan. 25, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.410" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.410   General requirements applicable to a supply-chain program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The supply-chain program must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Using approved suppliers as required by § 117.420;
</P>
<P>(2) Determining appropriate supplier verification activities (including determining the frequency of conducting the activity) as required by § 117.425;
</P>
<P>(3) Conducting supplier verification activities as required by §§ 117.430 and 117.435;
</P>
<P>(4) Documenting supplier verification activities as required by § 117.475; and
</P>
<P>(5) When applicable, verifying a supply-chain-applied control applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier and documenting that verification as required by § 117.475, or obtaining documentation of an appropriate verification activity from another entity, reviewing and assessing that documentation, and documenting the review and assessment as required by § 117.475.
</P>
<P>(b) The following are appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Onsite audits;
</P>
<P>(2) Sampling and testing of the raw material or other ingredient;
</P>
<P>(3) Review of the supplier's relevant food safety records; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other appropriate supplier verification activities based on supplier performance and the risk associated with the raw material or other ingredient.
</P>
<P>(c) The supply-chain program must provide assurance that a hazard requiring a supply-chain-applied control has been significantly minimized or prevented.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Except as provided by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, in approving suppliers and determining the appropriate supplier verification activities and the frequency with which they are conducted, the following must be considered:
</P>
<P>(i) The hazard analysis of the food, including the nature of the hazard controlled before receipt of the raw material or other ingredient, applicable to the raw material and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity or entities that will be applying controls for the hazards requiring a supply-chain-applied control;
</P>
<P>(iii) Supplier performance, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The supplier's procedures, processes, and practices related to the safety of the raw material and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(B) Applicable FDA food safety regulations and information relevant to the supplier's compliance with those regulations, including an FDA warning letter or import alert relating to the safety of food and other FDA compliance actions related to food safety (or, when applicable, relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States, and information relevant to the supplier's compliance with those laws and regulations); and
</P>
<P>(C) The supplier's food safety history relevant to the raw materials or other ingredients that the receiving facility receives from the supplier, including available information about results from testing raw materials or other ingredients for hazards, audit results relating to the safety of the food, and responsiveness of the supplier in correcting problems; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other factors as appropriate and necessary, such as storage and transportation practices.
</P>
<P>(2) Considering supplier performance can be limited to the supplier's compliance history as required by paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, if the supplier is:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualified facility as defined by § 117.3;
</P>
<P>(ii) A farm that grows produce and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A shell egg producer that is not subject to the requirements of part 118 of this chapter because it has less than 3,000 laying hens.
</P>
<P>(e) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a receiving facility determines through auditing, verification testing, document review, relevant consumer, customer or other complaints, or otherwise that the supplier is not controlling hazards that the receiving facility has identified as requiring a supply-chain-applied control, the receiving facility must take and document prompt action in accordance with § 117.150 to ensure that raw materials or other ingredients from the supplier do not cause food that is manufactured or processed by the receiving facility to be adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or misbranded under section 403(w) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.415" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.415   Responsibilities of the receiving facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The receiving facility must approve suppliers.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided by paragraphs (a)(3) and (4) of this section, the receiving facility must determine and conduct appropriate supplier verification activities, and satisfy all documentation requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) An entity other than the receiving facility may do any of the following, provided that the receiving facility reviews and assesses the entity's applicable documentation, and documents that review and assessment:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients by the entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Document that written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients are being followed by the entity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine, conduct, or both determine and conduct the appropriate supplier verification activities, with appropriate documentation.
</P>
<P>(4) The supplier may conduct and document sampling and testing of raw materials and other ingredients, for the hazard controlled by the supplier, as a supplier verification activity for a particular lot of product and provide such documentation to the receiving facility, provided that the receiving facility reviews and assesses that documentation, and documents that review and assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, a receiving facility may not accept any of the following as a supplier verification activity:
</P>
<P>(1) A determination by its supplier of the appropriate supplier verification activities for that supplier;
</P>
<P>(2) An audit conducted by its supplier;
</P>
<P>(3) A review by its supplier of that supplier's own relevant food safety records; or
</P>
<P>(4) The conduct by its supplier of other appropriate supplier verification activities for that supplier within the meaning of § 117.410(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this section do not prohibit a receiving facility from relying on an audit provided by its supplier when the audit of the supplier was conducted by a third-party qualified auditor in accordance with §§ 117.430(f) and 117.435.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.420" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.420   Using approved suppliers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval of suppliers.</I> The receiving facility must approve suppliers in accordance with the requirements of § 117.410(d), and document that approval, before receiving raw materials and other ingredients received from those suppliers;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients.</I> (1) Written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients must be established and followed;
</P>
<P>(2) The written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients must ensure that raw materials and other ingredients are received only from approved suppliers (or, when necessary and appropriate, on a temporary basis from unapproved suppliers whose raw materials or other ingredients are subjected to adequate verification activities before acceptance for use); and
</P>
<P>(3) Use of the written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients must be documented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.425" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.425   Determining appropriate supplier verification activities (including determining the frequency of conducting the activity).</HEAD>
<P>Appropriate supplier verification activities (including the frequency of conducting the activity) must be determined in accordance with the requirements of § 117.410(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.430" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.430   Conducting supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraph (c), (d), or (e) of this section, one or more of the supplier verification activities specified in § 117.410(b), as determined under § 117.410(d), must be conducted for each supplier before using the raw material or other ingredient from that supplier and periodically thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as provided by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, when a hazard in a raw material or other ingredient will be controlled by the supplier and is one for which there is a reasonable probability that exposure to the hazard will result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate supplier verification activity is an onsite audit of the supplier; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The audit must be conducted before using the raw material or other ingredient from the supplier and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section do not apply if there is a written determination that other verification activities and/or less frequent onsite auditing of the supplier provide adequate assurance that the hazards are controlled.
</P>
<P>(c) If a supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 117.3, the receiving facility does not need to comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if the receiving facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtains written assurance that the supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 117.3:
</P>
<P>(i) Before first approving the supplier for an applicable calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an annual basis thereafter, by December 31 of each calendar year, for the following calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains written assurance, at least every 2 years, that the supplier is producing the raw material or other ingredient in compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations (or, when applicable, relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States). The written assurance must include either:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the preventive controls that the supplier is implementing to control the applicable hazard in the food; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the facility is in compliance with State, local, county, tribal, or other applicable non-Federal food safety law, including relevant laws and regulations of foreign countries.
</P>
<P>(d) If a supplier is a farm that grows produce and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5, the receiving facility does not need to comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for produce that the receiving facility receives from the farm as a raw material or other ingredient if the receiving facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtains written assurance that the raw material or other ingredient provided by the supplier is not subject to part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5:
</P>
<P>(i) Before first approving the supplier for an applicable calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an annual basis thereafter, by December 31 of each calendar year, for the following calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains written assurance, at least every 2 years, that the farm acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(e) If a supplier is a shell egg producer that is not subject to the requirements of part 118 of this chapter because it has less than 3,000 laying hens, the receiving facility does not need to comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if the receiving facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtains written assurance that the shell eggs produced by the supplier are not subject to part 118 because the shell egg producer has less than 3,000 laying hens:
</P>
<P>(i) Before first approving the supplier for an applicable calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an annual basis thereafter, by December 31 of each calendar year, for the following calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains written assurance, at least every 2 years, that the shell egg producer acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(f) There must not be any financial conflicts of interests that influence the results of the verification activities listed in § 117.410(b) and payment must not be related to the results of the activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.435" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.435   Onsite audit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An onsite audit of a supplier must be performed by a qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(b) If the raw material or other ingredient at the supplier is subject to one or more FDA food safety regulations, an onsite audit must consider such regulations and include a review of the supplier's written plan (<I>e.g.,</I> Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan or other food safety plan), if any, and its implementation, for the hazard being controlled (or, when applicable, an onsite audit may consider relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The following may be substituted for an onsite audit, provided that the inspection was conducted within 1 year of the date that the onsite audit would have been required to be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) The written results of an appropriate inspection of the supplier for compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations by FDA, by representatives of other Federal Agencies (such as the United States Department of Agriculture), or by representatives of State, local, tribal, or territorial agencies; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a foreign supplier, the written results of an inspection by FDA or the food safety authority of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) For inspections conducted by the food safety authority of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent, the food that is the subject of the onsite audit must be within the scope of the official recognition or equivalence determination, and the foreign supplier must be in, and under the regulatory oversight of, such country.
</P>
<P>(d) If the onsite audit is solely conducted to meet the requirements of this subpart by an audit agent of a certification body that is accredited in accordance with regulations in part 1, subpart M of this chapter, the audit is not subject to the requirements in those regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 117.475" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.16.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 117.475   Records documenting the supply-chain program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The records documenting the supply-chain program are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The receiving facility must review the records listed in paragraph (c) of this section in accordance with § 117.165(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) The receiving facility must document the following in records as applicable to its supply-chain program:
</P>
<P>(1) The written supply-chain program;
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation that a receiving facility that is an importer is in compliance with the foreign supplier verification program requirements under part 1, subpart L of this chapter, including documentation of verification activities conducted under § 1.506(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of the approval of a supplier;
</P>
<P>(4) Written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(5) Documentation demonstrating use of the written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(6) Documentation of the determination of the appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(7) Documentation of the conduct of an onsite audit. This documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the supplier subject to the onsite audit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of audit procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) The dates the audit was conducted;
</P>
<P>(iv) The conclusions of the audit;
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the audit; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Documentation that the audit was conducted by a qualified auditor;
</P>
<P>(8) Documentation of sampling and testing conducted as a supplier verification activity. This documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the raw material or other ingredient tested (including lot number, as appropriate) and the number of samples tested;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the test(s) conducted, including the analytical method(s) used;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date(s) on which the test(s) were conducted and the date of the report;
</P>
<P>(iv) The results of the testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken in response to detection of hazards; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Information identifying the laboratory conducting the testing;
</P>
<P>(9) Documentation of the review of the supplier's relevant food safety records. This documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the supplier whose records were reviewed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date(s) of review;
</P>
<P>(iii) The general nature of the records reviewed;
</P>
<P>(iv) The conclusions of the review; and
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the review;
</P>
<P>(10) Documentation of other appropriate supplier verification activities based on the supplier performance and the risk associated with the raw material or other ingredient;
</P>
<P>(11) Documentation of any determination that verification activities other than an onsite audit, and/or less frequent onsite auditing of a supplier, provide adequate assurance that the hazards are controlled when a hazard in a raw material or other ingredient will be controlled by the supplier and is one for which there is a reasonable probability that exposure to the hazard will result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans;
</P>
<P>(12) The following documentation of an alternative verification activity for a supplier that is a qualified facility:
</P>
<P>(i) The written assurance that the supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 117.3, before approving the supplier and on an annual basis thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The written assurance that the supplier is producing the raw material or other ingredient in compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations (or, when applicable, relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States);
</P>
<P>(13) The following documentation of an alternative verification activity for a supplier that is a farm that supplies a raw material or other ingredient and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) The written assurance that supplier is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5, before approving the supplier and on an annual basis thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The written assurance that the farm acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States);
</P>
<P>(14) The following documentation of an alternative verification activity for a supplier that is a shell egg producer that is not subject to the requirements established in part 118 of this chapter because it has less than 3,000 laying hens:
</P>
<P>(i) The written assurance that the shell eggs provided by the supplier are not subject to part 118 of this chapter because the supplier has less than 3,000 laying hens, before approving the supplier and on an annual basis thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The written assurance that the shell egg producer acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States);
</P>
<P>(15) The written results of an appropriate inspection of the supplier for compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations by FDA, by representatives of other Federal Agencies (such as the United States Department of Agriculture), or by representatives from State, local, tribal, or territorial agencies, or the food safety authority of another country when the results of such an inspection is substituted for an onsite audit;
</P>
<P>(16) Documentation of actions taken with respect to supplier non-conformance;
</P>
<P>(17) Documentation of verification of a supply-chain-applied control applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier; and
</P>
<P>(18) When applicable, documentation of the receiving facility's review and assessment of:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicable documentation from an entity other than the receiving facility that written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients are being followed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Applicable documentation, from an entity other than the receiving facility, of the determination of the appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(iii) Applicable documentation, from an entity other than the receiving facility, of conducting the appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(iv) Applicable documentation, from its supplier, of:
</P>
<P>(A) The results of sampling and testing conducted by the supplier; or
</P>
<P>(B) The results of an audit conducted by a third-party qualified auditor in accordance with §§ 117.430(f) and 117.435; and
</P>
<P>(v) Applicable documentation, from an entity other than the receiving facility, of verification activities when a supply-chain-applied control is applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56145, Sept. 17, 2015]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="118" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 118—PRODUCTION, STORAGE, AND TRANSPORTATION OF SHELL EGGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331-334, 342, 371, 381, 393; 42 U.S.C. 243, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 33095, July 9, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 118 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 118.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.1   Persons covered by the requirements in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a shell egg producer with 3,000 or more laying hens at a particular farm that does not sell all of your eggs directly to consumers and that produces shell eggs for the table market, you are covered by some or all of the requirements in this part, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If any of your eggs that are produced at a particular farm do not receive a treatment as defined in § 118.3, you must comply with all of the requirements of this part for egg production on that farm.
</P>
<P>(2) If all of your eggs that are produced at the particular farm receive a treatment as defined in § 118.3, you must comply only with the refrigeration requirements in § 118.4(e) for production of eggs on that farm and with the registration requirements in § 118.11.
</P>
<P>(b) If you transport or hold shell eggs for shell egg processing or egg products facilities, you must comply with the refrigeration requirements in § 118.4(e). This section applies only to eggs from farms with 3,000 or more laying hens.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FFDCA) (21 U.S.C. 321) are applicable to such terms when used in this part, except where they are redefined in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Biosecurity</I> means a program, including the limiting of visitors on the farm and in poultry houses, maintaining personnel and equipment practices that will protect against cross contamination from one poultry house to another, preventing stray poultry, wild birds, cats, and other animals from entering poultry houses, and not allowing employees to keep birds at home, to ensure that there is no introduction or transfer of <I>Salmonella</I> Enteritidis (SE) onto a farm or among poultry houses.
</P>
<P><I>Egg products facility</I> means a USDA-inspected egg products plant where liquid, frozen, and/or dried egg products are produced.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means all poultry houses and grounds immediately surrounding the poultry houses covered under a single biosecurity program.
</P>
<P><I>Flock</I> means all laying hens within one poultry house.
</P>
<P><I>Group</I> means all laying hens of the same age within one poultry house.
</P>
<P><I>Induced molting</I> means molting that is artificially initiated.
</P>
<P><I>Laying cycle</I> means the period of time that a hen begins to produce eggs until it undergoes induced molting or is permanently taken out of production and the period of time that a hen produces eggs between successive induced molting periods or between induced molting and the time that the hen is permanently taken out of production.
</P>
<P><I>Molting</I> means a life stage during which hens stop laying eggs and shed their feathers.
</P>
<P><I>Pest</I> means any objectionable animal including, but not limited to, rodents, flies, and larvae.
</P>
<P><I>Positive flock</I> means a flock that has had an egg test that was positive for SE. A flock is considered positive until that flock meets the egg testing requirements in § 118.6(c) to return to table egg production.
</P>
<P><I>Positive poultry house</I> means a poultry house from which there has been an environmental test that was positive for SE at any time during the life of a group in the poultry house until that house is cleaned and disinfected according to § 118.4(d).
</P>
<P><I>Poultry house</I> means a building, other structure, or separate section within a structure used to house poultry. For structures comprising more than one section containing poultry, each section that is separated from the other sections is considered a separate house.
</P>
<P><I>Producer</I> means a person who owns and/or operates a poultry house containing laying hens which produce shell eggs for human consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Shell egg</I> (or egg) means the egg of the domesticated chicken.
</P>
<P><I>Shell egg processing facility</I> means a facility that processes (e.g., washes, grades, packs) shell eggs for the table egg market.
</P>
<P><I>Treatment</I> (or treated) means a technology or process that achieves at least a 5-log destruction of SE for shell eggs, or the processing of egg products in accordance with the Egg Products Inspection Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.4" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.4   Salmonella Enteritidis (SE) prevention measures.</HEAD>
<P>You must follow the SE prevention measures set forth in this section. In addition, you must have and implement a written SE prevention plan that is specific to each farm where you produce eggs and that includes, at a minimum, the following SE prevention measures:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Pullets.</I> You must procure pullets that are SE monitored or raise pullets under SE monitored conditions. “SE monitored” means the pullets are raised under SE control conditions that prevent SE, including:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Procurement of chicks.</I> Chicks are procured from SE-monitored breeder flocks that meet the National Poultry Improvement Plan's standards for “U.S. S. Enteritidis Clean” status (9 CFR 145.23(d)) or equivalent standard;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Environmental testing.</I> (i) The pullet environment is tested for SE when pullets are 14 to 16 weeks of age;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the environmental test required in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is negative, you do not need to perform any additional testing of those birds or their environment until the environmental test at 40 to 45 weeks of age specified in § 118.5(a); and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the environmental test required in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is positive, you must begin egg testing, as specified in § 118.6, within 2 weeks of the start of egg laying.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and disinfection.</I> If the environmental test required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is positive, the pullet environment is cleaned and disinfected, to include:
</P>
<P>(i) Removal of all visible manure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dry cleaning the positive pullet house to remove dust, feathers, and old feed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Following cleaning, disinfection of the positive pullet house with spray, aerosol, fumigation, or another appropriate disinfection method.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Biosecurity.</I> As part of this program, you must take steps to ensure that there is no introduction or transfer of SE into or among poultry houses. Among such biosecurity measures you must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Limit visitors on the farm and in the poultry houses;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain practices that will protect against cross contamination when equipment is moved among poultry houses;
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain practices that will protect against cross contamination when persons move between poultry houses;
</P>
<P>(4) Prevent stray poultry, wild birds, cats, and other animals from entering poultry houses; and
</P>
<P>(5) Not allow employees to keep birds at home.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rodents, flies, and other pest control.</I> As part of this program, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor for rodents by visual inspection and mechanical traps or glueboards or another appropriate monitoring method and, when monitoring indicates unacceptable rodent activity within a poultry house, use appropriate methods to achieve satisfactory rodent control;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor for flies by spot cards, Scudder grills, or sticky traps or another appropriate monitoring method and, when monitoring indicates unacceptable fly activity within a poultry house, use appropriate methods to achieve satisfactory fly control.
</P>
<P>(3) Remove debris within a poultry house and vegetation and debris outside a poultry house that may provide harborage for pests.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cleaning and disinfection.</I> You must clean and disinfect the poultry house according to these procedures before new laying hens are added to the house, if you have had an environmental test or an egg test that was positive for SE at any point during the life of a flock that was housed in the poultry house prior to depopulation. As part of the cleaning and disinfection procedures, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Remove all visible manure;
</P>
<P>(2) Dry clean the positive poultry house to remove dust, feathers, and old feed; and
</P>
<P>(3) Following cleaning, disinfect the positive poultry house with spray, aerosol, fumigation, or another appropriate disinfection method.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Refrigeration.</I> You must hold and transport eggs at or below 45 °F ambient temperature beginning 36 hours after time of lay. If the eggs are to be processed as table eggs and are not processed for the ultimate consumer within 36 hours from the time of lay and, therefore, are held and transported as required at or below 45 °F ambient temperature, then you may then hold them at room temperature for no more than 36 hours just prior to processing to allow an equilibration step to temper the eggs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.5   Environmental testing for Salmonella Enteritidis (SE).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Environmental testing when laying hens are 40 to 45 weeks of age.</I> As one indicator of the effectiveness of your SE prevention plan, you must perform environmental testing for SE (as described in §§ 118.7 and 118.8) in a poultry house when any group of laying hens constituting the flock within the poultry house is 40 to 45 weeks of age.
</P>
<P>(1) If an environmental test at 40 to 45 weeks is negative and your laying hens do not undergo induced molting, then you do not need to perform any additional environmental testing within that poultry house, unless the poultry house contains more than one group of laying hens. If the poultry house contains more than one group of laying hens, then you must perform environmental testing on the poultry house when each group of laying hens is 40 to 45 weeks of age.
</P>
<P>(2) If the environmental test at 40 to 45 weeks is positive, then you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Review and make any necessary adjustments to your SE prevention plan to ensure that all measures are being properly implemented and
</P>
<P>(ii) Begin egg testing (described in § 118.6), unless you divert eggs to treatment as defined in § 118.3 for the life of the flock in that poultry house. Results of egg testing must be obtained within 10-calendar days of receiving notification of the positive environmental test.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Environmental testing after an induced molting period.</I> If you induce a molt in a flock or a group in a flock, you must perform environmental testing for SE in the poultry house at 4 to 6 weeks after the end of any molting process.
</P>
<P>(1) If an environmental test at 4 to 6 weeks after the end of the molting process is negative and none of your laying hens in that poultry house is molted again, then you do not need to perform any additional environmental testing in that poultry house. Each time a flock or group within the flock is molted, you must perform environmental testing in the poultry house at 4 to 6 weeks after the end of the molting process.
</P>
<P>(2) If the environmental test at 4 to 6 weeks after the end of a molting process is positive, then you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Review and make any necessary adjustments to your SE prevention plan to ensure that all measures are being properly implemented; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Begin egg testing (described in § 118.6), unless you divert eggs to treatment as defined in § 118.3 for the life of the flock in that poultry house. Results of egg testing, when conducted, must be available within 10-calendar days of receiving notification of the positive environmental test.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.6   Egg testing for Salmonella Enteritidis (SE).</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) If the environmental test for pullets at 14 to 16 weeks of age required by § 118.4(a) is positive, you must divert eggs to treatment (defined in § 118.3) for the life of any flock or conduct egg testing within 2 weeks of the start of egg laying, as specified in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If you have an SE-positive environmental test at any time during the life of a flock, you must divert eggs to treatment (defined in § 118.3) for the life of the flock in that positive poultry house or conduct egg testing as specified in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Eggs must be sampled as described in § 118.7 and tested using methodology as described in § 118.8.
</P>
<P>(c) You must conduct four egg tests, using sampling and methodology in §§ 118.7 and 118.8, on the flock in the positive poultry house at 2-week intervals. If all four tests are negative for SE, you are not required to do further egg testing.
</P>
<P>(d) If any of the four egg tests is positive for SE, you must divert, upon receiving notification of an SE-positive egg test, all eggs from that flock to treatment (defined in § 118.3) until the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(e) If you have a positive egg test in a flock and divert eggs from that flock and later meet the negative test result requirements described in paragraph (c) of this section and return to table egg production, you must conduct one egg test per month on that flock, using sampling and methodology in §§ 118.7 and 118.8, for the life of the flock.
</P>
<P>(1) If all the monthly egg tests in paragraph (e) of this section are negative for SE, you may continue to supply eggs to the table market.
</P>
<P>(2) If any of the monthly egg tests in paragraph (e) of this section is positive for SE, you must divert eggs from the positive flock to treatment for the life of the flock or until the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(f) If you are diverting eggs, the pallet, case, or other shipping container must be labeled and all documents accompanying the shipment must contain the following statement: “Federal law requires that these eggs must be treated to achieve at least a 5-log destruction of <I>Salmonella</I> Enteritidis or processed as egg products in accordance with the Egg Products Inspection Act, 21 CFR 118.6(f).” The statement must be legible and conspicuous.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.7   Sampling methodology for Salmonella Enteritidis (SE).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Environmental sampling.</I> An environmental test must be done for each poultry house in accordance with § 118.5 (a) and (b). Within each poultry house, you must sample the environment using a sampling plan appropriate to the poultry house layout.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Egg sampling.</I> When you conduct an egg test required under § 118.6, you must collect and test the following number of eggs from the positive poultry house:
</P>
<P>(1) To meet the egg testing requirements of § 118.6(c), you must collect and deliver for testing a minimum of 1,000 intact eggs representative of a day's production. The 1,000-egg sample must be tested according to § 118.8. You must collect and test four 1,000-egg samples at 2-week intervals for a total of 4,000 eggs.
</P>
<P>(2) To meet the monthly egg testing requirement of § 118.6(e), you must collect and deliver for testing a minimum of 1,000 intact eggs representative of a day's production per month for the life of the flock. Eggs must be tested according to § 118.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.8" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.8   Testing methodology for Salmonella Enteritidis (SE).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Testing of environmental samples for SE.</I> Testing to detect SE in environmental samples must be conducted by the method entitled “Environmental Sampling and Detection of <I>Salmonella</I> in Poultry Houses,” April 2008, or an equivalent method in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity in detecting SE. The April 2008 Environmental Sampling and Detection of <I>Salmonella</I> Web site is located at <I>http://www.fda.gov/Food/ScienceResearch/LaboratoryMethods/ucm114716.htm</I>, current as of June 26, 2009. The Director of the Federal Register approves the incorporation by reference of “Environmental Sampling and Detection of <I>Salmonella</I> in Poultry Houses,” April 2008, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. FDA will request approval to incorporate by reference any updates to this Web site. FDA will change the date of the Web site in this paragraph with each update. You may obtain a copy from Division of Microbiology (HFS-710), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 301-436-2364, or you may examine a copy at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing of egg samples for SE.</I> Testing to detect SE in egg samples must be conducted according to Chapter 5 of FDA's Bacteriological Analytical Manual (BAM), December 2007 Edition, or an equivalent method in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity in detecting SE. Chapter 5 of FDA's Bacteriological Analytical Manual, December 2007 Edition, is located at <I>http://www.fda.gov/Food/ScienceResearch/LaboratoryMethods/BacteriologicalAnalyticalManualBAM/ucm070149.htm,</I> current as of June 26, 2009. The method is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. FDA will request approval to incorporate by reference any updates to this Web site. FDA will change the date of the Web site in this paragraph with each update. You may obtain a copy from Division of Microbiology (HFS-710), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 301-436-2364, or you may examine a copy at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 33095, July 9, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 5590, Feb. 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.9" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.9   Administration of the Salmonella Enteritidis (SE) prevention plan.</HEAD>
<P>You must have one or more supervisory personnel, who do not have to be on-site employees, to be responsible for ensuring compliance with each farm's SE prevention plan. This person must have successfully completed training on SE prevention measures for egg production that is equivalent to that received under a standardized curriculum recognized by the Food and Drug Administration or must be otherwise qualified through job experience to administer the SE prevention measures. Job experience will qualify this person to perform these functions if it has provided knowledge at least equivalent to that provided through the standardized curriculum. This person is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(a) Development and implementation of an SE prevention plan that is appropriate for your specific farm and meets the requirements of § 118.4;
</P>
<P>(b) Reassessing and modifying the SE prevention plan as necessary to ensure that the requirements in § 118.4 are met; and
</P>
<P>(c) Review of records created under § 118.10. This person does not need to have performed the monitoring or created the records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.10   Recordkeeping requirements for the Salmonella Enteritidis (SE) prevention plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records:</I> You must maintain the following records documenting your SE prevention measures:
</P>
<P>(1) A written SE prevention plan required by § 118.4;
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation that pullets were “SE monitored” or were raised under “SE monitored” conditions, including environmental testing records for pullets, as required by § 118.4(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) Records documenting compliance with the SE prevention measures, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Biosecurity measures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rodent and other pest control measures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cleaning and disinfection procedures performed at depopulation, when applicable;
</P>
<P>(iv) Refrigeration requirements;
</P>
<P>(v) Environmental and egg sampling procedures, when applicable, performed under § 118.7;
</P>
<P>(vi) Results of SE testing, when applicable, performed under § 118.8 as required in §§ 118.4(a)(2), 118.5, and 118.6;
</P>
<P>(vii) Diversion of eggs, if applicable, as required in § 118.6; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Eggs at a particular farm being given a treatment as defined in § 118.3, if you are a producer complying with the requirements of this section as described in § 118.1(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) Records of review and of modifications of the SE prevention plan and corrective actions taken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements for records maintained by shell egg producers.</I> All records required by § 118.10(a) must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Your name and the location of your farm,
</P>
<P>(2) The date and time of the activity that the record reflects,
</P>
<P>(3) The signature or initials of the person performing the operation or creating the record. The written SE prevention plan must be dated and carry the signature(s) (not initials) of the person(s) who administers the plan as described in § 118.9, and
</P>
<P>(4) Data and information reflecting compliance activities must be entered on records at the time the activity is performed or observed, and the records must contain the actual values observed, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Length of time records must be retained.</I> You must retain all records required by this part at your place of business, unless stored offsite under § 118.10(d), for 1 year after the flock to which they pertain has been taken permanently out of production.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Offsite storage of records.</I> You may store the records required by this part, except for the written SE prevention plan, offsite. You must be able to retrieve and provide the records at your place of business within 24 hours of request for official review. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Official review of records.</I> You must have all records required by this part available for official review and copying at reasonable times.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public disclosure of records.</I> Records required by this part are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.11" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.11   Registration requirements for shell egg producers covered by the requirements of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Shell egg producers covered under § 118.1(a) are required to register their farms with FDA within 30 days of becoming an egg producer or, if already an egg producer, by each farm's applicable compliance date.
</P>
<P>(b) Shell egg producers may register their farms by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Electronic registration.</I> To register electronically, you must register at <I>http://www.access.fda.gov</I>, which will be available for registration 24 hours a day, 7 days a week beginning May 10, 2010. This Web site is available from wherever the Internet is accessible, including libraries, copy centers, schools, and Internet cafes.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual authorized by the owner or operator of a farm, such as an agent in charge, may also register a farm electronically.
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA strongly encourages electronic registration for the benefit of both FDA and the registrant.
</P>
<P>(iii) Once you complete your electronic registration, FDA will automatically provide you with an electronic confirmation of registration and a permanent registration number.
</P>
<P>(iv) You will be considered registered once FDA electronically transmits your confirmation and registration number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Registration by mail or by fax.</I> If, for example, you do not have reasonable access to the Internet through any of the methods described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an individual authorized by the owner or operator of a farm, such as an agent in charge, may register by mail or fax.
</P>
<P>(i) You must register using FDA Form No. 3733. You may obtain a copy of this form by writing to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane (HFS-681), Rockville, MD 20857, or by requesting the form by phone at 1-800-216-7331 or 301-575-0156.
</P>
<P>(ii) When you receive the form, you must fill it out completely and legibly and either mail it to the address in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section or fax it to the number on the form.
</P>
<P>(iii) If any required information on the form is incomplete or illegible when FDA receives it, FDA will return the form to you for revision, provided that your mailing address or fax number is legible and valid. When returning a registration form for revision, FDA will use the means by which the form was received by the agency (i.e., by mail or fax).
</P>
<P>(iv) FDA will enter complete and legible mailed and faxed registration submissions into its registration system, along with CD-ROM submissions, as soon as practicable, in the order FDA receives them.
</P>
<P>(v) FDA will then mail to the address or fax to the fax number on the registration form a copy of the registration as entered, confirmation of registration, and your registration number. When responding to a registration submission, FDA will use the means by which the registration was received by the agency (i.e., by mail or fax).
</P>
<P>(vi) If any information you previously submitted was incorrect at the time of submission, you must immediately update your facility's registration. If any information you previously submitted that was correct at the time of submission subsequently changes, you must update your facility's registration within 60 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(vii) Your facility is considered registered once FDA enters your facility's registration data into the registration system and the system generates a registration number.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Registration by CD-ROM for multiple submissions.</I> If, for example, you do not have reasonable access to the Internet through any of the methods provided under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, you may register by CD-ROM.
</P>
<P>(i) Registrants submitting their registrations in CD-ROM format must use ISO 9660 (CD-R or CD-RW) data format.
</P>
<P>(ii) These files must be submitted on a portable document format (PDF) rendition of the registration form (FDA Form No. 3733) and be accompanied by one signed copy of the certification statement that appears on the registration form.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each submission on the CD-ROM must contain the same preferred mailing address in the appropriate block on FDA Form No. 3733.
</P>
<P>(iv) A CD-ROM may contain registrations for as many facilities as needed up to the CD-ROM's capacity.
</P>
<P>(v) The registration on the CD-ROM for each separate facility must have a unique file name up to 32 characters long, the first part of which may be used to identify the parent company.
</P>
<P>(vi) You must mail the CD-ROM to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane (HFS-681), Rockville, MD 20857.
</P>
<P>(vii) If FDA receives a CD-ROM that does not comply with these specifications, it will return the CD-ROM to the submitter unprocessed.
</P>
<P>(viii) FDA will enter CD-ROM submissions that comply with these specifications into its registration system, along with the complete and legible mailed and faxed submissions, as soon as practicable, in the order FDA receives them.
</P>
<P>(ix) For each facility on the CD-ROM, FDA will mail to the preferred mailing address a copy of the registration(s) as entered, confirmation of registration, and each facility's assigned registration number.
</P>
<P>(x) If any information you previously submitted was incorrect at the time of submission, you must immediately update your facility's registration. If any information you previously submitted that was correct at the time of submission subsequently changes, you must update your facility's registration within 60 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(xi) Your facility is considered registered once FDA enters your facility's registration data into the registration system and the system generates a registration number.
</P>
<P>(c) No registration fee is required.
</P>
<P>(d) You must submit all registration information in the English language. All information must be submitted using the Latin (Roman) alphabet.
</P>
<P>(e) Each registrant must submit the following information through one of the methods described in paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, full address, and phone number of the farm; and
</P>
<P>(2) The average or usual number of layers of each house and number of poultry houses on the farm.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement in which the shell egg producer certifies that the information submitted is true and accurate. If the individual submitting the form is not the shell egg producer in charge of the farm, the registration must also include a statement in which the individual certifies that the information submitted is true and accurate, certifies that he/she is authorized to submit registration, and identifies by name, address, and telephone number, the individual who authorized submission of the registration. Each registration must include the name of the individual registering the farm submitting the registration, and the individual's signature (for paper and CD-ROM options).
</P>
<P>(f) Registered egg producers must submit an update to a registration within 60-calendar days of any change to any of the information previously submitted by any of the means as provided in § 118.11(b).
</P>
<P>(g) Registered egg producers must notify FDA within 120 days of ceasing egg production by completing sections 1b, 1c, and 2 of Form 3733. This notification is not required if you are a seasonal egg producer or you temporarily cease operation due to labor disputes, fire, natural disasters, or other temporary conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 33095, July 9, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 18751, Apr. 13, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 118.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.17.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 118.12   Enforcement and compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is established under authority of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act). Under the FFDCA, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) can enforce the food adulteration provisions under 21 U.S.C. 331 through 334 and 342. Under the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 264), FDA has the authority to make and enforce regulations for the control of communicable diseases. FDA has established the following administrative enforcement procedures for the diversion or destruction of shell eggs and for informal hearings under the PHS Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon a finding that any shell eggs have been produced or held in violation of this part, an authorized FDA representative or a State or local representative in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section may order such eggs to be diverted, under the supervision of said representative, for processing in accordance with the Egg Products Inspection Act (EPIA) (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>) or by a treatment that achieves at least a 5-log destruction of SE or destroyed by or under the supervision of an officer or employee of FDA, or, if applicable, of the State or locality in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order for diversion or destruction under the PHS Act.</I> Any division office of FDA or any State or locality acting under paragraph (c) of this section, upon finding shell eggs that have been produced or held in violation of this part, may serve a written order upon the person in whose possession the eggs are found requiring that the eggs be diverted, under the supervision of an officer or employee of the issuing entity, for processing in accordance with the EPIA (21 U.S.C. 1031 <I>et seq.</I>) or by a treatment that achieves at least a 5-log destruction of SE or destroyed by or under the supervision of the issuing entity, within 10 working days from the date of receipt of the order, unless, under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, a hearing is held, in which case the eggs must be diverted or destroyed consistent with the decision of the Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director under paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section. The order must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the shell eggs identified in the order are subject to diversion for processing in accordance with the EPIA or by a treatment that achieves at least a 5-log destruction of SE or destruction;
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of the facts that justify the issuance of the order;
</P>
<P>(C) The location of the eggs;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that these eggs must not be sold, distributed, or otherwise disposed of or moved except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Identification or description of the eggs;
</P>
<P>(F) The order number;
</P>
<P>(G) The date of the order;
</P>
<P>(H) The text of this entire section;
</P>
<P>(I) A statement that the order may be appealed by written appeal or by requesting an informal hearing;
</P>
<P>(J) The name and phone number of the person issuing the order; and
</P>
<P>(K) The location and telephone number of the office or agency issuing the order and the name of its Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Approval of Division Director.</I> An order, before issuance, must be approved by FDA's Division Director. If prior written approval is not feasible, prior oral approval must be obtained and confirmed by written memorandum as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Labeling or marking of shell eggs under order.</I> An FDA, State, or local representative issuing an order under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section must label or mark the shell eggs with official tags that include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the shell eggs are detained in accordance with regulations issued under section 361(a) of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 264(a)).
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the shell eggs must not be sold, distributed or otherwise disposed of or moved except, after notifying the issuing entity in writing, to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Divert them for processing in accordance with the EPIA or by a treatment that achieves at least a 5-log destruction of SE or destroy them or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Move them to another location for holding pending appeal.
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the violation of the order or the removal or alteration of the tag is punishable by fine or imprisonment or both (section 368 of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 271)).
</P>
<P>(D) The order number and the date of the order, and the name of the government representative who issued the order.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Sale or other disposition of shell eggs under order.</I> After service of the order, the person in possession of the shell eggs that are the subject of the order must not sell, distribute, or otherwise dispose of or move any eggs subject to the order unless and until receiving a notice that the order is withdrawn after an appeal except, after notifying FDA's division office or, if applicable, the State or local representative, in writing, to:
</P>
<P>(A) Divert or destroy them as specified in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) Move them to another location for holding pending appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) The person on whom the order for diversion or destruction is served may either comply with the order or appeal the order to an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appeal of a detention order.</I> Any appeal must be submitted in writing to FDA's Division Director in whose division the shell eggs are located within 5 working days of the issuance of the order. If the appeal includes a request for an informal hearing, the hearing must be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed or, if requested by the appellant, at a later date, which must not be later than 20 calendar days after the issuance of the order. The order may also be appealed within the same period of 5 working days by any other person having an ownership or proprietary interest in such shell eggs. The appellant of an order must state the ownership or proprietary interest the appellant has in the shell eggs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Summary decision.</I> A request for a hearing may be denied, in whole or in part and at any time after a request for a hearing has been submitted, if the Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director determines that no genuine and substantial issue of fact has been raised by the material submitted in connection with the hearing or from matters officially noticed. If the presiding FDA official determines that a hearing is not justified, written notice of the determination will be given to the parties explaining the reason for denial.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Informal hearing.</I> Appearance by any appellant at the hearing may be by mail or in person, with or without counsel. The informal hearing must be conducted by the Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director, and a written summary of the proceedings must be prepared by the presiding FDA official.
</P>
<P>(A) The presiding FDA official may direct that the hearing be conducted in any suitable manner permitted by law and by this section. The presiding FDA official has the power to take such actions and make such rulings as are necessary or appropriate to maintain order and to conduct an informal, fair, expeditious, and impartial hearing, and to enforce the requirements concerning the conduct of hearings.
</P>
<P>(B) Employees of FDA will first give a full and complete statement of the action that is the subject of the hearing, together with the information and reasons supporting it, and may present oral or written information relevant to the hearing. The party requesting the hearing may then present oral or written information relevant to the hearing. All parties may conduct reasonable examination of any person (except for the presiding officer and counsel for the parties) who makes any statement on the matter at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(C) The hearing shall be informal in nature, and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views will be made or considered, but any party may comment upon or rebut any information and views presented by another party.
</P>
<P>(D) The party requesting the hearing may have the hearing transcribed, at the party's expense, in which case a copy of the transcript is to be furnished to FDA. Any transcript of the hearing will be included with the presiding FDA official's report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(E) The presiding FDA official must prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. Whenever time permits, the presiding FDA official may give the parties the opportunity to review and comment on the report of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(F) The presiding FDA official must include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and must include a recommended decision, with a statement of reasons.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Written appeal.</I> If the appellant appeals the detention order but does not request a hearing, the presiding FDA official must render a decision on the appeal affirming or revoking the detention order within 5-working days after the receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Presiding FDA official's decision.</I> If, based on the evidence presented at the hearing or by the appellant in a written appeal, the presiding FDA official finds that the shell eggs were produced or held in violation of this section, he must affirm the order that they be diverted, under the supervision of an officer or employee of FDA for processing under the EPIA or by a treatment that achieves at least a 5-log destruction of SE or destroyed by or under the supervision of an officer or employee of FDA; otherwise, the presiding FDA official must issue a written notice that the prior order is withdrawn. If the presiding FDA official affirms the order, he must order that the diversion or destruction be accomplished within 10-working days from the date of the issuance of his decision. The presiding FDA official's decision must be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for the decision. The decision of the presiding FDA official constitutes final agency action, subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>No appeal.</I> If there is no appeal of the order and the person in possession of the shell eggs that are subject to the order fails to divert or destroy them within 10 working days, or if the demand is affirmed by the presiding FDA official after an appeal and the person in possession of such eggs fails to divert or destroy them within 10 working days, FDA's division office or, if applicable, the State or local representative may designate an officer or employee to divert or destroy such eggs. It shall be unlawful to prevent or to attempt to prevent such diversion or destruction of the shell eggs by the designated officer or employee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection.</I> Persons engaged in production of shell eggs must permit authorized representatives of FDA to make, at any reasonable time, an inspection of the egg production establishment in which shell eggs are being produced. Such inspection includes the inspection and sampling of shell eggs and the environment, the equipment related to production of shell eggs, the equipment in which shell eggs are held, and examination and copying of any records relating to such equipment or eggs, as may be necessary in the judgment of such representatives to determine compliance with the provisions of this section. Inspections may be made with or without notice and will ordinarily be made during regular business hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State and local cooperation.</I> Under sections 311 and 361 of the Public Health Service Act, any State or locality that is willing and able to assist the agency in the enforcement of §§ 118.4 through 118.10, and is authorized to inspect or regulate egg production establishments, may, in its own jurisdiction, enforce §§ 118.4 through 118.10 through inspections under paragraph (b) of this section and through administrative enforcement remedies specified in paragraph (a) of this section unless FDA notifies the State or locality in writing that such assistance is no longer needed. A state or locality may substitute, where necessary, appropriate State or local officials for designated FDA officials in this section. When providing assistance under paragraph (a) of this section, a State or locality may follow the hearing procedures set out in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii) through (a)(2)(v) of this section, or may utilize comparable State or local hearing procedures if such procedures satisfy due process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preemption.</I> No State or local governing entity shall establish, or continue in effect any law, rule, regulation, or other requirement regarding prevention of SE in shell eggs during production, storage, or transportation that is less stringent than those required by this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 33095, July 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 14146, Mar. 17, 2017; 85 FR 16554, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="119" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 119—DIETARY SUPPLEMENTS THAT PRESENT A SIGNIFICANT OR UNREASONABLE RISK
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 119.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.18.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 119.1   Dietary supplements containing ephedrine alkaloids.</HEAD>
<P>Dietary supplements containing ephedrine alkaloids present an unreasonable risk of illness or injury under conditions of use recommended or suggested in the labeling, or if no conditions of use are recommended or suggested in the labeling, under ordinary conditions of use. Therefore, dietary supplements containing ephedrine alkaloids are adulterated under section 402(f)(1)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 6853, Feb. 11, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 120—HAZARD ANALYSIS AND CRITICAL CONTROL POINT (HACCP) SYSTEMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 346, 348, 371, 374, 379e, 381, 393; 42 U.S.C. 241, 242l, 264. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 6197, Jan. 19, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any juice sold as such or used as an ingredient in beverages shall be processed in accordance with the requirements of this part. Juice means the aqueous liquid expressed or extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, purees of the edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrates of such liquid or puree. The requirements of this part shall apply to any juice regardless of whether the juice, or any of its ingredients, is or has been shipped in interstate commerce (as defined in section 201(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 321(b)). Raw agricultural ingredients of juice are not subject to the requirements of this part. Processors should apply existing agency guidance to minimize microbial food safety hazards for fresh fruits and vegetables in handling raw agricultural products. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part shall be effective January 22, 2002. However, by its terms, this part is not binding on small and very small businesses until the dates listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) For small businesses employing fewer than 500 persons the regulations in this part are binding on January 21, 2003. 
</P>
<P>(2) For very small businesses that have either total annual sales of less than $500,000, or if their total annual sales are greater than $500,000 but their total food sales are less than $50,000; or the person claiming this exemption employed fewer than an average of 100 full-time equivalent employees and fewer than 100,000 units of juice were sold in the United States, the regulations are binding on January 20, 2004. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 101.9(j)(18)(vi) of this chapter, and parts 110 and 117 of this chapter are applicable to such terms when used in this part, except that the definitions and terms in parts 110 and 117 do not govern such terms where such terms are redefined in this part and except that the terms facility, hazard, and manufacturing/processing in parts 110 and 117 do not govern such terms where used in this part. The following definitions shall also apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Cleaned</I> means washed with water of adequate sanitary quality. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control</I> means to prevent, eliminate, or reduce. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control measure</I> means any action or activity to prevent, reduce to acceptable levels, or eliminate a hazard. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Critical control point</I> means a point, step, or procedure in a food process at which a control measure can be applied and at which control is essential to reduce an identified food hazard to an acceptable level. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Critical limit</I> means the maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter must be controlled at a critical control point to prevent, eliminate, or reduce to an acceptable level the occurrence of the identified food hazard. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Culled</I> means separation of damaged fruit from undamaged fruit. For processors of citrus juices using treatments to fruit surfaces to comply with § 120.24, <I>culled</I> means undamaged, tree-picked fruit that is U.S. Department of Agriculture choice or higher quality. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Food hazard</I> means any biological, chemical, or physical agent that is reasonably likely to cause illness or injury in the absence of its control. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Importer</I> means either the U.S. owner or consignee at the time of entry of a food product into the United States, or the U.S. agent or representative of the foreign owner or consignee at the time of entry into the United States. The importer is responsible for ensuring that goods being offered for entry into the United States are in compliance with all applicable laws. For the purposes of this definition, the importer is ordinarily not the custom house broker, the freight forwarder, the carrier, or the steamship representative. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Monitor</I> means to conduct a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess whether a process, point, or procedure is under control and to produce an accurate record for use in verification. 
</P>
<P>(j)(1) <I>Processing</I> means activities that are directly related to the production of juice products. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, processing does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Harvesting, picking, or transporting raw agricultural ingredients of juice products, without otherwise engaging in processing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of a retail establishment. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Processor</I> means any person engaged in commercial, custom, or institutional processing of juice products, either in the United States or in a foreign country, including any person engaged in the processing of juice products that are intended for use in market or consumer tests.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Retail establishment</I> is an operation that provides juice directly to the consumers and does not include an establishment that sells or distributes juice to other business entities as well as directly to consumers. “Provides” includes storing, preparing, packaging, serving, and vending. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Shall</I> is used to state mandatory requirements. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Shelf-stable product</I> means a product that is hermetically sealed and, when stored at room temperature, should not demonstrate any microbial growth. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Should</I> is used to state recommended or advisory procedures or to identify recommended equipment. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Validation</I> means that element of verification focused on collecting and evaluating scientific and technical information to determine whether the HACCP plan, when properly implemented, will effectively control the identified food hazards. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Verification</I> means those activities, other than monitoring, that establish the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6197, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 80 FR 56167, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.5   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided by § 117.5(c), parts 110 and 117 of this chapter apply in determining whether the facilities, methods, practices, and controls used to process juice are safe, and whether the food has been processed under sanitary conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56167, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.6   Sanitation standard operating procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sanitation controls.</I> Each processor shall have and implement a sanitation standard operating procedure (SSOP) that addresses sanitation conditions and practices before, during, and after processing. The SSOP shall address: 
</P>
<P>(1) Safety of the water that comes into contact with food or food contact surfaces or that is used in the manufacture of ice; 
</P>
<P>(2) Condition and cleanliness of food contact surfaces, including utensils, gloves, and outer garments; 
</P>
<P>(3) Prevention of cross contamination from insanitary objects to food, food packaging material, and other food contact surfaces, including utensils, gloves, and outer garments, and from raw product to processed product; 
</P>
<P>(4) Maintenance of hand washing, hand sanitizing, and toilet facilities; 
</P>
<P>(5) Protection of food, food packaging material, and food contact surfaces from adulteration with lubricants, fuel, pesticides, cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, condensate, and other chemical, physical, and biological contaminants; 
</P>
<P>(6) Proper labeling, storage, and use of toxic compounds; 
</P>
<P>(7) Control of employee health conditions that could result in the microbiological contamination of food, food packaging materials, and food contact surfaces; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Exclusion of pests from the food plant. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Monitoring.</I> The processor shall monitor the conditions and practices during processing with sufficient frequency to ensure, at a minimum, conformance with those conditions and practices specified in part 110 of this chapter and in subpart B of part 117 of this chapter that are appropriate both to the plant and to the food being processed. Each processor shall correct, in a timely manner, those conditions and practices that are not met. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> Each processor shall maintain SSOP records that, at a minimum, document the monitoring and corrections prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section. These records are subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 120.12. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan.</I> Sanitation standard operating procedure controls may be included in the HACCP plan required under § 120.8(b). However, to the extent that they are implemented in accordance with this section, they need not be included in the HACCP plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6197, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 80 FR 56167, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.7   Hazard analysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each processor shall develop, or have developed for it, a written hazard analysis to determine whether there are food hazards that are reasonably likely to occur for each type of juice processed by that processor and to identify control measures that the processor can apply to control those hazards. The written hazard analysis shall consist of at least the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of food hazards; 
</P>
<P>(2) An evaluation of each food hazard identified to determine if the hazard is reasonably likely to occur and thus, constitutes a food hazard that must be addressed in the HACCP plan. A food hazard that is reasonably likely to occur is one for which a prudent processor would establish controls because experience, illness data, scientific reports, or other information provide a basis to conclude that there is a reasonable possibility that, in the absence of those controls, the food hazard will occur in the particular type of product being processed. This evaluation shall include an assessment of the severity of the illness or injury if the food hazard occurs; 
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of the control measures that the processor can apply to control the food hazards identified as reasonably likely to occur in paragraph (a)(2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(4) Review of the current process to determine whether modifications are necessary; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Identification of critical control points. 
</P>
<P>(b) The hazard analysis shall include food hazards that can be introduced both within and outside the processing plant environment, including food hazards that can occur before, during, and after harvest. The hazard analysis shall be developed by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 120.13 and shall be subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 120.12. 
</P>
<P>(c) In evaluating what food hazards are reasonably likely to occur, consideration should be given, at a minimum, to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Microbiological contamination; 
</P>
<P>(2) Parasites; 
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical contamination; 
</P>
<P>(4) Unlawful pesticides residues; 
</P>
<P>(5) Decomposition in food where a food hazard has been associated with decomposition; 
</P>
<P>(6) Natural toxins; 
</P>
<P>(7) Unapproved use of food or color additives; 
</P>
<P>(8) Presence of undeclared ingredients that may be allergens; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Physical hazards. 
</P>
<P>(d) Processors should evaluate product ingredients, processing procedures, packaging, storage, and intended use; facility and equipment function and design; and plant sanitation, including employee hygiene, to determine the potential effect of each on the safety of the finished food for the intended consumer. 
</P>
<P>(e) HACCP plans for juice need not address the food hazards associated with microorganisms and microbial toxins that are controlled by the requirements of part 113 or part 114 of this chapter. A HACCP plan for such juice shall address any other food hazards that are reasonably likely to occur. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.8" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.8   Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>HACCP plan.</I> Each processor shall have and implement a written HACCP plan whenever a hazard analysis reveals one or more food hazards that are reasonably likely to occur during processing, as described in § 120.7. The HACCP plan shall be developed by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 120.13 and shall be subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 120.12. A HACCP plan shall be specific to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each location where juice is processed by that processor; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Each type of juice processed by the processor. The plan may group types of juice products together, or group types of production methods together, if the food hazards, critical control points, critical limits, and procedures required to be identified and performed by paragraph (b) of this section are essentially identical, provided that any required features of the plan that are unique to a specific product or method are clearly delineated in the plan and are observed in practice. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The contents of the HACCP plan.</I> The HACCP plan shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) List all food hazards that are reasonably likely to occur as identified in accordance with § 120.7, and that thus must be controlled for each type of product; 
</P>
<P>(2) List the critical control points for each of the identified food hazards that is reasonably likely to occur, including as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(i) Critical control points designed to control food hazards that are reasonably likely to occur and could be introduced inside the processing plant environment; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Critical control points designed to control food hazards introduced outside the processing plant environment, including food hazards that occur before, during, and after harvest; 
</P>
<P>(3) List the critical limits that shall be met at each of the critical control points; 
</P>
<P>(4) List the procedures, and the frequency with which they are to be performed, that will be used to monitor each of the critical control points to ensure compliance with the critical limits; 
</P>
<P>(5) Include any corrective action plans that have been developed in accordance with § 120.10(a), and that are to be followed in response to deviations from critical limits at critical control points; 
</P>
<P>(6) List the validation and verification procedures, and the frequency with which they are to be performed, that the processor will use in accordance with § 120.11; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Provide for a recordkeeping system that documents the monitoring of the critical control points in accordance with § 120.12. The records shall contain the actual values and observations obtained during monitoring. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sanitation.</I> Sanitation controls may be included in the HACCP plan. However, to the extent that they are monitored in accordance with § 120.6, they are not required to be included in the HACCP plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.9" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.9   Legal basis.</HEAD>
<P>Failure of a processor to have and to implement a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) system that complies with §§ 120.6, 120.7, and 120.8, or otherwise to operate in accordance with the requirements of this part, shall render the juice products of that processor adulterated under section 402(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Whether a processor's actions are consistent with ensuring the safety of juice will be determined through an evaluation of the processor's overall implementation of its HACCP system. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.10   Corrective actions.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a deviation from a critical limit occurs, a processor shall take corrective action by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(a) Processors may develop written corrective action plans, which become part of their HACCP plans in accordance with § 120.8(b)(5), by which processors predetermine the corrective actions that they will take whenever there is a deviation from a critical limit. A corrective action plan that is appropriate for a particular deviation is one that describes the steps to be taken and assigns responsibility for taking those steps, to ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(1) No product enters commerce that is either injurious to health or is otherwise adulterated as a result of the deviation; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The cause of the deviation is corrected. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a deviation from a critical limit occurs, and the processor does not have a corrective action plan that is appropriate for that deviation, the processor shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Segregate and hold the affected product, at least until the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section are met; 
</P>
<P>(2) Perform or obtain a review to determine the acceptability of the affected product for distribution. The review shall be performed by an individual or individuals who have adequate training or experience to perform such review; 
</P>
<P>(3) Take corrective action, when necessary, with respect to the affected product to ensure that no product enters commerce that is either injurious to health or is otherwise adulterated as a result of the deviation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Take corrective action, when necessary, to correct the cause of the deviation; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Perform or obtain timely verification in accordance with § 120.11, by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 120.13, to determine whether modification of the HACCP plan is required to reduce the risk of recurrence of the deviation, and to modify the HACCP plan as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(c) All corrective actions taken in accordance with this section shall be fully documented in records that are subject to verification in accordance with § 120.11(a)(1)(iv)(B) and the recordkeeping requirements of § 120.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.11" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.11   Verification and validation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Verification.</I> Each processor shall verify that the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) system is being implemented according to design. 
</P>
<P>(1) Verification activities shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A review of any consumer complaints that have been received by the processor to determine whether such complaints relate to the performance of the HACCP plan or reveal previously unidentified critical control points; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The calibration of process monitoring instruments; 
</P>
<P>(iii) At the option of the processor, the performance of periodic end-product or in-process testing; except that processors of citrus juice that rely in whole or in part on surface treatment of fruit shall perform end-product testing in accordance with § 120.25. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A review, including signing and dating, by an individual who has been trained in accordance with § 120.13, of the records that document: 
</P>
<P>(A) The monitoring of critical control points. The purpose of this review shall be, at a minimum, to ensure that the records are complete and to verify that the records document values that are within the critical limits. This review shall occur within 1 week (7 days) of the day that the records are made; 
</P>
<P>(B) The taking of corrective actions. The purpose of this review shall be, at a minimum, to ensure that the records are complete and to verify that appropriate corrective actions were taken in accordance with § 120.10. This review shall occur within 1 week (7 days) of the day that the records are made; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The calibrating of any process monitoring instruments used at critical control points and the performance of any periodic end-product or in-process testing that is part of the processor's verification activities. The purpose of these reviews shall be, at a minimum, to ensure that the records are complete and that these activities occurred in accordance with the processor's written procedures. These reviews shall occur within a reasonable time after the records are made; and
</P>
<P>(v) The following of procedures in § 120.10 whenever any verification procedure, including the review of consumer complaints, establishes the need to take a corrective action; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Additional process verification if required by § 120.25. 
</P>
<P>(2) Records that document the calibration of process monitoring instruments, in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(B) of this section, and the performance of any periodic end-product and in-process testing, in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(C) of this section, are subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 120.12. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Validation of the HACCP plan.</I> Each processor shall validate that the HACCP plan is adequate to control food hazards that are reasonably likely to occur; this validation shall occur at least once within 12 months after implementation and at least annually thereafter or whenever any changes in the process occur that could affect the hazard analysis or alter the HACCP plan in any way. Such changes may include changes in the following: Raw materials or source of raw materials; product formulation; processing methods or systems, including computers and their software; packaging; finished product distribution systems; or the intended use or consumers of the finished product. The validation shall be performed by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 120.13 and shall be subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 120.12. The HACCP plan shall be modified immediately whenever a validation reveals that the plan is no longer adequate to fully meet the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Validation of the hazard analysis.</I> Whenever a juice processor has no HACCP plan because a hazard analysis has revealed no food hazards that are reasonably likely to occur, the processor shall reassess the adequacy of that hazard analysis whenever there are any changes in the process that could reasonably affect whether a food hazard exists. Such changes may include changes in the following: Raw materials or source of raw materials; product formulation; processing methods or systems, including computers and their software; packaging; finished product distribution systems; or the intended use or intended consumers of the finished product. The validation of the hazard analysis shall be performed by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 120.13, and, records documenting the validation shall be subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 120.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.12   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required records.</I> Each processor shall maintain the following records documenting the processor's Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) system: 
</P>
<P>(1) Records documenting the implementation of the sanitation standard operating procedures (SSOP's) (see § 120.6); 
</P>
<P>(2) The written hazard analysis required by § 120.7; 
</P>
<P>(3) The written HACCP plan required by § 120.8; 
</P>
<P>(4) Records documenting the ongoing application of the HACCP plan that include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring of critical control points and their critical limits, including the recording of actual times, temperatures, or other measurements, as prescribed in the HACCP plan; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Corrective actions, including all actions taken in response to a deviation; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Records documenting verification of the HACCP system and validation of the HACCP plan or hazard analysis, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> All records required by this part shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the processor or importer and the location of the processor or importer, if the processor or importer has more than one location; 
</P>
<P>(2) The date and time of the activity that the record reflects, except that records required by paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(5) of this section need not include the time; 
</P>
<P>(3) The signature or initials of the person performing the operation or creating the record; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, the identity of the product and the production code, if any. Processing and other information shall be entered on records at the time that it is observed. The records shall contain the actual values and observations obtained during monitoring. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation.</I> (1) The records in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section shall be signed and dated by the most responsible individual onsite at the processing facility or by a higher level official of the processor. These signatures shall signify that these records have been accepted by the firm. 
</P>
<P>(2) The records in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section shall be signed and dated: 
</P>
<P>(i) Upon initial acceptance; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon any modification; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon verification and validation in accordance with § 120.11. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record retention.</I> (1) All records required by this part shall be retained at the processing facility or at the importer's place of business in the United States for, in the case of perishable or refrigerated juices, at least 1 year after the date that such products were prepared, and for, in the case of frozen, preserved, or shelf stable products, 2 years or the shelf life of the product, whichever is greater, after the date that the products were prepared. 
</P>
<P>(2) Offsite storage of processing records required by paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(4) of this section is permitted after 6 months following the date that the monitoring occurred, if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location and comply with paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the processing facility is closed for a prolonged period between seasonal packs, the records may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location at the end of the seasonal pack but shall be immediately returned to the processing facility for official review upon request. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Official review.</I> All records required by this part shall be available for review and copying at reasonable times. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public disclosure.</I> (1) All records required by this part are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public, as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter, or unless they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) Records required to be maintained by this part are subject to disclosure to the extent that they are otherwise publicly available, or that disclosure could not reasonably be expected to cause a competitive hardship, such as generic type HACCP plans that reflect standard industry practices. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Records maintained on computers.</I> The maintenance of computerized records, in accordance with part 11 of this chapter, is acceptable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.13" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.13   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only an individual who has met the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section shall be responsible for the following functions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Developing the hazard analysis, including delineating control measures, as required by § 120.7. 
</P>
<P>(2) Developing a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan that is appropriate for a specific processor, in order to meet the requirements of § 120.8; 
</P>
<P>(3) Verifying and modifying the HACCP plan in accordance with the corrective action procedures specified in § 120.10(b)(5) and the validation activities specified in §§ 120.11(b) and (c); and 120.7; 
</P>
<P>(4) Performing the record review required by § 120.11(a)(1)(iv). 
</P>
<P>(b) The individual performing the functions listed in paragraph (a) of this section shall have successfully completed training in the application of HACCP principles to juice processing at least equivalent to that received under standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by the Food and Drug Administration, or shall be otherwise qualified through job experience to perform these functions. Job experience may qualify an individual to perform these functions if such experience has provided knowledge at least equivalent to that provided through the standardized curriculum. The trained individual need not be an employee of the processor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.14" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.14   Application of requirements to imported products.</HEAD>
<P>This section sets forth specific requirements for imported juice. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Importer requirements.</I> Every importer of juice shall either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain the juice from a country that has an active memorandum of understanding (MOU) or similar agreement with the Food and Drug Administration, that covers the food and documents the equivalency or compliance of the inspection system of the foreign country with the U.S. system, accurately reflects the relationship between the signing parties, and is functioning and enforceable in its entirety; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Have and implement written procedures for ensuring that the juice that such importer receives for import into the United States was processed in accordance with the requirements of this part. The procedures shall provide, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(i) Product specifications that are designed to ensure that the juice is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because it may be injurious to health or because it may have been processed under insanitary conditions; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Affirmative steps to ensure that the products being offered for entry were processed under controls that meet the requirements of this part. These steps may include any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Obtaining from the foreign processor the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan and prerequisite program of the standard operating procedure records required by this part that relate to the specific lot of food being offered for import; 
</P>
<P>(B) Obtaining either a continuing or lot specific certificate from an appropriate foreign government inspection authority or competent third party certifying that the imported food has been processed in accordance with the requirements of this part; 
</P>
<P>(C) Regularly inspecting the foreign processor's facilities to ensure that the imported food is being processed in accordance with the requirements of this part; 
</P>
<P>(D) Maintaining on file a copy, in English, of the foreign processor's hazard analysis and HACCP plan, and a written guarantee from the foreign processor that the imported food is processed in accordance with the requirements of this part; 
</P>
<P>(E) Periodically testing the imported food, and maintaining on file a copy, in English, of a written guarantee from the foreign processor that the imported food is processed in accordance with the requirements of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(F) Other such verification measures as appropriate that provide an equivalent level of assurance of compliance with the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competent third party.</I> An importer may hire a competent third party to assist with or perform any or all of the verification activities specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, including writing the importer's verification procedures on the importer's behalf. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> The importer shall maintain records, in English, that document the performance and results of the affirmative steps specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section. These records shall be subject to the applicable provisions of § 120.12. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of compliance.</I> The importer shall provide evidence that all juice offered for entry into the United States has been processed under conditions that comply with this part. If assurances do not exist that an imported juice has been processed under conditions that are equivalent to those required of domestic processors under this part, the product will appear to be adulterated and will be denied entry. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Pathogen Reduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.20   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart augments subpart A of this part by setting forth specific requirements for process controls. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.24" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.24   Process controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to meet the requirements of subpart A of this part, processors of juice products shall include in their Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) plans control measures that will consistently produce, at a minimum, a 5 log (<I>i.e.,</I> 10
<SU>5</SU>) reduction, for a period at least as long as the shelf life of the product when stored under normal and moderate abuse conditions, in the pertinent microorganism. For the purposes of this regulation, the “pertinent microorganism” is the most resistant microorganism of public health significance that is likely to occur in the juice. The following juice processors are exempt from this paragraph: 
</P>
<P>(1) A juice processor that is subject to the requirements of part 113 or part 114 of this chapter; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A juice processor using a single thermal processing step sufficient to achieve shelf-stability of the juice or a thermal concentration process that includes thermal treatment of all ingredients, provided that the processor includes a copy of the thermal process used to achieve shelf-stability or concentration in its written hazard analysis required by § 120.7. 
</P>
<P>(b) All juice processors shall meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section through treatments that are applied directly to the juice, except that citrus juice processors may use treatments to fruit surfaces, provided that the 5-log reduction process begins after culling and cleaning as defined in § 120.3(a) and (f) and the reduction is accomplished within a single production facility. 
</P>
<P>(c) All juice processors shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and perform final product packaging within a single production facility operating under current good manufacturing practices. Processors claiming an exemption under paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section shall also process and perform final product packaging of all juice subject to the claimed exemption within a single production facility operating under current good manufacturing practices. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 120.25" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.19.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 120.25   Process verification for certain processors.</HEAD>
<P>Each juice processor that relies on treatments that do not come into direct contact with all parts of the juice to achieve the requirements of § 120.24 shall analyze the finished product for biotype I <I>Escherichia coli</I> as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) One 20 milliliter (mL) sample (consisting of two 10 mL subsamples) for each 1,000 gallons of juice produced shall be sampled each production day. If less than 1,000 gallons of juice is produced per day, the sample must be taken for each 1,000 gallons produced but not less than once every 5 working days that the facility is producing that juice. Each subsample shall be taken by randomly selecting a package of juice ready for distribution to consumers. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the facility is producing more than one type of juice covered by this section, processors shall take subsamples according to paragraph (a) of this section for each of the covered juice products produced. 
</P>
<P>(c) Processors shall analyze each subsample for the presence of <I>E. coli</I> by the method entitled “Analysis for <I>Escherichia coli</I> in Citrus Juices—Modification of AOAC Official Method 992.30” or another method that is at least equivalent to this method in terms of accuracy, precision, and sensitivity in detecting <I>E. coli.</I> This method is designed to detect the presence or absence of <I>E. coli</I> in a 20 mL sample of juice (consisting of two 10 mL subsamples). The method is as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sample size.</I> Total-20 mL of juice; perform analysis using two 10 mL aliquots. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Media.</I> Universal Preenrichment Broth (Difco, Detroit, MI), EC Broth (various manufacturers). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Method.</I> ColiComplete (AOAC Official Method 992.30—modified). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedure.</I> Perform the following procedure two times: 
</P>
<P>(i) Aseptically inoculate 10 mL of juice into 90 mL of Universal Preenrichment Broth (Difco) and incubate at 35 °C for 18 to 24 hours. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Next day, transfer 1 mL of preenriched sample into 10 mL of EC Broth, without durham gas vials. After inoculation, aseptically add a ColiComplete SSD disc into each tube. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Incubate at 44.5 °C for 18 to 24 hours. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Examine the tubes under longwave ultra violet light (366 nm). Fluorescent tubes indicate presence of <I>E. coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(v) MUG positive and negative controls should be used as reference in interpreting fluorescence reactions. Use an <I>E. coli</I> for positive control and 2 negative controls—a MUG negative strain and an uninoculated tube media. 
</P>
<P>(d) If either 10 mL subsample is positive for <I>E. coli,</I> the 20 mL sample is recorded as positive and the processor shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Review monitoring records for the control measures to attain the 5-log reduction standard and correct those conditions and practices that are not met. In addition, the processor may choose to test the sample for the presence of pathogens of concern. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the review of monitoring records or the additional testing indicates that the 5-log reduction standard was not achieved (<I>e.g.,</I> a sample is found to be positive for the presence of a pathogen or a deviation in the process or its delivery is identified), the processor shall take corrective action as set forth in § 120.10. 
</P>
<P>(e) If two samples in a series of seven tests are positive for <I>E. coli,</I> the control measures to attain the 5-log reduction standard shall be deemed to be inadequate and the processor shall immediately: 
</P>
<P>(1) Until corrective actions are completed, use an alternative process or processes that achieve the 5-log reduction after the juice has been expressed; 
</P>
<P>(2) Perform a review of the monitoring records for control measures to attain the 5-log reduction standard. The review shall be sufficiently extensive to determine that there are no trends towards loss of control; 
</P>
<P>(i) If the conditions and practices are not being met, correct those that do not conform to the HACCP plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the conditions and practices are being met, the processor shall validate the HACCP plan in relation to the 5-log reduction standard; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Take corrective action as set forth in § 120.10. Corrective actions shall include ensuring no product enters commerce that is injurious to health as set forth in § 120.10(a)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="121" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 121—MITIGATION STRATEGIES TO PROTECT FOOD AGAINST INTENTIONAL ADULTERATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 342, 350g, 350(i), 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 34219, May 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the owner, operator or agent in charge of a domestic or foreign food facility that manufactures/processes, packs, or holds food for consumption in the United States and is required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless one of the exemptions in § 121.5 applies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are applicable to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Actionable process step</I> means a point, step, or procedure in a food process where a significant vulnerability exists and at which mitigation strategies can be applied and are essential to significantly minimize or prevent the significant vulnerability.
</P>
<P><I>Adequate</I> means that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose in keeping with good public health practices.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any facility that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another facility.
</P>
<P><I>Calendar day</I> means every day as shown on the calendar.
</P>
<P><I>Contaminant</I> means, for purposes of this part, any biological, chemical, physical, or radiological agent that may be added to food to intentionally cause illness, injury, or death.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means a domestic facility or a foreign facility that is required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in accordance with the requirements of part 1, subpart H of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means farm as defined in § 1.227 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> means food as defined in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and includes raw materials and ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Food defense</I> means, for purposes of this part, the effort to protect food from intentional acts of adulteration where there is an intent to cause wide scale public health harm.
</P>
<P><I>Food defense monitoring</I> means to conduct a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess whether mitigation strategies are operating as intended.
</P>
<P><I>Food defense verification</I> means the application of methods, procedures, and other evaluations, in addition to food defense monitoring, to determine whether a mitigation strategy or combination of mitigation strategies is or has been operating as intended according to the food defense plan.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time equivalent employee</I> is a term used to represent the number of employees of a business entity for the purpose of determining whether the business qualifies as a small business. The number of full-time equivalent employees is determined by dividing the total number of hours of salary or wages paid directly to employees of the business entity and of all of its affiliates and subsidiaries by the number of hours of work in 1 year, 2,080 hours (<I>i.e.,</I> 40 hours × 52 weeks). If the result is not a whole number, round down to the next lowest whole number.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that food, such as fumigating food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying or manipulating food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, irradiating, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Mitigation strategies</I> mean those risk-based, reasonably appropriate measures that a person knowledgeable about food defense would employ to significantly minimize or prevent significant vulnerabilities identified at actionable process steps, and that are consistent with the current scientific understanding of food defense at the time of the analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that engages in both activities that are exempt from registration under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and activities that require the establishment to be registered. An example of such a facility is a “farm mixed-type facility,” which is an establishment that is a farm, but also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered.
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing food into a container other than packaging the food and also includes re-packing and activities performed incidental to packing or re-packing a food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or re-packing of that food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or re-packing)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual</I> means a person who has the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform an activity required under subpart C of this part, as appropriate to the individual's assigned duties. A qualified individual may be, but is not required to be, an employee of the establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Significant vulnerability</I> means a vulnerability that, if exploited, could reasonably be expected to cause wide scale public health harm. A significant vulnerability is identified by a vulnerability assessment conducted by a qualified individual, that includes consideration of the following: (1) Potential public health impact (<I>e.g.,</I> severity and scale) if a contaminant were added, (2) degree of physical access to the product, and (3) ability of an attacker to successfully contaminate the product. The assessment must consider the possibility of an inside attacker.
</P>
<P><I>Significantly minimize</I> means to reduce to an acceptable level, including to eliminate.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means, for purposes of this part, a business (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) employing fewer than 500 full-time equivalent employees.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means any company which is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by another company.
</P>
<P><I>Very small business</I> means, for purposes of this part, a business (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) averaging less than $10,000,000, adjusted for inflation, per year, during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year in sales of human food plus the market value of human food manufactured, processed, packed, or held without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> held for a fee).
</P>
<P><I>Vulnerability</I> means the susceptibility of a point, step, or procedure in a facility's food process to intentional adulteration.
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means, for purposes of this part, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.4" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.4   Qualifications of individuals who perform activities under subpart C of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> You must ensure that each individual who performs activities required under subpart C of this part is a qualified individual as that term is defined in § 121.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifications of individuals assigned to an actionable process step.</I> Each individual assigned to an actionable process step (including temporary and seasonal personnel) or in the supervision thereof must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a qualified individual as that term is defined in § 121.3—<I>i.e.,</I> have the appropriate education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to properly implement the mitigation strategy or combination of mitigation strategies at the actionable process step; and
</P>
<P>(2) Receive training in food defense awareness.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifications of individuals for certain activities described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.</I> Each individual assigned to certain activities described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a qualified individual as that term is defined in § 121.3—<I>i.e.,</I> have the appropriate education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to properly perform the activities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Have successfully completed training for the specific function at least equivalent to that received under a standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by FDA or be otherwise qualified through job experience to conduct the activities. Job experience may qualify an individual to perform these functions if such experience has provided an individual with knowledge at least equivalent to that provided through the standardized curriculum. This individual may be, but is not required to be, an employee of the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more qualified individuals must do or oversee:
</P>
<P>(i) The preparation of the food defense plan as required in § 121.126;
</P>
<P>(ii) The conduct of a vulnerability assessment as required in § 121.130;
</P>
<P>(iii) The identification and explanation of the mitigation strategies as required in § 121.135; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Reanalysis as required in § 121.157.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional qualifications of supervisory personnel.</I> Responsibility for ensuring compliance by individuals with the requirements of this part must be clearly assigned to supervisory personnel with a combination of education, training, and experience necessary to supervise the activities under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records.</I> Training required by paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(2) of this section must be documented in records, and must:
</P>
<P>(1) Include the date of training, the type of training, and the persons trained; and
</P>
<P>(2) Be established and maintained in accordance with the requirements of subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.5   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part does not apply to a very small business, except that a very small business must, upon request, provide for official review documentation sufficient to show that the facility meets this exemption. Such documentation must be retained for 2 years.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to the holding of food, except the holding of food in liquid storage tanks.
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to the packing, re-packing, labeling, or re-labeling of food where the container that directly contacts the food remains intact.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to activities of a farm that are subject to section 419 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (Standards for Produce Safety).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) This part does not apply with respect to alcoholic beverages at a facility that meets the following two conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the Federal Alcohol Administration Act (27 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) or chapter 51 of subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 5001 <I>et seq.</I>) the facility is required to obtain a permit from, register with, or obtain approval of a notice or application from the Secretary of the Treasury as a condition of doing business in the United States, or is a foreign facility of a type that would require such a permit, registration, or approval if it were a domestic facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act the facility is required to register as a facility because it is engaged in manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding one or more alcoholic beverages.
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply with respect to food that is not an alcoholic beverage at a facility described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, provided such food:
</P>
<P>(i) Is in prepackaged form that prevents any direct human contact with such food; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Constitutes not more than 5 percent of the overall sales of the facility, as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(f) This part does not apply to the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of food for animals other than man.
</P>
<P>(g) This part does not apply to on-farm manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of the following foods on a farm mixed-type facility, when conducted by a small or very small business if such activities are the only activities conducted by the business subject to section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(1) Eggs (in-shell, other than raw agricultural commodities, <I>e.g.,</I> pasteurized); and
</P>
<P>(2) Game meats (whole or cut, not ground or shredded, without secondary ingredients).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reserved</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Food Defense Measures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.126" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.126   Food defense plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for a food defense plan.</I> You must prepare, or have prepared, and implement a written food defense plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of a food defense plan.</I> The written food defense plan must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The written vulnerability assessment, including required explanations, to identify significant vulnerabilities and actionable process steps as required by § 121.130(c);
</P>
<P>(2) The written mitigation strategies, including required explanations, as required by § 121.135(b);
</P>
<P>(3) The written procedures for the food defense monitoring of the implementation of the mitigation strategies as required by § 121.140(a);
</P>
<P>(4) The written procedures for food defense corrective actions as required by § 121.145(a)(1); and
</P>
<P>(5) The written procedures for food defense verification as required by § 121.150(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> The food defense plan required by this section is a record that is subject to the requirements of subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.130   Vulnerability assessment to identify significant vulnerabilities and actionable process steps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for a vulnerability assessment.</I> You must conduct or have conducted a vulnerability assessment for each type of food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at your facility using appropriate methods to evaluate each point, step, or procedure in your food operation to identify significant vulnerabilities and actionable process steps. Appropriate methods must include, at a minimum, an evaluation of:
</P>
<P>(1) The potential public health impact (<I>e.g.,</I> severity and scale) if a contaminant were added;
</P>
<P>(2) The degree of physical access to the product; and
</P>
<P>(3) The ability of an attacker to successfully contaminate the product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inside attacker.</I> The assessment must consider the possibility of an inside attacker.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written vulnerability assessment.</I> Regardless of the outcome, the vulnerability assessment must be written and must include an explanation as to why each point, step, or procedure either was or was not identified as an actionable process step.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.135   Mitigation strategies for actionable process steps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must identify and implement mitigation strategies at each actionable process step to provide assurances that the significant vulnerability at each step will be significantly minimized or prevented and the food manufactured, processed, packed, or held by your facility will not be adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. For each mitigation strategy implemented at each actionable process step, you must include a written explanation of how the mitigation strategy sufficiently minimizes or prevents the significant vulnerability associated with the actionable process step.
</P>
<P>(b) Mitigation strategies and accompanying explanations must be written.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.138" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.138   Mitigation strategies management components.</HEAD>
<P>Mitigation strategies required under§ 121.135 are subject to the following mitigation strategies management components as appropriate to ensure the proper implementation of the mitigation strategies, taking into account the nature of each such mitigation strategy and its role in the facility's food defense system:
</P>
<P>(a) Food defense monitoring in accordance with § 121.140;
</P>
<P>(b) Food defense corrective actions in accordance with § 121.145; and
</P>
<P>(c) Food defense verification in accordance with § 121.150.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.140   Food defense monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>As appropriate to the nature of the mitigation strategy and its role in the facility's food defense system:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Written procedures.</I> You must establish and implement written procedures, including the frequency with which they are to be performed, for food defense monitoring of the mitigation strategies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Food defense monitoring.</I> You must monitor the mitigation strategies with adequate frequency to provide assurances that they are consistently performed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to document food defense monitoring.</I> You must document the monitoring of mitigation strategies in accordance with this section in records that are subject to verification in accordance with § 121.150(a)(1) and records review in accordance with § 121.150(a)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception records.</I> Records may be affirmative records demonstrating the mitigation strategy is functioning as intended. Exception records demonstrating the mitigation strategy is not functioning as intended may be adequate in some circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.145   Food defense corrective actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Food defense corrective action procedures.</I> As appropriate to the nature of the actionable process step and the nature of the mitigation strategy:
</P>
<P>(1) You must establish and implement written food defense corrective action procedures that must be taken if mitigation strategies are not properly implemented.
</P>
<P>(2) The food defense corrective action procedures must describe the steps to be taken to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate action is taken to identify and correct a problem that has occurred with implementation of a mitigation strategy; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate action is taken, when necessary, to reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records.</I> All food defense corrective actions taken in accordance with this section must be documented in records that are subject to food defense verification in accordance with § 121.150(a)(2) and records review in accordance with § 121.150(a)(3)(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.150   Food defense verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Food defense verification activities.</I> Food defense verification activities must include, as appropriate to the nature of the mitigation strategy and its role in the facility's food defense system:
</P>
<P>(1) Verification that food defense monitoring is being conducted as required by § 121.138 (and in accordance with § 121.140);
</P>
<P>(2) Verification that appropriate decisions about food defense corrective actions are being made as required by § 121.138 (and in accordance with § 121.145);
</P>
<P>(3) Verification that mitigation strategies are properly implemented and are significantly minimizing or preventing the significant vulnerabilities. To do so, you must conduct activities that include the following, as appropriate to the facility, the food, and the nature of the mitigation strategy and its role in the facility's food defense system:
</P>
<P>(i) Review of the food defense monitoring and food defense corrective actions records within appropriate timeframes to ensure that the records are complete, the activities reflected in the records occurred in accordance with the food defense plan, the mitigation strategies are properly implemented, and appropriate decisions were made about food defense corrective actions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other activities appropriate for verification of proper implementation of mitigation strategies; and
</P>
<P>(4) Verification of reanalysis in accordance with § 121.157.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written procedures.</I> You must establish and implement written procedures, including the frequency for which they are to be performed, for verification activities conducted according to § 121.150(a)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation.</I> All verification activities conducted in accordance with this section must be documented in records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.157" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.157   Reanalysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food defense plan, as a whole at least once every 3 years;
</P>
<P>(b) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food defense plan as a whole, or the applicable portion of the food defense plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever a significant change made in the activities conducted at your facility creates a reasonable potential for a new vulnerability or a significant increase in a previously identified vulnerability;
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever you become aware of new information about potential vulnerabilities associated with the food operation or facility;
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever you find that a mitigation strategy, a combination of mitigation strategies, or the food defense plan as a whole is not properly implemented; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever FDA requires reanalysis to respond to new vulnerabilities, credible threats to the food supply, and developments in scientific understanding including, as appropriate, results from the Department of Homeland Security biological, chemical, radiological, or other terrorism risk assessment.
</P>
<P>(c) You must complete such reanalysis required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and implement any additional mitigation strategies needed to address the significant vulnerabilities identified, if any:
</P>
<P>(1) Before any change in activities (including any change in mitigation strategy) at the facility is operative;
</P>
<P>(2) When necessary within 90-calendar days after production; and
</P>
<P>(3) Within a reasonable timeframe, providing a written justification is prepared for a timeframe that exceeds 90 days after production of the applicable food first begins.
</P>
<P>(d) You must revise the written food defense plan if a significant change in the activities conducted at your facility creates a reasonable potential for a new vulnerability or a significant increase in a previously identified vulnerability or document the basis for the conclusion that no revisions are needed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Requirements Applying to Records That Must Be Established and Maintained</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.301" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.301   Records subject to the requirements of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, all records required by subpart C of this part are subject to all requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of § 121.310 apply only to the written food defense plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.305" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.305   General requirements applying to records.</HEAD>
<P>Records must:
</P>
<P>(a) Be kept as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records;
</P>
<P>(b) Contain the actual values and observations obtained during food defense monitoring;
</P>
<P>(c) Be accurate, indelible, and legible;
</P>
<P>(d) Be created concurrently with performance of the activity documented;
</P>
<P>(e) Be as detailed as necessary to provide history of work performed; and
</P>
<P>(f) Include:
</P>
<P>(1) Information adequate to identify the facility (<I>e.g.,</I> the name, and when necessary, the location of the facility);
</P>
<P>(2) The date and, when appropriate, the time of the activity documented;
</P>
<P>(3) The signature or initials of the person performing the activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, the identity of the product and the lot code, if any.
</P>
<P>(g) Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this part and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this part, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.310" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.310   Additional requirements applying to the food defense plan.</HEAD>
<P>The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility must sign and date the food defense plan:
</P>
<P>(a) Upon initial completion; and
</P>
<P>(b) Upon any modification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.315" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.315   Requirements for record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All records required by this part must be retained at the facility for at least 2 years after the date they were prepared.
</P>
<P>(2) Records that a facility relies on during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year to support its status as exempt as a very small business must be retained at the facility as long as necessary to support the status of a facility as a very small business during the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) The food defense plan must be retained for at least 2 years after its use is discontinued.
</P>
<P>(c) Except for the food defense plan, offsite storage of records is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. The food defense plan must remain onsite. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(d) If the facility is closed for a prolonged period, the food defense plan may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location but must be returned to the facility within 24 hours for official review upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.320" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.320   Requirements for official review.</HEAD>
<P>All records required by this part must be made promptly available to a duly authorized representative of the Secretary of Health and Human Services for official review and copying upon oral or written request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.325" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.325   Public disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Records required by this part will be protected from public disclosure to the extent allowable under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.330" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.330   Use of existing records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Existing records (<I>e.g.,</I> records that are kept to comply with other Federal, State, or local regulations, or for any other reason) do not need to be duplicated if they contain all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this subpart. Existing records may be supplemented as necessary to include all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The information required by this part does not need to be kept in one set of records. If existing records contain some of the required information, any new information required by this part may be kept either separately or combined with the existing records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 121.401" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.20.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 121.401   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The operation of a facility that manufactures, processes, packs, or holds food for sale in the United States if the owner, operator, or agent in charge of such facility is required to comply with, and is not in compliance with, section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or subparts C or D of this part is a prohibited act under section 301(uu) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The failure to comply with section 420 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or subparts C or D of this part is a prohibited act under section 301(ww) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="123" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 123—FISH AND FISHERY PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 346, 348, 371, 374, 379e, 381, 393; 42 U.S.C. 241, 241l, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 65197, Dec. 18, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and in parts 110 and 117 of this chapter are applicable to such terms when used in this part, except that the definitions and terms in parts 110 and 117 do not govern such terms where such terms are redefined in this part and except that the terms facility, hazard, and manufacturing/processing in parts 110 and 117 do not govern such terms where used in this part. The following definitions shall also apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Certification number</I> means a unique combination of letters and numbers assigned by a shellfish control authority to a molluscan shellfish processor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Critical control point</I> means a point, step, or procedure in a food process at which control can be applied, and a food safety hazard can as a result be prevented, eliminated, or reduced to acceptable levels.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Critical limit</I> means the maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter must be controlled at a critical control point to prevent, eliminate, or reduce to an acceptable level the occurrence of the identified food safety hazard.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fish</I> means fresh or saltwater finfish, crustaceans, other forms of aquatic animal life (including, but not limited to, alligator, frog, aquatic turtle, jellyfish, sea cucumber, and sea urchin and the roe of such animals) other than birds or mammals, and all mollusks, where such animal life is intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fishery product</I> means any human food product in which fish is a characterizing ingredient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Food safety hazard</I> means any biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause a food to be unsafe for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Importer</I> means either the U.S. owner or consignee at the time of entry into the United States, or the U.S. agent or representative of the foreign owner or consignee at the time of entry into the United States, who is responsible for ensuring that goods being offered for entry into the United States are in compliance with all laws affecting the importation. For the purposes of this definition, ordinarily the importer is not the custom house broker, the freight forwarder, the carrier, or the steamship representative.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Molluscan shellfish</I> means any edible species of fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, or scallops, or edible portions of such species, except when the product consists entirely of the shucked adductor muscle.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preventive measure</I> means physical, chemical, or other factors that can be used to control an identified food safety hazard.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Process-monitoring instrument</I> means an instrument or device used to indicate conditions during processing at a critical control point.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) <I>Processing</I> means, with respect to fish or fishery products: Handling, storing, preparing, heading, eviscerating, shucking, freezing, changing into different market forms, manufacturing, preserving, packing, labeling, dockside unloading, or holding.
</P>
<P>(2) The regulations in this part do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Harvesting or transporting fish or fishery products, without otherwise engaging in processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Practices such as heading, eviscerating, or freezing intended solely to prepare a fish for holding on board a harvest vessel.
</P>
<P>(iii) The operation of a retail establishment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Processor</I> means any person engaged in commercial, custom, or institutional processing of fish or fishery products, either in the United States or in a foreign country. A processing includes any person engaged in the production of foods that are to be used in market or consumer tests.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Scombroid toxin-forming species</I> means tuna, bluefish, mahi mahi, and other species, whether or not in the family Scombridae, in which significant levels of histamine may be produced in the fish flesh by decarboxylation of free histidine as a result of exposure of the fish after capture to temperatures that permit the growth of mesophilic bacteria.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Shall</I> is used to state mandatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Shellfish control authority</I> means a Federal, State, or foreign agency, or sovereign tribal government, legally responsible for the administration of a program that includes activities such as classification of molluscan shellfish growing areas, enforcement of molluscan shellfish harvesting controls, and certification of molluscan shellfish processors.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Shellstock</I> means raw, in-shell molluscan shellfish.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Should</I> is used to state recommended or advisory procedures or to identify recommended equipment.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Shucked shellfish</I> means molluscan shellfish that have one or both shells removed.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Smoked or smoke-flavored fishery products</I> means the finished food prepared by:
</P>
<P>(1) Treating fish with salt (sodium chloride), and
</P>
<P>(2) Subjecting it to the direct action of smoke from burning wood, sawdust, or similar material and/or imparting to it the flavor of smoke by a means such as immersing it in a solution of wood smoke.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Tag</I> means a record of harvesting information attached to a container of shellstock by the harvester or processor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 65197, Dec. 18, 1995, as amended at 80 FR 56167, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.5   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by § 117.5(b), parts 110 and 117 of this chapter apply in determining whether the facilities, methods, practices, and controls used to process fish and fishery products are safe, and whether these products have been processed under sanitary conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of this part is to set forth requirements specific to the processing of fish and fishery products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 65197, Dec. 18, 1995, as amended at 80 FR 56167, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.6   Hazard analysis and Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hazard analysis.</I> Every processor shall conduct, or have conducted for it, a hazard analysis to determine whether there are food safety hazards that are reasonably likely to occur for each kind of fish and fishery product processed by that processor and to identify the preventive measures that the processor can apply to control those hazards. Such food safety hazards can be introduced both within and outside the processing plant environment, including food safety hazards that can occur before, during, and after harvest. A food safety hazard that is reasonably likely to occur is one for which a prudent processor would establish controls because experience, illness data, scientific reports, or other information provide a basis to conclude that there is a reasonable possibility that it will occur in the particular type of fish or fishery product being processed in the absence of those controls.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The HACCP plan.</I> Every processor shall have and implement a written HACCP plan whenever a hazard analysis reveals one or more food safety hazards that are reasonably likely to occur, as described in paragraph (a) of this section. A HACCP plan shall be specific to:
</P>
<P>(1) Each location where fish and fishery products are processed by that processor; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each kind of fish and fishery product processed by the processor. The plan may group kinds of fish and fishery products together, or group kinds of production methods together, if the food safety hazards, critical control points, critical limits, and procedures required to be identified and performed in paragraph (c) of this section are identical for all fish and fishery products so grouped or for all production methods so grouped.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The contents of the HACCP plan.</I> The HACCP plan shall, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) List the food safety hazards that are reasonably likely to occur, as identified in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, and that thus must be controlled for each fish and fishery product. Consideration should be given to whether any food safety hazards are reasonably likely to occur as a result of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural toxins;
</P>
<P>(ii) Microbiological contamination;
</P>
<P>(iii) Chemical contamination;
</P>
<P>(iv) Pesticides;
</P>
<P>(v) Drug residues;
</P>
<P>(vi) Decomposition in scombroid toxin-forming species or in any other species where a food safety hazard has been associated with decomposition;
</P>
<P>(vii) Parasites, where the processor has knowledge or has reason to know that the parasite-containing fish or fishery product will be consumed without a process sufficient to kill the parasites, or where the processor represents, labels, or intends for the product to be so consumed;
</P>
<P>(viii) Unapproved use of direct or indirect food or color additives; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Physical hazards;
</P>
<P>(2) List the critical control points for each of the identified food safety hazards, including as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Critical control points designed to control food safety hazards that could be introduced in the processing plant environment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Critical control points designed to control food safety hazards introduced outside the processing plant environment, including food safety hazards that occur before, during, and after harvest; 
</P>
<P>(3) List the critical limits that must be met at each of the critical control points;
</P>
<P>(4) List the procedures, and frequency thereof, that will be used to monitor each of the critical control points to ensure compliance with the critical limits;
</P>
<P>(5) Include any corrective action plans that have been developed in accordance with § 123.7(b), to be followed in response to deviations from critical limits at critical control points;
</P>
<P>(6) List the verification procedures, and frequency thereof, that the processor will use in accordance with § 123.8(a);
</P>
<P>(7) Provide for a recordkeeping system that documents the monitoring of the critical control points. The records shall contain the actual values and observations obtained during monitoring.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signing and dating the HACCP plan.</I> (1) The HACCP plan shall be signed and dated, either by the most responsible individual onsite at the processing facility or by a higher level official of the processor. This signature shall signify that the HACCP plan has been accepted for implementation by the firm.
</P>
<P>(2) The HACCP plan shall be dated and signed:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon initial acceptance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon any modification; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon verification of the plan in accordance with § 123.8(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Products subject to other regulations.</I> For fish and fishery products that are subject to the requirements of part 113 or 114 of this chapter, the HACCP plan need not list the food safety hazard associated with the formation of <I>Clostridium botulinum</I> toxin in the finished, hermetically sealed container, nor list the controls to prevent that food safety hazard. A HACCP plan for such fish and fishery products shall address any other food safety hazards that are reasonably likely to occur.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sanitation.</I> Sanitation controls may be included in the HACCP plan. However, to the extent that they are monitored in accordance with § 123.11(b) they need not be included in the HACCP plan, and vice versa.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Legal basis.</I> Failure of a processor to have and implement a HACCP plan that complies with this section whenever a HACCP plan is necessary, otherwise operate in accordance with the requirements of this part, shall render the fish or fishery products of that processor adulterated under section 402(a)(4) of the act. Whether a processor's actions are consistent with ensuring the safety of food will be determined through an evaluation of the processors overall implementation of its HACCP plan, if one is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.7" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.7   Corrective actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a deviation from a critical limit occurs, a processor shall take corrective action either by:
</P>
<P>(1) Following a corrective action plan that is appropriate for the particular deviation, or
</P>
<P>(2) Following the procedures in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Processors may develop written corrective action plans, which become part of their HACCP plans in accordance with § 123.6(c)(5), by which they predetermine the corrective actions that they will take whenever there is a deviation from a critical limit. A corrective action plan that is appropriate for a particular deviation is one that describes the steps to be taken and assigns responsibility for taking those steps, to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) No product enters commerce that is either injurious to health or is otherwise adulterated as a result of the deviation; and
</P>
<P>(2) The cause of the deviation is corrected.
</P>
<P>(c) When a deviation from a critical limit occurs and the processor does not have a corrective action plan that is appropriate for that deviation, the processor shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Segregate and hold the affected product, at least until the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section are met;
</P>
<P>(2) Perform or obtain a review to determine the acceptability of the affected product for distribution. The review shall be performed by an individual or individuals who have adequate training or experience to perform such a review. Adequate training may or may not include training in accordance with § 123.10;
</P>
<P>(3) Take corrective action, when necessary, with respect to the affected product to ensure that no product enters commerce that is either injurious to health or is otherwise adulterated as a result of the deviation;
</P>
<P>(4) Take corrective action, when necessary, to correct the cause of the deviation;
</P>
<P>(5) Perform or obtain timely reassessment by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 123.10, to determine whether the HACCP plan needs to be modified to reduce the risk of recurrence of the deviation, and modify the HACCP plan as necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) All corrective actions taken in accordance with this section shall be fully documented in records that are subject to verification in accordance with § 123.8(a)(3)(ii) and the recordkeeping requirements of § 123.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.8" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.8   Verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overall verification.</I> Every processor shall verify that the HACCP plan is adequate to control food safety hazards that are reasonably likely to occur, and that the plan is being effectively implemented. Verification shall include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reassessment of the HACCP plan.</I> A reassessment of the adequacy of the HACCP plan whenever any changes occur that could affect the hazard analysis or alter the HACCP plan in any way or at least annually. Such changes may include changes in the following: Raw materials or source of raw materials, product formulation, processing methods or systems, finished product distribution systems, or the intended use or consumers of the finished product. The reassessment shall be performed by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 123.10. The HACCP plan shall be modified immediately whenever a reassessment reveals that the plan is no longer adequate to fully meet the requirements of § 123.6(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing verification activities.</I> Ongoing verification activities including:
</P>
<P>(i) A review of any consumer complaints that have been received by the processor to determine whether they relate to the performance of critical control points or reveal the existence of unidentified critical control points;
</P>
<P>(ii) The calibration of process-monitoring instruments; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) At the option of the processor, the performing of periodic end-product or in-process testing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Records review.</I> A review, including signing and dating, by an individual who has been trained in accordance with § 123.10, of the records that document:
</P>
<P>(i) The monitoring of critical control points. The purpose of this review shall be, at a minimum, to ensure that the records are complete and to verify that they document values that are within the critical limits. This review shall occur within 1 week of the day that the records are made;
</P>
<P>(ii) The taking of corrective actions. The purpose of this review shall be, at a minimum, to ensure that the records are complete and to verify that appropriate corrective actions were taken in accordance with § 123.7. This review shall occur within 1 week of the day that the records are made; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The calibrating of any process control instruments used at critical control points and the performing of any periodic end-product or in-process testing that is part of the processor's verification activities. The purpose of these reviews shall be, at a minimum, to ensure that the records are complete, and that these activities occurred in accordance with the processor's written procedures. These reviews shall occur within a reasonable time after the records are made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corrective actions.</I> Processors shall immediately follow the procedures in § 123.7 whenever any verification procedure, including the review of a consumer complaint, reveals the need to take a corrective action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reassessment of the hazard analysis.</I> Whenever a processor does not have a HACCP plan because a hazard analysis has revealed no food safety hazards that are reasonably likely to occur, the processor shall reassess the adequacy of that hazard analysis whenever there are any changes that could reasonably affect whether a food safety hazard now exists. Such changes may include, but are not limited to changes in: Raw materials or source of raw materials, product formulation, processing methods or systems, finished product distribution systems, or the intended use or consumers of the finished product. The reassessment shall be performed by an individual or individuals who have been trained in accordance with § 123.10.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The calibration of process-monitoring instruments, and the performing of any periodic end-product and in-process testing, in accordance with paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) through (iii) of this section shall be documented in records that are subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 123.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.9" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.9   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> All records required by this part shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and location of the processor or importer;
</P>
<P>(2) The date and time of the activity that the record reflects;
</P>
<P>(3) The signature or initials of the person performing the operation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, the identity of the product and the production code, if any. Processing and other information shall be entered on records at the time that it is observed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record retention.</I> (1) All records required by this part shall be retained at the processing facility or importer's place of business in the United States for at least 1 year after the date they were prepared in the case of refrigerated products and for at least 2 years after the date they were prepared in the case of frozen, preserved, or shelf-stable products.
</P>
<P>(2) Records that relate to the general adequacy of equipment or processes being used by a processor, including the results of scientific studies and evaluations, shall be retained at the processing facility or the importer's place of business in the United States for at least 2 years after their applicability to the product being produced at the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) If the processing facility is closed for a prolonged period between seasonal packs, or if record storage capacity is limited on a processing vessel or at a remote processing site, the records may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location at the end of the seasonal pack but shall be immediately returned for official review upon demand.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official review.</I> All records required by this part and all plans and procedures required by this part shall be available for official review and copying at reasonable times.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public disclosure.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, all plans and records required by this part are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) However, these records and plans may be subject to disclosure to the extent that they are otherwise publicly available, or that disclosure could not reasonably be expected to cause a competitive hardship, such as generic-type HACCP plans that reflect standard industry practices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tags.</I> Tags as defined in § 123.3(t) are not subject to the requirements of this section unless they are used to fulfill the requirements of § 123.28(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records maintained on computers.</I> The maintenance of records on computers is acceptable, provided that appropriate controls are implemented to ensure the integrity of the electronic data and signatures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.10   Training.</HEAD>
<P>At a minimum, the following functions shall be performed by an individual who has successfully completed training in the application of HACCP principles to fish and fishery product processing at least equivalent to that received under standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration or who is otherwise qualified through job experience to perform these functions. Job experience will qualify an individual to perform these functions if it has provided knowledge at least equivalent to that provided through the standardized curriculum.
</P>
<P>(a) Developing a HACCP plan, which could include adapting a model or generic-type HACCP plan, that is appropriate for a specific processor, in order to meet the requirements of § 123.6(b);
</P>
<P>(b) Reassessing and modifying the HACCP plan in accordance with the corrective action procedures specified in § 123.7(c)(5), the HACCP plan in accordance with the verification activities specified in § 123.8(a)(1), and the hazard analysis in accordance with the verification activities specified in § 123.8(c); and
</P>
<P>(c) Performing the record review required by § 123.8(a)(3); The trained individual need not be an employee of the processor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.11" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.11   Sanitation control procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sanitation SOP.</I> Each processor should have and implement a written sanitation standard operating procedure (herein referred to as SSOP) or similar document that is specific to each location where fish and fishery products are produced. The SSOP should specify how the processor will meet those sanitation conditions and practices that are to be monitored in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanitation monitoring.</I> Each processor shall monitor the conditions and practices during processing with sufficient frequency to ensure, at a minimum, conformance with those conditions and practices specified in part 110 of this chapter and in subpart B of part 117 of this chapter that are both appropriate to the plant and the food being processed and relate to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Safety of the water that comes into contact with food or food contact surfaces, or is used in the manufacture of ice;
</P>
<P>(2) Condition and cleanliness of food contact surfaces, including utensils, gloves, and outer garments;
</P>
<P>(3) Prevention of cross-contamination from insanitary objects to food, food packaging material, and other food contact surfaces, including utensils, gloves, and outer garments, and from raw product to cooked product;
</P>
<P>(4) Maintenance of hand washing, hand sanitizing, and toilet facilities;
</P>
<P>(5) Protection of food, food packaging material, and food contact surfaces from adulteration with lubricants, fuel, pesticides, cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, condensate, and other chemical, physical, and biological contaminants;
</P>
<P>(6) Proper labeling, storage, and use of toxic compounds;
</P>
<P>(7) Control of employee health conditions that could result in the microbiological contamination of food, food packaging materials, and food contact surfaces; and
</P>
<P>(8) Exclusion of pests from the food plant.
</P>
<P>The processor shall correct in a timely manner, those conditions and practices that are not met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sanitation control records.</I> Each processor shall maintain sanitation control records that, at a minimum, document the monitoring and corrections prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section. These records are subject to the requirements of § 123.9.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to HACCP plan.</I> Sanitation controls may be included in the HACCP plan, required by § 123.6(b). However, to the extent that they are monitored in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section they need not be included in the HACCP plan, and vice versa. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 65197, Dec. 18, 1995, as amended at 80 FR 56167, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.12   Special requirements for imported products.</HEAD>
<P>This section sets forth specific requirements for imported fish and fishery products.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Importer verification.</I> Every importer of fish or fishery products shall either:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain the fish or fishery product from a country that has an active memorandum of understanding (MOU) or similar agreement with the Food and Drug Administration, that covers the fish or fishery product and documents the equivalency or compliance of the inspection system of the foreign country with the U.S. system, accurately reflects the current situation between the signing parties, and is functioning and enforceable in its entirety; or
</P>
<P>(2) Have and implement written verification procedures for ensuring that the fish and fishery products that they offer for import into the United States were processed in accordance with the requirements of this part. The procedures shall list at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(i) Product specifications that are designed to ensure that the product is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because it may be injurious to health or have been processed under insanitary conditions, and,
</P>
<P>(ii) Affirmative steps that may include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtaining from the foreign processor the HACCP and sanitation monitoring records required by this part that relate to the specific lot of fish or fishery products being offered for import;
</P>
<P>(B) Obtaining either a continuing or lot-by-lot certificate from an appropriate foreign government inspection authority or competent third party certifying that the imported fish or fishery product is or was processed in accordance with the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(C) Regularly inspecting the foreign processor's facilities to ensure that the imported fish or fishery product is being processed in accordance with the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(D) Maintaining on file a copy, in English, of the foreign processor's HACCP plan, and a written guarantee from the foreign processor that the imported fish or fishery product is processed in accordance with the requirements of the part;
</P>
<P>(E) Periodically testing the imported fish or fishery product, and maintaining on file a copy, in English, of a written guarantee from the foreign processor that the imported fish or fishery product is processed in accordance with the requirements of this part or,
</P>
<P>(F) Other such verification measures as appropriate that provide an equivalent level of assurance of compliance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competent third party.</I> An importer may hire a competent third party to assist with or perform any or all of the verification activities specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, including writing the importer's verification procedures on the importer's behalf.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> The importer shall maintain records, in English, that document the performance and results of the affirmative steps specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section. These records shall be subject to the applicable provisions of § 123.9.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of compliance.</I> There must be evidence that all fish and fishery products offered for entry into the United States have been processed under conditions that comply with this part. If assurances do not exist that the imported fish or fishery product has been processed under conditions that are equivalent to those required of domestic processors under this part, the product will appear to be adulterated and will be denied entry.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Smoked and Smoke-Flavored Fishery Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.15" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.15   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart augments subpart A of this part by setting forth specific requirements for processing smoked and smoke-flavored fishery products. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.16" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.16   Process controls.</HEAD>
<P>In order to meet the requirements of subpart A of this part, processors of smoked and smoke-flavored fishery products, except those subject to the requirements of part 113 or 114 of this chapter, shall include in their HACCP plans how they are controlling the food safety hazard associated with the formation of toxin by <I>Clostridium botulinum</I> for at least as long as the shelf life of the product under normal and moderate abuse conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Raw Molluscan Shellfish</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.20   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart augments subpart A of this part by setting forth specific requirements for processing fresh or frozen molluscan shellfish, where such processing does not include a treatment that ensures the destruction of vegetative cells of microorganisms of public health concern.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 123.28" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.21.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 123.28   Source controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to meet the requirements of subpart A of this part as they apply to microbiological contamination, chemical contamination, natural toxins, and related food safety hazards, processors shall include in their HACCP plans how they are controlling the origin of the molluscan shellfish they process to ensure that the conditions of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(b) Processors shall only process molluscan shellfish harvested from growing waters approved for harvesting by a shellfish control authority. In the case of molluscan shellfish harvested from U.S. Federal waters, the requirements of this paragraph will be met so long as the shellfish have not been harvested from waters that have been closed to harvesting by an agency of the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(c) To meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, processors who receive shellstock shall accept only shellstock from a harvester that is in compliance with such licensure requirements as may apply to the harvesting of molluscan shellfish or from a processor that is certified by a shellfish control authority, and that has a tag affixed to each container of shellstock. The tag shall bear, at a minimum, the information required in § 1240.60(b) of this chapter. In place of the tag, bulk shellstock shipments may be accompanied by a bill of lading or similar shipping document that contains the information required in § 1240.60(b) of this chapter. Processors shall maintain records that document that all shellstock have met the requirements of this section. These records shall document:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of harvest;
</P>
<P>(2) The location of harvest by State and site;
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity and type of shellfish;
</P>
<P>(4) The date of receipt by the processor; and
</P>
<P>(5) The name of the harvester, the name or registration number of the harvester's vessel, or an identification number issued to the harvester by the shellfish control authority.
</P>
<P>(d) To meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, processors who receive shucked molluscan shellfish shall accept only containers of shucked molluscan shellfish that bear a label that complies with § 1240.60(c) of this chapter. Processors shall maintain records that document that all shucked molluscan shellfish have met the requirements of this section. These records shall document:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of receipt;
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity and type of shellfish; and
</P>
<P>(3) The name and certification number of the packer or repacker of the product.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="129" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 129—PROCESSING AND BOTTLING OF BOTTLED DRINKING WATER
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 348, 350k, 371, 374, 42 U.S.C. 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14355, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 129.1" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 129.1   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>The applicable criteria in parts 110 and 117 of this chapter, as well as the criteria in §§ 129.20, 129.35, 129.37, 129.40, and 129.80 shall apply in determining whether the facilities, methods, practices, and controls used in the processing, bottling, holding, and shipping of bottled drinking water are in conformance with or are operated or administered in conformity with good manufacturing practice to assure that bottled drinking water is safe and that it has been processed, bottled, held, and transported under sanitary conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56167, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 129.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 129.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Approved source</I> when used in reference to a plant's product water or operations water means a source of water and the water therefrom, whether it be from a spring, artesian well, drilled well, municipal water supply, or any other source, that has been inspected and the water sampled, analyzed, and found to be of a safe and sanitary quality according to applicable laws and regulations of State and local government agencies having jurisdiction. The presence in the plant of current certificates or notifications of approval from the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction constitutes approval of the source and the water supply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bottled drinking water</I> means all water which is sealed in bottles, packages, or other containers and offered for sale for human consumption, including bottled mineral water.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lot</I> means a collection of primary containers or unit packages of the same size, type, and style produced under conditions as nearly uniform as possible and designated by a common container code or marking.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiservice containers</I> means containers intended for use more than one time.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nontoxic materials</I> means materials for product water contact surfaces utilized in the transporting, processing, storing, and packaging of bottled drinking water, which are free of substances which may render the water injurious to health or which may adversely affect the flavor, color, odor, or bacteriological quality of the water.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Operations water</I> means water which is delivered under pressure to a plant for container washing, hand washing, plant and equipment cleanup and for other sanitary purposes.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Primary container</I> means the immediate container in which the product water is packaged.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Product water</I> means processed water used by a plant for bottled drinking water.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shall and should.</I> “Shall” refers to mandatory requirements and “should” refers to recommended or advisory procedures or equipment.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Shipping case</I> means a container in which one or more primary containers of the product are held.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Single-service container</I> means a container intended for one time usage only.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Unit package</I> means a standard commercial package of bottled drinking water, which may consist of one or more containers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14355, Mar. 6, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 12175, Mar. 6, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Buildings and Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 129.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 129.20   Plant construction and design.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The bottling room shall be separated from other plant operations or storage areas by tight walls, ceilings, and self-closing doors to protect against contamination. Conveyor openings shall not exceed the size required to permit passage of containers.
</P>
<P>(b) If processing operations are conducted in other than a sealed system under pressure, adequate protection shall be provided to preclude contamination of the water and the system.
</P>
<P>(c) Adequate ventilation shall be provided to minimize condensation in processing rooms, bottling rooms, and in container washing and sanitizing areas.
</P>
<P>(d) The washing and sanitizing of containers for bottled drinking water shall be performed in an enclosed room. The washing and sanitizing operation shall be positioned within the room so as to minimize any possible post-sanitizing contamination of the containers before they enter the bottling room.
</P>
<P>(e) Rooms in which product water is handled, processed, or held or in which containers, utensils, or equipment are washed or held shall not open directly into any room used for domestic household purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 129.35" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 129.35   Sanitary facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each plant shall provide adequate sanitary facilities including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Product water and operations water</I>—(1) <I>Product water.</I> The product water supply for each plant shall be from an approved source properly located, protected, and operated and shall be easily accessible, adequate, and of a safe, sanitary quality which shall be in conformance at all times with the applicable laws and regulations of the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operations water.</I> If different from the product water supply, the operations water supply shall be obtained from an approved source properly located, protected, and operated and shall be easily accessible, adequate, and of a safe, sanitary quality which shall be in conformance at all times with the applicable laws and regulations of the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Product water and operations water from approved sources.</I> (i) Samples of source water from each source in use by the plant are to be taken and analyzed by the plant as often as necessary, but at a minimum frequency of once each year for chemical contaminants and once every 4 years for radiological contaminants. Additionally, source water obtained from other than a public water system is to be sampled and analyzed for total coliform at least once each week. If any coliform organisms are detected, follow-up testing must be conducted to determine whether any of the coliform organisms are <I>Escherichia coli.</I> This sampling is in addition to any performed by government agencies having jurisdiction. Source water found to contain <I>E. coli</I> is not considered water of a safe, sanitary quality as required for use in bottled water by paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Before a bottler can use source water from a source that has tested positive for <I>E. coli</I>, the bottler must take appropriate measures to rectify or otherwise eliminate the cause of <I>E. coli</I> contamination of that source in a manner sufficient to prevent its reoccurrence. A source previously found to contain <I>E. coli</I> will be considered negative for <I>E. coli</I> after five samples collected over a 24-hour period from the same sampling site that originally tested positive for <I>E. coli</I> are tested and found to be <I>E. coli</I> negative. Records of approval of the source water by government agencies having jurisdiction, records of sampling and analyses for which the plant is responsible, and records describing corrective measures taken in response to a finding of <I>E. coli</I> are to be maintained on file at the plant.
</P>
<P>(ii) Test and sample methods shall be those recognized and approved by the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction over the approval of the water source, and shall be consistent with the minimum requirements set forth in § 165.110(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Analysis of the sample may be performed for the plant by competent commercial laboratories (<I>e.g.,</I> Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and State-certified laboratories), except that the analysis of the five samples from the same sampling site that originally tested positive for <I>E. coli,</I> as required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must be conducted under part 1, subpart R of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Source water testing exemptions.</I> (i) Firms that use a public water system for source water may substitute public water system testing results, or certificates showing full compliance with all provisions of EPA National Primary and Secondary Drinking Water Regulations pertaining to chemical contaminants (40 CFR parts 141 and 143), for the testing requirements of § 129.35(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) Firms that do not use a public water system as the source of their water may reduce the frequency of their testing of that source, as well as the number of chemical contaminants for which they test the source water, if they can document that such reduction is consistent with a State-issued waiver under EPA regulations (40 CFR parts 141 and 143).
</P>
<P>(iii) Firms that do not use a public water system as the source of their water and whose source water has not been treated with a chlorine-based disinfectant or ozone do not have to test their source water for the residual disinfectants and DBP's listed in § 165.110(b)(4)(iii)(H) of this chapter. Firms that do not use a public water system as the source of their water but whose source water has been treated with a chlorine-based disinfectant or ozone must test their source water for the residual disinfectants and the DBP's listed in § 165.110(b)(4)(iii)(H) that are likely to result from such treatment.
</P>
<P>(iv) The finished bottled water must comply with bottled water quality standards (§ 165.110(b) of this chapter) and section 402(a)(1) and (a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act dealing with adulterated foods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Air under pressure.</I> Whenever air under pressure is directed at product water or a product water-contact surface, it shall be free of oil, dust, rust, excessive moisture, and extraneous materials; shall not affect the bacteriological quality of the water; and should not adversely affect the flavor, color, or odor of the water.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Locker and lunchrooms.</I> When employee locker and lunchrooms are provided, they shall be separate from plant operations and storage areas and shall be equipped with self-closing doors. The rooms shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition and refuse containers should be provided. Packaging or wrapping material or other processing supplies shall not be stored in locker or lunchrooms.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14355, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 12175, Mar. 6, 1979; 60 FR 57123, Nov. 13, 1995; 66 FR 16865, Mar. 28, 2001; 74 FR 25664, May 29, 2009; 86 FR 68831, Dec. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 129.37" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 129.37   Sanitary operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The product water-contact surfaces of all multiservice containers, utensils, pipes, and equipment used in the transportation, processing, handling, and storage of product water shall be clean and adequately sanitized. All product water-contact surfaces shall be inspected by plant personnel as often as necessary to maintain the sanitary condition of such surfaces and to assure they are kept free of scale, evidence of oxidation, and other residue. The presence of any unsanitary condition, scale, residue, or oxidation shall be immediately remedied by adequate cleaning and sanitizing of that product water-contact surface prior to use.
</P>
<P>(b) After cleaning, all multiservice containers, utensils, and disassembled piping and equipment shall be transported and stored in such a manner as to assure drainage and shall be protected from contamination.
</P>
<P>(c) Single-service containers and caps or seals shall be purchased and stored in sanitary closures and kept clean therein in a clean, dry place until used. Prior to use they shall be examined, and as necessary, washed, rinsed, and sanitized and shall be handled in a sanitary manner.
</P>
<P>(d) Filling, capping, closing, sealing, and packaging of containers shall be done in a sanitary manner so as to preclude contamination of the bottled drinking water.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 129.40" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 129.40   Equipment and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suitability.</I> (1) All plant equipment and utensils shall be suitable for their intended use. This includes all collection and storage tanks, piping, fittings, connections, bottle washers, fillers, cappers, and other equipment which may be used to store, handle, process, package, or transport product water.
</P>
<P>(2) All product water contact surfaces shall be constructed of nontoxic and nonabsorbant material which can be adequately cleaned and sanitized and is in compliance with section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Design.</I> Storage tanks shall be of the type that can be closed to exclude all foreign matter and shall be adequately vented.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 129.80" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.22.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 129.80   Processes and controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of product water.</I> All treatment of product water by distillation, ion-exchanging, filtration, ultraviolet treatment, reverse osmosis, carbonation, mineral addition, or any other process shall be done in a manner so as to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose and in accordance with section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. All such processes shall be performed in and by equipment and with substances which will not adulterate the bottled product. A record of the type and date of physical inspections of such equipment, conditions found, and the performance and effectiveness of such equipment shall be maintained by the plant. Product water samples shall be taken after processing and prior to bottling by the plant and analyzed as often as is necessary to assure uniformity and effectiveness of the processes performed by the plant. The methods of analysis shall be those approved by the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Containers.</I> (1) Multiservice primary containers shall be adequately cleaned, sanitized, and inspected just prior to being filled, capped, and sealed. Containers found to be unsanitary or defective by the inspection shall be reprocessed or discarded. All multiservice primary containers shall be washed, rinsed, and sanitized by mechanical washers or by any other method giving adequate sanitary results. Mechanical washers shall be inspected as often as is necessary to assure adequate performance. Records of physical maintenance, inspections and conditions found, and performance of the mechanical washer shall be maintained by the plant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Multiservice shipping cases shall be maintained in such condition as to assure they will not contaminate the primary container or the product water. Adequate dry or wet cleaning procedures shall be performed as often as necessary to maintain the cases in satisfactory condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cleaning and sanitizing solutions.</I> Cleaning and sanitizing solutions utilized by the plant shall be sampled and tested by the plant as often as is necessary to assure adequate performance in the cleaning and sanitizing operations. Records of these tests shall be maintained by the plant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanitizing operations.</I> Sanitizing operations, including those performed by chemical means or by any other means such as circulation of live steam or hot water, shall be adequate to effect sanitization of the intended product water-contact surfaces and any other critical area. The plant should maintain a record of the intensity of the sanitizing agent and the time duration that the agent was in contact with the surface being sanitized. The following times and intensities shall be considered a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Steam in enclosed system: At least 170 °F for at least 15 minutes or at least 200 °F for at least 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) Hot water in enclosed system: At least 170 °F for at least 15 minutes or at least 200 °F for at least 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical sanitizers shall be equivalent in bactericidal action to a 2-minute exposure of 50 parts per million of available chlorine at 57 °F when used as an immersion or circulating solution. Chemical sanitizers applied as a spray or fog shall have as a minimum 100 parts per million of available chlorine at 57 °F or its equivalent in bactericidal action.
</P>
<P>(4) 0.1 part per million ozone water solution in an enclosed system for at least 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>(5) When containers are sanitized using a substance other than one provided for in § 178.1010 of this chapter, such substance shall be removed from the surface of the container by a rinsing procedure. The final rinse, prior to filling the container with product water, shall be performed with a disinfected water rinse free of pathogenic bacteria or by an additional sanitizing procedure equivalent in bactericidal action to that required in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unit package production code.</I> Each unit package from a batch or segment of a continuous production run of bottled drinking water shall be identified by a production code. The production code shall identify a particular batch or segment of a continuous production run and the day produced. The plant shall record and maintain information as to the kind of product, volume produced, date produced, lot code used, and the distribution of the finished product to wholesale and retail outlets.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Filling, capping, or sealing.</I> During the process of filling, capping or sealing either single-service or multiservice containers, the performance of the filler, capper or sealer shall be monitored and the filled containers visually or electronically inspected to assure they are sound, properly capped or sealed, and coded and labeled. Containers which are not satisfactory shall be reprocessed or rejected. Only nontoxic containers and closures shall be used. All containers and closures shall be sampled and inspected to ascertain that they are free from contamination. At least once each 3 months, a bacteriological swab and/or rinse count should be made from at least four containers and closures selected just prior to filling and sealing. No more than one of the four samples may exceed more than one bacteria per milliliter of capacity or one colony per square centimeter of surface area. All samples shall be free of coliform organisms. The procedure and apparatus for these bacteriological tests shall be in conformance with those recognized by the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction. Tests shall be performed either by qualified plant personnel or a competent commercial laboratory.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Compliance procedures.</I> A quality standard for bottled drinking water is established in § 165.110(b) of this chapter. To assure that the plant's production of bottled drinking water complies with the applicable standards, laws, and regulations of the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction, the plant will analyze product samples as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) For bacteriological purposes, take and analyze at least once a week for total coliform a representative sample from a batch or segment of a continuous production run for each type of bottled drinking water produced during a day's production. The representative sample shall consist of primary containers of product or unit packages of product. If any coliform organisms are detected, follow-up testing must be conducted to determine whether any of the coliform organisms are <I>E. coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) For chemical, physical, and radiological purposes, take and analyze at least annually a representative sample from a batch or segment of a continuous production run for each type of bottled drinking water produced during a day's production. The representative sample(s) consists of primary containers of product of unit packages of product.
</P>
<P>(3) Analyze such samples by methods approved by the government agency or agencies having jurisdiction. The plant shall maintain records of date of sampling, type of product sampled, production code, and results of the analysis.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Record retention.</I> All records required by §§ 129.1, 129.20, 129.35, 129.37, 129.40, and 129.80 shall be maintained at the plant for not less than 2 years. Plants shall also retain, on file at the plant, current certificates or notifications of approval issued by the government agency or agencies approving the plant's source and supply of product water and operations water. All required documents shall be available for official review at reasonable times.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14355, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 12175, Mar. 6, 1979; 60 FR 57124, Nov. 13, 1995; 74 FR 25665, May 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 130—FOOD STANDARDS: GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 336, 341, 343, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 130 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the act shall be applicable also to such terms when used in regulations promulgated under the act.
</P>
<P>(b) If a regulation prescribing a definition and standard of identity for a food has been promulgated under section 401 of the act and the name therein specified for the food is used in any other regulation under section 401 or any other provision of the act, such name means the food which conforms to such definition and standard, except as otherwise specifically provided in such other regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) No provision of any regulation prescribing a definition and standard of identity or standard of quality or fill of container under section 401 of the act shall be construed as in any way affecting the concurrent applicability of the general provisions of the act and the regulations thereunder relating to adulteration and misbranding. For example, all regulations under section 401 contemplate that the food and all articles used as components or ingredients thereof shall not be poisonous or deleterious and shall be clean, sound, and fit for food. A provision in such regulations for the use of coloring or flavoring does not authorize such use under circumstances or in a manner whereby damage or inferiority is concealed or whereby the food is made to appear better or of greater value than it is.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safe and suitable</I> means that the ingredient:
</P>
<P>(1) Performs an appropriate function in the food in which it is used.
</P>
<P>(2) Is used at a level no higher than necessary to achieve its intended purpose in that food.
</P>
<P>(3) Is not a food additive or color additive as defined in section 201 (s) or (t) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act as used in that food, or is a food additive or color additive as so defined and is used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 or 721 of the act.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 403(i) of the act requires the listing of all ingredients in standardized foods. All ingredients must be listed in accordance with the requirements of part 101 of this chapter, except that where a definition and standard of identity has specific labeling provisions for optional ingredients, optional ingredients may be declared in accordance with those provisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14357, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2876, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.5   Procedure for establishing a food standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedure for establishing a food standard under section 401 of the act shall be governed by part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any petition for a food standard shall show that the proposal, if adopted, would promote honesty and fair dealing in the interest of consumers.
</P>
<P>(c) Any petition for a food standard shall assert that the petitioner commits himself to substantiate the information in the petition by evidence in a public hearing, if such a hearing becomes necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) If a petitioner fails to appear, or to substantiate the information in his petition, at a public hearing on the matter, the Commissioner may either (1) withdraw the regulation and terminate the proceeding or (2) if he concludes that it is in accordance with the requirements of section 401 of the act, continue the proceeding and introduce evidence to substantiate such information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14357, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.6" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.6   Review of Codex Alimentarius food standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All food standards adopted by the Codex Alimentarius Commission will be reviewed by the Food and Drug Administration and will be accepted without change, accepted with change, or not accepted.
</P>
<P>(b) Review of Codex standards will be accomplished in one of the following three ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Any interested person may petition the Commissioner to adopt a Codex standard, with or without change, by proposing a new standard or an appropriate amendment of an existing standard, pursuant to section 401 of the act. Any such petition shall specify any deviations from the Codex standard, and the reasons for any such deviations. The Commissioner shall publish such a petition in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as a proposal, with an opportunity for comment, if reasonable grounds are provided in the petition. Any published proposal shall state any deviations from the Codex standard and the stated reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner may on his own initiative propose by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the adoption of a Codex standard, with or without change, through a new standard or an appropriate amendment to an existing standard, pursuant to section 401 of the act. Any such proposal shall specify any deviations from the Codex standard, and the reasons for any such deviations.
</P>
<P>(3) Any Codex standard not handled under paragraph (b) (1) or (2) of this section may be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for review and informal comment. Interested persons shall be requested to comment on the desirability and need for the standard, on the specific provisions of the standard, on additional or different provisions that should be included in the standard, and on any other pertinent points. After reviewing all such comments, the Commissioner either shall publish a proposal to establish a food standard pursuant to section 401 of the act covering the food involved, or shall publish a notice terminating consideration of such a standard.
</P>
<P>(c) All interested persons are encouraged to confer with different interest groups (consumers, industry, the academic community, professional organizations, and others) in formulating petitions or comments pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. All such petitions or comments are requested to include a statement of any meetings and discussions that have been held with other interest groups. Appropriate weight will be given by the Commissioner to petitions or comments that reflect a consensus of different interest groups.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.8" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.8   Conformity to definitions and standards of identity.</HEAD>
<P>In the following conditions, among others, a food does not conform to the definition and standard of identity therefor:
</P>
<P>(a) If it contains an ingredient for which no provision is made in such definition and standard, unless such ingredient is an incidental additive introduced at a nonfunctional and insignificant level as a result of its deliberate and purposeful addition to another ingredient permitted by the terms of the applicable standard and the presence of such incidental additive in unstandardized foods has been exempted from label declaration as provided in § 101.100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) If it fails to contain any one or more ingredients required by such definition and standard;
</P>
<P>(c) If the quantity of any ingredient or component fails to conform to the limitation, if any, prescribed therefor by such definition and standard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.9" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.9   Sulfites in standardized food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any standardized food that contains a sulfiting agent or combination of sulfiting agents that is functional and provided for in the applicable standard or that is present in the finished food at a detectable concentration is misbranded unless the presence of the sulfiting agent or agents is declared on the label of the food. A detectable amount of sulfiting agent is 10 parts per million (ppm or mg/kg) or more of the sulfite in the finished food. The concentration of sulfite in the finished food will be determined using either:
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of Sulfite in Food by Liquid Chromatography Tandem Mass Spectrometry; or
</P>
<P>(2) AOAC Official Method 990.28.
</P>
<P>(b) Any standardized food that, as a result of actions that are consistent with current good manufacturing practice, contains an indirectly added sulfiting agent that has no functional effect in the food and that would, in the absence of § 101.100(a)(4) of this chapter, be considered to be an incidental additive for purposes of § 130.8, conforms to the applicable definition and standard of identity if the presence of the sulfiting agent is declared on the label of the food.
</P>
<P>(c) The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration, Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, and available from AOAC International, 2275 Research Blvd., Ste. 300, Rockville, MD 20850-3250. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email <I>fedreg.legal@nara.gov</I> or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) AOAC Official Method 990.28, Sulfites in Foods, Optimized Monier-Williams Method, Section 47.3.43, Official Methods of Analysis, 21st edition, 2019.
</P>
<P>(2) Determination of Sulfite in Food by Liquid Chromatography Tandem Mass Spectrometry: Collaborative Study, Katherine S. Carlos and Lowri S. De Jager; <I>Journal of AOAC International,</I> Vol. 100, No. 6, 2017, pp. 1785-1794.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2876, Jan. 6, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998; 87 FR 2547, Jan. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.10   Requirements for foods named by use of a nutrient content claim and a standardized term.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> The foods prescribed by this general definition and standard of identity are those foods that substitute (see § 101.13(d) of this chapter) for a standardized food defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter and that use the name of that standardized food in their statement of identity but that do not comply with the standard of identity because of a deviation that is described by an expressed nutrient content claim that has been defined by FDA regulation. The nutrient content claim shall comply with the requirements of § 101.13 of this chapter and with the requirements of the regulations in part 101 of this chapter that define the particular nutrient content claim that is used. The food shall comply with the relevant standard in all other respects except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nutrient addition.</I> (1) Nutrients shall be added to the food to restore nutrient levels so that the product is not nutritionally inferior, as defined in § 101.3(e)(4) of this chapter, to the standardized food as defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter. The addition of nutrients shall be reflected in the ingredient statement.
</P>
<P>(2) Yogurt containing less than 3.25 percent milkfat is exempt from compliance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section with respect to vitamin A fortification provided the product complies with all other requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Performance characteristics.</I> Deviations from noningredient provisions of the standard of identity (e.g., moisture content, food solids content requirements, or processing conditions) are permitted in order that the substitute food possesses performance characteristics similar to those of the standardized food. Deviations from ingredient and noningredient provisions of the standard must be the minimum necessary to qualify for the nutrient content claim while maintaining similar performance characteristics as the standardized food, or the food will be deemed to be adulterated under section 402(b) of the act. The performance characteristics (e.g., physical properties, flavor characteristics, functional properties, shelf life) of the food shall be similar to those of the standardized food as produced under parts 131 through 169 of this chapter, except that if there is a significant difference in performance characteristics that materially limits the uses of the food compared to the uses of the standardized food, the label shall include a statement informing the consumer of such difference (e.g., if appropriate, “not recommended for cooking”). Such statement shall comply with the requirements of § 101.13(d) of this chapter. The modified product shall perform at least one of the principal functions of the standardized product substantially as well as the standardized product.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other ingredients.</I> (1) Ingredients used in the product shall be those ingredients provided for by the standard as defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter and in paragraph (b) of this section, except that safe and suitable ingredients may be used to improve texture, add flavor, prevent syneresis, extend shelf life, improve appearance, or add sweetness so that the product is not inferior in performance characteristics to the standardized food defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) An ingredient or component of an ingredient that is specifically required by the standard (i.e., a mandatory ingredient) as defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter, shall not be replaced or exchanged with a similar ingredient from another source unless the standard, as defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter, provides for the addition of such ingredient (e.g., vegetable oil shall not replace milkfat in light sour cream).
</P>
<P>(3) An ingredient or component of an ingredient that is specifically prohibited by the standard as defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter, shall not be added to a substitute food under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) An ingredient that is specifically required by the standard as defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter, shall be present in the product in a significant amount. A significant amount of an ingredient or component of an ingredient is at least that amount that is required to achieve the technical effect of that ingredient in the food.
</P>
<P>(5) Water and fat analogs may be added to replace fat and calories in accordance with § 130.10(c), (d)(1), and (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Yogurt with modified milkfat and fat-containing flavoring ingredients.</I> Fat-containing flavoring ingredients may be added to yogurt for which the milkfat content has been modified in accordance with the expressed nutrient content claim regulations in § 101.62(b) of this chapter. The name of the food includes the term “__ yogurt,” the blank being filled in with the nutrient content claim in § 101.62(b)(1)(i), (b)(2)(i), or (b)(4)(i) of this chapter corresponding to the milkfat content, and a descriptor of the fat-containing flavoring ingredient(s).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of a substitute food that complies with all parts of this regulation is the appropriate expressed nutrient content claim and the applicable standardized term.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> (1) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of part 101 of this chapter and part 130.
</P>
<P>(2) Ingredients not provided for, and ingredients used in excess of those levels provided for, by the standard as defined in parts 131 through 169 of this chapter, shall be identified as such with an asterisk in the ingredient statement, except that ingredients added to restore nutrients to the product as required in paragraph (b) of this section shall not be identified with an asterisk. The statement “*Ingredient(s) not in regular ______” (fill in name of the traditional standardized food) or “*Ingredient(s) in excess of amount permitted in regular ______” (fill in name of the traditional standardized food) or both as appropriate shall immediately follow the ingredient statement in the same type size.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2446, Jan. 6, 1993, as amended at 86 FR 31137, June 11, 2021; 87 FR 76568, Dec. 15, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.11" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.11   Label designations of ingredients for standardized foods.</HEAD>
<P>Some definitions and standards of identity for foods set forth below require that designated optional ingredients such as spices, flavorings, colorings, emulsifiers, flavor enhancers, stabilizers, preservatives, and sweeteners be declared in a specified manner on the label wherever the name of the standardized food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase. Such requirements shall apply to a manufacturer, packer, or distributor of a standardized food only if the words or statements on the label of the standardized food significantly differentiate between two or more foods that comply with the same standard by describing the optional forms or varieties, the packing medium, or significant characterizing ingredients present in the food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2876, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.12" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.12   General methods for water capacity and fill of containers.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of regulations promulgated under section 401 of the act:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>general method for water capacity of containers</I> means the following method:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a container with lid attached by double seam, cut out the lid without removing or altering the height of the double seam.
</P>
<P>(2) Wash, dry, and weigh the empty container.
</P>
<P>(3) Fill the container with distilled water at 68 °F to 
<FR>3/16</FR> inch vertical distance below the top level of the container, and weigh the container thus filled.
</P>
<P>(4) Subtract the weight found in paragraph (a)(2) of this section from the weight found in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. The difference shall be considered to be the weight of water required to fill the container.
</P>
<FP>In the case of a container with lid attached otherwise than by double seam, remove the lid and proceed as directed in paragraphs (a) (2) to (4) of this section, except that under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, fill the container to the level of the top thereof.
</FP>
<P>(b) The term <I>general method for fill of containers</I> means the following method:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a container with lid attached by double seam, cut out the lid without removing or altering the height of the double seam.
</P>
<P>(2) Measure the vertical distance from the top level of the container to the top level of the food.
</P>
<P>(3) Remove the food from the container; wash, dry, and weigh the container.
</P>
<P>(4) Fill the container with water to 
<FR>3/16</FR> inch vertical distance below the top level of the container. Record the temperature of the water, weigh the container thus filled, and determine the weight of the water by subtracting the weight of the container found in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Maintaining the water at the temperature recorded in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, draw off water from the container as filled in paragraph (b)(4) of this section to the level of the food found in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, weigh the container with remaining water, and determine the weight of the remaining water by subtracting the weight of the container found in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) Divide the weight of water found in paragraph (b)(5) of this section by the weight of water found in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and multiply by 100. The result shall be considered to be the percent of the total capacity of the container occupied by the food.
</P>
<FP>In the case of a container with lid attached otherwise than by double seam, remove the lid and proceed as directed in paragraphs (b) (2) to (6) of this section, except that under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, fill the container to the level of the top thereof.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.14" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.14   General statements of substandard quality and substandard fill of container.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of regulations promulgated under section 401 of the act:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>general statement of substandard quality</I> means the statement “Below Standard in Quality Good Food—Not High Grade” printed in two lines of Cheltenham bold condensed caps. The words “Below Standard in Quality” constitute the first line, and the second immediately follows. If the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 1 pound, the type of the first line is 12-point, and of the second, 8-point. If such quantity is 1 pound or more, the type of the first line is 14-point, and of the second, 10-point. Such statement is enclosed within lines, not less than 6 points in width, forming a rectangle. Such statement, with enclosing lines, is on a strongly contrasting, uniform background, and is so placed as to be easily seen when the name of the food or any pictorial representation thereof is viewed, wherever such name or representation appears so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>general statement of substandard fill</I> means the statement “Below Standard in Fill” printed in Cheltenham bold condensed caps. If the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 1 pound, the statement is in 12-point type; if such quantity is 1 pound or more, the statement is in 14-point type. Such statement is enclosed within lines, not less than 6 points in width, forming a rectangle; but if the statement specified in paragraph (a) of this section is also used, both statements (one following the other) may be enclosed within the same rectangle. Such statement or statements, with enclosing lines, are on a strongly contrasting, uniform background, and are so placed as to be easily seen when the name of the food or any pictorial representation thereof is viewed, wherever such name or representation appears so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.17" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.17   Temporary permits for interstate shipment of experimental packs of food varying from the requirements of definitions and standards of identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration recognizes that before petitions to amend food standards can be submitted, appropriate investigations of potential advances in food technology sometimes require tests in interstate markets of the advantages to and acceptance by consumers of experimental packs of food varying from applicable definitions and standards of identity prescribed under section 401 of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the purpose of the Food and Drug Administration to permit such tests when it can be ascertained that the sole purpose of the tests is to obtain data necessary for reasonable grounds in support of a petition to amend food standards, that the tests are necessary to the completion or conclusiveness of an otherwise adequate investigation, and that the interests of consumers are adequately safeguarded; permits for such tests shall normally be for a period not to exceed 15 months. The Food and Drug Administration, or good cause shown by the applicant, may provide for a longer test market period. The Food and Drug Administration will therefore refrain from recommending regulatory proceedings under the act on the charge that a food does not conform to an applicable standard, if the person who introduces or causes the introduction of the food into interstate commerce holds an effective permit from the Food and Drug Administration providing specifically for those variations in respect to which the food fails to conform to the applicable definition and standard of identity. The test period will begin on the date the person holding an effective permit from the Food and Drug Administration introduces or causes the introduction of the food covered by the permit into interstate commerce but not later than 3 months after notice of the issuance of the permit is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Food and Drug Administration shall be notified in writing of the date on which the test period begins as soon as it is determined.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person desiring a permit may file with the Team Leader, Conventional Foods Team, Division of Standards and Labeling Regulations, Office of Nutritional Products, Labeling and Dietary Supplements, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-822), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, a written application in triplicate containing as part thereof the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of whether or not the applicant is regularly engaged in producing the food involved.
</P>
<P>(3) A reference to the applicable definition and standard of identity (citing applicable section of regulations).
</P>
<P>(4) A full description of the proposed variation from the standard.
</P>
<P>(5) The basis upon which the food so varying is believed to be wholesome and nondeleterious.
</P>
<P>(6) The amount of any new ingredient to be added; the amount of any ingredient, required by the standard, to be eliminated; any change of concentration not contemplated by the standard; or any change in name that would more appropriately describe the new product under test. If such new ingredient is not a commonly known food ingredient, a description of its properties and basis for concluding that it is not a deleterious substance.
</P>
<P>(7) The purpose of effecting the variation.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement of how the variation is of potential advantage to consumers. The statement shall include the reasons why the applicant does not consider the data obtained in any prior investigations which may have been conducted sufficient to support a petition to amend the standard.
</P>
<P>(9) The proposed label (or an accurate draft) to be used on the food to be market tested. The label shall conform in all respects to the general requirements of the act and shall provide a means whereby the consumer can distinguish between the food being tested and such food complying with the standard.
</P>
<P>(10) The period during which the applicant desires to introduce such food into interstate commerce, with a statement of the reasons supporting the need for such period. If a period longer than 15 months is requested, a detailed explanation of why a 15-month period is inadequate shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(11) The probable amount of such food that will be distributed. The amount distributed should be limited to the smallest number of units reasonably required for a bona fide market test. Justification for the amount requested shall be included.
</P>
<P>(12) The areas of distribution.
</P>
<P>(13) The address at which such food will be manufactured.
</P>
<P>(14) A statement of whether or not such food has been or is to be distributed in the State in which it was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(15) If it has not been or is not to be so distributed, a statement showing why.
</P>
<P>(16) If it has been or is to be so distributed, a statement of why it is deemed necessary to distribute such food in other States.
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration may require the applicant to furnish samples of the food varying from the standard and to furnish such additional information as may be deemed necessary for action on the application.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Food and Drug Administration concludes that the variation may be advantageous to consumers and will not result in failure of the food to conform to any provision of the act except section 403(g), a permit shall be issued to the applicant for interstate shipment of such food. The terms and conditions of the permit shall be those set forth in the application with such modifications, restrictions, or qualifications as the Food and Drug Administration may deem necessary and state in the permit.
</P>
<P>(f) The terms and conditions of the permit may be modified at the discretion of the Food and Drug Administration or upon application of the permittee during the effective period of the permit. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Food and Drug Administration may revoke a permit for cause, which shall include but not be limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That the permittee has introduced a food into interstate commerce contrary to the terms and conditions of the permit.
</P>
<P>(2) That the application for a permit contains an untrue statement of a material fact.
</P>
<P>(3) That the need therefor no longer exists.
</P>
<P>(h) During the period within which any permit is effective, it shall be deemed to be included within the terms of any guaranty or undertaking otherwise effective pursuant to the provisions of section 303(c) of the act.
</P>
<P>(i) If an application is made for an extension of the permit, it shall be accompanied by a description of experiments conducted under the permit, tentative conclusions reached, and reasons why further experimental shipments are considered necessary. The application for an extension shall be filed not later than 3 months prior to the expiration date of the permit and shall be accompanied by a petition to amend the affected food standard. If the Food and Drug Administration concludes that it will be in the interest of consumers to issue an extension of the time period for the market test, a notice will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating that fact. The notice will include an invitation to all interested persons to participate in the market test under the same conditions that applied to the initial permit holder, including labeling and the amount to be distributed, except that the designated area of distribution shall not apply. The extended market test period shall not begin prior to the publication of a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> granting the extension and shall terminate either on the effective date of an affirmative order ruling on the proposal or 30 days after a negative order ruling on the proposal, whichever the case may be. Any interested person who accepts the invitation to participate in the extended market test shall notify the Food and Drug Administration in writing of that fact, the amount to be distributed, and the area of distribution; and along with such notification, he shall submit the labeling under which the food is to be distributed.
</P>
<P>(j) Notice of the granting or revocation of any permit shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(k) All applications for a temporary permit, applications for an extension of a temporary permit, and related records are available for public disclosure when the notice of a permit or extension thereof is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such disclosure shall be in accordance with the rules established in part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(l) Any person who contests denial, modification, or revocation of a temporary permit shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14357, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977; 46 FR 37500, July 21, 1981; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 15051, Mar. 31, 1994; 66 FR 17359, Mar. 30, 2001; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Food Additives in Standardized Foods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 130.20" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 130.20   Food additives proposed for use in foods for which definitions and standards of identity are established.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a petition is received for the issuance or amendment of a regulation establishing a definition and standard of identity for a food under section 401 of the act, which proposes the inclusion of a food additive in such definition and standard of identity, the provisions of the regulations in part 171 of this chapter shall apply with respect to the information that must be submitted with respect to the food additive. Since section 409(b)(5) of the act requires that the Commissioner publish notice of a petition for the establishment of a food additive regulation within 30 days after filing, notice of a petition relating to a definition and standard of identity shall also be published within that time limitation if it includes a request, so designated, for the establishment of a regulation pertaining to a food additive.
</P>
<P>(b) If a petition for a definition and standard of identity contains a proposal for a food additive regulation, and the petitioner fails to designate it as such, the Commissioner, upon determining that the petition includes a proposal for a food additive regulation, shall so notify the petitioner and shall thereafter proceed in accordance with the regulations in part 171 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="131" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 131—MILK AND CREAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 131 appear at 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cream</I> means the liquid milk product high in fat separated from milk, which may have been adjusted by adding thereto: Milk, concentrated milk, dry whole milk, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, or nonfat dry milk. Cream contains not less than 18 percent milkfat.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pasteurized</I> when used to describe a dairy product means that every particle of such product shall have been heated in properly operated equipment to one of the temperatures specified in the table of this paragraph and held continuously at or above that temperature for the specified time (or other time/temperature relationship which has been demonstrated to be equivalent thereto in microbial destruction):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145 °F 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 minutes
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">161 °F 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 seconds
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">191 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 second
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">204 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 second
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">212 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 second
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the dairy ingredient has a fat content of 10 percent or more, or if it contains added sweeteners, the specified temperature shall be increased by 5 °F.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Ultra-pasteurized</I> when used to describe a dairy product means that such product shall have been thermally processed at or above 280 °F for at least 2 seconds, either before or after packaging, so as to produce a product which has an extended shelf life under refrigerated conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.25" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.25   Whipped cream products containing flavoring or sweetening.</HEAD>
<P>The unqualified name “whipped cream” should not be applied to any product other than one made by whipping the cream that complies with the standards of identity for whipping cream (§§ 131.150 and 131.157 of this chapter). If flavoring and/or sweetening is added, the resulting product is a flavored and/or sweetened whipped cream, and should be so identified.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Milk and Cream</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.110   Milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Milk is the lacteal secretion, practically free from colostrum, obtained by the complete milking of one or more healthy cows. Milk that is in final package form for beverage use shall have been pasteurized or ultrapasteurized, and shall contain not less than 8
<FR>1/4</FR> percent milk solids not fat and not less than 3
<FR>1/4</FR> percent milkfat. Milk may have been adjusted by separating part of the milkfat therefrom, or by adding thereto cream, concentrated milk, dry whole milk, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, or nonfat dry milk. Milk may be homogenized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vitamin addition</I> (Optional). (1) If added, vitamin A shall be present in such quantity that each quart of the food contains not less than 2000 International Units thereof within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) If added, vitamin D shall be present in such quantity that each quart of the food contains 400 International Units thereof within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Carriers for vitamins A and D.
</P>
<P>(2) Characterizing flavoring ingredients (with or without coloring, nutritive sweetener, emulsifiers, and stabilizers) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice (including concentrated fruit and fruit juice).
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavorings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> Referenced methods are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat, Roese-Gottlieb Method—Official Final Action,” section 16.059.
</P>
<P>(2) Milk solids not fat content—Calculated by subtracting the milk fat content from the total solids content as determined by the method “Total Solids, Method I—Official Final Action,” section 16.032.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin D content—“Vitamin D—Official Final Action,” sections 43.195-43.208.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “milk”. The name of the food shall be accompanied on the label by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) If vitamins are added, the phrase “vitamin A” or “vitamin A added”, or “vitamin D” or “vitamin D added”, or “vitamin A and D” or “vitamins A and D added”, as is appropriate. The word “vitamin” may be abbreviated “vit.”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “ultra-pasteurized” if the food has been ultra-pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) The following terms may appear on the label:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “pasteurized” if the food has been pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “homogenized” if the food has been homogenized.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11822, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10090, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.111" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.111   Acidified milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Acidified milk is the food produced by souring one or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section with one or more of the acidifying ingredients specified in paragraph (d) of this section, with or without the addition of characterizing microbial organisms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section may also be added. When one or more of the ingredients specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section are used, they shall be included in the souring process. All ingredients used are safe and suitable. Acidified milk contains not less than 3.25 percent milkfat and not less than 8.25 percent milk solids not fat and has a titratable acidity of not less than 0.5 percent, expressed as lactic acid. The food may be homogenized and shall be pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized prior to the addition of the microbial culture and, when applicable, the addition of flakes or granules of butterfat or milkfat.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vitamin addition (optional).</I> (1) If added, vitamin A shall be present in such quantity that each 946 milliliters (quart) of the food contains not less than 2,000 International Units thereof, within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) If added, vitamin D shall be present in such quantity that each 946 milliliters (quart) of the food contains 400 International Units thereof, within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional dairy ingredients.</I> Cream, milk, partially skimmed milk, or skim milk, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional acidifying ingredients.</I> Acetic acid, adipic acid, citric acid, fumaric acid, glucono-<I>delta-</I> lactone, hydrochloric acid, lactic acid, malic acid, phosphoric acid, succinic acid, and tartaric acid.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (1) Concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk, buttermilk, whey, lactose, lactalbumins, lactoglobulins, or whey modified by partial or complete removal of lactose and/or minerals, to increase the nonfat solids content of the food: <I>Provided,</I> That the ratio of protein to total nonfat solids of the food, and the protein efficiency ratio of all protein present, shall not be decreased as a result of adding such ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners. Sugar (sucrose), beet or cane; invert sugar (in paste or sirup form); brown sugar; refiner's sirup; molasses (other than blackstrap); high fructose corn sirup; fructose; fructose sirup; maltose; maltose sirup, dried maltose sirup; malt extract, dried malt extract; malt sirup, dried malt sirup; honey; maple sugar; or any of the sweeteners listed in part 168 of this chapter, except table sirup.
</P>
<P>(3) Flavoring ingredients.
</P>
<P>(4) Color additives that do not impart a color simulating that of milkfat or butterfat.
</P>
<P>(5) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(6) Butterfat or milkfat, which may or may not contain color additives, in the form of flakes or granules.
</P>
<P>(7) Aroma- and flavor-producing microbial culture.
</P>
<P>(8) Salt.
</P>
<P>(9) Citric acid, in a maximum amount of 0.15 percent by weight of the milk used, or an equivalent amount of sodium citrate, as a flavor precursor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—As determined by the method prescribed in section 16.059, “Roese-Gottlieb Method (Reference Method) (11)—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Fat.”
</P>
<P>(2) Milk solids not fat content—Calculated by subtracting the milkfat content from the total solids content as determined by the method prescribed in section 16.032, “Method I—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Total Solids.”
</P>
<P>(3) Titratable acidity—As determined by the method prescribed in section 16.023, “Acidity (2)—Official Final Action,” or by an equivalent potentiometric method.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “acidified milk”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter, and may be accompanied by a declaration such as a traditional name of the food or the generic name of the organisms used, thereby indicating the presence of the characterizing microbial organisms or ingredients when used, e.g., “acidified kefir milk”, “acidified acidophilus milk”, or when characterizing ingredients such as those in paragraphs (e) (6), (7), (8), and (9) of this section are used, the food may be named “acidified buttermilk”.
</P>
<P>(1) The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) The phrase “vitamin A” or “vitamin A added”, or “vitamin D” or “vitamin D added”, or “vitamins A and D added”, as appropriate. The word “vitamin” may be abbreviated “vit.”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “sweetened” if nutritive carbohydrate sweetener is added without the addition of characterizing flavoring.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “homogenized” may appear on the label if the dairy ingredients used are homogenized.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 9934, Jan. 30, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 11822, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 41523, Sept. 21, 1982; 48 FR 24869, June 3, 1983; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.112" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.112   Cultured milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Cultured milk is the food produced by culturing one or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section with characterizing microbial organisms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section may also be added. When one or more of the ingredients specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section are used, they shall be included in the culturing process. All ingredients used are safe and suitable. Cultured milk contains not less than 3.25 percent milkfat and not less than 8.25 percent milk solids not fat and has a titratable acidity of not less than 0.5 percent, expressed as lactic acid. The food may be homogenized and shall be pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized prior to the addition to the microbial culture, and when applicable, the addition of flakes or granules of butterfat or milkfat.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vitamin addition (optional).</I> (1) If added, vitamin A shall be present in such quantity that each 946 milliliters (quart) of the food contains not less than 2,000 International Units thereof, within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) If added, vitamin D shall be present in such quantity that each 946 milliliters (quart) of the food contains 400 International Units thereof, within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional dairy ingredients.</I> Cream, milk, partially skimmed milk, or skim milk, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (1) Concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk, buttermilk, whey, lactose, lactalbumins, lactoglobulins, or whey modified by partial or complete removal of lactose and/or minerals, to increase the nonfat solids content of the food: <I>Provided,</I> That the ratio of protein to total nonfat solids of the food, and the protein efficiency ratio of all protein present, shall not be decreased as a result of adding such ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners. Sugar (sucrose), beet or cane; invert sugar (in paste or sirup form); brown sugar; refiner's sirup; molasses (other than blackstrap); high fructose corn sirup; fructose; fructose sirup; maltose; maltose sirup, dried maltose sirup; malt extract, dried malt extract; malt sirup, dried malt sirup; honey; maple sugar; or any of the sweeteners listed in part 168 of this chapter, except table sirup.
</P>
<P>(3) Flavoring ingredients.
</P>
<P>(4) Color additives that do not impart a color simulating that of milkfat or butterfat.
</P>
<P>(5) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(6) Butterfat or milkfat, which may or may not contain color additives, in the form of flakes or granules.
</P>
<P>(7) Aroma- and flavor-producing microbial culture.
</P>
<P>(8) Salt.
</P>
<P>(9) Citric acid, in a maximum amount of 0.15 percent by weight of the milk used, or an equivalent amount of sodium citrate, as a flavor precursor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—section 16.059, “Roese-Gottlieb Method (Reference Method) (11)—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Fat.”
</P>
<P>(2) Milk solids not fat content—Calculated by subtracting the milkfat content from the total solids content as determined by the method prescribed in section 16.032, “Method I—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Total Solids.”
</P>
<P>(3) Titratable acidity—As determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.023 “Acidity (2)—Official Final Action,” or by an equivalent potentiometric method.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “cultured milk”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel in type of uniform size, style, and color. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter, and may be accompanied by a declaration such as a traditional name of the food or the generic name of the organisms used, thereby indicating the presence of the characterizing microbial organisms or ingredients, e.g., “kefir cultured milk”, “acidophilus cultured milk”, or when characterizing ingredients such as those in paragraphs (d) (6), (7), (8), and (9) of this section, and lactic acid-producing organisms are used the food may be named “cultured buttermilk”.
</P>
<P>(1) The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) The phrase “vitamin A” or “vitamin A added”, or “vitamin D” or “vitamin D added”, or “vitamin A and D added”, as appropriate. The word “vitamin” may be abbreviated “vit.”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “sweetened” if nutritive carbohydrate sweetener is added without the addition of characterizing flavoring.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “homogenized” may appear on the label if the dairy ingredients used are homogenized.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 9934, Jan. 30, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 11822, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 41523, Sept. 21, 1982; 48 FR 24869, June 3, 1983; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.115   Concentrated milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Concentrated milk is the liquid food obtained by partial removal of water from milk. The milkfat and total milk solids contents of the food are not less than 7.5 and 25.5 percent, respectively. It is pasteurized, but is not processed by heat so as to prevent spoilage. It may be homogenized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vitamin addition</I> (Optional). If added, vitamin D shall be present in such quantity that each fluid ounce of the food contains 25 International Units thereof, within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Carrier for vitamin D.
</P>
<P>(2) Characterizing flavoring ingredients, with or without coloring, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> Referenced methods are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat—Official Final Action,” section 16.172.
</P>
<P>(2) Total milk solids—“Total Solids—Official Final Action,” section 16.169.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin D content—“Vitamin D in Milk—Official Final Action,” sections 43.195-43.208.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Concentrated milk” or alternatively “Condensed milk”. If the food contains added vitamin D, the phrase “vitamin D” or “vitamin D added” shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in such name. The word “homogenized” may appear on the label if the food has been homogenized. The name of the food shall include a declaration of the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11822, Mar. 19, 1982; 48 FR 13024, Mar. 29, 1983; 49 FR 10090, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.120   Sweetened condensed milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Sweetened condensed milk is the food obtained by partial removal of water only from a mixture of milk and safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners. The finished food contains not less than 8 percent by weight of milkfat, and not less than 28 percent by weight of total milk solids. The quantity of nutritive carbohydrate sweetener used is sufficient to prevent spoilage. The food is pasteurized and may be homogenized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable characterizing flavoring ingredients, with or without coloring and nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners, may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(2) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The milkfat content is determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 16.185, under “Fat—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Sweetened condensed milk.” The word “homogenized” may appear on the label if the food has been homogenized. The name of the food shall include a declaration of the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21670, May 19, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 11823, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10091, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.125" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.125   Nonfat dry milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Nonfat dry milk is the product obtained by removal of water only from pasteurized skim milk. It contains not more than 5 percent by weight of moisture, and not more than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent by weight of milkfat unless otherwise indicated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> Safe and suitable characterizing flavoring ingredients (with or without coloring and nutritive carbohydrate sweetener) as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(2) Natural and artificial food flavorings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat in Dried Milk—Official Final Action,” sections 16.199-16.200.
</P>
<P>(2) Moisture content—“Moisture—Official Final Action,” section 16.192.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Nonfat dry milk”. If the fat content is over 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent by weight, the name of the food on the principal display panel or panels shall be accompanied by the statement “Contains __% milkfat”, the blank to be filled in with the percentage to the nearest one-tenth of 1 percent of fat contained, within limits of good manufacturing practice. The name of the food shall include a declaration of the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 19836, May 9, 1978; 47 FR 11823, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10091, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.127" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.127   Nonfat dry milk fortified with vitamins A and D.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Nonfat dry milk fortified with vitamins A and D conforms to the standard of identity for nonfat dry milk, except that vitamins A and D are added as prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vitamin addition.</I> (1) Vitamin A is added in such quantity that, when prepared according to label directions, each quart of the reconstituted product contains 2000 International Units thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Vitamin D is added in such quantity that, when prepared according to label directions, each quart of the reconstituted product contains 400 International Units thereof.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of this paragraph will be deemed to have been met if reasonable overages, within limits of good manufacturing practice, are present to ensure that the required levels of vitamins are maintained throughout the expected shelf life of the food under customary conditions of distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Carriers for vitamins A and D.
</P>
<P>(2) Characterizing flavoring ingredients, with or without coloring and nutritive carbohydrate sweetener, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavorings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat in Dried Milk—Official Final Action,” sections 16.199-16.200.
</P>
<P>(2) Moisture content—“Moisture—Official Final Action,” section 16.192.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin D content—“Vitamin D—Official Final Action,” sections 43.195-43.208.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Nonfat dry milk fortified with vitamins A and D”. If the fat content is over 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent by weight, the name of the food on the principal display panel or panels shall be accompanied by the statement “Contains __% milkfat”, the blank to be filled in to the nearest one-tenth of 1 percent with the percentage of fat contained within limits of good manufacturing practice. The name of the food shall include a declaration of the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 19836, May 9, 1978; 43 FR 29769, July 11, 1978; 43 FR 36622, Aug. 18, 1978; 47 FR 11823, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10091, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.130   Evaporated milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Evaporated milk is the liquid food obtained by partial removal of water only from milk. It contains not less than 6.5 percent by weight of milkfat, not less than 16.5 percent by weight of milk solids not fat, and not less than 23 percent by weight of total milk solids. Evaporated milk contains added vitamin D as prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section. It is homogenized. It is sealed in a container and so processed by heat, either before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vitamin addition.</I> (1) Vitamin D shall be present in such quantity that each fluid ounce of the food contains 25 International Units thereof within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) Addition of vitamin A is optional, If added, vitamin A shall be present in such quantity that each fluid ounce of the food contains not less than 125 International Units thereof within limits of good maufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Carriers for vitamins A and D.
</P>
<P>(2) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(3) Stabilizers, with or without dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate (when permitted by and complying with the provisions of § 172.810 of this chapter) as a solubilizing agent.
</P>
<P>(4) Characterizing flavoring ingredients, with or without coloring and nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat—Official Final Action,” section 16.172.
</P>
<P>(2) Total milk solids—“Total Solids—Official Final Action,” section 16.169.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin D content—“Vitamin D in Milk—Official Final Action,” sections 43.195-43.208.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Evaporated milk.” The phrase “vitamin D” or “vitamin D added”, or “vitamins A and D” or “vitamins A and D added”, as is appropriate, shall immediately precede or follow the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in such name. The name of the food shall include a declaration of a the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21670, May 19, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 11823, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10091, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24892, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2890, Jan. 6, 1993; 59 FR 17691, Apr. 14, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.147" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.147   Dry whole milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Dry whole milk is the product obtained by removal of water only from pasteurized milk, as defined in § 131.110(a), which may have been homogenized. Alternatively, dry whole milk may be obtained by blending fluid, condensed, or dried nonfat milk with liquid or dried cream or with fluid, condensed, or dried milk, as appropriate, provided the resulting dry whole milk is equivalent in composition to that obtained by the method described in the first sentence of this paragraph. It contains the lactose, milk proteins, milkfat, and milk minerals in the same relative proportions as the milk from which it was made. It contains not less than 26 percent but less than 40 percent by weight of milkfat on an as is basis. It contains not more than 5 percent by weight of moisture on a milk solids not fat basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vitamin addition.</I> (1) Addition of vitamin A is optional. If added, vitamin A shall be present in such quantity that, when prepared according to label directions, each quart of the reconstituted product shall contain not less than 2,000 International Units thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Addition of vitamin D is optional. If added, vitamin D shall be present in such quantity that, when prepared according to label directions, each quart of the reconstituted product shall contain 400 International Units thereof.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of this paragraph will be met if reasonable overages, within limits of good manufacturing practice, are present to ensure that the required levels of vitamins are maintained throughout the expected shelf life of the food under customary conditions of distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Carriers for vitamins A and D.
</P>
<P>(2) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(3) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(4) Anticaking agents.
</P>
<P>(5) Antioxidants.
</P>
<P>(6) Characterizing flavoring ingredients (with or without coloring and nutritive carbohydrate sweetener) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat in Dried Milk—Official Final Action,” sections 16.199-16.200.
</P>
<P>(2) Moisture content—“Moisture—Official Final Action,” section 16.192.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin D content—“Vitamin D—Official Final Action,” sections 43.195-43.208.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Dry whole milk.” The name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter. The following phrases in type size not less than one-half the height of the type size used in such name shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels.
</P>
<P>(1) The phrase “Contains __% milkfat”, the blank to be filled in with the whole number closest to the actual fat content of the food.
</P>
<P>(2) If vitamins are “added”, the phrase “vitamin A”, or “vitamin A added”, or “vitamin D”, or “vitamin D added”, or “vitamins A and D”, or “vitamins A and D added”, as appropriate. The word “vitamin” may be abbreviated “vit.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 19836, May 9, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 11824, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.149" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.149   Dry cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Dry cream is the product obtained by removal of water only from pasteurized milk or cream or a mixture thereof, which may have been homogenized. Alternatively, dry cream may be obtained by blending dry milks as defined in §§ 131.125(a) and 131.147(a) with dry cream as appropriate: <I>Provided,</I> That the resulting product is equivalent in composition to that obtained by the method described in the first sentence of this paragraph. It contains not less than 40 percent but less than 75 percent by weight of milkfat on an as is basis. It contains not more than 5 percent by weight of moisture on a milk solids not fat basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(2) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(3) Anticaking agents.
</P>
<P>(4) Antioxidants.
</P>
<P>(5) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(6) Characterizing flavoring ingredients, with or without coloring, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat in Dried Milk—Official Final Action,” sections 16.199-16.200.
</P>
<P>(2) Moisture content—“Moisture—Official Final Action,” section 16.192.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Dry cream.” The name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter. The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label, in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(1) The phrase “Contains __% milkfat”, the blank to be filled in with the whole number closest to the actual fat content of the food.
</P>
<P>(2) The word “sweetened” if no characterizing flavoring ingredients are used but nutritive carbohydrate sweetener is added.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 19836, May 9, 1978, as amended at 44 FR 3965, Jan. 19, 1979; 47 FR 11824, Mar. 19, 1982; 48 FR 13024, Mar. 29, 1983; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 59002, Nov. 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.150   Heavy cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Heavy cream is cream which contains not less than 36 percent milkfat. It is pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized, and may be homogenized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(2) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(3) Nutritive sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(4) Characterizing flavoring ingredients (with or without coloring) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice (including concentrated fruit and fruit juice).
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The milkfat content is determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 16.156 and 16.059, under “Fat, Roese-Gottlieb Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> (1) The name of the food is “Heavy cream” or alternatively “Heavy whipping cream”. The name of the food shall be accompanied on the label by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter. The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “ultra-pasteurized” if the food has been ultra-pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “sweetened” if no characterizing flavoring ingredients are used, but nutritive sweetener is added.
</P>
<P>(2) The following terms may appear on the label:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “pasteurized” if the food has been pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “homogenized” if the food has been homogenized.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11824, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.155   Light cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Light cream is cream which contains not less than 18 percent but less than 30 percent milkfat. It is pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized, and may be homogenized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(2) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(3) Nutritive sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(4) Characterizing flavoring ingredients (with or without coloring) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice (including concentrated fruit and fruit juice).
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The milkfat content is determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 16.156 and 16.059, under “Fat, Roese-Gottlieb Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Light cream”, or alternatively “Coffee cream” or “Table cream”. The name of the food shall be accompanied on the label by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “ultra-pasteurized” if the food has been ultra-pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “sweetened” if no characterizing flavoring ingredients are used, but nutritive sweetener is added.
</P>
<P>(2) The following terms may appear on the label:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “pasteurized” if the food has been pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “homogenized” if the food has been homogenized.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11824, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 1, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.157" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.157   Light whipping cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Light whipping cream is cream which contains not less than 30 percent but less than 36 percent milkfat. It is pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized, and may be homogenized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(2) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(3) Nutritive sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(4) Characterizing flavoring ingredients (with or without coloring) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice (including concentrated fruit and fruit juice).
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The milkfat content is determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 16.156 and 16.059, under “Fat, Roese-Gottlieb Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Light whipping cream” or alternatively “Whipping cream”. The name of the food shall be accompanied on the label by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “ultra-pasteurized” if the food has been ultra-pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “sweetened” if no characterizing flavoring ingredients are used, but nutritive sweetener is added.
</P>
<P>(2) The following terms may appear on the label:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “pasteurized” if the food has been pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “homogenized” if the food has been homogenized.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11824, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.160   Sour cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Sour cream results from the souring, by lactic acid producing bacteria, of pasteurized cream. Sour cream contains not less than 18 percent milkfat; except that when the food is characterized by the addition of nutritive sweeteners or bulky flavoring ingredients, the weight of the milkfat is not less than 18 percent of the remainder obtained by subtracting the weight of such optional ingredients from the weight of the food; but in no case does the food contain less than 14.4 percent milkfat. Sour cream has a titratable acidity of not less than 0.5 percent, calculated as lactic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> (1) Safe and suitable ingredients that improve texture, prevent syneresis, or extend the shelf life of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) Sodium citrate in an amount not more than 0.1 percent may be added prior to culturing as a flavor precursor.
</P>
<P>(3) Rennet.
</P>
<P>(4) Safe and suitable nutritive sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(5) Salt.
</P>
<P>(6) Flavoring ingredients, with or without safe and suitable coloring, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice (including concentrated fruit and fruit juice).
</P>
<P>(ii) Safe and suitable natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> Referenced methods in paragraph (c) (1) and (2) of this section are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat—Official Final Action,” section 16.172.
</P>
<P>(2) Titratable acidity—“Acidity—Official Final Action,” section 16.023.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Sour cream” or alternatively “Cultured sour cream”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any flavoring that characterizes the product, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter. If nutritive sweetener in an amount sufficient to characterize the food is added without addition of characterizing flavoring, the name of the food shall be preceded by the word “sweetened”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11824, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.162" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.162   Acidified sour cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Acidified sour cream results from the souring of pasteurized cream with safe and suitable acidifiers, with or without addition of lactic acid producing bacteria. Acidified sour cream contains not less than 18 percent milkfat; except that when the food is characterized by the addition of nutritive sweeteners or bulky flavoring ingredients, the weight of milkfat is not less than 18 percent of the remainder obtained by subtracting the weight of such optional ingredients from the weight of the food; but in no case does the food contain less than 14.4 percent milkfat. Acidified sour cream has a titratable acidity of not less than 0.5 percent, calculated as lactic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> (1) Safe and suitable ingredients that improve texture, prevent syneresis, or extend the shelf life of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) Rennet.
</P>
<P>(3) Safe and suitable nutritive sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(4) Salt.
</P>
<P>(5) Flavoring ingredients, with or without safe and suitable coloring, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice, including concentrated fruit and fruit juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Safe and suitable natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> Referenced methods in paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—“Fat—Official Final Action,” section 16.172.
</P>
<P>(2) Titratable acidity—“Acidity—Official Final Action,” section 16.023.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Acidified sour cream”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any flavoring that characterizes the product, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter. If nutritive sweetener in an amount sufficient to characterize the food is added without addition of characterizing flavoring, the name of the food shall be preceded by the word “sweetened”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11825, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.170   Eggnog.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Eggnog is the food containing one or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b), one or more of the optional egg yolk-containing ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section, and one or more of the optional nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners specified in paragraph (d) of this section. One or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (e) of this section may also be added. All ingredients used are safe and suitable. Eggnog contains not less than 6 percent milkfat and not less than 8.25 percent milk solids not fat. The egg yolk solids content is not less than 1 percent by weight of the finished food. The food shall be pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized and may be homogenized. Flavoring ingredients and color additives may be added after the food is pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional dairy ingredients.</I> Cream, milk, partially skimmed milk, or skim milk, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Egg yolk-containing ingredients.</I> Liquid egg yolk, frozen egg yolk, dried egg yolk, liquid whole eggs, frozen whole eggs, dried whole eggs, or any one or more of the foregoing ingredients with liquid egg white or frozen egg white.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.</I> Sugar (sucrose), beet or cane; invert sugar (in paste or sirup form); brown sugar; refiner's sirup; molasses (other than blackstrap); high fructose corn sirup; fructose; fructose sirup; maltose; maltose sirup, dried maltose sirup; malt extract, dried malt extract; malt sirup, dried malt sirup; honey; maple sugar; or any of the sweeteners listed in part 168 of this chapter, except table sirup.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (1) Concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk, buttermilk, whey, lactose, lactalbumins, lactoglobulins, or whey modified by partial or complete removal of lactose and/or minerals, to increase the nonfat solids content of the food: <I>Provided,</I> That the ratio of protein to total nonfat solids of the food, and the protein efficiency ratio of all protein present shall not be decreased as a result of adding such ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) Salt.
</P>
<P>(3) Flavoring ingredients.
</P>
<P>(4) Color additives that do not impart a color simulating that of egg yolk, milkfat, or butterfat.
</P>
<P>(5) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The following referenced methods of analysis are from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Milkfat content—As determined by the method prescribed in section 16.059, “Roese-Gottlieb Method (Reference Method) (11)—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Fat.”
</P>
<P>(2) Milk solids not fat content—Calculated by subtracting the milkfat content from the total solids content as determined by the method prescribed in section 16.032, “Method I—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Total Solids.”
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “eggnog”. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter. If the food is ultra-pasteurized, the phrase “ultra-pasteurized” shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the label in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters used in the name. The following terms may accompany the name of the food on the label:
</P>
<P>(1) The word “pasteurized” if the food has been pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) The word “homogenized” if the food has been homogenized.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 9938, Jan. 30, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 11825, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 41524, Sept. 21, 1982; 47 FR 49638, Nov. 2, 1982; 48 FR 24869, June 3, 1983; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.180   Half-and-half.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Half-and-half is the food consisting of a mixture of milk and cream which contains not less than 10.5 percent but less than 18 percent milkfat. It is pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized, and may be homogenized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(2) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(3) Nutritive sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(4) Characterizing flavoring ingredients (with or without coloring) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fruit and fruit juice (including concentrated fruit and fruit juice).
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial food flavoring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The milkfat content is determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), in sections 16.156 and 16.059, under “Fat, Roese-Gottlieb Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Half-and-half”. The name of the food shall be accompanied on the label by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) The following terms shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “ultra-pasteurized” if the food has been ultra-pasteurized. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “sweetened” if no characterizing flavor ingredients are used, but nutritive sweetener is added.
</P>
<P>(2) The following terms may appear on the label:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “pasteurized” if the food has been pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The word “homogenized” if the food has been homogenized.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14360, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11825, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10092, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 131.200" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.24.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 131.200   Yogurt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Yogurt is the food produced by culturing one or more of the basic dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section and any of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section with a characterizing bacterial culture that contains the lactic acid-producing bacteria, <I>Lactobacillus delbrueckii</I> subsp. <I>bulgaricus</I> and <I>Streptococcus thermophilus.</I> The ingredients specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be homogenized and must be pasteurized or ultra-pasteurized before the addition of the characterizing bacterial culture. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (d) of this section may also be added. Yogurt contains not less than 3.25 percent milkfat, except as provided for in paragraph (g) of this section, and not less than 8.25 percent milk solids not fat and has a pH of 4.6 or lower measured on the finished product within 24 hours after filling. To extend the shelf life of the food, yogurt may be treated after culturing to inactivate viable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic dairy ingredients.</I> Cream, milk, partially skimmed milk, skim milk, or the reconstituted versions of these ingredients may be used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional dairy ingredients.</I> Other safe and suitable milk-derived ingredients may be used to increase the milk solids not fat content of the food above the minimum of 8.25 percent required in paragraph (a) of this section, provided that the ratio of protein to total nonfat solids of the food, and the protein efficiency ratio of all protein present must not be decreased as a result of adding such ingredients.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Cultures, in addition to the characterizing bacterial culture specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(3) Flavoring ingredients.
</P>
<P>(4) Color additives.
</P>
<P>(5) Stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(6) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(7) Preservatives.
</P>
<P>(8) Vitamin addition (optional).
</P>
<P>(i) If added, vitamin A must be present in such quantity that the food contains not less than 10 percent Daily Value per Reference Amount Commonly Consumed (RACC) thereof, within limits of current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(ii) If added, vitamin D must be present in such quantity that the food contains not less than 10 percent Daily Value per Reference Amount Commonly Consumed (RACC) thereof, within limits of current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of analysis</I>—(1) <I>Milk</I>—(i) <I>Milkfat content.</I> As determined by the method prescribed in section 33.2.26, AOAC Official Method 989.05, Fat in Milk Modified Mojonnier Ether Extraction Method.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Milk solids not fat.</I> Calculated by subtracting the milkfat content from the total solids content using the method prescribed in section 33.2.45, AOAC Official Method 990.21, Solids-Not-Fat in Milk by Difference between Total Solids and Fat Contents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>pH.</I> As determined by the potentiometric method described in § 114.90(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Live and active cultures.</I> As determined by the method described in ISO 7889:2003(E)/IDF 117:2003(E), Yogurt—Enumeration of Characteristic Microorganisms—Colony-Count Technique at 37 °C.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “yogurt.” The name of the food must be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of any characterizing flavoring as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) The following term(s) must accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels of the label in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters used in such name:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “sweetened” if a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener is added without the addition of characterizing flavor.
</P>
<P>(ii) The phrase “does not contain live and active cultures” if the dairy ingredients have been treated after culturing to inactivate viable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(iii) The phrase “vitamin A” or “vitamin A added”, or “vitamin D” or “vitamin D added”, or “vitamins A and D added”, as appropriate. The word “vitamin” may be abbreviated “vit”.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the food may be accompanied by the phrase “contains live and active cultures” or another appropriate descriptor if the food contains a minimum level of live and active cultures of 10
<SU>7</SU> colony forming units per gram (CFU/g) at the time of manufacture with a reasonable expectation of 10
<SU>6</SU> CFU/g through the manufacturer's assigned shelf life of the product.
</P>
<P>(3) The term “homogenized” may appear on the label if the dairy ingredients used are homogenized.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Yogurt containing less than 3.25 percent milkfat.</I> (1) Yogurt may contain less than 3.25 percent milkfat and at least 2.44 percent milkfat. If the milkfat content is below 2.44 percent, the product is considered a modified food and is covered under § 130.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Yogurt with milkfat content less than 3.25 percent and at least 2.44 percent milkfat, must be labeled with the following two phrases in the statement of identity, which must appear together:
</P>
<P>(i) The word “yogurt” in type of the same size and style.
</P>
<P>(ii) The statement “__ percent milkfat,” the blank being filled in with the nearest half percent to the actual milkfat content of the product. This statement of milkfat content must appear in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters in the phrase specified in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section, but in no case less than one-eighth of an inch in height.
</P>
<P>(3) Yogurt with milkfat less than 3.25 percent and at least 2.44 percent milkfat must comply with this standard, except that it may deviate as described in § 130.10 (b), (c), and (d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food must be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, FDA must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration's Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, and is available from the sources indicated in this paragraph (i). It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email <I>fedreg.legal@nara.gov</I> or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 2275 Research Blvd., Suite 300, Rockville, MD 20850-3250:
</P>
<P>(i) AOAC Official Method 989.05, Fat in Milk Modified Mojonnier Ether Extraction Method, Section 33.2.26, Official Methods of Analysis, 21st edition, 2019, Vol. 1.
</P>
<P>(ii) AOAC Official Method 990.21, Solids-Not-Fat in Milk by Difference between Total Solids and Fat Contents, Section 33.2.45, Official Methods of Analysis, 21st edition, 2019, Vol. 1.
</P>
<P>(2) ISO, ISO Central Secretariat, Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland.
</P>
<P>(i) ISO 7889:2003(E), Yogurt—Enumeration of Characteristic Microorganisms—Colony-Count Technique at 37 °C, First edition, 2003-02-01.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>ISO 7889:2003(E) is co-published as IDF 117:2003(E).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 31137, June 11, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 76568, Dec. 15, 2022; 88 FR 22910, Apr. 14, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="133" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 133—CHEESES AND RELATED CHEESE PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Milk</I> means the lacteal secretion, practically free from colostrum, obtained by the complete milking of one or more healthy cows, which may be clarified and may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom; concentrated milk, reconstituted milk, and dry whole milk. Water, in a sufficient quantity to reconstitute concentrated and dry forms, may be added.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonfat milk</I> means skim milk, concentrated skim milk, reconstituted skim milk, and nonfat dry milk. Water, in a sufficient quantity to reconstitute concentrated and dry forms, may be added.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cream</I> means cream, reconstituted cream, dry cream, and plastic cream. Water, in a sufficient quantity to reconstitute concentrated and dry forms, may be added.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pasteurized</I> when used to describe a dairy ingredient means that every particle of such ingredient shall have been heated in properly operated equipment to one of the temperatures specified in the table of this paragraph and held continuously at or above that temperature for the specified time (or other time/temperature relationship which has been demonstrated to be equivalent thereto in microbial destruction):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145 °F
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 min.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">161 °F
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 s.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">191 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 s.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">204 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 s.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">212 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 s.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the dairy ingredient has a fat content of 10 percent or more, the specified temperature shall be increased by 5 °F.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Ultrapasteurized</I> when used to describe a dairy ingredient means that such ingredient shall have been thermally processed at or above 280 °F for at least 2 seconds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2742, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.5   Methods of analysis.</HEAD>
<P>Moisture, milkfat, and phosphatase levels in cheeses will be determined by the following methods of analysis from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th ed., 1980, which is incorporated by reference (copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>):
</P>
<P>(a) Moisture content—section 16.233 “Method I (52)—Official Final Action”, under the heading “Moisture”.
</P>
<P>(b) Milkfat content—section 16.255 “Fat (60)—Official Final Action”.
</P>
<P>(c) Phenol equivalent value—section 16.275 “Reagents”, section 16.276 “Sampling”, and section 16.277 “Determination”, under the heading “Residual Phosphatase (27) Official Final Action”.
</P>
<P>(d) Milkfat in solids (fat on a dry basis)—Subtract the percent of moisture found from 100; divide the remainder into the percent milkfat found. The quotient, multiplied by 100, shall be considered to be the percent of milkfat contained in the solids.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2742, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 24893, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.10" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.10   Notice to manufacturers, packers, and distributors of pasteurized blended cheese, pasteurized process cheese, cheese food, cheese spread, and related foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions and standards of identity have recently been promulgated under the authority of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for a number of foods made in part from cheese, including pasteurized process cheese; pasteurized process cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats; pasteurized blended cheese; pasteurized process cheese food; pasteurized process cheese spread, and related foods. These standards prescribe the name for each such food. The act requires that this name appear on the label. Many of these names consist of several words. In the past it has been the practice of some manufacturers to subordinate the words “pasteurized,” “blended,” “process,” “food,” and “spread” to give undue prominence to the word “cheese” and to words naming the variety of cheese involved.
</P>
<P>(b) When placing the names of these foods on labels so as to comply with the requirements of section 403 (a), (f), and (g) of the act, all the words forming the name specified by a definition and standard of identity should be given equal prominence. This can readily be accomplished by printing the specified name of the food in letters of the same size, color, and style of type, and with the same background.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the names of optional ingredients are required to appear on the label, the designations of all such ingredients should be given equal prominence. The names of the optional ingredients should appear prominently and conspicuously but should not be displayed with greater prominence than the name of the food. The word “contains” may precede the names of the optional ingredients, and when so used will not be considered as intervening printed matter between name of food and name of optional ingredients required to be placed on the label.
</P>
<P>(d) Where a manufacturer elects to include a label statement of fat and moisture content, the declaration should be on the basis of the food as marketed. A fat declaration on a moisture-free basis is likely to be misleading, and should not be used in labeling.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Cheese and Related Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.102" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.102   Asiago fresh and asiago soft cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Asiago fresh cheese, asiago soft cheese, is the food prepared from milk and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, or by another procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties as the cheese produced when the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section is used. It contains not more than 45 percent of moisture, and its solids contain not less than 50 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). It is cured for not less than 60 days.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Harmless artificial blue or green coloring in a quantity which neutralizes any natural yellow coloring in the curd may be added. Sufficient rennet, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, or both, with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the milk, is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut, stirred, and heated to promote and regulate separation of the whey from the curd. The whey is drained off. When the curd is sufficiently firm it is removed from the kettle or vat, further drained for a short time, packed into hoops, and pressed. The pressed curd is salted in brine and cured in a well-ventilated room. During curing the surface of the cheese is occasionally rubbed with a vegetable oil. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of asiago fresh cheese may be added during the procedure in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) For the purposes of this section, the word “milk” means cow's milk, which may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or by adding thereto one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk, water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any concentrated skim milk or nonfat dry milk used.
</P>
<P>(2) Such milk may be bleached by the use of benzoyl peroxide or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate; but the weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the milk bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If milk is bleached in this manner, sufficient vitamin A is added to the curd to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(d) Safe and suitable antimycotic agent(s), the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 49013, Oct. 24, 1983; 49 FR 10093, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2891, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.103" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.103   Asiago medium cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Asiago medium cheese conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed by § 133.102 for asiago fresh cheese, except that it contains not more than 35 percent moisture, its solids contain not less than 45 percent of milkfat, and it is cured for not less than 6 months.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.104" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.104   Asiago old cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Asiago old cheese conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed by § 133.102 for asiago fresh cheese, except that it contains not more than 32 percent moisture, its solids contain not less than 42 percent of milk fat, and it is cured for not less than 1 year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.106" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.106   Blue cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Blue cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2), of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It is characterized by the presence of bluish-green mold, <I>Penicillium roquefortii,</I> throughout the cheese. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 46 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized. Blue cheese is at least 60 days old.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be homogenized, bleached, warmed, and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into smaller portions and allowed to stand for a time. The mixed curd and whey is placed in forms permitting further drainage. While the curd is being placed in forms, spores of the mold <I>Penicillium roquefortii</I> are added. The forms are turned several times during drainage. When sufficiently drained, the shaped curd is removed from the forms and salted with dry salt or brine. Perforations are then made in the shaped curd, and it is held at a temperature of approximately 50 °F. at 90 to 95 percent relative humidity, until the characteristic mold growth has developed. During storage the surface of the cheese may be scraped to remove surface growth of undesirable microorganisms. Antimycotics may be applied to the surface of the whole cheese. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Blue or green color in an amount to neutralize the natural yellow color of the curd.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, applied to the surface of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages or to the surface of the bulk cheese during curing.
</P>
<P>(v) Benzoyl peroxide or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate used to bleach the dairy ingredients. The weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the milk being bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If milk is bleached in this manner, vitamin A is added to the curd in such quantity as to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Vegetable fats or oils, which may be hydrogenated, used as a coating for the rind.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “blue cheese.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2742, Jan. 21, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 32052, Aug. 4, 1989; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.108" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.108   Brick cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Brick cheese is the food prepared from dairy ingredients and other ingredients specified in this section by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 44 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. If the dairy ingredients used are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of brick cheese is not more than 5 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is brought to a temperature of about 88 °F and subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into cubes with sides approximately 
<FR>3/8</FR> inch long, and stirred and heated so that the temperature rises slowly to about 96 °F. The stirring is continued until the curd is sufficiently firm. Part of the whey is then removed, and the mixture diluted with water or salt brine to control the acidity. The curd is transferred to forms, and drained. During drainage it is pressed and turned. After drainage the curd is salted, and the biological curing agents characteristic of brick cheese are applied to the surface. The cheese is then cured to develop the characteristics of brick cheese. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative level of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “brick cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32052, Aug. 4, 1989; 54 FR 35756, Aug. 29, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17105, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.109" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.109   Brick cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>Brick cheese for manufacturing conforms to the definition and standard of identity for brick cheese prescribed by § 133.108, except that the dairy ingredients are not pasteurized and curing is not required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32053, Aug. 4, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.111" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.111   Caciocavallo siciliano cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Caciocavallo siciliano cheese is the food prepared from cow's milk or sheep's milk or goat's milk or mixtures of two or all of these and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, or by another procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties as the cheese produced when the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section is used. It has a stringy texture, and is made in oblong shapes. It contains not more than 40 percent of moisture, and its solids contain not less than 42 percent milkfat as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). It is cured for not less than 90 days at a temperature of not less than 35 °F.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Harmless artificial blue or green coloring in a quantity which neutralizes any natural yellow coloring in the curd may be added. Sufficient rennet, rennet paste, extract of rennet paste, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, singly or in any combination (with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent, calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride, of the weight of the milk) is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut, stirred, and heated so as to promote and regulate the separation of whey from curd. The whey is drained off, and the curd is removed to another vat containing hot whey, in which it is soaked for several hours. This whey is withdrawn, the curd is allowed to mat, and is cut into blocks. These are washed in hot whey until the desired elasticity is obtained. The curd is removed from the vat, drained, pressed into oblong forms, dried, and salted in brine, and cured. It may be paraffined. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of caciocavallo siciliano cheese may be added during the procedure, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) For the purposes of this section, the word “milk” means cow's milk or goat's milk or sheep's milk or mixtures of two or all of these. Such milk may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or (in the case of cow's milk) by adding one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk; (in the case of goat's milk) the corresponding products from goat's milk; (in the case of sheep's milk) the corresponding products from sheep's milk; water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any such concentrated or dried products used.
</P>
<P>(2) Such milk may be bleached by the use of benzoyl peroxide or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate; but the weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the milk bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If milk is bleached in this manner, sufficient vitamin A is added to the curd to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(d) Safe and suitable antimycotic agent(s), the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the cheese during the kneading and stretching process and/or applied to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) When caciocavallo siciliano cheese is made solely from cow's milk, the name of such cheese is “Caciocavallo siciliano cheese”. When made from sheep's milk or goat's milk or mixtures of these, or one or both of these with cow's milk, the name is followed by the words “made from ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the milks used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 39102, Aug. 2, 1977; 48 FR 49013, Oct. 24, 1983; 49 FR 10093, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.113" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.113   Cheddar cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Cheddar cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids, and the maximum moisture content is 39 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. If the dairy ingredients used are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of cheddar cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed, treated with hydrogen peroxide/catalase, and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is so cut, stirred, and heated with continued stirring, as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. The whey is drained off, and the curd is matted into a cohesive mass. The mass is cut into slabs, which are so piled and handled as to promote the drainage of whey and the development of acidity. The slabs are then cut into pieces, which may be rinsed by sprinkling or pouring water over them, with free and continuous drainage; but the duration of such rinsing is so limited that only the whey on the surface of such pieces is removed. The curd is salted, stirred, further drained, and pressed into forms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, applied to the surface of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrogen peroxide, followed by a sufficient quantity of catalase preparation to eliminate the hydrogen peroxide. The weight of the hydrogen peroxide shall not exceed 0.05 percent of the weight of the milk and the weight of the catalase shall not exceed 20 parts per million of the weight of the milk treated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “cheddar cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order or predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2743, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.114" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.114   Cheddar cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>Cheddar cheese for manufacturing conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for cheddar cheese by § 133.113, except that the milk is not pasteurized, curing is not required, and the provisions of paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of that section do not apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2743, Jan. 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.116" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.116   Low sodium cheddar cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Low sodium cheddar cheese is the food prepared from the same ingredients and in the same manner prescribed in § 133.113 for cheddar cheese and complies with all the provisions of § 133.113, including the requirements for label statement of ingredients, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) It contains not more than 96 milligrams of sodium per pound of finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “low sodium cheddar cheese”. The letters in the words “low sodium” shall be of the same size and style of type as the letters in the words “cheddar cheese”, wherever such words appear on the label.
</P>
<P>(c) If a salt substitute is used, the label shall bear the statement “______ added as a salt substitute”, the blank being filled in with the common name or names of the ingredient or ingredients used as a salt substitute.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2743, Jan. 21, 1983, as amended at 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.118" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.118   Colby cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Colby cheese is the food prepared from milk and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, or by another procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties as the cheese produced when the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section is used. It contains not more than 40 percent of moisture, and its solids contain not less than 50 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). If the milk used is not pasteurized, the cheese so made is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for not less than 60 days.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. Sufficient rennet, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, or both, with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the milk, is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. The mass is so cut, stirred, and heated with continued stirring, as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. A part of the whey is drained off, and the curd is cooled by adding water, the stirring being continued so as to prevent the pieces of curd from matting. The curd is drained, salted, stirred, further drained, and pressed into forms. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of colby cheese may be added during the procedure, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The word “milk” means cow's milk, which may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or by adding thereto one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk, water, in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any concentrated skim milk or nonfat dry milk used.
</P>
<P>(2) Milk shall be deemed to have been pasteurized if it has been held at a temperature of not less than 143 °F for a period of not less than 30 minutes, or for a time and at a temperature equivalent thereto in phosphatase destruction. Colby cheese shall be deemed not to have been made from pasteurized milk if 0.25 gram shows a phenol equivalent of more than 3 micrograms when tested by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c).
</P>
<P>(3) During the cheesemaking process the milk may be treated with hydrogen peroxide/catalase as provided in § 133.113(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Colby cheese in the form of slices or cuts may have added to it a clear aqueous solution prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke in water.
</P>
<P>(2) Colby cheese in the form of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, in an amount not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight calculated as sorbic acid.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) If colby cheese has added to it a clear aqueous solution prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke in water as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the name of the food is immediately followed by the words “with added smoke flavoring” with all words in this phrase of the same type size, style, and color without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(2) If colby cheese in sliced or cut form contains an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the label shall bear the statement “______ added to retard mold growth” or “______ added as a preservative”, the blank being filled in with the common name or names of the mold-inhibiting ingredient or ingredients used.
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statement specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, showing the optional ingredient used, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter except for the statement “with added smoke flavoring,” as set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10093, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.119" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.119   Colby cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>Colby cheese for manufacturing conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for colby cheese by § 133.118, except that the milk is not pasteurized, curing is not required, and the provisions of paragraph (d) of that section do not apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.121" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.121   Low sodium colby cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Low sodium colby cheese is the food prepared from the same ingredients and in the same manner prescribed in § 133.118 for colby cheese and complies with all the provisions of § 133.118, including the requirements for label statement of ingredients, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) Salt is not used. Any safe and suitable ingredient or combination of ingredients that contains no sodium and that is recognized as a salt substitute may be used.
</P>
<P>(b) Sodium sorbate is not used.
</P>
<P>(c) It contains not more than 96 milligrams of sodium per pound of finished food.
</P>
<P>(d) The name of the food is “low sodium colby cheese”. The letters in the words “low sodium” shall be of the same size and style of type as the letters in the words “colby cheese”, wherever such words appear on the label.
</P>
<P>(e) If a salt substitute as provided for in paragraph (a) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement “______ added as a salt substitute”, the blank being filled in with the common name or names of the ingredient or ingredients used as a salt substitute.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993; 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.123" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.123   Cold-pack and club cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Cold-pack cheese, club cheese, is the food prepared by comminuting, without the aid of heat, one or more cheeses of the same or two or more varieties, except cream cheese, neufchatel cheese, cottage cheese, lowfat cottage cheese, cottage cheese dry curd, hard grating cheese, semisoft part-skim cheese, part-skim spiced cheese and skim milk cheese for manufacturing, into a homogeneous plastic mass. One or more of the optional ingredients designated in paragraph (c) of this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) All cheeses used in a cold-pack cheese are made from pasteurized milk or are held for not less than 60 days at a temperature of not less than 35 °F before being comminuted.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The moisture content of a cold-pack cheese made from a single variety of cheese is not more than the maximum moisture content prescribed by the definition and standard of identity, if any there be, for the variety of cheese used. If there is no applicable definition and standard of identity, or if such standard contains no provision as to maximum moisture content, no water is used in the preparation of the cold-pack cheese.
</P>
<P>(ii) The fat content of the solids of a cold-pack cheese made from a single variety of cheese is not less than the minimum prescribed by the definition and standard of identity, if any there be, for the variety of cheese used, but in no case is less than 47 percent, except that the fat content of the solids of cold-pack swiss cheese is not less than 43 percent, and the fat content of the solids of cold-pack gruyere cheese is not less than 45 percent.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The moisture content of a cold-pack cheese made from two or more varieties of cheese is not more than the arithmetical average of the maximum moisture contents prescribed by the definitions and standards of identity, if any there be, for the varieties of cheese used, but in no case is the moisture content more than 42 percent, except that the moisture content of a cold-pack cheese made from two or more of the varieties cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese is not more than 39 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) The fat content of the solids of a cold-pack cheese made from two or more varieties of cheese is not less than the arithmetical average of the minimum percent of fat prescribed by the definitions and standards of identity, if any there be, for the varieties of cheese used, but in no case is less than 47 percent, except that the fat content of the solids of a cold-pack cheese made from swiss cheese and gruyere cheese is not less than 45 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) Moisture and fat are determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5(a), (b), and (d).
</P>
<P>(6) The weight of each variety of cheese in a cold-pack cheese made from two varieties of cheese is not less than 25 percent of the total weight of both, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, or gorgonzola cheese is not less than 10 percent of the total weight of both, and the weight of limburger cheese is not less than 5 percent of the total weight of both. The weight of each variety of cheese in a cold-pack cheese made from three or more varieties of cheese is not less than 15 percent of the total weight of all, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, or gorgonzola cheese is not less than 5 percent of the total weight of all, and the weight of limburger cheese is not less than 3 percent of the total weight of all. These limits do not apply to the quantity of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese in mixtures which are designated as “American cheese” as prescribed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Such mixtures are considered as one variety of cheese for the purpose of this paragraph (a)(6).
</P>
<P>(b) Cold-pack cheese may be smoked, or the cheese or cheeses from which it is made may be smoked, before comminuting and mixing, or it may contain substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) An acidifying agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: A vinegar, lactic acid, citric acid, acetic acid, and phosphoric acid, in such quantity that the pH of the finished cold-pack cheese is not below 4.5. For the purposes of this section vinegar is considered to be acetic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Water.
</P>
<P>(3) Salt.
</P>
<P>(4) Harmless artificial coloring.
</P>
<P>(5) Spices or flavorings, other than any which singly or in combination with other ingredients simulate the flavor of a cheese of any age or variety.
</P>
<P>(6) Cold-pack cheese in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, in an amount not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight, calculated as sorbic acid or consisting of not more than 0.3 percent by weight of sodium propionate, calcium propionate, or a combination of sodium propionate and calcium propionate.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The name of a cold-pack cheese for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Cold-pack ______ cheese”, “______ cold-pack cheese” or “______ club cheese”, the blanks being filled in with the name or names of the varieties of cheese used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(2) If the cold-pack cheese is made of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, or granular cheese or any mixture of two or more of these, it may be designated “Cold-pack American cheese”; or when cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these is combined with other varieties of cheese in the cheese ingredient any of such cheeses or such mixture may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<P>(3) The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. Wherever any word or statement emphasizing the name of any ingredient appears on the label (other than in an ingredient statement as specified in paragraph (f) of this section) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the full name of the food shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such word or statement in type of at least the same size as the type used in such word or statement.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring, including smoke and substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke, that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice that characterizes the product.
</P>
<P>(f) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these, may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<P>(1) Artificial coloring need not be declared.
</P>
<P>(2) If the cheese ingredient contains cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these, such cheese or such mixture may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10093, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.124" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.124   Cold-pack cheese food.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Cold-pack cheese food is the food prepared by comminuting and mixing, without the aid of heat, one or more of the optional cheese ingredients prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section with one or more of the optional dairy ingredients prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section, into a homogeneous plastic mass. One or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (e) of this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) All cheeses used in a cold-pack cheese food are made from pasteurized milk, or are held for not less than 60 days at a temperature of not less than 35 °F before being comminuted.
</P>
<P>(3) The moisture content of a cold-pack cheese food is not more than 44 percent, and the fat content is not less than 23 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Moisture and fat are determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d), except that in determining moisture the loss in weight which occurs in drying for 5 hours, under the conditions prescribed in such method, is taken as the weight of moisture.
</P>
<P>(5) The weight of the cheese ingredient prescribed by paragraph (a)(1) of this section constitutes not less than 51 percent of the weight of the finished cold-pack cheese food.
</P>
<P>(6) The weight of each variety of cheese in the cold-pack cheese food made with two varieties of cheese is not less than 25 percent of the total weight of both, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, gorgonzola cheese, or limburger cheese is not less than 10 percent of the total weight of both. The weight of each variety of cheese in the cold-pack cheese food made with three or more varieties of cheese is not less than 15 percent of the total weight of all, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, gorgonzola cheese, or limburger cheese is not less than 5 percent of the total weight of all. These limits do not apply to the quantity of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese in mixtures which are designated as “American cheese” as prescribed in paragraph (h)(5) of this section. Such mixtures are considered as one variety of cheese for the purposes of this paragraph (a)(6).
</P>
<P>(b) Cold-pack cheese food may be smoked, or the cheese or cheeses from which it is made may be smoked, before comminuting and mixing, or it may contain substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional cheese ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are: One or more cheeses of the same or two or more varieties, except that cream cheese, neufchatel cheese, cottage cheese, creamed cottage cheese, cook cheese, and skim-milk cheese for manufacturing are not used, and except that semisoft part-skim cheese, part-skim spiced cheese, and hard grating cheese may not be used, alone or in combination with each other, as the cheese ingredient.
</P>
<P>(d) The optional dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are: Cream, milk, skim milk, buttermilk, cheese whey, any of the foregoing from which part of the water has been removed, anhydrous milkfat, dehydrated cream, skim milk cheese for manufacturing, and albumin from cheese whey. All optional dairy ingredients used in cold-pack cheese food are pasteurized or made from products that have been pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(e) The other optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) An acidifying agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: A vinegar, lactic acid, citric acid, acetic acid, and phosphoric acid, in such quantity that the pH of the finished cold-pack cheese food is not below 4.5.
</P>
<P>(2) Water.
</P>
<P>(3) Salt.
</P>
<P>(4) Harmless artificial coloring.
</P>
<P>(5) Spices or flavorings, other than any which singly or in combination with other ingredients simulate the flavor of cheese of any age or variety. 
</P>
<P>(6) A sweetening agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Sugar, dextrose, corn sugar, corn sirup, corn sirup solids, glucose sirup, glucose sirup solids, maltose, malt sirup, and hydrolyzed lactose, in a quantity necessary for seasoning.
</P>
<P>(7) Cold-pack cheese food in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, in an amount not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight, calculated as sorbic acid or consisting of not more than 0.3 percent by weight of sodium propionate, calcium propionate, or a combination of sodium propionate and calcium propionate.
</P>
<P>(8) In the preparation of cold-pack cheese food, guar gum or xanthan gum, or both, may be used, but the total quantity of such ingredient or combination is not to exceed 0.3 percent of the weight of the finished food. When one or both such optional ingredients is used, dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate complying with the requirements of § 172.810 of this chapter may be used in a quantity not in excess of 0.5 percent by weight of such ingredient or ingredients.
</P>
<P>(f) The name of the food is “cold-pack cheese food”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. Wherever any word or statement emphasizing the name of (other than in an ingredient statement any ingredient appears on the label as specified in paragraph (h) of this section) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the full name of the food shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such word or statement in type of at least the same size as the type used in such word or statement.
</P>
<P>(g) The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring, including smoke and substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke, that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice that characterizes the product.
</P>
<P>(h) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these, may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10093, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.125" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.125   Cold-pack cheese food with fruits, vegetables, or meats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cold-pack cheese food with fruits, vegetables, or meats or mixtures of these is the food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients, prescribed for cold pack cheese food by § 133.124, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Its milk fat content is not less than 22 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) It contains one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Any properly prepared fresh, cooked, canned, or dried vegetable; any properly prepared cooked or canned meat.
</P>
<P>(3) When the added fruits, vegetables, or meats contain fat, the method prescribed for the determination of fat by § 133.5(b) and (d) is not applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of a cold-pack cheese food with fruits, vegetables or meats is “Cold-pack cheese food with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name or names of the fruits, vegetables, or meats used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10093, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.127" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.127   Cook cheese, koch kaese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Cook cheese, koch kaese, is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The maximum moisture content is 80 percent by weight, as determined by the method described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) The phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of cook cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut, stirred, and heated with continued stirring, so as to separate the curd and whey. The whey is drained from the curd and the curd is cured for 2 or 3 days. It is then heated to a temperature of not less than 180 °F until the hot curd will drop from a ladle with a consistency like that of honey. The hot cheese is filled into packages and cooled. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Nonfat milk as defined in § 133.3.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(ii) Culture of white mold.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pasteurized cream.
</P>
<P>(iv) Caraway seed.
</P>
<P>(v) Salt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “cook cheese” or, alternatively, “koch kaese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130, except that enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32053, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 55 FR 51409, Dec. 14, 1990; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.128" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.128   Cottage cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cottage cheese is the soft uncured cheese prepared by mixing cottage cheese dry curd with a creaming mixture as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. The milkfat content is not less than 4 percent by weight of the finished food, within limits of good manufacturing practice. The finished food contains not more than 80 percent of moisture, as determined by the method prescribed in § 133.129(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The creaming mixture is prepared from safe and suitable ingredients including, but not limited to, milk or substances derived from milk. Any ingredients used that are not derived from milk shall serve a useful function other than building the total solids content of the finished food, and shall be used in a quantity not greater than is reasonably required to accomplish their intended effect. The creaming mixture shall be pasteurized; however, heat labile ingredients, such as bacterial starters, may be added following pasteurization.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food consists of the following two phrases which shall appear together:
</P>
<P>(1) The words “cottage cheese” which shall appear in type of the same size and style.
</P>
<P>(2) The statement “not less than __ percent milkfat” or “__ percent milkfat minimum”, the blank being filled in with the whole number that is closest to, but does not exceed, the actual fat content of the product. This statement of fat content shall appear in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters in the phrase specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, but in no case less than one-eighth of an inch in height.
</P>
<P>(d) When the optional process described in § 133.129(b)(1) (ii) or (iii) is used to make the cottage cheese dry curd used in cottage cheese, the label shall bear the statement “Directly set” or “Curd set by direct acidification”. Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statement specified in this paragraph, showing the optional process used, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(e) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that milk-clotting enzymes may be declared by the word “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.129" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.129   Dry curd cottage cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cottage cheese dry curd is the soft uncured cheese prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. The finished food contains less than 0.5 percent milkfat. It contains not more than 80 percent of moisture, as determined by the method prescribed in § 133.5(a).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is pasteurized; calcium chloride may be added in a quantity of not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the mix; thereafter one of the following methods is employed:
</P>
<P>(i) Harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria, with or without rennet and/or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, are added and it is held until it becomes coagulated. The coagulated mass may be cut; it may be warmed; it may be stirred; it is then drained. The curd may be washed with water and further drained; it may be pressed, chilled, worked, seasoned with salt; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Food grade phosphoric acid, lactic acid, citric acid, or hydrochloric acid, with or without rennet and/or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, is added in such amount as to reach a pH of between 4.5 and 4.7; coagulation to a firm curd is achieved while heating to a maximum of 120 °F without agitation during a continuous process. The coagulated mass may be cut; it may be warmed; it may be stirred; it is then drained. The curd is washed with water, stirred, and further drained. It may be pressed, chilled, worked, seasoned with salt.
</P>
<P>(iii) Food grade acids as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, D-Glucono-delta-lactone with or without rennet, and/or other safe and suitable milk clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, are added in such amounts as to reach a final pH value in the range of 4.5-4.8, and it is held until it becomes coagulated. The coagulated mass may be cut; it may be warmed; it may be stirred; it is then drained. The curd is then washed with water, and further drained. It may be pressed, chilled, worked, and seasoned with salt.
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are sweet skim milk, concentrated skim milk, and nonfat dry milk. If concentrated skim milk or nonfat dry milk is used, water may be added in a quantity not in excess of that removed when the skim milk was concentrated or dried.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this section the term “skim milk” means the milk of cows from which the milk fat has been separated, and “concentrated skim milk” means skim milk from which a portion of the water has been removed by evaporation.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food consists of the following two phrases which shall appear together:
</P>
<P>(1) The words “cottage cheese dry curd” or alternatively “dry curd cottage cheese” which shall all appear in type of the same size and style.
</P>
<P>(2) The words “less than 
<FR>1/2</FR>% milkfat” which shall all appear in letters not less than one-half of the height of the letters in the phrase specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, but in no case less than one-eighth of an inch in height.
</P>
<P>(d) When either of the optional processes described in paragraph (b)(1) (ii) or (iii) of this section is used to make cottage cheese dry curd, the label shall bear the statement “Directly set” or “Curd set by direct acidification”. Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statement specified in this paragraph, showing the optional process used, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(e) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that milk-clotting enzymes may be declared by the word “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11826, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10093, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.133" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.133   Cream cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Cream cheese is the soft, uncured cheese prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 33 percent by weight of the finished food, and the maximum moisture content is 55 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used are pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be homogenized and is subjected to the action of lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to coagulate the dairy ingredients. The coagulated mass may be warmed and stirred and it is drained. The moisture content may be adjusted with one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. The curd may be pressed, chilled, and worked and it may be heated until it becomes fluid. It may then be homogenized or otherwise mixed. One or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) and the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cheese whey, concentrated cheese whey, dried cheese whey, or reconstituted cheese whey prepared by addition of water to concentrated cheese whey or dried cheese whey.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stabilizers, in a total amount not to exceed 0.5 percent of the weight of the finished food, with or without the addition of dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate in a maximum amount of 0.5 percent of the weight of the stabilizer(s) used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “cream cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial original may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32053, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2892, Jan. 6, 1993] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.134" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.134   Cream cheese with other foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Cream cheese with other foods is the class of foods prepared by mixing, with or without the aid of heat, cream cheese with one or a mixture of two or more types of foods (except other cheeses) listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in an amount sufficient to differentiate the mixture from cream cheese. One or more of the other optional ingredients in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be used. The maximum moisture content of the mixture is 60 percent by weight. The minimum milkfat is 33 percent by weight of the cream cheese and in no case less than 27 percent of the finished food. The moisture and fat contents will be determined by the methods described in § 133.5, except that the method for determination of fat content is not applicable when the added food contains fat.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Foods.</I> Properly prepared fresh, cooked, canned, or dried fruits or vegetables; cooked or canned meats, relishes, pickles, or other suitable foods.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Stabilizers, in a total amount not to exceed 0.8 percent, with or without the addition of dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate in a maximum amount of 0.5 percent of the weight of the stabilizer(s) used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “cream cheese with ______” or, alternatively, “cream cheese and ______”, the blank being filled in with the name of the foods used in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32053, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.136" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.136   Washed curd and soaked curd cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Washed curd, soaked curd cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 42 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. If the dairy ingredients used are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of washed curd cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed, treated with hydrogen peroxide/catalase, and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is so cut, stirred, and heated with continued stirring, as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. The whey is drained off, and the curd is matted into a cohesive mass. The mass is cut into slabs, which are so piled and handled as to promote the drainage of whey and the development of acidity. The slabs are then cut into pieces, cooled in water, and soaked therein until the whey is partly extracted and water is absorbed. The curd is drained, salted, stirred, and pressed into forms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrogen peroxide, followed by a sufficient quantity of catalase preparation to eliminate the hydrogen peroxide. The weight of the hydrogen peroxide shall not exceed 0.05 percent of the weight of the dairy ingredients and the weight of the catalase shall not exceed 20 parts per million of the weight of dairy ingredients treated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “washed curd cheese” or, alternatively, “soaked curd cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32054, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.137" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.137   Washed curd cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>Washed curd cheese for manufacturing conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for washed curd cheese by § 133.136, except that the dairy ingredients are not pasteurized and curing is not required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32054, Aug. 4, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.138" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.138   Edam cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Edam cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 40 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 45 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. If the dairy ingredients used are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of edam cheese is not more than 3 micrograms, as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. After coagulation the mass is cut into small cube-shaped pieces with sides approximately three-eighths-inch long. The mass is stirred and heated to about 90 °F. and so handled by further stirring, heating, dilution with water or salt brine, and salting as to promote and regulate the separation of curd and whey. When the desired curd is obtained, it is transferred to forms permitting drainage of whey. During drainage the curd is pressed and turned. After drainage the curd is removed from the forms and is salted and cured. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “edam cheese.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat,” as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2743, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 55 FR 6795, Feb. 27, 1990; 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.140   Gammelost cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Gammelost cheese is the food prepared from nonfat milk, as defined in § 133.3, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The maximum moisture content is 52 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients are subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. The development of acidity is continued until the dairy ingredients coagulate to a semisolid mass. The mass is stirred and heated until a temperature of about 145 °F is reached, and is held at that temperature for at least 30 minutes. The whey is drained off and the curd removed and placed in forms and pressed. The shaped curd is placed in whey and heated for 3 or 4 hours, and may again be pressed. It is then stored under conditions suitable for curing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “gammelost cheese”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32054, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.141" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.141   Gorgonzola cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Gorgonzola cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It is characterized by the presence of bluish-green mold, <I>Penicillium roquefortii,</I> throughout the cheese. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 42 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized. Gorgonzola cheese is at least 90 days old.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into smaller portions and allowed to stand for a time. The mixed curd and whey is placed into forms permitting further drainage. While being placed in forms, spores of the mold <I>Penicillium roquefortii</I> are added. The forms are turned several times during drainage. When sufficiently drained, the shaped curd is removed from the forms and salted with dry salt or brine. Perforations are then made in the shaped curd and it is held at a temperature of approximately 50 °F at 90 to 95 percent relative humidity, until the characteristic mold growth has developed. During storage, the surface of the cheese may be scraped to remove surface growth of undesirable microorganisms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, or corresponding products of goat origin, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Blue or green color in an amount to neutralize the natural yellow color of the curd.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(v) Benzoyl peroxide, or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate used to bleach the dairy ingredients. The weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the dairy ingredients being bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If the dairy ingredients are bleached in this manner, vitamin A is added to the curd in such quantity as to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Vegetable fats or oil which may be hydrogenated, used as a coating for the rind.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “gorgonzola cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate; “milkfat from goat's milk and nonfat goat's milk”, etc.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32054, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.142" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.142   Gouda cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Gouda cheese conforms to the definition and standard of identity and complies with the requirements for label declaration of ingredients prescribed for edam cheese by § 133.138, except that the minimum milkfat content is 46 percent by weight of the solids, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5 and the maximum moisture content is 45 percent by weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2744, Jan. 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.144" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.144   Granular and stirred curd cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Granular cheese, stirred curd cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 39 percent by weight as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. If the dairy ingredients used are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of granular cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed, treated with hydrogen peroxide/catalase, and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is so cut, stirred, and heated with continued stirring, as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. A part of the whey is drained off. The curd is then alternately stirred and drained to prevent matting and to remove whey from curd. The curd is then salted, stirred, drained, and pressed into forms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) by weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrogen peroxide, followed by a sufficient quantity of catalase preparation to eliminate the hydrogen peroxide. The weight of the hydrogen peroxide shall not exceed 0.05 percent of the weight of the dairy ingredients and the weight of the catalase shall not exceed 20 parts per million of the weight of the dairy ingredients treated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “granular cheese” or, alternatively, “stirred curd cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32055, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.145   Granular cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>Granular cheese for manufacturing conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for granular cheese by § 133.144, except that the dairy ingredients are not pasteurized and curing is not required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32056, Aug. 4, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.146" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.146   Grated cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Grated cheeses is the class of foods prepared by grinding, grating, shredding, or otherwise comminuting cheese of one variety or a mixture of two or more varieties. The cheese varieties that may be used are those for which there are definitions and standards of identity, except that cream cheese, neufchatel cheese, cottage cheese, creamed cottage cheese, cook cheese, and skim milk cheese for manufacturing may not be used. All cheese ingredients used are either made from pasteurized milk or held at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days. Moisture may be removed from the cheese ingredients in the manufacture of the finished food, but no moisture is added. One or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Composition.</I> (1) Each cheese ingredient used is present at a minimum level of 2 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(2) When one variety of cheese is used, the minimum milkfat content of the food is not more than 1 percent lower than the minimum prescribed by the standard of identity for that cheese.
</P>
<P>(3) When two or more varieties of cheese are used, the minimum milkfat content is not more than 1 percent below the arithmetical average of the minimum fat content percentages prescribed by the standards of identity for the varieties of cheese used, and in no case is the milkfat content less than 31 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Milkfat and moisture contents are determined by the methods described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Antimycotics.
</P>
<P>(2) Anticaking agents.
</P>
<P>(3) Spices.
</P>
<P>(4) Flavorings other than those which, singly or in combination with other ingredients, simulate the flavor of cheese of any age or variety.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> (1) The name of the food is “grated cheese” or “grated cheeses”, as appropriate. The name of the food shall be accompanied by a declaration of the specific variety of cheese(s) used in the food and by a declaration indicating the presence of any added spice or flavoring.
</P>
<P>(2) Any cheese varietal names used in the name of the food are those specified by applicable standards of identity, except that the designation “American cheese” may be used for cheddar, washed curd, colby, or granular cheese or for any mixture of these cheeses.
</P>
<P>(3) The following terms may be used in place of the name of the food to describe specific types of grated cheese:
</P>
<P>(i) If only one variety of cheese is used, the name of the food is “grated ______ cheese”, the name of the cheese filling the blank.
</P>
<P>(ii) If only parmesan and romano cheeses are used and each is present at a level of not less than 25 percent by weight of the finished food, the name of the food is “grated ______ and ______ cheese”, the blanks being filled with the names “parmesan” and “romano” in order of predominance by weight. The name “reggiano” may be used for “parmesan”.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a mixture of cheese varieties (not including parmesan or romano) is used and each variety is present at a level of not less than 25 percent of the weight of the finished food, the name of the food is “grated ______ cheese”, the blank being filled in with the names of the varieties in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a mixture of cheese varieties in which one or more varieties (not including parmesan or romano) are each present at a level of not less than 25 percent by weight of the finished food, and one or more other varieties (which may include parmesan and romano cheese) are each present at a level of not less than 2 percent but in the aggregate not more than 10 percent of the weight of the finished food, the name of the food is “grated ______ cheese with other grated cheese” or “grated ______ cheese with other grated cheeses”, as appropriate, the blank being filled in with the name or names of those cheese varieties present at levels of not less than 25 percent by weight of the finished food in order of predominance, in letters not more than twice as high as the letters in the phrase “with other grated cheese(s)”.
</P>
<P>(4) The following terms may be used in place of “grated” to describe alternative forms of cheese:
</P>
<P>(i) “Shredded”, if the particles of cheese are in the form of cylinders, shreds, or strings.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Chipped” or “chopped”, if the particles of cheese are in the form of chips.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, “milkfat from goat's milk and nonfat goat's milk”, “milkfat from sheep's milk and nonfat sheep's milk”, etc., as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32056, Aug. 4, 1989; 54 FR 35756, Aug. 29, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.147" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.147   Grated American cheese food.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Grated American cheese food is the food prepared by mixing, with or without the aid of heat, one or more of the optional cheese ingredients prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section with one or more of the optional ingredients prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, into a uniformly blended, partially dehydrated, powdered, or granular mixture. 
</P>
<P>(2) Grated American cheese food contains not less than 23 percent of milkfat, as determined by the method prescribed in § 133.5(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The optional cheese ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese.
</P>
<P>(c) The other optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonfat dry milk.
</P>
<P>(2) Dried whey.
</P>
<P>(3) An emulsifying agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the emulsifying ingredients named in § 133.173(e)(1), in such quantity that the weight of the solids thereof is not more than 3 percent of the weight of the grated American cheese food.
</P>
<P>(4) An acidifying agent consisting of one or more of the acid-reacting ingredients named in § 133.173(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) Salt.
</P>
<P>(6) Artificial coloring.
</P>
<P>(d) The name of the food is “Grated American cheese food”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. Wherever any word or statement emphasizing the name of any ingredient appears on the label (other than in an ingredient statement as specified in paragraph (e) of this section) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the full name of the food shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such word or statement in type of at least the same size as the type used in such word or statement.
</P>
<P>(e) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these may be designated “American cheese”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10094, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.148" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.148   Hard grating cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cheeses for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are hard grating cheeses for which specifically applicable definitions and standards of identity are not prescribed by other sections of this part. They are made from milk and the other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. They contain not more than 34 percent of moisture, and their solids contain not less than 32 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). Hard grating cheeses are cured for not less than 6 months.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria or other harmless flavor-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Sufficient rennet, rennet paste, extract of rennet paste, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, singly or in any combination (with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent, calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride, of the weight of the milk) is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. The mass is cut into small particles, stirred, and heated. The curd is separated from the whey, drained, shaped into forms, pressed, salted, and cured. The rind may be colored or rubbed with vegetable oil or both. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of hard grating cheese may be added during the procedure, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section, the word “milk” means cow's milk or goat's milk or sheep's milk or mixtures of two or all of these. Such milk may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or (in the case of cow's milk) by adding one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk; (in the case of goat's milk) the corresponding products from goat's milk; (in the case of sheep's milk) the corresponding products from sheep's milk; water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any such concentrated or dried products used.
</P>
<P>(d) Safe and suitable antimycotic agent(s), the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each hard grating cheese for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Hard grating cheese”, preceded or followed by:
</P>
<P>(1) The specific common or usual name of such hard grating cheese, if any such name has become generally recognized therefor; or
</P>
<P>(2) If no such specific common or usual name has become generally recognized therefor, an arbitrary or fanciful name that is not false or misleading in any particular.
</P>
<P>(3) When milk other than cow's milk is used, in whole or in part, the statement “made from ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the milk used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) When milk other than cow's milk is used, in whole or in part, the common or usual name of each such milk ingredient shall be declared in order of predominance by weight; and
</P>
<P>(2) Enzymes of the animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 49013, Oct. 24, 1983; 49 FR 10094, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.149" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.149   Gruyere cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Gruyere cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It contains small holes or eyes. It has a mild flavor, due in part to the growth of surface-curing agents. The minimum milkfat content is 45 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 39 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized. The cheese is at least 90 days old.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of gruyere cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of lactic acid-producing and propionic acid-producing bacterial cultures. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into particles similar in size to wheat kernels. For about 30 minutes the particles are alternately stirred and allowed to settle. The temperature is raised to about 126 °F. Stirring is continued until the curd becomes firm. The curd is transferred to hoops or forms, and pressed until the desired shape and firmness are obtained. The cheese is surface-salted while held at a temperature of 48° to 54 °F for a few days. It is soaked for 1 day in a saturated salt solution. It is then held for 3 weeks in a salting cellar and wiped every 2 days with brine cloth to insure growth of biological curing agents on the rind. It is then removed to a heating room and held at progressively higher temperatures, finally reaching 65 °F with a relative humidity of 85 to 90 percent, for several weeks, during which time small holes, or so-called eyes, form. The cheese is then stored at a lower temperature for further curing. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(ii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iii) Antimycotic agents, applied to the surface of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “gruyere cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2744, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.150   Hard cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cheeses for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are hard cheeses for which specifically applicable definitions and standards of identity are not prescribed by other sections of this part. They are made from milk and the other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. They contain not more than 39 percent of moisture, and their solids contain not less than 50 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). If the milk used is not pasteurized, the cheese so made is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for not less than 60 days.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria, with or without other harmless flavor-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. Sufficient rennet, rennet paste, extract of rennet paste, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, singly or in any combination (with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent, calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride, of the weight of the milk) is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into small particles, stirred, and heated. The curd is separated from the whey, drained, and shaped into forms, and may be pressed. The curd is salted at some stage of the manufacturing process. The shaped curd may be cured. The rind may be coated with paraffin or rubbed with vegetable oil. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of hard cheese may be added during the procedure, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used. Harmless flavor-producing microorganisms may be added, and curing may be conducted under suitable conditions for the development of biological curing agents.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The word “milk” means cow's milk or goat's milk or sheep's milk or mixtures of two or all of these. Such milk may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom, or (in the case of cow's milk) by adding one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk; (in the case of goat's milk) the corresponding products from goat's milk; (in the case of sheep's milk) the corresponding products from sheep's milk; water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any concentrated or dried products used.
</P>
<P>(2) Milk shall be deemed to have been pasteurized if it has been held at a temperature of not less than 143 °F for a period of not less than 30 minutes, or for a time and at a temperature equivalent thereto in phosphatase destruction. A hard cheese shall be deemed not to have been made from pasteurized milk if 0.25 gram shows a phenol equivalent of more than 3 micrograms when tested by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Safe and suitable antimycotic agent(s), the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each hard cheese for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Hard cheese”, preceded or followed by:
</P>
<P>(1) The specific common or unusual name of such hard cheese, if any such name has become generally recognized therefor; or
</P>
<P>(2) If no such specific common or usual name has become generally recognized, therefor, an arbitrary or fanciful name that is not false or misleading in any particular.
</P>
<P>(3) When milk other than cow's milk is used, in whole or in part, the statement “made from ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the milk used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) When milk other than cow's milk is used, in whole or in part, the common or usual name of each such milk ingredient shall be declared in order of predominance by weight; and
</P>
<P>(2) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 49013, Oct. 24, 1983; 49 FR 10094, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.152" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.152   Limburger cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Limburger cheese is the food prepared by one of the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 50 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. If the dairy ingredients used are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of limburger cheese is not more than 4 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One of the following procedures may be followed for producing limburger cheese:
</P>
<P>(i) One or more of the dairy ingredients, unpasteurized, specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is warmed to about 92 °F and subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into cubes with sides approximately one-half inch long. After a few minutes the mass is stirred and heated, gradually raising the temperature to 96° to 98 °F. The curd is then allowed to settle, most of the whey is drained off, and the remaining curd and whey dipped into molds. During drainage the curd may be pressed. It is turned at regular intervals. After drainage the curd is cut into pieces of desired size and dry-salted at intervals for 24 to 48 hours. The cheese is then cured with frequent applications of a weak brine solution to the surface, until the proper growth of surface-curing organisms is obtained. It is then wrapped and held in storage for development of as much additional flavor as is desired. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is pasteurized, brought to a temperature of 89° to 90 °F. after pasteurization, and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. The procedure is then the same as in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, except that heating is to 94 °F. After most of the whey is drained off, salt brine at a temperature of 66° to 70 °F is added, so that the pH of the curd is about 4.8. The mixed curd, whey, and brine is dipped into molds, and the remaining procedure specified in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section is followed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) by weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “limburger cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2744, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.153" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.153   Monterey cheese and monterey jack cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Monterey cheese, monterey jack cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids, and the maximum moisture content is 44 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used are pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) The phenol equivalent of 0.25 gram of monterey cheese is not more than 3 micrograms, as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is so cut, stirred, and heated with continued stirring, as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. Part of the whey is drained off, and water or salt brine may be added. The curd is drained and placed in a muslin or sheeting cloth, formed into a ball, and pressed; or the curd is placed in a cheese hoop and pressed. Later, the cloth bandage is removed, and the cheese may be covered with a suitable coating. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) by weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(ii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iii) Salt.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(v) Vegetable oil, with or without rice flour sprinkled on the surface, used as a coating for the rind.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “monterey cheese” or alternatively, “monterey jack cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”, and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32056, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.154" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.154   High-moisture jack cheese.</HEAD>
<P>High-moisture jack cheese conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for monterey cheese by § 133.153, except that its moisture content is more than 44 percent but less than 50 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.155   Mozzarella cheese and scamorza cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Mozzarella cheese, scamorza cheese is the food prepared from dairy ingredients and other ingredients specified in this section by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It may be molded into various shapes. The minimum milkfat content is 45 percent by weight of the solids, and the moisture content is more than 52 percent but not more than 60 percent by weight as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients are pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) The phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of mozzarella cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is warmed to approximately 88 °F (31.1 °C) and subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut, and it may be stirred to facilitate separation of whey from the curd. The whey is drained, and the curd may be washed with cold water and the water drained off. The curd may be collected in bundles for further drainage and for ripening. The curd may be iced, it may be held under refrigeration, and it may be permitted to warm to room temperature and ripen further. The curd may be cut. It is immersed in hot water or heated with steam and is kneaded and stretched until smooth and free of lumps. It is then cut and molded. The molded curd is firmed by immersion in cold water and drained. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Cow's milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, or the corresponding products of water buffalo origin, except that cow's milk products are not combined with water buffalo products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Vinegar.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coloring to mask any natural yellow color in the curd.
</P>
<P>(iii) Salt.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotics, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the cheese during the kneading and stretching process and/or applied to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “mozzarella cheese” or, alternatively, “scamorza cheese”. When the food is made with water buffalo milk, the name of the food is accompanied by the phrase “made with water buffalo milk”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, “milkfat from water buffalo milk and nonfat buffalo milk” or “nonfat water buffalo milk and milkfat from water buffalo milk,” as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 3743, Feb. 9, 1988, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.156" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.156   Low-moisture mozzarella and scamorza cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Low-moisture mozzarella cheese, low-moisture scamorza cheese is the food prepared from dairy ingredients and other ingredients specified in this section by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It may be molded into various shapes. The minimum milkfat content is 45 percent by weight of the solids and the moisture content is more than 45 percent but not more than 52 percent by weight as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients are pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) The phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of low-moisture mozzarella cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this action is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut, stirred, and allowed to stand. It may be reheated and again stirred. The whey is drained and the curd may be cut and piled to promote further separation of whey. It may be washed with cold water and the water drained off. The curd may be collected in bundles for further drainage and for ripening. The curd may be iced, it may be held under refrigeration, and it may be permitted to warm to room temperature and ripen further. The curd may be cut. It is immersed in hot water or heated with steam and is kneaded and stretched until smooth and free of lumps. It is then cut and molded. In molding, the curd is kept sufficiently warm to cause proper sealing of the surface. The molded curd is firmed by immersion in cold water and drained. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Cow's milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, or the corresponding products of water buffalo origin, except that cow's milk products are not combined with water buffalo products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Vinegar.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coloring to mask any natural yellow color in the curd.
</P>
<P>(iii) Salt.
</P>
<P>(iv) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(v) Antimycotics, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practices, may be added to the cheese during the kneading and stretching process and/or applied to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The names of the food is “low-moisture mozzarella cheese” or, alternatively, “low-moisture scamorza cheese”. When the food is made with water buffalo milk, the name of the food is accompanied by the phrase “made with water buffalo milk”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, “milkfat from water buffalo milk and nonfat water buffalo milk” or “nonfat water buffalo) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, “milkfat from water buffalo milk and nonfat water buffalo milk” or “nonfat water buffalo milk and milkfat from water buffalo milk”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 3743, Feb. 9, 1988, as amended at 58 FR 2893, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.157" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.157   Part-skim mozzarella and scamorza cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Part-skim mozzarella cheese, part-skim scamorza cheese conforms to the definition and standard of identity as prescribed for mozzarella cheese by § 133.155, except that its milk fat content, calculated on the solids basis, is less than 45 percent but not less than 30 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.158" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.158   Low-moisture part-skim mozzarella and scamorza cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Low-moisture part-skim mozzarella cheese and low-moisture part-skim scamorza cheese conform to the definition and standard of identity and comply with the requirements for label declaration of ingredients prescribed for low-moisture mozzarella cheese and low-moisture scamorza cheese by § 133.156, except that their milkfat content, calculated on the solids basis, is less than 45 percent but not less than 30 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.160   Muenster and munster cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Muenster cheese, munster cheese, is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 46 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used are pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) The phenol equivalent of 0.25 gram of muenster cheese is not more than 3 micrograms, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a harmless lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. After coagulation the mass is divided into small portions, stirred, and heated, with or without dilution with water or salt brine, so as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. The curd is transferred to forms permitting drainage of the whey. During drainage the curd may be pressed and turned. After drainage the curd is removed from the forms and is salted. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(v) Vegetable oil, used as a coating for the rind.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “muenster cheese” or, alternatively, “munster cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32057, Aug. 4, 1989; 54 FR 35756, Aug. 29, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.161" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.161   Muenster and munster cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>Muenster cheese for manufacturing conforms to the definition and standard of identity for muenster cheese prescribed by § 133.160, except that the dairy ingredients are not pasteurized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32057, Aug. 4, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.162" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.162   Neufchatel cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Neufchatel cheese is the soft uncured cheese prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The milkfat content is not less than 20 percent but less than 33 percent by weight of the finished food and the maximum moisture content is 65 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used are pasteurized.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is subjected to the action of a harmless lactic acid-producing bacterial culture, with or without one or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The mixture is held until the dairy ingredients coagulate. The coagulated mass may be warmed and stirred and it is drained. The moisture content may be adjusted with one of the optional ingredients in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. The curd may be pressed, chilled, worked, and heated until it becomes fluid. It may then be homogenized or otherwise mixed. One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cheese whey, concentrated cheese whey, dried cheese whey, or reconstituted cheese whey prepared by addition of water to concentrated cheese whey or dried cheese whey.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stabilizers, in a total amount not to exceed 0.5 percent of the weight of the finished food, with or without the addition of dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate in a maximum amount of 0.5 percent of the weight of the stabilizer(s) used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “neufchatel cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32057, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.164" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.164   Nuworld cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Nuworld cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It is characterized by the presence of creamy-white mold, a white mutant of <I>Penicillium roquefortii,</I> throughout the cheese. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 46 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized. Nuworld cheese is at least 60 days old.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into smaller portions and allowed to stand for a time. The mixed curd and whey is placed into forms permitting further drainage. While being placed in forms, spores of a white mutant of the mold <I>Penicillium roquefortii</I> are added. The forms are turned several times during drainage. When sufficiently drained, the shaped curd is removed from the forms and salted with dry salt or brine. Perforations are then made in the shaped curd and it is held at a temperature of approximately 50 °F at 90 to 95 percent relative humidity, until the characteristic mold growth has developed. During storage, the surface of the cheese may be scraped to remove surface growth of undesirable microorganisms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Blue or green color in an amount to neutralize the natural yellow color of the curd.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “nuworld cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32058, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.165" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.165   Parmesan and reggiano cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Parmesan cheese, reggiano cheese, is the food prepared from milk and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, or by another procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties as the cheese produced when the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section is used. It is characterized by a granular texture and a hard and brittle rind. It grates readily. It contains not more than 32 percent of moisture, and its solids contain not less than 32 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). It is cured for not less than 10 months.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Sufficient rennet, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, or both, with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the milk, is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. The mass is cut into pieces no larger than wheat kernels, heated, and stirred until the temperature reaches between 115 °F and 125 °F. The curd is allowed to settle and is then removed from the kettle or vat, drained for a short time, placed in hoops, and pressed. The pressed curd is removed and salted in brine, or dry-salted. The cheese is cured in a cool, ventilated room. The rind of the cheese may be coated or colored. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of parmesan cheese may be added during the procedure, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) For the purposes of this section, the word “milk” means cow's milk, which may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or by adding thereto one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk, water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any concentrated skim milk or nonfat dry milk used.
</P>
<P>(2) Such milk may be bleached by the use of benzoyl peroxide or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate; but the weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the milk bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If milk is bleached in this manner, sufficient vitamin A is added to the curd to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(d) Safe and suitable antimycotic agent(s), the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 49014, Oct. 24, 1983; 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.167" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.167   Pasteurized blended cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Pasteurized blended cheese conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for pasteurized process cheese by § 133.169, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) In mixtures of two or more cheeses, cream cheese or neufchatel cheese may be used.
</P>
<P>(b) None of the ingredients prescribed or permitted for pasteurized process cheese by § 133.169 (c) and (d)(1) is used.
</P>
<P>(c) In case of mixtures of two or more cheeses containing cream cheese or neufchatel cheese, the moisture content is not more than the arithmetical average of the maximum moisture contents prescribed by the definitions and standards of identity for the varieties of cheeses blended, for which such limits have been prescribed.
</P>
<P>(d) The word “process” is replaced by the word “blended” in the name prescribed by § 133.169(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.168" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.168   Pasteurized blended cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pasteurized blended cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats, or mixtures of these is the food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for pasteurized blended cheese by § 133.167, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Its moisture content may be 1 percent more, and the milk fat content of its solids may be 1 percent less, than the limits prescribed by § 133.167 for moisture and milk fat in the corresponding pasteurized blended cheese.
</P>
<P>(2) It contains one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried fruit; any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried vegetable; any properly prepared cooked or canned meat.
</P>
<P>(3) When the added fruits, vegetables, or meats contain fat, the method prescribed for the determination of fat by § 133.5(b) is not applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of a pasteurized blended cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats is the name prescribed by § 133.167 for the applicable pasteurized blended cheese, followed by the term “with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name or names of the fruits, vegetables, or meats used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1977; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.169" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.169   Pasteurized process cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Pasteurized process cheese is the food prepared by comminuting and mixing, with the aid of heat, one or more cheeses of the same or two or more varieties, except cream cheese, neufchatel cheese, cottage cheese, lowfat cottage cheese, cottage cheese dry curd, cook cheese, hard grating cheese, semisoft part-skim cheese, part-skim spiced cheese, and skim milk cheese for manufacturing with an emulsifying agent prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section into a homogeneous plastic mass. One or more of the optional ingredients designated in paragraph (d) of this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) During its preparation, pasteurized process cheese is heated for not less than 30 seconds at a temperature of not less than 150 °F. When tested for phosphatase by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c), the phenol equivalent of 0.25 gram of pasteurized process cheese is not more than 3 micrograms.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The moisture content of a pasteurized process cheese made from a single variety of cheese is not more than 1 percent greater than the maximum moisture content prescribed by the definition and standard of identity, if any there be, for the variety of cheese used; but in no case is more than 43 percent, except that the moisture content of pasteurized process washed curd cheese or pasteurized process colby cheese is not more than 40 percent; the moisture content of pasteurized process swiss cheese or pasteurized process gruyere cheese is not more than 44 percent; and the moisture content of pasteurized process limburger cheese is not more than 51 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) The fat content of the solids of a pasteurized process cheese made from a single variety of cheese is not less than the minimum prescribed by the definition and standard of identity, if any there be, for the variety of cheese used, but in no case is less than 47 percent; except that the fat content of the solids of pasteurized process swiss cheese is not less than 43 percent, and the fat content of the solids of pasteurized process gruyere cheese is not less than 45 percent.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The moisture content of a pasteurized process cheese made from two or more varieties of cheese is not more than 1 percent greater than the arithmetical average of the maximum moisture contents prescribed by the definitions and standards of identity, if any there be, for the varieties of cheese used; but in no case is the moisture content more than 43 percent, except that the moisture content of a pasteurized process cheese made from two or more of the varieties cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese is not more than 40 percent, and the moisture content of a mixture of swiss cheese and gruyere cheese is not more than 44 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) The fat content of the solids of a pasteurized process cheese made from two or more varieties of cheese is not less than the arithmetical average of the minimum fat contents prescribed by the definitions and standards of identity, if any there be, for the varieties of cheese used, but in no case is less than 47 percent, except that the fat content of the solids of a pasteurized process gruyere cheese made from a mixture of swiss cheese and gruyere cheese is not less than 45 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) Moisture and fat are determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5(a), (b), and (d).
</P>
<P>(6) The weight of each variety of cheese in a pasteurized process cheese made from two varieties of cheese is not less than 25 percent of the total weight of both, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, or gorgonzola cheese is not less than 10 percent of the total weight of both, and the weight of limburger cheese is not less than 5 percent of the total weight of both. The weight of each variety of cheese in a pasteurized process cheese made from three or more varieties of cheese is not less than 15 percent of the total weight of all, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, or gorgonzola cheese is not less than 5 percent of the total weight of all, and the weight of limburger cheese is not less than 3 percent of the total weight of all. These limits do not apply to the quantity of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese and granular cheese in mixtures which are designated as “American cheese” as prescribed in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section. Such mixtures are considered as one variety of cheese for the purposes of this paragraph (a)(6).
</P>
<P>(7) For the purposes of this section, cheddar cheese for manufacturing, washed curd cheese for manufacturing, colby cheese for manufacturing, granular cheese for manufacturing, brick cheese for manufacturing, muenster cheese for manufacturing, and swiss cheese for manufacturing are considered as cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, brick cheese, muenster cheese, and swiss cheese, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) Pasteurized process cheese may be smoked, or the cheese or cheeses from which it is made may be smoked, before comminuting and mixing, or it may contain substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke.
</P>
<P>(c) The emulsifying agent referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Monosodium phosphate, disodium phosphate, dipotassium phosphate, trisodium phosphate, sodium metaphosphate (sodium hexametaphosphate), sodium acid pyrophosphate, tetrasodium pyrophosphate, sodium aluminum phosphate, sodium citrate, potassium citrate, calcium citrate, sodium tartrate, and sodium potassium tartrate, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such emulsifying agent is not more than 3 percent of the weight of the pasteurized process cheese.
</P>
<P>(d) The optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) An acidifying agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: A vinegar, lactic acid, citric acid, acetic acid, and phosphoric acid, in such quantity that the pH of the pasteurized process cheese is not below 5.3.
</P>
<P>(2) Cream, anhydrous milkfat, dehydrated cream, or any combination of two or more of these, in such quantity that the weight of the fat derived therefrom is less than 5 percent of the weight of the pasteurized process cheese.
</P>
<P>(3) Water.
</P>
<P>(4) Salt.
</P>
<P>(5) Harmless artificial coloring.
</P>
<P>(6) Spices or flavorings, other than any which singly or in combination with other ingredients simulate the flavor of a cheese of any age or variety.
</P>
<P>(7) Pasteurized process cheese in the form of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of not more than 0.2 percent by weight of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, or consisting of not more than 0.3 percent by weight of sodium propionate, calcium propionate, or a combination of sodium propionate and calcium propionate.
</P>
<P>(8) Pasteurized process cheese in the form of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages may contain lecithin as an optional anti-sticking agent in an amount not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(9) Safe and suitable enzyme modified cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of a pasteurized process cheese for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In case it is made from a single variety of cheese, its name is “Pasteurized process ______ cheese”, the blank being filled in with the name of the variety of cheese used.
</P>
<P>(2) In case it is made from two or more varieties of cheese, its name is “Pasteurized process ______ and ______ cheese”, or “Pasteurized process ______ blended with ______ cheese”, or “Pasteurized process blend of ______ and ______ cheese”, the blanks being filled in with the names of the varieties of cheeses used, in order of predominance by weight; except that:
</P>
<P>(i) In case it is made from gruyere cheese and swiss cheese, and the weight of gruyere cheese is not less than 25 percent of the weight of both, it may be designated “Pasteurized process gruyere cheese”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In case it is made of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, or granular cheese or any mixture of two or more of these, it may be designated “Pasteurized process American cheese”; or when cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these is combined with other varieties of cheese in the cheese ingredient, any of such cheeses or such mixture may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<FP>The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. Wherever any word or statement emphasizing the name of any ingredient appears on the label (other than in an ingredient statement as specified in paragraph (g) of this section) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the full name of the food shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such word or statement in type of at least the same size as the type used in such word or statement.
</FP>
<P>(f) The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring, including smoke and substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke, that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice that characterizes the product.
</P>
<P>(g) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.170   Pasteurized process cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless a definition and standard of identity specifically applicable is established by another section of this part, a pasteurized process cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats, or mixtures of these is a food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for pasteurized process cheese by § 133.169, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Its moisture content may be 1 percent more, and the milk fat content of its solids may be 1 percent less than the limits prescribed by § 133.169 for moisture and fat in the corresponding pasteurized process cheese.
</P>
<P>(2) It contains one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried fruit; any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried vegetable; any properly prepared cooked or canned meat.
</P>
<P>(3) When the added fruits, vegetables, or meats contain fat, the method prescribed for the determination of fat by § 133.5(b) is not applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of a pasteurized process cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats is the name prescribed by § 133.169 for the applicable pasteurized process cheese, followed by the term “with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name or names of the fruits, vegetables, or meats used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.171" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.171   Pasteurized process pimento cheese.</HEAD>
<P>Pasteurized process pimento cheese is the food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity for pasteurized process cheese with fruits, vegetables, or meats, and is subject to the requirement for label statement of ingredients, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) Its moisture content is not more than 41 percent, and the fat content of its solids is not less than 49 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) The cheese ingredient is cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese or any mixture of two or more of these in any proportion.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section, cheddar cheese for manufacturing, washed curd cheese for manufacturing, colby cheese for manufacturing, and granular cheese for manufacturing shall be considered as cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese, respectively.
</P>
<P>(d) The only fruit, vegetable, or meat ingredient is pimentos in such quantity that the weight of the solids thereof is not less than 0.2 percent of the weight of the finished pasteurized process pimento cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) The optional ingredients designated in § 133.169(b) and (d)(6) are not used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.173" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.173   Pasteurized process cheese food.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A pasteurized process cheese food is the food prepared by comminuting and mixing, with the aid of heat, one or more of the optional cheese ingredients prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, with one or more of the optional dairy ingredients prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section, into a homogeneous plastic mass. One or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (e) of this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) During its preparation, a pasteurized process cheese food is heated for not less than 30 seconds, at a temperature of not less than 150 °F. When tested for phosphatase by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c), the phenol equivalent of 0.25 gram of pasteurized process cheese food is not more than 3 micrograms.
</P>
<P>(3) The moisture content of a pasteurized process cheese food is not more than 44 percent, and the fat content is not less than 23 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Moisture and fat are determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5(a) and (b), except that in determining moisture the loss in weight which occurs in drying for 5 hours, under the conditions prescribed in such method, is taken as the weight of the moisture.
</P>
<P>(5) The weight of the cheese ingredient prescribed by paragraph (a)(1) of this section constitutes not less than 51 percent of the weight of the finished pasteurized process cheese food.
</P>
<P>(6) The weight of each variety of cheese in a pasteurized process cheese food made with two varieties of cheese is not less than 25 percent of the total weight of both, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, gorgonzola cheese, or limburger cheese is not less than 10 percent of the total weight of both. The weight of each variety of cheese in a pasteurized process cheese food made with three or more varieties of cheese is not less than 15 percent of the total weight of all, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, gorgonzola cheese, or limburger cheese is not less than 5 percent of the total weight of all. These limits do not apply to the quantity of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese in mixtures which are designated as “American cheese” as prescribed in paragraph (h)(5) of this section. Such mixtures are considered as one variety of cheese for the purposes of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(7) For the purposes of this section, cheddar cheese for manufacturing, washed curd cheese for manufacturing, colby cheese for manufacturing, granular cheese for manufacturing, brick cheese for manufacturing, muenster cheese for manufacturing, and swiss cheese for manufacturing are considered as cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, brick cheese, muenster cheese, and swiss cheese, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) Pasteurized process cheese food may be smoked, or the cheese or cheeses from which it is made may be smoked, before comminuting and mixing, or it may contain substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional cheese ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are one or more cheeses of the same or two or more varieties, except cream cheese, neufchatel cheese, cottage cheese, creamed cottage cheese, cook cheese, and skim-milk cheese for manufacturing, and except that hard grating cheese, semisoft part skim cheese, and part-skim spiced cheese are not used alone or in combination with each other as the cheese ingredient.
</P>
<P>(d) The optional dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are cream, milk, skim milk, buttermilk, cheese whey, any of the foregoing from which part of the water has been removed, anhydrous milkfat, dehydrated cream, albumin from cheese whey, and skim milk cheese for manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(e) The other optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) An emulsifying agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Monosodium phosphate, disodium phosphate, dipotassium phosphate, trisodium phosphate, sodium metaphosphate (sodium hexametaphosphate), sodium acid pyrophosphate, tetrasodium pyrophosphate, sodium aluminum phosphate, sodium citrate, potassium citrate, calcium citrate, sodium tartrate, and sodium potassium tartrate, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such emulsifying agent is not more than 3 percent of the weight of the pasteurized process cheese food.
</P>
<P>(2) An acidifying agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: A vinegar, lactic acid, citric acid, acetic acid, and phosphoric acid in such quantity that the pH of the pasteurized process cheese food is not below 5.0.
</P>
<P>(3) Water.
</P>
<P>(4) Salt.
</P>
<P>(5) Harmless artificial coloring.
</P>
<P>(6) Spices or flavorings other than any which singly or in combination with other ingredients simulate the flavor of cheese of any age or variety.
</P>
<P>(7) Pasteurized process cheese food in the form of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of not more than 0.2 percent by weight of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, or consisting of not more than 0.3 percent by weight of sodium propionate, calcium propionate, or a combination of sodium propionate and calcium propionate.
</P>
<P>(8) Pasteurized process cheese food in the form of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages may contain lecithin as an optional anti-sticking agent in an amount not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(9) Safe and suitable enzyme modified cheese.
</P>
<P>(f) The name of the food is “Pasteurized process cheese food”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. Wherever any word or statement emphasizing the name of any ingredient appears on the label (other than in an ingredient statement as specified in paragraph (h) of this section) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the full name of the food shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such word or statement in type of at least the same size as the type used in such word or statement.
</P>
<P>(g) The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring, including smoke and substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke, that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice that characterizes the product.
</P>
<P>(h) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.174" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.174   Pasteurized process cheese food with fruits, vegetables, or meats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pasteurized process cheese food with fruits, vegetables, or meats, or mixtures of these is the food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for pasteurized process cheese food by § 133.173, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Its milk fat content is not less than 22 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) It contains one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried fruit; any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried vegetable; any properly prepared cooked or canned meat.
</P>
<P>(3) When the added fruits, vegetables, or meats contain fat, the method prescribed for the determination of fat by § 133.5(b) is not applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of a pasteurized process cheese food with fruits, vegetables, or meats is “Pasteurized process cheese food with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name or names of the fruits, vegetables, or meats used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(c) If the only vegetable ingredient is pimento, and no meat or fruit ingredient is used, the weight of the solids of such pimentos is not less than 0.2 percent of the weight of the finished food. The name of this food is “Pimento pasteurized process cheese food” or “Pasteurized process pimento cheese food”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.175" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.175   Pasteurized cheese spread.</HEAD>
<P>Pasteurized cheese spread is the food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for pasteurized process cheese spread by § 133.179, except that no emulsifying agent as prescribed by § 133.179(e) is used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.176" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.176   Pasteurized cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pasteurized cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats, or mixtures of these is a food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for pasteurized cheese spread by § 133.175, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) It contains one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried fruit; any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried vegetable; any properly prepared cooked or canned meat.
</P>
<P>(2) When the added fruits, vegetables, or meats contain fat, the method prescribed for the determination of fat by § 133.5(b) is not applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of a pasteurized cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats is “Pasteurized cheese spread with ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the fruits, vegetables, or meats used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.178" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.178   Pasteurized neufchatel cheese spread with other foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Pasteurized neufchatel cheese spread with other foods is the class of foods each of which is prepared by mixing, with the aid of heat, neufchatel cheese with one or a mixture of two or more properly prepared foods (except other cheeses), such as fresh, cooked, canned, or dried fruits or vegetables; cooked or canned meats; relishes, pickles or other foods suitable for blending with neufchatel cheese. It may contain one or any mixture of two or more of the optional ingredients named in paragraph (b) of this section. The amount of the added food or foods must be sufficient to so differentiate the blend that it does not simulate neufchatel cheese. It is spreadable at 70 °F.
</P>
<P>(2) During its preparation the mixture is heated for not less than 30 seconds at a temperature of not less than 150 °F. When tested for phosphatase by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c), the phenol equivalent of 0.25 gram of such food is not more than 3 micrograms.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) No water other than that contained in the ingredients used is added to this food, but the moisture content in no case is more than 65 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) The milk fat is not less than 20 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) One or any mixture of two or more of the following: Gum karaya, gum tragacanth, carob bean gum, gelatin, algin (sodium alginate), propylene glycol alginate, guar gum, sodium carboxymethylcellulose (cellulose gum), carrageenan, oat gum, or xanthan gum. The total quantity of any such substances, including that contained in the neufchatel cheese, is not more than 0.8 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(ii) When one or more of the optional ingredients in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section are used, dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate complying with the requirements of § 172.810 of this chapter may be used in a quantity not in excess of 0.5 percent by weight of such ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) Artificial coloring, unless such addition conceals damage or inferiority or makes the finished food appear better or of greater value than it is.
</P>
<P>(3) An acidifying agent consisting of one or a mixture of two or more of the following: A vinegar, acetic acid, lactic acid, citric acid, phosphoric acid.
</P>
<P>(4) A sweetening agent consisting of one or a mixture of two or more of the following: Sugar, dextrose, corn sirup, corn sirup solids, glucose sirup, glucose sirup solids, maltose, malt sirup, hydrolyzed lactose.
</P>
<P>(5) Cream, milk, skim milk, buttermilk, cheese whey, any of the foregoing from which part of the water has been removed, anhydrous milkfat, dehydrated cream, and albumin from cheese whey.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “pasteurized Neufchatel cheese spread with ______” or “pasteurized Neufchatel cheese spread and ______”, the blank being filled in with the common names of the foods added, in order of predominance by weight. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. Wherever any word or statement emphasizing the name of any ingredient appears on the label (other than in an ingredient statement as specified in paragraph (d) of this section) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the full name of the food shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such word or statement in type of at least the same size as the type used in such word or statement.
</P>
<P>(d) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2894, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.179" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.179   Pasteurized process cheese spread.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Pasteurized process cheese spread is the food prepared by comminuting and mixing, with the aid of heat, one or more of the optional cheese ingredients prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, with or without one or more of the optional dairy ingredients prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section, with one or more of the emulsifying agents prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section, and with or without one or more of the optional ingredients prescribed by paragraph (f) of this section, into a homogeneous plastic mass, which is spreadable at 70 °F.
</P>
<P>(2) During its preparation, a pasteurized process cheese spread is heated for not less than 30 seconds at a temperature of not less than 150 °F. When tested for phosphatase by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c), the phenol equivalent of 0.25 gram of pasteurized process cheese spread is not more than 3 micrograms.
</P>
<P>(3) The moisture content of a pasteurized process cheese spread is more than 44 percent but not more than 60 percent, and the milk fat content is not less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Moisture and fat are determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5(a) and (b), except that in determining moisture the loss in weight which occurs in drying for 5 hours, under the conditions prescribed in such method, is taken as the weight of the moisture.
</P>
<P>(5) The weight of the cheese ingredient referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section constitutes not less than 51 percent of the weight of the pasteurized process cheese spread.
</P>
<P>(6) The weight of each variety of cheese in a pasteurized process cheese spread made with two varieties of cheese is not less than 25 percent of the total weight of both, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, gorgonzola cheese, or limburger cheese is not less than 10 percent of the total weight of both. The weight of each variety of cheese in a pasteurized process cheese spread made with three or more varieties of cheese is not less than 15 percent of the total weight of all, except that the weight of blue cheese, nuworld cheese, roquefort cheese, gorgonzola cheese, or limburger cheese is not less than 5 percent of the total weight of all. These limits do not apply to the quantity of cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, and granular cheese in mixtures which are designated as “American cheese” as prescribed in paragraph (i)(5) of this section. Such mixtures are considered as one variety of cheese for the purposes of this paragraph (a)(6).
</P>
<P>(7) For the purposes of this section, cheddar cheese for manufacturing, washed curd cheese for manufacturing, colby cheese for manufacturing, granular cheese for manufacturing, brick cheese for manufacturing, muenster cheese for manufacturing, and swiss cheese for manufacturing are considered as cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, brick cheese, muenster cheese, and swiss cheese, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) Pasteurized process cheese spread may be smoked, or the cheese or cheeses from which it is made may be smoked, before comminuting and mixing, or it may contain substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional cheese ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are one or more cheeses of the same or two or more varieties, except that skim-milk cheese for manufacturing may not be used, and except that cream cheese, neufchatel cheese, cottage cheese, creamed cottage cheese, cook cheese, hard grating cheese, semisoft part-skim cheese, and part-skim spiced cheese are not used, alone or in combination with each other, as the cheese ingredient.
</P>
<P>(d) The optional dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are cream, milk, skim milk, buttermilk, cheese whey, any of the foregoing from which part of the water has been removed, anhydrous milkfat, dehydrated cream, albumin from cheese whey, and skim milk cheese for manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(e) The emulsifying agents prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section are one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Monosodium phosphate, disodium phosphate, dipotassium phosphate, trisodium phosphate, sodium metaphosphate (sodium hexametaphosphate), sodium acid pyrophosphate, tetrasodium pyrophosphate, sodium aluminum phosphate, sodium citrate, potassium citrate, calcium citrate, sodium tartrate, and sodium potassium tartrate, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such emulsifying agent is not more than 3 percent of the weight of the pasteurized process cheese spread.
</P>
<P>(f) The other optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) One or any mixture of two or more of the following: Carob bean gum, gum karaya, gum tragacanth, guar gum, gelatin, sodium carboxymethylcellulose (cellulose gum), carrageenan, oat gum, algin (sodium alginate), propylene glycol alginate, or xanthan gum. The total weight of such substances is not more than 0.8 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(ii) When one or more of the optional ingredients in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section are used, dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate complying with the requirements of § 172.810 of this chapter may be used in a quantity not in excess of 0.5 percent by weight of such ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) An acidifying agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: A vinegar, lactic acid, citric acid, acetic acid, and phosphoric acid, in such quantity that the pH of the pasteurized process cheese spread is not below 4.0.
</P>
<P>(3) A sweetening agent consisting of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Sugar, dextrose, corn sugar, corn sirup, corn sirup solids, glucose sirup, glucose sirup solids, maltose, malt sirup, and hydrolyzed lactose, in a quantity necessary for seasoning.
</P>
<P>(4) Water.
</P>
<P>(5) Salt.
</P>
<P>(6) Harmless artificial coloring.
</P>
<P>(7) Spices or flavorings other than any which singly or in combination with other ingredients simulates the flavor of a cheese of any age or variety.
</P>
<P>(8) Pasteurized process cheese spread in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, in an amount not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight, calculated as sorbic acid or consisting of not more than 0.3 percent by weight of sodium propionate, calcium propionate, or a combination of sodium propionate and calcium propionate.
</P>
<P>(9) Pasteurized process cheese spread in consumer-sized packages may contain lecithin as an optional anti-sticking agent in an amount not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(10) Safe and suitable enzyme modified cheese.
</P>
<P>(11) Nisin preparation in an amount which results in not more than 250 parts per million nisin in the food.
</P>
<P>(g) The name of the food is “pasteurized process cheese spread”. The full name of the food shall appear on the principal display panel of the label in type of uniform size, style, and color. Wherever any word or statement emphasizing the name of any ingredient appears on the label (other than in an ingredient statement as specified in paragraph (i) of this section) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the full name of the food shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such word or statement in type of at least the same size as the type used in such word or statement. 
</P>
<P>(h) The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring, including smoke and substances prepared by condensing or precipitating wood smoke, that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice that characterizes the product.
</P>
<P>(i) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that cheddar cheese, washed curd cheese, colby cheese, granular cheese, or any mixture of two or more of these may be designated as “American cheese”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 6121, Feb. 8, 1989; 54 FR 22741, May 26, 1989; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.180   Pasteurized process cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pasteurized process cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats, or mixtures of these is a food which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for pasteurized process cheese spread by § 133.179, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) It contains one or any mixture of two or more of the following: Any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried fruit; any properly prepared cooked, canned, or dried vegetable; any properly prepared cooked or canned meat.
</P>
<P>(2) When the added fruits, vegetables, or meats contain fat, the method prescribed for the determination of fat by § 133.5(b) is not applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of a pasteurized process cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats is “Pasteurized process cheese spread with ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the fruits, vegetables, or meats used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.181" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.181   Provolone cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Provolone, a pasta filata or stretched curd-type cheese, is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other method which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It has a stringy texture. The minimum milkfat content is 45 percent by weight of the solids, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5 and the maximum moisture content is 45 percent by weight. If the dairy ingredients used are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of provolone cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be bleached, warmed, and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut, stirred, and heated so as to promote and regulate the separation of whey from the curd. The whey is drained off, and the curd is matted and cut, immersed in hot water, and kneaded and stretched until it is smooth and free from lumps. Antimycotics may be added to the curd during the kneading and stretching process. Then it is cut and molded. During the molding the curd is kept sufficiently warm to cause proper sealing of the surface. The molded curd is then firmed by immersion in cold water, salted in brine, and dried. It is given some additional curing. Provolone cheese may be smoked, and one or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Blue or green color in an amount to neutralize the natural yellow color of the curd.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) by weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Safe and suitable antimycotic agent(s), the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the cheese during the kneading and stretching process and/or applied to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(v) Benzoyl peroxide or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate used to bleach the dairy ingredients. The weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the milk being bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If milk is bleached in this manner, vitamin A is added to the curd in such quantity as to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> (1) The name of the food is “provolone cheese”. The name of the food may include the common name of the shape of the cheese, such as “salami provolone”.
</P>
<P>(2) One of the following terms, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the name of the food, shall accompany the name of the food wherever it appears on the principal display panel or panels:
</P>
<P>(i) “Smoked” if the food has been smoked.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Not smoked” if the food has not been smoked.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2745, Jan. 21, 1983, as amended at 48 FR 49014, Oct. 24, 1983; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.182" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.182   Soft ripened cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cheeses for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are soft ripened cheeses for which specifically applicable definitions and standards of identity are not prescribed by other sections of this part. They are made from milk and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. Their solids contain not less than 50 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5(a), (b), and (d). If the milk used is not pasteurized, the cheese so made is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for not less than 60 days.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria or other harmless flavor-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Sufficient rennet, rennet paste, extract of rennet paste, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, singly or in any combination (with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent, calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride, of the weight of the milk) is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. After coagulation the mass is so treated as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. Such treatment may include one or more of the following: Cutting, stirring, heating, dilution with water or brine. The whey, or part of it, is drained off, and the curd is collected and shaped. It may be placed in forms, and may be pressed. Harmless flavor-producing microorganisms may be added. It is cured under conditions suitable for development of biological curing agents on the surface of the cheese, and the curing is conducted so that the cheese cures from the surface toward the center. Salt may be added during the procedure. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of soft ripened cheeses may be added, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The word “milk” means cow's milk or goat's milk or sheep's milk or mixtures of two or all of these. Such milk may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or (in the case of cow's milk) by adding one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk; (in the case of goat's milk) the corresponding products from goat's milk; (in the case of sheep's milk) the corresponding products from sheep's milk; water, in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any such concentrated or dried products used.
</P>
<P>(2) Milk shall be deemed to have been pasteurized if it has been held at a temperature of not less than 143 °F for a period of not less than 30 minutes, or for a time and at a temperature equivalent thereto in phosphatase destruction.
</P>
<P>(d) The name of each soft ripened cheese for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Soft ripened cheese”, preceded or followed by:
</P>
<P>(1) The specific common or usual name of such soft ripened cheese, if any such name has become generally recognized therefor; or
</P>
<P>(2) If no such specific common or usual name has become generally recognized therefor, an arbitrary or fanciful name which is not false or misleading in any particular.
</P>
<P>(e) When milk other than cow's milk is used in whole or in part, the name of the cheese includes the statement “made from ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the milk used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(f) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.183" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.183   Romano cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Romano cheese is the food prepared from cow's milk or sheep's milk or goat's milk or mixtures of two or all of these and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, or by another procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties as the cheese produced when the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section is used. It grates readily, and has a granular texture and a hard and brittle rind. It contains not more than 34 percent of moisture, and its solids contain not less than 38 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5(a), (b), and (d). It is cured for not less than 5 months.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria present in such milk or added thereto. Harmless artificial blue or green coloring in a quantity which neutralizes any natural yellow coloring in the curd may be added. Rennet, rennet paste, extract of rennet paste, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, singly or in any combination (with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent, calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride, of the weight of the milk) is added to set the milk to be a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into particles no larger than corn kernels, stirred, and heated to a temperature of about 120 °F. The curd is allowed to settle to the bottom of the kettle or vat, and is then removed and drained for a short time, packed in forms or hoops, and pressed. The pressed curd is salted by immersing in brine for about 24 hours and is then removed from the brine and the surface allowed to dry. It is then alternately rubbed with salt and washed at intervals. It may be perforated with needles. It is finally drycured. During curing it is turned and scraped. The surface may be rubbed with vegetable oil. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of romano cheese may be added during the procedure, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) For the purposes of this section, the word “milk” means cow's milk or goat's milk or sheep's milk or mixtures of two or all of these. Such milk may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or (in the case of cow's milk) by adding one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk; (in the case of goat's milk) the corresponding products from goat's milk; (in the case of sheep's milk) the corresponding products from sheep's milk; water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any such concentrated or dried products used.
</P>
<P>(2) Such milk may be bleached by the use of benzoyl peroxide or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate; but the weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the milk bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium, sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If milk is bleached in this manner, sufficient vitamin A is added to the curd to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(d) Safe and suitable antimycotic agent(s), the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed current good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(e) When romano cheese is made solely from cow's milk, the name of such cheese is “Romano cheese made from cow's milk”, and may be preceded by the word “Vaccino” (or “Vacchino”); when made solely from sheep's milk, the name is “Romano cheese made from sheep's milk”, and may be preceded by the word “Pecorino”; when made solely from goat's milk, the name is “Romano cheese made from goat's milk”, and may be preceded by the word “Caprino”; and when a mixture of two or all of the milks specified in this section is used, the name of the cheese is “Romano cheese made from ______”, the blank being filled in with the names of the milks used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) When milk other than cow's milk is used, in whole or in part, the common or usual name of each such milk ingredient shall be declared in order of predominance by weight; and
</P>
<P>(2) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 49014, Oct. 24, 1983; 49 FR 10095, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.184" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.184   Roquefort cheese, sheep's milk blue-mold, and blue-mold cheese from sheep's milk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Roquefort cheese, sheep's milk blue-mold cheese, blue-mold cheese from sheep's milk, is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It is characterized by the presence of bluish-green mold, <I>Penicillium roquefortii,</I> throughout the cheese. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 45 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized. Roquefort cheese is at least 60 days old.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into smaller portions and allowed to stand for a time. The mixed curd and whey is placed into forms permitting further drainage. While being placed in forms, spores of the mold <I>Penicillium roquefortii</I> are added. The forms are turned several times during drainage. When sufficiently drained, the shaped curd is removed from the forms and salted with dry salt or brine. Perforations are then made in the shaped curd and it is held at a temperature of approximately 50 °F at 90 to 95 percent relative humidity, until the characteristic mold growth has developed. During storage, the surface of the cheese may be scraped to remove surface growth of undesirable microorganisms. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Forms of milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, of sheep origin, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “roquefort cheese”, or alternatively, “sheep's milk blue-mold cheese” or “blue-mold cheese from sheep's milk.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat from sheep's milk and nonfat sheep's milk” or “nonfat sheep's milk and milkfat from sheep's milk”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32058, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.185" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.185   Samsoe cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Samsoe cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It has a small amount of eye formation of approximately uniform size of about five-sixteenths inch (8 millimeters). The minimum milkfat content is 45 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 41 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized. Samsoe cheese is cured at not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of samsoe cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. After coagulation the mass is cut into small cube-shaped pieces with sides approximately three-eighths inch (1 centimeter). The mass is stirred and heated to about 102 °F, and so handled by further stirring, heating, dilution with water, and salting as to promote and regulate the separation of curd and whey. When the desired curd is obtained, it is transferred to forms permitting drainage of whey. During drainage, the curd is pressed. After drainage, the curd is removed from the forms and is further salted by immersing in a concentrated salt solution for about 3 days. The curd is then cured at a temperature of from 60° to 70 °F for 3 to 5 weeks to obtain the desired eye formation. Further curing is conducted at a lower temperature. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) by weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, applied to the surface of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “samsoe cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2745, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.186" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.186   Sap sago cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Sap sago cheese is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The cheese is pale green in color and has the shape of a truncated cone. The maximum moisture content is 38 percent by weight, as determined by the method described in § 133.5. Sap sago cheese is not less than 5 months old.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is allowed to become sour, and is heated to boiling temperature, with stirring. Sufficient sour whey is added to precipitate the casein. The curd is removed, spread out in boxes, and pressed, and while under pressure is allowed to drain and ferment. It is ripened for not less than 5 weeks. The ripened curd is dried and ground; salt and dried clover of the species <I>Melilotus coerulea</I> are added. The mixture is shaped into truncated cones and ripened. The optional ingredient in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be added during this procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Nonfat milk, as defined in § 133.3.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> Buttermilk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonmenclature.</I> The name of the food is “sap sago cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32058, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.187" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.187   Semisoft cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cheeses for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are semisoft cheeses for which specifically applicable definitions and standards of identity are not prescribed by other sections of this part. They are made from milk and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. They contain more than 39 percent, but not more than 50 percent, of moisture, and their solids contain not less than 50 percent of milkfat, as determined by the methods prescribed in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). If the milk used is not pasteurized, the cheese so made is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for not less than 60 days.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria or other harmless flavor-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Sufficient rennet, rennet paste, extract of rennet paste, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, singly or in any combination (with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent, calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride, of the weight of the milk) is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. After coagulation the mass is so treated as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. Such treatment may include one or more of the following: cutting, stirring, heating, dilution with water or brine. The whey, or part of it, is drained off, and the curd is collected and shaped. It may be placed in forms, and may be pressed. Harmless flavor-producing microorganisms may be added. It may be cured in a manner to promote the growth of biological curing agents. Salt may be added during the procedure. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of semisoft cheese may be added, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The word “milk” means cow's milk or goat's milk or sheep's milk or mixtures of two or all of these. Such milk may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom, or (in the case of cow's milk) by adding one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk; (in the case of goat's milk) the corresponding products from goat's milk; (in the case of sheep's milk) the corresponding products from sheep's milk; water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any concentrated or dried products used.
</P>
<P>(2) Milk shall be deemed to have been pasteurized if it has been held at a temperature of not less than 143 °F for a period of not less than 30 minutes, or for a time and at a temperature equivalent thereto in phosphatase destruction. A semisoft cheese shall be deemed not to have been made from pasteurized milk if 0.25 gram shows a phenol equivalent of more than 5 micrograms when tested by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Semisoft cheeses in the form of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, in an amount not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight, calculated as sorbic acid.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each semisoft cheese for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Semisoft cheese”, preceded or followed by:
</P>
<P>(1) The specific common or usual name of such semisoft cheese, if any such name has become generally recognized therefor; or
</P>
<P>(2) If no such specific common or usual name has become generally recognized therefor, an arbitrary or fanciful name which is not false or misleading in any particular.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) When milk other than cow's milk is used in whole or in part, the name of the cheese includes the statement “made from ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the milk used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(2) If semisoft cheese in sliced or cut form contains an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, the label shall bear the statement “______ added to retard mold growth” or “______ added as a preservative”, the blank being filled in with the common name or names of the mold-inhibiting ingredient or ingredients used.
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words and statements prescribed by this section, showing the optional ingredient used, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10096, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.188" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.188   Semisoft part-skim cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cheeses for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are semisoft part-skim cheeses for which specifically applicable definitions and standards of identity are not prescribed by other sections of this part. They are made from partly skimmed milk and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. They contain not more than 50 percent of moisture, and their solids contain not less than 45 percent, but less than 50 percent, of milkfat, as determined by the methods set forth in § 133.5 (a), (b), and (d). If the milk used is not pasteurized, the cheese so made is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F, for not less than 60 days.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk, which may be pasteurized or clarified or both, and which may be warmed, is subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria or other harmless flavor-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Sufficient rennet, rennet paste, extract of rennet paste, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation singly or in any combination (with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent, calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride, of the weight of the milk) is added to set the milk to a semisolid mass. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. After coagulation the mass is so treated as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. Such treatment may include one or more of the following: Cutting, stirring, heating, dilution with water or brine. The whey, or part of it, is drained off, and the curd is collected and shaped. It may be placed in forms, and it may be pressed. Harmless flavor-producing microorganisms may be added. It may be cured in a manner to promote the growth of biological curing agents. Salt may be added during the procedure. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of semisoft part-skim cheese may be added in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The word “milk” means cow's milk or goat's milk or sheep's milk or mixtures of two or all of these. Such milk may be adjusted by separating part of the fat therefrom or (in the case of cow's milk) by adding one or more of the following: Cream, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, nonfat dry milk; (in the case of goat's milk) the corresponding products from goat's milk; (in the case of sheep's milk) the corresponding products from sheep's milk; water in a quantity sufficient to reconstitute any such concentrated or dried products used.
</P>
<P>(2) Milk shall be deemed to have been pasteurized if it has been held at a temperature of not less than 143 °F for a period of not less than 30 minutes, or for a time and at a temperature equivalent thereto in phosphatase destruction. A semisoft part-skim cheese shall be deemed not to have been made from pasteurized milk if 0.25 gram shows a phenol equivalent of more than 5 micrograms when tested by the method prescribed in § 133.5(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Semisoft part-skim cheeses in the form of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages may contain an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient consisting of sorbic acid, potassium sorbate, sodium sorbate, or any combination of two or more of these, in an amount not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight, calculated as sorbic acid.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each semisoft part-skim cheese for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Semisoft part-skim cheese,” preceded or followed by:
</P>
<P>(1) The specific common or usual name of such semisoft cheese, if any such name has become generally recognized therefor; or
</P>
<P>(2) If no such specific common or usual name has become generally recognized therefor, an arbitrary or fanciful name which is not false or misleading in any particular.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) When milk other than cow's milk is used in whole or in part, the name of the cheese includes the statement “made from ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the milk used, in order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(2) If semi-soft part-skim cheese in sliced or cut form contains an optional mold-inhibiting ingredient as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, the label shall bear the statement “______ added to retard mold growth” or “______ added as a preservative”, the blank being filled in with the common name or names of the mold-inhibiting ingredient or ingredients used.
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words and statements prescribed by this section, showing the optional ingredient used, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(g) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 19, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10096, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.189" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.189   Skim milk cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Skim milk cheese for manufacturing is the food prepared from skim milk and other ingredients specified in this section, by the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, or by another procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties as the cheese produced when the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section is used. It contains not more than 50 percent of moisture, as determined by the method prescribed in § 133.5 (a). It is coated with blue-colored paraffin or other tightly adhering coating, colored blue.
</P>
<P>(b) Skim milk or the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section, which may be pasteurized, and which may be warmed, are subjected to the action of harmless lactic-acid-producing bacteria, present in such milk or added thereto. Harmless artificial coloring may be added. Sufficient rennet, or other safe and suitable milk-clotting enzyme that produces equivalent curd formation, or both, with or without purified calcium chloride in a quantity not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the skim milk, is added to set the skim milk to a semisolid mass. The mass is so cut, stirred, and heated with continued stirring, as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. The whey is drained off, and the curd is matted into a cohesive mass. Proteins from the whey may be incorporated. The mass is cut into slabs which are so piled and handled as to promote the drainage of whey and the development of acidity. The slabs are then cut into pieces, which may be rinsed by pouring or sprinkling water over them, with free and continuous drainage; but the duration of such rinsing is so limited that only the whey on the surface of such pieces is removed. The curd is salted, stirred, further drained, and pressed into forms. A harmless preparation of enzymes of animal or plant origin capable of aiding in the curing or development of flavor of skim milk cheese for manufacturing may be added during the procedure, in such quantity that the weight of the solids of such preparation is not more than 0.1 percent of the weight of the milk used.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (b) of this section are: Skim milk or concentrated skim milk or nonfat dry milk or a mixture of any two or more of these, with water in a quantity not in excess of that sufficient to reconstitute any concentrated skim milk or nonfat dry milk used.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purposes of this section, “skim milk” means cow's milk from which the milk fat has been separated.
</P>
<P>(e) Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10096, Mar. 19, 1984; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.190" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.190   Spiced cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Spiced cheeses are cheeses for which specifically applicable definitions and standards of identity are not prescribed by other sections of this part. The food is prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. The minimum milkfat content is 50 percent by weight of the solids, as determined by the method described in § 133.5. The food contains spices, in a minimum amount of 0.015 ounce per pound of cheese, and may contain spice oils. If the dairy ingredients are not pasteurized, the cheese is cured at a temperature of not less than 35 °F for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(2) The phenol equivalent of 0.25 gram of spiced cheese is not more than 3 micrograms, as determined by the method described in § 133.5. 
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a harmless lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is divided into smaller portions and so handled by stirring, heating, and diluting with water or salt brine as to promote and regulate the separation of whey and curd. The whey is drained off. The curd is removed and may be further drained. The curd is then shaped into forms, and may be pressed. At some time during the procedure, spices are added so as to be evenly distributed throughout the finished cheese. One or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, or corresponding products of goat or sheep origin, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) of the weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Salt.
</P>
<P>(iv) Spice oils which do not, alone or in combination with other ingredients, simulate the flavor of cheese of any age or variety.
</P>
<P>(v) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(vi) Antimycotic agents, applied to the surface of slices or cuts in consumer-sized packages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “spiced cheese”. The following terms shall accompany the name of the food, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The specific common or usual name of the spiced cheese, if any such name has become generally recognized; or
</P>
<P>(2) An arbitrary or fanciful name that is not false or misleading in any particular.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, or “milkfat from goat's milk and nonfat goat's milk”, etc., as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32059, Aug. 4, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.191" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.191   Part-skim spiced cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>Part-skim spiced cheeses conform to the definition and standard of identity, and are subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for spiced cheeses by § 133.190, except that their solids contain less than 50 percent, but not less than 20 percent, of milkfat.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.193" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.193   Spiced, flavored standardized cheeses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided for herein and in applicable sections in this part, a spiced or flavored standardized cheese conforms to the applicable definitions, standard of identity and requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for that specific natural cheese variety promulgated pursuant to section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. In addition a spiced and/or flavored standardized cheese shall contain one or more safe and suitable spices and/or flavorings, in such proportions as are reasonably required to accomplish their intended effect: <I>Provided,</I> That, no combination of ingredients shall be used to simulate the flavor of cheese of any age or variety.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of a spiced or flavored standardized cheese shall include in addition to the varietal name of the natural cheese, a declaration of any flavor and/or spice that characterizes the food, in the manner prescribed in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14366, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.195" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.195   Swiss and emmentaler cheese.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Swiss cheese, emmentaler cheese, is the food prepared by the procedure set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or by any other procedure which produces a finished cheese having the same physical and chemical properties. It has holes or eyes developed throughout the cheese. The minimum milkfat content is 43 percent by weight of the solids and the maximum moisture content is 41 percent by weight, as determined by the methods described in § 133.5. The dairy ingredients used may be pasteurized. Swiss cheese is at least 60 days old.
</P>
<P>(2) If pasteurized dairy ingredients are used, the phenol equivalent value of 0.25 gram of swiss cheese is not more than 3 micrograms as determined by the method described in § 133.5.
</P>
<P>(3) One or more of the dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be bleached, warmed, or treated with hydrogen peroxide/catalase, and is subjected to the action of lactic acid-producing and propionic acid-producing bacterial cultures. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into particles similar in size to wheat kernels. For about 30 minutes the particles are alternately stirred and allowed to settle. The temperature is raised to about 126 °F. Stirring is continued until the curd becomes firm. The acidity of the whey at this point, calculated as lactic acid, does not exceed 0.13 percent. The curd is transferred to hoops or forms and pressed until the desired shape and firmness are obtained. The cheese is then salted by immersing it in a saturated salt solution for about 3 days. It is then held at a temperature of about 50° to 60 °F. for a period of 5 to 10 days, after which it is held at a temperature of about 75 °F. until it is approximately 30 days old, or until the so-called eyes form. Salt, or a solution of salt in water, is added to the surface of the cheese at some time during the curing process. The cheese is then stored at a lower temperature for further curing. One or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be added during the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dairy ingredients.</I> Milk, nonfat milk, or cream, as defined in § 133.3, used alone or in combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clotting enzymes.</I> Rennet and/or other clotting enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> (i) Coloring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium chloride in an amount not more than 0.02 percent (calculated as anhydrous calcium chloride) by weight of the dairy ingredients, used as a coagulation aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin, used in curing or flavor development.
</P>
<P>(iv) Antimycotic agents, the cumulative levels of which shall not exceed good manufacturing practice, may be added to the surface of the cheese.
</P>
<P>(v) Benzoyl peroxide or a mixture of benzoyl peroxide with potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate used to bleach the dairy ingredients. The weight of the benzoyl peroxide is not more than 0.002 percent of the weight of the milk being bleached, and the weight of the potassium alum, calcium sulfate, and magnesium carbonate, singly or combined, is not more than six times the weight of the benzoyl peroxide used. If milk is bleached in this manner, vitamin A is added to the curd in such quantity as to compensate for the vitamin A or its precursors destroyed in the bleaching process, and artificial coloring is not used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Hydrogen peroxide, followed by a sufficient quantity of catalase preparation to eliminate the hydrogen peroxide. The weight of the hydrogen peroxide shall not exceed 0.05 percent of the weight of the milk and the weight of the catalase shall not exceed 20 parts per million of the weight of the milk treated. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “swiss cheese”, or alternatively, “emmentaler cheese”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Enzymes of animal, plant, or microbial origin may be declared as “enzymes”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dairy ingredients may be declared, in descending order of predominance, by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” or “nonfat milk and milkfat”, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2746, Jan. 21, 1983; 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 55 FR 6795, Feb. 27, 1990; 58 FR 2895, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 133.196" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.25.2.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 133.196   Swiss cheese for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>Swiss cheese for manufacturing conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for swiss cheese by § 133.195, except that the holes, or eyes, have not developed throughout the entire cheese.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6795, Feb. 27, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 135—FROZEN DESSERTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 135.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 135.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, a pasteurized mix is one in which every particle of the mix has been heated in properly operated equipment to one of the temperatures specified in the table in this section and held continuously at or above that temperature for the specified time (or other time/temperature relationship which has been demonstrated to be equivalent thereto in microbial destruction):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">155 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 min.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 sec.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 19132, Apr. 12, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Frozen Desserts</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 135.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 135.110   Ice cream and frozen custard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Ice cream is a food produced by freezing, while stirring, a pasteurized mix consisting of one or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and may contain one or more of the optional caseinates specified in paragraph (c) of this section subject to the conditions hereinafter set forth, one or more of the optional hydrolyzed milk proteins as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section subject to the conditions hereinafter set forth, and other safe and suitable nonmilk-derived ingredients; and excluding other food fats, except such as are natural components of flavoring ingredients used or are added in incidental amounts to accomplish specific functions. Ice cream is sweetened with safe and suitable sweeteners and may be characterized by the addition of flavoring ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) Ice cream contains not less than 1.6 pounds of total solids to the gallon, and weighs not less than 4.5 pounds to the gallon. Ice cream contains not less than 10 percent milkfat, nor less than 10 percent nonfat milk solids, except that when it contains milkfat at 1 percent increments above the 10 percent minimum, it may contain the following milkfat-to-nonfat milk solids levels:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent milkfat
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum percent nonfat milk solids
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Except that when one or more bulky flavors are used, the weights of milkfat and total milk solids are not less than 10 percent and 20 percent, respectively, of the remainder obtained by subtracting the weight of the bulky flavors from the weight of the finished food; but in no case is the weight of milkfat or total milk solids less than 8 percent and 16 percent, respectively, of the weight of the finished food. Except in the case of frozen custard, ice cream contains less than 1.4 percent egg yolk solids by weight of the food, exclusive of the weight of any bulky flavoring ingredients used. Frozen custard shall contain 1.4 percent egg yolk solids by weight of the finished food: <I>Provided, however,</I> That when bulky flavors are added the egg yolk solids content of frozen custard may be reduced in proportion to the amount by weight of the bulky flavors added, but in no case is the content of egg yolk solids in the finished food less than 1.12 percent. A product containing egg yolk solids in excess of 1.4 percent, the maximum set forth in this paragraph for ice cream, may be marketed if labeled as specified by paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</FP>
<P>(3) When calculating the minimum amount of milkfat and nonfat milk solids required in the finished food, the solids of chocolate or cocoa used shall be considered a bulky flavoring ingredient. In order to make allowance for additional sweetening ingredients needed when certain bulky ingredients are used, the weight of chocolate or cocoa solids used may be multiplied by 2.5; the weight of fruit or nuts used may be multiplied by 1.4; and the weight of partially or wholly dried fruits or fruit juices may be multiplied by appropriate factors to obtain the original weights before drying and this weight may be multiplied by 1.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional dairy ingredients.</I> The optional dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are: Cream; dried cream; plastic cream (sometimes known as concentrated milkfat); butter; butter oil; milk; concentrated milk; evaporated milk; sweetened condensed milk; superheated condensed milk; dried milk; skim milk; concentrated skim milk; evaporated skim milk; condensed skim milk; superheated condensed skim milk; sweetened condensed skim milk; sweetened condensed part-skim milk; nonfat dry milk; sweet cream buttermilk; condensed sweet cream buttermilk; dried sweet cream buttermilk; skim milk, that may be concentrated, and from which part or all of the lactose has been removed by a safe and suitable procedure; skim milk in concentrated or dried form that has been modified by treating the concentrated skim milk with calcium hydroxide and disodium phosphate; and whey and those modified whey products (e.g., reduced lactose whey, reduced minerals whey, and whey protein concentrate) that have been determined by FDA to be generally recognized as safe (GRAS) for use in this type of food. Water may be added, or water may be evaporated from the mix. The sweet cream buttermilk and the concentrated sweet cream buttermilk or dried sweet cream buttermilk, when adjusted with water to a total solids content of 8.5 percent, has a titratable acidity of not more than 0.17 percent, calculated as lactic acid. The term “milk” as used in this section means cow's milk. Any whey and modified whey products used contribute, singly or in combination, not more than 25 percent by weight of the total nonfat milk solids content of the finished food. The modified skim milk, when adjusted with water to a total solids content of 9 percent, is substantially free of lactic acid as determined by titration with 0.1<I>N</I> NaOH, and it has a Ph value in the range of 8.0 to 8.3.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional caseinates.</I> The optional caseinates referred to in paragraph (a) of this section that may be added to ice cream mix containing not less than 20 percent total milk solids are: Casein prepared by precipitation with gums, ammonium caseinate, calcium caseinate, potassium caseinate, and sodium caseinate. Caseinate may be added in liquid or dry form, but must be free of excess alkali.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional hydrolyzed milk proteins.</I> One or more of the optional hydrolyzed milk proteins referred to in paragraph (a) of this section may be added as stabilizers at a level not to exceed 3 percent by weight of ice cream mix containing not less than 20 percent total milk solids, provided that any whey and modified whey products used contribute, singly or in combination, not more than 25 percent by weight of the total nonfat milk solids content of the finished food. Further, when hydrolyzed milk proteins are used in the food, the declaration of these ingredients on the food label shall comply with the requirements of § 102.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> The fat content shall be determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 16.287 and 16.059, under “Fat, Roese-Gottlieb Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nomenclature.</I> (1) The name of the food is “ice cream”; except that when the egg yolk solids content of the food is in excess of that specified for ice cream by paragraph (a) of this section, the name of the food is “frozen custard” or “french ice cream” or “french custard ice cream”.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If the food contains no artificial flavor, the name on the principal display panel or panels of the label shall be accompanied by the common or usual name of the characterizing flavor, e.g., “vanilla”, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the words “ice cream”.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the food contains both a natural characterizing flavor and an artificial flavor simulating it, and if the natural flavor predominates, the name on the principal display panel or panels of the label shall be accompanied by the common name of the characterizing flavor, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the words “ice cream”, followed by the word “flavored”, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the name of the characterizing flavor, e.g., “Vanilla flavored”, or “Peach flavored”, or “Vanilla flavored and Strawberry flavored”.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the food contains both a natural characterizing flavor and an artificial flavor simulating it, and if the artificial flavor predominates, or if artificial flavor is used alone the name on the principal display panel or panels of the label shall be accompanied by the common name of the characterizing flavor in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the words “ice cream”, preceded by “artificial” or “artificially flavored”, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the name of the characterizing flavor, e.g., “artificial Vanilla”, or “artifically flavored Strawberry” or “artificially flavored Vanilla and artificially flavored Strawberry”.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) If the food is subject to the requirements of paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section or if it contains any artificial flavor not simulating the characterizing flavor, the label shall also bear the words “artificial flavor added” or “artificial ______ flavor added”, the blank being filled with the common name of the flavor simulated by the artificial flavor in letters of the same size and prominence as the words that precede and follow it.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the name of the characterizing flavor appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words prescribed by this paragraph shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, in a size reasonably related to the prominence of the name of the characterizing flavor and in any event the size of the type is not less than 6-point on packages containing less than 1 pint, not less than 8-point on packages containing at least 1 pint but less than one-half gallon, not less than 10-point on packages containing at least one-half gallon but less than 1 gallon, and not less than 12-point on packages containing 1 gallon or over: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where the characterizing flavor and a trademark or brand are presented together, other written, printed, or graphic matter that is a part of or is associated with the trademark or brand, may intervene if the required words are in such relationship with the trademark or brand as to be clearly related to the characterizing flavor: <I>And provided further,</I> That if the finished product contains more than one flavor of ice cream subject to the requirements of this paragraph, the statements required by this paragraph need appear only once in each statement of characterizing flavors present in such ice cream, e.g., “Vanilla flavored, Chocolate, and Strawberry flavored, artificial flavors added”.
</P>
<P>(4) If the food contains both a natural characterizing flavor and an artificial flavor simulating the characterizing flavor, any reference to the natural characterizing flavor shall, except as otherwise authorized by this paragraph, be accompanied by a reference to the artificial flavor, displayed with substantially equal prominence, e.g., “strawberry and artificial strawberry flavor”.
</P>
<P>(5) An artificial flavor simulating the characterizing flavor shall be deemed to predominate:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of vanilla beans or vanilla extract used in combination with vanillin if the amount of vanillin used is greater than 1 ounce per unit of vanilla constituent, as that term is defined in § 169.3(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of fruit or fruit juice used in combination with artificial fruit flavor, if the quantity of the fruit or fruit juice used is such that, in relation to the weight of the finished ice cream, the weight of the fruit or fruit juice, as the case may be (including water necessary to reconstitute partially or wholly dried fruits or fruit juices to their original moisture content) is less than 2 percent in the case of citrus ice cream, 6 percent in the case of berry or cherry ice cream, and 10 percent in the case of ice cream prepared with other fruits.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of nut meats used in combination with artificial nut flavor, if the quantity of nut meats used is such that, in relation to the finished ice cream the weight of the nut meats is less than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of two or more fruits or fruit juices, or nut meats, or both, used in combination with artificial flavors simulating the natural flavors and dispersed throughout the food, if the quantity of any fruit or fruit juice or nut meat is less than one-half the applicable percentage specified in paragraph (e)(5) (ii) or (iii) of this section. For example, if a combination ice cream contains less than 5 percent of bananas and less than 1 percent of almonds it would be “artificially flavored banana-almond ice cream”. However, if it contains more than 5 percent of bananas and more than 1 percent of almonds it would be “banana-almond flavored ice cream”.
</P>
<P>(6) If two or more flavors of ice cream are distinctively combined in one package, e.g., “Neapolitan” ice cream, the applicable provisions of this paragraph shall govern each flavor of ice cream comprising the combination.
</P>
<P>(7) Until September 14, 1998, when safe and suitable sweeteners other than nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners are used in the food, their presence shall be declared by their common or usual name on the principal display panel of the label as part of the statement of identity in letters that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used in the term “ice cream” but in any case no smaller than one-sixteenth of an inch. If the food purports to be or is represented for special dietary use, it shall bear labeling in accordance with the requirements of part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that the sources of milkfat or milk solids not fat may be declared in descending order of predominance either by the use of all the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” when one or any combination of two or more of the ingredients listed in § 101.4(b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(8), and (b)(9) of this chapter are used or, alternatively, as permitted in § 101.4 of this chapter. Under section 403(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, artificial color need not be declared in ice cream, except as required by § 101.22(c) or (k) of this chapter. Voluntary declaration of all colors used in ice cream and frozen custard is recommended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 4598, Feb. 3, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 63838, Sept. 26, 1980; 46 FR 44433, Sept. 4, 1981; 47 FR 11826, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10096, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2896, Jan. 6, 1993; 59 FR 47079, Sept. 14, 1994; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998; 63 FR 14818, Mar. 27, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 135.115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 135.115   Goat's milk ice cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Goat's milk ice cream is the food prepared in the same manner prescribed in § 135.110 for ice cream, and complies with all the provisions of § 135.110, except that the only optional dairy ingredients that may be used are those in paragraph (b) of this section; caseinates and hydrolyzed milk proteins may not be used; and paragraphs (f)(1) and (g) of § 135.110 shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional dairy ingredients.</I> The optional dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are goat's skim milk, goat's milk, and goat's cream. These optional dairy ingredients may be used in liquid, concentrated, and/or dry form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> (1) The name of the food is “goat's milk ice cream” or, alternatively, “ice cream made with goat's milk”, except that when the egg yolk solids content of the food is in excess of that specified for ice cream in paragraph (a) of § 135.110, the name of the food is “goat's milk frozen custard” or, alternatively, “frozen custard made with goat's milk”, or “goat's milk french ice cream”, or, alternatively, “french ice cream made with goat's milk”, or “goat's milk french custard ice cream”, or, alternatively, “french custard ice cream made with goat's milk”.
</P>
<P>(2) Until September 14, 1998, when safe and suitable sweeteners other than nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners are used in the food, their presence shall be declared by their common or usual name on the principal display panel of the label as part of the statement of identity in letters that shall be no less than one-half the size of the type used in the term “goat's milk ice cream” but in any case no smaller than one-sixteenth of an inch. If the food purports to be or is represented for special dietary use, it shall bear labeling in accordance with the requirements of part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41526, Sept. 21, 1982, as amended at 58 FR 2896, Jan. 6, 1993; 59 FR 47080, Sept. 14, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 135.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 135.130   Mellorine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Mellorine is a food produced by freezing, while stirring, a pasteurized mix consisting of safe and suitable ingredients including, but not limited to, milk-derived nonfat solids and animal or vegetable fat, or both, only part of which may be milkfat. Mellorine is sweetened with nutritive carbohydrate sweetener and is characterized by the addition of flavoring ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) Mellorine contains not less than 1.6 pounds of total solids to the gallon, and weighs not less than 4.5 pounds to the gallon. Mellorine contains not less than 6 percent fat and 2.7 percent protein having a protein efficiency ratio (PER) not less than that of whole milk protein (108 percent of casein) by weight of the food, exclusive of the weight of any bulky flavoring ingredients used. In no case shall the fat content of the finished food be less than 4.8 percent or the protein content be less than 2.2 percent. The protein to meet the minimum protein requirements shall be provided by milk solids, not fat and/or other milk-derived ingredients.
</P>
<P>(3) When calculating the minimum amount of milkfat and protein required in the finished food, the solids of chocolate or cocoa used shall be considered a bulky flavoring ingredient. In order to make allowance for additional sweetening ingredients needed when certain bulky ingredients are used, the weight of chocolate or cocoa solids used may be multiplied by 2.5; the weight of fruit or nuts used may be multiplied by 1.4; and the weight of partially or wholly dried fruits or fruit juices may be multiplied by appropriate factors to obtain the original weights before drying and this weight may be multiplied by 1.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fortification.</I> Vitamin A is present in a quantity which will ensure that 40 international units (IU) are available for each gram of fat in mellorine, within limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of analysis.</I> Fat and protein content, and the PER shall be determined by following the methods contained in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Fat content shall be determined by the method: “Fat, Roese-Gottlieb Method—Official Final Action,” section 16.287.
</P>
<P>(2) Protein content shall be determined by one of the following methods: “Nitrogen—Official Final Action,” Kjeldahl Method, section 16.285, or Dye Binding Method, section 16.286.
</P>
<P>(3) PER shall be determined by the method: “Biological Evaluation of Protein Quality—Official Final Action,” sections 43.212-43.216.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “mellorine”. The name of the food on the label shall be accompanied by a declaration indicating the presence of characterizing flavoring in the same manner as is specified in § 135.110(c).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that sources of milkfat or milk solids not fat may be declared in descending order of predominance either by the use of the terms “milkfat and nonfat milk” when one or any combination of two or more of the ingredients listed in § 101.4(b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(8), and (b)(9) of this chapter are used, or alternatively as permitted in § 101.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 19137, Apr. 12, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11826, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10096, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2896, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 135.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 135.140   Sherbet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Sherbet is a food produced by freezing, while stirring, a pasteurized mix consisting of one or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and may contain one or more of the optional caseinates specified in paragraph (c) of this section subject to the conditions hereinafter set forth, and other safe and suitable nonmilk-derived ingredients; and excluding other food fats, except such as are added in small amounts to accomplish specific functions or are natural components of flavoring ingredients used. Sherbet is sweetened with nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners and is characterized by the addition of one or more of the characterizing fruit ingredients specified in paragraph (d) of this section or one or more of the nonfruit-characterizing ingredients specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Sherbet weighs not less than 6 pounds to the gallon. The milkfat content is not less than 1 percent nor more than 2 percent, the nonfat milk-derived solids content not less than 1 percent, and the total milk or milk-derived solids content is not less than 2 percent nor more than 5 percent by weight of the finished food. Sherbet that is characterized by a fruit ingredient shall have a titratable acidity, calculated as lactic acid, of not less than 0.35 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional dairy ingredients.</I> The optional dairy ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are: Cream, dried cream, plastic cream (sometimes known as concentrated milkfat), butter, butter oil, milk, concentrated milk, evaporated milk, superheated condensed milk, sweetened condensed milk, dried milk, skim milk, concentrated skim milk, evaporated skim milk, condensed skim milk, sweetened condensed skim milk, sweetened condensed part-skim milk, nonfat dry milk, sweet cream buttermilk, condensed sweet cream buttermilk, dried sweet cream buttermilk, skim milk that has been concentrated and from which part of the lactose has been removed by crystallization, and whey and those modified whey products (e.g., reduced lactose whey, reduced minerals whey, and whey protein concentrate) that have been determined by FDA to be generally recognized as safe (GRAS) for use in this type of food. Water may be added, or water may be evaporated from the mix. The sweet cream buttermilk and the concentrated sweet cream buttermilk or dried sweet cream buttermilk, when adjusted with water to a total solids content of 8.5 percent, has a titratable acidity of not more than 0.17 percent calculated as lactic acid. The term “milk” as used in this section means cow's milk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional caseinates.</I> The optional caseinates referred to in paragraph (a) of this section which may be added to sherbet mix are: Casein prepared by precipitation with gums, ammonium caseinate, calcium caseinate, potassium caseinate, and sodium caseinate. Caseinates may be added in liquid or dry form, but must be free of excess alkali, such caseinates are not considered to be milk solids.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional fruit-characterizing ingredients.</I> The optional fruit-characterizing ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are any mature fruit or the juice of any mature fruit. The fruit or fruit juice used may be fresh, frozen, canned, concentrated, or partially or wholly dried. The fruit may be thickened with pectin or other optional ingredients. The fruit is prepared by the removal of pits, seeds, skins, and cores, where such removal is usual in preparing that kind of fruit for consumption as fresh fruit. The fruit may be screened, crushed, or otherwise comminuted. It may be acidulated. In the case of concentrated fruit or fruit juices, from which part of the water is removed, substances contributing flavor volatilized during water removal may be condensed and reincorporated in the concentrated fruit or fruit juice. In the case of citrus fruits, the whole fruit, including the peel but excluding the seeds, may be used, and in the case of citrus juice or concentrated citrus juices, cold-pressed citrus oil may be added thereto in an amount not exceeding that which would have been obtained if the whole fruit had been used. The quantity of fruit ingredients used is such that, in relation to the weight of the finished sherbet, the weight of fruit or fruit juice, as the case may be (including water necessary to reconstitute partially or wholly dried fruits or fruit juices to their original moisture content), is not less than 2 percent in the case of citrus sherbets, 6 percent in the case of berry sherbets, and 10 percent in the case of sherbets prepared with other fruits. For the purpose of this section, tomatoes and rhubarb are considered as kinds of fruit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Optional nonfruit characterizing ingredients.</I> The optimal nonfruit characterizing ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section include but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Ground spice or infusion of coffee or tea.
</P>
<P>(2) Chocolate or cocoa, including sirup.
</P>
<P>(3) Confectionery.
</P>
<P>(4) Distilled alcoholic beverage, including liqueurs or wine, in an amount not to exceed that required for flavoring the sherbet.
</P>
<P>(5) Any natural or artificial food flavoring (except any having a characteristic fruit or fruit-like flavor).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nomenclature.</I> (1) The name of each sherbet is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of each fruit sherbet is “______ sherbet”, the blank being filled in with the common name of the fruit or fruits from which the fruit ingredients used are obtained. When the names of two or more fruits are included, such names shall be arranged in order of predominance, if any, by weight of the respective fruit ingredients used.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of each nonfruit sherbet is “______ sherbet”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name or names of the characterizing flavor or flavors; for example, “peppermint”, except that if the characterizing flavor used is vanilla, the name of the food is “______ sherbet”, the blank being filled in as specified by § 135.110(e) (2) and (5)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) When the optional ingredients, artificial flavoring, or artificial coloring are used in sherbet, they shall be named on the label as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the flavoring ingredient or ingredients consists exclusively of artificial flavoring, the label designation shall be “artificially flavored”.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the flavoring ingredients are a combination of natural and artificial flavors, the label designation shall be “artificial and natural flavoring added”.
</P>
<P>(iii) The label shall designate artificial coloring by the statement “artificially colored”, “artificial coloring added”, “with added artificial coloring”, or “______, an artificial color added”, the blank being filled in with the name of the artificial coloring used.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Characterizing flavor(s).</I> Wherever there appears on the label any representation as to the characterizing flavor or flavors of the food and such flavor or flavors consist in whole or in part of artificial flavoring, the statement required by paragraph (f)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section, as appropriate, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such representation, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter (except that the word “sherbet” may intervene) in a size reasonably related to the prominence of the name of the characterizing flavor and in any event the size of the type is not less than 6-point on packages containing less than 1 pint, not less than 8-point on packages containing at least 1 pint but less than one-half gallon, not less than 10-point on packages containing at least one-half gallon but less than 1 gallon, and not less than 12-point on packages containing 1 gallon or over.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Display of statements required by paragraph</I> (f)(2). Except as specified in paragraph (g) of this section, the statements required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be set forth on the principal display panel or panels of the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render them likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 4599, Feb. 3, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 44434, Sept. 4, 1981; 58 FR 2896, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 135.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.26.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 135.160   Water ices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Water ices are the foods each of which is prepared from the same ingredients and in the same manner prescribed in § 135.140 for sherbets, except that the mix need not be pasteurized, and complies with all the provisions of § 135.140 (including the requirements for label statement of ingredients), except that no milk or milk-derived ingredient and no egg ingredient, other than egg white, is used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “______ ice”, the blank being filled in, in the same manner as specified in § 135.140(f)(1) (i) and (ii), as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 19132, Apr. 12, 1977, as amended 58 FR 2876, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="136" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 136—BAKERY PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 136.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 136.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) The word <I>bread</I> when used in the name of the food means the unit weighs one-half pound or more after cooling.
</P>
<P>(b) The words <I>rolls</I> and <I>buns</I> when used in the name of the food mean the unit weighs less than one-half pound after cooling.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Bakery Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 136.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 136.110   Bread, rolls, and buns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bread, white bread, and rolls, white rolls, or buns, and white buns are the foods produced by baking mixed yeast-leavened dough prepared from one or more of the farinaceous ingredients listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and one or more of the moistening ingredients listed in paragraphs (c) (2), (6), (7), and (8) of this section and one or more of the leavening agents provided for by paragraph (c)(3) of this section. The food may contain additional ingredients as provided for by paragraph (c) of this section. Each of the finished foods contains not less than 62 percent total solids as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) All ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable.
</P>
<P>(c) The following optional ingredients are provided for:
</P>
<P>(1) Flour, bromated flour, phosphated flour, or a combination of two or more of these. The potassium bromate in any bromated flour used and the monocalcium phosphate in any phosphated flour used are deemed to be additional optional ingredients in the bread, rolls, or buns. All ingredients in any flour, bromated flour, or phosphated flour used are deemed to be optional ingredients of the bread, rolls, or buns prepared therefrom.
</P>
<P>(2) Water.
</P>
<P>(3) Yeast—any type which produces the necessary leavening effect.
</P>
<P>(4) Salt.
</P>
<P>(5) Shortening, in which or in conjunction with which may be used one or any combination of two or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Lecithin, hydroxylated lecithin complying with the provisions of part 172 of this chapter, either of which may include related phosphatides derived from the corn oil or soybean oil from which such ingredients were obtained.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mono- and diglycerides of fat-forming fatty acids, diacetyl tartaric acid esters of mono- and diglycerides of fat-forming fatty acids, propylene glycol mono- and diesters of fat-forming fatty acids, and other ingredients that perform a similar function.
</P>
<P>(6) Milk and/or other dairy products in such quantity and composition as not to meet the requirements for milk and/or other dairy products prescribed for milk bread by § 136.130. Whenever nonfat milk solids in any form are used, carrageenan or salts of carrageenan complying with the provisions of part 172 of this chapter may be used in a quantity not in excess of 0.8 percent by weight of such nonfat milk solids.
</P>
<P>(7) Egg products.
</P>
<P>(8) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(9) Enzyme active preparations.
</P>
<P>(10) Lactic-acid-producing bacteria.
</P>
<P>(11) Nonwheat flours, nonwheat meals, nonwheat grits, wheat and nonwheat starches, any of which may be wholly or in part dextrinized, dextrinized wheat flour, or any combination of 2 or more of these, if the total quantity is not more than 3 parts for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(12) Ground dehulled soybeans which may be heat-treated, and from which oil may be removed, but which retain enzymatic activity, if the quantity is not more than 0.5 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(13) Yeast nutrients and calcium salts, if the total quantity of such ingredients, with the exception of monocalcium phosphate and calcium propionate, is not more than 0.25 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used. The quantity of monocalcium phosphate, including any quantity in the flour used, is not more than 0.75 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used. Any calcium propionate used as a preservative in bread, rolls, or buns is not subject to the limitation prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(14)(i) Potassium bromate, calcium bromate, potassium iodate, calcium iodate, calcium peroxide, or any combination of 2 or more of these if the total quantity, including the potassium bromate in any bromated flour used, is not more than 0.0075 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Azodicarbonamide, if the total quantity, including any quantity in the flour used, is not more than 0.0045 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(15) Dough strengtheners and other dough conditioners not listed or referred to in this paragraph, if the total quantities of such ingredients or combination is not more than 0.5 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(16) Spices, spice oil, and spice extract.
</P>
<P>(17) Coloring may not be added as such or as part of another ingredient except as permitted by paragraph (c)(16) of this section and except that coloring which may be present in butter or margarine if the intensity of the butter or margarine color does not exceed “medium high” (MH) when viewed under diffused light (7400 Kelvin) against the Munsell Butter Color Comparator. The MH designation corresponds to the Munsell renotation of 3.8Y7.9/7.6.
</P>
<P>(18) Other ingredients that do not change the basic identity or adversely affect the physical and nutritional characteristics of the food.
</P>
<P>(d) Total solids are determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 14.091(a), which is incorporated by reference, except that if the baked unit weighs 454 grams (1 pound) or more, one entire unit is used for the determination; if the baked unit weighs less than 454 grams, enough units to weigh 454 grams or more are used. Copies of the material incorporated by reference may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The name of the food is “bread”, “white bread”, “rolls”, “white rolls”, “buns”, “white buns”, as applicable. When the food contains not less than 2.56 percent by weight of whole egg solids, the name of the food may be “egg bread”, “egg rolls”, or “egg buns”, as applicable, accompanied by the statement “Contains ____ medium-sized egg(s) per pound” in the manner prescribed by § 102.5(c)(3) of this chapter, the blank to be filled in with the number which represents the whole egg content of the food expressed to the nearest one-fifth egg but not greater than the amount actually present. For the purpose of this regulation, whole egg solids are the edible contents of eggs calculated on a moisture-free basis and exclusive of any nonegg solids which may be present in standardized and other commercial egg products. One medium-sized egg is equivalent to 0.41 ounce of whole egg solids.
</P>
<P>(2) When the label bears any representation, other than in the ingredient listing, of the presence of egg in the food, e.g., the word egg or any phonetic equivalent spelling of the word egg, or a picture of an egg, the food shall contain not less than 2.56 percent of whole egg solids.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14400, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 47177, Oct. 13, 1978; 47 FR 11826, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10096, Mar. 19, 1984; 49 FR 13692, Apr. 6, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 136.115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 136.115   Enriched bread, rolls, and buns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the foods enriched bread, enriched rolls, and enriched buns conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for bread, rolls or buns by § 136.110, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each such food contains in each pound 1.8 milligrams of thiamin, 1.1 milligrams of riboflavin, 15 milligrams of niacin, 0.43 milligrams of folic acid, and 12.5 milligrams of iron.
</P>
<P>(2) Each such food may contain added calcium in such quantity that the total calcium content is 600 milligrams per pound. If insufficient calcium is added to meet the 600-milligram level per pound of the finished food, no claim may be made on the label for calcium as a nutrient except as a part of nutrition labeling.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section will be deemed to have been met if reasonable overages of the vitamins and minerals, within the limits of good manufacturing practice, are present to ensure that the required levels of the vitamins and minerals are maintained throughout the expected shelf life of the food under customary conditions of distribution and storage. The quantitative content of the following vitamins shall be calculated in terms of the following chemically identifiable reference forms:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Vitamin
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Reference form
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Empirical formula
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Molecular weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thiamine chloride hydrochloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">17</E>ClN<E T="52">4</E> OS·HCl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">337.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">2</E>0N<E T="52">4</E>O<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">376.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>NO<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123.11</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Each such food may also contain wheat germ or partly defatted wheat germ, but the total quantity thereof, including any wheat germ or partly defatted wheat germ in any enriched flour used, shall not be more than 5 percent of the flour ingredient.
</P>
<P>(5) Enriched flour may be used, in whole or in part, instead of flour. As used in this section, the term “enriched flour” includes enriched bromated flour.
</P>
<P>(6) The limitation prescribed by § 136.110(c)(6) on the quantity and composition of milk and/or other dairy products does not apply.
</P>
<P>(7) The vitamins and minerals added to the food for enrichment purposes may be supplied by any safe and suitable substances. Niacin equivalents as derived from tryptophan content shall not be used in determining total niacin content.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “enriched bread”, “enriched rolls”, or “enriched buns”, as applicable. When the food contains not less than 2.56 percent by weight of whole egg solids, the name of the food may be “enriched egg bread”, “enriched egg rolls”, or “enriched egg buns”, as applicable, accompanied by the statement “Contains __ medium-sized egg(s) per pound” in the manner prescribed by § 102.5(c)(3) of this chapter, the blank to be filled in with the number which represents the whole egg content of the food expressed to the nearest one-fifth egg but not greater than the amount actually present. For the purpose of this regulation, whole egg solids are the edible contents of eggs calculated on a moisture-free basis and exclusive of any non-egg solids which may be present in standardized and other commercial egg products. One medium-sized egg is equivalent to 0.41 ounce of whole egg solids. When the food complies with the requirements for milk and/or other dairy products content in § 136.130 for milk bread, the name of the food may be “enriched milk bread”, “enriched milk rolls”, or “enriched milk buns”, as applicable. When the food complies with the requirements for both enriched egg bread and enriched milk bread in this section, the name of the food may be “enriched milk and egg bread”, “enriched milk and egg rolls”, or “enriched milk and egg buns”, as applicable accompanied by the statement “Contains __ medium-sized egg(s) per pound” in the manner prescribed by § 102.5(c)(3) of this chapter, the blank to be filled in with the number which represents the whole egg content of the food expressed to the nearest one-fifth egg but no greater than the amount actually present. For purposes of this regulation, whole egg solids are the edible contents of eggs calculated on a moisture-free basis and exclusive of any non-egg solids which may be present in standardized or other commercial egg products. One medium-sized egg is equivalent to 0.41 ounce of whole egg solids.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14400, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 38578, Aug. 29, 1978; 46 FR 43413, Aug. 28, 1981; 61 FR 8796, Mar. 5, 1996; 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 136.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 136.130   Milk bread, rolls, and buns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the foods milk bread, milk rolls, and milk buns conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for bread, rolls or buns by § 136.110 except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The only moistening ingredient permitted in the preparation of the dough is milk or, as an alternative, a combination of dairy products in such a proportion that the weight of the nonfat milk solids is not more than 2.3 times and not less than 1.2 times the weight of the milkfat therein, with or without water, in a quantity that provides not less than 8.2 parts milk solids for each 100 parts by weight of flour.
</P>
<P>(2) No buttermilk, buttermilk product, cheese whey, cheese whey product, or milk protein is used.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “milk bread”, “milk rolls”, “milk buns”, as applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 136.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 136.160   Raisin bread, rolls, and buns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the foods raisin bread, raisin rolls, and raisin buns conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for bread, rolls or buns by § 136.110, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than 50 parts by weight of seeded or seedless raisins are used for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(2) Water extract of raisins may be used, but not to replace raisins.
</P>
<P>(3) The baked units may bear icing or frosting.
</P>
<P>(4) The limitation prescribed by § 136.110(c)(6) on the quantity and composition of milk and/or other dairy products does not apply.
</P>
<P>(5) The total solids are determined by the method prescribed in § 136.110(d), except that section 14.091(b) of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference, will apply. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “raisin bread”, “raisin rolls”, “raisin buns”, as applicable. When the food contains not less than 2.56 percent by weight of whole egg solids, the name of the food may be “raisin and egg bread”, “raisin and egg rolls”, or “raisin and egg buns”, as applicable, accompanied by the statement “Contains __ medium-sized egg(s) per pound” in the manner prescribed by § 102.5(c)(3) of this chapter, the blank to be filled in with the number which represents the whole egg content of the food expressed to the nearest one-fifth egg but not greater than the amount actually present. For purposes of this regulation, whole egg solids are the edible contents of eggs calculated on a moisture-free basis and exclusive of any nonegg solids which may be present in standardized and other commercial egg products. One medium-sized egg is equivalent to 0.41 ounce of whole egg solids.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14400, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11826, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10096, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 136.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.27.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 136.180   Whole wheat bread, rolls, and buns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the foods whole wheat bread, graham bread, entire wheat bread, whole wheat rolls, graham rolls, entire wheat rolls, whole wheat buns, graham buns, and entire wheat buns conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the label statement of ingredients prescribed for bread, rolls and buns by § 136.110, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The dough is made from the optional ingredient whole wheat flour, bromated whole wheat flour, or a combination of these. No flour, bromated flour, or phosphated flour is used. The potassium bromate in any bromated whole wheat flour used is deemed to be an additional optional ingredient in the whole wheat bread, whole wheat rolls, or whole wheat buns.
</P>
<P>(2) The limitation prescribed by § 136.110(c)(6) on the quantity and composition of milk and/or other dairy products does not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “whole wheat bread”, “graham bread”, “entire wheat bread”, “whole wheat rolls”, “graham rolls”, “entire wheat rolls”, “whole wheat buns”, “graham buns”, “entire wheat buns”, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="137" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 137—CEREAL FLOURS AND RELATED PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 137 appear at 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Cereal Flours and Related Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.105" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.105   Flour.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Flour, white flour, wheat flour, plain flour, is the food prepared by grinding and bolting cleaned wheat, other than durum wheat and red durum wheat. To compensate for any natural deficiency of enzymes, malted wheat, malted wheat flour, malted barley flour, or any combination of two or more of these, may be used; but the quantity of malted barley flour so used is not more than 0.75 percent. Harmless preparations of α-amylase obtained from <I>Aspergillus oryzae,</I> alone or in a safe and suitable carrier, may be used. When tested for granulation as prescribed in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, not less than 98 percent of the flour passes through a cloth having openings not larger than those of woven wire cloth designated “212 µm (No. 70)” complying with the specifications for such cloth set forth in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The flour is freed from bran coat, or bran coat and germ, to such extent that the percent of ash therein, calculated to a moisture-free basis, is not more than the sum of 
<FR>1/20</FR> of the percent of protein therein, calculated to a moisture-free basis, plus 0.35. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent. It may contain ascorbic acid in a quantity not to exceed 200 parts per million as a dough conditioner. Unless such addition conceals damage or inferiority or makes the flour appear to be better or of greater value than it is, one or any combination of two or more of the following optional bleaching ingredients may be added in a quantity not more than sufficient for bleaching or, in case such ingredient has an artificial aging effect, in a quantity not more than sufficient for bleaching and such artificial aging effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Oxides of nitrogen.
</P>
<P>(2) Chlorine.
</P>
<P>(3) Nitrosyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(4) Chlorine dioxide.
</P>
<P>(5) One part by weight of benzoyl peroxide mixed with not more than six parts by weight of one or any mixture of two or more of the following: potassium alum, calcium sulfate, magnesium carbonate, sodium aluminum sulfate, dicalcium phosphate, tricalcium phosphate, starch, calcium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(6) Acetone peroxides complying with the provisions of § 172.802 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) Azodicarbonamide (complying with the requirements of § 172.806 of this chapter, including the quantitative limit of not more than 45 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) When ascorbic acid is added, the label shall bear the statement “Ascorbic acid added as a dough conditioner”. When the optional ingredient α-amylase obtained from <I>Aspergillus oryzae</I>” is used, it may alternatively be declared in the list of ingredients as “Fungal <I>alpha</I>-amylase,” “Fungal α-amylase”, “Enzyme”, or “Enzyme added for improved baking”. When any optional bleaching ingredient is used, the label shall bear the word “Bleached”. Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the word “Bleached” shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter; except that where such name is a part of a trademark or brand, other written, printed, or graphic matter, which is also a part of such trademark or brand, may so intervene if the word “Bleached” is in such juxtaposition with such trademark or brand as to be conspicuously related to such name.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Ash is determined by the method prescribed in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), section 14.006, “Direct Method—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Ash (5),” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a) of this section. Ash is calculated to a moisture-free basis by subtracting the percent of moisture in the flour from 100, dividing the remainder into the percent of ash, and multiplying the quotient by 100.
</P>
<P>(2) Protein is 5.7 times the nitrogen as determined by the method prescribed in section 2.057, “Improved Kjeldahl Methods for Nitrate-Free Samples (20)—Official Final Action,” AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a) of this section. Protein is calculated to a moisture-free basis by subtracting the percent of moisture in the flour from 100, dividing the remainder into the percent of protein, and multiplying the quotient by 100.
</P>
<P>(3) Moisture is determined by the method prescribed in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), sections 14.002 and 14.003, “Vacuum Oven Method (2)—Official Final Action,” under the heading “Total Solids Moisture, Indirect Method,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Granulation is determined as follows: Use No. 70 sieve complying with the specifications for “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series)” prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section. Attach bottom pan to sieve in Ro-Tap sifter (or an equivalent sifter). Place half of a rubber ball or other sieving aid in the sieve. Pour 100 grams of the sample in the sieve and turn on the sifter with knocker. Sift exactly 5 minutes. Weigh the residue on the No. 70 sieve and convert to percentage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11827, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 24693, June 8, 1982; 47 FR 43363, Oct. 1, 1982; 49 FR 10097, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.155   Bromated flour.</HEAD>
<P>Bromated flour conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for flour by § 137.105, except that potassium bromate is added in a quantity not exceeding 50 parts to each million parts of the finished bromated flour, and is added only to flours whose baking qualities are improved by such addition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.160   Enriched bromated flour.</HEAD>
<P>Enriched bromated flour conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for enriched flour by § 137.165, except that potassium bromate is added in a quantity not exceeding 50 parts to each million parts of the finished enriched bromated flour, and is added only to enriched flours whose baking qualities are improved by such addition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.165" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.165   Enriched flour.</HEAD>
<P>Enriched flour conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for flour by § 137.105, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) It contains in each pound 2.9 milligrams of thiamin, 1.8 milligrams of riboflavin, 24 milligrams of niacin, 0.7 milligrams of folic acid, and 20 milligrams of iron.
</P>
<P>(b) It may contain added calcium in such quantity that the total calcium content is 960 milligrams per pound. Enriched flour may be acidified with monocalcium phosphate within the limits prescribed by § 137.175 for phosphated flour, but, if insufficient additional calcium is present to meet the 960 milligram level, no claim may be made on the label for calcium as a nutrient;
</P>
<P>(c) The requirement of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section will be deemed to have been met if reasonable overages of the vitamins and minerals, within the limits of good manufacturing practice, are present to insure that the required levels of the vitamins and minerals are maintained throughout the expected shelf life of the food under customary conditions of distribution and storage. The quantitative content of the following vitamins shall be calculated in terms of the following chemically identifiable reference forms:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Vitamin
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Reference form
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Empirical formula
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Molecular weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thiamine chloride hydrochloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">17</E>ClN<E T="52">4</E>OS·HCl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">337.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">20</E>N<E T="52">4</E>O<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">376.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>NO<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123.11</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) It may contain not more than 5 percent by weight of wheat germ or partly defatted wheat germ;
</P>
<P>(e) In determining whether the ash content complies with the requirements of this section, ash resulting from any added iron or salts of iron or calcium or wheat germ is excluded in calculating ash content.
</P>
<P>(f) All ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable. The vitamins and minerals added to the food for enrichment purposes may be supplied by any safe and suitable substance. Niacin equivalents as derived from tryptophan content shall not be used in determining total niacin content.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 38578, Aug. 29, 1978; 46 FR 43414, Aug. 28, 1981; 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 8796, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.170   Instantized flours.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Instantized flours, instant blending flours, and quick-mixing flours, are the foods each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for the corresponding kind of flour by §§ 137.105, 137.155, 137.160, 137.165, 137.175, 137.180, and 137.185, except that each such flour has been made by one of the optional procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, and is thereby made readily pourable. Such flours will all pass through a No. 20 mesh U.S. standard sieve (840-micron opening), and not more than 20 percent will pass through a 200 mesh U.S standard sieve (74-micron opening).
</P>
<P>(b) The optional procedures referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) A selective grinding and bolting procedure or other milling procedure, whereby controlled techniques are used to obtain a food too fine to meet the granulation specification prescribed in § 137.300(a) for farina.
</P>
<P>(2) An agglomerating procedure, whereby flour that originally meets the granulation specification prescribed in § 137.105(a) has been modified by further processing, so that a number of the individual flour particles have been combined into agglomerates conforming to the granulation specifications set out in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The name of each product covered by this section is the name prescribed by the definition and standard of identity for the corresponding kind of flour as referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, preceded immediately and conspicuously by the words “Instantized”, “Instant blending”, or “Quick-mixing”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.175" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.175   Phosphated flour.</HEAD>
<P>Phosphated flour, phosphated white flour, and phosphated wheat flour, conform to the definition and standard of identity, and are subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients, prescribed for flour by § 137.105, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) Monocalcium phosphate is added in a quantity not less than 0.25 percent and not more than 0.75 percent of the weight of the finished phosphated flour; and
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether the ash content complies with the requirements of this section allowance is made for the added monocalcium phosphate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.180   Self-rising flour.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Self-rising flour, self-rising white flour, self-rising wheat flour, is an intimate mixture of flour, sodium bicarbonate, and one or more of the acid-reacting substances monocalcium phosphate, sodium acid pyrophosphate, and sodium aluminum phosphate. It is seasoned with salt. When it is tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section not less than 0.5 percent of carbon dioxide is evolved. The acid-reacting substance is added in sufficient quantity to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate. The combined weight of such acid-reacting substance and sodium bicarbonate is not more than 4.5 parts to each 100 parts of flour used. Subject to the conditions and restrictions prescribed by § 137.105(a), the bleaching ingredients specified in such section may be added as optional ingredients. If the flour used in making the self-rising flour is bleached, the optional bleaching ingredient used therein (see § 137.105(a)) is also an optional ingredient of the self-rising flour.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food, shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The method referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), section 8.002, “Reagent (Displacement soln.),” and section 8.003, “Chittick apparatus,” under the heading “Total Carbon Dioxide (1)—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>The following procedure is substituted for the procedure specified in the AOAC, under section 8.004, “Determination”:
</P>
<P>(1) Weigh 17 grams of the official sample into flask A, add 15-20 glass beads (4-6 mm. diameter), and connect this flask with the apparatus (fig. 22). Open stopcock C and by means of the leveling bulb E bring the displacement solution to the 25 cc. graduation above the zero mark. (This 25 cc. is a partial allowance for the volume of acid to be used in the decomposition.) Allow the apparatus to stand 1-2 minutes to insure that the temperature and pressure within the apparatus are the same as those of the room. Close the stopcock, lower the leveling bulb somewhat to reduce the pressure within the apparatus, and slowly run into the decomposition flask from burette F 45 cc. of sulfuric acid (1 + 5). To prevent the liberated carbon dioxide from escaping through the acid burette into the air, keep the displacement solution in the leveling bulb at all times during the decomposition at a lower level than that in the gas-measuring tube. Rotate and then vigorously agitate the decomposition flask for three minutes to mix the contents intimately. Allow to stand for 10 minutes to bring to equilibrium. Equalize the pressure in the measuring tube by means of the leveling bulb and read the volume of gas from the zero point on the tube. Deduct 20 cc. from this reading (this 20 cc. together with previous allowance of 25 cc. compensates for the 45 cc. acid used in the decomposition). Observe the temperature of the air surrounding the apparatus and also the barometric pressure and multiply the number of mL of gas evolved by the factor given in section 52.007, “Correction factors for gasometric determination of carbon dioxide,” AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference (the availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c) of this section), for the temperature and pressure observed. Divide the corrected reading by 100 to obtain the apparent percent by weight of carbon dioxide in the official sample.
</P>
<P>(2) Correct the apparent percent of carbon dioxide to compensate for varying atmospheric conditions by immediately assaying a synthetic sample by the same method in the same apparatus.
</P>
<P>(3) Prepare the synthetic sample with 16.2 grams of flour, 0.30 gram of monocalcium phosphate, 0.30 gram of salt, and a sufficient quantity of sodium bicarbonate U.S.P. (dried over sulfuric acid) to yield the amount of carbon dioxide recovered in assay of official sample. Determine this quantity by multiplying weight of carbon dioxide recovered in assay of official sample by 1.91.
</P>
<P>(4) Divide the weight of carbon dioxide recovered from synthetic sample by weight of carbon dioxide contained in sodium bicarbonate used.
</P>
<P>(5) Divide the quotient into the apparent percent of carbon dioxide in official sample to obtain percent of carbon dioxide evolved from the official sample.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11827, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10097, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.185" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.185   Enriched self-rising flour.</HEAD>
<P>Enriched self-rising flour conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for self-rising flour by § 137.180, except that:
</P>
<P>(a) It contains in each pound 2.9 milligrams of thiamin, 1.8 milligrams of riboflavin, 24 milligrams of niacin, 0.7 milligrams of folic acid, and 20 milligrams of iron.
</P>
<P>(b) It contains added calcium in such quantity that the total calcium content is 960 milligrams per pound. If a calcium compound is added for technical purposes to give self-rising characteristics to the flour, the amount of calcium per pound of flour may exceed 960 milligrams provided that the excess is no greater than necessary to accomplish the intended effect. However, if such calcium is insufficient to meet the 960-milligram level, no claim may be made on the label for calcium as a nutrient.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section will be deemed to have been met if reasonable overages of the vitamins and minerals, within the limits of good manufacturing practice, are present to insure that the required levels of the vitamins and minerals are maintained throughout the expected shelf life of the food under customary conditions of distribution and storage. The quantitative content of the following vitamins shall be calculated in terms of the following chemically identifiable reference forms:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Vitamin
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Reference form
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Empirical formula
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Molecular weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thiamine chloride hydrochloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">17</E>ClN<E T="52">4</E>OS·HCl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">337.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Riboflavin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">20</E>N<E T="52">4</E>O<E T="52">6</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">376.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Niacin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>NO<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123.11</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) It may contain not more than 5 percent by weight of wheat germ or partly defatted wheat germ;
</P>
<P>(e) When calcium is added as dicalcium phosphate, such dicalcium phosphate is also considered to be an acid-reacting substance;
</P>
<P>(f) When calcium is added as carbonate, the method set forth in § 137.180(c) does not apply as a test for carbon dioxide evolved; but in such case the quantity of carbon dioxide evolved under ordinary conditions of use of the enriched self-rising flour is not less than 0.5 percent of the weight thereof; 
</P>
<P>(g) All ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable. The vitamins and minerals added to the food for enrichment purposes may be supplied by any safe and suitable substances. Niacin equivalents as derived from tryptophan content shall not be used in determining total niacin content.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 38578, Aug. 29, 1978; 46 FR 43414, Aug. 28, 1981; 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 8796, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.190" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.190   Cracked wheat.</HEAD>
<P>Cracked wheat is the food prepared by so cracking or cutting into angular fragments cleaned wheat other than durum wheat and red durum wheat that, when tested by the method prescribed in § 137.200(c)(2), not less than 90 percent passes through a No. 8 sieve and not more than 20 percent passes through a No. 20 sieve. The proportions of the natural constituents of such wheat, other than moisture, remain unaltered. Cracked wheat contains not more than 15 percent of the moisture as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 7.002 under “Preparation of Sample—Official Final Action,” and section 7.003 under “Moisture—Official Final Action. I. Drying in Vacuo at 95-100° (2),” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11827, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10097, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.195" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.195   Crushed wheat.</HEAD>
<P>Crushed wheat, coarse ground wheat, is the food prepared by so crushing cleaned wheat other than durum wheat and red durum wheat that, when tested by the method prescribed in § 137.200(c)(2), 40 percent or more passes through a No. 8 sieve and less than 50 percent passes through a No. 20 sieve. The proportions of the natural constituents of such wheat, other than moisture, remain unaltered. Crushed wheat contains not more than 15 percent of moisture as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 7.002 under “Preparation of Sample—Official Final Action,” and section 7.003 under “Moisture—Official Final Action. I. Drying in Vacuo at 95-100° (2),” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11827, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10097, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.200" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.200   Whole wheat flour.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole wheat flour, graham flour, entire wheat flour is the food prepared by so grinding cleaned wheat, other than durum wheat and red durum wheat, that when tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, not less than 90 percent passes through a 2.36 mm (No. 8) sieve and not less than 50 percent passes through a 850 µm (No. 20) sieve. The proportions of the natural constituents of such wheat, other than moisture, remain unaltered. To compensate for any natural deficiency of enzymes, malted wheat, malted wheat flour, malted barley flour, or any combination of two or more of these, may be used; but the quantity of malted barley flour so used is not more than 0.75 percent. It may contain harmless preparations of α-amylase obtained from <I>Aspergillus oryzae,</I> alone or in a safe and suitable carrier. The moisture content of whole wheat flour is not more than 15 percent. It may contain ascorbic acid in a quantity not to exceed 200 parts per million as a dough conditioner. Unless such addition conceals damage or inferiority or makes the whole wheat flour appear to be better or of greater value than it is, the optional bleaching ingredient azodicarbonamide (complying with the requirements of § 172.806 of this chapter, including the quantitative limit of not more than 45 parts per million) or chlorine dioxide, or chlorine, or a mixture of nitrosyl chloride and chlorine, may be added in a quantity not more than sufficient for bleaching and artificial aging effects.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) When ascorbic acid is added, the label shall bear the statement “Ascorbic acid added as a dough conditioner”. When the optional ingredient “α”-amylase obtained from <I>Aspergillus oryzae</I>” is used, it may alternatively be declared in the list of ingredients as “Fungal <I>alpha</I>-amylase,” “Fungal α-amylase”, “Enzyme”, or “Enzyme added for improved baking”. When any optional bleaching ingredient is used, the label shall bear the word “Bleached”. Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the word “Bleached” shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter; except that where such name is a part of a trademark or brand, other written, printed or graphic matter, which is also a part of such trademark or brand, may so intervene if the word “Bleached” is in such juxtaposition with such trademark or brand as to be conspicuously related to such name.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Moisture is determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), section 14.002. “Vacuum Oven Method—Official Final Action,” and section 14.003, “Determination,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The method referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is as follows: Use No. 8 and No. 20 sieves, having standard 8-inch full-height frames, complying with the specifications set forth in the AOAC, Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Fit a No. 8 sieve into a No. 20 sieve. Attach bottom pan to the No. 20 sieve. Pour 100 gm. of the sample into the No. 8 sieve. Attach cover and hold the assembly in a slightly inclined position with one hand. Shake the sieves by striking the sides against the other hand with an upward stroke, at the rate of about 150 times per minute. Turn the sieves about one-sixth of a revolution each time in the same direction, after each 25 strokes. Continue shaking for 2 minutes. Weigh the material which fails to pass through the No. 8 sieve and the material which passes through the No. 20 sieve.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11827, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 24693, June 8, 1982; 47 FR 43364, Oct. 1, 1982; 49 FR 10097, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.205" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.205   Bromated whole wheat flour.</HEAD>
<P>Bromated whole wheat flour conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for whole wheat flour by § 137.200, except that potassium bromate is added in a quantity not exceeding 75 parts to each million parts of finished bromated whole wheat flour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.211" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.211   White corn flour.</HEAD>
<P>(a) White corn flour is the food prepared by so grinding and bolting cleaned white corn that when tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, not less than 98 percent passes through a No. 50 sieve and not less than 50 percent passes through No. 70 woven-wire cloth. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent. In its preparation, part of the ground corn may be removed, but in any such case, the content (on a moisture-free basis) of neither the crude fiber nor fat in the finished white corn flour exceeds the content (on a moisture-free basis) of such substance in the cleaned corn from which it was ground.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For the purpose of this section, moisture, fat, and crude fiber are determined by methods therefore referred to in § 137.250(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The method referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is as follows: Weigh 5 grams of sample into a tared truncated metal cone (top diameter 5 centimeters, bottom diameter 2 centimeters, height 4 centimeters), fitted at bottom with 70-mesh wire cloth complying with the specifications for No. 70 wire cloth in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>Attach cone to a suction flask. Wash with 150 ml. of petroleum ether applied in a small stream without suction, while gently stirring the sample with a small glass rod. Apply suction for 2 minutes after washing is completed, then shake the cone for 2 minutes with a vigorous horizontal motion, striking the side against the hand, and then weigh. The decrease in weight of sample, calculated as percent by weight of sample shall be considered the percent passing through No. 70 wire cloth. Transfer the residue from cone to a No. 50 sieve having a standard 20.3 centimeter (8-inch) diameter full-height frame, complying with the specifications for wire cloth and sieve frame in “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series).” Shake for 2 minutes with a vigorous horizontal motion, striking the side against the hand; remove and weigh the residue; calculate the weight of residue as percent by weight of sample, and subtract from 100 percent to obtain the percent of sample passing through the No. 50 sieve.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11827, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10098, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.215" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.215   Yellow corn flour.</HEAD>
<P>Yellow corn flour conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed by § 137.211 for white corn flour except that cleaned yellow corn is used instead of clean white corn.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.220" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.220   Durum flour.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Durum flour is the food prepared by grinding and bolting cleaned durum wheat. When tested for granulation as prescribed in § 137.105(c)(4), not less than 98 percent of such flour passes through the No. 70 sieve. It is freed from bran coat, or bran coat and germ, to such extent that the percent of ash therein, calculated to a moisture-free basis, is not more than 1.5 percent. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section, ash, moisture, and granulation are determined by the methods prescribed in § 137.105(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.225" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.225   Whole durum flour.</HEAD>
<P>Whole durum wheat flour conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for whole wheat flour by § 137.200, except that cleaned durum wheat, instead of cleaned wheat other than durum wheat and red durum wheat, is used in its preparation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 2877, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.250" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.250   White corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) White corn meal is the food prepared by so grinding cleaned white corn that when tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section not less than 95 percent passes through a No. 12 sieve, not less than 45 percent through a No. 25 sieve, but not more than 35 percent through a No. 72 grits gauze. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent. In its preparation coarse particles of the ground corn may be separated and discarded, or reground and recombined with all or part of the material from which they were separated, but in any such case the crude fiber content of the finished corn meal is not less than 1.2 percent and not more than that of the cleaned corn from which it was ground, and its fat content does not differ more than 0.3 percent from that of such corn. The contents of crude fiber and fat in all the foregoing provisions relating thereto are on a moisture-free basis.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For the purposes of this section, moisture, fat, and crude fiber content will be determined by the following methods of analysis from “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference (copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>):
</P>
<P>(i) Moisture content—sections 14.062 and 14.063 (Official Final Action).
</P>
<P>(ii) Fat content—sections 14.062 and 14.067 (Official Final Action).
</P>
<P>(iii) Crude fiber content—sections 14.062 and 14.065 (Official Final Action).
</P>
<P>(2) The method referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is as follows: Use No. 12 and No. 25 sieves, having standard 20.3 centimeter (8-inch) diameter full-height frames, complying with the specifications for wire cloth and sieve frames in “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series)” prescribed in § 137.105(a), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> A sieve with frame of the same dimensions as the Nos. 12 and 25 and fitted with 72 XXX grits gauze is used as the third sieve. It is referred to hereafter as the No. 72 sieve. The 72 XXX grits gauze has openings equivalent in size with those of No. 70 woven-wire cloth, complying with specifications for such cloth contained in such “Standard Specifications for Sieves.” Attach bottom pan to No. 72 sieve. Fit the No. 25 sieve into the No. 72 sieve and the No. 12 sieve into the No. 25 sieve. Pour 100 grams of sample into the No. 12 sieve, attach cover and hold the assembly in a slightly inclined position and shake the assembly of sieves by striking the sides against one hand with an upward stroke, at the rate of about 150 times per minute. Turn the assembly of sieves about one-sixth of a revolution, each time in the same direction, after each 25 strokes. Continue shaking for 2 minutes. Weigh separately the material remaining on each sieve and in the pan, and calculate each weight as percent of sample. Sometimes when meals are tested, fine particles clog the sieve openings. If any sieve is clogged by fine material smaller than its openings, empty the contents onto a piece of paper. Remove the entrapped material on the bottom of the sieve by a hair brush and add to the sieve below. In like manner, clean the adhering material from inside the sieve and add to the material on the paper. Return mixture on the paper to the sieve, reassemble the sieves, and shake in the same manner as before for 1 minute. Repeat cleaning procedure if necessary until a 5-gram or less loss in weight occurs in any sieve during a 1-minute shaking. The percent of sample passing through No. 12 sieve shall be determined by subtracting from 100 percent, the percent of material remaining on the No. 12 sieve. The percent passing through a No. 25 sieve shall be determined by adding the percents remaining on the No. 72 sieve and the percent in pan. The percent in the pan shall be considered as the percent passing through a No. 72 XXX grits gauze.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11828, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10098, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.255" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.255   Bolted white corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bolted white corn meal is the food prepared by so grinding and sifting cleaned white corn that:
</P>
<P>(1) Its crude fiber content is less than 1.2 percent but its fat content is not less than 2.25 percent; and
</P>
<P>(2) When tested by the method prescribed in § 137.250(b)(2), except that a No. 20 standard sieve is used instead of the No. 12 sieve, not less than 95 percent passes through a No. 20 sieve, not less than 45 percent through a No. 25 sieve, but not more than 25 percent through No. 72 XXX grits gauze. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent. In its preparation particles of ground corn which contain germ may be separated, reground, and recombined with all or part of the material from which it was separated, but in any such case the fat content of the finished bolted white corn meal does not exceed by more than 0.3 percent the fat content of the cleaned corn from which it was ground. The contents of crude fiber and fat in all the foregoing provisions relating thereto are on a moisture-free basis.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, moisture, fat and crude fiber are determined by the methods therefor referred to in § 137.250(b)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.260" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.260   Enriched corn meals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Enriched corn meals are the foods, each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for a kind of corn meal by §§ 137.250, 137.255, 137.265, 137.270, 137.275, 137.280, 137.285, and 137.290, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) It contains in each pound not less than 2.0 milligrams (mg) and not more than 3.0 mg of thiamin, not less than 1.2 mg and not more than 1.8 mg of riboflavin, not less than 16 mg and not more than 24 mg of niacin or niacinamide, not less than 0.7 mg and not more than 1.0 mg of folic acid, and not less than 13 mg and not more than 26 mg of iron (Fe);
</P>
<P>(2) It may contain in each pound not less than 250 U.S.P. units and not more than 1,000 U.S.P. units of vitamin D; and
</P>
<P>(3) It may contain in each pound not less than 500 milligrams and not more than 750 milligrams of calcium (Ca); <I>Provided, however,</I> That enriched self-rising corn meals shall contain in each pound not more than 1,750 milligrams of calcium (Ca). Iron and calcium may be added only in forms which are harmless and assimilable. The substances referred to in this paragraph (a)(3) and in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section may be added in a harmless carrier which does not impair the enriched corn meal; such carrier is used only in the quantity necessary to effect an intimate and uniform admixture of such substances with the kind of corn meal used. Dried yeast in quantities not exceeding 1.5 percent by weight of the finished food may be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of each kind of enriched corn meal is the word “Enriched” followed by the name of the kind of corn meal used which is prescribed in the definition and standard of identity therefor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 8796, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.265" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.265   Degerminated white corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Degerminated white corn meal, degermed white corn meal, is the food prepared by grinding cleaned white corn and removing bran and germ so that:
</P>
<P>(1) On a moisture-free basis, its crude fiber content is less than 1.2 percent and its fat content is less than 2.25 percent; and
</P>
<P>(2) When tested by the method prescribed in § 137.250(b)(2), except that a No. 20 standard sieve is used instead of a No. 12 sieve, not less than 95 percent passes through a No. 20 sieve, not less than 45 percent through a No. 25 sieve, but not more than 25 percent through No. 72 XXX grits gauze. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, moisture, fat and crude fiber are determined by methods therefor referred to in § 137.250(b)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.270" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.270   Self-rising white corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Self-rising white corn meal is an intimate mixture of white corn meal, sodium bicarbonate, and one or both of the acid-reacting substances monocalcium phosphate and sodium aluminum phosphate. It is seasoned with salt. When it is tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, not less than 0.5 percent of carbon dioxide is evolved. The acid-reacting substance is added in sufficient quantity to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate. The combined weight of such acid-reacting substance and sodium bicarbonate is not more than 4.5 parts to each 100 parts of white corn meal used.
</P>
<P>(b) The method referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), section 8.002, “Reagent (Displacement soln.),” and section 8.003, “Chittick apparatus,” under the heading “Total Carbon Dioxide (1)—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The following procedure is substituted for the procedure specified in the AOAC, under section 8.004, “Determination”:
</P>
<P>(1) Weigh 17 grams of the official sample into flask <I>A,</I> add 15-20 glass beads (4-6 mm. diameter), and connect this flask with the apparatus (fig. 25). Open stopcock <I>C</I> and by means of the leveling bulk <I>E</I> bring the displacement solution to the 25 cc. graduation above the zero mark. (This 25 cc. is a partial allowance for the volume of acid to be used in the decomposition.) Allow the apparatus to stand 1-2 minutes to insure that the temperature and pressure within the apparatus are the same as those of the room. Close the stopcock, lower the leveling bulb somewhat to reduce the pressure within the apparatus, and slowly run into the decomposition flask from burette <I>F</I> 45 cc. of sulfuric acid (1 + 5). To prevent the liberated carbon dioxide from escaping through the acid burette into the air keep the displacement solution in the leveling bulb at all times during the decomposition at a lower level than that in the gas-measuring tube. Rotate and then vigorously agitate the decomposition flask for 3 minutes to mix the contents intimately. Allow to stand for 10 minutes to bring to equilibrium. Equalize the pressure in the measuring tube by means of the leveling bulb and read the volume of gas from the zero point on the tube. Deduct 20 cc. from this reading (this 20 cc. together with previous allowance of 25 cc. compensates for the 45 cc. acid used in the decomposition). Observe the temperature of the air surrounding the apparatus and also the barometric pressure and multiply the number of mL of gas evolved by the factor given in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), section 52.007 under Reference Tables for the temperature and pressure observed, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b) of this section. Divide the corrected reading by 100 to obtain the apparent percent by weight of carbon dioxide in the official sample.
</P>
<P>(2) Correct the apparent percent of carbon dioxide to compensate for varying atmospheric conditions by immediately assaying a synthetic sample by the same method in the same apparatus.
</P>
<P>(3) Prepare the synthetic sample with 16.2 grams of corn meal, 0.30 gram of monocalcium phosphate, 0.30 gram of salt, and a sufficient quantity of sodium bicarbonate U.S.P. (dried over sulfuric acid) to yield the amount of carbon dioxide recovered in assay of official sample. Determine this quantity by multiplying weight of carbon dioxide recovered in assay of official sample by 1.91.
</P>
<P>(4) Divide the weight of carbon dioxide recovered from synthetic sample by weight of carbon dioxide contained in sodium bicarbonate used.
</P>
<P>(5) Divide the quotient into the apparent percent of carbon dioxide in official sample to obtain percent of carbon dioxide evolved from the official sample.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11828, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10098, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.275" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.275   Yellow corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>Yellow corn meal conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed by § 137.250 for white corn meal except that cleaned yellow corn is used instead of cleaned white corn.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.280" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.280   Bolted yellow corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>Bolted yellow corn meal conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed by § 137.255 for bolted white corn meal except that cleaned yellow corn is used instead of cleaned white corn.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.285" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.285   Degerminated yellow corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>Degerminated yellow corn meal, degermed yellow corn meal, conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed by § 137.265 for degerminated white corn meal except that cleaned yellow corn is used instead of cleaned white corn.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.290" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.290   Self-rising yellow corn meal.</HEAD>
<P>Self-rising yellow corn meal conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed by § 137.270 for self-rising white corn meal except that yellow corn meal is used instead of white corn meal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.300" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.300   Farina.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farina is the food prepared by grinding and bolting cleaned wheat, other than durum wheat and red durum wheat, to such fineness that, when tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, it passes through a No. 20 sieve, but not more than 3 percent passes through a No. 100 sieve. It is freed from bran coat, or bran coat and germ, to such extent that the percent of ash therein, calculated to a moisture-free basis, is not more than 0.6 percent. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ash and moisture are determined by the methods therefor referred to in § 137.105(c).
</P>
<P>(2) The method referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is as follows: Use No. 20 and No. 100 sieves, having standard 20.3 centimeter (8-inch) full-height frames, complying with the specifications for such cloth set forth in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Fit a No. 20 sieve into a No. 100 sieve. Attach bottom pan to the No. 100 sieve. Pour 100 grams of the sample into the No. 20 sieve. Attach cover and hold the assembly in a slightly inclined position with one hand. Shake the sieves by striking the sides against the other hand with an upward stroke, at the rate of about 150 times per minute. Turn the sieves about one-sixth of a revolution, each time in the same direction, after each 25 strokes. Continue shaking for 2 minutes. Weigh the material which fails to pass through the No. 20 sieve and the material which passes through the No. 100 sieve.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11828, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10098, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.305" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.305   Enriched farina.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Enriched farina conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for farina by § 137.300, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) It contains in each pound not less than 2.0 milligrams (mg) and not more than 2.5 mg of thiamin, not less than 1.2 mg and not more than 1.5 mg of riboflavin, not less than 16.0 mg and not more than 20.0 mg of niacin or niacinamide, not less than 0.7 mg and not more than 0.87 mg of folic acid, and not less than 13.0 mg of iron (Fe).
</P>
<P>(2) Vitamin D may be added in such quantity that each pound of the finished enriched farina contains not less than 250 U.S.P. units of the optional ingredient vitamin D.
</P>
<P>(3) Calcium may be added in such quantity that each pound of the finished enriched farina contains not less than 500 milligrams of the optional ingredient calcium (Ca).
</P>
<P>(4) It may contain not more than 8 percent by weight of the optional ingredient wheat germ or partly defatted wheat germ.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) It may contain not less than 0.5 percent and not more than 1 percent by weight of the optional ingredient disodium phosphate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) It may be treated with one of the proteinase enzymes papain or pepsin to reduce substantially the time required for cooking. In such treatment papain or pepsin, in an amount not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight, is added to the farina, which is moistened, warmed, and subsequently heated sufficiently to inactivate the enzyme and to dry the product to comply with the limit for moisture prescribed by § 137.300(a).
</P>
<P>(6) In determining whether the ash content complies with the requirements of this section allowance is made for ash resulting from any added iron or salts of iron or calcium, or from any added disodium phosphate, or from any added wheat germ or partly defatted wheat germ.
</P>
<FP>Iron and calcium may be added only in forms which are harmless and assimilable. Dried irradiated yeast may be used as a source of vitamin D. The substances referred to in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section may be added in a harmless carrier which does not impair the enriched farina; such carrier is used only in the quantity necessary to effect an intimate and uniform admixture of such substances with the farina.
</FP>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) When the optional ingredient disodium phosphate is used, the label shall bear the statement “Disodium phosphate added for quick cooking”.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the proteinase enzyme treatment is used, the label shall bear the statement “Enzyme treated for quicker cooking”. 
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements prescribed by paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter; except that where the name of the food is a part of a trademark or brand, then other written, printed, or graphic matter that is also a part of the trademark or brand may so intervene, if such statement is in such juxtaposition with the trademark or brand as to be conspicuously related to the name of the food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 8796, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.320" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.320   Semolina.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Semolina is the food prepared by grinding and bolting cleaned durum wheat to such fineness that, when tested by the method prescribed in § 137.300(b)(2), it passes through a No. 20 sieve, but not more than 3 percent passes through a No. 100 sieve. It is freed from bran coat, or bran coat and germ, to such extent that the percent of ash therein, calculated to a moisture-free basis, is not more than 0.92 percent. Its moisture content is not more than 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section, ash and moisture are determined by the methods therefor referred to in § 137.105(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 137.350" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.28.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 137.350   Enriched rice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The foods for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are forms of milled rice (except rice coated with talc and glucose and known as coated rice), to which nutrients have been added so that each pound of the rice contains:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than 2.0 milligrams (mg) and not more than 4.0 mg of thiamin, not less than 1.2 mg and not more than 2.4 mg of riboflavin, not less than 16 mg and not more than 32 mg of niacin or niacinamide, not less than 0.7 mg and not more than 1.4 mg of folic acid, and not less than 13 mg and not more than 26 mg of iron (Fe).
</P>
<P>(2) Each pound may contain not less than 250 U.S.P. units and not more than 1,000 U.S.P. units of vitamin D.
</P>
<P>(3) Each pound may contain not less than 500 milligrams and not more than 1,000 milligrams of calcium (Ca). Calcium carbonate derived from the use of this substance in milling rice, when present in quantities that furnish less than 500 milligrams of calcium (Ca) per pound, is considered a normal ingredient of the milled rice used and not an optional ingredient of the enriched rice unless such enriched rice is labeled to show it contains the optional ingredient calcium. Iron and calcium may be added only in forms that are harmless and assimilable. The vitamins referred to in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section may be combined with harmless substances to render them insoluble in water, if the water-insoluble products are assimilable.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of enriched parboiled rice, butylated hydroxytoluene may be added as an optional ingredient in an amount not to exceed 0.0033 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) The substances referred to in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this section may be added in a harmless carrier. Such carrier is used only in the quantity necessary to effect an intimate and uniform mixture of such substances with the rice.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the label of the food bears the statement “To retain vitamins do not rinse before or drain after cooking” immediately preceding or following the name of the food and in letters not less than one-fourth the point size of type used for printing the name of the food (but in no case less than 8-point type) and the label bears no cooking directions calling for washing or draining or unless the food is precooked and it is packaged in consumer packages which are conspicuously and prominently labeled with directions for preparation which, if followed, will avoid washing away or draining off enriching ingredients, the substances named in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be present in such quantity or in such form that when the enriched rice is washed as prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section, the washed rice contains not less than 85 percent of the minimum quantities of the substances named in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as required for enriched rice; and in case any optional ingredients named in paragraphs (a) (2) and (3) of this section are used, the washed rice also contains not less than 85 percent of the minimum quantity specified for the substance or substances used.
</P>
<P>(d) The name specified for each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is the common name of the kind of milled rice to which the enriching substances are added, preceded by the word “enriched” as, for example, “Enriched rice” or “Enriched parboiled rice”.
</P>
<P>(e) The method referred to in paragraph (c) of this section is as follows: Mix the contents of one or more containers and transfer 
<FR>1/2</FR> pound thereof to a 4-liter flask containing 2 liters of distilled water at room temperature (but not below 20 °C). Stopper the flask and swirl it moderately for 
<FR>1/2</FR> minute so that the rice is in motion and in uniform suspension. Allow the rice to settle for 
<FR>1/2</FR> minute, then pour off 1,600 milliliters of the water, together with any floating and suspended matter, and discard. To the contents of the flask, add 1,600 milliliters of distilled water and 20 milliliters of 10 <I>N</I> hydrochloric acid. Agitate vigorously and wash down the sides of the flask with 150 milliliters of 0.1 <I>N</I> hydrochloric acid. In order to avoid excess foaming during the extraction, heat the mixture slowly to about 100 °C, agitate if necessary, and maintain at this temperature until air is expelled. Again wash down the sides of the flask with 150 milliliters of 0.1 <I>N</I> hydrochloric acid. Heat the mixture in an autoclave at 120 °C to 123 °C for 30 minutes, remove and cool to room temperature. Dilute the mixture with distilled water so that the total volume is 2,500 milliliters. Swirl the flask, and while the solids are in uniform suspension pour off about 250 milliliters of the mixture for later determination of iron (and calcium, if this is to be determined). With filter paper that has been shown not to adsorb thiamine, riboflavin, or niacin, filter enough of the remaining mixture for determination of thiamine, riboflavin, and niacin. (In the case of a mixture difficult to filter, centrifuging or filtering through fritted glass, or both, using a suitable analytical filter-aid, may be substituted for, or may precede, filtering through paper.) Dilute an aliquot of filtrate with 0.1 <I>N</I> hydrochloric acid, so that each milliliter contains about 0.2 microgram of thiamine, and determine thiamine by the “Rapid Fluorometric Method—Official Final Action,” in section 43.034 of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>With a suitable aliquot determine riboflavin by the method prescribed in section 43.041(a) by the “Fluorometric Method—Official Final Action,” AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), beginning with the third sentence of the second paragraph, “Adjust, with vigorous agitation * * *.” Determine niacin in a 200-milliliter aliquot of the filtrate by the “Colorimetric Method—Official Final Action,” in section 43.045, AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), beginning with the sixth sentence of the first paragraph, “Adjust to pH 4.5 with * * *.” Evaporate to dryness a 100-milliliter aliquot of the nonfiltered material withdrawn while agitating, and determine iron using the method “Iron—Official Final Action,” in sections 14.011, 14.012, and 14.013, AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), and, if required, determine calcium as directed in section 14.014 under the heading “Calcium—Official Final Action,” AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980). 
</P>
<P>(f) When the optional ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section is added, the statement “Butylated hydroxytoluene added as a preservative” shall be placed on the label prominently and with such conspicuousness (as compared with other words, statements, designs, or devices in the label) as to render it likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Order of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs appearing at 23 FR 1170, Feb. 25, 1958, amending paragraphs (a)(1) and (c) provides in part as follows: The regulations in § 137.350 (formerly § 15.525) are stayed insofar as they require each pound of the food to contain not less than 1.2 milligrams and not more than 2.4 milligrams of riboflavin. This stay shall continue until final action is taken disposing of the objections, after public hearing thereon.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14402, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11828, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10098, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 8796, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="139" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 139—MACARONI AND NOODLE PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Macaroni and Noodle Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.110   Macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Macaroni products are the class of food each of which is prepared by drying formed units of dough made from semolina, durum flour, farina, flour, or any combination of two or more of these, with water and with or without one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a) (1) to (6), inclusive, of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Egg white, frozen egg white, dried egg white, or any two or all of these, in such quantity that the solids thereof are not less than 0.5 percent and not more than 2.0 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(2) Disodium phosphate, in a quantity not less than 0.5 percent and not more than 1.0 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(3) Onions, celery, garlic, bay leaf, or any two or more of these, in a quantity which seasons the food.
</P>
<P>(4) Salt, in a quantity which seasons the food.
</P>
<P>(5) Gum gluten, in such quantity that the protein content of the finished food is not more than 13 percent by weight. The finished macaroni product contains not less than 87 percent of total solids as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), in section 14.133, under the heading “Vacuum Oven Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(6) Concentrated glyceryl monostearate (containing not less than 90 percent monoester), in a quantity not exceeding 2 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) Macaroni is the macaroni product the units of which are tube-shaped and more than 0.11 inch but not more than 0.27 inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(c) Spaghetti is the macaroni product the units of which are tube-shaped or cord-shaped (not tubular) and more than 0.06 inch but not more than 0.11 inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(d) Vermicelli is the macaroni product the units of which are cord-shaped (not tubular) and not more than 0.06 inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Macaroni product”; or alternatively, the name is “Macaroni”, “Spaghetti”, or “Vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food are of the shapes and sizes specified in paragraph (b), (c), or (d), respectively, of this section.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) When disodium phosphate is used the label shall bear the statement “Disodium phosphate added for quick cooking”.
</P>
<P>(2) When any ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is used the label shall bear the statement “Seasoned with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common name of the ingredient; or in the case of bay leaves the statement “Spiced”, “Spice added”, or “Spiced with bay leaves”.
</P>
<P>(3) When the ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement “Glyceryl monostearate added” or the statement “With added glyceryl monostearate”.
</P>
<P>(4) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words and statements prescribed in this section, showing the optional ingredients used, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow, or in part precede and in part follow, such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11828, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10099, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.115   Enriched macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Enriched macaroni products are the class of food each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f), and (g), except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each such food contains in each pound not less than 4.0 milligrams (mg) and not more than 5.0 mg of thiamin, not less than 1.7 mg and not more than 2.2 mg of riboflavin, not less than 27 mg and not more than 34 mg of niacin or niacinamide, not less than 0.9 mg and not more than 1.2 mg of folic acid, and not less than 13 mg and not more than 16.5 mg of iron (Fe);
</P>
<P>(2) Each such food may also contain as an optional ingredient added vitamin D in such quantity that each pound of the finished food contains not less than 250 U.S.P. units and not more than 1000 U.S.P. units of vitamin D.
</P>
<P>(3) Each such food may also contain as an optional ingredient added calcium in such quantity that each pound of the finished food contains not less than 500 mg. and not more than 625 mg. of calcium (Ca);
</P>
<P>(4) Each such food may also contain as an optional ingredient partly defatted wheat germ but the amount thereof does not exceed 5 percent of the weight of the finished food;
</P>
<P>(5) Each such food may be supplied, wholly or in part, with the prescribed quantity of any substance referred to in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this section through the use of dried yeast, dried torula yeast, partly defatted wheat germ, enriched farina, or enriched flour, or through the direct additions of any of the substances prescribed in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<FP>Iron and calcium may be added only in forms which are harmless and assimilable. The substances referred to in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section may be added in a harmless carrier which does not impair the enriched macaroni product, such carrier being used only in the quantity reasonably necessary to effect an intimate and uniform distribution of such substances in the finished enriched macaroni product.
</FP>
<P>(b) Enriched macaroni is the enriched macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for macaroni by § 139.110(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Enriched spaghetti is the enriched macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for spaghetti by § 139.110(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Enriched vermicelli is the enriched macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for vermicelli by § 139.110(d).
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Enriched Macaroni product”; or alternatively, the name is “Enriched macaroni”, “Enriched spaghetti”, or “Enriched vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) respectively of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 8797, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.117" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.117   Enriched macaroni products with fortified protein.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each of the foods for which a standard of identity is prescribed by this section is produced by drying formed units of dough made with one or more of the milled wheat ingredients designated in §§ 139.110(a) and 139.138(a), and other ingredients to enable the finished food to meet the protein requirements set out in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Edible protein sources, including food grade flours or meals made from nonwheat cereals or from oilseeds, may be used. Vitamin and mineral enrichment nutrients are added to bring the food into conformity with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Safe and suitable ingredients, as provided for in paragraph (c) of this section, may be added. The proportion of the milled wheat ingredient is larger than the proportion of any other ingredient used.
</P>
<P>(2) Each such finished food, when tested by the methods described in the cited sections of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference (copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) The protein content (N × 6.25) is not less than 20 percent by weight (on a 13 percent moisture basis) as determined by the method in section 14.142. The protein quality is not less than 95 percent that of casein as determined on the cooked food by the method in sections 43.212 through 43.216 of the official methods.
</P>
<P>(ii) The total solids content is not less than 87 percent by weight as determined by the method in section 14.133 of the official methods.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each food covered by this section contains in each pound 5 milligrams of thiamin, 2.2 milligrams of riboflavin, 34 milligrams of niacin or niacinamide, and 16.5 milligrams of iron.
</P>
<P>(2) Each pound of such food may also contain 625 milligrams of calcium.
</P>
<P>(3) Iron and calcium may be added only in forms which are harmless and assimilable. The enrichment nutrients may be added in a harmless carrier used only in a quantity necessary to effect a uniform distribution of the nutrients in the finished food. The requirements of paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section shall be deemed to have been met if reasonable overages, within the limits of good manufacturing practice, are present to assure that the prescribed levels of the vitamins and mineral(s) are maintained throughout the expected shelf life of the food under customary conditions of distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) The safe and suitable ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are ingredients that serve a useful purpose, e.g., to fortify the protein or facilitate production of the food, but they do not include color additives, artificial flavorings, artificial sweeteners, chemical preservatives, or starches. Ingredients deemed suitable for use by this paragraph are added in amounts that are not in excess of those reasonably required to achieve their intended purposes. Ingredients are deemed to be safe if they are not food additives within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or in case they are food additives, if they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The name of any food covered by this section is “Enriched Wheat ______ Macaroni Product—with Fortified Protein”, the blank being filled in with appropriate word(s) such as “Soy” to show the source of any flours or meals used that were made from nonwheat cereals or from oilseeds. In lieu of the words “Macaroni Product” the word “Macaroni”, “Spaghetti”, or “Vermicelli”, as appropriate, may be used if the units conform in shape and size to the requirements of § 139.110 (b), (c), or (d).
</P>
<P>(2) When any ingredient, not designated in the part of the name prescribed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, is added in such proportion as to contribute 10 percent or more of the quantity of protein contained in the finished food, the name shall include the statement “Made with ______”, the blank being filled in with the name of each such ingredient, e.g., “Made with nonfat milk”.
</P>
<P>(3) When, in conformity with paragraph (d) (1) or (2) of this section, two or more ingredients are listed in the name, their designations shall be arranged in descending order of predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a food made to comply with another section of this part, but which also meets the compositional requirements of this section, it may alternatively bear the name set out in that other section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11829, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10099, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>Section 139.117 was stayed in its entirety at 43 FR 11695, Mar. 21, 1978.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.120   Milk macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Milk macaroni products are the class of food, each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f)(2), (f)(3), and (g), except that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Milk is used as the sole moistening ingredient in preparing the dough; or in lieu of milk one or more of the milk ingredients specified in paragraph (f) of this section is used, with or without water, in such quantity that the weight of milk solids therein is not less than 3.8 percent of the weight of the finished milk macaroni product; and
</P>
<P>(2) None of the optional ingredients permitted by § 139.110(a) (1) and (2) is used. When the optional ingredient gum gluten (§ 139.110(a)(5)) is added, the quantity is such that the protein derived therefrom, together with the protein derived from semolina, durum flour, farina, flour, or any combination of these used, does not exceed 13 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) Milk macaroni is the milk macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for macaroni by § 139.110(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Milk spaghetti is the milk macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for spaghetti by § 139.110(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Milk vermicelli is the milk macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for vermicelli by § 139.110(d).
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Milk Macaroni Product”; or alternatively, the name is “Milk macaroni”, “Milk spaghetti”, or “Milk vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraph (b), (c), or (d), respectively, of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The milk ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are concentrated milk, evaporated milk, dried milk, and a mixture of butter with skim milk, concentrated skim milk, evaporated skim milk, nonfat dry milk (dried skim milk), or any two or more of these, in such proportion that the weight of nonfat milk solids in such mixture is not more than 2.275 times the weight of milk fat therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.121" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.121   Nonfat milk macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the macaroni products made with nonfat milk for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f)(2), (f)(3), (f)(4), and (g), except that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) In preparing the dough, nonfat dry milk or concentrated skim milk, or a mixture of these, is used in an amount such that the finished macaroni product made with nonfat milk contains by weight not less than 12 percent and not more than 25 percent of milk solids-not-fat. Carrageenan or salts of carrageenan conforming to the requirements of §§ 172.620 and 172.626 of this chapter may be used in a quantity not in excess of 0.833 percent by weight of the milk solids-not-fat used.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the ingredient carrageenan or the salts of carrageenan specified in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement, “Carrageenan added” or “Salts of carrageenan added” or the statement “With added carrageenan” or “With added salts of carrageenan”, in the manner further prescribed by § 139.110(f)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) None of the optional ingredients permitted by § 139.110(a) (1), (2), and (5) are used.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Macaroni products made with nonfat milk” or, alternatively, the name is “Macaroni made with nonfat milk”, “Spaghetti made with nonfat milk” or “Vermicelli made with nonfat milk”, as the case may be when the units of the food conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed by § 139.110 (b), (c), or (d), respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.122" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.122   Enriched nonfat milk macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the enriched macaroni products made with nonfat milk for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f)(2), (f)(3), (f)(4), and (g), except that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) In preparing the dough, nonfat dry milk or concentrated skim milk, or a mixture of these, is used in an amount such that the finished enriched macaroni product made with nonfat milk contains by weight not less than 12 percent and not more than 25 percent of milk solids-not-fat. Carrageenan or the salts of carrageenan conforming to the requirements of § 172.620 and § 172.626 of this chapter may be used in a quantity not in excess of 0.833 percent by weight of the milk solids-not-fat used.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the ingredient carrageenan or the salts of carrageenan specified in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement, “Carrageenan added” or “Salts of carrageenan added” or the statement “With added carrageenan” or “With added salts of carrageenan”, in the manner further prescribed by § 139.110(f)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) None of the optional ingredients permitted by § 139.110(a) (1), (2), and (5) are used.
</P>
<P>(3) Each such food contains in each pound not less than 4.0 milligrams (mg) and not more than 5.0 mg of thiamin, not less than 1.7 mg and not more than 2.2 mg of riboflavin, not less than 27 mg and not more than 34 mg of niacin or niacinamide, not less than 0.9 mg and not more than 1.2 mg of folic acid, and not less than 13 mg and not more than 16.5 mg of iron (Fe). These substances may be added through direct addition or wholly or in part through the use of dried yeast, dried torula yeast, partly defatted wheat germ (as provided for in paragraph (a)(4) of this section), enriched farina, or enriched flour. They may be added in a harmless carrier, such carrier being used only in the quantity reasonably necessary to effect an intimate and uniform distribution of such substances in the finished food. Iron may be added only in a form that is harmless and assimilable.
</P>
<P>(4) Each such food may also contain as an optional ingredient partly defatted wheat germ, but the amount thereof does not exceed 5 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Enriched macaroni product made with nonfat milk” or, alternatively, the name is “Enriched macaroni made with nonfat milk”, “Enriched spaghetti made with nonfat milk”, or “Enriched vermicelli made with nonfat milk,” as the case may be when the units of the food conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed by § 139.110 (b), (c), or (d), respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.125" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.125   Vegetable macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vegetable macaroni products are the class of food each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f)(2), (f)(3), and (g), except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Tomato (of any red variety), artichoke, beet, carrot, parsley, or spinach is added in such quantity that the solids thereof are not less than 3 percent by weight of the finished vegetable macaroni product (the vegetable used may be fresh, canned, dried, or in the form of puree or paste); and
</P>
<P>(2) None of the optional ingredients permitted by § 139.110(a) (1) and (2) is used. When the optional ingredient gum gluten (§ 139.110(a)(5)) is added, the quantity is such that the protein derived therefrom, together with the protein derived from the semolina, durum flour, farina, flour or any combination of these used, does not exceed 13 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) Vegetable macaroni is the vegetable macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for macaroni by § 139.110(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Vegetable spaghetti is the vegetable macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for spaghetti by § 139.110(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Vegetable vermicelli is the vegetable macaroni product, the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for vermicelli by § 139.110(d).
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “______ macaroni product”, the blank being filled in with the name whereby the vegetable used is designated in paragraph (a) of this section; or alternatively, the name is “______ macaroni”, “______ spaghetti”, or “______ vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, respectively, the blank in each instance being filled in with the name whereby the vegetable used is designated in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.135   Enriched vegetable macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the macaroni products for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f), and (g), and in addition is enriched to meet the requirements prescribed for enriched macaroni products by § 139.115 and contains a vegetable ingredient in compliance with the requirements prescribed for vegetable macaroni products by § 139.125.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Enriched ______ macaroni product”, or, alternatively, the name is “Enriched ______ macaroni”, “Enriched ______ spaghetti”, or “Enriched ______ vermicelli”, when the units comply with the shape and size requirements prescribed for macaroni, spaghetti, or vermicelli in § 139.110 (b), (c), or (d). The blank in each instance is filled in with the name of the vegetable used, as specified in § 139.125(a). For example, the name of an enriched macaroni product containing the prescribed amount of spinach and made in units not conforming in shape and size to the requirements for macaroni, spaghetti, or vermicelli is “Enriched spinach macaroni product”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.138" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.138   Whole wheat macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole wheat macaroni products are the class of food each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f)(2), (f)(3), and (g), except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Whole wheat flour or whole durum wheat flour or both are used as the sole wheat ingredient; and
</P>
<P>(2) None of the optional ingredients permitted by § 139.110(a) (1), (2), and (5) is used.
</P>
<P>(b) Whole wheat macaroni is the whole wheat macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for macaroni by § 139.110(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Whole wheat spaghetti is the whole wheat macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for spaghetti by § 139.110(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Whole wheat vermicelli is the whole wheat macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for vermicelli by § 139.110(d).
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Whole wheat macaroni product”; or alternatively, the name is “Whole wheat macaroni”, “Whole wheat spaghetti”, or “Whole wheat vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraph (b), (c), or (d), respectively, of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.140   Wheat and soy macaroni products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wheat and soy macaroni products are the class of food each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for macaroni products by § 139.110(a), (f)(2), (f)(3), and (g), except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Soy flour is added in a quantity not less than 12.5 percent of the combined weight of the wheat and soy ingredients used (the soy flour used is made from heat-processed, dehulled soybeans, with or without the removal of fat therefrom); and
</P>
<P>(2) None of the optional ingredients permitted by § 139.110(a) (1) and (2) is used. When the optional ingredient gum gluten (§ 139.110(a)(5)) is added, the quantity is such that the protein derived therefrom, together with the protein derived from semolina, durum flour, farina, flour or any combination of these used, does not exceed 13 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(b) Wheat and soy macaroni is the wheat and soy macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for macaroni by § 139.110(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Wheat and soy spaghetti is the wheat and soy macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for spaghetti by § 139.110(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Wheat and soy vermicelli is the wheat and soy macaroni product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for vermicelli by § 139.110(d).
</P>
<P>(e) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Wheat and soy macaroni product”, “Wheat and soybean macaroni product”, “______ and soy macaroni product”, or “______ and soybean macaroni product”, the blank in each instance being filled in with the name whereby the wheat ingredient used is designated in § 139.110(a); or alternatively, the name is “Wheat and soy macaroni”, “Wheat and soybean macaroni”, “______ and soy macaroni”, or “______ and soybean macaroni” when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; or “Wheat and soy spaghetti”, “Wheat and soybean spaghetti”, “______ and soy spaghetti”, or “______ and soybean spaghetti” when such units comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section; or “Wheat and soy vermicelli”, “Wheat and soybean vermicelli”, “______ and soy vermicelli”, or “______ and soybean vermicelli” when such units comply with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, the blank in each instance being filled in with the name whereby the wheat ingredient used is designated in § 139.110(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2878, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.150   Noodle products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Noodle products are the class of food each of which is prepared by drying formed units of dough made from semolina, durum flour, farina, flour, or any combination of two or more of these, with liquid eggs, frozen eggs, dried eggs, egg yolks, frozen yolks, dried yolks, or any combination of two or more of these, with or without water and with or without one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a) (1) to (4) of this section inclusive:
</P>
<P>(1) Onions, celery, garlic, bay leaf, or any two or more of these, in a quantity which seasons the food.
</P>
<P>(2) Salt, in a quantity which seasons the food.
</P>
<P>(3) Gum gluten, in such quantity that the protein derived therefrom, together with the protein derived from semolina, durum flour, farina, flour or any combination of these used, does not exceed 13 percent of the weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(4) Concentrated glyceryl monostearate (containing not less than 90 percent monoester) in a quantity not exceeding 3 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>The finished noodle product contains not less than 87 percent of total solids as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), in section 14.133, under the heading “Vacuum Oven Method—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The total solids of noodle products contains not less than 5.5 percent by weight of the solids of egg, or egg yolk.
</P>
<P>(b) Noodles, egg noodles, is the noodle product the units of which are ribbon-shaped.
</P>
<P>(c) Egg macaroni is the noodle product the units of which are tube-shaped and more than 0.11 inch but not more than 0.27 inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(d) Egg spaghetti is the noodle product the units of which are tube-shaped or cord-shaped (not tubular) and more than 0.06 inch but not more than 0.11 inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(e) Egg vermicelli is the noodle product the units of which are cord-shaped (not tubular) and not more than 0.06 inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(f) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Noodle product” or “Egg noodle product”; or alternatively, the name is “Noodles” or “Egg noodles”, “Egg macaroni”, “Egg spaghetti”, or “Egg vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food are of the shapes and sizes specified in paragraph (b), (c), (d), or (e), respectively, of this section.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) When any ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is used, the label of the noodle product shall bear the statement “Seasoned with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common name of the ingredient; or in the case of bay leaves, the statement “Spiced”, “Spice added”, or “Spiced with bay leaves”.
</P>
<P>(2) When the ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement “Glyceryl monostearate added” or the statement “With added glyceryl monostearate”.
</P>
<P>(h) Wherever the name of the food appears on such label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words and statements prescribed in this section, showing the ingredients used shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow, or in part precede and in part follow, such name without intervening written, printed, or other graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11829, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10099, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.155   Enriched noodle products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Enriched noodle products are the class of food each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for noodle products by § 139.150 (a), (g), and (i), except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each such food contains in each pound not less than 4 milligrams (mg) and not more than 5 mg of thiamin, not less than 1.7 mg and not more than 2.2 mg of riboflavin, not less than 27 mg and not more than 34 mg of niacin or niacinamide, not less than 0.9 mg and not more than 1.2 mg of folic acid, and not less than 13 mg and not more than 16.5 mg of iron (Fe);
</P>
<P>(2) Each such food may also contain as an optional ingredient added vitamin D in such quantity that each pound of the finished food contains not less than 250 U.S.P. units and not more than 1000 U.S.P. units of vitamin D;
</P>
<P>(3) Each such food may also contain as an optional ingredient added calcium in such quantity that each pound of the finished food contains not less than 500 mg. and not more than 625 mg. of calcium (Ca);
</P>
<P>(4) Each such food may also contain as an optional ingredient partly defatted wheat germ, but the amount thereof does not exceed 5 percent of the weight of the finished food; 
</P>
<P>(5) Each such food may be supplied, wholly or in part, with the prescribed quantity of any substance referred to in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this section through the use of dried yeast, dried torula yeast, partly defatted wheat germ, enriched farina, or enriched flour, or through the direct additions of any of the substances prescribed in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<FP>Iron and calcium may be added only in forms which are harmless and assimilable. The substances referred to in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section may be added in a harmless carrier which does not impair the enriched noodle product, such carrier being used only in the quantity reasonably necessary to effect an intimate and uniform distribution of such substances in the finished enriched noodle product.
</FP>
<P>(b) Enriched noodles, enriched egg noodles are the enriched noodle products the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for noodles in § 139.150(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Enriched egg macaroni is the enriched noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg macaroni in § 139.150(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Enriched egg spaghetti is the enriched noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg spaghetti in § 139.150(d).
</P>
<P>(e) Enriched egg vermicelli is the enriched noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg vermicelli in § 139.150(e).
</P>
<P>(f) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Enriched noodle product” or “Enriched egg noodle product”; or alternatively, the name is “Enriched noodles”, or “Enriched egg noodles”, “Enriched egg macaroni”, “Enriched egg spaghetti”, or “Enriched egg vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraph (b), (c), (d), or (e) respectively of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.160   Vegetable noodle products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vegetable noodle products are the class of food each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients, prescribed for noodle products by § 139.150(a), (g), and (i), except that tomato (of any red variety), artichoke, beet, carrot, parsley, or spinach is added in such quantity that the solids thereof are not less than 3 percent by weight of the finished vegetable noodle product (the vegetable used may be fresh, canned, dried, or in the form of puree or paste).
</P>
<P>(b) Vegetable noodles, vegetable egg noodles, is the vegetable noodle product the units of which are ribbon-shaped.
</P>
<P>(c) Vegetable egg macaroni is the vegetable noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg macaroni by § 139.150(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Vegetable egg spaghetti is the vegetable noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg spaghetti by § 139.150(d).
</P>
<P>(e) Vegetable egg vermicelli is the vegetable noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg vermicelli by § 139.150(e).
</P>
<P>(f) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “______ noodle product” or “______ egg noodle product”, the blank being filled in with the name whereby the vegetable used is designated in paragraph (a) of this section; or alternatively, the name is “______ noodles” or “______ egg noodles”, “______ egg macaroni”, “______ egg spaghetti”, or “______ egg vermicelli”, as the case may be, when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraph (b), (c), (d), or (e) of this section, respectively, the blank in each instance being filled in with the name whereby the vegetable is designated in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.165" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.165   Enriched vegetable noodle products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the noodle products for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients prescribed for noodle products by § 139.150 (a), (g), (h), and (i), and in addition is enriched to meet the requirements prescribed for enriched noodle products by § 139.155 and, except as hereinafter provided, contains a vegetable ingredient in compliance with the requirements prescribed for vegetable noodle products by § 139.160. Because they are apt to impart an egg-yolk color, carrots are not used in enriched vegetable noodle products.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Enriched ______ noodle product”, “Enriched ______ egg noodle product”, or, alternatively, the name is “Enriched ______ noodles”, or “Enriched ______ egg noodles”, “Enriched ______ egg macaroni”, “Enriched ______ egg spaghetti”, or “Enriched ______ egg vermicelli”, when the units comply with the size and shape requirements for noodles, macaroni, spaghetti, or vermicelli in § 139.150 (b), (c), (d), or (e). The blank in each instance is filled in with the name of the vegetable used, as specified in § 139.160(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 139.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.29.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 139.180   Wheat and soy noodle products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wheat and soy noodle products are the class of food each of which conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to the requirements for label statement of ingredients prescribed for noodle products by § 139.150(a), (g), and (i), except that soy flour is added in a quantity not less than 12.5 percent of the combined weight of the wheat and soy ingredients used (the soy flour used is made from heat-processed, dehulled soybeans, with or without the removal of fat therefrom).
</P>
<P>(b) Wheat and soy noodles, wheat and soy egg noodles, is the wheat and soy noodle product the units of which are ribbon-shaped.
</P>
<P>(c) Wheat and soy egg macaroni is the wheat and soy noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg macaroni by § 139.150(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Wheat and soy egg spaghetti is the wheat and soy noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg spaghetti by § 139.150(d).
</P>
<P>(e) Wheat and soy egg vermicelli is the wheat and soy noodle product the units of which conform to the specifications of shape and size prescribed for egg vermicelli by § 139.150(e).
</P>
<P>(f) The name of each food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Wheat and soy noodle product”, “Wheat and soy egg noodle product”, “Wheat and soybean noodle product”, “Wheat and soybean egg noodle product”, “______ and soy noodle product”, “______ and soy egg noodle product”, “______ and soybean noodle product”, or “______ and soybean egg noodle product”, the blank in each instance being filled in with the name whereby the wheat ingredient used is designated in § 139.150(a); or alternatively, the name is “Wheat and soy noodles”, “Wheat and soy egg noodles”, “Wheat and soybean noodles”, “Wheat and soybean egg noodles”, “______ and soy noodles”, “______ and soy egg noodles”, “______ and soybean noodles”, or “______ and soybean egg noodles” when the units of the food comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; or “Wheat and soy egg macaroni”, “Wheat and soybean egg macaroni”, “______ and soy egg macaroni”, or “______ and soybean egg macaroni” when such units comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section; or “Wheat and soy egg spaghetti”, “Wheat and soybean egg spaghetti”, “______ and soy egg spaghetti”, or “______ and soybean egg spaghetti” when such units comply with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section; or “Wheat and soy egg vermicelli”, “Wheat and soybean egg vermicelli”, “______ and soy egg vermicelli”, or “______ and soybean egg vermicelli”, when such units comply with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, the blank in each instance being filled in with the name whereby the wheat ingredient used is designated in § 139.150(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14409, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 145—CANNED FRUITS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>corn sirup</I> means a clarified, concentrated aqueous solution of the products obtained by the incomplete hydrolysis of cornstarch, and includes dried corn sirup. The solids of corn sirup and of dried corn sirup contain not less than 40 percent by weight of reducing sugars calculated as anhydrous dextrose.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>dextrose</I> means the hydrated or anhydrous, refined monosaccharide obtained from hydrolyzed starch.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>dried glucose sirup</I> means the product obtained by drying “glucose sirup.”
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>glucose sirup</I> means a clarified, concentrated, aqueous solution of the products obtained by the incomplete hydrolysis of any edible starch. The solids of glucose sirup contain not less than 40 percent by weight of reducing sugars calculated as anhydrous dextrose.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>invert sugar sirup</I> means an aqueous solution of inverted or partly inverted, refined or partly refined sucrose, the solids of which contain not more than 0.3 percent by weight of ash, and which is colorless, odorless, and flavorless, except for sweetness.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>sugar</I> means refined sucrose.
</P>
<P>(g) The terms <I>edible organic acid</I> and <I>edible organic salt</I> refer to any edible organic acid and any edible organic salt added for the purpose of flavor enhancement that either is not a food additive as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or, if it is a food additive as so defined, is used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>water</I> means, in addition to water, any mixture of water and fruit juice in which the fruit juice(s) is less than 50 percent of such mixture, including any water contributed by the use of liquid nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>fruit juice(s) and water</I> means any mixture of fruit juice as herein defined and water, including any water contributed by the use of liquid nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners, in which the fruit juice(s) is 50 percent, or more, of such mixture except that water used in preparing equivalent single strength juice(s) from concentrate(s) shall not be considered to be a mixture of fruit juice and water.
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>fruit juice(s)</I> means single strength expressed juice(s) of sound, mature fruit(s). It may be fresh, frozen, canned, or made from concentrate(s). However, if it is made from concentrate(s), the juice(s) shall be reconstituted with water to not less than the soluble solids that such fruit juice had before concentration. Fruit juice(s) may be used singly or in combination. If a fruit juice(s) is used which is regulated by a standard of identity of this chapter, it shall conform to the compositional requirements prescribed by such standard prior to the addition of any sweetener which may be used.
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>clarified juice</I> means the liquid expressed wholly or in part from fruit peelings, fruit shells, fruit cores, or from the fruit flesh or parts thereof, which is clarified and may be further refined or concentrated.
</P>
<P>(l) The term <I>solid pack</I> means the product contains practically all fruit with only the very little free flowing liquid that is expressed from the fruit and to which no packing media have been added.
</P>
<P>(m) The procedure for determining the densities of the packing media means the following: The density of the packing medium, when measured 15 days or more after packing, or the density of the blended homogenized slurry of the comminuted entire contents of the container, when measured less than 15 days after canning, is determined according to “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference, section 31.
<SU>6</SU>F011 (Solids) “By Means of the Refractometer—Official Final Action” (and sections 52.012 and 52.015) with result expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) with correction for temperature to the equivalent at 20 °C, but without correction for invert sugar or other substances. Copies of the material incorporated by reference may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(n) The procedure for determining drained weight is as follows: Tilt the opened container so as to distribute the contents evenly over the meshes of a circular sieve which has previously been weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 20.3 centimeters (8 inches) if the quantity of contents of the container is less than 1.4 kilograms (3 pounds) and 30.5 centimeters (12 inches) if such quantity is 1.4 kilograms (3 pounds) or more. The bottom of the sieve is woven-wire cloth which complies with the specifications for the No. 8 sieve set forth in the “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes” of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (m) of this section. Carefully invert by hand all fruits having cups or cavities if they fall on the sieve with cups or cavities up. Cups or cavities in soft products may be drained by tilting sieve. Without further shifting the material on the sieve, incline the sieve at an angle of 17° to 20° to facilitate drainage. Two minutes after the drainage begins, weigh the sieve and drained fruit. The weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, shall be considered to be the weight of the drained fruit.
</P>
<P>(o) Compliance means the following: Unless otherwise provided in a standard, a lot of canned fruits shall be deemed in compliance for the following factors, to be determined by the sampling and acceptance procedure as provided in paragraph (p) of this section, namely:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Packing medium density.</I> A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for packing medium density based on the average sucrose value for all samples analyzed according to the sampling plans, but no container may have a sucrose value lower than that of the next lower category or 2 percent by weight sucrose (degrees Brix) lower if no lower category exists.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quality.</I> The quality of a lot shall be considered acceptable when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fill of container.</I> A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for fill of container (packing medium and fruit ingredient) when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number (c) in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Drained weight.</I> A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for drained weight based on the average value of all samples analyzed according to the sampling plans. The sample unit shall be the entire contents of the container.
</P>
<P>(p) The sampling and acceptance procedure means the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions</I>—(i) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Sample size.</I> The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for the examination or testing as a single unit.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Defective.</I> Any sample unit shall be regarded as defective when the sample unit does not meet the criteria set forth in the standards.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Acceptance number</I> (<I>c</I>). The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Acceptable quality level</I> (<I>AQL</I>). The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling plans:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size in container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E> 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001 to 72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001 to 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601 to 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,001 to 7,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,201 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">n</E> = number of primary containers in sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">c</E> = acceptance number.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11829, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10099, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Canned Fruits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.110   Canned applesauce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Canned applesauce is the food prepared from comminuted or chopped apples (<I>Malus domestica</I> Borkhausen), which may or may not be peeled and cored, and which may have added thereto one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The apple ingredient is heated and, in accordance with good manufacturing practices, bruised apple particles, peel, seed, core material, carpel tissue, and other coarse, hard, or extraneous materials are removed. The food is sealed in containers. It is so processed by heat, either before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage. The soluble solids content, measured by refractometer and expressed as percent sucrose (degrees Brix) with correction for temperature to the equivalent at 20 °C (68 °F), is not less than 9 percent (exclusive of the solids of any added optional nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners) as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 22.024, “Soluble Solids by Refractometer in Fresh and Canned Fruits, Jams, Marmalades, and Preserves—Official First Action,” which is incorporated by reference, but without correction for invert sugar or other substances. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Water.
</P>
<P>(ii) Apple juice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Salt.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any organic acid added for the purpose of acidification. (Organic acids generally recognized as having a preservative effect are not permitted in applesauce except as provided for in paragraph (a)(2)(viii) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(v) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(vi) Spices.
</P>
<P>(vii) Natural and artificial flavoring.
</P>
<P>(viii) Either of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Erythorbic acid or ascorbic acid as an antioxidant preservative in an amount not to exceed 150 parts per million; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) in a quantity such that the total vitamin C in each 113 g (4 ounces) by weight of the finished food amounts to 60 mg. This requirement will be deemed to have been met if a reasonable overage of the vitamin, within limits of good manufacturing practice, is present to insure that the required level is maintained throughout the expected shelf life of the food under customary conditions of distribution.
</P>
<P>(ix) Color additives in such quantity as to distinctly characterize the food unless such addition conceals damage or inferiority or makes the finished food appear better or of greater value than it is.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “applesauce”. The name of the food shall include a declaration indicating the presence of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice that characterizes the product. If a nutritive sweetener as provided for in paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section is added and the soluble solids content of the finished food is not less than 16.5 percent as determined by the method referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the name may include the word “sweetened”. If no such sweetener is added, the name may include the word “unsweetened”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter. However, when ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is added as provided for in paragraph (a)(2)(viii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, after the application of heat to the apples, preservative labeling requirements do not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned applesauce is a fill of not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container, as determined by the general method for fill of containers prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter; except that in the case of glass containers having a total capacity of 192 ml (6
<FR>1/2</FR> fluid ounces) or less, the fill is not less than 85 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Sampling and acceptance procedure: A lot will be deemed to fall below the standard of fill when the number of “defectives” exceeds the acceptance number “c” in the sampling plans prescribed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Definitions of terms to be used in the sampling plans in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Sample size “n.”</I> The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot as indicated in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, the entire contents of a container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for examination or testing as a single unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Defective.</I> A container that falls below the requirement for minimum fill prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is considered a “defective.”
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Acceptable number “c.”</I> The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Acceptable quality level</I> (<I>AQL</I>). The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sampling and acceptance:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Acceptable quality level (AQL) 6.5
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size of container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E> 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001 to 72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001 to 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601 to 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,001 to 7,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,201 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">n</E> = number of primary containers in sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">c</E> = acceptance number.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) If canned applesauce falls below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11829, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10099, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24894, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.115   Canned apricots.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned apricots is the food prepared from mature apricots of one of the optional styles specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, which may be packed as solid pack or in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vinegar, lemon juice, or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(iv) Apricot pits, except in the cases of unpeeled whole apricots and peeled whole apricots, in a quantity not more than 1 apricot pit to each 227 grams (8 ounces) of finished canned apricots.
</P>
<P>(v) Apricot kernels, except in the cases of unpeeled whole apricots and peeled whole apricots, and except when optional ingredient under paragraph (a)(4) of this section is used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Ascorbic acid in an amount no greater than necessary to preserve color.
</P>
<FP>Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Optional styles of the apricot ingredient.</I> The optional styles of the apricot ingredient referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are peeled or unpeeled:
</P>
<P>(i) Whole.
</P>
<P>(ii) Halves.
</P>
<P>(iii) Quarters.
</P>
<P>(iv) Slices.
</P>
<P>(v) Pieces or irregular pieces.
</P>
<FP>Each such ingredient, except in the cases of unpeeled whole apricots and peeled whole apricots, is pitted.
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3.
</FP>
<P>(ii) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(m) shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When the density of the solution is 10 percent or more but less than 16 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When the density of the solution is 16 percent or more but less than 21 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When the density of the solution is 21 percent or more but less than 25 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When the density of the solution is 25 percent or more but not more than 40 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “apricots”. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice Added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice, “Seasoned with Vinegar” or “Seasoned with Apricot Kernels”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a)(1) (ii) through (iv), inclusive, of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with Cider Vinegar, Cloves, Cinnamon Oil and Apricot Kernels”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The style of the apricot ingredient as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the name of the packing medium as used in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” or the words “solid pack”, where applicable, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food, except that pieces or irregular pieces shall be designated “Pieces”, “Irregular pieces”, or “Mixed pieces of irregular sizes and shapes”. The style of the apricot ingredient shall be preceded or followed by “Unpeeled” or “Peeled”, as the case may be. “Halves” may be alternatively designated “Halved”, “Quarters” as “Quartered” and “Slices” as “Sliced”. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor or other characteristic to the finished food in addition to sweetness, the name of the packing medium shall be accompanied by the name of such sweetener(s), as for example in the case of a mixture of brown sugar and honey, an appropriate statement would be “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey” the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy” as the case may be. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate,” as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned apricots is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) All units tested in accordance with the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are pierced by a weight of not more than 300 grams.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the cases of whole apricots, halves, and quarters, the weight of the largest unit in the container is not more than twice the weight of the smallest unit therein.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than 20 percent of the units in the container are blemished with scab, hail injury, discoloration, or other abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the cases of whole apricots, halves, and quarters, all units are untrimmed, or are so trimmed as to preserve normal shape.
</P>
<P>(v) Except in the case of mixed pieces of irregular sizes and shapes, not more than 5 percent of the units in a container of 20 or more units, and not more than 1 unit in a container of less than 20 units, are crushed or broken. (A unit which has lost its normal shape because of ripeness and which bears no mark of crushing shall not be considered to be crushed or broken.)
</P>
<P>(2) Canned apricots shall be tested by the following method to determine whether or not they meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section: So trim a test piece from the unit as to fit, with peel surface up, into a supporting receptacle. If the unit is of different firmness in different parts of its peel surface, trim the piece from the firmest part. If the piece is unpeeled, remove the peel. The top of the receptacle is circular in shape, of 1
<FR>1/8</FR> inches inside diameter, with vertical sides; or rectangular in shape, 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch by 1 inch inside measurements, with ends vertical and sides sloping downward and joining at the center at a vertical depth of 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch. Use the circular receptacle for testing units of such size that a test piece can be trimmed therefrom to fit it. Use the rectangular receptacle for testing other units. Test no unit from which a test piece with rectangular peel surface at least 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch by 1 inch cannot be trimmed. Test the piece by means of a round metal rod 
<FR>3/16</FR> inch in diameter. To the upper end of the rod is affixed a device to which weight can be added. The rod is held vertically by a support through which it can freely move upward or downward. The lower end of the rod is a plane surface to which the vertical axis of the rod is perpendicular. Adjust the combined weight of the rod and device to 100 grams. Set the receptacle so that the surface of the test piece is held horizontally. Lower the end of the rod to the approximate center of such surface, and add weight to the device at a uniform, continuous rate of 12 grams per second until the rod pierces the test piece. Weigh the rod and weighted device. Test all units in containers of 50 units or less, except those units too small for testing or too soft for trimming. Test at least 50 units, taken at random, in containers of more than 50 units; but if less than 50 units are of sufficient size and firmness for testing, test those which are of sufficient size and firmness.
</P>
<P>(3) If the quality of canned apricots falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; but in lieu of such general statement of substandard quality, the label may bear the alternative statement “Below standard in quality ______”, the blank to be filled in with the words specified after the corresponding number of each subparagraph of paragraph (b)(1) of this section which such canned apricots fail to meet, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) “Not tender”;
</P>
<P>(ii) “Mixed sizes”;
</P>
<P>(iii) “Blemished”;
</P>
<P>(iv) “Unevenly trimmed”;
</P>
<P>(v) “Partly crushed or broken”.
</P>
<P>Such alternative statement shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, the name “apricots” and any words and statements required or authorized to appear with such name by § 145.115(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned apricots is the maximum quantity of the optional apricot ingredient that can be sealed in the container and processed by heat to prevent spoilage, without crushing or breaking such ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) If canned apricots fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.120   Canned berries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned berries is the food prepared from any suitable variety of one of the optional berry ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, which may be packed in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, and may contain one or any combination of two or more of the safe and suitable optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Varietal types.</I> The optional berry ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are prepared from stemmed fruit of the following optional varietal types of berry ingredient; namely:
</P>
<P>(i) Raspberry varieties conforming to the characteristics of <I>Rubus idaeus</I> L. or <I>Rubus occidentalis</I> L.
</P>
<P>(ii) Blackberries.
</P>
<P>(iii) Blueberries.
</P>
<P>(iv) Boysenberries.
</P>
<P>(v) Dewberries.
</P>
<P>(vi) Gooseberries.
</P>
<P>(vii) Huckleberries.
</P>
<P>(viii) Loganberries.
</P>
<P>(ix) Strawberry varieties conforming to the characteristics of <I>Fragaria.</I>
</P>
<P>(x) Youngberries.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners may be added. Sweeteners listed in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3.
</FP>
<P>(ii) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the four density ranges of the resulting packing media hereinafter specified for each berry ingredient, expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure described in § 145.3(m), shall be designated by the appropriate name for each of the respective density ranges for each berry ingredient as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) “Slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Light sirup”, when the liquid used is water, “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) “Heavy sirup”, when the liquid used is water; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) “Extra heavy sirup”, when the liquid used is water; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<FP>The density ranges referred to herein are:
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Optional berry ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Density ranges
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">(<E T="03">a</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">(<E T="03">b</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">(<E T="03">c</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">(<E T="03">d</E>)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum less than
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum less than
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum less than
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum not more than
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blackberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blueberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boysenberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dewberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gooseberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Huckleberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loganberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raspberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strawberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Youngberries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">(<E T="03">a</E>) “Slightly sweetened water.”  (<E T="03">b</E>) “Light sirup.”  (<E T="03">c</E>) “Heavy sirup.”  (<E T="03">d</E>) “Extra heavy sirup.”</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium salts as firming agents provided that the calcium added is no more than 0.035 percent, calculated as calcium, of the weight of the finished canned berries.
</P>
<P>(iii) Organic acids.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is the appropriate name of the berry ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the packing medium, as used in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section preceded by “In” or “Packed in.” as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and, in the case of raspberries other than red raspberries provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the name of such packing medium and the color of such raspberry shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the cases of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate”, as specified in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 2339, Jan. 9, 1981; 47 FR 6426, Feb. 12, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 2748, Jan. 21, 1983; 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.125" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.125   Canned cherries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned cherries is the food prepared from one of the optional fresh or previously canned cherry ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, which may be packed in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vinegar, lemon juice, or organic acids. Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Varietal types and styles.</I> The optional cherry ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are prepared from mature pitted or unpitted cherries of the red tart or alternatively, red sour, light sweet or dark sweet varietal group.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3.
</FP>
<P>(ii) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(m) shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of sweet cherries:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) When the density of the solution is less than 16 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) When the density of the solution is 16 percent or more but less than 20 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) When the density of the solution is 20 percent or more but less than 25 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) When the density of the solution is 25 percent or more but not more than 35 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of red tart cherries: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) When the density of the solution is less than 18 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) When the density of the solution is 18 percent or more but less than 22 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) When the density of the solution is 22 percent or more but less than 28 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) When the density of the solution is 28 percent or more but not more than 45 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “cherries”. The optional varietal type as set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, preceded or followed by the word “pitted” when this is the fact, shall be a part of the name. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice, or “Seasoned with lemon juice”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(1) (ii) and (iii) of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, and cinnamon oil”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The color type and style of the cherry ingredient as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the name of the packing medium specified in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” or the words “solid pack”, where applicable, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor or other characteristic to the finished food in addition to sweetness, the name of the packing medium shall be accompanied by the name of such sweetener(s), as for example in the case of a mixture of brown sugar and honey, an appropriate statement would be “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey” the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy” as the case may be. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate”, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned cherries is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of pitted cherries, not more than 1 pit is present in each 20 ounces of canned cherries, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of unpitted cherries, the weight of each cherry in the container is not less than 
<FR>1/10</FR> ounce.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of unpitted cherries, the weight of the largest cherry in the container is not more than twice the weight of the smallest cherry therein.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of unpitted cherries, the total weight of pits is not more than 12 percent of the weight of drained cherries, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Not more than 15 percent by count of the cherries in the container are blemished with scab, hail injury, discoloration, scar tissue or other abnormality. A cherry showing skin discoloration (other than scald) having an aggregate area exceeding that of a circle 
<FR>9/32</FR> inch in diameter is considered to be blemished. A cherry showing discoloration of any area but extending into the fruit tissue is also considered to be blemished.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Pitted canned cherries shall be tested by the following method to determine whether or not they comply with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section: Take at random such number of containers as to have a total quantity of contents of at least 24 pounds. Open the containers and weigh the contents. Count the pits and pieces of pit shell in such total quantity. Count a piece of pit shell equal to or smaller than one-half pit shell as one-half pit, and a piece of pit shell larger than one-half pit shell as one pit; but when two or more pieces of pit shell are within or attached to a single cherry, count such pieces as one-half pit if their combined size is equivalent to that of one-half pit shell or less, and as one pit if their combined size is equivalent to that of more than one-half pit shell. From the total number of pits so counted and the combined weight of the contents of all the containers, calculate the number of pits present in each 20 ounces of canned cherries.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unpitted canned cherries shall be tested by the following method to determine whether or not they comply with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section: Tilt the opened container so as to distribute the contents over the meshes of a circular sieve which has previously been weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 8 inches if the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 3 pounds, or 12 inches if such quantity is 3 pounds or more. The bottom of the sieve is No. 8 woven-wire cloth that complies with the specifications for such cloth set forth in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD, 20877-2504, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Without shifting the cherries, so incline the sieve as to facilitate drainage. Two minutes from the time drainage begins, weigh the sieve and drained cherries. The weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, shall be considered to be the weight of drained cherries. Pit the cherries and wash the pits free from adhering flesh. Drain and weigh the pits by the method prescribed above. Divide the weight of pits so found by the weight of drained cherries, and multiply by 100.
</P>
<P>(3) If the quality of canned cherries falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; but in lieu of such general statement of substandard quality, the label may bear the alternative statement “Below Standard in Quality ______”, the blank to be filled in with the words specified after the corresponding number of each subparagraph of paragraph (b)(1) of this section which such canned cherries fail to meet, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) “Partially pitted”;
</P>
<P>(ii) “Small”;
</P>
<P>(iii) “Mixed sizes”;
</P>
<P>(iv) “Thin-fleshed”;
</P>
<P>(v) “Blemished”.
</P>
<FP>Such alternative statement shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, the name “Cherries” and any words and statements required or authorized to appear with such name by § 145.125(a)(2).
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned cherries is the maximum quantity of the optional cherry ingredient that can be sealed in the container and processed by heat to prevent spoilage, without crushing such ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) If canned cherries fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11829, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10099, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.130   Canned figs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned figs is the food prepared from one of the optional fig ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section and one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (c) of this section, to which lemon juice, concentrated lemon juice or organic acid(s) is added, when necessary to reduce the pH of the finished product to pH 4.9 or below. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Natural and artificial flavoring.
</P>
<P>(2) Spice.
</P>
<P>(3) Vinegar.
</P>
<P>(4) Unpeeled segments of citrus fruits.
</P>
<P>(5) Salt.
</P>
<FP>Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Varietal types.</I> The optional fig ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are prepared from mature figs of the light or dark varieties. Figs (or whole figs), split figs (or broken figs), or any combination thereof are optional fig ingredients. A “whole fig” is one which is whole, but may be slightly cracked, provided it retains its natural conformation without exposing the interior. A “split” or “broken” fig is one that is open to such an extent that the seed cavity is exposed. The shape of the fruit may be distorted, and the fruit may or may not be broken apart into entirely separate pieces.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Packing media.</I> (1) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(i) Water.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3.
</FP>
<P>(2) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(m) shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(i) When the density of the solution is 11 percent or more but less than 16 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light syrup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the density of the solution is 16 percent or more but less than 21 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the density of the solution is 21 percent or more but less than 26 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the density of the solution is 26 percent or more but not more than 35 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The name of the food is “figs”. The words “broken” or “split” shall be a part of the name when the optional fig ingredient is a broken or split fig. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice, “Seasoned with vinegar” or “Seasoned with unpeeled segments of citrus fruits”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a) (2) through (5), inclusive, of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, cinnamon oil and unpeeled segments of citrus fruits.”
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the packing medium as used in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in”, as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor or other characteristic to the finished food other than sweetness, as for example, a mixture of brown sugar and honey, the statement “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey” the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy”, as the case may be, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, such names and the words “from contrate”, as specified in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2879, Jan. 6, 1993]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.135   Canned fruit cocktail.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned fruit cocktail, canned cocktail fruits, canned fruits for cocktail, is the food prepared from the mixture of fresh, frozen, or previously canned fruit ingredients of mature fruits in the forms and proportions as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, and one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vinegar, lemon juice, or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ascorbic acid in an amount no greater than necessary to preserve color. Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Varietal types and styles.</I> The fruit ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the forms of each, and the percent by weight of each in the mixture of drained fruit from the finished canned fruit cocktail are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Peaches.</I> Any firm yellow variety of the species <I>Prunus persica</I> L., excluding nectarine varieties, which are pitted, peeled, and diced, not less than 30 percent and not more than 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Pears.</I> Any variety, of the species <I>Pyrus communis</I> L. or <I>Pyrus sinensis</I> L., which are peeled, cored, and diced, not less than 25 percent and not more than 45 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pineapples.</I> Any variety, of the species <I>Ananas comosus</I> L., which are peeled, cored, and cut into sectors or into dice, not less than 6 percent and not more than 16 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Grapes.</I> Any seedless variety, of the species <I>Vitis vinifera</I> L., or <I>Vitis labrusca</I> L., not less than 6 percent and not more than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Cherries.</I> Approximate halves or whole pitted cherries of the species <I>Prunus cerasus</I> L., not less than 2 percent and not more than 6 percent, of the following types:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Cherries of any light, sweet variety;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Cherries artificially colored red; or
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Cherries artificially colored red and flavored, natural or artificial.
</P>
<FP><I>Provided,</I> That each 127.5 grams (4
<FR>1/2</FR> ounces avoirdupois) of the finished canned fruit cocktail and each fraction thereof greater than 56.7 grams (2 ounces avoirdupois) contain not less than 2 sectors or 3 dice of pineapple and not less than 1 approximate half of the optional cherry ingredient.
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3. 
</FP>
<P>(ii) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(m) shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When the density of the solution is 10 percent or more, but less than 14 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When the density of the solution is 14 percent or more but less than 18 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When the density of the solution is 18 percent or more but less than 22 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When the density of the solution is 22 percent or more but not more than 35 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “fruit cocktail”, “cocktail fruits”, or “fruits for cocktail”. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice, “Seasoned with vinegar” or “Seasoned with lemon juice”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a)(1) (ii) and (iii) of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, cinnamon oil and lemon juice”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the packing medium as used in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor or other characteristic to the finished food in addition to sweetness, the name of the packing medium shall be accompanied by the name of such sweetener(s), as for example, in the case of a mixture of brown sugar and honey, an appropriate statement would be “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey” the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy” as the case may be. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate”, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned fruit cocktail is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Not more than 20 percent by weight of the units in the container of peach or pear, or of pineapple if the units thereof are diced, are more than 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch in greatest edge dimension, or pass through the meshes of a sieve designated as 
<FR>5/16</FR> inch that complies with the specifications for such cloth set forth in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> If the units of pineapple are in the form of sectors, not more than 20 percent of such sectors in the container fail to conform to the following dimensions: The length of the outside arc is not more than 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch but is more than 
<FR>3/8</FR> inch; the thickness is not more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch but is more than 
<FR>5/16</FR> inch; the length (measured along the radius from the inside arc to the outside arc) is not more than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches but is more than 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than 10 percent of the grapes in a container containing 10 grapes or more, and not more than 1 grape in a container containing less than 10 grapes, are cracked to the extent of being severed into two parts or are crushed to the extent that their normal shape is destroyed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than 10 percent of the grapes in a container containing 10 grapes or more, and not more than a grape in a container containing less than 10 grapes, have the cap stem attached.
</P>
<P>(iv) There is present in the finished canned fruit cocktail not more than 1 square inch of pear peel per each 1 pound of drained weight of units of pear plus the weight of a proportion of the packing medium which is the same proportion as the drained weight of the units of pear bears to the drained weight of the entire contents of the can. Such drained weights shall be determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) There is present in the finished canned fruit cocktail not more than 1 square inch of peach peel per each 1 pound of drained weight of units of peach plus the weight of a proportion of the packing medium which is the same proportion as the drained weight of units of peach bears to the drained weight of the entire contents of the can. Such drained weights shall be determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Not more than 15 percent of the units of cherry ingredient, and not more than 20 percent of the units of peach, pear, or grape, in the container are blemished with scab, hail injury, scar tissue or other abnormality.
</P>
<P>(vii) If the cherry ingredient is artificially colored, the color of not more than 15 percent of the units thereof in a container containing more than six units and of not more than one unit in a container containing six units or less, is other than evenly distributed in the unit or other than uniform with the color of the other units of the cherry ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) If the quality of canned fruit cocktail falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned fruit cocktail is a fill such that the total weight of drained fruit is not less than 65 percent of the water capacity of the container, as determined by the general method for water capacity of containers prescribed in § 130.12(a) of this chapter. Such total weight of drained fruit is determined by the following method: Tilt the opened container so as to distribute the contents evenly over the meshes of a circular sieve which has been previously weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 8 inches if the quantity of contents of the container is less than 3 pounds, and 12 inches if such quantity is 3 pounds or more. The bottom of the sieve is woven-wire cloth that complies with the specifications for such cloth set forth under “2.38 mm (No. 8)” in Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” prescribed in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. Without shifting the material on the sieve so incline the sieve as to facilitate drainage. Two minutes from the time drainage begins, weigh the sieve and drained fruit. The weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, shall be considered to be the total weight of drained fruit.
</P>
<P>(2) If canned fruit cocktail falls below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein prescribed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11829, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10100, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2880, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.145   Canned grapefruit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Product identification.</I> Canned grapefruit is the food prepared from one of the optional grapefruit ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food may also contain one or more of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Spices.
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural and artificial flavoring.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lemon juice.
</P>
<P>(iv) Citric acid.
</P>
<P>(v) Calcium chloride or calcium lactate or a mixture of the two calcium salts in a quantity reasonably necessary to firm the grapefruit sections, but in no case in a quantity such that the calcium contained in such calcium salt or mixture is more than 0.035 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<FP>Such food is sealed in a container and, before or after sealing, is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Optional grapefruit ingredient.</I> The optional grapefruit ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are prepared from sound, mature grapefruit (<I>Citrus paradisi</I> Macfadyen) of the color types white—produced from white-fleshed grapefruit, and pink—produced from pink or red-fleshed grapefruit and are in the following forms of units: Whole sections or broken sections. Each such form of units or a mixture of such forms of units prepared from a single varietal group (color type) is an optional grapefruit ingredient. The core, seeds, and major portions of membrane of such ingredient are removed. For the purpose of this section, a grapefruit section is considered whole when the unit is intact or an intact portion of such unit is not less than 75 percent of its apparent original size and is not excessively trimmed.
</P>
<P>(i) For the purpose of paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the name of the optional grapefruit ingredient is:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) “Section” or “segments”, if 50 percent or more of the drained weight of the food consists of whole sections.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Broken sections” or “broken segments”, if less than 50 percent of the drained weight of the food consists of whole sections.
</P>
<P>(ii) The drained weight is determined by the method prescribed in the standard of fill of container for canned grapefruit set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Grapefruit juice and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Grapefruit juice.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Slightly sweetened sirup or slightly sweetened water.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Light sirup.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Heavy sirup.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Slightly sweetened grapefruit juice and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Lightly sweetened grapefruit juice and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Heavily sweetened grapefruit juice and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Slightly sweetened grapefruit juice.
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) Lightly sweetened grapefruit juice.
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) Heavily sweetened grapefruit juice.
</P>
<FP>As used in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the optional packing medium “water” means, in addition to water, any mixture of water and grapefruit juice in which there is less than 50 percent grapefruit juice; the optional packing medium “grapefruit juice and water” means the liquid packing medium in which juice of mature grapefruit and water are combined as a liquid packing medium with not less than 50 percent grapefruit juice and the term “grapefruit juice” means single strength expressed juice of sound, mature fruit. It may be fresh, canned, or made from concentrate. However, if it is made from concentrate, the juice shall be reconstituted with water to not less than the soluble solids the grapefruit juice had before concentration.
</FP>
<P>(ii) Each of the packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>d</I>) to (<I>l</I>) of this section is prepared with a liquid ingredient and one or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners. Water is the liquid ingredient from which packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>d</I>) to (<I>f</I>) of this section are prepared. Grapefruit juice and water are the liquid ingredients from which the packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>g</I>) to (<I>i</I>) of this section are prepared. Grapefruit juice is the liquid ingredient from which the packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>j</I>) to (<I>l</I>) of this section are prepared. If one or more liquid nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners and grapefruit juice are combined as a liquid packing medium with not less than 50 percent grapefruit juice, the packing medium is as set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>g</I>) to (<I>i</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The respective densities of packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>d</I>) to (<I>i</I>) of this section as measured on the refractometer, expressed as percent by weight sucrose (degrees Brix) with correction for temperature to the equivalent at 20 °C (68 °F), 15 days or more after the grapefruit are canned or the blended homogenized slurry of the comminuted entire contents of the container if canned for less than 15 days, according to the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), section 31.011 under “Solids By Means of Refractometer—Official Final Action,” and Reference Tables, section 52.012 (Refractive indices (n) of sucrose solutions at 20°) and section 52.015 (Refractive indices of invert sugar solutions), which is incorporated by reference (copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>), but without correction for invert sugar or other substances, are as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>d</I>), (<I>g</I>), and (<I>j</I>) of this section: Twelve percent or more but less than 16 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>e</I>), (<I>h</I>), and (<I>k</I>) of this section: Sixteen percent or more but less than 18 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Packing media in paragraph (a)(3)(i) (<I>f</I>), (<I>i</I>), and (<I>l</I>) of this section: Eighteen percent or more. A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for packing medium density based on the average value for all the samples analyzed according to paragraph (b)(2) of this section but no container may have a value lower than that of the next lower category or 2 percent by weight sucrose (degrees Brix) lower if no lower category exists.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “grapefruit” or “pink grapefruit”, as appropriate for the color type of the grapefruit used. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “with added spice”. Whenever the word “sirup” is used, it may be alternatively spelled “syrup”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a)(1) (i), (ii), and (iii) of this section are used, such words may be combined; for example, “with added cloves and cinnamon oil”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The form and style of the grapefruit ingredient as provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the name of the packing medium as used in paragraph (a)(3) of this section preceded by “In” or “Packed in” shall be included as part of the name. When the packing medium is prepared from concentrated grapefruit juice, the words “from concentrate” shall follow the words “grapefruit juice” in the name of the packing medium.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned grapefruit is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The food is free from extraneous material such as leaves, portions of leaves, and pieces of peel.
</P>
<P>(ii) The finished food contains per 500 grams (17.6 ounces) not more than:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) An aggregate area of 20 square centimeters (3.1 square inches) of tough membrane or albedo on the units.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Four developed seeds. A seed is considered a developed seed when it measures more than 9.0 millimeters (0.35 inches) in any dimension. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than 15 percent by weight of the drained grapefruit may be blemished units. A blemished unit is a grapefruit section or any portion thereof which is damaged by lye peeling, by discoloration, or by other visible injury. The drained weight is determined by the method prescribed in the standard of fill of container for canned grapefruit set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling and acceptance procedure.</I> A lot is to be considered acceptable when the number of “defectives” does not exceed the acceptance number in the sampling plans given in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Definitions of terms to be used in the sampling plans in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Sample size</I> (<I>n</I>). The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, the entire contents of a container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for the examination or testing as a single unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Defective.</I> Any sample unit shall be regarded as defective when any of the defects or conditions specified in the quality standard (paragraph (b)(1) of this section) and paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section for minimum fill of container are present in excess of the stated tolerances.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Accepted number</I> (<I>c</I>). The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Acceptable quality level</I> (<I>AQL</I>). The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sampling plans and acceptance procedure:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size of container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E> 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801-24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001-48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001-84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001-144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001-240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401-15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001-24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001-42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001-72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001-120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601-2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,001-7,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,201-15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001-24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001-42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">n</E> = number of primary containers in sample
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">c</E> = acceptance number</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) If the quality of canned grapefruit falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; however, if the quality of the canned grapefruit falls below standard with respect to only one of the factors of quality specified by paragraph (b)(1) (i), (ii), or (iii) of this section, there may be substituted for the second line of such general statement of substandard quality, “Good Food—Not High Grade”, a new line as specified after the corresponding designation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section which the canned grapefruit fail to meet:
</P>
<P>(i) “Contains extraneous material”.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) “Excessive tough membrane”.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Excessive seeds”.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Excessive blemished units”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned grapefruit is:
</P>
<P>(i) The fill of grapefruit and packing medium, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) The drained weight of grapefruit ingredient is not less than 50 percent of the water capacity of the container, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section and the general method for water capacity of containers prescribed in § 130.12(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Drained weight is determined by the following method: Tilt the opened container so as to distribute the contents evenly over the meshes of a circular sieve which has previously been weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 20.3 centimeters (8 inches) if the quantity of contents of the container is less than 1.4 kilograms (3 pounds) and 30.5 centimeters (12 inches) if such quantity is 1.4 kilograms (3 pounds) or more. The bottom of the sieve is woven-wire cloth that complies with the specifications for the No. 8 sieve set forth in the “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes” of the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section. Without shifting the material on the sieve, incline the sieve at an angle of 17° to 20° to facilitate drainage. Two minutes after the drainage begins, weigh the sieve and drained grapefruit. The weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, shall be considered to be the weight of the drained grapefruit.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A container that falls below the requirement for minimum fill prescribed in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be considered a “defective”. The food will be deemed to fall below the standard of fill when the number of defectives exceeds the acceptance number (c) in the sampling plans prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Canned grapefruit will be deemed to fall below the standard of fill when the average drained weight of all containers analyzed when sampled according to the sampling plans prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is less than that prescribed in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If canned grapefruit falls below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11830, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10100, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2880, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.170   Canned peaches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned peaches is the food prepared from one of the fresh, frozen, or previously canned optional peach ingredients <I>Prunus persica</I> L., of commercial canning varieties, but excluding nectarine varieties, specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, which may be packed as a solid pack or in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vinegar, lemon juice, or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(iv) Peach pits, except in the cases of peeled whole peaches, in a quantity not more than 1 peach pit to each 227 grams (8 ounces) of finished canned peaches.
</P>
<P>(v) Peach kernels, except in the cases of peeled whole peaches and except when the optional ingredient in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section is used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Ascorbic acid in an amount no greater than necessary to preserve color. Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Varietal types and styles.</I> The optional peach ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are prepared from mature peaches of the following optional varietal and color types and styles of peach ingredients; namely:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>The optional varietal types.</I> (<I>a</I>) Freestone is the distinct varietal type where the pit separates readily from the flesh.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Clingstone is the distinct varietal type where the pit adheres to the flesh.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>The optional color types</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Yellow</I>—the varietal types in which the predominant color ranges from pale yellow to rich red orange.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>White</I>—the varietal types in which the predominant color ranges from white to yellow-white.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Red</I>—the varietal types in which the predominant color ranges from pale yellow to orange red and with variegated red coloring other than that associated with the pit cavity.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Green</I>—varietal types in which the flesh has a green tint even when mature.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>The optional styles of the peach ingredients—(a</I>) <I>Whole</I>—consisting of whole peeled unpitted peaches.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Halves</I>—consisting of peeled pitted peaches cut into two approximately equal parts.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Halves and pieces</I>—consisting of a mixture in which the peeled pitted peach halves are more than 50 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Quarters</I>—consisting of peeled pitted peaches cut into four approximately equal parts.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Slices</I>—consisting of peeled pitted peaches cut into wedge-shaped sectors.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Dice</I>—consisting of peeled pitted peaches cut into cube-like parts.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Chunky</I>—consisting of peeled pitted peaches cut into parts 13 millimeters (0.5 inch) or greater in the smallest dimension and 44 millimeters (1.75 inches) or less in the largest dimension.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) <I>Pieces or irregular pieces</I>—consisting of peeled pitted peaches cut into parts of irregular shapes and sizes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3.
</FP>
<P>(ii) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium, expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(m), shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When the density of the solution is 10 percent or more but less than 14 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When the density of the solution is 14 percent or more but less than 18 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When the density of the solution is 18 percent or more but less than 22 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When the density of the solution is 22 percent or more but not more than 35 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)” as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “peaches”. The optional varietal type as set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section shall be a part of the name. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice, “Seasoned with vinegar” or “Seasoned with peach kernels”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a)(1) (ii) through (v) of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, cinnamon oil and peach kernels”. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The color type and style of the peach ingredient as provided for in paragraphs (a)(2) (ii) and (iii) of this section and the name of the packing medium specified in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” or the words “Solid pack”, where applicable, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food, except that “Halves” may be alternately designated as “Halved”, “Halves and pieces” as “Halved and pieces”, “Quarters” as “Quartered”, “Slices” as “Sliced”, and “Dice” as “Diced”. Pieces or irregular pieces shall be designated “Pieces”, “Irregular pieces”, or “Mixed pieces of irregular sizes and shapes”. “Chunky” may be designated as “Chunks”. The terms “Cling” and “Free” may be used as optional designations for “Clingstone” and “Freestone”, respectively. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor, or other characteristic to the finished food in addition to sweetness, the name of the packing medium shall be accompanied by the name of such sweetener(s); as for example in the case of a mixture of brown sugar and honey, an appropriate statement would be “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey” the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy” as the case may be. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section consists of fruit juices(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juices(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate”, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned peaches is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maturity.</I> All units tested in accordance with the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are pierced by weight of not more than 300 grams (10.6 ounces).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum size.</I> In the case of halves and quarters styles, the weight of each unit is not less than 17 grams (0.6 ounce) and 8.5 grams (0.3 ounce), respectively.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Uniformity of size</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Whole, halves, and quarters.</I> In the case of whole, halves, and quarters styles, the diameter (width) of the largest unit is not more than 1.5 centimeters (0.6 inch) greater than the diameter (width) of the smallest unit. In containers with more than 20 units, 2 units may be disregarded in making the determination. Where a unit has broken in the container, the combined broken pieces are to be reassembled to approximate a single unit of the appropriate style.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Chunky.</I> In the case of chunky style, not more than 25 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of units that will pass through an opening 13 millimeters (0.5 inch) wide or that are more than 44 millimeters (1.75 inches) along the longest cut edge.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Peel.</I> Not more than 15 square centimeters aggregate area of peel per 1,000 grams (1.05 square inches per 16 ounces) of net weight. Include any peel adhering to the peach or loose in the container.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Blemished units.</I> Not more than 20 percent by count of the units in the container are blemished, e.g., with scab, hail injury, discoloration, or other abnormalities. Blemished units are units which contain surface discolorations that definitely contrast with the overall color and may penetrate into the flesh.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Trimmed units.</I> In the case of whole, halves, quarters, and slices styles, all units are untrimmed or are so trimmed as to preserve normal shape of the units.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Crushed or broken units.</I> In the case of whole, halves, halves and pieces, quarters, slices, dice and chunky styles, not more than 5 percent by count of the units in containers of 20 or more units and not more than 1 unit in containers of fewer than 20 units are crushed or broken. A unit that has lost its normal shape because of ripeness and bears no mark of crushing shall not be considered crushed or broken.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Pits and pieces of pit.</I> In the case of all styles, except whole peaches and when whole peach pits or peach kernels are used as seasoning ingredients, there is not more than one loose pit or one loose large hard piece of pit (10 millimeters (
<FR>3/8</FR> inch) or larger) or one unit of peach (e.g., peach half or peach slice) to which one or more large hard pieces of pit are attached per 5.67 kilograms (200 ounces) net weight. In addition, there is not more than three of any one or any combination of two or more, per 2.83 kilograms (100 ounces) net weight of the following: (<I>a</I>) A unit to which one or more small hard pieces of pit less than 10 millimeters (
<FR>3/8</FR> inch) but not less than 1.6 millimeters (
<FR>1/16</FR> inch) are attached, (<I>b</I>) a unit to which three or more small pieces of pit less than 1.6 millimeters (
<FR>1/16</FR> inch) are attached, or (<I>c</I>) a loose small hard piece of pit less than 10 millimeters (
<FR>3/8</FR> inch).
</P>
<P>(2) Canned peaches shall be tested by the following method to determine whether or not they meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section: So trim a test piece from the unit as to fit, with peel surface up, into a supporting receptacle. If the unit is of different firmness in different parts of its peel surface, trim the piece from the firmest part. If the piece is unpeeled, remove the peel. The top of the receptacle is circular in shape, of 29 millimeters (1.125 inches) inside diameter, with vertical sides; or rectangular in shape, 19 millimeters (0.75 inch) by 25 millimeters (1 inch) inside measurements, with ends vertical and sides sloping downward and joining at the center at a vertical depth of 19 millimeters (0.75 inch). Use the circular receptacle for testing units of such size that a test piece can be trimmed therefrom to fit it. Use the rectangular receptacle for testing other units. Test no unit from which a test piece with a rectangular peel surface at least 13 millimeters (0.51 inch) by 25 millimeters (1 inch) cannot be trimmed. Test the piece by means of a round metal rod 4 millimeters (0.16 inch) in diameter. To the upper end of the rod is affixed a device to which weight can be added. The rod is held vertically by a support through which it can freely move upward or downward. The lower end of the rod is a plane surface to which the vertical axis of the rod is perpendicular. Adjust the combined weight of the rod and device to 100 grams (3.53 ounces). Set the receptacle so that the surface of test piece is held horizontally. Lower the end of the rod to the approximate center of such surface, and add weight to the device at a uniform, continuous rate of 12 grams (0.45 ounce) per second until the rod pierces the test piece. Weigh the rod and weighted device. Test all units in containers of 50 units or less, except those units too small for testing or too soft for trimming. Test at least 50 units, taken at random, in containers of more than 50 units; but if less than 50 units are of sufficient size and firmness for testing, test those which are of sufficient size and firmness.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine compliance as specified in § 145.3(o) except that a lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for peel, pits, and pieces of pit based on the average of all samples analyzed according to the sampling plans set out in § 145.3(p).
</P>
<P>(4) If the quality of canned peaches falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality defined in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; however, if the quality of the canned peaches falls below standard with respect to only one of the factors of quality specified in paragraph (b)(1) (i) through (viii) of this section, there may be substituted for the second line of such general statement of substandard quality (“Good Food—Not High Grade”) a new line, as specified after the corresponding designation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section which the canned peaches fail to meet, as follows: (i) “Not tender”; (ii) “Small halves” or “Small quarters” as the case may be; (iii) (<I>a</I>) “Mixed sizes”; (<I>b</I>) “Undersized and/or oversized pieces”, (iv) “Excess peel”; (v) “Blemished”; (vi) “Unevenly trimmed”; (vii) “Partly crushed or broken”; (viii) “Contains pits or pit fragments”. Such alternative statement shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, the name “peaches” and any words and statements required or authorized to appear with such name by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned peaches is the maximum quantity of the optional peach ingredient that can be sealed in the container and processed by heat to prevent spoilage, without crushing or breaking such ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) If canned peaches fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 33028, June 26, 1981; 50 FR 34677, Aug. 27, 1985; 51 FR 11434, Apr. 3, 1986; 58 FR 2880, Jan. 6, 1993]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.175" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.175   Canned pears.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned pears is the food prepared from one of the fresh or previously canned optional pear ingredients <I>Pyrus communis</I> or <I>Pyrus sinensis</I> specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section which may be packed in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients.
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vinegar, lemon juice, or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(iv) Artificial colors.
</P>
<FP>Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Styles and forms of units.</I> The optional pear styles and forms of units referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Whole</I>—consisting of peeled or unpeeled pears with cores removed or left in.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Halves</I>—consisting of peeled or unpeeled pears with cores removed and cut into two approximately equal parts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Quarters</I>—consisting of peeled pears with cores removed and cut into four approximately equal parts.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Slices</I>—consisting of peeled pears with cores removed and cut into wedge-shaped sectors.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dice</I>—consisting of peeled pears with cores removed and cut into cube-like parts.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Pieces or irregular pieces</I>—consisting of peeled pears with cores removed and cut into parts of irregular shapes and sizes.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Chunky</I>—consisting of peeled pears with cores removed and cut into parts 13 millimeters (0.51 inch) or greater in the smallest dimension and 44 millimeters (1.75 inches) or less in the largest dimension.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Clarified juice.
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.30.
</FP>
<P>(ii) If the concentration of clarified juice is such that the packing medium forms to the density range for one of the sirups under paragraph (a)(3)(ii) (<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), (<I>c</I>), or (<I>d</I>) of this section, the concentrated clarified juice is considered to be light sirup, heavy sirup, or extra heavy sirup, as the case may be. When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure in § 145.3(m) shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When the density of the solution is less than 14 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When the density of the solution is 14 percent or more but less than 18 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)” as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When the density of the solution is 18 percent or more but less than 22 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When the density of the solution is 22 percent or more but not more than 35 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “pears”. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice, “Seasoned with vinegar”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a)(1) (ii) and (iii) of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, and cinnamon oil”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The style and forms of units of the pear ingredient as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the name of the packing medium specified in paragraph (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” or the words “Solid pack”, where applicable, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food, except that “Halves” may be alternatively designated as “Halved”, “Quarters” as “Quartered”, “Slices” as “Sliced”, and “Dice” as “Diced”. “Pieces” or “Irregular pieces” shall be designated as “Pieces”, “Irregular pieces”, or “Mixed pieces of irregular sizes and shapes”. “Chunky” may be designated as “Chunks”. The style of the pear ingredient shall be preceded or followed by “Unpeeled” when the units are whole or halves and are unpeeled. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor or other characteristic to the finished food in addition to sweetness, the name of the packing medium shall be accompanied by the name of such sweetener(s), as for example in the case of a mixture of brown sugar and honey, an appropriate statement would be “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey” the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy”, as the case may be. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate”, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned pears is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maturity.</I> All units tested in accordance with the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are pierced by a weight of not more than 300 grams (10.6 ounces).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum size.</I> In the case of halves and quarters styles, the weight of each unit is not less than 17 grams (0.6 ounce) and 8.5 grams (0.3 ounce), respectively.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Uniformity of size</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Whole, halves, and quarters.</I> In the case of whole, halves, and quarters styles, among those units comprising 95 percent by count of those present in the container that are most uniform in size, the weight of the largest unit is not more than twice the weight of the smallest unit. In containers with fewer than 20 units, 1 unit may be disregarded in making the determination. Where a unit has broken in the container, reassemble the broken pieces to approximate a single unit of the appropriate style.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Chunky.</I> In the case of chunky style, not more than 25 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of units that will pass through an opening 13 millimeters (0.51 inch) wide or that are more than 44 millimeters (1.75 inches) along the longest cut edge.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Peel (except unpeeled style).</I> Not more than 10 square centimeters (1.6 square inches) of peel adhering to pears or loose in the container per kilogram (35.3 ounces) of net weight.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Blemished units.</I> Not more than 20 percent by count of the units in the container are blemished with scab, hail injury, discoloration, or other abnormality aggregating the area of a circle more than 6.5 millimeters (0.25 inch) in diameter; corky or hard spots on outer surfaces aggregating the area of a circle more than 13 millimeters (0.51 inch) in diameter; or dark brown areas aggregating the area of a circle less than 6.5 millimeters (0.25 inch) in diameter which penetrate into the flesh or affect the appearance of the unit.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Trimmed units.</I> In the case of whole, halves, and quarters styles, all units are untrimmed or are so trimmed as to preserve normal shape of the unit.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Crushed or broken units.</I> In the case of whole, halves, quarter, slices, dice, and chunky styles, not more than 10 percent by count of the units in containers of 10 or more units and not more than 1 unit in containers of less than 10 units are crushed or broken. A unit that lost its normal shape because of ripeness and bears no mark of crushing shall not be considered to be crushed or broken.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Loose core material in all styles except uncored whole style.</I> Not more than two units of loose core material per kilogram (35.3 ounces) of net weight. A unit of such material is defined as a portion of loose core, with or without seeds, aggregating approximately one-half of a pear core.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Partially cored units in all styles except uncored whole style.</I> Not more than 40 percent by count partially cored units in halves, quarters, slices, and pieces or irregular pieces styles and not more than 5 percent by weight in dice style. A partially cored unit is a unit of pear that contains an attached portion of the seed cell cavity.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Seeds in all styles except whole uncored style.</I> Not more than 8 seeds or the equivalent in pieces of seeds per kilogram (35.3 ounces) of net weight. Seeds included as cored material in paragraph (b)(1) (viii) and (ix) of this section shall not be counted a second time.
</P>
<P>(2) Canned pears shall be tested by the following method to determine whether they meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section: So trim a test piece from the unit as to fit, with peel surface up, into a supporting receptacle. If the unit is of different firmness in different parts of its peel surface, trim the piece from the firmest part. If the piece is unpeeled, remove the peel. The top of the receptacle is circular in shape, of 28.6 millimeters (1.12 inches) inside diameter, with vertical sides; or rectangular in shape, 19 millimeters (0.75 inch) by 25.4 millimeters (1 inch) inside measurements, with ends vertical and sides sloping downward and joining at the center at a vertical depth of 19 millimeters (0.75 inch). Use the circular receptacle for testing units of such size that a test piece can be trimmed therefrom to fit it. Use the rectangular receptacle for testing other units. Test no unit from which a test piece with rectangular peel surface at least 13 millimeters (0.51 inch) by 25.4 millimeters (1 inch) cannot be trimmed. Test the piece by means of a round metal rod 4 millimeters (0.16 inch) in diameter. To the upper end of the rod is affixed a device to which weight can be added. The rod is held vertically by the support through which it can freely move upward or downward. The lower end of the rod is a plane surface to which the vertical axis of the rod is perpendicular. Adjust the combined weight of the rod and device to 100 grams (3.5 ounces). Set the receptacle so that the surface of the test piece is held horizontally. Lower the end of the rod to the approximate center of such surface, and add weight to the device at a uniform, continuous rate of 12 grams (0.42 ounce) per second until the rod pierces the test piece. Weigh the rod and weighted device. Test all units in containers of 50 units or less except those units too small for testing or too soft for trimming. Test at least 50 units, taken at random in containers of more than 50 units; but if less than 50 units are of sufficient size and firmness for testing, test those which are of sufficient size and firmness.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine compliance as specified in § 145.3(o) except that a lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for peel in all styles except unpeeled styles and seeds in all styles except whole uncored style based on the average of all samples analyzed according to the sampling plans set out in § 145.3(p).
</P>
<P>(4) If the quality of canned pears falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; however, if the quality of the canned pears falls below standard with respect to only one of the factors of quality specified in paragraph (b)(1) (i) through (x) of this section, there may be substituted for the second line of such general statement of substandard quality (“Good Food—Not High Grade”) a new line, as specified after the corresponding designation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section which the canned pears fail to meet, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) “Not tender”;
</P>
<P>(ii) “Small halves” or “small quarters”, as the case may be;
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) “Mixed sizes”;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Undersized and/or oversized pieces”;
</P>
<P>(iv) “Excessive peel”;
</P>
<P>(v) “Blemished”;
</P>
<P>(vi) “Unevenly trimmed”;
</P>
<P>(vii) “Partly crushed or broken”;
</P>
<P>(viii) “Excessive core”;
</P>
<P>(ix) “Excessive core”;
</P>
<P>(x) “Excessive seeds”.
</P>
<FP>Such alternative statement shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, the name “pears” and any words and statements required or authorized to appear with such name by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned pears is the maximum quantity of the optional pear ingredient that can be sealed in the container and processed by heat to prevent spoilage, without crushing or breaking such ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) If canned pears fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 41528, 41530, Sept. 21, 1982; 58 FR 2880, Jan. 6, 1993]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.180   Canned pineapple.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned pineapple is the food prepared from mature, fresh or previously canned, pineapple conforming to the characteristics of <I>Ananas comosus</I> (L.) Merrill and from which peel and core have been removed. The food consists of one of the optional styles of the pineapple ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and may be packed in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, except water is not a suitable packing medium for crushed style. Crushed style additionally may be packed as heavy or solid pack as specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. The food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural fruit flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mint flavor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Spices, spice oils.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vinegar or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(v) Dimethylpolysiloxane in an amount not greater than 10 milligrams/kilogram (10 parts per million) by weight of the finished food as a defoaming agent.
</P>
<FP>The food is sealed in a container and, before or after sealing, is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Styles of pack.</I> The optional styles of the pineapple ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Slices or whole slices or rings</I>—consisting of uniformly cut circular slices or rings cut across the axis of the peeled, cored pineapple cylinders.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Half slices</I>—consisting of uniformly cut, approximately semicircular halves of slices.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Quarter slices</I>—consisting of uniformly cut, one-fourth portions of slices.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Broken slices</I>—consisting of arc-shaped portions which may not be uniform in size and/or shape.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Spears or fingers</I>—consisting of long, slender pieces cut radially and lengthwise of the cored pineapple cylinder, predominantly 65 millimeters (2.5 inches) or longer.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Tidbits</I>—consisting of reasonably uniform, wedge-shaped sectors cut from slices or portions thereof, predominantly from 8 millimeters (0.31 inch) to 13 millimeters (0.51 inch) thick.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Chunks</I>—consisting of short, thick pieces cut from thick slices and/or from peeled cored pineapple and predominantly more than 13 millimeters (0.51 inch) in both thickness and width, and less than 38 millimeters (1.5 inches) in length and does not include large cubes.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Small cubes or dice</I>—consisting of reasonably uniform, cube-shaped pieces, predominately 14 millimeters (0.55 inch) or less in the longest edge dimensions.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Pieces or irregular pieces</I>—consisting of irregular shapes and sizes not identifiable as a specific style and does not include chunks.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Crushed</I>—consisting of finely cut or finely shredded or grated or diced pieces of pineapple.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Large cubes</I>—consisting of reasonably uniform, cube-shaped pieces, longer than 14 millimeters (0.55 inch) along any edge, but predominately 25 millimeters (1 inch) or less in the longest edge dimensions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Pineapple juice and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Pineapple juice.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Clarified pineapple juice.
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such, or any one of the optional sweetening ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section may be added.
</FP>
<P>(ii) The optional sweetening ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Sugar.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Invert sugar sirup.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Any mixture of optional sweetening ingredients designated in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Any of the optional sweetening ingredients designated in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), and (<I>c</I>) of this section with dextrose, as long as the weight of the solids of dextrose does not exceed one-third of the total weight of the solids of the combined sweetening ingredients.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Any of the optional sweetening ingredients designated in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), and (<I>c</I>) of this section with corn sirup or with dried corn sirup or with glucose sirup or with dried glucose sirup, or with any two or more of these, as long as the weight of the solids of corn sirup, dried corn sirup, glucose sirup, dried glucose sirup, or the sum of the weights of the solids of corn sirup, dried corn sirup, glucose sirup, and dried glucose sirup, in case two or more of these are used, does not exceed one-fourth of the total weight of the solids of the combined sweetening ingredients.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Any mixture of the optional ingredients designated in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(<I>d</I>) and (<I>e</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the concentration of clarified pineapple juice is such that the packing medium conforms to the density range for one of the sirups provided for in paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(<I>b</I>), (<I>c</I>), or (<I>d</I>) of this section, the concentrated clarified juice is considered to be light sirup, heavy sirup, or extra heavy sirup, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(iv) When a sweetener is added as a part of any liquid packing medium as provided for in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), and (<I>c</I>) of this section, the density range of the resulting packing medium, expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure in § 145.3(m), shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When the density of the solution is 10 percent or more but less than 14 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water” or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened pineapple juice and water”; or “slightly sweetened pineapple juice”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When the density of the solution is 14 percent or more but less than 18 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened pineapple juice and water”; or “lightly sweetened pineapple juice,” as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When the density of the solution is 18 percent or more but less than 22 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened pineapple juice and water”; or “heavily sweetened pineapple juice”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When the density of the solution is 22 percent or more but not more than 35 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened pineapple juice and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened pineapple juice”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(v) Determine compliance as specified in § 145.3(o).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Types of pack.</I> The optional types of pack for crushed style referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Heavy pack.</I> Crushed style with or without sweetening ingredients and containing at least 73 percent drained fruit weight, as determined by the procedure set forth in § 145.3(n).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Solid pack.</I> Crushed style with or without sweetening ingredients and containing at least 78 percent drained fruit weight, as determined by the procedure set forth in § 145.3(n).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “pineapple”. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or, in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice; or “Seasoned with vinegar” or, in lieu of the word “vinegar”, the name of the vinegar used. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section are used, such words may be combined, as, for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, and cinnamon oil”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The style of the pineapple ingredient as provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the name of the packing medium as specified in paragraph (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” or the words “Heavy pack” or “Solid pack” as specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, where applicable, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. The word “slices” may be alternatively designated “sliced,” “dice” as “diced,” and “pieces” or “irregular pieces” as “mixed pieces of irregular sizes and shapes.” Whenever pineapple juice, as provided for in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<I>c</I>) of this section, is used, the declaration may be preceded by an appropriate statement such as “unsweetened”.
</P>
<P>(iii) Label declaration. Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned pineapple is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Core material.</I> In the case of all styles, not more than 7 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of core material as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Uniformity of weight and shape</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Slices.</I> The drained weight of the largest unit in the container is not more than 1.4 times the drained weight of the smallest unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Half slices and quarter slices.</I> The drained weight of the largest unit in a container is not more than 1.75 times the drained weight of the smallest unit, except for an occasional broken piece due to splitting or an occasional whole slice not completely cut through.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Broken slices.</I> (<I>1</I>) Not more than 10 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of pieces having an arc of less than 90°.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Not more than 5 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Consists of pieces that measure in thickness less than 8 millimeters (0.31 inch) or more than 25 millimeters (1 inch); or 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Consists of pieces that measure less than 19 millimeters (0.75 inch) in width as measured from the outer edge to the inner edge.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Not more than 5 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of broken slices having an outside diameter differing by as much as 9.5 millimeters (0.37 inch) from that of those present in greatest proportion by weight.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Spears.</I> The drained weight of the largest unit in the container is not more than 1.4 times the drained weight of the smallest unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Tidbits.</I> Not more than 15 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of units each of which weighs less than three-fourths as much as the average drained weight of all the untrimmed units in the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Chunks.</I> Not more than 15 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of pieces weighing less than 5 grams (0.18 ounce) each.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Cubes.</I> (<I>1</I>) Not more than 10 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of pieces that will pass through a screen with square openings of 8 millimeters (0.31 inch) in the case of the small cubes or large cubes.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Not more than 15 percent of the drained weight consists of pieces weighing more than 3 grams (0.11 ounce) each for small cubes and 18 grams (0.63 ounce) each for large cubes.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) <I>Pieces.</I> Not more than 20 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of units that will pass through a screen with square openings of 8 millimeters (0.31 inch).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Blemishes.</I> Blemishes consist of surface areas and spots that contrast strongly in color or texture with the normal pineapple tissue or that may penetrate the flesh. Blemishes are normally removed in preparation of pineapple for culinary use and include any of the following, if in excess of 1.6 millimeters (0.06 inch) in the longest dimension on the exposed surface of the unit: deep fruit eyes, pieces of shell, brown spots, bruised portions, and other abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Slices, half slices, quarter slices, broken slices, spears, tidbits, chunks, cubes, and pieces.</I> Not more than 12.5 percent by count of the units in the container may be blemished; but in containers having not more than 5 units, 1 unit may be blemished; in containers having more than 5 units, but not more than 10 units, 2 units may be blemished and in containers having more than 10 units, but not more than 32 units, 4 units may be blemished.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Crushed.</I> Not more than 1.5 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of fragments bearing blemishes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Excessively trimmed.</I> Slices, half slices, and quarter slices are considered excessively trimmed if the portion trimmed away exceeds 5 percent of the apparent physical bulk of the perfectly formed unit and if the trimming destroys the normal circular shape of the outer or inner edge of the unit. Broken slices, spears, and tidbits are excessively trimmed if the trimming destroys the normal shape of the unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Slices, half slices, and quarter slices.</I> Not more than 7.5 percent by count of the units in the container may be excessively trimmed, but in containers having not more than 10 units, 1 unit may be excessively trimmed; and in containers having more than 10 units, but not more than 27 units, 2 units may be excessively trimmed.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Broken slices and spears.</I> Not more than 15 percent by count of the total units in the container may be excessively trimmed.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Tidbits.</I> Not more than 15 percent of the drained weight of the contents of the container consists of excessively trimmed units.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Mashed.</I> A unit that has lost its normal shape because of ripeness that bears no mark of mechanical injury is not to be considered mashed.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Slices, half slices, and quarter slices.</I> Not more than one unit in containers of 25 units or less, and not more than 3 units in containers of more than 25 units, are mashed.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Broken slices.</I> Not more than 5 percent by count of the units in the container are mashed.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Spears.</I> Not more than 1 unit in the container is mashed.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Tidbits.</I> Not more than 3 units in containers of less than 150 units, and not more than 2 percent of the units in containers of 150 units or more, are mashed.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Chunks.</I> Not more than 3 units in containers of less than 70 units, and not more than 5 percent of the units in containers of 70 units or more, are mashed.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Acidity.</I> In the case of all styles, not more than 1.35 grams of acid, calculated as anhydrous citric acid, is contained in 100 milliliters of the liquid drained from the product 15 days or more after the pineapple is canned.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Excessive liquid.</I> The drained weight of crushed pineapple is not less than 63 percent of the net weight of the contents of the container.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling and acceptance.</I> Determine compliance as specified in § 145.3(o).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Methodology.</I> The method to be employed to determine whether canned pineapple meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) (i) through (vi) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the drained weight of the canned pineapple by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(n).
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify and separate any core material cleanly from each of the units in the container, and weigh the aggregate of the core material. Calculate the percent core material to determine compliance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of slices, half slices, quarter slices, spears, tidbits, chunks, and pieces, check the weight of the units against the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) (<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), (<I>d</I>), (<I>e</I>), (<I>f</I>), and (<I>h</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of broken slices, check the dimensions of each unit against the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of cubes, and pieces, determine compliance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) (<I>g</I>) and (<I>h</I>) of this section by placing the units, a few at a time, on the mesh of a U.S. Standard No. 8 sieve (8-millimeter (0.31 inch)) mesh. After shaking gently, remove those units that remain on the sieve before testing the next portion. Continue portion-wise until all units are tested, then determine the aggregate weight of those units that have passed through the sieve.
</P>
<P>(vi) Except in the case of crushed pineapple, segregate and count each unit that is blemished as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. In the case of crushed pineapple, segregate each fragment of crushed pineapple bearing a blemish and determine the aggregate weight of such fragments to determine compliance with paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) Except in the case of chunks, cubes, pieces, and crushed pineapple, inspect all the units in the container to determine those that have been excessively trimmed, as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Except in the case of cubes, pieces, and crushed pineapple, count the total units in the container and the number of mashed units to determine compliance with paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) Determine the total acidity of the drained liquid by titration, using the following method: Measure with a pipette 10 milliliters of the unfiltered drained liquid into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask. Add 25 milliliters of distilled or deionized water and 0.3 milliliter of 1-percent phenolphthalein solution. Titrate with one-tenth normal sodium hydroxide solution to a faint, permanently pink coloration. Multiply the number of milliliters of one-tenth normal sodium hydroxide required by 0.064 to calculate the number of grams of anhydrous citric acid per 100 milliliters of drained liquid to determine compliance with paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If the quality of canned pineapple falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form specified in that section; however, if the quality of the canned pineapple falls below standard with respect to only one of the factors of quality specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section, there may be substituted for the second line of the general statement of substandard quality (“Good Food—Not High Grade”) one of the following new lines, placed after the corresponding designation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section that the canned pineapple fails to meet:
</P>
<P>(i) “Poorly cored” or “Excessive core”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Mixed sizes” or “Irregular small pieces”, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Blemished” or “Contains blemished pieces”.
</P>
<P>(iv) “Excessively trimmed”.
</P>
<P>(v) “Mashed units” or “Contains mashed units”.
</P>
<P>(vi) “Excessively tart”.
</P>
<P>(vii) “Contains excess liquid”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of Container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned crushed pineapple is a fill of not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) If canned crushed pineapple falls below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 40279, July 10, 1979; 45 FR 43391 and 43392, June 27, 1980; 46 FR 57475, Nov. 24, 1981; 48 FR 39916, Sept. 2, 1983; 58 FR 2880, Jan. 6, 1993]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.185" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.185   Canned plums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned plums is the food prepared from clean, sound, and mature fruit of plum varieties conforming to the characteristics of <I>Prunus domestica</I> L., greengage varieties conforming to the characteristics of <I>Prunus italica</I> L., mirabelle or damson varieties conforming to the characteristics of <I>Prunus insititia</I> L., or cherry varieties conforming to the characteristics of <I>Prunus cerasifera</I> Ehrh. The food consists of one of the optional styles of the plum ingredient, specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, and one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vinegar, lemon juice, or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(iv) Artificial coloring.
</P>
<FP>Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat so as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Optional styles of the plum ingredient.</I> The optional plum ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are peeled or unpeeled:
</P>
<P>(i) Whole.
</P>
<P>(ii) Halves.
</P>
<FP>Peeled or unpeeled whole plums are pitted or, alternatively, unpitted. Peeled or unpeeled plum halves are pitted.
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Water.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3.
</FP>
<P>(ii) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(m) shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When the density of the solution is 11 percent or more but less than 15 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”, or “extra light sirup”, “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water” or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When the density of the solution is 15 percent or more, but less than 19 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”, “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”, or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When the density of the solution is 19 percent or more, but less than 25 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”, “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”, or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When the density of the solution is 25 percent or more, but less than 35 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”, “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”, or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is “plums” accompanied by the color designation “yellow” or “golden” or “red” or “purple”, as appropriate, or the specific name of the variety or “Greengage plums”, “Damson plums”, “Cherry plums”, “Mirabelle plums”. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice; “Seasoned with vinegar”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a)(1) (ii) and (iii) of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, and cinnamon oil”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The style of the plum ingredient as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the name of the packing medium specified in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. The style of the plum ingredient shall be preceded or followed by “Peeled” when the plums are peeled and by “Pitted” in the case of whole pitted plums. “Halves” may be alternatively designated “Halved”. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor or other characteristics to the finished food in addition to sweetness, the name of the packing medium shall be accompanied by the name of such sweetener(s), as for example, in the case of a mixture of brown sugar and honey, an appropriate statement would be “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey”, the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy”, as the case may be. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”,
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of a single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate”, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned plums is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Blemishes</I> (<I>damaged</I>). After draining in accordance with the procedure set out in § 145.3(n) not more than 30 percent by weight of the drained plums consists of plums which have been blemished or damaged by any of the following factors either singly or in combination: Damaged by insects; appearance or eating quality materially affected by friction, disease, external stone gum or discoloration.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Crushed or broken units in whole and halves styles.</I> In the case of the whole styles, not more than 25 percent by weight of the drained plums are deformed or broken to an extent that the normal shape of the fruit is seriously affected. In the case of the halves style, not more than 25 percent by weight of the drained plums are damaged or torn to such an extent that they are smaller than 50 percent of a plum half.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Blemishes and crushed or broken units.</I> Not more than 35 percent by weight of the drained plums consist of both blemishes as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section and crushed or broken units in the case of the whole and halves styles as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Extraneous plant material.</I> Not more than one piece of stalk or stem from the plum tree or other harmless extraneous plant material per 200 grams (7 ounces) of drained plums.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Loose pits in whole style.</I> Not more than three loose pits per 500 grams (17.6 ounces) of drained plums.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Pits or pieces of pits in whole pitted and halves styles.</I> Not more than two pits or pieces of pits per 500 grams (17.8 ounces) of drained plums.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 145.3(o) except that a lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for extraneous plant material, loose pits in whole style, and pits or pieces of pits in whole pitted and halves styles based on the average of all samples analyzed according to the sampling plans set out in § 145.3(p).
</P>
<P>(3) If the quality of canned plums falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; however, if the quality of the canned plums falls below standard with respect to only one of the factors of quality specified in paragraphs (b)(1) (i) through (vi) of this section, there may be substituted for the second line of such general statement of substandard quality (“Good Food—Not High Grade”) a new line, as specified after the corresponding designation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section which the canned plums fail to meet, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) “Blemished”;
</P>
<P>(ii) “Partly crushed or broken”;
</P>
<P>(iii) “Blemished and partly crushed or broken”;
</P>
<P>(iv) “Contains extraneous plant material”;
</P>
<P>(v) “Contains loose pits”; or
</P>
<P>(vi) “Contains pits” or “Contains pieces of pits”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned plums is:
</P>
<P>(i) The fill of the plums and packing medium, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) The drained weight of the plum ingredient as determined by the method prescribed in § 145.3(n) is not less than 50 percent for whole styles and 55 percent for halves styles based on the water capacity of containers as determined in § 130.12(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance for fill of container as specified in § 145.3(o).
</P>
<P>(3) If canned plums fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified. If canned plums fall below the standard of fill of container in respect to drained weight, the words “Low drained weight” shall follow the general statement of substandard fill on the label.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2880, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.190" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.30.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.190   Canned prunes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ingredients.</I> Canned prunes is the food prepared from dried prunes, which may be packed as a solid pack or in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Such food may also contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(2) Spice.
</P>
<P>(3) Vinegar, lemon juice, or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(4) Unpeeled pieces of citrus fruits.
</P>
<FP>Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Packing media.</I> (1) The optional packing media referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as defined in § 145.3 are:
</P>
<P>(i) Water.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fruit juice(s) and water.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fruit juice(s).
</P>
<FP>Such packing media may be used as such or any one or any combination of two or more safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweetener(s) may be added. Sweeteners defined in § 145.3 shall be as defined therein, except that a nutritive carbohydrate sweetener for which a standard of identity has been established in part 168 of this chapter shall comply with such standard in lieu of any definition that may appear in § 145.3.
</FP>
<P>(2) When a sweetener is added as a part of any such liquid packing medium, the density range of the resulting packing medium expressed as percent by weight of sucrose (degrees Brix) as determined by the procedure prescribed in § 145.3(m) shall be designated by the appropriate name for the respective density ranges, namely:
</P>
<P>(i) When the density of the solution is less than 20 percent, the medium shall be designated as “slightly sweetened water”; or “extra light sirup”; “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “slightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the density of the solution is 20 percent or more but less than 24 percent, the medium shall be designated as “light sirup”; “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “lightly sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the density of the solution is 24 percent or more but less than 30 percent, the medium shall be designated as “heavy sirup”; “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the density of the solution is 30 percent or more but not more than 45 percent, the medium shall be designated as “extra heavy sirup”; “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s) and water”; or “extra heavily sweetened fruit juice(s)”, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (1) The name of the food is “prunes—prepared from dried prunes”. The words “prepared from dried prunes” shall be in close proximity to the word “prunes” and shall be of the same style and not less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> of the point size of the type used for the word “prunes”. The name of the food shall also include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “Spice added”, or in lieu of the word “Spice”, the common name of the spice, “Seasoned with vinegar” or “Seasoned with unpeeled pieces of citrus fruit”. When two or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a) (2) through (4) of this section are used, such words may be combined as for example, “Seasoned with cider vinegar, cloves, cinnamon oil and unpeeled pieces of citrus fruit.”
</P>
<P>(2) When the food is prepared with a packing medium, the name of the packing medium specified in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section, preceded by “In” or “Packed in” and the words “cooked”, “stewed”, or “prepared”, shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. When no packing medium is used, the words “solid pack” or “moist pack” or the word “moistened” followed by the words “without sirup” shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food. When the packing medium is prepared with a sweetener(s) which imparts a taste, flavor or other characteristic to the finished food in addition to sweetness, the name of the packing medium shall be accompanied by the name of such sweetener(s), as for example in the case of a mixture of brown sugar and honey, an appropriate statement would be “______ sirup of brown sugar and honey”, the blank to be filled in with the word “light”, “heavy”, or “extra heavy” as the case may be. When the liquid portion of the packing media provided for in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section consists of fruit juice(s), such juice(s) shall be designated in the name of the packing medium as:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a single fruit juice, the name of the juice shall be used in lieu of the word “fruit”,
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a combination of two or more fruit juices, the names of the juices in the order of predominance by weight shall either be used in lieu of the word “fruit” in the name of the packing medium, or be declared on the label as specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of the single fruit juice or a combination of two or more fruit juices any of which are made from concentrate(s), the words “from concentrate(s)” shall follow the word “juice(s)” in the name of the packing medium and in the name(s) of such juice(s) when declared as specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever the names of the fruit juices used do not appear in the name of the packing medium as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, such names and the words “from concentrate”, as specified in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, shall appear in an ingredient statement pursuant to the requirements of § 101.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2880, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="146" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 146—CANNED FRUIT JUICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>corn sirup</I> means a clarified, concentrated, aqueous solution of the products obtained by the incomplete hydrolysis of cornstarch, and includes dried corn sirup. The solids of corn sirup and of dried corn sirup contain not less than 40 percent by weight of reducing sugars calculated as anhydrous dextrose.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>dextrose</I> means the hydrated or anhydrous, refined monosaccharide obtained from hydrolyzed starch.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>dried glucose sirup</I> means the product obtained by drying glucose sirup.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>glucose sirup</I> means a clarified, concentrated, aqueous solution of the products obtained by the incomplete hydrolysis of any edible starch. The solids of glucose sirup contain not less than 40 percent by weight of reducing sugars calculated as anhydrous dextrose.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>invert sugar sirup</I> means an aqueous solution of inverted or partly inverted, refined or partly refined sucrose, the solids of which contain not more than 0.3 percent by weight of ash, and which is colorless, odorless, and flavorless, except for sweetness.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>sugar</I> means refined sucrose.
</P>
<P>(g) Compliance means the following: Unless otherwise provided in a standard, a lot of canned fruits shall be deemed in compliance for the following factors, to be determined by the sampling and acceptance procedure as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, namely:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quality.</I> The quality of a lot shall be considered acceptable when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fill of container.</I> A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for fill of container when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number (c) in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(h) The sampling and acceptance procedure means the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions</I>—(i) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Sample size.</I> The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for the examination or testing as a single unit.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Defective.</I> Any sample unit shall be regarded as defective when the sample unit does not meet the criteria set forth in the standards.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Acceptance number</I> (<I>c</I>). The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Acceptable quality level</I> (<I>AQL</I>). The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling plans:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size of container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E> 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001 to 72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001 to 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601 to 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,001 to 7,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,201 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">n</E> = number of primary containers in sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">c</E> = acceptance number.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Canned Fruit Juices and Beverages</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.114" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.114   Lemon juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> Lemon juice is the unfermented juice, obtained by mechanical process, from sound, mature lemons (<I>Citrus limon</I> (L.) Burm. f.), from which seeds (except embryonic seeds and small fragments of seed which cannot be separated by good manufacturing practice) and excess pulp are removed. The juice may be adjusted by the addition of the optional concentrated lemon juice ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section in such quantity so that the increase in acidity, calculated as anhydrous citric acid, does not exceed 15 percent of the acidity of the finished food. The lemon oil and lemon essence (derived from lemons) content may be adjusted in accordance with good manufacturing practice. The juice may have been concentrated and later reconstituted. When prepared from concentrated lemon juice, the finished food contains not less than 6 percent, by weight, of soluble solids taken as the refractometric sucrose value (of the filtrate), corrected to 20 °C, but uncorrected for acidity, in accordance with the “International Scale of Refractive Indices of Sucrose Solutions” in section 52.012 of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference, and has a titratable acidity content of not less than 4.5 percent, by weight, calculated as anhydrous citrus acid. Copies of the incorporation by reference may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The food may contain one or any combination of the safe and suitable optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Lemon juice, as defined in this paragraph, may be preserved by heat sterilization (canning), refrigeration, freezing, or by the addition of safe and suitable preservatives. When sealed in a container to be held at ambient temperatures, it is preserved by the addition of safe and suitable preservatives or so processed by heat, before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The optional safe and suitable ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) Concentrated lemon juice (lemon juice from which part of the water has been removed).
</P>
<P>(ii) Water and/or lemon juice to reconstitute concentrated lemon juice in the manufacture of lemon juice from concentrate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Preservatives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) “Lemon juice” (<I>1</I>) if the food is prepared from unconcentrated, undiluted liquid extracted from mature lemons; or (<I>2</I>) if the food is prepared from unconcentrated, undiluted liquid extracted from mature lemons to which concentrated lemon juice is added to adjust acidity as provided for in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Lemon juice from concentrate” or “reconstituted lemon juice” (<I>1</I>) if the food is prepared from concentrated lemon juice and water and/or lemon juice; or (<I>2</I>) if the food is prepared from lemon juice from concentrate and lemon juice. The words “from concentrate” or “reconstituted” shall be shown in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the word “lemon juice.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for lemon juice, except when the food is frozen, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, except 
</P>
<P>(i) When the food is frozen or 
</P>
<P>(ii) When the food is packaged in individual serving-size packages, containing 
<FR>1/2</FR> fluid ounce or less, for use as described in § 1.24(a)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance is determined as specified in § 146.3(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) If the lemon juice fails to meet the standard of fill as prescribed in paragraph (c) (1) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein prescribed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7786, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 11830, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10100, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.120   Frozen concentrate for lemonade.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen concentrate for lemonade is the frozen food prepared from one or both of the lemon juice ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section together with one or any mixture of safe and suitable nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners. The product contains not less than 48.0 percent by weight of soluble solids taken as the sucrose value determined by refractometer and corrected for acidity prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 22.025, “Frozen Concentrate for Lemonade (12),” under the heading “Soluble Solids by Refractometer—Official First Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I> When the product is diluted according to directions for making lemonade which shall appear on the label, the acidity of the lemonade, calculated as anhydrous citric acid, shall be not less than 0.70 gram per 100 milliliters, and the soluble solids, measured as described for the concentrate, shall be not less than 10.5 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(b) The lemon juice ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Lemon juice or frozen lemon juice or a mixture of these.
</P>
<P>(2) Concentrated lemon juice or frozen concentrated lemon juice or a mixture of these.
</P>
<FP>For the purposes of this section, lemon juice is the undiluted juice expressed from mature lemons of an acid variety; and concentrated lemon juice is lemon juice from which part of the water has been removed. In the preparation of the lemon juice ingredients, the lemon oil content may be adjusted by the addition of lemon oil or concentrated lemon oil in accordance with good manufacturing practice, and the lemon pulp in the juice as expressed may be left in the juice or may be separated. Lemon pulp that has been separated, which may have been preserved by freezing, may be added in preparing frozen concentrate for lemonade, provided that the amount of pulp added does not raise the proportion of pulp in the finished food to a level in excess of that which would be present by using lemon juice ingredients from which pulp has not been separated. The lemon juice ingredients may be treated by heat, either before or after the other ingredients are added, to reduce the enzymatic activity and the number of viable microorganisms.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11830, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10100, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.121" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.121   Frozen concentrate for artificially sweetened lemonade.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen concentrate for artificially sweetened lemonade conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for frozen concentrate for lemonade by § 146.120, except that in lieu of nutritive sweeteners it is sweetened with one or more of the artificial sweetening ingredients listed in and complying with the requirements of parts 172, 180 or 184 of this chapter, and the soluble solids specifications prescribed in § 146.120(a) do not apply. When the product is diluted according to directions which shall appear on the label, the acidity of the artificially sweetened lemonade, calculated as anhydrous citric acid, shall be not less than 0.70 gram per 100 milliliters. It may contain one or more safe and suitable dispersing ingredients serving the function of distributing the lemon oil throughout the food. It may also contain one or more safe and suitable thickening ingredients. Such dispersing and thickening ingredients are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or if they are food additives as so defined, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Frozen concentrate for artificially sweetened lemonade”. The words “artificially sweetened” shall be of the same size and style of type as the word “lemonade”.
</P>
<P>(d) If an optional thickening or dispersing ingredient referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement “______ added” or “with added ______”, the blank being filled in with the common name of the thickening or dispersing agent used. Such statement shall be set forth on the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(e) Frozen concentrate for artificially sweetened lemonade is labeled to conform to the labeling requirements prescribed for foods which purport to be or are represented for special dietary use by regulations promulgated pursuant to section 403(j) of the act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.126" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.126   Frozen concentrate for colored lemonade.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen concentrate for colored lemonade conforms to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for frozen concentrate for lemonade by § 146.120, except that it is colored with a safe and suitable fruit juice, vegetable juice, or any such juice in concentrated form, or with any other color additive ingredient suitable for use in food, including artificial coloring, used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 721 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “Frozen concentrate for ______ lemonade”, the blank being filled in with the word describing the color: for example, “Frozen concentrate for pink lemonade”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.132" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.132   Grapefruit juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> Grapefruit juice is the unfermented juice, intended for direct consumption, obtained by mechanical process from sound, mature grapefruit (<I>Citrus paradisi</I> Macfadyen) from which seeds and peel (except embryonic seeds and small fragments of seeds and peel which cannot be separated by good manufacturing practice) and excess pulp are removed and to which may be added not more than 10 percent by volume of the unfermented juice obtained from mature hybrids of grapefruit. The juice may be adjusted by the addition of the optional concentrated grapefruit juice ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, but the quantity of such concentrated grapefruit juice ingredient added shall not contribute more than 15 percent of the grapefruit juice soluble solids in the finished food. The grapefruit pulp, grapefruit oil, and grapefruit essence (components derived from grapefruit) content may be adjusted in accordance with good manufacturing practice. The juice may have been concentrated and later reconstituted with water suitable for the purpose of maintaining essential composition and quality factors of the juice. It may be sweetened with the dry nutritive sweeteners referred to in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section. If the grapefruit juice is prepared from concentrate, such sweeteners, in liquid form, referred to in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, also may be used. When prepared from concentrated grapefruit juice, exclusive of added sweeteners, the finished food contains not less than 10 percent, by weight, of soluble solids taken as the refractometric sucrose value (of the filtrate), corrected to 20 °C, and corrected for acidity by adding (0.012 + 0.193x-0.0004x
<SU>2</SU>), where x equals the percent anhydrous citric acid in the sample, to the refractometrically obtained sucrose value by the first method prescribed in “Correction of Refractometer Sucrose Readings for Citric Acid Content for Lemonade,” by Yeatman, Senzel, and Springer, “Journal of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” vol. 59 p. 368 (1976). Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The food may contain one or any combination of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Grapefruit juice, as defined in this paragraph, may be preserved by heat sterilization (canning), refrigeration, or freezing. When sealed in a container to be held at ambient temperatures, it is so processed by heat, before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) Concentrated grapefruit juice (grapefruit juice from which part of the water has been removed).
</P>
<P>(ii) Water and/or grapefruit juice to reconstitute concentrated grapefruit juice in the manufacture of grapefruit juice from concentrate.
</P>
<P>(iii) One or any combination of two or more of the dry or liquid forms of sugar, invert sugar sirup, dextrose, glucose sirup, and fructose. Sweeteners defined in part 168 of this chapter shall be as defined therein.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) “Grapefruit juice” (<I>1</I>) if the food is prepared from unconcentrated, undiluted liquid extracted from mature grapefruit; or (<I>2</I>) if the food is prepared from unconcentrated, undiluted liquid extracted from mature grapefruit to which concentrated grapefruit juice is added to adjust soluble solids as provided for in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Grapefruit juice from concentrate” (<I>1</I>) if the food is prepared from concentrated grapefruit juice and water and/or grapefruit juice; or (<I>2</I>) if the food is prepared from grapefruit juice from concentrate and grapefruit juice. The words “from concentrate” shall be shown in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the words “grapefruit juice.”
</P>
<P>(ii) If any nutritive sweetener is added, the principal display panel of the label shall bear the statement “Sweetener added.” If no sweetener is added, the word “unsweetened” may immediately precede or follow the words “Grapefruit Juice” or “Grapefruit Juice from Concentrate.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for grapefruit juice, except when the food is frozen, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance is determined as specified in § 146.3(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) If the grapefruit juice fails to meet the standard of fill as prescribed in paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein prescribed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8464, Jan. 27, 1981; 46 FR 21359, Apr. 10, 1981; 46 FR 26300, May 12, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 11830, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 24287, June 4, 1982; 47 FR 43364, Oct. 1, 1982; 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993; 66 FR 17359, Mar. 30, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.135   Orange juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Orange juice is the unfermented juice obtained from mature oranges of the species <I>Citrus sinensis</I> or of the citrus hybrid commonly called “Ambersweet” (
<FR>1/2</FR> <I>Citrus sinensis</I> X 
<FR>3/8</FR> <I>Citrus reticulata</I> X 
<FR>1/8</FR> <I>Citrus paradisi</I> (USDA Selection:1-100-29: 1972 Whitmore Foundation Farm)). Seeds (except embryonic seeds and small fragments of seeds that cannot be separated by current good manufacturing practice) and excess pulp are removed. The juice may be chilled, but it is not frozen.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “orange juice”. The name “orange juice” may be preceded on the label by the varietal name of the oranges used, and if the oranges grew in a single State, the name of such State may be included in the name, as for example, “California Valencia orange juice”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 57667, Dec. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.137" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.137   Frozen orange juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen orange juice is orange juice as defined in § 146.135, except that it is frozen.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “Frozen orange juice”. Such name may be preceded on the label by the varietal name of the oranges used, and if the oranges grew in a single State, the name of such State may be included in the name, as for example, “California Valencia frozen orange juice”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.140   Pasteurized orange juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pasteurized orange juice is the food prepared from unfermented juice obtained from mature oranges as specified in § 146.135, to which may be added not more that 10 percent by volume of the unfermented juice obtained from mature oranges of the species <I>Citrus reticulata</I> or <I>Citrus reticulata</I> hybrids (except that this limitation shall not apply to the hybrid species described in § 146.135). Seeds (except embryonic seeds and small fragments of seeds that cannot be separated by good manufacturing practice) are removed, and pulp and orange oil may be adjusted in accordance with good manufacturing practice. If the adjustment involves the addition of pulp, then such pulp shall not be of the washed or spent type. The solids may be adjusted by the addition of one or more of the optional concentrated orange juice ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section. One or more of the optional sweetening ingredients listed in paragraph (c) of this section may be added in a quantity reasonably necessary to raise the Brix or the Brix-acid ratio to any point within the normal range usually found in unfermented juice obtained from mature oranges as specified in § 146.135. The orange juice is so treated by heat as to reduce substantially the enzymatic activity and the number of viable microorganisms. Either before or after such heat treatment, all or a part of the product may be frozen. The finished pasteurized orange juice contains not less than 10.5 percent by weight of orange juice soluble solids, exclusive of the solids of any added optional sweetening ingredients, and the ratio of the Brix hydrometer reading to the grams of anhydrous citric acid per 100 milliliters of juice is not less than 10 to 1.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional concentrated orange juice ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are frozen concentrated orange juice as specified in § 146.146 and concentrated orange juice for manufacturing as specified in § 146.153 when made from mature oranges; but the quantity of such concentrated orange juice ingredients added shall not contribute more than one-fourth of the total orange juice solids in the finished pasteurized orange juice.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional sweetening ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are sugar, invert sugar, dextrose, dried corn sirup, dried glucose sirup.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The name of the food is “Pasteurized orange juice”. If the food is filled into containers and preserved by freezing, the label shall bear the name “Frozen pasteurized orange juice”. The words “pasteurized” or “frozen pasteurized” shall be shown on labels in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the words “orange juice”.
</P>
<P>(2) If the pasteurized orange juice is filled into containers and refrigerated, the label shall bear the name of the food, “chilled pasteurized orange juice”. If it does not purport to be either canned orange juice or frozen pasteurized orange juice, the word “chilled” may be omitted from the name. The words “pasteurized” or “chilled pasteurized” shall be shown in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the words “orange juice”.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) If a concentrated orange juice ingredient specified in paragraph (b) of this section is used in adjusting the orange juice solids of the pasteurized orange juice, the label shall bear the statement “prepared in part from concentrated orange juice” or “with added concentrated orange juice” or “concentrated orange juice added”.
</P>
<P>(2) If one or more of the sweetening ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section are added to the pasteurized orange juice, the label shall bear the statement “______ added”, the blank being filled in with the name or an appropriate combination of the names of the sweetening ingredients used. However, for the purpose of this section, the name “sweetener” may be used in lieu of the specific name or names of the sweetening ingredients.
</P>
<P>(f) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements specified in this section for naming the optional ingredients used shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow the name of the food, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 57667, Dec. 7, 1992; 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.141" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.141   Canned orange juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Canned orange juice is the food prepared from orange juice as specified in § 146.135 or frozen orange juice as specified in § 146.137, or a combination of both, to which may be added not more than 10 percent by volume of the unfermented juice obtained from mature oranges of the species <I>Citrus reticulata</I> or <I>Citrus reticulata</I> hybrids (except that this limitation shall not apply to the hybrid species described in § 146.135). Seeds (except embryonic seeds and small fragments of seeds that cannot be separated by good manufacturing practice) are removed. Orange oil and pulp may be adjusted in accordance with good manufacturing practice. The adjustment of pulp referred to in this paragraph does not permit the addition of washed or spent pulp. Liquid condensate recovered from the deoiling operation may be added back. One or more of the optional sweetening ingredients named in paragraph (b) of this section may be added, in a quantity reasonably necessary to raise the Brix or the Brix-acid ratio to any point within the normal range usually found in unfermented juice obtained from mature oranges as specified in § 146.135. The food is sealed in containers and so processed by heat, either before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage. The finished canned orange juice tests not less than 10° Brix, and the ratio of the Brix hydrometer reading to the grams of anhydrous citric acid per 100 milliliters of juice is not less than 9 to 1.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional sweetening ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are sugar, invert sugar, dextrose, dried corn sirup, dried glucose sirup.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Canned orange juice”. All the words in the name shall appear in the same size, color, and style of type and on the same color-contrasting background. If the food is not sold under refrigeration and if it does not purport to be chilled pasteurized orange juice or frozen pasteurized orange juice, the word “canned” may be omitted from the name.
</P>
<P>(d) If one or more of the sweetening ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section are added to the canned orange juice, the label shall bear the statement “______ added”, the blank being filled in with the name or an appropriate combination of the names of the sweetening ingredients used. However, for the purpose of this section, the name “sweetener” may be used in lieu of the specific name or names of the sweetening ingredients.
</P>
<P>(e) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statement specified in this section for naming the optional ingredients used shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow the name of the food, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 57667, Dec. 7, 1992; 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.145   Orange juice from concentrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Orange juice from concentrate is the food prepared by mixing water with frozen concentrated orange juice as defined in § 146.146 or with concentrated orange juice for manufacturing as defined in § 146.153 (when made from mature oranges), or both. To such mixture may be added orange juice as defined in § 146.135, frozen orange juice as defined in § 146.137, pasteurized orange juice as defined in § 146.140, orange juice for manufacturing as defined in § 146.151 (when made from mature oranges and preserved by chilling or freezing but not by canning), orange oil, orange pulp, and one or more of the sweetening ingredients listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The finished orange juice from concentrate contains not less than 11.8 percent orange juice soluble solids, exclusive of solids of any added optional sweetening ingredients. It may be so treated by heat as to reduce substantially the enzymatic activity and the number of viable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) The sweetening ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are sugar, sugar sirup, invert sugar, invert sugar sirup, dextrose, corn sirup, dried corn sirup, glucose sirup, dried glucose sirup.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Orange juice from concentrate”. The words “from concentrate” shall be shown in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the words “orange juice”.
</P>
<P>(d) When orange juice from concentrate contains any optional sweetening ingredient as listed in paragraph (b) of this section, whether added directly as such or indirectly as an added ingredient of any orange juice product used, the label shall bear the statement “______ added”, the blank being filled in with the name or an appropriate combination of the names of the sweetening ingredients added. However, for the purposes of this section the name “sweetener” may be used in lieu of the specific name or names of the sweetening ingredients.
</P>
<P>(e) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements specified in this section for naming the optional ingredients used shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow the name of the food, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.146" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.146   Frozen concentrated orange juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen concentrated orange juice is the food prepared by removing water from the juice of mature oranges as provided in § 146.135, to which may be added unfermented juice obtained from mature oranges of the species <I>Citrus reticulata,</I> other <I>Citrus reticulata</I> hybrids, or of <I>Citrus aurantium,</I> or both. However, in the unconcentrated blend, the volume of juice from <I>Citrus reticulata</I> or <I>Citrus reticulata</I> hybrids shall not exceed 10 percent (except that this limitation shall not apply to the hybrid species described in § 146.135) and from <I>Citrus aurantium</I> shall not exceed 5 percent. The concentrate so obtained is frozen. In its preparation, seeds (except embryonic seeds and small fragments of seeds that cannot be separated by good manufacturing practice) and excess pulp are removed, and a properly prepared water extract of the excess pulp so removed may be added. Orange oil, orange pulp, orange essence (obtained from orange juice), orange juice and other orange juice concentrate as provided in this section or concentrated orange juice for manufacturing provided in § 146.153 (when made from mature oranges), water, and one or more of the optional sweetening ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section may be added to adjust the final composition. The juice of <I>Citrus reticulata</I> and <I>Citrus aurantium,</I> as permitted by this paragraph, may be added in single strength or concentrated form prior to concentration of the <I>Citrus sinensis</I> juice, or in concentrated form during adjustment of the composition of the finished food. The addition of concentrated juice from <I>Citrus reticulata</I> or <I>Citrus aurantium,</I> or both, shall not exceed, on a single-strength basis, the 10 percent maximum for <I>Citrus reticulata</I> and the 5 percent maximum for <I>Citrus aurantium</I> prescribed by this paragraph. Any of the ingredients of the finished concentrate may have been so treated by heat as to reduce substantially the enzymatic activity and the number of viable microorganisms. The finished food is of such concentration that when diluted according to label directions the diluted article will contain not less than 11.8 percent by weight of orange juice soluble solids, exclusive of the solids of any added optional sweetening ingredients. The dilution ratio shall be not less than 3 plus 1. For the purposes of this section and § 146.150, the term “dilution ratio” means the whole number of volumes of water per volume of frozen concentrate required to produce orange juice from concentrate having orange juice soluble solids of not less than 11.8 percent by weight exclusive of the solids of any added optional sweetening ingredients.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional sweetening ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are sugar, sugar sirup, invert sugar, invert sugar sirup, dextrose, corn sirup, dried corn sirup, glucose sirup, and dried glucose sirup.
</P>
<P>(c) If one or more of the sweetening ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section are added to the frozen concentrated orange juice, the label shall bear the statement “______ added”, the blank being filled in with the name or an appropriate combination of names of the sweetening ingredients used. However, for the purpose of this section, the name “sweetener” may be used in lieu of the specific name or names of the sweetening ingredients.
</P>
<P>(d) The name of the food concentrated to a dilution ratio of 3 plus 1 is “frozen concentrated orange juice” or “frozen orange juice concentrate”. The name of the food concentrated to a dilution ratio greater than 3 plus 1 is “frozen concentrated orange juice, ______ plus 1” or “frozen orange juice concentrate, ______ plus 1”, the blank being filled in with the whole number showing the dilution ratio; for example, “frozen orange juice concentrate, 4 plus 1”. However, where the label bears directions for making 1 quart of orange juice from concentrate (or multiples of a quart), the blank in the name may be filled in with a mixed number; for example, “frozen orange juice concentrate, 4
<FR>1/3</FR> plus 1”. For containers larger than 1 pint, the dilution ratio in the name may be replaced by the concentration of orange juice soluble solids in degrees Brix; for example, a 62° Brix concentrate in 3
<FR>1/2</FR>-gallon cans may be named on the label “frozen concentrated orange juice, 62° Brix”.
</P>
<P>(e) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements specified in this section for naming the optional ingredients used shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow the name of the food, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this section is intended to interfere with the adoption and enforcement by any State, in regulating the production of frozen concentrated orange juice in such State, of State standards, consistent with this section, but which impose higher or more restrictive requirements than those set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 57667, Dec. 7, 1992; 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.148" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.148   Reduced acid frozen concentrated orange juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Reduced acid frozen concentrated orange juice is the food that complies with the requirements for composition and label declaration of ingredients prescribed for frozen concentrated orange juice by § 146.146, except that it may not contain any added sweetening ingredient. A process involving the use of anionic ion-exchange resins permitted by § 173.25 of this chapter is used to reduce the acidity of the food so that the ratio of the Brix reading to the grams of acid, expressed as anhydrous citric acid, per 100 grams of juice is not less than 21 to 1 or more than 26 to 1.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “Reduced acid frozen concentrated orange juice”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12414, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.150   Canned concentrated orange juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Canned concentrated orange juice is the food that complies with the requirements of composition, definition of dilution ratio, and labeling of ingredients prescribed for frozen concentrated orange juice by § 146.146, except that it is not frozen and it is sealed in containers and so processed by heat, either before or after sealing, so as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food when concentrated to a dilution ratio of 3 plus 1 is “Canned concentrated orange juice” or “Canned orange juice concentrate”. The name of the food when concentrated to a dilution ratio greater than 3 plus 1 is “Canned concentrated orange juice, ______ plus 1” or “Canned orange juice concentrate, ______ plus 1”, the blank being filled in with the whole number showing the dilution ratio; for example, “Canned orange juice concentrate, 4 plus 1”. However, where the label bears directions for making 1 quart of single-strength diluted product (or multiples of a quart) the blank in the name may be filled in with a mixed number; for example, “Canned orange juice concentrate, 4
<FR>1/3</FR> plus 1”. For containers larger than 1 pint, the dilution ratio in the name may be replaced by the concentration of orange juice soluble solids in degrees Brix; for example, a 62° Brix concentrate in 1-gallon cans may be named on the label “canned concentrated orange juice, 62° Brix”. If the food does not purport to be frozen concentrated orange juice, the word “canned” may be omitted from the name.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.151" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.151   Orange juice for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Orange juice for manufacturing is the food prepared for further manufacturing use. It is prepared from unfermented juice obtained from oranges as provided in § 146.135, except that the oranges may deviate from the standards for maturity in that they are below the minimum for Brix and Brix-acid ratio for such oranges, and to which juice may be added not more than 10 percent by volume of the unfermented juice obtained from oranges of the species <I>Citrus reticulata</I> or <I>Citrus reticulata</I> hybrids (except that this limitation shall not apply to the hybrid species described in § 146.135). Seeds (except embryonic seeds and small fragments of seeds that cannot be separated by good manufacturing practice) are removed, and pulp and orange oil may be adjusted in accordance with good manufacturing practice. If pulp is added it shall be other than washed or spent pulp. The juice or portions thereof may be so treated by heat as to reduce substantially the enzymatic activity and number of viable microorganisms, and it may be chilled or frozen, or it may be so treated by heat, either before or after sealing in containers, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “Orange juice for manufacturing”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 57667, Dec. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.152" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.152   Orange juice with preservative.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Orange juice with preservative is the food prepared for further manufacturing use. It complies with the requirements for composition of orange juice for manufacturing as provided for in § 146.151, except that a preservative is added to inhibit spoilage. It may be heat-treated to reduce substantially the enzymatic activity and the number of viable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) The preservatives referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are any safe and suitable preservatives or combinations thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Orange juice with preservative”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter. In addition, the name of each preservative shall be proceeded by a statement of the percent by weight of the preservative used. If the food is packed in container sizes that are less than 19 liters (5 gallons), the label shall bear a statement indicating that the food is for further manufacturing use only.
</P>
<P>(e) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statement specified in paragraph (d) of this section for naming the preservative ingredient used shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow the name of the food, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 36378, June 22, 1979; 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.153" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.153   Concentrated orange juice for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Concentrated orange juice for manufacturing is the food that complies with the requirements of composition and label declaration of ingredients prescribed for frozen concentrated orange juice by § 146.146, except that it is either not frozen or is less concentrated, or both, and the oranges from which the juice is obtained may deviate from the standards for maturity in that they are below the minimum Brix and Brix-acid ratio for such oranges: <I>Provided,</I> however, that the concentration of orange juice soluble solids is not less than 20° Brix.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “Concentrated orange juice for manufacturing, ______” or “______ orange juice concentrate for manufacturing”, the blank being filled in with the figure showing the concentration of orange juice soluble solids in degrees Brix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2881, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.154" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.154   Concentrated orange juice with preservative.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Concentrated orange juice with preservative complies with the requirements for composition and labeling of optional ingredients prescribed for concentrated orange juice for manufacturing by § 146.153, except that a preservative is added to inhibit spoilage.
</P>
<P>(b) The preservatives referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are any safe and suitable preservatives or combinations thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Concentrated orange juice with preservative, ______”, the blank being filled in with the figure showing the concentration of orange juice soluble solids in degrees Brix.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter. In addition, the name of each preservative shall be preceded by a statement of the percent by weight of the preservative used. If the food is packed in container sizes that are less than 19 liters (5 gallons), the label shall bear a statement indicating that the food is for further manufacturing use only.
</P>
<P>(e) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statement specified in paragraph (d) of this section for naming the preservative ingredient used shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow the name of the food, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14414, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 36378, June 22, 1979; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.185" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.185   Pineapple juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) Pineapple juice is the juice, intended for direct consumption, obtained by mechanical process from the flesh or parts thereof, with or without core material, of sound, ripe pineapple (<I>Ananas comosus</I> L. Merrill). The juice may have been concentrated and later reconstituted with water suitable for the purpose of maintaining essential composition and quality factors of the juice. Pineapple juice may contain finely divided insoluble solids, but it does not contain pieces of shell, seeds, or other coarse or hard substances or excess pulp. It may be sweetened with any safe and suitable dry nutritive carbohydrate sweetener. However, if the pineapple juice is prepared from concentrate, such sweeteners, in liquid form, also may be used. It may contain added vitamin C in a quantity such that the total vitamin C in each 4 fluid ounces of the finished food amounts to not less than 30 milligrams and not more than 60 milligrams. In the processing of pineapple juice, dimethylpolysiloxane complying with the requirements of § 173.340 of this chapter may be employed as a defoaming agent in an amount not greater than 10 parts per million by weight of the finished food. Such food is prepared by heat sterilization, refrigeration, or freezing. When sealed in a container to be held at ambient temperatures, it is so processed by heat, before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the food is “Pineapple juice” if the juice from which it is prepared has not been concentrated and/or diluted with water. The name of the food is “Pineapple juice from concentrate” if the finished juice has been made from pineapple juice concentrate as specified in paragraph (a) of this section. If a nutritive sweetener is added, the label shall bear the statement “Sweetener added.” If no sweetener is added, the word “Unsweetened” may immediately precede or follow the words “Pineapple juice” or “Pineapple juice from concentrate.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for pineapple juice is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The soluble solids content of pineapple juice (exclusive of added sugars) without added water shall not be less than 10.5° Brix as determined by refractometer at 20 °C uncorrected for acidity and read as degrees Brix on International Sucrose Scales. Where the juice has been obtained using concentrated juice with addition of water, the soluble pineapple juice solids content (exclusive of added sugars) shall be not less than 12.8° Brix, uncorrected for acidity and read as degrees Brix on the International Sucrose Scales.
</P>
<P>(ii) The acidity, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, is not more than 1.35 grams of anhydrous citric acid per 100 milliliters of the juice.
</P>
<P>(iii) The ratio of the degrees Brix to total acidity, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, is not less than 12.
</P>
<P>(iv) The quantity of finely divided “insoluble solids”, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section, is not less than 5 percent nor more than 30 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The methods referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the degrees Brix of the pineapple juice by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 31.009, “Solids by Means of Spindle—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine the total acidity of the pineapple juice by titration by the method prescribed in § 145.180(b)(2)(ix) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Divide the degrees Brix determined as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section by the grams of anhydrous citric acid per 100 milliliters of juice, determined as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, and report the results as ratio of degrees Brix to total acidity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Determine the quantity of “insoluble solids” in pineapple juice as follows: Measure 50 milliliters of thoroughly stirred pineapple juice into a cone-shaped graduated tube of the long-cone type, measuring approximately 4
<FR>3/16</FR> inches from tip to top calibration and having a capacity of 50 milliliters. Place the tube in a suitable centrifuge the approximate speed of which is related to diameter of swing in accordance with the table immediately below. The word “diameter” means the over-all distance between the tips of opposing centrifuge tubes in operating position.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Approximate revolutions per minute
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,609
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,534
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,468
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,438
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,410
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,384
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,359
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,336
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,313
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,292
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,271
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,252
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,234
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,216
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,199
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,182
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,167
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,152
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,137</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>The milliliter reading at the top of the layer of “insoluble solids,” after centrifuging 3 minutes, is multiplied by two to obtain the percentage of “insoluble solids.”
</FP>
<P>(3) If the quality of pineapple juice falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14 (a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for pineapple juice, except when the food is frozen, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) If pineapple juice falls below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11831, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 52694, Nov. 23, 1982; 49 FR 10101, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 19524, May 9, 1985; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.187" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.31.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.187   Canned prune juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Canned prune juice is the food prepared from a water extract of dried prunes and contains not less than 18.5 percent by weight of water-soluble solids extracted from dried prunes. The quantity of prune solids may be adjusted by the concentration, dilution, or both, of the water extract or extracts made. Such food may contain one or more of the optional acidifying ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in a quantity sufficient to render the food slightly tart; it may contain honey added within the quantitative limits prescribed by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and it may contain added vitamin C in a quantity prescribed by paragraph (b)(3) of this section. Such food is sealed in a container and so processed by heat, before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) One or any combination of two or more of the following acidifying ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Lemon juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lime juice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Citric acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Honey, in a quantity not less than 2 percent and not more than 3 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin C, in a quantity such that the total vitamin C in each 6 fluid ounces of the finished food amounts to not less than 30 milligrams and not more than 50 milligrams.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The name of the food is “Prune juice—a water extract of dried prunes”. For the purposes of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act concerning the label declaration of the name of the food, the explanatory statement “A water extract of dried prunes” may appear immediately below the words “prune juice”, but there shall be no intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, and the type used for the words “A water extract of dried prunes” shall be of the same style and not less than half the print size of the type used for the words “prune juice”.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) When one or more of the acidifying ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are used, the label shall bear the statement “______ added” or “with added ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the optional ingredients used.
</P>
<P>(ii) When honey, as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, is used the label shall bear the statement “with ______ honey” or “______ honey added”, the blank to be filled in with the percent by weight of the honey in the finished food or with the statement “between 2 and 3%”.
</P>
<P>(iii) When one or more of the ingredients designated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the ingredient designated in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are used, the statements specified in paragraphs (c)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section may be combined, as for example, “with lemon juice and between 2 and 3% honey added”. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When vitamin C is added as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, it shall be designated on the label as “vitamin C added” or “with added vitamin C”.
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words specified in this paragraph, showing the optional ingredients used, shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14433, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 150—FRUIT BUTTERS, JELLIES, PRESERVES, AND RELATED PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14445, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.32.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.32.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Fruit Butters, Jellies, Preserves, and Related Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.32.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.110   Fruit butter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The fruit butters for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are the smooth, semisolid foods each of which is made from a mixture of one or a permitted combination of the optional fruit ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section and one or any combination of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section, which meets the specifications in paragraph (d) of this section, and which is labeled in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. Such mixture is concentrated with or without heat. The volatile flavoring materials or essence from such mixture may be captured during concentration, separately concentrated, and added back to any such mixture, together with any concentrated essence accompanying any optional fruit ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each of the optional fruit ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is prepared by cooking one of the following fresh, frozen, canned, and/or dried (evaporated) mature fruits, with or without added water, and screening out skins, seeds, pits, and cores:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Factor Referred to in Paragraph (d)(2) of This Section
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of fruit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apple</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apricot</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grape</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peach</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pear</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plum (other than prune)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prune</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quince</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The permitted combinations are of two, three, four, and five of the fruit ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; the weight of each is not less than one-fifth of the weight of the combination. Each such fruit ingredient in any such combination is an optional ingredient.
</P>
<P>(c) The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(2) Spice.
</P>
<P>(3) Flavoring (other than artificial flavoring).
</P>
<P>(4) Salt.
</P>
<P>(5) Acidifying agents.
</P>
<P>(6) Fruit juice or diluted fruit juice or concentrated fruit juice, in a quantity not less than one-half the weight of the optional fruit ingredient.
</P>
<P>(7) Preservatives. 
</P>
<P>(8) Antifoaming agents except those derived from animal fats.
</P>
<P>(9) Pectin, in a quantity which reasonably compensates for deficiency, if any, of the natural pectin content of the fruit ingredient.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The mixture referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall contain not less than five parts by weight of the fruit ingredient as measured in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section to each two parts by weight of nutritive carbohydrate sweetener as measured in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any requirement with respect to the weight of any optional fruit ingredient, whether concentrated, unconcentrated, or diluted, means the weight determined by the following method: (i) Determine the percent of soluble solids in the optional fruit ingredient by the method for soluble solids referred to in paragraph (d)(3) of this section; (ii) multiply the percent so found by the weight of such fruit ingredient; (iii) divide the result by 100; (iv) subtract from the quotient the weight of any nutritive sweetener solids or other added solids; and (v) multiply the remainder by the factor for such ingredient prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The result is the weight of the optional fruit ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) The soluble solids content of the finished fruit butter is not less than 43 percent, as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), section 22.024, under “Soluble Solids by Refractometer in Fresh and Canned Fruits, Fruit Jellies, Marmalades, and Preserves—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference, except that no correction is made for water-insoluble solids. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) The weight of any nutritive carbohydrate sweetener means the weight of the solids of such ingredient.
</P>
<P>(5) The weight of fruit juice or diluted fruit juice or concentrated fruit juice (optional ingredient, paragraph (c)(6)) from a fruit specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is the weight of such juice, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, except that the percent of soluble solids is determined by the method prescribed in the AOAC, 13th Ed. (1980), section 31.011, under “Solids by Means of Refractometer—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference; the weight of diluted concentrated juice from any other fruits is the original weight of the juice before it was diluted or concentrated. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) In case the fruit butter is made from a single fruit ingredient, the name is “Butter”, preceded by the name where by such fruit is designated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In case the fruit butter is made from a combination of two, three, four, or five fruit ingredients, the name is “Butter”, preceded by the words “Mixed fruit” or by the names whereby such fruits are designated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in the order of predominance, if any, of the weight of such fruit ingredients in the combination.
</P>
<P>(2) Each of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of part 101 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Other than in the case of dried (evaporated) fruit the name(s) of the fruit or fruits used may be declared without specifying the particular form of the fruit or fruits used. When the optional fruit ingredient is prepared in whole or in part from dried fruit, the label shall bear the words “prepared from” or “prepared in part from”, as the case may be, followed by the word “evaporated” or “dried”, followed by the name whereby such fruit is designated in paragraph (c) of this section. When two or more such optional fruit ingredients are used, such names, each preceded by the word “evaporated” or “dried”, shall appear in the order of predominance, if any, of the weight of such ingredients in the combination.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14445, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11831, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10101, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.32.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.140   Fruit jelly.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The jellies for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are the jelled foods each of which is made from a mixture of one or a permitted combination of the fruit juice ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section and one or any combination of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section, which meets the specifications in paragraph (d) of this section and which is labeled in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. Such mixture is concentrated with or without heat. The volatile flavoring materials or essence from such mixture may be captured during concentration, separately concentrated, and added back to any such mixture, together with any concentrated essence accompanying any optional fruit ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each of the fruit juice ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is the filtered or strained liquid extracted with or without the application of heat and with or without the addition of water, from one of the following mature, properly prepared fruits which are fresh, frozen and/or canned:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Factor Referred to in Paragraph (d)(2) of This Section
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of fruit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apple</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apricot</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blackberry (other than dewberry)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Black raspberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boysenberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cherry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crabapple</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cranberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Damson, damson plum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dewberry (other than boysenberry, loganberry, and youngberry)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fig</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gooseberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grape</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grapefruit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greengage, greengage plum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guava</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loganberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peach</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pineapple</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plum (other than damson, greengage, and prune)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pomegranate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prickly pear</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quince</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raspberry, red raspberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red currant, currant (other than black currant)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strawberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Youngberry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The permitted combinations are of two, three, four, or five of the fruit juice ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the weight of each is not less than one-fifth of the weight of the combination. Each such fruit juice ingredient in any such combination is an optional ingredient.
</P>
<P>(c) The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(2) Spice.
</P>
<P>(3) Acidifying agents.
</P>
<P>(4) Pectin, in a quantity which reasonably compensates for deficiency, if any, of the natural pectin content of the fruit juice ingredient.
</P>
<P>(5) Buffering agents.
</P>
<P>(6) Preservatives.
</P>
<P>(7) Antifoaming agents except those derived from animal fats.
</P>
<P>(8) Mint flavoring and artificial green coloring, in case the fruit juice ingredient or combination of fruit juice ingredients is extracted from apple, crabapple, pineapple, or two or all of such fruits.
</P>
<P>(9) Cinnamon flavoring, other than artificial flavoring, and artificial red coloring in case the fruit juice ingredient or combination of fruit juice ingredients is extracted from apple or crabapple or both such fruits.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The mixture referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall contain not less than 45 parts by weight of the fruit juice ingredients as measured in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section to each 55 parts by weight of saccharine ingredient as measured in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any requirement with respect to the weight of any fruit juice ingredient, whether prepared from concentrated, unconcentrated, or diluted fruit juice means the weight determined by the following method: (i) Determine the percent of soluble solids in such fruit juice ingredient by the method for soluble solids referred to in paragraph (d)(3) of this section; (ii) multiply the percent so found by the weight of such fruit juice ingredient; (iii) divide the result by 100; (iv) subtract from the quotient the weight of any added saccharine ingredient solids or other added solids; and (v) multiply the remainder by the factor for such fruit juice ingredient prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section. The result is the weight of the fruit juice ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) The soluble-solids content of the finished jelly is not less than 65 percent, as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 31.011, under “Solids by Means of Refractometer—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) The weight of any optional saccharine ingredient means the weight of the solids of such ingredient.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The name of each jelly for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In case the jelly is made with a single fruit juice ingredient, the name is “Jelly”, preceded or followed by the name or synonym whereby the fruit from which such fruit juice ingredient was extracted is designated in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In case the jelly is made with a combination of two, three, four, or five fruit juice ingredients, the name is “Jelly”, preceded or followed by the words “Mixed fruit” or by the names or synonyms whereby the fruits from which the fruit juice ingredients were extracted are designated in paragraph (b) of this section, in the order of predominance, if any, of the weights of any such fruit juice ingredients in the combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) The name(s) of the fruit or fruits used may be declared without specifying the particular form of the fruit or fruits used.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the optional ingredients listed in paragraphs (c) (3), (4), and (5) of this section are declared on the label, the declaration may be followed by the statement “Used as needed” on all jellies to which they are customarily, but not always, added to compensate for natural variations in the fruit juice ingredients used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14445, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11831, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10101, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.32.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.160   Fruit preserves and jams.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The preserves or jams for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are the viscous or semi-solid foods, each of which is made from a mixture composed of one or a permitted combination of the fruit ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section and one or any combination of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section which meets the specifications in paragraph (d) of this section, and which is labeled in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. Such mixture, with or without added water, is concentrated with or without heat. The volatile flavoring material from such mixture may be captured during concentration, separately concentrated, and added back to any such mixture, together with any concentrated essence accompanying any optional fruit ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The fruit ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are the following mature, properly prepared fruits which are fresh, concentrated, frozen and/or canned:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Group I
</HD1>
<P>Blackberry (other than dewberry), Black raspberry, Blueberry, Boysenberry, Cherry, Crabapple, Dewberry (other than boysenberry, loganberry, and youngberry) Elderberry, Grape, Grapefruit, Huckleberry, Loganberry, Orange, Pineapple, Raspberry, red raspberry, Rhubarb, Strawberry, Tangerine, Tomato, Yellow tomato, Youngberry</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Group II
</HD1>
<P>Apricot, Cranberry, Damson, damson plum, Fig, Gooseberry, Greengage, greengage plum, Guava, Nectarine, Peach, Pear, Plum (other than greengage plum and damson plum), Quince, Red currant, currant (other than black currant)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The following combinations of fruit ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Any combination of two, three, four, or five of such fruits in which the weight of each is not less than one-fifth of the weight of the combination; except that the weight of pineapple may be not less than one-tenth of the weight of the combination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any combination of apple and one, two, three, or four of such fruits in which the weight of each is not less than one-fifth and the weight of apple is not more than one-half of the weight of the combination; except that the weight of pineapple may be not less than one-tenth of the weight of the combination.
</P>
<FP>In any combination of two, three, four, or five fruits, each such fruit is an optional ingredient. For the purposes of this section the word “fruit” includes the vegetables specified in this paragraph.
</FP>
<P>(c) The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(2) Spice.
</P>
<P>(3) Acidifying agents.
</P>
<P>(4) Pectin, in a quantity which reasonably compensates for deficiency, if any, of the natural pectin content of the fruit ingredient.
</P>
<P>(5) Buffering agents. 
</P>
<P>(6) Preservatives.
</P>
<P>(7) Antifoaming agents, except those derived from animal fat.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The mixture referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall be composed of not less than: (i) In the case of a fruit ingredient consisting of a Group I fruit or a permitted combination exclusively of Group I fruits, 47 parts by weight of the fruit ingredient to each 55 parts by weight of the saccharine ingredient; and (ii) in all other cases, 45 parts by weight of the fruit ingredient to each 55 parts by weight of the saccharine ingredient. The weight of the fruit ingredient shall be determined in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and the weight of the saccharine ingredient shall be determined in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any requirement with respect to the weight of any fruit, combination of fruits, or fruit ingredient means:
</P>
<P>(i) The weight of fruit exclusive of the weight of any sugar, water, or other substance added for any processing or packing or canning, or otherwise added to such fruit.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of fruit prepared by the removal, in whole or in part, of pits, seeds, skins, cores, or other parts; the weight of such fruit, exclusive of the weight of all such substances removed therefrom.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the cases of apricots, cherries, grapes, nectarines, peaches, and all varieties of plums, whether or not pits and seeds are removed therefrom; the weight of such fruit, exclusive of the weight of such pits and seeds.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of concentrated fruit, the weight of the properly prepared fresh fruit used to produce such concentrated fruit.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>concentrated fruit</I> means a concentrate made from the properly prepared edible portion of mature fresh or frozen fruits by removal of moisture with or without the use of heat or vacuum, but not to the point of drying. Such concentrate is canned or frozen without the addition of sugar or other sweetening agents and is identified to show or permit the calculation of the weight of the properly prepared fresh fruit used to produce any given quantity of such concentrate. The volatile flavoring material or essence from such fruits may be captured during concentration and separately concentrated for subsequent addition to the concentrated fruit either directly or during manufacture of the preserve or jam, in the original proportions present in the fruit.
</P>
<P>(4) The weight of any optional saccharine ingredient means the weight of the solids of such ingredient.
</P>
<P>(5) The soluble-solids content of the finished jam or preserve is not less than 65 percent, as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 22.024, under “Soluble Solids by Refractometer in Fresh and Canned Fruits, Jellies, Marmalades, and Preserves—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference, except that no correction is made for water-insoluble solids. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The name of each preserve or jam for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the fruit ingredient is a single fruit, the name is “Preserve” or “Jam”, preceded or followed by the name or synonym whereby such fruit is designated in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the fruit ingredient is a combination of two, three, four, or five fruits, the name is “Preserve” or “Jam”, preceded or followed by the words “Mixed fruit” or by the names or synonyms whereby such fruits are designated in paragraph (b) of this section, in the order of predominance, if any, of the weights of such fruits in the combination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name(s) of the fruit or fruits used may be declared without specifying the particular form of the fruit or fruits used.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the optional ingredients listed in paragraphs (c) (3), (4), and (5) of this section are declared on the label, the declaration may be followed by the statement “used as needed” on all preserves or jams to which they are customarily, but not always, added to compensate for natural variations in the fruit ingredients used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14445, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11831, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10101, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 155—CANNED VEGETABLES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14449, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The procedure for determining drained weight is set forth in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 32.001-32.003, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance</I> means the following: Unless otherwise provided in a standard, a lot of canned vegetables shall be deemed in compliance for the following factors, to be determined by the sampling and acceptance procedure as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, namely:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quality.</I> The quality of a lot shall be considered acceptable when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number (c) in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fill of container.</I> A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for fill of container (packing medium and vegetable ingredient) when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number (c) in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Drained weight.</I> A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for drained weight based on the average value of all samples analyzed according to the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>sampling and acceptance procedure</I> means the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions</I>—(i) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Sample size.</I> The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for the examination or testing as a single unit. For fill of container, the sample unit shall be the entire contents of the container.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Defective.</I> Any sample unit shall be regarded as defective when the sample unit does not meet the criteria set forth in the standards.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Acceptance number (c).</I> The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Acceptable quality level (AQL).</I> The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling plans.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size of container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E> 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001 to 72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001 to 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601 to 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,001 to 7,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,201 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">n</E> = number of primary containers in sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">c</E> = acceptance number.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Strength and redness of color</I> means at least as much red as is obtained by comparison of the prepared product, with the blended color produced by spinning a combination of the following concentric Munsell color discs of equal diameter, or the color equivalent of such discs:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Disc 1—Red (5R 2.6/13) (glossy finish)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disc 2—Yellow (2.5 YR 5/12) (glossy finish)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disc 3—Black (N1) (glossy finish)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disc 4—Grey (N4) (mat finish)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Such comparison is to be made in full diffused daylight or under a diffused light source of approximately 2691 lux (250 footcandles) and having a spectral quality approximating that of daylight under a moderately overcast sky, with a correlated color temperature of 7,500 degrees Kelvin ±200 degrees. With the light source directly over the disc and product, observation is made at an angle of 45 degrees from a distance of about 24 inches from the product. Electronic color meters may be used as an alternate means of determining the color of tomato concentrates. Such meters shall be calibrated to indicate that the color of the product is as red or more red than that produced by spinning the Munsell color discs in the combination as set out above.
</FP>
<P>(e) <I>Tomato soluble solids</I> means the sucrose value as determined by the method prescribed in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed., 1980, sections 32.014 to 32.016 and 52.012, under the headings “Soluble Solids in Tomato Products Official Final Action” and “Refractive Indices (n) of Sucrose Solutions at 20°,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> If no salt has been added, the sucrose value obtained from the referenced tables shall be considered the percent of tomato soluble solids. If salt has been added either intentionally or through the application of the acidified break, determine the percent of such added sodium chloride as specified in paragraph (f) of this section. Subtract the percentage so found from the percentage of total soluble solids found (sucrose value from the refractive index tables) and multiply the difference by 1.016. The resultant value is considered the percent of “tomato soluble solids.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Salt</I> means sodium chloride, determined as chloride and calculated as percent sodium chloride, by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed., 1980, sections 32.025 to 32.030, under the heading “Method III (Potentiometric Method),” which is incorporated by reference.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 43398, June 27, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 11831, Mar. 19, 1982; 48 FR 3954, Jan. 28, 1983; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Canned Vegetables</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.120   Canned green beans and canned wax beans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Canned green beans and canned wax beans are the foods prepared from succulent pods of fresh green bean or wax bean plants conforming to the characteristics of <I>Phaseolus vulgaris</I> L. <I>and Phaseolus coccineus</I> L. The optional color and varietal types and styles of the bean ingredient are set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The product is packed with water or other suitable aqueous liquid medium to which may be added one or more of the other optional ingredients set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food is so processed by heat, in an appropriate manner before or after being sealed in a container, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional color and varietal types and styles of pack.</I> The optional color and varietal types and styles of the bean ingredient referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Optional color types.</I> The beans shall be one of the following distinct color types: (<I>a</I>) Green; or (<I>b</I>) Wax.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Optional varietal types</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Round.</I> Beans having a width not greater than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the thickness of the bean; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Flat.</I> Beans having a width greater than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the thickness of the bean.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Optional styles of pack</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Whole.</I> Whole pods of any length.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Shoestring or sliced lengthwise or French style.</I> Pods sliced lengthwise.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Cuts.</I> Transversely cut pods not less than 19 mm (0.75 in) long as measured along the longitudinal axis, which may contain the shorter end pieces that result from cutting such pods.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Short cuts.</I> Pieces of pods cut transversely of which 75 percent, by count, or more are less than 19 mm (0.75 in) in length and not more than 1 percent by count are more than 32 mm (1
<FR>1/4</FR> in) in length.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Diagonal cuts.</I> Pods cut in lengths as specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, except the pods are cut at an angle approximately 45° to the longitudinal axis.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Diagonal short cuts.</I> Pods cut in lengths as specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(<I>d</I>) of this section, except the pods are cut at an angle approximately 45° to the longitudinal axis.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Mixture.</I> Any mixture of two or more of the styles specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(<I>a</I>) to (<I>f</I>), inclusive, of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> In addition to the optional packing media listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the optional types and styles of beans ingredient listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disodium inosinate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Disodium guanylate.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrolyzed vegetable protein.
</P>
<P>(vi) Autolyzed yeast extract.
</P>
<P>(vii) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(viii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(ix) Flavoring (except artificial).
</P>
<P>(x) Pieces of green or red peppers or mixtures of both, either of which may be dried, or other vegetables not exceeding in total 15 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(xi) Vinegar.
</P>
<P>(xii) Lemon juice or concentrated lemon juice.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Glucono delta-lactone.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Mint leaves.
</P>
<P>(xv) Butter or margarine in a quantity of not less than 3 percent by weight of the finished product. When butter or margarine is added, emulsifiers or stabilizers, or both, may be added. No spice or flavoring simulating the color or flavor imparted by butter or margarine is used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is “green beans” or “wax beans” as appropriate. Wax beans may be additionally designated “golden” or “yellow”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following shall be included as part of the name or in conjunction with the name of the food:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A declaration of any spice, seasoning, or garnishing that characterizes the product, e.g., “with added spice”, or, in lieu of the word “spice”, the common name of the spice, e.g., “seasoned with green peppers”.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The words “vacuum pack” or “vacuum packed” when the weight of the liquid in the container, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section is not more than 25 percent of the net weight, and the container is closed under conditions creating a high vacuum in the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The name of the optional style of bean ingredient as set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section or, if a product consists of a mixture of such styles, the words “mixture of   ” the blank to be filled in with the names of the styles present, arranged in the order of decreasing predominance, if any, by weight of such ingredients. If the product consists of whole beans and the pods are packed parallel to the sides of the container, the word “whole” may be preceded or followed by the words “vertical pack”, or if the pods are cut at both ends and are of substantially equal lengths, the words “asparagus style” may be used in lieu of the words “vertical pack”. If the product consists of short cuts or diagonal short cuts, a numerical expression indicating the predominate length of cut in the finished food may be used in lieu of the word “short”, e.g., “
<FR>1/2</FR> inch cut”.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following may be included in the name of the food:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The word “stringless” where the beans are in fact stringless.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The name of the optional varietal type as specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, or the specific varietal name, e.g., “Blue Lake Green Beans”, or both.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a term designating diameter is used, it shall be supported by an exact graphic representation of the cross section of the bean pod or by a statement of the maximum diameter in common or decimal fractions of an inch and, optionally, by the millimeter equivalent stated parenthetically. The diameter of a whole, cut, diagonal cut, or short cut is determined by measuring the thickest portion of the pod at the shorter diameter of the bean perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) When tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of cut beans and diagonal cut beans under paragraphs (a)(2)(iii) (<I>c</I>) and (<I>d</I>) of this section and mixtures of two or more optional forms under paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(<I>g</I>) of this section, not more than 60 units per 340 g (12 oz) drained weight are less than 13 mm (0.50 in) long: <I>Provided,</I> That where the number of units per 340 g (12 oz) drained weight exceeds 240, not more than 25 percent by count of the total units are less than 13 mm (0.50 in) long.
</P>
<P>(ii) In case there are present pods or pieces of pods 10.7 mm (
<FR>27/64</FR>-inch) or more in diameter, there are not more than 12 strings per 340 gm (12 ounces) of drained weight which will support 227 gm (one-half pound) for 5 seconds or longer.
</P>
<P>(iii) The deseeded pods contain not more than 0.15 percent by weight of fibrous material.
</P>
<P>(iv) There are not more than 10 percent by weight of blemished units of which amount not more than one-half may be materially damaged by insect or pathological injury. A unit is considered blemished when the aggregate blemished area exceeds the area of a circle 3 mm (
<FR>1/8</FR> in) in diameter. Materially damaged means that the unit is damaged to the extent that the appearance or eating quality of the unit is seriously affected.
</P>
<P>(v) There are not more than 8 unstemmed units per 340 g (12 oz) drained weight.
</P>
<P>(vi) The combined number of leaves, detached stems, and other extraneous vegetable matter shall not average more than 3 pieces per 340 g (12 oz) drained beans.
</P>
<P>(2) Canned beans shall be tested by the following method to determine whether they meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the gross weight of the container. Open and distribute the contents of the container over the meshes of a U.S. No. 8 circular sieve with openings of 2.36 mm (0.0937 in), which has been previously weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 20.3 cm (8 in) if the quantity of contents of the container is less than 1.36 kg (3 lb) and 30.5 cm (12 in) if such quantity is 1.36 kg (3 lb) or more. The bottom of the sieve is woven-wire cloth that complies with the specifications of such cloth set forth in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 15th ed. (1990), vol. 2, p. xii, Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (USA Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Without shifting the material on the sieve, incline the sieve 17 to 20° to facilitate drainage. Two minutes after drainage begins, weigh the sieve and the drained material. Record in grams (ounces) the weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, as the drained weight. Dry and weigh the empty container and subtract this weight from the gross weight to obtain the net weight. Calculate the percent of drained liquid in the net weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pour the drained material from the sieve into a flat tray and spread it in a layer of fairly uniform thickness. Count the total number of units. For the purpose of this count, loose seeds, pieces of seed, loose stems, and extraneous material are not to be included. Divide the number of units by the drained weight recorded in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section and multiply by 340 to obtain the number of units per 340 g (12 oz) drained weight.
</P>
<P>(iii) Examine the drained material in the tray, weigh and record weight of blemished units, count and record the number of unstemmed units; and, in case the material consists of the optional ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) (<I>c</I>), (<I>d</I>) or (<I>f</I>) of this section, count and record the number of units which are less than 13 mm (0.50 in.) long. If the number of units per 340 g (12 oz.) is 240 or less, divide the number of units which are less than 13 mm (0.50 in.) by the drained weight recorded in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section and multiply by 340 to obtain the number of such units per 340 g (12 oz.) drained weight. If the number of units per 340 g (12 oz.) exceeds 240, divide the number of units less than 13 mm (0.50 in.) long by the total number of units and multiply by 100 to determine the percentage by count of the total units which are less than 13 mm (0.50 in.) long.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Divide the weight of blemished units by the drained weight recorded in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section and multiply by 100 to obtain the percentage by weight of blemished units in the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Divide the number of unstemmed units by the drained weight recorded in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section and multiply by 340 to obtain the number of unstemmed units per 340 g (12 oz.) of drained weight.
</P>
<P>(iv) Remove from the tray the extraneous vegetable material, count, record count, and return to tray.
</P>
<P>(v) Remove from the tray one or more representative samples of 99 to 113 g (3
<FR>1/2</FR> to 4 ounces) covering each sample as taken to prevent evaporation.
</P>
<P>(vi) From each representative sample selected in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, discard any loose seed and extraneous vegetable material and detach and discard any attached stems. Except with optional style of ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(<I>b</I>) of this section (pods sliced lengthwise), trim off, as far as the end of the space formerly occupied by the seed, any portion of pods from which the seed has become separated. Remove and discard any portions of seed from the trimmings and reserve the trimmings for paragraph (b)(2)(viii) of this section. Weigh and record the weight of the trimmed pods. Deseed the trimmed pods and reserve the deseeded pods for paragraph (b)(2)(viii) of this section. Remove strings from the pods during the deseeding operation. Reserve these strings for testing as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section. In the case of pods sliced lengthwise, remove seed and pieces of seed and reserve the deseeded pods for use as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) If strings have been removed for testing, as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section, test them as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Fasten clamp, weighted to 250 g (8.8 oz.), to one end of the string, grasp the other end with the fingers (a cloth may be used to aid in holding the string), and lift gently. Count the string as tough if it supports the 250 g (8.8 oz.) weight for at least 5 seconds. If the string breaks before 5 seconds, test such parts into which it breaks as are 13 mm (
<FR>1/2</FR> in.) or more in length; and if any such part of the string supports the 250 g (8.8 oz.) weight for at least 5 seconds, count the string as tough. Divide the number of tough strings by the weight of the sample recorded in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section and multiply by 340 to obtain the number of tough strings per 340 g (12 oz.) drained weight.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(viii) Combine the deseeded pods with the trimmings reserved in paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section, and, if strings were tested as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section, add such strings broken or unbroken. Weigh and record weight of combined material. Transfer to the metal cup of a malted-milk stirrer and mash with a pestle. Wash material adhering to the pestle back into cup with 200 cc of boiling water. Bring mixture nearly to a boil, add 25 cc of 50 percent (by weight) sodium hydroxide solution and bring to a boil. (If foaming is excessive, 1 cc of capryl alcohol may be added.) Boil for 5 minutes, then stir for 5 minutes with a malted-milk stirrer capable of a no-load speed of at least 7,200 rpm. Use a rotor with two scalloped buttons shaped as shown in exhibit 1 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.377.gif"/>
<FP>Transfer the material from the cup to a previously weighed 30-mesh monel metal screen having a diameter of about 9-10 cm (3
<FR>1/2</FR> to 4 in.) and side walls about 2.5 cm (1 in.) high, and wash fiber on the screen with a stream of water using a pressure not exceeding a head (vertical distance between upper level of water and outlet of glass tube) of 152 cm (60 in.), delivered through a glass tube 7.6 cm (3 in.) long and 3 mm (
<FR>1/8</FR> in.) inside diameter inserted into a rubber tube of 6 mm (
<FR>1/4</FR> in.) inside diameter. Wash the pulpy portion of the material through the screen and continue washing until the remaining fibrous material, moistened with phenolphthalein solution, does not show any red color after standing 5 minutes. Again wash to remove phenolphthalein. Dry the screen containing the fibrous material for 2 hours at 100 °C, cool, weigh, and deduct weight of screen. Divide the weight of fibrous material by the weight of combined deseeded pods, trimmings, and strings and multiply by 100 to obtain the percentage of fibrous material.
</FP>
<P>(ix) If the drained weight recorded in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section was less than 340 g (12 oz.), open and examine separately for extraneous material, as directed in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section, additional containers until a total of not less than 340 g (12 oz.) of drained material is obtained. To determine the number of pieces of extraneous vegetable material per 340 g (12 oz.) of drained weight, total the number of pieces of extraneous vegetable material found in all containers opened, divide this sum by the sum of the drained weights in these containers and multiply by 340.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b) except that a lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for extraneous plant material based on an average of all containers examined.
</P>
<P>(4) If the quality of the canned green beans or canned wax beans falls below the standard of quality prescribed by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; but in lieu of the words prescribed for the second line inside the rectangle the following words may be used, when the quality of canned green beans or canned wax beans falls below the standard in one only of the following respects:
</P>
<P>(i) “Excessive number very short pieces”, if the canned green beans or canned wax beans fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Excessive number blemished units”, if they fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Excessive number unstemmed units”, if they fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) “Excessive foreign material”, if they fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14449, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 30359, 30360, June 14, 1977; 45 FR 43398, June 27, 1980; 47 FR 11831, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10101, Mar. 19, 1984; 57 FR 34245, Aug. 4, 1992; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.130   Canned corn.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Canned sweet corn is the product prepared from clean, sound kernels of sweet corn packed with a suitable liquid packing medium which may include water and the creamy component from corn kernels. The tip caps are removed. The product is of the optional styles specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. It may contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the optional ingredients set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Such food is processed by heat, in an appropriate manner, before or after being sealed in a container, so as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Styles.</I> The optional styles referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section consist of succulent sweet corn of the yellow (golden) or white color type, conforming to <I>Zea mays</I> L. having the sweet corn characteristic as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Whole kernel or whole grain or cut kernel consisting of whole or substantially whole cut kernels packed with a liquid medium.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cream style consisting of whole or partially whole cut kernels packed in a creamy component from the corn kernels and other liquid or other ingredients to form a product of creamy consistency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disodium inosinate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Disodium guanylate.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrolyzed vegetable protein.
</P>
<P>(vi) Autolyzed yeast extract.
</P>
<P>(vii) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(viii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(ix) Flavoring (except artificial).
</P>
<P>(x) Citric acid.
</P>
<P>(xi) Starch or food starch-modified in cream style corn when necessary to ensure smoothness.
</P>
<P>(xii) Seasonings and garnishes.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Mint leaves.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Pieces of green peppers or red peppers, or mixtures of both, either of which may be sweet or hot and may be dried, or other vegetables, not exceeding 15 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Lemon juice or concentrated lemon juice.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Butter or margarine in a quantity not less than 3 percent by weight of the finished food. When butter or margarine is added, emulsifiers or stabilizers, or both, may be added. When butter or margarine is added, no spice, or flavoring simulating the color or flavor imparted by butter or margarine is used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling.</I> The name of the food is “corn” or “sweet corn” or “sugar corn” and shall include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice, seasoning or garnishing that characterizes the product; for example, “With added spice”, “Seasoned with red peppers”, “Seasoned with butter”. The name of the food shall also include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The optional style of the corn ingredient as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The words “vacuum pack” or “vacuum packed” when the corn ingredient is as specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the weight of the liquid in the container, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, is not more than 20 percent of the net weight, and the container is closed under conditions creating a high vacuum in the container.
</P>
<P>(iii) The color type used only when the product consists of white corn.
</P>
<P>(iv) The color type used only when the product consists of white corn. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned corn is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, canned whole-kernel corn (paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section):
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Contains not more than seven brown or black discolored kernels or pieces of kernel per 400 g. (14 ounces) of drained weight;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Contains not more than 1 cubic centimeter of pieces of cob for each 400 g. (14 ounces) of drained weight;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Contains not more than 7 square centimeters (1.1 square inch) of husk per 400 g. (14 ounces) of drained weight; and
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Contains not more than 180 mm. (7 inches) of silk per 28 g. (1 ounce) of drained weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) When tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, canned cream style corn (paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section):
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Contains not more than 10 brown or black discolored kernels or pieces of kernel per 600 g. (21.4 ounces) of net weight;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Contains not more than 1 cubic centimeter of pieces of cob per 600 g. (21.4 ounces) of net weight;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Contains not more than 7 square centimeters (1.1 square inch) of husk per 600 g. (21.4 ounces) of net weight;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Contains not more than 150 mm. (6 inches) of silk for each 28 g. (1 ounce) of net weight; and
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Has a consistency such that the average diameter of the approximately circular area over which the prescribed sample spreads does not exceed 30.5 cm. (12 inches), except that when the washed drained material contains more than 20 percent of alcohol-insoluble solids, the average diameter of the approximately circular area over which the prescribed sample spreads does not exceed 25.4 cm. (10 inches).
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) The weight of the alcohol-insoluble solids of whole-kernel corn (paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) does not exceed 27 percent of the drained weight, when tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The weight of the alcohol-insoluble solids of the washed drained material of cream style corn (paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section) does not exceed 27 percent of the drained weight of such material, when tested by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The method referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for testing whole-kernel corn (paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the gross weight of the container. Open and distribute the contents of the container over the meshes of a U.S. No. 8 circular sieve which has previously been weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 20.3 cm. (8 inches) if the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 1.36 kg. (3 pounds), and 30.5 cm. (12 inches) if such quantity is 1.36 kg. (3 pounds) or more. The bottom of the sieve is woven-wire cloth that complies with the specifications for such sieve set forth in the “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes” prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Without shifting the material on the sieve, so incline the sieve at approximately 17-20° angle to facilitate drainage. Two minutes from the time drainage begins, weigh the sieve and the drained material. Record, in g. (ounces), the weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, as the drained weight. Dry and weigh the empty container and subtract this weight from the gross weight to obtain the net weight. Calculate the percent of drained liquid in the net weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pour the drained material from the sieve into a flat tray and spread it in a layer of fairly uniform thickness. Count, but do not remove, the brown or black discolored kernels or pieces of kernel and calculate the number per 400 g. (14 ounces) of drained material. Remove pieces of silk more than 12.7 mm. (one-half inch) long, husk, cob, and any pieces of material other than corn. Measure the aggregate length of such pieces of silk and calculate the length of silk per 28 g. (1 ounce) of drained weight. Spread the husk flat, measure its aggregate area, and calculate the area of husk per 400 g. (14 ounces) of drained weight. Place all pieces of cob under a measured amount of water in a cylinder which is so graduated that the volume can be measured to 0.1 cubic centimeter. Take the increase in volume as the aggregate volume of the cob and calculate the volume of cob per 400 g. (14 ounces) of drained weight.
</P>
<P>(iii) Comminute representative 100 g. sample of the drained corn from which the silk, husk, cob, and other material which is not corn (i.e., peppers) have been removed. An equal amount of water is used to facilitate this operation. Weigh to nearest 0.01 g. a portion of the comminuted material equivalent to approximately 10 g. of the drained corn into a 600 cubic centimeter beaker. Add 300 cubic centimeters of 80 percent alcohol (by volume), stir, cover beaker, and bring to a boil. Simmer slowly for 30 minutes. Fit a Buchner funnel with a previously prepared filter paper of such sizes that its edges extend 12.7 mm. (one-half inch) or more up the vertical sides of the funnel. The previous preparation of the filter paper consists of drying it in a flat-bottomed dish for 2 hours at 100 °C, covering the dish with a tight fitting cover, cooling it in a desiccator, and promptly weighing to the nearest 0.001 g. After the filter paper is fitted to the funnel, apply suction and transfer the contents of the beaker to the funnel. Do not allow any of the material to run over the edge of the paper. Wash the material on the filter with 80 percent alcohol (by volume) until the washings are clear and colorless. Transfer the filter paper with the material retained thereon to the dish used in preparing the filter paper. Dry the material in a ventilated oven, without covering the dish, for 2 hours at 100 °C. Place the cover on the dish, cool it in a desiccator, and promptly weigh to the nearest 0.001 g. From this weight subtract the weight of the dish, cover, and paper as previously found. Calculate the remainder to percentage.
</P>
<P>(3) The method referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for testing cream-style corn (paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section) is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow the container to stand at least 24 hours at a temperature of 68 °F to 85 °F. Determine the gross weight, open, transfer the contents into a pan, and mix thoroughly in such a manner as not to incorporate air bubbles. (If the net contents of a single container is less than 510 g. (18 ounces) determine the gross weight, open, and mix the contents of the least number of containers necessary to obtain 510 g. (18 ounces). Fill level full a hollow, truncated cone so placed on a polished horizontal plate as to prevent leakage. The cone has an inside bottom diameter of 7.62 cm. (3 inches), inside top diameter of 5.08 cm. (2 inches), and height of 12.30 cm. (4
<FR>27/32</FR> inches). As soon as the cone is filled, lift it vertically. Determine the average of the longest and shortest diameters of the approximately circular area on the plate covered by the sample 30 seconds after lifting the cone. Dry and weigh each empty container and subtract the weight so found from the gross weight to obtain the net weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transfer the material from the plate, cone, and pan onto a U.S. No. 8 sieve as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. The diameter of the sieve is 20.3 cm. (8 inches) if the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 1.36 kg. (3 pounds), and 30.5 cm. (12 inches) if such quantity is 1.36 kg. (3 pounds) or more. Set the sieve in a pan. Add enough water to bring the level within 9.53 mm. (three-eighth inch) to 6.35 mm. (one-fourth inch) of the top of the sieve. Gently wash the material on the sieve by combined up-and-down and circular motion for 30 seconds. Repeat washing with a second portion of water. Remove sieve from pan, incline to facilitate drainage, and drain for 2 minutes.
</P>
<P>(iii) From the material remaining on the U.S. No. 8 sieve, count, but do not remove, the brown or black discolored kernels or pieces of kernel and calculate the number per 600 g. (21.4 ounces) of net weight. Remove pieces of silk more than 12.7 mm. (one-half inch) long, husk, cob, and other material which is not corn (i.e., peppers). Measure aggregate length of such pieces of silk and calculate the length per 28 g. (ounce) of net weight. Spread the husk flat and measure its aggregate area and calculate the area per 600 g. (21.4 ounces) of net weight. Place all pieces of cob under a measured amount of water in a cylinder which is so graduated that the volume may be measured to 0.1 cubic centimeter. Take the increase in volume as the aggregate volume of the cob and calculate the volume of cob per 600 g. (21.4 ounces) of net weight. Take a representative 100 g. sample of the material remaining on the U.S. No. 8 sieve (if such material weighs less than 100 g. take all of it) and determine the alcohol-insoluble solids as prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section for whole kernel corn.
</P>
<P>(4) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(5) If the quality of canned corn falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; however, if the quality of the canned corn falls below standard with respect to only one of the factors of quality specified by paragraphs (b)(1)(i) (<I>a</I>) to (<I>d</I>) of this section, or by paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) (<I>a</I>) to (<I>e</I>) of this section, there may be substituted for the second line of such general statement of substandard quality, “Good food—not high grade”, a new line as specified after the corresponding subdivision designation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, which the canned corn fails to meet:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>(i)(<I>a</I>) or (ii)(<I>a</I>) “Excessive discolored kernels”.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(i)(<I>b</I>) or (ii)(<I>b</I>) “Excessive cob”.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(i)(<I>c</I>) or (ii)(<I>c</I>) “Excessive husk”.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(i)(<I>d</I>) or (ii)(<I>d</I>) “Excessive silk”.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ii)(<I>e</I>) “Excessively liquid”.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned corn is:
</P>
<P>(i) Except in the case of vacuum pack corn the fill of the corn ingredient and packing medium, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) In whole kernel corn, the drained weight of the corn ingredient, determined by the procedure set forth in § 155.3, shall not be less than 61 percent of the water capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If canned corn falls below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14449, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 43398, June 27, 1980; 47 FR 11831, 11832, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10101, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.170   Canned peas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Canned peas is the food prepared from fresh or frozen succulent seeds of the pea plant of the species <I>Pisum sativum</I> L. but excluding the subspecies <I>macrocarpum.</I> Only sweet wrinkled varieties, smooth-skin varieties, or hybrids thereof may be used. The product is packed with water or other suitable aqueous liquid medium to which may be added one or more of the other optional ingredients set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Such food is sealed in a container and, before or after sealing, is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> In addition to the optional packing media provided for in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disodium inosinate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Disodium guanylate.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrolyzed vegetable protein.
</P>
<P>(vi) Autolyzed yeast extract.
</P>
<P>(vii) One or any combination of two or more of the dry or liquid forms of sugar, invert sugar sirup, dextrose, glucose sirup, and fructose.
</P>
<P>(viii) Spice.
</P>
<P>(ix) Flavoring (except artificial).
</P>
<P>(x) Color additives.
</P>
<P>(xi) Calcium salts, the total amount of which added to firm the peas shall not result in more than 350 milligrams/kilogram (0.01 ounce/2.2 pounds) of calcium in the finished food.
</P>
<P>(xii) Magnesium hydroxide, magnesium oxide, magnesium carbonate, or any mixture or combination of these in such quantity that the pH of the finished canned peas is not more than 8, as determined by the glass electrode method for the hydrogen ion concentration.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Seasonings and garnishes:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Pieces of green or red peppers or mixtures of both, either of which may be dried, or other vegetables not exceeding in total 15 percent of the drained weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Lemon juice or concentrated lemon juice.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Mint leaves.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Butter or margarine in a quantity not less than 3 percent by weight of the finished food, or other vegetable or animal fats or oils in a quantity not less than 2.4 percent by weight of the finished foods. When butter, margarine, or other vegetable or animal fats or oils are added, emulsifiers or stabilizers or both may be added, but no color, spice, or flavoring simulating the color or flavor imparted by butter or margarine may be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is “peas” and may include the designation “green.” The term “early,” “June,” or “early June” shall precede or follow the name in the case of smooth-skin peas or substantially smooth-skin peas, such as Alaska-type peas or hybrids having similar characteristics. Where the peas are of sweet green wrinkled varieties or hybrids having similar characteristics, the name may include the designation “sweet,” “wrinkled,” or any combination thereof. The term “petit pois” may be used in conjunction with the name of the food when an average of 80 percent or more of the peas will pass through a circular opening of a diameter of 7.1 millimeters (0.28 inch). If any color additive has been added, the name of the food shall include the term “artificially colored.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The following shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the food, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A declaration of any spice, seasoning, or garnishing that characterizes the product, e.g., “seasoned with green peppers”, “seasoned with butter”, “seasoned with ______ oil”, the blank to be filled in with the common or usual name of the oil, “with added spice”, or, in lieu of the word spice, the common or usual name of the spice.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The words “vacuum pack” or “vacuum packed” when the weight of the liquid in the container, as determined by the method prescribed in § 155.3(a) is not more than 20 percent of the net weight, and the container is closed under conditions creating a high vacuum in the container.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned peas is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Blond and yellow peas.</I> Not more than 2 percent of the drained weight is blond and/or yellow peas, i.e., white or yellow but edible peas. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Blemished peas.</I> Not more than 5 percent of the drained weight is blemished peas, i.e., slightly stained or spotted peas.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Seriously blemished peas.</I> Not more than 1 percent of the drained weight is seriously blemished peas, i.e., peas that are hard, shrivelled, spotted, discolored, or otherwise blemished to an extent that the appearance or eating quality is seriously affected.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pea fragments.</I> Not more than 10 percent of the drained weight is pea fragments, i.e., portions of peas, separated or individual cotyledons, crushed, partial or broken cotyledons, and loose skins, but excluding entire intact peas with skins detached.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Extraneous vegetable material.</I> Not more than 0.5 percent of the drained weight is extraneous vegetable material, i.e., vine or leaf or pod material from the pea plant or other such material.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Alcohol-insoluble solids.</I> The alcohol-insoluble solids of smooth-skin or substantially smooth-skin peas, such as Alaska-type peas or hybrids having similar characteristics, may not be more than 23.5 percent and, of sweet green wrinkled varieties or hybrids having similar characteristics, not more than 21 percent based on the procedure set forth in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 30.012, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Limitation.</I> The sum of the pea material described in paragraphs (b)(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), and (v) of this section shall not exceed 12 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If the quality of canned peas falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified; but in lieu of such general statement of substandard quality when the quality of canned peas falls below the standard in only one respect, the label may bear the alternative statement, “Below standard in quality   ”, the blank to be filled in with the words specified after the corresponding paragraph under paragraph (b)(1) of this section which such canned peas fail to meet, as follows: (i) “Excessive blond and/or yellow peas”; (ii) “Excessive blemished peas”; (iii) “Excessive seriously blemished peas”; (iv) “Excessive pea fragments”; (v) “Excessive vegetable material”; (vi) “Excessive mealy”. Such alternative statement shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, the name “peas” and any words and statements required or authorized to appear with such name by paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) Except in the case of vacuum pack peas, the fill of pea ingredient and packing medium, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(2) When the peas and liquid are removed from the container and returned thereto, the leveled peas (irrespective of the quantity of the liquid), 15 seconds after they are so returned, completely fill the container. A container with lid attached by double seam shall be considered to be completely filled when it is filled to 5 millimeters (0.2 inch) vertical distance below the top of the double seam; and a glass container shall be considered to be completely filled when it is filled to 13 millimeters (0.5 inch) vertical distance below the top of the container.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine compliance for fill of container as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(4) If canned peas fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) and/or (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 43398, June 27, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 11832, Mar. 19, 1982; 48 FR 15241, Apr. 8, 1983; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2882, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>In § 155.170, those portions of paragraph (a)(2) pertaining to the deletion of magnesium, hydroxide, magnesium oxide, and magnesium carbonate were stayed until further notice at 46 FR 35086, July 1, 1981, effective June 30, 1981.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.190" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.190   Canned tomatoes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> (i) Canned tomatoes is the food prepared from mature tomatoes conforming to the characteristics of the fruit <I>Lycopersicum esculentum</I> P. Mill, of red or reddish varieties. The tomatoes may or may not be peeled, but shall have had the stems and calicies removed and shall have been cored, except where the internal core is insignificant to texture and appearance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Canned tomatoes may contain one or more of the safe and suitable optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, be packed without any added liquid or in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and be prepared in one of the styles specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. Such food is sealed in a container and before or after sealing is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> One or more of the following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Calcium salts in a quantity reasonably necessary to firm the tomatoes, but the amount of calcium in the finished canned tomatoes is not more than 0.045 percent of the weight, except that when the tomatoes are prepared in one of the styles specified in paragraphs (a)(4) (ii) to (iv) of this section the amount of calcium is not more than 0.08 percent of the weight of the food.
</P>
<P>(ii) Organic acids for the purpose of acidification.
</P>
<P>(iii) Dry nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners whenever any organic acid provided for in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section is used, in a quantity reasonably necessary to compensate for the tartness resulting from such added acid.
</P>
<P>(iv) Salt.
</P>
<P>(v) Spices, spice oils.
</P>
<P>(vi) Flavoring and seasoning.
</P>
<P>(vii) Vegetable ingredients such as onion, peppers, and celery, that may be fresh or preserved by physical means, in a quantity not more than 10 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packing media.</I> (i) The liquid draining from the tomatoes during or after peeling or coring. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The liquid strained from the residue from preparing tomatoes for canning consisting of peels and cores with or without tomatoes or pieces thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) The liquid strained from mature tomatoes (tomato juice).
</P>
<P>(iv) Tomato paste, or tomato puree, or tomato pulp complying with the compositional requirements of § 155.191.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Styles.</I> (i) Whole.
</P>
<P>(ii) Diced.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sliced.
</P>
<P>(iv) Wedges.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Name of the food.</I> (i) The name of the food is “tomatoes”, except that when the tomatoes are not peeled the name is “unpeeled tomatoes”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A declaration of any added spice, seasoning, or vegetable ingredient that characterizes the product, (e.g., “with added ______” or, “with ______” the blank to be filled in with the word(s) “spice(s)”, “seasoning(s)”, or the name(s) of the vegetable(s) used or in lieu of the word(s) “spice(s)” or “seasoning (s)” the common or usual name(s) of the spice(s) or seasoning(s) used) except that no declaration of the presence of onion, peppers, and celery is required for stewed tomatoes.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The word “stewed” if the tomatoes contain characterizing amounts of at least the three optional vegetables listed in paragraph (a)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The styles: “Diced”, “sliced”, or “wedges” as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The name of the packing medium: “tomato paste”, “tomato puree”, or “tomato pulp” as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, or “strained residual tomato material from preparation for canning” as provided for in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, as appropriate. The name of the packing medium shall be preceded by the word “with”.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following may be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The word “whole” if the tomato ingredient is whole or almost whole, and the weight of such ingredient is not less than 80 percent of the drained weight of the finished food as determined in accordance with the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The words “solid pack” when none of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section are used.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The words “in tomato juice” if the packing medium specified in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section is used.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Label declaration.</I> The name of each ingredient used shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for canned tomatoes is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The drained weight, as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, is not less than 50 percent of the weight of water required to fill the container, as determined by the general method for water capacity of containers prescribed in § 130.12(a) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) The strength and redness of color as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, are not less than that of the blended color of any combination of the color discs described in such method in which one-third the area of disc 1, and not more than one-third the area of disc 2, is exposed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Peel per kilogram (2.2 pounds) of the finished food covers an area of not more than 15 cm
<SU>2</SU> (2.3 square inches) which is equivalent to 6.8 cm
<SU>2</SU> (1.06 square inches) per pound based on an average of all containers examined provided, however, that the area of peel is not a factor of quality for canned unpeeled tomatoes labeled in accordance with paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Blemishes per kilogram (2.2 pounds) of the finished food cover an area of not more than 3.5 cm
<SU>2</SU> (0.54 square inch) which is equivalent to 1.6 cm
<SU>2</SU> (0.25 square inch) per pound based on an average of all containers examined.
</P>
<P>(2) Canned tomatoes shall be tested by the following method to determine whether or not they meet the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Remove lid from container, but in the case of a container with lid attached by double seam, do not remove or alter the height of the double seam. Tilt the opened container so as to distribute the contents over the meshes of a circular sieve which has previously been weighed. The diameter of the sieve used is 20.3 centimeters (8 inches) if the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 1.4 kilograms (3 pounds) or 30.5 centimeters (12 inches) if such quantity is 1.4 kilograms (3 pounds) or more. The meshes of such sieve are made by so weaving wire of 1.4 mm (0.054 inch) diameter as to form square openings 11.3 mm by 11.3 mm (0.446 inch by 0.446 inch). Without shifting the tomatoes, so incline the sieve as to facilitate drainage of the liquid. Two minutes from the time drainage begins, weigh the sieve and drained tomatoes. The weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, shall be considered to be the drained weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) Remove from the sieve the drained tomatoes, cut out and segregate successively those portions of least redness until 50 percent of the drained weight has been so segregated. Comminute the segregated portions to a uniform mixture without removing or breaking the seeds. Fill the mixture into a black container to a depth of at least 25.4 mm (1 inch). Free the mixture from air bubbles, and skim off or press below the surface all visible seeds. Compare the color of the mixture, in full diffused daylight or its equivalent, with the blended color of combinations of the following concentric Munsell color discs of equal diameter, or the color equivalent of such discs:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Red—Munsell 5 R 2.6/13 (glossy finish).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Yellow—Munsell 2.5 YR 5/12 (glossy finish).
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Black—Munsell N 1/ (glossy finish).
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Grey—Munsell N 4 (mat finish).
</P>
<P>(3) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(4) If the quality of canned tomatoes falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter in the manner and form therein specified; if, however, the quality of canned tomatoes falls below standard with respect to only one of the factors of quality specified by paragraphs (b)(1) (i) to (iii) of this section, there may be substituted for the second line of such general statement of substandard quality (“Good Food—Not High Grade”) a new line, appropriate for the corresponding subparagraph designation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section which the canned tomatoes fail to meet, to read as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) “Poor color” or
</P>
<P>(ii) “Excessive peel” or
</P>
<P>(iii) “Excessive blemishes”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned tomatoes is a fill of not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container, as determined by the general method for fill of containers prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If canned tomatoes fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14449, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 12858, Mar. 28, 1978; 43 FR 30274, July 14, 1978; 45 FR 43400, June 27, 1980; 58 FR 17103, Apr. 1, 1993; 59 FR 15051, Mar. 31, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.191" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.191   Tomato concentrates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Tomato concentrates are the class of foods each of which is prepared by concentrating one or any combination of two or more of the following optional tomato ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) The liquid obtained from mature tomatoes of the red or reddish varieties (<I>Lycopersicum esculentum</I> P. Mill).
</P>
<P>(ii) The liquid obtained from the residue from preparing such tomatoes for canning, consisting of peelings and cores with or without such tomatoes or pieces thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) The liquid obtained from the residue from partial extraction of juice from such tomatoes.
</P>
<FP>Such liquid is obtained by so straining the tomatoes, with or without heating, as to exclude skins (peel), seeds, and other coarse or hard substances in accordance with good manufacturing practice. Prior to straining, food-grade hydrochloric acid may be added to the tomato material in an amount to obtain a pH no lower than 2.0. Such acid is then neutralized with food-grade sodium hydroxide so that the treated tomato material is restored to a pH of 4.2±0.2. Water may be added to adjust the final composition. The food contains not less than 8.0 percent tomato soluble solids as defined in § 155.3(e). The food is preserved by heat sterilization (canning), refrigeration, or freezing. When sealed in a container to be held at ambient temperatures, it is so processed by heat, before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> One or any combination of two or more of the following safe and suitable ingredients may be used in the foods:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt (sodium chloride formed during acid neutralization shall be considered added salt).
</P>
<P>(ii) Lemon juice, concentrated lemon juice, or organic acids.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sodium bicarbonate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Water, as provided for in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Spices.
</P>
<P>(vi) Flavoring.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) “Tomato puree” or “tomato pulp” if the food contains not less than 8.0 percent but less than 24.0 percent tomato soluble solids.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Tomato paste” if the food contains not less than 24.0 percent tomato soluble solids.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The name “tomato concentrate” may be used in lieu of the name “tomato puree,” “tomato pulp,” or “tomato paste” whenever the concentrate complies with the requirements of such foods; except that the label shall bear the statement “for remanufacturing purposes only” when the concentrate is packaged in No. 10 containers (3.1 kilograms or 109 avoirdupois ounces total water capacity) or containers that are smaller in size.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) “Concentrated tomato juice” if the food is prepared from the optional tomato ingredient described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section and is of such concentration that upon diluting the food according to label directions as set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the diluted article will contain not less than 5.0 percent by weight tomato soluble solids.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The statement “Made from” or “Made in part from,” as the case may be, “residual tomato material from canning” if the optional tomato ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is present.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The statement “Made from” or “Made in part from,” as the case may be, “residual tomato material from partial extraction of juice” if the optional tomato ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is present.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any spice that characterizes the product, e.g., “Seasoned with ______,” the blank to be filled in with the words “added spice” or, in lieu of the word “spice,” the common name of the spice.
</P>
<P>(iii) The label of concentrated tomato juice shall bear adequate directions for dilution to result in a diluted article containing not less than 5.0 percent by weight tomato soluble solids; except that alternative methods may be used to convey adequate dilution directions for containers that are larger than No. 10 containers (3.1 kilograms or 109 avoirdupois ounces total water capacity).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter; except that water need not be declared in the ingredient statement when added to adjust the tomato soluble solids content of tomato concentrates within the range of soluble solids levels permitted for these foods.
</P>
<P>(v) Determine percent tomato soluble solids as specified in § 155.3(e). Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b). A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for tomato soluble solids as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The sample average meets or exceeds the required minimum.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The number of sample units that are more than 1 percent tomato soluble solids below the minimum required does not exceed the acceptance number in the sampling plans set forth in § 155.3(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for tomato concentrate (except for concentrated tomato juice, which when diluted to 5.0 percent tomato soluble solids shall conform to the standard of quality for tomato juice set forth in § 156.145 of this chapter) is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The strength and redness of color of the food, when diluted with water (if necessary) to 8.1±0.1 percent tomato soluble solids is not less than the composite color produced by spinning the Munsell color discs in the following combination:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>53 percent of the area of Disc 1;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>28 percent of the area of Disc 2; and
</FP-1>
<FP-1>19 percent of the area of either Disc 3 or Disc 4; or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>9
<FR>1/2</FR> percent of the area of Disc 3 and 9
<FR>1/2</FR> percent of the area of Disc 4, whichever most nearly matches the appearance of the sample.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Not more than one whole seed per 600 grams (21 ounces).
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than 36 of the following defects, either singly or in combination, per 100 grams (3.5 ounces) of the product when diluted with water to 8.1±0.1 percent tomato soluble solids:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Pieces of peel 5 millimeters (0.20 inch) or greater in length (without unrolling).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Pieces of seed (seed particles) 1 millimeter (0.039 inch) or greater in length.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Blemishes, such as dark brown or black particles (specks)—not more than four exceed 1.6 millimeters (0.0625 inch) in length of which not more than one exceeds 3.2 millimeters (0.125 inch) and none exceed 6.4 millimeters (0.25 inch).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Methodology.</I> Dilute with water, if necessary, to 8.1±0.1 percent tomato soluble solids. (i) Determine strength and redness of color as prescribed in § 155.3(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) Whole seeds—Weigh out 600 grams (21 ounces) of the well-mixed, diluted concentrate; place a U.S. No. 12 screen (1.68 millimeters (0.066 inch) openings) over the sink drain; transfer the product sample onto the screen; rinse container thoroughly with water and pour through screen; flush sample through screen by using an adequate spray of water; check screen for whole seeds; apply the appropriate allowance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Peel, pieces of seed, and blemishes—Spread the prepared concentrate evenly on a large white tray and remove the individual defects, identify, classify, and measure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sampling and acceptance.</I> Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(4) If the quality of the tomato concentrate falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b) (1) and (3) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified, but in lieu of such general statement of substandard quality when the quality of the tomato concentrate falls below the standard in one or more respects, the label may bear the alternative statement, “Below Standard in Quality ______,” the blank to be filled in with the words specified after the corresponding paragraph(s) under paragraph (b)(1) of this section which such tomato concentrate fails to meet, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) “Poor color.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Excessive seeds.”
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) “Excessive pieces of peel.”
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Excessive pieces of seed.”
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) “Excessive blemishes.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for tomato concentrate, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity, except when the food is frozen.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If the tomato concentrate falls below the standard of fill prescribed in paragraph (c) (1) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein prescribed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3954, Jan. 28, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 15073, Apr. 17, 1984; 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 17104, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.194" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.194   Catsup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Catsup, ketchup, or catchup is the food prepared from one or any combination of two or more of the following optional tomato ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Tomato concentrate as defined in § 155.191(a)(1), except that lemon juice, concentrated lemon juice, or safe and suitable organic acids may be used in quantities no greater than necessary to adjust the pH, and in compliance with § 155.191(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) The liquid derived from mature tomatoes of the red or reddish varieties <I>Lycopersicum esculentum</I> P. Mill.
</P>
<P>(iii) The liquid obtained from the residue from preparing such tomatoes for canning, consisting of peelings and cores with or without such tomatoes or pieces thereof.
</P>
<P>(iv) The liquid obtained from the residue from partial extraction of juice from such tomatoes.
</P>
<FP>Such liquid is strained so as to exclude skins, seeds, and other coarse or hard substances in accordance with current good manufacturing practice. Prior to straining, food-grade hydrochloric acid may be added to the tomato material in an amount to obtain a pH no lower than 2.0. Such acid is then neutralized with food-grade sodium hydroxide so that the treated tomato material is restored to a pH of 4.2±0.2. The final composition of the food may be adjusted by concentration and/or by the addition of water. The food may contain salt (sodium chloride formed during acid neutralization shall be considered added salt) and is seasoned with ingredients as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The food is preserved by heat sterilization (canning), refrigeration, or freezing. When sealed in a container to be held at ambient temperatures, it is so processed by heat, before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Ingredients.</I> One or any combination of two or more of the following safe and suitable ingredients in each of the following categories is added to the tomato ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Vinegars.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners. Such sweeteners if defined in part 168 of this chapter shall be as defined therein.
</P>
<P>(iii) Spices, flavoring, onions, or garlic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is “Catsup,” “Ketchup,” or “Catchup.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The following shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The statement “Made from” or “Made in part from,” as the case may be, “residual tomato material from canning” if the optional tomato ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section or tomato concentrate containing the ingredient specified in § 155.191(a)(1)(ii) is present.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The statement “Made from” or “Made in part from,” as the case may be, “residual tomato material from partial extraction of juice” if the optional tomato ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section or tomato concentrate containing the ingredient specified in § 155.191(a)(1)(iii) is present.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter; except that the name “tomato concentrate” may be used in lieu of the names “tomato puree,” “tomato pulp,” or “tomato paste” and when tomato concentrates are used, the labeling requirements of § 155.191(a)(3)(ii)(<I>a</I>) and (a)(3)(ii)(<I>b</I>) do not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for catsup is as follows: The consistency of the finished food is such that its flow is not more than 14 centimeters in 30 seconds at 20 °C when tested in a Bostwick Consistometer in the following manner: Check temperature of mixture and adjust to 20±1 °C. The trough must also be at a temperature close to 20 °C. Adjust end-to-end level of Bostwick Consistometer by means of the spirit level placed in trough of instrument. Side-to-side level may be adjusted by means of the built-in spirit level. Transfer sample to the dry sample chamber of the Bostwick Consistometer. Fill the chamber slightly more than level full, avoiding air bubbles as far as possible. Pass a straight edge across top of chamber starting from the gate end to remove excess product. Release gate of instrument by gradual pressure on lever, holding the instrument down at the same time to prevent its movement as the gate is released. Immediately start the stop watch or interval timer, and after 30 seconds read the maximum distance of flow to the nearest 0.1 centimeter. Clean and dry the instrument and repeat the reading on another portion of sample. Do not wash instrument with hot water if it is to be used immediately for the next determination, as this may result in an increase in temperature of the sample. For highest accuracy, the instrument should be maintained at a temperature of 20±1 °C. If readings vary more than 0.2 centimeter, repeat a third time or until satisfactory agreement is obtained. Report the average of two or more readings, excluding any that appear to be abnormal.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If the quality of catsup falls below the standard prescribed in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified, but in lieu of such general statement of substandard quality when the quality of the catsup falls below the standard, the label may bear the alternative statement, “Below Standard in Quality—Low Consistency.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for catsup, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity except:
</P>
<P>(i) When the food is frozen, or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the food is packaged in individual serving-size packages containing 56.7 grams (2 ounces) or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If the catsup falls below the standard of fill prescribed in paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill as specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3956, Jan. 28, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 15073, Apr. 17, 1984; 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.200" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.200   Certain other canned vegetables.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The canned vegetables for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section are those named in column I of the table set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. The vegetable ingredient in each such canned vegetable is obtained by proper preparation from the succulent vegetable prescribed in column II of such table. If two or more forms of such ingredient are designated in column III of such table, the vegetable in each such form is an optional ingredient. To the vegetable ingredient additional ingredients as required or permitted by paragraph (c) of this section are added, and the food is sealed in a container and so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(b) The table referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I—Name or synonym of canned vegetable
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">II—Source
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">III—Optional forms of vegetable ingredient
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Artichokes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flower buds of the artichoke plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; half or halves or halved; whole hearts; halved hearts; quartered hearts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asparagus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Edible portions of sprouts of the asparagus plant, as follows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 and 
<fr>3/4</fr> in or more of upper end</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stalks or spears.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 and 
<fr>3/4</fr> in or more of peeled upper end</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Peeled stalks or peeled spears.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 2 and 
<fr>3/4</fr> in but less than 3 and 
<fr>3/4</fr> in of upper end</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tips.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 2 and 
<fr>3/4</fr> in of upper end</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Points.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sprouts cut in pieces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cut stalks or cut spears.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sprouts from which the tip has been removed, cut in pieces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bottom cuts or cuts—tips removed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bean sprouts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sprouts of the Mung bean
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shelled beans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seed shelled from green or wax bean pods, with or without snaps (pieces of immature unshelled pods)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lima beans or butter beans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seed shelled from the pods of the lima bean plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Root of the beet plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; slices or sliced; quarters or quartered; dice or diced; cut; shoestring or French style or julienne.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beet greens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves, or leaves and immature root, of the beet plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Broccoli</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heads of the broccoli plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brussels sprouts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sprouts of the brussels sprouts plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cabbage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cut pieces of the heads of the cabbage plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carrots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Root of the carrot plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cauliflower</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cut pieces of the head of the cauliflower plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Celery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stalks of the celery plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cut; hearts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Collards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves of the collard plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dandelion greens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves of the dandelion plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kale</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves of the kale plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard greens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves of the mustard plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Okra</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pods of the okra plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; cut.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Onions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bulb of the onion plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parsnips</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Root of the parsnip plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; quarters or quartered; slices or sliced; cut; shoestring or French style or julienne.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Black-eye peas or black-eyed peas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seed shelled from pods of the black-eye pea plant, with or without snaps (pieces of immature unshelled pods)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Field peas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seed shelled from pods of the field pea plant (other than the black-eye pea plant), with or without snaps (pieces of immature unshelled pods)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Green sweet peppers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green pods of the sweet pepper plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; halves or halved; pieces; dice or diced; strips; chopped.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red sweet peppers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red-ripe pods of the sweet pepper plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pimientos or pimentos</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red-ripe pods of the pimiento, pimento, pepper plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; halves or halved; pieces; dice or diced; slices or sliced; chopped.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potatoes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tuber of the potato plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; slices or sliced; dice or diced; pieces; shoestring or French style or julienne; French fry cut.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rutabagas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Root of the rutabaga plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; quarters or quartered; slices or sliced; dice or diced; cut.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salsify</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Root of the salsify plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spinach</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves of the spinach plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole leaf; cut leaf or sliced; chopped.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sweet potatoes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tuber of the sweet potato plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; mashed; pieces or cuts or cut (longitudinally cut halves may be named on labels as halves or halved in lieu of pieces or cuts or cut).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Swiss chard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves of the Swiss chard plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Truffles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fruit of the truffle
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turnip greens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leaves of the turnip plant
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turnips</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Root of the turnip plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whole; quarters or quartered; slices or sliced; dice or diced; cut.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Water is added to the vegetable ingredient, except that pimientos may be canned with or without added water, and sweet potatoes in mashed form are canned without added water. Asparagus may be canned with added water, asparagus juice, or a mixture of both. For the purposes of this section, asparagus juice is the clear, unfermented liquid expressed from the washed and heated sprouts or parts of sprouts of the asparagus plant, and mixtures of asparagus juice and water are considered to be water when such mixtures are used as a packing medium for canned asparagus. In the case of artichokes, a vinegar or any safe and suitable organic acid, which either is not a food additive as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or if it is a food additive as so defined, is used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act, is added in such quantity as to reduce the pH of the finished canned vegetable to 4.5 or below. The following optional ingredients, in the case of the vegetables specified, may be added:
</P>
<P>(1) An edible vegetable oil, in the cases of artichokes and pimientos.
</P>
<P>(2) Snaps, in the cases of shelled beans, black-eyed peas, and field peas.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of all vegetables (except canned mashed sweet potatoes as regards the seasonings listed in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section) one or more of the following optional seasoning ingredients may be added in a quantity sufficient to season the food.
</P>
<P>(i) Refined sugar (sucrose).
</P>
<P>(ii) Refined corn sugar (dextrose).
</P>
<P>(iii) Corn sirup, glucose sirup.
</P>
<P>(iv) Dried corn sirup, dried glucose sirup.
</P>
<P>(v) Spice.
</P>
<P>(vi) A vinegar.
</P>
<P>(vii) Green peppers or red peppers which may be dried.
</P>
<P>(viii) Mint leaves.
</P>
<P>(ix) Onions, which may be dried.
</P>
<P>(x) Garlic, which may be dried.
</P>
<P>(xi) Horseradish.
</P>
<P>(xii) Lemon juice or concentrated lemon juice.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Butter or margarine in a quantity not less than 3 percent by weight of the finished food. When butter or margarine is added, safe and suitable emulsifiers or stabilizers, or both, may be added. When butter or margarine is added, no spice or flavoring simulating the color or flavor imparted by butter or margarine is used.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of all vegetables, the following optional ingredients may be added:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disodium inosinate complying with the provisions of § 172.535 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Disodium guanylate complying with the provisions of § 172.530 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrolyzed vegetable protein.
</P>
<P>(vi) Autolyzed yeast extract.
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of all vegetables flavoring (except artificial) may be added.
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of bean sprouts, lima beans, carrots, green sweet peppers, red sweet peppers, and potatoes, any safe and suitable calcium salts may be added as a firming agent.
</P>
<P>(7) In the case of canned artichokes packed in glass containers, ascorbic acid may be added in a quantity not to exceed 32 milligrams per 100 grams of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(8) In the case of canned asparagus, ascorbic acid, erythorbic acid, or the sodium salts of ascorbic acid or erythorbic acid may be added in an amount necessary to preserve color in the “white” and “green-tipped and white” color types.
</P>
<P>(9) In the case of canned asparagus packed in glass containers, stannous chloride may be added in a quantity not to exceed 15 parts per million calculated as tin (Sn), except that in the case of asparagus packed in glass containers with lids lined with an inert material the quantity of stannous chloride added may exceed 15 parts per million but not 20 parts per million calculated as tin (Sn).
</P>
<P>(10) In the case of canned black-eyed peas, disodium EDTA may be added in a quantity not to exceed 145 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(11) In the case of potatoes, calcium disodium EDTA may be added in a quantity not to exceed 110 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(12) A vinegar or any safe and suitable organic acid for all vegetables (except artichokes, in which the quantity of such optional ingredient is prescribed by the introductory text of paragraph (c) of this section) in a quantity which, together with the amount of any lemon juice or concentrated lemon juice that may be added, is not more than sufficient to permit effective processing by heat without discoloration or other impairment of the article.
</P>
<P>(d) The name of each canned vegetable for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is the name or any synonym thereof whereby such vegetable is designated in column I of the table in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) When two or more forms of the vegetable are specified in column III of the table in paragraph (b) of this section, the label shall bear the specified word or words, or in case synonyms are so specified, one of such synonyms, showing the form of the vegetable ingredient present; except that in the case of canned spinach, if the whole leaf is the optional form used, the word “spinach” unmodified may be used in lieu of the words “whole leaf spinach”.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) If the optional ingredient specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is present, the label shall bear the statement “______ oil added” or “With added ______ oil”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the oil. 
</P>
<P>(2) If asparagus juice is used as a packing medium in canned asparagus, the label shall bear the statement “Packed in asparagus juice”.
</P>
<P>(3) If the optional ingredient specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is present, the label shall bear the statement “With snaps”.
</P>
<P>(g) The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter, and a declaration of any spice or seasoning that characterizes the product; for example, “with added spice”, “seasoned with red peppers”, “seasoned with butter”. Wherever the name of the vegetable appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words and statements specified in paragraphs (e) and (f) (1) through (3) of this section shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, except that the varietal name of the vegetable may so intervene.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14449, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 30358, June 14, 1977; 46 FR 56410, Nov. 17, 1981; 48 FR 10813, Mar. 15, 1983; 49 FR 6711, Feb. 23, 1984; 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993; 59 FR 15052, Mar. 31, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.201" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.33.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.201   Canned mushrooms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Canned mushrooms is the food properly prepared from the caps and stems of succulent mushrooms conforming to the characteristics of the species <I>Agaricus (Psalliota) bisporus</I> or <I>A. bitorquis,</I> in one of the optional styles specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, packed with a suitable liquid medium which may include water; and may contain one or more safe and suitable optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. The food is sealed in a container and, before or after sealing, is so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Styles.</I> The optional styles of the mushroom ingredient referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Buttons</I>—consisting of whole mushrooms with attached stems not exceeding 5 millimeters (0.2 inch) in length, measured from the bottom of the veil.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Whole</I>—consisting of whole mushrooms with attached stems cut to a length not exceeding the diameter of the cap, measured from the bottom of the veil.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Quarters</I>—consisting of buttons or whole style cut into four approximately equal parts.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Slices or sliced</I>—consisting of buttons or whole style of which not less than 50 percent are cut parallel to the longitudinal axis of the stem and 2 millimeters to 8 millimeters (0.08 inch to 0.32 inch) in thickness.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Random sliced</I>—consisting of buttons or whole style sliced in a random manner.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Pieces and stems</I>—consisting of pieces of caps and stems of irregular shapes and sizes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> One or any combination of two or more of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients as provided for in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disodium inosinate complying with the provisions of § 172.535 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Disodium guanylate complying with the provisions of § 172.530 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(v) Hydrolyzed vegetable protein.
</P>
<P>(vi) Autolyzed yeast extract.
</P>
<P>(vii) Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) in a quantity not to exceed 132 milligrams for each 100 grams (37.5 milligrams for each ounce) of drained weight of mushrooms.
</P>
<P>(viii) Organic acids (except no vinegar is permitted), only where the inside metal of the container is fully enamel-lined and in glass containers with fully enamel-lined caps. Ascorbic acid as provided for in paragraph (a)(3)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate (CaNa<E T="52">2</E> EDTA) in a quantity not to exceed 200 parts per million for use to promote color retention.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> (i) The name of the food is mushrooms. The style as provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be included as part of the name or in close proximity to the name of the food.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned mushrooms is:
</P>
<P>(i) The fill of the mushroom ingredient and packing medium, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) The drained weight of the mushroom ingredient is not less than 56 percent of the water capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine drained weight as specified in § 155.3(a).
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance for minimum fill and drained weight as specified in § 155.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If the canned mushrooms fall below the standard of fill prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) (i) and/or (ii) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein prescribed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 10813, Mar. 15, 1983, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="156" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 156—VEGETABLE JUICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.34.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.34.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Strength and redness of color</I> means at least as much red as obtained by comparison of the prepared product, with the blended color produced by spinning a combination of the following concentric Munsell color discs of equal diameter, or the color equivalent of such discs:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Disc 1—Red (5R 2.6/13) (glossy finish)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disc 2—Yellow (2.5 YR 5/12) (glossy finish)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disc 3—Black (N1) (glossy finish)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disc 4—Grey (N4) (mat finish)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Such comparison is to be made in full diffused daylight or under a diffused light source of approximately 2691 lux (250 footcandles) and having a spectral quality approximating that of daylight under a moderately overcast sky, with a correlated color temperature of 7,500 degrees Kelvin ±200 degrees. With the light source directly over the disc and product, observation is made at an angle of 45 degrees from a distance of about 24 inches from the product. Electronic color meters may be used as an alternate means of determining the color of tomato juice. Such meters shall be calibrated to indicate that the color of the product is as red or more red than that produced by spinning the Munsell color discs in the combination as set out above.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Tomato soluble solids</I> means the sucrose value as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed., 1980, sections 32.014 to 32.016 and 52.012, under the headings “Soluble Solids in Tomato Products Official Final Action” and “Refractive Indices (n) of Sucrose Solutions at 20°,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> If no salt has been added, the sucrose value obtained from the referenced tables shall be considered the percent of tomato soluble solids. If salt has been added, either intentionally or through the application of the acidified break, determine the percent of such added sodium chloride as specified in paragraph (c) of this section. Subtract the percentage so found from the percentage of tomato soluble solids found (sucrose value from the refractive index tables) and multiply the difference by 1.016. The resultant value is considered the percent of “tomato soluble solids.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Salt</I> means sodium chloride, determined as chloride and calculated as percent sodium chloride, by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed., 1980, sections 32.025 to 32.030, under the heading “Method III (Potentiometric Method),” which is incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance</I> means the following: Unless otherwise provided in a standard, a lot of canned vegetable juice shall be deemed in compliance for the following factors, to be determined by the sampling and acceptance procedure as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, namely:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quality.</I> The quality of a lot shall be considered acceptable when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number (<I>c</I>) in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fill of container.</I> A lot shall be deemed to be in compliance for fill of container when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number (<I>c</I>) in the sampling plans.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sampling and acceptance procedure</I> means the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions</I>—(i) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Sample size (n).</I> The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for the examination or testing as a single unit. For fill of container, the sample unit shall be the entire contents of the container.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Defective.</I> Any sample unit shall be regarded as defective when the sample unit does not meet the criteria set forth in the standards.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Acceptance number (c).</I> The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Acceptable quality level (AQL).</I> The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling plans:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Acceptable Quality Level (AQL) 6.5
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size of container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">Net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">Net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001 to 72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001 to 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">Net weight greater than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601 to 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,001 to 7,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,201 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">n</E> = number of primary containers in sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">c</E> = acceptance number.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3956, Jan. 28, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.34.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Vegetable Juices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.34.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.145   Tomato juice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Tomato juice is the food intended for direct consumption, obtained from the unfermented liquid extracted from mature tomatoes of the red or reddish varieties of <I>Lycopersicum esculentum</I> P. Mill, with or without scalding followed by draining. In the extraction of such liquid, heat may be applied by any method which does not add water thereto. Such juice is strained free from peel, seeds, and other coarse or hard substances, but contains finely divided insoluble solids from the flesh of the tomato in accordance with current good manufacturing practice. Such juice may be homogenized, may be seasoned with salt, and may be acidified with any safe and suitable organic acid. The juice may have been concentrated and later reconstituted with water and/or tomato juice to a tomato soluble solids content of not less than 5.0 percent by weight as determined by the method prescribed in § 156.3(b). The food is preserved by heat sterilization (canning), refrigeration, or freezing. When sealed in a container to be held at ambient temperatures, it is so processed by heat, before or after sealing, as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) “Tomato juice” if it is prepared from unconcentrated undiluted liquid extracted from mature tomatoes of reddish varieties.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Tomato juice from concentrate” if the finished juice has been prepared from concentrated tomato juice as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or if the finished juice is a mixture of tomato juice and tomato juice from concentrate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for tomato juice is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The strength and redness of color is not less than the composite color produced by spinning the Munsell color discs in the following combination: 53 percent of the area of Disc 1; 28 percent of the area of Disc 2; and 19 percent of the area of either Disc 3 or Disc 4; or 9
<FR>1/2</FR> percent of the area of Disc 3 and 9
<FR>1/2</FR> percent of the area of Disc 4, whichever most nearly matches the appearance of the tomato juice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than two defects for peel and blemishes, either singly or in combination, in addition to three defects for seeds or pieces of seeds, defined as follows, per 500 milliliters (16.9 fluid ounces):
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Pieces of peel 3.2 millimeters (0.125 inch) or greater in length.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Blemishes such as dark brown or black particles (specks) greater than 1.6 millimeters (0.0625 inch) in length.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Seeds or pieces of seeds 3.2 millimeters (0.125 inch) or greater in length.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Methodology.</I> (i) Determine strength and redness of color as specified in § 156.3(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) Examine a total of 500 milliliters for peel, blemishes, and seeds. Divide the 500-milliliter sample into two 250-milliliter aliquots and pour each aliquot onto separate 30.5 × 45.7 centimeters (12 × 18 inches) white grading trays. Remove defects and evaluate for color and size as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine compliance as specified in § 156.3(d).
</P>
<P>(4) If the quality of the tomato juice falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) and (3) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified, but in lieu of such general statement of substandard quality when the quality of the tomato juice falls below the standard in one or more respects, the label may bear the alternative statement, “Below Standard in Quality ______”, the blank to be filled in with the words specified after the corresponding paragraph (s) under paragraph (b)(1) of this section which such tomato juice fails to meet, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) “Poor color”.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) “Excessive pieces of peel”.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) “Excessive blemishes”.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) “Excessive seeds” or “excessive pieces of seed”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for tomato juice, as determined by the general method for fill of container prescribed in § 130.12(b) of this chapter, is not less than 90 percent of the total capacity, except when the food is frozen.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine compliance as specified in § 156.3(d).
</P>
<P>(3) If the tomato juice falls below the standard of fill prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) and (2) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein prescribed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3957, Jan. 28, 1983, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="158" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 158—FROZEN VEGETABLES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.35.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 158.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.35.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units (pounds when in bulk) in the lot.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sample size.</I> The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for the examination or testing as a single unit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Defective.</I> Any sample unit shall be regarded as defective when the sample unit does not meet the criteria set forth in the standards.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acceptance number.</I> The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements. The following acceptance numbers shall apply:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary container)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E> 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Number of Pounds
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20,000 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 20,000 to 100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 100,000 to 200,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 200,000 to 400,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 400,000 to 600,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 600,000 to 1,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 1,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">n</E> = number of sample units.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">c</E> = acceptance number.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) <I>Acceptable quality level</I> (<I>AQL</I>). The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14461, Mar. 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.35.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Frozen Vegetables</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 158.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.35.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 158.170   Frozen peas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Product definition.</I> Frozen peas is the food in “package” form as that term is defined in § 1.20 of this chapter, prepared from the succulent seed of the pea plant of the species <I>Pisum sativum</I> L. Any suitable variety of pea may be used. It is blanched, drained, and preserved by freezing in such a way that the range of temperature of maximum crystallization is passed quickly. The freezing process shall not be regarded as complete until the product temperature has reached −18 °C (0 °F) or lower at the thermal center, after thermal stabilization. Such food may contain one, or any combination of two or more, of the following safe and suitable optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Natural and artificial flavors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Condiments such as spices and mint leaves.
</P>
<P>(iii) Dry nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(iv) Salt.
</P>
<P>(v) Monosodium glutamate and other glutamic acid salts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Size specifications.</I> If size graded, frozen peas shall contain not less than 80 percent by weight of peas of the size declared or of smaller sizes. The sample unit may not contain more than 20 percent by weight of peas of the next two larger sizes, of which not more than one quarter by weight of such peas may be of the larger of these two sizes, and may contain no peas larger than the next two larger sizes, if such there be. The following sizes and designations shall apply:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Size designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Round hole sieve size through which peas will pass
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Millimeters
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inch
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Extra small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.295
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Very small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 8.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 8.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 10.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 10.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.40</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> The name of the product is “peas”. The term “early”, “June”, or “early June” shall precede or follow the name in the case of smooth-skin or substantially smooth-skin peas, such as Alaska-type peas. Where the peas are of sweet green wrinkled varieties, the name may include the designation “sweet”, “green”, “wrinkled”, or any combination thereof. The label shall contain the words “frozen” or “quick frozen”. The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the product as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter and a declaration of any condiment such as spices and mint leaves that characterizes the product, e.g., “Spice added”. Where a statement of pea size is made, such statement shall indicate either the size designation as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or the applicable sieve size. However, the optional descriptive words “petite” or “tiny” may be used in conjunction with the product name when an average of 80 percent or more of the peas will pass through a circular opening of a diameter of 8.75 mm (0.34 in) or less for sweet green wrinkled peas and 8.2 mm (0.32 in) for smooth-skin or substantially smooth-skin peas, such as Alaska-type peas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> (1) The standard of quality for frozen peas is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Not more than 4 percent by weight blond peas, i.e., yellow or white but edible peas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than 10 percent by weight blemished peas, i.e., slightly stained or spotted peas;
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than 2 percent by weight seriously blemished peas, i.e., peas that are hard, shrivelled, spotted, discolored or otherwise blemished to an extent that the appearance or eating quality is seriously affected.
</P>
<P>(iv) Not more than 15 percent by weight pea fragments, i.e., portions of peas, separated or individual cotyledons, crushed, partial or broken cotyledons and loose skins, but excluding entire intact peas with skins detached;
</P>
<P>(v) Not more than 0.5 percent by weight, or more than 12 sq cm (2 sq in) in area, extraneous vegetable material, i.e., vine or leaf or pod material from the pea plant or other such material per sample unit as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The sum of the pea material described in paragraphs (b)(1) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section shall not exceed 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(vii) For peas that meet the organoleptic and analytical characteristics of sweet green wrinkled varieties:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The alcohol-insoluble solids may not be more than 19 percent based on the procedure set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Not more than 15 percent by count of the peas may sink in a solution containing 16 percent salt by weight according to the brine flotation test set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(viii) For smooth-skin or substantially smooth-skin varieties the alcohol insoluble solids may not be more than 23 percent based on the procedure set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) The quality of a lot shall be considered acceptable when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number in the sampling plans set forth in § 158.3(f).
</P>
<P>(2) The sample unit for determining compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section other than those of paragraphs (b)(1)(vii)(<I>a</I>) and (b)(1)(viii) of this section, shall be 500 g (17.6 oz). For the determination of alcohol-insoluble solids as specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the container may be the sample unit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alcohol-insoluble solids determination.</I> (i) Extracting solutions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) One hundred parts of ethanol denatured with five parts of methanol volume to volume (formula 3A denatured alcohol), or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A mixture of 95 parts of formula 3A denatured alcohol and five parts of isopropanol v/v.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eighty percent alcohol (8 liters of extracting solutions, specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) (<I>a</I>) or (<I>b</I>) of this section, diluted to 9.5 liters with water).
</P>
<P>(iii) Drying dish—a flat-bottom dish with a tight fitting cover.
</P>
<P>(iv) Drying oven—a properly ventilated oven thermostatically controlled at 100±2 °C.
</P>
<P>(v) Procedure—Transfer frozen contents of package to plastic bag; tie bag securely and immerse in water bath with continuous flow at room temperature. Avoid agitation of bag during thawing by using clamps or weights. When sample completely thaws, remove bag, blot off adhering water, and transfer peas to U.S. No. 8 sieve, using (20 cm.) size for container of less than 3 lb. net weight and (30.5 cm.) for larger quantities. Without shifting peas, incline sieve to aid drainage, drain 2 minutes. With cloth wipe surplus water from lower screen surface. Weigh 250 g. of peas into high-speed blender, add 250 g. of water and blend to smooth paste. For less than 250 g. sample, use entire sample with equal weight of water. Weight 20 g.±10 mg. of the paste into 250 ml. distillation flask, add 120 ml. of extracting solutions specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) (<I>a</I>) or (<I>b</I>) of this section, and reflux 30 minutes on steam or water bath or hotplate. Fit into a buchner funnel a filter paper of appropriate size (previously prepared by drying in flatbottom dish for 2 hours in drying oven, covering, cooling in desiccator, and weighing). Apply vacuum to buchner funnel and transfer contents of beaker so as to avoid running over edge of paper. Aspirate to dryness and wash material on filter with 80 percent alcohol until washings are clear and colorless. Transfer paper and alcohol-insoluble solids to drying dish used to prepare paper, dry uncovered for 2 hours in drying oven, cover, cool in desiccator, and weigh at once. From this weight deduct weight of dish, cover, and paper. Calculate percent by weight of alcohol-insoluble solids.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Brine flotation test.</I> (i) Explanation—The brine flotation test utilizes salt solutions of various specific gravities to separate the peas according to maturity. The brine solutions are based on the percentage by weight of pure salt (NaCl) in solution at 20 °C. In making the test the brine solutions are standardized to the proper specific gravity equivalent to the specified “percent of salt solutions at 20 °C” by using a salometer spindle accurately calibrated at 20 °C. A 250 ml glass beaker or similar receptacle is filled with the brine solution to a depth of approximately 50 mm. The brine solution and sample (100 peas per container) must be at the same temperature and should closely approximate 20 °C.
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedure—After carefully removing the skins from the peas, place the peas into the solution. Pieces of peas and loose skins should not be used in making the brine flotation test. If cotyledons divide, use both cotyledons in the test and consider the two separated cotyledons as 1 pea; and, if an odd cotyledon sinks, consider it as one pea. Only peas that sink to the bottom of the receptacle within 10 seconds after immersion are counted as “peas that sink”.
</P>
<P>(5) If the quality of the frozen peas falls below the standard prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard quality specified in the Code of Federal Regulations but in lieu of the words prescribed in the second line of the rectangle the following words may be used where the frozen peas fall below the standard in only one respect: “Below standard in quality ______”, the blank to be filled in with the specific reason for substandard quality as listed in the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14461, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977; 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 160—EGGS AND EGG PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Eggs and Egg Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.100" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.100   Eggs.</HEAD>
<P>No regulation shall be promulgated fixing and establishing a reasonable definition and standard of identity for the food commonly known as eggs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.105" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.105   Dried eggs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dried eggs, dried whole eggs are prepared by drying liquid eggs that conform to § 160.115, with such precautions that the finished food is free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms. They may be powdered. Before drying, the glucose content of the liquid eggs may be reduced by one of the optional procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. Either silicon dioxide complying with the provisions of § 172.480 of this chapter or sodium silicoaluminate may be added as an optional anticaking ingredient, but the amount of silicon dioxide used is not more than 1 percent and the amount of sodium silicoaluminate used is less than 2 percent by weight of the finished food. The finished food shall contain not less than 95 percent by weight total egg solids.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional glucose-removing procedures are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enzyme procedure.</I> A glucose-oxidase-catalase preparation and hydrogen peroxide solution are added to the liquid eggs. The quantity used and the time of reaction are sufficient to substantially reduce the glucose content of the liquid eggs. The glucose-oxidase-catalase preparation used is one that is generally recognized as safe within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The hydrogen peroxide solution used shall comply with the specifications of the United States Pharmacopeia, except that it may exceed the concentration specified therein and it does not contain a preservative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Yeast procedure.</I> The pH of the liquid eggs is adjusted to the range of 6.0 to 7.0, if necessary, by the addition of dilute, chemically pure hydrochloric acid, and controlled fermentation is maintained by adding food-grade baker's yeast (<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I>). The quantity of yeast used and the time of reaction are sufficient to substantially reduce the glucose content of the liquid eggs.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Dried eggs” or “Dried whole eggs” and if the glucose content was reduced, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the name shall be followed immediately by the statement “Glucose removed for stability” or “Stabilized, glucose removed”.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) When either of the optional anticaking ingredients specified in paragraph (a) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement “Not more than 1 percent silicon dioxide added as an anticaking agent” or “Less than 2 percent sodium silicoaluminate added as an anticaking agent”, whichever is applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of any optional ingredient used, as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, shall be listed on the principal display panel or panels of the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render such statement likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.110   Frozen eggs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen eggs, frozen whole eggs, frozen mixed eggs is the food prepared by freezing liquid eggs that conform to § 160.115, with such precautions that the finished food is free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) Monosodium phosphate or monopotassium phosphate may be added either directly or in a water carrier, but the amount added does not exceed 0.5 percent of the weight of the frozen eggs. If a water carrier is used, it shall contain not less than 50 percent by weight of such monosodium phosphate or monopotassium phosphate.
</P>
<P>(c) When one of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement “Monosodium phosphate (or monopotassium phosphate) added to preserve color”, or, in case the optional ingredient used is added in a water carrier, the statement shall be “Monosodium phosphate (or monopotassium phosphate), with __ percent water as a carrier, added to preserve color”, the blank being filled in to show the percent by weight of water used in proportion to the weight of the finished food. The statement declaring the optional ingredient used shall appear on the principal display panel or panels with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.115" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.115   Liquid eggs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Liquid eggs, mixed eggs, liquid whole eggs, mixed whole eggs are eggs of the domestic hen broken from the shells and with yolks and whites in their natural proportion as so broken. They may be mixed, or mixed and strained, and they are pasteurized or otherwise treated to destroy all viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms. Pasteurization or such other treatment is deemed to permit the adding of safe and suitable substances (other than chemical preservatives) that are essential to the method of pasteurization or other treatment used. For the purposes of this paragraph, safe and suitable substances are those that perform a useful function in the pasteurization or other treatment to render the liquid eggs free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms, and that are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or, if they are food additives, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.140   Egg whites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Egg whites, liquid egg whites, liquid egg albumen is the food obtained from eggs of the domestic hen, broken from the shells and separated from yolks. The food may be mixed, or mixed and strained, and is pasteurized or otherwise treated to destroy all viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms. Pasteurization or such other treatment is deemed to permit the adding of safe and suitable substances (other than chemical preservatives) that are essential to the method of pasteurization or other treatment used. Safe and suitable substances that aid in protecting or restoring the whipping properties of liquid egg whites may be added. For the purposes of this paragraph, safe and suitable substances are those that perform a useful function as whipping aids or in the pasteurization or other treatment to render liquid egg whites free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms and that are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or, if they are food additives, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any optional ingredients used as whipping aids, as provided for in paragraph (a) of this section, shall be named on the principal display panel or panels of labels with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render such names likely to be read and understood by ordinary individuals under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.145   Dried egg whites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food dried egg whites, egg white solids, dried egg albumen, egg albumen solids is prepared by drying liquid egg whites conforming to the requirements of § 160.140 (or deviating from that section only by not being <I>Salmonella</I> free). As a preliminary step to drying, the lysozyme and avidin contents may be reduced. If lysozyme and avidin levels are reduced, cation exchange resins regulated for use under § 173.25 of this chapter shall be used. As a further preliminary step to drying, the glucose content of the liquid egg whites is reduced by adjusting the pH, where necessary, with food-grade acid and by following one of the optional procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. If the food is prepared from liquid egg whites conforming in all respects to the requirements of § 160.140, drying shall be done with such precautions that the finished food is free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms. If the food is prepared from liquid egg whites that are not <I>Salmonella</I> free, the dried product shall be so treated by heat or otherwise as to render the finished food free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms. Dried egg whites may be powdered.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional glucose-removing procedures are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enzyme procedure.</I> A glucose-oxidase-catalase preparation and hydrogen peroxide solution are added to liquid egg whites. The quantity used and the time of reaction are sufficient to substantially reduce the glucose content. The glucose-oxidase-catalase preparation used is one that is generally recognized as safe within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The hydrogen peroxide solution used shall comply with the specifications of the United States Pharmacopeia, except that it may exceed the concentration specified therein and it does not contain a preservative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Controlled fermentation procedures</I>—(i) <I>Yeast procedure.</I> Food-grade baker's yeast (<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I>) is added to the liquid egg whites and controlled fermentation is maintained. The quantity of yeast used and the time of reaction are sufficient to substantially reduce the glucose content.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Bacterial procedure.</I> The liquid egg whites are subjected to the action of a culture of glucose-fermenting bacteria either generally recognized as safe within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or the subject of a regulation established pursuant to section 409 of the act, and the culture is used in conformity with such regulation. The quantity of the culture used is sufficient to predominate in the fermentation and the time and temperature of reaction are sufficient to substantially reduce the glucose content.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Dried egg whites in which the lysozyme and avidin have been reduced shall not be nutritionally inferior, as defined in § 101.3(e)(4)(i) of this chapter, and shall be considered nutritionally equivalent to untreated egg whites if they meet the conditions that the biological quality of the protein contained is equal to or greater than that of untreated egg white from the same batch of liquid egg white.
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with the biological quality of protein requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be determined by the analytical method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 14th Ed. (1984), section 43.253-43.257, “Protein Efficiency Ratio, Rat Bioassay, Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) When the dried egg whites are prepared from liquid egg whites containing any optional ingredients added as whipping aids, as provided for in § 160.140(a), the common names of such optional ingredients shall be listed on the principal display panel or panels of the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render the names likely to be read and understood by ordinary individuals under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(e) The name of the food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed in this section is alternatively “Dried egg whites”, Egg white solids”, “Dried egg albumen”, or “Egg albumen solids”. If the lysozyme and avidin content is reduced as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the name shall be immediately preceded or followed by the statement “lysozyme and avidin reduced” when the dried egg whites are sold as such. When the dried egg whites are used in a fabricated food, the statement “lysozyme and avidin reduced” may be omitted from any declaration of ingredients required under § 101.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 11435, Apr. 3, 1986; 51 FR 25362, July 14, 1986; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.150   Frozen egg whites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen egg whites, frozen egg albumen is the food prepared by freezing liquid egg whites that conform to § 160.140, with such precautions that the finished food is free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) When frozen egg whites are prepared from liquid egg whites containing any optional ingredients added as whipping aids, as provided for in § 160.140(a), the common names of such optional ingredients shall be listed on the principal display panel or panels of the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render such names likely to be read and understood by ordinary individuals under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.180   Egg yolks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Egg yolks, liquid egg yolks, yolks, liquid yolks are yolks of eggs of the domestic hen so separated from the whites thereof as to contain not less than 43 percent total egg solids, as determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 17.006 and 17.007 under “Total Solids, Vacuum Method (3)—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> They may be mixed, or mixed and strained, and they are pasteurized or otherwise treated to destroy all viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms. Pasteurization or such other treatment is deemed to permit the adding of safe and suitable substances (other than chemical preservatives) that are essential to the method of pasteurization or other treatment used. For the purposes of this paragraph, safe and suitable substances are those that perform a useful function in the pasteurization or other treatment to render the egg yolks free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms, and that are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or, if they are food additives, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11832, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10102, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.185" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.185   Dried egg yolks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dried egg yolks, dried yolks is the food prepared by drying egg yolks that conform to § 160.180, with such precautions that the finished food is free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms. Before drying, the glucose content of the liquid egg yolks may be reduced by one of the optional procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. Either silicon dioxide complying with the provisions of § 172.480 of this chapter or sodium silicoaluminate may be added as an optional anticaking ingredient, but the amount of silicon dioxide used is not more than 1 percent and the amount of sodium silicoaluminate used is less than 2 percent by weight of the finished food. The finished food shall contain not less than 95 percent by weight total egg solids.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional glucose-removing procedures are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enzyme procedure.</I> A glucose-oxidase-catalase preparation and hydrogen peroxide solution are added to the liquid egg yolks. The quantity used and the time of reaction are sufficient to substantially reduce the glucose content of the liquid egg yolks. The glucose-oxidase-catalase preparation used is one that is generally recognized as safe within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The hydrogen peroxide solution used shall comply with the specification of the United States Pharmacopeia, except that it may exceed the concentration specified therein and it does not contain a preservative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Yeast procedure.</I> The pH of the liquid egg yolks is adjusted to the range of 6.0 to 7.0, if necessary, by the addition of dilute, chemically pure hydrochloric acid, and controlled fermentation is maintained by adding food-grade baker's yeast (<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I>). The quantity of yeast used and the time of reaction are sufficient to substantially reduce the glucose content of the liquid egg yolks.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food for which a definition and standard of identity is prescribed by this section is “Dried egg yolks”, or “Dried yolks”, and if the glucose content was reduced, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the name shall be followed immediately by the statement “Glucose removed for stability” or “Stabilized, glucose removed”.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) When either of the optional anticaking ingredients specified in paragraph (a) of this section is used, the label shall bear the statement “Not more than 1 percent silicon dioxide added as an anticaking agent” or “Less than 2 percent sodium silicoaluminate added as an anticaking agent”, whichever is applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of any optional ingredient used, as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, shall be listed on the principal display panel or panels of the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render such statement likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2883, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.190" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.36.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.190   Frozen egg yolks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen egg yolks, frozen yolks is the food prepared by freezing egg yolks that conform to § 160.180, with such precautions that the finished food is free of viable <I>Salmonella</I> microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14462, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2884, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="161" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 161—FISH AND SHELLFISH
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14464, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 161 appear at 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.30" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.30   Declaration of quantity of contents on labels for canned oysters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For many years packers of canned oysters in the Gulf area of the United States have labeled their output with a declaration of the drained weight of oysters in the containers. Packers in other areas have marketed canned oysters with a declaration of the total weight of the contents of the container. Investigation reveals that under present-day practice consumers generally do not discard the liquid packing medium, but use it as a part of the food. Section 403(e)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the regulations thereunder require food in package form to bear an accurate label statement of the quantity of food in the container.
</P>
<P>(b) It is concluded that compliance with the label declaration of quantity of contents requirement will be met by an accurate declaration of the total weight of the contents of the can. The requirements of § 161.145(c), establishing a standard of fill of container for canned oysters and specifying the statement of substandard fill for those canned oysters failing to meet that standard remain unaffected by this interpretation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Fish and Shellfish</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.130   Oysters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Oysters, raw oysters, shucked oysters, are the class of foods each of which is obtained by shucking shell oysters and preparing them in accordance with the procedure prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section. The name of each such food is the name specified in the applicable definition and standard of identity prescribed in §§ 161.131 to 161.140, inclusive.
</P>
<P>(b) If water, or salt water containing less than 0.75 percent salt, is used in any vessel into which the oysters are shucked the combined volume of oysters and liquid when such oysters are emptied from such vessel is not less than four times the volume of such water or salt water. Any liquid accumulated with the oysters is removed. The oysters are washed, by blowing or otherwise, in water or salt water, or both. The total time that the oysters are in contact with water or salt water after leaving the shucker, including the time of washing, rinsing, and any other contact with water or salt water is not more than 30 minutes. In computing the time of contact with water or salt water, the length of time that oysters are in contact with water or salt water that is agitated by blowing or otherwise, shall be calculated at twice its actual length. Any period of time that oysters are in contact with salt water containing not less than 0.75 percent salt before contact with oysters, shall not be included in computing the time that the oysters are in contact with water or salt water. Before packing into the containers for shipment or other delivery for consumption the oysters are thoroughly drained and are packed without any added substance.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Shell oysters</I> means live oysters of any of the species, <I>Ostrea virginica, Ostrea gigas, Ostrea lurida,</I> in the shell, which, after removal from their beds, have not been floated or otherwise held under conditions which result in the addition of water.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Thoroughly drained</I> means one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The oysters are drained on a strainer or skimmer which has an area of not less than 300 square inches per gallon of oysters, drained, and has perforations of at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> of an inch in diameter and not more than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches apart, or perforations of equivalent areas and distribution. The oysters are distributed evenly over the draining surface of the skimmer and drained for not less than 5 minutes; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The oysters are drained by any method other than that prescribed by paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section whereby liquid from the oysters is removed so that when the oysters are tested within 15 minutes after packing by draining a representative gallon of oysters on a skimmer of the dimensions and in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section for 2 minutes, not more than 5 percent of liquid by weight is removed by such draining.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.136" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.136   Olympia oysters.</HEAD>
<P>Olympia oysters, raw Olympia oysters, shucked Olympia oysters, are of the species <I>Ostrea lurida</I> and conform to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for oysters in § 161.130.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.145   Canned oysters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) Canned oysters is the food prepared from one or any mixture of two or all of the forms of oysters specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, and a packing medium of water, or the watery liquid draining from oysters before or during processing, or a mixture of such liquid and water. The food may be seasoned with salt. It is sealed in containers and so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) The forms of oysters referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are prepared from oysters which have been removed from their shells and washed and which may be steamed while in the shell or steamed or blanched or both after removal therefrom, and are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Whole oysters with such broken pieces of oysters as normally occur in removing oysters from their shells, washing, and packing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pieces of oysters obtained by segregating pieces of oysters broken in shucking, washing, or packing whole oysters.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cut oysters obtained by cutting whole oysters.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) When the form of oysters specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is used, the name of the food is “Oysters” or “Cove oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea virginica;</I> “Oysters” or “Pacific oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea gigas;</I> “Oysters” or “Olympia oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea lurida.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) When the form of oysters specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section is used, the name of the food is “Pieces of ______”, the blank being filled in with the name “Oysters” or “Cove oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea virginica;</I> “Oysters” or “Pacific oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea gigas;</I> “Oysters” or “Olympia oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea lurida.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) When the form of oysters specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section is used, the name of the food is “Cut ______, the blank being filled in with the name “Oysters” or “Cove oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea virginica;</I> “Oysters” or “Pacific oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea gigas;</I> “Oysters” or “Olympia oysters”, if of the species <I>Ostrea lurida.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) In case a mixture of two or all such forms of oysters is used, the name is a combination of the names specified in this paragraph (a)(3) of the forms of oysters used, arranged in order of their predominance by weight.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned oysters is a fill such that the drained weight of oysters taken from each container is not less than 59 percent of the water capacity of the container.
</P>
<P>(2) Water capacity of containers is determined by the general method provided in § 130.12(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Drained weight is determined by the following method: Keep the un-opened canned oyster container at a temperature of not less than 68° or more than 95 °Fahrenheit for at least 12 hours immediately preceding the determination. After opening, tilt the container so as to distribute its contents evenly over the meshes of a circular sieve which has been previously weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 8 inches if the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 3 pounds, and 12 inches if such quantity is 3 pounds or more. The bottom of the sieve is woven-wire cloth that complies with the specifications for such cloth set forth under “2.38 mm (No. 8)” in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Without shifting the material on the sieve, so incline the sieve as to facilitate drainage. Two minutes from the time drainage begins, weigh the sieve and the drained oysters. The weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, shall be considered to be the drained weight of the oysters.
</P>
<P>(4) If canned oysters fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter in the manner and form therein specified, followed by the statement, “A can of this size should contain ______ oz. of oysters. This can contains only ______ oz.”, the blanks being filled in with the applicable figures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14464, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11832, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10102, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24895, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2884, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.170" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.170   Canned Pacific salmon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) Canned Pacific salmon is the food prepared from one of the species of fish enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, prepared in one of the forms of pack specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, and to which may be added one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. The food is packed in hermetically sealed containers and so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage and soften bones. The food is labeled in accordance with paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The species of fish which may be used in this food are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Oncorhynchus tshawytscha</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chinook, king, spring.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Oncorhynchus nerka</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blueback, red, sockeye
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Oncorhynchus kisutch</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coho, Cohoe, medium red, silver
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Oncorhynchus gorbuscha</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pink
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Oncorhynchus keta</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chum, keta
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Oncorhynchus masou</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Masou, cherry</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section, the common or usual name or names of each species of fish enumerated in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is (are) the name(s) immediately following the scientific name of each species.
</P>
<P>(3) The optional forms of canned Pacific salmon are processed from fish prepared by removing the head, gills, and tail, and the viscera, blood, fins, and damaged or discolored flesh to the greatest extent practicable in accordance with good manufacturing practice; and then washing. Canned Pacific salmon is prepared in one of the following forms of pack:
</P>
<P>(i) “Regular” consists of sections or steaks which are cut transversely from the fish and filled vertically into the can. In preparation, segments of skin or large backbone may be removed. The sections or steaks are so packed that the cut surfaces approximately parallel the ends of the container. A small portion of salmon may be added if necessary to complete the fill of the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Skinless and backbone removed” consists of the regular form of canned salmon set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section from which the skin and vertebrae have been removed in accordance with good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Minced salmon” consists of salmon which has been minced or ground.
</P>
<P>(iv) “Salmon tips or tidbits” consists of small pieces of salmon.
</P>
<P>(v) “No salt added” consists of canned salmon to which no salt has been added.
</P>
<P>(4) One or more of the following optional ingredients may be added to the food:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Edible salmon oil comparable in color, viscosity, and flavor to the oil which would occur naturally in the species of salmon canned.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) The name of the food is “salmon” together with the common or usual name or names of the species. At least one species name shall be printed in letters of the same style of type and not less in height than those used for the word “salmon”.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the form of pack is that described in paragraph (a)(3) (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section, the word or words describing the form of pack shall immediately precede or follow the name of the food without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter in the manner prescribed in § 101.3(c) of this chapter; for example, “red salmon” as the name of the food followed by “skinless and backbone removed”.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned salmon is a fill including all the contents of the container and is not less than the minimum net weight specified for the corresponding can size in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I. Can size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">II. Minimum net weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">603 × 405</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.814 kg (64 oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">301 × 411</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">454 g (16 oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">301 × 408</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">439 g (15
<fr>1/2</fr> oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">401 × 211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">439 g (15
<fr>1/2</fr> oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">607 × 406 × 108</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">439 g (15
<fr>1/2</fr> oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">301 × 308</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">340 g (12 oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">307 × 200.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">220 g (7
<fr>3/4</fr> oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">513 × 307 × 103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">220 g (7
<fr>3/4</fr> oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">307 × 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">191 g (6
<fr>3/4</fr> oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">301 × 106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">106 g (3
<fr>3/4</fr> oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">407 × 213 × 015</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">106 g (3
<fr>3/4</fr> oz).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>If the can size in question is not listed, calculate the value for Column II as follows: From the list, select as the comparable can size, that one having the nearest water capacity of the can size in question, multiply the net weight listed in Column II by the water capacity of the can size in question, and divide by the water capacity of the comparable can size. Water capacities are determined by the general method provided in § 130.12(a) of this chapter.
</FP>
<P>(2) Sampling and acceptance procedure: The sample size of the sample representing the lot will be selected in accordance with the sampling plan shown in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section. A lot is to be considered acceptable when the average net weight of all the sample units is not less than the minimum net weight stated in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the corresponding can size.
</P>
<P>(i) Definitions of terms to be used in the sampling plans in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Sample size</I> (<I>n</I>). The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, the entire contents of a container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for examination or testing as a single unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sampling plans:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size of container 
<sup>1</sup> (<E T="03">n</E>)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net weight equal to or less than 1 kg. (2.2 lb).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size of container 
<sup>1</sup> (<E T="03">n</E>)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001 to 72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001 to 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">n</E>-number of primary containers in sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kgs (10 lb).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) If canned salmon falls below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14464, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2884, Jan. 6, 1993; 80 FR 41436, July 15, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.173" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.173   Canned wet pack shrimp in transparent or nontransparent containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) Canned wet pack shrimp is the food consisting of the processed meat of peeled shrimp, free of heads and, to the extent practicable under good manufacturing practice, free of shells, legs, and antennae; in one or any combination of species enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section; prepared in one of the styles specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, in sufficient water or other suitable aqueous packing medium to fill the interstices and permit proper processing in accordance with good manufacturing practice. Canned shrimp may contain one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. It is packed in hermetically sealed transparent or nontransparent containers and so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage.
</P>
<P>(2) The species of shrimp that may be used in the food are of the families: Penaeidae, Pandalidae, Crangonidae, and Palaemonidae.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Styles.</I> Canned shrimp is prepared in one of the following styles:
</P>
<P>(i) Shrimp with readily visible dark vein (dorsal tract, back vein, or sand vein).
</P>
<P>(ii) Deveined shrimp containing not less than 95 percent by weight of shrimp prepared by removing the dark vein from the first five segments by deliberate cutting action.
</P>
<P>(iii) Shrimp, other than “deveined” as described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, containing not less than 95 percent by weight of shrimp with no readily visible dark vein within the first five segments.
</P>
<P>(iv) Broken shrimp, consisting of less than four segments and otherwise conforming to one of the styles described in paragraph (a)(3)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable optional ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lemon juice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Organic acids.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(v) Spices or spice oils or spice extracts.
</P>
<P>(vi) Flavorings.
</P>
<P>(vii) Sodium bisulfite.
</P>
<P>(viii) Calcium disodium EDTA (calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate), complying with the provisions of § 172.120 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Labeling.</I> (i) The name of the food is “shrimp” or “shrimps.” The word “prawns” may appear on the label in parentheses immediately after the word “shrimp” or “shrimps” if the shrimp are of large or extra large size as designated in paragraph (a)(5)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the food is of the style described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, the words “cleaned,” “cleaned (deveined),” or “deveined” may be declared on the label.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the food is of the style described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the words “contain no dark veins” or their equivalent may be declared on the label.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the food is whole shrimp within a size range designated in table I as “extra large,” “large,” “medium,” or “small” and does not contain broken shrimp as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section in excess of the amount listed in table II for the applicable size, the appropriate size designation may be declared on the label.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number of shrimp per 28.4 g (1 oz) of drained product
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number of shrimp per 100 g (3.5 oz) of drained product
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other than deveined style
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Deveined style
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other than deveined style
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Deveined style
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Extra large or jumbo</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 3.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 3.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 12.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 13.4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 to 5.0 inclusive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8 to 5.4 inclusive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.3 to 17.7 inclusive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4 to 19.1 inclusive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 5.0 but not more than 9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 5.4 but not more than 9.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 17.7 but not more than 31.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 19.1 but not more than 34.6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 9.0 but not more than 17.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 9.8 but not more than 18.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 31.8 but not more than 60.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 34.6 but not more than 65.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tiny</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 17.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 18.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 60.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 65.3.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table II
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum percent by weight of broken shrimp 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Extra large or jumbo</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Large</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tiny</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Grams of broken shrimp per 100 g of cut-out weight as determined in § 161.173(c) of this section.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) When the food consists of tiny shrimp, as designated in table I in paragraph (a)(5)(iv) of this section and does not contain broken shrimp as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section in excess of 15 percent by weight, the name of the food on the label shall be accompanied by the word “tiny” in type size equal to that used in the name of the food.
</P>
<P>(vi) When the food consists of tiny shrimp, as designated in table I in paragraph (a)(5)(iv) of this section and contains more than 15 percent by weight of broken shrimp as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, the name of the food on the label shall be accompanied by the word “broken” or “pieces” rather than the word “tiny,” in type size equal to that used in the name of the food.
</P>
<P>(vii) When the food consists wholly or in part of sizes other than tiny, as designated in table I in paragraph (a)(5)(iv) of this section and contains more than 10 percent by weight of broken shrimp as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, the name of the food on the label shall be accompanied by the word “broken” or “pieces” in type size equal to that used in the name of the food.
</P>
<P>(viii) The name of the food shall include a declaration of any flavoring that characterizes the food, as specified in § 101.22 of this chapter, and the term “spiced” if spice characterizes the food.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sampling and acceptance procedure.</I> A lot is to be considered acceptable when the number of defectives does not exceed the acceptance number in the sampling plans given in paragraph (a)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Definitions of terms to be used in the sampling plans in paragraph (a)(6)(ii) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Lot.</I> A collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style manufactured or packed under similar conditions and handled as a single unit of trade.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Lot size.</I> The number of primary containers or units in the lot.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Sample size (n).</I> The total number of sample units drawn for examination from a lot.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Sample unit.</I> A container, the entire contents of a container, a portion of the contents of a container, or a composite mixture of product from small containers that is sufficient for the examination or testing as a single unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Defective.</I> Any sample unit shall be regarded as defective when it fails to meet the minimum requirements in paragraph (a)(3) (ii) or (iii) of this section for the applicable style, when it exceeds the tolerances in paragraph (a)(5)(iv) of this section for the applicable size, or when the labeling fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(5) (v), (vi), or (vii) of this section of the applicable size.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Acceptance number (c).</I> The maximum number of defective sample units permitted in the sample in order to consider the lot as meeting the specified requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Acceptable quality level (AQL).</I> The maximum percent of defective sample units permitted in a lot that will be accepted approximately 95 percent of the time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sampling plans:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Acceptable Quality Level 6.5
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot size (primary containers)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Size of container
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">n</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">c</E> 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight equal to or less than 1 kg (2.2 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,800 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 48,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48,001 to 84,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84,001 to 144,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">144,001 to 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 240,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="04">net weight greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) but not more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15,001 to 24,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24,001 to 42,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,001 to 72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72,001 to 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">n</E> = Number of primary containers in sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">c</E> = Acceptance number.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of transparent or nontransparent containers for canned wet pack shrimp is a fill such that the cut-out weight of shrimp taken from each container is not less than 60 percent of the weight of the water required to fill the container. The weight of the water required to fill the container is determined by the general method provided in § 130.12(a) of this chapter. Cut-out weight is determined by the following method: Keep the unopened canned shrimp container at a temperature of not less than 68° nor more than 75 °Fahrenheit for at least 12 hours immediately preceding the determination. After opening, distribute the shrimp evenly over the meshes of a circular sieve that has been previously weighed. The diameter of the sieve is 20.3 centimeters (8 inches) if the quantity of the contents of the container is less than 1.36 kilograms (3 pounds), and 30.5 centimeters (12 inches), if such quantity is 1.36 kilograms (3 pounds) or more. The bottom of the sieve is woven-wire cloth that complies with the specifications for such cloth set forth as a 2.38 mm (No. 8) sieve in the “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes” of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Without shifting the material on the sieve, incline the sieve at an angle of approximately 17° to 20° to facilitate drainage. Allow the shrimp to drain for 2 minutes, measured from the moment the product is poured onto the sieve. Weigh the sieve and the drained shrimp. The weight so found, less the weight of the sieve, shall be considered to be the cut-out weight of the shrimp.
</P>
<P>(2) Sampling and acceptance procedure: A container that falls below the requirement for minimum fill prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is considered a “defective.” Determine compliance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section as specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section except that the sample unit shall be the entire contents of the container.
</P>
<P>(3) If canned wet pack shrimp in transparent or nontransparent containers falls below the applicable standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill provided in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 19840, May 9, 1978; 43 FR 25423, June 13, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 11833, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10102, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2884, Jan. 6, 1994; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>Paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 161.173 were stayed until further notice by a document published at 44 FR 50328, Aug. 28, 1979.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.175" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.175   Frozen raw breaded shrimp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Frozen raw breaded shrimp is the food prepared by coating one of the optional forms of shrimp specified in paragraph (c) of this section with safe and suitable batter and breading ingredients as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. The food is frozen.
</P>
<P>(b) The food tests not less than 50 percent of shrimp material as determined by the method prescribed in paragraph (g) of this section, except that if the shrimp are composite units the method prescribed in paragraph (h) of this section is used.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>shrimp</I> means the tail portion of properly prepared shrimp of commercial species. Except for composite units, each shrimp unit is individually coated. The optional forms of shrimp are:
</P>
<P>(1) Fantail or butterfly: Prepared by splitting the shrimp; the shrimp are peeled, except that tail fins remain attached and the shell segment immediately adjacent to the tail fins may be left attached.
</P>
<P>(2) Butterfly, tail off: Prepared by splitting the shrimp; tail fins and all shell segments are removed.
</P>
<P>(3) Round: Round shrimp, not split; the shrimp are peeled, except that tail fins remain attached and the shell segment immediately adjacent to the tail fins may be left attached.
</P>
<P>(4) Round, tail off: Round shrimp, not split; tail fins and all shell segments are removed.
</P>
<P>(5) Pieces: Each unit consists of a piece or a part of a shrimp; tail fins and all shell segments are removed.
</P>
<P>(6) Composite units: Each unit consists of two or more whole shrimp or pieces of shrimp, or both, formed and pressed into composite units prior to coating; tail fins and all shell segments are removed; large composite units, prior to coating, may be cut into smaller units.
</P>
<P>(d) The batter and breading ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are the fluid constituents and the solid constituents of the coating around the shrimp. These ingredients consist of suitable substances which are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or if they are food additives as so defined, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act. Batter and breading ingredients that perform a useful function are regarded as suitable, except that artificial flavorings, artificial sweeteners, artificial colors, and chemical preservatives, other than those provided for in this paragraph, are not suitable ingredients of frozen raw breaded shrimp. Chemical preservatives that are suitable are:
</P>
<P>(1) Ascorbic acid, which may be used in a quantity sufficient to retard development of dark spots on the shrimp; and
</P>
<P>(2) The antioxidant preservatives listed in subpart D of part 182 of this chapter that may be used to retard development of rancidity of the fat content of the food, in amounts within the limits prescribed by that section.
</P>
<P>(e) The label shall name the food, as prepared from each of the optional forms of shrimp specified in paragraph (c) (1) to (6), inclusive, of this section, and following the numbered sequence of such subparagraph, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) “Breaded fantail shrimp.” The word “butterfly” may be used in lieu of “fantail” in the name.
</P>
<P>(2) “Breaded butterfly shrimp, tail off.”
</P>
<P>(3) “Breaded round shrimp.”
</P>
<P>(4) “Breaded round shrimp, tail off.”
</P>
<P>(5) “Breaded shrimp pieces.”
</P>
<P>(6) Composite units:
</P>
<P>(i) If the composite units are in a shape similar to that of breaded fish sticks the name is “Breaded shrimp sticks”; if they are in the shape of meat cutlets, the name is “Breaded shrimp cutlets”.
</P>
<P>(ii) If prepared in a shape other than that of sticks or cutlets, the name is “Breaded shrimp ______”, the blank to be filled in with the word or phrase that accurately describes the shape, but which is not misleading.
</P>
<FP>In the case of the names specified in paragraphs (e) (1) through (5) of this section, the words in each name may be arranged in any order, provided they are so arranged as to be accurately descriptive of the food. The word “prawns” may be added in parentheses immediately after the word “shrimp” in the name of the food if the shrimp are of large size; for example, “Fantail breaded shrimp (prawns)”. If the shrimp are from a single geographical area, the adjectival designation of that area may appear as part of the name; for example, “Breaded Alaskan shrimp sticks”.
</FP>
<P>(f) The names of the optional ingredients used, as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section, shall be listed on the principal display panel or panels of the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render them likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase. If a spice that also imparts color is used, it shall be designated as “spice and coloring”, unless the spice is designated by its specific name. If ascorbic acid is used to retard development of dark spots on the shrimp, it shall be designated as “Ascorbic acid added as a preservative” or “Ascorbic acid added to retard discoloration of shrimp”. If any other antioxidant preservative, as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, is used, such preservative shall be designated by its common name followed by the statement “Added as a preservative”.
</P>
<P>(g) The method for determining percentage of shrimp material for those forms specified in paragraphs (c) (1) through (5) of this section is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Equipment needed.</I> (i) Two-gallon container, approximately 9 inches in diameter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two-vaned wooden paddle, each vane measuring approximately 1
<FR>3/4</FR> inches by 3
<FR>3/4</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stirring device capable of rotating the wooden paddle at 120 r.p.m.
</P>
<P>(iv) Balance accurate to 0.01 ounce (or 0.1 gram).
</P>
<P>(v) U.S. Standard Sieve No. 20, 30.5 centimeter (12 inch) diameter. The sieves shall comply with the specifications for such cloth set forth in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(vi) U.S. Standard sieve, 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch sieve opening, 12-inch diameter.
</P>
<P>(vii) Forceps, blunt points.
</P>
<P>(viii) Shallow baking pans.
</P>
<P>(ix) Rubber-tipped glass stirring rod.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedure.</I> (i) Weigh the sample to be debreaded. Fill the container three-fourths full of water at 70°-80 °F. Suspend the paddle in the container, leaving a clearance of at least 5 inches below the paddle vanes, and adjust speed to 120 r.p.m. Add shrimp and stir for 10 minutes. Stack the sieves, the 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch mesh over the No. 20, and pour the contents of the container onto them. Set the sieves under a faucet, preferably with spray attached, and rinse shrimp with no rubbing of flesh, being careful to keep all rinsings over the sieves and not having the stream of water hit the shrimp on the sieve directly. Lay the shrimp out singly on the sieve as rinsed. Inspect each shrimp and use the rubber-tipped rod and the spray to remove the breading material that may remain on any of them, being careful to avoid undue pressure or rubbing, and return each shrimp to the sieve. Remove the top sieve and drain on a slope for 2 minutes, then remove the shrimp to weighing pan. Rinse contents of the No. 20 sieve onto a flat pan and collect any particles other than breading (i.e., flesh and tail fins) and add to shrimp on balance pan and weigh.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculate percent shrimp material:
</P>
<FP-2>Percent shrimp material = (Weight of debreaded sample) / (Weight of sample) × 100 + 2
</FP-2>
<P>(h) The method for determining percentage of shrimp material for composite units, specified in paragraph (c)(6) of this section, is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Equipment needed.</I> (i) Water bath (for example a 3-liter to 4-liter beaker).
</P>
<P>(ii) Balance accurate to 0.1 gram.
</P>
<P>(iii) Clip tongs of wire, plastic, or glass.
</P>
<P>(iv) Stop-watch or regular watch readable to a second.
</P>
<P>(v) Paper towels.
</P>
<P>(vi) Spatula, 4-inch blade with rounded tip.
</P>
<P>(vii) Nut picker.
</P>
<P>(viii) Thermometer (immersion type) accurate to ±2 °F.
</P>
<P>(ix) Copper sulfate crystals (CuSo<E T="52">4</E>·5H<E T="52">2</E>O).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedure.</I> (i) Weigh all composite units in the sample while they are still hard frozen.
</P>
<P>(ii) Place each composite unit individually in a water bath that is maintained at 63 °F-86 °F, and allow to remain until the breading becomes soft and can easily be removed from the still frozen shrimp material (between 10 seconds to 80 seconds for composite units held in storage at 0 °F). If the composite units were prepared using batters that are difficult to remove after one dipping, redip them for up to 5 seconds after the initial debreading and remove residual batter materials.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Several preliminary trials may be necessary to determine the exact dip time required for “debreading” the composite units in a sample. For these trials only, a saturated solution of copper sulfate (1 pound of copper sulfate in 2 liters of tap water) is necessary. The correct dip time is the minimum time of immersion in the copper sulfate solution required before the breading can easily be scraped off: <I>Provided,</I> That the “debreaded” units are still solidly frozen and only a slight trace of blue color is visible on the surface of the “debreaded” shrimp material.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Remove the unit from the bath; blot lightly with double thickness of paper toweling; and scrape off or pick out coating from the shrimp material with the spatula or nut picker.
</P>
<P>(iv) Weigh all the “debreaded” shrimp material.
</P>
<P>(v) Calculate the percentage of shrimp material in the sample, using the following formula:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Percent shrimp material = (Weight of debreaded shrimp sample) / Weight of sample × 100</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(i) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14464, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11833, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10102, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2884, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.176" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.176   Frozen raw lightly breaded shrimp.</HEAD>
<P>Frozen raw lightly breaded shrimp complies with the provisions of § 161.175, except that it contains not less than 65 percent of shrimp material, as determined by the method prescribed in § 161.175 (g) or (h), as appropriate, and that in the name prescribed the word “lightly” immediately precedes the words “breaded shrimp”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.190" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.37.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.190   Canned tuna.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) Canned tuna is the food consisting of processed flesh of fish of the species enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, prepared in one of the optional forms of pack specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, conforming to one of the color designations specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, in one of the optional packing media specified in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, and may contain one or more of the seasonings and flavorings specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section. For the purpose of inhibiting the development of struvite crystals, sodium acid pyrophosphate may be added in a quantity not in excess of 0.5 percent by weight of the finished food. It is packed in hermetically sealed containers and so processed by heat as to prevent spoilage. It is labeled in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The fish included in the class known as tuna fish are:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>Thunnus thynnus</I> (Linnaeus, 1758)—Northern bluefin tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Thunnus maccoyii</I> (Castelnau, 1872)—Southern bluefin tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Thunnus alalunga</I> (Bonnaterre, 1788)—Albacore
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Thunnus atlanticus</I> (Lesson, 1830)—Blackfin tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Thunnus obesus</I> (Lowe, 1839)—Bigeye tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Thunnus albacares</I> (Bonnaterre, 1788)—Yellowfin tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Thunnus tonggol</I> (Bleeker, 1851)—Longtail tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Katsuwonus pelamis</I> (Linnaeus, 1758)—Skipjack tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Euthynnus alletteratus</I> (Rafinesque, 1810)—Spotted tunny
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Euthynnus lineatus</I> Kishinouye, 1920—Black skipjack tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Euthynnus affinis</I> (Cantor, 1849)—Kawakawa
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Allothunnus fallai</I> Serventy, 1948—Slender tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Auxis rochei</I> (Risso, 1810)—Bullet tuna
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Auxis thazard</I> (Lacepede, 1800)—Frigate tuna</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The optional forms of processed tuna consist of loins and other striated muscular tissue of the fish. The loin is the longitudinal quarter of the great lateral muscle freed from skin, scales, visible blood clots, bones, gills, viscera and from the nonstriated part of such muscle, which part (known anatomically as the median superficial muscle) is highly vascular in structure, dark in color because of retained blood, and granular in form. Canned tuna is prepared in one of the following forms of pack, the identity of which is determined in accordance with the methods prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Solid or solid pack consists of loins freed from any surface tissue discolored by diffused hemolyzed blood, cut in transverse segments to which no free fragments are added. In containers of 1 pound or less of net contents, such segments are cut in lengths suitable for packing in one layer. In containers of more than 1 pound net contents, such segments may be cut in lengths suitable for packing in one or more layers of equal thickness. Segments are placed in the can with the planes of their transverse cut ends parallel to the ends of the can. A piece of a segment may be added if necessary to fill a container. The proportion of free flakes broken from loins in the canning operation shall not exceed 18 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Chunk, chunks, chunk style consists of a mixture of pieces of tuna in which the original muscle structure is retained. The pieces may vary in size, but not less than 50 percent of the weight of the pressed contents of a container is retained on a 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-mesh screen.
</P>
<P>(iii) Flake or flakes consist of a mixture of pieces of tuna in which more than 50 percent of the weight of the pressed contents of the container will pass through a 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-mesh screen, but in which the muscular structure of the flesh is retained.
</P>
<P>(iv) Grated consists of a mixture of particles of tuna that have been reduced to uniform size, that will pass through a 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-mesh screen, and in which the particles are discrete and do not comprise a paste.
</P>
<P>(v) Any of the specified forms of pack of canned tuna may be smoked. Canned smoked tuna shall be labeled in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a)(8)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Canned tuna, in any of the forms of pack specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, falls within one of the following color designations, measured by visual comparison with matte surface neutral reflectance standards corresponding to the specified Munsell units of value, determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>White.</I> This color designation is limited to the species <I>Thunnus alalunga</I> (albacore), and is not darker than Munsell value 6.3.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Light.</I> This color designation includes any tuna not darker than Munsell value 5.3.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dark.</I> This color designation includes all tuna darker than Munsell value 5.3.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Blended.</I> This color designation may be applied only to tuna flakes specified in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, consisting of a mixture of tuna flakes of which not less than 20 percent by weight meet the color standard for either white tuna or light tuna, and the remainder of which fall within the color standard for dark tuna. The color designation for blended tuna is determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Canned tuna is packed in one of the following optional packing media:
</P>
<P>(i) Any edible vegetable oil other than olive oil, or any mixture of such oils not containing olive oil.
</P>
<P>(ii) Olive oil.
</P>
<P>(iii) Water.
</P>
<P>(6) Canned tuna may be seasoned or flavored with one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Salt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hydrolyzed protein declared in accordance with the applicable provisions of § 101.22.
</P>
<P>(iv) Spices or spice oils or spice extracts.
</P>
<P>(v) Vegetable broth in an amount not in excess of 5 percent of the volume capacity of the container, such broth to consist of a minimum of 0.5 percent by weight of vegetable extractives and to be prepared from two or more of the following vegetables: Beans, cabbage, carrots, celery, garlic, onions, parsley, peas, potatoes, green bell peppers, red bell peppers, spinach, and tomatoes.
</P>
<P>(vi) Garlic.
</P>
<P>(vii) Lemon flavoring to be prepared from lemon oil and citric acid together with safe and suitable carriers for the lemon oil which are present at nonfunctional and insignificant levels in the finished canned food. When lemon flavoring is added, a safe and suitable solubilizing and dispersing ingredient may be added in a quantity not exceeding 0.005 percent by weight of the finished food. A substance used in accordance with this paragraph is deemed to be suitable if it is used in an amount no greater than necessary to achieve the intended flavor effect, and is deemed to be safe if it is not a food additive as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), or if it is a food additive as so defined, it is used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(viii) Edible vegetable oil, excluding olive oil, used in an amount not to exceed 5 percent of the volume capacity of the container, with or without any suitable form of emulsifying and suspending ingredients that has been affirmed as GRAS or approved as a food additive to aid in dispersion of the oil, as seasoning in canned tuna packed in water.
</P>
<P>(7) For determination of the color designations specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the following method shall be used: Recombine the separations of pressed cake resulting from the method prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Pass the combined portions through a sieve fitted with woven-wire cloth of 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch mesh complying with the specifications for such cloth set forth in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), Table 1, “Nominal Dimensions of Standard Test Sieves (U.S.A. Standard Series),” under the heading “Definitions of Terms and Explanatory Notes,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Mix the sieved material and place a sufficient quantity into a 307 × 113 size container (bearing a top seam and having a false bottom approximately 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch deep and painted flat black inside and outside) so that after tamping and smoothing the surface of the sample the material will be 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch to 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch below the top of the container. Within 10 minutes after sieving through the 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch mesh woven-wire cloth, determine the Munsell value of sample surface.
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the Munsell value of the sample surface so prepared. The following method may be used, employing an optical comparator, consisting of a lens and prism system which brings two beams of light, reflected from equal areas of sample surface and standard surface, respectively, together, within an eyepiece, so as to show an equally divided optical field. The scanned areas of sample and standard surface are not smaller than 2 square inches. Light reaching the eye is rendered sufficiently diffuse, by design of eyepiece and comparator, so that detail of the sample surface will remain undefined, to a degree such as to avoid visual confusion in observation of a match of over-all intensity of reflected light. The eyepiece contains a color filter centering at a wavelength between 550 mµ and 560 mµ. The filter does not pass appreciable visible radiation of wavelengths below 540 mµ or above 570 mµ. The passed wavelength band is of a monochromaticity sufficient to cause a sample and a neutral standard of equal reflectance to appear of the same hue. The comparator is rigidly mounted on a vertical stand attached to a base in which arrangement is provided for securely and accurately positioning two cans of size 307 × 113 in the two fields of view. Mounted on the base are two shaded lamps, which direct the center of their beams of light at about a 45° angle to the plane of the sample and standard surfaces. The lamps are so positioned that light from one bears mainly upon the sample surface and light from the other mainly on the standard surface, and are so placed in relation to sample and standard that no shadows, as from the can rims, appear in the fields of view. The lamps are strong enough to furnish adequate and convenient illumination through eyepiece and filter. Means are provided to alter the light intensity of one lamp in relation to the other, as may conveniently be achieved by using a 100-watt tungsten filament bulb in one lamp and using, in the other, a similar 150-watt bulb connected with the power source through a suitable rheostat. The stand is equipped with non-glossy black curtains on the side of the observer, to exclude variation in extraneous light reflected from the person of the observer.
</P>
<P>(ii) To adjust the comparator, place a pair of matte surface standards of Munsell value 5.3, mounted as described in paragraph (a)(7)(iv) of this section, in position in the comparator base, and adjust the intensity of the variable lamp until the two halves of the optical field, viewed through the eyepiece, are of equal brightness. Then remove one of the standards and replace it with the prepared sample. Without altering any other adjustments, observe through the eyepiece whether the sample appears lighter or darker than the standard. In case of examination of albacore designated “white”, conduct the procedure using standards of Munsell value 6.3.
</P>
<P>(iii) The standards with which comparisons are made are essentially neutral matte-finish standards, equivalent in luminous reflectance of light of 555µ wavelength to 33.7 percent of the luminous reflectance of magnesium oxide (for Munsell value 6.3) and 22.6 percent of the luminous reflectance of magnesium oxide (for Munsell value 5.3), as given by the relationship between Munsell value and luminous reflectance derived by a subcommittee of the Optical Society of America and published in the “Journal of the Optical Society of America,” Vol. 33, page 406 (1943), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-150), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) These standards shall be cut in circles 3
<FR>1/4</FR> inches in diameter and shall be mounted in 307 × 113 size containers, bearing a top seam and painted flat black inside and outside, so that the surfaces of the standards are 
<FR>3/16</FR> inch below the top of the containers in which they are mounted.
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of blended tuna, the foregoing method shall be varied by first separating the tuna flakes of the two different colors before passing them through the 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch mesh sieve, then proceeding with each portion separately for the determination of its color value, employing, if necessary, a sample container with false bottom greater than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch deep.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) The specified names of the canned tuna for which definitions and standards of identity are prescribed by this section, except where water is the packing medium or where the tuna is smoked, are formed by combining the designation of form of pack with the color designation of the tuna; for example, “Solid pack white tuna”, “Grated dark tuna”, etc. In the case of blended tuna, there shall be used both applicable color designations of the blended flakes, in precedence determined in accordance with the predominating portion found in the container; for example, “Blended white and dark tuna flakes”, “Blended dark and light tuna flakes”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The specified name of canned tuna when water is used as the packing medium is formed as described in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section, followed by the words “in water”; for example, “Grated light tuna in water”.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the packing medium is vegetable oil or olive oil, the label shall bear the name of the optional packing medium used, as specified in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, preceded by the word “in” or the words “packed in”. In case of the optional ingredient specified in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section, the name or names of the oil used may be stated, or the general term “vegetable oil” may be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) In case solid pack tuna is packed in olive oil, the designation “Tonno” may also appear.
</P>
<P>(v) In case any of the specified forms of canned tuna are smoked, the word “smoked” shall appear as a part of the name on the label; for example, “Smoked light tuna flakes”.
</P>
<P>(vi) Where the canned tuna contains one or more of the ingredients provided for in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, the label shall bear the statement “Seasoned with ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names of the ingredient or ingredients used, except that if the ingredient designated in paragraph (a)(6)(v) of this section is used, the blank shall be filled in with the term “vegetable broth”, and if the ingredients designated in paragraph (a)(6)(viii) of this section are used, the blank may be filled in with the term “oil”, and if the ingredient designated in paragraph (a)(6)(iv) of this section is used alone, the label may alternatively bear either the statement “spiced” or the statement “with added spice”; and if salt is the only seasoning ingredient used, the label may alternatively bear any of the statements “salted”, “with added salt”, or “salt added”. If the flavoring ingredients designated in paragraph (a)(6)(vii) of this section are used, the words “lemon flavored” or “with lemon flavoring” shall appear as part of the name on the label; for example, “lemon flavored chunk light tuna”. Citric acid and any optional solubilizing and dispersing agent used as specified in paragraph (a)(6)(vii) of this section in connection with lemon flavoring ingredients or emulsifying and suspending ingredients used as specified in paragraph (a)(6)(viii) of this section shall be designated on the label by their common or usual name.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where the canned tuna contains the optional ingredient sodium acid pyrophosphate as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the statement “pyrophosphate added” or “with added pyrophosphate”.
</P>
<P>(viii) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the names of the optional ingredients used, as specified in paragraphs (a)(8)(iii), (vi), and (vii) of this section (except if lemon flavoring is added, this subparagraph applies only to the terms “lemon flavored” or “with lemon flavoring”, not to the constituent ingredients of that flavoring or to any optional solubilizing or dispersing ingredient used in connection with lemon flavoring ingredients), shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name without intervening, written, printed, or graphic matter except that the common name of the species of tuna fish may so intervene; but the species name “albacore” may be employed only for canned tuna of that species which meets the color designation “white” as prescribed by paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) Statements of optional ingredients present required by paragraph (a)(8)(vi) of this section, but not subject to the provisions of paragraph (a)(8)(viii) of this section shall be set forth on the label with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render them likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill of container for canned tuna is a fill such that the average weight of the pressed cake from 24 cans, as determined by the method prescribed by paragraph (c)(2) of this section, is not less than the minimum value specified for the corresponding can size and form of tuna ingredient in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I. Can size and form of tuna ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">II. Minimum value for weights of pressed cake (average of 24 cans) (in ounces)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">211 × 109:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Solid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chunks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Grated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">307 × 113:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Solid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chunks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Grated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.96
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">401 × 206:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Solid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chunks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Grated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">603 × 408:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Solid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chunks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Grated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38.3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>If the can size in question is not listed, calculate the value for column II as follows: From the list select as the comparable can size that one having nearest the water capacity of the can size in question, multiply the value listed in column II for the same form of tuna ingredient by the water capacity of the can size in question, and divided by the water capacity of the comparable can size. Water capacities are determined by the general method provided in § 130.12(a) of this chapter. For the purposes of this section, cans of dimensions 211 × 109 shall be deemed to have a water capacity at 68 °F of 3.55 avoirdupois ounces of water; cans of dimensions 307 × 113, a water capacity of 7.05 avoirdupois ounces of water; cans of dimensions 401 × 206, a water capacity of 13.80 avoirdupois ounces of water; and cans of dimensions 603 × 408, a water capacity of 68.15 avoirdupois ounces of water.
</FP>
<P>(2) The methods referred to in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for determining the weight of the pressed cake and referred to in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section for determining the percent of free flakes and the percent of pieces that pass through a 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-mesh sieve are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Have each of the 24 cans and contents at a temperature of 75 °F within ±5 °F. Test each can in turn as follows:
</P>
<P>(ii) Cut out the top of the can (code end), using a can opener that does not remove nor distort the double seam.
</P>
<P>(iii) With the cut top held on the can contents, invert the can, and drain the free liquid by gentle finger pressure on the cut lid so that most of the free liquid drains from the can.
</P>
<P>(iv) With the cut lid still in place, cut out the bottom of the can with the can opener, then turn the can upright and remove the cut can top (code end). Scrape off any adhering tuna particles into the tuna mass in the can.
</P>
<P>(v) Place the proper size of press cylinder as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section in a horizontal position on a table; then, using the cut bottom of the can as a pusher, gently force the can contents from the can into the cylinder so that the flat side of the can contents lies in contact with the bottom of the cylinder. Remove the bottom of the can that was used as the pusher and scrape any adhering particles from the can body and bottom of the can, and put them in the cylinder.
</P>
<P>(vi) Place the cylinder plunger on top of the can contents in the cylinder. Remove the eyebolt and put the cylinder and plunger in position on the press (paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(vii) Begin the operation of the press and as soon as liquid is observed coming from the cylinder start timing the operation. Apply pressure to the plunger slowly and at a uniform rate, so that a full minute is used to reach a pressure of 384 pounds per square inch of plunger face in contact with the can contents. Hold this pressure for 1 additional minute and then release the pressure and disengage the plunger from the press shaft. Tip the press cylinder so that any free liquid is drained out.
</P>
<P>(viii) Remove press cylinder with plunger from the press, insert eyebolt in plunger and withdraw it from the cylinder. Loosen the pressed cake from the cylinder with a thin blade and remove the entire pressed cake as gently as possible, to keep the mass in a single cake during this operation. Place the pressed cake and any pieces that adhered to the plunger and cylinder in a tared receiving pan and determine the weight of the pressed material.
</P>
<P>(ix) For cans larger than 401 × 206, cut out the top of the can and drain off free liquid from the can contents as in operations described in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section. Determine the gross weight of the can and remaining contents. Using a tared core cutter as provided for in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, cut vertically a core of the drained material in the can. Determine the weight of the core. With a thin spatula transfer the core to the pressing cylinder for 401 × 206 cans. Determine the weight of the pressed cake as in the operations described in paragraphs (c)(2)(v) through (viii) of this section. Remove the remaining drained contents of the can, reserving the contents for the determination of free flakes (paragraph (c)(2)(xi) of this section), weigh the empty can, and calculate the weight of the total drained material. Calculate the weight of pressed cake on the entire can basis by multiplying the weight of the pressed cake of the core by the ratio of the weight of the drained contents of the can to the weight of the core before pressing.
</P>
<P>(x) Repeat the determination of weight of pressed cake on the remainder of the 24 cans and determine the average weight of pressed cake for the purpose of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xi) Determination of free flakes: If the optional form of tuna ingredient is solid pack, determine the percent of free flakes. Any flakes resulting from the operations described in this paragraph (c)(2)(xi) or in other parts of this paragraph are to be weighed as free flakes. Only fragments that were broken in the canning procedure are considered to be free flakes. If the can is of such size that its entire drained contents were pressed as described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) to (viii) of this section, inclusive, examine the pressed cake carefully for free flakes. Using a spatula, scrape free flakes gently from the outside of the cake. Weigh the aggregate free flakes that were broken from the loin segments in the canning procedure and calculate their percentage of the total weight of pressed cake. If the can is of such size that a core was cut for pressing as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section, make the examination for free flakes on a weighed portion of the drained material remaining after the core was removed. The weight of the portion examined should approximately equal the weight of the core before pressing. Calculate the weight of the free flakes that were broken from the loins in the canning procedure as a percentage of the weight of the portion examined.
</P>
<P>(xii) Determination of particle size: If the optional form of tuna ingredient is chunks, flakes, or grated, the pressed cake resulting from the operations described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) to (ix) of this section, inclusive, is gently separated by hand, care being taken to avoid breaking the pieces. The separated pieces are evenly distributed over the top sieve of the screen separation equipment described in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section. Beginning with the top sieve, lift and drop each sieve by its open edge three times. Each time, the open edge of the sieve is lifted the full distance permitted by the device. Combine and weigh the material remaining on the three top sieves (1
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch, 1-inch, 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch screens), and determine the combined percentage retention by weight in relation to the total weight of the pressed cake.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The press cylinder and plunger referred to in paragraph (c)(2) of this section are made of stainless steel. The press cylinders are made with a lip to facilitate drainage of the liquid. Plungers have a threaded center hole, about half as deep as the thickness of the plunger, for receiving a ringbolt to assist in removing the plunger from the press cylinder. Dimensions for press cylinders and plungers are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>For can size 211 × 109
</HD2>
<FP>Press cylinder:
</FP>
<P>Inside depth, approximately 3
<FR>3/4</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>Inside diameter, 2.593 inches.
</P>
<P>Wall thickness, approximately 
<FR>3/8</FR> inch.
</P>
<FP>Plunger:
</FP>
<P>Thickness, approximately 1 inch.
</P>
<P>Diameter, 2.568 inches.
</P>
<HD2>For can size 307 × 113
</HD2>
<FP>Press cylinder:
</FP>
<P>Inside depth, approximately 4 inches.
</P>
<P>Inside diameter, 3.344 inches. 
</P>
<P>Wall thickness, approximately 
<FR>3/8</FR> inch.
</P>
<FP>Plunger:
</FP>
<P>Thickness, approximately 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>Diameter, 3.319 inches.
</P>
<HD2>For can size 401 × 206
</HD2>
<FP>Press cylinder:
</FP>
<P>Inside depth, approximately 4
<FR>1/8</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>Inside diameter, 3.969 inches.
</P>
<P>Wall thickness, approximately 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch.
</P>
<FP>Plunger:
</FP>
<P>Thickness, approximately 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>Diameter, 3.944 inches.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>For can sizes where the diameter is greater than 401, the core cutter described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section shall be used and the resulting core pressed in the press cylinder for can size 401 × 206. For can sizes differing from those specified in this paragraph (c)(3)(i), special press cylinders and plungers may be used. Special press less than the outside diameters, at the cylinders have inside diameters 
<FR>1/10</FR>-inch double seam, for the can sizes for which the cylinders are used; plunger diameters are 0.025-inch less than the inside diameters of the press cylinders.
</FP>
<P>(ii) The core cutter referred to in paragraph (c)(2) (ix) and (xi) of this section and paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section is made from a previously sealed 300 × 407 can. The cover, including the top seam, is cut out. The edge is smoothed and sharpened. A small hole to permit passage of air is made in the bottom.
</P>
<P>(iii) The hydraulic press referred to in paragraph (c)(2) (vi) to (x) of this section, inclusive, is made by so mounting a hydraulic jack, in a strong frame, that it will press horizontally against the center of the plunger in the press cylinder used. The frame is so braced that it does not change shape when pressure is applied. The gauge on the hydraulic jack is so calibrated that it will indicate, for the plunger being used, when the plunger is pressing against the contents of the press cylinder with a pressure of 384 pounds per square inch of plunger face.
</P>
<P>(iv) The sieving device referred to in paragraph (c)(2)(xii) of this section consists of three sieves, each approximately 1 foot square, loosely mounted, one above the other, in a metal frame. The mesh in the top sieve complies with the specifications for 1
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch woven-wire cloth as prescribed in paragraph (a)(7) of this section. The meshes in the sieves below comply with similar specifications for 1-inch and 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch woven-wire cloth as set forth in the same publication. The sides of each sieve are formed, in a raised rim, from 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch × 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch metal strap. The frame has tracks made of 
<FR>3/8</FR>-inch angle metal to support each sieve under each side. The tracks are so positioned as to permit each sieve a free vertical travel of 1
<FR>3/4</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>(4) If canned tuna falls below the applicable standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill provided in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14464, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11833, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10102, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 55 FR 45797, Oct. 31, 1990; 56 FR 6263, Feb. 15, 1991; 58 FR 2884, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 14480, Apr. 2, 1996; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 88 FR 53773, Aug. 9, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="163" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 163—CACAO PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 29529, May 21, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.5" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.5   Methods of analysis.</HEAD>
<P>Shell and cacao fat content in cacao products shall be determined by the following methods of analysis prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Shell content—12th ed. (1975), methods 13.010-13.014, under the heading “Shell in Cacao Nibs—Official Final Action,” pp. 208-210.
</P>
<P>(b) Fat content—15th ed. (1990), method 963.15, under the heading “Fat in Cacao Products—Soxhlet Extraction Method—Final Action, 1973,” pp. 770-771.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29529, May 21, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Cacao Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.110   Cacao nibs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Cacao nibs is the food prepared by removing the shell from cured, cleaned, dried, and cracked cacao beans. The cacao shell content is not more than 1.75 percent by weight, calculated on an alkali free basis, as determined by the method prescribed in § 163.5(a).
</P>
<P>(2) The cacao nibs, or the cacao beans from which they are prepared, may be processed by heating with one or more of the optional alkali ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The cacao nibs, or the cacao beans from which they are prepared, as appropriate, may be further processed with one or more of the optional neutralizing agents specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Alkali ingredients. Ammonium, potassium, or sodium bicarbonate, carbonate, or hydroxide, or magnesium carbonate or oxide, added as such, or in aqueous solution. For each 100 parts by weight of cacao nibs, used as such, or before shelling from the cacao beans, the total quantity of alkali ingredients used is not greater in neutralizing value (calculated from the respective combined weights of the alkali ingredients used) than the neutralizing value of 3 parts by weight of anhydrous potassium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(2) Neutralizing agents. Phosphoric acid, citric acid, and <I>L</I>-tartaric acid, added as such, or in aqueous solution. For each 100 parts by weight of cacao nibs, used as such, or before shelling from the cacao beans, the total quantity of phosphoric acid used is not greater than 0.5 part by weight, expressed as P<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">5</E>. The total amount, singly or in combination, of citric acid and <I>L</I>-tartaric acid is not greater than 1.0 part by weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “cacao nibs”, “cocoa nibs”, or “cracked cocoa”. (1) When the cacao nibs, or the cacao beans from which they are prepared, are processed with alkali ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the name of the food shall be accompanied by the statement “Processed with alkali” or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific alkali ingredient used in the food.
</P>
<P>(2) When the cacao nibs, or the cacao beans from which they are prepared, are processed with neutralizing agents specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the name of the food shall be accompanied by the statement “Processed with neutralizing agent” or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific neutralizing agent used in the food.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section shall precede or follow the name without intervening printed or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.111" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.111   Chocolate liquor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Chocolate liquor is the solid or semiplastic food prepared by finely grinding cacao nibs. The fat content of the food may be adjusted by adding one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to the cacao nibs. Chocolate liquor contains not less than 50 percent nor more than 60 percent by weight of cacao fat as determined by the method prescribed in § 163.5(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Optional alkali ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be used as such in the preparation of chocolate liquor under the conditions and limitations specified in § 163.110(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) Optional neutralizing agents specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be used as such in the preparation of the chocolate liquor under the conditions and limitations specified in § 163.110(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) Chocolate liquor may be spiced, flavored, or seasoned with one or more of the ingredients listed in paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Cacao fat and cocoas (breakfast cocoa, cocoa, or lowfat cocoa);
</P>
<P>(2) Alkali ingredients. Ammonium, potassium, or sodium bicarbonate, carbonate, or hydroxide, or magnesium carbonate or oxide, added as such, or in aqueous solution;
</P>
<P>(3) Neutralizing agents. Phosphoric acid, citric acid, and <I>L</I>-tartaric acid, added as such, or in aqueous solution;
</P>
<P>(4) Spices, natural and artificial flavorings, ground whole nut meats, ground coffee, dried malted cereal extract, and other seasonings that do not either singly or in combination impart a flavor that imitates the flavor of chocolate, milk, or butter;
</P>
<P>(5) Butter or milkfat; or
</P>
<P>(6) Salt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “chocolate liquor”, “chocolate”, “unsweetened chocolate”, “bitter chocolate”, “baking chocolate”, “cooking chocolate”, “chocolate coating”, or “unsweetened chocolate coating”.
</P>
<P>(1) When any optional alkali ingredient specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is used, including those used in the preparation of the cacao nibs and cocoas from which the chocolate liquor was prepared, the name of the food shall be accompanied by the statement “Processed with alkali” or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific alkali ingredient used in the food.
</P>
<P>(2) When any optional neutralizing agent specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section is used, including those used in the preparation of the cacao nibs and cocoas from which the chocolate liquor was prepared, the name of the food shall be accompanied by the statement “Processed with neutralizing agent” or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific neutralizing ingredient used in the food.
</P>
<P>(3) When one or more spices, flavorings, or seasonings specified in paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) of this section are used in the chocolate liquor, the label shall bear an appropriate statement, e.g., “Spice added”, “Flavored with ______”, “Seasoned with ______”, or “With ______ added”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the spice, flavoring, or seasoning used, in accordance with § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) When two or more of the statements set forth in this paragraph are required, such statements may be combined in a manner that is appropriate, but not misleading.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements prescribed in this section, showing optional ingredients used, shall precede or follow the name without intervening printed or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.112" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.112   Breakfast cocoa.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Breakfast cocoa is the food prepared by pulverizing the material remaining after part of the cacao fat has been removed from ground cacao nibs. Breakfast cocoa contains not less than 22 percent by weight of cacao fat as determined by the method prescribed in § 163.5(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Optional alkali ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be used as such in the preparation of breakfast cocoa under the conditions and limitations specified in § 163.110(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) Optional neutralizing agents specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be used as such in the preparation of the breakfast cocoa under the conditions and limitations specified in § 163.110(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) Breakfast cocoa may be spiced, flavored, or seasoned with one or more of the ingredients listed in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Alkali ingredients. Ammonium, potassium, or sodium bicarbonate, carbonate, or hydroxide, or magnesium carbonate or oxide, used as such, or in aqueous solution;
</P>
<P>(2) Neutralizing agents. Phosphoric acid, citric acid and L-tartaric acid, used as such, or in aqueous solution;
</P>
<P>(3) Spices, natural and artificial flavorings, and other seasonings that do not either singly or in combination impart a flavor that imitates the flavor of chocolate, milk, or butter; or
</P>
<P>(4) Salt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “breakfast cocoa”, or “high fat cocoa”.
</P>
<P>(1) When any optional alkali ingredient specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is used, including those used in the preparation of the cacao nibs from which the breakfast cocoa was prepared, the name of the food shall be accompanied by the statement “Processed with alkali”, or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific alkali ingredient used in the food.
</P>
<P>(2) When any optional neutralizing agent specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is used, including those used in the preparation of the cacao nibs from which the breakfast cocoa was prepared, the name of the food shall be accompanied by the statement “Processed with neutralizing agent” or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific neutralizing agent used in the food.
</P>
<P>(3) When one or more of the spices, flavorings, or seasonings specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section are used in the breakfast cocoa, the label shall bear an appropriate statement, e.g., “Spice added”, “Flavored with ______”, or “With ______ added”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the spice, flavoring, or seasoning used, in accordance with § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) When two or more of the statements set forth in this paragraph are required, such statements may be combined in a manner that is appropriate, but not misleading.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements prescribed in this paragraph showing optional ingredients used shall precede or follow the name without intervening printed or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.113" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.113   Cocoa.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Cocoa is the food that conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for breakfast cocoa in § 163.112, except that the cacao fat content is less than 22 percent, but not less than 10 percent by weight, as determined by the method prescribed in § 163.5(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “cocoa” or “medium fat cocoa”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.114" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.114   Lowfat cocoa.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Lowfat cocoa is the food that conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for breakfast cocoa in § 163.112, except that the cacao fat content is less than 10 percent by weight, as determined by the method prescribed in § 163.5(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “lowfat cocoa”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.117" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.117   Cocoa with dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Cocoa with dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate for manufacturing is the food additive complying with the provisions prescribed in § 172.520 of this chapter. It conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients, for breakfast cocoa in § 163.112, or for cocoa in § 163.113, or for lowfat cocoa in § 163.114, except that the food additive contains dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate (complying with the requirements of § 172.810 of this chapter, including the limit of not more than 0.4 percent by weight of the finished food additive).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food additive is “cocoa with dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate for manufacturing” to which is added any modifier of the word “cocoa” required by the definition and standard of identity to which the food additive otherwise conforms. When the food additive is used in a fabricated food, the phrase “for manufacturing” may be omitted from any declaration of ingredients required under § 101.4 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.123" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.123   Sweet chocolate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Sweet chocolate is the solid or semiplastic food prepared by intimately mixing and grinding chocolate liquor with one or more optional nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners, and may contain one or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Sweet chocolate contains not less than 15 percent by weight of chocolate liquor complying with the requirements of § 163.111, as calculated by subtracting from the weight of the chocolate liquor used the weight of the cacao fat therein and the weights therein of any alkali, neutralizing, and seasoning ingredients, and multiplying the remainder by 2.2, dividing the result by the weight of the finished sweet chocolate, and multiplying the quotient by 100. The finished sweet chocolate contains less than 12 percent by weight of total milk solids based on those dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, exclusive of any added sweetener or other dairy derived ingredient that is added beyond that amount that is normally present in the specified dairy ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) Semisweet chocolate or bittersweet chocolate is sweet chocolate that contains not less than 35 percent by weight of chocolate liquor complying with the requirements of § 163.111 and calculated in the same manner as set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Cacao fat is determined by the method prescribed in § 163.5(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Cacao fat;
</P>
<P>(2) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners;
</P>
<P>(3) Spices, natural and artificial flavorings, ground whole nut meats, ground coffee, dried malted cereal extract, salt, and other seasonings that do not either singly or in combination impart a flavor that imitates the flavor of chocolate, milk, or butter;
</P>
<P>(4) Dairy ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Cream, milkfat, butter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk, concentrated milk, evaporated milk, sweetened condensed milk, dried milk;
</P>
<P>(iii) Skim milk, concentrated skim milk, evaporated skim milk, sweetened condensed skim milk, nonfat dry milk;
</P>
<P>(iv) Concentrated buttermilk, dried buttermilk; and
</P>
<P>(v) Malted milk; or
</P>
<P>(5) Emulsifying agents, used singly or in combination, the total amount of which does not exceed 1.0 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “sweet chocolate”, “sweet chocolate coating”, “semisweet chocolate”, “semisweet chocolate coating”, “bittersweet chocolate”, or “bittersweet chocolate coating”, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) When optional alkalizing ingredients are used in the preparation of the chocolate liquor or the cacao nibs from which the chocolate was prepared, the label shall bear the statement “Processed with alkali”, or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific alkali ingredient used in the food.
</P>
<P>(2) When optional neutralizing agents are used in the preparation of the chocolate liquor or the cacao nibs from which the chocolate was prepared, the label shall bear the statement “Processed with neutralizing agents”, or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific neutralizing agent used in the food.
</P>
<P>(3) When one or more of the spices, flavorings, or seasonings specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section are used in the breakfast cocoa, the label shall bear an appropriate statement, e.g., “Spice added”, “Flavored with ______”, or “With ______ added”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the spice, flavoring, or seasoning used, in accordance with § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) When two or more of the statements set forth in this paragraph are required, such statements may be combined in a manner that is appropriate, but not misleading.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements prescribed in this paragraph showing optional ingredients used shall precede or follow such name without intervening printed or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.124" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.124   White chocolate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) White chocolate is the solid or semiplastic food prepared by intimately mixing and grinding cacao fat with one or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and one or more optional nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners and may contain one or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section. White chocolate shall be free of coloring material.
</P>
<P>(2) White chocolate contains not less than 20 percent by weight of cacao fat as calculated by subtracting from the weight of the total fat the weight of the milkfat, dividing the result by the weight of the finished white chocolate, and multiplying the quotient by 100. The finished white chocolate contains not less than 3.5 percent by weight of milkfat and not less than 14 percent by weight of total milk solids, calculated by using only those dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and not more than 55 percent by weight nutritive carbohydrate sweetener.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners;
</P>
<P>(2) Dairy ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Cream, milkfat, butter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk, dry whole milk, concentrated milk, evaporated milk, sweetened condensed milk;
</P>
<P>(iii) Skim milk, concentrated skim milk, evaporated skim milk, sweetened condensed skim milk, nonfat dry milk;
</P>
<P>(iv) Concentrated buttermilk, dried buttermilk; and
</P>
<P>(v) Malted milk;
</P>
<P>(3) Emulsifying agents, used singly or in combination, the total amount of which does not exceed 1.5 percent by weight;
</P>
<P>(4) Spices, natural and artificial flavorings, ground whole nut meats, ground coffee, dried malted cereal extract, salt, and other seasonings that do not either singly or in combination impart a flavor that imitates the flavor of chocolate, milk, or butter;
</P>
<P>(5) Antioxidants; and
</P>
<P>(6) Whey or whey products, the total amount of which does not exceed 5 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “white chocolate” or “white chocolate coating.” When one or more of the spices, flavorings, or seasonings specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section are used, the label shall bear an appropriate statement, e.g., “Spice added”, “Flavored with ______ ”, or “With ______ added”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the spice, flavoring, or seasoning used, in accordance with § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 62177, Oct. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.130   Milk chocolate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Milk chocolate is the solid or semiplastic food prepared by intimately mixing and grinding chocolate liquor with one or more of the optional dairy ingredients and one or more optional nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners, and may contain one or more of the other optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Milk chocolate contains not less than 10 percent by weight of chocolate liquor complying with the requirements of § 163.111 as calculated by subtracting from the weight of the chocolate liquor used the weight of cacao fat therein and the weights of alkali, neutralizing and seasoning ingredients, multiplying the remainder by 2.2, dividing the result by the weight of the finished milk chocolate, and multiplying the quotient by 100. The finished milk chocolate contains not less than 3.39 percent by weight of milkfat and not less than 12 percent by weight of total milk solids based on those dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, exclusive of any added sweetener or other dairy-derived ingredient that is added beyond that amount that is normally present in the specified dairy ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> The following safe and suitable ingredients may be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Cacao fat;
</P>
<P>(2) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners;
</P>
<P>(3) Spices, natural and artificial flavorings, ground whole nut meats, ground coffee, dried malted cereal extract, salt, and other seasonings that do not either singly or in combination impart a flavor that imitates the flavor of chocolate, milk, or butter;
</P>
<P>(4) Dairy ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Cream, milkfat, butter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk, concentrated milk, evaporated milk, sweetened condensed milk, dried milk; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Skim milk, concentrated skim milk, evaporated skim milk, sweetened condensed skim milk, nonfat dry milk; or
</P>
<P>(5) Emulsifying agents, used singly or in combination, the total amount of which does not exceed 1.0 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “milk chocolate” or “milk chocolate coating”.
</P>
<P>(1) When optional alkali ingredients are used in the preparation of the chocolate liquor or the cacao nibs from which the milk chocolate was prepared, the label shall bear the statement “Processed with alkali”, or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific alkali ingredient used in the food. 
</P>
<P>(2) When optional neutralizing agents are used in the preparation of the chocolate liquor or the cacao nibs from which the milk chocolate was prepared, the label shall bear the statement “Processed with neutralizing agents”, or “Processed with ______”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific neutralizing agent used in the food.
</P>
<P>(3) When one or more of the spices, flavorings, or seasonings specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section are used in the breakfast cocoa, the label shall bear an appropriate statement, e.g., “Spice added”, “Flavored with ______”, or “With ______ added”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the spice, flavoring, or seasoning used, in accordance with § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) When two or more of the statements set forth in this paragraph are required, such statements may be combined in a manner that is appropriate, but not misleading.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the statements prescribed in this paragraph showing optional ingredients used shall precede or follow such name without intervening printed or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.135" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.135   Buttermilk chocolate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Buttermilk chocolate is the food that conforms to the standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for milk chocolate in § 163.130, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The optional dairy ingredients are limited to sweet cream buttermilk, concentrated sweet cream buttermilk, dried sweet cream buttermilk, and any combination of these; and
</P>
<P>(2) The finished buttermilk chocolate contains less than 3.39 percent by weight of milkfat and not less than 12 percent by weight of sweet cream buttermilk solids based on those dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, exclusive of any added sweetener or other dairy-derived ingredient that is added beyond that amount that is normally present in the specified dairy ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “buttermilk chocolate”, “buttermilk chocolate coating”, “sweet buttermilk chocolate”, “sweet buttermilk chocolate coating”, “sweet cream buttermilk chocolate”, or “sweet cream buttermilk chocolate coating”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.140   Skim milk chocolate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Skim milk chocolate is the food that conforms to the standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for milk chocolate in § 163.130, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The optional dairy ingredients are limited to skim milk, evaporated skim milk, concentrated skim milk, sweetened condensed skim milk, nonfat dry milk, and any combination of these; and
</P>
<P>(2) The finished skim milk chocolate contains less than 3.39 percent by weight of milkfat and not less than 12 percent by weight of skim milk solids based on those dairy ingredients specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, exclusive of any added sweetener or other dairy-derived ingredient that is added beyond that amount that is normally present in the specified dairy ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “skim milk chocolate”, “skim milk chocolate coating”, “sweet skim milk chocolate”, or “sweet skim milk chocolate coating”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.145" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.145   Mixed dairy product chocolates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Mixed dairy product chocolates are the foods that conform to the standard of identity, and are subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for milk chocolate in § 163.130, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The optional dairy ingredients for each of the foods are mixtures of two or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any dairy ingredients specified in § 163.130;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any dairy ingredients specified in § 163.135;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any dairy ingredients specified in § 163.140; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Malted milk; and
</P>
<P>(2) The finished mixed dairy product chocolates shall contain not less than 12 percent by weight of total milk solids derived from those dairy products referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, exclusive of any added sweetener or other dairy-derived ingredient that is added beyond that amount that is normally present in the specified dairy product, and may contain less than 3.39 percent by weight of milkfat. The quantity of each component used in any such mixture is such that no component contributes less than one third of the weight of the total milk solids contributed by that component which is used in the largest proportion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “chocolate”, or “chocolate coating”, preceded by the designation of the type of milk ingredients used as prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section in order of predominance by weight, e.g., “milk and skim milk chocolate”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.150   Sweet cocoa and vegetable fat coating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Sweet cocoa and vegetable fat coating is the food that conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for sweet chocolate in § 163.123, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) In the preparation of the product, cocoa or a mixture of cocoa and chocolate liquor is used in such quantity that the finished food contains not less than 6.8 percent by weight of nonfat cacao solids, calculated on a moisture-free basis;
</P>
<P>(2) One or more optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section are used; and
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement in § 163.123(a)(2) limiting the total milk solids content to less than 12 percent by weight does not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> (1) Breakfast cocoa, cocoa, lowfat cocoa;
</P>
<P>(2) Chocolate liquor;
</P>
<P>(3) Safe and suitable vegetable derived fats, oils, and stearins other than cacao fat. The fats, oils, and stearins may be hydrogenated;
</P>
<P>(4) Safe and suitable dairy-derived ingredients; and
</P>
<P>(5) Safe and suitable bulking agents, formulation aids, humectants, and texturizers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “sweet cocoa and vegetable fat coating”. Alternatively, the common or usual name of the vegetable derived fat ingredient may be used in the name of the food, e.g., “sweet cocoa and ______ oil coating”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific vegetable fat used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.153" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.153   Sweet chocolate and vegetable fat coating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Sweet chocolate and vegetable fat coating is the food that conforms to the definition and standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for sweet chocolate in § 163.123, except that one or more optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section are used. Compliance with the requirement in § 163.123(a)(2) limiting the total milk solids content to less than 12 percent by weight shall be calculated by including only those dairy ingredients referred to in § 163.123(b)(4), exclusive of any added sweetener or other dairy-derived ingredient that is added beyond that amount that is normally present in the specified dairy ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> (1) Safe and suitable vegetable derived fats, oils, and stearins other than cacao fat. The fats, oils, and stearins may be hydrogenated;
</P>
<P>(2) Safe and suitable dairy-derived ingredients; and
</P>
<P>(3) Safe and suitable bulking agents, formulation aids, humectants, and texturizers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “sweet chocolate and vegetable fat coating”. Alternatively, the common or usual name of the vegetable derived fat ingredient may be used in the name of the food, e.g., “sweet chocolate and ______ oil coating”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific vegetable fat used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.155" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.38.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.155   Milk chocolate and vegetable fat coating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Milk chocolate and vegetable fat coating is the food that conforms to the standard of identity, and is subject to the requirements for label declaration of ingredients for milk chocolate in § 163.130 or skim milk chocolate in § 163.140, except that one or more optional ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section are used. Compliance with the requirement in § 163.130(a)(2) that the product contains not less than 12 percent by weight of nonfat milk solids shall be calculated using only those dairy ingredients referred to in § 163.130(b)(4), exclusive of any added sweetener or other dairy-derived ingredient that is added beyond that amount that is normally present in the specified dairy ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> (1) Safe and suitable vegetable derived oils, fats, and stearins other than cacao fat. The oils, fats, and stearins may be hydrogenated;
</P>
<P>(2) Safe and suitable dairy-derived ingredients; and
</P>
<P>(3) Safe and suitable bulking agents, formulation aids, humectants, and texturizers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “milk chocolate and vegetable fat coating” or “skim milk chocolate and vegetable fat coating”, as appropriate. Alternatively, the common or usual name of the vegetable derived fat ingredient may be used in the name of the food, e.g., “milk chocolate and ______ oil coating”, the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the specific vegetable fat used.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="164" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 164—TREE NUT AND PEANUT PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14475, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.39.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Tree Nut and Peanut Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 164.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.39.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 164.110   Mixed nuts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mixed nuts is the food consisting of a mixture of four or more of the optional shelled tree nut ingredients, with or without one or more of the optional shelled peanut ingredients, of the kinds prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section; except that when 2 ounces or less of the food is packed in transparent containers, three or more of the optional tree nut ingredients shall be present. Each such kind of nut ingredient when used shall be present in a quantity not less than 2 percent and not more than 80 percent by weight of the finished food. For purposes of this section, each kind of tree nut and peanut is an optional ingredient that may be prepared by any suitable method in accordance with good manufacturing practice. The finished food may contain one or more of the optional nonnut ingredients provided for in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional shelled nut ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Almonds, black walnuts, Brazil nuts, cashews, English walnuts (alternatively “walnuts”), filberts, pecans, and other suitable kinds of tree nuts.
</P>
<P>(2) Peanuts of the Spanish, Valencia, Virginia, or similar varieties, or any combination of two or more such varieties.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional nonnut ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section consist of suitable substances that are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or if they are food additives as so defined, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act. Nonnut ingredients that perform a useful function are regarded as suitable, except that color additives are not suitable ingredients of the food.
</P>
<P>(d) The name of the food is “mixed nuts”. If the percentage of a single tree nut ingredient or the total peanut content by weight of the finished food exceeds 50 percent but not 60 percent, the statement “contains up to 60% ______” or “contains 60% ______” or “60% ______” shall immediately follow the name “mixed nuts” and shall appear on the same background, be of the same color or, in the case of multicolors, in the color showing distinct contrast with the background, and be in letters not less than one-half the height of the largest letter in the words “mixed nuts”. The blank is to be filled in with the appropriate name of the predominant nut ingredient; for example, “contains up to 60% pecans” or “contains up to 60% Spanish peanuts”. The numbers “70” or “80” shall be substituted for the number “60” when the percentage of the predominant nut ingredient exceeds 60 but not 70, or exceeds 70 but not 80, respectively. Compliance with the requirements for percentage of nut ingredients of this section and the fill of container requirements of § 164.120(c) will be determined by the following procedure:
</P>
<P>(1) Take at random from a lot, in the case of containers bearing a weight declaration of 16 ounces or less, at least 24 containers, and for containers bearing a weight declaration of more than 16 ounces, enough containers to provide a total quantity of at least 24 pounds of nuts.
</P>
<P>(2) If compliance with § 164.120(c) is to be determined, first follow the procedure set forth therein.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the percent by weight of each nut ingredient present in each container separately. Calculate the average percentage of each nut ingredient present. If the average percent found for each nut ingredient present is 2 percent or more and none of the individual nut ingredients exceeds 80 percent by weight of the finished food, the lot will be deemed to be in compliance with the percentage requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. If the average percent found for a single nut ingredient exceeds 50 percent by weight of the finished food and the average percent found is within the range indicated by the number declared on the label in accordance with this paragraph, the lot will be deemed to be in compliance with the labeling requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Spanish variety of peanuts is used, it shall be declared as “Spanish peanuts”. Other varieties of peanuts shall be declared as “peanuts”, or alternatively “______ peanuts”, the blank being filled in with the varietal name of the peanuts used.
</P>
<P>(2) If the peanut ingredient or ingredients as provided for in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are unblanched, the label shall show that fact by such statement as “Peanuts unblanched”, “Peanuts skins on”, or words of similar import, unless the vignette clearly depicts peanuts with skins on.
</P>
<P>(f) The words and statements specified in paragraph (e) of this section showing the ingredients present shall be listed on the principal display panel or panels or any appropriate information panel without obscuring design, vignettes, or crowding. The declaration shall appear in conspicuous and easily legible letters of boldface print or type the size of which shall be not less than one-half of that required by part 101 of this chapter for the statement of net quantity of contents appearing on the label, but in no case less than one-sixteenth of an inch in height. The entire ingredient statement shall appear on at least one panel of the label. If the label bears any pictorial representation of the mixture of nuts, it shall depict the relative proportions of the nut ingredients of the food. If the label bears a pictorial representation of only one of each nut ingredient present, the nuts shall be depicted in the order of decreasing predominance by weight. A factual statement that the food does not contain a particular nut ingredient or ingredients may be shown on the label if the statement is not misleading and does not result in an insufficiency of label space for the proper declaration of information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14475, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2885, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 164.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.39.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 164.120   Shelled nuts in rigid or semirigid containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a)-(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill of container.</I> (1) The standard of fill for shelled nuts in rigid or semirigid containers is a fill such that the average volume of nuts, from the number of containers specified in § 164.110(d)(1), is not less than 85 percent of the container volume as determined by the method in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The method for determining the percent of fill is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For the shelled nuts in each container, determine the loose volume, the settled volume, and the average volume in cubic centimeters. For the purposes of this subparagraph, consider volume in milliliters to be numerically equal to volume in cubic centimeters. Open the container and pour the nuts loosely into a vertical graduated cylinder (do not tilt) of appropriate size fitted with a funnel which has been modified, if necessary, to provide a minimum opening of 1
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch diameter. (If the loose volume of the nuts is less than 500 milliliters, use a 500-milliliter cylinder with an inside diameter of approximately 1
<FR>7/8</FR> inches; but if the loose volume is 500 milliliters or more, use a 1,000-milliliter cylinder with an inside diameter of approximately 2
<FR>1/4</FR> inches.) Without shaking the cylinder, estimate the location of a horizontal plane representing the average height of the product, read the volume of the nuts, and record as the loose volume. Raise the cylinder 2 inches and allow it a free vertical drop onto a level, firm, but resilient surface (do not tamp) for a total of 5 times and observe the volume as above. Repeat in successive five-drop increments until the nuts have so settled that the volume decreases less than 2 percent in the last five-drop increment. Read the last volume in the manner described above and record as the settled volume. The arithmetical average of the loose volume and the settled volume equals the average volume of nuts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Classify the container by shape and determine its volume in cubic centimeters according to one of the following methods as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) For containers of irregular shape, including glass jars, follow the general method for water capacity of containers as prescribed in § 130.12(a) of this chapter and determine the container volume, considering the water capacity in grams to be numerically equivalent to volume in cubic centimeters, or the water capacity in ounces (avoirdupois) to be equivalent to 28.35 cubic centimeters per ounce.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For box-shaped containers (that is, with opposite sides parallel), measure the inside height, width, and depth and calculate the volume as the product of these three dimensions. For such containers used to enclose vacuum packs and containing 4 ounces or less of the product, consider the height to be the inside height minus three-eighths inch.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) For cylindrical containers, calculate the container volume in cubic centimeters as the product of the height times the square of the diameter, both measured in inches, times 12.87; or as the product of the height times the square of the diameter, both measured in centimeters, times 0.7854. For containers that do not have indented ends, use the inside height and inside diameter as the dimensions. For metal cans with indented ends (that is, metal cans with ends attached by double seams), consider the height to be the outside height at the double seam minus three-eighths inch (0.953 centimeter) and the diameter to be the outside diameter at the double seam minus one-eighth inch (0.318 centimeter). For fiber-bodied containers with indented ends (that is, fiber-bodied cans with metal ends attached by double seams), consider the height to be the outside height at the double seam minus three-eighths inch (0.953 centimeter) and the diameter to be the outside diameter at the double seam minus three-sixteenths inch (0.476 centimeter).
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculate the percent fill of the container as follows: Divide the average volume of nuts found according to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section by the appropriate container volume found according to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section and multiply by 100. The result shall be considered to be the percent fill of the container.
</P>
<P>(3) If shelled nuts fall below the standard of fill of container prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall bear the general statement of substandard fill specified in § 130.14(b) of this chapter, in the manner and form therein specified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 164.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.39.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 164.150   Peanut butter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Peanut butter is the food prepared by grinding one of the shelled and roasted peanut ingredients provided for by paragraph (b) of this section, to which may be added safe and suitable seasoning and stabilizing ingredients provided for by paragraph (c) of this section, but such seasoning and stabilizing ingredients do not in the aggregate exceed 10 percent of the weight of the finished food. To the ground peanuts, cut or chopped, shelled, and roasted peanuts may be added. During processing, the oil content of the peanut ingredient may be adjusted by the addition or subtraction of peanut oil. The fat content of the finished food shall not exceed 55 percent when determined as prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 27.006(a) under “Crude Fat—Official First Action, Direct Method,” in paragraph (a), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The peanut ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Blanched peanuts, in which the germ may or may not be included.
</P>
<P>(2) Unblanched peanuts, including the skins and germ.
</P>
<P>(c) The seasoning and stabilizing ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are suitable substances which are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or if they are food additives as so defined, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Seasoning and stabilizing ingredients that perform a useful function are regarded as suitable, except that artificial flavorings, artificial sweeteners, chemical preservatives, and color additives are not suitable ingredients in peanut butter. Oil products used as optional stabilizing ingredients must be hydrogenated vegetable oils.
</P>
<P>(d) If peanut butter is prepared from unblanched peanuts as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the name shall show that fact by some such statement as “prepared from unblanched peanuts (skins left on).” Such statement shall appear prominently and conspicuously and shall be in type of the same style and not less than half of the point size of that used for the words “peanut butter.” This statement shall immediately precede or follow the words “peanut butter,” without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14475, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11834, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10103, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993; 61 FR 9325, Mar. 8, 1996; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998; 88 FR 53773, Aug. 9, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="165" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 165—BEVERAGES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 343-1, 348, 349, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 57124, Nov. 13, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.40.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 165.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.40.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 165.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A <I>lot</I> is: 
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of determining quality factors related to manufacture, processing, or packing, a collection of primary containers or units of the same size, type, and style produced under conditions as nearly uniform as possible and usually designated by a common container code or marking, or in the absence of any common container code or marking, a day's production.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining quality factors related to distribution and storage, a collection of primary containers or units transported, stored, or held under conditions as nearly uniform as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) A <I>sample</I> consists of 10 subsamples (consumer units), one taken from each of 10 different randomly chosen shipping cases to be representative of a given lot, unless otherwise specified in a specific standard in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) An <I>analytical unit</I> is the portion(s) of food taken from a subsample of a sample for the purpose of analysis.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.40.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Beverages</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 165.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.40.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 165.110   Bottled water.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity</I>—(1) <I>Description.</I> Bottled water is water that is intended for human consumption and that is sealed in bottles or other containers with no added ingredients except that it may optionally contain safe and suitable antimicrobial agents. Fluoride may be optionally added within the limitations established in § 165.110(b)(4)(ii). Bottled water may be used as an ingredient in beverages (e.g., diluted juices, flavored bottled waters). It does not include those food ingredients that are declared in ingredient labeling as “water,” “carbonated water,” “disinfected water,” “filtered water,” “seltzer water,” “soda water,” “sparkling water,” and “tonic water.” The processing and bottling of bottled water shall comply with applicable regulations in part 129 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “bottled water,” “drinking water,” or alternatively one or more of the following terms as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of water from a well tapping a confined aquifer in which the water level stands at some height above the top of the aquifer is “artesian water” or “artesian well water.” Artesian water may be collected with the assistance of external force to enhance the natural underground pressure. On request, plants shall demonstrate to appropriate regulatory officials that the water level stands at some height above the top of the aquifer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of water from a subsurface saturated zone that is under a pressure equal to or greater than atmospheric pressure is “ground water.” Ground water must not be under the direct influence of surface water as defined in 40 CFR 141.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of water containing not less than 250 parts per million (ppm) total dissolved solids (TDS), coming from a source tapped at one or more bore holes or springs, originating from a geologically and physically protected underground water source, may be “mineral water.” Mineral water shall be distinguished from other types of water by its constant level and relative proportions of minerals and trace elements at the point of emergence from the source, due account being taken of the cycles of natural fluctuations. No minerals may be added to this water.
</P>
<P>(iv) The name of water that has been produced by distillation, deionization, reverse osmosis, or other suitable processes and that meets the definition of “purified water” in the United States Pharmacopeia, 23d Revision, January 1, 1995, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 551(a) and 1 CFR part 51. (Copies may be obtained from the United States Pharmacopial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 and may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), may be “purified water” or “demineralized water.” Alternatively, the water may be called “deionized water” if the water has been processed by deionization, “distilled water” if it is produced by distillation, “reverse osmosis water” if the water has been processed by reverse osmosis, and “______ drinking water” with the blank being filled in with one of the defined terms describing the water in this paragraph (e.g., “purified drinking water” or “deionized drinking water”).
</P>
<P>(v) The name of water that, after treatment and possible replacement of carbon dioxide, contains the same amount of carbon dioxide from the source that it had at emergence from the source may be “sparkling bottled water.”
</P>
<P>(vi) The name of water derived from an underground formation from which water flows naturally to the surface of the earth may be “spring water.” Spring water shall be collected only at the spring or through a bore hole tapping the underground formation feeding the spring. There shall be a natural force causing the water to flow to the surface through a natural orifice. The location of the spring shall be identified. Spring water collected with the use of an external force shall be from the same underground stratum as the spring, as shown by a measurable hydraulic connection using a hydrogeologically valid method between the bore hole and the natural spring, and shall have all the physical properties, before treatment, and be of the same composition and quality, as the water that flows naturally to the surface of the earth. If spring water is collected with the use of an external force, water must continue to flow naturally to the surface of the earth through the spring's natural orifice. Plants shall demonstrate, on request, to appropriate regulatory officials, using a hydrogeologically valid method, that an appropriate hydraulic connection exists between the natural orifice of the spring and the bore hole.
</P>
<P>(vii) The name of water that meets the requirements under “Sterility Tests” &lt;71&gt;in the United States Pharmacopeia, 23d Revision, January 1, 1995, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR 51. (Copies may be obtained from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 and may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), may be “sterile water.” Alternatively, the water may be called “sterilized water.”
</P>
<P>(viii) The name of water from a hole bored, drilled, or otherwise constructed in the ground which taps the water of an aquifer may be “well water.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other label statements.</I> (i) If the TDS content of mineral water is below 500 ppm, or if it is greater than 1,500 ppm, the statement “low mineral content” or the statement “high mineral content”, respectively, shall appear on the principal display panel following the statement of identity in type size at least one-half the size of the statement of identity but in no case of less than one-sixteenth of an inch. If the TDS of mineral water is between 500 and 1,500 ppm, no additional statement need appear.
</P>
<P>(ii) When bottled water comes from a community water system, as defined in 40 CFR 141.2, except when it has been treated to meet the definitions in paragraphs (a)(2)(iv) and (a)(2)(vii) of this section and is labeled as such, the label shall state “from a community water system” or, alternatively, “from a municipal source” as appropriate, on the principal display panel or panels. This statement shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow the name of the food without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, other than statements required by paragraph (c) of this section, in type size at least one-half the size of the statement of identity but in no case of less than one-sixteenth of an inch.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the label or labeling of a bottled water product states or implies (e.g., through label statements or vignettes with references to infants) that the bottled water is for use in feeding infants, and the product is not commercially sterile under § 113.3(e)(3)(i) of this chapter, the product's label shall bear conspicuously and on the principal display panel the statement “Not sterile. Use as directed by physician or by labeling directions for use of infant formula.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality.</I> The standard of quality for bottled water, including water for use as an ingredient in beverages (except those described in the labeling as “water,” “carbonated water,” “disinfected water,” “filtered water,” “seltzer water,” “soda water,” “sparkling water,” and “tonic water”), is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> (i) <I>Trihalomethane</I> (THM) means one of the family of organic compounds, named as derivatives of methane, wherein three of the four hydrogen atoms in methane are each substituted by a halogen atom in the molecular structure.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Total trihalomethanes (TTHM)</I> means the sum of the concentration in milligrams per liter of the trihalomethane compounds (trichloromethane, dibromochloromethane, bromodichloromethane, and tribromomethane), rounded to two significant figures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Haloacetic acids</I> (five) (HAA5) means the sum of the concentrations in milligrams per liter of the haloacetic acid compounds (monochloroacetic acid, dichloroacetic acid, trichloroacetic acid, monobromoacetic acid, and dibromoacetic acid), rounded to two significant figures after addition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Microbiological quality.</I> (i) Bottled water shall, when a sample consisting of analytical units of equal volume is examined by the methods described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, meet the following standards of microbiological quality:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Total coliform</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Multiple-tube fermentation (MTF) method.</I> Not more than one of the analytical units in the sample shall have a most probable number (MPN) of 2.2 or more coliform organisms per 100 milliliters and no analytical unit shall have an MPN of 9.2 or more coliform organisms per 100 milliliters; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Membrane filter (MF) method.</I> Not more than one of the analytical units in the sample shall have 4.0 or more coliform organisms per 100 milliliters and the arithmetic mean of the coliform density of the sample shall not exceed one coliform organism per 100 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>E. coli.</I> If <I>E. coli</I> is present, then the bottled water will be deemed adulterated under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Analyses conducted to determine compliance with paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section and § 129.35(a)(3)(i) of this chapter shall be made in accordance with the multiple-tube fermentation (MTF) or the membrane filter (MF) methods described in the applicable sections of “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 21st Ed. (2005), American Public Health Association. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the American Public Health Association, 800 I St. NW., Washington, DC 20001, 202-777-2742 (APHA). You may inspect a copy at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Physical quality.</I> Bottled water shall, when a composite of analytical units of equal volume from a sample is examined by the method described in applicable sections of “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 15th Ed. (1980), American Public Health Association, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51 (copies may be obtained from the American Public Health Association, 800 I St. NW., Washington, DC 20001, 202-777-2742 (APHA), or a copy may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), or at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, for information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>), meet the following standards of physical quality:
</P>
<P>(i) The turbidity shall not exceed 5 units.
</P>
<P>(ii) The color shall not exceed 15 units. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Mineral water is exempt from allowable level. The exemptions are aesthetically based allowable levels and do not relate to a health concern.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) The odor shall not exceed threshold odor No. 3. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Chemical quality.</I> (i)(A) Bottled water shall, when a composite of analytical units of equal volume from a sample is examined by the methods described in paragraph (b)(4)(i)(B) of this section, meet standards of chemical quality and shall not contain chemical substances in excess of the following concentrations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration in milligrams per liter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloride
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenols</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total dissolved solids
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Mineral water is exempt from allowable level. The exemptions are aesthetically based allowable levels and do not relate to a health concern.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) Analyses conducted to determine compliance with paragraph (b)(4)(i)(A) of this section shall be made in accordance with the methods described in the applicable sections of “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 15th Ed. (1980), or “Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes,” Environmental Monitoring and Support Laboratory (EMSL), EPA-600/4-79-020, March 1983, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), both of which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
</P>
<P>(C) Analyses for organic substances shall be determined by the appropriate methods set forth below. The methods in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) (C)(<I>1</I>) and (C)(<I>2</I>) of this section are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51 and are described in “Standard Methods for Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 15th Ed. (1980). Copies may be obtained from the American Public Health Association, 800 I St. NW., Washington DC 20001, and examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) , or the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The methods in paragraphs (b)(4)(i)(C)(<I>3</I>) and (C)(<I>4</I>) are cross-referenced in 40 CFR part 141, subpart C, appendix C.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) “Methods for Organochlorine Pesticides in Industrial Effluents;”
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) “Methods for Chlorinated Phenoxy Acid Herbicides in Industrial Effluents,” November 28, 1973;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) “Part I: The Analysis of Trihalomethanes in Finished Waters by the Purge and Trap Method;” which is cross-referenced in 40 CFR part 141, subpart C, appendix C;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) “Part II: The Analysis of Trihalomethanes in Drinking Water by Liquid/Liquid Extraction,” which is cross-referenced in 40 CFR part 141, subpart C, appendix C;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Bottled water packaged in the United States to which no fluoride is added shall not contain fluoride in excess of the levels in Table 1 and these levels shall be based on the annual average of maximum daily air temperatures at the location where the bottled water is sold at retail.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual average of maximum daily air temperatures (°F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fluoride concentration in milligrams per liter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53.7 and below</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53.8-58.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58.4-63.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.9-70.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70.7-79.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79.3-90.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) Imported bottled water to which no fluoride is added shall not contain fluoride in excess of 1.4 milligrams per liter.
</P>
<P>(C) Bottled water packaged in the United States to which fluoride is added must not contain fluoride in excess of 0.7 milligram per liter.
</P>
<P>(D) Imported bottled water to which fluoride is added must not contain fluoride in excess of 0.7 milligram per liter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Having consulted with EPA as required by section 410 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Food and Drug Administration has determined that bottled water, when a composite of analytical units of equal volume from a sample is examined by the methods listed in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(E) through (b)(4)(iii)(F), and (b)(4)(iii)(G) of this section, shall not contain the following chemical contaminants in excess of the concentrations specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(A) through (b)(4)(iii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The allowable levels for inorganic substances are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Contaminant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration in milligrams per liter (or as specified)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.006
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 (as nitrogen)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (as nitrogen)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total Nitrate and Nitrite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 (as nitrogen)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) The allowable levels for volatile organic chemicals (VOC's) are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Contaminant
<br/>(CAS Reg. No.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration in milligrams per liter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzene (71-43-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon tetrachloride (56-23-5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">o-</E> Dichlorobenzene (95-50-1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-</E> Dichlorobenzene (106-46-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloroethane (107-06-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Dichloroethylene (75-35-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">cis-</E>1,2-Dichloroethylene (156-59-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">trans-</E>1,2-Dichloroethylene (156-60-5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloromethane (75-09-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloropropane (78-87-5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylbenzene (100-41-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monochlorobenzene (108-90-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene (100-42-5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloroethylene (127-18-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene (108-88-3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene (120-82-1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,1-Trichloroethane (71-55-6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2-Trichloroethane (79-00-5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloroethylene (79-01-6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride (75-01-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylenes (1330-20-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) The allowable levels for pesticides and other synthetic organic chemicals (SOC's) are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Contaminant
<br/>(CAS Reg. No.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration in milligrams per liter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alachlor (15972-60-8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Atrazine (1912-24-9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzo(a)pyrene (50-32-8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbofuran (1563-66-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlordane (57-74-9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dalapon (75-99-0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (96-12-8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-D (94-75-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl)adipate (103-23-1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate (117-81-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.006
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinoseb (88-85-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diquat (85-00-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endothall (145-73-3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endrin (72-20-8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dibromide (106-93-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyphosate (1071-53-6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptachlor (76-44-8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptachlor epoxide (1024-57-3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexachlorobenzene (118-74-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexachlorocyclopentadiene (77-47-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lindane (58-89-9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methoxychlor (72-43-5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxamyl (23135-22-0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentachlorophenol (87-86-5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PCB's (as decachlorobiphenyl) (1336-36-3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Picloram (1918-02-1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Simazine (122-34-9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,3,7,8-TCDD (Dioxin) (1746-01-6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toxaphene (8001-35-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,5-TP (Silvex) (93-72-1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(D) The allowable levels for certain chemicals for which EPA has established secondary maximum contaminant levels in its drinking water regulations (40 CFR part 143) are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Contaminant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration in milligrams per liter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfate 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Mineral water is exempt from allowable level. The exemptions are aesthetically based allowable levels and do not relate to a health concern.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(E) Analyses to determine compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(A) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with an applicable method and applicable revisions to the methods listed in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>) through (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>14</I>) of this section and described, unless otherwise noted, in “Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes,” U.S. EPA Environmental Monitoring and Support Laboratory (EMSL), Cincinnati, OH 45258 (EPA-600/4-79-020), March 1983, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this publication are available from the National Technical Information Service (NTIS), U.S. Department of Commerce, 5825 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Antimony shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 204.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this publication are available from the National Technical Information Service, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method D-3697-92—“Standard Test Method for Antimony in Water,” contained in the Annual Book of ASTM Standards, vols. 11.01 and 11.02, 1995, American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, PA 19428, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this publication are available from American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, PA 19428, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Barium shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 208.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 208.1—“Atomic Absorption; direct aspiration,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Metals and Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Beryllium shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 210.2—“Atomic Absorption; Furnace Technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Metals and Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Cadmium shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 213.2—“Atomic Absorption; Furnace Technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Metals and Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Chromium shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 218.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Metals and Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Copper shall be measured as total recoverable metal without filtration using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 220.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 220.1—“Atomic Absorption; direct aspiration,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of these incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Metals and Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Cyanide shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 335.1—“Titrimetric; Spectrophotometric” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 335.2—“Titrimetric; Spectrophotometric” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 335.3—“Colorimetric, Automated UV,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of these incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method D-2036-91—“Standard Test Methods for Cyanides in Water,” contained in the Annual Book of ASTM Standards, vols. 11.01 and 11.02, 1995, American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, PA 19428, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this publication are available from American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, PA 19428, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Lead shall be measured as total recoverable metal without filtration using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 239.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Mercury shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 245.1—“Manual cold vapor technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 245.2—“Automated cold vapor technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of these incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Nickel shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 249.1—“Atomic Absorption; direct aspiration,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 249.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of these incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Metals and Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Nitrate and/or nitrite shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 300.0—“The Determination of Inorganic Anions in Water by Ion Chromatography—Method 300.0,” EPA, EMSL (EPA-600/4-84-017), March 1984, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this publication are available from NTIS, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 353.1—“Colorimetric, automated, hydrazine reduction,” for nitrate only, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 353.2—“Colorimetric, automated, cadmium reduction,” for both nitrate and nitrite, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 353.3—“Spectrophotometric, cadmium reduction,” for both nitrate and nitrite, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Selenium shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 270.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 270.3—“Atomic Absorption; gaseous hydride,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) Thallium shall be measured using the following methods: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 279.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) Arsenic shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Waters and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Revision 5.4, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Method 200.8 is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples—Supplement 1,” EPA/600/R-94/111, May 1994. Copies of this publication are available from the National Technical Information Service (NTIS), PB95-125472, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5825 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption,” Revision 2.2, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Method 200.9 is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples—Supplement 1,” EPA/600/R-94/111, May 1994. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>14</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) Analyses to determine compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(B) and (b)(4)(iii)(C) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with an applicable method or applicable revisions to the methods listed in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(F)(<I>1</I>) through (b)(4)(iii)(F)(<I>22</I>) of this section and described, unless otherwise noted, in “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water,” Office of Research and Development, EMSL, EPA/600/4-88/039, December 1988, or in “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water, Supplement 1,” Office of Research and Development, EMSL, EPA/600/4-90/020, July 1990, or in “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water, Supplement III,” EPA National Exposure Research Laboratory, Office of Research and Development, EPA/600/R-95/131, August 1995, including Errata, November 27, 1995. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of these publications are available from National Technical Information Service, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161. You may inspect a copy at the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 301-827-6860 or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Hearing-impaired or speech-impaired individuals may access this number through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Method 502.1—“Volatile Halogenated Organic Compounds in Water by Purge and Trap Gas Chromatography,” Rev. 2.0, 1989, (applicable to VOC's), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Method 502.2—“Volatile Organic Compounds in Water by Purge and Trap Capillary Column Gas Chromatography with Photoionization and Electrolytic Conductivity Detectors in Series,” Rev. 2.0, 1989, (applicable to VOC's), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Method 503.1—“Volatile Aromatic and Unsaturated Organic Compounds in Water by Purge and Trap Gas Chromatography,” Rev. 2.0, 1989, (applicable to VOC's), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Method 524.1—“Measurement of Purgeable Organic Compounds in Water by Packed Column Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.0, 1989, (applicable to VOC's), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Method 524.2—“Measurement of Purgeable Organic Compounds in Water by Capillary Column Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.0, 1989, (applicable to VOC's), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Method 504—“1,2-Dibromoethane (EDB) and 1,2-Dibromo-3-Chloropropane (DBCP) in Water by Microextraction and Gas Chromatography,” Rev. 2.0, 1989, (applicable to dibromochloropropane (DBCP) and ethylene dibromide (EDB)), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Method 505—“Analysis of Organohalide Pesticides and Commercial Polychlorinated Biphenyl (PCB) Products in Water by Microextraction and Gas Chromatography,” Rev. 2.0, 1989, (applicable to alachlor, atrazine, chlordane, heptachlor, heptachlor epoxide, lindane, methoxychlor, toxaphene, endrin, hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorocyclopentadiene, simazine, and as a screen for PCB's), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Method 506—“Determination of Phthalate and Adipate Esters in Drinking Water by Liquid-Liquid Extraction or Liquid-Solid Extraction and Gas Chromatography with Photoionization Detection,” applicable to di(2-ethylhexyl) adipate which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Method 507—“Determination of Nitrogen- and Phosphorus-Containing Pesticides in Water by Gas Chromatography with a Nitrogen-Phosphorus Detector,” Rev. 2.0, 1989, (applicable to alachlor, atrazine, and simazine), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Method 508—“Determination of Chlorinated Pesticides in Water by Gas Chromatography with an Electron Capture Detector,” Rev. 3.0, 1989, (applicable to chlordane, heptachlor, heptachlor epoxide, lindane, methoxychlor, toxaphene, endrin, hexachlorobenzene, and as a screen for PCB's), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Method 508A—“Screening for Polychlorinated Biphenyls by Perchlorination and Gas Chromatography,” Rev. 1.0, 1989, (used to quantitate PCB's as decachlorobiphenyl if detected in methods 505 or 508 in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(F)(<I>7</I>) or (b)(4)(iii)(F)(<I>9</I>) of this section, respectively, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Method 515.1—“Determination of Chlorinated Acids in Water by Gas Chromatography with an Electron Capture Detector,” Rev. 5.0, 1991, (applicable to 2,4-D, 2,4,5-TP (Silvex), pentachlorophenol, dalapon, dinoseb, and picloram), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) Method 525.1—“Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water by Liquid-Solid Extraction and Capillary Column Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 2.2, May 1991, (applicable to alachlor, atrazine, chlordane, heptachlor, heptachlor epoxide, lindane, methoxychlor, pentachlorophenol, benzo(a)pyrene, di(2-ethylhexyl) adipate, endrin, hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorocyclopentadiene, and simazine), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) Method 531.1—“Measurement of N-Methylcarbamoyloximes and N-Methylcarbamates in Water by Direct Aqueous Injection HPLC with Post Column Derivatization,” Rev. 3.0, 1989, (applicable to carbofuran and oxamyl (vydate)), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) Method 547—“Determination of Glyphosate in Drinking Water by Direct-Aqueous-Injection HPLC, Post-Column Derivatization, and Fluorescence Detection,” (applicable to glyphosate), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) Method 548—“Determination of Endothall in Drinking Water by Aqueous Derivatization, Liquid-Solid Extraction, and Gas Chromatography with Electron-Capture Detection,” (applicable to endothall), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>17</I>) Method 549—“Determination of Diquat and Paraquat in Drinking Water by Liquid-Solid Extraction and HPLC with Ultraviolet Detection,” (applicable to diquat), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>18</I>) Method 550—“Determination of Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons in Drinking Water by Liquid-Liquid Extraction and HPLC with Coupled Ultraviolet and Fluorescence Detection,” (applicable to benzo(a)pyrene and other polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>19</I>) Method 550.1—“Determination of Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons in Drinking Water by Liquid-Solid Extraction and HPLC with Coupled Ultraviolet and Fluorescence Detection,” (applicable to benzo(a)pyrene and other polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of these incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>20</I>) Method 1613—“Tetra- through Octa- Chlorinated Dioxins and Furans by Isotope Dilution HRGC/HRMS,” Rev. A, 1990, EPA, Office of Water Regulations and Standards, Industrial Technology Division, (applicable to 2,3,7,8-TCDD (Dioxin)), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this publication are available from USEPA-OST, Sample Control Center, P.O. Box 1407, Alexandria, VA 22313, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>21</I>) Method 506, Rev. 1.1—“Determination of phthalate and adipate esters in drinking water by liquid/liquid extraction or liquid/solid extraction and gas chromatography with photoionization detection,” EPA/600/R-95/131, 1995, (applicable to di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>22</I>) Method 525.2, Rev. 2.0—“Determination of organic compounds in drinking water by liquid-solid extraction and capillary column gas chromatography/mass spectrometry,” EPA/600/R-95/131, 1995, (applicable to di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
</P>
<P>(G) Analyses to determine compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with an applicable method and applicable revisions to the methods listed in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(G)(<I>1</I>) through (b)(4)(iii)(G)(<I>3</I>) of this section and described, unless otherwise noted, in “Methods of Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Aluminum shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 202.1—“Atomic Absorption; direct aspiration technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 202.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E).
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Silver shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 272.1—“Atomic Absorption; direct aspiration technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 272.2—“Atomic Absorption; furnace technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 200.7—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Atomic Emission Spectrometry,” Rev. 3.3, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 200.8—“Determination of Trace Elements in Water and Wastes by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 4.4, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Method 200.9—“Determination of Trace Elements by Stabilized Temperature Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.2, April 1991, U.S. EPA, EMSL. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental Samples,” Office of Research and Development, Washington, DC 20460, (EPA/600/4-91/010), June 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of these incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Sulfate shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 300.0—“The Determination of Inorganic Anions in Water by Ion Chromatography—Method 300.0,” EPA, EMSL (EPA-600/4-84-017), March 1984, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E)(<I>11</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 375.1—“Colorimetric, Automated, Chloranilate,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 375.3—“Gravimetric,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 375.4—“Turbidimetric,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of these incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) The allowable levels for residual disinfectants and disinfection byproducts are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration in milligrams per liter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disinfection byproducts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"> Bromate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Haloacetic acids (five) (HAA5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.060
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Total Trihalomethanes (TTHM)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Residual disinfectants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chloramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 (as Cl<E T="52">2</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 (as Cl<E T="52">2</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorine dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 (as ClO<E T="52">2</E>)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(I) Analysis to determine compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(H) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with an applicable method listed in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(I)(<I>1</I>) through (b)(4)(iii)(I)(<I>7</I>) of this section and described in “Method 300.1, Determination of Inorganic Anions in Drinking Water by Ion Chromatography,” Rev. 1.0, U.S. EPA, 1997, EPA/600/R-98/118; “Methods for the Determination of Inorganic Substances in Environmental Samples,” U.S. EPA, August 1993, EPA/600/R-93/100; “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water-Supplement II,” U.S. EPA, August 1992, EPA/600/R-92/129; “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water-Supplement III,” U.S. EPA, August 1995, EPA/600/R-95/131; “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., American Public Health Association, 1995; and “Annual Book of ASTM Standards,” vol. 11.01, American Society for Testing and Materials, 1996, which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of the following publications are available from the National Technical Information Service (NTIS): EPA/600/R-95/131 (NTIS number PB95-261616), EPA/600/R-92/129 (NTIS number PB92-207703), EPA/600/R-93/100 (NTIS number PB94-121811), and EPA/600/R-98/118 (NTIS number PB98-169196). NTIS can be contacted at NTIS, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161, 1-800-553-6847 or 703-605-6000, <I>www.ntis.gov.</I> Copies of the publication EPA/600/R-98/118 are also available from the Chemical Exposure Research Branch, Microbiological and Chemical Exposure Assessment Research Division, National Exposure Research Laboratory, U.S. EPA, Cincinnati, OH 45268, 513-569-7757, (FAX) 513-569-7757. Copies of “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., are available from the American Public Health Association, 1015 15th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20005. All of the publications cited in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), or at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Copies of “Annual Book of ASTM Standards,” 1996, vol. 11.01, are available from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohoken, PA 19428, or may be examined at the Office of the Federal Register. Copies of the methods incorporated by reference in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section may also be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Bromate shall be measured using the following method: Method 300.1—“Determination of Inorganic Anions in Drinking Water by Ion Chromatography,” Rev. 1.0, U.S. EPA, 1997, EPA/600/R-98/118, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Chlorite shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 300.0—“Determination of Inorganic Anions by Ion Chromatography,” Rev. 2.1. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Inorganic Substances in Environmental Samples,” U.S. EPA, August 1993, EPA/600/R-93/100, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 300.1—“Determination of Inorganic Anions in Drinking Water by Ion Chromatography,” Rev. 1.0, U.S. EPA, 1997, EPA/600/R-98/118, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) HAA5 shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 552.1—“Determination of Haloacetic Acids and Dalapon in Drinking Water by Ion Exchange Liquid-Solid Extraction and Gas Chromatography with Electron Capture Detection,” Rev. 1.0. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water-Supplement II,” U.S. EPA, August 1992, EPA/600/R-92/129, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 552.2—“Determination of Haloacetic Acids and Dalapon in Drinking Water by Liquid-Liquid Extraction, Derivatization and Gas Chromatography with Electron Capture Detection,” Rev. 1.0. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water-Supplement III,” U.S. EPA, August 1993, EPA/600/R-95/131, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 6251 B—“Disinfection By-Products: Haloacetic Acids and Trichlorophenol,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) TTHM shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 502.2—“Volatile Organic Compounds in Water by Purge and Trap Capillary Column Gas Chromatography with Photoionization and Electrolytic Conductivity Detectors in Series,” Rev. 2.1. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water-Supplement III,” U.S. EPA, August 1993, EPA/600/R-95/131, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 524.2—“Measurement of Purgeable Organic Compounds in Water by Capillary Column Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry,” Rev. 1.0. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water-Supplement III,” U.S. EPA, August 1993, EPA/600/R-95/131, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 551.1—“Determination of Chlorination Disinfection Byproducts, Chlorinated Solvents, and Halogenated Pesticides/Herbicides in Drinking Water by Liquid-Liquid Extraction and Gas Chromatography with Electron-Capture Detection,” Rev. 1.0. The revision is contained in the manual entitled “Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Drinking Water-Supplement III,” U.S. EPA, August 1993, EPA/600/R-95/131, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Compliance with the chloramine standard can be determined by measuring combined or total chlorine. The following methods shall be used to measure chloramine:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) ASTM Method D1253-86—“ Standard Test Method for Residual Chlorine in Water,” which is contained in the book entitled “Annual Book of ASTM Standards,” 1996, vol. 11.01, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 4500-Cl D—“Amperometric Titration Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 4500-Cl F—“DPD Ferrous Titrimetric Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 4500-Cl G—“DPD Colorimetric Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Method 4500-Cl E—“Low-Level Amperometric Titration Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Method 4500-Cl I—“Iodometric Electrode Technique,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Compliance with the chlorine standard can be determined by measuring free or total chlorine. The following methods shall be used to measure chlorine:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) ASTM Method D1253-86—“Standard Test Method for Residual Chlorine in Water,” which is contained in the book entitled “Annual Book of ASTM Standards,” 1996, vol. 11.01, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 4500-Cl D—“Amperometric Titration Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Method 4500-Cl F—“DPD Ferrous Titrimetric Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Method 4500-Cl G—“DPD Colorimetric Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Method 4500-Cl E—“Low-Level Amperometric Titration Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Method 4500-Cl I—“Iodometric Electrode Technique,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Method 4500-Cl H—“Syringaldazine (FACTS) Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Chlorine dioxide shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Method 4500-ClO<E T="52">2</E> D—“DPD Method,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Method 4500-ClO<E T="52">2</E>E—“Amperometric Method II,” which is contained in the book entitled “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 19th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Radiological quality.</I> (i) Bottled water shall, when a composite of analytical units of equal volume from a sample is examined by the methods described in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, meet standards of radiological quality as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The bottled water shall not contain a combined radium-226 and radium-228 activity in excess of 5 picocuries per liter of water.
</P>
<P>(B) The bottled water shall not contain a gross alpha particle activity (including radium-226, but excluding radon and uranium) in excess of 15 picocuries per liter of water.
</P>
<P>(C) The bottled water shall not contain beta particle and photon radioactivity from manmade radionuclides in excess of that which would produce an annual dose equivalent to the total body or any internal organ of 4 millirems per year calculated on the basis of an intake of 2 liters of the water per day. If two or more beta or photon-emitting radionuclides are present, the sum of their annual dose equivalent to the total body or to any internal organ shall not exceed 4 millirems per year.
</P>
<P>(D) The bottled water shall not contain uranium in excess of 30 micrograms per liter of water.
</P>
<P>(ii) Analyses conducted to determine compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section shall be made in accordance with the methods described in the applicable sections of “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., may be obtained from the American Public Health Association, 1015 15th St. NW., Washington, DC 20005. Copies of the methods incorporated by reference in this paragraph (b)(5)(ii) may also be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), or at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Combined radium-226/-228 shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Method 7500-Ra B—“Precipitation Method,” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Method 7500-Ra D—“Sequential Precipitation Method,” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Gross alpha particle radioactivity shall be measured using the following method: Method 7110 C—“Coprecipitation Method for Gross Alpha Radioactivity in Drinking Water,” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Beta particle and photon radioactivity shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Method 7500-Sr B—“Precipitation Method,” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Method 7500-
<SU>3</SU>H B—“Liquid Scintillation Spectrometric Method,” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Method 7120 B—“Gamma Spectroscopic Method,” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Uranium shall be measured using the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Method 7500-U B—“Radiochemical Method” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Method 7500-U C—“Isotopic Method” which is contained in “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in the introductory text of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label statements.</I> When the microbiological, physical, chemical, or radiological quality of bottled water is below that prescribed by paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(5), of this section, the label shall bear the statement of substandard quality specified in § 130.14(a) of this chapter except that, as appropriate, instead of or in addition to the statement specified in § 130.14(a) the following statement(s) shall be used:
</P>
<P>(1) “Contains Excessive Bacteria” if the bottled water fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) “Excessively Turbid”, “Abnormal Color”, and/or “Abnormal Odor” if the bottled water fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) (i), (ii), or (iii), respectively, of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) “Contains Excessive ______,” with the blank filled in with the name of the chemical for which a maximum contaminant level in paragraph (b)(4) of this section is exceeded (e.g., “Contains Excessive Arsenic,” “Contains Excessive Trihalomethanes”) except that “Contains Excessive Chemical Substances” may be used if the bottled water is not mineral water.
</P>
<P>(4) “Excessively Radioactive” if the bottled water fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adulteration.</I> Bottled water containing a substance at a level considered injurious to health under section 402(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), or that consists in whole or in part of any filthy, putrid, or decomposed substance, or that is otherwise unfit for food under section 402(a)(3) of the act is deemed to be adulterated, regardless of whether or not the water bears a label statement of substandard quality prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section. If <I>E. coli</I> is present in bottled water, then the bottled water will be deemed adulterated under section 402(a)(3) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57124, Nov. 13, 1995]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 165.110, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="166" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 166—MARGARINE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 347, 348, 371, 379e.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 166.40" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.41.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 166.40   Labeling of margarine.</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was amended by Pub. L. 459, 81st Congress (64 Stat. 20) on colored oleomargarine or margarine by adding thereto a new section numbered 407. Among other things, this section requires that there appear on the label of the package the word “oleomargarine” or “margarine” in type or lettering at least as large as any other type or lettering on the label, and a full and accurate statement of all the ingredients contained in such oleomargarine or margarine. It provides that these requirements “shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any of the other requirements of this Act”.
</P>
<P>(a) Under section 403(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, any article that is represented as or purports to be oleomargarine or margarine must conform to the definition and standard of identity for oleomargarine or margarine promulgated under section 401 of the act (Subpart B of this part), and its label must bear the name “oleomargarine” or “margarine”.
</P>
<P>(b) The identity standard for oleomargarine or margarine applies to both the uncolored and the colored article.
</P>
<P>(c) In considering the requirement that the word “oleomargarine” or “margarine” be in type or lettering at least as large as any other type or lettering on the label, it must be borne in mind that at least three factors are involved—the height of each letter, the area occupied by each letter as measured by a closely fitting rectangle drawn around it, and the boldness of letters or breadth of the lines forming the letters. The type or lettering used should meet the following tests:
</P>
<P>(1) The height of each letter in the word “oleomargarine” or “margarine” should equal or exceed the height of any other letter elsewhere on the label.
</P>
<P>(2) The area of the closely fitting rectangle with respect to any of the letters in the word “oleomargarine” or “margarine” should equal or exceed the area of such rectangle applied to the same or a corresponding letter elsewhere on the label. 
</P>
<P>(3) The letters in the word “oleomargarine” or “margarine” should be equal to or exceed in prominence and boldness, such as breadth of lines forming the letters, the same or corresponding letters elsewhere on the label.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) The word “oleomargarine” or “margarine” (and thus the other information called for by the statute) should appear on each panel of the package label that might reasonably be selected by the grocer for display purposes at the point of sale.
</P>
<P>(f) The amendment covering colored oleomargarine or colored margarine states that, “for the purposes of * * * section 407 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended, the term ‘oleomargarine’ or ‘margarine’ includes: (1) All substances, mixtures, and compounds known as oleomargarine or margarine; (2) all substances, mixtures, and compounds which have a consistency similar to that of butter and which contain any edible oils or fats other than milk fat if made in imitation or semblance of butter”. Notwithstanding the difference between this definition and the definition and standard of identity for oleomargarine or margarine promulgated under section 401 of the act, it was the clear intent of Congress that any article which is represented as or purports to be oleomargarine or margarine is misbranded if it fails to comply with the definition and standard of identity for oleomargarine or margarine even though it may meet the statutory definition.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 407(a) states that “Colored oleomargarine or colored margarine which is sold in the same State or Territory in which it is produced shall be subject in the same manner and to the same extent to the provisions of this act as if it had been introduced in interstate commerce”.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 407(b)(4) requires that each part of the contents of the package be “contained in a wrapper which bears the word ‘oleomargarine’ or ‘margarine’ in type or lettering not smaller than 20-point type”. The Food and Drug Administration interprets this to mean that the height of the actual letters is no less than 20 points, or 
<FR>20/72</FR> of 1 inch.
</P>
<P>(i) The wrappers on the subdivisions of oleomargarine or margarine contained within the package sold at retail are labels within the meaning of section 201(k) and shall contain all of the label information required by sections 403 and 407 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, just as in the case of 1-pound cartons, except that wrappers on the subdivisions contained within the retail package shall be exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403 (e)(1), (g)(2), (i)(2), and (k) of the act with respect to the requirements for label declaration of the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor and label declaration of ingredients when (1) the subdivisions are securely enclosed within and are not intended to be separated from the retail package under conditions of retail sale; (2) the wrappers on the subdivisions are labeled with the statement “This Unit Not Labeled For Retail Sale” in type size not less than one-sixteenth inch in height. The word “Individual” may be used in lieu of or immediately preceding the word “Retail” in the statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14477, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 31005, June 12, 1981; 47 FR 32421, July 27, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Margarine</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 166.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.41.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 166.110   Margarine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Margarine (or oleomargarine) is the food in plastic form or liquid emulsion, containing not less than 80 percent fat determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 16.206, “Indirect Method,” under the heading “Fat (47)—Official Final Action,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Margarine contains only safe and suitable ingredients, as defined in § 130.3(d) of this chapter. It is produced from one or more of the optional ingredients in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and one or more of the optional ingredients in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to which may be added one or more of the optional ingredients in paragraph (b) of this section. Margarine contains vitamin A as provided for in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Edible fats and/or oils, or mixtures of these, whose origin is vegetable or rendered animal carcass fats, or any form of oil from a marine species that has been affirmed as GRAS or listed as a food additive for this use, any or all of which may have been subjected to an accepted process of physico-chemical modification. They may contain small amounts of other lipids, such as phosphatides or unsaponifiable constituents, and of free fatty acids naturally present in the fat or oil.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the following aqueous phase ingredients:
</P>
<P>(i) Water and/or milk and/or milk products.
</P>
<P>(ii) Suitable edible protein including, but not limited to, the liquid, condensed, or dry form of whey, whey modified by the reduction of lactose and/or minerals, nonlactose containing whey components, albumin, casein, caseinate, vegetable proteins, or soy protein isolate, in amounts not greater than reasonably required to accomplish the desired effect.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any mixture of two or more of the articles named under paragraphs (a)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The ingredients in paragraphs (a)(2) (i), (ii), and (iii) of this section shall be pasteurized and then may be subjected to the action of harmless bacterial starters. One or more of the articles designated in paragraphs (a)(2) (i), (ii), and (iii) of this section is intimately mixed with the edible fat and/or ingredients to form a solidified or liquid emulsion.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin A in such quantity that the finished margarine contains not less than 15,000 international units per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional ingredients.</I> (1) Vitamin D in such quantity that the finished oleomargarine contains not less than 1,500 international units of vitamin D per pound.
</P>
<P>(2) Salt (sodium chloride); potassium chloride for dietary margarine or oleomargarine.
</P>
<P>(3) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(4) Emulsifiers.
</P>
<P>(5) Preservatives including but not limited to the following within these maximum amounts in percent by weight of the finished food: Sorbic acid, benzoic acid and their sodium, potassium, and calcium salts, individually, 0.1 percent, or in combination, 0.2 percent, expressed as the acids; calcium disodium EDTA, 0.0075 percent; propyl, octyl, and dodecyl gallates, BHT, BHA, ascorbyl palmitate, ascorbyl stearate, all individually or in combination, 0.02 percent; stearyl citrate, 0.15 percent; isopropyl citrate mixture, 0.02 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Color additives. For the purpose of this subparagraph, provitamin A (beta-carotene) shall be deemed to be a color additive.
</P>
<P>(7) Flavoring substances. If the flavoring ingredients impart to the food a flavor other than in semblance of butter, the characterizing flavor shall be declared as part of the name of the food in accordance with § 101.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Acidulants.
</P>
<P>(9) Alkalizers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food for which a definition and standard of identity are prescribed in this section is “margarine” or “oleomargarine”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter. For the purposes of this section the use of the term “milk” unqualified means milk from cows. If any milk other than cow's milk is used in whole or in part, the animal source shall be identified in conjunction with the word milk in the ingredient statement. Colored margarine shall be subject to the provisions of section 407 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14478, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11834, Mar. 19, 1982; 48 FR 13024, Mar. 29, 1983; 49 FR 10103, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993; 58 FR 21649, Apr. 23, 1993; 59 FR 26939, May 25, 1994; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="168" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 168—SWEETENERS AND TABLE SIRUPS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Sweeteners and Table Sirups</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.110" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.110   Dextrose anhydrous.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dextrose anhydrous is purified and crystallized D-glucose without water of crystallization and conforms to the specifications of § 168.111, except that the total solids content is not less than 98.0 percent m/m.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “Dextrose anhydrous” or “Anhydrous dextrose” or alternatively, “______ sugar anhydrous” or “Anhydrous sugar”, with the blank to be filled with the name of the food source, for example, “Corn sugar anhydrous”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.111" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.111   Dextrose monohydrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dextrose monohydrate is purified and crystallized D-glucose containing one molecule of water of crystallization with each molecule of D-glucose.
</P>
<P>(b) The food shall meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The total solids content is not less than 90.0 percent mass/mass (m/m), and the reducing sugar content (dextrose equivalent), expressed as D-glucose, is not less than 99.5 percent m/m calculated on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The sulfated ash content is not more than 0.25 percent m/m (calculated on a dry basis), and the sulfur dioxide content is not more than 20 mg/kg.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Dextrose monohydrate” or “Dextrose” or alternatively, “______ sugar monohydrate” or “______ sugar”, with the blank to be filled with the name of the food source, for example, “Corn sugar monohydrate” or “Corn sugar”.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, the methods of analysis to be used to determine if the food meets the specifications of paragraph (b) (1) and (2) of this section are the following sections in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Total solids content, 31.005.
</P>
<P>(2) Reducing sugar content, section 31.220(a).
</P>
<P>(3) Sulfated ash content, section 31.216.
</P>
<P>(4) Sulfur dioxide content, sections 20.106-20.111.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11834, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10103, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.120" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.120   Glucose sirup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Glucose sirup is the purified, concentrated, aqueous solution of nutritive saccharides obtained from edible starch.
</P>
<P>(b) The food shall meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The total solids content is not less than 70.0 percent mass/mass (m/m), and the reducing sugar content (dextrose equivalent), expressed as D-glucose, is not less than 20.0 percent m/m calculated on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The sulfated ash content is not more than 1.0 percent m/m (calculated on a dry basis), and the sulfur dioxide content is not more than 40 mg/kg. 
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Glucose sirup”. When the food is derived from a specific type of starch, the name may alternatively be “______ sirup”, the blank to be filled in with the name of the starch. For example, “Corn sirup”, “Wheat sirup”, “Tapioca sirup”. When the starch is derived from sorghum grain, the alternative name of the food is “Sorghum grain sirup”. The word “sirup” may also be spelled “syrup”.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, the methods of analysis to be used to determine if the food meets the specifications of paragraph (b)(1) and (2) of this section are the following sections in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Total solids content, sections 31.208-31.209.
</P>
<P>(2) Reducing sugar content, section 31.220(a).
</P>
<P>(3) Sulfated ash content, section 31.216.
</P>
<P>(4) Sulfur dioxide content, sections 20.106-20.111.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11834, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10103, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.121" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.121   Dried glucose sirup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dried glucose sirup is glucose sirup from which the water has been partially removed and conforms to the specifications of § 168.120, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The total solids content is not less than 90.0 percent m/m when the reducing sugar content (dextrose equivalent), expressed as D-glucose, is not less than 88.0 percent m/m, calculated on a dry basis; or
</P>
<P>(2) The total solids content is not less than 93.0 percent m/m when the reducing sugar content, (dextrose equivalent) expressed as D-glucose, is less than 88.0 percent m/m, calculated on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the food is “Dried glucose sirup” or “Glucose sirup solids”. When the food is derived from a specific type of starch, the name may alternatively be “Dried ______ sirup” or “______ sirup solids”, the blank to be filled in with the name of the starch; for example, “Dried corn sirup”, “Corn sirup solids”, “Dried wheat sirup”, “Wheat sirup solids”, “Dried tapioca sirup”, “Tapioca sirup solids”. When the starch is derived from sorghum grain, the alternative name of the food is “Dried sorghum grain sirup” or “Sorghum grain sirup solids”. The word “sirup” may also be spelled “syrup”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.122" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.122   Lactose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lactose is the carbohydrate normally obtained from whey. It may be anhydrous or contain one molecule of water of crystallization or be a mixture of both forms.
</P>
<P>(b) The food shall meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The lactose content is not less than 98.0 percent, mass over mass (m/m), calculated on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The sulfated ash content is not more than 0.3 percent, m/m, calculated on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(3) The pH of a 10.0-percent m/m solution is not less than 4.5 nor more than 7.5.
</P>
<P>(4) The loss on drying for 16 hours at 120 °C is not more than 6.0 percent, m/m.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Lactose” or, alternatively, “Milk sugar”.
</P>
<P>(d) The methods of analysis in paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), (d)(4), and (d)(5) of this section are to be used to determine whether the food meets the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(4) of this section. The methods are contained in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists”, 14th Ed. (1984), including the 4th Supp. (1988), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies of the material incorporated by reference may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Lactose content, sections 31.064 to 31.071, “Purity of Lactose, Liquid Chromatographic Method,” First Action, 14th Ed. (1984), pp. 583 and 584.
</P>
<P>(2) Lactose content, sections 31.064 to 31.071, “Purity of Lactose, Liquid Chromatographic Method,” “Changes in Official Methods of Analysis,” 14th Ed., 4th Supp. (1988), p. 212. This reference recognizes the change in status of the method from first action to final action.
</P>
<P>(3) Sulfated ash content, section 31.014, “Ash of Sugars and Sirups,” Final Action, Sulfated Ash, 14th Ed. (1984), p. 575.
</P>
<P>(4) pH, section 14.022, “pH of Flour, Potentiometric Method,” Final Action, except that a 10-percent m/m solution of lactose in water is used for the determination, 14th Ed. (1984), p. 252.
</P>
<P>(5) Loss on drying at 120 °C, section 31.070, 14th Ed. (1984), p. 584.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11834, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10103, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 55 FR 8459, Mar. 8, 1990; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.130" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.130   Cane sirup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cane sirup is the liquid food derived by concentration and heat treatment of the juice of sugarcane (<I>Saccharum officinarum</I> L.) or by solution in water of sugarcane concrete made from such juice. It contains not less than 74 percent by weight of soluble solids derived solely from such juice. The concentration may be adjusted with or without added water. It may contain one or more of the optional ingredients provided for in paragraph (b) of this section. All ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional ingredients that may be used in cane sirup are:
</P>
<P>(1) Salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Preservatives.
</P>
<P>(3) Defoaming agents.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Cane sirup” or “Sugar cane sirup”. Alternatively, the word “sirup” may be spelled “syrup”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.140   Maple sirup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Maple sirup is the liquid food derived by concentration and heat treatment of the sap of the maple tree (<I>Acer</I>) or by solution in water of maple sugar (mapel concrete) made from such sap. It contains not less than 66 percent by weight of soluble solids derived solely from such sap. The concentration may be adjusted with or without added water. It may contain one or more of the optional ingredients provided for in paragraph (b) of this section. All ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional ingredients that may be used in maple sirup are:
</P>
<P>(1) Salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Chemical preservatives.
</P>
<P>(3) Defoaming agents.
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Maple sirup”. Alternatively, the word “sirup” may be spelled “syrup”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2896, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.160" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.160   Sorghum sirup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sorghum sirup is the liquid food derived by concentration and heat treatment of the juice of sorghum cane (sorgos) (<I>Sorghum vulgare</I>). It contains not less than 74 percent by weight of soluble solids derived solely from such juice. The concentration may be adjusted with or without added water. It may contain one or more of the optional ingredients provided for in paragraph (b) of this section. All ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional ingredients that may be used in sorghum sirup are:
</P>
<P>(1) Salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Chemical preservatives.
</P>
<P>(3) Defoaming agents.
</P>
<P>(4) Enzymes.
</P>
<P>(5) Anticrystallizing agents.
</P>
<P>(6) Antisolidifying agents. 
</P>
<P>(c) The name of the food is “Sorghum sirup” or “Sorghum”. Alternatively, the word “sirup” may be spelled “syrup”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.42.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.180   Table sirup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Table sirup is the liquid food consisting of one or more of the optional sweetening ingredients provided for in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The food contains not less than 65 percent soluble sweetener solids by weight and is prepared with or without added water. It may contain one or more of the optional ingredients prescribed in paragraphs (b)(2) through (12) of this section. All ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable. (Vitamins, minerals, and protein added for nutritional purposes and artificial sweeteners are not considered to be suitable ingredients for this food.)
</P>
<P>(b) The optional ingredients that may be used in table sirup are:
</P>
<P>(1) One or more of the nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners provided for in this paragraph (b)(1). When a sweetener provided for in paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section is used it shall constitute not less than 2 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(i) The sirups identified by §§ 168.130, 168.140, and 168.160, except that the use of any such ingredient is so limited that the finished food does not meet the requirement prescribed for any sirup by § 168.130, § 168.140, or § 168.160.
</P>
<P>(ii) Honey.
</P>
<P>(iii) Other nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(2) Butter, in a quantity not less than 2 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(3) Edible fats and oils, except that, in products designated as “buttered sirups”, butter as provided for in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is the only fat that may be used.
</P>
<P>(4) Emulsifiers or stabilizers or both.
</P>
<P>(5) Natural and artificial flavorings, either fruit or nonfruit, alone or in carriers.
</P>
<P>(6) Color additives.
</P>
<P>(7) Salt.
</P>
<P>(8) Chemical preservatives.
</P>
<P>(9) Viscosity adjusting agents.
</P>
<P>(10) Acidifying, alkalizing, or buffering agents.
</P>
<P>(11) Defoaming agents.
</P>
<P>(12) Any other ingredient (e.g., shredded coconut, ground orange peel) that is not incompatible with other ingredients in the food.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided for in this paragraph and in paragraphs (d) (2) and (3) of this section, the name of the food is “Table sirup”, “Sirup”, “Pancake sirup”, “Waffle sirup”, “Pancake and waffle sirup”, or “______ sirup”, the blank being filled in with the word or words that designate the sweetening ingredient that characterizes the food, except “maple”, “cane”, or “sorghum” alone, such sirups being required to comply in all respects with §§ 168.130, 168.140, and 168.160, respectively, and in the case of more than one sweetening ingredient, in descending order of predominance by weight in the food. The type shall be of uniform style and size.
</P>
<P>(1) When one of the sweeteners constitutes at least 80 percent of the total sweetener solids, the name of the food may be designated as the corresponding sirup, for example, “Corn sirup”, provided that the name is immediately and conspicuously followed, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, by the statement “with ______” as part of the name, the blank being filled in with the name or names of each additional sweetening ingredient present, stated in a clear legible manner in letters of uniform style and size not less than one-half the height of, nor larger than, the letters used in the name of the principal sweetener.
</P>
<P>(2) When butter is used, as provided for in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the name of the food may be “Buttered ______”, the blank being filled in with the name otherwise prescribed in this paragraph. The percentage by weight of butter present shall be declared as part of the name of the food as prescribed by part 102 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Alternatively, the word “sirup” may be spelled “syrup”. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement (other than in the ingredient listing) or a vignette identifying a flavor may be included on the label only if such flavor contributes the primary recognizable flavor that characterizes the sirup. When maple, honey, or both maple and honey are represented as the characterizing flavors, the total quantity of maple sirup or honey, singly, or of maple sirup and honey in combination, shall be not less than 10 percent by weight of the finished food. The presence of any natural or artificial flavor in the food shall be declared on the label as prescribed by the applicable sections of part 101 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The percentage of any optional ingredient used shall be declared as part of the name of the food as prescribed by part 102 of this chapter when all of the following conditions apply to the use of the ingredient:
</P>
<P>(i) It is one of the characterizing ingredients permitted by paragraphs (b)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ingredient is either named on the label other than in the list of ingredients or is suggested by vignette or other labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="169" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 169—FOOD DRESSINGS AND FLAVORINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 343, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14481, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.3" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>vanilla beans</I> means the properly cured and dried fruit pods of <I>Vanilla planifolia Andrews</I> and of <I>Vanilla tahitensis Moore.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>unit weight of vanilla beans</I> means, in the case of vanilla beans containing not more than 25 percent moisture, 13.35 ounces of such beans; and, in the case of vanilla beans containing more than 25 percent moisture, it means the weight of such beans equivalent in content of moisture-free vanilla-bean solids to 13.35 ounces of vanilla beans containing 25 percent moisture. (For example, one unit weight of vanilla beans containing 33.25 percent moisture amounts to 15 ounces.) The moisture content of vanilla beans is determined by the method prescribed in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 7.004 and 7.005, which is incorporated by reference, except that the toluene used is blended with 20 percent by volume of benzene and the total distillation time is 4 hours. Copies of the material incorporated by reference may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> To prepare samples for analysis, the pods are chopped into pieces approximately 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch in longest dimension, using care to avoid moisture change.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>unit of vanilla constituent</I> means the total sapid and odorous principles extractable from one unit weight of vanilla beans, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, by an aqueous alcohol solution in which the content of ethyl alcohol by volume amounts to not less than 35 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14481, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11834, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10103, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 14035, Mar. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Standardized Food Dressings and Flavorings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.140" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.140   Mayonnaise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Mayonnaise is the emulsified semisolid food prepared from vegetable oil(s), one or both of the acidifying ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and one or more of the egg yolk-containing ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section. One or more of the ingredients specified in paragraph (d) of this section may also be used. The vegetable oil(s) used may contain an optional crystallization inhibitor as specified in paragraph (d)(7) of this section. All the ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable. Mayonnaise contains not less than 65 percent by weight of vegetable oil. Mayonnaise may be mixed and packed in an atmosphere in which air is replaced in whole or in part by carbon dioxide or nitrogen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acidifying ingredients.</I> (1) Any vinegar or any vinegar diluted with water to an acidity, calculated as acetic acid, of not less than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> percent by weight, or any such vinegar or diluted vinegar mixed with an optional acidifying ingredient as specified in paragraph (d)(6) of this section. For the purpose of this paragraph, any blend of two or more vinegars is considered to be a vinegar.
</P>
<P>(2) Lemon juice and/or lime juice in any appropriate form, which may be diluted with water to an acidity, calculated as citric acid, of not less than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Egg yolk-containing ingredients.</I> Liquid egg yolks, frozen egg yolks, dried egg yolks, liquid whole eggs, frozen whole eggs, dried whole eggs, or any one or more of the foregoing ingredients listed in this paragraph with liquid egg white or frozen egg white.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> The following optional ingredients may also be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(3) Any spice (except saffron or turmeric) or natural flavoring, provided it does not impart to the mayonnaise a color simulating the color imparted by egg yolk.
</P>
<P>(4) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(5) Sequestrant(s), including but not limited to calcium disodium EDTA (calcium disodium ethylenediamine- tetraacetate) and/or disodium EDTA (disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate), may be used to preserve color and/or flavor.
</P>
<P>(6) Citric and/or malic acid in an amount not greater than 25 percent of the weight of the acids of the vinegar or diluted vinegar, calculated as acetic acid.
</P>
<P>(7) Crystallization inhibitors, including but not limited to oxystearin, lecithin, or polyglycerol esters of fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Mayonnaise”.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14481, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 34246, Aug. 4, 1992; 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.150" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.150   Salad dressing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> Salad dressing is the emulsified semisolid food prepared from vegetable oil(s), one or both of the acidifying ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section, one or more of the egg yolk-containing ingredients specified in paragraph (c) of this section, and a starchy paste prepared as specified in paragraph (e) of this section. One or more of the ingredients in paragraph (e) of this section may also be used. The vegetable oil(s) used may contain an optional crystallization inhibitor as specified in paragraph (e)(8) of this section. All the ingredients from which the food is fabricated shall be safe and suitable. Salad dressing contains not less than 30 percent by weight of vegetable oil and not less egg yolk-containing ingredient than is equivalent in egg yolk solids content to 4 percent by weight of liquid egg yolks. Salad dressing may be mixed and packed in an atmosphere in which air is replaced in whole or in part by carbon dioxide or nitrogen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acidifying ingredients.</I> (1) Any vinegar or any vinegar diluted with water, or any such vinegar or diluted vinegar mixed with an optional acidifying ingredient as specified in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. For the purpose of this paragraph, any blend of two or more vinegars is considered to be a vinegar.
</P>
<P>(2) Lemon juice and/or lime juice in any appropriate form, which may be diluted with water.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Egg yolk-containing ingredients.</I> Liquid egg yolks, frozen egg yolks, dried egg yolks, liquid whole eggs, frozen whole eggs, dried whole eggs, or any one of more of the foregoing ingredients listed in this paragraph with liquid egg white or frozen egg white.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Starchy paste.</I> It may be prepared from a food starch, food starch-modified, tapioca flour, wheat flour, rye flour, or any two or more of these. Water may be added in the preparation of the paste.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other optional ingredients.</I> The following optional ingredients may also be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(3) Any spice (except saffron or turmeric) or natural flavoring, provided it does not impart to the salad dressing a color simulating the color imparted by egg yolk.
</P>
<P>(4) Monosodium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(5) Stabilizers and thickeners. Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate may be added in accordance with § 172.810 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) Citric and/or malic acid may be used in an amount not greater than 25 percent of the weight of the acids of the vinegar or diluted vinegar calculated as acetic acid.
</P>
<P>(7) Sequestrant(s), including but not limited to calcium disodium EDTA (calcium disodium ethylenediamine-tetraacetate) and/or disodium EDTA (disodium ethylenediamine-tetraactetate), may be used to preserve color and/or flavor.
</P>
<P>(8) Crystallization inhibitors, including but not limited to oxystearin, lecithin, or polyglycerol esters of fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nomenclature.</I> The name of the food is “Salad dressing”.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14481, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 25325, May 17, 1977; 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.175" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.175   Vanilla extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vanilla extract is the solution in aqueous ethyl alcohol of the sapid and odorous principles extractable from vanilla beans. In vanilla extract the content of ethyl alcohol is not less than 35 percent by volume and the content of vanilla constituent, as defined in § 169.3(c), is not less than one unit per gallon. The vanilla constituent may be extracted directly from vanilla beans or it may be added in the form of concentrated vanilla extract or concentrated vanilla flavoring or vanilla flavoring concentrated to the semisolid form called vanilla oleo-resin. Vanilla extract may contain one or more of the following optional ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Glycerin.
</P>
<P>(2) Propylene glycol.
</P>
<P>(3) Sugar (including invert sugar).
</P>
<P>(4) Dextrose.
</P>
<P>(5) Corn sirup (including dried corn sirup).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The specified name of the food is “Vanilla extract” or “Extract of vanilla”.
</P>
<P>(2) When the vanilla extract is made in whole or in part by dilution of vanilla oleoresin, concentrated vanilla extract, or concentrated vanilla flavoring, the label shall bear the statement “Made from ______” or “Made in part from ______”, the blank being filled in with the name or names “vanilla oleoresin”, “concentrated vanilla extract”, or “concentrated vanilla flavoring”, as appropriate. If the article contains two or more units of vanilla constituent, the name of the food shall include the designation “__-fold”, the blank being filled in with the whole number (disregarding fractions) expressing the number of units of vanilla constituent per gallon of the article.
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the labeling required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.176" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.176   Concentrated vanilla extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Concentrated vanilla extract conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to any requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for vanilla extract by § 169.175, except that it is concentrated to remove part of the solvent, and each gallon contains two or more units of vanilla constituent as defined in § 169.3(c). The content of ethyl alcohol is not less than 35 percent by volume.
</P>
<P>(b) The specified name of the food is “Concentrated vanilla extract __-fold” or “__-fold concentrated vanilla extract”, the blank being filled in with the whole number (disregarding fractions) expressing the number of units of vanilla constituent per gallon of the article. (For example, “Concentrated vanilla extract 2-fold”.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.177" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.177   Vanilla flavoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vanilla flavoring conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to any requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for vanilla extract by § 169.175, except that its content of ethyl alcohol is less than 35 percent by volume.
</P>
<P>(b) The specified name of the food is “Vanilla flavoring”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.178" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.178   Concentrated vanilla flavoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Concentrated vanilla flavoring conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to any requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for vanilla flavoring by § 169.177, except that it is concentrated to remove part of the solvent, and each gallon contains two or more units of vanilla constituent as defined in § 169.3(c).
</P>
<P>(b) The specified name of the food is “Concentrated vanilla flavoring __-fold” or “__-fold concentrated vanilla flavoring”, the blank being filled in with the whole number (disregarding fractions) expressing the number of units of vanilla constituent per gallon of the article. (For example, “Concentrated vanilla flavoring 3-fold”.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2886, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.179" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.179   Vanilla powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vanilla powder is a mixture of ground vanilla beans or vanilla oleoresin or both, with one or more of the following optional blending ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Sugar.
</P>
<P>(2) Dextrose.
</P>
<P>(3) Lactose.
</P>
<P>(4) Food starch (including food starch-modified as prescribed in § 172.892 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(5) Dried corn sirup.
</P>
<P>(6) Gum acacia.
</P>
<FP>Vanilla powder may contain one or any mixture of two or more of the anticaking ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section, but the total weight of any such ingredient or mixture is not more than 2 percent of the weight of the finished vanilla powder. Vanilla powder contains in each 8 pounds not less than one unit of vanilla constituent, as defined in § 169.3(c).
</FP>
<P>(b) The anticaking ingredients referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Aluminum calcium silicate.
</P>
<P>(2) Calcium silicate.
</P>
<P>(3) Calcium stearate.
</P>
<P>(4) Magnesium silicate.
</P>
<P>(5) Tricalcium phosphate.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The specified name of the food is “Vanilla powder __-fold” or “__-fold vanilla powder”, except that if sugar is the optional blending ingredient used, the word “sugar” may replace the word “powder”. The blank in the name is filled in with the whole number (disregarding fractions) expressing the number of units of vanilla constituent per 8 pounds of the article. However, if the strength of the article is less than 2-fold, the term “__-fold” is omitted from the name.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of vanilla powder shall bear the common names of any of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section that are used, except that where the alternative name “Vanilla sugar” is used for designating the food it is not required that sugar be named as an optional ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the food appears on the label so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the labeling required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without intervening written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label declaration.</I> Each of the ingredients used in the food shall be declared on the label as required by the applicable sections of parts 101 and 130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2887, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.180" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.180   Vanilla-vanillin extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vanilla-vanillin extract conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to any requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for vanilla extract by § 169.175, except that for each unit of vanilla constituent, as defined in § 169.3(c), contained therein, the article also contains not more than 1 ounce of added vanillin.
</P>
<P>(b) The specified name of the food is “Vanilla-vanillin extract __-fold” or “__-fold vanilla-vanillin extract”, followed immediately by the statement “contains vanillin, an artificial flavor (or flavoring)”. The blank in the name is filled in with the whole number (disregarding fractions) expressing the sum of the number of units of vanilla constituent plus the number of ounces of added vanillin per gallon of the article. However, if the strength of the article is less than 2-fold, the term “__-fold” is omitted from the name.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2887, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.181" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.181   Vanilla-vanillin flavoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vanilla-vanillin flavoring conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to any requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for vanilla-vanillin extract by § 169.180, except that its content of ethyl alcohol is less than 35 percent by volume.
</P>
<P>(b) The specified name of the food is “Vanilla-vanillin flavoring __-fold” or “__-fold vanilla-vanillin flavoring”, followed immediately by the statement “contains vanillin, an artificial flavor (or flavoring)”. The blank in the name is filled in with the whole number (disregarding fractions) expressing the sum of the number of units of vanilla constituent plus the number of ounces of added vanillin per gallon of the article. However, if the strength of the article is less than 2-fold, the term “__-fold” is omitted from the name.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2887, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.182" NODE="21:2.0.1.1.43.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.182   Vanilla-vanillin powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vanilla-vanillin powder conforms to the definition and standard of identity and is subject to any requirement for label statement of ingredients prescribed for vanilla powder by § 169.179, except that for each unit of vanilla constituent as defined in § 169.3(c) contained therein, the article also contains not more than 1 ounce of added vanillin.
</P>
<P>(b) The specified name of the food is “Vanilla-vanillin powder __-fold” or “__-fold vanilla-vanillin powder”, followed immediately by the statement “contains vanillin, an artificial flavor (or flavoring)”. If sugar is the optional blending ingredient used, the word “sugar” may replace the word “powder” in the name. The blank in the name is filled in with the whole number (disregarding fractions) expressing the sum of the number of units of vanilla constituent plus the number of ounces of added vanillin per 8 pounds of the article. However, if the strength of the article is less than 2-fold the term “__-fold” is omitted from the name.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14479, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 2887, Jan. 6, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Sept. 4, 2025
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="3" NODE="21:3" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 3</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>170


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:3.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—FOOD FOR HUMAN CONSUMPTION (CONTINUED)


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="170" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 170—FOOD ADDITIVES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 342, 346a, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14483, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 170 appear at 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001, and 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.3" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subchapter, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this part, the term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act approved June 25, 1936, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 301-392).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Food additives</I> includes all substances not exempted by section 201(s) of the act, the intended use of which results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, either in their becoming a component of food or otherwise affecting the characteristics of food. A material used in the production of containers and packages is subject to the definition if it may reasonably be expected to become a component, or to affect the characteristics, directly or indirectly, of food packed in the container. “Affecting the characteristics of food” does not include such physical effects, as protecting contents of packages, preserving shape, and preventing moisture loss. If there is no migration of a packaging component from the package to the food, it does not become a component of the food and thus is not a food additive. A substance that does not become a component of food, but that is used, for example, in preparing an ingredient of the food to give a different flavor, texture, or other characteristic in the food, may be a food additive.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Uses of food additives not requiring a listing regulation.</I> Use of a substance in a food contact article (e.g., food-packaging or food-processing equipment) whereby the substance migrates, or may reasonably be expected to migrate, into food at such levels that the use has been exempted from regulation as a food additive under § 170.39, and food contact substances used in accordance with a notification submitted under section 409(h) of the act that is effective.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>A food contact substance</I> is any substance that is intended for use as a component of materials used in manufacturing, packing, packaging, transporting, or holding food if such use is not intended to have any technical effect in such food.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Common use in food</I> means a substantial history of consumption of a substance for food use by a significant number of consumers.
</P>
<P>(g) The word <I>substance</I> in the definition of the term “food additive” includes a food or food component consisting of one or more ingredients.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Scientific procedures</I> include the application of scientific data (including, as appropriate, data from human, animal, analytical, or other scientific studies), information, and methods, whether published or unpublished, as well as the application of scientific principles, appropriate to establish the safety of a substance under the conditions of its intended use.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Safe</I> or <I>safety</I> means that there is a reasonable certainty in the minds of competent scientists that the substance is not harmful under the conditions of its intended use. It is impossible in the present state of scientific knowledge to establish with complete certainty the absolute harmlessness of the use of any substance. Safety may be determined by scientific procedures or by general recognition of safety. In determining safety, the following factors shall be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) The probable consumption of the substance and of any substance formed in or on food because of its use.
</P>
<P>(2) The cumulative effect of the substance in the diet, taking into account any chemically or pharmacologically related substance or substances in such diet.
</P>
<P>(3) Safety factors which, in the opinion of experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety of food and food ingredients, are generally recognized as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>nonperishable processed food</I> means any processed food not subject to rapid decay or deterioration that would render it unfit for consumption. Examples are flour, sugar, cereals, packaged cookies, and crackers. Not included are hermetically sealed foods or manufactured dairy products and other processed foods requiring refrigeration.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>General recognition of safety</I> shall be in accordance with § 170.30.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Prior sanction</I> means an explicit approval granted with respect to use of a substance in food prior to September 6, 1958, by the Food and Drug Administration or the United States Department of Agriculture pursuant to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Poultry Products Inspection Act, or the Meat Inspection Act.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Food</I> includes human food, substances migrating to food from food-contact articles, pet food, and animal feed.
</P>
<P>(n) The following general food categories are established to group specific related foods together for the purpose of establishing tolerances or limitations for the use of direct human food ingredients. Individual food products will be included within these categories according to the detailed classifications lists contained in Exhibit 33B of the report of the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council report, “A Comprehensive Survey of Industry on the Use of Food Chemicals Generally Recognized as Safe” (September 1972), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Technical Information Service (NTIS), 5285 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Baked goods and baking mixes, including all ready-to-eat and ready-to-bake products, flours, and mixes requiring preparation before serving.
</P>
<P>(2) Beverages, alcoholic, including malt beverages, wines, distilled liquors, and cocktail mix.
</P>
<P>(3) Beverages and beverage bases, nonalcoholic, including only special or spiced teas, soft drinks, coffee substitutes, and fruit and vegetable flavored gelatin drinks.
</P>
<P>(4) Breakfast cereals, including ready-to-eat and instant and regular hot cereals.
</P>
<P>(5) Cheeses, including curd and whey cheeses, cream, natural, grating, processed, spread, dip, and miscellaneous cheeses.
</P>
<P>(6) Chewing gum, including all forms.
</P>
<P>(7) Coffee and tea, including regular, decaffeinated, and instant types.
</P>
<P>(8) Condiments and relishes, including plain seasoning sauces and spreads, olives, pickles, and relishes, but not spices or herbs.
</P>
<P>(9) Confections and frostings, including candy and flavored frostings, marshmallows, baking chocolate, and brown, lump, rock, maple, powdered, and raw sugars.
</P>
<P>(10) Dairy product analogs, including nondairy milk, frozen or liquid creamers, coffee whiteners, toppings, and other nondairy products.
</P>
<P>(11) Egg products, including liquid, frozen, or dried eggs, and egg dishes made therefrom, i.e., egg roll, egg foo young, egg salad, and frozen multicourse egg meals, but not fresh eggs.
</P>
<P>(12) Fats and oils, including margarine, dressings for salads, butter, salad oils, shortenings and cooking oils.
</P>
<P>(13) Fish products, including all prepared main dishes, salads, appetizers, frozen multicourse meals, and spreads containing fish, shellfish, and other aquatic animals, but not fresh fish.
</P>
<P>(14) Fresh eggs, including cooked eggs and egg dishes made only from fresh shell eggs.
</P>
<P>(15) Fresh fish, including only fresh and frozen fish, shellfish, and other aquatic animals.
</P>
<P>(16) Fresh fruits and fruit juices, including only raw fruits, citrus, melons, and berries, and home-prepared “ades” and punches made therefrom.
</P>
<P>(17) Fresh meats, including only fresh or home-frozen beef or veal, pork, lamb or mutton and home-prepared fresh meat-containing dishes, salads, appetizers, or sandwich spreads made therefrom.
</P>
<P>(18) Fresh poultry, including only fresh or home-frozen poultry and game birds and home-prepared fresh poultry-containing dishes, salads, appetizers, or sandwich spreads made therefrom.
</P>
<P>(19) Fresh vegetables, tomatoes, and potatoes, including only fresh and home-prepared vegetables.
</P>
<P>(20) Frozen dairy desserts and mixes, including ice cream, ice milks, sherbets, and other frozen dairy desserts and specialties.
</P>
<P>(21) Fruit and water ices, including all frozen fruit and water ices.
</P>
<P>(22) Gelatins, puddings, and fillings, including flavored gelatin desserts, puddings, custards, parfaits, pie fillings, and gelatin base salads.
</P>
<P>(23) Grain products and pastas, including macaroni and noodle products, rice dishes, and frozen multicourse meals, without meat or vegetables.
</P>
<P>(24) Gravies and sauces, including all meat sauces and gravies, and tomato, milk, buttery, and specialty sauces.
</P>
<P>(25) Hard candy and cough drops, including all hard type candies.
</P>
<P>(26) Herbs, seeds, spices, seasonings, blends, extracts, and flavorings, including all natural and artificial spices, blends, and flavors.
</P>
<P>(27) Jams and jellies, home-prepared, including only home-prepared jams, jellies, fruit butters, preserves, and sweet spreads.
</P>
<P>(28) Jams and jellies, commercial, including only commercially processed jams, jellies, fruit butters, preserves, and sweet spreads.
</P>
<P>(29) Meat products, including all meats and meat containing dishes, salads, appetizers, frozen multicourse meat meals, and sandwich ingredients prepared by commercial processing or using commercially processed meats with home preparation.
</P>
<P>(30) Milk, whole and skim, including only whole, lowfat, and skim fluid milks.
</P>
<P>(31) Milk products, including flavored milks and milk drinks, dry milks, toppings, snack dips, spreads, weight control milk beverages, and other milk origin products.
</P>
<P>(32) Nuts and nut products, including whole or shelled tree nuts, peanuts, coconut, and nut and peanut spreads.
</P>
<P>(33) Plant protein products, including the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council “reconstituted vegetable protein” category, and meat, poultry, and fish substitutes, analogs, and extender products made from plant proteins.
</P>
<P>(34) Poultry products, including all poultry and poultry-containing dishes, salads, appetizers, frozen multicourse poultry meals, and sandwich ingredients prepared by commercial processing or using commercially processed poultry with home preparation.
</P>
<P>(35) Processed fruits and fruit juices, including all commercially processed fruits, citrus, berries, and mixtures; salads, juices and juice punches, concentrates, dilutions, “ades”, and drink substitutes made therefrom.
</P>
<P>(36) Processed vegetables and vegetable juices, including all commercially processed vegetables, vegetable dishes, frozen multicourse vegetable meals, and vegetable juices and blends.
</P>
<P>(37) Snack foods, including chips, pretzels, and other novelty snacks.
</P>
<P>(38) Soft candy, including candy bars, chocolates, fudge, mints, and other chewy or nougat candies.
</P>
<P>(39) Soups, home-prepared, including meat, fish, poultry, vegetable, and combination home-prepared soups.
</P>
<P>(40) Soups and soup mixes, including commercially prepared meat, fish, poultry, vegetable, and combination soups and soup mixes.
</P>
<P>(41) Sugar, white, granulated, including only white granulated sugar.
</P>
<P>(42) Sugar substitutes, including granulated, liquid, and tablet sugar substitutes. 
</P>
<P>(43) Sweet sauces, toppings, and syrups, including chocolate, berry, fruit, corn syrup, and maple sweet sauces and toppings.
</P>
<P>(o) The following terms describe the physical or technical functional effects for which direct human food ingredients may be added to foods. They are adopted from the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council national survey of food industries, reported to the Food and Drug Administration under the contract title “A Comprehensive Survey of Industry on the Use of Food Chemicals Generally Recognized as Safe” (September 1972), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Technical Information Service (NTIS), 5285 Port Royal Rd., Springfield, VA 22161, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Anticaking agents and free-flow agents</I>: Substances added to finely powdered or crystalline food products to prevent caking, lumping, or agglomeration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Antimicrobial agents</I>: Substances used to preserve food by preventing growth of microorganisms and subsequent spoilage, including fungistats, mold and rope inhibitors, and the effects listed by the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council under “preservatives.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Antioxidants</I>: Substances used to preserve food by retarding deterioration, rancidity, or discoloration due to oxidation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Colors and coloring adjuncts</I>: Substances used to impart, preserve, or enhance the color or shading of a food, including color stabilizers, color fixatives, color-retention agents, etc.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Curing and pickling agents</I>: Substances imparting a unique flavor and/or color to a food, usually producing an increase in shelf life stability.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Dough strengtheners</I>: Substances used to modify starch and gluten, thereby producing a more stable dough, including the applicable effects listed by the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council under “dough conditioner.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Drying agents</I>: Substances with moisture-absorbing ability, used to maintain an environment of low moisture.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Emulsifiers and emulsifier salts</I>: Substances which modify surface tension in the component phase of an emulsion to establish a uniform dispersion or emulsion.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Enzymes</I>: Enzymes used to improve food processing and the quality of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Firming agents</I>: Substances added to precipitate residual pectin, thus strengthening the supporting tissue and preventing its collapse during processing.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Flavor enhancers</I>: Substances added to supplement, enhance, or modify the original taste and/or aroma of a food, without imparting a characteristic taste or aroma of its own.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Flavoring agents and adjuvants</I>: Substances added to impart or help impart a taste or aroma in food.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Flour treating agents</I>: Substances added to milled flour, at the mill, to improve its color and/or baking qualities, including bleaching and maturing agents.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Formulation aids</I>: Substances used to promote or produce a desired physical state or texture in food, including carriers, binders, fillers, plasticizers, film-formers, and tableting aids, etc.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Fumigants</I>: Volatile substances used for controlling insects or pests.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Humectants</I>: Hygroscopic substances incorporated in food to promote retention of moisture, including moisture-retention agents and antidusting agents.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Leavening agents</I>: Substances used to produce or stimulate production of carbon dioxide in baked goods to impart a light texture, including yeast, yeast foods, and calcium salts listed by the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council under “dough conditioners.”
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Lubricants and release agents</I>: Substances added to food contact surfaces to prevent ingredients and finished products from sticking to them.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Non-nutritive sweeteners</I>: Substances having less than 2 percent of the caloric value of sucrose per equivalent unit of sweetening capacity. 
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Nutrient supplements</I>: Substances which are necessary for the body's nutritional and metabolic processes.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Nutritive sweeteners</I>: Substances having greater than 2 percent of the caloric value of sucrose per equivalent unit of sweetening capacity.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Oxidizing and reducing agents</I>: Substances which chemically oxidize or reduce another food ingredient, thereby producing a more stable product, including the applicable effect listed by the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council under “dough conditioners.”
</P>
<P>(23) <I>pH control agents</I>: Substances added to change or maintain active acidity or basicity, including buffers, acids, alkalies, and neutralizing agents.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Processing aids</I>: Substances used as manufacturing aids to enhance the appeal or utility of a food or food component, including clarifying agents, clouding agents, catalysts, flocculents, filter aids, and crystallization inhibitors, etc.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Propellants, aerating agents, and gases</I>: Gases used to supply force to expel a product or used to reduce the amount of oxygen in contact with the food in packaging.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Sequestrants</I>: Substances which combine with polyvalent metal ions to form a soluble metal complex, to improve the quality and stability of products.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Solvents and vehicles</I>: Substances used to extract or dissolve another substance.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Stabilizers and thickeners</I>: Substances used to produce viscous solutions or dispersions, to impart body, improve consistency, or stabilize emulsions, including suspending and bodying agents, setting agents, jellying agents, and bulking agents, etc.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Surface-active agents</I>: Substances used to modify surface properties of liquid food components for a variety of effects, other than emulsifiers, but including solubilizing agents, dispersants, detergents, wetting agents, rehydration enhancers, whipping agents, foaming agents, and defoaming agents, etc.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Surface-finishing agents</I>: Substances used to increase palatability, preserve gloss, and inhibit discoloration of foods, including glazes, polishes, waxes, and protective coatings.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Synergists</I>: Substances used to act or react with another food ingredient to produce a total effect different or greater than the sum of the effects produced by the individual ingredients.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Texturizers</I>: Substances which affect the appearance or feel of the food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14483, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11835, Mar. 19, 1982; 53 FR 16546, May 10, 1988; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 60 FR 36595, July 17, 1995; 67 FR 35729, May 21, 2002; 81 FR 55047, Aug. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.6" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.6   Opinion letters on food additive status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Over the years the Food and Drug Administration has given informal written opinions to inquiries as to the safety of articles intended for use as components of, or in contact with, food. Prior to the enactment of the Food Additives Amendment of 1958 (Pub. L. 85-929; Sept. 6, 1958), these opinions were given pursuant to section 402(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which reads in part: “A food shall be deemed to be adulterated if it bears or contains any poisonous or deleterious substance which may render it injurious to health”.
</P>
<P>(b) Since enactment of the Food Additives Amendment, the Food and Drug Administration has advised such inquirers that an article:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a food additive within the meaning of section 201(s) of the act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is generally recognized as safe (GRAS); or
</P>
<P>(3) Has prior sanction or approval under that amendment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is not a food additive under the conditions of intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In the interest of the public health, such articles which have been considered in the past by the Food and Drug Administration to be safe under the provisions of section 402(a)(1), or to be generally recognized as safe for their intended use, or to have prior sanction or approval, or not to be food additives under the conditions of intended use, must be reexamined in the light of current scientific information and current principles for evaluating the safety of food additives if their use is to be continued.
</P>
<P>(d) Because of the time span involved, copies of many of the letters in which the Food and Drug Administration has expressed an informal opinion concerning the status of such articles may no longer be in the file of the Food and Drug Administration. In the absence of information concerning the names and uses made of all the articles referred to in such letters, their safety of use cannot be reexamined. For this reason all food additive status opinions of the kind described in paragraph (c) of this section given by the Food and Drug Administration are hereby revoked.
</P>
<P>(e) The prior opinions of the kind described in paragraph (c) of this section will be replaced by qualified and current opinions if the recipient of each such letter forwards a copy of each to the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, along with a copy of his letter of inquiry, on or before July 23, 1970.
</P>
<P>(f) This section does not apply to food additive status opinion letters pertaining to articles that were considered by the Food and Drug Administration to be food additives nor to articles included in regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter if the articles are used in accordance with the requirements of such regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14483, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.10" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.10   Food additives in standardized foods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The inclusion of food ingredients in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter does not imply that these ingredients may be used in standardized foods unless they are recognized as optional ingredients in applicable food standards. Where a petition is received for the issuance or amendment of a regulation establishing a definition and standard of identity for a food under section 401 of the Act, which proposes the inclusion of a food additive in such definition and standard of identity, the provisions of the regulations in this part shall apply with respect to the information that must be submitted with respect to the food additive. Since section 409(b)(5) of the Act requires that the Secretary publish notice of a petition for the establishment of a food-additive regulation within 30 days after filing, notice of a petition relating to a definition and standard of identity shall also be published within that time limitation if it includes a request, so designated, for the establishment of a regulation pertaining to a food additive.
</P>
<P>(b) If a petition for a definition and standard of identity contains a proposal for a food-additive regulation, and the petitioner fails to designate it as such, the Commissioner, upon determining that the petition includes a proposal for a food-additive regulation, shall so notify the petitioner and shall thereafter proceed in accordance with the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A regulation will not be issued allowing the use of a food additive in a food for which a definition and standard of identity is established, unless its issuance is in conformity with section 401 of the Act or with the terms of a temporary permit issued under § 130.17 of this chapter. When the contemplated use of such additive complies with the terms of a temporary permit, the food additive regulation will be conditioned on such compliance and will expire with the expiration of the temporary permit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.15" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.15   Adoption of regulation on initiative of Commissioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner upon his own initiative may propose the issuance of a regulation prescribing, with respect to any particular use of a food additive, the conditions under which such additive may be safely used. Notice of such proposal shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall state the reasons for the proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) Action upon a proposal made by the Commissioner shall proceed as provided in part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14486, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.17" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.17   Exemption for investigational use and procedure for obtaining authorization to market edible products from experimental animals.</HEAD>
<P>A food additive or food containing a food additive intended for investigational use by qualified experts shall be exempt from the requirements of section 409 of the Act under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) If intended for investigational use in vitro or in laboratory research animals, it bears a label which states prominently, in addition to the other information required by the act, the warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution.</I> Contains a new food additive for investigational use only in laboratory research animals or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) If intended for use in animals other than laboratory research animals and if the edible products of the animals are to be marketed as food, permission for the marketing of the edible products as food has been requested by the sponsor, and authorization has been granted by the Food and Drug Administration in accordance with § 511.1 of this chapter or by the Department of Agriculture in accordance with 9 CFR 309.17, and it bears a label which states prominently, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution.</I> Contains a new food additive for use only in investigational animals. Not for use in humans.
</P>
<P>Edible products of investigational animals are not to be used for food unless authorization has been granted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration or by the U.S. Department of Agriculture.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) If intended for nonclinical laboratory studies in food-producing animals, the study is conducted in compliance with the regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14483, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 60021, Dec. 22, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.18" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.18   Tolerances for related food additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Food additives that cause similar or related pharmacological effects will be regarded as a class, and in the absence of evidence to the contrary, as having additive toxic effects and will be considered as related food additives.
</P>
<P>(b) Tolerances established for such related food additives may limit the amount of a common component that may be present, or may limit the amount of biological activity (such as cholinesterase inhibition) that may be present or may limit the total amount of related food additives that may be present.
</P>
<P>(c) Where food additives from two or more chemicals in the same class are present in or on a food, the tolerance for the total of such additives shall be the same as that for the additive having the lowest numerical tolerance in this class, unless there are available methods that permit quantitative determination of the amount of each food additive present or unless it is shown that a higher tolerance is reasonably required for the combined additives to accomplish the physical or technical effect for which such combined additives are intended and that the higher tolerance will be safe.
</P>
<P>(d) Where residues from two or more additives in the same class are present in or on a food and there are available methods that permit quantitative determination of each residue, the quantity of combined residues that are within the tolerance may be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the quantity of each residue present.
</P>
<P>(2) Divide the quantity of each residue by the tolerance that would apply if it occurred alone, and multiply by 100 to determine the percentage of the permitted amount of residue present.
</P>
<P>(3) Add the percentages so obtained for all residues present.
</P>
<P>(4) The sum of the percentage shall not exceed 100 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.19" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.19   Pesticide chemicals in processed foods.</HEAD>
<P>When pesticide chemical residues occur in processed foods due to the use of raw agricultural commodities that bore or contained a pesticide chemical in conformity with an exemption granted or a tolerance prescribed under section 408 of the Act, the processed food will not be regarded as adulterated so long as good manufacturing practice has been followed in removing any residue from the raw agricultural commodity in the processing (such as by peeling or washing) and so long as the concentration of the residue in the processed food when ready to eat is not greater than the tolerance prescribed for the raw agricultural commodity. But when the concentration of residue in the processed food when ready to eat is higher than the tolerance prescribed for the raw agricultural commodity, the processed food is adulterated unless the higher concentration is permitted by a tolerance obtained under section 409 of the Act. For example, if fruit bearing a residue of 7 parts per million of DDT permitted on the raw agricultural commodity is dried and a residue in excess of 7 parts per million of DDT results on the dried fruit, the dehydrated fruit is adulterated unless the higher tolerance for DDT is authorized by the regulations in this part. Food that is itself ready to eat, and which contains a higher residue than allowed for the raw agricultural commodity, may not be legalized by blending or mixing with other foods to reduce the residue in the mixed food below the tolerance prescribed for the raw agricultural commodity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Food Additive Safety</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.20" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.20   General principles for evaluating the safety of food additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In reaching a decision on any petition filed under section 409 of the Act, the Commissioner will give full consideration to the specific biological properties of the compound and the adequacy of the methods employed to demonstrate safety for the proposed use, and the Commissioner will be guided by the principles and procedures for establishing the safety of food additives stated in current publications of the National Academy of Sciences-National Research Council. A petition will not be denied, however, by reason of the petitioner's having followed procedures other than those outlined in the publications of the National Academy of Sciences-National Research Council if, from available evidence, the Commissioner finds that the procedures used give results as reliable as, or more reliable than, those reasonably to be expected from the use of the outlined procedures. In reaching a decision, the Commissioner will give due weight to the anticipated levels and patterns of consumption of the additive specified or reasonably inferrable. For the purposes of this section, the principles for evaluating safety of additives set forth in the abovementioned publications will apply to any substance that may properly be classified as a food additive as defined in section 201(s) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request describing the proposed use of an additive and the proposed experiments to determine its safety, the Commissioner will advise a person who wishes to establish the safety of a food additive whether he believes the experiments planned will yield data adequate for an evaluation of the safety of the additive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.22" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.22   Safety factors to be considered.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with section 409(c)(5)(C) of the Act, the following safety factors will be applied in determining whether the proposed use of a food additive will be safe: Except where evidence is submitted which justifies use of a different safety factor, a safety factor in applying animal experimentation data to man of 100 to 1, will be used; that is, a food additive for use by man will not be granted a tolerance that will exceed 
<FR>1/100</FR>th of the maximum amount demonstrated to be without harm to experimental animals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.30" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.30   Eligibility for classification as generally recognized as safe (GRAS).</HEAD>
<P>(a) General recognition of safety may be based only on the views of experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety of substances directly or indirectly added to food. The basis of such views may be either (1) scientific procedures or (2) in the case of a substance used in food prior to January 1, 1958, through experience based on common use in food. General recognition of safety requires common knowledge throughout the scientific community knowledgeable about the safety of substances directly or indirectly added to food that there is reasonable certainty that the substance is not harmful under the conditions of its intended use (see § 170.3(i)).
</P>
<P>(b) General recognition of safety based upon scientific procedures shall require the same quantity and quality of scientific evidence as is required to obtain approval of a food additive. General recognition of safety through scientific procedures shall be based upon the application of generally available and accepted scientific data, information, or methods, which ordinarily are published, as well as the application of scientific principles, and may be corroborated by the application of unpublished scientific data, information, or methods.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) General recognition of safety through experience based on common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, may be achieved without the quantity or quality of scientific procedures required for approval of a food additive. General recognition of safety through experience based on common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, shall be based solely on food use of the substance prior to January 1, 1958, and shall ordinarily be based upon generally available data and information. An ingredient not in common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, may achieve general recognition of safety only through scientific procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) A substance used in food prior to January 1, 1958, may be generally recognized as safe through experience based on its common use in food when that use occurred exclusively or primarily outside of the United States if the information about the experience establishes that the substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use within the meaning of section 201(u) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (see also § 170.3(i)). Common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, that occurred outside of the United States shall be documented by published or other information and shall be corroborated by information from a second, independent source that confirms the history and circumstances of use of the substance. The information used to document and to corroborate the history and circumstances of use of the substance must be generally available; that is, it must be widely available in the country in which the history of use has occurred and readily available to interested qualified experts in the United States. A person who concludes that a use of a substance is GRAS through experience based on its common use in food outside of the United States should notify FDA of that view in accordance with subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The food ingredients listed as GRAS in part 182 of this chapter or affirmed as GRAS in part 184 or part 186 of this chapter do not include all substances that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use in food. Because of the large number of substances the intended use of which results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in their becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of food, it is impracticable to list all such substances that are GRAS. A food ingredient of natural biological origin that has been widely consumed for its nutrient properties in the United States prior to January 1, 1958, without known detrimental effects, which is subject only to conventional processing as practiced prior to January 1, 1958, and for which no known safety hazard exists, will ordinarily be regarded as GRAS without specific inclusion in part 182, part 184 or part 186 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Food ingredients were listed as GRAS in part 182 of this chapter during 1958-1962 without a detailed scientific review of all available data and information relating to their safety. Beginning in 1969, the Food and Drug Administration has undertaken a systematic review of the status of all ingredients used in food based on the view that they are GRAS under the conditions of their intended use or subject to a prior sanction. All affirmations of GRAS status or determinations of food additive status or prior sanction status pursuant to this review shall be handled pursuant to §§ 170.35, 170.38, and 180.1 of this chapter. Affirmation of GRAS status shall be announced in part 184 or part 186 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) A food ingredient that is not GRAS or subject to a prior sanction requires a food additive regulation promulgated under section 409 of the act before it may be directly or indirectly added to food.
</P>
<P>(h) A food ingredient that is listed as GRAS in part 182 of this chapter or affirmed as GRAS in part 184 or part 186 of this chapter shall be regarded as GRAS only if, in addition to all the requirements in the applicable regulation, it also meets all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) It complies with any applicable food grade specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 2d Ed. (1972), or, if specifically indicated in the GRAS affirmation regulation, the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), which are incorporated by reference, except that any substance used as a component of articles that contact food and affirmed as GRAS in part 186 of this chapter shall comply with the specifications therein, or in the absence of such specifications, shall be of a purity suitable for its intended use. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) It performs an appropriate function in the food or food-contact article in which it is used.
</P>
<P>(3) It is used at a level no higher than necessary to achieve its intended purpose in that food or, if used as a component of a food-contact article, at a level no higher than necessary to achieve its intended purpose in that article.
</P>
<P>(i) If a substance is affirmed as GRAS in part 184 or part 186 of this chapter with no limitation other than good manufacturing practice, it shall be regarded as GRAS if its conditions of use are not significantly different from those reported in the regulation as the basis on which the GRAS status of the substance was affirmed. If the conditions of use are significantly different, such use of the substance may not be GRAS. In such a case a manufacturer may not rely on the regulation as authorizing the use but must independently establish that the use is GRAS or must use the substance in accordance with a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(j) If an ingredient is affirmed as GRAS in part 184 or part 186 of this chapter with specific limitation(s), it may be used in food only within such limitation(s) (including the category of food(s), the functional use(s) of the ingredient, and the level(s) of use). Any use of such an ingredient not in full compliance with each such established limitation shall require a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(k) Pursuant to § 170.35, a food ingredient may be affirmed as GRAS in part 184 or part 186 of this chapter for a specific use(s) without a general evaluation of use of the ingredient. In addition to the use(s) specified in the regulation, other uses of such an ingredient may also be GRAS. Any affirmation of GRAS status for a specific use(s), without a general evaluation of use of the ingredient, is subject to reconsideration upon such evaluation.
</P>
<P>(l) New information may at any time require reconsideration of the GRAS status of a food ingredient. Any change to the GRAS status of a food ingredient in parts 182, 184, or 186 of this chapter shall be accomplished pursuant to § 170.38.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14483, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5610, Feb. 14, 1984; 53 FR 16546, May 10, 1988; 81 FR 55047, Aug. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.35" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.35   Affirmation of generally recognized as safe (GRAS) status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner, on his own initiative, may affirm that a substance that directly or indirectly becomes a component of food is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If the Commissioner proposes on his own initiative that a substance is entitled to affirmation as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use, he will place all of the data and information on which he relies on public file in the office of the Dockets Management Staff and will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice giving the name of the substance, its proposed uses, and any limitations proposed for purposes other than safety.
</P>
<P>(2) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will allow a period of 60 days during which any interested person may review the data and information and/or file comments with the Dockets Management Staff. Copies of all comments received shall be made available for examination in the Dockets Management Staff's office.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner will evaluate all comments received. If he concludes that there is convincing evidence that the substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use as described in § 170.30, he will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> listing the GRAS conditions of use of the substance in part 184 or part 186 of this chapter, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) If, after evaluation of the comments, the Commissioner concludes that there is a lack of convincing evidence that a substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use and that it should be considered a food additive subject to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, he shall publish a notice thereof in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 170.38.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Information collection requirements were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0132)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14488, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 7492, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 53 FR 16547, May 10, 1988; 62 FR 40599, July 29, 1997; 65 FR 51762, Aug. 25, 2000; 81 FR 55048, Aug. 17, 2016; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.38" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.38   Determination of food additive status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may, in accordance with § 170.35(b)(4), publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> determining that a substance is not GRAS under the conditions of its intended use and is a food additive subject to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Commissioner, on his own initiative or on the petition of any interested person, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, may issue a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> proposing to determine that a substance is not GRAS and is a food additive subject to section 409 of the Act. Any petition shall include all relevant data and information of the type described in § 171.130(b). The Commissioner will place all of the data and information on which he relies on public file in the office of the Dockets Management Staff and will include in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice the name of the substance, its known uses, and a summary of the basis for the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will allow a period of 60 days during which any interested person may review the data and information and/or file comments with the Dockets Management Staff. Copies of all comments shall be made available for examination in the Dockets Management Staff's office. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner will evaluate all comments received. If he concludes that there is a lack of convincing evidence that the substance is GRAS or is otherwise exempt from the definition of a food additive in section 201(s) of the Act, he will publish a notice thereof in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If he concludes that there is convincing evidence that the substance is GRAS, he will publish an order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> listing the substance as GRAS in part 182, part 184, or part 186 of this chapter, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) A <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice determining that a substance is a food additive shall provide for the use of the additive in food or food contact surfaces as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) It may promulgate a food additive regulation governing use of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) It may promulgate an interim food additive regulation governing use of the additive.
</P>
<P>(3) It may require discontinuation of the use of the additive.
</P>
<P>(4) It may adopt any combination of the above three approaches for different uses or levels of use of the additive.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commissioner of Food and Drugs is aware of any prior sanction for use of the substance, he will concurrently propose a separate regulation covering such use of the ingredient under part 181 of this chapter. If the Commissioner is unaware of any such applicable prior sanction, the proposed regulation will so state and will require any person who intends to assert or rely on such sanction to submit proof of its existence. Any regulation promulgated pursuant to this section constitutes a determination that excluded uses would result in adulteration of the food in violation of section 402 of the Act, and the failure of any person to come forward with proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal will constitute a waiver of the right to assert or rely on such sanction at any later time. The notice will also constitute a proposal to establish a regulation under part 181 of this chapter, incorporating the same provisions, in the event that such a regulation is determined to be appropriate as a result of submission of proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14488, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15673, Mar. 22, 1977; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 81 FR 55048, Aug. 17, 2016; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.39" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.39   Threshold of regulation for substances used in food-contact articles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A substance used in a food-contact article (e.g., food-packaging or food-processing equipment) that migrates, or that may be expected to migrate, into food will be exempted from regulation as a food additive because it becomes a component of food at levels that are below the threshold of regulation if:
</P>
<P>(1) The substance has not been shown to be a carcinogen in humans or animals, and there is no reason, based on the chemical structure of the substance, to suspect that the substance is a carcinogen. The substance must also not contain a carcinogenic impurity or, if it does, must not contain a carcinogenic impurity with a TD<E T="52">50</E> value based on chronic feeding studies reported in the scientific literature or otherwise available to the Food and Drug Administration of less than 6.25 milligrams per kilogram bodyweight per day (The TD<E T="52">50</E>, for the purposes of this section, is the feeding dose that causes cancer in 50 percent of the test animals when corrected for tumors found in control animals. If more than one TD<E T="52">50</E> value has been reported in the scientific literature for a substance, the Food and Drug Administration will use the lowest appropriate TD50 value in its review.);
</P>
<P>(2) The substance presents no other health or safety concerns because:
</P>
<P>(i) The use in question has been shown to result in or may be expected to result in dietary concentrations at or below 0.5 parts per billion, corresponding to dietary exposure levels at or below 1.5 micrograms/person/day (based on a diet of 1,500 grams of solid food and 1,500 grams of liquid food per person per day); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The substance is currently regulated for direct addition into food, and the dietary exposure to the substance resulting from the proposed use is at or below 1 percent of the acceptable daily intake as determined by safety data in the Food and Drug Administration's files or from other appropriate sources;
</P>
<P>(3) The substance has no technical effect in or on the food to which it migrates; and
</P>
<P>(4) The substance use has no significant adverse impact on the environment.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the Food and Drug Administration reserves the right to decline to grant an exemption in those cases in which available information establishes that the proposed use may pose a public health risk. The reasons for the agency's decision to decline to grant an exemption will be explained in the Food and Drug Administration's response to the requestor.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for the Food and Drug Administration to exempt a use of a substance from regulation as a food additive shall include three copies of the following information (If part of the submitted material is in a foreign language, it must be accompanied by an English translation verified to be complete and accurate in accordance with § 10.20(c)(2) of this chapter):
</P>
<P>(1) The chemical composition of the substance for which the request is made, including, whenever possible, the name of the chemical in accordance with current Chemical Abstract Service (CAS) nomenclature guidelines and a CAS registry number, if available;
</P>
<P>(2) Detailed information on the conditions of use of the substance (e.g., temperature, type of food with which the substance will come into contact, the duration of the contact, and whether the food-contact article will be for repeated or single use applications);
</P>
<P>(3) A clear statement as to whether the request for exemption from regulation as a food additive is based on the fact that the use of the substance in the food-contact article results in a dietary concentration at or below 0.5 parts per billion, or on the fact that it involves the use of a regulated direct food additive for which the dietary exposure is at or below 1 percent of the acceptable dietary intake (ADI);
</P>
<P>(4) Data that will enable the Food and Drug Administration to estimate the daily dietary concentration resulting from the proposed use of the substance. These data should be in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Validated migration data obtained under worst-case (time/temperature) intended use conditions utilizing appropriate food simulating solvents;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on the amount of the substance used in the manufacture of the food-contact article; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the residual level of the substance in the food-contact article. For repeat-use articles, an estimate of the amount of food that contacts a specific unit of surface area over the lifetime of the article should also be provided. (In cases where data are provided only in the form of manufacturing use levels or residual levels of the substance present in the food-contact article, the Food and Drug Administration will calculate a worst-case dietary concentration level assuming 100 percent migration.) A detailed description of the analytical method used to quantify the substance should also be submitted along with data used to validate the detection limit.
</P>
<P>(iv) In cases where there is no detectable migration into food or food simulants, or when no residual level of a substance is detected in the food-contact article by a suitable analytical method, the Food and Drug Administration will, for the purposes of estimating the dietary concentration, consider the validated detection limit of the method used to analyze for the substance.
</P>
<P>(5) The results of an analysis of existing toxicological information on the substance and its impurities. This information on the substance is needed to show whether an animal carcinogen bioassay has been carried out, or whether there is some other basis for suspecting that the substance is a carcinogen or potent toxin. This type of information on the impurities is needed to show whether any of them are carcinogenic, and, if carcinogenic, whether their TD50 values are greater than 6.25 milligrams per kilogram bodyweight per day in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Information on the environmental impact that would result from the proposed use of the substance. The request should contain either a claim for categorical exclusion as specified in § 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment as specified in § 25.40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) Data to be reviewed under this section shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration's Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(e) The Food and Drug Administration will inform the requestor by letter whether the specific food-contact application is exempt from regulation as a food additive or not. Although a substance that migrates to food at a level that results in a dietary concentration at or below the threshold of regulation will not be the subject of a regulation published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations, the Food and Drug Administration will maintain a list of substances exempted from regulation as food additives under this section on display at the Dockets Management Staff. This list will include the name of the company that made the request, the chemical name of the substance, the specific use for which it has received an exemption from regulation as a food additive, and any appropriate limitations on its use. The list will not include any trade names. This list will enable interested persons to see the types of uses of food-contact materials being exempted under the regulation. Interested persons may also obtain a copy of the list of exempted substances by contacting the Food and Drug Administration's Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. For actions requiring an environmental assessment, the agency's finding of no significant impact and the evidence supporting that finding, contained in the petitioner's environmental assessment, also will be available for public inspection at the Dockets Management Staff in accordance with § 25.51(b)(2) of this chapter. Requests for copies of releasable information contained in submissions requesting exemptions from the food additive regulations will be handled in accordance with the Food and Drug Administration's Freedom of Information Act procedures, as described in part 20 of this chapter. In particular, data and information that fall within the definitions of a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information are not available for public disclosure in accordance with § 20.61(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) If the request for an exemption from regulation as a food additive is not granted, the requestor may submit a petition to the Food and Drug Administration for reconsideration of the decision in accordance with the provisions of § 10.33 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) If the Food and Drug Administration receives significant new information that raises questions about the dietary concentration or the safety of a substance that the agency has exempted from regulation, the Food and Drug Administration may reevaluate the substance. If the Food and Drug Administration tentatively concludes that the information that is available about the substance no longer supports an exemption for the use of the food-contact material from the food additive regulations, the agency will notify any persons that requested an exemption for the substance of its tentative decision. The requestors will be given an opportunity to show why the use of the substance should not be regulated under the food additive provisions of the act. If the requestors fail to adequately respond to the new evidence, the agency will notify them that further use of the substance in question for the particular use will require a food additive regulation. This notification will be placed on public display at the Dockets Management Staff as part of the file of uses of substances exempted from regulation as food additives. The Food and Drug Administration recognizes that manufacturers other than those that actually made a request for exemption may also be using exempted substances in food-contact articles under conditions of use (e.g., use levels, temperature, type of food contacted, etc.) that are similar to those for which the exemption was issued. Because only requestors will be notified as part of the revocation process described in this section, the Food and Drug Administration plans to notify other manufacturers by means of a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of its decision to revoke an exemption issued for a specific use of a substance in a food contact article.
</P>
<P>(h) Guidance documents to assist requestors in the preparation of submissions seeking exemptions from the food additive regulations are available from the Food and Drug Administration's Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. Interested persons are encouraged to obtain specific guidance from the Food and Drug Administration on the appropriate protocols to be used for obtaining migration data, on the validation of the analytical methods used to quantify migration levels, on the procedures used to relate migration data to dietary exposures, and on any other issue not specifically covered in the Food and Drug Administration's guidance documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36595, July 17, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 40599, July 29, 1997; 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000; 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016; 88 FR 17718, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specific Administrative Rulings and Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.45" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.45   Fluorine-containing compounds.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs has concluded that it is in the interest of the public health to limit the addition of fluorine compounds to foods (a) to that resulting from the fluoridation of public water supplies, (b) to that resulting from the fluoridation of bottled water within the limitation established in § 165.110(d) of this chapter, and (c) to that authorized by regulations (40 CFR part 180) under section 408 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14483, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 72 FR 10357 Mar. 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.50" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.50   Glycine (aminoacetic acid) in food for human consumption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Heretofore, the Food and Drug Administration has expressed the opinion in trade correspondence that glycine is generally recognized as safe for certain technical effects in human food when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice; however:
</P>
<P>(1) Reports in scientific literature indicate that adverse effects were found in cases where high levels of glycine were administered in diets of experimental animals.
</P>
<P>(2) Current usage information indicates that the daily dietary intake of glycine by humans may be substantially increasing due to changing use patterns in food technology.
</P>
<FP>Therefore, the Food and Drug Administration no longer regards glycine and its salts as generally recognized as safe for use in human food and all outstanding letters expressing sanction for such use are rescinded.
</FP>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs concludes that by May 8, 1971, manufacturers:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall reformulate food products for human use to eliminate added glycine and its salts; or
</P>
<P>(2) Shall bring such products into compliance with an authorizing food additive regulation. A food additive petition supported by toxicity data is required to show that any proposed level of glycine or its salts added to foods for human consumption will be safe.
</P>
<P>(c) The status of glycine as generally recognized as safe for use in animal feed, as prescribed in § 582.5049 of this chapter, remains unchanged because the additive is considered an essential nutrient in certain animal feeds and is safe for such use under conditions of good feeding practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.60" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.60   Nitrites and/or nitrates in curing premixes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nitrites and/or nitrates are food additives when combined in curing premixes with spices and/or other flavoring or seasoning ingredients that contain or constitute a source of secondary or tertiary amines, including but not limited to essential oils, disodium inosinate, disodium guanylate, hydrolysates of animal or plant origin (such as hydrolyzed vegetable protein), oleoresins of spices, soy products, and spice extractives. Such food additives may be used only after the establishment of an authorizing food additive regulation. A food additive petition submitted pursuant to §§ 171.1 and 171.100 of this chapter, supported by data demonstrating that nitrosamines are not formed in curing premixes containing such food additives, is required to establish safety.
</P>
<P>(b) Nitrites and/or nitrates, when packaged separately from flavoring and seasoning in curing premixes, may continue to be used under prior sanctions in the commercial curing of meat and meat products and poultry products and in accordance with the provisions of §§ 172.170 and 172.175 of this chapter that apply to meat curing preparations for the home curing of meat and meat products, including poultry and wild game. To assure safe use of such ingredients the labeling of the premixes shall bear instructions to the user that such separately packaged ingredients are not to be combined until just prior to use. Encapsulating or coating some or all of the ingredients does not constitute separate packaging.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Premarket Notifications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 35729, May 21, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 170.100" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.100   Submission of a premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN) to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FCN is effective for the food contact substance manufactured or prepared by the manufacturer or supplier identified in the FCN submission. If another manufacturer or supplier wishes to market the same food contact substance for the same use, that manufacturer or supplier must also submit an FCN to FDA.
</P>
<P>(1) An FCN must contain all of the information described in § 170.101.
</P>
<P>(2) An FCN may incorporate by reference any information in FDA's files provided that the manufacturer or supplier is authorized to reference the information. The FCN must include information establishing that the manufacturer or supplier is authorized to reference information in FDA's files.
</P>
<P>(3) Any material submitted in or referenced by an FCN that is in a foreign language must be accompanied by an English translation verified to be complete and accurate.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may choose not to accept an FCN for either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A use of a food contact substance that is the subject of a regulation in parts 173 through 189 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) A use of a food contact substance that is the subject of an exemption under the threshold of regulation process described in § 170.39.
</P>
<P>(c) A petition must be submitted under § 171.1 of this chapter to authorize the safe use of a food contact substance in either of the following circumstances, unless FDA agrees to accept an FCN for the proposed use.
</P>
<P>(1) The use of the food contact substance increases the cumulative dietary concentration to a certain level. For a substance that is a biocide (e.g., it is intended to exert microbial toxicity), this level is equal to or greater than 200 parts per billion in the daily diet (0.6 milligram (mg)/person/day). For a substance that is not a biocide, this level is equal to or greater than 1 part per million in the daily diet (3 mg/person/day); or
</P>
<P>(2) There exists a bioassay on the food contact substance, FDA has not reviewed the bioassay, and the bioassay is not clearly negative for carcinogenic effects.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer or supplier for which a notification is effective must keep a current address on file with FDA.
</P>
<P>(1) The current address may be either the manufacturer's (or supplier's) address or the address of the manufacturer's (or supplier's) agent.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will deliver correspondence to the manufacturer's or supplier's current address.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.101" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.101   Information in a premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN).</HEAD>
<P>An FCN must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A comprehensive discussion of the basis for the manufacturer's or supplier's determination that the use of the food contact substance is safe. This discussion must:
</P>
<P>(1) Discuss all information and data submitted in the notification; and
</P>
<P>(2) Address any information and data that may appear to be inconsistent with the determination that the proposed use of the food contact substance is safe.
</P>
<P>(b) All data and other information that form the basis of the determination that the food contact substance is safe under the intended conditions of use. Data must include primary biological data and chemical data.
</P>
<P>(c) A good laboratory practice statement for each nonclinical laboratory study, as defined under § 58.3(d) of this chapter, that is submitted as part of the FCN, in the form of either:
</P>
<P>(1) A signed statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations under part 58 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) A brief signed statement listing the reason(s) that the study was not conducted in compliance with part 58 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Data from any study conducted after 1978 but not conducted in compliance with part 58 of this chapter must be validated by an independent third party prior to submission to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and the report and signed certification of the validating party must be submitted as part of the notification.
</P>
<P>(d) Information to address FDA's responsibility under the National Environmental Policy Act, in the form of either:
</P>
<P>(1) A claim of categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.32 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) An environmental assessment complying with § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) A completed and signed FDA Form No. 3480.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.102" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.102   Confidentiality of information related to premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN).</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the 120-day period of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) review of an FCN, FDA will not disclose publicly any information in that FCN.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will not disclose publicly the information in an FCN that is withdrawn prior to the completion of FDA's review.
</P>
<P>(c) Once FDA completes its review of an FCN, the agency will make its conclusion about the FCN publicly available. For example, if FDA objects to a notification 90 days after the date of receipt, the agency would make available its objection at that time.
</P>
<P>(d) By submitting an FCN to FDA, the manufacturer or supplier waives any claim to confidentiality of the information required to adequately describe the food contact substance and the intended conditions of use that are the subject of that FCN.
</P>
<P>(e) The following data and information are available for public disclosure, unless extraordinary circumstances are shown, on the 121st day after receipt of the notification by FDA, except that no data or information are available for public disclosure if the FCN is withdrawn under § 170.103; and on the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of an FDA determination that an FCN is no longer effective.
</P>
<P>(1) All safety and functionality data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference into the notification, or submitted in reference to an effective FCN. Safety and functionality data include all studies and tests of a food contact substance on animals and humans and all studies and tests on a food contact substance for establishing identity, stability, purity, potency, performance, and usefulness.
</P>
<P>(2) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is exempt from disclosure under § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) A list of all ingredients contained in a food contact substance, excluding information that is exempt from disclosure under § 20.61 of this chapter. Where applicable, an ingredient list will be identified as incomplete.
</P>
<P>(4) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is exempt from disclosure under § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to the notification or to FDA's determination that an FCN is no longer effective, except information that is exempt under § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) All other information not subject to an exemption from disclosure under subpart D of part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 35729, May 21, 2002, as amended by 89 FR 20315, Mar. 22, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.103" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.103   Withdrawal without prejudice of a premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN).</HEAD>
<P>A manufacturer or supplier may withdraw an FCN without prejudice to a future submission to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) if FDA has not completed review of the FCN. For the purpose of this section, FDA's review is completed when FDA has allowed 120 days to pass without objecting to the FCN or FDA has issued an objection letter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.104" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.104   Action on a premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN).</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) does not object to an FCN within the 120-day period for FDA review, the FCN becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(b) If an FCN is complete when received, the 120-day review period begins on the date FDA receives the FCN.
</P>
<P>(1) If any element required under § 170.101 is missing from an FCN, then FDA will not accept that FCN and FDA will send an FCN nonacceptance letter to the manufacturer or supplier. If the manufacturer or supplier submits the missing information before FDA sends an FCN nonacceptance letter, the 120-day review period begins on the date of receipt of the missing information.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA accepts an FCN, then FDA will acknowledge in writing its receipt of that FCN.
</P>
<P>(c) Objection to an FCN:
</P>
<P>(1) If FDA objects to an FCN, then FDA will send an FCN objection letter. The date of the letter will be the date of FDA's objection for purposes of section 409(h)(2)(A) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA objects to an FCN within the 120-day period for FDA review, the FCN will not become effective.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may object to an FCN if any part of FDA's 120-day review occurs during a period when this program is not funded as required in section 409(h)(5) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) If FDA and a manufacturer or supplier agree that the notifier may submit a food additive petition proposing the approval of the food contact substance for the use in the manufacturer's or supplier's FCN, FDA will consider that FCN to be withdrawn by the manufacturer or supplier on the date the petition is received by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.105" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.105   The Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) determination that a premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN) is no longer effective.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may determine that an FCN is no longer effective if:
</P>
<P>(1) Data or other information available to FDA, including data not submitted by the manufacturer or supplier, demonstrate that the intended use of a food contact substance is no longer safe.
</P>
<P>(i) FDA will inform the affected manufacturer or supplier specified in the FCN, in writing, of FDA's concerns regarding the safety of the intended use of the food contact substance. FDA will specify the date by which the manufacturer or supplier must provide FDA with data or other information to respond to FDA's safety concerns.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the manufacturer or supplier fails, by the specified date, to supply either the data or other information necessary to address the safety concerns regarding the notified use or a request described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, FDA may determine that the FCN is no longer effective because there is no longer a basis to conclude that the intended use is safe.
</P>
<P>(iii) If FDA denies a request described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, and FDA had previously informed the manufacturer or supplier of FDA's concerns regarding the safety of the intended use of the food contact substance as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, FDA may determine that an FCN is no longer effective because there is no longer a basis to conclude that the intended use is safe. Alternatively, FDA may provide the manufacturer or supplier with additional time to provide FDA with data or other information to respond to FDA's safety concerns. If the manufacturer or supplier fails, by the specified date, to supply the data or other information necessary to address the safety concerns regarding the notified use, FDA may determine that the FCN is no longer effective because there is no longer a basis to conclude that the intended use is safe.
</P>
<P>(2) Data or other information available to FDA demonstrate that the manufacturer or supplier specified in the FCN has ceased or intends to cease producing, supplying, or using a food contact substance for the intended use. Such data or other information includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) A request from the manufacturer or supplier.
</P>
<P>(A) The manufacturer or supplier specified in the FCN may request in writing that FDA determine that an FCN is no longer effective on the basis that it has ceased producing, supplying, or using a food contact substance for the intended food contact use in the United States or that it intends to cease producing, supplying, or using a food contact substance for the intended food contact use in the United States by a specified date. The request must include information or a basis to support the estimated date for the food contact substance, as well as food contact articles that contain such food contact substance, produced, supplied, or used by the manufacturer or supplier to clear the U.S. market. FDA will notify the manufacturer or supplier whether FDA is granting the request.
</P>
<P>(B) If FDA grants the request, FDA may determine that the FCN is no longer effective on the basis that the manufacturer or supplier has ceased producing, supplying, or using a food contact substance for the intended use in the United States or that it intends to cease producing, supplying, or using a food contact substance for the intended food contact use in the United States by a specified date. When such a request is based on the intent to cease producing, supplying, or using a food contact substance for the intended food contact use in the United States at a future date, FDA will include in the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section the date specified in the request as the compliance date by which the manufacturer or supplier will cease producing, supplying, or using the food contact substance for the intended food contact use in the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other data or information available to FDA.
</P>
<P>(A) If other data or information available to FDA demonstrate that a manufacturer or supplier specified in the FCN has ceased producing, supplying, or using a food contact substance for the intended use in the United States, FDA will inform the affected manufacturer or supplier in writing. FDA will include a specified time period by which the manufacturer or supplier must respond in writing indicating whether the manufacturer or supplier continues, or intends to continue in the future, to produce, supply, or use a food contact substance for the intended use in the United States.
</P>
<P>(B) If the manufacturer or supplier fails, by the specified date, to respond in writing indicating that the manufacturer or supplier continues, or intends to continue in the future, to produce, supply, or use a food contact substance for the intended use in the United States; or if the manufacturer or supplier confirms that it has ceased producing, supplying, or using the food contact substance for the intended food contact use in the United States, FDA may determine that the FCN is no longer effective.
</P>
<P>(3) The intended use of the food contact substance identified in the FCN is authorized by a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(i) FDA will inform the manufacturer or supplier specified in the FCN in writing that the intended use of the food contact substance identified in the FCN is authorized by a food additive regulation. FDA will include a specified time period by which the manufacturer or supplier must respond to FDA with data or other information about whether the food contact substance and its intended use meet the identity limitations and specifications authorized by the cited food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a manufacturer or supplier fails, by the specified date, to supply data or other information that demonstrates that the intended use of the food contact substance identified in the FCN is not authorized by a food additive regulation, FDA may determine that the FCN is no longer effective on the basis that the intended use of the food contact substance is authorized under a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(4) The intended use of the food contact substance identified in the FCN is the subject of an issued threshold of regulation exemption.
</P>
<P>(i) FDA will inform the manufacturer or supplier specified in the authorizing FCN in writing that the intended use of the food contact substance identified in the FCN is the subject of an issued threshold of regulation exemption. FDA will include a specified time period by which the manufacturer or supplier must respond to FDA with data or other information about whether the food contact substance and its intended use meet the identity limitations and specifications listed in the cited threshold of regulation exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a manufacturer or supplier fails, by the specified date, to supply data or other information that demonstrates that the intended use of the food contact substance identified in the FCN is not exempt through an issued threshold of regulation exemption, FDA may determine that the FCN is no longer effective on the basis that the intended use of the food contact substance is the subject of an issued threshold of regulation exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA determines that an FCN is no longer effective, FDA will publish a notice of its determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> stating that a detailed summary of the basis for FDA's determination that the FCN is no longer effective has been placed on public display and that copies are available upon request. If FDA determines it would be protective of public health, FDA may include a separate compliance date for the use of the food contact substance in food contact articles, including food contact substances that were produced, supplied, or used by the manufacturer or supplier before publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or before the compliance date described in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section. The date that the notice publishes in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> is the date on which the notification is no longer effective. FDA's determination that an FCN is no longer effective is final Agency action subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA's determination that an FCN is no longer effective does not preclude any manufacturer or supplier from submitting a new FCN for the same food contact substance, including for the same intended use, after FDA has determined that an FCN is no longer effective, unless the intended use of the food contact substance is authorized by a food additive regulation or the subject of an issued threshold of regulation exemption. The new submission must be made under §§ 170.100 and 170.101.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 20316, Mar. 22, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.106" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.106   Notification for a food contact substance formulation (NFCSF).</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order for the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to accept an NFCSF, any food additive that is a component of the formulation must be authorized for its intended use in that NFCSF.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating that the agency has insufficient resources to review NFCSFs. From the date that this notice publishes in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> FDA will no longer accept NFCSFs.
</P>
<P>(c) An NFCSF must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A completed and signed FDA Form No. 3479; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any additional documentation required to establish that each component of the formulation already may be marketed legally for its intended use.



 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Generally Recognized as Safe (GRAS) Notice</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 55048, Aug. 17, 2016, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 170.203" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.203   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in § 170.3 apply to such terms when used in this subpart. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Amendment</I> means any data and information that you submit regarding a filed GRAS notice before we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 170.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 170.265(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>GRAS</I> means generally recognized as safe.
</P>
<P><I>GRAS notice</I> means a submission that informs us of your view that a substance is not subject to the premarket approval requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act based on your conclusion that the substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use in accordance with § 170.30.
</P>
<P><I>Notified substance</I> means the substance that is the subject of your GRAS notice.
</P>
<P><I>Notifier</I> means the person (<I>e.g.,</I> an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity) who is responsible for the GRAS notice, even if another person (such as an attorney, agent, or qualified expert) prepares or submits the notice or provides an opinion about the basis for a conclusion of GRAS status.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified expert</I> means an individual who is qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety of substances under the conditions of their intended use in food.
</P>
<P><I>Supplement</I> means any data and information that you submit regarding a filed GRAS notice after we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 170.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 170.265(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>We, our,</I> and <I>us</I> refer to the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
</P>
<P><I>You</I> and <I>your</I> refer to a notifier.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.205" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.205   Opportunity to submit a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may notify FDA of a view that a substance is not subject to the premarket approval requirements of section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act based on that person's conclusion that the substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.210   How to send your GRAS notice to FDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Send your GRAS notice to the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(b) When you submit your GRAS notice, you may do so either in an electronic format that is accessible for our evaluation or on paper. If you send your GRAS notice on paper, a single paper copy is sufficient.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.215" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.215   Incorporation into a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>You may incorporate into your GRAS notice either specifically identified data and information that you previously submitted to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN), or specifically identified publicly available data and information submitted by another party, when such data and information remain in CFSAN's records, such as data and information contained in a previous GRAS notice or a food additive petition.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.220" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.220   General requirements applicable to a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A GRAS notice has seven parts as required by §§ 170.225 through 170.255. You must submit the data and information specified in each of these parts on separate pages or sets of pages.
</P>
<P>(b) You must include each of the seven parts in your GRAS notice. If you do not include a part, you must include with your GRAS notice an explanation of why that part does not apply to your GRAS notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.225" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.225   Part 1 of a GRAS notice: Signed statements and certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 1 of your GRAS notice must be dated and signed by a responsible official of your organization, or by your attorney or agent.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as required by paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must not include any information that is trade secret or confidential commercial information in Part 1 of your GRAS notice.
</P>
<P>(c) In Part 1 of your GRAS notice, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform us that you are submitting a GRAS notice in accordance with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the name and address of your organization;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the name of the notified substance, using an appropriately descriptive term;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the intended conditions of use of the notified substance, including the foods in which the substance will be used, the levels of use in such foods, and the purposes for which the substance will be used, including, when appropriate, a description of a subpopulation expected to consume the notified substance;
</P>
<P>(5) Inform us of the statutory basis for your conclusion of GRAS status (<I>i.e.,</I> through scientific procedures in accordance with § 170.30(a) and (b) or through experience based on common use in food in accordance with § 170.30(a) and (c));
</P>
<P>(6) State your view that the notified substance is not subject to the premarket approval requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act based on your conclusion that the notified substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use;
</P>
<P>(7) State that, if we ask to see the data and information that are the basis for your conclusion of GRAS status, either during or after our evaluation of your notice, you will:
</P>
<P>(i) Agree to make the data and information available to us; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Agree to both of the following procedures for making the data and information available to us:
</P>
<P>(A) Upon our request, you will allow us to review and copy the data and information during customary business hours at the address you specify for where these data and information will be available to us; and
</P>
<P>(B) Upon our request, you will provide us with a complete copy of the data and information either in an electronic format that is accessible for our evaluation or on paper;
</P>
<P>(8) State your view as to whether any of the data and information in Parts 2 through 7 of your GRAS notice are exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (<I>e.g.,</I> as trade secret or as commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential).
</P>
<P>(9) Certify that, to the best of your knowledge, your GRAS notice is a complete, representative, and balanced submission that includes unfavorable information, as well as favorable information, known to you and pertinent to the evaluation of the safety and GRAS status of the use of the substance;
</P>
<P>(10) State both the name and position or title of the person who signs the GRAS notice; and
</P>
<P>(11) When applicable, state as required by § 170.270 whether you:
</P>
<P>(i) Authorize us to send any trade secrets to the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) of the U.S. Department of Agriculture; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ask us to exclude any trade secrets from the copy of the GRAS notice that we will send to FSIS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.230" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.230   Part 2 of a GRAS notice: Identity, method of manufacture, specifications, and physical or technical effect.</HEAD>
<P>In Part 2 of your GRAS notice, you must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Scientific data and information that identifies the notified substance.
</P>
<P>(1) Examples of appropriate data and information include the chemical name, applicable registry numbers (such as a Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) registry number or an Enzyme Commission (EC) number), empirical formula, structural formula, quantitative composition, and characteristic properties.
</P>
<P>(2) When the source of a notified substance is a biological material, you must include data and information sufficient to identify:
</P>
<P>(i) The taxonomic source (<I>e.g.,</I> genus, species) including, as applicable, data and information at the sub-species level (<I>e.g.,</I> variety, strain);
</P>
<P>(ii) The part of any plant or animal used as the source; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any known toxicants that could be in the source;
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the method of manufacture of the notified substance in sufficient detail to evaluate the safety of the notified substance as manufactured;
</P>
<P>(c) Specifications for food-grade material; and
</P>
<P>(d) When necessary to demonstrate safety, relevant data and information bearing on the physical or other technical effect the notified substance is intended to produce, including the quantity of the notified substance required to produce such effect.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.235" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.235   Part 3 of a GRAS notice: Dietary exposure.</HEAD>
<P>In part 3 of your GRAS notice, you must provide data and information about dietary exposure (<I>i.e.,</I> the amount of relevant substances that consumers are likely to eat or drink as part of a total diet), regardless of whether your conclusion of GRAS status is through scientific procedures or through experience based on common use in food, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) You must provide an estimate of dietary exposure to the notified substance that includes exposure from its intended use and all sources in the diet; and
</P>
<P>(b) When applicable, you must provide an estimate of dietary exposure to any other substance that is expected to be formed in or on food because of the use of the notified substance (<I>e.g.,</I> hydrolytic products or reaction products);
</P>
<P>(c) When applicable, you must provide an estimate of dietary exposure to any other substance that is present with the notified substance either naturally or due to its manufacture (<I>e.g.,</I> contaminants or by-products);
</P>
<P>(d) You must describe the source of any food consumption data that you use to estimate dietary exposure in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(e) You must explain any assumptions you made to estimate dietary exposure in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.240" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.240   Part 4 of a GRAS notice: Self-limiting levels of use.</HEAD>
<P>In circumstances where the amount of the notified substance that can be added to food is limited because food containing levels of the notified substance above a particular level would become unpalatable or technologically impractical, in Part 4 of your GRAS notice you must include data and information on such self-limiting levels of use.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.245" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.245   Part 5 of a GRAS notice: Experience based on common use in food before 1958.</HEAD>
<P>If the statutory basis for your conclusion of GRAS status is through experience based on common use in food, in Part 5 of your GRAS notice you must include evidence of a substantial history of consumption of the notified substance for food use by a significant number of consumers prior to January 1, 1958.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.250   Part 6 of a GRAS notice: Narrative.</HEAD>
<P>In Part 6 of your GRAS notice, you must include a narrative that provides the basis for your conclusion of GRAS status, in which:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) You must explain why the data and information in your notice provide a basis for your view that the notified substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use. In your explanation, you must address the safety of the notified substance, considering all dietary sources and taking into account any chemically or pharmacologically related substances in such diet;
</P>
<P>(2) In your explanation, you must identify what specific data and information that you discuss in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section are generally available, and what specific data and information that you discuss in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section are not generally available, by providing citations to the list of data and information that you include in Part 7 of your GRAS notice in accordance with § 170.255;
</P>
<P>(b) You must explain how the generally available data and information that you rely on to establish safety in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section provide a basis for your conclusion that the notified substance is generally recognized, among qualified experts, to be safe under the conditions of its intended use;
</P>
<P>(c) You must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify, discuss, and place in context, data and information that are, or may appear to be, inconsistent with your conclusion of GRAS status, regardless of whether those data and information are generally available; or
</P>
<P>(2) State that you have reviewed the available data and information and are not aware of any data and information that are, or may appear to be, inconsistent with your conclusion of GRAS status;
</P>
<P>(d) If you view any of the data and information in your notice as exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, you must identify the specific data and information; and
</P>
<P>(e) For non-public, safety-related data and information considered in reaching a conclusion of GRAS status, you must explain how there could be a basis for a conclusion of GRAS status if qualified experts do not have access to such data and information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.255" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.255   Part 7 of a GRAS notice: List of supporting data and information in your GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In part 7 of your GRAS notice, you must include a list of all of the data and information that you discuss in Part 6 of your GRAS notice to provide a basis for your view that the notified substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use as described in accordance with § 170.250(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) You must specify which data and information that you list in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section are generally available, and which data and information are not generally available.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.260" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.260   Steps you may take before FDA responds to your GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may submit a timely amendment to your filed GRAS notice, to update your GRAS notice or in response to a question from us, before we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 170.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 170.265(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) At any time before we respond to your GRAS notice in accordance with § 170.265(b)(1), you may request in writing that we cease to evaluate your GRAS notice. Your request does not preclude you from submitting a future GRAS notice in accordance with this subpart with respect to the notified substance.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.265" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.265   What FDA will do with a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) We will conduct an initial evaluation of your submission to determine whether to file it as a GRAS notice for evaluation of your view that the notified substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) If we file your submission as a GRAS notice, we will send you a letter that informs you of the date of filing.
</P>
<P>(3) If we do not file your submission as a GRAS notice, we will send you a letter that informs you of that fact and provides our reasons for not filing the submission as a GRAS notice.
</P>
<P>(4) We will consider any timely amendment that you submit to a filed GRAS notice, to update your GRAS notice or in response to a question from us, before we respond to you by letter in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if we deem that doing so is feasible within the timeframes established in paragraph (b) of this section. If we deem that considering your amendment is not feasible within the timeframes established in paragraph (b) of this section or if we have granted your request to cease to evaluate your notice, we will inform you that we are not considering your amendment.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Within 180 days of filing, we will respond to you by letter based on our evaluation of your notice. We may extend the 180 day timeframe by 90 days on an as needed basis.
</P>
<P>(2) If we extend the timeframe, we will inform you in writing of the extension as soon as practicable but no later than within 180 days of filing.
</P>
<P>(3) If you ask us to cease to evaluate your GRAS notice in accordance with § 170.260(b), we will send you a letter informing you of our decision regarding your request.
</P>
<P>(c) If circumstances warrant, we will send you a subsequent letter about the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.270" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.270   Procedures that apply when the intended conditions of use of a notified substance include use in a product or products subject to regulation by the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>If the intended conditions of use of the notified substance include use in a product or products subject to regulation by FSIS under statutes that it administers:
</P>
<P>(a) When applicable, you must include in your GRAS notice a statement as to whether you:
</P>
<P>(1) Authorize us to send any trade secrets to FSIS; or
</P>
<P>(2) Ask us to exclude any trade secrets from the copy of the GRAS notice that we will send to FSIS.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) We will forward a copy of a GRAS notice or relevant portions thereof to FSIS;
</P>
<P>(2) We will exclude any trade secrets unless you have authorized us to do so in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(c) We will ask FSIS to advise whether the intended conditions of use comply with applicable statutes and regulations, or, if not, whether the use of the substance would be permitted in products under FSIS' jurisdiction under specified conditions or restrictions.
</P>
<P>(d) As appropriate, we will inform you of the advice we receive from FSIS in the letter we send you in accordance with § 170.265(b)(1).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.275" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.275   Public disclosure of a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The data and information in a GRAS notice (including data and information submitted in any amendment or supplement to your GRAS notice or incorporated into your GRAS notice) are:
</P>
<P>(1) Considered a mandatory, rather than voluntary, submission for purposes of their status under the Freedom of Information Act and our public information requirements in part 20 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Available for public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter as of the date that we receive your GRAS notice.
</P>
<P>(b) We will make the following readily accessible to the public:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of filed GRAS notices, including the information described in § 170.225(c)(2) through (c)(5);
</P>
<P>(2) The text of any letter that we issue under § 170.265(b)(1) or (c); and
</P>
<P>(3) The text of any letter that we issue under § 170.265(b)(3) if we grant your request that we cease to evaluate your notice.
</P>
<P>(c) We will disclose all remaining data and information that are not exempt from public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.280" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.280   Submission of a supplement.</HEAD>
<P>If circumstances warrant, you may submit a supplement to a filed GRAS notice after we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 170.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 170.265(b)(3).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.285" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.1.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.285   Disposition of pending GRAS affirmation petitions.</HEAD>
<P>Because the procedure to submit a GRAS notice is replacing the former process to submit a GRAS affirmation petition, the following will happen to a filed GRAS affirmation petition that is pending on October 17, 2016.
</P>
<P>(a) On October 17, 2016, we will close the docket for any GRAS affirmation petition that is still pending as of October 17, 2016.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who submitted a GRAS affirmation petition described in this section may submit a GRAS notice as described in this subpart and request that we incorporate the GRAS affirmation petition as described in § 170.215.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="171" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 171—FOOD ADDITIVE PETITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14489, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.1" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.1   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Petitions to be filed with the Commissioner under the provisions of section 409(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) shall be submitted in triplicate (quadruplicate, if intended uses include use in meat, meat food product, or poultry product). If any part of the material submitted is in a foreign language, it shall be accompanied by an accurate and complete English translation. The petition shall state petitioner's post office address to which published notices or orders issued or objections filed pursuant to section 409 of the Act may be sent.
</P>
<P>(b) Pertinent information may be incorporated in, and will be considered as part of, a petition on the basis of specific reference to such information submitted to and retained in the files of the Food and Drug Administration. However, any reference to unpublished information furnished by a person other than the applicant will not be considered unless use of such information is authorized in a written statement signed by the person who submitted it. Any reference to published information offered in support of a food additive petition should be accompanied by reprints or photostatic copies of such references.
</P>
<P>(c) Petitions shall include the following data and be submitted in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FRP>(Date)  
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>Name of petitioner
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Post-office address
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of food additive and proposed use
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<FP><E T="04">Dear Sirs:</E>
</FP>
<P>The undersigned, __________ submits this petition pursuant to section 409(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to __________
</P>
<FP-1>(Name of the food additive and proposed use)
</FP-1>
<P>Attached hereto, in triplicate (quadruplicate, if intended uses include use in meat, meat food product, or poultry product), and constituting a part of this petition are the following: 
</P>
<P>A. The name and all pertinent information concerning the food additive, including chemical identity and composition of the food additive, its physical, chemical, and biological properties, and specifications prescribing the minimum content of the desired component(s) and identifying and limiting the reaction byproducts and other impurities. Where such information is not available, a statement as to the reasons why it is not should be submitted.
</P>
<P>When the chemical identity and composition of the food additive is not known, the petition shall contain information in sufficient detail to permit evaluation regarding the method of manufacture and the analytical controls used during the various stages of manufacturing, processing, or packing of the food additive which are relied upon to establish that it is a substance of reproducible composition. Alternative methods and controls and variations in methods and controls within reasonable limits that do not affect the characteristics of the substance or the reliability of the controls may be specified.
</P>
<P>If the food additive is a mixture of chemicals, the petition shall supply a list of all substances used in the synthesis, extraction, or other method of preparation, regardless of whether they undergo chemical change in the process. Each substance should be identified by its common English name and complete chemical name, using structural formulas when necessary for specific identification. If any proprietary preparation is used as a component, the proprietary name should be followed by a complete quantitative statement of composition. Reasonable alternatives for any listed substance may be specified.
</P>
<P>If the petitioner does not himself perform all the manufacturing, processing, and packing operations for a food additive, the petition shall identify each person who will perform a part of such operations and designate the part.
</P>
<P>The petition shall include stability data, and, if the data indicate that it is needed to insure the identity, strength, quality, or purity of the additive, the expiration date that will be employed.
</P>
<P>B. The amount of the food additive proposed for use and the purposes for which it is proposed, together with all directions, recommendations, and suggestions regarding the proposed use, as well as specimens of the labeling proposed for the food additive and any labeling that will be required by applicable provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act on the finished food by reason of the use of the food additive. If the additive results or may reasonably be expected to result from the use of packaging material, the petitioner shall show how this may occur and what residues may reasonably be anticipated.
</P>
<P>(Typewritten or other draft-labeling copy will be accepted for consideration of the petition, provided a statement is made that final printed labeling identical in content to the draft copy will be submitted as soon as available and prior to the marketing of the food additive.)
</P>
<P>(If the food additive is one for which a tolerance limitation is required to assure its safety, the level of use proposed should be no higher than the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or other technical effect, even though the safety data may support a higher tolerance.)
</P>
<P>C. Data establishing that the food additive will have the intended physical or other technical effect or that it may reasonably be expected to become a component, or to affect the characteristics, directly or indirectly, of food and the amount necessary to accomplish this. These data should include information in sufficient detail to permit evaluation with control data.
</P>
<P>D. A description of practicable methods to determine the amount of the food additive in the raw, processed, and/or finished food and of any substance formed in or on such food because of its use. The test proposed shall be one that can be used for food-control purposes and that can be applied with consistent results by any properly equipped and trained laboratory personnel.
</P>
<P>E. Full reports of investigations made with respect to the safety of the food additive.
</P>
<P>(A petition may be regarded as incomplete unless it includes full reports of adequate tests reasonably applicable to show whether or not the food additive will be safe for its intended use. The reports ordinarily should include detailed data derived from appropriate animal and other biological experiments in which the methods used and the results obtained are clearly set forth. The petition shall not omit without explanation any reports of investigations that would bias an evaluation of the safety of the food additive.)
</P>
<P>F. Proposed tolerances for the food additive, if tolerances are required in order to insure its safety. A petitioner may include a proposed regulation.
</P>
<P>G. If submitting petition to modify an existing regulation issued pursuant to section 409(c)(1)(A) of the Act, full information on each proposed change that is to be made in the original regulation must be submitted. The petition may omit statements made in the original petition concerning which no change is proposed. A supplemental petition must be submitted for any change beyond the variations provided for in the original petition and the regulation issued on the basis of the original petition.
</P>
<P>H. The petitioner is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P1>Yours very truly,
</P1>
<FP-DASH>Petitioner
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>By
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>(Indicate authority)</FRP></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) The petitioner will be notified of the date on which his petition is filed; and an incomplete petition, or one that has not been submitted in triplicate, will usually be retained but not filed as a petition under section 409 of the Act. The petitioner will be notified in what respects his petition is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(e) The petition must be signed by the petitioner or by his attorney or agent, or (if a corporation) by an authorized official.
</P>
<P>(f) The data specified under the several lettered headings should be submitted on separate sheets or sets of sheets, suitably identified. If such data have already been submitted with an earlier application, the present petition may incorporate it by specific reference to the earlier. If part of the data have been submitted by the manufacturer of the food additive as a master file, the petitioner may refer to the master file if and to the extent he obtains the manufacturer's written permission to do so. The manufacturer may authorize specific reference to the data without disclosure to the petitioner. Nothing herein shall prevent reference to published data.
</P>
<P>(g) A petition shall be retained but shall not be filed if any of the data prescribed by section 409(b) of the Act are lacking or are not set forth so as to be readily understood.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) The following data and information in a food additive petition are available for public disclosure, unless extraordinary circumstances are shown, after the notice of filing of the petition is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or, if the petition is not promptly filed because of deficiencies in it, after the petitioner is informed that it will not be filed because of the deficiencies involved:
</P>
<P>(i) All safety and functionality data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the petition.
</P>
<P>(ii) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information, after deletion of:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution.
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of all ingredients contained in a food additive, whether or not it is in descending order of predominance. A particular ingredient or group of ingredients shall be deleted from any such list prior to public disclosure if it is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter, and a notation shall be made that any such ingredient list is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(v) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The following data and information in a food additive petition are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<P>(3) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to a food additive petition are available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter when the food additive regulation is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this regulation, safety and functionality data include all studies and tests of a food additive on animals and humans and all studies and tests on a food additive for identity, stability, purity, potency, performance, and usefulness.
</P>
<P>(i)(1)(i) Within 15 days after receipt, the Food and Drug Administration will notify the petitioner of the acceptance or nonacceptance of a petition, and if not accepted, the reasons therefor. If accepted, the petitioner will be sent a letter stating this and the date of the letter shall become the date of filing for the purposes of section 409(b)(5) of the act. In cases in which the Food and Drug Administration agrees that a premarket notification for a food contact substance (Food Contact Notification (FCN)) submitted under section 409(h) of the act may be converted to a petition, the withdrawal date for the FCN will be deemed the date of receipt for the petition.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the petitioner desires, he may supplement a deficient petition after being notified regarding deficiencies. If the supplementary material or explanation of the petition is deemed acceptable, the petitioner shall be notified. The date of such notification becomes the date of filing. If the petitioner does not wish to supplement or explain the petition and requests in writing that it be filed as submitted, the petition shall be filed and the petitioner so notified.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section, the petition shall not be filed if the Food and Drug Administration determines that the use identified in the petition should be the subject of an FCN under section 409(h) of the act rather than a petition.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 30 days from the date of filing of such petition, a notice of the filing, the name of the petitioner, and a brief description of the proposal in general terms. In the case of a food additive which becomes a component of food by migration from packaging material, the notice shall include the name of the migratory substance, and where it is different from that of one of the original components, the name of the parent component, the maximum quantity of the migratory substance that is proposed for use in food, and the physical or other technical effect which the migratory substance or its parent component is intended to have in the packaging material. A copy of the notice will be mailed to the petitioner when the original is forwarded to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication.
</P>
<P>(j) The Commissioner may request a full description of the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the production of the food additive, or a sample of the food additive, articles used as components thereof, or of the food in which the additive is proposed to be used, at any time while a petition is under consideration. The Commissioner shall specify in the request for a sample of the food additive, or articles used as components thereof, or of the food in or on which the additive is proposed to be used, a quantity deemed adequate to permit tests of analytical methods to determine quantities of the food additive present in foods for which it is intended to be used or adequate for any study or investigation reasonably required with respect to the safety of the food additive or the physical or technical effect it produces. The date used for computing the 90-day limit for the purposes of section 409(c)(2) of the Act shall be moved forward 1 day for each day after the mailing date of the request taken by the petitioner to submit the sample. If the information or sample is requested a reasonable time in advance of the 180 days, but is not submitted within such 180 days after filing of the petition, the petition will be considered withdrawn without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(k) If nonclinical laboratory studies are involved, petitions filed with the Commissioner under section 409(b) of the act shall include, with respect to each nonclinical study contained in the petition, either a statement that the study has been, or will be, conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations as set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if any such study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) If clinical investigations involving human subjects are involved, petitions filed with the Commissioner under section 409(b) of the Act shall include statements regarding each such clinical investigation relied upon in the petition that it either was conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to such requirements in accordance with § 56.104 or § 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(n)(1) If intended uses of the food additive include uses in meat, meat food product, or poultry product subject to regulation by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) under the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Federal Meat Inspection Act (FMIA) (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>), FDA shall, upon filing of the petition, forward a copy of the petition or relevant portions thereof to the Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA, for simultaneous review under the PPIA and FMIA. 
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will ask USDA to advise whether the proposed meat and poultry uses comply with the FMIA and PPIA, or if not, whether use of the substance would be permitted in products under USDA jurisdiction under specified conditions or restrictions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14489, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 46 FR 8952, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 7492, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 62 FR 40599, July 29, 1997; 65 FR 51763, Aug. 25, 2000; 67 FR 35731, May 21, 2002; 72 FR 10357, Mar. 8, 2007; 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.6" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.6   Amendment of petition.</HEAD>
<P>After a petition has been filed, the petitioner may submit additional information or data in support thereof. In such cases, if the Commissioner determines that the additional information or data amount to a substantive amendment, the petition as amended will be given a new filing date, and the time limitation will begin to run anew. If nonclinical laboratory studies are involved, additional information and data submitted in support of filed petitions shall include, with respect to each nonclinical study, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7492, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.7" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.7   Withdrawal of petition without prejudice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In some cases the Commissioner will notify the petitioner that the petition, while technically complete, is inadequate to justify the establishment of a regulation or the regulation requested by petitioner. This may be due to the fact that the data are not sufficiently clear or complete. In such cases, the petitioner may withdraw the petition pending its clarification or the obtaining of additional data. This withdrawal will be without prejudice to a future filing. Upon refiling, the time limitation will begin to run anew from the date of refiling.
</P>
<P>(b) At any time before the order provided for in § 171.100(a) has been forwarded to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication, the petitioner may withdraw the petition without prejudice to a future filing. Upon refiling the time limitation will begin to run anew.
</P>
<P>(c) Any petitioner who has a food additive petition pending before the agency and who subsequently submits a premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN) for a use or uses described in such petition shall be deemed to have withdrawn the petition for such use or uses without prejudice to a future filing on the date the FCN is received by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14489, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 35731, May 21, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.8" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.8   Threshold of regulation for substances used in food-contact articles.</HEAD>
<P>Substances used in food-contact articles (e.g., food-packaging or food-processing equipment) that migrate or that may be expected to migrate into food at negligible levels may be reviewed under § 170.39 of this chapter. The Food and Drug Administration will exempt substances whose uses it determines meet the criteria in § 170.39 of this chapter from regulation as food additives and, therefore, a food additive petition will not be required for the exempted use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36596, July 17, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Actions on Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.100" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.100   Regulation based on petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner will forward for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> within 90 days after filing of the petition (or within 180 days if the time is extended as provided for in section 409(c)(2) of the Act), a regulation prescribing the conditions under which the food additive may be safely used (including, but not limited to, specifications as to the particular food or classes of food in or on which such additive may be used, the maximum quantity that may be used or permitted to remain in or on such food, the manner in which such additive may be added to or used in or on such food, and any directions or other labeling or packaging requirements for such additive deemed necessary by him to assure the safety of such use), and prior to the forwarding of the order to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication shall notify the petitioner of such order and the reasons for such action; or by order deny the petition, and shall notify the petitioner of such order and of the reasons for such action.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulation shall describe the conditions under which the substance may be safely used in any meat product, meat food product, or poultry product subject to the Federal Meat Inspection Act (FMIA) (21 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) (21 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commissioner determines that additional time is needed to study and investigate the petition, he shall by written notice to the petitioner extend the 90-day period for not more than 180 days after the filing of the petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14489, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 65 FR 51763, Aug. 25, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.102" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.102   Effective date of regulation.</HEAD>
<P>A regulation published in accordance with § 171.100(a) shall become effective upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.110" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.110   Procedure for objections and hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Objections and hearings relating to food additive regulations under section 409 (c), (d), or (h) of the Act shall be governed by part 12 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.130" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.130   Procedure for amending and repealing tolerances or exemptions from tolerances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner, on his own initiative or on the petition of any interested person, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, may propose the issuance of a regulation amending or repealing a regulation pertaining to a food additive or granting or repealing an exception for such additive.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such petition shall include an assertion of facts, supported by data, showing that new information exists with respect to the food additive or that new uses have been developed or old uses abandoned, that new data are available as to toxicity of the chemical, or that experience with the existing regulation or exemption may justify its amendment or repeal. New data shall be furnished in the form specified in §§ 171.1 and 171.100 for submitting petitions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="172" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 172—FOOD ADDITIVES PERMITTED FOR DIRECT ADDITION TO FOOD FOR HUMAN CONSUMPTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 342, 348, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 172 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005; 70 FR 72074, Dec. 1, 2005; and 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.5" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.5   General provisions for direct food additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Regulations prescribing conditions under which food additive substances may be safely used predicate usage under conditions of good manufacturing practice. For the purposes of this part, good manufacturing practice shall be defined to include the following restrictions.
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of the substance added to food does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish its intended physical, nutritive, or other technical effect in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Any substance intended for use in or on food is of appropriate food grade and is prepared and handled as a food ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) The existence of a regulation prescribing safe conditions of use for a food additive shall not be construed to relieve the use of the substance from compliance with any other provision of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The existence of any regulation prescribing safe conditions of use for a nutrient substance does not constitute a finding that the substance is useful or required as a supplement to the diet of humans. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Food Preservatives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.105" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.105   Anoxomer.</HEAD>
<P>Anoxomer as identified in this section may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Anoxomer is 1,4-benzenediol, 2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-polymer with diethenylbenzene, 4-(1,1-dimethyl-ethyl)phenol, 4- methoxyphenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis(phenol) and 4-methylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 60837-57-2) prepared by condensation polymerization of divinylbenzene (<I>m</I>- and <I>p</I>-) with <I>tert</I>-butylhydroquinone, <I>tert</I>-butylphenol, hydroxyanisole, <I>p</I>-cresol and 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol.
</P>
<P>(b) The polymeric antioxidant meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Polymer, not less than 98.0 percent as determined by an ultraviolet method entitled “Ultraviolet Assay, “1982, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Molecular weight: Total monomers, dimers and trimers below 500 not more than 1 percent as determined by a method entitled “Low Molecular Weight Anoxomer Analysis,” 1982, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) Phenol content: Not less than 3.2 milliequivalent/gram and not more than 3.8 milliequivalent/gram as determined by a method entitled “Total Phenols,” 1982, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) Heavy metals as lead (as Pb), not more than 10 parts per million. Arsenic (as As), not more than 3 parts per million. Mercury (as Hg), not more than 1 part per million.
</P>
<P>(c) Anoxomer may be safely used as an antioxidant in food at a level of not more than 5,000 parts per million based on fat and oil content of the food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 18798, Apr. 26, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.110" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.110   BHA.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive BHA (butylated hydroxyanisole) alone or in combination with other antioxidants permitted in food for human consumption in this subpart B may be safely used in or on specified foods, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The BHA meets the following specification:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Assay (total BHA), 98.5 percent minimum. Melting point 48 °C minimum.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The BHA is used alone or in combination with BHT, as an antioxidant in foods, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations (total BHA and BHT) parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dehydrated potato shreds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Active dry yeast</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beverages and desserts prepared from dry mixes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry breakfast cereals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry diced glazed fruit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry mixes for beverages and desserts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emulsion stabilizers for shortenings</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potato flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potato granules</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sweet potato flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> BHA only.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of any market package of the additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) When the additive is marketed in a suitable carrier, in addition to meeting the requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall declare the percentage of the additive in the mixture.
</P>
<P>(3) The label or labeling of dry mixes for beverages and desserts shall bear adequate directions for use to provide that beverages and desserts prepared from the dry mixes contain no more than 2 parts per million BHA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.115" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.115   BHT.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive BHT (butylated hydroxytoluene), alone or in combination with other antioxidants permitted in this subpart B may be safely used in or on specified foods, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The BHT meets the following specification: Assay (total BHT) 99 percent minimum.
</P>
<P>(b) The BHT is used alone or in combination with BHA, as an antioxidant in foods, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations (total BHA and BHT) parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dehydrated potato shreds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry breakfast cereals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emulsion stabilizers for shortenings</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potato flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potato granules</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sweetpotato flakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of any market package of the additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) When the additive is marketed in a suitable carrier, in addition to meeting the requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the label shall declare the percentage of the additive in the mixture.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.120" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.120   Calcium disodium EDTA.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive calcium disodium EDTA (calcium disodium ethylene-diaminetetraacetate) may be safely used in designated foods for the purposes and in accordance with the conditions prescribed, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive contains a minimum of 99 percent by weight of either the dihydrate C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">8</E>N<E T="52">2</E>CaNa<E T="52">2</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O or the trihydrate C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">8</E>N<E T="52">2</E>CaNa<E T="52">2</E>·3H<E T="52">2</E>O, or any mixture of the two.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Alone, in the following foods at not to exceed the levels prescribed, calculated as the anhydrous compound:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation (parts per million)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cabbage, pickled</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color, flavor, and texture retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Canned carbonated soft drinks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote flavor retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Canned white potatoes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clams (cooked canned)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">340</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crabmeat (cooked canned)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retard struvite formation; promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cucumbers pickled</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color, flavor, and texture retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distilled alcoholic beverages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote stability of color, flavor, and/or product clarity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dressings, nonstandardized</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dried lima beans (cooked canned)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Egg product that is hard-cooked and consists, in a cylindrical shape, of egg white with an inner core of egg yolk</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fermented malt beverages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Antigushing agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">French dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Legumes (all cooked canned, other than dried lima beans, pink beans, and red beans)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mayonnaise</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mushrooms (cooked canned)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleomargarine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pecan pie filling</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pink beans (cooked canned)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potato salad</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed dry pinto beans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red beans (cooked canned)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salad dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sandwich spread</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sauces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shrimp (cooked canned)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retard struvite formation; promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spice extractives in soluble carriers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color and flavor retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spreads, artificially colored and lemon-flavored or orange-flavored</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> By weight of egg yolk portion.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) With disodium EDTA (disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate) in the following foods at not to exceed, in combination, the levels prescribed, calculated as anhydrous C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">8</E>N<E T="52">2</E>CaNa<E T="52">2</E>:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation (parts per million)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dressings, nonstandardized</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">French dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mayonnaise</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salad dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sandwich spread</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sauces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the additive container shall bear adequate use directions to provide a final food product that complies with the limitations provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) In the standardized foods listed in paragraph (b) of this section, the additives are used only in compliance with the applicable standards of identity for such foods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 10815, Mar. 15, 1983; 58 FR 52222, Oct. 7, 1993; 60 FR 33710, June 29, 1995; 65 FR 48379, Aug. 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.130" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.130   Dehydroacetic acid.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive dehydroacetic acid and/or its sodium salt may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Dehydroacetic acid: Melting point, 109 °C-111 °C; assay, minimum 98 percent (dry basis).
</FP>
<FP>Sodium salt of dehydroacetic acid: Assay, minimum 98 percent (dry basis).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as a preservative for cut or peeled squash, and is so used that no more than 65 parts per million expressed as dehydroacetic acid remains in or on the prepared squash.
</P>
<P>(c) The label or labeling of any package of the additive intended for use in food shall bear adequate directions for use to insure compliance with this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.133" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.133   Dimethyl dicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>Dimethyl dicarbonate (CAS Reg. No. 4525-33-1) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive has a purity of not less than 99.8 percent as determined by the following titration method:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>principles of method
</HD1>
<P>Dimethyl dicarbonate (DMDC) is mixed with excess diisobutylamine with which it reacts quantitatively. The excess amine is backtitrated with acid.
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<FP-1>250-milliliter (mL) Beaker
</FP-1>
<FP-1>100-mL Graduate cylinder
</FP-1>
<FP-1>25-mL Pipette
</FP-1>
<FP-1>10-mL Burette (automatic, e.g., Metrohm burette)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stirrer
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Device for potentiometric titration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reference electrode
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glass electrode
</FP-1>
<HD1>reagents
</HD1>
<FP-1>Acetone, analytical-grade
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Solution of 1 <I>N</I> diisobutylamine in chlorobenzene, distilled
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1 <I>N</I> Acetic Acid
</FP-1>
<HD1>procedure
</HD1>
<P>Accurately weigh in about 2 grams of the sample (W) and dissolve in 100 mL acetone. Add accurately 25 mL of the 1 <I>N</I> diisobutylamine solution by pipette and allow to stand for 5 minutes. Subsequently, titrate the reaction mixture potentiometrically with 1 <I>N</I> hydrochloric acid (consumption=<I>a</I> mL) while stirring. For determining the blank consumption, carry out the analysis without a sample (consumption=<I>b</I> mL).
</P>
<HD1>calculation</HD1></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er10mr99.023.gif"/>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For adding the diisobutylamine solution, always use the same pipette and wait for a further three drops to fall when the flow has stopped.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The additive contains not more than 2,000 ppm (0.2 percent) dimethyl carbonate as determined by a method entitled “Gas Chromatography Method for Dimethyl Carbonate Impurity in Dimethyl Dicarbonate,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a microbial control agent in the following beverages under normal circumstances of bottling, canning, or other forms of final packaging, where the viable microbial load has been reduced to 500 microorganisms per milliliter or less by current good manufacturing practices such as heat treatment, filtration, or other technologies prior to the use of dimethyl dicarbonate: 
</P>
<P>(1) In wine, dealcoholized wine, and low alcohol wine in an amount not to exceed 200 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(2) In ready-to-drink teas in an amount not to exceed 250 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(3) In carbonated or noncarbonated, nonjuice-containing (less than or equal to 1 percent juice), flavored or unflavored beverages containing added electrolytes (5-20 milliequivalents/liter sodium ion (Na + ) and 3-7 milliequivalents/liter potassium ion (K + )) in an amount not to exceed 250 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(4) In carbonated, dilute beverages containing juice, fruit flavor, or both, with juice content not to exceed 50 percent, in an amount not to exceed 250 parts per million. 
</P>
<P>(c) To ensure the safe use of the food additive, the label of the package containing the additive shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive “dimethyl dicarbonate.”
</P>
<P>(2) The intended use of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use to ensure compliance with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 41329, Oct. 21, 1988, as amended at 58 FR 6091, Jan. 26, 1993; 59 FR 5319, Feb. 4, 1994; 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996; 61 FR 26788, May 29, 1996; 66 FR 13653, Mar. 7, 2001; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.135" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.135   Disodium EDTA.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive disodium EDTA (disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate) may be safely used in designated foods for the purposes and in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive contains a minimum of 99 percent disodium ethylenedia-minetetraacetate dihydrate (C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">14</E>O<E T="52">8</E>N<E T="52">2</E>Na<E T="52">2</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O).
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Alone, in the following foods at not to exceed the levels prescribed, calculated as anhydrous calcium disodium EDTA:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation (parts per million)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aqueous multivitamin preparations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">With iron salts as a stabilizer for vitamin B 
<sup>12</sup> in liquid multivitamin preparations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Canned black-eyed peas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Canned kidney beans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Canned strawberry pie filling</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooked sausage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a cure accelerator with sodium ascorbate or ascorbic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dressings, nonstandardized</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">French dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen white potatoes including cut potatoes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gefilte fish balls or patties in packing medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Inhibit discoloration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Legumes (all cooked canned, other than black-eyed peas)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mayonnaise</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ready-to-eat cereal products containing dried bananas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 315</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promote color retention.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salad dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sandwich spread</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sauces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Based on total weight of finished product including packing medium.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> In dried banana component of cereal product.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) With calcium disodium EDTA (calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate; calcium disodium (ethylenedinitrilo) tetraacetate), in the following foods at not to exceed, in combination, the levels prescribed, calculated as anhydrous C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">8</E>N<E T="52">2</E>CaNa<E T="52">2</E>:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation (parts per million)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dressings, nonstandardized</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">French dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mayonnaise</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salad dressing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sandwich spread</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sauces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Alone, as a sequestrant in the nonnutritive sweeteners that are listed in § 180.37 of this chapter and that, in addition, are designed for aqueous solution: <I>Provided,</I> That the amount of the additive, calculated as anhydrous calcium disodium EDTA, does not exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the dry nonnutritive sweetener.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure the safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the additive container shall bear adequate use directions to provide a final food product that complies with the limitations provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) In the standardized foods listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section the additives are used only in compliance with the applicable standards of identity for such foods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 65 FR 48379, Aug. 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.140" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.140   Ethoxyquin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ethoxyquin (1,2-dihydro-6-ethoxy-2,2,4-trimethylquinoline) may be safely used as an antioxidant for preservation of color in the production of chili powder, paprika, and ground chili at levels not in excess of 100 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to provide for the safe use of the additive in feed prepared in accordance with §§ 573.380 and 573.400 of this chapter, tolerances are established for residues of ethoxyquin in or on edible products of animals as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>5 parts per million in or on the uncooked fat of meat from animals except poultry.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3 parts per million in or on the uncooked liver and fat of poultry.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>0.5 part per million in or on the uncooked muscle meat of animals.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>0.5 part per million in poultry eggs.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zero in milk.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.145" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.145   Heptylparaben.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food additive heptylparaben is the chemical <I>n</I>-heptyl <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoate.
</P>
<P>(b) It may be safely used to inhibit microbiological spoilage in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) In fermented malt beverages in amounts not to exceed 12 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(2) In noncarbonated soft drinks and fruit-based beverages in amounts not to exceed 20 parts per million, when standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 341) do not preclude such use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.150" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.150   4-Hydroxymethyl-2,6-di-<E T="7462">tert</E>-butylphenol.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive 4-hydroxymethyl-2,6-di-<I>tert</I>-butylphenol may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive has a solidification point of 140 °C-141 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used as an antioxidant alone or in combination with other permitted antioxidants.
</P>
<P>(c) The total amount of all antioxidants added to such food shall not exceed 0.02 percent of the oil or fat content of the food, including the essential (volatile) oil content of the food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.155" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.155   Natamycin (pimaricin).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Natamycin (CAS Reg. No. 7681-93-8), also known as pimaricin, is a polyene macrolide antimycotic substance possessing an empirical formula of C<E T="52">33</E>H<E T="52">47</E>NO<E T="52">13</E> and a molecular weight of 665.7.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Purity: 97 percent ±2 percent on an anhydrous basis.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic: Not more than 1 part per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heavy metals (as Pb): Not more than 20 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive may be applied on cheese, as an antimycotic, in amounts not to exceed 20 milligrams per kilogram (20 parts per million) in the finished product as determined by International Dairy Federation (IDF) Standard 140A:1992, “Cheese and Cheese Rind-Determination of Natamycin Content-Method by Molecular Absorption Spectrometry and by High-Performance Liquid Chromatography,” which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 26823, June 22, 1982, as amended at 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985; 63 FR 66015, Dec. 1, 1998; 66 FR 13847, Mar. 8, 2001; 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.160" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.160   Potassium nitrate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive potassium nitrate may be safely used as a curing agent in the processing of cod roe, in an amount not to exceed 200 parts per million of the finished roe. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.165" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.165   Quaternary ammonium chloride combination.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, quaternary ammonium chloride combination, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive contains the following compounds: <I>n-</I>dodecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 139-07-1); <I>n-</I>dodecyl dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 27479-28-3); <I>n-</I>hexadecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 122-18-9); <I>n-</I>octadecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 122-19-0); <I>n-</I>tetradecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 139-08-2); <I>n-</I>tetradecyl dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 27479-29-4).
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications: pH (5 percent active solution) 7.0-8.0; total amines, maximum 1 percent as combined free amines and amine hydrochlorides.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent, as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter, in raw sugar cane juice. It is added prior to clarification when further processing of the sugar cane juice must be delayed.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is applied to the sugar juice in the following quantities, based on the weight of the raw cane:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dodecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25-1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dodecyl dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4-13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Hexadecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Octadecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25-1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Tetradecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0-12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Tetradecyl dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6-6.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 3890, Jan. 29, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.167" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.167   Silver nitrate and hydrogen peroxide solution.</HEAD>
<P>An aqueous solution containing a mixture of silver nitrate and hydrogen peroxide may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent in bottled water.
</P>
<P>(b) Hydrogen peroxide meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 496-497, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The amount of silver added will not exceed 17 micrograms per kilogram in the treated bottled water, and the amount of hydrogen peroxide will not exceed 23 milligrams per kilogram in the treated bottled water. Analyses for silver and hydrogen peroxide shall be conducted on samples of treated bottled water at the site of bottling, using samples of the water intended for treatment for the blank determination.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The amount of silver in the treated bottled water is determined using the method for silver designated in 21 CFR 165.110(b)(4)(iii)(G)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of hydrogen peroxide in the treated bottled water is determined using a Hydrogen Peroxide Test Kit from the HACH Co., or equivalent. The manual from the Hydrogen Peroxide Test Kit, Model HYP-1, Catalog Number 22917-00, 1991, is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies of the test kit manual from the HACH Co., P.O. Box 389, Loveland CO, 80359 (1-800-227-4224), Model HYP-1, Catalog Number 22917-00. Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) Substances generally recognized as safe in or on food may be used to stabilize the additive to ensure that the additive will perform its intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(f) The additive may not be added to bottled water that has been filtered or is intended to be filtered through a silver-containing water filter.
</P>
<P>(g) Bottled water must meet the quality standards for bottled water in § 165.110(b)(2) through (b)(5) of this chapter, including the limits specified for total silver and nitrate, unless the water bears a label statement of substandard quality, as provided for under § 165.110(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 11478, Mar. 18, 2009, as amended at 78 FR 71461, Nov. 29, 2013; 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.170" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.170   Sodium nitrate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sodium nitrate may be safely used in or on specified foods in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As a preservative and color fixative, with or without sodium nitrite, in smoked, cured sablefish, smoked, cured salmon, and smoked, cured shad, so that the level of sodium nitrate does not exceed 500 parts per million and the level of sodium nitrite does not exceed 200 parts per million in the finished product.
</P>
<P>(2) As a preservative and color fixative, with or without sodium nitrite, in meat-curing preparations for the home curing of meat and meat products (including poultry and wild game), with directions for use which limit the amount of sodium nitrate to not more than 500 parts per million in the finished meat product and the amount of sodium nitrite to not more than 200 parts per million in the finished meat product.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive or of a mixture containing the additive shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration of the additive in any mixture.
</P>
<P>(2) If in a retail package intended for household use, the label and labeling of the additive, or of a mixture containing the additive, shall bear adequate directions for use to provide a final food product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If in a retail package intended for household use, the label of the additive or of a mixture containing the additive, shall bear the statement “Keep out of the reach of children”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.175" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.175   Sodium nitrite.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sodium nitrite may be safely used in or on specified foods in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As a color fixative in smoked cured tunafish products so that the level of sodium nitrite does not exceed 10 parts per million (0.001 percent) in the finished product.
</P>
<P>(2) As a preservative and color fixative, with or without sodium nitrate, in smoked, cured sablefish, smoked, cured salmon, and smoked, cured shad so that the level of sodium nitrite does not exceed 200 parts per million and the level of sodium nitrate does not exceed 500 parts per million in the finished product.
</P>
<P>(3) As a preservative and color fixative, with sodium nitrate, in meat-curing preparations for the home curing of meat and meat products (including poultry and wild game), with directions for use which limit the amount of sodium nitrite to not more than 200 parts per million in the finished meat product, and the amount of sodium nitrate to not more than 500 parts per million in the finished meat product.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive or of a mixture containing the additive shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration of the additive in any mixture.
</P>
<P>(2) If in a retail package intended for household use, the label and labeling of the additive, or of a mixture containing the additive, shall bear adequate directions for use to provide a final food product which complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If in a retail package intended for household use, the label of the additive, or of a mixture containing the additive, shall bear the statement “Keep out of the reach of children”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.177" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.177   Sodium nitrite used in processing smoked chub.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sodium nitrite may be safely used in combination with salt (NaCl) to aid in inhibiting the outgrowth and toxin formation from <I>Clostridium botulinum</I> type E in the commercial processing of smoked chub in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) All fish in smoking establishments shall be clean and wholesome and shall be expeditiously processed, packed, and stored under adequate sanitary conditions in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(b) The brining procedure is controlled in such a manner that the water phase portion of the edible portion of the finished smoked product has a salt (NaCl) content of not less than 3.5 percent, as measured in the loin muscle, and the sodium nitrite content of the edible portion of the finished smoked product is not less than 100 parts per million and not greater than 200 parts per million, as measured in the loin muscle.
</P>
<P>(c) Smoked chub shall be heated by a controlled heat process which provides a monitoring system positioned in as many strategic locations in the smokehouse as necessary to assure a continuous temperature throughout each fish of at least 160 °F for a minimum of 30 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) The finished product shall be cooled to a temperature of 50 °F or below within 3 hours after smoking and further cooled to a temperature of 38 °F or below within 12 hours after smoking. A temperature of 38 °F or below shall be maintained during all subsequent storage and distribution. All shipping containers, retail packages, and shipping records shall indicate with appropriate notice the perishable nature of the product and specify that the product shall be held under refrigeration (38 °F or below) until consumed.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the additive container shall bear adequate directions to assure use in compliance with the provisions of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.180" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.180   Stannous chloride.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive stannous chloride may be safely used for color retention in asparagus packed in glass, with lids lined with an inert material, in an amount not to exceed 20 parts per million calculated as tin (Sn).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.185" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.185   TBHQ.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive TBHQ, which is the chemical 2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-1,4-benzenediol (Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 1948-33-0), also known as tertiary butylhydroquinone, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive has a melting point of not less than 126.5 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) The percentage of TBHQ in the food additive is not less than 99.0 percent when tested by the assay described in the Food Chemicals Codex, 9th ed. (2014), pp. 1192-1194, which is incorporated by reference, or an equivalent method. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address: <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used as an antioxidant alone or in combination with BHA and/or BHT.
</P>
<P>(d) The total antioxidant content of a food containing the additive will not exceed 0.02 percent of the oil or fat content of the food, including the essential (volatile) oil content of the food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 80 FR 34276, June 16, 2015; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.190" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.190   THBP.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive THBP (2,4,5-trihydroxybutyrophenone) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive has a melting point of 149 °C-153 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used as an antioxidant alone or in combination with other permitted antioxidants.
</P>
<P>(c) The total antioxidant content of a food containing the additive will not exceed 0.02 percent of the oil or fat content of the food, including the essential (volatile) oil content of the food.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Coatings, Films and Related Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.210   Coatings on fresh citrus fruit.</HEAD>
<P>Coatings may be applied to fresh citrus fruit for protection of the fruit in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The coating is applied in the minimum amount required to accomplish the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(b) The coating may be formulated from the following components, each used in the minimum quantity required to accomplish the intended effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe for the purpose or previously sanctioned for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.860.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.862.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Partially hydrogenated rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Catalytically hydrogenated to a maximum refractive index of 1.5012 at 100 °C. Color of WG or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acid number of 134-145; drop-softening point of 127 °C-173 °C; saponification number of less than 280; and a color of M or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acid number of 176-186; drop-softening point of 110 °C-118 °C; saponification number of less than 280; and a color of M or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.820. As a defoamer and dispersing adjuvant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyhydric alcohol diesters of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3770 of this chapter and having a dropping point of 77 to 83 °C (170.6 to 181.4 °F), as determined by ASTM Method D566-76 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Dropping Point of Lubricating Grease,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies are available from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>) using as a solvent xylene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio instead of toluene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium lauryl sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.822. As a film former.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wood rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Color of K or paler.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) In lieu of the components listed in paragraph (b)(2) and (4) of this section, the following copolymer and one or more of the listed adjuvants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride-vinylidene chloride copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aqueous dispersion containing a minimum of 75 percent water when applied.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.820. As a defoamer and dispersing adjuvant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinylpyrrolidone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an adjuvant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium persulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol alginate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium decylbenzenesulfonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) In lieu of the components listed in paragraph (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the following rosin derivative and either or both of the listed adjuvants:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium salt of partially dimerized rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having a maximum drop-softening point of 197 °C and a color of H or paler. It is prepared by reaction with not more than 7 parts hydrated lime per 100 parts of partially dimerized rosin. The partially dimerized rosin is rosin that has been dimerized by sulfuric acid catalyst to a drop-softening point of 95 °C to 105 °C and a color of WG or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum naphtha</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As adjuvant. Complying with § 172.250.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sperm oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As adjuvant.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977; 49 FR 5747, Feb. 15, 1984, as amended at 51 FR 2693, Jan. 21, 1986; 52 FR 18911, May 20, 1987; 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.215" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.215   Coumarone-indene resin.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive coumarone-indene resin may be safely used on grapefruit, lemons, limes, oranges, tangelos, and tangerines in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by the polymerization of a crude, heavy coal-tar solvent naphtha meeting the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) It is a mixture of indene, indan (hydrindene), substituted benzenes, and related compounds.
</P>
<P>(2) It contains no more than 0.25 percent tar bases.
</P>
<P>(3) 95 percent distills in the range 167 °C-184 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Softening point, ring and ball: 126 °C minimum as determined by ASTM method E28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring-and-Ball Apparatus,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Refractive index (<I>n</I>
<SU>25</SU>/<I>D</I>) 1.63-1.64.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as a protective coating for grapefruit, lemons, limes, oranges, tangelos, and tangerines whereby the maximum amount of the resin remaining on the fruit does not exceed 200 parts per million on a fresh-weight basis.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the market package or any intermediate premix of the additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive, coumarone-indene resin.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration of the additive therein.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or accompanying labeling shall bear adequate directions that, if followed, will result in a finished food not in conflict with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10103, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.225" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.225   Methyl and ethyl esters of fatty acids produced from edible fats and oils.</HEAD>
<P>Methyl esters and ethyl esters of fatty acids produced from edible fats and oils may be safely used in food, subject to the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive consists of a mixture of either methyl or ethyl esters of fatty acids produced from edible fats and oils and meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than 90 percent methyl or ethyl esters of fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than 1.5 percent unsaponifiable matter.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use at the level not to exceed 3 percent by weight in an aqueous emulsion in dehydrating grapes to produce raisins, whereby the residue of the additive on the raisins does not exceed 200 parts per million.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12711, Apr. 13, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.230" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.230   Microcapsules for flavoring substances.</HEAD>
<P>Microcapsules may be safely used for encapsulating discrete particles of flavoring substances that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use or are regulated under this part, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The microcapsules may be formulated from the following components, each used in the minimum quantity required to accomplish the intended effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the following components:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>component and limitations
</HD1>
<FP-1>Succinylated gelatin—Not to exceed 15 percent by combined weight of the microcapsule and flavoring oil. Succinic acid content of the gelatin is 4.5 to 5.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arabinogalactan—Complying with § 172.610; as adjuvant.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silicon dioxide—Complying with § 172.480; as adjuvant.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) In lieu of the components listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the following components:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>component and limitations
</HD1>
<FP-1>Glutaraldehyde—As cross-linking agent for insolubilizing a coacervate of gum arabic and gelatin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Octyl alcohol—As a defoamer.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) In lieu of the components listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, the following component:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>component and limitations
</HD1>
<FP-1>Petroleum wax—Complying with § 172.886. Not to exceed 50 percent by combined weight of the microcapsule and spice-flavoring substance.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The microcapsules produced from the components listed in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section may be used for encapsulating authorized flavoring oils for use, in accordance with good manufacturing practice, in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use, except that microcapsules formulated from components listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be used only for encapsulating lemon oil, distilled lime oil, orange oil, peppermint oil, and spearmint oil for use in dry mixes for puddings and gelatin desserts.
</P>
<P>(c) The microcapsules produced from the components listed in paragraphs (a)(1) and (4) of this section may be used only for encapsulating authorized spice-flavoring substances for use, in accordance with good manufacturing practice, in frozen pizzas which are to be further processed by heat. Such pizzas shall bear labels or labeling including adequate directions for use to ensure heating to temperatures which will melt the wax to release the spice-flavoring substances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 48123, July 18, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.235" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.235   Morpholine.</HEAD>
<P>Morpholine may be safely used as a component of food, subject to the following restrictions.
</P>
<P>(a) It is used as the salt(s) of one or more of the fatty acids meeting the requirements of § 172.860, as a component of protective coatings applied to fresh fruits and vegetables.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used at a level not in excess of that reasonably required to produce its intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.250   Petroleum naphtha.</HEAD>
<P>Petroleum naphtha may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons, essentially paraffinic and naphthenic in nature obtained from petroleum,
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is refined to meet the following specifications when subjected to the procedures described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) Boiling-point range: 175 °F-300 °F.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonvolatile residue: 0.002 gram per 100 milliliters maximum.
</P>
<P>(3) Ultraviolet absorbance limits, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength (milli-microns)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorbance per centimeter optical pathlength
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280-289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300-359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360-400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Analytical Specification for Petroleum Naphtha
</HD1>
<HD1>general instructions
</HD1>
<P>All glassware should be scrupulously cleaned to remove all organic matter such as oil, grease, detergent residues, etc. Examine all glassware, including stoppers and stopcocks, under ultraviolet light to detect any residual fluorescent contamination. As a precautionary measure, it is recommended practice to rinse all glassware with purified isooctane immediately before use. No grease is to be used on stopcocks or joints. Great care to avoid contamination of petroleum naphtha samples in handling and to assure absence of any extraneous material arising from inadequate packaging is essential. Because some of the polynuclear hydrocarbons sought in this test are very susceptible to photo-oxidation, the entire procedure is to be carried out under subdued light.
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<P><I>Separatory funnels.</I> 250-milliliter, and 2,000-milliliter capacity, equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcocks.
</P>
<P><I>Erlenmeyer flask.</I> 125-milliliter with 24/40 standard taper neck.
</P>
<P><I>Evaporation flask.</I> 250-milliliter capacity all-glass flask equipped with 24/40 standard taper stopper having inlet and outlet tubes to permit passage of nitrogen across the surface of the container liquid to be evaporated.
</P>
<P><I>Condenser.</I> 24/40 joints, fitted with drying tube, length optional.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometric cells.</I> Fused quartz cells, optical path length in the range of 5,000 centimeters ±0.005 centimeter; also for checking spectrophotometer performance only, optical path length in the range 1,000 centimeter ±0.005 centimeter. With distilled water in the cells, determine any absorbance difference.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometer.</I> Spectral range 250-400 mµ with spectral slit width of 2 mµ or less; under instrument operating conditions for these absorbance measurements, the spectrophotometer shall also meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<FP-1>Absorbance repeatability, ±0.01 at 0.4 absorbance.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Absorbance accuracy, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> ±0.05 at 0.4 absorbance.
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As determined by procedure using potassium chromate for reference standard and described in National Bureau of Standards Circular 484, Spectrophotometry, U.S. Department of Commerce, (1949). The accuracy is to be determined by comparison with the standard values at 290, 345, and 400 millimicrons. The procedure is incorporated by reference. Copies of the material incorporated by reference are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<FP-1>Wavelength repeatability, ±0.2 millimicron.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wavelength accuracy, ±1.0 millimicron.
</FP-1>
<P><I>Ultraviolet lamp.</I> Long wavelength (3400-3800A°).
</P>
<HD1>reagents
</HD1>
<P><I>Isooctane</I> (<I>2,2,4-trimethylpentane</I>). Use 180 milliliters in a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask, add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n</I>-hexadecane, insert the head assembly, allow nitrogen gas to flow into the inlet tube and connect the outlet tube to a solvent trap and vacuum line in such a way as to prevent any back flow of condensate into the flask. The contents of the flask are evaporated on a steam bath until 1 milliliter of residue remains. Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane residue in isooctane and make up to 25 milliliters. Determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter path length cell compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance should not exceed 0.01 per centimeter path length between 280-400 mµ. If necessary, isooctane may be purified by passage through a column of activated silica gel (Grade 12, Davidson Chemical Co., Baltimore, Md., or equivalent) or by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Methyl alcohol, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 10 milliliters and proceed as with isooctane. The absorbance per centimeter of path length should be 0.00 between 280-400 mµ. Methyl alcohol may be purified by simple distillation or by refluxing in the presence of potassium hydroxide (10 grams/2 liters) and zinc dust (25 grams/2 liters) for 3 hours followed by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>n-Hexadecane, 99 percent olefin-free.</I> Dilute 1.0 milliliter of <I>n-</I>hexadecane to 25 milliliters with isooctane and determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter cell compared to isooctane as reference between 280-400 mµ. The absorbance per centimeter path length shall not exceed 0.00 in this range. Purify, if necessary, by percolation through activated silica gel or by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium borohydride.</I> 98 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Water.</I> All distilled water must be extracted with isooctane before use. A series of three successive extracts of 1.5 liters of distilled water with 100-milliliter portions of isooctane is satisfactory.
</P>
<HD1>procedure
</HD1>
<P><I>Determination of ultraviolet absorbance.</I> Add a 25-milliliter aliquot of the hydrocarbon solvent together with 1 milliliter of hexadecane to the 125-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask. While flushing with nitrogen, evaporate to 1 milliliter on a steam bath. Nitrogen is admitted through a 8±1-milliliter outer-diameter tube, drawn out into a 2±1-centimeter long and 1±0.5-millimeter inner-diameter capillary tip. This is positioned so that the capillary tip extends 4 centimeters into the flask. The nitrogen flow rate is such that the surface of the liquid is barely disturbed. After the volume is reduced to that of the 1 milliliter of hexadecane, the flask is left on the steam bath for 10 more minutes before removing. Add 10 milliliters of purified isooctane to the flask and reevaporate the solution to a 1-milliliter volume in the same manner as described above, except do not heat for an added 10 minutes. Repeat this operation twice more. Let the flask cool. 
</P>
<P>Add 10 milliliters of methyl alcohol and about 0.3 gram of sodium borohydride. (Minimize exposure of the borohydride to the atmosphere; a measuring dipper may be used.) Immediately fit a water-cooled condenser equipped with a 24/40 joint and with a drying tube into the flask, mix until the sodium borohydride is dissolved, and allow to stand for 30 minutes at room temperature, with intermittent swirling. At the end of this time, disconnect the flask and evaporate the methyl alcohol on the steam bath under nitrogen until sodium borohydride begins to drop out of solution. Remove the flask and let it cool.
</P>
<P>Add 6 milliliters of isooctane to the flask and swirl to wash the crystalline slurry. Carefully transfer the isooctane extract to a 250-milliliter separatory funnel. Dissolve the crystals in the flask with about 25 milliliters of distilled water and pour this also into the separatory funnel. Adjust the water volume in the separatory funnel to about 100 milliliters and shake for 1 minute. After separation of the layers, draw off the aqueous layer into a second 250-milliliter separatory funnel. Transfer the hydrocarbon layer in the first funnel to a 25-milliliter volumetric flask.
</P>
<P>Carefully wash the Erlenmeyer flask with an additional 6 milliliters of isooctane, swirl, and transfer to the second separatory funnel. Shake the funnel for 1 minute. After separation of the layers, draw off the aqueous layer into the first separatory funnel. Transfer the isooctane in the second funnel to the volumetric flask. Again wash the Erlenmeyer flask with an additional 6 milliliters of isooctane, swirl, and transfer to the first separatory funnel. Shake the funnel for 1 minute. After separation of the layers, draw off the aqueous layer and discard. Transfer the isooctane layer to the volumetric flask and adjust the volume to 25 milliliters of isooctane. Mix the contents well, then transfer to the first separatory funnel and wash twice with 50-milliliter portions of distilled water. Discard the aqueous layers after each wash.
</P>
<P>Determine the ultraviolet absorbance of the isooctane extract in 5-centimeter path length cells compared to isooctane as reference between 280-400 mµ. Determine a reagent blank concurrently with the sample, using 25 milliliters of purified isooctane instead of a solvent sample and measuring the ultraviolet absorbance of the blank between 280-400mµ.
</P>
<P>The reagent blank absorbance should not exceed 0.04 per centimeter path length between 280-289 mµ; 0.020 between 290-359 mµ; and 0.010 between 360-400 mµ.
</P>
<P><I>Determination of boiling-point range.</I> Use ASTM method D86-82, “Standard Method for Distillation of Petroleum Products,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Determination of nonvolatile residue.</I> For hydrocarbons boiling below 121 °C, determine the nonvolatile residue by ASTM method D1353-78, “Standard Test Method for Nonvolatile Matter in Volatile Solvents for Use in Paint, Varnish, Lacquer, and Related Products;” for those boiling above 121 °C, use ASTM method D381-80, “Standard Test Method for Existent Gum in Fuels by Jet Evaporation,” which methods are incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Petroleum naphtha containing antioxidants shall meet the specified ultraviolet absorbance limits after correction for any absorbance due to the antioxidants. Petroleum naphtha may contain antioxidants authorized for use in food in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect or to exceed any prescribed limitations.
</P>
<P>(d) Petroleum naphtha is used or intended for use as a solvent in protective coatings on fresh citrus fruit in compliance with § 172.210.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11835, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10104, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24896, June 12, 1989; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.255" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.255   Polyacrylamide.</HEAD>
<P>Polyacrylamide containing not more than 0.2 percent of acrylamide monomer may be safely used as a film former in the imprinting of soft-shell gelatin capsules when the amount used is not in excess of the minimum required to produce the intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.260" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.260   Oxidized polyethylene.</HEAD>
<P>Oxidized polyethylene may be safely used as a component of food, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(a) Oxidized polyethylene is the basic resin produced by the mild air oxidation of polyethylene. The polyethylene used in the oxidation process conforms to the density, maximum <I>n-</I>hexane extractable fraction, and maximum xylene soluble fraction specifications prescribed in item 2.3 of the table in § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. The oxidized polyethylene has a minimum number average molecular weight of 1,200, as determined by high temperature vapor pressure osmometry; contains a maximum of 5 percent by weight of total oxygen; and has an acid value of 9 to 19.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a protective coating or component of protective coatings for fresh avocados, bananas, beets, coconuts, eggplant, garlic, grapefruit, lemons, limes, mango, muskmelons, onions, oranges, papaya, peas (in pods), pineapple, plantain, pumpkin, rutabaga, squash (acorn), sweetpotatoes, tangerines, turnips, watermelon, Brazil nuts, chestnuts, filberts, hazelnuts, pecans, and walnuts (all nuts in shells).
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used in accordance with good manufacturing practice and in an amount not to exceed that required to produce the intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.270" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.270   Sulfated butyl oleate.</HEAD>
<P>Sulfate butyl oleate may be safely used in food, subject to the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is prepared by sulfation, using concentrated sulfuric acid, of a mixture of butyl esters produced by transesterification of an edible vegetable oil using 1-butanol. Following sulfation, the reaction mixture is washed with water and neutralized with aqueous sodium or potassium hydroxide. Prior to sulfation, the butyl oleate reaction mixture meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than 90 percent butyl oleate.
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than 1.5 percent unsaponifiable matter.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use at a level not to exceed 2 percent by weight in an aqueous emulsion in dehydrating grapes to produce raisins, whereby the residue of the additive on the raisins does not exceed 100 parts per million.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12711, Apr. 13, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.275" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.275   Synthetic paraffin and succinic derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic paraffin and succinic derivatives identified in this section may be safely used as a component of food, subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is prepared with 50 percent Fischer-Tropsch process synthetic paraffin, meeting the definition and specifications of § 172.615, and 50 percent of such synthetic paraffin to which is bonded succinic anhydride and succinic acid derivatives of isopropyl alcohol, polyethylene glycol, and polypropylene glycol. It consists of a mixture of the Fischer-Tropsch process paraffin (alkane), alkyl succinic anhydride, alkyl succinic anhydride isopropyl half ester, dialkyl succinic anhydride polyethylene glycol half ester, and dialkyl succinic anhydride polypropylene glycol half ester, where the alkane (alkyl) has a chain length of 30-70 carbon atoms and the polyethylene and polypropylene glycols have molecular weights of 600 and 260, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications: Molecular weight, 880-930; melting point, 215°-217 °F; acid number, 43-47; and saponification number, 75-78.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as a protective coating or component of protective coatings for fresh grapefruit, lemons, limes, muskmelons, oranges, sweetpotatoes, and tangerines.
</P>
<P>(d) It is used in an amount not to exceed that required to produce the intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.280" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.280   Terpene resin.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive terpene resin may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the betapinene polymer obtained by polymerizing terpene hydrocarbons derived from wood. It has a softening point of 112 °C-118 °C, as determined by ASTM method E28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point By Ring-and-Ball Apparatus,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As a moisture barrier on soft gelatin capsules in an amount not to exceed 0.07 percent of the weight of the capsule.
</P>
<P>(2) As a moisture barrier on powders of ascorbic acid or its salts in an amount not to exceed 7 percent of the weight of the powder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10104, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Special Dietary and Nutritional Additives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.310" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.310   Aluminum nicotinate.</HEAD>
<P>Aluminum nicotinate may be safely used as a source of niacin in foods for special dietary use. A statement of the concentration of the additive, expressed as niacin, shall appear on the label of the food additive container or on that of any intermediate premix prepared therefrom.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.315" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.315   Nicotinamide-ascorbic acid complex.</HEAD>
<P>Nicotinamide-ascorbic acid complex may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the product of the controlled reaction between ascorbic acid and nicotinamide, melting in the range 141 °C to 145 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used as a source of ascorbic acid and nicotinamide in multivitamin preparations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.320" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.320   Amino acids.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive amino acids may be safely used as nutrients added to foods in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive consists of one or more of the following individual amino acids in the free, hydrated, or anhydrous form, or as the hydrochloride, sodium, or potassium salts:
</P>
<FP-1>(1) L-Alanine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(2) L-Arginine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(3) L-Asparagine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(4) L-Aspartic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(5) L-Cysteine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(6) L-Cystine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(7) L-Glutamic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(8) L-Glutamine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(9) Aminoacetic acid (glycine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(10) L-Histidine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(11) L-Isoleucine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(12) L-Leucine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(13) L-Lysine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(14) DL-Methionine (not for infant foods)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(15) L-Methionine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(16) L-Phenylalanine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(17) L-Proline
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(18) L-Serine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(19) L-Threonine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(20) L-Tryptophan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(21) L-Tyrosine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(22) L-Valine
</FP-1>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) As found in Food Chemicals Codex:
</P>
<FP-1>(i) L-Alanine, pages 28 and 29.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ii) L-Arginine, pages 69 and 70.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(iii) L-Arginine Monohydrochloride, pages 70 and 71.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(iv) L-Cysteine Monohydrochloride, pages 269 and 270.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(v) L-Cystine, pages 270 and 271.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(vi) Aminoacetic acid (glycine), pages 457 and 458.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(vii) L-Leucine, pages 577 and 578.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(viii) DL-Methionine, pages 641 and 642.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ix) L-Methionine, pages 642 and 643.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(x) L-Tryptophan, pages 1060 and 1061.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xi) L-Phenylalanine, pages 794 and 795.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xii) L-Proline, pages 864 and 865.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xiii) L-Serine, pages 915 and 916.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xiv) L-Threonine, pages 1031 and 1032.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xv) L-Glutamic Acid Hydrochloride, page 440.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xvi) L-Isoleucine, pages 544 and 545.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xvii) L-Lysine Monohydrochloride, pages 598 and 599.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xviii) Monopotassium <I>L</I>-glutamate, pages 697 and 698.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xix) L-Tyrosine, page 1061.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(xx) L-Valine, pages 1072.
</FP-1>
<P>(2) As found in “Specifications and Criteria for Biochemical Compounds,” NAS/NRC Publication, for the following:
</P>
<FP-1>(i) L-Asparagine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ii) L-Aspartic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(iii) L-Glutamine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(iv) L-Histidine
</FP-1>
<P>(c) The additive(s) is used or intended for use to significantly improve the biological quality of the total protein in a food containing naturally occurring primarily intact protein that is considered a significant dietary protein source, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) A reasonable daily adult intake of the finished food furnishes at least 6.5 grams of naturally occurring primarily intact protein (based upon 10 percent of the daily allowance for the “reference” adult male recommended by the National Academy of Sciences in “Recommended Dietary Allowances,” NAS Publication No. 1694.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive(s) results in a protein efficiency ratio (PER) of protein in the finished ready-to-eat food equivalent to casein as determined by the method specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Each amino acid (or combination of the minimum number necessary to achieve a statistically significant increase) added results in a statistically significant increase in the PER as determined by the method described in paragraph (d) of this section. The minimum amount of the amino acid(s) to achieve the desired effect must be used and the increase in PER over the primarily intact naturally occurring protein in the food must be substantiated as a statistically significant difference with at least a probability (P) value of less than 0.05.
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of the additive added for nutritive purposes plus the amount naturally present in free and combined (as protein) form does not exceed the following levels of amino acids expressed as percent by weight of the total protein of the finished food:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent by weight of total
<br/>protein (expressed as free
<br/>amino acid)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Alanine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Arginine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Aspartic acid (including L-asparagine)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Cystine (including L-cysteine)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Glutamic acid (including L-glutamine)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aminoacetic acid (glycine)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Histidine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Isoleucine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Leucine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Lysine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L- and DL-Methionine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Phenylalanine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Proline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Serine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Threonine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Tryptophan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Tyrosine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-Valine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Compliance with the limitations concerning PER under paragraph (c) of this section shall be determined by the method described in sections 43.212-43.216, “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists.” Each manufacturer or person employing the additive(s) under the provisions of this section shall keep and maintain throughout the period of his use of the additive(s) and for a minimum of 3 years thereafter, records of the tests required by this paragraph and other records required to assure effectiveness and compliance with this regulation and shall make such records available upon request at all reasonable hours by any officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration, or any other officer or employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services and shall permit such officer or employee to conduct such inventories of raw and finished materials on hand as he deems necessary and otherwise to check the correctness of such records.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and any premix thereof shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the amino acid(s) contained therein including the specific optical and chemical form.
</P>
<P>(2) The amounts of each amino acid contained in any mixture.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use to provide a finished food meeting the limitations prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The food additive amino acids added as nutrients to special dietary foods that are intended for use solely under medical supervision to meet nutritional requirements in specific medical conditions and comply with the requirements of part 105 of this chapter are exempt from the limitations in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section and may be used in such foods at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(g) The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877:
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 43.212-43.216, “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980).
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) National Academy of Sciences, available from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday:
</P>
<P>(i) “Recommended Dietary Allowances,” NAS Publication No. 1694, 7th Ed. (1968).
</P>
<P>(ii) “Specifications and Criteria for Biochemical Compounds,” NAS/NRC Publication, 3rd Ed. (1972).
</P>
<P>(3) United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>):
</P>
<P>(i) Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pages 28, 29, 69, 70, 71, 269, 270, 271, 440, 457, 458, 544, 545, 577, 578, 598, 599, 641, 642, 643, 697, 698, 794, 795, 864, 865, 915, 916, 1031, 1032, 1060, 1061, and 1072.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 71461, Nov. 29, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.325" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.325   Bakers yeast protein.</HEAD>
<P>Bakers yeast protein may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Bakers yeast protein is the insoluble proteinaceous material remaining after the mechanical rupture of yeast cells of <I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I> and removal of whole cell walls by centrifugation and separation of soluble cellular materials.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications on a dry weight basis:
</P>
<P>(1) Zinc salts less than 500 parts per million (ppm) as zinc.
</P>
<P>(2) Nucleic acid less than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Less than 0.3 ppm arsenic, 0.1 ppm cadmium, 0.4 ppm lead, 0.05 ppm mercury, and 0.3 ppm selenium.
</P>
<P>(c) The viable microbial content of the finished ingredient is:
</P>
<P>(1) Less than 10,000 organisms/gram by aerobic plate count.
</P>
<P>(2) Less than 10 yeasts and molds/gram.
</P>
<P>(3) Negative for <I>Salmonella, E. coli,</I> coagulase positive <I>Staphylococci, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium botulinum,</I> or any other recognized microbial pathogen or any harmful microbial toxin.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.330" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.330   Calcium pantothenate, calcium chloride double salt.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive calcium chloride double salt of calcium pantothenate may be safely used in foods for special dietary uses in accordance with good manufacturing practice and under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is of the <I>d</I> (dextrorotatory) or the <I>dl</I> (racemic) form.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the food additive container, or that of any intermediate premixes prepared therefrom, shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive “calcium chloride double salt of <I>d-</I>calcium pantothenate” or “calcium chloride double salt of <I>dl-</I>calcium pantothenate”, whichever is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the appropriate concentration of the additive, expressed as pantothenic acid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.335" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.335   D-Pantothenamide.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive D-pantothenamide as a source of pantothenic acid activity, may be safely used in foods for special dietary use in an amount not in excess of that reasonably required to produce its intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.340" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.340   Fish protein isolate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food additive fish protein isolate may be safely used as a food supplement in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive shall consist principally of dried fish protein prepared from the edible portions of fish after removal of the heads, fins, tails, bones, scales, viscera, and intestinal contents.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive shall be derived only from species of bony fish that are generally recognized by qualified scientists as safe for human consumption and that can be processed as prescribed to meet the required specifications.
</P>
<P>(3) Only wholesome fresh fish otherwise suitable for human consumption may be used. The fish shall be handled expeditiously under sanitary conditions. These conditions shall be in accordance with recognized good manufacturing practice for fish to be used as human food.
</P>
<P>(4) The additive shall be prepared by extraction with hexane and food-grade ethanol to remove fat and moisture. Solvent residues shall be reduced by drying.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications: (Where methods of determination are specified, they are Association of Official Analytical Chemists Methods, 13th ed., 1980, which are incorporated by reference). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies are available from: AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Protein content, as N × 6.25, shall not be less than 90 percent by weight of the final product, as determined by the method described in section 2.057, Improved Kjeldahl Method for Nitrate-Free Samples (20)—Official Final Action.
</P>
<P>(2) Moisture content shall not be more than 10 percent by weight of the final product, as determined by the method described in section 24.003, Air Drying (1)—Official First Action.
</P>
<P>(3) Fat content shall not be more than 0.5 percent by weight of the final product, as determined by the method described in section 24.005, Crude Fat or Ether Extract—Official Final Action.
</P>
<P>(4) Solvent residues in the final product shall not be more than 5 parts per million of hexane and 3.5 percent ethanol by weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 38072, July 24, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 53344, Nov. 26, 1982; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.345" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.345   Folic acid (folacin).</HEAD>
<P>Folic acid (CAS Reg. No. 59-30-3), also known as folacin or folate, may be safely used in food as a nutrient in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Folic acid is the chemical <I>N</I>-[4-[[(2-amino-1,4-dihydro-4-oxo-6-pteridinyl)methyl]amino]benzoyl]-<I>L</I>-glutamic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) Folic acid meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 9th ed., updated through Third Supplement, effective December 1, 2015, pp. 495-496, which is incorporated by reference. 

The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Folic acid may be added to foods subject to a standard of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) when the standard of identity specifically provides for the addition of folic acid.
</P>
<P>(d) Folic acid may be added, at levels not to exceed 400 micrograms (µg) per serving, to breakfast cereals, as defined under § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter, and to corn grits at a level such that each pound of corn grits contains not more than 1.0 milligram of folic acid.
</P>
<P>(e) Folic acid may be added to infant formula in accordance with section 412(i)(1) of the act or with regulations issued under section 412(i)(2) of the act which are codified in § 107.100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Folic acid may be added to a medical food, as defined in section 5(b)(3) of the Orphan Drug Act (21 U.S.C. 360ee(b)(3)), at levels not to exceed the amount necessary to meet the distinctive nutritional requirements of the disease or condition for which the food is formulated.
</P>
<P>(g) Folic acid may be added to food for special dietary use at levels not to exceed the amount necessary to meet the special dietary needs for which the food is formulated.
</P>
<P>(h) Folic acid may be added to foods represented as meal-replacement products, in amounts not to exceed:
</P>
<P>(1) Four hundred µg per serving if the food is a meal-replacement that is represented for use once per day; or
</P>
<P>(2) Two hundred µg per serving if the food is a meal-replacement that is represented for use more than once per day.
</P>
<P>(i) Folic acid may be added to corn masa flour at a level not to exceed 0.7 milligrams of folic acid per pound of corn masa flour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 8807, Mar. 5, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 27779, June 3, 1996; 64 FR 1758, Jan. 12, 1999; 78 FR 71463, Nov. 29, 2013; 81 FR 22183, Apr. 15, 2016; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.350" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.350   Fumaric acid and salts of fumaric acid.</HEAD>
<P>Fumaric acid and its calcium, ferrous, magnesium, potassium, and sodium salts may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additives meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Fumaric acid contains a minimum of 99.5 percent by weight of fumaric acid, calculated on the anhydrous basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium salts contain a minimum of 99 percent by weight of the respective salt, calculated on the anhydrous basis. Ferrous fumarate contains a minimum of 31.3 percent total iron and not more than 2 percent ferric iron.
</P>
<P>(b) With the exception of ferrous fumarate, fumaric acid and the named salts are used singly or in combination in food at a level not in excess of the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(c) Ferrous fumarate is used as a source of iron in foods for special dietary use, when the use is consistent with good nutrition practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.365" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.365   Kelp.</HEAD>
<P>Kelp may be safely added to a food as a source of the essential mineral iodine, provided the maximum intake of the food as may be consumed during a period of one day, or as directed for use in the case of a dietary supplement, will not result in daily ingestion of the additive so as to provide a total amount of iodine in excess of 225 micrograms for foods labeled without reference to age or physiological state; and when age or the conditions of pregnancy or lactation are specified, in excess of 45 micrograms for infants, 105 micrograms for children under 4 years of age, 225 micrograms for adults and children 4 or more years of age, and 300 micrograms for pregnant or lactating women. The food additive kelp is the dehydrated, ground product prepared from <I>Macrocystis pyrifera, Laminaria digitata, Laminaria saccharina,</I> and <I>Laminaria cloustoni.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.370" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.370   Iron-choline citrate complex.</HEAD>
<P>Iron-choline citrate complex made by reacting approximately equimolecular quantities of ferric hydroxide, choline, and citric acid may be safely used as a source of iron in foods for special dietary use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.372" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.372   <E T="7462">N</E>-Acetyl-L-methionine.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive <I>N</I>-acetyl-L-methionine may be safely added to food (except infant foods and foods containing added nitrites/nitrates) as a source of L-methionine for use as a nutrient in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>N-</I>Acetyl-L-methionine (Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 65-82-7) is the derivative of the amino acid methionine formed by addition of an acetyl group to the <I>alpha-</I>amino group of methionine. It may be in the free, hydrated or anhydrous form, or as the sodium or potassium salts.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Purity assay, on a dry basis: Minimum 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Residue on ignition: Maximum 0.1 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Specific optical rotation [alpha]
<SU>20</SU><E T="52">D</E>: Between −19° and −23°.
</P>
<P>(4) The additive may contain residues of not more than 500 ppm ethyl acetate; 50 ppm ethyl alcohol; 10 ppm methyl alcohol; and 10 ppm acetone, when used as processing solvents.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as a source of L-methionine to improve significantly the biological quality of the total protein in a food containing naturally occurring primarily intact vegetable protein that is considered a significant dietary protein source, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) A reasonable daily adult intake of the finished food furnishes at least 6.5 grams of naturally occurring primarily intact vegetable protein.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive results in a protein efficiency ratio (PER) of protein in the finished ready-to-eat food equivalent to casein as determined by the method specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The use of the additive results in a statistically significant increase in the PER as determined by the method described in paragraph (d) of this section. The minimum amount of the additive to achieve the desired effect must be used, and the increase in PER over the primarily intact naturally occurring vegetable protein in the food must be substantiated as a statistically significant difference with at least a probability (P) value of less than 0.05.
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of the additive added for nutritive purpose shall not exceed the level that will provide a total of 3.1 percent L- and DL-methionine (expressed as the free amino acid) by weight of the total protein of the finished food, including the amount naturally present in free and combined (as protein) form.
</P>
<P>(5) The additive shall not be added to infant foods or to foods containing added nitrites/nitrates.
</P>
<P>(d) Compliance with the limitations concerning PER under paragraph (c) of the section shall be determined by the method described in sections 43.212-43.216, “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Each manufacturer or person employing the additive under the provisions of this section shall keep and maintain throughout the period of use of the additive and for a minimum of 3 years thereafter, records of the tests required by this paragraph and other records required to assure effectiveness and compliance with this regulation. Those records shall be made available upon request at all reasonable hours by any officer or employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services. Those officers or employees shall be permitted to conduct inventories of raw and finished materials on hand as are deemed necessary to verify the records.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and any premix thereof shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive contained therein.
</P>
<P>(2) The amounts of additive and each amino acid contained in any mixture.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use to provide a finished food meeting the limitations prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) When the food additive is added as a nutrient to special dietary foods that are intended for use solely under medical supervision to meet nutritional requirements in specific medical conditions and these foods comply with the requirements of part 105 of this chapter, the food additive is exempt from the limitations in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) and (d) of this section and may be used in those foods at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 27784, June 27, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 59968, Dec. 8, 1981; 49 FR 10104, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.375" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.375   Potassium iodide.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive potassium iodide may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Potassium iodide may be safely added to a food as a source of the essential mineral iodine, provided the maximum intake of the food as may be consumed during a period of one day, or as directed for use in the case of a dietary supplement, will not result in daily ingestion of the additive so as to provide a total amount of iodine in excess of 225 micrograms for foods labeled without reference to age or physiological state; and when age or the conditions of pregnancy or lactation are specified, in excess of 45 micrograms for infants, 105 micrograms for children under 4 years of age, 225 micrograms for adults and children 4 or more years of age, and 300 micrograms for pregnant or lactating women.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the label of the additive shall bear:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the concentration of the additive in any mixture. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.379" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.379   Vitamin D<E T="9145">2</E>.</HEAD>
<P>Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> may be used safely in foods as a nutrient supplement defined under § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E>, also known as ergocalciferol, is the chemical 9,10-seco(5Z,7E,22E)-5,7,10(19),22-ergostatetraen-3-ol. Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> is produced by ultraviolet irradiation of ergosterol isolated from yeast and is purified by crystallization.
</P>
<P>(b) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> meets the specifications of the 2015 Food Chemical Codex, 9th edition (through Third Supplement), effective December 1, 2015, pp. 1260-1261, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The additive may be used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum Levels in Food (as Served)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Edible plant-based beverages intended as milk alternatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">84 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Edible plant-based yogurt alternatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">89 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soy beverage products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">89 IU/100 g
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soy-based butter substitute spreads</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">330 IU/100 g
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soy-based cheese substitutes and soy-based cheese substitute products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">270 IU/100 g</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 11022, Mar. 16, 2009, as amended at 78 FR 71463, Nov. 29, 2013; 81 FR 46581, July 18, 2016; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.380" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.380   Vitamin D<E T="9145">3</E>.</HEAD>
<P>Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> may be used safely in foods as a nutrient supplement defined under § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E>, also known as cholecalciferol, is the chemical 9,10-seco(5Z,7E)-5,7,10(19)-cholestatrien-3-ol. Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> occurs in and is isolated from fish liver oils. It also is manufactured by ultraviolet irradiation of 7-dehydrocholesterol produced from cholesterol and is purified by crystallization.
</P>
<P>(b) Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> meets the specifications of Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E>, Food Chemicals Codex, 14th edition, effective June 1, 2024, which is incorporated by reference into this section. The Director of the Federal Register approved this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FDA at: the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; phone: 240-402-7500; email: <I>IBR_Material_Inquiries@fda.hhs.gov.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> This material may be obtained from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852; phone 800-822-8772; email <I>fcc@usp.org;</I> website: <I>https://www.usp.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The additive may be used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At levels not to exceed 100 International Units (IU) per 240 milliliters (mL) in 100 percent fruit juices (as defined under § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter) that are fortified with greater than or equal to 330 milligrams (mg) of calcium per 240 mL, excluding fruit juices that are specially formulated or processed for infants.
</P>
<P>(2) At levels not to exceed 100 IU per 240 mL in fruit juice drinks (as defined under § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter) that are fortified with greater than or equal to 100 mg of calcium per 240 mL, excluding fruit juice drinks that are specially formulated or processed for infants.
</P>
<P>(3) At levels not to exceed 140 IU per 240 mL (prepared beverage) in soy-protein based meal replacement beverages (powder or liquid) that are represented for special dietary use in reducing or maintaining body weight in accordance with § 105.66 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) At levels not to exceed 100 IU per 40 grams in meal replacement bars or other-type bars that are represented for special dietary use in reducing or maintaining body weight in accordance with § 105.66 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) At levels not to exceed 81 IU per 30 grams in cheese and cheese products as defined under § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter, excluding cottage cheese, ricotta cheese, and hard grating cheeses such as Parmesan and Romano as defined in §§ 133.165 and 133.183 of this chapter, and those defined by standard of identity in § 133.148 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) At levels not to exceed 500 IU per 240 mL (prepared beverage) in meal replacement beverages that are not intended for special dietary use in reducing or maintaining body weight and that are represented for use such that the total amount of Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> provided by the product does not exceed 1,000 IU per day.
</P>
<P>(7) At levels not to exceed 1.0 IU per kilocalorie in foods represented for use as a sole source of nutrition for enteral feeding.
</P>
<P>(8) At levels not to exceed 84 IU per 100 g (800 IU/quart) in milk that contains more than 42 IU vitamin D per 100 g (400 IU/quart) and that meets the requirements for foods named by use of a nutrient content claim and a standardized term in accordance with § 130.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) At levels not to exceed 560 IU per 100 g in breakfast cereals (as defined under § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(10) At levels not to exceed 400 IU per 100 g in grain-based bars (e.g., breakfast bars, granola bars, rice cereal bars).
</P>
<P>(11) At levels not to exceed 178 IU per 100 g in yogurt under § 131.200 of this chapter, and lower fat yogurt under § 130.10 of this chapter, and other cultured dairy products fermented with <I>Lactobacillus delbrueckii,</I> subsp. <I>bulgaricus,</I> and <I>Streptococcus thermophilus.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 9003, Feb. 27, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 36025, June 22, 2005; 70 FR 37257, June 29, 2005; 70 FR 69438, Nov. 16, 2005; 78 FR 71463, Nov. 29, 2013; 79 FR 46996, Aug. 12, 2014; 81 FR 46582, July 18, 2016; 83 FR 47559, Sept. 20, 2018; 88 FR 749, Jan. 5, 2023; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023; 90 FR 42704, Sept. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.381" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.381   Vitamin D<E T="9145">2</E> bakers yeast.</HEAD>
<P>Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> bakers yeast may be used safely in foods as a source of vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> and as a leavening agent in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> bakers yeast is the substance produced by exposing bakers yeast (<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I>) to ultraviolet light, resulting in the photochemical conversion of endogenous ergosterol in bakers yeast to vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> (also known as ergocalciferol or (9,10-seco(5Z,7E,22E)-5,7,10(19),22-ergostatetraen-3-ol)).
</P>
<P>(b) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> bakers yeast may be used alone as an active dry yeast concentrate or in combination with conventional bakers yeast.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive may be used in yeast-leavened baked goods and baking mixes and yeast-leavened baked snack foods at levels not to exceed 400 International Units of vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> per 100 grams in the finished food.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label or labeling of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, adequate directions for use to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Labels of manufactured food products containing the additive shall bear, in the ingredient statement, the name of the additive, “vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> bakers yeast,” in the proper order of decreasing predominance in the finished food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 52231, Aug. 29, 2012]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.382" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.382   Vitamin D<E T="9145">2</E> mushroom powder.</HEAD>
<P>Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> mushroom powder may be used safely in foods as a source of vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> mushroom powder is the substance produced by exposing an aqueous homogenate of edible cultivars of <I>Agaricus bisporus</I> mushrooms to ultraviolet (UV) light, resulting in the photochemical conversion of endogenous ergosterol in the mushrooms to vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> (also known as ergocalciferol or [9,10-Seco(5Z,7E,22E)-5,7,10(19),22- ergostatetraen-3-ol]).
</P>
<P>(b) The total dose of UV light applied to the mushroom homogenate shall not exceed 12 Joules/square centimeter (J/cm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P>(c) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> mushroom powder meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Moisture, not more than 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Negative for <I>Salmonella, Staphylococcus aureus,</I> and <I>Listeria monocytogenes,</I> and any other recognized microbial pathogen or any harmful microbial toxin.
</P>
<P>(3) Standard plate count, not more than 5,000 colony forming units per gram (CFU/g).
</P>
<P>(4) Yeasts and molds, not more than 100 CFU/g.
</P>
<P>(5) Lead, not more than 0.5 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg).
</P>
<P>(6) Arsenic, not more than 0.3 mg/kg.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label or labeling of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, adequate directions for use to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Labels of manufactured food products containing the additive shall bear, in the ingredient statement, the name of the additive “vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> mushroom powder,” in the proper order of decreasing predominance in the finished food.
</P>
<P>(f) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> mushroom powder may be used as a source of vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> in food as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of vitamin D<E T="52">2</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Breakfast cereals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">350 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Edible plant-based beverages marketed as milk alternatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">84 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Edible plant-based products marketed as yogurt alternatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">89 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Extruded vegetable snacks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80 IU/28 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fruit smoothies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 IU/240 mL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100% fruit juices that are fortified with greater than or equal to 330 mg of calcium per 240 mL, excluding fruit juices that are specially formulated or processed for infants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 IU/240 mL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fruit juice drinks that are fortified with greater than or equal to 100 mg of calcium per 240 mL, excluding fruit juice drinks that are specially formulated or processed for infants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 IU/240 mL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grain products and pastas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meal replacement bars or other-type bars that are represented for special dietary use in reducing or maintaining body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 IU/40 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meal replacement beverages that are not intended for special dietary use in reducing or maintaining body weight and that are represented for use such that the total amount of Vitamin D provided by the product does not exceed 1,000 IU per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 IU/240 mL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plant protein products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80 IU/85 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soups and soup mixes, except for soup and soup mixes containing meat or poultry that are subject to regulation by the U.S. Department of Agriculture under the Federal Meat Inspection Act or the Poultry Products Inspection Act</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 IU/245 mL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soy-based spreads marketed as butter alternatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">330 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soy-based products marketed as cheese and cheese-product alternatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">270 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soy beverage products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">89 IU/100 g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soy-protein based meal replacement beverages (powder or liquid) that are represented for special dietary use in reducing or maintaining body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">140 IU/240 mL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vegetable juices</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 IU/240 mL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yeast-leavened baked goods and baking mixes and yeast-leavened baked snack foods</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400 IU/100 g.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 41920, July 13, 2020]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.385" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.385   Whole fish protein concentrate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive whole fish protein concentrate may be safely used as a food supplement in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is derived from whole, wholesome hake and hakelike fish, herring of the genera <I>Clupea,</I> menhaden, and anchovy of the species <I>Engraulis mordax,</I> handled expeditiously and under sanitary conditions in accordance with good manufacturing practices recognized as proper for fish that are used in other forms for human food.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive consists essentially of a dried fish protein processed from the whole fish without removal of heads, fins, tails, viscera, or intestinal contents. It is prepared by solvent extraction of fat and moisture with isopropyl alcohol or with ethylene dichloride followed by isopropyl alcohol, except that the additive derived from herring, menhaden and anchovy is prepared by solvent extraction with isopropyl alcohol alone. Solvent residues are reduced by conventional heat drying and/or microwave radiation and there is a partial removal of bone.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Protein content (N × 6.25) shall not be less than 75 percent by weight of the final product, as determined by the method described in section 2.057 in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists” (AOAC), 13th Ed. (1980). Protein quality shall not be less than 100, as determined by the method described in sections 43.212-43.216 of the AOAC. The 13th Ed. is incorporated by reference, and copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Moisture content shall not exceed 10 percent by weight of the final product, as determined by the method described in section 24.003 of the AOAC. See paragraph (c)(1) of this section for availability of the material incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>(3) Fat content shall not exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the final product, as determined by the method described in section 24.005 of the AOAC. See paragraph (c)(1) of the this section for availability of the material incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>(4) The additive may contain residues of isopropyl alcohol and ethylene dichloride not in excess of 250 parts per million and 5 parts per million, respectively, when used as solvents in the extraction process.
</P>
<P>(5) Microwave radiation meeting the requirements of § 179.30 of this chapter may be used to reduce residues of the solvents used in the extraction process.
</P>
<P>(6) The additive shall contain not in excess of 100 parts per million fluorides (expressed as F).
</P>
<P>(7) The additive shall be free of <I>Escherichia coli</I> and pathogenic organisms, including <I>Salmonella,</I> and shall have a total bacterial plate count of not more than 10,000 per gram.
</P>
<P>(8) The additive shall have no more than a faint characteristic fish odor and taste.
</P>
<P>(d) When the additive is used or intended for use in the household as a protein supplement in food for regular consumption by children up to 8 years of age, the amount of the additive from this source shall not exceed 20 grams per day (about one heaping tablespoon).
</P>
<P>(e) When the additive is used as a protein supplement in manufactured food, the total fluoride content (expressed as F) of the finished food shall not exceed 8 ppm based on the dry weight of the food product.
</P>
<P>(f) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of consumer-sized or bulk containers of the additive shall bear the name “whole fish protein concentrate”.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of containers of the additive shall bear adequate directions for use to comply with the limitations prescribed by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Labels of manufactured foods containing the additive shall bear, in the ingredient statement, the name of the additive, “whole fish protein concentrate” in the proper order of decreasing predominance in the finished food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10104, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.395" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.395   Xylitol.</HEAD>
<P>Xylitol may be safely used in foods for special dietary uses, provided the amount used is not greater than that required to produce its intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.399" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.399   Zinc methionine sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>Zinc methionine sulfate, CAS Reg. No. 56329-42-1, may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the product of the reaction between equimolar amounts of zinc sulfate and DL-methionine in purified water.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Zinc content—19 to 22 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C<E T="52">5</E>H<E T="52">11</E>NO<E T="52">2</E>S “DL-methionine”—46 to 50 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium—not more than 0.05 part per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used in tablet form as a source of dietary zinc.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 58297, Dec. 1, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Anticaking Agents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.410" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.410   Calcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>Calcium silicate, including synthetic calcium silicate, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is used as an anticaking agent in food in an amount not in excess of that reasonably required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(b) It will not exceed 2 percent by weight of the food, except that it may be present up to 5 percent by weight of baking powder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.430" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.430   Iron ammonium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>Iron ammonium citrate may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the chemical green ferric ammonium citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used, or intended for use as an anticaking agent in salt for human consumption so that the level of iron ammonium citrate does not exceed 25 parts per million (0.0025 percent) in the finished salt.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive the label or labeling of the additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.480" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.480   Silicon dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive silicon dioxide may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by vapor phase hydrolysis or by other means whereby the particle size is such as to accomplish the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used as an anticaking agent, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) It is used in only those foods in which the additive has been demonstrated to have an anticaking effect.
</P>
<P>(2) It is used in an amount not in excess of that reasonably required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) It is used in an amount not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the food.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as a stabilizer in the production of beer, and is removed from the beer by filtration prior to final processing.
</P>
<P>(d) It is used or intended for use as an adsorbent for <I>dl-a-</I>tocopheryl acetate and pantothenyl alcohol in tableted foods for special dietary use, in an amount not greater than that required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.490" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.490   Yellow prussiate of soda.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food additive yellow prussiate of soda (sodium ferrocyanide decahydrate; Na<E T="52">4</E>Fe(CN)<E T="52">6</E>·10H<E T="52">2</E>O contains a minimum of 99 percent by weight of sodium ferrocyanide decahydrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as an anticaking agent in salt and as an adjuvant in the production of dendritic crystals of salt in an amount needed to produce its intended effect but not in excess of 13 parts per million calculated as anhydrous sodium ferrocyanide.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 17098, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Flavoring Agents and Related Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.510" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.510   Natural flavoring substances and natural substances used in conjunction with flavors.</HEAD>
<P>Natural flavoring substances and natural adjuvants may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) They are used in the minimum quantity required to produce their intended physical or technical effect and in accordance with all the principles of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(b) In the appropriate forms (plant parts, fluid and solid extracts, concentrates, absolutes, oils, gums, balsams, resins, oleoresins, waxes, and distillates) they consist of one or more of the following, used alone or in combination with flavoring substances and adjuvants generally recognized as safe in food, previously sanctioned for such use, or regulated in any section of this part.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scientific name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aloe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aloe perryi</E> Baker, <E T="03">A. barbadensis</E> Mill., <E T="03">A. ferox</E> Mill., and hybrids of this sp. with <E T="03">A. africana</E> Mill. and <E T="03">A. spicata</E> Baker
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Althea root and flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Althea officinalis</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyris (West Indian sandalwood)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Amyris balsamifera</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angola weed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Roccella fuciformis</E> Ach</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arnica flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Arnica montana</E> L., <E T="03">A. fulgens</E> Pursh, <E T="03">A. sororia</E> Greene, or <E T="03">A. cordifolia</E> Hooker</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Artemisia (wormwood)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia</E> spp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finished food thujone free 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Artichoke leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cynara scolymus</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzoin resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Styrax benzoin</E> Dryander, <E T="03">S. paralleloneurus</E> Perkins, <E T="03">S. tonkinensis</E> (Pierre) Craib ex Hartwich, or other spp. of the Section <E T="03">Anthostyrax</E> of the genus <E T="03">Styrax</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blackberry bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rubus,</E> Section <E T="03">Eubatus</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boldus (boldo) leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Peumus boldus</E> Mol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boronia flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Boronia megastigma</E> Nees
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bryonia root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bryonia alba</E> L., or <E T="03">B. diocia</E> Jacq</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Buchu leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Barosma betulina</E> Bartl. et Wendl., <E T="03">B. crenulata</E> (L.) Hook. or <E T="03">B. serratifolia</E> Willd
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Buckbean leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Menyanthes trifoliata</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cajeput</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melaleuca leucadendron</E> L. and other <E T="03">Melaleuca</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calumba root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Jateorhiza palmata</E> (Lam.) Miers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camphor tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum camphora</E> (L.) Nees et Eberm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safrole free
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cascara sagrada</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rhamnus purshiana</E> DC
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassie flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acacia farnesiana</E> (L.) Willd
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ricinus communis</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Catechu, black</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acacia catechu</E> Willd
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cedar, white (aborvitae), leaves and twigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thuja occidentalis</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finished food thujone free 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Centuary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Centaurium umbellatum</E> Gilib</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cherry pits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus avium</E> L. or <E T="03">P. cerasus</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 25 p.p.m. prussic acid
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cherry-laurel leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus laurocerasus</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chestnut leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Castanea dentata</E> (Marsh.) Borkh
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chirata</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Swertia chirata</E> Buch.-Ham</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinchona, red, bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinchona succirubra</E> Pav. or its hybrids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In beverages only; not more than 83 p.p.m. total cinchona alkaloids in finished beverage
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinchona, yellow, bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinchona ledgeriana</E> Moens, <E T="03">C. calisaya</E> Wedd., or hybrids of these with other spp. of <E T="03">Cinchona.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copaiba</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">South American spp. of <E T="03">Copaifera</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cork, oak</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quercus suber</E> L., or <E T="03">Q. occidentalis</E> F. Gay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Costmary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chrysanthemum balsamita</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Costus root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saussurea lappa</E> Clarke
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cubeb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Piper cubeba</E> L. f
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Currant, black, buds and leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ribes nigrum</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Damiana leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Turnera diffusa</E> Willd
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Davana</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia pallens</E> Wall
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dill, Indian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anethum sowa</E> Roxb. (<E T="03">Peucedanum graveolens</E> Benth et Hook., <E T="03">Anethum graveolens</E> L.)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dittany (fraxinella) roots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Dictamnus albus</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dittany of Crete</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Origanum dictamnus</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dragon's blood (dracorubin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Daemonorops</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elder tree leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sambucus nigra</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only; not to exceed 25 p.p.m. prussic acid in the flavor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elecampane rhizome and roots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Inula helenium</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elemi</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Canarium commune</E> L. or <E T="03">C. luzonicum</E> Miq
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erigeron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Erigeron canadensis</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eucalyptus globulus leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eucalyptus globulus</E> Labill
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fir (“pine”) needles and twigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Abies sibirica</E> Ledeb., <E T="03">A. alba</E> Mill., <E T="03">A. sachalinesis</E> Masters or <E T="03">A. mayriana</E> Miyabe et Kudo
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fir, balsam, needles and twigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Abies balsamea</E> (L.) Mill
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Galanga, greater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alpinia galanga</E> Willd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Galbanum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ferula galbaniflua</E> Boiss. et Buhse and other <E T="03">Ferula</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gambir (catechu, pale)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Uncaria gambir</E> Roxb
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Genet flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Spartium junceum</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gentian rhizome and roots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gentiana lutea</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gentian, stemless</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gentiana acaulis</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germander, chamaedrys</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Teucrium chamaedrys</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germander, golden</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Teucrium polium</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guaiac</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Guaiacum officinale</E> L., <E T="03">G. santum</E> L., <E T="03">Bulnesia sarmienti</E> Lor
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guarana</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Paullinia cupana</E> HBK
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Haw, black, bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Viburnum prunifolium</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hemlock needles and twigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tsuga canadensis</E> (L.) Carr. or <E T="03">T. heterophylla</E> (Raf.) Sarg
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hyacinth flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hyacinthus orientalis</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iceland moss</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cetraria islandica</E> Ach</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Imperatoria</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Peucedanum ostruthium</E> (L.). Koch (<E T="03">Imperatoria ostruthium</E> L.)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iva</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Achillea moschata</E> Jacq</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Labdanum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cistus</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon-verbena</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lippia citriodora</E> HBK</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linaloe wood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bursera delpechiana</E> Poiss. and other <E T="03">Bursera</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linden leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tillia</E> spp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lovage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Levisticum officinale</E> Koch
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lungmoss (lungwort)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sticta pulmonacea</E> Ach
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maidenhair fern</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Adiantum capillus-veneris</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maple, mountain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acer spicatum</E> Lam
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mimosa (black wattle) flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acacia decurrens</E> Willd. var. <E T="03">dealbata</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mullein flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Verbascum phlomoides</E> L. or <E T="03">V. thapsiforme</E> Schrad</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Myrrh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Commiphora molmol</E> Engl., <E T="03">C. abyssinica</E> (Berg) Engl., or other <E T="03">Commiphora</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Myrtle leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myrtus communis</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oak, English, wood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quercus robur</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oak, white, chips</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quercus alba</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oak moss</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Evernia prunastri</E> (L.) Ach., <E T="03">E. furfuracea</E> (L.) Mann, and other lichens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finished food thujone free 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olibanum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Boswellia carteri</E> Birdw. and other <E T="03">Boswellia</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opopanax (bisabolmyrrh)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Opopanax chironium</E> Koch (true opopanax) of <E T="03">Commiphora erythraea</E> Engl. var. <E T="03">Llabrescens</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orris root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Iris germanica</E> L. (including its variety <E T="03">florentina</E> Dykes) and <E T="03">I. pallida</E> Lam
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pansy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Viola tricolor</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Passion flower</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Passiflora incarnata</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Patchouly</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pogostemon cablin</E> Benth. and <E T="03">P. heyneanus</E> Benth
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peach leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus persica</E> (L.) Batsch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only; not to exceed 25 p.p.m. prussic acid in the flavor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pennyroyal, American</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hedeoma pulegioides</E> (L.) Pers
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pennyroyal, European</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha pulegium</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine, dwarf, needles and twigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus mugo</E> Turra var. <E T="03">pumilio</E> (Haenke) Zenari
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine, Scotch, needles and twigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus sylvestris</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine, white, bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus strobus</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine, white oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus palustris</E> Mill., and other <E T="03">Pinus</E> spp
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poplar buds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Populus balsamifera</E> L. (<E T="03">P. tacamahacca</E> Mill.), <E T="03">P. candicans</E> Ait., or <E T="03">P. nigra</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quassia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Picrasma excelsa</E> (Sw.) Planch, or <E T="03">Quassia amara</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quebracho bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspidosperma quebracho-blanco</E> Schlecht, or (<E T="03">Quebrachia lorentzii</E> (Griseb))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Schinopsis lorentzii</E> (Griseb.) Engl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quillaia (soapbark)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quillaja saponaria</E> Mol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red saunders (red sandalwood)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pterocarpus san alinus</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhatany root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Krameria triandra</E> Ruiz et Pav. or <E T="03">K. argentea</E> Mart
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhubarb, garden root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rheum rhaponticum</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhubarb root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rheum officinale</E> Baill., <E T="03">R. palmatum</E> L., or other spp. (excepting <E T="03">R. rhaponticum</E> L.) or hybrids of <E T="03">Rheum</E> grown in China
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Roselle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hibiscus sabdariffa</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosin (colophony)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus palustris</E> Mill., and other <E T="03">Pinus</E> spp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">St. Johnswort leaves, flowers, and caulis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hypericum perforatum</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hypericin-free alcohol distillate form only; in alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sandalwood, white (yellow, or East Indian)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Santalum album</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sandarac</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tetraclinis articulata</E> (Vahl.), Mast</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sarsaparilla</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Smilax aristolochiaefolia</E> Mill., (Mexican sarsaparilla), <E T="03">S. regelii</E> Killip et Morton (Honduras sarsaparilla), <E T="03">S. febrifuga</E> Kunth (Ecuadorean sarsaparilla), or undetermined <E T="03">Smilax</E> spp. (Ecuadorean or Central American sarsaparilla)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sassafras leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sassafras albidum</E> (Nutt.) Nees</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safrole free
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Senna, Alexandria</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cassia acutifolia</E> Delile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Serpentaria (Virginia snakeroot)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aristolochia serpentaria</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Simaruba bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Simaruba amara</E> Aubl</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Snakeroot, Canadian (wild ginger)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Asarum canadense</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spruce needles and twigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Picea glauca</E> (Moench) Voss or <E T="03">P. mariana</E> (Mill.) BSP
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Storax (styrax)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Liquidambar orientalis</E> Mill. or <E T="03">L. styraciflua</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tagetes (marigold)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tagetes patula</E> L., <E T="03">T. erecta</E> L., or <E T="03">T. minuta</E> L. (<E T="03">T. glandulifera</E> Schrank)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As oil only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tansy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tanacetum vulgare</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only; finished alcoholic beverage thujone free 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thistle, blessed (holy thistle)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Onicus benedictus</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Thymus capitatus</E> (Spanish “origanum”)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thymus capitatus</E> Hoffmg. et Link
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tolu</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myroxylon balsamum</E> (L.) Harms
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turpentine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus palustris</E> Mill. and other <E T="03">Pinus</E> spp. which yield terpene oils exclusively
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Valerian rhizome and roots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Valeriana officinalis</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Veronica</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Veronica officinalis</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vervain, European</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Verbena officinalis</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vetiver</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vetiveria zizanioides</E> Stapf</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Violet, Swiss</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Viola calcarata</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Walnut husks (hulls), leaves, and green nuts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juglans nigra</E> L. or <E T="03">J. regia</E> L
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Woodruff, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Asperula odorata</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In alcoholic beverages only
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yarrow</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Achillea millefolium</E> L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In beverages only; finished beverage thujone free 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yerba santa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eriodictyon californicum</E> (Hook, et Arn.) Torr
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yucca, Joshua-tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Yucca brevifolia</E> Engelm
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yucca, Mohave</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Yucca schidigera</E> Roezl ex Ortgies (<E T="03">Y. mohavensis</E> Sarg.)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> As determined by using the method (or, in other than alcoholic beverages, a suitable adaptation thereof) in section 9.129 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 14644, Apr. 7, 1978; 49 FR 10104, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 69 FR 24511, May 4, 2004; 72 FR 10357, Mar. 8, 2007]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.515" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.515   Synthetic flavoring substances and adjuvants.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic flavoring substances and adjuvants may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) They are used in the minimum quantity required to produce their intended effect, and otherwise in accordance with all the principles of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(b) They consist of one or more of the following, used alone or in combination with flavoring substances and adjuvants generally recognized as safe in food, prior-sanctioned for such use, or regulated by an appropriate section in this part.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetal; acetaldehyde diethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetaldehyde phenethyl propyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetanisole; 4′-methoxyacetophenone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetophenone; methyl phenyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl cyclohexaneacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl cyclohexanebutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl cyclohexanehexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl cyclohexaneproprionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl cyclohexanevalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl 2-ethylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl hexanoate; allyl caproate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl α-ionone; 1-(2,6,6-trimethyl-2-cyclo-hexene-1-yl)-1,6-heptadiene-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl isothiocyanate; mustard oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl mercaptan; 2-propene-1-thiol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl nonanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl phenoxyacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl sorbate; allyl 2,4-hexadienoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl sulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl tiglate; allyl <I>trans-</I>2-methyl-2-butenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl 10-undecenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonium isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonium sulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyl alcohol; pentyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Amylcinnamaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Amylcinnamaldehyde dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Amylcinnamyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Amylcinnamyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Amylcinnamyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Amylcinnamyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyl heptanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anisole; methoxybenzene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anisyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anisyl alcohol; <I>p-</I>methoxybenzyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anisyl butyrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anisyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anisyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anisyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Beechwood creosote.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzaldehyde dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzaldehyde glyceryl acetal; 2-phenyl<I>-m-</I>dioxan-5-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzaldehyde propylene glycol acetal; 4-methyl-2-phenyl<I>-m-</I>dioxolane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzenethiol; thiophenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoin; 2-hydroxy-2-phenylacetophenone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl butyl ether.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl 2,3-dimethylcrotonate; benzyl methyl tiglate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl disulfide; dibenzyl disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl ethyl ether.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Benzyl-4-heptanone; benzyl dipropyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl mercaptan; α-toluenethiol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl methoxyethyl acetal; acetaldehyde benzyl β-methoxyethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Birch tar oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Borneol; <I>d-</I>camphanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bornyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bornyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bornyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bornyl valerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Bourbonene; 1,2,3,3a,3bβ,4,5,6,6aβ,6bα-deca-hydro-lα-isopropyl-3a<E T="52">a</E>-methyl-6-methylene-cyclobuta [1,2:3,4] dicyclopentene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Butanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Butanone; methyl ethyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butter acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butter esters.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl alcohol; 1-butanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl butyryllactate; lactic acid, butyl ester, butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Butylcinnamaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl 2-decenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl ethyl malonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl heptanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl <I>p-</I>hydroxybenzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl lactate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl laurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl levulinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl sulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl 10-undecenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl valerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyraldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadinene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphene; 2,2-dimethyl-3-methylenenorbornane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>d-</I>Camphor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carvacrol; 2-<I>p-</I>cymenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carvacryl ethyl ether; 2-ethoxy<I>-p-</I>cymene. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carveol; <I>p-</I>mentha-6,8-dien-2-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Carvomenthenol; 1<I>-p-</I>menthen-4-ol; 4-terpinenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>cis</I> Carvone oxide; 1,6-epoxy<I>-p-</I>menth-8-en-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carvyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carvyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Caryophyllene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caryophyllene alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caryophyllene alcohol acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Caryophyllene oxide; 4-12,12-trimethyl-9-methylene-5-oxatricylo [8.2.0.0 
<SU>4 6</SU>] dodecane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cedarwood oil alcohols.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cedarwood oil terpenes.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Cineole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamaldehyde ethylene glycol acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl alcohol; 3-phenyl-2-propen-1-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citral diethyl acetal; 3,7-dimethyl-2,6-octadienal diethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citral dimethyl acetal; 3,7-dimethyl-2,6-octadienal dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citral propylene glycol acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellal; 3,7-dimethyl-6-octenal; rhodinal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellol; 3,7-dimethyl-6-octen-1-ol; <I>d-</I>citronellol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronelloxyacetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citronellyl valerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Cresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cuminaldehyde; cuminal; <I>p-</I>isopropyl benzaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexaneacetic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexaneethyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Cymene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Decalactone; 4-hydroxy-decanoic acid, γ-lactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Decalactone; 5-hydroxy-decanoic acid, δ-lactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decanal dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Decanol; decylic alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Decenal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Decen-2-one; heptylidene acetone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decyl actate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzyl ether.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4-Dibutyl-γ-butyrolactone; 4,4-dibutyl-4-hydroxy-butyric acid, γ-lactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibutyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl malate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl malonate; ethyl malonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl succinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl tartrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,5-Diethyltetrahydrofuran.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dihydrocarveol; 8<I>-p-</I>menthen-2-ol; 6-methyl-3-isopropenylcyclohexanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dihydrocarvone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dihydrocarvyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>m-</I>Dimethoxybenzene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Dimethoxybenzene; dimethyl hydroquinone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dimethylacetophenone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α-Dimethylbenzyl isobutyrate; phenyldimethylcarbinyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Dimethyl-5-heptenal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Dimethyl octanal; isodecylaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,7-Dimethyl-1-octanol; tetrahydrogeraniol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α-Dimethylphenethyl acetate; benzylpropyl acetate; benzyldimethylcarbinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α-Dimethylphenethyl alcohol; dimethylbenzyl carbinol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α-Dimethylphenethyl butyrate; benzyldimethylcarbinyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α-Dimethylphenethyl formate; benzyldimethylcarbinyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethyl succinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Diphenyl-2-propanone; dibenzyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>delta-Dodecalactone; 5-hydroxydodecanoic acid, deltalactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Dodecalactone; 4-hydroxydodecanoic acid γ-lactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Dodecenal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estragole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ρ-Ethoxybenzaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 2-acetyl-3-phenylpropionate; ethylbenzyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl aconitate, mixed esters.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl ρ-anisate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl benzoylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Ethylbenzyl butyrate; α-phenylpropyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl brassylate; tridecanedioic acid cyclic ethylene glycol diester; cyclo 1,13-ethyl-enedioxytridecan-1,13-dione.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylbutyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylbutyraldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylbutyric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl crotonate; <I>trans-</I>2-butenoic acid ethylester.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl cyclohexanepropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl decanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylfuran.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 2-furanpropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Ethylguaiacol; 4-ethyl-2-methoxyphenol. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl heptanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethyl-2-heptenal; 2-ethyl-3-butylacrolein.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl lactate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl laurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl levulinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl maltol; 2-ethyl-3-hydroxy-4H-pyran-4-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 2-methylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl myristate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl nitrite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl nonanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 2-nonynoate; ethyl octyne carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl oleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 4-phenylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 3-phenylglycidate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 3-phenylpropionate; ethyl hydrocinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl pyruvate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl sorbate; ethyl 2,4-hexadienoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl tiglate; ethyl <I>trans-</I>2-methyl-2-butenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl undecanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 10-undecenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl valerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptol; 1,8-epoxy<I>-p-</I>menthane; cineole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Farnesol; 3,7,11-trimethyl-2,6,10-dodecatrien-1-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>d-</I>Fenchone; <I>d-</I>1,3,3-trimethyl-2-norbornanone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fenchyl alcohol; 1,3,3-trimethyl-2-norbornanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Formic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(2-Furyl)-2-propanone; furyl acetone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Furyl-2-propanone; furyl acetone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fusel oil, refined (mixed amyl alcohols).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl acetoacetate; <I>trans-</I>3,7-dimethyl-2, 6-octadien-1-yl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl acetone; 6,10-dimethyl-5,9-undecadien-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl hexanoate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glucose pentaacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guaiacol; μ-methoxyphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guaiacyl acetate; μ-methoxyphenyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guaiacyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guaiene; 1,4-dimethyl-7-isopropenyl-Δ9,10-octahydroazulene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guaiol acetate; 1,4-dimethyl-7-(α-hydroxy-isopropyl)-δ9,10-octahydroazulene acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Heptalactone; 4-hydroxyheptanoic acid, γ-lactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptanal; enanthaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptanal dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptanal 1,2-glyceryl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3-Heptanedione; acetyl valeryl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Heptanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Heptanone; methyl amyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Heptanone; ethyl butyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Heptanone; dipropyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>cis-</I>4-Heptenal; <I>cis-</I>4-hepten-1-al.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptyl alcohol; enanthic alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Hexadecanol; cetyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ω-6-Hexadecenlactone; 16-hydroxy-6-hexadecenoic acid, ω-lactone; ambrettolide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Hexalactone; 4-hydroxyhexanoic acid, γ-lactone; tonkalide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexanal; caproic aldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3-Hexanedione; acetyl butyryl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexanoic acid; caproic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Hexenal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Hexen-1-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hexen-1-ol; leaf alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Hexen-1-yl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hexenyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hexenyl 2-methylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hexenyl phenylacetate; <I>cis-</I>3-hexenyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Hexyl-4-acetoxytetrahydrofuran.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Hexylcinnamaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Hexylidene cyclopentanone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl 2-methylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl phenylacetate; <I>n-</I>hexyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxycitronellal; 3,7-dimethyl-7-hydroxy-octanal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxycitronellal diethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxycitronellal dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxycitronellol; 3,7-dimethyl-1,7-octanediol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>(4-Hydroxy-3-methoxybenzyl)-nonanamide; pelargonyl vanillylamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-Hydroxy-4-octanone; butyroin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-(<I>p-</I>Hydroxyphenyl)-2-butanone; <I>p-</I>hydroxybenzyl acetone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Indole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Ionone; 4-(2,6,6-trimethyl-2-cyclohexen-1-yl)-3-buten-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Ionone; 4-(2,6,6-trimethyl-1-cyclohexen-1-yl)-3-buten-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Irone; 4-(2,5,6,6-tetramethyl-2-cyclohexene-1-yl)-3-buten-2-one; 6-methylionone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl acetate. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl alcohol; isopentyl alcohol; 3-methyl-1-butanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl 2-furanbutyrate; α-isoamyl furfurylpropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl 2-furanpropionate; α-isoamyl furfurylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl laurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl-2-methylbutyrate; isopentyl-2-methylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl nonanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl pyruvate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoamyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoborneol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobornyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobornyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobornyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobornyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl angelate; isobutyl <I>cis-</I>2-methyl-2-butenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl 2-furanpropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl heptanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Isobutylphenethyl alcohol; isobutyl benzyl carbinol; 4-methyl-1-phenyl-2-pentanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Isobutylthiazole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyraldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoeugenol; 2-methoxy-4-propenylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoeugenyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoeugenyl benzyl ether; benzyl isoeugenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoeugenyl ethyl ether; 2-ethoxy-5-propenyl-anisole; ethyl isoeugenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoeugenyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoeugenyl methyl ether; 4-propenylveratrole; methyl isoeugenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoeugenyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isojasmone; mixture of 2-hexylidenecyclopentanone and 2-hexyl-2-cyclopenten-1-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Isomethylionone; 4-(2,6,6-trimethyl-2-cyclohexen-1-yl)-3-methyl-3-buten-2-one; methyl γ-ionone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ρ-Isopropylacetophenone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl alcohol; isopropanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ρ-Isopropylbenzyl alcohol; cuminic alcohol; ρ-cymen-7-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ρ-Isopropylphenylacetaldehyde; ρ-cymen-7-carboxaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-(ρ-Isopropylphenyl)-propionaldehyde; ρ-isopropylhydrocinnamaldehyde; cuminyl acetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopulegol; <I>p-</I>menth-8-en-3-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopulegone; <I>p-</I>menth-8-en-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopulegyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoquinoline.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isovaleric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>cis-</I>Jasmone; 3-methyl-2-(2-pentenyl)-2-cyclopenten-1-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lauric aldehyde; dodecanal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lauryl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lauryl alcohol; 1-dodecanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lepidine; 4-methylquinoline.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Levulinic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalool oxide; <I>cis-</I> and <I>trans-</I>2-vinyl-2-methyl-5-(1′-hydroxy-1′-methylethyl) tetrahydrofuran.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl anthranilate; 3,7-dimethyl-1,6-octadien-3-yl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maltol; 3-hydroxy-2-methyl-4H-pyran-4-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthadienol; <I>p-</I>mentha-1,8(10)-dien-9-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Mentha-1,8-dien-7-ol; perillyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthadienyl acetate; <I>p-</I>mentha-1,8(10)-dien-9-yl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Menth-3-en-1-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1<I>-p-</I>Menthen--9-yl acetate; <I>p-</I>menth-1-en-9-yl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol; 2-isopropyl-5-methylcyclohexanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthone; <I>p</I>-menthan-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthyl acetate; <I>p-</I>menth-3-yl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthyl isovalerate; <I>p-</I>menth-3-yl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-</I>Methoxybenzaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Methoxybenzaldehyde; <I>p-</I>anisaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-</I>Methoxycinnamaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methoxy-4-methylphenol; 4-methylguaiacol; 2-methoxy<I>-p-</I>cresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-(<I>p-</I>Methoxyphenyl)-2-butanone; anisyl acetone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(4-Methoxyphenyl)-4-methyl-1-penten-3-one; methoxystyryl isopropyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(<I>p-</I>Methoxyphenyl)-1-penten-3-one; α-methylanisylidene acetone; ethone. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(<I>p-</I>Methoxyphenyl)-2-propanone; anisylmethyl ketone; anisic ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methoxy-4-vinylphenol; <I>p-</I>vinylguaiacol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4′-Methylacetophenone; <I>p-</I>methylacetophenone; methyl <I>p-</I>tolyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylallyl butyrate; 2-methyl-2-propenl-yl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl anisate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-</I>Methylanisole; <I>o-</I>cresyl methyl ether.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Methylanisole; <I>p-</I>cresyl methyl ether; <I>p-</I>methoxytoluene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylbenzyl acetate, mixed <I>o-,m-,p-.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylbenzyl acetate; styralyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylbenzyl alcohol; styralyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylbenzyl butyrate; styralyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylbenzyl isobutyrate; styralyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylbenzyl formate; styralyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylbenzyl propionate; styralyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyl-3-buten-2-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylbutyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl <I>p-tert-</I>butylphenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylbutyraldehyde; methyl ethyl acetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methylbutyraldehyde; isovaleraldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylbutyric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylcinnamaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Methylcinnamaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyl-1,3-cyclohexadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylcyclopentenolone; 3-methylcyclopentane-1,2-dione.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl disulfide; dimethyl disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl ester of rosin, partially hydrogenated (as defined in § 172.615); methyl dihydroabietate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl heptanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylheptanoic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>6-Methyl-3,5-heptadien-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl-5-hepten-2-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>6-Methyl-5-hepten-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 2-hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl <I>p-</I>hydroxybenzoate; methylparaben.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl α-ionone; 5-(2,6,6-trimethyl-2-cyclohexen-1-yl)-4-penten-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl β-ionone; 5-(2,6,6-trimethyl-1-cyclohexen-1-yl)-4-penten-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl Δ-ionone; 5-(2,6,6-trimethyl-3-cyclohexen-1-yl-)-4-penten-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyl-3-(<I>p-</I>isopropylphenyl)-propionalde-hyde; α-methyl<I>-p-</I>isopropylhydro- cinnamal- dehyde; cyclamen aldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl laurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl mercaptan; methanethiol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl <I>o-</I>methoxybenzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl <I>N-</I>methylanthranilate; dimethyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 2-methylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl-3-methylthiopropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 4-methylvalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl myristate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl β-naphthyl ketone; 2′-acetonaphthone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl nonanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 2-nonenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 2-nonynoate; methyloctyne carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyloctanal; methyl hexyl acetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 2-octynoate; methyl heptine carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Methyl-2,3-pentanedione; acetyl isobutyryl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Methyl-2-pentanone; methyl isobutyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Methylphenethyl alcohol; hydratropyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methyl-4-phenyl-3-butene-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyl-4-phenyl-2-butyl acetate; dimethylphenylethyl carbinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyl-4-phenyl-2-butyl isobutyrate; dimethylphenyl ethylcarbinyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methyl-2-phenylbutyraldehyde; α-isopropyl phenylacetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 4-phenylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Methyl-1-phenyl-2-pentanone; benzyl isobutyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 3-phenylpropionate; methyl hydrocinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methyl-5-propyl-2-cyclohexen-1-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl sulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methylthiopropionaldehyde; methional.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyl-3-tolylpropionaldehyde, mixed <I>o-, m-, p-.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylundecanal; methyl nonyl acetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 9-undecenoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 2-undecynoate; methyl decyne carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl valerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylvaleric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myristaldehyde; tetradecanal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>d-</I>Neomenthol; 2-isopropyl-5-methylcyclohexanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nerol; <I>cis-</I>3,7-dimethyl-2,6-octadien-1-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nerolidol; 3,7,11-trimethyl-1,6,10-dodecatrien-3-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neryl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neryl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neryl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neryl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neryl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neryl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Nonadien-1-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Nonalactone; 4-hydroxynonanoic acid, γ-lactone; aldehyde C-18.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonanal; pelargonic aldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Nonanediol acetate, mixed esters.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonanoic acid; pelargonic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Nonanone; methylheptyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Nonanon-1-yl acetate; 1-hydroxy-3-nonanone acetate. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonyl alcohol; 1-nonanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nootkatone; 5,6-dimethyl-8-isopropenyl-bicyclo[4,4,0]-dec-1-en-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ocimene; <I>trans</I>-β-ocimene; 3,7-dimethyl-1,3,6-octatriene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Octalactone; 4-hydroxyoctanoic acid, γ-lactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octanal; caprylaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octanal dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Octanol; octyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Octanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Octanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Octanone; methyl hexyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Octanone; ethyl amyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Octanon-1-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Octen-3-ol; amyl vinyl carbinol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Octen-3-yl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Octyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl heptanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl octanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ω-Pentadecalactone; 15-hydroxypentadeca-noic acid, ω-lactone; pentadecanolide; angelica lactone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3-Pentanedione; acetyl propionyl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Pentanone; methyl propyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Pentenoic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Penten-3-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Perillaldehyde; 4-isopropenyl-1-cyclohexene-1-carboxaldehyde;<I>p-</I>mentha-1,8-dien-7-al.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Perillyl acetate; <I>p-</I>mentha-1,8-dien-7-yl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Phellandrene; ρ-mentha-1,5-diene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl alcohol; β-phenylethyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl 2-methylbutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl senecioate; phenethyl 3,3-dimethylacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenethyl tiglate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenoxyacetic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Phenoxyethyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylacetaldehyde; α-toluic aldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylacetaldehyde 2,3-butylene glycol acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylacetaldehyde dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylacetaldehyde glyceryl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylacetic acid; α-toluic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Phenyl-2-butanol; phenylethyl methyl carbinol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Phenyl-3-buten-2-ol; methyl styryl carbinol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Phenyl-3-buten-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Phenyl-2-butyl acetate; phenylethyl methyl carbinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Phenyl-3-methyl-3-pentanol; phenylethyl methyl ethyl carbinol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Phenyl-1-propanol; phenylethyl carbinol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenyl-1-propanol; hydrocinnamyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Phenylpropionaldehyde; hydratropalde-hyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropionaldehyde; hydrocinnamaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Phenylpropionalde-hyde dimethyl acetal; hydratropic aldehyde dimethyl acetal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropionic acid; hydrocinnamic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Phenylpropyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Phenylpropyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Phenylpropyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-(3-Phenylpropyl)-tetrahydrofuran.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Pinene; 2-pinene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Pinene; 2(10)-pinene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pine tar oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pinocarveol; 2(10)-pinen-3-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperidine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>d-</I>Piperitone; <I>p-</I>menth-1-en-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperitenone; <I>p-</I>mentha-1,4(8)-dien-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperitenone oxide; 1,2-epoxy<I>-p-</I>menth-4-(8)-en-3-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperonyl acetate; heliotropyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperonyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polylimonene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polysorbate 20; polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monolaurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polysorbate 60; polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monostereate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polysorbate 80; polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monooleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propenylguaethol; 6-ethoxy<I>-m-</I>anol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propionaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl alcohol; 1-propanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Propyl anisole; dihydroanethole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl 2-furanacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl heptanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl hexanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl <I>p-</I>hydroxybenzoate; propylparaben.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Propylidenephthalide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl mercaptan.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Propylphenethyl alcohol. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyroligneous acid extract.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyruvaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyruvic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinol; 3,7-dimethyl-7-octen-1-ol; <I>l-</I>citronellol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhodinyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rum ether; ethyl oxyhydrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Santalol, α and β.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Santalyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Santalyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Skatole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitan monostearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sucrose octaacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Terpinene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Terpinene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Terpineol; <I>p-</I>menth-1-en-8-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Terpineol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinolene; <I>p-</I>menth-1,4(8)-diene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl anthranilate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl cinnamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl formate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl isovalerate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpinyl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrahydrofurfuryl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrahydrofurfuryl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrahydrofurfuryl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrahydrofurfuryl propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrahydro-pseudo-ionone; 6,10-dimethyl-9-undecen-2-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrahydrolinalool; 3,7-dimethyloctan-3-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetramethyl ethylcyclohexenone; mixture of 5-ethyl-2,3,4,5-tetramethyl-2-cyclohexen-1-one and 5-ethyl-3,4,5,6-tetramethyl-2-cyclohexen-1-one.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Thienyl mercaptan; 2-thienylthiol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tolualdehyde glyceryl acetal, mixed <I>o, m, p.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tolualdehydes, mixed <I>o, m, p.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Tolylacetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-</I>Tolyl acetate; <I>o-</I>cresyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Tolyl acetate; <I>p-</I>cresyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-(<I>p-</I>Tolyl)-2-butanone; <I>p-</I>methylbenzylacetone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Tolyl isobutyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Tolyl laurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Tolyl phenylacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-(<I>p-</I>Tolyl)-propionaldehyde; <I>p-</I>methylhydratropic aldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tributyl acetylcitrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Tridecenal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3-Undecadione; acetyl nonyryl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>γ-Undecalactone; 4-hydroxyundecanoic acid γ-lactone; peach aldehyde; aldehyde C-14.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecenal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Undecanone; methyl nonyl ketone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>9-Undecenal; undecenoic aldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>10-Undecenal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecen-1-ol; undecylenic alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>10-Undecen-1-yl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Valeraldehyde; pentanal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Valeric acid; pentanoic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vanillin acetate; acetyl vanillin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Veratraldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Verbenol; 2-pinen-4-ol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zingerone; 4-(4-hydroxy-3-methoxyphenyl)-2-butanone.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Δ-Decalactone and Δ-dodecalactone when used separately or in combination in oleomargarine are used at levels not to exceed 10 parts per million and 20 parts per million, respectively, in accordance with § 166.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) BHA (butylated hydroxyanisole) may be used as an antioxidant in flavoring substances whereby the additive does not exceed 0.5 percent of the essential (volatile) oil content of the flavoring substance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 23148, May 6, 1977; 43 FR 19843, May 9, 1978; 45 FR 22915, Apr. 4, 1980; 47 FR 27810, June 25, 1982; 48 FR 10812, Mar. 15, 1983; 48 FR 51907, Nov. 15, 1983; 49 FR 5747, Feb. 15, 1984; 50 FR 42932, Oct. 23, 1985; 54 FR 7402, Feb. 21, 1989; 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996; 69 FR 24511, May 4, 2004; 83 FR 50490, 50503, Oct. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.520" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.520   Cocoa with dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate for manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive “cocoa with dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate for manufacturing,” conforming to § 163.117 of this chapter and § 172.810, is used or intended for use as a flavoring substance in dry beverage mixes whereby the amount of dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate does not exceed 75 parts per million of the finished beverage. The labeling of the dry beverage mix shall bear adequate directions to assure use in compliance with this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.530" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.530   Disodium guanylate.</HEAD>
<P>Disodium guanylate may be safely used as a flavor enhancer in foods, at a level not in excess of that reasonably required to produce the intended effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.535" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.535   Disodium inosinate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive disodium inosinate may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the disodium salt of inosinic acid, manufactured and purified so as to contain no more than 150 parts per million of soluble barium in the compound disodium inosinate with seven and one-half molecules of water of crystallization.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive is used as a flavoring adjuvant in food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.540" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.540   DL-Alanine.</HEAD>
<P>DL-Alanine (a racemic mixture of D- and L-alanine; CAS Reg. No. 302-72-7) may be safely used as a flavor enhancer for sweeteners in pickling mixtures at a level not to exceed 1 percent of the pickling spice that is added to the pickling brine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 6968, Feb. 21, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.560" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.560   Modified hop extract.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive modified hop extract may be safely used in beer in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is used or intended for use as a flavoring agent in the brewing of beer.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive is manufactured by one of the following processes:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive is manufactured from a hexane extract of hops by simultaneous isomerization and selective reduction in an alkaline aqueous medium with sodium borohydride, whereby the additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) A solution of the food additive solids is made up in approximately 0.012 <I>n</I> alkaline methyl alcohol (6 milliliters of 1 <I>n</I> sodium hydroxide diluted to 500 milliliters with methyl alcohol) to show an absorbance at 253 millimicrons of 0.6 to 0.9 per centimeter. (This absorbance is obtained by approximately 0.03 milligram solids permilliliter.) The ultraviolet absorption spectrum of this solution exhibits the following characteristics: An absorption peak at 253 millimicrons; no absorption peak at 325 to 330 millimicrons; the absorbance at 268 millimicrons does not exceed the absorbance at 272 millimicrons.
</P>
<P>(ii) The boron content of the food additive does not exceed 310 parts per million (0.0310 percent), calculated as boron.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive is manufactured from hops by a sequence of extractions and fractionations, using benzene, light petroleum spirits, and methyl alcohol as solvents, followed by isomerization by potassium carbonate treatment. Residues of solvents in the modified hop extract shall not exceed 1.0 part per million of benzene, 1.0 part per million of light petroleum spirits, and 250 parts per million of methyl alcohol. The light petroleum spirits and benzene solvents shall comply with the specifications in § 172.250 except that the boiling point range for light petroleum spirits is 150 °F-300 °F.
</P>
<P>(3) The additive is manufactured from hops by a sequence of extractions and fractionations, using methylene chloride, hexane, and methyl alcohol as solvents, followed by isomerization by sodium hydroxide treatment. Residues of the solvents in the modified hop extract shall not exceed 5 parts per million of methylene chloride, 25 parts per million of hexane, and 100 parts per million of methyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>(4) The additive is manufactured from hops by a sequence of extractions and fractionations, using benzene, light petroleum spirits, methyl alcohol, <I>n-</I>butyl alcohol, and ethyl acetate as solvents, followed by isomerization by potassium carbonate treatment. Residues of solvents in the modified hop extract shall not exceed 1.0 part per million of benzene, 1.0 part per million of light petroleum spirits, 50 parts per million of methyl alcohol, 50 parts per million of <I>n-</I>butyl alcohol, and 1 part per million of ethyl acetate. The light petroleum spirits and benzene solvents shall comply with the specifications in § 172.250 except that the boiling point range for light petroleum spirits is 150 °F to 300 °F.
</P>
<P>(5) The additive is manufactured from hops by an initial extraction and fractionation using one or more of the following solvents: Ethylene dichloride, hexane, isopropyl alcohol, methyl alcohol, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, and water; followed by isomerization by calcium chloride or magnesium chloride treatment in ethylene dichloride, methylene chloride, or trichloroethylene and a further sequence of extractions and fractionations using one or more of the solvents set forth in this paragraph. Residues of the solvents in the modified hop extract shall not exceed 125 parts per million of hexane; 150 parts per million of ethylene dichloride, methylene chloride, or trichloroethylene; or 250 parts per million of isopropyl alcohol or methyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>(6) The additive is manufactured from hops by an initial extraction and fractionation using one or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section followed by: Hydrogenation using palladium as a catalyst in methyl alcohol, ethyl alcohol, or isopropyl alcohol acidified with hydrochloric or sulfuric acid; oxidation with peracetic acid; isomerization by calcium chloride or magnesium chloride treatment in ethylene dichloride, methylene chloride, or trichloroethylene (alternatively, the hydrogenation and isomerization steps may be performed in reverse order); and a further sequence of extractions and fractionations using one or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The additive shall meet the residue limitations as prescribed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) The additive is manufactured from hops as set forth in paragraph (b)(6) of this section followed by reduction with sodium borohydride in aqueous alkaline methyl alcohol, and a sequence of extractions and fractionations using one or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The additive shall meet the residue limitations as prescribed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, and a boron content level not in excess of 300 parts per million (0.0300 percent), calculated as boron.
</P>
<P>(8) The additive is manufactured from hops as a nonisomerizable nonvolatile hop resin by an initial extraction and fractionation using one or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section followed by a sequence of aqueous extractions and removal of nonaqueous solvents to less than 0.5 percent. The additive is added to the wort before or during cooking in the manufacture of beer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.575" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.575   Quinine.</HEAD>
<P>Quinine, as the hydrochloride salt or sulfate salt, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uses
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In carbonated beverages as a flavor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 83 parts per million, as quinine. Label shall bear a prominent declaration of the presence of quinine either by the use of the word “quinine” in the name of the article or through a separate declaration.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.580" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.580   Safrole-free extract of sassafras.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive safrole-free extract of sassafras may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the aqueous extract obtained from the root bark of the plant <I>Sassafras albidum</I> (Nuttall) Nees (Fam. Lauraceae).
</P>
<P>(b) It is obtained by extracting the bark with dilute alcohol, first concentrating the alcoholic solution by vacuum distillation, then diluting the concentrate with water and discarding the oily fraction.
</P>
<P>(c) The purified aqueous extract is safrole-free.
</P>
<P>(d) It is used as a flavoring in food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.585" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.585   Sugar beet extract flavor base.</HEAD>
<P>Sugar beet extract flavor base may be safely used in food in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Sugar beet extract flavor base is the concentrated residue of soluble sugar beet extractives from which sugar and glutamic acid have been recovered, and which has been subjected to ion exchange to minimize the concentration of naturally occurring trace minerals.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used as a flavor in food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.590" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.590   Yeast-malt sprout extract.</HEAD>
<P>Yeast-malt sprout extract, as described in this section, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced by partial hydrolysis of yeast extract (derived from <I>Saccharomyces cereviseae, Saccharomyces fragilis,</I> or <I>Candida utilis</I>) using the sprout portion of malt barley as the source of enzymes. The additive contains a maximum of 6 percent 5′ nucleotides by weight.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive may be used as a flavor enhancer in food at a level not in excess of that reasonably required to produce the intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Gums, Chewing Gum Bases and Related Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.610" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.610   Arabinogalactan.</HEAD>
<P>Arabinogalactan may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Arabinogalactan is a polysaccharide extracted by water from Western larch wood, having galactose units and arabinose units in the approximate ratio of six to one.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used in the following foods in the minimum quantity required to produce its intended effect as an emulsifier, stabilizer, binder, or bodying agent: Essential oils, nonnutritive sweeteners, flavor bases, nonstandardized dressings, and pudding mixes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.615" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.615   Chewing gum base.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive chewing gum base may be safely used in the manufacture of chewing gum in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive consists of one or more of the following substances that meet the specifications and limitations prescribed in this paragraph, used in amounts not to exceed those required to produce the intended physical or other technical effect.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Masticatory Substances
</P><P class="gpotbl_description"><E T="04">natural (coagulated or concentrated latices) of vegetable origin</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Genus and species
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sapotaceae:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chicle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manilkara zapotilla Gilly and Manilkara chicle Gilly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chiquibul</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manilkara zapotilla Gilly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crown gum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manilkara zapotilla Gilly and Manilkara chicle Gilly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Gutta hang kang</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Palaquium leiocarpum Boerl. and Palaquium oblongifolium Burck.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Massaranduba balata (and the solvent-free resin extract of Massaranduba balata)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manilkara huberi (Ducke) Chevalier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Massaranduba chocolate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manilkara solimoesensis Gilly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nispero</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manilkara zapotilla Gilly and Manilkara chicle Gilly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rosidinha (rosadinha)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Micropholis (also known as Sideroxylon) spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Venezuelan chicle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manilkara williamsii Standley and related spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apocynaceae:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Jelutong</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dyera costulata Hook, F. and Dyera lowii Hook, F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Leche caspi (sorva)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Couma macrocarpa Barb. Rodr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pendare</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Couma macrocarpa Barb. Rodr. and Couma utilis (Mart.) Muell. Arg.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Perillo</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Couma macrocarpa Barb. Rodr. and Couma utilis (Mart.) Muell. Arg.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moraceae:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Leche de vaca</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brosimum utile (H.B.K.) Pittier and Poulsenia spp.; also Lacmellea standleyi (Woodson), Monachino (Apocynaceae).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Niger gutta</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ficus platyphylla Del.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tunu (tuno)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Castilla fallax Cook.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Euphorbiaceae:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chilte</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cnidoscolus (also known as Jatropha) elasticus Lundell and Cnidoscolus tepiquensis (Cost. and Gall.) McVaugh.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Natural rubber (smoked sheet and latex solids)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hevea brasiliensis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Synthetic                        Specifications
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butadiene-styrene rubber</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isobutylene-isoprene copolymer (butyl rubber)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraffin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Synthesized by Fischer-Tropsch process from carbon monoxide and hydrogen which are catalytically converted to a mixture of paraffin hydrocarbon. Lower molecular weight fractions are removed by distillation. The residue is hydrogenated and further treated by percolation through activated charcoal. The product has a congealing point of 93°-99 °C as determined by ASTM method D938-71 (Reapproved 1981), “Standard Test Method for Congealing Point of Petroleum Waxes, Including Petrolatum,” a maximum oil content of 0.5 percent as determined by ASTM method D721-56T, “Tentative Method of Test for Oil Content of Petroleum Waxes,” and an absorptivity of less than 0.01 at 290 millimicrons in decahydronaphthalene at 88 °C as determined by ASTM method D2008-80, “Standard Test Method for Ultraviolet Absorbance and Absorptivity of Petroleum Products,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Petroleum wax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.886.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Petroleum wax synthetic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.888.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyethylene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Molecular weight 2,000-21,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyisobutylene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum molecular weight 37,000 (Flory).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyvinyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Molecular weight, minimum 2,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="04">Plasticizing Materials (Softeners)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol ester of partially dimerized rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 3-8, a minimum drop-softening point of 109 °C, and a color of M or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol ester of partially hydrogenated gum or wood rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 3-10, a minimum drop-softening point of 79 °C, and a color of N or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol ester of polymerized rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 3-12, a minimum melting-point of 80 °C, and a color of M or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol ester of gum rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 5-9, a minimum drop-softening point of 88 °C, and a color of N or paler. The ester is purified by steam stripping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol ester of tall oil rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 2-12, a softening point (ring and ball) of 80°-88 °C, and a color of N or paler. The ester is purified by steam stripping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol ester of wood rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 3-9, a drop-softening point of 88 °C-96 °C, and a color of N or paler. The ester is purified by steam stripping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanolin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ester of rosin, partially hydrogenated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 4-8, a refractive index of 1.5170-1.5205 at 20 °C, and a viscosity of 23-66 poises at 25 °C. The ester is purified by steam stripping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol ester of partially hydrogenated gum or wood rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 7-18, a minimum drop-softening point of 102 °C, and a color of K or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol ester of gum or wood rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Having an acid number of 6-16, a minimum drop-softening point of 109 °C, and a color of M or paler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rice bran wax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.890.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.860.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium and potassium stearates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.863.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="04">Terpene Resins</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Consisting of polymers of αpinene, βpinene, and/or dipentene; acid value less than 5, saponification number less than 5, and color less than 4 on the Gardner scale as measured in 50 percent mineral spirit solution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Natural resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Consisting of polymers of α-pinene; softening point minimum 155 °C, determined by U.S.P. closed-capillary method, United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980) (page 961).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="04">Antioxidants</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylated hydroxyanisole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed antioxidant content of 0.1% when used alone or in any combination.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylated hydroxytoluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl gallate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="04">Miscellaneous</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium sulfide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reaction-control agent in synthetic polymer production.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) In addition to the substances listed in paragraph (a) of this section, chewing gum base may also include substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the act, the label and labeling of the food additive shall bear the name of the additive, “chewing gum base.” As used in this paragraph, the term “chewing gum base” means the manufactured or partially manufactured nonnutritive masticatory substance comprised of one or more of the ingredients named and so defined in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 56051, Aug. 22, 1980; 49 FR 5747, Feb. 15, 1984; 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 66 FR 38153, July 23, 2001; 66 FR 53711, Oct. 24, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.620" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.620   Carrageenan.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive carrageenan may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the refined hydrocolloid prepared by aqueous extraction from the following members of the families Gigartinaceae and Solieriaceae of the class Rodophyceae (red seaweed):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Chondrus crispus.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chondrus ocellatus.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucheuma cottonii.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucheuma spinosum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gigartina acicularis.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gigartina pistillata.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gigartina radula.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gigartina stellata.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The food additive conforms to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) It is a sulfated polysaccharide the dominant hexose units of which are galactose and anhydrogalactose.
</P>
<P>(2) Range of sulfate content: 20 percent to 40 percent on a dry-weight basis.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive is used or intended for use in the amount necessary for an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in foods, except for those standardized foods that do not provide for such use.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear the name of the additive, carrageenan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.623" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.623   Carrageenan with polysorbate 80.</HEAD>
<P>Carrageenan otherwise meeting the definition and specifications of § 172.620 (a) and (b) and salts of carrageenan otherwise meeting the definition of § 172.626(a) may be safely produced with the use of polysorbate 80 meeting the specifications and requirements of § 172.840 (a) and (b) in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The polysorbate 80 is used only to facilitate separation of sheeted carrageenan and salts of carrageenan from drying rolls.
</P>
<P>(b) The carrageenan and salts of carrageenan contain not more than 5 percent by weight of polysorbate 80, and the final food containing the additives contains polysorbate 80 in an amount not to exceed 500 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(c) The carrageenan and salts of carrageenan so produced are used only in producing foods in gel form and only for the purposes defined in §§ 172.620(c) and 172.626(b), respectively.
</P>
<P>(d) The carrageenan and salts of carrageenan so produced are not used in foods for which standards of identity exist unless the standards provide for the use of carrageenan, or salts of carrageenan, combined with polysorbate 80.
</P>
<P>(e) The carrageenan and salts of carrageenan produced in accordance with this section, and foods containing the same, in addition to the other requirements of the Act, are labeled to show the presence of polysorbate 80, and the label or labeling of the carrageenan and salts of carrageenan so produced bear adequate directions for use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.626" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.626   Salts of carrageenan.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive salts of carrageenan may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive consists of carrageenan, meeting the provisions of § 172.620, modified by increasing the concentration of one of the naturally occurring salts (ammonium, calcium, potassium, or sodium) of carrageenan to the level that it is the dominant salt in the additive.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive is used or intended for use in the amount necessary for an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in foods, except for those standardized foods that do not provide for such use.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear the name of the salt of carrageenan that dominates the mixture by reason of the modification, e.g., “sodium carrageenan”, “potassium carrageenan”, etc.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.655" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.655   Furcelleran.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive furcelleran may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the refined hydrocolloid prepared by aqueous extraction of furcellaria fastigiata of the class Rodophyceae (red seaweed).
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive conforms to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) It is a sulfated polysaccharide the dominant hexose units of which are galactose and anhydrogalactose.
</P>
<P>(2) Range of sulfate content: 8 percent to 19 percent, on a dry-weight basis.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive is used or intended for use in the amount necessary for an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in foods, except for those standardized foods that do not provide for such use.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear the name of the additive, furcelleran.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.660" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.660   Salts of furcelleran.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive salts of furcelleran may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive consists of furcelleran, meeting the provisions of § 172.655, modified by increasing the concentration of one of the naturally occurring salts (ammonium, calcium, potassium, or sodium) of furcelleran to the level that it is the dominant salt in the additive.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive is used or intended for use in the amount necessary for an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in foods, except for those standardized foods that do not provide for such use.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear the name of the salt of furcelleran that dominates the mixture by reason of the modification, e.g., “sodium furcelleran”, “potassium furcelleran”, etc.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.665" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.665   Gellan gum.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive gellan gum may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a high molecular weight polysaccharide gum produced from <I>Pseudomonas elodea</I> by a pure culture fermentation process and purified by recovery with isopropyl alcohol. It is composed of tetrasaccharide repeat units, each containing one molecule of rhamnose and glucuronic acid, and two molecules of glucose. The glucuronic acid is neutralized to a mixed potassium, sodium, calcium, and magnesium salt. The polysaccharide may contain acyl (glyceryl and acetyl) groups as the O-glycosidically linked esters.
</P>
<P>(b) The strain of <I>P. elodea</I> is nonpathogenic and nontoxic in man and animals.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is produced by a process that renders it free of viable cells of <I>P. elodea.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Positive for gellan gum when subjected to the following identification tests:
</P>
<P>(i) A 1-percent solution is made by hydrating 1 gram of gellan gum in 99 milliliters of distilled water. The mixture is stirred for about 2 hours, using a motorized stirrer and a propeller-type stirring blade. A small amount of the above solution is drawn into a wide bore pipet and transferred into a solution of 10-percent calcium chloride. A tough worm-like gel will form instantly.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the 1-percent distilled water solution prepared for identification test (i), 0.50 gram of sodium chloride is added. The solution is heated to 80 °C with stirring, held at 80 °C for 1 minute, and allowed to cool to room temperature without stirring. A firm gel will form.
</P>
<P>(2) Residual isopropyl alcohol (IPA) not to exceed 0.075 percent as determined by the procedure described in the “Gellan gum” monograph in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 425-426, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) The additive is used or intended for use in accordance with current good manufacturing practice as a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter. The additive may be used in foods where standards of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act do not preclude such use.
</P>
<P>(f) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of its container shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the name of the additive and the designation “food grade”.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the food additive container shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 39614, Sept. 28, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 55445, Nov. 25, 1992; 64 FR 1758, Jan. 12, 1999; 78 FR 71463, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.695" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.695   Xanthan gum.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive xanthan gum may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a polysaccharide gum derived from <I>Xanthomonas campestris</I> by a pure-culture fermentation process and purified by recovery with isopropyl alcohol. It contains D-glucose, D-mannose, and D-glucuronic acid as the dominant hexose units and is manufactured as the sodium, potassium, or calcium salt.
</P>
<P>(b) The strain of <I>Xanthomonas campestris</I> is nonpathogenic and nontoxic in man or other animals.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is produced by a process that renders it free of viable cells of <I>Xanthomonas campestris.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Residual isopropyl alcohol not to exceed 750 parts per million. 
</P>
<P>(2) An aqueous solution containing 1 percent of the additive and 1 percent of potassium chloride stirred for 2 hours has a minimum viscosity of 600 centipoises at 75 °F, as determined by Brookfield Viscometer, Model LVF (or equivalent), using a No. 3 spindle at 60 r.p.m., and the ratio of viscosities at 75 °F and 150 °F is in the range of 1.02 to 1.45.
</P>
<P>(3) Positive for xanthan gum when subjected to the following procedure:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Locust Bean Gum Gel Test
</HD1>
<P>Blend on a weighing paper or in a weighing pan 1.0 gram of powdered locust bean gum with 1.0 gram of the powdered polysaccharide to be tested. Add the blend slowly (approximately 
<FR>1/2</FR> minute) at the point of maximum agitation to a stirred solution of 200 milliliters of distilled water previously heated to 80 °C in a 400-milliliter beaker. Continue mechanical stirring until the mixture is in solution, but stir for a minimum time of 30 minutes. Do not allow the water temperature to drop below 60 °C.
</P>
<P>Set the beaker and its contents aside to cool in the absence of agitation. Allow a minimum time of 2 hours for cooling. Examine the cooled beaker contents for a firm rubbery gel formation after the temperature drops below 40 °C.
</P>
<P>In the event that a gel is obtained, make up a 1 percent solution of the polysaccharide to be tested in 200 milliliters of distilled water previously heated to 80 °C (omit the locust bean gum). Allow the solution to cool without agitation as before. Formation of a gel on cooling indicates that the sample is a gelling polysaccharide and not xanthan gum.
</P>
<P>Record the sample as “positive” for xanthan gum if a firm, rubbery gel forms in the presence of locust bean gum but not in its absence. Record the sample as “negative” for xanthan gum if no gel forms or if a soft or brittle gel forms both with locust bean gum and in a 1 percent solution of the sample (containing no locust bean gum).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Positive for xanthan gum when subjected to the following procedure:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Pyruvic Acid Test
</HD1>
<P>Pipet 10 milliliters of an 0.6 percent solution of the polysaccharide in distilled water (60 milligrams of water-soluble gum) into a 50-milliliter flask equipped with a standard taper glass joint. Pipet in 20 milliliters of 1<I>N</I> hydrochloric acid. Weigh the flask. Reflux the mixture for 3 hours. Take precautions to avoid loss of vapor during the refluxing. Cool the solution to room temperature. Add distilled water to make up any weight loss from the flask contents.
</P>
<P>Pipet 1 milliliter of a 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine reagent (0.5 percent in 2<I>N</I> hydrochloric acid) into a 30-milliliter separatory funnel followed by a 2-milliliter aliquot (4 milligrams of water-soluble gum) of the polysaccharide hydrolyzate. Mix and allow the reaction mixture to stand at room temperature for 5 minutes. Extract the mixture with 5 milliliters of ethyl acetate. Discard the aqueous layer.
</P>
<P>Extract the hydrazone from the ethyl acetate with three 5 milliliter portions of 10 percent sodium carbonate solution. Dilute the combined sodium carbonate extracts to 100 milliliters with additional 10 percent sodium carbonate in a 10-milliliter volumetric flask. Measure the optical density of the sodium carbonate solution at 375 millimicrons.
</P>
<P>Compare the results with a curve of the optical density versus concentration of an authentic sample of pyruvic acid that has been run through the procedure starting with the preparation of the hydrazone.
</P>
<P>Record the percent by weight of pyruvic acid in the test polysaccharide. Note “positive” for xanthan gum if the sample contains more than 1.5 percent of pyruvic acid and “negative” for xanthan gum if the sample contains less than 1.5 percent of pyruvic acid by weight.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The additive is used or intended for use in accordance with good manufacturing practice as a stabilizer, emulsifier, thickener, suspending agent, bodying agent, or foam enhancer in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use.
</P>
<P>(f) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of its container shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Act, the name of the additive and the designation “food grade”.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the food additive container shall bear adequate directions for use.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Other Specific Usage Additives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.710" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.710   Adjuvants for pesticide use dilutions.</HEAD>
<P>The following surfactants and related adjuvants may be safely added to pesticide use dilutions by a grower or applicant prior to application to the growing crop:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>n-</I>Alkyl (C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) amine acetate, where the alkyl groups (C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) are derived from coconut oil, as a surfactant in emulsifier blends at levels not in excess of 5 percent by weight of the emulsifier blends that are added to herbicides for application to corn and sorghum.
</P>
<P>Di<I>-n-</I>alkyl (C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) dimethyl ammonium chloride, where the alkyl groups (C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) are derived from coconut oil, as surfactants in emulsifier blends at levels not in excess of 5 percent by weight of emulsifier blends that are added to herbicides for application to corn or sorghum.
</P>
<P>Diethanolamide condensate based on a mixture of saturated and unsaturated soybean oil fatty acids (C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) as a surfactant in emulsifier blends that are added to the herbicide atrazine for application to corn.
</P>
<P>Diethanolamide condensate based on stripped coconut fatty acids (C<E T="52">10</E> C<E T="52">18</E>) as a surfactant in emulsifier blends that are added to the herbicide atrazine for application to corn.
</P>
<P>α-(<I>p-</I>Dodecylphenyl)<I>-omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of dodecylphenol (dodecyl group is a proplyene tetramer isomer) with an average of 4-14 or 30-70 moles of ethylene oxide; if a blend of products is used, the average number of moles of ethylene oxide reacted to produce any product that is a component of the blend shall be in the range of 4-14 or 30-70.
</P>
<P>Ethylene dichloride.
</P>
<P>Polyglyceryl phthalate ester of coconut oil fatty acids.
</P>
<P>α-[<I>p-</I>(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl) phenyl]<I>-omega-</I>hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <I>p-</I>(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl) phenol with an average of 4-14 or 30-70 moles of ethylene oxide; if a blend of products is used, the average number of moles of ethylene oxide reacted to produce any product that is a component of the blend shall be in the range of 4-14 or 30-70.
</P>
<P>α-[<I>p-</I>(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl) phenyl]-<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <I>p-</I>(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl) phenol with 1 mole of ethylene oxide.
</P>
<P>Sodium acrylate and acrylamide copolymer with a minimum average molecular weight of 10,000,000 in which 30 percent of the polymer is comprised of acrylate units and 70 percent acrylamide units, for use as a drift control agent in herbicide formulations applied to crops at a level not to exceed 0.5 ounces of the additive per acre.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.712" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.712   1,3-Butylene glycol.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive 1,3-butylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 107-88-0) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is prepared by the aldol condensation of acetaldehyde followed by catalytic hydrogenation.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive shall conform to the identity and specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), p. 126, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) It is used in the manufacture of sausage casings as a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter and as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 26228, May 13, 1997, as amended at 78 FR 14664, Mar. 7, 2013; 78 FR 71463, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.715" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.715   Calcium lignosulfonate.</HEAD>
<P>Calcium lignosulfonate may be safely used in or on food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Calcium lignosulfonate consists of sulfonated lignin, primarily as calcium and sodium salts.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect when added as a dispersing agent and stabilizer in pesticides for preharvest or postharvest application to bananas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.720" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.720   Calcium lactobionate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive calcium lactobionate may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the calcium salt of lactobionic acid (4-(β,D-galactosido)-D-gluconic acid) produced by the oxidation of lactose.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as a firming agent in dry pudding mixes at a level not greater than that required to accomplish the intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.723" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.723   Epoxidized soybean oil.</HEAD>
<P>Epoxidized soybean oil may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is prepared by reacting soybean oil in toluene with hydrogen peroxide and formic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) It meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Epoxidized soybean oil contains oxirane oxygen, between 7.0 and 8.0 percent, as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society (A.O.C.S.) method Cd 9-57, “Oxirane Oxygen,” reapproved 1989, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the American Oil Chemists' Society, P. O. Box 3489, Champaign, IL 61826-3489, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum iodine value is 3.0, as determined by A.O.C.S. method Cd 1-25, “Iodine Value of Fats and Oils Wijs Method,” revised 1993, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) The heavy metals (as Pb) content cannot be more than 10 parts per million, as determined by the “Heavy Metals Test,” of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 760-761, Method II (with a 2-gram sample and 20 microgram of lead ion in the control), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used as a halogen stabilizer in brominated soybean oil at a level not to exceed 1 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32903, June 26, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 1759, Jan. 12, 1999; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17719, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.725" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.725   Gibberellic acid and its potassium salt.</HEAD>
<P>The food additives gibberellic acid and its potassium salt may be used in the malting of barley in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additives meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The gibberellic acid is produced by deep-culture fermentation of a suitable nutrient medium by a strain of Fusarium moniliforme or a selection of this culture.
</P>
<P>(2) The gibberellic acid produced is of 80 percent purity or better.
</P>
<P>(3) The empirical formula of gibberellic acid is represented by C<E T="52">19</E>H<E T="52">22</E>O<E T="52">6</E>.
</P>
<P>(4) Potassium gibberellate is the potassium salt of the specified gibberellic acid.
</P>
<P>(5) The potassium gibberellate is of 80 percent purity or better.
</P>
<P>(6) The gibberellic acid or potassium gibberellate may be diluted with substances generally recognized as safe in foods or with salts of fatty acids conforming to § 172.863.
</P>
<P>(b) They are used or intended for use in the malting of barley under conditions whereby the amount of either or both additives present in the malt is not in excess of 2 parts per million expressed as gibberellic acid, and the treated malt is to be used in the production of fermented malt beverages or distilled spirits only, whereby the finished distilled spirits contain none and the finished malt beverage contains not more than 0.5 part per million of gibberellic acid.
</P>
<P>(c) To insure the safe use of the food additives the label of the package shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, “gibberellic acid” or “potassium gibberellate”, whichever is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) An accurate statement of the concentration of the additive contained in the package.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate use directions to provide not more than 2 parts per million of gibberellic acid in the finished malt.
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate labeling directions to provide that the final malt is properly labeled as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) To insure the safe use of the additive the label of the treated malt shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the statements:
</P>
<P>(1) “Contains not more than 2 parts per million ______”, the blank being filled in with the words “gibberellic acid” or “potassium gibberellate”, whichever is appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(2) “Brewer's malt—To be used in the production of fermented malt beverages only” or “Distiller's malt—To be used in the production of distilled spirits only”, whichever is appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.730" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.730   Potassium bromate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive potassium bromate may be safely used in the malting of barley under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) It is used or intended for use in the malting of barley under conditions whereby the amount of the additive present in the malt from the treatment does not exceed 75 parts per million of bromate (calculated as Br), and the treated malt is used only in the production of fermented malt beverages or distilled spirits.
</P>
<P>(2) The total residue of inorganic bromides in fermented malt beverages, resulting from the use of the treated malt plus additional residues of inorganic bromides that may be present from uses in accordance with other regulations in this chapter promulgated under sections 408 and/or 409 of the act, does not exceed 25 parts per million of bromide (calculated as Br). No tolerance is established for bromide in distilled spirits because there is evidence that inorganic bromides do not pass over in the distillation process.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive, the label or labeling of the food additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label or labeling of the treated malt shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Act, the statement, “Brewer's Malt—To be used in the production of fermented malt beverages only”, or “Distiller's Malt—To be used in the production of distilled spirits only”, whichever is the case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.735" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.735   Glycerol ester of rosin.</HEAD>
<P>Glycerol ester of wood rosin, gum rosin, or tall oil rosin may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It has an acid number of 3 to 9, a drop-softening point of 88 to 96 °C; and a color of N or paler as determined in accordance with Official Naval Stores Standards of the United States. It is purified by countercurrent steam distillation or steam stripping.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used to adjust the density of citrus oils used in the preparation of beverages whereby the amount of the additive does not exceed 100 parts per million of the finished beverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 15758, Mar. 29, 2005; 72 FR 46896, Aug. 22, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.736" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.736   Glycerides and polyglycides of hydrogenated vegetable oils.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive glycerides and polyglycides of hydrogenated vegetable oils may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is manufactured by heating a mixture of hydrogenated oils of vegetable origin and polyethylene glycol in the presence of an alkaline catalyst followed by neutralization with any acid that is approved or is generally recognized as safe for this use to yield the finished product.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive consists of a mixture of mono-, di- and tri-glycerides and polyethylene glycol mono- and di-esters of fatty acids (polyglycides) of hydrogenated vegetable oils and meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Total ester content, greater than 90 percent as determined by a method entitled “Determination of Esterified Glycerides and Polyoxyethylene Glycols,” approved November 16, 2001, printed by Gattefosse S.A.S., and incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200 or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Acid value, not greater than 2, and hydroxyl value, not greater than 56, as determined by the methods entitled “Acid Value,” p. 1220 and “Hydroxyl Value,” p. 1223, respectively, in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Lead, not greater than 0.1 mg/kg as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society (A.O.C.S.) method Ca 18c-91, “Determination of Lead by Direct Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry,” updated 1995, and incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from American Oil Chemists' Society, P. O. Box 3489, Champaign, IL 61826-3489, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) 1,4-Dioxane, not greater than 10 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg), and ethylene oxide, not greater than 1 mg/kg, as determined by a gas chromatographic method entitled “Determination of Ethylene Oxide and 1,4-Dioxane by Headspace Gas Chromatography,” approved November 5, 1998, printed by Gattefosse S.A.S., and incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51; see paragraph (b)(1) of this section for availability of the incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as an excipient in dietary supplement tablets, capsules, and liquid formulations that are intended for ingestion in daily quantities measured in drops or similar small units of measure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 12620, Mar. 13, 2006, as amended at 78 FR 71463, Nov. 29, 2013; 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.755" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.755   Stearyl monoglyceridyl citrate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive stearyl monoglyceridyl citrate may be safely used in food in accordance with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is prepared by controlled chemical reaction of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reactant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Citric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monoglycerides of fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prepared by the glycerolysis of edible fats and oils or derived from fatty acids conforming with § 172.860.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Derived from fatty acids conforming with § 172.860, or derived synthetically in conformity with § 172.864.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The additive stearyl monoglyceridyl citrate, produced as described under paragraph (a) of this section, meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number 40 to 52.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total citric acid 15 to 18 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification number 215-255.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as an emulsion stabilizer in or with shortenings containing emulsifiers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.765" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.765   Succistearin (stearoyl propylene glycol hydrogen succinate).</HEAD>
<P>The food additive succistearin (stearoyl propylene glycol hydrogen succinate) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the reaction product of succinic anhydride, fully hydrogenated vegetable oil (predominantly C<E T="52">16</E> or C<E T="52">18</E> fatty acid chain length), and propylene glycol.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number 50-150.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number 15-50.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Succinated ester content 45-75 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as an emulsifier in or with shortenings and edible oils intended for use in cakes, cake mixes, fillings, icings, pastries, and toppings, in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.770" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.770   Ethylene oxide polymer.</HEAD>
<P>The polymer of ethylene oxide may be safely used as a foam stabilizer in fermented malt beverages in accordance with the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) It is the polymer of ethylene oxide having a minimum viscosity of 1,500 centipoises in a 1 percent aqueous solution at 25 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used at a level not to exceed 300 parts per million by weight of the fermented malt beverage. 
</P>
<P>(c) The label of the additive bears directions for use to insure compliance with paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.775" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.775   Methacrylic acid-divinylbenzene copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Methacrylic acid-divinylbenzene copolymer may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced by the polymerization of methacrylic acid and divinylbenzene. The divinylbenzene functions as a cross-linking agent and constitutes a minimum of 4 percent of the polymer.
</P>
<P>(b) Aqueous extractives from the additive do not exceed 2 percent (dry basis) after 24 hours at 25 °C.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used as a carrier of vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> in foods for special dietary use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.780" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.780   Acacia (gum arabic).</HEAD>
<P>The food additive may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Acacia (gum arabic) is the dried gummy exudate from stems and branches of trees of various species of the genus <I>Acacia</I>, family Leguminosae.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 8th ed. (2012), p. 516, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address: <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food in accordance with good manufacturing practices under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beverages, alcoholic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thickener, emulsifier, or stabilizer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Breakfast cereals, § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dietary fiber; emulsifier and emulsifier salt; flavoring agent and adjuvant; formulation aid; processing aid; stabilizer and thickener; surface-finishing agent; texturizer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cakes, brownies, pastries, biscuits, muffins, and cookies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grain-based bars (e.g., breakfast bars, granola bars, rice cereal bars)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soups and soup mixes, § 170.3(n)(40) of this chapter, except for soups and soup mixes containing meat or poultry that are subject to regulation by the U.S. Department of Agriculture under the Federal Meat Inspection Act or the Poultry Products Inspection Act</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Food categories listed in § 184.1330 of this chapter, except for meat, poultry, and foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act preclude the use of acacia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Levels prescribed in § 184.1330 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dietary fiber.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 8034, Feb. 17, 2005, as amended at 78 FR 71464, Nov. 29, 2013; 78 FR 73437, Dec. 6, 2013; 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.785" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.8.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.785   <E T="7462">Listeria</E>-specific bacteriophage preparation.</HEAD>
<P>The additive may be safely used as an antimicrobial agent specific for <I>Listeria monocytogenes</I> (<I>L. monocytogenes</I>) in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The additive consists of a mixture of equal proportions of six different individually purified lytic-type (lacking lysogenic activity) bacteriophages (phages) specific against <I>L. monocytogenes.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Each phage is deposited at, and assigned an identifying code by, a scientifically-recognized culture collection center, and is made available to FDA upon request.
</P>
<P>(3) The additive is produced from one or more cell cultures of <I>L. monocytogenes</I> in a safe and suitable nutrient medium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The additive achieves a positive lytic result (OD<E T="52">600</E> ≤0.06) when tested against any of the following <I>L. monocytogenes</I> isolates available from American Type Culture Collection (ATCC): ATCC 35152 (serogroup 1/2a), ATCC 19118 (serogroup 4b), and ATCC 15313 (serogroup 1/2b). The analytical method for determining the potency of the additive entitled “Determination of Potency of LMP-102 
<SU>TM</SU>,” dated October 9, 2003, and printed by Intralytix, Inc., is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The mean phage titer of each monophage in the additive is 1 × 10
<SU>9</SU> plaque forming units (PFU)/ml. The analytical method for determining phage titer entitled “Method to Determine Lytic Activity/Phage Titer,” dated November 6, 2001, and printed by Intralytix, Inc., is incorporated by reference. Copies are available at locations cited in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The phages present in the preparation must not contain a functional portion of any of the toxin-encoding sequences described in 40 CFR 725.421(d). No sequences derived from genes encoding bacterial 16S ribosomal RNA are present in the complete genomic sequence of the phages.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>L. monocytogenes</I> toxin, listeriolysin O (LLO), is not greater than 5 hemolytic units (HU)/ml. The analytical method for determining LLO entitled “Quantitation of Listeriolysin O Levels in LMP-102 
<SU>TM</SU>,” dated September 27, 2004, and printed by Intralytix, Inc., is incorporated by reference. Copies are available at locations cited in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The additive is negative for <I>L. monocytogenes.</I> The modified version of the U.S. Department of Agriculture's method for determining <I>L. monocytogenes</I> entitled “LMP-102 
<SU>TM</SU> <I>Listeria monocytogenes</I> Sterility Testing,” dated May 24, 2004, and printed by Intralytix, Inc., is incorporated by reference. Copies are available at locations cited in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The additive is negative for gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria capable of growing in commonly used microbiological media (e.g., Luria-Bertani (LB) medium), including <I>Escherichia coli</I>, <I>Salmonella</I> species and coagulase-positive <I>Staphylococci</I>, as determined by the “Method to Determine Microbial Contamination,” dated July 11, 2003, and printed by Intralytix, Inc., is incorporated by reference. Copies are available at locations cited in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Total organic carbon (TOC) is less than or equal to 36 mg/kg. The analytical method for determining TOC entitled “Determination of Total Organic Carbon by Automated Analyzer,” dated March 30, 2001, and printed by Intralytix, Inc., is incorporated by reference. Copies are available at locations cited in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The additive is used in accordance with current good manufacturing practice to control <I>L. monocytogenes</I> by direct application to meat and poultry products that comply with the ready-to-eat definition in 9 CFR 430.1. Current good manufacturing practice is consistent with direct spray application of the additive at a rate of approximately 1 mL of the additive per 500 cm
<SU>2</SU> product surface area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 47731, Aug. 18, 2006, as amended at 81 FR v5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Multipurpose Additives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.800" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.800   Acesulfame potassium.</HEAD>
<P>Acesulfame potassium (CAS Reg. No. 55589-62-3), also known as acesulfame K, may be safely used as a general-purpose sweetener and flavor enhancer in foods generally, except in meat and poultry, in accordance with current good manufacturing practice and in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act do not preclude such use, under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Acesulfame potassium is the potassium salt of 6-methyl-1,2,3-oxathiazine-4(3<I>H</I>)-one-2,2-dioxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Purity is not less than 99 percent on a dry basis. The purity shall be determined by a method titled “Acesulfame Potassium Assay,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Fluoride content is not more than 30 milligrams per kilogram, as determined by method III of the Fluoride Limit Test of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), p. 1151, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) If the food containing the additive is represented to be for special dietary uses, it shall be labeled in compliance with part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 28382, July 28, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 57961, Dec. 8, 1992; 59 FR 61540, 61543, 61545, Dec. 1, 1994; 60 FR 21702, May 3, 1995; 63 FR 36362, July 6, 1998; 68 FR 75413, Dec. 31, 2003; 78 FR 71464, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.802" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.802   Acetone peroxides.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive acetone peroxides may be safely used in flour, and in bread and rolls where standards of identity do not preclude its use, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of monomeric and linear dimeric acetone peroxide, with minor proportions of higher polymers, manufactured by reaction of hydrogen peroxide and acetone.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive may be mixed with an edible carrier to give a concentration of: (1) 3 grams to 10 grams of hydrogen peroxide equivalent per 100 grams of the additive, plus carrier, for use in flour maturing and bleaching; or (2) approximately 0.75 gram of hydrogen peroxide equivalent per 100 grams of the additive, plus carrier, for use in dough conditioning.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use: (1) In maturing and bleaching of flour in a quantity not more than sufficient for such effect; and (2) as a dough-conditioning agent in bread and roll production at not to exceed the quantity of hydrogen peroxide equivalent necessary for the artificial maturing effect.
</P>
<P>(d) To insure safe use of the additive, the label of the food additive container and any intermediate premix thereof shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, “acetone peroxides”.
</P>
<P>(2) The concentration of the additive expressed in hydrogen peroxide equivalents per 100 grams.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate use directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.803" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.803   Advantame.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Advantame is the chemical <I>N</I>-[<I>N</I>-[3-(3-hydroxy-4-methoxyphenyl)propyl]-α-aspartyl]-L-phenylalanine 1-methyl ester, monohydrate (CAS Reg. No. 714229-20-6).
</P>
<P>(b) Advantame meets the following specifications when it is tested according to the methods described or referenced in the document entitled “Specifications and Analytical Methods for Advantame” dated April 1, 2009, by the Ajinomoto Co. Inc., Sweetener Department 15-1, Kyobashi 1-chome, Chuo-ku, Tokyo 104-8315, Japan. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200. Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Assay for advantame, not less than 97.0 percent and not more than 102.0 percent on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(2) Free <I>N</I>-[<I>N</I>-[3-(3-hydroxy-4-methoxyphenyl)propyl]-α-aspartyl]-L-phenylalanine, not more than 1.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Total other related substances, not more than 1.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Lead, not more than 1.0 milligram per kilogram.
</P>
<P>(5) Water, not more than 5.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Residue on ignition, not more than 0.2 percent.
</P>
<P>(7) Specific rotation, determined at20 °C [α]<E T="52">D</E>: −45.0 to −38.0° calculated on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive advantame may be safely used as a sweetening agent and flavor enhancer in foods generally, except in meat and poultry, in accordance with current good manufacturing practice, in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to achieve the intended technical effect, in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act do not preclude such use.
</P>
<P>(d) If the food containing the additive purports to be or is represented to be for special dietary use, it must be labeled in compliance with part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 29085, May 21, 2014, as amended at 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.804" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.804   Aspartame.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive aspartame may be safely used in food in accordance with good manufacturing practice as a sweetening agent and a flavor enhancer in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act do not preclude such use under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Aspartame is the chemical 1-methyl <I>N-</I><E T="04">l</E>-α-aspartyl-<E T="04">l</E>-phenylalanine (C<E T="52">14</E>H<E T="52">18</E>N<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">5</E>).
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 73-74, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c)(1) When aspartame is used as a sugar substitute tablet for sweetening hot beverages, including coffee and tea, L-leucine may be used as a lubricant in the manufacture of such tablets at a level not to exceed 3.5 percent of the weight of the tablet.
</P>
<P>(2) When aspartame is used in baked goods and baking mixes, the amount of the additive is not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of ready-to-bake products or of finished formulations prior to baking. Generally recognized as safe (GRAS) ingredients or food additives approved for use in baked goods shall be used in combination with aspartame to ensure its functionality as a sweetener in the final baked product. The level of aspartame used in these products is determined by an analytical method entitled “Analytical Method for the Determination of Aspartame and Diketopiperazine in Baked Goods and Baking Mixes,” October 8, 1992, which was developed by the Nutrasweet Co. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or are available for inspection at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The principal display panel of any intermediate mix of the additive for manufacturing purposes shall bear a statement of the concentration of the additive contained therein;
</P>
<P>(2) The label of any food containing the additive shall bear, either on the principal display panel or on the information panel, the following statement:
</P>
<FP>PHENYLKETONURICS: CONTAINS PHENYLALANINE
</FP>
<FP>The statement shall appear in the labeling prominently and conspicuously as compared to other words, statements, designs or devices and in bold type and on clear contrasting background in order to render it likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use.
</FP>
<P>(3) When the additive is used in a sugar substitute for table use, its label shall bear instructions not to use in cooking or baking.
</P>
<P>(4) Packages of the dry, free-flowing additive shall prominently display the sweetening equivalence in teaspoons of sugar.
</P>
<P>(e) If the food containing the additive purports to be or is represented for special dietary uses, it shall be labeled in compliance with part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 27319, July 26, 1974]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 172.804, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.806" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.806   Azodicarbonamide.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive azodicarbonamide may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is used or intended for use:
</P>
<P>(1) As an aging and bleaching ingredient in cereal flour in an amount not to exceed 2.05 grams per 100 pounds of flour (0.0045 percent; 45 parts per million).
</P>
<P>(2) As a dough conditioner in bread baking in a total amount not to exceed 0.0045 percent (45 parts per million) by weight of the flour used, including any quantity of azodicarbonamide added to flour in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive and any intermediate premix prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration or the strength of the additive in any intermediate premixes.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the food additive shall also bear adequate directions for use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.808" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.808   Copolymer condensates of ethylene oxide and propylene oxide.</HEAD>
<P>Copolymer condensates of ethylene oxide and propylene oxide may be safely used in food under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive consists of one of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) α-Hydro-<I>omega</I>-hydroxy-poly (oxyethylene) poly(oxypropylene)-(55-61 moles)poly(oxyethylene) block copolymer, having a molecular weight range of 9,760-13,200 and a cloud point above 100 °C in 1 percent aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(2) α-Hydro<I>-omega-</I>hydroxy-poly (oxyethylene)poly(oxypropylene)-(53-59 moles)poly(oxyethylene)(14-16 moles) block copolymer, having a molecular weight range of 3,500-4,125 and a cloud point of 9 °C-12 °C in 10 percent aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(3) α-Hydro-<I>omega</I>-hydroxy-poly(ox-yethylene)/poly(oxypropylene) (minimum 15 moles)/poly(oxyethylene) block copolymer, having a minimum average molecular weight of 1900 and a minimum cloud point of 9 °C-12 °C in 10 percent aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(4) α-Hydro-<I>omega</I>-hydroxy-poly(ox-yethylene) poly (oxypropylene)-(51-57 moles) poly(oxyethylene) block copolymer, having an average molecular weight of 14,000 and a cloud point above 100 °C in 1 percent aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is used in practice as a solubilizing and stabilizing agent in flavor concentrates (containing authorized flavoring oils) for use in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use, provided that the weight of the additive does not exceed the weight of the flavoring oils in the flavor concentrate.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used as a processing aid and wetting agent in combination with dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate for fumaric acid as prescribed in § 172.810.
</P>
<P>(3) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is used:
</P>
<P>(i) As a surfactant and defoaming agent, at levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight, in scald baths for poultry defeathering, followed by potable water rinse. The temperatures of the scald baths shall be not less than 125 °F.
</P>
<P>(ii) As a foam control and rinse adjuvant in hog dehairing machines at a use level of not more than 5 grams per hog.
</P>
<P>(4) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section is used as a dough conditioner in yeast-leavened bakery products for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use, provided that the amount of the additive dose not exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the flour used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 57476, Nov. 24, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.809" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.809   Curdlan.</HEAD>
<P>Curdlan may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Curdlan is a high molecular weight polymer of glucose (β-1,3-glucan; CAS Reg. No. 54724-00-4) produced by pure culture fermentation from the nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic bacterium <I>Alcaligenes faecalis</I> var. <I>myxogenes.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Curdlan meets the following specifications when it is tested according to the methods described or referenced in the document entitled “Analytical Methods for Specification Tests for Curdlan,” by Takeda Chemical Industries, Ltd., 12-10 Nihonbashi, 2-Chome, Chuo-ku, Tokyo, 103, Japan, 1996, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Positive for curdlan.
</P>
<P>(2) Assay for curdlan (calculated as anhydrous glucose), not less than 80 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) pH of 1 percent aqueous suspension, 6.0-7.5.
</P>
<P>(4) Lead, not more than 0.5 mg/kg.
</P>
<P>(5) Heavy metals (as Pb), not more than 0.002 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Total nitrogen, not more than 0.2 percent.
</P>
<P>(7) Loss on drying, not more than 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(8) Residue on ignition, not more than 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(9) Gel strength of 2 percent aqueous suspension, not less than 600 × 10
<SU>3</SU> dyne per square centimeter.
</P>
<P>(10) Aerobic plate count, not more than 10
<SU>3</SU> per gram.
</P>
<P>(11) Coliform bacteria, not more than 3 per gram.
</P>
<P>(c) Curdlan is used or intended for use in accordance with good manufacturing practice as a formulation aid, processing aid, stabilizer and thickener, and texturizer in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the act do not preclude such use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65941, Dec. 16, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.810" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.810   Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate, meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 313-314, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I>). The food additive, dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) As a wetting agent in the following fumaric acid-acidulated foods: Dry gelatin dessert, dry beverage base, and fruit juice drinks, when standards of identity do not preclude such use. The labeling of the dry gelatin dessert and dry beverage base shall bear adequate directions for use, and the additive shall be used in such an amount that the finished gelatin dessert will contain not in excess of 15 parts per million of the additive and the finished beverage or fruit juice drink will contain not in excess of 10 parts per million of the additive.
</P>
<P>(b) As a processing aid in sugar factories in the production of unrefined cane sugar, in an amount not in excess of 0.5 part per million of the additive per percentage point of sucrose in the juice, syrup, or massecuite being processed, and so used that the final molasses will contain no more than 25 parts per million of the additive.
</P>
<P>(c) As a solubilizing agent on gums and hydrophilic colloids to be used in food as stabilizing and thickening agents, when standards of identity do not preclude such use. The additive is used in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the gums or hydrophilic colloids.
</P>
<P>(d) As an emulsifying agent for cocoa fat in noncarbonated beverages containing cocoa, whereby the amount of the additive does not exceed 25 parts per million of the finished beverage.
</P>
<P>(e) As a dispersing agent in “cocoa with dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate for manufacturing” that conforms to the provisions of § 163.117 of this chapter and the use limitations prescribed in § 172.520, in an amount not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight thereof.
</P>
<P>(f) As a processing aid and wetting agent in combination with α-hydro-<I>omega -</I>hydroxy - poly(oxyethylene) - poly-(oxypropylene) (53-59 moles) poly(oxyethylene) (14-16 moles) block copolymer, having a molecular weight range of 3,500-4,125 and a cloud point of 9 °C-12 °C in 10 percent aqueous solution, for fumaric acid used in fumaric acid-acidulated dry beverage base and in fumaric acid-acidulated fruit juice drinks, when standards of identity do not preclude such use. The labeling of the dry beverage base shall bear adequate directions for use, and the additives shall be used in such an amount that the finished beverage or fruit juice drink will contain not in excess of a total of 10 parts per million of the dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate-block copolymer combination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 78 FR 71464, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.811" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.811   Glyceryl tristearate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive glyceryl tristearate may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive (CAS Reg. No. 555-43-1) is prepared by reacting stearic acid with glycerol in the presence of a suitable catalyst.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number: Not to exceed 1.0.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine number: Not to exceed 1.0.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification number: 186-192.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number: Not to exceed 5.0.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Free glycerol content: Not to exceed 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unsaponifiable matter: Not to exceed 0.5 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melting point (Class II): 69 °C-73 °C.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as follows when standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uses
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. As a crystallization accelerator in cocoa products, in imitation chocolate, and in compound coatings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 1 percent of the combined weight of the formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. As a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter, lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter, and surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter in food</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. As a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter in confections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 3.0 percent of the combined weight of the formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. As a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter in fats and oils as defined in § 170.3 (n)(12) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 1.0 percent of the combined weight of the formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. As a winterization and fractionation aid in fat and oil processing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the processed fat or oil.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) In addition to the other information required by the act, the label or labeling of the additive shall bear the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the additive shall bear adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 21632, June 9, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 24924, May 13, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.812" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.812   Glycine.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive glycine may be safely used for technological purposes in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 457-458, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uses
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a masking agent for the bitter aftertaste of saccharin used in manufactured beverages and beverage bases</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent in the finished beverage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a stabilizer in mono- and diglycerides prepared by the glycerolysis of edible fats or oils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.02 percent of the mono- and diglycerides.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling of the additive shall bear adequate directions for use of the additive in compliance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling of beverage bases containing the additive shall bear adequate directions for use to provide that beverages prepared therefrom shall contain no more than 0.2 percent glycine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 78 FR 71464, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17720, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.814" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.814   Hydroxylated lecithin.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive hydroxylated lecithin may be safely used as an emulsifier in foods in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is obtained by the treatment of lecithin in one of the following ways, under controlled conditions whereby the separated fatty acid fraction of the resultant product has an acetyl value of 30 to 38:
</P>
<P>(1) With hydrogen peroxide, benzoyl peroxide, lactic acid, and sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(2) With hydrogen peroxide, acetic acid, and sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use, in accordance with good manufacturing practice, as an emulsifier in foods, except for those standardized foods that do not provide for such use.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, “hydroxylated lecithin”.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for its use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.816" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.816   Methyl glucoside-coconut oil ester.</HEAD>
<P>Methyl glucoside-coconut oil ester may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is the methyl glucoside-coconut oil ester having the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number: 10-20
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number: 200-300
</FP-1>
<FP-1>pH (5% aqueous): 4.8-5.0
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification number: 178-190</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As an aid in crystallization of sucrose and dextrose at a level not to exceed the minimum quantity required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(2) As a surfactant in molasses at a level not to exceed 320 parts per million in the molasses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.818" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.818   Oxystearin.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive oxystearin may be safely used in foods, when such use is not precluded by standards of identity in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of the glycerides of partially oxidized stearic and other fatty acids obtained by heating hydrogenated cottonseed or soybean oil under controlled conditions, in the presence of air and a suitable catalyst which is not a food additive as so defined. The resultant product meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number: Maximum 15.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine number: Maximum 15.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification number: 225-240.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number: 30-45.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unsaponifiable material: Maximum 0.8 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Refractive index (butyro): 60±1 at 48 °C.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as a crystallization inhibitor in vegetable oils and as a release agent in vegetable oils and vegetable shortenings, whereby the additive does not exceed 0.125 percent of the combined weight of the oil or shortening.
</P>
<P>(c) To insure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions to provide an oil or shortening that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.820" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.820   Polyethylene glycol (mean molecular weight 200-9,500).</HEAD>
<P>Polyethylene glycol identified in this section may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) The additive is an addition polymer of ethylene oxide and water with a mean molecular weight of 200 to 9,500.
</P>
<P>(2) It contains no more than 0.2 percent total by weight of ethylene and diethylene glycols when tested by the analytical methods prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Analytical method.</I> (1) The analytical method prescribed in the National Formulary XV (1980), page 1244, for polyethylene glycol 400 shall be used to determine the total ethylene and diethylene glycol content of polyethylene glycols having mean molecular weights of 450 or higher.
</P>
<P>(2) The following analytical method shall be used to determine the total ethylene and diethylene glycol content of polyethylene glycols having mean molecular weights below 450.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Analytical Method
</HD1>
<HD1>ethylene glycol and diethylene glycol content of polyethylene glycols
</HD1>
<P>The analytical method for determining ethylene glycol and diethylene glycol is as follows:
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<P>Gas chromatograph with hydrogen flame ionization detector (Varian Aerograph 600 D or equivalent). The following conditions shall be employed with the Varian Aerograph 600 D gas chromatograph:
</P>
<P>Column temperature: 165 °C.
</P>
<P>Inlet temperature: 260 °C.
</P>
<P>Carrier gas (nitrogen) flow rate: 70 milliliters per minute.
</P>
<P>Hydrogen and air flow to burner: Optimize to give maximum sensitivity.
</P>
<P>Sample size: 2 microliters.
</P>
<P>Elution time: Ethylene glycol: 2.0 minutes. Diethylene glycol: 6.5 minutes.
</P>
<P>Recorder: −0.5 to + 1.05 millivolt, full span, 1 second full response time.
</P>
<P>Syringe: 10-microliter (Hamilton 710 N or equivalent).
</P>
<P>Chromatograph column: 5 feet × 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch. I.D. stainless steel tube packed with sorbitol (Mathieson-Coleman-Bell 2768 Sorbitol SX850, or equivalent) 12 percent in H<E T="52">2</E>O by weight on 60-80 mesh nonacid washed diatomaceous earth (Chromosorb W. Johns-Manville, or equivalent).
</P>
<HD1>reagents and materials
</HD1>
<P>Carrier gas, nitrogen: Commercial grade in cylinder equipped with reducing regulator to provide 50 p.s.i.g. to the gas chromatograph.
</P>
<P>Ethylene glycol: Commercial grade. Purify if necessary, by distillation.
</P>
<P>Diethylene glycol: Commercial grade. Purify, if necessary, by distillation.
</P>
<P>Glycol standards: Prepare chromatographic standards by dissolving known amounts of ethylene glycol and diethylene glycol in water. Suitable concentrations for standardization range from 1 to 6 milligrams of each component per milliliter (for example 10 milligrams diluted to volume in a 10-milliliter volumetric flask is equivalent to 1 milligram per milliliter).
</P>
<HD1>standardization
</HD1>
<P>Inject a 2-microliter aliquot of the glycol standard into the gas chromatograph employing the conditions described above. Measure the net peak heights for the ethylene glycol and for the diethylene glycol. Record the values as follows:
</P>
<P><I>A</I> = Peak height in millimeters of the ethylene glycol peak.
</P>
<P><I>B</I> = milligrams of ethylene glycol per milliliter of standard solution.
</P>
<P><I>C</I> = Peak height in millimeters of the diethylene glycol peak.
</P>
<P><I>D</I> = Milligrams of diethylene glycol per milliliter of standard solution.
</P>
<HD1>procedure
</HD1>
<P>Weigh approximately 4 grams of polyethylene glycol sample accurately into a 10-milliliter volumetric flask. Dilute to volume with water. Mix the solution thoroughly and inject a 2-microliter aliquot into the gas chromatograph. Measure the heights, in millimeters, of the ethylene glycol peak and of the diethylene glycol peak and record as E and F, respectively.
</P>
<FP-2>Percent ethylene glycol = (<I>E</I> × <I>B</I>) / (<I>A</I> × sample weight in grams)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Percent diethylene glycol = (<I>F</I> × <I>D</I>) / (<I>C</I> × sample weight in grams)</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses.</I> It may be used, except in milk or preparations intended for addition to milk, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As a coating, binder, plasticizing agent, and/or lubricant in tablets used for food.
</P>
<P>(2) As an adjuvant to improve flavor and as a bodying agent in nonnutritive sweeteners identified in § 180.37 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) As an adjuvant in dispersing vitamin and/or mineral preparations.
</P>
<P>(4) As a coating on sodium nitrite to inhibit hygroscopic properties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> (1) It is used in an amount not greater than that required to produce the intended physical or technical effect.
</P>
<P>(2) A tolerance of zero is established for residues of polyethylene glycol in milk.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.822" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.822   Sodium lauryl sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sodium lauryl sulfate may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) It is a mixture of sodium alkyl sulfates consisting chiefly of sodium lauryl sulfate [CH<E T="52">2</E>(CH<E T="52">2</E>)<E T="52">10</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>OSO<E T="52">2</E>Na].
</P>
<P>(2) It has a minimum content of 90 percent sodium alkyl sulfates.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use:
</P>
<P>(1) As an emulsifier in or with egg whites whereby the additive does not exceed the following limits:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Egg white solids, 1,000 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Frozen egg whites, 125 parts per million.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Liquid egg whites, 125 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) As a whipping agent at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of gelatine used in the preparation of marshmallows.
</P>
<P>(3) As a surfactant in:
</P>
<P>(i) Fumaric acid-acidulated dry beverage base whereby the additive does not exceed 25 parts per million of the finished beverage and such beverage base is not for use in a food for which a standard of identity established under section 401 of the Act precludes such use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fumaric acid-acidulated fruit juice drinks whereby the additive does not exceed 25 parts per million of the finished fruit juice drink and it is not used in a fruit juice drink for which a standard of identity established under section 401 of the Act precludes such use.
</P>
<P>(4) As a wetting agent at a level not to exceed 10 parts per million in the partition of high and low melting fractions of crude vegetable oils and animal fats, provided that the partition step is followed by a conventional refining process that includes alkali neutralization and deodorization of the fats and oils.
</P>
<P>(c) To insure the safe use of the additive, the label of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, sodium lauryl sulfate.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate use directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 18668, May 2, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.824" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.824   Sodium mono- and dimethyl naphthalene sulfonates.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sodium mono- and dimethyl naphthalene sulfonates may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive has a molecular weight range of 245-260.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use:
</P>
<P>(1) In the crystallization of sodium carbonate in an amount not to exceed 250 parts per million of the sodium carbonate. Such sodium carbonate is used or intended for use in potable water systems to reduce hardness and aid in sedimentation and coagulation by raising the pH for the efficient utilization of other coagulation materials.
</P>
<P>(2) As an anticaking agent in sodium nitrite at a level not in excess of 0.1 percent by weight thereof for authorized uses in cured fish and meat.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the general labeling requirements of the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Sodium carbonate produced in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be labeled to show the presence of the additive and its label or labeling shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<P>(2) Sodium nitrite produced in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall bear the labeling required by § 172.175 and a statement declaring the presence of sodium mono- and dimethyl naphthalene sulfonates. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 63 FR 7069, Feb. 12, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.826" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.826   Sodium stearyl fumarate.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium stearyl fumarate may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It contains not less than 99 percent sodium stearyl fumarate calculated on the anhydrous basis, and not more than 0.25 percent sodium stearyl maleate.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use:
</P>
<P>(1) As a dough conditioner in yeast-leavened bakery products in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the flour used.
</P>
<P>(2) As a conditioning agent in dehydrated potatoes in an amount not to exceed 1 percent by weight thereof.
</P>
<P>(3) As a stabilizing agent in nonyeast-leavened bakery products in an amount not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the flour used.
</P>
<P>(4) As a conditioning agent in processed cereals for cooking in an amount not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the dry cereal, except for foods for which standards of identity preclude such use.
</P>
<P>(5) As a conditioning agent in starch-thickened or flour-thickened foods in an amount not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.828" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.828   Acetylated monoglycerides.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive acetylated monoglycerides may be safely used in or on food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is manufactured by:
</P>
<P>(1) The interesterification of edible fats with triacetin and in the presence of catalytic agents that are not food additives or are authorized by regulation, followed by a molecular distillation or by steam stripping; or
</P>
<P>(2) The direct acetylation of edible monoglycerides with acetic anhydride without the use of catalyst or molecular distillation, and with the removal by vacuum distillation, if necessary, of the acetic acid, acetic anhydride, and triacetin.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive has a Reichert-Meissl value of 75-200 and an acid value of less than 6.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive is used at a level not in excess of the amount reasonably required to produce its intended effect in food, or in food-processing, food-packing, or food-storage equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 3508, Jan. 25, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.829" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.829   Neotame.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Neotame is the chemical <I>N</I>-[<I>N</I>-(3,3-dimethylbutyl)-L-α-aspartyl]-L-phenylalanine-1-methyl ester (CAS Reg. No. 165450-17-9).
</P>
<P>(b) Neotame meets the following specifications when it is tested according to the methods described or referenced in the document entitled “Specifications and Analytical Methods for Neotame” dated April 3, 2001, by the NutraSweet Co., 699 North Wheeling Rd., Mount Prospect, IL 60056. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register has approved the incorporation by reference of this material in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200. Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Assay for neotame, not less than 97.0 percent and not more than 102.0 percent on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(2) Free dipeptide acid (<I>N</I>-[<I>N</I>-(3,3-dimethylbutyl)-L-α-aspartyl]-L-phenylalanine), not more than 1.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Other related substances, not more than 2.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Lead, not more than 2.0 milligrams per kilogram.
</P>
<P>(5) Water, not more than 5.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Residue on ignition, not more than 0.2 percent
</P>
<P>(7) Specific rotation, determined at 20 °C [α]<E T="52">D</E>: −40.0° to 43.4° calculated on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive neotame may be safely used as a sweetening agent and flavor enhancer in foods generally, except in meat and poultry, in accordance with current good manufacturing practice, in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect, in foods for which standards of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act do not preclude such use.
</P>
<P>(d) When neotame is used as a sugar substitute tablet, L-leucine may be used as a lubricant in the manufacture of tablets at a level not to exceed 3.5 percent of the weight of the tablet.
</P>
<P>(e) If the food containing the additive purports to be or is represented to be for special dietary use, it shall be labeled in compliance with part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 45310, July 9, 2002, as amended at 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.830" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.830   Succinylated monoglycerides.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive succinylated monoglycerides may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of semi-and neutral succinic acid esters of mono- and diglycerides produced by the succinylation of a product obtained by the glycerolysis of edible fats and oils, or by the direct esterification of glycerol with edible fat-forming fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Succinic acid content: 14.8%-25.6%
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melting point: 50 °C-60 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid number: 70-120</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use in the following foods:
</P>
<P>(1) As an emulsifier in liquid and plastic shortenings at a level not to exceed 3 percent by weight of the shortening.
</P>
<P>(2) As a dough conditioner in bread baking, when such use is permitted by an appropriate food standard, at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the flour used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.831" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.831   Sucralose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sucralose is the chemical 1,6-dichloro-1,6-dideoxy-β-D-fructofuranosyl-4-chloro-4-deoxy-α-D-galactopyranoside (CAS Reg. No. 56038-13-2).
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 993-995, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The additive may be used as a sweetener in foods generally, in accordance with current good manufacturing practice in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(d) If the food containing the additive purports to be or is represented to be for special dietary use, it shall be labeled in compliance with part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 16433, Apr. 3, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 43909, Aug. 12, 1999; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 78 FR 71464, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.832" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.832   Monoglyceride citrate.</HEAD>
<P>A food additive that is a mixture of glyceryl monooleate and its citric acid monoester manufactured by the reaction of glyceryl monooleate with citric acid under controlled conditions may be safely used as a synergist and solubilizer for antioxidants in oils and fats, when used in accordance with the conditions prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number, 70-100.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total citric acid (free and combined), 14 percent-17 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is used, or intended for use, in antioxidant formulations for addition to oils and fats whereby the additive does not exceed 200 parts per million of the combined weight of the oil or fat and the additive.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive: 
</P>
<P>(1) The container label shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or accompanying labeling shall bear adequate directions for the use of the additive which, if followed, will result in a food that complies with the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.833" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.833   Sucrose acetate isobutyrate (SAIB).</HEAD>
<P>Sucrose acetate isobutyrate may be safely used in foods in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Sucrose acetate isobutyrate (CAS Reg. No. 27216-37-1), or SAIB, is the chemical <I>alpha</I>-D-glucopyranoside, O-acetyl-tris-O-(2-methyl-1-oxopropyl)-<I>beta</I>-D-fructofuranosyl, acetate tris(2-methyl propanoate).
</P>
<P>(b) SAIB, a pale, straw-colored liquid, meets the following specifications: (1) Assay: Not less than 98.8 percent and not more than 101.9 percent, based on the following formula:
</P>
<FP>Assay = ((SV 0.10586) ÷ 56.1) × 100
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where SV = Saponification value</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Saponification value: 524-540 determined using 1 gram of sample by the “Guide to Specifications for General Notices, General Analytical Techniques, Identification Tests, Test Solutions, and Other Reference Materials,” in the “Compendium of Food Additive Specifications, Addendum 4, Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), Food and Nutrition Paper 5, Revision 2” (1991), pp. 203 and 204, which is incorporated by reference, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) Acid value: Not to exceed 0.20 determined using 50 grams of sample by the “Guide to Specifications for General Notices, General Analytical Techniques, Identification Tests, Test Solutions, and Other Reference Materials,” in the “Compendium of Food Additive Specifications, Addendum 4, FAO Food and Nutrition Paper 5, Revision 2,” p. 189 (1991), which is incorporated by reference; see paragraph (b)(2) of this section for availability of the incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P>(4) Lead: Not to exceed 1.0 milligrams/kilogram determined by the “Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometric Graphite Furnace Method, Method I,” in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 763 and 764, with an attached modification to the sample digestion section in Appendix III.B (July 1996), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Box 285, Washington, DC 20055 (Internet <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(5) Triacetin: Not to exceed 0.10 percent determined by gas chromatography as described in the “Guide to Specifications for General Notices, General Analytical Techniques, Identification Tests, Test Solutions, and Other Reference Materials,” in the “Compendium of Food Additive Specifications, Addendum 4, FAO Food and Nutrition Paper 5, Revision 2,” (1991), pp. 13-26, which is incorporated by reference; see paragraph (b)(2) of this section for availability of the incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive is used as a stabilizer (as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter) of emulsions of flavoring oils in nonalcoholic beverages.
</P>
<P>(d) The total SAIB content of a beverage containing the additive does not exceed 300 milligrams/kilogram of the finished beverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 29958, June 4, 1999; 64 FR 43072, Aug. 9, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.834" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.834   Ethoxylated mono- and diglycerides.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive ethoxylated mono-and diglycerides (polyoxyethylene (20) mono- and diglycerides of fatty acids) (polyglycerate 60) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by:
</P>
<P>(1) Glycerolysis of edible fats primarily composed of stearic, palmitic, and myristic acids; or
</P>
<P>(2) Direct esterification of glycerol with a mixture of primarily stearic, palmitic, and myristic acids;
</P>
<FP>to yield a product with less than 0.3 acid number and less than 0.2 percent water, which is then reacted with ethylene oxide.
</FP>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Saponification number, 65-75.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid number, 0-2.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number, 65-80.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxyethylene content, 60.5-65.0 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use in the following foods when standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. As an emulsifier in pan-release agents for and as a dough conditioner in yeast-leavened bakery products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed levels required to produce the intended effects, total not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the flour used.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. As an emulsifier in cakes and cake mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the dry ingredients.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. As an emulsifier in whipped vegetable oil toppings and topping mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.45 percent by weight of the finished whipped vegetable oil toppings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. As an emulsifier in icings and icing mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished icings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. As an emulsifier in frozen desserts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the finished frozen desserts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. As an emulsifier in edible vegetable fat-water emulsions intended for use as substitutes for milk or cream in beverage coffee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the finished vegetable fat-water emulsions.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) When the name “polyglycerate 60” is used in labeling it shall be followed by either “polyoxyethylene (20) mono-and diglycerides of fatty acids” or “ethoxylated mono- and diglycerides” in parentheses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 37973, July 26, 1977; 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.836" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.836   Polysorbate 60.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polysorbate 60 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monostearate) which is a mixture of polyoxyethylene ethers of mixed partial stearic and palmitic acid esters of sorbitol anhydrides and related compounds, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by reacting stearic acid (usually containing associated fatty acids, chiefly palmitic) with sorbitol to yield a product with a maximum acid number of 10 and a maximum water content of 0.2 percent, which is then reacted with ethylene oxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Saponification number 45-55.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid number 0-2.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number 81-96.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxyethylene content 65 percent-69.5 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As an emulsifier in whipped edible oil topping with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Sorbitan monostearate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 65;
</P>
<P>(iii) Polysorbate 80;
</P>
<FP>whereby the maximum amount of the additive or additives used does not exceed 0.4 percent of the weight of the finished whipped edible oil topping; except that a combination of the additive with sorbitan monostearate may be used in excess of 0.4 percent, provided that the amount of the additive does not exceed 0.77 percent and the amount of sorbitan monostearate does not exceed 0.27 percent of the weight of the finished whipped edible oil topping.
</FP>
<P>(2) As an emulsifier in cakes and cake mixes, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Polysorbate 65.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sorbitan monostearate.
</P>
<FP>When used alone, the maximum amount of polysorbate 60 shall not exceed 0.46 percent of the cake or cake mix, on a dry-weight basis. When used with polysorbate 65 and/or sorbitan monostearate, it shall not exceed 0.46 percent, nor shall the polysorbate 65 exceed 0.32 percent or the sorbitan monostearate exceed 0.61 percent, and no combination of these emulsifiers shall exceed 0.66 percent of the cake or cake mix, all calculated on a dry-weight basis.
</FP>
<P>(3) As an emulsifier, alone or in combination with sorbitan monostearate, in nonstandardized confectionery coatings and standardized cacao products specified in §§ 163.123, 163.130, 163.135, 163.140, 163.145, and 163.150 of this chapter, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) It is used alone in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent of the weight of the finished nonstandardized confectionery coating or standardized cacao product.
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used with sorbitan monostearate in any combination of up to 0.5 percent of polysorbate 60 and up to 1 percent of sorbitan monostearate: <I>Provided,</I> That the total combination does not exceed 1 percent of the weight of the finished nonstandardized confectionery coating or standardized cacao product.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) As an emulsifier in cake icings and cake fillings, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Polysorbate 65.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sorbitan monostearate.
</P>
<FP>When used alone, the maximum amount of polysorbate 60 shall not exceed 0.46 percent of the weight of the cake icings and cake fillings. When used with polysorbate 65 and/or sorbitan monostearate, it shall not exceed 0.46 percent, nor shall the polysorbate 65 exceed 0.32 percent or the sorbitan monostearate exceed 0.7 percent, and no combination of these emulsifiers shall exceed 1 percent of the weight of the cake icing or cake filling.
</FP>
<P>(6) To impart greater opacity to sugar-type confection coatings whereby the maximum amount of the additive does not exceed 0.2 percent of the weight of the finished sugar coating.
</P>
<P>(7) As an emulsifier in nonstandardized dressings whereby the maximum amount of the additive does not exceed 0.3 percent of the weight of the finished dressings.
</P>
<P>(8) As an emulsifier, alone or in combination with polysorbate 80, in shortenings and edible oils intended for use in foods as follows, when standards of identity established under section 401 of the act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<P>(i) It is used alone in an amount not to exceed 1 percent of the weight of the finished shortening or oil.
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used with polysorbate 80 in any combination providing no more than 1 percent of polysorbate 60 and no more than 1 percent of polysorbate 80, provided that the total combination does not exceed 1 percent of the finished shortening or oil.
</P>
<P>(iii) The 1-percent limitation specified in paragraph (c)(8)(i) and (ii) of this section may be exceeded in premix concentrates of shortening or edible oil if the labeling complies with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) As an emulsifier in solid-state, edible vegetable fat-water emulsions intended for use as substitutes for milk or cream in beverage coffee, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Polysorbate 65.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sorbitan monostearate.
</P>
<FP>The maximum amount of the additive or additives shall not exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the finished edible vegetable fat-water emulsion.
</FP>
<P>(10) As a foaming agent in nonalcoholic mixes, to be added to alcoholic beverages in the preparation of mixed alcoholic drinks, at a level not to exceed 4.5 percent by weight of the nonalcoholic mix.
</P>
<P>(11) As a dough conditioner in yeast-leavened bakery products in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the flour used. 
</P>
<P>(12) As an emulsifier, alone or in combination with sorbitan monostearate, in the minimum quantity required to accomplish the intended effect, in formulations of white mineral oil conforming with § 172.878 and/or petroleum wax conforming with § 172.886 for use as protective coatings on raw fruits and vegetables.
</P>
<P>(13) As a dispersing agent in artificially sweetened gelatin desserts and in artificially sweetened gelatin dessert mixes, whereby the amount of the additive does not exceed 0.5 percent on a dry-weight basis.
</P>
<P>(14) As an emulsifier in chocolate flavored syrups, whereby the maximum amount of the additive does not exceed 0.05 percent in the finished product.
</P>
<P>(15) As a surfactant and wetting agent for natural and artificial colors in food as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In powdered soft drink mixes in an amount not to exceed 4.5 percent by weight of the mix.
</P>
<P>(ii) In sugar-based gelatin dessert mixes in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the mix.
</P>
<P>(iii) In artificially sweetened gelatin dessert mixes in an amount not to exceed 3.6 percent by weight of the mix.
</P>
<P>(iv) In sugar-based pudding mixes in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the mix.
</P>
<P>(v) In artificially sweetened pudding mixes in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the mix.
</P>
<P>(16) As an emulsifier in ice cream, frozen custard, fruit sherbet, and nonstandardized frozen desserts when used alone or in combination with polysorbate 65 and/or polysorbate 80, whereby the maximum amount of the additives, alone or in combination, does not exceed 0.1 percent of the finished frozen dessert.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive and any intermediate premixes shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration or strength of the additive in any intermediate premixes.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling shall bear adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 2871, Jan. 25, 1978; 45 FR 58836, Sept. 5, 1980; 46 FR 8466, Jan. 27, 1981; 64 FR 57976, Oct. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.838" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.838   Polysorbate 65.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polysorbate 65 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan tristearate), which is a mixture of polyoxyethylene ethers of mixed stearic acid esters of sorbitol anhydrides and related compounds, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by reacting stearic acid (usually containing associated fatty acids, chiefly palmitic) with sorbitol to yield a product with a maximum acid number of 15 and a maximum water content of 0.2 percent, which is then reacted with ethylene oxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Saponification number 88-98.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid number 0-2.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number 44-60.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxyethylene content 46 percent-50 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used, or intended for use, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As an emulsifier in ice cream, frozen custard, ice milk, fruit sherbet and nonstandardized frozen desserts when used alone or in combination with polysorbate 80, whereby the maximum amount of the additives, alone or in combination, does not exceed 0.1 percent of the finished frozen dessert.
</P>
<P>(2) As an emulsifier in cakes and cake mixes, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Sorbitan monostearate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 60.
</P>
<FP>When used alone, the maximum amount of polysorbate 65 shall not exceed 0.32 percent of the cake or cake mix, on a dry-weight basis. When used with sorbitan monostearate and/or polysorbate 60, it shall not exceed 0.32 percent, nor shall the sorbitan monostearate exceed 0.61 percent or the polysorbate 60 exceed 0.46 percent, and no combination of these emulsifiers shall exceed 0.66 percent of the cake or cake mix, all calculated on a dry-weight basis.
</FP>
<P>(3) As an emulsifier in whipped edible oil topping with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Sorbitan monostearate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 60;
</P>
<P>(iii) Polysorbate 80;
</P>
<FP>whereby the maximum amount of the additive or additives used does not exceed 0.4 percent of the weight of the finished whipped edible oil topping. 
</FP>
<P>(4) As an emulsifier in solid-state, edible vegetable fat-water emulsions intended for use as substitutes for milk or cream in beverage coffee, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Sorbitan monostearate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 60.
</P>
<FP>The maximum amount of the additive or additives shall not exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the finished edible vegetable fat-water emulsion.
</FP>
<P>(5) As an emulsifier in cake icings and cake fillings, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Sorbitan monostearate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 60.
</P>
<FP>When used alone, the maximum amount of polysorbate 65 shall not exceed 0.32 percent of the weight of the cake icing or cake filling. When used with sorbitan monostearate and/or polysorbate 60, it shall not exceed 0.32 percent, nor shall the sorbitan monostearate exceed 0.7 percent or the polysorbate 60 exceed 0.46 percent, and no combination of these emulsifiers shall exceed 1 percent of the weight of the cake icing or cake filling.
</FP>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive and any intermediate premixes shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration or strength of the additive in any intermediate premixes.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling shall bear adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 2871, Jan. 20, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.840" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.840   Polysorbate 80.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polysorbate 80 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monooleate), which is a mixture of polyoxyethylene ethers of mixed partial oleic acid esters of sorbitol anhydrides and related compounds, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by reacting oleic acid (usually containing associated fatty acids) with sorbitol to yield a product with a maximum acid number of 7.5 and a maximum water content of 0.5 percent, which is then reacted with ethylene oxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Saponification number 45-55.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid number 0-2.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number 65-80.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxyethylene content 65 percent-69.5 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An emulsifier in ice cream, frozen custard, ice milk, fruit sherbet, and nonstandardized frozen desserts, when used alone or in combination with polysorbate 65 whereby the maximum amount of the additives, alone or in combination, does not exceed 0.1 percent of the finished frozen dessert.
</P>
<P>(2) In yeast-defoamer formulations whereby the maximum amount of the additive does not exceed 4 percent of the finished yeast defoamer and the maximum amount of the additive in the yeast from such use does not exceed 4 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(3) As a solubilizing and dispersing agent in pickles and pickle products, whereby the maximum amount of the additive does not exceed 500 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(4) As a solubilizing and dispersing agent in:
</P>
<P>(i) Vitamin-mineral preparations containing calcium caseinate in the absence of fat-soluble vitamins, whereby the maximum intake of polysorbate 80 shall not exceed 175 milligrams from the recommended daily dose of the preparations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fat-soluble vitamins in vitamin and vitamin-mineral preparations containing no calcium caseinate, whereby the maximum intake of polysorbate 80 shall not exceed 300 milligrams from the recommended daily dose of the preparations.
</P>
<P>(iii) In vitamin-mineral preparations containing both calcium caseinate and fat-soluble vitamins, whereby the maximum intake of polysorbate 80 shall not exceed 475 milligrams from the recommended daily dose of the preparations.
</P>
<P>(5) As a surfactant in the production of coarse crystal sodium chloride whereby the maximum amount of the additive in the finished sodium chloride does not exceed 10 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(6) In special dietary foods, as an emulsifier for edible fats and oils, with directions for use which provide for the ingestion of not more than 360 milligrams of polysorbate 80 per day.
</P>
<P>(7) As a solubilizing and dispersing agent for dill oil in canned spiced green beans, not to exceed 30 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(8) As an emulsifier, alone or in combination with polysorbate 60, in shortenings and edible oils intended for use in foods as follows, when standards of identity established under section 401 of the act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<P>(i) It is used alone in an amount not to exceed 1 percent of the weight of the finished shortening or oil.
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used with polysorbate 60 in any combination providing no more than 1 percent of polysorbate 80 and no more than 1 percent of polysorbate 60, provided that the total combination does not exceed 1 percent of the finished shortening or oil.
</P>
<P>(iii) The 1-percent limitation specified in paragraph (c)(8)(i) and (ii) of this section may be exceeded in premix concentrates of shortening or edible oil if the labeling complies with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) As an emulsifier in whipped edible oil topping with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Sorbitan monostearate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 60;
</P>
<P>(iii) Polysorbate 65;
</P>
<FP>whereby the maximum amount of the additive or additives used does not exceed 0.4 percent of the weight of the finished whipped edible oil topping.
</FP>
<P>(10) It is used as a wetting agent in scald water for poultry defeathering, followed by potable water rinse. The concentration of the additive in the scald water does not exceed 0.0175 percent.
</P>
<P>(11) As a dispersing agent in gelatin desserts and in gelatin dessert mixes, whereby the amount of the additive does not exceed 0.082 percent on a dry-weight basis.
</P>
<P>(12) As an adjuvant added to herbicide use and plant-growth regulator use dilutions by a grower or applicator prior to application of such dilutions to the growing crop. Residues resulting from such use are exempt from the requirement of a tolerance. When so used or intended for use, the additive shall be exempt from the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) As a defoaming agent in the preparation of the creaming mixture for cottage cheese as identified in § 133.128 of this chapter, whereby the amount of the additive does not exceed .008 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(14) As a surfactant and wetting agent for natural and artificial colors for use in barbecue sauce where the level of the additive does not exceed 0.005 percent by weight of the barbecue sauce.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive and any intermediate premixes shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration or strength of the additive in any intermediate premixes.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling shall bear adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 2871, Jan. 20, 1978; 45 FR 58835, Sept. 5, 1980; 46 FR 8466, Jan. 27, 1981; 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.841" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.841   Polydextrose.</HEAD>
<P>Polydextrose as identified in this section may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Polydextrose (CAS Reg. No. 68424-04-4) is a partially metabolizable water-soluble polymer prepared by the condensation of a melt which consists either of approximately 89 percent D-glucose, 10 percent sorbitol, and 1 percent citric acid or of approximately 90 percent D-glucose, 10 percent sorbitol, and 0.1 percent phosphoric acid, on a weight basis.
</P>
<P>(2) Polydextrose may be partially neutralized with potassium hydroxide, or partially reduced by transition metal catalytic hydrogenation in aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 811-814, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) When standards of identity established under section 401 of the act do not preclude such use, polydextrose may be used in accordance with current good manufacturing practices as a bulking agent, formulation aid, humectant, and texturizer in all foods, except meat and poultry, baby food, and infant formula.
</P>
<P>(d) If the food containing the additive purports to be or is represented for special dietary uses, it shall be labeled in compliance with part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The label and labeling of food a single serving of which would be expected to exceed 15 grams of the additive shall bear the statement: “Sensitive individuals may experience a laxative effect from excessive consumption of this product”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 30081, June 5, 1981, as amended at 59 FR 37421, July 22, 1994; 60 FR 54425, Oct. 24, 1995; 61 FR 14480, Apr. 2, 1996; 62 FR 30985, June 6, 1997; 63 FR 57597, Oct. 28, 1998; 65 FR 64605, Oct. 30, 2000; 65 FR 79719, Dec. 20, 2000; 72 FR 46564, Aug. 21, 2007; 78 FR 71464, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.842" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.842   Sorbitan monostearate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sorbitan monostearate, which is a mixture of partial stearic and palmitic acid esters of sorbitol anhydrides, may be safely used in or on food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by reacting stearic acid (usually containing associated fatty acids, chiefly palmitic) with sorbitol to yield essentially a mixture of esters.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Saponification number, 147-157
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid number, 5-10
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyl number, 235-260</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use, alone or in combination with polysorbate 60 as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As an emulsifier in whipped edible oil topping with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Polysorbate 60;
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 65;
</P>
<P>(iii) Polysorbate 80;
</P>
<FP>whereby the maximum amount of the additive or additives used does not exceed 0.4 percent of the weight of the finished whipped edible oil topping; except that a combination of the additive with polysorbate 60 may be used in excess of 0.4 percent: <I>Provided,</I> That the amount of the additive does not exceed 0.27 percent and the amount of polysorbate 60 does not exceed 0.77 percent of the weight of the finished whipped edible oil topping.
</FP>
<P>(2) As an emulsifier in cakes and cake mixes, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Polysorbate 65.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 60.
</P>
<FP>When used alone, the maximum amount of sorbitan monostearate shall not exceed 0.61 percent of the cake or cake mix, on a dry-weight basis. When used with polysorbate 65 and/or polysorbate 60, it shall not exceed 0.61 percent, nor shall the polysorbate 65 exceed 0.32 percent or the polysorbate 60 exceed 0.46 percent, and no combination of the emulsifiers shall exceed 0.66 percent of the weight of the cake or cake mix, calculated on a dry-weight basis.
</FP>
<P>(3) As an emulsifier, alone or in combination with polysorbate 60 in nonstandardized confectionery coatings and standardized cacao products specified in §§ 163.123, 163.130, 163.135, 163.140, 163.145, and 163.150 of this chapter, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) It is used alone in an amount not to exceed 1 percent of the weight of the finished nonstandardized confectionery coating or standardized cacao product.
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used with polysorbate 60 in any combination of up to 1 percent sorbitan monostearate and up to 0.5 percent polysorbate 60 provided that the total combination does not exceed 1 percent of the weight of the finished nonstandardized confectionery coating or standardized cacao product.
</P>
<P>(4) As an emulsifier in cake icings and cake fillings, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Polysorbate 65.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 60.
</P>
<FP>When used alone, the maximum amount of sorbitan monostearate shall not exceed 0.7 percent of the weight of the cake icing or cake filling. When used with polysorbate 65 and/or polysorbate 60, it shall not exceed 0.7 percent, nor shall the polysorbate 65 exceed 0.32 percent or the polysorbate 60 exceed 0.46 percent, and no combination of these emulsifiers shall exceed 1 percent of the weight of the cake icing or cake filling.
</FP>
<P>(5) As an emulsifier in solid-state, edible vegetable fat-water emulsions intended for use as substitutes for milk or cream in beverage coffee, with or without one or a combination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Polysorbate 60.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polysorbate 65.
</P>
<FP>The maximum amount of the additive or additives shall not exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the finished edible vegetable fat-water emulsion.
</FP>
<P>(6) It is used alone as a rehydration aid in the production of active dry yeast in an amount not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the dry yeast.
</P>
<P>(7) As an emulsifier, alone or in combination with polysorbate 60, in the minimum quantity required to accomplish the intended effect, in formulations of white mineral oil conforming with § 172.878 and/or petroleum wax conforming with § 172.886 for use as protective coatings on raw fruits and vegetables.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive and any intermediate premixes shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration or strength of the additive in any intermediate premixes.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling shall bear adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 2871, Jan. 20, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.844" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.844   Calcium stearoyl-2-lactylate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive calcium stearoyl-2-lactylate may be safely used in or on food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive, which is a mixture of calcium salts of stearoyl lactylic acids and minor proportions of other calcium salts of related acids, is manufactured by the reaction of stearic acid and lactic acid and conversion to the calcium salts.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number, 50-86.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium content, 4.2-5.2 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lactic acid content, 32-38 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ester number, 125-164.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As a dough conditioner in yeast-leavened bakery products and prepared mixes for yeast-leavened bakery products in an amount not to exceed 0.5 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(2) As a whipping agent in:
</P>
<P>(i) Liquid and frozen egg white at a level not to exceed 0.05 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dried egg white at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whipped vegetable oil topping at a level not to exceed 0.3 percent of the weight of the finished whipped vegetable oil topping.
</P>
<P>(3) As a conditioning agent in dehydrated potatoes in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the food additive and any intermediate premix prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration or strength of the additive in any intermediate premixes.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the food additive shall also bear adequate directions of use to provide a finished food that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.846" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.846   Sodium stearoyl lactylate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sodium stearoyl lactylate (CAS Reg. No. 25-383-997) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive, which is a mixture of sodium salts of stearoyl lactylic acids and minor proportions of sodium salts of related acids, is manufactured by the reaction of stearic acid and lactic acid and conversion to the sodium salts.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 300-301, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as follows when standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<P>(1) As a dough strengthener, emulsifier, or processing aid in baked products, pancakes, and waffles, in an amount not to exceed 0.5 part for each 100 parts by weight of flour used.
</P>
<P>(2) As a surface-active agent, emulsifier, or stabilizer in icings, fillings, puddings, and toppings, at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(3) As an emulsifier or stabilizer in liquid and solid edible fat-water emulsions intended for use as substitutes for milk or cream in beverage coffee, at a level not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of the finished edible fat-water emulsion.
</P>
<P>(4) As a formulation aid, processing aid, or surface-active agent in dehydrated potatoes, in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent of the dry weight of the food.
</P>
<P>(5) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or texturizer in snack dips, at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(6) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or texturizer in cheese substitutes and imitations and cheese product substitutes and imitations, at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(7) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or texturizer in sauces or gravies, and the products containing the same, in an amount not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of the finished food.
</P>
<P>(8) In prepared mixes for each of the foods listed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (7) of this section, provided the additive is used only as specified in each of those paragraphs.
</P>
<P>(9) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or texturizer in cream liqueur drinks, at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 51767, Aug. 5, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985; 51 FR 1495, Jan. 14, 1986; 51 FR 3333, Jan. 27, 1986; 65 FR 60859, Oct. 13, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.848" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.848   Lactylic esters of fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>Lactylic esters of fatty acids may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They are prepared from lactic acid and fatty acids meeting the requirements of § 172.860(b) and/or oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids meeting the requirements of § 172.862.
</P>
<P>(b) They are used as emulsifiers, plasticizers, or surface-active agents in the following foods, when standards of identity do not preclude their use:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foods
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bakery mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cake icings, fillings, and toppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dehydrated fruits and vegetables</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dehydrated fruit and vegetable juices</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Edible vegetable fat-water emulsions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As substitutes for milk or cream in beverage coffee.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen desserts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquid shortening</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For household use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pancake mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Precooked instant rice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pudding mixes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) They are used in an amount not greater than required to produce the intended physical or technical effect, and they may be used with shortening and edible fats and oils when such are required in the foods identified in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.850" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.850   Lactylated fatty acid esters of glycerol and propylene glycol.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive lactylated fatty acid esters of glycerol and propylene glycol may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of esters produced by the lactylation of a product obtained by reacting edible fats or oils with propylene glycol.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications: Water insoluble combined lactic acid, 14-18 percent; and acid number, 12 maximum.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used in amounts not in excess of that reasonably required to produce the intended physical effect as an emulsifier, plasticizer, or surface-active agent in food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.852" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.852   Glyceryl-lacto esters of fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>Glyceryl-lacto esters of fatty acids (the lactic acid esters of mono- and diglycerides) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They are manufactured from glycerin, lactic acid, and fatty acids conforming with § 172.860 and/or oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids conforming with § 172.862 and/or edible fats and oils.
</P>
<P>(b) They are used in amounts not in excess of those reasonably required to accomplish their intended physical or technical effect as emulsifiers and plasticizers in food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.854" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.854   Polyglycerol esters of fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>Polyglycerol esters of fatty acids, up to and including the decaglycerol esters, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They are prepared from corn oil, cottonseed oil, lard, palm oil from fruit, peanut oil, safflower oil, sesame oil, soybean oil, and tallow and the fatty acids derived from these substances (hydrogenated and nonhydrogenated) meeting the requirements of § 172.860(b) and/or oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids meeting the requirements of § 172.862.
</P>
<P>(b) They are used as emulsifiers in food, in amounts not greater than that required to produce the intended physical or technical effect.
</P>
<P>(c) Polyglycerol esters of a mixture of stearic, oleic, and coconut fatty acids are used as a cloud inhibitor in vegetable and salad oils when use is not precluded by standards of identity. The fatty acids used in the production of the polyglycerol esters meet the requirements of § 172.860(b), and the polyglycerol esters are used at a level not in excess of the amount required to perform its cloud-inhibiting effect. Oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids conforming with § 172.862 may be used as a substitute for or together with the oleic acid permitted by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) Polyglycerol esters of butter oil fatty acids are used as emulsifiers in combination with other approved emulsifiers in dry, whipped topping base. The fatty acids used in the production of the polyglycerol esters meet the requirements of § 172.860(b), and the polyglycerol esters are used at a level not in excess of the amount required to perform their emulsifying effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.856" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.856   Propylene glycol mono- and diesters of fats and fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>Propylene glycol mono- and diesters of fats and fatty acids may be safely used in food, subject to the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They are produced from edible fats and/or fatty acids in compliance with § 172.860 and/or oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids in compliance with § 172.862.
</P>
<P>(b) They are used in food in amounts not in excess of that reasonably required to produce their intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.858" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.858   Propylene glycol alginate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive propylene glycol alginate (CAS Reg. No. 9005-37-2) may be used as an emulsifier, flavoring adjuvant, formulation aid, stabilizer, surfactant, or thickener in foods in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 256, which is incorporated by reference (Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), and the additional specification that it shall have up to 85 percent of the carboxylic acid groups esterified with the remaining groups either free or neutralized.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use in the following foods as defined in § 170.3(n) of this chapter, when standards of identity established under section 401 of the act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<P>(1) As a stabilizer in frozen dairy desserts, in fruit and water ices, and in confections and frostings at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(2) As an emulsifier, flavoring adjuvant, stabilizer, or thickener in baked goods at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(3) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in cheeses at a level not to exceed 0.9 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(4) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in fats and oils at a level not to exceed 1.1 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(5) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in gelatins and puddings at a level not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(6) As a stabilizer or thickener in gravies and in sweet sauces at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(7) As a stabilizer in jams and jellies at a level not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(8) As an emulsifier, stabilizer, or thickener in condiments and relishes at a level not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(9) As a flavoring adjunct or adjuvant in seasonings and flavors at a level not to exceed 1.7 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(10) As an emulsifier, flavoring adjuvant, formulation aid, stabilizer or thickener, or surface active agent in other foods, where applicable, at a level not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(c) To ensure safe use of the additive, the label of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, “propylene glycol alginate” or “propylene glycol ester of alginic acid”.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29950, July 9, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.859" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.859   Sucrose fatty acid esters.</HEAD>
<P>Sucrose fatty acid esters identified in this section may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Sucrose fatty acid esters are the mono-, di-, and tri-esters of sucrose with fatty acids and are derived from sucrose and edible tallow or hydrogenated edible tallow or edible vegetable oils. The only solvents which may be used in the preparation of sucrose fatty acid esters are those generally recognized as safe in food or regulated for such use by an appropriate section in this part. Ethyl acetate or methyl ethyl ketone or dimethyl sulfoxide and isobutyl alcohol (2-methyl-1-propanol) may be used in the preparation of sucrose fatty acid esters.
</P>
<P>(b) Sucrose fatty acid esters meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The total content of mono-, di-, and tri-esters is not less than 80 percent as determined by a method title “Sucrose Fatty Acid Esters, Method of Assay,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) The free sucrose content is not more than 5 percent as determined by Test S.2 in the method titled “Sucrose Fatty Acid Esters, Method of Assay,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The acid value is not more than 6.
</P>
<P>(4) The residue on ignition (sulfated ash) is not more than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) The total ethyl acetate content is not more than 350 parts per million as determined by a method titled “Determination of Ethyl Acetate,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(6) Arsenic is not more than 3 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(7) Total heavy metal content (as Pb) is not more than 50 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(8) Lead is not more than 10 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(9) The total content of methyl ethyl ketone or of methanol shall not be more than 10 parts per million as determined by a method titled “Methyl Ethyl Ketone Test; Methyl Alcohol Test,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(10) The total dimethyl sulfoxide content is not more than 2 parts per million as determined by a method entitled “Determination of Dimethyl Sulfoxide,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(11) The total isobuytl alcohol (2-methyl-1-propanol) content is not more than 10 parts per million as determined by a method entitled “Determination of Isobutyl Alcohol,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) Sucrose fatty acid esters may be used as follows when standards of identity established under section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<P>(1) As emulsifiers as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter, or as stabilizers as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, in baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter, in chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter, in coffee and tea beverages with added dairy ingredients and/or dairy product analogues, in confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter, in dairy product analogues as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter, in frozen dairy desserts and mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter, and in whipped milk products.
</P>
<P>(2) As texturizers as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter in biscuit mixes, in chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter, in confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter, and in surimi-based fabricated seafood products.
</P>
<P>(3) As components of protective coatings applied to fresh apples, avocados, bananas, banana plantains, limes, melons (honeydew and cantaloupe), papaya, peaches, pears, pineapples, and plums to retard ripening and spoiling.
</P>
<P>(d) Sucrose fatty acid esters are used in accordance with current good manufacturing practice and in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 55475, Dec. 10, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 38226, Aug. 23, 1983; 52 FR 10883, Apr. 6, 1987; 53 FR 22294, 22297, June 15, 1988; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 60 FR 44756, Aug. 29, 1995; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.860" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.860   Fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive fatty acids may be safely used in food and in the manufacture of food components in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive consists of one or any mixture of the following straight-chain monobasic carboxylic acids and their associated fatty acids manufactured from fats and oils derived from edible sources: Capric acid, caprylic acid, lauric acid, myristic acid, oleic acid, palmitic acid, and stearic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Unsaponifiable matter does not exceed 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) It is free of chick-edema factor:
</P>
<P>(i) As evidenced during the bioassay method for determining the chick-edema factor as prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As evidenced by the absence of chromatographic peaks with a retention time relative to aldrin (RA) between 10 and 25, using the gas chromatographic-electron capture method prescribed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. If chromatographic peaks are found with RA values between 10 and 25, the food additive shall meet the requirements of the bioassay method prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section for determining chick-edema factor.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Unsaponifiable matter shall be determined by the method described in the 13th Ed. (1980) of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Chick-edema factor shall be determined by the bioassay method described in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 28.127-28.130, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The gas chromatographic-electron capture method for testing fatty acids for chick-edema shall be the method described in the “Journal of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” Volume 50 (No. 1), pages 216-218 (1967), or the modified method using a sulfuric acid clean-up procedure, as described in the “Journal of the Association of the Official Analytical Chemists,” Volume 51 (No. 2), pages 489-490 (1968), which are incorporated by reference. See paragraph (c)(2) of this section for availability of these references.
</P>
<P>(d) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In foods as a lubricant, binder, and as a defoaming agent in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) As a component in the manufacture of other food-grade additives.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and any premix thereof shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The common or usual name of the acid or acids contained therein.
</P>
<P>(2) The words “food grade,” in juxtaposition with and equally as prominent as the name of the acid.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11837, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.861" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.861   Cocoa butter substitute from coconut oil, palm kernel oil, or both oils.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, cocoa butter substitute from coconut oil, palm kernel oil, or both oils, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cocoa butter substitute from coconut oil, palm kernel oil (CAS Reg. No. 85665-33-4), or both oils is a mixture of triglycerides. It is manufactured by esterification of glycerol with food-grade fatty acids (complying with § 172.860) derived from edible coconut oil, edible palm kernel oil, or both oils.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid number: Not to exceed 0.5.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification number: 220 to 260.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine number: Not to exceed 3.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melting range: 30 to 44 °C.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As coating material for sugar, table salt, vitamins, citric acid, succinic acid, and spices; and
</P>
<P>(2) In compound coatings, cocoa creams, cocoa-based sweets, toffees, caramel masses, and chewing sweets as defined in § 170.3 (n)(9) and (n)(38) of this chapter, except that the ingredient may not be used in a standardized food unless permitted by the standard of identity.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in accordance with current good manufacturing practice and in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 66970, Dec. 27, 1991; 57 FR 2814, Jan. 23, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.862" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.862   Oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids may be safely used in food and as a component in the manufacture of food-grade additives in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive consists of purified oleic acid separated from refined tall oil fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifications for oleic acid prescribed in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 743-744, which is incorporated by reference, except that titer (solidification point) shall not exceed 13.5 °C and unsaponifiable matter shall not exceed 0.5 percent. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The resin acid content does not exceed 0.01 as determined by ASTM method D1240-82, “Standard Test Method for Rosin Acids in Fatty Acids,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements for absence of chick-edema factor as prescribed in § 172.860.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In foods as a lubricant, binder, and defoaming agent in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) As a component in the manufacture of other food-grade additives.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and any premix thereof shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The common or usual name of the acid.
</P>
<P>(2) The words “food grade” in juxtaposition with and equally as prominent as the name of the acid.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 78 FR 71465, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.863" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.863   Salts of fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive salts of fatty acids may be safely used in food and in the manufacture of food components in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive consists of one or any mixture of two or more of the aluminum, calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium salts of the fatty acids conforming with § 172.860 and/or oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids conforming with § 172.862.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive is used or intended for use as a binder, emulsifier, and anticaking agent in food in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and any premix thereof shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The common or usual name of the fatty acid salt or salts contained therein.
</P>
<P>(2) The words “food grade,” in juxtaposition with and equally as prominent as the name of the salt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.864" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.864   Synthetic fatty alcohols.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic fatty alcohols may be safely used in food and in the synthesis of food components in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive consists of any one of the following fatty alcohols:
</P>
<P>(1) Hexyl, octyl, decyl, lauryl, myristyl, cetyl, and stearyl; manufactured by fractional distillation of alcohols obtained by a sequence of oxidation and hydrolysis of organo-aluminums generated by the controlled reaction of low molecular weight trialkylaluminum with purified ethylene (minimum 99 percent by volume C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">4</E>), and utilizing the hydrocarbon solvent as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, such that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Hexyl, octyl, decyl, lauryl, and myristyl alcohols contain not less than 99 percent of total alcohols and not less than 96 percent of straight chain alcohols. Any nonalcoholic impurities are primarily paraffins.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cetyl and stearyl alcohols contain not less than 98 percent of total alcohols and not less than 94 percent of straight chain alcohols. Any nonalcoholic impurities are primarily paraffins.
</P>
<P>(iii) The synthetic fatty alcohols contain no more than 0.1 weight percent of total diols as determined by a method available upon request from the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) Hexyl, octyl, and decyl; manufactured by fractional distillation of alcohols obtained by a sequence of oxidation, hydrolysis, and catalytic hydrogenation (catalyst consists of copper, chromium, and nickel) of organo-aluminums generated by the controlled reaction of low molecular weight trialkylaluminum with purified ethylene (minimum 99 percent by volume C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">4</E>), and utilizing an external coolant such that these alcohols meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) n-Octyl; manufactured by the hydrodimerization of 1,3-butadiene, followed by catalytic hydrogenation of the resulting dienol, and distillation to produce <I>n</I>-octyl alcohol with a minimum purity of 99 percent. The analytical method for <I>n</I>-octyl alcohol entitled “Test Method [Normal-octanol]” dated October 2003, and printed by Kuraray Co., Ltd., is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The hydrocarbon solvent used in the process described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons essentially paraffinic in nature, derived from petroleum and refined to meet the specifications described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section when subjected to the procedures described in paragraph (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The hydrocarbon solvent meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Boiling-point range: 175 °C-275 °C.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ultraviolet absorbance limits as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength (millicrons)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorbance per centimeter optical path length
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280-289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300-359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360-400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Use ASTM method D86-82, “Standard Method for Distillation of Petroleum Products,” which is incorporated by reference, to determine boiling point range. Copies of the material incorporated by reference may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The analytical method for determining ultraviolet absorbance limits is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>General Instructions
</HD1>
<P>All glassware should be scrupulously cleaned to remove all organic matter such as oil, grease, detergent residues, etc. Examine all glassware, including stoppers and stopcocks, under ultraviolet light to detect any residual fluorescent contamination. As a precautionary measure, it is recommended practice to rinse all glassware with purified isooctane immediately before use. No grease is to be used on stopcocks or joints. Great care to avoid contamination of hydrocarbon solvent samples in handling and to assure absence of any extraneous material arising from inadequate packaging is essential. Because some of the polynuclear hydrocarbons sought in this test are very susceptible to photo-oxidation, the entire procedure is to be carried out under subdued light.
</P>
<HD1>Apparatus
</HD1>
<P><I>Chromatographic tube.</I> 450 millimeters in length (packing section), inside diameter 19 millimeters ±1 millimeter, equipped with a wad of clean Pyrex brand filtering wool (Corning Glass Works Catalog No. 3950 or equivalent). The tube shall contain a 250-milliliter reservoir and a 2-millimeter tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock at the opposite end. Overall length of the tube is 670 millimeters.
</P>
<P><I>Stainless steel rod.</I> 2 feet in length, 2 to 4 millimeters in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Vacuum oven.</I> Similar to Labline No. 3610 but modified as follows: A copper tube one-fourth inch in diameter and 13 inches in length is bent to a right angle at the 4-inch point and plugged at the opposite end; eight copper tubes one-eighth inch in diameter and 5 inches in length are silver soldered in drilled holes (one-eighth inch in diameter) to the one-fourth-inch tube, one on each side at the 5-, 7.5-, 10- and 12.5-inch points; the one-eighth-inch copper tubes are bent to conform with the inner periphery of the oven.
</P>
<P><I>Beakers.</I> 250-milliliter and 500-milliliter capacity.
</P>
<P><I>Graduated cylinders.</I> 25-milliliter, 50-milliliter, and 150-milliliter capacity.
</P>
<P><I>Tuberculin syringe.</I> 1-milliliter capacity, with 3-inch, 22-gauge needle.
</P>
<P><I>Volumetric flask.</I> 5-milliliter capacity. 
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometric cells.</I> Fused quartz ground glass stoppered cells, optical path length in the range of 1.000 centimeter ±0.005 centimeter. With distilled water in the cells, determine any absorbance difference.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometer.</I> Spectral range 250 millimicrons—400 millimicrons with spectral slit width of 2 millimicrons or less: under instrument operating conditions for these absorbance measurements, the spectrophotometer shall also meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>Absorbance repeatability, ±0.01 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<P>Absorbance accuracy, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> ±0.05 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As determined by using potassium chromate for reference standard and described in National Bureau of Standards Circular 484, Spectrophotometry, U.S. Department of Commerce, (1949). The accuracy is to be determined by comparison with the standard values at 290, 345, and 400 millimicrons. Circular 484 is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>Wavelength repeatability, ±0.2 millimicron.
</P>
<P>Wavelength accuracy, ±1.0 millimicron.
</P>
<P><I>Nitrogen cylinder.</I> Water-pumped or equivalent purity nitrogen in cylinder equipped with regulator and valve to control flow at 5 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<HD1>Reagents and Materials
</HD1>
<P><I>Organic solvents.</I> All solvents used throughout the procedure shall meet the specifications and tests described in this specification. The isooctane, benzene, hexane, and 1,2-dichloroethane designated in the list following this paragraph shall pass the following test:
</P>
<P>To the specified quantity of solvent in a 250-milliliter beaker, add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane and evaporate in the vacuum oven under a stream of nitrogen. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. (To the residue from benzene add a 5-milliliter portion of purified isooctane, reevaporate, and repeat once to insure complete removal of benzene.)
</P>
<P>Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane residue in isooctane and make to 5 milliliters volume. Determine the absorbance in the 1-centimeter path length cells compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance of the solution of the solvent residue shall not exceed 0.02 per centimeter path length between 280 and 300 mµ and shall not exceed 0.01 per centimeter path length between 300 and 400 mµ.
</P>
<P><I>Isooctane</I> (<I>2,2,4-trimethylpentane</I>). Use 10 milliliters for the test described in the preceding paragraph. If necessary, isooctane may be purified by passage through a column of activated silica gel (Grade 12, Davison Chemical Co., Baltimore, Md., or equivalent).
</P>
<P><I>Benzene, spectro grade</I> (<I>Burdick and Jackson Laboratories, Inc., Muskegon, Mich., or equivalent</I>). Use 80 milliliters for the test. If necessary, benzene may be purified by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Hexane, spectro grade</I> (<I>Burdick and Jackson Laboratories, Inc., Muskegon, Mich., or equivalent</I>). Use 650 milliliters for the test. If necessary, hexane may be purified by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>1,2-Dichloroethane, spectro grade</I> (<I>Matheson, Coleman, and Bell, East Rutherford, N.J., or equivalent</I>). Use 20 milliliters for test. If necessary, 1,2-dichloroethane may be purified by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Eluting mixtures:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>10 percent 1,2-dichloroethane in hexane.</I> Pipet 100 milliliters of 1,2-dichloroethane into a 1-liter glass-stoppered volumetric flask and adjust to volume with hexane, with mixing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>40 percent benzene in hexane.</I> Pipet 400 milliliters of benzene into a 1-liter glass-stoppered volumetric flask and adjust to volume with hexane, with mixing.
</P>
<P><I>n-Hexadecane, 99 percent olefin-free.</I> Dilute 1.0 milliliter of <I>n-</I>hexadecane to 5 milliliters with isooctane and determine the absorbance in a 1-centimeter cell compared to isooctane as reference between 280 mµ-400mµ. The absorbance per centimeter path length shall not exceed 0.00 in this range. If necessary, <I>n-</I>hexadecane may be purified by percolation through activated silica gel or by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Silica gel, 28-200 mesh</I> (<I>Grade 12, Davison Chemical Co., Baltimore, Md., or equivalent</I>). Activate as follows: Weigh about 900 grams into a 1-gallon bottle, add 100 milliliters of de-ionized water, seal the bottle and shake and roll at intervals for 1 hour. Allow to equilibrate overnight in the sealed bottle. Activate the gel at 150 °C for 16 hours, in a 2-inch × 7-inch × 12-inch porcelain pan loosely covered with aluminum foil, cool in a dessicator, transfer to a bottle and seal.
</P>
<HD1>Procedure
</HD1>
<P><I>Determination of ultraviolet absorbance.</I> Before proceeding with the analysis of a sample determine the absorbance in a 1-centimeter path cell for the reagent blank by carrying out the procedure without a sample. Record the absorbance in the wavelength range of 280 to 400 millimicrons. Typical reagent blank absorbance in this range should not exceed 0.04 in the 280 to 299 millimicron range, 0.02 in the 300 to 359 millimicron range, and 0.01 in the 360 to 400 millimicron range. If the characteristic benzene peaks in the 250 to 260 millimicron region are present, remove the benzene by the procedure described above under “Reagents and Materials,” “Organic Solvents,” and record absorbance again.
</P>
<P>Transfer 50 grams of silica gel to the chromatographic tube for sample analysis. Raise and drop the column on a semisoft, clean surface for about 1 minute to settle the gel. Pour 100 milliliters of hexane into the column with the stopcock open and allow to drain to about one-half inch above the gel. Turn off the stopcock and allow the column to cool for 30 minutes. After cooling, vibrate the column to eliminate air and stir the top 1 to 2 inches with a small diameter stainless steel rod. Take care not to get the gel above the liquid and onto the sides of the column.
</P>
<P>Weigh out 40 grams ±0.1 gram of the hydrocarbon solvent sample into a 250-milliliter beaker, add 50 milliliters of hexane, and pour the solution into the column. Rinse the beaker with 50 milliliters of hexane and add this to the column. Allow the hexane sample solution to elute into a 500-milliliter beaker until the solution is about one-half inch above the gel. Rinse the column three times with 50-milliliter portions of hexane. Allow each hexane rinse to separately elute to about one-half inch above the gel. Replace the eluate beaker (discard the hexane eluate) with a 250-milliliter beaker. Add two separate 25-milliliter portions of 10 percent 1,2-dichloroethane and allow each to separately elute as before. Finally, add 150 milliliters of 10 percent 1,2-dichloroethane for a total of 200 milliliters. When the final 10 percent 1,2-dichloroethane fraction is about one-half inch above the top of the gel bed, replace the receiving beaker (discard the 1,2-dichloroethane eluate) with a 250-milliliter beaker containing 1 milliliter of hexadecane. Adjust the elution rate to 2 to 3 milliliters per minute, add two 25-milliliter portions of 40 percent benzene and allow each to separately elute as before to within about one-half inch of the gel bed. Finally, add 150 milliliters of 40 percent benzene for a total of 200 milliliters. Evaporate the benzene in the oven with vacuum and sufficient nitrogen flow to just ripple the top of the benzene solution. When the benzene is removed (as determined by a constant volume of hexadecane) add 5 milliliters of isooctane and evaporate. Repeat once to insure complete removal of benzene. Remove the beaker and cover with aluminum foil (previously rinsed with hexane) until cool.
</P>
<P>Quantitatively transfer the hexadecane residue to a 5-milliliter volumetric flask and dilute to volume with isooctane. Determine the absorbance of the solution in 1-centimeter path length cells between 280 and 400 millimicrons using isooctane as a reference. Correct the absorbance values for any absorbance derived from reagents as determined by carrying out the procedure without a sample. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits prescribed in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the sample meets the ultraviolet absorbance specifications for hydrocarbon solvent.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Synthetic fatty alcohols may be used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As substitutes for the corresponding naturally derived fatty alcohols permitted in food by existing regulations in this part or part 173 of this chapter provided that the use is in compliance with any prescribed limitations.
</P>
<P>(2) As substitutes for the corresponding naturally derived fatty alcohols used as intermediates in the synthesis of food additives and other substances permitted in food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11837, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 70 FR 72908, Dec. 8, 2005; 81 FR 5591, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.866" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.866   Synthetic glycerin produced by the hydrogenolysis of carbohydrates.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic glycerin produced by the hydrogenolysis of carbohydrates may be safely used in food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) It shall contain not in excess of 0.2 percent by weight of a mixture of butanetriols.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to produce its intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.867" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.867   Olestra.</HEAD>
<P>Olestra, as identified in this section, may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Olestra is a mixture of octa-, hepta-, and hexa-esters of sucrose with fatty acids derived from edible fats and oils or fatty acid sources that are generally recognized as safe or approved for use as food ingredients. The chain lengths of the fatty acids are no less than 12 carbon atoms.
</P>
<P>(b) Olestra meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 744-746, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Olestra may be used in place of fats and oils in prepackaged ready-to-eat savory (i.e., salty or piquant but not sweet) snacks and prepackaged, unpopped popcorn kernels that are ready-to-heat. In such foods, the additive may be used in place of fats and oils for frying or baking, in dough conditioners, in sprays, in filling ingredients, or in flavors.
</P>
<P>(d) To compensate for any interference with absorption of fat soluble vitamins, the following vitamins shall be added to foods containing olestra: 1.9 milligrams alpha-tocopherol equivalents per gram olestra; 51 retinol equivalents per gram olestra (as retinyl acetate or retinyl palmitate); 12 IU vitamin D per gram olestra; and 8 µg vitamin K<E T="52">1</E> per gram olestra.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Vitamins A, D, E, and K present in foods as a result of the requirement in paragraph (d) of this section shall be declared in the listing of ingredients. Such vitamins shall not be considered in determining nutrient content for the nutritional label or for any nutrient claims, express or implied.
</P>
<P>(i) An asterisk shall follow vitamins A, D, E, and K in the listing of ingredients;
</P>
<P>(ii) The asterisk shall appear as a superscript following each vitamin;
</P>
<P>(iii) Immediately following the ingredient list an asterisk and statement, “Dietarily insignificant” shall appear prominently and conspicuously as specified in § 101.2(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Olestra shall not be considered as a source of fat or calories for purposes of §§ 101.9 and 101.13 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 3171, Jan. 30, 1996; 61 FR 11546, Mar. 21, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 46402, Aug. 5, 2003; 69 FR 29432, May 24, 2004; 78 FR 71465, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.868" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.868   Ethyl cellulose.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive ethyl cellulose may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is a cellulose ether containing ethoxy (OC<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">5</E>) groups attached by an ether linkage and containing on an anhydrous basis not more than 2.6 ethoxy groups per anhydroglucose unit.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As a binder and filler in dry vitamin preparations.
</P>
<P>(2) As a component of protective coatings for vitamin and mineral tablets.
</P>
<P>(3) As a fixative in flavoring compounds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.869" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.869   Sucrose oligoesters.</HEAD>
<P>Sucrose oligoesters, as identified in this section, may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Sucrose oligoesters consist of mixtures of sucrose fatty acid esters with an average degree of esterification ranging from four to seven. It is produced by interesterification of sucrose with methyl esters of fatty acids derived from edible fats and oils (including hydrogenated fats and oils). The only solvents which may be used in the preparation of sucrose oligoesters are dimethyl sulfoxide, isobutyl alcohol, and those solvents generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(b) Sucrose oligoesters meet the specifications in the methods listed in the table in this paragraph. The methods for determining compliance with each specification are incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> Copies of the methods are available from the sources listed in the table in this paragraph:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Method Cited
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Source for Obtaining Method
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Sucrose esters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 90%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Method for Analyzing the Purity of Sucrose Fatty Acid Esters,” Chemical Corp., June 17, 1998</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Mono-, di-, and tri-esters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 45%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Method for Measuring the Ester Distribution of Sucrose Oligoesters,” issued by Mitsubishi Chemical Corp., June 17, 1998.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Tetra-, penta-, hexa-, and hepta-esters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 50%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Octa-esters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 40%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Free Sucrose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 0.5%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Free Sucrose Method,” issued by Mitsubishi Chemical Corp., June 17, 1998.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Acid Value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Acid Value,” Appendix VII, Method I (Commercial Fatty Acids), in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), p. 1220.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <E T="03">http://www.usp.org</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Residue on Ignition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 0.7%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Residue on Ignition,” Appendix IIC, Method I, in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 1141-1142 (using a 1-gram sample).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Residual Methanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 10 milligrams/kilogram</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Method listed in the monograph for “Sucrose Fatty Acid Esters” in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 998-1000.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Residual Dimethyl Sulfoxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 2.0 milligrams/kilogram</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Residual Isobutyl Alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 10 milligrams/kilogram</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Lead</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 1.0 milligram/kilogram</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Atomic Absorption Spectrophometric Graphite Furnace Method,” Method I in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), p. 1154-1155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The additive is used as an emulsifier (as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter) or stabilizer (as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter) in chocolate and in butter-substitute spreads, at a level not to exceed 2.0 percent; except that the additive may not be used in a standardized food unless permitted by the standard of identity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 50072, Aug. 20, 2003, as amended at 78 FR 71465, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17721, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.870" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.870   Hydroxypropyl cellulose.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive hydroxypropyl cellulose may be safely used in food, except standardized foods that do not provide for such use, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive consists of one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A cellulose ether containing propylene glycol groups attached by an ether linkage that contains, on an anhydrous basis, not more than 4.6 hydroxypropyl groups per anhydroglucose unit. The additive has a minimum viscosity of 10 centipoises for a 10 percent by weight aqueous solution at 25 degrees C.
</P>
<P>(2) A cellulose ether containing propylene glycol groups attached by an ether linkage having a hydroxypropoxy (OC<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">6</E>OH) content of 5 to 16 percent weight in weight (w/w) on an anhydrous basis, i.e., 0.1 to 0.4 hydroxypropyl groups per anhydroglucose unit. The common name for this form of the additive is low substituted hydroxypropyl cellulose.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is used or intended for use as an emulsifier, film former, protective colloid, stabilizer, suspending agent, or thickener in food, in accordance with good manufacturing practice. The additive also may be used as a binder in dietary supplements, in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used or intended for use as a binder and disintegrator in tablets or wafers containing dietary supplements of vitamins and/or minerals. The additive is used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50065, Oct. 9, 1981, as amended at 76 FR 41689, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.872" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.872   Methyl ethyl cellulose.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive methyl ethyl cellulose may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a cellulose ether having the general formula [C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">(10</E><E T="54">-x-y)</E>O<E T="52">5</E>(CH<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="54">x</E>(C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">5</E>)<E T="54">y</E>]<E T="54">n</E>, where <I>x</I> is the number of methyl groups and <I>y</I> is the number of ethyl groups. The average value of <I>x</I> is 0.3 and the average value of <I>y</I> is 0.7.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The methoxy content shall be not less than 3.5 percent and not more than 6.5 percent, calculated as OCH<E T="52">3</E>, and the ethoxy content shall be not less than 14.5 percent and not more than 19 percent, calculated as OC<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">5</E>, both measured on the dry sample.
</P>
<P>(2) The viscosity of an aqueous solution, 2.5 grams of the material in 100 milliliters of water, at 20 °C, is 20 to 60 centipoises.
</P>
<P>(3) The ash content on a dry basis has a maximum of 0.6 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive is used as an aerating, emulsifying, and foaming agent, in an amount not in excess of that reasonably required to produce its intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.874" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.874   Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (CAS Reg. No. 9004-65-3) may be safely used in food, except in standardized foods which do not provide for such use if:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive complies with the definition and specifications prescribed in the National Formulary, 12th edition.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as an emulsifier, film former, protective colloid, stabilizer, suspending agent, or thickener, in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) To insure safe use of the additive, the container of the additive, in addition to being labeled as required by the general provisions of the act, shall be accompanied by labeling which contains adequate directions for use to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 38273, Aug. 31, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.876" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.876   Castor oil.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive castor oil may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the specifications of the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980).
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>Use and Limitations
</HD2>
<P>Hard candy production—As a release agent and antisticking agent, not to exceed 500 parts per million in hard candy.
</P>
<P>Vitamin and mineral tablets—As a component of protective coatings.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.878" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.878   White mineral oil.</HEAD>
<P>White mineral oil may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) White mineral oil is a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons, essentially paraffinic and naphthenic in nature obtained from petroleum. It is refined to meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) It meets the test requirements of the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980) for readily carbonizable substances (page 532).
</P>
<P>(2) It meets the test requirements of U.S.P. XVII for sulfur compounds (page 400). 
</P>
<P>(3) It meets the specifications prescribed in the “Journal of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” Volume 45, page 66 (1962), which is incorporated by reference, after correction of the ultraviolet absorbance for any absorbance due to added antioxidants. Copies of the material incorporated by reference are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) White mineral oil may contain any antioxidant permitted in food by regulations issued in accordance with section 409 of the Act, in an amount not greater than that required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(c) White mineral oil is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation (inclusive of all petroleum hydrocarbons that may be used in combination with white mineral oil)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. As a release agent, binder, and lubricant in or on capsules and tablets containing concentrates of flavoring, spices, condiments, and nutrients intended for addition to food, excluding confectionery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.6% of the capsule or tablet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. As a release agent, binder, and lubricant in or on capsules and tablets containing food for special dietary use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.6% of the capsule or tablet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. As a float on fermentation fluids in the manufacture of vinegar and wine to prevent or retard access of air, evaporation, and wild yeast contamination during fermentation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. As a defoamer in food</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In accordance with § 173.340 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. In bakery products, as a release agent and lubricant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.15% of bakery products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. In dehydrated fruits and vegetables, as a release agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.02% of dehydrated fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. In egg white solids, as a release agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.1% of egg white solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. On raw fruits and vegetables, as a protective coating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. In frozen meat, as a component of hot-melt coating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.095% of meat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. As a protective float on brine used in the curing of pickles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. In molding starch used in the manufacture of confectionery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.3 percent in the molding starch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. As a release agent, binder, and lubricant in the manufacture of yeast</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.15 percent of yeast.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. As an antidusting agent in sorbic acid for food use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.25 percent in the sorbic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. As release agent and as sealing and polishing agent in the manufacture of confectionery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent of confectionery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. As a dust control agent for wheat, corn, soybean, barley, rice, rye, oats, and sorghum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applied at a level of no more than 0.02 percent by weight of grain.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. As a dust control agent for rice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISO 100 oil viscosity (100 centistokes (cSt) at 100 °F) applied at a level of no more than 0.08 percent by weight of the rice grain.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 8764, Mar. 2, 1982; 47 FR 11838, Mar. 19, 1982; 48 FR 55728, Dec. 15, 1983; 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 66014, Dec. 1, 1998; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.880" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.880   Petrolatum.</HEAD>
<P>Petrolatum may be safely used in food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Petrolatum complies with the specifications set forth in the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980) for white petrolatum or in the National Formulary XV (1980) for petrolatum.
</P>
<P>(b) Petrolatum meets the following ultraviolet absorbance limits when subjected to the analytical procedure described in § 172.886(b):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Ultraviolet absorbance per centimeter path length:</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Millimicrons
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280-289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300-359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360-400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.04</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Petrolatum is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation (inclusive of all petroleum hydrocarbons that may be used in combination with petrolatum)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In bakery products; as release agent and lubricant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">With white mineral oil, not to exceed 0.15 percent of bakery product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In confectionery; as release agent and as sealing and polishing agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent of confectionery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In dehydrated fruits and vegetables; as release agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.02 percent of dehydrated fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In egg white solids; as release agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.1 percent of egg white solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On raw fruits and vegetables; as protective coating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In beet sugar and yeast; as defoaming agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As prescribed in § 173.340 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Petrolatum may contain any antioxidant permitted in food by regulations issued in accordance with section 409 of the Act, in an amount not greater than that required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10105, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.882" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.882   Synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons may be safely used in food, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They are produced by synthesis from petroleum gases and consist of a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons meeting the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Boiling point 93-260 °C as determined by ASTM method D86-82, “Standard Method for Distillation of Petroleum Products,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>Ultraviolet absorbance:
</P>
<P>260-319 millimicrons—1.5 maximum.
</P>
<P>320-329 millimicrons—0.08 maximum.
</P>
<P>330-350 millimicrons—0.05 maximum.
</P>
<P>Nonvolatile residual: 0.002 gram per 100 milliliters maximum.
</P>
<P>Synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons containing antioxidants shall meet the specified ultraviolet absorbance limits after correction for any absorbance due to the antioxidants. The ultraviolet absorbance shall be determined by the procedure described for application of mineral oil, disregarding the last sentence of the procedure, under “Specifications” on page 66 of the “Journal of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” Volume 45 (February 1962), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> For hydrocarbons boiling below 250 °F, the nonvolatile residue shall be determined by ASTM method D1353-78, “Standard Test Method for Nonvolatile Matter in Volatile Solvents for Use in Paint, Varnish, Lacquer, and Related Products;” for those boiling above 121 °C, ASTM method D381-80, “Standard Test Method for Existent Gum in Fuels by Jet Evaporation” shall be used. These methods are incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons may contain antioxidants authorized for use in food in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect nor to exceed any prescribed limitations.
</P>
<P>(c) Synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons are used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uses
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. In the froth-flotation cleaning of vegetables</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. As a component of insecticide formulations for use on processed foods</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. As a component of coatings on fruits and vegetables</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. As a coating on shell eggs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. As a float on fermentation fluids in the manufacture of vinegar and wine and on brine used in curing pickles, to prevent or retard access of air, evaporation, and contamination with wild organisms during fermentation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11838, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10106, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.884" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.884   Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons.</HEAD>
<P>Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons may be safely used in food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons derived from petroleum or synthesized from petroleum gases. The additive is chiefly paraffinic, isoparaffinic, or naphthenic in nature.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Odor is faint and not kerosenic.
</P>
<P>(2) Initial boiling point is 300 °F minimum.
</P>
<P>(3) Final boiling point is 650 °F maximum.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet absorbance limits determined by method specified in § 178.3620(b)(1)(ii) of this chapter, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength mµ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorbance per centimeter optical pathlength
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280-289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300-329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330-360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The additive is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a coating on shell eggs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a defoamer in processing beet sugar and yeast</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 173.340 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a float on fermentation fluids in the manufacture of vinegar and wine to prevent or retard access of air, evaporation, and wild yeast contamination during fermentation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In the froth-flotation cleaning of vegetables</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a component of insecticide formulations used in compliance with regulations issued in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.886" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.886   Petroleum wax.</HEAD>
<P>Petroleum wax may be safely used in or on food, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Petroleum wax is a mixture of solid hydrocarbons, paraffinic in nature, derived from petroleum, and refined to meet the specifications prescribed by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Petroleum wax meets the following ultraviolet absorbance limits when subjected to the analytical procedure described in this paragraph.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum ultraviolet absorbance per centimeter path length
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280-289 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-299 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300-359 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360-400 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Analytical Specification for Petroleum Wax
</HD1>
<HD1>general instructions
</HD1>
<P>Because of the sensitivity of the test, the possibility of errors arising from contamination is great. It is of the greatest importance that all glassware be scrupulously cleaned to remove all organic matter such as oil, grease, detergent residues, etc. Examine all glassware, including stoppers and stopcocks, under ultraviolet light to detect any residual fluorescent contamination. As a precautionary measure it is recommended practice to rinse all glassware with purified isooctane immediately before use. No grease is to be used on stopcocks or joints. Great care to avoid contamination of wax samples in handling and to assure absence of any extraneous material arising from inadequate packaging is essential. Because some of the polynuclear hydrocarbons sought in this test are very susceptible to photo-oxidation, the entire procedure is to be carried out under subdued light. 
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<P><I>Separatory funnels.</I> 250-milliliter, 500-milliliter, 1,000-milliliter, and preferably 2,000-milliliter capacity, equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcocks.
</P>
<P><I>Reservoir.</I> 500-milliliter capacity, equipped with a 24/40 standard taper male fitting at the bottom and a suitable ball-joint at the top for connecting to the nitrogen supply. The male fitting should be equipped with glass hooks.
</P>
<P><I>Chromatographic tube.</I> 180 millimeters in length, inside diameter to be 15.7 millimeters ±0.1 millimeter, equipped with a coarse, fritted-glass disc, a tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock, and a female 24/40 standard tapered fitting at the opposite end. (Overall length of the column with the female joint is 235 millimeters.) The female fitting should be equipped with glass hooks.
</P>
<P><I>Disc.</I> Tetrafluoroethylene polymer 2-inch diameter disc approximately 
<FR>3/16</FR>-inch thick with a hole bored in the center to closely fit the stem of the chromatographic tube.
</P>
<P><I>Heating jacket.</I> Conical, for 500-milliliter separatory funnel. (Used with variable transformer heat control.)
</P>
<P><I>Suction flask.</I> 250-milliliter or 500-milliliter filter flask.
</P>
<P><I>Condenser.</I> 24/40 joints, fitted with a drying tube, length optional.
</P>
<P><I>Evaporation flask</I> (<I>optional</I>). 250-milliliter or 500-milliliter capacity all-glass flask equipped with standard taper stopper having inlet and outlet tubes to permit passage of nitrogen across the surface of contained liquid to be evaporated.
</P>
<P><I>Vacuum distillation assembly.</I> All glass (for purification of dimethyl sulfoxide); 2-liter distillation flask with heating mantle; Vigreaux vacuum-jacketed condenser (or equivalent) about 45 centimeters in length and distilling head with separable cold finger condenser. Use of tetrafluoroethylene polymer sleeves on the glass joints will prevent freezing. Do not use grease on stopcocks or joints.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometric cells.</I> Fused quartz cells, optical path length in the range of 5.000 centimeters ±0.005 centimeter; also for checking spectrophotometer performance only, optical path length in the range 1.000 centimeter ±0.005 centimeter. With distilled water in the cells, determine any absorbance differences.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometer.</I> Spectral range 250 millimicrons-400 millimicrons with spectral slit width of 2 millimicrons or less, under instrument operating conditions for these absorbance measurements, the spectrophotometer shall also meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>Absorbance repeatability, ±0.01 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<P>Absorbance accuracy, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> ±0.05 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As determined by using potassium chromate for reference standard and described in National Bureau of Standards Circular 484, Spectrophotometry, U.S. Department of Commerce, (1949). The accuracy is to be determined by comparison with the standard values at 290, 345, and 400 millimicrons. Circular 484 is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>Wavelength repeatability, ±0.2 millimicron.
</P>
<P>Wavelength accuracy, ±1.0 millimicron.
</P>
<P><I>Nitrogen cylinder.</I> Water-pumped or equivalent purity nitrogen in cylinder equipped with regulator and valve to control flow at 5 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<HD1>reagents and materials
</HD1>
<P><I>Organic solvents.</I> All solvents used throughout the procedure shall meet the specifications and tests described in this specification. The isooctane, benzene, acetone, and methyl alcohol designated in the list following this paragraph shall pass the following test:
</P>
<P>To the specified quantity of solvent in a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask, add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane and evaporate on the steam bath under a stream of nitrogen (a) loose aluminum foil jacket around the flask will speed evaporation). Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. (To the residue from benzene add a 10-milliliter portion of purified isooctane, reevaporate, and repeat once to insure complete removal of benzene.)
</P>
<P>Alternatively, the evaporation time can be reduced by using the optional evaporation flask. In this case the solvent and <I>n-</I>hexadecane are placed in the flask on the steam bath, the tube assembly is inserted, and a stream of nitrogen is fed through the inlet tube while the outlet tube is connected to a solvent trap and vacuum line in such a way as to prevent any flow-back of condensate into the flask.
</P>
<P>Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane residue in isooctane and make to 25 milliliters volume. Determine the absorbance in the 5-centimeter path length cells compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance of the solution of the solvent residue (except for methyl alcohol) shall not exceed 0.01 per centimeter path length between 280 and 400 mµ. For methyl alcohol this absorbance value shall be 0.00. 
</P>
<P><I>Isooctane</I> (<I>2,2,4-trimethylpentane</I>). Use 180 milliliters for the test described in the preceding paragraph. Purify, if necessary, by passage through a column of activated silica gel (Grade 12, Davison Chemical Company, Baltimore, Maryland, or equivalent) about 90 centimeters in length and 5 centimeters to 8 centimeters in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Benzene, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 150 milliliters for the test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Acetone, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 200 milliliters for the test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation.
</P>
<P>Eluting mixtures:
</P>
<P>1. <I>10 percent benzene in isooctane.</I> Pipet 50 milliliters of benzene into a 500-milliliter glass-stoppered volumetric flask and adjust to volume with isooctane, with mixing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>20 percent benzene in isooctane.</I> Pipet 50 milliliters of benzene into a 250-milliliter glass-stoppered volumetric flask, and adjust to volume with isooctane, with mixing.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Acetone-benzene-water mixture.</I> Add 20 milliliters of water to 380 milliliters of acetone and 200 milliliters of benzene, and mix.
</P>
<P><I>n-Hexadecane, 99 percent olefin-free.</I> Dilute 1.0 milliliter of <I>n-</I>hexadecane to 25 milliliters with isooctane and determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter cell compared to isooctane as reference point between 280 mµ-400 mµ. The absorbance per centimeter path length shall not exceed 0.00 in this range. Purify, if necessary, by percolation through activated silica gel or by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Methyl alcohol, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 10.0 milliliters of methyl alcohol. Purify, if necessary, by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Dimethyl sulfoxide.</I> Pure grade, clear, water-white, m.p. 18° minimum. Dilute 120 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide with 240 milliliters of distilled water in a 500-milliliter separatory funnel, mix and allow to cool for 5-10 minutes. Add 40 milliliters of isooctane to the solution and extract by shaking the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Draw off the lower aqueous layer into a second 500-milliliter separatory funnel and repeat the extraction with 40 milliliters of isooctane. Draw off and discard the aqueous layer. Wash each of the 40-milliliter extractives three times with 50-milliliter portions of distilled water. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Discard the aqueous layers. Filter the first extractive through anhydrous sodium sulfate prewashed with isooctane (see <I>Sodium sulfate under</I> “Reagents and Materials” for preparation of filter), into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask, or optionally into the evaporating flask. Wash the first separatory funnel with the second 40-milliliter isooctane extractive, and pass through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Then wash the second and first separatory funnels successively with a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane, and pass the solvent through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n-</I>hexadecane and evaporate the isooctane on the steam bath under nitrogen. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. To the residue, add a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane and reevaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane. Again, add 10 milliliters of isooctane to the residue and evaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane to insure complete removal of all volatile materials. Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane in isooctane and make to 25-milliliter volume. Determine the reference. The absorbance of the solution should not exceed 0.02 per centimeter path length in the 280 mµ-400 mµ range. (<E T="04">Note.</E> Difficulty in meeting this absorbance specification may be due to organic impurities in the distilled water. Repetition of the test omitting the dimethyl sulfoxide will disclose their presence. If necessary to meet the specification, purify the water by redistillation, passage through an ion-exchange resin, or otherwise.)
</P>
<P>Purify, if necessary, by the following procedure: To 1,500 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide in a 2-liter glass-stoppered flask, add 6.0 milliliters of phosphoric acid and 50 grams of Norit A (decolorizing carbon, alkaline) or equivalent. Stopper the flask, and with the use of a magnetic stirrer (tetrafluoroethylene polymer coated bar) stir the solvent for 15 minutes. Filter the dimethyl sulfoxide through four thicknesses of fluted paper (18.5 centimeters, Schleicher &amp; Schuell, No. 597, or equivalent). If the initial filtrate contains carbon fines, refilter through the same filter until a clear filtrate is obtained. Protect the sulfoxide from air and moisture during this operation by covering the solvent in the funnel and collection flask with a layer of isooctane. Transfer the filtrate to a 2-liter separatory funnel and draw off the dimethyl sulfoxide into the 2-liter distillation flask of the vacuum distillation assembly and distill at approximately 3-millimeter Hg pressure or less. Discard the first 200-milliliter fraction of the distillate and replace the distillate collection flask with a clean one. Continue the distillation until approximately 1 liter of the sulfoxide has been collected.
</P>
<P>At completion of the distillation, the reagent should be stored in glass-stoppered bottles since it is very hygroscopic and will react with some metal containers in the presence of air.
</P>
<P><I>Phosphoric acid.</I> 85 percent A.C.S. reagent grade.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium borohydride.</I> 98 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Magnesium oxide</I> (<I>Sea Sorb 43, Food Machinery Company, Westvaco Division, distributed by chemical supply firms, or equivalent</I>). Place 100 grams of the magnesium oxide in a large beaker, add 700 milliliters of distilled water to make a thin slurry, and heat on a steam bath for 30 minutes with intermittent stirring. Stir well initially to insure that all the absorbent is completely wetted. Using a Buchner funnel and a filter paper (Schleicher &amp; Schuell No. 597, or equivalent) of suitable diameter, filter with suction. Continue suction until water no longer drips from the funnel. Transfer the absorbent to a glass trough lined with aluminum foil (free from rolling oil). Break up the magnesia with a clean spatula and spread out the absorbent on the aluminum foil in a layer about 1 centimeter to 2 centimeters thick. Dry for 24 hours at 160 °C ±1 °C. Pulverize the magnesia with mortar and pestle. Sieve the pulverized absorbent between 60-180 mesh. Use the magnesia retained on the 180-mesh sieve.
</P>
<P><I>Celite 545.</I> Johns-Manville Company, diatomaceous earth, or equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Magnesium oxide-Celite 545 mixture</I> (<I>2</I> + <I>1</I>) <I>by weight.</I> Place the magnesium oxide (60-180 mesh) and the Celite 545 in 2 to 1 proportions, respectively, by weight in a glass-stoppered flask large enough for adequate mixing. Shake vigorously for 10 minutes. Transfer the mixture to a glass trough lined with aluminum foil (free from rolling oil) and spread it out on a layer about 1 centimeter to 2 centimeters thick. Reheat the mixture at 160 °C ±1 °C for 2 hours, and store in a tightly closed flask.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium sulfate, anhydrous, A.C.S. reagent grade, preferably in granular form.</I> For each bottle of sodium sulfate reagent used, establish as follows the necessary sodium sulfate prewash to provide such filters required in the method: Place approximately 35 grams of anhydrous sodium sulfate in a 30-milliliter coarse, fritted-glass funnel or in a 65-millimeter filter funnel with glass wool plug; wash with successive 15-milliliter portions of the indicated solvent until a 15-milliliter portion of the wash shows 0.00 absorbance per centimeter path length between 280 mµ and 400 mµ when tested as prescribed under “Organic solvents.” Usually three portions of wash solvent are sufficient.
</P>
<P>Before proceeding with analysis of a sample, determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter path cell between 250 mµ and 400 mµ for the reagent blank by carrying out the procedure, without a wax sample, at room temperature, recording the spectra after the extraction stage and after the complete procedure as prescribed. The absorbance per centimeter path length following the extraction stage should not exceed 0.040 in the wavelength range from 280 mµ to 400 mµ; the absorbance per centimeter path length following the complete procedure should not exceed 0.070 in the wavelength range from 280 mµ to 299 mµ, inclusive, nor 0.045 in the wavelength range from 300 mµ to 400 mµ. If in either spectrum the characteristic benzene peaks in the 250 mµ-260 mµ region are present, remove the benzene by the procedure under “Organic solvents” and record absorbance again.
</P>
<P>Place 300 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide in a 1-liter separatory funnel and add 75 milliliters of phosphoric acid. Mix the contents of the funnel and allow to stand for 10 minutes. (The reaction between the sulfoxide and the acid is exothermic. Release pressure after mixing, then keep funnel stoppered.) Add 150 milliliters of isooctane and shake to preequilibrate the solvents. Draw off the individual layers and store in glass-stoppered flasks.
</P>
<P>Place a representative 1-kilogram sample of wax, or if this amount is not available, the entire sample, in a beaker of a capacity about three times the volume of the sample and heat with occasional stirring on a steam bath until the wax is completely melted and homogeneous. Weigh four 25-gram ±0.2 gram portions of the melted wax in separate 100-milliliter beakers. Reserve three of the portions for later replicate analyses as necessary. Pour one weighed portion immediately after remelting (on the steam bath) into a 500-milliliter separatory funnel containing 100 milliliters of the preequilibrated sulfoxide-phosphoric acid mixture that has been heated in the heating jacket at a temperature just high enough to keep the wax melted. (<E T="04">Note:</E> In preheating the sulfoxide-acid mixture, remove the stopper of the separatory funnel at intervals to release the pressure.)
</P>
<P>Promptly complete the transfer of the sample to the funnel in the jacket with portions of the preequilibrated isooctane, warming the beaker, if necessary, and using a total volume of just 50 milliliters of the solvent. If the wax comes out of solution during these operations, let the stoppered funnel remain in the jacket until the wax redissolves. (Remove stopper from the funnel at intervals to release pressure.) When the wax is in solution, remove the funnel from the jacket and shake it vigorously for 2 minutes. Set up three 250-milliliter separatory funnels with each containing 30 milliliters of preequilibrated isooctane. After separation of the liquid phases, allow to cool until the main portion of the wax-isooctane solution begins to show a precipitate. Gently swirl the funnel when precipitation first occurs on the inside surface of the funnel to accelerate this process. Carefully draw off the lower layer, filter it slowly through a thin layer of glass wool fitted loosely in a filter funnel into the first 250-milliliter separatory funnel, and wash in tandem with the 30-milliliter portions of isooctane contained in the 250-milliliter separatory funnels. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Repeat the extraction operation with two additional portions of the sulfoxide-acid mixture, replacing the funnel in the jacket after each extraction to keep the wax in solution and washing each extractive in tandem through the same three portions of isooctane. 
</P>
<P>Collect the successive extractives (300 milliliters total) in a separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter), containing 480 milliliters of distilled water, mix, and allow to cool for a few minutes after the last extractive has been added. Add 80 milliliters of isooctane to the solution and extract by shaking the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Draw off the lower aqueous layer into a second separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter) and repeat the extraction with 80 milliliters of isooctane. Draw off and discard the aqueous layer. Wash each of the 80-milliliter extractives three times with 100-milliliter portions of distilled water. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Discard the aqueous layers. Filter the first extractive through anhydrous sodium sulfate prewashed with isooctane (see <I>Sodium Sulfate</I> under “Reagents and Materials” for preparation of filter) into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask (or optionally into the evaporation flask). Wash the first separatory funnel with the second 80-milliliter isooctane extractive and pass through the sodium sulfate. Then wash the second and first separatory funnels successively with a 20-milliliter portion of isooctane and pass the solvent through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n-</I>hexadecane and evaporate the isooctane on the steam bath under nitrogen. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. To the residue, add a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane, reevaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane, and repeat this operation once.
</P>
<P>Quantitatively transfer the residue with isooctane to a 25-milliliter volumetric flask, make to volume, and mix. Determine the absorbance of the solution in the 5-centimeter path length cells compared to isooctane as reference between 280 mµ-400 mµ (take care to lose none of the solution in filling the sample cell). Correct the absorbance values for any absorbance derived from reagents as determined by carrying out the procedure without a wax sample. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits prescribed in this paragraph (b), the wax meets the ultraviolet absorbance specifications. If the corrected absorbance per centimeter path length exceeds the limits prescribed in this paragraph (b), proceed as follows:
</P>
<P>Quantitatively transfer the isooctane solution to a 125-milliliter flask equipped with 24/40 joint and evaporate the isooctane on the steam bath under a stream of nitrogen to a volume of 1 milliliter of hexadecane. Add 10 milliliters of methyl alcohol and approximately 0.3 gram of sodium borohydride. (Minimize exposure of the borohydride to the atmosphere. A measuring dipper may be used.) Immediately fit a water-cooled condenser equipped with a 24/40 joint and with a drying tube into the flask, mix until the borohydride is dissolved, and allow to stand for 30 minutes at room temperature, with intermittent swirling. At the end of this period, disconnect the flask and evaporate the methyl alcohol on the steam bath under nitrogen until the sodium borohydride begins to come out of the solution. Then add 10 milliliters of isooctane and evaporate to a volume of about 2-3 milliliters. Again, add 10 milliliters of isooctane and concentrate to a volume of approximately 5 milliliters. Swirl the flask repeatedly to assure adequate washing of the sodium borohydride residues.
</P>
<P>Fit the tetrafluoroethylene polymer disc on the upper part of the stem of the chromatographic tube, then place the tube with the disc on the suction flask and apply the vacuum (approximately 135 millimeters Hg pressure). Weight out 14 grams of the 2:1 magnesium oxide-Celite 545 mixture and pour the adsorbent mixture into the chromatographic tube in approximately 3-centimeter layers. After the addition of each layer, level off the top of the adsorbent with a flat glass rod or metal plunger by pressing down firmly until the adsorbent is well packed. Loosen the topmost few millimeters of each adsorbent layer with the end of a metal rod before the addition of the next layer. Continue packing in this manner until all the 14 grams of the adsorbent is added to the tube. Level off the top of the adsorbent by pressing down firmly with a flat glass rod or metal plunger to make the depth of the adsorbent bed approximately 12.5 centimeters in depth. Turn off the vacuum and remove the suction flask. Fit the 500-milliliter reservoir onto the top of the chromatographic column and prewet the column by passing 100 milliliters of isooctane through the column. Adjust the nitrogen pressure so that the rate of descent of the isooctane coming off of the column is between 2-3 milliliters per minute. Discontinue pressure just before the last of the isooctane reaches the level of the adsorbent. (<E T="04">Caution:</E> Do not allow the liquid level to recede below the adsorbent level at any time.) Remove the reservoir and decant the 5-milliliter isooctane concentrate solution onto the column and with slight pressure again allow the liquid level to recede to barely above the adsorbent level. Rapidly complete the transfer similarly with two 5-milliliter portions of isooctane, swirling the flask repeatedly each time to assure adequate washing of the residue. Just before the final 5-milliliter wash reaches the top of the adsorbent, add 100 milliliters of isooctane to the reservoir and continue the percolation at the 2-3 milliliter per minute rate. Just before the last of the isooctane reaches the adsorbent level, add 100 milliliters of 10 percent benzene in isooctane to the reservoir and continue the percolation at the aforementioned rate. Just before the solvent mixture reaches adsorbent level, add 25 milliliters of 20 percent benzene in isooctane to the reservoir and continue the percolation at 2-3 milliliters per minute until all this solvent mixture has been removed from the column. Discard all the elution solvents collected up to this point. Add 300 milliliters of the acetone-benzene-water mixture to the reservoir and percolate through the column to elute the polynuclear compounds. Collect the eluate in a clean 1-liter separatory funnel. Allow the column to drain until most of the solvent mixture is removed. Wash the eluate three times with 300-milliliter portions of distilled water, shaking well for each wash. (The addition of small amounts of sodium chloride facilitates separation.) Discard the aqueous layer after each wash. After the final separation, filter the residual benzene through anhydrous sodium sulfate prewashed with benzene (see <I>Sodium sulfate</I> under “Reagents and Materials” for preparation of filter) into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask (or optionally into the evaporation flask). Wash the separatory funnel with two additional 20-milliliter portions of benzene which are also filtered through the sodium sulfate. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n-</I>hexadecane and completely remove the benzene by evaporation under nitrogen, using the special procedure to eliminate benzene as previously described under “Organic Solvents.” Quantitatively transfer the residue with isooctane to a 25-milliliter volumetric flask and adjust to volume. Determine the absorbance of the solution in the 5-centimeter path length cells compared to isooctane as reference between 250 mµ-400 mµ. Correct for any absorbance derived from the reagents as determined by carrying out the procedure without a wax sample. If either spectrum shows the characteristic benzene peaks in the 250 mµ-260 mµ region, evaporate the solution to remove benzene by the procedure under “Organic Solvents.” Dissolve the residue, transfer quantitatively, and adjust to volume in isooctane in a 25-milliliter volumetric flask. Record the absorbance again. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits prescribed in this paragraph (b), the wax meets the ultraviolet absorbance specifications.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Petroleum wax may contain one or more of the following adjuvants in amounts not greater than that required to produce their intended effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Antioxidants permitted in food by regulations issued in accordance with section 409 of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Poly(alkylacrylate) (CAS Reg. No. 27029-57-8), made from long chain (C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">22</E>) alcohols and acrylic acid, or poly(alkylmethacrylate) (CAS Reg. No. 179529-36-3), made from long chain (C<E T="52">18</E>-C<E T="52">22</E>) methacrylate esters, having:
</P>
<P>(i) A number average molecular weight between 40,000 and 100,000;
</P>
<P>(ii) A weight average molecular weight (MW<E T="52">w</E>) to number average molecular weight (MW<E T="52">n</E>) ratio (MW<E T="52">w</E>/MW<E T="52">n</E>) of not less than 3; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Unreacted alkylacrylate or alkylmethacrylate monomer content not in excess of 14 percent, as determined by a method entitled “Method for Determining Weight-Average and Number-Average Molecular Weight and for Determining Alkylacrylate Monomer Content of Poly(alkylacrylate) used as Processing Aid in Manufacture of Petroleum Wax,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Petroleum wax shall contain not more than 1,050 parts per million of poly(alkylacrylate) or poly(alkylmethacrylate) residues as determined by a method entitled “Method for Determining Residual Level of Poly(alkylacrylate) in Petroleum Wax,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the addresses cited in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) Petroleum wax is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In chewing gum base, as a masticatory substance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On cheese and raw fruits and vegetables as a protective coating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a defoamer in food</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In accordance with § 173.340 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a component of microcapsules for spice-flavoring substances</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In accordance with § 172.230 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 48123, July 18, 1980; 47 FR 11838, Mar. 19, 1982; 50 FR 32561, Aug. 13, 1985; 51 FR 19544, May 30, 1986; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 64 FR 44122, Aug. 13, 1999; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5592, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.888" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.888   Synthetic petroleum wax.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic petroleum wax may be safely used in or on foods in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Synthetic petroleum wax is a mixture of solid hydrocarbons, paraffinic in nature, prepared by either catalytic polymerization of ethylene or copolymerization of ethylene with linear (C<E T="52">3</E> to C<E T="52">12</E>) alpha-olefins, and refined to meet the specifications prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Synthetic petroleum wax meets the ultraviolet absorbance limits of § 172.886(b) when subjected to the analytical procedure described therein.
</P>
<P>(c) Synthetic petroleum wax has a number average molecular weight of not less than 500 nor greater than 1,200 as determined by vapor pressure osmometry.
</P>
<P>(d) Synthetic petroleum wax may contain any antioxidant permitted in food by regulations issued in accordance with section 409 of the act, in an amount not greater than that required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(e) Synthetic petroleum wax is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In chewing gum base, as a masticatory substance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In accordance with § 172.615 in an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On cheese and raw fruits and vegetables as a protective coating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a defoamer in food</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In accordance with § 173.340 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 59 FR 10986, Mar. 9, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.890" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.890   Rice bran wax.</HEAD>
<P>Rice bran wax may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is the refined wax obtained from rice bran and meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Melting point 75 °C to 80 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Free fatty acids, maximum 10 percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine number, maximum 20.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saponification number 75 to 120.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation in food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Candy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 p.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fresh fruits and fresh vegetables</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chewing gum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>1/2</fr> pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plasticizing material.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.892" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.892   Food starch-modified.</HEAD>
<P>Food starch-modified as described in this section may be safely used in food. The quantity of any substance employed to effect such modification shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect, nor exceed any limitation prescribed. To insure safe use of the food starch-modified, the label of the food additive container shall bear the name of the additive “food starch-modified” in addition to other information required by the Act. Food starch may be modified by treatment prescribed as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Food starch may be acid-modified by treatment with hydrochloric acid or sulfuric acid or both.
</P>
<P>(b) Food starch may be bleached by treatment with one or more of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Active oxygen obtained from hydrogen peroxide and/or peracetic acid, not to exceed 0.45 percent of active oxygen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium persulfate, not to exceed 0.075 percent and sulfur dioxide, not to exceed 0.05 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine, as calcium hypochlorite, not to exceed 0.036 percent of dry starch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The finished food starch-modified is limited to use only as a component of batter for commercially processed foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine, as sodium hypochlorite, not to exceed 0.0082 pound of chlorine per pound of dry starch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium permanganate, not to exceed 0.2 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual manganese (calculated as Mn), not to exceed 50 parts per million in food starch-modified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chlorite, not to exceed 0.5 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Food starch may be oxidized by treatment with chlorine, as sodium hypochlorite, not to exceed 0.055 pound of chlorine per pound of dry starch.
</P>
<P>(d) Food starch may be esterified by treatment with one of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acetyl groups in food starch-modified not to exceed 2.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adipic anhydride, not to exceed 0.12 percent, and acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monosodium orthophosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual phosphate in food starch-modified not to exceed 0.4 percent calculated as phosphorus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Octenyl succinic anhydride, not to exceed 3 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Octenyl succinic anhydride, not to exceed 2 percent, and aluminum sulfate, not to exceed 2 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Octenyl succinic anhydride, not to exceed 3 percent, followed by treatment with a <E T="03">beta</E>-amylase enzyme that is either an approved food additive of is generally recognized as safe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limited to use as a stabilizer or emulsifier in beverages and beverage bases as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus oxychloride, not to exceed 0.1 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus oxychloride, not to exceed 0.1 percent, followed by either acetic anhydride, not to exceed 8 percent, or vinyl acetate, not to exceed 7.5 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acetyl groups in food starch-modified not to exceed 2.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium trimetaphosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual phosphate in food starch-modified not to exceed 0.04 percent, calculated as phosphorus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium tripolyphosphate and sodium trimetaphosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual phosphate in food starch-modified not to exceed 0.4 percent calculated as phosphorus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Succinic anhydride, not to exceed 4 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acetyl groups in food starch-modified not to exceed 2.5 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) Food starch may be etherified by treatment with one of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrolein, not to exceed 0.6 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin, not to exceed 0.3 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin, not to exceed 0.1 percent, and propylene oxide, not to exceed 10 percent, added in combination or in any sequence</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual propylene chlorohydrin not more than 5 parts per million in food starch-modified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin, not to exceed 0.1 percent, followed by propylene oxide, not to exceed 25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene oxide, not to exceed 25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) Food starch may be esterified and etherified by treatment with one of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrolein, not to exceed 0.6 percent and vinyl acetate, not to exceed 7.5 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acetyl groups in food starch-modified not to exceed 2.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin, not to exceed 0.3 percent, and acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acetyl groups in food starch-modified not to exceed 2.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin, not to exceed 0.3 percent, and succinic anhydride, not to exceed 4 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus oxychloride, not to exceed 0.1 percent, and propylene oxide, not to exceed 10 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual propylene chlorohydrin not more than 5 parts per million in food starch-modified.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) Food starch may be modified by treatment with one of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine, as sodium hypochlorite, not to exceed 0.055 pound of chlorine per pound of dry starch; 0.45 percent of active oxygen obtained from hydrogen peroxide; and propylene oxide, not to exceed 25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual propylene chlorohydrin not more than 5 parts per million in food starch-modified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hydroxide, not to exceed 1 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) Food starch may be modified by a combination of the treatments prescribed by paragraphs (a), (b), and/or (i) of this section and any one of the treatments prescribed by paragraph (c), (d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, subject to any limitations prescribed by the paragraphs named.
</P>
<P>(i) Food starch may be modified by treatment with the following enzymes:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enzyme
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha-amylase (E.C. 3.2.1.1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The enzyme must be generally recognized as safe or approved as a food additive for this purpose. The resulting nonsweet nutritive saccharide polymer has a dextrose equivalent of less than 20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beta-amylase (E.C. 3.2.1.2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glucoamylase (E.C. 3.2.1.3)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isoamylase (E.C. 3.2.1.68)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pullulanase (E.C. 3.2.1.41)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 11697, Mar. 21, 1978; 46 FR 32015, June 19, 1981; 57 FR 54700, Nov. 20, 1992; 58 FR 21100, Apr. 19, 1993; 66 FR 17509, Apr. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.894" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.894   Modified cottonseed products intended for human consumption.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive modified cottonseed products may be used for human consumption in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is derived from:
</P>
<P>(1) Decorticated, partially defatted, cooked, ground cottonseed kernels; or
</P>
<P>(2) Decorticated, ground cottonseed kernels, in a process that utilizes <I>n-</I>hexane as an extracting solvent in such a way that no more than 60 parts per million of <I>n-</I>hexane residues and less than 1 percent fat by weight remain in the finished product; or
</P>
<P>(3) Glandless cottonseed kernels roasted to attain a temperature of not less than 250 °F in the kernel for not less than 5 minutes for use as a snack food, or in baked goods, or in soft candy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Raw glandless cottonseed kernels may be used in hard candy where the kernel temperature during cooking will exceed 250 °F for not less than 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is prepared to meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Free gossypol content not to exceed 450 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(2) It contains no added arsenic compound and therefore may not exceed a maximum natural background level of 0.2 part per million total arsenic, calculated as As.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to other information required by the act, the name of the additive as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as “partially defatted, cooked cottonseed flour”.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as “defatted cottonseed flour”.
</P>
<P>(3) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as “roasted glandless cottonseed kernels”.
</P>
<P>(4) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section as “raw glandless cottonseed kernels for use in cooked hard candy”.
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration and the Environmental Protection Agency have determined that glandless cottonseed kernels permitted for use by this section are a distinct commodity from glanded cottonseed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.896" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.896   Dried yeasts.</HEAD>
<P>Dried yeast (<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I> and <I>Saccharomyces fragilis</I>) and dried torula yeast (<I>Candida utilis</I>) may be safely used in food provided the total folic acid content of the yeast does not exceed 0.04 milligram per gram of yeast (approximately 0.008 milligram of pteroyglutamic acid per gram of yeast).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 172.898" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.3.9.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 172.898   Bakers yeast glycan.</HEAD>
<P>Bakers yeast glycan may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Bakers yeast glycan is the comminuted, washed, pasteurized, and dried cell walls of the yeast, <I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae.</I> It is composed principally of long chain carbohydrates, not less than 85 percent on a dry solids basis. The carbohydrate is composed of glycan and mannan units in approximately a 2:1 ratio.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications on a dry weight basis: Less than 0.4 part per million (ppm) arsenic, 0.13 ppm cadmium, 0.2 ppm lead, 0.05 ppm mercury, 0.09 ppm selenium, and 10 ppm zinc.
</P>
<P>(c) The viable microbial content of the finished ingredient is:
</P>
<P>(1) Less than 10,000 organisms/gram by aerobic plate count.
</P>
<P>(2) Less than 10 yeasts and molds/gram.
</P>
<P>(3) Negative for <I>Salmonella, E. coli,</I> coagulase positive <I>Staphylococci, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium botulinum,</I> or any other recognized microbial pathogen or any harmful microbial toxin.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is used or intended for use in the following foods when standards of identity established under section 401 of the Act do not preclude such use:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) In salad dressings as an emulsifier and emulsifier salt as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter, stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, or texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed a concentration of 5 percent of the finished salad dressing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) In frozen dessert analogs as a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, or texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) In sour cream analogs as a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, or texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) In cheese spread analogs as a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, or texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) In cheese-flavored and sour cream-flavored snack dips as a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, or texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) The label and labeling of the ingredient shall bear adequate directions to assure that use of the ingredient complies with this regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 58836, Sept. 5, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="173" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 173—SECONDARY DIRECT FOOD ADDITIVES PERMITTED IN FOOD FOR HUMAN CONSUMPTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 173 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; and 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Polymer Substances and Polymer Adjuvants for Food Treatment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.5" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.5   Acrylate-acrylamide resins.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylate-acrylamide resins may be safely used in food under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive consists of one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Acrylamide-acrylic acid resin (hydrolyzed polyacrylamide) is produced by the polymerization of acrylamide with partial hydrolysis, or by copolymerization of acrylamide and acrylic acid, with the greater part of the polymer being composed of acrylamide units.
</P>
<P>(2) Sodium polyacrylate-acrylamide resin is produced by the polymerization and subsequent hydrolysis of acrylonitrile in a sodium silicate-sodium hydroxide aqueous solution, with the greater part of the polymer being composed of acrylate units. 
</P>
<P>(b) The additive contains not more than 0.05 percent of residual monomer calculated as acrylamide.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is used as a flocculent in the clarification of beet sugar juice and liquor or cane sugar juice and liquor or corn starch hydrolyzate in an amount not to exceed 5 parts per million by weight of the juice or 10 parts per million by weight of the liquor or the corn starch hydrolyzate.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used to control organic and mineral scale in beet sugar juice and liquor or cane sugar juice and liquor in an amount not to exceed 2.5 parts per million by weight of the juice or liquor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 30494, June 9, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.10" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.10   Modified polyacrylamide resin.</HEAD>
<P>Modified polyacrylamide resin may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The modified polyacrylamide resin is produced by the copolymerization of acrylamide with not more than 5-mole percent β-methacrylyloxyethy-ltrimethylammonium methyl sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) The modified polyacrylamide resin contains not more than 0.05 percent residual acrylamide.
</P>
<P>(c) The modified polyacrylamide resin is used as a flocculent in the clarification of beet or cane sugar juice in an amount not exceeding 5 parts per million by weight of the juice.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, adequate directions to assure use in compliance with paragraph (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.20" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.20   Ion-exchange membranes.</HEAD>
<P>Ion-exchange membranes may be safely used in the processing of food under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The ion-exchange membrane is prepared by subjecting a polyethylene base conforming to § 177.1520 of this chapter to polymerization with styrene until the polystyrene phase of the base is not less than 16 percent nor more than 30 percent by weight. The base is then modified by reaction with chloromethyl methyl ether, and by subsequent amination with trimethylamine, dimethylamine, diethylenetriamine, or dimethylethanolamine.
</P>
<P>(b) The ion-exchange membrane is manufactured so as to comply with the following extraction limitations when subjected to the described procedure: Separate square-foot samples of membrane weighing approximately 14 grams each are cut into small pieces and refluxed for 4 hours in 150 cubic centimeters of the following solvents: Distilled water, 5 percent acetic acid, and 50 percent alcohol. Extraction from each sample will not exceed 0.4 percent by weight of sample.
</P>
<P>(c) The ion-exchange membrane will be used in the production of grapefruit juice to adjust the ratio of citric acid to total solids of the grapefruit juice produced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.21" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.21   Perfluorinated ion exchange membranes.</HEAD>
<P>Substances identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as ion exchange membranes intended for use in the treatment of bulk quantities of liquid food under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The membrane is a copolymer of ethanesulfonyl fluoride, 2-[1-[difluoro-[(trifluoroethenyl)oxy]methyl]-1,2,2,2-tetrafluoroethoxy]-1,1,2,2,-tetrafluoro-, with tetrafluoroethylene that has been subsequently treated to hydrolyze the sulfonyl fluoride group to the sulfonic acid. The Chemical Abstracts Service name of this polymer is ethanesulfonic acid, 2-[1-[difluoro-[(trifluoroethenyl)oxy]methyl]-1,2,2,2-tetrafluoroethoxy]-1,1,2,2,-tetrafluoro-, polymer with tetrafluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 31175-20-9).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic polymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic polymer. These optional adjuvant substances may include substances used in accordance with § 174.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) Perfluorinated ion exchange membranes described in paragraph (a) of this section may be used in contact with all types of liquid foods at temperatures not exceeding 70° (158 °F).
</P>
<P>(2) Maximum thickness of the copolymer membrane is 0.007 inch (0.017 centimeter).
</P>
<P>(3) Perfluorinated ion exchange membranes shall be maintained in a sanitary manner in accordance with current good manufacturing practice so as to prevent microbial adulteration of food.
</P>
<P>(4) To assure their safe use, perfluorinated ionomer membranes shall be thoroughly cleaned prior to their first use in accordance with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15623, Apr. 4, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.25" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.25   Ion-exchange resins.</HEAD>
<P>Ion-exchange resins may be safely used in the treatment of food under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The ion-exchange resins are prepared in appropriate physical form, and consist of one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Sulfonated copolymer of styrene and divinylbenzene.
</P>
<P>(2) Sulfonated anthracite coal meeting the requirements of ASTM method D388-38, Class I, Group 2, “Standard Specifications for Classification of Coal by Rank,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from University Microfilms International, 300 N. Zeeb Rd., Ann Arbor, MI 48106, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) Sulfite-modified cross-linked phenol-formaldehyde, with modification resulting in sulfonic acid groups on side chains.
</P>
<P>(4) Methacrylic acid-divinylbenzene copolymer.
</P>
<P>(5) Cross-linked polystyrene, first chloromethylated then aminated with trimethylamine, dimethylamine, di-ethylenetriamine, or dimethylethanol-amine.
</P>
<P>(6) Diethylenetriamine, triethylene-tetramine, or tetraethylenepentamine cross-linked with epichlorohydrin.
</P>
<P>(7) Cross-linked phenol-formaldehyde activated with one or both of the following: Triethylene tetramine and tetraethylenepentamine.
</P>
<P>(8) Reaction resin of formaldehyde, acetone, and tetraethylenepentamine.
</P>
<P>(9) Completely hydrolyzed copolymers of methyl acrylate and divinylbenzene.
</P>
<P>(10) Completely hydrolyzed terpolymers of methyl acrylate, divinylbenzene, and acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>(11) Sulfonated terpolymers of styrene, divinylbenzene, and acrylonitrile or methyl acrylate.
</P>
<P>(12) Methyl acrylate-divinylbenzene copolymer containing not less than 2 percent by weight of divinylbenzene, aminolyzed with dimethylaminopro-pylamine.
</P>
<P>(13) Methyl acrylate-divinylbenzene copolymer containing not less than 3.5 percent by weight of divinylbenzene, aminolyzed with dimethylaminopro-pylamine.
</P>
<P>(14) Epichlorohydrin cross-linked with ammonia.
</P>
<P>(15) Sulfonated tetrapolymer of styrene, divinylbenzene, acrylonitrile, and methyl acrylate derived from a mixture of monomers containing not more than a total of 2 percent by weight of acrylonitrile and methyl acrylate.
</P>
<P>(16) Methyl acrylate-divinylbenzenediethylene glycol divinyl ether terpolymer containing not less than 3.5 percent by weight of divinylbenzene and not more than 0.6 percent by weight of diethylene glycol divinyl ether, aminolyzed with dimethylaminopropylamine.
</P>
<P>(17) Styrene-divinylbenzene cross-linked copolymer, first chloromethylated then aminated with dimethylamine and oxidized with hydrogen peroxide whereby the resin contains not more than 15 percent by weight of vinyl <I>N,N-</I>dimethylbenzylamine<I>-N-</I>oxide and not more than 6.5 percent by weight of nitrogen.
</P>
<P>(18) Methyl acrylate-divinylbenzene-diethylene glycol divinyl ether terpolymer containing not less than 7 percent by weight of divinylbenzene and not more than 2.3 percent by weight of diethylene glycol divinyl ether, aminolyzed with dimethylaminopropylamine and quaternized with methyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(19) Epichlorohydrin cross-linked with ammonia and then quaternized with methyl chloride to contain not more than 18 percent strong base capacity by weight of total exchange capacity [Chemical Abstracts Service name: Oxirane (chloromethyl)-, polymer with ammonia, reaction product with chloromethane; CAS Reg. No. 68036-99-7].
</P>
<P>(20) Regenerated cellulose, cross-linked and alkylated with epichlorohydrin and propylene oxide, then sulfonated whereby the amount of epichlorohydrin plus propylene oxide employed does not exceed 250 percent by weight of the starting quantity of cellulose.
</P>
<P>(b) Ion-exchange resins are used in the purification of foods, including potable water, to remove undesirable ions or to replace less desirable ions with one or more of the following: bicarbonate, calcium, carbonate, chloride, hydrogen, hydroxyl, magnesium, potassium, sodium, and sulfate except that: The ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(12) of this section is used only in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(13) of this section is used only in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the resin identified in paragraph (a)(16) of this section is used only in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, the ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(17) of this section is used only in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(18) of this section is used only in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and the ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(20) of this section is used only in accordance with paragraphs (b)(5) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The ion-exchange resins identified in paragraphs (a)(12) and (16) of this section are used to treat water for use in the manufacture of distilled alcoholic beverages, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The water is subjected to treatment through a mixed bed consisting of one of the resins identified in paragraph (a)(12) or (16) of this section and one of the strongly acidic cation-exchange resins in the hydrogen form identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (11) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The water is first subjected to one of the resins identified in paragraph (a)(12) or (16) of this section and is subsequently subjected to treatment through a bed of activated carbon or one of the strongly acidic cation-exchange resins in the hydrogen form identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The temperature of the water passing through the resin beds identified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section is maintained at 30 °C or less, and the flow rate of the water passing through the beds is not less than 2 gallons per cubic foot per minute.
</P>
<P>(iv) The ion-exchange resins identified in paragraph (a)(12) or (16) of this section are exempted from the requirements of paragraph (c)(4) of this section, but the strongly acidic cation-exchange resins referred to in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section used in the process meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(4) of this section, except for the exemption described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The ion-exchange resins identified in paragraphs (a)(13) and (16) of this section are used to treat water and aqueous food only of the types identified under Categories I, II, and VI-B in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter: <I>Provided,</I> That the temperature of the water or food passing through the resin beds is maintained at 50 °C or less and the flow rate of the water or food passing through the beds is not less than 0.5 gallon per cubic foot per minute.
</P>
<P>(i) The ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(13) of this section is used to treat water and aqueous food only of the types identified under categories I, II, and VI-B in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter: <I>Provided,</I> That the temperature of the water or food passing through the resin bed is maintained at 50 °C or less and the flow rate of the water or food passing through the bed is not less than 0.5 gallon per cubic foot per minute.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(16) of this section is used to treat water and aqueous food only of the types identified under categories I, II, and VI-B in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, <I>Provided,</I> that either:
</P>
<P>(A) The temperature of the water or food passing through the resin bed is maintained at 50 °C or less and the flow rate of the water or food passing through the bed is not less than 0.5 gallon per cubic foot per minute; or
</P>
<P>(B) Extracts of the resin will be found to contain no more than 1 milligram/kilogram dimethylaminopropylamine in each of the food simulants, distilled water and 10 percent ethanol, when, following washing and pretreatment of the resin in accordance with § 173.25(c)(1), the resin is subjected to the following test under conditions simulating the actual temperature and flow rate of use: “The Determination of 3-Dimethylaminopropylamine in Food Simulating Extracts of Ion Exchange Resins,” February 4, 1998, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(17) of this section is used only for industrial application to treat bulk quantities of aqueous food, including potable water, or for treatment of municipal water supplies, subject to the condition that the temperature of the food or water passing through the resin bed is maintained at 25 °C or less and the flow rate of the food or water passing through the bed is not less than 2 gallons per cubic foot per minute. 
</P>
<P>(4) The ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(18) of this section is used to treat aqueous sugar solutions subject to the condition that the temperature of the sugar solution passing through the resin bed is maintained at 82 °C (179.6 °F) or less and the flow rate of the sugar solution passing through the bed is not less than 46.8 liters per cubic meter (0.35 gallon per cubic foot) of resin bed volume per minute.
</P>
<P>(5) The ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(20) of this section is limited to use in aqueous process streams for the isolation and purification of protein concentrates and isolates under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) For resins that comply with the requirements in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the pH range for the resin shall be no less than 3.5 and no more than 9, and the temperatures of water and food passing through the resin bed shall not exceed 25 °C.
</P>
<P>(ii) For resins that comply with the requirements in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the pH range for the resin shall be no less than 2 and no more than 10, and the temperatures of water and food passing through the resin shall not exceed 50 °C.
</P>
<P>(c) To insure safe use of ion-exchange resins, each ion-exchange resin will be:
</P>
<P>(1) Subjected to pre-use treatment by the manufacturer and/or the user in accordance with the manufacturer's directions prescribed on the label or labeling accompanying the resins, to guarantee a food-grade purity of ion-exchange resins, in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) Accompanied by label or labeling to include directions for use consistent with the intended functional purpose of the resin.
</P>
<P>(3) Used in compliance with the label or labeling required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Found to result in no more than 1 part per million of organic extractives obtained with each of the named solvents, distilled water, 15 percent alcohol, and 5 percent acetic acid when, having been washed and otherwise treated in accordance with the manufacturer's directions for preparing them for use with food, the ion-exchange resin is subjected to the following test: Using a separate ion-exchange column for each solvent, prepare columns using 50 milliliters of the ready to use ion-exchange resin that is to be tested. While maintaining the highest temperature that will be encountered in use pass through these beds at the rate of 350-450 milliliters per hour the three test solvents distilled water, 15 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol, and 5 percent (by weight) acetic acid. The first liter of effluent from each solvent is discarded, then the next 2 liters are used to determine organic extractives. The 2-liter sample is carefully evaporated to constant weight at 105 °C; this is total extractives. This residue is fired in a muffle furnace at 850 °C to constant weight; this is ash. Total extractives, minus ash equals the organic extractives. If the organic extractives are greater than 1 part per million of the solvent used, a blank should be run on the solvent and a correction should be made by subtracting the total extractives obtained with the blank from the total extractives obtained in the resin test. The solvents used are to be made as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Distilled water (de-ionized water is distilled).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>15 percent ethyl alcohol made by mixing 15 volumes of absolute ethyl alcohol A.C.S. reagent grade, with 85 volumes of distilled de-ionized water.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5 percent acetic acid made by mixing 5 parts by weight of A.C.S. reagent grade glacial acetic acid with 95 parts by weight of distilled de-ionized water.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>In addition to the organic extractives limitation prescribed in this paragraph, the ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(17) of this section, when extracted with each of the named solvents, distilled water, 50 percent alcohol, and 5 percent acetic acid, will be found to result in not more than 7 parts per million of nitrogen extractives (calculated as nitrogen) when the resin in the free-base form is subjected to the following test immediately before each use: Using a separate 1-inch diameter glass ion-exchange column for each solvent, prepare each column using 100 milliliters of ready to use ion-exchange resin that is to be tested. With the bottom outlet closed, fill each ion-exchange column with one of the three solvents at a temperature of 25 °C until the solvent level is even with the top of the resin bed. Seal each column at the top and bottom and store in a vertical position at a temperature of 25 °C. After 96 hours, open the top of each column, drain the solvent into a collection vessel, and analyze each drained solvent and a solvent blank for nitrogen by a standard micro-Kjeldahl method.
</FP>
<P>(d)(1) The ion-exchange resins identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(11), and (a)(15) of this section are exempted from the acetic acid extraction requirement of paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The ion-exchange resin identified in paragraph (a)(20) of this section shall comply either with:
</P>
<P>(i) The extraction requirement in paragraph (c)(4) of this section by using dilute sulfuric acid, pH 3.5 as a substitute for acetic acid; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The extraction requirement in paragraph (c)(4) of this section by using reagent grade hydrochloric acid, diluted to pH 2, as a substitute for acetic acid. The resin shall be found to result in no more than 25 parts per million of organic extractives obtained with each of the following solvents: Distilled water; 15 percent alcohol; and hydrochloric acid, pH 2. Blanks should be run for each of the solvents, and corrections should be made by subtracting the total extractives obtained with the blank from the total extractives obtained in the resin test.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 40181, Aug. 7, 1981; 46 FR 57033, Nov. 20, 1981; 49 FR 28830, July 17, 1984; 56 FR 16268, Apr. 22, 1991; 62 FR 7679, Feb. 20, 1997; 64 FR 14609, Mar. 26, 1999; 64 FR 56173, Oct. 18, 1999; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5592, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.40" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.40   Molecular sieve resins.</HEAD>
<P>Molecular sieve resins may be safely used in the processing of food under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The molecular sieve resins consist of purified dextran having an average molecular weight of 40,000, cross-linked with epichlorohydrin in a ratio of 1 part of dextran to 10 parts of epichlorohydrin, to give a stable three dimensional structure. The resins have a pore size of 2.0 to 3.0 milliliters per gram of dry resin (expressed in terms of water regain), and a particle size of 10 to 300 microns.
</P>
<P>(b) The molecular sieve resins are thoroughly washed with potable water prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(c) Molecular sieve resins are used as the gel filtration media in the final purification of partially delactosed whey. The gel bed shall be maintained in a sanitary manner in accordance with good manufacturing practice so as to prevent microbial build-up on the bed and adulteration of the product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.45" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.45   Polymaleic acid and its sodium salt.</HEAD>
<P>Polymaleic acid (CAS Reg. No. 26099-09-2) and its sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 70247-90-4) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additives have a weight-average molecular weight in the range of 540 to 850 and a number-average molecular weight in the range of 520 to 650, calculated as the acid. Molecular weights shall be determined by a method entitled “Determination of Molecular Weight Distribution of Poly(Maleic) Acid,” March 17, 1992, produced by Ciba-Geigy, Inc., Seven Skyline Dr., Hawthorne, NY 10532-2188, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or are available for inspection at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) The additives may be used, individually or together, in the processing of beet sugar juice and liquor or of cane sugar juice and liquor to control mineral scale.
</P>
<P>(c) The additives are to be used so that the amount of either or both additives does not exceed 4 parts per million (calculated as the acid) by weight of the beet or cane sugar juice or liquor process stream.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 5315, Feb. 13, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 386, Jan. 5, 1996; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5592, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.50" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.50   Polyvinylpolypyrrolidone.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polyvinylpolypyrrolidone may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a homopolymer of purified vinylpyrrolidone catalytically produced under conditions producing polymerization and cross-linking such that an insoluble polymer is produced.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive is so processed that when the finished polymer is refluxed for 3 hours with water, 5 percent acetic acid, and 50 percent alcohol, no more than 50 parts per million of extractables is obtained with each solvent.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as a clarifying agent in beverages and vinegar, followed by removal with filtration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.55" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.55   Polyvinylpyrrolidone.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polyvinylpyrroli-done may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a polymer of purified vinylpyrrolidone catalytically produced, having an average molecular weight of 40,000 and a maximum unsaturation of 1 percent, calculated as the monomer, except that the polyvinylpyrrolidone used in beer is that having an average molecular weight of 360,000 and a maximum unsaturation of 1 percent, calculated as the monomer.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use in foods as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a clarifying agent, at a residual level not to exceed 10 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flavor concentrates in tablet form</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a tableting adjuvent in an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonnutritive sweeteners in concentrated liquid form</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a stabilizer, bodying agent, and dispersant, in an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonnutritive sweeteners in tablet form</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a tableting adjuvant in an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin and mineral concentrates in liquid form</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a stabilizer, bodying agent, and dispersant, in an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin and mineral concentrates in tablet form</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a tableting adjuvant in an amount not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinegar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a clarifying agent, at a residual level not to exceed 40 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a clarifying agent, at a residual level not to exceed 60 parts per million.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.60" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.60   Dimethylamine-epichlorohydrin copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Dimethylamine-epichlorohydrin copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 25988-97-0) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is produced by copolymerization of dimethylamine and epichlorohydrin in which not more than 5 mole-percent of dimethylamine may be replaced by an equimolar amount of ethylenediamine, and in which the mole ratio of total amine to epichlorohydrin is approximately 1:1.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The nitrogen content of the copolymer is 9.4 to 10.8 weight percent on a dry basis.
</P>
<P>(2) A 50-percent-by-weight aqueous solution of the copolymer has a minimum viscosity of 175 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by LVT-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 2 spindle at 60 RPM (or by another equivalent method).
</P>
<P>(3) The additive contains not more than 1,000 parts per million of 1,3-dichloro-2-propanol and not more than 10 parts per million epichlorohydrin. The epichlorohydrin and 1,3-dichloro-2-propanol content is determined by an analytical method entitled “The Determination of Epichlorohydrin and 1,3-Dichloro-2-Propanol in Dimethylamine-Epichlorohydrin Copolymer,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) Heavy metals (as Pb), 2 parts per million maximum.
</P>
<P>(5) Arsenic (as As), 2 parts per million maximum.
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive is used as a decolorizing agent and/or flocculant in the clarification of refinery sugar liquors and juices. It is added only at the defecation/clarification stage of sugar liquor refining at a concentration not to exceed 150 parts per million of copolymer by weight of sugar solids.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Act, adequate directions to assure use in compliance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 37614, Aug. 19, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.65" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.65   Divinylbenzene copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Divinylbenzene copolymer may be used for the removal of organic substances from aqueous foods under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The copolymer is prepared in appropriate physical form and is derived by the polymerization of a grade of divinylbenzene which comprises at least 79 weight-percent divinylbenzene, 15 to 20 weight-percent ethylvinylbenzene, and no more than 4 weight-percent nonpolymerizable impurities.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with the manufacturer's directions, the copolymer described in paragraph (a) of this section is subjected to pre-use extraction with a water soluble alcohol until the level of divinylbenzene in the extract is less than 50 parts per billion as determined by a method titled, “The Determination of Divinylbenzene in Alcohol Extracts of Amberlite XAD-4,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies of this method are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The copolymer is then treated with water according to the manufacturer's recommendation to remove the extraction solvent to guarantee a food-grade purity of the resin at the time of use, in accordance with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) The temperature of the aqueous food stream contacting the polymer is maintained at 79.4 °C (175 °F) or less.
</P>
<P>(d) The copolymer may be used in contact with food only of Types I, II, and VI-B (excluding carbonated beverages) described in table 1 of paragraph (c) of § 176.170 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 61, Jan. 2, 1985, as amended at 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.70" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.70   Chloromethylated aminated styrene-divinylbenzene resin.</HEAD>
<P>Chloromethylated aminated styrene-divinylbenzene copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 60177-39-1) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is an aqueous dispersion of styrene-divinylbenzene copolymers, first chloromethylated then aminated with trimethylamine, having an average particle size of not more than 2.0 microns.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive shall contain no more than 3.0 percent nonvolatile, soluble extractives when tested as follows: One hundred grams of the additive is centrifuged at 17,000 r/min for 2 hours. The resulting clear supernatant is removed from the compacted solids and concentrated to approximately 10 grams on a steam bath. The 10-gram sample is again centrifuged at 17,000 r/min for 2 hours to remove any residual insoluble material. The supernatant from the second centrifugation is then removed from any compacted solids and dried to constant residual weight using a steam bath. The percent nonvolatile solubles is obtained by dividing the weight of the dried residue by the weight of the solids in the original resin dispersion.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used as a decolorizing and clarification agent for treatment of refinery sugar liquors and juices at levels not to exceed 500 parts of additive solids per million parts of sugar solids.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 29209, July 18, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.73" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.73   Sodium polyacrylate.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium polyacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 9003-04-7) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced by the polymerization of acrylic acid and subsequent hydrolysis of the polyacrylic acid with an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution. As determined by a method entitled “Determination of Weight Average and Number Average Molecular Weight of Sodium Polyacrylate,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a), the additive has—
</P>
<P>(1) A weight average molecular weight of 2,000 to 2,300; and
</P>
<P>(2) A weight average molecular weight to number average molecular weight ratio of not more than 1.3. Copies of the method are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used to control mineral scale during the evaporation of beet sugar juice or cane sugar juice in the production of sugar in an amount not to exceed 3.6 parts per million by weight of the raw juice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 39456, Oct. 7, 1988; 53 FR 49823, Dec. 9, 1988, as amended at 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.75" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.75   Sorbitan monooleate.</HEAD>
<P>Sorbitan monooleate may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced by the esterification of sorbitol with commercial oleic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) It meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Saponification number, 145-160.
</P>
<P>(2) Hydroxyl number, 193-210.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As an emulsifier in polymer dispersions that are used in the clarification of cane or beet sugar juice or liquor in an amount not to exceed 7.5 percent by weight in the final polymer dispersion.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive is used in an amount not to exceed 0.70 part per million in sugar juice and 1.4 parts per million in sugar liquor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 11720, Apr. 7, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enzyme Preparations and Microorganisms</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.110" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.110   Amyloglucosidase derived from <E T="7462">Rhizopus niveus.</E></HEAD>
<P>Amyloglucosidase enzyme product, consisting of enzyme derived from <I>Rhizopus niveus,</I> and diatomaceous silica as a carrier, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Rhizopus niveus</I> is classified as follows: Class, Phycomycetes; order, Mucorales; family, Mucoraceae; genus, <I>Rhizopus;</I> species, <I>niveus.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The strain of <I>Rhizopus niveus</I> is nonpathogenic and nontoxic in man or other animals.
</P>
<P>(c) The enzyme is produced by a process which completely removes the organism <I>Rhizopus niveus</I> from the amyloglucosidase.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is used or intended for use for degrading gelatinized starch into constituent sugars, in the production of distilled spirits and vinegar.
</P>
<P>(e) The additive is used at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the gelatinized starch.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.115" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.115   Alpha-acetolactate decarboxylase (α-ALDC) enzyme preparation derived from a recombinant Bacillus subtilis.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive alpha-acetolactate decarboxylase (α-ALDC) enzyme preparation, may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the enzyme preparation derived from a modified <I>Bacillus subtilis</I> strain that contains the gene coding for α-ALDC from <I>Bacillus brevis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The manufacturer produces the additive from a pure culture fermentation of a strain of <I>Bacillus subtilis</I> that is nonpathogenic and nontoxigenic in man or other animals. 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer may stabilize the enzyme preparation with glutaraldehyde or with other suitable approved food additives or generally recognized as safe substances. 
</P>
<P>(3) The enzyme preparation must meet the general and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the <I>Food Chemicals Codex,</I> 4th ed., 1996, pp. 133-134, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used in an amount not in excess of the minimum required to produce its intended effect as a processing aid in the production of alcoholic malt beverages and distilled liquors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 27022, May 16, 2001, as amended at 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.120" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.120   Carbohydrase and cellulase derived from <E T="7462">Aspergillus niger.</E></HEAD>
<P>Carbohydrase and cellulase enzyme preparation derived from <I>Aspergillus niger</I> may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Aspergillus niger</I> is classified as follows: Class, Deuteromycetes; order, Moniliales; family, Moniliaceae; genus, <I>Aspergillus;</I> species, <I>niger.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The strain of <I>Aspergillus niger</I> is nonpathogenic and nontoxic in man or other animals.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is produced by a process that completely removes the organism <I>Aspergillus niger</I> from the carbohydrase and cellulase enzyme product.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For removal of visceral mass (bellies) in clam processing.
</P>
<P>(2) As an aid in the removal of the shell from the edible tissue in shrimp processing.
</P>
<P>(e) The additive is used in an amount not in excess of the minimum required to produce its intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.130" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.130   Carbohydrase derived from <E T="7462">Rhizopus oryzae.</E></HEAD>
<P>Carbohydrase from <I>Rhizopus oryzae</I> may be safely used in the production of dextrose from starch in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Rhizopus oryzae</I> is classified as follows: Class, Phycomycetes; order, Mucorales; family, Mucoraceae; genus, <I>Rhizopus;</I> species, <I>Rhizopus oryzae.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The strain of <I>Rhizopus oryzae</I> is nonpathogenic and nontoxic.
</P>
<P>(c) The carbohydrase is produced under controlled conditions to maintain nonpathogenicity and nontoxicity, including the absence of aflatoxin.
</P>
<P>(d) The carbohydrase is produced by a process which completely removes the organism <I>Rhizopus oryzae</I> from the carbohydrase product.
</P>
<P>(e) The carbohydrase is maintained under refrigeration from production to use and is labeled to include the necessity of refrigerated storage. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.135" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.135   Catalase derived from <E T="7462">Micrococcus lysodeikticus.</E></HEAD>
<P>Bacterial catalase derived from <I>Micrococcus lysodeikticus</I> by a pure culture fermentation process may be safely used in destroying and removing hydrogen peroxide used in the manufacture of cheese, in accordance with the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) The organism <I>Micrococcus lysodeikticus</I> from which the bacterial catalase is to be derived is demonstrated to be nontoxic and nonpathogenic.
</P>
<P>(b) The organism <I>Micrococcus lysodeikticus</I> is removed from the bacterial catalase prior to use of the bacterial catalase.
</P>
<P>(c) The bacterial catalase is used in an amount not in excess of the minimum required to produce its intended effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.140" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.140   Esterase-lipase derived from <E T="7462">Mucor miehei.</E></HEAD>
<P>Esterase-lipase enzyme, consisting of enzyme derived from <I>Mucor miehei</I> var. <I>Cooney et Emerson</I> by a pure culture fermentation process, with maltodextrin or sweet whey as a carrier, may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Mucor miehei</I> var. <I>Cooney et Emerson</I> is classified as follows: Class, Phycomycetes; subclass, Zygomycetes; order, Mucorales; family, Mucoraceae; genus, <I>Mucor;</I> species, <I>miehei;</I> variety <I>Cooney et Emerson.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The strain of <I>Mucor miehei</I> var. <I>Cooney et Emerson</I> is nonpathogenic and nontoxic in man or other animals.
</P>
<P>(c) The enzyme is produced by a process which completely removes the organism <I>Mucor miehei</I> var. <I>Cooney et Emerson</I> from the esterase-lipase.
</P>
<P>(d) The enzyme is used as a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(12).
</P>
<P>(e) The enzyme is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice in the following food categories: cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter; fat and oils as defined in § 170.(3)(n)(12) of this chapter; and milk products as defined in § 170.(3)(n)(31) of this chapter. Use of this food ingredient is limited to nonstandarized foods and those foods for which the relevant standards of identity permit such use.
</P>
<P>(f) The enzyme is used in the minimum amount required to produce its limited technical effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 28090, June 29, 1982; 48 FR 2748, Jan. 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.145" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.145   Alpha-Galactosidase derived from <E T="7462">Mortierella vinaceae</E> var. <E T="7462">raffinoseutilizer.</E></HEAD>
<P>The food additive alpha-galactosidase and parent mycelial microorganism <I>Mortierella vinaceae</I> var. <I>raffinoseutilizer</I> may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the enzyme alpha-galactosidase and the mycelia of the microorganism <I>Mortierella vinaceae</I> var. <I>raffinoseutilizer</I> which produces the enzyme.
</P>
<P>(b) The nonpathogenic microorganism matches American Type Culture Collection (ATCC) No. 20034, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and is classified as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available from: American Type Culture Collection, 12301 Parklawn Drive, Rockville, MD 20852.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Class: Phycomycetes.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Order: Mucorales.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Family: Mortierellaceae.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Genus: <I>Mortierella.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Species: <I>vinaceae.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Variety: <I>raffinoseutilizer.</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use in the production of sugar (sucrose) from sugar beets by addition as mycelial pellets to the molasses to increase the yield of sucrose, followed by removal of the spent mycelial pellets by filtration.
</P>
<P>(d) The enzyme removal is such that there are no enzyme or mycelial residues remaining in the finished sucrose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.150" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.150   Milk-clotting enzymes, microbial.</HEAD>
<P>Milk-clotting enzyme produced by pure-culture fermentation process may be safely used in the production of cheese in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Milk-clotting enzyme is derived from one of the following organisms by a pure-culture fermentation process:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Endothia parasitica</I> classified as follows: Class, Ascomycetes; order, Sphaeriales; family, Diaporthacesae; genus, <I>Endothia;</I> species, <I>parasitica.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bacillus cereus</I> classified as follows: Class, Schizomycetes; order, Eubacteriales; family, Bacillaceae; genus, <I>Bacillus;</I> species, <I>cereus</I> (Frankland and Frankland).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mucor pusillus</I> Lindt classified as follows: Class, Phycomycetes; subclass, Zygomycetes; order, Mucorales; family, Mucoraceae; genus, <I>Mucor;</I> species, <I>pusillus;</I> variety, <I>Lindt.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mucor miehei Cooney et Emerson</I> classified as follows: Class, Phycomycetes; subclass, Zygomycetes; order, Mucorales; family, Mucoraceae; genus, <I>Mucor;</I> species, <I>miehei;</I> variety, <I>Cooney et Emerson.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Aspergillus oryzae</I> modified by recombinant deoxyribonucleic (DNA) techniques to contain the gene coding for aspartic proteinase from <I>Rhizomucor miehei</I> var. <I>Cooney et Emerson</I> as defined in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, and classified as follows: Class, Blastodeuteromycetes (Hyphomycetes); order, Phialidales (Moniliales); genus, <I>Aspergillus</I>; species <I>oryzae.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The strains of organism identified in paragraph (a) of this section are nonpathogenic and nontoxic in man or other animals.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is produced by a process that completely removes the generating organism from the milk-clotting enzyme product.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is used in an amount not in excess of the minimum required to produce its intended effect in the production of those cheeses for which it is permitted by standards of identity established pursuant to section 401 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977, as amended at 62 FR 59284, Nov. 3, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.160" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.160   <E T="7462">Candida guilliermondii.</E></HEAD>
<P>The food additive <I>Candida guilliermondii</I> may be safely used as the organism for fermentation production of citric acid in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the enzyme system of the viable organism <I>Candida guilliermondii</I> and its concomitant metabolites produced during the fermentation process.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic organism descending from strain, American Type Culture Collection (ATCC) No. 20474, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> is classified as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Available from: American Type Culture Collection, 12301 Parklawn Drive, Rockville, MD 20852.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Class: Deuteromycetes.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Order: Moniliales.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Family: Cryptococcaceae.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Genus: <I>Candida.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Species: <I>guilliermondii.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Variety: <I>guilliermondii.</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The toxonomic characteristics of the reference culture strain ATCC No. 20474 agree in the essentials with the standard description for <I>Candida guilliermondii</I> variety <I>guilliermondii</I> listed in “The Yeasts—A Toxonomic Study;” 2d Ed. (1970), by Jacomina Lodder, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The additive is used or intended for use as a pure culture in the fermentation process for the production of citric acid using an acceptable aqueous carbohydrate substrate.
</P>
<P>(2) The organism <I>Candida quilliermondii</I> is made nonviable and is completely removed from the citric acid during the recovery and purification process.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is so used that the citric acid produced conforms to the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 226-227, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11838, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10106, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 78 FR 71466, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.165" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.165   <E T="7462">Candida lipolytica.</E></HEAD>
<P>The food additive <I>Candida lipolytica</I> may be safely used as the organism for fermentation production of citric acid in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the enzyme system of the organism <I>Candida lipolytica</I> and its concimitant metabolites produced during the fermentation process. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The nonpathogenic organism is classified as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Class: Deuteromycetes.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Order: Moniliales.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Family: Cryptococcaceae.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Genus: <I>Candida.</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Species: <I>lipolytica.</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The taxonomic characteristics of the culture agree in essential with the standard description for <I>Candida lipolytica</I> variety <I>lipolytica</I> listed in “The Yeasts—A Toxonomic Study,” 2d Ed. (1970), by Jacomina Lodder, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use as a pure culture in the fermentation process for the production of citric acid from purified normal alkanes.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is so used that the citric acid produced conforms to the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 226-227, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The additive meets the following ultraviolet absorbance limits when subjected to the analytical procedure described in this paragraph:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ultraviolet absorbance per centimeter path length
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 359 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360 to 400 millimicrons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Analytical Procedure for Citric Acid
</HD1>
<HD1>general instructions
</HD1>
<P>Because of the sensitivity of the test, the possibility of errors arising from contamination is great. It is of the greatest importance that all glassware be scrupulously cleaned to remove all organic matter such as oil, grease, detergent residues, etc. Examine all glassware including stoppers and stopcocks, under ultraviolet light to detect any residual fluorescent contamination. As a precautionary measure it is recommended practice to rinse all glassware with purified isooctane immediately before use. No grease is to be used on stopcocks or joints. Great care to avoid contamination of citric acid samples in handling is essential to assure absence of any extraneous material arising from inadequate packaging. Because some of the polynuclear hydrocarbons sought in this test are very susceptible to photo-oxidation, the entire procedure is to be carried out under subdued light.
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<P>1. Aluminum foil, oil free.
</P>
<P>2. Separatory funnels, 500-milliliter capacity, equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcocks.
</P>
<P>3. Chromatographic tubes: (a) 80-millimeter ID × 900-millimeter length equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock and course fritted disk; (b) 18-millimeter ID × 300-millimeter length equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock.
</P>
<P>4. Rotary vacuum evaporator, Buchi or equivalent.
</P>
<P>5. Spectrophotometer—Spectral range 250-400 nanometers with spectral slit width of 2 nanometers or less; under instrument operating conditions for these absorbance measurements, the spectrophotometer shall also meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>Absorbance repeatability, ±0.01 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<P>Wavelength repeatability, ±0.2 nanometer.
</P>
<P>Wavelength accuracy, ±1.0 nanometer.
</P>
<P>The spectrophotometer is equipped with matched 1 centimeter path length quartz microcuvettes with 0.5-milliliter volume capacity.
</P>
<P>6. Vacuum oven, minimum inside dimensions: 200 mm × 200 mm × 300 mm deep.
</P>
<HD1>reagents and materials
</HD1>
<P><I>Organic solvents.</I> All solvents used throughout the procedure shall meet the specifications and tests described in this specification. The methyl alcohol, isooctane, benzene, hexane and 1,2-dichloroethane designated in the list following this paragraph shall pass the following test:
</P>
<P>The specified quantity of solvent is added to a 250-milliliter round bottom flask containing 0.5 milliliter of purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane and evaporated on the rotary evaporator at 45 °C to constant volume. Six milliliters of purified isooctane are added to this residue and evaporated under the same conditions as above for 5 minutes. Determine the absorbance of the residue compared to purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane as reference. The absorbance of the solution of the solvent residue shall not exceed 0.03 per centimeter path length between 280 and 299 nanometers and 0.01 per centimeter path length between 300 and 400 nanometers.
</P>
<P><I>Methyl alcohol, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 100 milliliters for the test described in the preceding paragraph. If necessary, methyl alcohol may be purified by distillation through a Virgreaux column discarding the first and last ten percent of the distillate or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Benzene, spectrograde</I> (<I>Burdick and Jackson Laboratories, Inc., Muskegon, Mich., or equivalent</I>). Use 80 milliliters for the test. If necessary, benzene may be purified by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Isooctane</I> (<I>2,2,4-trimethylpentane</I>). Use 100 milliliters for the test. If necessary, isooctane may be purified by passage through a column of activated silica gel, distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Hexane, spectrograde</I> (<I>Burdick and Jackson Laboratories, Inc., Muskegon, Mich., or equivalent</I>). Use 100 milliliters for the test. If necessary, hexane may be purified by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>1,2-Dichloroethane, spectrograde</I> (<I>Matheson, Coleman and Bell, East Rutherford, N.J., or equivalent</I>). Use 100 milliliters for the test. If necessary, 1,2-dichloroethane may be purified by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<HD1>eluting mixtures
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>10 percent 1,2-dichloroethane in hexane.</I> Prepare by mixing the purified solvents in the volume ratio of 1 part of 1,2-dichloroethane to 9 parts of hexane.
</P>
<P>2. <I>40 percent benzene in hexane.</I> Prepare by mixing the purified solvents in the volume ratio of 4 parts of benzene to 6 parts of hexane.
</P>
<P><I>n-Hexadecane, 99 percent olefin-free.</I> Determine the absorbance compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance per centimeter path length shall not exceed 0.00 in the range of 280-400 nanometers. If necessary, <I>n-</I>hexadecane may be purified by percolation through activated silica gel, distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Silica gel, 28-200 mesh</I> (<I>Grade 12, Davison Chemical Co., Baltimore, MD, or equivalent</I>). Activate as follows: Slurry 900 grams of silica gel reagent with 2 liters of purified water in a 3-liter beaker. Cool the mixture and pour into a 80 × 900 chromatographic column with coarse fritted disc. Drain the water, wash with an additional 6 liters of purified water and wash with 3,600 milliliters of purified methyl alcohol at a relatively slow rate. Drain all of the solvents and transfer the silica gel to an aluminum foil-lined drying dish. Place foil over the top of the dish. Activate in a vacuum oven at low vacuum (approximately 750 millimeters Mercury or 27 inches of Mercury below atmospheric pressure) at 173° to 177 °C for at least 20 hours. Cool under vacuum and store in an amber bottle.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium sulfate, anhydrous, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> This reagent should be washed with purified isooctane. Check the purity of this reagent as described in § 172.886 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Water, purified.</I> All water used must meet the specifications of the following test:
</P>
<P>Extract 600 milliliters of water with 50 milliliters of purified isooctane. Add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane to the isooctane extract and evaporate the resulting solution to 1 milliliter. The absorbance of this residue shall not exceed 0.02 per centimeter path length between 300-400 nanometers and 0.03 per centimeter path length between 280-299 nanometers. If necessary, water may be purified by distillation, extraction with purified organic solvents, treatment with an absorbent (e.g., activated carbon) followed by filtration of the absorbent or otherwise.
</P>
<HD1>procedure
</HD1>
<P>Separate portions of 200 milliliters of purified water are taken through the procedure for use as control blanks. Each citric acid sample is processed as follows: Weigh 200 grams of anhydrous citric acid into a 500 milliliter flask and dissolve in 200 milliliters of pure water. Heat the solution to 60 °C and transfer to a 500 milliliter separatory funnel. Rinse the flask with 50 milliliters of isooctane and add the isooctane to the separatory funnel. Gently shake the mixture 90 times (caution: vigorous shaking will cause emulsions) with periodic release of the pressure caused by shaking.
</P>
<P>Allow the phases to separate for at least 5 minutes. Draw off the lower aqueous layer into a second 500-milliliter separatory funnel and repeat the extraction with a second aliquot of 50 milliliters of isooctane. After separation of the layers, draw off and discard the water layer. Combine both isooctane extracts in the funnel containing the first extract. Rinse the funnel which contained the second extract with 10 milliliters of isooctane and add this portion to the combined isooctane extract.
</P>
<P>A chromatographic column containing 5.5 grams of silica gel and 3 grams of anhydrous sodium sulfate is prepared for each citric acid sample as follows: Fit 18 × 300 column with a small glass wool plug. Rinse the inside of the column with 10 milliliters of purified isooctane. Drain the isooctane from the column. Pour 5.5 grams of activated silica gel into the column. Tap the column approximately 20 times on a semisoft, clean surface to settle the silica gel. Carefully pour 3 grams of anhydrous sodium sulfate onto the top of the silica gel in the column.
</P>
<P>Carefully drain the isooctane extract of the citric acid solution into the column in a series of additions while the isooctane is draining from the column at an elution rate of approximately 3 milliliters per minute. Rinse the separatory funnel with 10 milliliters of isooctane after the last portion of the extract has been applied to the column and add this rinse to the column. After all of the extract has been applied to the column and the solvent layer reaches the top of the sulfate bed, rinse the column with 25 milliliters of isooctane followed by 10 milliliters of a 10-percent dichloroethane in hexane solution. For each rinse solution, drain the column until the solvent layer reaches the top of the sodium sulfate bed. Discard the rinse solvents. Place a 250-milliliter round bottom flask containing 0.5 milliliter of purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane under the column. Elute the polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons from the column with 30 milliliters of 40-percent benzene in hexane solution. Drain the eluate until the 40-percent benzene in the hexane solvent reaches the top of the sodium sulfate bed.
</P>
<P>Evaporate the 40-percent benzene in hexane eluate on the rotary vacuum evaporator at 45 °C until only the <I>n-</I>hexadecane residue of 0.5 milliliter remains. Treat the <I>n-</I>hexadecane residue twice with the following wash step: Add 6 milliliters of purified isooctane and remove the solvents by vacuum evaporation at 45 °C to constant volume, i.e., 0.5 milliliter. Cool the <I>n-</I>hexadecane residue and transfer the solution to an 0.5-milliliter microcuvette. Determine the absorbance of this solution compared to purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane as reference. Correct the absorbance values for any absorbance derived from the control reagent blank. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits prescribed, the samples meet the ultraviolet absorbance specifications.
</P>
<P>The reagent blank is prepared by using 200 milliliters of purified water in place of the citric acid solution and carrying the water sample through the procedure. The typical control reagent blank should not exceed 0.03 absorbance per centimeter path length between 280 and 299 nanometers, 0.02 absorbance per centimeter path length between 300 and 359 nanometers, and 0.01 absorbance per centimeter path length between 360 and 400 nanometers.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11838, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10106, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 78 FR 71466, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.170" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.170   Aminoglycoside 3′-phosphotransferase II.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive aminoglycoside 3′-phosphotransferase II may be safely used in the development of genetically modified cotton, oilseed rape, and tomatoes in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the enzyme aminoglycoside 3′-phosphotransferase II (CAS Reg. No. 58943-39-8) which catalyzes the phosphorylation of certain aminoglycoside antibiotics, including kanamycin, neomycin, and gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) Aminoglycoside 3′-phosphotransferase II is encoded by the <I>kan</I>
<SU>r</SU> gene originally isolated from transposon Tn<E T="53">5</E> of the bacterium <I>Escherichia coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The level of the additive does not exceed the amount reasonably required for selection of plant cells carrying the <I>kan</I>
<SU>r</SU> gene along with the genetic material of interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26711, May 23, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Solvents, Lubricants, Release Agents and Related Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.210   Acetone.</HEAD>
<P>A tolerance of 30 parts per million is established for acetone in spice oleoresins when present therein as a residue from the extraction of spice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.220" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.220   1,3-Butylene glycol.</HEAD>
<P>1,3-Butylene glycol (1,3-butanediol) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The substance meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) 1,3-Butylene glycol content: Not less than 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Specific gravity at 20/20 °C: 1.004 to 1.006.
</P>
<P>(3) Distillation range: 200°-215 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used in the minimum amount required to perform its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used as a solvent for natural and synthetic flavoring substances except where standards of identity issued under section 401 of the act preclude such use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.228" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.228   Ethyl acetate.</HEAD>
<P>Ethyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 141-78-6) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 343-344, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used in accordance with current good manufacturing practice as a solvent in the decaffeination of coffee and tea.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 146, Jan. 5, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 28548, July 13, 1984; 78 FR 71466, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.230" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.230   Ethylene dichloride.</HEAD>
<P>A tolerance of 30 parts per million is established for ethylene dichloride in spice oleoresins when present therein as a residue from the extraction of spice; <I>Provided, however,</I> That if residues of other chlorinated solvents are also present the total of all residues of such solvents shall not exceed 30 parts per million.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.240" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.240   Isopropyl alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>Isopropyl alcohol may be present in the following foods under the conditions specified:
</P>
<P>(a) In spice oleoresins as a residue from the extraction of spice, at a level not to exceed 50 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(b) In lemon oil as a residue in production of the oil, at a level not to exceed 6 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(c) In hops extract as a residue from the extraction of hops at a level not to exceed 2.0 percent by weight: <I>Provided,</I> That,
</P>
<P>(1) The hops extract is added to the wort before or during cooking in the manufacture of beer.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the hops extract specifies the presence of the isopropyl alcohol and provides for the use of the hops extract only as prescribed by paragraph (c)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.250   Methyl alcohol residues.</HEAD>
<P>Methyl alcohol may be present in the following foods under the conditions specified:
</P>
<P>(a) In spice oleoresins as a residue from the extraction of spice, at a level not to exceed 50 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(b) In hops extract as a residue from the extraction of hops, at a level not to exceed 2.2 percent by weight; <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The hops extract is added to the wort before or during cooking in the manufacture of beer.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the hops extract specifies the presence of methyl alcohol and provides for the use of the hops extract only as prescribed by paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.255" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.255   Methylene chloride.</HEAD>
<P>Methylene chloride may be present in food under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) In spice oleoresins as a residue from the extraction of spice, at a level not to exceed 30 parts per million; <I>Provided,</I> That, if residues of other chlorinated solvents are also present, the total of all residues of such solvents shall not exceed 30 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(b) In hops extract as a residue from the extraction of hops, at a level not to exceed 2.2 percent, <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The hops extract is added to the wort before or during cooking in the manufacture of beer.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the hops extract identifies the presence of the methylene chloride and provides for the use of the hops extract only as prescribed by paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) In coffee as a residue from its use as a solvent in the extraction of caffeine from green coffee beans, at a level not to exceed 10 parts per million (0.001 percent) in decaffeinated roasted coffee and in decaffeinated soluble coffee extract (instant coffee).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.270" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.270   Hexane.</HEAD>
<P>Hexane may be present in the following foods under the conditions specified:
</P>
<P>(a) In spice oleoresins as a residue from the extraction of spice, at a level not to exceed 25 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(b) In hops extract as a residue from the extraction of hops, at a level not to exceed 2.2 percent by weight; <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The hops extract is added to the wort before or during cooking in the manufacture of beer.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the hops extract specifies the presence of the hexane and provides for the use of the hops extract only as prescribed by paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.275" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.275   Hydrogenated sperm oil.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive hydrogenated sperm oil may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The sperm oil is derived from rendering the fatty tissue of the sperm whale or is prepared by synthesis of fatty acids and fatty alcohols derived from the sperm whale. The sperm oil obtained by rendering is refined. The oil is hydrogenated.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used alone or as a component of a release agent or lubricant in bakery pans.
</P>
<P>(c) The amount used does not exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended lubricating effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.280" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.280   Solvent extraction process for citric acid.</HEAD>
<P>A solvent extraction process for recovery of citric acid from conventional <I>Aspergillus niger</I> fermentation liquor may be safely used to produce food-grade citric acid in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The solvent used in the process consists of a mixture of <I>n-</I>octyl alcohol meeting the requirements of § 172.864 of this chapter, synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons meeting the requirements of § 172.882 of this chapter, and tridodecyl amine.
</P>
<P>(b) The component substances are used solely as a solvent mixture and in a manner that does not result in formation of products not present in conventionally produced citric acid.
</P>
<P>(c) The citric acid so produced meets the polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbon specifications of § 173.165 and the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 226-227, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) Residues of <I>n-</I>octyl alcohol and synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons are removed in accordance with good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice results in residues not exceeding 16 parts per million (ppm) <I>n-</I>octyl alcohol and 0.47 ppm synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons in citric acid.
</P>
<P>(e) Tridodecyl amine may be present as a residue in citric acid at a level not to exceed 100 parts per billion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14491, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10106, Mar. 19, 1984; 78 FR 71466, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17722, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.290" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.290   Trichloroethylene.</HEAD>
<P>Tolerances are established for residues of trichloroethylene resulting from its use as a solvent in the manufacture of foods as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decaffeinated ground coffee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decaffeinated soluble (instant) coffee extract</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spice oleoresins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 parts per million (provided that if residues of other chlorinated solvents are also present, the total of all residues of such solvents in spice oleoresins shall not exceed 30 parts per million).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Specific Usage Additives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.300" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.300   Chlorine dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>Chlorine dioxide (CAS Reg. No. 10049-04-4) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) The additive is generated by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) Treating an aqueous solution of sodium chlorite with either chlorine gas or a mixture of sodium hypochlorite and hydrochloric acid.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treating an aqueous solution of sodium chlorate with hydrogen peroxide in the presence of sulfuric acid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Treating an aqueous solution of sodium chlorite by electrolysis.
</P>
<P>(2) The generator effluent contains at least 90 percent (by weight) of chlorine dioxide with respect to all chlorine species as determined by Method 4500-ClO<E T="52">2</E> E in the “Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,” 20th ed., 1998, or an equivalent method. Method 4500-ClO<E T="52">2</E> E (“Amperometric Method II”) is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or the American Public Health Association, 800 I St. NW., Washington, DC 20001-3750. You may inspect a copy at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The additive may be used as an antimicrobial agent in water used in poultry processing in an amount not to exceed 3 parts per million (ppm) residual chlorine dioxide as determined by Method 4500-ClO<E T="52">2</E> E, referenced in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or an equivalent method.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive may be used as an antimicrobial agent in water used to wash fruits and vegetables that are not raw agricultural commodities in an amount not to exceed 3 ppm residual chlorine dioxide as determined by Method 4500-ClO<E T="52">2</E> E, referenced in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or an equivalent method. Treatment of the fruits and vegetables with chlorine dioxide shall be followed by a potable water rinse or by blanching, cooking, or canning.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 11900, Mar. 3, 1995. Redesignated at 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 14480, Apr. 2, 1996; 63 FR 38747, July 20, 1998; 65 FR 34587, May 31, 2000; 70 FR 7396, Feb. 14, 2005; 81 FR 5592, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17723, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.310" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.310   Boiler water additives.</HEAD>
<P>Boiler water additives may be safely used in the preparation of steam that will contact food, under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The amount of additive is not in excess of that required for its functional purpose, and the amount of steam in contact with food does not exceed that required to produce the intended effect in or on the food.
</P>
<P>(b) The compounds are prepared from substances identified in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, and are subject to the limitations, if any, prescribed:
</P>
<P>(c) List of substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide-sodium acrylate resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains not more than 0.05 percent by weight of acrylamide monomer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylic acid/2-acrylamido-2-methyl propane sulfonic acid copolymer having a minimum weight average molecular weight of 9,900 and a minimum number average molecular weight of 5,700 as determined by a method entitled “Determination of Weight Average and Number Average Molecular Weight of 60/40 AA/AMPS”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total not to exceed 20 parts per million (active) in boiler feedwater.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium alginate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt sulfate (as catalyst)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 2809-21-4) and its sodium and potassium salts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lignosulfonic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monobutyl ethers of polyethylene-polypropylene glycol produced by random condensation of a 1:1 mixture by weight of ethylene oxide and propylene oxide with butanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum mol. wt. 1,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(acrylic acid-<E T="03">co</E>-hypophosphite), sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 71050-62-9), produced from a 4:1 to a 16:1 mixture by weight of acrylic acid and sodium hypophosphite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total not to exceed 1.5 parts per million in boiler feed water. Copolymer contains not more than 0.5 percent by weight of acrylic acid monomer (dry weight basis).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.820 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymaleic acid [CAS Reg. No. 26099-09-2], and/or its sodium salt. [CAS Reg. No. 30915-61-8 or CAS Reg. No. 70247-90-4]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total not to exceed 1 part per million in boiler feed water (calculated as the acid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum mol. wt. 1,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium carbonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium tripolyphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium alginate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium aluminate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium carbonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium carboxymethylcellulose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains not less than 95 percent sodium carboxymethylcellulose on a dry-weight basis, with maximum substitution of 0.9 carboxymethylcellulose groups per anhydroglucose unit, and with a minimum viscosity of 15 centipoises for 2 percent by weight aqueous solution at 25 °C; by the “Viscosity of Cellulose Gum” method prescribed in the Food Chemicals Codex, pp. 1128-1129.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium glucoheptonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 1 part per million cyanide in the sodium glucoheptonate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hexametaphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium humate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hydroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium lignosulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium metabisulfite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium metasilicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium phosphate (mono-, di-, tri-)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polyacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polymethacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium sulfite (neutral or alkaline)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium tripolyphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitol anhydride esters: A mixture consisting of sorbitan monostearate as defined in § 172.842 of this chapter; polysorbate 60 ((polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monostearate)) as defined in § 172.836 of this chapter; and polysorbate 20 ((polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monolaurate)), meeting the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, pp. 825-827.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The mixture is used as an anticorrosive agent in steam boiler distribution systems, with each component not to exceed 15 milligrams per kilogram in the steam.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tannin (including quebracho extract)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium EDTA
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium pyrophosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Substances used alone or in combination with substances in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 10 parts per million in steam, and excluding use of such steam in contact with milk and milk products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylaminoethanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 15 parts per million in steam, and excluding use of such steam in contact with milk and milk products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrazine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zero in steam.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Morpholine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 10 parts per million in steam, and excluding use of such steam in contact with milk and milk products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octadecylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 3 parts per million in steam, and excluding use of such steam in contact with milk and milk products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trisodium nitrilotriacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 5 parts per million in boiler feedwater; not to be used where steam will be in contact with milk and milk products.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the label or labeling shall bear:
</P>
<P>(1) The common or chemical name or names of the additive or additives.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use to assure compliance with all the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday:
</P>
<P>(i) “Determination of Weight Average and Number Average Molecular Weight of 60/40 AA/AMPS” (October 23, 1987).
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>):
</P>
<P>(i) Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 1128-1129.
</P>
<P>(ii) Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 825-827.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 73922, Nov. 7, 1980; 45 FR 85726, Dec. 30, 1980; 48 FR 7439, Feb. 22, 1983; 49 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984; 49 FR 10106, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985; 53 FR 15199, Apr. 28, 1988; 54 FR 31012, July 26, 1989; 55 FR 12172, Apr. 2, 1990; 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996; 64 FR 1759, Jan. 12, 1999; 64 FR 29227, June 1, 1999; 78 FR 71466, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17723, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.315" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.315   Chemicals used in washing or to assist in the peeling of fruits and vegetables.</HEAD>
<P>Chemicals may be safely used to wash or to assist in the peeling of fruits and vegetables in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The chemicals consist of one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food or covered by prior sanctions for use in washing fruits and vegetables.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this subparagraph and subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A mixture of alkylene oxide adducts of alkyl alcohols and phosphate esters of alkylene oxide adducts of alkyl alcohols consisting of: α-alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxy-poly (oxyethylene) (7.5-8.5 moles)/poly (oxypropylene) block copolymer having an average molecular weight of 810; α-alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)<E T="03">-omega</E>-hydroxy-poly (oxyethylene) (3.3-3.7 moles) polymer having an average molecular weight of 380, and subsequently esterified with 1.25 moles phosphoric anhydride; and α-alkyl (C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">12</E>)<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) (11.9-12.9 moles)/poly (oxypropylene) copolymer, having an average molecular weight of 810, and subsequently esterified with 1.25 moles phosphoric anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent in lye-peeling solution to assist in the lye peeling of fruit and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aliphatic acid mixture consisting of valeric, caproic, enanthic, caprylic, and pelargonic acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used at a level not to exceed 1 percent in lye peeling solution to assist in the lye peeling of fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyacrylamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 10 parts per million in wash water. Contains not more than 0.2 percent acrylamide monomer. May be used in the washing of fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium bromide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used in the washing or to assist in the lye peeling of fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">n-</E>alkylbenzene-sulfonate (alkyl group predominantly C<E T="52">12</E> and C<E T="52">13</E> and not less than 95 percent C<E T="52">10</E> to C<E T="52">16</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent in wash water. May be used in washing or to assist in the lye peeling of fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dodecylbenzene-sulfonate (alkyl group predominantly C<E T="52">12</E> and not less than 95% C<E T="52">10</E> to C<E T="52">16</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2 ethyl-hexyl sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hypochlorite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used in the washing or to assist in the lye peeling of fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium mono- and dimethyl naphthalene sulfonates (mol. wt. 245-260)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent in wash water. May be used in the washing or to assist in the lye peeling of fruits and vegetables.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Sodium mono- and dimethyl naphthalene sulfonates (mol. wt. 245-260) may be used in the steam/scald vacuum peeling of tomatoes at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent in the condensate or scald water.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances identified in this paragraph (a)(4) for use in flume water for washing sugar beets prior to the slicing operation and subject to the limitations as are provided for the level of the substances in the flume water:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Alkyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) produced by condensation of 1 mole of C<E T="52">11</E>-C4863<E T="52">15</E> straight chain randomly substituted secondary alcohols with an average of 9 moles of ethylene oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 3 ppm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linear undecylbenzenesulfonic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dialkanolamide produced by condensing 1 mole of methyl laurate with 1.05 moles of diethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 2 ppm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monobutyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 1 ppm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid conforming with § 172.860 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrapotassium pyrophosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.3 ppm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monoethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dichloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 ppm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.1 ppm.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) Substances identified in this paragraph (a)(5) for use on fruits and vegetables that are not raw agricultural commodities and subject to the limitations provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen peroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Used in combination with acetic acid to form peroxyacetic acid. Not to exceed 59 ppm in wash water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used only with peroxyacetic acid. Not to exceed 4.8 ppm in wash water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peroxyacetic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prepared by reacting acetic acid with hydrogen peroxide. Not to exceed 80 ppm in wash water.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The chemicals are used in amounts not in excess of the minimum required to accomplish their intended effect.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of the chemicals listed under paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4) is followed by rinsing with potable water to remove, to the extent possible, residues of the chemicals.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the name of the additive or a statement of its composition.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the additive container shall bear adequate use directions to assure use in compliance with all provisions of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 29856, June 10, 1977; 42 FR 32229, June 24, 1977; 43 FR 54926, Nov. 24, 1978; 61 FR 46376, 46377, Sept. 3, 1996; 63 FR 7069, Feb. 12, 1998; 64 FR 38564, July 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.320" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.320   Chemicals for controlling microorganisms in cane-sugar and beet-sugar mills.</HEAD>
<P>Agents for controlling microorganisms in cane-sugar and beet-sugar mills may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They are used in the control of microorganisms in cane-sugar and/or beet-sugar mills as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) They are applied to the sugar mill grinding, crusher, and/or diffuser systems in one of the combinations listed in paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), or (5) of this section or as a single agent listed in paragraph (b)(4) or (6) of this section. Quantities of the individual additives in parts per million are expressed in terms of the weight of the raw cane or raw beets.
</P>
<P>(1) Combination for cane-sugar mills:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium cyanodithioimidocarbonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium <E T="03">N-</E>methyldithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Combination for cane-sugar mills:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium ethylenebisdithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Combinations for cane-sugar mills and beet-sugar mills:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Disodium ethylenebisdithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Disodium cyanodithioimidocarbonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium <E T="03">N-</E>methyldithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Single additive for cane-sugar mills and beet-sugar mills.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Dibromo-3-nitrilopropionamide (CAS Reg. No. 10222-01-2). <E T="03">Limitations:</E> Byproduct molasses, bagasse, and pulp containing residues of 2,2-dibromo-3-nitrilopropionamide are not authorized for use in animal feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 10.0 and not less than 2.0.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) Combination for cane-sugar mills:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dodecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05±0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dodecyl dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.68±0.068
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Hexadecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30±0.030
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Octadecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05±0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Tetradecyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60±0.060
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Tetradecyl dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32±0.032</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP><I>Limitations.</I> Byproduct molasses, bagasse, and pulp containing residues of these quaternary ammonium salts are not authorized for use in animal feed.
</FP>
<P>(6) Single additive for beet-sugar mills:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glutaraldehyde (CAS Reg. No. 111-30-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 250.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additives, their label and labeling shall conform to that registered with the Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 35756, Aug. 17, 1982; 50 FR 3891, Jan. 29, 1985; 57 FR 8065, Mar. 6, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.322" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.322   Chemicals used in delinting cottonseed.</HEAD>
<P>Chemicals may be safely used to assist in the delinting of cottonseed in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The chemicals consist of one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe for direct addition to food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this paragraph and subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">alpha</E>-Alkyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) produced by condensation of a linear primary alcohol containing an average chain length of 10 carbons with poly(oxyethylene) having an average of 5 ethylene oxide units</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used at an application rate not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of cottonseeds to enhance delinting of cottonseeds intended for the production of cottonseed oil. Byproducts including lint, hulls, and meal may be used in animal feed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">An alkanomide produced by condensation of coconut oil fatty acids and diethanolamine, CAS Reg. No. 068603-42-9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used at an application rate not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of cottonseeds to enhance delinting of cottonseeds intended for the production of cottonseed oil. Byproducts including lint, hulls, and meal may be used in animal feed.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 8346, Feb. 26, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.325" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.325   Acidified sodium chlorite solutions.</HEAD>
<P>Acidified sodium chlorite solutions may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced by mixing an aqueous solution of sodium chlorite (CAS Reg. No. 7758-19-2) with any generally recognized as safe (GRAS) acid.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent in poultry processing water in accordance with current industry practice under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) As a component of a carcass spray or dip solution prior to immersion of the intact carcass in a prechiller or chiller tank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) In a prechiller or chiller solution for application to the intact carcass;
</P>
<P>(iii) As a component of a spray or dip solution for application to poultry carcass parts; 
</P>
<P>(iv) In a prechiller or chiller solution for application to poultry carcass parts; or
</P>
<P>(v) As a component of a post-chill carcass spray or dip solution when applied to poultry meat, organs, or related parts or trim. 
</P>
<P>(2) When used in a spray or dip solution, the additive is used at levels that result in sodium chlorite concentrations between 500 and 1,200 parts per million (ppm), in combination with any GRAS acid at a level sufficient to achieve a solution pH of 2.3 to 2.9. 
</P>
<P>(3) When used in a prechiller or chiller solution, the additive is used at levels that result in sodium chlorite concentrations between 50 and 150 ppm, in combination with any GRAS acid at levels sufficient to achieve a solution pH of 2.8 to 3.2. 
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent in accordance with current industry practice in the processing of red meat, red meat parts, and organs as a component of a spray or in the processing of red meat parts and organs as a component of a dip. Applied as a dip or spray, the additive is used at levels that result in sodium chlorite concentrations between 500 and 1,200 ppm in combination with any GRAS acid at levels sufficient to achieve a solution pH of 2.5 to 2.9.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent in water and ice that are used to rinse, wash, thaw, transport, or store seafood in accordance with current industry standards of good manufacturing practice. The additive is produced by mixing an aqueous solution of sodium chlorite with any GRAS acid to achieve a pH in the range of 2.5 to 2.9 and diluting this solution with water to achieve an actual use concentration of 40 to 50 parts per million (ppm) sodium chlorite. Any seafood that is intended to be consumed raw shall be subjected to a potable water rinse prior to consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive is used as a single application in processing facilities as an antimicrobial agent to reduce pathogenic bacteria due to cross-contamination during the harvesting, handling, heading, evisceration, butchering, storing, holding, packing, or packaging of finfish and crustaceans; or following the filleting of finfish; in accordance with current industry standards of good manufacturing practice. Applied as a dip or spray, the additive is used at levels that result in a sodium chlorite concentration of 1,200 ppm, in combination with any GRAS acid at levels sufficient to achieve a pH of 2.3 to 2.9. Treated seafood shall be cooked prior to consumption.
</P>
<P>(e) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent on raw agricultural commodities in the preparing, packing, or holding of the food for commercial purposes, consistent with section 201(q)(1)(B)(i) of the act, and not applied for use under section 201(q)(1)(B)(i)(I), (q)(1)(B)(i)(II), or (q)(1)(B)(i)(III) of the act, in accordance with current industry standards of good manufacturing practice. Applied as a dip or a spray, the additive is used at levels that result in chlorite concentrations of 500 to 1200 parts per million (ppm), in combination with any GRAS acid at levels sufficient to achieve a pH of 2.3 to 2.9. Treatment of the raw agricultural commodities with acidified sodium chlorite solutions shall be followed by a potable water rinse, or by blanching, cooking, or canning.
</P>
<P>(f) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent on processed, comminuted or formed meat food products (unless precluded by standards of identity in 9 CFR part 319) prior to packaging of the food for commercial purposes, in accordance with current industry standards of good manufacturing practice. Applied as a dip or spray, the additive is used at levels that result in sodium chlorite concentrations of 500 to 1200 ppm, in combination with any GRAS acid at levels sufficient to achieve a pH of 2.5 to 2.9.
</P>
<P>(g) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent in the water applied to processed fruits and processed root, tuber, bulb, legume, fruiting (i.e., eggplant, groundcherry, pepino, pepper, tomatillo, and tomato), and cucurbit vegetables in accordance with current industry standards of good manufacturing practices, as a component of a spray or dip solution, provided that such application be followed by a potable water rinse and a 24-hour holding period prior to consumption. However, for processed leafy vegetables (i.e., vegetables other than root, tuber, bulb, legume, fruiting, and cucurbit vegetables) and vegetables in the Brassica [Cole] family, application must be by dip treatment only, and must be preceded by a potable water rinse and followed by a potable water rinse and a 24-hour holding period prior to consumption. When used in a spray or dip solution, the additive is used at levels that result in sodium chlorite concentrations between 500 and 1,200 ppm, in combination with any GRAS acid at a level sufficient to achieve a solution pH of 2.3 to 2.9.
</P>
<P>(h) The concentration of sodium chlorite is determined by a method entitled “Determination of Sodium Chlorite: 50 ppm to 1500 ppm Concentration,” September 13, 1995, developed by Alcide Corp., Redmond, WA, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 17829, Apr. 23, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 11119, Mar. 6, 1998; 64 FR 44123, Aug. 13, 1999; 64 FR 49982, Sept. 15, 1999; 65 FR 1776, Jan. 12, 2000; 65 FR 16312, Mar. 28, 2000; 66 FR 22922, May 7, 2001; 66 FR 31841, June 13, 2001; 67 FR 15720, Apr. 3, 2002; 69 FR 78304, Dec. 30, 2004; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5592, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17723, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.340" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.340   Defoaming agents.</HEAD>
<P>Defoaming agents may be safely used in processing foods, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They consist of one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized by qualified experts as safe in food or covered by prior sanctions for the use prescribed by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances listed in this paragraph (a)(2) of this section, subject to any limitations imposed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylpolysiloxane (substantially free from hydrolyzable chloride and alkoxy groups; no more than 18 percent loss in weight after heating 4 hours at 200 °C; viscosity 300 to 1,050 centistokes at 25 °C; refractive index 1.400-1.404 at 25 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 parts per million in food, or at such level in a concentrated food that when prepared as directed on the labels, the food in its ready-for-consumption state will have not more than 10 parts per million except as follows: Zero in milk; 110 parts per million in dry gelatin dessert mixes labeled for use whereby no more than 16 parts per million is present in the ready-to-serve dessert; 250 parts per million in salt labeled for cooking purposes, whereby no more than 10 parts per million is present in the cooked food.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a preservative in defoaming agents containing dimethylpolysiloxane, in an amount not exceeding 1.0 percent of the dimethylpolysiloxane content.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Hydro-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxy-poly (oxyethylene)/poly(oxypropylene) (minimum 15 moles)/poly(oxyethylene) block copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 9003-11-6) as defined in § 172.808(a)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as prescribed in § 172.808(b)(3) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyacrylic acid, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a stabilizer and thickener in defoaming agents containing dimethylpolysiloxane in an amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.820 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene 40 monostearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in U.S.P. XVI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.836 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.838 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol alginate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.858 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.480 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monostearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.842 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">White mineral oil: Conforming with § 172.878 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a component of defoaming agents for use in wash water for sliced potatoes at a level not to exceed 0.008 percent of the wash water.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Substances listed in this paragraph (a)(3), provided they are components of defoaming agents limited to use in processing beet sugar and yeast, and subject to any limitations imposed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.863 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an antioxidant, not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of defoamer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHT</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.863 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.860 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxylated lecithin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.814 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.863 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil: Conforming with § 172.878 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not more than 150 p.p.m. in yeast, measured as hydrocarbons.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons: Conforming with § 172.884 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolatum: Conforming with § 172.880 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum wax: Conforming with § 172.886 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum wax, synthetic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400)dioleate: Conforming with § 172.820(a)(2) of this chapter and providing the oleic acid used in the production of this substance complies with § 172.860 or § 172.862 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an emulsifier not to exceed 10 percent by weight of defoamer formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons: Conforming with § 172.882 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid derived from tall oil fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 172.862 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxystearin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.818 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (600) dioleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (600) monoricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Molecular weight range, 1,200-3,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.840 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.863 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol mono- and diesters of fats and fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 172.856 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soybean oil fatty acids, hydroxylated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow, hydrogenated, oxidized or sulfated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow alcohol, hydrogenated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) The substances listed in this paragraph (a)(4), provided they are components of defoaming agents limited to use in processing beet sugar only, and subject to the limitations imposed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Butoxypoly(oxyethylene)- poly(oxypropylene)glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Viscosity range, 4,850-5,350 Saybolt Universal Seconds (SUS) at 37.8 °C (100 °F). The viscosity range is deteRmined by the method “Viscosity DeteRmination of <E T="03">n</E>-butoxypoly(oxyethylene)-poly(oxypropylene) glycol” dated April 26, 1995, developed by Union Carbide Corp., P.O. Box 670, Bound Brook, NJ 08805, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of the material incorporated by reference are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For infoRmation on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: https://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monoester of alpha-hydro-omega-hydroxy-poly(oxyethylene) poly(oxypropylene) poly(oxyethylene) (15 mole minimum) blocked copolymer derived from low erucic acid rapeseed oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) They are added in an amount not in excess of that reasonably required to inhibit foaming.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 2872, Jan. 20, 1978; 46 FR 30493, June 9, 1981; 46 FR 57476, Nov. 24, 1981; 60 FR 54036, Oct. 19, 1995; 61 FR 632, Jan. 9, 1996; 63 FR 29134, May 28, 1998; 81 FR 5592, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17723, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.342" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.342   Chlorofluorocarbon 113 and perfluorohexane.</HEAD>
<P>A mixture of 99 percent chlorofluorocarbon 113 (1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane) (CAS Reg. No. 76-13-1, also known as fluorocarbon 113, CFC 113 and FC 113) and 1 percent perfluorohexane (CAS Reg. No. 355-42-0) may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive chlorofluorocarbon 113 has a purity of not less than 99.99 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive mixture is intended for use to quickly cool or crust-freeze chickens sealed in intact bags composed of substances regulated in parts 174, 175, 177, 178, and § 179.45 of this chapter and conforming to any limitations or specifications in such regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 8913, Mar. 9, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.345" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.345   Chloropentafluoroethane.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive chloropentafluoroethane may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive has a purity of not less than 99.97 percent, and contains not more than 200 parts per million saturated fluoro compounds and 10 parts per million unsaturated fluoro compounds as impurities.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use alone or with one or more of the following substances: Carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, propane, and octafluorocyclobutane complying with § 173.360, as an aerating agent for foamed or sprayed food products, with any propellant effect being incidental and no more than is minimally necessary to achieve the aerating function, except that use is not permitted for those standardized foods that do not provide for such use.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive, chloropentafluoroethane.
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the additive present in the case of a mixture.
</P>
<P>(iii) The designation “food grade”.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the food additive container shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14526, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 11317, Mar. 17, 1978; 43 FR 14644, Apr. 7, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.350" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.350   Combustion product gas.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive combustion product gas may be safely used in the processing and packaging of the foods designated in paragraph (c) of this section for the purpose of removing and displacing oxygen in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by the controlled combustion in air of butane, propane, or natural gas. The combustion equipment shall be provided with an absorption-type filter capable of removing possible toxic impurities, through which all gas used in the treatment of food shall pass; and with suitable controls to insure that any combustion products failing to meet the specifications provided in this section will be prevented from reaching the food being treated.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Carbon monoxide content not to exceed 4.5 percent by volume.
</P>
<P>(2) The ultraviolet absorbance in isooctane solution in the range 255 millimicrons to 310 millimicrons not to exceed one-third of the standard reference absorbance when tested as described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use to displace or remove oxygen in the processing, storage, or packaging of beverage products and other food, except fresh meats.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive in addition to the other information required by the act, the label or labeling of the combustion device shall bear adequate directions for use to provide a combustion product gas that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, including instructions to assure proper filtration.
</P>
<P>(e) The food additive is tested for compliance with paragraph (b)(2) by the following empirical method:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Spectrophotometric measurements.</I> All measurements are made in an ultraviolet spectrophotometer in optical cells of 5 centimeters in length, and in the range of 255 millimicrons to 310 millimicrons, under the same instrumental conditions. The standard reference absorbance is the absorbance at 275 millimicrons of a standard reference solution of naphthalene (National Bureau of Standards Material No. 577 or equivalent in purity) containing a concentration of 1.4 milligrams per liter in purified isooctane, measured against isooctane of the same spectral purity in 5-centimeter cells. (This absorbance will be approximately 0.30.)
</P>
<P><I>Solvent.</I> The solvent used is pure grade isooctane having an ultraviolet absorbance not to exceed 0.05 measured against distilled water as a reference. Upon passage of purified inert gas through some isooctane under the identical conditions of the test, a lowering of the absorbance value has been observed. The absorbance of isooctane to be used in this procedure shall not be more than 0.02 lower in the range 255 millimicrons to 310 millimicrons, inclusive, than that of the untreated solvent as measured in a 5-centimeter cell. If necessary to obtain the prescribed purities, the isooctane may be passed through activated silica gel.
</P>
<P><I>Apparatus.</I> To assure reproducible results, the additive is passed into the isooctane solution through a gas-absorption train consisting of the following components and necessary connections:
</P>
<P>1. A gas flow meter with a range up to 30 liters per hour provided with a constant differential relay or other device to maintain a constant flow rate independent of the input pressure.
</P>
<P>2. An absorption apparatus consisting of an inlet gas dispersion tube inserted to the bottom of a covered cylindrical vessel with a suitable outlet on the vessel for effluent gas. The dimensions and arrangement of tube and vessel are such that the inlet tube introduces the gas at a point not above 5
<FR>1/4</FR> inches below the surface of the solvent through a sintered glass outlet. The dimensions of the vessel are such, and both inlet and vessel are so designed, that the gas can be bubbled through 60 milliliters of isooctane solvent at a rate up to 30 liters per hour without mechanical loss of solvent. The level corresponding to 60 milliliters should be marked on the vessel.
</P>
<P>3. A cooling bath containing crushed ice and water to permit immersion of the absorption vessel at least to the solvent level mark.
</P>
<P><I>Caution.</I> The various parts of the absorption train must be connected by gas-tight tubing and joints composed of materials which will neither remove components from nor add components to the gas stream. The gas source is connected in series to the flow-rate device, the flow meter, and the absorption apparatus in that order. Ventilation should be provided for the effluent gases which may contain carbon monoxide.
</P>
<P><I>Sampling procedure.</I> Immerse the gas-absorption apparatus containing 60 milliliters of isooctane in the coolant bath so that the solvent is completely immersed. Cool for at least 15 minutes and then pass 120 liters of the test gas through the absorption train at a rate of 30 liters per hour or less. Maintain the coolant bath at 0 °C throughout. Remove the absorption vessel from the bath, disconnect, and warm to room temperature. Add isooctane to bring the contents of the absorption vessel to 60 milliliters, and mix. Determine the absorbance of the solution in the 5-centimeter cell in the range 255 millimicrons to 310 millimicrons, inclusive, compared to isooctane. The absorbance of the solution of combustion product gas shall not exceed that of the isooctane solvent at any wavelength in the specified range by more than one-third of the standard reference absorbance.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.355" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.355   Dichlorodifluoromethane.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive dichlorodifluoromethane may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive has a purity of not less than 99.97 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use, in accordance with good manufacturing practice, as a direct-contact freezing agent for foods.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of its container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive, dichlorodifluoromethane, with or without the parenthetical name “Food Freezant 12”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The designation “food grade”.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the food additive container shall bear adequate directions for use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.356" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.356   Hydrogen peroxide.</HEAD>
<P>Hydrogen peroxide (H<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7722-84-1) may be safely used to treat food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Hydrogen peroxide meets the specifications of Hydrogen Peroxide, Food Chemicals Codex, 14th edition, effective June 1, 2024, which is incorporated by reference into this section. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FDA at: the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; phone: 240-402-7500; email: <I>IBR_Material_Inquiries@fda.hhs.gov.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852; phone: 800-822-8772; email: <I>fcc@usp.org;</I> website: <I>https://www.usp.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter, oxidizing and reducing agent defined in § 170.3(o)(22) of this chapter, and bleaching agent, and to remove sulfur dioxide in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Residual hydrogen peroxide is removed by appropriate chemical or physical means during the processing of food where it has been used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 42537, Sept. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.357" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.357   Materials used as fixing agents in the immobilization of enzyme preparations.</HEAD>
<P>Fixing agents may be safely used in the immobilization of enzyme preparations in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The materials consist of one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this subparagraph and subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide-acrylic acid resin: Complying with § 173.5(a)(1) and (b) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used as a fixing material in the immobilization of glucose isomerase enzyme preparations for use in the manufacture of high fructose corn syrup, in accordance with § 184.1372 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose triacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used as a fixing material in the immobilization of lactase for use in reducing the lactose content of milk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylaminoethyl-cellulose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used as a fixing material in the immobilization of glucose isomerase enzyme preparations for use in the manufacture of high fructose corn syrup, in accordance with § 184.1372 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylamine-epichlorohydrin resin: Complying with § 173.60(a) and (b) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used as a fixing material in the immobilization of glucose isomerase enzyme preparations for use in the manufacture of high fructose corn syrup, in accordance with § 184.1372 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glutaraldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Periodic acid (CAS Reg. No. 10450-60-9).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylenimine reaction product with 1,2-dichloroethane (CAS Reg. No. 68130-97-2) is the reaction product of homopolymerization of ethylenimine in aqueous hydrochloric acid at 100 °C and of cross-linking with 1,2-dichloroethane. The finished polymer has an average molecular weight of 50,000 to 70,000 as determined by gel permeation chromatography. The analytical method is entitled “Methodology for Molecular Weight Detection of Polyethylenimine,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May be used as a fixing material in the immobilization of glucoamylase enzyme preparations from <E T="03">Aspergillus niger</E> for use in the manufacture of beer.
<br/>May be used as a fixing material in the immobilization of:
<br/>1. Glucose isomerase enzyme preparations for use in the manufacture of high fructose corn syrup, in accordance with § 184.1372 of this chapter.
<br/>2. Glucoamylase enzyme preparations from <E T="03">Aspergillus niger</E> for use in the manufacture of beer. Residual ethylenimine in the finished polyethylenimine polymer will be less than 1 part per million as determined by gas chromatography-mass spectrometry. The residual ethylenimine is determined by an analytical method entitled “Methodology for Ethylenimine Detection in Polyethylenimine,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Residual 1,2-dichloroethane in the finished polyethylenimine polymer will be less than 1 part per million as determined by gas chromatography. The residual 1,2-dichloroethane is determined by an analytical method entitled, “Methodology for Ethylenedichloride Detection in Polyethylenimine,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-7500, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The fixed enzyme preparation is washed to remove residues of the fixing materials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 5716, Feb. 8, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 39512, Oct. 22, 1987; 55 FR 12172, Apr. 2, 1990; 59 FR 36937, July 20, 1994; 61 FR 4873, Feb. 9, 1996; 61 FR 14245, Apr. 1, 1996; 67 FR 42716, June 25, 2002; 81 FR 5592, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17723, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.360" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.360   Octafluorocyclobutane.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive octafluorocyclo-butane may be safely used as a propellant and aerating agent in foamed or sprayed food products in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>99.99 percent octafluorocyclobutane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Less than 0.1 part per million fluoroolefins, calculated as perfluoroisobutylene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use alone or with one or more of the following substances: Carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and propane, as a propellant and aerating agent for foamed or sprayed food products, except for those standardized foods that do not provide for such use.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the food additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive, octafluorocyclobutane.
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the additive present in the case of a mixture.
</P>
<P>(iii) The designation “food grade”.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the food additive container shall bear adequate directions for use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.368" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.368   Ozone.</HEAD>
<P>Ozone (CAS Reg. No. 10028-15-6) may be safely used in the treatment, storage, and processing of foods, including meat and poultry (unless such use is precluded by standards of identity in 9 CFR part 319), in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is an unstable, colorless gas with a pungent, characteristic odor, which occurs freely in nature. It is produced commercially by passing electrical discharges or ionizing radiation through air or oxygen.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive meets the specifications for ozone in the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 754-755, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) The additive is used in contact with food, including meat and poultry (unless such use is precluded by standards of identity in 9 CFR part 319 or 9 CFR part 381, subpart P), in the gaseous or aqueous phase in accordance with current industry standards of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(e) When used on raw agricultural commodities, the use is consistent with section 201(q)(1)(B)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and not applied for use under section 201(q)(1)(B)(i)(I), (q)(1)(B)(i)(II), or (q)(1)(B)(i)(III) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 33830, June 26, 2001; 67 FR 271, Jan. 3, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 78 FR 71467, Nov. 29, 2013; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.370" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.370   Peroxyacids.</HEAD>
<P>Peroxyacids may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of peroxyacetic acid, octanoic acid, acetic acid, hydrogen peroxide, peroxyoctanoic acid, and 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent on meat carcasses, parts, trim, and organs in accordance with current industry practice where the maximum concentration of peroxyacids is 220 parts per million (ppm) as peroxyacetic acid, and the maximum concentration of hydrogen peroxide is 75 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive is used as an antimicrobial agent on poultry carcasses, poultry parts, and organs in accordance with current industry standards of good manufacturing practice (unless precluded by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's standards of identity in 9 CFR part 381, subpart P) where the maximum concentration of peroxyacids is 220 parts per million (ppm) as peroxyacetic acid, the maximum concentration of hydrogen peroxide is 110 ppm, and the maximum concentration of 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid (HEDP) is 13 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) The concentrations of peroxyacids and hydrogen peroxide in the additive are determined by a method entitled “Hydrogen Peroxide and Peracid (as Peracetic Acid) Content,” July 26, 2000, developed by Ecolab, Inc., St. Paul, MN, which is incorporated by reference. The concentration of 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid is determined by a method entitled “Determination of 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid (HEDP) Peroxyacid/Peroxide-Containing Solutions,” August 21, 2001, developed by Ecolab, Inc., St. Paul, MN, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves these incorporations by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies of these methods from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 70660, Nov. 27, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 48208, Sept. 19, 2001; 67 FR 61784, Oct. 2, 2002; 81 FR 5593, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.375" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.375   Cetylpyridinium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>Cetylpyridinium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 123-93-5) may be safely used in food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the specifications of the United States Pharmacopeia (USP)/National Formulary (NF) described in USP 30/NF 25, May 1, 2007, pp. 1700-1701, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852, or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used in food as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter to treat the surface of raw poultry carcasses. The solution in which the additive is used to treat raw poultry carcasses shall also contain propylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 57-55-6) complying with § 184.1666 of this chapter, at a concentration of 1.5 times that of cetylpyridinium chloride.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As a fine mist spray of an ambient temperature aqueous solution applied to raw poultry carcasses prior to immersion in a chiller, at a level not to exceed 0.3 gram cetylpyridinium chloride per pound of raw poultry carcass, provided that the additive is used in systems that collect and recycle solution that is not carried out of the system with the treated poultry carcasses; or
</P>
<P>(2) As a liquid aqueous solution applied to raw poultry carcasses either prior to or after chilling at an amount not to exceed 5 gallons of solution per carcass, provided that the additive is used in systems that recapture at least 99 percent of the solution that is applied to the poultry carcasses. The concentration of cetylpyridinium chloride in the solution applied to the carcasses shall not exceed 0.8 percent by weight. When application of the additive is not followed by immersion in a chiller, the treatment will be followed by a potable water rinse of the carcass.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 67576, Nov. 29, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 59248, Sept. 26, 2011; 81 FR 5593, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.385" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.385   Sodium methyl sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium methyl sulfate may be present in pectin in accordance with the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) It is present as the result of methylation of pectin by sulfuric acid and methyl alcohol and subsequent treatment with sodium bicarbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) It does not exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the pectin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.395" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.395   Trifluoromethane sulfonic acid.</HEAD>
<P>Trifluoromethane sulfonic acid has the empirical formula CF<E T="52">3</E>SO<E T="52">3</E>H (CAS Reg. No. 1493-13-6). The catalyst (Trifluoromethane sulfonic acid) may safely be used in the production of cocoa butter substitute from palm oil (1-palmitoyl-2-oleoyl-3-stearin) (see § 184.1259 of this chapter) in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The catalyst meets the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Appearance, Clear liquid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Color, Colorless to amber.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neutralization equivalent, 147-151.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Water, 1 percent maximum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluoride ion, 0.03 percent maximum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heavy metals (as Pb), 30 parts per million maximum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), 3 parts per million maximum.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is used at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent of the reaction mixture to catalyze the directed esterification.
</P>
<P>(c) The esterification reaction is quenched with steam and water and the catalyst is removed with the aqueous phase. Final traces of catalyst are removed by washing batches of the product three times with an aqueous solution of 0.5 percent sodium bicarbonate.
</P>
<P>(d) No residual catalyst may remain in the product at a detection limit of 0.2 part per million fluoride as determined by the method described in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” sections 25.049-25.055, 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 54237, Nov. 11, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 10106, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.400" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.400   Dimethyldialkylammonium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>Dimethyldialkylammonium chloride may be safely used in food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is produced by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) Ammonolysis of natural tallow fatty acids to form amines that are subsequently reacted with methyl chloride to form the quaternary ammonium compounds consisting primarily of dimethyldioctadecylammonium chloride and dimethyldihexadecylammonium chloride. The additive may contain residues of isopropyl alcohol not in excess of 18 percent by weight when used as a processing solvent.
</P>
<P>(2) Ammonolysis of natural tallow fatty acids to form amines that are then reacted with 2-ethylhexanal, reduced, methylated, and subsequently reacted with methyl chloride to form the quaternary ammonium compound known as dimethyl(2-ethylhexyl) hydrogenated tallow ammonium chloride and consisting primarily of dimethyl(2-ethylhexyl)octadecylammonium chloride and dimethyl(2-ethylhexyl)hexadecylammonium chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section contains not more than a total of 2 percent by weight of free amine and amine hydrochloride. The food additive described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section contains not more than 3 percent by weight, each, of free amine and amine hydrochloride as determined by A.O.C.S. method Te 3a-64, “Acid Value and Free Amine Value of Fatty Quaternary Ammonium Chlorides,” 2d printing including additions and revisions 1990, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and from the American Oil Chemists' Society, P.O. Box 5037, Station A, Champaign, IL 61820, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) The food additive is used as a decolorizing agent in the clarification of refinery sugar liquors under the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) The food additive described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is added only at the defecation/clarification stage of sugar liquor refining in an amount not to exceed 700 parts per million by weight of sugar solids.
</P>
<P>(2) The food additive described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The additive is adsorbed onto a support column composed of suitable polymers that are regulated for contact with aqueous food. Excess nonadsorbed additive shall be rinsed away with potable water prior to passage of sugar liquor through the column.
</P>
<P>(ii) The residue of the additive in the decolorized sugar liquor prior to crystallization shall not exceed 1 part per million of sugar as determined by a method entitled “Colorimetric Determination of Residual Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (Arquad HTL8) in Sugar and Sugar Solutions,” June 13, 1990, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, adequate directions to assure use in compliance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 42686, Aug. 29, 1991, as amended at 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 173.405" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.4.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 173.405   Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate (CAS No. 25155-30-0) may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is an antimicrobial agent used in wash water for fruits and vegetables. The additive may be used at a level not to exceed 111 milligrams per kilogram in the wash water. Fruits and vegetables treated by the additive do not require a potable water rinse.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is limited to use in commissaries, cafeterias, restaurants, retail food establishments, nonprofit food establishments, and other food service operations in which food is prepared for or served directly to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label or labeling of the additive container shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, adequate directions to assure use in compliance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 71697, Dec. 4, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="174" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 174—INDIRECT FOOD ADDITIVES: GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 174.5" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.5   General provisions applicable to indirect food additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Regulations prescribing conditions under which food additive substances may be safely used predicate usage under conditions of good manufacturing practice. For the purpose of this part and parts 175, 176, and 177 of this chapter, good manufacturing practice shall be defined to include the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of any food additive substance that may be added to food as a result of use in articles that contact food shall not exceed, where no limits are specified, that which results from use of the substance in an amount not more than reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect in the food-contact article; shall not exceed any prescribed limitations; and shall not be intended to accomplish any physical or technical effect in the food itself, except as such may be permitted by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any substance used as a component of articles that contact food shall be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(b) The existence in the subchapter B of a regulation prescribing safe conditions for the use of a substance as an article or component of articles that contact food shall not be construed to relieve such use of the substance or article from compliance with any other provision of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. For example, if a regulated food-packaging material were found on appropriate test to impart odor or taste to a specific food product such as to render it unfit within the meaning of section 402(a)(3) of the Act, the regulation would not be construed to relieve such use from compliance with section 402(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) The existence in this subchapter B of a regulation prescribing safe conditions for the use of a substance as an article or component of articles that contact food shall not be construed as implying that such substance may be safely used as a direct additive in food.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances that under conditions of good manufacturing practice may be safely used as components of articles that contact food include the following, subject to any prescribed limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in or on food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances generally recognized as safe for their intended use in food packaging.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances permitted for use by regulations in this part and parts 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Food contact substances used in accordance with an effective premarket notification for a food contact substance (FCN) submitted under section 409(h) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 35731, May 21, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 174.6" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 174.6   Threshold of regulation for substances used in food-contact articles.</HEAD>
<P>Substances used in food-contact articles (e.g., food-packaging or food-processing equipment) that migrate, or that may be expected to migrate, into food at negligible levels may be reviewed under § 170.39 of this chapter. The Food and Drug Administration will exempt substances whose uses it determines meet the criteria in § 170.39 of this chapter from regulation as food additives and, therefore, a food additive petition will not be required for the exempted use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36596, July 17, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="175" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 175—INDIRECT FOOD ADDITIVES: ADHESIVES AND COMPONENTS OF COATINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 175 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; and 70 FR 72074, Dec. 1, 2005.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Substances for Use Only as Components of Adhesives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.105" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.105   Adhesives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Adhesives may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in packaging, transporting, or holding food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The adhesive is prepared from one or more of the optional substances named in paragraph (c) of this section, subject to any prescribed limitations.
</P>
<P>(2) The adhesive is either separated from the food by a functional barrier or used subject to the following additional limitations:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In dry foods.</I> The quantity of adhesive that contacts packaged dry food shall not exceed the limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>In fatty and aqueous foods.</I> (<I>a</I>) The quantity of adhesive that contacts packaged fatty and aqueous foods shall not exceed the trace amount at seams and at the edge exposure between packaging laminates that may occur within the limits of good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Under normal conditions of use the packaging seams or laminates will remain firmly bonded without visible separation.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe usage of adhesives, the label of the finished adhesive container shall bear the statement “food-packaging adhesive”.
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to any limitation prescribed in this section and in any other regulation promulgated under section 409 of the Act which prescribes safe conditions of use for substances that may be employed as constituents of adhesives, the optional substances used in the formulation of adhesives may include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe for use in food or food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances permitted for use in adhesives by prior sanction or approval and employed under the specific conditions of use prescribed by such sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Flavoring substances permitted for use in food by regulations in this part, provided that such flavoring substances are volatilized from the adhesives during the packaging fabrication process.
</P>
<P>(4) Color additives approved for use in food.
</P>
<P>(5) Substances permitted for use in adhesives by other regulations in this subchapter and substances named in this subparagraph: <I>Provided, however,</I> That any substance named in this paragraph and covered by a specific regulation in this subchapter, must meet any specifications in such regulation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Abietic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone-formaldehyde condensate (CAS Reg. No. 25619-09-4)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone-urea-formaldehyde resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>Acetyl ethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetyl tributyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetyl triethyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Acrylamido-2-methyl-propanesulfonic acid, homopolymer, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 35641-59-9)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Albumin, blood
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2-Alkenyl) succinic anhydrides in which the alkenyl groups are derived from olefins which contain not less than 78 percent C<E T="52">30</E> and higher groups (CAS Reg. No. 70983-55-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-[2-[2-2-(Alkoxy (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>) ethoxy) ethoxy]ethyl] disodium sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Alkyl (C<E T="52">6</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) amino-3-amino-propane monoacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkylated (C<E T="52">4</E> and/or C<E T="52">8</E>) phenols
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl (C<E T="52">7</E>-C1<E T="52">2</E>) benzene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl (C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">20</E>) dimethylbenzyl ammonium chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>, C<E T="52">14</E>, C<E T="52">16</E>, or C<E T="52">18</E>) dimethyl (ethylbenzyl) ammonium cyclohexylsulfamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl ketene dimers as described in § 176.120 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl (C<E T="52">7</E>-C<E T="52">12</E>) naphthalene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">alpha</E> Olefin sulfonate [alkyl group is in the range of C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> with not less than 50 percent C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>], ammonium, calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium salts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-[(2-aminoethyl)amino]ethanol (CAS Reg. No. 111-41-1)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-Aminopropanediol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in the preparation of polyurethane resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum di(2-ethylhexoate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum potassium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-β-Aminoethyl-<E T="03">gamma</E>-aminopropyl trimethoxysilane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-(Aminomethyl)-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aminomethylpropanol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium benzoate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium bifluoride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as bonding agent for aluminum foil, stabilizer or preservative. Total fluoride from all sources not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium borate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium polyacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium potassium hydrogen phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium silico-fluoride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as bonding agent for aluminum foil, stabilizer, or preservative. Total fluoride from all sources not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium sulfamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium thiocyanate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium thiosulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anhydroenneaheptitol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Animal glue as described in § 178.3120 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Anthraquinone sulfonic acid, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asphalt, paraffinic and naphthenic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Azelaic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Azo<E T="03">-bis-</E>isobutyronitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balata rubber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bentonite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzene (benzol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,4-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis[2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-[[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl]methyl]-4-methyl-phenyl]ester (CAS Reg. No. 57569-40-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a stabilizer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Benzisothiazolin-3-one (CAS Registry No. 2634-33-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzothiazyldisulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-</E>Benzoxyphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzoyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl benzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl bromoacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-</E>Benzyloxyphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHA (butylated hydroxyanisole)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHT (butylated hydroxytoluene)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-ene-6-methyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Biphenyl diphenyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(benzoate-<E T="03">O</E>)(2-propanolato)aluminum (CAS Reg. No. 105442-85-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a reactant in the preparation of polyester resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Bis(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamoyl)hy-drazine (CAS Reg. No. 32687-78-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at a level not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Bis(2-benzothiazolylmercaptomethyl) urea
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Bis(α,α-dimethylbenzyl)diphenylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-(1-methylpropyl)phenol (CAS Reg. No. 17540-75-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an antioxidant and/or stabilizer only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Bis (1-methylheptadecyl)<E T="03">-p-</E>cresol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-[[4, 6-Bis(octylthio)6-Bis(octylthio)6-Bis(octylthio)-<E T="03">s</E>-triazin-2-yl]amino]-2,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 991-84-4)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(tri<E T="03">-n-</E>butyltin) oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(trichloromethyl)sulfone C.A. Registry No. 3064-70-8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Borax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boric acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Bromo-2-nitro-1, 3-propanediol (CAS Reg. No. 52-51-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antibacterial preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-di-(C<E T="52">9</E>-C<E T="52">11</E> alkyl) ester, ammonium salt (also known as butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-diisodecyl ester, ammonium salt [CAS Reg. No. 144093-88-9]).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a surface active agent in adhesives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Butanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,4-Butanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,4-Butanediol modified with adipic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butoxy polyethylene polyproplyene glycol (molecular weight 900-4,200)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl acetyl ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylated reaction product of <E T="03">p</E>-cresol and dicyclopentadiene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As identified in § 178.2010(b) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylated, styrenated cresols identified in § 178.2010(b) of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl benzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Butylene glycoldiglycolic acid copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">tert-</E>Butyl hydroperoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Butylidenebis(6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl<E T="03">-m-</E>cresol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl lactate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-tert-</E>Butylphenyl salicylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-tert-</E>Butylpyrocatechol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl rubber polymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl titanate, polymerized
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyraldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium ethyl acetoacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium metasilicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camphor
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camphor fatty acid esters
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Candelilla wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">epsilon-</E>Caprolactam-(ethylene-ethyl acrylate) graft polymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon black, channel process
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon disulfide-1,1′-methylenedipiperidine reaction product
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon tetrachloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carboxymethylcellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, polyoxyethylated (4-84 moles ethylene oxide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose acetate butyrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose acetate propionate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ceresin wax (ozocerite)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cetyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloracetamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloral hydrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated liquid <E T="03">n-</E>paraffins with chain lengths of C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">17</E>, containing 40-70 percent chlorine by weight
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated pyridine mixture with active ingredients consisting of 2,3,5,6-tetrachloro-4-(methylsulfonyl) pyridine, 2,3,5,6-tetrachloro-4-(methylsulfinyl) pyridine and pentachloropyridine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated rubber polymer (natural rubber polymer containing approximately 67 percent chlorine)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-(3-Chloroallyl)-3,5,7-triaza-1-azoniaadamantane chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorobenzene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Chloro-3,5-dimethylphenol (<E T="03">p-</E>chloro<E T="03">-m-</E>xylenol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Chloro-3-methylphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-Chloro-2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 26172-55-4) and 2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 2682-20-4) mixture at a ratio of 3 parts to 1 part, manufactured from methyl-3-mercaptopropionate (CAS Reg. No. 2935-90-2). The mixture may contain magnesium nitrate (CAS Reg. No. 10377-60-3) at a concentration equivalent to the isothiazolone active ingredients (weight/weight)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antimicrobial agent in polymer latex emulsions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroform
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroprene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium caseinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium potassium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobaltous acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coconut fatty acid amine salt of tetrachlorophenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copal
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper 8-quinolinolate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coumarone-indene resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cresyl diphenyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumene hydroperoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanoguanidine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclized rubber as identified in § 176.170(b)(2) of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,4-Cyclohexanedimethanoldibenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 35541-81-2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanone resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanone-formaldehyde condensate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>Cyclohexyl <E T="03">p-</E>toluene sulfonamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(η
<sup>5</sup>-Cyclopentadienyl)-(η
<sup>6</sup>-isopropylbenzene)iron(II) hexafluorophosphate (CAS Reg. No. 32760-80-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a photoinitiator.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Damar
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defoaming agents as described in § 176.210 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dehydroacetic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diacetone alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diacetyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′</E>-Dialkoyl-4,4′-diaminodiphenylmethane mixtures where; the alkoyl groups are derived from marine fatty acids (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">24</E>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,5-Di<E T="03">-tert-</E>amylhydroquinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diamines derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diaryl-<E T="03">p</E>-phenylenediamine, where the aryl group may be phenyl, tolyl, or xylyl
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromo-2,4-dicyanobutane (CAS Registry No. 3569-65-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Dibromo-3-nitrilopropionamide (CAS Reg. No. 10222-01-2).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a preservative only. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,5-Di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butylhydroquinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-methylphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(C<E T="52">7</E>, C<E T="52">9</E>-alkyl)adipate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl sebacate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyltin dilaurate for use only as a catalyst for polyurethane resins
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloroethylene (mixed isomers)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicumyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclohexyl phthalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethanolamine condensed with animal or vegetable fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol adipic acid copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol dibenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol hydrogenated tallowate monoester
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol laurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monomethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monophenyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol copolymer of adipic acid and phthalic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl) adipate


</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethyl oxalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-hydroxy-5<E T="03">-tert-</E>butylphenyl) sulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Dihydroxy-5,5′-dichlorodiphenylmethane (dichlorophene)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,5-Dihydroxy-2-imidazolidinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-(Diiodomethylsulfonyl) toluene CA Registry No.: 20018-09-01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an antifungal preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisobutyl adipate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisobutyl ketone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisobutylphenoxyethoxyethyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisodecyl adipate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisodecyl phthalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisopropylbenzene hydroperoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N-</E>Dimethylcyclohexylamine dibutyldithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl formamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl hexynol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol dibenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl octynediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>(1,1-dimethyl-3-oxobutyl) acrylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5,2<E T="03">H-</E>tetrahydrothiadiazine-2-thione</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-β-naphthyl<E T="03">-p-</E>phenylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,6-Dinonyl<E T="03">-o-</E>cresol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinonylphenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di<E T="03">-n-</E>octyldecyl adipate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dioctyldiphenylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dioctylsebacate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dioxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipentaerythritol pentastearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipentamethylene-thiuram-tetrasulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipentene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipentene resins
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipentene-<E T="03">beta</E>-pinene-styrene resins
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipentene-styrene resin (CAS Registry No. 64536-06-7)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenyl-2-ethylhexyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenyl, hydrogen ated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′</E>-Diphenyl<E T="03">-p-</E>phenylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Diphenyl-2-thiourea
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol dibenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol monomethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol copolymer of adipic acid and phthalic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium cyanodithioimidocarbonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium 4-isodecyl sulfosuccinate (CAS Reg. No. 37294-49-8)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′</E>-Distearoylethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distearyl thiodipropionate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,5-Di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamic acid triester with 1,3,5-tris(2-hydroxyethyl)-<E T="03">s</E>-triazine-2,4,6(1<E T="03">H,</E> 3<E T="03">H,</E> 5<E T="03">H</E>)-trione</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as antioxidant only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Dithiodimorpholine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dodecylmercaptan
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">tert-</E>Dodecylmercaptan
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dodecylphenoxybenzene-disulfonic acid and/or its calcium, magnesium, and sodium salts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elemi gum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin-4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin-4,4′<E T="03">-sec-</E>butylidenediphenol resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin-4,4′-isopropylidene-di-o-cresol resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin-phenolformaldehyde resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erucamide (erucylamide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethoxylated primary linear alcohols of greater than 10 percent ethylene oxide by weight having molecular weights of 390 to 7,000 (CAS Reg. No. 97953-22-5)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethoxypropanol butyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl alcohol (ethanol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-Ethyl-1,3-diglycidyl-5-methylhydantoin (CAS Reg. No. 15336-82-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-acrylic acid-carbon monoxide copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 97756-27-9)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-acrylic acid copolymer, partial sodium salt containing no more than 20 percent acrylic acid by weight, and no more than 16 percent of the acrylic acid as the sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 25750-82-7)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediaminetetra-acetic acid, calcium, ferric, potassium, or sodium salts, single or mixed
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dichloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monobutyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monobutyl ether acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monophenyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-carbon monoxide copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 25052-62-4) containing not more than 30 weight percent of the units derived from carbon monoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-maleic anhydride copolymer, ammonium or potassium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-methacrylic acid copolymer partial salts: Ammonium, calcium, magnesium, sodium, and/or zinc
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-methacrylic acid-vinyl acetate copolymer partial salts: Ammonium, calcium, magnesium, sodium, and/or zinc
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-octene-1 copolymers containing not less than 70 weight percent ethylene (CAS Reg. No. 26221-73-8)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-propylene-dicyclopentadiene copolymer rubber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene, propylene, 1,4-hexadiene and 2,5-norbornadiene tetrapolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-vinyl acetate carbon monoxide terpolymer (CAS Registry No. 26337-35-9) containing not more than 15 weight percent of units derived from carbon monoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Ethylidenebis (4,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenol) (CAS Reg. No. 35958-30-6)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl<E T="03">-p-</E>hydroxybenzoate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl hydroxyethylcellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl lactate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Ethylidenebis(4,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)fluorophosphonite (CAS Reg. No. 118337-09-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an antioxidant and/or stabilizer only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl<E T="03">-p-</E>toluene sulfonamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and oils derived from animal or vegetable sources, and the hydrogenated, sulfated, or sulfonated forms of such fats and oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acids derived from animal or vegetable fats and oils; and salts of such acids, single or mixed, as follows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ammonium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Potassium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferric chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluosilicic acid (hydrofluosilicic acid)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as bonding agent for aluminum foil, stabilizer, or preservative. Total fluoride from all sources not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde <E T="03">o-</E> and <E T="03">p-</E>toluene sulfonamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fumaratochromium (III) nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furfural
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furfuryl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fumaric acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">gamma-</E>Aminopropyltrimethoxysilane (CAS Reg. No. 13822-56-5)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glutaraldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerides, di- and monoesters
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol polyoxypropylene triol, minimum average molecular weight 250 (CAS Reg. No. 25791-96-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in the preparation of polyester and polyurethane resins in adhesives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl borate (glycol boriborate resin)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl ester of damar, copal, elemi, and sandarac
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monobutyl ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monohydroxy stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monohydroxy tallowate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl polyoxypropylene triol (average molecular weight 1,000)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl tribenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol diacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyoxal
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenetetramine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexanetriols
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroabietyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrocarbon resins (produced by polymerization of mixtures of mono- and di-unsaturated hydrocarbons of the aliphatic, alicyclic, and monobenzenoid type derived both from cracked petroleum and terpene stocks) (CAS Reg. No. 68239-99-6)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrocarbon resins (produced by the polymerization of styrene and <E T="03">alpha</E>-methyl styrene), hydrogenated (CAS Reg. No. 68441-37-2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrofluoric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as bonding agent for aluminum foil, stabilizer, or preservative. Total fluoride from all sources not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogenated dipentene resin (CAS Reg. No. 106168-39-2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogenated dipentene-styrene copolymer resin (CAS Reg. No. 106168-36-9)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogenated-<E T="03">beta</E>-pinene-<E T="03">alpha</E>-pinene-dipentene copolymer resin (CAS Reg. No. 106168-37-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a-</E>Hydro<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly-(oxytetramethylene)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in the preparation of polyurethane resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroquinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroquinone monobenzyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroquinone monoethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2(2′-Hydroxy-3′,5′ di<E T="03">-tert-</E>amylphenyl) benzotriazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxyacetic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7-Hydroxycoumarin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxyethylcellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Hydroxy-1-[4-(2-hydroxyethoxy)phenyl]-2-methyl-1-propanone(CAS Reg. No. 106797-53-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a photoinitiator at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-(2-Hydroxyethyl)-1-(4-chlorobutyl)-2 alkyl (C<E T="52">6</E>-C<E T="52">17</E>) imidazolinium chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxyethyldiethylenetriamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β-Hydroxyethyl pyridinium 2-mercaptobenzothiazol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxyethyl starch
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxyethylurea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxylamine sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-Hydroxymethoxymethyl-1-aza-3,7-dioxabicyclo[3.3.0]octane, 5-hydroxymethyl-1-aza-3,7-dioxabicyclo[3.3.0]octane, and 5-hydroxypoly-[methyleneoxy]methyl-1-aza-3,7-dioxabicyclo[3.3.0] octane mixture</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antibacterial preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(Hydroxymethyl)-2-methyl-1,3-propanediol tribenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Imidazolidinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-Iodo-2-propynyl-N-butyl carbamate (CAS Reg. No. 55406-53-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antifungal preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodoform</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isoascorbic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl alcohol (isobutanol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutylene-isoprene copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isodecyl benzoate (CAS Reg. No. 131298-44-7)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isophorone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropanolamine (mono-, di-, tri-)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol (isopropanol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl<E T="03">-m-</E> and <E T="03">p-</E>cresol (thymol derived)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol, polybutylated mixture</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl peroxydicarbonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-</E>Isopropoxy diphenylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Isopropylidene-bis(<E T="03">p</E>-phenyleneoxy)-di-2-propanol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Itaconic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Japan wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kerosene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauroyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauroyl sulfate salts:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ammonium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Potassium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauryl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauryl pyridinium 5-chloro-2-mercaptobenzothiazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lignin calcium sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lignin sodium sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linoleamide (linoleic acid amide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium fluoride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as bonding agent for aluminum foil, stabilizer, or preservative. Total fluoride from all sources not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished adhesives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium glycerophosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride-diisobutylene copolymer, ammonium or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marine oil fatty acid soaps, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melamine-formaldehyde copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Mercaptobenzothiazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Mercaptobenzothiazole and dimethyl dithiocarbamic acid mixture, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Mercaptobenzothiazole, sodium or zinc salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methacrylate-chromic chloride complex, ethyl or methyl ester
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-</E>Menthane hydroperoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetyl ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl alcohol (methanol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylcellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Methylenebis(2,6-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butylphenol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Methylenebis (4-ethyl-6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butylphenol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Methylenebis (4-methyl-6-nonylphenol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Methylenebis (4-methyl-6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butylphenol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ethyl ketone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ethyl ketone-formaldehyde condensate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Methylhexane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Methyl-2-hydroxy-4-isopropyl benzene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isobutyl ketone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl oleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl oleate-palmitate mixture
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl salicylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a-</E>Methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins (molar ratio 1 <E T="03">a</E> methylstyrene to 3 vinyltoluene)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl tallowate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monochloracetic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monooctyldiphenylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Montan wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Morpholine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Myristic acid-chromic chloride complex
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Myristyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene, monosulfonated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Naphthylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α,α′,α″,α″′-Neopentane tetrayltetrakis [<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxypropylene) (1-2 moles)], average molecular weight 400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitric acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">µ-Nitrobiphenyl
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrocellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Nitropropane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p-</E>Nonylphenyl)<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters; the nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer and the poly (oxyethylene) content averages 6-9 moles or 50 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α(<E T="03">p-</E>Nonylphenyl)<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <E T="03">p-</E>nonylphenol (nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer) with an average of 1-40 moles of ethylene oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p-</E>Nonylphenyl)<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) sulfate, ammonium salt: the nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer and the poly (oxyethylene) content averages 9 or 30 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">endo-cis-</E>5-Norbornene-2,3-dicarboxylic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-<E T="03">cis</E>-9-Octadecenyl<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene); the octadecenyl group is derived from oleyl alcohol and the poly (oxyethylene) content averages 20 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octadecyl 3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octylphenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octylphenoxyethanols
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octylphenoxypolyethoxy-polypropoxyethanol (13 moles of ethylene oxide and propylene oxide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleamide (oleic acid amide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid, sulfated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Oxamidobis[ethyl 3-(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyphenyl)propionate] (CAS Reg. No. 70331-94-1)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxazoline
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(oxiranylmethyl)-ω-(oxiranylmethoxy)poly[oxy(methyl-1,2-ethanediyl)], (alternative name: epichlorohydrin-polypropylene glycol) (CAS Reg. No. 26142-30-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a reactant in the preparation of epoxy-based resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-[oxybis[(methyl-2,1-ethanediyl)-oxymethylene]]bisoxirane, (alternative name: epichlorohydrin-dipropylene glycol) (CAS Reg. No. 41638-13-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a reactant in the preparation of epoxy-based resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Oxydiethylene-benzothiazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palmitamide (palmitic acid amide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraffin (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">20</E>) sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraformaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentachlorophenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol monostearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol tetrabenzoate [CAS Registry No. 4196-86-5]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol tetrastearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-Pentanedione
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentasodium diethylenetriaminepentaacetate (CAS Reg. No. 140-01-2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloroethylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolatum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum hydrocarbon resin (cyclopentadiene type), hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum hydrocarbon resin (produced by the catalytic polymerization and subsequent hydrogenation of styrene, vinyltoluene, and indene types from distillates of cracked petroleum stocks)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum hydrocarbon resins (produced by the homo-and copolymerization of dienes and olefins of the aliphatic, alicyclic, and monobenzenoid arylalkene types from distillates of cracked petroleum stocks)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenol-coumarone-indene resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenolic resins as described in § 175.300(b)(3)(vi)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenothiazine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl-β-naphthylamine (free of β-naphthylamine)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">o</E>-Phenylphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">o</E>-Phthalic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pimaric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Piperazine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Piperidinium pentamethylenedithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(acrylamide-[2-acrylamide-2-methylpropylsulfonate]-dimethylidiallyl ammonium chloride) sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 72275-68-4)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamides derived from reaction of one or more of the following acids with one or more of the following amines:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acids:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Azelaic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Dimerized vegetable oil acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amines:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Bis(hexamethylene) triamine and higher homologues
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Diethylenetriamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Diphenylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Ethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Hexamethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Poly(oxypropylene)diamine (weight average molecular weight 2010) (CAS Reg. No. 9046-10-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Poly(oxypropylene)diamine (weight average molecular weight 440) (CAS Reg. No. 9046-10-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Tetraethylenepentamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Triethylenetetramine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutylene glycol (molecular weight 1,000)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly [2(diethylamino) ethyl methacrylate] phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyester of adipic acid, phthalic acid, and propylene glycol, terminated with butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyester of diglycolic acid and propylene glycol containing ethylene glycol monobutyl ether as a chain stopper
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyester resins (including alkyd type), as the basic polymer, formed as esters when one or more of the following acids are made to react with one or more of the following alcohols:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acids:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Azelaic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Dimethyl 1,4-cyclohexanedicarboxylate (CAS Reg. No. 94-60-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Dimethyl-5-sulfoisophthalic acid (CAS Reg. No. 50975-82-1) and/or its sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 3965-55-7)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Polybasic and monobasic acids identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii)(<E T="03">a</E>) and (<E T="03">b</E>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">5-sulfo-1,3-benzenedicarboxylic acid, monosodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 6362-79-4)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Tetrahydrophthalic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Alcohols:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1,4-Cyclohexanedimethanol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1,6-Hexanediol (CAS Reg. No. 629-11-8)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Polyhydric and monohydric alcohols identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii)(<E T="03">c</E>) and (<E T="03">d</E>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethyleneadipate modified with ethanolamine with the molar ratio of the amine to the adipic acid less than 0.1 to 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in the preparation of polyurethan resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (molecular weight 200-6,000)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol mono-isotridecyl ether sulfate, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 150413-26-6)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethyleneglycol alkyl(C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">12</E>)ether sulfosuccinate, disodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 68954-91-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene, oxidized
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene resins, carboxyl modified, identified in § 177.1600 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylenimine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylenimine-epichlorohydrin resins
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(ethyloxazoline) (CAS Reg. No. 25805-17-8)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyisoprene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymeric esters of polyhydric alcohols and polycarboxylic acids prepared from glycerin and phthalic anhydride and modified with benzoic acid, castor oil, coconut oil, linseed oil, rosin, soybean oil, styrene, and vinyl toluene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymers: Homopolymers and copolymers of the following monomers:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylonitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Allylmethacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 00096-05-09)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butadiene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">N-tert-</E>Butylacrylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,3-Butylene glycol dimethacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butyl methacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crotonic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Decyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diallyl fumarate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diallyl maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diallyl phthalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dibutyl fumarate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dibutyl itaconate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dibutyl maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Di(2-ethylhexyl) maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethyl-α-methylstyrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dioctyl fumarate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dioctyl maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Divinylbenzene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene cyanohydrin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Ethylhexyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl methacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fatty acids, C<E T="52">10-13</E>-branched, vinyl esters (CAS Reg. No. 184785-38-4)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fumaric acid and/or its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, amyl hexyl, heptyl and octyl esters
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycidyl methacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1-Hexene (CAS Reg. No. 592-41-6)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Hydroxyethyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Hydroxyethyl methacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Hydroxypropyl methacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isobutyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isobutylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Itaconic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Maleic acid, diester with 2-hydroxyethanesulfonic acid, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Maleic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methacrylic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">N,N′-</E>Methylenebisacrylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl methacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">N-</E>Methylolacrylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl styrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">-Methyl styrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Monoethyl maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Monomethyl maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mono (2-ethylhexyl) maleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">5-Norbornene-2 3-dicarboxylic acid, mono<E T="03">-n-</E>butyl ester
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1-Octene (CAS Reg. No. 111-66-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Styrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triallyl cyanurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl alcohol (from alcoholysis or hydrolysis of vinyl acetate units)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl butyrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl crotonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl ethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl hexoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinylidene chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl methyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl pelargonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl propionate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl pyrrolidone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyalkylated-phenolic resin (phenolic resin obtained from formaldehyde plus butyl- and/or amylphenols, oxyalkylated with ethylene oxide and/or propylene oxide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(oxycaproyl) diols and triols (minimum molecular weight 500)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylated (40 moles) tallow alcohol sulfate, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (20 mol)—anhydrous lanolin adduct
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (molecular weight 200) dibenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (molecular weight 200-600) esters of fatty acids derived from animal or vegetable fats and oils (including tall oil)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (15 moles) ester of rosin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (4-5 moles) ether of phenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (25 moles)—glycerol adduct
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (40 moles) stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (5-15 moles) tridecyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene (3 moles) tridecyl alcohol sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene (20 moles) butyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene (40 moles) butyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene (20 moles) oleate butyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene condensate (minimum molecular weight 1,900)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene glycol (minimum molecular weight 150)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene glycol (3-4 moles) triether with 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)-1,3-propane-diol, average molecular weight 730
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene glycol dibenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 72245-46-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a plasticizer at levels not to exceed 20 percent by weight of the finished adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene, noncrystalline
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysiloxanes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethyl polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dihydrogen polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethyl polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diphenyl polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl hydrogen polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl phenyl polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl ethyl polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl hydrogen polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl phenyl polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenyl hydrogen polysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 60
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 80
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 20 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monolaurate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 40 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monopalmitate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[styrene-co-disodium maleate-co-α-(<E T="03">p-</E>nonyl-phenyl)<E T="03">-omega-</E>(<E T="03">p-</E>vinyl-benzyl)poly(oxyethylene)] terpolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polytetrafluoroethylene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyurethane resins produced by: (1) reacting diisocyanates with one or more of the polyols or polyesters named in this paragraph, or (2) reacting the chloroformate derivatives of one or more of the polyols or polyesters named in this paragraph with one or more of the polyamines named in this paragraph, or (3) reacting toluene diisocyanate or 4,4′ methylenebis(cyclohexylisocyanate) (CAS Reg. No. 5124-30-1) with: (i) one or more of the polyols or polyesters named in this paragraph and with either <E T="03">N</E>-methyldiethanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 105-59-9) and dimethyl sulfate (CAS Reg. No. 77-78-1) or dimethylolpropionic acid (CAS Reg. No. 4767-03-7) and triethylamine (CAS Reg. No. 121-44-8), or (ii) a fumaric acid-modified polypropylene glycol or fumaric acid-modified tripropylene glycol), triethylamine (CAS Reg. No. 107-15-3), and ethylenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 121-44-8), or (4) reacting <E T="03">meta</E>-tetramethylxylene diisocyanate (CAS Reg. No. 2778-42-9) with one or more of the polyols and polyesters listed in this paragraph and with dimethylolpropionic acid (CAS Reg. No. 4767-03-7) and triethylamine (CAS Reg. No. 121-44-8), <E T="03">N</E>-methyldiethanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 105-59-9), 2-dimethylaminoethanol (CAS Reg. No. 108-01-0), 2-dimethylamino-2-methyl-1-propanol (CAS Reg. No. 7005-47-2), and/or 2-amino-2-methyl-1-propanol (CAS Reg. No. 124-68-5)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl alcohol modified so as to contain not more than 3 weight percent of comonomer units derived from 1-alkenes having 12 to 20 carbon atoms
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl butyral
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl formal
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium ferricyanide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium <E T="03">N-</E>methyldithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium permanganate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium phosphates (mono-, di-, tribasic)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium tripolyphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α, α′, α″-1,2,3-Propanetriyltris [<E T="03">omega</E>-(2,3-epoxypropoxy) poly (oxypropylene) (24 moles)]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β-Propiolactone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl alcohol (propanol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene carbonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol and <E T="03">p-p′</E>-isopropylidenediphenol diether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol dibenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 19224-26-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a plasticizer at levels not to exceed 20 percent by weight of the finished adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol esters of coconut fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol monolaurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol monomethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α, α′, α″-[Propylidynetris (methylene)] tris [<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxypropylene) (1.5 moles minimum)], minimum molecular weight 400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quaternary ammonium chloride (hexadecyl, octadecyl derivative)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosin (wood, gum, and tall oil rosin), rosin dimers, decarboxylated rosin (including rosin oil, disproportionated rosin, and these substances as modified by one or more of the following reactants:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Alkyl (C<E T="52">1</E>-C<E T="52">9</E>) phenolformaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ammonia
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ammonium caseinate<E T="03">-p-</E>Cyclohexylphenolformaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dipentaerythritol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fumaric acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycerin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isophthalic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin (epoxy)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Maleic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pentaerythritol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phthalic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenol-formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenyl μ-cresol-formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">p-</E>Phenylphenol-formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfuric acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Xylenol-formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosin salts (salts of wood, gum, and tall oil rosin, and the dimers thereof, decarboxylated rosin disproportionated rosin, hydrogenated rosin):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ammonium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Potassium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosin, gasoline-insoluble fraction
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber hydrochloride polymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber latex, natural
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salicylic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sandarac
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sebacic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shellac
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon dioxide as defined in § 172.480(a) of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium alkyl (C<E T="52">2</E>-C<E T="52">13.5</E> aliphatic) benezenesulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium aluminum pyrophosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium aluminum sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium bisulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium calcium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium capryl polyphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium carboxymethylcellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chlorate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chlorite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chromate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium decylsulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dehydroacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium di-(2-ethylhexoate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium di-(2-ethylhexyl) pyrophosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dihexylsulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dissobutylphenoxydiethoxyethyl sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium diisobutylphenoxymonoethoxyethyl sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium diisopropyl- and triisopropylnaphthalenesulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dioctylsulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">n-</E>dodecylpolyethoxy (50 moles) sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium ethylene ether of nonylphenol sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2-ethylhexyl sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium fluoride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as bonding agent for aluminum foil, stabilizer, or preservative. Total fluoride for all sources not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium formate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium heptadecylsulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hypochlorite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium isododecylphenoxypolyethoxy (40 moles) sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">N-</E>lauroyl sarcosinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium metaborate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium α-naphthalene sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium oleoyl isopropanolamide sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium perborate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium μ-phenylphenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polyacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polymethacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium salicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium salt of 1-hydroxy 2(1H)-pyridine thione</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium tetradecylsulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium thiocyanate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium bis-tridecylsulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium xylene sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soybean oil, epoxidized
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spermaceti wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sperm oil wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stannous 2-ethylhexanoate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a catalyst for polyurethane resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stannous stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Starch hydrolysates
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Starch or starch modified by one or more of the treatments described in §§ 172.892 and 178.3520 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Starch, reacted with a urea-formaldehyde resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Starch, reacted with formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearamide (stearic acid amide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearic acid-chromic chloride complex
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearyl-cetyl alcohol, technical grade, approximately 65 percent-80 percent stearyl and 20 percent-35 percent cetyl
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium salicylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrenated phenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymer, ammonium or potassium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymer (partially methylated) sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-methacrylic acid copolymer, potassium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sucrose acetate isobutyrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sucrose benzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sucrose octaacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-sulfoethyl methacrylate (CAS Registry No. 10595-80-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the dry adhesive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Sulfo-omega-(dodecyloxy)poly (oxyethylene), ammonium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfonated octadecylene (sodium form)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfosuccinic acid 4-ester with polyethylene glycol dodecyl ether disodium salt (alcohol moiety produced by condensation of 1 mole of <E T="03">n</E>-dodecyl alcohol and an average of 5-6 moles of ethylene oxide, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 039354-45-5)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfosuccinic acid 4-ester with polyethylene glycol nonylphenyl ether, disodium salt (alcohol moiety produced by condensation of 1 mole of nonylphenol and an average of 9-10 moles of ethylene oxide) (CAS Reg. No. 9040-38-4)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic primary linear aliphatic alcohols whose weight average molecular weight is greater than 400 (CAS Reg. No. 71750-71-5)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic wax polymer as described in § 176.170(a)(5) of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tall oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tall oil fatty acids, linoleic and oleic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tall oil fatty acid methyl ester
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tall oil, methyl ester
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tall oil pitch
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tall oil soaps
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow alcohol (hydrogenated)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow amine, secondary (hexadecyl, octadecyl), of hard tallow
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow, blown (oxidized)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow, propylene glycol ester
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terpene resins (α-and β-pinene) homopolymers, copolymers, and condensates with phenol, formaldehyde, coumarone, and/or indene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terphenyl
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terphenyl, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terpineol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetraethylene pentamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetraethylthiuram disulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrahydrofuran
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrahydrofurfuryl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetra-isopropyl titanate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrakis[methylene (3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxy-hydro-cinnamate)] methane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="04">a</E>[<E T="03">p-</E>(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl) phenyl]<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <E T="03">p-</E>(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl) phenol with an average of 1-40 moles of ethylene oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="04">a</E>-[<E T="03">p-</E>(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl) phenyl]<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxy-poly(oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters and their sodium, potassium, and ammonium salts having a poly(oxyethylene) content averaging 6-9 or 40 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl decanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl decynediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl decynediol plus 1-30 moles of ethylene oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethylthiuram monosulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium <E T="03">N-</E>(1,2-dicarboxyethyl)<E T="03">N-</E>octadecylsulfosuccinamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Thiobis-6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl<E T="03">-m-</E>cresol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiodiethylene-bis(3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-(2,5-Thiophenediyl) bis[5<E T="03">-tert-</E>butylbenzoxazole]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiram
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thymol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide-barium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide-calcium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide-magnesium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene 2,4-diisocyanate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene 2,6-diisocyanate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">o</E>- and <E T="03">p-</E>Toluene ethyl sulfonamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">o</E>- and <E T="03">p-</E>Toluene sulfonamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-</E>Toluene sulfonic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-</E>(<E T="03">p</E>′-Toluene-sulfonylamide)-diphenylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triazine-formaldehyde resins as described in § 175.300(b)(3)(xiii)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tributoxyethyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tributylcitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl<E T="03">-p-</E>phenyl phenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tributyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tributyltin chloride complex of ethylene oxide condensate of dehydroabietylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri<E T="03">-n-</E>butyltin acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri<E T="03">-n-</E>butyltin neodecanoate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,1-Trichloroethane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2-Trichloroethane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloroethylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri-β-chloroethylphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tridecyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-(Triethoxysilyl) propylamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol dibenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol di(2-ethylhexoate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol polyester of benzoic acid and phthalic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylhexyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,5-Trihydroxy butyrophenone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triisopropanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trimethylol propane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2,4-Trimethylpentanediol-1,3-diisobutyrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trimeric aromatic amine resin from diphenylamine and acetone of molecular weight approximately 500
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri(nonylphenyl) phosphite-formaldehyde resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As identified in § 177.2600(c)(4)(iii) of this chapter. For use only as a stabilizer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triphenylphosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tripropylene glycol monomethyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3,5-Tris (3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxy-benzyl)-triazine-2,4,6 (1H,3H,5H)-trione
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tris (<E T="03">p-</E>tertiary butyl phenyl) phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tris(2-methyl-4-hydroxy-5<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-phenyl)butane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trisodium <E T="03">N</E>-hydroxyethylethylenediaminetriacetate (CAS Reg. No. 139-89-9)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turpentine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urea-formaldehyde resins as described in § 175.300(b)(3)(xii)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vegetable oil, sulfonated or sulfated, potassium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl acetate-maleic anhydride copolymer, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waxes, petroleum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wax, petroleum, chlorinated (40% to 70% chlorine)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waxes, synthetic paraffin (Fischer-Tropsch process)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-(2-Xenolyl)-1,2-epoxypropane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene (or toluene) alkylated with dicyclopentadiene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zein
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc ammonium chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc dibenzyl dithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc dibutyldithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc diethyldithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc di(2-ethylhexoate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc formaldehyde sulfoxylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc naphthenate and dehydroabietylamine mixture
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc orthophosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc resinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc sulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zineb (zinc ethylenebis-dithiocarbamate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ziram (zinc dimethyldithiocarbamate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 175.105, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.125" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.125   Pressure-sensitive adhesives.</HEAD>
<P>Pressure-sensitive adhesives may be safely used as the food-contact surface of labels and/or tapes applied to food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Pressure-sensitive adhesives prepared from one or a mixture of two or more of the substances listed in this paragraph may be used as the food-contact surface of labels and/or tapes applied to poultry, dry food, and processed, frozen, dried, or partially dehydrated fruits or vegetables.
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Color additives listed for use in or on food in parts 73 and 74 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances identified in § 172.615 of this chapter other than substances used in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Polyethylene, oxidized; complying with the identity prescribed in § 177.1620(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) 4-[[4, 6-Bis(octylthio)-<I>s</I>-triazin-2-yl]amino]-2,6-di-<I>tert</I>-butylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 991-84-4) as an antioxidant/stabilizer at a level not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of the finished pressure-sensitive adhesive.
</P>
<P>(7) 2,2′-(2,5-Thiophenediyl)-bis(5-<I>tert</I>-butylbenzoxazole) (CAS Reg. No. 7128-64-5) as an optical brightener at a level not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of the finished pressure-sensitive adhesive.
</P>
<P>(8) 2-Hydroxy-1-[4-(2-hydroxyethoxy) phenyl]-2-methyl-1-propanone (CAS Reg. No. 106797-53-9) as a photoinitiator at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the pressure-sensitive adhesive.
</P>
<P>(9) Butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-di-(C<E T="52">9</E>-C<E T="52">11</E> alkyl) ester, ammonium salt (also known as butanedioic acid sulfo-1, 4-diisodecyl ester, ammonium salt [CAS Reg. No. 144093-88-9]) as a surface active agent at a level not to exceed 3.0 percent by weight of the finished pressure-sensitive adhesive.
</P>
<P>(b) Pressure-sensitive adhesives prepared from one or a mixture of two or more of the substances listed in this paragraph may be used as the food-contact surface of labels and/or tapes applied to raw fruit and raw vegetables.
</P>
<P>(1) Substances listed in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), and (a)(9) of this section, and those substances prescribed by paragraph (a)(4) of this section that are not identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this subparagraph and subject to the limitations provided:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>BHA.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BHT.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile-styrene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-styrene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl rubber.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylated reaction product of <I>p</I>-cresol and dicyclopentadiene produced by reacting <I>p</I>-cresol and dicyclopentadiene in an approximate mole ratio of 1.5 to 1.0, respectively, followed by alkylation with isobutylene so that the butyl content of the final product is not less than 18 percent, for use at levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the adhesive formulation.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorinated natural rubber.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutylene-styrene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petrolatum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutene-1. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740(b) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyisobutylene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>cis-</I>1,4-Polyisoprene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polystyrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl gallate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rapeseed oil, vulcanized.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rosins and rosin derivatives as provided in § 178.3870 of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rubber hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rubber (natural latex solids or crepe, smoked or unsmoked).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpene resins (α- and β-pinene), homopolymers, copolymers, and condensates with phenol, formaldehyde, coumarone, and/or indene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrasodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tri(mixed mono- and dinonylphenyl) phosphite (which may contain not more than 1 percent by weight of triisopropanolamine).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 48 FR 15617, Apr. 12, 1983; 63 FR 3464, Jan. 23, 1998; 63 FR 51528, Sept. 28, 1998; 64 FR 48291, Sept. 3, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Substances for Use as Components of Coatings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.210   Acrylate ester copolymer coating.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylate ester copolymer coating may safely be used as a food-contact surface of articles intended for packaging and holding food, including heating of prepared food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The acrylate ester copolymer is a fully polymerized copolymer of ethyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, and methacrylic acid applied in emulsion form to molded virgin fiber and heat-cured to an insoluble resin.
</P>
<P>(b) Optional substances used in the preparation of the polymer and in the preparation and application of the emulsion may include substances named in this paragraph, in an amount not to exceed that required to accomplish the desired technical effect and subject to any limitation prescribed: <I>Provided, however,</I> That any substance named in this paragraph and covered by a specific regulation in subchapter B of this chapter must meet any specifications in such regulation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium lauryl sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Borax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed the amount required as a preservative in emulsion defoamer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium hydrogen phosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl cellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraffin wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium hydroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium pyrophosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The coating in the form in which it contacts food meets the following tests:
</P>
<P>(1) An appropriate sample when exposed to distilled water at 212 °F for 30 minutes shall yield total chloroform-soluble extractables not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch.
</P>
<P>(2) An appropriate sample when exposed to <I>n-</I>heptane at 120 °F for 30 minutes shall yield total chloroform-soluble extractables not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.230" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.230   Hot-melt strippable food coatings.</HEAD>
<P>Hot-melt strippable food coatings may be safely applied to food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The coatings are applied to and used as removable coatings for food.
</P>
<P>(b) The coatings may be prepared, as mixtures, from the following substances:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this subparagraph.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetylated monoglycerides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with 172.828 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose acetate butyrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose acetate propionate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of hot-melt strippable food coatings applied to frozen meats and complying with § 172.878 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.250   Paraffin (synthetic).</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic paraffin may be safely used as an impregnant in, coating on, or component of coatings on articles used in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is synthesized by the Fischer-Tropsch process from carbon monoxide and hydrogen, which are catalytically converted to a mixture of paraffin hydrocarbons. Lower molecular-weight fractions are removed by distillation. The residue is hydrogenated and may be further treated by percolation through activated charcoal. This mixture can be fractionated into its components by a solvent separation method, using synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons complying with § 178.3530 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Synthetic paraffin shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Congealing point.</I> There is no specification for the congealing point of synthetic paraffin components, except those components that have a congealing point below 50 °C when used in contact with food Types III, IVA, V, VIIA, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter shall be limited to a concentration not exceeding 15 percent by weight of the finished coating. The congealing point shall be determined by ASTM method D938-71 (Reapproved 1981), “Standard Test Method for Congealing Point of Petroleum Waxes, Including Petrolatum,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oil content.</I> The substance has an oil content not exceeding 2.5 percent as determined by ASTM method D721-56T, “Tentative Method of Test for Oil Content of Petroleum Waxes” (Revised 1956), which is incorporated by reference. See paragraph (b)(1) of this section for availability of the incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Absorptivity.</I> The substance has an absorptivity at 290 millimicrons in decahydronaphthalene at 88 °C not exceeding 0.01 as determined by ASTM method E131-81a, “Standard Definitions of Terms and Symbols Relating to Molecular-Spectroscopy,” which is incorporated by reference. See paragraph (b)(1) of this section for availability of the incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of this section are not applicable to synthetic paraffin used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11839, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10106, Mar. 19, 1984; 51 FR 47010, Dec. 30, 1986; 60 FR 39645, Aug. 3, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.260" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.260   Partial phosphoric acid esters of polyester resins.</HEAD>
<P>Partial phosphoric acid esters of polyester resins identified in this section and applied on aluminum may be safely used as food-contact coatings, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, partial phosphoric acid esters of polyester resins are prepared by the reaction of trimellitic anhydride with 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol followed by reaction of the resin thus produced with phosphoric acid anhydride to produce a resin having an acid number of 81 to 98 and a phosphorus content of 4.05 to 4.65 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(b) The coating is chemically bonded to the metal and cured at temperatures exceeding 450 °F.
</P>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact coating, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use, as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 175.300(d), yields total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.3 milligrams per square inch of food-contact surface, as determined by the methods described in § 175.300(e), and the coating yields 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.3 micrograms per square inch of food-contact surface. In testing the finished food-contact articles, a separate test sample is to be used for each required extracting solvent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.270" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.270   Poly(vinyl fluoride) resins.</HEAD>
<P>Poly(vinyl fluoride) resins identified in this section may be safely used as components of food-contact coatings for containers having a capacity of not less than 5 gallons, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, poly(vinyl fluoride) resins consist of basic resins produced by the polymerization of vinyl fluoride.
</P>
<P>(b) The poly(vinyl fluoride) basic resins have an intrinsic viscosity of not less than 0.75 deciliter per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Solvent. N,N-</I>Dimethylacetamide, technical grade.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Solution.</I> Powdered resin and solvent are heated at 120 °C until the resin is dissolved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Temperature.</I> Flow times of the solvent and solution are determined at 110 °C.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Viscometer.</I> Cannon-Ubbelohde size 50 semimicro dilution viscometer (or equivalent).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation.</I> The calculation method used is that described in appendix X 1.3 (ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference; see paragraph (b) of this section for availability of the incorporation by reference) with the reduced viscosity determined for three concentration levels not greater than 0.5 gram per deciliter and extrapolated to zero concentration for intrinsic viscosity. The following formula is used for determining reduced viscosity:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.387.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-1><I>t</I> = Solution efflux time.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>to</I> = Solvent efflux time.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>c</I> = Concentration of solution in terms of grams per deciliter.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11839, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10107, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.300" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.300   Resinous and polymeric coatings.</HEAD>
<P>Resinous and polymeric coatings may be safely used as the food-contact surface of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The coating is applied as a continuous film or enamel over a metal substrate, or the coating is intended for repeated food-contact use and is applied to any suitable substrate as a continuous film or enamel that serves as a functional barrier between the food and the substrate. The coating is characterized by one or more of the following descriptions:
</P>
<P>(1) Coatings cured by oxidation.
</P>
<P>(2) Coatings cured by polymerization, condensation, and/or cross-linking without oxidation.
</P>
<P>(3) Coatings prepared from prepolymerized substances.
</P>
<P>(b) The coatings are formulated from optional substances that may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances the use of which is permitted by regulations in this part or which are permitted by prior sanction or approval and employed under the specific conditions, if any, of the prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Any substance employed in the production of resinous and polymeric coatings that is the subject of a regulation in subchapter B of this chapter and conforms with any specification in such regulation. Substances named in this paragraph (b)(3) and further identified as required:
</P>
<P>(i) Drying oils, including the triglycerides or fatty acids derived therefrom:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Beechnut.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Candlenut.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Castor (including dehydrated).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chinawood (tung).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coconut.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corn. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cottonseed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fish (refined).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hempseed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linseed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oiticica.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Perilla.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poppyseed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pumpkinseed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Safflower.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sesame.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soybean.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sunflower.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tall oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Walnut.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>The oils may be raw, heat-bodied, or blown. They may be refined by filtration, degumming, acid or alkali washing, bleaching, distillation, partial dehydration, partial polymerization, or solvent extraction, or modified by combination with maleic anhydride.
</FP>
<P>(ii) Reconstituted oils from triglycerides or fatty acids derived from the oils listed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section to form esters with:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polypropylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylol ethane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylol propane.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Synthetic drying oils, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butadiene and methylstyrene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene and styrene copolymer, blown or unblown.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic anhydride adduct of butadiene styrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutadiene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Natural fossil resins, as the basic resin:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Copal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Damar.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Elemi.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gilsonite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerol ester of damar, copal, elemi, and sandarac.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sandarac.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shellac.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Utah coal resin.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) Rosins and rosin derivatives, with or without modification by polymerization, isomerization, incidental decarboxylation, and/or hydrogenation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Rosins, refined to color grade of K or paler:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Gum rosin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tall oil rosin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wood rosin.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Rosin esters formed by reacting rosin (paragraph (b)(3)(v)(<I>a</I>) of this section) with:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>4,4′<I>-sec-</I>Butylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin (epoxy).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin (epoxy).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Rosin esters (paragraph (b)(3)(v)(<I>b</I>) of this section) modified by reaction with:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Maleic anhydride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-, m-,</I> and <I>p-</I>substituted phenol-formaldehydes listed in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol-formaldehyde.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Rosin salts:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Calcium resinate (limed rosin).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc resinate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) Phenolic resins as the basic polymer formed by reaction of phenols with formaldehyde:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Phenolic resins formed by reaction of formaldehyde with:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alkylated (methyl, ethyl, propyl, isopropyl, butyl) phenols.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-tert-</I>Amylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′<I>-sec-</I>Butylidenediphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-tert-</I>Butylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-, m-,</I> and <I>p-</I>Cresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Cyclohexylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Nonylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Octylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Pentadecyl phenol mixture obtained from cashew nut shell liquid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl <I>o-</I>cresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Phenylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Xylenol.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Adjunct for phenolic resins: Aluminum butylate.
</P>
<P>(vii) Polyester resins (including alkyd-type), as the basic polymers, formed as esters of acids listed in paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section by reaction with alcohols in paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(<I>c</I>) and (<I>d</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Polybasic acids:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Adipic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-cyclohexanedicarboxylic (CAS Reg. No. 1076-97-7).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimerized fatty acids derived from oils listed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fumaric.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isophthalic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Naphthalenedicarboxylic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Naphthalenedicarboxylic, dimethyl ester.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Orthophthalic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sebacic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terephthalic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpene-maleic acid adduct.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimellitic.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Monobasic acids:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Benzoic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4-Bis(4′-hydroxyphenyl)-pentanoic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>tert-</I>Butyl benzoic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fatty acids derived from oils listed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rosins listed in paragraph (b)(3)(v)(<I>a</I>) of this section, for use only as reactants in oil-based or fatty acid-based alkyd resins.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Polyhydric alcohols:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol for use only in forming polyester resins for coatings intended for use in contact with non-alcoholic foods.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mannitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methyl glucoside.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylene glycol, for use as a component in polyester resins for coatings not exceeding a coating weight of 4 milligrams per square inch and that are intended for contact under conditions of use D, E, F or G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section with alcoholic beverages containing less than 8 percent alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylol ethane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylol propane.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Monohydric alcohols:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cetyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lauryl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myristyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearyl alcohol.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Catalysts:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dibutyltin oxide (CAS Reg. No. 818-08-6), not to exceed 0.2 percent of the polyester resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxybutyltin oxide (CAS Reg. No. 2273-43-0), not to exceed 0.2 percent of the polyester resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monobutyltin tris(2-ethylhexoate) (CAS Reg. No. 23850-94-4), not to exceed 0.2 percent of the polyester resin.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(viii) Epoxy resins, catalysts, and adjuncts:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Epoxy resins, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>(Alkoxy C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)-2,3-epoxypropane, in which the alkyl groups are even numbered and consist of a maximum of 1 percent C<E T="52">10</E> carbon atoms and a minimum of 48 percent C<E T="52">12</E> carbon atoms and a minimum of 18 percent C<E T="52">14</E> carbon atoms, for use only in coatings that are intended for contact with dry bulk foods at room temperature.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′<I>-sec-</I>Butylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′<I>-sec-</I>Butylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin reacted with one or more of the drying oils or fatty acids listed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>4,4′<I>-sec-</I>Butylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin chemically treated with one or more of the following substances:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Allyl ether of mono-, di-, or trimethylol phenol.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>4,4′<I>-sec-</I>Butylidenediphenol-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Melamine-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Phenol-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Urea-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Epoxidized polybutadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycidyl ethers formed by reacting phenolnovolak resins with epichlorohydrin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin reacted with one or more of the drying oils or fatty acids listed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin chemically treated with one or more of the following substances:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Allyl ether of mono-, di-, or trimethylol phenol.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>4,4′<I>-sec-</I>Butylidenediphenol-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Melamine-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2,2′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis[4,1-phenyleneoxy[1-(butoxymethyl)-2,1-ethanediyl]oxymethylene]]bisoxirane, CAS Reg. No. 71033-08-4, for use only in coatings intended for contact with bulk dry foods at temperatures below 100 °F.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Phenol-formaldehyde.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Urea-formaldehyde.</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Catalysts and cross-linking agents for epoxy resins:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>3-(Aminomethyl)-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexylamine reacted with phenol and formaldehyde in a ratio of 2.6:1.0:2.0, for use only in coatings intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Category I and Category VIII, at temperatures not exceeding 88 °C (190 °F).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-<I>Beta</I>-(aminoethyl)-<I>gamma</I>-aminopropyltrimethoxysilane (CAS Reg. No. 1760-24-3), for use only in coatings at a level not to exceed 1.3 percent by weight of the resin when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, and III, under conditions of use C, D, E, or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section; or when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VI, VII, and VIII, under conditions of use E or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section. Use shall be limited to coatings for tanks of capacity greater than 530,000 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 100-51-6), for use only in coatings at a level not to exceed 4 percent by weight of the resin when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, and III, under conditions of use C, D, E, or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section; or when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VI, VII, and VIII, under conditions of use E or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section. Use shall be limited to coatings for tanks of capacity greater than 530,000 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Catalysts and cross-linking agents for epoxy resins:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3-Aminomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexylamine (CAS Reg. No. 2855-0913-092).
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Cyanoguanidine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Diethylaminopropylamine (CAS Reg. No. 104-78-9), for use in coatings at a level not to exceed 6 percent by weight of the resin when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, and III, under conditions of use C, D, E, or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section; or when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VI, VII, and VIII, under conditions of use E or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section. Use shall be limited to coatings for tanks of capacity greater than 530,000 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylenetriamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isophthalyl dihydrazide for use only in coatings subject to the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) or (4) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Methylenedianiline, for use only in coatings for containers having a capacity of 1,000 gallons or more when such containers are intended for repeated use in contact with alcoholic beverages containing up to 8 percent of alcohol by volume.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>Oleyl-1,3-propanediamine with not more than 10 percent by weight of diethylaminoethanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Pentadecenyl phenol mixture (obtained from cashew nutshell liquid) reacted with formaldehyde and ethylenediamine in a ratio of 1:2:2 (CAS Reg. No. 68413-28-5).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyamine produced when 1 mole of the chlorohydrin diether of polyethylene glycol 400 is made to react under dehydrohalogenating conditions with 2 moles of <I>N-</I>octadecyltrimethylenediamine for use only in coatings that are subject to the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) or (4) of this section and that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylenepolyamine (CAS Reg. No. 68131-73-7), for use only in coatings intended for repeated use in contact with food, at temperatures not to exceed 180 °F (82 °C). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylic acid, for use only in coatings for containers having a capacity of 1,000 gallons or more when such containers are intended for repeated use in contact with alcoholic beverages containing up to 8 percent of alcohol by volume.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylic acid (CAS Reg. No. 69-72-7), for use only in coatings at a level not to exceed 0.35 percent by weight of the resin when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, and III, under conditions of use C, D, E, or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section; or when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VI, VII, and VIII, under conditions of use E or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section. Use shall be limited to coatings for tanks of capacity greater than 530,000 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous 2-ethylhexanoate for use only as a catalyst at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the resin used in coatings that are intended for contact with food under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene oxide, for use only in coatings for containers having a capacity of 1,000 gallons or more when such containers are intended for repeated use in contact with alcoholic beverages containing up to 8 percent of alcohol by volume.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetraethylenepentamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetraethylenepentamine reacted with equimolar quantities of fatty acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tri(dimethylaminomethyl) phenol and its salts prepared from the fatty acid moieties of the salts listed in paragraph (b)(3)(xxii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, for use only in coatings subject to the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) or (4) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylenetetramine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimellitic anhydride (CAS Reg. No. 552-30-7) for use only as a cross-linking agent at a level not to exceed 15 percent by weight of the resin in contact with food under all conditions of use, except that resins intended for use with foods containing more than 8 percent alcohol must contact such food only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimellitic anhydride adducts of ethylene glycol and glycerol, prepared by the reaction of 1 mole of trimellitic anhydride with 0.4-0.6 mole of ethylene glycol and 0.04-0.12 mole of glycerol, for use only as a cross-linking agent at a level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the cured coating, provided that the cured coating only contacts food containing not more than 8 percent alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Meta-Xylylenediamine (1,3-benzenedimethanamine, CAS Reg. No. 1477-55-0), for use only in coatings at a level not to exceed 3 percent by weight of the resin when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, and III, under conditions of use C, D, E or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section; or when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VI, VII, and VIII, under conditions of use E or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section. Use shall be limited to coatings for tanks of capacity greater than 530,000 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Para-Xylylenediamine (1,4 benzenedimethanamine, CAS Reg. No. 539-48-0), for use only in coatings at a level not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of the resin when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, III, under conditions of use C, D, E, or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section; or when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VI, VII, and VIII, under conditions of use E and F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section. Use shall be limited to coatings for tanks of capacity greater than 530,000 gallons.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Adjuncts for epoxy resins:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum butylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoic acid, for use as a component in epoxy resins for coatings not exceeding a coating weight of 4 milligrams per square inch and that are intended for contact under conditions of use D, E, F or G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section with alcoholic beverages containing less than 8 percent alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyamides from dimerized vegetable oils and the amine catalysts listed in paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, as the basic polymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silane coupled silica, prepared from the reaction of microcrystalline quartz with <I>N-beta-</I>(<I>N-</I>vinylbenzylamino) ethyl-<I>gamma-</I>aminopropyltrimethoxy silane, monohydrogen chloride, for use only in coatings intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Category I and Category VIII, at temperatures not exceeding 88 °C (190 °F).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Succinic anhydride, for use as a component in epoxy resins for coatings not exceeding a coating weight of 4 milligrams per square inch, and that are intended for contact under conditions of use D, E, F or G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section with alcoholic beverages containing less than 8 percent alcohol.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ix) Coumarone-indene resin, as the basic polymer.
</P>
<P>(x) Petroleum hydrocarbon resin (cyclopentadiene type), as the basic polymer.
</P>
<P>(xi) Terpene resins, as the basic polymer, from one or more of the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dipentene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogenated dipentene resin (CAS Reg. No. 106168-39-2). For use only with coatings in contact with acidic and aqueous foods.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogenated-<I>beta</I>-pinene-<I>alpha</I>-pinene-dipentene copolymer resin (CAS Reg. No. 106168-37-0). For use only with coatings in contact with acidic and aqueous foods.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Pinene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Pinene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xii) Urea-formaldehyde, resins and their curing catalyst:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Urea-formaldehyde resins, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Urea-formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Urea-formaldehyde chemically modified with methyl, ethyl, propyl, isopropyl, butyl, or isobutyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Urea-formaldehyde chemically modified with one or more of the amine catalysts listed in paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Curing (cross-linking) catalyst for urea-formaldehyde resins:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dodecyl benzenesulfonic acid (C.A. Registry No. 27176-87-0).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xiii) Triazine-formaldehyde resins and their curing catalyst:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Triazine-formaldehyde resins, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Benzoguanamine-formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde chemically modified with one or more of the following amine catalysts:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>Amine catalysts listed in paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Dimethylamine-2-methyl-1-propanol. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Methylpropanolamine.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Triethanolamine.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde chemically modified with methyl, ethyl, propyl, isopropyl, butyl, or isobutyl alcohol.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Curing (cross-linking) catalyst for triazine-formaldehyde resins:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dodecyl benzenesulfonic acid (C.A. Registry No. 27176-87-0).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xiv) Modifiers (for oils and alkyds, including polyesters), as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclopentadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl, ethyl, butyl, or octyl esters of acrylic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl toluene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xv) Vinyl resinous substance, as the basic polymers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl butyral.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl formal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinylidene chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl pyrrolidone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride-acetate-2,3-epoxypropyl methacrylate copolymers containing not more than 10 weight percent of total polymer units derived from 2,3-epoxypropyl methacrylate and not more than 0.1 weight percent of unreacted 2,3-epoxypropyl methacrylate monomer for use in coatings for containers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride-acetate, hydroxyl-modified copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride-acetate, hydroxyl-modified copolymer, reacted with trimellitic anhydride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride copolymerized with acrylamide and ethylene in such a manner that the finished copolymers have a minimum weight average molecular weight of 30,000 and contain not more than 3.5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylamide; the acrylamide portion may or may not be subsequently partially hydrolyzed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride copolymerized with one or more of the following substances:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acrylonitrile.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fumaric acid and/or its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, amyl, hexyl, heptyl, or octyl esters.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic acid and/or its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, amyl, hexyl, heptyl, or octyl esters.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-Norbornene-2,3-dicarboxylic acid, mono-<I>n-</I>butyl ester; for use such that the finished vinyl chloride copolymers contain not more than 4 weight percent of total polymer units derived from this comonomer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinylidene chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride-vinylidene chloride-2,3-epoxypropyl methacrylate copolymers containing not more than 10 weight percent of total polymer units derived from 2,3-epoxypropyl methacrylate and not more than 0.05 weight percent of unreacted 2,3-epoxypropyl methacrylate monomer based on polymer solids for use only in coatings for containers intended for contact with foods under conditions B, C, D, E, F, G, or H described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xvi) Cellulosics, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Carboxymethylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cellulose acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cellulose acetate-butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cellulose acetate-propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl hydroxyethylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyethylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrocellulose.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xvii) Styrene polymers, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Polystyrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methyl styrene polymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</FP-1>
<P>Acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>α-Methylstyrene.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(xviii) Polyethylene and its copolymers as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene-isobutyl acrylate copolymers containing no more than 35 weight percent of total polymer units derived from isobutyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xix) Polypropylene as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Polypropylene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic anhydride adduct of polypropylene The polypropylene used in the manufacture of the adduct complies with § 177.1520(c), item 1.1; and the adduct has a maximum combined maleic anhydride content of 0.8 percent and a minimum intrinsic viscosity of 0.9, determined at 135 °C on a 0.1 percent solution of the modified polypropylene in decahydronaphthalene as determined by a method titled “Method for Determination of Intrinsic Viscosity of Maleic Anhydride Adduct of Polypropylene,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xx) Acrylics and their copolymers, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylamide with ethylacrylate and/or styrene and/or methacrylic acid, subsequently reacted with formaldehyde and butanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acrylic acid and the following esters thereof:
</FP-1>
<FP-1> Ethyl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1> Methyl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl acrylate-styrene-methacrylic acid-hydroxyethyl methacrylate copolymers containing no more than 20 weight percent of total polymer units derived from methacrylic acid and containing no more than 7 weight percent of total polymer units derived from hydroxyethyl methacrylate; for use only in coatings that are applied by electrodeposition to metal substrates.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl acrylate-styrene-methacrylic acid-hydroxypropyl methacrylate copolymers containing no more than 20 weight percent of total polymer units derived from methacrylic acid and containing no more than 7 weight percent of total polymer units derived from hydroxypropyl methacrylate; for use only in coatings that are applied by electrodeposition to metal substrates and that are intended for contact, under condition of use D, E, F, or G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section, with food containing no more than 8 percent of alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acrylate-styrene-methacrylic acid copolymers for use only as modifiers for epoxy resins listed in paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(<I>a</I>) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acrylate-methyl methacrylate-styrene-methacrylic acid copolymers for use only as modifiers for epoxy resins listed in paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(<I>a</I>) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylhexyl acrylate-ethyl acrylate copolymers prepared by copolymerization of 2-ethylhexyl acrylate and ethyl acrylate in a 7/3 weight ratio and having a number average molecular weight range of 5,800 to 6,500 and a refractive index, <I>n</I><E T="54">D25</E>° (40 percent in 2,2,4-trimethyl pentane) of 1.4130-1.4190; for use as a modifier for nylon resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter and for phenolic and epoxy resins listed in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) and (viii) of this section, respectively, at a level not to exceed 1.5 percent of the coating.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylhexyl acrylate-methyl methacrylate-acrylic acid copolymers for use only as modifiers for epoxy resins listed in paragraph (b)(3)(viii) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Methacrylic acid and the following esters thereof:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Butyl.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Ethyl.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Methyl.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Methacrylic acid or its ethyl and methyl esters copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Acrylic acid.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Ethyl acrylate.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Methyl acrylate.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Butyl acrylate-styrene-methacrylic acid-hydroxyethyl methacrylate copolymers containing no more than 2 weight percent of total polymer units derived from methacrylic acid and containing no more than 9.5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from hydroxyethyl methacrylate; for use only in coatings in contact with dry food (food type VIII in table 1 of paragraph (d) of this section). 2-(Dimethylamino) ethanol (C.A.S. Registry No. 108-01-0) may be employed as an optional adjuvant substance limited to no more than 2 weight percent based on polymer solids in the coating emulsion.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene polymers made by the polymerization of any combination of styrene or alpha methyl styrene with acrylic acid, methacrylic acid, 2-ethyl hexyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, and butyl acrylate. The styrene and alpha methyl styrene, individually, may constitute from 0 to 80 weight percent of the polymer. The other monomers, individually, may be from 0 to 40 weight percent of the polymer. The polymer number average molecular weight (M<E T="52">n</E>) shall be at least 2,000 (as determined by gel permeation chromatography). The acid number of the polymer shall be less than 250. The monomer content shall be less than 0.5 percent. The polymers are for use only in contact with food of Types IV-A, V, VII in table 1 of paragraph (d) of this section, under use conditions E through G in table 2 of paragraph (d), and with food of Type VIII without use temperature restriction.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxi) Elastomers, as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile-styrene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-styrene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl rubber.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorinated rubber.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene (neoprene).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Natural rubber (natural latex or natural latex solids, smoked or unsmoked).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyisobutylene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rubber hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene-isobutylene copolymer.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxii) Driers made by reaction of a metal from paragraph (b)(3)(xxii)(<I>a</I>) of this section with acid, to form the salt listed in paragraph (b)(3)(xxii)(<I>b</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Metals:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cerium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cobalt.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lithium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Manganese.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zirconium.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Salts:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Caprate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caprylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isodecanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Naphthenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neodecanoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octoate (2-ethylhexoate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Palmitate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ricinoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soyate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tallate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxiii) Waxes:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Paraffin, Type I.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Paraffin, Type II.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sperm oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Spermaceti.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxiv) Plasticizers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetyl tributyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetyl triethyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-tert</I>-Butyl phenyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibutyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisobutyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Epoxidized soybean oil (iodine number maximum 14; oxirane oxygen content 6% minimum), as the basic polymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylhexyl diphenyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>di-2-Ethylhexyl phthalate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glyceryl monooleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glyceryl triacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monoisopropyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono-, di-, and tristearyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-(2-Xenolyl)-1,2-epoxypropane.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxv) Release agents, as the basic polymer, when applicable:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>N,N′-</I>Dioleoylethylenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 110-31-6) for use only in ionomeric resins complying with § 177.1330 of this chapter and in ethylene vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter at a level not to exceed 0.0085 milligram per square centimeter (0.055 milligram per square inch) in the finished food-contact article.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N</I>′-Distearoyl ethylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linoleic acid amide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oleic acid amide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Palmitic acid amide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petrolatum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene wax.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene glycol monooleate (mol. wt. of the polyoxyethylene glycol moiety greater than 300).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polytetrafluoroethylene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silicones (not less than 300 centistokes viscosity): Dimethylpolysiloxanes and/or methylphenylpolysiloxanes. The methyl-phenylpolysiloxanes contain not more than 2.0 percent by weight of cyclosiloxanes having up to and including 4 siloxy units.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silicones (not less than 100 centistokes viscosity): Dimethylpolysiloxanes and/or methylphenylpolysiloxanes limited to use only on metal substrates. The methylphenylpolysiloxanes contain not more than 2.0 percent by weight of cyclosiloxanes having up to and including 4 siloxy units.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxvi) Colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(xxvii) Surface lubricants:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cottonseed oil and other edible oils.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibutyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dioctyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glyceryl monostearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lanolin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mineral oil, white.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Palm oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Paraffin, Type I.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Paraffin, Type II.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petrolatum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearic acid.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxviii) Silicones and their curing catalysts:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Silicones as the basic polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Siloxane resins originating from methyl hydrogen polysiloxane, dimethyl polysiloxane, and methylphenyl polysiloxane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Siloxane resins originating from the platinum-catalyzed reaction product of vinyl-containing dimethylpolysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68083-18-1 and CAS Reg. No. 68083-19-2) with methylhydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 63148-57-2) and dimethylmethylhydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68037-59-2), where the platinum content does not exceed 150 parts per million. The following substances may be used as optional polymerization inhibitors:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,5-Dimethyl-1-hexyne-3-ol (CAS Reg. No. 107-54-0), at a level not to exceed 0.53 weight-percent;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Ethynylcyclohexene (CAS Reg. No. 931-49-7), at a level not to exceed 0.64 weight-percent;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bis(methoxymethyl)ethyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 102054-10-4), at a level not to exceed 1.0 weight-percent;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylvinyl cyclosiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68082-23-5); and
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetramethyltetravinylcyclotetrasiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 2554-06-5).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Curing (cross-linking) catalysts for silicones (the maximum amount of tin catalyst used shall be that required to effect optimum cure but shall not exceed 1 part of tin per 100 parts of siloxane resins solids):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dibutyltin dilaurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous oleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrabutyl titanate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxix) Surface active agents:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ethylene oxide adduct of 2,4,7,9-tetramethyl-5-decyn-4,7-diol (CAS Reg. No. 9014-85-1).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poly[2-(diethylamino) ethyl methacrylate] phosphate (minimum intrinsic viscosity in water at 25 °C is not less than 9.0 deciliters per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), for use only as a suspending agent in the manufacture of vinyl chloride copolymers and limited to use at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium lauryl sulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4,7,9-Tetramethyl-5-decyn-4,7-diol (C.A.S. Reg. No. 126-86-3), for use only in can coatings which are subsequently dried and cured at temperatures of at least 193 °C (380 °F) for 4 minutes.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxx) Antioxidants:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butylated hydroxyanisole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylated hydroxytoluene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gum guaiac.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dilauryl thiodipropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nordihydroguaiaretic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl gallate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Distearyl thiodipropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiodipropionic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4,5-Trihydroxybutyrophenone.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxxi) Can end cements (sealing compounds used for sealing can ends only): In addition to the substances listed in paragraph (b) of this section and those listed in § 177.1210(b)(5) of this chapter, the following may be used:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butadiene-styrene-divinylbenzene copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 26471-45-4) for use only at levels not to exceed 23.8 percent by weight of the cement solids in can end cements.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-styrene-fumaric acid copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Butylidenebis (6<I>-tert-</I>butyl<I>-m-</I>cresol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzamido phenyl disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di-β-naphthyl phenylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dipentamethylene thiuram tetrasulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutylene-isoprene-divinylbenzene copolymers for use only at levels not to exceed 15 percent by weight of the dry cement composition.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt, for use only at levels not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of the cement solids in can end cements for containers having a capacity of not less than 5 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium decylbenzene sulfonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium nitrite for use only at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of the cement solids in can end cements for containers having a capacity of not less than 5 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium pentachlorophenate for use as a preservative at 0.1 percent by weight in can-sealing compounds on containers having a capacity of 5 gallons or more.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium phenylphenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene-maleic anhydride resin, partial methyl and butyl (<I>sec</I>- or <I>iso</I>-) esters, for use only at levels not in excess of 3 percent of the cement solids in can end cement formulations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrasodium EDTA (tetrasodium ethylene-diaminetetraacetate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tri (mixed mono- and dinonylphenyl) phosphite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc dibutyldithiocarbamate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxxii) Side seam cements: In addition to the substances listed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) to (xxx), inclusive, of this section, the following may be used.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>p-tert-</I>Butyl perbenzoate as a catalyst for epoxy resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>epsilon-</I>Caprolactam-(ethylene-ethyl acrylate) graft polymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dicumyl peroxide for use only as polymerization catalyst.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-(Diiodomethylsulfonyl) toluene (CAS Reg. No. 20018-09-1) for use as a preservative at a level not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight in can-sealing cements.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisodecyl phthalate for use only as plasticizer in side seam cements for containers intended for use in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Categories I, II, and VI.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Bis(<I>alpha,alpha</I>-dimethylbenzyl)diphenylamine, CAS Reg. No. 10081-67-1.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl toluene sulfonamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N′-</I>Hexamethylenebis(3,5-di-<I>tert</I>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamide), CAS Reg. No. 23128-74-7.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Polyamides consisting of the following:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Copolymer of <I>omega-</I>laurolactam and <I>espilon-</I>caprolactam, CAS Reg. No. 25191-04-2 (Nylon 12/6).
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Homopolymer of <I>omega</I>-aminododecanoic acid, CAS Reg. No. 24937-16-4.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Homopolymer of <I>omega-</I>laurolactam, CAS Reg. No. 25038-74-8 (Nylon 12).
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Polyamides derived from the following acids and amines:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Acids:
</FP1-2>
<FP2-3>Adipic. 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Azelaic.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Sebacic.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Vegetable oil acids (with or without dimerization).
</FP2-3>
<FP1-2>Amines:
</FP1-2>
<FP2-3>Diethylenetriamine.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Diphenylamine.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Ethylenediamine.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Hexamethylenediamine.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Tetraethylenepentamine.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>Triethylenetetramine.
</FP2-3>
<FP-1>Polypropylene glycol CAS Reg. No. 25322-69-4.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium pentachlorophenate for use as a preservative at 0.1 percent by weight in can-sealing compounds on containers having a capacity of 5 gallons or more.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrakis [methylene(3,5-di-<I>tert-</I>butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate)]methane, CAS Reg. No. 6683-19-8.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toluene sulfonamide formaldehyde resin (basic polymer).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylene glycol methacrylate for use only as polymerization cross-linking agent in side seam cements for containers intended for use in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Categories I, II, and VI.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Urea.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxxiii) Miscellaneous materials:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ammonium citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonium potassium phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bentonite, modified by reaction with benzyl dimethyl alkyl ammonium chloride, where the alkyl groups are derived from hydrogenated tallow (CAS Reg. No. 71011-24-0). For use only as a rheological agent in coatings intended to contact food under repeated use conditions.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bentonite, modified by reaction with sodium stearate and benzyl dimethyl alkyl ammonium chloride, where the alkyl groups are derived from hydrogenated tallow (CAS Reg. No. 121888-68-4). For use as a rheological agent only in coatings intended to contact dry food under repeated-use conditions.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium ethyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium glycerophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium, sodium, and potassium oleates.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium, sodium, and potassium ricinoleates.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium, sodium, and potassium stearates.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Castor oil, hydrogenated.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Castor oil, hydrogenated polymer with ethylenediamine, 12-hydroxyoctadecanoic acid and sebacic acid (CAS Reg. No. 68604-06-8). The condensation product formed by the reaction of hydrogenated castor oil with polyamide derived from ethylenediamine, sebacic acid and 12-hydroxystearic acid, for use only in coatings at a level not to exceed 3.2 percent by weight of the resin when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods only of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, and III, under conditions of use C, D, E, or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section; or when such coatings are intended for repeated use in contact with foods of the types identified in paragraph (d) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VI, VII, and VIII, under conditions of use E or F as described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section. Use shall be limited to coatings for tanks of capacity greater than 530,000 gallons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Castor oil, sulfated, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 68187-76-8), for use only in coatings for containers intended for repeated use.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cetyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-Chloro-2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 26172-55-4) and 2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 2682-20-4) mixture, at a ratio of 3 parts to 1 part, respectively, manufactured from methyl-3-mercaptopropionate (CAS Reg. No. 2935-90-2) and optionally containing magnesium nitrate (CAS Reg. No. 10377-60-3) at a concentration equivalent to the isothiazolone active ingredients (weight/weight). For use only as an antimicrobial agent in emulsion-based silicone coatings at a level not to exceed 50 milligrams per kilogram (based on isothiazolone active ingredient) in the coating formulations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexanone-formaldehyde resin produced when 1 mole of cyclohexanone is made to react with 1.65 moles of formaldehyde such that the finished resin has an average molecular weight of 600-610 as determined by ASTM method D2503-82, “Standard Test Method for Molecular Weight (Relative Molecular Mass) of Hydrocarbons by Thermoelectric Measurement of Vapor Pressure,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> For use only in contact with nonalcoholic and nonfatty foods under conditions of use E, F, and G, described in table 2 of paragraph (d) this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dibromo-2,4-dicyanobutane (CAS Reg No. 35691-65-7). For use as an antimicrobial agent at levels not to exceed 500 milligrams per kilogram in emulsion-based silicone coatings.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium hydrogen phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acetoacetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hectorite, modified by reaction with a mixture of benzyl methyl dialkyl ammonium chloride and dimethyl dialkyl ammonium chloride, where the alkyl groups are derived from hydrogenated tallow (CAS Reg. No. 121888-67-3). For use as a rheological agent only in coatings intended to contact dry food under repeated-use conditions.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lauryl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lecithin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium, sodium, and potassium citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium glycerophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono-, di-, and tricalcium phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monodibutylamine pyrophosphate as sequestrant for iron.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono-, di-, and trimagnesium phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myristyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphoric acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity and limitations prescribed by § 178.3740 of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poly(ethylene oxide).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Siloxanes and silicones, dimethyl, 3-hydroxypropyl group-terminated, diesters with poly(2-oxepanone), diacetates (CAS Reg. No. 116810-47-0) at a level not to exceed 0.025 weight percent of the finished coating having no greater than a 0.5 mil thickness for use as a component of polyester, epoxy, and acrylic coatings complying with paragraphs (b)(3)(vii), (viii), and (xx) of this section, respectively.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silver chloride-coated titanium dioxide for use only as a preservative in latex emulsions at a level not to exceed 2.2 parts per million (based on silver ion concentration) in the dry coating.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium pyrophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous sulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Sulfoethyl methacrylate, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 1804-87-1). For use only in copolymer coatings on metal under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 2.0 percent by weight of the dry copolymer coating.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrasodium pyrophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tridecyl alcohol produced from tetrapropylene by the oxo process, for use only as a processing aid in polyvinyl chloride resins.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylolpropane (CAS Reg. No. 77-99-6). For use as a pigment dispersant at levels not to exceed 0.45 percent by weight of the pigment.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl acetate-dibutyl maleate copolymers produced when vinyl acetate and dibutyl maleate are copolymerized with or without one of the monomers: Acrylic acid or glycidyl methacrylate. For use only in coatings for metal foil used in contact with foods that are dry solids with the surface containing no free fat or oil. The finished copolymers shall contain at least 50 weight-percent of polymer units derived from vinyl acetate and shall contain no more than 5 weight-percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid or glycidyl methacrylate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxxiv) Polyamide resins derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids (containing not more than 20 percent of monomer acids) and ethylenediamine, as the basic resin, for use only in coatings that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature.
</P>
<P>(xxxv) Polyamide resins having a maximum acid value of 5 and a maximum amine value of 8.5 derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids (containing not more than 10 percent of monomer acids), ethylenediamine, and 4,4-bis (4-hydroxyphenyl) pentanoic acid (in an amount not to exceed 10 percent by weight of said polyamide resins); as the basic resin, for use only in coatings that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature provided that the concentration of the polyamide resins in the finished food-contact coating does not exceed 5 milligrams per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(xxxvi) Methacrylonitrile grafted polybutadiene copolymers containing no more than 41 weight percent of total polymer units derived from methacrylonitrile; for use only in coatings that are intended for contact, under conditions of use D, E, F, or G described in table 2 of paragraph (d) of this section, with food containing no more than 8 percent of alcohol.
</P>
<P>(xxxvii) Polymeric resin as a coating component prepared from terephthalic acid, isophthalic acid, succinic anhydride, ethylene glycol, diethylene glycol, and 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol for use in contact with aqueous foods and alcoholic foods containing not more than 20 percent (by volume) of alcohol under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter. The resin shall contain no more than 30 weight percent of 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol.
</P>
<P>(c) The coating in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food, and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of paragraph (d) of this section, shall yield chloroform-soluble extractives, corrected for zinc extractives as zinc oleate, not to exceed the following:
</P>
<P>(1) From a coating intended for or employed as a component of a container not to exceed 1 gallon and intended for one-time use, not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch nor to exceed that amount as milligrams per square inch that would equal 0.005 percent of the water capacity of the container, in milligrams, divided by the area of the food-contact surface of the container in square inches. From a fabricated container conforming with the description in this paragraph (c)(1), the extractives shall not exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface nor exceed 50 parts per million of the water capacity of the container as determined by the methods provided in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) From a coating intended for or employed as a component of a container having a capacity in excess of 1 gallon and intended for one-time use, not to exceed 1.8 milligrams per square inch nor to exceed that amount as milligrams per square inch that would equal 0.005 percent of the water capacity of the container in milligrams, divided by the area of the food-contact surface of the container in square inches.
</P>
<P>(3) From a coating intended for or employed as a component of a container for repeated use, not to exceed 18 milligrams per square inch nor to exceed that amount as milligrams per square inch that would equal 0.005 percent of the water capacity of the container in milligrams, divided by the area of the food-contact surface of the container in square inches.
</P>
<P>(4) From coating intended for repeated use, and employed other than as a component of a container, not to exceed 18 milligrams per square inch of coated surface.
</P>
<P>(d) Tables:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table 1—Types of Food
</HD1>
<FP-1>I. Nonacid (pH above 5.0), aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both, and including oil-in-water emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>II. Acidic (pH 5.0 or below), aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both, and including oil-in-water emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>III. Aqueous, acid or nonacid products containing free oil or fat; may contain salt, and including water-in-oil emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IV. Dairy products and modifications:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Water-in-oil emulsion, high- or low-fat.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Oil-in-water emulsion, high- or low-fat.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>V. Low moisture fats and oils.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VI. Beverages:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Containing alcohol.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Nonalcoholic.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>VII. Bakery products.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VIII. Dry solids (no end test required).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Test Procedures for Determining Amount of Extractives From Resinous or Polymeric Coatings, Using Solvents Simulating Types of Foods and Beverages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Condition of use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Types of food
<br/>(see Table 1)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Extractant
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water
<br/>(time and temperature)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heptane
<sup>1 2</sup>
<br/>(time and temperature)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8% alcohol
<br/>(time and temperature)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. High temperature heat-sterilized (e.g., over 212 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, IV-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B. Boiling water-sterilized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">212 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C. Hot filled or pasteurized above 150 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fill boiling, cool to 100 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 15 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D. Hot filled or pasteurized below 150 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B, VI-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E. Room temperature filled and stored (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B, VI-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 24 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 24 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F. Refrigerated storage (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, III, IV-A, IV-B, VI-B,VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 48 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 48 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">G. Frozen storage (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, III, IV-B, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 24 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H. Frozen storage: Ready-prepared foods intended to be reheated in container at time of use:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1. Aqueous or oil in water emulsion of high or low fat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, IV-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">212 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2. Aqueous, high or low free oil or fat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Heptane extractant not to be used on wax-lined containers.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Heptane extractivity results must be divided by a factor of five in arriving at the extractivity for a food product.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Analytical methods</I>—(1) <I>Selection of extractability conditions.</I> First ascertain the type of food product (table 1, paragraph (d) of this section) that is being packed commercially in the test container and the normal conditions of thermal treatment used in packaging the type of food involved. Using table 2 (paragraph (d) of this section), select the food-simulating solvent or solvents (demineralized distilled water, heptane, and/or 8 percent ethyl alcohol) and the time-temperature exaggerations of the container-use conditions. Aqueous products (Types I, II, IV-B, and VI-B) require only a water-extractability test at the temperature and time conditions shown for the most severe “conditions of use.” Aqueous products with free oil or fat, and water-oil emulsions (types III, IV-A, and VII) will require determinations of both water extractability and heptane extractability. Low-moisture fats and oils (type V with no free water) require only the heptane extractability. Alcoholic beverages (type VI-A) require only the 8 percent alcohol extractant. Having selected the appropriate extractant or extractants simulating various types of foods and beverages and the time-temperature exaggerations over normal use, follow the applicable extraction procedure. Adapt the procedure, when necessary, for containers having a capacity of over 1 gallon.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Selection of coated-container samples.</I> For consumer-sized containers up to 1 gallon, quadruplicate samples of representative containers (using for each replicate sample the number of containers nearest to an area of 180 square inches) should be selected from the lot to be examined.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning procedure preliminary to determining the amount of extractables from coated containers.</I> Quadruplicate samples of representative containers should be selected from the lot to be examined and must be carefully rinsed to remove extraneous material prior to the actual extraction procedure. Soda fountain pressure-type hot water rinsing equipment, consisting in its simplest form of a 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch-
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch internal diameter metal tube attached to a hot water line and bent so as to direct a stream of water upward, may be used. Be sure hot water has reached a temperature of 190 °F-200 °F before starting to rinse the container. Invert the container over the top of the fountain and direct a strong stream of hot water against the bottom and all sides for 1 minute, drain, and allow to dry.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exposure conditions</I>—(i) <I>Water</I> (<I>250 °F for 2 hours</I>), <I>simulating high-temperature heat sterilization.</I> Fill the container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of demineralized distilled water. Cover the container with clean aluminum foil and place the container on a rack in a pressure cooker. Add a small amount of demineralized distilled water to the pressure cooker, but do not allow the water to touch the bottom of the container. Close the cooker securely and start to heat over a suitable burner. When a steady stream of steam emerges from the vent, close the vent and allow the pressure to rise to 15 pounds per square inch (250 °F) and continue to maintain this pressure for 2 hours. Slowly release the pressure, open the pressure cooker when the pressure reads zero, and composite the water of each replicate immediately in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Water</I> (<I>212 °F for 30 minutes</I>), <I>simulating boiling water sterilization.</I> Fill the container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of boiling, demineralized distilled water. Cover the container with clean aluminum foil and place the container on a rack in a pressure cooker in which a small amount of demineralized distilled water is boiling. Do not close the pressure vent, but operate at atmospheric pressure so that there is a continuous escape of a small amount of steam. Continue to heat for 30 minutes, then remove the test container and composite the contents of each replicate immediately in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Water</I> (<I>from boiling to 100 °F</I>), <I>simulating hot fill or pasteurization above 150 °F.</I> Fill the container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of boiling, demineralized distilled water. Insert a thermometer in the water and allow the uncovered container to stand in a room at 70 °F-85 °F. When the temperature reads 100 °F, composite the water from each replicate immediately in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Water</I> (<I>150° for 2 hours</I>), <I>simulating hot fill or pasteurization below 150 °F.</I> Preheat demineralized distilled water to 150 °F in a clean Pyrex flask. Fill the container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 150 °F water and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in an oven maintained at 150 °F. After 2 hours, remove the test container from the oven and immediately composite the water of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Water</I> (<I>120 °F for 24 hours</I>), <I>simulating room temperature filling and storage.</I> Preheat demineralized distilled water to 120 °F in a clean Pyrex flask. Fill the container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 120 °F water and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in an incubator or oven maintained at 120 °F. After 24 hours, remove the test container from the incubator and immediately composite the water of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Water</I> (<I>70 °F for 48 hours</I>), <I>simulating refrigerated storage.</I> Bring demineralized distilled water to 70 °F in a clean Pyrex flask. Fill the container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 70 °F water, and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in a suitable room maintained at 70 °F. After 48 hours, immediately composite the water of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Water</I> (<I>70 °F for 24 hours</I>), <I>simulating frozen storage.</I> Bring demineralized distilled water to 70 °F in a clean Pyrex flask. Fill the container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 70 °F water and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the container in a suitable room maintained at 70 °F. After 24 hours, immediately composite the water of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Water</I> (<I>212 °F for 30 minutes</I>), <I>simulating frozen foods reheated in the container.</I> Fill the container to within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of boiling, demineralized distilled water. Cover the container with clean aluminum foil and place the container on a rack in a pressure cooker in which a small amount of demineralized distilled water is boiling. Do not close the pressure vent, but operate at atmospheric pressure so that there is a continuous escape of a small amount of steam. Continue to heat for 30 minutes, then remove the test container and composite the contents of each replicate immediately in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Heptane</I> (<I>150 °F for 2 hours</I>) <I>simulating high-temperature heat sterilization for fatty foods only.</I> Preheat redistilled reagent-grade heptane (boiling point 208 °F) carefully in a clean Pyrex flask on a water bath or nonsparking hot plate in a well-ventilated hood to 150 °F. At the same time preheat a pressure cooker or equivalent to 150 °F in an incubator. This pressure cooker is to serve only as a container for the heptane-containing test package inside the incubator in order to minimize the danger of explosion. Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 150 °F heptane and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in the preheated pressure cooker and then put the assembly into a 150 °F incubator. After 2 hours, remove the pressure cooker from the incubator, open the assembly, and immediately composite the heptane of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Heptane</I> (<I>120 °F for 30 minutes</I>), <I>simulating boiling water sterilization of fatty foods only.</I> Preheat redistilled reagent-grade heptane (boiling point 208 °F) carefully in a clean Pyrex flask on a water bath or nonsparking hot plate in a well-ventilated hood to 120 °F. At the same time, preheat a pressure cooker or equivalent to 120 °F in an incubator. This pressure cooker is to serve only as a vented container for the heptane-containing test package inside the incubator in order to minimize the danger of explosion. Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 120 °F heptane and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in the preheated pressure cooker and then put the assembly into a 120 °F incubator. After 30 minutes, remove the pressure cooker from the incubator, open the assembly, and immediately composite the heptane of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Heptane</I> (<I>120 °F for 15 minutes</I>), <I>simulating hot fill or pasteurization above 150 °F for fatty foods only.</I> Preheat redistilled reagent-grade heptane (boiling point 208 °F) carefully in a clean Pyrex flask on a water bath or nonsparking hot plate in a well-ventilated hood to 120 °F. At the same time, preheat a pressure cooker or equivalent to 120 °F in an incubator. This pressure cooker is to serve only as a container for the heptane-containing test package inside the incubator in order to minimize the danger of explosion. Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 120 °F heptane and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in the preheated pressure cooker and then put the assembly into a 120 °F incubator. After 15 minutes, remove the pressure cooker from the incubator, open the assembly, and immediately composite the heptane of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Heptane</I> (<I>100 °F for 30 minutes</I>), <I>simulating hot fill or pasteurization below 150 °F for fatty foods only.</I> Preheat redistilled reagent-grade heptane (boiling point 208 °F) carefully in a clean Pyrex flask on a water bath or nonsparking hot plate in a well-ventilated hood to 100 °F. At the same time, preheat a pressure cooker or equivalent to 100 °F in an incubator. This pressure cooker is to serve only as a container for the heptane-containing test package inside the incubator in order to minimize the danger of explosion. Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 100 °F heptane and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in the preheated pressure cooker and then put the assembly into a 100 °F incubator. After 30 minutes, remove the pressure cooker from the incubator, open the assembly and immediately composite the heptane of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Heptane</I> (<I>70 °F for 30 minutes</I>), <I>simulating room temperature filling and storage of fatty foods only.</I> Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 70 °F heptane and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in a suitable room maintained at 70 °F. After 30 minutes, composite the heptane of each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask or beaker. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Heptane</I> (<I>120 °F for 30 minutes</I>), <I>simulating frozen fatty foods reheated in the container.</I> Preheat redistilled reagent-grade heptane (boiling point 208 °F) carefully in a clean Pyrex flask on a water bath or hot plate in a well-ventilated hood to 120 °F. At the same time, preheat a pressure cooker to 120 °F in an incubator. This pressure cooker is to serve only as a container for the heptane-containing test package inside the incubator in order to minimize the danger of explosion. Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 120 °F heptane and cover with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in the preheated pressure cooker and then put the assembly into a 120 °F incubator. After 30 minutes, remove the pressure cooker from the incubator, open the assembly and immediately composite the heptane from each replicate into a clean Pyrex flask. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Alcohol—8 percent</I> (<I>150 °F for 2 hours</I>), <I>simulating alcoholic beverages hot filled or pasteurized below 150 °F.</I> Preheat 8 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in demineralized distilled water to 150 °F in a clean Pyrex flask. Fill the test container with within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 8 percent alcohol. Cover the container with clean aluminum foil and place in an oven maintained at 150 °F. After 2 hours, remove the container from the oven and immediately composite the alcohol from each replicate in a clean Pyrex flask. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Alcohol—8 percent</I> (<I>120 °F for 24 hours</I>), <I>simulating alcoholic beverages room-temperature filled and stored.</I> Preheat 8 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in demineralized distilled water to 120 °F in a clean Pyrex flask. Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 8 percent alcohol, cover the container with clean aluminum foil and place in an oven or incubator maintained at 120 °F. After 24 hours, remove the container from the oven or incubator and immediately composite the alcohol from each replicate into a clean Pyrex flask. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Alcohol—8 percent</I> (<I>70 °F for 48 hours</I>), <I>simulating alcoholic beverages in refrigerated storage.</I> Bring 8 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in demineralized distilled water to 70 °F in a clean Pyrex flask. Fill the test container within 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch of the top with a measured volume of the 8 percent alcohol. Cover the container with clean aluminum foil. Place the test container in a suitable room maintained at 70 °F. After 48 hours, immediately composite the alcohol from each replicate into a clean Pyrex flask. Proceed with the determination of the amount of extractives by the method described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The tests specified in paragraph (e)(4)(i) through (xvii) of this section are applicable to flexible packages consisting of coated metal contacting food, in which case the closure end is double-folded and clamped with metal spring clips by which the package can be suspended.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Determination of amount of extractives</I>—(i) <I>Total residues.</I> Evaporate the food-simulating solvents from paragraph (e)(4)(i) to (xvii), inclusive, of this section to about 100 milliliters in the Pyrex flask and transfer to a clean, tared platinum dish, washing the flask three times with the solvent used in the extraction procedure, and evaporate to a few milliliters on a nonsparking low-temperature hotplate. The last few milliliters should be evaporated in an oven maintained at a temperature of 212 °F. Cool the platinum dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh the residue to the nearest 0.1 milligram (<I>e</I>). Calculate the extractives in milligrams per square inch and in parts per million for the particular size of container being tested and for the specific food-simulating solvent used.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Water and 8-percent alcohol.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.388.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.389.gif"/>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Heptane.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.390.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.391.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-1><I>Ex</I> = Extractives residue in ppm for any container size.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>e</I> = Milligrams extractives per sample tested.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>a</I> = Total coated area, including closure in square inches.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>c</I> = Water capacity of container, in grams.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>s</I> = Surface of coated area tested, in square inches.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>F</I> = Five, the ratio of the amount of extractives removed from a coated container by heptane under exaggerated time-temperature test conditions compared to the amount extracted by a fat or oil from a container tested under exaggerated conditions of thermal sterilization and use.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>e′</I> = Chloroform-soluble extractives residue.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ee′</I> = Zinc corrected chloroform-soluble extractive residue.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>e′</I> or <I>ee′</I> is substituted for <I>e</I> in the above equations when necessary.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>If when calculated by the equations in paragraph (e)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section, the concentration of extractives residue (<I>Ex</I>) exceeds 50 parts per million or the extractives in milligrams per square inch exceed the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section for the particular container size, proceed to paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section (method for determining the amount of chloroform-soluble extractives residue).
</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>Chloroform-soluble extractives residue.</I> Add 50 milliliters of chloroform (freshly distilled reagent grade or a grade having an established consistently low blank) to the dried and weighed residue, (<I>e</I>), in the platinum dish, obtained in paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section. Warm carefully, and filter through Whatman No. 41 filter paper in a Pyrex funnel, collecting the filtrate in a clean, tared platinum dish. Repeat the chloroform extraction, washing the filter paper with this second portion of chloroform. Add this filtrate to the original filtrate and evaporate the total down to a few milliliters on a low-temperature hotplate. The last few milliliters should be evaporated in an oven maintained at 212 °F. Cool the platinum dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh to the nearest 0.1 milligram to get the chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>e</I>′). This <I>e</I>′ is substituted for <I>e</I> in the equations in paragraph (e)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section. If the concentration of extractives (<I>Ex</I>) still exceeds 50 parts per million or the extractives in milligrams per square inch exceed the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section for the particular container size, proceed as follows to correct for zinc extractives (“C” enamels only): Ash the residue in the platinum dish by heating gently over a Meeker-type burner to destroy organic matter and hold at red heat for about 1 minute. Cool in the air for 3 minutes, and place the platinum dish in the desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh to the nearest 0.1 milligram. Analyze this ash for zinc by standard Association of Official Agricultural Chemists methods or equivalent. Calculate the zinc in the ash as zinc oleate, and subtract from the weight of chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>e</I>′) to obtain the zinc-corrected chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>ee</I>′). This <I>ee</I>′ is substituted for <I>e</I> in the formulas in paragraph (e)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section. To comply with the limitations in paragraph (c) of this section, the chloroform-soluble extractives residue (but after correction for the zinc extractives in case of “C” enamels) must not exceed 50 parts per million and must not exceed in milligrams per square inch the limitations for the particular article as prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equipment and reagent requirements</I>—(1) <I>Equipment.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Rinsing equipment, soda fountain pressure-type hot water, consisting in simplest form of a 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch-
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch inside diameter metal tube attached to a hot water line delivering 190 °F-200 °F water and bent so as to direct a stream of water upward.
</P>
<P>Pressure cooker, 21-quart capacity with pressure gage, safety release, and removable rack, 12.5 inches inside diameter × 11 inches inside height, 20 pounds per square inch safe operating pressure.
</P>
<P>Oven, mechanical convection, range to include 120 °F-212 °F explosion-proof, inside dimensions (minimum), 19″ × 19″ × 19″, constant temperature to ±2 °F (water bath may be substituted).
</P>
<P>Incubator, inside dimensions (minimum) 19″ × 19″ × 19″ for use at 100 °F±2 °F explosion proof (water bath may be substituted).
</P>
<P>Constant-temperature room or chamber 70 °F±2 °F minimum inside dimensions 19″ × 19″ × 19″.
</P>
<P>Hot plate, nonsparking (explosion proof), top 12″ × 20″, 2,500 watts, with temperature control.
</P>
<P>Platinum dish, 100-milliliter capacity minimum.
</P>
<P>All glass, Pyrex or equivalent.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Reagents.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Water, all water used in extraction procedure should be freshly demineralized (deionized) distilled water.
</P>
<P>Heptane, reagent grade, freshly redistilled before use, using only material boiling at 208 °F.
</P>
<P>Alcohol, 8 percent (by volume), prepared from undenatured 95 percent ethyl alcohol diluted with demineralized or distilled water.
</P>
<P>Chloroform, reagent grade, freshly redistilled before use, or a grade having an established, consistently low blank.
</P>
<P>Filter paper, Whatman No. 41 or equivalent.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished coatings intended for repeated food-contact use shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(h) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) Epoxy resins derived by the reaction of 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol and epichlorohydrin, as described in paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(<I>a</I>) of this section, may be used in accordance with this section except as coatings in packaging for powdered and liquid infant formula.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 175.300, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.320" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.320   Resinous and polymeric coatings for polyolefin films.</HEAD>
<P>Resinous and polymeric coatings may be safely used as the food-contact surface of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The coating is applied as a continuous film over one or both sides of a base film produced from one or more of the basic olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter. The base polyolefin film may contain optional adjuvant substances permitted for use in polyolefin film by applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The coatings are formulated from optional substances which are:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe for use in or on food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances the use of which is permitted under applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, by prior sanctions, or approvals.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances identified in this paragraph (b)(3) and subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Resins and polymers:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylic acid polymer and its ethyl or methyl esters
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylamide copolymerized with ethyl acrylate and/or styrene and/or methacrylic acid, and the copolymer subsequently reacted with formaldehyde and butanol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butadiene-acrylonitrile copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butadiene-acrylonitrile-styrene terpolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butyl rubber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">N,N</E>′-Diphenyl-<E T="03">p-</E>phenylenediamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a polymerization inhibitor in 2-sulfoethyl methacrylate, sodium salt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Ethylhexyl acrylate copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acrylonitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Itaconic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Methacrylonitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Methyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Methyl methacrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenolepichlorohydrin average molecular weight 900
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Melamine-formaldehyde as the basic polymer or chemically modified with methyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methacrylic acid and its ethyl or methyl esters copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acrylic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ethyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Methyl acrylate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">α-Methyl styrene polymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">α-Methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins (molar ratio 1 α-methylstyrene to 3 vinyltoluene)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings that contact food under conditions of use D, E, F, or G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, provided that the concentration of α-methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins in the finished food-contact coating does not exceed 1.0 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 176.170 of this chapter. Blended with butyl rubber for use as a component of coatings on polyolefin fabric for bulk packaging of raw fruits and vegetables and used at a level not to exceed 30 percent by weight of the total coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyamide resins (CAS Reg. No. 68139-70-8), as the basic resin, derived from:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings for polypropylene films that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dimerized vegetable oil or tall oil acids containing not more than 20 percent of monomer acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Azelaic acid (CAS Reg. No. 123-99-9) in an amount not to exceed 3.7 percent by weight of the polyamide resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ethylenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 107-15-3)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Piperazine (CAS Reg. No. 110-85-0) in an amount not to exceed 6.4 percent by weight of the polyamide resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyamide resins, derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids (containing not more than 20% of monomer acids) and ethylenediamine, as the basic resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings for polyolefin films that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyamide resins having a maximum acid value of 5 and a maximum amine value of 8.5 derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids (containing not more than 10 percent of monomer acids), ethylenediamine, and 4,4-bis (4-hydroxyphenyl) pentanoic acids (in an amount not to exceed 10 percent by weight of said polyamide resins); as the basic resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature provided that the concentration of the polyamide resins in the finished food-contact coating does not exceed 5 milligrams per square inch of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyester resins formed by reaction of one or more of the following polybasic acids and monobasic acids with one or more of the following polyhydric alcohols:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Polybasic acids:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Adipic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Azelaic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use in forming polyester resins intended for use in coatings that contact food only of the type identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Category VIII, and under conditions of use E, F, or G, described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Dimerized fatty acids derived from:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Animal, marine or vegetable fats and oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Tall oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Fumaric
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Isophthalic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Maleic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">o-Phthalic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Sebacic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Terephthalic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Trimellitic
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Monobasic acids:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Fatty acids derived from:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Animal, marine, or vegetable fats and oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Gum rosin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 178.3870 of this chapter. For use in forming polyester resins intended for use in coatings that contact food only of the type identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Category VIII, and under conditions of use E, F, or G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Polyhydric alcohols:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">1,3-Butylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Diethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Dipropylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Ethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Glycerol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Mannitol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">α-Methyl glucoside
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Pentaerythritol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Propylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Sorbitol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Trimethylol ethane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Trimethylol propane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyethylenimine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a primer subcoat to anchor epoxy surface coatings to the base sheet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polystyrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyvinyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyvinyl chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes and silicones: platinum-catalyzed reaction product of vinyl-containing dimethylpolysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68083-18-1 and CAS Reg. No. 68083-19-2) with methylhydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 63148-57-2) and dimethylmethylhydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68037-59-2). The following substances may be used as optional polymerization inhibitors:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Platinum content not to exceed 150 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3,5-Dimethyl-1-hexyne-3-ol (CAS Reg. No. 107-54-0), at a level not to exceed 0.53 weight percent;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1-Ethynylcyclohexene (CAS Reg. No. 931-49-7), at a level not to exceed 0.64 weight percent;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bis(methoxymethyl)ethyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 102054-10-4), at a level not to exceed 1.0 weight percent;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylvinyl cyclosiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68082-23-5); and
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetramethyltetravinylcyclotetrasiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 2554-06-5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes and silicones; platinum-catalyzed reaction product of vinyl-containing dimethylpolysiloxane (CAS Reg. Nos. 68083-19-2 and 68083-18-1), with methyl hydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 63148-57-2). Dimethyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 624-48-6) and vinyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 108-05-4) may be used as optional polymerization inhibitors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Platinum content not to exceed 100 parts per million. For use only as a surface coating under the following conditions:
<br/>1. In coatings for olefin polymers provided the coating contacts food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, II, VI, and VII-B when used under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. In coatings for olefin polymers provided the coating contacts food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types III, IV, V, VII-A, VIII, and IX when used under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes and silicones; platinum-catalyzed reaction product of vinyl-containing dimethylpolysiloxane (CAS Reg. Nos. 68083-19-2 and 68083-18-1), with methyl hydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 63148-57-2). Dimethyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 624-48-6), vinyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 108-05-4), dibutyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 105-76-0) and diallyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 999-21-3) may be used as optional polymerization inhibitors. The polymer may also contain C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> olefins (CAS Reg. No. 68855-60-7) as a control release agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Platinum content not to exceed 100 parts per million. For use only as a release coating for pressure sensitive adhesives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Styrene copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acrylonitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">α-Methyl styrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Styrene polymers made by the polymerization of any combination of styrene or alpha methyl styrene with acrylic acid, methacrylic acid, 2-ethyl hexyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, and butyl acrylate. The styrene and alpha methyl styrene, individually, may constitute from 0 to 80 weight percent of the polymer. The other monomers, individually, may be from 0 to 40 weight percent of the polymer. The polymer number average molecular weight (M<E T="52">n</E>) shall be at least 2,000 (as determined by gel permeation chromatography). The acid number of the polymer shall be less than 250. The monomer content shall be less than 0.5 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in contact with foods of Types IV-A, V, and VII in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under use conditions E through G in table 2 of § 176.170(c), and with foods of Types VIII and IX without use temperature restriction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Styrene-isobutylene copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Terpene resins consisting of polymers of α-pinene, β-pinene, and/or dipentene; acid value less than 5, saponification number less than 5, and color less than 4 on the Gardner scale as measured in 50 percent mineral spirits solution
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Sulfoethyl methacrylate, sodium salt Chemical Abstracts Service No. 1804-87-1]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in copolymer coatings under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and limited to use at a level not to exceed 2.0 percent by weight of the dry copolymer coating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl chloride-acetate, hydroxyl-modified copolymer or maleic acid-modified copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl chloride copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acrvlonitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vinyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vinylidene chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinylidene chloride copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acrylic acid and its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, or octyl esters
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acrylonitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Itaconic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Methacrylic acid and its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, or octyl esters
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Methacrylonitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vinyl chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Plasticizers:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetyl tributyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetyl triethyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dibutyl sebacate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Ethylhexyl diphenyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycerol monooleate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycerol triacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triethyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Adjuvants (release agents, waxes, and dispersants):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Amides (unsubstituted) of fatty acids from vegetable or animal oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">n-</E>Butyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">n-</E>Butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Candelilla wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carnauba wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">5-Chloro-2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 26172-55-4) and 2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 2682-20-4) mixture, at a ratio of 3 parts to 1 part, respectively, manufactured from methyl-3-mercaptopropionate (CAS Reg. No. 2935-90-2) and optionally containing magnesium nitrate (CAS Reg. No. 10377-60-3) at a concentration equivalent to the isothiazolone active ingredients (weight/weight).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antimicrobial agent in emulsion-based silicone coatings at a level not to exceed 50 milligrams per kilogram (based on isothiazolone active ingredient) in the coating formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Dibromo-2,4-dicyanobutane (CAS Reg. No. 35691-65-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an antimicrobial agent at levels not to exceed 500 milligrams per kilogram in emulsion-based silicone coating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fatty acids from vegetable or animal oils and their aluminum, ammonium, calcium, magnesium, and sodium salts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hexane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl ethyl ketone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">N,N′</E>-Dioleoylethylenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 110-31-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in ionomeric resins complying with § 177.1330 of this chapter and in ethylene vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter at a level not to exceed 0.0085 milligram per square centimeter (0.055 milligram per square inch) in the finished food-contact article.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Petroleum waxes conforming to specifications included in a regulation in subchapter B of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyvinyl alcohol, minimum viscosity of 4% aqueous solution at 20 °C of 4 centipoises and percent alcoholysis of 87-100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a dispersing agent at levels not to exceed 6% of total coating weight in coatings for pol-yolefin films provided the finished polyolefin films contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types V, VIII, and IX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium lauryl sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sorbitan and sorbitol esters of fatty acids from vegetable or animal oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spermaceti wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetrahydrofuran
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Toluene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Preservatives:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silver chloride-coated titanium dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative in latex emulsions at a level not to exceed 2.2 parts per million (based on silver ion concentration) in the dry coating.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The coating in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food, and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of coated surface.
</P>
<P>(d) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 7206, Feb. 21, 1978; 45 FR 6541, Jan. 29, 1980; 47 FR 22512, May 25, 1982; 49 FR 36497, Sept. 18, 1984; 50 FR 47209, Nov. 15, 1985; 56 FR 49674, Oct. 1, 1991; 61 FR 14246, Apr. 1, 1996; 63 FR 71017, Dec. 23, 1998; 64 FR 2568, Jan. 15, 1999; 65 FR 6892, Feb. 11, 2000; 65 FR 37041, June 13, 2000; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.350" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.350   Vinyl acetate/crotonic acid copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>A copolymer of vinyl acetate and crotonic acid may be safely used as a coating or as a component of a coating which is the food-contact surface of polyolefin films intended for packaging food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The copolymer may contain added optional substances to impart desired properties.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any optional substance does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect nor any limitations further provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Any optional substance that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178, and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specifications in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) Optional substances as provided in paragraph (a) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances subject to prior sanction or approval for uses with a copolymer of vinyl acetate and crotonic acid and used in accordance with such sanction or approval. 
</P>
<P>(3) Substances identified in this subparagraph and subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Japan wax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) Copolymer of vinyl acetate and crotonic acid used as a coating or as a component of a coating conforming with the specifications of paragraph (e)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) The chloroform-soluble portion of the water extractives of the coated film obtained with distilled water at 120 °F for 24 hours does not exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of coated surface.
</P>
<P>(ii) The chloroform-soluble portion of the <I>n-</I>heptane extractives of the coated film obtained with <I>n-</I>heptane at 70 °F for 30 minutes does not exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of coated surface.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The copolymer of vinyl acetate and crotonic acid is used as a coating or as a component of a coating for polyolefin films for packaging bakery products and confectionery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.360" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.360   Vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings for nylon film.</HEAD>
<P>Vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings identified in this section and applied on nylon film may be safely used as food-contact surfaces, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The coating is applied as a continuous film over one or both sides of a base film produced from nylon resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The coatings are prepared from vinylidene chloride copolymers produced by copolymerizing vinylidene chloride with one or more of the monomers acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, ethyl acrylate, methacrylic acid, methyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 80-62-6; maximum use level 6 weight percent) and 2-sulfoethyl methacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 10595-80-9; maximum use level 1 weight percent). The finished copolymers contain at least 50 weight percent of polymer units derived from vinylidene chloride. The finished coating produced from vinylidene chloride copolymers produced by copolymerizing vinylidene chloride with methyl methacrylate and/or 2-sulfoethyl methacrylate, or with methyl methacrylate and/or 2-sulfoethyl methacrylate together with one or more of the other monomers from this section, is restricted to use at or below room temperature.
</P>
<P>(c) Optional adjuvant substances employed in the production of the coatings or added thereto to impart desired properties may include sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(d) The coating in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food, and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of coated surface when tested by the methods described in § 176.170(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14534, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 7206, Feb. 21, 1978; 45 FR 76998, Nov. 21, 1980; 47 FR 54430, Dec. 3, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.365" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.365   Vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings for polycarbonate film.</HEAD>
<P>Vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings identified in this section and applied on polycarbonate film may be safely used as food-contact surfaces, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The coating is applied as a continuous film over one or both sides of a base film produced from polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The coatings are prepared from vinylidene chloride copolymers produced by copolymerizing vinylidene chloride with acrylonitrile, methyl acrylate, and acrylic acid. The finished copolymers contain at least 50 weight-percent of polymer units derived from vinyldene chloride. 
</P>
<P>(c) Optional adjuvant substances employed in the production of the coatings or added thereto to impart desired properties may include sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate in addition to substances described in § 174.5(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The coating in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food, and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of coated surface as determined by the methods described in § 176.170(d) of this chapter. In testing the finished food-contact articles, a separate test sample is to be used for each required extracting solvent.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisons of § 180.22 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.380" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.380   Xylene-formaldehyde resins condensed with 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin epoxy resins.</HEAD>
<P>The resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as a food-contact coating for articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) The resins are produced by the condensation of xylene-formaldehyde resin and 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin epoxy resins, to which may have been added certain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the resins or added to impart desired physical and technical properties. The optional adjuvant substances may include resins produced by the condensation of allyl ether of mono-, di-, or trimethylol phenol and capryl alcohol and also may include substances identified in § 175.300(b)(3), with the exception of paragraph (b)(3)(xxxi) and (xxxii) of that section.
</P>
<P>(b) The resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a food-contact coating for articles intended for contact at temperatures not to exceed 160 °F with food of Types I, II, VI-A and B, and VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter provided that the coating in the finished form in which it is to contact food meets the following extractives limitations when tested by the methods provided in § 175.300(e):
</P>
<P>(1) The coating when extracted with distilled water at 180 °F for 24 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 0.05 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(2) The coating when extracted with 8 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water at 160 °F for 4 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 0.05 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(c) The resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as a food-contact coating for articles intended for contact at temperatures not to exceed room temperature with food of Type VI-C described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter provided the coating in the finished form in which it is to contact food meets the following extractives limitations when tested by the methods provided in § 175.300(e):
</P>
<P>(1) The coating when extracted with distilled water at 180 °F for 24 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 0.05 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(2) The coating when extracted with 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water at 180 °F for 24 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 0.05 milligram per square inch.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 175.390" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.6.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 175.390   Zinc-silicon dioxide matrix coatings.</HEAD>
<P>Zinc-silicon dioxide matrix coatings may be safely used as the food-contact surface of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section;
</P>
<P>(a) The coating is applied to a metal surface, cured, and washed with water to remove soluble substances.
</P>
<P>(b) The coatings are formulated from optional substances which include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe. 
</P>
<P>(2) Substances for which safe conditions of use have been prescribed in § 175.300.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances identified in paragraph (c) of this section, subject to the limitations prescribed.
</P>
<P>(c) The optional substances permitted are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a solvent removed by water washing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium hydroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removed by water washing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl orange</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an acid-base indicator.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium dichromate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removed by water washing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica gel
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc, as particulate metal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) The coating in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food, and under the conditions of its intended use as shown in table 1 and 2 of § 175.300(d) (using 20 percent alcohol as the solvent when the type of food contains approximately 20 percent alcohol) shall yield total extractives not to exceed those prescribed in § 175.300(c)(3); lithium extractives not to exceed 0.025 milligram per square inch of surface; and chromium extractives not to exceed 0.05 microgram per square inch of surface.
</P>
<P>(e) The coatings are used as food-contact surfaces for bulk reusable containers intended for storing, handling, and transporting food.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="176" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 176—INDIRECT FOOD ADDITIVES: PAPER AND PAPERBOARD COMPONENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 346, 348, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14554, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 176 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; and 70 FR 72074, Dec. 1, 2005.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Substances for Use Only as Components of Paper and Paperboard</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.110" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.110   Acrylamide-acrylic acid resins.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylamide-acrylic acid resins may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Acrylamide-acrylic acid resins are produced by the polymerization of acrylamide with partial hydrolysis or by the copolymerization of acrylamide and acrylic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The acrylamide-acrylic acid resins contain less than 0.2 percent residual monomer.
</P>
<P>(c) The resins are used as adjuvants in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in amounts not to exceed that necessary to accomplish the technical effect and not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the paper or paperboard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.120" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.120   Alkyl ketene dimers.</HEAD>
<P>Alkyl ketene dimers may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The alkyl ketene dimers are manufactured by the dehydrohalogenation of the acyl halides derived from the fatty acids of animal or vegetable fats and oils.
</P>
<P>(b) The alkyl ketene dimers are used as an adjuvant in the manufacture of paper and paperboard under such conditions that the alkyl ketene dimers and their hydrolysis products dialkyl ketones do not exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the paper or paperboard.
</P>
<P>(c) The alkyl ketene dimers may be used in the form of an aqueous emulsion which may contain sodium lignosulfonate as a dispersant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.130" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.130   Anti-offset substances.</HEAD>
<P>Substances named in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be safely used to prevent the transfer of inks employed in printing and decorating paper and paperboard used for food packaging in accordance with the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The substances are applied to the nonfood contact, printed side of the paper or paperboard in an amount not greater than that required to accomplish the technical effect nor greater than any specific limitations, where such are provided.
</P>
<P>(b) Anti-offset powders are prepared from substances that are generally recognized as safe in food, substances for which prior sanctions or approvals were granted and which are used in accordance with the specific provisions of such sanction or approval, and substances named in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The substances permitted are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon tetrachloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl hydrogen polysiloxanes
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Industrial starch—modified</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3520 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stannous oleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-2-ethyl hexoate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.150" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.150   Chelating agents used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.</HEAD>
<P>The substances named in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, in accordance with the conditions prescribed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) Chelating agents:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium fructoheptonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium glucoheptonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium ethylenediamine tetraacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentasodium salt of diethylenetriamine pentaacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium fructoheptonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium glucoheptonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium ethylenediamine tetraacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trisodium <E T="03">N-</E>hydroxyethyl ethylenediamine triacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Any one or any combination of the substances named is used or intended for use as chelating agents.
</P>
<P>(c) The substances are added in an amount not greater than that required to accomplish the intended technical effect nor greater than any specific limitation, where such is provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.160" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.160   Chromium (Cr III) complex of <E T="7462">N</E>-ethyl-<E T="7462">N</E>-heptadecylfluoro-octane sulfonyl glycine.</HEAD>
<P>The chromium (Cr III) complex of <I>N-</I>ethyl <I>- N -</I>heptadecylfluoro-octane sulfonyl glycine containing up to 20 percent by weight of the chromium (Cr III) complex of heptadecylfluoro-octane sulfonic acid may be safely used as a component of paper for packaging dry food when used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is used as a component of paper in an amount not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the paper.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The food-contact surface of the paper is overcoated with a polymeric or resinous coating at least 
<FR>1/3</FR>-mil in thickness, that meets the provision of § 176.170; or
</P>
<P>(2) The treated paper forms one or more plies of a paper in a multiwall bag and is separated from the food by at least one ply of packaging films or grease-resistant papers which serves as a functional barrier between the food additive and the food. Such packaging films or grease-resistant papers conform with appropriate food additive regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of the food additive shall contain adequate directions for its use to insure compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.170" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.170   Components of paper and paperboard in contact with aqueous and fatty foods.</HEAD>
<P>Substances identified in this section may be safely used as components of the uncoated or coated food-contact surface of paper and paperboard intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packaging, processing, preparing, treating, packing, transporting, or holding aqueous and fatty foods, subject to the provisions of this section. Components of paper and paperboard in contact with dry food of the type identified under Type VIII of table 1 in paragraph (c) of this section are subject to the provisions of § 176.180.
</P>
<P>(a) Substances identified in paragraph (a)(1) through (5) of this section may be used as components of the food-contact surface of paper and paperboard. Paper and paperboard products shall be exempted from compliance with the extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section: <I>Provided,</I> That the components of the food-contact surface consist entirely of one or more of the substances identified in this paragraph: <I>And provided further,</I> That if the paper or paperboard when extracted under the conditions prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section exceeds the limitations on extractives contained in paragraph (c) of this section, information shall be available from manufacturing records from which it is possible to determine that only substances identified in this paragraph (a) are present in the food-contact surface of such paper or paperboard.
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances generally recognized as safe for their intended use in paper and paperboard products used in food packaging.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances that by regulation in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter may be safely used without extractives limitations as components of the uncoated or coated food-contact surface of paper and paperboard in contact with aqueous or fatty food, subject to the provisions of such regulation.
</P>
<P>(5) Substances identified in this paragraph, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetyl peroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide-methacrylic acid-maleic anhydride copolymers containing not more than 0.2 percent of residual acrylamide monomer and having an average nitrogen content of 14.9 percent such that a 1 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 600 centipoises at 75 °F, as determined by LVG-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 2 spindle at 30 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in such an amount that the finished paper and paperboard will contain the additive at a level not in excess of 0.05 percent by weight of dry fibers in the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide-β-methacrylyloxyethyltrimethylammonium methyl sulfate copolymer resins containing not more than 10 molar percent of β-methacrylyloxyethyltrimethylammonium methyl sulfate and containing less than 0.2% of residual acrylamide monomer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid and flocculant employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylic acid, sodium salt copolymer with polyethyleneglycol allyl ether (CAS Reg. No. 86830-15-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in paper mill boilers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylic acid copolymer with 2-acrylamido-2-methylpropane-sulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 40623-75-4) and/or its ammonium/alkali metal mixed salts. The copolymer is produced by poly-merization of acrylic acid and 2-acrylamido-2-methylpropane-sulfonic acid in a weight ratio of 60/40, such that a 28 percent by weight aqueous solution of the polymer has a viscosity of 75-150 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by LV-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 2 spindle at 60 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a scale inhibitor prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 1.0 kilogram (2.2 pounds) of copolymer per 907 kilograms (1 ton) of dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile polymer, reaction product with ethylenediamine sulfate having a nitrogen content of 22.5-25.0 percent (Kjeldahl dry basis) and containing no more than 0.075 percent monomer as ethylenediamine. The finished resin in a 24 percent by weight aqueous solution has a viscosity of 1,000-2,000 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by LVT-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 4 spindle at 50 r.p.m. (or by other equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a size promoter and retention aid at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile polymer with styrene, reaction product with ethylenediamine acetate, having a nitrogen content of 7.4-8.3 percent (Kjeldahl dry basis) and containing no more than 0.25 percent monomer as ethylenediamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. For use only as a sizing material applied after the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in such amount that the paper and paperboard will contain the additive at a level not in excess of 0.25 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
<br/>2. For use only as a sizing material applied prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in such amount that the paper and paperboard will contain the additive at a level not in excess of 1.0 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Alkenyl olefins, containing not less than 72 percent of C<E T="52">30</E> and higher olefins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only under the following conditions:
<br/>1. In coatings for paper and paperboard with food of Types I, II, IV-B, and VII-B described in table 1 of paragraph (c) of this section under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
<br/>2. In coatings for paper and paperboard with food of Type VIII described in table I of paragraph (c) of this section under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2-Alkenyl) succinic anhydrides mixture, in which the alkenyl groups are derived from olefins which contain not less than 95 percent of C<E T="52">15</E>-C<E T="52">21</E> groups</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a sizing agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">20</E>)methacrylatemethacrylic acid copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 27401-06-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as stabilizers employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">tert-</E>Alkyl(C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)mercaptans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol (CAS Reg. No. 124-68-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a dispersant for pigment suspension at a level not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of pigment. The suspension is used as a component of coatings for paper and paperboard under conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use E through G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium thiosulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium zirconium carbonate (CAS Reg. No. 32535-84-5) and its tartaric acid adduct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an insolubilizer for binders used in coatings for paper and paperboard, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 2.5 percent by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium zirconium citrate (CAS Reg. No. 149564-62-5), ammonium zirconium lactate-citrate (CAS Reg. No. 149564-64-7), ammonium zirconium lactate (CAS Reg. No. 149564-63-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as insolubilizers with protein binders in coatings for paper and paperboard, at a level not to exceed 1.4 percent by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anionic polyurethane, produced by reacting the preliminary adduct formed from the reaction of glyceryl monostearate and 2,4-toluenediisocyanate with not more than 10 mole percent <E T="03">N-</E>methyldiethanolamine and not less than 90 mole percent dimethylolpropionic acid. The final product is a 15 to 20 percent by weight aqueous solution, having a Brookfield viscosity of 25 to 100 centipoises at 24 °C (75 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surface sizing agent at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9,10-Anthraquinone (Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 84-65-1) which has a purity of not less than 98 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a pulping aid in the alkaline pulping of lignocellulosic material at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the raw lignocellulosic material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aromatic petroleum hydrocarbon resin, hydrogenated (CAS Reg. No. 88526-47-0), produced by the catalytic polymerization of aromatic substituted olefins from low boiling distillates of cracked petroleum stocks with a boiling point no greater than 220 °C (428 °F), and the subsequent catalytic reduction of the resulting aromatic petroleum hydrocarbon resin. The resin meets the following specifications: softening point 85 °C (185 °F) minimum, as determined by ASTM Method E 28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring-and-Ball Apparatus,” and aniline point 70 °C (158 °F) minimum, as determined by ASTM Method D 611-82, “Standard Test Methods for Aniline Point and Mixed Aniline Point of Petroleum Products and Hydrocarbon Solvents,” which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as modifiers in wax polymer blend coatings for paper and paperboard at a level not to exceed 50 weight-percent of the coating solids under conditions of use E, F, and G identified in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Azo-bisisobutyronitrile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Benzisothiazolin-3-one (CAS Registry No. 2634-33-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative in paper coating compositions and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.01 mg/in
<sup>2</sup> (0.0016 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup>) of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzoyl peroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N-</E>Bis(2-hydroxyethyl)alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)amide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant to control pulp absorbency and pitch content in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(methoxymethyl)tetrakis-[(octadecyloxy)-methyl]melamine resins having a 5.8-6.5 percent nitrogen content (CAS Reg. No. 68412-27-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only under the following conditions:
<br/>1. As a water repellant employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in such amount that the finished paper and paperboard will contain the additive at a level not in excess of 1.6 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
<br/>2. The finished paper and paperboard will be used in contact with nonalcoholic foods only.
<br/>3. As a water repellant employed after the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in such amount that the finished paper and paperboard will contain the additive at a level not to exceed 1.6 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers. The finished paper and paperboard will be used only in contact with food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII described in table 1 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Bromo-2-nitro-1,3-propanediol (CAS Reg. No. 52-51-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antimicrobial/preservative in fillers, pigment slurries, starch sizing solutions, and latex coatings at levels not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight of those components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-di-(C<E T="52">9</E>-C<E T="52">11</E> alkyl) ester, ammonium salt (also known as butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-diisodecyl ester, ammonium salt [CAS Reg. No. 144093-88-9]).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a surface active agent in package coating inks at levels not to exceed 3 percent by weight of the coating ink.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">tert-</E>Butyl hydroperoxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">tert-</E>Butyl peroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium isostearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only with <E T="03">n-</E>decyl alcohol as a stabilizing material for aqueous calcium stearate dispersions intended for use as components of coatings for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carrageenan and salts of carrageenan as described in §§ 172.620 and 172.626 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose, regenerated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloracetamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobaltous acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumene hydroperoxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanoguanidine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a modifier for amino resins.
<br/>2. As a fluidizing agent in starch and protein coatings for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Decyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only with calcium isostearate as a stabilizing material for aqueous calcium stearate dispersions intended for use as components of coatings for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dialdehyde guar gum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a wet-strength agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 1% by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dialdehyde locust bean gum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dialkyl(C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)carbamoyl chloride (CAS Reg. No. 41319-54-4) manufactured by the reaction of secondary amines derived from fatty acids of animal or vegetable sources with phosgene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a sizing agent at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the dry fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diallyldimethyl ammonium chloride polymer with acrylamide and potassium acrylate, produced by copolymerizing either (1) diallyldimethyl ammonium chloride and acrylamide in a weight ratio of 50/50, with 4.4 percent of the acrylamide subsequently hydrolyzed to potassium acrylate or (2) polymerized diallyldimethyl ammonium chloride, acrylamide and potassium acrylate (as acrylic acid) in a weight ratio of 50/47.8/2.2, respectively, so that the finished resin in a 1 percent by weight aqueous solution (active polymer) has a viscosity of more than 22 centipoises at 22 °C (72 °F) as determined by LVF series, Brookfield Viscometer using No. 1 spindle at 60 RPM (or by other equivalent method) (CAS Reg. No. 25136-75-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention and/or drainage aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operations in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diallyldimethylammonium chloride with acrylamide (CAS Reg. No. 26590-05-6). The copolymer is produced by copolymerizing diallyldimethylammonium chloride with acrylamide in a weight ratio of 50-50 so that the finished resin in a 1 percent by weight aqueous solution (active polymer) has a viscosity of more than 22 centipoises at 22 °C (71.6 °F), as determined by LVF-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or by other equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a drainage and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diallyldiethylammonium chloride polymer with acrylamide, and diallyldimethylammonium chloride, produced by copolymerizing acrylamide, diallyldiethylammonium chloride, and diallyldimethylammonium chloride, respectively, in the following weight ratios and having viscosities determined at 22 °C, by LVF-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or by other equivalent method), as follows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1. Weight ratio: 50-2.5-47.5. The finished resin in a 1 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 22 centipoises</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2. Weight ratio: 25-2.5-72.5. The finished resin in a 0.20 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 20 centipoises</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a drainage and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3. Weight ratio: 80-2.5-17.5. The finished resin in a 0.30 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 50 centipoises</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a drainage and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diallyldiethylammonium chloride polymer with acrylamide, potassium acrylate, and diallyldimethylammonium chloride. The polymer is produced by copolymerizing either: (1) acrylamide, diallyldiethylammonium chloride, and diallyldimethylammonium chloride in a weight ratio of 50-2.5-47.5, respectively, with 4.4 percent of the acrylamide subsequently hydrolyzed to potassium acrylate, or (2) acrylamide, potassium acrylate (as acrylic acid), diallyldiethylammonium chloride, and diallyldimethylammonium chloride in a weight ratio of 47.8-2.2-2.5-47.5, so that the finished resin in a 1 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 22 centipoises at 22 °C, as determined by LVF-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or by other equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diallyldimethylammonium chloride polymer with acrylamide, reaction product with glyoxal, produced by copolymerizing not less than 90 weight percent of acrylamide and not more than 10 weight percent of diallyldimethylammonium chloride, which is then cross-linked with not more than 30 weight percent of glyoxal, such that a 10 percent aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 25 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by Brookfield viscometer Model RVF, using a No. 1 spindle at 100 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a dry and wet strength agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in such an amount that the finished paper and paperboard will contain the additive at a level not in excess of 2 percent by weight of the dry fibers in the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Dibromo-3-nitrilopropionamide (CAS Reg. No.10222-01-2).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a preservative at a level not to exceed 100 parts per million in coating formulations and in component slurries and emulsions, used in the production of paper and paperboard and coatings for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,5-Di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl hydroquinone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antioxidant for fatty based coating adjuvants provided it is used at a level not to exceed 0.005% by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As an adjuvant to control pulp absorbency and pitch content in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
<br/>2.In paper mill boilers.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethyl(2-hydroxyethyl) methylammonium methyl sulfate, acrylate, polymer with acrylamide, chemical abstract service registry No. [26796-75-8] having 90-95 mole pct. acrylamide, a nitrogen content of not more than 19.7 pct. (Kjeldahl, dry basis), and a residual acrylamide monomer content of not more than 0.1 pct. The finished polymer in a 1 pct. by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 900 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by LVT-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 2 spindle at 12 r.p.m. (or by equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid and drainage aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard at a level not to exceed 0.15 pct. by weight of finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylenetriamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a modifier for amino resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N-</E>Diisopropanolamide of tallow fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant to control pulp absorbency and pitch content in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylamine-epichlorohydrin copolymer in which not more than 5 mole-percent of dimethylamine may be replaced by an equimolar amount of ethylenediamine and in which the ratio of total amine to epichlorohydrin does not exceed 1:1. The nitrogen content of the copolymer shall be 9.4 to 10.8 weight percent on a dry basis and a 10 percent by weight aqueous solution of the final product has a minimum viscosity of 5.0 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by LVT-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or by other equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a retention aid employed before the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
<br/>2. At the size press at a level not to exceed 0.017 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>[(Dimethylamino)methyl]-acrylamide polymer with acrylamide and styrene having a nitrogen content of not more than 16.9 percent and a residual acrylamide monomer content of not more than 0.2 percent on a dry basis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a dry-strength agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of finished dry paper or paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′-</E>Dioleoylethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antioxidant for fatty based coating adjuvants provided it is used at a level not to exceed 0.005% by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium salt of 1,4-dihydro-9,10-dihydroxyanthracene (CAS Reg. No. 73347-80-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a catalyst in the alkaline pulping of lignocellulosic materials at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the raw lignocellulosic materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′-</E>Distearoylethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dodecylguanidine acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antimicrobial agent in paper and paperboard under the following conditions:
<br/>1. For contact only with nonalcoholic food having a pH above 5 and provided it is used at a level not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the paper and paperboard.
<br/>2. For use in the outer ply of multiwall paper bags for contact with dry food of Type VIII described in table I of paragraph (c) of this section and provided it is used at a level of 0.8 percent by weight of the paper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dodecylguanidine hydrochloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antimicrobial agent in paper and paperboard under the following conditions:
<br/>1. For contact only with nonalcoholic food having a pH above 5 and provided it is used at a level not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the paper and paperboard.
<br/>2. For use in the outer ply of multiwall paper bags for contact with dry food of Type VIII described in table I of paragraph (c) of this section and provided it is used at a level of 0.8 percent by weight of the paper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acids derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils and salts of such acids, single or mixed, as follows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Aluminum.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Ammonium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Calcium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Magnesium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Potassium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Sodium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Zinc.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferric chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferrous ammonium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fish oil, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fish oil, hydrogenated, potassium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furcelleran and salts of furcelleran as described in §§ 172.655 and 172.660 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glutaraldehyde (CAS Reg. No. 111-30-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antimicrobial agent in pigment and filler slurries used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard at levels not to exceed 300 parts per million by weight of the slurry solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl lactostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl mono-1,2-hydroxystearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monoricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guar gum modified by treatment with β-diethylamino- ethyl chloride hydrochloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid and/or drainage aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guar gum modified by treatment with not more than 25 weight percent of 2,3-epoxypropyltri-methylammonium chloride such that the finished product has a maximum chlorine content of 4.5 percent, a maximum nitrogen content of 3.0 percent, and a minimum viscosity in 1-percent-by-weight aqueous solution of 1,000 centipoises at 77 °F, as determined by RV-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 3 spindle at 20 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid and/or internal size employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and limited to use at a level: (1) Not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers intended for use in contact with all types of foods, except (2) not to exceed 0.30 pct. by weight of the finished dried paper and paperboard fibers for use with nonalcoholic and nonfatty food of types identified under Types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII of table I in par. (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N,N′,N′,N″,N″</E>-Hexakis (methoxymethyl)-1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine polymer with stearyl alcohol, α-octadecenyl-omega-hydroxypoly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), and alkyl (C20 + ) alcohols (CAS Reg. No. 130328-24-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a water-repellent applied to the surface of paper and paperboard at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the finished dry paperboard fibers. The finished paper and paperboard will be used in contact with aqueous foods under conditions of use B through G as described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization cross-linking agent for protein, including casein.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroquinone and the monomethyl or monoethyl ethers of hydroquinone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an inhibitor for monomers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxymethyl-5,5-dimethylhydantoin (CAS Reg. No. 27636-82-4), mixture with 1,3-bis(hydroxymethyl)-5,5-dimethylhydantoin (CAS Reg. No. 6440-58-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative in clay-type fillers at a level not to exceed a combined total of 1,200 milligrams/kilograms hydroxymethyl-5,5-dimethylhydantoin and 1,3-bis(hydroxymethyl)-5,5-dimethylhydantoin in the filler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxypropyl guar gum having a minimum viscosity of 5,000 centipoises at 25 °C., as determined by RV-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 4 spindle at 20 r.p.m. (or other suitable method) and using a test sample prepared by dissolving 5 grams of moisture-free hydroxypropyl guar gum in 495 milliliters of a 70 percent by weight aqueous propylene glycol solution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a dry strength and formation aid agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of finished dry paper or paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12-Hydroxystearic acid-polyethylene glycol block copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 70142-34-6) produced by the reaction of polyethylene glycol (minimum molecular weight 200) with 12-hydroxystearic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surfactant for dispersions of polyacrylamide retention and drainage aids employed prior to the sheet forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Imidazolium compounds, 2-(C<E T="52">17</E> and C<E T="52">17</E>-unsaturated alkyl)-1-[2-(C<E T="52">18</E> and C<E T="52">18</E>-unsaturated amido)ethyl]-4,5-dihydro-1-methyl, methyl sulfates (CAS Reg. No. 72749-55-4).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl <E T="03">m-</E> and <E T="03">p-</E>cresols (thymol derived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antioxidant for fatty based coating adjuvants provided it is used as a level not to exceed 0.005% by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl peroxydicarbonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Japan wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanolin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauryl peroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauryl sulfate salts:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Ammonium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Magnesium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Potassium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Sodium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lecithin, hydroxylated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lignin sulfonate and its calcium, potassium, and sodium salts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride, polymer with ethyl acrylate and vinyl acetate, hydrolyzed (CAS Reg. No. 113221-69-5) and/or its ammonium, potassium, and sodium salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a deposit control additive prior to the sheet forming operation to prevent scale buildup in the manufacture of paper and paperboard in contact with food, at a level not to exceed 0.075 percent (as the acid) by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methacrylic acid-acrylic acid copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 25751-21-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a boiler water additive at a level not to exceed 50 parts per million in the boiler water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>methyldiallylamine hydrochloride polymer with epichlorohydrin having a nitrogen content of 4.8 to 5.9 percent (Kjeldahl dry basis) such that a 20 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 30 centipoises and maximum viscosity of 100 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by LVF Model Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid, flocculating agent, and wet-strength agent employed in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation and limited to use at a level not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant to control pulp absorbency and pitch content in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-methyl-<E T="03">N</E>-(tall oil acyl) taurine, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 61791-41-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only to control scale formation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheetforming operation at a level not to exceed 0.015 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil, white
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mono-, di-, tri-(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)-phenol, ethoxylated, sulfated, ammonium salt with an average of 12 to 16 moles of ethylene oxide (CAS Reg. No. 68130-71-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier for rosin based sizing at a level not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monoglyceride citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monoisopropanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 78-96-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a dispersant for titanium dioxide suspensions at a level not to exceed 0.68 percent by weight of titanium dioxide. The finished paper and paperboard will be used in contact with all food types under conditions of use E through G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustardseed oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant to control pulp absorbency and pitch content in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrocellulose, 10.9-12.2% nitrogen
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>Oleoyl-<E T="03">N′-</E>stearoylethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxystearin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraformaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as setting agent for protein.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolatum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3700 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum asphalt, steam and vacuum refined to meet the following specifications: Softening point 88 °C to 93 °C, as determined by ASTM method D36-76, “Standard Test Method for Softening Point of Bitumen (Ring-and-Ball Apparatus);” penetration at 25 °C not to exceed 0.3 mm, as determined by ASTM method D5-73 (Reapproved 1978), “Standard Test Method for Penetration of Bituminous Materials,” which are incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>); and maximum weight loss not to exceed 3% when distilled to 371 °C, nor to exceed an additional 1.1% when further distilled between 371 °C and thermal decomposition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of internal sizing of paper and paperboard intended for use in contact only with raw fruits, raw vegetables, and dry food of the type identified under Type VIII of table 1 in paragraph (c) of this section, and provided that the asphalt is used at a level not to exceed 5% by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum wax, synthetic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3720 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenothiazine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as antioxidant in dry rosin size.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl acid phosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst in melamine-formaldehyde modified alkyd coatings and limited to use at a level not to exceed 2% by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl-β-naphthylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as antioxidant in dry rosin size and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.4% by weight of the dry rosin size.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid esters and polyesters (and their sodium salts) of triethanolamine formed by the reaction of triethanolamine with polyphosphoric acid to produce a mixture of esters having an average nitrogen content of 1.5 percent and an average phosphorus content of 32 percent (as PO<E T="52">4</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an adjuvant prior to the sheet forming operation to control pitch and scale formation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types I, IV, V, VII, VIII, and IX, and used at a level not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight of dry paper or paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[acrylamide-acrylic acid-<E T="03">N-</E>(dimethyl-aminomethyl)acryl- amide], produced by reacting 2.40 to 3.12 parts by weight of polyacrylamide with 1.55 parts dimethylamine and 1 part formaldehyde, and containing no more than 0.2 percent monomer as acrylamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a drainage aid and retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard for use in contact with fatty foods under conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use E, F, and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(2-aminoethyl acrylate nitrate-<E T="03">co-</E>2-hydroxypropyl acrylate) produced when one mole of hydroxypropyl acrylate and three moles of acrylic acid are reacted with three moles of ethylenimine and three moles of nitric acid, such that a 35 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 150 centipoises at 72 °F., as determined by RVF-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 2 spindle at 20 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention and drainage aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of dry paper or paperboard fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyacrolein (1 part) -sodium bisulfite (0.7 part) adduct, containing excess bisulfite (ratio of excess bisulfite to adduct not to exceed 1.5 to 1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an agent in modifying starches and starch gums used in the production of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.09 mg/in
<sup>2</sup> of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[acrylamide-acrylic acid-<E T="03">N</E>-(dimethylaminomethyl) acrylamide] (C.A. Registry No. 53800-41-2), produced by reacting 9.6-16.4 parts by weight of polyacrylamide with 1.6 parts dimethylamine and 1 part formaldehyde, and containing no more than 0.2% monomer as acrylamide, such that a 20% aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 4,000 cP at 25 °C., as determined by Brookfield viscometer model RVT, using a No. 5 spindle at 20 r/min (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a drainage aid, retention aid, or dry-strength agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard at a level not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of finished dry paper and paperboard fibers, when such paper or paperboard is used in contact with fatty foods under conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use E, F, and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide-epichlorohydrin modified resin produced by reacting adipic acid with diethylene triamine to produce a basic polyamide which is modified by reaction with formic acid and formaldehyde and further reacted with epichlorohydrin in the presence of ammonium hydroxide to form a water-soluble cationic resin having a nitrogen content of 13-16 percent (Kjeldahl, dry basis) such that a 35 percent by weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 75 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 12 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid and flocculant employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent dry resin by weight of finished dry paper or paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide-epichlorohydrin water-soluble thermosetting resins [CAS Reg. No. 68583-79-9] prepared by reacting adipic acid with diethylenetriamine to form a basic polyamide and further reacting the polyamide with an epichlorohydrin and dimethylamine mixture such that the finished resins have a nitrogen content of 17.0 to 18.0 percent of a dry basis, and that a 30-percent-by-weight aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 350 centipoises at 20 °C, as determined by a Brookfield viscometer using a No. 3 spindle at 30 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only under the following conditions:
<br/>1. As a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.12 percent by weight of dry paper or paperboard.
<br/>2. The finished paper or paperboard will be used in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under types I and IV-B and under conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use F and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide-epichlorohydrin water-soluble thermosetting resin (CAS Reg. No. 96387-48-3) prepared by reacting <E T="03">N</E>-methyl-bis(3-aminopropyl) amine with oxalic acid and urea to form a basic polyamide and further reacting the polyamide with epichlorohydrin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a wet strength agent and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide-epichlorohydrin water-soluble thermosetting resins prepared by reacting adipic acid, isophthalic acid, itaconic acid or dimethyl glutarate with diethylenetriamine to form a basic polyamide and further reacting the polyamide with one of the following:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in the manufacture of paper and paperboard under conditions such that the resins do not exceed 1.5 percent by weight of the paper or paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Epichlorohydrin.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Epichlorohydrin and ammonia mixture.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Epichlorohydrin and sodium hydrosulfite mixture.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamidoamine-ethyleneimine-epichlorohydrin resin prepared by reacting hexanedioic acid, <E T="03">N</E>-(2-aminoethyl)-1,2-ethanediamine, (chloromethyl)oxirane, ethyleneimine (aziridine), and polyethylene glycol, partly neutralized with sulfuric acid (CAS Reg. No. 167678-45-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard at a level not to exceed 0.12 percent resin by weight of the finished dry paper or paperboard. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamidol-epichlorohydrin modified resin produced by reacting glutaric acid dimethyl ester with diethylene-triamine to produce a basic polyamide which is modified by reaction with formaldehyde and further reacted with epicholorohydrin to form a water soluble cationic resin having a nitrogen content of 10.9-11.9 percent and a chlorine content of 13.8-14.8 percent, on a dry basis, and a minimum viscosity, in 12.5 percent by weight aqueous solution, of 10 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by a Brookfield Model LVF viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a wet strength agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 2.5 percent by weight of dry paper and paperboard fibers when such paper or paperboard is used in contact with food under conditions of use E through G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamine-epichlorohydrin resin produced by the reaction of epichlorohydrin with monomethylamine to form a prepolymer and further reaction of this prepolymer with <E T="03">N,N,N</E>′<E T="03">,N</E>′-tetramethylethylenediamine such that the finished resin having a nitrogen content of 11.6 to 14.8 percent and a chlorine content of 20.8 to 26.4 percent and a minimum viscosity, in 25 percent by weight aqueous solution, of 500 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by LV-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 2 spindle at 12 r.p.m. (or by other equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a flocculant, drainage aid, formation aid, retention aid, or strength additive employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 0.12 percent by weight of dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamine-epichlorohydrin resin produced by the reaction of <E T="03">N,N-</E>dimethyl-1,3-propanediamine with epichlorohydrin and further reacted with sulfuric acid, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number [27029-41-0], such that the finished resin has a maximum nitrogen content of 14.4 percent (dry basis) and a minimum viscosity in 30 percent by weight aqueous solution (pH 4-6) of 50 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by Brookfield LVT model viscometer, using a No. 1 spindle at 12 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifier in the treatment of influent water to be used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 20 parts per million of the influent water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamine-epichlorohydrin water-soluble thermosetting resin produced by reacting epichlorohydrin with: (i) polyamines comprising at least 95 percent by weight C<E T="52">4</E> to C<E T="52">6</E> aliphatic diamines and/or their self-condensation products, and/or (ii) prepolymers produced by reacting 1,2-dichloroethane with the polyamines in (i). The finished resin has a nitrogen content of 5.0 to 9.0 percent, a chlorine content of 18.0 to 35.0 percent on a dry basis, and a minimum viscosity, in a 25 percent by weight aqueous solution, of 50 centipoises at 20 °C (68 °F), as determined by Brookfield HAT model viscometer using a No. 1H spindle at 50 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a wetstrength agent and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamine-epichlorohydrin water-soluble thermosetting resin produced by reacting epichlorohydrin with: (i) polyamines comprising at least 95 percent by weight C<E T="52">4</E> to C<E T="52">6</E> aliphatic diamines and/or their self-condensation products and/or (ii) hexamethylenediamine, and/or (iii) bis(hexamethylene) triamine and higher homologues, and/or (iv) prepolymers produced by reacting 1,2-dichloroethane with the polyamines in (i) and/or (ii) and/or (iii). The finished resin has a nitrogen content of 5.0 to 9.0 percent, a chlorine content of 18.0 to 35.0 percent on a dry basis, and a minimum viscosity, in a 25 percent by weight aqueous solution, of 50 centipoises at 20 °C (68 °F), as determined by Brookfield HAT model viscometer using a No. 1H spindle at 50 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a wet-strength agent and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of dry paper and paperboard fibers. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamine-epichlorohydrin water soluble thermosetting resin prepared by reacting hexamethylenediamine with 1,2-dichloroethane to form a prepolymer and further reacting this prepolymer with epichlorohydrin. This resin is then reacted with nitrilotris (methylene-phosphonic acid), pentasodium salt, such that the finished resin has a nitrogen content of 5.0-5.3 percent; a chlorine content of 29.7-31.3 percent; and a phosphorus content of 2.0-2.2 percent, on a dry basis, and a minimum viscosity, in 25 percent by weight aqueous solution, of 50 centipoises at 25 °C., as determined on a Brookfield HAT model viscometer using a No. 1H spindle at 50 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a wet-strength agent and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamine resin produced by the reaction of 1,2-dichloroethane with bis(hexamethylene)triamine and higher homologues such that the finished resin has a nitrogen content of 13.0-15.0 percent on a dry basis, and a minimum viscosity in 25-percent-by-weight aqueous solution of 75 centipoises at 25 °C., as determined by Brookfield HAT model viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 50 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid and/or flocculent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of dry paper or paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyaminoamide-epichlorohydrin modified resin produced by reacting adipic acid with diethylenetriamine to produce a polyamide which is modified by reaction with diethylaminopropylamine and further reacted with dichloroethyl ether to form a polyamide intermediate. This polyamide intermediate is then reacted with epichlorohydrin such that the finished resins have a nitrogen content of 10.9-12.4 percent (Kjeldahl, dry basis) and a minimum viscosity in 40 percent-by-weight aqueous solution of 250 centipoises at 22 °C, as determined by a Brookfield Model LVT viscometer using a No. 2 spindle at 30 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a wet-strength agent and/or retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740(b) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as provided in §§ 175.300, 178.3740 and 178.3860 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(diallyldimethylammonium chloride) (CAS Reg. No. 26062-79-3) produced by the polymerization of (diallyldimethylammonium chloride) so that the finished resin has a nitrogen content of 8.66±0.4 percent on a dry weight basis and a minimum viscosity in a 40 percent by weight aqueous solution of 1,000 centipoises at 25 °C (77 °F), determined by LVF Model Brookfield Viscometer using a No. 3 spindle at 30 r.p.m. (or equivalent method). The level of residual monomer is not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the polymer (dry basis)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a pigment dispersant and/or retention aid prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 10 pounds of active polymer per ton of finished paper and paperboard.
<br/>2. As a pigment dispersant in coatings at a level not to exceed 3.5 pounds of active polymer per ton of finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly (diallyldimethylammonium chloride) (CAS Reg. No. 26062-79-3) produced by the polymerization of diallyldimethylammonium chloride so that the finished resin has a nitrogen content of 8.66±0.4 percent on a dry basis and a minimum viscosity in a 15 weight-percent aqueous solution of 10 centipoises at 25 °C (77 °F), as determined by LVF Model Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r/min (or equivalent method). The level of residual monomer is not to exceed 1 weight-percent of the polymer (dry basis)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a flocculant employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard, and used at a level not to exceed 10 mg/L (10 parts per million) of influent water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(1,2-dimethyl-5-vinylpyridinium methyl sulfate) having a nitrogen content of 5.7 to 7.3 percent and a sulfur content of 11.7 to 13.3 percent by weight on a dry basis and having a minimum viscosity in 30-percent-by-weight aqueous solution of 2,000 centipoises at 25 °C., as determined by LV-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 4 spindle at 60 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant employed in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyester resin produced by reacting dimethylolpropionic acid (CAS Registry No. 4767-03-7) as a comonomer, at no more than 30 percent by weight of total polymer solids in reaction with 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol, phthalic anhydride and isophthalic acid, such that the polyester resin has a viscosity of 200-600 centipoises at 80 °F as determined by a Brookfield RVT viscometer using a number 3 spindle at 50 rpm (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surface-sizing compound applied after the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of finished dry paper or paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene, oxidized; complying with the identity prescribed in § 177.1620(a) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as component of coatings that contact food only of the type identified under Type VII-B of table 1 in paragraph (c) of this section, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 50 percent by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethyleneamine mixture produced when 1 mole of ethylene dichloride, 1.05 moles of ammonia, and 2 moles of sodium hydroxide are made to react so that a 10 percent aqueous solution has a minimum viscosity of 40 centipoises at 77 °F, as determined by Brookfield viscometer using a No. 1 spindle at 60 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (200) dilaurate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant employed in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) dioleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) esters of coconut oil fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) esters of tall oil fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monolaurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monolaurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (3,000) monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylenimine, produced by the polymerization of ethylenimine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant employed prior to sheet formation in paper-making systems operated at a pH of 4.5 or higher, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 5% by weight of finished dry paper or paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(isobutene)/maleic anhydride adduct, diethanolamine reaction product. The mole ratio of poly(isobutene)/maleic anydride adduct to diethanolamine is 1:1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surfactant for dispersions of polyacrylamide retention and drainage aids employed prior to the sheet formation operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymethacrylic acid, sodium salt, having a viscosity in 30-percent-by-weight aqueous solution of 125-325 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by LV-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 2 spindle at 60 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a coating adjuvant for controlling viscosity when used at a level not to exceed 0.3% by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymethacrylic acid, sodium salt, having a viscosity in 40-percent-by-weight aqueous solution of 400-700 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by LV-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 2 spindle at 30 r.p.m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a coating adjuvant for controlling viscosity when used at a level not to exceed 0.1% by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[(methylimino)(2-hydroxytrimethylene)hydrochloride] produced by reaction of 1:1 molar ratio of methylamine and epichlorohydrin so that a 31-percent aqueous solution at 25 °C has a Stokes viscosity range of 2.5-4.0 as determined by ASTM method D1545-76 (Reapproved; 1981), “Standard Test Method for Viscosity of Transparent Liquids by Bubble Time Method,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in such an amount that finished paper and paperboard will contain the additive at a level not in excess of 1 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[oxyethylene (dimethyliminio) ethylene (dimethyliminio) ethylene dichloride] produced by reacting equimolar quantities of <E T="03">N,N,N,N</E>-tetramethylethylene-diamine and dichlorethyl ether to yield a solution of the solid polymer in distilled water at 25 °C with a reduced viscosity of not less than 0.15 deciliter per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for -Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>). The following formula is used for determining reduced viscosity:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only to improve dry-strength of paper and paperboard and as a retention and drainage aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reduced viscosity in terms of deciliters per gram = (t − t<E T="52">0</E>) / (t − C),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">where:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">t</E> = Solution efflux time
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">t</E><E T="52">o</E> = Water efflux time
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">C</E> = Concentration of solution in terms of grams per deciliter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene glycol (minimum molecular weight 1,000)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Propenoic acid, telomer with sodium 2-methyl-2-[(1-oxo-2-propenyl)amino]-1-propane sulfonate and sodium phosphinate (CAS Reg. No. 110224-99-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a deposit control additive employed prior to the sheet forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and at a level not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol alginate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protein hydrolysate from animal hides or soybean protein condensed with oleic and/or stearic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rapeseed oil, sulfated ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ricebran oil, sulfated ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosin and rosin derivatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As provided in § 178.3870 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes (silicones), dimethyl, isopropyl methyl, methyl 1-methyl-C<E T="52">9-49</E>-alkyl (CAS Reg. No. 144635-08-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of polyolefin coatings with § 177.1520 of this chapter at a level not to exceed 3 percent by weight. The finished coating will be used only for paper and paperboard that contact food of types VI-A and VI-B of table 1 in paragraph (c) of this section, and under conditions of use C, D, and E, as described in table 2 in paragraph (c) of this section, with a maximum hot fill temperature of 200 °F (94 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver chloride-coated titanium dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative in polymer latex emulsions at a level not to exceed 2.2 parts per million (based on silver ion concentration) in the dry coating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium carboxymethyl guar gum having a minimum viscosity of 2,700 centipoises at 25 °C after 24 hours as determined by RV-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 4 spindle at 20 r.p.m. and using a test sample prepared by dissolving 8 grams of sodium carboxymethyl guar gum in 392 milliliters of 0.2-percent-by-weight aqueous sodium <E T="03">o</E>-phenylphenate solution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a dry-strength and formation-aid agent employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 1% by weight of finished dry paper or paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hypochlorite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">N</E>-methyl-<E T="03">N</E>-oleyltaurate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant to control pulp absorbency and pitch content in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.2% by weight of lubricants or release agents applied at levels not to exceed 1 lb. per ton of finished paper or paperboard.
<br/>2. As an anticorrosion agent at levels not to exceed 0.2% by weight of wax emulsions used as internal sizing in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polyacrylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a thickening agent for natural rubber latex coatings, provided it is used at a level not to exceed 2 percent by weight of coating solids.
<br/>2. As a pigment dispersant in coatings at a level not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of pigment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium poly(isopropenylphosphonate) (CAS Reg. No. 118632-18-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in paper mill boilers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium zinc potassium polyphosphate (CAS Reg. No. 65997-17-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a pigment dispersant in coatings at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of pigment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sperm oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stannous oleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearyl-2-lactylic acid and its calcium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-butadiene copolymers produced by copolymerizing styrene-butadiene with one or more of the monomers: acrylamide, acrylic acid, fumaric acid, 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate, itaconic acid, methacrylic acid, and <E T="03">N-</E>methylolacrylamide (CAS Reg. No. 53504-31-7). The finished copolymers shall contain not more than 10 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid, fumaric acid, 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate, itaconic acid, and methacrylic acid, and shall contain not more than 3 weight percent of total polymer units derived from <E T="03">N-</E>methylolacrylamide, and shall contain not more than 2 weight percent of polymer units derived from acrylamide.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymer, amidated, ammonium sodium salt; having, in a 25 percent by weight aqueous solution at pH 8.8, a minimum viscosity of 600 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by Brookfield model LVT viscometer using a No. 3 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surface size at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of paper or paperboard substrate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymer, sodium salt (minimum molecular weight 30,000)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a coating thickening agent at a level not to exceed 1% by weight of coating solids.
<br/>2. As surface size at a level not to exceed 1% by weight of paper or paperboard substrate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-methacrylic acid copolymer, potassium salt (minimum molecular weight 30,000)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a coating thickening agent at a level not to exceed 1% by weight of coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic wax polymer prepared by the catalytic polymerization of alpha olefins such that the polymer has a maximum iodine number of 18 and a minimum number average molecular weight of 2,400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of petroleum wax and/or synthetic petroleum wax complying with § 178.3710 or § 178.3720 of this chapter at levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the wax:
<br/>1. Under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section for all foods.
<br/>2. Under conditions of use E described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section for food Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B and VIII as described in table 1 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow alcohol, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow fatty acid, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetraethylenepentamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a modifier for amino resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,4,4a,9a-Tetrahydro-9, 10-anthracenedione (CAS Reg. No. 56136-14-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a catalyst in the alkaline pulping of lignocellulosic materials at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the raw lignocellulosic materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N,N</E>′, <E T="03">N</E>′-Tetramethylethylenediamine polymer with bis-(2-chloroethyl) ether, first reacted with not more than 5 percent by weight 1-chloro-2,3-epoxypropane and then reacted with not more than 5 percent by weight poly (acrylic acid) such that a 50 percent by weight aqueous solution of the product has a nitrogen content of 4.7-4.9 percent and viscosity of 350-700 centipoises at 25 °C as determined by LV series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 2 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or by other equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a flocculent, drainage aid or retention aid employed prior to the sheet forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium <E T="03">N</E>- (1,2-dicarboxyethyl) - <E T="03">N</E> - octadecylsulfo-succinamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier in aqueous dispersions of rosin sizes complying with § 178.3870(a)(4) of this chapter and limited to use prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard at a level not to exceed 0.02 pct by weight of finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only to adjust pH during the manufacture of amino resins permitted for use as components of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol adipic acid monoester produced by reacting equimolar quantities of triethylene glycol and adipic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a curl-control agent at a level not to exceed 2% by weight of coated or uncoated paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a modifier for amino resins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3,5-Triethylhexahydro-1,3,5-triazine (CAS Registry No. 7779-27-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antimicrobial agent for coating, binder, pigment, filler, sizing, and similar formulations added prior to the heat drying step in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and limited to use at a level between 0.05 and 0.15 percent by weight of the formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Undecafluorocyclohexanemethanol ester mixture of dihydrogen phosphate, compound with 2,2′ iminodiethanol (1:1); hydrogen phosphate, compound with 2,2′-iminodiethanol (1:1); and P,P′-dihydrogen pyrophosphate, compound with 2,2′-iminodiethanol (1:2); where the ester mixture has a fluorine content of 48.3 pct to 53.1 pct as determined on a solids basis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an oil repellent at a level not to exceed 0.087 lb (0.046 lb of fluorine) per 1,000 ft
<sup>2</sup> of treated paper or paperboard, as determined by analysis for total fluorine in the treated paper or paperboard without correction for any fluorine which might be present in the untreated paper or paperboard, when such paper or paperboard is used in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types IVA, V, VIIA, VIII, and IX, and under the conditions of use B through G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Viscose rayon fibers
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wax, petroleum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3710 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xanthan gum, conforming to the identity and specifications prescribed in § 172.695 of this chapter, except that the residual isopropyl alcohol shall not exceed 6,000 parts per million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at a maximum level of 0.125 percent by weight of finished paper as a suspension aid or stabilizer for aqueous pigment slurries employed in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant to control pulp absorbency and pitch content in the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to the sheet-forming operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zeolite Na-A (CAS Reg. No. 68989-22-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a pigment extender at levels not to exceed 5.4 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc formaldehyde sulfoxylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc octoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of waterproof coatings where the zirconium oxide is present at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the dry paper or paperboard fiber and where the zirconium oxide is produced by hydrolysis of zirconium acetate.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Substances identified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section may be used as components of the food-contact surface of paper and paperboard, provided that the food-contact surface of the paper or paperboard complies with the extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Substances identified in § 175.300(b)(3) of this chapter with the exception of those identified in paragraphs (b)(3)(v), (xv), (xx), (xxvi), (xxxi), and (xxxii) of that section and paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this paragraph (b)(2) follow:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide copolymerized with ethyl acrylate and/or stryene and/or methacrylic acid, subsequently reacted with formaldehyde and butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide copolymerized with ethylene and vinyl chloride in such a manner that the finished copolymers have a minimum weight average molecular weight of 30,000 and contain not more than 3.5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylamide, and in such a manner that the acrylamide portion may or may not be subsequently partially hydrolyzed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as coatings or components of coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Acrylamido-2-methyl-propanesulfonic acid, homopolymer, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 35641-59-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings at a level not to exceed 0.01 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylic and modified acrylic polymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1010 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylic copolymers produced by copolymerizing 2 or more of the acrylate monomers butyl acrylate, ethyl acrylate, ethyl methacrylate, methyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, and <E T="03">n-</E>propyl methacrylate, or produced by copolymerizing one or more of such acrylate monomers together with one or more of the monomers acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, butadiene, 2-ethyl-hexyl acrylate, fumaric acid, glycidyl methacrylate, <E T="03">n-</E>hexyl-methacrylate, itaconic acid, methacrylic acid, styrene, vinyl acetate, vinyl chloride, and vinylidene chloride. The finished copolymers shall contain at least 50 weight percent of polymer units derived from one or more of the monomers butyl acrylate, ethyl acrylate, ethyl methacrylate, methyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, and <E T="03">n-</E>propyl methacrylate; and shall contain not more than 5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid, fumaric acid, glycidyl methacrylate, <E T="03">n-</E>hexyl methacrylate, itaconic acid, and methacrylic acid. The provision limiting the finished acrylic copolymers to not more than 5 units derived from acrylic acid, fumaric acid, glycidyl methacrylate, <E T="03">n-</E>hexyl methacrylate, itaconic acid, and methacrylic acid is not applicable to finished acrylic copolymers used as coating adjuvants at a level not exceeding 2 weight percent of total coating solids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl mono- and disulfonic acids, sodium salts (produced from <E T="03">n</E>-alkanes in the range of C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> with not less than 50 percent C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As emulsifiers for vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings and limited to use at levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the coating solids.
<br/>2. As emulsifiers for vinylidene chloride copolymer or homopolymer coatings at levels not to exceed a total of 2.6 percent by weight of coating solids. The finished polymer contacts food only of types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, III, IV, V, VIA, VIB, VII, VIII, and IX and under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Bromo-4′-hydroxyacetophenone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative for coating formulations, binders, pigment slurries, and sizing solutions at a level not to exceed 0.006 percent by weight of the coating, solution, slurry or emulsion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-di-(C<E T="52">9</E>-C<E T="52">11</E> alkyl) ester, ammonium salt (also known as butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-diisodecyl ester, ammonium salt [CAS Reg. No. 144093-88-9]).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a surface active agent in package coating inks at levels not to exceed 3 percent by weight of the coating ink.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl oleate, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyraldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Captan (<E T="03">N-</E>trichloromethylmercapto-4-cyclohexene-1, 2-dicarboximide)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a mold- and mildew-proofing agent in coatings intended for use in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Type I, II, VI-B, and VIII.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor Oil, polyoxyethylated (42 moles ethylene oxide)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier in nitrocellulose coatings for paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types IV A, V, VII A, VIII, and IX; and limited to use at a level not to exceed 8 percent by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-(3-Chloroallyl)-3,5,7-triaza-1- azoniaadamantane chloride (CAS Reg. No. 4080-31-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a preservative at a level of 0.3 weight percent in latexes used as pigment binders in paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with nonacidic, nonalcoholic food and under the conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use E, F, and G.
<br/>2. As a preservative at a level not to exceed 0.07 weight percent in latexes and 0.05 weight percent in pigment slurries used as components of coatings for paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with food.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-Chloro-2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 26172-55-4) and 2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 2682-20-4) mixture at a ratio of 3 parts to 1 part, manufactured from methyl-3-mercaptopropionate (CAS Reg. No. 2935-90-2). The mixture may contain magnesium nitrate (CAS Reg. No. 10377-60-3) at a concentration equivalent to the isothiazolone active ingredients (weight/weight)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As an antimicrobial agent for polymer latex emulsions in paper coatings at a level not to exceed 50 parts per million (based on isothiazolone active ingredients) in the coating formulation.
<br/>2. As an antimicrobial agent for finished coating formulations and for additives used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard including fillers, binders, pigment slurries, and sizing solutions at a level not to exceed 25 parts per million (based on isothiazolone active ingredients) in the coating formulations and additives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper 8-quinolinolate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as preservative for coating formulations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclized rubber produced when natural pale crepe rubber dissolved in phenol is catalytically cyclized so that the finished cyclized rubber has a melting point of 145 °C to 155 °C as determined by ASTM method E28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring-and-Ball Apparatus,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>), and contains no more than 4000 ppm of residual-free phenol as determined by a gas liquid chromatographic procedure titled “Determination of Free Phenol in Cyclized Rubber Resin,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings for paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types VIII and IX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromo-2,4-dicyanobutane (CAS Reg. No. 35691-65-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative at levels not more than 0.05 weight percent and not less than 0.01 weight percent: in latexes used as pigment binders in coatings; in pigment slurries used in coatings; and/or in coatings themselves. The total level of the preservative in the finished coating shall not exceed 0.04 weight percent of the finished coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl sebacate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(C<E T="52">7</E>,C<E T="52">9</E>-alkyl) adipate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3740 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclohexyl phthalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol dibenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 120-55-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a plasticizer for polyvinyl acetate coatings at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the coating solids under conditions described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use E, F, and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol ester of the adduct of terpene and maleic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dihydroxy dichlorodiphenyl methane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as preservative for coating formulations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylpolysiloxane, 100 centistokes viscosity
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylpolysiloxane-beta-phenylethyl methyl polysiloxane copolymer (2:1), 200 to 400 centistokes viscosity
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′-</E>Diphenyl-<E T="03">p-</E>phenylenediamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization inhibitor in 2-sulfoethyl methacrylate, sodium salt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol dibenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 27138-31-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. For use only as a plasticizer for polyvinyl acetate coatings at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the coating solids under conditions described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, condition of use E.
<br/>2. For use only as a plasticizer for polyvinyl acetate coatings at a level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the coating solids under conditions described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use F and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium <E T="03">N-</E>octadecylsulfosuccinamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier in resin latex coatings and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.05% by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) and its sodium and/or calcium salts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanedial, polymer with tetrahydro-4-hydroxy-5-methyl-2(1H)pyrimidinone, propoxylated (CAS Reg. No. 118299-90-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an insolubilizer for starch-based coatings and limited to use at a level not to exceed 5.0 percent by weight of the coating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-acrylic acid copolymers produced by the copolymerization of ethylene and acrylic acid and/or their partial ammonium salts. The finished copolymer shall contain no more than 25 weight percent of polymer units derived from acrylic acid and no more than 0.35 weight percent of residual monomeric acrylic acid, and have a melt index not to exceed 350 as determined by ASTM method D1238-82, “Standard Test Method for Flow Rates of Thermoplastics by Extrusion Plastometer,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as preservative for coating formulations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyoxal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an insolubilizing agent in starch- and protein-based coatings that contact nonalcoholic foods, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 6 percent by weight of the starch or protein fraction of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monobutyl ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxymethyl derivatives (mixture of mono and poly) of [N-(1, 1-dimethyl-3-oxobutyl) acrylamide] produced by reacting 1 mole of the [N-(1,1-dimethyl-3-oxobutyl) acrylamide] with 3 moles of formaldehyde such that the finished product has a maximum nitrogen content of 6.2 percent and a maximum hydroxyl content of 15 percent by weight on a dry basis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a comonomer in polyvinyl acetate latex coatings and limited to use at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of dry polymer solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl oleate, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride adduct of butadiene-styrene copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins (molar ratio 1α-methylstyrene to 3 vinyltoluene)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Modified kaolin clay (CAS Reg. No. 1344-00-9) is produced by the reaction of sodium silicate (CAS Reg. No. 1344-09-8) and kaolinite clay (CAS Reg. No. 1332-58-7) under hydrothermal conditions. The reaction product has a molecular weight between 246 and 365 and consists of 46 to 55 percent silicon dioxide (Si0<E T="52">2</E>), 28 to 42 percent aluminum oxide (A1<E T="52">2</E>0<E T="52">3</E>), and 2 to 7 percent of sodium oxide (Na<E T="52">2</E>0). The reaction product will not consist of more than 70 percent modified kaolin clay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of coatings in paper and paperboard products at a level not to exceed 9 percent by weight of the coating intended for use in contact with food of Types I through IX described in table 1 of paragraph (c) of this section under conditions of use C through H described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxazolidinylethylmethacrylate (CAS Registry No. 46236-15-1) copolymer with ethyl acrylate and methyl methacrylate, and containing not more than 6 percent by weight of oxazolidinylethylmethacrylate. Maximum nitrogen content shall be 0.5 percent and number average molecular weight of that portion of the copolymer soluble in tetrahydrofuran shall be not less than 50,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a binder for pigment coatings as a binder level not to exceed 4.0 percent by weight of dry paper or paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol tetrastearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins, or the hydrogenated product thereof, meeting the following specifications: Softening point 97 °C minimum, as determined by ASTM method E28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring and Ball Apparatus;” aniline point 120 °C minimum, as determined by ASTM method D611-82, “Standard Test Methods for Aniline Point and Mixed Aniline Point of Petroleum Products and Hydrocarbon Solvents,” which are incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>). Specific gravity 0.96-0.99 (20 °C/20 °C). Such petroleum hydrocarbon resins are produced by the catalytic polymerization of dienes and olefins from low-boiling distillates of cracked petroleum stocks that contain no material boiling over 200 °C and that meet the ultraviolet absorbance limits prescribed in § 172.880(b) of this chapter when subjected to the analytical procedure described in § 172.886(b) of this chapter, modified as follows: Treat the product as in the first paragraph under “Procedure” in § 172.250(b)(3) of this chapter. Then proceed with § 172.886(b) of this chapter, starting with the paragraph commencing with “Promptly complete transfer of the sample * * *”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as modifiers in waxpolymer blend coatings for corrugated paperboard intended for use in bulk packaging or raw fruits, raw vegetables, iced meat, iced fish, and iced poultry; and limited to use at a level not to exceed 30 weight-percent of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyester resin formed by the reaction of the methyl ester of rosin, phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride and ethylene glycol, such that the polyester resin has an acid number of 4 to 11, a drop-softening point of 70 °C-92 °C., and a color of K or paler
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyester resin produced by reacting the acid groups in montan wax with ethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene, oxidized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1620 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene reacted with maleic anhydride such that the modified polyethylene has a saponification number not in excess of 6 after Soxhlet extraction for 24 hours with anhydrous ethyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylated (40 moles) tallow alcohol sulfate, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 300 p.p.m. in finished coated paper or paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene block polymers (minimum molecular weight 6,800)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl alcohol (minimum viscosity of 4% aqueous solution at 20 °C. of 4 centipoises)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl butyral
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl formal
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinylidene chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl pyrrolidone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol mono- and diesters of fats and fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes and silicones; platinum-catalyzed reaction product of vinyl-containing dimethyl polysiloxane (CAS Reg. Nos. 68083-19-2 and 68083-18-1) with methyl hydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 63148-57-2) or dimethyl (methyl hydrogen) polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68037-59-2). Diallyl maleate (CAS Reg No. 999-21-3), dimethyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 624-48-6), 1-ethynyl-1-cyclohexanol (CAS Reg. No. 78-27-3) and vinyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 108-05-4) may be used as optional polymerization inhibitors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surface coating. Platinum content not to exceed 200 parts per million.
<br/>1. In coatings for paper and paperboard provided the coating contacts food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, VI, and VII-B when used under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
<br/>2. In coatings for paper and paperboard provided the coating contacts food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types III, IV, V, VII-A, VIII, and IX when used under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes and silicones; platinum-catalyzed reaction product of vinyl-containing dimethylpolysiloxane (CAS Reg. Nos. 68083-19-2 and 68083-18-1), with methyl hydrogen polysiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 63148-57-2). Dimethyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 624-48-6), vinyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 108-05-4), dibutyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 105-76-0) and diallyl maleate (CAS Reg. No. 999-21-3) may be used as optional polymerization inhibitors. The polymer may also contain C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> olefins (CAS Reg. No. 68855-60-7) as a control release agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Platinum content not to exceed 100 parts per million. For use only as a release coating for pressure sensitive adhesives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium decylbenzenesulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dihexyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">n-</E>dodecylpolyethoxy (50 moles) sulfate-sodium isododecylphenoxypolyethoxy (40 moles) sulfate mixtures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier in coatings that contact food only of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types IV-A, V, VII, VIII, and IX; and limited to use at levels not to exceed 0.75 percent by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2-ethylhexyl sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium oleoyl isopropanolamide sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as preservative for coating formulations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">o-</E>phenylphenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium vinyl sulfonate polymerized
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium xylenesulfonate (CAS Reg. No. 1300-72-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in paper and paperboard coatings at levels not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight of the finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene copolymers produced by copolymerizing styrene with maleic anhydride and its methyl and butyl (<E T="03">sec</E>- or <E T="03">iso</E>-) esters. Such copolymers may contain β-nitrostyrene as a polymerization chain terminator</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a coating or component of coatings and limited to use at a level not to exceed 1% by weight of paper or paperboard substrate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene polymers made by the polymerization of any combination of styrene or alpha methyl styrene with acrylic acid, methacrylic acid, 2-ethyl hexyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, and butyl acrylate. The styrene and alpha methyl styrene, individually, may constitute from 0 to 80 weight percent of the polymer. The other monomers, individually, may be from 0 to 40 weight percent of the polymer. The polymer number average molecular weight (M<E T="52">n</E>) shall be at least 2,000 (as determined by gel permeation chromatography). The acid number of the polymer shall be less than 250. The monomer content shall be less than 0.5 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in contact with foods of Types IV-A, V, and VII in table 1 of paragraph (c) of this section, under use conditions E through G in table 2 of paragraph (c), and with foods of Types VIII and IX without use temperature restriction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-acrylic copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 25950-40-7 produced by polymerizing 77 to 83 parts by weight of styrene with 13 to 17 parts of methyl methacrylate, 3 to 4 parts of butyl methacrylate, 0.5 to 2.5 parts of methacrylic acid, and 0.1 to 0.3 part of butyl acrylate such that the finished copolymers have a minimum number average molecular weight greater than 100,000 and a level of residual styrene monomer in the polymer not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of coatings and limited to use at a level not to exceed 20 percent by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-butadiene copolymers produced by copolymerizing styrene-butadiene with one or more of the monomer: acrylamide, acrylic acid, fumaric acid, 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate, itaconic acid, and methacrylic acid. The finished copolymers shall contain not more than 10 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid, fumaric acid, 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate, itaconic acid and methacrylic acid, and shall contain not more than 2 weight percent of polymer units derived from acrylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-butadiene copolymers with 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate and acrylic acid containing not more than 15 weight percent acrylic acid and no more than 20 weight percent of a combination of 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate and acrylic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-butadiene-vinylidene chloride copolymers containing not more than 40 weight percent of vinylidene chloride in the finished copolymers. The finished copolymers may contain not more than 10 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid, fumaric acid, 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate, itaconic acid, and/or methacrylic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as coatings or components of coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-dimethylstyrene-α-methylstyrene copolymers produced by polymerizing equimolar ratios of the three comonomers such that the finished copolymers have a minimum average molecular weight of 835 as determined by ASTM method D2503-82, “Standard Test Method for Molecular Weight (Relative Molecular Mass) of Hydrocarbons by Thermoelectric Measurement of Vapor Pressure,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings for paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with nonfatty food and limited to use at a level not to exceed 50% by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-isobutylene copolymers (weight average molecular weight not less than 6,300)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings for paper and paperboard intended for use in contact under conditions of use D G described in table 2 of paragraph (c) of this section, with food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII described in table 1 of paragraph (c) of this section; and limited to use at a level not to exceed 40 percent by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a coating or component of coatings and limited for use at a level not to exceed 2 percent by weight of paper or paperboard substrate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-methacrylic acid copolymers containing no more than 5 weight percent of polymer units derived from methacrylic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-vinylidene chloride copolymers containing not more than 40 weight percent of vinylidene chloride in the finished copolymers. The finished copolymers may contain not more than 5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid, fumaric acid, itaconic acid, and/or methacrylic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as coatings or components of coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Sulfoethyl methacrylate, sodium salt [Chemical Abstracts Service No. 1804-87-1]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in copolymer coatings under conditions of use E, F, and G described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 2.0 percent by weight of the dry copolymer coating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α[<E T="03">p</E>-(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl) phenyl]-<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) hydrogen sulfate, sodium salt mixture with α-[<E T="03">p-</E>(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-phenyl]-<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) with both substances having a poly(oxyethylene) content averaging 3 moles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surface-active agent at levels not to exceed 3 percent by weight of vinyl acetate polymer with ethylene and <E T="03">N-</E>(hydroxymethyl) acrylamide intended for use in coatings for paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with foods:
<br/>1. Of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, III, IV, VI-B, and VII, and under the conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use E, F, and G.
<br/>2. Of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VIII and IX and under the conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium <E T="03">N-</E>(1,2-dicarboxyethyl)-<E T="03">N-</E>octadecylsulfo-succinamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier in resin latex coatings, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.05% by weight of the coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluenesulfonamide-formaldehyde resins
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl acetate copolymers produced by copolymerizing vinyl acetate with one or more of the monomers acrylamide, acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, bicyclo-[2.2.1]<E T="03">hept-</E>2-ene-6-methylacrylate, butyl acrylate, crotonic acid, decyl acrylate, diallyl fumarate, diallyl maleate, diallyl phthalate, dibutyl fumarate, dibutyl itaconate, dibutylmaleate, di(2-ethylhexyl) maleate, divinyl benzene, ethyl acrylate, 2-ethyl-hexyl acrylate, fumaric acid, itaconic acid, maleic acid, methacrylic acid, methyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, mono(2-ethylhexyl) maleate, monoethyl maleate, styrene, vinyl butyrate, vinyl crotonate, vinyl hexoate, vinylidene chloride, vinyl pelargonate, vinyl propionate, vinyl pyrrolidone, vinyl stearate, and vinyl sulfonic acid. The finished copolymers shall contain at least 50 weight percent of polymer units derived from vinyl acetate and shall contain no more than 5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylamide, acrylic acid, crotonic acid, decyl acrylate, dibutyl itaconate, di(2-ethylhexyl) maleate, fumaric acid, itaconic acid, maleic acid, methacrylic acid, mono(2-ethylhexyl) maleate, monoethyl maleate, vinyl butyrate, vinyl hexoate, vinyl pelargonate, vinyl propionate, vinyl stearate, and vinyl sulfonic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl acetate polymer with ethylene and <E T="03">N-</E>(hydroxymethyl) acrylamide containing not more than 6 weight percent of total polymer units derived from <E T="03">N-</E>(hydroxymethyl) acrylamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in coatings for paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with foods:
<br/>1. Of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types I, II, III, IV, VI B, and VII and under the conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use E, F, and G.
<br/>2. Of the types identified in paragraph (c) of this section, table 1, under Types V, VIII, and IX and under the conditions of use described in paragraph (c) of this section, table 2, conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride copolymers produced by copolymerizing vinyl chloride with one or more of the monomers acrylonitrile; fumaric acid and its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, amyl, hexyl, heptyl, or octyl esters; maleic acid and its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, amyl, hexyl, heptyl, or octyl esters; maleic anhydride; 5-norbornene-2, 3-dicarboxylic acid, mono-<E T="03">n-</E>butyl ester; vinyl acetate-and vinylidene chloride. The finished copolymers shall contain at least 50 weight percent of polymer units derived from vinyl chloride: shall contain no more than 5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from fumaric and/or maleic acid and/or their methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, amyl, heptyl, or octyl monoesters or from maleic anhydride or from mono-<E T="03">n-</E>butyl ester of 5-norbornene-2, 3-dicarboxylic acid (however, in any case the finished copolymers shall contain no more than 4 weight percent of total polymer units derived from mono-<E T="03">n-</E>butyl ester of 5-norbornene-2,3-dicarboxylic acid)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate hydroxyl-modified copolymers
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate hydroxyl-modified copolymers reacted with trimellitic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinylidene chloride copolymers produced by copolymerizing vinylidene chloride with one or more of the monomers acrylamide acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, butyl acrylate, butyl methacrylate ethyl acrylate, ethyl methacrylate, fumaric acid, itaconic acid, methacrylic acid, methyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, octadecyl methacrylate, propyl acrylate, propyl methacrylate, vinyl chloride and vinyl sulfonic acid. The finished copolymers shall contain at least 50 weight percent of polymer units derived from vinylidene chloride; and shall contain no more than 5 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylamide, acrylic acid, fumaric acid, itaconic acid, methacrylic acid, octadecyl methacrylate, and vinyl sulfonic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorants:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a colorant only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum hydrate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum and potassium silicate (mica)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum mono-, di-, and tristearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum silicate (China clay)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Barium sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bentonite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bentonite, modified with dimethyldioctadecylammonium ion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Burnt umber</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium carbonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium silicate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carbon black (channel process)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cobalt aluminate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diatomaceous earth</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Iron oxides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesium oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesium silicate (talc)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phthalocyanine blue (C.I. pigment blue 15, 15:1, 15:2, 15:3, and 15:4; C.I. No. 74160; CAS Reg. No. 147-14-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Raw sienna</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silica</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tartrazine lake (certified FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Titanium dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Titanium dioxide-barium sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Titanium dioxide-magnesium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"> silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc carbonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The food-contact surface of the paper and paperboard in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food, and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of this paragraph, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives (corrected for wax, petrolatum, mineral oil and zinc extractives as zinc oleate) not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface as determined by the methods described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table 1—Types of Raw and Processed Foods
</HD1>
<FP-1>I. Nonacid, aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both (pH above 5.0).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>II. Acid, aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both, and including oil-in-water emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>III. Aqueous, acid or nonacid products containing free oil or fat; may contain salt, and including water-in-oil emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IV. Dairy products and modifications:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Water-in-oil emulsions, high- or low-fat.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Oil-in-water emulsions, high- or low-fat.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>V. Low-moisture fats and oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VI. Beverages:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Containing up to 8 percent of alcohol.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Nonalcoholic.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Containing more than 8 percent alcohol.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>VII. Bakery products other than those included under Types VIII or IX of this table:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Moist bakery products with surface containing free fat or oil.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Moist bakery products with surface containing no free fat or oil.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>VIII. Dry solids with the surface containing no free fat or oil (no end test required).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IX. Dry solids with the surface containing free fat or oil.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Test Procedures with Time Temperature Conditions for Determining Amount of Extractives From the Food-Contact Surface of Uncoated or Coated Paper and Paperboard, Using Solvents Simulating Types of Foods and Beverages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Condition of use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Types of food (see table 1)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Food-simulating solvents
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heptane 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8 percent alcohol
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50 percent alcohol
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time and temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time and temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time and temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time and temperature
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. High temperature heat-sterilized (e.g., over 212 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, IV-B, VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B. Boiling water sterilized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">212 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, VII-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C. Hot filled or pasteurized above 150 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B, VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fill boiling, cool to 100 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 15 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V, IX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D. Hot filled or pasteurized below 150 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B, VI-B,</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V, IX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E. Room temperature filled and stored (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 24 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V, IX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 24 hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 24 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F. Refrigerated storage (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 48 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 48 hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 48 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">G. Frozen storage (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, IV-B, VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 24 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, VII-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H. Frozen or refrigerated storage: Ready-prepared foods intended to be reheated in container at time of use:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1. Aqueous or oil-in-water emulsion of high- or low-fat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, IV-B, VII-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">212 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2. Aqueous, high- or low-free oil or fat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII-A, IX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Heptane extractability results must be divided by a factor of five in arriving at the extractability for a food product having water-in-oil emulsion or free oil or fat. Heptane food-simulating solvent is not required in the case of wax-polymer blend coatings for corrugated paperboard containers intended for use in bulk packaging of iced meat, iced fish, and iced poultry.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Analytical methods</I>—(1) <I>Selection of extractability conditions.</I> First ascertain the type of food product (table 1, paragraph (c) of this section) that is being packed commercially in the paper or paperboard and the normal conditions of thermal treatment used in packaging the type of food involved. Using table 2, paragraph (c) of this section, select the food-simulating solvent or solvents and the time-temperature exaggerations of the paper or paperboard use conditions. Having selected the appropriate food-simulating solvent or solvents and the time-temperature exaggeration over normal use, follow the applicable extraction procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reagents</I>—(i) <I>Water.</I> All water used in extraction procedures should be freshly demineralized (deionized) distilled water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>n-Heptane.</I> Reagent grade, freshly redistilled before use, using only material boiling at 208 °F.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Alcohol.</I> 8 or 50 percent (by volume), prepared from undenatured 95 percent ethyl alcohol diluted with demineralized (deionized) distilled water.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Chloroform.</I> Reagent grade, freshly redistilled before use, or a grade having an established consistently low blank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Selection of test method.</I> Paper or paperboard ready for use in packaging shall be tested by use of the extraction cell described in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 21.010-21.015, under “Exposing Flexible Barrier Materials for Extraction,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>); also described in ASTM method F34-76 (Reapproved 1980), “Standard Test Method for Liquid Extraction of Flexible Barrier Materials,” which is incorporated by reference (copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), except that formed paper and paperboard products may be tested in the container by adapting the in-container methods described in § 175.300(e) of this chapter. Formed paper and paperboard products such as containers and lids, that cannot be tested satisfactorily by any of the above methods may be tested in specially designed extraction equipment, usually consisting of clamping devices that fit the closure or container so that the food-contact surface can be tested, or, if flat samples can be cut from the formed paper or paperboard products without destroying the integrity of the food-contact surface, they may be tested by adapting the following “sandwich” method:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Apparatus.</I> (<I>a</I>) Thermostated (±1.0 °F) water bath, variable between 70 °F and 120 °F water bath cover capable of holding at least one 800-milliliter beaker partially submersed in bath.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Analytical balance sensitive to 0.1 milligram with an approximate capacity of 100 grams.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Tongs.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Hood and hot-plate facilities.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Forced draft oven.
</P>
<FP>For each extraction, the following additional apparatus is necessary:
</FP>
<P>(<I>f</I>) One No. 2 paper clip.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) One 800-milliliter beaker with watch-glass cover.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) One 250-milliliter beaker.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Five 2
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-square aluminum screens (standard aluminum window screening is acceptable).
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) One wire capable of supporting sample stack.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Procedure.</I> (<I>a</I>) For each extraction, accurately cut eight 2
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-square samples from the formed paper or paperboard product to be tested.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Carefully stack the eight 2
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-square samples and the five 2
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch-square aluminum screens in sandwich form such that the food-contact side of each sample is always next to an aluminum screen, as follows: Screen, sample, sample, screen, sample, sample, screen, etc. Clip the sandwich together carefully with a No. 2 paper clip, leaving just enough space at the top to slip a wire through.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Place an 800-milliliter beaker containing 100-milliliters of the appropriate food-simulating solvent into the constant temperature bath, cover with a watch glass and condition at the desired temperature.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) After conditioning, carefully lower the sample sandwich with tongs into the beaker.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) At the end of the extraction period, using the tongs, carefully lift out the sample sandwich and hang it over the beaker with the wire.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) After draining, pour the food-simulating solvent solution into a tared 250-milliliter beaker. Rinse the 800-milliliter beaker three times, using a total of not more than 50 milliliters of the required solvent.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Determine total nonvolatile extractives in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Selection of samples.</I> Quadruplicate samples should be tested, using for each replicate sample the number of cups, containers, or preformed or converted products nearest to an area of 100 square inches.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Determination of amount of extractives</I>—(i) <I>Total residues.</I> At the end of the exposure period, remove the test container or test cell from the oven and combine the solvent for each replicate in a clean Pyrex (or equivalent) flask or beaker being sure to rinse the test container or cell with a small quantity of clean solvent. Evaporate the food-simulating solvents to about 100 milliliters in the flask or beaker, and transfer to a clean, tared evaporating dish (platinum or Pyrex), washing the flask three times with small portions of solvent used in the extraction procedure, and evaporate to a few milliliters on a nonsparking, low-temperature hotplate. The last few milliliters should be evaporated in an oven maintained at a temperature of approximately 221 °F. Cool the evaporating dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh the residue to the nearest 0.1 milligram, (<I>e</I>). Calculate the extractives in milligrams per square inch of the container or sheeted paper or paperboard surface.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Water and 8- and 50-percent alcohol.</I> Milligrams extractives per square inch = (<I>e</I>)/(<I>s</I>). 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Heptane.</I> Milligrams extractives per square inch=<I>(e)/(s)(F)</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-1><I>e</I> = Milligrams extractives per sample tested.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>s</I> = Surface area tested, in square inches.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>F</I> = Five, the ratio of the amount of extractives removed by heptane under exaggerated time-temperature test conditions compared to the amount extracted by a fat or oil under exaggerated conditions of thermal sterilization and use.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>e</I>′ = Chloroform-soluble extractives residue.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ee</I>′ = Corrected chloroform-soluble extractives residue.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>e′</I> or <I>ee′</I> is substituted for <I>e</I> in the above equations when necessary.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>If when calculated by the equations in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section, the extractives in milligrams per square inch exceeds the limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, proceed to paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section (method for determining the amount of chloroform-soluble extractives residues).
</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>Chloroform-soluble extractives residue.</I> Add 50 milliliters of chloroform (freshly distilled reagent grade or a grade having an established consistently low blank) to the dried and weighed residue, (<I>e</I>), in the evaporating dish obtained in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section. Warm carefully, and filter through Whatman No. 41 filter paper (or equivalent) in a Pyrex (or equivalent) funnel, collecting the filtrate in a clean, tared evaporating dish (platinum or Pyrex). Repeat the chloroform extraction, washing the filter paper with this second portion of chloroform. Add this filtrate to the original filtrate and evaporate the total down to a few milliliters on a low-temperature hotplate. The last few milliliters should be evaporated in an oven maintained at approximately 221 °F. Cool the evaporating dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh to the nearest 0.1 milligram to get the chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>′</I>). This <I>′</I> is substituted for <I>e</I> in the equations in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section. If the chloroform-soluble extractives in milligrams per square inch still exceeds the limitation prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, proceed to paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section (method for determining corrected chloroform-soluble extractives residue).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Corrected chloroform-soluble extractives residue</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Correction for zinc extractives.</I> Ash the residue in the evaporating dish by heating gently over a Meker-type burner to destroy organic matter and hold at red heat for about 1 minute. Cool in the air for 3 minutes, and place the evaporating dish in the desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh to the nearest 0.1 milligram. Analyze this ash for zinc by standard Association of Official Agricultural Chemists methods or equivalent. Calculate the zinc in the ash as zinc oleate, and subtract from the weight of chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>′</I>) to obtain the zinc-corrected chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>e′</I>). This <I>e′</I> is substituted for <I>e</I> in the equations in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Correction for wax, petrolatum, and mineral oil</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Apparatus.</I> Standard 10 millimeter inside diameter × 60 centimeter chromatographic column (or standard 50-milliliter buret with an inside diameter of 10-11 millimeters) with a stopcock of glass, perfluorocarbon resin, or equivalent material. The column (or buret) may be optionally equipped with an integral coarse, fritted glass disc and the top of the column (or buret) may be optionally fitted with a 100-millimeter solvent reservoir.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Preparation of column.</I> Place a snug pledget of fine glass wool in the bottom of the column (or buret) if the column (or buret) is not equipped with integral coarse, fritted glass disc. Overlay the glass wool pledget (or fritted glass disc) with a 15-20 millimeter deep layer of fine sand. Measure in a graduated cylinder 15 milliliters of chromatographic grade aluminum oxide (80-200 mesh) that has been tightly settled by tapping the cylinder. Transfer the aluminum oxide to the chromatographic tube, tapping the tube during and after the transfer so as to tightly settle the aluminum oxide. Overlay the layer of aluminum oxide with a 1.0-1.5 centimeter deep layer of anhydrous sodium sulfate and on top of this place an 8-10 millimeter thick plug of fine glass wool. Next carefully add about 25 milliliters of heptane to the column with stopcock open, and allow the heptane to pass through the column until the top level of the liquid just passes into the top glass wool plug in the column, and close stopcock.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Chromatographing of sample extract</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>For chloroform residues weighing 0.5 gram or less.</I> To the dried and weighed chloroform-soluble extract residue in the evaporating dish, obtained in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, add 20 milliliters of heptane and stir. If necessary, heat carefully to dissolve the residue. Additional heptane not to exceed a total volume of 50 milliliters may be used if necessary to complete dissolving. Cool to room temperature. (If solution becomes cloudy, use the procedure in paragraph (d)(5)(iii)(<I>b</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section to obtain an aliquot of heptane solution calculated to contain 0.1-0.5 gram of chloroform-soluble extract residue.) Transfer the clear liquid solution to the column (or buret). Rinse the dish with 10 millimeters of additional heptane and add to column. Allow the liquid to pass through the column into a clean, tared evaporating dish (platinum or Pyrex) at a dropwise rate of about 2 milliliters per minute until the liquid surface reaches the top glass wool plug; then close the stopcock temporarily. Rinse the Pyrex flask which contained the filtrate with an additional 10-15 milliliters of heptane and add to the column. Wash (elute) the column with more heptane collecting about 100 milliliters of total eluate including that already collected in the evaporating dish. Evaporate the combined eluate in the evaporating dish to dryness on a steam bath. Dry the residue for 15 minutes in an oven maintained at a temperature of approximately 221 °F. Cool the evaporating dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh the residue to the nearest 0.1 milligram. Subtract the weight of the residue from the weight of chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>′</I>) to obtain the wax-, petrolatum-, and mineral oil-corrected chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>e′</I>). This <I>e′</I> is substituted for <I>e</I> in the equations in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For chloroform residues weighing more than 0.5 gram. Redissolve the dried and weighed chloroform-soluble extract residue as described in paragraph (d)(5)(iii)(<I>b</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section using proportionately larger quantities of heptane. Transfer the heptane solution to an appropriate-sized volumetric flask (i.e., a 250-milliliter flask for about 2.5 grams of residue) and adjust to volume with additional heptane. Pipette out an aliquot (about 50 milliliters) calculated to contain 0.1-0.5 gram of the chloroform-soluble extract residue and analyze chromatographically as described in paragraph (d)(5)(iii)(<I>b</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section. In this case the weight of the dried residue from the heptane eluate must be multiplied by the dilution factor to obtain the weight of wax, petrolatum, and mineral oil residue to be subtracted from the weight of chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>′</I>) to obtain the wax-, petrolatum-, and mineral oil-corrected chloroform-soluble extractives residue (<I>e′</I>). This <I>e′</I> is substituted for <I>e</I> in the equations in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section. (Note: In the case of chloroform-soluble extracts which contain high melting waxes (melting point greater than 170 °F), it may be necessary to dilute the heptane solution further so that a 50-milliliter aliquot will contain only 0.1-0.2 gram of the chloroform-soluble extract residue.)
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter, except where the copolymers are restricted to use in contact with food only of the type identified in paragraph (c), table 1 under Category VIII.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14554, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 176.170, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.180" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.180   Components of paper and paperboard in contact with dry food.</HEAD>
<P>The substances listed in this section may be safely used as components of the uncoated or coated food-contact surface of paper and paperboard intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding dry food of the type identified in § 176.170(c), table 1, under Type VIII, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The substances are used in amounts not to exceed that required to accomplish their intended physical or technical effect, and are so used as to accomplish no effect in food other than that ordinarily accomplished by packaging.
</P>
<P>(b) The substances permitted to be used include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances that by § 176.170 and other applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter may be safely used as components of the uncoated or coated food-contact surface of paper and paperboard, subject to the provisions of such regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in the following list:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide polymer with sodium 2-acrylamido-2-methylpropane-sulfonate (CAS Reg. No. 38193-60-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at a level not to exceed 0.015 weight percent of dry fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2-Alkenyl) succinic anhydrides in which the alkenyl groups are derived from olefins which contain not less than 78 percent C<E T="52">30</E> and higher groups (CAS Reg. No. 70983-55-0).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-[2-[2-(2-Alkoxy(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>) ethoxy) ethoxy]ethyl]disodium sulfosuccinate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a polymerization emulsifier and latex emulsion stabilizer at levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of total emulsion solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl mono- and disulfonic acids, sodium salts (produced from <E T="03">n</E>-alkanes in the range of C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> with not less than 50 percent C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum and calcium salts of FD &amp; C dyes on a substrate of alumina</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colorant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium nitrate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amylose.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium metaborate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative in coatings and sizings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Benzisothiazolin-3-one (CAS Registry No. 2634-33-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative in paper coating compositions and limited to use at a level not to exceed 0.02 mg/in
<sup>2</sup> (0.0031 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup>) of finished paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′</E>-Bis(hydroxyethyl)lauramide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(trichloromethyl) sulfone C.A. Registry No. 3064-70-8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a preservative in coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Borax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative in coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-di-(C<E T="52">9</E>-C<E T="52">11</E> alkyl) ester, ammonium salt (also known as butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-diisodecyl ester, ammonium salt [CAS Reg. No. 144093-88-9]).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a surface active agent in package coating inks at levels not to exceed 3 percent by weight of the coating ink.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">sec</E>-Butyl alcohol.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Candelilla wax.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon tetrachloride.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, polyoxyethylated (42 moles ethylene oxide).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cationic soy protein hydrolyzed (hydrolyzed soy protein isolate modified by treatment with 3-chloro-2-hydroxypropyl-trimethylammonium chloride)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a coating adhesive, pigment structuring agent, and fiber retention aid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cationic soy protein (soy protein isolate modified by treatment with 3-chloro-2-hydroxypropyltrimethyl-ammonium chloride)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a coating adhesive, pigment structuring agent, and fiber retention aid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloral hydrate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polymerization reaction-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>Cyclohexyl-<E T="03">p-</E>toluene sulfonamide.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,5-Di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl hydroquinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethanolamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol dibenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 120-55-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a plasticizer in polymeric substances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylenetriamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N-</E>Diisopropanolamide of tallow fatty acids.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-[(dimethylamino)methyl]acrylamide polymer with acrylamide and styrene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N-</E>Dioleoylethylenediamine, <E T="03">N,N-</E>dilinoeoyl-ethylenediamine, and N-oleoyl-N-linoleoyl-ethylenediamine mixture produced when tall oil fatty acids are made to react with ethylenediamine such that the finished mixture has a melting point of 212°-228 °F, as determined by ASTM method D127-60, and an acid value of 10 maximum. ASTM Method D127-60 “Standard Method of Test for Melting Point of Petrolatum and Microcrystalline Wax” (Revised 1960) is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from University Microfilms International, 300 N. Zeeb Rd., Ann Arbor, MI 48106, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenylamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol dibenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 27138-31-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as plasticizer in polymeric substances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium <E T="03">N-</E>octadecylsulfosuccinamate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">tert-</E>Dodecyl thioether of polyethylene glycol.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erucamide (erucylamide).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanedial, polymer with tetrahydro-4-hydroxy-5-methyl-2(1<E T="03">H</E>)pyrimidinone, propoxylated.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fumigant in sizing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene oxide adduct of mono-(2-ethylhexyl) <E T="03">o-</E>phosphate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acid (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) diethanolamide.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fish oil fatty acids, hydrogenated, potassium salt.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monocaprate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl tribenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 614-33-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a plasticizer in polymeric coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyoxal.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyoxal-urea-formaldehyde condensate (CAS Reg. No. 27013-01-0) formed by reaction in the molar ratio of approximately 47:33:15, respectively. The reaction product has a number average molecular weight of 278±14 as determined by a suitable method</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an insolubilizer for starch in coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyoxal-urea polymer (CAS Reg. No. 53037-34-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an insolubilizer for starch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polymerization crosslinking agent for protein, including casein. As neutralizing agent with myristochromic chloride complex and stearato-chromic chloride complex.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexylene glycol (2-methyl-2,4-pentanediol).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroabietyl alcohol.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-Hydroxymethoxymethyl-1-aza-3,7-dioxabicyclo[3.3.0] octane, 5-hydroxymethyl-1-aza-3,7-dioxabicyclo[3.3.0]octane, and 5-hydroxypoly-[methyleneoxy]methyl-1-aza-3,7-dioxabicyclo[3.3.0] octane mixture</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antibacterial preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Imidazolium compounds, 2-(C<E T="52">17</E> and C<E T="52">17</E>-unsaturated alkyl)-1-[2-(C<E T="52">18</E> and C<E T="52">18</E>-unsaturated amido)ethyl]-4,5-dihydro-1-methyl, methyl sulfates (CAS Reg. No. 72749-55-4).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the dry paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropanolamine hydrochloride.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl <E T="03">m-</E> and <E T="03">p-</E>cresol (thymol derived).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Itaconic acid.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride-diisobutylene copolymer, ammonium or sodium salt.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melamine-formaldehyde modified with:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Alcohols (ethyl, butyl, isobutyl, propyl, or isopropyl).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diethylenetriamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Imino-bis-butylamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Imino-bis-ethyleneimine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Imino-bis-propylamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Polyamines made by reacting ethylenediamine or trimethylenediamine with dichloroethane or dichloropropane.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Sulfanilic acid.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Tetraethylenepentamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Triethylenetetramine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl alcohol.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ethers of mono-, di-, and tripropylene glycol.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylated poly(<E T="03">N</E>-1,2-dihydroxyethylene-1,3-imidazolidin-2-one)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an in solubilizer for starch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Modified polyacrylamide resulting from an epichlorohydrin addition to a condensate of formaldehyde-dicyandiamide-diethylene triamine and which product is then reacted with polyacrylamide and urea to produce a resin having a nitrogen content of 5.6 to 6.3 percent and having a minimum viscosity in 56 percent-by-weight aqueous solution of 200 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by LVT-series Brookfield viscometer using a No. 4 spindle at 60 r.p.m. (or equivalent method)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a dry strength and pigment retention aid agent employed prior to the sheetforming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard and used at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of dry fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mono- and di(2-alkenyl)succinyl esters of polyethylene glycol containing not less than 90 percent of the diester product and in which the alkenyl groups are derived from olefins that contain not less than 95 percent of C<E T="52">15</E>-C<E T="52">21</E> groups</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monoglyceride citrate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Myristo chromic chloride complex.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β-Nitrostyrene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octadecanoic acid, reaction products with 2-[(2-aminoethyl)amino]ethanol and urea (CAS Reg. No. 68412-14-6), and the acetate salts thereof (CAS Reg. No. 68784-21-4), which may be emulsified with ethoxylated tallow alkyl amines (CAS Reg. No. 61791-26-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use prior to sheet forming at levels not to exceed 12 pounds per ton of paper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-<E T="03">cis</E>-9-Octadecenyl-<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene); the octadecenyl group is derived from oleyl alcohol and the poly(oxyethylene) content averages not less than 20 moles.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p-</E>Nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) sulfate, ammonium salt; the nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer and the poly (oxyethylene) content averages 9 or 30 moles.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid reacted with <E T="03">N-</E>alkyl-(C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) trimethylenediamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxidized soy isolate having 50 to 70 percent of its cystine residues oxidized to cysteic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a binder adhesive component of coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins, or the hydrogenated product thereof, complying with the identity prescribed in § 176.170(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as modifiers at levels up to 30 weight-percent of the solids content of wax-polymer blend coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum hydrocarbon resins (produced by the catalytic polymerization and subsequent hydrogenation of styrene, vinyltoluene, and indene types from distillates of cracked petroleum stocks).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum hydrocarbons, light and odorless.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">o</E>-Phthalic acid modified hydrolyzed soy protein isolate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine oil.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(2-aminoethyl acrylate nitrate<E T="03">-co-</E>2-hydroxypropyl acrylate) complying with the identity described in § 176.170(a).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide-epichloro hydrin modified resins resulting from the reaction of the initial caprolactam-itaconic acid product with diethylenetriamine and then condensing this prepolymer with epichlorohydrin to form a cationic resin having a nitrogen content of 11-15 percent and chlorine level of 20-23 percent on a dry basis.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide-ethyleneimine-epichlorohydrin resin is prepared by reacting equimolar amounts of adipic acid and three amines (21 mole percent of 1,2-ethanediamine, 51 mole percent of N-(2-aminoethyl)-1,3-propanediamine, and 28 mole percent of N, N′-1,2-ethanediylbis(1,3-propanediamine)) to form a basic polyamidoamine which is modified by reaction with ethyleneimine (5.5:1.0 ethyleneimine:polyamidoamine). The modified polyamidoamine is reacted with a crosslinking agent made by condensing approximately 34 ethylene glycol units with (chloromethyl)oxirane, followed by pH adjustment with formic acid or sulfuric acid to provide a finished product as a formate (CAS Reg. No. 114133-44-7) or a sulfate (CAS Reg. No. 167678-43-5), having a weight-average molecular weight of 1,300,000 and a number-average molecular weight of 16,000.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide-ethyleneimine-epichlorohydrin resin (CAS Reg. No. 115340-77-7), prepared by reacting equimolar amounts of adipic acid and <E T="03">N</E>-(2-aminoethyl)-1,2-ethanediamine to form a basic polyamidoamine which is modified by reaction with ethyleneimine, and further reacted with formic acid and (chloromethyl)oxirane-α-hydro-omega-hydroxypoly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740(b) of this chapter.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly [2-(diethylamino) ethyl methacrylate] phosphate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (200) dilaurate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol monoisotridecyl ether sulfate, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 150413-26-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surfactant at levels not to exceed 3 percent in latex formulations used in pigment binders for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymers: Homopolymers and copolymers of the following monomers:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Acrylamide.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Acrylic acid and its methyl, ethyl, butyl, propyl, or octyl esters.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Acrylonitrile.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Butadiene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Crotonic acid.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Cyclol acrylate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Decyl acrylate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diallyl fumarate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diallyl maleate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diallyl phthalate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Dibutyl fumarate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Dibutyl itaconate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Dibutyl maleate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Di(2-ethylhexyl) maleate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Dioctyl fumarate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Dioctyl maleate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Divinylbenzene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Ethylene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 2-Ethylhexyl acrylate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Fumaric acid.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Glycidyl methacrylate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 2-Hydroxyethyl acrylate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> <E T="03">N</E>-(Hydroxymethyl) acrylamide.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Isobutyl acrylate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Isobutylene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Isoprene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Itaconic acid.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Maleic anhydride and its methyl or butyl esters.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Methacrylic acid and its methyl, ethyl, butyl, or propyl esters.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Methylstyrene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Mono(2-ethylhexyl) maleate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Monoethyl maleate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 5-Norbornene-2,3-dicarboxylic acid, mono<E T="03">-n-</E>butyl ester.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Styrene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl acetate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl butyrate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl chloride.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl crotonate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl hexoate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinylidene chloride.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl pelargonate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl propionate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl pyrrolidone.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl stearate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Vinyl sulfonic acid.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymer prepared from urea, ethanedial, formaldehyde, and propionaldehyde (CAS Reg. No. 106569-82-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a starch and protein reactant in paper and paperboard coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (minimum 12 moles) ester of tall oil (30%-40% rosin acids).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene glycol (minimum molecular weight 1,900).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl alcohol.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium titanate fibers produced by calcining titanium dioxide, potassium chloride, and potassium carbonate, such that the finished crystalline fibers have a nominal diameter of 0.20-0.25 micron, a length-to-diameter ratio of approximately 25:1 or greater, and consist principally of K<E T="52">2</E>Ti<E T="52">4</E>O<E T="52">9</E> and K<E T="52">2</E>Ti <E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">13</E>.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium diisobutylphenoxy diethoxyethyl sulfonate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium diisobutylphenoxy monoethoxy ethylsulfonate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">n-</E>dodecylpolyethoxy (50 moles) sulfate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium isododecylphenoxypolyethoxy (40 moles) sulfate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">N-</E>methyl-<E T="03">N-</E>oleyl taurate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium methyl siliconate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrite.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polyacrylate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium bis-tridecylsulfosuccinate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium xylene sulfonate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearato chromic chloride complex.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-allyl alcohol copolymers.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-methacrylic acid copolymer, potassium salt.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetraethylenepentamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polymerization cross-linking agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-[<E T="03">p-</E>(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl)phenyl]-<E T="03">omega</E> hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters and their sodium, potassium, and ammonium salts having a poly(oxyethylene) content averaging 6-9 or 40 moles.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-[<E T="03">p-</E>(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl)phenyl or <E T="03">p-</E>nonylphenyl]<E T="03">-omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) where nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium <E T="03">N-</E>(1,2-dicarboxyethyl)-<E T="03">N-</E>octadecyl sulfosuccinamate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polymerization cross-linking agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylenetetramine monoacetate, partially stearoylated.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urea-formaldehyde chemically modified with:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Alcohol (methyl, ethyl, butyl, isobutyl, propyl, or isopropyl).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Aminomethylsulfonic acid.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diaminobutane.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diaminopropane.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diethylenetriamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> <E T="03">N,N′-</E>Dioleoylethylenediamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Diphenylamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> <E T="03">N,N′-</E>Distearoylethylenediamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Ethylenediamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Guanidine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Imino-bis-butylamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Imino-bis-ethylamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Imino-bis-propylamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> <E T="03">N-</E>Oleoyl-<E T="03">N′-</E>stearoylethylenediamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Polyamines made by reacting ethylenediamine or triethylenediamine with dichloroethane or dichloropropane.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Tetraethylenepentamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> Triethylenetetramine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc stearate.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14554, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 176.180, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.200" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.200   Defoaming agents used in coatings.</HEAD>
<P>The defoaming agents described in this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The defoaming agents are prepared as mixtures of substances described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any substance employed in the formulation of defoaming agents does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect in the defoaming agents or any limitation further provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of defoaming agents and which is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances employed in the formulation of defoaming agents include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances subject to prior sanction or approval for use in defoaming agents and used in accordance with such sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances identified in this paragraph (d)(3) and subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">tert-Butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cetyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monolaurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimers and trimers of unsaturated C<E T="52">18</E> fatty acids derived from:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.1% by weight of total coating solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Animal and vegetable fats and oils.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tall oil.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylpolysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(Dinonylphenyl)-ω-hydroxy-poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), containing 7 to 24 moles of ethylene oxide per mole of dinonylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 9014-93-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in defoaming agents for the production of styrene-butadiene coatings at a level not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of the finished coating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and oils derived from animal, marine, or vegetable sources:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fatty acids derived from animal, marine, or vegetable fats and oils, and salts of such acids, single or mixed, as follows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Aluminum.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Ammonium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Calcium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Magnesium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Potassium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Sodium.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Zinc.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative of defoamer only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl mono-12-hydroxystearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexylene glycol (2-methyl-2,4-pentanediol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kerosene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lecithin hydroxylated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylcellulose
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl esters of fatty acids derived from animal, marine, or vegetable fats and oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl oleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl palmitate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustardseed oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Myristyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β-Naphthol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative of defoamer only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonylphenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As defined in § 178.3650 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parachlorometacresol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative of defoamer only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peanut oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolatum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyacrylic acid, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a stabilizer and thickener in defoaming agents containing dimethylpolysiloxane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene, oxidized
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (200) dilaurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) dioleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) dioleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) esters of coconut oil fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monoricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxybutylene-polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene glycol (min. mol. wt. 3,700)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylated (min. 3 mols) cetyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylated (min. 5 mols) oleyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylated (min. 1.5 mols) tridecyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (min. 15 mols) ester of rosin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (min. 8 mols) monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene (40) stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylated (min. 20 mols) butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene glycol (min. mol. wt. 200)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene (min. 20 mols) oleate butyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene glycol (min. mol. wt. 1,900)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene (min. 40 mols) stearate butyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative of defoamer only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium trichlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol monoester of soybean oil fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol monoester of tallow fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ricebran oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosins and rosin derivatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As provided in § 178.3870 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2-mercaptobenzothiazole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative of defoamer only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium trichlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sperm oil, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tall oil fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow fatty acids, hydrogenated or sulfated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow, sulfated, ammonium, potassium, or sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triisopropanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waxes, petroleum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) The defoaming agents are used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of defoaming agent or agents used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect, which is to prevent or control the formation of foam.
</P>
<P>(2) The defoaming agents are used in the preparation and application of coatings for paper and paperboard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14554, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 62 FR 39772, July 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.210   Defoaming agents used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.</HEAD>
<P>Defoaming agents may be safely used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard intended for use in packaging, transporting, or holding food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The defoaming agents are prepared from one or more of the substances named in paragraph (d) of this section, subject to any prescribed limitations. 
</P>
<P>(b) The defoaming agents are used to prevent or control the formation of foam during the manufacture of paper and paperboard prior to and during the sheet-forming process.
</P>
<P>(c) The quantity of defoaming agent or agents added during the manufacturing process shall not exceed the amount necessary to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances permitted to be used in the formulation of defoaming agents include substances subject to prior sanctions or approval for such use and employed subject to the conditions of such sanctions or approvals, substances generally recognized as safe for use in food, substances generally recognized as safe for use in paper and paperboard, and substances listed in this paragraph, subject to the limitations, if any, prescribed.
</P>
<P>(1) Fatty triglycerides, and the fatty acids, alcohols, and dimers derived therefrom:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Beef tallow.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Castor oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coconut oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corn oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cottonseed oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fish oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lard oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linseed oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mustardseed oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Palm oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peanut oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rapeseed oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ricebran oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soybean oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sperm oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tall oil.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Fatty triglycerides, and marine oils, and the fatty acids and alcohols derived therefrom (paragraph (d)(1) of this section) reacted with one or more of the following, with or without dehydration, to form chemicals of the category indicated in parentheses:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum hydroxide (soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonia (amides).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butanol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butoxy-polyoxypropylene, molecular weight 1,000-2,500 (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylene glycol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium hydroxide (soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethanolamine (amides).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylene glycol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene oxide (esters and ethers).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerin (mono- and diglycerides).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogen (hydrogenated compounds).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogen (amines).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutanol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropanol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium hydroxide (soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methanol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Morpholine (soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxygen (air-blown oils).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene, molecular weights 200, 300, 400, 600, 700, 1,000, 1,540, 1,580, 1,760, 4,600 (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxypropylene, molecular weight 200-2,000 (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium hydroxide (soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propanol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene oxide (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium hydroxide (soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfuric acid (sulfated and sulfonated compounds).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethanolamine (amides and soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triisopropanolamine (amides and soaps).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylolethane (esters).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc hydroxide (soaps).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Miscellaneous:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohols and ketone alcohols mixture (still-bottom product from C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> alcohol manufacturing process).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butoxy polyethylene polypropylene glycol molecular weight 900-4,200.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butoxy-polyoxypropylene molecular weight 1,000-2,500.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylated hydroxyanisole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylated hydroxytoluene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium lignin sulfonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capryl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Chlorometacresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diacetyltartaric acid ester of tallow mono-glyceride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dibromo-2,4-dicyanobutane (CAS Reg. No. 35691-65-7), for use as a preservative at a level not to exceed 0.05 weight-percent of the defoaming agent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylene triamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di-(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Dimethyl heptanol-4 (nonyl alcohol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethylpolysiloxane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di-<I>tert-</I>butyl hydroquinone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dodecylbenzene sulfonic acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylhexanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid tetrasodium salt.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heavy oxo-fraction (a still-bottom product of iso-octyl alcohol manufacture, of approximate composition: Octyl alcohol 5 percent nonyl alcohol 10 percent, decyl and higher alcohols 35 percent, esters 45 percent, and soaps 5 percent).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Heptadecenyl-4-methyl-4-hydroxymethyl-2-oxazoline. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylene glycol (2-methyl-2-4-pentanediol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>12-Hydroxystearic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropylamine salt of dodecylbenzene sulfonic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kerosine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lanolin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl 12-hydroxystearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl taurine-oleic acid condensate, molecular weight 486.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>a,a′</I>-[Methylenebis[4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbu-tyl)-<I>o</I>-phenylene]]<I>bis</I>[<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene)] having 6-7.5 moles of ethylene oxide per hydroxyl group.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mineral oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono-, di-, and triisopropanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono- and diisopropanolamine stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monobutyl ether of ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monoethanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Morpholine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myristyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Naphtha.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>β-Naphthol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oleyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petrolatum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-</I>Phenylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pine oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740(b) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene, oxidized (air-blown).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polymer derived from <I>N</I>-vinyl pyrrolidone and copolymers derived from the mixed alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>, C<E T="52">16</E>, C<E T="52">18</E>, C<E T="52">20</E>, and C<E T="52">22</E>) methacrylate esters, butyl methacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 97-88-1), isobutyl methacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 97-86-9) and methyl methacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 80-62-6); the combined polymer contains no more than 5 weight percent of polymer units derived from <I>N</I>-vinyl pyrrolidone and is present at a level not to exceed 7 parts per million by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene (4 mols) decyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene (4 mols) di(2-ethyl hexanoate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene (15 mols) ester of rosin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene (3-15 mols) tridecyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxypropylene, molecular weight 200-2,000.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxypropylene-polyoxethylene condensate, minimum molecular weight 950.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxypropylene-ethylene oxide condensate of ethylene diamine, molecular weight 1,700-3,800.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl pyrrolidone, molecular weight 40,000.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium distearyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium pentachlorophenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium trichlorophenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rosins and rosin derivatives identified in § 175.105(c)(5) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silica.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Siloxanes and silicones, dimethyl, methylhydrogen, reaction products with polyethylene-polypropylene glycol monoallyl ether (CAS Reg. No. 71965-38-3).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium alkyl (C<E T="52">9</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>) benzene-sulfonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium distearyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium lauryl sulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium lignin sulfonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium 2-mercaptobenzothiazole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium naphthalenesulfonic acid (3 mols) condensed with formaldehyde (2 mols).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium orthophenylphenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium pentachlorophenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium petroleum sulfonate, molecular weight 440-450.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium trichlorophenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-[<I>p-</I>(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl) phenyl-, <I>p-</I>nonylphenyl-, or <I>p-</I>dodecylphenyl]-<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <I>p-</I>alkylphenol (alkyl group is 1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl, a propylene trimer isomer, or a propylene tetramer isomer) with an average of 1.5-15 moles of ethylene oxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrahydrofurfuryl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tributoxyethyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tributyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tridecyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylene glycol di(2-ethyl hexanoate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tri-(2-ethylhexyl) phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tristearyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wax, petroleum, Type I and Type II.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wax, petroleum (oxidized).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wax (montan).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14554, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 17986, Apr. 27, 1982; 47 FR 46495, Oct. 19, 1982; 47 FR 56845, Dec. 21, 1982; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989; 57 FR 31313, July 15, 1992; 61 FR 14246, Apr. 1, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.230" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.230   3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5,2<E T="7462">H</E>-tetrahydrothiadiazine-2-thione.</HEAD>
<P>3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5,2<I>H-</I>tetrahydrothi-adiazine-2-thione may safely be used as a preservative in the manufacture and coating of paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In the manufacture of paper and paperboard as a preservative for substances added to the pulp suspension prior to the sheet-forming operation provided that the preservative is volatilized by heat in the drying and finishing of the paper and paperboard. 
</P>
<P>(2) As a preservative for coatings for paper and paperboard, <I>Provided,</I> That the preservative is volatilized by heat in the drying and finishing of the coated paper or paperboard.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity used shall not exceed the least amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect and shall not be intended to nor, in fact, accomplish any physical or technical effect in the food itself.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of a preservative in any substance or article subject to any regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter must comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the substance or article.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.250   Poly-1,4,7,10,13-pentaaza-15-hydroxyhexadecane.</HEAD>
<P>Poly-1,4,7,10,13-pentaaza-15-hydrox-yhexadecane may be safely used as a retention aid employed prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard intended for use in contact with food in an amount not to exceed that necessary to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect and not to exceed 6 pounds per ton of finished paper or paperboard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.260" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.260   Pulp from reclaimed fiber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pulp from reclaimed fiber may be safely used as a component of articles used in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Pulp from reclaimed fiber is prepared from the paper and paperboard products described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, by repulping with water to recover the fiber with the least possible amount of nonfibrous substances.
</P>
<P>(1) Industrial waste from the manufacture of paper and paperboard products excluding that which bears or contains any poisonous or deleterious substance which is retained in the recovered pulp and that migrates to the food, except as provided in regulations promulgated under sections 406 and 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Salvage from used paper and paperboard excluding that which (i) bears or contains any poisonous or deleterious substance which is retained in the recovered pulp and that migrates to the food, except as provided in regulations promulgated under sections 406 and 409 of the act or (ii) has been used for shipping or handling any such substance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.300" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.300   Slimicides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Slimicides may be safely used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard that contact food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Slimicides are used as antimicrobial agents to control slime in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to any prescribed limitations, slimicides are prepared from one or more of the slime-control substances named in paragraph (c) of this section to which may be added optional adjuvant substances as provided for under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Slimicides are added to the process water used in the production of paper or paperboard, and the quantity added shall not exceed the amount necessary to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(b) To insure safe usage, the label or labeling of slimicides shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<P>(c) Slime-control substances permitted for use in the preparation of slimicides include substances subject to prior sanction or approval for such use and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrolein
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkenyl (C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) dimethylethyl-ammonium bromide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) dimethyl benzyl ammonium chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Benzisothiazolin-3-one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a level of 0.06 pound per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(1,4-bromoacetoxy)-2-butene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,5-Bis(bromoacetoxymethyl) <E T="03">m-</E>dioxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Bis(dimethylaminomethyl) cyclohexanone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Bis(monobromoacetoxy) ethane [CA Reg. No. 3785-34-0]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.10 pound per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(trichloromethyl)sulfone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Bromoacetoxymethyl-<E T="03">m-</E>dioxolane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Bromo-4′-hydroxyacetophenone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Bromo-2-nitropropane-1,3-diol (CAS Reg. No. 52-51-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.6 pound per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β-Bromo-β-nitrostyrene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 1 pound per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroethylenebisthiocyanate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-Chloro-2 - methyl - 4 - isothiazolin-3-one calcium chloride and 2-methyl-4-isothiazolin-3-one calcium chloride mixture at a ratio of 3 parts to 1 part</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a level of 2.5 pounds per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated levulinic acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloromethyl butanethiolsulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cupric nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Dialkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) benzylmethylammonium chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromo-2,4-dicyanobutane (CAS Reg. No. 35691-65-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.005% of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2-Dibromo-3-nitrilopropionamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.1 lb/ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,3-Dibromopropionaldehyde
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,5-dichloro-1, 2-dithiol-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 1192-52-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 10 milligrams per kilogram in the pulp slurry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Dihalo-5,5-dimethylhydantoin (where the dihalo (halogen) may be bromine and/or chlorine) that may contain no more than 20 weight percent 1,3-dihalo-5-ethyl-5-methylhydantoin (where the dihalo (halogen) may be bromine and/or chlorine).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 1.0 kilogram (kg) per 1,000 kg of dry weight fiber. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-(Diiodomethylsulfonyl) toluene (CAS Reg. No. 20018-09-1).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.2 pound per ton (100 grams/1,000 kilograms) of dry weight fiber. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,5-Dimethyl 1,3,5,2<E T="03">H-</E>tetrahydrothiadiazine-2-thione
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipotassium and disodium ethylenebis(dithiocarba-mate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium cyanodithioimidocarbonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Dodecylguanidine hydrochloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.20 pound per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glutaraldehyde (CAS Reg. No. 111-30-8)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(<E T="03">p</E>-hydroxyphenyl) glyoxylohydroximoyl chloride (CAS Registry No. 34911-46-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a level of 0.02 pound per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Hydroxypropyl methanethiol sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Mercaptobenzothiazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylenebisbutanethiolsulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylenebisthiocyanate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Nitrobutyl bromoacetate [CA Reg. No. 32815-96-6]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.15 pound per ton of dry weight fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-[α-(Nitroethyl)benzyl] ethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium 2-mercaptobenzothiazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium <E T="03">N-</E>hydroxymethyl-<E T="03">N-</E>methyldithiocarba-mate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium <E T="03">N-</E>methyldithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium pentachlorophenate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium trichlorophenate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver fluoride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limit of addition to process water not to exceed 0.024 pound, calculated as silver fluoride, per ton of paper produced.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver nitrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2-mercaptobenzothiazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium pentachlorophenate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium trichlorophenate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3,6,8-Tetraazatricyclo[6.2.1.13,6] dodecane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,3,4,4-Tetrachlorotetrahydrothiophene-1,1-dioxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrakis(hydroxymethyl)phosphonium sulfate (CAS Reg. No. 55566-30-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum use level of 84 mg/kg in the pulp slurry. The additive may also be added to water, which when introduced into the pulp slurry, results in a concentration in the pulp slurry not to exceed 84 mg/kg.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(Thiocyanomethylthio) benzothiazole
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinylene bisthiocyanate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Adjuvant substances permitted to be used in the preparation of slimicides include substances generally recognized as safe for use in food, substances generally recognized as safe for use in paper and paperboard, substances permitted to be used in paper and paperboard by other regulations in this chapter, and the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butlylene oxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N-</I>Dimethylformamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>methyl-2-pyrrolidone (CAS Reg. No. 872-50-4).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>a,a′-</I>[Methylenebis[4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-<I>o-</I>phenylene]] <I>bis</I>[<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene)] having 6-7.5 moles of ethylene oxide per hydroxyl group.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monomethyl ethers of mono-, di-, and tripropylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonylphenol reaction product with 9 to 12 molecules of ethylene oxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octylphenol reaction product with 25 molecules of propylene oxide and 40 molecules of ethylene oxide.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14554, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 41854, Aug. 19, 1977; 44 FR 75627, Dec. 21, 1979; 46 FR 36129, July 14, 1981; 49 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984; 51 FR 19059, May 27, 1986; 51 FR 43734, Dec. 4, 1986; 54 FR 18103, Apr. 27, 1989; 55 FR 31825, Aug. 6, 1990; 64 FR 46130, Aug. 24, 1999; 64 FR 69900, Dec. 15, 1999; 65 FR 40497, June 30, 2000; 65 FR 70790, Nov. 28, 2000; 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.320" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.320   Sodium nitrate-urea complex.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium nitrate-urea complex may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Sodium nitrate-urea complex is a clathrate of approximately two parts urea and one part sodium nitrate.
</P>
<P>(b) Sodium nitrate-urea complex conforming to the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is used as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Limitations.</I> (i) It is used as a plasticizer in glassine and greaseproof paper.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount used does not exceed that required to accomplish its intended technical effect or exceed 15 percent by weight of the finished paper.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The glassine and greaseproof papers are used for packaging dry food or as the food-contact surface for dry food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 176.350" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.7.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 176.350   Tamarind seed kernel powder.</HEAD>
<P>Tamarind seed kernel powder may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Tamarind seed kernel powder is the ground kernel of tamarind seed (<I>Tamarindus indica</I> L.) after removal of the seed coat.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="177" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 177—INDIRECT FOOD ADDITIVES: POLYMERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 177 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 70 FR 72074, Dec. 1, 2005; and 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Substances for Use as Basic Components of Single and Repeated Use Food Contact Surfaces</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1010" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1010   Acrylic and modified acrylic plastics, semirigid and rigid.</HEAD>
<P>Semirigid and rigid acrylic and modified acrylic plastics may be safely used as articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions. The acrylic and modified acrylic polymers or plastics described in this section also may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(a) The optional substances that may be used in the formulation of the semirigid and rigid acrylic and modified acrylic plastics, or in the formulation of acrylic and modified acrylic components of articles, include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, substances permitted for use in such plastics by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, and substances identified in this paragraph. At least 50 weight-percent of the polymer content of the acrylic and modified acrylic materials used as finished articles or as components of articles shall consist of polymer units derived from one or more of the acrylic or methacrylic monomers listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Homopolymers and copolymers of the following monomers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>n-</I>Butyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n-</I>Butyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylhexyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl methacrylate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Copolymers produced by copolymerizing one or more of the monomers listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section with one or more of the following monomers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylonitrile.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacrylonitrile.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Methylstyrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinylidene chloride.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Polymers identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section containing no more than 5 weight-percent of total polymer units derived by copolymerization with one or more of the monomers listed in paragraph (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section. Monomers listed in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section are limited to use only in plastic articles intended for repeated use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(i) List of minor monomers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acrylic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Butylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Butylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diproplylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Divinylbenzene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Itaconic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacrylic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>Methylolacrylamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>Methylolmethacrylamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Methyl-1,4-pentanediol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trivinylbenzene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) List of minor monomers limited to use only in plastic articles intended for repeated use in contact with food:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Allyl methacrylate [Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 96-05-9]
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>tert-</I>Butyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>tert-</I>Butylaminoethyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>sec-</I>Butyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>tert-</I>Butyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclohexyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethylaminoethyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethylhexyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyethyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxyethyl vinyl sulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxypropyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobornyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacrylamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacrylamidoethylene urea.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacryloxyacetamidoethylethylene urea.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacryloxyacetic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n-</I>Propyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,5,5-Trimethylcyclohexyl methacrylate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Polymers identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section are mixed together and/or with the following polymers, provided that no chemical reactions, other than addition reactions, occur when they are mixed:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile-styrene copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile-styrene-methyl methacrylic copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-styrene copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl rubber.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Natural rubber.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poly (3-chloro-1,3-butadiene).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyester identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate copolymers.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) Antioxidants and stabilizers identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(xxx) of this chapter and the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Di-<I>tert-</I>butyl-<I>p-</I>cresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Hydroxy-4-methoxybenzophenone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Hydroxy-4-methoxy-2-carboxybenzophenone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Hydroxyphenyl benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Methoxyphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octadecyl 3,5-di-<I>tert</I>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate (CAS Reg. No. 2082-79-3): For use only: (1) At levels not exceeding 0.2 percent by weight in semirigid and rigid acrylic and modified acrylic plastics, where the finished articles contact foods containing not more than 15 percent alcohol; and (2) at levels not exceeding 0.01 percent by weight in semirigid and rigid acrylic and modified acrylic plastics intended for repeated food-contact use where the finished article may be used for foods containing more than 15 percent alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl salicylate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) Release agents: Fatty acids derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils, and fatty alcohols derived from such acids.
</P>
<P>(7) Surface active agent: Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(8) Miscellaneous materials:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate, for use only as a flow promoter at a level not to exceed 3 weight-percent based on the monomers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxalic acid, for use only as a polymerization catalyst aid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetraethylenepentamine, for use only as a catalyst activator at a level not to exceed 0.5 weight-percent based on the monomers. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toluene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Xylene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The semirigid and rigid acrylic and modified acrylic plastics, in the finished form in which they are to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall yield extractives not to exceed the following, when tested by the methods prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. The acrylic and modified acrylic polymers or plastics intended to be used as components of articles also shall yield extractives not to exceed the following limitations when prepared as strips as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.3 milligram per square inch of surface tested.
</P>
<P>(2) Potassium permanganate oxidizable distilled water and 8 and 50 percent alcohol extractives not to exceed an absorbance of 0.15.
</P>
<P>(3) Ultraviolet-absorbing distilled water and 8 and 50 percent alcohol extractives not to exceed an absorbance of 0.30.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet-absorbing <I>n-</I>heptane extractives not to exceed an absorbance of 0.10.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Analytical methods</I>—(1) <I>Selection of extractability conditions.</I> These are to be chosen as provided in § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preparation of samples.</I> Sufficient samples to allow duplicates of all applicable tests shall be cut from the articles or formed from the plastic composition under tests, as strips about 2.5 inches by about 0.85-inch wide by about 0.125-inch thick. The total exposed surface should be 5 square inches ±0.5-square inch. The samples, after preparation, shall be washed with a clean brush under hot tapwater, rinsed under running hot tapwater (140 °F minimum), rinsed with distilled water, and air-dried in a dust-free area or in a desiccator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preparation of solvents.</I> The water used shall be double-distilled water, prepared in a still using a block tin condenser. The 8 and 50 percent (by volume) alcohol solvents shall be prepared from ethyl alcohol meeting the specifications of the United States Pharmacopeia XX and diluted with double-distilled water that has been prepared in a still using a tin block condenser. The <I>n</I>-heptane shall be spectrophotometric grade. Adequate precautions must be taken to keep all solvents dust-free.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Blank values on solvents.</I> (i) Duplicate determinations of residual solids shall be run on samples of each solvent that have been exposed to the temperature-time conditions of the extraction test without the plastic sample. Sixty milliliters of exposed solvent is pipetted into a clean, weighed platinum dish, evaporated to 2-5 milliliters on a nonsparking, low-temperature hot plate and dried in 212 °F oven for 30 minutes. The residue for each solvent shall be determined by weight and the average residue weight used as the blank value in the total solids determination set out in paragraph (c)(6) of this section. The residue for an acceptable solvent sample shall not exceed 0.5 milligram per 60 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(ii) For acceptability in the ultraviolet absorbers test, a sample of each solvent shall be scanned in an ultraviolet spectrophotometer in 5-centimeter silica spectrophotometric absorption cells. The absorbance of the distilled water when measured versus air in the reference cell shall not exceed 0.03 at any point in the wavelength region of 245 to 310 mµ. The absorbance of the 8 percent alcohol when measured versus distilled water in the reference cell shall not exceed 0.01 at any point in the wavelength region of 245 to 310 mµ. The absorbance of the 50 percent alcohol when measured versus distilled water in the reference cell shall not exceed 0.05 at any point in the wavelength region of 245 to 310 mµ. The absorbance of the heptane when measured versus distilled water in the reference cell shall not exceed 0.15 at 245, 0.09 at 260, 0.04 at 270, and 0.02 at any point in the wavelength region of 280 to 310 mµ.
</P>
<P>(iii) Duplicate ultraviolet blank determinations shall be run on samples of each solvent that has been exposed to the temperature-time conditions of the extraction test without the plastic sample. An aliquot of the exposed solvent shall be measured versus the unexposed solvent in the reference cell. The average difference in the absorbances at any wavelength in the region of 245 to 310 mµ shall be used as a blank correction for the ultraviolet absorbers measured at the same wavelength according to paragraph (c)(8)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The acceptability of the solvents for use in the permanganate test shall be determined by preparing duplicate permanganate test blanks according to paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section. For this test, the directions referring to the sample extract shall be disregarded. The blanks shall be scanned in 5-centimeter silica spectrophotometric cells in the spectrophotometer versus the appropriate solvent as reference. The absorbance in distilled water in the wavelength region of 544 to 552 mµ should be 1.16 but must not be less than 1.05 nor more than 1.25. The absorbance in the 8 and 50 percent alcohol must not be less than 0.85 nor more than 1.15.
</P>
<P>(v) Duplicate permanganate test determinations shall be run on samples of distilled water and 8 and 50 percent alcohol solvents that have been exposed to the temperature-time conditions of the extraction test without the plastic sample. The procedure shall be as described in paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section, except that the appropriate exposed solvent shall be substituted where the directions call for sample extract. The average difference in the absorbances in the region of 544 to 552 mµ shall be used as a blank correction for the determination of permanganate oxidizable extractives according to paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Extraction procedure.</I> For each extraction, place a plastic sample in a clean 25 millimeters × 200 millimeters hard-glass test tube and add solvent equal to 10 milliliters of solvent per square inch of plastic surface. This amount will be between 45 milliliters and 55 milliliters. The solvent must be preequilibrated to the temperature of the extraction test. Close the test tube with a ground-glass stopper and expose to the specified temperature for the specified time. Cool the tube and contents to room temperature if necessary.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Determination of total nonvolatile extractives.</I> Remove the plastic strip from the solvent with a pair of clean forceps and wash the strip with 5 milliliters of the appropriate solvent, adding the washings to the contents of the test tube. Pour the contents of the test tube into a clean, weighed platinum dish. Wash the tube with 5 milliliters of the appropriate solvent and add the solvent to the platinum dish. Evaporate the solvent to 2-5 milliliters on a nonsparking, low-temperature hotplate. Complete the evaporation in a 212 °F oven for 30 minutes. Cool the dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh to the nearest 0.1 milligram. Calculate the total nonvolatile extractives as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.392.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.393.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>e</I> = Total increase in weight of the dish, in milligrams.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>b</I> = Blank value of the solvent in milligrams, as determined in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>s</I> = Total surface of the plastic sample in square inches.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(7) <I>Determination of potassium permanganate oxidizable extractives.</I> (i) Pipette 25 milliliters of distilled water into a clean 125-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask that has been rinsed several times with aliquots of distilled water. This is the blank. Prepare a distilled water solution containing 1.0 part per million of <I>p-</I>methoxyphenol (melting point 54-56 °C, Eastman grade or equivalent). Pipette 25 milliliters of this <I>p-</I>methoxyphenol solution into a rinsed Erlenmeyer flask. Pipette exactly 3.0 milliliters of 154 parts per million aqueous potassium permanganate solution into the <I>p-</I>methoxyphenol and exactly 3.0 milliliters into the blank, in that order. Swirl both flasks to mix the contents and then transfer aliquots from each flask into matched 5-centimeter spectrophotometric absorption cells. The cells are placed in the spectrophotometer cell compartment with the <I>p-</I>methoxyphenol solution in the reference beam. Spectrophotometric measurement is conducted as in paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section. The absorbance reading in the region 544-552 mµ should be 0.24 but must be not less than 0.12 nor more than 0.36. This test shall be run in duplicate. For the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the limitations in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the absorbance measurements obtained on the distilled water extracts according to paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section shall be multiplied by a correction factor, calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.394.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The procedure in paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section is repeated except that, in this instance, the solvent shall be 8 percent alcohol. The absorbance in the region 544-552 mµ should be 0.26 but must be not less than 0.13 nor more than 0.39. This test shall be run in duplicate. For the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the absorbance measurements obtained on the 8 percent alcohol extracts according to paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section shall be multiplied by a correction factor, calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.395.gif"/>
<P>(iii) The procedure in paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section is repeated except that, in this instance, the solvent shall be 50 percent alcohol. The absorbance in the region 544-552 mµ should be 0.25 but must be not less than 0.12 nor more than 0.38. This test shall be run in duplicate. For the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the absorbance measurements obtained on the 50 percent alcohol extracts according to paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section shall be multiplied by a correction factor, calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.396.gif"/>
<P>(iv) <I>Water and 8 and 50 percent alcohol extracts.</I> Pipette 25 milliliters of the appropriate solvent into a clean, 125-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask that has been rinsed several times with aliquots of the same solvent. This is the blank. Into another similarly rinsed flask, pipette 25 milliliters of the sample extract that has been exposed under the conditions specified in paragraph (c)(5) of this section. Pipette exactly 3.0 milliliters of 154 parts per million aqueous potassium permanganate solution into the sample and exactly 3.0 milliliters into the blank, in that order. Before use, the potassium permanganate solution shall be checked as in paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section. Both flasks are swirled to mix the contents, and then aliquots from each flask are transferred to matched 5-centimeter spectrophotometric absorption cells. Both cells are placed in the spectrophotometer cell compartment with the sample solution in the reference beam. The spectrophotometer is adjusted for 0 and 100 percent transmittance at 700 mµ. The spectrum is scanned on the absorbance scale from 700 mµ to 500 mµ in such a way that the region 544 mµ to 552 mµ is scanned within 5 minutes to 10 minutes of the time that permanganate was added to the solutions. The height of the absorbance peak shall be measured, corrected for the blank as determined in paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section, and multiplied by the appropriate correction factor determined according to paragraph (c)(7)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section. This test shall be run in duplicate and the two results averaged.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Determination of ultraviolet-absorbing extractives.</I> (i) A distilled water solution containing 1.0 part per million of <I>p-</I>methoxyphenol (melting point 54 °C-56 °C. Eastman grade or equivalent) shall be scanned in the region 360 to 220 mµ in 5-centimeter silica spectrophotometric absorption cells versus a distilled water reference. The absorbance at the wavelength of maximum absorbance (should be about 285 mµ) is about 0.11 but must be not less than 0.08 nor more than 0.14. This test shall be run in duplicate. For the purpose of ascertaining compliance with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b)(3) and (4) of this section, the absorbance obtained on the extracts according to paragraph (c)(8)(ii) of this section shall be multiplied by a correction factor, calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.397.gif"/>
<P>(ii) An aliquot of the extract that has been exposed under the conditions specified in paragraph (c)(5) of this section is scanned in the wavelength region 360 to 220 mµ versus the appropriate solvent reference in matched 5-centimeter silica spectrophotometric absorption cells. The height of any absorption peak shall be measured, corrected for the blank as determined in paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section, and multiplied by the correction factor determined according to paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with current good manufacturing practice, finished semirigid and rigid acrylic and modified acrylic plastics, and articles containing these polymers, intended for repeated use in contact with food shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) The acrylic and modified acrylic polymers identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of an article that is the subject of a regulation in this part and in parts 174, 175, 176, and 178 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 54927, Nov. 24, 1978; 45 FR 67320, Oct. 10, 1980; 46 FR 46796, Sept. 22, 1981; 49 FR 10108, Mar. 19, 1984; 49 FR 13139, Apr. 3, 1984; 50 FR 31045, July 24, 1985; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1020" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1020   Acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene co-polymer.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene copolymer identified in this section may be safely used as an article or component of articles intended for use with all foods, except those containing alcohol, under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, the acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene copolymer consists of:
</P>
<P>(1) Eighty-four to eighty-nine parts by weight of a matrix polymer containing 73 to 78 parts by weight of acrylonitrile and 22 to 27 parts by weight of styrene; and
</P>
<P>(2) Eleven to sixteen parts by weight of a grafted rubber consisting of (i) 8 to 13 parts of butadiene/styrene elastomer containing 72 to 77 parts by weight of butadiene and 23 to 28 parts by weight of styrene and (ii) 3 to 8 parts by weight of a graft polymer having the same composition range as the matrix polymer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjuvants.</I> The copolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain adjuvant substances required in its production. Such adjuvants may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with prior sanction, substances permitted in this part, and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Mercapto- ethanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The finished copolymer shall contain not more than 100 ppm 2-mercaptoethanol acrylonitrile adduct as determined by a method titled “Analysis of Cycopac Resin for Residual β-(2-Hydroxyethylmercapto) propionitrile,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Bureau of Foods (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Nitrogen content of the copolymer is in the range of 16 to 18.5 percent as determined by Micro-Kjeldahl analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) Residual acrylonitrile monomer content of the finished copolymer articles is not more than 11 parts per million as determined by a gas chromatographic method titled “Determination of Residual Acrylonitrile and Styrene Monomers-Gas Chromatographic Internal Standard Method,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> (1) Total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.0005 milligram per square inch surface area when the finished food contact article is exposed to distilled water, 3 percent acetic acid, or <I>n-</I>heptane for 8 days at 120 °F.
</P>
<P>(2) The finished food-contact article shall yield not more than 0.0015 milligram per square inch of acrylonitrile monomer when exposed to distilled water and 3 percent acetic acid at 150 °F for 15 days when analyzed by a polarographic method titled “Extracted Acrylonitrile by Differential Pulse Polarography,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section are not authorized to be used to fabricate beverage containers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 48543, Sept. 23, 1977; 47 FR 11841, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24897, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1030" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1030   Acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene/methyl methacrylate copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene/methyl methacrylate copolymer identified in this section may be safely used as an article or component of articles intended for use with food identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter as Type I, II, III, IVA, IVB, V, VIB, (except bottles intended to hold carbonated beverages), VIIA, VIIB, VIII and IX, under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter with a high temperature limitation of 190 °F.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene/methyl methacrylate copolymer consists of: (1) 73 to 79 parts by weight of a matrix polymer containing 64 to 69 parts by weight of acrylonitrile, 25 to 30 parts by weight of styrene and 4 to 6 parts by weight of methyl methacrylate; and (2) 21 to 27 parts by weight of a grafted rubber consisting of (i) 16 to 20 parts of butadiene/styrene/elastomer containing 72 to 77 parts by weight of butadiene and 23 to 28 parts by weight of styrene and (ii) 5 to 10 parts by weight of a graft polymer having the same composition range as the matrix polymer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjuvants.</I> The copolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain adjuvant substances required in its production. Such adjuvants may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with prior sanction, substances permitted under applicable regulations in this part, and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Mercaptoethanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The finished copolymer shall contain not more than 800 ppm 2-mercaptoethanol acrylonitrile adduct as determined by a method titled “Analysis of Cycopac Resin for Residual β-(2-Hydroxyethylmercapto) propionitrile,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Bureau of Foods (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Nitrogen content of the copolymer is in the range of 13.0 to 16.0 percent as determined by Micro-Kjeldahl analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) Residual acrylonitrile monomer content of the finished copolymer articles is not more than 11 parts per million as determined by a gas chromatographic method titled “Determination of Residual Acrylonitrile and Styrene Monomers-Gas Chromatographic Internal Standard Method,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> (1) Total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.0005 milligram per square inch surface area of the food-contact article when exposed to distilled water, 3 percent acetic acid, 50 percent ethanol, and <I>n-</I>heptane for 10 days at 120 °F.
</P>
<P>(2) The finished food-contact article shall yield not more than 0.0025 milligram per square inch of acrylonitrile monomer when exposed to distilled water, 3 percent acetic acid and <I>n-</I>heptane at 190 °F for 2 hours, cooled to 120 °F (80 to 90 minutes) and maintained at 120 °F for 10 days when analyzed by a polarographic method titled “Extracted Acrylonitrile by Differential Pulse Polarography,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section are not authorized to be used to fabricate beverage containers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 48543, Sept. 23, 1977; 47 FR 11841, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1040" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1040   Acrylonitrile/styrene copoly-mer.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymers identified in this section may be safely used as a component of packaging materials subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section acrylonitrile/styrene copoly-mers are basic copolymers meeting the specifications prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjuvants.</I> (1) The copolymers identified in paragraph (c) of this section may contain adjuvant substances required in their production, with the exception that they shall not contain mercaptans or other substances which form reversible complexes with acryl-onitrile monomer. Permissible adjuvants may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with prior sanction, substances permitted under applicable regulations in this part, and those authorized in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The optional adjuvants for the acrylonitrile/styrene copolymer identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (3) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condensation polymer of toluene sulfonamide and formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 pct maximum.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum residual acrylonitrile monomer content of finished article
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nitrogen content of copolymer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum extractable fractions at specified temperatures and times
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conformance with certain specifications
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymer consisting of the copolymer produced by polymerization of 66-72 parts by weight of acrylonitrile and 28-34 parts by weight of styrene; for use with food of Type VI-B identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use C, D, E, F, G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80 ppm
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17.4 to 19 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.01 mg/in 
<sup>2</sup> surface area of the food contact article when exposed to distilled water and 3 pct acetic acid for 10 d at 66 °C (150 °F)
<br/>The extracted copolymer shall not exceed 0.001 mg/in 
<sup>2</sup> surface area of the food contact article when exposed to distilled water and 3 pct acetic acid for 10 d at 66 °C (150 °F) 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum number average molecular weight is 30,000. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymer consisting of the copolymer produced by polymerization of 45-65 parts by weight of acrylonitrile and 35-55 parts by weight of styrene; for use with food of Types, I, II, III, IV, V, VI (except bottles), VII, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions B (not to exceed 93 °C (200 °F)), C, D, E, F, G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 ppm
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2 to 17.2 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extracted copolymer not to exceed 2.0 ppm in aqueous extract or <E T="03">n</E>-heptane extract obtained when 100 g sample of the basic copolymer in the form of particles of a size that will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 6 and that will be held on a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 10 is extracted with 250 mil of deionized water or reagent grade <E T="03">n-</E>heptane at reflux temperature for 2 h.
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum 10 pct solution viscosity at 25 °C (77 °F) is 10cP. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymer consisting of the copolymer produced by polymerization of 66-72 parts by weight of acrylonitrile and 28-34 parts by weight of styrene; for use with food of Types VI-A and VI-B identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use C, D, E, F, G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10 ppm (calculated on the basis of the weight of the acrylonitrile copolymer resin in the finished articles). 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17.4 to 19 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.01 mg/in 
<sup>2</sup> surface area of the food contact article when exposed to distilled water and 3 pct acetic acid for 10 d at 66 °C (150 °F)
<br/>The extracted copolymer shall not exceed 0.001 mg/in 
<sup>2</sup> surface area of the food contact article when exposed to distilled water and 3 pct acetic acid for 10 d at 66 °C (150 °F). 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum carbon dioxide permeability at 23 °C (73 °F) for the finished article is 0.04 barrer. 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use methods for determination of residual acrylonitrile monomer content, maximum extractable fraction, number average molecular weight, and solution viscosity, titled: “Determination of Residual Acrylonitrile and Styrene Monomers-Gas Chromatographic Internal Standard Method”; “Infrared Spectrophotometric Determination of Polymer Extracted from Barex 210 Resin Pellets”; “Procedure for the Determination of Molecular Weights of Acrylonitrile/Styrene Copolymers,” and “Analytical Method for 10% Solution Viscosity of Tyril,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E> 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> As determined by the method titled “Headspace Sampling and Gas-Solid Chromatographic Determination of Residual Acrylonitrile in Acrylonitrile Copolyemr Solutions,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E> 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> As determined on appropriately shaped test samples of the article or acrylonitrile copolymer layer in a multilayer construction by ASTM method D-1434-82, “Standard Method for Determining Gas Permeability Characteristics of Plastic Film and Sheeting,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Interim listing.</I> Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymer identified in this section may be used to fabricate beverage containers only if they comply with the specifications of item 3 in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 48543, Sept. 23, 1977; 47 FR 11841, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 36643, Sept. 19, 1984; 52 FR 33803, Sept. 8, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1050" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1050   Acrylonitrile/styrene copoly-mer modified with butadiene/styrene elastomer.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymer modified with butadiene/styrene elastomer identified in this section may be safely used as a component of bottles intended for use with foods identified in table I of § 176.170(c) of this chapter as Type VI-B under conditions for use E, F, or G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, acrylonitrile/styrene copoly- mer modified with butadiene/styrene elastomer consists of a blend of:
</P>
<P>(1) 82-88 parts by weight of a matrix copolymer produced by polymerization of 77-82 parts by weight of acrylonitrile and 18-23 parts of styrene; and
</P>
<P>(2) 12-18 parts by weight of a grafted rubber consisting of (i) 8-12 parts of butadiene/styrene elastomer containing 77-82 parts by weight of butadiene and 18-23 parts by weight of styrene and (ii) 4-6 parts by weight of a graft copolymer consisting of 70-77 parts by weight of acrylonitrile and 23-30 parts by weight of styrene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjuvants.</I> The modified copoly-mer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain adjuvant substances required in its production. Such adjuvants may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with prior sanction, substances permitted under applicable regulations in this part, and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Dodecylmercaptan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The finished copolymer shall contain not more than 500 parts per million (ppm) dodecylmercaptan as dodecylmercapto-propionitrile as determined by the method titled, “Determination of β-Dodecyl-mercaptopropionitrile in NR-16 Polymer,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Nitrogen content of the modified copolymer is in the range of 17.7-19.8 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Intrinsic viscosity of the matrix copolymer in butyrolactone is not less than 0.5 deciliter/gram at 35 °C, as determined by the method titled “Molecular Weight of Matrix Copolymer by Solution Viscosity,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) Residual acrylonitrile monomer content of the modified copolymer articles is not more than 11 ppm as determined by a gas chromatographic method titled “Determination of Residual Acrylonitrile and Styrene Monomers-Gas Chromatographic Internal Standard Method,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The following extractives limitations are determined by an infrared spectrophotometric method titled “Infrared Spectrophotometric Determination of Polymer Extracted from Borex ® 210 Resin Pellets,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Copies are applicable to the modified copolymers in the form of particles of a size that will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 6 and that will be held on a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 10:
</P>
<P>(1) The extracted copolymer shall not exceed 2.0 ppm in aqueous extract obtained when a 100-gram sample of copolymer is extracted with 250 milliliters of freshly distilled water at reflux temperature for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) The extracted copolymer shall not exceed 0.5 ppm in <I>n-</I>heptane when a 100-gram sample of the basic copol-ymer is extracted with 250 milliliters spectral grade <I>n-</I>heptane at reflux temperature for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Accelerated extraction end test.</I> The modified copolymer shall yield acrylonitrile monomer not in excess of 0.4 ppm when tested as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The modified copolymer shall be in the form of eight strips 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch by 4 inches by .03 inch.
</P>
<P>(2) The modified copolymer strips shall be immersed in 225 milliliters of 3 percent acetic acid in a Pyrex glass pressure bottle.
</P>
<P>(3) The pyrex glass pressure bottle is then sealed and heated to 150 °F in either a circulating air oven or a thermostat controlled bath for a period of 8 days.
</P>
<P>(4) The Pyrex glass pressure bottle is then removed from the oven or bath and cooled to room temperature. A sample of the extracting solvent is then withdrawn and analyzed for acrylonitrile monomer by a gas chromatographic method titled “Gas-Solid Chromatographic Procedure for Determining Acrylonitrile Monomer in Acrylonitrile-Containing Polymers and Food Simulating Solvents,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies, are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(f) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section are not authorized to be used to fabricate beverage containers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 48544, Sept. 23, 1977; 47 FR 11841, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 16775, Apr. 20, 1982; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1060" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1060   <E T="7462">n</E>-Alkylglutarimide/acrylic copolymers.</HEAD>
<P><I>n</I>-Alkylglutarimide/acrylic copolymers identified in this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food subject to provisions of this section and part 174 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, <I>n</I>-alkylglutarimide/acrylic copolymers are copolymers obtained by reaction of substances permitted by § 177.1010(a)(1), (2), and (3) with the following substance: Monomethylamine (CAS Reg. No. 74-89-5), to form <I>n-</I>methylglutarimide/acrylic copolymers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjuvants.</I> The copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain adjuvant substances required in their production. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the basic polymer may include substances permitted for such use by applicable regulations, as set forth in part 174 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> Maximum nitrogen content of the copolymer determined by micro-Kjeldahl analysis, shall not exceed 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> (1) The <I>n-</I>alkylglutarimide/acrylic copolymers in the finished form in which they shall contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall yield extractives not to exceed the limitations of § 177.1010(b) of this chapter, when prepared as strips, as described in § 177.1010(c)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The <I>n-</I>alkylglutarimide/acrylic copolymers shall not be used as polymer modifiers in vinyl chloride homo- or copolymers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The <I>n-</I>alkylglutarimide/acrylic copolymers are used as articles or components of articles (other than articles composed of vinyl chloride homo- or copolymers) intended for use in contact with all foods except beverages containing more than 8 percent alcohol under conditions of use D, E, F, and G as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 20382, May 11, 1989, as amended at 58 FR 17098, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1200" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1200   Cellophane.</HEAD>
<P>Cellophane may be safely used for packaging food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cellophane consists of a base sheet made from regenerated cellulose to which have been added certain optional substances of a grade of purity suitable for use in food packaging as constituents of the base sheet or as coatings applied to impart desired technological properties.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to any limitations prescribed in this part, the optional substances used in the base sheet and coating may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances for which prior approval or sanctions permit their use in cellophane, under conditions specified in such sanctions and substances listed in § 181.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances that by any regulation promulgated under section 409 of the act may be safely used as components of cellophane.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances named in this section and further identified as required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>List of substances:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations (residue and limits of addition expressed as percent by weight of finished packaging cellophane)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile-butadiene copolymer resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymer resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile-styrene copolymer resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile-vinyl chloride copolymer resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>Acyl sarcosines where the acyl group is lauroyl or stearoyl</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as release agents in coatings at levels not to exceed a total of 0.3 percent by weight of the finished packaging cellophane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl ketene dimers identified in § 176.120 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum hydroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium persulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Behenamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butadiene-styrene copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Butanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Butyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium ethyl acetoacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium stearoyl-2-lactylate identified in § 172.844 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.5 percent weight of cellophane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carboxymethyl hydroxyethylcellulose polymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, sulfonated, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose acetate butyrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose acetate propionate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cetyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clay, natural
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coconut oil fatty acid (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) diethanolamide, coconut oil fatty acid (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) diethanolamine soap, and diethanolamine mixture having total alkali (calculated as potassium hydroxide) of 16-18% and having an acid number of 25-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant employed during the processing of cellulose pulp used in the manufacture of cellophane base sheet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copal resin, heat processed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As basic resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Damar resin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defoaming agents identified in § 176.200 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dialkyl ketones where the alkyl groups are lauryl or stearyl</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed a total of 0.35 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclohexyl phthalate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol ester of the adduct of terpene and maleic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl) adipate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alone or in combination with other phthalates where total phthalates do not exceed 5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyldialkyl (C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005 percent for use only as a flocculant for slip agents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-<E T="03">n-</E>ocyltin bis (2-ethylhexyl maleate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a stabilizer at a level not to exceed 0.55 percent by weight of the coating solids in vinylidene chloride copolymer waterproof coatings prepared from vinylidene chloride copolymers identified in this paragraph, provided that such vinylidene chloride copolymers contain not less than 90 percent by weight of polymer units derived from vinylidene chloride.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N,N′-Dioleoyethylenediamine, N,N′-dilinoleoylethylene-diamine and N-oleoyl-N′linoleoylethylene-diamine mixture produced when tall oil fatty acids are made to react with ethylenediamine such that the finished mixture has a melting point of 212°-228 °F., as determined by ASTM method D127-60 (“Standard Method of Test for Melting Point of Petrolatum and Microcrystalline Wax” (Revised 1960), which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from University Microfilms International, 300 N. Zeeb Rd., Ann Arbor, MI 48106, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>), and an acid value of 10 maximum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>′-Dioleoylethylenediamine (<E T="03">N,N′-</E>ethylenebisoleamide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium EDTA
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distearic acid ester of di(hydroxyethyl) diethylenetriamine monoacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′-</E>Distearoylethylenediamine (<E T="03">N,N′</E>-ethylenebis stearamide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized polybutadiene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a primer subcoat to anchor surface coatings to the base sheet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erucamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Ethylhexyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 percent for use only as lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acids derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils, and the following salts of such acids, single or mixed: Aluminum, ammonium, calcium, magnesium, potassium, sodium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferrous ammonium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fumaric acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerin-maleic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol diacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol monoacetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxyethyl cellulose, water-insoluble
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxypropyl cellulose identified in § 172.870 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residue limit 0.1 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Itaconic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanolin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauryl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lauryl sulfate salts: ammonium, magnesium, potassium, sodium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic acid adduct of butadienestyrene copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melamine formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melamine-formaldehyde modified with one or more of the following: Butyl alcohol, diaminopropane, diethylenetriamine, ethyl alcohol, guanidine, imino-bis-butylamine, imino-bis-ethylamine, imino-bis-propylamine, methyl alcohol, polyamines made by reacting ethylenediamine or trimethylenediamine with dichloroethane or dichloropropane, sulfanilic acid, tetraethylenepentamine, triethanolamine, triethylenetetra-mine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer, and used as a resin to anchor coatings to substrate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ethyl ketone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residue limit 0.1 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl hydrogen siloxane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 percent as the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins (molar ratio 1α-methylstyrene to 3 vinyltoluene)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil, white
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mono- and bis-(octadecyldiethylene oxide) phosphates (CAS Reg. No. 62362-49-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a release agent at a level not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of coatings for cellophane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalenesulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 percent, for use only as an emulsifier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrocellulose, 10.9 percent-12.2 percent nitrogen
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon resins complying with § 177.1500
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Octyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a defoaming agent in the manufacture of cellophane base sheet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid reacted with <E T="03">N-</E>alkyl trimethylenediamine (alkyl C<E T="52">16</E> to C<E T="52">18</E>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid, sulfonated, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleyl palmitamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>′-Oleoyl-stearylethylenediamine (<E T="03">N-</E>(2-stearoyl-aminoethyl)oleamide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraffin, synthetic, complying with § 175.250 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol tetrastearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide resins derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids (containing not more than 20 percent of monomer acids) and ethylenediamine as the basic resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in cellophane coatings that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyamide resins having a maximum acid value of 5 and a maximum amine value of 8.5 derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids (containing not more than 10 percent monomer acids), ethylenediamine, and 4,4-bis(4-hydroxyphenyl)pentanoic acid (in an amount not to exceed 10 percent by weight of said polyamide resins)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic resin, for use only in coatings that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature provided that the concentration of the polyamido resins in the finished food-contact coating does not exceed 5 milligrams per square inch of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutadiene resin (molecular weight range 2,000-10,200; bromine number range 210-320)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant in vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyester resin formed by the reaction of the methyl ester of rosin, phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride, and ethylene glycol, such that the polyester resin has an acid number of 4 to 11, a drop-softening point of 70 °C-92 °C, and a color of K or paler
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethyleneaminostearamide ethyl sulfate produced when stearic acid is made to react with equal parts of diethylenetriamine and triethylenetetramine and the reaction product is quaternized with diethyl sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monolaurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monolaurate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monooleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (600) monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene, oxidized: complying with the identity prescribed in § 177.1620(a)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylenimine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer, for use as a resin to anchor coatings to the substrate and for use as an impregnant in the food-contact surface of regenerated cellulose sheet in an amount not to exceed that required to improve heat-sealable bonding between coated and uncoated sides of cellophane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyisobutylene complying with § 177.1420
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene block polymers (molecular weight 1,900-9,000)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an adjuvant employed during the processing of cellulose pulp used in the manufacture of cellophane base sheet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene complying with § 177.1520
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polystyrene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl alcohol (minimum viscosity of 4 percent aqueous solution at 20 °C of 4 centipoises)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Propyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residue limit 0.1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n-</E>Propyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rapeseed oil, blown
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosins and rosin derivatives as provided in § 178.3870 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber, natural (natural latex solids)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">m-</E>bisulfite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium lauroyl sarcosinate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 percent; for use only in vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium oleyl sulfate-sodium cetyl sulfate mixture</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier for coatings; limit 0.005 percent where coating is applied to one side only and 0.01 percent where coating is applied to both sides.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium stearoyl-2-lactylate identified in § 172.846 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.5 percent weight of cellophane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium sulfite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spermaceti wax
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stannous oleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Stearamido-ethyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-maleic anhydride resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terpene resins identified in § 172.615 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residue limit of 0.1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residue limit of 0.1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene sulfonamide formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 percent as the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol diacetate, prepared from triethylene glycol containing not more than 0.1 percent of diethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2,4-Trimethyl-1,3 pentanediol diisobutyrate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in cellophane coatings and limited to use at a level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the coating solids except when used as provided in § 178.3740 of this chapter
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urea (carbamide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urea formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urea formaldehyde modified with methanol, ethanol, butanol diethylenetriamine, triethylenetetramine, tetraethylenepenta-mine, guanidine, sodium sulfite, sulfanilic acid, imino-bis-ethylamine, imino-bis-propylamine, imino-bis-butylamine, diaminopropane, diaminobutane, aminomethylsulfonic acid, polyamines made by reacting ethylenediamine or trimethylenediamine with dichlorethane or dichloropropane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer, and used as a resin to anchor coatings to the substrate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl acetate-vinyl chloride copolymer resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl acetate-vinyl chloride-maleic acid copolymer resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinylidene chloride copolymerized with one or more of the following: Acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, butyl acrylate, butyl methacrylate, ethyl acrylate, 2-ethylhexyl acrylate, 2-ethylhexyl methacrylate, ethyl methacrylate, itaconic acid, methacrylic acid, methyl acrylate, methyl methacrylate, propyl acrylate, propyl methacrylate, vinyl chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinylidene chloride-methacrylate decyloctyl copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wax, petroleum, complying with § 178.3710 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Any optional component listed in this section covered by a specific food additive regulation must meet any specifications in that regulation.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11842, Mar. 19, 1982; 64 FR 57978, Oct. 28, 1999; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1210   Closures with sealing gaskets for food containers.</HEAD>
<P>Closures with sealing gaskets may be safely used on containers intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Closures for food containers are manufactured from substances generally recognized as safe for contact with food; substances that are subject to the provisions of prior sanctions; substances authorized by regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter; and closure-sealing gaskets, as further prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Closure-sealing gaskets and overall discs are formulated from substances identified in § 175.300(b) of this chapter, with the exception of paragraph (b)(3)(v), (xxxi), and (xxxii) of that section, and from other optional substances, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances used in accordance with the provisions of a prior sanction or approval within the meaning of section 201(s) of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances that are the subject of regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter and used in accordance with the conditions prescribed.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances identified in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, used in amounts not to exceed those required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect and in conformance with any limitation provided; and further provided that any substance employed in the production of closure-sealing gasket compositions that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with the identity or specifications prescribed.
</P>
<P>(5) Substances that may be employed in the manufacture of closure-sealing gaskets include:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations (expressed as percent by weight of closure-sealing gasket composition)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arachidy-l-behenyl amide (C<E T="52">20</E>-C<E T="52">22</E>fatty acid amides)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Azodicarbonamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. 2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. 5 percent; for use only in the manufacture of polyethylene complying with item 2.1 in § 177.1520(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balata rubber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brominated isobutylene-isoprene copolymers, produced when isobutylene-isoprene copolymers complying with § 177.1420(a)(2) are modified by bromination with not more than 2.3 weight-percent of bromine and having a Mooney Viscosity (ML 1 + 8 (125 °C)) of 27 or higher. The viscosity is determined by the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) method D 1646-81, “Standard Test Method for Rubber—Viscosity and Vulcanization Characteristics (Mooney Viscometer),” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 522(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., Suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877-2504 and the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Butanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium tin stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium zinc stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon, activated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, hydrogenated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated isobutylene-isoprene copolymers complying with § 177.1420
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coco amide (coconut oil fatty acids amides)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cork (cleaned, granulated)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diebenzamide phenyl disulfide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent; for use only in vulcanized natural or synthetic rubber gasket compositions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(C<E T="52">7</E>, C<E T="52">9</E>-alkyl) adipate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3740 of this chapter; except that, there is no limitation on polymer thickness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-2-ethylhexyl adipate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-2-ethylhexyl sebacate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-2-ethylhexyl terephthalate (CAS Reg. No. 006422-86-2).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a plasticizer at levels not exceeding 75 parts per hundred by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymer resins used in contact with food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VI-C (up to 15 percent alcohol by volume), VII-B, and VIII described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, and under conditions of use A through H described in § 176.170 (c) of this chapter, table 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dihexyl ester of sodium sulfosuccinate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisodecyl phthalate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limitation on amount used but for use only in closure-sealing gasket compositions used in contact with non-fatty foods containing no more than 8 percent of alcohol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-β-naphthyl-<E T="03">p-</E>phenylenediamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipentamethylenethiurametetrasulfide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 percent; for use only in vulcanized natural or synthetic rubber gasket compositions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eicosane (technical grade) (water-white mixture of predominantly straight-chain paraffin hydrocarbons averaging 20 carbon atoms per molecule)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized linseed oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized linseed oil modified with trimellitic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized safflower oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized safflower oil modified with trimellitic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized soybean oil modified with trimellitic anhydride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erucylamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-propylene copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-propylene modified copolymer elastomers produced when ethylene and propylene are copolymerized with 5-methylene-2-norbornene and/or 5-ethylidine-2-norbornene. The finished copolymer elastomers so produced shall contain not more than 5 weight-percent of total polymer units derived from 5-methylene-2-norbornene and/or 5-ethylidine-2-norbornene, and shall have a minimum viscosity average molecular weight of 120,000 as determined by the method described in § 177.1520(d)(5), and a minimum Mooney viscosity of 35 as determined by the method described in § 177.1520(d)(6)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl mono-12-hydroxystearate (hydrogenated glyceryl ricinoleate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gutta-percha
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutylene-isoprene copolymers complying with § 177.1420
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride-polyethylene copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride-styrene copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis[6-(1-methylcylcohexyl)-<E T="03">p-</E>cresol]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed octylated diphenylamine (CAS Reg. No. 68411-46-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 percent in isobutylene-isoprene and chlorinated isobutylene-isoprene copolymers complying with § 177.1420, and brominated isobutylene-isoprene copolymers complying with this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Natural rubber (crepe, latex, mechanical dispersions)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-<E T="03">cis-</E>9-Octadecenyl-<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene); the octadecenyl group is derived from oleyl alcohol and the poly (oxyethylene) content averages 20 moles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Oxybis (benzene sulfonyl hydrazide)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraformaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutadiene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly-<E T="03">p-</E>dinitroso benzene (activator for butyl rubber)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent; for use only in vulcanized natural or synthetic rubber gasket compositions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol 400 esters of fatty acids derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyisobutylene complying with § 177.1420
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene condensate, average mol. wt. 2750-3000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyurethane resins manufactured from diphenylmethane diisocyanate, 1,4-butanediol, and adipic acid (CAS Reg. No. 26375-23-5).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/> No limitation on amount used, but for use only in closure gasket compositions used in contact with food types VI-A and VI-C (up to 15 percent alcohol) under conditions of use D, E, F, and G, as described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, tables 1 and 2, respectively.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium benzoate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium propionate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium and sodium persulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Resorcinol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24 percent; for use only as a reactive adjuvant substance employed in the production of gelatin-bonded cord compositions for use in lining crown closures. The gelatin so used shall be technical grade or better.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosins and rosin derivatives as defined in § 175.300(b)(3)(v) of this chapter for use only in resinous and polymeric coatings on metal substrates; for all other uses as defined in § 178.3870 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium cetyl sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium decylbenzenesulfonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium decyl sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium lauryl sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium lignin sulfonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium myristyl sulfate (sodium tetradecyl sulfate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 percent; for use only in annular ring gaskets applied in aqueous dispersions to closures for containers having a capacity of not less than 5 gallons.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">o-</E>phenylphenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polyacrylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium and potassium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium salt of trisopropyl naphthalenesulfonic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium tridecylsulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearic acid amide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a vulcanizing agent in vulcanized natural or synthetic rubber gasket compositions at a level not to exceed 4 percent by weight of the elastomer content of the rubber gasket composition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow, sulfated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-zinc stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri(mixed mono- and dinonylphenyl) phosphite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride-vinyl stearate copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc dibutyldithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 percent; for use only in vulcanized natural or synthetic rubber gasket compositions.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Maximum Extractives Tolerances
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In parts per million]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of closure-sealing gasket composition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chloroform fraction of water extractives
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chloroform fraction of heptane extractives
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chloroform fraction of alcohol extractives
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Plasticized polymers, including unvulcanized or vulcanized or otherwise cured natural and synthetic rubber formed in place as overall discs or annular rings from a hot melt, solution, plastisol, organisol, mechanical dispersion, or latex</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Preformed overall discs or annular rings of plasticized polymers, including unvulcanized natural or synthetic rubber</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Preformed overall discs or annular rings of vulcanized plasticized polymers, including natural or synthetic rubber</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Preformed overall discs or annular rings of polymeric or resinous-coated paper, paperboard, plastic, or metal foil substrates</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Closures with sealing gaskets or sealing compositions as described in 1, 2, 3, and 4, and including paper, paperboard, and glassine used for dry foods only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Extractability tests not applicable.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The closure assembly to include the sealing gasket or sealing compound, together with any polymeric or resinous coating, film, foil, natural cork, or glass that forms a part of the food-contact surface of the assembly, when extracted on a suitable glass container with a solvent or solvents characterizing the type of foods, and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its use as determined from tables 3 and 4 shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives (corrected for zinc as zinc oleate) not to exceed the tolerances specified in table 2, calculated on the basis of the water capacity of the container on which the closure is to be used. Employ the analytical method described in § 175.300 of this chapter, adapting the procedural details to make the method applicable to closures; such as, for example, placing the closed glass container on its side to assure contact of the closure's food-contacting surface with the solvent.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table 3—Types of Food
</HD1>
<FP-1>I. Nonacid (pH above 5.0), aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both, and including oil-in-water emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>II. Acidic (pH 5.0 or below), aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both, and including oil-in-water emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>III. Aqueous, acid or nonacid products containing free oil or fat; may contain salt, and including water-in-oil emulsions of low- or high-fat content.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IV. Dairy products and modifications:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Water-in-oil emulsions, high- or low-fat.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Oil-in-water emulsions, high- or low-fat.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>V. Low-moisture fats and oils.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VI. Beverages:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Containing alcohol.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Nonalcoholic.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>VII. Bakery products.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VIII. Dry solids (no end-test required).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Test Procedures With Time-Temperature Conditions for Determining Amount of Extractives From Closure-Sealing Gaskets, Using Solvents Simulating Types of Foods and Beverages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Conditions of use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Types of food
<br/>(see Table 3)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Extractant
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water (time and temperature)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heptane
<sup>1</sup> (time and temperature)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8% alcohol
<br/>(time and temperature)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. High temperature heat-sterilized (e.g., over 212 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, IV-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B. Boiling water-sterilized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">212 °F, 30 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C. Hot filled or pasteurized above 150 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fill boiling, cool to 100 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 15 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D. Hot filled or pasteurized below 150 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B, VI-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 °F, 2 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E. Room temperature filled and stored (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II, IV-B, VI-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 24 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III, IV-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F, 24 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F. Refrigerated storage (no thermal treatment)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, III, IV-A, IV-B, VI-B,VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 48 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 30 min
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 48 hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">G. Frozen storage (no thermal treatment in the container)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I, II, III, IV-B, VII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 °F, 24 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup>Heptane extractant not applicable to closure-sealing gaskets overcoated with wax.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 22090, May 21, 1982; 49 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984; 55 FR 34555, Aug. 23, 1990; 61 FR 14480, Apr. 2, 1996; 65 FR 26745, May 9, 2000; 65 FR 52908, Aug. 31, 2000; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005; 76 FR 59249, Sept. 26, 2011; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 82 FR 20832, May 4, 2017]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1211" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1211   Cross-linked polyacrylate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Cross-linked polyacrylate copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, the cross-linked polyacrylate copolymers consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) The grafted copolymer of cross-linked sodium polyacrylate identified as 2-propenoic acid, polymers with <I>N,N</I>-di-2-propenyl-2-propen-1-amine and hydrolyzed polyvinyl acetate, sodium salts, graft (CAS Reg. No. 166164-74-5); or
</P>
<P>(2) 2-propenoic acid, polymer with 2-ethyl-2-(((1-oxo-2-propenyl)oxy)methyl)-1,3-propanediyl di-2-propenoate and sodium 2-propenoate (CAS Reg. No. 76774-25-9).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjuvants.</I> The copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such copolymers. The optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 179 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section, in the finished form in which they will contact food, must yield low molecular weight (less than 1,000 Daltons) extractives of no more than 0.15 percent by weight of the total polymer when extracted with 0.2 percent by weight of aqueous sodium chloride solution at 20 °C for 24 hours. The low molecular weight extractives shall be determined using size exclusion chromatography or an equivalent method. When conducting the extraction test, the copolymer, with no other absorptive media, shall be confined either in a finished absorbent pad or in any suitable flexible porous article, (such as a “tea bag” or infuser), under an applied pressure of 0.15 pounds per square inch (for example, a 4 × 6 inch square pad is subjected to a 1.6 kilograms applied mass). The solvent used shall be at least 60 milliliters aqueous sodium chloride solution per gram of copolymer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The copolymers identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are limited to use as a fluid absorbent in food-contact materials used in the packaging of frozen or refrigerated poultry. The copolymers identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section are limited to use as a fluid absorbent in food-contact materials used in the packaging of frozen or refrigerated meat and poultry. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 28098, May 25, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 16817, Mar. 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1240" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1240   1,4-Cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate and 1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene isophthalate copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Copolymer of 1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate and 1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene isophthalate may be safely used as an article or component of articles used in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The copolymer is a basic polyester produced by the catalytic condensation of dimethyl terephthalate and dimethyl isophthalate with 1,4-cyclohexanedimethanol, to which may have been added certain optional substances required in its production or added to impart desired physical and technical properties.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any optional substance employed in the production of the copolymer does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect or any limitation further provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of the copolymer that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances employed in the production of the copolymer include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances subject to prior sanction or approval for use in the copoly-mer and used in accordance with such sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances which by regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter may be safely used as components of resinous or polymeric coatings and film used as food-contact surfaces, subject to the provisions of such regulation.
</P>
<P>(e) The copolymer conforms with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The copolymer, when extracted with distilled water at reflux temperature for 2 hours, yields total extractives not to exceed 0.05 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The copolymer, when extracted with ethyl acetate at reflux temperature for 2 hours, yields total extractives not to exceed 0.7 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) The copolymer, when extracted with <I>n-</I>hexane at reflux temperature for 2 hours, yields total extractives not to exceed 0.05 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977; 49 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984, as amended at 55 FR 34555, Aug. 23, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1310" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1310   Ethylene-acrylic acid copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The ethylene-acrylic acid copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The ethylene-acrylic acid copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of ethylene and acrylic acid such that the finished basic copolymers contain no more than:
</P>
<P>(1) 10 weight-percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid when used in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) 25 weight-percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid when used in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The finished food-contact articles made with no more than 10 percent total polymer units derived from acrylic acid, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yield net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface when tested by the methods prescribed in § 177.1330(e)(1), (3)(i) through (iv), (4), (5), and (6), except that
</P>
<P>(1) The total residue method using 3 percent acetic acid, as prescribed in § 177.1330(e)(6)(i)(<I>a</I>), does not apply, and
</P>
<P>(2) The net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives from paper and paperboard complying with § 176.170 of this chapter may be corrected for wax, petrolatum, and mineral oil as provided in § 176.170(d)(5)(iii)(<I>b</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<FP>If the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178, and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by that regulation.
</FP>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact layer made with basic copolymers containing more than 10 weight-percent but no more than 25 weight-percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid and with a maximum thickness of 0.0025 inch (2.5 mils) may be used in contact with food types I, II, IVB, VIA, VIB, VIIB, and VIII identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of the chapter under conditions of use B through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and in contact with food types III, IVA, V, VIIA, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use E through G as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to ethylene-acrylic acid copolymers used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 19060, May 27, 1986; 53 FR 44009, Nov. 1, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1312" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1312   Ethylene-carbon monoxide copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The ethylene-carbon monoxide copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section, ethylene-carbon monoxide copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 25052-62-4) consist of the basic polymers produced by the copolymerization of ethylene and carbon monoxide such that the copolymers contain not more than 30 weight-percent of polymer units derived from carbon monoxide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) The polymers may be safely used as components of the food-contact or interior core layer of multilaminate food-contact articles.
</P>
<P>(2) The polymers may be safely used as food-contact materials at temperatures not to exceed 121 °C (250 °F).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Food-contact layers formed from the basic copolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be limited to a thickness of not more than 0.01 centimeter (0.004 inch).
</P>
<P>(2) The copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section shall have a melt index not greater than 500 as determined by ASTM method D1238-82, condition E “Standard Test Method for Flow Rates of Thermoplastics by Extrusion Plastometer,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The basic copolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use, as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields net chloroform-soluble extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface when tested by methods described in § 176.170(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of this section are not applicable to ethylene-carbon monoxide copolymers complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32422, July 22, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1315" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1315   Ethylene-1, 4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Ethylene-1, 4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymer may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food subject to provisions of this section and of part 174 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section, ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymers (1,4-benzene dicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester, polymerized with 1,4-cyclohexanedimethanol and 1,2-ethanediol) (CAS Reg. No. 25640-14-6) or (1,4-benzenedicarboxylic acid, polymerized with 1,4-cyclohexanedimethanol and 1,2-ethanediol) (CAS Reg. No. 25038-91-9) are basic copolymers meeting the specifications prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, to which may have been added certain optional substances required in their production or added to impart desired physical or technical properties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inherent viscosity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum extractable fractions of the copolymer in the finished form at specified temperatures and times (expressed in micrograms of the terephthaloyl moletles/square centimeter of food-contact surface)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test for orientability
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conditions of use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. <E T="03">Non-oriented</E> ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymer is the reaction product of dimethyl terephthalate or terephthalic acid with a mixture containing 99 to 66 mole percent of ethylene glycol and 1 to 34 mole percent of 1,4-cyclo-hexanedimethanol (70 percent <E T="03">trans</E> isomer, 30 percent <E T="03">cls</E> isomer)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Inherent viscosity of a 0.50 percent solution of the copolymer in phenol-tetrachloroethane (60:40 ratio wt/wt) solvent is not less than 0.669 as determined by using a Wagner viscometer (or equivalent) and calculated from the following equation: Inherent viscosity = (Natural logarithm of (N<E T="52">r</E>)/(c) where: N<E T="52">r</E> = Ratio of flow time of the polymer solution to that of the solvent, and c = concentration of the test solution expressed in grams per 100 milliliters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) 0.23 microgram per square centimeter (1.5 micrograms per square inch) of food-contact surface when extracted with water added at 82.2 °C (180 °F) and allowed to cool to 48.9 °C (120 °F) in contact with the food-contact article</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No test required</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In contact with foods, including foods containing not more than 25 percent (by volume) aqueous alcohol, excluding carbonated beverages and beer. Conditions of hot fill not to exceed 82.2 °C (180 °F), storage at temperatures not in excess of 48.9 °C (120 °F). No thermal treatment in the container.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) 0.23 microgram per square centimeter (1.5 micrograms per square inch) of food-contact surface when extracted with 3 percent (by volume) aqueous acetic acid added at 82.2 °C (180 °F) and allowed to cool to 48.9 °C (120 °F) in contact with the food-contact article</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) 0.08 microgram per square centimeter (0.5 microgram per square inch) of food-contact surface when extracted for 2 hours with <E T="03">n-</E>heptane at 48.9 °C (120 °F). The heptane extractable results are to be divided by a factor of 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) 0.16 microgram per square centimeter (1.0 microgram per square inch) of food-contact surface when extracted for 24 hours with 25 percent (by volume) aqueous ethanol at 48.9 °C (120 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. <E T="03">Oriented</E> ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymer is the reaction product of dimethyl terephthalate or terephthalic acid with a mixture containing 99 to 85 mole percent ethylene glycol and 1 to 15 mole percent of 1,4-cyclohexane-di-methanol (70 percent <E T="03">trans</E> isomer, 30 percent <E T="03">cls</E> isomer)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) 0.23 microgram per square centimeter (1.5 micrograms per square inch) of food-contact surface of the oriented copolymer when extracted with water added at 87.8 °C (190 °F) and allowed to cool to 48.9 °C (120 °F) in contact with the food-contact article</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When extracted with heptane at 65.6 °C (150 °F) for 2 hours: terephthaloyl moieties do not exceed 0.09 microgram per square centimeter (0.60 microgram per square inch) of food-contact surface</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In contact with nonalcoholic foods including carbonated beverages. Conditions of hot fill not exceeding 87.8 °C (190 °F), storage at temperatures not in excess of 48.9 °C (120 °F). No thermal treatment in the container.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) 0.23 microgram per square centimeter (1.5 micrograms per square inch) of food-contact surface of oriented copolymer when extracted with 3 percent (by volume) aqueous acetic acid added at 87.8 °C (190 °F) and allowed to cool to 48.9 °C (120 °F) in contact with the food-contact article</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) 0.08 microgram per square centimeter (0.5 microgram per square inch) of food-contact surface of oriented copolymer when extracted for 2 hours with <E T="03">n-</E>heptane at 48.9 °C (120 °F). The heptane extractable results are to be divided by a factor of 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) 0.23 microgram per square centimeter (1.5 micrograms per square inch) of food-contact surface of oriented copolymer when extracted with 20 percent (by volume) aqueous ethanol heated to 65.6 °C (150 °F) for 20 minutes and allowed to cool to 48.9 °C (120 °F) in contact with the food-contact article</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In contact with foods and beverages containing up to 20 percent (by volume) alcohol. Conditions of thermal treatment in the container not exceeding 65.6 °C (150 °F) for 20 minutes. Storage at temperatures not in excess of 48.9 °C (120 °F).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) 0.23 microgram per square centimeter (1.5 micrograms per square inch) of food-contact surface of oriented copolymer when extracted with 50 percent (by volume) aqueous ethanol at 48.9 °C (120 °F) for 24 hours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In contact with foods and beverages containing up to 50 percent (by volume) alcohol. Conditions of fill and storage not exceeding 48.9 °C (120 °F). No thermal treatment in the container.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymer is the reaction product of dimethyl terephthalate or terephthalic acid with a mixture containing 99 to 95 mole percent of ethylene glycol and 1 to 5 mole percent of 1,4-cyclohexanedimethanol (70 percent <E T="03">trans</E> isomer, 30 percent <E T="03">cis</E> isomer)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No test required</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each corresponding condition of use, must meet specifications described in § 177.1630(f), (g), (h), or (j)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No test required</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each corresponding specification, may be used as a base sheet and base polymer in accordance with conditions of use described in § 177.1630(f), (g), (h), or (j).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Analytical method for determination of extractability.</I> The total extracted terephthaloyl moieties can be determined in the extracts, without evaporation of the solvent, by measuring the ultraviolet (UV) absorbance at 240 nanometers. The spectrophotometer (Varian 635-D, or equivalent) is zeroed with a sample of the solvent taken from the same lot used in the extraction tests. The concentration of the total terephthaloyl moieties in water, 3 percent acetic acid, and in 8 percent aqueous alcohol is calculated as bis(2-hydroxyethyl terephthalate) by reference to standards prepared in the appropriate solvent. Concentration of the terephthaloyl moieties in heptane is calculated as cyclic trimer (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">4</E>CO<E T="52">2</E>C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">4</E>CO<E T="52">2</E>)<E T="52">3</E>, by reference to standards prepared in 95:5 percent (v/v) heptane: tetrahydrofuran.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 39252, June 10, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 24288, June 4, 1982; 49 FR 25629, June 22, 1984; 51 FR 22929, June 24, 1986; 60 FR 57926, Nov. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1320" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1320   Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers may be safely used to produce packaging materials, containers, and equipment intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers consist of basic resins produced by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and ethyl acrylate, to which may have been added certain optional substances to impart desired technological properties to the resin. Subject to any limitations prescribed in this section, the optional substances may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food and food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances the use of which is permitted under applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, prior sanction, or approvals.
</P>
<P>(b) The ethyl acrylate content of the copolymer does not exceed 8 percent by weight unless it is blended with polyethylene or with one or more olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520 or with a mixture of polyethylene and one or more olefin copolymers, in such proportions that the ethyl acrylate content of the blend does not exceed 8 percent by weight, or unless it is used in a coating complying with § 175.300 or § 176.170 of this chapter, in such proportions that the ethyl acrylate content does not exceed 8 percent by weight of the finished coating.
</P>
<P>(c) Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers or the blend shall conform to the specifications prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and shall meet the ethyl acrylate content limits prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, and the extractability limits prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, when tested by the methods prescribed for polyethylene in § 177.1520.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications</I>—(i) <I>Infrared identification.</I> Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers can be identified by their characteristic infrared spectra.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Quantitative determination of ethyl acrylate content.</I> The ethyl acrylate can be determined by the infrared spectra. Prepare a scan from 10.5 microns to 12.5 microns. Obtain a baseline absorbance at 11.6 microns and divide by the plaque thickness to obtain absorbance per mil. From a previously prepared calibration curve, obtain the amount of ethyl acrylate present.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specific gravity.</I> Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers have a specific gravity of not less than 0.920 nor more than 0.935, as determined by ASTM method D1505-68 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Density of Plastics by the Density-Gradient Technique,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers or the blend may be used in contact with food except as a component of articles used for packaging or holding food during cooking provided they meet the following extractability limits:
</P>
<P>(i) Maximum soluble fraction of 11.3 percent in xylene after refluxing and subsequent cooling to 25 °C. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Maximum extractable fraction of 5.5 percent when extracted with <I>n-</I>hexane at 50 °C.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c)(2) of this section are not applicable to ethylene-ethyl acrylate copolymers used in the formulation of adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10108, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1330" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1330   Ionomeric resins.</HEAD>
<P>Ionomeric resins manufactured from either ethylene-methacrylic acid copolymers (and/or their ammonium, calcium, magnesium, potassium, sodium, and/or zinc partial salts), ethylene-methacrylic acid-vinyl acetate copolymers (and/or their ammonium, calcium, magnesium, potassium, sodium, and/or zinc partial salts,), or methacrylic acid polymers with ethylene and isobutyl acrylate (and/or their potassium, sodium and/or zinc partial salts) may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the ethylene-methacrylic acid copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of ethylene and methacrylic acid such that the copolymers contain no more than 20 weight percent of polymer units derived from methacrylic acid, and the ethylene-methacrylic acid-vinyl acetate copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of ethylene, methacrylic acid, and vinyl acetate such that the copolymers contain no more than 15 weight percent of polymer units derived from methacrylic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section, the methacrylic acid copolymers with ethylene and isobutyl acrylate consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of methacrylic acid, ethylene, and isobutyl acrylate such that the copolymers contain no less than 70 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene, no more than 15 weight percent of polymer units derived from methacrylic acid, and no more than 20 weight percent of polymer units derived from isobutyl acrylate. From 20 percent to 70 percent of the carboxylic acid groups may optionally be neutralized to form sodium or zinc salts.
</P>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact article described in paragraph (a) of this section, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface when tested by the methods described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and if the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by that regulation.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In testing the finished food-contact article, use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) The finished food-contact article described in paragraph (b) of this section, when extracted according to the methods listed in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and referenced in this paragraph (d), using the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food as determined from table I of paragraph (f) of this section, shall yield net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For fatty food use.</I> (i) For films of 2 mil (0.002 inches) thickness or less, extractives shall not exceed 0.70 milligram/square inch 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (0.109 milligram/square centimeter) of food-contact surface (<I>n</I>-heptane extractions) when extracted by the abbreviated method cited in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Average of four separate values, no single value of which differs from the average of those values by more then ±10 percent.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) For films of greater than 2 mils (0.002 inch) thickness, extractives shall not exceed 0.40 milligram/square inch 
<SU>1</SU> (0.062 milligram/square centimeter) of food-contact surface (<I>n</I>-heptane extractions) when extracted by the abbreviated method cited in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Alternatively, for films of greater than 2 mils thickness, extractives shall not exceed 0.70 milligram/square inch 
<SU>1</SU> (0.109 milligram/square centimeter) of food-contact surface (<I>n</I>-heptane extractions) when extracted by the equilibrium method cited in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For aqueous foods.</I> (i) The net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives shall not exceed 0.02 milligram/square inch 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>(0.003 milligram/square centimeter) of food-contact surface (water, acetic acid, or ethanol/water extractions) when extracted by the abbreviated method cited in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Average of four separate values, no single value of which differs from the average of those values by more than ±50 percent.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Alternatively, the net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives shall not exceed 0.05 milligram/square inch 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> (0.078 mg/square centimeter) of food-contact surface (water, acetic acid, or ethanol/water extractions) when extracted by the equilibrium method cited in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section. If when exposed to <I>n</I>-heptane, a particular film splits along die lines, thus permitting exposure of both sides of the film to the extracting solvent, the results for that film sample are invalid and the test must be repeated for that sample until no splitting by the solvent occurs. If the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by that regulation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 2 to paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In testing the finished food-contact article, use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Analytical methods</I>—(1) <I>Selection of extractability conditions for ionomeric resins.</I> First ascertain the type of food (table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter) that is being packed or used in contact with the finished food-contact article described in paragraph (a) of this section, and also ascertain the normal conditions of thermal treatment used in packaging or contacting the type of food involved. Using table 2 of § 176.170 (c) of this chapter, select the food-simulating solvent or solvents and the time-temperature test conditions that correspond to the intended use of the finished food-contact article. Having selected the appropriate food-simulating solvent or solvents and time-temperature exaggeration over normal use, follow the applicable extraction procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Selection of extractability conditions for ionomeric resins.</I> Using table I of paragraph (f) of this section ascertain the type of food that is being packed or used in contact with the finished food-contact article described in paragraph (b) of this section, and also ascertain the food-simulating solvent or solvents that correspond to the intended use of the finished food-contact article.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Abbreviated test.</I> For intended use involving food contact at or below 120 °F (49 °C), the appropriate food-simulating solvent is to contact the food-contact film for the time and temperatures as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Solvent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Heptane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F (49 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water, 3% acetic acid, or 8%/50% ethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">120 °F (49 °C).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Hours</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Equilibrium test.</I> For intended use involving food contact at or below 120 °F (49 °C), the appropriate food-simulating solvent is to contact the food-contact film at a temperature of 120 °F until equilibrium is demonstrated.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Solvent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum extraction times (hours)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Heptane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8, 10, 12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water, 3% acetic acid, or 8%/50% ethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72, 96, 120</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>The results from a series of extraction times demonstrate equilibrium when the net chloroform-soluble extractives are unchanging within experimental error appropriate to the method as described in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (2)(i) of this section. Should equilibrium not be demonstrated over the above time series, extraction times must be extended until three successive unchanging values for extractives are obtained. In the case where intended uses involve temporary food contact above 120 °F, the food-simulating solvent is to be contacted with the food-contact article under conditions of time and temperature that duplicate the actual conditions in the intended use. Subsequently the extraction is to be continued for the time period and under the conditions specified in the above table.
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Reagents</I>—(i) <I>Water.</I> All water used in extraction procedures should be freshly demineralized (deionized) distilled water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>n-Heptane.</I> Reagent grade, freshly redistilled before use, using only material boiling at 208 °F (97.8 °C).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Alcohol.</I> 8 or 50 percent (by volume), prepared from undenatured 95 percent ethyl alcohol diluted with demineralized (deionized), distilled water.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Chloroform.</I> Reagent grade, freshly redistilled before use, or a grade having an established, consistently low blank.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Acetic acid.</I> 3 percent (by weight), prepared from glacial acetic acid diluted with demineralized (deionized), distilled water.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Selection of test method.</I> The finished food-contact articles shall be tested either by the extraction cell described in the <I>Journal of the Association of Official Agricultural Chemists,</I> Vol. 47, No. 1, p. 177-179 (February 1964), also described in ASTM method F34-76 (Reapproved 1980), “Standard Test Method for Liquid Extraction of Flexible Barrier Materials,” which are incorporated by reference, or by adapting the in-container methods described in § 175.300(e) of this chapter. Copies of the material incorporated by reference are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, respectively, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Selection of samples.</I> Quadruplicate samples should be tested, using for each replicate sample the number of finished articles with a food-contact surface nearest to 100 square inches.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Determination of amount of extractives</I>—(i) <I>Total residues.</I> At the end of the exposure period, remove the test container or test cell from the oven, if any, and combine the solvent for each replicate in a clean Pyrex (or equivalent) flask or beaker, being sure to rinse the test container or cell with a small quantity of clean solvent. Evaporate the food-simulating solvents to about 100 milliliters in the flask, and transfer to a clean, tared evaporating dish (platinum or Pyrex), washing the flask three times with small portions of solvent used in the extraction procedure, and evaporate to a few milliliters on a nonsparking, low-temperature hotplate. The last few milliliters should be evaporated in an oven maintained at a temperature of 221 °F (105 °C). Cool the evaporating dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh the residues to the nearest 0.1 milligram, <I>e.</I> Calculate the extractives in milligrams per square inch of the container or material surface.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Water, 3 percent acetic acid, and 8 percent and 50 percent alcohol.</I> Milligrams extractives per square inch=<I>e/s.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Heptane.</I> Milligrams extractives per square inch=<I>(e)/(s)(F)</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>e</I> = Milligrams extractives per sample tested.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>s</I> = Surface area tested, in square inches.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>F</I> = Five, the ratio of the amount of extractives removed by heptane under exaggerated time-temperature test conditions compared to the amount extracted by a fat or oil under exaggerated conditions of thermal sterilization and use.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>e</I>′ = Acidified chloroform-soluble extractives residue. <I>e</I>′ is substituted for <I>e</I> in the above equations when necessary (See paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section for method to obtain <I>e</I>′).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>If when calculated by the equations in paragraphs (e)(6)(i)(a) and (b) of this section, the extractives in milligrams per square inch exceed the limitations prescribed in paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section, proceed to paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section (method for determining the amount of acidified chloroform-soluble extractives residue).
</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>Acidified chloroform-soluble extractives residue.</I> Add 3 milliliters of 37 percent ACS reagent grade hydrochloric acid and 3 milliliters of distilled water to the evaporating dish containing the dried and weighed residue, <I>e,</I> obtained in paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section. Mix well so every portion of the residue is wetted with the hydrochloric acid solution. Then add 50 milliliters of chloroform. Warm carefully, and filter through Whatman No. 41 filter paper (or equivalent) in a Pyrex (or equivalent) funnel, collecting the filtrate in a clean separatory funnel. Shake for 1 minute, then draw off the chloroform layer into a clean tared evaporating dish (platinum or Pyrex). Repeat the chloroform extraction, washing the dish, the filter paper, and the separatory funnel with this second portion of chloroform. Add this filtrate to the original filtrate and evaporate the total down to a few milliliters on a low-temperature hotplate. The last few milliliters should be evaporated in an oven maintained at 221 °F. Cool the evaporating dish in a desiccator for 30 minutes and weigh to the nearest 0.1 milligram to get the acidified chloroform-soluble extractives residue, <I>e</I>′. This <I>e</I>′ is substituted for <I>e</I> in the equations in paragraphs (e)(6)(i)(a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The types of food and appropriate solvents are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Types of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Appropriate solvent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Nonacid (pH above 5.0), aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both, and including oil-in-water emulsions of low- or high-fat content</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water, <E T="03">n</E>-heptane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Acidic (pH 5.0 or below), aqueous products; may contain salt or sugar or both, and including oil-in-water emulsions of low- or high-fat content</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">n</E>-heptane, water, 3% acetic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Aqueous, acid or nonacid products containing free oil or fat; may contain salt, and including water-in-oil emulsions of low- or high-fat content</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water, <E T="03">n</E>-heptane, 3% acetic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Dairy products and modifications:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Water, <E T="03">n</E>-heptane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">i. Water-in-oil emulsions, high or low fat
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">ii. Oil-in-water emulsions, high or low fat
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Low moisture fats and oils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">n</E>-heptane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Beverages:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">i. Containing up to 8% alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8% ethanol/water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">ii. Nonalcoholic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3% acetic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">iii. Containing more than 8% alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50% ethanol/water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Bakery products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water, <E T="03">n</E>-heptane.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Dry solids (without free fat or oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No extraction test required.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Dry solids (with free fat or oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">n</E>-heptane.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) The provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section are not applicable to the ionomeric resins that are used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 22916, Apr. 4, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 10108, Mar. 19, 1984; 49 FR 37747, Sept. 26, 1984; 53 FR 44009, Nov. 1, 1988; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1340" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1340   Ethylene-methyl acrylate copolymer resins.</HEAD>
<P>Ethylene-methyl acrylate copolymer resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the ethylene-methyl acrylate copolymer resins consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of ethylene and methyl acrylate such that the copolymers contain no more than 25 weight percent of polymer units derived from methyl acrylate.
</P>
<P>(b) The finished food-contact article, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields net chloroform-soluble extractives (corrected for zinc extractives as zinc oleate) in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface when tested by the methods described in § 176.170(d) of this chapter. If the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by that regulation.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In testing the finished food-contact article, use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) The provisions of this section are not applicable to ethylene-methyl acrylate copolymer resins used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1345" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1345   Ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/ terephthalate copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/terephthalate copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 87365-98-8) identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used, subject to the provisions of this section, as the non-food-contact layer of laminate structures subject to the provisions of § 177.1395, and in blends with polyethylene terephthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/terephthalate copolymer consists of the basic copolymer produced by the catalytic polycondensation of isophthalic acid and terephthalic acid with ethylene glycol and 1,3-bis(2-hydroxyethoxy)benzene such that the finished resin contains between 42 and 48 mole-percent of isophthalic moieties, between 2 and 8 mole-percent of terephthalic moieties, and not more than 10 mole-percent of 1,3-bis(2-hydroxyethoxy)benzene moieties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) <I>Density.</I> Ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/terephthalate copolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section has a density of 1.33±0.02 grams per cubic centimeter measured by ASTM Method D 1505-85 (Reapproved 1990), “Standard Test Method for Density of Plastics by the Density-Gradient Technique,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Softening point.</I> Ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/terephthalate copolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section has a softening point of 63±5 °C as measured by ASTM Method D 1525-87, “Standard Test Method for VICAT Softening Temperature of Plastics,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this material is provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> Ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/terephthalate copolymer, identified in paragraph (a) of this section, may contain optional adjuvant substances required in their production. The optional adjuvants may include substances used in accordance with § 174.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> Copolymer blends described above shall not exceed 30 percent by weight of ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/terephthalate copolymer. The finished blend may be used in contact with food only under conditions of use C through G, as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except that with food identified as Type III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX in § 176.170(c), table 1, the copolymer may be used under condition of use C at temperatures not to exceed 160 °F (71 °C).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 43399, Sept. 21, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 62318, Dec. 5, 1994; 61 FR 14481, Apr. 2, 1996; 62 FR 34628, June 27, 1997; 81 FR 5593, Feb. 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1350" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1350   Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers consist of basic resins produced by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and vinyl acetate to which may have been added certain optional substances to impart desired technological or physical properties to the resin. Subject to any limitations prescribed in this section, the optional substances may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Substances generally recognized as safe in food and food packaging. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Substances the use of which is permitted under applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, prior sanction, or approvals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Substances identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(xxv), (xxvii), (xxx), and (xxxiii) of this chapter, and colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Erucamide as identified in § 178.3860 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(v) Xanthan gum as identified in § 172.695 for use as a thickening agent at a level not to exceed 1 percent by weight of coating solids in aqueous dispersions of ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers, where such copolymers are used only as coatings or a component of coatings.
</P>
<P>(vi) The copolymer of vinylidene fluoride and hexafluoropropene (CAS Reg. No. 9011-17-0), containing 65 to 71 percent fluorine and having a Mooney Viscosity of at least 28, for use as a processing aid at a level not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers.
</P>
<P>(2) Maleic anhydride-grafted ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 28064-24-6) consist of basic resins produced by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and vinyl acetate, followed by reaction with maleic anhydride. Such polymers shall contain not more than 11 percent of polymer units derived from vinyl acetate by weight of total polymer prior to reaction with maleic anhydride, and not more than 2 percent of grafted maleic anhydride by weight of the finished polymer. Optional adjuvant substances that may be added to the copolymers include substances generally recognized as safe in food and food packaging, substances the use of which is permitted under applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, and substances identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(xxv), (xxvii), (xxxiii), and (xxx) of this chapter and colorants for polymers used in accordance with the provisions of § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers, with or without the optional substances described in paragraph (a) of this section, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food, and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of their intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives corrected for zinc as zinc oleate not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of an appropriate sample.
</P>
<P>(2) Maleic anhydride grafted ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers shall have a melt flow index not to exceed 2.1 grams per 10 minutes as determined by ASTM method D 1238-82, “Standard Test Method for Flow Rates of Thermoplastics by Extrusion Plastometer,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Compliance of the melt flow index specification shall be determined using conditions and procedures corresponding to those described in the method as Condition E, Procedure A). The copolymers shall be used in blends with other polymers at levels not to exceed 17 percent by weight of total polymer, subject to the limitation that when contacting food of types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, the polymers shall be used only under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G, described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 2.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section are not applicable to ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers may be irradiated under the following conditions to produce molecular crosslinking of the polymers to impart desired properties such as increased strength and increased ability to shrink when exposed to heat:
</P>
<P>(1) Electron beam source of ionizing radiation at a maximum energy of 3 million electron volts: Maximum absorbed dose not to exceed 150 kiloGray (15 megarads).
</P>
<P>(2) The finished food-contact film shall meet the extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer films may be further irradiated in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (e)(1) of this section: <I>Provided,</I> That the total accumulated radiation dose from both electron beam and gamma ray radiation does not exceed 150 kiloGray (15 megarads).
</P>
<P>(e) Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer films intended for contact with food may be irradiated to control the growth of microorganisms under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Gamma photons emitted from a cobalt-60 sealed source in the dose range of 5-50 kiloGray (0.5-5.0 megarads).
</P>
<P>(2) The irradiated ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer films, when extracted with reagent grade n-heptane (freshly redistilled before use) according to methods described under § 176.170(d)(3) of this chapter, at 75 °F for 30 minutes shall yield total extractives not to exceed 4.5 percent by weight of the film.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 29287, July 7, 1978; 54 FR 35874, Aug. 30, 1989; 55 FR 18595, May 3, 1990; 56 FR 42932, Aug. 30, 1991; 64 FR 47108, Aug. 30, 1999; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5593, Feb. 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1360" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1360   Ethylene-vinyl acetate-vinyl alcohol copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Ethylene-vinyl acetate-vinyl alcohol copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 26221-27-2) may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Ethylene-vinyl acetate-vinyl alcohol copolymers are produced by the partial or complete alcoholysis or hydrolysis of those ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350.
</P>
<P>(1) Those copolymers containing a minimum of 55 percent ethylene and a maximum of 30 percent vinyl alcohol units by weight may be used in contact with foods as described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Those copolymers containing a minimum of 55 percent ethylene and a maximum of 15 percent vinyl alcohol units by weight may be used in contact with foods as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Those copolymers containing 17 to 40 percent ethylene and 60 to 83 percent vinyl alcohol units by weight may be used in contact with foods as described in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The finished food-contact article shall not exceed 0.013 centimeter (0.005 inch) thickness and shall contact foods only of the types identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter in Categories I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII under conditions of use D through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. Film samples of 0.013 centimeter (0.005) inch thickness representing the finished article shall meet the following extractive limitation when tested by ASTM method F34-76 (Reapproved 1980), “Standard Test Method for Liquid Extraction of Flexible Barrier Materials,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) The film when extracted with distilled water at 21 °C (70 °F) for 48 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 0.0047 milligram per square centimeter (0.03 milligram per square inch) of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(2) The film when extracted with 50 percent ethyl alcohol at 21 °C (70 °F) for 48 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 0.0062 milligram per square centimeter (0.04 milligram per square inch) of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact article shall not exceed 0.0076 centimeter (0.003 inch) thickness and shall contact foods only of the types identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter in Categories III, IV-A, VII-A, and IX under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. Film samples of 0.0076 centimeter (0.003 inch) thickness representing the finished articles shall meet the following extractive limitation when tested by ASTM method F34-76 (Reapproved 1980), “Standard Test Method for Liquid Extraction of Flexible Barrier Materials,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b) of this section. The film when extracted with <I>n</I>-heptane at 38 °C (100 °F) for 30 minutes yields total extractives not to exceed 0.0078 milligram per square centimeter (0.05 milligram per square inch) of food-contact surface, after correcting the total extractives by dividing by a factor of five.
</P>
<P>(d) The finished food-contact article shall not exceed 0.018 centimeter (0.007 inch) thickness and may contact all foods, except those containing more than 8 percent alcohol, under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. Film samples of 0.018 centimeter (0.007 inch) thickness representing the finished articles shall meet the following extractive limitation when tested by ASTM method F34-76 (Reapproved 1980), “Standard Test Methods for Liquid Extraction of Flexible Barrier Materials,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b) of this section. The film when extracted with distilled water at 100 °C (212 °F) for 30 minutes yields ethylene-vinyl acetate-vinyl alcohol oligomers not to exceed 0.093 milligram per square centimeter (0.6 milligram per square inch) of food contact surface as determined by a method entitled “Analytical Method of Determining the Amount of EVOH in the Extractives Residue of EVOH Film,” dated March 23, 1987, as developed by the Kuraray Co., Ltd., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200)), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(e) The provisions of this section are not applicable to ethylene-vinyl acetate-vinyl alcohol copolymers used in the food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41531, Sept. 21, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 10108, Mar. 19, 1984; 65 FR 17135, Mar. 31, 2000; 78 FR 14665, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5593, Feb. 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1380" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1380   Fluorocarbon resins.</HEAD>
<P>Fluorocarbon resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, fluorocarbon resins consist of basic resins produced as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Chlorotrifluoroethylene resins produced by the homopolymerization of chlorotrifluoroethylene.
</P>
<P>(2) Chlorotrifluoroethylene-1,1-difluoroethylene copolymer resins produced by copolymerization of chlorotrifluoroethylene and 1,1-difluoroethylene.
</P>
<P>(3) Chlorotrifluoroethylene-1,1-difluoroethylene-tetrafluoroethylene co-polymer resins produced by copolymerization of chlorotrifluoroethylene, 1,1-difluoroethylene, and tetrafluoroethylene.
</P>
<P>(4) Ethylene-chlorotrifluoroethylene copolymer resins produced by copolymerization of nominally 50 mole percent of ethylene and 50 mole percent of chlorotrifluoroethylene. The copolymer shall have a melting point of 239 to 243 °C and a melt index of less than or equal to 20 as determined by ASTM Method D 3275-89 “Standard Specification for E-CTFE-Fluoroplastic Molding, Extrusion, and Coating Materials,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race St., Philadelphia, PA 19013, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) Fluorocarbon resins that are identified in paragraph (a) of this section and that comply with extractive limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section may be used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Fluorocarbon resins that are identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of this section and that comply only with the extractive limitations prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section may be used when such use is limited to articles or components of articles that are intended for repeated use in contact with food or that are intended for one-time use in contact with foods only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, II, VI, VII-B, and VIII.
</P>
<P>(2) Fluorocarbon resins that are identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section and that comply with the extractive limitations prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section may be used only when such use is limited to articles or components of articles that are intended for repeated use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with current good manufacturing practice, those food-contact articles intended for repeated use shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(c) Extractives limitations are applicable to the basic resins in the form of pellets that have been ground or cut into small particles that will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 6 and that will be held on a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 10.
</P>
<P>(1) A 100-gram sample of the resin pellets, when extracted with 100 milliliters of distilled water at reflux temperature for 8 hours, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 0.003 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(2) A 100-gram sample of the resin pellets, when extracted with 100 milliliters of 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water at reflux temperature for 8 hours, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 0.003 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(3) A 100-gram sample of the resin pellets, when extracted with 100 milliliters of <I>n-</I>heptane at reflux temperature for 8 hours, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 185, Jan. 3, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1390" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1390   Laminate structures for use at temperatures of 250 °F and above.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The high-temperature laminates identified in this section may be safely used for food contact at temperatures not exceeding 135 °C (275 °F) unless otherwise specified. These articles are layered constructions that are optionally bonded with adhesives. The interior (food-contact) layer(s) may be separated from the exterior layer(s) by a functional barrier, such as aluminum foil. Upon review of the physical properties of a particular construction, the Food and Drug Administration may consider other layers to serve as functional barriers. This regulation is not intended to limit these constructions as to shape, degree of flexibility, thickness, or number of layers. These layers may be laminated, extruded, coextruded, or fused.
</P>
<P>(b) When containers subject to this regulation undergo heat sterilization to produce shelf-stable foods, certain control measures (in addition to the food additive requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section) are necessary to ensure proper food sterilization and package integrity. Refer to parts 108, 110, 113, and 114 of this chapter for details.
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to the provisions of this paragraph, food-contact articles produced from high-temperature laminates may be safely used to package all food types except those containing more than 8 percent ethyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Polymeric films/layers.</I> Films or layers not separated from food by a functional barrier must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Films/layers may consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Polyolefin resins complying with item 2.2 or 3.2 of the table in § 177.1520(c).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Polymeric resin blends formulated from a base polymer complying with item 2.2 or 3.2 of the table in § 177.1520(c) blended with no more than 10 percent by weight of a copolymer of ethylene and vinyl acetate complying with § 177.1350.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Polymeric resin blends formulated from a base polymer complying with item 2.2 or 3.2 of the table in § 177.1520(c) blended with no more than 38 percent by weight of a homopolymer of isobutylene complying with § 177.1420(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Polyethylene phthalate resins complying with § 177.1630(e)(4)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Nylon MXD-6 resins that comply with item 10.3 of the table in § 177.1500(b) of this chapter when extracted with water and heptane under the conditions of time and temperature specified for condition of use A, as set forth in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Nylon 
<FR>6/12</FR> resins (CAS Reg. No. 25191-04-2) complying with item 13.3 of the table in § 177.1500(b), for use as nonfood-contact layers of laminated films and in rigid multilaminate constructions with polypropylene outer layers. Laminate structures with authorized food-contact materials yield no more than 0.15 milligrams of <I>epsilon</I>-caprolactam and 0.04 milligrams of <I>omega</I>-laurolactam per square inch when extracted with 95 percent ethanol at 121 °C (250 °F) for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Polymeric resins that comply with an applicable regulation in this chapter which permits food type and time/temperature conditions to which the container will be exposed, including sterilization processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjuvants used in these layers must comply with an applicable regulation that permits food type and time/temperature conditions to which the container will be exposed, including sterilization processing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adhesives.</I> The use of adhesives in these containers is optional. Adhesives may be formulated from the following substances, subject to the prescribed limitations:
</P>
<P>(i) Any substance suitable for use in formulating adhesives that complies with an applicable regulation of this chapter which permits food type and time/temperature conditions to which the container will be exposed, including sterilization processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Substances complying with § 175.105 of this chapter may be used in these constructions, provided they are separated from the interior (food-contact) layer(s) by a functional barrier as discussed under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Maleic anhydride adduct of polypropylene complying with § 175.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Polyester-urethane adhesive for use at temperatures not exceeding 121 °C (250 °F) and formulated from the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Polyester-urethanediol resin prepared by the reaction of a mixture of polybasic acids and polyhydric alcohols listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii) of this chapter, 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate (CAS Reg. No. 4098-71-9) and optional trimethoxysilane coupling agents containing amino, epoxy, ether, and/or mercapto groups not to exceed 3 percent by weight of the cured adhesive.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Urethane cross-linking agent comprising not more than 25 percent by weight of the cured adhesive and formulated from 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate (CAS Reg. No. 4098-71-9) adduct of trimethylol propane (Cas Reg. No. 77-99-6) and/or 1,3-bis(isocyanatomethyl) benzene (CAS Reg. No. 25854-16-4) adduct of trimethylol propane.
</P>
<P>(v) Polyester-epoxy-urethane adhesives formulated from the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Polyester resin formed by the reaction of polybasic acids and polyhydric alcohols listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii) of this chapter. Azelaic acid may also be used as a polybasic acid.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Epoxy resin listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(viii)(<I>a</I>) of this chapter and comprising no more than 30 percent by weight of the cured adhesive.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Urethane cross-linking agent comprising no more than 14 percent weight of the cured adhesive and formulated from 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5.5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate cyanurate (CAS Reg. No. 53880-05-0).
</P>
<P>(vi) Polyurethane-polyester resin-epoxy adhesives formulated from the following mixture:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) Polyester-polyurethanediol resins prepared by the reaction of a mixture of polybasic acids and polyhydric alcohols listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii) of this chapter and 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate (CAS Reg. No. 4098-71-9).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Polyester resin formed by the reaction of polybasic acids and polyhydric alcohols listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii) of this chapter. Additionally, azelaic acid and 1,6-hexanediol may also be used as reactants in lieu of a polyhydric alcohol.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Epoxy resin listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(viii)(<I>a</I>) of this chapter and comprising not more than 5 percent by weight of the cured adhesive.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Optional trimethoxy silane curing agents, containing amino, epoxy, ether, or mercapto groups not in excess of 3 percent of the cured adhesive.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Urethane cross-linking agent, comprising not more than 20 percent by weight of the cured adhesive, and formulated from trimethylol propane (CAS Reg. No. 77-99-6) adducts of 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate (CAS Reg. No. 4098-71-9) or 1,3-bis(isocyanatomethyl)benzene (CAS Reg. No. 25854-16-4).
</P>
<P>(vii) Polyester-polyurethane resin-acid dianhydride adhesives for use at temperatures not to exceed 121 °C (250 °F), in contact only with food Types I, II, VIA, VIB, VIIB, and VIII as described in Table I of § 176.170 of this chapter, and formulated from the following mixture:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) Polyesterpolyurethanediol resins prepared by the reaction of a mixture of polybasic acids and polyhydric alcohols listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(vii) of this chapter and 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate (CAS Reg. No. 4098-71-9). Additionally, dimethylol propionic acid and 1,6-hexanediol may be used alone or in combination as reactants in lieu of a polybasic acid and a polyhydric alcohol.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Acid dianhydride formulated from 3a,4,5,7a-tetrahydro-7-methyl-5-(tetrahydro-2,5-dioxo-3-furanyl)-1,3-isobenzofurandione (CAS Reg. No. 73003-90-4), comprising not more than one percent of the cured adhesive.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Urethane cross-linking agent, comprising not more than twelve percent by weight of the cured adhesive, and formulated from trimethylol propane (CAS Reg. No. 77-99-6) adducts of 3-isocyanatomethyl-3,5,5-trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate (CAS Reg. No. 4098-71-9) and/or 1,3-bis(isocyanatomethyl)benzene (CAS Reg. No. 363-48-31).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test specifications.</I> These specifications apply only to materials on the food-contact side of a functional barrier, if present. All tests must be performed on containers made under production conditions. Laminated structures submitted to extraction procedures must maintain complete structural integrity (particularly with regard to delamination) throughout the test.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Nonvolatile extractives.</I> (a) For use at temperatures not to exceed 121 °C (250 °F): The container interior (food-contact side) shall be extracted with deionized distilled water at 121 °C (250 °F) for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The chloroform-soluble fraction of the total nonvolatile extractives for containers using adhesives listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii), (c)(2)(iii), (c)(2)(iv), and (c)(2)(vii) of this section shall not exceed 0.0016 milligram per square centimeter (0.01 milligram per square inch) as determined by a method entitled “Determination of Non-Volatile Chloroform Soluble Residues in Retort Pouch Water Extracts,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The chloroform-soluble fraction of the total nonvolatile extractives for containers using adhesives listed in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section shall not exceed 0.016 milligram per square centimeter (0.10 milligram per square inch) as determined by a method titled “Determination of Non-volatile Chloroform Soluble Residues in Retort Pouch Water Extracts,” which is incorporated by reference in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For use at temperatures not to exceed 135 °C (275 °F): The container interior (food-contact side) shall be extracted with deionized distilled water at 135 °C (275 °F) for 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The chloroform-soluble fraction of the total nonvolatile extractives for containers using no adhesive, or adhesives listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section shall not exceed 0.0020 milligram per square centimeter (0.013 milligram per square inch) as determined by a method titled “Determination of Non-volatile Chloroform Soluble Residues in Retort Pouch Water Extracts,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The chloroform-soluble fraction of the total nonvolatile extractives for containers using adhesives listed in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section shall not exceed 0.016 milligram per square centimeter (0.10 milligram per square inch) as determined by a method titled “Determination of Non-volatile Chloroform Soluble Residues in Retort Pouch Water Extracts,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The chloroform-soluble fraction of the total nonvolatile extractives for containers using adhesives listed in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section shall not exceed 0.008 milligram per square centimeter (0.05 milligram per square inch) as determined by a method entitled, “Determination of Non-volatile Chloroform Soluble Residues in Retort Pouch Water Extracts,” which is incorporated by reference in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Volatiles.</I> Volatile substances employed in the manufacture of high-temperature laminates must be removed to the greatest extent possible in keeping with good manufacturing practice prescribed in § 174.5(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Nylon 12/aluminum foil high-temperature laminates: Subject to the provisions of this paragraph, containers constructed of nylon 12 laminated to aluminum foil may be safely used at temperatures no greater than 250 °F (121 °C) in contact with all food types except those containing more than 8 percent alcohol.
</P>
<P>(1) The container is constructed of aluminum foil to which nylon 12 film is fused. Prior to fusing the nylon 12, the aluminum foil may be optionally precoated with a coating complying with § 175.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Nylon 12 resin complying with § 177.1500 and having an average thickness not to exceed 0.0016 inch (41 microns) may be used as the food-contact surface of the container.
</P>
<P>(3) Container test specifications. On exposure to distilled water at 250 °F (121 °C) for 2 hours, extractives from the food-contact side of the nylon 12 multilayered construction shall not exceed 0.05 milligram per square inch (0.0078 milligram per square centimeter) as total nonvolatile extractives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 2843, Jan. 15, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 49639, Nov. 2, 1982; 48 FR 236, Jan. 4, 1983; 48 FR 15242, Apr. 8, 1983; 48 FR 17347, Apr. 22, 1983; 49 FR 7558, Mar. 1, 1984; 52 FR 33575, Sept. 4, 1987; 53 FR 39084, Oct. 5, 1988; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14481, Apr. 2, 1996; 63 FR 55943, Oct. 20, 1998; 64 FR 4785, Feb. 1, 1999; 64 FR 46272, Aug. 25, 1999; 69 FR 15668, Mar. 26, 2004; 81 FR 5593, Feb. 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1395" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1395   Laminate structures for use at temperatures between 120 °F and 250 °F.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The laminates identified in this section may be safely used at the specified temperatures. These articles are layered structures that are optionally bonded with adhesives. In these articles, the food-contact layer does not function as a barrier to migration of components from non-food-contact layers. The layers may be laminated, extruded, coextruded, or fused.
</P>
<P>(b) Laminate structures may be manufactured from:
</P>
<P>(1) Polymers and adjuvants complying with § 177.1390 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Any polymeric resin listed in these regulations so long as the use of the resin in the structure complies with the conditions of use (food type and time/temperature) specified in the regulation for that resin.
</P>
<P>(3) Optional adjuvant substances used in accordance with § 174.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The following substances in non-food-contact layers only:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene/1,3-phenylene oxyethylene isophthalate/terephthalate copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 87365-98-8) complying with § 177.1345</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only with polyethylene terephthalate as the food-contact layer, complying with § 177.1630 under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. Laminate structures, when extracted with 8 percent ethanol at 150 °F for 2 hours shall not yield <E T="03">m</E>-pheny lenedioxy-O,O′-diethyl isophthalate or cyclic bis(ethylene isophthalate) in excess of 7.8 micrograms/square decimeter (0.5 microgram/square inch) of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon 6/12 resins complying with § 177.1500(b), item 13.2, of this chapter (CAS Reg. No. 25191-04-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use with nonalcoholic foods at temperatures not to exceed 100 °C (212 °F). Laminate structures with authorized food-contact materials yield no more than 0.15 milligram of <E T="03">epsilon</E>-caprolactam and 0.04 milligram of <E T="03">omega</E>-laurolactam per square inch when extracted with water at 100 °C (212 °F) for 5 hours.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon 6/66 resins complying with § 177.1500(b), item 4.2 of this chapter (CAS Reg. 24993-04-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only with:
<br/>1. Nonalcoholic foods at temperatures not to exceed 82.2 °C (180 °F). Laminate structures with authorized food-contact materials yield no more than 0.15 milligram of <E T="03">epsilon</E>-caprolactam per square inch when extracted with water at 82.2 °C (180 °F) for 5 hours.
<br/>2. Nonalcoholic foods at temperatures not to exceed 100 °C (212 °F). Laminate films with authorized food-contact materials yield no more than 0.15 milligram of <E T="03">epsilon</E>-caprolactam per square inch when extracted with water at 100 °C (212 °F) for 5 hours.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon 6/69 resins complying with § 177.1500(b), item 14, of this chapter (CAS Reg. No. 51995-62-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use with nonalcoholic foods under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter. Laminate structures with authorized food-contact materials may contain nylon 6/69 resins provided that the nitrogen content of aqueous extracts of a representative laminate (obtained at 100 °C (212 °F) for 8 hours) does not exceed 15 micrograms per square centimeter (100 micrograms per square inch).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33575, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 19772, May 31, 1988; 57 FR 43399, Sept. 21, 1992; 58 FR 32610, June 11, 1993; 62 FR 53957, Oct. 17, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1400" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1400   Hydroxyethyl cellulose film, water-insoluble.</HEAD>
<P>Water-insoluble hydroxyethyl cellulose film may be safely used for packaging food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Water-insoluble hydroxyethyl cellulose film consists of a base sheet manufactured by the ethoxylation of cellulose under controlled conditions, to which may be added certain optional substances of a grade of purity suitable for use in food packaging as constituents of the base sheet or as coatings applied to impart desired technological properties.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to any limitations prescribed in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, the optional substances used in the base sheet and coating may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances permitted to be used in water-insoluble hydroxyethyl cellulose film by prior sanction or approval and under conditions specified in such sanctions or approval, and substances listed in part 181, subpart B of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances that by any regulation promulgated under section 409 of the act may be safely used as components of water-insoluble hydroxyethyl cellulose film.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances identified in and used in compliance with § 177.1200(c).
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of the water-insoluble hydroxyethyl cellulose film described in this section that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1420" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1420   Isobutylene polymers.</HEAD>
<P>Isobutylene polymers may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, isobutylene polymers are those produced as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Polyisobutylene produced by the homopolymerization of isobutylene such that the finished polymers have a molecular weight of 750,000 (Flory) or higher.
</P>
<P>(2) Isobutylene-isoprene copolymers produced by the copolymerization of isobutylene with not more than 3 molar percent of isoprene such that the finished polymers have a molecular weight of 300,000 (Flory) or higher.
</P>
<P>(3) Chlorinated isobutylene-isoprene copolymers produced when isobutylene-isoprene copolymers (molecular weight 300,000 (Flory) or higher) are modified by chlorination with not more than 1.3 weight-percent of chlorine.
</P>
<P>(b) The polymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the polymers. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the polymers may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, and aluminum chloride.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of this section are not applicable to polyisobutylene used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1430" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1430   Isobutylene-butene copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Isobutylene-butene copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, isobutylene-butene copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of isobutylene with mixtures of <I>n</I>-butenes such that the finished basic copolymers contain not less than 45 weight percent of polymer units derived from isobutylene and meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section when tested by the methods described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Isobutylene-butene copolymers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Molecular weight (range)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Viscosity (range)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum bromine value
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Used as release agents in petroleum wax complying with § 178.3710 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 to 5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 to 20,000 seconds Saybolt at 200 °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Used as plasticizers in polyethylene or polypropylene complying with § 177.1520, and in polystyrene complying with § 177.1640</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 to 5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 to 20,000 seconds Saybolt at 200 °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Used as components of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.300, 176.170, 176.210, 177.2260(d)(2), 177.2800, and 178.3570 (provided that addition to food does not exceed 10 parts per million), or § 176.180 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 to 5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 to 20,000 seconds Saybolt at 200 °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Used as production aids in the manufacture of expanded (foamed) polystyrene articles complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 to 5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 20,000 seconds Saybolt at 200 °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Used in release coatings on backings or linings for pressure-sensitive adhesive labels complying with § 175.125 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 to 5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 20,000 seconds Saybolt at 200 °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The analytical methods for determining whether isobutylene-butene copolymers conform to the specifications in paragraph (b) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Molecular weight.</I> Molecular weight shall be determined by American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) method D2503-82, “Standard Test Method for Molecular Weight (Relative Molecular Mass) of Hydrocarbons by Thermoelectric Measurement of Vapor Pressure,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Viscosity.</I> Viscosity shall be determined by ASTM method D445-74, “Test for Kinematic Viscosity of Transparent and Opaque Liquids,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maximum bromine value.</I> Maximum bromine value shall be determined by ASTM method D1492-78, “Standard Test Method for Bromine Index of Aromatic Hydrocarbons by Coulometric Titration,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to isobutylene-butene copolymers used as provided under § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11641, Apr. 10, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 36175, July 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1440" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1440   4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin resins minimum molecular weight 10,000.</HEAD>
<P>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlo-rohydrin resins having a minimum molecular weight of 10,000 may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) 4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-ep-ichlorohydrin resins consist of basic resins produced by the condensation of equimolar amounts of 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol and epichlorohydrin terminated with phenol, to which may have been added certain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the resins.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the resins may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 300 p.p.m. as residual solvent in finished resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 1,000 p.p.m. as residual solvent in finished resin.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) 4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-ep-ichlorohydrin resins shall meet the following nonvolatile extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) Maximum extractable nonvolatile fraction of 2 parts per million when extracted with distilled water at 70 °C for 2 hours, using a volume-to-surface ratio of 2 milliliters per square inch.
</P>
<P>(2) Maximum extractable nonvolatile fraction of 3 parts per million when extracted with <I>n-</I>heptane at 70 °C for 2 hours, using a volume-to-surface ratio of 2 milliliters per square inch.
</P>
<P>(3) Maximum extractable nonvolatile fraction of 6 parts per million when extracted with 10 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water at 70 °C for 2 hours, using a volume-to-surface ratio of 2 milliliters per square inch.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to 4,4′-isopropylidene-diphenol-epichlorohydrin resins listed in other sections of subchapter B of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1460" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1460   Melamine-formaldehyde resins in molded articles.</HEAD>
<P>Melamine-formaldehyde resins may be safely used as the food-contact surface of molded articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, melamine-formaldehyde resins are those produced when 1 mole of melamine is made to react with not more than 3 moles of formaldehyde in water solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The resins may be mixed with refined woodpulp and the mixture may contain other optional adjuvant substances which may include the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization reaction control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phthalic acid anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as lubricant.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The molded melamine-formaldehyde articles in the finished form in which they are to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 175.300(d) of this chapter, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 42933, Aug. 30, 1991; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1480" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1480   Nitrile rubber modified acrylonitrile-methyl acrylate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Nitrile rubber modified acrylonitrile-methyl acrylate copolymers identified in this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for food-contact use under conditions of use D, E, F, or G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, nitrile rubber modified acrylonitrile-methyl acrylate copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the graft copolymerization of 73-77 parts by weight of acrylonitrile and 23-27 parts by weight of methyl acrylate in the presence of 8-10 parts by weight of butadiene-acrylonitrile copolymers containing approximately 70 percent by weight of polymer units derived from butadiene.
</P>
<P>(b) The nitrile rubber modified acrylonitrile-methyl acrylate basic copolymers meet the following specifications and extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) Nitrogen content is in the range 16.5-19 percent as determined by Kjeldahl analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Intrinsic viscosity in acetonitrile at 25 °C is not less than 0.29 deciliter per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) Residual acrylonitrile monomer content is not more than 11 parts per million as determined by gas chromatography.
</P>
<P>(iv) Acetonitrile-soluble fraction after refluxing the base polymer in acetonitrile for 1 hour is not greater than 95 percent by weight of the basic copolymers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The following extractive limitations are determined by an infrared spectrophotometric method titled, “Infrared Spectrophotometric Determination of Polymer Extracted from Borex ® 210 Resin Pellets,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>Copies are applicable to the basic copolymers in the form of particles of a size that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 6 and that will be held on a U.S. standard sieve No. 10:
</P>
<P>(i) Extracted copolymer not to exceed 2.0 parts per million in aqueous extract obtained when a 100-gram sample of the basic copolymers is extracted with 250 milliliters of demineralized (deionized) water at reflux temperature for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) Extracted copolymer not to exceed 0.5 part per million in <I>n-</I>heptane extract obtained when a 100-gram sample of the basic copolymers is extracted with 250 milliliters of reagent grade <I>n-</I>heptane at reflux temperature for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(c) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section are not authorized to be used to fabricate beverage containers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 48544, Sept. 23, 1977; 47 FR 11843, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 16775, Apr. 20, 1982; 49 FR 10109, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14481, Apr. 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1500" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1500   Nylon resins.</HEAD>
<P>The nylon resins listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used to produce articles intended for use in processing, handling, and packaging food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The nylon resins are manufactured as described in this paragraph so as to meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section when tested by the methods described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Nylon 66 resins are manufactured by the condensation of hexamethylene-diamine and adipic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Nylon 610 resins are manufactured by the condensation of hexamethylene-diamine and sebacic acid.
</P>
<P>(3) Nylon 66/610 resins are manufactured by the condensation of equal-weight mixtures of nylon 66 salts and nylon 610 salts.
</P>
<P>(4) Nylon 6/66 resins manufactured by the condensation and polymerization of Nylon 66 salts and <I>epsilon</I>-caprolactam.
</P>
<P>(5) Nylon 11 resins are manufactured by the condensation of 11-aminoundecanoic acid.
</P>
<P>(6) Nylon 6 resins are manufactured by the polymerization of <I>epsilon-</I>caprolactam.
</P>
<P>(7) Nylon 66T resins are manufactured by the condensation of hexamethyl-enediamine, adipic acid, and terephthalic acid such that composition in terms of ingredients is 43.1±0.2 weight percent hexamethyl-enediamine, 35.3±1.2 weight percent adipic acid, and 21.6±1.2 weight percent terephthalic acid.
</P>
<P>(8) Nylon 612 resins are manufactured by the condensation of hexamethylenediamine and dodecanedioic acid.
</P>
<P>(9) Nylon 12 resins are manufactured by the condensation of <I>omega-</I>laurolactam. 
</P>
<P>(10)(i) Impact modified Nylon MXD-6 resins (CAS Reg. No. 59655-05-9) manufactured by the condensation of adipic acid, 1,3-benzenedimethanamine, and <I>alpha-</I>(3-aminopropyl)-<I>omega-</I>(3-amino-propoxy)poly- oxyethylene under such conditions that the <I>alpha</I>-(3-amino-propyl)-<I>omega-</I>(3-aminopropoxy) polyoxyethylene monomer content does not exceed 7 percent by weight of the finished resin.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nylon MXD-6 resins (CAS Reg. No. 25718-70-1) manufactured by the condensation of adipic acid and 1,3-benzenedimethanamine.
</P>
<P>(11) Nylon 12T resins are manufactured by the condensation of <I>omega-</I>laurolactam (CAS Reg. No. 0947-04-6), isophthalic acid (CAS Reg. No. 0121-91-5), and bis(4-amino-3-methylcycl-ohexyl)methane (CAS Reg. No. 6864-37-5) such that the composition in terms of ingredients is 34.4±1.5 weight percent <I>omega</I>-laurolactam, 26.8±0.4 weight percent isophthalic acid, and 38.8±0.5 weight percent bis(4-amino-3-methylcyclohexyl)-methane.
</P>
<P>(12) Nylon 6I/6T resins (CAS Reg. No. 25750-23-6) are manufactured by the condensation of hexamethylenediamine, terephthalic acid, and isophthalic acid such that 65 to 80 percent of the polymer units are derived from hexamethylene isophthalamide.
</P>
<P>(13)(i) Nylon 6/12 resins (CAS Reg. No. 25191-04-2) are manufactured by the copolymerization of a 1 to 1 ratio by weight of <I>epsilon</I>-caprolactam and <I>omega</I>-laurolactam.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nylon 6/12 resins (CAS Reg. No. 25191-04-2) are manufactured by the copolymerization of a ratio of at least 80 weight percent of <I>epsilon</I>-caprolactam and no more than 20 weight percent of <I>omega</I>-laurolactam.
</P>
<P>(14) Nylon 6/69 resins (CAS Reg. No. 51995-62-1) are manufactured by the condensation of 49.5 + 0.5 weight percent <I>epsilon</I>-caprolactam, 19.4 + 0.2 weight percent hexamethylenediamine and 31.2 + 0.3 weight percent azelaic acid.
</P>
<P>(15) Nylon 46 resins (CAS Reg. No. 50327-77-0) are manufactured by the condensation of 1,4-butanediamine and adipic acid.
</P>
<P>(16) Nylon resins PA 6-3-T (CAS Registry No. 26246-77-5) are manufactured by the condensation of 50 mol percent 1,4-benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester and 50 mol percent of an equimolar mixture of 2,2,4-trimethyl-1,6-hexanediamine and 2,4,4-trimethyl-1,6-hexanediamine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications:</I> 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nylon resins
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Specific gravity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Melting point
<br/>(degrees Fahrenheit)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Solubility
<br/>in boiling
<br/>4.2<E T="03">N</E> HC1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Viscosity No.
<br/>(mL/g)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum extractable fraction
<br/>in selected solvents
<br/>(expressed in percent
<br/>by weight of resin)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">95
<br/>percent ethyl alcohol
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ethyl acetate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Benzene
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Nylon 66 resins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">475-495</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Nylon 610 resins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">405-425</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insoluble after 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1 Nylon 66/610 resins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">375-395</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.1 Nylon 6/66 resins, <E T="03">epsilon-</E>caprolactam monomer content not to exceed 0.7 percent by weight</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">440-460</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.2 Nylon 6/66 resins with combined caprolactam content greater than 60 percent and residual <E T="03">epsilon-</E>caprolactam monomer content not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight. For use only as specified in § 177.1395 of this chapter (CAS Reg. No. 24993-04-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">380-425</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.1 Nylon 11 resins for use in articles intended for 1-time use or repeated use in contact with food</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">355-375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insoluble after 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.2 Nylon 11 resins for use only:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">355-375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">a. In articles intended for repeated use in contact with food
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">b. In side-seam cements for articles intended for 1-time use in contact with food and which are in compliance with § 175.300 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.1 Nylon 6 resins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.15±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">392-446</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.2 Nylon 6 resins for use only in food-contact films having an average thickness not to exceed 0.001 in</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.15±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">392-446</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Nylon 66T resins for use only in food-contact films having an average thickness not to exceed 0.001 in</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">482-518</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insoluble after 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Nylon 612 resins for use only in articles intended for repeated use in contact with food at temperatures not to exceed 212 °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">406-420</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Nylon 12 resins for use only:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.01±.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">335-355</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a. In food-contact films having an average thickness not to exceed 0.0016 inch intended for use in contact with nonalcoholic food under the conditions of use A (sterilization not to exceed 30 minutes at a temperature not to exceed 250 °F), and B through H of table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except as provided in § 177.1390(d)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">b. In coatings intended for repeated use in contact with all food types described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except those containing more than 8 percent alcohol, under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.1 Nylon MXD-6 and impact modified Nylon MXD-6 film having an average thickness not to exceed 40 microns (0.0016 inch) for use in processing, handling, and packaging of food of types V and IX listed in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use C, D, E, F, G, and H in table 2 of § 176.170(C) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21±0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">437-491</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.2 Impact modified Nylon MXD-6 resins for use as polymer use as polymer modifiers in Nylon 6 resin films complying with paragraph (a)(6) of this section, at levels not to exceed 13 percent by weight of films whose average thickness will not exceed 15 microns (0.6 mils). The finished film is used for packaging, transporting, or holding food, excluding beverages containing more than 8 percent alcohol (by volume) at temperatures not to exceed 49 °C (120 °F) (conditions of use E, F, and G in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21±0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">437-491</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.3 Nylon MXD-6 resins for use only as nonfood-contact layers of: (1) Multilayer films and (2) rigid plastic containers composed of polypropylene food-contact and exterior layers, as defined in § 177.1520(c), item 1.1(a) and 1.1(b), of this chapter. The finished food-contact laminate, in the form in which it contacts food, when extracted with the food simulating solvent or solvents characterizing the conditions of the intended use as determined from Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall yield not more than 0.5 micrograms of <E T="03">m</E>-xylylenediamine-adipic acid cyclic monomer per square inch of food-contact surface, when the food simulating solvent is analyzed by any appropriate, properly validated method</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22±0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">455-470</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Nylon 12T resins for use in contact with all types of food except those containing more than 8 percent alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06±0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insoluble after 1 hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Nylon 6I/6T resins for use in contact with all types of food except alcoholic beverages containing more than 8 percent alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.207±0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insoluble after 1 hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13.1 Nylon 6/12 resins for use only in food-contact films having an average thickness not to exceed 51 microns (0.002 inch). The finished film is intended to contact all foods except those containing more than 8 percent ethanol under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H listed in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06±0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260-285</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13.2 Nylon 6/12 resins with residual <E T="03">epsilon</E>-caprolactam not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight and residual <E T="03">omega</E>-laurolactam not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight. For use only as specified in § 177.1395 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10±0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">380-400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13.3 Nylon 6/12 resins with residual <E T="03">epsilon</E>-caprolactam not to exceed 0.8 percent by weight and residual <E T="03">omega</E>-laurolactam not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight. For use only as specified in § 177.1390 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13 ±0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400-420</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Nylon 6/69 resins for use only as specified in 21 CFR 177.1395 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09±0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270-277</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;140 using the method described in § 177.1500(c)(5)(ii) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Nylon 46 resins for use only in food-contact membrane filters intended for repeated use. The finished membrane filter is intended to contact beverages containing no more than 13 percent alcohol, under conditions of use E, F, and G listed in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.18±0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">551-592</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolves in 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Nylon resins PA 6-3-T for repeated-use (excluding bottles) in contact with food of type VIA and VIB described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use D through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter with a hot-fill temperature limitation of 40 °C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12±0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insoluble after 1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Nylon modifier</I>—(1) <I>Identity.</I> Copolyester-graft-acrylate copolymer is the substance 1,4-benzenedicarboxylic acid, polymer with 1,4-butanediol, (<I>E</I>)-2-butenedioic acid, 1,2-ethanediol, ethyl 2-propenoate, hexanedioic acid and 2-propenoic acid, graft (CAS Reg. No. 175419-23-5), and is derived from grafting of 25 weight percent of acrylic polymer with 75 weight percent of copolyester. The copolyester is polymerized terephthalic acid (55 mol%), adipic acid (40 mol%), and fumaric acid (5 mol%) with ethylene glycol (40 mol%) and 1,4-butanediol (60 mol%). The acrylic polymer is made from acrylic acid (70 mol%) and ethyl acrylate (30 mol%).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specifications.</I> The finished copolyester-graft-acrylate copolymer shall meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Weight average molecular weight 15,000-35,000,
</P>
<P>(ii) pH 7.2 to 8.2, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Glass transition temperature −15 to −25 °C.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (i) Copolyester-graft acrylate copolymer described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is intended to improve the adhesive qualities of film. It is limited for use as a modifier of Nylon 6 and Nylon 6 modified with Nylon MXD-6 at a level not to exceed 0.17 weight percent of the additive in the finished film. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The finished film is used for packaging, transporting, or holding all types of foods under conditions of use B through H, described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except that in the case of Nylon 6 films modified with Nylon MXD-6 (complying with § 177.1500, item 10.2), the use complies with the conditions of use specified in table 2.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Extractives.</I> Food contact films described in paragraphs (c)(1) of this section, when extracted with solvent or solvents prescribed for the type of food and under conditions of time and temperature specified for the intended use, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per inch squared of food-contact surface when tested by the methods described in § 176.170(d) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The substances employed in the production of Nylon modifiers listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may include:
</P>
<P>(A) Substances generally recognized as safe for use in food and food packaging; 
</P>
<P>(B) Substances subject to prior sanction or approval for use in Nylon resins and used in accordance with such sanctions or approval; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Optional substances required in the production of the additive identified in this paragraph and other optional substances that may be required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Analytical methods</I>—(1) <I>Specific gravity.</I> Specific gravity shall be determined by weighing a 1-gram to 5-gram sample first in air and then in freshly boiled distilled water at 23 °C±2 °C.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Melting point.</I> The melting point shall be determined as follows: Use a hot-stage apparatus. The use of crossed nicol prisms with a microscope hot stage and reading of the thermometer when the birefringence disappears increases the accuracy. If the crossed nicol apparatus is not available, use the lowest temperature at which the sample becomes transparent or the sharp edges or corners of the sample become rounded as the melting point. In case of doubt as to the onset of melting, the sample is prodded with a sharp instrument. If it sticks to the heating block, it is considered to have melted. If the melting point is low, dry the sample in an oven at 85 °C for 24 hours in a nitrogen atmosphere then repeat the test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Solubility in boiling 4.2N HCl.</I> The test shall be run on a sample approximately the size of a 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch cube in at least 25 milliliters of 4.2 normal hydrochloric acid.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maximum extractable fraction in selected solvents.</I> The procedure for determining the maximum extractable fraction of the nylon resins in selected solvents is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Film should be cut with ordinary scissors into pieces of a convenient size such as 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch squares, for the extraction tests described in this section. The granules of nylon molding powders are in the proper form for the extraction tests. Samples of fabricated articles such as pipe, fittings, and other similar articles must be cut to approximately the size of the molding powder. This can be done conveniently by using a small-scale commercial plastics granulator and cutting the sample through a screen having 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch mesh. Fine particles should be separated from the cut resin by screening through a 20-mesh screen. The material retained on the screen is suitable for the extraction tests.
</P>
<P>(ii) The organic solvents must be of American Chemical Society analytical reagent grade; distilled water is used. Approximately 30 grams of the prepared sample is weighed to the nearest milligram. The weighed resin is transferred to a 500-milliliter round-bottom flask equipped with a reflux condenser. Approximately 300-milliliters of solvent is added to the flask and the contents refluxed gently for 8 hours with a heating mantle. The solvent is then filtered off immediately while still hot, using a Buchner funnel approximately 5 inches in diameter, a suction flask, and a hardened filter paper (Whatman No. 50 or equivalent). The paper is wet with the solvent and a slight suction applied just before starting the filtration. The resin is washed twice with approximately 100-milliliter portions of solvent and the combined filtrate and washings are reduced to approximately 25 milliliters by evaporation at reduced pressure (50 millimeters to 100 millimeters of mercury, absolute), heating as necessary. The contents of the flask are transferred to an evaporation dish (which has been held in a vacuum desiccator over anhydrous calcium sulfate until constant weight has been attained) and carefully evaporated to dryness. The weight of the solid residue is determined by difference after holding in a vacuum desiccator over anhydrous calcium sulfate until constant weight has been attained. The percent of solids extracted is calculated by dividing the weight of the solid residue by the weight of the sample and multiplying by 100.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Viscosity number (VN).</I> (i) The viscosity number (VN) for Nylon 6/12 resin in a 96 percent sulfuric acid solution (5 milligrams resin per milliliter) shall be determined at 25 °C (77 °F) by method ISO 307-1984(E), “Plastics-Polyamides-Determination of Viscosity Number,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) The viscosity number (VN) for Nylon 6/69 and Nylon PA-6-3-T resins in a 99 percent cresol solution (5 milligrams resin per milliliter) shall be determined at 25 °C (77 °F) by method ISO 307-1984(E), “Plastics-Polyamides-Determination of Viscosity Number,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 177.1500, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1520" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1520   Olefin polymers.</HEAD>
<P>The olefin polymers listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, olefin polymers are basic polymers manufactured as described in this paragraph, so as to meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, when tested by the methods described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Polypropylene consists of basic polymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of propylene.
</P>
<P>(ii) Propylene homopolymer consists of basic polymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of propylene with a metallocene catalyst.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Polyethylene consists of basic polymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of ethylene.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fumaric acid-grafted polyethylene (CAS Reg. No. 26877-81-6) consists of basic polymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of ethylene followed by reaction with fumaric acid in the absence of free radical initiators. Such polymers shall contain grafted fumaric acid at levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the finished polymer.
</P>
<P>(3) Olefin basic copolymers consist of basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of:
</P>
<P>(i) Two or more of the 1-alkenes having 2 to 8 carbon atoms. Such olefin basic copolymers contain not less than 96 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene and/or propylene, except that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and hexene-1 or ethylene and octene-1 shall contain not less than 90 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and hexene-1 shall contain not less than 80 but not more than 90 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and pentene-1 shall contain not less than 90 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of ethylene and octene-1 shall contain not less than 50 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and 4-methylpentene-1 shall contain not less than 89 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>)(<I>1</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of two or more of the monomers ethylene, propylene, butene-1, 2-methylpropene-1, and 2,4,4-trimethylpentene-1 shall contain not less than 85 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene and/or propylene;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of propylene and butene-1 shall contain greater than 15 but not greater than 35 weight percent of polymer units derived from butene-1 with the remainder being propylene.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Olefin basic terpolymers manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene, hexene-1, and either propylene or butene-1, shall contain not less than 85 weight percent polymer units derived from ethylene.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Olefin basic copolymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of ethylene and octene-1, or ethylene, octene-1, and either hexene-1, butene-1, propylene, or 4-methylpentene-1 shall contain not less than 80 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene.
</P>
<P>(ii) 4-Methylpentene-1 and 1-alkenes having from 6 to 18 carbon atoms. Such olefin basic copolymers shall contain not less than 95 molar percent of polymer units derived from 4-methylpentene-1, except that copolymers manufactured with 1-alkenes having from 12 to 18 carbon atoms shall contain not less than 97 molar percent of polymer units derived from 4-methylpentene-1; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Ethylene and propylene that may contain as modifiers not more than 5 weight-percent of total polymer units derived by copolymerization with one or more of the following monomers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>5-Ethylidine-2-norbornene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-Methylene-2-norbornene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Ethylene and propylene that may contain as a modifier not more than 4.5 weight percent of total polymer units derived by copolymerization with 1,4-hexadiene.
</P>
<P>(v) Ethylene and butene-1 copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 25087-34-7) that shall contain not less than 80 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene.
</P>
<P>(vi) Olefin basic copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 61615-63-2) manufactured by the catalytic copolymerization of ethylene and propylene with 1,4-hexadiene, followed by reaction with fumaric acid in the absence of free radical initiators. Such polymers shall contain not more than 4.5 percent of polymer units deriving from 1,4-hexadiene by weight of total polymer prior to reaction with fumaric acid and not more than 2.2 percent of grafted fumaric acid by weight of the finished polymer.
</P>
<P>(vii) Ethylene and 2-norbornene (CAS Reg. No. 26007-43-2) copolymers that shall contain not less than 30 and not more than 70 mole percent of polymer units derived from 2-norbornene.
</P>
<P>(4) Poly(methylpentene) consists of basic polymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of 4-methylpentene-1. 
</P>
<P>(5) Polyethylene graft copolymers consist of polyethylene complying with item 2.2 of paragraph (c) of this section which subsequently has 3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydromethyl-4,7-methanoisobenzofuran-1,3-dione grafted onto it at a level not to exceed 1.7 percent by weight of the finished copolymer.
</P>
<P>(6) Ethylene-maleic anhydride copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 9006-26-2) containing no more than 2 percent by weight of copolymer units derived from maleic anhydride.
</P>
<P>(b) The basic olefin polymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic olefin polymers. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the basic olefin polymers or finished food-contact articles may include substances permitted for such use by applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food and food packaging, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aromatic petroleum hydrocarbon resin, hydrogenated (CAS Reg. No. 88526-47-0), produced by the catalytic polymerization of aromatic-substituted olefins from distillates of cracked petroleum stocks with a boiling point no greater than 220 °C (428 °F), and the subsequent catalytic hydrogenation of the resulting aromatic petroleum hydrocarbon resin, having a minimum softening point of 110 °C (230 °F), as determined by ASTM Method E 28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring-and-Ball Apparatus,” and a minimum aniline point of 107 °C (225 °F), as determined by ASTM Method D 611-82, “Standard Test Methods for Aniline Point and Mixed Aniline Point of Petroleum Products and Hydrocarbon Solvents,” both of which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant at levels not to exceed 25 percent by weight in blends with polypropylene complying with paragraph (c), item 1.1 of this section. The finished polymer may be used in contact with food Types I, II, IV-B, VI-A through VI-C, VII-B, and VIII identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; and with food Types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and under conditions of use D through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,5-Dimethyl-2,5-di(<E T="03">tert</E>-butylperoxy)hexane (CAS Reg. No. 78-63-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an initiator in the production of propylene homopolymer complying with § 177.1520(c), item 1.1 and olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c), items 3.1 and 3.2 and containing not less than 75 weight percent of polymer units derived from propylene, provided that the maximum concentration of <E T="03">tert</E>-butyl alcohol in the polymer does not exceed 100 parts per million, as determined by a method titled “Determination of <E T="03">tert</E>-Butyl Alcohol in Polypropylene,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E> 


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl methacrylate/butyl acrylate-grafted polypropylene copolymer containing methyl methacrylate/butyl acrylate-grafted polypropylene (CAS Reg. No. 121510-09-6), methyl methacrylate/butyl acrylate copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 25852-37-3), methyl methacrylate homopolymer (CAS Reg. No. 9011-14-7), and polypropylene (CAS Reg. No. 9003-07-0), resulting from the reaction of a mixture of methyl methacrylate and butyl acrylate with polypropylene. The finished product contains no more than 55 percent by weight of polymer units derived from methyl methacrylate and butyl acrylate as determined by a method entitled, “Determination of the Total Acrylic in PP-MMA/BA Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 6 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with paragraph (c) of this section, items 1.1, 3.1a, 3.2a, and 3.2b, where the copolymers complying with items 3.1a, 3.2a, and 3.2b contain not less than 85 weight-percent of polymer units derived from propylene.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum hydrocarbon resins (cyclopentadiene-type), hydrogenated (CAS Reg. No. 68132-00-3) produced by the thermal polymerization of dicyclopentadiene and cyclodiene codimers (consisting of a mixture of cyclopentadiene, methyl cyclopentadiene, and C<E T="52">4</E>-C<E T="52">5</E> acyclic dienes), followed by hydrogenation and having a ring-and-ball softening point of 119 °C minimum as determined by ASTM Method E 28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring-and-Ball Apparatus,” and a minimum viscosity of 3,000 centipoise, measured at 160 °C, as determined by ASTM Method D 3236-88, “Standard Test Method for Apparent Viscosity of Hot Melt Adhesives and Coating Materials,” both of which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or from the Center For Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant at levels not to exceed 30 percent by weight in blends with: (1) Polypropylene complying with paragraph (c), item 1.1 of this section, or (2) a copolymer of propylene and ethylene containing not less than 94 weight percent propylene and complying with paragraph (c), item 3.2 of this section. The average thickness of the food-contact film is not to exceed 0.1 millimeter (0.004 inch). The finished polymer may be used in contact with (1) Food types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; and (2) food types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and under conditions of use D through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polymethylsilsesquioxane (CAS Reg. No. 68554-70-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surface lubricant or anti-blocking agent in films.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(vinylidene fluoride) homopolymer (CAS Reg. No. 24937-79-9), having a melt viscosity of 6 to 37 kilopoise at a shear rate of 100<E T="51">−1</E> seconds at 232 °C as determined by ASTM Method D 3835-79 (Reapproved 1983), “Standard Test Method for Rheological Properties of Thermoplastics with a Capillary Rheometer” using a capillary of 15:1 L/D, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a processing aid in the production of olefin polymers complying with paragraph (c) of this section at levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the polymer. The finished polymers may be used only under the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, under conditions of use B though H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylene-grafted polydimethylsiloxane (CAS Reg. No. 68937-54-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an extrusion aid in the production of extruded olefin polymers that comply with § 177.1520(c) at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of the polymer. The finished polymer is used in contact with foods under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triisopropanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 122-20-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a Zeigler-Natta-type catalyst deactivator and antioxidant in the production of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c), items 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3, and having a minimum density of 0.94 grams per cubic centimeter, and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c), items 3.1 and 3.2, for use in contact with all foods under the following conditions of use: (a) films with a maximum thickness of 0.102 millimeter (0.004 inch) may be used under conditions A through H defined in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; and (b) articles with thickness greater than 0.102 millimeter (0.004 inch) may be used under conditions C through G defined in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trimethylpyridine and dimethylpyridine mixture having percent by weight composition as follows: 2,4,6-trimethylpyridine (CAS Reg. No. 108-75-8), not less than 60 percent; 2,3,6-trimethylpyridine (CAS Reg. No. 1462-84-6), not more than 27 percent; 3,5-dimethylpyridine (CAS Reg. No. 591-22-0), not more than 12 percent; and other dimethylpyridines, not more than 6 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant substance in the production of propylene homopolymers complying with items 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3, and propylene copolymers complying with items 3.1, and 3.2 of paragraph (c) of this section provided that the adjuvant is used at a level not to exceed 20 parts per million by weight of the olefin polymers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinylidene fluoride-hexafluoropropene copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 9011-17-0) having a fluorine content of 65 to 71 percent and a Mooney viscosity of at least 28, as determined by a method entitled “Mooney Viscosity,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an extrusion aid in the production of extruded olefin polymers at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the polymer. The finished polymers may be used only under the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, under conditions of use B through H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinylidene fluoride-hexafluoropropene copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 9011-17-0), having a vinylidene fluoride content of not less than 87 percent but less than 100 percent by weight and a melt viscosity of 12 to 27 kilopoise at a shear rate of 100<E T="51">−1</E> seconds at 232 °C as determined by ASTM Method D 3835-79 (Reapproved 1983), “Standard Test Method for Rheological Properties of Thermoplastics with a Capillary Rheometer” using a capillary of 15:1 L/D, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a processing aid in the production of olefin polymers complying with paragraph (c) of this section at levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the polymer. The finished polymers may be used only under the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, under conditions of use B though H.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications:</I> 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Olefin polymers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Density
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Melting Point (MP) or softening point (SP) (<E T="03">Degrees Centigrade</E>)—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum extractable fraction (expressed as percent by weight of the polymer) in <E T="03">N</E>-hexane at specified temperatures
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum soluble fraction (expressed as percent by weight of polymer) in xylene at specified temperatures
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.1a. Polypropylene described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.880-0.913</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MP: 160°-180 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 pct at reflux temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8 pct at 25 °C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.1b. Propylene homopolymer described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.880-0.913-</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MP: 150°-180 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 pct at reflux temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8 pct at 25 °C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.2. Polypropylene, noncrystalline; for use only to plasticize polyethylene described under items 2.1 and 2.2 of this table, provided that such plasticized polymers meet the maximum extractable fraction and maximum soluble fraction specifications prescribed for such basic polyethylene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80-0.88
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.3. Polypropylene, noncrystalline, for use only: To plasticize polypropylene described by item 1.1 of this table, provided that such plasticized polymers meet the maximum extractable fraction and maximum soluble fraction specifications prescribed for such basic polypropylene, and further provided that such plasticized polypropylene contacts food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII; and for use at levels not to exceed 50 pct by weight of any mixture employed as a food-contact coating provided such coatings contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80-0.88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SP:115°-138 °C
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1. Polyethylene for use in articles that contact food except for articles used for packing or holding food during cooking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5 pct at 50 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.3 pct at 25 °C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2. Polyethylene for use in articles used for packing or holding food during cooking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 pct at 50 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3. Polyethylene for use only as component of food-contact coatings at levels up to and including 50 percent by weight of any mixture employed as a food-contact coating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">53 pct at 50 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75 pct at 25 °C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4. Olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, having a melt flow index not to exceed 17 grams/per 10 minutes as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, for use in blends with other polymers at levels not to exceed 20 percent by weight of total polymer, subject to the limitation that when contacting food of types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, the polymers shall be used only under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G, described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 2.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1a. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section for use in articles that contact food except for articles used for packing or holding food during cooking; except olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">a</E>)(<E T="03">3</E>) of this section and listed in item 3.1c of this table and olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">e</E>) of this section and listed in item 3.1b of this table</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5 pct at 50 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 pct at 25 °C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1b. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">e</E>) of this section for use in contact with food only under conditions of use D, E, F, G, and H described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1c. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">a</E>)(<E T="03">3</E>) of this section for use in contact with food only under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2; except that such copolymers when used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c), table 1, under types III, IVA, V, VIIA, and IX, shall be used only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 0.92
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2a. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section for use in articles used for packing or holding food during cooking; except olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">c</E>)(<E T="03">2</E>) of this section and listed in item 3.2b of this table; except that olefin copolymers containing 89 to 95 percent ethylene with the remainder being 4-methyl-pentene-1 contacting food Types III, IVA, V, VIIA, and IX identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, shall not exceed 0.051 millimeter (mm) (0.002 inch (in)) in thickness when used under conditions of use A and shall not exceed 0.102 mm (0.004 in) in thickness when used under conditions of use B, C, D, E, and H described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2. Additionally, olefin copolymers described in (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">a</E>)(<E T="03">2</E>) of this section may be used only under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, in contact with all food types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 pct at 50 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2b. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">c</E>)(<E T="03">2</E>) of this section have a melt flow index no greater than 10 grams per 10 minutes as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, and the thickness of the finished polymer contacting food shall not exceed 0.025 mm (0.001 in). Additionally, optional adjuvants permitted for use in olefin copolymers complying with item 3.2a of this table may be used in the production of this copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2c. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">a</E>)(<E T="03">4</E>) of this section have a melt flow index no greater than 50 grams per 10 minutes as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section. Articles manufactured using these polymers may be used with all types of food under conditions of use C through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">   0.85-0.92
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3a. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section and manufactured with 1-alkenes having from 6 to 10 carbon atoms
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3b. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, provided that such olefin polymers have a melt temperature of 220 °C to 250 °C (428 °F to 482 °F) as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(8) of this section and minimum intrinsic viscosity of 1.0 as determined in paragraph (d)(9) of this section.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4. Olefin copolymers, primarily non-crystalline, described in par. (a)(3)(iii) of this section provided that such olefin polymers have a minimum viscosity average molecular weight of 120,000 as determined by the method described in par. (d)(5) of this section and a minimum Mooney viscosity of 35 as determined by the method described in par. (d)(6) of this section, and further provided that such olefin copolymers contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, II, III, IV-B, VI, VII, VIII, and IX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85-0.90
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5. Olefin copolymers, primarily non-crystalline, described in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, provided that such olefin polymers have a minimum viscosity average molecular weight of 95,600 as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, and further provided that such olefin polymers are used only in blends with olefin polymers described under items 1.1, 2.1, and 2.2 of this table at a maximum level of 25 pct by weight, and provided that such olefin copolymers contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170 (c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII at temperatures not exceeding 190 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85-0.90
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.6. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(v) of this section for use in blends with olefin polymer resins have a melt flow index no greater than 5 grams/10 minutes as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section and the thickness of the finished blends shall not exceed 0.1 millimeter (0.004 inch). The ethylene/butene-1 copolymer may be used subject to the following conditions: (1) For use at a level not to exceed 20 weight percent in polypropylene as described under item 1.1 of this table. (2) For use at a level not to exceed 40 weight percent in polyethylene as described under items 2.1 and 2.2 of this table. (3) For use at a level not to exceed 40 weight percent in olefin copolymers as described under items 3.1 and 3.2 of this table</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 0.88
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.7. Ethylene/propylene copolymers, meeting the identity described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, containing not less than 80 mole-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene and having a minimum viscosity average molecular weight of 95,000 as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, and a minimum Mooney viscosity of 13 as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section. Ethylene/propylene copolymers described in this item 3.7 are to be used only in blends with other olefin polymers complying with this section, at levels not to exceed 30 percent by weight of the total polymer blend, and in contact with food only of types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, under Types I, II, III, IV-B, VI, VII, VIII, and IX. Additionally, optional adjuvants permitted for use in olefin copolymers complying with item 3.4 of this table may be used in the production of this copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 0.86
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.8. Olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(vi) of this section, having a melt flow index not to exceed 9.2 grams per 10 minutes as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, for use in blends with other polymers at levels not to exceed 8 percent by weight of total polymer, subject to the limitation that when contacting food of types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, the polymers shall be used only under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G, described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 2.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.9. Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(vii) of this section may only be used in contact with dry foods, Type VIII, as identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 1.0
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Poly(methylpentene)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.82-0.85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MP: 235°-250 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6 pct at reflux temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5 pct at 25 °C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Polyethylene copolymer described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section and having a melt index not to exceed 2, for use, either alone or in blends with other olefin polymers, subject to the limitation that when contacting foods of types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, VIII, and IX identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, the thickness of the film (in mils) containing the polyethylene graft copolymer times the concentration of the polyethylene graft copolymer shall not exceed a value of 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not less than 0.94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45 pct at 15 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 pct at 25 °C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Ethylene-maleic anhydride copolymers described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section for use as the adhesive component in multilaminate structures, or as the sealant layer in flexible packaging, in contact with food at temperatures not exceeding 49 °C (120 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92 or greater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36 pct at 50 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.28 pct at 25 °C</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) The analytical methods for determining whether olefin polymers conform to the specifications prescribed in this section are as follows, and are applicable to the basic polymer in film form not exceeding 4 mils in thickness. The film to be tested shall be cut into approximately 1-inch squares by any convenient method that avoids contamination by dust, dirt, or grease (<E T="04">Note:</E> Do not touch samples with bare fingers—use forceps to hold or transfer samples).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Density.</I> Density shall be determined by ASTM method D1505-68 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Density of Plastics by the Density-Gradient Technique,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Melting point or softening point</I>—(i) <I>Melting point.</I> The melting point shall be determined by ASTM method D2117-82, “Standard Test Method for Melting Point of Semicrystalline Polymers by the Hot Stage Microscopy Method,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Softening point.</I> The softening point shall be determined by ASTM method E28-67 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring-and-Ball Apparatus,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maximum extractable fraction in n-hexane</I>—(i) <I>Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, polypropylene, and poly(methylpentene).</I> A sample is refluxed in the solvent for 2 hours and filtered at the boiling point. The filtrate is evaporated and the total residue weighed as a measure of the solvent extractable fraction.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Apparatus.</I> (<I>1</I>) Erlenmeyer flasks, 250-milliliter, with ground joint.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Condensers, Allihn, 400-millimeter jacket, with ground joint.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Funnels, ribbed 75-millimeter diameter, stem cut to 40 millimeters.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Funnels, Buchner type, with coarse-porosity fritted disc, 60-millimeter diameter.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Bell jar for vacuum filtration into beaker.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Reagent. n-</I>Hexane, commercial grade, specific gravity 0.663-0.667 (20 °C/20 °C), boiling range 66 °C-69 °C, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Procedure.</I> Weigh 1 gram of sample accurately and place in a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask containing two or three boiling stones. Add 100 milliliters of solvent, attach the flask to the condenser (use no grease), and reflux the mixture for 2 hours. Remove the flask from the heat, disconnect the condenser, and filter rapidly, while still hot, through a small wad of glass wool packed in a short-stem funnel into a tared 150-millimeter beaker. Rinse the flask and filter with two 10-milliliter portions of the hot solvent, and add the rinsings to the filtrate. Evaporate the filtrate on a stream bath with the aid of a stream of nitrogen. Dry the residue in a vacuum oven at 110 °C for 2 hours, cool in a desiccator, and weigh to the nearest 0.0001 gram. Determine the blank on 120 milliliters of solvent evaporated in a tared 150-milliliter beaker. Correct the sample residue for this blank if significant. Calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.398.gif"/>
<P>(ii) <I>Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section and polyethylene.</I> A preweighed sample is extracted at 50 °C for 2 hours and filtered. The filtrate is evaporated and the total residue weighed as a measure of the solvent extractable fraction. Alternatively, the sample is reweighed after the extraction period to give a measure of the solvent extractable fraction. The maximum <I>n</I>-hexane-extractable fraction may be determined by the methods set forth in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(<I>a</I>) through (d)(3)(ii)(<I>i</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Extraction apparatus.</I> Two-liter, straight-walled, Pyrex (or equivalent) resin kettles, fitted with three-hole ground-glass covers are most convenient for this purpose. The cover is fitted with a thermometer, a gas-tight stirrer driven by an air motor or explosion-proof electric motor, and a reflux condenser. The kettle is fitted with an electric heating mantle of appropriate size and shape, which is controlled by a variable-voltage transformer.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Evaporating apparatus.</I> Rapid evaporation of large volumes of solvent requires special precautions to prevent contamination by dust. This is facilitated by a special “gas” cover consisting of an inverted flat Pyrex crystallizing dish of an appropriate size (190 millimeters × 100 millimeters) to fit a 1-liter beaker. Through the center of the dish are sealed an inlet tube for preheated, oxygen-free nitrogen, and an outlet tube located 1 inch off center. Nitrogen is fed from the supply source through a coil of 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch stainless steel tubing immersed in the same steam bath used to supply heat for solvent evaporation. All connections are made with flexible tetrafluoroethylene tubing.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Reagents</I>—(<I>1) n-Hexane.</I> Spectrograde <I>n-</I>hexane.
</P>
<P>(<I>2) Nitrogen.</I> High-purity dry nitrogen containing less than 10 parts per million of oxygen.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Procedure.</I> Transfer 2.5 grams (accurately weighed to nearest 0.001 gram) of the polymer to the resin kettle. Add 1 liter of solvent and clamp top in position. Start water flowing through jacket of the reflux condenser and apply air pressure to the stirring motor to produce vigorous agitation. Turn on heating jacket with transformer set at a predetermined voltage to bring the temperature of the contents to 50 °C within 20-25 minutes. As the thermometer reading approaches 45 °C-47 °C, reduce the voltage to the predetermined setting that will just maintain the temperature at 50 °C. Do not overshoot the prescribed temperature. Should this occur discard the test and start afresh. Exactly 2 hours after the solvent temperature has reached 50 °C, disconnect the heater, remove the resin kettle from the heating jacket, and decant the solvent, while still warm, through a coarse filter paper placed on top of a fritted-glass funnel, collecting the filtrate in a tared, glass-stoppered Erlenmeyer flask of 1-liter capacity. Determine the weight of the filtrate recovered to the nearest gram. Recovery should be at least 90 percent of the original solvent. Losses due to evaporation during heating and filtering have been found not to exceed 10 percent. Transfer about half of the solvent filtrate to a 1-liter beaker placed on an opening in the steam bath and immediately cover with the special “gas” cover, the inlet tube of which has been attached with flexible tetrafluoroethylene tubing to a source of high-purity nitrogen in series with a stainless steel heating coil immersed directly in the body of the steam bath. Maintain a positive flow of warm nitrogen gas throughout the evaporation of the solvent, adding the remainder of the filtrate from the Erlenmeyer flask as the evaporation proceeds. When the volume of the solvent has been reduced to about 50 milliliters, transfer the concentrated liquid to a previously tared weighing dish of suitable size. Wash the beaker twice with 20-30 milliliter portions of warm solvent, adding the washings to the weighing dish while continuing to evaporate the remainder of the solvent under the gas cover with its flow of warm nitrogen directed toward the center of the dish. In the event that an insoluble residue that cannot be removed with warm solvent remains in the beaker, it may be necessary to heat with a small amount of a higher boiling solvent such as benzene or toluene, transferring these washings to the weighing dish before final evaporation to dryness. Transfer the weighing dish with its residue to a vacuum desiccator, and allow it to remain overnight (at least 12 hours), after which the net weight of the dry residue is determined to the nearest 0.0001 gram. Correct the result for any solvent blank equivalent to the nonvolatile matter determined to be contained in the amount of solvents used in the test. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Extraction apparatus for alternate method.</I> Two-liter extraction vessel, such as a resin kettle or round bottom flask, fitted with an Allihn condenser (size C), a 45/50 male joint with a Teflon sleeve, and a Teflon coated stir bar. Water bath maintained at 49.5 °C ±0.5 °C containing a submersible magnetic stirrer motor with power supply. Other suitable means of maintaining temperature control, such as electric heating mantles, may be used provided that the temperature range can be strictly maintained.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Sample basket (Optional).</I> A perforated stainless steel cylindrical basket that is approximately 1.5 inches in diameter, 1.6 inches high, and has perforations of 0.125 inches in diameter for 33 holes/in
<SU>2</SU>, or 40 percent open area. The basket should pass freely through the 45/50 female joint of the extraction flask. A No. 6-32 stainless steel eye-bolt is attached to the lid for positioning the basket in the extraction vessel. The positioning rod, approximately 18 inches long and made from 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch outside diameter 316 stainless steel welding rod or equivalent and hooked at both ends, is used to position the basket in the extraction apparatus.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Vacuum oven.</I> Capable of maintaining 80 °C ±5 °C and a minimum of 635 millimeters of mercury pressure.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) <I>Reagents. n</I>-Hexane, reagent or spectrograde, aromatic free (less than 1 milligram per liter), minimum 85 percent <I>n</I>-hexane. This reagent may be reused until it contains a maximum of 1.5 grams polyolefin extractables or has been used for 12 determinations.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Procedure.</I> Assemble the extraction vessel, condenser, and magnetic stir bar. Add <I>n</I>-hexane (1 liter) to the extraction vessel and clamp the assembly into a water bath set at 49.5 °C ±0.5 °C. Start the water flowing through the jacket of the reflux condenser. Adjust the air flow through the stirring motor to give a smooth and uniform stir rate. Allow the <I>n</I>-hexane to preheat for 1 hour to bring the temperature to 49.5 °C±0.5 °C. Temperature is a critical factor in this analysis and it must not vary more than 1 °C. If the temperature exceeds these limits, the test must be discontinued and restarted. Blown, compression molded, or extrusion cast films can be tested. Ideally, the film should be prepared by the same process as will be used with the production resin. Using gloves and metal tweezers to avoid sample contamination, cut about 2.7 grams of the prepared film (4 mils or less in thickness) into about 1-inch squares using clean sharp scissors. Proceed with Option 1 or 2.
</P>
<P><I>Option 1.</I> Using tweezers and noting the number of film pieces, transfer 2.5 grams (accurately weighed to 0.1 milligram) of polymer to the extraction vessel. Extract the film sample for 2 hours. Allow the vessel to cool and filter the contents through a fritted porcelain funnel. Wash the film pieces with fresh <I>n</I>-hexane, aspirate to dryness, and transfer, using tweezers, to a beaker. Recount the film pieces to verify that none were lost during the transfer. Place the beaker in the vacuum oven for 2 hours at 80 °C ±5 °C. After 2 hours, remove and place in a desiccator to cool to room temperature (about 1 hour). After cooling, reweigh the film pieces to the nearest 0.1 milligram. Calculate the percent hexane-extractables content from the weight loss of the original sample. Multiply the result by 0.935 and compare with extraction limits in paragraph (c) of this section. Repeat the above procedure for successive samples.
</P>
<P><I>Option 2.</I> Transfer 2.5±0.05 grams of the prepared 1-inch film sections into a tared sample basket and accurately weigh to the nearest 0.1 milligram. Carefully raise the condenser until the hook on the positioning rod is above the neck of the 2-liter extraction vessel. The basket should be totally below the level of <I>n</I>-hexane solvent. Extract the sample resin film for 2 hours and then raise the basket above the solvent level to drain momentarily. Remove the basket and rinse the contents by immersing several times in fresh <I>n</I>-hexane. Allow the basket to dry between rinsings. Remove the excess solvent by briefly blowing the basket with a stream of nitrogen or dry air. Place the basket in the vacuum oven for 2 hours at 80 °C ±5 °C. After 2 hours, remove and place in a desiccator to cool to room temperature (about 1 hour). After cooling, reweigh the basket to the nearest 0.1 milligram. Calculate the percent hexane extractables content from the weight loss of the original sample. Multiply the result by 0.935 and compare with extraction limits in paragraph (c) of this section. Repeat the above procedure for successive samples. The same solvent charge should remain clear and can be used for at least 12 determinations. Applications of solvent reuse should be confirmed for each resin type before use.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maximum soluble fraction in xylene</I>—(i) <I>Olefin copolymers described in paragraph</I> (<I>a</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>) <I>of this section, polypropylene, and poly</I>(<I>methylpen-tene</I>). A sample is dissolved completely in xylene by heating and stirring in a bottle with little free space. The solution is allowed to cool without stirring, whereupon the insoluble portion precipitates and is filtered off; the total solids content of the filtrate is then determined as a measure of the soluble fraction.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Apparatus.</I> (<I>1</I>) Pyrex (or equivalent) reagent bottle, 125-milliliter, glass-stoppered.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Heating mantle of size for 150-milliliter beaker (or suitable aluminum block to fit the 125-milliter bottle described in paragraph (d)(4)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Magnetic stirrer for use under the heating mantle (combination magnetic stirrer and hotplate may be used if aluminum block is used in place of heating mantle).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Variable-voltage transformer, 7.5 amperes.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Tetrafluoroethylene-resin-coated stirring bar, 1-inch long.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Constant temperature water bath maintained at 25 °C±0.5 °C.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Aluminum</I> dishes, 18 millimeters × 60 millimeters, disposable.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Funnel, Buchner type, with coarse-porosity fritted disc, 30-60 millimeter diameter.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Reagent.</I> Xylene with antioxidant. Dissolve 0.020 gram of phenyl-β- naphthylamine in 1 liter of industrial grade xylene having specific gravity 0.856-0.867 (20 °C/20 °C) and boiling range 123 °C-160 °C.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Procedure.</I> Weigh 1 to 2 grams of sample to the nearest 0.001 gram and place in a 125-milliliter Pyrex reagent bottle containing a 1-inch long tetrafluoroethylene-resin-coated stirring bar. Add 100 milliliters of solvent, set the stopper in lightly, and place the bottle in the heating mantle or aluminum block maintained at a temperature of 120 °C, and stir with a magnetic stirrer until the sample is completely dissolved. Remove the bottle from the heat and allow it to cool 1 hour in the air, without stirring. Then place the bottle in a water bath maintained at 25 °C ±0.5 °C, and allow to stand 1 hour without stirring. Next, remove the bottle from the water bath, shake, and pour part of the contents into the coarse-porosity fritted-glass funnel. Apply suction, and draw 30-40 milliliters of filtrate through, adding more slurry to the funnel, and catching the filtrate in a large test tube. (If the slurry is hard to filter, add 10 grams of diatomaceous earth filter aid to the bottle and shake vigorously just prior to the filtration.) Pipet a suitable aliquot (preferably 20 milliliters) of the filtrate into a tared aluminum disposable dish. Place the dish on a steam bath covered with a fresh sheet of aluminum foil and invert a short-stemmed 4-inch funnel over the dish. Pass nitrogen (heated if desired) down through the funnel at a rate sufficient to just ripple the surface of the solvent. When the liquid has evaporated, place the dish in a vacuum oven at 140 °C and less than 50 millimeters mercury pressure for 2 hours. Cool in a desiccator and weigh. (Note: If the residue value seems high, redry in the vacuum oven for one-half hour to ensure complete removal of all xylene solvent.) Calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.399.gif"/>
<P>(ii) <I>Olefin copolymers described in paragraph</I> (<I>a</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) <I>of this section and polyethylene.</I> A sample is extracted in xylene at reflux temperature for 2 hours and filtered. The filtrate is evaporated and the total residue weighed as a measure of soluble fraction.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Apparatus</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Extraction apparatus.</I> Two-liter, straight-walled Pyrex (or equivalent) resin kettles, fitted with ground-glass covers, are most convenient for this purpose. The cover is equipped with a thermometer and an efficient reflux condenser. The kettle is fitted with an electric heating mantle of appropriate size and shape which is controlled by a variable-voltage transformer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Constant temperature water bath.</I> It must be large enough to permit immersion of the extraction kettle and set to maintain 25 °C ±0.1 °C.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Evaporating apparatus.</I> Gas cover consisting of a flat Pyrex crystallizing dish (190 millimeters × 100 millimeters) inverted to fit over a 1-liter beaker with 8-millimeter gas inlet tube sealed through center and an outlet tube 1 inch off center. The beaker with gas cover is inserted in an electric heating mantle equipped with a variable-voltage transformer. The outlet tube is attached to an efficient condenser mounted on a receiving flask for solvent recovery and having an outlet for connection to an aspirator pump. The heating mantle (with the beaker) is mounted on a magnetic stirring device. An infrared heat lamp is mounted vertically 3-4 inches above the gas cover to prevent condensation of the solvent inside the cover. Make all connections with flexible tetrafluoroethylene tubing.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Reagents</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Xylene.</I> American Chemical Society reagent grade that has been redistilled through a fractionating column to reduce the nonvolatile residue.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Nitrogen.</I> High-purity dry nitrogen containing less than 10
<SU>4</SU> parts per million oxygen.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Procedure.</I> Transfer 5 grams ±0.001 gram of sample to the resin kettle, add 1,000 milliliters (840 grams) of xylene, and clamp top in position after inserting a piece of glass rod to prevent bumping during reflux. Start water flowing through the jacket of the reflux condenser and apply full voltage (115 volts) to the heating mantle. When the xylene starts to boil, reduce the voltage to a level just sufficient to maintain reflux. After refluxing for at least 2 hours, disconnect the power source to the mantle, remove the kettle, and allow to cool in air until the temperature of the contents drops to 50 °C, after which the kettle may be rapidly cooled to 25 °C-30 °C by immersing in a cold water bath. Transfer the kettle to a constant temperature bath set to maintain 25 °C ±0.1 °C, and allow to equilibrate for a least 1 hour (may be left overnight if convenient). Break up any precipitated polymers that may have formed, and decant the xylene solution successively through a fast filter paper and then through a fritted-glass filter into a tared 1-liter Erlenmeyer flask, collecting only the first 450 milliliters—500 milliliters of filtrate (any attempt to collect more of the xylene solution usually results in clogging the filter and risking losses). Reweigh the Erlenmeyer flask and calculate the weight of the filtrate obtained to the nearest 0.1 gram. Transfer the filtrate, quantitatively, from the Erlenmeyer flask to the 1-liter beaker, insert the beaker in its heating mantle, add a glass-coated magnetic stirring bar, and mount the gas cover in place, connecting the inlet tube to the nitrogen source and the outlet to the condenser of the receiving flask. Start a flow of nitrogen (2 to 3 liters per minute) into the gas cover and connect an aspirator to the receiver using a free-flow rate equivalent to 6-7 liters of air per minute. With the infrared lamp on, adjust the voltage to the heating mantle to give a distillation rate of 12-13 milliliters per minute when the magnetic stirrer is revolving just fast enough to promote good boiling. When the volume of solvent in the beaker has been reduced to 30-50 milliliters, transfer the concentrated extractive to a suitable weighing dish that has been previously tared (dry). Rinse the beaker twice with 10-20 milliliter portions of fresh xylene, adding the rinsings to the weighing dish. Evaporate the remainder of the xylene on an electric hotplate set at low heat under the gas cover with a stream of nitrogen directed toward the center of the dish. Avoid any charring of the residue. Transfer the weighing dish to a vacuum desiccator at room temperature and allow to remain under reduced pressure for at least 12 hours (overnight), after which determine the net weight of the residue to the nearest 0.0001 gram. Correct the result for nonvolatile solvent blank obtained by evaporating the equivalent amount of xylene under identical conditions. Calculate the weight of residue originally present in the total weight of solvent (840 grams), using the appropriate factor based on the weight of filtrate evaporated.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Viscosity average molecular weight olefin copolymers described in paragraphs</I> (<I>a</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>iii</I>) <I>and</I> (<I>iv</I>) <I>of this section.</I> The viscosity average molecular weight shall be determined from the kinematic viscosity (using ASTM method D445-74, “Test for Kinematic Viscosity of Transparent and Opaque Liquids” (Revised 1974), which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) of solutions of the copolymers in solvents and at temperatures as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section in decahydronaphthalene at 135 °C.
</P>
<P>(ii) Olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section in tetrachloroethylene at 30 °C.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Mooney viscosity—olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section.</I> Mooney viscosity is determined by ASTM method D1646-81, “Standard Test Method for Rubber—Viscosity and Vulcanization Characteristics (Mooney Viscometer),” which is incorporated by reference (the availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section), using the large rotor at a temperature of 100 °C, except that a temperature of 127 °C shall be used for those copolymers whose Mooney viscosity cannot be determined at 100 °C. The apparatus containing the sample is warmed for 1 minute, run for 8 minutes, and viscosity measurements are then made.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Melt flow index.</I> The melt flow index of olefin polymers described below shall be determined by ASTM method D-1238-82, “Standard Test Method for Flow Rates of Thermoplastics by Extrusion Plastometer,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The olefin polymers and test conditions and procedures are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of polymers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conditions/procedures
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(<E T="03">c</E>)(<E T="03">2</E>) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Condition L, procedure A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(v) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Condition E, procedure A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Condition E, procedure A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(vi) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Condition E, procedure A.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) <I>Melting peak temperature.</I> The melt temperature of the olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section shall be determined by ASTM method D 3418-82, “Standard Test Method for Transition Temperatures of Polymers by Thermal Analysis,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Intrinsic viscosity.</I> The intrinsic viscosity of the olefin polymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section shall be determined by ASTM method D 1601-78, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Ethylene Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Olefin copolymers described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section and polyethylene, alone or in combination, may be subjected to irradiation bombardment from a source not to exceed 2.3 million volts intensity to cause molecular crosslinking of the polymers to impart desired properties, such as increased strength and increased ability to shrink when exposed to heat.
</P>
<P>(f) The olefin polymers identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178, and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<P>(g) The provisions of this section are not applicable to olefin polymers identified in § 175.105(c)(5) of this chapter and used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 177.1520, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1550" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1550   Perfluorocarbon resins.</HEAD>
<P>Perfluorocarbon resins identified in this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended to contact food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, perfluorocarbon resins are those produced by: (1) The homopolymerization and/or copolymerization of hexafluoropropylene and tetrafluoroethylene, and (2) the copolymerization of perfluoropropylvinylether and tetrafluoroethylene (CAS Reg. No. 26655-00-5). The resins shall meet the extractives limitations in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional components.</I> The perfluorocarbon resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section as well as articles or coating made from these resins may include the following optional components except that the resin identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not be used with the optional component, lithium polysilicate, mentioned in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe (GRAS) in food or food packaging subject to any limitations cited on their use.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, subject to any limitations cited in the prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances authorized under applicable regulations in this part and in parts 175 and 178 of this chapter and subject to any limitations prescribed therein.
</P>
<P>(4) The following substances, subject to any limitations prescribed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium polysilicate containing not more than 20 weight percent silica, not more than 2.1 percent lithium oxide and having a maximum mole ratio of Si0<E T="52">2</E>/Li<E T="52">2</E>0 of 8.5 to 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of repeated-use coatings not exceeding 0.030 millimeter (0.0012 inch) in thickness where the coatings are thermally cured at minimum sintering temperatures of 371 °C (700 °F). Lithium extractives shall not exceed 1.55 milligrams per square decimeter (0.1 milligram per square inch) of coating surface when tested in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a component of repeated-use coatings, based on the perfluorocarbon resin identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, not to exceed 0.030 millimeter (0.0012 inch) in thickness, and at a level not to exceed 0.4 weight percent of the coating.
<br/>2. As a component of repeated-use coatings, based on the perfluorocarbon resin identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, not to exceed 0.10 millimeter (0.004 inch) in thickness, and at a level not to exceed 0.4 weight percent of the coating.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Optional processing.</I> Poly- tetrafluoroethylene resins may be irradiated by either a cobalt-60 sealed source, at a maximum dose of gamma radiation not to exceed 7.5 megarads, or an electron beam at energy levels not to exceed 2.5 million electron volts with a maximum dosage of 7.5 megarads, to produce lubricant powders having a particle diameter of not more than 20 microns for use only as components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) <I>Infrared identification.</I> Perfluorocarbon resins can be identified by their characteristic infrared spectra.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Melt-viscosity.</I> (i) The perfluorocarbon resins identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall have a melt viscosity of not less than 10
<SU>4</SU> poises at 380 °C (716 °F) as determined by ASTM method D1238-82, “Standard Test Method for Flow Rates of Thermoplastics by Extrusion Plastometer,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The melt viscosity of the perfluorocarbon resins identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall not vary more than 50 percent within one-half hour at 380 °C (716 °F).
</P>
<P>(ii) Perfluorocarbon resins identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall have a melt viscosity of not less than 10
<SU>4</SU> poises at 372 °C (702 °F) as determined by a more detailed method titled “Determination of Melt Viscosity, Molecular Weight Distribution Index and Viscosity Stability,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Thermal instability index.</I> The thermal instability index of the tetrafluoroethylene homopolymer shall not exceed 50 as determined by ASTM method D1457-56T, “Test for Thermal Instablility index of Tetrafluoroethylene Homopolymer” (Revised 1956), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from University Microfilms International, 300 N. Zeeb Rd., Ann Arbor, MI 48106, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to polytetrafluoroethylene resin lubricant powders described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations.</I> 
<SU>1</SU> (1) Perfluorocarbon-molded articles having a surface area of 6.45 square decimeters (100 square inches) or more and at least 1.27 millimeters (0.05 inch) thick shall be extracted at reflux temperatures for 2 hours separately with distilled water, 50 percent ethanol, <I>n</I>-heptane, and ethyl acetate.
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A more detailed procedure of extraction conditions is entitled, “Preparation of Extracts,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Perfluorocarbon resins identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section and intended for use as coatings or components of coatings shall meet extractability limits prescribed in paragraph (e)(3) of this section when the resins in the form of coatings described in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are extracted at reflux temperatures for 2 hours separately with distilled water, 8 percent ethanol, and <I>n</I>-heptane:
</P>
<P>(i) Perfluorocarbon resin coatings based on resins identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be applied to both sides of a 0.025-millimeter (0.001 inch) thick aluminum foil to a thickness of 0.025 millimeter (0.001 inch) after thermal curing at 399 °C (750 °F) for 10 minutes. If a primer is used, the total thickness of the primer plus topcoat shall equal 0.025 millimeter (0.001 inch) after heat curing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Perfluorocarbon resin coatings based on resins identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be applied to both sides of a 0.025-millimeter (0.001 inch) thick aluminum foil to a thickness of 0.10 millimeter (0.004 inch) after thermal curing at 427 °C (800 °F) for 10 minutes. If a primer is used, the total thickness of the primer plus topcoat shall equal 0.10 millimeter (0.004 inch) after heat curing.
</P>
<P>(3) The extracted surfaces shall meet the following extractability limits:
</P>
<P>(i) Total extractives not to exceed 3.1 milligrams per square decimeter (0.2 milligram per square inch).
</P>
<P>(ii) Fluoride extractives calculated as fluorine not to exceed 0.46 milligram per square decimeter (0.03 milligram per square inch).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conditions of use.</I> Perfluorocarbon resins identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section are limited to use as coatings or components of coatings for articles intended for repeated food-contact use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 44834, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 11843, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 14699, Apr. 6, 1982; 49 FR 10109, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 1502, Jan. 11, 1985; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14481, Apr. 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1555" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1555   Polyarylate resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polyarylate resins (CAS Reg. No. 51706-10-6) may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> Polyarylate resins (1, 3-benzenedicarboxylic acid, diphenyl ester, polymer with diphenyl 1,4-benzenedicarboxylate and 4-4′-(1-methylethylidine) bis(phenol)) are formed by melt polycondensation of bisphenol-A with diphenylisophthalate and diphenylterephthalate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The finished copolymers shall contain from 70 to 80 weight percent of polymer units derived from diphenylisophthalate and 20 to 30 weight percent of polymer units derived from diphenylterephthalate.
</P>
<P>(2) Polyarylate resins shall have a minimum weight average molecular weight of 20,000.
</P>
<P>(3) Polyarylate resins may be identified by their characteristic infrared spectra.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> The finished polyarylate resins in sheet form at least 0.5 millimeter (0.020 inch) thick, when extracted with water at 121 °C (250 °F) for 2 hours, shall yield total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 2.33 micrograms per square centimeter (15 micrograms per square inch) of the exposed resin surface.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> Polyarylate resin articles may be used in contact with all foods except beverages containing more than 8 volume percent ethanol under conditions of use A through H, described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 35540, Sept. 22, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1556" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1556   Polyaryletherketone resins.</HEAD>
<P>The poly(oxy-1,4-phenylenecarbonyl-1,4-phenyleneoxy-1,4-phenylenecarbonyl-1,4-phenylenecarbonyl-1,4-phenylene) resins (CAS Reg. No. 55088-54-5 and CAS Reg. No. 60015-05-6 and commonly referred to as polyaryletherketone resins) identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> Polyaryletherketone resins consist of basic resins produced by reacting 4,4′-diphenoxy benzophenone and terephthaloyl dichloride in such a way that the finished resins have a minimum weight average molecular weight of 20,000 grams per mole, as determined by light scattering measurements in sulfuric acid at room temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic polyaryletherketone resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic resins. These adjuvants may include substances used in accordance with § 174.5 of this chapter and the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Benzoyl chloride, poly(tetrafluoro ethylene).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> The finished food-contact article yields net total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.052 milligram per square inch (corresponding to 0.008 milligram per square centimeter) of food-contact surface, when extracted at reflux temperature for 2 hours with the following solvents: Distilled water, 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water, 3 percent acetic acid (by weight) in distilled water, and <I>n</I>-heptane.
</P>
<P>(d) In testing the finished food-contact article made of polyaryletherketone resin, use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 42381, Aug. 15, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1560" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1560   Polyarylsulfone resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polyarylsulfone resins (CAS Reg. No. 79293-56-4) may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, at temperatures up to and including normal baking temperatures, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> Polyarylsulfone resins are copolymers containing not more than 25 percent of oxy-<I>p</I>-phenylene-oxy-<I>p</I>-phenylenesulfonyl-<I>p-</I>phenylene polymer units and not less than 75 percent of oxy-<I>p</I>-phenylenesulfonyl-<I>p</I>-phenylene-oxy-<I>p</I>-phenylenesulfonyl-<I>p</I>-phenylene polymer units. The copolymers have a minimum reduced viscosity of 0.40 deciliter per gram in 1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinone in accordance with ASTM method D2857-70 (Reapproved 1977), “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic polyarylsulfone resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic copolymers. These optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 179 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction of approval, and substances named in this paragraph and further identified as required:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfolane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.15 percent as residual solvent in the finished basic resin.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> The finished polyarylsulfone resin when extracted for 2 hours with the following solvents at the specified temperatures yields total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.008 milligram per square centimeter of food-contact surface: distilled water at 121 °C (250 °F), 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water at 71.1 °C (160 °F), 3 percent acetic acid in distilled water at 100 °C (212 °F), and <I>n-</I>heptane at 65.6 °C (150 °F).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In testing the finished polyarylsulfone resin use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31046, July 24, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1570" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1570   Poly-1-butene resins and butene/ethylene copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The poly-1-butene resins and butene/ethylene copolymers identified in this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> Poly-1-butene resins are produced by the catalytic polymerization of 1-butene liquid monomer. Butene/ethylene copolymers are produced by the catalytic polymerization of 1-butene liquid monomer in the presence of small amounts of ethylene monomer so as to yield no higher than a 6-weight percent concentration of polymer units derived from ethylene in the copolymer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications and limitations.</I> Poly-1-butene resins and butene/ethylene copolymers shall conform to the specifications prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and shall meet the extractability limits prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications</I>—(i) <I>Infrared identification.</I> Poly-1-butene resins and butene/ethylene copolymers can be identified by their characteristic infrared spectra.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Viscosity.</I> Poly-1-butene resins and the butene/ethylene copolymers have an intrinsic viscosity 1.0 to 3.2 as determined by ASTM method D1601-78, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Ethylene Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Density.</I> Poly-1-butene resins have a density of 0.904 to 0.920 gms/cm
<SU>3</SU>, and butene/ethylene copolymers have a density of 0.890 to 0.916 gms/cm
<SU>3</SU> as determined by ASTM method D1505-68 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Density of Plastics by the Density-Gradient Technique,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Melt index.</I> Poly-1-butene resins have a melt index of 0.1 to 24 and the butene/ethylene copolymers have a melt index of 0.1 to 20 as determined by ASTM method D1238-82, condition E, “Standard Test Method for Flow Rates of Thermoplastics by Extrusion Plastometer,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Poly-1-butene resins and butene/ethylene copolymers for use in articles that contact food, and for articles used for packing or holding food during cooking shall yield no more than the following extractables:
</P>
<P>(i) Poly-1-butene resins may be used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, provided that the maximum extractables do not exceed 2.5 percent by weight of the polymer when film or molded samples are tested for 2 hours at 50 °C (122 °F) in <I>n</I>-heptane.
</P>
<P>(ii) Butene/ethylene copolymers containing no more than 6 percent by weight of polymer units derived from ethylene may be used as articles or components of articles intended for contact with food under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, or H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of this section and provided that the maximum extractables from test films 0.1 to 0.2 millimeter (0.004 to 0.008 inch) in thickness do not exceed 0.80 percent by weight of the polymer when extracted in a soxhlet extractor for 6 hours with refluxing 95 percent ethanol.
</P>
<P>(iii) Poly-1-butene resins may be used as articles or components of articles intended for packaging or holding food during cooking, provided that the thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.1 millimeter (0.004 inch) and yield maximum extractables of not more than 2.5 percent by weight of the polymer when films are extracted for 2 hours at 50 °C (122 °F) in <I>n</I>-heptane.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10109, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 31349, Aug. 2, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1580" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1580   Polycarbonate resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polycarbonate resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Polycarbonate resins are polyesters produced by:
</P>
<P>(1) The condensation of 4,4′-iso-propylidenediphenol and carbonyl chloride to which may have been added certain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the resins; or by
</P>
<P>(2) The reaction of molten 4,4′-iso-propylidenediphenol with molten diphenyl carbonate in the presence of the disodium salt of 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol.
</P>
<P>(3) The condensation of 4,4′-isopro- pylidenediphenol, carbonyl chloride, and 0.5 percent weight maximum of <I>a</I>2,<I>a</I>6-bis (6-hydroxy<I>-m-</I>tolyl) mesitol to which may have been added certain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of branched polycarbonate resins.
</P>
<P>(b) The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of resins produced by the methods described in paragraph (a)(1) and (3) of this section may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-tert-</E>Butylphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroform</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p</E>-Cumylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 599-64-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a chain terminator at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dichloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monochlorobenzene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 500 p.p.m. as residual solvent in finished resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol tetrastearate (CAS Reg. No. 115-83-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a mold release agent, at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenol (CAS Reg. No. 108-95-2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyridine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene: (CAS Reg. No. 108-88-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 800 parts per million as residual solvent in finished resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Polycarbonate resins shall conform to the specification prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and shall meet the extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specification.</I> Polycarbonate resins can be identified by their characteristic infrared spectrum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The polycarbonate resins to be tested shall be ground or cut into small particles that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 6 and that will be held on a U.S. standard sieve No. 10.
</P>
<P>(i) Polycarbonate resins, when extracted with distilled water at reflux temperature for 6 hours, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polycarbonate resins, when extracted with 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water at reflux temperature for 6 hours, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(iii) Polycarbonate resins, when extracted with <I>n-</I>heptane at reflux temperature for 6 hours, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(d) Polycarbonate resins may be used in accordance with this section except in infant feeding bottles (baby bottles) and spill-proof cups, including their closures and lids, designed to help train babies and toddlers to drink from cups (sippy cups).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 23227, Apr. 24, 1981; 49 FR 4372, Feb. 6, 1984; 50 FR 14096, Apr. 10, 1985; 53 FR 29656, Aug. 8, 1988; 59 FR 43731, Aug. 25, 1994; 77 FR 41902, July 17, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1585" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1585   Polyestercarbonate resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polyestercarbonate resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Polyestercarbonate resins (CAS Reg. No. 71519-80-7) are produced by the condensation of 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol, carbonyl chloride, terephthaloyl chloride, and isophthaloyl chloride such that the finished resins are composed of 45 to 85 molepercent ester, of which up to 55 mole-percent is the terephthaloyl isomer. The resins are manufactured using a phthaloyl chloride/carbonyl chloride mole ratio of 0.81 to 5.7/1 and isophthaloyl chloride/terephthaloyl chloride mole ratio of 0.81/1 or greater. The resins are also properly identified by CAS Reg. No. 114096-64-9 when produced with the use of greater than 2 but not greater than 5 weight percent <I>p</I>-cumylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 599-64-4), as an optional adjuvant substance in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvants.</I> The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances used in accordance with § 174.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in § 177.1580(b).
</P>
<P>(3) Substances regulated in § 178.2010(b) of this chapter for use in polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580:
</P>
<FP><I>Provided,</I> That the substances are used in accordance with any limitation on concentration, conditions of use, and food types specified in § 178.2010(b) of this chapter.
</FP>
<P>(c) Polyestercarbonate resins shall conform to the specifications prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and shall meet the extractive limitations prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Polyestercarbonate resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section can be identified by their characteristic infrared spectrum. The resins shall comply with either or both of the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) The solution intrinsic viscosity of the polyestercarbonate resins shall be a minimum of 0.44 deciliter per gram, as determined by a method entitled “Intrinsic Viscosity (IV) of Lexan ® Polyestercarbonate Resin by a Single Point Method Using Dichloromethane as the Solvent,” developed by the General Electric Co., September 20, 1985, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-215), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) A minimum weight-average molecular weight of 27,000, as determined by gel permeation chromatography using polystyrene standards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The polyestercarbonate resins to be tested shall be ground or cut into small particles that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 6 and that will be held on U.S. standard sieve No. 10.
</P>
<P>(i) Polyestercarbonate resins, when extracted with distilled water at reflux temperature for 6 hours, shall yield total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.005 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polyestercarbonate resins, when extracted with 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water at reflux temperature for 6 hours, shall yield total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.005 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(iii) Polyestercarbonate resins, when extracted with <I>n</I>-heptane at reflux temperature for 6 hours, shall yield total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.002 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Residual methylene chloride levels in polyestercarbonate resins.</I> Polyestercarbonate resin articles in the finished form shall not contain residual methylene chloride in excess of 5 parts per million as determined by a method titled “Analytical Method for Determination of Residual Methylene Chloride in Polyestercarbonate Resin,” developed by the General Electric Co., July 23, 1991, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3940, Feb. 3, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 27178, May 19, 1999; 81 FR 5594, Feb. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1590" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1590   Polyester elastomers.</HEAD>
<P>The polyester elastomers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as the food-contact surface of articles intended for use in contact with bulk quantities of dry food of the type identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Type VIII, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, polyester elastomers are those produced by the ester exchange reaction when one or more of the following phthalates—dimethyl terephthalate, and dimethyl isophthalate—is made to react with alpha-hydroomega-hydroxypoly (oxytetramethylene) and/or 1,4-butanediol such that the finished elastomer has a number average molecular weight between 20,000 and 30,000.
</P>
<P>(b) Optional adjuvant substances employed in the production of the polyester elastomers or added thereto to impart desired technical or physical properties may include the following substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′ - Bis (<E T="03">alpha, alpha-</E>dimethyl-benzyl) diphenylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antioxidant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrabutyl titanate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a catalyst.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) An appropriate sample of the finished polyester elastomer in the form in which it contacts food when subjected to ASTM method D968-81, “Standard Test Methods for Abrasion Resistance of Organic Coatings by the Falling Abrasive Tester,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), using No. 50 emery abrasive in lieu of Ottawa sand, shall exhibit an abrasion coefficient of not less than 100 liters per mil of thickness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10109, Mar. 19, 1984; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1595" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1595   Polyetherimide resin.</HEAD>
<P>The polyetherimide resin identified in this section may be safely used as an article or component of an article intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, the polyetherimide resin is 1,3-isobenzofurandione, 5,5′[(1-methyl-ethylidene)bis(4,1-phenyleneoxy)] bis-polymer with 1,3-benzenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 61128-46-9), and is derived from the condensation reaction of <I>m</I>-phenylenediamine and bisphenol A-dianhydride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvants.</I> The basic polymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of basic resins or finished food-contact articles. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the basic polymer may include substances permitted for such use by applicable regulations as set forth in part 174 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications and extractives limitations</I>—(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Polyetherimide resin identified in paragraph (a) of this section shall have an intrinsic viscosity in chloroform at 25 °C (77 °F) of not less than 0.35 deciliter per gram as determined by a method titled “Intrinsic Viscosity of ULTEM Polyetherimide Using Chloroform as the Solvent,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> Extractive limitations are applicable to the basic polyetherimide resin in the form of molded discs of thickness 0.16 centimeter (0.063 inch). The resin discs when extracted with distilled water at 121 °C (250 °F) for 2 hours yield total nonvolatile extractives of not more than 12.3 micrograms per square centimeter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31351, Aug. 2, 1985; 50 FR 35535, Sept. 3, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1600" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1600   Polyethylene resins, carboxyl modified.</HEAD>
<P>Carboxyl-modified polyethylene resins may be safely used as the food-contact surface of articles intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, carboxyl-modified polyethylene resins consist of basic polymers produced when ethylene-methyl acrylate basic copolymers, containing no more than 25 weight percent of polymer units derived from methyl acrylate, are made to react in an aqueous medium with one or more of the following substances:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ammonium hydroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium hydroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium hydroxide.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The finished food-contact article, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface as determined by the methods described in § 176.170(d) of this chapter; and if the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178, and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by that regulation. In testing the finished food-contact articles, a separate test sample is to be used for each required extracting solvent.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section are not applicable to carboxyl-modified polyethylene resins used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1610" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1610   Polyethylene, chlorinated.</HEAD>
<P>Chlorinated polyethylene identified in this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles that contact food, except for articles used for packing or holding food during cooking, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, chlorinated polyethylene consists of basic polymers produced by the direct chlorination of polyethylene conforming to the density, maximum <I>n-</I>hexane extractable fraction, and maximum xylene soluble fraction specifications prescribed under item 2.1 of the table in § 177.1520(c). Such chlorinated polyethylene contains a maximum of 60 percent by weight of total chlorine, as determined by ASTM 1method D1303-55 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Total Chlorine in Vinyl Chloride Polymers and Copolymers,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), and has a 7.0 percent maximum extractable fraction in <I>n</I>-hexane at 50 °C, as determined by the method described in § 177.1520(d)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) Chlorinated polyethylene may be used in contact with all types of food, except that when used in contact with fatty food of Types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, chlorinated polyethylene is limited to use only as a modifier admixed at levels not exceeding 15 weight percent in plastic articles prepared from polyvinyl chloride and/or from vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10109, Mar. 19, 1984; 59 FR 14550, Mar. 29, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1615" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1615   Polyethylene, fluorinated.</HEAD>
<P>Fluorinated polyethylene, identified in paragraph (a) of this section, may be safely used as food-contact articles in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Fluorinated polyethylene food-contact articles are produced by modifying the surface of polyethylene articles through action of fluorine gas in combination with gaseous nitrogen as an inert diluent. Such modification affects only the surface of the polymer, leaving the interior unchanged. Fluorinated polyethylene articles are manufactured from basic resins containing not less than 85 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene and identified in § 177.1520 (a)(2) and (3)(i).
</P>
<P>(b) Fluorinated polyethylene articles conform to the specifications and use limitations of § 177.1520(c), items 2.1 and 3.1.
</P>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact article, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields fluoride ion not to exceed 5 parts per million calculated on the basis of the volume of food held by the food-contact article.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 39057, Aug. 29, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1620" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1620   Polyethylene, oxidized.</HEAD>
<P>Oxidized polyethylene identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as a component of food-contact articles, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Oxidized polyethylene is the basic resin produced by the mild air oxidation of polyethylene conforming to the density, maximum <I>n-</I>hexane extractable fraction, and maximum xylene soluble fraction specifications prescribed under item 2.3 of the table in § 177.1520(c). Such oxidized polyethylene has a minimum number average molecular weight of 1,200, as determined by high temperature vapor pressure osmometry, contains a maximum of 5 percent by weight of total oxygen, and has an acid value of 9 to 19.
</P>
<P>(b) The finished food-contact article, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface when tested by the methods described in § 177.1330(c), except that net acidified chloroform-soluble extractives from paper and paperboard complying with § 176.170 of this chapter may be corrected for wax, petrolatum, and mineral oil as provided in § 176.170(d)(5)(iii)(<I>b</I>) of this chapter. If the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by such regulations. (<E T="04">Note:</E> In testing the finished food-contact article, use a separate test sample for each extracting solvent.)
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of this section are not applicable to oxidized polyethylene used as provided in §§ 175.105 and 176.210 of this chapter, and § 177.2800. The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section are not applicable to oxidized polyethylene used as provided in §§ 175.125 and 176.170(a)(5) of this chapter and § 177.1200.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1630" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1630   Polyethylene phthalate polymers.</HEAD>
<P>Polyethylene phthalate polymers identified in this section may be safely used as, or components of plastics (films, articles, or fabric) intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Polyethylene phthalate films consist of a base sheet of ethylene terephthalate polymer, ethylene terephthalate-isophthalate copolymer, or ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolyesters described in § 177.1315(b)(3), to which have been added optional substances, either as constituents of the base sheet or as constituents of coatings applied to the base sheet.
</P>
<P>(b) Polyethylene phthalate articles consist of a base polymer of ethylene terephthalate polymer, or ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolyesters described in § 177.1315(b)(3), to which have been added optional substances, either as constituents of the base polymer or as constituents of coatings applied to the base polymer.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Polyethylene phthalate spunbonded nonwoven fabric consist of continuous filaments of ethylene terephthalate polymer and ethylene terephthalate-isophthalate copolymer to which may have been added optional adjuvant substances required in their preparation and finishing.
</P>
<P>(2) The ethylene terephthalate-isophthalate copolymer component of the fabric shall not exceed 25 percent by weight. The filaments may be blended with other fibers regulated for the specific use and the spunbonded fabric may be further bonded by application of heat and/or pressure.
</P>
<P>(3) The fabric shall be used only in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The quantity of any optional substance employed in the production of polyethylene phthalate plastics does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect or any limitations further provided. Any substance employed in the production of polyethylene phthalate plastics that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and 179 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(e) Substances employed in the production of polyethylene phthalate plastics include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances subject to prior sanction or approval for use in polyethylene phthalate plastics and used in accordance with such sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances which by regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter may be safely used as components of resinous or polymeric food-contact surfaces subject to the provisions of such regulation.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances identified in this paragraph (e)(4) subject to the limitations prescribed:
</P>
<HD1>List of Substances and Limitations
</HD1>
<P>(i) Base sheet:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ethylene terephthalate copolymers: Prepared by the condensation of dimethyl terephthalate or terephthalic acid with ethylene glycol, modified with one or more of the following: Azelaic acid, dimethyl azelate, dimethyl sebacate, sebacic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene terephthalate copolymers: Prepared by the condensation of dimethyl terephthalate or terephthalic acid with ethylene glycol, modified with one or more of the following: Azelaic acid, dimethyl azelate, dimethyl sebacate, sebacic acid, pyromellitic dianhydride. The level of pyromellitic dianhydride shall not exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished copolymer which may be used under conditions of use E through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Ethylene terephthalate-isophthalate copolymers: Prepared by the condensation of dimethyl terephthalate or terephthalic acid and dimethyl isophthalate or isophthalic acid with ethylene glycol. The finished copolymers contain either:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>(<I>a</I>) 77 to 83 weight percent or
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(<I>b</I>) At least 97 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene terephthalate.</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Base sheet and base polymer:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolyesters described in § 177.1315(b)(3).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene terephthalate polymer: Prepared by the condensation of dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene terephthalate polymer: Prepared by the condensation of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Coatings:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylic copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 30394-86-6): Prepared by reaction of ethyl acrylate (CAS Reg. No. 140-88-5), methyl methacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 80-62-6), and methacrylamide (CAS Reg. No. 79-39-0) blended with melamine-formaldehyde resin (CAS Reg. No. 68002-20-0). For use in coatings for polyethylene phthalate films complying with paragraph (a) of this section.—
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene azelate-terephthalate copolymer: The copolymer, dissolved in 1,1,2-trichloroethane and/or methylene chloride, may be used as a heat-activated sealant on polyethylene terephthalate film intended for sealing polyethylene terephthalate pouches that are used as containers of either nonalcoholic beverages or alcoholic beverages containing not more than 15 percent ethyl alcohol. The copolymer has a terephthalate/azelate molecular ratio of 1.25/1.00 and a relative viscosity of not less than 1.5 as determined by a method title “General Procedure of Determining the Relative Viscosity of Resin Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection, at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Total residual copolymer solvent (1,1,2-trichloroethane and/or methylene chloride) shall not exceed 0.13 milligram per square inch of film, and food contact of the film shall be limited to not more than 1 square inch per 250 grams of beverage.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>2-Ethylhexyl acrylate copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Acrylonitrile.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Methacrylonitrile.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Methyl acrylate.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Methyl methacrylate.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Itaconic acid.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Vinylidene chloride copolymerized with one or more of the following:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Methacrylic acid and its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, or octyl esters.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Acrylic acid and its methyl, ethyl, propyl, butyl, or octyl esters.
</FP1-2>
<P>Acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>Methacrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>Vinyl chloride.
</P>
<P>Itaconic acid.
</P>
<FP-1>Styrene-maleic anhydride resin, partial 2-butoxyethyl ester, ammonium salt (CAS Reg. No. 68890-80-2). For use only as a coating for polyethylene phthalate films complying with paragraph (a) of this section, at levels not to exceed 0.025 gram per square meter (0.016 milligram per square inch) of the film, in contact with food of types VIII and IX in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under use conditions E, F, and G in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Emulsifiers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate: As an adjuvant in the application of coatings to the base sheet or base polymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium lauryl sulfate: As an adjuvant in the application of coatings to the base sheet or base polymer. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Sulfoethyl methacrylate, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 1804-87-1). For use only in copolymer coatings on polyethylene phthalate film under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 175.300(d) of this chapter, and limited to use at a level not to exceed 2.0 percent by weight of the dry copolymer coating.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) Modifier:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>1,4-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester, polymer with 1,4-butanediol and α-hydro-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly(oxy-1,4-butanediyl) CAS Reg. No. 9078-71-1) meeting the following specifications:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2><I>Melting point:</I> 200° to 215 °C as determined by ASTM method D2117-82, “Standard Test Method for Melting Point of Semicrystalline Polymers by the Hot Stage Microscopy Method,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2><I>Density:</I> 1.15 to 1.20 as determined by ASTM method D1505-68 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Density of Plastics by the Density-Gradient Technique,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>The modifier is used at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of polyethylene terephthalate film. The average thickness of the finished film shall not exceed 0.016 millimeter (0.0006 inch).
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Hexanedioic acid polymer with 1,3-benzenedimethanamine (CAS Reg. No. 25718-70-1) meeting the specifications in § 177.1500(b), item 10, when tested by the methods given in § 177.1500(c). The modifier is used in polyethylene terephthalate at a level not to exceed 30 percent by weight of the polyethylene terephthalate.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Chloroform-soluble extractives shall not exceed 0.08 milligram/centimeter
<SU>2</SU> (0.5 milligram/inch
<SU>2</SU>) of food-contact surface of the modified polyethylene terephthalate article when exposed to the following solvents at temperatures and times indicated:
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(<I>a</I>) Distilled water at 49 °C (120 °F) for 24 hours;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(<I>b</I>) <I>n</I>-Heptane at 49 °C (120 °F) for 24 hours;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(<I>c</I>) 8 percent ethyl alcohol at 49 °C (120 °F) for 24 hours.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>For use in contact with all types of foods except (<I>a</I>) those containing more than 8 percent alcohol, or (<I>b</I>) those at temperatures over 49 °C (120 °F).</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) Polyethylene phthalate plastics conforming with the specifications prescribed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) The food contact surface, when exposed to distilled water at 250 °F for 2 hours, yields chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 mg/in
<SU>2</SU> of food contact surface exposed to the solvent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The food contact surface, when exposed to <I>n</I>-heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours, yields chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 mg/in
<SU>2</SU> of food contact surface exposed to the solvent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The plastics are used for packaging, transporting, or holding food, excluding alcoholic beverages, at temperatures not to exceed 250 °F.
</P>
<P>(g) Polyethylene phthalate plastics conforming with the specifications prescribed in paragraph (g)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) The food contact surface meets the specifications in paragraph (f)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The food contact surface when exposed to 50 percent ethyl alcohol at 120 °F for 24 hours, yields chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 mg/in
<SU>2</SU> of food contact surface exposed to the solvent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The plastics are used for packaging, transporting, or holding alcoholic beverages that do not exceed 50 percent alcohol by volume.
</P>
<P>(h) Uncoated polyethylene phthalate plastics consisting of a base sheet or base polymer prepared as prescribed from substances identified in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section and conforming with the specifications prescribed in paragraph (h)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) The food contact surface, when exposed to distilled water at 250 °F for 2 hours yields chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.02 milligram/inch 
<SU>2</SU> of food contact surface exposed to the solvent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The food contact surface, when exposed to <I>n-</I>heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours, yields chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.02 milligram/inch 
<SU>2</SU> of food contact surface exposed to the solvent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The plastics are used to contain foods during oven baking or oven cooking at temperatures above 250 °F.
</P>
<P>(i) Polyethylene phthalate fabric, identified in paragraph (c) of this section and conforming with the specifications prescribed in paragraph (i)(1) of this section, is used only as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Chloroform-soluble extractives shall not exceed 0.2 milligram/inch 
<SU>2</SU> of food-contact surface when exposed to the following solvents at temperatures and times indicated:
</P>
<P>(i) Distilled water at 212 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>n-</I>Heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) 50 percent ethyl alcohol at 120 °F for 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The plastics are intended for:
</P>
<P>(i) Dry food contact.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bulk food (excluding alcoholic beverages) repeated use applications, including filtration, at temperatures not exceeding 212 °F.
</P>
<P>(iii) Filtration of bulk alcoholic beverages, not exceeding 50 percent alcohol by volume, at temperatures not exceeding 120 °F.
</P>
<P>(j) Polyethylene phthalate plastics, composed of ethylene terephthalate-isophthalate containing a minimum of 98 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene terephthalate, or ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolyesters described in § 177.1315(b)(3), conforming with the specifications prescribed in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, are used as provided in paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) The food contact surface meets the specifications in paragraph (f)(1) of this section and
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) <I>Containers with greater than 500 mL capacity.</I> The food-contact surface when exposed to 95 percent ethanol at 120 °F for 24 hours should not yield chloroform-soluble extractives in excess of 0.005 mg/in 
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Containers with less than or equal to 500 mL capacity.</I> The food contact surface when exposed to 95 percent ethanol at 120 °F for 24 hours should not yield chloroform-soluble extractives in excess of 0.05 mg/in 
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The plastics are used for packaging, transporting, or holding alcoholic foods that do not exceed 95 percent alcohol by volume.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 177.1630, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1632" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1632   Poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resins.</HEAD>
<P>Poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated contact with food.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, the poly(phenylene- terephthalamide) resins (CAS Reg. No. 26125-61-1) are produced by the polymerization of terephthalolyl chloride with <I>p</I>-phenylenediamine. The poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resin fibers and yarns may contain optional adjuvant substances required in their preparation and finishing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain the following optional adjuvant substances, subject to any limitation on their use:
</P>
<P>(1) Optional adjuvant substances authorized for this use in accordance with § 174.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Optional finish components, total weight not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the base polymer, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diundecylphthalate (CAS Reg. No. 3648-20-2).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mono- and dipotassium salts of lauryl phosphate (CAS Reg. No. 39322-78-6).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">o</E>-Phenylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 90-43-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a fungicide for finish coating materials. Not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight of the base polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(oxyethylene/oxypropylene)monobutylether (CAS Reg. No. 9038-95-3).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(oxyethylene) mono(nonylphenyl)ether (CAS Reg. No. 9016-45-9).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl methylether (CAS Reg. No. 9003-09-2).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(oxyethylene) sorbitol monolaurate tetraoleate (CAS Reg. No. 71243-28-2).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(oxyethylene) sorbitol hexaoleate (CAS Reg. No. 57171-56-9).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Butylidenebis (6-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-<E T="03">m</E>-cresol) (CAS Reg. No. 85-60-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an oxidation inhibitor for finish coating materials. Not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight of the base polymer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resins in the form of continuous filament yarns or fibers that have been scoured in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section, when refluxed in a 50 percent ethanol/water mixture for 24 hours, yields total extractables not exceeding 0.5 percent by weight of the sample.
</P>
<P>(2) Poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resins in the form of pulp, when refluxed in a 50 percent ethanol/water mixture for 24 hours, yields total extractables not exceeding 0.65 percent by weight of the sample.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) Poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resins in the form of continuous filament yarns and fibers may be used as components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food at temperatures not to exceed 260 °C (500 °F). All items are scoured prior to use by agitation in a water bath containing 0.5 gram/liter of tetrasodium pyrophosphate and 0.5 percent detergent. The items are agitated at 80 °C (180 °F) for 20 minutes, and then subjected to a cold water rinse.
</P>
<P>(2) Poly(phenyleneterephthalamide) resins in the form of pulp may be used as gaskets and packing for food processing equipment at temperatures not to exceed 260 °C (500 °F).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3125, Jan. 28, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1635" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1635   Poly(p-methylstyrene) and rubber-modified poly(p-methylstyrene).</HEAD>
<P>Poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) and rubber-modified poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) identified in this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section, poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) and rubber-modified poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) are basic polymers, manufactured as described in this paragraph, meeting the specifications prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) (CAS Reg. No. 24936-41-2) polymer produced by the polymerization of <I>p</I>-methylstyrene.
</P>
<P>(2) Rubber-modified poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) (CAS Reg. No. 33520-88-6) polymer produced by combining styrene-butadiene copolymer and/or polybutadiene with poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene), either during or after polymerization of the poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene), such that the finished polymers contain not less than 75 weight percent of total polymer units derived from <I>p</I>-methylstyrene) monomer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvants.</I> The basic polymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic polymers. Such optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by applicable regulations in this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances generally recognized as safe in indirect additives, and substances used in accordance with prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) basic polymers identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall contain not more than 1 weight percent of total residual <I>p</I>-methystyrene monomer, as determined by a gas chromatographic method titled, “Gas Chromatographic Determination of PMS and PET in PPMS Basic Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Rubber-modified poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) basic polymers identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall contain not more than 0.5 weight percent of total residual <I>p</I>-methylstyrene monomer, as determined by the method identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other specifications and limitations.</I> The poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) and rubber-modified poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> Poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) basic polymers and rubber-modified poly(<I>p</I>-methylstyrene) basic polymers identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2), respectively, of this section shall be used in contact with food only under conditions of use B through H set forth in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 31384, July 8, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 55 FR 52989, Dec. 26, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1637" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1637   Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyloxycarbonyl-2,6-naphthalenediylcarbonyl) resins.</HEAD>
<P>Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyloxycarbonyl-2,6-naphthalenediylcarbonyl) resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyloxycarbonyl-2,6-naphthalenediylcarbonyl) resins (CAS Reg. No. 24968-11-4) are polymers formed by catalytic transesterification of 2,6-dimethylnaphthalene dicarboxylate with ethylene glycol followed by catalytic polycondensation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) <I>Density.</I> The density of poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyloxycarbonyl-2,6-naphthalenediylcarbonyl) resins shall be between 1.33 and 1.40 grams per cubic centimeter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inherent viscosity.</I> The finished food-contact article shall have a minimum inherent viscosity of 0.55 deciliter per gram in a solution of 0.1 gram of polymer in 100 milliliters of a 25/40/35 (weight/weight/weight) solution of <I>p</I>-chlorophenol/tetrachloroethane/phenol. The viscosity is determined by Eastman Chemical Co.'s method ECD-A-AC-G-V-1-5, “Determination of Dilute Solution Viscosity of Polyesters,” dated May 31, 1988, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extraction limitations.</I> A 0.5 millimeter (0.02 inch) thick sheet of resin when extracted with water at 121 °C (250 °F) for 2 hours shall yield total nonvolatile extractives not exceeding 2.0 micrograms per square inch of exposed resin surface.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The finished food contact article shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) Used in contact only with food of Types I, II, IVB, VIA, VIB, VIIB, and VIII identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; and with food of Types III, IVA, V, VIC, VIIA, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use C through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Identified in a manner that will differentiate the article from articles made of other polymeric resins to facilitate collection and sorting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 14965, Apr. 4, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5594, Feb. 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1640" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1640   Polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene.</HEAD>
<P>Polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene identified in this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section, polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene are basic polymers manufactured as described in this paragraph so as to meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section when tested by the method described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Polystyrene consists of basic polymers produced by the polymerization of styrene.
</P>
<P>(2) Rubber-modified polystyrene consists of basic polymers produced by combining styrene-butadiene copolymers and/or polybutadiene with polystyrene, either during or after polymerization of the polystyrene, such that the finished basic polymers contain not less than 75 weight percent of total polymer units derived from styrene monomer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvants.</I> The basic polymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic polymers. Such optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Polystyrene basic polymers identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall contain not more than 1 weight percent of total residual styrene monomer, as determined by the method described in paragraph (d) of this section, except that when used in contact with fatty foods of Types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, such polystyrene basic polymers shall contain not more than 0.5 weight percent of total residual styrene monomer.
</P>
<P>(2) Rubber-modified polystyrene basic polymers identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall contain not more than 0.5 weight percent of total residual styrene monomer, as determined by the method described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Analytical method for determination of total residual styrene monomer content</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This method is suitable for the determination of residual styrene monomer in all types of styrene polymers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Principle.</I> The sample is dissolved in methylene chloride. An aliquot of the solution is injected into a gas chromatograph. The amount of styrene monomer present is determined from the area of the resulting peak.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Apparatus</I>—(i) <I>Gas chromatograph.</I> Beckman GC-2A gas chromatograph with hydrogen flame detector or apparatus of equivalent sensitivity. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Chromatograph column.</I> One-quarter inch outside diameter stainless steel tubing (0.028 inch wall thickness), 4 feet in length, packed with 20 percent polyethylene glycol (20,000 molecular weight) on alkaline treated 60-80 mesh firebrick.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Recorder.</I> Millivolt range of 0-1, chart speed of 30 inches per hour.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reagents.</I> Compressed air, purified; helium gas; hydrogen gas; methylene chloride, redistilled; and styrene monomer, redistilled.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Operating conditions for the gas chromatograph.</I> (i) The column is operated at a temperature of 100 °C with a helium flow rate of 82 milliliters per minute.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hydrogen burner is operated with 15 pounds per square inch of air pressure and 7 pounds per square inch of hydrogen pressure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The attenuation of the hydrogen flame detector is set at 2 × 10
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Standardization.</I> (i) Prepare a standard solution by weighing accurately 15 to 20 milligrams of styrene monomer into a 2-ounce bottle containing 25.0 milliliters of methylene chloride. Cap the bottle tightly and shake to thoroughly mix the solution.
</P>
<P>(ii) By means of a microliter syringe, inject 1 microliter of the standard solution into the gas chromatograph. Measure the area of the styrene monomer peak which emerges after approximately 12 minutes.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Procedure.</I> (i) Transfer 1 gram of sample (accurately weighed to the nearest 0.001 gram to a 2-ounce bottle and add several glass beads. Pipette 25.0 milliliters of methylene chloride into the bottle. Cap the bottle tightly and place on a mechanical shaker. Shake until the polymer is completely dissolved. If any insoluble residue remains, allow the bottle to stand (or centrifuge at a low speed) until a clear supernatant layer appears.
</P>
<P>(ii) By means of a microliter syringe, inject 3 microliters of the clear supernatant liquid into the gas chromatograph.
</P>
<P>(iii) Measure the area of the resulting styrene monomer peak. Compare the sample peak area with the area produced by the standard styrene monomer solution. Calculation:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Percent residual styrene monomer = Milligrams monomer in standard × peak area of sample / Peak area of monomer standard × sample weight in grams × 30</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Other specifications and limitations.</I> The polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nonapplicability.</I> The provisions of this section are not applicable to polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1650" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1650   Polysulfide polymer-polyepoxy resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polysulfide polymer-polyepoxy res- ins may be safely used as the food-contact surface of articles intended for packaging, transporting, holding, or otherwise contacting dry food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Polysulfide polymer-polyepoxy resins are the reaction products of liquid polysulfide polymers and polyfunctional epoxide resins, cured with the aid of tri(dimethylaminomethyl) phenol, to which have been added certain optional substances to impart desired technological properties to the resins. Subject to any limitations prescribed in this section, the optional substances may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food and food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances the use of which is permitted under applicable regulations in this part, prior sanctions, or approvals.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances named in this subparagraph and further identified as required:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(2-chloroethyl) formal
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(dichloropropyl) formal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-linking agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Solvent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon black (channel process)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated paraffins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-linking agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized linseed oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized soybean oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxy resins (as listed in § 175.300(b)(3)(viii)(<E T="03">a</E>) of this chapter).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol monobutyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Solvent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium chloride
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isobutyl ketone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Solvent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dibutyl naphthalene sulfonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wetting agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hydrosulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium polysulfide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β,β′,γ,γ′-Tetrachloro normal propyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-linking agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Solvent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloroethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-linking agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2,3-Trichloropropane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urea-formaldehyde resins
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Solvent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The resins are used as the food-contact surface for dry food.
</P>
<P>(c) An appropriate sample of the finished resin in the form in which it contacts food, when subjected to ASTM method D968-81, “Standard Test Methods for Abrasion Resistance of Organic Coatings by the Falling Abrasive Tester,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), using No. 50 Emery abrasive in lieu of Ottawa sand, shall exhibit and abrasion coefficient of not less than 20 liters per mil of film thickness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10110, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1655" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1655   Polysulfone resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polysulfone resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, polysulfone resins are:
</P>
<P>(1) Poly(oxy-<I>p</I>-phenylenesulfonyl-<I>p</I>-phenyleneoxy-<I>p</I>-phenyleneisopropylidene-<I>p</I>-phenylene) resins (CAS Reg. No. 25154-01-2) consisting of basic resins produced when the disodium salt of 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol is made to react with 4,4′-dichlorodiphenyl sulfone in such a way that the finished resins have a minimum number average molecular weight of 15,000, as determined by osmotic pressure in monochlorobenzene; or
</P>
<P>(2) 1,1′-Sulfonylbis[4-chlorobenzene] polymer with 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol] (minimum 92 percent) and 4,4′-sulfonylbis[phenol] (maximum 8 percent) (CAS Reg. No. 88285-91-0) produced when a mixture of 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol (minimum 92 percent) and 4,4′-sulfonylbis[phenol] (maximum 8 percent) is made to react with 4,4′-dichlorodiphenyl sulfone in such a way that the finished resin has a minimum number average molecular weight of 26,000, as determined by osmotic pressure in dimethylformamide.
</P>
<P>(b) The basic polysulfone resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic resins. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the basic polysulfone resins may include substances described in § 174.5(d) of this chapter and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl sulfoxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 50 parts per million as residual solvent in finished basic resin in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monochlorobenzene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 500 parts per million as residual solvent in finished basic resin in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-methyl-2-pyrrolidone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.01 percent (100 parts per million) as residual solvent in finished basic resin in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Polysulfone resins, when extracted at reflux temperatures for 6 hours with the solvents—distilled water, 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water, 3 percent acetic acid in distilled water, and <I>n-</I>heptane, yield total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.0078 milligram per square centimeter (0.05 milligram per square inch) of resin surface. Note: In testing the finished polysulfone resins, use a separate resin test sample for each required extracting solvent.
</P>
<P>(d) Polysulfone resins intended for repeated use in contact with food may be used under conditions of use A through H in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The resins intended for single-service food-contact use may be used only under condition of use H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 882, Jan. 9, 1986; 51 FR 4165, Feb. 3, 1986; 61 FR 29475, June 11, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1660" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1660   Poly (tetramethylene terephthalate).</HEAD>
<P>Poly(tetramethylene terephthalate) (poly (oxytetramethyleneoxyter-ephthaloyl)) [Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 24968-12-5] identified in this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended to contact food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, poly (tetramethylene terephthalate) is the reaction product of dimethyl terephthalate with 1,4-butanediol to which may have been added certain optional substances to impart desired technological properties to the polymer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> Poly(tetramethylene terephthalate) identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances. The quantity of any optional adjuvant substance employed in the production of the polymer does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical or physical effect. Such adjuvants may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with prior sanction, and substances permitted under applicable regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Inherent viscosity of a 0.50 percent solution of the polymer in phenol/tetrachloroethane (60/40 weight ratio) solvent is not less than 0.6 as determined using a Wagner viscometer (or equivalent) and calculated from the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.400.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>N<E T="54">r</E> = Ratio of flow time of the polymer solution to that of the solvent and c = polymer concentration of the test solution in grams per 100 milliliters.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Poly(tetramethylene terephthalate) in the finished form in which it is to contact food shall yield total extractives as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Not to exceed 0.08 milligram per square inch of food contact surface when extracted for 2 hours at 250 °F with distilled water.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not to exceed 0.02 milligram per square inch of food contact surface when extracted for 2 hours at 150 °F with <I>n-</I>heptane.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not to exceed 0.04 milligram per square inch of food contact surface when extracted for 2 hours at 212 °F with 3 percent aqueous acetic acid.
</P>
<P>(iv) Not to exceed 0.02 milligram per square inch of food contact surface when extracted for 2 hours at 65.6 °C (150 °F) with 50 percent ethanol.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 20748, May 20, 1985; 52 FR 20069, May 29, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1670" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1670   Polyvinyl alcohol film.</HEAD>
<P>Polyvinyl alcohol film may be safely used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types V, VIII, and IX, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The polyvinyl alcohol film is produced from polyvinyl alcohol having a minimum viscosity of 4 centipoises when a 4-percent aqueous solution is tested at 20 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) The finished food-contact film for use in contact with Food Types V or IX, when extracted with the solvent characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields total extractives not to exceed 0.078 milligram per square centimeter (0.5 milligram per square inch) of food-contact surface when tested by ASTM method F34-76 (Reapproved 1980), “Standard Test Method for Liquid Extraction of Flexible Barrier Materials,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact film shall not be used as a component of food containers intended for use in contact with water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10110, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1680" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1680   Polyurethane resins.</HEAD>
<P>The polyurethane resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as the food-contact surface of articles intended for use in contact with bulk quantities of dry food of the type identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Type VIII, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, polyurethane resins are those produced when one or more of the isocyanates listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made to react with one or more of the substances listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Isocyanates:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bis(isocyanatomethyl) benzene (CAS Reg. No. 25854-16-4).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bis(isocyanatomethyl) cyclohexane (CAS Reg. No. 38661-72-2).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Diisocyanato-3,3′-dimethylbiphenyl (bi-tolylene diisocyanate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenylmethane diisocyanate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexamethylene diisocyanate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Isocyanatomethyl - 3,5,5 - trimethylcyclohexyl isocyanate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4-Methylenebis(cyclohexyl isocyanate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toluene diisocyanate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) List of substances:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Adipic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Butanediol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Butylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Cyclohexane dimethanol (CAS Reg. No. 105-08-8).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,6-Hexanediol (CAS Reg. No. 629-11-8).α-Hydro-ω-hydroxypoly(oxy-1,4-butanediyl) (CAS Reg. No. 25190-06-1).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-Hydro-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly (oxytetramethylene).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α′-(Isopropylidenedi-<I>p-</I>phenylene)bis[<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxypropylene)(3-4 moles)], average molecular weight 675.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic anhydride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl oxirane polymer with oxirane (CAS Reg. No. 9003-11-6).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl oxirane polymer with oxirane, ether with 1,2,3-propanetriol (CAS Reg. No. 9082-00-2).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α′α″,α″′-Neopentanetetrayltetrakis [<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxypropylene) (1-2 moles)], average molecular weight 400.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol-linseed oil alcoholysis product.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic anhydride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethyleneadipate modified with ethanolamine with the molar ratio of the amine to the adipic acid less than 0.1 to 1.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poly(oxycarbonylpentamethylene).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxypropylene ethers of 4.4′-isopropyl-idenediphenol (containing an average of 2-4 moles of propylene oxide).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polypropylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α′,α″-1,2,3-Propanetriyltris [<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxypropylene) (15-18 moles)], average molecular weight 3,000.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α,α′,α″-[Propylidynetris (methylene)] tris [<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxypropylene) (minimum 1.5 moles)], minimum molecular weight 400.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>α-[ρ(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl) - phenyl]-<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) (5 moles), average molecular weight 425.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylol propane.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Optional adjuvant substances employed in the production of the polyurethane resins or added thereto to impart desired technical or physical properties may include the following substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-[(2-Aminoethyl)amino]2-propanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a curing agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-(3-Chloroallyl)-3,5,7-triaza-1-azoniaadamantane chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a preservative.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyltin diacetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyltin dichloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyltin dilaurate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N-</E>Dimethyldodecylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-</E>Dodecylmorpholine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a,a′</E>-[Isopropylidenebis[<E T="03">p-</E>phenyleneoxy(2-hydroxytrimethylene) ]]bis[<E T="03">omega-</E>hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) (136-170 moles)], average molecular weight 15,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a stabilizer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Methylenedianiline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a curing agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1′,1″-Nitrilotri-2-propanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-(<E T="03">p-</E>Phenylenedioxy) diethanol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl isobutyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl methyl ether
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soyaalkyd resin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conforming in composition with § 175.300 of this chapter and containing litharge not to exceed that residual from its use as the reaction catalyst and creosol not to exceed that required as an antioxidant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrakis [methylene-(2,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate)]methane (CAS Reg. No. 6683-19-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N,N′N′-</E>Tetrakis (2-hydroxypropyl)ethylenediamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a curing agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trimethyleneglycol di (<E T="03">p</E>-aminobenzoate) (CAS Reg. No. 57609-64-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a curing agent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) An appropriate sample of the finished resin in the form in which it contacts food, when subjected to ASTM method D968-81, “Standard Test Methods for Abrasion Resistance of Organic Coatings by the Falling Abrasive Tester,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), using No. 50 Emery abrasive in lieu of Ottawa sand, shall exhibit an abrasion coefficient of not less than 20 liters per mil of film thickness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 57033, Nov. 20, 1981; 49 FR 10110, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 51847, Dec. 20, 1985; 56 FR 15278, Apr. 16, 1991; 56 FR 42933, Aug. 30, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1810" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1810   Styrene block polymers.</HEAD>
<P>The styrene block polymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or as components of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, styrene block polymers are basic polymers manufactured as described in this paragraph, so that the finished polymers meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, when tested by the methods described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene are those produced by the catalytic solution polymerization of styrene and 1,3-butadiene.
</P>
<P>(2) Styrene block polymers with 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene are those produced by the catalytic solution polymerization of styrene and 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene.
</P>
<P>(3) Styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene, hydrogenated are those produced by the catalytic solution polymerization of styrene and 1,3-butadiene, and subsequently hydrogenated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Styrene block polymers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Molecular weight (minimum)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Solubility
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Glass transition points
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum extractable fraction in distilled water at specified temperatures, times, and thicknesses
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum extractable fraction in 50 percent ethanol at specified temperatures, times, and thicknesses
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. (i) Styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene; for use as articles or as components of articles that contact food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII identified in table 1 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Completely soluble in toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−98 °C (−144 °F) to −71 °C (−96 °F) and 86 °C (187 °F) to 122 °C (252 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0039 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.025 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface at reflux temperature for 30 min on a 0.19 cm (0.075 in) thick sample</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.01 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface at 66 °C (150 °F) for 2 hr on a 0.19 cm (0.075 in) thick sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene; for use as components of pressure-sensitive adhesives that contact food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII identified in table 1 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use C, D, E, F and G described in table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, provided the pressure-sensitive adhesives be applied only to closure tapes for sealing containers having a capacity of not less than 160 cc (5.5 fluid ounces) and that the area of the adhesive exposed to food shall not exceed 4.03 cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.625 in
<sup>2</sup>). The pressure-sensitive adhesive may contain terpene resins as identified in § 175.125(b)(2) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Styrene block polymers with 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene; for use as articles or as components of articles that contact food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII identified in table 1 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−65 °C (−85 °F) to −47 °C (−53 °F) and 86 °C (187 °F) to 122 °C (252 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.01 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface at reflux temperature for 2 hr on a 0.071 cm (0.028 in) thick sample. (Optionally, maximum net residue soluble in chloroform shall not exceed 0.00020 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.0013 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.01 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface at 66 °C (150 °F) for 2 hr on a 0.071 cm (0.028 in) thick sample. (Optionally, maximum net residue soluble in chloroform shall not exceed 0.00040 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.0025 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. (i) Styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene, hydrogenated (CAS Reg. No. 66070-58-4): for use as articles or as components of articles that contact food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII identified in table 1 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−50 °C (−58 °F) to −30 °C (−22 °F) and 92 °C (198 °F) to 98 °C (208 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.01 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface at reflux temperature for 2 hr on a 0.071 cm (0.028 in) thick sample</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002 mg/cm
<sup>2</sup> (0.01 mg/in
<sup>2</sup>) of surface at 66 °C (150 °F) for 2 hr on a 0.071 cm (0.028 in) thick sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene, hydrogenated (CAS Reg. No. 66070-58-4): for use at levels not to exceed 42.4 percent by weight as a component of closures with sealing gaskets that would contact food of Types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and in condition of use D as described under table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The analytical methods for determining whether styrene block polymers conform to the specifications prescribed in this section are as follows and are applicable to the finished polymer.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Molecular weight.</I> Molecular weight shall be determined by intrinsic viscosity (or other suitable method).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Glass transition points.</I> The glass transition points shall be determined by either of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) ASTM method D2236-70 (“Standard Method of Test for Dynamic Mechanical Properties of Plastics by Means of Torsional Pendulum,” which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) modified by using a forced resonant vibration instead of a fixed vibration and by using frequencies of 25 to 40 cycles per second instead of 0.1 to 10 cycles per second.
</P>
<P>(ii) Direct reading viscoelastometric method titled “Direct Reading Viscoelastrometric Method for Determining Glass Transition Points of Styrene Block Polymers” (which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), by which the glass transition points are determined in the tensile mode of deformation at a frequency of 35 hertz using a Rheovibron Model DDV-II (or equivalent) Direct Reading Viscoelastometer. Take maxima in the out-of-phase component of the complex modulus as the glass transition points. For block polymers of low styrene content or for simple block polymers, the polymer may be treated with 0.3 part per hundred dicumyl peroxide and cured for 30 minutes at 153 °C to accentuate the upper transition point.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maximum extractable fractions in distilled water and 50 percent ethanol and the maximum net residue solubles in chloroform.</I> The maximum extractable fractions in distilled water and 50 percent ethanol, and the maximum net residue solubles in chloroform, shall be determined in accordance with § 176.170(d)(3) of this chapter using a sandwich form of the finished copolymer of the specified thickness and for the time and temperature specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to butadiene-styrene copolymers listed in other sections of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) The provisions of this section are not applicable to styrene block polymers with 1,3-butadiene listed in § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 43621, Aug. 30, 1977; 47 FR 11844, Mar. 19, 1982; 51 FR 16828, May 7, 1986; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 58 FR 65546, Dec. 15, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1820" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1820   Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, styrene-maleic anhydride copolymers are those produced by the polymerization of styrene and maleic anhydride so that the finished polymers meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, when tested by the methods described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Styrene-maleic copolymers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Molecular weight (minimum number average)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Residual styrene monomer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Residual maleic anhydride monomer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum extractable fraction in distilled water at specified temperatures, times, and particle size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum extractable fraction in <E T="03">n-</E>heptane at specified temperatures, times, and particle size
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymers containing not more than 15 pct maleic anhydride units by weight; for use as articles or as components of articles that contact food of Types I, II, III, IV-A, IV-B, V, VI-B (except carbonated beverages), VII-A, VII-B, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3 weight percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 weight percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.006 weight percent at reflux temperature for 1 hr utilizing particles of a size that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 10 and will be held on a U.S. standard sieve No. 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02 weight percent at 73 °F for 2 hr utilizing particles of a size that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 10 and will be held on a U.S. standard sieve No. 20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Styrene-maleic anhydride copolymer modified with butadiene, (CAS Reg. No. 27288-99-9) containing not more than 15 percent maleic anhydride units by weight and not more than 20 percent styrene-butadiene and/or butadiene rubber units by weight; for use (except carbonated beverage bottles) as articles or as components of articles that contact food of Types I, II, III, IV-A, IV-B, V, VI, VII-A, VII-B, VIII, and IX identified in table I in § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015 weight percent at reflux temperature for 1 hour utilizing particles of a size that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 10 and will be held on a U.S. standard sieve No. 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 weight percent at 23 °C (73 °F) for 2 hours utilizing particles of a size that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 10 and will be held on a U.S. standard sieve No. 20.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The analytical methods for determining conformance with specifications for styrene-maleic anhydride copolymers prescribed in this section are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Molecular weight.</I> Molecular weight shall be determined by membrane osmometry.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Residual styrene monomer content.</I> Residual styrene monomer content shall be determined by the method described in § 177.1640(d).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Residual maleic anhydride monomer content.</I> Residual maleic anhydride monomer content shall be determined by a gas chromatographic method titled “Determination of Residual Maleic Anhydride in Polymers by Gas Chromatography,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to styrene-maleic anhydride copolymers listed in other sections of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11844, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 14698, Apr. 6, 1982; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1830" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1830   Styrene-methyl methacrylate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Styrene-methyl methacrylate copolymers identified in this section may be safely used as components of plastic articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, styrene-methyl methacrylate copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of styrene and methyl methacrylate such that the finished basic copolymers contain more than 50 weight percent of polymer units derived from styrene.
</P>
<P>(b) The finished plastic food-contact article, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields extractives not to exceed the following when tested by the methods prescribed in § 177.1010(c);
</P>
<P>(1) Total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.3 milligram per square inch of surface tested.
</P>
<P>(2) Potassium permanganate oxidizable distilled water and 8 and 50 percent alcohol extractives not to exceed an absorbance of 0.15.
</P>
<P>(3) Ultraviolet-absorbing distilled water and 8 and 50 percent alcohol extractives not to exceed an absorbance of 0.30.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet-absorbing <I>n-</I>heptane extractives not to exceed an absorbance of 0.40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1850" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1850   Textryls.</HEAD>
<P>Textryls identified in this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles, intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Textryls are nonwoven sheets prepared from natural or synthetic fibers, bonded with fibryl (Fibryl consists of a polymeric resin in fibrous form commingled with fiber to facilitate sheet formation and subsequently heat cured to fuse the fibryl and effect bonding).
</P>
<P>(b) Textryls are prepared from the fibers, fibryls, and adjuvants identified in paragraph (c) of this section, and subject to limitations prescribed in that paragraph, provided that any substance that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specifications in such regulation for that substance as a component of polymeric resins used as food contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(c) The fibers, fibryls, and adjuvants permitted are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Fibers prepared from polyethylene terephthalate resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conforming with § 177.1630.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Fibryls prepared from vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate copolymer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the basic polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Adjuvant substance, dimethylformamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a solvent in the preparation of fibryl.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Textryls meeting the conditions of test prescribed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section are used as prescribed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conditions of test.</I> Textryls, when extracted with distilled water at reflux temperature for 1 hour, yield total extractives not to exceed 1 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Uses.</I> Textryls are used for packaging or holding food at ordinary temperatures and in the brewing of hot beverages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1900" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1900   Urea-formaldehyde resins in molded articles.</HEAD>
<P>Urea-formaldehyde resins may be safely used as the food-contact surface of molded articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, urea-formaldehyde resins are those produced when 1 mole of urea is made to react with not more than 2 moles of formaldehyde in water solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The resins may be mixed with refined wood pulp and the mixture may contain other optional adjuvant substances which may include the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as polymerization-control agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachlorophthalic acid anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as lubricant.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact article, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 175.300(d) of this chapter, yields total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface as determined by the methods described in § 175.300(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In testing the finished food-contact article, use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1950" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1950   Vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for contact with food, under conditions of use D, E, F, or G described in table 2 of § 176.170 (c) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of vinyl chloride and ethylene such that the finished basic copolymers meet the specifications and extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, when tested by the methods described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The basic vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic copolymers. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the basic vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymers may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) The vinyl chloride-ethylene basic copolymers meet the following specifications and extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) Total chlorine content is in the range of 53 to 56 percent as determined by any suitable analytical procedure of generally accepted applicability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Intrinsic viscosity in cyclohexanone at 30 °C is not less than 0.50 deciliter per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The following extractives limitations are determined by the methods described in paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Total extractives do not exceed 0.10 weight-percent when extracted with <I>n-</I>heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Total extractives do not exceed 0.03 weight-percent when extracted with water at 150 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) Total extractives obtained by extracting with water at 150 °F for 2 hours contain no more than 0.5 milligram of vinyl chloride-ethylene copol-ymer per 100 grams of sample tested as determined from the organic chlorine content. The organic chlorine content is determined as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Analytical methods: The analytical methods for determining whether vinyl chloride-ethylene basic copolymers conform to the extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section are as follows and are applicable to the basic copolymers in powder form having a particle size such that 100 percent will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 40 and 80 percent will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 80:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reagents</I>—(i) <I>Water.</I> All water used in these procedures shall be demineralized (deionized), freshly distilled water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>n-Heptane.</I> Reagent grade, freshly distilled <I>n-</I>heptane shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of total amount of extractives.</I> All determinations shall be done in duplicate using duplicate blanks. Approximately 400 grams of sample (accurately weighed) shall be placed in a 2-liter Erlenmeyer flask. Add 1,200 milliliters of solvent and cover the flask with aluminum foil. The covered flask and contents are suspended in a thermostated bath and are kept, with continual shaking at 150 °F for 2 hours. The solution is then filtered through a No. 42 Whatman filter paper, and the filtrate is collected in a graduated cylinder. The total amount of filtrate (without washing) is measured and called <I>A</I> milliliters. The filtrate is transferred to a Pyrex (or equivalent) beaker and evaporated on a steam bath under a stream of nitrogen to a small volume (approximately 50-60 milliliters). The concentrated filtrate is then quantitatively transferred to a tared 100-milliliter Pyrex beaker using small, fresh portions of solvent and a rubber policeman to effect the transfer. The concentrated filtrate is evaporated almost to dryness on a hotplate under nitrogen, and is then transferred to a drying oven at 230 °F in the case of the aqueous extract or to a vacuum oven at 150 °F in the case of the heptane extract. In the case of the aqueous extract, the evaporation to constant weight is completed in 15 minutes at 230 °F; and in the case of heptane extract, it is overnight under vacuum at 150 °F. The residue is weighed and corrected for the solvent blank. Calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.401.gif"/>
<P>(3) <I>Vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymer content of aqueous extract</I>—(i) <I>Principle.</I> The vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymer content of the aqueous extract can be determined by determining the organic chlorine content and calculating the amount of copolymer equivalent to the organic chlorine content.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Total organic chlorine content.</I> A weighed sample of approximately 400 grams is extracted with 1,200 milliliters of water at 150 °F for 2 hours, filtered, and the volume of filtrate is measured (<I>A</I> milliliters) as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A slurry of Amberlite IRA-400, or equivalent, is made with distilled water in a 150-milliliter beaker. The slurry is added to a chromatographic column until it is filled to about half its length. This should give a volume of resin of 15-25 milliliters. The liquid must not be allowed to drain below the top of the packed column.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The column is regenerated to the basic (OH) form by slowly passing through it (10-15 milliliters per minute) 10 grams of sodium hydroxide dissolved in 200 milliliters of water. The column is washed with distilled water until the effluent is neutral to phenolphthalein. One drop of methyl red indicator is added to the <I>A</I> milliliters of filtered aqueous extract and, if on the basic side (yellow), nitric acid is added drop by drop until the solution turns pink.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The extract is deionized by passing it through the exchange column at a rate of 10-15 milliliters per minute. The column is washed with 200 milliliters of distilled water. The deionized extract and washings are collected in a 1,500-milliliter beaker. The solution is evaporated carefully on a steam plate to a volume of approximately 50 milliliters and then transferred quantitatively, a little at a time, to a clean 22-milliliter Parr cup, also on the steam plate. The solution is evaporated to dryness. Next 0.25 gram of sucrose and 0.5 gram of benzoic acid are added to the cup. One scoop (approximately 15 grams) of sodium peroxide is then added to the cup. The bomb is assembled and ignition is conducted in the usual fashion.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) After the bomb has cooled, it is rinsed thoroughly with distilled water and disassembled. The top of the bomb is rinsed into a 250-milliliter beaker with distilled water. The beaker is placed on the steam plate. The bomb cup is placed in the beaker and carefully tipped over to allow the water to leach out the combustion mixture. After the bubbling has stopped, the cup is removed from the beaker and rinsed thoroughly. The solution is cooled to room temperature and cautiously neutralized with concentrated nitric acid by slowly pouring the acid down a stirring rod until the bubbling ceases. The solution is cooled and an equal volume of acetone is added.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The solution is titrated with 0.005 <I>N</I> silver nitrate using standard potentiometric titration techniques with a silver electrode as indicator and a potassium nitrate modified calomel electrode as a reference electrode. An expanded scale recording titrimeter. Metrohm Potentiograph 2336 or equivalent, should be used; a complete blank must be run in duplicate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculations.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.402.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = Milliliters of silver nitrate (sample minus blank) × normality of silver nitrate.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>F</I> = 1,200 / A (as defined above)</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymers identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<P>(f) The provisions of this section are not applicable to vinyl chloride-ethylene copolymers used as provided in §§ 175.105 and 176.180 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10110, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1960" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1960   Vinyl chloride-hexene-1 copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The vinyl chloride-hexene-1 copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section or as components of articles intended for use in contact with food, under conditions of use D, E, F, or G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section vinyl chloride-hexene-1 copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of vinyl chloride and hexene-1 such that the finished copolymers contain not more than 3 mole-percent of polymer units derived from hexene-1 and meet the specifications and extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section. The copolymers may optionally contain hydroxypropyl methylcellulose and trichloroethylene used as a suspending agent and chain transfer agent, respectively, in their production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications and limitations.</I> The vinyl chloride-hexene-1 basic copolymers meet the following specifications and extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) Total chlorine content is 53 to 56 percent as determined by any suitable analytical procedure of generally accepted applicability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inherent viscosity in cyclohexanone at 30 °C is not less than 0.59 deciliters per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The following extractives limitations are determined by the methods prescribed in § 177.1970(d).
</P>
<P>(i) Total extractives do not exceed 0.01 weight percent when extracted with water at 150 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) Total extractives do not exceed 0.30 weight percent when extracted with <I>n</I>-heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other specifications and limitations.</I> The vinyl chloride-hexene-1 copolymers identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is subject to a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10110, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1970" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1970   Vinyl chloride-lauryl vinyl ether copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The vinyl chloride-lauryl vinyl ether copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as an article or as a component of an article intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section vinyl chloride-lauryl vinyl ether copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of vinyl chloride and lauryl vinyl ether such that the finished copolymers contain not more than 3 weight-percent of polymer units derived from lauryl vinyl ether and meet the specifications and extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic vinyl chloride-lauryl vinyl ether copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic copolymers. These optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications and limitations.</I> The vinyl chloride-lauryl vinyl ether basic copolymers meet the following specifications and extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) Total chlorine content is 53 to 56 percent as determined by any suitable analytical procedure of generally accepted applicability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inherent viscosity in cylcoHhexanone at 30 °C is not less than 0.60 deciliter per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The following extractives limitations are determined by the method described in paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Total extractives do not exceed 0.03 weight-percent when extracted with water at 150 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) Total extractives do not exceed 0.60 weight-percent when extracted with <I>n-</I>heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Analytical methods.</I> The analytical methods for determining total extractives are applicable to the basic copolymers in powder form having a particle size such that 100 percent will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 40 and such that not more than 10 percent will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 200.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reagents</I>—(i) <I>Water.</I> All water used in these procedures shall be demineralized (deionized), freshly distilled water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>n-Heptane.</I> Reagent grade, freshly distilled <I>n-</I>heptane shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of total amount of extractives.</I> Place an accurately weighed sample of suitable size in a clean borosilicate flask, and for each gram of sample add 3 milliliters of solvent previously heated to 150 °F. Maintain the temperature of the contents of the flask at 150 °F for 2 hours using a hot plate while also maintaining gentle mechanical agitation. Filter the contents of the flask rapidly through No. 42 Whatman filter paper with the aid of suction. Transfer the filtrate to flat glass dishes that are warmed on a hot plate and evaporate the solvent with the aid of a stream of filtered air. When the volume of the filtrate has been reduced to 10 to 15 milliliters, transfer the filtrate to tared 50-milliliter borosilicate glass beakers and complete evaporation to a constant weight in a 140 °F vacuum oven. Carry out a corresponding blank determination with each solvent. Determine the weight of the residue corrected for the solvent blank and calculate the result as percent of the initial weight of the resin sample taken for analysis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other specifications and limitations.</I> The vinyl chloride-lauryl vinyl ether copolymers identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is subject to a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10110, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1980" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1980   Vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymezation of vinyl chloride and propylene such that the finished basic copolymers meet the specifications and extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, when tested by the methods described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The basic vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic copolymers. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the basic vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) The vinyl chloride-propylene basic copolymers meet the following specifications and extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> (i) Total chlorine content is in the range of 53 to 56 percent as determined by any suitable analytical procedure of generally accepted applicability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Intrinsic viscosity in cyclohexanone at 30 °C is not less than 0.50 deciliter per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The following extractives limitations are determined by the methods described in paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Total extractives do not exceed 0.10 weight-percent when extracted with <I>n-</I>heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) Total extractives do not exceed 0.03 weight-percent when extracted with water at 150 °F for 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) Total extractives obtained by extracting with water at 150 °F for 2 hours contain no more than 0.17 milligram of vinyl chloride-propylene copolymer per 100 grams of sample tested as determined from the organic chlorine content. For the purpose of this section, the organic chlorine content is the difference between the total chlorine and ionic chlorine contents determined as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Analytical methods: The analytical methods for determining whether vinyl chloride-propylene basic copolymers conform to the extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section are as follows and are applicable to the basic copolymers in powder form having a particle size such that 100 percent will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 40 and 80 percent will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 80:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reagents</I>—(i) <I>Water.</I> All water used in these procedures shall be demineralized (deionized), freshly distilled water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>n-Heptane.</I> Reagent grade, freshly distilled <I>n-</I>heptane shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of total amount of extractives.</I> All determinations shall be done in duplicate using duplicate blanks. Approximately 400 grams of sample (accurately weighed) shall be placed in a 2-liter Erlenmeyer flask. Add 1,200 milliliters of solvent and cover the flask with aluminum foil. The covered flask and contents are suspended in a thermostated bath and are kept, with continual shaking, at 150 °F for 2 hours. The solution is then filtered through a No. 42 Whatman filter paper, and the filtrate is collected in a graduated cylinder. The total amount of filtrate (without washing) is measured and called <I>A</I> milliliters. The filtrate is transferred to a Pyrex (or equivalent) beaker and evaporated on a steam bath under a stream of nitrogen to a small volume (approximately 50-60 milliliters). The concentrated filtrate is then quantitatively transferred to a tared 100-milliliter Pyrex beaker using small, fresh portions of solvent and a rubber policeman to effect the transfer. The concentrated filtrate is evaporated almost to dryness on a hotplate under nitrogen, and is then transferred to a drying oven at 230 °F in the case of the aqueous extract or to a vacuum oven at 150 °F in the case of the heptane extract. In the case of the aqueous extract the evaporation to constant weight is completed in 15 minutes at 230 °F; and in the case of heptane extract, it is overnight under vacuum at 150 °F. The residue is weighed and corrected for the solvent blank. Calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.403.gif"/>
<P>(3) <I>Vinyl chloride-propylene copolymer content of aqueous extract</I>—(i) <I>Principle.</I> The vinyl chloride-propylene copolymer content of the aqueous extract can be determined by determining the organic chlorine content and calculating the amount of copolymer equivalent to the organic chlorine content. The organic chlorine content is the difference between the total chlorine content and the ionic chlorine content.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Total chlorine content.</I> A weighed sample is extracted with water at 150 °F for 2 hours, filtered, and the volume of filtrate is measured (<I>A</I> milliliters) as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Two drops of 50 percent by weight sodium hydroxide solution are added to prevent loss of chloride from ammonium chloride, if present, and the solution is evaporated to approximately 15 milliliters. The concentrated filtrate is quantitatively transferred to a 22-milliliter Parr bomb fusion cup and gently evaporated to dryness. To the contents of the cup are added 3.5 grams of granular sodium peroxide, 0.1 gram of powdered starch, and 0.02 gram potassium nitrate; and the contents are mixed thoroughly. The bomb is assembled, water is added to the recess at the top of the bomb and ignition is conducted in the usual fashion using a Meeker burner. The heating is continued for 1 minute after the water at the top has evaporated. The bomb is quenched in water, rinsed with distilled water, and placed in a 400-milliliter beaker. The bomb cover is rinsed with water, catching the washings in the same 400-milliliter beaker. The bomb is covered with distilled water and a watch glass and heated until the melt has dissolved. The bomb is removed, rinsed, catching the rinsings in the beaker, and the solution is acidified with concentrated nitric acid using methyl purple as an indicator. The beaker is covered with a watch glass, and the contents are boiled gently for 10-15 minutes. After cooling to room temperature the solution is made slightly alkaline with 50 percent by weight sodium hydroxide solution, then acidified with dilute (1:5) nitric acid. Then 1.5 milliliters of 2 <I>N</I> nitric acid per 100 milliliters of solution is added and the solution is titrated with 0.005 <I>N</I> silver nitrate to the equivalence potential end point using an expanded scale pH meter (Beckman Model 76, or equivalent). A complete blank must be run in duplicate. Calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.404.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>A</I> = volume of filtrate obtained in extraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>B</I> = milliliters of silver nitrate solution used in sample titration × normality of silver nitrate solution.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I> = milliliters of silver nitrate solution used in blank titration × normality of silver nitrate solution.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Ionic chlorine content.</I> A weighed sample is extracted with water at 150 °F for 2 hours, filtered, and the volume of filtrate is measured (<I>A</I> milliliters) as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Two drops of 50 percent by weight sodium hydroxide solution are added and the solution is evaporated to approximately 150 milliliters. The solution is quantitatively transferred to a 250-milliliter beaker, methyl purple indicator is added, and the solution is neutralized with 0.1 <I>N</I> nitric acid. For each 100 milliliters of solution is added 1.5 milliliters of 2 <I>N</I> nitric acid. The solution is titrated with 0.005 <I>N</I> silver nitrate to the equivalence potential end point, using the expanded scale pH meter described in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section. A complete blank must be run in duplicate. Calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.405.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>A</I> = volume of filtrate obtained in extraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>D</I> = milliliters of silver nitrate solution used in sample titration × normality of silver nitrate solution. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I> = milliliters of silver nitrate solution used in blank titration × normality of silver nitrate solution.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Organic chlorine content and vinyl chloride-propylene copolymer content of aqueous extract.</I> The organic chlorine content and the vinyl chloride propylene copolymer content of the aqueous extract is calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Organic chlorine content.</I> Milliequivalents of organic chlorine in aqueous extract of 100 grams of sample equal milliequivalents of total chlorine in aqueous extract of 100 grams of sample (as calculated in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section) minus milliequivalents of ionic chlorine in aqueous extract of 100 grams of sample (as calculated in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Vinyl chloride-propylene copolymer content.</I> Milligrams of vinyl chloride-propylene copolymer in aqueous extract of 100 grams of sample equal milliequivalents of organic chlorine in aqueous extract of 100 grams of sample (as calculated in paragraph (d)(3)(iv)(<I>a</I>) of this section) multiplied by 84.5.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The conversion factor, 84.5, is derived from the equivalent weight of chlorine divided by the chlorine content of the heptane extractable fraction.)</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) The vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<P>(f) The provisions of this section are not applicable to vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10111, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.1990" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.1990   Vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>The vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 25038-72-6) identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as an article or as a component of an article intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate copolymers consist of basic copolymers produced by the copolymerization of vinylidene chloride and methyl acrylate such that the copolymers contain not more than 15 weight-percent of polymer units derived from methyl acrylate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate copolymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic copolymers. These optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 179 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The methyl acrylate content is determined by an infrared spectrophotometric method titled “Determination of Copolymer Ratio in Vinylidene Chloride/Methyl Acrylate Copolymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) The weight average molecular weight of the copolymer is not less than 50,000 when determined by gel permeation chromatography using tetrahydrofuran as the solvent. The gel permeation chromatograph is calibrated with polystyrene standards. The basic gel permeation chromatographic method is described in ANSI/ASTM D3536-76, “Standard Test Method for Molecular Weight Averages and Molecular Weight Distribution of Polystyrene by Liquid Exclusion Chromatography (Gel Permeation Chromatography-GPC),” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from University Microfilms International, 300 North Zeeb Rd., Ann Arbor, MI 48106, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) Residual vinylidene chloride and residual methyl acrylate in the copolymer in the form in which it will contact food (unsupported film, barrier layer, or as a copolymer for blending) will not exceed 10 parts per million and 5 parts per million, respectively, as determined by either a gas chromatographic method titled “Determination of Residual Vinylidene Chloride and Methyl Acrylate in Vinylidene Chloride/Methyl Acrylate Copolymer Resins and Films,” or, alternatively, “Residual Methyl Acrylate and Vinylidene Chloride Monomers in Saran MA/VDC Resins and Pellets by Headspace Gas Chromatography,” dated March 3, 1986, which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> The basic copolymer resin in the form of granules that will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 45 (350 microns) shall meet the following extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) 10-gram samples of the resin, when extracted separately with 100 milliliters of distilled water at 121 °C (250 °F) for 2 hours, and 100 milliliters of <I>n</I>-heptane at 66 °C (150 °F) for 2 hours, shall yield total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the resin.
</P>
<P>(2) The basic copolymer in the form of film when extracted separately with distilled water at 121 °C (250 °F) for 2 hours shall yield total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.047 milligram per square centimeter (0.3 milligram per square inch).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The copolymers may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, including processing of packaged food at temperatures not to exceed 135 °C (275 °F).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other specifications and limitations.</I> The vinylidene chloride-methyl acrylate copolymers identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food contact surface of any article that is subject to a regulation in parts 174 through 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 38605, Aug. 25, 1983; 48 FR 50077, Oct. 31, 1983, as amended at 53 FR 47185, Nov. 22, 1988; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2000" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.2.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2000   Vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate/methyl methacrylate polymers.</HEAD>
<P>The vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate/methyl methacrylate polymers (CAS Reg. No. 34364-83-5) identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or as a component of articles intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate/methyl methacrylate polymers consist of basic polymers produced by the copolymerization of vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate/methyl methacrylate such that the basic polymers or the finished food-contact articles meet the specifications prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate/methyl methacrylate polymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic polymers. These optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 179 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction of approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> The polymers may be safely used as articles or as components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, including processing of packaged food at temperatures up to 121 °C (250 °F).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specifications and limitations.</I> The vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate/methyl methacrylate basic polymers and/or finished food-contact articles meet the following specifications and limitations:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The basic vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate/methyl methacrylate polymers contain not more than 2 weight percent of polymer units derived from methyl acrylate monomer and not more than 6 weight percent of polymer units derived from methyl methacrylate monomer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The basic polymers are limited to a thickness of not more than 0.005 centimeter (0.002 inches).
</P>
<P>(2) The weight average molecular weight of the basic polymer is not less than 100,000 when determined by gel permeation chromatography using tetrahydrofuran as the solvent. The gel permeation chromatography is calibrated with polystyrene standards. The basic gel permeation chromatographic method is described in ANSI/ASTM D3536-76, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The basic polymer or food-contact article described in paragraph (a) of this section, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields net chloroform-soluble extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed .08 milligram per square centimeter (0.5 milligram per square inch) of food-contact surface when tested by the methods described in § 176.170(d). If the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174 through 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by the regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 29578, July 23, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Substances for Use Only as Components of Articles Intended for Repeated Use</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2210   Ethylene polymer, chlorosulfonated.</HEAD>
<P>Ethylene polymer, chlorosulfonated as identified in this section may be safely used as an article or component of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Ethylene polymer, chlorosulfonated is produced by chlorosulfonation of a carbon tetrachloride solution of polyethylene with chlorine and sulfuryl chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) Ethylene polymer, chlorosulfonated shall meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Chlorine not to exceed 25 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(2) Sulfur not to exceed 1.15 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(3) Molecular weight is in the range of 95,000 to 125,000.
</P>
<FP>Methods for the specifications in this paragraph (b), titled “Chlorine and Bromine—Coulometric Titration Method by Aminco Chloridometer,” “Hypolon ® Synthetic Rubber—Determination of Sulfur by Parr Bomb,” and ASTM method D2857-70 (Reapproved 1977), “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Polymers,” are incorporated by reference. Copies of the ASTM method may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959. Copies of the other two methods are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. Copies of all three methods may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</FP>
<P>(c) The additive is used as the article, or a component of articles, intended for use as liners and covers for reservoirs intended for the storage of water for drinking purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances permitted by § 177.2600 may be employed in the preparation of ethylene polymers, chlorosulfonated, subject to any limitations prescribed therein.
</P>
<P>(e) The finished ethylene copolymers, chlorosulfonated shall conform to § 177.2600(e) and (g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10111, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2250   Filters, microporous polymeric.</HEAD>
<P>Microporous polymeric filters identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used, subject to the provisions of this section, to remove particles of insoluble matter in producing, manufacturing, processing, and preparing bulk quantities of liquid food.
</P>
<P>(a) Microporous polymeric filters consist of a suitably permeable, continuous, polymeric matrix of polyvinyl chloride, vinyl chloride-propylene, or vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate, in which finely divided silicon dioxide is embedded. Cyclohexanone may be used as a solvent in the production of the filters.
</P>
<P>(b) Any substance employed in the production of microporous polymeric filters that is the subject of a regulation in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter must conform with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) Cyclohexanone when used as a solvent in the production of the filters shall not exceed 0.35 percent by weight of the microporous polymeric filters.
</P>
<P>(d) The microporous polymeric filters may be colored with colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The temperature of food being processed through the microporous polymeric filters shall not exceed 180 °F.
</P>
<P>(f) The microporous polymeric filters shall be maintained in a sanitary manner in accordance with good manufacturing practice so as to prevent potential microbial adulteration of the food.
</P>
<P>(g) To assure safe use of the microporous polymeric filters, the label or labeling shall include adequate directions for a pre-use treatment, consisting of washing with a minimum of 2 gallons of potable water at a temperature of 180 °F for each square foot of filter, prior to the filter's first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 42933, Aug. 30, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2260" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2260   Filters, resin-bonded.</HEAD>
<P>Resin-bonded filters may be safely used in producing, manufacturing, processing, and preparing food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Resin-bonded filters are prepared from natural or synthetic fibers to which have been added substances required in their preparation and finishing, and which are bonded with resins prepared by condensation or polymerization of resin-forming materials, together with adjuvant substances required in their preparation, application, and curing.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any substance employed in the production of the resin-bonded filter does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect or any limitation further provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of resin-bonded filters that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances employed in the production of resin-bonded filters include the following, subject to any limitations provided:
</P>
<HD1>List of Substances and Limitations
</HD1>
<P>(1) <I>Fibers:</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cellulose pulp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cotton.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nylon. (From nylon resins complying with the provisions of applicable regulations in subchapter B of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene terephthalate complying in composition with the provisions of § 177.1630; for use in inline filtration only as provided for in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rayon (viscose).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Substances employed in fiber finishing:</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>BHT.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl (or isobutyl) palmitate or stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,5-Di-<I>tert</I>-butyl hydroquinone for use only in lubricant formulations for rayon fiber finishing and at a usage level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the lubricant formulations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethylpolysiloxane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Ethyl-4-hexadecyl morpholinium ethyl sulfate for use only as a lubricant in the manufacture of polyethylene terephthalate fibers specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section at a level not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the finished fibers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fatty acid (C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) diethanolamide condensates.
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Fatty acids derived from animal or vegetable fats and oils, and salts of such acids, single or mixed, as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Aluminum.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Ammonium.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Calcium.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Magnesium.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Potassium.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sodium.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Triethanolamine.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Fatty acid (C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) mono- and diesters of polyoxyethylene glycol (molecular weight 400-3,000).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl esters of fatty acids (C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mineral oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740 (b) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene (4 mols) ethylenediamine monolauramide for use only in lubricant formulations for rayon fiber finishing and at a usage level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the lubricant formulations.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ricebran oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Titanium dioxide.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Resins:</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylic polymers produced by polymerizing ethyl acrylate alone or with one or more of the monomers: Acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, <I>N-</I>methylolacrylamide, and styrene. The finished copolymers shall contain at least 70 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethyl acrylate, no more than 2 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylic acid, no more than 10 weight percent of total polymer units derived from acrylonitrile, no more than 2 weight percent of total polymer units derived from <I>N-</I>methylolacrylamide, and no more than 25 weight percent of total polymer units derived from styrene. For use only as provided in paragraph (m) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde chemically modified with one or more of the amine catalysts identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(xiii) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde chemically modified with methyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde chemically modified with urea; for use only as provided for in paragraphs (e), (f), (g), (h), and (i) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol-formaldehyde resins.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl alcohol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl alcohol with the copolymer of acrylic acid-allyl sucrose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl alcohol with melamine formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl acetate with melamine formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="53">p-</E>-Toluenesulfonamide-formaldehyde chemically modified with one or more of the amine catalysts identified in § 175.300 (b)(3)(xiii) of this chapter.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Adjuvant substances:</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dimethyl polysiloxane with methylcellulose and sorbic acid (as an antifoaming agent).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphoric acid.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Colorants:</I> Colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (e)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to distilled water at 100 °F for 2 hours, yields total extractives not to exceed 2.8 percent by weight of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used to filter milk or potable water at operating temperatures not to exceed 100 °F.
</P>
<P>(f) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (f)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to distilled water at 145 °F for 2 hours, yields total extractives not to exceed 4 percent by weight of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used to filter milk or potable water at operating temperatures not to exceed 145 °F.
</P>
<P>(g) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (g)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to <I>n-</I>hexane at reflux temperature for 2 hours, yields total extractives not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used to filter edible oils.
</P>
<P>(h) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (h)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to distilled water at 212 °F for 2 hours, yields total extractives not to exceed 4 percent by weight of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used to filter milk, coffee, tea, and potable water at temperatures not to exceed 212 °F.
</P>
<P>(i) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (i)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to distilled water for 2 hours at a temperature equivalent to, or higher than, the filtration temperature of the aqueous food, yields total extractives not to exceed 4 percent, by weight, of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in commercial filtration of bulk quantities of nonalcoholic, aqueous foods having a pH above 5.0.
</P>
<P>(j) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (j)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (j)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to 5 percent (by weight) acetic acid for 2 hours at a temperature equivalent to, or higher than, the filtration temperature of the aqueous food, yields total extractives not to exceed 4 percent, by weight, of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in commercial filtration of bulk quantities of nonalcoholic, aqueous foods having a pH of 5.0 or below.
</P>
<P>(k) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (k)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (k)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to 8 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water for 2 hours at a temperature equivalent to, or higher than, the filtration temperature of the alcoholic beverage, yields total extractives not to exceed 4 percent, by weight, of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in commercial filtration of bulk quantities of alcoholic beverages containing not more than 8 percent alcohol.
</P>
<P>(l) Resin-bonded filters conforming with the specifications of paragraph (l)(1) of this section are used as provided in paragraph (l)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total extractives.</I> The finished filter, when exposed to 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water for 2 hours at a temperature equivalent to, or higher than, the filtration temperature of the alcoholic beverage, yields total extractives not to exceed 4 percent, by weight, of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in commercial filtration of bulk quantities of alcoholic beverages containing more than 8 percent alcohol.
</P>
<P>(m) Resin-bonded filters fabricated from acrylic polymers as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section together with other substances as provided in paragraph (d), (1), (2), and (4) of this section may be used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The finished filter may be used to filter milk or potable water at operating temperatures not to exceed 100 °F, provided that the finished filter when exposed to distilled water at 100 °F for 2 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) The finished filter may be used to filter milk or potable water at operating temperatures not to exceed 145 °F, provided that the finished filter when exposed to distilled water at 145 °F for 2 hours yields total extractives not to exceed 1.2 percent by weight of the filter.
</P>
<P>(n) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 42933, Aug. 30, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2280" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2280   4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenolepichlorohydrin thermosetting epoxy resins.</HEAD>
<P>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlo-rohydrin thermosetting epoxy resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The basic thermosetting epoxy resin is made by reacting 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol with epichlorohydrin.
</P>
<P>(b) The resin may contain one or more of the following optional substances provided the quantity used does not exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl glycidyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As curing system additive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di- and tri-glycidyl ester mixture resulting from the reaction of epichlorohydrin with mixed dimers and trimers of unsaturated C<E T="52">18</E> monobasic fatty acids derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As modifier at levels not to exceed equal parts by weight of the 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin basic resin and limited to use in contact with alcoholic beverages containing not more than 8 percent of alcohol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Epoxy-3-phenoxypropane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As curing system additive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyoxal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Methylenedianiline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">m-</E>Phenylenediamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrahydrophthalic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished articles containing the resins shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to 4,4′-isopropylidenedi-phenol-epichlorohydrin resins listed in other sections of parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and 179 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977; 49 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2355" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2355   Mineral reinforced nylon resins.</HEAD>
<P>Mineral reinforced nylon resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with nonacidic food (pH above 5.0) and at use temperatures not exceeding 212 °F. in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section the mineral reinforced nylon resins consist of nylon 66, as identified in and complying with the specifications of § 177.1500, reinforced with up to 40 weight percent of calcium silicate and up to 0.5 weight percent 3-(triethoxysilyl) propylamine (Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 000919302) based on the weight of the calcium silicate.
</P>
<P>(b) The mineral reinforced nylon resins may contain up to 0.2 percent by weight of titanium dioxide as an optional adjuvant substance.
</P>
<P>(c) The mineral reinforced nylon resins with or without the optional substance described in paragraph (b) of this section, and in the form of 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch molded test bars, when extracted with the solvents, i.e., distilled water and 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water, at reflux temperature for 24 hours using a volume-to-surface ratio of 2 milliliters of solvent per square inch of surface tested, shall meet the following extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) Total extractives not to exceed 5.0 milligrams per square inch of food-contact surface tested for each solvent.
</P>
<P>(2) The ash after ignition of the extractives described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface tested.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished articles containing the mineral reinforced nylon resins shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 54533, Oct. 7, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 61594, Dec. 6, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2400" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2400   Perfluorocarbon cured elastomers.</HEAD>
<P>Perfluorocarbon cured elastomers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with nonacid food (pH above 5.0), subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) For the purpose of this section, perfluorocarbon cured elastomers are produced by terpolymerizing tetrafluorethylene (CAS Reg. No. 116-14-3), perfluoromethyl vinyl ether (CAS Reg. No. 1187-93-5), and perfluoro-2-phenoxypropyl vinyl ether (CAS Reg. No. 24520-19-2) and subsequent curing of the terpolymer (CAS Reg. No. 26658-70-8) using the crosslinking agent, phenol, 4,4′-[2,2,2-trifluoro-1-(trifluoromethyl) ethylidene] bis-,dipotassium salt (CAS Reg. No. 25088-69-1) and accelerator, 1,4,7,10,13,16-hexaoxacyclooctadecane (CAS Reg. No. 17455-13-9).
</P>
<P>(2) The perfluorocarbon base polymer shall contain no less than 40 weight-percent of polymer units derived from tetrafluoroethylene, no less than 40 weight-percent of polymer units derived from perfluoromethyl vinyl ether and no more than 5 weight-percent polymer units derived from perfluoro-2-phenoxy-propyl vinyl ether.
</P>
<P>(3) The composition limitations of the cured elastomer, calculated as parts per 100 parts of terpolymer, are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Phenol, 4,4′-[2,2,2-trifluoro-1-(trifluoromethyl)-ethylidene] bis-,dipotassium salt—not to exceed 5 parts.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4,7,10,13,16-Hexaoxacyclo-octadecane—not to exceed 5 parts.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The perfluorocarbon cured elastomer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain the following optional adjuvant substances, subject to any limitations cited on their use:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe (GRAS) in food or food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances used in accordance with a prior sanction.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances authorized under applicable regulations in this part and in parts 175 and 178 of this chapter and subject to any limitations prescribed therein.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances identified in this paragraph (b)(4) subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon black (channel process of furnace combustion process) (CAS Reg. No. 1333-86-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 15 parts per 100 parts of the terpolymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1309-48-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 5 parts per 100 parts of the terpolymer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) <I>Infrared identification.</I> Perfluorocarbon cured elastomers may be identified by the characteristic infrared spectra of the pyrolysate breakdown product that is obtained by heating and decomposing the elastomer using the method entitled “Qualitative Identification of Kalrez ® by Infrared Examination of Pyrolysate.” This method is incorporated by reference. Copies of the method are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Thermogravimetry.</I> Perfluorocarbon cured elastomers have a major decomposition peak occurring at 490° ±15 °C (914 °F). Less than 1.5 percent of the elastomers will volatilize below 400 °C (752 °F) when run under nitrogen at a 10 °C or 18 °F per minute heating rate using a Du Pont Thermal Analyzer Model 1099 with Model 951 TGA unit or the equivalent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> Articles fabricated from perfluorocarbon cured elastomers having a thickness of at least 1.0 millimeter (0.039 inch) when extracted at reflux temperatures for 2 hours separately with distilled water, 50 percent ethanol, and <I>n</I>-heptane, shall meet the following extractability limits:
</P>
<P>(1) Total extractives not to exceed 3.1 milligrams per square decimeter (0.2 milligrams per square inch).
</P>
<P>(2) Fluoride extractives calculated as fluorine not to exceed 0.47 milligram per square decimeter (0.03 milligram per square inch).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> In accordance with current good manufacturing practice, finished food contact articles containing the perfluorocarbon cured elastomers shall be thoroughly cleaned prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 43050, Oct. 26, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2410" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2410   Phenolic resins in molded articles.</HEAD>
<P>Phenolic resins identified in this section may be safely used as the food-contact surface of molded articles intended for repeated use in contact with nonacid food (pH above 5.0), in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the phenolic resins are those produced when one or more of the phenols listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are made to react with one or more of the aldehydes listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, with or without aniline and/or anhydro-formaldehyde aniline (hexahydro-1, 3,5-triphenyl-s-triazine):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Phenols:</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>p-tert-</I>Amylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-tert-</I>Butylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-, m-,</I> and <I>p-</I>Cresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Octylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-</I> and <I>p-</I>Phenylethylphenol mixture produced when phenol is made to react with styrene in the presence of sulfuric acid catalyst.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Aldehydes:</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Formaldehyde.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Paraldehyde.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Optional adjuvant substances employed in the production of the phenolic resins or added thereto to impart desired technical or physical properties include the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos fiber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium hydroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon black (channel process)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diatomaceous earth
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glass fiber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenetetramine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as curing agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mica
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxalic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc stearate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as lubricant.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact article, when extracted with distilled water at reflux temperature for 2 hours, using a volume-to-surface ratio of 2 milliliters of distilled water per square inch of surface tested, shall meet the following extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) Total extractives not to exceed 0.15 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(2) Extracted phenol not to exceed 0.005 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(3) No extracted aniline when tested by a spectrophotometric method sensitive to 0.006 milligram of aniline per-square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished molded articles containing the phenolic resins shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2415" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2415   Poly(aryletherketone) resins.</HEAD>
<P>Poly(aryletherketone) resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section, poly(aryletherketone) resins are poly(<I>p</I>-oxyphenylene <I>p</I>-oxyphenylene <I>p</I>-carboxyphenylene) resins (CAS Reg. No. 29658-26-2) produced by the polymerization of hydroquinone and 4,4′-difluorobenzophenone, and have a minimum weight-average molecular weight of 12,000, as determined by gel permeation chromatography in comparison with polystyrene standards, and a minimum mid-point glass transition temperature of 142 °C, as determined by differential scanning calorimetry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic resins identified in paragraph (a) may contain optional adjuvant substances used in their production. These adjuvants may include substances described in § 174.5(d) of this chapter and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenyl sulfone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight as a residual solvent in the finished basic resin.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> The finished food contact article, when extracted at reflux temperatures for 2 hours with the following four solvents, yields in each extracting solvent net chloroform soluble extractives not to exceed 0.05 milligrams per square inch of food contact surface: Distilled water, 50 percent (by volume) ethanol in distilled water, 3 percent acetic acid in distilled water, and <I>n</I>-heptane. In testing the final food contact article, a separate test sample shall be used for each extracting solvent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 20315, Apr. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2420" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2420   Polyester resins, cross-linked.</HEAD>
<P>Cross-linked polyester resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The cross-linked polyester resins are produced by the condensation of one or more of the acids listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section with one or more of the alcohols or epoxides listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, followed by copolymerization with one or more of the cross-linking agents listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Acids:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Adipic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fatty acids, and dimers thereof, from natural sources.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fumaric.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isophthalic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacrylic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Orthophthalic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sebacic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terephthalic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimellitic.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Polyols and polyepoxides:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dipropylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mannitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>a-</I>Methyl glucoside.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxypropylene ethers of 4,4′-isopropylide-nediphenol (containing an average of 2-7.5 moles of propylene oxide).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylol ethane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trimethylol propane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2,4-Trimethyl-1,3-pentanediol.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Cross-linking agents:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylhexyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triglycidyl isocyanurate (CAS Reg. No. 2451-62-9), for use only in coatings contacting bulk quantities of dry food of the type identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under type VIII.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl toluene.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Optional adjuvant substances employed to facilitate the production of the resins or added thereto to impart desired technical or physical properties include the following, provided that the quantity used does not exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect and does not exceed any limitations prescribed in this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations (limits of addition expressed as percent by weight of finished resin)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Inhibitors:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total not to exceed 0.08 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzoquinone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">tert-</E>Butyl catechol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">TBHQ
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl hydroquinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydroquinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Accelerators:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total not to exceed 1.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzyl trimethyl ammonium chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium naphthenate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cobalt naphthenate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Copper naphthenate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">N, N-</E>Diethylaniline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">N, N-</E>Dimethylaniline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene guanidine hydrochloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Catalysts:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total not to exceed 1.5 percent, except that methyl ethyl ketone peroxide may be used as the sole catalyst at levels not to exceed 2 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Azo-bis-isobutyronitrile
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzoyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">tert-</E>Butyl perbenzoate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorbenzoyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cumene hydroperoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dibutyltin oxide (CAS Reg. No. 818-08-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use in the polycondensation reaction at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent of the polyester resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dicumyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydroxybutyltin oxide (CAS Reg. No. 2273-43-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use in the polycondensation reaction at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent of the polyester resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lauroyl peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">p-</E>Menthane hydroperoxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Monobutyltin tris(2-ethylhexoate) (CAS Reg. No. 23850-94-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use in the polycondensation reaction at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent of the polyester resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Solvents for inhibitors, accelerators, and catalysts:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a solvent for benzyl trimethyl ammonium chloride or ethylene guanidine hydrochloride only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Styrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triphenyl phosphate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Reinforcements:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Asbestos
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glass fiber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyester fiber produced by the condensation of one or more of the acids listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section with one or more of the alcohols listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Miscellaneous materials:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Castor oil, hydrogenated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">α-Methylstyrene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyethylene glycol 6000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silicon dioxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Wax, petroleum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3710 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The cross-linked polyester resins, with or without the optional substances described in paragraph (b) of this section, and in the finished form in which they are to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of their intended use, as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, shall meet the following extractives limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) Net chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.1 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface tested when the prescribed food-simulating solvent is water or 8 or 50 percent alcohol.
</P>
<P>(2) Total nonvolatile extractives not to exceed 0.1 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface tested when the prescribed food-simulating solvent is heptane.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished articles containing the cross-linked polyester resins shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 37618, Aug. 19, 1983; 54 FR 48858, Nov. 28, 1989; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2430" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2430   Polyether resins, chlorinated.</HEAD>
<P>Chlorinated polyether resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The chlorinated polyether resins are produced by the catalytic polymerization of 3,3-bis(chloromethyl)-oxetane, and shall contain not more than 2 percent residual monomer.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished articles containing the chlorinated polyether resins shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2440" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2440   Polyethersulfone resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polyethersulfone resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, polyethersulfone resins are:
</P>
<P>(1) Poly(oxy-<I>p</I>-phenylenesulfonyl-<I>p</I>-phenylene) resins (CAS Reg. No. 25667-42-9), which have a minimum number average molecular weight of 16,000.
</P>
<P>(2) 1,1′-sulfonylbis[4-chlorobenzene] polymer with 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol] (maximum 8 percent) and 4,4′-sulfonylbis[phenol] (minimum 92 percent) (CAS Reg. No. 88285-91-0), which have a minimum number average molecular weight of 26,000.
</P>
<P>(3) In paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, the minimum number average molecular weight is determined by reduced viscosity in dimethyl formamide in accordance with ASTM method D2857-70 (Reapproved 1977), “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200 or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) The basic resins identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances described in § 174.5(d) of this chapter and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenylsulfone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent as residual solvent in the finished basic resin described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl sulfoxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.01 percent as residual solvent in the finished basic resin described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-methyl-2-pyrrolidone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.01 percent as residual solvent in the finished basic resin described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The finished food-contact article, when extracted at reflux temperatures for 2 hours with the following four solvents, yields net chloroform-soluble extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.02 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface: distilled water, 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water, 3 percent acetic acid in distilled water, and <I>n</I>-heptane. (Note: In testing the finished food-contact article, use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.)
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished food-contact articles containing the polyethersulfone resins shall be thoroughly cleansed before their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 34493, June 15, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 38885, Sept. 3, 1982; 49 FR 10111, Mar. 19, 1984; 50 FR 47211, Nov. 15, 1985; 60 FR 48648, Sept. 20, 1995; 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2450" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2450   Polyamide-imide resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> (1) For the purpose of this section the polyamide-imide resins are derived from the condensation reaction of substantially equimolar parts of trimellitic anhydride and <I>p</I>,<I>p</I>′-diphenylmethane diisocyanate.
</P>
<P>(2) The polyamide-imide resins (CAS Reg. No. 31957-38-7) derived from the condensation reaction of equimolar parts of benzoyl chloride-3,4-dicarboxylic anhydride and 4,4′-diphenylmethanediamine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall have a nitrogen content of not less than 7.8 weight percent and not more than 8.2 weight percent. Polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall have a nitrogen content of not less than 7.5 weight percent and not more than 7.8 weight percent. Nitrogen content is determined by the Dumas Nitrogen Determination as set forth in the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 7.016-7.020, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall have a solution viscosity of not less than 1.200. Polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall have a solution viscosity of not less than 1.190. Solution viscosity shall be determined by a method titled “Solution Viscosity” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are heat cured at 600 °F for 15 minutes when prepared for extraction tests and the residual monomers: <I>p,p</I>-diphenylmethane diisocyanate should not be present at greater than 100 parts per million and trimellitic anhydride should not be present at greater than 500 parts per million. Residual monomers are determined by gas chromatography (the gas chromatography method titled “Amide-Imide Polymer Analysis—Analysis of Monomer Content,” is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) Extractive limitations are applicable to the polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section in the form of films of 1 mil uniform thickness after coating and heat curing at 600 °F for 15 minutes on stainless steel plates, each having such resin-coated surface area of 100 square inches. The cured-resin film coatings shall be extracted in accordance with the method described in § 176.170(d)(3) of this chapter, using a plurality of spaced, coated stainless steel plates, exposed to the respective food simulating solvents. The resin shall meet the following extractive limitations under the corresponding extraction conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Distilled water at 250 °F for 2 hours: Not to exceed 0.01 milligram per square inch.
</P>
<P>(2) Three percent acetic acid at 212 °F for 2 hours: Not to exceed 0.05 milligram per square inch.
</P>
<P>(3) Fifty percent ethyl alcohol at 160 °F for 2 hours: Not to exceed 0.03 milligram per square inch.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>n-</I>Heptane at 150 °F for 2 hours: Not to exceed 0.05 milligram per square inch.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, those food contact articles, having as components the polyamide-imide resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section and intended for repeated use shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11845, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10111, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 54 FR 43170, Oct. 23, 1989; 61 FR 14481, Apr. 2, 1996; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2460" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2460   Poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resins.</HEAD>
<P>The poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be used as an article or as a component of an article intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purposes of this section, poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resins consist of basic resins produced by the oxidative coupling of 2,6-xylenol such that the finished basic resins meet the specifications and extractives limitations prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic resins. The optional adjuvant substances required in the production of the basic poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resins may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, and the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations (expressed as percent by weight of finished basic resin)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.16 percent as residual catalyst.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl alcohol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.02 percent as residual solvent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 0.2 percent as residual solvent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications and extractives limitations.</I> The poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide basic resins meet the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Intrinsic viscosity is not less than 0.30 deciliter per gram as determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” which is incorporated by reference, modified as follows. Copies of the incorporation by reference may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Solvent:</I> Chloroform, reagent grade containing 0.01 percent <I>tert-</I>butylcatechol.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Resin sample:</I> Powdered resin obtained from production prior to molding or extrusion.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Viscometer:</I> Cannno-Ubbelohde series 25 dilution viscometer (or equivalent).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Calculation:</I> The calculation method used is that described in appendix X.1.3 (ASTM method D1243-79, cited and incorporated by reference in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) with the reduced viscosity determined for three concentration levels (0.4, 0.2, and 0.1 gram per deciliter) and extrapolated to zero concentration for intrinisic viscosity. The following formula is used for determining reduced viscosity:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.406.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>t</I> = Solution efflux time.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">o</E> = Solvent efflux time.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>c</I> = Concentration of solution in terms of grams per deciliter.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Extractives limitations.</I> Total resin extracted not to exceed 0.02 weight-percent when extracted with <I>n-</I>heptane at 160 °F for 2 hours as determined using 200 milliliters of reagent grade <I>n-</I>heptane which has been freshly distilled before use and 25 grams of poly (2,-6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resin. The resin as tested is in pellet form having a particle size such that 100 percent of the pellets will pass through a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 6 and 100 percent of the pellets will be held on a U.S. Standard Sieve No. 10.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other limitations.</I> The poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resins identified in and complying with this section, when used as components of the food-contact surface of any article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, shall comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the article in the finished form in which it is to contact food.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Uses.</I> The poly(2,6-dimethyl-1,4-phenylene) oxide resins identified in and complying with the limitations in this section may be used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated food-contact use or as articles or components of articles intended for single-service food-contact use only under the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, conditions of use H.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10111, Mar. 19, 1984; 63 FR 8852, Feb. 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2465" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2465   Polymethylmethacrylate/poly(trimethoxysilylpropyl)methacrylate copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Polymethylmethacrylate/poly(trimethoxysilylpropyl) methacrylate copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 26936-30-1) may be safely used as components of surface primers used in conjunction with silicone polymers intended for repeated use and complying with § 175.300 of this chapter and § 177.2600, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, polymethylmethacrylate/poly(trimethoxysilylpropyl)methacrylate copolymers are produced by the polymerization of methylmethacrylate and trimethoxysilylpropylmethacrylate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) The polymethylmethacrylate/poly(trimethoxysilylpropyl)methacrylate copolymers are used at levels not to exceed 6.0 percent by weight of the primer formulation.
</P>
<P>(2) The copolymers may be used in food contact applications with all food types under conditions of use B through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 5948, Feb. 9, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2470" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2470   Polyoxymethylene copolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Polyoxymethylene copolymer identified in this section may be safely used as an article or component of articles intended for food-contact use in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, polyoxymethylene copolymers are identified as the following: The reaction product of trioxane (cyclic trimer of formaldehyde) and ethylene oxide (CAS Reg. No. 24969-25-3) or the reaction product of trioxane (cyclic trimer of formaldehyde) and a maximum of 5 percent by weight of butanediol formal (CAS Reg. No. 25214 85-1). Both copolymers may have certain optional substances added to impart desired technological properties to the copolymer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The polyoxymethylene copolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in its production. The quantity of any optional adjuvant substance employed in the production of the copolymer does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical or physical effect. Such adjuvants may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with prior sanction, substances permitted under applicable regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, and the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Stabilizers (total amount of stabilizers not to exceed 2.0 percent and amount of any one stabilizer not to exceed 1.0 percent of polymer by weight)
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Calcium ricinoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyanoguanidine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexamethylene bis(3,5-di-<I>tert</I>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 35074-77-2).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine-formaldehyde resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6-<I>tert-</I>butylphenol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nylon 6/66, weight ratio 2/3.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrakis [methylene (3,5-di<I>-tert-</I>butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate)] methane.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Lubricant: N,N′Distearoylethyl-enediamine.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Polyoxymethylene copolymer can be identified by its characteristic infrared spectrum.
</P>
<P>(2) Minimum number average molecular weight of the copolymer is 15,000 as determined by a method titled “Number Average Molecular Weight,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> (1) Polyoxymethylene copolymer in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under conditions of time and temperature as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 175.300(d) of this chapter, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(2) Polyoxymethylene copolymer with or without the optional substances described in paragraph (b) of this section, when ground or cut into particles that pass through a U.S.A. Standard Sieve No. 6 and that are retained on a U.S.A. Standard Sieve No. 10, shall yield total extractives as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Not to exceed 0.20 percent by weight of the copolymer when extracted for 6 hours with distilled water at reflux temperature.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of the copolymer when extracted for 6 hours with n-heptane at reflux temperature.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) The polyoxymethylene copolymer is for use as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use.
</P>
<P>(2) Use temperature shall not exceed 250 °F.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished articles containing polyoxymethylene copolymer shall be thoroughly cleansed before their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 56204, Dec. 20, 1983; 49 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984; 50 FR 1842, Jan. 14, 1985; 50 FR 20560, May 17, 1985; 52 FR 4493, Feb. 12, 1987, 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2480" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2480   Polyoxymethylene homopolymer.</HEAD>
<P>Polyoxymethylene homopolymer identified in this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for food-contact use in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, polyoxymethylene homopolymer is polymerized formaldehyde [Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 9002-81-7]. Certain optional adjuvant substances, described in paragraph (b) of this section, may be added to impart desired technological properties to the homopolymer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The polyoxymethylene homopolymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances in its production. The quantity of any optional adjuvant substance employed in the production of the homopolymer does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect. Such adjuvants may include substances generally recognized as safe in food, substances used in accordance with prior sanction, substances permitted under applicable regulations in this part, and the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Stabilizers.</I> The homopolymer may contain one or more of the following stabilizers. The total amount of stabilizers shall not exceed 1.9 percent of homopolymer by weight, and the quantity of individual stabilizer used shall not exceed the limitations set forth below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenebis(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxy-hydrocinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 35074-77-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 1 percent by weight of homopolymer. The finished articles shall not be used for foods containing more than 8 percent alcohol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.5 percent by weight of homopolymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon 66/610/6 terpolymer, respective proportions of nylon polymers by weight are: 3/2/4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 1.5 percent by weight of homopolymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon 612/6 copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 51733-10-9), weight ratio 6/1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrakis[methylene(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxy-hydrocinnamate)] methane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a maximum level of 0.5 percent by weight of homopolymer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Lubricant. N,N′</I>-Distearoylethyl-enediamine.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Molding assistant.</I> Polyethylene glycol 6,000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Polyoxymethylene homopolymer can be identified by its characteristic infrared spectrum.
</P>
<P>(2) Minimum number average molecular weight of the homopolymer is 25,000.
</P>
<P>(3) Density of the homopolymer is between 1.39 and 1.44 as determined by ASTM method D1505-68 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Density of Plastics by the Density-Gradient Technique,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) Melting point is between 172 °C and 184 °C as determined by ASTM method D2133-66, “Specifications for Acetal Resin Injection Molding and Extrusion Materials” (Revised 1966), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extractive limitations.</I> (1) Polyoxymethylene homopolymer, in the finished form which is to contact food, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of intended use under paragraphs (c)(3) and (d) of § 175.300 of this chapter and as limited by paragraph (e) of this section, shall yield net chloroform-soluble extractives not to exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(2) Polyoxymethylene homopolymer, with or without the optional adjuvant substances described in paragraph (b) of this section, when ground or cut into particles that pass through a U.S.A. Standard Sieve No. 6 and that are retained on a U.S.A. Standard Sieve No. 10, shall yield extractives as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Formaldehyde not to exceed 0.0050 percent by weight of homopolymer as determined by a method titled “Formaldehyde Release and Formaldehyde Analysis,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200) Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) Total extractives not to exceed 0.20 percent by weight of homopolymer when extracted for 6 hours with distilled water at reflux temperature and 0.15 percent by weight of homopolymer when extracted for 6 hours with <I>n-</I>heptane at reflux temperature.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) Polyoxymethylene homopolymer is for use as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use.
</P>
<P>(2) Use temperature shall not exceed 250 °F.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished articles containing polyoxymethylene homopolymer shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to first use in contact with food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 44835, Sept. 29, 1978; 47 FR 11846, Mar. 19, 1982; 47 FR 51562, Nov. 16, 1982; 49 FR 10111, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2490" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2490   Polyphenylene sulfide resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polyphenylene sulfide resins (poly(1,4-phenylene sulfide) resins) may be safely used as coatings or components of coatings of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions.
</P>
<P>(a) Polyphenylene sulfide resins consist of basic resins produced by the reaction of equimolar parts of <I>p-</I>dichlorobenzene and sodium sulfide, such that the finished resins meet the following specifications as determined by methods titled “Oxygen Flask Combustion-Gravimetric Method for Determination of Sulfur in Organic Compounds,” “Determination of the Inherent Viscosity of Polyphenylene Sulfide,” and “Analysis for Dichlorobenzene in Ryton Polyphenylene Sulfide,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Sulfur content: 28.2-29.1 percent by weight of finished resin.
</P>
<P>(2) Minimum inherent viscosity: 0.13 deciliters per gram.
</P>
<P>(3) Maximum residual <I>p-</I>dichlorobenzene: 0.8 ppm.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to any limitations prescribed in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, the following optional substances may be added to the polyphenylene sulfide basic resins in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect.
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances used in accordance with prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances the use of which is permitted in coatings under regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The finished coatings are thermally cured at temperatures of 700 °F and above.
</P>
<P>(d) Polyphenylene sulfide resin coatings may be used in contact with food at temperatures not to exceed the boiling point of water; provided that the finished cured coating, when extracted at reflux temperatures for 8 hours separately with distilled water, 50 percent ethanol in water, and 3 percent acetic acid, yields total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.02 milligram per square inch of surface and when extracted at reflux temperature for 8 hours with heptane yields total extractives not to exceed 0.1 milligram per square inch of surface.
</P>
<P>(e) Polyphenylene sulfide resin coatings containing perfluorocarbon resins complying with § 177.1550 may be used in contact with food at temperatures up to and including normal baking and frying temperatures; provided that the finished cured coating, when extracted at reflux temperatures for 2 hours separately with distilled water, 50 percent ethanol in water, 3 percent acetic acid and heptane, yields total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.2 milligram per square inch of surface and when extracted at reflux temperature for 1 hour with diphenyl ether yields total extractives not to exceed 4.5 milligrams per square inch of surface.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11846, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2500" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2500   Polyphenylene sulfone resins.</HEAD>
<P>The polyphenylene sulfone resins (CAS Reg. No. 31833-61-1) identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, polyphenylene sulfone resins consist of basic resin produced by reacting polyphenylene sulfide with peracetic acid such that the finished resins meet the specifications set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. The polyphenylene sulfide used to manufacture polyphenylene sulfone is prepared by the reaction of sodium sulfide and <I>p</I>-dichlorobenzene, and has a minimum weight average molecular weight of 5,000 Daltons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic polyphenylene sulfone resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic resins. These optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, or substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> The glass transition temperature of the polymer is 360±5 °C as determined by the use of differential scanning calorimetry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 15058, Mar. 21, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2510" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2510   Polyvinylidene fluoride resins.</HEAD>
<P>Polyvinylidene fluoride resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the polyvinylidene fluoride resins consist of basic resins produced by the polymerization of vinylidene fluoride.
</P>
<P>(b) The finished food-contact article, when extracted at reflux temperatures for 2 hours with the solvents distilled water, 50 percent (by volume) ethyl alcohol in distilled water, and <I>n-</I>heptane, yields total extractives in each extracting solvent not to exceed 0.01 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface tested; and if the finished food-contact article is itself the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed for it by that regulation. (<E T="04">Note:</E> In testing the finished food-contact article, use a separate test sample for each required extracting solvent.)
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished food-contact articles containing the polyvinylidene fluoride resins shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2550" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2550   Reverse osmosis membranes.</HEAD>
<P>Substances identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as reverse osmosis membranes intended for use in processing bulk quantities of liquid food to separate permeate from food concentrate or in purifying water for food manufacturing under the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, reverse osmosis membranes may consist of either of the following formulations:
</P>
<P>(1) A cross-linked high molecular weight polyamide reaction product of 1,3,5-benzenetricarbonyl trichloride with 1,3-benzenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 83044-99-9) or piperazine (CAS Reg. No. 110-85-0). The membrane is on the food-contact surface, and its maximum weight is 62 milligrams per square decimeter (4 milligrams per square inch) as a thin film composite on a suitable support.
</P>
<P>(2) A cross-linked polyetheramine (CAS Reg. No. 101747-84-6), identified as the copolymer of epichlorohydrin, 1,2-ethanediamine and 1,2-dichloroethane, whose surface is the reaction product of this copolymer with 2,4-toluenediisocyanate (CAS Reg. No. of the final polymer is 99811-80-0) for use as the food-contact surface of reverse osmosis membranes used in processing liquid food. The composite membrane is on the food-contact surface and its maximum weight is 4.7 milligrams per square decimeter (0.3 milligrams per square inch) as a thin film composite on a suitable support. The maximum weight of the 2,4-toluenediisocyanate component of the thin film composite is 0.47 milligrams per square decimeter (0.03 milligrams per square inch).
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of this section, the reverse osmosis membrane consists of a polyaramide identified as 2,4-diaminobenzenesulfonic acid, calcium salt (2:1) polymer with 1,3-benzenediamine, 1,3-benzenedicarbonyl dichloride, and 1,4-benzenedicarbonyl dichloride (CAS Reg. No. 39443-76-0). The membrane is the food contact surface and may be applied as a film on a suitable support. Its maximum weight is 512 milligrams per square decimeter (33 milligrams per square inch).
</P>
<P>(4) A cross-linked high molecular weight polyamide reaction product of poly(<I>N</I>-vinyl-<I>N</I>-methylamine) (CAS Reg. No. 31245-56-4), <I>N</I>,<I>N</I>′-bis(3-aminopropyl)ethylenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 10563-26-5), 1,3-benzenedicarbonyl dichloride (CAS Reg. No. 99-63-8) and 1,3,5-benzenetricarbonyl trichloride (CAS Reg. No. 4422-95-1). The membrane is the food-contact surface. Its maximum weight is 20 milligrams per square decimeter (1.3 milligrams per square inch) as a thin film composite on a suitable support.
</P>
<P>(5) A polyamide reaction product of 1,3,5-benzenetricarbonyl trichloride polymer (CAS Reg. No. 4422-95-1) with piperazine (CAS Reg. No. 110-85-0) and 1,2-diaminoethane (CAS Reg. No. 107-15-3). The membrane is the food-contact layer and may be applied as a film on a suitable support. Its maximum weight is 15 milligrams per square decimeter (1 milligram per square inch).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> The basic polymer identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain optional adjuvant substances required in the production of such basic polymer. These optional adjuvant substances may include substances permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 186 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supports.</I> Suitable supports for reverse osmosis membranes are materials permitted for such use by regulations in parts 170 through 186 of this chapter, substances generally recognized as safe in food, and substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) Reverse osmosis membranes described in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(5) of this section may be used in contact with all types of liquid food at temperatures up to 80 °C (176 °F).
</P>
<P>(2) Reverse osmosis membranes described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section may be used in contact with all types of liquid food, except food containing more than 8 percent alcohol, at temperatures up to 80 °C (176 °F).
</P>
<P>(3) Reverse osmosis membranes shall be maintained in a sanitary manner in accordance with current good manufacturing practice so as to prevent microbial adulteration of food.
</P>
<P>(4) To assure their safe use, reverse osmosis membranes and their supports shall be thoroughly cleaned prior to their first use in accordance with current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 49448, Dec. 20, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 29668, Aug. 11, 1987; 53 FR 31835, Aug. 22, 1988; 53 FR 32215, Aug. 24, 1988; 55 FR 8139, Mar. 7, 1990; 59 FR 9925, Mar. 2, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2600" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2600   Rubber articles intended for repeated use.</HEAD>
<P>Rubber articles intended for repeated use may be safely used in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The rubber articles are prepared from natural and/or synthetic polymers and adjuvant substances as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any substance employed in the production of rubber articles intended for repeated use shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended effect in the rubber article and shall not be intended to accomplish any effect in food.
</P>
<P>(c) Substances employed in the preparation of rubber articles include the following, subject to any limitations prescribed:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe for use in food or food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances used in accordance with the provisions of a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances that by regulation in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter may be safely used in rubber articles, subject to the provisions of such regulation.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances identified in this paragraph (c)(4), provided that any substance that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Elastomers.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylonitrile-butadiene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brominated isobutylene-isoprene copolymers complying with § 177.1210.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile-ethylene glycol dimethacrylate copolymers containing not more than 5 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-acrylonitrile-methacrylic acid copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-styrene-methacrylic acid copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroprene polymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorotrifluoroethylene-vinylidene fluoride copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene-propylene copolymer elastomers which may contain not more than 5 weight-percent of total polymer units derived from 5-methylene-2-norbornene and/or 5-ethylidine-2-norbornene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene-propylene-dicyclopentadiene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene-propylene-1,4-hexadiene copolymers containing no more than 8 weight percent of total polymer units derived from 1,4-hexadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogenated butadiene/acrylonitrile copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 88254-10-8) produced when acrylonitrile/butadiene copolymers are modified by hydrogenation of the olefinic unsaturation to leave either: (1) Not more than 10 percent <I>trans</I> olefinic unsaturation and no α, β-olefinic unsaturation as determined by a method entitled “Determination of Residual α, β-Olefinic and Trans Olefinic Unsaturation Levels in HNBR,” developed October 1, 1991, by Polysar Rubber Corp., 1256 South Vidal St., Sarnia, Ontario, Canada N7T 7MI; or (2) 0.4 percent to 20 percent olefinic unsaturation and Mooney viscosities greater than 45 (ML 1 + 4 @ 100 °C), as determined by ASTM Standard Method D1646-92, “Standard Test Method for Rubber—Viscosity and Vulcanization Characteristics (Mooney Viscometer),” which are both incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of these methods may be obtained from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> A copy of ASTM Standard Method D1646-92 may also be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutylene-isoprene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyamide/polyether block copolymers (CAS Reg. No. 77402-38-1 prepared by reacting a copolymer of <I>omega</I>-laurolactam and adipic acid with poly(tetramethylene ether glycol). The polyamide and polyether components are reacted in ratios such that the polyamide component constitutes a minimum of 30 weight-percent of total polymer units. The copolymers may be used in contact with foods of Types I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at temperatures not to exceed 150 °F except that those copolymers prepared with less than 50 weight-percent of polyamide are limited to use in contact with such foods at temperatures not to exceed 100 °F. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyester elastomers derived from the reaction of dimethyl terephthalate, 1,4-butanediol, and α-hydro-omega-hydroxypoly (oxytetramethylene). Additionally, trimethyl trimellitate may be used as a reactant. The polyester elastomers may be used only in contact with foods containing not more than 8 percent alcohol and limited to use in contact with food at temperatures not exceeding 150 °F.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyisoprene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyurethane resins (CAS Reg. Nos. 37383-28-1 or 9018-04-6) derived from the reaction of diphenylmethane diisocyanate with 1,4-butanediol and polytetramethylene ether glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyurethane resins derived from reactions of diphenylmethane diisocyanate with adipic acid and 1,4-butanediol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rubber, natural.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silicone basic polymer as described in ASTM method D1418-81, “Standard Practice for Rubber and Rubber Latices—Nomenclature,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>Silicone (Si) elastomers containing methyl groups.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Silicone (Psi) elastomers containing methyl and phenyl groups.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Silicone (Vsi) elastomers containing methyl and vinyl groups.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Silicone (Fsi) elastomers containing methyl and fluorine groups.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Silicone (PVsi) elastomers containing phenyl, methyl, and vinyl groups.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Styrene-butadiene copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinylidene fluoride-hexafluoropropylene copolymers (minimum number average molecular weight 70,000 as determined by osmotic pressure in methyl ethyl ketone).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinylidene fluoride-hexafluoropropylene-tetrafluoroethylene copolymers (minimum number average molecular weight 100,000 as determined by osmotic pressure in methyl ethyl ketone).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Vulcanization materials</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Vulcanizing agents.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>4,4′-Bis(aminocyclohexyl)methane carbamate for use only as cross-linking agent in the vulcanization of vinylidene fluoridehexafluoropropylene copolymer and vinylidene fluoride-hexafluoropropylene-tetrafluoroethylene copolymer elastomers identified under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section and limited to use at levels not to exceed 2.4 percent by weight of such copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisopropyl xanthogen polysulfide (a 1:2:1 mixture of O,O-di(1-methylethyl)trithio-bis-thioformate, O,O-di(1-methylethyl)tetrathio-bis-thioformate, and O,O-di(1-methylethyl)pentathio-bis-thioformate) for use as a cross linking agent in the vulcanization of natural rubber, styrene-butadiene copolymer, acrylonitrile-butadiene copolymer, and ethylene-propylene terpolymers identified under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section and limited to use at levels not to exceed 2.4 percent by weight of such copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexamethylenediamine carbamate for use only as cross-linking agent in the vulcanization of vinylidene fluoride-hexafluoropropylene copolymer and vinylidene fluoride-hexafluoropropylene-tetrafluoroethylene copolymer elastomers identified under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section and limited to use at levels not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of such copolymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfur, ground.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Accelerators (total not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of rubber product).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>2-Benzothiazyl-<I>N,N</I>-diethylthiocarbamyl-sulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoyl peroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Bis(2-benzothiazolylmercaptomethyl) urea.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-tert-</I>Butyl-2-benzothiazole sulfenamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyraldehyde-aniline resin (iodine number 670-705).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbon disulfide-1,1′-methylenedipiperidine reaction product.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper dimethyldithiocarbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>Cyclohexyl-2-benzothiazole sulfenamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzoyl<I>-p-</I>quinone dioxime.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisopropyl xanthogen polysulfide (a 1:2:1 mixture of O,O-di(1-methylethyl)trithio-bis-thioformate, O,O-di(1-methylethyl)tetrathio-bis-thioformate, and O,O-di(1-methylethyl)pentathio-bis-thioformate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Di</I>(4-methylbenzoyl) peroxide (CAS Reg. No. 895-85-2) for use only as a crosslinking agent in silicone polymers and elastomers identified under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of such polymers and elastomers where the total of all accelerators does not exceed 1.5 percent by weight of rubber product.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di<I>-tert-</I>butyl peroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibutyl xanthogen disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dichlorobenzoyl peroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dicumyl peroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N-</I>Dimethylcyclohexylamine salt of dibutyldithiocarbamic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Dimethylmorpholine thiobenzothiazol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dipentamethylenethiuram hexasulfide (CAS Reg. No. 971-15-3).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenylguanidine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Diphenyl-2-thiourea.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2′-Dithiobis[benzothiazole].
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Dithiodimorpholine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N′-</I>Di<I>-o-</I>tolylguanidine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di<I>-o-</I>tolylguanidine salt of pyrocatecholborate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylenediamine carbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptaldehyde-aniline resin (iodine number 430-445).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexamethylenetetramine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Mercaptobenzothiazole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Mercaptothiazoline.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>Oxydiethylene-benzothiazole-2-sulfenamide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperidinium pentamethylenedithiocarba-mate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium pentamethylenedithiocarbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-</I>Quinone dioxime. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium dibutyldithiocarbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous oleate for use only as an accelerator for silicone elastomers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrabutylthiuram monosulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetraethylthiuram disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(1,1,4,4-Tetramethyltetramethylene)bis [<I>tert-</I>butyl peroxide].
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetramethylthiuram monosulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiram (tetramethylthiuram disulfide).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triallyl cyanurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylenetetramine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3,5-Triethyl-hexahydro<I>-s-</I>triazine (triethyltrimethylenetriamine).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triphenylguanidine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc butyl xanathate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc dibenzyl dithiocarbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc dibutyldithiocarbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc diethyldithiocarbamate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc 2-mercaptobenzothiazole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ziram (zinc dimethyldithiocarbamate).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Retarders (total not to exceed 10 percent of weight of rubber product).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cyanoguanidine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic anhydride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylic acid.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Activators (total not to exceed 5 percent by weight of rubber product except magnesium oxide may be used at higher levels).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Diethylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fatty acid amines, mixed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fatty acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium oxide, light and heavy.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oleic acid, dibutylamine salt (dibutylammonium oleate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tall oil fatty acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrachloro<I>-p-</I>benzoquinone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc salts of fatty acids.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Antioxidants and antiozonants (total not to exceed 5 percent by weight of rubber product).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aldol<I>-a-</I>naphthylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alkylated (C<E T="52">4</E> and/or C<E T="52">8</E>) phenols.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BHT (butylated hydroxytoluene).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-[[4,6-bis(octylthio)-<I>s</I>-triazin-2-yl]amino]-2,6-di-<I>tert</I>-butylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 991-84-4) for use only as a stabilizer at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished rubber product.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylated reaction product of <I>p</I>-cresol and dicyclopentadiene as identified in § 178.2010(b) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylated, styrenated cresols identified in § 178.2010(b) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Butylidinebis(6<I>-tert-</I>butyl<I>-m-</I>cresol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-</I>Cyclohexyl-<I>N′-</I>phenylphenylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p,p′-</I>Diaminodiphenylmethane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,5-Di<I>-tert-</I>amylhydroquinone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diaryl<I>-p-</I>phenylenediamine, where the aryl group may be phenyl, tolyl, or xylyl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Di<I>-tert-</I>butyl<I>-p-</I>phenylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dihydro-2,2,4-trimethyl-6-dodecylquinoline.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dihydro-2,2,4-trimethyl-6-ethoxyquinoline.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dihydro-2,2,4-trimethyl-6-phenylquinoline.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Dimethoxydiphenylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,6-Dinonyl<I>-o-</I>cresol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N′-</I>Dioctyl<I>-p-</I>phenylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenylamine-acetone resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenylamine-acetone-formaldehyde resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N′-</I>Diphenylethylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N′-</I>Disalicylalpropylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N′-</I>Di<I>-o-</I>tolylethylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroquinone monobenzyl ether.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropoxydiphenylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N</I>-Isopropyl<I>-N′-</I>phenyl<I>-p-</I>phenylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2′-Methylenebis(6<I>-tert-</I>butyl-4-ethylphenol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6<I>-tert-</I>butylphenol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6-nonylphenol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6<I>-tert-</I>octylphenol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monooctyl- and dioctyldiphenylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N,N′</I>-Di-β-naphthyl<I>-p-</I>phenylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl<I>-a-</I>naphthylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl-β-naphthylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl-β-naphthylamine-acetone aromatic amine resin (average molecular weight 600; nitrogen content 5.3 percent).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>o-</I> and <I>p-</I>Phenylphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutylated (mixture) 4,4′-isopropylidenediphenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium pentachlorophenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrenated cresols produced when 2 moles of styrene are made to react with 1 mole of a mixture of phenol and <I>o-, m-,</I> and <I>p-</I>cresols so that the final product has a Brookfield viscosity at 25 °C of 1400 to 1700 centipoises.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrenated phenol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Thiobis (6<I>-tert</I>-butyl<I>-m-</I>cresol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toluene-2,4-diamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N-o-</I>Tolyl-<I>N′-</I>phenyl<I>-p-</I>phenylenediamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p(p-</I>Tolylsufanilamide) diphenylamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tri(mixed mono- and dinonylphenyl) phosphite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tri(nonylphenyl) phosphite-formaldehyde resins produced when 1 mole of tri(nonylphenyl) phosphite is made to react with 1.4 moles of formaldehyde or produced when 1 mole of nonylphenol is made to react with 0.36 mole of formaldehyde and the reaction product is then further reacted with 0.33 mole of phosphorus trichloride. The finished resins have a minimum viscosity of 20,000 centipoises at 25 °C, as determined by LV-series Brookfield viscometer (or equivalent) using a No. 4 spindle at 12 r.p.m., and have an organic phosphorus content of 4.05 to 4.15 percent by weight.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Plasticizers (total not to exceed 30 percent by weight of rubber product unless otherwise specified).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butylacetyl ricinoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Butyl ester of tall oil fatty acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl laurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl oleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Castor oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coumarone-indene resins.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,2′-Dibenzamidodiphenyl disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibutoxyethoxyethyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibutyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Didecyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisodecyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisodecyl phthalate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisooctyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisooctyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dioctyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dioctyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dipentene resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fatty acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fatty acids, hydrogenated.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isooctyl ester of tall oil fatty acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lanolin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>a</I>-Methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins (molar ratio 1 <I>a</I>-methylstyrene to 3 vinyltoluene).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mineral oil; (1) In rubber articles complying with this section, not to exceed 30 percent by weight; (2) Alone or in combination with waxes, petroleum, total not to exceed 45 percent by weight of rubber articles that contain at least 20 percent by weight of ethylene-propylene copolymer elastomer complying with paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, in contact with foods of Types I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Montan wax.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Octyl <I>n</I>-decyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petrolatum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petroleum hydrocarbon resin (cyclopentadiene type), hydrogenated.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petroleum hydrocarbon resin (produced by the homo- and copolymerization of dienes and olefins of the aliphatic, alicyclic, and monobenzenoid arylalkene types from distillates of cracked petroleum stocks).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petroleum hydrocarbon resin (produced by the catalytic polymerization and subsequent hydrogenation of styrene, vinyltoluene, and indene types from distillates of cracked petroleum stocks).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petroleum oil, sulfonated.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol-formaldehyde resin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pine tar.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polybutene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polystyrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Propyl ester of tall oil fatty acids.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rapeseed oil vulcanized with rubber maker's sulfur.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rosins and rosin derivatives identified in § 175.105(c)(5) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soybean oil vulcanized with rubber maker's sulfur.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene-acrylonitrile copolymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpene resins.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylene glycol dicaprate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethylene glycol dicaprylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Waxes, petroleum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Xylene (or toluene) alkylated with dicyclopentadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc 2-benzamidothiophenate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Fillers.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum hydroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum silicate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Asbestos fiber, chrysotile or crocidolite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Barium sulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbon black (channel process or furnace combustion process; total carbon black not to exceed 50 percent by weight of rubber product; furnace combustion black content not to exceed 10 percent by weight of rubber products intended for use in contact with milk or edible oils).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cork.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cotton (floc, fibers, fabric).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mica.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nylon (floc, fibers, fabric).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silica.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Titanium dioxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfide.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) <I>Colorants.</I> Colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Lubricants (total not to exceed 2 percent by weight of rubber product).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Polyethylene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium stearate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(viii) <I>Emulsifiers.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Fatty acid salts, sodium or potassium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rosins and rosin-derivatives identified in § 175.105(c)(5) of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium decylbenzenesulfonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium lauryl sulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tall oil mixed soap (calcium, potassium, and sodium).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ix) <I>Miscellaneous (total not to exceed 5 percent by weight of rubber product).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Animal glue as described in § 178.3120 of this chapter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Azodicarbonamide as chemical blowing agent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Anthraquinone sulfonic acid sodium salt for use only as polymerization inhibitor in chloroprene polymers and not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the chloroprene polymers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Benzisothiazolin-3-one (CAS Reg. No. 2634-33-5) for use as a biocide in uncured liquid rubber latex not to exceed 0.02 percent by weight of the latex solids, where the total of all items listed in paragraph (c)(4)(ix) of this section does not exceed 5 percent of the rubber product.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Butyllithium for use only as polymerization catalyst for polybutadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-<I>tert</I>-Butyl-<I>o</I>-thiocresol as peptizing agent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>tert</I>-Butyl peracetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-tert</I>-Butylpyrocatechol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dialkyl (C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) dimethylammonium chloride for use only as a flocculating agent in the manufacture of silica.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di- and triethanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl xanthogen disulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-(Diiodomethylsulfonyl) toluene, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 20018-09-01, for use as an antifungal preservative at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of the sealants and caulking materials.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dodecyl mercaptan isomers, single or mixed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Ethoxyethanol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodoform.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p</I>-Menthane hydroperoxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>a</I>-(<I>p</I>-Nonylphenyl)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters, barium salt; the nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer and the poly (oxyethylene) content averages 9 moles; for use only as residual polymerization emulsifier at levels not to exceed 0.7 percent by weight of ethylene-propylene-1,4-hexadiene copolymers identified under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Oxybis (benzenesulfonhydrazide) as chemical blowing agent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenothiazine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium persulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium polysulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium nitrite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salt of ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid and glycine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium sulfide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene monomer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tall oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thioxylenois as peptizing agents.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tridecyl mercaptan.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc 4-<I>tert</I>-butylthiophenate as peptizing agent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Rubber articles intended for use with dry food are so formulated and cured under conditions of good manufacturing practice as to be suitable for repeated use.
</P>
<P>(e) Rubber articles intended for repeated use in contact with aqueous food shall meet the following specifications: The food-contact surface of the rubber article in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with distilled water at reflux temperature, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 20 milligrams per square inch during the first 7 hours of extraction, nor to exceed 1 milligram per square inch during the succeeding 2 hours of extraction.
</P>
<P>(f) Rubber articles intended for repeated use in contact with fatty foods shall meet the following specifications: The food-contact surface of the rubber article in the finished form in which it is to contact food, when extracted with <I>n</I>-hexane at reflux temperature, shall yield total extractives not to exceed 175 milligrams per square inch during the first 7 hours of extraction, nor to exceed 4 milligrams per square inch during the succeeding 2 hours of extraction.
</P>
<P>(g) In accordance with good manufacturing practice finished rubber articles intended for repeated use in contact with food shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(h) The provisions of this section are not applicable to rubber nursing-bottle nipples.
</P>
<P>(i) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 177.2600, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2710" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2710   Styrene-divinylbenzene resins, cross-linked.</HEAD>
<P>Styrene-divinylbenzene cross-linked copolymer resins may be safely used as articles or components of articles intended for repeated use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The resins are produced by the copolymerization of styrene with divinylbenzene.
</P>
<P>(b) The resins meet the extractives limitations prescribed in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(1) The resins to be tested are ground or cut into small particles that will pass through a U.S. standard sieve No. 3 and that will be held on a U.S. standard sieve No. 20.
</P>
<P>(2) A 100-gram sample of the resins, when extracted with 100 milliliters of ethyl acetate at reflux temperature for 1 hour, yields total extractives not to exceed 1 percent by weight of the resins.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with good manufacturing practice, finished articles containing the resins shall be thoroughly cleansed prior to their first use in contact with food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2800" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2800   Textiles and textile fibers.</HEAD>
<P>Textiles and textile fibers may safely be used as articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The textiles and textile fibers are prepared from one or more of the fibers identified in paragraph (d) of this section and from certain other adjuvant substances required in the production of the textiles or textile fibers or added to impart desired properties.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any adjuvant substance employed in the production of textiles or textile fibers does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect or any limitation further provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of textiles or textile fibers that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances employed in the production of or added to textiles and textile fibers may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances subject to prior sanction or approval for use in textiles and textile fibers and used in accordance with such sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances generally recognized as safe for use in cotton and cotton fabrics used in dry-food packaging.
</P>
<P>(4) Substances that by regulation in this part may safely be used in the production of or as a component of textiles or textile fibers and subject to provisions of such regulation.
</P>
<P>(5) Substances identified in this paragraph (d)(5), subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Fibers:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cotton
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyethylene terephthalate complying in composition with the provisions of § 177.1630(e)(4)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in the manufacture of items for repeated use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rayon
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Adjuvant substances:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Borax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl-acetyl ricinoleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorants used in accordance with § 178.3297 of this chapter.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl hydroquinone
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylpolysiloxane
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, sodium salt
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Ethyl-4-hexadecyl morpholinium ethyl sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a lubricant in the manufacture of polyethylene terephthalate fibers specified in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section at a level not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight of the finished fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eugenol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats, oils, fatty acids, and fatty alcohols derived from castor, coconut, cottonseed, fish, mustardseed, palm, peanut, rapeseed, ricebran, soybean, sperm, and tall oils and tallow.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats, oils, fatty acids, and fatty alcohols described in the preceding item reacted with one or more of the following substances:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"><E T="03">n</E>-Butyl and isobutyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycerol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hexylene glycol (2-methyl-2,4-pentanediol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isopropyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxygen
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyethylene glycol (molecular weight 400-3,000)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Potassium hydroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium hydroxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfuric acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glyceryl mono-12-hydroxystearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(9-Heptadecenyl)-1-[2-(10-octadecenamido)ethyl-2-imidazolinium ethyl sulfate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexylene glycol (2-methyl,-2,4-pentanediol)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kerosene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ester of sulfated ricebran oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at a level not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of finished fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mono- and diisopropylated <E T="03">m-</E> and <E T="03">p</E>-cresols (isothymol derivative).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-Oleyl, <E T="03">N′</E>-acetyl, <E T="03">N′</E>-β-hydroxy-ethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolatum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum sulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pine oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under 21 CFR 178.3740(b) of this chapter.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene, oxidized (air blown)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl acetate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium soap of a saponified sulfated castor oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium bis(2,6-dimethylheptyl-4) sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dodecyl benzenesulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium fluoride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hydrosulfite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hypochlorite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium lauryl sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2-mercaptobenzothiazole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene-butadiene copolymer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfated butyl, isobutyl and propyl oleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow, sulfonated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ultramarine blue
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waxes, petroleum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc hydrosulfite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) Textile and textile fibers are used as articles or components of articles that contact dry food only.
</P>
<P>(f) The provisions of this section are not applicable to jute fibers used as prescribed by § 178.3620(d)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 37042, July 17, 1981; 49 FR 4372, Feb. 6, 1984; 49 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984; 56 FR 42933, Aug. 30, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 177.2910" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.8.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 177.2910   Ultra-filtration membranes.</HEAD>
<P>Ultra-filtration membranes identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of this section may be safely used in the processing of food, under the following prescribed conditions;
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Ultra-filtration membranes that consist of paper impregnated with cured phenol-formaldehyde resin, which is used as a support and is coated with a vinyl chloride-acrylonitrile copolymer.
</P>
<P>(2) Ultra-filtration membranes that consist of a sintered carbon support that is coated with zirconium oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1314-23-4) containing up to 12 percent yttrium oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1314-36-9).
</P>
<P>(3) Ultra-filtration membranes that consist of an aluminum oxide support that is coated with zirconium oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1314-23-4) containing up to 5 percent yttrium oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1314-36-9).
</P>
<P>(4) Ultrafiltration membranes that consist of a microporous poly(vinylidene fluoride) membrane with a hydrophilic surface modifier consisting of hydroxypropyl acrylate/tetraethylene glycol diacrylate copolymer.
</P>
<P>(b) Any substance employed in the production of ultra-filtration membranes that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with the specifications of such regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) Ultra-filtration membranes are used in the physical separation of dissolved or colloidally suspended varying molecular size components of liquids during the commercial processing of bulk quantities of food.
</P>
<P>(d) Ultra-filtration membranes shall be maintained in a sanitary manner in accordance with good manufacturing practice so as to prevent potential microbial adulteration of the food.
</P>
<P>(e) Ultrafiltration membranes identified in paragraph (a)(4) may be used to filter aqueous or acidic foods containing up to 13 percent of alcohol at temperatures not to exceed 21 °C (70 °F).
</P>
<P>(f) To assure safe use of the ultra-filtration membranes, the label or labeling shall include adequate directions for a pre-use treatment, consisting of conditioning and washing with a minimum of 8 gallons of potable water prior to their first use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(g) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14572, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 53 FR 17925, May 19, 1988; 58 FR 48599, Sept. 17, 1993; 60 FR 54426, Oct. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="178" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 178—INDIRECT FOOD ADDITIVES: ADJUVANTS, PRODUCTION AIDS, AND SANITIZERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 178 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 70 FR 72074, Dec. 1, 2005; and 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Substances Utilized To Control the Growth of Microorganisms</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.1005" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.1005   Hydrogen peroxide solution.</HEAD>
<P>Hydrogen peroxide solution identified in this section may be safely used to sterilize polymeric food-contact surfaces identified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, hydrogen peroxide solution is an aqueous solution containing not more than 35 percent hydrogen peroxide (CAS Reg. No. 7722-84-1) by weight, meeting the specifications prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional adjuvant substances.</I> Hydrogen peroxide solution identified in paragraph (a) of this section may contain substances generally recognized as safe in or on food, substances generally recognized for their intended use in food packaging, substances used in accordance with a prior sanction or approval, and substances permitted by applicable regulations in parts 174 through 179 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications.</I> Hydrogen peroxide solution shall meet the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 496-497, which is incorporated by reference. Hydrogen peroxide solution shall also meet the specifications for “Acidity,” “Chloride,” and “Other requirements” for Hydrogen Peroxide Concentrate in the United States Pharmacopeia 36th Revision (2013), pp. 3848-3849, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> No use of hydrogen peroxide solution in the sterilization of food packaging material shall be considered to be in compliance if more than 0.5 part per million of hydrogen peroxide can be determined in distilled water packaged under production conditions (assay to be performed immediately after packaging).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) Hydrogen peroxide solution identified in and complying with the specifications in this section may be used by itself or in combination with other processes to treat food-contact surfaces to attain commercial sterility at least equivalent to that attainable by thermal processing for metal containers as provided for in part 113 of this chapter. Food-contact surfaces include the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-acrylic acid copolymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1310 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-carbon monoxide copolymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1312 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-methyl acrylate copolymer resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1340 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ionomeric resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1330 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutylene polymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1420 (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olefin polymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polycarbonate resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene-terephthalate polymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter (excluding polymers described in § 177.1630(c)) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly-l-butene resins and butene/ethylene copolymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1570 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polystryrene and rubber-modified polystyrene polymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinylidene chloride/methyl acrylate copolymers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1990 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The packaging materials identified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section may be used for packaging all commercially sterile foods except that the olefin polymers may be used in articles for packaging foods only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, III, IV-B, V, and VI.
</P>
<P>(3) Processed foods packaged in the materials identified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall conform with parts 108, 110, 113, and 114 of this chapter as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 2342, Jan. 9, 1981, as amended at 49 FR 10111, Mar. 19, 1984; 49 FR 32345, Aug. 14, 1984; 49 FR 37747, Sept. 26, 1984; 51 FR 45881, Dec. 23, 1986; 52 FR 26146, July 13, 1987; 53 FR 47186, Nov. 22, 1988; 54 FR 5604, Feb. 6, 1989; 54 FR 13167, Mar. 31, 1989; 54 FR 6365 Feb. 9, 1989; 55 FR 47055, Nov. 9, 1990; 57 FR 32423, July 22, 1992; 78 FR 71467, Nov. 29, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.1010" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.1010   Sanitizing solutions.</HEAD>
<P>Sanitizing solutions may be safely used on food-processing equipment and utensils, and on other food-contact articles as specified in this section, within the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Such sanitizing solutions are used, followed by adequate draining, before contact with food.
</P>
<P>(b) The solutions consist of one of the following, to which may be added components generally recognized as safe and components which are permitted by prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(1) An aqueous solution containing potassium, sodium, or calcium hypochlorite, with or without the bromides of potassium, sodium, or calcium.
</P>
<P>(2) An aqueous solution containing dichloroisocyanuric acid, trichloroisocyanuric acid, or the sodium or potassium salts of these acids, with or without the bromides of potassium, sodium, or calcium.
</P>
<P>(3) An aqueous solution containing potassium iodide, sodium <I>p</I>-toluenesulfonchloroamide, and sodium lauryl sulfate.
</P>
<P>(4) An aqueous solution containing iodine, butoxy monoether of mixed (ethylene-propylene) polyalkylene glycol having a cloudpoint of 90°-100 °C in 0.5 percent aqueous solution and an average molecular weight of 3,300, and ethylene glycol monobutyl ether. Additionally, the aqueous solution may contain diethylene glycol monoethyl ether as an optional ingredient.
</P>
<P>(5) An aqueous solution containing elemental iodine, hydriodic acid, <I>a</I>-(<I>p</I>-nonylphenyl)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) (complying with the identity prescribed in § 178.3400(c) and having a maximum average molecular weight of 748) and/or polyoxyethylene-polyoxypropylene block polymers (having a minimum average molecular weight of 1,900). Additionally, the aqueous solution may contain isopropyl alcohol as an optional ingredient.
</P>
<P>(6) An aqueous solution containing elemental iodine, sodium iodide, sodium dioctylsulfosuccinate, and polyoxyethylene-polyoxypropylene block polymers (having a minimum average molecular weight of 1,900).
</P>
<P>(7) An aqueous solution containing dodecylbenzenesulfonic acid and either isopropyl alcohol or polyoxyethylene-polyoxypropylene block polymers (having a minimum average molecular weight of 2,800). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on glass bottles and other glass containers intended for holding milk.
</P>
<P>(8) An aqueous solution containing elemental iodine, butoxy monoether of mixed (ethylene-propylene) polyalkylene glycol having a minimum average molecular weight of 2,400 and α-lauroyl-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) with an average 8-9 moles of ethylene oxide and an average molecular weight of 400. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on beverage containers, including milk containers or equipment. Rinse water treated with this solution can be recirculated as a preliminary rinse. It is not to be used as final rinse.
</P>
<P>(9) An aqueous solution containing <I>n</I>-alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) benzyldimethylam-monium chloride compounds having average molecular weights of 351 to 380. The alkyl groups consist principally of groups with 12 to 16 carbon atoms and contain not more than 1 percent each of groups with 8 and 10 carbon atoms. Additionally, the aqueous solution may contain either ethyl alcohol or isopropyl alcohol as an optional ingredient.
</P>
<P>(10) An aqueous solution containing trichloromelamine and either sodium lauryl sulfate or dodecyl- benzenesulfonic acid. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils and other food-contact articles, this solution may be used on beverage containers except milk containers or equipment.
</P>
<P>(11) An aqueous solution containing equal amounts of <I>n-</I>alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) benzyl dimethyl ammonium chloride and <I>n-</I>alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride (having an average molecular weight of 384). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(12) An aqueous solution containing the sodium salt of sulfonated oleic acid, polyoxyethylene-polyoxypropylene block polymers (having an average molecular weight of 2,000 and 27 to 31 moles of polyoxypropylene). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on glass bottles and other glass containers intended for holding milk. All equipment, utensils, glass bottles, and other glass containers treated with this sanitizing solution shall have a drainage period of 15 minutes prior to use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(13) An aqueous solution containing elemental iodine and alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>) monoether of mixed (ethylene-propylene) polyalkylene glycol, having a cloud-point of 70°-77 °C in 1 percent aqueous solution and an average molecular weight of 807.
</P>
<P>(14) An aqueous solution containing iodine, butoxy monoether of mixed (ethylene-propylene) polyalkylene glycol, having a cloud-point of 90°-100 °C in 0.5 percent aqueous solution and an average molecular weight of 3,300, and polyoxyethylene-polyoxypropylene block polymers (having a minimum average molecular weight of 2,000).
</P>
<P>(15) An aqueous solution containing lithium hypochlorite.
</P>
<P>(16) An aqueous solution containing equal amounts of <I>n-</I>alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) benzyl dimethyl ammonium chloride and <I>n-</I>alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">14</E>) dimethyl ethylbenzyl ammonium chloride (having average molecular weights of 377 to 384), with the optional adjuvant substances tetrasodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate and/or <I>alpha-</I>(<I>p-</I>nonylphenol)<I>-omega-</I>hydroxy poly (oxyethylene) having an average poly- (oxyethylene) content of 11 moles. Alpha-hydro-omega-hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) poly(oxypropoylene) (15 to 18 mole minimum) poly (oxyethylene) block copolymer, having a minimum molecular weight of 1,900 (CAS Registry No. 9003-11-6) may be used in lieu of alpha- (<I>p</I>-nonylphenol)-omega-hydroxy- poly(oxyethylene) having an average poly(oxyethylene) content of 11 moles. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(17) An aqueous solution containing di-<I>n</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">10</E>)dimethyl ammonium chlorides having average molecular weights of 332-361 and either ethyl alcohol or isopropyl alcohol. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(18) An aqueous solution containing <I>n-</I>alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) benzyldimethylammo-nium chloride, sodium metaborate, <I>alpha-</I>terpineol and <I>alpha</I>[<I>p-</I>(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)phenyl] <I>-omega-</I>hydroxy-poly (oxyethylene) produced with one mole of the phenol and 4 to 14 moles ethylene oxide.
</P>
<P>(19) An aqueous solution containing sodium dichloroisocyanurate and tetrasodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(20) An aqueous solution containing <I>ortho-</I>phenylphenol, <I>ortho-</I>benzyl<I>-para-</I>chlorophenol, para-tertiaryamylphenol, sodium <I>-alpha-</I>alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>)<I>-omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) sulfate with the poly(oxyethylene) content averaging one mole, potassium salts of coconut oil fatty acids, and isopropyl alcohol or hexylene glycol.
</P>
<P>(21) An aqueous solution containing sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on glass bottles and other glass containers intended for holding milk.
</P>
<P>(22) An aqueous solution containing (1) di-<I>n-</I>alkyl(C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">10</E>) dimethylammonium chloride compounds having average molecular weights of 332-361, (2) <I>n</I>-alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) benzyldimethylammonium chloride compounds having average molecular weights of 351-380 and consisting principally of alkyl groups with 12 to 16 carbon atoms with or without not over 1 percent each of groups with 8 and 10 carbon atoms, and (3) ethyl alcohol. The ratio of compound (1) to compound (2) is 60 to 40.
</P>
<P>(23) An aqueous solution containing <I>n</I>-alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>) benzyl-dimethylammonium chloride and didecyldimethylammonium chloride.
</P>
<P>(24) An aqueous solution containing elemental iodine (CAS Reg. No. 7553-56-2), <I>alpha</I>-[<I>p</I>-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-phenyl]-<I>omega-</I>hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) produced with one mole of the phenol and 4 to 14 moles ethylene oxide, and <I>alpha</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxy[poly(oxyethylene) poly(oxypropylene)] (having an average molecular weight of 965).
</P>
<P>(25) An aqueous solution containing elemental iodine (CAS Reg. No. 7553-56-2), potassium iodide (CAS Reg. No. 7681-11-0), and isopropanol (CAS Reg. No. 67-63-0). In addition to use on food processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on beverage containers, including milk containers and equipment and on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(26) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(27) An aqueous solution containing decanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 334-48-5), octanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 124-07-2), and sodium 1-octanesulfonate (CAS Reg. No. 5324-84-5). Additionally, the aqueous solution may contain isopropyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 67-63-0) as an optional ingredient.
</P>
<P>(28) An aqueous solution containing sulfonated 9-octadecenoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 68988-76-1) and sodium xylenesulfonate (CAS Reg. No. 1300-72-7).
</P>
<P>(29) An aqueous solution containing dodecyldiphenyloxidedisulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 30260-73-2), sulfonated tall oil fatty acid (CAS Reg. No. 68309-27-3), and neo-decanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 26896-20-8). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on glass bottles and other glass containers intended for holding milk.
</P>
<P>(30) An aqueous solution containing hydrogen peroxide (CAS Reg. No. 7722-84-1), peracetic acid (CAS Reg. No. 79-21-0), acetic acid (CAS Reg. No. 64-19-7), and 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 2809-21-4).
</P>
<P>(31) An aqueous solution containing elemental iodine, <I>alpha</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">14</E>)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene)poly-(oxypropylene) of average molecular weight between 768 and 837, and <I>alpha</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) poly(oxypropylene) of average molecular weight between 950 and 1,120. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(32) An aqueous solution containing (i) di-<I>n</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">10</E>)dimethyl- ammonium chloride compounds having average molecular weights of 332 to 361, (ii) <I>n</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)benzyldimethyl- ammonium chloride compounds having average molecular weights of 351 to 380 and consisting principally of alkyl groups with 12 to 16 carbon atoms with no more than 1 percent of groups with 8 and 10, (iii) ethyl alcohol, and (iv) <I>alpha</I>-(<I>p</I>-nonylphenyl)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <I>p</I>-nonylphenol with 9 to 12 moles of ethylene oxide. The ratio of compound (i) to compound (ii) is 3 to 2.
</P>
<P>(33) An aqueous solution containing (i) di-<I>n</I>-alkyl-(C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">10</E>)-dimethylammonium chloride compounds having average molecular weights of 332 to 361; (ii) <I>n</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) -benzyldimethylammonium chloride compounds having molecular weights of 351 to 380 and consisting principally of alkyl groups with 12 to 16 carbon atoms with no more than 1 percent of the groups with 8 to 10; and (iii) tetrasodium ethylenediamine tetraacetate. Additionally, the aqueous solution contains either <I>alpha</I>-(<I>p</I>-nonylphenyl)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene) or <I>alpha</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">11</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>)-<I>omega</I>-hydroxypoly-(oxyethylene), each produced with 9 to 13 moles of ethylene oxide. The ratio of compound (i) to compound (ii) is 3 to 2.
</P>
<P>(34) An aqueous solution of an equilibrium mixture of oxychloro species (predominantly chlorite, chlorate, and chlorine dioxide) generated either (i) by directly metering a concentrated chlorine dioxide solution, prepared just prior to use, into potable water to provide the concentration of available chlorine dioxide stated in paragraph (c)(29) of this section, or (ii) by acidification of an aqueous alkaline solution of oxychloro species (predominantly chlorite and chlorate) followed by dilution with potable water to provide the concentration of available chlorine dioxide described in paragraph (c)(29) of this section.
</P>
<P>(35) An aqueous solution containing decanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 334-48-5), octanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 124-07-2), lactic acid (CAS Reg. No. 050-21-5), phosphoric acid (CAS Reg. No. 7664-38-2) and a mixture of the sodium salt of naphthalenesulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 1321-69-3); the methyl, dimethyl, and trimethyl dervatives of the sodium salt of naphthalenesulfonic acid; and a mixture of the sodium salt of naphthalenesulfonic acid, and the methyl, dimethyl, and trimethyl derivatives of the sodium salt of naphthalenesulfonic acid alkylated at 3 percent by weight with C<E T="52">6</E>-C<E T="52">9</E> linear olefins, as components of a sanitizing solution to be used on food-processing equipment and utensils. The methyl and dimethyl substituted derivatives (described within this paragraph (b)(35)) constitute no less than 70 percent by weight of the mixture of naphthalenesulfonates.
</P>
<P>(36) The sanitizing solution contains decanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 334-48-5); octanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 124-07-2); lactic acid (CAS Reg. No. 050-21-5); phosphoric acid (CAS Reg. No. 7664-38-2); a mixture of 1-octanesulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 3944-72-7), and 1-octanesulfonic-2-sulfinic acid (CAS Reg. No. 113652-56-5) or 1,2-octanedisulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 113669-58-2); the condensate of four moles of poly(oxyethylene)poly(oxypropylene) block copolymers with one mole of ethylenediamine (CAS Reg. No. 11111-34-5); and the optional ingredient FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (CAS Reg. No. 001934210). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(37) The sanitizing solution contains sodium hypochlorite (CAS Reg. No. 7681-52-9), trisodium phosphate (CAS Reg. No. 7601-54-9), sodium lauryl sulfate (CAS Reg. No. 151-21-3), and potassium permanganate (CAS Reg. No. 7722-64-7). Magnesium oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1309-48-4) and potassium bromide (CAS Reg. No. 7758-02-3) may be added as optional ingredients to this sanitizing solution. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(38) An aqueous solution containing hydrogen peroxide (CAS Reg. No. 7722-84-1); peroxyacetic acid (CAS Reg. No. 79-21-0); acetic acid (CAS Reg. No. 64-19-7); sulfuric acid (CAS Reg. No. 7664-93-9); and 2,6-pyridinedicarboxylic acid (CAS Reg. No. 499-83-2). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(39) An aqueous solution containing phosphoric acid (CAS Reg. No. 7664-38-2); octenyl succinic acid (CAS Reg. No. 28805-58-5); <I>N,N</I>-dimethyloctanamine (CAS Reg. No. 7378-99-6); and a mixture of <I>n</I>-carboxylic acids (C<E T="52">6</E>-C<E T="52">12</E>, consisting of not less than 56 percent octanoic acid and not less than 40 percent decanoic acid). This solution may be used on food-processing equipment and utensils, including dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(40) An aqueous solution prepared by combining elemental iodine (CAS Reg. No. 7553-56-2); hydriodic acid (CAS Reg. No. 10034-85-2); sodium <I>N</I>-cyclohexyl-<I>N</I>-palmitoyl taurate (CAS Reg. No. 132-43-4); chloroacetic acid, sodium salt reaction products with 4,5-dihydro-2-undecyl-1<I>H</I>-imidazole-1-ethanol and sodium hydroxide (CAS Reg. No. 68608-66-2); dodecylbenzene sulfonic acid (CAS Reg. No. 27176-87-0); phosphoric acid (CAS Reg. No. 7664-38-2); isopropyl alcohol (CAS Reg. No. 67-63-0); and calcium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 10043-52-4). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(41) An aqueous solution containing <I>n</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)benzyldimethylammonium chloride, having average molecular weights ranging from 351 to 380 wherein the alkyl groups contain principally 12 to 16 carbons and not more than 1 percent each of the groups with 8 and 10 carbon atoms; ammonium chloride (CAS Reg. No. 12125-02-9); calcium stearate (CAS Reg. No. 1592-23-0); sodium bicarbonate (CAS Reg. No. 144-55-8); starch or dextrin, or both starch and dextrin (CAS Reg. No. 9004-53-9); and the optional ingredient methylene blue (CAS Reg. No. 61-73-4). In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places.
</P>
<P>(42) An aqueous solution containing decanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 334-48-5), nonanoic acid (CAS Reg. No. 112-05-0), phosphoric acid (CAS Reg. No. 7664-38-2), propionic acid (CAS Reg No. 79-09-04), and sodium 1-octanesulfonate (CAS Reg. No. 5324-84-5). Sulfuric acid (CAS Reg. No. 7664-93-9) may be added as an optional ingredient. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(43) An aqueous solution of iodine and hypochlorous acid generated by the dilution of an aqueous acidic (21.5 percent nitric acid) solution of iodine monochloride. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(44) An aqueous solution of citric acid, disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate, sodium lauryl sulfate, and monosodium phosphate. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(45) An aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide, acetic acid, peroxyacetic acid, octanoic acid, peroxyoctanoic acid, sodium 1-octanesulfonate, and 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on food-contact surfaces in public eating places, subject to the limitations in paragraph (c)(39) of this section.
</P>
<P>(46) An aqueous solution of chlorine dioxide and related oxychloro species generated by acidification of an aqueous solution of sodium chlorite with a solution of sodium gluconate, citric acid, phosphoric acid, and sodium mono- and didodecylphenoxybenzenedisulfonate. In addition to use on food-processing equipment and utensils, this solution may be used on dairy-processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) The solutions identified in paragraph (b) of this section will not exceed the following concentrations:
</P>
<P>(1) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section will provide not more than 200 parts per million of available halogen determined as available chlorine.
</P>
<P>(2) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section will provide not more than 100 parts per million of available halogen determined as available chlorine.
</P>
<P>(3) Solution identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section will provide not more than 25 parts per million of titratable iodine. The solutions will contain the components potassium iodide, sodium <I>p-</I>toluenesulfonchloramide and sodium lauryl sulfate at a level not in excess of the minimum required to produce their intended functional effect.
</P>
<P>(4) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(4), (5), (6), (8), (13), and (14) of this section will contain iodine to provide not more than 25 parts per million of titratable iodine. The adjuvants used with the iodine will not be in excess of the minimum amounts required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(5) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(7) of this section will provide not more than 400 parts per million dodecylbenzenesulfonic acid and not more than 80 parts per million of polyoxyethylene-polyoxypropylene block polymers (having a minimum average molecular weight of 2,800) or not more than 40 parts per million of isopropyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>(6) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(9) of this section shall provide when ready to use no more than 200 parts per million of the active quaternary compound.
</P>
<P>(7) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(10) of this section shall provide not more than sufficient trichloromelamine to produce 200 parts per million of available chlorine and either sodium lauryl sulfate at a level not in excess of the minimum required to produce its intended functional effect or not more than 400 parts per million of dodecylbenzenesulfonic acid.
</P>
<P>(8) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(11) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, not more than 200 parts per million of active quaternary compound.
</P>
<P>(9) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(12) of this section shall provide not more than 200 parts per million of sulfonated oleic acid, sodium salt.
</P>
<P>(10) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(15) of this section will provide not more than 200 parts per million of available chlorine and not more than 30 ppm lithium.
</P>
<P>(11) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(16) of this section shall provide not more than 200 parts per million of active quaternary compound.
</P>
<P>(12) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(17) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, a level of 150 parts per million of the active quaternary compound.
</P>
<P>(13) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(18) of this section shall provide not more than 200 parts per million of active quaternary compound and not more than 66 parts per million of <I>alpha</I>[<I>p-</I>(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl) phenyl]<I>-omega-</I>hydroxypoly (oxyethylene).
</P>
<P>(14) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(19) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, a level of 100 parts per million of available chlorine.
</P>
<P>(15) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(20) of this section are for single use applications only and shall provide, when ready to use, a level of 800 parts per million of total active phenols consisting of 400 parts per million <I>ortho-</I>phenylphenol, 320 parts per million <I>ortho-</I>benzyl<I>-para-</I>chlorophenol and 80 parts per million <I>para-</I>tertiaryamylphenol.
</P>
<P>(16) Solution identified in paragraph (b)(21) of this section shall provide not more than 430 parts per million and not less than 25 parts per million of sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(17) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(22) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, at least 150 parts per million and not more than 400 parts per million of active quaternary compound.
</P>
<P>(18) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(23) of this section shall provide at least 150 parts per million and not more than 200 parts per million of the active quaternary compound.
</P>
<P>(19) Solutions identified in paragraphs (b)(24), (b)(25), and (b)(43) of this section shall provide at least 12.5 parts per million and not more than 25 parts per million of titratable iodine. The adjuvants used with the iodine shall not be in excess of the minimum amounts required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(20)-(21) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(22) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(27) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, at least 109 parts per million and not more than 218 parts per million of total active fatty acids and at least 156 parts per million and not more than 312 parts per million of the sodium 1-octanesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(23) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(28) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, at least 156 parts per million and not more than 312 parts per million of sulfonated 9-octadecenoic acid, at least 31 parts per million and not more then 62 parts per million of sodium xylenesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(24) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(29) of this section will provide at least 237 parts per million and not more than 474 parts per million dodecyldiphenyloxidedisulfonic acid, at least 33 parts per million and not more than 66 parts per million sulfonated tall oil fatty acid, and at least 87 parts per million and not more than 174 parts per million neo-decanoic acid.
</P>
<P>(25) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(30) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, not less than 550 parts per million and not more than 1,100 parts per million hydrogen peroxide, not less than 100 parts per million and not more than 200 parts per million peracetic acid, not less than 150 parts per million and not more than 300 parts per million acetic acid, and not less than 15 parts per million and not more than 30 parts per million 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid.
</P>
<P>(26) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(31) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, at least 12.5 parts per million and not more than 25 parts per million of titratable iodine. The adjuvants used with the iodine will not be in excess of the minimum amounts required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(27) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(32) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, at least 150 parts per million and no more than 400 parts per million of active quarternary compounds in solutions containing no more than 600 parts per million water hardness. The adjuvants used with the quarternary compounds will not exceed the amounts required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(28) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(33) of this section shall provide, when ready to use, at least 150 parts per million and not more than 400 parts per million of active quaternary compounds. The adjuvants used with the quaternary compounds shall not exceed the amounts required to accomplish the intended technical effect. Tetrasodium ethylenediamine tetraacetate shall be added at a minimum level of 60 parts per million. Use of these sanitizing solutions shall be limited to conditions of water hardness not in excess of 300 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(29) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(34) of this section should provide, when ready to use, at least 100 parts per million and not more than 200 parts per million available chlorine dioxide as determined by the method titled “Iodometric Method for the Determination of Available Chlorine Dioxide (50-250 ppm available ClO<E T="52">2</E>),” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(30) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(35) of this section shall provide, when ready for use, at least 117 parts per million and not more than 234 parts per million of total fatty acids and at least 166 parts per million and not more than 332 parts per million of a mixture of naphthalenesulfonates. The adjuvants phosphoric acid and lactic acid, used with decanoic acid, octanoic acid, and sodium naphthalenesulfonate and its alkylated derivatives, will not be in excess of the minimum amounts required to accomplish the intended technical effects.
</P>
<P>(31) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(36) of this section shall provide, when ready for use, at least 29 parts per million and not more than 58 parts per million decanoic acid; at least 88 parts per million and not more than 176 parts per million of octanoic acid; at least 69 parts per million and not more than 138 parts per million of lactic acid; at least 256 parts per million and not more than 512 parts per million of phosphoric acid; at least 86 parts per million and not more than 172 parts per million of 1-octanesulfonic acid; at least 51 parts per million and not more than 102 parts per million of 1-octanesulfonic-2-sulfinic acid or 1,2-octanedisulfonic acid; and at least 10 parts per million and not more than 20 parts per million of the condensate of four moles of poly(oxyethylene)poly(oxypropylene) block copolymers with one mole of ethylenediamine. The colorant adjuvant FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 shall not be used in excess of the minimum amount required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(32)(i) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(37) of this section without potassium bromide shall provide, when ready to use, at least 100 parts per million and not more than 200 parts per million of available halogen determined as available chlorine; at least 2,958 parts per million and not more than 5,916 parts per million of trisodium phosphate; at least 1 part per million and not more than 3 parts per million of sodium lauryl sulfate; and at least 0.3 part per million and not more than 0.7 part per million on potassium permanganate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(37) of this section with potassium bromide shall provide, when ready to use, at least 25 parts per million and not more than 200 parts per million of available halogen determined as available chlorine; at least 15 parts per million and not more than 46 parts per million of potassium bromide; at least 690 parts per million and not more than 2,072 parts per million of trisodium phosphate; at least 0.3 part per million and not more than 1 part per million of sodium lauryl sulfate; and at least 0.1 part per million and not more than 0.3 part per million of potassium permanganate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Magnesium oxide when used in paragraph (c)(32)(i) or (ii) of this section shall not be used in excess of the minimum amount required to accomplish its intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(33) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(38) of this section shall provide when ready for use not less than 300 parts per million and not more than 465 parts per million of hydrogen peroxide; not less than 200 parts per million and not more than 315 parts per million of peroxyacetic acid; not less than 200 parts per million and not more than 340 parts per million of acetic acid; not less than 10 parts per million and not more than 20 parts per million of sulfuric acid; and not less than 0.75 parts per million and not more than 1.2 parts per million of 2,6-pyridinedicarboxylic acid.
</P>
<P>(34) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(39) of this section shall provide when ready for use not less than 460 parts per million and not more than 625 parts per million of phosphoric acid, and all components shall be present in the following proportions: 1 part phosphoric acid to 0.25 octenyl succinic acid to 0.18 part <I>N,N</I>-dimethyloctanamine to 0.062 part of a mixture of <I>n</I>-carboxylic acids (C<E T="52">6</E>-C<E T="52">12</E>, consisting of not less than 56 percent octanoic acid and not less than 40 percent decanoic acid).
</P>
<P>(35) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(40) of this section shall provide when ready for use not less than 12.5 parts per million and not more than 25.0 parts per million of titratable iodine; and not less than 2.7 parts per million and not more than 5.5 parts per million of dodecylbenzene sulfonic acid. All components shall be present in the following proportions: 1.0 part dodecylbenzene sulfonic acid to 43 parts sodium <I>N</I>-cyclohexyl-<I>N</I>-palmitoyl taurate to 7.7 parts chloroacetic acid, sodium salt, reaction products with 4,5-dihydro-2-undecyl-1<I>H</I>-imidazole-1-ethanol and sodium hydroxide to 114 parts phosphoric acid to 57 parts isopropyl alcohol to 3.0 parts calcium chloride.
</P>
<P>(36) Solutions identified in paragraph (b)(41) of this section shall provide, when ready for use, not less than 150 parts per million and not more than 200 parts per million of <I>n</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)benzyldimethylammonium chloride; and not more than 0.4 part per million of the colorant methylene blue. Components shall be present in the product used to prepare the solution in the following proportions: 1 part <I>n</I>-alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)benzyldimethylammonium chloride to 0.24 part ammonium chloride to 0.08 part calcium stearate to 0.60 part sodium bicarbonate to 0.08 part starch or dextrin, or a combination of starch and dextrin.
</P>
<P>(37)(i) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(42) of this section not containing sulfuric acid shall provide when ready for use not less than 45 parts per million and not more than 90 parts per million of decanoic acid; and all components shall be present in the following proportions (weight/weight (w/w)): 1 part decanoic acid to 1 part nonanoic acid to 9.5 parts phosphoric acid to 3.3 parts propionic acid to 3.3 parts sodium 1-octanesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(42) of this section containing sulfuric acid shall provide when ready for use not less than 45 parts per million and not more than 90 parts per million of decanoic acid; and all components shall be present in the following proportions (w/w): 1 part decanoic acid to 1 part nonanoic acid to 2.8 parts phosphoric acid to 3.3 parts propionic acid to 3.3 parts sodium 1-octanesulfonate to 3.2 parts sulfuric acid.
</P>
<P>(38) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(44) of this section shall provide, when ready for use, at least 16,450 parts per million and not more than 32,900 parts per million of citric acid; at least 700 parts per million and not more than 1,400 parts per million of disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate; at least 175 parts per million and not more than 350 parts per million of sodium lauryl sulfate; and at least 175 parts per million and not more than 350 parts per million of monosodium phosphate.
</P>
<P>(39)(i) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(45) of this section, when used on food processing equipment and utensils, including dairy and beverage-processing equipment but excluding food-contact surfaces in public eating places and dairy and beverage containers, shall provide when ready for use at least 72 parts per million and not more than 216 parts per million of hydrogen peroxide; at least 46 parts per million and not more than 138 parts per million of peroxyacetic acid; at least 40 parts per million and not more than 122 parts per million of octanoic acid (including peroxyoctanoic acid); at least 281 parts per million and not more than 686 parts per million of acetic acid; at least 7 parts per million and not more than 34 parts per million of 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid; and at least 36 parts per million and not more than 109 parts per million of sodium 1-octanesulfonate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(45) of this section, when used on food-contact equipment and utensils in warewashing machines, including warewashing machines in public eating places, at temperatures no less than 120 °F (49 °C) shall provide when ready for use at least 30 parts per million and not more than 91 parts per million of hydrogen peroxide; at least 19 parts per million and not more than 58 parts per million of peroxyacetic acid; at least 17 parts per million and not more than 52 parts per million of octanoic acid (including peroxyoctanoic acid); at least 119 parts per million and not more than 290 parts per million of acetic acid; at least 3 parts per million and not more than 14 parts per million of 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid; and at least 15 parts per million and not more than 46 parts per million of sodium 1-octanesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(iii) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(45) of this section, when used on dairy or beverage containers, shall provide when ready for use at least 36 parts per million and not more than 108 parts per million of hydrogen peroxide; at least 23 parts per million and not more than 69 parts per million of peroxyacetic acid; at least 20 parts per million and not more than 61 parts per million of octanoic acid (including peroxyoctanoic acid); at least 140 parts per million and not more than 343 parts per million of acetic acid; at least 3 parts per million and not more than 17 parts per million of 1-hydroxyethylidene-1,1-diphosphonic acid; and at least 18 parts per million and not more than 55 parts per million of sodium 1-octanesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(40) The solution identified in paragraph (b)(46) of this section shall provide, when ready for use, at least 100 parts per million and not more than 200 parts per million of chlorine dioxide as determined by the method developed by Bio-cide International, Inc., entitled, “Iodometric Method for the Determination of Available Chlorine Dioxide (50-250 ppm Available ClO<E T="52">2</E>),” dated June 11, 1987, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this method are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</I>; at least 380 parts per million and not more than 760 parts per million of sodium gluconate; and at least 960 parts per million and not more than 1,920 parts per million of sodium mono- and didodecylphenoxybenzenedisulfonate. Other components listed under paragraph (b)(46) of this section shall be used in the minimum amount necessary to produce the intended effect.
</P>
<P>(d) Sanitizing agents for use in accordance with this section will bear labeling meeting the requirements of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 16, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 178.1010, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Antioxidants and Stabilizers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.2010" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.2010   Antioxidants and/or stabilizers for polymers.</HEAD>
<P>The substances listed in paragraph (b) of this section may be safely used as antioxidants and/or stabilizers in polymers used in the manufacture of articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(b) List of substances: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N-n-</E>Alkyl-<E T="03">N′</E>-(carboxymethyl)-<E T="03">N,N′-</E>trimethylenediglycine; the alkyl group is even numbered in the range C<E T="52">14-</E>C<E T="52">18</E> and the nitrogen content is in the range 5.4-5.6 weight percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As component of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.105 and 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1.35 percent by weight of natural rubber, butadiene-acrylonitrile, butadiene-acrylonitrile-styrene, and butadiene-styrene polymers that are used in contact with nonalcoholic food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature and that are employed in closure-sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter or in coatings complying with § 175.300, § 176.170, or § 175.320 of this chapter. The average thickness of such coatings and closure-sealing gaskets shall not exceed 0.004 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkylthiophenolics:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only: 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Acid-catalyzed condensation reaction products of 4-nonylphenol, formaldehyde, and 1-dodecanethiol (CAS Reg. No. 164907-73-7).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. At levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter, of pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter, and of rubber articles complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Acid-catalyzed condensation reaction products of branched 4-nonylphenol, formaldehyde, and 1-dodecanethiol (CAS Reg. No. 203742-97-6).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">p-tert-</E>Amylphenolformaldehyde resins produced when one mole of <E T="03">p-tert-</E>amylphenol is made to react under acid conditions with one mole of formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 2.1 percent by weight of polyamide resins that are:
<br/>1. Derived from dimerized vegetable oil acids (containing not more than 20 percent of monomer acids) and ethylenediamine.
<br/>2. Used in compliance with regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,4-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis[2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-[[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl]methyl]-4-methyl-phenyl]ester (CAS Reg. No. 57569-40-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(2<E T="03">H</E>-Benzotriazol-2-yl)-4,6-bis(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)phenol (CAS Reg. No. 70321-86-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 3.0 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(2<E T="03">H</E>-Benzotriazol-2-yl)-4-(1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethylbutyl) phenol (CAS Reg. No. 3147-75-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished resins contact food only under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-[4,6-Bis(2,4-dimethylphenyl)-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl]-5-(octyloxy)phenol (CAS Reg. No. 2725-22-6).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter in contact with food types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under conditions of use D through G as described in § 176.170(c), table 2, of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1a, 1.2, and 1.3 in contact with food under conditions of use A through H as described in § 176.170(c), table 2, of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.04 percent by weight of polyethylene and olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.1c, 3.2a, and 3.2b having a minimum density of 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter, in contact with food under conditions of use A through H as described in § 176.170, table 2, of this chapter provided that the finished articles used in contact with fatty food types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter hold a minimum of 2 gallons (7.6 liters) of food.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight of ethylene copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.1c, 3.2a, and 3.2b, having a density of less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter, in contact with food under conditions of use B through H, as described in § 176.170(c), table 2, of this chapter provided that the finished articles used in contact with fatty food types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX hold a minimum of 5 gallons (18.9 liters) of food.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.04 percent by weight of polyethylene having a density of less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter, and olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.3a, 3.3b, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6, 4, 5, and 6, in contact with food under conditions of use D through G as described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, provided that the finished articles used in contact with fatty food types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX hold a minimum of 5 gallons (18.9 liters) of food.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β, 3(or 4)-Bis(octadecylthio)cyclohexylethane (CAS Reg. No. 37625-75-5); CAS synonym: 1-[(<E T="03">beta</E>-(octadecylthio)ethyl]-3(or 4)-(octadecylthio)cyclohexane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of all polymers for use in contact with foods of Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII under conditions of use B through H as described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polyolefins complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, for use in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX under conditions of use C through G as described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidinyl) sebacate (CAS Reg. No. 52829-07-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(2,4-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-6-methylphenyl) ethyl phosphite (CAS Reg. No. 145650-60-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. The finished polymers may only be used with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of propylene polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 3.2b, 3.4, or 3.5, or 3.1a (where the density of this polymer is at least 0.85 gram per cubic centimeter and less than 0.91 gram per cubic centimeter). The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of high-density ethylene polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is at least 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), or 5. The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use C (maximum temperature 70 °C) through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. <E T="03">Provided,</E> that the finished food contact articles have a volume of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons).
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight of low-density ethylene polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, 3.4, 3.5, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter). The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. <E T="03">Provided,</E> that the average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.001 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Bis(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamoyl)-hydrazine (CAS Reg. No. 32687-78-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not exceeding 0.1 percent by weight of acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers used in accordance with parts 175, 176, 177, and 181 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not exceeding 0.1 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene copolymers complying with § 177.2470 of this chapter and of polyoxymethylene homopolymers complying with § 177.2480 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Bis(1-methylheptadecyl)<E T="03">-p-</E>cresol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not exceeding 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact fatty food or food containing more than 8 percent of alcohol shall not exceed 0.004 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,9-Bis[2,4-bis(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)phenoxy]-2,4,8,10-tetraoxa-3,9-diphosphaspiro[5.5]undecane (CAS Reg. No. 154862-43-8), which may contain not more than 2 percent by weight of triisopropanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 122-20-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of all polymers, except as specified below.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polyetherimide resins complying with § 177.1595 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,7-Bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-3-hydroxy-2(3H)-benzofuranone, reaction products with <E T="03">o</E>-xylene (CAS Reg. No. 181314-48-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, and under conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.02 percent by weight of:
<br/>(a) Propylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 3.1a, 3.2a, 3.2b, 3.4, or 3.5. The finished polymer may only be used in contact with food of types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, under Categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; or
<br/>(b) Ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is at least 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), or 5. The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, under Categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; provided that the finished food-contact articles have a volume of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons).
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.02 percent by weight of ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, 3.4, 3.5, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter). The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, under Categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; provided that the average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 50 micrometers (0.002 inch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,9-Bis[2-{3-(3-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl)propionyloxy}-1,1-dimethylethyl]-2,4,8,10-tetraoxaspiro[5.5]undecane (CAS Reg. No. 90498-90-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c), item 1.1 of this chapter. The finished polymer is to be used in contact with food only under conditions of use D through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 2.1, provided that the polymer has a minimum density of 0.94 grams per cubic centimeter and is used in contact with food only under conditions of use D through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 3.1, and 3.2, where the copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from propylene. The finished polymer is to be used in contact with food of types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VI-C, VII-B, and VIII under conditions of use A through H described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-[[4,6-Bis(octylthio)-<E T="03">s</E>-triazin-2-yl]amino]-2,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenol (CAS Reg. No. 991-84-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight: in styrene block copolymers complying with § 177.1810 of this chapter; in rosins and rosin derivatives complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(v) of this chapter; in can end cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxi) of this chapter; in side seam cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxii) of this chapter; in petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins and terpene resins complying with § 175.320(b)(3) of this chapter; in rosin and rosin derivatives complying with § 176.170(a)(5) of this chapter; in petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins or their hydrogenated products complying with § 176.170(b)(2) of this chapter; in terpene resins complying with § 175.300(b)(2)(xi) of this chapter, when such terpene resins are used in accordance with § 176.170(b)(1) of this chapter; in resins and polymers complying with § 176.180(b) of this chapter; in closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter; in petroleum hydrocarbon resin and rosins and rosin derivatives complying with § 178.3800(b) of this chapter; and in reinforced wax complying with § 178.3850 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the finished cellophane complying with § 177.1200 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight in polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene polymer contact food only under conditions of use B through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>4. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter; in pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter; and as provided in § 177.2600 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Bis(α,α-dimethylbenzyl)diphenylamine (CAS Reg. No. 10081-67-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. The polypropylene articles are limited to use in contact with non-fatty foods only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boric acid (CAS Reg. No. 10043-35-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.16 percent by weight of ethylene-vinyl acetate-vinyl alcohol copolymers complying with § 177.1360(a)(3) and (d) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Butanediol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylated reaction product of <E T="03">p</E>-cresol and dicyclopentadiene produced by reacting <E T="03">p</E>-cresol and dicyclopentadiene in an approximate mole ratio of 1.5 to 1, respectively, followed by alkylation with isobutylene so that the butyl content of the final product is not less than 18 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As components of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.105 and 177.2600(c)(4)(iii) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene copolymers. The finished copolymers may be used in contact with food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII under conditions of use B through H, as described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and with food of Types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX under conditions of use C through G as described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylated, styrenated cresols produced when equal moles of isobutylene, styrene, and a metacresol-paracresol mixture having a no more than 3 °C distillation range including 202 °C are made to react so that the final product meets the following specifications: Not less than 95 percent by weight of total alkylated phenols consisting of 13-25 percent by weight of butylated <E T="03">m</E>- and <E T="03">p</E>-cresols, 26-38 percent by weight of styrenated <E T="03">m</E>- and <E T="03">p</E>-cresols, 37-49 percent by weight of butylated styrenated <E T="03">m</E>- and <E T="03">p</E>-cresols, and not more than 10 percent by weight total of alkylated xylenols, alkylated <E T="03">o</E>-cresol, alkylated phenol, and alkylated ethylphenol; acidity not more than 0.003 percent; and refractive index at 25 °C of 1.5550-1.5650, as determined by ASTM method D1218-82, “Standard Test Method for Refractive Index and Refractive Dispersion of Hydrocarbon Liquids,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in §§ 175.105 and 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polystyrene, rubber-modified polystyrene, or olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 (c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4, or complying with other sections in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, used in articles that contact food only unded the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, under conditions of use C through G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2<E T="03">-tert-</E>Butyl<E T="03">-a</E>(3<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxyphenyl)<E T="03">-p-</E>cumenyl bis(<E T="03">p-</E>nonylphenyl) phosphite; the nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer and the phosphorus content is in the range 3.8-4.0 weight percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As components of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.105 and 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1.35 percent by weight of natural rubber, butadiene-acrylonitrile, butadiene-acrylonitrile-styrene, and butadiene-styrene polymers that are used in contact with nonalcoholic food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature and that are employed in closure-sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter or in coatings complying with § 175.300, § 175.320, or § 176.170 of this chapter. The average thickness of such coatings and closure-sealing gaskets shall not exceed 0.004 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(3′<E T="03">-tert-</E>Butyl-2′-hydroxy-5′-methyl-phenyl)-5-chlorobenzotriazole with a melting point of 137-141 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, provided that the finished polymer contacts foods only of the types identified in Categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A and B, VII-B, and VIII in table 1, § 176.170 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Butylidenebis(6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl<E T="03">-m-</E>cresol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only.
<br/>1. As provided in §§ 175.105 and 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter and for use at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, provided that the finished polypropylene and polyethylene contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, VI-B, and VIII.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyric acid, 3,3-bis(3-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxyphenyl)ethylene ester (CAS Reg. No. 32509-66-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1 and 3.2 except that when used in contact with foods described as types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, the olefin copolymers may only be used under conditions of use E, F, and G set forth in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, 3.1, or 3.2 (where the copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain not less than 85 weight-percent of polymer units derived from propylene).
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, and 3.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium benzoate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium bis[monoethyl(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxy-benzyl)phosphonate] (CAS Reg. No. 65140-91-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polypropylene that complies with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polyethylene and olefin copolymers that comply with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, and 3.6. Finished polymers having a density less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter shall be used in contact with food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of rosins and rosin derivatives complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(v) of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of can end cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxi) of this chapter.
<br/>7. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of side seam cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxii) of this chapter.
<br/>8. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins complying with § 175.320(b)(3) of this chapter.
<br/>9. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of rosin and rosin derivatives complying with § 176.170(a)(5) of this chapter; and petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins, or the hydrogenated product thereof, complying with § 176.170(b)(2) of this chapter.
<br/>10. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of resins and polymers used as components of paper and paperboard in contact with dry food in compliance with § 176.180 of this chapter.
<br/>11. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter.
<br/>12. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished rubber article complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>13. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of petroleum hydrocarbon resin and rosins and rosin derivatives complying with § 178.3800(b).
<br/>14. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of reinforced wax complying with § 178.3850.
<br/>15. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polyethylene phthalate polymers, complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter. Provided, that the finished polymers contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium myristate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium ricinoleate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene copolymer as provided in § 177.2470(b)(1) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium stearate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbethoxymethyl diethyl phosphonate (CAS Reg. No. 867-13-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At levels not to exceed 0.07 percent by weight of polyethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium stereate (CAS Reg. No. 10119-53-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight in rigid and semirigid vinyl chloride homo- and copolymer articles modified in accordance with § 178.3790(b)(1) of this chapter that contact food under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cupric acetate and lithium iodide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not exceeding 0.025 percent cupric acetate and 0.065 percent lithium iodide by weight of nylon 66 resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter; the finished resins are used or are intended to be used to contain foods during oven baking or oven cooking at temperatures above 250 °F. The average thickness of such resins in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.0012 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cuprous iodide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not exceeding 0.01 percent cuprous iodide by weight of nylon 66T resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter; the finished resins are used or are intended to be used to contain foods during oven baking or oven cooking at temperatures above 250 °F. The average thickness of such resins in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.001 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cuprous iodide and cuprous bromide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not exceeding 0.0025 percent cuprous iodide and 0.0175 percent cuprous bromide by weight of nylon 66 resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter; the finished resins are used or are intended to be used to contain foods during oven baking or oven cooking at temperatures above 250 °F. The average thickness of such resins in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.0015 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanoguanidine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene copolymer as provided in § 177.2470(b)(1) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclic neopentanetetrayl bis(octadecyl phosphite) (CAS Reg. No. 3806-34-6); the phosphorus content is in the range of 7.8 to 8.2 weight percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter that contact food under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclic neopentanetetrayl bis(octadecyl phosphite) (CAS Reg. No. 3806-34-6) (which may contain not more than 1 percent by weight of triisopropanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 122-20-3)); the phosphorus content is in the range of 7.8 to 8.2 weight percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 2.1, and 3.1.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 2.2, that contact food Types I, II, VI-A, VII-B, and VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B (for boil-in-bag applications), C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520, items 1.1 and 3.2, that contact food Types I, II, VI-A, VII-B, and VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B (for boil-in-bag applications), C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.20 percent by weight of polystyrene and/or rubber modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter that contact food under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Cyclohexylidenebis(2-cyclohexylphenol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polymers contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicetyl thiodipropionate having a melting point of 59°-62 °C as determined by ASTM method E324-79, “Standard Test Method for Relative Initial and Final Melting Points and the Melting Range of Organic Chemicals,” and a saponification value in the range 176-183 as determined by ASTM method D1962-67 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Saponification Value of Drying Oils, Fatty Acids, and Polymerized Fatty Acids,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The concentration of this additive and any other permitted antioxidants in the finished food-contact article shall not exceed a total of 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Didodecyl-1,4-dihydro-2,6-dimethyl-3,5-pyridinedicarboxylate (CAS Reg. No. 36265-41-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight in rigid polymer articles modified in accordance with § 178.3790 that contact food, under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Di(α-methyl benzyl)-4-methyl phenol [Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 1817-68-1]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with item 3.4 in § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, provided that such olefin polymers are limited to use at a level not to exceed 25 percent by weight in other olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter; and the total amount in such finished olefin polymers not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight, including the level that may be contributed by its presence at 6 percent in the item “butylated, styrenated cresols * * * ” listed in this paragraph; and further provided that the finished olefin polymers are intended for contact with foods, except those containing more than 8 percent alcohol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-Dimethyl-6-(1-methylpentadecyl)phenol (CAS Reg. No. 134701-20-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers used in accordance with applicable regulations in parts 175, 176, 177, and 181 of this chapter, under conditions of use C through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.033 percent by weight of rigid polyvinyl chloride, under conditions of use A through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl succinate polymer with 4-hydroxy-2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-1-piperidineethanol (CAS Reg. No. 65447-77-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyltin/monomethyltin isooctylmercaptoacetates consisting of 5 to 90 percent by weight of monomethyltin tris (isooctylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 54849-38-6) or monomethyltin tris(2-ethylhexylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 57583-34-3) and 10 to 95 percent by weight of dimethyltin bis (isooctylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 26636-01-1) or dimethyltin bis(2-ethylhexylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 57583-35-4), and no more than 0.4 percent by weight of trimethyltin compounds, and having the following specifications: Tin content (as Sn) in the range of 15 to 21 percent and mercaptosulfur content in the range of 11 to 13.5 percent. Other alkyltin compounds are not to exceed 20 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight:
<br/>1. In rigid polyvinyl chloride used in the manufacture of pipes intended for contact with water in food-processing plants, and
<br/>2. In rigid polyvinyl chloride and in rigid vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1950 of this chapter or § 177.1980 of this chapter for use in contact with food of Types I, II, III, IV (except liquid milk), V, VI, VII, VIII, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at temperatures not to exceed 88 °C (190 °F). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimyristyl thiodipropionate having a melting point of 48°-52 °C as determined by ASTM method E324-79, “Standard Test Method for Relative Initial and Final Melting Points and the Melting Range of Organic Chemicals,” and a saponification equivalent in the range 280-290 as determined by ASTM method D1962-67 (Reapproved 1979), “Standard Test Method for Saponification Value of Drying Oils, Fatty Acids, and Polymerized Fatty Acids,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 1916 Race St., Philadelphia PA 19103, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finished food-contact articles containing this additive shall meet the extractives limitations prescribed in § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(<E T="03">n</E>-octyl)tin bis(2-ethylhexyl maleate) [CAS Reg. No. 10039-33-5] having 12.5 to 15.0 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having a saponification number of 260 to 280. The additive is made from di(<E T="03">n</E>-octyl)tin oxide meeting the specifications of § 178.2650(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of acrylonitrile copolymers complying with §§ 177.1020 and 177.1030 of this chapter and used in contact with all food types under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′-</E>Diphenylthiourea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyvinyl chloride and/or vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate copolymers containing not more than 20 molar percent of vinyl acetate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(4,6-Diphenyl-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl)-5-hexyloxy)phenol (CAS Reg. No. 147315-50-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyester elastomers complying with § 177.1590 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter, in contact with food under conditions of use A through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-ethylphenol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in contact with nonalcoholic foods:
<br/>1. At levels not exceeding 0.04 mg/in 
<sup>2</sup> of food contact surface and not exceeding 0.1 percent by weight in ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, and 3.3; § 177.1340; and § 177.1350 of this chapter. The average thickness of such polymers and copolymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.0025 in.
<br/>2. At levels not exceeding 0.04 mg/in 
<sup>2</sup> of food contact surface in ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, and 3.3; § 177.1340; and § 177.1350 of this chapter. The average thickness of such polymers and copolymers in the form in which they contact food shall be greater than 0.0025 in but shall not exceed 0.025 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,5-Di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamic acid triester with 1,3,5-tris(2-hydroxyethyl)-s-triazine-2,4,6-(1<E T="03">H</E>,3<E T="03">H</E>,5<E T="03">H</E>)-trione (CAS Reg. No. 34137-09-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter in articles that contact food not in excess of high temperature heat-sterilized condition of use A described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter in articles that contact food not in excess of high temperature heat-sterilized condition of use A described in 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2.
<br/>3. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, and 4.0.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of polyester elastomers, complying with § 177.1590 of this chapter, in contact with dry food only, and finished rubber articles for repeated use, complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter, in contact with all foods, at temperatures not to exceed 150 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-<E T="03">m</E>-cresyl phosphonite condensation product with biphenyl (CAS Reg. No. 178358-58-2) produced by the condensation of 4,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-<E T="03">m</E>-cresol with the Friedel-Crafts addition product (phosphorus trichloride and biphenyl) so that the food additive has a minimum phosphorus content of 5.0 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 2.1, 2.2, 3.1(a), 3.1(b), 3.2(a), or 3.2(b).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl phosphonite condensation product with biphenyl (CAS Reg. No. 119345-01-6) produced by the condensation of 2,4-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenol with the Friedel-Crafts addition product (phosphorus trichloride and biphenyl) so that the food additive has a minimum phosphorus content of 5.4 percent, an acid value not exceeding 10 mg KOH/gm, and a melting range of 85 °C to 110 °C (185 °F to 230 °F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 3.2b, 3.3a, 3.3b, 3.4, 3.5, and 3.1a (where the density is not less than 0.85 gram per cubic centimeter and not more than 0.91 gram per cubic centimeter); and 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, and 3.6 (where the density is not less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter) and 5.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polystyrene and 0.3 percent by weight of rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, 3.4, 3.5, and 3.6 (where the polyethylene component has a density less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter).
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of repeated use rubber articles complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-Di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl-3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxy-benzoate (CAS Reg. No. 4221-80-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1: (1) when used in single-use articles that contact food of types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; and (2) when used in repeated-use articles that contact food of types I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The additive is used under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of olefin polymers having a density of not less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter and complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, and 3.2: (1) when used in single-use articles that contact food of types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; and (2) when used in repeated-use articles that contact food of types I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The additive is used under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-Di-<E T="03">tert</E>-pentyl-6-[1-(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-pentyl-2-hydroxyphenyl)ethyl]phenyl acrylate (CAS Reg. No. 123968-25-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter in contact with food under conditions of use D through G as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except that polypropylene containing the additive at levels not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight may contact food under conditions of use A through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of styrene block polymers complying with § 177.1810 of this chapter. The additive is used under conditions of use D through G as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of polystyrene and rubber modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter in contact with food under conditions of use D through G as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N,N″-1,2-Ethanediylbis[N-[3-[[4,6-bis[butyl(1,2,2,6,6-pentamethyl-4-piperidinyl)amino]-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl]amino]propyl]-N′,N″-dibutyl-N′,N″-bis(1,2,2,6,6-pentamethyl-4-piperidinyl)-1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine] (CAS Reg. No. 106990-43-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.06 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1a, 1.1b, 1.2, or 1.3. The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the Types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and under conditions of use A through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.08 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the Types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and under conditions of use A through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenebis(oxyethylene)-bis-(3-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxy-5-methylhydrocinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 36443-68-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polystyrene and/or rubber modified polystyrene polymers complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers used in accordance with applicable regulations in parts 175, 176, 177, and 181 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.75 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene copolymers used in accordance with § 177.2470 of this chapter. The finished articles shall not be used for foods containing more than 15 percent alcohol.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene homopolymers used in accordance with § 177.2480 of this chapter. The finished articles shall not be used for foods containing more than 15 percent alcohol.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of rigid vinyl chloride plastics prepared from vinyl chloride homopolymers and/or vinyl chloride copolymers used in accordance with a prior sanction or applicable regulations in parts 175, 176, and 177 of this chapter. The vinyl chloride copolymers shall contain not less than 50 weight percent of total polymer units derived from vinyl chloride.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of vinylidene chloride homopolymers and/or vinylidene chloride copolymers used in accordance with a prior sanction or applicable regulations in parts 175, 176, and 177 of this chapter. The vinylidene chloride copolymers shall contain not less than 50 weight percent of total polymer units derived from vinylidene chloride.
<br/>7. In adhesives used in accordance with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Ethylidenebis(4,6-di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butylphenol) (CAS Reg. No. 35958-30-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 3.1, or 3.2 (where the polymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain primarily polymer units derived from propylene).
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3. The finished polymers are to be used only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 (where the density of each of these polymers is not less than 0.94 g/cc) and item 3.1 or 3.2 (where each of these polymers contains primarily polymer units derived from ethylene).
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, or 4.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of ethylene vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter and under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of rigid or semirigid polyvinyl chloride and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>7. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers containing less than 30 percent by weight of acrylonitrile and under conditions of use D through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>8. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter and under conditions of use D through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>9. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter.
<br/>10. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Ethylidenebis(4,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)fluorophosphonite (CAS Reg. No. 118337-09-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>2. In all polymers used in contact with food of types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, under conditions of use B through H described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polymers.
<br/>3. In polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, under:
<br/>(a) Conditions of use B through H described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of the polymer; or
<br/>(b) Condition of use A, limited to levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the polymer; provided that the food-contact surface has an average thickness not exceeding 375 micrometers (0.015 inch).
<br/>4. In olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1a or 3.2a, and containing not less than 85 percent by weight of polymer units derived from propylene, in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, and under:
<br/>(a) Conditions of use C through G, described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, limited to levels no greater than 0.2 percent by weight of the copolymers; or
<br/>(b) Conditions of use A, B, and H, limited to levels no greater than 0.1 percent by weight of the olefin copolymers; provided that the food-contact surface has an average thickness not exceeding 375 micrometers (0.015 inch).
<br/>5. In olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.2 or 1.3 in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, under conditions of use A through H, described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the polymers; provided that the food-contact surface has an average thickness not exceeding 375 micrometers (0.015 inch).
<br/>6. In polyethylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1 or 2.2, having a density of not less than 0.94, in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, and under:
<br/>(a) Conditions of use B through H, described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter limited to levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the polymers; or
<br/>(b) Condition of use A, described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, limited to levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the polymer; provided that the food-contact surface has an average thickness not exceeding 125 micrometers (0.005 inch).
<br/>7. In olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, or 3.2b, containing not less than 85 percent by weight of polymer units derived from ethylene and having a density of not less than 0.94, in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, and under:
<br/>(a) Conditions of use C through G, described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter limited to levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of the copolymers; or
<br/>(b) Conditions of use A, B, and H, limited to levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the copolymers; provided that the food-contact surface has an average thickness not exceeding 125 micrometers (0.005 inch).
<br/>8. In olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, or 3.2b containing not less than 85 percent by weight of polymer units derived from ethylene, in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, under conditions of use A through H, as described in Tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the copolymer; provided that the food-contact surface has an average thickness not exceeding 75 micrometers (0.003 inch).
<br/>9. In polyethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under:
<br/>(a) Conditions of use B through H, described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, limited to levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of the polymers; or
<br/>(b) Condition of use A with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, and limited to levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the polymers; provided that the film thickness does not exceed 875 micrometers (0.035 inch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexadecyl 3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxybenzoate (CAS Reg. No. 67845-93-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenebis (3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 35074-77-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in § 177.2470(b)(1) and § 177.2480(b)(1) of this chapter.
<br/>2. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in can end cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxi) of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in side seam cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxii) of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins, polyamide resins, and terpene resins complying with § 175.320 of this chapter.
<br/>7. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in rosin and rosin derivatives when used in accordance with § 176.170(a)(5) of this chapter.
<br/>8. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins or their hydrogenated products complying with § 176.170(b)(2) of this chapter.
<br/>9. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in terpene resins complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xi) of this chapter, when such terpene resins are used in accordance with § 176.170(b)(1) of this chapter.
<br/>10. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in resins and polymers authorized for use in accordance with § 176.180 of this chapter.
<br/>11. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter.
<br/>12. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in rubber articles intended for repeated use complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>13. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in petroleum hydrocarbon resin and rosins and rosin derivatives used in accordance with § 178.3800 of this chapter.
<br/>14. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight in reinforced wax complying with § 178.3850 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′-</E>Hexamethylenebis (<E T="03">3,5-di-tert-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamamide</E>) (CAS Reg. No. 23128-74-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of nylon resins complying with § 177.1500(b) of this chapter, items 1 through 8, that contact food only of the types identified in categories in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1 except VI-A and VI-C.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.75 percent by weight of nylon 12 resins complying with § 177.1500(b) of this chapter, item 9, that contact food only of the types identified in categories in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, except VI-A and VI-C.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of polyester resins complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(vii) of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of repeated use rubber articles complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene copolymer complying with § 177.2470 of this chapter.
<br/>7. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene homopolymer complying with § 177.2480 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,6-Hexanediamine, <E T="03">N,N′</E>-bis(2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidinyl)-, polymers with morpholine-2,4,6-trichloro-1,3,5-triazine reaction products, methylated (CAS Reg. No. 193098-40-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a stabilizer at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. The finished polymers are to contact food only under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G, as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. Provided that the finished food-contact articles have a volume of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,6-Hexanediamine, <E T="03">N,N'</E>-bis(2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidinyl)-, polymer with 2,4,6-trichloro-1,3,5-triazine, reaction products with <E T="03">N</E>-butyl-1-butanamine and <E T="03">N</E>-butyl-2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidinamine (CAS Reg. No. 192268-64-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of propylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 3.1a, 3.2a, 3.2b, 3.4, or 3.5. The finished polymers may contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of propylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 3.1a, 3.2a, 3.2b, 3.4, or 3.5. The finished polymers may contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is at least 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), or 5. The finished polymers may contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is at least 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), or 5. The finished polymers may contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, 3.4, 3.5, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), or 5. The finished polymers may contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, and under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight of ethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, 3.4, 3.5, or 3.6 (where the density of each of these polymers is less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), or 5. The finished polymers may contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under categories III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX, and under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Hydroxy-4-isooctoxy-benzophenone. Chemical Abstracts (CA) name: Methanone, [2-hydroxy-4-(isooctyloxy) phenyl]phenyl; CA Registry No. 33059-05-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter: Items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3 or 4: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polymer contacts food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, VII-B and VIII under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2(2′-Hydroxy-5′-methylphenyl)benzotriazole meeting the following specification: melting point 126°-132 °C (258.8°-269.6 °F) (CAS Reg. No. 2440-22-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As component of nonfood articles complying with § 177.1010 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of rigid polyvinyl chloride and/or rigid vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter.
<br/>3. In polystyrene that complies with § 177.1640 of this chapter and that is limited to use in contact with dry food of Type VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polystyrene and/or rubber-modified polystyrene polymers complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter intended to contact nonalcoholic food: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished basic rubber-modified polystyrene polymers in contact with fatty foods shall contain not less than 90 weight percent of total polymer units derived from styrene monomer.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter. <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polycarbonate resins contact food only of Types I, II, III, IV, V, VI-A, VI-B, VII, VIII, and IX identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of ethylene-1,4-cyclohexylene dimethylene terephthalate copolymers complying with § 177.1315 of this chapter and of ethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter and that contact food only under conditions of use D through G described in table 2, § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Hydroxy-4<E T="03">-n</E>-octoxy-benzophenone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polymer contacts food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, IV-B, VII-B, and VIII , and under the conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Isopropylidenediphenol alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>) phosphites; the phosphorus content is in the range of 5.2-5.6 weight percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not exceeding 1.0 percent by weight in rigid polyvinyl chloride and/or rigid vinyl chloride copolymers complying with §§ 177.1950, 177.1970 or 177.1980 of this chapter, and used in contact with food, except milk, only under the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, under conditions of use D through G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium salicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in rigid polyvinyl chloride and/or in rigid vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That total salicylates (calculated as the acid) do not exceed 0.3 percent by weight of such polymers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Methyl-4,6-bis-[(octylthio)methyl] phenol (CAS Reg. No. 110553-27-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of can-end cements and side-seam cements complying with § 175.300(b)(xxxi) and (xxxii) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of pressure sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter petrolium alicyclic hydrocarbon resins complying with § 176.170 of this chapter, resins and polymers complying with § 176.180 of this chapter, and closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 1.7 percent by weight of the finished rubber products complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins complying with § 175.320 of this chapter; rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter; and petroleum hydrocarbon resins and rosins and rosins and rosin derivatives complying with § 178.3800 of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of styrene block polymenrs complying with § 177.1810 of this chapter that contact food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII described in table 1, § 176.170(c) of this chapter, only under conditions of use C through H described in table 2, § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis(4,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)2-ethylhexyl phosphite (CAS Reg. No. 126050-54-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter. The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII under conditions of use B through H described in table 2, § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and with food of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories III, IV-A, V, VI-A, VI-C, VII-A, and IX under conditions of use C through G described in table 2, § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis (6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-ethylphenol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers at levels not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of the copolymer.
<br/>2. In semirigid and rigid acrylic and modified acrylic plastics complying with § 177.1010 of this chapter at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the plastic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Methylenebis (2,6-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-phenol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of petroleum hydrocarbon resins used in compliance with regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of terpene resins used in compliance with regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the polyethylene end product contacts foods only of the types identified in Categories I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII in table 1, § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polybutadiene used in rubber articles complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the rubber end product contacts foods only of the types identified in Categories I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII in table 1, § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butylphenol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with sec. 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4 used in articles that contact food of the types identified in sec. 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene copolymer as provided in sec. 177.2470(b)(1) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene homopolymer as provided in § 177.2480(b)(1) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenol) monoacrylate (CAS Reg. No. 61167-58-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of styrene block ploymers complying with § 177.1810 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter and pressure sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers that comply with § 177.1020 of this chapter when used in articles that contact food only under conditions of use E, F, and G as described in table 2, § 176.170 (c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis[6-(1-methylcyclo-hexyl)-<E T="03">p-</E>cresol]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in § 177.1210 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polyethylene contacts foods only of the type identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, VI-B, and VIII.
<br/>3. In polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polyethylene contacts foods only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories III, IV, V, VI-A, VII, and IX, and only at temperatures not to exceed room temperature: <E T="03">And further provided,</E> That percentage concentration of the antioxidant in the polyethylene, when multiplied by the thickness in inches of the finished polyethylene, shall not be greater than 0.0005.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Methylenebis(4-methyl-6-nonylphenol) and 2,6-bis(2-hydroxy-3-nonyl-5-methyl-benzyl)<E T="03">-p-</E>cresol mixtures (varying proportions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers used in contact with nonalcoholic foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyltin-2-mercaptoethyloleate sulfide, which is defined as one or more of the following:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in rigid poly(vinyl chloride) and rigid vinyl chloride copolymers complying with §§ 177.1950 and 177.1980 of this chapter, respectively, used in the manufacture of pipes and pipe fittings intended for contact with water in food processing plants, at levels not to exceed:
<br/>1. 1.0 percent by weight in pipes, and
<br/>2. 2.0 percent by weight in pipe fittings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1. 9-Octadecenoic acid (Z)-, 2-mercaptoethyl ester, reaction products with dichlorodime thylstannane, sodium sulfide, and trichloromethylstannane (CAS Reg. No. 68442-12-6);
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2. Fatty acids, tall oil, 2-mercaptoethyl esters, reaction products with dichlorodimethylstannane, 2-mercaptoethyl decanoate, 2-mercaptoethyl octanoate, sodium sulfide, and trichloromethylstannane (CAS Reg. No. 151436-98-5); or
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3. Fatty acids, tall oil, 2-mercaptoethyl esters, reaction products with dichlorodimethylstannane, sodium sulfide, and trichloromethylstannane (CAS Reg. No. 201687-57-2);and which has the following specifications: Tin content (as Sn) 5 to 21 percent by weight; mercaptosulfur content 5 to 13 percent by weight; acid value no greater than 4.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyltin-2-Mercaptoethyloleate sulfide may also be used with one or more of the following optional substances:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1.1a 2-Mercaptoethyl oleate (CAS Reg. No. 59118-78-4),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1.1b 2-Mercaptoethyl tallate (CAS Reg. No. 68440-24-4),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1.1c 2-Mercaptoethyl octanoate (CAS Reg. No. 57813-59-9),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1.1d 2-Mercaptoethyl decanoate (CAS Reg. No. 68928-33-6), alone or in combination; not to exceed 40 percent by weight of the stabilizer formulation;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2.1 2-Mercaptoethanol (CAS Reg. No. 60-24-2): Not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the stabilizer formulation.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3.1 Mineral oil (CAS Reg. No. 8012-95-1): Not to exceed 40 percent by weight of the stabilizer formulation.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4.1 Butylated hydroxytoluene (CAS Reg. No. 128-37-0): Not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the stabilizer formulation.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">The total of the optional substances (1.1a through 4.1) shall not exceed 60 percent by weight of the stabilizer formulation.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon 66/610/6 terpolymer (see § 177.1500 of this chapter for identification)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene homopolymer as provided in § 177.2480 (b)(1) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nylon 612/6 copolymer. (CAS Reg. No. 51733-10-9), weight ratio 6/1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1.5 percent by weight of polyoxymethylene homopolymer as provided in § 177.2480(b)(1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octadecyl 3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate (CAS Reg. No. 2082-79-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not exceeding 0.25 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4.
<br/>2. As provided in §§ 175.105 and 177.1010(a)(5) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not exceeding 0.25 percent by weight of polystyrene and/or rubber-modified polystyrene polymers complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter, except that the finished basic rubber-modified polystyrene polymers in contact with fatty foods shall contain not less than 85 weight percent of total polymer units derived from styrene monomer.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers used in accordance with prior sanction or regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not exceeding 0.25 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.4 and 3.5 as follows: (a) item 3.4, <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished copolymer contacts foods only of types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, III, IV-B, VI, VII, VIII, and IX; (b) item 3.5, <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished copolymer contacts non-fatty foods only of types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII.
<br/>6. At levels not exceeding 0.05 percent by weight of modified semi-rigid and rigid vinyl chloride plastics modified with methacrylate-butadiene-styrene copolymers in accordance with § 178.3790.
<br/>7. At levels not exceeding 0.2 percent by weight of rigid polyvinyl chloride.
<br/>8. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins that comply with § 177.1580 and that contact food only under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2, § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>9. At levels not exceeding 0.1 percent by weight of ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter.
<br/>10. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of nitrile rubber-modified acrylonitrile-methyl acrylate copolymers that comply with § 177.1480 of this chapter when used in articles that contact food only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2, § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>11. At levels not exceeding 0.3 percent by weight of styrene block polymers complying with § 177.1810 of this chapter when used in articles that contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B, and VIII, and under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>12. At levels not exceeding 0.2 percent by weight of vinylidene chloride homopolymers and/or vinylidene chloride copolymers complying with applicable regulations in parts 175, 176, 177, 179, and 181 of this chapter. The vinylidene chloride copolymers shall contain not less than 50 weight percent of total polymer units derived from vinylidene chloride.
<br/>13. At levels not exceeding 0.025 percent by weight of chlorinated isobutylene-isoprene copolymers complying with § 177.1420(a)(3) of this chapter.
<br/>14. At levels not exceeding 0.5 percent by weight of the finished rubber article complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7-Oxa-3,20-diazadispiro-[5.1.11.2]-heneicosan-21-one,2,2,4,4-tetramethyl-,hydrochloride, reaction products with epichlorohydrin, hydrolyzed, polymerized (CAS Reg. No. 202483-55-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, items 1.1, 3.1, and 3.2, where the copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from propylene; in contact with all types of food described in Table 1 of § 176.170 of this chapter, provided that the finished food-contact article will have a capacity of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons) when in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, described in Table 1 of § 176.170 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, and 3.2, having a density of not less than 0.94 gram/milliliter, where the copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene; in contact with food only under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G, described in Table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter, provided that the finished food-contact article will have a capacity of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons) when in contact with food of types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX, described in Table 1 of § 176.170 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6, and 4.0, having a density of less than 0.94 gram/milliliter, in contact with food only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G, described in Table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter, provided that the finished food-contact article will have a capacity of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons) except that, films and molded articles containing not more than 0.2 percent by weight of the stabilizer may contact aqueous food of types I, II, IV-B, VI, and VIII, described in Table 1 of § 176.170 of this chapter with no restrictions on the amount of food contacted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxidized bis(hydrogenated tallow alkyl)amines</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polypropylene polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 3.1a (density not less than 0.85 gram per cubic centimeter and less than 0.91 gram per cubic centimeter), 3.2b, 3.4, and 3.5. The finished polymers may be used in contact with food types I, II, IV-B, VII-B and VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and with food types III, IV-A, V, VI, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use D through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight of high-density polyethylene polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, 3.6 (density not less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), and 5. The finished polymers may be used in contact with food types I, II, IV-B, VII-B and VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and with food types III, IV-A, V, VI, VII-A and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use D through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-Oxamidobis[ethyl 3-(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyphenyl)propionate] (CAS Reg. No. 70331-94-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, and 4.0 that contact food Types I, II, IV-B, VI, VII-B and VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, and 4.0 that contact food Types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; except that olefin copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 where the majority of polymer units are derived from propylene may contain the additive at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with item 3.4 of § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, that contact food Types III, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; except that olefin copolymers complying with item 3.4 where the majority of the polymer units are derived from propylene may contain the additive at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol and its stearate ester</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in rigid polyvinyl chloride and/or in rigid vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the total amount of pentaerythritol and/or pentaerythritol stearate (calculated as free pentaerythritol) does not exceed 0.4 percent by weight of such polymers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-Phenylbenzenamine reaction products with 2,4,4-trimethylpentenes (CAS Reg. No. 68411-46-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid triesters with triethylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 64502-13-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polyethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter, such that the polymers contact foods only of Type VI-B described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorous acid, cyclic butylethyl propanediol, 2,4,6-tri-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl ester (CAS Reg. No. 161717-32-4), which may contain not more than 1 percent by weight of triisopropanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 122-20-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3, and items 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 (where the density of these polymers is not less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter), and items 3.1 or 3.2, provided that the finished polymer contacts foods of types I, II, and VI-B as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter only under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3, that contact food of types III, IV, V, VI-A, VI-C, VII, VIII, and IX as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, only under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.2a, or 3.2b, having a density less than 0.94 grams per cubic centimeter, in contact with food only of types III, IV, V, VI-A, VI-C, VII, VIII, and IX and under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H as described in tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; provided that the food-contact surface does not exceed 0.003 inch (0.076 mm) in thickness.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1(a), 3.1(b), 3.1(c), 3.2 (a), or 3.2(b), having a density not less than 0.94 grams per cubic centimeter, in contact with foods only of types III, IV, V, VI-A, VI-C, VII, VIII, and IX identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and under conditions of use B through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; provided that the food-contact surface does not exceed 0.003 inch (0.076 mm) in thickness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorous acid, cyclic neopentanetetrayl bis(2,4-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl) ester (CAS Reg. No. 26741-53-7) which may contain not more than 1 percent by weight of triisopropanolamine (CAS Reg. No. 122-20-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.10 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, or 3.2, and limited to use in contact with food only under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. Olefin polymers that contain more than 50 weight-percent of polymer units derived from ethylene shall have a density equal to or greater than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorous acid, cyclic neopentanetetrayl bis (2,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-methylphenyl)ester (CAS Reg. No. 80693-00-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polypropylene homopolymer and copolymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, for use with all food types described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 3.1 or 3.2, and with a maximum thickness of 100 micrometers (0.004 inch) for use with all food types under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorous acid, cyclic neopentanetetrayl bis(2,4-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)ester (CAS Reg. No. 26741-53-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.86 percent by weight in polyvinyl chloride and/or vinyl chloride copolymers that comply with §§ 177.1950, 177.1960, 177.1970, or 177.1980 of this chapter for use with all food types described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except those containing more than 15 percent alcohol, under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins that comply with § 177.1580 of this chapter for use with all food types described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except those containing more than 15 percent alcohol, under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight in olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 3.1, that contain more than 50 weight percent of polymer units derived from ethylene and whose density is less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter. The average thickness of such polymers intended for use in contact with food types V and VII-A described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter shall not exceed 80 micrometers (0.003 inch). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(1,4-cyclohexylenedimethylene-3,3′-thiodipropionate) partially terminated with stearyl alcohol and produced when approximately equal moles of 1,4-cyclohexanedimethanol and 3,3′-thiodipropionic acid are made to react in the presence of stearyl alcohol so that the final product has an average molecular weight in the range of 1,800-2,200, as determined by vapor pressure osmometry, and has a maximum acid value of 2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, and used in contact with nonfatty, nonalcoholic food.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, and used in contact with fatty, nonalcoholic food. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact fatty nonalcoholic food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[(1,3-dibutyldistannthianediylidene)-1,3-dithio] having the formula [C<E T="52">8</E>H<E T="52">18</E>Sn<E T="52">2</E>S<E T="52">3</E>]<E T="52">n</E> (where <E T="03">n</E> averages 1.5-2) and produced so as to meet the following specifications: Softening point, 130-145 °C; volatile components at 150 °C, less than 1.0 percent; sulphur (sulfide) content in the range 20.5-22.0 percent; tin content in the range 52.0-53.2 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.2 by percent weight in polyvinyl chloride resin where such resin constitutes not less than 98.7 percent of a finished semirigid or rigid polyvinyl chloride food-contact surface, provided that the finished food-contact article is employed only to package meat, cheese, and food Types I, VIII, and IX as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The finished food-contact article containing this stabilizer, when extracted with refined cottonseed oil at 120 °F for 48 hours, using a volume-to-surface ratio of 2 milliliters per square inch of surface tested, shall yield tin (Sn) not to exceed 0.0005 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[(6-morpholino-s-triazine-2,4-diyl)[(2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidyl)imino]hexamethylene [(2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidyl)imino]] (CAS Reg. No. 82451-48-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3, and of ethylene polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.3, and 3.1, whose specific gravity is not less than 0.94. The finished polymers are to contact food only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.3, and 3.1, whose specific gravity is less than 0.94, and of olefin polymers complying with items 3.3., 3.4, 3.5, and 4.0. The finished polymers are to contact food in articles having a volume of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons) only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[[6-[(1,1,3,3-tetramethybutyl) amino]-<E T="03">s</E>-triazine-2,4-diyl][2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidyl)imino]hexamethylene[(2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidyl)imino]] (CAS Reg. No. 70624-18-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, that has a density equal to or greater than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polyethylene that has a density less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3, and of olefin polymers and copolymers complying with items 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6, and 4. The finished polymers are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and when contacting fatty foods of Types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, the finished articles are to have a volume of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium bromide and either cupric acetate or cupric carbonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not exceeding 0.18 percent potassium bromide and 0.005 percent copper as cupric acetate or cupric carbonate by weight of nylon 66 resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter; the finished resins are used or are intended to be used to contain foods during oven baking or oven cooking at temperatures above 250 °F. The average thickness of such resins in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.0015 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-propanediamine, N,N-1,2-ethanediylbis-, polymer with 2,4,6-trichloro-1,3,5-triazine, reaction products with N-butyl-2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-piperidinamine (CAS Reg. No. 136504-96-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of olefin polymers having a density greater than or equal to 0.94 grams per cubic centimeter and complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, and 3.2.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of olefin polymers having a density less than 0.94 grams per cubic centimeter and complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6, and 4.0. The finished polymers are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and when used in contact with fatty foods of Types III, IV-A, V, VII-A, and IX as described in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, the finished articles are to have a volume of at least 18.9 liters (5 gallons).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′</E>-1,3-Propanediylbis (3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamamide) (CAS Reg. No. 69851-61-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.6 percent by weight of rubber articles for repeated use complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes and silicones, methyl hydrogen, reaction products with 2,2,6,6-tetramethyl-4-(2-propenyloxy)piperidine (CAS Reg. No. 182635-99-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an ultraviolet (UV) stabilizer only at levels not to exceed 0.33 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1a, 1.1b, 1.2, and 1.3, under conditions of use D, E, F, and G, as described in Table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearoylbenzoylmethane (CAS Reg. No. 58446-52-9) consisting of a mixture of β-diketones produced by the condensation of acetophenone and technical methyl stearate.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of vinyl chloride homopolymers modified in accordance with § 178.3790(b)(1). The finished polymers may be used in contact with food containing up to 50 percent alcohol under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrenated diphenylamine (CAS Reg. No. 68442-68-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter and in rubber articles intended for repeated use complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetradecanoic acid, lithium salt (CAS Reg. No. 20336-96-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of polypropylene and polypropylene copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1a, 1.1b, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.1c, 3.2a, and 3.2b. The finished polymers may only be used in contact with food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and with food of Types III, IV-A, V, VI-A, VI-C, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use C through G as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-[[2,4,8,10-Tetrakis(1,1-dimethylethyl)dibenzo[d,f][1,3,2]-dioxaphosphepin-6-yl]oxy]-<E T="03">N</E>,<E T="03">N</E>-bis[2-[[2,4,8,10-tetrakis(1,1- dimethylethyl)dibenzo[d,f][1,3,2]dioxaphosphepin-6- yl]oxy]ethyl]ethanamine (CAS Reg. No. 80410-33-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.075 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the density of the olefin polymers complying with items 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 is not less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter: <E T="03">And further provided,</E> That the finished polymers contact food only of Types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII described in table 1, of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and food only of Types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrakis [methylene(3,5- di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4- hydroxyhydro- cinnamate)] methane (CAS Reg. No. 6683-19-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of all polymers used as indirect additives in food packaging, except as specified below.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of petroleum wax or synthetic petroleum wax complying with § 176.170(a)(5) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of:
<br/> (a) Pressure sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
<br/> (b) Can end cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxi) of this chapter.
<br/> (c) Petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins complying with § 175.320(b)(3) of this chapter, § 176.170(b)(2) of this chapter, or their hydrogenated products complying with § 176.170(b)(2) of this chapter.
<br/> (d) Rosin and rosin derivatives used in accordance with parts 175 through 178 of this chapter.
<br/> (e) Terpene resins complying with § 175.300(b)(2)(xi) of this chapter when such terpene resins are used in accordance with § 176.170(b) of this chapter.
<br/> (f) Resins and polymers complying with § 176.180 of this chapter.
<br/> (g) Closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter.
<br/> (h) Polyoxymethylene copolymer as provided in § 177.2470(b)(1) of this chapter.
<br/> (i) Petroleum hydrocarbon resin complying with § 178.3800.
<br/> (j) Reinforced wax complying with § 178.3850.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4-Thiobis(6<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl<E T="03">-m-</E>cresol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in §§ 175.105 and 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the specific gravity of the polyethylene is not less than 0.926: <E T="03">And further provided,</E> That the finished polyethylene contacts food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, VI-B, and VIII.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiodiethylene bis(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 41484-35-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter, petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins complying with § 176.170 of this chapter, resins and polymers complying with § 176.180 of this chapter, closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter, and finished rubber products complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiodipropionic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3,5-Trimethyl-2,4,6-tris(3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxybenzyl) benzene (CAS Reg. No. 1709-70-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polymers except nylon resins identified in § 177.1500 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of nylon resins identified in § 177.1500 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri(mixed mono-and dinonylphenyl) phosphite (which may contain not more than 1 percent by weight of triisopropanolamine).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1, 11-(3, 6, 9-Trioxaundecyl) bis-3-(dodecylthio) propionate (CAS Reg. No. 64253-30-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as provided in § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxi) of this chapter at 4.0 parts per 100 parts rubber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3,5-Tris(3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxybenzyl)<E T="03">-s-</E>triazine-2,4,6(1<E T="03">H,</E>3<E T="03">H,</E>5<E T="03">H</E>)trione (CAS Reg. No. 27676-62-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
<br/>2. In polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter:
<br/> (a) At levels not to exceed 0.1 weight percent.
<br/> (b) At levels not to exceed 0.5 weight percent in contact with nonfatty food.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of ethylene-propylene-5-ethylidine-2-norbornene terpolymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter. The maximum thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/>4. At levels not exceeding 0.1 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, or 3.5.
<br/>5. At levels not exceeding 0.25 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1 and 3.2, and also containing not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from propylene.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c)(4) of this chapter. The finished polymers may be used in contact with food under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3,5-Tris(3,5-di<E T="03">-tert-</E>butyl-4-hydro-xyhydrocinnamoyl) hexahydro<E T="03">-s-</E>triazine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in contact with nonfatty foods:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of ethylene-propylene-5-ethylidine-2-norbornene terpolymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter. The maximum thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3,5-Tris(4-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-3-hydroxy-2,6-dimethylbenzyl)-1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-(1H,3H,5H)-trione. [CAS Reg. No. 40601-76-1]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene that comply with § 177.1640 of this chapter, provided that the finished polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene contact food only under the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, under conditions of use E through G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tris(2,4-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)phosphite. (CAS Reg. No. 31570-04-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of elastomers used in rubber articles complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of nylon resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished polymer contacts food only under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of polycarbonate resins complying with § 177.1580 of this chapter.
<br/>4. At levels not to exceeds 0.2 percent by weight of polystyrene and rubber-modified polystyrene polymers complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> that the finished polymer contacts food only under conditions of use B, C, D, E, F, G, and H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1(a), 3.1(b), 3.1(c), 3.2(a), or 3.2(b). The finished polymers complying with items 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 having a density less than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter and a thickness greater than 0.051 millimeter (0.002 inch), either shall have a level of tris(2,4-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)phosphite that shall not exceed 0.062 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface or shall contact all food types identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter only under conditions of use E, F, and G described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>7. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of ethylene-vinyl-acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter, and that are limited to use in contact with food only under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact fatty food shall not exceed 0.1 millimeter (0.004 inch).
<br/>8. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 4. The finished polymers having a thickness greater than 0.051 millimeter (0.002 inch), shall contact food only under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>9. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of acrylic and modified acrylic plastics, semirigid and rigid, complying with § 177.1010 of this chapter.
<br/>10. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of isobutylene polymers complying with § 177.1420 of this chapter.
<br/>11. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>12. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of pressure sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
<br/>13. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of can end cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxi) of this chapter.
<br/>14. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of side seam cement formulations complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xxxii) of this chapter.
<br/>15. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins complying with § 175.320(b)(3) of this chapter.
<br/>16. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of petroleum alicyclic hydrocarbon resins or their hydrogenated products complying with § 176.170(b)(2) of this chapter.
<br/>17. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of resins and polymers complying with § 176.180(b) of this chapter.
<br/>18. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of rosins and rosin derivatives complying with § 176.210(d)(3) of this chapter.
<br/>19. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of closures with sealing gaskets complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter.
<br/>20. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of petroleum hydrocarbon resin, and rosins and rosin derivatives complying with § 178.3800(b).
<br/>21. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of reinforced wax complying with § 178.3850.
<br/>22. At levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 3.3. The finished polymers may be used in contact with food under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>23. At levels not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of poly-1-butene resins and butene/ethylene copolymers complying with § 177.1570 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> that the finished polymer contacts food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tris(2-methyl-4-hydroxy-5-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)butane (CAS Reg. No. 1843-03-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polymers used as provided in § 176.180 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of the following polymers when used in articles that contact food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter: Olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4 or complying with other sections in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter; vinyl chloride polymers; and/or vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the following polymers when used in articles that contact food of Types III, IV-A, V, VI-A, VI-C, VII-A, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter: Olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, or 4 or complying with other sections in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter; vinyl chloride polymers; and/or vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter.
<br/>4. As provided in § 175.105 of this chapter.
<br/>5. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polystyrene and/or modified polystyrene polymers identified in § 177.1640 of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymers used in contact with nonalcoholic foods.
<br/>7. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of closure-sealing gasket compositions complying with § 177.1210(b) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc dibutyldithiocarbamate (CAS Reg. No. 136-23-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of isobutyleneisoprene copolymers complying with § 177.1420 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That the finished copolymers contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types V, VII, VIII, and IX.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 0.02 percent by weight of polypropylene polymers complying with § 177.1520(c), item 1.1 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc palmitate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc salicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in rigid polyvinyl chloride and/or in rigid vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> That total salicylates (calculated as the acid) do not exceed 0.3 percent by weight of such polymers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Copies are available from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, Pa. 19103.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 178.2010, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.2550" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.2550   4-Hydroxymethyl-2,6-di-<E T="7462">tert</E>-butylphenol.</HEAD>
<P>4-Hydroxymethyl-2,6-di<I>-tert-</I>butyl-phenol may be safely used as an antioxidant in articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive has a solidification point of 140°-141 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) The concentration of the additive and any other permitted antioxidants in the finished food-contact article does not exceed a total of 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.2650" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.2650   Organotin stabilizers in vinyl chloride plastics.</HEAD>
<P>The organotin chemicals identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safety used alone or in combination, at levels not to exceed a total of 3 parts per hundred of resin, as stabilizers in vinyl chloride homopolymers and copolymers complying with the provisions of § 177.1950 or § 177.1980 of this chapter and that are identified for use in contact with food of types I, II, III, IV (except liquid milk), V, VI (except malt beverages and carbonated nonalcoholic beverages), VII, VIII, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except for the organotin chemical identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, which may be used in contact with food of types I through IX at temperatures not exceeding 75 °C (167 °F), and further that the organotin chemicals identified in paragraphs (a)(5) and (6) of this section may be used in contact with food of types I through IX at temperatures not exceeding 66 °C (150 °F), conditions of use D through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and further that dodecyltin chemicals identified in paragraph (a)(7) of this section which may be used in contact with food of types I, II, III, IV (except liquid milk), V, VI (except malt beverages and carbonated nonalcoholic beverages), VII, VIII, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at temperatures not exceeding 71 °C (160 °F), in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the organotin chemicals are those listed in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin S,S′-bis(isooctylmercaptoacetate) is an octyltin chemical having 15.1 to 16.4 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having 8.1 to 8.9 percent by weight of mercapto sulfur. It is made from di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin dichloride or di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin oxide. The isooctyl radical in the mercaptoacetate is derived from oxo process isooctyl alcohol. Di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin dichloride has an organotin composition that is not less than 95 percent by weight of di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin dichloride and not more than 5 percent by weight of tri(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin chloride. Di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin oxide has an organotin composition that is not less than 95 percent by weight of di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin oxide and not more than 5 percent by weight of bis[tri(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin] oxide, and/or mono <I>n</I>-octyltin oxide.
</P>
<P>(2) Di(<I>n-</I>octyl) tin maleate polymer is an octyltin chemical having the formula [(C<E T="52">8</E>H<E T="52">17</E>)<E T="52">2</E>SnC<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">4</E>]<E T="52">n</E> (where n is between 2 and 4 inclusive), having 25.2 to 26.6 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having a saponification number of 225 to 255. It is made from di(<I>n-</I>octyl)tin dichloride or di(<I>n-</I>octyl)tin oxide meeting the specifications prescribed for di(<I>n-</I>octyl) tin dichloride or di(<I>n-</I>octyl) tin oxide in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) C<E T="52">10-16</E>-Alkyl mercaptoacetates reaction products with dichlorodioctylstannane and trichlorooctylstannane (CAS Reg. No. 83447-69-2) is an organotin chemical mixture having 10.8 to 11.8 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having 8.0 to 8.6 percent by weight of mercapto sulfur. It is made from a mixture of di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin dichloride and (<I>n</I>-octyl)tin trichloride which has an organotin composition that is not less than 95 percent by weight di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin dichloride/(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin trichloride, and not more than 1.5 percent by weight of tri(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin chloride. The alkyl radical in the mercaptoacetate is derived from a mixture of saturated <I>n</I>-alcohols which has a composition that is not less than 50 percent by weight tetradecyl alcohol, and that is not more than 50 percent by weight total of decyl alcohol and/or dodecyl alcohol, and/or hexadecyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>(4) (<I>n</I>-Octyl)tin S,S′S″ tris(isooctyl-mercaptoacetate) is an octyltin chemical having the formula <I>n</I>-C<E T="52">8</E>H<E T="52">17</E>Sn(SCH<E T="52">2</E>CO<E T="52">2</E>C<E T="52">8</E>H<E T="52">17</E>)<E T="52">3</E> (CAS Reg. No. 26401-86-5) having 13.4 to 14.8 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having 10.9 to 11.9 percent by weight of mercapto sulfur. It is made from (<I>n</I>-octyl)tin trichloride. The isooctyl radical in the mercaptoacetate is derived from oxo process isooctyl alcohol. The (<I>n</I>-octyl)tin trichloride has an organotin composition that is not less than 95 percent by weight of (<I>n</I>-octyl)tin trichloride and not more than 5 percent by weight of tri(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin chloride.
</P>
<P>(5) Bis(<I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyl)tin bis(isooctylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 63397-60-4) is an estertin chemical having 14.0 to 15.0 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having 7.5 to 8.5 percent by weight of mercapto sulfur. It is made from bis(<I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyl)tin dichloride. The isooctyl radical in the mercaptoacetate is derived from oxo process primary octyl alcohols. The bis(<I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyl)tin dichloride has an organotin composition that is not less than 95 percent by weight of bis(<I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyl)tin dichloride and not more than 5 percent by weight of bis(<I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyltin trichloride. The triestertin chloride content of bis(<I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyltin) dichloride shall not exceed 0.02 percent. p
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyltin tris(isooctylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 63438-80-2) is an estertin chemical having 13.0 to 14.0 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having 10.5 to 11.5 percent by weight of mercapto sulfur. It is made from <I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyltin trichloride. The isooctyl radical in the mercaptoacetate is derived from oxo process primary octyl alcohol. The <I>beta</I>-carbobutoxyethyltin trichloride has an organotin composition that is not less than 95 percent by weight of <I>beta-</I>carbobutoxyethyltin trichloride and not more than 5 percent total of triestertin chloride and diestertin chloride.
</P>
<P>(7) The dodecyltin stabilizer is a mixture of 50 to 60 percent by weight of <I>n</I>-dodecyltin S,S′,S″-tris(isooctylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 67649-65-4) and 40 to 50 percent by weight of di(<I>n</I>-dodecyl)tin S,S′-di(isooctylmercaptoacetate) (CAS Reg. No. 84030-61-5) having 13 to 14 percent by weight of tin (Sn) and having 8 to 9 percent by weight of mercapto sulfur. It is made from a mixture of dodecyltin trichloride and di(dodecyl)tin dichloride which has not more than 0.2 percent by weight of dodecyltin trichloride, not more than 2 percent by weight of dodecylbutyltin dichloride and not more than 3 percent by weight of tri(dodecyl)tin chloride. The isooctyl radical in the mercaptoacetate is derived from oxo process primary octyl alcohols.
</P>
<P>(b) The vinyl chloride plastic containers, film or panels in the finished form in which they are to contact food, shall meet the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) The finished plastics intended for contact with foods of the types listed in this section shall be extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing those types of foods as determined from table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at the temperature reflecting the conditions of intended use as determined therein. Additionally, extraction tests for acidic foods shall be included and simulated by 3-percent acetic acid at temperatures specified for water in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The extraction tests shall cover at least three equilibrium periodic determinations, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure time for the first determination shall be at least 72 hours for aqueous solvents, and at least 6 hours for heptane.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subsequent determinations shall be at a minimum of 24-hour intervals for aqueous solvents, and 2-hour intervals for heptane. These tests shall yield total octylin stabilizers not to exceed 0.5 parts per million as determined by analytical method entitled “Atomic Absorption Spectrometric Determination of Sub-part-per-Million Quantities of Tin in Extracts and Biological Materials with Graphite Furnace,” <I>Analytical Chemistry,</I> Vol. 49, p. 1090-1093 (1977), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) Subsequent determinations for the dodecyltin mixture described in paragraph (a)(7) of this section shall be at a minimum of 24-hour intervals for aqueous solvents and 2-hour intervals for heptane. These tests shall yield di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin S,S′-bis(isooctylmercaptoacetate), or di(<I>n</I>-octyl)tin maleate polymer, or (C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)-alkylmercaptoacetate reaction products with dichlorodioctylstannane and trichlorooctylstannane, or <I>n</I>-octyltin S,S′,S″-tris(isooctylmercaptoacetate), tris(isooctylmercaptoacetate) and di(<I>n</I>-dodecyl)tin bis(isooctylmercaptoacetate) or any combination thereof, not to exceed 0.5 parts per million as determined by an analytical method entitled “Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometric Determination of Sub-part-per-Million Quantities of Tin in Extracts and Biological Materials with Graphite Furnace,” <I>Analytical Chemistry,</I> Vol. 49, pp. 1090-1093 (1977), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of the tests prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the finished plastics intended for contact with foods only of Types II, V, VI-A (except malt beverages), and VI-C may be end-tested with food-simulating solvents, under conditions of time and temperature, as specified below, whereby such tests shall yield the octyltin residues cited in paragraph (b)(1) of this section not in excess of 0.5 ppm:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food-simulating solvent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time (hours)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature (degrees Fahrenheit)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Type II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acetic acid, 3 pct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Type V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heptane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Type VI-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethyl alcohol, 8 pct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Type VI-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethyl alcohol, 50 percent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11847, Mar. 19, 1982; 48 FR 7170, Feb. 18, 1983; 48 FR 42972, Sept. 21, 1983; 48 FR 51612, Nov. 10, 1983; 49 FR 8432, Mar. 7, 1984; 50 FR 62, Jan. 2, 1985; 50 FR 3510, Jan. 25, 1985; 50 FR 37998, Sept. 19, 1985; 50 FR 47212, Nov. 15, 1985; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Certain Adjuvants and Production Aids</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3010" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3010   Adjuvant substances used in the manufacture of foamed plastics.</HEAD>
<P>The following substances may be safely used as adjuvants in the manufacture of foamed plastics intended for use in contact with food, subject to any prescribed limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Azodicarbonamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a blowing agent in polyethylene complying with item 2.1 in § 177.1520(c) of this chapter at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of finished foamed polyethylene.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Difluoroethane (CAS Reg. No. 75-37-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a blowing agent in polystyrene.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopentane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a blowing agent in polystyrene.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Pentane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2,2-Tetra-chloroethylene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a blowing agent adjuvant in polystyrene at a level not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of finished foamed polystyrene intended for use in contact with food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, VI, and VIII.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a blowing agent adjuvant in polystyrene at a level not to exceed 0.35 percent by weight of finished foamed polystyrene.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 22090, May 21, 1982, as amended at 58 FR 64895, Dec. 10, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3120" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3120   Animal glue.</HEAD>
<P>Animal glue may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Animal glue consists of the proteinaceous extractives obtained from hides, bones, and other collagen-rich substances of animal origin (excluding diseased or rotted animals), to which may be added other optional adjuvant substances required in its production or added to impart desired properties.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any substance employed in the production of animal glue does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect nor any limitation further provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of animal glue and which is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) Optional adjuvant substances employed in the production of animal glue include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances subject to prior sanction or approval for use in animal glue and used in accordance with such sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances identified in this paragraph (d)(3) and subject to such limitations as are provided:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alum (double sulfate of aluminum and ammonium, potassium, or sodium)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Chloro-3-methylphenol(<E T="03">p</E>-chlorome-tacresol)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium potassium sulfate (chrome alum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in glue used as a colloidal flocculant added to the pulp suspension prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paper board.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,5-Dimethyl-1,3,5,<E T="03">H</E>-tetrahydrothiadia-zine-2-thione</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium cyanodithioimidocarbonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defoaming agents</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As provided in § 176.210 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanolamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium <E T="03">N</E>-methyldithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosins and rosin derivatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As provided in § 178.3870.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chlorate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2-mercaptobenzothiazole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as preservative only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium pentachlorophenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium <E T="03">o</E>-phenylphenate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc dimethyldithiocarbamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc 2-mercaptobenzothiazole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) The conditions of use are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of animal glue in any substance or article that is the subject of a regulation in this subpart conforms with any specifications or limitations prescribed by such regulation for the finished form of the substance or article.
</P>
<P>(2) It is used as an adhesive or component of an adhesive in accordance with the provisions of § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) It is used as a colloidal flocculant added to the pulp suspension prior to the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard.
</P>
<P>(4) It is used as a protective colloid in resinous and polymeric emulsion coatings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3125" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3125   Anticorrosive agents.</HEAD>
<P>The substances listed in this section may be used as anticorrosive agents in food-contact materials subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc hydroxy phosphite (CAS Reg. No. 55799-16-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a component of resinous and polymeric food-contact coatings intended for repeated use in contact with dry foods.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 21835, May 29, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3130" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3130   Antistatic and/or antifogging agents in food-packaging materials.</HEAD>
<P>The substances listed in paragraph (b) of this section may be safely used as antistatic and/or antifogging agents in food-packaging materials, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(b) List of substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-Acyl sarcosines where the acyl group is lauroyl, oleoyl, or derived from the combined fatty acids of coconut oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As antistatic and/or antifogging agent at levels not to exceed a total of 0.15 pct by weight of polyolefin film used for packaging meat, fresh fruits, and fresh vegetables. The average thickness of such polyolefin film shall not exceed 0.003 inch.
<br/>2. As antistatic and/or antifogging agent at levels not to exceed a total of 0.15 pct by weight of ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer film complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter and used for packaging meat, fresh fruits, fresh vegetables, and dry food of Type VIII described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The average thickness of such ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer film shall not exceed 0.003 inch when used for packaging meat, fresh fruits, and fresh vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha-(Carboxymethyl)-omega-(tetradecyloxy)polyoxyethylene)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antistatic and/or antifogging agent at levels not to exceed 0.2 pct by weight in polyolefin film not exceeding 0.001 inch thickness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl mono- and disulfonic acids, sodium salts (produced from <E T="03">n</E>-alkanes in the range of C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> with not less than 50 percent C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As antistatic agents at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of polyolefin films that comply with § 177.1520 of this chapter: <E T="03">Provided,</E> that the finished olefin polymers contact foods of Types I, II, III, IV, V, VIA, VIB, VII, VIII, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. As antistatic agents at levels not to exceed 3.0 percent by weight of polystyrene or rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum Borate ((9Al<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>)·2(B<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>), CAS Reg. No. 11121-16-7) produced by reaction between aluminum oxide and/or aluminum hydroxide with boric acid and/or metaboric acid at temperatures in excess of 1000 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/> 1. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polypropylene films complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, of polyethylene films complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1 and 2.2 and having a density greater than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter, and of polyolefin copolymer films complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1(a), 3.1(b), 3.2(a), and 3.2(b). The finished polymers may be used in contact with all food types identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use A through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The thickness of the films shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/> 2. At levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of polypropylene films complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, of polyethylene films complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1 and 2.2 and having a density greater than 0.94 gram per cubic centimeter, and of polyolefin copolymer films complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1(a), 3.1(b), 3.2(a), and 3.2(b). The finished polymers may be used in contact with all food types identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The thickness of the films shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>-Bis(2-hydroxyethyl)alkyl(C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)amine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.1 pct by weight of polyolefin food-contact films.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>-bis(2-hydroxyethyl)alkyl (C<E T="52">13</E>-C<E T="52">15</E>) amine (CAS Reg. No. 70955-14-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight in molded or extruded high-density polyethylene (having a density ≥0.95 g/cm
<sup>3</sup> and polypropylene containers that contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, under types I, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, under the conditions of use E through G described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, provided such foods have a pH above 5.0.
<br/>2. As an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight in molded or extruded polypropylene homopolymers and copolymers that contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, Table 1, under Types II, III, IV, V, VII-A, and IX, under the conditions of use C through G described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>-Bis(2-hydroxyethyl) alkylamine, where the alkyl groups (C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) are derived from tallow.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.15 pct by weight in molded or extruded polyethylene containers that contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII, under the conditions of use E through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter provided such foods have a pH above 5.0.
<br/>2. As an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.10 mg. per square inch of food-contact surface in vinylidene chloride copolymer coatings complying with § 175.320, § 177.1200, or § 177.1630 of this chapter, provided that such coatings contact food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Types I, IV, VII, VIII, and IX under the conditions of use E through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The finished copolymers shall contain at least 70 weight pct of polymer units derived from vinylidene chloride; and shall contain not more than 5 weight pct of total polymer units derived from acrylamide, acrylic acid, fumaric acid, itaconic acid, methacrylic acid, octadecyl methacrylate, and vinyl sulfonic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>-Bis(2-hydroxyethyl)dodecanamide produced when diethanolamine is made to react with methyl laurate such that the finished product: Has a minimum melting point of 36 °C; has a minimum amide assay of 90 percent; contains no more than 2 percent by weight of free diethanolamine; and contains no more than 0.5 percent by weight of <E T="03">N,N,</E> bis(2-hydroxyethyl)piperazine, as determined by paper chromatography method</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of molded or extruded polyethylene containers intended for contact with honey, chocolate syrup, liquid sweeteners, condiments, flavor extracts and liquid flavor concentrates, grated cheese, light and heavy cream, yogurt, and foods of Type VIII as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. As an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight in polypropylene films complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, and used in contact with food of Types I, II, III, IV, V, VI-B, VII, VIII, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The average thickness of such polypropylene film shall not exceed 0.001 inches (30 micrometers).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>-Bis(2-hydroxyethyl) dodecanamide produced when diethanolamine is made to react with methyl laurate such that the finished product: Has a minimum melting point of 36 °C; has a minimum amide assay of 90 percent; contains no more than 2 percent by weight of free diethanolamine; and contains no more than 0.5 percent by weight of <E T="03">N,N′-</E>bis(2-hydroxyethyl) piperazine, as determined by paper chromatography method</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of molded or extruded polyethylene containers intended for contact with honey, chocolate syrup, liquid sweeteners, condiments, flavor extracts and liquid flavor concentrates, grated cheese, light and heavy cream, yogurt, and foods of Type VIII as described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N</E>-Bis(2-hydroxyethyl) octadecylamine, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 10213-78-2, N-(2-hydroxyethyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-octadecylglycine (monosodium salt), Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 66810-88-6, and <E T="03">N,N</E>-Bis(2-hydroxyethyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(carboxymethyl) octadecanaminum hydroxide (inner salt), Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 24170-14-7, as the major components of a mixture prepared by reacting ethylene oxide with octadecylamine and further reacting this product with sodium monochloroacetate and sodium hydroxide, such that the final product has: A nitrogen content of 3.3-3.8 percent; a melting point of 42°-50 °C; and a pH of 10.0-11.5 in a 1 percent by weight aqueous solution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.45 percent by weight in polypropylene films complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, and used for packaging food of Types I, II, III, IV, V, VI-B, VII, VIII, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c). The average thickness of such polypropylene film shall not exceed 0.002 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-<E T="03">n</E>-Dodecanol-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <E T="03">n</E>-dodecanol with an average of 9.5 moles of ethylene oxide to form a condensate having a hydroxyl content of 2.7 to 2.9 pct and having a cloud point of 80 °C to 92 °C in 1 pct by weight aqueous solution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.2 pct by weight in low-density polyethylene film having an average thickness not exceeding 0.005 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerol ester mixtures of ricinoleic acid, containing not more than 50 percent monoricinoleate, 45 pct diricinoleate, 10 pct triricinoleate, and 3.3 pct free glycerine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an antifogging agent at levels not exceeding 1.5 pct by weight of permitted plasticized vinyl chloride homo-and/or copolymers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-Methacryloyloxyethyl-<E T="03">N</E>,<E T="03">N</E>-dimethylammonium-α-<E T="03">N</E>-methyl carboxylate chloride sodium salt, octadecyl methacrylate, ethyl methacrylate, cyclohexyl methacrylate, <E T="03">N</E>-vinyl-2-pyrrolidone copolymer (CAS Reg. No. 66822-60-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antistatic agent at levels not to exceed 0.2 percent by weight of polyolefin films that contact foods under the conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter. The average thickness of such polyolefin film shall not exceed 0.02 centimeter (0.008 inch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octadecanoic acid 2-[2-hydroxyethyl) octadecylamino]ethyl ester (CAS Reg. No. 52497-24-2), (octadecylimino) diethylene distearate (CAS Reg. No. 94945-28-5), and octadecyl bis(hydroxyethyl)amine (CAS Reg. No. 10213-78-2), as the major components of a mixture prepared by reacting ethylene oxide with octadecylamine and further reacting this product with octadecanoic acid, such that the final product has: a maximum acid value of 5 mg KOH/g and total amine value of 86±6 mg KOH/g as determined by a method entitled “Total Amine Value,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies of the method are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antistatic agent at levels such that the product of film thickness in microns times the weight percent additive does not exceed 16, in polypropylene films complying with § 177.1520(c)1.1 of this chapter, and used for packaging food (except for food containing more than 8 percent alcohol) under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 56797, Aug. 26, 1980; 45 FR 85727, Dec. 30, 1980; 46 FR 13688, Feb. 24, 1981; 47 FR 26824, June 22, 1982; 51 FR 28932, Aug. 13, 1986; 56 FR 41457, Aug. 21, 1991; 58 FR 57556, Oct. 26, 1993; 60 FR 54430, Oct. 24, 1995; 60 FR 18351, Apr. 11, 1995; 62 FR 31511, June 10, 1997; 63 FR 38748, July 20, 1998; 64 FR 62585, Nov. 17, 1999; 76 FR 59249, Sept. 26, 2011]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3280" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3280   Castor oil, hydrogenated.</HEAD>
<P>Hydrogenated castor oil may be safely used in the manufacture of articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. As a lubricant for vinyl chloride polymers used in the manufacture of articles or components of articles authorized for food-contact use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 4 pct by weight of vinyl chloride polymers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. As a component of cellophane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1200 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. As a component of resinous and polymeric coatings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 175.300 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. As a component of paper and paperboard in contact with aqueous and fatty food</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 176.170 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. As a component of closures with sealing gaskets for food containers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.1210 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. As a component of cross-linked polyester resins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 177.2420 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. As a component of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the polymer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 8914, Mar. 9, 1990]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3290" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3290   Chromic chloride complexes.</HEAD>
<P>Myristo chromic chloride complex and stearato chromic chloride complex may be safely used as release agents in the closure area of packaging containers intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The quantity used shall not exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect nor exceed 7 micrograms of chromium per square inch of closure area.
</P>
<P>(b) The packaging container which has its closure area treated with the release agent shall have a capacity of not less than 120 grams of food per square inch of such treated closure area.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3295" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3295   Clarifying agents for polymers.</HEAD>
<P>Clarifying agents may be safely used in polymers that are articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum, hydroxybis[2,4,8,10-tetrakis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-hydroxy-12H-dibenzo[d,g][1,3,2]dioxaphosphocin 6-oxidato]-(CAS Reg. No. 151841-65-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifying agent at levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polypropylene and polypropylene copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 3.1, or 3.2. The finished polymers contact food only of types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII as identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter or foods only of types III, IV-A, V, VI-A, VI-C, VII-A, and IX as identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under conditions of use C through G described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(<E T="03">p</E>-ethylbenzylidene) sorbitol (CAS Reg. No. 79072-96-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifying agent at a level not to exceed 0.35 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1a, 1.1b, 3.1a, 3.2a, or 3.2b, where the copolymers complying with items 3.1a, 3.2a, or 3.2b contain not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from propylene.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(<E T="03">p</E>-tolylidene) sorbitol (CAS Reg. No. 54686-97-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifying agent at a level not to exceed 0.32 percent by weight in propylene homopolymer complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1, and in olefin copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 3.1 (containing at least 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from propylene), in contact with all food types under conditions of use C through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibenzylidene sorbitol (CAS Reg. No. 32647-67-9) formed by the condensation of two moles of benzaldehyde with one mole of sorbitol, such that the final product has a minimum content of 95 percent dibenzylidene sorbitol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifying agent for olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) 1.1, 3.1, and 3.2 of this chapter under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G, described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter at a level not exceeding 0.25 percent by weight of the polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyldibenzylidene sorbitol (CAS Reg. No. 135861-56-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifying agent at a level not to exceed 0.4 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 3.1, and 3.2, where the copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from polypropylene. The finished polymers shall be used in contact with food under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinylcyclohexane (CAS Reg. No. 25498-06-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifying agent for polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 1.1., and in propylene containing copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1 and 3.2, at a level not exceeding 0.1 percent by weight of the polyolefin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium di(<E T="03">p-tert</E>-butylphenyl)phosphate (CAS Reg. No. 10491-31-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a clarifying agent at a level not exceeding 0.35 parts per hundred of the resin in olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 3.1, or 3.2 (where the copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from propylene).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 2,2′-methylenebis(4,6-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)phosphate (CAS Reg. No. 85209-91-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a clarifying agent at a level not exceeding 0.30 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1, 3.1, or 3.2 (where the copolymers complying with items 3.1 and 3.2 contain not less than 85 weight percent of polymer units derived from polypropylene). The finished polymers contact foods only of types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII as identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and limited to conditions of use B through H, described in table 2 of § 176.170(c), or foods of all types, limited to conditions of use C through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c).
<br/>2. As a clarifying agent at levels not exceeding 0.10 percent by weight of polypropylene complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1(a) or 1.1(b) and of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 3.1(a), 3.1(b), 3.1(c), 3.2(a), or 3.2(b) (where the copolymers contain not less than 85 weight percent of the polymer units derived from polypropylene.) The finished polymers shall be used in contact with foods only under conditions of use A through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. As a clarifying agent at a level not exceeding 0.30 percent by weight of olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, item 2.2, where the finished polymer contacts food only of types I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, and VII-B as identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and limited to conditions of use B through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, or foods of types III, IV-A, V, VI-C, and VII-A as identified in Table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter and limited to conditions of use C through G described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59236, Dec. 4, 1981, as amended at 52 FR 30920, Aug. 18, 1987; 53 FR 30049, Aug. 10, 1988; 54 FR 12432, Mar. 27, 1989; 54 FR 14734, Apr. 12, 1989; 55 FR 52990, Dec. 26, 1990; 56 FR 1085, Jan. 11, 1991; 59 FR 13650, Mar. 23, 1994; 59 FR 25323, May 16, 1994; 61 FR 33847, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 51588, Oct. 3, 1996; 61 FR 65943, Dec. 16, 1996; 63 FR 56789, Oct. 23, 1998; 63 FR 68392, Dec. 11, 1998; 64 FR 26843, May 18, 1999; 65 FR 16316, Mar. 28, 2000]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3297" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3297   Colorants for polymers.</HEAD>
<P>The substances listed in paragraph (e) of this section may be safely used as colorants in the manufacture of articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions and definitions set forth in this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>colorant</I> means a dye, pigment, or other substance that is used to impart color to or to alter the color of a food-contact material, but that does not migrate to food in amounts that will contribute to that food any color apparent to the naked eye. For the purpose of this section, the term “colorant” includes substances such as optical brighteners and fluorescent whiteners, which may not themselves be colored, but whose use is intended to affect the color of a food-contact material.
</P>
<P>(b) The colorant must be used in accordance with current good manufacturing practice, including use levels which are not in excess of those reasonably required to accomplish the intended coloring effect.
</P>
<P>(c) Colorants in this section must conform to the description and specifications indicated. If a polymer described in this section is itself the subject of a regulation promulgated under section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, it shall also comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by that regulation. Extraction testing guidelines to conduct studies for additional uses of colorants under this section are available from the Food and Drug Administration free of charge from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200
</P>
<P>(d) Color additives and their lakes listed for direct use in foods, under the provisions of the color additive regulations in parts 73, 74, 81, and 82 of this chapter, may also be used as colorants for food-contact polymers.
</P>
<P>(e) List of substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum hydrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum and potassium silicate (mica)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum mono-, di-, and tristearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum silicate (China clay)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-[[5-[[[4-(Aminocarbonyl) phenyl] amino]carbonyl]- 2-methoxyphenyl]azo]-<E T="03">N</E>-(5-chloro-2,4-dimethoxyphenyl)-3-hydroxy-2-naphthalene-carboxamide (C.I. Pigment Red 187, CAS Reg. No. 59487-23-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact foods only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-[4-(Aminocarbonyl)phenyl]-4-[[1-[[(2,3-dihydro-2-oxo-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-5-yl)amino]carbonyl]-2-oxopropyl]azo]benzamide (C. I. Pigment Yellow 181, CAS Reg. No. 74441-05-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthra(2,1,9-def:(6,5,10-d′e′f)diisoquinoline-1,3,8,10(2H,9H)-tetrone (C.I. Pigment Violet 29; CAS Reg. No. 81-33-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1% by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bentonite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bentonite, modified with 3-dimethyldioctadecylammonium ion
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,4-Bis[(2,4,6-trimethylphenyl)amino]-9,10-anthracenedione (CAS Reg. No. 116-75-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 0.0004 percent by weight of polyethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,6-Bis(4-chlorophenyl)-2,5-dihydro-pyrrolo[3,4-c]pyrrole-1,4-dione (C.I. Pigment Red 254, CAS Reg. No. 84632-65-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H, described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Bis(4-anilino-6-diethanolamine-α-triazin-2-ylamino)-2,2′-stilbene disulfonic acid, disodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in the textile fibers specified in § 177.2800 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Bis(4-anilino-6-methylethanolamine-α-triazin-2-ylamino)-2,2′-stilbene disulfonic acid, disodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Burnt umber
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium carbonate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon black (channel process, prepared by the impingement process from stripped natural gas)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Chloro-2-[[5-hydroxy-3-methyl-1-(3-sulfophenyl)-1H-pyrazol-4-yl]azo]-5-methylbenzenesulfonic acid, calcium salt (1:1); (C.I. Pigment Yellow 191, CAS Reg. No. 129423-54-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the finished polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Chloro-2-[[5-hydroxy-3-methyl-1-(3-sulfophenyl)-1H-pyrazol-4-yl]azo]-5-methylbenzenesulfonic acid, diammonium salt (1:2): (C.I. Pigment Yellow 191:1, CAS Reg. No. 154946-66-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food under conditions of use A through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrome antimony titanium buff rutile (C.I. Pigment Brown 24, CAS Reg. No. 68186-90-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium oxide green, Cr<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E> (C.I. Pigment Green 17, C.I. No. 77288)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In polymers used in contact with food at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the polymer, except as specified below.
<br/>2. In olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
<br/>3. In repeat-use rubber articles complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter; total use is not to exceed 10 percent by weight of rubber articles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt aluminate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In resinous and polymeric coatings complying with § 175.300 of this chapter.
<br/>2. Melamine-formaldehyde resins in molded articles complying with § 177.1460 of this chapter.
<br/>3. Xylene-formaldehyde resins condensed with 4-4′isopropylidenediphenol-epichlorohydrin epoxy resins complying with § 175.380 of this chapter.
<br/>4. Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter.
<br/>5. Urea-formaldehyde resins in molded articles complying with § 177.1900 of this chapter.
<br/>6. At levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of all polymers except those listed under limitations 1 through 5 of this item. The finished articles are to contact food under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper chromite black spinel (C.I. Pigment Black 28, CAS Reg. No. 68186-91-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use A through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D&amp;C Red No. 7 and its lakes
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diatomaceous earth
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Diamino-[1,1′-bianthracene]-9,9′,10,10′-tetrone (CAS Reg. No. 4051-63-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,9-Dichloro-5,12-dihydroquinone[2,3-b]acridine-7,14-dione (C.I. Pigment Red 202, CAS Reg. No. 3089-17-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of polymers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,5-Dichloro-2-((5-hydroxy-3-methyl-1-(3-sulfophenyl)-1H-pyrazol-4- yl)azo)benzenesulfonic acid, calcium salt(1:1), (C.I. Pigment Yellow 183, CAS Reg. No. 65212-77-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polypropylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 1.1a, 1.1b, 1.2, 1.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.1c, 3.2a, 3.2b, 3.4, or 3.5. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use E through G, as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of high density polyethylene polymers and copolymers complying with § 177.1520(c) of this chapter, items 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1a, 3.1b, 3.1c, 3.2a, 3.2b, 3.6 (density not less than 0.94 grams per cubic centimeter), or 5. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use E through G, as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-[(2,3-Dihydro-6-methyl-2-oxo-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-5-yl)azo]-2,4,6(1<E T="03">H,</E> 3<E T="03">H,</E> 5<E T="03">H</E>)-pyrimidinetrione (CAS Reg. No. 72102-84-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,9-Dimethylanthra(2,1,9-def:6,5,10-d′e′f′)diisoquinoline-1,3,8,10(2H,9H)-tetrone (C.I. Pigment Red 179, CAS Reg. No. 5521-31-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,3′-[(2,5-Dimethyl-1,4-phenylene)bis[imino(1-acetyl-2-oxo-2,1-ethanediyl)azo]]bis[4-chloro-<E T="03">N</E>-(5-chloro-2-methylphenyl)-benzamide] (CAS Reg. No. 5280-80-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,3′-[(2,5-Dimethyl-1,4-phenylene)bis[imino-carbonyl(2-hydroxy-3,1-naphthalenediyl) azo]] bis(4-methylbenzoic acid), bis(2-chloroethyl) ester (CAS Reg. No. 68259-05-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-[1,2-Ethanediylbis(oxy-2,1-phenyleneazo)]bis[N-(2,3-dihydro-2-oxo-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-5-yl)]-3-oxo-butanamide (C.I. Pigment Yellow 180, CAS Reg. No. 77804-81-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-(1,2-Ethenediyldi-4,1-phenylene) bis(benzoxazole) (CAS Reg. No. 1533-45-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an optical brightener for all polymers at a level not to exceed 0.025 percent by weight of polymer. The finished polymer shall contact foods only of the types identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII at temperatures not to exceed 275 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High-purity furnace black (CAS Reg. No. 1333-86-4) containing total polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons not to exceed 0.5 parts per million, and benzo[a]pyrene not to exceed 5.0 parts per billion, as determined by a method entitled “Determination of PAH Content of Carbon Black,” dated July 8, 1994, as developed by the Cabot Corp., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 2.5 percent by weight of the polymer.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron oxides
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kaolin-modified, produced by treating kaolin with a reaction product of isopropyl titanate and oleic acid in which 1 mole of isopropyl titanate is reacted with 1 to 2 moles of oleic acid. The reaction product will not exceed 8 percent of the modified kaolin. The oleic acid used shall meet the requirements specified in § 172.860 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter at levels not to exceed 40 percent by weight of olefin polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium silicate (talc)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese Violet (manganese ammonium pyrophosphate; CAS Reg. No. 10101-66-3).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use A through H as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed methylated 4,4′-bis(2-benzoxazolyl)stilbenes with the major portion consisting of 4-(2-benzoxazolyl)-4′-(5-methyl-2-benzoxazolyl)stilbene (CAS Registry No. 5242-49-9) and lesser portions consisting of 4,4′-bis(5-methyl-2-benzoxazolyl)stilbene (CAS Registry No. 2397-00-4) and 4,4′-bis(2-benzoxazolyl)stilbene (CAS Registry No. 1533-45-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an optical brightener only at levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of rigid and semirigid polyvinyl chloride and not to exceed 0.03 percent by weight in all other polymers. The finished food-contact articles shall be used only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7-(2<E T="03">H</E>-Naphtho[1,2-<E T="03">d</E>]triazol-2-yl)-3-phenylcoumarin (CAS Reg. No. 3333-62-8) having a melting point of 250 °C to 251 °C and a nitrogen content of 10.7 to 11.2 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an optical brightener only in:
<br/>1. Olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter only at levels such that the product of concentration of the optical brightener (expressed in parts per million by weight of the olefin polymer) multiplied by the thickness of the olefin polymer (expressed in thousandths of an inch and limited to no more than 0.400 inch) shall not exceed 500; provided that the level of the brightener shall not exceed 20 parts per million by weight of the olefin polymer, and further that the olefin polymers shall comply with specifications for items 1.1, 2.1, 3.1, 3.3, and 4 of § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. The polymer may be used under the conditions described in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 2, under conditions of use E, F, and G.
<br/>2. Polyethylene terephthalate specified in § 177.2800(d)(5)(i) of this chapter at a level not to exceed 0.035 percent by weight of the finished fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel antimony titanium yellow rutile (C.I. Pigment Yellow 53, CAS Reg. No. 8007-18-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1′-[(6-Phenyl-1,3,5-triazine-2,4-diyl)diimino]bis-9,10-anthracenedione (CAS Reg. No. 4118-16-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 0.25 percent by weight of polyethylene phthalate polymers that comply with § 177.1630 of this chapter. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2, § 176.170(c) of this chapter, except, when such articles are used with food types III, IV-A, and V, described in table 1, § 176.170(c) of this chapter, the finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use D, E, F, and G.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phthalocyanine blue (C.I. pigment blue 15, 15:1, 15:2, 15:3, and 15:4; C.I. No. 74160; CAS Reg. No. 147-14-8)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phthalocyanine green (C.I. pigment green 7, C.I. No. 74260)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C.I. Pigment red 38 (C.I. No. 21120)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in rubber articles for repeated use complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter; total use is not to exceed 10 percent by weight of rubber article.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quinacridone red (C.I. Pigment violet 19, C.I. No. 73900)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sienna (raw and burnt)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,3,4,5-Tetrachloro-6-cyanobenzoic acid, methyl ester reaction products with <E T="03">p</E>-phenyllenediamine and sodium methoxide (CAS reg. No. 106276-80-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use B through H, described in table 2, of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,5,6,7-Tetrachloro-2-[2-(4,5,6,7-tetrachloro-2,3-dihydro-1,3-dioxo-1H-inden-2-yl)-8-quinolinyl]-1H-isoindole-1,3(2H)-dione (C. I. Pigment Yellow 138, CAS Reg. No.30125-47-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of polymers. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use C through H, as described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter; provided further that the finished articles shall not be filled at temperatures exceeding 158 °F (70 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2′-(2,5-Thiophenediyl)-bis(5-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylbenzoxazole) (CAS Reg. No. 7128-64-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an optical brightener:
<br/>1. In all polymers at levels not to exceed 0.015 percent by weight of the polymer. The finished articles are to contact food only under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>2. In all polymers at levels not to exceed 0.05 percent by weight of the polymer. The finished articles shall contact foods only of the types identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, under Categories I, II, IV-B, VI-A, VI-B, VI-C, VII-B, and VIII under conditions of use A through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. In adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter and in pressure-sensitive adhesives complying with § 175.125 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide-barium sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide-magnesium silicate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ultramarines</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As identified in § 73.2725 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc carbonate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In resinous and polymeric coatings complying with § 175.300 of this chapter.
<br/>2. Melamineformaldehyde resins in molded articles complying with § 177.1460 of this chapter.
<br/>3. Xylene-formaldehyde resins condensed with 4-4′-isopropylidene diphenol-epichlorohydrin epoxy resins complying with § 175.380 of this chapter.
<br/>4. Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter.
<br/>5. Urea-formaldehyde resins in molded articles complying with § 177.1900 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc chromate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in rubber articles for repeated use complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter; total use is not to exceed 10 percent by weight of rubber article.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In resinous and polymeric coatings complying with § 175.300 of this chapter.
<br/>2. Melamine-formaldehyde resins in molded articles complying with § 177.1460 of this chapter.
<br/>3. Xylene-formaldehyde resins condensed with 4-4′-isopropylidene-diphenol-epichlorohydrin epoxy resins complying with § 175.380 of this chapter.
<br/>4. Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter.
<br/>5. Urea-formaldehyde resins in molded articles complying with § 177.1900 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc sulfide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 10 percent by weight.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 46775, Oct. 14, 1983]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 178.3297, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3300" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3300   Corrosion inhibitors used for steel or tinplate.</HEAD>
<P>Corrosion inhibitors may be safely used for steel or tinplate intended for use in, or to be fabricated as, food containers or food-processing or handling equipment, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The corrosion inhibitors are prepared from substances identified in this section and used subject to the limitations prescribed.
</P>
<P>(b) The following corrosion inhibitors or adjuvants are used in amounts not to exceed those reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Corrosion inhibitors (active ingredients) used in packaging materials for the packaging of steel or tinplate or articles fabricated therefrom:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclohexylamine and its salts of fatty acids derived from animal or vegetable oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclohexylamine nitrite
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Morpholine and its salts of fatty acids derived from animal or vegetable oils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Adjuvants employed in the application and use of corrosion inhibitors:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3400" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3400   Emulsifiers and/or surface-active agents.</HEAD>
<P>The substances listed in paragraph (c) of this section may be safely used as emulsifiers and/or surface-active agents in the manufacture of articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect; and the quantity that may become a component of food as a result of such use shall not be intended to, nor in fact, accomplish any physical or technical effect in the food itself.
</P>
<P>(b) The use as an emulsifier and/or surface-active agent in any substance or article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the finished form of the substance or article.
</P>
<P>(c) List of substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Alkyl-, α-alkenyl-, and α-alkylaryl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) mixture consisting of 30 weight pct of α-(2,4,6-triisobutylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) having an average poly(oxyethylene) content of 7 moles and 70 weight pct of a 1:1 weight ratio mixture of α-(<E T="03">Z</E>)-9-octadecenyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) having an average poly(oxyethylene) content of 18 moles and α-alkyl(C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) having an average poly(oxyethylene) content of 18 moles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 pct by weight of coatings complying with § 175.320 of this chapter and limited to use as an emulsifier for polyhydric alcohol diesters used as provided in § 178.3770(b). The weight of the finished coating shall not exceed 2 milligrams per square inch of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">n</E>-Alkylbenzenesulfonic acid (alkyl group consisting of not less than 95 percent C<E T="52">10</E> to C<E T="52">16</E>) and its ammonium, calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as emulsifiers and/or surface active agents as components of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.300, 175.320, 175.365, 175.380, 176.170, 176.180, 177.1010, 177.1200, 177.1210, 177.1630, 177.2600, and 177.2800 of this chapter and § 178.3120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkyl mono- and disulfonic acids, sodium salts (produced from <E T="03">n</E>-alkanes in the range of C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> with not less than 50 percent C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in § 176.170 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of polyvinyl chloride and/or vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter.
<br/>3. As emulsifiers in vinylidene chloride copolymer or homopolymer coatings at levels not to exceed a total of 2.6 percent by weight of coating solids. The finished polymer contacts food only of the Types I, II, III, IV, V, VIA, VIB, VII, VIII, and IX as identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, and limited to conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170 of this chapter.
<br/>4. As emulsifiers and/or surface-active agents at levels not to exceed 3.0 percent by weight of polystyrene or rubber-modified polystyrene complying with § 177.1640(c) of this chapter under conditions of use B through H described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Alkyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by condensation of 1 mole of C<E T="52">11</E>-C<E T="52">15</E> straight-chain randomly substituted secondary alcohols with an average of 7-20 moles of ethylene oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">alpha</E> Olefin sulfonate [alkyl group is in the range of C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">18</E> with not less than 50 percent C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">16</E>], ammonium, calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In acrylonitrile-butadiene copolymers identified in § 177.2600(c)(4)(i) of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 1 percent by weight of acrylic coatings complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xx) of this chapter and having a maximum thickness of 0.051 millimeter (0.002 inch). The finished polymers contact food only of the Types V, VIII, and IX as identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>3. At levels not to exceed 2 percent by weight of vinyl chloride copolymer coatings having a maximum thickness of 0.051 millimeter (0.002 inch) and complying with § 175.300(b)(3)(xv) of this chapter. The finished polymers contact food only of the Types V, VIII, and IX as identified in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
<br/>4. As provided in § 175.105 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Alpha</E>-sulfo-<E T="03">omega</E>-(dodecyloxy)poly(oxyethylene) ammonium salt (CAS Reg. No. 32612-48-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier at levels not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of styrene-butadiene copolymer coatings for paper and paperboard complying with § 176.170 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium salt of epoxidized oleic acid, produced from epoxidized oleic acid (predominantly dihydroxystearic and acetoxyhydroxystearic acids) meeting the following specifications: Acid number 160-180, saponification number 210-235, iodine number 2-15, and epoxy groups 0-0.4 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a polymerization emulsifier at levels not to exceed 1.5 pct by weight of vinyl chloride polymers used as components of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.105, 175.300, 176.170, 176.180, and 177.1210 of this chapter. Such vinyl chloride polymers are limited to polyvinyl chloride and/or vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter.
<br/>2. As a polymerization emulsifier at levels not to exceed 1.5 pct by weight of vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate copolymers used as components of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.105, 175.300, 176.170, 176.180, and 177.1210 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-di-(C<E T="52">9</E>-C<E T="52">11</E> alkyl) ester, ammonium salt (also known as butanedioic acid, sulfo-1,4-diisodecyl ester, ammonium salt [CAS Reg. No. 144093-88-9]).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a surface active agent as provided in §§ 175.105, 175.125, 176.170, and 176.180 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Di-<E T="03">sec</E>-butylphenyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of di-<E T="03">sec</E>-butylphenol with an average of 4-14 or 30-50 moles of ethylene oxide; if a blend of products is used, the average number of moles of ethylene oxide reacted to produce any product that is a component of the blend shall be in the range 4-14 or 30-50; <E T="03">sec</E>-butyl groups are predominantly (90 percent or more) <E T="03">o-, p</E>-substituents
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium 4-isodecyl sulfosuccinate (CAS Reg. No. 37294-49-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an emulsifier at levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of polymers intended for use in coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Dodecyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxpoly (oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters that have an acid number (to pH 5.2) of 103-111 and that are produced by the esterification of the condensation product of 1 mole of <E T="03">n</E>-dodecyl alcohol with 4-4.5 moles of ethylene oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p-Dodecylphenyl</E>)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of dodecylphenol (dodecyl group is a propylene tetramer isomer) with an average of 4-14 or 30-50 moles of ethylene oxide; if a blend of products is used, the average number of moles of ethylene oxide reacted to produce any product that is a component of the blend shall be in the range 4-14 or 30-50
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene sulfonic acid-formaldehyde condensate, sodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 9084-06-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 10 micrograms/in
<sup>2</sup> (0.16 mg/dm
<sup>2</sup>) in vinylidene chloride copolymer or homopolymer coatings applied to films of propylene polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 14 micrograms/in
<sup>2</sup> (0.21 mg/dm
<sup>2</sup>) in vinylidene chloride copolymer or homopolymer coatings applied to films of polyethylene phthalate polymers complying with § 177.1630 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p</E>-nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters that have an acid number (to pH 5.2) of 49-59 and that are produced by the esterification of <E T="03">a</E>-(<E T="03">p</E>-nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) complying with the identity prescribed in § 178.3400(c) and having an average poly(oxyethylene) content of 5.5-6.5 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p</E>-Nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters that have an acid number (to pH 5.2) of 62-72 and that are produced by the esterification of <E T="02">′</E>-(<E T="03">p</E>-nonylphenyl)<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) complying with the identity prescribed in § 178.3400(c) and having an average poly(oxyethylene) content of 9-10 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p</E>-Nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters that have an acid number (to pH 5.2) of 98-110 and that are produced by the esterification of α-(<E T="03">p</E>-nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) complying with the identity prescribed in § 178.3400(c) and having an average poly(oxyethylene) content of 45-55 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p</E>-Nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of nonylphenol (nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer) with an average of 4-14 or 30-50 moles of ethylene oxide: if a blend of products is used, the average number of moles of ethylene oxide reacted to produce any product that is a component of the blend shall be in the range 4-14 or 30-50
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-(<E T="03">p</E>-Nonylphenyl)-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) sulfate, ammonium or sodium salt: the nonyl group is a propylene trimer isomer and the poly (oxyethylene) content average 4 moles
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethyleneglycol alkyl(C<E T="52">10</E>-C<E T="52">12</E>)ether sulfosuccinate, disodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 68954-91-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of total monomers used in the emulsion polymerization of polyvinyl acetate, acrylic, and vinyl/acrylic polymers intended for use as coatings for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly[(methylene-<E T="03">p-</E>nonylphenoxy) poly(oxypropylene)(4-12 moles) propanol] of minimum molecular weight 3500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use in coatings at levels not to exceed 1 mg per square foot of food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(oxypropylene) (45-48 moles) block polymer with poly(oxyethylene). The finished block polymers meet the following specifications: Average molecular weight 11,000-18,000; hydroxyl number 6.2-10.2; ·cloud point above 100 °C. for 10 pct solution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surface-active agent at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of polyolefin film or polyolefin coatings. Such polyolefin film and polyolefin coatings shall have an average thickness not to exceed 0.005 inch and shall be limited to use in contact with foods that have a pH above 5.0 and that contain no more than 8 pct of alcohol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 20 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monolaurate) meeting the following specifications: Saponification number 40-50, acid number 0-2, hydroxyl number 60-108, oxyethylene content 70-74 pct
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 40 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monopalmitate) meeting the following specifications: Saponification number 41-52, oxyethylene content 66-70.5 pct
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 60 conforming to the identity prescribed in § 172.836 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 65 conforming to the identity prescribed in § 172.838 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 80 conforming to the identity prescribed in § 172.840 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polysorbate 85 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan trioleate) meeting the following specifications: Saponification number 80-95, oxyethylene content 46-50 percent
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 1,4-dicylcohexyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 1,4-dihexyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 1,4 diisobutyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 1,4-dipentyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 1,4-ditridecyl sulfosuccinate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium lauryl sulfate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium monoalkylphenoxybenzenedisulfonate and sodium dialkylphenoxybenzenedisulfonate mixtures containing not less than 70 pct of the monoalkylated product where the alkyl group is C<E T="52">8</E>C<E T="52">16</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monolaurate meeting the following specifications. Saponification number 153-170; and hydroxyl number 330-360
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monooleate meeting the following specifications: Saponification number 145-160, hydroxyl number 193-210
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monopalmitate meeting the following specifications: Saponification No. 140-150; and hydroxyl No. 275-305
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan monostearate conforming to the identity prescribed in § 172.842 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan trioleate meeting the following specifications: Saponification No. 170-190; and hydroxyl No. 55-70
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorbitan tristearate meeting the following specifications: Saponification No. 176-188; and hydroxyl No. 66-80
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfosuccinic acid 4-ester with polyethylene glycol dodecyl ether, disodium salt (CAS Reg. No. 39354-45-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of total monomers used in the emulsion polymerization of polyvinyl acetate, acrylic, and vinyl/acrylic polymers intended for use as coatings for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfosuccinic acid 4-ester with polyethylene glycol nonylphenyl ether, disodium salt (alcohol moiety produced by condensation of 1 mole nonylphenol and an average of 9-10 moles of ethylene oxide) (CAS Reg. No. 9040-38-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the total coating monomers used in the emulsion polymerization of polyvinyl acetate and vinyl-acrylate copolymers intended for use as coatings for paper and paperboard.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-[<E T="03">p</E>-(1,1,3,3-Tetramethylbutyl)phenyl] <E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of <E T="03">p</E>-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl) phenol with an average of 4-14 or 30-40 moles of ethylene oxide; if a blend of products is used, the average number of moles of ethylene oxide reacted to produce any product that is a component of the blend shall be in the range 4-14 or 30-50
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrasodium <E T="03">N</E>-(1,2-dicarboxyethyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-octadecyl-sulfosuccinate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a polymerization emulsifier for resins applied to tea-bag material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Tridecyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters that have an acid number (to pH 5.2) of 75-85 and that are produced by the esterification of the condensation product of one mole of “oxo” process tridecyl alcohol with 5.5-6.5 moles of ethylene oxide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Tridecyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethyl-ene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters that have an acid number (to pH 5.2) of 58-70 and that are produced by the esterification of the condensation product of one mole of “oxo” process tridecyl alcohol with 9-10 moles of ethylene oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to emulsifiers and/or surface-active agents listed in § 175.105(c)(5) of this chapter and used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 178.3400, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3450" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3450   Esters of stearic and palmitic acids.</HEAD>
<P>The ester stearyl palmitate or palmityl stearate or mixtures thereof may be safely used as adjuvants in food-packaging materials when used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) They are used or intended for use as plasticizers or lubricants in polystyrene intended for use in contact with food.
</P>
<P>(b) They are added to the formulated polymer prior to extrusion.
</P>
<P>(c) The quantity used shall not exceed that required to accomplish the intended technical effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3480" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3480   Fatty alcohols, synthetic.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic fatty alcohols may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food, and in synthesizing food additives and other substances permitted for use as components of articles intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive consists of fatty alcohols meeting the specifications and definition prescribed in § 172.864 of this chapter, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) As substitutes for the corresponding naturally derived fatty alcohols permitted for use as components of articles intended for use in contact with food by existing regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter: <I>Provided,</I> That the use is in compliance with any prescribed limitations.
</P>
<P>(2) As substitutes for the corresponding naturally derived fatty alcohols used as intermediates in the synthesis of food additives and other substances permitted for use as components of food-contact articles.
</P>
<P>(c) Synthetic fatty alcohols identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may contain not more than 0.8 weight percent of total diols as determined by a method titled “Diols in Monohydroxy Alcohol by Miniature Thin Layer Chromatography (MTLC),” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Synthetic fatty alcohols.</I> (i) Hexyl, octyl, decyl, lauryl, myristyl, cetyl, and stearyl alcohols meeting the specifications and definition prescribed in § 172.864 of this chapter, except that they may contain not more than 0.8 weight percent total diols.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lauryl, myristyl, cetyl, and stearyl alcohols manufactured by the process described in § 172.864(a)(2) of this chapter such that lauryl and myristyl alcohols meet the specifications in § 172.864(a)(1)(i) of this chapter, and cetyl and stearyl alcohols meet the specifications in § 172.864(a)(1)(ii) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (i) Synthetic fatty alcohols as substitutes for the corresponding naturally derived fatty alcohols permitted for use in compliance with § 178.3910.
</P>
<P>(ii) Synthetic lauryl alcohol as a substitute for the naturally derived lauryl alcohol permitted as an intermediate in the synthesis of sodium lauryl sulfate used in compliance with § 178.3400.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11847, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3500" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3500   Glycerin, synthetic.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic glycerin may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in packaging materials for food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) It is produced by the hydrogenolysis of carbohydrates, and shall contain not in excess of 0.2 percent by weight of a mixture of butanetriols.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used in a quantity not to exceed that amount reasonably required to produce its intended physical or technical effect, and in accordance with any limitations prescribed by applicable regulations in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and 179 of this chapter. It shall not be intended to, nor in fact accomplish, any direct physical or technical effect in the food itself.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3505" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3505   Glyceryl tri-(12-acetoxystearate).</HEAD>
<P>Glyceryl tri-(12-acetoxystearate) (CAS Reg. No. 139-43-5) may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is applied to the surface of calcium carbonate at a level not to exceed 1 weight-percent of the total mixture.
</P>
<P>(b) The calcium carbonate/glyceryl tri-(12-acetoxystearate) mixture is used as an adjuvant in polymers in contact with nonfatty foods at a level not to exceed 20 weight-percent of the polymer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 1503, Jan. 11, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3520" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3520   Industrial starch-modified.</HEAD>
<P>Industrial starch-modified may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Industrial starch-modified is identified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A food starch-modified or starch or any combination thereof that has been modified by treatment with one of the reactants hereinafter specified, in an amount reasonably required to achieve the desired functional effect but in no event in excess of any limitation prescribed, with or without subsequent treatment as authorized in § 172.892 of this chapter.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of reactants
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium persulfate, not to exceed 0.3 pct. or in alkaline starch not to exceed 0.6 pct.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4-Chlorobutene-2) trimethylammonium chloride, not to exceed 5 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial starch modified by this treatment shall be used only as internal sizing for paper and paperboard intended for food packaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β-Diethylaminoethyl chloride hydrochloride, not to exceed 4 pct
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylaminoethyl methacrylate, not to exceed 3 pct
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylol ethylene urea, not to exceed 0.375 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial starch modified by this treatment shall be used only as internal sizing for paper and paperboard intended for food packaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,3-Epoxypropyltrimethylammonium chloride, not to exceed 5 pct
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene oxide, not to exceed 3 pct of reacted ethylene oxide in finished product
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid, not to exceed 6 pct and urea, not to exceed 20 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial starch modified by this treatment shall be used only as internal sizing for paper and paperboard intended for food packaging and as surface sizing and coating for paper and paperboard that contact food only of Types IV-A, V, VII, VIII, and IX described in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) A starch irradiated under one of the following conditions to produce free radicals for subsequent graft polymerization with the reactants listed in this paragraph (a)(2):
</P>
<P>(i) Radiation from a sealed cobalt 60 source, maximum absorbed dose not to exceed 5.0 megarads.
</P>
<P>(ii) An electron beam source at a maximum energy of 7 million electron volts of ionizing radiation, maximum absorbed dose not to exceed 5.0 megarads.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of reactants
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide and [2-(methacryloyloxy) ethyl]trimethylammonium methyl sulfate, such that the finished industrial starch-modified shall contain:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a retention aid and dry strength agent employed before the sheet-forming operation in the manufacture of paper and paperboard intended to contact food, and used at a level not to exceed 0.25 pct by weight of the finished dry paper and paperboard fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1. Not more than 60 weight percent vinyl copolymer (of which not more than 32 weight percent is [2-(methacryloyloxy)ethyl] trimethylammonium methyl sulfate)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2. Not more than 0.20 pct residual acrylamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3. A minimum nitrogen content of 9.0 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The following adjuvants may be used as surface-active agents in the processing of industrial starch-modified:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Polyethylene glycol (400) dilaurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene glycol (400) monolaurate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxyethylene (4) lauryl ether.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) To insure safe use of the industrial starch-modified, the label of the food additive container shall bear the name of the additive “industrial starch-modified,” and in the instance of an industrial starch-modified which is limited with respect to conditions of use, the label of the food additive container shall contain a statement of such limited use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 49453, Sept. 27, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3530" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3530   Isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons, synthetic.</HEAD>
<P>Isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons, synthetic, may be safely used in the production of nonfood articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons, produced by synthesis from petroleum gases consist of a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons meeting the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Boiling point 63°-260 °C, as determined by ASTM method D86-82, “Standard Method for Distillation of Petroleum Products,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP>Ultraviolet absorbance:
</FP>
<FP1-2>260-319 millimicrons—1.5 maximum.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>320-329 millimicrons—0.08 maximum.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>330-350 millimicrons—0.05 maximum.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Nonvolatile residue 0.002 gram per 100 milliliters maximum.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Synthetic isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons containing antioxidants shall meet the specified ultraviolet absorbance limits after correction for any absorbance due to the antioxidants. The ultraviolet absorbance shall be determined by the procedure described for application to mineral oil under “Specifications” on page 66 of the “Journal of the Association of Official Agricultural Chemists,” Vol. 45 (February 1962), which is incorporated by reference, disregarding the last sentence of that procedure. For hydrocarbons boiling below 121 °C, the nonvolatile residue shall be determined by ASTM method D1353-78, “Standard Test Method for Nonvolatile Matter in Volatile Solvents for Use in Paint, Varnish, Lacquer, and Related Products;” for those boiling above 121 °C, ASTM procedure D381-80, “Standard Test Method for Existent Gum in Fuels by Jet Evaporation,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons may contain antioxidants authorized for use in food in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(c) Isoparaffinic petroleum hydrocarbons are used in the production of nonfood articles. The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect, and the residual remaining in the finished article shall be the minimum amount reasonably attainable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11847, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10112, Mar. 19, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3570" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3570   Lubricants with incidental food contact.</HEAD>
<P>Lubricants with incidental food contact may be safely used on machinery used for producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The lubricants are prepared from one or more of the following substances:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe for use in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances used in accordance with the provisions of a prior sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances identified in this paragraph (a)(3).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum stearoyl benzoyl hydroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a thickening agent in mineral oil lubricants at a level not to exceed 10 pct by weight of the mineral oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>,<E T="03">N</E>-Bis(2-ethylhexyl)-<E T="03">ar</E>-methyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzotriazole-1-methanamine (CAS Reg. No. 94270-86-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a copper deactivator at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHA
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHT
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Butyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) poly(oxypropylene) produced by random condensation of a 1:1 mixture by weight of ethylene oxide and propylene oxide with butanol; minimum molecular weight 1,500; Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 9038-95-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Addition to food not to exceed 10 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Butyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxypropylene); minimum molecular weight 1,500; Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 9003-13-8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, dehydrated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil, partially dehydrated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dialkyldimethylammonium aluminum silicate (CAS Reg. No. 68953-58-2), which may contain up to 7 percent by weight 1,6-hexanediol (CAS Reg. No. 629-11-8), where the alkyl groups are derived from hydrogenated tallow fatty acids (C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) and where the aluminum silicate is derived from bentonite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a gelling agent in mineral oil lubricants at a level not to exceed 15 percent by weight of the mineral oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylpolysiloxane (viscosity greater than 300 centistokes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Addition to food not to exceed 1 part per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di (<E T="03">n</E>-octyl) phosphite (CAS Reg. No. 1809-14-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an extreme pressure-antiwear adjuvant at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium decanedioate (CAS Reg. No. 17265-14-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As a corrosion inhibitor or rust preventative in mineral oil-bentonite lubricants at a level not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the grease.
<br/>2. As a corrosion inhibitor or rust preventative only in greases at a level not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the grease.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disodium EDTA (CAS Reg. No. 139-33-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a chelating agent and sequestrant at a level not to exceed 0.06 percent by weight of lubricant at final use dilution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethoxylated resin phosphate ester mixture consisting of the following compounds:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a surfactant to improve lubricity in lubricating fluids complying with this section at a level not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the lubricating fluid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1. Poly(methylene-<E T="03">p-tert</E>-butyl- phenoxy)poly-(oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters (0 to 40 percent of the mixture). The resin is formed by condensation of 1 mole of <E T="03">p-tert-</E>butylphenol with 2 to 4 moles of formaldehyde and subsequent ethoxylation with 4 to 12 moles of ethylene oxide;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2. Poly(methylene-<E T="03">p-</E>nonylphenoxy) poly(oxyethylene) mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters (0 to 40 percent of the mixture). The resin is formed by condensation of 1 mole of <E T="03">p-</E>nonylphenol with 2 to 4 moles of formaldehyde and subsequent ethoxylation with 4 to 12 moles of ethylene oxide; and
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3. <E T="03">n-</E>Tridecyl alcohol mixture of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate esters (40 to 80 percent of the mixture; CAS Reg. No. 56831-62-0)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acids derived from animal or vegetable sources, and the hydrogenated forms of such fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-(8-Heptadecenyl)-4,5-dihydro-1<E T="03">H</E>-imidazole-1-ethanol (CAS Reg. No. 95-38-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexamethylenebis(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 35074-77-2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an antioxidant at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Hydro-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly (oxyethylene) poly(oxypropylene) produced by random condensation of mixtures of ethylene oxide and propylene oxide containing 25 to 75 percent by weight of ethylene oxide; minimum molecular weight 1,500; Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 9003-11-6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Addition to food not to exceed 10 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12-Hydroxystearic acid
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl oleate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant (to improve lubricity) in mineral oil lubricants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium ricinoleate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant in mineral oil lubricants at a level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the mineral oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Addition to food not to exceed 10 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-Methyl-<E T="03">N-(1-oxo-9- octadecenyl)glycine</E> (CAS Reg. No. 110-25-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as a corrosion inhibitor at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-phenylbenzenamine, reaction products with 2,4,4-trimethylpentene (CAS Reg. No. 68411-46-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antioxidant at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolatum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3700. Addition to food not to exceed 10 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl-α-and/or phenyl-β-naphthylamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only, singly or in combination, as antioxidant in mineral oil lubricants at a level not to exceed a total of 1 percent by weight of the mineral oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid, mono- and dihexyl esters, compounds with tetramethylnonylamines and C<E T="52">11-14</E> alkylamines</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid, mono- and diisooctyl esters, reacted with <E T="03">tert</E>-alkyl and (C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">14</E>) primary amines (CAS Reg. No. 68187-67-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a corrosion inhibitor or rust preventative inlubricants at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorothioic acid, <E T="03">O, O, O</E>-triphenyl ester, <E T="03">tert</E>-butyl derivatives (CAS Reg. No. 192268-65-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an extreme pressure-antiwear adjuvant at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyurea, having a nitrogen content of 9-14 percent based on the dry polyurea weight, produced by reacting tolylene diisocyanate with tall oil fatty acid (C<E T="52">16</E> and C<E T="52">18</E>) amine and ethylene diamine in a 2:2:1 molar ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an adjuvant in mineral oil lubricants at a level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the mineral oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene (minimum average molecular weight 80,000)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Addition to food not to exceed 10 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyisobutylene (average molecular weight 35,000-140,000 (Flory))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a thickening agent in mineral oil lubricants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a rust preventive in mineral oil lubricants at a level not to exceed 3 percent by weight of the mineral oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrakis[methylene(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydro-cinnamate)]methane (CAS Reg. No. 6683-19-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antioxidant in lubricants at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiodiethylenebis (3,5-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 41484-35-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an antioxidant at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tri[2(or 4)-C<E T="52">9-10</E>-branched alkylphenyl]phosphorothioate (CAS Reg. No. 126019-82-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an extreme pressure-antiwear adjuvant at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triphenyl phosphorothionate (CAS Reg. No. 597-82-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an adjuvant in lubricants herein listed at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tris(2,4-di-<E T="03">tert</E>-butylphenyl)phosphite (CAS Reg. NO. 31570-04-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a stabilizer at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiodiethylenebis(3,5-di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxy-hydro- cinnamate) (CAS Reg. No. 41484-35-9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use as an antioxidant at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the lubricant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc sulfide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the lubricant.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The lubricants are used on food-processing equipment as a protective antirust film, as a release agent on gaskets or seals of tank closures, and as a lubricant for machine parts and equipment in locations in which there is exposure of the lubricated part to food. The amount used is the minimum required to accomplish the desired technical effect on the equipment, and the addition to food of any constituent identified in this section does not exceed the limitations prescribed.
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of the lubricants described in this section that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 178.3570, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3600" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3600   Methyl glucoside-coconut oil ester.</HEAD>
<P>Methyl glucoside-coconut oil ester identified in § 172.816(a) of this chapter may be safely used as a processing aid (filter aid) in the manufacture of starch, including industrial starch-modified complying with § 178.3520, intended for use as a component of articles that contact food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3610" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3610   α-Methylstyrene-vinyltoluene resins, hydrogenated.</HEAD>
<P>Hydrogenated α-methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins having a molar ratio of 1 α-methylstyrene to 3 vinyltoluene may be safely used as components of polyolefin film intended for use in contact with food, subject to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Hydrogenated α-methylstyrene-vinyltoluene copolymer resins have a drop-softening point of 125° to 165 °C and a maximum absorptivity of 0.17 liter per gram centimeter at 266 nanometers, as determined by methods titled “Determination of Softening Point (Drop Method)” and “Determination of Unsaturation of Resin 1977,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) The polyolefin film is produced from olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, and the average thickness of the film in the form in which it contacts food does not exceed 0.002 inch.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11847, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3620" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3620   Mineral oil.</HEAD>
<P>Mineral oil may be safely used as a component of nonfood articles intended for use in contact with food, subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) White mineral oil meeting the specifications prescribed in § 172.878 of this chapter may be used as a component of nonfood articles provided such use complies with any applicable limitations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter. The use of white mineral oil in or on food itself, including the use of white mineral oil as a protective coating or release agent for food, is subject to the provisions of § 172.878 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Technical white mineral oil identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be used as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Technical white mineral oil consists of specially refined distillates of virgin petroleum or of specially refined distillates that are produced synthetically from petroleum gases. Technical white mineral oil meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Saybolt color 20 minimum as determined by ASTM method D156-82, “Standard Test Method for Saybolt Color of Petroleum Products (Saybolt Chromometer Method),” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ultraviolet absorbance limits as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength (mµ)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorbance per centimeter optical pathlength
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330 to 350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Technical white mineral oil containing antioxidants shall meet the specified ultraviolet absorbance limits after correction for any absorbance due to the antioxidants. The ultraviolet absorbance shall be determined by the procedure described for application to mineral oil under “Specification” on page 66 of the “Journal of the Association of Official Agricultural Chemists,” Volume 45 (February 1962) (which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), disregarding the last two sentences of that procedure and substituting therefor the following: Determine the absorbance of the mineral oil extract in a 10-millimeter cell in the range from 260-350 mµ, inclusive, compared to the solvent control. If the absorbance so measured exceeds 2.0 at any point in range 280-350 mµ, inclusive, dilute the extract and the solvent control, respectively, to twice their volume with dimethyl sulfoxide and remeasure the absorbance. Multiply the remeasured absorbance values by 2 to determine the absorbance of the mineral oil extract per centimeter optical pathlength.
</FP>
<P>(2) Technical white mineral oil may be used wherever mineral oil is permitted for use as a component of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.105, 176.200, 176.210, 177.2260, 177.2600, and 177.2800 of this chapter and §§ 178.3570 and 178.3910.
</P>
<P>(3) Technical white mineral oil may contain any antioxidant permitted in food by regulations issued in accordance with section 409 of the Act, in an amount not greater than that required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(c) Mineral oil identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may be used as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The mineral oil consists of virgin petroleum distillates refined to meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Initial boiling point of 450 °F minimum.
</P>
<P>(ii) Color 5.5 maximum as determined by ASTM method D1500-82, “Standard Test Method for ASTM Color of Petroleum Products (ASTM Color Scale),” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ultraviolet absorbance limits as follows as determined by the analytical method described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength (mµ)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorbance per centimeter optical pathlength
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360 to 400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.09</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The mineral oil may be used wherever mineral oil is permitted for use as a component of nonfood articles complying with §§ 175.105 and 176.210 of this chapter and § 178.3910 (for use only in rolling of metallic foil and sheet stock), §§ 176.200, 177.2260, 177.2600, and 177.2800 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The analytical method for determining ultraviolet absorbance limit is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>general instructions
</HD1>
<P>Because of the sensitivity of the test, the possibility of errors arising from contamination is great. It is of the greatest importance that all glassware be scrupulously cleaned to remove all organic matter such as oil, grease, detergent residues, etc. Examine all glassware, including stoppers and stopcocks, under ultraviolet light to detect any residual fluorescent contamination. As a precautionary measure it is recommended practice to rinse all glassware with purified isooctane immediately before use. No grease is to be used on stopcocks or joints. Great care to avoid contamination of oil samples in handling and to assure absence of any extraneous material arising from inadequate packaging is essential. Because some of the polynuclear hydrocarbons sought in this test are very susceptible to photo-oxidation, the entire procedure is to be carried out under subdued light.
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<P><I>Separatory funnels.</I> 250-milliliter, 500-milliliter, 1,000-milliliter, and preferably 2,000-milliliter capacity, equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcocks.
</P>
<P><I>Reservoir.</I> 500-milliliter capacity, equipped with a 24/40 standard taper male fitting at the bottom and a suitable ball-joint at the top for connecting to the nitrogen supply. The male fitting should be equipped with glass hooks.
</P>
<P><I>Chromatographic tube.</I> 180 millimeters in length, inside diameter to be 15.7 millimeters ±0.1 millimeter, equipped with a coarse, fritted-glass disc, a tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock, and a female 24/40 standard tapered fitting at the opposite end. (Overall length of the column with the female joint is 235 millimeters.) The female fitting should be equipped with glass hooks.
</P>
<P><I>Disc.</I> Tetrafluoroethylene polymer 2-inch diameter disk approximately 
<FR>3/16</FR>-inch thick with a hole bored in the center to closely fit the stem of the chromatographic tube.
</P>
<P><I>Suction flask.</I> 250-milliliter or 500-milliliter filter flask.
</P>
<P><I>Condenser.</I> 24/40 joints, fitted with a drying tube, length optional.
</P>
<P><I>Evaporation flask (optional).</I> 250-milliliter or 500-milliliter capacity all-glass flask equipped with standard taper stopper having inlet and outlet tubes to permit passage of nitrogen across the surface of contained liquid to be evaporated.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometric cells.</I> Fused quartz cells, optical path length in the range of 5,000 centimeter ±0.005 centimeter; also for checking spectrophotometer performance only, optical path length in the range 1,000 centimeter ±0.005 centimeter. With distilled water in the cells, determine any absorbance differences.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometer.</I> Spectral range 250 millimicrons—400 millimicrons with spectral slit width of 2 millimicrons or less; under instrument operating conditions for these absorbance measurements, the spectrophotometer shall also meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>Absorbance repeatability, ±0.01 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<P>Absorbance accuracy 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> ±0.05 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As determined by procedure using potassium chromate for reference standard and described in National Bureau of Standards Circular 484, Spectrophotometry, U.S. Department of Commerce (1949). The accuracy is to be determined by comparison with the standard values at 290, 345, and 400 millimicrons. Circular 484 is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>Wavelength accuracy, ±1.0 millimicron.
</P>
<P><I>Nitrogen cylinder.</I> Water-pumped or equivalent purity nitrogen in cylinder equipped with regulator and valve to control flow at 5 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<HD1>reagents and materials
</HD1>
<P><I>Organic solvents.</I> All solvents used throughout the procedure shall meet the specifications and tests described in this specification. The isooctane, benzene, acetone, and methyl alcohol designated in the list following this paragraph shall pass the following test:
</P>
<P>To the specified quantity of solvent in a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask, add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n-</I>hexadecane and evaporate on the steam bath under a stream of nitrogen (a loose aluminum foil jacket around the flask will speed evaporation). Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. (To the residue from benzene add a 10-milliliter portion of purified isooctane, reevaporate, and repeat once to insure complete removal of benzene.)
</P>
<P>Alternatively, the evaporation time can be reduced by using the optional evaporation flask. In this case the solvent and <I>n-</I>hexadecane are placed in the flask on the steam bath, the tube assembly is inserted, and a stream of nitrogen is fed through the inlet tube while the outlet tube is connected to a solvent trap and vacuum line in such a way as to prevent any flow-back of condensate into the flask.
</P>
<P>Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane residue in isooctane and make to 25 milliliters volume. Determine the absorbance in the 5-centimeter path length cells compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance of the solution of the solvent residue (except for methyl alcohol) shall not exceed 0.01 per centimeter path length between 280 and 400 mµ. For methyl alcohol this absorbance value shall be 0.00.
</P>
<P><I>Isooctane (2,2,4-trimethylpentane).</I> Use 180 milliliters for the test described in the preceding paragraph. Purify, if necessary, by passage through a column of activated silica gel (Grade 12, Davison Chemical Company, Baltimore, Maryland, or equivalent) about 90 centimeters in length and 5 centimeters to 8 centimeters in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Benzene, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 150 milliliters for the test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Acetone, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 200 milliliters for the test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation.
</P>
<P>Eluting mixtures:
</P>
<P>1. <I>10 percent benzene in isooctane.</I> Pipet 50 milliliters of benzene into a 250-milliliter glass-stoppered volumetric flask and adjust to volume with isooctane, with mixing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>20 percent benzene in isooctane.</I> Pipet 50 milliliters of benzene into a 250-milliliter glass-stoppered volumetric flask and adjust to volume with isooctane, with mixing.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Acetone-benzene-water mixture.</I> Add 20 milliliters of water to 380 milliliters of acetone and 200 milliliters of benzene, and mix.
</P>
<P><I>n-Hexadecane, 99-percent olefin-free.</I> Dilute 1.0 milliliter of <I>n-</I>hexadecane to 25 milliliters with isooctane and determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter cell compared to isooctane as reference point between 280 mµ-400 mµ. The absorbance per centimeter path length shall not exceed 0.00 in this range. Purify, if necessary, by percolation through activated silica gel or by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Methyl alcohol, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 10.0 milliliters of methyl alcohol. Purify, if necessary, by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Dimethyl sulfoxide.</I> Spectrophotometric grade (Crown Zellerbach Corporation, Camas, Washington, or equivalent). Absorbance (1-centimeter cell, distilled water reference, sample completely saturated with nitrogen).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Absorbance (maximum)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">261.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.015</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>There shall be no irregularities in the absorbance curve within these wavelengths.
</FP>
<P><I>Phosphoric acid.</I> 85 percent A.C.S. reagent grade.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium borohydride.</I> 98 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Magnesium oxide (Sea Sorb 43, Food Machinery Company, Westvaco Division, distributed by chemical supply firms, or equivalent).</I> Place 100 grams of the magnesium oxide in a large beaker, add 700 milliliters of distilled water to make a thin slurry, and heat on a steam bath for 30 minutes with intermittent stirring. Stir well initially to insure that all the adsorbent is completely wetted. Using a Buchner funnel and a filter paper (Schleicher &amp; Schuell No. 597, or equivalent) of suitable diameter, filter with suction. Continue suction until water no longer drips from the funnel. Transfer the adsorbent to a glass trough lined with aluminum foil (free from rolling oil). Break up the magnesia with a clean spatula and spread out the adsorbent on the aluminum foil in a layer about 1 centimeter to 2 centimeters thick. Dry for 24 hours at 160 °C ±1 °C. Pulverize the magnesia with mortar and pestle. Sieve the pulverized adsorbent between 60-180 mesh. Use the magnesia retained on the 180-mesh sieve.
</P>
<P><I>Celite 545.</I> Johns Mansville Company, diatomaceous earth, or equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Magnesium oxide-Celite 545 mixture (2 + 1) by weight.</I> Place the magnesium oxide (60-180 mesh) and the Celite 545 in 2 to 1 proportions, respectively, by weight in a glass-stoppered flask large enough for adequate mixing. Shake vigorously for 10 minutes. Transfer the mixture to a glass trough lined with aluminum foil (free from rolling oil) and spread it out on a layer about 1 centimeter to 2 centimeters thick. Reheat the mixture at 160 °C ±1 °C for 2 hours, and store in a tightly closed flask.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium sulfate, anhydrous, A.C.S. reagent grade, preferably in granular form.</I> For each bottle of sodium sulfate reagent used, establish as follows the necessary sodium sulfate prewash to provide such filters required in the method: Place approximately 35 grams of anhydrous sodium sulfate in a 30-milliliter course, fritted-glass funnel or in a 65-millimeter filter funnel with glass wool plug; wash with successive 15-milliliter portions of the indicated solvent until a 15-milliliter portion of the wash shows 0.00 absorbance per centimeter path length between 280 mµ and 400 mµ when tested as prescribed under “Organic solvents.” Usually three portions of wash solvent are sufficient.
</P>
<P>Before proceeding with analysis of a sample, determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter path cell between 250 millimicrons and 400 millimicrons for the reagent blank by carrying out the procedure, without an oil sample, recording the spectra after the extraction stage and after the complete procedure as prescribed. The absorbance per centimeter pathlength following the extraction stage should not exceed 0.02 in the wavelength range from 280 mµ to 400 mµ; the absorbance per centimeter pathlength following the complete procedure should not exceed 0.02 in the wavelength range from 280 mµ to 400 mµ. If in either spectrum the characteristic benzene peaks in the 250 mµ-260 mµ region are present, remove the benzene by the procedure under “Organic solvents” and record absorbance again.
</P>
<P>Place 300 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide in a 1-liter separatory funnel and add 75 milliliters of phosphoric acid. Mix the contents of the funnel and allow to stand for 10 minutes. (The reaction between the sulfoxide and the acid is exothermic. Release pressure after mixing, then keep funnel stoppered.) Add 150 milliliters of isooctane and shake to pre-equilibrate the solvents. Draw off the individual layers and store in glass-stoppered flasks.
</P>
<P>Weigh a 20-gram sample of the oil and transfer to a 500-milliliter separatory funnel containing 100 milliliters of pre-equilibrated sulfoxide-phosphoric acid mixture. Complete the transfer of the sample with small portions of preequilibrated isooctane to give a total volume of the oil and solvent of 75 milliliters. Shake the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Set up three 250-milliliter separatory funnels with each containing 30 milliliters of pre-equilibrated isooctane. After separation of liquid phases, carefully draw off lower layer into the first 250-milliliter separatory funnel and wash in tandem with the 30-milliliter portions of isooctane contained in the 250-milliliter separatory funnels. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Repeat the extraction operation with two additional portions of the sulfoxide-acid mixture and wash each extractive in tandem through the same three portions of isooctane.
</P>
<P>Collect the successive extractives (300 milliliters total) in a separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter) containing 480 milliliters of distilled water; mix, and allow to cool for a few minutes after the last extractive has been added. Add 80 milliliters of isooctane to the solution and extract by shaking the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Draw off the lower aqueous layer into a second separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter) and repeat the extraction with 80 milliliters of isooctane. Draw off and discard the aqueous layer. Wash each of the 80-milliliter extractives three times with 100-milliliter portions of distilled water. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Discard the aqueous layers. Filter the first extractive through anhydrous sodium sulfate prewashed with isooctane (see Sodium sulfate under “Reagents and Materials” for preparation of filter) into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask (or optionally into the evaporation flask). Wash the first separatory funnel with the second 80-milliliter isooctane extractive and pass through the sodium sulfate. Then wash the second and first separatory funnels successively with a 20-milliliter portion of isooctane and pass the solvent through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate the isooctane on the steam bath under nitrogen. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. To the residue, add a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane, reevaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane, and repeat this operation once.
</P>
<P>Quantitatively transfer the residue with isooctane to a 200-milliliter volumetric flask, make to volume, and mix. Determine the absorbance of the solution in the 1-centimeter pathlength cells compared to isooctane as reference between 280 mµ-400 mµ (take care to lose none of the solution in filling the sample cell). Correct the absorbance values for any absorbance derived from reagents as determined by carrying out the procedure without an oil sample. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits prescribed in this paragraph, the oil meets the ultraviolet absorbance specifications. If the corrected absorbance per centimeter pathlength exceeds the limits prescribed in this paragraph, proceed as follows: Quantitatively transfer the isooctane solution to a 125-milliliter flask equipped with 24/40 joint, and evaporate the isooctane on the steam bath under a stream of nitrogen to a volume of 1 milliliter of hexadecane. Add 10 milliliters of methyl alcohol and approximately 0.3 gram of sodium borohydride. (Minimize exposure of the borohydride to the atmosphere. A measuring dipper may be used.) Immediately fit a water-cooled condenser equipped with a 24/40 joint and with a drying tube into the flask, mix until the borohydride is dissolved, and allow to stand for 30 minutes at room temperature, with intermittent swirling. At the end of this period, disconnect the flask and evaporate the methyl alcohol on the steam bath under nitrogen until the sodium borohydride begins to come out of the solution. Then add 10 milliliters of isooctane and evaporate to a volume of about 2-3 milliliters. Again, add 10 milliliters of isooctane and concentrate to a volume of approximately 5 milliliters. Swirl the flask repeatedly to assure adequate washing of the sodium borohydride residues.
</P>
<P>Fit the tetrafluoroethylene polymer disc on the upper part of the stem of the chromatographic tube, then place the tube with the disc on the suction flask and apply the vacuum (approximately 135 millimeters Hg pressure). Weigh out 14 grams of the 2:1 magnesium oxide-Celite 545 mixture and pour the adsorbent mixture into the chromatographic tube in approximately 3-centimeter layers. After the addition of each layer, level off the top of the adsorbent with a flat glass rod or metal plunger by pressing down firmly until the adsorbent is well packed. Loosen the topmost few millimeters of each adsorbent layer with the end of a metal rod before the addition of the next layer. Continue packing in this manner until all the 14 grams of the adsorbent is added to the tube. Level off the top of the adsorbent by pressing down firmly with a flat glass rod or metal plunger to make the depth of the adsorbent bed approximately 12.5 centimeters in depth. Turn off the vacuum and remove the suction flask. Fit the 500-milliliter reservoir onto the top of the chromatographic column and prewet the column by passing 100 milliliters of isooctane through the column. Adjust the nitrogen pressure so that the rate of descent of the isooctane coming off the column is between 2-3 milliliters per minute. Discontinue pressure just before the last of the isooctane reaches the level of the adsorbent. (Caution: Do not allow the liquid level to recede below the adsorbent level at any time.) Remove the reservoir and decant the 5-milliliter isooctane concentrate solution onto the column and with slight pressure again allow the liquid level to recede to barely above the adsorbent level. Rapidly complete the transfer similarly with two 5-milliliter portions of isooctane, swirling the flask repeatedly each time to assure adequate washing of the residue. Just before the final 5-milliliter wash reaches the top of the adsorbent, add 100 milliliters of isooctane to the reservoir and continue the percolation at the 2-3 milliliters per minute rate. Just before the last of the isooctane reaches the adsorbent level, add 100 milliliters of 10 percent benzene in isooctane to the reservoir and continue the percolation at the aforementioned rate. Just before the solvent mixture reaches adsorbent level, add 25 milliliters of 20 percent benzene in isooctane to the reservoir and continue the percolation at 2-3 milliliters per minute until all this solvent mixture has been removed from the column. Discard all the elution solvents collected up to this point. Add 300 milliliters of the acetone-benzene-water mixture to the reservoir and percolate through the column to eluate the polynuclear compounds. Collect the eluate in a clean 1-liter separatory funnel. Allow the column to drain until most of the solvent mixture is removed. Wash the eluate three times with 300-milliliter portions of distilled water, shaking well for each wash. (The addition of small amounts of sodium chloride facilitates separation.) Discard the aqueous layer after each wash. After the final separation, filter the residual benzene through anhydrous sodium sulfate pre-washed with benzene (see Sodium sulfate under “Reagents and Materials” for preparation of filter) into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask (or optionally into the evaporation flask). Wash the separatory funnel with two additional 20-milliliter portions of benzene which are also filtered through the sodium sulfate. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and completely remove the benzene by evaporation under nitrogen, using the special procedure to eliminate benzene as previously described under “Organic solvents.” Quantitatively transfer the residue with isooctane to a 200-milliliter volumetric flask and adjust to volume. Determine the absorbance of the solution in the 1-centimeter pathlength cells compared to isooctane as reference between 250 mµ-400 mµ. Correct for any absorbance derived from the reagents as determined by carrying out the procedure without an oil sample. If either spectrum shows the characteristic benzene peaks in the 250 mµ-260 mµ region, evaporate the solution to remove benzene by the procedure under “Organic solvents.” Dissolve the residue, transfer quantitatively, and adjust to volume in isooctane in a 200-milliliter volumetric flask. Record the absorbance again. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits proposed in this paragraph, the oil meets the proposed ultraviolet absorbance specifications.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Mineral oil identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section may be used as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The mineral oil consists of virgin petroleum distillates refined to meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Distillation endpoint at 760 millimeters pressure not to exceed 371 °C, with a maximum residue not to exceed 2 percent, as determined by ASTM method D86-82, “Standard Method for Distillation of Petroleum Products,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ultraviolet absorbance limits as follows as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength (mµ)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorb-ance per centimeter optical pathlength
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 319</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">320 to 359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360 to 400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Pyrene content not to exceed a maximum of 25 parts per million as determined by the method described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The mineral oil may be used only in the processing of jute fiber employed in the production of textile bags intended for use in contact with the following types of food: Dry grains and dry seeds (for example, beans, peas, rice, and lentils); whole root crop vegetables of the types identified in 40 CFR 180.34(f); unshelled and shelled nuts (including peanuts); and dry animal feed. The finished processed jute fiber shall contain no more than 6 percent by weight of residual mineral oil.
</P>
<P>(3) The analytical method for determining ultraviolet absorbance limits and pyrene content is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I. <I>Apparatus.</I> A. Assorted beakers, separatory funnels fitted with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcocks, and graduated cylinders.
</P>
<P>B. Volumetric flasks, 200-milliliter.
</P>
<P>C. A chromatographic column made from nominal 1.3 centimeters outside diameter × 75 centimeters glass tubing tapered at one end and joined to a 2-millimeter-bore tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock. The opposite end is flanged and joined to a female 24/40 standard taper fitting. This provides for accommodating the 500-milliliter reservoir described in item I.E below. 
</P>
<P>D. A chromatographic column made from nominal 1.7 centimeters outside diameter × 115 centimeters glass tubing tapered at one end and joined to a 2-millimeter-bore tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock. The opposite end is flanged and joined to a 2.5 centimeters outside diameter × 9.0 centimeters glass tube having a female 24/40 standard taper fitting. This provides for accommodating the 500-milliliter reservoir described in item I. E below.
</P>
<P>E. A 500-milliliter reservoir having a 24/40 standard taper male fitting at bottom and a suitable ball joint at the top for connecting to the nitrogen supply. The female fitting of the chromatographic columns described in items I. C and D above and the male fitting of the reservoir described in this item E should both be equipped with glass hooks.
</P>
<P>(<E T="04">Note:</E> Rubber stoppers are not to be used. Stopcock grease is not to be used on ground-glass joints in this method.)
</P>
<P>F. A spectrophotometer equipped to automatically record absorbance of liquid samples in 1-centimeter pathlength cells in the spectral region of 280-400 mµ with a spectral slit width of 2 mµ or less. At an absorbance level of about 0.4, absorbance measurements shall be repeatable within ±0.01 and accurate within ±0.05. Wavelength measurements shall be repeatable with ±0.2 mµ and accurate within ±1.0 mµ. Instrument operating conditions are selected to realize this performance under dynamic (automatic) recording operations. Accuracy of absorbance measurements are determined at 290, 345, and 400 mµ, using potassium chromate as the reference standard. (National Bureau of Standards Circular 484, Spectrophotometry, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1949.)
</P>
<P>G. Two fused quartz cells having pathlengths of 1.00±0.005 centimeter or better.
</P>
<P>II. <I>Purity of reagents and materials.</I> Reagent-grade chemicals shall be used in all tests. It is further specified that each chemical shall be tested for purity in accordance with the instruction given under “Reagents and Materials” in III below. In addition, a blank run by the procedure shall be made on each purified lot of reagents and materials. Unless otherwise indicated, references to water shall be understood to mean distilled water.
</P>
<P>III. <I>Reagents and materials—</I> A. <I>Organic solvents.</I> All solvents used throughout the procedure shall meet the specifications and tests described in this section III. The isooctane, benzene, cyclohexane, nitromethane, and <I>n</I>-hexadecane designated shall pass the following test: To the specified quantity of solvent in a 150-milliliter beaker, add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate on the steam bath under a stream of nitrogen. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains (to the residue from benzene and nitromethane add a 10-milliliter portion of purified isooctane, re-evaporate, and repeat once to insure complete removal of solvent). Dissolve the 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane residue in isooctane and make to 10-milliliter volume. Determine the absorbance in 1.0-centimeter pathlength cells compared to water as reference. The absorbance of the solution of solvent residue shall not exceed 0.05 between 280 and 400 mµ.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Isooctane</I> (<I>2,2,4-trimethylpentane</I>). Use 240 milliliters for the above test. Purify, if necessary, by passage through a column of activated silica gel.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Benzene.</I> Use 200 milliliters for the above test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Cyclohexane.</I> Use 70 milliliters for the above test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation, silica gel percolation, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Nitromethane.</I> Use 125 milliliters for the above test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P>5. <I>n-Hexadecane.</I> Determine the absorbance on this solvent directly. Purify, if necessary, by silica gel percolation or otherwise.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Other materials—</I>1. <I>Pyrene standard reference.</I> Pyrene, reagent grade, melting point range 150-152 °C. (Organic Chemical 3627, Eastman Kodak Co., Rochester, N.Y., or equivalent). The standard reference absorbance is the absorbance at 334 millimicrons of a standard reference solution of pyrene containing a concentration of 1.0 milligram per liter in purified isooctane measured against isooctane of the same spectral purity in 1.0-centimeter cells. (This absorbance will be approximately 0.28.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Chrysene solution.</I> Prepare a solution at a concentration of 5.0 milligrams per liter by dissolving 5.0 milligrams of chrysene in purified isooctane in a 1-liter volumetric flask. Adjust to volume with isooctane.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Nitrogen gas.</I> Water pumped or equivalent purity, cylinder with regulator, and valve control flow at 5 p.s.i.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Silica gel.</I> 100-200 mesh (Davison Chemical, Baltimore, Md., Grade 923, or equivalent), purified and activated by the following procedure: Place about 1 kilogram of silica gel in a large column and wash with contaminant-free benzene until a 200-milliliter sample of the benzene coming off the column will pass the ultraviolet absorption test for benzene. This test is performed as stipulated under “Organic solvents” in A under III above. When the silica gel has been sufficiently cleaned, activate the gel before use by placing the 1-kilogram batch in a shallow container in a layer no greater than 1 inch in depth and heating in an oven (Caution! Explosion Hazard) at 130 °C. for 16 hours, and store in a vacuum desiccator. Reheating about once a week is necessary if the silica gel is repeatedly removed from the desiccator. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Aluminum oxide</I> (<I>Aluminum Co. of America, Grade F-20, or equivalent grade</I>). 80-200 mesh, purified and activated by the following procedure: Place about 1 kilogram of aluminum oxide in a large column and wash with contaminant-free benzene until a 200-milliliter sample of the benzene coming off the column will pass the ultraviolet absorption test for benzene. This test is performed as stipulated under “Organic solvents” in A under III above. (Caution! Remove Benzene From Adsorbent Under Vacuum To Minimize Explosion Hazard in Subsequent Heating!) When the aluminum oxide has been sufficiently cleaned and freed of solvent, activate it before use by placing the 1-kilogram batch in a shallow container in a layer no greater than 1 inch in depth. Heat in an oven at 130 °C for 16 hours. Upon removal from heat, store at atmospheric pressure over 80 percent (by weight) sulfuric acid in a desiccator for at least 36 hours before use. This gives aluminum oxide with between 6 to 9.5 percent volatiles. This is determined by heating a weighed sample of the prepared aluminum oxide at 2,000 °F for 2 hours and then quickly reweighing. To insure the proper adsorptive properties of the aluminum oxide, perform the following test:
</P>
<P>a. Weigh 50 grams ±1 gram of the activated aluminum oxide and pack into the chromatographic column (1.3 centimeters × 75 centimeters) described under “Apparatus” in C under I above. Use glass wool at the column exit to prevent the aluminum oxide from passing through the column.
</P>
<P>b. Place a 250-milliliter graduated cylinder under the column to measure the amount of eluate coming from the column.
</P>
<P>c. Prewet the aluminum oxide by passing 40 milliliters of isooctane through the column. Adjust the nitrogen pressure so that the rate of descent of the isooctane coming off the column is between 1.5 to 2.5 milliliters per minute.
</P>
<P>d. Just prior to the last of the isooctane reaching the top of the aluminum oxide bed, add 10 milliliters of the isooctane solution containing 5.0 milligrams of chrysene per liter.
</P>
<P>e. Continue percolation until the isooctane is just above the aluminum oxide. Then add 200 milliliters of a mixture of benzene and isooctane (33
<FR>1/3</FR> percent benzene and 66
<FR>2/3</FR> percent isooctane by volume) to the reservoir and continue percolation.
</P>
<P>f. Continue percolation, collecting the eluates (40 milliliters of the prewet solution, 10 milliliters of the sample solution, and 200 milliliters of the gradient solution) in the 250-milliliter graduated cylinder until the level of the gradient solution is just above the aluminum oxide. Add 200 milliliters of the eluting solution of benzene and isooctane (90 percent benzene and 10 percent isooctane by volume) to the column and continue collecting until a total of 250 milliliters of solution has been obtained. This may be discarded. Now begin to collect the final eluate.
</P>
<P>g. Place a 100-milliliter graduated cylinder under the column and continue the percolation until a 100-milliliter eluate has been obtained.
</P>
<P>h. Measure the amount of chrysene in this 100-milliliter fraction by ultraviolet analysis. If the aluminum oxide is satisfactory, more than 80 percent of the original amount of chrysene should be found in this fraction. (<E T="04">Note:</E> If the amount of chrysene recovered is less than 80 percent, the original batch of aluminum oxide should be sieved between 100-160 mesh. Activation and testing of this sieved batch should indicate a satisfactory aluminum oxide for use.)
</P>
<P>IV. <I>Sampling.</I> Precautions must be taken to insure that an uncontaminated sample of the mineral oil is obtained since ultraviolet absorption is very sensitive to small amounts of extraneous material contaminating the sample through careless handling.
</P>
<P>V. <I>Procedure.</I> A. <I>Blank.</I> Before proceeding with the analysis of a sample, determine the absorbance of the solvent residues by carrying out the procedure without a sample.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Sample.</I> 1. Weigh out 20.0 grams ±0.1 gram of the mineral oil into a beaker and transfer to a 250-milliliter separatory funnel fitted with a tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock, using enough cyclohexane (25 milliliters) to give a final total volume of 50 milliliters (mineral oil plus cyclohexane).
</P>
<P>2. Add 25 milliliters of nitromethane saturated with cyclohexane and shake by hand vigorously for 3 minutes. Recover the lower nitromethane layer in a 150-milliliter beaker containing 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate on the steam bath under nitrogen. Repeat the extraction four more times, recovering each extract in the 150-milliliter beaker. Exercise care not to fill the beaker to such a capacity that solvent losses may occur. Evaporate the combined nitromethane extracts to 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane residue containing the nitromethane-soluble mineral oil extractives. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Complete removal of the nitromethane is essential. This can be assured by two successive additions of 5 milliliters of isooctane and reevaporation.)
</P>
<P>3. Remove the beaker from the steam bath and allow to cool.
</P>
<P>4. Weigh 50 grams ±1 gram of activated aluminum oxide and pack into the chromatographic column (1.3 centimeters × 75 centimeters) described under “Apparatus” in C under I above. (<E T="04">Note:</E> A small plug of glass wool is placed at the column exit to prevent the aluminum oxide from passing through the column. After adding aluminum oxide, tap the column lightly to remove air voids. All percolations using aluminum oxide are performed under nitrogen pressure. The 500-milliliter reservoir described under “Apparatus” in E under I above is to be used to hold the elution solvents.)
</P>
<P>5. Prewet the column by adding 40 milliliters of isooctane to the column. Adjust nitrogen pressure so that rate of descent of the isooctane coming off the column is 2.0 to 3.0 milliliters per minute. Be careful to maintain the level of solvent in the reservoir to prevent air from entering the aluminum oxide bed. New or additional solvent is added just before the last portion of the previous solvent enters the bed. To minimize possible photo-oxidation effects, the following procedures (steps 6 through 18) shall be carried out in subdued light.
</P>
<P>6. Before the last of the isooctane reaches the top of the aluminum oxide bed, release the nitrogen pressure and turn off the stopcock on the column. Transfer the <I>n</I>-hexadecane residue from the 150-milliliter beaker from procedure step 3 above onto the column, using several washes of isooctane (total volume of washes should be no greater than 10-15 milliliters).
</P>
<P>7. Open the stopcock and continue percolation until the isooctane is about 1 centimeter above the top of the aluminum oxide bed. Add 200 milliliters of isooctane to the reservoir, and continue the percolation at the specified rate.
</P>
<P>8. Just before the isooctane surface reaches the top of the aluminum oxide bed, add 200 milliliters of a mixture of benzene and isooctane (33
<FR>1/3</FR> percent benzene and 66
<FR>2/3</FR> percent isooctane by volume) to the reservoir, and continue the percolation.
</P>
<P>9. Just before the surface of this mixture reaches the top of the aluminum oxide bed, release the nitrogen pressure, turn off the stopcock, and discard all the elution solvents collected up to this point.
</P>
<P>10. Add to the reservoir 300 milliliters of a mixture of benzene and isooctane (90 percent benzene and 10 percent isooctane by volume), place a 25-milliliter graduated cylinder under the column, continue the percolation until 20 milliliters of eluate has been collected, and then discard the eluate.
</P>
<P>11. At this point, place a clean 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask under the column. Continue the percolation and collect all the remaining eluate.
</P>
<P>(<E T="04">Note:</E> Allow the column to drain completely. An increase in the nitrogen pressure may be necessary as the last of the solvent comes off the column.)
</P>
<P>12. Place 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane into a 150-milliliter beaker. Place this onto a steam bath under a nitrogen stream and transfer in small portions the eluate from step 11 above. Wash out the Erlenmeyer flask with small amounts of benzene and transfer to the evaporation beaker. Evaporate until only 1 milliliter of hexadecane residue remains. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Complete removal of the benzene is essential. This can be assured by two successive additions of 5 milliliters of isooctane and reevaporation.)
</P>
<P>13. Remove the beaker from the steam bath and cool.
</P>
<P>14. Place a sample of 113.5 grams activated 100- 200-mesh silica gel in a 500-milliliter glass-stoppered Erlenmeyer flask. Add to the silica gel 46.2 grams (41 milliliters) of nitromethane. Stopper and shake the flask vigorously until no lumps of silica gel are observed and then shake occasionally during a period of 1 hour. The resultant nitromethane-treated silica gel is 29 weight-percent nitro-methane and 71 weight-percent silica gel.
</P>
<P>15. Place a small plug of glass wool in the tapered end of the 1.7 centimeters outside diameter × 115 centimeters column, described under “Apparatus” in D of I above, adjacent to the stopcock to prevent silica gel from passing through the stopcock. Pack the nitromethane-treated silica gel into the column, tapping lightly. The resultant silica gel bed should be about 95 centimeters in depth. Place into a flask 170 milliliters of isooctane saturated with nitromethane.
</P>
<P>16. Place a 100-milliliter graduated cylinder under the column and transfer the residue from the beaker in procedure step 13 above with several washes of the 170 milliliters of isooctane, saturated with nitromethane, onto the top of the column. (Total volume of washes should be no greater than 10 to 15 milliliters.) Permit isooctane solution to enter the silica gel bed until the liquid level is at the top bed level. Place the remaining amount of the 170 milliliters of isooctane, saturated with nitromethane, in the reservoir above the bed for percolation through the silica gel. Apply nitrogen pressure to the top of the column, adjusting the pressure so that the isooctane is collected at the rate of 2.5 to 3.5 milliliters per minute, and percolate isooctane through the bed until a quantity of 75.0 milliliters of eluate is collected. Discard the 75 milliliters of eluate. Turn off the stopcock and add 250 milliliters of benzene to the reservoir above the bed. Use a 400-milliliter beaker to collect the remaining eluate.
</P>
<P>17. Open the stopcock, renew the pressure, and percolate the remaining isooctane and benzene through the column eluting the remaining aromatics. Transfer the eluate in small portions from the 400 milliliter beaker to a 150-milliliter beaker containing 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate on the steam bath under nitrogen. Rinse the 400-milliliter beaker well with small portions of isooctane to obtain a complete transfer.
</P>
<P>(<E T="04">Note:</E> Complete removal of the nitromethane and benzene is essential. This can be assured by successive additions of 5 milliliters of isooctane and reevaporation.)
</P>
<P>18. Transfer the residue with several washes of isooctane into a 200-milliliter volumetric flask. Add isooctane to mark. 
</P>
<P>19. Record the spectrum of the sample solution in a 1-centimeter cell compared to isooctane from 270 to 400 mµ. After making necessary corrections in the spectrum for cell differences and for the blank absorbance, record the maximum absorbance in each of the wavelength intervals (mµ), 280-299, 300-319, 320-359, 360-400.
</P>
<P>a. If the spectrum then shows no discernible peak corresponding to the absorbance maximum of the pyrene reference standard solution at 334 mµ, the maximum absorbances in the respective wavelength intervals recorded shall not exceed those prescribed in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>b. If such a peak is evident in the spectrum of the sample solution, and the spectrum as a whole is not incompatible with that of a pyrene contaminant yielding such a peak of the observed absorbance, calculate the concentration of pyrene that would yield this peak (334 m) by the base-line technique described in ASTM method E169-63 (Reapproved 1981), “Standard Recommended Practices for General Techniques of Ultraviolet Quantitative Analysis,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. Correct each of the maximum absorbances in the respective specified wavelength intervals by subtracting the absorbance due to pyrene, determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.407.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Cp = Calculated concentration of pyrene in sample solution;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sp = Concentration of pyrene reference standard solution in same units of concentration;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sa = Absorbance of pyrene reference standard solution at wavelength of maximum absorbance of sample solution in the respective specified wavelength intervals.
</FP-2>
<P>Also calculate the pyrene content of the oil sample in parts per million as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.408.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C = Calculated concentration of pyrene in milligrams per liter of sample solution.
</FP-2>
<P>c. The pyrene content so determined shall not exceed 25 p.p.m. The maximum absorbances corrected for pyrene content as described in this step 19 for each of the specified wavelength intervals shall not exceed the limits prescribed in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>d. If the spectrum as a whole of the sample solution is in any respect clearly incompatible with the presence of pyrene as the source of the peak at 334 mµ, then the maximum absorbances in the respective wavelength intervals without correction for any assumed pyrene content shall not exceed the limits prescribed in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11847, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10112, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3650" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3650   Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons.</HEAD>
<P>Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons may be safely used, as a component of nonfood articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons derived from petroleum or synthesized from petroleum gases. The additive is chiefly paraffinic, isoparaffinic, or naphthenic in nature.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Odor is faint and not kerosenic.
</P>
<P>(2) Initial boiling point is 300 °F minimum.
</P>
<P>(3) Final boiling point is 650 °F maximum.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet absorbance limits determined by method specified in § 178.3620(b)(1)(ii), as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength (Mµ)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorbance per centimeter optical pathlength
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330 to 360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The additive is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a plasticizer and absorber oil in the manufacture of polyolefin articles authorized for food contact use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In an amount not to exceed that required to produce intended effect, consistent with good manufacturing practice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a lubricant of fibers of textiles authorized for food contact use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a use level not to exceed 0.15 percent by weight of finished fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a component of adhesives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 175.105 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a defoamer in the manufacture of paper and paperboard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 176.210 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As a defoamer in coatings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 176.200 of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3690" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3690   Pentaerythritol adipate-stearate.</HEAD>
<P>Pentaerythritol adipate-stearate identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as a lubricant in the fabrication of rigid and semi-rigid polyvinyl chloride and/or vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter used as articles or components of articles that contact food, excluding food with alcohol content greater than 8 percent under conditions of use of E, F, and G described in table 2 in § 175.300(d) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, pentaerythritol adipate-stearate is an ester of pentaerythritol with adipic acid and stearic acid and its associated fatty acids (chiefly palmitic), with adipic acid comprising 14 percent and stearic acid and its associated acids (chiefly palmitic) comprising 71 percent of the organic moieties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Pentaerythritol adipate-stearate has the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Melting point (dropping) of 55-58 °C as determined by ASTM method D566-76 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Dropping Point of Lubricating Grease,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Acid value not to exceed 15 as determined by ASTM method D1386-78, “Standard Test Method for Saponification Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) Saponification number of 270-280 as determined by ASTM method D1387-78, “Standard Test Method for Acid Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) Iodine number not to exceed 2 as determined by Iodine Absorption Number, Hanus Method, of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” sections 28.018-28.019, 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) The total amount of ester (calculated as free pentaerythritol) shall not exceed 0.4 percent by weight of the polyvinyl chloride and/or the vinyl chloride-propylene copolymers complying with § 177.1980.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 1018, Jan. 4, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 11848, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10112, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 57 FR 18082, Apr. 29, 1992; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3700" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3700   Petrolatum.</HEAD>
<P>Petrolatum may be safety used as a component of nonfood articles in contact with food, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Petrolatum complies with the specifications set forth in the United States Pharmacopeia XX (1980) for white petrolatum or in the National Formulary XV (1980) for yellow petrolatum.
</P>
<P>(b) Petrolatum meets the following ultraviolet absorbance limits when subjected to the analytical procedure described in § 172.886(b) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>Ultraviolet absorbance per centimeter pathlength:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Millimicrons
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360 to 400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.04</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as a protective coating of the surfaces of metal or wood tanks used in fermentation process, in an amount not in excess of that required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(d) Petrolatum as defined by this section may be used for the functions described and within the limitations prescribed by specific regulations in parts 175, 176, 177, and 178 of this chapter which prescribe uses of petrolatum. For the purpose of cross-reference, such specific regulations include: §§ 175.105, 175.125, 175.300, 176.170, 176.200, 176.210, 177.2600, 177.2800, and 178.3570 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Petrolatum may contain any antioxidant permitted in food by regulations issued pursuant to section 409 of the act, in an amount not greater than that required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10113, Mar. 19, 1984; 55 FR 12172, Apr. 2, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3710" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3710   Petroleum wax.</HEAD>
<P>Petroleum wax may be safely used as a component of nonfood articles in contact with food, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Petroleum wax is a mixture of solid hydrocarbons, paraffinic in nature, derived from petroleum, and refined to meet the specifications prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The petroleum wax meets the following ultraviolet absorbance limits when subjected to the analytical procedure described in § 172.886(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Ultraviolet absorbance per centimeter pathlength:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Millimicrons
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360 to 400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Petroleum wax may contain any antioxidant permitted in food by regulations issued in accordance with section 409 of the act, in an amount not greater than that required to produce its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(d) Petroleum wax may contain a total of not more than 1 weight percent of residues of the following polymers when such residues result from use of the polymers as processing aids (filter aids) in the production of the petroleum wax: Homopolymers and/or copolymers derived from one or more of the mixed <I>n</I>-alkyl (C<E T="52">12</E>, C<E T="52">14</E>, C<E T="52">16</E>, and C<E T="52">18</E>) methacrylate esters where the C<E T="52">12</E> and C<E T="52">14</E> alkyl groups are derived from coconut oil and the C<E T="52">16</E> and C<E T="52">18</E> groups are derived from tallow.
</P>
<P>(e) Petroleum wax may contain 2-hydroxy-4-<I>n</I>-octoxybenzophenone as a stabilizer at a level not to exceed 0.01 weight percent of the petroleum wax.
</P>
<P>(f) Petroleum wax may contain poly(alkylacrylate) (CAS Reg. No. 27029-57-8), as described in § 172.886(c)(2) of this chapter, as a processing aid in the manufacture of petroleum wax.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 19545, May 30, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3720" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3720   Petroleum wax, synthetic.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic petroleum wax may be safely used in applications and under the same conditions where naturally derived petroleum wax is permitted in subchapter B of this chapter as a component of articles intended to contact food, provided that the synthetic petroleum wax meets the definition and specifications prescribed in § 172.888 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3725" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3725   Pigment dispersants.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the provisions of this regulation, the substances listed in this section may be safely used as pigment dispersants in food-contact materials.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylolpropionic acid (CAS Reg. No. 4767-03-7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.45 percent by weight of the pigment. The pigmented articles may contact all foods under conditions of use A through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorylated tall oil fatty acids (CAS Reg. No. 68604-99-9), prepared by the reaction of dimethyl hydrogen phosphite with tall oil fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the pigment. The pigmented polymeric films may contact all food under conditions of use D, E, F, and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propanoic acid, 3-hydroxy-2-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methyl-, compd. with 1,1′,1″-nitrilotris [2-propanol] (1:1) (CAS Reg. No. 221281-21-6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.45 percent by weight of the pigment. The pigmented articles may contact all food under conditions of use A through H as described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Siloxanes and silicones; cetylmethyl, dimethyl, methyl 11-methoxy-11-oxoundecyl (CAS Reg. No. 155419-59-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the pigment. The pigmented polymers may contact all foods under conditions of use C, D, E, F, and G described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trimethylolethane (CAS Reg. No. 77-85-0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.45 percent by weight of inorganic pigment. The pigmented articles may contact all food under conditions of use A through H described in Table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 43157, Aug. 21, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 35799, July 1, 1998; 64 FR 48292, Sept. 3, 1999; 64 FR 72273, Dec. 27, 1999; 65 FR 52909, Aug. 31, 2000]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3730" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3730   Piperonyl butoxide and pyrethrins as components of bags.</HEAD>
<P>Piperonyl butoxide in combination with pyrethrins may be safely used for insect control on bags that are intended for use in contact with dried feed or dried food in compliance with 40 CFR 180.127 and 40 CFR 180.128. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3740" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3740   Plasticizers in polymeric substances.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the provisions of this regulation, the substances listed in paragraph (b) of this section may be safely used as plasticizers in polymeric substances used in the manufacture of articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food.
</P>
<P>(a) The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(b) List of substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Butylene glycoladipic acid polyester (1,700-2,200 molecular weight) terminated with a 16 percent by weight mixture of myristic, palmitic, and stearic acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at levels not exceeding 33 percent by weight of polyvinyl chloride homopolymers used in contact with food (except foods that contain more than 8 percent of alcohol) at temperatures not to exceed room temperature. The average thickness of such homopolymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.004 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(C<E T="52">7</E>, C<E T="52">9</E>-alkyl) adipate, in which the C<E T="52">7</E>, C<E T="52">9</E>-alkyl groups are derived from linear alpha olefins by the oxo process</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only under the conditions listed below, and excluding use as a component of resinous and polymeric coatings described in § 175.300 of this chapter.
<br/>1. At levels not to exceed 24 percent by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with nonfatty foods. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/>2. At levels not to exceed 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact, under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, with fatty foods having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 40 pct by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/>3. At levels not exceeding 35 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with nonfatty foods. The average thickness of such polymer in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.002 inch.
<br/>4. At levels not exceeding 35 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact, under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter with fatty foods having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 40 pct by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.002 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-<E T="03">n</E>-alkyl adipate made from C<E T="52">6</E> C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">10</E> (predominately C<E T="52">8</E> and C<E T="52">10</E>) or C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">10</E> synthetic fatty alcohols complying with § 172.864 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not exceeding 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with nonfatty foods. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/>2. At levels not exceeding 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact, under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, with fatty foods having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 40 pct by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/>3. At levels not exceeding 35 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with nonfatty foods. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.002 inch.
<br/>4. At levels not exceeding 35 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact, under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, with fatty foods having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 40 pct by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.002 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclohexyl phthalate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. As provided in §§ 175.105, 176.170, 176.180, and 177.1200 of this chapter.
<br/>2. Alone or in combination with other phthalates, in plastic film or sheet prepared from polyvinyl acetate, polyvinyl chloride, and/or vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter. Such plastic film or sheet shall be used in contact with food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature and shall contain no more than 10 pct by weight of total phthalates, calculated as phthalic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl) adipate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisononyl adipate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not exceeding 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with nonfatty, nonalcoholic foods. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/>2. At levels not exceeding 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter with fatty, nonalcoholic foods having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 30 pct by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
<br/>3. At levels not exceeding 35 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with nonfatty, nonalcoholic foods. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.002 inch.
<br/>4. At levels not exceeding 35 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact, under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter with fatty, nonalcoholic foods having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 40 pct by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.002 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisononyl phthalate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not exceeding 43 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, IV-B, and VIII, at temperatures not exceeding room temperature. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.005 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl) azelate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. At levels not exceeding 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact with nonfatty, nonalcoholic food. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.003 inch.
<br/>2. At levels not exceeding 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact, under conditions of use F and G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, with fatty, nonalcoholic food having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 30 percent by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.003 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-<E T="03">n</E>-hexylazelate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In polymeric substances used in contact with nonfatty food.
<br/>2. In polymeric substances used in contact with fatty food and limited to use at levels not exceeding 15 pct by weight of such polymeric substance except as provided under limitation 3.
<br/>3. At levels greater than 15 but not exceeding 24 pct by weight of permitted vinyl chloride homo- and/or copolymers used in contact, under conditions of use F or G described in table 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, with fatty food having a fat and oil content not exceeding a total of 30 pct by weight. The average thickness of such polymers in the form in which they contact food shall not exceed 0.003 inch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized butyl esters of linseed oil fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodine number, maximum 5; oxirane oxygen, minimum 7.8 pct.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized linseed oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodine number, maximum 5; oxirane oxygen, minimum 9-pct.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil, white
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated (minimum viscosity at 99 °F, 39 Saybolt Universal seconds, as determined by ASTM methods D445-82 (“Standard Test Method for Kinematic Viscosity of Transparent and Opaque Liquids (and the Calculation of Dynamic Viscosity)”) and D2161-82 (“Standard Method for Conversion of Kinematic Viscosity to Saybolt Universal Viscosity or to Saybolt Furol Viscosity”), and bromine number of 3 or less, as determined by ASTM method D1492-78 (“Standard Test Method for Bromine Index of Aromatic Hydrocarbons by Coulometric Titration”), which are incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only:
<br/>1. In polymeric substances used in contact with non-fatty food.
<br/>2. In polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter and used in contact with fatty food, provided that the hydrogenated polybutene is added in an amount not to exceed 0.5 pct by weight of the polyethylene, and further provided that such plasticized polyethylene shall not be used as a component of articles intended for packing or holding food during cooking.
<br/>3. In polystyrene complying with § 177.1640 of this chapter and used in contact with fatty food, provided that the hydrogenated polybutene is added in an amount not to exceed 5 pct by weight of the polystyrene, and further provided that such plasticized polystyrene shall not be used as a component of articles intended for packing or holding food during cooking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyisobutylene (mol weight 300-5,000)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use in polyethylene complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter, provided that the polyisobutylene is added in an amount not exceeding 0.5 pct by weight of the polyethylene, and further provided that such plasticized polyethylene shall not be used as a component of articles intended for packing or holding food during cooking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyisobutylene complying with § 177.1420 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene glycol (CAS registry No. 25322-69-4) (minimum mean molecular weight 1,200)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in polystyrene plastics, identified in § 177.1640(a)(1), in an amount not to exceed 6 pct by weight of the finished food-contact article.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene glycol azelate (average mol. weight 3,000)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not exceeding 41 pct by weight of permitted polyvinyl chloride coatings. Such coatings shall be used only as bulk food contact surfaces of articles intended for repeated use, complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diethylene glycol content not to exceed 0.1 pct.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,2,4-Trimethyl-1,3-pentanediol diisobutyrate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in cellulosic plastics in an amount not to exceed 15 pct by weight of the finished food-contact article, provided that the finished plastic article contacts food only of the types identified in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, table 1, under Categories I, II, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The use of the plasticizers in any polymeric substance or article subject to any regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and 179 of this chapter must comply with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the finished form of the substance or article.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 44223, Sept. 2, 1977; 45 FR 56052, Aug. 22, 1980; 48 FR 5748, Feb. 15, 1984; 49 FR 10113, Mar. 19, 1984; 51 FR 47011, Dec. 30, 1986; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3750" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3750   Polyethylene glycol (mean molecular weight 200-9,500).</HEAD>
<P>Polyethylene glycol identified in this section may be safely used as a component of articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is an addition polymer of ethylene oxide and water with a mean molecular weight of 200 to 9,500.
</P>
<P>(b) It contains no more than 0.2 percent total by weight of ethylene and diethylene glycols if its mean molecular weight is 350 or higher and no more than 0.5 percent total by weight of ethylene and diethylene glycols if its mean molecular weight is below 350, when tested by the analytical methods prescribed in § 172.820(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section are not applicable to polyethylene glycols used in food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3760" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3760   Polyethylene glycol (400) monolaurate.</HEAD>
<P>Polyethylene glycol (400) monolaurate containing not more than 0.1 percent by weight of ethylene and/or diethylene glycol may be used at a level not to exceed 0.3 percent by weight of twine as a finish on twine to be used for tying meat provided the twine fibers are produced from nylon resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3770" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3770   Polyhydric alcohol esters of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids.</HEAD>
<P>Polyhydric alcohol esters of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids identified in this section may be safely used as components of articles intended for use in contact with food in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The polyhydric alcohol esters identified in this paragraph may be used as lubricants in the fabrication of vinyl chloride plastic food-contact articles prepared from polyvinyl chloride and/or from vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter. Such esters meet the following specifications and are produced by partial esterification of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids by either ethylene glycol or 1,3-butanediol with or without neutralization of unreacted carboxylic groups with calcium hydroxide:
</P>
<P>(1) Dropping point 76°-105 °C, as determined by ASTM method D566-76 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Dropping Point of Lubricating Grease,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Acid value 10-20, as determined by ASTM method D1386-78 (“Standard Test Method for Acid Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978), which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) using as solvent xylene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio instead of toluene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio.
</P>
<P>(3) Saponification value 100-160, as determined by ASTM method D1387-78 (“Standard Test Method for Saponification Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978), which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) using xylene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio instead of ethyl alcohol in preparation of potassium hydroxide solution.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet absorbance limits as follows, as determined by the analytical method described in this subparagraph:
</P>
<P>Ultraviolet absorbance per centimeter pathlength.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Millimicrons
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360 to 400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Analytical Method
</HD1>
<HD1>general instructions
</HD1>
<P>Because of the sensitivity of the test, the possibility of errors arising from contamination is great. It is of the greatest importance that all glassware be scrupulously cleaned to remove all organic matter such as oil, grease, detergent residues, etc. Examine all glassware, including stoppers and stopcocks, under ultraviolet light to detect any residual fluorescent contamination. As a precautionary measure it is recommended practice to rinse all glassware with purified isooctane immediately before use. No grease is to be used on stopcocks or joints. Great care to avoid contamination of wax samples in handling and to assure absence of any extraneous material arising from inadequate packaging is essential. Because some of the polynuclear hydrocarbons sought in this test are very susceptible to photo-oxidation, the entire procedure is to be carried out under subdued light. 
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<P><I>Separatory funnels.</I> 250-milliliter, 500-milliliter, 1,000-milliliter, and preferably 2,000-milliliter capacity, equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcocks.
</P>
<P><I>Reservoir.</I> 1,000-milliliter capacity, equipped with a 24/40 standard taper male fitting at the bottom and a suitable balljoint at the top.
</P>
<P><I>Chromatographic tube.</I> 1,200 millimeters in length, inside diameter to be 16.5 millimeters ±0.5 millimeter, equipped with a coarse, fritted-glass disc, a tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcock, and a female 24/40 standard tapered fitting at the opposite end. (Overall length of the column with the female joint is 1,255 millimeters.) The female fitting should be equipped with glass hooks.
</P>
<P><I>Disc.</I> Tetrafluoroethylene polymer 2-inch diameter disc approximately 
<FR>3/16</FR>-inch thick with a hole bored in the center to closely fit the stem of the chromatographic tube.
</P>
<P><I>Heating jackets.</I> Conical, for 500-milliliter and 1,000-milliliter separatory funnels. (Used with variable transformer heat control.)
</P>
<P><I>Suction flask.</I> 250-milliliter or 500-milliliter filter flask.
</P>
<P><I>Condenser.</I> 
<FR>24/40</FR> joints, fitted with a drying tube, length optional.
</P>
<P><I>Evaporation flasks</I> (<I>optional</I>). A 250-milliliter or 500-milliliter capacity and a 1-liter capacity all-glass flask equipped with standard taper stopper having inlet and outlet tubes to permit passage of nitrogen across the surface of contained liquid to be evaporated.
</P>
<P><I>Vacuum distillation assembly.</I> All glass (for purification of dimethyl sulfoxide) 2-liter distillation flask with heating mantle; Vigreaux vacuum-jacketed condenser (or equivalent) about 45 centimeters in length and distilling head with separable cold finger condenser. Use of tetrafluoroethylene polymer sleeves on the glass joints will prevent freezing. Do not use grease on stopcocks or joints.
</P>
<P><I>Oil bath.</I> Capable of heating to 90 °C.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometric cells.</I> Fused quartz cells, optical pathlength in the range 1.000 centimeter ±0.005 centimeter. With distilled water in the cells, determine any absorbance differences.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometer.</I> Spectral range 250 millimicrons-400 millimicrons with spectral slit width of 0.2 millimicron or less; under instrument operating conditions for these absorbance measurements. The spectrophotometer shall also meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>Absorbance repeatability, ±0.01 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<P>Absorbance accuracy, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> ±0.05 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As determined by procedure using potassium chromate for reference standard and described in National Bureau of Standards Circular 484, Spectrometry, U.S. Department of Commerce (1949). The accuracy is to be determined by comparison with the standard values at 290, 345, and 400 millimicrons. Circular 484 is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>Wavelength repeatability, ±0.2 millimicron.
</P>
<P>Wavelength accuracy, ±1.0 millimicron.
</P>
<P>Recording time, 50 seconds.
</P>
<P>Time constant, 0.6 second.
</P>
<P>Sensitivity, 30.
</P>
<P>Ordinate scale, 90-100 percent transmission through scale.
</P>
<P>Abscissa scale, 8X.
</P>
<P><I>Nitrogen cylinder.</I> Water-pumped or equivalent purity nitrogen in cylinder equipped with regulator and valve to control flow at 5 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<HD1>reagents and materials
</HD1>
<P><I>Organic solvents.</I> All solvents used throughout the procedure shall meet the specifications and tests described in this specification. The isooctane and benzene designated in the list following this paragraph shall pass the following test:
</P>
<P>To be specified quantity of solvent in a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask, add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate on the steam bath under a stream of nitrogen (a loose aluminum foil jacket around the flask will speed evaporation). Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. (To the residue from benzene add a 10-milliliter portion of purified isooctane, reevaporate, and repeat once to insure complete removal of benzene.)
</P>
<P>Alternatively, the evaporation time can be reduced by using the optional evaporation flask. In this case the solvent and <I>n</I>-hexadecane are placed in the flask on the steam bath, the tube assembly is inserted, and a stream of nitrogen is fed through the inlet tube while the outlet tube is connected to a solvent trap and vacuum line in such a way as to prevent any flow-back of condensate into the flask.
</P>
<P>Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane residue in isooctane and make up to 25 milliliters volume. Determine the absorbance in the 1-centimeter pathlength cells compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance of the solution of the solvent residue (except for methyl alcohol) shall not exceed 0.01 per centimeter pathlength between 280 mµ and 400 mµ. 
</P>
<P><I>Isooctane</I> (<I>2,2,4-trimethylpentane</I>). Use 180 milliliters for the test described in the preceding paragraph. Purify, if necessary, by passage through a column of activated silica gel (Grade 12, Davison Chemical Co., Baltimore, Md., or equivalent) about 90 centimeters in length and 5 centimeters to 8 centimeters in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Benzene, A.C.S. reagent grade.</I> Use 150 milliliters for the test. Purify, if necessary, by distillation or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>n-Hexadecane, 99 percent olefin-free.</I> Dilute 1.0 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane to 25 milliliters with isooctane and determine the absorbance in a 1-centimeter cell compared to isooctane as reference point between 280 mµ-400 mµ. The absorbance per centimeter pathlength shall not exceed 0.00 in this range. If necessary, purify by filtering through a column containing 100 grams of aluminum oxide (use same grade as described below) in the lower half and 100 grams of activated silica gel in the upper half keeping the column at 150 °C., for a period of 15 hours or overnight. The first 100 milliliters of eluate are used. Purification can also be accomplished by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Dimethyl sulfoxide.</I> Pure grade, clear, water-white, m.p. 18° minimum. Dilute 120 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide with 240 milliliters of distilled water in a 500-milliliter separatory funnel, mix and allow to cool for 5-10 minutes. Add 40 milliliters of isooctane to the solution and extract by shaking the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Draw off the lower aqueous layer into a second 500-milliliter separatory funnel and repeat the extraction with 40 milliliters of isooctane. Draw off and discard the aqueous layer. Wash each of the 40-milliliter extractives three times with 50-milliliter portions of distilled water. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Discard the aqueous layers. Filter the first extractive through anhydrous sodium sulfate prewashed with isooctane (see <I>Sodium sulfate</I> under “Reagents and materials” for preparation of filter), into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask, or optionally into the evaporating flask. Wash the first separatory funnel with the second 40-milliliter isooctane extractive, and pass through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Then wash the second and first separatory funnels successively with a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane, and pass the solvent through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate the isooctane on the steam bath under nitrogen. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. To the residue, add a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane and reevaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane. Again, add 10 milliliters of isooctane to the residue and evaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane to insure complete removal of all volatile materials. Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane in isooctane and make to 25-milliliter volume. Determine the absorbance in 1-centimeter pathlength cells compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance of the solution should not exceed 0.02 per centimeter pathlength in the 280 mµ-400 mµ range. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Difficulty in meeting this absorbance specification may be due to organic impurities in the distilled water. Repetition of the test omitting the dimethyl sulfoxide will disclose their presence. If necessary to meet the specification, purify the water by redistillation, passage through an ion-exchange resin, or otherwise.)
</P>
<P>Purify, if necessary, by the following procedure: To 1,500 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide in a 2-liter glass-stoppered flask, add 6.0 milliliters of phosphoric acid and 50 grams of Norit A (decolorizing carbon, alkaline) or equivalent. Stopper the flask, and with the use of a magnetic stirrer (tetrafluoroethylene polymer coated bar) stir the solvent for 15 minutes. Filter the dimethyl sulfoxide through four thicknesses of fluted paper (18.5 centimeters, Schleicher &amp; Schuell, No. 597, or equivalent). If the initial filtrate contains carbon fines, refilter through the same filter until a clear filtrate is obtained. Protect the sulfoxide from air and moisture during this operation by covering the solvent in the funnel and collection flask with a layer of isooctane. Transfer the filtrate to a 2-liter separatory funnel and draw off the dimethyl sulfoxide into the 2-liter distillation flask of the vacuum distillation assembly and distill at approximately 3-millimeter Hg pressure or less. Discard the first 200-milliliter fraction of the distillate and replace the distillate collection flask with a clean one. Continue the distillation until approximately 1 liter of the sulfoxide has been collected.
</P>
<P>At completion of the distillation, the reagent should be stored in glass-stoppered bottles since it is very hygroscopic and will react with some metal containers in the presence of air.
</P>
<P><I>Phosphoric acid.</I> 85 percent A.C.S. reagent grade.
</P>
<P><I>Aluminum oxide</I> (<I>80-200 mesh Woelm neutral activity grade 1</I> [<I>Brockmann</I>], <I>Alupharm Chemicals, New Orleans, La., or equivalent</I>). Pipette 1 milliliter of distilled water into a dry 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask equipped with a ground-glass stopper. Stopper the flask and rotate it in such a manner as to completely wet out the inside surfaces. When this has been done add 180 grams of the aluminum oxide and shake until no lumps or wet spots remain. Allow to stand at room temperature for a period of 2 hours. At the end of this time the water should be evenly distributed throughout the aluminum oxide powder, and it should have the same free flowing properties as the original material (flow velocity with water 0.2 milliliter per minute). At this point the aluminum oxide has an activity of 1 as expressed in Brockmann degrees, and the amount of added water is 0.5 percent by volume. This product is used in toto and as is, without further screening.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium sulfate, anhydrous, A.C.S. reagent grade, preferably in granular form.</I> For each bottle of sodium sulfate reagent used, establish as follows the necessary sodium sulfate prewash to provide such filters required in the method: Place approximately 35 grams of anhydrous sodium sulfate in a 30-milliliter coarse, fritted-glass funnel or in a 65-millimeter filter funnel with glass wool plug; wash with successive 15-milliliter portions of the indicated solvent until a 15-milliliter portion of the wash shows 0.00 absorbance per centimeter pathlength between 280 mµ and 400 mµ when tested as prescribed under “Organic solvents.” Usually three portions of wash solvent are sufficient.
</P>
<HD1>procedure
</HD1>
<P>Before proceeding with analysis of a sample, determine the absorbance in a 1-centimeter path cell between 250 mµ and 400 mµ for the reagent blank by carrying out the procedure, without a wax sample, at room temperature, recording the spectrum after the complete procedure as prescribed. The absorbance per centimeter pathlength following the complete procedure should not exceed 0.04 in the wavelength range from 280 mµ to 299 mµ, inclusive, nor 0.02 in the wavelength range from 300 mµ to 400 mµ. If in either spectrum the characteristic benzene peaks in the 250 mµ-260 mµ region are present, remove the benzene by the procedure under “Organic solvents” and record absorbance again. Place 300 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide in a 1-liter separatory funnel and add 75 milliliters of phosphoric acid. Mix the contents of the funnel and allow to stand for 10 minutes. (The reaction between the sulfoxide and the acid is exothermic. Release pressure after mixing, then keep funnel stoppered.) Add 150 milliliters of isooctane and shake to preequilibrate the solvents. Draw off the individual layers and store in glass-stoppered flasks.
</P>
<P>In a 1-liter separatory funnel place a representative 25-gram sample of wax, add 50 milliliters of isooctane, heat gently, stir until the wax is in solution; add 100 milliliters of preequilibrated sulfoxide-phosphoric acid mixture and shake, making sure it remains in solution. If the wax comes out of solution during these operations, let the stoppered funnel remain in the jacket until the wax redissolves. (Remove stopper from the funnel at intervals to release pressure.) When the wax is in solution, remove the funnel from the jacket and shake it vigorously for 2 minutes. Set up three 250-milliliter separatory funnels with each containing 30 milliliters of preequilibrated isooctane. After separation of the liquid phases, allow to cool until the main portion of the wax-isooctane solution begins to show a precipitate. Gently swirl the funnel when precipitation first occurs on the inside surface of the funnel to accelerate this process. Carefully draw off the lower layer, filter it slowly through a thin layer of glass wool fitted loosely in a filter funnel into the first 250-milliliter separatory funnel, and wash in tandem with the 30-milliliter portions of isooctane contained in the 250-milliliter separatory funnels. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Repeat the extraction operation with two additional portions of the sulfoxide-acid mixture, replacing the funnel in the jacket after each extraction to keep the wax in solution and washing each extractive in tandem through the same three portions of isooctane.
</P>
<P>Collect the successive extractives (300 milliliters total) in a separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter), containing 480 milliliters of distilled water, mix, and allow to cool for a few minutes after the last extractive has been added. Add 80 milliliters of isooctane to the solution and extract by shaking the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Draw off the lower aqueous layer into a second separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter) and repeat the extraction with 80 milliliters of isooctane. Draw off and discard the aqueous layer. Wash each of the 80-milliliter extractives three times with 100-milliliter portions of distilled water. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Discard the aqueous layers. Filter the first extractive through anhydrous sodium sulfate prewashed with isooctane (see <I>Sodium sulfate</I> under “Reagents and Materials” for preparation of filter) into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask (or optionally into the evaporation flask). Wash the first separatory funnel with the second 80-milliliter isooctane extractive and pass through the sodium sulfate. Then wash the second and first separatory funnels successively with a 20-milliliter portion of isooctane and pass the solvent through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate the isooctane using an aspirator vacuum under nitrogen and in an oil bath temperature of approximately 90 °C. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. To the residue, add a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane, reevaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane, and repeat this operation once.
</P>
<P>Reserve the residue for column chromatography on the aluminum oxide. Fit the tetrafluoroethylene polymer disc on the upper part of the stem of the chromatographic tube, then place the tube with the disc on the suction flask and apply the vacuum (approximately 135 millimeters Hg pressure). Weigh out 180 grams of the aluminum oxide and pour the adsorbent mixture into the chromatographic tube in approximately 30-centimeter layers. After the addition of each layer, level off the top of the adsorbent with a flat glass rod or metal plunger by pressing down firmly until the adsorbent is well packed. Loosen the topmost few millimeters of each adsorbent layer with the end of a metal rod before the addition of the next layer. Continue packing in this manner until all the 180 grams of the adsorbent is added to the tube. Level off the top of the adsorbent by pressing down firmly with a flat glass rod or metal plunger to make the depth of the adsorbent bed approximately 80 centimeters in depth. Turn off the vacuum and remove the suction flask. Dissolve the hexadecane residue in 10 milliliters of warm benzene and decant the solution onto the column and allow the liquid level to recede to barely above the adsorbent level. Rapidly complete the transfer similarly with two 10-milliliter portions of benzene swirling the flask repeatedly each time to assure adequate washing of the residue. Fix the 1,000-milliliter reservoir onto the top of the chromatographic column. Just before the final 10-milliliter wash reaches the top of the adsorbent, add 670 milliliters of benzene to the reservoir and continue the percolation at the 2-3 milliliter per minute rate until a total of 670 milliliters of benzene has been utilized. Collect the eluate in a clean 1-liter Erlenmeyer flask (or optionally into a 1-liter evaporation flask). Allow the column to drain until most of the solvent mixture is removed. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and completely remove the benzene by evaporation under nitrogen, using the special procedure to eliminate benzene as previously described under “Organic Solvents.” Quantitatively transfer the residue with isooctane to a 25-milliliter volumetric flask and adjust to volume. Determine the absorbance of the solution in the 1-centimeter pathlength cells compared to isooctane as reference between 250 mµ-400 mµ. Correct for any absorbance derived from the reagents as determined by carrying out the procedure without a wax sample. If either spectrum shows the characteristic benzene peaks in the 250 mµ-260 mµ region, evaporate the solution to remove benzene by the procedure under “Organic Solvents.” Dissolve the residue, transfer quantitatively, and adjust to volume in isooctane in a 25-milliliter volumetric flask. Record the absorbance again. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section, the wax meets the ultraviolet absorbance specifications.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The polyhydric alcohol esters identified in this paragraph may be used as release agents in resinous and polymeric coatings for polyolefin films complying with § 175.320 of this chapter. Such esters meet the following specifications and are produced by partial esterification of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids with equimolar proportions of ethylene glycol and 1,3-butanediol:
</P>
<P>(1) Dropping point 77°-82 °C, as determined by ASTM method D566-76 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Dropping Point of Lubricating Grease,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Acid value 25-35, as determined by ASTM method D1386-78 (“Standard Test Method for Acid Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978), which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) using as solvent xylene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio instead of toluene-ethyl alcohol in a 1:2 ratio.
</P>
<P>(3) Saponification value 135-150, as determined by ASTM method D1387-78 (“Standard Test Method for Saponification Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978), which is incorporated by reference; copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) using xylene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio instead of ethyl alcohol in preparation of potassium hydroxide solution.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet absorbance limits specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, as determined by the analytical method described therein.
</P>
<P>(c) The polyhydric alcohol esters of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids, identified in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, may also be used as a component of an aqueous dispersion of vinylidene chloride copolymers, subject to the conditions described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The aqueous dispersion of the additive contains not more that 18 percent polyhydric alcohol esters of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids, not more than 2 percent poly(oxyethylene) (minimum 20 moles of ethylene oxide) oleyl ether (CAS Reg. No. 9004-98-2), and not more than 1 percent poly(oxyethylene) (minimum 3 moles ethylene oxide) cetyl alcohols (CAS Reg. No. 9004-95-9).
</P>
<P>(2) The aqueous dispersion described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is used as an additive to aqueous dispersions of vinylidene chloride copolymers, regulated in §§ 175.300, 175.320, 175.360, 176.170, 176,180, and 177.1630 of this chapter, at levels not to exceed 1.5 percent (solids basis) in the finished coating.
</P>
<P>(d) The polyhydric alcohol esters identified in this paragraph may be used as lubricants in the fabrication of vinyl chloride plastic food contact articles prepared from vinyl chloride polymers. Such esters meet the following specifications and are produced by partial esterification of oxidatively refined (Gersthofen process) montan wax acids with glycerol followed by neutralization:
</P>
<P>(1) Dropping point 79 to 85 °C, as determined by the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), Method D-566-76 (Reapproved 1982), “Standard Test Method for Dropping Point of Lubricating Grease,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Acid value 20-30, as determined by ASTM Method D-1386-78 “Standard Test Method for Acid Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978) (which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a); the availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(2) of this section), using as a solvent xylene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio instead of toluene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio.
</P>
<P>(3) Saponification value 130-160, as determined by ASTM Method D-1387-78 “Standard Test Method for Saponification Number (Empirical) of Synthetic and Natural Waxes” (Revised 1978), (which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a); the availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), using xylene-ethyl alcohol in a 2:1 ratio instead of ethyl alcohol in the preparation of potassium hydroxide solution.
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet absorbance limits specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, as determined by the analytical method described therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11848, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10113, Mar. 19, 1984; 51 FR 33895, Sept. 24, 1986; 54 FR 24898, June 12, 1989; 55 FR 28020, July 9, 1990; 58 FR 17512, Apr. 5, 1993; 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3780" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3780   Polyhydric alcohol esters of long chain monobasic acids.</HEAD>
<P>Polyhydric alcohol esters of long chain monobasic acids identified in this section may be safely used as lubricants in the fabrication of polyvinyl chloride and/or polyvinyl chloride copolymer articles complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter that contact food of Types I, II, IV-B, VI-B, VII-B, and VIII identified in table 1 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter under conditions of use E, F, and G described in table 2 in § 176.170(c) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> For the purpose of this section, polyhydric alcohol esters of long chain monobasic acids consist of polyhydric alcohol esters having number average molecular weights in the range of 1,050 to 1,700. The esters are produced by the reaction of either ethylene glycol or glycerol with long chain monobasic acids containing from 9 to 49 carbon atoms obtained by the ozonization of long chain <I>alpha</I>-olefins, the unreacted carboxylic acids in the formation of the glycerol esters being neutralized with calcium hydroxide to produce a composition having up to 2 percent by weight calcium. The <I>alpha</I>-olefins, obtained from the polymerization of ethylene, have 20 to 50 carbon atoms and contain a minimum of 75 percent by weight straight chain <I>alpha</I>-olefins and not more than 25 percent vinylidene compounds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The polyhydric alcohol esters have the following specifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) Melting point of 60-80 °C for the ethylene glycol ester and 90-105 °C for the glycerol ester as determined by the Fisher Johns method as described in “Semimicro Qualitative Organic Analysis—The Systematic Identification of Organic Compounds,” by Cheronis and Entrikin, 2d Ed., Interscience Publishers, NY, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Acid value 15-25 for each ester as determined by the A.O.C.S. method Trla-64T “Titer Test,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from American Association of Oil Chemists, 36 East Wacker Drive, Chicago, IL 60601, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The method is modified to use as the acid solvent a 1:1 volume mixture of anhydrous isopropyl alcohol and toluene. The solution is titrated with 0.1<I>N</I> methanolic sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(3) Saponification value 120-160 for the ethylene glycol ester and 90-130 for the glycerol ester as determined the A.O.C.S. method Trla-64T “Saponification Value,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from American Association of Oil Chemists, 36 East Wacker Drive, Chicago, IL 60601, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) Ultraviolet absorbance as specified in § 178.3770(a)(4) of this chapter when tested by the analytical method described therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11849, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14481, Apr. 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3790" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3790   Polymer modifiers in semirigid and rigid vinyl chloride plastics.</HEAD>
<P>The polymers identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely admixed, alone or in mixture with other permitted polymers, as modifiers in semirigid and rigid vinyl chloride plastic food-contact articles prepared from vinyl chloride homopolymers and/or from vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1950, § 177.1970, and/or § 177.1980 of this chapter, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the polymer modifiers are identified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Acrylic polymers identified in this subparagraph provided that such polymers contain at least 50 weight-percent of polymer units derived from one or more of the monomers listed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Homopolymers and copolymers of the following monomers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Butyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n</I>-Butyl methacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl methacrylate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Copolymers produced by copolymerizing one or more of the monomers listed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section with one or more of the following monomers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylonitrile.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>a</I>-Methylstyrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Styrene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinylidene chloride.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Polymers identified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section containing no more than 5 weight-percent of total polymer units derived by copolymerization with one or more of the following monomers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acrylic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Butylene glycol dimethacrylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Divinylbenzene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacrylic acid.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Mixtures of polymers identified in paragraph (a)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section; provided that no chemical reactions, other than addition reactions, occur when they are mixed.
</P>
<P>(2) Polymers identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section combined during their polymerization with butadiene-styrene copolymers; provided that no chemical reactions, other than addition reactions, occur when they are combined. Such combined polymers may contain 50 weight-percent or more of total polymer units derived from the butadiene-styrene copolymers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The polymer content of the finished plastic food-contact article consists of:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than 80 weight-percent of polymer units derived from the vinyl chloride polymers identified in the introduction to this section and not more than 5 weight-percent of polymer units derived from polymers identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and may optionally contain up to 15 weight-percent of polymer units derived from butadiene-styrene copolymers; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than 50 weight-percent of polymer units derived from the vinyl chloride polymers identified in the introduction to this section, not more than 50 weight-percent of polymer units derived from homopolymers and/or copolymers of ethyl acrylate and methyl methacrylate, and not more than 30 weight-percent of polymer units derived from copolymers of methyl methacrylate, <I>a</I>-methylstyrene and acrylonitrile and may optionally contain up to 15 weight-percent of polymer units derived from butadiene-styrene copolymers.
</P>
<P>(c) No chemical reactions, other than addition reactions, occur among the vinyl chloride polymers and the modifying polymers present in the polymer mixture used in the manufacture of the finished plastic food-contact article.
</P>
<P>(d) The finished plastic food-contact article, when extracted with the solvent or solvents characterizing the type of food and under the conditions of time and temperature characterizing the conditions of its intended use as determined from tables 1 and 2 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, yields extractives not to exceed the limits prescribed in § 177.1010 (b)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this chapter when tested by the methods prescribed in § 177.1010 (c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3800" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3800   Preservatives for wood.</HEAD>
<P>Preservatives may be safely used on wooden articles that are used or intended for use in packaging, transporting, or holding raw agricultural products subject to the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The preservatives are prepared from substances identified in paragraph (b) of this section and applied in amounts not to exceed those necessary to accomplish the technical effect of protecting the wood from decay, mildew, and water absorption.
</P>
<P>(b) The substances permitted are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-8-quinolinolate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral spirits
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraffin wax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Used singly or in combination so as to constitute not less than 50% of the solids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum hydrocarbon resin, produced by the homo- and copolymerization of dienes and olefins of the aliphatic, alicyclic, and monobenzenoid arylalkene type from distillates of cracked petroleum stocks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentachlorophenol and its sodium salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 50 p.p.m. in the treated wood, calculated as pentachlorophenol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosins and rosin derivatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As provided in § 178.3870.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc salt of sulfonated petroleum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3850" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3850   Reinforced wax.</HEAD>
<P>Reinforced wax may be safely used as an article or component of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, transporting, or holding food subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Reinforced wax consists of petroleum wax to which have been added certain optional substances required in its production, or added to impart desired physical or technical properties.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of any optional adjuvant substance employed in the production of or added to reinforced wax does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or technical effect or any limitation provided in this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any substance employed in the production of reinforced wax, including any optional substance, that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, conforms with any specification in such regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) The substances and optional adjuvant substances employed in the production of or added to reinforced wax include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances generally recognized as safe in food.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances subject to prior sanction for use in reinforced wax and used in accordance with such sanction or approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Substances identified in this subparagraph and subject to any limitations provided therein:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copolymer of isobutylene modified with isoprene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum wax, Type I and Type II
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosins and rosin derivatives as provided in § 178.3870
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic wax polymer as described in § 176.170(a)(5) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the petroleum wax.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) Reinforced wax conforming with the specifications in this paragraph is used as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The chloroform-soluble portion of the water extract obtained by exposing reinforced wax to demineralized water at 70 °F for 48 hours shall not exceed 0.5 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(2) It is used as a packaging material or component of packaging materials for cheese and cheese products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 1288, Jan. 12, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3860" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3860   Release agents.</HEAD>
<P>Substances listed in paragraph (b) of this section may be safely used as release agents in petroleum wax complying with § 178.3710 and in polymeric resins that contact food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect or any limitations prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Release agents:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erucamide (erucylamide)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde, polymer with 1-naphthalenol (CAS Reg. No. 25359-91-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as an antiscaling or release agent, applied on the internal parts of reactors employed in the production of polyvinyl chloride and acrylic copolymers, provided that the residual levels of the additive in the ploymer do not exceed 4 parts per million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N,N′</E>-Dioleoylethylenediamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in polyvinyl chloride films in amounts such that the concentration of the substance in these films in the form in which the films contact food shall not exceed 0.055 milligram of the substance per square inch of film.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleyl palmitamide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated; complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only subject to the limitations prescribed for hydrogenated polybutene under § 178.3740(b).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly(vinyl acetate/vinyl <E T="03">N-</E>octadecylcarbamate) (CAS Reg. No. 70892-21-6) produced by the reaction between stoichiometrically equivalent amounts of octadecyl isocyanate and vinyl alcohol/vinyl acetate copolymer; minimum average molecular weight is 500,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in application to the backing of pressuresensitive adhesive tapes at levels not to exceed 0.2 milligram per square centimeter (1.29 milligrams per square inch) of backing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rice bran wax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only in plastics intended for contact with dry foods identified as Type VIII in table 1 of § 176.170(c) of this chapter, at levels not in excess of 1.0 percent by weight of the polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saturated fatty acid amides manufactured from fatty acids derived from animal, marine, or vegetable fats and oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearyl erucamide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 69649, Dec. 4, 1979; 46 FR 51902, Oct. 23, 1981; 61 FR 25396, May 21, 1996; 61 FR 42381, Aug. 15, 1996]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3870" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3870   Rosins and rosin derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>The rosins and rosin derivatives identified in paragraph (a) of this section may safely be used in the manufacture of articles or components of articles intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding food, subject to the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>(a) The rosins and rosin derivatives are identified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Rosins:
</P>
<P>(i) Gum rosin, refined to color grade of K or paler.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wood rosin, refined to color grade of K or paler.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tall oil rosin, refined to color grade of K or paler.
</P>
<P>(iv) Dark tall oil rosin, a fraction resulting from the refining of tall oil rosin produced by multicolumnar distillation of crude tall oil to effect removal of fatty acids and pitch components and having a saponification number of from 110-135 and 32 percent-44 percent rosin acids.
</P>
<P>(v) Dark wood rosin, all or part of the residue after the volatile terpene oils are distilled from the oleoresin extracted from pine wood.
</P>
<P>(2) Modified rosins manufactured from rosins identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Partially hydrogenated rosin, catalytically hydrogenated to a maximum refractive index of 1.5012 at 100 °C, and a color of WG or paler.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fully hydrogenated rosin, catalytically hydrogenated to a maximum dehydroabietic acid content of 2 percent, a minimum drop-softening point of 79 °C, and a color of X or paler.
</P>
<P>(iii) Partially dimerized rosin, dimerized by sulfuric acid catalyst to a drop-softening point of 95°-105 °C and a color of WG or paler.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fully dimerized rosin, dimerized by sulfuric acid catalyst, and from which sufficient nondimerized rosin has been removed by distillation to achieve a minimum drop-softening point of 143 °C, and a color of H or paler.
</P>
<P>(v) Disproportionated rosin, catalytically disproportionated to a minimum dehydroabietic acid content of 35 percent, a maximum abietic acid content of 1 percent, a maximum content of substituted phenanthrenes (as retene) of 0.25 percent, and a color of WG or paler.
</P>
<P>(3) Rosin esters manufactured from rosins and modified rosins identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Glycerol ester of wood rosin purified by steam stripping to have an acid number of 3 to 9, a drop-softening point of 88°-96 °C, and a color of N or paler.
</P>
<P>(ii) Glycerol ester of partially hydrogenated wood rosin, having an acid number of 3 to 10, a drop-softening point of 79°-88 °C, and a color of N or paler.
</P>
<P>(iii) Glycerol ester of partially dimerized rosin, having an acid number of 3 to 8, a drop-softening point of 109°-119 °C, and a color of M or paler.
</P>
<P>(iv) Glycerol ester of fully dimerized rosin, having an acid number of 5 to 16, a drop-softening point of 165°-175 °C, and a color of H or paler.
</P>
<P>(v) Glycerol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, having an acid number of 30 to 40, a drop-softening point of 138°-146 °C, a color of M or paler, and a saponification number less than 280.
</P>
<P>(vi) Methyl ester of rosin, partially hydrogenated, purified by steam stripping to have an acid number of 4 to 8, a refractive index of 1.5170 to 1.5205 at 20 °C, and a viscosity of 23 to 66 poises at 25 °C.
</P>
<P>(vii) Pentaerythritol ester of wood rosin, having an acid number of 6 to 16, a drop-softening point of 109°-116 °C, and a color of M or paler.
</P>
<P>(viii) Pentaerythritol ester of partially hydrogenated wood rosin, having an acid number of 7 to 18, a drop-softening point of 102°-110 °C, and a color of K or paler.
</P>
<P>(ix) Pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, having an acid number of 8 to 16, a drop-softening point of 154°-162 °C, a color of M or paler, and having a saponification number less than 280.
</P>
<P>(x) Pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, having an acid number of 9 to 16, a drop-softening point of 130°-140 °C, a color of N or paler, and having a saponification number less than 280.
</P>
<P>(xi) Pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, having an acid number of 134 to 145, a drop-softening point of 127°-137 °C, a color of M or paler, and having a saponification number less than 280.
</P>
<P>(xii) Pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, having an acid number of 30 to 40, a drop-softening point of 131°-137 °C, a color of N or paler, and having a saponification number less than 280. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, further modified by reaction with 4,4′-isopropyl-idenediphenol-formaldehyde condensate, having an acid number of 10 to 22, a drop-softening point of 162°-172 °C, a color of K or paler, a saponification number less than 280, and a maximum ultraviolet absorbance of 0.14 at 296 mµ (using a 1-centimeter cell and 200 milligrams of the rosin ester per liter of solvent consisting of ethyl alcohol made alkaline by addition of 0.1 percent of potassium hydroxide).
</P>
<P>(xiv) Mixed methyl and pentaerythritol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, having an acid number of 73 to 83, a drop-softening point of 113°-123 °C, a color of M or paler, and a saponification number less than 280.
</P>
<P>(xv) Triethylene glycol ester of partially hydrogenated wood rosin, having an acid number of 2 to 10, a color of K or paler, and a viscosity of 350 to 425 seconds Saybolt at 100 °C.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Glycerol ester of maleic anhydride-modified wood rosin, having an acid number of 17 to 23, a drop-softening point of 136°-140 °C, a color of M or paler, and a saponification number less than 280. For use only in cellophane complying with § 177.1200 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Citric acid-modified glycerol ester of rosin, having an acid number less than 20, a drop-softening point of 105°-115 °C, and a color of K or paler. For use only as a blending agent in coatings for cellophane complying with § 177.1200 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Glycerol ester of tall oil rosin, purified by steam stripping to have an acid number of 5-12, a softening point of 80°-88 °C, and a color of N or paler.
</P>
<P>(xix) Glycerol ester of maleic anhydride-modified tall oil rosin, having an acid number of 30 to 40, a drop-softening point of 141°-146 °C, a color of N or paler, and a saponification number less than 280.
</P>
<P>(xx) Glycerol ester of disproportionated tall oil rosin, having an acid number of 5 to 10, a drop-softening point of 84°-93 °C, a color of WG or paler, and a saponification number less than 180.
</P>
<P>(4) Rosin salts and sizes—Ammonium, calcium, potassium, sodium, or zinc salts of rosin manufactured by the partial or complete saponification of any one of the rosins or modified rosins identified in paragraph (a)(1) and (2) of this section, or blends thereof, and with or without modification by reaction with one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fumaric acid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Maleic anhydride.
</P>
<P>(iv) Saligenin.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity used shall not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect.
</P>
<P>(c) The use in any substance or article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter shall conform with any specifications and limitations prescribed by such regulation for the finished form of the substance or article.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section are not applicable to rosins and rosin derivatives identified in § 175.300(b)(3)(v) of this chapter and used in resinous and polymeric coatings complying with § 175.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The provisions of this section are not applicable to rosins and rosin derivatives identified in § 175.105(c)(5) of this chapter and used in defoaming agents complying with § 176.210 of this chapter, food-packaging adhesives complying with § 175.105 of this chapter, and rubber articles complying with § 177.2600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) The analytical methods for determining whether rosins and rosin derivatives conform to the specifications prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Color: Color shall be as determined by ASTM method D509-70 (Reapproved 1981), “Standard Methods of Sampling and Grading Rosin,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) Refractive index: Refractive index shall be as determined by ASTM method D1747-62 (Reapproved 1978), “Standard Test Method for Refractive Index of Viscous Materials,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Acid number: Acid number shall be as determined by ASTM method D465-82, “Standard Test Methods for Acid Number of Rosin,” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Viscosity: Viscosity in poises shall be as determined by ASTM method D1824-66 (Reapproved 1980), “Standard Test Method for Apparent Viscosity of Plastisols and Organosols at Low Shear Rates by Brookfield Viscometer,” and in Saybolt seconds by ASTM method D88-81, “Standard Test Method for Saybolt Viscosity,” which are incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Softening point: Softening point shall be as determined by ASTM method E28-67, “Standard Test Method for Softening Point by Ring and Ball Apparatus” (Reapproved 1977), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(6) Analytical methods for determining drop-softening point, saponification number, and any other specifications not listed under paragraphs (f)(1) through (5) of this section, titled: (i) “Determination of Abeitic Acid and Dehydroabietic Acid in Rosins”; (ii) “Determination of Softening Point of Solid Resins”; (iii) “Determination of Saponification Number of Rosin Esters,” and (iv) “Determination of Phenolic Modification of Rosin Derivatives,” which are incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11849, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 10113, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3900" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3900   Sodium pentachlorophenate.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium pentachlorophenate may be safely used as a preservative for ammonium alginate employed as a processing aid in the manufacture of polyvinyl chloride emulsion polymers intended for use as articles or components of articles that contact food at temperatures not to exceed room temperature. The quantity of sodium pentachlorophenate used shall not exceed 0.5 percent by weight of ammonium alginate solids.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3910" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3910   Surface lubricants used in the manufacture of metallic articles.</HEAD>
<P>The substances listed in this section may be safely used in surface lubricants employed in the manufacture of metallic articles that contact food, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The following substances may be used in surface lubricants used in the rolling of metallic foil or sheet stock provided that total residual lubricant remaining on the metallic article in the form in which it contacts food does not exceed 0.015 milligram per square inch of metallic food-contact surface:
</P>
<P>(1) Substances identified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this paragraph.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Butyl-Ω--hydroxypoly (oxyethylene)-poly (oxypropylene) (CAS Reg. No. 9038-95-3) produced by random condensation of a 1:1 mixture by weight of ethylene oxide and propylene oxide with butanol and having a minimum molecular weight of 1,000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Butyl-Ω-hydroxypoly(oxypropylene) (CAS Reg. No. 9003-13-8) having a minimum molecular weight of 1000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">α-Lauroyl-Ω-hydroxpoly(oxyethylene) (CAS Reg. No. 9004-81-3) having a minimum molecular weight of 200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetate esters derived from synthetic straight chain alcohols (complying with § 172.864 of this chapter) that have even numbers of carbon atoms in the range C<E T="52">8</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">alpha</E>-Alkyl-<E T="03">omega</E>-hydroxypoly(oxyethylene) produced by the condensation of 1 mole of C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E> straight chain primary alcohols with an average of 3 moles of ethylene oxide (CAS Reg. No. 68002-97-1)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzotriazole (CAS Reg. No. 95-14-7)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(hydrogenated tallow alkyl)amine (CAS Reg. No. 61789-79-5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to be used in combination with sodium nitrite.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(hydrogenated tallow alkyl)aminoethanol (CAS Reg. No. 116438-56-3)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>,<E T="03">N</E>-Bis(2-hydroxyethyl)butylamine (CAS Reg. No. 102-79-4)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Tert</E>-Butyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene glycol monobutylether (CAS Reg. No. 112-34-5)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimers, trimers, and/or their partial methyl esters; such dimers and trimers are of unsaturated C<E T="52">18</E> fatty acids derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils and/or tall oil, and such partial methyl esters meet the following specifications: Saponification value 180-200, acid value 70-130, and maximum iodine value 120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at a level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of finished lubricant formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-<E T="03">n</E>-octyl sebacate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, sodium salts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl laurate (CAS Reg. No. 10233-13-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at a level not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the finished lubricant formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl oleate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isotridecyl alcohol, ethoxylated (CAS Reg. No. 9043-30-5)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl esters of coconut oil fatty acids
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl esters of fatty acids (C<E T="52">16</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>) derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polybutene, hydrogenated: complying with the identity prescribed under § 178.3740(b)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (400) monostearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyisobutylene (minimum molecular weight 300)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyoxyethylated (5 moles) tallow amine (CAS Reg. No. 61791-26-2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyvinyl alcohol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium nitrite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only as a rust inhibitor in lubricant formulations provided the total residual sodium nitrite on the metallic article in the form in which it contacts food does not exceed 0.007 milligram per square inch of metallic food-contact surface.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium petroleum sulfonate, MW 440-450 (CAS Reg. No. 68608-26-4) derived from naphthenic oil having a Saybolt viscosity range of 500-600 Saybolt Universal Seconds (SUS at 37-8 °C (100 °F) as determined by ASTM method D88-81, “Standard Test Method for Saybolt Viscosity,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the American Society for Testing Materials, 1961 Race St., Philadelphia, PA 19103, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic alcohol mixture of straight-and branched-chain alcohols that have even numbers of carbon atoms in the range C<E T="52">4</E>C<E T="52">18</E> and that are prepared from ethylene, aluminum, and hydrogen such that the finished synthetic alcohol mixture contains not less than 75 pct of straight-chain primary alcohols and contains not less than 85 pct total C<E T="52">10</E> and C<E T="52">12</E> alcohols
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic primary alcohol mixture of straight- and branched-chain alcohols that contain at least 99 pct primary alcohols consisting of the following: not less than 70 pct normal alcohols; not less than 96.5 pct C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">15</E> alcohols; and not more than 2.5 pct alpha, omega C<E T="52">13</E>-C<E T="52">16</E> diols. The alcohols are prepared from linear olefins from a purified kerosene fraction, carbon monoxide and hydrogen using a modified oxo process, such that the finished primary alcohol mixture meets the following specifications: Molecular weight, 207±4; hydroxyl number, 266-276</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at a level not to exceed 8 pct by weight of the finished lubricant formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Synthetic primary alcohol mixture of straight- and branched-chain alcohols that contain at least 99 pct primary alcohols consisting of the following: not less than 70 percent normal alcohols; not less than 93 pct C<E T="52">12</E>-C<E T="52">13</E> alcohols; not more than 5 pct C<E T="52">14</E>-C<E T="52">15</E> alcohols; and not more than 2.5 pct alpha, omega, C<E T="52">13</E>-C<E T="52">16</E> diols. The alcohols are prepared from linear olefins from a purified kerosene fraction, carbon monoxide and hydrogen using a modified oxo process, such that the finished primary alcohol mixture meets the following specifications:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at a level not to exceed 8 pct by weight of the finished lubricant formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Molecular weight 194±5; hydroxyl number, 283-296
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tallow, sulfonated
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Mineral oil conforming to the identity prescribed in § 178.3620(c).
</P>
<P>(4) Light petroleum hydrocarbons identified in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section: <I>Provided,</I> That the total residual lubricant on the metallic article in the form in which it contacts food meets the ultraviolet absorbance limits prescribed in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section as determined by the analytical method described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Light petroleum hydrocarbons are derived by distillation from virgin petroleum stocks or are synthesized from petroleum gases. They are chiefly paraffinic, isoparaffinic, napthenic, or aromatic in nature, and meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Initial boiling point is 24 °C minimum and final boiling point is 288 °C maximum, as determined by ASTM method D86-82, “Standard Method for Distillation of Petroleum Products,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Nonvolatile residue is 0.005 gram per 100 milliliters, maximum, as determined by ASTM method D381-80, “Standard Test Method for Existent Gum in Fuels by Jet Evaporation,” when the final boiling point is 121 °C or above and by ASTM method D1353-78, “Standard Test Method for Nonvolatile Matter in Volatile Solvents for Use in Paint, Varnish, Lacquer, and Related Products,” when the final boiling point is below 121 °C. These ASTM methods are incorporated by reference. The availability of these incorporations by reference is given in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(<I>a</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Saybolt color 20 minimum as determined by ASTM method D156-82, “Standard Test Method for Saybolt Color of Petroleum Products (Saybolt Chromometer Method),” which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(<I>a</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Aromatic component content shall not exceed 32 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Conforms with ultraviolet absorbance limits prescribed in § 178.3620(c) as determined by the analytical method described therein.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ultraviolet absorbance limits on residual lubricants are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength (mµ)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum absorbance per 5 centimeters optical pathlength
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280-289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300-359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360-400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.09</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) The analytical method for determining ultraviolet absorbance limits on residual lubricants is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>general instructions
</HD1>
<P>Because of the sensitivity of the test, the possibility of errors arising from contamination is great. It is of the greatest importance that all glassware be scrupulously cleaned to remove all organic matter such as oil, grease, detergent, residues, etc. Examine all glassware including stoppers and stopcocks, under ultraviolet light to detect any residual fluorescent contamination. As a precautionary measure it is recommended practice to rinse all glassware with purified isooctane immediately before use. No grease is to be used on stopcocks or joints. Great care to avoid contamination of oil samples in handling and to assure absence of any extraneous material arising from inadequate packaging is essential. Because some of the polynuclear hydrocarbons sought in this test are very susceptible to photo-oxidation, the entire procedure is to be carried out under subdued light.
</P>
<HD1>apparatus
</HD1>
<P><I>Separatory funnels.</I> 250-milliliter, 500-milliliter, 1,000-milliliter, and preferably 2,000-milliliter capacity, equipped with tetrafluoroethylene polymer stopcocks.
</P>
<P><I>Evaporation flask</I> (<I>optional</I>). 250-milliliter or 500-milliliter capacity all-glass flask equipped with standard-taper stopper having inlet and outlet tubes to permit passage of nitrogen across the surface of contained liquid to be evaporated.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometric cells.</I> Fused quartz cells, optical path length in the range of 5,000 centimeters ±0.005 centimeter; also for checking spectrophotometer performance only, optical path length in the range 1.000 centimeter ±0.005 centimeter. With distilled water in the cells, determine any absorbance differences.
</P>
<P><I>Spectrophotometer.</I> Special range 250 millicrons-400 millimicrons with spectral slit width of 2 millimicrons or less; under instrument operating conditions for these absorbance measurements, the spectrophotometer shall also meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>Absorbance repeatability, ±0.01 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<P>Absorbance accuracy, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> ±0.05 at 0.4 absorbance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As determined by procedure using potassium chromate for reference standard and described in National Bureau of Standards Circular 484, Spectrometry, U.S. Department of Commerce (1949), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The accuracy is to be determined by comparison with the standard values at 210, 345, and 400 millimicrons.</P></FTNT>
<P>Wavelength repeatability, ±0.2 millimicron.
</P>
<P>Wavelength accuracy, ±1.0 millimicron.
</P>
<P><I>Soxhlet apparatus.</I> 60-millimeter diameter body tubes fitted with condenser and 500-milliliter round-bottom boiling flask. A supply of paper thimbles to fit is required.
</P>
<P><I>Nitrogen cylinder.</I> Water-pumped or equivalent purity nitrogen in cylinder equipped with regulator and valve to control flow at 5 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<HD1>reagents and materials
</HD1>
<P><I>Organic solvents.</I> All solvents used throughout the procedure shall meet the specifications and tests described in this specification. The isooctane (2,2,4-trimethylpentane) shall pass the following test:
</P>
<P>Place 180 milliliters of solvent in a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask, add 1 milliliter of purified <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate on the steam bath under a stream of nitrogen (a loose aluminum foil jacket around the flask will speed evaporation). Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains.
</P>
<P>Alternatively, the evaporation time can be reduced by using the optional evaporation flask. In this case the solvent and <I>n</I>-hexadecane are placed in the flask on the steam bath, the tube assembly is inserted, and a stream of nitrogen is fed through the inlet tube while the outlet tube is connected to a solvent trap and vacuum line in such a way as to prevent any flow-back of condensate into the flask.
</P>
<P>Dissolve the 1 milliliter of hexadecane residue in isooctane and make to 25 milliliters volume. Determine the absorbance in the 5-centimeter path length cells compared to isooctane as reference. The absorbance of the solution of the solvent residue shall not exceed 0.01 per centimeter path length between 280 and 400 mµ. Purify, if necessary, by passage through a column of activated silica gel (Grade 12, Davison Chemical Co., Baltimore, Maryland, or equivalent) about 90 centimeters in length and 5 centimeters to 8 centimeters in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>n-Hexadecane, 99-percent olefin-free.</I> Dilute 1.0 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane to 25 milliliters with isooctane and determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter cell compared to isooctane as reference point between 280 mµ-400 mµ. The absorbance per centimeter path length shall not exceed 0.00 in this range. Purify, if necessary, by percolation through activated silica gel or by distillation.
</P>
<P><I>Dimethyl sulfoxide.</I> Spectrophotometric grade (Crown Zellerbach Corp., Camas, Washington, or equivalent). Absorbance (1-centimeter cell, distilled water reference, sample completely saturated with nitrogen).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Absorbance (maximum)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">261.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.015</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>There shall be no irregularities in the absorbance curve within these wavelengths.
</P>
<P><I>Phosphoric acid.</I> 85 percent A.C.S. reagent grade.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium sulfate, anhydrous, A.C.S. reagent grade, preferably in granular form.</I> For each bottle of sodium sulfate reagent used, establish as follows the necessary sodium sulfate prewash to provide such filters required in the method: Place approximately 35 grams of anhydrous sodium sulfate in a 30-milliliter coarse, fritted-glass funnel or in a 65-milliliter filter funnel with glass wool plug; wash with successive 15-milliliter portions of the indicated solvent until a 15-milliliter portion of the wash shows 0.00 absorbance per centimeter path length between 280 mµ and 400 mµ when tested as prescribed under “Organic solvents.” Usually three portions of wash solvent are sufficient.
</P>
<P>Before proceeding with analysis of a sample, determine the absorbance in a 5-centimeter path cell between 250 millimicrons and 400 millimicrons for the reagent blank by carrying out the procedure, without a metal sample. The absorbance per centimeter path length should not exceed 0.02 in the wavelength range from 280 mµ to 400 mµ.
</P>
<P>Place 300 milliliters of dimethyl sulfoxide in a 1-liter separatory funnel and add 75 milliliters of phosphoric acid. Mix the contents of the funnel and allow to stand for 10 minutes. (The reaction between the sulfoxide and the acid is exothermic. Release pressure after mixing, then keep funnel stoppered.) Add 150 milliliters of isooctane and shake to pre-equilibrate the solvents. Draw off the individual layers and store in glass-stoppered flasks.
</P>
<HD1>procedure
</HD1>
<P><I>Sample.</I> Select metal foil or sheet stock for the test which has not been previously contaminated by careless handling or exposure to atmospheric dust and fumes. A commercial coil in the form supplied for spindle mounting in a packaging line or wrapping machine is most suitable. Strip off the outside turn of metal and discard. Carefully avoid contamination or damage from handling the metal (wear gloves). Remove a 16-18-foot length from the coil and place it on a flat surface protected by a length of new kraft paper. Cut four 15-foot strips from the sample, each 3 inches wide (avoid tearing the edges of the strips). Using a piece of suitable glass rod, roll the strips of metal into loose coils and insert each into a Soxhlet thimble. Each turn of coil should be visibly separated from the adjacent turn.
</P>
<P><I>Extraction.</I> Fill each of the four Soxhlet tubes with purified isooctane (see under heading “Reagents and Materials,” above) until siphon action occurs and then refill the tube body. Supply heat to the boiling flask and allow extraction to continue for at least 8 hours or until repeated weighings of the dried and cooled coil show no further weight loss.
</P>
<P>Combine the isooctane extracts from the four Soxhlet units in a suitable beaker, rinsing each tube and flask into the beaker with fresh purified solvent. Evaporate the solvent under an atmosphere of inert gas (nitrogen) to residual volume of 50-60 milliliters and transfer this solution to a 500-milliliter separatory funnel containing 100 milliliters of pre-equilibrated sulfoxide-phosphoric acid mixture. Complete the transfer of the sample with small portions of pre-equilibrated isooctane to give a total volume of the residue and solvent of 75 milliliters. Shake the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Set up three 250-milliliter separatory funnels with each containing 30 milliliters of pre-equilibrated isooctane. After separation of liquid phases, carefully draw off lower layer into the first 250-milliliter separatory funnel and wash in tandem with the 30-milliliter portion of isooctane contained in the 250-milliliter separatory funnels. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Repeat the extraction operation with two additional portions of the sulfoxide-acid mixture and wash each extractive in tandem through the same three portions of isooctane.
</P>
<P>Collect the successive extractives (300 milliliters total) in a separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter) containing 480 milliliters of distilled water; mix, and allow to cool for a few minutes after the last extractive has been added. Add 80 milliliters of isooctane to the solution and extract by shaking the funnel vigorously for 2 minutes. Draw off the lower aqueous layer into a second separatory funnel (preferably 2-liter) and repeat the extraction with 80 milliliter of isooctane. Draw off and discard the aqueous layer. Wash each of the 80 milliliter extractives three times with 100-milliliter portions distilled water. Shaking time for each wash is 1 minute. Discard the aqueous layers. Filter the first extractive through anhydrous sodium sulfate pre-washed with isooctane (see sodium sulfate under “Reagents and Materials” for preparation of filter) into a 250-milliliter Erlenmeyer flask (or optionally into the evaporation flask). Wash the first separatory funnel with the second 80-milliliter isooctane extractive and pass through the sodium sulfate. Then wash the second and first separatory funnels successively with a 20-milliliter portion of isooctane and pass the solvent through the sodium sulfate into the flask. Add 1 milliliter of <I>n</I>-hexadecane and evaporate the isooctane on the steam bath under nitrogen. Discontinue evaporation when not over 1 milliliter of residue remains. To the residue, add a 10-milliliter portion of isooctane, reevaporate to 1 milliliter of hexadecane, and repeat this operation once.
</P>
<P>Quantitatively transfer the residue with isooctane to a 25-milliliter volumetric flask, make to volume, and mix. Determine the absorbance of the solution in 5-centimeter pathlength cells compared to isooctane as reference between 280mµ-400mµ (take care to lose none of the solution in filling the sample cell). Correct the absorbance values for any absorbance derived from reagents as determined by carrying out the procedure without a metal sample. If the corrected absorbance does not exceed the limits prescribed in this paragraph, the residue meets the ultraviolet absorbance specifications.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The following substances may be used in surface lubricants used to facilitate the drawing, stamping, or forming of metallic articles from rolled foil or sheet stock by further processing provided that the total residual lubricant remaining on the metallic article in the form in which it contacts food does not exceed 0.2 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface: 
</P>
<P>(1) Antioxidants used in compliance with regulations in parts 170 through 189 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Substances identified in this subparagraph.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">List of substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetyl tributyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetyl triethyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castor oil
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl sebacate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl) azelate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di(2-ethylhexyl) sebacate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisodecyl phthalate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylpolysiloxane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conforming to the identity prescribed in § 181.28 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epoxidized soybean oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conforming to the identity prescribed in § 181.27 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty acids derived from animal and vegetable fats and oils, and salts of such acids, single or mixed, as follows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Potassium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fatty alcohols, straight-chain with even number carbon atoms (C<E T="52">10</E> or greater)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanolin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linoleic acid amide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conforming to the identity prescribed in § 178.3620 (a) or (b).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mono-, di-, and tristearyl citrate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid amide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palmitic acid amide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolatum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conforming to the identity prescribed in § 178.3700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid, mono- and dihexyl esters, compounds with tetramethylnonylamines and C<E T="52">11-14</E>-alkylamines (CAS Reg. No. 80939-62-4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use only at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished surface lubricant formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polyethylene glycol (molecular weight 300 or greater)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mono- and diethylene glycol content not to exceed a total of 0.2 pct.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stannous stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearic acid amide
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearyl stearate
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrakis[methylene (3,5-di-<E T="03">tert-</E>butyl-4-hydroxyhydrocinnamate)] methane (CAS Registry No. 6683-19-8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use at a level not to exceed 0.5 percent by weight of the finished surface lubricant formulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diethylene glycol content not to exceed 0.1 pct.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wax, petroleum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Complying with § 178.3710.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The substances identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be used in surface lubricants used to facilitate the drawing, stamping, and forming of metallic articles from rolled foil and sheet stock provided that total residual lubricant remaining on the metallic article in the form in which it contacts food does not exceed 0.015 milligram per square inch of food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to any prescribed limitations, the quantity of surface lubricant used in the manufacture of metallic articles shall not exceed the least amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect and shall not be intended to nor, in fact, accomplish any technical effect in the food itself.
</P>
<P>(e) The use of the surface lubricants in the manufacture of any article that is the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter must comply with any specifications prescribed by such regulation for the finished form of the article.
</P>
<P>(f) Any substance that is listed in this section and the subject of a regulation in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter shall comply with any applicable specifications prescribed by such regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14609, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 238, Jan. 4, 1983; 49 FR 10113, Mar. 19, 1984; 49 FR 29579, July 23, 1984; 50 FR 36874, Sept. 10, 1985; 52 FR 10223, Mar. 31, 1987; 54 FR 6124, Feb. 8, 1989; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 56 FR 55456, Oct. 28, 1991; 57 FR 23953, June 5, 1992; 58 FR 17513, Apr. 5, 1993; 64 FR 47110, Aug. 30, 1999; 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004; 87 FR 31089, May 20, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3930" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3930   Terpene resins.</HEAD>
<P>The terpene resins identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be safely used as components of polypropylene film intended for use in contact with food, and the terpene resins identified in paragraph (b) of this section may be safely used as components of polyolefin film intended for use in contact with food;
</P>
<P>(a) Terpene resins consisting of the hydrogenated polymers of terpene hydrocarbons obtainable from sulfate turpentine and meeting the following specifications: Drop-softening point of 118°-138 °C; iodine value less than 20.
</P>
<P>(b) Terpene resins consisting of polymers of beta-pinene and meeting the following specifications: Acid value less than 1; saponification number less than 1; color less than 4 on the Gardner scale as measured in 50 percent mineral spirits solution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3940" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3940   Tetraethylene glycol di-(2-ethylhexoate).</HEAD>
<P>Tetraethylene glycol di-(2-ethylhexoate) containing not more than 22 parts per million ethylene and/or diethylene glycols may be used at a level not to exceed 0.7 percent by weight of twine as a finish on twine to be used for tying meat provided the twine fibers are produced from nylon resins complying with § 177.1500 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 178.3950" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.9.4.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 178.3950   Tetrahydrofuran.</HEAD>
<P>Tetrahydrofuran may be safely used in the fabrication of articles intended for packaging, transporting, or storing foods, subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) It is used as a solvent in the casting of film from a solution of polymeric resins of vinyl chloride, vinyl acetate, or vinylidene chloride that have been polymerized singly or copolymerized with one another in any combination, or it may be used as a solvent in the casting of film prepared from vinyl chloride copolymers complying with § 177.1980 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The residual amount of tetrahydrofuran in the film does not exceed 1.5 percent by weight of film.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="179" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 179—IRRADIATION IN THE PRODUCTION, PROCESSING AND HANDLING OF FOOD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 348, 373, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14635, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 179 appear at 70 FR 72074, Dec. 1, 2005.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Radiation and Radiation Sources</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.21" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.21   Sources of radiation used for inspection of food, for inspection of packaged food, and for controlling food processing.</HEAD>
<P>Sources of radiation for the purposes of inspection of foods, for inspection of packaged food, and for controlling food processing may be safely used under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The radiation source is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) X-ray tubes producing X-radiation from operation of the tube source at a voltage of 500 kilovolt peak or lower.
</P>
<P>(2) Sealed units producing radiations at energy levels of not more than 2.2 million electron volts from one of the following isotopes: Americium-241, cesium-137, cobalt-60, iodine-125, krypton-85, radium-226, and strontium-90.
</P>
<P>(3) Sealed units producing neutron radiation from the isotope Californium-252 (CAS Reg. No. 13981-17-4) to measure moisture in food.
</P>
<P>(4) Machine sources producing X-radiation at energies no greater than 10 million electron volts (MeV).
</P>
<P>(5) Monoenergetic neutron sources producing neutrons at energies not less than 1 MeV but no greater than 14 MeV.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of these radiation sources:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the sources shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate and accurate information identifying the source of radiation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum energy of radiation emitted by X-ray tube sources.
</P>
<P>(iii) The maximum energy of X-radiation emitted by machine source.
</P>
<P>(iv) The minimum and maximum energy of radiation emitted by neutron source.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or accompanying labeling shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) Adequate directions for installation and use.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that no food shall be exposed to radiation sources listed in paragraph (a)(1) and (2) of this section so as to receive an absorbed dose in excess of 10 grays.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that no food shall be exposed to a radiation source listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section so as to receive an absorbed dose in excess of 2 milligrays.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that no food shall be exposed to a radiation source listed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section so as to receive a dose in excess of 0.5 gray (Gy).
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that no food shall be exposed to a radiation source listed in paragraph (a)(5) of this section so as to receive a dose in excess of 0.01 gray (Gy).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14635, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 46022, Oct. 11, 1983; 61 FR 14246, Apr. 1, 1996; 64 FR 69191, Dec. 10, 1999; 66 FR 18539, Apr. 10, 2001; 69 FR 76404, Dec. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.25" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.25   General provisions for food irradiation.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of § 179.26, current good manufacturing practice is defined to include the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(a) Any firm that treats foods with ionizing radiation shall comply with the requirements of parts 110 and 117 of this chapter and other applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Food treated with ionizing radiation shall receive the minimum radiation dose reasonably required to accomplish its intended technical effect and not more than the maximum dose specified by the applicable regulation for that use.
</P>
<P>(c) Packaging materials subjected to irradiation incidental to the radiation treatment and processing of prepackaged food shall be in compliance with § 179.45, shall be the subject of an exemption for such use under § 170.39 of this chapter, or shall be the subject of an effective premarket notification for a food contact substance for such use submitted under § 170.100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Radiation treatment of food shall conform to a scheduled process. A scheduled process for food irradiation is a written procedure that ensures that the radiation dose range selected by the food irradiation processor is adequate under commercial processing conditions (including atmosphere and temperature) for the radiation to achieve its intended effect on a specific product and in a specific facility. A food irradiation processor shall operate with a scheduled process established by qualified persons having expert knowledge in radiation processing requirements of food and specific for that food and for that irradiation processor's treatment facility.
</P>
<P>(e) A food irradiation processor shall maintain records as specified in this section for a period of time that exceeds the shelf life of the irradiated food product by 1 year, up to a maximum of 3 years, whichever period is shorter, and shall make these records available for inspection and copy by authorized employees of the Food and Drug Administration. Such records shall include the food treated, lot identification, scheduled process, evidence of compliance with the scheduled process, ionizing energy source, source calibration, dosimetry, dose distribution in the product, and the date of irradiation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 13399, Apr. 18, 1986, as amended at 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002; 67 FR 35731, May 21, 2002; 80 FR 56168, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.26" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.26   Ionizing radiation for the treatment of food.</HEAD>
<P>Ionizing radiation for treatment of foods may be safely used under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Energy sources.</I> Ionizing radiation is limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Gamma rays from sealed units of the radionuclides cobalt-60 or cesium-137.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrons generated from machine sources at energies not to exceed 10 million electron volts.
</P>
<P>(3) X rays generated from machine sources at energies not to exceed 5 million electron volts (MeV), except as permitted by paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) X rays generated from machine sources using tantalum or gold as the target material and using energies not to exceed 7.5 (MeV).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. For control of <E T="03">Trichinella spiralis</E> in pork carcasses or fresh, non-heat-processed cuts of pork carcasses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum dose 0.3 kiloGray (kGy) (30 kilorad (krad)); maximum dose not to exceed 1 kGy (100 krad).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. For growth and maturation inhibition of fresh foods</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 1 kGy (100 krad).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. For disinfestation of arthropod pests in food</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. For microbial disinfection of dry or dehydrated enzyme preparations (including immobilized enzymes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 10 kGy (1 megarad (Mrad)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. For microbial disinfection of the following dry or dehydrated aromatic vegetable substances when used as ingredients in small amounts solely for flavoring or aroma: culinary herbs, seeds, spices, vegetable seasonings that are used to impart flavor but that are not either represented as, or appear to be, a vegetable that is eaten for its own sake, and blends of these aromatic vegetable substances. Turmeric and paprika may also be irradiated when they are to be used as color additives. The blends may contain sodium chloride and minor amounts of dry food ingredients ordinarily used in such blends</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 30 kGy (3 Mrad).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. For control of food-borne pathogens in fresh (refrigerated or unrefrigerated) or frozen, uncooked poultry products that are: (1) Whole carcasses or disjointed portions (or other parts) of such carcasses that are “ready-to-cook poultry” within the meaning of 9 CFR 381.l(b) (with or without nonfluid seasoning; includes, e.g., ground poultry), or (2) mechanically separated poultry product (a finely comminuted ingredient produced by the mechanical deboning of poultry carcasses or parts of carcasses)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 4.5 kGy for non-frozen products; not to exceed 7.0 kGy for frozen products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. For the sterilization of frozen, packaged meats used solely in the National Aeronautics and Space Administration space flight programs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum dose 44 kGy (4.4 Mrad). Packaging materials used need not comply with § 179.25(c) provided that their use is otherwise permitted by applicable regulations in parts 174 through 186 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. For control of foodborne pathogens in, and extension of the shelf-life of, refrigerated or frozen, uncooked products that are meat within the meaning of 9 CFR 301.2(rr), meat byproducts within the meaning of 9 CFR 301.2(tt), or meat food products within the meaning of 9 CFR 301.2(uu), with or without nonfluid seasoning, that are otherwise composed solely of intact or ground meat, meat byproducts, or both meat and meat byproducts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 4.5 kGy maximum for refrigerated products; not to exceed 7.0 kGy maximum for frozen products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. For control of <E T="03">Salmonella</E> in fresh shell eggs.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 3.0 kGy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. For control of microbial pathogens on seeds for sprouting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 8.0 kGy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. For the control of Vibrio bacteria and other foodborne microorganisms in or on fresh or frozen molluscan shellfish.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 5.5 kGy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. For control of food-borne pathogens and extension of shelf-life in fresh iceberg lettuce and fresh spinach.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 4.0 kGy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. For control of foodborne pathogens, and extension of shelf-life, in unrefrigerated (as well as refrigerated) uncooked meat, meat byproducts, and certain meat food products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 4.5 kGy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. For control of food-borne pathogens in, and extension of the shelf-life of, chilled or frozen raw, cooked, or partially cooked crustaceans or dried crustaceans (water activity less than 0.85), with or without spices, minerals, inorganic salts, citrates, citric acid, and/or calcium disodium EDTA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 6.0 kGy.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> (1) The label and labeling of retail packages of foods irradiated in conformance with paragraph (b) of this section shall bear the following logo along with either the statement
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.000.gif"/>
<P>“Treated with radiation” or the statement “Treated by irradiation” in addition to information required by other regulations. The logo shall be placed prominently and conspicuously in conjunction with the required statement. The radiation disclosure statement is not required to be more prominent than the declaration of ingredients required under § 101.4 of this chapter. As used in this provision, the term “radiation disclosure statement” means the written statement that discloses that a food has been intentionally subject to irradiation.
</P>
<P>(2) For irradiated foods not in package form, the required logo and phrase “Treated with radiation” or “Treated by irradiation” shall be displayed to the purchaser with either (i) the labeling of the bulk container plainly in view or (ii) a counter sign, card, or other appropriate device bearing the information that the product has been treated with radiation. As an alternative, each item of food may be individually labeled. In either case, the information must be prominently and conspicuously displayed to purchasers. The labeling requirement applies only to a food that has been irradiated, not to a food that merely contains an irradiated ingredient but that has not itself been irradiated.
</P>
<P>(3) For a food, any portion of which is irradiated in conformance with paragraph (b) of this section, the label and labeling and invoices or bills of lading shall bear either the statement “Treated with radiation—do not irradiate again” or the statement “Treated by irradiation—do not irradiate again” when shipped to a food manufacturer or processor for further processing, labeling, or packing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 13399, Apr. 18, 1986]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 179.26, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.30" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.30   Radiofrequency radiation for the heating of food, including microwave frequencies.</HEAD>
<P>Radiofrequency radiation, including microwave frequencies, may be safely used for heating food under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The radiation source consists of electronic equipment producing radio waves with specific frequencies for this purpose authorized by the Federal Communications Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The radiation is used or intended for use in the production of heat in food wherever heat is necessary and effective in the treatment or processing of food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.39" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.39   Ultraviolet radiation for the processing and treatment of food.</HEAD>
<P>Ultraviolet radiation for the processing and treatment of food may be safely used under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The radiation sources consist of low pressure mercury lamps emitting 90 percent of the emission at a wavelength of 253.7 nanometers (2,537 Angstroms). 
</P>
<P>(b) The ultraviolet radiation is used or intended for use as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Irradiated food 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Food and food products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without ozone production: high fat-content food irradiated in vacuum or in an inert atmosphere; intensity of radiation, 1 W (of 2,537 A. radiation) per 5 to 10 ft.
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Surface microorganism control. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potable water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without ozone production; coefficient of absorption, 0.19 per cm or less; flow rate, 100 gal/h per watt of 2,537 A. radiation; water depth, 1 cm or less; lamp-operating temperature, 36 to 46 °C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sterilization of water used in food production. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Juice products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turbulent flow through tubes with a minimum Reynolds number of 2,200.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reduction of human pathogens and other microorganisms.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14635, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 65 FR 71057, Nov. 29, 2000]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.41" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.41   Pulsed light for the treatment of food.</HEAD>
<P>Pulsed light may be safely used for treatment of foods under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The radiation sources consist of xenon flashlamps designed to emit broadband radiation consisting of wavelengths covering the range of 200 to 1,100 nanometers (nm), and operated so that the pulse duration is no longer than 2 milliseconds (msec);
</P>
<P>(b) The treatment is used for surface microorganism control;
</P>
<P>(c) Foods treated with pulsed light shall receive the minimum treatment reasonably required to accomplish the intended technical effect; and
</P>
<P>(d) The total cumulative treatment shall not exceed 12.0 Joules/square centimeter (J/cm
<SU>2</SU>.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 42383, Aug. 15, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.43" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.43   Carbon dioxide laser for etching food.</HEAD>
<P>Carbon dioxide laser light may be safely used for etching information on the surface of food under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The radiation source consists of a carbon dioxide laser designed to emit pulsed infrared radiation with a wavelength of 10.6 micrometers such that the maximum energy output of the laser does not exceed 9.8 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> joules per square centimeter (J/cm
<SU>2</SU>);
</P>
<P>(b) The carbon dioxide laser shall be used only for etching information on the skin of fresh, intact citrus fruit, providing the fruit has been adequately washed and waxed prior to laser etching, and the etched area is immediately rewaxed after treatment; and
</P>
<P>(c) The maximum total energy to which the etched citrus fruit is exposed from the use of the carbon dioxide laser shall not exceed 1.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> J, and the maximum total etched surface area of the citrus fruit shall not exceed 0.122 cm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 34215, June 11, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Packaging Materials for Irradiated Foods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 179.45" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 179.45   Packaging materials for use during the irradiation of prepackaged foods.</HEAD>
<P>The packaging materials identified in this section may be safely subjected to irradiation incidental to the radiation treatment and processing of prepackaged foods, subject to the provisions of this section and to the requirement that no induced radioactivity is detectable in the packaging material itself:
</P>
<P>(a) The radiation of the food itself shall comply with regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following packaging materials may be subjected to a dose of radiation, not to exceed 10 kilograys, unless otherwise indicated, incidental to the use of gamma, electron beam, or X-radiation in the radiation treatment of prepackaged foods:
</P>
<P>(1) Nitrocellulose-coated or vinylidene chloride copolymer-coated cellophane complying with § 177.1200 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Glassine paper complying with § 176.170 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Wax-coated paperboard complying with § 176.170 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Polyolefin film prepared from one or more of the basic olefin polymers complying with § 177.1520 of this chapter. The finished film may contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Adjuvant substances used in compliance with §§ 178.3740 and 181.22 through 181.30 of this chapter, sodium citrate, sodium lauryl sulfate, polyvinyl chloride, and materials as listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Coatings comprising a vinylidene chloride copolymer containing a minimum of 85 percent vinylidene chloride with one or more of the following comonomers: Acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, itaconic acid, methyl acrylate, and methyl methacrylate.
</P>
<P>(5) Kraft paper prepared from unbleached sulfate pulp to which rosin, complying with § 178.3870 of this chapter, and alum may be added. The kraft paper is used only as a container for flour and is irradiated with a dose not exceeding 500 grays.
</P>
<P>(6) Polyethylene terephthalate film prepared from the basic polymer as described in § 177.1630(e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this chapter. The finished film may contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Adjuvant substances used in compliance with §§ 178.3740 and 181.22 through 181.30 of this chapter, sodium citrate, sodium lauryl sulfate, polyvinyl chloride, and materials as listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Coatings comprising a vinylidene chloride copolymer containing a minimum of 85 percent vinylidene chloride with one or more of the following comonomers: Acrylic acid, acrylonitrile, itaconic acid, methyl acrylate, and methyl methacrylate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Coatings consisting of polyethylene conforming to § 177.1520 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) Polystyrene film prepared from styrene basic polymer. The finished film may contain adjuvant substances used in compliance with §§ 178.3740 and 181.22 through 181.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Rubber hydrochloride film prepared from rubber hydrochloride basic polymer having a chlorine content of 30-32 weight percent and having a maximum extractable fraction of 2 weight percent when extracted with <I>n</I>-hexane at reflux temperature for 2 hours. The finished film may contain adjuvant substances used in compliance with §§ 178.3740 and 181.22 through 181.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) Vinylidene chloride-vinyl chloride copolymer film prepared from vinylidene chloride-vinyl chloride basic copolymers containing not less than 70 weight percent of vinylidene chloride and having a viscosity of 0.50-1.50 centipoises as determined by ASTM method D729-81, “Standard Specification for Vinylidene Chloride Molding Compounds,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428-2959, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The finished film may contain adjuvant substances used in compliance with §§ 178.3740 and 181.22 through 181.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(10) Nylon 11 conforming to § 177.1500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymers complying with § 177.1350 of this chapter. The ethylene-vinyl acetate packaging materials may be subjected to a dose of radiation, not to exceed 30 kilogray (3 megarads), incidental to the use of gamma, electron beam, or X-radiation in the radiation treatment of packaged foods.
</P>
<P>(d) The following packaging materials may be subjected to a dose of radiation, not to exceed 60 kilograys incidental to the use of gamma, electron beam, or X-radiation in the radiation processing of prepackaged foods:
</P>
<P>(1) Vegetable parchments, consisting of a cellulose material made from waterleaf paper (unsized) treated with concentrated sulfuric acid, neutralized, and thoroughly washed with distilled water.
</P>
<P>(2) Films prepared from basic polymers and with or without adjuvants, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Polyethylene film prepared from the basic polymer as described in § 177.1520(a) of this chapter. The finished film may contain one or more of the following added substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amides of erucic, linoleic, oleic, palmitic, and stearic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 1 pct by weight of the polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHA as described in § 172.110 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BHT as described in § 172.115 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium and sodium propionates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum wax as described in § 178.3710 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene, noncrystalline, as described in § 177.1520(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 2 pct by weight of the polymer. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearates of aluminum, calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium as described in § 172.863(a) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed 1 pct by weight of the polymer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylene glycol as described in § 178.3740(b) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil as described in § 178.3620 (a) or (b) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Polyethylene terephthalate film prepared from the basic polymer as described in § 177.1630(e)(4)(ii) of this chapter. The finished film may contain one or more of the added substances listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nylon 6 films prepared from the nylon 6 basic polymer as described in § 177.1500(a)(6) of this chapter and meeting the specifications of item 6.1 of the table in § 177.1500(b) of this chapter. The finished film may contain one or more of the added substances listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate copolymer film prepared from the basic copolymer containing 88.5 to 90.0 weight percent of vinyl chloride with 10.0 to 11.5 weight percent of vinyl acetate and having a maximum volatility of not over 3.0 percent (1 hour at 105 °C) and viscosity not less than 0.30 determined by ASTM method D1243-79, “Standard Test Method for Dilute Solution Viscosity of Vinyl Chloride Polymers,” Method A, which is incorporated by reference. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(9) of this section. The finished film may contain one or more of the added substances listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Acrylonitrile copolymers identified in this section shall comply with the provisions of § 180.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14635, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10113, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 7405, Feb. 21, 1989; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 14551, Mar. 29, 1994; 61 FR 14246, Apr. 1, 1996; 66 FR 10575, Feb. 16, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="180" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 180—FOOD ADDITIVES PERMITTED IN FOOD OR IN CONTACT WITH FOOD ON AN INTERIM BASIS PENDING ADDITIONAL STUDY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 348, 371; 42 U.S.C. 241.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14636, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 180 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; and 81 FR 49896, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 180.1" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 180.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Substances having a history of use in food for human consumption or in food contact surfaces may at any time have their safety or functionality brought into question by new information that in itself is not conclusive. An interim food additive regulation for the use of any such substance may be promulgated in this subpart when new information raises a substantial question about the safety or functionality of the substance but there is a reasonable certainty that the substance is not harmful and that no harm to the public health will result from the continued use of the substance for a limited period of time while the question raised is being resolved by further study.
</P>
<P>(b) No interim food additive regulation may be promulgated if the new information is conclusive with respect to the question raised or if there is a reasonable likelihood that the substance is harmful or that continued use of the substance will result in harm to the public health.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner, on his own initiative or on the petition of any interested person, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, may propose an interim food additive regulation. A final order promulgating an interim food additive regulation shall provide that continued use of the substance in food is subject to each of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Use of the substance in food or food contact surfaces must comply with whatever limitations the Commissioner deems to be appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 60 days following the effective date of the regulation, an interested person shall satisfy the Commissioner in writing that studies adequate and appropriate to resolve the questions raised about the substance have been undertaken, or the Food and Drug Administration may undertake the studies. The Commissioner may extend this 60-day period if necessary to review and act on proposed protocols. If no such commitment is made, or adequate and appropriate studies are not undertaken, an order shall immediately be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> revoking the interim food additive regulation effective upon publication.
</P>
<P>(3) A progress report shall be filed on the studies every January 1 and July 1 until completion. If the progress report is inadequate or if the Commissioner concludes that the studies are not being pursued promptly and diligently or if interim results indicate a reasonable likelihood that a health hazard exists, an order will promptly be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> revoking the interim food additive regulation effective upon publication.
</P>
<P>(4) If nonclinical laboratory studies are involved, studies filed with the Commissioner shall include, with respect to each study, either a statement that the study has been or will be conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations as set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if any such study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) If clinical investigations involving human subjects are involved, such investigations filed with the Commissioner shall include, with respect to each investigation, a statement that the investigation either was conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to such requirements in accordance with §§ 56.104 or 56.105, and that it has been or will be conducted in compliance with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Promptly upon completion of the studies undertaken on the substance, the Commissioner will review all available data, will terminate the interim food additive regulation, and will either issue a food additive regulation or will require elimination of the substance from the food supply.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commissioner may consult with advisory committees, professional organizations, or other experts in the field, in evaluating:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether an interim food additive regulation is justified,
</P>
<P>(2) The type of studies necessary and appropriate to resolve questions raised about a substance,
</P>
<P>(3) Whether interim results indicate the reasonable likelihood that a health hazard exists, or
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the data available at the conclusion of those studies justify a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(f) Where appropriate, an emergency action level may be issued for a substance subject to paragraph (a) of this section that is not an approved food additive, pending the issuance of a final interim food additive regulation. Such an action level shall be issued pursuant to sections 306 and 402(a) of the act to identify, based upon available data, a safe level of use for the substance. Such an action level shall be issued in a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall be followed as soon as practicable by a proposed interim food additive regulation. Where the available data do not permit establishing an action level for the safe use of a substance, use of the substance may be prohibited. The identification of a prohibited substance may be made in part 189 of this chapter when appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14636, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977; 46 FR 8952, Jan. 27, 1981; 46 FR 14340, Feb. 27, 1981; 50 FR 7492, Feb. 22, 1985; 54 FR 39634, Sept. 27, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Requirements for Certain Food Additives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 180.22" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 180.22   Acrylonitrile copolymers.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylonitrile copolymers may be safely used on an interim basis as articles or components of articles intended for use in contact with food, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Limitations for acrylonitrile monomer extraction for finished food-contact articles, determined by a method of analysis titled “Gas-Solid Chromatographic Procedure for Determining Acrylonitrile Monomer in Acrylonitrile-Containing Polymers and Food Simulating Solvents,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of single-use articles having a volume to surface ratio of 10 milliliters or more per square inch of food contact surface—0.003 milligram/square inch when extracted to equilibrium at 120 °F with food-simulating solvents appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of single-use articles having a volume to surface ratio of less than 10 milliliters per square inch of food contact surface—0.3 part per million calculated on the basis of the volume of the container when extracted to equilibrium at 120 °F with food-simulating solvents appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of repeated-use articles—0.003 milligram/square inch when extracted at a time equivalent to initial batch usage utilizing food-simulating solvents and temperatures appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<FP>The food-simulating solvents shall include, where applicable, distilled water, 8 percent or 50 percent ethanol, 3 percent acetic acid, and either <I>n</I>-heptane or an appropriate oil or fat.
</FP>
<P>(b) Where necessary, current regulations permitting the use of acrylonitrile copolymers shall be revised to specify limitations on acrylonitrile/mercaptan complexes utilized in the production of acrylonitrile copolymers. Such copolymers, if they contain reversible acrylonitrile/mercaptan complexes and are used in other than repeated-use conditions, shall be tested to determine the identity of the complex and the level of the complex present in the food-contact article. Such testing shall include determination of the rate of decomposition of the complex at temperatures of 100 °F, 160 °F, and 212 °F using 3 percent acetic acid as the hydrolic agent. Acrylonitrile monomer levels, acrylonitrile/mercaptan complex levels, acrylonitrile oligomer levels, descriptions of the analytical methods used to determine the complex and the acrylonitrile migration, and validation studies of these analytical methods shall be submitted by June 9, 1977, to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, unless an extension is granted by the Food and Drug Administration for good cause shown. Analytical methods for the determination of acrylonitrile complexes with <I>n</I>-dodecyl-mercaptan, n-octyl mercaptan, and 2-mercaptoethanol, titled “Determination of β-Dodecyl-mercaptopropionitrile in NR-16R Aqueous Extracts” and “Measurement of β-(2-Hdroxyethylmercapto) Propionitrile in Heptane Food-Simulating Solvent,” are incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The following data shall be provided for finished food-contact articles intended for repeated use:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualitative and quantitative migration values at a time equivalent to initial batch usage, utilizing solvents and temperatures appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Qualitative and quantitative migration values at the time of equilibrium extractions, utilizing solvents and temperatures appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(3) Data on the volume and/or weight of food handled during the initial batch time period(s), during the equilibrium test period, and over the estimated life of the food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(d) Where acrylonitrile copolymers represent only a minor component of a polymer system, calculations based on 100 percent migration of the acrylonitrile component may be submitted in lieu of the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section in support of the continued safe use of acrylonitrile copolymers.
</P>
<P>(e) On or before September 13, 1976, any interested person shall satisfy the Commissioner of Food and Drugs that toxicological feeding studies adequate and appropriate to establish safe conditions for the use of acrylonitrile copolymers have been, or soon will be, undertaken. Toxicity studies of acrylonitrile monomer shall include: (1) Lifetime feeding studies with a mammalian species, preferably with animals exposed in utero to the chemical, (2) studies of multigeneration reproduction with oral administration of the test material, (3) assessment of teratogenic and mutagenic potentials, (4) subchronic oral administration in a nonrodent mammal, (5) tests to determine any synergistic toxic effects between acrylonitrile monomer and cyanide ion, and (6) a literature search on the effects of chronic ingestion of hydrogen cyanide. Data on levels of acrylamide extractable from acrylonitrile copolymers shall also be submitted. Protocols of testing should be submitted for review to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(f) Acrylonitrile copolymers may be used in contact with food only if authorized in parts 174 through 179 or § 181.32 of this chapter, except that other uses of acrylonitrile copolymers in use prior to June 14, 1976, may continue under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) On or before August 13, 1976, each use of acrylonitrile copolymers in a manner not authorized by § 181.32 of this chapter or parts 174 through 179 of this chapter shall be the subject of a notice to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. Such notice shall be accompanied by a statement of the basis, including any articles and correspondence, on which the user in good faith believed the use to be prior-sanctioned. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs shall, by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> identify any use of acrylonitrile copolymers not in accordance with this paragraph. Those uses are thereafter unapproved food additives and consequently unlawful.
</P>
<P>(2) Any use of acrylonitrile copolymers subject to paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall be the subject of a petition submitted on or before December 13, 1976, in accordance with § 171.1 of this chapter, unless an extension of time is granted by the Food and Drug Administration for good cause shown. Any application for extension shall be by petition submitted in accordance with the requirements of part 10 of this chapter. If a petition is denied, in whole or in part, those uses subject to the denial are thereafter unapproved food additives and consequently unlawful.
</P>
<P>(3) Any use of acrylonitrile copolymers subject to paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall meet the acrylonitrile monomer extraction limitation set forth in paragraph (a) of this section and shall be subject to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) In addition to the requirements of this section, the use of acrylonitrile copolymers shall comply with all applicable requirements in other regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14636, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11850, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 61 FR 14246, Apr. 1, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 180.25" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 180.25   Mannitol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mannitol is the chemical 1,2,3,4,5,6,-hexanehexol (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">14</E>O<E T="52">6</E>) a hexahydric alcohol, differing from sorbitol principally by having a different optical rotation. Mannitol is produced by one of the following processes:
</P>
<P>(1) The electrolytic reduction or transition metal catalytic hydrogenation of sugar solutions containing glucose or fructose.
</P>
<P>(2) The fermentation of sugars or sugar alcohols such as glucose, sucrose, fructose, or sorbitol using the yeast <I>Zygosaccharomyces rouxii.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) A pure culture fermentation of sugars such as fructose, glucose, or maltose using the nonpathogenic, nontoxicogenic bacterium <I>Lactobacillus intermedius</I> (<I>fermentum</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 188-190, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an anticaking agent and free-flow agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter, formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter, firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter, flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter, lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter, nutritive sweetener as defined in § 170.3(o)(21) of this chapter, processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter, stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter, and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed 98 percent in pressed mints and 5 percent in all other hard candy and cough drops as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter, 31 percent in chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter, 40 percent in soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter, 8 percent in confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter, 15 percent in nonstandardized jams and jellies, commercial, as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter, and at levels less than 2.5 percent in all other foods.
</P>
<P>(e) The label and labeling of food whose reasonably foreseeable consumption may result in a daily ingestion of 20 grams of mannitol shall bear the statement “Excess consumption may have a laxative effect”.
</P>
<P>(f) In accordance with § 180.1, adequate and appropriate feeding studies have been undertaken for this substance. Continued uses of this ingredient are contingent upon timely and adequate progress reports of such tests, and no indication of increased risk to public health during the test period.
</P>
<P>(g) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this regulation do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14636, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5610, Feb. 14, 1984; 61 FR 7991, Mar. 1, 1996; 69 FR 65542, Nov. 15, 2004]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 180.37" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 180.37   Saccharin, ammonium saccharin, calcium saccharin, and sodium saccharin.</HEAD>
<P>The food additives saccharin, ammonium saccharin, calcium saccharin, and sodium saccharin may be safely used as sweetening agents in food in accordance with the following conditions, if the substitution for nutritive sweeteners is for a valid special dietary purpose and is in accord with current special dietary food regulations and policies or if the use or intended use is for an authorized technological purpose other than calorie reduction:
</P>
<P>(a) Saccharin is the chemical, 1,2-benzisothiazolin-3-one - 1,1 - dioxide (C<E T="52">7</E>H<E T="52">5</E>NO<E T="52">3</E>S). The named salts of saccharin are produced by the additional neutralization of saccharin with the proper base to yield the desired salt.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additives meet the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 7th ed. (2010), pp. 52-54, 153-154, 898-899, 961-962, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852 (Internet address <I>http://www.usp.org</I>). Copies may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Authority for such use shall expire when the Commissioner receives the final reports on the ongoing studies in Canada and publishes an order on the safety of saccharin and its salts based on those reports and other available data.
</P>
<P>(d) The additives are used or intended for use as a sweetening agent only in special dietary foods, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In beverages, fruit juice drinks, and bases or mixes when prepared for consumption in accordance with directions, in amounts not to exceed 12 milligrams of the additive, calculated as saccharin, per fluid ounce.
</P>
<P>(2) As a sugar substitute for cooking or table use, in amounts not to exceed 20 milligrams of the additive, calculated as saccharin, for each expressed teaspoonful of sugar sweetening equivalency.
</P>
<P>(3) In processed foods, in amounts not to exceed 30 milligrams of the additive, calculated as saccharin, per serving of designated size.
</P>
<P>(e) The additives are used or intended for use only for the following technological purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To reduce bulk and enhance flavors in chewable vitamin tablets, chewable mineral tablets, or combinations thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) To retain flavor and physical properties of chewing gum.
</P>
<P>(3) To enhance flavor of flavor chips used in nonstandardized bakery products.
</P>
<P>(f) To assure safe use of the additives, in addition to the other information required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive and any intermediate mixes of the additive for manufacturing purposes shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration of the additive, expressed as saccharin, in any intermediate mix.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate directions for use to provide a final food product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of any finished food product containing the additive shall bear:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the additive, calculated as saccharin, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) For beverages, in milligrams per fluid ounce;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For cooking or table use products, in milligrams per dispensing unit;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) For processed foods, in terms of the weight or size of a serving which shall be that quantity of the food containing 30 milligrams or less of the additive.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the additive is used for calorie reduction, such other labeling as is required by part 105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14636, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5610, Feb. 14, 1984; 72 FR 10357, Mar. 8, 2007; 78 FR 71467, Nov. 29, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="181" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 181—PRIOR-SANCTIONED FOOD INGREDIENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 181 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996, and 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.1" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An ingredient whose use in food or food packaging is subject to a prior sanction or approval within the meaning of section 201(s)(4) of the Act is exempt from classification as a food additive. The Commissioner will publish in this part all known prior sanctions. Any interested person may submit to the Commissioner a request for publication of a prior sanction, supported by evidence to show that it falls within section 201(s)(4) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Based upon scientific data or information that shows that use of a prior-sanctioned food ingredient may be injurious to health, and thus in violation of section 402 of the Act, the Commissioner will establish or amend an applicable prior sanction regulation to impose whatever limitations or conditions are necessary for the safe use of the ingredient, or to prohibit use of the ingredient.
</P>
<P>(c) Where appropriate, an emergency action level may be issued for a prior-sanctioned substance, pending the issuance of a final regulation in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Such an action level shall be issued pursuant to section 402(a) of the Act to identify, based upon available data, conditions of use of the substance that may be injurious to health. Such an action level shall be issued in a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall be followed as soon as practicable by a proposed regulation in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Where the available data demonstrate that the substance may be injurious at any level, use of the substance may be prohibited. The identification of a prohibited substance may be made in part 189 of this chapter when appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977; 54 FR 39635, Sept. 27, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.5" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.5   Prior sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prior sanction shall exist only for a specific use(s) of a substance in food, i.e., the level(s), condition(s), product(s), etc., for which there was explicit approval by the Food and Drug Administration or the United States Department of Agriculture prior to September 6, 1958.
</P>
<P>(b) The existence of a prior sanction exempts the sanctioned use(s) from the food additive provisions of the Act but not from the other adulteration or the misbranding provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) All known prior sanctions shall be the subject of a regulation published in this part. Any such regulation is subject to amendment to impose whatever limitation(s) or condition(s) may be necessary for the safe use of the ingredient, or revocation to prohibit use of the ingredient, in order to prevent the adulteration of food in violation of section 402 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) In proposing, after a general evaluation of use of an ingredient, regulations affirming the GRAS status of substances added directly to human food in part 184 of this chapter or substances in food-contact surfaces in part 186 of this chapter, or establishing a food additive regulation for substances added directly to human food in parts 172 and 173 of this chapter or food additives in food-contact surfaces in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 and § 179.45 of this chapter, the Commissioner shall, if he is aware of any prior sanction for use of the ingredient under conditions different from those proposed in the regulation, concurrently propose a separate regulation covering such use of the ingredient under this part. If the Commissioner is unaware of any such applicable prior sanction, the proposed regulation will so state and will require any person who intends to assert or rely on such sanction to submit proof of its existence. Any food additive or GRAS regulation promulgated after a general evaluation of use of an ingredient constitutes a determination that excluded uses would result in adulteration of the food in violation of section 402 of the Act, and the failure of any person to come forward with proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to a proposal will constitute a waiver of the right to assert or rely on such sanction at any later time. The notice will also constitute a proposal to establish a regulation under this part, incorporating the same provisions, in the event that such a regulation is determined to be appropriate as a result of submission of proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Prior-Sanctioned Food Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.22" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.22   Certain substances employed in the manufacture of food-packaging materials.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the enactment of the food additives amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, sanctions were granted for the usage of the substances listed in §§ 181.23, 181.24, 181.25, 181.26, 181.27, 181.28, 181.29, and 181.30 in the manufacture of packaging materials. So used, these substances are not considered “food additives” within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Act, provided that they are of good commercial grade, are suitable for association with food, and are used in accordance with good manufacturing practice. For the purpose of this subpart, good manufacturing practice for food-packaging materials includes the restriction that the quantity of any of these substances which becomes a component of food as a result of use in food-packaging materials shall not be intended to accomplish any physical or technical effect in the food itself, shall be reduced to the least amount reasonably possible, and shall not exceed any limit specified in this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.23" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.23   Antimycotics.</HEAD>
<P>Substances classified as antimycotics, when migrating from food-packaging material shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Calcium propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylparaben (methyl <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylparaben (propyl <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium benzoate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium propionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbic acid.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.24" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.24   Antioxidants.</HEAD>
<P>Substances classified as antioxidants, when migrating from food-packaging material (limit of addition to food, 0.005 percent) shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Butylated hydroxyanisole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylated hydroxytoluene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dilauryl thiodipropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Distearyl thiodipropionate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gum guaiac.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nordihydroguairetic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propyl gallate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiodipropionic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4,5-Trihydroxy butyrophenone.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.25" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.25   Driers.</HEAD>
<P>Substances classified as driers, when migrating from food-packaging material shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cobalt caprylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cobalt linoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cobalt naphthenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cobalt tallate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron caprylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron linoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron naphthenate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron tallate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Manganese caprylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Manganese linoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Manganese naphthenate. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Manganese tallate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.26" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.26   Drying oils as components of finished resins.</HEAD>
<P>Substances classified as drying oils, when migrating from food-packaging material (as components of finished resins) shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Chinawood oil (tung oil).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dehydrated castor oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linseed oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tall oil.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.27" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.27   Plasticizers.</HEAD>
<P>Substances classified as plasticizers, when migrating from food-packaging material shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetyl tributyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetyl triethyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>p-tert-</I>Butylphenyl salicylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butylphthalyl butyl glycolate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibutyl sebacate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di-(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (for foods of high water content only).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl phthalate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisobutyl adipate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diisooctyl phthalate (for foods of high water content only).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenyl-2-ethylhexyl phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Epoxidized soybean oil (iodine number maximum 6; and oxirane oxygen, minimum, 6.0 percent).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylphthalyl ethyl glycolate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerol monooleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monoisopropyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono, di-, and tristearyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triacetin (glycerol triacetate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethyl citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-(2-Xenolyl)-1,2-epoxypropane.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.28" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.28   Release agents.</HEAD>
<P>Substances classified as release agents, when migrating from food-packaging material shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dimethylpolysiloxane (substantially free from hydrolyzable chloride and alkoxy groups, no more than 18 percent loss in weight after heating 4 hours at 200 °C.; viscosity 300 centisokes, 600 centisokes at 25 °C, specific gravity 0.96 to 0.97 at 25 °C, refractive index 1.400 to 1.404 at 25 °C).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linoleamide (linoleic acid amide).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oleamide (oleic acid amide).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Palmitamide (palmitic acid amide).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearamide (stearic acid amide).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.29" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.29   Stabilizers.</HEAD>
<P>Substances classified as stabilizers, when migrating from food-packaging material shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum mono-, di-, and tristearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonium citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonium potassium hydrogen phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium glycerophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium hydrogen phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium oleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium carbonate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium ricinoleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium hydrogen phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium glycerophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium hydrogen phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono-, di-, and trisodium citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono-, di-, and tripotassium citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium oleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium pyrophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium stearate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium tetrapyrophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stannous stearate (not to exceed 50 parts per million tin as a migrant in finished food).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc orthophosphate (not to exceed 50 parts per million zinc as a migrant in finished food).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc resinate (not to exceed 50 parts per million zinc as a migrant in finished food).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 56728, Oct. 28, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.30" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.30   Substances used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard products used in food packaging.</HEAD>
<P>Substances used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard products used in food packaging shall include:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aliphatic polyoxyethylene ethers.*
<FTREF/>
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>*Under the conditions of normal use, these substances would not reasonably be expected to migrate to food, based on available scientific information and data.</P></FTNT>
<FP-1>1-Alkyl (C<E T="52">6</E>-C<E T="52">18</E>)3-amino-3-aminopropane monoacetate.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Borax or boric acid for use in adhesives, sizes, and coatings.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butadiene-styrene copolymer. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chromium complex of perfluoro-octane sulfonyl glycine for use on paper and paperboard which is waxed.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disodium cyanodithioimidocarbamate with ethylene diamine and potassium <I>N</I>-methyl dithiocarbamate and/or sodium 2-mercaptobenzothiazole (slimicides).*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acrylate and methyl methacrylate copolymers of itaconic acid or methacrylic acid for use only on paper and paperboard which is waxed.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexamethylene tetramine as a setting agent for protein, including casein.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(2-Hydroxyethyl)-1-(4-chlorobutyl)-2-alkyl (C<E T="52">6</E>-C<E T="52">17</E>) imidazolinium chloride.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Itaconic acid (polymerized).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melamine formaldehyde polymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl acrylate (polymerized).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl ethers of mono-, di-, and tripropylene glycol.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myristo chromic chloride complex.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrocellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyethylene glycol 400.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyvinyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium pentachlorophenate as a slime control agent.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium trichlorophenate as a slime control agent.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resins from high and low viscosity polyvinyl alcohol for fatty foods only.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rubber hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium pentachlorophenate as a slime control agent.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium-trichlorophenate as a slime control agent.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearato-chromic chloride complex.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Titanium dioxide.*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Urea formaldehyde polymer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinylidine chlorides (polymerized).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.32" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.32   Acrylonitrile copolymers and resins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Acrylonitrile copolymers and resins listed in this section, containing less than 30 percent acrylonitrile and complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, may be safely used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Films.</I> (i) Acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene copolymers—no restrictions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Acrylonitrile/butadiene copolymers—no restrictions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Acrylonitrile/butadiene copolymer blended with vinyl chloride-vinyl acetate (optional at level up to 5 percent by weight of the vinyl chloride resin) resin—for use only in contact with oleomargarine.
</P>
<P>(iv) Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymer—no restrictions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Coatings.</I> (i) Acrylonitrile/butadiene copolymer blended with polyvinyl chloride resins—for use only on paper and paperboard in contact with meats and lard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polyvinyl chloride resin blended with either acrylonitrile/butadiene copolymer or acrylonitrile/butadiene styrene copolymer mixed with neoprene, for use as components of conveyor belts to be used with fresh fruits, vegetables, and fish.
</P>
<P>(iii) Acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene copolymer—no restrictions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Acrylonitrile/styrene copolymer—no restrictions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rigid and semirigid containers.</I> (i) Acrylonitrile/butadiene/styrene copolymer—for use only as piping for handling food products and for repeated-use articles intended to contact food.
</P>
<P>(ii) Acrylonitrile/styrene resin—no restrictions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Acrylonitrile/butadiene copolymer blended with polyvinyl chloride resin—for use only as extruded pipe.
</P>
<P>(b) Limitations for acrylonitrile monomer extraction for finished food-contact articles, determined by using the method of analysis titled “Gas-Solid Chromatographic Procedure for Determining Acrylonitrile Monomer in Acrylonitrile-Containing Polymers and Food-Simulating Solvents,” which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of single-use articles having a volume to surface ratio of 10 milliliters or more per square inch of food-contact surface—0.003 milligram/square inch when extracted to equilibrium at 120 °F with food-simulating solvents appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of single-use articles having a volume to surface ratio of less than 10 milliliters per square inch of food-contact surface—0.3 part per million calculated on the basis of the volume of the container when extracted to equilibrium at 120 °F with food-simulating solvents appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of repeated-use articles—0.003 milligram/square inch when extracted at a time equivalent to initial batch usage utilizing food-simulating solvents and temperatures appropriate to the intended conditions of use.
</P>
<FP>The food-simulating solvents shall include, where applicable, distilled water, 8 percent or 50 percent ethanol, 3 percent acetic acid, and either <I>n</I>-heptane or an appropriate oil or fat.
</FP>
<P>(c) Acrylonitrile monomer may present a hazard to health when ingested. Accordingly, any food-contact article containing acrylonitrile copolymers or resins that yield acrylonitrile monomer in excess of that amount provided for in paragraph (b) of this section shall be deemed to be adulterated in violation of section 402 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14638, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11850, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.33" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.33   Sodium nitrate and potassium nitrate.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium nitrate and potassium nitrate are subject to prior sanctions issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture for use as sources of nitrite, with or without sodium or potassium nitrite, in the production of cured red meat products and cured poultry products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 1705, Jan. 14, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 181.34" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.12.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 181.34   Sodium nitrite and potassium nitrite.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium nitrite and potassium nitrite are subject to prior sanctions issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture for use as color fixatives and preservative agents, with or without sodium or potassium nitrate, in the curing of red meat and poultry products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 1705, Jan. 14, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="182" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 182—SUBSTANCES GENERALLY RECOGNIZED AS SAFE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1   Substances that are generally recognized as safe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is impracticable to list all substances that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use. However, by way of illustration, the Commissioner regards such common food ingredients as salt, pepper, vinegar, baking powder, and monosodium glutamate as safe for their intended use. This part includes additional substances that, when used for the purposes indicated, in accordance with good manufacturing practice, are regarded by the Commissioner as generally recognized as safe for such uses. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, good manufacturing practice shall be defined to include the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of a substance added to food does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish its intended physical, nutritional, or other technical effect in food; and
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of a substance that becomes a component of food as a result of its use in the manufacturing, processing, or packaging of food, and which is not intended to accomplish any physical or other technical effect in the food itself, shall be reduced to the extent reasonably possible.
</P>
<P>(3) The substance is of appropriate food grade and is prepared and handled as a food ingredient. Upon request the Commissioner will offer an opinion, based on specifications and intended use, as to whether or not a particular grade or lot of the substance is of suitable purity for use in food and would generally be regarded as safe for the purpose intended, by experts qualified to evaluate its safety.
</P>
<P>(c) The inclusion of substances in the list of nutrients does not constitute a finding on the part of the Department that the substance is useful as a supplement to the diet for humans.
</P>
<P>(d) Substances that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use within the meaning of section 409 of the act are listed in this part. When the status of a substance has been reevaluated, it will be deleted from this part, and will be issued as a new regulation under the appropriate part, e.g., “affirmed as GRAS” under part 184 or 186 of this chapter; “food additive regulation” under parts 170 through 180 of this chapter; “interim food additive regulation” under part 180 of this chapter; or “prohibited from use in food” under part 189 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 53 FR 44875, Nov. 7, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.10" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.10   Spices and other natural seasonings and flavorings.</HEAD>
<P>Spices and other natural seasonings and flavorings that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the Act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Botanical name of plant source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alfalfa herb and seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medicago sativa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allspice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pimenta officinalis Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambrette seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hibiscus abelmoschus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Angelica archangelica L. or other spp. of Angelica.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angostura (cusparia bark)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Galipea officinalis Hancock.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pimpinella anisum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anise, star</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Illicium verum Hook. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balm (lemon balm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melissa officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basil, bush</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ocimum minimum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basil, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ocimum basilicum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laurus nobilis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendula</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendula officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile), English or Roman</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anthemis nobilis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile), German or Hungarian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Matricaria chamomilla L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capparis spinosa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capsicum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capsicum frutescens L. or Capsicum annuum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Caraway</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carum carvi L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Caraway, black (black cumin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nigella sativa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cardamom (cardamon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elettaria cardamomum Maton.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum cassia Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia, Padang or Batavia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum burmanni Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum loureirii Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cayenne pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capsicum frutescens L. or Capsicum annuum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Celery seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apium graveolens L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chervil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anthriscus cerefolium (L.) Hoffm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allium schoenoprasum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon, Ceylon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum zeylanicum Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum cassia Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum loureirii Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clary (clary sage)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salvia sclarea L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trifolium spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coriander</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coriandrum sativum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumin (cummin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cuminum cyminum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumin, black (black caraway)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nigella sativa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elder flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sambucus canadensis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fennel, common</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Foeniculum vulgare Mill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fennel, sweet (finocchio, Florence fennel)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Foeniculum vulgare Mill. var. duice (DC.) Alex.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fenugreek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trigonella foenum-graecum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Galanga (galangal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alpinia officinarum Hance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pelargonium spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ginger</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zingiber officinale Rosc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grains of paradise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amomum melegueta Rosc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horehound (hoarhound)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marrubium vulgare L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horseradish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Armoracia lapathifolia Gilib.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hyssop</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hyssopus officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavender</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lavandula officinalis Chaix.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linden flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tilia spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mace</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Myristica fragrans Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marigold, pot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendula officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marjoram, pot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Majorana onites (L.) Benth.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marjoram, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Majorana hortensis Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard, black or brown</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brassica nigra (L.) Koch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard, brown</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brassica juncea (L.) Coss.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard, white or yellow</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brassica hirta Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nutmeg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Myristica fragrans Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oregano (oreganum, Mexican oregano, Mexican sage, origan)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lippia spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paprika</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capsicum annuum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parsley</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroselinum crispum (Mill.) Mansf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, black</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piper nigrum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, cayenne</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capsicum frutescens L. or Capsicum annuum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piper nigrum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peppermint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mentha piperita L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poppy seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Papayer somniferum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pot marigold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendula officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pot marjoram</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Majorana onites (L.) Benth.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosemary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rosmarinus officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saffron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crocus sativus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salvia officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage, Greek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salvia triloba L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, summer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Satureia hortensis L. (Satureja).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, winter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Satureia montana L. (Satureja).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sesame</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sesamum indicum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spearmint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mentha spicata L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Star anise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Illicium verum Hook. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tarragon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Artemisia dracunculus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thymus vulgaris L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme, wild or creeping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thymus serpyllum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turmeric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curcuma longa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanilla</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vanilla planifolia Andr. or Vanilla tahitensis J. W. Moore.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zedoary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curcuma zedoaria Rosc.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 3705, Jan. 27, 1978; 44 FR 3963, Jan. 19, 1979; 50 FR 21044, May 22, 1985; 61 FR 14246, Apr. 1, 1996]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.20" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.20   Essential oils, oleoresins (solvent-free), and natural extractives (including distillates).</HEAD>
<P>Essential oils, oleoresins (solvent-free), and natural extractives (including distillates) that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the Act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Botanical name of plant source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alfalfa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medicago sativa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allspice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pimenta officinalis Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Almond, bitter (free from prussic acid)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prunus amygdalus Batsch, Prunus armeniaca L., or Prunus persica (L.) Batsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambrette (seed)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hibiscus moschatus Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Angelica archangelica L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica stem</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angostura (cusparia bark)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Galipea officinalis Hancock.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pimpinella anisum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asafetida</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ferula assa-foetida L. and related spp. of Ferula.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balm (lemon balm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melissa officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balsam of Peru</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Myroxylon pereirae Klotzsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ocimum basilicum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bay leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laurus nobilis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bay (myrcia oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pimenta racemosa (Mill.) J. W. Moore.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bergamot (bergamot orange)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus aurantium L. subsp. bergamia Wright et Arn.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bitter almond (free from prussic acid)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prunus amygdalus Batsch, Prunus armeniaca L., or Prunus persica (L.) Batsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bois de rose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aniba rosaeodora Ducke.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cacao</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Theobroma cacao L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile) flowers, Hungarian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Matricaria chamomilla L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile) flowers, Roman or English</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anthemis nobilis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cananga</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cananga odorata Hook. f. and Thoms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capsicum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capsicum frutescens L. and Capsicum annuum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Caraway</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carum carvi L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cardamom seed (cardamon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elettaria cardamomum Maton.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carob bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ceratonia siliqua L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carrot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Daucus carota L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cascarilla bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Croton eluteria Benn.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia bark, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum cassia Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia bark, Padang or Batavia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum burmanni Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia bark, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum loureirii Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Celery seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apium graveolens L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cherry, wild, bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prunus serotina Ehrh.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chervil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anthriscus cerefolium (L.) Hoffm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chicory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cichorium intybus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon bark, Ceylon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum zeylanicum Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon bark, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum cassia Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon bark, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum loureirii Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon leaf, Ceylon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum zeylanicum Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon leaf, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum cassia Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon leaf, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamomum loureirii Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Citronella</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cymbopogon nardus Rendle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Citrus peels</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clary (clary sage)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salvia sclarea L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trifolium spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coca (decocainized)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Erythroxylum coca Lam. and other spp. of Erythroxylum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coffee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coffea spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cola nut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cola acuminata Schott and Endl., and other spp. of Cola.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coriander</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coriandrum sativum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumin (cummin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cuminum cyminum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curacao orange peel (orange, bitter peel)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus aurantium L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cusparia bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Galipea officinalis Hancock.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dandelion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Taraxacum officinale Weber and T. laevigatum DC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dandelion root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dog grass (quackgrass, triticum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agropyron repens (L.) Beauv.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elder flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sambucus canadensis L. and S. nigra I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Estragole (esdragol, esdragon, tarragon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Artemisia dracunculus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Estragon (tarragon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fennel, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Foeniculum vulgare Mill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fenugreek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trigonella foenum-graecum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Galanga (galangal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alpinia officinarum Hance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pelargonium spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium, East Indian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cymbopogon martini Stapf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium, rose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pelargonium graveolens L'Her.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ginger</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zingiber officinale Rosc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grapefruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus paradisi Macf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guava</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Psidium spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hickory bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carya spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horehound (hoarhound)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marrubium vulgare L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hops</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Humulus lupulus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horsemint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monarda punctata L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hyssop</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hyssopus officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Immortelle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Helichrysum augustifolium DC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jasmine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jasminum officinale L. and other spp. of Jasminum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Juniper (berries)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Juniperus communis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kola nut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cola acuminata Schott and Endl., and other spp. of Cola.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laurel berries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laurus nobilis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laurel leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laurus spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavender</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lavandula officinalis Chaix.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavender, spike</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lavandula latifolia Vill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavandin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hybrids between Lavandula officinalis Chaix and Lavandula latifolin Vill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus limon (L.) Burm. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon balm (see balm)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cymbopogon citratus DC. and Cymbopogon lexuosus Stapf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon peel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus limon (L.) Burm. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lime</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus aurantifolia Swingle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linden flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tilia spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Locust bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ceratonia siliqua L,
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lupulin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Humulus lupulus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mace</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Myristica fragrans Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mandarin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus reticulata Blanco.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marjoram, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Majorana hortensis Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maté</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ilex paraguariensis St. Hil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melissa (see balm)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Menthol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mentha spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Menthyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molasses (extract)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Saccarum officinarum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brassica spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naringin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus paradisi Macf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neroli, bigarade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus aurantium L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nutmeg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Myristica fragrans Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Onion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allium cepa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, bitter, flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus aurantium L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, bitter, peel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange leaf</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus sinensis (L.) Osbeck.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, sweet, flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, sweet, peel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Origanum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Origanum spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palmarosa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cymbopogon martini Stapf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paprika</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capsicum annuum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parsley</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroselinum crispum (Mill.) Mansf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, black</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piper nigrum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peppermint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mentha piperita L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peruvian balsam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Myroxylon pereirae Klotzsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petitgrain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus aurantium L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petitgrain lemon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus limon (L.) Burm. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petitgrain mandarin or tangerine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus reticulata Blanco.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pimenta</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pimenta officinalis Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pimenta leaf</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pimenta officinalis Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pipsissewa leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chimaphila umbellata Nutt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pomegranate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Punica granatum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prickly ash bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xanthoxylum (or Zanthoxylum) Americanum Mill. or Xanthoxylum clava-herculis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose absolute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rosa alba L., Rosa centifolia L., Rosa damascena Mill., Rosa gallica L., and vars. of these spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose (otto of roses, attar of roses)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose buds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose fruit (hips)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose geranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pelargonium graveolens L'Her.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rosa spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosemary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rosmarinus officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saffron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crocus sativus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salvia officinalis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage, Greek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salvia triloba L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage, Spanish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salvia lavandulaefolia Vahl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">St. John's bread</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ceratonia siliqua L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, summer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Satureia hortensis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, winter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Satureia montana L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schinus molle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schinus molle L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sloe berries (blackthorn berries)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prunus spinosa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spearmint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mentha spicata L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spike lavender</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lavandula latifolia Vill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tamarind</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tamarindus indica L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tangerine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus reticulata Blanco.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tarragon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Artemisia dracunculus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thea sinensis L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thymus vulgaris L. and Thymus zygis var. gracilis Boiss.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme, wild or creeping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thymus serpyllum L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triticum (see dog grass)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tuberose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polianthes tuberosa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turmeric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curcuma longa L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanilla</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vanilla planifolia Andr. or Vanilla tahitensis J. W. Moore.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Violet flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Viola odorata L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Violet leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Violet leaves absolute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wild cherry bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prunus serotina Ehrh.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ylang-ylang</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cananga odorata Hook. f. and Thoms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zedoary bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curcuma zedoaria Rosc.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 3963, Jan. 19, 1979; 47 FR 29953, July 9, 1982; 48 FR 51613, Nov. 10, 1983; 50 FR 21043, 21044, May 22, 1985]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.40" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.40   Natural extractives (solvent-free) used in conjunction with spices, seasonings, and flavorings.</HEAD>
<P>Natural extractives (solvent-free) used in conjunction with spices, seasonings, and flavorings that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the Act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Botanical name of plant source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apricot kernel (persic oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prunus armeniaca L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peach kernel (persic oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prunus persica Sieb. et Zucc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peanut stearine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arachis hypogaea L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Persic oil (see apricot kernel and peach kernel)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quince seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cydonia oblonga Miller.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 47375, Oct. 26, 1982]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.50" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.50   Certain other spices, seasonings, essential oils, oleoresins, and natural extracts.</HEAD>
<P>Certain other spices, seasonings, essential oils, oleoresins, and natural extracts that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the Act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Derivation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambergris</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Physeter macrocephalus L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castoreum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Castor fiber L. and C. canadensis Kuhl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civet (zibeth, zibet, zibetum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Civet cats, Viverra civetta Schreber and Viverra zibetha Schreber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cognac oil, white and green</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethyl oenanthate, so-called.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Musk (Tonquin musk)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Musk deer, Moschus moschiferus L.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.60" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.60   Synthetic flavoring substances and adjuvants.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic flavoring substances and adjuvants that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the Act, are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetaldehyde (ethanal).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetoin (acetyl methylcarbinol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anethole (parapropenyl anisole).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzaldehyde (benzoic aldehyde).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N</I>-Butyric acid (butanoic acid).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>d</I>- or <I>l</I>-Carvone (carvol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamaldehyde (cinnamic aldehyde).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citral (2,6-dimethyloctadien-2,6-<I>al</I>-8, gera-nial, neral).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decanal (<I>N</I>-decylaldehyde, capraldehyde, capric aldehyde, caprinaldehyde, aldehyde C-10).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl butyrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methyl-3-phenyl glycidic acid ethyl ester (ethyl-methyl-phenyl-glycidate, so-called strawberry aldehyde, C-16 aldehyde).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl vanillin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geraniol (3,7-dimethyl-2,6 and 3,6-octadien-1-<I>ol</I>).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl acetate (geraniol acetate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Limonene (<I>d-, l-,</I> and <I>dl-</I>).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalool (linalol, 3,7-dimethyl-1,6-octadien-3-<I>ol</I>).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl acetate (bergamol).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl anthranilate (methyl-2-aminobenzoate).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperonal (3,4-methylenedioxy-benzaldehyde, heliotropin).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vanillin.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 47724, Oct. 17, 1978; 44 FR 3963, Jan. 19, 1979; 44 FR 20656, Apr. 6, 1979; 48 FR 51907, Nov. 15, 1983; 54 FR 7402, Feb. 21, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.70" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.70   Substances migrating from cotton and cotton fabrics used in dry food packaging.</HEAD>
<P>Substances migrating to food from cotton and cotton fabrics used in dry food packaging that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the Act, are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Beef tallow.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carboxymethylcellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coconut oil, refined.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cornstarch.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gelatin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lard.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lard oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oleic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peanut oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potato starch.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium silicate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium tripolyphosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soybean oil (hydrogenated).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Talc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tallow (hydrogenated).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tallow flakes.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tapioca starch.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrasodium pyrophosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wheat starch.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc chloride.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 11698, Mar. 21, 1978; 44 FR 28323, May 15, 1979; 45 FR 6085, Jan. 25, 1980; 47 FR 27807, 27814, June 25, 1982; 48 FR 51150, Nov. 7, 1983; 48 FR 51616, Nov. 10, 1983; 48 FR 51909, Nov. 15, 1983; 48 FR 52441, 52443, 52445, 52446, Nov. 18, 1983; 51 FR 16830, May 7, 1986; 51 FR 27171, July 30, 1986; 60 FR 62208, Dec. 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.90" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.90   Substances migrating to food from paper and paperboard products.</HEAD>
<P>Substances migrating to food from paper and paperboard products used in food packaging that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the Act, are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alum (double sulfate of aluminum and ammonium potassium, or sodium).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum hydroxide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum oleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum palmitate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Casein.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cellulose acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cornstarch.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diatomaceous earth filler.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl cellulose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl vanillin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oleic acid.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium sorbate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silicon dioxides.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium aluminate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium hexametaphosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium hydrosulfite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium phosphoaluminate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium silicate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium sorbate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium tripolyphosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soy protein, isolated.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Starch, acid modified.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Starch, pregelatinized.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Starch, unmodified.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Talc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vanillin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc hydrosulfite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 182.90, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.99" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.99   Adjuvants for pesticide chemicals.</HEAD>
<P>Adjuvants, identified and used in accordance with 40 CFR 180.910 and 40 CFR 180.920, which are added to pesticide use dilutions by a grower or applicator prior to application to the raw agricultural commodity, are exempt from the requirement of tolerances under section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 348).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 59249, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Multiple Purpose GRAS Food Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1045" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1045   Glutamic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Glutamic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a salt substitute in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1047" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1047   Glutamic acid hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Glutamic acid hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a salt substitute in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1057" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1057   Hydrochloric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Hydrochloric acid.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a buffer and neutralizing agent in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1073" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1073   Phosphoric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Phosphoric acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1087" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1087   Sodium acid pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium acid pyrophosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1125" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1125   Aluminum sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1127" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1127   Aluminum ammonium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum ammonium sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1129" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1129   Aluminum potassium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum potassium sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1131" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1131   Aluminum sodium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum sodium sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1180" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1180   Caffeine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Caffeine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 0.02 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in cola-type beverages in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1217" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1217   Calcium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1235" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1235   Caramel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Caramel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1320" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1320   Glycerin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Glycerin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1480" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1480   Methylcellulose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> U.S.P. methylcellulose, except that the methoxy content shall not be less than 27.5 percent and not more than 31.5 percent on a dry-weight basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1500" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1500   Monoammonium glutamate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monoammonium glutamate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1516" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1516   Monopotassium glutamate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monopotassium glutamate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1711" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1711   Silica aerogel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Silica aerogel as a finely powdered microcellular silica foam having a minimum silica content of 89.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a component of an anti-foaming agent in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1745" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1745   Sodium carboxymethylcellulose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium carboxymethylcellulose is the sodium salt of carboxymethylcellulose not less than 99.5 percent on a dry-weight basis, with maximum substitution of 0.95 carboxymethyl groups per anhydroglucose unit, and with a minimum viscosity of 25 centipoises for 2 percent by weight aqueous solution at 25 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1748" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1748   Sodium caseinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium caseinate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1778" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1778   Sodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1781" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1781   Sodium aluminum phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium aluminum phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.1810" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.1810   Sodium tripolyphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium tripolyphosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Anticaking Agents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.2122" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.2122   Aluminum calcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum calcium silicate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in table salt in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.2227" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.2227   Calcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium silicate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent and 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used at levels not exceeding 2 percent in table salt and 5 percent in baking powder in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.2437" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.2437   Magnesium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium silicate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in table salt in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.2727" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.2727   Sodium aluminosilicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium aluminosilicate (sodium silicoaluminate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 2 percent in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.2729" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.2729   Sodium calcium aluminosilicate, hydrated.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Hydrated sodium calcium aluminosilicate (sodium calcium silicoaluminate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 2 percent in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.2906" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.2906   Tricalcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tricalcium silicate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in table salt in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Chemical Preservatives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3013" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3013   Ascorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ascorbic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3041" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3041   Erythorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Erythorbic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3089" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3089   Sorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sorbic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3109" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3109   Thiodipropionic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Thiodipropionic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of the food, provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3149" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3149   Ascorbyl palmitate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ascorbyl palmitate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3169" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3169   Butylated hydroxyanisole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Butylated hydroxyanisole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of food, provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3173" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3173   Butylated hydroxytoluene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Butylated hydroxytoluene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of food, provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3189" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3189   Calcium ascorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium ascorbate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3225" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3225   Calcium sorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium sorbate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3280" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3280   Dilauryl thiodipropionate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Dilauryl thiodipropionate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of the food, provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3616" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3616   Potassium bisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium bisulfite.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice, except that it is not used in meats; in food recognized as a source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>; on fruits and vegetables intended to be served raw to consumers or sold raw to consumers, or to be presented to consumers as fresh.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 25025, July 9, 1986; 55 FR 9832, Mar. 15, 1990; 59 FR 65939, Dec. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3637" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3637   Potassium metabisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium metabisulfite.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice, except that it is not used in meats; in food recognized as a source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>; on fruits and vegetables intended to be served raw to consumers or sold raw to consumers, or to be presented to consumers as fresh.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 25025, July 9, 1986; 55 FR 9832, Mar. 15, 1990; 59 FR 65939, Dec. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3640" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3640   Potassium sorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium sorbate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3731" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3731   Sodium ascorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium ascorbate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3739" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3739   Sodium bisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium bisulfite.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice, except that it is not used in meats; in food recognized as a source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>; on fruits or vegetables intended to be served raw to consumers or sold raw to consumers, or to be presented to the consumer as fresh.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 25025, July 9, 1986; 55 FR 9832, Mar. 15, 1990; 59 FR 65939, Dec. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3766" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3766   Sodium metabisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium metabisulfite.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice, except that it is not used in meats; in food recognized as a source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>; on fruits or vegetables intended to be served raw to consumers or sold raw to consumers, or to be presented to consumers as fresh.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 25025, July 9, 1986; 55 FR 9833, Mar. 15, 1990; 59 FR 65939, Dec. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3795" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3795   Sodium sorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium sorbate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3798" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3798   Sodium sulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium sulfite.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice, except that it is not used in meats; in food recognized as a source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>; on fruits or vegetables intended to be served raw to consumers or sold raw to consumers, or to be presented to consumers as fresh.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 25026, July 9, 1986; 55 FR 9833, Mar. 15, 1990; 59 FR 65939, Dec. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3862" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3862   Sulfur dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sulfur dioxide.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice, except that it is not used in meats; in food recognized as a source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>; on fruits or vegetables intended to be served raw to consumers or sold raw to consumers, or to be presented to consumers as fresh.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14640, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 51 FR 25026, July 9, 1986; 55 FR 9833, Mar. 15, 1990; 59 FR 65939, Dec. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.3890" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.3890   Tocopherols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tocopherols.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Emulsifying Agents [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Dietary Supplements [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Sequestrants 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>

<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For the purpose of this subpart, no attempt has been made to designate those sequestrants that may also function as chemical preservatives.</P></FTNT>

<DIV8 N="§ 182.6085" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6085   Sodium acid phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium acid phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6197" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6197   Calcium diacetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium diacetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6203" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6203   Calcium hexametaphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium hexametaphosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6215" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6215   Monobasic calcium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monobasic calcium phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6285" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6285   Dipotassium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Dipotassium phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6290" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6290   Disodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Disodium phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6757" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6757   Sodium gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium gluconate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6760" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6760   Sodium hexametaphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium hexametaphosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6769" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6769   Sodium metaphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium metaphosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6778" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6778   Sodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6787" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6787   Sodium pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium pyrophosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6789" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6789   Tetra sodium pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tetra sodium pyrophosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.6810" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.7.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.6810   Sodium tripolyphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium tripolyphosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Stabilizers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.7255" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.7255   Chondrus extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Chondrus extract (carrageenin).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Nutrients</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 58838, Sept. 5, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 182.8013" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8013   Ascorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ascorbic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8159" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8159   Biotin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Biotin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8217" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8217   Calcium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8223" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8223   Calcium pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium pyrophosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8250   Choline bitartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Choline bitartrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8252" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8252   Choline chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Choline chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8778" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8778   Sodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium phosphate
</P>
<FP>(mono-, di-, and tribasic).
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8890" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8890   Tocopherols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tocopherols.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8892" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8892   α-Tocopherol acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> α-Tocopherol acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8985" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8985   Zinc chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8988" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8988   Zinc gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc gluconate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8991" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8991   Zinc oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc oxide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8994" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8994   Zinc stearate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc stearate prepared from stearic acid free from chickedema factor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 182.8997" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.13.9.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 182.8997   Zinc sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing practice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="184" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 184—DIRECT FOOD SUBSTANCES AFFIRMED AS GENERALLY RECOGNIZED AS SAFE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14653, Mar 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 184 appear at 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 66 FR 66742, Dec. 27, 2001; 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005; and 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1   Substances added directly to human food affirmed as generally recognized as safe (GRAS).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The direct human food ingredients listed in this part have been reviewed by the Food and Drug Administration and affirmed to be generally recognized as safe (GRAS) for the purposes and under the conditions prescribed. The regulations in this part shall sufficiently describe each ingredient to identify the characteristics of the ingredient that has been affirmed as GRAS and to differentiate it from other possible versions of the ingredient that have not been affirmed as GRAS. Ingredients affirmed as GRAS in this part are also GRAS as indirect human food ingredients, subject to any limitations prescribed in parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 or § 179.45 of this chapter or in part 186 of this chapter. The purity specifications in this part do not apply when the ingredient is used in indirect applications. However, when used in indirect applications, the ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use in accordance with § 170.30(h)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any ingredient affirmed as GRAS in this part shall be used in accordance with current good manufacturing practice. For the purpose of this part, current good manufacturing practice includes the requirements that a direct human food ingredient be of appropriate food grade; that it be prepared and handled as a food ingredient; and that the quantity of the ingredient added to food does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical, nutritional, or other technical effect in food.


</P>
<P>(1) If the ingredient is affirmed as GRAS with no limitations on its conditions of use other than current good manufacturing practice, it shall be regarded as GRAS if its conditions of use are consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b), (c), and (d) of this section. When the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) determines that it is appropriate, the agency will describe one or more current good manufacturing practice conditions of use in the regulation that affirms the GRAS status of the ingredient. 

For example, when the safety of an ingredient has been evaluated on the basis of limited conditions of use, the agency will describe in the regulation that affirms the GRAS status of the ingredient, one or more of these limited conditions of use, which may include the category of food(s), the technical effect(s) or functional use(s) of the ingredient, and the level(s) of use. If the ingredient is used under conditions that are significantly different from those described in the regulation, that use of the ingredient may not be GRAS. 

In such a case, a manufacturer may not rely on the regulation as authorizing that use but shall have a basis to conclude that that use is GRAS or shall use the ingredient in accordance with a food additive regulation.


</P>
<P>(2) If the ingredient is affirmed as GRAS with specific limitation(s), it shall be used in food only within such limitation(s), including the category of food(s), the functional use(s) of the ingredient, and the level(s) of use. Any use of such an ingredient not in full compliance with each such established limitation shall require a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) If the ingredient is affirmed as GRAS for a specific use, without a general evaluation of use of the ingredient, other uses may also be GRAS.
</P>
<P>(c) The listing of a food ingredient in this part does not authorize the use of such substance in a manner that may lead to deception of the consumer or to any other violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act).
</P>
<P>(d) The listing of more than one ingredient to produce the same technological effect does not authorize use of a combination of two or more ingredients to accomplish the same technological effect in any one food at a combined level greater than the highest level permitted for one of the ingredients.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Commissioner of Food and Drugs is aware of any prior sanction for use of an ingredient under conditions different from those proposed to be affirmed as GRAS, he will concurrently propose a separate regulation covering such use of the ingredient under part 181 of this chapter. If the Commissioner is unaware of any such applicable prior sanction, the proposed regulation will so state and will require any person who intends to assert or rely on such sanction to submit proof of its existence. Any regulation promulgated pursuant to this section constitutes a determination that excluded uses would result in adulteration of the food in violation of section 402 of the Act, and the failure of any person to come forward with proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal will constitute a waiver of the right to assert or rely on such sanction at any later time. The notice will also constitute a proposal to establish a regulation under part 181 of this chapter, incorporating the same provisions, in the event that such a regulation is determined to be appropriate as a result of submission of proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal.
</P>
<P>(f) The label and labeling of the ingredient and any intermediate mix of the ingredient for use in finished food shall bear, in addition to the other labeling required by the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the ingredient, except where exempted from such labeling in part 101 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of concentration of the ingredient in any intermediate mix; or other information to permit a food processor independently to determine that use of the ingredients will be in accordance with any limitations and good manufacturing practice guidelines prescribed.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use to provide a final food product that complies with any limitations prescribed for the ingredient(s).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 48 FR 48457, 48459, Oct. 19, 1983; 62 FR 15110, Mar. 31, 1997; 81 FR 55051, Aug. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Listing of Specific Substances Affirmed as GRAS</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1005" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1005   Acetic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Acetic acid (C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">4</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 64-19-7) is known as ethanoic acid. It occurs naturally in plant and animal tissues. It is produced by fermentation of carbohydrates or by organic synthesis. The principal synthetic methods currently employed are oxidation of acetaldehyde derived from ethylene, liquid phase oxidation of butane, and reaction of carbon monoxide with methanol derived from natural gas.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 8, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a curing and pickling agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(5) of this chapter; flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; as a solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter; and as a boiler water additive complying with § 173.310 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level as served, of 0.25 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; 0.8 percent for cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter and dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; 0.5 percent for chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter; 9.0 percent for condiments and relishes as defined in § 170.3(n)(8) of this chapter; 0.5 percent for fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter; 3.0 percent for gravies and sauces as defined in § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter; 0.6 percent for meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; and 0.15 percent or less for all other food categories. The ingredient may also be used in boiler water additives at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27814, June 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1007" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1007   Aconitic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aconitic acid (1,2,3-propenetricarboxylic acid (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">6</E>), CAS Reg. No. 000499-12-7) occurs in the leaves and tubers of <I>Aconitum napellus</I> L. and other <I>Ranunculaceae.</I> Transaconitic acid can be isolated during sugarcane processing, by precipitation as the calcium salt from cane sugar or molasses. It may be synthesized by sulfuric acid dehydration of citric acid, but not by the methanesulfonic acid method.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Assay.</I> Not less than 98.0 percent of C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">3</E>(COOH)<E T="52">3</E>, using the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 102-103, test for citric acid, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, and a molecular weight of 174.11. Copies of the material incorporated by reference are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Melting point.</I> Not less than 195 °C and the determination results in decomposition of aconitic acid.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Heavy metals</I> (<I>as Pb</I>). Not more than 10 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Arsenic</I> (<I>as As</I>). Not more than 3 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Oxalate.</I> Passes test.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Readily carbonizable substances.</I> Passes the test for citric acid of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 102-103, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Residue on ignition.</I> Not more than 0.1 percent as determined by the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 102-103, test for citric acid, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavoring substance and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food, in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.003 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter, 0.002 percent for alcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter, 0.0015 percent for frozen dairy products as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter, 0.0035 percent for soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter, and 0.0005 percent or less for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 47724, Oct. 17, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 5610, Feb. 14, 1984; 64 FR 1759, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1009" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1009   Adipic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Adipic acid (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>O<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 00124-04-9) is also known as 1,4-butanedicarboxylic acid or hexane-dioic acid. It is prepared by nitric acid oxidation of cyclohexanol or cyclohexanone or a mixture of the two.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 11, which is incorporated by reference (Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), and the following additional specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The adipic acid is converted to its corresponding amide. The amide is purified by recrystallization from water or aqueous ethanol. The melting range of the amide is 219° to 220 °C.
</P>
<P>(2) The adipic acid is converted to its corresponding <I>bis-p-p-</I>bromophenacyl ester. The ester is purified by recrystallization from ethanol. The melting range of the ester is 153° to 154 °C.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; and pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in maximum levels, as served, of 0.05 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; 0.005 percent for nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; 5.0 percent for condiments and relishes as defined in § 170.3(n)(8) of this chapter; 0.45 percent for dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; 0.3 percent for fats and oil as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter; 0.0004 percent for frozen dairy desserts as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter; 0.55 percent for gelatin and puddings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; 0.1 percent for gravies as defined in § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter; 0.3 percent for meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; 1.3 percent for snack foods as defined in § 170.3(n)(37) of this chapter; and 0.02 percent or less for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for adipic acid different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27810, June 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1011" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1011   Alginic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Alginic acid is a colloidal, hydrophilic polysaccharide obtained from certain brown algae by alkaline extraction.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 13, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soup and soup mixes, § 170.3(n)(40) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed current good manufacturing practice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier, emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the use established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 47375, Oct. 26, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1012" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1012   α-Amylase enzyme preparation from Bacillus stearothermophilus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) α-Amylase enzyme preparation is obtained from the culture filtrate that results from a pure culture fermentation of a nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic strain of <I>Bacillus stearothermophilus.</I> Its characterizing enzyme activity is α-amylase (1,4 α-D glucan glucanohydrolase (E.C. 3.2.1.1)).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d ed. (1981), pp. 107-110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practices. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme, as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter, in the hydrolysis of edible starch to produce maltodextrins and nutritive carbohydrate sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 55789, Nov. 3, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1021" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1021   Benzoic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Benzoic acid is the chemical benzenecarboxylic acid (C<E T="52">7</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">2</E>), occurring in nature in free and combined forms. Among the foods in which benzoic acid occurs naturally are cranberries, prunes, plums, cinnamon, ripe cloves, and most berries. Benzoic acid is manufactured by treating molten phthalic anhydride with steam in the presence of a zinc oxide catalyst, by the hydrolysis of benzotrichloride, or by the oxidation of toluene with nitric acid or sodium bichromate or with air in the presence of a transition metal salt catalyst.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 35, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter, and as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice. Current usage results in a maximum level of 0.1 percent in food. (The Food and Drug Administration has not determined whether significantly different conditions of use would be GRAS).
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from those uses established in this section, or different from that set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5610, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1024" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1024   Bromelain.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bromelain (CAS Reg. No. 9001-00-7) is an enzyme preparation derived from the pineapples <I>Ananas comosus</I> and <I>A. bracteatus</I> L. It is a white to light tan amorphous powder. Its characterizing enzyme activity is that of a peptide hydrolase (EC 3.4.22.32).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC, or may be examined at Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze proteins or polypeptides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32910, June 26, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1025" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1025   Caprylic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Caprylic acid [CH<E T="52">3</E>(CH<E T="52">2</E>)<E T="52">6</E>COOH, CAS Reg. No. 124-07-2] is the chemical name for octanoic acid. It is considered to be a short or medium chain fatty acid. It occurs normally in various foods and is commercially prepared by oxidation of <I>n</I>-octanol or by fermentation and fractional distillation of the volatile fatty acids present in coconut oil.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 207, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in foods in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practices result in maximum levels, as served, of: 0.013 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; 0.04 percent for cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter; 0.005 percent for fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter, for frozen dairy desserts as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter, for gelatins and puddings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter, for meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter, and for soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter; 0.016 percent for snack foods as defined in § 170.3(n)(37) of this chapter; and 0.001 percent or less for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 19843, May 9, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1027" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1027   Mixed carbohydrase and protease enzyme product.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mixed carbohydrase and protease enzyme product is an enzyme preparation that includes carbohydrase and protease activity. It is obtained from the culture filtrate resulting from a pure culture fermentation of a nonpathogenic strain of <I>B. licheniformis.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 107, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme, as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter, to hydrolyze proteins or carbohydrates.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: alcoholic beverages, as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter, candy, nutritive sweeteners, and protein hydrolyzates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 240, Jan. 4, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1033" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1033   Citric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Citric acid (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">7</E>, CAS Reg. No. 77-92-9) is the compound 2-hydroxy-1,2,3-propanetricarboxylic acid. It is a naturally occurring constituent of plant and animal tissues. It occurs as colorless crystals or a white powder and may be anhydrous or contain one mole of water per mole of citric acid. Citric acid may be produced by recovery from sources such as lemon or pineapple juice; by mycological fermentation using <I>Candida spp.</I>, described in §§ 173.160 and 173.165 of this chapter; and by the solvent extraction process described in § 173.280 of this chapter for the recovery of citric acid from <I>Aspergillus niger</I> fermentation liquor.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), pp. 86-87, and its third supplement (March 1992), pp. 107-108, which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, and the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63895, Dec. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1034" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1034   Catalase (bovine liver).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Catalase (bovine liver) (CAS Reg. No. 81457-95-6) is an enzyme preparation obtained from extracts of bovine liver. It is a partially purified liquid or powder. Its characterizing enzyme activity is catalase (EC 1.11.1.6).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to decompose hydrogen peroxide.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32910, June 26, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004; 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1061" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1061   Lactic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lactic acid (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. Nos.: <E T="04">dl</E> mixture, 598-82-3; <E T="04">l</E>-isomer, 79-33-4; <E T="04">d</E>-isomer, 10326-41-7), the chemical 2-hydroxypropanoic acid, occurs naturally in several foods. It is produced commercially either by fermentation of carbohydrates such as glucose, sucrose, or lactose, or by a procedure involving formation of lactonitrile from acetaldehyde and hydrogen cyanide and subsequent hydrolysis to lactic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 159, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter; a curing and pickling agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(5) of this chapter; a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and a solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food, except in infant foods and infant formulas, at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 35367, Sept. 7, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1063" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1063   Enzyme-modified lecithin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Enzyme-modified lecithin is prepared by treating lecithin with either phospholipase A<E T="52">2</E> (EC 3.1.1.4) or pancreatin.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(8) of this section. Unless otherwise noted, compliance with the specifications listed below is determined according to the methods set forth for lecithin in the Food Chemicals Codex, 4th ed. (1996), pp. 220-221, which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington DC 20418, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Acetone-insoluble matter (phosphatides), not less than 50.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Acid value, not more than 40.
</P>
<P>(3) Lead, not more than 1.0 part per million, as determined by atomic absorption spectroscopy.
</P>
<P>(4) Heavy metals (as Pb), not more than 20 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(5) Hexane-insoluble matter, not more than 0.3 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Peroxide value, not more than 20.
</P>
<P>(7) Water, not more than 4.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(8) Lysolecithin, 50 to 80 mole percent of total phosphatides as determined by “Determination of Lysolecithin Content of Enzyme-Modified Lecithin: Method I,” dated 1985, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an emulsifier as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 45889, Aug. 30, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1065" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1065   Linoleic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Linoleic acid ((Z, Z)-9, 12-octadecadienoic acid (C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">31</E>COOH) (CAS Reg. No. 60-33-3)), a straight chain unsaturated fatty acid with a molecular weight of 280.5, is a colorless oil at room temperature. Linoleic acid may be prepared from edible fats and oils by various methods including hydrolysis and saponification, the Twitchell method, low pressure splitting with catalyst, continuous high pressure counter current splitting, and medium pressure autoclave splitting with catalyst.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use. The ingredient must also meet the specifications in § 172.860(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter and as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 48534, Dec. 13, 1984, as amended at 73 FR 8606, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1069" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1069   Malic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Malic acid (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">5</E>, CAS Reg. No. of L-form 97-67-6, CAS Reg. No. of DL-form 617-48-1) is the common name for 1-hydroxy-1, 2-ethanedicarboxylic acid. L (+) malic acid, referred to as L-malic acid, occurs naturally in various foods. Racemic DL-malic acid does not occur naturally. It is made commercially by hydration of fumaric acid or maleic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 183-184, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredients are used as a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter, flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter, and pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredients are used in food, except baby food, at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 3.4 percent for nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; 3.0 percent for chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter; 0.8 percent for gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; 6.9 percent for hard candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter; 2.6 percent for jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter; 3.5 percent for processed fruits and fruit juices as defined in § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter; 3.0 percent for soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter; and 0.7 percent for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for malic acid different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 20656, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1077" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1077   Potassium acid tartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium acid tartrate (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">5</E>KO<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 868-14-4) is the potassium acid salt of l−(+)−tartaric acid and is also called potassium bitartrate or cream of tartar. It occurs as colorless or slightly opaque crystals or as a white, crystalline powder. It has a pleasant, acid taste. It is obtained as a byproduct of wine manufacture.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), P. 238, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an anticaking agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter; an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter; a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; a humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; A pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; and a surface-active agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; gelatins and puddings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; hard candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter; jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter; and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52446, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1081" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1081   Propionic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Propionic acid (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 79-09-4) is an oily liquid having a slightly pungent, rancid odor. It is manufactured by chemical synthesis or by bacterial fermentation.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 254, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter and a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 13141, Apr. 3, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1090" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1090   Stearic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Stearic acid (C<E T="52">18</E>H<E T="52">36</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 57-11-4) is a white to yellowish white solid. It occurs naturally as a glyceride in tallow and other animal or vegetable fats and oils and is a principal constituent of most commercially hydrogenated fats. It is produced commercially from hydrolyzed tallow derived from edible sources or from hydrolyzed, completely hydrogenated vegetable oil derived from edible sources.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 313, which is incorporated by reference, and the requirements of § 172.860(b)(2) of this chapter. Copies of the Food Chemicals Codex are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52445, Nov. 18, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985; 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1091" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1091   Succinic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Succinic acid (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 110-15-6), also referred to as amber acid and ethylenesuccinic acid, is the chemical 1,4-butanedioic acid. It is commercially prepared by hydrogenation of maleic or fumaric acid. It can also be produced by aqueous alkali or acid hydrolysis of succinonitrile.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 314-315, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter and pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.084 percent in condiments and relishes as defined in § 170.3(n)(8) of this chapter and 0.0061 percent in meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 20657, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1095" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1095   Sulfuric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sulfuric acid (H<E T="52">2</E>SO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7664-93-9), also known as oil of vitriol, is a clear, colorless, oily liquid. It is prepared by reacting sulfur dioxide (SO<E T="52">2</E>) with oxygen and mixing the resultant sulfur trioxide (SO<E T="52">3</E>) with water, or by reacting nitric oxide (NO) with sulfur dioxide and water.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 317-318, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter and processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.014 percent for alcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter and 0.0003 percent for cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 6085, Jan. 25, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1097" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1097   Tannic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tannic acid (CAS Reg. No. 1401-55-4), or hydrolyzable gallotannin, is a complex polyphenolic organic structure that yields gallic acid and either glucose or quinic acid as hydrolysis products. It is a yellowish-white to light brown substance in the form of an amorphous, bulky powder, glistening scales, or spongy masses. It is also ordorless, or has a faint characteristic odor, and has an astringent taste. Tannic acid is obtained by solvent extraction of nutgalls or excrescences that form on the young twigs of <I>Quercus infectoria Oliver</I> and related species of <I>Quercus.</I> Tannic acid is also obtained by solvent extraction of the seed pods of Tara (<I>Caesalpinia spinosa</I>) or the nutgalls of various sumac species, including <I>Rhus semialata, R. coriaria, R. galabra,</I> and <I>R. typhia.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 319, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served) (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods and baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alcoholic beverages, § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavor enhancer, § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; processing aid, § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonalcoholic beverages and beverage bases, § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter and for gelatins, puddings, and fillings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; pH control agent, § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen dairy desserts and mixes, § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter and for soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hard candy and cough drops, § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.013</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meat products, § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Tannic acid may be used in rendered animal fat in accordance with 9 CFR 424.21.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 21043, May 22, 1985, as amended at 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1099" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1099   Tartaric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Food grade tartaric acid (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 87-69-4) has the l configuration. The l form of tartaric acid is dextrorotatory in solution and is also known as l−(+)−tartaric acid. Tartaric acid occurs as colorless or translucent crystals or as a white, crystalline powder. It is odorless and has an acid taste. It is obtained as a byproduct of wine manufacture.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), P. 320, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; and a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52447, Nov. 18, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1101" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1101   Diacetyl tartaric acid esters of mono- and diglycerides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Diacetyl tartaric acid esters of mono- and diglycerides, also known as DATEM, are composed of mixed esters of glycerin in which one or more of the hydroxyl groups of glycerin has been esterified by diacetyl tartaric acid and by fatty acids. The ingredient is prepared by the reaction of diacetyl tartaric anhydride with mono- and diglycerides that are derived from edible sources.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d. Ed. (1981), pp. 98-99, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as an emulsifier and emulsifier salt as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter and a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(l) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; and fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Labeling:</I> The acronym “DATEM” may be used on food labeling as the alternate common or usual name for the ingredient diacetyl tartaric acid esters of mono- and diglycerides.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7403, Feb. 21, 1989, as amended at 54 FR 13168, Mar. 31, 1989; 54 FR 18382, Apr. 28, 1989; 60 FR 15872, Mar. 28, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1115" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1115   Agar-agar.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agar-agar (CAS Reg. No. PM 9002-18-0) is a dried, hydrophyllic, colloidal polysaccharide extracted from one of a number of related species of red algae (class <I>Rhodophyceae</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 11, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food in accordance with § 184.1(b)(2) under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foods (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods and baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drying agent, § 170.3(o)(7) of this chapter; flavoring agent, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confections and frostings, § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; surface finisher, § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; humectant, § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 19391, Apr. 3, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1120" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1120   Brown algae.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Brown algae are seaweeds of the species <I>Analipus japonicus, Eisenia bicyclis, Hizikia fusiforme, Kjellmaniella gyrata, Laminaria angustata, Laminaria claustonia, Laminaria digitata, Laminaria japonica, Laminaria longicruris, Laminaria longissima, Laminaria ochotensis, Laminaria saccharina, Macrocystis pyrifera, Petalonia fascia, Scytosiphon lomentaria</I> and <I>Undaria pinnatifida.</I> They are harvested principally in coastal waters of the northern Atlantic and Pacific oceans. The material is dried and ground or chopped for use in food.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications for kelp in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 157, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spices, seasonings, and flavorings, § 170.3(n)(26) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed current good manufacturing practice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavor enhancer, § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavor adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the use established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 47376, Oct. 26, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1121" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1121   Red algae.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Red algae are seaweeds of the species <I>Gloiopeltis furcata, Porphyra crispata, Porphyra deutata, Porphyra perforata, Porphyra suborbiculata, Porphyra tenera</I> and <I>Rhodymenia palmata. Porphyra</I> and <I>Rhodymenia</I> are harvested principally along the coasts of Japan, Korea, China, Taiwan, and the East and West coasts of the United States. <I>Gloiopeltis</I> is harvested principally in southern Pacific coastal waters. The material is dried and ground or chopped for use in food.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications for kelp in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 157, which is incorporated by reference, except that the loss on drying is not more than 20 percent and the maximum allowable level for iodine is 0.05 percent. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spices, seasonings, and flavorings, § 170.3(n)(26) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed current good manufacturing practice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavor enhancer, § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavor adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the use established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 47376, Oct. 26, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1133" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1133   Ammonium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium alginate (CAS Reg. No. 9005-34-9) is the ammonium salt of alginic acid, a natural polyuronide constituent of certain brown algae. Ammonium alginate is prepared by the neutralization of purified alginic acid with appropriate pH control agents.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 18, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served) (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confections, frostings, § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and oils, § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gelatins, puddings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gravies and sauces, § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jams and jellies, § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sweet sauces, § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Humectant, § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for ammonium alginate different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29950, July 9, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1135" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1135   Ammonium bicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium bicarbonate (NH<E T="52">4</E>HCO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 1066-33-7) is prepared by reacting gaseous carbon dioxide with aqueous ammonia. Crystals of ammonium bicarbonate are precipitated from solution and subsequently washed and dried.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 19, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter; a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and a texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52439, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1137" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1137   Ammonium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium carbonate ((NH<E T="52">4</E>)<E T="52">2</E>CO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 8000-73-5) is a mixture of ammonium bicarbonate (NH<E T="52">4</E>HCO<E T="52">3</E>) and ammonium carbamate (NH<E T="52">2</E>COONH<E T="52">4</E>). It is prepared by the sublimation of a mixture of ammonium sulfate and calcium carbonate and occurs as a white powder or a hard, white or translucent mass.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 19, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter and a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52439, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1138" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1138   Ammonium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium chloride (NH<E T="52">4</E>Cl, CAS Reg. No. 12125-02-9) is produced by the reaction of sodium chloride and an ammonium salt in solution. The less soluble sodium salt separates out at elevated temperatures, and ammonium chloride is recovered from the filtrate on cooling. Alternatively, hydrogen chloride formed by the burning of hydrogen in chlorine is dissolved in water and then reacted with gaseous ammonia. Ammonium chloride is crystallized from the solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 20, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave, NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter; a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; and a processing aid as defined in § 107.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52439, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1139" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1139   Ammonium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium hydroxide (NH<E T="52">4</E>OH, CAS Reg. No. 1336-21-6) is produced by passing ammonia gas into water.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 20, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter; and as a boiler water additive complying with § 173.310 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used as a boiler water additive at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52440, Nov. 18, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 14551, Mar. 29, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1140" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1140   Ammonium citrate, dibasic.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium citrate, dibasic ((NH<E T="52">4</E>)<E T="52">2</E>HC<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>O<E T="52">7</E>, CAS Reg. No. 3012-65-5) is the diammonium salt of citric acid. It is prepared by partially neutralizing citric acid with ammonia.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter and as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter and in cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from those set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63896, Dec. 12, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 8606, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1141a" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1141a   Ammonium phosphate, monobasic.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium phosphate, monobasic (NH<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">2</E>PO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7722-76-1) is manufactured by reacting ammonia with phosphoric acid at a pH below 5.8.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 21, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter and a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52440, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1141b" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1141b   Ammonium phosphate, dibasic.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium phosphate, dibasic ((NH<E T="52">4</E>)<E T="52">2</E>HPO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7783-28-0) is manufactured by reacting ammonia with phosphoric acid at a pH above 5.8.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 21, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter; a firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52440, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1143" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1143   Ammonium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ammonium sulfate ((NH<E T="52">4</E>)<E T="52">2</E>SO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7783-20-2) occurs naturally and consists of colorless or white, odorless crystals or granules. It is prepared by the neutralization of sulfuric acid with ammonium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 22-23, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter, firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter, and processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.15 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter and 0.1 percent for gelatins and puddings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 6086, Jan. 25, 1980; 45 FR 16469, Mar. 14, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984; 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1148" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1148   Bacterially-derived carbohydrase enzyme preparation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bacterially-derived carbohydrase enzyme preparation is obtained from the culture filtrate resulting from a pure culture fermentation of a nonpathogenic and nontoxigenic strain of <I>Bacillus subtilis</I> or <I>B. amyloliquefaciens.</I> The preparation is characterized by the presence of the enzymes α-amylase (EC 3.2.1.1) and β-glucanase (EC 3.2.1.6), which catalyze the hydrolysis of <I>O</I>-glycosyl bonds in carbohydrates.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements in the monograph on enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 4th ed. (1996), pp. 128-135, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> In addition, antibiotic activity is absent in the enzyme preparation when determined by an appropriate validated method such as the method “Determination of antibiotic activity” in the Compendium of Food Additive Specifications, vol. 2, Joint FAO/WHO Expert Committee on Food Additives (JECFA), Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, Rome, 1992. Copies are available from Bernan Associates, 4611-F Assembly Dr., Lanham, MD 20706, or from The United Nations Bookshop, General Assembly Bldg., rm. 32, New York, NY 10017, or by inquiries sent to <I>http://www.fao.org.</I> Copies may be examined at the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition's Library, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze polysaccharides (e.g., starch).
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 19894, Apr. 23, 1999, as amended at 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1150" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1150   Bacterially-derived protease enzyme preparation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bacterially-derived protease enzyme preparation is obtained from the culture filtrate resulting from a pure culture fermentation of a nonpathogenic and nontoxigenic strain of <I>Bacillus subtilis</I> or <I>B. amyloliquefaciens.</I> The preparation is characterized by the presence of the enzymes subtilisin (EC 3.4.21.62) and neutral proteinase (EC 3.4.24.28), which catalyze the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in proteins.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements in the monograph on enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 4th ed. (1996), pp. 128-135, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> In addition, antibiotic activity is absent in the enzyme preparation when determined by an appropriate validated method such as the method “Determination of antibiotic activity” in the Compendium of Food Additive Specifications, vol. 2, Joint FAO/WHO Expert Committee on Food Additives (JECFA), Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, Rome, 1992. Copies are available from Bernan Associates, 4611-F Assembly Dr., Lanham, MD 20706, or from The United Nations Bookshop, General Assembly Bldg., rm. 32, New York, NY 10017, or by inquiries sent to <I>http://www.fao.org.</I> Copies may be examined at the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition's Library, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze proteins or polypeptides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 19895, Apr. 23, 1999, as amended at 81 FR 5593, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1155" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1155   Bentonite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bentonite (Al<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>4SiO<E T="52">2</E>nH<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 1302-78-9) is principally a colloidal hydrated aluminum silicate. Bentonite contains varying quantities of iron, alkalies, and alkaline earths in the commercial products. Depending on the cations present, natural deposits of bentonite range in color from white to gray, yellow, green, or blue. Bentonite's fine particles provide large total surface area and, hence, pronounced adsorptive capability.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice results in no significant residue in foods.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 43367, Oct. 1, 1982, as amended at 73 FR 8606, Feb. 14, 2008; 76 FR 59249, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1157" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1157   Benzoyl peroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Benzoyl peroxide ((C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>CO)<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 94-36-0) is a colorless, rhombic crystalline solid. It is prepared by reaction of benzoyl chloride, sodium hydroxide, and hydrogen peroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 35, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a bleaching agent in food.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: flour; milk used for production of Asiago fresh and Asiago soft cheese (§ 133.102), Asiago medium cheese (§ 133.103), Asiago old cheese (§ 133.104), Blue cheese (§ 133.106), Caciocavallo siciliano chesse (§ 133.111), Gorgonzola cheese (§ 133.141), Parmesan and reggiano cheese (§ 133.165), Provolone cheese (§ 133.181), Romano cheese (§ 133.183), and Swiss and emmentaler cheese (§ 133.195) in part 133 of this chapter; and annatto-colored whey, such that the final bleached product conforms to the descriptions and specifications for whey, concentrated whey, or dried whey in § 184.1979(a)(1), (2), or (3), respectively.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27173, July 30, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1165" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1165   n-Butane and iso-butane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) n-Butane and iso-butane (empirical formula C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">10</E>, CAS Reg. Nos. 106-97-8 and 75-28-5, respectively) are colorless, flammable gases at normal temperatures and pressures. They are easily liquefied under pressure at room temperature and are stored and shipped in the liquid state. The butanes are obtained from natural gas by fractionation following absorption in oil, adsorption to surface-active agents, or refrigeration.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients must be of a purity suitable for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), these ingredients are used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of these ingredients as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as direct human food ingredients is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredients are used as propellants, aerating agents, and gases as defined in § 170.3(o)(25) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredients are used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 57270, Dec. 29, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008; 76 FR 59249, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1185" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1185   Calcium acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium acetate (Ca (C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">3</E>O<E T="52">2</E>)<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 62-54-4), also known as acetate of lime or vinegar salts, is the calcium salt of acetic acid. It may be produced by the calcium hydroxide neutralization of acetic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 44, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; sequestrant as defined in § 170.3(o)(26) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practices in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practices result in a maximum level, as served, of 0.2 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; 0.02 percent for cheese as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter; 0.2 percent for gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; 0.15 percent for sweet sauces, toppings, and syrups as defined in § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter; and 0.0001 percent for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section or in part 181 of this chapter do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27807, June 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1187" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1187   Calcium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium alginate (CAS Reg. No. 9005-35-0) is the calcium salt of alginic acid, a natural polyuronide constituent of certain brown algae. Calcium alginate is prepared by the neutralization of purified alginic acid with appropriate pH control agents, or from sodium alginate by metathesis with appropriate calcium salts.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 45, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served) (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alcoholic beverages, § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confections and frostings, § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Egg products, § 170.3(n)(11) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and oils, § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gelatins, puddings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gravies and sauces, § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jams and jellies, § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sweet sauces, § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for calcium alginate different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29951, July 9, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1191" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1191   Calcium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium carbonate (CaCO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 471-34-1) is prepared by three common methods of manufacture:
</P>
<P>(1) As a byproduct in the “Lime soda process”;
</P>
<P>(2) By precipitation of calcium carbonate from calcium hydroxide in the “Carbonation process”; or
</P>
<P>(3) By precipitation of calcium carbonate from calcium chloride in the “Calcium chloride process”.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 46, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from that set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52441, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1193" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1193   Calcium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium chloride (CaCl<E T="52">2</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 10035-04-8) or anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 10043-52-4) may be commercially obtained as a byproduct in the ammonia-soda (Solvay) process and as a joint product from natural salt brines, or it may be prepared by substitution reactions with other calcium and chloride salts.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 47, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an anticaking agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter; antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter; curing or pickling agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(5) of this chapter; firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; surface-active agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter; synergist as defined in § 170.3(o)(31) of this chapter; and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practices in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practices result in a maximum level, as served, of 0.3 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter and for dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; 0.22 percent for nonalcoholic beverages and beverage bases as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; 0.2 percent for cheese as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter and for processed fruit and fruit juices as defined in § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter; 0.32 percent for coffee and tea as defined in § 170.3(n)(7) of this chapter; 0.4 percent for condiments and relishes as defined in § 170.3(n)(8) of this chapter; 0.2 percent for gravies and sauces as defined in § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter; 0.1 percent for commercial jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter; 0.25 percent for meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; 2.0 percent for plant protein products as defined in § 170.3(n)(33) of this chapter; 0.4 percent for processed vegetables and vegetable juices as defined in § 170.3(n)(36) of this chapter; and 0.05 percent for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27808, June 25, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 14247, Apr. 1, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1195" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1195   Calcium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium citrate (Ca<E T="52">3</E>(C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>O<E T="52">7</E>)<E T="52">2</E>·4H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 813-0994-095) is the calcium salt of citric acid. It is prepared by neutralizing citric acid with calcium hydroxide or calcium carbonate. It occurs as a fine white, odorless powder and usually contains four moles of water per mole of calcium citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), pp. 49 and 50, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, and the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. Calcium citrate may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63896, Dec. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1199" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1199   Calcium gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium gluconate ([CH<E T="52">2</E>OH(CHOH)<E T="52">4</E>COO]<E T="52">2</E>Ca, CAS Reg. No. 299-28-5) is the calcium salt of gluconic acid which may be produced by neutralization of gluconic acid with lime or calcium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 51, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; sequestrant as defined in § 170.3(o)(26) of this chapter; stabilizer or thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practices in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practices result in a maximum level, as served, of 1.75 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; 0.4 percent for dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; 4.5 percent for gelatins and puddings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; and 0.01 percent for sugar substitutes as defined in § 170.3(n)(42) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27808, June 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1201" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1201   Calcium glycerophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium glycerophosphate (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">7</E>CaO<E T="52">6</E>P, CAS Reg. No. 27214-00-2) is a fine, white, odorless, almost tasteless, slightly hygroscopic powder. It is prepared by neutralizing glycerophosphoric acid with calcium hydroxide or calcium carbonate. The commercial product is a mixture of calcium β-, and <I>D-,</I> and <I>L</I>-α-glycerophosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 51-52, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section or different from that as set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 10813, Mar. 31, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1205" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1205   Calcium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 1305-62-0) is also known as slaked lime or calcium hydrate. It is produced by the hydration of lime. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 52, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 26714, June 29, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1206" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1206   Calcium iodate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium iodate [Ca(IO<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="52">2</E>·H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 7789-80-2], also referred to as lautarite, does not occur naturally but can be prepared by passing chlorine into a hot solution of lime (CaCO<E T="52">3</E>) in which iodine has been dissolved.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 53, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in the manufacture of bread in accordance with § 184.1(b)(2) of this chapter in an amount not to exceed 0.0075 percent based on the weight of the flour.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11699, Mar. 21, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1207" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1207   Calcium lactate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium lactate (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>CaO<E T="52">6</E>. xH<E T="52">2</E>O, where x is any integer up to 5, CAS Reg. No. 814-80-2) is prepared commercially by the neutralization of lactic acid with calcium carbonate or calcium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 53, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; a flavoring agent or adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; and a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food, except in infant foods and infant formulas, at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 35367, Sept. 7, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1210" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1210   Calcium oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium oxide (CaO, CAS Reg. No. 1305-78-8) is also known as lime, quick lime, burnt lime, or calx. It is produced from calcium carbonate, limestone, or oyster shells by calcination at temperatures of 1,700-2,450 °F.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 55, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 26714, June 29, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1212" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1212   Calcium pantothenate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium pantothenate ((C<E T="52">9</E>H<E T="52">16</E>NO<E T="52">5</E>)<E T="52">2</E>Ca, CAS Reg. No. of the <I>D-</I>isomer, 137-08-6) is a salt of pantothenic acid, one of the vitamins of the B complex. Only the <I>D-</I>isomer of pantothenic acid has vitamin activity, although both the <I>D-</I>isomer and the <I>DL-</I>racemic mixture of calcium pantothenate are used in food. Commercial calcium pantothenate is prepared synthetically from isobutyraldehyde and formaldehyde via 1,1-dimethyl-2-hydroxy-propionaldehyde and pantolactone.
</P>
<P>(b) Calcium pantothenate meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 56, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Calcium pantothenate may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51908, Nov. 15, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1221" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1221   Calcium propionate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium propionate (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>CaO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 4075-81-4) is the calcium salt of propionic acid. It occurs as white crystals or a crystalline solid, possessing not more than a faint odor of propionic acid. It is prepared by neutralizing propionic acid with calcium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 60, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter; confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; and jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 13141, Apr. 3, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1229" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1229   Calcium stearate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium stearate (Ca(C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">35</E>COO)<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 1529-23-0) is the calcium salt of stearic acid derived from edible sources. It is prepared as a white precipitate by mixing calcium chloride and sodium stearate in aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 64, which is incorporated by reference, and the requirements of § 172.860(b)(2) of this chapter. Copies of the Food Chemicals Codex are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter; and a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52445, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1230" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1230   Calcium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium sulfate (CaSO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7778-18-9 or CaSO<E T="52">4</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 10101-41-4), also known as plaster of Paris, anhydrite, and gypsum, occurs naturally and exists as a fine, white to slightly yellow-white odorless powder. The anhydrous form is prepared by complete dehydration of gypsum, below 300 °C, in an electric oven.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 66, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an anticaking agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter, color and coloring adjunct as defined in § 170.3(o)(4) of this chapter, dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter, drying agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(7) of this chapter, firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter, flour treating agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(13) of this chapter, formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter, leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter, nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter, processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter, stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, synergist as defined in § 170.3(o)(31) of this chapter, and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 1.3 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter, 3.0 percent for confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter, 0.5 percent for frozen dairy desserts and mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter, 0.4 percent for gelatins and puddings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter, 0.5 percent for grain products and pastas as defined in § 170.3(n)(23) of this chapter, 0.35 percent for processed vegetables as defined in § 170.3(n)(36) of this chapter, and 0.07 percent or less for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 6086, Jan. 25, 1980; 45 FR 26319, Apr. 18, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1240" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1240   Carbon dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Carbon dioxide (empirical formula CO<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 124-38-9) occurs as a colorless, odorless, noncombustible gas at normal temperatures and pressures. The solid form, dry ice, sublimes under atmospheric pressure at a temperature of −78.5 °C. Carbon dioxide is prepared as a byproduct of the manufacture of lime during the “burning” of limestone, from the combustion of carbonaceous material, from fermentation processes, and from gases found in certain natural springs and wells.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; and a propellant, aerating agent, and gas as defined in § 170.3(o)(25) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 57270, Dec. 29, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1245" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1245   <E T="7462">Beta</E>-carotene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Beta-</I>carotene (CAS Reg. No. 7235-40-7) has the molecular formula C<E T="52">40</E>H<E T="52">56</E>. It is synthesized by saponification of vitamin A acetate. The resulting alcohol is either reacted to form vitamin A Wittig reagent or oxidized to vitamin A aldehyde. Vitamin A Wittig reagent and vitamin A aldehyde are reacted together to form <I>beta</I>-carotene.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 73, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washingtion, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter; and processed fruits and fruit juices as defined in § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter. <I>Beta</I>-carotene may be used in infant formula as a source of vitamin A in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or with regulations promulgated under section 412(g) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25211, July 6, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1250   Cellulase enzyme preparation derived from Trichoderma longibrachiatum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cellulase enzyme preparation is derived from a nonpathogenic, nontoxicogenic strain of <I>Trichoderma longibrachiatum</I> (formerly <I>T. reesei</I>). The enzyme, cellulase, catalyzes the endohydrolysis of 1,4-beta-glycosidic linkages in cellulose. It is obtained from the culture filtrate resulting from a pure culture fermentation process.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the monograph specifications on enzyme preparations in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 129 to 134, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Box 285, Washington, DC 20055 (Internet <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter for the breakdown of cellulose.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 28361, May 26, 1999, as amended at 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1257" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1257   Clove and its derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cloves are the dried unopened flower buds and calyx tubes, harvested before the flowers have opened, of the clove tree <I>Eugenia caryophyllata</I> Thunberg, native to tropical Asia. Their derivatives include essential oils (cloves, CAS Reg. No. 8000-34-8; buds; leaves, CAS Reg. No. 8015-97-2; stems, CAS Reg. No. 8015-98-3; and eugenol, CAS Reg. No. 97-53-0), oleoresins, and natural extractives obtained from clove buds, leaves, and stems.
</P>
<P>(b) Clove bud oil, clove leaf oil, clove stem oil, and eugenol meet the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 104-105, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> As determined by analytical methods in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” clove oleoresin or other natural extractives (other than clove oils) meet the “Food Chemicals Codex” specifications for clove (clove bud) oil and the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The assay for phenols, as eugenol, by the “Food Chemicals Codex” test, 4th ed. (pp. 104-105), or the volatile oils content by the “Food Chemicals Codex” test, 4th ed. (pp. 104-105) should conform to the representation of the vendor;
</P>
<P>(2) Optical rotation of the volatile oil between −2° and 0°;
</P>
<P>(3) Refractive index of the volatile oil between 1.527 and 1.538 at 20 °C;
</P>
<P>(4) Specific gravity of the volatile oil between 1.036 and 1.060; and
</P>
<P>(5) Residual solvent free, except those solvents that are GRAS or within tolerance levels as specified in part 173, subpart C, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Clove and its derivatives are used as flavoring agents and adjuvants as defined in § 170.3(0)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredients are used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 3964, Jan. 19, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 11852, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984; 64 FR 1759, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1259" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1259   Cocoa butter substitute.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name for the triglyceride 1-palmitoyl-2-oleoyl-3-stearin is “cocoa butter substitute primarily from palm oil.” The common or usual name for the triglyceride 1-3-distearoyl-2-olein is “cocoa butter substitute primarily from high-oleic safflower or sunflower oil.”
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient 1-palmitoyl-2-oleoyl-3-stearin is manufactured by:
</P>
<P>(i) Directed esterification of fully saturated 1,3-diglycerides (derived from palm oil) with the anhydride of food-grade oleic acid in the presence of the catalyst trifluoromethane sulfonic acid (§ 173.395 of this chapter), or
</P>
<P>(ii) By interesterification of partially saturated 1,2,3-triglycerides (derived from palm oil) with ethyl stearate in the presence of a suitable lipase enzyme preparation that is either generally recognized as safe (GRAS) or has food additive approval for such use.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient 1-3-distearoyl-2-olein is manufactured by interesterification of partially unsaturated 1,2,3-triglycerides (derived from high-oleic safflower or sunflower oil) with ethyl stearate or stearic acid in the presence of a suitable lipase enzyme preparation that is either GRAS or has food additive approval for such use.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Over 90 percent triglycerides, not more than 7 percent diglycerides, not more than 1 percent monoglycerides, and not more than 1 percent free fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(2) Total glycerides—98 percent minimum.
</P>
<P>(3) Heavy metals (as lead), not more than 10 milligrams per kilogram, as determined by the Heavy Metals Test of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 760-761, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) Color—clear, bright, and free from suspended matter.
</P>
<P>(5) Odor and taste—free from foreign and rancid odor and taste.
</P>
<P>(6) Residual catalyst (“Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), sections 25.049-25.055, which is incorporated by reference), residual fluorine; limit of detection 0.2 part per million F; multiply fluoride result by 2.63 to convert to residual catalyst. Copies of the material incorporated by reference may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The ingredient shall be washed three times in batches with 0.5 percent sodium bicarbonate to remove catalyst residuals in accordance with good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(7) Residual methanol—5 parts per million maximum.
</P>
<P>(8) Residual fatty acid ethyl esters—not more than 20 parts per million as determined by a “Modification of Japan Institute of Oils and Fats: Analysis Method of Residual Ethyl Esters of Fatty Acids” issued by the Fuji Oil Co., which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) Hexane—not more than 5 parts per million as determined by the method of Dupuy et al., “Rapid Quantitative Determination of Residual Hexane in Oils by Direct Gas Chromatography,” published in the “Journal of the American Oil Chemists' Society,” Vol. 52, p. 118-120, 1975, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Division of Food and Color Additives, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in the following food categories at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: Confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; coatings of soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter; and sweet sauces and toppings as defined in § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter; except that the ingredient may not be used in a standardized food unless permitted by the standard of identity.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 54239, Nov. 11, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 11852, Mar. 19, 1982; 49 FR 5611, Feb. 14, 1984; 49 FR 22799, June 1, 1984; 52 FR 47920, Dec. 17, 1987; 52 FR 48905, Dec. 28, 1987; 61 FR 36290, July 10, 1996; 64 FR 1760, Jan. 12, 1999; 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1260" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1260   Copper gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Copper gluconate (cupric gluconate (CH<E T="52">2</E>OH(CHOH)<E T="52">4</E>COO)<E T="52">2</E>Cu, CAS Reg. No. 527-09-3) is a substance that occurs as light blue to bluish-green, odorless crystals, or as a fine, light blue powder. It is prepared by the reaction of gluconic acid solutions with cupric oxide or basic cupric carbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 90, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC. 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter and as a synergist as defined in § 170.3(o)(31) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Copper gluconate may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 24119, June 12, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1261" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1261   Copper sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Copper sulfate (cupric sulfate, CuSO<E T="52">4</E>·5 H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 7758-99-8) usually is used in the pentahydrate form. This form occurs as large, deep blue or ultramarine, triclinic crystals; as blue granules, or as a light blue powder. The ingredient is prepared by the reaction of sulfuric acid with cupric oxide or with copper metal.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter and as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Copper sulfate may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 24119, June 12, 1984, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008; 76 FR 59249, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1262" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1262   Corn silk and corn silk extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Corn silk is the fresh styles and stigmas of <I>Zea mays</I> L. collected when the corn is in milk. The filaments are extracted with dilute ethanol to produce corn silk extract. The extract may be concentrated at a temperature not exceeding 60 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredients are used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods and baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonalcoholic beverages, § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen dairy desserts, § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Do.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Parts per million.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29953, July 9, 1982, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1265" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1265   Cuprous iodide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cuprous iodide (copper (I) iodide, CuI, CAS Reg. No. 7681-65-4) is a pure white crystalline powder. It is prepared by the reaction of copper sulfate with potassium iodide under slightly acidic conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum treatment level in food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Table salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Source of dietary iodine.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 24119, June 12, 1984, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1271" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1271   L-Cysteine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) L-Cysteine is the chemical L-2-amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">7</E>O<E T="52">2</E>NS).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the appropriate part of the specification set forth in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 92-93, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used to supply up to 0.009 part of total L-cysteine per 100 parts of flour in dough as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter in yeast-leavened baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) This regulation is issued prior to a general evaluation of use of this ingredient in order to affirm as GRAS the specific use named.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1272" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1272   L-Cysteine monohydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) L-Cysteine monohydrochloride is the chemical L-2-amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid monohydrochloride monohydrate (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">7</E>O<E T="52">2</E>NS HCl H<E T="52">2</E>O).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 92-93, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used to supply up to 0.009 part of total L-cysteine per 100 parts of flour in dough as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter in yeast-leavened baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) This regulation is issued prior to a general evaluation of use of this ingredient in order to affirm as GRAS the specific use named.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1277" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1277   Dextrin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dextrin ((C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>O<E T="52">5</E>)<E T="52">n</E>·H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 9004-53-9) is an incompletely hydrolyzed starch. It is prepared by dry heating corn, waxy maize, waxy milo, potato, arrowroot, wheat, rice, tapioca, or sago starches, or by dry heating the starches after: (1) Treatment with safe and suitable alkalis, acids, or pH control agents and (2) drying the acid or alkali treated starch.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specification of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 96, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; as a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; and as a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51909, Nov. 15, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1278" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1278   Diacetyl.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Diacetyl (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 431-03-8) is a clear yellow to yellowish green liquid with a strong pungent odor. It is also known as 2,3-butanedione and is chemically synthesized from methyl ethyl ketone. It is miscible in water, glycerin, alcohol, and ether, and in very dilute water solution, it has a typical buttery odor and flavor.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 368, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51907, Nov. 15, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1282" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1282   Dill and its derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dill (American or European) is the herb and seeds from <I>Anethum graveolens</I> L., and dill (Indian) is the herb and seeds from <I>Anethum sowa,</I> D.C. Its derivatives include essential oils, oleoresins, and natural extractives obtained from these sources of dill.
</P>
<P>(b) Dill oils meet the description and specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 122-123, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Dill and its derivatives are used as flavoring agents and adjuvants as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredients are used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984; 64 FR 1760, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1287" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1287   Enzyme-modified fats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Enzyme-modified refined beef fat, enzyme-modified butterfat, and enzyme-modified steam-rendered chicken fat are prepared from refined beef fat; butterfat or milkfat; and steam-rendered chicken fat, respectively, with enzymes that are generally recognized as safe (GRAS). Enzyme-modified milk powder may be prepared with GRAS enzymes from reconstituted milk powder, whole milk, condensed or concentrated whole milk, evaporated milk, or milk powder. The lipolysis is maintained at a temperature that is optimal for the action of the enzyme until appropriate acid development is attained. The enzymes are then inactivated. The resulting product is concentrated or dried.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients must be of a purity suitable for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredients are used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of these ingredients as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as direct human food ingredients is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredients are used as flavoring agents and adjuvants as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredients are used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25976, July 10, 1987, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1293" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1293   Ethyl alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) is the chemical C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">5</E>OH.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), p. 136, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter on pizza crusts prior to final baking at levels not to exceed 2.0 percent by product weight.
</P>
<P>(d) This regulation is issued prior to general evaluation of use of this ingredient in order to affirm as GRAS the specific use named.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984; 64 FR 1760, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1295" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1295   Ethyl formate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ethyl formate (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 109-94-4) is also referred to as ethyl methanoate. It is an ester of formic acid and is prepared by esterification of formic acid with ethyl alcohol or by distillation of ethyl acetate and formic acid in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid. Ethyl formate occurs naturally in some plant oils, fruits, and juices but does not occur naturally in the animal kingdom.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 376, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.05 percent in baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; 0.04 percent in chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6), hard candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(25), and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter; 0.02 percent in frozen dairy desserts as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter; 0.03 percent in gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; and 0.01 percent in all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for ethyl formate different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 22915, Apr. 4, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1296" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1296   Ferric ammonium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferric ammonium citrate (iron (III) ammonium citrate) is prepared by the reaction of ferric hydroxide with citric acid, followed by treatment with ammonium hydroxide, evaporating, and drying. The resulting product occurs in two forms depending on the stoichiometry of the initial reactants.
</P>
<P>(1) Ferric ammonium citrate (iron (III) ammonium citrate, CAS Reg. No. 1332-98-5) is a complex salt of undetermined structure composed of 16.5 to 18.5 percent iron, approximately 9 percent ammonia, and 65 percent citric acid and occurs as reddish brown or garnet red scales or granules or as a brownish-yellowish powder.
</P>
<P>(2) Ferric ammonium citrate (iron (III) ammonium citrate, CAS Reg. No. 1333-00-2) is a complex salt of undetermined structure composed of 14.5 to 16 percent iron, approximately 7.5 percent ammonia, and 75 percent citric acid and occurs as thin transparent green scales, as granules, as a powder, or as transparent green crystals.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients meet the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 116-117 (Ferric ammonium citrate, brown) and p. 117 (Ferric ammonium citrate, green), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredients are used in food as nutrient supplements as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredients may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16864, May 12, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1297" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1297   Ferric chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferric chloride (iron (III) chloride, FeC1<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7705-08-0) may be prepared from iron and chlorine or from ferric oxide and hydrogen chloride. The pure material occurs as hydroscopic, hexagonal, dark crystals. Ferric chloride hexahydrate (iron (III) chloride hexahydrate, FeC1<E T="52">3</E>. 6H<E T="52">2</E>0, CAS Reg. No. 10025-77-1) is readily formed when ferric chloride is exposed to moisture.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) the ingredient is used in food as a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16864, May 12, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1298" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1298   Ferric citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferric citrate (iron (III) citrate, C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>FeO<E T="52">7</E>, CAS Reg. No. 2338-05-8) is prepared from reaction of citric acid with ferric hydroxide. It is a compound of indefinite ratio of citric acid and iron.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16865, May 12, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1301" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1301   Ferric phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferric phosphate (ferric orthophosphate, iron (III) phosphate, FePO<E T="52">4</E>·xH<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 10045-86-0) is an odorless, yellowish-white to buff-colored powder and contains from one to four molecules of water of hydration. It is prepared by reaction of sodium phosphate with ferric chloride or ferric citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 118-120, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16865, May 12, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1304" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1304   Ferric pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferric pyrophosphate (iron (III) pyrophosphate, Fe<E T="52">4</E>(P<E T="52">207</E>)<E T="52">3</E>·xH<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 10058-44-3) is a tan or yellowish white colorless powder. It is prepared by reacting sodium pyrophosphate with ferric citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 120, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16865, May 12, 1988; 53 FR 20939, June 7, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1307" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1307   Ferric sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferric sulfate (iron (III) sulfate, Fe<E T="52">2</E>(SO<E T="52">4</E>)<E T="52">3</E> CAS Reg. No. 10028-22-5) is a yellow substance that may be prepared by oxidizing iron (II) sulfate or by treating ferric oxide or ferric hydroxide with sulfuric acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16865, May 12, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1307a" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1307a   Ferrous ascorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferrous ascorbate (CAS Reg. No. 24808-52-4) is a reaction product of ferrous hydroxide and ascorbic acid. It is a blue-violet product containing 16 percent iron.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16865, May 12, 1988, as amended at 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004; 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1307b" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1307b   Ferrous carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferrous carbonate (iron (II) carbonate, FeCO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 563-71-3) is an odorless, white solid prepared by treating solutions of iron (II) salts with alkali carbonate salts.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Foods, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16865, May 12, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1307c" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1307c   Ferrous citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferrous citrate (iron (II) citrate, (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">6</E>FeO<E T="52">7</E>), CAS Reg. No. 23383-11-1) is a slightly colored powder or white crystals. It is prepared from the reaction of sodium citrate with ferrous sulfate or by direct action of citric acid on iron filings.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16866, May 12, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1307d" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1307d   Ferrous fumarate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferrous fumarate (iron (II) fumarate, (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">2</E>FeO<E T="52">4</E>), CAS Reg. No. 141-01-5) is an odorless, reddish-orange to reddish-brown powder. It may contain soft lumps that produce a yellow streak when crushed. It is prepared by admixing hot solutions of ferrous sulfate and sodium fumarate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 120-122, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)), or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16866, May 12, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1308" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1308   Ferrous gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferrous gluconate (iron (II) gluconate dihydrate, C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">22</E>FeO<E T="52">14</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 6047-12-7) is a fine yellowish-gray or pale greenish-yellow powder or granules. It is prepared by reacting hot solutions of barium or calcium gluconate with ferrous sulfate or by heating freshly prepared ferrous carbonate with gluconic acid in aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 122-123, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16866, May 12, 1988; 53 FR 20939, June 7, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1311" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1311   Ferrous lactate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferrous lactate (iron (II) lactate, C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>FeO<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 5905-52-2) in the trihydrate form is a greenish-white powder or crystalline mass. It is prepared by reacting calcium lactate or sodium lactate with ferrous sulfate, direct reaction of lactic acid with iron filings, reaction of ferrous chloride with sodium lactate, or reaction of ferrous sulfate with ammonium lactate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 4th ed. (1996), pp. 154 to 155, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter and as a color fixative for ripe olives, with no other limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16866, May 12, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 40319, Aug. 2, 1996; 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1315" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1315   Ferrous sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferrous sulfate heptahydrate (iron (II) sulfate heptahydrate, FeSO<E T="52">4</E>·7H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 7782-63-0) is prepared by the action of sulfuric acid on iron. It occurs as pale, bluish-green crystals or granules. Progressive heating of ferrous sulfate heptahydrate produces ferrous sulfate (dried). Ferrous sulfate (dried) consists primarily of ferrous sulfate monohydrate (CAS Reg. No. 17375-41-6) with varying amounts of ferrous sulfate tetrahydrate (CAS Reg. No. 20908-72-9) and occurs as a grayish-white to buff-colored powder.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients meet the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 123 (Ferrous sulfate heptahydrate) and p. 124 (ferrous sulfate, dried), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredients are used in food as nutrient supplements as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter and as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredients may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16866, May 12, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1316" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1316   Ficin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ficin (CAS Reg. No. 9001-33-6) is an enzyme preparation obtained from the latex of species of the genus <I>Ficus,</I> which include a variety of tropical fig trees. It is a white to off-white powder. Its characterizing enzyme activity is that of a peptide hydrolase (EC 3.4.22.3).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze proteins or polypeptides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32910, June 26, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1317" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1317   Garlic and its derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Garlic is the fresh or dehydrated bulb or cloves obtained from <I>Allium sativum,</I> a genus of the lily family. Its derivatives include essential oils, oleo-resins, and natural extractives obtained from garlic.
</P>
<P>(b) Garlic oil meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 132, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Garlic and its derivatives are used as flavoring agents and adjuvants as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredients are used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(f) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1318" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1318   Glucono delta-lactone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Glucono delta-lactone (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 90-80-2), also called <I>D</I>-gluconic acid delta-lactone or <I>D</I>-glucono-1,5-lactone, is the cyclic 1,5-intramolecular ester of <I>D</I>-gluconic acid. It is prepared by direct crystallization from the aqueous solution of gluconic acid. Gluconic acid may be produced by the oxidation of <I>D</I>-glucose with bromine water, by the oxidation of <I>D</I>-glucose by microorganisms that are nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic to man or other animals, or by the oxidation of <I>D</I>-glucose with enzymes derived from these microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 134, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a curing and pickling agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(5) of this chapter, leavening agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(17) of this chapter; pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and sequestrant as defined in § 170.3(o)(26) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 33896, Sept. 24, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1321" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1321   Corn gluten.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Corn gluten (CAS Reg. No. 66071-96-3), also known as corn gluten meal, is the principal protein component of corn endosperm. It consists mainly of zein and glutelin. Corn gluten is a byproduct of the wet milling of corn for starch. The gluten fraction is washed to remove residual water soluble proteins. Corn gluten is also produced as a byproduct during the conversion of the starch in whole or various fractions of dry milled corn to corn syrups.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter and a texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8998, Mar. 6, 1985, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1322" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1322   Wheat gluten.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wheat gluten (CAS Reg. No. 8002-80-0) is the principal protein component of wheat and consists mainly of gliadin and glutenin. Wheat gluten is obtained by hydrating wheat flour and mechanically working the sticky mass to separate the wheat gluten from the starch and other flour components. Vital gluten is dried gluten that has retained its elastic properties.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter; a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter; and a texturizing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8998, Mar. 6, 1985, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1323" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1323   Glyceryl monooleate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Glyceryl monooleate is prepared by esterification of commercial oleic acid that is derived either from edible sources or from tall oil fatty acids meeting the requirements of § 172.862 of this chapter. It contains glyceryl monooleate (C<E T="52">21</E>H<E T="52">40</E>O<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 25496-72-4) and glyceryl esters of fatty acids present in commercial oleic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter and as a solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages and beverage bases as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter; and meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the use established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7403 Feb. 21, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1324" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.92" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1324   Glyceryl monostearate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Glyceryl monostearate, also known as monostearin, is a mixture of variable proportions of glyceryl monostearate (C<E T="52">21</E>H<E T="52">42</E>O<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 31566-31-1), glyceryl monopalmitate (C<E T="52">19</E>H<E T="52">38</E>O<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 26657-96-5) and glyceryl esters of fatty acids present in commercial stearic acid. Glyceryl monostearate is prepared by glycerolysis of certain fats or oils that are derived from edible sources or by esterification, with glycerin, of stearic acid that is derived from edible sources.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7403 Feb. 21, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1328" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.93" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1328   Glyceryl behenate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Glyceryl behenate is a mixture of glyceryl esters of behenic acid made from glycerin and behenic acid (a saturated C<E T="52">22</E> fatty acid). The mixture contains predominately glyceryl dibehenate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) 10 to 20 percent monoglyceride, 47 to 59 percent diglyceride, 26 to 38 percent triglyceride, and not more than 2.5 percent free fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Behenic acid.</I> Between 80 and 90 percent of the total fatty acid content.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acid value.</I> Not more than 4.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Saponification value.</I> Between 145 and 165.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Iodine number.</I> Not more than 3.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Heavy metals (as Pb).</I> Not more than 10 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) of this chapter, the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient is generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a formulation aid, as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in excipient formulations for use in tablets at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 42430, Nov. 5, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1329" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.94" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1329   Glyceryl palmitostearate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Glyceryl palmitostearate is a mixture of mono-, di-, and triglyceryl esters of palmitic and stearic acids made from glycerin, palmitic acid, and stearic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The substance is a mixture of mono-, di-, and triglycerides of palmitic acid and stearic acid.
</P>
<P>(2) Heavy metals (as lead): Not more than 10 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a formulation aid, as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in excipient formulations for use in tablets at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 63621, Dec. 12, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1330" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.95" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1330   Acacia (gum arabic).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Acacia (gum arabic) is the dried gummy exudate from stems and branches of trees of various species of the genus <I>Acacia,</I> family Leguminosae.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 7, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beverages and beverage bases, § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chewing gum, § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; humectant, § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; surface-finishing agent, § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confections and frostings, § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; surface-finishing agent, § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dairy product analogs, § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and oils, § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gelatins, puddings, and fillings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter.; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hard candy and cough drops, § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nuts and nut products, § 170.3(n)(32) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; surface-finishing agent, § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quiescently frozen confection products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Snack foods, § 170.3(n)(37) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; firming agent, § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter, humectant, § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; surface-finishing agent, § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; processing aid, § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; surface-finishing agent, § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter; texturizer, § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1983; 53 FR 5766, Feb. 26, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1333" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.96" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1333   Gum ghatti.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Gum ghatti (Indian gum) is an exudate from wounds in the bark of <I>Anogeissus latifolia,</I> a large tree found in the dry deciduous forests of India and Ceylon.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient complies with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Viscosity of a 1-percent solution.</I> Not less than the minimum or within the range claimed by the vendor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limits of impurities</I>—(i) <I>Arsenic</I> (<I>as AL</I>). Not more than 3 parts per million (0.0003 percent);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ash</I> (<I>acid-insoluble</I>). Not more than 1.75 percent;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Ash</I> (<I>total</I>). Not more than 6.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Heavy metals</I> (<I>as Pb</I>). Not more than 40 parts per million (0.004 percent); and
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Lead.</I> Not more than 10 parts per million (0.001 percent).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loss on drying.</I> Not more than 14 percent dried at 105 °C for 5 hours.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Identification test.</I> Add 0.2 ml of diluted lead acetate as outlined in “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), section 31.178(b), p. 529, under “Dilute Basic Lead Acetate Standard Solution,” which is incorporated by reference (Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>), to 5 ml of a cold 1-in-100 aqueous solution of the gum. An immediate, voluminous, opaque precipitate indicates acacia. A small precipitate or clear solution which produces an opaque flocculent precipitate upon the addition of 1 ml of 3 <I>N</I> ammonimum hydroxide indicates gum ghatti.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beverages and beverage bases, nonalcoholic, § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1339" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.97" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1339   Guar gum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Guar gum is the natural substance obtained from the maceration of the seed of the guar plant, <I>Cyamopsis tetragonoloba</I> (Linne) Taub., or <I>Cyamopsis psoraloides</I> (Lam.) D.C.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 141, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods and baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salts, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener; § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Breakfast cereals, § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cheese, § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dairy products analogs, § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Firming agent, § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and oils, § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gravies and sauces, § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jams and jellies, commercial, § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Milk products, § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed vegetables and vegetable juices, § 170.3(n)(36) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soups and soup mixes, § 170.3(n)(40) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sweet sauces, toppings and syrups, § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salts, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; firming agent, § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1343" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.98" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1343   Locust (carob) bean gum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Locust (carob) bean gum is primarily the macerated endosperm of the seed of the locust (carob) bean tree, <I>Ceratonia siliqua</I> (Linne), a leguminous evergreen tree, with lesser quantities of seed coat and germ.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 174-175, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed the following maximum levels:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods and baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beverages and beverage bases, nonalcoholic, § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cheeses, § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gelatins, puddings, and fillings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jams and jellies, commercial, § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this regulation do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1349" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.99" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1349   Karaya gum (sterculia gum).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Karaya gum (sterculia gum) is the dried gummy exudate from the trunk of trees of various species of the genus <I>Sterculia.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 157, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen dairy desserts and mixes, § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Milk products, § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.002</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1351" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.100" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1351   Gum tragacanth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Gum tragacanth is the exudate from one of several species of <I>Astragalus gummifier</I> Labillardiere, a shrub that grows wild in mountainous regions of the Middle East.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 337, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food under the following conditions: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods and baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condiments and relishes, § 170.3(n)(8) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats and oils, § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gravies and sauces, § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meat products, § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed fruits and fruit juices, § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier and emulsifier salt, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 55205, Oct. 14, 1977; 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1355" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.101" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1355   Helium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Helium (empirical formula He, CAS Reg. No. 7440-59-7) is a colorless, odorless, flavorless, nonflammable, inert gas. It is lighter than air and is produced by the liquefaction and purification of natural gas.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 57270, Dec. 29, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1366" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.102" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1366   Hydrogen peroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hydrogen peroxide (H<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7722-84-1) is also referred to as hydrogen dioxide. It is made by the electrolytic oxidation of sulfuric acid or a sulfate to persulfuric acid or a persulfuric acid salt with subsequent hydrolysis and distillation of the hydrogen peroxide formed; by decomposition of barium peroxide with sulfuric or phosphoric acid; by hydrogen reduction of 2-ethylanthraquinone, followed by oxidation with air, to regenerate the quinone and produce hydrogen peroxide; or by electrical discharge through a mixture of hydrogen, oxygen, and water vapor.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), pp. 146-147, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> which is incorporated by reference.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained from the National Academy of Sciences, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20037, or examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used to treat food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum treatment level in food (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Milk, intended for use during the cheesemaking process as permitted in the appropriate standards of identity for cheese and related cheese products under part 133 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3 (o)(2) of this chapter
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whey, during the preparation of modified whey by electrodialysis methods</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dried eggs, dried egg whites, and dried egg yolks as in §§ 160.105, 160.145, and 160.185 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount sufficient for the purpose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oxidizing and reducing agent as defined in § 170.3 (o)(22) of this chapter
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tripe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bleaching agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beef feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount sufficient for the purpose. (Hydrogen peroxide may be in the form of a compound salt, sodium carbonate peroxide)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bleaching agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Herring</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount sufficient for the purpose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oxidizing and reducing agent as defined in § 170.3 (o)(22) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Starch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3 (o)(2) of this chapter, to produce thermophile-free starch;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove sulfur dioxide from starch slurry following steeping and grinding operations of corn refining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instant tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount sufficient for the purpose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bleaching agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corn syrup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reduce sulfur dioxide levels in the finished corn syrup.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colored (annatto) cheese whey</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bleaching agent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wine vinegar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount sufficient for the purpose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove sulfur dioxide from wine prior to fermentation to produce vinegar.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emulsifiers containing fatty acid esters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bleaching agent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Residual hydrogen peroxide is removed by appropriate physical and chemical means during the processing of food where it has been used according to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44439, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 27172, July 30, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1370" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.103" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1370   Inositol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Inositol, or myo-inositol (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 87-89-8), is <I>cis</I>-1,2,3,5-<I>trans</I>-4,6-cyclohexanehexol. It occurs naturally and is prepared from an aqueous (0.2 percent sulfur dioxide) extract of corn kernels by precipitation and hydrolysis of crude phytate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 150, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in special dietary foods as defined in part 105 of this chapter at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. It may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Act, or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established by this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38278, Aug. 31, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1372" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.104" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1372   Insoluble glucose isomerase enzyme preparations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Insoluble glucose isomerase enzyme preparations are used in the production of high fructose corn syrup described in § 184.1866. They are derived from recognized species of precisely classified nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic microorganisms, including <I>Streptomyces rubiginosus, Actinoplanes missouriensis, Streptomyces olivaceus, Streptomyces olivochromogenes,</I> and <I>Bacillus coagulans,</I> that have been grown in a pure culture fermentation that produces no antibiotics. They are fixed (rendered insoluble) for batch production with GRAS ingredients or may be fixed for further immobilization with either GRAS ingredients or materials approved under § 173.357 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 107, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme, as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter, to convert glucose to fructose.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in high fructose corn syrup, at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 5720, Feb. 8, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 43450, Aug. 23, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1375" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.105" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1375   Iron, elemental.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Iron, elemental (CAS Reg. No. 7439-89-6) is metallic iron obtained by any of the following processes: reduced iron, electrolytic iron, and carbonyl iron.
</P>
<P>(1) Reduced iron is prepared by reacting ground ferric oxide with hydrogen or carbon monoxide at an elevated temperature. The process results in a grayish-black powder, all of which should pass through a 100-mesh sieve. It is lusterless or has not more than a slight luster. When viewed under a microscope, it appears as an amorphous powder free from particles having a crystalline structure. It is stable in dry air.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrolytic iron is prepared by electrodeposition. It is an amorphous, lusterless, grayish-black powder. It is stable in dry air.
</P>
<P>(3) Carbonyl iron is prepared by the decomposition of iron pentacarbonyl. It occurs as a dark gray powder. When viewed under a microscope, it appears as spheres built up with concentric shells. It is stable in dry air.
</P>
<P>(b) Iron, elemental (carbonyl, electrolytic, or reduced) meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981) (iron, carbonyl, p. 151; iron, electrolytic, pp. 151-152; iron, reduced; pp. 152-153), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 350a(g)) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 350a(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16867, May 12, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1386" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.106" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1386   Isopropyl citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Isopropyl citrate is a mixture of the mono-, di-, and triisopropyl esters of citric acid. It is prepared by esterifying citric acid with isopropanol.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an antioxidant as defined in § 170.3(o)(3) of this chapter; a sequestrant as defined in § 170.3(o)(26) of this chapter; and a solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in margarine in accordance with § 166.110 of this chapter; in nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; and in fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from those set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63896, Dec. 12, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1387" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.107" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1387   Lactase enzyme preparation from Candida pseudotropicalis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This enzyme preparation is derived from the nonpathogenic, nontoxicogenic yeast <I>C. pseudotropicalis.</I> It contains the enzyme lactase (β-D-galactoside galactohydrolase, EC 3.2.1.23), which converts lactose to glucose and galactose. It is prepared from yeast that has been grown by a pure culture fermentation process.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), pp. 107-110, which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme, as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter, to convert lactose to glucose and galactose.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice is limited to use of this ingredient to reduce the lactose content in milk and milk-derived food products where food standards do not preclude such use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 7704, Feb. 29, 1996, as amended at 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1388" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.108" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1388   Lactase enzyme preparation from Kluyveromyces lactis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This enzyme preparation is derived from the nonpathogenic, nontoxicogenic yeast <I>Kluyveromyces lactis</I> (previously named <I>Saccharomyces lactis).</I> It contains the enzyme  β-galactoside galactohydrase (CAS Reg. No. CBS 683), which converts lactose to glucose and galactose. It is prepared from yeast that has been grown in a pure culture fermentation and by using materials that are generally recognized as safe or are food additives that have been approved for this use by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 107-110, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to convert lactose to glucose and galactose.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice is to use this ingredient in milk to produce lactase-treated milk, which contains less lactose than regular milk, or lactose-reduced milk, which contains at least 70 percent less lactose than regular milk.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47387, Dec. 4, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1400" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.109" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1400   Lecithin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commercial lecithin is a naturally occurring mixture of the phosphatides of choline, ethanolamine, and inositol, with smaller amounts of other lipids. It is isolated as a gum following hydration of solvent-extracted soy, safflower, or corn oils. Lecithin is bleached, if desired, by hydrogen peroxide and benzoyl peroxide and dried by heating.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 166-167, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51150, Nov. 7, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1408" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.110" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1408   Licorice and licorice derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Licorice (glycyrrhiza) root is the dried and ground rhizome and root portions of <I>Glycyrrhiza glabra</I> or other species of <I>Glycyrrhiza.</I> Licorice extract is that portion of the licorice root that is, after maceration, extracted by boiling water. The extract can be further purified by filtration and by treatment with acids and ethyl alcohol. Licorice extract is sold as a liquid, paste (“block”), or spray-dried powder.
</P>
<P>(2) Ammoniated glycyrrhizin is prepared from the water extract of licorice root by acid precipitation followed by neutralization with dilute ammonia. Monoammonium glycyrrhizinate (C<E T="52">42</E>H<E T="52">61</E>O<E T="52">16</E>NH<E T="52">4</E>5H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 1407-03-0) is prepared from ammoniated glycyrrhizin by solvent extraction and separation techniques.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients shall meet the following specifications when analyzed:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Assay.</I> The glycyrrhizin content of each flavoring ingredient shall be determined by the method in the Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists, 13th Ed., §§ 19.136-19.140, which is incorporated by reference, or by methods 19.CO1 through 19.CO4 in the <I>Journal of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,</I> 65:471-472 (1982), which are also incorporated by reference. Copies of all of these methods are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ash.</I> Not more than 9.5 percent for licorice, 2.5 percent for ammoniated glycyrrhizin, and 0.5 percent for monoammonium glycyrrhizinate on an anhydrous basis as determined by the method in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 466, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acid unsoluble ash.</I> Not more than 2.5 percent for licorice on an anhydrous basis as determined by the method in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 466, which is incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Heavy metals (as Pb).</I> Not more than 40 parts per million as determined by method II in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 512, which is incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Arsenic (As).</I> Not more than 3 parts per million as determined by the method in the Food Chemicals Codex. 3d Ed. (1981), p. 464, which is incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), these ingredients are used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level in food (percent glycyrrhizin content of food) (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked foods, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavor enhancer, § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavoring agent, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alcoholic beverages, § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavor enhancer, § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavoring agent, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; surface-active agent, § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonalcoholic beverages, § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chewing gum, § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavor enhancer, § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavoring agent, § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hard candy, § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Herbs and seasonings, § 170.3(n)(26) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plant protein products, § 170.3(n)(33) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin or mineral dietary supplements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other foods except sugar substitutes, § 170.3(n)(42) of this chapter. The ingredient is not permitted to be used as a nonnutritive sweetener in sugar substitutes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 21044, May 22, 1985, as amended at 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1409" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.111" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1409   Ground limestone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ground limestone consists essentially (not less than 94 percent) of calcium carbonate (CaCO<E T="52">3</E>) and is prepared by the crushing, grinding, and classifying of naturally occurring limestone.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 173, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52442, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1415" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.112" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1415   Animal lipase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Animal lipase (CAS Reg. No. 9001-62-1) is an enzyme preparation obtained from edible forestomach tissue of calves, kids, or lambs, or from animal pancreatic tissue. The enzyme preparation may be produced as a tissue preparation or as an aqueous extract. Its characterizing enzyme activity is that of a triacylglycerol hydrolase (EC 3.1.1.3).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze fatty acid glycerides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32911, June 26, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1420" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.113" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1420   Lipase enzyme preparation derived from Rhizopus niveus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lipase enzyme preparation contains lipase enzyme (CAS Reg. No. 9001-62-1), which is obtained from the culture filtrate resulting from a pure culture fermentation of a nonpathogenic and nontoxigenic strain of <I>Rhizopus niveus.</I> The enzyme preparation also contains diatomaceous earth as a carrier. The characterizing activity of the enzyme, which catalyzes the interesterification of fats and oils at the 1- and 3-positions of triglycerides, is triacylglycerol lipase (EC 3.1.1.3).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the monograph on Enzyme Preparations in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 133 and 134, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter for the interesterification of fats and oils.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 24419, May 4, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 5595, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1425" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.114" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1425   Magnesium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Magnesium carbonate (molecular formula approximately (MgCO<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="52">4</E>·Mg(OH)<E T="52">2</E>·5H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 39409-82-0) is also known as magnesium carbonate hydroxide. It is a white powder formed either by adding an alkaline carbonate (such as sodium carbonate) to a solution of magnesium sulfate or by carbonation of a slurry of magnesium hydroxide followed by boiling of the resulting magnesium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 177, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an anticaking and free-flow agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter; a flour treating agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(13) of this chapter; a lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter; a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; and a synergist as defined in § 170.3(o)(31) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13558, Apr. 5, 1985; 50 FR 16080, Apr. 24, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1426" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.115" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1426   Magnesium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Magnesium chloride (MgC1<E T="52">2</E>·6H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 7786-30-3) is a colorless, deliquescent, crystalline material that occurs naturally as the mineral bischofite. It is prepared by dissolving magnesium oxide, hydroxide, or carbonate in aqueous hydrochloric acid solution and crystallizing out magnesium chloride hexahydrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 177, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter and a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient also may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13559, Apr. 5, 1985; 50 FR 16080, Apr. 24, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1428" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.116" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1428   Magnesium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 1309-42-8) occurs naturally as the colorless, crystalline mineral brucite. It is prepared as a white precipitate by the addition of sodium hydroxide to a water soluble magnesium salt or by hydration of reactive grades of magnesium oxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 178, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13559, Apr. 5, 1985, as amended at 64 FR 405, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1431" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.117" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1431   Magnesium oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Magnesium oxide (MgO, CAS Reg. No. 1309-48-4) occurs naturally as the colorless, crystalline mineral periclase. It is produced either as a bulky white powder (light) or a relatively dense white powder (heavy) by heating magnesium hydroxide or carbonate. Heating these magnesium salts under moderate conditions (400° to 900 °C for a few hours) produces light magnesium oxide. Heating the salts under more rigorous conditions (1200 °C for 12 hours) produces heavy magnesium oxide. Light magnesium oxide is converted to heavy magnesium oxide by sustained heating at high temperatures.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 178, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an anticaking and free-flow agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter; a firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; a lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter; a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; and a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not be exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient also may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13559, Apr. 5, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1434" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.118" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1434   Magnesium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Magnesium phosphate includes both magnesium phosphate, dibasic, and magnesium phosphate, tribasic. Magnesium phosphate, dibasic (MgHPO<E T="52">4</E>·3H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 7782-0975-094) occurs naturally as the white, crystalline mineral newberyite. It is prepared commercially as a precipitate formed by treating a solution of magnesium sulfate with disodium phosphate under controlled conditions. Magnesium phosphate, tribasic (Mg<E T="52">3</E>(PO<E T="52">4</E>)2·xH<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 7757-87-1) may contain 4, 5, or 8 molecules of water of hydration. It is produced as a precipitate from a solution of magnesite with phosphoric acid.
</P>
<P>(b) Magnesium phosphate, dibasic, meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 179, which is incorporated by reference. Magnesium phosphate, tribasic, meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 180, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter and a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient also may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13560, Apr. 5, 1985, as amended at 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1440" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.119" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1440   Magnesium stearate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Magnesium stearate (Mg(C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">34</E>COO)<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 557-04-0) is the magnesium salt of stearic acid. It is produced as a white precipitate by the addition of an aqueous solution of magnesium chloride to an aqueous solution of sodium stearate derived from stearic acid that is obtained from edible sources and that conforms to the requirements of § 172.860(b)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 182, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter; a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; and a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13560, Apr. 5, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1443" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.120" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1443   Magnesium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Magnesium sulfate (MgSO<E T="52">4</E>·7H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 10034-99-8) occurs naturally as the mineral epsomite. It is prepared by neutralization of magnesium oxide, hydroxide, or carbonate with sulfuric acid and evaporating the solution to crystallization.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 183, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; and a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13560, Apr. 5, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1443a" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.121" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1443a   Malt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Malt is an enzyme preparation obtained from barley which has been softened by a series of steeping operations and germinated under controlled conditions. It is a brown, sweet, and viscous liquid or a white to tan powder. Its characterizing enzyme activities are α-amylase (EC 3.2.1.1.) and β-amylase (EC 3.2.1.2).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Premarket Approval (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze starch or starch-derived polysaccharides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32911, June 26, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1444" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.122" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1444   Maltodextrin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Maltodextrin ((C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>O<E T="52">5</E>)<E T="52">n</E>, CAS Reg. No. 9050-36-6) is a nonsweet nutritive saccharide polymer that consists of D-glucose units linked primarily by α-1-4 bonds and that has a dextrose equivalent (D.E.) of less than 20. It is prepared as a white powder or concentrated solution by partial hydrolysis of corn starch, potato starch, or rice starch with safe and suitable acids and enzymes.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Maltodextrin derived from corn starch must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Maltodextrin derived from potato starch meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed., 3d supp. (1992), p. 125, which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or at the Division of Petition Control (HFS-217), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html..</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Maltodextrin derived from rice starch meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 4th ed. (1996), pp. 239 and 240, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51911, Nov. 15, 1983, as amended at 60 FR 48893, Sept. 21, 1995; 63 FR 14611, Mar. 26, 1998; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1445" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.123" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1445   Malt syrup (malt extract).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Malt is the product of barley (<I>Hordeum vulgare</I> L.) germinated under controlled conditions. Malt syrup and malt extract are interchangeable terms for a viscous concentrate of water extract of germinated barley grain, with or without added safe preservative. Malt syrup is usually a brown, sweet, and viscous liquid containing varying amounts of amylolytic enzymes and plant constituents. Barley is first softened after cleaning by steeping operations and then allowed to germinate under controlled conditions. The germinated grain then undergoes processing, such as drying, grinding, extracting, filtering, and evaporating, to produce malt syrup (malt extract) with 75 to 80 percent solids or dried malt syrup with higher solids content.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51613, Nov. 10, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1446" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.124" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1446   Manganese chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manganese chloride (MnCl<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7773-01-5) is a pink, translucent, crystalline product. It is also known as manganese dichloride. It is prepared by dissolving manganous oxide, pyrolusite ore (MnO<E T="52">2</E>), or reduced manganese ore in hydrochloric acid. The resulting solution is neutralized to precipitate heavy metals, filtered, concentrated, and crystallized.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 186, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient may be used in infant formulas in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 19165, May 7, 1985, as amended at 76 FR 59250, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1449" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.125" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1449   Manganese citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manganese citrate (Mn<E T="52">3</E>(C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>O<E T="52">7</E>)<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 10024-66-5) is a pale orange or pinkish white powder. It is obtained by precipitating manganese carbonate from manganese sulfate and sodium carbonate solutions. The filtered and washed precipitate is digested first with sufficient citric acid solution to form manganous citrate and then with sodium citrate to complete the reaction.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; fish products as defined in § 170.3(n)(13) of this chapter; meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; milk products as defined in § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter; and poultry products as defined in § 170.3(n)(34) of this chapter. The ingredient may be used in infant formulas in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 19166, May 7, 1985, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008; 76 FR 59250, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1452" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.126" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1452   Manganese gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manganese gluconate (C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">22</E>MnO<E T="52">14</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 648-0953-0998) is a slightly pink colored powder. It is obtained by reacting manganese carbonate with gluconic acid in aqueous medium and then crystallizing the product.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 186, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; fish products as defined in § 170.3(n)(13) of this chapter; meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; milk products as defined in § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter; and poultry products as defined in § 170.3(n)(34) of this chapter. The ingredient may be used in infant formulas in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 19166, May 7, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1461" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.127" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1461   Manganese sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manganese sulfate (MnSO<E T="52">4</E>·H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 7785-0987-097) is a pale pink, granular, odorless powder. It is obtained by reacting manganese compounds with sulfuric acid. It is also obtained as a byproduct in the manufacture of hydroquinone. Other manufacturing processes include the action of sulfur dioxide on a slurry of manganese dioxide in sulfuric acid, and the roasting of pyrolusite (MnO<E T="52">2</E>) ore with solid ferrous sulfate and coal, followed by leaching and crystallization.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 188, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; fish products as defined in § 170.3(n(13) of this chapter; meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; milk products as defined in § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter; and poultry products as defined in § 170.3(n)(34) of this chapter.
</P>
<FP>The ingredient may be used in infant formulas in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</FP>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 19166, May 7, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1472" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.128" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1472   Menhaden oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Menhaden oil.</I> (1) Menhaden oil is prepared from fish of the genus <I>Brevoortia,</I> commonly known as menhaden, by cooking and pressing. The resulting crude oil is then refined using the following steps: Storage (winterization), degumming (optional), neutralization, bleaching, and deodorization. Winterization may separate the oil and produce a solid fraction.
</P>
<P>(2) Menhaden oil meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Color and state.</I> Yellow liquid to white solid.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Odor.</I> Odorless to slightly fishy.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Saponification value.</I> Between 180 and 200 as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society Official Method Cd 3-25—“Saponification Value” (reapproved 1989), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of this publication are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Iodine number.</I> Not less than 120 as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society Recommended Practice Cd 1d-92—“Iodine Value of Fats and Oils, Cyclohexane—Acetic Acid Method,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Unsaponifiable matter.</I> Not more than 1.5 percent as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society Official Method Ca 6b-53—“Unsaponifiable Matter” (reapproved 1989), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Free fatty acids.</I> Not more than 0.1 percent as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society Official Method Ca 5a-40—“Free Fatty Acids” (reapproved 1989), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Peroxide value.</I> Not more than 5 milliequivalents per kilogram of oil as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society Official Method Cd 8-53—“Peroxide Value, Acetic Acid—Chloroform Method” (updated 1992) or Recommended Practice Cd 8b-90—“Peroxide Value, Acetic Acid—Isooctane Method” (updated 1992), which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Lead.</I> Not more than 0.1 part per million as determined by the American Oil Chemists' Society Official Method Ca 18c-91—“Determination of Lead by Direct Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry” (revised 1992), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Mercury.</I> Not more than 0.5 part per million as determined by the method entitled “Biomedical Test Materials Program: Analytical Methods for the Quality Assurance of Fish Oil,” published in the “NOAA Technical Memorandum NMFS-SEFC-211,” F. M. Van Dolah and S. B. Galloway, editors, National Marine Fisheries Service, U. S. Department of Commerce, pages 71-88, November, 1988, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient may be used in food only within the following specific limitations to ensure that total intake of eicosapentaenoic acid or docosahexaenoic acid does not exceed 3.0 grams/person/day:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods, baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cereals, § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cheese products, § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chewing gum, § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condiments, § 170.3(n)(8) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confections, frostings, § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dairy product analogs, § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Egg products, § 170.3(n)(11) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fats, oils, § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter, but not in infant formula</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fish products, § 170.3(n)(13) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen dairy desserts, § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gelatins, puddings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gravies, sauces, § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hard candy, § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jams, jellies, § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Meat products, § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Milk products, § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonalcoholic beverages, § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nut products, § 170.3(n)(32) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pastas, § 170.3(n)(23) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plant protein products, § 170.3(n)(33) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poultry products, § 170.3(n)(34) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed fruit juices, § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed vegetable juices, § 170.3(n)(36) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Snack foods, § 170.3(n)(37) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soup mixes, § 170.3(n)(40) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sugar substitutes, § 170.3(n)(42) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sweet sauces, toppings, syrups, § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">White granulated sugar, § 170.3(n)(41) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 percent</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) To ensure safe use of the substance, menhaden oil shall not be used in combination with any other added oil that is a significant source of eicosapentaenoic acid or docosahexaenoic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hydrogenated menhaden oil.</I> (1) Hydrogenated menhaden oil is prepared by feeding hydrogen gas under pressure to a converter containing crude menhaden oil and a nickel catalyst. The reaction is begun at 150 to 160 °C and after 1 hour the temperature is raised to 180 °C until the menhaden oil is fully hydrogenated.
</P>
<P>(2) Hydrogenated menhaden oil meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Color.</I> Opaque white solid.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Odor.</I> Odorless.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Saponification value.</I> Between 180 and 200.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Iodine number.</I> Not more than 4.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Unsaponifiable matter.</I> Not more than 1.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Free fatty acids.</I> Not more than 0.1 percent.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Peroxide value.</I> Not more than 5 milliequivalents per kilogram of oil.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Nickel.</I> Not more than 0.5 part per million.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Mercury.</I> Not more than 0.5 part per million.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Arsenic (as As).</I> Not more than 0.1 part per million.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Lead.</I> Not more than 0.1 part per million.
</P>
<P>(3) Hydrogenated menhaden oil is used as edible fat or oil, as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter, in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(4) The name to be used on the label of a product containing hydrogenated menhaden oil must include the term “hydrogenated,” in accordance with § 101.4(b)(14) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 30756, June 5, 1997, as amended at 70 FR 14531, Mar. 23, 2005; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023; 88 FR 53773, Aug. 9, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1490" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.129" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1490   Methylparaben.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Methylparaben is the chemical methyl <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoate. It is produced by the methanol esterification of <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoic acid in the presence of sulfuric acid, with subsequent distillation.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 199, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practices. Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level of 0.1 percent in food.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this regulation do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5612, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1498" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.130" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1498   Microparticulated protein product.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Microparticulated protein product is prepared from egg whites or milk protein or a combination of egg whites and milk protein. These protein sources may be used alone or in combination with other safe and suitable ingredients to form the microparticulated product. The mixture of ingredients is high-shear heat processed to achieve a smooth and creamy texture similar to that of fat. Safe and suitable ingredients used in the preparation of the microparticulated protein product must be used in compliance with the limitations of the appropriate regulations in parts 172, 182, and 184 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is used in food in accordance with § 184.1(b)(2) at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of the use of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as a thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter or as a texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in frozen dessert-type products except that the ingredient may not be used to replace the milk fat required in standardized frozen desserts.
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the ingredient used in the ingredient statement on both bulk and packaged food must include the source of the protein (e.g., “microparticulated egg white protein”), followed by a parenthetical listing of each of the ingredients in the microparticulated protein product, in descending order of predominance. Microparticulated protein product must be used in accordance with this requirement or its addition to food will be considered by FDA to constitute the use of an unapproved food additive (see § 184.1(b)(2)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6391, Feb. 23, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1505" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.131" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1505   Mono- and diglycerides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mono- and diglycerides consist of a mixture of glyceryl mono- and diesters, and minor amounts of triesters, that are prepared from fats or oils or fat-forming acids that are derived from edible sources. The most prevalent fatty acids include lauric, linoleic, myristic, oleic, palmitic, and stearic. Mono- and diglycerides are manufactured by the reaction of glycerin with fatty acids or the reaction of glycerin with triglycerides in the presence of an alkaline catalyst. The products are further purified to obtain a mixture of glycerides, free fatty acids, and free glycerin that contains at least 90 percent-by-weight glycerides.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 201, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter; an emulsifier and emulsifier salt as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; a lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter; a solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter; a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; a surface-active agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter; a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter; and a texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7403, Feb. 21, 1989, as amended at 57 FR 10616, Mar. 27, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1521" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.132" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1521   Monosodium phosphate derivatives of mono- and diglycerides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Monosodium phosphate derivatives of mono- and diglycerides are composed of glyceride derivatives formed by reacting mono- and diglycerides that are derived from edible sources with phosphorus pentoxide (tetraphosphorus decoxide) followed by neutralization with sodium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as an emulsifier and emulsifier salt as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter, a lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter, and as a surface-active agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7404, Feb. 21, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1530" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.133" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1530   Niacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Niacin (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>NO<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 59-67-6) is the chemical 3-pyridinecarboxylic acid (nicotinic acid). It is a non-hygroscopic, stable, white, crystalline solid that sublimes without decomposition at about 230 °C. It is soluble in water and alcohol. It is insoluble in ether.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), p. 264, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52033, Nov. 16, 1983; 48 FR 54336, Dec. 2, 1983, as amended at 64 FR 1760, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1535" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.134" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1535   Niacinamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Niacinamide (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">6</E>N<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 98-92-0) is the chemical 3-pyridinecarboxylic acid amide (nicotinamide). It is a white crystalline powder that is soluble in water, alcohol, ether, and glycerol. It melts between 128° and 131 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 205, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52033, Nov. 16, 1983; 48 FR 54336, Dec. 2, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1537" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.135" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1537   Nickel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Elemental nickel (CAS Reg. No. 7440-02-0) is obtained from nickel ore by transforming it to nickel sulfide (Ni<E T="52">3</E>S<E T="52">2</E>). The sulfide is roasted in air to give nickel oxide (NiO). The oxide is then reduced with carbon to give elemental nickel.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a catalyst as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the hydrogenation of fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice includes the removal of nickel from fats and oils following hydrogenation.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51618, Nov. 10, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1538" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.136" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1538   Nisin preparation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nisin preparation is derived from pure culture fermentations of certain strains of Streptococcus lactis Lancefield Group N. Nisin preparation contains nisin (CAS Reg. No. 1414-45-5), a group of related peptides with antibiotic activity.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is a concentrate or dry material that meets the specifications that follow when it is tested as described in “Specifications for Identity and Purity of Some Antibiotics,” World Health Organization, FAO Nutrition Meeting Report Series, No. 45A, 1969, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Nisin content, not less than 900 international units per milligram.
</P>
<P>(2) Arsenic, not more than 1 part per million.
</P>
<P>(3) Lead, not more than 2 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(4) Zinc, not more than 25 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(5) Copper, zinc plus copper not more than 50 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(6) Total plate count, not more than 10 per gram.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Escherichia coli,</I> absent in 10 grams.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Salmonella,</I> absent in 10 grams.
</P>
<P>(9) Coagulase positive staphylococci, absent in 10 grams.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter to inhibit the outgrowth of <I>Clostridium botulinum</I> spores and toxin formation in pasteurized cheese spreads and pasteurized process cheese spreads listed in § 133.175; pasteurized cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats as defined in § 133.176; pasteurized process cheese spread as defined in § 133.179; pasteurized process cheese spread with fruits, vegetables, or meats as defined in § 133.180 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) of this chapter. The current good manufacturing practice level is the quantity of the ingredient that delivers a maximum of 250 parts per million of nisin in the finished product as determined by the British Standards Institution Methods, “Methods for the Estimation and Differentiation of Nisin in Processed Cheese,” BS 4020 (1974), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 11250, Apr. 6, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1540" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.137" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1540   Nitrogen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nitrogen (empirical formula N<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7727-37-9) is a colorless, odorless, flavorless gas that is produced commercially by the fractionation of liquid air.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a propellant, aerating agent, and gas as defined in § 170.3(o)(25) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 57270, Dec. 29, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1545" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.138" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1545   Nitrous oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nitrous oxide (empirical formula N<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 10024-97-2) is also known as dinitrogen monoxide or laughing gas. It is a colorless gas, about 50 percent heavier than air, with a slightly sweet smell. It does not burn but will support combustion. Nitrous oxide is manufactured by the thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate. Higher oxides of nitrogen are removed by passing the dry gas through a series of scrubbing towers.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a propellant, aerating agent, and gas as defined in § 170.3(o)(25) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 57270, Dec. 29, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1553" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.139" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1553   Peptones.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Peptones are a variable mixture of polypeptides, oligopeptides, and amino acids that are produced by partial hydrolysis of casein, animal tissue, soy protein isolate, gelatin, defatted fatty tissue, egg albumin, or lactalbumin (whey protein). Peptones are produced from these proteins using proteolytic enzymes that either are considered to be generally recognized as safe (GRAS) or are regulated as food additives. Peptones are also produced by denaturing any of the proteins listed in this paragraph with safe and suitable acids or heat.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients must be of a purity suitable for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), these ingredients are used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of these ingredients as GRAS as direct human food ingredients is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) These ingredients are used as nutrient supplements as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; as processing aids as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; and as surface-active agents as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) These ingredients are used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25430, June 21, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985; 73 FR 8607, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1555" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.140" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1555   Rapeseed oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fully hydrogenated rapeseed oil.</I> (1) Fully hydrogenated rapeseed oil is a mixture of triglycerides in which the fatty acid composition is a mixture of saturated fatty acids. The fatty acids are present in the same proportions which result from the full hydrogenation of fatty acids occurring in natural rapeseed oil. The rapeseed oil is obtained from the <I>napus</I> and <I>campestris</I> varieties of <I>Brassica</I> of the family Cruciferae. It is prepared by fully hydrogenating refined and bleached rapeseed oil at 310-375 °F, using a catalyst such as nickel, until the iodine number is 4 or less.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient meets the following specifications: Acid value not more than 6, arsenic not more than 3 parts per million, free glycerin not more than 7 percent, heavy metals (as Pb) not more than 10 parts per million, iodine number not more than 4, residue on ignition not more than 0.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) The ingredient is used as a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter in peanut butter. The use level of the ingredient is limited by good manufacturing practice (GMP) to the minimum amount required to produce the intended effect. Current good manufacturing practices result in a maximum level of 2 percent in peanut butter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Superglycerinated fully hydrogenated rapeseed oil.</I> (1) Superglycerinated fully hydrogenated rapeseed oil is a mixture of mono- and diglycerides with triglycerides as a minor component. The fatty acid composition is a mixture of saturated fatty acids present in the same proportions as those resulting from the full hydrogenation of fatty acids in natural rapeseed oil. It is made by adding excess glycerol to the fully hydrogenated rapeseed oil and heating, in the presence of a sodium hydroxide catalyst, to 330 °F under partial vacuum and steam sparging agitation.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 201, relating to mono- and diglycerides, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> An additional specification requires the iodine number to be 4 or less.
</P>
<P>(3) The ingredient is used as an emulsifier as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter in shortenings for cake mixes. The use level of the ingredient is limited by good manufacturing practice (GMP) to the minimum amount required to produce the intended effect. Current good manufacturing practices result in a maximum level, as served, of 4 percent of the shortening or 0.5 percent of the total weight of the cake mix.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Low erucic acid rapeseed oil.</I> (1) Low erucic acid rapeseed oil, also known as canola oil, is the fully refined, bleached, and deodorized edible oil obtained from certain varieties of <I>Brassica Napus</I> or <I>B. Campestris</I> of the family <I>Cruciferae.</I> The plant varieties are those producing oil-bearing seeds with a low erucic acid content. Chemically, low erucic acid rapeseed oil is a mixture of triglycerides, composed of both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, with an erucic acid content of no more than 2 percent of the component fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to limiting the content of erucic acid to a level not exceeding 2 percent of the component fatty acids, low erucic acid rapeseed oil must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(3) Low erucic acid rapeseed oil is used as an edible fat and oil in food, except in infant formula, at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(4) Low erucic acid rapeseed oil and partially hydrogenated low erucic acid rapeseed oil are used as edible fats and oils in food, except in infant formula, at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 48336, Sept. 23, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984; 50 FR 3755, Jan. 28, 1985; 53 FR 52682, Dec. 29, 1988; 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008; 88 FR 53773, Aug. 9, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1560" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.141" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1560   Ox bile extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ox bile extract (CAS Reg. No. 8008-63-7), also known as purified oxgall or sodium choleate, is a yellowish green, soft solid, with a partly sweet, partly bitter, disagreeable taste. It is the purified portion of the bile of an ox obtained by evaporating the alcohol extract of concentrated bile.
</P>
<P>(b) Food-grade ox bile extract shall meet the specifications of the U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP), XIV, 1950, p. 410. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained from: U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Parkway, Rockville, MD 20852.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a surfactant as defined in § 170.3 (o)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.002 percent for cheese as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 36064, Aug. 15, 1978. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 49537, Dec. 3, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1563" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.142" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1563   Ozone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ozone (O<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 10028-15-6) is an unstable blue gas with a pungent, characteristic odor, which occurs freely in nature, It is produced commercially by passing electrical discharges or ionizing radiation through air or oxygen.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use in accordance with § 170.30(h)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used to treat food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum treatment level in food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bottled water that prior to ozonation meets the microbiological, physical, chemical, and radiological quality standards of § 165.110 (b)(2) through (b)(5) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum residual level at the time of bottling of 0.4 milligram of ozone per liter of bottled water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Antimicrobial agent, § 170.3 (o)(2) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50210, Nov. 5, 1982, as amended at 60 FR 57130, Nov. 13, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1583" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.143" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1583   Pancreatin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pancreatin (CAS Reg. No. 8049-47-6) is an enzyme preparation obtained from porcine or bovine pancreatic tissue. It is a white to tan powder. Its characterizing enzyme activity that of a peptide hydrolase (EC 3.4.21.36).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze proteins or polypeptides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32911, June 26, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14666, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1585" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.144" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1585   Papain.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Papain (CAS Reg. No. 9001-73-4) is a proteolytic enzyme derived from <I>Carica papaya</I> L. Crude latex containing the enzyme is collected from slashed unripe papaya. The food-grade product is obtained by repeated filtration of the crude latex or an aqueous solution of latex or by precipitation from an aqueous solution of latex. The resulting enzyme preparation may be used in a liquid or dry form.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 107-110, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter; processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 48806, Oct. 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1588" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.145" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1588   Pectins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The pectins (CAS Reg. No. 9000-69-5) are a group of complex, high molecular weight polysaccharides found in plants and composed chiefly of partially methylated polygalacturonic acid units. Portions of the carboxly group occur as methyl esters, and the remaining carboxyl groups exist in the form of the free acid or as its ammonium, potassium, or sodium (CAS Reg. No. 9000-59-8) salts, and in some types as the acid amide. Thus, the pectins regulated in this section are the high-ester pectins, low-ester pectins, amidated pectins, pectinic acids, and pectinates. Pectin is produced commercially by extracting citrus peel, apple pomace, or beet pulp with hot dilute acid (pH 1.0 to 3.5, 70° to 90 °C). The extract is filtered, and pectin is then precipitated from the clear extract with ethanol or isopropanol, or as the copper or aluminum salt. The acid extract is sometimes spray- or roller-dried, or it is concentrated to be sold as liquid pectin.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients meet the specifications of the Food Chemical Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 215, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredients are used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of these ingredients as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as direct human food ingredients is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredients are used as emulsifiers as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter and as stabilizers and thickeners as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredients are used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51149, Nov. 7, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1595" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.146" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1595   Pepsin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pepsin (CAS Reg. No. 9001-75-6) is an enzyme preparation obtained from the glandular layer of hog stomach. It is a white to light tan powder, amber paste, or clear amber to brown liquid. Its characterizing enzyme activity is that of a peptide hydrolase (EC 3.4.23.1).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze proteins or polypeptides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32911, June 26, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14667, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1610" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.147" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1610   Potassium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium alginate (CAS Reg. No. 9005-36-1) is the potassium salt of alginic acid, a natural polyuronide constituent of certain brown algae. Potassium alginate is prepared by the neutralization of purified alginic acid with appropriate pH control agents.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 239, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served) (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confections and frostings, § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gelatins and puddings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed fruits and fruit juices, § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for potassium alginate different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29951, July 9, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1613" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.148" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1613   Potassium bicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium bicarbonate (KHCO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 298-14-6) is made by the following processes:
</P>
<P>(1) By treating a solution of potassium hydroxide with carbon dioxide;
</P>
<P>(2) By treating a solution of potassium carbonate with carbon dioxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 239, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52442, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1619" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.149" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1619   Potassium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium carbonate (K<E T="52">2</E>CO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 584-08-7) is produced by the following methods of manufacture:
</P>
<P>(1) By electrolysis of potassium chloride followed by exposing the resultant potassium to carbon dioxide;
</P>
<P>(2) By treating a solution of potassium hydroxide with excess carbon dioxide to produce potassium carbonate;
</P>
<P>(3) By treating a solution of potassium hydroxide with carbon dioxide to produce potassium bicarbonate, which is then heated to yield potassium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 240, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, D.C. 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. the affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52442, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1622" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.150" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1622   Potassium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium chloride (KCl, CAS Reg. No. 7447-40-7) is a white, odorless solid prepared from source minerals by fractional crystallization or flotation. It is soluble in water and glycerol and has a saline taste at low concentration levels.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 241, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; as a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter; as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and as a stabilizer or thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Potassium chloride may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51614, Nov. 10, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1625" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.151" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1625   Potassium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium citrate (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>K<E T="52">3</E>O<E T="52">7</E>·H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 006100-0905-096) is the potassium salt of citric acid. It is prepared by neutralizing citric acid with potassium hydroxide or potassium carbonate. It occurs as transparent crystals or a white granular powder, is odorless and deliquescent, and contains one mole of water per mole of potassium citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 242, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, and the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from those set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63896, Dec. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1631" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.152" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1631   Potassium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium hydroxide (KOH, CAS Reg. No. 1310-58-3) is also known as caustic potash, potash lye, and potassa. The empirical formula is KOH. It is a white, highly deliquescent caustic solid, which is marketed in several forms, including pellets, flakes, sticks, lumps, and powders. Potassium hydroxide is obtained commercially from the electrolysis of potassium chloride solution in the presence of a porous diaphragm.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available from inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of the chapter; a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; and a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52444, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1634" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.153" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1634   Potassium iodide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium iodide (KI, CAS Reg. No. 7681-11-0) is the potassium salt of hydriodic acid. It occurs naturally in sea water and in salt deposits, but can be prepared by reacting hydriodic acid (HI) with potassium bicarbonate (KHCO<E T="52">3</E>).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 246-247, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in table salt in accordance with § 184.1(b)(2) of this chapter as a source of dietary iodine at a maximum level of 0.01 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11699, Mar. 21, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984; 61 FR 14247, Apr. 1, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1635" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.154" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1635   Potassium iodate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium iodate (KIO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7758-05-6) does not occur naturally but can be prepared by reacting iodine with potassium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 245-246, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in the manufacture of bread in accordance with § 184.1(b)(2) of this chapter in an amount not to exceed 0.0075 percent based on the weight of the flour.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11699, Mar. 21, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1639" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.155" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1639   Potassium lactate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium lactate (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">5</E>O<E T="52">3</E>K, CAS Reg. No. 996-31-6) is the potassium salt of lactic acid. It is a hydroscopic, white, odorless solid and is prepared commercially by the neutralization of lactic acid with potassium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. This regulation does not authorize its use in infant foods and infant formulas. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; a flavoring agent or adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; and a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10886, Apr. 6, 1987, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1643" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.156" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1643   Potassium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potassium sulfate (K<E T="52">2</E>SO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7778-80-5) occurs naturally and consists of colorless or white crystals or crystalline powder having a bitter, saline taste. It is prepared by the neutralization of sulfuric acid with potassium hydroxide or potassium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 252, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.015 percent for nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 6086, Jan. 25, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1655" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.157" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1655   Propane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Propane (empirical formula C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">8</E>, CAS Reg. No. 74-98-6) is also known as dimethylmethane or propyl hydrid. It is a colorless, odorless, flammable gas at normal temperatures and pressures. It is easily liquefied under pressure at room temperature and is stored and shipped in the liquid state. Propane is obtained from natural gas by fractionation following absorption in oil, adsorption to surface-active agents, or refrigeration.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a propellant, aerating agent, and gas as defined in § 170.3(o)(25) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 57271, Dec. 29, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1660" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.158" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1660   Propyl gallate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Propyl gallate is the <I>n</I>-propylester of 3,4,5-trihydroxybenzoic acid (C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">5</E>). Natural occurrence of propyl gallate has not been reported. It is commercially prepared by esterification of gallic acid with propyl alcohol followed by distillation to remove excess alcohol.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 257-258, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antioxidant as defined in § 170.3(o)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Good manufacturing practice results in a maximum total content of antioxidants of 0.02 percent of the fat or oil content, including the essential (volatile) oil content, of the food.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from that stated in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 52826, Sept. 11, 1979; 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1666" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.159" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1666   Propylene glycol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Propylene glycol (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 57-55-6) is known as 1,2-propanediol. It does not occur in nature. Propylene glycol is manufactured by treating propylene with chlorinated water to form the chlorohydrin which is converted to the glycol by treatment with sodium carbonate solution. It is also prepared by heating glycerol with sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 255, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an anticaking agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter; antioxidant as defined in § 170.3(o)(3) of this chapter; dough strengthener as defined in § 170.3(o)(6) of this chapter; emulsifier as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; flavor agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; surface-active agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter; and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in maximum levels, as served, of 5 percent for alcoholic beverages, as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter; 24 percent for confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; 2.5 percent for frozen dairy products as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter; 97 percent for seasonings and flavorings as defined in § 170.3(n)(26) of this chapter; 5 percent for nuts and nut products as defined in § 170.3(n)(32) of this chapter; and 2.0 percent for all other food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27812, June 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1670" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.160" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1670   Propylparaben.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Propylparaben is the chemical propyl <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoate. It is produced by the <I>n</I>-propanol esterification of <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoic acid in the presence of sulfuric acid, with subsequent distillation.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 258, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practices. Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level of 0.1 percent in food.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this regulation do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1676" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.161" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1676   Pyridoxine hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pyridoxine hydrochloride (C<E T="52">8</E>H<E T="52">11</E>NO<E T="52">3</E>·HCl, CAS Reg. No. 58-56-0) is the chemical 3-hydroxy-4,5-dihydroxymethy-2-methylpyridine hydrochloride that is prepared by chemical synthesis.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 260, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages and beverage bases as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; breakfast cereals as defined in § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter; dairy product analogs as defined in § 170.3(n)(10) of this chapter; meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; milk products as defined in § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter; plant protein products as defined in § 170.3(n)(33) of this chapter; and snack foods as defined in § 170.3(n)(37) of this chapter. Pyridoxine hydrochloride may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51615, Nov. 10, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1685" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.162" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1685   Rennet (animal-derived) and chymosin preparation (fermentation-derived).</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Rennet and bovine rennet are commercial extracts containing the active enzyme rennin (CAS Reg. No. 9001-98-3), also known as chymosin (International Union of Biochemistry Enzyme Commission (E.C.) 3.4.23.4). Rennet is the aqueous extract prepared from cleaned, frozen, salted, or dried fourth stomachs (abomasa) of calves, kids, or lambs. Bovine rennet is the product from adults of the animals listed above. Both products are called rennet and are clear amber to dark brown liquid preparations or white to tan powders.
</P>
<P>(2) Chymosin preparation is a clear solution containing the active enzyme chymosin (E.C. 3.4.23.4). It is derived, via fermentation, from a nonpathogenic and nontoxigenic strain of <I>Escherichia coli</I> K-12 containing the prochymosin gene. The prochymosin is isolated as an insoluble aggregate that is acid-treated to destroy residual cellular material and, after solubilization, is acid-treated to form chymosin. It must be processed with materials that are generally recognized as safe, or are food additives that have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for this use.
</P>
<P>(3) Chymosin preparation is a clear solution containing the active enzyme chymosin (E.C. 3.4.23.4). It is derived, via fermentation, from a nonpathogenic and nontoxigenic strain of <I>Kluyveromyces marxianus</I> variety <I>lactis,</I> containing the prochymosin gene. The prochymosin is secreted by cells into fermentation broth and converted to chymosin by acid treatment. All materials used in the processing and formulating of chymosin must be either generally recognized as safe (GRAS), or be food additives that have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for this use.
</P>
<P>(4) Chymosin preparation is a clear solution containing the active enzyme chymosin (E.C. 3.4.23.4). It is derived, via fermentation, from a nonpathogenic and nontoxigenic strain of <I>Aspergillus niger</I> van Tieghem variety <I>awamori</I> (Nakazawa) Al-Musallam (synonym <I>A. awamori</I> Nakazawa) containing the prochymosin gene. Chymosin is recovered from the fermentation broth after acid treatment. All materials used in the processing and formulating of chymosin preparation must be either generally recognized as safe (GRAS) or be food additives that have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for this use.
</P>
<P>(b) Rennet and chymosin preparation meet the general and additional requirements for enzyme preparations of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 107-110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20418, or are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter; a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; and a stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: In cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter; frozen dairy desserts and mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter; gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; and milk products as defined in § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 10935, Mar. 23, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 6479, Feb. 25, 1992; 58 FR 27202, May 7, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1695" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.163" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1695   Riboflavin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Riboflavin (C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">20</E>N<E T="52">4</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 83-88-5) occurs as yellow to orange-yellow needles that are crystallized from 2<I>N</I> acetic acid, alcohol, water, or pyridine. It may be prepared by chemical synthesis, biosynthetically by the organism <I>Eremothecium ashbyii,</I> or isolated from natural sources.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 262, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51148, Nov. 7, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1697" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.164" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1697   Riboflavin-5′-phosphate (sodium).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Riboflavin-5′-phosphate (sodium) (C<E T="52">17</E>H<E T="52">20</E>N<E T="52">4</E>O<E T="52">9</E>PNa·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No 130-40-5) occurs as the dihydrate in yellow to orange-yellow crystals. It is prepared by phosphorylation of riboflavin with chlorophosphoric acid, pyrophosphoric acid, metaphosphoric acid, or pyrocatechol cyclic phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 263, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in milk products, as defined in § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter, at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. The ingredient may also be used in infant formulas in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51148, Nov. 7, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1698" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.165" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1698   Rue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Rue is the perennial herb of several species of <I>Ruta</I> (<I>Ruta montana</I> L., <I>Ruta graveolens</I> L., <I>Ruta bracteosa</I> L., and <I>Ruta calepensis</I> L.). The leaves, buds, and stems from the top of the plant are gathered, dried, and then crushed in preparation for use, or left whole.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is used in all categories of food in accordance with § 184.1(b)(2) of this chapter at concentrations not to exceed 2 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 3705, Jan. 27, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1699" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.166" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1699   Oil of rue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Oil of rue is the natural substance obtained by steam distillation of the fresh blossoming plants of rue, the perennial herb of several species of <I>Ruta—Ruta montana</I> L., <I>Ruta graveolens</I> L., <I>Ruta bracteosa</I> L., and <I>Ruta calepensis</I> L.
</P>
<P>(b) Oil of rue meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 342-343, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in food under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Usage Levels Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parts per million
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baked goods and baking mixes, § 170.3(n)(1), of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring agent and adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen dairy desserts and mixes, § 170.3 (n)(20) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soft candy, § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984; 64 FR 1760, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1702" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.167" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1702   Sheanut oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sheanut oil is produced from sheanuts derived from the Shea tree <I>Butyrospermum parkii</I> and is composed principally of triglycerides containing an oleic acid moiety at the 2-position and saturated fatty acids, usually stearic or palmitic acids, at the 1- and 3-positions.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the following specifications when tested using any appropriate validated methodology:
</P>
<P>(1) Saponification value of 185 to 195,
</P>
<P>(2) Iodine value of 28 to 43,
</P>
<P>(3) Unsaponifiable matter not to exceed 1.5 percent,
</P>
<P>(4) Free fatty acids not more than 0.1 percent as oleic acid,
</P>
<P>(5) Peroxide value not more than 10 milliequivalents/equivalent (meq/eq),
</P>
<P>(6) Lead not more than 0.1 part per million (ppm),
</P>
<P>(7) Copper not more than 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(3), the ingredient is used in the following food categories at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice, except that the ingredient may not be used in a standardized food unless permitted by the standard of identity: Confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter, coatings of soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter, and sweet sauces and toppings as defined in § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 28895, May 27, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1721" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.168" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1721   Sodium acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium acetate (C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">3</E>O<E T="52">2</E>Na, CAS Reg. No. 127-09-3 or C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">3</E>O<E T="52">2</E>Na·3H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 6131-90-4) is the sodium salt of acetic acid and occurs naturally in plant and animal tissues. Sodium acetate may occur in either the anhydrous or trihydrated form. It is produced synthetically by the neutralization of acetic acid with sodium carbonate or by treating calcium acetate with sodium sulfate and sodium bicarbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 272, 273 which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; and as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice in accordance with 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.007 percent for breakfast cereals as defined in § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter; 0.5 percent for fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter; 0.6 percent for grain products and pastas as defined in § 170.3(n)(23) of this chapter and snack foods as defined in § 170.3(n)(37) of this chapter; 0.15 percent for hard candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter; 0.12 percent for jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter and meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; 0.2 percent for soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter; 0.05 percent for soups and soup mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(40) of this chapter and sweet sauces as defined in § 170.3(n)(43) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27815, June 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1724" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.169" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1724   Sodium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium alginate (CAS Reg. No. 9005-38-3) is the sodium salt of alginic acid, a natural polyuronide constituent of certain brown algae. Sodium alginate is prepared by the neutralization of purified alginic acid with appropriate pH control agents.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 274, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredient is used in food only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum level of use in food (as served) (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condiments and relishes, § 170.3(n)(8) of this chapter, except pimento ribbon for stuffed olives</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Texturizer, § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter, formulation aid § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter, stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pimento ribbon for stuffed olives</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Confections and frostings, § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gelatins and puddings, § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Firming agent, § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; flavor adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hard candy, § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stabilizer, thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed fruits and fruit juices, § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulation aid, § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; texturizer, § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other food categories</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emulsifier, § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; firming agent, § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter; flavor enhancer, § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; flavor adjuvant, § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; processing aid, § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter; stabilizer and thickener, § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter; surface active agent, § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for sodium alginate different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29951, July 9, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 52448, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1733" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.170" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1733   Sodium benzoate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium benzoate is the chemical benzoate of soda (C<E T="52">7</E>H<E T="52">5</E>NaO<E T="52">2</E>), produced by the neutralization of benzoic acid with sodium bicarbonate, sodium carbonate, or sodium hydroxide. The salt is not found to occur naturally.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 278, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter, and as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice. Current usage results in a maximum level of 0.1 percent in food. (The Food and Drug Administration has not determined whether significally different conditions of use would be GRAS.)
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from that set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1736" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.171" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1736   Sodium bicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 144-55-8) is prepared by treating a sodium carbonate or a sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate solution with carbon dioxide. As carbon dioxide is absorbed, a suspension of sodium bicarbonate forms. The slurry is filtered, forming a cake which is washed and dried.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 278, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52442, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1742" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.172" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1742   Sodium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium carbonate (Na<E T="52">2</E>CO<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 497-19-8) is produced (1) from purified trona ore that has been calcined to soda ash; (2) from trona ore calcined to impure soda ash and then purified; or (3) synthesized from limestone by the Solvay process.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 280, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as an antioxidant as defined in § 170.3(o)(3) of this chapter; curing and pickling agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(5) of this chapter; flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter; and processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52442, Nov. 18, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1751" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.173" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1751   Sodium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium citrate (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">5</E>Na<E T="52">3</E>O<E T="52">7</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 68-0904-092) is the sodium salt of citric acid. It is prepared by neutralizing citric acid with sodium hydroxide or sodium carbonate. The product occurs as colorless crystals or a white crystalline powder. It may be prepared in an anhydrous state or may contain two moles of water per mole of sodium citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), pp. 283-284, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, and the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from those set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63896, Dec. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1754" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.174" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1754   Sodium diacetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium diacetate (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">7</E>O<E T="52">4</E>Na·xH<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 126-96-5) is a molecular compound of acetic acid, sodium acetate, and water of hydration. The technical grade is prepared synthetically by reacting sodium carbonate with acetic acid. Special grades are produced by reacting anhydrous sodium acetate and acetic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 284, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter; flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; and pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, 0.4 percent for baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; 0.1 percent for fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter, meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter; 0.25 percent for gravies and sauces as defined in § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter; and 0.05 percent for snack foods as defined in § 170.3(n)(37) of this chapter and soups and soup mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(40) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27815, June 25, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1763" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.175" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1763   Sodium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH, CAS Reg. No. 1310-73-2) is also known as sodium hydrate, soda lye, caustic soda, white caustic, and lye. The empirical formula is NaOH. Sodium hydroxide is prepared commercially by the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution and also by reacting calcium hydroxide with sodium carbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter and as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52444, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1764" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.176" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1764   Sodium hypophosphite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium hypophosphite (NaH<E T="52">2</E>PO<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7681-53-0) is a white, odorless, deliquescent granular powder with a saline taste. It is also prepared as colorless, pearly crystalline plates. It is soluble in water, alcohol, and glycerol. It is prepared by neutralization of hypophosphorous acid or by direct aqueous alkaline hydrolysis of white phosphorus.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an emulsifier or stabilizer, as defined in §§ 170.3(o)(8) and 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in cod-liver oil emulsions at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the use established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38277, Aug. 31, 1982, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1768" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.177" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1768   Sodium lactate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium lactate (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">5</E>O<E T="52">3</E>N<E T="52">a</E>, CAS Reg. No. 72-17-3) is the sodium salt of lactic acid. It is prepared commercially by the neutralization of lactic acid with sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. This regulation does not authorize its use in infant foods and infant formulas. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an emulsifier as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; a flavor enhancer as defined in § 170.3(o)(11) of this chapter; a flavoring agent or adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; and a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10886, Apr. 6, 1987, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1769a" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.178" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1769a   Sodium metasilicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium metasilicate (CAS Reg. No. 6834-92-0) is a strongly alkaline white powder. It does not occur naturally but rather is synthesized by melting sand with sodium carbonate at 1400 °C. The commercially available forms of sodium metasilicate are the anhydrous form (Na<E T="52">2</E>SiO<E T="52">3</E>), the pentahydrate (Na<E T="52">2</E>SiO<E T="52">3</E>·5H<E T="52">2</E>O), and the nonahydrate (Na<E T="52">2</E>SiO<E T="52">3</E>·9H<E T="52">2</E>O).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a processing aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(24) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used to treat the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: for use in washing and lye peeling of fruits, vegetables, and nuts when used in accordance with § 173.315 of this chapter; for use as a denuding agent in tripe; for use as a hog scald agent in removing hair; and for use as a corrosion preventative in canned and bottled water when used in accordance with § 165.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 38781, Sept. 25, 1985; 50 FR 42011, Oct. 17, 1985, as amended at 72 FR 10357, Mar. 8, 2007; 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1784" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.179" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1784   Sodium propionate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium propionate (C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">5</E>NaO<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 137-40-6) is the sodium salt of propionic acid. It occurs as colorless, transparent crystals or a granular crystalline powder. It is odorless, or has a faint acetic-butyric acid odor, and is deliquescent. It is prepared by neutralizing propionic acid with sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 296, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an antimicrobial agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(2) of this chapter and a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter; confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter; meat products as defined in § 170.3(n)(29) of this chapter; and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 13142, Apr. 3, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1792" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.180" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1792   Sodium sesquicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium sesquicarbonate (Na<E T="52">2</E>CO<E T="52">3</E>·NaHCO<E T="52">3</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 533-96-0) is prepared by: (1) Partial carbonation of soda ash solution followed by crystallization, centrifugation, and drying; (2) double refining of trona ore, a naturally occurring impure sodium sesquicarbonate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 299, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in cream at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice utilizes a level of the ingredient sufficient to control lactic acid prior to pasteurization and churning of cream into butter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52443, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1801" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.181" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1801   Sodium tartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium tartrate (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">4</E>Na<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">6</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 868-18-8) is the disodium salt of l−(+)−tartaric acid. It occurs as transparent, colorless, and odorless crystals. It is obtained as a byproduct of wine manufacture.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 303, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an emulsifier as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter and as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: cheeses as defined in§ 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter; fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter; and jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52447, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1804" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.182" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1804   Sodium potassium tartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium potassium tartrate (C<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">4</E>KNaO<E T="52">6</E>·4H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 304-59-6) is the sodium potassium salt of l−(+)−tartaric acid and is also called the Rochelle salt. It occurs as colorless crystals or as a white, crystalline powder and has a cooling saline taste. It is obtained as a byproduct of wine manufacture.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 296, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an emulsifier as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter and as a pH control agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(23) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: cheeses as defined in § 170.3(n)(5) of this chapter and jams and jellies as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 52447, Nov. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1807" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.183" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1807   Sodium thiosulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium thiosulfate (Na<E T="52">2</E>S<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>·5H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 010102-0917-097) is also known as sodium hyposulfite. It is prepared synthetically by the reaction of sulfides and sulfur dioxide (SO<E T="52">2</E>), the reaction of sulfur and sulfite, or the oxidation of metal sulfides and hydrosulfides.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 304, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter and reducing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(22) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in alcoholic beverages and table salt in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.00005 percent for alcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter and 0.1 percent for table salt as defined in § 170.3(n)(26) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 22938, May 30, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 4, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1835" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.184" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1835   Sorbitol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sorbitol is the chemical 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexanehexol (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">14</E>O<E T="52">6</E>), a hexahydric alcohol, differing from mannitol principally by having a different optical rotation. Sorbitol is produced by the electrolytic reduction, or the transition metal catalytic hydrogenation of sugar solutions containing glucose or fructose.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), p. 308, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an anticaking agent and free-flow agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter, curing and pickling agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(5) of this chapter, drying agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(7) of this chapter, emulsifier and emulsifier salt as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter, firming agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(10) of this chapter, flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter, formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter, humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter, lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter, nutritive sweetener as defined in § 170.3(o)(21) of this chapter, sequestrant as defined in § 170.3(o)(26) of this chapter, stabilizer and thickener as defined in § 170.3(o)(28) of this chapter, surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter, and texturizer as defined in § 170.3(o)(32) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practices. Current good manufacturing practice in the use of sorbitol results in a maximum level of 99 percent in hard candy and cough drops as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter, 75 percent in chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter, 98 percent in soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter, 30 percent in nonstandardized jams and jellies, commercial, as defined in § 170.3(n)(28) of this chapter, 30 percent in baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter, 17 percent in frozen dairy desserts and mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter, and 12 percent in all other foods.
</P>
<P>(e) The label and labeling of food whose reasonably foreseeable consumption may result in a daily ingestion of 50 grams of sorbitol shall bear the statement: “Excess consumption may have a laxative effect.”
</P>
<P>(f) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this regulation do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14653, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1845" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.185" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1845   Stannous chloride (anhydrous and dihydrated).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Stannous chloride is anhydrous or contains two molecules of water of hydration. Anhydrous stannous chloride (SnCl<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7772-99-8) is the chloride salt of metallic tin. It is prepared by reacting molten tin with either chlorine or gaseous tin tetrachloride. Dihydrated stannous chloride (SnCl<E T="52">2</E>·2H<E T="52">2</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 10025-69-1) is the chloride salt of metallic tin that contains two molecules of water. It is prepared from granulated tin suspended in water and hydrochloric acid or chlorine.
</P>
<P>(b) Both forms of the ingredient meet the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 312, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as an antioxidant as defined in § 170.3(o)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 184.(b)(1). Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of 0.0015 percent or less; calculated as tin, for all food categories.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from those uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 27816, June 25, 1982, as amended at 76 FR 59250, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1848" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.186" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1848   Starter distillate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Starter distillate (butter starter distillate) is a steam distillate of the culture of any or all of the following species of bacteria grown on a medium consisting of skim milk usually fortified with about 0.1 percent citric acid: <I>Streptococcus lactis, S. cremoris, S. lactis subsp. diacetylactis, Leuconostoc citrovorum,</I> and <I>L. dextranicum.</I> The ingredient contains more than 98 percent water, and the remainder is a mixture of butterlike flavor compounds. Diacetyl is the major flavor component, constituting as much as 80 to 90 percent of the mixture of organic flavor compounds. Besides diacetyl, starter distillate contains minor amounts of acetaldehyde, ethyl formate, ethyl acetate, acetone, ethyl alcohol, 2-butanone, acetic acid, and acetoin.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51907, Nov. 15, 1983, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1851" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.187" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1851   Stearyl citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Stearyl citrate is a mixture of the mono-, di-, and tristearyl esters of citric acid. It is prepared by esterifying citric acid with stearyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an antioxidant as defined in § 170.3(o)(3) of this chapter; an emulsifier and emulsifier salt as defined in § 170.3(o)(8) of this chapter; a sequestrant as defined in § 170.3(o)(26) of this chapter; and a surface-active agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in margarine in accordance with § 166.110 of this chapter; in nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; and in fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from those set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63897, Dec. 12, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1854" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.188" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1854   Sucrose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sucrose (C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">22</E>O<E T="52">11</E>, CAS Reg. No. 57-50-11-1) sugar, cane sugar, or beet sugar is the chemical β-D-fructofuranosyl-α-D-glucopyranoside. Sucrose is obtained by crystallization from sugar cane or sugar beet juice that has been extracted by pressing or diffusion, then clarified and evaporated.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44876, Nov. 7, 1988; 54 FR 228, Jan. 4, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1857" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.189" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1857   Corn sugar.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Corn sugar (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 50-99-7), commonly called D-glucose or dextrose, is the chemical α-D-glucopyranose. It occurs as the anhydrous or the monohydrate form and is produced by the complete hydrolysis of corn starch with safe and suitable acids or enzymes, followed by refinement and crystallization from the resulting hydrolysate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 97-98 under the heading “Dextrose,” which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 1. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44876, Nov. 7, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1859" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.190" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1859   Invert sugar.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Invert sugar (CAS Reg. No. 8013-17-0) is an aqueous solution of inverted or partly inverted, refined or partly refined sucrose, the solids of which contain not more than 0.3 percent by weight of ash. The solution is colorless, odorless, and flavorless, except for sweetness. It is produced by the hydrolysis or partial hydrolysis of sucrose with safe and suitable acids or enzymes.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44876, Nov. 7, 1988; 54 FR 228, Jan. 4, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1865" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.191" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1865   Corn syrup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Corn syrup, commonly called “glucose sirup” or “glucose syrup,” is obtained by partial hydrolysis of corn starch with safe and suitable acids or enzymes. It may also occur in the dehydrated form (dried glucose sirup). Depending on the degree of hydrolysis, corn syrup may contain, in addition to glucose, maltose and higher saccharides.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications as defined and determined in § 168.120(b) or § 168.121(a) of this chapter, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44876, Nov. 7, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1866" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.192" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1866   High fructose corn syrup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) High fructose corn syrup, a sweet, nutritive saccharide mixture containing either approximately 42 or 55 percent fructose, is prepared as a clear aqueous solution from high dextrose-equivalent corn starch hydrolysate by partial enzymatic conversion of glucose (dextrose) to fructose using an insoluble glucose isomerase enzyme preparation described in § 184.1372. The product containing more than 50 percent fructose (dry weight) is prepared through concentration of the fructose portion of the mixture containing less than 50 percent fructose.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient shall conform to the identity and specifications listed in the monograph entitled “High-Fructose Corn Syrup” in the Food Chemicals Codex, 4th ed. (1996), pp. 191-192, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 43450, Aug. 23, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 14667, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1875" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.193" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1875   Thiamine hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Thiamine hydrochloride (C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">17</E>C1N<E T="52">4</E>OS·HCl, CAS Reg. No. 67-03-8) is the chloride-hydrochloride salt of thiamine. It occurs as hygroscopic white crystals or a white crystalline powder. The usual method of preparing this substance is by linking the preformed thiazole and pyrimidine ring systems.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 324, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter or as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Thiamine hydrochloride may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 55124, Dec. 9, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1878" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.194" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1878   Thiamine mononitrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Thiamine mononitrate (C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">17</E>N<E T="52">5</E>O<E T="52">4</E>S, CAS Reg. No. 532-43-4) is the mononitrate salt of thiamine. It occurs as white crystals or a white crystalline powder and is prepared from thiamine hydrochloride by dissolving the hydrochloride salt in alkaline solution followed by precipitation of the nitrate half-salt with a stoichiometric amount of nitric acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 325, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Thiamine mononitrate may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 55124, Dec. 9, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1890" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.195" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1890   α-Tocopherols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The α-tocopherols that are the subject of this GRAS affirmation regulation are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>d</I>-α-Tocopherol (CAS Reg. No. 59-02-9) is the chemical [2R,4′R,8′R]-2,5,7,8-tetramethyl-2-(4′,8′,12′-trimethyl-tridecyl)-6-chromanol. It occurs commercially as a concentrate and is a red, nearly odorless, viscous oil. It is obtained by vacuum steam distillation of edible vegetable oil products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>dl</I>-α-Tocopherol (CAS Reg. No. 10191-41-0) is a mixture of stereoisomers of 2,5,7,8-tetramethyl-2-(4′,8′,12′-trimethyl-tridecyl)-6-chromanol. It is chemically synthesized by condensing racemic isophytol with trimethyl hydroquinone. It is a pale yellow viscous oil at room temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients meet the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 330-331, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(3), the affirmation of the ingredients as generally recognized as safe is limited to the following conditions of use while the agency concludes the general evaluation of all food uses of tocopherols:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredients are used as inhibitors of nitrosamine formation.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredients are used in pump-cured bacon at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 13348, Apr. 4, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1901" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.196" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1901   Triacetin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Triacetin (C<E T="52">8</E> H<E T="52">14</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 102-76-1), also known as 1,2,3,-propanetriol triacetate or glyceryl triacetate, is the triester of glycerin and acetic acid. Triacetin can be prepared by heating glycerin with acetic anhydride alone or in the presence of finely divided potassium hydrogen sulfate. It can also be prepared by the reaction of oxygen with a liquid-phase mixture of allyl acetate and acetic acid using a bromide salt as a catalyst.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 337-338, as revised by the First Supplement to the 3d Ed., which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2102 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; and humectant as defined in § 170.3(o)(16) of this chapter; and a solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter, alcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages and beverage bases as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter; confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; frozen dairy dessert and mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter; gelatins, puddings, and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; hard candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter; and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7404, Feb. 21, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1903" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.197" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1903   Tributyrin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tributyrin (C<E T="52">15</E>H<E T="52">26</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 60-01-5), also known as butyrin or glyceryl tributyrate, is the triester of glycerin and butyric acid. It is prepared by esterification of glycerin with excess butyric acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specification of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 416, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a). Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice; baked goods as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; alcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter; nonalcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(3) of this chapter; fats and oils as defined in § 170.3(n)(12) of this chapter; frozen dairy desserts and mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(20) of this chapter; gelatins, puddings and fillings as defined in § 170.3(n)(22) of this chapter; and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7404, Feb. 21, 1989; 54 FR 10482, Mar. 13, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1911" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.198" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1911   Triethyl citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Triethyl citrate (C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">20</E>O<E T="52">7</E>, CAS Reg. No. 77-93-0) is the triethyl ester of citric acid. It is prepared by esterifying citric acid with ethyl alcohol and occurs as an odorless, practically colorless, oily liquid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 339, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, and the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-200), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter; a solvent and vehicle as defined in § 170.3(o)(27) of this chapter; and a surface-active agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(29) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or different from those set forth in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 63897, Dec. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1914" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.199" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1914   Trypsin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Trypsin (CAS Reg. No. 9002-07-7) is an enzyme preparation obtained from purified extracts of porcine or bovine pancreas. It is a white to tan amorphous powder. Its characterizing enzyme activity is that of a peptide hydrolase (EC 3.4.21.4).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general requirements and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), p. 110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to hydrolyze proteins or polypeptides.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32911, June 26, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14667, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1923" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.200" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1923   Urea.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Urea (CO(NH<E T="52">2</E>)<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 57-13-6) is the diamide of carbonic acid and is also known as carbamide. It is a white, odorless solid and is commonly produced from CO<E T="52">2</E> by ammonolysis or from cyanamide by hydrolysis.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter and as a fermentation aid.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in yeast-raised bakery products; in alcoholic beverages as defined in § 170.3(n)(2) of this chapter; and in gelatin products.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51616, Nov. 10, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 19816, May 10, 1984; 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1924" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.201" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1924   Urease enzyme preparation from Lactobacillus fermentum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This enzyme preparation is derived from the nonpathogenic, nontoxicogenic bacterium <I>Lactobacillus fermentum.</I> It contains the enzyme urease (CAS Reg. No. 9002-13-5), which facilitates the hydrolysis of urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide. It is produced by a pure culture fermentation process and by using materials that are generally recognized as safe (GRAS) or are food additives that have been approved for this use by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the general and additional requirements for enzyme preparations in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d ed. (1981), pp. 107-110, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as GRAS as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in wine, as defined in 27 CFR 1.10 and 4.10, as an enzyme as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter to convert urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice is limited to use of this ingredient in wine to inhibit formation of ethyl carbamate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 60473, Dec. 21, 1992, as amended at 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1930" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.202" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1930   Vitamin A.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Vitamin A (retinol; CAS Reg. No. 68-26-8) is the alcohol 9,13-dimethyl-7-(1,1,5-trimethyl-6-cyclohexen-5-yl)-7,9,11,13-nonatetraen-15-ol. It may be nearly odorless or have a mild fishy odor. Vitamin A is extracted from fish liver oils or produced by total synthesis from β-ionone and a propargyl halide.
</P>
<P>(2) Vitamin A acetate (retinyl acetate; CAS Reg. No. 127-47-9) is the acetate ester of retinol. It is prepared by esterifying retinol with acetic acid.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin A palmitate (retinyl palmitate; CAS Reg. No. 79-81-2) is the palmitate ester of retinol. It is prepared by esterifying retinol with palmitic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications for vitamin A in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 342, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in food as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Vitamin A may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51610, Nov. 10, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1945" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.203" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1945   Vitamin B<E T="9145">12</E>.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vitamin B<E T="52">12</E>, also known as cyanocobalamin (C<E T="52">63</E>H<E T="52">88</E>CoN<E T="52">14</E>O<E T="52">14</E>P, CAS Reg. No. 68-0919-099), is produced commercially from cultures of <I>Streptomyces griseus.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 343, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a nutrient supplement as defined in § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. Vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> also may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 6341, Feb. 15, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1950" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.204" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1950   Vitamin D.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vitamin D is added to food as the following food ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Crystalline vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> (C<E T="52">28</E>H<E T="52">44</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 50-14-6), also known as ergocalciferol, is the chemical 9,10-seco(5Z,7E,22E)-5,7,10(19),22-ergostatetraen-3-ol. The ingredient is produced by ultraviolet irradiation of ergosterol isolated from yeast and related fungi and is purified by crystallization.
</P>
<P>(2) Crystalline vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> (C<E T="52">27</E>H<E T="52">44</E>O, CAS Reg. No. 67-97-0), also known as cholecalciferol, is the chemical 9,10-seco(5Z,7E,)-5,7,10(19)-cholestatrien-3-ol. Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> occurs in, and is isolated from, fish liver oils. It is also manufactured by ultraviolet irradiation of 7-dehydrocholesterol produced from cholesterol. It is purified by crystallization. Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> is the vitamin D form that is produced endogenously in humans through sunlight activation of 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> resin and vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> resin are the concentrated forms of irradiated ergosterol (D<E T="52">2</E>) and irradiated 7-dehydrocholesterol (D<E T="52">3</E>) that are separated from the reacting materials in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. The resulting products are sold as food sources of vitamin D without further purification.
</P>
<P>(b) Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> and vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> as crystals meet the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 344 and 345, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E> resin and vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> resin must be of a purity suitable for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(2), the ingredients are used in food as the sole source of added vitamin D only within the following specific limitations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of food
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum levels in food (as served)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functional use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Breakfast cereals, § 170.3(n)(4) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">350 (IU/100 grams)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nutrient supplement, § 170.3(o)(20) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grain products and pastas, § 170.3(n)(23) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90(IU/100 grams)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Milk, § 170.3(n)(30) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 (IU/100 grams)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Milk products, § 170.3(n)(31) of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">89 (IU/100 grams)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Vitamin D may be used in infant formula in accordance with section 412(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or with regulations promulgated under section 412(a)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) Vitamin D may be used in margarine in accordance with § 166.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for these ingredients different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 30152, July 24, 1985, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1973" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.205" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1973   Beeswax (yellow and white).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Beeswax (CAS Reg. No. 8012-89-3) is a secretory product of honey bees used as a structural material in honeycombs. Beeswax is prepared from honeycombs after removal of the honey by draining or centrifuging. The combs are melted in hot water or steam or with solar heat, and strained. The wax is refined by melting in hot water to which sulfuric acid or alkali may be added to extract impurities. The resulting wax is referred to as yellow beeswax. White beeswax is produced by bleaching the constituent pigments of yellow beeswax with peroxides, or preferably it is bleached by sun light.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 3d Ed. (1981), pp. 34-35, which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter, as a lubricant as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter, and as a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used in food, in accordance with § 184.1(b)(1) of this chapter, at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice. Current good manufacturing practice results in a maximum level, as served, of: 0.065 percent for chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter; 0.005 percent for confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; 0.04 percent for hard candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter; 0.1 percent for soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter; and 0.002 percent or less for all other food categories.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 14644, Apr. 7, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 5613, Feb. 14, 1984; 50 FR 49536, Dec. 3, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1976" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.206" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1976   Candelilla wax.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Candelilla wax (CAS Reg. No. 8006-44-8) is obtained from the candelilla plant. It is a hard, yellowish-brown, opaque-to-translucent wax. Candelilla wax is prepared by immersing the plants in boiling water containing sulfuric acid and skimming off the wax that rises to the surface. It is composed of about 50 percent hydrocarbons with smaller amounts of esters and free acids.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 67, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a lubricant as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter and as a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: in chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter and in hard candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(25) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51617, Nov. 10, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1978" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.207" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1978   Carnauba wax.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Carnauba wax (CAS Reg. No. 008-015-869) is obtained from the leaves and buds of the Brazilian wax palm <I>Copernicia cerifera</I> Martius. The wax is hard, brittle, sparingly soluble in cold organic solvents and insoluble in water. It is marketed in five grades designated No. 1 through No. 5. Grades No. 4 and No. 5 represent the bulk of the commercial trade volume. These commercial grades consist chiefly of C<E T="52">24</E> to C<E T="52">32</E> normal saturated monofunctional fatty acids and normal saturated monofunctional primary alcohols.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications of the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d Ed. (1981), p. 73, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an anticaking agent as defined § 170.3(o)(1) of this chapter; as a formulation aid as defined in § 170.3(o)(14) of this chapter; as a lubricant and release agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(18) of this chapter; and as a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in the following foods at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice: baked goods and baking mixes as defined in § 170.3(n)(1) of this chapter; chewing gum as defined in § 170.3(n)(6) of this chapter; confections and frostings as defined in § 170.3(n)(9) of this chapter; fresh fruits and fruit juices as defined in § 170.3(n)(16) of this chapter; gravies and sauces as defined in § 170.3(n)(24) of this chapter; processed fruits and fruit juices as defined in § 170.3(n)(35) of this chapter; and soft candy as defined in § 170.3(n)(38) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 51147, Nov. 7, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1979" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.208" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1979   Whey.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Whey.</I> Whey is the liquid substance obtained by separating the coagulum from milk, cream, or skim milk in cheesemaking. Whey obtained from a procedure, in which a significant amount of lactose is converted to lactic acid, or from the curd formation by direct acidification of milk, is known as acid whey. Whey obtained from a procedure in which there is insignificant conversion of lactose to lactic acid is known as sweet whey. Sweet whey has a maximum titratable acidity of not more than 0.16 percent, calculated as lactic acid, and an alkalinity of ash of not more than 225 milliliters of 0.1<I>N</I> hydrochloric acid per 100 grams. The acidity of whey, sweet or acid, may be adjusted by the addition of safe and suitable pH-adjusting ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Concentrated whey.</I> Concentrated whey is the liquid substance obtained by the partial removal of water from whey, while leaving all other constituents in the same relative proportions as in whey.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dry or dried whey.</I> Dry or dried whey is the dry substance obtained by the removal of water from whey, while leaving all other constituents in the same relative proportions as in whey.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredients meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The analysis of whey, concentrated whey, and dry (dried) whey, on a dry product basis, based on analytical methods in the referenced sections of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, is given in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(vii) of this section. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Protein content, 10 to 15 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.036 (liquid sample), entitled “Total Nitrogen—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.193 (dry sample), entitled “Kjeldahl Method” under the heading “Protein—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Fat content, 0.2 to 2.0 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.059 (liquid sample), “Reese-Gottlieb Method [Reference Method] (11)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Fat,” or in section 16.199 (dry sample), entitled “Fat in Dried Milk (45)—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Ash content, 7 to 14 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.035 (liquid sample), entitled “Ash (5)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.196 (dry sample), entitled “Ash—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Lactose content, 61 to 75 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.057 (liquid sample), entitled “Gravimetric Method—Official Final Action” under the heading “Lactose,” or in section 31.061 (dry sample), entitled “Lane-Eynon General Volumetric Method” under the heading “Lactose—Chemical Methods—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(v) Moisture content, 1 to 8 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.192, entitled “Moisture (41)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(vi) Solids content, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.032, entitled “Method I—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids.”
</P>
<P>(vii) Titratable Acidity, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.023, entitled “Acidity (2)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Milk,” or by an equivalent potentiometric method.
</P>
<P>(2) Limits of impurities are: Heavy metals (as lead). Not more than 10 parts per million (0.001 percent) as determined by the method described in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 760-761, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The whey must be derived from milk that has been pasteurized, or the whey and modified whey product must be subjected to pasteurization techniques or its equivalent before use in food.
</P>
<P>(c) Whey, concentrated whey, and dry (dried) whey may be used in food in accordance with good manufacturing practice as indicated in § 184.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) The label on the whey form sold to food manufacturers shall read as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For whey: “(Sweet or acid) whey” or “whey (____% titratable acidity).
</P>
<P>(2) For concentrated whey: “Concentrated (sweet or acid) whey, ____% solids” or “Concentrated whey (____% titratable acidity), ____% solids”.
</P>
<P>(3) For dry (dried) whey: “Dry (dried) (sweet or acid) whey” or “dry (dried) whey, (____% titratable acidity)”.
</P>
<P>(e) Whey, concentrated whey, or dry (dried) whey in a finished food product shall be listed as “whey.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44439, Sept. 4, 1981; 47 FR 7410, Feb. 19, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 64 FR 1760, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1979a" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.209" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1979a   Reduced lactose whey.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Reduced lactose whey is the substance obtained by the removal of lactose from whey. The lactose content of the finished dry product shall not exceed 60 percent. Removal of the lactose is accomplished by physical separation techniques such as precipitation, filtration, or dialysis. As with whey, reduced lactose whey can be used as a fluid, concentrate, or a dry product form. The acidity of reduced lactose whey may be adjusted by the addition of safe and suitable pH-adjusting ingredients.
</P>
<P>(b) The reduced lactose whey meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The analysis of reduced lactose whey, on a dry product basis, based on analytical methods in the referenced sections of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, is given in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(vii) of this section. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Protein content, 16 to 24 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.036 (liquid sample), entitled “Total Nitrogen—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.193 (dry sample), entitled “Kjeldahl Method” under the heading “Protein—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Fat content, 1 to 4 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.059 (liquid sample), “Reese-Gottlieb Method [Reference Method] (11)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Fat,” or in section 16.199 (dry sample), entitled “Fat in Dried Milk (45)—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Ash content, 11 to 27 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.035 (liquid sample), entitled “Ash (5)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.196 (dry sample), entitled “Ash—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Lactose content, not more than 60 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.057 (liquid sample), entitled “Gravimetric Method—Official Final Action” under the heading “Lactose,” or in section 31.061 (dry sample), entitled “Lane-Eynon General Volumetric Method” under the heading “Lactose—Chemical Methods—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(v) Moisture content, 1 to 6 percent—as determined by the method prescribed in section 16.192, entitled “Moisture (41)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(vi) Solids content, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.032, entitled “Method I—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids.”
</P>
<P>(vii) Titratable Acidity, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.023, entitled “Acidity (2)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Milk,” or by an equivalent potentiometric method.
</P>
<P>(2) Limits of impurities are: Heavy metals (as lead). Not more than 10 parts per million (0.001 percent), as determined by the method described in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 760-761, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The reduced lactose whey shall be derived from milk that has been pasteurized, or the reduced lactose whey shall be subjected to pasteurization techniques or its equivalent before use in food.
</P>
<P>(c) Reduced lactose whey may be used in food in accordance with good manufacturing practice as indicated in § 184.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) The percent of lactose present on a dry product basis, i.e., “reduced lactose whey (____% lactose),” shall be declared on the label of the package sold to food manufacturers. The percent of lactose may be declared in 5-percent increments, expressed as a multiple of 5, not greater than the actual percentage of lactose in the product, or as an actual percentage provided that an analysis of the product on which the actual percentage is based is supplied to the food manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(e) The presence of reduced lactose whey in a finished food product shall be listed as “reduced lactose whey.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44440, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 64 FR 1760, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1979b" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.210" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1979b   Reduced minerals whey.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Reduced minerals whey is the substance obtained by the removal of a portion of the minerals from whey. The dry product shall not contain more than 7 percent ash. Reduced minerals whey is produced by physical separation techniques such as precipitation, filtration, or dialysis. As with whey, reduced minerals whey can be used as a fluid, concentrate, or a dry product form. The acidity of reduced minerals whey may be adjusted by the additional of safe and suitable pH-adjusting ingredients.
</P>
<P>(b) The reduced minerals whey meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The analysis of reduced minerals whey, on a dry product basis, based on analytical methods in the referenced sections of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, is given in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(vii) of this section. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Protein content, 10 to 24 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.036 (liquid sample), entitled “Total Nitrogen—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.193 (dry sample), entitled “Kjeldahl Method” under the heading “Protein—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Fat content, 1 to 4 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.059 (liquid sample), “Reese-Gottlieb Method [Reference Method] (11)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Fat,” or in section 16.199 (dry sample), entitled “Fat in Dried Milk (45)—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Ash content, maximum 7 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.035 (liquid sample), entitled “Ash (5)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.196 (dry sample), entitled “Ash—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Lactose content, maximum 85 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.057 (liquid sample), entitled “Gravimetric Method—Official Final Action” under the heading “Lactose,” or in section 31.061 (dry sample), entitled “Lane-Eynon General Volumetric Method” under the heading “Lactose—Chemical Methods—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(v) Moisture content, 1 to 6 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.192, entitled “Moisture (41)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(vi) Solids content, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.032, entitled “Method I—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solid.”
</P>
<P>(vii) Titratable Acidity, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.023, entitled “Acidity (2)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Milk,” or by an equivalent potentiometric method.
</P>
<P>(2) Limits of impurities are: Heavy metals (as lead). Not more than 10 parts per million (0.001 percent), as determined by the method described in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 760-761, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The reduced minerals whey shall be derived from milk that has been pasteurized, or the reduced minerals whey shall be subjected to pasteurization techniques or its equivalent before use in food.
</P>
<P>(c) The reduced minerals whey may be used in food in accordance with good manufacturing practice as indicated in § 184.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) The percent of minerals present on a dry product basis, i.e., “reduced minerals whey (____% minerals),” shall be declared on the label of the package sold to food manufacturers. The percent of minerals may be declared in 2-percent increments expressed as a multiple of 2, not greater than the actual percentage of minerals in the product, or as an actual percentage provided that an analysis of the product on which the actual percentage is based is supplied to the food manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(e) The presence of reduced minerals whey in a finished food product shall be listed as “reduced minerals whey”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44441, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 64 FR 1761, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1979c" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.211" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1979c   Whey protein concentrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whey protein concentrate is the substance obtained by the removal of sufficient nonprotein constituents from whey so that the finished dry product contains not less than 25 percent protein. Whey protein concentrate is produced by physical separation techniques such as precipitation, filtration, or dialysis. As with whey, whey protein concentrate can be used as a fluid, concentrate, or dry product form. The acidity of whey protein concentrate may be adjusted by the addition of safe and suitable pH-adjusting ingredients.
</P>
<P>(b) The whey protein concentrate meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The analysis of whey protein concentrate, on a dry product basis, based on analytical methods in the referenced sections of “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, is given in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(vii) of this section. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Protein content, minimum 25 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.036 (liquid sample), entitled “Total Nitrogen—Officials Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.193 (dry sample), entitled “Kjeldahl Method” under the heading “Protein—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Fat content, 1 to 10 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.059 (liquid sample), “Reese-Gottlieb Method [Reference Method] (11)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Fat,” or in section 16.199 (dry sample), entitled “Fat in Dried Milk (45)—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Ash content, 2 to 15 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.035 (liquid sample), entitled “Ash (5)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids,” or in section 16.196 (dry sample), entitled “Ash—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Lactose content, maximum 60 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.057 (liquid sample), entitled “Gravimetric Method—Official Final Action” under the heading “Lactose,” or in section 31.061 (dry sample), entitled “Lane-Eynon General Volumetric Method” under the heading “Lactose—Chemical Methods—Official Final Action.”
</P>
<P>(v) Moisture content, 1 to 6 percent—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.192, entitled “Moisture (41)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Dried Milk, Nonfat Dry Milk, and Malted Milk.”
</P>
<P>(vi) Solids content, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.032, entitled “Method I—Official Final Action” under the heading “Total Solids.”
</P>
<P>(vii) Titratable Acidity, variable—as determined by the methods prescribed in section 16.023, entitled “Acidity (2)—Official Final Action” under the heading “Milk,” or by an equivalent potentiometric method.
</P>
<P>(2) Limits of impurities are: Heavy metals (as lead). Not more than 10 parts per million (0.001 percent), as determined by the method described in the “Food Chemicals Codex,” 4th ed. (1996), pp. 760-761, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, Box 285, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20055 (Internet address <I>http://www.nap.edu</I>), or may be examined at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The whey protein concentrate shall be derived from milk that has been pasteurized, or the whey protein concentrate shall be subjected to pasteurization techniques or its equivalent before use in food.
</P>
<P>(c) The whey protein concentrate may be used in food in accordance with good manufacturing practice as indicated in § 184.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) The percent of protein present on a dry product basis, i.e., “whey protein concentrate (____% protein),” shall be declared on the label of the package sold to food manufacturers. The percent of protein may be declared in 5-percent increments, expressed as a multiple of 5, not greater than the actual percentage of protein in the product, or as an actual percentage provided that an analysis of the product on which the actual percentage is based is supplied to the food manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(e) The presence of whey protein concentrate in a finished food product shall be listed as “whey protein concentrate”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44441, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 64 FR 1761, Jan. 12, 1999; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 88 FR 17724, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1983" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.212" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1983   Bakers yeast extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bakers yeast extract is the food ingredient resulting from concentration of the solubles of mechanically ruptured cells of a selected strain of yeast, <I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae.</I> It may be concentrated or dried.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the following specifications on a dry weight basis: Less than 0.4 part per million (ppm) arsenic, 0.13 ppm cadmium, 0.2 ppm lead, 0.05 ppm mercury, 0.09 ppm selenium, and 10 ppm zinc.
</P>
<P>(c) The viable microbial content of the finished ingredient as a concentrate or dry material is:
</P>
<P>(1) Less than 10,000 organisms/gram by aerobic plate count.
</P>
<P>(2) Less than 10 yeasts and molds/gram.
</P>
<P>(3) Negative for <I>Salmonella, E. coli,</I> coagulase positive <I>Staphylococci, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium botulinum,</I> or any other recognized microbial pathogen or any harmful microbial toxin.
</P>
<P>(d) The ingredient is used as a flavoring agent and adjuvant as defined in § 170.3(o)(12) of this chapter at a level not to exceed 5 percent in food.
</P>
<P>(e) This regulation is issued prior to general evaluation of use of this ingredient in order to affirm as GRAS the specific use named.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1984" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.213" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1984   Zein.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Zein (CAS Reg. No. 9010-66-6) is one of the components of corn gluten. It is produced commercially by extraction from corn gluten with alkaline aqueous isopropyl alcohol containing sodium hydroxide. The extract is then cooled, which causes the zein to precipitate.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient must be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a surface-finishing agent as defined in § 170.3(o)(30) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used in food at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8999, Mar. 6, 1985, as amended at 73 FR 8608, Feb. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 184.1985" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.14.2.1.214" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 184.1985   Aminopeptidase enzyme preparation derived from lactococcus lactis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aminopeptidase enzyme preparation is derived from the nonpathogenic and nontoxicogenic bacterium <I>Lactococcus lactis</I> (previously named <I>Streptococcus lactis</I>). The preparation contains the enzyme aminopeptidase (CAS Reg. No. 9031-94-1; EC 3.4.11.1) and other peptidases that hydrolyze milk proteins. The preparation is produced by pure culture fermentation.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient meets the specifications for enzyme preparations in the Food Chemicals Codex, 3d ed. (1981), pp. 107-110, which are incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the National Academy Press, 2101 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20418, or may be examined at the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with § 184.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used in food with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe as a direct human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as an enzyme, as defined in § 170.3(o)(9) of this chapter, as an optional ingredient for flavor development in the manufacture of cheddar cheese, in accordance with § 133.113 of this chapter, and in the preparation of protein hydrolysates.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 54193, Oct. 20, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 14667, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="186" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 186—INDIRECT FOOD SUBSTANCES AFFIRMED AS GENERALLY RECOGNIZED AS SAFE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14658, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1   Substances added indirectly to human food affirmed as generally recognized as safe (GRAS).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The indirect human food ingredients listed in this part have been reviewed by the Food and Drug Administration and affirmed to be generally recognized as safe (GRAS) for the purposes and under the conditions prescribed, providing they comply with the purity specifications listed in this part or, in the absence of purity specifications, are of a purity suitable for their intended use in accordance with § 170.30(h)(1) of this chapter. Certain ingredients in this part may also be used in food-contact surfaces in accordance with parts 174, 175, 176, 177, 178 or § 179.45 of this chapter. Ingredients affirmed as GRAS for direct use in part 184 of this chapter are also GRAS as indirect human food ingredients in accordance with § 184.1(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part do not authorize direct addition of any food ingredient to a food. They authorize only the use of these ingredients as indirect ingredients of food, through migration from their immediate wrapper, container, or other food-contact surface. Any ingredient affirmed as GRAS in this part shall be used in accordance with current good manufacturing practice. For the purpose of this part, current good manufacturing practice includes the requirements that an indirect human food ingredient be of a purity suitable for its intended use, and that it be used at a level no higher than reasonably required to achieve its intended technical effect in the food-contact article.


</P>
<P>(1) If the ingredient is affirmed as GRAS with no limitations on its conditions of use other than current good manufacturing practice, it shall be regarded as GRAS if its conditions of use are consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.



 When the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) determines that it is appropriate, the agency will describe one or more current good manufacturing practice conditions of use in the regulation that affirms the GRAS status of the indirect ingredient.

 For example, when the safety of an ingredient has been evaluated on the basis of limited conditions of use, the agency will describe in the regulation that affirms the GRAS status of the indirect ingredient, one or more of these limited conditions of use, which may include the category of food-contact surface(s), technical effect(s) or functional use(s) of the indirect ingredient, and the level(s) of use. 

If the ingredient is used under conditions that are significantly different from those described in the regulation, such use of a substance may not be GRAS. In such a case, a manufacturer may not rely on the regulation as authorizing that use but shall have a basis to conclude that the use is GRAS or shall use the ingredient in accordance with a food additive regulation. 

 




</P>
<P>(2) If the ingredient is affirmed as GRAS with specific limitation(s), it shall be used in food-contact surfaces only within such limitation(s), including the category of food-contact surface(s), the functional use(s) of the ingredient, and the level(s) of use. Any use of such an ingredient not in full compliance with each such established limitation shall require a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) If the ingredient is affirmed as GRAS for a specific use, prior to general evaluation of use of the ingredient, other uses may also be GRAS.
</P>
<P>(c) The listing of a food ingredient in this part does not authorize the use of such substance for the purpose of adding the ingredient to the food through extraction from the food-contact surface.
</P>
<P>(d) The listing of a food ingredient in this part does not authorize the use of such substance in a manner that may lead to deception to the consumer or to any other violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act).
</P>
<P>(e) If the Commissioner of Food and Drugs is aware of any prior sanction for use of an ingredient under conditions different from those proposed to be affirmed as GRAS, he will concurrently propose a separate regulation covering such use of the ingredient under part 181 of this chapter. If the Commissioner is unaware of any such applicable prior sanction, the proposed regulation will so state and will require any person who intends to assert or rely on such sanction to submit proof of its existence. Any regulation promulgated pursuant to this section constitutes a determination that excluded uses would result in adulteration of the food in violation of section 402 of the Act, and the failure of any person to come forward with proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal will constitute a waiver of the right to assert or rely on such sanction at any later time. The notice will also constitute a proposal to establish a regulation under part 181 of this chapter, incorporating the same provisions, in the event that such a regulation is determined to be appropriate as a result of submission of proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14658, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 48457, 48459, Oct. 19, 1983; 81 FR 55051, Aug. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Listing of Specific Substances Affirmed as GRAS</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1093" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1093   Sulfamic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sulfamic acid (H<E T="52">3</E>NO<E T="52">3</E>S, CAS Reg. No. 5329-14-6) is a white crystalline solid manufactured from urea, sulfur trioxide, and sulfuric acid. It is soluble and highly ionized in water.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 186.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used as an indirect food ingredient with no limitations other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as an indirect human food ingredient is based upon the current good manufacturing practice of using this ingredient in the manufacture of paper and paperboard that contact food.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29954, July 9, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1256" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1256   Clay (kaolin).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Clay (kaolin) Al<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3.2SiO2.nH2</E>O, Cas Reg. No. 1332-58-7) consists of hydrated aluminum silicate. The commercial products of clay (kaolin) contain varying quantities of alkalies and alkaline earths. Clay (kaolin) is a white to yellowish or grayish fine powder. There are at least three different minerals, kaolinite, dickite, and nacrite, classified as kaolin. Kaolinite or china clay is whiter, less contaminated with extraneous minerals, and less plastic in water.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 186.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used as an indirect human food ingredient with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as an indirect human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used in the manufacture of paper and paperboard that contact food.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this regulation do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 43367, Oct. 1, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1275" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1275   Dextrans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dextrans (CAS Reg. No. 9004-54-0) are high molecular weight polysaccharides produced by bacterial fermentation of sucrose. Commercially available dextrans are synthesized from sucrose by <I>Leuconostoc mesenteroides</I> strain NRRL B-512(F). Partial depolymerization and purification of the fermented mixture shall produce a product that is free of viable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is used or intended for use as a constituent of food-contact surfaces.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 29288, July 7, 1978, as amended at 48 FR 48457, Oct. 19, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1300" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1300   Ferric oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ferric oxide (iron (III) oxide, Fe<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>, CAS Reg. No. 1309-37-1) occurs naturally as the mineral hematite. It may be prepared synthetically by heating brown iron hydroxide oxide. The product is red-brown to black trigonal crystals.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 186.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used as an indirect human food ingredient with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as an indirect human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a constituent of paper and paperboard used for food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice. 
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16867, May 12, 1988; 53 FR 20939, June 7, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1316" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1316   Formic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Formic acid (CH<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 64-18-6) is also referred to as methanoic acid or hydrogen carboxylic acid. It occurs naturally in some insects and is contained in the free acid state in a number of plants. Formic acid is prepared by the reaction of sodium formate with sulfuric acid and is isolated by distillation.
</P>
<P>(b) Formic acid is used as a constituent of paper and paperboard used for food packaging.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 186.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for formic acid different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 22915, Apr. 4, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1374" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1374   Iron oxides.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Iron oxides (oxides of iron, CAS Reg. No. 1332-37-2) are undefined mixtures of iron (II) oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1345-25-1, black cubic crystals) and iron (III) oxide (CAS Reg. No. 1309-37-1, red-brown to black trigonal crystals).
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 186.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used as an indirect human food ingredient with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as an indirect human food ingredient is based upon the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a constituent of paper and paperboard used for food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 16867, May 12, 1988; 53 FR 20939, June 7, 1988, as amended at 69 FR 24512, May 4, 2004]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1555" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1555   Japan wax.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Japan wax (CAS Reg. No. 8001-39-6), also known as Japan tallow or sumac wax, is a pale yellow vegetable tallow, containing glycerides of the C<E T="52">19</E>-C<E T="52">23</E> dibasic acids and a high content of tripalmitin. It is prepared from the mesocarp by hot pressing of immature fruits of the oriental sumac, <I>Rhus succedanea</I> (Japan, Taiwan, and Indo-China), <I>R. vernicifera</I> (Japan), and <I>R. trichocarpa</I> (China, Indo-China, India, and Japan). Japan wax is soluble in hot alcohol, benzene, and naphtha, and insoluble in water and in cold alcohol.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the ingredient is used as an indirect human food ingredient with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as an indirect human food ingredient is based on the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a constituent of cotton and cotton fabrics used for dry food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 62208, Dec. 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1557" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1557   Tall oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tall oil (CAS Reg. No. 8002-26-4) is essentially the sap of the pine tree. It is obtained commercially from the waste liquors of pinewood pulp mills and consists mainly of tall oil resin acids and tall oil fatty acids.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 186.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used as an indirect human food ingredient with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice. The affirmation of this ingredient as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) as an indirect human food ingredient is based on the following current good manufacturing practice conditions of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The ingredient is used as a constituent of cotton and cotton fabrics used for dry food packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section, or from those listed in part 181 of this chapter, do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 16830, May 7, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1673" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1673   Pulp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pulp is the soft, spongy pith inside the stem of a plant such as wood, straw, sugarcane, or other natural plant sources.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is used or intended for use as a constituent of food packaging containers.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used in paper and paperboard made by conventional paper-making processes at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1750" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1750   Sodium chlorite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium chlorite (NaCLO<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7758-19-2) exists as slightly hygroscopic white crystals or flakes. It is manufactured by passing chlorine dioxide into a solution of sodium hydroxide and hydrogen peroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) the ingredient is used at levels from 125 to 250 parts per million as a slimicide in the manufacture of paper and paperboard that contact food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 16470, Mar. 14, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1756" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1756   Sodium formate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium formate (CHNaO<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 141-53-7) is the sodium salt of formic acid. It is produced by the reaction of carbon monoxide with sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is used as a constituent of paper and paperboard used for food packaging.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 186.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for sodium formate different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 22915, Apr. 4, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1770" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1770   Sodium oleate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium oleate (C<E T="52">18</E>H<E T="52">33</E>O<E T="52">2</E>Na, CAS Reg. No. 143-19-1) is the sodium salt of oleic acid (<I>cis</I>-9-octadecenoic acid). It exists as a white to yellowish powder with a slight tallow-like odor. Commercially, sodium oleate is made by mixing and heating flaked sodium hydroxide and oleic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 186.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used as a constituent of paper and paperboard for food packaging and as a component of lubricants with incidental food contact in accordance with § 178.3570 of this chapter, with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 39372, Oct. 28, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1771" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1771   Sodium palmitate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium palmitate (C<E T="52">16</E>H<E T="52">31</E>O<E T="52">2</E>Na, CAS Reg. No. 408-35-5) is the sodium salt of palmitic acid (hexadecanoic acid). It exists as a white to yellow powder. Commercially, sodium palmitate is made by mixing and heating flaked sodium hydroxide and palmitic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 186.1(b)(1), the ingredient is used as a constituent of paper and paperboard for food packaging with no limitation other than current good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 39372, Oct. 28, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1797" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1797   Sodium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sodium sulfate (Na<E T="52">2</E>SO<E T="52">4</E>, CAS Reg. No. 7757-82-6), also known as Glauber's salt, occurs naturally and exists as colorless crystals or as a fine, white crystalline powder. It is prepared by the neutralization of sulfuric acid with sodium hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is used as a constituent of paper and paperboard used for food packaging, and cotton and cotton fabric used for dry food packaging.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient is used at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice in accordance with § 186.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 6086, Jan. 25, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 186.1839" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.15.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 186.1839   Sorbose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sorbose (L-sorbose, sorbinose) (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">12</E>O<E T="52">6</E>, CAS Reg. No. 87-79-6) is an orthorhombic, bisphenoidal crystalline ketohexose. It was originally identifed in the juice of mature berries from the mountain ash (<I>Sorbus aucuparia</I>) where it occurs as the result of microbial oxidation of sorbitol. It also occurs naturally in other plants. Sorbose can be synthesized by the catalytic hydrogenation of glucose to D-sorbitol. The resulting sorbitol can be oxidized by <I>Acetobacter xylinum</I> or by <I>Acetobacter suboxydans.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The ingredient is used or intended for indirect food use as a constituent of cotton, cotton fabrics, paper, and paperboard in contact with dry food.
</P>
<P>(c) The ingredient migrates to food at levels not to exceed good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior sanctions for this ingredient different from the uses established in this section do not exist or have been waived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11698, Mar. 21, 1978, as amended at 48 FR 48457, Oct. 19, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="189" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 189—SUBSTANCES PROHIBITED FROM USE IN HUMAN FOOD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371, 381.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 189 appear at 61 FR 14482, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; and 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.1" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.1   Substances prohibited from use in human food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food ingredients listed in this section have been prohibited from use in human food by the Food and Drug Administration because of a determination that they present a potential risk to the public health or have not been shown by adequate scientific data to be safe for use in human food. Use of any of these substances in violation of this section causes the food involved to be adulterated in violation of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) This section includes only a partial list of substances prohibited from use in human food, for easy reference purposes, and is not a complete list of substances that may not lawfully be used in human food. No substance may be used in human food unless it meets all applicable requirements of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition, may publish a proposal to establish, amend, or repeal a regulation under this section on the basis of new scientific evaluation or information. Any such petition shall include an adequate scientific basis to support the petition, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, and will be published for comment if it contains reasonable grounds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Prohibited Cattle Materials</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.5" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.5   Prohibited cattle materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&amp;C Act) apply to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prohibited cattle materials</I> mean specified risk materials, small intestine of all cattle except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, material from nonambulatory disabled cattle, material from cattle not inspected and passed, or mechanically separated (MS)(Beef). Prohibited cattle materials do not include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Tallow that contains no more than 0.15 percent insoluble impurities, tallow derivatives, gelatin, hides and hide-derived products, and milk and milk products, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Cattle materials inspected and passed from a country designated under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inspected and passed</I> means that the product has been inspected and passed for human consumption by the appropriate regulatory authority, and at the time it was inspected and passed, it was found to be not adulterated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mechanically separated (MS) (Beef)</I> means a meat food product that is finely comminuted, resulting from the mechanical separation and removal of most of the bone from attached skeletal muscle of cattle carcasses and parts of carcasses that meets the specifications contained in 9 CFR 319.5, the U.S. Department of Agriculture regulation that prescribes the standard of identity for MS (Species).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonambulatory disabled cattle</I> means cattle that cannot rise from a recumbent position or that cannot walk, including, but not limited to, those with broken appendages, severed tendons or ligaments, nerve paralysis, fractured vertebral column, or metabolic conditions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Specified risk material</I> means the brain, skull, eyes, trigeminal ganglia, spinal cord, vertebral column (excluding the vertebrae of the tail, the transverse processes of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, and the wings of the sacrum), and dorsal root ganglia of cattle 30 months of age and older and the tonsils and distal ileum of the small intestine of all cattle.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tallow</I> means the rendered fat of cattle obtained by pressing or by applying any other extraction process to tissues derived directly from discrete adipose tissue masses or to other carcass parts and tissues. Tallow must be produced from tissues that are not prohibited cattle materials or must contain no more than 0.15 percent insoluble impurities as determined by the method entitled “Insoluble Impurities” (AOCS Official Method Ca 3a-46), American Oil Chemists' Society (AOCS), 5th Edition, 1997, incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or another method equivalent in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity to AOCS Official Method Ca 3a-46. You may obtain copies of the method from AOCS (<I>http://www.aocs.org</I>) 2211 W. Bradley Ave. Champaign, IL 61821. Copies may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tallow derivative</I> means any chemical obtained through initial hydrolysis, saponification, or trans-esterification of tallow; chemical conversion of material obtained by hydrolysis, saponification, or trans-esterification may be applied to obtain the desired product.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Gelatin</I> means a product that has been obtained by the partial hydrolysis of collagen derived from hides, connective tissue, and/or bone bones of cattle and swine. Gelatin may be either Type A (derived from an acid-treated precursor) or Type B (derived from an alkali-treated precursor) that has gone through processing steps that include filtration and sterilization or an equivalent process in terms of infectivity reduction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) No human food shall be manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contain, prohibited cattle materials.
</P>
<P>(2) The small intestine is not considered prohibited cattle material if the distal ileum is removed by a procedure that removes at least 80 inches of the uncoiled and trimmed small intestine, as measured from the caeco-colic junction and progressing proximally towards the jejunum, or by a procedure that the establishment can demonstrate is equally effective in ensuring complete removal of the distal ileum.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> (1) Manufacturers and processors of a human food that is manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains, material from cattle must establish and maintain records sufficient to demonstrate that the food is not manufactured from, processed with, or does not otherwise contain, prohibited cattle materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Records must be retained for 2 years after the date they were created.
</P>
<P>(3) Records must be retained at the manufacturing or processing establishment or at a reasonably accessible location.
</P>
<P>(4) The maintenance of electronic records is acceptable. Electronic records are considered to be reasonably accessible if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(5) Records required by this section and existing records relevant to compliance with this section must be available to FDA for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(6) When filing entry with U.S. Customs and Border Protection, the importer of record of a human food manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing, cattle material must affirm that the food was manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains, cattle material and must affirm that the food was manufactured in accordance with this section. If a human food is manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains, cattle material, then the importer of record must, if requested, provide within 5 days records sufficient to demonstrate that the food is not manufactured from, processed with, or does not otherwise contain, prohibited cattle material.
</P>
<P>(7) Records established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart but that are also required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adulteration.</I> (1) Failure of a manufacturer or processor to operate in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section renders human food adulterated under section 402(a)(4) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Human food manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing, prohibited cattle materials is unfit for human food and deemed adulterated under section 402(a)(3) of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Food additive status.</I> Prohibited cattle materials for use in human food are food additives subject to section 409 of the act, except when used as dietary ingredients in dietary supplements. The use or intended use of any prohibited cattle material in human food causes the material and the food to be adulterated under section 402(a)(2)(C) of the act if the prohibited cattle material is a food additive, unless it is the subject of a food additive regulation or of an investigational exemption for a food additive under § 170.17 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Process for designating countries.</I> A country seeking designation must send a written request to the Director, Office of the Center Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, at the address designated in 21 CFR 5.1100. The request shall include information about a country's bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) case history, risk factors, measures to prevent the introduction and transmission of BSE, and any other information relevant to determining whether specified risk materials, the small intestine of cattle except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, material from nonambulatory disabled cattle, or MS (Beef) from cattle from the country should be considered prohibited cattle materials. FDA shall respond in writing to any such request and may impose conditions in granting any such request. A country designation granted by FDA under this paragraph will be subject to future review by FDA, and may be revoked if FDA determines that it is no longer appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 53068, Sept. 7, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 59668, Oct. 11, 2006; 73 FR 20793, Apr. 17, 2008; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 81 FR 14731, Mar. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Substances Generally Prohibited From Direct Addition or Use as Human Food</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 69 FR 42273, July 14, 2004.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 189.110" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.110   Calamus and its derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calamus is the dried rhizome of <I>Acorus calamus</I> L. It has been used as a flavoring compound, especially as the oil or extract.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added calamus, oil of calamus, or extract of calamus is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of May 9, 1968 (33 FR 6967).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical method used for detecting oil of calamus (β-asarone) is in the “Journal of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” Volume 56, (Number 5), pages 1281 to 1283, September 1973, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, also from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 11855, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989; 78 FR 14667, Mar. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.113" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.113   Cinnamyl anthranilate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food additive cinnamyl anthranilate (C<E T="52">16</E>H<E T="52">15</E>NO<E T="52">2</E>, CAS Reg. No. 87-29-6) is the ester of cinnamyl alcohol and anthranilic acid. Cinnamyl anthranilate is a synthetic chemical that has not been identified in natural products at levels detectable by available methodology. It has been used as a flavoring agent in food.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added cinnamyl anthranilate is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of October 23, 1985.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 42932, Oct. 23, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.120" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.120   Cobaltous salts and its derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cobaltous salts are the chemicals, CoC<E T="52">4</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">4</E>, CoCl<E T="52">2</E>, and CoSO<E T="52">4</E>.They have been used in fermented malt beverages as a foam stabilizer and to prevent “gushing.”
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added cobaltous salts is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of August 12, 1966 (31 FR 8788).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.130" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.130   Coumarin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Coumarin is the chemical 1,2-benzopyrone, C<E T="52">9</E>H<E T="52">6</E>O<E T="52">2</E>. It is found in tonka beans and extract of tonka beans, among other natural sources, and is also synthesized. It has been used as a flavoring compound.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added coumarin as such or as a constituent of tonka beans or tonka extract is deemed to be adulterated under the act, based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of March 5, 1954 (19 FR 1239).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical methods used for detecting coumarin in food are in sections 19.016-19.024 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10114, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.135" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.135   Cyclamate and its derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Calcium, sodium, magnesium and potassium salts of cyclohexane sulfamic acid, (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">12</E>NO<E T="52">3</E>S)<E T="52">2</E>Ca, (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">12</E>NO<E T="52">3</E>S)Na, (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">12</E>NO<E T="52">3</E>S)<E T="52">2</E>Mg, and (C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">12</E>NO<E T="52">3</E>S)K. Cyclamates are synthetic chemicals having a sweet taste 30 to 40 times that of sucrose, are not found in natural products at levels detectable by the official methodology, and have been used as artificial sweeteners.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of cyclamate is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of October 21, 1969 (34 FR 17063).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical methods used for detecting cyclamate in food are in sections 20.162-20.172 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10114, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.140" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.140   Diethylpyrocarbonate (DEPC).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Diethylpyrocarbonate is the chemical pyrocarbonic acid diethyl ester, C<E T="52">6</E>H<E T="52">10</E>O<E T="52">5</E>. It is a synthetic chemical not found in natural products at levels detectable by available methodology and has been used as a ferment inhibitor in alcoholic and nonalcoholic beverages.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of DEPC is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of August 2, 1972 (37 FR 15426).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.145" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.145   Dulcin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dulcin is the chemical 4-ethoxyphenylurea, C<E T="52">9</E>H<E T="52">12</E>N<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">2</E>. It is a synthetic chemical having a sweet taste about 250 times that of sucrose, is not found in natural products at levels detectable by the official methodology, and has been proposed for use as an artificial sweetener.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of dulcin is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act, based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of January 19, 1950 (15 FR 321).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical methods used for detecting dulcin in food are in sections 20.173-20.176 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10114, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.155" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.155   Monochloroacetic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Monochloroacetic acid is the chemical chloroacetic acid, C<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">3</E>ClO<E T="52">2</E>. It is a synthetic chemical not found in natural products, and has been proposed as a preservative in alcoholic and nonalcoholic beverages. Monochloroacetic acid is permitted in food package adhesives with an accepted migration level up to 10 parts per billion (ppb) under § 175.105 of this chapter. The official methods do not detect monochloroacetic acid at the 10 ppb level.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of monochloroacetic acid is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon trade correspondence dated December 29, 1941 (TC-377).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical methods used for detecting monochloroacetic acid in food are in sections 20.067-20.072 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10114, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24899, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.165" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.165   Nordihydroguaiaretic acid (NDGA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nordihydroguaiaretic acid is the chemical 4,4′-(2,3-dimethyltetramethylene) dipyrocatechol, C<E T="52">18</E>H<E T="52">22</E>O<E T="52">4</E>. It occurs naturally in the resinous exudates of certain plants. The commercial product, which is synthesized, has been used as an antioxidant in foods.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added NDGA is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of April 11, 1968 (33 FR 5619).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical method used for detecting NDGA in food is in section 20.008(b) of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the AOAC INTERNATIONAL,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10114, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.175" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.175   P-4000.</HEAD>
<P>(a) P-4000 is the chemical 5-nitro-2-n-propoxyaniline, C<E T="52">9</E>H<E T="52">12</E>N<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>. It is a synthetic chemical having a sweet taste about 4000 times that of sucrose, is not found in natural products at levels detectable by the official methodology, and has been proposed for use as an artificial sweetener.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of P-4000 is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of January 19, 1950 (15 FR 321).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical methods used for detecting P-4000 in food are in sections 20.177-20.181 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10114, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.180" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.180   Safrole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Safrole is the chemical 4-allyl-1,2-methylenedioxy-benzene, C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">10</E>O<E T="52">2</E>. It is a natural constituent of the sassafras plant. Oil of sassafras is about 80 percent safrole. Isosafrole and dihydrosafrole are derivatives of safrole, and have been used as flavoring compounds.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added safrole, oil of sassafras, isosafrole, or dihydrosafrole, as such, or food containing any safrole, oil of sassafras, isosafrole, or dihydrosafrole, e.g., sassafras bark, which is intended solely or primarily as a vehicle for imparting such substances to another food, e.g., sassafras tea, is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of December 3, 1960 (25 FR 12412).
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical method used for detecting safrole, isosafrole and dihydrosafrole is in the “Journal of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” Volume 54 (Number 4), pages 900 to 902, July 1971, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Office of Food Additive Safety (HFS-200), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1200, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 56729, Oct. 28, 1977; 47 FR 11855, Mar. 19, 1982; 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989; 78 FR 14667, Mar. 7, 2013; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.190" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.190   Thiourea.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Thiourea is the chemical thiocarbamide, CH<E T="52">4</E>N<E T="52">2</E>S. It is a synthetic chemical, is not found in natural products at levels detectable by the official methodology, and has been proposed as an antimycotic for use in dipping citrus.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of thiourea is deemed to be adulterated under the act.
</P>
<P>(c) The analytical methods used for detecting thiourea are in sections 20.115-20.126 of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed. (1980), which is incorporated by reference. Copies may be obtained from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or may be examined at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 10114, Mar. 19, 1984; 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.191" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.191   Chlorofluorocarbon propellants.</HEAD>
<P>The use of chlorofluorocarbons in human food as propellants in self-pressurized containers is prohibited as provided by § 2.125 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11317, Mar. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Substances Prohibited From Indirect Addition to Human Food Through Food-Contact Surfaces</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 69 FR 42273, July 14, 2004.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 189.220" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.220   Flectol H.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Flectol H is the chemical 1,2-dihydro-2,2,4-trimethylquinoline, polymerized, C<E T="52">12</E>H<E T="52">15</E>N. It is a synthetic chemical not found in natural products, and has been used as a component of food packaging adhesives.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of this substance is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of April 7, 1967 (32 FR 5675).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14659, Mar. 15, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 17099, Apr. 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.240" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.240   Lead solders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lead solders are alloys of metals that include lead and are used in the construction of metal food cans.
</P>
<P>(b) Food packaged in any container that makes use of lead in can solder is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of June 27, 1995.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 33109, June 27, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.250" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.250   Mercaptoimidazoline and 2-mercaptoimidazoline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mercaptoimidazoline and 2-mercaptoimidazoline both have the molecular formula C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">6</E>N<E T="52">2</E>S. They are synthetic chemicals not found in natural products and have been used in the production of rubber articles that may come into contact with food. 
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or delectable levels of these substances is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of November 30, 1973 (38 FR 33072).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.280" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.280   4,4′-Methylenebis (2-chloroanaline).</HEAD>
<P>(a) 4,4′-Methylenebis (2-chloroanaline) has the molecular formula, C<E T="52">13</E>H<E T="52">12</E>Cl<E T="52">2</E>N<E T="52">2</E>. It is a synthetic chemical not found in natural products and has been used as a polyurethane curing agent and as a component of food packaging adhesives and polyurethane resins.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable level of this substance is deemed to be adulterated in violation of the act based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of December 2, 1969 (34 FR 19073).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.300" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.300   Hydrogenated 4,4′-isopropylidene-diphenolphosphite ester resins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hydrogenated 4,4′-isopropylidene-diphenolphosphite ester resins are the condensation product of 1 mole of triphenyl phosphite and 1.5 moles of hydrogenated 4,4′-isopropylidene-diphenol such that the finished resins have a molecular weight in the range of 2,400 to 3,000. They are synthetic chemicals not found in natural products and have been used as antioxidants and as stabilizers in vinyl chloride polymer resins when such polymer resins are used in the manufacture of rigid vinyl chloride polymer bottles.
</P>
<P>(b) Food containing any added or detectable levels of these substances is deemed to be adulterated and in violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, based upon an order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of September 9, 1987 (52 FR 33929).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 7188, Feb. 17, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 189.301" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.16.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 189.301   Tin-coated lead foil capsules for wine bottles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tin-coated lead foil is composed of a lead foil coated on one or both sides with a thin layer of tin. Tin-coated lead foil has been used as a capsule (i.e., as a covering applied over the cork and neck areas) on wine bottles to prevent insect infestation, as a barrier to oxygen, and for decorative purposes. Information received by the Food and Drug Administration establishes that the use of such a capsule on wine bottles may reasonably be expected to result in lead becoming a component of the wine.
</P>
<P>(b) The capping of any bottles of wine after February 8, 1996, with a tin-coated lead foil capsule renders the wine adulterated and in violation of section 402(a)(2)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because lead from the capsule, which is an unsafe food additive within the meaning of section 409 of the act, may reasonably be expected to become a component of the wine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4820, Feb. 8, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="190" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 190—DIETARY SUPPLEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 201(ff), 301, 402, 413, 701 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321(ff), 331, 342, 350b, 371).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 49891, Sept. 23, 1997, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 190 appear at 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—New Dietary Ingredient Notification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 190.6" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 190.6   Requirement for premarket notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 75 days before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce a dietary supplement that contains a new dietary ingredient that has not been present in the food supply as an article used for food in a form in which the food has not been chemically altered, the manufacturer or distributor of that supplement, or of the new dietary ingredient, shall submit to the Office of Dietary Supplement Programs (HFS-810), Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, information including any citation to published articles that is the basis on which the manufacturer or distributor has concluded that a dietary supplement containing such dietary ingredient will reasonably be expected to be safe. An original and two copies of this notification shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and complete address of the manufacturer or distributor of the dietary supplement that contains a new dietary ingredient, or of the new dietary ingredient;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the new dietary ingredient that is the subject of the premarket notification, including the Latin binomial name (including the author) of any herb or other botanical;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the dietary supplement or dietary supplements that contain the new dietary ingredient including:
</P>
<P>(i) The level of the new dietary ingredient in the dietary supplement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The conditions of use recommended or suggested in the labeling of the dietary supplement, or if no conditions of use are recommended or suggested in the labeling of the dietary supplement, the ordinary conditions of use of the supplement;
</P>
<P>(4) The history of use or other evidence of safety establishing that the dietary ingredient, when used under the conditions recommended or suggested in the labeling of the dietary supplement, will reasonably be expected to be safe, including any citation to published articles or other evidence that is the basis on which the distributor or manufacturer of the dietary supplement that contains the new dietary ingredient has concluded that the new dietary supplement will reasonably be expected to be safe. Any reference to published information offered in support of the notification shall be accompanied by reprints or photostatic copies of such references. If any part of the material submitted is in a foreign language, it shall be accompanied by an accurate and complete English translation; and
</P>
<P>(5) The signature of the person designated by the manufacturer or distributor of the dietary supplement that contains a new dietary ingredient.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will acknowledge its receipt of a notification made under section 413 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and will notify the submitter of the date of receipt of such a notification. The date that the agency receives the notification submitted under paragraph (a) of this section is the filing date for the notification. For 75 days after the filing date, the manufacturer or distributor of a dietary supplement that contains a new dietary ingredient shall not introduce, or deliver for introduction, into interstate commerce the dietary supplement that contains the new dietary ingredient.
</P>
<P>(d) If the manufacturer or distributor of a dietary supplement that contains a new dietary ingredient, or of the new dietary ingredient, provides additional information in support of the new dietary ingredient notification, the agency will review all submissions pertaining to that notification, including responses made to inquiries from the agency, to determine whether they are substantive and whether they require that the 75-day period be reset. If the agency determines that the new submission is a substantive amendment, FDA will assign a new filing date. FDA will acknowledge receipt of the additional information and, when applicable, notify the manufacturer of the new filing date, which is the date of receipt by FDA of the information that constitutes the substantive amendment.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will not disclose the existence of, or the information contained in, the new dietary ingredient notification for 90 days after the filing date of the notification. After the 90th day, all information in the notification will be placed on public display, except for any information that is trade secret or otherwise confidential commercial information.
</P>
<P>(f) Failure of the agency to respond to a notification does not constitute a finding by the agency that the new dietary ingredient or the dietary supplement that contains the new dietary ingredient is safe or is not adulterated under section 402 of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 49891, Sept. 23, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 17359, Mar. 30, 2001, 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016; 88 FR 17725, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="191-199" NODE="21:3.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 191-199 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Mar. 5, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="4" NODE="21:4" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 4</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>200


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:4.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—DRUGS: GENERAL


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="200" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 200—GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 358, 360e, 371, 374, 375.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13996, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.5   Mailing of important information about drugs.</HEAD>
<P>Manufacturers and distributors of drugs and the Food and Drug Administration occasionally are required to mail important information about drugs to physicians and others responsible for patient care. In the public interest, such mail should be distinctive in appearance so that it will be promptly recognized and read. The Food and Drug Administration will make such mailings in accordance with the specifications set forth in this section. Manufacturers and distributors of drugs are asked to make such mailings as prescribed by this section and not to use the distinctive envelopes for ordinary mail.
</P>
<P>(a) Use first class mail and No. 10 white envelopes.
</P>
<P>(b) The name and address of the agency or the drug manufacturer or distributor is to appear in the upper left corner of the envelope.
</P>
<P>(c) The following statements are to appear in the far left third of the envelope front, in the type and size indicated, centered in a rectangular space approximately 3 inches wide and 2
<FR>1/4</FR> inches high with an approximately 
<FR>3/8</FR> inch-wide border in the color indicated:
</P>
<P>(1) When the information concerns a significant hazard to health, the statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>IMPORTANT
</HD1>
<HD1>DRUG
</HD1>
<HD1>WARNING</HD1></EXTRACT>
<FP>The statement shall be in three lines, all capitals, and centered. “Important” shall be in 36 point Gothic Bold type. “Drug” and “Warning” shall be in 36 point Gothic Condensed type. The rectangle's border and the statement therein shall be red.
</FP>
<P>(2) When the information concerns important changes in drug package labeling, the statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>IMPORTANT
</HD1>
<HD1>PRESCRIBING
</HD1>
<HD1>INFORMATION</HD1></EXTRACT>
<FP>The statement shall be in three lines, all capitals, and centered. “Important” shall be in 36 point Gothic Bold type. “Prescribing” and “Information” shall be in 36 point Gothic Condensed type. The rectangle's border and the statement therein shall be blue.
</FP>
<P>(3) When the information concerns a correction of prescription drug advertising or labeling, the statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>IMPORTANT
</HD1>
<HD1>CORRECTION
</HD1>
<HD1>OF DRUG
</HD1>
<HD1>INFORMATION</HD1></EXTRACT>
<FP>The statement shall be in four lines, all capitals, and centered. “Important” shall be in 36 point Gothic Bold type. “Correction,” “Of Drug,” and “Information” shall be in 36 point Gothic Condensed type. The rectangle's border and the statement therein shall be brown.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.7" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.7   Supplying pharmacists with indications and dosage information.</HEAD>
<P>There are presently no regulations under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that prevent a manufacturer of prescription drugs from sending the pharmacist data he needs on indications and dosage in exercising his important professional function of checking against possible mistakes in a prescription. The Food and Drug Administration believes manufacturers should be encouraged to supply such printed matter to the pharmacist for his professional information. Obviously, such printed matter should not be displayed to prospective purchasers to promote over-the-counter sale of prescription drugs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.10   Contract facilities (including consulting laboratories) utilized as extramural facilities by pharmaceutical manufacturers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 704(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act specifically authorizes inspection of consulting laboratories as well as any factory, warehouse, or establishment in which prescription drugs are manufactured, processed, packed, or held.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration is aware that many manufacturers of pharmaceutical products utilize extramural independent contract facilities, such as testing laboratories, contract packers or labelers, and custom grinders, and regards extramural facilities as an extension of the manufacturer's own facility.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration reserves the right to disclose to the pharmaceutical manufacturer, or to the applicant of a new drug application (NDA) or to the sponsor of an Investigational New Drug (IND) Application, any information obtained during the inspection of an extramural facility having a specific bearing on the compliance of the manufacturer's, applicant's, or sponsor's product with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The Food and Drug Administration's position is that by the acceptance of such contract work, the extramural facility authorizes such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration does not consider results of validation studies of analytical and assay methods and control procedures to be trade secrets that may be withheld from the drug manufacturer by the contracted extramural facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13996, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 55 FR 11576, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.11" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.11   Use of octadecylamine in steam lines of drug establishments.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration will not object to the use of octadecylamine in steam lines where the steam may be used for autoclaving surgical instruments and gauze if the octadecylamine in the steam is not more than 2.4 parts per million.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.15" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.15   Definition of term “insulin.”</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of sections 801 and 802 of the act and this title, the term <I>insulin</I> means the active principle of the pancreas that affects the metabolism of carbohydrates in the animal body and which is of value in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. The term includes synthetic and biotechnologically derived products that are the same as, or similar to, naturally occurring insulins in structure, use, and intended effect and are of value in the treatment of diabetes mellitus.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 26698, May 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Specific Classes of Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.50" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.50   Ophthalmic preparations and dispensers.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Informed medical opinion is in agreement that all preparations offered or intended for ophthalmic use, including preparations for cleansing the eyes, should be sterile. It is further evident that such preparations purport to be of such purity and quality as to be suitable for safe use in the eye.
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration concludes that all such preparations, if they are not sterile, fall below their professed standard of purity or quality and may be unsafe. In a statement of policy issued on September 1, 1964, the Food and Drug Administration ruled that liquid preparations offered or intended for ophthalmic use that are not sterile may be regarded as adulterated within the meaning of section 501(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), and, further, may be deemed misbranded within the meaning of section 502(j) of the act. This ruling is extended to affect all preparations for ophthalmic use. By this regulation, this ruling is applicable to ophthalmic preparations that are regulated as drugs. By the regulation in § 800.10 of this chapter, this ruling is applicable to ophthalmic preparations that are regulated as medical devices.
</P>
<P>(3) The containers of ophthalmic preparations shall be sterile at the time of filling and closing, and the container or individual carton shall be so sealed that the contents cannot be used without destroying the seal. The packaging and labeling of ophthalmic preparations that are over-the-counter drugs shall also comply with § 211.132 of this chapter on tamper-resistant packaging requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Liquid ophthalmic preparations packed in multiple-dose containers should:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain one or more suitable and harmless substances that will inhibit the growth of microorganisms; or
</P>
<P>(2) Be so packaged as to volume and type of container and so labeled as to duration of use and with such necessary warnings as to afford adequate protection and minimize the hazard of injury resulting from contamination during use.
</P>
<P>(c) Eye cups, eye droppers, and other dispensers intended for ophthalmic use should be sterile, and may be regarded as falling below their professed standard of purity or quality if they are not sterile. These articles, which are regulated as drugs if packaged with the drugs with which they are to be used, should be packaged so as to maintain sterility until the package is opened and be labeled, on or within the retail package, so as to afford adequate directions and necessary warnings to minimize the hazard of injury resulting from contamination during use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13996, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 47 FR 50455, Nov. 5, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.51" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.51   Aqueous-based drug products for oral inhalation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All aqueous-based drug products for oral inhalation must be manufactured to be sterile. 
</P>
<P>(b) Manufacturers must also comply with the requirements in § 211.113(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 34089, May 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Prescription Drug Consumer Price Listing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 200.200" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.1.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 200.200   Prescription drugs; reminder advertisements and reminder labeling to provide price information to consumers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prescription drug reminder advertisements and reminder labeling intended to provide price information to consumers are exempt from the requirements of §§ 201 .100 and 202.1 of this chapter if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The only purpose of the reminder advertisement or reminder labeling is to provide consumers with information concerning the price charged for a prescription for a particular drug product, and the reminder advertisement or reminder labeling contains no representation or suggestion concerning the drug product's safety, effectiveness, or indications for use.
</P>
<P>(2) The reminder advertisement or reminder labeling contains the proprietary name of the drug product, if any; the established (generic) name of the drug product, if any; the drug product's strength if the product contains a single active ingredient or if the product contains more than one active ingredient and a relevant strength can be associated with the product without indicating each active ingredient (the established name and quantity of each active ingredient are not required); the dosage form; and the price charged for a prescription for a specific quantity of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(3) The reminder advertisement or reminder labeling may also include other written, printed, or graphic matter, e.g., identification of professional or convenience services provided by the pharmacy: <I>Provided,</I> That such information is neither false nor misleading and contains no representation or suggestion concerning the drug product's safety, effectiveness, or indications for use.
</P>
<P>(4) The price stated in the reminder advertisement or reminder labeling as that charged for a prescription shall include all charges to the consumer including, but not limited to, the cost of the drug product, professional fees, and handling fees, if any. Mailing fees and delivery fees, if any, may be stated separately and without repetition.
</P>
<P>(b) This exemption from §§ 201.100 and 202.1 of this chapter is applicable to all prescription drug reminder labeling and reminder advertisements solely intended to provide consumers with information regarding the price charged for prescriptions including price lists, catalogs, and other promotional material, whether mailed, posted in a pharmacy, placed in a newspaper, or aired on radio or television.
</P>
<P>(c) Any reminder advertisement or reminder labeling intended to provide consumers with prescription price information which is not in compliance with this section shall be the subject of appropriate regulatory action. Such action may be taken against the product and/or the responsible person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 58799, Dec. 18, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="201" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 201—LABELING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 343, 351, 352, 353, 355, 358, 360, 360b, 360ccc, 360ccc-1, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 360ee, 360gg-360ss, 371, 374, 379e; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 262, 264.








</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 201 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Labeling Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.1   Drugs; name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A drug or drug product (as defined in § 320.1 of this chapter) in finished package form is misbranded under section 502 (a) and (b)(1) of the act if its label does not bear conspicuously the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor. This paragraph does not apply to any drug or drug product dispensed in accordance with section 503(b)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this section, and for purposes of section 502(a) and (b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the manufacturer of a drug product is the person who performs all of the following operations that are required to produce the product:
</P>
<P>(1) Mixing;
</P>
<P>(2) Granulating;
</P>
<P>(3) Milling;
</P>
<P>(4) Molding;
</P>
<P>(5) Lyophilizing;
</P>
<P>(6) Tableting;
</P>
<P>(7) Encapsulating;
</P>
<P>(8) Coating;
</P>
<P>(9) Sterilizing;
</P>
<P>(10) Filling sterile or aerosol drugs into dispensing containers; and
</P>
<P>(11) With respect to a medical gas, fabricating the gas by chemical reaction, physical separation, compression of atmospheric air, purification (<I>e.g.,</I> re-processing an industrial gas into a medical gas), combining two or more distinct medical gases, or other process.


</P>
<P>(c) If no person performs all of the applicable operations listed in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may be represented as manufacturer except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the person performs more than one half of the applicable operations listed in paragraph (b) of this section and acknowledges the contribution of other persons who have performed the remaining applicable operations by stating on the product label that “Certain manufacturing operations have been performed by other firms.”; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the person performs at least one applicable operation listed in paragraph (b) of this section and identifies by appropriate designation all other persons who have performed the remaining applicable operations, e.g., “Made by (Person A), Filled by (Person B), Sterilized by (Person C)”; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the person performs at least one applicable operation listed in paragraph (b) of this section and the person is listed along with all other persons who have performed the remaining applicable operations as “joint manufacturers.” A list of joint manufacturers shall be qualified by the phrase “Jointly Manufactured By ______,” and the names of all of the manufacturers shall be printed together in the same type size and style; or
</P>
<P>(4) If the person performs all applicable operations listed in paragraph (b) of this section except for those operations listed in paragraph (d) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph, person, when it identifies a corporation, includes a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company where the related companies are under common ownership and control.
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration finds that it is the common practice in the drug industry to contract out the performance of certain manufacturing operations listed in paragraph (b) of this section. These operations include: (1) Soft-gelatin encapsulating, (2) aerosol filling, (3) sterilizing by irradiation, (4) lyophilizing, and (5) ethylene oxide sterilization.
</P>
<P>(e) A person performs an operation listed in paragraph (b) of this section only if the operation is performed, including the performance of the appropriate in-process quality control operations, except laboratory testing of samples taken during processing, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) By individuals, a majority of whom are employees of the person and, throughout the performance of the operation, are subject to the person's direction and control;
</P>
<P>(2) On premises that are continuously owned or leased by the person and subject to the person's direction and control; and
</P>
<P>(3) On equipment that is continuously owned or leased by the person. As used in this paragraph, person, when it identifies a corporation, includes a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company where the related companies are under common ownership and control.
</P>
<P>(f) The name of the person represented as manufacturer under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section must be the same as either (1) the name of the establishment (as defined in § 207.1 of this chapter) under which that person is registered at the time the labeled product is produced or (2) the registered establishment name of a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company where the related companies are under common ownership and control. In addition, the name shall meet the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The requirement for declaration of the name of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor shall be deemed to be satisfied, in the case of a corporate person, only by the actual corporate name, except that the corporate name may be the name of a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company where the related companies are under common ownership and control. The corporate name may be preceded or followed by the name of the particular division of the corporation. “Company,” “Incorporated,” etc., may be abbreviated or omitted and “The” may be omitted. In the case of an individual, partnership, or association, the name under which the business is conducted shall be used.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Except as provided in this section, no person other than the manufacturer, packer, or distributor may be identified on the label of a drug or drug product.
</P>
<P>(2) The appearance on a drug product label of a person's name without qualification is a representation that the named person is the sole manufacturer of the product. That representation is false and misleading, and the drug product is misbranded under section 502(a) of the act, if the person is not the manufacturer of the product in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the names of two or more persons appear on the label of a drug or drug product, the label may identify which of the persons is to be contacted for further information about the product.
</P>
<P>(4) If a trademark appears on the drug or drug product label or appears as a mark directly on the drug product (e.g., tablet or capsule), the label may identify the holder or licensee of the trademark. The label may also state whether the person identified holds the trademark or is licensee of the trademark.
</P>
<P>(5) If the distributor is named on the label, the name shall be qualified by one of the following phrases: “Manufactured for ______”, “Distributed by ______”, “Manufactured by ______ for ______”, “Manufactured for _____by _____”, “Distributor: ______”, “Marketed by ______”. The qualifying phrases may be abbreviated.
</P>
<P>(6) If the packer is identified on the label, the name shall be qualified by the phrase “Packed by ______” or “Packaged by ______”. The qualifying phrases may be abbreviated.
</P>
<P>(i) The statement of the place of business shall include the street address, city, State, and ZIP Code. For a foreign manufacturer, the statement of the place of business shall include the street address, city, country, and any applicable mailing code. The street address may be omitted if it is shown in a current city directory or telephone directory. The requirement for inclusion of the ZIP Code shall apply to consumer commodity labels developed or revised after July 1, 1969. In the case of nonconsumer packages, the ZIP Code shall appear either on the label or the labeling (including the invoice).
</P>
<P>(j) If a person manufactures, packs, or distributes a drug or drug product at a place other than the person's principal place of business, the label may state the principal place of business in lieu of the actual place where such drug or drug product was manufactured or packed or is to be distributed, unless such statement would be misleading.
</P>
<P>(k) Paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section, do not apply to the labeling of drug components.
</P>
<P>(l) A drug product is misbranded under section 502(a) of the act if its labeling identifies a person as manufacturer, packer, or distributor, and that identification does not meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(m) This section does not apply to biological drug products that are subject to the requirements of section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 262.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 25775, Apr. 15, 1980; 45 FR 72118, Oct. 31, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 37620, Aug. 19, 1983; 81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016; 89 FR 51767, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.2   Drugs and devices; National Drug Code numbers.</HEAD>
<P>The National Drug Code (NDC) number is requested but not required to appear on all drug labels and in all drug labeling, including the label of any prescription drug container furnished to a consumer. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52002, Nov. 7, 1975, as amended at 81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.5   Drugs; adequate directions for use.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adequate directions for use</I> means directions under which the layman can use a drug safely and for the purposes for which it is intended. (Section 201.128 defines “intended use.”) Directions for use may be inadequate because, among other reasons, of omission, in whole or in part, or incorrect specification of:
</P>
<P>(a) Statements of all conditions, purposes, or uses for which such drug is intended, including conditions, purposes, or uses for which it is prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its oral, written, printed, or graphic advertising, and conditions, purposes, or uses for which the drug is commonly used; except that such statements shall not refer to conditions, uses, or purposes for which the drug can be safely used only under the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law and for which it is advertised solely to such practitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) Quantity of dose, including usual quantities for each of the uses for which it is intended and usual quantities for persons of different ages and different physical conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) Frequency of administration or application.
</P>
<P>(d) Duration of administration or application.
</P>
<P>(e) Time of administration or application (in relation to time of meals, time of onset of symptoms, or other time factors).
</P>
<P>(f) Route or method of administration or application.
</P>
<P>(g) Preparation for use, i.e., shaking, dilution, adjustment of temperature, or, other manipulation or process.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6908, Feb. 13, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.6" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.6   Drugs; misleading statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Among representations in the labeling of a drug which render such drug misbranded is a false or misleading representation with respect to another drug or a device or a food or cosmetic.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling of a drug which contains two or more ingredients may be misleading by reason, among other reasons, of the designation of such drug in such labeling by a name which includes or suggests the name of one or more but not all such ingredients, even though the names of all such ingredients are stated elsewhere in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6908, Feb. 13, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.10   Drugs; statement of ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ingredient information required by section 502(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall appear together, without any intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, except the proprietary names of ingredients, which may be included with the listing of established names, and such statements that are specifically required for certain ingredients by the act or regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>ingredient</I> applies to any substance in the drug, whether added to the formulation as a single substance or in admixture with other substances.
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of a drug may be misleading by reason (among other reasons) of:
</P>
<P>(1) The order in which the names of the ingredients present in the drug appear in the labeling, or the relative prominence otherwise given such names.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to reveal the proportion of, or other fact with respect to, an ingredient present in such drug, when such proportion or other fact is material in the light of the representation that such ingredient is present in such drug.
</P>
<P>(3) The employment of a fanciful proprietary name for a drug or ingredient in such a manner as to imply that the drug or ingredient has some unique effectiveness or composition when, in fact, the drug or ingredient is a common substance, the limitations of which are readily recognized when the drug or ingredient is listed by its established name.
</P>
<P>(4) The featuring in the labeling of inert or inactive ingredients in a manner that creates an impression of value greater than their true functional role in the formulation.
</P>
<P>(5) Designation of a drug or ingredient by a proprietary name that, because of similarity in spelling or pronunciation, may be confused with the proprietary name or the established name of a different drug or ingredient.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the drug is in tablet or capsule form or other unit dosage form, any statement of the quantity of an ingredient contained therein shall express the quantity of such ingredient in each such unit. If the drug is not in unit dosage form, any statement of the quantity of an ingredient contained therein shall express the amount of such ingredient in a specified unit of weight or measure of the drug, or the percentage of such ingredient in such drug. Such statements shall be in terms that are informative to licensed practitioners, in the case of a prescription drug, and to the layman, in the case of a nonprescription drug.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the percentage of an ingredient in a drug shall, if the term <I>percent</I> is used without qualification, mean percent weight-in-weight, if the ingredient and the drug are both solids, or if the ingredient is a liquid and the drug is a solid; percent weight in volume at 68  °F (20 °C), if the ingredient is a solid and the drug is a liquid; percent volume in volume at 68  °F (20 °C), if both the ingredient and the drug are liquids, except that alcohol shall be stated in terms of percent volume of absolute alcohol at 60  °F (15.56 °C); and percent volume in volume if the ingredient is a designated medical gas (as defined in § 201.161(c)(1)).


</P>
<P>(e) A derivative or preparation of a substance named in section 502(e) of the act is an article derived or prepared from such substance by any method, including actual or theoretical chemical action.
</P>
<P>(f) If an ingredient is a derivative or preparation of a substance specifically named in section 502(e) of the act and the established name of such ingredient does not indicate that it is a derivative or preparation of the parent substance named in section 502(e) of the act, the labeling shall, in conjunction with the listing of the established name of such ingredient, declare that such article is a derivative or preparation of such parent substance.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) If the label or labeling of a prescription drug bears a proprietary name or designation for the drug or any ingredient thereof, the established name, if such there be, corresponding to such proprietary name or designation shall accompany such proprietary name or designation each time it is featured on the label or in the labeling for the drug; but, except as provided in this subparagraph, the established name need not be used with the proprietary name or designation in the running text of the label or labeling. On any label or page of labeling in which the proprietary name or designation is not featured but is used in the running text, the established name shall be used at least once in the running text in association with such proprietary name or designation and in the same type size used in such running text: <I>Provided, however,</I> That if the proprietary name or designation is used in the running text in larger size type, the established name shall be used at least once in association with, and in type at least half as large as the type used for, the most prominent presentation of the proprietary name or designation in such running text. If any labeling includes a column with running text containing detailed information as to composition, prescribing, side effects, or contraindications and the proprietary name or designation is used in such column but is not featured above or below the column, the established name shall be used at least once in such column of running text in association with such proprietary name or designation and in the same type size used in such column of running text: <I>Provided, however,</I> That if the proprietary name or designation is used in such column of running text in larger size type, the established name shall be used at least once in association with, and in type at least half as large as the type used for, the most prominent presentation of the proprietary name or designation in such column of running text. Where the established name is required to accompany or to be used in association with the proprietary name or designation, the established name shall be placed in direct conjunction with the proprietary name or designation, and the relationship between the proprietary name or designation and the established name shall be made clear by use of a phrase such as “brand of” preceding the established name, by brackets surrounding the established name, or by other suitable means.
</P>
<P>(2) The established name shall be printed in letters that are at least half as large as the letters comprising the proprietary name or designation with which it is joined, and the established name shall have a prominence commensurate with the prominence with which such proprietary name or designation appears, taking into account all pertinent factors, including typography, layout, contrast, and other printing features.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) In the case of a prescription drug containing two or more active ingredients, if the label bears a proprietary name or designation for such mixture and there is no established name corresponding to such proprietary name or designation, the quantitative ingredient information required on the label by section 502(e) of the act shall be placed in direct conjunction with the most prominent display of the proprietary name or designation. The prominence of the quantitative ingredient information shall bear a reasonable relationship to the prominence of the proprietary name.
</P>
<P>(2) If the drug is packaged in a container too small to bear the quantitative ingredient information on the main display panel, the quantitative ingredient information required by section 502(e) of the act may appear elsewhere on the label, even though the proprietary name or designation appears on the main display panel of the label; but side- or back-panel placement shall in this case be so arranged and printed as to provide size and prominence of display reasonably related to the size and prominence of the front-panel display.
</P>
<P>(i) A drug packaged in a container too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear the information required for compliance with section 502(e)(1) (A)(ii) and (B) of the act shall be exempt from compliance with those clauses: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The label bears:
</P>
<P>(i) The proprietary name of the drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) The established name, if such there be, of the drug;
</P>
<P>(iii) An identifying lot or control number; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The name of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug; and
</P>
<P>(2) All the information required to appear on the label by the act and the regulations in this chapter appears on the carton or other outer container or wrapper if such carton, outer container, or wrapper has sufficient space to bear such information, or such complete label information appears on a leaflet with the package.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002; 89 FR 51767, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.15" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.15   Drugs; prominence of required label statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A word, statement, or other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label may lack that prominence and conspicuousness required by section 502(c) of the act by reason, among other reasons, of:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on the part or panel of the label which is presented or displayed under customary conditions of purchase;
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on two or more parts or panels of the label, each of which has sufficient space therefor, and each of which is so designed as to render it likely to be, under customary conditions of purchase, the part or panel displayed;
</P>
<P>(3) The failure of the label to extend over the area of the container or package available for such extension, so as to provide sufficient label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information;
</P>
<P>(4) Insufficiency of label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information, resulting from the use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label;
</P>
<P>(5) Insufficiency of label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information, resulting from the use of label space to give materially greater conspicuousness to any other word, statement, or information, or to any design or device; or
</P>
<P>(6) Smallness or style of type in which such word, statement, or information appears, insufficient background contrast, obscuring designs or vignettes, or crowding with other written, printed, or graphic matter.
</P>
<P>(b) No exemption depending on insufficiency of label space, as prescribed in regulations promulgated under section 502 (b) or (e) of the act, shall apply if such insufficiency is caused by:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label;
</P>
<P>(2) The use of label space to give greater conspicuousness to any word, statement, or other information than is required by section 502(c) of the act; or
</P>
<P>(3) The use of label space for any representation in a foreign language.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) All words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear thereon in the English language: <I>Provided, however,</I> That in the case of articles distributed solely in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be substituted for English.
</P>
<P>(2) If the label contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label shall appear thereon in the foreign language.
</P>
<P>(3) If the labeling contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear on the labeling in the foreign language.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6908, Feb. 13, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.16" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.16   Drugs; Spanish-language version of certain required statements.</HEAD>
<P>An increasing number of medications restricted to prescription use only are being labeled solely in Spanish for distribution in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico where Spanish is the predominant language. Such labeling is authorized under § 201.15(c). One required warning, the wording of which is fixed by law in the English language, could be translated in various ways, from literal translation to loose interpretation. The statutory nature of this warning requires that the translation convey the meaning properly to avoid confusion and dilution of the purpose of the warning. Section 503(b)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act requires, at a minimum, that the label bear the statement “Rx only.” The Spanish-language version of this must be “Solamente Rx”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.17" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.17   Drugs; location of expiration date.</HEAD>
<P>When an expiration date of a drug is required, e.g., expiration dating of drug products required by § 211.137 of this chapter, it shall appear on the immediate container and also the outer package, if any, unless it is easily legible through such outer package. However, when single-dose containers are packed in individual cartons, the expiration date may properly appear on the individual carton instead of the immediate product container.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45076, Sept. 29, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.18" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.18   Drugs; significance of control numbers.</HEAD>
<P>The lot number on the label of a drug should be capable of yielding the complete manufacturing history of the package. An incorrect lot number may be regarded as causing the article to be misbranded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.19" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.19   Drugs; use of term “infant”.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations affecting special dietary foods (§ 105.3(e) of this chapter) define an infant as a child not more than 12 months old. Apart from this, the Food and Drug Administration has not established any definition of the term <I>infant.</I> Some question has arisen whether, for the purposes of drug labeling, an infant means a child up to 1 year of age or a child up to 2 years of age. Until the term is more precisely defined by legislation or formal regulation, where the exact meaning of the term is significant, manufacturers should qualify any reference to “infant” to indicate whether it refers to a child who is not more than 1 year of age, or a child not more than 2 years of age.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977; 44 FR 16006, Mar. 16, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.20" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.20   Declaration of presence of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 and/or FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 in certain drugs for human use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label for over-the-counter and prescription drug products intended for human use administered orally, nasally, rectally, or vaginally, or for use in the area of the eye, containing FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 as a color additive using the names FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 and tartrazine. The labeling for over-the-counter and prescription drug products shall bear a statement such as “Contains FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine) as a color additive” or “Contains color additives including FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine)”. The labels of certain drug products subject to this labeling requirement that are also cosmetics, such as antibacterial mouthwashes and fluoride toothpastes, need not comply with this requirement provided they comply with the requirements of § 701.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) For prescription drugs for human use containing FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 that are administered orally, nasally, vaginally, or rectally, or for use in the area of the eye, the labeling required by § 201.100(d) shall bear the warning statement “This product contains FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine) which may cause allergic-type reactions (including bronchial asthma) in certain susceptible persons. Although the overall incidence of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 5 (tartrazine) sensitivity in the general population is low, it is frequently seen in patients who also have aspirin hypersensitivity.” This warning statement shall appear in the “Precautions” section of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(c) The label for over-the-counter drug products intended for human use administered orally, nasally, rectally, or vaginally containing FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall specifically declare the presence of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 by listing the color additive using the name FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6. The labeling for over-the-counter and prescription drug products containing FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6 shall declare the presence of FD&amp;C Yellow No. 6. The labels of certain drug products subject to this labeling requirement that are also cosmetics, such as antibacterial mouthwashes and fluoride toothpastes, need not comply with this requirement provided they comply with the requirements of § 701.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60422, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 41783, Nov. 19, 1986; 52 FR 21509, June 8, 1987; 59 FR 60898, Nov. 29, 1994]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 53 FR 49138, Dec. 6, 1988, § 201.20(c) was suspended pending further agency action.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.21" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.21   Declaration of presence of phenylalanine as a component of aspartame in over-the-counter and prescription drugs for human use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aspartame is the methylester of a dipeptide composed of two amino acids, phenylalanine and aspartic acid. When these two amino acids are so combined to form aspartame (1-methyl <I>N</I>-L-α-aspartyl-L-phenylalanine), they produce an intensely sweet-tasting substance, approximately 180 times as sweet as sucrose. The Food and Drug Administration has determined that aspartame when used at a level no higher than reasonably required to perform its intended technical function is safe for use as an inactive ingredient in human drug products, provided persons with phenylketonuria, who must restrict carefully their phenylalanine intake, are alerted to the presence of phenylalanine in the drug product and the amount of the ingredient in each dosage unit.
</P>
<P>(b) The label and labeling of all over-the-counter human drug products containing aspartame as an inactive ingredient shall bear a statement to the following effect: Phenylketonurics: Contains Phenylalanine (_)mg Per (Dosage Unit).
</P>
<P>(c) The package labeling and other labeling providing professional use information concerning prescription drugs for human use containing aspartame as an inactive ingredient shall bear a statement to the following effect under the “Precautions” section of the labeling, as required in § 201.57(f)(2): Phenylketonurics: Contains Phenylalanine (_)mg Per (Dosage Unit).
</P>
<P>(d) Holders of approved new drug applications who reformulate their drug products under the provisions of this section shall submit supplements under § 314.70 of this chapter to provide for the new composition and the labeling changes.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0242)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2111, Jan. 20, 1987; 52 FR 12152, Apr. 15, 1987; 53 FR 4135, Feb. 12, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.22" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.22   Prescription drugs containing sulfites; required warning statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sulfites are chemical substances that are added to certain drug products to inhibit the oxidation of the active drug ingredient. Oxidation of the active drug ingredient may result in instability and a loss of potency of the drug product. Examples of specific sulfites used to inhibit this oxidation process include sodium bisulfite, sodium metabisulfite, sodium sulfite, potassium bisulfite, and potassium metabisulfite. Recent studies have demonstrated that sulfites may cause allergic-type reactions in certain susceptible persons, especially asthmatics. The labeling for any prescription drug product to which sulfites have been added as an inactive ingredient, regardless of the amount added, must bear the warning specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling required by §§ 201.57 and 201.100(d) for prescription drugs for human use containing a sulfite, except epinephrine for injection when intended for use in allergic or other emergency situations, shall bear the warning statement “Contains (<I>insert the name of the sulfite, e.g., sodium metabisulfite</I>), a sulfite that may cause allergic-type reactions including anaphylactic symptoms and life-threatening or less severe asthmatic episodes in certain susceptible people. The overall prevalence of sulfite sensitivity in the general population is unknown and probably low. Sulfite sensitivity is seen more frequently in asthmatic than in nonasthmatic people.” This statement shall appear in the “Warnings” section of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling required by §§ 201.57 and 201.100(d) for sulfite-containing epinephrine for injection for use in allergic emergency situations shall bear the warning statement “Epinephrine is the preferred treatment for serious allergic or other emergency situations even though this product contains (<I>insert the name of the sulfite, e.g., sodium metabisulfite</I>), a sulfite that may in other products cause allergic-type reactions including anaphylactic symptoms or life-threatening or less severe asthmatic episodes in certain susceptible persons. The alternatives to using epinephrine in a life-threatening situation may not be satisfactory. The presence of a sulfite(s) in this product should not deter administration of the drug for treatment of serious allergic or other emergency situations.” This statement shall appear in the “Warnings” section of the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 43904, Dec. 5, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.23" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.23   Required pediatric studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer of a marketed drug product, including a biological drug product, that is used in a substantial number of pediatric patients, or that provides a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing treatments for pediatric patients, as defined in §§ 314.55(c)(5) and 601.27(c)(5) of this chapter, but whose label does not provide adequate information to support its safe and effective use in pediatric populations for the approved indications may be required to submit an application containing data adequate to assess whether the drug product is safe and effective in pediatric populations. The application may be required to contain adequate evidence to support dosage and administration in some or all pediatric subpopulations, including neonates, infants, children, and adolescents, depending upon the known or appropriate use of the drug product in such subpopulations. The applicant may also be required to develop a pediatric formulation for a drug product that represents a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing therapies for pediatric populations for whom a pediatric formulation is necessary, unless the manufacturer demonstrates that reasonable attempts to produce a pediatric formulation have failed.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) may by order, in the form of a letter, after notifying the manufacturer of its intent to require an assessment of pediatric safety and effectiveness of a pediatric formulation, and after offering an opportunity for a written response and a meeting, which may include an advisory committee meeting, require a manufacturer to submit an application containing the information or request for approval of a pediatric formulation described in paragraph (a) of this section within a time specified in the order, if FDA finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug product is used in a substantial number of pediatric patients for the labeled indications and the absence of adequate labeling could pose significant risks to pediatric patients; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is reason to believe that the drug product would represent a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing treatments for pediatric patients for one or more of the claimed indications, and the absence of adequate labeling could pose significant risks to pediatric patients.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An applicant may request a full waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the applicant certifies that:
</P>
<P>(i) Necessary studies are impossible or highly impractical because, e.g., the number of such patients is so small or geographically dispersed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) There is evidence strongly suggesting that the product would be ineffective or unsafe in all pediatric age groups.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant may request a partial waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to a specified pediatric age group, if the applicant certifies that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product:
</P>
<P>(A) Does not represent a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing therapies for pediatric patients in that age group, and
</P>
<P>(B) Is not likely to be used in a substantial number of patients in that age group, and
</P>
<P>(C) The absence of adequate labeling could not pose significant risks to pediatric patients; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary studies are impossible or highly impractical because, e.g., the number of patients in that age group is so small or geographically dispersed, or
</P>
<P>(iii) There is evidence strongly suggesting that the product would be ineffective or unsafe in that age group, or
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant can demonstrate that reasonable attempts to produce a pediatric formulation necessary for that age group have failed.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA shall grant a full or partial waiver, as appropriate, if the agency finds that there is a reasonable basis on which to conclude that one or more of the grounds for waiver specified in paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section have been met. If a waiver is granted on the ground that it is not possible to develop a pediatric formulation, the waiver will cover only those pediatric age groups requiring that formulation. If a waiver is granted because there is evidence that the product would be ineffective or unsafe in pediatric populations, this information will be included in the product's labeling.
</P>
<P>(d) If a manufacturer fails to submit a supplemental application containing the information or request for approval of a pediatric formulation described in paragraph (a) of this section within the time specified by FDA, the drug product may be considered misbranded or an unapproved new drug or unlicensed biologic.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66668, Dec. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.24" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.24   Labeling for systemic antibacterial drug products.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling of all systemic drug products intended for human use indicated to treat a bacterial infection, except a mycobacterial infection, must bear the following statements:
</P>
<P>(a) At the beginning of the label, under the product name, the labeling must state:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria and maintain the effectiveness of (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) and other antibacterial drugs, (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) should be used only to treat or prevent infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by bacteria.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) In the “Indications and Usage” section, the labeling must state:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria and maintain the effectiveness of (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) and other antibacterial drugs, (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) should be used only to treat or prevent infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by susceptible bacteria. When culture and susceptibility information are available, they should be considered in selecting or modifying antibacterial therapy. In the absence of such data, local epidemiology and susceptibility patterns may contribute to the empiric selection of therapy.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) In the “Precautions” section, under the “General” subsection, the labeling must state:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Prescribing (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) in the absence of a proven or strongly suspected bacterial infection or a prophylactic indication is unlikely to provide benefit to the patient and increases the risk of the development of drug-resistant bacteria.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) In the “Precautions” section, under the “Information for Patients” subsection, the labeling must state:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Patients should be counseled that antibacterial drugs including (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) should only be used to treat bacterial infections. They do not treat viral infections (e.g., the common cold). When (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) is prescribed to treat a bacterial infection, patients should be told that although it is common to feel better early in the course of therapy, the medication should be taken exactly as directed. Skipping doses or not completing the full course of therapy may (1) decrease the effectiveness of the immediate treatment and (2) increase the likelihood that bacteria will develop resistance and will not be treatable by (<I>insert name of antibacterial drug product</I>) or other antibacterial drugs in the future.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 6081, Feb. 6, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.25" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.25   Bar code label requirements.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260305" REFID="8">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 10770, Mar. 5, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Who is subject to these bar code requirements?</I> Manufacturers, repackers, relabelers, and private label distributors of a human prescription drug product or an over-the-counter (OTC) drug product that is regulated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or the Public Health Service Act are subject to these bar code requirements unless they are exempt from the registration and drug listing requirements in section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What drugs are subject to these bar code requirements?</I> The following drug products are subject to the bar code label requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Prescription drug products, however:
</P>
<P>(i) The bar code requirement does not apply to the following entities:
</P>
<P>(A) Prescription drug samples;
</P>
<P>(B) Allergenic extracts;
</P>
<P>(C) Intrauterine contraceptive devices regulated as drugs;
</P>
<P>(D) Medical gases;
</P>
<P>(E) Radiopharmaceuticals; and
</P>
<P>(F) Low-density polyethylene form fill and seal containers that are not packaged with an overwrap.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bar code requirement does not apply to prescription drugs sold by a manufacturer, repacker, relabeler, or private label distributor directly to patients, but versions of the same drug product that are sold to or used in hospitals are subject to the bar code requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Biological products; and
</P>
<P>(3) OTC drug products that are dispensed pursuant to an order and are commonly used in hospitals. For purposes of this section, an OTC drug product is “commonly used in hospitals” if it is packaged for hospital use, labeled for hospital use (or uses similar terms), or marketed, promoted, or sold to hospitals.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>What does the bar code look like? Where does the bar code go?</I> (1) Each drug product described in paragraph (b) of this section must have a bar code that contains, at a minimum, the appropriate National Drug Code (NDC) number in a linear bar code that meets European Article Number/Uniform Code Council (EAN/UCC) or Health Industry Business Communications Council (HIBCC) standards or another standard or format that has been approved by the relevant Food and Drug Administration Center Director.  Additionally, the bar code must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be surrounded by sufficient blank space so that the bar code can be scanned correctly; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Remain intact under normal conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) The bar code must appear on the drug's label as defined by section 201(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Can a drug be exempted from the bar code requirement?</I> (1) On our own initiative, or in response to a written request from a manufacturer, repacker, relabeler or private label distributor, we may exempt a drug product from the bar code label requirements set forth in this section. The exemption request must document why:
</P>
<P>(i) compliance with the bar code requirement would adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, purity or potency of the drug or not be technologically feasible, and the concerns underlying the request could not reasonably be addressed by measures such as package redesign or use of overwraps; or
</P>
<P>(ii) an alternative regulatory program or method of product use renders the bar code unnecessary for patient safety.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for an exemption should be sent to the Office of Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002 (requests involving a drug product or biological product regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research) or to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002 (requests involving a biological product regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 9170, Feb. 26, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 12847, Mar. 9, 2011; 80 FR 18090, Apr. 3, 2015; 81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.26" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.26   Exceptions or alternatives to labeling requirements for human drug products held by the Strategic National Stockpile.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appropriate FDA Center Director may grant an exception or alternative to any provision listed in paragraph (f) of this section and not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of a human drug product, if the Center Director determines that compliance with such labeling requirement could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of such product that is or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.
</P>
<P>(b)(1)(i) A Strategic National Stockpile official or any entity that manufactures (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distributes, or stores a human drug product that is or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile may submit, with written concurrence from a Strategic National Stockpile official, a written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section to the Center Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section on his or her own initiative.
</P>
<P>(2) A written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the specified lots, batches, or other units of the human drug product that would be subject to the exception or alternative;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the labeling provision(s) listed in paragraph (f) of this section that are the subject of the exception or alternative request;
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain why compliance with such labeling provision(s) could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of the specified lots, batches, or other units of a human drug product that are or will be held in the Strategic National Stockpile;
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe any proposed safeguards or conditions that will be implemented so that the labeling of the product includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use of the product;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a draft of the proposed labeling of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the human drug product subject to the exception or alternative; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide any other information requested by the Center Director in support of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) The Center Director must respond in writing to all requests under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A grant of an exception or alternative under this section will include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate by the Center Director so that the labeling of product subject to the exception or alternative includes the information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use.
</P>
<P>(e) If you are a sponsor receiving a grant of a request for an exception or alternative to the labeling requirements under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) You need not submit a supplement under § 314.70(a) through (c) or § 601.12(f)(1) through (f)(2) of this chapter; however,
</P>
<P>(2) You must report any grant of a request for an exception or alternative under this section as part of your annual report under §§ 314.70(d) or 601.12(f)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative under this section to the following provisions of this chapter, to the extent that the requirements in these provisions are not explicitly required by statute:
</P>
<P>(1) § 201.1(h)(1) through (h)(2), (h)(5) through (h)(6), and (i);
</P>
<P>(2) § 201.10(a), (d)(2), (f), (g)(1), and (h)(1);
</P>
<P>(3) § 201.17;
</P>
<P>(4) § 201.18;
</P>
<P>(5) § 201.19;
</P>
<P>(6) § 201.20;
</P>
<P>(7) § 201.21;
</P>
<P>(8) § 201.22;
</P>
<P>(9) § 201.24; and
</P>
<P>(10) § 312.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 73599, Dec. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Labeling Requirements for Prescription Drugs and/or Insulin</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.50" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.50   Statement of identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of prescription and insulin-containing drugs in package form shall bear as one of its principal features a statement of the identity of the drug.
</P>
<P>(b) Such statement of identity shall be in terms of the established name of the drug. In the case of a prescription drug that is a mixture and that has no established name, the requirement for statement of identity shall be deemed to be satisfied by a listing of the quantitative ingredient information as prescribed by § 201.10.
</P>
<P>(c) The statement of identity of a prescription drug shall also comply with the placement, size and prominence requirements of § 201.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 63 FR 26698, May 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.51" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.51   Declaration of net quantity of contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a prescription or insulin-containing drug in package form shall bear a declaration of the net quantity of contents. This shall be expressed in the terms of weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of numerical count and weight or measure. The statement of quantity of drugs in tablet, capsule, ampule, or other unit dosage form shall be expressed in terms of numerical count; the statement of quantity for drugs in other dosage forms shall be in terms of weight if the drug is solid, semi-solid, or viscous, in terms of fluid measure if the drug is liquid, or in terms of volume measure if the drug is a designated medical gas (as defined in § 201.161(c)(1)) or a medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases in a gaseous state. When the drug quantity statement is in terms of the numerical count of the drug units, it shall be augmented to give the weight or measure of the drug units or the quantity of each active ingredient in each drug unit or, when quantity does not accurately reflect drug potency, a statement of the drug potency.
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of weight of the contents shall in the case of prescription drugs be expressed in terms of avoirdupois pound, ounce, and grain or of kilogram, gram, and subdivisions thereof. A statement of liquid measure of the contents shall in the case of prescription drugs other than designated medical gases and medically appropriate combinations thereof be expressed in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, fluid-ounce, and fluid-dram subdivisions thereof, or of the liter and milliliter, or cubic centimeter, and shall express the volume at 68  °F (20 °C). A statement of the liquid measure of the contents in the case of insulin-containing drugs shall be expressed in terms of the liter and milliliter, or cubic centimeter, and shall express the volume at 68  °F (20 °C). A statement of the measure of the contents shall in the case of designated medical gases (as defined in § 201.161(c)(1)) and medically appropriate combinations thereof be expressed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If in a gaseous state in a high-pressure container, it shall be expressed in liters or cubic feet based on the filled pressure at 70  °F (21 °C);
</P>
<P>(2) If in a liquefied compressed gas state in a high-pressure container, it shall be expressed in gaseous liters or by an appropriate net weight statement;
</P>
<P>(3) If in a liquefied state in a portable cryogenic container, it shall be expressed in gaseous liters, liquid liters (if identified as a liquid measure), gallons, or by an appropriate net weight statement at the time of fill; and
</P>
<P>(4) If in a bulk or transport container (as defined in § 201.161(c)(3)), labeling for net quantity of contents is not required.


</P>
<P>(c) The declaration shall contain only such fractions as are generally used in expressing the quantity of the drug. A common fraction shall be reduced to its lowest terms; a decimal fraction shall not be carried out to more than three places, except in the case of a statement of the quantity of an active ingredient in a unit of a drug.
</P>
<P>(d) The declaration shall appear as a distinct item on the label and, in the case of large volume parenterals, may be embossed on the glass.
</P>
<P>(e) The declaration shall accurately reveal the quantity of drug in the package exclusive of wrappers and other material packed therewith.
</P>
<P>(f) A statement of the quantity of a prescription or insulin-containing drug in terms of weight or measure applicable to such drug, under the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, shall express with prominence and conspicuousness the number of the largest whole unit, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, that are contained in the package. Any remainder shall be expressed in terms of common or decimal fractions of such unit or in terms of the next smaller whole unit and common or decimal fractions thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) The declaration of net quantity of contents shall express an accurate statement of the quantity of contents of the package. Reasonable variations caused by loss or gain of moisture during the course of good distribution practice or by unavoidable deviations in good manufacturing practice will be recognized. Variations from stated quantity of contents shall not be unreasonably large. In the case of a liquid drug in ampules or vials, intended for injection, the declaration shall be considered to express the minimum quantity and the variation above the stated measure shall comply with the excess volume prescribed by the National Formulary or the U.S. Pharmacopeia for filling of ampules. In the case of a solid drug in ampules or vials, the declaration shall be considered to express the accurate net weight. Variations shall comply with the limitations provided in the U.S. Pharmacopeia or the National Formulary.
</P>
<P>(h) A drug shall be exempt from compliance with the net quantity declaration required by this section if it is an ointment labeled “sample”, “physician's sample”, or a substantially similar statement and the contents of the package do not exceed 8 grams.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 89 FR 51768, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.55" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.55   Statement of dosage.</HEAD>
<P>Section 201.100(b)(2) requires that labels for prescription drugs bear a statement of the recommended or usual dosage. Since the dosage for some prescription drugs varies within extremely wide limits, depending upon the conditions being treated, it may not be possible in all cases to present an informative or useful statement of the recommended or usual dosage in the space available on the label or carton of the package. It is the view of the Food and Drug Administration that when such a situation prevails, compliance with this requirement would be met by a statement such as “See package insert for dosage information”, where the detailed information is contained in such insert. However, if an informative, realistic, recommended or usual dosage can readily be set forth on the label, it should appear thereon.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.56" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.56   Requirements on content and format of labeling for human prescription drug and biological products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Prescription drug labeling described in § 201.100(d) must meet the following general requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling must contain a summary of the essential scientific information needed for the safe and effective use of the drug.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling must be informative and accurate and neither promotional in tone nor false or misleading in any particular. In accordance with §§ 314.70 and 601.12 of this chapter, the labeling must be updated when new information becomes available that causes the labeling to become inaccurate, false, or misleading.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling must be based whenever possible on data derived from human experience. No implied claims or suggestions of drug use may be made if there is inadequate evidence of safety or a lack of substantial evidence of effectiveness. Conclusions based on animal data but necessary for safe and effective use of the drug in humans must be identified as such and included with human data in the appropriate section of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Categories of prescription drugs subject to the labeling content and format requirements in §§ 201.56(d) and 201.57.</I> (1) The following categories of prescription drug products are subject to the labeling requirements in paragraph (d) of this section and § 201.57 in accordance with the implementation schedule in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Prescription drug products for which a new drug application (NDA), biologics license application (BLA), or efficacy supplement was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) between June 30, 2001 and June 30, 2006;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescription drug products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement is pending on June 30, 2006; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Prescription drug products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement is submitted anytime on or after June 30, 2006.
</P>
<P>(2) Prescription drug products not described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are subject to the labeling requirements in paragraph (e) of this section and § 201.80.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Schedule for implementing the labeling content and format requirements in §§ 201.56(d) and 201.57.</I> For products described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, labeling conforming to the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section and § 201.57 must be submitted according to the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(1) For products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement is submitted for approval on or after June 30, 2006, proposed conforming labeling must be submitted as part of the application.
</P>
<P>(2) For products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement is pending on June 30, 2006, or that has been approved any time from June 30, 2005, up to and including June 30, 2006, a supplement with proposed conforming labeling must be submitted no later than June 30, 2009.
</P>
<P>(3) For products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement has been approved anytime from June 30, 2004, up to and including June 29, 2005, a supplement with proposed conforming labeling must be submitted no later than June 30, 2010.
</P>
<P>(4) For products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement has been approved anytime from June 30, 2003, up to and including June 29, 2004, a supplement with proposed conforming labeling must be submitted no later than June 30, 2011.
</P>
<P>(5) For products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement has been approved anytime from June 30, 2002, up to and including June 29, 2003, a supplement with proposed conforming labeling must be submitted no later than June 30, 2012.
</P>
<P>(6) For products for which an NDA, BLA, or efficacy supplement has been approved anytime from June 30, 2001, up to and including June 29, 2002, a supplement with proposed conforming labeling must be submitted no later than June 30, 2013.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling requirements for new and more recently approved prescription drug products.</I> This paragraph applies only to prescription drug products described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and must be implemented according to the schedule specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Prescription drug labeling described in § 201.100(d) must contain the specific information required under § 201.57(a), (b), and (c) under the following headings and subheadings and in the following order:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Highlights of Prescribing Information
</FP>
<P>Product Names, Other Required Information
</P>
<P>Boxed Warning
</P>
<P>Recent Major Changes
</P>
<P>Indications and Usage
</P>
<P>Dosage and Administration
</P>
<P>Dosage Forms and Strengths
</P>
<P>Contraindications
</P>
<P>Warnings and Precautions
</P>
<P>Adverse Reactions
</P>
<P>Drug Interactions
</P>
<P>Use in Specific Populations
</P>
<FP>Full Prescribing Information: Contents
</FP>
<FP>Full Prescribing Information
</FP>
<P>Boxed Warning
</P>
<P>1 Indications and Usage
</P>
<P>2 Dosage and Administration
</P>
<P>3 Dosage Forms and Strengths
</P>
<P>4 Contraindications
</P>
<P>5 Warnings and Precautions
</P>
<P>6 Adverse Reactions
</P>
<P>7 Drug Interactions
</P>
<P>8 Use in Specific Populations
</P>
<P> 8.1 Pregnancy
</P>
<P> 8.2 Lactation 
</P>
<P> 8.3 Females and Males of Reproductive Potential 
</P>
<P> 8.4 Pediatric use
</P>
<P> 8.5 Geriatric use
</P>
<P>9 Drug Abuse and Dependence
</P>
<P> 9.1 Controlled substance
</P>
<P> 9.2 Abuse
</P>
<P> 9.3 Dependence 
</P>
<P>10 Overdosage
</P>
<P>11 Description
</P>
<P>12 Clinical Pharmacology
</P>
<P> 12.1 Mechanism of action
</P>
<P> 12.2 Pharmacodynamics
</P>
<P> 12.3 Pharmacokinetics
</P>
<P>13 Nonclinical Toxicology
</P>
<P> 13.1 Carcinogenesis, mutagenesis, impairment of fertility
</P>
<P> 13.2 Animal toxicology and/or pharmacology
</P>
<P>14 Clinical Studies
</P>
<P>15 References
</P>
<P>16 How Supplied/Storage and Handling
</P>
<P>17 Patient Counseling Information</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Additional nonstandard subheadings that are used to enhance labeling organization, presentation, or ease of use (e.g., for individual warnings or precautions, or for each drug interaction) must be assigned a decimal number that corresponds to their placement in labeling. The decimal numbers must be consistent with the standardized identifying numbers listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section (e.g., subheadings added to the “Warnings and Precautions” section must be numbered 5.1, 5.2, and so on).
</P>
<P>(3) Any reference in Highlights to information appearing in the full prescribing information must be accompanied by the identifying number (in parentheses) corresponding to the location of the information in the full prescribing information.
</P>
<P>(4) Omit clearly inapplicable sections, subsections, or specific information. If sections or subsections required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section are omitted from the full prescribing information, the heading “Full Prescribing Information: Contents” must be followed by an asterisk and the following statement must appear at the end of Contents: “* Sections or subsections omitted from the full prescribing information are not listed.”
</P>
<P>(5) Any risk information that is required under § 201.57(c)(9)(iv) is considered “appropriate pediatric contraindications, warnings, or precautions” within the meaning of section 505A(l)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 355A(l)(2)), whether such information appears in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings and Precautions,” or “Use in Specific Populations” section of labeling.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Labeling requirements for older prescription drug products.</I> This paragraph applies only to approved prescription drug products not described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Prescription drug labeling described in § 201.100(d) must contain the specific information required under § 201.80 under the following section headings and in the following order:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Description
</P>
<P>Clinical Pharmacology
</P>
<P>Indications and Usage
</P>
<P>Contraindications
</P>
<P>Warnings
</P>
<P>Precautions
</P>
<P>Adverse Reactions
</P>
<P>Drug Abuse and Dependence
</P>
<P>Overdosage
</P>
<P>Dosage and Administration
</P>
<P>How Supplied</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The labeling may contain the following additional section headings if appropriate and if in compliance with § 201.80(l) and (m):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Animal Pharmacology and/or Animal Toxicology
</P>
<P>Clinical Studies
</P>
<P>References</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Omit clearly inapplicable sections, subsections, or specific information.
</P>
<P>(4) The labeling may contain a “Product Title” section preceding the “Description” section and containing only the information required by § 201.80(a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(ii), (a)(1)(iii), and (a)(1)(iv) and § 201.100(e). The information required by § 201.80(a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) must appear in the “Description” section of the labeling, whether or not it also appears in a “Product Title.”
</P>
<P>(5) The labeling must contain the date of the most recent revision of the labeling, identified as such, placed prominently immediately after the last section of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(6) The requirement in § 201.80(f)(2) to reprint any FDA-approved patient labeling at the end of prescription drug labeling or accompany the prescription drug labeling must be implemented no later than June 30, 2007.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 3986, Jan. 24, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 72101, Dec. 4, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.57" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.57   Specific requirements on content and format of labeling for human prescription drug and biological products described in § 201.56(b)(1).</HEAD>
<P>The requirements in this section apply only to prescription drug products described in § 201.56(b)(1) and must be implemented according to the schedule specified in § 201.56(c), except for the requirement in paragraph (c)(18) of this section to reprint any FDA-approved patient labeling at the end of prescription drug labeling or accompany the prescription drug labeling, which must be implemented no later than June 30, 2007.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Highlights of prescribing information.</I> The following information must appear in all prescription drug labeling:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Highlights limitation statement.</I> The verbatim statement “These highlights do not include all the information needed to use (<I>insert name of drug product</I>) safely and effectively. See full prescribing information for (insert name of drug product).”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drug names, dosage form, route of administration, and controlled substance symbol.</I> The proprietary name and the established name of the drug, if any, as defined in section 502(e)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or, for biological products, the proper name (as defined in § 600.3 of this chapter) including any appropriate descriptors. This information must be followed by the drug's dosage form and route of administration. For controlled substances, the controlled substance symbol designating the schedule in which the controlled substance is listed must be included as required by § 1302.04 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial U.S. approval.</I> The verbatim statement “Initial U.S. Approval” followed by the four-digit year in which FDA initially approved a new molecular entity, new biological product, or new combination of active ingredients. The statement must be placed on the line immediately beneath the established name or, for biological products, proper name of the product.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Boxed warning.</I> A concise summary of any boxed warning required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, not to exceed a length of 20 lines. The summary must be preceded by a heading, in upper-case letters, containing the word “WARNING” and other words that are appropriate to identify the subject of the warning. The heading and the summary must be contained within a box and bolded. The following verbatim statement must be placed immediately following the heading of the boxed warning: “See full prescribing information for complete boxed warning.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Recent major changes.</I> A list of the section(s) of the full prescribing information, limited to the labeling sections described in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(3), (c)(5), and (c)(6) of this section, that contain(s) substantive labeling changes that have been approved by FDA or authorized under § 314.70(c)(6) or (d)(2), or § 601.12(f)(1) through (f)(3) of this chapter. The heading(s) and, if appropriate, the subheading(s) of the labeling section(s) affected by the change must be listed together with each section's identifying number and the date (month/year) on which the change was incorporated in labeling. These labeling sections must be listed in the order in which they appear in the full prescribing information. A changed section must be listed under this heading in Highlights for at least 1 year after the date of the labeling change and must be removed at the first printing subsequent to the 1 year period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Indications and usage.</I> A concise statement of each of the product's indications, as required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, with any appropriate subheadings. Major limitations of use (e.g., lack of effect in particular subsets of the population, or second line therapy status) must be briefly noted. If the product is a member of an established pharmacologic class, the concise statement under this heading in Highlights must identify the class in the following manner: “(Drug) is a (name of class) indicated for (indication(s)).”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Dosage and administration.</I> A concise summary of the information required under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, with any appropriate subheadings, including the recommended dosage regimen, starting dose, dose range, critical differences among population subsets, monitoring recommendations, and other clinically significant clinical pharmacologic information.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Dosage forms and strengths.</I> A concise summary of the information required under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, with any appropriate subheadings (e.g., tablets, capsules, injectable, suspension), including the strength or potency of the dosage form in metric system (e.g., 10-milligram tablets) and whether the product is scored.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Contraindications.</I> A concise statement of each of the product's contraindications, as required under paragraph (c)(5) of this section, with any appropriate subheadings.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Warnings and precautions.</I> A concise summary of the most clinically significant information required under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, with any appropriate subheadings, including information that would affect decisions about whether to prescribe a drug, recommendations for patient monitoring that are critical to safe use of the drug, and measures that can be taken to prevent or mitigate harm.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Adverse reactions.</I> (i) A list of the most frequently occurring adverse reactions, as described in paragraph (c)(7) of this section, along with the criteria used to determine inclusion (e.g., incidence rate). Adverse reactions important for other reasons (e.g., because they are serious or frequently lead to discontinuation or dosage adjustment) must not be repeated under this heading in Highlights if they are included elsewhere in Highlights (e.g., Warnings and Precautions, Contraindications).
</P>
<P>(ii) For drug products other than vaccines, the verbatim statement “To report SUSPECTED ADVERSE REACTIONS, contact (<I>insert name of manufacturer</I>) at (<I>insert manufacturer's phone number</I>) or FDA at (<I>insert current FDA phone number and Web address for voluntary reporting of adverse reactions</I>).”
</P>
<P>(iii) For vaccines, the verbatim statement “To report SUSPECTED ADVERSE REACTIONS, contact (<I>insert name of manufacturer</I>) at (<I>insert manufacturer's phone number</I>) or VAERS at (<I>insert the current VAERS phone number and Web address for voluntary reporting of adverse reactions</I>).”
</P>
<P>(iv) For manufacturers with a Web site for voluntary reporting of adverse reactions, the Web address of the direct link to the site.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Drug interactions.</I> A concise summary of the information required under paragraph (c)(8) of this section, with any appropriate subheadings.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Use in specific populations.</I> A concise summary of the information required under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, with any appropriate subheadings.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Patient counseling information statement.</I> The verbatim statement “See 17 for Patient Counseling Information” or, if the product has FDA-approved patient labeling, the verbatim statement “See 17 for Patient Counseling Information and (insert either FDA-approved patient labeling or Medication Guide).”
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Revision date.</I> The date of the most recent revision of the labeling, identified as such, placed at the end of Highlights.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full prescribing information: Contents.</I> Contents must contain a list of each heading and subheading required in the full prescribing information under § 201.56(d)(1), if not omitted under § 201.56(d)(4), preceded by the identifying number required under § 201.56(d)(1). Contents must also contain any additional subheading(s) included in the full prescribing information preceded by the identifying number assigned in accordance with § 201.56(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Full prescribing information.</I> The full prescribing information must contain the information in the order required under paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(18) of this section, together with the headings, subheadings, and identifying numbers required under § 201.56(d)(1), unless omitted under § 201.56(d)(4). If additional subheadings are used within a labeling section, they must be preceded by the identifying number assigned in accordance with § 201.56(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Boxed warning.</I> Certain contraindications or serious warnings, particularly those that may lead to death or serious injury, may be required by the FDA to be presented in a box. The boxed warning ordinarily must be based on clinical data, but serious animal toxicity may also be the basis of a boxed warning in the absence of clinical data. The box must contain, in uppercase letters, a heading inside the box that includes the word “WARNING” and conveys the general focus of the information in the box. The box must briefly explain the risk and refer to more detailed information in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings and Precautions” section, accompanied by the identifying number for the section or subsection containing the detailed information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>1 Indications and usage.</I> This section must state that the drug is indicated for the treatment, prevention, mitigation, cure, or diagnosis of a recognized disease or condition, or of a manifestation of a recognized disease or condition, or for the relief of symptoms associated with a recognized disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(i) This section must include the following information when the conditions listed are applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) If the drug is used for an indication only in conjunction with a primary mode of therapy (e.g., diet, surgery, behavior changes, or some other drug), a statement that the drug is indicated as an adjunct to that mode of therapy.
</P>
<P>(B) If evidence is available to support the safety and effectiveness of the drug or biological product only in selected subgroups of the larger population (e.g., patients with mild disease or patients in a special age group), or if the indication is approved based on a surrogate endpoint under § 314.510 or § 601.41 of this chapter, a succinct description of the limitations of usefulness of the drug and any uncertainty about anticipated clinical benefits, with reference to the “Clinical Studies” section for a discussion of the available evidence.
</P>
<P>(C) If specific tests are necessary for selection or monitoring of the patients who need the drug (e.g., microbe susceptibility tests), the identity of such tests.
</P>
<P>(D) If information on limitations of use or uncertainty about anticipated clinical benefits is relevant to the recommended intervals between doses, to the appropriate duration of treatment when such treatment should be limited, or to any modification of dosage, a concise description of the information with reference to the more detailed information in the “Dosage and Administration” section.
</P>
<P>(E) If safety considerations are such that the drug should be reserved for specific situations (e.g., cases refractory to other drugs), a statement of the information.
</P>
<P>(F) If there are specific conditions that should be met before the drug is used on a long term basis (e.g., demonstration of responsiveness to the drug in a short term trial in a given patient), a statement of the conditions; or, if the indications for long term use are different from those for short term use, a statement of the specific indications for each use.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a common belief that the drug may be effective for a certain use or if there is a common use of the drug for a condition, but the preponderance of evidence related to the use or condition shows that the drug is ineffective or that the therapeutic benefits of the product do not generally outweigh its risks, FDA may require that this section state that there is a lack of evidence that the drug is effective or safe for that use or condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any statements comparing the safety or effectiveness of the drug with other agents for the same indication must, except for biological products, be supported by substantial evidence derived from adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter unless this requirement is waived under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter. For biological products, such statements must be supported by substantial evidence.
</P>
<P>(iv) For drug products other than biological products, all indications listed in this section must be supported by substantial evidence of effectiveness based on adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter unless the requirement is waived under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter. Indications or uses must not be implied or suggested in other sections of the labeling if not included in this section.
</P>
<P>(v) For biological products, all indications listed in this section must be supported by substantial evidence of effectiveness. Indications or uses must not be implied or suggested in other sections of the labeling if not included in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>2 Dosage and administration.</I> (i) This section must state the recommended dose and, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) The dosage range,
</P>
<P>(B) An upper limit beyond which safety and effectiveness have not been established, or beyond which increasing the dose does not result in increasing effectiveness,
</P>
<P>(C) Dosages for each indication and subpopulation,
</P>
<P>(D) The intervals recommended between doses,
</P>
<P>(E) The optimal method of titrating dosage,
</P>
<P>(F) The usual duration of treatment when treatment duration should be limited,
</P>
<P>(G) Dosing recommendations based on clinical pharmacologic data (e.g., clinically significant food effects),
</P>
<P>(H) Modification of dosage needed because of drug interactions or in special patient populations (e.g., in children, in geriatric age groups, in groups defined by genetic characteristics, or in patients with renal or hepatic disease),
</P>
<P>(I) Important considerations concerning compliance with the dosage regimen,
</P>
<P>(J) Efficacious or toxic concentration ranges and therapeutic concentration windows of the drug or its metabolites, if established and clinically significant. Information on therapeutic drug concentration monitoring (TDM) must also be included in this section when TDM is necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dosing regimens must not be implied or suggested in other sections of the labeling if not included in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Radiation dosimetry information must be stated for both the patient receiving a radioactive drug and the person administering it.
</P>
<P>(iv) This section must also contain specific direction on dilution, preparation (including the strength of the final dosage solution, when prepared according to instructions, in terms of milligrams of active ingredient per milliliter of reconstituted solution, unless another measure of the strength is more appropriate), and administration of the dosage form, if needed (e.g., the rate of administration of parenteral drug in milligrams per minute; storage conditions for stability of the reconstituted drug, when important; essential information on drug incompatibilities if the drug is mixed in vitro with other drugs or diluents; and the following verbatim statement for parenterals: “Parenteral drug products should be inspected visually for particulate matter and discoloration prior to administration, whenever solution and container permit.”)
</P>
<P>(4) <I>3 Dosage forms and strengths.</I> This section must contain information on the available dosage forms to which the labeling applies and for which the manufacturer or distributor is responsible, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The strength or potency of the dosage form in metric system (e.g., 10 milligram tablets), and, if the apothecary system is used, a statement of the strength in parentheses after the metric designation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the identifying characteristics of the dosage forms, including shape, color, coating, scoring, and imprinting, when applicable. The National Drug Code number(s) for the drug product must not be included in this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>4 Contraindications.</I> This section must describe any situations in which the drug should not be used because the risk of use (e.g., certain potentially fatal adverse reactions) clearly outweighs any possible therapeutic benefit. Those situations include use of the drug in patients who, because of their particular age, sex, concomitant therapy, disease state, or other condition, have a substantial risk of being harmed by the drug and for whom no potential benefit makes the risk acceptable. Known hazards and not theoretical possibilities must be listed (e.g., if severe hypersensitivity to the drug has not been demonstrated, it should not be listed as a contraindication). If no contraindications are known, this section must state “None.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>5 Warnings and precautions.</I> (i) <I>General.</I> This section must describe clinically significant adverse reactions (including any that are potentially fatal, are serious even if infrequent, or can be prevented or mitigated through appropriate use of the drug), other potential safety hazards (including those that are expected for the pharmacological class or those resulting from drug/drug interactions), limitations in use imposed by them (e.g., avoiding certain concomitant therapy), and steps that should be taken if they occur (e.g., dosage modification). The frequency of all clinically significant adverse reactions and the approximate mortality and morbidity rates for patients experiencing the reaction, if known and necessary for the safe and effective use of the drug, must be expressed as provided under paragraph (c)(7) of this section. In accordance with §§ 314.70 and 601.12 of this chapter, the labeling must be revised to include a warning about a clinically significant hazard as soon as there is reasonable evidence of a causal association with a drug; a causal relationship need not have been definitely established. A specific warning relating to a use not provided for under the “Indications and Usage” section may be required by FDA in accordance with sections 201(n) and 502(a) of the act if the drug is commonly prescribed for a disease or condition and such usage is associated with a clinically significant risk or hazard.
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<P>(ii) <I>Other special care precautions.</I> This section must contain information regarding any special care to be exercised by the practitioner for safe and effective use of the drug (e.g., precautions not required under any other specific section or subsection).
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<P>(iii) <I>Monitoring: Laboratory tests.</I> This section must identify any laboratory tests helpful in following the patient's response or in identifying possible adverse reactions. If appropriate, information must be provided on such factors as the range of normal and abnormal values expected in the particular situation and the recommended frequency with which tests should be performed before, during, and after therapy.
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<P>(iv) <I>Interference with laboratory tests.</I> This section must briefly note information on any known interference by the product with laboratory tests and reference the section where the detailed information is presented (e.g., “Drug Interactions” section).
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<P>(7) <I>6 Adverse reactions.</I> This section must describe the overall adverse reaction profile of the drug based on the entire safety database. For purposes of prescription drug labeling, an adverse reaction is an undesirable effect, reasonably associated with use of a drug, that may occur as part of the pharmacological action of the drug or may be unpredictable in its occurrence. This definition does not include all adverse events observed during use of a drug, only those adverse events for which there is some basis to believe there is a causal relationship between the drug and the occurrence of the adverse event.
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<P>(i) <I>Listing of adverse reactions.</I> This section must list the adverse reactions that occur with the drug and with drugs in the same pharmacologically active and chemically related class, if applicable. The list or lists must be preceded by the information necessary to interpret the adverse reactions (e.g., for clinical trials, total number exposed, extent and nature of exposure).
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<P>(ii) <I>Categorization of adverse reactions.</I> Within a listing, adverse reactions must be categorized by body system, by severity of the reaction, or in order of decreasing frequency, or by a combination of these, as appropriate. Within a category, adverse reactions must be listed in decreasing order of frequency. If frequency information cannot be reliably determined, adverse reactions must be listed in decreasing order of severity.
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<P>(A) <I>Clinical trials experience.</I> This section must list the adverse reactions identified in clinical trials that occurred at or above a specified rate appropriate to the safety database. The rate of occurrence of an adverse reaction for the drug and comparators (e.g., placebo) must be presented, unless such data cannot be determined or presentation of comparator rates would be misleading. If adverse reactions that occurred below the specified rate are included, they must be included in a separate listing. If comparative rates of occurrence cannot be reliably determined (e.g., adverse reactions were observed only in the uncontrolled trial portion of the overall safety database), adverse reactions must be grouped within specified frequency ranges as appropriate to the safety database for the drug (e.g., adverse reactions occurring at a rate of less than 1/100, adverse reactions occurring at a rate of less than 1/500) or descriptively identified, if frequency ranges cannot be determined. For adverse reactions with significant clinical implications, the listings must be supplemented with additional detail about the nature, frequency, and severity of the adverse reaction and the relationship of the adverse reaction to drug dose and demographic characteristics, if data are available and important.
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<P>(B) <I>Postmarketing experience.</I> This section of the labeling must list the adverse reactions, as defined in paragraph (c)(7) of this section, that are identified from domestic and foreign spontaneous reports. This listing must be separate from the listing of adverse reactions identified in clinical trials.
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<P>(iii) <I>Comparisons of adverse reactions between drugs.</I> For drug products other than biological products, any claim comparing the drug to which the labeling applies with other drugs in terms of frequency, severity, or character of adverse reactions must be based on adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter unless this requirement is waived under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter. For biological products, any such claim must be based on substantial evidence.
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<P>(8) <I>7 Drug interactions.</I> (i) This section must contain a description of clinically significant interactions, either observed or predicted, with other prescription or over-the-counter drugs, classes of drugs, or foods (e.g., dietary supplements, grapefruit juice), and specific practical instructions for preventing or managing them. The mechanism(s) of the interaction, if known, must be briefly described. Interactions that are described in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings and Precautions” sections must be discussed in more detail under this section. Details of drug interaction pharmacokinetic studies that are included in the “Clinical Pharmacology” section that are pertinent to clinical use of the drug must not be repeated in this section.
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<P>(ii) This section must also contain practical guidance on known interference of the drug with laboratory tests.
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<P>(9) <I>8 Use in specific populations.</I> This section must contain the following subsections:




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<P>(i) <I>8.1 Pregnancy.</I> This subsection of the labeling must contain the following information in the following order under the subheadings “Pregnancy Exposure Registry,” “Risk Summary,” “Clinical Considerations,” and “Data”:
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<P>(A) <I>Pregnancy exposure registry.</I> If there is a scientifically acceptable pregnancy exposure registry for the drug, contact information needed to enroll in the registry or to obtain information about the registry must be provided following the statement: “There is a pregnancy exposure registry that monitors pregnancy outcomes in women exposed to (<I>name of drug</I>) during pregnancy.”
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<P>(B) <I>Risk summary.</I> The Risk Summary must contain risk statement(s) based on data from all relevant sources (human, animal, and/or pharmacologic) that describe, for the drug, the risk of adverse developmental outcomes (<I>i.e.,</I> structural abnormalities, embryo-fetal and/or infant mortality, functional impairment, alterations to growth). When multiple data sources are available, the statements must be presented in the following order: Human, animal, pharmacologic. The source(s) of the data must be stated. The labeling must state the percentage range of live births in the United States with a major birth defect and the percentage range of pregnancies in the United States that end in miscarriage, regardless of drug exposure. If such information is available for the population(s) for which the drug is labeled, it must also be included. When use of a drug is contraindicated during pregnancy, this information must be stated first in the Risk Summary. When applicable, risk statements as described in paragraphs (c)(9)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section must include a cross-reference to additional details in the relevant portion of the “Data” subheading in the “Pregnancy” subsection of the labeling. If data demonstrate that a drug is not systemically absorbed following a particular route of administration, the Risk Summary must contain only the following statement: “(<I>Name of drug</I>) is not absorbed systemically following (route of administration), and maternal use is not expected to result in fetal exposure to the drug.”
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Risk statement based on human data.</I> When human data are available that establish the presence or absence of any adverse developmental outcome(s) associated with maternal use of the drug, the Risk Summary must summarize the specific developmental outcome(s); their incidence; and the effects of dose, duration of exposure, and gestational timing of exposure. If human data indicate that there is an increased risk for a specific adverse developmental outcome in infants born to women exposed to the drug during pregnancy, this risk must be quantitatively compared to the risk for the same outcome in infants born to women who were not exposed to the drug but who have the disease or condition for which the drug is indicated to be used. When risk information is not available for women with the disease or condition for which the drug is indicated, the risk for the specific outcome must be compared to the rate at which the outcome occurs in the general population. The Risk Summary must state when there are no human data or when available human data do not establish the presence or absence of drug-associated risk.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Risk statement based on animal data.</I> When animal data are available, the Risk Summary must summarize the findings in animals and based on these findings, describe, for the drug, the potential risk of any adverse developmental outcome(s) in humans. This statement must include: The number and type(s) of species affected, timing of exposure, animal doses expressed in terms of human dose or exposure equivalents, and outcomes for pregnant animals and offspring. When animal studies do not meet current standards for nonclinical developmental toxicity studies, the Risk Summary must so state. When there are no animal data, the Risk Summary must so state.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Risk statement based on pharmacology.</I> When the drug has a well-understood mechanism of action that may result in adverse developmental outcome(s), the Risk Summary must explain the mechanism of action and the potential associated risks.
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<P>(C) <I>Clinical considerations.</I> Under the subheading “Clinical Considerations,” the labeling must provide relevant information, to the extent it is available, under the headings “Disease-associated maternal and/or embryo/fetal risk,” “Dose adjustments during pregnancy and the postpartum period,” “Maternal adverse reactions,” “Fetal/Neonatal adverse reactions,” and “Labor or delivery”:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Disease-associated maternal and/or embryo/fetal risk.</I> If there is a serious known or potential risk to the pregnant woman and/or the embryo/fetus associated with the disease or condition for which the drug is indicated to be used, the labeling must describe the risk.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Dose adjustments during pregnancy and the postpartum period.</I> If there are pharmacokinetic data that support dose adjustment(s) during pregnancy and the postpartum period, a summary of this information must be provided.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Maternal adverse reactions.</I> If use of the drug is associated with a maternal adverse reaction that is unique to pregnancy or if a known adverse reaction occurs with increased frequency or severity in pregnant women, the labeling must describe the adverse reaction and available intervention(s) for monitoring or mitigating the reaction. The labeling must describe, if known, the effect of dose, timing, and duration of exposure on the risk to the pregnant woman of experiencing the adverse reaction.
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<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Fetal/Neonatal adverse reactions.</I> If it is known or anticipated that treatment of the pregnant woman increases or may increase the risk of an adverse reaction in the fetus or neonate, the labeling must describe the adverse reaction, the potential severity and reversibility of the adverse reaction, and available intervention(s) for monitoring or mitigating the reaction. The labeling must describe, if known, the effect of dose, timing, and duration of exposure on the risk.
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<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Labor or delivery.</I> If the drug is expected to affect labor or delivery, the labeling must provide information about the effect of the drug on the pregnant woman and the fetus or neonate; the effect of the drug on the duration of labor and delivery; any increased risk of adverse reactions, including their potential severity and reversibility; and must provide information about available intervention(s) that can mitigate these effects and/or adverse reactions. The information described under this heading is not required for drugs approved for use only during labor and delivery.
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<P>(D) <I>Data</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>“Data” subheading.</I> Under the subheading “Data,” the labeling must describe the data that are the basis for the Risk Summary and Clinical Considerations.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Human and animal data headings.</I> Human and animal data must be presented separately, beneath the headings “Human Data” and “Animal Data,” and human data must be presented first.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Description of human data.</I> For human data, the labeling must describe adverse developmental outcomes, adverse reactions, and other adverse effects. To the extent applicable, the labeling must describe the types of studies or reports, number of subjects and the duration of each study, exposure information, and limitations of the data. Both positive and negative study findings must be included.
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<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Description of animal data.</I> For animal data, the labeling must describe the following: Types of studies, animal species, dose, duration and timing of exposure, study findings, presence or absence of maternal toxicity, and limitations of the data. Description of maternal and offspring findings must include dose-response and severity of adverse developmental outcomes. Animal doses or exposures must be described in terms of human dose or exposure equivalents and the basis for those calculations must be included.
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<P>(ii) <I>8.2 Lactation.</I> This subsection of the labeling must contain the following information in the following order under the subheadings “Risk Summary,” “Clinical Considerations,” and “Data”:
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<P>(A) <I>Risk summary.</I> When relevant human and/or animal lactation data are available, the Risk Summary must include a cross-reference to the “Data” subheading in the “Lactation” subsection of the labeling. When human data are available, animal data must not be included unless the animal model is specifically known to be predictive for humans. When use of a drug is contraindicated during breastfeeding, this information must be stated first in the Risk Summary.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Drug not absorbed systemically.</I> If data demonstrate that the drug is not systemically absorbed by the mother, the Risk Summary must contain only the following statement: “(<I>Name of drug</I>) is not absorbed systemically by the mother following (route of administration), and breastfeeding is not expected to result in exposure of the child to (<I>name of drug</I>).”
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Drug absorbed systemically.</I> If the drug is absorbed systemically, the Risk Summary must describe the following to the extent relevant information is available:
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<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Presence of drug in human milk.</I> The Risk Summary must state whether the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) are present in human milk. If there are no data to assess this, the Risk Summary must so state. If studies demonstrate that the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) <I>are</I> not detectable in human milk, the Risk Summary must state the limits of the assay used. If studies demonstrate the presence of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) in human milk, the Risk Summary must state the concentration of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) in human milk and the actual or estimated daily dose for an infant fed exclusively with human milk. The actual or estimated amount of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) ingested by the infant must be compared to the labeled infant or pediatric dose, if available, or to the maternal dose. If studies demonstrate the presence of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) in human milk but the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) are not expected to be systemically bioavailable to the breast-fed child, the Risk Summary must describe the disposition of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s). If only animal lactation data are available, the Risk Summary must state only whether or not the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) were detected in animal milk and specify the animal species.
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Effects of drug on the breast-fed child.</I> The Risk Summary must include information, on the known or predicted effects on the child from exposure to the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) through human milk or from contact with breast or nipple skin (for topical products). The Risk Summary also must include information on systemic and/or local adverse reactions. If there are no data to assess the effects of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) on the breast-fed child, the Risk Summary must so state.
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<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Effects of drug on milk production.</I> The Risk Summary must describe the effects of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) on milk production. If there are no data to assess the effects of the drug and/or its active metabolite(s) on milk production, the Risk Summary must so state.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Risk and benefit statement.</I> For drugs absorbed systemically, unless breastfeeding is contraindicated during drug therapy, the following risk and benefit statement must appear at the end of the Risk Summary: “The developmental and health benefits of breastfeeding should be considered along with the mother's clinical need for (<I>name of drug</I>) and any potential adverse effects on the breast-fed child from (<I>name of drug</I>) or from the underlying maternal condition.”
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<P>(B) <I>Clinical considerations.</I> Under “Clinical Considerations,” the following information must be provided to the extent it is available and relevant:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Minimizing exposure.</I> The labeling must describe ways to minimize exposure in the breast-fed child if: The drug and/or its active metabolite(s) are present in human milk in clinically relevant concentrations; the drug does not have an established safety profile in infants; and the drug is used either intermittently, in single doses, or for short courses of therapy. When applicable, the labeling must also describe ways to minimize a breast-fed child's oral intake of topical drugs applied to the breast or nipple skin.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Monitoring for adverse reactions.</I> The labeling must describe available intervention(s) for monitoring or mitigating the adverse reaction(s) presented in the Risk Summary.
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<P>(C) <I>Data.</I> Under the subheading “Data,” the labeling must describe the data that are the basis for the Risk Summary and Clinical Considerations.
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<P>(iii) <I>8.3 Females and males of reproductive potential.</I> When pregnancy testing and/or contraception are required or recommended before, during, or after drug therapy and/or when there are human and/or animal data that suggest drug-associated fertility effects, this subsection of labeling must contain this information under the subheadings “Pregnancy Testing,” “Contraception,” and “Infertility,” in that order.


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<P>(iv) <I>8.4 Pediatric use.</I> (A) Pediatric population(s)/pediatric patient(s): For the purposes of paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(B) through (c)(9)(iv)(H) of this section, the terms <I>pediatric population(s)</I> and <I>pediatric patient(s)</I> are defined as the pediatric age group, from birth to 16 years, including age groups often called neonates, infants, children, and adolescents.
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<P>(B) If there is a specific pediatric indication different from those approved for adults that is supported by adequate and well-controlled studies in the pediatric population, it must be described under the “Indications and Usage” section, and appropriate pediatric dosage information must be given under the “Dosage and Administration” section. The “Pediatric use” subsection must cite any limitations on the pediatric indication, need for specific monitoring, specific hazards associated with use of the drug in any subsets of the pediatric population (e.g., neonates), differences between pediatric and adult responses to the drug, and other information related to the safe and effective pediatric use of the drug. Data summarized in this subsection should be discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under the “Clinical Pharmacology” or “Clinical Studies” section. As appropriate, this information must also be contained in the “Contraindications” and/or “Warnings and Precautions” section(s).
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<P>(C) If there are specific statements on pediatric use of the drug for an indication also approved for adults that are based on adequate and well-controlled studies in the pediatric population, they must be summarized in the “Pediatric use” subsection and discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under the “Clinical Pharmacology” and “Clinical Studies” sections. Appropriate pediatric dosage must be given under the “Dosage and Administration” section. The “Pediatric use” subsection of the labeling must also cite any limitations on the pediatric use statement, need for specific monitoring, specific hazards associated with use of the drug in any subsets of the pediatric population (e.g., neonates), differences between pediatric and adult responses to the drug, and other information related to the safe and effective pediatric use of the drug. As appropriate, this information must also be contained in the “Contraindications” and/or “Warnings and Precautions” section(s).
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<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) When a drug is approved for pediatric use based on adequate and well-controlled studies in adults with other information supporting pediatric use, the “Pediatric use” subsection of the labeling must contain either the following statement or a reasonable alternative:
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<EXTRACT>
<P>The safety and effectiveness of (<I>drug name</I>) have been established in the age groups ___ to ___ (note any limitations, e.g., no data for pediatric patients under 2, or only applicable to certain indications approved in adults). Use of (<I>drug name</I>) in these age groups is supported by evidence from adequate and well-controlled studies of (<I>drug name</I>) in adults with additional data (<I>insert wording that accurately describes the data submitted to support a finding of substantial evidence of effectiveness in the pediatric population</I>).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Data summarized in the preceding prescribed statement in this subsection must be discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under the “Clinical Pharmacology” or the “Clinical Studies” section. For example, pediatric pharmacokinetic or pharmacodynamic studies and dose response information should be described in the “Clinical Pharmacology” section. Pediatric dosing instructions must be included in the “Dosage and Administration” section. Any differences between pediatric and adult responses, need for specific monitoring, dosing adjustments, and any other information related to safe and effective use of the drug in pediatric patients must be cited briefly in the “Pediatric use” subsection and, as appropriate, in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings and Precautions,” and “Dosage and Administration” sections.
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<P>(E) If the requirements for a finding of substantial evidence to support a pediatric indication or a pediatric use statement have not been met for a particular pediatric population, the “Pediatric use” subsection must contain an appropriate statement such as “Safety and effectiveness in pediatric patients below the age of (__) have not been established.” If use of the drug in this pediatric population is associated with a specific hazard, the hazard must be described in this subsection, or, if appropriate, the hazard must be stated in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings and Precautions” section and this subsection must refer to it.
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<P>(F) If the requirements for a finding of substantial evidence to support a pediatric indication or a pediatric use statement have not been met for any pediatric population, this subsection must contain the following statement: “Safety and effectiveness in pediatric patients have not been established.” If use of the drug in premature or neonatal infants, or other pediatric subgroups, is associated with a specific hazard, the hazard must be described in this subsection, or, if appropriate, the hazard must be stated in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings and Precautions” section and this subsection must refer to it.
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<P>(G) If the sponsor believes that none of the statements described in paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(B) through (c)(9)(iv)(F) of this section are appropriate or relevant to the labeling of a particular drug, the sponsor must provide reasons for omission of the statements and may propose alternative statement(s). FDA may permit use of an alternative statement if FDA determines that no statement described in those paragraphs is appropriate or relevant to the drug's labeling and that the alternative statement is accurate and appropriate.
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<P>(H) If the drug product contains one or more inactive ingredients that present an increased risk of toxic effects to neonates or other pediatric subgroups, a special note of this risk must be made, generally in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings and Precautions” section.
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<P>(v) <I>8.5 Geriatric use.</I> (A) A specific geriatric indication, if any, that is supported by adequate and well-controlled studies in the geriatric population must be described under the “Indications and Usage” section, and appropriate geriatric dosage must be stated under the “Dosage and Administration” section. The “Geriatric use” subsection must cite any limitations on the geriatric indication, need for specific monitoring, specific hazards associated with the geriatric indication, and other information related to the safe and effective use of the drug in the geriatric population. Unless otherwise noted, information contained in the “Geriatric use” subsection must pertain to use of the drug in persons 65 years of age and older. Data summarized in this subsection must be discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under “Clinical Pharmacology” or the “Clinical Studies” section. As appropriate, this information must also be contained in the “Warnings and Precautions” and/or “Contraindications” section(s).
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<P>(B) Specific statements on geriatric use of the drug for an indication approved for adults generally, as distinguished from a specific geriatric indication, must be contained in the “Geriatric use” subsection and must reflect all information available to the sponsor that is relevant to the appropriate use of the drug in elderly patients. This information includes detailed results from controlled studies that are available to the sponsor and pertinent information from well-documented studies obtained from a literature search. Controlled studies include those that are part of the marketing application and other relevant studies available to the sponsor that have not been previously submitted in the investigational new drug application, new drug application, biologics license application, or a supplement or amendment to one of these applications (e.g., postmarketing studies or adverse drug reaction reports). The “Geriatric use” subsection must contain the following statement(s) or reasonable alternative, as applicable, taking into account available information:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) If clinical studies did not include sufficient numbers of subjects aged 65 and over to determine whether elderly subjects respond differently from younger subjects, and other reported clinical experience has not identified such differences, the “Geriatric use” subsection must include the following statement:
</P>
<P>Clinical studies of (<I>name of drug</I>) did not include sufficient numbers of subjects aged 65 and over to determine whether they respond differently from younger subjects. Other reported clinical experience has not identified differences in responses between the elderly and younger patients. In general, dose selection for an elderly patient should be cautious, usually starting at the low end of the dosing range, reflecting the greater frequency of decreased hepatic, renal, or cardiac function, and of concomitant disease or other drug therapy.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) If clinical studies (including studies that are part of marketing applications and other relevant studies available to the sponsor that have not been submitted in the sponsor's applications) included enough elderly subjects to make it likely that differences in safety or effectiveness between elderly and younger subjects would have been detected, but no such differences (in safety or effectiveness) were observed, and other reported clinical experience has not identified such differences, the “Geriatric use” subsection must contain the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Of the total number of subjects in clinical studies of (<I>name of drug</I>), __ percent were 65 and over, while __ percent were 75 and over. (Alternatively, the labeling may state the total number of subjects included in the studies who were 65 and over and 75 and over.) No overall differences in safety or effectiveness were observed between these subjects and younger subjects, and other reported clinical experience has not identified differences in responses between the elderly and younger patients, but greater sensitivity of some older individuals cannot be ruled out.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If evidence from clinical studies and other reported clinical experience available to the sponsor indicates that use of the drug in elderly patients is associated with differences in safety or effectiveness, or requires specific monitoring or dosage adjustment, the “Geriatric use” subsection must contain a brief description of observed differences or specific monitoring or dosage requirements and, as appropriate, must refer to more detailed discussions in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings and Precautions,” “Dosage and Administration,” or other sections.
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<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) If specific pharmacokinetic or pharmacodynamic studies have been carried out in the elderly, they must be described briefly in the “Geriatric use” subsection and in detail under the “Clinical Pharmacology” section. The “Clinical Pharmacology” and “Drug Interactions” sections ordinarily contain information on drug/disease and drug/drug interactions that is particularly relevant to the elderly, who are more likely to have concomitant illness and to use concomitant drugs.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) If a drug is known to be substantially excreted by the kidney, the “Geriatric use” subsection must include the statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This drug is known to be substantially excreted by the kidney, and the risk of adverse reactions to this drug may be greater in patients with impaired renal function. Because elderly patients are more likely to have decreased renal function, care should be taken in dose selection, and it may be useful to monitor renal function.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(D) If use of the drug in the elderly appears to cause a specific hazard, the hazard must be described in the “Geriatric use” subsection, or, if appropriate, the hazard must be stated in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings and Precautions” section, and the “Geriatric use” subsection must refer to those sections.
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<P>(E) Labeling under paragraphs (c)(9)(v)(A) through (c)(9)(v)(C) of this section may include statements, if they are necessary for safe and effective use of the drug, and reflect good clinical practice or past experience in a particular situation, e.g., for a sedating drug, it could be stated that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Sedating drugs may cause confusion and over-sedation in the elderly; elderly patients generally should be started on low doses of (<I>name of drug</I>) and observed closely.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(F) If the sponsor believes that none of the requirements described in paragraphs (c)(9)(v)(A) through (c)(9)(v)(E) of this section are appropriate or relevant to the labeling of a particular drug, the sponsor must provide reasons for omission of the statements and may propose an alternative statement. FDA may permit omission of the statements if FDA determines that no statement described in those paragraphs is appropriate or relevant to the drug's labeling. FDA may permit use of an alternative statement if the agency determines that such statement is accurate and appropriate.
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<P>(vi) <I>Additional subsections.</I> Additional subsections may be included, as appropriate, if sufficient data are available concerning the use of the drug in other specified subpopulations (e.g., renal or hepatic impairment).
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<P>(10) <I>9 Drug abuse and dependence.</I> This section must contain the following information, as appropriate:
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<P>(i) <I>9.1 Controlled substance.</I> If the drug is controlled by the Drug Enforcement Administration, the schedule in which it is controlled must be stated.
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<P>(ii) <I>9.2 Abuse.</I> This subsection must state the types of abuse that can occur with the drug and the adverse reactions pertinent to them, and must identify particularly susceptible patient populations. This subsection must be based primarily on human data and human experience, but pertinent animal data may also be used.
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<P>(iii) <I>9.3 Dependence.</I> This subsection must describe characteristic effects resulting from both psychological and physical dependence that occur with the drug and must identify the quantity of the drug over a period of time that may lead to tolerance or dependence, or both. Details must be provided on the adverse effects of chronic abuse and the effects of abrupt withdrawal. Procedures necessary to diagnose the dependent state and the principles of treating the effects of abrupt withdrawal must be described.
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<P>(11) <I>10 Overdosage.</I> This section must be based on human data. If human data are unavailable, appropriate animal and in vitro data may be used. The following specific information must be provided:
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<P>(i) Signs, symptoms, and laboratory findings associated with an overdosage of the drug;
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<P>(ii) Complications that can occur with the drug (for example, organ toxicity or delayed acidosis);
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<P>(iii) Concentrations of the drug in biologic fluids associated with toxicity or death; physiologic variables influencing excretion of the drug, such as urine pH; and factors that influence the dose response relationship of the drug, such as tolerance. The pharmacokinetic data given in the “Clinical Pharmacology” section also may be referenced here, if applicable to overdoses;
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of the drug in a single dose that is ordinarily associated with symptoms of overdosage and the amount of the drug in a single dose that is likely to be life threatening;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the drug is dialyzable; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Recommended general treatment procedures and specific measures for support of vital functions (e.g., proven antidotes, gastric lavage, forced diuresis, or as per Poison Control Center). Such recommendations must be based on data available for the specific drug or experience with pharmacologically related drugs. Unqualified recommendations for which data are lacking for the specific drug or class of drugs must not be stated.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>11 Description.</I> (i) This section must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) The proprietary name and the established name, if any, as defined in section 502(e)(2) of the act, of the drug or, for biological products, the proper name (as defined in § 600.3 of this chapter) and any appropriate descriptors;
</P>
<P>(B) The type of dosage form(s) and the route(s) of administration to which the labeling applies;
</P>
<P>(C) The same qualitative and/or quantitative ingredient information as required under § 201.100(b) for drug labels or §§ 610.60 and 610.61 of this chapter for biological product labels;
</P>
<P>(D) If the product is sterile, a statement of that fact;
</P>
<P>(E) The pharmacological or therapeutic class of the drug;
</P>
<P>(F) For drug products other than biological products, the chemical name and structural formula of the drug; and
</P>
<P>(G) If the product is radioactive, a statement of the important nuclear physical characteristics, such as the principal radiation emission data, external radiation, and physical decay characteristics.
</P>
<P>(ii) If appropriate, other important chemical or physical information, such as physical constants or pH, must be stated.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>12 Clinical pharmacology.</I> (i) This section must contain information relating to the human clinical pharmacology and actions of the drug in humans. Pharmacologic information based on in vitro data using human biomaterials or pharmacologic animal models, or relevant details about in vivo study designs or results (e.g., drug interaction studies), may be included in this section if essential to understand dosing or drug interaction information presented in other sections of the labeling. This section must include the following subsections:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>12.1 Mechanism of action.</I> This subsection must summarize what is known about the established mechanism(s) of the drug's action in humans at various levels (e.g., receptor, membrane, tissue, organ, whole body). If the mechanism of action is not known, this subsection must contain a statement about the lack of information.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>12.2 Pharmacodynamics.</I> This subsection must include a description of any biochemical or physiologic pharmacologic effects of the drug or active metabolites related to the drug's clinical effect in preventing, diagnosing, mitigating, curing, or treating disease, or those related to adverse effects or toxicity. Exposure-response relationships (e.g., concentration-response, dose-response) and time course of pharmacodynamic response (including short-term clinical response) must be included if known. If this information is unknown, this subsection must contain a statement about the lack of information. Detailed dosing or monitoring recommendations based on pharmacodynamic information that appear in other sections (e.g., “Warnings and Precautions” or “Dosage and Administration”) must not be repeated in this subsection, but the location of such recommendations must be referenced.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>12.3 Pharmacokinetics.</I> This subsection must describe the clinically significant pharmacokinetics of a drug or active metabolites, (i.e., pertinent absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion parameters). Information regarding bioavailability, the effect of food, minimum concentration (C<E T="52">min</E>), maximum concentration (C<E T="52">max</E>), time to maximum concentration (T<E T="52">max</E>), area under the curve (AUC), pertinent half-lives (t<E T="52">1/2</E>), time to reach steady state, extent of accumulation, route(s) of elimination, clearance (renal, hepatic, total), mechanisms of clearance (e.g., specific enzyme systems), drug/drug and drug/food (e.g., dietary supplements, grapefruit juice) pharmacokinetic interactions (including inhibition, induction, and genetic characteristics), and volume of distribution (V<E T="52">d</E>) must be presented if clinically significant. Information regarding nonlinearity in pharmacokinetic parameters, changes in pharmacokinetics over time, and binding (plasma protein, erythrocyte) parameters must also be presented if clinically significant. This section must also include the results of pharmacokinetic studies (e.g., of metabolism or interaction) that establish the absence of an effect, including pertinent human studies and in vitro data. Dosing recommendations based on clinically significant factors that change the product's pharmacokinetics (e.g., age, gender, race, hepatic or renal dysfunction, concomitant therapy) that appear in other sections (e.g., “Warnings and Precautions,” “Dosage and Administration” or “Use in Specific Populations”) must not be repeated in this subsection, but the location of such recommendations must be referenced.
</P>
<P>(ii) Data that demonstrate activity or effectiveness in in vitro or animal tests and that have not been shown by adequate and well-controlled clinical studies to be pertinent to clinical use may be included under this section only under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) In vitro data for anti-infective drugs may be included if the data are immediately preceded by the statement “The following in vitro data are available but their clinical significance is unknown.”
</P>
<P>(B) For other classes of drugs, in vitro and animal data that have not been shown by adequate and well-controlled studies, as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter, to be necessary for the safe and effective use may be included in this section only if a waiver is granted under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>13 Nonclinical toxicology.</I> This section must contain the following subsections as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>13.1 Carcinogenesis, mutagenesis, impairment of fertility.</I> This subsection must state whether long term studies in animals have been performed to evaluate carcinogenic potential and, if so, the species and results. If results from reproduction studies or other data in animals raise concern about mutagenesis or impairment of fertility in either males or females, this must be described. Any precautionary statement on these topics must include practical, relevant advice to the prescriber on the significance of these animal findings. Human data suggesting that the drug may be carcinogenic or mutagenic, or suggesting that it impairs fertility, as described in the “Warnings and Precautions” section, must not be included in this subsection of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>13.2 Animal toxicology and/or pharmacology.</I> Significant animal data necessary for safe and effective use of the drug in humans that is not incorporated in other sections of labeling must be included in this section (e.g., specifics about studies used to support approval under § 314.600 or § 601.90 of this chapter, the absence of chronic animal toxicity data for a drug that is administered over prolonged periods or is implanted in the body).
</P>
<P>(15) <I>14 Clinical studies.</I> This section must discuss those clinical studies that facilitate an understanding of how to use the drug safely and effectively. Ordinarily, this section will describe the studies that support effectiveness for the labeled indication(s), including discussion of study design, population, endpoints, and results, but must not include an encyclopedic listing of all, or even most, studies performed as part of the product's clinical development program. If a specific important clinical study is mentioned in any section of the labeling required under §§ 201.56 and 201.57 because the study is essential to an understandable presentation of the information in that section of the labeling, any detailed discussion of the study must appear in this section.
</P>
<P>(i) For drug products other than biological products, any clinical study that is discussed in prescription drug labeling that relates to an indication for or use of the drug must be adequate and well-controlled as described in § 314.126(b) of this chapter and must not imply or suggest indications or uses or dosing regimens not stated in the “Indications and Usage” or “Dosage and Administration” section. For biological products, any clinical study that is discussed that relates to an indication for or use of the biological product must constitute or contribute to substantial evidence and must not imply or suggest indications or uses or dosing regimens not stated in the “Indications and Usage” or “Dosage and Administration” section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any discussion of a clinical study that relates to a risk from the use of the drug must also refer to the other sections of the labeling where the risk is identified or discussed.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>15 References.</I> When prescription drug labeling must summarize or otherwise rely on a recommendation by an authoritative scientific body, or on a standardized methodology, scale, or technique, because the information is important to prescribing decisions, the labeling may include a reference to the source of the information.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>16 How supplied/storage and handling.</I> This section must contain information on the available dosage forms to which the labeling applies and for which the manufacturer or distributor is responsible. The information must include, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The strength or potency of the dosage form in metric system (e.g., 10 milligram tablets) and, if the apothecary system is used, a statement of the strength in parentheses after the metric designation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The units in which the dosage form is ordinarily available for prescribing by practitioners (e.g., bottles of 100);
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate information to facilitate identification of the dosage forms, such as shape, color, coating, scoring, imprinting, and National Drug Code number; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Special handling and storage conditions.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>17 Patient counseling information.</I> This section must contain information necessary for patients to use the drug safely and effectively (e.g., precautions concerning driving or the concomitant use of other substances that may have harmful additive effects). Any FDA-approved patient labeling must be referenced in this section and the full text of such patient labeling must be reprinted immediately following this section or, alternatively, accompany the prescription drug labeling. Any FDA-approved patient labeling printed immediately following this section or accompanying the labeling is subject to the type size requirements in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, except for a Medication Guide to be detached and distributed to patients in compliance with § 208.24 of this chapter. Medication Guides for distribution to patients are subject to the type size requirements set forth in § 208.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format requirements.</I> All labeling information required under paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section must be printed in accordance with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) All headings and subheadings required by paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section must be highlighted by bold type that prominently distinguishes the headings and subheadings from other labeling information. Reverse type is not permitted as a form of highlighting.
</P>
<P>(2) A horizontal line must separate the information required by paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The headings listed in paragraphs (a)(5) through (a)(13) of this section must be presented in the center of a horizontal line.
</P>
<P>(4) If there are multiple subheadings listed under paragraphs (a)(4) through (a)(13) of this section, each subheading must be preceded by a bullet point.
</P>
<P>(5) The labeling information required by paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4), (a)(11)(ii) through (a)(11)(iv), and (a)(14) of this section must be in bold print.
</P>
<P>(6) The letter height or type size for all labeling information, headings, and subheadings set forth in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section must be a minimum of 8 points, except for labeling information that is on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed, which must be a minimum of 6 points.
</P>
<P>(7) The identifying numbers required by § 201.56(d) and paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(18) of this section must be presented in bold print and must precede the heading or subheading by at least two square em's (i.e., two squares of the size of the letter “m” in 8 point type).
</P>
<P>(8) The information required by paragraph (a) of this section, not including the information required under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, must be limited in length to an amount that, if printed in 2 columns on a standard sized piece of typing paper (8
<FR>1/2</FR> by 11 inches), single spaced, in 8 point type with 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch margins on all sides and between columns, would fit on one-half of the page.
</P>
<P>(9) Sections or subsections of labeling that are identified as containing recent major changes under paragraph (a)(5) of this section must be highlighted in the full prescribing information by the inclusion of a vertical line on the left edge of the new or modified text.
</P>
<P>(10) For the information required by paragraph (b) of this section, each section heading must be in bold print. Each subheading within a section must be indented and not bolded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 3988, Jan. 24, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 72101, Dec. 4, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.58" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.58   Waiver of labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may ask the Food and Drug Administration to waive any requirement under §§ 201.56, 201.57, and 201.80. A waiver request must be submitted in writing to the Director (or the Director's designee), Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, Central Document Room, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, or, if applicable, the Director (or the Director's designee), Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. The waiver must be granted or denied in writing by the Director or the Director's designee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 3996, Jan. 24, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 13112, Mar. 26, 2009; 80 FR 18090, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling Requirements for Over-the-Counter Drugs</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 6908, Feb. 13, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 201.60" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.60   Principal display panel.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>principal display panel,</I> as it applies to over-the-counter drugs in package form and as used in this part, means the part of a label that is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. The principal display panel shall be large enough to accommodate all the mandatory label information required to be placed thereon by this part with clarity and conspicuousness and without obscuring designs, vignettes, or crowding. Where packages bear alternate principal display panels, information required to be placed on the principal display panel shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. For the purpose of obtaining uniform type size in declaring the quantity of contents for all packages of substantially the same size, the term <I>area of the principal display panel</I> means the area of the side or surface that bears the principal display panel, which area shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a rectangular package where one entire side properly can be considered to be the principal display panel side, the product of the height times the width of that side;
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a cylindrical or nearly cylindrical container, 40 percent of the product of the height of the container times the circumference; and
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of any other shape of container, 40 percent of the total surface of the container: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where such container presents an obvious “principal display panel” such as the top of a triangular or circular package, the area shall consist of the entire top surface.
</P>
<FP>In determining the area of the principal display panel, exclude tops, bottoms, flanges at the tops and bottoms of cans, and shoulders and necks of bottles or jars. In the case of cylindrical or nearly cylindrical containers, information required by this part to appear on the principal display panel shall appear within that 40 percent of the circumference which is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.61" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.61   Statement of identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of an over-the-counter drug in package form shall bear as one of its principal features a statement of the identity of the commodity.
</P>
<P>(b) Such statement of identity shall be in terms of the established name of the drug, if any there be, followed by an accurate statement of the general pharmacological category(ies) of the drug or the principal intended action(s) of the drug. In the case of an over-the-counter drug that is a mixture and that has no established name, this requirement shall be deemed to be satisfied by a prominent and conspicuous statement of the general pharmacological action(s) of the mixture or of its principal intended action(s) in terms that are meaningful to the layman. Such statements shall be placed in direct conjunction with the most prominent display of the proprietary name or designation and shall employ terms descriptive of general pharmacological category(ies) or principal intended action(s); for example, “antacid,” “analgesic,” “decongestant,” “antihistaminic,” etc. The indications for use shall be included in the directions for use of the drug, as required by section 502(f)(1) of the act and by the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The statement of identity shall be presented in bold face type on the principal display panel, shall be in a size reasonably related to the most prominent printed matter on such panel, and shall be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.62" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.62   Declaration of net quantity of contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of an over-the-counter drug in package form shall bear a declaration of the net quantity of contents. This shall be expressed in the terms of weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination or numerical count and weight, measure, or size. The statement of quantity of drugs in tablet, capsule, ampule, or other unit form and the quantity of devices shall be expressed in terms of numerical count; the statement of quantity for drugs in other dosage forms shall be in terms of weight if the drug is solid, semisolid, or viscous, or in terms of fluid measure if the drug is liquid. The drug quantity statement shall be augmented when necessary to give accurate information as to the strength of such drug in the package; for example, to differentiate between several strengths of the same drug “100 tablets, 5 grains each” or “100 capsules, 125 milligrams each” or “100 capsules, 250 milligrams each”: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a firmly established, general consumer usage and trade custom of declaring the quantity of a drug in terms of linear measure or measure of area, such respective term may be used. Such term shall be augmented when necessary for accuracy of information by a statement of the weight, measure, or size of the individual units or of the entire drug; for example, the net quantity of adhesive tape in package form shall be expressed in terms of linear measure augmented by a statement of its width.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the Commissioner determines for a specific packaged drug that an existing practice of declaring net quantity of contents by weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of these does not facilitate value comparisons by consumers, he shall by regulation designate the appropriate term or terms to be used for such article.
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of weight of the contents shall be expressed in terms of avoirdupois pound and ounce. A statement of liquid measure of the contents shall be expressed in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid-ounce subdivisions thereof, and shall express the volume at 68 °F (20 °C). See also paragraph (p) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The declaration may contain common or decimal fractions. A common fraction shall be in terms of halves, quarters, eights, sixteenths, or thirty-seconds; except that if there exists a firmly established, general consumer usage and trade custom of employing different common fractions in the net quantity declaration of a particular commodity, they may be employed. A common fraction shall be reduced to its lowest terms; a decimal fraction shall not be carried out to more than two places. A statement that includes small fractions of an ounce shall be deemed to permit smaller variations than one which does not include such fractions.
</P>
<P>(d) The declaration shall be located on the principal display panel of the label, and with respect to packages bearing alternate principal panels it shall be duplicated on each principal display panel.
</P>
<P>(e) The declaration shall appear as a distinct item on the principal display panel, shall be separated, by at least a space equal to the height of the lettering used in the declaration, from other printed label information appearing above or below the declaration and, by at least a space equal to twice the width of the letter “N” of the style of type used in the quantity of contents statement, from other printed label information appearing to the left or right of the declaration. It shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count, such as “giant pint” and “full quart”, that tends to exaggerate the amount of the drug in the container. It shall be placed on the principal display panel within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) On packages having a principal display panel of 5 square inches or less the requirement for placement within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel shall not apply when the declaration of net quantity of contents meets the other requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a drug that is marketed with both outer and inner retail containers bearing the mandatory label information required by this part and the inner container is not intended to be sold separately, the net quantity of contents placement requirement of this section applicable to such inner container is waived.
</P>
<P>(3) The principal display panel of a drug marketed on a display card to which the immediate container is affixed may be considered to be the display panel of the card, and the type size of the net quantity of contents statement is governed by the dimensions of the display card.
</P>
<P>(f) The declaration shall accurately reveal the quantity of drug or device in the package exclusive of wrappers and other material packed therewith: <I>Provided,</I> That in the case of drugs packed in containers designed to deliver the drug under pressure, the declaration shall state the net quantity of the contents that will be expelled when the instructions for use as shown on the container are followed. The propellant is included in the net quantity declaration.
</P>
<P>(g) The declaration shall appear in conspicuous and easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast (by typography, layout, color, embossing, or molding) to other matter on the package; except that a declaration of net quantity blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface is permissible when all label information is so formed on the surface. Requirements of conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio of height to width of the letter shall not exceed a differential of 3 units to 1 unit, i.e., no more than 3 times as high as it is wide.
</P>
<P>(2) Letter heights pertain to upper case or capital letters. When upper and lower case or all lower case letters are used, it is the lower case letter “o” or its equivalent that shall meet the minimum standards.
</P>
<P>(3) When fractions are used, each component numeral shall meet one-half the minimum height standards.
</P>
<P>(h) The declaration shall be in letters and numerals in a type size established in relationship to the area of the principal display panel of the package and shall be uniform for all packages of substantially the same size by complying with the following type specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of 5 square inches or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-eighth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than five but not more than 25 square inches.
</P>
<P>(3) Not less than three-sixteenths inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 25 but not more than 100 square inches.
</P>
<P>(4) Not less than one-fourth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 100 square inches, except not less than one-half inch in height if the area is more than 400 square inches.
</P>
<FP>Where the declaration is blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface rather than by printing, typing, or coloring, the lettering sizes specified in paragraphs (h) (1) through (4) of this section shall be increased by one-sixteenth of an inch.
</FP>
<P>(i) On packages containing less than 4 pounds or 1 gallon and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure:
</P>
<P>(1) The declaration shall be expressed both in ounces, with identification by weight or by liquid measure and, if applicable (1 pound or 1 pint or more) followed in parentheses by a declaration in pounds for weight units, with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound (see examples set forth in paragraphs (k) (1) and (2) of this section), or in the case of liquid measure, in the largest whole units (quarts, quarts and pints, or pints, as appropriate) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (see examples set forth in paragraphs (k) (3) and (4) of this section). If the net weight of the package is less than 1 ounce avoirdupois or the net fluid measure is less than 1 fluid ounce, the declaration shall be in terms of common or decimal fractions of the respective ounce and not in terms of drams.
</P>
<P>(2) The declaration may appear in more than one line. The term <I>net weight</I> shall be used when stating the net quantity of contents in terms of weight. Use of the terms <I>net</I> or <I>net contents</I> in terms of fluid measure or numerical count is optional. It is sufficient to distinguish avoirdupois ounce from fluid ounce through association of terms; for example, “Net wt. 6 oz” or “6 oz net wt.,” and “6 fl oz” or “net contents 6 fl oz”.
</P>
<P>(j) On packages containing 4 pounds or 1 gallon or more and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure, the declaration shall be expressed in pounds for weight units with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound; in the case of fluid measure, it shall be expressed in the largest whole unit (gallons, followed by common or decimal fractions of a gallon or by the next smaller whole unit or units (quarts or quarts and pints)) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart; see paragraph (k)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) Examples:
</P>
<P>(1) A declaration of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds weight shall be expressed as “Net wt. 24 oz (1 lb 8 oz),” or “Net wt. 24 oz (1
<FR>1/2</FR> lb)” or “Net wt. 24 oz (1.5 lb)”.
</P>
<P>(2) A declaration of three-fourths pound avoirdupois weight shall be expressed as “Net wt. 12 oz”.
</P>
<P>(3) A declaration of 1 quart liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 32 fl oz (1 qt)” or “32 fl oz (1 qt)”.
</P>
<P>(4) A declaration of 1
<FR>3/4</FR> quarts liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 1 pt 8 oz)” or “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 1.5 pt),” but not in terms of quart and ounce such as “Net 56 fl oz (1 qt 24 oz).”
</P>
<P>(5) A declaration of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 2 gal 2 qt,” “Net contents 2.5 gallons,” or “Net contents 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gal” but not as “2 gal 4 pt”.
</P>
<P>(l) For quantities, the following abbreviations and none other may be employed. Periods and plural forms are optional:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Gallon gal</LI>
<LI>quart qt</LI>
<LI>pint pt</LI>
<LI>ounce oz</LI>
<LI>pound lb</LI>
<LI>grain gr</LI>
<LI>kilogram kg</LI>
<LI>gram g</LI>
<LI>milligram mg</LI>
<LI>microgram mcg</LI>
<LI>liter l</LI>
<LI>milliliter ml</LI>
<LI>cubic centimeter cc</LI>
<LI>yard yd</LI>
<LI>feet or foot ft</LI>
<LI>inch in</LI>
<LI>meter m</LI>
<LI>centimeter cm</LI>
<LI>millimeter mm</LI>
<LI>fluid fl</LI>
<LI>square sq</LI>
<LI>weight wt</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<P>(m) On packages labeled in terms of linear measure, the declaration shall be expressed both in terms of inches and, if applicable (1 foot or more), the largest whole units (yards, yards and feet, feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of inches and any remainder shall be in terms of inches or common or decimal fractions of the foot or yard; if applicable, as in the case of adhesive tape, the initial declaration in linear inches shall be preceded by a statement of the width. Examples of linear measure are “86 inches (2 yd 1 ft 2 in),” “90 inches (2
<FR>1/2</FR> yd),” “30 inches (2.5 ft),” “ 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch by 36 in (1 yd),” etc.
</P>
<P>(n) On packages labeled in terms of area measure, the declaration shall be expressed both in terms of square inches and, if applicable (1 square foot or more), the largest whole square unit (square yards, square yards and square feet, square feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of square inches and any remainder shall be in terms of square inches or common or decimal fractions of the square foot or square yard; for example, “158 sq inches (1 sq ft 14 sq in).”
</P>
<P>(o) Nothing in this section shall prohibit supplemental statements at locations other than the principal display panel(s) describing in nondeceptive terms the net quantity of contents, provided that such supplemental statements of net quantity of contents shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count that tends to exaggerate the amount of the drug contained in the package; for example, “giant pint” and “full quart.” Dual or combination declarations of net quantity of contents as provided for in paragraphs (a) and (i) of this section are not regarded as supplemental net quantity statements and shall be located on the principal display panel.
</P>
<P>(p) A separate statement of net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure is not regarded as a supplemental statement and an accurate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure may also appear on the principal display panel or on other panels.
</P>
<P>(q) The declaration of net quantity of contents shall express an accurate statement of the quantity of contents of the package. Reasonable variations caused by loss or gain of moisture during the course of good distribution practice or by unavoidable deviations in good manufacturing practice will be recognized. Variations from stated quantity of contents shall not be unreasonably large.
</P>
<P>(r) A drug shall be exempt from compliance with the net quantity declaration required by this section if it is an ointment labeled “sample,” “physician's sample,” or a substantially similar statement and the contents of the package do not exceed 8 grams.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.63" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.63   Pregnancy/breast-feeding warning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling for all over-the-counter (OTC) drug products that are intended for systemic absorption, unless specifically exempted, shall contain a general warning under the heading “Warning” (or “Warnings” if it appears with additional warning statements) as follows: “If pregnant or breast-feeding, ask a health professional before use.” [first four words of this statement in bold type] In addition to the written warning, a symbol that conveys the intent of the warning may be used in labeling.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a specific warning relating to use during pregnancy or while nursing has been established for a particular drug product in a new drug application (NDA) or for a product covered by an OTC drug final monograph in part 330 of this chapter, the specific warning shall be used in place of the warning in paragraph (a) of this section, unless otherwise stated in the NDA or in the final OTC drug monograph.
</P>
<P>(c) The following OTC drugs are exempt from the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Drugs that are intended to benefit the fetus or nursing infant during the period of pregnancy or nursing.
</P>
<P>(2) Drugs that are labeled exclusively for pediatric use.
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration will grant an exemption from paragraph (a) of this section where appropriate upon petition under the provisions of § 10.30 of this chapter. Decisions with respect to requests for exemptions shall be maintained in a permanent file for public review by the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(e) The labeling of orally or rectally administered OTC aspirin and aspirin-containing drug products must bear a warning that immediately follows the general warning identified in paragraph (a) of this section. The warning shall be as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“It is especially important not to use” (select “aspirin” or “carbaspirin calcium,” as appropriate) “during the last 3 months of pregnancy unless definitely directed to do so by a doctor because it may cause problems in the unborn child or complications during delivery.”</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 54757, Dec. 3, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 27784, July 5, 1990; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 64 FR 13286, Mar. 17, 1999; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.64" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.64   Sodium labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of over-the-counter (OTC) drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the sodium content per dosage unit (e.g., tablet, teaspoonful) if the sodium content of a single maximum recommended dose of the product (which may be one or more dosage units) is 5 milligrams or more. OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion include gum and lozenge dosage forms, but do not include dentifrices, mouthwashes, or mouth rinses.
</P>
<P>(b) The sodium content shall be expressed in milligrams per dosage unit and shall include the total amount of sodium regardless of the source, i.e., from both active and inactive ingredients. The sodium content shall be rounded-off to the nearest whole number. The sodium content per dosage unit shall follow the heading “Other information” as stated in § 201.66(c)(7).
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the following statement under the heading “Warning” (or “Warnings” if it appears with additional warning statements) if the amount of sodium present in the labeled maximum daily dose of the product is more than 140 milligrams: “Ask a doctor before use if you have [in bold type] [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> a sodium-restricted diet”. The warnings in §§ 201.64(c), 201.70(c), 201.71(c), and 201.72(c) may be combined, if applicable, provided the ingredients are listed in alphabetical order, e g., a calcium or sodium restricted diet.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201 .66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) The term <I>sodium free</I> may be used in the labeling of OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion if the amount of sodium in the labeled maximum daily dose is 5 milligrams or less and the amount of sodium per dosage unit is 0 milligram (when rounded-off in accord with paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>very low sodium</I> may be used in the labeling of OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion if the amount of sodium in the labeled maximum daily dose is 35 milligrams or less.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>low sodium</I> may be used in the labeling of OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion if the amount of sodium in the labeled maximum daily dose is 140 milligrams or less.
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>salt</I> is not synonymous with the term sodium and shall not be used interchangeably or substituted for the term <I>sodium.</I>
</P>
<P>(h) The terms <I>sodium free, very low sodium,</I> and <I>low sodium</I> shall be in print size and style no larger than the product's statement of identity and shall not be unduly prominent in print size or style compared to the statement of identity.
</P>
<P>(i) Any product subject to this paragraph that contains sodium bicarbonate, sodium phosphate, or sodium biphosphate as an active ingredient for oral ingestion and that is not labeled as required by this paragraph and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after April 22, 1997, is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502 (a) and (f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).
</P>
<P>(j) Any product subject to paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section that is not labeled as required and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the following dates is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(1) As of the date of approval of the application for any single entity and combination products subject to drug marketing applications approved on or after April 23, 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) Septemeber 24, 2005, for all OTC drug products subject to any OTC drug monograph, not yet the subject of any OTC drug monograph, or subject to drug marketing applications approved before April 23, 2004.
</P>
<P>(k) The labeling of OTC drug products intended for rectal administration containing dibasic sodium phosphate and/or monobasic sodium phosphate shall contain the sodium content per delivered dose if the sodium content is 5 milligrams or more. The sodium content shall be expressed in milligrams or grams. If less than 1 gram, milligrams should be used. The sodium content shall be rounded-off to the nearest whole number if expressed in milligrams (or nearest tenth of a gram if expressed in grams). The sodium content per delivered dose shall follow the heading “Other information” as stated in § 201.66(c)(7). Any product subject to this paragraph that contains dibasic sodium phosphate and/or monobasic sodium phosphate as an active ingredient intended for rectal administration and that is not labeled as required by this paragraph and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after November 29, 2005, is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 17806, Apr. 22, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 19925, Apr. 24, 1997; 64 FR 13286, Mar. 17, 1999; 69 FR 13724, Mar. 24, 2004; 69 FR 69280, Nov. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.66" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.66   Format and content requirements for over-the-counter (OTC) drug product labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth the content and format requirements for the labeling of all OTC drug products. Where an OTC drug product is the subject of an applicable monograph or regulation that contains content and format requirements that conflict with this section, the content and format requirements in this section must be followed unless otherwise specifically provided in the applicable monograph or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (secs. 201 <I>et seq.</I> (21 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.</I>)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Active ingredient</I> means any component that is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans. The term includes those components that may undergo chemical change in the manufacture of the drug product and be present in the drug product in a modified form intended to furnish the specified activity or effect.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approved drug application</I> means a new drug (NDA) or abbreviated new drug (ANDA) application approved under section 505 of the act (21 U.S.C. 355).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bullet</I> means a geometric symbol that precedes each statement in a list of statements. For purposes of this section, the bullet style is limited to solid squares or solid circles, in the format set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Established name</I> of a drug or ingredient thereof means the applicable official name designated under section 508 of the act (21 U.S.C. 358), or, if there is no designated official name and the drug or ingredient is recognized in an official compendium, the official title of the drug or ingredient in such compendium, or, if there is no designated official name and the drug or ingredient is not recognized in an official compendium, the common or usual name of the drug or ingredient.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Heading</I> means the required statements in quotation marks listed in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section, excluding subheadings (as defined in paragraph (a)(9) of this section).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Inactive ingredient</I> means any component other than an active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Subheading</I> means the required statements in quotation marks listed in paragraphs (c)(5)(ii) through (c)(5)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Drug facts labeling</I> means the title, headings, subheadings, and information required under or otherwise described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Title</I> means the heading listed at the top of the required OTC drug product labeling, as set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Total surface area available to bear labeling</I> means all surfaces of the outside container of the retail package or, if there is no such outside container, all surfaces of the immediate container or container wrapper except for the flanges at the tops and bottoms of cans and the shoulders and necks of bottles and jars.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content requirements.</I> The outside container or wrapper of the retail package, or the immediate container label if there is no outside container or wrapper, shall contain the title, headings, subheadings, and information set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(8) of this section, and may contain the information under the heading in paragraph (c)(9) of this section, in the order listed.
</P>
<P>(1) (Title) “Drug Facts”. If the drug facts labeling appears on more than one panel, the title “Drug Facts (continued)” shall appear at the top of each subsequent panel containing such information.
</P>
<P>(2) “Active ingredient” or “Active ingredients” “(in each [insert the dosage unit stated in the directions for use (e.g., tablet, 5 mL teaspoonful) or in each gram as stated in §§ 333.110 and 333.120 of this chapter])”, followed by the established name of each active ingredient and the quantity of each active ingredient per dosage unit. Unless otherwise provided in an applicable OTC drug monograph or approved drug application, products marketed without discrete dosage units (e.g., topicals) shall state the proportion (rather than the quantity) of each active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) “Purpose” or “Purposes”, followed by the general pharmacological category(ies) or the principal intended action(s) of the drug or, where the drug consists of more than one ingredient, the general pharmacological categories or the principal intended actions of each active ingredient. When an OTC drug monograph contains a statement of identity, the pharmacological action described in the statement of identity shall also be stated as the purpose of the active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(4) “Use” or “Uses”, followed by the indication(s) for the specific drug product.
</P>
<P>(5) “Warning” or “Warnings”, followed by one or more of the following, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) “For external use only” [in bold type] for topical drug products not intended for ingestion, or “For” (select one of the following, as appropriate: “rectal” or “vaginal”) “use only” [in bold type].
</P>
<P>(ii) All applicable warnings listed in paragraphs (c)(5)(ii)(A) through (c)(5)(ii)(G) of this section with the appropriate subheadings highlighted in bold type:
</P>
<P>(A) Reye's syndrome warning for drug products containing salicylates set forth in § 201.314(h)(1). This warning shall follow the subheading “Reye's syndrome:”
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Allergic reaction and asthma alert warnings.</I> Allergic reaction warnings set forth in any applicable OTC drug monograph or approved drug application for any product that requires a separate allergy warning. This warning shall follow the subheading “Allergy alert:” The asthma alert warning set forth in §§ 341.76(c)(5) and 341.76(c)(6) of this chapter. This warning shall follow the subheading “Asthma alert:”
</P>
<P>(C) Flammability warning, with appropriate flammability signal word(s) (e.g., §§ 341.74(c)(5)(iii), 344.52(c), 358.150(c), and 358.550(c) of this chapter). This warning shall follow a subheading containing the appropriate flammability signal word(s) described in an applicable OTC drug monograph or approved drug application.
</P>
<P>(D) Water soluble gums warning set forth in § 201.319. This warning shall follow the subheading “Choking:”
</P>
<P>(E) Liver warning set forth in § 201.326(a)(1)(iii) and/or stomach bleeding warning set forth in § 201.326(a)(2)(iii). The liver warning shall follow the subheading “Liver warning:” and the stomach bleeding warning shall follow the subheading “Stomach bleeding warning:”
</P>
<P>(F) Sore throat warning set forth in § 201.315. This warning shall follow the subheading “Sore throat warning:”
</P>
<P>(G) Warning for drug products containing sodium phosphates set forth in § 201.307(b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii). This warning shall follow the subheading “Dosage warning:”
</P>
<P>(H) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) warning for vaginal contraceptive and spermicide drug products containing nonoxynol 9 set forth in § 201.325(b)(2). This warning shall follow the subheading “Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) alert:”
</P>
<P>(iii) “Do not use” [in bold type], followed by all contraindications for use with the product. These contraindications are absolute and are intended for situations in which consumers should not use the product unless a prior diagnosis has been established by a doctor or for situations in which certain consumers should not use the product under any circumstances regardless of whether a doctor or health professional is consulted.
</P>
<P>(iv) “Ask a doctor before use if you have” [in bold type] or, for products labeled only for use in children under 12 years of age, “Ask a doctor before use if the child has” [in bold type], followed by all warnings for persons with certain preexisting conditions (excluding pregnancy) and all warnings for persons experiencing certain symptoms. The warnings under this heading are those intended only for situations in which consumers should not use the product until a doctor is consulted.
</P>
<P>(v) “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are” [in bold type] or, for products labeled only for use in children under 12 years of age, “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if the child is” [in bold type], followed by all drug-drug and drug-food interaction warnings.
</P>
<P>(vi) “When using this product” [in bold type], followed by the side effects that the consumer may experience, and the substances (e.g., alcohol) or activities (e.g., operating machinery, driving a car, warnings set forth in § 369.21 of this chapter for drugs in dispensers pressurized by gaseous propellants) to avoid while using the product.
</P>
<P>(vii) “Stop use and ask a doctor if” [in bold type], followed by any signs of toxicity or other reactions that would necessitate immediately discontinuing use of the product. For all OTC drug products under an approved drug application whose packaging does not include a toll-free number through which consumers can report complaints to the manufacturer or distributor of the drug product, the following text shall immediately follow the subheading: “[Bullet] side effects occur. You may report side effects to FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088.” The telephone number must appear in a minimum 6-point bold letter height or type size.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any required warnings in an applicable OTC drug monograph, other OTC drug regulations, or approved drug application that do not fit within one of the categories listed in paragraphs (c)(5)(i) through (c)(5)(vii), (c)(5)(ix), and (c)(5)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) The pregnancy/breast-feeding warning set forth in § 201.63(a); the third trimester warning set forth in § 201.63(e) for products containing aspirin or carbaspirin calcium; the third trimester warning set forth in approved drug applications for products containing ketoprofen, naproxen sodium, and ibuprofen (not intended exclusively for use in children).
</P>
<P>(x) The “Keep out of reach of children” warning and the accidental overdose/ingestion warning set forth in § 330.1(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) “Directions”, followed by the directions for use described in an applicable OTC drug monograph or approved drug application.
</P>
<P>(7) “Other information”, followed by additional information that is not included under paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(6), (c)(8), and (c)(9) of this section, but which is required by or is made optional under an applicable OTC drug monograph, other OTC drug regulation, or is included in the labeling of an approved drug application.
</P>
<P>(i) Required information about certain ingredients in OTC drug products (e.g., sodium in § 201.64(b), calcium in § 201.70(b), magnesium in § 201.71(b), and potassium in § 201.72(b)) shall appear as follows: “each (insert appropriate dosage unit) contains:” [in bold type (insert name(s) of ingredient(s) (in alphabetical order) and the quantity of each ingredient). This information shall be the first statement under this heading.
</P>
<P>(ii) The phenylalanine/aspartame content required by § 201.21(b), if applicable, shall appear as the next item of information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional information that is authorized to appear under this heading shall appear as the next item(s) of information. There is no required order for this subsequent information.
</P>
<P>(8) “Inactive ingredients”, followed by a listing of the established name of each inactive ingredient. If the product is an OTC drug product that is not also a cosmetic product, then the inactive ingredients shall be listed in alphabetical order. If the product is an OTC drug product that is also a cosmetic product, then the inactive ingredients shall be listed as set forth in § 701.3(a) or (f) of this chapter, the names of cosmetic ingredients shall be determined in accordance with § 701.3(c) of this chapter, and the provisions in § 701.3(e), (g), (h), (l), (m), (n), and (o) of this chapter and § 720.8 of this chapter may also apply, as appropriate. If there is a difference in the labeling provisions in this § 201.66 and §§ 701.3 and 720.8 of this chapter, the labeling provisions in this § 201.66 shall be used.
</P>
<P>(9) “Questions?” or “Questions or comments?”, followed by the telephone number of a source to answer questions about the product. It is recommended that the days of the week and times of the day when a person is available to respond to questions also be included. A graphic of a telephone or telephone receiver may appear before the heading. The telephone number must appear in a minimum 6-point bold type.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format requirements.</I> The title, headings, subheadings, and information set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section shall be presented on OTC drug products in accordance with the following specifications. In the interest of uniformity of presentation, FDA strongly reccommends that the Drug Facts labeling be presented using the graphic specifications set forth in appendix A to part 201.
</P>
<P>(1) The title “Drug Facts” or “Drug Facts (continued)” shall use uppercase letters for the first letter of the words “Drug” and “Facts.” All headings and subheadings in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section shall use an uppercase letter for the first letter in the first word and lowercase letters for all other words. The title, headings, and subheadings in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(4) through (c)(9) of this section shall be left justified.
</P>
<P>(2) The letter height or type size for the title “Drug Facts” shall appear in a type size larger than the largest type size used in the Drug Facts labeling. The letter height or type size for the title “Drug Facts (continued)” shall be no smaller than 8-point type. The letter height or type size for the headings in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section shall be the larger of either 8-point or greater type, or 2-point sizes greater than the point size of the text. The letter height or type size for the subheadings and all other information described in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section shall be no smaller than 6-point type.
</P>
<P>(3) The title, heading, subheadings, and information in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section shall be legible and clearly presented, shall have at least 0.5-point leading (i.e., space between two lines of text), and shall not have letters that touch. The type style for the title, headings, subheadings, and all other required information described in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section shall be any single, clear, easy-to-read type style, with no more than 39 characters per inch. The title and headings shall be in bold italic, and the subheadings shall be in bold type, except that the word “(continued)” in the title “Drug Facts (continued)” shall be regular type. The type shall be all black or one color printed on a white or other contrasting background, except that the title and the headings may be presented in a single, alternative, contrasting color unless otherwise provided in an approved drug application, OTC drug monograph (e.g., current requirements for bold print in §§ 341.76 and 341.80 of this chapter), or other OTC drug regulation (e.g., the requirement for a box and red letters in § 201.308(c)(1)).
</P>
<P>(4) When there is more than one statement, each individual statement listed under the headings and subheadings in paragraphs (c)(4) through (c)(7) of this section shall be preceded by a solid square or solid circle bullet of 5-point type size. Bullets shall be presented in the same shape and color throughout the labeling. The first bulleted statement on each horizontal line of text shall be either left justified or separated from an appropriate heading or subheading by at least two square “ems” (i.e., two squares of the size of the letter “M”). If more than one bulleted statement is placed on the same horizontal line, the end of one bulleted statement shall be separated from the beginning of the next bulleted statement by at least two square “ems” and the complete additional bulleted statement(s) shall not continue to the next line of text. Additional bulleted statements appearing on each subsequent horizontal line of text under a heading or subheading shall be vertically aligned with the bulleted statements appearing on the previous line.
</P>
<P>(5) The title, headings, subheadings, and information set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section may appear on more than one panel on the outside container of the retail package, or the immediate container label if there is no outside container or wrapper. The continuation of the required content and format onto multiple panels must retain the required order and flow of headings, subheadings, and information. A visual graphic (e.g., an arrow) shall be used to signal the continuation of the Drug Facts labeling to the next adjacent panel.
</P>
<P>(6) The heading and information required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section shall appear immediately adjacent and to the left of the heading and information required under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. The active ingredients and purposes shall be aligned under the appropriate headings such that the heading and information required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section shall be left justified and the heading and information required under paragraph (c)(3) of this section shall be right justified. If the OTC drug product contains more than one active ingredient, the active ingredients shall be listed in alphabetical order. If more than one active ingredient has the same purpose, the purpose need not be repeated for each active ingredient, provided the information is presented in a manner that readily associates each active ingredient with its purpose (i.e., through the use of brackets, dot leaders, or other graphical features). The information described in paragraphs (c)(4) and (c)(6) through (c)(9) of this section may start on the same line as the required headings. None of the information described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section shall appear on the same line as the “Warning” or “Warnings” heading.
</P>
<P>(7) Graphical images (e.g., the UPC symbol) and information not described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section shall not appear in or in any way interrupt the required title, headings, subheadings, and information in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section. Hyphens shall not be used except to punctuate compound words.
</P>
<P>(8) The information described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section shall be set off in a box or similar enclosure by the use of a barline. A distinctive horizontal barline extending to each end of the “Drug Facts” box or similar enclosure shall provide separation between each of the headings listed in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section. When a heading listed in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section appears on a subsequent panel immediately after the “Drug Facts (continued)” title, a horizontal hairline shall follow the title and immediately precede the heading. A horizontal hairline extending within two spaces on either side of the “Drug Facts” box or similar enclosure shall immediately follow the title and shall immediately precede each of the subheadings set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, except the subheadings in paragraphs (c)(5)(ii)(A) through (c)(5)(ii)(G) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) The information set forth in paragraph (c)(6) of this section under the heading “Directions” shall appear in a table format when dosage directions are provided for three or more age groups or populations. The last line of the table may be the horizontal barline immediately preceding the heading of the next section of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(10) If the title, headings, subheadings, and information in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section, printed in accordance with the specifications in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(9) of this section, and any other FDA required information for drug products, and, as appropriate, cosmetic products, other than information required to appear on a principle display panel, requires more than 60 percent of the total surface area available to bear labeling, then the Drug Facts labeling shall be printed in accordance with the specifications set forth in paragraphs (d)(10)(i) through (d)(10)(v) of this section. In determining whether more than 60 percent of the total surface area available to bear labeling is required, the indications for use listed under the “Use(s)” heading, as set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, shall be limited to the minimum required uses reflected in the applicable monograph, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) Paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(5), (d)(6), and (d)(7) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall apply except that the letter height or type size for the title “Drug Facts (continued)” shall be no smaller than 7-point type and the headings in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(9) of this section shall be the larger of either 7-point or greater type, or 1-point size greater than the point size of the text.
</P>
<P>(iii) Paragraph (d)(3) of this section shall apply except that less than 0.5-point leading may be used, provided the ascenders and descenders do not touch.
</P>
<P>(iv) Paragraph (d)(4) of this section shall apply except that if more than one bulleted statement is placed on the same horizontal line, the additional bulleted statements may continue to the next line of text, and except that the bullets under each heading or subheading need not be vertically aligned.
</P>
<P>(v) Paragraph (d)(8) of this section shall apply except that the box or similar enclosure required in paragraph (d)(8) of this section may be omitted if the Drug Facts labeling is set off from the rest of the labeling by use of color contrast.
</P>
<P>(11)(i) The following labeling outlines the various provisions in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17mr99.003.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The following sample label illustrates the provisions in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17mr99.004.gif"/>
<P>(iii) The following sample label illustrates the provisions in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, including paragraph (d)(10) of this section, which permits modifications for small packages:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17mr99.005.gif"/>
<P>(iv) The following sample label illustrates the provisions in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section for a drug product marketed with cosmetic claims:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17mr99.006.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Exemptions and deferrals.</I> FDA on its own initiative or in response to a written request from any manufacturer, packer, or distributor, may exempt or defer, based on the circumstances presented, one or more specific requirements set forth in this section on the basis that the requirement is inapplicable, impracticable, or contrary to public health or safety. Requests for exemptions shall be submitted in three copies in the form of an “Application for Exemption” to the Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. The request shall be clearly identified on the envelope as a “Request for Exemption from 21 CFR 201.66 (OTC Labeling Format)” and shall be directed to Docket No. 98N-0337. A separate request shall be submitted for each OTC drug product. Sponsors of a product marketed under an approved drug application shall also submit a single copy of the exemption request to their application. Decisions on exemptions and deferrals will be maintained in a permanent file in this docket for public review. Exemption and deferral requests shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Document why a particular requirement is inapplicable, impracticable, or is contrary to public health or safety; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include a representation of the proposed labeling, including any outserts, panel extensions, or other graphical or packaging techniques intended to be used with the product. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Interchangeable terms and connecting terms.</I> The terms listed in § 330.1(i) of this chapter may be used interchangeably in the labeling of OTC drug products, provided such use does not alter the meaning of the labeling that has been established and identified in an applicable OTC drug monograph or by regulation. The terms listed in § 330.1(j) of this chapter may be deleted from the labeling of OTC drug products when the labeling is revised to comply with this section, provided such deletion does not alter the meaning of the labeling that has been established and identified in an applicable OTC drug monograph or by regulation. The terms listed in § 330.1(i) and (j) of this chapter shall not be used to change in any way the specific title, headings, and subheadings required under paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Regulatory action.</I> An OTC drug product that is not in compliance with the format and content requirements in this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 13286, Mar. 17, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 8, Jan. 3, 2000; 65 FR 48904, Aug. 10, 2000; 69 FR 13733, Mar. 24, 2004; 72 FR 71785, Dec. 19, 2007; 73 FR 403, Jan. 3, 2008; 74 FR 19407, Apr. 29, 2009; 76 FR 44487, July 26, 2011]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.67" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.67   Labeling requirements for a nonprescription drug product with an additional condition for nonprescription use (ACNU).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth labeling requirements for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> The following definition applies to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Additional condition for nonprescription use</I> (ACNU) means one or more FDA-approved conditions that an applicant of a nonprescription drug product must implement to ensure consumers' appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both, of the nonprescription drug product without the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law to administer such drug, if the applicant demonstrates and FDA determines that labeling alone is insufficient to ensure appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General labeling requirements.</I> (1) A nonprescription drug product with an ACNU must comply with applicable labeling requirements for nonprescription drug products under this part, including the format and content requirements for nonprescription drug product labeling under § 201.66 and the statements specified in § 201.130(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(2) A nonprescription drug product with an ACNU may also be approved with additional labeling that supplements the format and content requirements for nonprescription drug product labeling under § 201.66.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format requirements for the required statement about the ACNU.</I> The statement about the ACNU specified in § 201.130(b)(1) must meet all format requirements as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The statement about the ACNU must appear on the principal display panel (see § 201.60) and the immediate container surface that the consumer is most likely to view when seeking information about the drug product. If the immediate container is a bottle, the statement about the ACNU must appear on the surface that the consumer is most likely to consider the front of the bottle. If the immediate container is a blister card (including a card that contains more than one blister unit), the statement about the ACNU must appear on the blister card surface that the consumer would most likely view when removing the drug product from the blister card. If the blister card contains more than one blister unit (<I>e.g.,</I> perforated blister card where individual blister units can be separated from one another), the statement about the ACNU does not need to be included on each blister unit of a blister card. However, the statement about the ACNU must remain intact and be readable on the blister card when the drug product is removed from each blister unit.
</P>
<P>(2) The statement about the ACNU must appear in boldface and black type.
</P>
<P>(3) The statement about the ACNU must appear in a yellow background banner. No other information or statements may be included within the yellow background banner.
</P>
<P>(4) The statement about the ACNU must be in one of the following font sizes, whichever is greater:
</P>
<P>(i) At least 25 percent as large as the font size of the largest printed words on the principal display panel and immediate container; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At least 12-point font (1 point = 0.0138 inches).
</P>
<P>(5) An applicant may request an exception to the minimum font size requirement specified in paragraph (d)(4) of this section for containers where its size would render compliance with this requirement impractical. FDA may allow such an exception upon request by an applicant if FDA determines an exception is warranted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Misbranding.</I> A nonprescription drug product with an ACNU is misbranded under section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 352) if—
</P>
<P>(1) It does not comply with the labeling requirements specified in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section and § 201.130(a) through (c); or
</P>
<P>(2) The ACNU is not implemented by the applicant in accordance with the following, as approved by FDA in the application:
</P>
<P>(i) The key elements of the ACNU under § 314.56(c)(1)(iv) of this chapter for NDAs or § 314.56(c)(2)(ii) of this chapter for ANDAs; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The operationalization of the ACNU under § 314.56(c)(1)(vii) of this chapter for NDAs or § 314.56(c)(2)(iii) of this chapter for ANDAs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 105329, Dec. 26, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.70" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.70   Calcium labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of over-the-counter (OTC) drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the calcium content per dosage unit (e.g., tablet, teaspoonful) if the calcium content of a single maximum recommended dose of the product (which may be one or more dosage units) is 20 milligrams or more. OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion include gum and lozenge dosage forms, but do not include dentifrices, mouthwashes, or mouth rinses.
</P>
<P>(b) The calcium content shall be expressed in milligrams or grams per dosage unit and shall include the total amount of calcium regardless of the source, i.e., from both active and inactive ingredients. If the dosage unit contains less than 1 gram of calcium, milligrams should be used. The calcium content per dosage unit shall be rounded-off to the nearest 5 milligrams (or nearest tenth of a gram if over 1 gram). The calcium content per dosage unit shall follow the heading “Other information” as stated in § 201.66(c)(7).
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the following statement under the heading “Warning” (or “Warnings” if it appears with additional warning statements) if the amount of calcium present in the labeled maximum daily dose of the product is more than 3.2 grams: “Ask a doctor before use if you have [in bold type] [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> kidney stones [bullet] a calcium-restricted diet”. The warnings in §§ 201.64(c), 201.70(c), 201.71(c), and 201.72(c) may be combined, if applicable, provided the ingredients are listed in alphabetical order, e.g., a calcium or sodium restricted diet.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Any product subject to this paragraph that is not labeled as required by this paragraph and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the following dates is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(1) As of the date of approval of the application for any single entity and combination products subject to drug marketing applications approved on or after April 23, 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) September 24, 2005, for all OTC drug products subject to any OTC drug monograph, not yet the subject of any OTC drug monograph, or subject to drug marketing applications approved before April 23, 2004.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 13733, Mar. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.71" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.71   Magnesium labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of over-the-counter (OTC) drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the magnesium content per dosage unit (e.g., tablet, teaspoonful) if the magnesium content of a single maximum recommended dose of the product (which may be one or more dosage units) is 8 milligrams or more. OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion include gum and lozenge dosage forms, but do not include dentifrices, mouthwashes, or mouth rinses.
</P>
<P>(b) The magnesium content shall be expressed in milligrams or grams per dosage unit and shall include the total amount of magnesium regardless of the source, i.e., from both active and inactive ingredients. If the dosage unit contains less than 1 gram of magnesium, milligrams should be used. The magnesium content shall be rounded-off to the nearest 5 milligrams (or nearest tenth of a gram if over 1 gram). The magnesium content per dosage unit shall follow the heading “Other information” as stated in § 201.66(c)(7).
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the following statement under the heading “Warning” (or “Warnings” if it appears with additional warning statements) if the amount of magnesium present in the labeled maximum daily dose of the product is more than 600 milligrams: “Ask a doctor before use if you have [in bold type] [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> kidney disease [bullet] a magnesium-restricted diet”. The warnings in §§ 201.64(c), 201.70(c), 201.71(c), and 201.72(c) may be combined, if applicable, provided the ingredients are listed in alphabetical order, e.g., a magnesium or potassium-restricted diet.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Any product subject to this paragraph that is not labeled as required by this paragraph and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the following dates is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(1) As of the date of approval of the application for any single entity and combination products subject to drug marketing applications approved on or after April 23, 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) September 24. 2005, for all OTC drug products subject to any OTC drug monograph, not yet the subject of any OTC drug monograph, or subject to drug marketing applications approved before April 23, 2004.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 13734, Mar. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.72" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.72   Potassium labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of over-the-counter (OTC) drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the potassium content per dosage unit (e.g., tablet, teaspoonful) if the potassium content of a single maximum recommended dose of the product (which may be one or more dosage units) is 5 milligrams or more. OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion include gum and lozenge dosage forms, but do not include dentifrices, mouthwashes, or mouth rinses.
</P>
<P>(b) The potassium content shall be expressed in milligrams or grams per dosage unit and shall include the total amount of potassium regardless of the source, i.e., from both active and inactive ingredients. If the dosage unit contains less than 1 gram of potassium, milligrams should be used. The potassium content shall be rounded-off to the nearest 5 milligrams (or nearest tenth of a gram if over 1 gram). The potassium content per dosage unit shall follow the heading “Other information” as stated in § 201.66(c)(7).
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion shall contain the following statement under the heading “Warning” (or “Warnings” if it appears with additional warning statements) if the amount of potassium present in the labeled maximum daily dose of the product is more than 975 milligrams: “Ask a doctor before use if you have [in bold type] [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> kidney disease [bullet] a potassium-restricted diet”. The warnings in §§ 201.64(c), 201.70(c), 201.71(c), and 201.72(c) may be combined, if applicable, provided the ingredients are listed in alphabetical order, e.g., a magnesium or potassium-restricted diet.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Any product subject to this paragraph that is not labeled as required by this paragraph and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the following dates is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(1) As of the date of approval of the application for any single entity and combination products subject to drug marketing applications approved on or after April 23, 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) September 24, 2005, for all OTC drug products subject to any OTC drug monograph, not yet the subject of any OTC drug monograph, or subject to drug marketing applications approved before April 23, 2004.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 13734, Mar. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.80" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.80   Specific requirements on content and format of labeling for human prescription drug and biological products; older drugs not described in § 201.56(b)(1).</HEAD>
<P>Each section heading listed in § 201.56(d), if not omitted under § 201.56(d)(3), shall contain the following information in the following order:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> (1) Under this section heading, the labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The proprietary name and the established name, if any, as defined in section 502(e)(2) of the act, of the drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of dosage form and the route of administration to which the labeling applies;
</P>
<P>(iii) The same qualitative and/or quantitative ingredient information as required under § 201.100(b) for labels;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the product is sterile, a statement of that fact;
</P>
<P>(v) The pharmacological or therapeutic class of the drug;
</P>
<P>(vi) The chemical name and structural formula of the drug;
</P>
<P>(vii) If the product is radioactive, a statement of the important nuclear physical characteristics, such as the principal radiation emission data, external radiation, and physical decay characteristics.
</P>
<P>(2) If appropriate, other important chemical or physical information, such as physical constants, or pH, shall be stated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clinical Pharmacology.</I> (1) Under this section heading, the labeling shall contain a concise factual summary of the clinical pharmacology and actions of the drug in humans. The summary may include information based on in vitro and/or animal data if the information is essential to a description of the biochemical and/or physiological mode of action of the drug or is otherwise pertinent to human therapeutics. Pharmacokinetic information that is important to safe and effective use of the drug is required, if known, e.g., degree and rate of absorption, pathways of biotransformation, percentage of dose as unchanged drug and metabolites, rate or half-time of elimination, concentration in body fluids associated with therapeutic and/or toxic effects, degree of binding to plasma proteins, degree of uptake by a particular organ or in the fetus, and passage across the blood brain barrier. Inclusion of pharmacokinetic information is restricted to that which relates to clinical use of the drug. If the pharmacological mode of action of the drug is unknown or if important metabolic or pharmacokinetic data in humans are unavailable, the labeling shall contain a statement about the lack of information.
</P>
<P>(2) Data that demonstrate activity or effectiveness in in vitro or animal tests and that have not been shown by adequate and well-controlled clinical studies to be pertinent to clinical use may be included under this section of the labeling only under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) In vitro data for anti-infective drugs may be included if the data are immediately preceded by the statement “The following in vitro data are available but their clinical significance is unknown.”
</P>
<P>(ii) For other classes of drugs, in vitro and animal data that have not been shown by adequate and well-controlled clinical studies, as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter, to be pertinent to clinical use may be used only if a waiver is granted under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indications and Usage.</I> (1) Under this section heading, the labeling shall state that:
</P>
<P>(i) The drug is indicated in the treatment, prevention, or diagnosis of a recognized disease or condition, e.g., penicillin is indicated for the treatment of pneumonia due to susceptible pneumococci; and/or
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug is indicated for the treatment, prevention, or diagnosis of an important manifestation of a disease or condition, e.g., chlorothiazide is indicated for the treatment of edema in patients with congestive heart failure; and/or
</P>
<P>(iii) The drug is indicated for the relief of symptoms associated with a disease or syndrome, e.g., chlorpheniramine is indicated for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion in patients with vasomotor rhinitis; and/or
</P>
<P>(iv) The drug, if used for a particular indication only in conjuction with a primary mode of therapy, e.g., diet, surgery, or some other drug, is an adjunct to the mode of therapy.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For drug products other than biological products, all indications listed in this section must be supported by substantial evidence of effectiveness based on adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter unless the requirement is waived under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter. Indications or uses must not be implied or suggested in other sections of labeling if not included in this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For biological products, all indications listed in this section must be supported by substantial evidence of effectiveness. Indications or uses must not be implied or suggested in other sections of labeling if not included in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) This section of the labeling shall also contain the following additional information:
</P>
<P>(i) If evidence is available to support the safety and effectiveness of the drug only in selected subgroups of the larger population with a disease, syndrome, or symptom under consideration, e.g., patients with mild disease or patients in a special age group, the labeling shall describe the available evidence and state the limitations of usefulness of the drug. The labeling shall also identify specific tests needed for selection or monitoring of the patients who need the drug, e.g., microbe susceptibility tests. Information on the approximate kind, degree, and duration of improvement to be anticipated shall be stated if available and shall be based on substantial evidence derived from adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter unless the requirement is waived under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter. If the information is relevant to the recommended intervals between doses, the usual duration of treatment, or any modification of dosage, it shall be stated in the “Dosage and Administration” section of the labeling and referenced in this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If safety considerations are such that the drug should be reserved for certain situations, e.g., cases refractory to other drugs, this information shall be stated in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If there are specific conditions that should be met before the drug is used on a long-term basis, e.g., demonstration of responsiveness to the drug in a short-term trial, the labeling shall identify the conditions; or, if the indications for long-term use are different from those for short-term use, the labeling shall identify the specific indications for each use.
</P>
<P>(iv) If there is a common belief that the drug may be effective for a certain use or if there is a common use of the drug for a condition, but the preponderance of evidence related to the use or condition shows that the drug is ineffective, the Food and Drug Administration may require that the labeling state that there is a lack of evidence that the drug is effective for that use or condition.
</P>
<P>(v) Any statements comparing the safety or effectiveness, either greater or less, of the drug with other agents for the same indication shall be supported by adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter unless this requirement is waived under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contraindications.</I> Under this section heading, the labeling shall describe those situations in which the drug should not be used because the risk of use clearly outweighs any possible benefit. These situations include administration of the drug to patients known to have a hypersensitivity to it; use of the drug in patients who, because of their particular age, sex, concomitant therapy, disease state, or other condition, have a substantial risk of being harmed by it; or continued use of the drug in the face of an unacceptably hazardous adverse reaction. Known hazards and not theoretical possibilities shall be listed, e.g., if hypersensitivity to the drug has not been demonstrated, it should not be listed as a contraindication. If no contraindications are known, this section of the labeling shall state “None known.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Warnings.</I> Under this section heading, the labeling shall describe serious adverse reactions and potential safety hazards, limitations in use imposed by them, and steps that should be taken if they occur. The labeling shall be revised to include a warning as soon as there is reasonable evidence of an association of a serious hazard with a drug; a causal relationship need not have been proved. A specific warning relating to a use not provided for under the “Indications and Usage” section of the labeling may be required by the Food and Drug Administration if the drug is commonly prescribed for a disease or condition, and there is lack of substantial evidence of effectivenes for that disease or condition, and such usage is associated with serious risk or hazard. Special problems, particularly those that may lead to death or serious injury, may be required by the Food and Drug Administration to be placed in a prominently displayed box. The boxed warning ordinarily shall be based on clinical data, but serious animal toxicity may also be the basis of a boxed warning in the absence of clinical data. If a boxed warning is required, its location will be specified by the Food and Drug Administration. The frequency of these serious adverse reactions and, if known, the approximate mortality and morbidity rates for patients sustaining the reaction, which are important to safe and effective use of the drug, shall be expressed as provided under the “Adverse Reactions” section of the labeling.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Precautions.</I> Under this section heading, the labeling shall contain the following subsections as appropriate for the drug:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> This subsection of the labeling shall contain information regarding any special care to be exercised by the practitioner for safe and effective use of the drug, e.g., precautions not required under any other specific section or subsection of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information for patients.</I> This subsection must contain information necessary for patients to use the drug safely and effectively (e.g., precautions concerning driving or the concomitant use of other substances that may have harmful additive effects). Any FDA-approved patient labeling must be referenced in this section and the full text of such patient labeling must be reprinted immediately following the last section of labeling or, alternatively, accompany the prescription drug labeling. The type size requirement for the Medication Guide set forth in § 208.20 of this chapter does not apply to the Medication Guide that is reprinted in or accompanying the prescription drug labeling unless such Medication Guide is to be detached and distributed to patients in compliance with § 208.24 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Laboratory tests.</I> This subsection of the labeling shall identify any laboratory tests that may be helpful in following the patient's response or in identifying possible adverse reactions. If appropriate, information shall be provided on such factors as the range of normal and abnormal values expected in the particular situation and the recommended frequency with which tests should be done before, during, and after therapy.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) <I>Drug interactions.</I> This subsection of the labeling shall contain specific practical guidance for the physician on preventing clinically significant drug/drug and drug/food interactions that may occur in vivo in patients taking the drug. Specific drugs or classes of drugs with which the drug to which the labeling applies may interact in vivo shall be identified, and the mechanism(s) of the interaction shall be briefly described. Information in this subsection of the labeling shall be limited to that pertaining to clinical use of the drug in patients. Drug interactions supported only by animal or in vitro experiments may not ordinarily be included, but animal or in vitro data may be used if shown to be clinically relevant. Drug incompatibilities, i.e., drug interactions that may occur when drugs are mixed in vitro, as in a solution for intravenous administration, shall be discussed under the “Dosage and Administration” section of the labeling rather than under this subsection of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Drug/laboratory test interactions.</I> This subsection of the labeling shall contain practical guidance on known interference of the drug with laboratory tests.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Carcinogenesis, mutagenesis, impairment of fertility.</I> This subsection of the labeling shall state whether long-term studies in animals have been performed to evaluate carcinogenic potential and, if so, the species and results. If reproduction studies or other data in animals reveal a problem or potential problem concerning mutagenesis or impairment of fertility in either males or females, the information shall be described. Any precautionary statement on these topics shall include practical, relevant advice to the physician on the significance of these animal findings. If there is evidence from human data that the drug may be carcinogenic or mutagenic or that it impairs fertility, this information shall be included under the “Warnings” section of the labeling. Also, under “Precautions,” the labeling shall state: “See ‘Warnings’ section for information on carcinogenesis, mutagenesis, and impairment of fertility.”




</P>
<P>(6) <I>Pregnancy.</I> This subsection of the labeling may be omitted only if the drug is not absorbed systemically and the drug is not known to have a potential for indirect harm to the fetus. For all other drugs, this subsection of the labeling shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Teratogenic effects.</I> Under this heading the labeling shall identify one of the following categories that applies to the drug, and the labeling shall bear the statement required under the category:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)  If adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters), the labeling shall state: “Studies in pregnant women have not shown that (<I>name of drug</I>) increases the risk of fetal abnormalities if administered during the first (<I>second, third, or all</I>) trimester(<I>s</I>) of pregnancy. If this drug is used during pregnancy, the possibility of fetal harm appears remote. Because studies cannot rule out the possibility of harm, however, (<I>name of drug</I>) should be used during pregnancy only if clearly needed.” The labeling shall also contain a description of the human studies. If animal reproduction studies are available and they fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus, the labeling shall also state: “Reproduction studies have been performed in (<I>kinds of animal</I>(<I>s</I>)) at doses up to (<I>x</I>) times the human dose and have revealed no evidence of impaired fertility or harm to the fetus due to (<I>name of drug</I>).” The labeling shall also contain a description of available data on the effect of the drug on the later growth, development, and functional maturation of the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>)  If animal reproduction studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women, the labeling shall state: “ Reproduction studies have been performed in (<I>kind</I>(<I>s</I>) <I>of animal</I>(<I>s</I>)) at doses up to (<I>x</I>) times the human dose and have revealed no evidence of impaired fertility or harm to the fetus due to (<I>name of drug</I>). There are, however, no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women. Because animal reproduction studies are not always predictive of human response, this drug should be used during pregnancy only if clearly needed.” If animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect (other than decrease in fertility), but adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters), the labeling shall state: “Reproduction studies in (<I>kind</I>(<I>s</I>) <I>of animal</I>(<I>s</I>)) have shown (<I>describe findings</I>) at (<I>x</I>) times the human dose. Studies in pregnant women, however, have not shown that (<I>name of drug</I>) increases the risk of abnormalities when administered during the first (<I>second, third, or all</I>) trimester(<I>s</I>) of pregnancy. Despite the animal findings, it would appear that the possibility of fetal harm is remote, if the drug is used during pregnancy. Nevertheless, because the studies in humans cannot rule out the possibility of harm, (<I>name of drug</I>) should be used during pregnancy only if clearly needed.” The labeling shall also contain a description of the human studies and a description of available data on the effect of the drug on the later growth, development, and functional maturation of the child.




</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>)  If animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, if there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, and if the benefits from the use of the drug in pregnant women may be acceptable despite its potential risks, the labeling shall state: “ (<I>Name of drug</I>) has been shown to be teratogenic (or to have an embryocidal effect or other adverse effect) in (<I>name</I>(<I>s</I>) <I>of species</I>) when given in doses (<I>x</I>) times the human dose. There are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women. (<I>Name of drug</I>) should be used during pregnancy only if the potential benefit justifies the potential risk to the fetus.” The labeling shall contain a description of the animal studies. If there are no animal reproduction studies and no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, the labeling shall state: “Animal reproduction studies have not been conducted with (<I>name of drug</I>). It is also not known whether (<I>name of drug</I>) can cause fetal harm when administered to a pregnant woman or can affect reproduction capacity. (<I>Name of drug</I>) should be given to a pregnant woman only if clearly needed.” The labeling shall contain a description of any available data on the effect of the drug on the later growth, development, and functional maturation of the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>)  If there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but the potential benefits from the use of the drug in pregnant women may be acceptable despite its potential risks (for example, if the drug is needed in a life-threatening situation or serious disease for which safer drugs cannot be used or are ineffective), the labeling shall state: “ See ‘Warnings’ section.” Under the “Warnings” section, the labeling states: “(<I>Name of drug</I>) can cause fetal harm when administered to a pregnant woman. (<I>Describe the human data and any pertinent animal data.</I>) If this drug is used during pregnancy, or if the patient becomes pregnant while taking this drug, the patient should be apprised of the potential hazard to the fetus.”
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>)  If studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities or if there is positive evidence of fetal risk based on adverse reaction reports from investigational or marketing experience, or both, and the risk of the use of the drug in a pregnant woman clearly outweighs any possible benefit (for example, safer drugs or other forms of therapy are available), the labeling shall state: “ See ‘Contraindications’ section.” Under “Contraindications,” the labeling shall state: <I>“(Name of drug)</I> may (<I>can</I>) cause fetal harm when administered to a pregnant woman. (<I>Describe the human data and any pertinant animal data.</I>) (<I>Name of drug</I>) is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant. If this drug is used during pregnancy, or if the patient becomes pregnant while taking this drug, the patient should be apprised of the potential hazard to the fetus.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nonteratogenic effects.</I> Under this heading the labeling shall contain other information on the drug's effects on reproduction and the drug's use during pregnancy that is not required specifically by one of the pregnancy categories, if the information is relevant to the safe and effective use of the drug. Information required under this heading shall include nonteratogenic effects in the fetus or newborn infant (for example, withdrawal symptoms or hypoglycemia) that may occur because of a pregnant woman's chronic use of the drug for a preexisting condition or disease.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Labor and delivery.</I> If the drug has a recognized use during labor or delivery (vaginal or abdominal delivery), whether or not the use is stated in the indications section of the labeling, this subsection of the labeling shall describe the available information about the effect of the drug on the mother and the fetus, on the duration of labor or delivery, on the possibility that forceps delivery or other intervention or resuscitation of the newborn will be necessary, and the effect of the drug on the later growth, development, and functional maturation of the child. If any information required under this subsection is unknown, this subsection of the labeling shall state that the information is unknown.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Nursing mothers.</I> (i) If a drug is absorbed systemically, this subsection of the labeling shall contain, if known, information about excretion of the drug in human milk and effects on the nursing infant. Pertinent adverse effects observed in animal offspring shall be described.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a drug is absorbed systemically and is known to be excreted in human milk, this subsection of the labeling shall contain one of the following statements, as appropriate. If the drug is associated with serious adverse reactions or if the drug has a known tumorigenic potential, the labeling shall state: “Because of the potential for serious adverse reactions in nursing infants from (<I>name of drug</I>) (or, “Because of the potential for tumorigenicity shown for (<I>name of drug</I>) in (<I>animal or human</I>) studies), a decision should be made whether to discontinue nursing or to discontinue the drug, taking into account the importance of the drug to the mother.” If the drug is not associated with serious adverse reactions and does not have a known tumorigenic potential, the labeling shall state: “Caution should be exercised when (<I>name of drug</I>) is administered to a nursing woman.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If a drug is absorbed systemically and information on excretion in human milk is unknown, this subsection of the labeling shall contain one of the following statements, as appropriate. If the drug is associated with serious adverse reactions or has a known tumorigenic potential, the labeling shall state: “It is not known whether this drug is excreted in human milk. Because many drugs are excreted in human milk and because of the potential for serious adverse reactions in nursing infants from (<I>name of drug</I>) (or, “Because of the potential for tumorigenicity shown for (<I>name of drug</I>) in (<I>animal or human</I>) studies), a decision should be made whether to discontinue nursing or to discontinue the drug, taking into account the importance of the drug to the mother.” If the drug is not associated with serious adverse reactions and does not have a known tumorigenic potential, the labeling shall state: “It is not known whether this drug is excreted in human milk. Because many drugs are excreted in human milk, caution should be exercised when (<I>name of drug</I>) is administered to a nursing woman.”
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Pediatric use.</I> (i) Pediatric population(s)/pediatric patient(s): For the purposes of paragraphs (f)(9)(ii) through (f)(9)(viii) of this section, the terms <I>pediatric population(s)</I> and <I>pediatric patient(s)</I> are defined as the pediatric age group, from birth to 16 years, including age groups often called neonates, infants, children, and adolescents.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a specific pediatric indication (i.e., an indication different from those approved for adults) that is supported by adequate and well-controlled studies in the pediatric population, it shall be described under the “Indications and Usage” section of the labeling, and appropriate pediatric dosage information shall be given under the “Dosage and Administration” section of the labeling. The “Pediatric use” subsection shall cite any limitations on the pediatric indication, need for specific monitoring, specific hazards associated with use of the drug in any subsets of the pediatric population (e.g., neonates), differences between pediatric and adult responses to the drug, and other information related to the safe and effective pediatric use of the drug. Data summarized in this subsection of the labeling should be discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under the “Clinical Pharmacology” or “Clinical Studies” section. As appropriate, this information shall also be contained in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” and elsewhere in the “Precautions” sections.
</P>
<P>(iii) If there are specific statements on pediatric use of the drug for an indication also approved for adults that are based on adequate and well-controlled studies in the pediatric population, they shall be summarized in the “Pediatric use” subsection of the labeling and discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under the “Clinical Pharmacology” and “Clinical Studies” sections. Appropriate pediatric dosage shall be given under the “Dosage and Administration” section of the labeling. The “Pediatric use” subsection of the labeling shall also cite any limitations on the pediatric use statement, need for specific monitoring, specific hazards associated with use of the drug in any subsets of the pediatric population (e.g., neonates), differences between pediatric and adult responses to the drug, and other information related to the safe and effective pediatric use of the drug. As appropriate, this information shall also be contained in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” and elsewhere in the “Precautions” sections.
</P>
<P>(iv) FDA may approve a drug for pediatric use based on adequate and well-controlled studies in adults, with other information supporting pediatric use. In such cases, the agency will have concluded that the course of the disease and the effects of the drug, both beneficial and adverse, are sufficiently similar in the pediatric and adult populations to permit extrapolation from the adult efficacy data to pediatric patients. The additional information supporting pediatric use must ordinarily include data on the pharmacokinetics of the drug in the pediatric population for determination of appropriate dosage. Other information, such as data from pharmacodynamic studies of the drug in the pediatric population, data from other studies supporting the safety or effectiveness of the drug in pediatric patients, pertinent premarketing or postmarketing studies or experience, may be necessary to show that the drug can be used safely and effectively in pediatric patients. When a drug is approved for pediatric use based on adequate and well-controlled studies in adults with other information supporting pediatric use, the “Pediatric use” subsection of the labeling shall contain either the following statement, or a reasonable alternative: “The safety and effectiveness of (<I>drug name</I>) have been established in the age groups _ to _ (note any limitations, e.g., no data for pediatric patients under 2, or only applicable to certain indications approved in adults). Use of (<I>drug name</I>) in these age groups is supported by evidence from adequate and well-controlled studies of (<I>drug name</I>) in adults with additional data (insert wording that accurately describes the data submitted to support a finding of substantial evidence of effectiveness in the pediatric population).” Data summarized in the preceding prescribed statement in this subsection of the labeling shall be discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under the “Clinical Pharmacology” or the “Clinical Studies” section. For example, pediatric pharmacokinetic or pharmacodynamic studies and dose-response information should be described in the “Clinical Pharmacology” section. Pediatric dosing instructions shall be included in the “Dosage and Administration” section of the labeling. Any differences between pediatric and adult responses, need for specific monitoring, dosing adjustments, and any other information related to safe and effective use of the drug in pediatric patients shall be cited briefly in the “Pediatric use” subsection and, as appropriate, in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” “Precautions,” and “Dosage and Administration” sections.
</P>
<P>(v) If the requirements for a finding of substantial evidence to support a pediatric indication or a pediatric use statement have not been met for a particular pediatric population, the “Pediatric use” subsection of the labeling shall contain an appropriate statement such as “Safety and effectiveness in pediatric patients below the age of (_) have not been established.” If use of the drug in this pediatric population is associated with a specific hazard, the hazard shall be described in this subsection of the labeling, or, if appropriate, the hazard shall be stated in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings” section of the labeling and this subsection shall refer to it.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the requirements for a finding of substantial evidence to support a pediatric indication or a pediatric use statement have not been met for any pediatric population, this subsection of the labeling shall contain the following statement: “Safety and effectiveness in pediatric patients have not been established.” If use of the drug in premature or neonatal infants, or other pediatric subgroups, is associated with a specific hazard, the hazard shall be described in this subsection of the labeling, or, if appropriate, the hazard shall be stated in the “Contraindications” or “Warnings” section of the labeling and this subsection shall refer to it.
</P>
<P>(vii) If the sponsor believes that none of the statements described in paragraphs (f)(9)(ii) through (f)(9)(vi) of this section is appropriate or relevant to the labeling of a particular drug, the sponsor shall provide reasons for omission of the statements and may propose alternative statement(s). FDA may permit use of an alternative statement if FDA determines that no statement described in those paragraphs is appropriate or relevant to the drug's labeling and that the alternative statement is accurate and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(viii) If the drug product contains one or more inactive ingredients that present an increased risk of toxic effects to neonates or other pediatric subgroups, a special note of this risk shall be made, generally in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” or “Precautions” section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Geriatric use.</I> (i) A specific geriatric indication, if any, that is supported by adequate and well-controlled studies in the geriatric population shall be described under the “Indications and Usage” section of the labeling, and appropriate geriatric dosage shall be stated under the “Dosage and Administration” section of the labeling. The “Geriatric use” subsection shall cite any limitations on the geriatric indication, need for specific monitoring, specific hazards associated with the geriatric indication, and other information related to the safe and effective use of the drug in the geriatric population. Unless otherwise noted, information contained in the “Geriatric use” subsection of the labeling shall pertain to use of the drug in persons 65 years of age and older. Data summarized in this subsection of the labeling shall be discussed in more detail, if appropriate, under “Clinical Pharmacology” or the “Clinical Studies” section. As appropriate, this information shall also be contained in “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” and elsewhere in “Precautions.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific statements on geriatric use of the drug for an indication approved for adults generally, as distinguished from a specific geriatric indication, shall be contained in the “Geriatric use” subsection and shall reflect all information available to the sponsor that is relevant to the appropriate use of the drug in elderly patients. This information includes detailed results from controlled studies that are available to the sponsor and pertinent information from well-documented studies obtained from a literature search. Controlled studies include those that are part of the marketing application and other relevant studies available to the sponsor that have not been previously submitted in the investigational new drug application, new drug application, biological license application, or a supplement or amendment to one of these applications (e.g., postmarketing studies or adverse drug reaction reports). The “Geriatric use” subsection shall contain the following statement(s) or reasonable alternative, as applicable, taking into account available information:
</P>
<P>(A) If clinical studies did not include sufficient numbers of subjects aged 65 and over to determine whether elderly subjects respond differently from younger subjects, and other reported clinical experience has not identified such differences, the “Geriatric use” subsection shall include the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Clinical studies of (name of drug) did not include sufficient numbers of subjects aged 65 and over to determine whether they respond differently from younger subjects. Other reported clinical experience has not identified differences in responses between the elderly and younger patients. In general, dose selection for an elderly patient should be cautious, usually starting at the low end of the dosing range, reflecting the greater frequency of decreased hepatic, renal, or cardiac function, and of concomitant disease or other drug therapy.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) If clinical studies (including studies that are part of marketing applications and other relevant studies available to the sponsor that have not been submitted in the sponsor's applications) included enough elderly subjects to make it likely that differences in safety or effectiveness between elderly and younger subjects would have been detected, but no such differences (in safety or effectiveness) were observed, and other reported clinical experience has not identified such differences, the “Geriatric use” subsection shall contain the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Of the total number of subjects in clinical studies of (name of drug), _ percent were 65 and over, while _ percent were 75 and over. (Alternatively, the labeling may state the total number of subjects included in the studies who were 65 and over and 75 and over.) No overall differences in safety or effectiveness were observed between these subjects and younger subjects, and other reported clinical experience has not identified differences in responses between the elderly and younger patients, but greater sensitivity of some older individuals cannot be ruled out.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) If evidence from clinical studies and other reported clinical experience available to the sponsor indicates that use of the drug in elderly patients is associated with differences in safety or effectiveness, or requires specific monitoring or dosage adjustment, the “Geriatric use” subsection of the labeling shall contain a brief description of observed differences or specific monitoring or dosage requirements and, as appropriate, shall refer to more detailed discussions in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” “Dosage and Administration,” or other sections of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) If specific pharmacokinetic or pharmacodynamic studies have been carried out in the elderly, they shall be described briefly in the “Geriatric use” subsection of the labeling and in detail under the “Clinical Pharmacology” section. The “Clinical Pharmacology” section and “Drug interactions” subsection of the “Precautions” section ordinarily contain information on drug-disease and drug-drug interactions that is particularly relevant to the elderly, who are more likely to have concomitant illness and to utilize concomitant drugs.
</P>
<P>(B) If a drug is known to be substantially excreted by the kidney, the “Geriatric use” subsection shall include the statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“This drug is known to be substantially excreted by the kidney, and the risk of toxic reactions to this drug may be greater in patients with impaired renal function. Because elderly patients are more likely to have decreased renal function, care should be taken in dose selection, and it may be useful to monitor renal function.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) If use of the drug in the elderly appears to cause a specific hazard, the hazard shall be described in the “Geriatric use” subsection of the labeling, or, if appropriate, the hazard shall be stated in the “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” or “Precautions” section of the labeling, and the “Geriatric use” subsection shall refer to those sections.
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling under paragraphs (f)(10)(i) through (f)(10)(iii) of this section may include statements, if they would be useful in enhancing safe use of the drug, that reflect good clinical practice or past experience in a particular situation, e.g., for a sedating drug, it could be stated that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Sedating drugs may cause confusion and over-sedation in the elderly; elderly patients generally should be started on low doses of (name of drug) and observed closely.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) If the sponsor believes that none of the requirements described in paragraphs (f)(10)(i) through (f)(10)(v) of this section is appropriate or relevant to the labeling of a particular drug, the sponsor shall provide reasons for omission of the statements and may propose an alternative statement. FDA may permit omission of the statements if FDA determines that no statement described in those paragraphs is appropriate or relevant to the drug's labeling. FDA may permit use of an alternative statement if the agency determines that such statement is accurate and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Adverse Reactions.</I> An adverse reaction is an undesirable effect, reasonably associated with the use of the drug, that may occur as part of the pharmacological action of the drug or may be unpredictable in its occurrence.
</P>
<P>(1) This section of the labeling shall list the adverse reactions that occur with the drug and with drugs in the same pharmacologically active and chemically related class, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) In this listing, adverse reactions may be categorized by organ system, by severity of the reaction, by frequency, or by toxicological mechanism, or by a combination of these, as appropriate. If frequency information from adequate clinical studies is available, the categories and the adverse reactions within each category shall be listed in decreasing order of frequency. An adverse reaction that is significantly more severe than the other reactions listed in a category, however, shall be listed before those reactions, regardless of its frequency. If frequency information from adequate clinical studies is not available, the categories and adverse reactions within each category shall be listed in decreasing order of severity. The approximate frequency of each adverse reaction shall be expressed in rough estimates or orders of magnitude essentially as follows: “The most frequent adverse reaction(s) to (<I>name of drug</I>) is (are) (<I>list reactions</I>). This (these) occur(s) in about (e.g., one-third of patients; one in 30 patients; less than one-tenth of patients). Less frequent adverse reactions are (<I>list reactions</I>), which occur in approximately (e.g., one in 100 patients). Other adverse reactions, which occur rarely, in approximately (e.g., one in 1,000 patients), are (<I>list reactions</I>).” Percent figures may not ordinarily be used unless they are documented by adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter, they are shown to reflect general experience, and they do not falsely imply a greater degree of accuracy than actually exists.
</P>
<P>(3) The “Warnings” section of the labeling or, if appropriate, the “Contraindications” section of the labeling shall identify any potentially fatal adverse reaction.
</P>
<P>(4) Any claim comparing the drug to which the labeling applies with other drugs in terms of frequency, severity, or character of adverse reactions shall be based on adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter unless this requirement is waived under § 201.58 or § 314.126(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Drug Abuse and Dependence.</I> Under this section heading, the labeling shall contain the following subsections, as appropriate for the drug:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Controlled Substance.</I> If the drug is controlled by the Drug Enforcement Administration, the schedule in which it is controlled shall be stated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Abuse.</I> This subsection of the labeling shall be based primarily on human data and human experience, but pertinent animal data may also be used. This subsection shall state the types of abuse that can occur with the drug and the adverse reactions pertinent to them. Particularly susceptible patient populations shall be identified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dependence.</I> This subsection of the labeling shall describe characteristic effects resulting from both psychological and physical dependence that occur with the drug and shall identify the quantity of the drug over a period of time that may lead to tolerance or dependence, or both. Details shall be provided on the adverse effects of chronic abuse and the effects of abrupt withdrawal. Procedures necessary to diagnose the dependent state shall be provided, and the principles of treating the effects of abrupt withdrawal shall be described.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Overdosage.</I> Under this section heading, the labeling shall describe the signs, symptoms, and laboratory findings of acute overdosage and the general principles of treatment. This section shall be based on human data, when available. If human data are unavailable, appropriate animal and in vitro data may be used. Specific information shall be provided about the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Signs, symptoms, and laboratory findings associated with an overdosage of the drug.
</P>
<P>(2) Complications that can occur with the drug (for example, organ toxicity or delayed acidosis).
</P>
<P>(3) Oral LD<E T="52">50</E> of the drug in animals; concentrations of the drug in biologic fluids associated with toxicity and/or death; physiologic variables influencing excretion of the drug, such as urine pH; and factors that influence the dose response relationship of the drug, such as tolerance. The pharmacokinetic data given in the “Clinical Pharmacology” section also may be referenced here, if applicable to overdoses.
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of the drug in a single dose that is ordinarily associated with symptoms of overdosage and the amount of the drug in a single dose that is likely to be life-threatening.
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the drug is dialyzable.
</P>
<P>(6) Recommended general treatment procedures and specific measures for support of vital functions, such as proven antidotes, gastric lavage, and forced diuresis. Unqualified recommendations for which data are lacking with the specific drug or class of drugs, especially treatment using another drug (for example, central nervous system stimulants, respiratory stimulants) may not be stated unless specific data or scientific rationale exists to support safe and effective use.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dosage and Administration.</I> This section of the labeling shall state the recommended usual dose, the usual dosage range, and, if appropriate, an upper limit beyond which safety and effectiveness have not been established; dosages shall be stated for each indication when appropriate. Dosing regimens must not be implied or suggested in other sections of labeling if not included in this section. This section shall also state the intervals recommended between doses, the optimal method of titrating dosage, the usual duration of treatment, and any modification of dosage needed in special patient populations, e.g., in children, in geriatric age groups, or in patients with renal or hepatic disease. Specific tables or monographs may be included to clarify dosage schedules. Radiation dosimetry information shall be stated for both the patient receiving a radioactive drug and the person administering it. This section shall also contain specific direction on dilution, preparation (including the strength of the final dosage solution, when prepared according to instructions, in terms of milligrams active ingredient per milliliter of reconstituted solution, unless another measure of the strength is more appropriate), and administration of the dosage form, if needed, e.g., the rate of administration of parenteral drug in milligrams per minute; storage conditions for stability of the drug or reconstituted drug, when important; essential information on drug incompatibilities if the drug is mixed in vitro with other drugs; and the following statement for parenterals: “Parenteral drug products should be inspected visually for particulate matter and discoloration prior to administration, whenever solution and container permit.”
</P>
<P>(k) <I>How Supplied.</I> This section of the labeling shall contain information on the available dosage forms to which the labeling applies and for which the manufacturer or distributor is responsible. The information shall ordinarily include:
</P>
<P>(1) The strength of the dosage form, e.g., 10-milligram tablets, in metric system and, if the apothecary system is used, a statement of the strength is placed in parentheses after the metric designation;
</P>
<P>(2) The units in which the dosage form is ordinarily available for prescribing by practitioners, e.g., bottles of 100;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate information to facilitate identification of the dosage forms, such as shape, color, coating, scoring, and National Drug Code; and
</P>
<P>(4) Special handling and storage conditions.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Animal Pharmacology and/or Animal Toxicology.</I> In most cases, the labeling need not include this section. Significant animal data necessary for safe and effective use of the drug in humans shall ordinarily be included in one or more of the other sections of the labeling, as appropriate. Commonly for a drug that has been marketed for a long time, and in rare cases for a new drug, chronic animal toxicity studies have not been performed or completed for a drug that is administered over prolonged periods or is implanted in the body. The unavailability of such data shall be stated in the appropriate section of the labeling for the drug. If the pertinent animal data cannot be appropriately incorporated into other sections of the labeling, this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>“Clinical Studies” and “References”.</I> These sections may appear in labeling in the place of a detailed discussion of a subject that is of limited interest but nonetheless important. A reference to a specific important clinical study may be made in any section of the format required under §§ 201.56 and 201.57 if the study is essential to an understandable presentation of the available information. References may appear in sections of the labeling format, other than the “Clinical Studies” or “References” section, in rare circumstances only. A clinical study or reference may be cited in prescription drug labeling only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) If the clinical study is cited in the labeling in place of a detailed discussion of data and information concerning an indication for use of the drug, the clinical study must constitute an adequate and well-controlled study as described in § 314.126(b) of this chapter, except for biological products, and must not imply or suggest indications or uses or dosing regimens not stated in the “Indications and Usage” or “Dosage and Administration” section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When prescription drug labeling must summarize or otherwise rely on a recommendation by an authoritative scientific body, or on a standardized methodology, scale, or technique, because the information is important to prescribing decisions, the labeling may include a reference to the source of the information.
</P>
<P>(2) If the clinical study or reference is cited in the labeling in the place of a detailed discussion of data and information concerning a risk or risks from the use of the drug, the risk or risks shall also be identified or discussed in the appropriate section of the labeling for the drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 37462, June 26, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 11576, Mar. 29, 1990; 59 FR 64249, Dec. 13, 1994; 62 FR 45325, Aug. 27, 1997; 63 FR 66396, Dec. 1, 1998. Redesignated and amended at 71 FR 3988, 3996, Jan. 24, 2006; 79 FR 72103, Dec. 4, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exemptions From Adequate Directions for Use</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.100" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.100   Prescription drugs for human use.</HEAD>
<P>A drug subject to the requirements of section 503(b)(1) of the act shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The drug is:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) In the possession of a person (or his agents or employees) regularly and lawfully engaged in the manufacture, transportation, storage, or wholesale distribution of prescription drugs; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the possession of a retail, hospital, or clinic pharmacy, or a public health agency, regularly and lawfully engaged in dispensing prescription drugs; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the possession of a practitioner licensed by law to administer or prescribe such drugs; and
</P>
<P>(2) It is to be dispensed in accordance with section 503(b)
</P>
<P>(b) The label of the drug bears:
</P>
<P>(1) The statement “Rx only” and
</P>
<P>(2) The recommended or usual dosage and
</P>
<P>(3) The route of administration, if it is not for oral use; and
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity or proportion of each active ingredient, as well as the information required by section 502 (d) and (e); and
</P>
<P>(5) If it is for other than oral use, the names of all inactive ingredients, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Flavorings and perfumes may be designated as such without naming their components.
</P>
<P>(ii) Color additives may be designated as coloring without naming specific color components unless the naming of such components is required by a color additive regulation prescribed in subchapter A of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Trace amounts of harmless substances added solely for individual product identification need not be named. If it is intended for administration by parenteral injection, the quantity or proportion of all inactive ingredients, except that ingredients added to adjust the pH or to make the drug isotonic may be declared by name and a statement of their effect; and if the vehicle is water for injection it need not be named.
</P>
<P>(6) An identifying lot or control number from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the package of the drug.
</P>
<P>(7) A statement directed to the pharmacist specifying the type of container to be used in dispensing the drug product to maintain its identity, strength, quality, and purity. Where there are standards and test procedures for determining that the container meets the requirements for specified types of containers as defined in an official compendium, such terms may be used. For example, “Dispense in tight, light-resistant container as defined in the National Formulary”. Where standards and test procedures for determining the types of containers to be used in dispensing the drug product are not included in an official compendium, the specific container or types of containers known to be adequate to maintain the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the drug products shall be described. For example, “Dispense in containers which (statement of specifications which clearly enable the dispensing pharmacist to select an adequate container)”: <I>Provided, however,</I> That in the case of containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information, but which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for dispensing or use, the information required by paragraph (b) (2), (3), (5), and (7) of this section may be contained in other labeling on or within the package from which it is to be dispensed; the information referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be placed on such outer container only; and the information required by paragraph (b)(6) of this section may be on the crimp of the dispensing tube. The information required by this paragraph (b)(7) is not required for prescription drug products packaged in unit-dose, unit-of-use, on other packaging format in which the manufacturer's original package is designed and intended to be dispensed to patients without repackaging.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed bears adequate information for its use, including indications, effects, dosages, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration, and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions under which practitioners licensed by law to administer the drug can use the drug safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is advertised or represented; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the article is subject to section 505 of the act, the labeling bearing such information is the labeling authorized by the approved new drug application or required as a condition for the certification or the exemption from certification requirements applicable to preparations of insulin or antibiotic drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) Any labeling, as defined in section 201(m) of the act, whether or not it is on or within a package from which the drug is to be dispensed, distributed by or on behalf of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug, that furnishes or purports to furnish information for use or which prescribes, recommends, or suggests a dosage for the use of the drug (other than dose information required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section and § 201.105(b)(2) contains:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate information for such use, including indications, effects, dosages, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration and any relevant warnings, hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions, under which practitioners licensed by law to administer the drug can use the drug safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including all conditions for which it is advertised or represented; and if the article is subject to section 505 of the act, the parts of the labeling providing such information are the same in language and emphasis as labeling approved or permitted, under the provisions of section 505, and any other parts of the labeling are consistent with and not contrary to such approved or permitted labeling; and
</P>
<P>(2) The same information concerning the ingredients of the drug as appears on the label and labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed.
</P>
<P>(3) The information required, and in the format specified, by §§ 201.56, 201.57, and 201.80.
</P>
<P>(e) All labeling described in paragraph (d) of this section bears conspicuously the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor, as required for the label of the drug under § 201.1.
</P>
<P>(f) Reminder labeling which calls attention to the name of the drug product but does not include indications or dosage recommendations for use of the drug product is exempted from the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section. This reminder labeling shall contain only the proprietary name of the drug product, if any; the established name of the drug product, if any; the established name of each active ingredient in the drug product; and, optionally, information relating to quantitative ingredient statements, dosage form, quantity of package contents, price, the name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor or other written, printed, or graphic matter containing no representation or suggestion relating to the drug product. If the Commissioner finds that there is evidence of significant incidence of fatalities or serious injury associated with the use of a particular prescription drug, he may withdraw this exemption by so notifying the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug by letter. Reminder labeling, other than price lists and catalogs solely intended to convey price information including, but not limited to, those subject to the requirements of § 200.200 of this chapter, is not permitted for a prescription drug product whose labeling contains a boxed warning relating to a serious hazard associated with the use of the drug product. Reminder labeling which is intended to provide consumers with information concerning the price charged for a prescription for a particular drug product shall meet all of the conditions contained in § 200.200 of this chapter. Reminder labeling, other than that subject to the requirements of § 200.200 of this chapter, is not permitted for a drug for which an announcement has been published pursuant to a review of the labeling claims for the drug by the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council (NAS/NRC), Drug Efficacy Study Group, and for which no claim has been evaluated as higher than “possibly effective.” If the Commissioner finds the circumstances are such that reminder labeling may be misleading to prescribers of drugs subject to NAS/NRC evaluation, such reminder labeling will not be allowed and the manufacturer, packer, or distributor will be notified either in the publication of the conclusions on the effectiveness of the drug or by letter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 58799, Dec. 18, 1975; 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 43 FR 37989, Aug. 25, 1978; 44 FR 20659, Apr. 6, 1979; 44 FR 37467, June 26, 1979; 45 FR 25777, Apr. 15, 1980; 63 FR 26698, May 13, 1998; 64 FR 400, Jan. 5, 1999; 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002; 71 FR 3996, Jan. 24, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.105" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.105   Veterinary drugs.</HEAD>
<P>A drug subject to the requirements of section 503(f)(1) of the act shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if it is a designated medical gas (as defined in § 201.161(c)(1)) or a medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases and is in compliance with § 201.161, or if all the following conditions are met:


</P>
<P>(a) The drug is:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) In the possession of a person (or his agents or employees) regularly and lawfully engaged in the manufacture, transportation, storage, or wholesale distribution of drugs that are to be used only by or on the prescription or other order of a licensed veterinarian; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the possession of a retail, hospital, or clinic pharmacy, or other person authorized under State law to dispense veterinary prescription drugs, who is regularly and lawfully engaged in dispensing drugs that are to be used only by or on the prescription or other order of a licensed veterinarian; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the possession of a licensed veterinarian for use in the course of his professional practice; and
</P>
<P>(2) To be dispensed in accordance with section 503(f) of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) The label of the drug bears:
</P>
<P>(1) The statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian”; and
</P>
<P>(2) The recommended or usual dosage; and
</P>
<P>(3) The route of administration, if it is not for oral use; and
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity or proportion of each active ingredient as well as the information required by section 502(e) of the act; and
</P>
<P>(5) If it is for other than oral use, the names of all inactive ingredients, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Flavorings and perfumes may be designated as such without naming their components.
</P>
<P>(ii) Color additives may be designated as coloring without naming specific color components unless the naming of such components is required by a color additive regulation prescribed in subchapter A of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Trace amounts of harmless substances added solely for individual product identification need not be named.
</P>
<FP>If it is intended for administration by parenteral injection, the quantity or proportion of all inactive ingredients, except that ingredients added to adjust the pH or to make the drug isotonic may be declared by name and a statement of their effect; and if the vehicle is water for injection, it need not be named.
</FP>
<P>(6) An identifying lot or control number from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the package of the drug;
</P>
<FP><I>Provided, however,</I> That in the case of containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information, but which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for dispensing or use, the information required by paragraphs (b) (2), (3), and (5) of this section may be contained in other labeling on or within the package from which it is to be so dispensed, and the information referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be placed on such outer container only, and the information required by paragraph (b)(6) of this section may be on the crimp of the dispensing tube.
</FP>
<P>(c)(1) Labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed bears adequate information for its use, including indications, effects, dosages, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration, and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions under which veterinarians licensed by law to administer the drug can use the drug safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is advertised or represented; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the article is subject to section 512 or 572 of the act, the labeling bearing such information is the labeling authorized by the approved new animal drug application or contained in the index listing: <I>Provided, however</I>, That the information required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section may be omitted from the dispensing package if, but only if, the article is a drug for which directions, hazards, warnings, and use information are commonly known to veterinarians licensed by law to administer the drug. Upon written request, stating reasonable grounds therefore, the Commissioner will offer an opinion on a proposal to omit such information from the dispensing package under this proviso.
</P>
<P>(d) Any labeling, as defined in section 201(m) of the act, whether or not it is on or within a package from which the drug is to be dispensed, distributed by or on behalf of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug, that furnishes or purports to furnish information for use or which prescribes, recommends, or suggests a dosage for the use of the drug (other than dose information required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section and § 201.100(b)(2)) contains:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate information for such use, including indications, effects, dosages, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration, and any relevant warnings, hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions, and including information relevant to compliance with the new animal drug provisions of the act, under which veterinarians licensed by law to administer the drug can use the drug safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including all conditions for which it is advertised or represented; and if the article is subject to section 512 or 572 of the act, the parts of the labeling providing such information are the same in language and emphasis as labeling approved, permitted, or indexed under the provisions of section 512 or 572, and any other parts of the labeling are consistent with and not contrary to such approved, permitted, or indexed labeling; and
</P>
<P>(2) The same information concerning the ingredients of the drug as appears on the label and labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed; 
</P>
<FP><I>Provided, however,</I> That the information required by paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section is not required on the so-called reminder-piece labeling which calls attention to the name of the drug but does not include indications or dosage recommendations for use of the drug.
</FP>
<P>(e) All labeling, except labels and cartons, bearing information for use of the drug also bears the date of the issuance or the date of the latest revision of such labeling.
</P>
<P>(f) A prescription drug intended for both human and veterinary use shall comply with paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section and § 201.100.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 57 FR 54300, Nov. 18, 1992; 72 FR 69119, Dec. 6, 2007; 89 FR 51768, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.115" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.115   New drugs or new animal drugs.</HEAD>
<P>A new drug shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act:
</P>
<P>(a) To the extent to which such exemption is claimed in an approved application with respect to such drug under section 505 or 512 of the act or an index listing with respect to such drug under section 572 of the act; or
</P>
<P>(b) If no application under section 505 or 512 of the act is approved and no request for addition to the index is granted under section 572 with respect to such drug but it complies with section 505(i), 512(j), or 572(g) of the act and regulations thereunder.
</P>
<FP>No exemption shall apply to any other drug which would be a new drug if its labeling bore representations for its intended uses.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 72 FR 69119, Dec. 6, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.116" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.116   Drugs having commonly known directions.</HEAD>
<P>A drug shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act insofar as adequate directions for common uses thereof are known to the ordinary individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.117" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.117   Inactive ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>A harmless drug that is ordinarily used as an inactive ingredient, such as a coloring, emulsifier, excipient, flavoring, lubricant, preservative, or solvent, in the preparation of other drugs shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act. This exemption shall not apply to any substance intended for a use which results in the preparation of a new drug, unless an approved new-drug application provides for such use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.119" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.119   In vitro diagnostic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) “In vitro diagnostic products” are those reagents, instruments and systems intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or in the determination of the state of health in order to cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease or its sequelae. Such products are intended for use in the collection, preparation and examination of specimens taken from the human body. These products are drugs or devices as defined in section 201(g) and 201(h), respectively, of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or are a combination of drugs and devices, and may also be a biological product subject to section 351 of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(b) A product intended for use in the diagnosis of disease and which is an in vitro diagnostic product as defined in paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section and section 502(f)(1) of the act if it meets the requirements of § 809.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.120" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.120   Prescription chemicals and other prescription components.</HEAD>
<P>A drug prepared, packaged, and primarily sold as a prescription chemical or other component for use by registered pharmacists in compounding prescriptions or for dispensing in dosage unit form upon prescriptions shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The drug is an official liquid acid or official liquid alkali, or is not a liquid solution, emulsion, suspension, tablet, capsule, or other dosage unit form; and
</P>
<P>(b) The label of the drug bears:
</P>
<P>(1) The statement “For prescription compounding”; and
</P>
<P>(2) If in substantially all dosage forms in which it may be dispensed it is subject to section 503(b)(1) of the act, the statement “Rx only”; or
</P>
<P>(3) If it is not subject to section 503(b)(1) of the act and is by custom among retail pharmacists sold in or from the interstate package for use by consumers, “adequate directions for use” in the conditions for which it is so sold.
</P>
<FP><I>Provided, however,</I> That the information referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be contained in the labeling on or within the package from which it is to be dispensed.
</FP>
<P>(c) This exemption shall not apply to any substance intended for use in compounding which results in a new drug, unless an approved new-drug application covers such use of the drug in compounding prescriptions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.122" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.122   Drugs for processing, repacking, or manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>A drug in a bulk package, except tablets, capsules, or other dosage unit forms, intended for processing, repacking, or use in the manufacture of another drug shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if its label bears the statement “Caution: For manufacturing, processing, or repacking”; and if in substantially all dosage forms in which it may be dispensed it is subject to section 503(b)(1) of the act, the statement “Rx only”, or if in substantially all dosage forms in which it may be dispensed it is subject to section 503(f)(1) of the act, the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian”. This exemption and the exemption under § 201.120 may be claimed for the same article. However, the exemption shall not apply to a substance intended for a use in manufacture, processing, or repacking which causes the finished article to be a new drug or new animal drug, unless:
</P>
<P>(a) An approved new drug application or new animal drug application or a new animal drug index listing covers the production and delivery of the drug substance to the application or index listing holder by persons named in the application or in the request for determination of eligibility for indexing, and, for a new drug substance, the export of it by such persons under § 314.410 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(b) If no application is approved with respect to such new drug or new animal drug, and it is not listed in the index, the label statement “Caution: For manufacturing, processing, or repacking” is immediately supplemented by the words “in the preparation of a new drug or new animal drug limited by Federal law to investigational use”, and the delivery is made for use only in the manufacture of such new drug or new animal drug limited to investigational use as provided in part 312 or § 511.1 or § 516.125 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(c) A new drug application or new animal drug application or a request for addition to the index covering the use of the drug substance in the production and marketing of a finished drug product has been submitted but not yet approved, disapproved, granted, or denied, the bulk drug is not exported, and the finished drug product is not further distributed after it is manufactured until after the new drug application or new animal drug application is approved or the request for addition to the index is granted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6911, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 41 FR 15844, Apr. 15, 1976; 50 FR 7492, Feb. 22, 1985; 55 FR 11576, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 54301, Nov. 18, 1992; 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002; 72 FR 69119, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.125" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.125   Drugs for use in teaching, law enforcement, research, and analysis.</HEAD>
<P>A drug subject to § 201.100 or § 201.105, shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if shipped or sold to, or in the possession of, persons regularly and lawfully engaged in instruction in pharmacy, chemistry, or medicine not involving clinical use, or engaged in law enforcement, or in research not involving clinical use, or in chemical analysis, or physical testing, and is to be used only for such instruction, law enforcement, research, analysis, or testing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6911, Feb. 13, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.127" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.127   Drugs; expiration of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, of a drug which is exempt under the regulations in this section is made to a person in whose possession the article is not exempt, or is made for any purpose other than those specified, such exemption shall expire, with respect to such shipment or delivery or part thereof, at the beginning of that shipment or delivery. The causing of an exemption to expire shall be considered an act which results in such drug being misbranded unless it is disposed of under circumstances in which it ceases to be a drug or device.
</P>
<P>(b) The exemptions conferred by §§ 201.117, 201.119, 201.120, 201.122, and 201.125 shall continue until the drugs are used for the purposes for which they are exempted, or until they are relabeled to comply with section 502(f)(1) of the act. If, however, the drug is converted, compounded, or manufactured into a dosage form limited to prescription dispensing, no exemption shall thereafter apply to the article unless the dosage form is labeled as required by section 503(b) and §§ 201.100 or 201.105.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6911, Feb. 13, 1976]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.128" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.128   Meaning of “intended uses”.</HEAD>
<P>The words <I>intended uses</I> or words of similar import in §§  201.5, 201.115, 201.117, 201.119, 201.120, 201.122, and 1100.5 of this chapter refer to the objective intent of the persons legally responsible for the labeling of an article (or their representatives). The intent may be shown by such persons' expressions, the design or composition of the article, or by the circumstances surrounding the distribution of the article. This objective intent may, for example, be shown by labeling claims, advertising matter, or oral or written statements by such persons or their representatives. Objective intent may be shown, for example, by circumstances in which the article is, with the knowledge of such persons or their representatives, offered or used for a purpose for which it is neither labeled nor advertised; provided, however, that a firm would not be regarded as intending an unapproved new use for an approved drug based solely on that firm's knowledge that such drug was being prescribed or used by health care providers for such use. The intended uses of an article may change after it has been introduced into interstate commerce by its manufacturer. If, for example, a packer, distributor, or seller intends an article for different uses than those intended by the person from whom he or she received the article, such packer, distributor, or seller is required to supply adequate labeling in accordance with the new intended uses.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 41401, Aug. 2, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.129" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.129   Drugs; exemption for radioactive drugs for research use.</HEAD>
<P>A radioactive drug intended for administration to human research subjects during the course of a research project intended to obtain basic research information regarding metabolism (including kinetics, distribution, and localization) of a radioactively labeled drug or regarding human physiology, pathophysiology, or biochemistry (but not intended for immediate therapeutic, diagnostic, or similar purposes), under the conditions set forth in § 361.1 of this chapter, shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if the packaging, label, and labeling are in compliance with § 361.1(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6911, Feb. 13, 1976]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.130" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.130   Exemption from adequate directions for use for a nonprescription drug product with an additional condition for nonprescription use (ACNU).</HEAD>
<P>A nonprescription drug product approved under section 505(c) or 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with an ACNU as defined in § 201.67(b)(1) is exempt from section 502(f)(1) only if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The label of the drug must include instructions for the ACNU as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Content of instructions for the ACNU must either be:
</P>
<P>(i) ACNU Instructions, which read as follows: “To check if this drug is safe for you, go to [insert where or how consumers can find information about the ACNU; for example, applicant's website, applicant's phone number, or specific retail location] and [insert action to be taken by consumer]. Do not take this drug without completing this step”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Alternative ACNU Instructions: FDA may approve an NDA applicant's revisions to the ACNU Instructions when the revisions are appropriate for a specific drug product and the applicant supports the revisions with adequate data or other information that demonstrate sufficient consumer understanding of the revised statement.
</P>
<P>(2) The locations of instructions for the ACNU are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the purpose of the ACNU is for self-selection, the instructions for the ACNU must appear under the “Use” or “Uses” heading required in § 201.66(c)(4) as the first statement, followed by the other information required in § 201.66(c)(4);
</P>
<P>(ii) If the purpose of the ACNU is for actual use, the instructions for the ACNU must appear under the “Directions” heading required in § 201.66(c)(6) as the first direction, followed by the other information required in § 201.66(c)(6); or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the purpose of the ACNU is for both self-selection and actual use, the instructions for the ACNU must appear under the “Use” or “Uses” heading as the first statement, followed by the other information required in § 201.66(c)(4) and may also appear under the “Directions” heading as the first direction, followed by the other information required in § 201.66(c)(6).
</P>
<P>(b) The label of the drug must include a statement about the ACNU as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The content of the statement about the ACNU must either be:
</P>
<P>(i) The ACNU Statement, which reads as follows: “You must complete an extra step to see if this drug is safe for you before you use it. Do not take this drug without completing this step. See the Drug Facts Labeling for more information”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An Alternative ACNU Statement: FDA may approve an NDA applicant's revisions to the ACNU Statement when the revisions are appropriate for a specific drug product and the applicant supports the revisions with adequate data or other information that demonstrate sufficient consumer understanding of the revised statement.
</P>
<P>(2) The statement about the ACNU must be in the form and manner required by § 201.67(c).
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of the drug must comply with other applicable labeling requirements for nonprescription drug products under this part, including the format and content requirements for nonprescription drug product labeling under § 201.66.
</P>
<P>(d) The ACNU must be implemented by the applicant in accordance with the following, as approved by FDA in the application:
</P>
<P>(1) The key elements of the ACNU under § 314.56(c)(1)(iv) of this chapter for NDAs or § 314.56(c)(2)(ii) of this chapter for ANDAs; and
</P>
<P>(2) The operationalization of the ACNU under § 314.56(c)(1)(vii) of this chapter for NDAs or § 314.56(c)(2)(iii) of this chapter for ANDAs.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 105329, Dec. 26, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Other Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.150" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.150   Drugs; processing, labeling, or repacking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a shipment or other delivery of a drug which is, in accordance with the practice of the trade, to be processed, labeled, or repacked in substantial quantity at an establishment other than that where originally processed or packed, shall be exempt, during the time of introduction into and movement in interstate commerce and the time of holding in such establishment, from compliance with the labeling and packaging requirements of sections 501(b) and 502 (b), (d), (e), (f), and (g) of the act if:
</P>
<P>(1) The person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce is the operator of the establishment where such drug is to be processed, labeled, or repacked; or
</P>
<P>(2) In case such person is not such operator, such shipment or delivery is made to such establishment under a written agreement, signed by and containing the post-office addresses of such person and such operator, and containing such specifications for the processing, labeling, or repacking, as the case may be, of such drug in such establishment as will insure, if such specifications are followed, that such drug will not be adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act upon completion of such processing, labeling, or repacking. Such person and such operator shall each keep a copy of such agreement until 2 years after the final shipment or delivery of such drug from such establishment, and shall make such copies available for inspection at any reasonable hour to any officer or employee of the Department who requests them.
</P>
<P>(b) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a drug under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall, at the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment, become void ab initio if the drug comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed.
</P>
<P>(c) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a drug under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall become void ab initio with respect to the person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce upon refusal by such person to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a drug under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall expire:
</P>
<P>(1) At the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment if the drug comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed; or
</P>
<P>(2) Upon refusal by the operator of the establishment where such drug is to be processed, labeled, or repacked, to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such clause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6911, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 64 FR 400, Jan. 5, 1999]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.161" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.161   Medical gases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of sections 503(b)(4) and 502(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are deemed to have been met for a designated medical gas or a medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases if the labeling on its final use container bears the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of oxygen:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement providing that uninterrupted use of high concentrations of oxygen over a long duration, without monitoring its effect on oxygen content of arterial blood, may be harmful; that oxygen should not be used on patients who have stopped breathing unless used in conjunction with resuscitative equipment; and, in the case of oxygen that may be provided without a prescription for use in the event of depressurization or other environmental oxygen deficiency, or for oxygen deficiency or for use in emergency resuscitation when administered by properly trained personnel, a warning statement providing that oxygen may be used for emergency use only when administered by properly trained personnel for oxygen deficiency and resuscitation, and that for all other medical applications a prescription is required.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clear and prominent warning containing the statements “No Smoking” and “No Vaping” and a graphic symbol conveying that smoking, vaping, and open flames near oxygen are dangerous.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a designated medical gas other than oxygen, and in the case of medically appropriate combinations of any designated medical gases:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement providing that the administration of the gas or gas combination (as applicable) may be hazardous or contraindicated; and that the gas or gas combination (as applicable) should be used only by or under the supervision of a licensed practitioner who is experienced in the use and administration of the gas or gas combination (as applicable) and is familiar with the indications, effects, dosages, methods, and frequency and duration of administration, and with the hazards, contraindications, and side effects and the precautions to be taken.
</P>
<P>(ii) The symbol “Rx only.”
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate directions and warnings concerning storage and handling.
</P>
<P>(b) A designated medical gas or medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases in a bulk or transport container must be identified with the name of the product contained therein and accompanied by documentation identifying the product as meeting applicable compendial standards.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>designated medical gas</I> means a drug that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is manufactured or stored in a liquefied, nonliquefied, or cryogenic state;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is administered as a gas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the definition in section 575(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>final use container</I> means a container that is for direct use or access by a patient or healthcare provider to administer a designated medical gas or medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases. The term <I>final use container</I> does not include bulk or transport containers and does not include containers that are described in § 868.5655 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) A <I>bulk or transport container</I> means a container used to transport or store designated medical gases or medically appropriate combinations of designated medical gases and that is not used directly to administer such gases to a patient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 51768, June 18, 2024]














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Labeling Claims for Drugs in Drug Efficacy Study</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.200" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.200   Disclosure of drug efficacy study evaluations in labeling and advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The National Academy of Sciences—National Research Council, Drug Efficacy Study Group, has completed an exhaustive review of labeling claims made for drugs marketed under new-drug and antibiotic drug procedures between 1938 and 1962. The results are compiled in “Drug Efficacy Study, A Report to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs from the National Academy of Sciences (1969).” As the report notes, this review has made “an audit of the state of the art of drug usage that has been uniquely extensive in scope and uniquely intensive in time” and is applicable to more than 80 percent of the currently marketed drugs. The report further notes that the quality of the evidence of efficacy, as well as the quality of the labeling claims, is poor. Labeling and other promotional claims have been evaluated as “effective,” “probably effective,” “possibly effective,” “ineffective,” “ineffective as a fixed combination,” and “effective but,” and a report for each drug in the study has been submitted to the Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration is processing the reports, seeking voluntary action on the part of the drug manufacturers and distributors in the elimination or modification of unsupported promotional claims, and initiating administrative actions as necessary to require product and labeling changes.
</P>
<P>(3) Delays have been encountered in bringing to the attention of the prescribers of prescription items the conclusions of the expert panels that reviewed the promotional claims.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs concludes that:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure to disclose in the labeling of a drug and in other promotional material the conclusions of the Academy experts that a claim is “ineffective,” “possibly effective,” “probably effective,” or “ineffective as a fixed combination,” while labeling and promotional material bearing any such claim are being used, is a failure to disclose facts that are material in light of the representations made and causes the drug to be misbranded.
</P>
<P>(2) The Academy classification of a drug as other than “effective” for a claim for which such drug is recommended establishes that there is a material weight of opinion among qualified experts contrary to the representation made or suggested in the labeling, and failure to reveal this fact causes such labeling to be misleading.
</P>
<P>(c) Therefore, after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of a Drug Efficacy Study Implementation notice on a prescription drug, unless exempted or otherwise provided for in the notice, all package labeling (other than the immediate container or carton label, unless such labeling contains information required by § 201.100(c)(1) in lieu of a package insert), promotional labeling, and advertisements shall include, as part of the information for practitioners under which the drug can be safely and effectively used, an appropriate qualification of all claims evaluated as other than “effective” by a panel of the National Academy of Sciences—National Research Council, Drug Efficacy Study Group, if such claims continue to be included in either the labeling or advertisements. However, this qualifying information will be required in advertisements only if promotional material is included therein for claims evaluated as less than “effective” or if such claims are included in the indications section of the portion of the advertisement containing the information required in brief summary by § 202.1(e)(1) of this chapter. When, however, the Food and Drug Administration classification of such claim is “effective” (for example, on the basis of revision of the language of the claim or submission or existence of adequate data), such qualification is not necessary. When the Food and Drug Administration classification of the claim, as stated in the implementation notice, differs from that of the Academy but is other than “effective,” the qualifying statement shall refer to this classification in lieu of the Academy's classification.
</P>
<P>(d) For new drugs and antibiotics, supplements to provide for revised labeling in accord with paragraph (c) of this section shall be submitted under the provisions of § 314.70 and § 514.8 of this chapter within 90 days after publication of the implementation notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or by May 15, 1972, for those drugs for which notices have been published and such labeling shall be put into use as soon as possible but not later than the end of the time period allowed for submitting supplements to provide for revised labeling.
</P>
<P>(e) Qualifying information required in drug labeling by paragraph (c) of this section in order to advise prescribers of a drug of the findings made by a panel of the Academy in evaluating a claim as other than “effective” shall be at least of the same size and color and degree of prominence as other printing in the labeling and shall be presented in a prominent box using one of the following formats and procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) In drug labeling the box statement may entirely replace the indications section and be in the following format:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Indications
</HD1>
<P>Based on a review of this drug by the National Academy of Sciences—National Research Council and/or other information, FDA has classified the indication(s) as follows:
</P>
<P>Effective: (<I>list or state in paragraph form</I>).
</P>
<P>“Probably” effective: (<I>list or state in paragraph form</I>).
</P>
<P>“Possibly” effective: (<I>list or state in paragraph form</I>).
</P>
<P>Final classification of the less-than-effective indications requires further investigation.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Or the indication(s) for which the drug has been found effective may appear outside the boxed statement and be followed immediately by the following boxed statement:
</P>
<P>Based on a review of this drug by the National Academy of Sciences—National Research Council and/or other information, FDA has classified the other indication(s) as follows:
</P>
<P>“Probably” effective: (<I>list or state in paragraph form</I>).
</P>
<P>“Possibly” effective: (<I>list or state in paragraph form</I>).
</P>
<P>Final classification of the less-than-effective indications requires further investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) In drug labeling (other than that which is required by § 201.100(c)(1)) which may contain a promotional message, the promotional message shall be keyed to the boxed statement by the same means as those provided for advertisements in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Qualifying information required in prescription drug advertising by paragraph (c) of this section shall contain a prominent boxed statement of the advertised indication(s) and of the limitations of effectiveness using the same format, language, and emphasis as that required in labeling by paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The boxed statement shall appear in (or next to) the information required in brief summary by § 202.1(e)(1) of this chapter and shall have prominence at least equal to that provided for other information presented in the brief summary and shall have type size, captions, color, and other physical characteristics comparable to the information required in the brief summary.
</P>
<P>(2) Less-than-effective indication(s) in the promotional message of an advertisement which is a single page or less shall be keyed to the boxed statement by asterisk, by an appropriate statement, or by other suitable means providing adequate emphasis on the boxed statement. On each page where less-than-effective indication(s) appear in a mutiple page advertisement, an asterisk shall be placed after the most prominent mention of the indi- cation(s); if the degree of prominence does not vary, an asterisk shall be placed after the first mention of the indication. The asterisk shall refer to a notation at the bottom of the page which shall state “This drug has been evaluated as probably effective (or possibly effective whichever is appropriate) for this indication” and “See Brief Summary” or “See Prescribing Information,” the latter legend to be used only if the advertisement carries the required information for professional use as set forth in § 201.100(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) For less-than-effective indications which are included in the advertisement only as a part of the information required in brief summary, the disclosure information shall appear in this portion of the advertisement in the same manner as is specified for labeling in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The Commissioner may find circumstances are such that, while the elimination of claims evaluated as other than effective will generally eliminate the need for disclosure about such claims, there will be instances in which the change in the prescribing or promotional profile of the drug is so substantial as to require a disclosure of the reason for the change so that the purchaser or prescriber is not misled by being left unaware through the sponsor's silence that a basic change has taken place. The Food and Drug Administration will identify these situations in direct correspondence with the drug promoters, after which the failure to make the disclosure will be regarded as misleading and appropriate action will be taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 55 FR 11576, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Specific Labeling Requirements for Specific Drug Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.300" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.300   Notice to manufacturers, packers, and distributors of glandular preparations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under date of December 4, 1941, in a notice to manufacturers of glandular preparations, the Food and Drug Administration expressed the opinion that preparations of inert glandular materials intended for medicinal use should, in view of the requirement of section 201(n) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (52 Stat. 1041; 21 U.S.C. 321(n)), be labeled with a statement of the material fact that there is no scientific evidence that the articles contain any therapeutic or physiologically active constituents. Numerous preparations of such inert glandular materials were subsequently marketed with disclaimers of the type suggested. The term <I>inert glandular materials</I> means preparations incapable of exerting an action or effect of some significant or measurable benefit in one way or another, i.e., in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or in affecting the structure or any function of the body.
</P>
<P>(b) Manufacturers have heretofore taken advantage of § 201.100 permitting omission of directions for use when the label bears the prescription legend. Section 201.100(c) requires that the labeling of the drug, which may include brochures readily available to licensed practitioners, bear information as to the use of the drug by practitioners licensed by law to administer it. Obviously, information adequate for the use of an inert glandular preparation is not available to practitioners licensed by law.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department of Health and Human Services is of the opinion that inert glandular materials may not be exempted from the requirements of section 502(f)(1) of the act that they bear adequate directions for use; and, accordingly, that their labeling must include among other things, representations as to the conditions for which such articles are intended to be used or as to the structure or function of the human body that they are intended to affect. Since any such representations offering these articles for use as drugs would be false or misleading, such articles will be considered to be misbranded if they are distributed for use as drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) The amended regulations provide also that in the case of drugs intended for parenteral administration there shall be no exemption from the requirement that their labelings bear adequate directions for use. Such inert glandular materials for parenteral use are therefore subject to the same comment as applies to those intended for oral administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.301" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.301   Notice to manufacturers, packers, and distributors of estrogenic hormone preparations.</HEAD>
<P>Some drug preparations fabricated wholly or in part from estradiol and labeled as to potency in terms of international units or in terms of international units of estrone activity have been marketed. The international unit of the estrus-producing hormone was established by the International Conference on the Standardization of Sex Hormones at London, England, on August 1, 1932. This unit was defined as “the specific estrus-producing activity contained in 0.1 gamma ( = 0.0001 mg.) of the standard” hydroxyketonic hormone found in urine (estrone). The International Conference declared that it did not recommend the determination of the activity of nonhydroxyketonic forms of estrogenic hormones in units of estrone because of the varying ratios between the activity of such nonhydroxyketonic estrogenic hormones and estrone, when measured by different methods on test animals. There is no international unit for measuring the activity of estradiol and no accepted relationship between its activity and that of estrone, either in test animals or in humans. The declaration of potency of estradiol in terms of international units or in terms of international units of estrone activity is therefore considered misleading, within the meaning of 21 U.S.C. 352(a). The declaration of the estradiol content of an estrogenic hormone preparation in terms of weight is considered appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.302" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.302   Notice to manufacturers, packers, and distributors of drugs for internal use which contain mineral oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the past few years research studies have altered medical opinion as to the usefulness and harmfulness of mineral oil in the human body. These studies have indicated that when mineral oil is used orally near mealtime it interferes with absorption from the digestive tract of provitamin A and the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, and K, and consequently interferes with the utilization of calcium and phosphorus, with the result that the user is left liable to deficiency diseases. When so used in pregnancy it predisposes to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
</P>
<P>(b) There is accumulated evidence that the indiscriminate administration of mineral oil to infants may be followed by aspiration of the mineral oil and subsequent “lipoid pneumonia.”
</P>
<P>(c) In view of these facts, the Department of Health and Human Services will regard as misbranded under the provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act a drug for oral administration consisting in whole or in part of mineral oil, the labeling of which encourages its use in pregnancy or indicates or implies that such drug is for administration to infants.
</P>
<P>(d) It is also this Department's view that the act requires the labelings of such drugs to bear a warning against consumption other than at bedtime and against administration to infants. The following form of warning is suggested: “Caution: To be taken only at bedtime. Do not use at any other time or administer to infants, except upon the advice of a physician.”
</P>
<P>(e) This statement of interpretation does not in any way exempt mineral oil or preparations containing mineral oil from complying in all other respects with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.303" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.303   Labeling of drug preparations containing significant proportions of wintergreen oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Because methyl salicylate (wintergreen oil) manifests no toxicity in the minute amounts in which it is used as a flavoring, it is mistakenly regarded by the public as harmless even when taken in substantially larger amounts. Actually, it is quite toxic when taken in quantities of a teaspoonful or more. Wintergreen oil and preparations containing it have caused a number of deaths through accidental misuse by both adults and children. Children are particularly attracted by the odor and are likely to swallow these products when left within reach.
</P>
<P>(b) To safeguard against fatalities from this cause, the Department of Health and Human Services will regard as misbranded under the provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act any drug containing more than 5 percent methyl salicylate (wintergreen oil), the labeling of which fails to warn that use otherwise than as directed therein may be dangerous and that the article should be kept out of reach of children to prevent accidental poisoning.
</P>
<P>(c) This statement of interpretation in no way exempts methyl salicylate (wintergreen oil) or its preparations from complying in all other respects with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.304" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.304   Tannic acid and barium enema preparations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It has become a widespread practice for tannic acid to be added to barium enemas to improve X-ray pictures. Tannic acid is capable of causing diminished liver function and severe liver necrosis when absorbed in sufficient amounts. The medical literature reports a number of deaths associated with the addition of tannic acid to barium enemas. There is a lack of scientific evidence to establish the conditions, if any, under which tannic acid is safe and effective for use in enemas. Tannic acid for rectal use to enhance X-ray visualization is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) In view of the hazards involved when tannic acid is used in barium enemas, any shipments of tannic acid labeled to come within the exemptions under 502(f) of the Act containing such phrases as: “Caution: For manufacturing, processing, or repackaging,” “For prescription compounding,” or “Diagnostic reagent—For professional use only” will be regarded by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs as misbranded within the meaning of section 502(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless the label and the labeling bear conspicuously a warning to the effect: “<I>Warning—</I> Not for use in enemas.”
</P>
<P>(c) Any tannic acid intended for use by man and found within the jurisdiction of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act labeled contrary to this section after 60 days from the date of its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> may be made the subject of regulatory proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.305" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.305   Isoproterenol inhalation preparations (pressurized aerosols, nebulizers, powders) for human use; warnings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Accumulating reports have been received by the Food and Drug Administration and have appeared in the medical literature of severe paradoxical bronchoconstriction associated with repeated, excessive use of isoproterenol inhalation preparations in the treatment of bronchial asthma and other chronic bronchopulmonary disorders. The cause of this paradoxical reaction is unknown; it has been observed, however, that patients have not responded completely to other forms of therapy until use of the isoproterenol inhalation preparation was discontinued. In addition, sudden unexpected deaths have been associated with the excessive use of isoproterenol inhalation preparations. The mechanism of these deaths and their relationship, if any, to the cases of severe paradoxical bronchospasm are not clear. Cardiac arrest was noted in several of these cases of sudden death.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the above information and after discussion with and concurrence of the Respiratory and Anesthetic Drugs Advisory Committee for Food and Drug Administration, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs concludes that in order for the labeling of such drugs to bear adequate information for their safe use, as required by § 201.100, such labeling must include the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning:</I> Occasional patients have been reported to develop severe paradoxical airway resistance with repeated, excessive use of isoproterenol inhalation preparations. The cause of this refractory state is unknown. It is advisable that in such instances the use of this preparation be discontinued immediately and alternative therapy instituted, since in the reported cases the patients did not respond to other forms of therapy until the drug was withdrawn.
</P>
<P>Deaths have been reported following excessive use of isoproterenol inhalation preparations and the exact cause is unknown. Cardiac arrest was noted in several instances.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c)(1) The Commissioner also concludes that in view of the manner in which these preparations are self-administered for relief of attacks of bronchial asthma and other chronic bronchopulmonary disorders, it is necessary for the protection of users that warning information to patients be included as a part of the label and as part of any instructions to patients included in the package dispensed to the patient as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning:</I> Do not exceed the dose prescribed by your physician. If difficulty in breathing persists, contact your physician immediately.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The warning on the label may be accomplished (i) by including it on the immediate container label with a statement directed to pharmacists not to remove the label or (ii) by including in the package a printed warning with instructions to pharmacists to place the warning on the container prior to dispensing.
</P>
<P>(d) The marketing of isoproterenol inhalation preparations may be continued if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 30 days following the date of publication of this section in the <E T="04">Federal Register:</E>
</P>
<P>(i) The label and labeling of such preparations shipped within the jurisdiction of the act are in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of an approved new-drug application for such preparation submits a supplement to his new-drug application to provide for appropriate labeling changes as described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 90 days following the date of publication of this section in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of any drug containing isoproterenol intended for inhalation for which a new-drug approval is not in effect submits a new-drug application containing satisfactory information of the kinds required by § 314.50 of this chapter, including appropriate labeling as described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant submits additional information required for the approval of the application as may be specified in a written communication from the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(e) After 270 days following expiration of said 90 days, regulatory proceedings based on section 505(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act may be initiated with regard to any such drug shipped within the jurisdiction of the act for which an approved new-drug application is not in effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 55 FR 11576, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.306" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.306   Potassium salt preparations intended for oral ingestion by man.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will initiate no regulatory action with respect to the continued marketing of coated tablets containing potassium chloride or other potassium salts which supply 100 milligrams or more of potassium per tablet provided all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 30 days from the date of publication of this statement of policy in the <E T="04">Federal Register:</E>
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling of the drug bears the prescription caution statement quoted in section 503(b)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed bears adequate information for its use by practitioners in accord with the “full disclosure” labeling requirements of § 201.100 of this chapter, including the following warning statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning</I>—There have been several reports, published and unpublished, concerning nonspecific small-bowel lesions consisting of stenosis, with or without ulceration, associated with the administration of enteric-coated thiazides with potassium salts. These lesions may occur with enteric-coated potassium tablets alone or when they are used with nonenteric-coated thiazides, or certain other oral diuretics. These small-bowel lesions have caused obstruction, hemorrhage, and perforation. Surgery was frequently required and deaths have occurred. Based on a large survey of physicians and hospitals, both United States and foreign, the incidence of these lesions is low, and a causal relationship in man has not been definitely established. Available information tends to implicate enteric-coated potassium salts, although lesions of this type also occur spontaneously. Therefore, coated potassium-containing formulations should be administered only when indicated, and should be discontinued immediately if abdominal pain, distention, nausea, vomiting, or gastrointestinal bleeding occur. Coated potassium tablets should be used only when adequate dietary supplementation is not practicable.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>(Although the warning statement includes references to enteric-coated potassium salt preparations, it applies to any capsule or coated tablet of a potassium salt intended for oral ingestion without prior dilution with an adequate volume of liquid to preclude gastrointestinal injury.)
</FP>
<P>(iii) Any other labeling or additional advertising for the drug conforms to the labeling described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, in accordance with §§ 202.1 and 201.100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 90 days from the date of publication of this statement of policy in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug shall submit a new-drug application containing satisfactory information of the kind required by § 314.50 of this chapter, with appropriate labeling as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration may initiate regulatory proceedings after 30 days from the date of publication of this section, with respect to the marketing of uncoated tablets containing potassium chloride or other potassium salts which supply 100 milligrams or more of potassium per tablet or with respect to liquid preparations containing potassium chloride or other potassium salts which supply 20 milligrams or more of potassium per milliliter, labeled or intended for human use, unless all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling of the drug bears the prescription statement quoted in section 503(b)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed bears adequate information for its use by practitioners in accord with the “full disclosure” labeling requirements of § 201.100 of this chapter, including a recommendation that patients be directed to dissolve any such tablets in an appropriate amount of liquid and to dilute any such liquid preparations adequately to assure against gastrointestinal injury associated with the oral ingestion of concentrated potassium salt preparations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 55 FR 11576, Mar. 29, 1990; 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.307" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.307   Sodium phosphates; package size limitation, warnings, and directions for over-the-counter sale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Reports in the medical literature and data accumulated by the Food and Drug Administration indicate that multiple container sizes of sodium phosphates oral solution available in the marketplace have caused consumer confusion and appear to have been involved in several consumer deaths. Sodium phosphates oral solution has been marketed in 45-milliliter (mL), 90-mL, and 240-mL container sizes. The 45-mL and 90-mL container sizes of sodium phosphates oral solution are often recommended and prescribed by physicians for bowel cleansing prior to surgery and diagnostic procedures of the colon. Sodium phosphates oral solution (adult dose 20 mL to 45 mL) is also used as an over-the-counter (OTC) laxative for the relief of occasional constipation. Accidental overdosing and deaths have occurred because the 240-mL container was mistakenly used instead of the 45-mL or 90-mL container. The Food and Drug Administration is limiting the amount of sodium phosphates oral solution to not more than 90 mL (3 ounces (oz)) per OTC container because of the serious health risks associated with the ingestion of larger than intended doses of this product. Further, because an overdose of either oral or rectal enema sodium phosphates can cause an electrolyte imbalance, additional warning and direction statements are required for the safe use of any OTC laxative drug product containing sodium phosphates.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product for laxative or bowel cleansing use containing sodium phosphates as an active ingredient when marketed as described in paragraph (a) of this section is misbranded within the meaning of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless packaged and labeled as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Package size limitation for sodium phosphates oral solution: Container shall not contain more than 90 mL (3 oz).
</P>
<P>(2) Warnings. The following sentences shall appear in boldface type as the first statement under the heading “Warnings.”
</P>
<P>(i) Oral dosage forms. “Taking more than the recommended dose in 24 hours can be harmful.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Rectal enema dosage forms. “Using more than one enema in 24 hours can be harmful.”
</P>
<P>(3) Directions—(i) The labeling of all orally or rectally administered OTC drug products containing sodium phosphates shall contain the following directions in boldface type immediately preceding the dosage information: “Do not” (“take” or “use”) “more unless directed by a doctor. See Warnings.”
</P>
<P>(ii) For products containing dibasic sodium phosphate/monobasic sodium phosphate identified in § 334.16(d) marketed as a solution. Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is dibasic sodium phosphate 3.42 to 7.56 grams (g) and monobasic sodium phosphate 9.1 to 20.2 g (20 to 45 mL dibasic sodium phosphate/monobasic sodium phosphate oral solution) as a single daily dose. “Do not take more than 45 mL (9 teaspoonfuls or 3 tablespoonfuls) in a 24-hour period.” Children 10 and 11 years of age: Oral dosage is dibasic sodium phosphate 1.71 to 3.78 g and monobasic sodium phosphate 4.5 to 10.1 g (10 to 20 mL dibasic sodium phosphate/monobasic sodium phosphate oral solution) as a single daily dose. “Do not take more than 20 mL (4 teaspoonfuls) in a 24-hour period.” Children 5 to 9 years of age: Oral dosage is dibasic sodium phosphate 0.86 to 1.89 g and monobasic sodium phosphate 2.2 to 5.05 g (5 to 10 mL dibasic sodium phosphate/monobasic sodium phosphate oral solution) as a single daily dose. “Do not take more than 10 mL (2 teaspoonfuls) in a 24-hour period.” Children under 5 years of age: ask a doctor.
</P>
<P>(c) After June 22, 1998, for package size limitation and September 18, 1998, for labeling in accord with paragraph (b) of this section, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, or any such drug product that is repackaged or relabeled after these dates regardless of the date the product was manufactured, initially introduced, or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 27843, May 21, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.308" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.308   Ipecac syrup; warnings and directions for use for over-the-counter sale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is estimated that each year about 500,000 accidental poisonings occur in the United States and result in approximately 1,500 deaths, of which over 400 are children. In the emergency treatment of these poisonings, ipecac syrup is considered the emetic of choice. The immediate availability of this drug for use in such situations is critical, since rapid treatment may be the difference between life and death. The restriction of this drug to prescription sale limits its availability in emergencies. On the other hand, it is the consensus of informed medical opinion that ipecac syrup should be used only under medical supervision in the emergency treatment of poisonings. In view of these facts, the question of whether ipecac syrup labeled as an emergency treatment for use in poisonings should be available over the counter has been controversial.
</P>
<P>(b) In connection with its study of this problem, the Food and Drug Administration has obtained the views of medical authorities. It is the unanimous recommendation of the American Academy of Pediatrics, the American Association of Poison Control Centers, the American Medical Association, and the Medical Advisory Board of the Food and Drug Administration that ipecac syrup in 1 fluid ounce containers be permitted to be sold without prescription so that it will be readily available in the household for emergency treatment of poisonings, under medical supervision, and that the drug be appropriately packaged and labeled for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(c) In view of the above recommendations, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs has determined that it is in the interest of the public health for ipecac syrup to be available for sale without prescription, provided that it is packaged in a quantity of 1 fluid ounce (30 milliliters), and its label bears, in addition to other required label information, the following, in a prominent and conspicuous manner:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement conspicuously boxed and in red letters, to the effect: “For emergency use to cause vomiting in poisoning. Before using, call physician, the Poison Control Center, or hospital emergency room immediately for advice.”
</P>
<P>(2) A warning to the effect: “Warning—Keep out of reach of children. Do not use in unconscious persons. Ordinarily, this drug should not be used if strychnine, corrosives such as alkalies (lye) and strong acids, or petroleum distillates such as kerosine, gasoline, coal oil, fuel oil, paint thinner, or cleaning fluid have been ingested.”
</P>
<P>(3) Usual dosage: 1 tablespoon (15 milliliters) in persons over 1 year of age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.309" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.309   Acetophenetidin (phenacetin)-containing preparations; necessary warning statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In 1961, the Food and Drug Administration, pursuant to its statutory responsibility for the safety and effectiveness of drugs shipped in interstate commerce, began an active investigation of reports of possible toxic effects and renal damage due to misuse of the drug acetophenetidin. This study led to the decision that there was probable cause to conclude that misuse and prolonged use of the drug were in fact responsible for kidney lesions and disease. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, in December 1963, appointed an ad hoc Advisory Committee of Inquiry on Possible Nephrotoxicity Associated With the Abuse of Acetophenetidin (Phenacetin)-Containing Preparations. This committee, composed of scientists in the fields of pharmacology and medicine, on April 23, 1964, submitted its findings and conclusions in the matter and recommended that all acetophenetidin (phenacetin)-containing preparations bear a warning as provided in section 502(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the studies made by the Food and Drug Administration and the report of the Advisory Committee, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs has concluded that it is necessary for the protection of users that the label and labeling of all acetophenetidin (phenacetin)-containing preparations bear a warning statement to the following effect: “Warning—This medication may damage the kidneys when used in large amounts or for a long period of time. Do not take more than the recommended dosage, nor take regularly for longer than 10 days without consulting your physician.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.310" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.310   Phenindione; labeling of drug preparations intended for use by man.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Reports in the medical literature and data accumulated by the Food and Drug Administration indicate that phenindione, a synthetic anticoagulant drug, has caused a number of cases of agranulocytosis (with two fatalities). There are also reports implicating the drug in cases of hepatitis and hypersensitivity reactions. In view of the potentially serious effects found to be associated with preparations of this drug intended for use by man, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs will regard such preparations as misbranded within the meaning of section 502(f) (1) and (2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the label and labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed, and any other labeling furnishing or purporting to furnish information for use of the drug, bear a conspicuous warning statement to the following effect: “Warning: Agranulocytosis and hepatitis have been associated with the use of phenindione. Patients should be instructed to report promptly prodromal symptoms such as marked fatigue, chill, fever, and sore throat. Periodic blood studies and liver function tests should be performed. Use of the drug should be discontinued if leukopenia occurs or if evidence of hypersensitivity, such as dermatitis or fever, appears.”
</P>
<P>(b) Regulatory action may be initiated with respect to preparations of phenindione intended for use by man found within the jurisdiction of the act on or after November 25, 1961, unless such preparations are labeled in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.311" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.311   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.312" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.312   Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate; label declaration on drug products.</HEAD>
<P>Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate should be listed on the label of a drug product as epsom salt, which is its common or usual name.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.313" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.313   Estradiol labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The article presently recognized in The National Formulary under the heading “Estradiol” and which is said to be “17-cis-beta estradiol” is the same substance formerly recognized in the United States Pharmacopeia under the designation “Alpha Estradiol.” The substance should no longer be referred to in drug labeling as “Alpha Estradiol.” The Food and Drug Administration would not object to label references to the article as simply “Estradiol”; nor would it object if the label of a preparation containing this substance referred to the presence of “Estradiol (formerly known as Alpha Estradiol).”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.314" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.314   Labeling of drug preparations containing salicylates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of any oral drug preparation intended for sale without prescription and which contains any salicylate ingredient (including aspirin, salicylamide, other salicylates, and combinations) must conspicuously bear, on a clearly contrasting background, the warning statement: “Keep out of reach of children [highlighted in bold type]. In case of overdose, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away,” or “Keep out of reach of children [highlighted in bold type],” except that if the article is an aspirin preparation, it shall bear the first of these warning statements. Such a warning statement is required for compliance with section 502(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and is intended to guard against accidental poisonings. Safety closures that prevent access to the drug by young children are also recommended to guard against accidental poisonings.
</P>
<P>(b) Effervescent preparations and preparations containing para-aminosalicylate as the only salicylate ingredient are exempted from this labeling requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) Aspirin tablets sold as such and containing no other active ingredients, except tablets which cannot be readily subdivided into a child's dose because of their coating or size, should always bear dosage directions for each age group down to 3 years of age, with a statement such as “For children under 3 years of age, consult your physician.” It is recommended that:
</P>
<P>(1) Aspirin tablets especially made for pediatric use be produced only in 1
<FR>1/4</FR>-grain size to reduce the hazard of errors in dosage;
</P>
<P>(2) By June 1, 1967, manufacturers and distributors of 1
<FR>1/4</FR>-grain size aspirin tablets discontinue the distribution of such tablets in retail containers containing more than 36 tablets, to reduce the hazard of accidental poisoning;
</P>
<P>(3) The flavoring of 5-grain aspirin tablets or other “adult aspirin tablets” be discontinued; and
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling giving undue emphasis to the pleasant flavor of flavored aspirin tablets be discontinued.
</P>
<P>(d) Salicylate preparations other than aspirin tablets sold as such may, at the option of the distributor, be labeled for use by adults only. If their labeling and advertising clearly offer them for administration to adults only.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) It is the obligation of the distributor who labels a salicylate preparation for administration to children to make certain that the article is suitable for such use and labeled with adequate directions for use in the age group for which it is offered, but in no case should such an article bear directions for use in children under 3 years of age. If the directions provide for administration to children as young as 3 years of age, the label should bear the statement, “For children under 3 years of age consult your physician.” However, if the directions provide for administration to children only of an age greater than 3 years (for example, the dosage instructions provide for administration of the article to children only down to age 6), the label should bear a statement such as, “For younger children consult your physician.”
</P>
<P>(2) A statement such as, “For children under 3 years of age consult your physician” or “For younger children consult your physician” is not required on the label of an article clearly offered for administration to adults only.
</P>
<P>(f) If the labeling or advertising of a salicylate preparation offers it for use in arthritis or rheumatism, the label and labeling should clearly state that the beneficial effects claimed are limited to: “For the temporary relief of minor aches and pains of arthritis and rheumatism.” The qualifying phrase “for the temporary relief of minor aches and pains” should appear with the same degree of prominence and conspicuousness as the phrase “arthritis and rheumatism”. The label and labeling should bear in juxtaposition with such directions for use conspicuous warning statements to the effect: “Caution: If pain persists for more than 10 days, or redness is present, or in conditions affecting children under 12 years of age, consult a physician immediately.” The salicylate dosage should not exceed 60 grains in a 24-hour period or 10 grains in a 4-hour period. If the article contains other analgesics, the salicylate dosage should be appropriately reduced.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) The label of any drug containing more than 5 percent methyl salicylate (wintergreen oil) should bear a conspicuous warning such as: “Do not use otherwise than as directed.” These drug products must also include the “Keep out of reach of children” warning and the accidental ingestion warning as required in § 330.1(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) If the preparation is a counterirritant or rubefacient, it should also bear a caution such as, “Caution: Discontinue use if excessive irritation of the skin develops. Avoid getting into the eyes or on mucous membranes.” (See also § 201.303.)
</P>
<P>(h)(1) The labeling of orally or rectally administered over-the-counter drug products containing aspirin or nonaspirin salicylates as active ingredients subject to this paragraph is required to prominently bear the following warning: “Reye's syndrome [subheading in bold type]: Children and teenagers who have or are recovering from chicken pox or flu-like symptoms should not use this product. When using this product, if changes in behavior with nausea and vomiting occur, consult a doctor because these symptoms could be an early sign of Reye's syndrome, a rare but serious illness.”
</P>
<P>(2) This warning statement shall appear on the immediate container labeling. In cases where the immediate container is not the retail package, the retail package also must bear the warning statement. In addition, the warning statement shall appear on any labeling that contains warnings and, in such cases, the warning statement shall be the first warning statement under the heading “Warnings.”
</P>
<P>(3) Over-the-counter drug products subject to this paragraph and labeled solely for use by children (pediatric products) shall not recommend the product for use in treating flu or chicken pox.
</P>
<P>(4) Any product subject to paragraphs (h)(1), (h)(2), and (h)(3) of this section that is not labeled as required by these paragraphs and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the following dates is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(i) Compliance by October 18, 2004, for OTC drug products containing aspirin and nonaspirin salicylates as an active ingredient and marketed under a new drug application or abbreviated new drug application.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compliance by April 19, 2004, for OTC antidiarrheal and overindulgence drug products that contain bismuth subsalicylate as an active ingredient and have annual sales greater than $25,000.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compliance by April 18, 2005, for OTC antidiarrheal and overindulgence drug products that contain bismuth subsalicylate as an active ingredient and have annual sales less than $25,000.
</P>
<P>(iv) Compliance dates for all other OTC drug products containing aspirin and nonaspirin salicylates as an active ingredient and marketed under an OTC drug monograph (for internal analgesic, antipyretic, and antirheumatic drug products, or for menstrual drug products) will be established when the final monographs for those products are published in a future issue of the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In the interim, these products should continue to be labeled with the previous Reye's syndrome warning that appears in paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13998, Mar. 27, 1985, as amended at 51 FR 8182, Mar. 7, 1986; 53 FR 21637, June 9, 1988; 53 FR 24830, June 30, 1988; 64 FR 13291, Mar. 17, 1999; 65 FR 8, Jan. 3, 2000; 68 FR 18869, Apr. 17, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.315" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.315   Over-the-counter drugs for minor sore throats; suggested warning.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration has studied the problem of the labeling of lozenges or troches containing a local anesthetic, chewing gum containing aspirin, various mouth washes and gargles and other articles sold over the counter for the relief of minor irritations of the mouth or throat. It will not object to the labeling of suitable articles of this type “For the temporary relief of minor sore throats”, provided this is immediately followed in the labeling with a warning statement in prominent type essentially as follows: “Warning—Severe or persistent sore throat or sore throat accompanied by high fever, headache, nausea, and vomiting may be serious. Consult physician promptly. Do not use more than 2 days or administer to children under 3 years of age unless directed by physician.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.316" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.316   Drugs with thyroid hormone activity for human use; required warning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drugs with thyroid hormone activity have been promoted for, and continue to be dispensed and prescribed for, use in the treatment of obesity, although their safety and effectiveness for that use have never been established.
</P>
<P>(b) Drugs for human use with thyroid hormone activity are misbranded within the meaning of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless their labeling bears the following boxed warning at the beginning of the “Warnings” section:
</P>
<BOXTXT>
<P>Drugs with thyroid hormone activity, alone or together with other therapeutic agents, have been used for the treatment of obesity. In euthyroid patients, doses within the range of daily hormonal requirements are ineffective for weight reduction. Larger doses may produce serious or even life-threatening manifestations of toxicity, particularly when given in association with sympathomimetic amines such as those used for their anorectic effects.</P></BOXTXT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 22009, May 23, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.317" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.317   Digitalis and related cardiotonic drugs for human use in oral dosage forms; required warning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Digitalis and related cardiotonic drugs for human use in oral dosage forms have been promoted for, and continue to be dispensed and prescribed for, use in the treatment of obesity, although their safety and effectiveness for that use have never been established.
</P>
<P>(b) Digitalis and related cardiotonic drugs for human use in oral dosage forms are misbranded within the meaning of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless their labeling bears the following boxed warning at the beginning of the “Warnings” section:
</P>
<BOXTXT>
<P>Digitalis alone or with other drugs has been used in the treatment of obesity. This use of digoxin or other digitalis glycosides is unwarranted. Moreover, since they may cause potentially fatal arrhythmias or other adverse effects, the use of these drugs in the treatment of obesity is dangerous.</P></BOXTXT>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to digoxin products for oral use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 22009, May 23, 1978, as amended at 85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.319" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.319   Water-soluble gums, hydrophilic gums, and hydrophilic mucilloids (including, but not limited to agar, alginic acid, calcium polycarbophil, carboxymethylcellulose sodium, carrageenan, chondrus, glucomannan ((B-1,4 linked) polymannose acetate), guar gum, karaya gum, kelp, methylcellulose, plantago seed (psyllium), polycarbophil tragacanth, and xanthan gum) as active ingredients; required warnings and directions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Reports in the medical literature and data accumulated by the Food and Drug Administration indicate that esophageal obstruction and asphyxiation have been associated with the ingestion of water-soluble gums, hydrophilic gums, and hydrophilic mucilloids including, but not limited to, agar, alginic acid, calcium polycarbophil, carboxymethylcellulose sodium, carrageenan, chondrus, glucomannan ((B-1,4 linked) polymannose acetate), guar gum, karaya gum, kelp, methylcellulose, plantago seed (psyllium), polycarbophil, tragacanth, and xanthan gum. Esophageal obstruction and asphyxiation due to orally-administered drug products containing water-soluble gums, hydrophilic gums, and hydrophilic mucilloids as active ingredients are significant health risks when these products are taken without adequate fluid or when they are used by individuals with esophageal narrowing or dysfunction, or with difficulty in swallowing. Additional labeling is needed for the safe and effective use of any OTC drug product for human use containing a water-soluble gum, hydrophilic gum, or hydrophilic mucilloid as an active ingredient when marketed in a dry or incompletely hydrated form to include, but not limited to, the following dosage forms: Capsules, granules, powders, tablets, and wafers. Granular dosage forms containing psyllium are not generally recognized as safe and effective as OTC laxatives (see § 310.545(a)(12)(i)(B) of this chapter) and may not be marketed without an approved new drug application because the warnings and directions in paragraph (b) of this section have been found inadequate for these products.
</P>
<P>(b) Any drug products for human use containing a water-soluble gum, hydrophilic gum, or hydrophilic mucilloid as an active ingredient in an oral dosage form when marketed in a dry or incompletely hydrated form as described in paragraph (a) of this section are misbranded within the meaning of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless their labeling bears the following warnings (under the subheading “Choking”) and directions:
</P>
<P>“ ‘Choking’ [highlighted in bold type]: Taking this product without adequate fluid may cause it to swell and block your throat or esophagus and may cause choking. Do not take this product if you have difficulty in swallowing. If you experience chest pain, vomiting, or difficulty in swallowing or breathing after taking this product, seek immediate medical attention;” and 
</P>
<P>“ ‘Directions’ [highlighted in bold type]:” (Select one of the following, as appropriate: “Take” or “Mix”) “this product (child or adult dose) with at least 8 ounces (a full glass) of water or other fluid. Taking this product without enough liquid may cause choking. See choking warning.”
</P>
<P>(c) After February 28, 1994, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, or any such drug product that is repackaged or relabeled after this date regardless of the date the product was manufactured, initially introduced, or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 45201, Aug. 26, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 13292, Mar. 17, 1999; 72 FR 14674, Mar. 29, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.320" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.320   Warning statements for drug products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons or other ozone-depleting substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All drug products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons, halons, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloride, or any other class I substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) shall, except as provided in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, bear the following warning statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning:</I> Contains [or Manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms public health and the environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For prescription drug products for human use, the following alternative warning statement may be used:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The indented statement below is required by the Federal government's Clean Air Act for all products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's) [or name of other class I substance, if applicable]:
</P>
<P>This product contains [or is manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms the environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere.
</P>
<P>Your physician has determined that this product is likely to help your personal health. USE THIS PRODUCT AS DIRECTED, UNLESS INSTRUCTED TO DO OTHERWISE BY YOUR PHYSICIAN. If you have any questions about alternatives, consult with your physician.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the warning statement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is used, the following warning statement must be placed on the package labeling intended to be read by the physician (physician package insert) after the “How supplied” section, which describes special handling and storage conditions on the physician labeling:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The indented statement below is required by the Federal government's Clean Air Act for all products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's) [or name of other class I substance, if applicable]:
</P>
<P><E T="04">Warning:</E> Contains [or Manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms public health and the environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere.
</P>
<P>A notice similar to the above WARNING has been placed in the information for the patient [or patient information leaflet, if applicable] of this product under the Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA's) regulations. The patient's warning states that the patient should consult his or her physician if there are questions about alternatives.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c)(1) For over-the-counter drug products for human use, the following alternative warning statement may be used:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The indented statement below is required by the Federal government's Clean Air Act for all products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's) [or other class I substance, if applicable]:
</P>
<P><E T="04">Warning:</E> Contains [or Manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms public health and environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere.
</P>
<P>CONSULT WITH YOUR PHYSICIAN OR HEALTH PROFESSIONAL IF YOU HAVE ANY QUESTION ABOUT THE USE OF THIS PRODUCT.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not replace or relieve a person from any requirements imposed under 40 CFR part 82.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 20100, May 3, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.323" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.323   Aluminum in large and small volume parenterals used in total parenteral nutrition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The aluminum content of large volume parenteral (LVP) drug products used in total parenteral nutrition (TPN) therapy must not exceed 25 micrograms per liter (µg/L). 
</P>
<P>(b) The package insert of LVP's used in TPN therapy must state that the drug product contains no more than 25 µg/L of aluminum. This information must be contained in the “Precautions” section of the labeling of all large volume parenterals used in TPN therapy. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the maximum level of aluminum present at expiry must be stated on the immediate container label of all small volume parenteral (SVP) drug products and pharmacy bulk packages (PBPs) used in the preparation of TPN solutions. The aluminum content must be stated as follows: “Contains no more than __ µg/L of aluminum.” The immediate container label of all SVP's and PBP's that are lyophilized powders used in the preparation of TPN solutions must contain the following statement: “When reconstituted in accordance with the package insert instructions, the concentration of aluminum will be no more than __ µg/L.” This maximum level of aluminum must be stated as the highest of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The highest level for the batches produced during the last 3 years; 
</P>
<P>(2) The highest level for the latest five batches, or 
</P>
<P>(3) The maximum historical level, but only until completion of production of the first five batches after July 26, 2004. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the maximum level of aluminum is 25 µg/L or less, instead of stating the exact amount of aluminum as required in paragraph (c) of this section, the immediate container label may state: “Contains no more than 25 µg/L of aluminum.” If the SVP or PBP is a lyophilized powder, the immediate container label may state: “When reconstituted in accordance with the package insert instructions, the concentration of aluminum will be no more than 25 µg/L”.
</P>
<P>(e) The package insert for all LVP's, all SVP's, and PBP's used in TPN must contain a warning statement. This warning must be contained in the “Warnings” section of the labeling. The warning must state:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>WARNING: This product contains aluminum that may be toxic. Aluminum may reach toxic levels with prolonged parenteral administration if kidney function is impaired. Premature neonates are particularly at risk because their kidneys are immature, and they require large amounts of calcium and phosphate solutions, which contain aluminum. 
</P>
<P>Research indicates that patients with impaired kidney function, including premature neonates, who receive parenteral levels of aluminum at greater than 4 to 5 µg/kg/day accumulate aluminum at levels associated with central nervous system and bone toxicity. Tissue loading may occur at even lower rates of administration.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) Applicants and manufacturers must use validated assay methods to determine the aluminum content in parenteral drug products. The assay methods must comply with current good manufacturing practice requirements. Applicants must submit to the Food and Drug Administration validation of the method used and release data for several batches. Manufacturers of parenteral drug products not subject to an approved application must make assay methodology available to FDA during inspections. Holders of pending applications must submit an amendment under § 314.60 or § 314.96 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 4110, Jan. 26, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 70691, Nov. 26, 2002; 68 FR 32981, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.325" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.325   Over-the-counter drugs for vaginal contraceptive and spermicide use containing nonoxynol 9 as the active ingredient; required warnings and labeling information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Studies indicate that use of vaginal contraceptive drug products containing nonoxynol 9 does not protect against infection from the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), or against the transmission of other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Studies also indicate that use of vaginal contraceptive drug products containing nonoxynol 9 can increase vaginal irritation, such as the disruption of the vaginal epithelium, and also can cause epithelial disruption when used in the rectum. These effects may increase the risk of transmission of the AIDS virus (HIV) from an infected partner. Therefore, consumers should be warned that these products do not protect against the transmission of the AIDS virus (HIV) or other STDs, that use of these products can increase vaginal and rectal irritation, which may increase the risk of getting the AIDS virus (HIV) from an HIV infected partner, and that the products are not for rectal use. Consumers should also be warned that these products should not be used by persons who have HIV/AIDS or are at high risk for HIV/AIDS.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling of OTC vaginal contraceptive and spermicide drug products containing nonoxynol 9 as the active ingredient, whether subject to the ongoing OTC drug review or an approved drug application, must contain the following warnings under the heading “Warnings,” in accordance with 21 CFR 201.66.
</P>
<P>(1) “[bullet] For vaginal use only [bullet] Not for rectal (anal) use” [both warnings in bold type].
</P>
<P>(2) “Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) alert [in bold type]: This product does not [word “not” in bold type] protect against HIV/AIDS or other STDs and may increase the risk of getting HIV from an infected partner”.
</P>
<P>(3) “Do not use” [in bold type] if you or your sex partner has HIV/AIDS. If you do not know if you or your sex partner is infected, choose another form of birth control”.
</P>
<P>(4) “When using this product [in bold type] [optional, bullet] you may get vaginal irritation (burning, itching, or a rash)”.
</P>
<P>(5) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] [optional, bullet] you or your partner get burning, itching, a rash, or other irritation of the vagina or penis”.
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of this product states under the “Other information” section of the Drug Facts labeling in accordance with § 201.66(c)(7), “[bullet] when used correctly every time you have sex, latex condoms greatly reduce, but do not eliminate, the risk of catching or spreading HIV, the virus that causes AIDS.
</P>
<P>(d) The labeling of this product includes the following statements either on the outside container or wrapper of the retail package, under the “Other information” section of the Drug Facts labeling in accordance with § 201.66(c)(7), or in a package insert:
</P>
<P>(1) “[bullet] studies have raised safety concerns that products containing the spermicide nonoxynol 9 can irritate the vagina and rectum. Sometimes this irritation has no symptoms. This irritation may increase the risk of getting HIV/AIDS from an infected partner”.
</P>
<P>(2) “[bullet] you can use nonoxynol 9 for birth control with or without a diaphragm or condom if you have sex with only one partner who is not infected with HIV and who has no other sexual partners or HIV risk factors”.
</P>
<P>(3) “[bullet] use a latex condom without nonoxynol 9 if you or your sex partner has HIV/AIDS, multiple sex partners, or other HIV risk factors”.
</P>
<P>(4) “[bullet] ask a health professional if you have questions about your best birth control and STD prevention methods”.
</P>
<P>(e) Any drug product subject to this section that is not labeled as required and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after June 19, 2008, is misbranded under section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 352), is a new drug under section 505 of the act (21 U.S.C. 355), and is subject to regulatory action. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 71785, Dec. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.326" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.326   Over-the-counter drug products containing internal analgesic/antipyretic active ingredients; required warnings and other labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Labeling.</I> The labeling for all over-the-counter (OTC) drug products containing any internal analgesic/antipyretic active ingredients (including, but not limited to, acetaminophen, aspirin, carbaspirin calcium, choline salicylate, ibuprofen, ketoprofen, magnesium salicylate, naproxen sodium, and sodium salicylate) alone or in combination must bear the following labeling in accordance with §§ 201.60, 201.61, and 201.66.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acetaminophen</I>—(i) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The statement of identity appears in accord with §§ 201.61 and 299.4 of this chapter. The ingredient name “acetaminophen” must appear highlighted (e.g., fluorescent or color contrast) or in bold type, be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed, and be in one of the following sizes, whichever is greater:
</P>
<P>(A) At least one-quarter as large as the size of the most prominent printed matter on the principal display panel (PDP), or
</P>
<P>(B) At least as large as the size of the “Drug Facts” title, as required in § 201.66(d)(2). The presence of acetaminophen must appear as part of the established name of the drug, as defined in § 299.4 of this chapter. Combination products containing acetaminophen and a nonanalgesic ingredient(s) (e.g., cough-cold) must include the name “acetaminophen” and the name(s) of the other active ingredient(s) in the product on the PDP in accord with this paragraph. Only the name “acetaminophen” must appear highlighted or in bold type, and in a prominent print size, as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Active Ingredient and Purpose Headings.</I> The information required under § 201.66(c)(2) and (c)(3) of this chapter must be included under these headings. The information under these headings, but not the headings, may appear highlighted.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products labeled for adults only.</I> The labeling of the product states the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(A) The liver warning states “Liver warning [heading in bold type]: This product contains acetaminophen. Severe liver damage may occur if you take [bullet] more than [insert maximum number of daily dosage units] in 24 hours, which is the maximum daily amount [optional: ‘for this product’] [bullet] with other drugs containing acetaminophen [bullet] 3 or more alcoholic drinks every day while using this product”. This “Liver” warning must be the first warning under the “Warnings” heading. For products that contain both acetaminophen and aspirin, this “Liver” warning must appear after the “Reye's syndrome” and “Allergy alert” warnings in § 201.66(c)(5)(ii)(A) and (c)(5)(ii)(B) and before the “Stomach bleeding” warning in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section. If there is an outer and immediate container of a retail package, this warning must appear on both the outer and immediate containers. If the immediate container is a blister card, the warning must appear on the blister card and remain intact and readable when drug product is removed from the blister card. The warning does not need to be included on each blister unit.
</P>
<P>(B) “Do not use with any other drug containing acetaminophen (prescription or nonprescription). If you are not sure whether a drug contains acetaminophen, ask a doctor or pharmacist.”
</P>
<P>(C) “Ask a doctor before use if you have liver disease”.
</P>
<P>(D) “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are taking the blood thinning drug warfarin” except on the labeling of combination products that contain acetaminophen and NSAID(s).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The liver warning states “Liver warning [heading in bold type]: This product contains acetaminophen. Severe liver damage may occur if your child takes [bullet] more than 5 doses in 24 hours, which is the maximum daily amount [optional: ‘for this product’] [bullet] with other drugs containing acetaminophen”. This “Liver” warning must be the first warning under the “Warnings” heading. If there is an outer and immediate container of a retail package, this warning must appear on both the outer and immediate containers. If the immediate container is a blister card, the warning must appear on the blister card and remain intact and readable when drug product is removed from the blister card. The warning is not required to be included on each blister unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) “Do not use with any other drug containing acetaminophen (prescription or nonprescription). If you are not sure whether a drug contains acetaminophen, ask a doctor or pharmacist.”
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) “Ask a doctor before use if your child has liver disease”.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if your child is taking the blood thinning drug warfarin” except on the labeling of combination products that contain acetaminophen and NSAID(s).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: “this product does not contain directions or complete warnings for adult use” [in bold type].
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products labeled for adults and children under 12 years of age.</I> The labeling of the product states all of the warnings in paragraphs (a)(1)(iii)(A), (a)(1)(iii)(B), and (a)(1)(iii)(C) of this section with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(A) The liver warning states “Liver warning [heading in bold type]: This product contains acetaminophen. Severe liver damage may occur if [bullet] adult takes more than [insert maximum number of daily dosage units] in 24 hours, which is the maximum daily amount [optional: ‘for this product’] [bullet] child takes more than 5 doses in 24 hours [bullet] taken with other drugs containing acetaminophen [bullet] adult has 3 or more alcoholic drinks everyday while using this product.” If there is an outer and immediate container of a retail package, this warning must appear on both the outer and immediate containers. If the immediate container is a blister card, the warning must appear on the blister card and remain intact and readable when drug product is removed from the blister card. The warning is not required to be included on each blister unit.
</P>
<P>(B) “Ask a doctor before use if the user has liver disease.”
</P>
<P>(C) “Do not use with any other drug containing acetaminophen (prescription or nonprescription). If you are not sure whether a drug contains acetaminophen, ask a doctor or pharmacist.”
</P>
<P>(D) “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if the user is taking the blood thinning drug warfarin” except on the labeling of combination products that contain acetaminophen and NSAID(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory analgesic/antipyretic active ingredients—including, but not limited to, aspirin, carbaspirin calcium, choline salicylate, ibuprofen, ketoprofen, magnesium salicylate, naproxen sodium, and sodium salicylate.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The statement of identity appears in accord with §§ 201.61 and 299.4 of this chapter. The word “(NSAID)” must appear highlighted (e.g., fluorescent or color contrast) or in bold type, be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed, and be in one of the following sizes, whichever is greater:
</P>
<P>(A) At least one-quarter as large as the size of the most prominent printed matter on the PDP, or
</P>
<P>(B) At least as large as the size of the “Drug Facts” title, as required in § 201.66(d)(2). The word “(NSAID)” must appear as part of the established name of the drug, as defined in § 299.4 of this chapter, or after the general pharmacological (principal intended) action of the NSAID ingredient. Combination products containing an NSAID and a nonanalgesic ingredient(s) (e.g., cough-cold) must include the name of the NSAID ingredient and the word “(NSAID)” in accordance with this paragraph, and the name(s) of the other active ingredient(s) in the product on the PDP. Only the word “(NSAID)” needs to appear highlighted or in bold type, and in a prominent print size, as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Active Ingredient and Purpose Headings.</I> The information required under § 201.66(c)(2) and (c)(3) of this chapter must be included under these headings. The active ingredient(s) section of the product's labeling, as defined in § 201.66(c)(2), contains the term “(NSAID*)” after the NSAID active ingredient with an asterisk statement at the end of the active ingredient(s) section that defines the term “NSAID” and states “* nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.” The information under these headings may appear highlighted. However, the headings “Active Ingredient” and “Purpose” may not appear highlighted.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products labeled for adults only.</I> The labeling of the product states the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(A) The stomach bleeding warning states “Stomach bleeding warning [heading in bold type]: This product contains an NSAID, which may cause severe stomach bleeding. The chance is higher if you [bullet] are age 60 or older [bullet] have had stomach ulcers or bleeding problems [bullet] take a blood thinning (anticoagulant) or steroid drug [bullet] take other drugs containing prescription or nonprescription NSAIDs (aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, or others) [bullet] have 3 or more alcoholic drinks every day while using this product [bullet] take more or for a longer time than directed”. This “Stomach bleeding” warning must appear after the “Reye's syndrome” and “Allergy alert” warnings in § 201.66(c)(5)(ii)(A) and (c)(5)(ii)(B). For products that contain both acetaminophen and aspirin, the acetaminophen “Liver” warning in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section must appear before the “Stomach bleeding” warning in this paragraph. If there is an outer and immediate container of a retail package, this warning must appear on both the outer and immediate containers. If the immediate container is a blister card, the warning must appear on the blister card and remain intact and readable when drug product is removed from the blister card. The warning is not required to be included on each blister unit.
</P>
<P>(B) “Ask a doctor before use if [bullet] stomach bleeding warning applies to you [bullet] you have a history of stomach problems, such as heartburn [bullet] you have high blood pressure, heart disease, liver cirrhosis, or kidney disease [bullet] you are taking a diuretic”.
</P>
<P>(C) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] you experience any of the following signs of stomach bleeding:” [add the following as second level of statements: “[bullet] feel faint [bullet] vomit blood [bullet] have bloody or black stools [bullet] have stomach pain that does not get better”].
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The stomach bleeding warning states “Stomach bleeding warning [heading in bold type]: This product contains an NSAID, which may cause severe stomach bleeding. The chance is higher if your child [bullet] has had stomach ulcers or bleeding problems [bullet] takes a blood thinning (anticoagulant) or steroid drug [bullet] takes other drugs containing prescription or nonprescription NSAIDs (aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, or others) [bullet] takes more or for a longer time than directed”. The “Stomach bleeding” warning must appear after the “Reye's syndrome” and “Allergy alert” warnings in § 201.66(c)(5)(ii)(A) and (c)(5)(ii)(B). If there is an outer and immediate container of a retail package, this warning must appear on both the outer and immediate containers. If the immediate container is a blister card, the warning must appear on the blister card and remain intact and readable when drug product is removed from the blister card. The warning is not required to be included on each blister unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) “Ask a doctor before use if [bullet] stomach bleeding warning applies to your child [bullet] child has a history of stomach problems, such as heartburn [bullet] child has not been drinking fluids [bullet] child has lost a lot of fluid due to vomiting or diarrhea [bullet] child has high blood pressure, heart disease, liver cirrhosis, or kidney disease [bullet] child is taking a diuretic”.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] child experiences any of the following signs of stomach bleeding:” [add the following as second level of statements: [bullet] feels faint [bullet] vomits blood [bullet] has bloody or black stools [bullet] has stomach pain that does not get better”].
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: “this product does not contain directions or complete warnings for adult use” [in bold type].
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products labeled for adults and children under 12 years of age.</I> The labeling of the product states all of the warnings in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (a)(2)(iii)(C) of this section with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(A) The Stomach bleeding warning states “Stomach bleeding warning [heading in bold type]: This product contains an NSAID, which may cause severe stomach bleeding. The chance is higher if the user [bullet] has had stomach ulcers or bleeding problems [bullet] takes a blood thinning (anticoagulant) or steroid drug [bullet] takes other drugs containing prescription or nonprescription NSAIDs (aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, or others) [bullet] takes more or for a longer time than directed [bullet] is age 60 or older [bullet] has 3 or more alcoholic drinks everyday while using this product”. The “Stomach bleeding” warning must appear after the “Reye's syndrome“ and “Allergy alert” warnings in § 201.66(c)(5)(ii)(A) and (c)(5)(ii)(B). If there is an outer and immediate container of a retail package, this warning must appear on both the outer and immediate containers. If the immediate container is a blister card, the warning must appear on the blister card and remain intact and readable when drug product is removed from the blister card. The warning is not required to be included on each blister unit.
</P>
<P>(B) The labeling states “Ask a doctor before use if [bullet] stomach bleeding warning applies to user [bullet] user has history of stomach problems, such as heartburn [bullet] user has high blood pressure, heart disease, liver cirrhosis, or kidney disease [bullet] user takes a diuretic [bullet] user has not been drinking fluids [bullet] user has lost a lot of fluid due to vomiting or diarrhea”.
</P>
<P>(C) The labeling states “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] user experiences any of the following signs of stomach bleeding:” [add the following as second level of statements: [bullet] feels faint [bullet] vomits blood [bullet] has bloody or black stools [bullet] has stomach pain that does not get better”].
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New warnings information statement.</I> The labeling of any drug product subject to this section that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce before or on April 29, 2010, must bear on its PDP, as defined in § 201.60, the statement “See new warnings information”. This statement must appear highlighted (e.g., fluorescent or color contrast) or in bold type, be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed, and be in one of the following sizes, whichever is greater:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one-quarter as large as the size of the most prominent printed matter on the PDP, or
</P>
<P>(2) At least as large as the size of the “Drug Facts” title, as required in § 201.66(d)(2). The new warnings information statement must remain on the PDP of the drug product for at least 1 year from the date the product is initially introduced into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements to supplement approved application.</I> Holders of approved applications for OTC drug products that contain internal analgesic/antipyretic active ingredients that are subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section must submit supplements under § 314.70(c) of this chapter to include the required information in the product's labeling. Such labeling may be put into use without advance approval of FDA provided it includes at least the exact information included in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 19407, Apr. 29, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 31180, June 30, 2009; 74 FR 61514, Nov. 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.327" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.327   Over-the-counter sunscreen drug products; required labeling based on effectiveness testing.</HEAD>
<P>The following provisions apply to sunscreen products containing aminobenzoic acid, avobenzone, cinoxate, dioxybenzone, ensulizole, homosalate, meradimate, octinoxate, octisalate, octocrylene, oxybenzone, padimate O, sulisobenzone, titanium dioxide, trolamine salicylate, or zinc oxide, alone or in combination. The provisions do not apply to sunscreen products marketed under approved new drug applications or abbreviated new drug applications.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Principal display panel.</I> In addition to the statement of identity in paragraph (b) of this section, the following labeling shall be prominently placed on the principal display panel:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Effectiveness claim</I>—(i) <I>For products that pass the broad spectrum test in paragraph (j) of this section.</I> (A) The labeling states “Broad Spectrum SPF [insert numerical SPF value resulting from testing under paragraph (i) of this section]”.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Prominence.</I> The Broad Spectrum SPF statement shall appear as continuous text with no intervening text or graphic. The entire text shall appear in the same font style, size, and color with the same background color.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For sunscreen products that do not pass the broad spectrum test in paragraph (j) of this section.</I> The labeling states “SPF [insert numerical SPF value resulting from testing under paragraph (i) of this section]”. The entire text shall appear in the same font style, size, and color with the same background color.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Water resistance statements</I>—(i) <I>For products that provide 40 minutes of water resistance according to the test in paragraph (i)(7)(i) of this section.</I> The labeling states “Water Resistant (40 minutes)”.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products that provide 80 minutes of water resistance according to the test in paragraph (i)(7)(ii) of this section.</I> The labeling states “Water Resistant (80 minutes)”.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the drug as a “sunscreen.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” the phrases listed in this paragraph (c), as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the uses that have been established and listed in this paragraph (c), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&amp;C Act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the FD&amp;C Act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the FD&amp;C Act.
</P>
<P>(1) For all sunscreen products, the following indication statement must be included under the heading “Uses”: “[Bullet] helps prevent sunburn”. See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet.
</P>
<P>(2) For sunscreen products with a Broad Spectrum SPF value of 15 or higher according to the tests in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section, the labeling may include the following statement in addition to the indication in § 201.327(c)(1): “[Bullet] if used as directed with other sun protection measures (see Directions [in bold italic font]), decreases the risk of skin cancer and early skin aging caused by the sun”.
</P>
<P>(3) Any labeling or promotional materials that suggest or imply that the use, alone, of any sunscreen reduces the risk of or prevents skin cancer or early skin aging will cause the product to be misbranded under section 502 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 352).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For all sunscreen products.</I> (i) The labeling states “Do not use [bullet] on damaged or broken skin”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] keep out of eyes. Rinse with water to remove.”
</P>
<P>(iii) The labeling states “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] rash occurs”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For sunscreen products that are broad spectrum with SPF values of at least 2 but less than 15 according to the SPF test in paragraph (i) of this section or that do not pass the broad spectrum test in paragraph (j) of this section.</I> The first statement under the heading “Warnings” states “Skin Cancer/Skin Aging Alert [in bold font]; Spending time in the sun increases your risk of skin cancer and early skin aging. This product has been shown only to help prevent sunburn, not [in bold font] skin cancer or early skin aging.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements, as appropriate, under the heading “Directions.” More detailed directions applicable to a particular product formulation may also be included.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For all sunscreen products.</I> (i) As an option, the labeling may state “For sunscreen use:”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “[bullet] apply [select one of the following: ‘Liberally’ or ‘generously’] [and, as an option: ‘And evenly’] 15 minutes before sun exposure”.
</P>
<P>(iii) As an option, the labeling may state “[bullet] apply to all skin exposed to the sun”.
</P>
<P>(iv) The labeling states “[bullet] children under 6 months of age: Ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For sunscreen products with a Broad Spectrum SPF value of 15 or higher according to the tests in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] Sun Protection Measures. [in bold font] Spending time in the sun increases your risk of skin cancer and early skin aging. To decrease this risk, regularly use a sunscreen with a Broad Spectrum SPF value of 15 or higher and other sun protection measures including: [Bullet] limit time in the sun, especially from 10 a.m.-2 p.m. [bullet] wear long-sleeved shirts, pants, hats, and sunglasses”.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products that satisfy the water resistance test in paragraph (i)(7) of this section.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] reapply: [Bullet] after [select one of the following determined by water resistance test: ‘40 minutes of’ or ‘80 minutes of’] swimming or sweating [bullet] immediately after towel drying [bullet] at least every 2 hours”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products that do not satisfy the water resistance test in paragraph (i)(7) of this section.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] reapply at least every 2 hours [bullet] use a water resistant sunscreen if swimming or sweating”.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other information.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statement under the heading “Other information:” “[bullet] protect the product in this container from excessive heat and direct sun”.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>False and misleading claims.</I> There are claims that would be false and/or misleading on sunscreen products. These claims include but are not limited to the following: “Sunblock,” “sweatproof,” and “waterproof.” These or similar claims will cause the product to be misbranded under section 502 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 352).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Labeling of products containing a combination of sunscreen and skin protectant active ingredients.</I> Statements of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable. Labeling provisions in § 347.50(e) of this chapter shall not apply to these products.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SPF test procedure</I>—(1) <I>UV source (solar simulator).</I> (i) <I>Emission spectrum.</I> A single port or multiport solar simulator should be filtered so that it provides a continuous emission spectrum from 290 to 400 nanometers (nm) with a limit of 1,500 Watts per square meter (W/m
<SU>2</SU>) on total irradiance for all wavelengths between 250 and 1,400 nm.
</P>
<P>(A) The solar simulator should have the following percentage of erythema-effective radiation in each specified range of wavelengths:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Solar Simulator Emission Spectrum
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wavelength range (nm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent erythemal contribution 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&lt;290</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-310</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49.0-65.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.0-90.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-330</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.5-95.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-340</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.0-97.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290-400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.9-100.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Calculation of erythema action spectrum described in § 201.327(i)(1)(ii) of this section.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) In addition, UVA II (320-340 nm) irradiance should equal or exceed 20 percent of the total UV (290-400 nm) irradiance. UVA I (340-400 nm) irradiance should equal or exceed 60 percent of the total UV irradiance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Erythema action spectrum.</I> (A) Calculate the erythema action spectrum weighting factor (V<E T="52">i</E>) at each wavelength λ:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) V<E T="52">i</E> (λ) = 1.0 (250 &lt;λ ≤298 nm)
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) V<E T="52">i</E> (λ) = 10
<SU>0.094</SU>* (
<SU>298</SU><E T="7321">−λ)</E> (298 &lt;λ ≤328 nm)
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) V<E T="52">i</E> (λ) = 10
<SU>0.015</SU>* (
<SU>140</SU><E T="7321">−λ)</E> (328 &lt;λ ≤400 nm)
</P>
<P>(B) Calculate the erythema-effective UV dose (E) delivered by a solar simulator as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.002.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where V<E T="52">i</E>(λ) = erythema action spectrum weighting factor at each wavelength λ
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I(λ) = irradiance (Watts per square meter) at each wavelength λ
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = exposure time (seconds)</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>Erythema-effective dose (E) is expressed as effective Joules per square meter (J/m
<SU>2</SU>-eff).
</FP>
<P>(C) The emission spectrum must be determined using a handheld radiometer with a response weighted to match the spectrum in ISO 17166 CIE S 007/E entitled “Erythemal reference action spectrum and standard erythema dose,” dated 1999 (First edition, 1999-12-15; corrected and reprinted 2000-11-15), which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the ISO Copyright Office, Case Postale 56, CH-1211, Geneva 20, Switzerland, telephone +41-22-749-01-11 or fax +41-22-74-09-47. <I>http://www.iso.org.</I> You may inspect a copy at the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Silver Spring, MD 20993, call 301-796-2090, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The solar simulator output should be measured before and after each phototest or, at a minimum, at the beginning and end of each test day. This radiometer should be calibrated using side-by-side comparison with the spectroradiometer (using the weighting factors determined according to paragraph (i)(1)(ii)(A) of this section) at the time of the annual spectroradiometric measurement of the solar simulator as described in paragraph (i)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Operation.</I> A solar simulator should have no significant time-related fluctuations (within 20 percent) in radiation emissions after an appropriate warm-up time and demonstrate good beam uniformity (within 20 percent) in the exposure plane. The delivered dose to the UV exposure site must be within 10 percent of the expected dose.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Periodic measurement.</I> To ensure that the solar simulator delivers the appropriate spectrum of UV radiation, the emission spectrum of the solar simulator should be measured at least annually with an appropriate and accurately calibrated spectroradiometer system (results should be traceable to the National Institute for Standards and Technology). In addition, the solar simulator must be recalibrated if there is any change in the lamp bulb or the optical filtering components (<I>i.e.,</I> filters, mirrors, lenses, collimating devices, or focusing devices). Daily solar simulator radiation intensity should be monitored with a broadband radiometer with a response weighted to match the erythema action spectrum in ISO 17166 CIE S 007/E entitled “Erythemal reference action spectrum and standard erythema dose,” which is incorporated by reference in paragraph (i)(1)(ii)(C) of this section. If a lamp must be replaced due to failure or aging during a phototest, broadband device readings consistent with those obtained for the original calibrated lamp will suffice until measurements can be performed with the spectroradiometer at the earliest possible opportunity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SPF standard</I>—(i) <I>Preparation.</I> The SPF standard should be a formulation containing 7-percent padimate O and 3-percent oxybenzone.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Composition of the Padimate O/oxybenzone SPF Standard
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredients
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent by weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part A:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lanolin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cocoa butter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glyceryl monostearate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stearic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Padimate O</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxybenzone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part B:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Purified water USP</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sorbitol solution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triethanolamine, 99 percent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylparaben</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylparaben</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part C:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part D:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Purified water USP</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">QS 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Quantity sufficient to make 100 grams.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Add the ingredients of Part A into a suitable stainless steel kettle equipped with a propeller agitator. Mix at 77 to 82 °C until uniform.
</P>
<P><I>Step 2.</I> Add the water of Part B into a suitable stainless steel kettle equipped with a propeller agitator and begin mixing at 77 to 82 °C. Add the remaining ingredients of Part B and mix until uniform.
</P>
<P><I>Step 3.</I> Add the batch of Step 1 to the batch of Step 2 and mix at 77 to 82 °C until smooth and uniform. Slowly cool the batch to 49 to 54 °C.
</P>
<P><I>Step 4.</I> Add the benzyl alcohol of Part C to the batch of Step 3 at 49 to 54 °C. Mix until uniform. Continue to cool batch to 35 to 41 °C.
</P>
<P><I>Step 5.</I> Add sufficient water of Part D to the batch of Step 4 at 35 to 41 °C to obtain 100 grams of SPF standard. Mix until uniform. Cool batch to 27 to 32 °C.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>HPLC assay.</I> Use the following high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) procedure to verify the concentrations of padimate O and oxybenzone in the SPF standard:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Instrumentation.</I> (<I>1</I>) Equilibrate a suitable liquid chromatograph to the following or equivalent conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">i</E>) Column</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C-18, 250 millimeters (mm) length, 4.6 mm inner diameter (5 microns)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">ii</E>) Mobile Phase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85:15:0.5 methanol: water: acetic acid
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">iii</E>) Flow Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 milliliters (mL) per minute
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">iv</E>) Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ambient
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">v</E>) Detector</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">UV spectrophotometer at 308 nanometers
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">vi</E>) Attenuation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As needed</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Use HPLC grade reagents for mobile phase.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Preparation of the HPLC reference standard.</I> (<I>1</I>) Weigh 0.50 gram (g) of oxybenzone USP reference standard into a 250-mL volumetric flask. Dissolve and dilute to volume with isopropanol. Mix well.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Weigh 0.50 g of padimate O USP reference standard into a 250-mL volumetric flask. Dissolve and dilute to volume with isopropanol. Mix well.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Pipet 3.0 mL of the oxybenzone solution and 7.0 mL of the padimate O solution into a 100-mL volumetric flask. Dilute to volume with isopropanol and mix well.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>HPLC system suitability.</I> (<I>1</I>) Make three replicate 10-microliter injections of the HPLC reference standard (described in paragraph (i)(2)(ii)(B) of this section). The relative standard deviation in peak areas should not be more than 2.0 percent for either oxybenzone or padimate O.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Calculate the resolution (R) between the oxybenzone and padimate O peaks from one chromatogram as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.003.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where t<E T="52">o</E> = retention time for oxybenzone
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">p</E> = retention time for padimate O
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">o</E> = oxybenzone peak width at baseline
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">p</E> = padimate O peak width at baseline</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>If the resolution (R) is less than 3.0, adjust the mobile phase or replace the column.
</FP>
<P>(D) <I>SPF standard assay</I>—(<I>1</I>) The SPF standard is diluted to the same concentration as the HPLC reference standard according to the following steps:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Step 1.</I> Weigh 1.0 g of the SPF standard (described in paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section) into a 50-mL volumetric flask.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Step 2.</I> Add approximately 30 mL of isopropanol and heat with swirling until contents are evenly dispersed.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Step 3.</I> Cool to room temperature (15 to 30 °C) and dilute to volume with isopropanol. Mix well.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Step 4.</I> Pipet 5.0 mL of the preparation into a 50-mL volumetric flask and dilute to volume with isopropanol. Mix well.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) Inject 10-microliter of diluted SPF standard from paragraph (i)(2)(D)(<I>1</I>) of this section and calculate the amount of oxybenzone and padimate O as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.004.gif"/>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The percent of oxybenzone and padimate O in the SPF standard should be between 95 and 105.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test subjects</I>—(i) <I>Number of subjects.</I> A test panel should include enough subjects to produce a minimum of 10 valid test results. A maximum of three subjects may be rejected from this panel based on paragraph (i)(5)(v)) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Medical history.</I> (A) Obtain a medical history from each subject with emphasis on the effects of sunlight on the subject's skin. Determine that each subject is in good general health with skin type I, II, or III as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Always burns easily; never tans (sensitive).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Always burns easily; tans minimally (sensitive).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Burns moderately; tans gradually (light brown) (normal).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Burns minimally; always tans well (moderate brown) (normal).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Rarely burns; tans profusely (dark brown) (insensitive).
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Never burns; deeply pigmented (insensitive).
</P>
<P>(B) Skin type is based on first 30 to 45 minutes of sun exposure after a winter season of no sun exposure. Determine that each subject is not taking topical or systemic medication that is known to alter responses to UV radiation. Determine that each subject has no history of sensitivities to topical products and/or abnormal responses to sunlight, such as a phototoxic or photoallergic response.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Physical examination.</I> Conduct a physical examination to determine the presence of sunburn, suntan, scars, active dermal lesions, and uneven skin tones on the areas of the back to be tested. A suitable source of low power UVA, such as a Woods lamp, is helpful in this process. If any of these conditions are present, the subject is not qualified to participate in the study. The presence of nevi, blemishes, or moles will be acceptable if, in the physician's judgment, they will neither compromise the study nor jeopardize a subject's safety. Subjects with dysplastic nevi should not be enrolled. Excess hair on the back is acceptable if the hair is clipped. Shaving is unacceptable because it may remove a significant portion of the stratum corneum and temporarily alter the skin's response to UV radiation.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Informed consent.</I> Obtain legally effective written informed consent from all test subjects.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sunscreen application.</I> (i) <I>Test site.</I> Test sites are locations on each subject's back, between the beltline and the shoulder blades (scapulae) and lateral to the midline, where skin responses to UV radiation are determined. Responses on unprotected skin (no test material applied) and protected skin (sunscreen test product(s) or SPF standard applied) are determined at separate unprotected and protected test sites, respectively. Test sites should be randomly located in a blinded manner. Each test site should be a minimum of 30 square centimeters and outlined with indelible ink.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Test subsite.</I> Test subsites are the locations to which UV radiation is administered within a test site. At least five test subsites should receive UV doses within each test site. Test subsites should be at least 0.5 square centimeters (cm
<SU>2</SU>) in area and should be separated from each other by at least 0.8 cm. Each test subsite should be outlined with indelible ink.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Applying test materials.</I> Apply the sunscreen test product and the SPF standard at 2 milligrams per square centimeter (mg/cm
<SU>2</SU>) to their respective test sites. Use a finger cot compatible with the sunscreen to spread the product as evenly as possible.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Waiting period.</I> Wait at least 15 minutes after applying a sunscreen product before exposing the test sites to UV radiation as described in paragraph (i)(5)) of this section. For water resistant sunscreen products, proceed with the water resistance testing procedure described in paragraph (i)(7) of this section after waiting at least 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>UV exposure</I>—(i) <I>Definition of minimal erythema dose (MED).</I> The minimal erythema dose (MED) is the smallest UV dose that produces perceptible redness of the skin (erythema) with clearly defined borders at 16 to 24 hours after UV exposure. The MED for unprotected skin (MED<E T="52">u</E>) is determined on a test site that does not have sunscreen applied. The MED for protected skin (MED<E T="52">p</E>) is determined on a test site that has sunscreen applied. An MED<E T="52">p</E> is determined for the SPF standard (ssMED<E T="52">p</E>). An MED<E T="52">p</E> is determined for the sunscreen test product (tpMED<E T="52">p</E>).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>UV exposure for initial</I> MED<E T="52">u</E>. For each test subject, administer a series of UV radiation doses expressed as J/m
<SU>2</SU>-eff (as determined according to paragraph (a)(2) of this section) to the test subsites within an unprotected test site using an accurately calibrated solar simulator. Select doses that are a geometric series represented by 1.25
<SU>n</SU> (<I>i.e.,</I> each dose is 25 percent greater than the previous dose).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>UV exposure for final</I> MED<E T="52">u</E>, ssMED<E T="52">p</E>, <I>and</I> tpMED<E T="52">p</E>. For each subject, determine the final MED<E T="52">u</E>, ssMED<E T="52">p</E>, and tpMED<E T="52">p</E> by administering a series of five UV doses to the appropriate test sites. The middle dose (X) in each of these dose series (<I>i.e.,</I> the third dose) should equal the initial MED<E T="52">u</E> times the expected SPF. Note that the expected SPF equals 1 and 16.3 for the final MED<E T="52">u</E> and ssMED<E T="52">p</E>, respectively. The remaining UV doses in the series depend upon the expected SPF value of the sunscreen test product(s).
</P>
<P>For products with an expected SPF less than 8, administer UV doses that increase by 25 percent with each successive dose (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.64X, 0.80X, 1.00X, 1.25X, and 1.56X). For products with an expected SPF from 8 to 15, administer UV doses that increase by 20 percent with each successive dose (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.69X, 0.83X, 1.00X, 1.20X, and 1.44X). For products with an expected SPF higher than 15, administer UV doses that increase by 15 percent with each successive dose (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.76X, 0.87X, 1.00X, 1.15X, and 1.32X).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Evaluation of test subsites.</I> In order that the person who evaluates the test subsites is not biased, he/she should not be the same person who applied the sunscreen drug product to the test site or administered the UV doses. After UV doses are administered, all immediate responses should be recorded. These may include an immediate darkening or tanning, typically grayish or purplish in color, which fades in 30 to 60 minutes; an immediate reddening at the subsite, due to heating of the skin, which fades rapidly; and an immediate generalized heat response, spreading beyond the subsite, which fades in 30 to 60 minutes. After the immediate responses are noted, each subject should shield the exposed area from further UV radiation until the MED is determined. Determine the MED 16 to 24 hours after UV exposure. Because erythema is evaluated 16 to 24 hours after UV exposure, the final MED<E T="52">u</E>, ssMED<E T="52">p</E>, and tpMED<E T="52">p</E> are typically determined the day following determination of the initial MED<E T="52">u</E>. Evaluate the erythema responses of each test subsite using either tungsten or warm white fluorescent lighting that provides at least 450 lux of illumination at the test site. For the evaluation, the test subject should be in the same position as when the test site was irradiated.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Invalid test data.</I> Reject test data for a test subject if erythema is not present on either the unprotected or protected test sites; or erythema is present at all subsites; or the responses are inconsistent with the series of UV doses administered; or the subject was noncompliant (e.g., the subject withdraws from the test due to illness or work conflicts or does not shield the exposed testing sites from further UV radiation until the MED is determined).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Determination of SPF.</I> (i) Calculate an SPF value for each test subject (SPF<E T="52">i</E>) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.005.gif"/>
<P>(ii) Calculate the mean 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.009.gif"/>
<FP>and the standard deviation (s) from the SPF<E T="52">i</E> values. Calculate the standard error (SE), which equals s/√n (where n equals the number of subjects who provided valid test results). Obtain the t value from Student's t distribution table corresponding to the upper 5-percent point with n—1 degrees of freedom. Determine the labeled SPF value, which equals the largest whole number less than 
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.012.gif"/>
<FP>In order for the SPF determination of a test product to be considered valid, the SPF value of the SPF standard should fall within the standard deviation range of the expected SPF (<I>i.e.,</I> 16.3 ±3.43).
</FP>
<P>(7) <I>Determination of water resistance.</I> The following procedure should be performed in an indoor fresh water pool, whirlpool, and/or hot tub maintained at 23 to 32 °C. Fresh water is clean drinking water that meets the standards in 40 CFR part 141. The pool and air temperature and the relative humidity should be recorded.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Water resistance (40 minutes).</I> The labeled SPF should be determined after 40 minutes of water immersion using the following procedure:
</P>
<P>(A) Step 1: Apply the sunscreen as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Step 2: Perform moderate activity in water for 20 minutes.
</P>
<P>(C) Step 3: Rest out of water for 15 minutes. Do not towel test site(s).
</P>
<P>(D) Step 4: Perform moderate activity in water for 20 minutes.
</P>
<P>(E) Step 5: Allow test sites to dry completely without toweling.
</P>
<P>(F) Step 6: Apply the SPF standard as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Expose test sites to UV doses as described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Water resistance (80 minutes).</I> The labeled SPF should be determined after 80 minutes of water immersion using the following procedure:
</P>
<P>(A) Step 1: Apply the sunscreen as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Step 2: Perform moderate activity in water for 20 minutes.
</P>
<P>(C) Step 3: Rest out of water for 15 minutes. Do not towel test site(s).
</P>
<P>(D) Step 4: Perform moderate activity in water for 20 minutes.
</P>
<P>(E) Step 5: Rest out of water for 15 minutes. Do not towel test site(s).
</P>
<P>(F) Step 6: Perform moderate activity in water for 20 minutes.
</P>
<P>(G) Step 7: Rest out of water for 15 minutes. Do not towel test site(s).
</P>
<P>(H) Step 8: Perform moderate activity in water for 20 minutes.
</P>
<P>(I) Step 9: Allow test sites to dry completely without toweling.
</P>
<P>(J) Step 10: Apply the SPF standard as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(K) Step 11: Expose test sites to UV doses as described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Broad spectrum test procedure</I>—(1) <I>UV Spectrometry.</I> (i) <I>Plate.</I> Use optical-grade polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) plates suitable for UV transmittance measurements. The plate should be roughened on one side to a three dimensional surface topography measure (Sa) between 2 and 7 micrometers and must have a rectangular application area of at least 16 square centimeters (with no side shorter than 4 cm).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sample holder.</I> The sample holder should hold the PMMA plate in a horizontal position to avoid flowing of the sunscreen drug product from one edge of the PMMA plate to the other. It should be mounted as close as possible to the input optics of the spectrometer to maximize capture of forward scattered radiation. The sample holder should be a thin, flat plate with a suitable aperture through which UV radiation can pass. The PMMA plate should be placed on the upper surface of the sample holder with the roughened side facing up.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Light source.</I> The light source should produce a continuous spectral distribution of UV radiation from 290 to 400 nanometers.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Input optics.</I> Unless the spectrometer is equipped with an integrating sphere, an ultraviolet radiation diffuser should be placed between the sample and the input optics of the spectrometer. The diffuser will be constructed from any UV radiation transparent material (e.g., Teflon ® or quartz). The diffuser ensures that the radiation received by the spectrometer is not collimated. The spectrometer input slits should be set to provide a bandwidth that is less than or equal to 1 nanometer.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dynamic range of the spectrometer.</I> The dynamic range of the spectrometer should be sufficient to measure transmittance accurately through a highly absorbing sunscreen product at all terrestrial solar UV wavelengths (290 to 400 nm).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sunscreen product application to PMMA plate.</I> The accuracy of the test depends upon the application of a precisely controlled amount of sunscreen product with a uniform distribution over the PMMA plate. The product is applied at 0.75 mg per square centimeter to the roughened side of the PMMA plate. The sunscreen product should be applied in a series of small dots over the entire PMMA plate and then spread evenly using a gloved finger. Spreading should be done with a very light spreading action for approximately 30 seconds followed by spreading with greater pressure for approximately 30 seconds. The plate should then be allowed to equilibrate for 15 minutes in the dark before the pre-irradiation described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sunscreen product pre-irradiation.</I> To account for lack of photostability, apply the sunscreen product to the PMMA plate as described in paragraph (b) of this section and then irradiate with a solar simulator described in section 352.70(b) of this chapter. The irradiation dose should be 4 MEDs which is equivalent to an erythemal effective dose of 800 J/m
<SU>2</SU> (<I>i.e.,</I> 800 J/m
<SU>2</SU>-eff).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calculation of mean transmittance values.</I> After pre-irradiation described in paragraph (c) of this section, mean transmittance values should be determined for each wavelength λ over the full UV spectrum (290 to 400 nanometers). The transmittance values should be measured at 1 nanometer intervals. Measurements of spectral irradiance transmitted for each wavelength λ through control PMMA plates coated with 15 microliters of glycerin (no sunscreen product) should be obtained from at least 5 different locations on the PMMA plate [C1(λ), C2(λ), C3(λ), C4(λ), and C5(λ)]. In addition, a minimum of 5 measurements of spectral irradiance transmitted for each wavelength λ through the PMMA plate covered with the sunscreen product will be similarly obtained after pre-irradiation of the sunscreen product [P1(λ), P2(λ), P3(λ), P4(λ), and P5(λ)]. 
</P>
<P>The mean transmittance for each wavelength, 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.010.gif"/>
<FP>is the ratio of the mean of the C(λ) values to the mean of the P(λ) values, as follows:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.006.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where n ≥5</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation of mean absorbance values.</I> (i) Mean transmittance values, 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.010.gif"/>
<FP>are converted into mean absorbance values, 
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.011.gif"/>
<FP>at each wavelength by taking the negative logarithm of the mean transmittance value as follows:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.008.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The calculation yields 111 monochromatic absorbance values in 1 nanometer increments from 290 to 400 nanometers.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Number of plates.</I> For each sunscreen product, mean absorbance values should be determined from at least three individual PMMA plates. Because paragraph (d) of this section requires at least 5 measurements per plate, there should be a total of at least 15 measurements.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Calculation of the critical wavelength.</I> The critical wavelength is identified as the wavelength at which the integral of the spectral absorbance curve reaches 90 percent of the integral over the UV spectrum from 290 to 400 nm. The following equation defines the critical wavelength:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jn11.007.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where λc = critical wavelength
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A(λ) = mean absorbance at each wavelength
</FP-2>
<FP-2>dλ = wavelength interval between measurements</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>A mean critical wavelength of 370 nm or greater is classified as broad spectrum protection.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 35660, June 17, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 38975, July 5, 2011]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.328" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.328   Labeling of medical gas containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Portable cryogenic medical gas containers.</I> For the purposes of this section a <I>portable cryogenic medical gas container</I> is one that is capable of being transported and is intended to be attached to a medical gas supply system within a hospital, health care entity, nursing home, other facility, or home health care setting, or is used to fill small cryogenic gas containers for use by individual patients. The term excludes cryogenic containers that are not designed to be connected to a medical gas supply system, <I>e.g.,</I> tank trucks, trailers, rail cars, or small cryogenic gas containers for use by individual patients (including portable liquid oxygen units as defined at § 868.5655 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(1) Each portable cryogenic medical gas container must be conspicuously marked with a 360° wraparound label identifying its contents. Such label must meet the requirements of § 213.94(e)(3) of this chapter and the following additional requirements.


</P>
<P>(i) If the container holds a single gas, the name of the gas held in the container must be printed on the label in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(A) Using lettering that appears in the color designated for the gas in paragraph (c) of this section and that is printed against a white background, or
</P>
<P>(B) Using lettering that appears in white against a background that is painted in the color for the gas designated in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The lettering for the name of the gas on the label must be at least 2 inches high.
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the gas must be printed continuously around the label and be capable of being read around the entire container.
</P>
<P>(iv) The label must be on the sidewall of the container, as close to the top of the container as possible but below the top weld seam.
</P>
<P>(v) A portable cryogenic medical gas container may only be colored in the color or colors designated in paragraph (c) of this section if the gas or gases held within the container correspond to that color or those colors.
</P>
<P>(2) A label on the container (either the 360° wraparound label required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or a separate label) must include, in conspicuous lettering, the phrase “For Medical Use”, “Medical Gas,” or some similar phrase that indicates the gas is for medical use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>High-pressure medical gas cylinders.</I> Each high-pressure medical gas cylinder must be colored on the shoulder portion of the cylinder in the color or colors designated in paragraph (c) of this section. The color or colors must be visible when viewed from the top of cylinder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Medical gas colors.</I> The colors required to identify medical gases under paragraph (a) and (b) of this section are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Medical gas
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Color
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medical Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yellow.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon Dioxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gray.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Helium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brown.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrous Oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxygen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixture or Blend</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colors corresponding to each component gas.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Statement identifying owner or return address of medical gas containers.</I> Notwithstanding § 201.1, a container filled with a designated medical gas (as defined in § 201.161(c)(1)) or medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases may bear a statement identifying the name of the owner of the container or the address to which the container should be returned after use. Such statement may appear on a separate sticker or decal. If the owner of the medical gas container is not the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the designated medical gas or medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases, that shall be clearly stated on the container. The addition of such statement shall not cause the owner of the cylinder to be a “relabeler” for purposes of registration and listing under part 207 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 81696, Nov. 18, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 51769, June 18, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.2.7.1.26.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 201—Examples of Graphic Enhancements Used by FDA
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Section 201.66 Standard Labeling Format
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Overall
</HD2>
<P>1. The “Drug Facts” labeling is set off in a box or similar enclosure by the use of a barline with all black type printed on a white, color contrasting background.
</P>
<HD2>B. Typeface and size
</HD2>
<P>1. “Drug Facts” is set in 14 point Helvetica Bold Italic, left justified.
</P>
<P>2. “Drug Facts (continued)” is set in 8 point Helvetica Bold Italic for the words “Drug Facts” and 8 point Helvetica Regular for the word “(continued)” and is left justified.
</P>
<P>3. The headings (e.g., “Directions”) are set in 8 point Helvetica Bold Italic, left justified.
</P>
<P>4. The subheadings (e.g., “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are”) are set in 6 point Helvetica Bold, left justified.
</P>
<P>5. The information is set in 6 point Helvetica Regular with 6.5 point leading, left justified.
</P>
<P>6. The heading “Purpose” is right justified.
</P>
<P>7. The bullet is a 5-point solid square.
</P>
<P>8. Two em spacing separates bullets when more than one bullet is on the same line.
</P>
<P>9. A table format is used for 3 or more dosage directions.
</P>
<P>10. A graphic appears at the bottom of the first panel leading the reader to the next panel.
</P>
<HD2>C. Barlines and hairlines
</HD2>
<P>1. A 2.5-point horizontal barline extends to each end of the “Drug Facts” box (or similar enclosure), providing separation between each of the headings.
</P>
<P>2. A 0.5-point horizontal hairline extends within 2 spaces on either side of the “Drug Facts” box (or similar enclosure), immediately following the title and immediately preceding the subheadings.
</P>
<P>3. A 0.5-point horizontal hairline follows the title, immediately preceding the heading, when a heading appears on a subsequent panel immediately after the “Drug Facts (continued)” title.
</P>
<HD2>D. Box or Enclosure
</HD2>
<P>1. All information is enclosed by a 2.5-point barline.
</P>
<HD1>II. Section 201.66 Modified Labeling Format
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Overall
</HD2>
<P>1. The “Drug Facts” labeling is presented in all black type printed on a white color contrasting background.
</P>
<HD2>B. Typeface and size
</HD2>
<P>1. “Drug Facts” is set in 9 point Helvetica Bold Italic, left justified.
</P>
<P>2. The headings (e.g., “Directions”) are set in 8 point Helvetica Bold Italic, left justified.
</P>
<P>3. The subheadings (e.g., “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are”) are set in 6 point Helvetica Bold, left justified.
</P>
<P>4. The information is set in 6 point Helvetica Regular with 6.5 point leading, left justified.
</P>
<P>5. The heading “Purpose” is right justified.
</P>
<P>6. The bullet is a 5-point solid square.
</P>
<P>7. Bulleted information may start on same line as headings (except for the “Warnings” heading) and subheadings, with 2 em spacing separating bullets, and need not be vertically aligned.
</P>
<HD2>C. Barlines and hairlines
</HD2>
<P>1. A 2.5-point horizontal barline extends to each end of the “Drug Facts” box (or similar enclosure), providing separation between each of the headings.
</P>
<P>2. A 0.5-point horizontal hairline extends within 2 spaces on either side of the “Drug Facts” box (or similar enclosure), immediately following the title and immediately preceding the subheadings.
</P>
<HD2>D. Box or Enclosure
</HD2>
<P>1. All information is set off by color contrast. No barline is used.
</P>
<HD1>III. Examples of § 201.66 Standard Labeling and Modified Labeling Formats
</HD1>
<TCAP><E T="15">A. Section 201.66 Standard Labeling Format</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/er17mr99.007.gif"/>
<TCAP><E T="15">B. Section 201.66 Modified Labeling Format</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/er17mr99.008.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="202" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 202—PRESCRIPTION DRUG ADVERTISING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 352, 355, 360b, 371.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 202.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.1   Prescription-drug advertisements.</HEAD>
<P><I>Prescription drug</I> as used in this section means any drug defined in section 503(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or § 201.105 of this chapter, applicable to drugs intended for use by humans and to veterinary drugs, respectively.


</P>
<P>(a)(1) The ingredient information required by section 502(n) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall appear together, without any intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, except the proprietary names of ingredients, which may be included with the listing of established names.
</P>
<P>(2) The order of listing of ingredients in the advertisement shall be the same as the order of listing of ingredients on the label of the product, and the information presented in the advertisement concerning the quantity of each such ingredient shall be the same as the corresponding information on the label of the product.
</P>
<P>(3) The advertisement shall not employ a fanciful proprietary name for the drug or any ingredient in such a manner as to imply that the drug or ingredient has some unique effectiveness or composition, when, in fact, the drug or ingredient is a common substance, the limitations of which are readily recognized when the drug or ingredient is listed by its established name.
</P>
<P>(4) The advertisement shall not feature inert or inactive ingredients in a manner that creates an impression of value greater than their true functional role in the formulation.
</P>
<P>(5) The advertisement shall not designate a drug or ingredient by a proprietary name that, because of similarity in spelling or pronunciation, may be confused with the proprietary name or the established name of a different drug or ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If an advertisement for a prescription drug bears a proprietary name or designation for the drug or any ingredient thereof, the established name, if such there be, corresponding to such proprietary name or designation shall accompany such proprietary name or designation each time it is featured in the advertisement for the drug; but, except as provided below in this subparagraph, the established name need not be used with the proprietary name or designation in the running text of the advertisement. On any page of an advertisement in which the proprietary name or designation is not featured but is used in the running text, the established name shall be used at least once in the running text in association with such proprietary name or designation and in the same type size used in the running text: <I>Provided, however,</I> That if the proprietary name or designation is used in the running text in larger size type, the established name shall be used at least once in association with, and in type at least half as large as the type used for, the most prominent presentation of the proprietary name or designation in such running text. If any advertisement includes a column with running text containing detailed information as to composition, prescribing, side effects, or contraindications and the proprietary name or designation is used in such column but is not featured above or below the column, the established name shall be used at least once in such column of running text in association with such proprietary name or designation and in the same type size used in such column of running text: <I>Provided, however,</I> That if the proprietary name or designation is used in such column of running text in larger size type, the established name shall be used at least once in association with, and in type at least half as large as the type used for, the most prominent presentation of the proprietary name or designation in such column of running text. Where the established name is required to accompany or to be used in association with the proprietary name or designation, the established name shall be placed in direct conjunction with the proprietary name or designation, and the relationship between the proprietary name or designation and the established name shall be made clear by use of a phrase such as “brand of” preceding the established name, by brackets surrounding the established name, or by other suitable means.
</P>
<P>(2) The established name shall be printed in letters that are at least half as large as the letters comprising the proprietary name or designation with which it is joined, and the established name shall have a prominence commensurate with the prominence with which such proprietary name or designation appears, taking into account all pertinent factors, including typography, layout, contrast, and other printing features.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of a prescription drug containing two or more active ingredients, if the advertisement bears a proprietary name or designation for such mixture and there is no established name corresponding to such proprietary name or designation, the quantitative ingredient information required in the advertisement by section 502(n) of the act shall be placed in direct conjunction with the most prominent display of the proprietary name or designation. The prominence of the quantitative ingredient information shall bear a reasonable relationship to the prominence of the proprietary name.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the advertisement employs one proprietary name or designation to refer to a combination of active ingredients present in more than one preparation (the individual preparations differing from each other as to quantities of active ingredients and/or the form of the finished preparation) and there is no established name corresponding to such proprietary name or designation, a listing showing the established names of the active ingredients shall be placed in direct conjunction with the most prominent display of such proprietary name or designation. The prominence of this listing of active ingredients shall bear a reasonable relationship to the prominence of the proprietary name and the relationship between such proprietary name or designation, and the listing of active ingredients shall be made clear by use of such phrase as “brand of”, preceding the listing of active ingredients.
</P>
<P>(2) The advertisement shall prominently display the name of at least one specific dosage form and shall have the quantitative ingredient information required by section 502(n) of the act in direct conjunction with such display. If other dosage forms are listed in the advertisement, the quantitative ingredient information for such dosage forms shall appear in direct conjunction and in equal prominence with the most prominent listing of the names of such dosage forms.


</P>
<P>(e) True statement of information in brief summary relating to side effects, contraindications, and effectiveness:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>When required.</I> All advertisements for any prescription drug, except advertisements described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, must present a true statement of information in brief summary relating to side effects, contraindications (when used in this section, “side effects, contraindications” include side effects, warnings, precautions, and contraindications and include any such information under such headings as cautions, special considerations, important notes, etc.), and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Broadcast advertisements.</I> Advertisements broadcast through media such as radio, television, or telephone communications systems must:
</P>
<P>(A) Include information relating to the major side effects and contraindications (“major statement”) of the advertised drugs in the audio or audio and visual parts of the presentation, unless required by paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(C) of this section to present the major statement using audio and text; and
</P>
<P>(B) Contain a brief summary of all necessary information related to side effects and contraindications, unless adequate provision is made for dissemination of the approved or permitted product labeling in connection with the broadcast presentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Human drug advertisements in television or radio format</I>—<I>Clear, conspicuous, and neutral manner.</I> For advertisements for prescription drugs intended for use by humans presented directly to consumers in television or radio format, the major statement must be presented in a clear, conspicuous, and neutral manner. The major statement is presented in a clear, conspicuous, and neutral manner if the following are met:
</P>
<P>(A) It is presented in consumer-friendly language and terminology that is readily understandable.
</P>
<P>(B) Its audio information, in terms of the volume, articulation, and pacing used, is at least as understandable as the audio information presented in the rest of the advertisement.
</P>
<P>(C) In advertisements in television format, it is presented concurrently using both audio and text (dual modality). To achieve dual modality:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Either the text displays the verbatim key terms or phrases from the corresponding audio, or the text displays the verbatim complete transcript of the corresponding audio; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The text is displayed for a sufficient duration to allow it to be read easily. For purposes of the standard in this paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>), the duration is considered sufficient if the text display begins at the same time and ends at approximately the same time as the corresponding audio.
</P>
<P>(D) In advertisements in television format, for the text portion of the major statement, the size and style of font, the contrast with the background, and the placement on the screen allow the information to be read easily.
</P>
<P>(E) During the presentation of the major statement, the advertisement does not include audio or visual elements, alone or in combination, that are likely to interfere with comprehension of the major statement.








</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exempt advertisements.</I> The following advertisements are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section under the conditions specified:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reminder advertisements.</I> Reminder advertisements are those which call attention to the name of the drug product but do not include indications or dosage recommendations for use of the drug product. These reminder advertisements shall contain only the proprietary name of the drug product, if any; the established name of the drug product, if any; the established name of each active ingredient in the drug product; and, optionally, information relating to quantitative ingredient statements, dosage form, quantity of package contents, price, the name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor or other written, printed, or graphic matter containing no representation or suggestion relating to the advertised drug product. If the Commissioner finds that there is evidence of significant incidence of fatalities or serious injury associated with the use of a particular prescription drug, he may withdraw this exemption by so notifying the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug by letter. Reminder advertisements, other than those solely intended to convey price information including, but not limited to, those subject to the requirements of § 200.200 of this chapter, are not permitted for a prescription drug product whose labeling contains a boxed warning relating to a serious hazard associated with the use of the drug product. Reminder advertisements which are intended to provide consumers with information concerning the price charged for a prescription for a drug product are exempt from the requirements of this section if they meet all of the conditions contained in § 200.200 of this chapter. Reminder advertisements, other than those subject to the requirements of § 200.200 of this chapter, are not permitted for a drug for which an announcement has been published pursuant to a review on the labeling claims for the drug by the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council (NAS/NRC), Drug Efficacy Study Group, and for which no claim has been evaluated as higher than “possibly effective.” If the Commissioner finds the circumstances are such that a reminder advertisement may be misleading to prescribers of drugs subject to NAS/NRC evaluation, such advertisements will not be allowed and the manufacturer, packer, or distributor will be notified either in the publication of the conclusions on the effectiveness of the drug or by letter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Advertisements of bulk-sale drugs.</I> Advertisements of bulk-sale drugs that promote sale of the drug in bulk packages in accordance with the practice of the trade solely to be processed, manufactured, labeled, or repackaged in substantial quantities and that contain no claims for the therapeutic safety or effectiveness of the drug.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Advertisements of prescription-compounding drugs.</I> Advertisements of prescription-compounding drugs that promote sale of a drug for use as a prescription chemical or other compound for use by registered pharmacists in compounding prescriptions if the drug otherwise complies with the conditions for the labeling exemption contained in § 201.120 and the advertisement contains no claims for the therapeutic safety or effectiveness of the drug.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope of information to be included; applicability to the entire advertisement.</I> (i) The requirement of a true statement of information relating to side effects, contraindications, and effectiveness applies to the entire advertisement. Untrue or misleading information in any part of the advertisement will not be corrected by the inclusion in another distinct part of the advertisement of a brief statement containing true information relating to side effects, contraindications, and effectiveness of the drug. If any part or theme of the advertisement would make the advertisement false or misleading by reason of the omission of appropriate qualification or pertinent information, that part or theme shall include the appropriate qualification or pertinent information, which may be concise if it is supplemented by a prominent reference on each page to the presence and location elsewhere in the advertisement of a more complete discussion of such qualification or information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The information relating to effectiveness is not required to include information relating to all purposes for which the drug is intended but may optionally be limited to a true statement of the effectiveness of the drug for the selected purpose(s) for which the drug is recommended or suggested in the advertisement. The information relating to effectiveness shall include specific indications for use of the drug for purposes claimed in the advertisement; for example, when an advertisement contains a broad claim that a drug is an antibacterial agent, the advertisement shall name a type or types of infections and microorganisms for which the drug is effective clinically as specifically as required, approved, or permitted in the drug package labeling.
</P>
<P>(iii) The information relating to side effects and contraindications shall disclose each specific side effect and contraindication (which include side effects, warnings, precautions, and contraindications and include any such information under such headings as cautions, special considerations, important notes, etc.; see paragraph (e)(1) of this section) contained in required, approved, or permitted labeling for the advertised drug dosage form(s): <I>Provided, however,</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The side effects and contraindications disclosed may be limited to those pertinent to the indications for which the drug is recommended or suggested in the advertisement to the extent that such limited disclosure has previously been approved or permitted in drug labeling conforming to the provisions of §§ 201.100 or 201.105; and
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The use of a single term for a group of side effects and contraindications (for example, “blood dyscrasias” for disclosure of “leukopenia,” “agranulocytosis,” and “neutropenia”) is permitted only to the extent that the use of such a single term in place of disclosure of each specific side effect and contraindication has been previously approved or permitted in drug labeling conforming to the provisions of §§ 201.100 or 201.105.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Substance of information to be included in brief summary.</I> (i)(<I>a</I>) An advertisement for a prescription drug covered by a new-drug application approved pursuant to section 505 of the act after October 10, 1962, or a prescription drug covered by a new animal drug application approved pursuant to section 512 of the act after August 1, 1969, or any approved supplement thereto, or for a prescription drug listed in the index pursuant to section 572 of the act, or any granted modification thereto, shall not recommend or suggest any use that is not in the labeling accepted in such approved new-drug application or supplement, new animal drug application or supplement, or new animal drug index listing or modification. The advertisement shall present information from labeling required, approved, permitted, or granted in a new-drug or new animal drug application or new animal drug index listing relating to each specific side effect and contraindication in such labeling that relates to the uses of the advertised drug dosage form(s) or shall otherwise conform to the provisions of paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If a prescription drug was covered by a new-drug application or a supplement thereto that became effective prior to October 10, 1962, an advertisement may recommend or suggest:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Uses contained in the labeling accepted in such new-drug application and any effective, approved, or permitted supplement thereto.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Additional uses contained in labeling in commercial use on October 9, 1962, to the extent that such uses did not cause the drug to be an unapproved “new drug” as “new drug” was defined in section 201(p) of the act as then in force, and to the extent that such uses would be permitted were the drug subject to paragraph (e)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Additional uses contained in labeling in current commercial use to the extent that such uses do not cause the drug to be an unapproved “new drug” as defined in section 201(p) of the act as amended or a “new animal drug” as defined in section 201(v) of the act as amended.
</P>
<FP>The advertisement shall present information from labeling required, approved, or permitted in a new-drug application relating to each specific side effect and contraindication in such labeling that relates to the uses of the advertised drug dosage form(s) or shall otherwise conform to the provisions of paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section.
</FP>
<P>(ii) In the case of an advertisement for a prescription drug other than a drug the labeling of which causes it to be an unapproved “new drug” and other than drugs covered by paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section, an advertisement may recommend and suggest the drug only for those uses contained in the labeling thereof:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) For which the drug is generally recognized as safe and effective among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of such drugs; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For which there exists substantial evidence of safety and effectiveness, consisting of adequate and well-controlled investigations, including clinical investigations (as used in this section “clinical investigations,” “clinical experience,” and “clinical significance” mean in the case of drugs intended for administration to man, investigations, experience, or significance in humans, and in the case of drugs intended for administration to other animals, investigations, experience, or significance in the specie or species for which the drug is advertised), by experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the drug involved, on the basis of which it can fairly and responsibly be concluded by such experts that the drug is safe and effective for such uses; or
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) For which there exists substantial clinical experience (as used in this section this means substantial clinical experience adequately documented in medical literature or by other data (to be supplied to the Food and Drug Administration, if requested)), on the basis of which it can fairly and responsibly be concluded by qualified experts that the drug is safe and effective for such uses; or
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) For which safety is supported under any of the preceding clauses in paragraphs (e)(4)(iii) (<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), and (<I>c</I>) of this section and effectiveness is supported under any other of such clauses.
</P>
<FP>The advertisement shall present information relating to each specific side effect and contraindication that is required, approved, or permitted in the package labeling by §§ 201.100 or 201.105 of this chapter of the drug dosage form(s) or shall otherwise conform to the provisions of paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section.
</FP>
<P>(5) <I>“True statement” of information.</I> An advertisement does not satisfy the requirement that it present a “true statement” of information in brief summary relating to side effects, contraindications, and effectiveness if:
</P>
<P>(i) It is false or misleading with respect to side effects, contraindications, or effectiveness; or
</P>
<P>(ii) It fails to present a fair balance between information relating to side effects and contraindications and information relating to effectiveness of the drug in that the information relating to effectiveness is presented in greater scope, depth, or detail than is required by section 502(n) of the act and this information is not fairly balanced by a presentation of a summary of true information relating to side effects and contraindications of the drug; <I>Provided, however,</I> That no advertisement shall be considered to be in violation of this section if the presentation of true information relating to side effects and contraindications is comparable in depth and detail with the claims for effectiveness or safety.
</P>
<P>(iii) It fails to reveal facts material in the light of its representations or material with respect to consequences that may result from the use of the drug as recommended or suggested in the advertisement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Advertisements that are false, lacking in fair balance, or otherwise misleading.</I> An advertisement for a prescription drug is false, lacking in fair balance, or otherwise misleading, or otherwise violative of section 502(n) of the act, among other reasons, if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Contains a representation or suggestion, not approved or permitted for use in the labeling, that a drug is better, more effective, useful in a broader range of conditions or patients (as used in this section <I>patients</I> means humans and in the case of veterinary drugs, other animals), safer, has fewer, or less incidence of, or less serious side effects or contraindications than has been demonstrated by substantial evidence or substantial clinical experience (as described in paragraphs (e)(4)(ii) (<I>b</I>) and (<I>c</I>) of this section) whether or not such representations are made by comparison with other drugs or treatments, and whether or not such a representation or suggestion is made directly or through use of published or unpublished literature, quotations, or other references.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains a drug comparison that represents or suggests that a drug is safer or more effective than another drug in some particular when it has not been demonstrated to be safer or more effective in such particular by substantial evidence or substantial clinical experience.
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains favorable information or opinions about a drug previously regarded as valid but which have been rendered invalid by contrary and more credible recent information, or contains literature references or quotations that are significantly more favorable to the drug than has been demonstrated by substantial evidence or substantial clinical experience.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contains a representation or suggestion that a drug is safer than it has been demonstrated to be by substantial evidence or substantial clinical experience, by selective presentation of information from published articles or other references that report no side effects or minimal side effects with the drug or otherwise selects information from any source in a way that makes a drug appear to be safer than has been demonstrated.
</P>
<P>(v) Presents information from a study in a way that implies that the study represents larger or more general experience with the drug than it actually does.
</P>
<P>(vi) Contains references to literature or studies that misrepresent the effectiveness of a drug by failure to disclose that claimed results may be due to concomitant therapy, or by failure to disclose the credible information available concerning the extent to which claimed results may be due to placebo effect (information concerning placebo effect is not required unless the advertisement promotes the drug for use by man).
</P>
<P>(vii) Contains favorable data or conclusions from nonclinical studies of a drug, such as in laboratory animals or in vitro, in a way that suggests they have clinical significance when in fact no such clinical significance has been demonstrated.
</P>
<P>(viii) Uses a statement by a recognized authority that is apparently favorable about a drug but fails to refer to concurrent or more recent unfavorable data or statements from the same authority on the same subject or subjects.
</P>
<P>(ix) Uses a quote or paraphrase out of context to convey a false or misleading idea.
</P>
<P>(x) Uses literature, quotations, or references that purport to support an advertising claim but in fact do not support the claim or have relevance to the claim.
</P>
<P>(xi) Uses literature, quotations, or references for the purpose of recommending or suggesting conditions of drug use that are not approved or permitted in the drug package labeling.
</P>
<P>(xii) Offers a combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from a condition amenable to treatment by any of the components rather than limiting the indications for use to patients for whom concomitant therapy as provided by the fixed combination drug is indicated, unless such condition is included in the uses permitted under paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Uses a study on normal individuals without disclosing that the subjects were normal, unless the drug is intended for use on normal individuals.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Uses “statistics” on numbers of patients, or counts of favorable results or side effects, derived from pooling data from various insignificant or dissimilar studies in a way that suggests either that such “statistics” are valid if they are not or that they are derived from large or significant studies supporting favorable conclusions when such is not the case.
</P>
<P>(xv) Uses erroneously a statistical finding of “no significant difference” to claim clinical equivalence or to deny or conceal the potential existence of a real clinical difference.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Uses statements or representations that a drug differs from or does not contain a named drug or category of drugs, or that it has a greater potency per unit of weight, in a way that suggests falsely or misleadingly or without substantial evidence or substantial clinical experience that the advertised drug is safer or more effective than such other drug or drugs.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Uses data favorable to a drug derived from patients treated with dosages different from those recommended in approved or permitted labeling if the drug advertised is subject to section 505 of the act, or, in the case of other drugs, if the dosages employed were different from those recommended in the labeling and generally recognized as safe and effective. This provision is not intended to prevent citation of reports of studies that include some patients treated with dosages different from those authorized, if the results in such patients are not used.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Uses headline, subheadline, or pictorial or other graphic matter in a way that is misleading.
</P>
<P>(xix) Represents or suggests that drug dosages properly recommended for use in the treatment of certain classes of patients or disease conditions are safe and effective for the treatment of other classes of patients or disease conditions when such is not the case.
</P>
<P>(xx) Presents required information relating to side effects or contraindications by means of a general term for a group in place of disclosing each specific side effect and contraindication (for example employs the term <I>blood dyscrasias</I> instead of “leukopenia,” “agranulocytosis,” “neutropenia,” etc.) unless the use of such general term conforms to the provisions of paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<FP><I>Provided, however,</I> That any provision of this paragraph shall be waived with respect to a specified advertisement as set forth in a written communication from the Food and Drug Administration on a petition for such a waiver from a person who would be adversely affected by the enforcement of such provision on the basis of a showing that the advertisement is not false, lacking in fair balance, or otherwise misleading, or otherwise violative of section 502(n) of the act. A petition for such a waiver shall set forth clearly and concisely the petitioner's interest in the advertisement, the specific provision of this paragraph from which a waiver is sought, a complete copy of the advertisement, and a showing that the advertisement is not false, lacking in fair balance, or otherwise misleading, or otherwise violative of section 502(n) of the act.
</FP>
<P>(7) <I>Advertisements that may be false, lacking in fair balance, or otherwise misleading.</I> An advertisement may be false, lacking in fair balance, or otherwise misleading or otherwise violative of section 502(n) of the act if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Contains favorable information or conclusions from a study that is inadequate in design, scope, or conduct to furnish significant support for such information or conclusions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Uses the concept of “statistical significance” to support a claim that has not been demonstrated to have clinical significance or validity, or fails to reveal the range of variations around the quoted average results.
</P>
<P>(iii) Uses statistical analyses and techniques on a retrospective basis to discover and cite findings not soundly supported by the study, or to suggest scientific validity and rigor for data from studies the design or protocol of which are not amenable to formal statistical evaluations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Uses tables or graphs to distort or misrepresent the relationships, trends, differences, or changes among the variables or products studied; for example, by failing to label abscissa and ordinate so that the graph creates a misleading impression.
</P>
<P>(v) Uses reports or statements represented to be statistical analyses, interpretations, or evaluations that are inconsistent with or violate the established principles of statistical theory, methodology, applied practice, and inference, or that are derived from clinical studies the design, data, or conduct of which substantially invalidate the application of statistical analyses, interpretations, or evaluations.
</P>
<P>(vi) Contains claims concerning the mechanism or site of drug action that are not generally regarded as established by scientific evidence by experts qualified by scientific training and experience without disclosing that the claims are not established and the limitations of the supporting evidence.
</P>
<P>(vii) Fails to provide sufficient emphasis for the information relating to side effects and contraindications, when such information is contained in a distinct part of an advertisement, because of repetition or other emphasis in that part of the advertisement of claims for effectiveness or safety of the drug.
</P>
<P>(viii) Fails to present information relating to side effects and contraindications with a prominence and readability reasonably comparable with the presentation of information relating to effectiveness of the drug, taking into account all implementing factors such as typography, layout, contrast, headlines, paragraphing, white space, and any other techniques apt to achieve emphasis.
</P>
<P>(ix) Fails to provide adequate emphasis (for example, by the use of color scheme, borders, headlines, or copy that extends across the gutter) for the fact that two facing pages are part of the same advertisement when one page contains information relating to side effects and contraindications.
</P>
<P>(x) In an advertisement promoting use of the drug in a selected class of patients (for example, geriatric patients or depressed patients), fails to present with adequate emphasis the significant side effects and contraindications or the significant dosage considerations, when dosage recommendations are included in an advertisement, especially applicable to that selected class of patients.
</P>
<P>(xi) Fails to present on a page facing another page (or on another full page) of an advertisement on more than one page, information relating to side effects and contraindications when such information is in a distinct part of the advertisement.
</P>
<P>(xii) Fails to include on each page or spread of an advertisement the information relating to side effects and contraindications or a prominent reference to its presence and location when it is presented as a distinct part of an advertisement.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Contains information from published or unpublished reports or opinions falsely or misleadingly represented or suggested to be authentic or authoritative.
</P>
<P>(f)-(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j)(1) No advertisement concerning a particular prescription drug may be disseminated without prior approval by the Food and Drug Administration if:
</P>
<P>(i) The sponsor or the Food and Drug Administration has received information that has not been widely publicized in medical literature that the use of the drug may cause fatalities or serious damage;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner (or in his absence the officer acting as Commissioner), after evaluating the reliability of such information, has notified the sponsor that the information must be a part of the advertisements for the drug; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor has failed within a reasonable time as specified in such notification to present to the Food and Drug Administration a program, adequate in light of the nature of the information, for assuring that such information will be publicized promptly and adequately to the medical profession in subsequent advertisements.
</P>
<FP>If the Commissioner finds that the program presented is not being followed, he will notify the sponsor that prior approval of all advertisements for the particular drug will be required. Nothing in this paragraph is to be construed as limiting the Commissioner's or the Secretary's rights, as authorized by law, to issue publicity, to suspend any new-drug application, to decertify any antibiotic, or to recommend any regulatory action.
</FP>
<P>(2) Within a reasonable time after information concerning the possibility that a drug may cause fatalities or serious damage has been widely publicized in medical literature, the Food and Drug Administration shall notify the sponsor of the drug by mail that prior approval of advertisements for the drug is no longer necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Dissemination of an advertisement not in compliance with this paragraph shall be deemed to be an act that causes the drug to be misbranded under section 502(n) of the act.
</P>
<P>(4) Any advertisement may be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration prior to publication for comment. If the advertiser is notified that the submitted advertisement is not in violation and, at some subsequent time, the Food and Drug Administration changes its opinion, the advertiser will be so notified and will be given a reasonable time for correction before any regulatory action is taken under this section. Notification to the advertiser that a proposed advertisement is or is not considered to be in violation shall be in written form.
</P>
<P>(5) The sponsor shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter with respect to any determination that prior approval is required for advertisements concerning a particular prescription drug, or that a particular advertisement is not approvable.
</P>
<P>(k) An advertisement issued or caused to be issued by the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug promoted by the advertisement and which is not in compliance with section 502(n) of the act and the applicable regulations thereunder shall cause stocks of such drug in possession of the person responsible for issuing or causing the issuance of the advertisement, and stocks of the drug distributed by such person and still in the channels of commerce, to be misbranded under section 502(n) of the act.
</P>
<P>(l)(1) Advertisements subject to section 502(n) of the act include advertisements in published journals, magazines, other periodicals, and newspapers, and advertisements broadcast through media such as radio, television, and telephone communication systems.
</P>
<P>(2) Brochures, booklets, mailing pieces, detailing pieces, file cards, bulletins, calendars, price lists, catalogs, house organs, letters, motion picture films, film strips, lantern slides, sound recordings, exhibits, literature, and reprints and similar pieces of printed, audio, or visual matter descriptive of a drug and references published (for example, the “Physicians Desk Reference”) for use by medical practitioners, pharmacists, or nurses, containing drug information supplied by the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the drug and which are disseminated by or on behalf of its manufacturer, packer, or distributor are hereby determined to be labeling as defined in section 201(m) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14016, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 58799, Dec. 18, 1975; 41 FR 48266, Nov. 2, 1976; 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 60 FR 38480, July 27, 1995; 72 FR 69119, Dec. 6, 2007; 88 FR 80983, Nov. 21, 2023]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 44 FR 37467, June 26, 1979, § 202.1(e)(6) (ii) and (vii) were revised. At 44 FR 74817, Dec. 18, 1979, paragraphs (e)(6) (ii) and (vii) were stayed indefinitely. At 64 FR 400, Jan. 5, 1999, these paragraphs were amended. For the convenience of the user, paragraphs (e)(6) (ii) and (vii), published at 44 FR 37467, are set forth below:
</PSPACE>
<REVTXT>


<HEAD>§ 202.1   Prescription-drug advertisements.</HEAD><STARS/>
<P>(e) * * *
</P>
<P>(6) * * *
</P>
<P>(ii) Represents or suggests that a prescription drug is safer or more effective than another drug in some particular when the difference has not been demonstrated by substantial evidence. An advertisement for a prescription drug may not, either directly or by implication, e.g., by use of comparative test data or reference to published reports, represent that the drug is safer or more effective than another drug, nor may an advertisement contain a quantitative statement of safety or effectiveness (<I>a</I>) unless the representation has been approved as part of the labeling in a new drug application or biologic license, or (<I>b</I>) if the drug is not a new drug or biologic, unless the representation of safety or effectiveness is supported by substantial evidence derived from adequate and well-controlled studies as defined in § 314.111(a)(5)(ii) of this chapter, or unless the requirement for adequate and well-controlled studies is waived as provided in § 314.111(a)(5)(ii) of this chapter.
</P><STARS/>
<P>(vii) Suggests, on the basis of favorable data or conclusions from nonclinical studies of a prescription drug, such as studies in laboratory animals or in vitro, that the studies have clinical significance, if clinical significance has not been demonstrated. Data that demonstrate activity or effectiveness for a prescription drug in animal or in vitro tests and have not been shown by adequate and well-controlled clinical studies to pertain to clinical use may be used in advertising except that (<I>a</I>), in the case of anti-infective drugs, in vitro data may be included in the advertisement, if data are immediately preceded by the statement “The following in vitro data are available but their clinical significance is unknown” and (b), in the case of other drug classes, in vitro and animal data that have not been shown to pertain to clinical use by adequate and well-controlled clinical studies as defined in § 314.111(a)(5)(ii) of this chapter may not be used unless the requirement for adequate and well-controlled studies is waived as provided in § 314.111(a)(5)(ii) of this chapter.
</P><STARS/>

</REVTXT></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="203" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 203—PRESCRIPTION DRUG MARKETING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 333, 351, 352, 353, 360, 371, 374, 381.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 67756, Dec. 3, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth procedures and requirements pertaining to the reimportation and wholesale distribution of prescription drugs, including both bulk drug substances and finished dosage forms; the sale, purchase, or trade of (or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade) prescription drugs, including bulk drug substances, that were purchased by hospitals or health care entities, or donated to charitable organizations; and the distribution of prescription drug samples. Blood and blood components intended for transfusion are excluded from the restrictions in and the requirements of the Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 and the Prescription Drug Amendments of 1992.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement the Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 and the Prescription Drug Amendments of 1992, except for those sections relating to State licensing of wholesale distributors (see part 205 of this chapter), to protect the public health, and to protect the public against drug diversion by establishing procedures, requirements, and minimum standards for the distribution of prescription drugs and prescription drug samples.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorized distributor of record</I> means a distributor with whom a manufacturer has established an ongoing relationship to distribute such manufacturer's products.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Blood</I> means whole blood collected from a single donor and processed either for transfusion or further manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Blood component</I> means that part of a single-donor unit of blood separated by physical or mechanical means.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bulk drug substance</I> means any substance that is represented for use in a drug and that, when used in the manufacturing, processing, or packaging of a drug, becomes an active ingredient or a finished dosage form of the drug, but the term does not include intermediates used in the synthesis of such substances.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Charitable institution</I> or <I>charitable organization</I> means a nonprofit hospital, health care entity, organization, institution, foundation, association, or corporation that has been granted an exemption under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Common control</I> means the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person or an organization, whether by ownership of stock, voting rights, by contract, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Distribute</I> means to sell, offer to sell, deliver, or offer to deliver a drug to a recipient, except that the term “distribute” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivering or offering to deliver a drug by a common carrier in the usual course of business as a common carrier; or
</P>
<P>(2) Providing of a drug sample to a patient by:
</P>
<P>(i) A practitioner licensed to prescribe such drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) A health care professional acting at the direction and under the supervision of such a practitioner; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The pharmacy of a hospital or of another health care entity that is acting at the direction of such a practitioner and that received such sample in accordance with the act and regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Drug sample</I> means a unit of a prescription drug that is not intended to be sold and is intended to promote the sale of the drug.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Drug coupon</I> means a form that may be redeemed, at no cost or at reduced cost, for a drug that is prescribed in accordance with section 503(b) of the act.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Electronic record</I> means any combination of text, graphics, data, audio, pictorial, or other information representation in digital form that is created, modified, maintained, archived, retrieved, or distributed by a computer system.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Electronic signature</I> means any computer data compilation of any symbol or series of symbols executed, adopted, or authorized by an individual to be the legally binding equivalent of the individual's handwritten signature.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Emergency medical reasons</I> include, but are not limited to, transfers of a prescription drug between health care entities or from a health care entity to a retail pharmacy to alleviate a temporary shortage of a prescription drug arising from delays in or interruption of regular distribution schedules; sales to nearby emergency medical services, i.e., ambulance companies and fire fighting organizations in the same State or same marketing or service area, or nearby licensed practitioners, of drugs for use in the treatment of acutely ill or injured persons; provision of minimal emergency supplies of drugs to nearby nursing homes for use in emergencies or during hours of the day when necessary drugs cannot be obtained; and transfers of prescription drugs by a retail pharmacy to another retail pharmacy to alleviate a temporary shortage; but do not include regular and systematic sales to licensed practitioners of prescription drugs that will be used for routine office procedures.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>FDA</I> means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Group purchasing organization</I> means any entity established, maintained, and operated for the purchase of prescription drugs for distribution exclusively to its members with such membership consisting solely of hospitals and health care entities bound by written contract with the entity.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Handwritten signature</I> means the scripted name or legal mark of an individual handwritten by that individual and executed or adopted with the present intention to authenticate a writing in a permanent form. The act of signing with a writing or marking instrument such as a pen or stylus is preserved. The scripted name or legal mark, while conventionally applied to paper, may also be applied to other devices that capture the name or mark.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Health care entity</I> means any person that provides diagnostic, medical, surgical, or dental treatment, or chronic or rehabilitative care, but does not include any retail pharmacy or any wholesale distributor. Except as provided in § 203.22(h) and (i), a person cannot simultaneously be a “health care entity” and a retail pharmacy or wholesale distributor.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Licensed practitioner</I> means any person licensed or authorized by State law to prescribe drugs.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person who is a manufacturer as defined by § 201.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Nonprofit affiliate</I> means any not-for-profit organization that is either associated with or a subsidiary of a charitable organization as defined in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Ongoing relationship</I> means an association that exists when a manufacturer and a distributor enter into a written agreement under which the distributor is authorized to distribute the manufacturer's products for a period of time or for a number of shipments. If the distributor is not authorized to distribute a manufacturer's entire product line, the agreement must identify the specific drug products that the distributor is authorized to distribute.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PDA</I> means the Prescription Drug Amendments of 1992.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>PDMA</I> means the Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Person</I> includes any individual, partnership, corporation, or association.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Prescription drug</I> means any drug (including any biological product, except for blood and blood components intended for transfusion or biological products that are also medical devices) required by Federal law (including Federal regulation) to be dispensed only by a prescription, including finished dosage forms and bulk drug substances subject to section 503(b) of the act.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Representative</I> means an employee or agent of a drug manufacturer or distributor who promotes the sale of prescription drugs to licensed practitioners and who may solicit or receive written requests for the delivery of drug samples. A detailer is a representative.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Sample unit</I> means a packet, card, blister pack, bottle, container, or other single package comprised of one or more dosage units of a prescription drug sample, intended by the manufacturer or distributor to be provided by a licensed practitioner to a patient in an unbroken or unopened condition.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Unauthorized distributor</I> means a distributor who does not have an ongoing relationship with a manufacturer to sell or distribute its products.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Wholesale distribution</I> means distribution of prescription drugs to persons other than a consumer or patient, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Intracompany sales;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase or other acquisition by a hospital or other health care entity that is a member of a group purchasing organization of a drug for its own use from the group purchasing organization or from other hospitals or health care entities that are members of such organizations;
</P>
<P>(3) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug by a charitable organization to a nonprofit affiliate of the organization to the extent otherwise permitted by law;
</P>
<P>(4) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug among hospitals or other health care entities that are under common control;
</P>
<P>(5) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug for emergency medical reasons;
</P>
<P>(6) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug, an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug, or the dispensing of a drug under a prescription executed in accordance with section 503(b) of the act;
</P>
<P>(7) The distribution of drug samples by manufacturers' and authorized distributors' representatives;
</P>
<P>(8) The sale, purchase, or trade of blood or blood components intended for transfusion;
</P>
<P>(9) Drug returns, when conducted by a hospital, health care entity, or charitable institution in accordance with § 203.23; or
</P>
<P>(10) The sale of minimal quantities of drugs by retail pharmacies to licensed practitioners for office use.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Wholesale distributor</I> means any person engaged in wholesale distribution of prescription drugs, including, but not limited to, manufacturers; repackers; own-label distributors; private-label distributors; jobbers; brokers; warehouses, including manufacturers' and distributors' warehouses, chain drug warehouses, and wholesale drug warehouses; independent wholesale drug traders; and retail pharmacies that conduct wholesale distributions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 67756, Dec. 3, 1999, as amended at 73 FR 59500, Oct. 9, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reimportation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.10   Restrictions on reimportation.</HEAD>
<P>No prescription drug or drug composed wholly or partly of insulin that was manufactured in a State and exported from the United States may be reimported by anyone other than its manufacturer, except that FDA may grant permission to a person other than the manufacturer to reimport a prescription drug or insulin-containing drug if it determines that such reimportation is required for emergency medical care.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.11" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.11   Applications for reimportation to provide emergency medical care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications for reimportation for emergency medical care shall be submitted to the director of the FDA District Office in the district where reimportation is sought (addresses found in part 5, subpart M of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for reimportation to provide emergency medical care shall be reviewed and approved or disapproved by each district office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 67756, Dec. 3, 1999, as amended at 69 FR 17292, Apr. 2, 2004]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.12" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.12   An appeal from an adverse decision by the district office.</HEAD>
<P>An appeal from an adverse decision by the district office involving insulin-containing drugs or human prescription drugs or biological products regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research may be made to the Office of Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. An appeal from an adverse decision by the district office involving human prescription biological products regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research may be made to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 18090, Apr. 3, 2015]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Sales Restrictions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.20" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.20   Sales restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 203.22 or § 203.23, no person may sell, purchase, or trade, or offer to sell, purchase, or trade any prescription drug that was:
</P>
<P>(a) Purchased by a public or private hospital or other health care entity; or
</P>
<P>(b) Donated or supplied at a reduced price to a charitable organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.22" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.22   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 203.20 does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(a) The purchase or other acquisition of a drug for its own use by a hospital or other health care entity that is a member of a group purchasing organization from the group purchasing organization or from other hospitals or health care entities that are members of the organization.
</P>
<P>(b) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug by a charitable organization to a nonprofit affiliate of the organization to the extent otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(c) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug among hospitals or other health care entities that are under common control.
</P>
<P>(d) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug for emergency medical reasons.
</P>
<P>(e) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug, an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug, or the dispensing of a drug under a valid prescription.
</P>
<P>(f) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug by hospitals or health care entities owned or operated by Federal, State, or local governmental units to other hospitals or health care entities owned or operated by Federal, State, or local governmental units.
</P>
<P>(g) The sale, purchase, or trade of, or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade blood or blood components intended for transfusion.
</P>
<P>(h) The sale, purchase, or trade of, or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade, by a registered blood establishment that qualifies as a health care entity any:
</P>
<P>(1) Drug indicated for a bleeding or clotting disorder, or anemia;
</P>
<P>(2) Blood collection container approved under section 505 of the act; or
</P>
<P>(3) Drug that is a blood derivative (or a recombinant or synthetic form of a blood derivative); as long as all of the health care services that the establishment provides are related to its activities as a registered blood establishment or the health care services consist of collecting, processing, storing, or administering human hematopoietic stem/progenitor cells or performing diagnostic testing of specimens provided that these specimens are tested together with specimens undergoing routine donor testing. Blood establishments relying on the exclusion in this paragraph must satisfy all other requirements of the act and this part applicable to a wholesale distributor or retail pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(i) The sale, purchase, or trade of, or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade, by a comprehensive hemophilia diagnostic treatment center that is receiving a grant under section 501(a)(2) of the Social Security Act and that qualifies as a health care entity, any drug indicated for a bleeding or clotting disorder, or anemia, or any drug that is a blood derivative (or a recombinant or synthetic form of a blood derivative). Comprehensive hemophilia diagnostic treatment centers relying on the exclusion in this paragraph must satisfy all other requirements of the act and this part applicable to a wholesale distributor or retail pharmacy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 67756, Dec. 3, 1999, as amended at 73 FR 59500, Oct. 9, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.23" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.23   Returns.</HEAD>
<P>The return of a prescription drug purchased by a hospital or health care entity or acquired at a reduced price by or donated to a charitable institution is exempt from the prohibitions in § 203.20, provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) The hospital, health care entity, or charitable institution documents the return by filling out a credit memo specifying:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the hospital, health care entity, or charitable institution;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the manufacturer or wholesale distributor from which it was acquired;
</P>
<P>(3) The product name and lot or control number;
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity returned; and
</P>
<P>(5) The date of the return.
</P>
<P>(b) The hospital, health care entity, or charitable institution forwards a copy of each credit memo to the manufacturer and retains a copy of each credit memo for its records;
</P>
<P>(c) Any drugs returned to a manufacturer or wholesale distributor are kept under proper conditions for storage, handling, and shipping, and written documentation showing that proper conditions were maintained is provided to the manufacturer or wholesale distributor to which the drugs are returned.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Samples</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.30" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.30   Sample distribution by mail or common carrier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for drug sample distribution by mail or common carrier.</I> A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record may distribute a drug sample to a practitioner licensed to prescribe the drug that is to be sampled or, at the written request of a licensed practitioner, to the pharmacy of a hospital or other health care entity, by mail or common carrier, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The licensed practitioner executes and submits a written request to the manufacturer or authorized distributor of record, as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, before the delivery of the drug sample;
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer or authorized distributor of record verifies with the appropriate State authority that the practitioner requesting the drug sample is licensed or authorized under State law to prescribe the drug product;
</P>
<P>(3) The recipient executes a written receipt, as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, when the drug sample is delivered; and
</P>
<P>(4) The receipt is returned to the manufacturer or distributor from which the drug sample was received.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the written request form for delivery of samples by mail or common carrier.</I> (1) A written request for a drug sample to be delivered by mail or common carrier to a licensed practitioner is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, professional title, and signature of the practitioner making the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The practitioner's State license or authorization number or, where a scheduled drug product is requested, the practitioner's Drug Enforcement Administration number.
</P>
<P>(iii) The proprietary or established name and the strength of the drug sample requested;
</P>
<P>(iv) The quantity requested;
</P>
<P>(v) The name of the manufacturer and the authorized distributor of record, if the drug sample is requested from an authorized distributor of record; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The date of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) A written request for a drug sample to be delivered by mail or common carrier to the pharmacy of a hospital or other health care entity is required to contain, in addition to all of the information in paragraph (b)(l) of this section, the name and address of the pharmacy of the hospital or other health care entity to which the drug sample is to be delivered.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of the receipt to be completed upon delivery of a drug sample.</I> The receipt is to be on a form designated by the manufacturer or distributor, and is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the drug sample is delivered to the licensed practitioner who requested it, the receipt is required to contain the name, address, professional title, and signature of the practitioner or the practitioner's designee who acknowledges delivery of the drug sample; the proprietary or established name and strength of the drug sample and the quantity of the drug sample delivered; and the date of the delivery.
</P>
<P>(2) If the drug sample is delivered to the pharmacy of a hospital or other health care entity at the request of a licensed practitioner, the receipt is required to contain the name and address of the requesting licensed practitioner; the name and address of the hospital or health care entity pharmacy designated to receive the drug sample; the name, address, professional title, and signature of the person acknowledging delivery of the drug sample; the proprietary or established name and strength of the drug sample; the quantity of the drug sample delivered; and the date of the delivery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.31" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.31   Sample distribution by means other than mail or common carrier (direct delivery by a representative or detailer).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for drug sample distribution by means other than mail or common carrier.</I> A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record may distribute by means other than mail or common carrier, by a representative or detailer, a drug sample to a practitioner licensed to prescribe the drug to be sampled or, at the written request of such a licensed practitioner, to the pharmacy of a hospital or other health care entity, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer or authorized distributor of record receives from the licensed practitioner a written request signed by the licensed practitioner before the delivery of the drug sample;
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer or authorized distributor of record verifies with the appropriate State authority that the practitioner requesting the drug sample is licensed or authorized under State law to prescribe the drug product;
</P>
<P>(3) A receipt is signed by the recipient, as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, when the drug sample is delivered;
</P>
<P>(4) The receipt is returned to the manufacturer or distributor; and
</P>
<P>(5) The requirements of paragraphs (d) through (e) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the written request forms for delivery of samples by a representative.</I> (1) A written request for delivery of a drug sample by a representative to a licensed practitioner is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, professional title, and signature of the practitioner making the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The practitioner's State license or authorization number, or, where a scheduled drug product is requested, the practitioner's Drug Enforcement Administration number;
</P>
<P>(iii) The proprietary or established name and the strength of the drug sample requested;
</P>
<P>(iv) The quantity requested;
</P>
<P>(v) The name of the manufacturer and the authorized distributor of record, if the drug sample is requested from an authorized distributor of record; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The date of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) A written request for delivery of a drug sample by a representative to the pharmacy of a hospital or other health care entity is required to contain, in addition to all of the information in paragraph (b) of this section, the name and address of the pharmacy of the hospital or other health care entity to which the drug sample is to be delivered.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of the receipt to be completed upon delivery of a drug sample.</I> The receipt is to be on a form designated by the manufacturer or distributor, and is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the drug sample is received at the address of the licensed practitioner who requested it, the receipt is required to contain the name, address, professional title, and signature of the practitioner or the practitioner's designee who acknowledges delivery of the drug sample; the proprietary or established name and strength of the drug sample; the quantity of the drug sample delivered; and the date of the delivery.
</P>
<P>(2) If the drug sample is received by the pharmacy of a hospital or other health care entity at the request of a licensed practitioner, the receipt is required to contain the name and address of the requesting licensed practitioner; the name and address of the hospital or health care entity pharmacy designated to receive the drug sample; the name, address, professional title, and signature of the person acknowledging delivery of the drug sample; the proprietary or established name and strength of the drug sample; the quantity of the drug sample delivered; and the date of the delivery.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inventory and reconciliation of drug samples of manufacturers' and distributors' representatives.</I> Each drug manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that distributes drug samples by means of representatives shall conduct, at least annually, a complete and accurate physical inventory of all drug samples. All drug samples in the possession or control of each manufacturer's and distributor's representatives are required to be inventoried and the results of the inventory are required to be recorded in an inventory record, as specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. In addition, manufacturers and distributors shall reconcile the results of the physical inventory with the most recently completed prior physical inventory and create a report documenting the reconciliation process, as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The inventory record is required to identify all drug samples in a representative's stock by the proprietary or established name, dosage strength, and number of units.
</P>
<P>(2) The reconciliation report is required to include:
</P>
<P>(i) The inventory record for the most recently completed prior inventory;
</P>
<P>(ii) A record of each drug sample shipment received since the most recently completed prior inventory, including the sender and date of the shipment, and the proprietary or established name, dosage strength, and number of sample units received;
</P>
<P>(iii) A record of drug sample distributions since the most recently completed inventory showing the name and address of each recipient of each sample unit shipped, the date of the shipment, and the proprietary or established name, dosage strength, and number of sample units shipped. For the purposes of this paragraph and paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section, “distributions” includes distributions to health care practitioners or designated hospital or health care entity pharmacies, transfers or exchanges with other firm representatives, returns to the manufacturer or authorized distributor, destruction of drug samples by a sales representative, and other types of drug sample dispositions. The specific type of distribution must be specified in the record;
</P>
<P>(iv) A record of drug sample thefts or significant losses reported by the representative since the most recently completed prior inventory, including the approximate date of the occurrence and the proprietary or established name, dosage strength, and number of sample units stolen or lost; and


</P>
<P>(v) A record summarizing the information required by paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (d)(2)(iv) of this section. The record must show, for each type of sample unit (<I>i.e.</I>, sample units having the same established or proprietary name and dosage strength), the total number of sample units received, distributed, lost, or stolen since the most recently completed prior inventory. For example, a typical entry in this record may read “50 units risperidone (1 mg) returned to manufacturer” or simply “Risperidone (1 mg)/50/returned to manufacturer.”
</P>
<P>(3) Each drug manufacturer or authorized distributor of record shall take appropriate internal control measures to guard against error and possible fraud in the conduct of the physical inventory and reconciliation, and in the preparation of the inventory record and reconciliation report.
</P>
<P>(4) A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record shall carefully evaluate any apparent discrepancy or significant loss revealed through the inventory and reconciliation process and shall fully investigate any such discrepancy or significant loss that cannot be justified.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Lists of manufacturers' and distributors' representatives.</I> Each drug manufacturer or authorized distributor of record who distributes drug samples by means of representatives shall maintain a list of the names and addresses of its representatives who distribute drug samples and of the sites where drug samples are stored.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.32" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.32   Drug sample storage and handling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Storage and handling conditions.</I> Manufacturers, authorized distributors of record, and their representatives shall store and handle all drug samples under conditions that will maintain their stability, integrity, and effectiveness and ensure that the drug samples are free of contamination, deterioration, and adulteration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance with compendial and labeling requirements.</I> Manufacturers, authorized distributors of record, and their representatives can generally comply with this section by following the compendial and labeling requirements for storage and handling of a particular prescription drug in handling samples of that drug.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.33" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.33   Drug sample forms.</HEAD>
<P>A sample request or receipt form may be delivered by mail, common carrier, or private courier or may be transmitted photographically or electronically (<I>i.e.</I>, by telephoto, wirephoto, radiophoto, facsimile transmission (FAX), xerography, or electronic data transfer) or by any other system, provided that the method for transmission meets the security requirements set forth in § 203.60(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.34" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.34   Policies and procedures; administrative systems.</HEAD>
<P>Each manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that distributes drug samples shall establish, maintain, and adhere to written policies and procedures describing its administrative systems for the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Distributing drug samples by mail or common carrier, including methodology for reconciliation of requests and receipts;
</P>
<P>(b) Distributing drug samples by means other than mail or common carrier including the methodology for:
</P>
<P>(1) Reconciling requests and receipts, identifying patterns of nonresponse, and the manufacturer's or distributor's response when such patterns are found;
</P>
<P>(2) Conducting the annual physical inventory and preparation of the reconciliation report;
</P>
<P>(3) Implementing a sample distribution security and audit system, including conducting random and for-cause audits of sales representatives by personnel independent of the sales force; and
</P>
<P>(4) Storage of drug samples by representatives;
</P>
<P>(c) Identifying any significant loss of drug samples and notifying FDA of the loss; and
</P>
<P>(d) Monitoring any loss or theft of drug samples.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.35" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.35   Standing requests.</HEAD>
<P>Manufacturers or authorized distributors of record shall not distribute drug samples on the basis of open-ended or standing requests, but shall require separate written requests for each drug sample or group of samples. An arrangement by which a licensed practitioner requests in writing that a specified number of drug samples be delivered over a period of not more than 6 months, with the actual delivery dates for parts of the order to be set by subsequent oral communication or electronic transmission, is not considered to be a standing request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.36" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.36   Fulfillment houses, shipping and mailing services, comarketing agreements, and third-party recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibility for creating and maintaining forms, reports, and records.</I> Any manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that uses a fulfillment house, shipping or mailing service, or other third party, or engages in a comarketing agreement with another manufacturer or distributor to distribute drug samples or to meet any of the requirements of PDMA, PDA, or this part, remains responsible for creating and maintaining all requests, receipts, forms, reports, and records required under PDMA, PDA, and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility for producing requested forms, reports, or records.</I> A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that contracts with a third party to maintain some or all of its records shall produce requested forms, reports, records, or other required documents within 2 business days of a request by an authorized representative of FDA or another Federal, State, or local regulatory or law enforcement official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.37" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.37   Investigation and notification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investigation of falsification of drug sample records.</I> A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that has reason to believe that any person has falsified drug sample requests, receipts, or records, or is diverting drug samples, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify FDA, by telephone or in writing, within 5 working days;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately initiate an investigation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide FDA with a complete written report, including the reason for and the results of the investigation, not later than 30 days after the date of the initial notification in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significant loss or known theft of drug samples.</I> A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that distributes drug samples or a charitable institution that receives donated drug samples from a licensed practitioner shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify FDA, by telephone or in writing, within 5 working days of becoming aware of a significant loss or known theft;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately initiate an investigation into the significant loss or known theft; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide FDA with a complete written report, including the reason for and the results of the investigation, not later than 30 days after the date of the initial notification in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conviction of a representative.</I> (1) A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that distributes drug samples shall notify FDA, by telephone or in writing, within 30 days of becoming aware of the conviction of one or more of its representatives for a violation of section 503(c)(1) of the act or any State law involving the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug sample or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug sample.
</P>
<P>(2) A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record shall provide FDA with a complete written report not later than 30 days after the date of the initial notification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Selection of individual responsible for drug sample information.</I> A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record that distributes drug samples shall inform FDA in writing within 30 days of selecting the individual responsible for responding to a request for information about drug samples of that individual's name, business address, and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Whom to notify at FDA.</I> Notifications and reports concerning human prescription drugs or biological products regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research shall be made to the Division of Compliance Risk Management and Surveillance, Office of Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Notifications and reports concerning human prescription biological products regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research shall be made to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 67756, Dec. 3, 1999, as amended at 69 FR 48775, Aug. 11, 2004; 70 FR 14981, Mar. 24, 2005; 74 FR 13112, Mar. 26, 2009; 80 FR 18090, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.38" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.38   Sample lot or control numbers; labeling of sample units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Lot or control number required on drug sample labeling and sample unit label.</I> The manufacturer or authorized distributor of record of a drug sample shall include on the label of the sample unit and on the outside container or packaging of the sample unit, if any, an identifying lot or control number that will permit the tracking of the distribution of each drug sample unit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records containing lot or control numbers required for all drug samples distributed.</I> A manufacturer or authorized distributor of record shall maintain for all samples distributed records of drug sample distribution containing lot or control numbers that are sufficient to permit the tracking of sample units to the point of the licensed practitioner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labels of sample units.</I> Each sample unit shall bear a label that clearly denotes its status as a drug sample, e.g., “sample,” “not for sale,” “professional courtesy package.” 
</P>
<P>(1) A drug that is labeled as a drug sample is deemed to be a drug sample within the meaning of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) A drug product dosage unit that bears an imprint identifying the dosage form as a drug sample is deemed to be a drug sample within the meaning of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, any article that is a drug sample as defined in section 503(c)(1) of the act and § 203.3(i) that fails to bear the label required in this paragraph (c) is a drug sample.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.39" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.39   Donation of drug samples to charitable institutions.</HEAD>
<P>A charitable institution may receive a drug sample donated by a licensed practitioner or another charitable institution for dispensing to a patient of the charitable institution, or donate a drug sample to another charitable institution for dispensing to its patients, provided that the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(a) A drug sample donated by a licensed practitioner or donating charitable institution shall be received by a charitable institution in its original, unopened packaging with its labeling intact.
</P>
<P>(b) Delivery of a donated drug sample to a recipient charitable institution shall be completed by mail or common carrier, collection by an authorized agent or employee of the recipient charitable institution, or personal delivery by a licensed practitioner or an agent or employee of the donating charitable institution. Donated drug samples shall be placed by the donor in a sealed carton for delivery to or collection by the recipient charitable institution.
</P>
<P>(c) A donated drug sample shall not be dispensed to a patient or be distributed to another charitable institution until it has been examined by a licensed practitioner or registered pharmacist at the recipient charitable institution to confirm that the donation record accurately describes the drug sample delivered and that no drug sample is adulterated or misbranded for any reason, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug sample is out of date;
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling has become mutilated, obscured, or detached from the drug sample packaging;
</P>
<P>(3) The drug sample shows evidence of having been stored or shipped under conditions that might adversely affect its stability, integrity, or effectiveness;
</P>
<P>(4) The drug sample is for a prescription drug product that has been recalled or is no longer marketed; or
</P>
<P>(5) The drug sample is otherwise possibly contaminated, deteriorated, or adulterated.
</P>
<P>(d) The recipient charitable institution shall dispose of any drug sample found to be unsuitable by destroying it or by returning it to the manufacturer. The charitable institution shall maintain complete records of the disposition of all destroyed or returned drug samples.
</P>
<P>(e) The recipient charitable institution shall prepare at the time of collection or delivery of a drug sample a complete and accurate donation record, a copy of which shall be retained by the recipient charitable institution for at least 3 years, containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the licensed practitioner (or donating charitable institution);
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer, brand name, quantity, and lot or control number of the drug sample donated; and
</P>
<P>(3) The date of the donation.
</P>
<P>(f) Each recipient charitable institution shall maintain complete and accurate records of donation, receipt, inspection, inventory, dispensing, redistribution, destruction, and returns sufficient for complete accountability and auditing of drug sample stocks.
</P>
<P>(g) Each recipient charitable institution shall conduct, at least annually, an inventory of prescription drug sample stocks and shall prepare a report reconciling the results of each inventory with the most recent prior inventory. Drug sample inventory discrepancies and reconciliation problems shall be investigated by the charitable institution and reported to FDA.
</P>
<P>(h) A recipient charitable institution shall store drug samples under conditions that will maintain the sample's stability, integrity, and effectiveness, and will ensure that the drug samples will be free of contamination, deterioration, and adulteration.
</P>
<P>(i) A charitable institution shall notify FDA within 5 working days of becoming aware of a significant loss or known theft of prescription drug samples.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Wholesale Distribution</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.50" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.50   Requirements for wholesale distribution of prescription drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identifying statement for sales by unauthorized distributors.</I> Before the completion of any wholesale distribution by a wholesale distributor of a prescription drug for which the seller is not an authorized distributor of record to another wholesale distributor or retail pharmacy, the seller shall provide to the purchaser a statement identifying each prior sale, purchase, or trade of such drug. This identifying statement shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The proprietary and established name of the drug;
</P>
<P>(2) Dosage;
</P>
<P>(3) Container size;
</P>
<P>(4) Number of containers;
</P>
<P>(5) The drug's lot or control number(s);
</P>
<P>(6) The business name and address of all parties to each prior transaction involving the drug, starting with the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(7) The date of each previous transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) The drug origin statement is subject to the record retention requirements of § 203.60 and must be retained by all wholesale distributors involved in the distribution of the drug product, whether authorized or unauthorized, for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Identifying statement not required when additional manufacturing processes are completed.</I> A manufacturer that subjects a drug to any additional manufacturing processes to produce a different drug is not required to provide to a purchaser a statement identifying the previous sales of the component drug or drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>List of authorized distributors of record.</I> Each manufacturer shall maintain at the corporate offices a current written list of all authorized distributors of record.
</P>
<P>(1) Each manufacturer's list of authorized distributors of record shall specify whether each distributor listed thereon is authorized to distribute the manufacturer's full product line or only particular, specified products.
</P>
<P>(2) Each manufacturer shall update its list of authorized distributors of record on a continuing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) Each manufacturer shall make its list of authorized distributors of record available on request to the public for inspection or copying. A manufacturer may impose reasonable copying charges for such requests from members of the public.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Request and Receipt Forms, Reports, and Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.60" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.60   Request and receipt forms, reports, and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of electronic records, electronic signatures, and handwritten signatures executed to electronic records.</I> (1) Provided the requirements of part 11 of this chapter are met, electronic records, electronic signatures, and handwritten signatures executed to electronic records may be used as an alternative to paper records and handwritten signatures executed on paper to meet any of the record and signature requirements of PDMA, PDA, or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Combinations of paper records and electronic records, electronic records and handwritten signatures executed on paper, or paper records and electronic signatures or handwritten signatures executed to electronic records, may be used to meet any of the record and signature requirements of PDMA, PDA, or this part, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements of part 11 of this chapter are met for the electronic records, electronic signatures, or handwritten signatures executed to electronic records; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonably secure link between the paper-based and electronic components exists such that the combined records and signatures are trustworthy and reliable, and to ensure that the signer cannot readily repudiate the signed records as not genuine.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this paragraph (a), the phrase “record and signature requirements of PDMA, PDA, or this part” includes drug sample request and receipt forms, reports, records, and other documents, and their associated signatures required by PDMA, PDA, and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maintenance of request and receipt forms, reports, records, and other documents created on paper.</I> Request and receipt forms, reports, records, and other documents created on paper may be maintained on paper or by photographic imaging (i.e., photocopies or microfiche), provided that the security and authentication requirements described in paragraph (c) of this section are followed. Where a required document is created on paper and electronically scanned into a computer, the resulting record is an electronic record that must meet the requirements of part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Security and authentication requirements for request and receipt forms, reports, records, and other documents created on paper.</I> A request or receipt form, report, record, or other document, and any signature appearing thereon, that is created on paper and that is maintained by photographic imaging, or transmitted electronically (i.e., by facsimile) shall be maintained or transmitted in a form that provides reasonable assurance of being:
</P>
<P>(1) Resistant to tampering, revision, modification, fraud, unauthorized use, or alteration;
</P>
<P>(2) Preserved in accessible and retrievable fashion; and
</P>
<P>(3) Available to permit copying for purposes of review, analysis, verification, authentication, and reproduction by the person who executed the form or created the record, by the manufacturer or distributor, and by authorized personnel of FDA and other regulatory and law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of request and receipt forms, reports, lists, records, and other documents.</I> Any person required to create or maintain reports, lists, or other records under PDMA, PDA, or this part, including records relating to the distribution of drug samples, shall retain them for at least 3 years after the date of their creation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Availability of request and receipt forms, reports, lists, and records.</I> Any person required to create or maintain request and receipt forms, reports, lists, or other records under PDMA, PDA, or this part shall make them available, upon request, in a form that permits copying or other means of duplication, to FDA or other Federal, State, or local regulatory and law enforcement officials for review and reproduction. The records shall be made available within 2 business days of a request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Rewards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 203.70" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.4.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 203.70   Application for a reward.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reward for providing information leading to the institution of a criminal proceeding against, and conviction of, a person for the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug sample.</I> A person who provides information leading to the institution of a criminal proceeding against, and conviction of, a person for the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug sample, or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug sample, in violation of section 503(c)(1) of the act, is entitled to one-half the criminal fine imposed and collected for such violation, but not more than $125,000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for making application for a reward for providing information leading to the institution of a criminal proceeding against, and conviction of, a person for the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug sample.</I> A person who provides information leading to the institution of a criminal proceeding against, and conviction of, a person for the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug sample, or the offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug sample, in violation of section 503(c)(1) of the act, may apply for a reward by making written application to:
</P>
<P>(1) Director, Office of Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; or
</P>
<P>(2) Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Office of Compliance and Biologics Quality (ATTN: Director), Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, as appropriate.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 67756, Dec. 3, 1999, as amended at 69 FR 48775, Aug. 11, 2004; 74 FR 13112, Mar. 26, 2009; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="205" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 205—GUIDELINES FOR STATE LICENSING OF WHOLESALE PRESCRIPTION DRUG DISTRIBUTORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 353, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 38023, Sept. 14, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to any person, partnership, corporation, or business firm in a State engaging in the wholesale distribution of human prescription drugs in interstate commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement the Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 by providing minimum standards, terms, and conditions for the licensing by State licensing authorities of persons who engage in wholesale distributions in interstate commerce of prescription drugs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Blood</I> means whole blood collected from a single donor and processed either for transfusion or further manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Blood component</I> means that part of blood separated by physical or mechanical means.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Drug sample</I> means a unit of a prescription drug that is not intended to be sold and is intended to promote the sale of the drug.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Manufacturer</I> means anyone who is engaged in manufacturing, preparing, propagating, compounding, processing, packaging, repackaging, or labeling of a prescription drug.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prescription drug</I> means any human drug required by Federal law or regulation to be dispensed only by a prescription, including finished dosage forms and active ingredients subject to section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Wholesale distribution</I> and <I>wholesale distribution</I> means distribution of prescription drugs to persons other than a consumer or patient, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Intracompany sales;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase or other acquisition by a hospital or other health care entity that is a member of a group purchasing organization of a drug for its own use from the group purchasing organization or from other hospitals or health care entities that are members of such organizations;
</P>
<P>(3) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug by a charitable organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 to a nonprofit affiliate of the organization to the extent otherwise permitted by law;
</P>
<P>(4) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug among hospitals or other health care entities that are under common control; for purposes of this section, <I>common control</I> means the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person or an organization, whether by ownership of stock, voting rights, by contract, or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(5) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug for emergency medical reasons; for purposes of this section, <I>emergency medical reasons</I> includes transfers of prescription drugs by a retail pharmacy to another retail pharmacy to alleviate a temporary shortage;
</P>
<P>(6) The sale, purchase, or trade of a drug, an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug, or the dispensing of a drug pursuant to a prescription;
</P>
<P>(7) The distribution of drug samples by manufacturers' representatives or distributors' representatives; or
</P>
<P>(8) The sale, purchase, or trade of blood and blood components intended for transfusion.
</P>
<P>(9) Drug returns, when conducted by a hospital, health care entity, or charitable institution in accordance with § 203.23 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(10) The sale of minimal quantities of drugs by retail pharmacies to licensed practitioners for office use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Wholesale distributor</I> means any one engaged in wholesale distribution of prescription drugs, including, but not limited to, manufacturers; repackers; own-label distributors; private-label distributors; jobbers; brokers; warehouses, including manufacturers' and distributors' warehouses, chain drug warehouses, and wholesale drug warehouses; independent wholesale drug traders; and retail pharmacies that conduct wholesale distributions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Health care entity</I> means any person that provides diagnostic, medical, surgical, or dental treatment, or chronic or rehabilitative care, but does not include any retail pharmacy or any wholesale distributor. Except as provided in § 203.22(h) and (i) of this chapter, a person cannot simultaneously be a “health care entity” and a retail pharmacy or wholesale distributor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 38023, Sept. 14, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67762, Dec. 3, 1999, 73 FR 59501, Oct. 9, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.4" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.4   Wholesale drug distributor licensing requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Every wholesale distributor in a State who engages in wholesale distributions of prescription drugs in interstate commerce must be licensed by the State licensing authority in accordance with this part before engaging in wholesale distributions of prescription drugs in interstate commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.5   Minimum required information for licensure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State licensing authority shall require the following minimum information from each wholesale drug distributor as part of the license described in § 205.4 and as part of any renewal of such license:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, full business address, and telephone number of the licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) All trade or business names used by the licensee;
</P>
<P>(3) Addresses, telephone numbers, and the names of contact persons for all facilities used by the licensee for the storage, handling, and distribution of prescription drugs;
</P>
<P>(4) The type of ownership or operation (i.e., partnership, corporation, or sole proprietorship); and
</P>
<P>(5) The name(s) of the owner and/or operator of the licensee, including:
</P>
<P>(i) If a person, the name of the person;
</P>
<P>(ii) If a partnership, the name of each partner, and the name of the partnership;
</P>
<P>(iii) If a corporation, the name and title of each corporate officer and director, the corporate names, and the name of the State of incorporation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If a sole proprietorship, the full name of the sole proprietor and the name of the business entity.
</P>
<P>(b) The State licensing authority may provide for a single license for a business entity operating more than one facility within that State, or for a parent entity with divisions, subsidiaries, and/or affiliate companies within that State when operations are conducted at more than one location and there exists joint ownership and control among all the entities.
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in any information in paragraph (a) of this section shall be submitted to the State licensing authority as required by such authority.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0251)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.6" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.6   Minimum qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State licensing authority shall consider, at a minimum, the following factors in reviewing the qualifications of persons who engage in wholesale distribution of prescription drugs within the State:
</P>
<P>(1) Any convictions of the applicant under any Federal, State, or local laws relating to drug samples, wholesale or retail drug distribution, or distribution of controlled substances;
</P>
<P>(2) Any felony convictions of the applicant under Federal, State, or local laws;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's past experience in the manufacture or distribution of prescription drugs, including controlled substances;
</P>
<P>(4) The furnishing by the applicant of false or fraudulent material in any application made in connection with drug manufacturing or distribution;
</P>
<P>(5) Suspension or revocation by Federal, State, or local government of any license currently or previously held by the applicant for the manufacture or distribution of any drugs, including controlled substances;
</P>
<P>(6) Compliance with licensing requirements under previously granted licenses, if any;
</P>
<P>(7) Compliance with requirements to maintain and/or make available to the State licensing authority or to Federal, State, or local law enforcement officials those records required under this section; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any other factors or qualifications the State licensing authority considers relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(b) The State licensing authority shall have the right to deny a license to an applicant if it determines that the granting of such a license would not be in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.7" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.7   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The State licensing authority shall require that personnel employed in wholesale distribution have appropriate education and/or experience to assume responsibility for positions related to compliance with State licensing requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.8" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.8   Violations and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) State licensing laws shall provide for the suspension or revocation of licenses upon conviction of violations of Federal, State, or local drug laws or regulations, and may provide for fines, imprisonment, or civil penalties.
</P>
<P>(b) State licensing laws shall provide for suspension or revocation of licenses, where appropriate, for violations of its provisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.50" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.50   Minimum requirements for the storage and handling of prescription drugs and for the establishment and maintenance of prescription drug distribution records.</HEAD>
<P>The State licensing law shall include the following minimum requirements for the storage and handling of prescription drugs, and for the establishment and maintenance of prescription drug distribution records by wholesale drug distributors and their officers, agents, representatives, and employees:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Facilities.</I> All facilities at which prescription drugs are stored, warehoused, handled, held, offered, marketed, or displayed shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be of suitable size and construction to facilitate cleaning, maintenance, and proper operations;
</P>
<P>(2) Have storage areas designed to provide adequate lighting, ventilation, temperature, sanitation, humidity, space, equipment, and security conditions;
</P>
<P>(3) Have a quarantine area for storage of prescription drugs that are outdated, damaged, deteriorated, misbranded, or adulterated, or that are in immediate or sealed, secondary containers that have been opened;
</P>
<P>(4) Be maintained in a clean and orderly condition; and
</P>
<P>(5) Be free from infestation by insects, rodents, birds, or vermin of any kind.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security.</I> (1) All facilities used for wholesale drug distribution shall be secure from unauthorized entry.
</P>
<P>(i) Access from outside the premises shall be kept to a minimum and be well-controlled.
</P>
<P>(ii) The outside perimeter of the premises shall be well-lighted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Entry into areas where prescription drugs are held shall be limited to authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) All facilities shall be equipped with an alarm system to detect entry after hours.
</P>
<P>(3) All facilities shall be equipped with a security system that will provide suitable protection against theft and diversion. When appropriate, the security system shall provide protection against theft or diversion that is facilitated or hidden by tampering with computers or electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Storage.</I> All prescription drugs shall be stored at appropriate temperatures and under appropriate conditions in accordance with requirements, if any, in the labeling of such drugs, or with requirements in the current edition of an official compendium, such as the United States Pharmacopeia/National Formulary (USP/NF).
</P>
<P>(1) If no storage requirements are established for a prescription drug, the drug may be held at “controlled” room temperature, as defined in an official compendium, to help ensure that its identity, strength, quality, and purity are not adversely affected.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate manual, electromechanical, or electronic temperature and humidity recording equipment, devices, and/or logs shall be utilized to document proper storage of prescription drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) The recordkeeping requirements in paragraph (f) of this section shall be followed for all stored drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examination of materials.</I> (1) Upon receipt, each outside shipping container shall be visually examined for identity and to prevent the acceptance of contaminated prescription drugs or prescription drugs that are otherwise unfit for distribution. This examination shall be adequate to reveal container damage that would suggest possible contamination or other damage to the contents.
</P>
<P>(2) Each outgoing shipment shall be carefully inspected for identity of the prescription drug products and to ensure that there is no delivery of prescription drugs that have been damaged in storage or held under improper conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) The recordkeeping requirements in paragraph (f) of this section shall be followed for all incoming and outgoing prescription drugs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Returned, damaged, and outdated prescription drugs.</I> (1) Prescription drugs that are outdated, damaged, deteriorated, misbranded, or adulterated shall be quarantined and physically separated from other prescription drugs until they are destroyed or returned to their supplier.
</P>
<P>(2) Any prescription drugs whose immediate or sealed outer or sealed secondary containers have been opened or used shall be identified as such, and shall be quarantined and physically separated from other prescription drugs until they are either destroyed or returned to the supplier.
</P>
<P>(3) If the conditions under which a prescription drug has been returned cast doubt on the drug's safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity, then the drug shall be destroyed, or returned to the supplier, unless examination, testing, or other investigation proves that the drug meets appropriate standards of safety, identity, strength, quality, and purity. In determining whether the conditions under which a drug has been returned cast doubt on the drug's safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity, the wholesale drug distributor shall consider, among other things, the conditions under which the drug has been held, stored, or shipped before or during its return and the condition of the drug and its container, carton, or labeling, as a result of storage or shipping.
</P>
<P>(4) The recordkeeping requirements in paragraph (f) of this section shall be followed for all outdated, damaged, deteriorated, misbranded, or adulterated prescription drugs.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) Wholesale drug distributors shall establish and maintain inventories and records of all transactions regarding the receipt and distribution or other disposition of prescription drugs. These records shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The source of the drugs, including the name and principal address of the seller or transferor, and the address of the location from which the drugs were shipped;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity and quantity of the drugs received and distributed or disposed of; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The dates of receipt and distribution or other disposition of the drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) Inventories and records shall be made available for inspection and photocopying by authorized Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency officials for a period of 3 years after the date of their creation.
</P>
<P>(3) Records described in this section that are kept at the inspection site or that can be immediately retrieved by computer or other electronic means shall be readily available for authorized inspection during the retention period. Records kept at a central location apart from the inspection site and not electronically retrievable shall be made available for inspection within 2 working days of a request by an authorized official of a Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Written policies and procedures.</I> Wholesale drug distributors shall establish, maintain, and adhere to written policies and procedures, which shall be followed for the receipt, security, storage, inventory, and distribution of prescription drugs, including policies and procedures for identifying, recording, and reporting losses or thefts, and for correcting all errors and inaccuracies in inventories. Wholesale drug distributors shall include in their written policies and procedures the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A procedure whereby the oldest approved stock of a prescription drug product is distributed first. The procedure may permit deviation from this requirement, if such deviation is temporary and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A procedure to be followed for handling recalls and withdrawals of prescription drugs. Such procedure shall be adequate to deal with recalls and withdrawals due to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any action initiated at the request of the Food and Drug Administration or other Federal, State, or local law enforcement or other government agency, including the State licensing agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any voluntary action by the manufacturer to remove defective or potentially defective drugs from the market; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any action undertaken to promote public health and safety by replacing of existing merchandise with an improved product or new package design.
</P>
<P>(3) A procedure to ensure that wholesale drug distributors prepare for, protect against, and handle any crisis that affects security or operation of any facility in the event of strike, fire, flood, or other natural disaster, or other situations of local, State, or national emergency.
</P>
<P>(4) A procedure to ensure that any outdated prescription drugs shall be segregated from other drugs and either returned to the manufacturer or destroyed. This procedure shall provide for written documentation of the disposition of outdated prescription drugs. This documentation shall be maintained for 2 years after disposition of the outdated drugs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Responsible persons.</I> Wholesale drug distributors shall establish and maintain lists of officers, directors, managers, and other persons in charge of wholesale drug distribution, storage, and handling, including a description of their duties and a summary of their qualifications.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compliance with Federal, State, and local law.</I> Wholesale drug distributors shall operate in compliance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(1) Wholesale drug distributors shall permit the State licensing authority and authorized Federal, State, and local law enforcement officials to enter and inspect their premises and delivery vehicles, and to audit their records and written operating procedures, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, to the extent authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(2) Wholesale drug distributors that deal in controlled substances shall register with the appropriate State controlled substance authority and with the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), and shall comply with all applicable State, local, and DEA regulations.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Salvaging and reprocessing.</I> Wholesale drug distributors shall be subject to the provisions of any applicable Federal, State, or local laws or regulations that relate to prescription drug product salvaging or reprocessing, including parts 207, 210, and 211 of this chapter.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0251)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 38023, Sept. 14, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67763, Dec. 3, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="206" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 206—IMPRINTING OF SOLID ORAL DOSAGE FORM DRUG PRODUCTS FOR HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 355, 371; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 47958, Sept. 13, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 206.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all solid oral dosage form human drug products, including prescription drug products, over-the-counter drug products, biological drug products, and homeopathic drug products, unless otherwise exempted under § 206.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>The act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Debossed</I> means imprinted with a mark below the dosage form surface.
</P>
<P><I>Drug product</I> means a finished dosage form, e.g., a tablet or capsule that contains a drug substance, generally, but not necessarily, in association with one or more other ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Embossed</I> means imprinted with a mark raised above the dosage form surface.
</P>
<P><I>Engraved</I> means imprinted with a code that is cut into the dosage form surface after it has been completed.
</P>
<P><I>Imprinted</I> means marked with an identification code by means of embossing, debossing, engraving, or printing with ink.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means the manufacturer as described in §§ 201.1 and 600.3(t) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Solid oral dosage form</I> means capsules, tablets, or similar drug products intended for oral use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.7" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.7   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following classes of drug products are exempt from requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Drug products intended for use in a clinical investigation under section 505(i) of the act, but not including drugs distributed under a treatment IND under part 312 of this chapter or distributed as part of a nonconcurrently controlled study. Placebos intended for use in a clinical investigation are exempt from the requirements of this part if they are designed to copy the active drug products used in that investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) Drugs, other than reference listed drugs, intended for use in bioequivalence studies.
</P>
<P>(3) Drugs that are extemporaneously compounded by a licensed pharmacist, upon receipt of a valid prescription for an individual patient from a practitioner licensed by law to prescribe or administer drugs, to be used solely by the patient for whom they are prescribed.
</P>
<P>(4) Radiopharmaceutical drug products.
</P>
<P>(b) Exemption of drugs because of size or unique physical characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) For a drug subject to premarket approval, FDA may provide an exemption from the requirements of § 206.10 upon a showing that the product's size, shape, texture, or other physical characteristics make imprinting technologically infeasible or impossible.
</P>
<P>(i) Exemption requests for products with approved applications shall be made in writing to the appropriate review division in the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER), Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266 or the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. If FDA denies the request, the holder of the approved application will have 1 year after the date of an agency denial to imprint the drug product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exemption requests for products that have not yet received approval shall be made in writing to the appropriate review division in CDER or CBER.
</P>
<P>(2) Any product not subject to premarket approval is exempt from the requirement of § 206.10 if, based on the product's size, shape, texture, or other physical characteristics, the manufacturer or distributor of the product is prepared to demonstrate that imprinting the dosage form is technologically infeasible or impossible.
</P>
<P>(c) For drugs that are administered solely in controlled health care settings and not provided to patients for self-administration, sponsors may submit requests for exemptions from the requirements of this rule. Controlled settings include physicians' offices and other health care facilities. Exemption requests should be submitted in writing to the appropriate review division in CDER or CBER.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 47958, Sept. 13, 1993, as amended at 70 FR 14981, Mar. 24, 2005; 74 FR 13112, Mar. 26, 2009; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.10   Code imprint required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless exempted under § 206.7, no drug product in solid oral dosage form may be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce unless it is clearly marked or imprinted with a code imprint that, in conjunction with the product's size, shape, and color, permits the unique identification of the drug product and the manufacturer or distributor of the product. Identification of the drug product requires identification of its active ingredients and its dosage strength. Inclusion of a letter or number in the imprint, while not required, is encouraged as a more effective means of identification than a symbol or logo by itself. Homeopathic drug products are required only to bear an imprint that identifies the manufacturer and their homeopathic nature.
</P>
<P>(b) A holder of an approved application who has, under § 314.70 (b) of this chapter, supplemented its application to provide for a new imprint is not required to bring its product into compliance with this section during the pendency of the agency's review. Once the review is complete, the drug product is subject to the requirements of the rule.
</P>
<P>(c) A solid oral dosage form drug product that does not meet the requirement for imprinting in paragraph (a) of this section and is not exempt from the requirement may be considered adulterated and misbranded and may be an unapproved new drug.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, <I>code imprint</I> means any single letter or number or any combination of letters and numbers, including, e.g., words, company name, and National Drug Code, or a mark, symbol, logo, or monogram, or a combination of letters, numbers, and marks or symbols, assigned by a drug firm to a specific drug product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 47958, Sept. 13, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 19846, Apr. 21, 1995; 69 FR 18763, Apr. 8, 2004]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="207" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 207—REQUIREMENTS FOR FOREIGN AND DOMESTIC ESTABLISHMENT REGISTRATION AND LISTING FOR HUMAN DRUGS, INCLUDING DRUGS THAT ARE REGULATED UNDER A BIOLOGICS LICENSE APPLICATION, AND ANIMAL DRUGS, AND THE NATIONAL DRUG CODE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 355, 360, 360b, 371, 374, 381, 393; 42 U.S.C. 262, 264, 271.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.1   What definitions and interpretations of terms apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in sections 201 and 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to the terms used in this part, if not otherwise defined in this section. The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Active pharmaceutical ingredient</I> means any substance that is intended for incorporation into a finished drug product and is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or to affect the structure or any function of the body. Active pharmaceutical ingredient does not include intermediates used in the synthesis of the substance.




</P>
<P><I>Bulk drug substance,</I> as referenced in sections 503A(b)(1)(A) and 503B(a)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, means the same as “active pharmaceutical ingredient” as defined in this section.




</P>
<P><I>Commercial distribution</I> means any distribution of a human drug, except for investigational use under part 312 of this chapter, and any distribution of an animal drug or an animal feed bearing or containing an animal drug, except for investigational use under part 511 of this chapter. The term does not include internal or interplant transfer between registered establishments under common ownership and control, including a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company. For foreign establishments that manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage, or for foreign private label distributors, the term “commercial distribution” has the same meaning except the term does not include distribution of any drug that is neither imported nor offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Content of labeling</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For human prescription drugs that are subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act: The content of the prescription drug labeling (as specified in §§ 201.56, 201.57, and 201.80 of this chapter), including all text, tables, and figures.
</P>
<P>(2) For human prescription drugs that are not subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act: The labeling equivalent to the content of the prescription drug labeling (as specified in §§ 201.56, 201.57, and 201.80 of this chapter), including all text, tables, and figures.
</P>
<P>(3) For human over-the-counter (OTC) drugs: All text, tables, and figures including the drug facts labeling required by § 201.66 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For animal drugs (including, but not limited to, drugs that are subject to section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act): The content of the labeling that accompanies the drug that is necessary to enable safe and proper administration of the drug (e.g., the labeling applicable to veterinary drugs specified in part 201 of this chapter), including all text, tables, and figures.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic</I> for purposes of registration and listing under this part, when used to modify the term “registrant,” “manufacturer,” “repacker,” “relabeler,” “salvager,” “private label distributor,” or “establishment,” refers to a registrant, manufacturer, repacker, relabeler, salvager, private label distributor, or establishment within any State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Drug,</I> for the purposes of registration and listing under this part, has the meaning given in section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Establishment</I> means a place of business under one management at one general physical location. The term includes, among others, independent laboratories that engage in control activities for a registered drug establishment (e.g., consulting laboratories), manufacturers of medicated feeds and of vitamin products that are drugs in accordance with section 201(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, human blood donor centers, and animal facilities used for the production or control testing of licensed biologicals, and establishments engaged in salvaging.
</P>
<P><I>Establishment registration number</I> means the number assigned to the establishment, as identified by FDA, after the establishment registration required in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Finished drug product</I> means a finished dosage form (e.g., tablet, capsule, or solution) that contains at least one active pharmaceutical ingredient, generally, but not necessarily, in association with other ingredients in finished package form suitable for distribution to pharmacies, hospitals, or other sellers or dispensers of the drug product to patients or consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign</I> for the purposes of registration and listing under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) When used to modify the term “manufacturer,” “repacker,” “relabeler,” or “salvager,” refers to a manufacturer, repacker, relabeler, or salvager, who is located in a foreign country and who manufactures, repacks, relabels, or salvages a drug, or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, that is imported or offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) When used to modify the term “establishment” refers to an establishment that is located in a foreign country and is engaged in the manufacture, repackaging, relabeling, or salvaging of any drug, or any animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, that is imported or offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Importer</I> means, for purposes of this part, a person in the United States that is an owner, consignee, or recipient, at the time of entry, of a foreign establishment's drug, or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, that is imported into the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacture</I> means each step in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing of a drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug. Manufacture includes the making by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedures or manipulations of a drug, or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, including control procedures applied to the final product or to any part of the process. Manufacture includes manipulation, sampling, testing, or control procedures applied to the final product or to any part of the process, including, for example, analytical testing of drugs for another registered establishment's drug. For purposes of this part, and in order to clarify the responsibilities of the entities engaged in different operations, the term manufacture is defined and used separately from the terms relabel, repackage, and salvage, although the term “manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing,” as used in section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, includes relabeling, repackaging, and salvaging activities.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means a person who owns or operates an establishment that manufactures a drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug. This term includes, but is not limited to, control laboratories, contract laboratories, contract manufacturers, contract packers, contract labelers, and other entities that manufacture a drug, or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, as defined in this paragraph. For purposes of this part, and in order to clarify the responsibilities of the entities engaged in different operations, the term manufacturer is defined and used separately from the terms relabeler, repacker, and salvager, although the term “manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing,” as used in section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, includes the activities of relabelers, repackers, and salvagers. Repackers, relabelers, and salvagers are subject to the provisions of this part that are applicable to repackers, relabelers, and salvagers, but are not subject to the provisions of this part that are applicable to manufacturers. When not modified by “domestic” or “foreign,” the term includes both domestic manufacturers and foreign manufacturers.
</P>
<P><I>Material change</I> means any change in any drug listing information, as required under §§ 207.49, 207.53, 207.54, 207.55, or 207.57 except changes in format of labeling, labeling changes of an editorial nature, or inclusion of a bar code or initial inclusion of an NDC on the label.
</P>
<P><I>Outsourcing facility</I> means a compounder that has elected to register with FDA under section 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and that meets all of the conditions of section 503B.
</P>
<P><I>Person who imports or offers for import</I> means, for purposes of this part, the owner or exporter of a drug who consigns and ships a drug from a foreign country to the United States. This includes persons who send a drug to the United States by international mail or other private delivery service, but it does not include carriers who merely transport the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Private label distribution</I> means commercial distribution of a drug under the label or trade name of a person who did not manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage that drug.
</P>
<P><I>Private label distributor</I> means, with respect to a particular drug, a person who did not manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage the drug but under whose label or trade name the drug is commercially distributed.
</P>
<P><I>Registrant</I> means any person that owns or operates an establishment that manufactures, repacks, relabels, or salvages a drug, and is not otherwise exempt from establishment registration requirements under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or this part.
</P>
<P><I>Relabel</I> means to change the existing label or labels on a drug or drug package, or change or alter the existing labeling for a drug or drug package, without repacking the drug or drug package. This term does not include the addition or modification of information affixed solely for purposes of delivery to a customer, customer identification, and/or inventory management.
</P>
<P><I>Relabeler</I> means a person who owns or operates an establishment that relabels a drug. When not modified by “domestic” or “foreign,” the term includes both domestic relabelers and foreign relabelers.
</P>
<P><I>Repack or repackage</I> means the act of taking a finished drug product or unfinished drug from the container in which it was placed in commercial distribution and placing it into a different container without manipulating, changing, or affecting the composition or formulation of the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Repacker</I> means a person who owns or operates an establishment that repacks a drug or drug package. When not modified by “domestic” or “foreign,” the term includes both domestic repackers and foreign repackers.
</P>
<P><I>Representative sampling of advertisements</I> means typical advertising material (including the promotional material described in § 202.1(l)(1) of this chapter, but excluding labeling as determined in § 202.1(l)(2) of this chapter), that gives a balanced picture of the promotional claims used for the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Representative sampling of any other labeling</I> means typical labeling material (including the labeling material described in § 202.1(l)(2) of this chapter, but excluding labels and package inserts) that gives a balanced picture of the promotional claims used for the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Salvage</I> means the act of segregating out those finished drug products that may have been subjected to improper storage conditions (such as extremes in temperature, humidity, smoke, fumes, pressure, age, or radiation) for the purpose of returning the products to the marketplace and includes applying manufacturing controls such as those required by current good manufacturing practice in parts 210 and 211 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Salvager</I> means a person who owns or operates an establishment that engages in salvaging. When not modified by “domestic” or “foreign,” the term includes both domestic and foreign salvagers.
</P>
<P><I>Unfinished drug</I> means an active pharmaceutical ingredient either alone or together with one or more other ingredients but does not include finished drug products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 17061, Apr. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.3   Bulk drug substance.</HEAD>
<P><I>Bulk drug substance,</I> as referenced in sections 503A(b)(1)(A) and 503B(a)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, previously defined in § 207.3(a)(4), means the same as “active pharmaceutical ingredient” as defined in § 207.1.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 17061, Apr. 1, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.5   What is the purpose of this part?</HEAD>
<P>Establishment registration information helps FDA identify who is manufacturing, repacking, relabeling, and salvaging drugs and where those operations are performed. Drug listing information gives FDA a current inventory of drugs manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged for commercial distribution. Both types of information facilitate implementation and enforcement of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and are used for many important public health purposes.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.9" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.9   Who does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this part applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) Domestic manufacturers, domestic repackers, domestic relabelers and domestic salvagers, not exempt under section 510(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or § 207.13, regardless of whether their drugs enter interstate commerce;
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign manufacturers, foreign repackers, foreign relabelers and foreign salvagers, not exempt under section 510(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or § 207.13;
</P>
<P>(3) Private label distributors, because they must have labeler codes;
</P>
<P>(4) Establishments engaged in the manufacture, repacking, relabeling, or salvaging of human drugs regulated under a biologics license application (BLA). These establishments are subject to the requirements of this part unless they are required to register and list such drugs as human blood or blood products under part 607 of this chapter and do not engage in activities that would otherwise require them to register and list under this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Establishments engaged in the manufacture (as defined in § 1271.3(e) of this chapter) of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps) (as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter) that, under § 1271.20 of this chapter, are also drugs regulated under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act or section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. These establishments must register and list those HCT/Ps following the procedures described in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to owners and operators of establishments that collect or process human whole blood and blood products unless the establishment also manufactures, repacks, or relabels other drugs. For purposes of this paragraph (b), human whole blood and blood products do not include plasma derivatives such as albumin, Immune Globulin, Factor VIII and Factor IX, and recombinant versions of plasma derivatives or animal derived plasma derivatives, or bulk product substances such as fractionation intermediates or pastes. Establishments that collect or process human whole blood and blood products as well as establishments involved in testing of human whole blood and blood products must register and list under part 607 of this chapter. Manufacturers of licensed devices and manufacturers of licensed biological products used in a licensed device must register and list under part 607 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to establishments that solely manufacture, prepare, propagate, compound, assemble, or process medical devices. Registration and listing regulations for such establishments are codified in part 807 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.13" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.13   Who is exempt from the registration and listing requirements?</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 207.13(l), the following classes of persons are exempt from registration and drug listing in accordance with section 510(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or because FDA has determined, under section 510(g)(5) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, that their registration is not necessary for the protection of the public health. This exemption is limited to establishment registration and drug listing requirements and does not relieve a person from other statutory or regulatory obligations.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Pharmacies that:
</P>
<P>(i) Operate in conformance with all applicable local laws regulating the practice of pharmacy and medicine, including all applicable local laws regulating the dispensing of prescription drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Regularly engage in dispensing prescription drugs upon a valid prescription by practitioners licensed by law to administer these drugs to patients under their professional care; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage drugs other than in the regular course of their business of dispensing or selling drugs at retail.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption in this paragraph (a) is limited to pharmacies located in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Hospitals, clinics, other health care entities, and public health agencies that:
</P>
<P>(i) Operate establishments in conformance with all applicable local laws regulating the practice of pharmacy and medicine, including all applicable local laws regulating the dispensing of prescription drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Regularly engage in dispensing prescription drugs, other than human whole blood or blood products, upon a valid order or prescription by practitioners licensed by law to administer these drugs to patients under their professional care; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage drugs other than in the regular course of their practice of pharmacy, including dispensing.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption in this paragraph (b) is limited to hospitals, clinics, other health care entities, and public health agencies located in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals or establishments under contract, agreement, or other arrangement with a registered establishment and engaged solely in recovering cells or tissues and sending the recovered cells or tissues to the registered establishment to become components of a biological product are exempt from registration and listing under this part unless FDA determines that drug establishment registration and listing is necessary for the protection of the public health.
</P>
<P>(d) Practitioners who are licensed by law to prescribe or administer drugs and who manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage drugs solely for use in their professional practice.
</P>
<P>(e) Manufacturers, repackers, relabelers, or salvagers who manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage drugs solely for use in research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale.
</P>
<P>(f) Manufacturers, repackers, and relabelers of harmless inactive ingredients such as excipients, colorings, flavorings, emulsifiers, lubricants, preservatives, or solvents that become components of drugs.
</P>
<P>(g) Manufacturers, repackers, relabelers, or salvagers of Type B or Type C medicated feeds, except for persons who manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage Type B or Type C medicated feeds starting from Category II, Type A medicated articles for which a medicated feed mill license approved under part 515 of this chapter is required. This exemption also does not apply to persons that would otherwise be required to register (such as manufacturers, repackers, relabelers, or salvagers of certain free-choice feeds, as defined in § 510.455 of this chapter, or certain liquid feeds, as defined in § 558.5 of this chapter, where the specifications and/or formulas are not published and a medicated feed mill license is required). All manufacturers, repackers, relabelers, or salvagers of Type B or Type C medicated feeds are exempt from listing.
</P>
<P>(h) Any manufacturer, repacker, relabeler, or salvager of a virus, serum, toxin, or analogous product intended for the treatment of domestic animals who holds an unsuspended and unrevoked license issued by the Secretary of Agriculture under the animal virus-serum-toxin law of March 4, 1913 (37 Stat. 832 (21 U.S.C. 151 <I>et seq.</I>)), provided that this exemption from registration applies only to the manufacturer, repacker, relabeler, or salvager of that animal virus, serum, toxin, or analogous product.
</P>
<P>(i) Carriers, in their receipt, carriage, holding, or delivery of drugs in the usual course of business as carriers.
</P>
<P>(j) Foreign establishments whose drugs are imported or offered for import into the United States must comply with the establishment registration and listing requirements of this part unless exempt under this section or unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Their drugs enter a foreign trade zone and are re-exported without having entered U.S. commerce, or
</P>
<P>(2) Their drugs are imported in conformance with section 801(d)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(k) Entities that are registered with FDA as outsourcing facilities and that compound drugs in conformance with section 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(l) The exemptions provided in paragraphs (a) through (k) of this section do not apply to such persons if they:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacture (as defined in § 207.1), repack, relabel, or salvage compounded positron emission tomography drugs as defined in section 201(ii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacture (as defined in § 600.3(u) of this chapter) a human biological product subject to licensing under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act; or
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in activities that would otherwise require them to register under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 17061, Apr. 1, 2021]














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.17" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.17   Who must register?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless exempt under section 510(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or this part, all manufacturers, repackers, relabelers, and salvagers must register each domestic establishment that manufactures, repacks, relabels, or salvages a drug, or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, and each foreign establishment that manufactures, repacks, relabels, or salvages a drug, or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, that is imported or offered for import into the United States. When operations are conducted at more than one establishment and common ownership and control among all the establishments exists, the parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company may submit registration information for all establishments.
</P>
<P>(b) Private label distributors who do not also manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage drugs are not required to register under this part. FDA will accept registration or listing information submitted by a private label distributor only if it is acting as an authorized agent for and submitting information that pertains to an establishment that manufactures, repacks, relabels, or salvages drugs.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.21" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.21   When must initial registration information be provided?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Registrants must register each domestic establishment no later than 5 calendar days after beginning to manufacture, repack, relabel, or salvage a drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug at such establishment.
</P>
<P>(b) Registrants must register each foreign establishment before a drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged at the establishment is imported or offered for import into the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.25" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.25   What information is required for registration?</HEAD>
<P>Registrants must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) Name of the owner or operator of each establishment; if a partnership, the name of each partner; if a corporation, the name of each corporate officer and director, and the place of incorporation;
</P>
<P>(b) Each establishment's name, physical address, and telephone number(s);
</P>
<P>(c) All name(s) of the establishment, including names under which the establishment conducts business or names by which the establishment is known;
</P>
<P>(d) Registration number of each establishment, if previously assigned by FDA;
</P>
<P>(e) A Unique Facility Identifier in accordance with the system specified under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(f) All types of operations performed at each establishment;
</P>
<P>(g) Name, mailing address, telephone number, and email address of the official contact for the establishment, as provided in § 207.69(a); and
</P>
<P>(h) Additionally, with respect to foreign establishments subject to registration, the name, mailing address, telephone number, and email address must be provided for:
</P>
<P>(1) The United States agent, as provided in § 207.69(b);
</P>
<P>(2) Each importer in the United States of drugs manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged at the establishment that is known to the establishment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Each person who imports or offers for import such drug to the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.29" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.29   What are the requirements for reviewing and updating registration information?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited updates.</I> Registrants must update their registration information no later than 30 calendar days after:
</P>
<P>(1) Closing or selling an establishment;
</P>
<P>(2) Changing an establishment's name or physical address; or
</P>
<P>(3) Changing the name, mailing address, telephone number, or email address of the official contact or the United States agent. A registrant, official contact, or United States agent may notify FDA about a change of information for the designated official contact or United States agent, but only a registrant is permitted to designate a new official contact or United States agent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual review and update of registration information.</I> Registrants must review and update all registration information required under § 207.25 for each establishment.
</P>
<P>(1) The first review and update must occur during the period beginning on October 1 and ending December 31 of the year of initial registration, if the initial registration occurs prior to October 1. Subsequent reviews and updates must occur annually, during the period beginning on October 1 and ending December 31 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) The updates must reflect all changes that have occurred since the last annual review and update.
</P>
<P>(3) If no changes have occurred since the last registration, registrants must certify that no changes have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—National Drug Code</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.33" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.33   What is the National Drug Code (NDC), how is it assigned, and what are its requirements?</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260305" REFID="9">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 10770, Mar. 5, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>What is the NDC for a drug and what products must have unique NDCs</I>? The NDC for a drug is a numeric code. Each finished drug product or unfinished drug subject to the listing requirements of this part must have a unique NDC to identify its labeler, product, and package size and type.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What is the format of an NDC</I>? (1) Except as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the NDC must consist of 10 or 11 digits, divided into three segments as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The first segment of the NDC is the labeler code and consists of 4, 5, or 6 digits. The labeler code is assigned by FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) The second segment of the NDC is the product code and consists of 3 or 4 digits, as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The third segment of the NDC is the package code and consists of 1 or 2 digits as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section. The package code identifies the package size and type of the drug and differentiates between different quantitative and qualitative attributes of the product packaging.
</P>
<P>(2) The following combinations of labeler code, product code and package code character lengths are permissible:
</P>
<P>(i) If a labeler code is either 5 or 6 digits in length, it may be combined with:
</P>
<P>(A) A product code consisting of 4 digits and a package code consisting of 1 digit for a total NDC length of 10 or 11 digits (5-4-1 or 6-4-1), or
</P>
<P>(B) A product code consisting of 3 digits and a package code consisting of 2 digits for a total NDC length of 10 or 11 digits (5-3-2 or 6-3-2).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a labeler code is 4 digits in length, it may be combined only with a product code consisting of 4 digits and a package code consisting of 2 digits for a total NDC length of 10 digits (4-4-2).
</P>
<P>(3) A registrant or private label distributor with a given labeler code must use only one Product-Package Code configuration (e.g., a 3-digit product code combined with a 2-digit package code or a 4-digit product code combined with a 1-digit package code). This single configuration must be used in all NDCs that include the given labeler code that are reserved in accordance with § 207.33(d)(3) or listed in accordance with § 207.49 or § 207.53.
</P>
<P>(4) An alternatively formatted NDC that is approved for use by the relevant Center Director may be used for the following HCT/Ps if they are minimally manipulated: Hematopoietic stem/progenitor cells derived from peripheral and cord blood, and lymphocytes collected from peripheral blood.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Who must obtain an NDC labeler code and how is the code assigned and updated</I>? (1) Each person who engages in manufacturing, repacking, relabeling, or private label distribution of a drug subject to listing under this part must apply for an NDC labeler code, by providing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, physical address, email address, and other contact information FDA may request, of the person for whom the NDC labeler code is requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) The type(s) of activities (e.g., manufacture or repacking) in which the person requesting the NDC labeler code engages with respect to human drugs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The type(s) of drug(s) (human, animal, or both, and prescription, nonprescription, or both) to which the NDC labeler code will be applied.
</P>
<P>(2) Each person who is assigned an NDC labeler code must update the information submitted under paragraph (c)(1)of this section within 30 calendar days after any change to that information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How is an NDC proposed for assignment by FDA, when is an NDC assigned by FDA, and how can a proposed NDC be reserved</I>? (1) An NDC is proposed for assignment by FDA when it is submitted for the first time with listing information in accordance with § 207.49 or § 207.53, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) Each manufacturer, repacker, or relabeler must propose for assignment by FDA an NDC that includes its own labeler code for each package size and type of drug that it manufactures, repacks, or relabels for commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, if a drug is distributed under the trade name or label of a private label distributor, the manufacturer, repacker, or relabeler must also propose for assignment by FDA an NDC that includes the labeler code of the private label distributor under whose trade name or label the drug is distributed, for each package size and type so distributed.
</P>
<P>(2) If a proposed NDC conforms to the requirements of this section and is not reserved for a different drug or was not previously assigned to a different drug, FDA will assign the NDC to a drug when it receives listing information required for that drug under § 207.49 or § 207.53.
</P>
<P>(3) A manufacturer, repacker, relabeler, or private label distributor may voluntarily reserve a proposed NDC for a drug, before the drug is listed, by submitting the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A proposed NDC that conforms to the requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The established name of the active ingredient(s) and the strength of each active ingredient in the drug; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a finished drug product, the dosage form, and route of administration.
</P>
<P>(4) If the required information is submitted and the proposed NDC is properly formatted and not already assigned or reserved, FDA will reserve the proposed NDC for a period of 2 years from the date of submission. If the drug for which the proposed NDC is reserved is not listed in accordance with § 207.49 or § 207.53 during such 2-year period, the reservation of the proposed NDC will lapse. FDA may also cancel the reservation of a proposed NDC at any time on the request of the person whose labeler code is included in the proposed NDC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>How must the information be submitted to us</I>? The information described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section must be submitted electronically unless FDA grants a waiver under § 207.65.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.35" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.35   What changes require a new NDC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once an NDC has been assigned by FDA, the registrant must propose a new and unique NDC for a drug when there is a change, after the drug is initially marketed, to any of the information identified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. A new NDC must be proposed to FDA for assignment through an updated listing in accordance with § 207.57.
</P>
<P>(b) The proposed new NDC must include a new product code when there is a change to any of the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug's established name or proprietary name, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) Any active pharmaceutical ingredient or the strength of any active pharmaceutical ingredient;
</P>
<P>(3) The dosage form;
</P>
<P>(4) A change in the drug's status, between prescription and nonprescription, or for animal drugs, between prescription, nonprescription, or veterinary feed directive (VFD) status;
</P>
<P>(5) A change in the drug's intended use between human and animal; or
</P>
<P>(6) The drug's distinguishing characteristics such as size, shape, color, code imprint, flavor, and scoring (if any).
</P>
<P>(c) When there is a change only to the package size or type, including the immediate unit-of-use container, if any, the proposed new NDC must include only a new package code and retain the existing product code unless all available package codes have already been combined with the existing product code in NDCs assigned by FDA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.37" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.37   What restrictions pertain to the use of the NDC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A product may be deemed to be misbranded if an NDC is used:
</P>
<P>(1) To represent a different drug than the drug for which the NDC has been assigned, as described in § 207.33;
</P>
<P>(2) To denote or imply FDA approval of a drug; or
</P>
<P>(3) On products that are not subject to parts 207, 607 of this chapter, or 1271 of this chapter, such as dietary supplements and medical devices.
</P>
<P>(b) If marketing is resumed for a discontinued drug, and no changes have been made to the drug that would require a new NDC under § 207.35, the drug must have the same NDC that was assigned to it as described in § 207.33, before marketing was discontinued.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Listing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.41" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.41   Who must list drugs and what drugs must they list?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each registrant must list each drug that it manufactures, repacks, relabels, or salvages for commercial distribution. Each domestic registrant must list each such drug regardless of whether the drug enters interstate commerce. When operations are conducted at more than one establishment, and common ownership and control exists among all the establishments, the parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company may submit listing information for any drug manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged at any such establishment. A drug manufactured, repacked, or relabeled for private label distribution must be listed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Registrants must provide listing information for each drug in accordance with the listing requirements described in §§ 207.49, 207.53, and 207.54 that correspond to the activity or activities they engage in for that drug.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) For both animal and human drugs, each registrant must list each drug it manufactures, repacks, or relabels for commercial distribution under the trade name or label of a private label distributor using an NDC that includes such private label distributor's labeler code.
</P>
<P>(2) Additionally, in the case of human drugs, each registrant must list each human drug it manufactures, repacks, or relabels using an NDC that includes the registrant's own labeler code, regardless of whether the drug is commercially distributed under the registrant's own label or trade name or under the label or trade name of a private label distributor.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.45" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.45   When, after initial registration of an establishment, must drug listing information be submitted?</HEAD>
<P>For each drug being manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged for commercial distribution at an establishment at the time of initial registration, drug listing information must be submitted no later than 3 calendar days after the initial registration of the establishment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.49" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.49   What listing information must a registrant submit for a drug it manufactures?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each registrant must provide the following listing information for each drug it manufactures for commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate NDC(s), as described in § 207.33, that include all package code variations. In the case of human drugs, the appropriate NDC(s) submitted under this paragraph include the registrant's labeler code. In the case of animal drugs, the appropriate NDC(s) submitted under this paragraph include the registrant's labeler code, except that when the drug is manufactured for commercial distribution under the trade name or label of a private label distributor, the appropriate NDC(s) for animal drugs include the private label distributor's labeler code;
</P>
<P>(2) Package type and volume information corresponding to the package code segment of the NDC;
</P>
<P>(3) The listed drug's established name and proprietary name, if any;
</P>
<P>(4) The name and quantity of each active pharmaceutical ingredient in the listed drug;
</P>
<P>(5) The name of each inactive ingredient in the listed drug, along with any assertions of confidentiality associated with individual inactive ingredients;
</P>
<P>(6) The dosage form;
</P>
<P>(7) The drug's approved U.S. application number, if any;
</P>
<P>(8) The drug type (e.g., as applicable, finished vs. unfinished, human vs. animal, prescription vs. nonprescription);
</P>
<P>(9) In the case of an unfinished drug, the number assigned to the Drug Master File or Veterinary Master File, if any, that describes the manufacture of the drug;
</P>
<P>(10) For each drug that is subject to the imprinting requirements of part 206 of this chapter including products that are exempted under § 206.7(b), the drug's size, shape, color, scoring, and code imprint (if any);
</P>
<P>(11) The route or routes of administration of the drug;
</P>
<P>(12) For each drug bearing an NDC:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and Unique Facility Identifier of the establishment where the registrant who lists the drug manufactures it and the type of operation performed on the drug at that establishment, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and Unique Facility Identifier of every other establishment where manufacturing is performed for the drug and the type of operation performed at each such establishment. This includes all establishments involved in the production of each unfinished drug received by the registrant for use in the production of the drug being listed. The names, Unique Facility Identifiers, and type of operations for establishments involved in production of each unfinished drug received by the registrant for use in the production of the drug being listed may be provided by including the properly assigned and listed NDC for such unfinished drug.
</P>
<P>(13) The schedule of the drug under section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(14) Advertisements:
</P>
<P>(i) A representative sampling of advertisements for a human prescription drug that is not subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) If FDA requests it, for good cause, a copy of all advertisements for a human prescription drug that is not subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, including those advertisements described in § 202.1(<I>l</I>)(1) of this chapter. Such advertisements must be submitted within 30 calendar days after FDA's request.


</P>
<P>(15) For drugs bearing the NDC(s) reported under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except those drugs manufactured exclusively for private label distribution and not distributed under the registrant's own name and label, provide the following labeling, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Human prescription drugs.</I> All current labeling except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement or the bar code. This labeling submission must include the content of labeling, as defined in § 207.1.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Human nonprescription drugs.</I> (A) For each human nonprescription drug subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, all current labeling, except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement or the bar code. This labeling submission must include the content of labeling, as defined in § 207.1.
</P>
<P>(B) For each human nonprescription drug not subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, the current label (except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement or the bar code), the package insert (if any), and a representative sampling of any other labeling. This labeling submission must include the content of labeling as defined in section § 207.1.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Animal drugs.</I> (A) For each animal drug that is subject to section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which includes, but is not limited to, new animal drugs that have been approved, conditionally approved, or indexed under sections 512, 571, or 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a copy of all current labeling (except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement), including the content of labeling as defined in § 207.1;
</P>
<P>(B) For all other animal drugs, a copy of the current label (except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement), the package insert, the content of labeling as defined in § 207.1, and a representative sampling of any other labeling;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>All other listed drugs.</I> For all other listed drugs, including unfinished drugs, the label (if any), except that only one representative label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement.
</P>
<P>(16) Listing submissions described in § 207.41(c)(2) for human drugs manufactured for private label distribution must include all information specified in § 207.49(a)(2) through (14) and:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate NDC(s) (as described in § 207.33) that include the private label distributor's labeler code and all package code variations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name, mailing address, telephone number, and email address of the private label distributor; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For drugs bearing the NDC(s) reported under paragraph (a)(16)(i) of this section, labeling as described in paragraph (a)(15) of this section that accompanies the private label distributor's product.
</P>
<P>(b) Additionally, each registrant is requested, but not required, to provide the following information for each human drug it manufactures for commercial distribution:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug's over-the-counter monograph reference, if any; and
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which the drug was or will be introduced into commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 17061, Apr. 1, 2021]


















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.53" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.53   What listing information must a registrant submit for a drug that it repacks or relabels?</HEAD>
<P>Each registrant must provide the following listing information for each drug it repacks or relabels:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>NDC.</I> The appropriate NDC(s), as described in § 207.33, that include the registrant's labeler code and all package code variations;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source NDC.</I> The NDC assigned to each finished drug received by the registrant for repacking or relabeling, with the exception of medical gases. Each such NDC must be associated with the corresponding NDC(s) for repacked or relabeled drugs, reported under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Name and Unique Facility Identifier.</I> For each drug identified by an NDC reported under paragraph (a) of this section, the name and Unique Facility Identifier of every establishment where repacking or relabeling is performed for the drug and the type of operation (repacking vs. relabeling) performed at each such establishment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> For each drug identified by an NDC reported under paragraph (a) of this section, except those human drugs repacked or relabeled exclusively for private label distribution and not distributed under the registrant's own name and label, provide the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Human prescription drugs.</I> All current labeling for the repacked or relabeled drug except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement or the bar code. This labeling submission must include the content of labeling, as defined in section § 207.1.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Human nonprescription drugs.</I> (i) For each human nonprescription drug subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, all current labeling, except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement or the bar code. This labeling submission must include the content of labeling, as defined in § 207.1.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each human nonprescription drug not subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, the current label (except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement or the bar code), the package insert (if any), and a representative sampling of any other labeling. This labeling submission must include the content of labeling as defined in § 207.1.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Animal drugs.</I> (i) For each animal drug that is subject to section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which includes but is not limited to, new animal drugs that have been approved, conditionally approved, or indexed under sections 512, 571, or 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a copy of all current labeling (except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement), including the content of labeling as defined in § 207.1;
</P>
<P>(ii) For all other animal drugs, a copy of the current label (except that only one representative container or carton label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement), the package insert, the content of labeling as defined in § 207.1, and a representative sampling of any other labeling;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>All other.</I> For all other listed drugs, including unfinished drugs, the label (if any), except that only one representative label need be submitted where differences exist only in the quantity of contents statement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advertisements.</I> (1) A representative sampling of advertisements for a human prescription drug that is not subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act;
</P>
<P>(2) If we request it for good cause, a copy of all advertisements for a particular drug described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, including advertisements described in § 202.1(l)(1) of this chapter. Such advertisements must be submitted within 30 calendar days after our request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Private label distributor products.</I> A listing submission for a human drug distributed by a private label distributor described in § 207.41(c)(2) must include information specified in § 207.53(b) through (e) as applicable and:
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate NDC(s) (as described in § 207.33) that include the private label distributor's labeler code and all package code variations;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, mailing address, telephone number, and email address of the private label distributor; and
</P>
<P>(3) For drugs bearing the NDC(s) reported under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, labeling as described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section, as applicable, that accompanies the private label distributor's product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60212, Aug. 31, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 17061, Apr. 1, 2021]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.54" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.54   What listing information must a registrant submit for a drug that it salvages?</HEAD>
<P>A registrant who also relabels or repacks a drug that it salvages must list the drug it relabels or repacks in accordance with § 207.53 rather than in accordance with this section. A registrant who performs only salvaging with respect to a drug must provide the following listing information for that drug.
</P>
<P>(a) The NDC assigned to the drug immediately before the drug is received by the registrant for salvaging;
</P>
<P>(b) The lot number and expiration date of the salvaged drug product; and
</P>
<P>(c) The name and Unique Facility Identifier for each establishment where the registrant salvages the drug.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.55" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.55   What additional drug listing information may FDA require?</HEAD>
<P>For a particular listed drug, upon our request, the registrant must briefly state the basis for its belief that the drug is not subject to section 505 or 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.57" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.57   What information must registrants submit when updating listing information and when?</HEAD>
<P>Registrants must review and update listing information at a minimum, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Registrants must provide listing information at the time of annual establishment registration for any drug manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged by them for commercial distribution that has not been listed previously.
</P>
<P>(b) Registrants must review and update their drug listing information each June and December. When doing so, registrants must:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Provide listing information, in accordance with §§ 207.49, 207.53, and 207.54, for any drug manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged by them for commercial distribution that has not been previously listed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit the date that they discontinued the manufacture, repacking, relabeling or salvaging for commercial distribution of a listed drug and provide the expiration date of the last lot manufactured, repacked, relabeled, or salvaged;
</P>
<P>(iii) Submit the date that they resumed the manufacture, repacking, or relabeling for commercial distribution of a drug previously discontinued, and provide any required listing information not previously submitted; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Submit any material changes in any information previously submitted pursuant to §§ 207.49, 207.53, 207.54, or other relevant sections of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) For each listed drug, certify that no changes subject to reporting under paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section have occurred if no such changes have occurred since the last review and update. If a drug is discontinued and FDA has received the information required under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, no further certifications are necessary for the discontinued drug. After initial electronic listing, registrants may satisfy the listing update requirement with respect to unchanged listing information by making a single “no changes” certification during the annual registration update under § 207.29(b) applicable to all of the registrant's listed drugs for which no changes have been made since the previous annual registration update.
</P>
<P>(c) Registrants are encouraged to submit listing information for every drug subject to listing under this part prior to commercial distribution and are encouraged to update listing information at the time of any change affecting information previously submitted.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Electronic Format for Registration and Listing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.61" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.61   How is registration and listing information provided to FDA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electronic format.</I> (1) Except as provided in § 207.65, all information submitted under this part must be transmitted to FDA in electronic format by using our electronic drug registration and listing system, in a form that we can process, review, and archive. We may periodically issue guidance on how to provide registration and listing information in electronic format (specifying for example method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation, and organization of files).
</P>
<P>(2) Information provided in electronic format must comply with part 11 of this chapter, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Advertisements and labeling, including the content of labeling, required under this part are exempt from the requirements in § 11.10(a), (c) through (h), and (k) of this chapter and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) All other information submitted under this part is exempt from the requirements in § 11.10(b), (c), and (e) of this chapter and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>English language.</I> Drug establishment registration and drug listing information must be provided in the English language. The content of labeling must be provided at a minimum in the English language. Where § 201.15(c) of this chapter permits product labeling solely in a foreign language, the content of labeling must be submitted in that language along with an accurate English translation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.65" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.65   How can a waiver of the electronic submission requirement be obtained?</HEAD>
<P>(a) All information submitted under this part must be transmitted to FDA electronically in accordance with § 207.61(a) unless FDA has granted a request for waiver of this requirement prior to the date on which submission of such information is due. Submission of a request for waiver does not excuse timely compliance with the registration and listing requirements. FDA will grant a waiver request if FDA determines that the use of electronic means for submission of registration and listing information is not reasonable for the registrant making the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(b) Waiver requests under this section must be submitted in writing and must include the specific reasons why electronic submission is not reasonable for the registrant and a U.S. telephone number and mailing address where FDA can contact the registrant. All waiver requests must be sent to: SPL Coordinator, U.S. Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA grants the waiver request, FDA may limit its duration and will specify terms of the waiver and provide information on how to submit establishment registration, drug listings, other information, and updates, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.69" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.69   What are the requirements for an official contact and a United States agent?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Official contact.</I> Registrants subject to the registration requirements of this part must designate an official contact for each establishment. The official contact is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensuring the accuracy of registration and listing information; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing, disseminating, routing, and responding to all communications from FDA including emergency communications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>United States agent.</I> Registrants of foreign establishments subject to this part must designate a single United States agent. The United States agent must reside or maintain a place of business in the United States and may not be a mailbox, answering machine or service, or other place where a person acting as the United States agent is not physically present. The United States agent is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Reviewing, disseminating, routing, and responding to all communications from FDA including emergency communications;
</P>
<P>(2) Responding to questions concerning those drugs that are imported or offered for import to the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Assisting FDA in scheduling inspections; and
</P>
<P>(4) If FDA is unable to contact a foreign registrant directly or expeditiously, FDA may provide the information and/or documents to the United States agent. FDA's providing information and/or documents to the United States agent is equivalent to providing the same information and/or documents to the foreign registrant.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.77" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.77   What legal status is conferred by registration and listing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Registration of an establishment or listing of a drug does not denote approval of the establishment, the drug, or other drugs of the establishment, nor does it mean that a product may be legally marketed. Any representation that creates an impression of official approval or that a drug is approved or is legally marketable because of registration or listing is misleading and constitutes misbranding.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA's acceptance of registration and listing information, inclusion of a drug in our database of drugs, or assignment of an NDC does not denote approval of the establishment or the drug or any other drugs of the establishment, nor does it mean that the drug may be legally marketed. Any representation that creates the impression that a drug is approved or is legally marketable because it appears in our database of drugs, has been assigned or displays an NDC, or the establishment has been assigned an establishment registration number or Unique Facility Identifier is misleading and constitutes misbranding. Failure to comply with § 207.37 may also constitute misbranding.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither registration nor listing constitutes a determination by FDA that a product is a drug as defined by section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Registration or listing may, however, be evidence that a facility intends to or does manufacture, repack, relabel, distribute, or salvage drugs or that a product is intended to be a drug.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.81" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.7.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.81   What registration and listing information will FDA make available for public disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the following information will be available for public disclosure, upon request or at FDA's discretion:
</P>
<P>(1) All establishment registration information, and
</P>
<P>(2) After a drug is marketed, information obtained under § 207.33, § 207.49, § 207.53, § 207.54, or § 207.57.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless such information is publicly available or FDA finds that confidentiality would be inconsistent with protection of the public health, FDA will not make publicly available:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information submitted under § 207.55 as the basis upon which it has been determined that a particular drug is not subject to section 505 or 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act,
</P>
<P>(2) The names of any inactive ingredients submitted under § 207.49(a)(4) for which the registrant makes a valid assertion of confidentiality under § 20.61 of this chapter or other provision of law, or
</P>
<P>(3) Drug listing information obtained under § 207.33(d)(3), § 207.49(a)(9) and (12), § 207.53(b) and (c), or § 207.54(a) or (c).
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may determine, in limited circumstances and on a case-by-case basis, that it would be consistent with the protection of the public health and the Freedom of Information Act to exempt from public disclosure specific information identified in paragraph (a) of this section.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="208" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 208—MEDICATION GUIDES FOR PRESCRIPTION DRUG PRODUCTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 356, 357, 360, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 66396, Dec. 1, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth requirements for patient labeling for human prescription drug products, including biological products, that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) determines pose a serious and significant public health concern requiring distribution of FDA-approved patient information. It applies primarily to human prescription drug products used on an outpatient basis without direct supervision by a health professional. This part shall apply to new prescriptions and refill prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of patient labeling for human prescription drug products required under this part is to provide information when the FDA determines in writing that it is necessary to patients' safe and effective use of drug products.
</P>
<P>(c) Patient labeling will be required if the FDA determines that one or more of the following circumstances exists:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug product is one for which patient labeling could help prevent serious adverse effects.
</P>
<P>(2) The drug product is one that has serious risk(s) (relative to benefits) of which patients should be made aware because information concerning the risk(s) could affect patients' decision to use, or to continue to use, the product.
</P>
<P>(3) The drug product is important to health and patient adherence to directions for use is crucial to the drug's effectiveness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Authorized dispenser</I> means an individual licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted by the jurisdiction in which the individual practices to provide drug products on prescription in the course of professional practice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dispense to patients</I> means the act of delivering a prescription drug product to a patient or an agent of the patient either:
</P>
<P>(1) By a licensed practitioner or an agent of a licensed practitioner, either directly or indirectly, for self-administration by the patient, or the patient's agent, or outside the licensed practitioner's direct supervision; or
</P>
<P>(2) By an authorized dispenser or an agent of an authorized dispenser under a lawful prescription of a licensed practitioner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distribute</I> means the act of delivering, other than by dispensing, a drug product to any person.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distributor</I> means a person who distributes a drug product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Drug product</I> means a finished dosage form, e.g., tablet, capsule, or solution, that contains an active drug ingredient, generally, but not necessarily, in association with inactive ingredients. For purposes of this part, drug product also means biological product within the meaning of section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Licensed practitioner</I> means an individual licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted by the jurisdiction in which the individual practices to prescribe drug products in the course of professional practice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Manufacturer</I> means for a drug product that is not also a biological product, both the manufacturer as described in § 201.1 and the applicant as described in § 314.3(b) of this chapter, and for a drug product that is also a biological product, the manufacturer as described in § 600.3(t) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Medication Guide</I> means FDA-approved patient labeling conforming to the specifications set forth in this part and other applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Packer</I> means a person who packages a drug product.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Patient</I> means any individual with respect to whom a drug product is intended to be, or has been, used.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Serious risk or serious adverse effect</I> means an adverse drug experience, or the risk of such an experience, as that term is defined in §§ 310.305, 312.32, 314.80, and 600.80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Requirements for a Medication Guide</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.20" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.20   Content and format of a Medication Guide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Medication Guide shall meet all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The Medication Guide shall be written in English, in nontechnical, understandable language, and shall not be promotional in tone or content.
</P>
<P>(2) The Medication Guide shall be scientifically accurate and shall be based on, and shall not conflict with, the approved professional labeling for the drug product under § 201.57 of this chapter, but the language of the Medication Guide need not be identical to the sections of approved labeling to which it corresponds.
</P>
<P>(3) The Medication Guide shall be specific and comprehensive.
</P>
<P>(4) The letter height or type size shall be no smaller than 10 points (1 point = 0.0138 inches) for all sections of the Medication Guide, except the manufacturer's name and address and the revision date.
</P>
<P>(5) The Medication Guide shall be legible and clearly presented. Where appropriate, the Medication Guide shall also use boxes, bold or underlined print, or other highlighting techniques to emphasize specific portions of the text.
</P>
<P>(6) The words “Medication Guide” shall appear prominently at the top of the first page of a Medication Guide. The verbatim statement “This Medication Guide has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration” shall appear at the bottom of a Medication Guide.
</P>
<P>(7) The brand and established or proper name of the drug product shall appear immediately below the words “Medication Guide.” The established or proper name shall be no less than one-half the height of the brand name.
</P>
<P>(b) A Medication Guide shall contain those of the following headings relevant to the drug product and to the need for the Medication Guide in the specified order. Each heading shall contain the specific information as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The brand name (e.g., the trademark or proprietary name), if any, and established or proper name. Those products not having an established or proper name shall be designated by their active ingredients. The Medication Guide shall include the phonetic spelling of either the brand name or the established name, whichever is used throughout the Medication Guide.
</P>
<P>(2) The heading, “What is the most important information I should know about (name of drug)?” followed by a statement describing the particular serious and significant public health concern that has created the need for the Medication Guide. The statement should describe specifically what the patient should do or consider because of that concern, such as, weighing particular risks against the benefits of the drug, avoiding particular behaviors (e.g., activities, drugs), observing certain events (e.g., symptoms, signs) that could prevent or mitigate a serious adverse effect, or engaging in particular behaviors (e.g., adhering to the dosing regimen).
</P>
<P>(3) The heading, “What is (name of drug)?” followed by a section that identifies a drug product's indications for use. The Medication Guide may not identify an indication unless the indication is identified in the indications and usage section of the professional labeling for the product required under § 201.57 of this chapter. In appropriate circumstances, this section may also explain the nature of the disease or condition the drug product is intended to treat, as well as the benefit(s) of treating the condition.
</P>
<P>(4) The heading, “Who should not take (name of drug)?” followed by information on circumstances under which the drug product should not be used for its labeled indication (its contraindications). The Medication Guide shall contain directions regarding what to do if any of the contraindications apply to a patient, such as contacting the licensed practitioner or discontinuing use of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(5) The heading, “How should I take (name of drug)?” followed by information on the proper use of the drug product, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement stressing the importance of adhering to the dosing instructions, if this is particularly important;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement describing any special instructions on how to administer the drug product, if they are important to the drug's safety or effectiveness;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of what patients should do in case of overdose of the drug product; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of what patients should do if they miss taking a scheduled dose(s) of the drug product, where there are data to support the advice, and where the wrong behavior could cause harm or lack of effect.
</P>
<P>(6) The heading “What should I avoid while taking (name of drug)?” followed by a statement or statements of specific, important precautions patients should take to ensure proper use of the drug, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that identifies activities (such as driving or sunbathing), and drugs, foods, or other substances (such as tobacco or alcohol) that patients should avoid when using the medication;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the risks to mothers and fetuses from the use of the drug during pregnancy, if specific, important risks are known;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the risks of the drug product to nursing infants, if specific, important risks are known;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement about pediatric risks, if the drug product has specific hazards associated with its use in pediatric patients;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement about geriatric risks, if the drug product has specific hazards associated with its use in geriatric patients; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement of special precautions, if any, that apply to the safe and effective use of the drug product in other identifiable patient populations.
</P>
<P>(7) The heading, “What are the possible or reasonably likely side effects of (name of drug)?” followed by:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the adverse reactions reasonably likely to be caused by the drug product that are serious or occur frequently.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the risk, if there is one, of patients' developing dependence on the drug product.
</P>
<P>(iii) For drug products approved under section 505 of the act, the following verbatim statement: “Call your doctor for medical advice about side effects. You may report side effects to FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088.”
</P>
<P>(8) General information about the safe and effective use of prescription drug products, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The verbatim statement that “Medicines are sometimes prescribed for purposes other than those listed in a Medication Guide” followed by a statement that patients should ask health professionals about any concerns, and a reference to the availability of professional labeling;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the drug product should not be used for a condition other than that for which it is prescribed, or given to other persons;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of a drug product that is not also a biological product, or the name and place of business of the manufacturer or distributor of a drug product that is also a biological product, and in any case the name and place of business of the dispenser of the product may also be included; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The date, identified as such, of the most recent revision of the Medication Guide placed immediately after the last section.
</P>
<P>(9) Additional headings and subheadings may be interspersed throughout the Medication Guide, if appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66396, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 404, Jan. 3, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.24" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.24   Distributing and dispensing a Medication Guide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The manufacturer of a drug product for which a Medication Guide is required under this part shall obtain FDA approval of the Medication Guide before the Medication Guide may be distributed.
</P>
<P>(b) Each manufacturer who ships a container of drug product for which a Medication Guide is required under this part is responsible for ensuring that Medication Guides are available for distribution to patients by either:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing Medication Guides in sufficient numbers to distributors, packers, or authorized dispensers to permit the authorized dispenser to provide a Medication Guide to each patient receiving a prescription for the drug product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Providing the means to produce Medication Guides in sufficient numbers to distributors, packers, or authorized dispensers to permit the authorized dispenser to provide a Medication Guide to each patient receiving a prescription for the drug product.
</P>
<P>(c) Each distributor or packer that receives Medication Guides, or the means to produce Medication Guides, from a manufacturer under paragraph (b) of this section shall provide those Medication Guides, or the means to produce Medication Guides, to each authorized dispenser to whom it ships a container of drug product.
</P>
<P>(d) The label of each container or package, where the container label is too small, of drug product for which a Medication Guide is required under this part shall instruct the authorized dispenser to provide a Medication Guide to each patient to whom the drug product is dispensed, and shall state how the Medication Guide is provided. These statements shall appear on the label in a prominent and conspicuous manner.
</P>
<P>(e) Each authorized dispenser of a prescription drug product for which a Medication Guide is required under this part shall, when the product is dispensed to a patient (or to a patient's agent), provide a Medication Guide directly to each patient (or to the patient's agent) unless an exemption applies under § 208.26.
</P>
<P>(f) An authorized dispenser or wholesaler is not subject to section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which requires the registration of producers of drugs and the listing of drugs in commercial distribution, solely because of an act performed by the authorized dispenser or wholesaler under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.26" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.26   Exemptions and deferrals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA on its own initiative, or in response to a written request from an applicant, may exempt or defer any Medication Guide content or format requirement, except those requirements in § 208.20 (a)(2) and (a)(6), on the basis that the requirement is inapplicable, unnecessary, or contrary to patients' best interests. Requests from applicants should be submitted to the director of the FDA division responsible for reviewing the marketing application for the drug product, or for a biological product, to the application division in the office with product responsibility.
</P>
<P>(b) If the licensed practitioner who prescribes a drug product subject to this part determines that it is not in a particular patient's best interest to receive a Medication Guide because of significant concerns about the effect of a Medication Guide, the licensed practitioner may direct that the Medication Guide not be provided to the particular patient. However, the authorized dispenser of a prescription drug product subject to this part shall provide a Medication Guide to any patient who requests information when the drug product is dispensed regardless of any such direction by the licensed practitioner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="209" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 209—REQUIREMENT FOR AUTHORIZED DISPENSERS AND PHARMACIES TO DISTRIBUTE A SIDE EFFECTS STATEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371; 42 U.S.C. 241.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 404, Jan. 3, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth requirements for human prescription drug products approved under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and dispensed by authorized dispensers and pharmacies to consumers. This part requires distribution of a side effects statement and applies to new and refill prescriptions. This part is not intended to apply to authorized dispensers dispensing or administering prescription drug products to inpatients in a hospital or health care facility under an order of a licensed practitioner, or as part of supervised home health care.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of providing the side effects statement is to enable consumers to report side effects of prescription drug products to FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (sections 201-907 (21 U.S.C. 301-397)).
</P>
<P><I>Authorized dispenser</I> means an individual licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted by the jurisdiction in which the individual practices to provide drug products on prescription in the course of professional practice.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer medication information</I> means written information voluntarily provided to consumers by dispensing pharmacists as part of patient medication counseling activities.
</P>
<P><I>Medication Guide</I> means FDA-approved patient labeling conforming to the specifications set forth in part 208 of this chapter and other applicable regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacy</I> includes, but is not limited to, a retail, mail order, Internet, hospital, university, or clinic pharmacy, or a public health agency, regularly and lawfully engaged in dispensing prescription drugs.
</P>
<P><I>Side effects statement</I> means the following verbatim statement: “Call your doctor for medical advice about side effects. You may report side effects to FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.10   Content and format of the side effects statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content.</I> The side effects statement provided with each prescription drug product approved under section 505 of the act must read: “Call your doctor for medical advice about side effects. You may report side effects to FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format.</I> The side effects statement must be in a single, clear, easy-to-read type style. The letter height or type size used for the side effects statement in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of § 209.11 must be no smaller than 6 points (1 point = 0.0138 inch). The letter height or type size for the side effects statement under paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4), and (b)(5) of § 209.11 must be no smaller than 10 points.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.11" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.11   Dispensing and distributing the side effects statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each authorized dispenser or pharmacy must distribute the side effects statement with each prescription drug product approved under section 505 of the act and dispensed. The side effects statement must be distributed with new and refill prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(b) An authorized dispenser or pharmacy must choose one or more of the following options to distribute the side effects statement:
</P>
<P>(1) Distribute the side effects statement on a sticker attached to the unit package, vial, or container of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(2) Distribute the side effects statement on a preprinted pharmacy prescription vial cap;
</P>
<P>(3) Distribute the side effects statement on a separate sheet of paper;
</P>
<P>(4) Distribute the side effects statement in consumer medication information; or
</P>
<P>(5) Distribute the appropriate FDA-approved Medication Guide that contains the side effects statement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="210" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 210—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE IN MANUFACTURING, PROCESSING, PACKING, OR HOLDING OF DRUGS; GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 355, 360b, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263a, 264.










</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 45076, Sept. 29, 1978, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 210.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.1   Status of current good manufacturing practice regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations set forth in this part and in parts 211, 213, 225, and 226 of this chapter contain the minimum current good manufacturing practice for methods to be used in, and the facilities or controls to be used for, the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug to assure that such drug meets the requirements of the act as to safety, and has the identity and strength and meets the quality and purity characteristics that it purports or is represented to possess.
</P>
<P>(b) The failure to comply with any regulation set forth in this part and in parts 211, 213, 225, and 226 of this chapter in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug shall render such drug to be adulterated under section 501(a)(2)(B) of the act and such drug, as well as the person who is responsible for the failure to comply, shall be subject to regulatory action.


</P>
<P>(c) Owners and operators of establishments engaged in the recovery, donor screening, testing (including donor testing), processing, storage, labeling, packaging, or distribution of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps), as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter, that are drugs (subject to review under an application submitted under section 505 of the act or under a biological product license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act), are subject to the donor-eligibility and applicable current good tissue practice procedures set forth in part 1271 subparts C and D of this chapter, in addition to the regulations in this part and in parts 211, 225, and 226 of this chapter. Failure to comply with any applicable regulation set forth in this part, in parts 211, 225, and 226 of this chapter, in part 1271 subpart C of this chapter, or in part 1271 subpart D of this chapter with respect to the manufacture, processing, packing or holding of a drug, renders an HCT/P adulterated under section 501(a)(2)(B) of the act. Such HCT/P, as well as the person who is responsible for the failure to comply, is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45076, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 69 FR 29828, May 25, 2004; 74 FR 65431, Dec. 10, 2009; 89 FR 51769, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.2   Applicability of current good manufacturing practice regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part and in parts 211, 213, 225, and 226 of this chapter as they may pertain to a drug; in parts 600 through 680 of this chapter as they may pertain to a biological product for human use; and in part 1271 of this chapter as they are applicable to a human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) that is regulated as a drug (subject to premarket review under an application submitted under section 505 of the act or under a biologics license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act); shall be considered to supplement, not supersede, each other, unless the regulations explicitly provide otherwise. In the event of a conflict between applicable regulations in this part and in other parts of this chapter, the regulation specifically applicable to the drug product in question shall supersede the more general.
</P>
<P>(b) If a person engages in only some operations subject to the regulations in this part and in parts 211, 213, 225, 226, 600 through 680, and 1271 of this chapter, and not in others, that person need only comply with those regulations applicable to the operations in which the person is engaged.


</P>
<P>(c) An investigational drug for use in a phase 1 study, as described in § 312.21(a) of this chapter, is subject to the statutory requirements set forth in 21 U.S.C. 351(a)(2)(B). The production of such drug is exempt from compliance with the regulations in part 211 of this chapter. However, this exemption does not apply to an investigational drug for use in a phase 1 study once the investigational drug has been made available for use by or for the sponsor in a phase 2 or phase 3 study, as described in § 312.21(b) and (c) of this chapter, or the drug has been lawfully marketed. If the investigational drug has been made available in a phase 2 or phase 3 study or the drug has been lawfully marketed, the drug for use in the phase 1 study must comply with part 211.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 29828, May 25, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 40462, July 15, 2008; 74 FR 65431, Dec. 10, 2009; 89 FR 51769, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the act shall be applicable to such terms when used in this part and in parts 211, 225, and 226 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms apply to this part and to parts 211, 225, and 226 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Batch</I> means a specific quantity of a drug or other material that is intended to have uniform character and quality, within specified limits, and is produced according to a single manufacturing order during the same cycle of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Component</I> means any ingredient intended for use in the manufacture of a drug product, including those that may not appear in such drug product.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Drug product</I> means a finished dosage form, for example, tablet, capsule, solution, etc., that contains an active drug ingredient generally, but not necessarily, in association with inactive ingredients. The term also includes a finished dosage form that does not contain an active ingredient but is intended to be used as a placebo.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fiber</I> means any particulate contaminant with a length at least three times greater than its width.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Nonfiber releasing filter</I> means any filter, which after appropriate pretreatment such as washing or flushing, will not release fibers into the component or drug product that is being filtered.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Active ingredient</I> means any component that is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals. The term includes those components that may undergo chemical change in the manufacture of the drug product and be present in the drug product in a modified form intended to furnish the specified activity or effect.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Inactive ingredient</I> means any component other than an <I>active ingredient.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) <I>In-process material</I> means any material fabricated, compounded, blended, or derived by chemical reaction that is produced for, and used in, the preparation of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Lot</I> means a batch, or a specific identified portion of a batch, having uniform character and quality within specified limits; or, in the case of a drug product produced by continuous process, it is a specific identified amount produced in a unit of time or quantity in a manner that assures its having uniform character and quality within specified limits.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Lot number, control number, or batch number</I> means any distinctive combination of letters, numbers, or symbols, or any combination of them, from which the complete history of the manufacture, processing, packing, holding, and distribution of a batch or lot of drug product or other material can be determined.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product</I> includes packaging and labeling operations, testing, and quality control of drug products.
</P>
<P>(13) The term <I>medicated feed</I> means any Type B or Type C medicated feed as defined in § 558.3 of this chapter. The feed contains one or more drugs as defined in section 201(g) of the act. The manufacture of medicated feeds is subject to the requirements of part 225 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(14) The term <I>medicated premix</I> means a Type A medicated article as defined in § 558.3 of this chapter. The article contains one or more drugs as defined in section 201(g) of the act. The manufacture of medicated premixes is subject to the requirements of part 226 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Quality control unit</I> means any person or organizational element designated by the firm to be responsible for the duties relating to quality control.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Strength</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The concentration of the drug substance (for example, weight/weight, weight/volume, or unit dose/volume basis), and/or
</P>
<P>(ii) The potency, that is, the therapeutic activity of the drug product as indicated by appropriate laboratory tests or by adequately developed and controlled clinical data (expressed, for example, in terms of units by reference to a standard).
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Theoretical yield</I> means the quantity that would be produced at any appropriate phase of manufacture, processing, or packing of a particular drug product, based upon the quantity of components to be used, in the absence of any loss or error in actual production.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Actual yield</I> means the quantity that is actually produced at any appropriate phase of manufacture, processing, or packing of a particular drug product.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Percentage of theoretical yield</I> means the ratio of the actual yield (at any appropriate phase of manufacture, processing, or packing of a particular drug product) to the theoretical yield (at the same phase), stated as a percentage.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Acceptance criteria</I> means the product specifications and acceptance/rejection criteria, such as acceptable quality level and unacceptable quality level, with an associated sampling plan, that are necessary for making a decision to accept or reject a lot or batch (or any other convenient subgroups of manufactured units).
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Representative sample</I> means a sample that consists of a number of units that are drawn based on rational criteria such as random sampling and intended to assure that the sample accurately portrays the material being sampled.
</P>
<P>(22) Gang-printed labeling means labeling derived from a sheet of material on which more than one item of labeling is printed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45076, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 7389, Mar. 3, 1986; 58 FR 41353, Aug. 3, 1993; 73 FR 51931, Sept. 8, 2008; 74 FR 65431, Dec. 10, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="211" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 211—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE FOR FINISHED PHARMACEUTICALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 355, 360b, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263a, 264.










</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part contain the minimum current good manufacturing practice for preparation of drug products (excluding positron emission tomography drugs and medical gases as defined in § 213.3(b)(12) of this chapter) for administration to humans or animals.


</P>
<P>(b) The current good manufacturing practice regulations in this chapter as they pertain to drug products; in parts 600 through 680 of this chapter, as they pertain to drugs that are also biological products for human use; and in part 1271 of this chapter, as they are applicable to drugs that are also human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps) and that are drugs (subject to review under an application submitted under section 505 of the act or under a biological product license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act); supplement and do not supersede the regulations in this part unless the regulations explicitly provide otherwise. In the event of a conflict between applicable regulations in this part and in other parts of this chapter, or in parts 600 through 680 of this chapter, or in part 1271 of this chapter, the regulation specifically applicable to the drug product in question shall supersede the more general.
</P>
<P>(c) Pending consideration of a proposed exemption, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of September 29, 1978, the requirements in this part shall not be enforced for OTC drug products if the products and all their ingredients are ordinarily marketed and consumed as human foods, and which products may also fall within the legal definition of drugs by virtue of their intended use. Therefore, until further notice, regulations under parts 110 and 117 of this chapter, and where applicable, parts 113 through 129 of this chapter, shall be applied in determining whether these OTC drug products that are also foods are manufactured, processed, packed, or held under current good manufacturing practice.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 62 FR 66522, Dec. 19, 1997; 69 FR 29828, May 25, 2004; 74 FR 65431, Dec. 10, 2009; 80 FR 56168, Sept. 17, 2015; 89 FR 51769, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions set forth in § 210.3 of this chapter apply in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Organization and Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.22" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.22   Responsibilities of quality control unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be a quality control unit that shall have the responsibility and authority to approve or reject all components, drug product containers, closures, in-process materials, packaging material, labeling, and drug products, and the authority to review production records to assure that no errors have occurred or, if errors have occurred, that they have been fully investigated. The quality control unit shall be responsible for approving or rejecting drug products manufactured, processed, packed, or held under contract by another company.
</P>
<P>(b) Adequate laboratory facilities for the testing and approval (or rejection) of components, drug product containers, closures, packaging materials, in-process materials, and drug products shall be available to the quality control unit.
</P>
<P>(c) The quality control unit shall have the responsibility for approving or rejecting all procedures or specifications impacting on the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsibilities and procedures applicable to the quality control unit shall be in writing; such written procedures shall be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.25" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.25   Personnel qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person engaged in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product shall have education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof, to enable that person to perform the assigned functions. Training shall be in the particular operations that the employee performs and in current good manufacturing practice (including the current good manufacturing practice regulations in this chapter and written procedures required by these regulations) as they relate to the employee's functions. Training in current good manufacturing practice shall be conducted by qualified individuals on a continuing basis and with sufficient frequency to assure that employees remain familiar with CGMP requirements applicable to them.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person responsible for supervising the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product shall have the education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof, to perform assigned functions in such a manner as to provide assurance that the drug product has the safety, identity, strength, quality, and purity that it purports or is represented to possess.
</P>
<P>(c) There shall be an adequate number of qualified personnel to perform and supervise the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of each drug product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.28" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.28   Personnel responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Personnel engaged in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product shall wear clean clothing appropriate for the duties they perform. Protective apparel, such as head, face, hand, and arm coverings, shall be worn as necessary to protect drug products from contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) Personnel shall practice good sanitation and health habits.
</P>
<P>(c) Only personnel authorized by supervisory personnel shall enter those areas of the buildings and facilities designated as limited-access areas.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person shown at any time (either by medical examination or supervisory observation) to have an apparent illness or open lesions that may adversely affect the safety or quality of drug products shall be excluded from direct contact with components, drug product containers, closures, in-process materials, and drug products until the condition is corrected or determined by competent medical personnel not to jeopardize the safety or quality of drug products. All personnel shall be instructed to report to supervisory personnel any health conditions that may have an adverse effect on drug products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.34" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.34   Consultants.</HEAD>
<P>Consultants advising on the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of drug products shall have sufficient education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof, to advise on the subject for which they are retained. Records shall be maintained stating the name, address, and qualifications of any consultants and the type of service they provide.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Buildings and Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.42" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.42   Design and construction features.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any building or buildings used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product shall be of suitable size, construction and location to facilitate cleaning, maintenance, and proper operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such building shall have adequate space for the orderly placement of equipment and materials to prevent mixups between different components, drug product containers, closures, labeling, in-process materials, or drug products, and to prevent contamination. The flow of components, drug product containers, closures, labeling, in-process materials, and drug products through the building or buildings shall be designed to prevent contamination.
</P>
<P>(c) Operations shall be performed within specifically defined areas of adequate size. There shall be separate or defined areas or such other control systems for the firm's operations as are necessary to prevent contamination or mixups during the course of the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Receipt, identification, storage, and withholding from use of components, drug product containers, closures, and labeling, pending the appropriate sampling, testing, or examination by the quality control unit before release for manufacturing or packaging;
</P>
<P>(2) Holding rejected components, drug product containers, closures, and labeling before disposition;
</P>
<P>(3) Storage of released components, drug product containers, closures, and labeling;
</P>
<P>(4) Storage of in-process materials;
</P>
<P>(5) Manufacturing and processing operations;
</P>
<P>(6) Packaging and labeling operations;
</P>
<P>(7) Quarantine storage before release of drug products;
</P>
<P>(8) Storage of drug products after release;
</P>
<P>(9) Control and laboratory operations;
</P>
<P>(10) Aseptic processing, which includes as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Floors, walls, and ceilings of smooth, hard surfaces that are easily cleanable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Temperature and humidity controls;
</P>
<P>(iii) An air supply filtered through high-efficiency particulate air filters under positive pressure, regardless of whether flow is laminar or nonlaminar;
</P>
<P>(iv) A system for monitoring environmental conditions;
</P>
<P>(v) A system for cleaning and disinfecting the room and equipment to produce aseptic conditions;
</P>
<P>(vi) A system for maintaining any equipment used to control the aseptic conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) Operations relating to the manufacture, processing, and packing of penicillin shall be performed in facilities separate from those used for other drug products for human use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 60 FR 4091, Jan. 20, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.44" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.44   Lighting.</HEAD>
<P>Adequate lighting shall be provided in all areas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.46" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.46   Ventilation, air filtration, air heating and cooling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Adequate ventilation shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(b) Equipment for adequate control over air pressure, micro-organisms, dust, humidity, and temperature shall be provided when appropriate for the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product.
</P>
<P>(c) Air filtration systems, including prefilters and particulate matter air filters, shall be used when appropriate on air supplies to production areas. If air is recirculated to production areas, measures shall be taken to control recirculation of dust from production. In areas where air contamination occurs during production, there shall be adequate exhaust systems or other systems adequate to control contaminants.
</P>
<P>(d) Air-handling systems for the manufacture, processing, and packing of penicillin shall be completely separate from those for other drug products for human use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.48" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.48   Plumbing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potable water shall be supplied under continuous positive pressure in a plumbing system free of defects that could contribute contamination to any drug product. Potable water shall meet the standards prescribed in the Environmental Protection Agency's Primary Drinking Water Regulations set forth in 40 CFR part 141. Water not meeting such standards shall not be permitted in the potable water system.
</P>
<P>(b) Drains shall be of adequate size and, where connected directly to a sewer, shall be provided with an air break or other mechanical device to prevent back-siphonage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 48 FR 11426, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.50" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.50   Sewage and refuse.</HEAD>
<P>Sewage, trash, and other refuse in and from the building and immediate premises shall be disposed of in a safe and sanitary manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.52" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.52   Washing and toilet facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Adequate washing facilities shall be provided, including hot and cold water, soap or detergent, air driers or single-service towels, and clean toilet facilities easily accesible to working areas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.56" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.56   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any building used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition, Any such building shall be free of infestation by rodents, birds, insects, and other vermin (other than laboratory animals). Trash and organic waste matter shall be held and disposed of in a timely and sanitary manner.
</P>
<P>(b) There shall be written procedures assigning responsibility for sanitation and describing in sufficient detail the cleaning schedules, methods, equipment, and materials to be used in cleaning the buildings and facilities; such written procedures shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(c) There shall be written procedures for use of suitable rodenticides, insecticides, fungicides, fumigating agents, and cleaning and sanitizing agents. Such written procedures shall be designed to prevent the contamination of equipment, components, drug product containers, closures, packaging, labeling materials, or drug products and shall be followed. Rodenticides, insecticides, and fungicides shall not be used unless registered and used in accordance with the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 135).
</P>
<P>(d) Sanitation procedures shall apply to work performed by contractors or temporary employees as well as work performed by full-time employees during the ordinary course of operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.58" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.58   Maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>Any building used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product shall be maintained in a good state of repair.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.63" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.63   Equipment design, size, and location.</HEAD>
<P>Equipment used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product shall be of appropriate design, adequate size, and suitably located to facilitate operations for its intended use and for its cleaning and maintenance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.65" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.65   Equipment construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Equipment shall be constructed so that surfaces that contact components, in-process materials, or drug products shall not be reactive, additive, or absorptive so as to alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the drug product beyond the official or other established requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Any substances required for operation, such as lubricants or coolants, shall not come into contact with components, drug product containers, closures, in-process materials, or drug products so as to alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the drug product beyond the official or other established requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.67" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.67   Equipment cleaning and maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Equipment and utensils shall be cleaned, maintained, and, as appropriate for the nature of the drug, sanitized and/or sterilized at appropriate intervals to prevent malfunctions or contamination that would alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the drug product beyond the official or other established requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Written procedures shall be established and followed for cleaning and maintenance of equipment, including utensils, used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a drug product. These procedures shall include, but are not necessarily limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Assignment of responsibility for cleaning and maintaining equipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintenance and cleaning schedules, including, where appropriate, sanitizing schedules;
</P>
<P>(3) A description in sufficient detail of the methods, equipment, and materials used in cleaning and maintenance operations, and the methods of disassembling and reassembling equipment as necessary to assure proper cleaning and maintenance;
</P>
<P>(4) Removal or obliteration of previous batch identification;
</P>
<P>(5) Protection of clean equipment from contamination prior to use;
</P>
<P>(6) Inspection of equipment for cleanliness immediately before use.
</P>
<P>(c) Records shall be kept of maintenance, cleaning, sanitizing, and inspection as specified in §§ 211.180 and 211.182.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51931, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.68" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.68   Automatic, mechanical, and electronic equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Automatic, mechanical, or electronic equipment or other types of equipment, including computers, or related systems that will perform a function satisfactorily, may be used in the manufacture, processing, packing, and holding of a drug product. If such equipment is so used, it shall be routinely calibrated, inspected, or checked according to a written program designed to assure proper performance. Written records of those calibration checks and inspections shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) Appropriate controls shall be exercised over computer or related systems to assure that changes in master production and control records or other records are instituted only by authorized personnel. Input to and output from the computer or related system of formulas or other records or data shall be checked for accuracy. The degree and frequency of input/output verification shall be based on the complexity and reliability of the computer or related system. A backup file of data entered into the computer or related system shall be maintained except where certain data, such as calculations performed in connection with laboratory analysis, are eliminated by computerization or other automated processes. In such instances a written record of the program shall be maintained along with appropriate validation data. Hard copy or alternative systems, such as duplicates, tapes, or microfilm, designed to assure that backup data are exact and complete and that it is secure from alteration, inadvertent erasures, or loss shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(c) Such automated equipment used for performance of operations addressed by §§ 211.101(c) or (d), 211.103, 211.182, or 211.188(b)(11) can satisfy the requirements included in those sections relating to the performance of an operation by one person and checking by another person if such equipment is used in conformity with this section, and one person checks that the equipment properly performed the operation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 60 FR 4091, Jan. 20, 1995; 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.72" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.72   Filters.</HEAD>
<P>Filters for liquid filtration used in the manufacture, processing, or packing of injectable drug products intended for human use shall not release fibers into such products. Fiber-releasing filters may be used when it is not possible to manufacture such products without the use of these filters. If use of a fiber-releasing filter is necessary, an additional nonfiber-releasing filter having a maximum nominal pore size rating of 0.2 micron (0.45 micron if the manufacturing conditions so dictate) shall subsequently be used to reduce the content of particles in the injectable drug product. The use of an asbestos-containing filter is prohibited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Control of Components and Drug Product Containers and Closures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.80" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.80   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be written procedures describing in sufficient detail the receipt, identification, storage, handling, sampling, testing, and approval or rejection of components and drug product containers and closures; such written procedures shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) Components and drug product containers and closures shall at all times be handled and stored in a manner to prevent contamination.
</P>
<P>(c) Bagged or boxed components of drug product containers, or closures shall be stored off the floor and suitably spaced to permit cleaning and inspection.
</P>
<P>(d) Each container or grouping of containers for components or drug product containers, or closures shall be identified with a distinctive code for each lot in each shipment received. This code shall be used in recording the disposition of each lot. Each lot shall be appropriately identified as to its status (i.e., quarantined, approved, or rejected).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.82" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.82   Receipt and storage of untested components, drug product containers, and closures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt and before acceptance, each container or grouping of containers of components, drug product containers, and closures shall be examined visually for appropriate labeling as to contents, container damage or broken seals, and contamination.
</P>
<P>(b) Components, drug product containers, and closures shall be stored under quarantine until they have been tested or examined, whichever is appropriate, and released. Storage within the area shall conform to the requirements of § 211.80.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.84" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.84   Testing and approval or rejection of components, drug product containers, and closures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each lot of components, drug product containers, and closures shall be withheld from use until the lot has been sampled, tested, or examined, as appropriate, and released for use by the quality control unit.
</P>
<P>(b) Representative samples of each shipment of each lot shall be collected for testing or examination. The number of containers to be sampled, and the amount of material to be taken from each container, shall be based upon appropriate criteria such as statistical criteria for component variability, confidence levels, and degree of precision desired, the past quality history of the supplier, and the quantity needed for analysis and reserve where required by § 211.170.
</P>
<P>(c) Samples shall be collected in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) The containers of components selected shall be cleaned when necessary in a manner to prevent introduction of contaminants into the component.
</P>
<P>(2) The containers shall be opened, sampled, and resealed in a manner designed to prevent contamination of their contents and contamination of other components, drug product containers, or closures.
</P>
<P>(3) Sterile equipment and aseptic sampling techniques shall be used when necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) If it is necessary to sample a component from the top, middle, and bottom of its container, such sample subdivisions shall not be composited for testing.
</P>
<P>(5) Sample containers shall be identified so that the following information can be determined: name of the material sampled, the lot number, the container from which the sample was taken, the date on which the sample was taken, and the name of the person who collected the sample.
</P>
<P>(6) Containers from which samples have been taken shall be marked to show that samples have been removed from them.
</P>
<P>(d) Samples shall be examined and tested as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one test shall be conducted to verify the identity of each component of a drug product. Specific identity tests, if they exist, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Each component shall be tested for conformity with all appropriate written specifications for purity, strength, and quality. In lieu of such testing by the manufacturer, a report of analysis may be accepted from the supplier of a component, provided that at least one specific identity test is conducted on such component by the manufacturer, and provided that the manufacturer establishes the reliability of the supplier's analyses through appropriate validation of the supplier's test results at appropriate intervals.
</P>
<P>(3) Containers and closures shall be tested for conformity with all appropriate written specifications. In lieu of such testing by the manufacturer, a certificate of testing may be accepted from the supplier, provided that at least a visual identification is conducted on such containers/closures by the manufacturer and provided that the manufacturer establishes the reliability of the supplier's test results through appropriate validation of the supplier's test results at appropriate intervals.
</P>
<P>(4) When appropriate, components shall be microscopically examined.
</P>
<P>(5) Each lot of a component, drug product container, or closure that is liable to contamination with filth, insect infestation, or other extraneous adulterant shall be examined against established specifications for such contamination.
</P>
<P>(6) Each lot of a component, drug product container, or closure with potential for microbiological contamination that is objectionable in view of its intended use shall be subjected to microbiological tests before use.
</P>
<P>(e) Any lot of components, drug product containers, or closures that meets the appropriate written specifications of identity, strength, quality, and purity and related tests under paragraph (d) of this section may be approved and released for use. Any lot of such material that does not meet such specifications shall be rejected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 63 FR 14356, Mar. 25, 1998; 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.86" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.86   Use of approved components, drug product containers, and closures.</HEAD>
<P>Components, drug product containers, and closures approved for use shall be rotated so that the oldest approved stock is used first. Deviation from this requirement is permitted if such deviation is temporary and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.87" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.87   Retesting of approved components, drug product containers, and closures.</HEAD>
<P>Components, drug product containers, and closures shall be retested or reexamined, as appropriate, for identity, strength, quality, and purity and approved or rejected by the quality control unit in accordance with § 211.84 as necessary, e.g., after storage for long periods or after exposure to air, heat or other conditions that might adversely affect the component, drug product container, or closure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.89" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.89   Rejected components, drug product containers, and closures.</HEAD>
<P>Rejected components, drug product containers, and closures shall be identified and controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent their use in manufacturing or processing operations for which they are unsuitable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.94" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.94   Drug product containers and closures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drug product containers and closures shall not be reactive, additive, or absorptive so as to alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the drug beyond the official or established requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Container closure systems shall provide adequate protection against foreseeable external factors in storage and use that can cause deterioration or contamination of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(c) Drug product containers and closures shall be clean and, where indicated by the nature of the drug, sterilized and processed to remove pyrogenic properties to assure that they are suitable for their intended use. Such depyrogenation processes shall be validated.
</P>
<P>(d) Standards or specifications, methods of testing, and, where indicated, methods of cleaning, sterilizing, and processing to remove pyrogenic properties shall be written and followed for drug product containers and closures.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008; 81 FR 81697, Nov. 18, 2016; 89 FR 51769, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.100" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.100   Written procedures; deviations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be written procedures for production and process control designed to assure that the drug products have the identity, strength, quality, and purity they purport or are represented to possess. Such procedures shall include all requirements in this subpart. These written procedures, including any changes, shall be drafted, reviewed, and approved by the appropriate organizational units and reviewed and approved by the quality control unit.
</P>
<P>(b) Written production and process control procedures shall be followed in the execution of the various production and process control functions and shall be documented at the time of performance. Any deviation from the written procedures shall be recorded and justified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.101" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.101   Charge-in of components.</HEAD>
<P>Written production and control procedures shall include the following, which are designed to assure that the drug products produced have the identity, strength, quality, and purity they purport or are represented to possess:
</P>
<P>(a) The batch shall be formulated with the intent to provide not less than 100 percent of the labeled or established amount of active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) Components for drug product manufacturing shall be weighed, measured, or subdivided as appropriate. If a component is removed from the original container to another, the new container shall be identified with the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Component name or item code;
</P>
<P>(2) Receiving or control number;
</P>
<P>(3) Weight or measure in new container;
</P>
<P>(4) Batch for which component was dispensed, including its product name, strength, and lot number.
</P>
<P>(c) Weighing, measuring, or subdividing operations for components shall be adequately supervised. Each container of component dispensed to manufacturing shall be examined by a second person to assure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The component was released by the quality control unit;
</P>
<P>(2) The weight or measure is correct as stated in the batch production records;
</P>
<P>(3) The containers are properly identified. If the weighing, measuring, or subdividing operations are performed by automated equipment under § 211.68, only one person is needed to assure paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Each component shall either be added to the batch by one person and verified by a second person or, if the components are added by automated equipment under § 211.68, only verified by one person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.103" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.103   Calculation of yield.</HEAD>
<P>Actual yields and percentages of theoretical yield shall be determined at the conclusion of each appropriate phase of manufacturing, processing, packaging, or holding of the drug product. Such calculations shall either be performed by one person and independently verified by a second person, or, if the yield is calculated by automated equipment under § 211.68, be independently verified by one person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.105" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.105   Equipment identification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All compounding and storage containers, processing lines, and major equipment used during the production of a batch of a drug product shall be properly identified at all times to indicate their contents and, when necessary, the phase of processing of the batch.
</P>
<P>(b) Major equipment shall be identified by a distinctive identification number or code that shall be recorded in the batch production record to show the specific equipment used in the manufacture of each batch of a drug product. In cases where only one of a particular type of equipment exists in a manufacturing facility, the name of the equipment may be used in lieu of a distinctive identification number or code.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.110" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.110   Sampling and testing of in-process materials and drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To assure batch uniformity and integrity of drug products, written procedures shall be established and followed that describe the in-process controls, and tests, or examinations to be conducted on appropriate samples of in-process materials of each batch. Such control procedures shall be established to monitor the output and to validate the performance of those manufacturing processes that may be responsible for causing variability in the characteristics of in-process material and the drug product. Such control procedures shall include, but are not limited to, the following, where appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) Tablet or capsule weight variation;
</P>
<P>(2) Disintegration time;
</P>
<P>(3) Adequacy of mixing to assure uniformity and homogeneity;
</P>
<P>(4) Dissolution time and rate;
</P>
<P>(5) Clarity, completeness, or pH of solutions.
</P>
<P>(6) Bioburden testing.
</P>
<P>(b) Valid in-process specifications for such characteristics shall be consistent with drug product final specifications and shall be derived from previous acceptable process average and process variability estimates where possible and determined by the application of suitable statistical procedures where appropriate. Examination and testing of samples shall assure that the drug product and in-process material conform to specifications.
</P>
<P>(c) In-process materials shall be tested for identity, strength, quality, and purity as appropriate, and approved or rejected by the quality control unit, during the production process, e.g., at commencement or completion of significant phases or after storage for long periods.
</P>
<P>(d) Rejected in-process materials shall be identified and controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent their use in manufacturing or processing operations for which they are unsuitable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.111" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.111   Time limitations on production.</HEAD>
<P>When appropriate, time limits for the completion of each phase of production shall be established to assure the quality of the drug product. Deviation from established time limits may be acceptable if such deviation does not compromise the quality of the drug product. Such deviation shall be justified and documented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.113" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.113   Control of microbiological contamination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appropriate written procedures, designed to prevent objectionable microorganisms in drug products not required to be sterile, shall be established and followed.
</P>
<P>(b) Appropriate written procedures, designed to prevent microbiological contamination of drug products purporting to be sterile, shall be established and followed. Such procedures shall include validation of all aseptic and sterilization processes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.115" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.115   Reprocessing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written procedures shall be established and followed prescribing a system for reprocessing batches that do not conform to standards or specifications and the steps to be taken to insure that the reprocessed batches will conform with all established standards, specifications, and characteristics.
</P>
<P>(b) Reprocessing shall not be performed without the review and approval of the quality control unit.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Packaging and Labeling Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.122" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.122   Materials examination and usage criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be written procedures describing in sufficient detail the receipt, identification, storage, handling, sampling, examination, and/or testing of labeling and packaging materials; such written procedures shall be followed. Labeling and packaging materials shall be representatively sampled, and examined or tested upon receipt and before use in packaging or labeling of a drug product.
</P>
<P>(b) Any labeling or packaging materials meeting appropriate written specifications may be approved and released for use. Any labeling or packaging materials that do not meet such specifications shall be rejected to prevent their use in operations for which they are unsuitable.
</P>
<P>(c) Records shall be maintained for each shipment received of each different labeling and packaging material indicating receipt, examination or testing, and whether accepted or rejected.
</P>
<P>(d) Labels and other labeling materials for each different drug product, strength, dosage form, or quantity of contents shall be stored separately with suitable identification. Access to the storage area shall be limited to authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(e) Obsolete and outdated labels, labeling, and other packaging materials shall be destroyed.
</P>
<P>(f) Use of gang-printed labeling for different drug products, or different strengths or net contents of the same drug product, is prohibited unless the labeling from gang-printed sheets is adequately differentiated by size, shape, or color.


</P>
<P>(g) If cut labeling is used for immediate container labels, individual unit cartons, or multiunit cartons containing immediate containers that are not packaged in individual unit cartons, packaging and labeling operations shall include one of the following special control procedures:






</P>
<P>(1) Dedication of labeling and packaging lines to each different strength of each different drug product;
</P>
<P>(2) Use of appropriate electronic or electromechanical equipment to conduct a 100-percent examination for correct labeling during or after completion of finishing operations; or
</P>
<P>(3) Use of visual inspection to conduct a 100-percent examination for correct labeling during or after completion of finishing operations for hand-applied labeling. Such examination shall be performed by one person and independently verified by a second person.


</P>
<P>(4) Use of any automated technique, including differentiation by labeling size and shape, that physically prevents incorrect labeling from being processed by labeling and packaging equipment.


</P>
<P>(h) Printing devices on, or associated with, manufacturing lines used to imprint labeling upon the drug product unit label or case shall be monitored to assure that all imprinting conforms to the print specified in the batch production record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 58 FR 41353, Aug. 3, 1993; 77 FR 16163, Mar. 20, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.125" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.125   Labeling issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Strict control shall be exercised over labeling issued for use in drug product labeling operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling materials issued for a batch shall be carefully examined for identity and conformity to the labeling specified in the master or batch production records.
</P>
<P>(c) Procedures shall be used to reconcile the quantities of labeling issued, used, and returned, and shall require evaluation of discrepancies found between the quantity of drug product finished and the quantity of labeling issued when such discrepancies are outside narrow preset limits based on historical operating data. Such discrepancies shall be investigated in accordance with § 211.192. Labeling reconciliation is waived for cut or roll labeling if a 100-percent examination for correct labeling is performed in accordance with § 211.122(g)(2).


</P>
<P>(d) All excess labeling bearing lot or control numbers shall be destroyed.
</P>
<P>(e) Returned labeling shall be maintained and stored in a manner to prevent mixups and provide proper identification.


</P>
<P>(f) Procedures shall be written describing in sufficient detail the control procedures employed for the issuance of labeling; such written procedures shall be followed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 58 FR 41354, Aug. 3, 1993; 81 FR 81697, Nov. 18, 2016; 89 FR 51769, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.130" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.130   Packaging and labeling operations.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be written procedures designed to assure that correct labels, labeling, and packaging materials are used for drug products; such written procedures shall be followed. These procedures shall incorporate the following features:
</P>
<P>(a) Prevention of mixups and cross-contamination by physical or spatial separation from operations on other drug products.
</P>
<P>(b) Identification and handling of filled drug product containers that are set aside and held in unlabeled condition for future labeling operations to preclude mislabeling of individual containers, lots, or portions of lots. Identification need not be applied to each individual container but shall be sufficient to determine name, strength, quantity of contents, and lot or control number of each container.
</P>
<P>(c) Identification of the drug product with a lot or control number that permits determination of the history of the manufacture and control of the batch.
</P>
<P>(d) Examination of packaging and labeling materials for suitability and correctness before packaging operations, and documentation of such examination in the batch production record.
</P>
<P>(e) Inspection of the packaging and labeling facilities immediately before use to assure that all drug products have been removed from previous operations. Inspection shall also be made to assure that packaging and labeling materials not suitable for subsequent operations have been removed. Results of inspection shall be documented in the batch production records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 58 FR 41354, Aug. 3, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.132" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.132   Tamper-evident packaging requirements for over-the-counter (OTC) human drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Food and Drug Administration has the authority under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) to establish a uniform national requirement for tamper-evident packaging of OTC drug products that will improve the security of OTC drug packaging and help assure the safety and effectiveness of OTC drug products. An OTC drug product (except a dermatological, dentifrice, insulin, or lozenge product) for retail sale that is not packaged in a tamper-resistant package or that is not properly labeled under this section is adulterated under section 501 of the act or misbranded under section 502 of the act, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for tamper-evident package.</I> (1) Each manufacturer and packer who packages an OTC drug product (except a dermatological, dentifrice, insulin, or lozenge product) for retail sale shall package the product in a tamper-evident package, if this product is accessible to the public while held for sale. A tamper-evident package is one having one or more indicators or barriers to entry which, if breached or missing, can reasonably be expected to provide visible evidence to consumers that tampering has occurred. To reduce the likelihood of successful tampering and to increase the likelihood that consumers will discover if a product has been tampered with, the package is required to be distinctive by design or by the use of one or more indicators or barriers to entry that employ an identifying characteristic (e.g., a pattern, name, registered trademark, logo, or picture). For purposes of this section, the term “distinctive by design” means the packaging cannot be duplicated with commonly available materials or through commonly available processes. A tamper-evident package may involve an immediate-container and closure system or secondary-container or carton system or any combination of systems intended to provide a visual indication of package integrity. The tamper-evident feature shall be designed to and shall remain intact when handled in a reasonable manner during manufacture, distribution, and retail display.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the tamper-evident packaging feature described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any two-piece, hard gelatin capsule covered by this section must be sealed using an acceptable tamper-evident technology.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> (1) In order to alert consumers to the specific tamper-evident feature(s) used, each retail package of an OTC drug product covered by this section (except ammonia inhalant in crushable glass ampules or aerosol products that depend upon the power of a liquefied or compressed gas to expel the contents from the container) is required to bear a statement that:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies all tamper-evident feature(s) and any capsule sealing technologies used to comply with paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is prominently placed on the package; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is so placed that it will be unaffected if the tamper-evident feature of the package is breached or missing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the tamper-evident feature chosen to meet the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section uses an identifying characteristic, that characteristic is required to be referred to in the labeling statement. For example, the labeling statement on a bottle with a shrink band could say “For your protection, this bottle has an imprinted seal around the neck.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for exemptions from packaging and labeling requirements.</I> A manufacturer or packer may request an exemption from the packaging and labeling requirements of this section. A request for an exemption is required to be submitted in the form of a citizen petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and should be clearly identified on the envelope as a “Request for Exemption from the Tamper-Evident Packaging Rule.” The petition is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the drug product or, if the petition seeks an exemption for a drug class, the name of the drug class, and a list of products within that class.
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons that the drug product's compliance with the tamper-evident packaging or labeling requirements of this section is unnecessary or cannot be achieved.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of alternative steps that are available, or that the petitioner has already taken, to reduce the likelihood that the product or drug class will be the subject of malicious adulteration.
</P>
<P>(4) Other information justifying an exemption.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>OTC drug products subject to approved new drug applications.</I> Holders of approved new drug applications for OTC drug products are required under § 314.70 of this chapter to provide the agency with notification of changes in packaging and labeling to comply with the requirements of this section. Changes in packaging and labeling required by this regulation may be made before FDA approval, as provided under § 314.70(c) of this chapter. Manufacturing changes by which capsules are to be sealed require prior FDA approval under § 314.70(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970.</I> This section does not affect any requirements for “special packaging” as defined under § 310.3(l) of this chapter and required under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB control number 0910-0149)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 5228, Feb. 2, 1989, as amended at 63 FR 59470, Nov. 4, 1998; 89 FR 51769, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.134" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.134   Drug product inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Packaged and labeled products shall be examined during finishing operations to provide assurance that containers and packages in the lot have the correct label.
</P>
<P>(b) A representative sample of units shall be collected at the completion of finishing operations and shall be visually examined for correct labeling.
</P>
<P>(c) Results of these examinations shall be recorded in the batch production or control records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.137" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.137   Expiration dating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To assure that a drug product meets applicable standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity at the time of use, it shall bear an expiration date determined by appropriate stability testing described in § 211.166.
</P>
<P>(b) Expiration dates shall be related to any storage conditions stated on the labeling, as determined by stability studies described in § 211.166.
</P>
<P>(c) If the drug product is to be reconstituted at the time of dispensing, its labeling shall bear expiration information for both the reconstituted and unreconstituted drug products.
</P>
<P>(d) Expiration dates shall appear on labeling in accordance with the requirements of § 201.17 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Homeopathic drug products shall be exempt from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Allergenic extracts that are labeled “No U.S. Standard of Potency” are exempt from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) New drug products for investigational use are exempt from the requirements of this section, provided that they meet appropriate standards or specifications as demonstrated by stability studies during their use in clinical investigations. Where new drug products for investigational use are to be reconstituted at the time of dispensing, their labeling shall bear expiration information for the reconstituted drug product.
</P>
<P>(h) Pending consideration of a proposed exemption, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of September 29, 1978, the requirements in this section shall not be enforced for human OTC drug products if their labeling does not bear dosage limitations and they are stable for at least 3 years as supported by appropriate stability data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 56412, Nov. 17, 1981; 60 FR 4091, Jan. 20, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Holding and Distribution</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.142" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.142   Warehousing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Written procedures describing the warehousing of drug products shall be established and followed. They shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) Quarantine of drug products before release by the quality control unit.
</P>
<P>(b) Storage of drug products under appropriate conditions of temperature, humidity, and light so that the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the drug products are not affected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.150" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.150   Distribution procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Written procedures shall be established, and followed, describing the distribution of drug products. They shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) A procedure whereby the oldest approved stock of a drug product is distributed first. Deviation from this requirement is permitted if such deviation is temporary and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) A system by which the distribution of each lot of drug product can be readily determined to facilitate its recall if necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Laboratory Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.160" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.160   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The establishment of any specifications, standards, sampling plans, test procedures, or other laboratory control mechanisms required by this subpart, including any change in such specifications, standards, sampling plans, test procedures, or other laboratory control mechanisms, shall be drafted by the appropriate organizational unit and reviewed and approved by the quality control unit. The requirements in this subpart shall be followed and shall be documented at the time of performance. Any deviation from the written specifications, standards, sampling plans, test procedures, or other laboratory control mechanisms shall be recorded and justified.
</P>
<P>(b) Laboratory controls shall include the establishment of scientifically sound and appropriate specifications, standards, sampling plans, and test procedures designed to assure that components, drug product containers, closures, in-process materials, labeling, and drug products conform to appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. Laboratory controls shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of conformity to applicable written specifications for the acceptance of each lot within each shipment of components, drug product containers, closures, and labeling used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of drug products. The specifications shall include a description of the sampling and testing procedures used. Samples shall be representative and adequately identified. Such procedures shall also require appropriate retesting of any component, drug product container, or closure that is subject to deterioration.
</P>
<P>(2) Determination of conformance to written specifications and a description of sampling and testing procedures for in-process materials. Such samples shall be representative and properly identified.
</P>
<P>(3) Determination of conformance to written descriptions of sampling procedures and appropriate specifications for drug products. Such samples shall be representative and properly identified.
</P>
<P>(4) The calibration of instruments, apparatus, gauges, and recording devices at suitable intervals in accordance with an established written program containing specific directions, schedules, limits for accuracy and precision, and provisions for remedial action in the event accuracy and/or precision limits are not met. Instruments, apparatus, gauges, and recording devices not meeting established specifications shall not be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51932, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.165" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.165   Testing and release for distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each batch of drug product, there shall be appropriate laboratory determination of satisfactory conformance to final specifications for the drug product, including the identity and strength of each active ingredient, prior to release. Where sterility and/or pyrogen testing are conducted on specific batches of shortlived radiopharmaceuticals, such batches may be released prior to completion of sterility and/or pyrogen testing, provided such testing is completed as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) There shall be appropriate laboratory testing, as necessary, of each batch of drug product required to be free of objectionable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(c) Any sampling and testing plans shall be described in written procedures that shall include the method of sampling and the number of units per batch to be tested; such written procedure shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(d) Acceptance criteria for the sampling and testing conducted by the quality control unit shall be adequate to assure that batches of drug products meet each appropriate specification and appropriate statistical quality control criteria as a condition for their approval and release. The statistical quality control criteria shall include appropriate acceptance levels and/or appropriate rejection levels.
</P>
<P>(e) The accuracy, sensitivity, specificity, and reproducibility of test methods employed by the firm shall be established and documented. Such validation and documentation may be accomplished in accordance with § 211.194(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) Drug products failing to meet established standards or specifications and any other relevant quality control criteria shall be rejected. Reprocessing may be performed. Prior to acceptance and use, reprocessed material must meet appropriate standards, specifications, and any other relevant criteria.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.166" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.166   Stability testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be a written testing program designed to assess the stability characteristics of drug products. The results of such stability testing shall be used in determining appropriate storage conditions and expiration dates. The written program shall be followed and shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Sample size and test intervals based on statistical criteria for each attribute examined to assure valid estimates of stability;
</P>
<P>(2) Storage conditions for samples retained for testing;
</P>
<P>(3) Reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods;
</P>
<P>(4) Testing of the drug product in the same container-closure system as that in which the drug product is marketed;
</P>
<P>(5) Testing of drug products for reconstitution at the time of dispensing (as directed in the labeling) as well as after they are reconstituted.
</P>
<P>(b) An adequate number of batches of each drug product shall be tested to determine an appropriate expiration date and a record of such data shall be maintained. Accelerated studies, combined with basic stability information on the components, drug products, and container-closure system, may be used to support tentative expiration dates provided full shelf life studies are not available and are being conducted. Where data from accelerated studies are used to project a tentative expiration date that is beyond a date supported by actual shelf life studies, there must be stability studies conducted, including drug product testing at appropriate intervals, until the tentative expiration date is verified or the appropriate expiration date determined.
</P>
<P>(c) For homeopathic drug products, the requirements of this section are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) There shall be a written assessment of stability based at least on testing or examination of the drug product for compatibility of the ingredients, and based on marketing experience with the drug product to indicate that there is no degradation of the product for the normal or expected period of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluation of stability shall be based on the same container-closure system in which the drug product is being marketed.
</P>
<P>(d) Allergenic extracts that are labeled “No U.S. Standard of Potency” are exempt from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 56412, Nov. 17, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.167" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.167   Special testing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each batch of drug product purporting to be sterile and/or pyrogen-free, there shall be appropriate laboratory testing to determine conformance to such requirements. The test procedures shall be in writing and shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) For each batch of ophthalmic ointment, there shall be appropriate testing to determine conformance to specifications regarding the presence of foreign particles and harsh or abrasive substances. The test procedures shall be in writing and shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(c) For each batch of controlled-release dosage form, there shall be appropriate laboratory testing to determine conformance to the specifications for the rate of release of each active ingredient. The test procedures shall be in writing and shall be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.170" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.170   Reserve samples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appropriately identified reserve sample that is representative of each lot in each shipment of each active ingredient shall be retained. The reserve sample consists of at least twice the quantity necessary for all tests required to determine whether the active ingredient meets its established specifications, except for sterility and pyrogen testing. The retention time is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For an active ingredient in a drug product other than those described in paragraphs (a) (2) and (3) of this section, the reserve sample shall be retained for 1 year after the expiration date of the last lot of the drug product containing the active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) For an active ingredient in a radioactive drug product, except for nonradioactive reagent kits, the reserve sample shall be retained for:
</P>
<P>(i) Three months after the expiration date of the last lot of the drug product containing the active ingredient if the expiration dating period of the drug product is 30 days or less; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Six months after the expiration date of the last lot of the drug product containing the active ingredient if the expiration dating period of the drug product is more than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(3) For an active ingredient in an OTC drug product that is exempt from bearing an expiration date under § 211.137, the reserve sample shall be retained for 3 years after distribution of the last lot of the drug product containing the active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) An appropriately identified reserve sample that is representative of each lot or batch of drug product shall be retained and stored under conditions consistent with product labeling. The reserve sample shall be stored in the same immediate container-closure system in which the drug product is marketed or in one that has essentially the same characteristics. The reserve sample consists of at least twice the quantity necessary to perform all the required tests, except those for sterility and pyrogens. Except for those for drug products described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, reserve samples from representative sample lots or batches selected by acceptable statistical procedures shall be examined visually at least once a year for evidence of deterioration unless visual examination would affect the integrity of the reserve sample. Any evidence of reserve sample deterioration shall be investigated in accordance with § 211.192. The results of the examination shall be recorded and maintained with other stability data on the drug product. The retention time is as follows:


</P>
<P>(1) For a drug product other than those described in paragraphs (b) (2) and (3) of this section, the reserve sample shall be retained for 1 year after the expiration date of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(2) For a radioactive drug product, except for nonradioactive reagent kits, the reserve sample shall be retained for:
</P>
<P>(i) Three months after the expiration date of the drug product if the expiration dating period of the drug product is 30 days or less; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Six months after the expiration date of the drug product if the expiration dating period of the drug product is more than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(3) For an OTC drug product that is exempt for bearing an expiration date under § 211.137, the reserve sample must be retained for 3 years after the lot or batch of drug product is distributed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 13025, Mar. 29, 1983, as amended at 60 FR 4091, Jan. 20, 1995; 89 FR 51770, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.173" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.173   Laboratory animals.</HEAD>
<P>Animals used in testing components, in-process materials, or drug products for compliance with established specifications shall be maintained and controlled in a manner that assures their suitability for their intended use. They shall be identified, and adequate records shall be maintained showing the history of their use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.176" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.176   Penicillin contamination.</HEAD>
<P>If a reasonable possibility exists that a non-penicillin drug product has been exposed to cross-contamination with penicillin, the non-penicillin drug product shall be tested for the presence of penicillin. Such drug product shall not be marketed if detectable levels are found when tested according to procedures specified in ‘Procedures for Detecting and Measuring Penicillin Contamination in Drugs,’ which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Division of Research and Testing (HFD-470), Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 9396, Mar. 5, 1982; 50 FR 8996, Mar. 6, 1985; 55 FR 11577, Mar. 29, 1990; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.180" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.180   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any production, control, or distribution record that is required to be maintained in compliance with this part and is specifically associated with a batch of a drug product shall be retained for at least 1 year after the expiration date of the batch or, in the case of certain OTC drug products lacking expiration dating because they meet the criteria for exemption under § 211.137, 3 years after distribution of the batch.
</P>
<P>(b) Records shall be maintained for all components, drug product containers, closures, and labeling for at least 1 year after the expiration date or, in the case of certain OTC drug products lacking expiration dating because they meet the criteria for exemption under § 211.137, 3 years after distribution of the last lot of drug product incorporating the component or using the container, closure, or labeling.
</P>
<P>(c) All records required under this part, or copies of such records, shall be readily available for authorized inspection during the retention period at the establishment where the activities described in such records occurred. These records or copies thereof shall be subject to photocopying or other means of reproduction as part of such inspection. Records that can be immediately retrieved from another location by computer or other electronic means shall be considered as meeting the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) Records required under this part may be retained either as original records or as true copies such as photocopies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records. Where reduction techniques, such as microfilming, are used, suitable reader and photocopying equipment shall be readily available.
</P>
<P>(e) Written records required by this part shall be maintained so that data therein can be used for evaluating, at least annually, the quality standards of each drug product to determine the need for changes in drug product specifications or manufacturing or control procedures. Written procedures shall be established and followed for such evaluations and shall include provisions for:
</P>
<P>(1) A review of a representative number of batches, whether approved or rejected, and, where applicable, records associated with the batch.
</P>
<P>(2) A review of complaints, recalls, returned or salvaged drug products, and investigations conducted under § 211.192 for each drug product.
</P>
<P>(f) Procedures shall be established to assure that the responsible officials of the firm, if they are not personally involved in or immediately aware of such actions, are notified in writing of any investigations conducted under §§ 211.198, 211.204, or 211.208 of these regulations, any recalls, reports of inspectional observations issued by the Food and Drug Administration, or any regulatory actions relating to good manufacturing practices brought by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 60 FR 4091, Jan. 20, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.182" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.182   Equipment cleaning and use log.</HEAD>
<P>A written record of major equipment cleaning, maintenance (except routine maintenance such as lubrication and adjustments), and use shall be included in individual equipment logs that show the date, time, product, and lot number of each batch processed. If equipment is dedicated to manufacture of one product, then individual equipment logs are not required, provided that lots or batches of such product follow in numerical order and are manufactured in numerical sequence. In cases where dedicated equipment is employed, the records of cleaning, maintenance, and use shall be part of the batch record. The persons performing and double-checking the cleaning and maintenance (or, if the cleaning and maintenance is performed using automated equipment under § 211.68, just the person verifying the cleaning and maintenance done by the automated equipment) shall date and sign or initial the log indicating that the work was performed. Entries in the log shall be in chronological order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 51933, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.184" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.184   Component, drug product container, closure, and labeling records.</HEAD>
<P>These records shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The identity and quantity of each shipment of each lot of components, drug product containers, closures, and labeling; the name of the supplier; the supplier's lot number(s) if known; the receiving code as specified in § 211.80; and the date of receipt. The name and location of the prime manufacturer, if different from the supplier, shall be listed if known.
</P>
<P>(b) The results of any test or examination performed (including those performed as required by § 211.82(a), § 211.84(d), or § 211.122(a)) and the conclusions derived therefrom.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual inventory record of each component, drug product container, and closure and, for each component, a reconciliation of the use of each lot of such component. The inventory record shall contain sufficient information to allow determination of any batch or lot of drug product associated with the use of each component, drug product container, and closure.
</P>
<P>(d) Documentation of the examination and review of labels and labeling for conformity with established specifications in accord with §§ 211.122(c) and 211.130(c).
</P>
<P>(e) The disposition of rejected components, drug product containers, closure, and labeling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.186" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.186   Master production and control records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To assure uniformity from batch to batch, master production and control records for each drug product, including each batch size thereof, shall be prepared, dated, and signed (full signature, handwritten) by one person and independently checked, dated, and signed by a second person. The preparation of master production and control records shall be described in a written procedure and such written procedure shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) Master production and control records shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and strength of the product and a description of the dosage form;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and weight or measure of each active ingredient per dosage unit or per unit of weight or measure of the drug product, and a statement of the total weight or measure of any dosage unit;
</P>
<P>(3) A complete list of components designated by names or codes sufficiently specific to indicate any special quality characteristic;
</P>
<P>(4) An accurate statement of the weight or measure of each component, using the same weight system (metric, avoirdupois, or apothecary) for each component. Reasonable variations may be permitted, however, in the amount of components necessary for the preparation in the dosage form, provided they are justified in the master production and control records;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement concerning any calculated excess of component;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of theoretical weight or measure at appropriate phases of processing;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of theoretical yield, including the maximum and minimum percentages of theoretical yield beyond which investigation according to § 211.192 is required;
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the drug product containers, closures, and packaging materials, including a specimen or copy of each label and all other labeling signed and dated by the person or persons responsible for approval of such labeling;
</P>
<P>(9) Complete manufacturing and control instructions, sampling and testing procedures, specifications, special notations, and precautions to be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.188" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.188   Batch production and control records.</HEAD>
<P>Batch production and control records shall be prepared for each batch of drug product produced and shall include complete information relating to the production and control of each batch. These records shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) An accurate reproduction of the appropriate master production or control record, checked for accuracy, dated, and signed;
</P>
<P>(b) Documentation that each significant step in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of the batch was accomplished, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Dates;
</P>
<P>(2) Identity of individual major equipment and lines used;
</P>
<P>(3) Specific identification of each batch of component or in-process material used;
</P>
<P>(4) Weights and measures of components used in the course of processing;
</P>
<P>(5) In-process and laboratory control results;
</P>
<P>(6) Inspection of the packaging and labeling area before and after use;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of the actual yield and a statement of the percentage of theoretical yield at appropriate phases of processing;
</P>
<P>(8) Complete labeling control records, including specimens or copies of all labeling used;
</P>
<P>(9) Description of drug product containers and closures;
</P>
<P>(10) Any sampling performed;
</P>
<P>(11) Identification of the persons performing and directly supervising or checking each significant step in the operation, or if a significant step in the operation is performed by automated equipment under § 211.68, the identification of the person checking the significant step performed by the automated equipment.
</P>
<P>(12) Any investigation made according to § 211.192.
</P>
<P>(13) Results of examinations made in accordance with § 211.134.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 51933, Sept. 8, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.192" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.192   Production record review.</HEAD>
<P>All drug product production and control records, including those for packaging and labeling, shall be reviewed and approved by the quality control unit to determine compliance with all established, approved written procedures before a batch is released or distributed. Any unexplained discrepancy (including a percentage of theoretical yield exceeding the maximum or minimum percentages established in master production and control records) or the failure of a batch or any of its components to meet any of its specifications shall be thoroughly investigated, whether or not the batch has already been distributed. The investigation shall extend to other batches of the same drug product and other drug products that may have been associated with the specific failure or discrepancy. A written record of the investigation shall be made and shall include the conclusions and followup.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.194" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.194   Laboratory records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Laboratory records shall include complete data derived from all tests necessary to assure compliance with established specifications and standards, including examinations and assays, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the sample received for testing with identification of source (that is, location from where sample was obtained), quantity, lot number or other distinctive code, date sample was taken, and date sample was received for testing.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of each method used in the testing of the sample. The statement shall indicate the location of data that establish that the methods used in the testing of the sample meet proper standards of accuracy and reliability as applied to the product tested. (If the method employed is in the current revision of the United States Pharmacopeia, National Formulary, AOAC INTERNATIONAL, Book of Methods, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or in other recognized standard references, or is detailed in an approved new drug application and the referenced method is not modified, a statement indicating the method and reference will suffice). The suitability of all testing methods used shall be verified under actual conditions of use.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained from: AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) A statement of the weight or measure of sample used for each test, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) A complete record of all data secured in the course of each test, including all graphs, charts, and spectra from laboratory instrumentation, properly identified to show the specific component, drug product container, closure, in-process material, or drug product, and lot tested.
</P>
<P>(5) A record of all calculations performed in connection with the test, including units of measure, conversion factors, and equivalency factors.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of the results of tests and how the results compare with established standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity for the component, drug product container, closure, in-process material, or drug product tested.
</P>
<P>(7) The initials or signature of the person who performs each test and the date(s) the tests were performed.
</P>
<P>(8) The initials or signature of a second person showing that the original records have been reviewed for accuracy, completeness, and compliance with established standards.
</P>
<P>(b) Complete records shall be maintained of any modification of an established method employed in testing. Such records shall include the reason for the modification and data to verify that the modification produced results that are at least as accurate and reliable for the material being tested as the established method.
</P>
<P>(c) Complete records shall be maintained of any testing and standardization of laboratory reference standards, reagents, and standard solutions.
</P>
<P>(d) Complete records shall be maintained of the periodic calibration of laboratory instruments, apparatus, gauges, and recording devices required by § 211.160(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) Complete records shall be maintained of all stability testing performed in accordance with § 211.166.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 55 FR 11577, Mar. 29, 1990; 65 FR 18889, Apr. 10, 2000; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.196" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.196   Distribution records.</HEAD>
<P>Distribution records shall contain the name and strength of the product and description of the dosage form, name and address of the consignee, date and quantity shipped, and lot or control number of the drug product.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 51770, June 18, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.198" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.198   Complaint files.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written procedures describing the handling of all written and oral complaints regarding a drug product shall be established and followed. Such procedures shall include provisions for review by the quality control unit, of any complaint involving the possible failure of a drug product to meet any of its specifications and, for such drug products, a determination as to the need for an investigation in accordance with § 211.192. Such procedures shall include provisions for review to determine whether the complaint represents a serious and unexpected adverse drug experience which is required to be reported to the Food and Drug Administration in accordance with §§ 310.305 and 514.80 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A written record of each complaint shall be maintained in a file designated for drug product complaints. The file regarding such drug product complaints shall be maintained at the establishment where the drug product involved was manufactured, processed, or packed, or such file may be maintained at another facility if the written records in such files are readily available for inspection at that other facility. Written records involving a drug product shall be maintained until at least 1 year after the expiration date of the drug product, or 1 year after the date that the complaint was received, whichever is longer. In the case of certain OTC drug products lacking expiration dating because they meet the criteria for exemption under § 211.137, such written records shall be maintained for 3 years after distribution of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(1) The written record shall include the following information, where known: the name and strength of the drug product, lot number, name of complainant, nature of complaint, and reply to complainant.
</P>
<P>(2) Where an investigation under § 211.192 is conducted, the written record shall include the findings of the investigation and followup. The record or copy of the record of the investigation shall be maintained at the establishment where the investigation occurred in accordance with § 211.180(c).
</P>
<P>(3) Where an investigation under § 211.192 is not conducted, the written record shall include the reason that an investigation was found not to be necessary and the name of the responsible person making such a determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45077, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 24479, July 3, 1986; 68 FR 15364, Mar. 31, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Returned and Salvaged Drug Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.204" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.204   Returned drug products.</HEAD>
<P>Returned drug products shall be identified as such and held. If the conditions under which returned drug products have been held, stored, or shipped before or during their return, or if the condition of the drug product, its container, carton, or labeling, as a result of storage or shipping, casts doubt on the safety, identity, strength, quality or purity of the drug product, the returned drug product shall be destroyed unless examination, testing, or other investigations prove the drug product meets appropriate standards of safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity. A drug product may be reprocessed provided the subsequent drug product meets appropriate standards, specifications, and characteristics. Records of returned drug products shall be maintained and shall include the name and label potency of the drug product dosage form, lot number (or control number or batch number), reason for the return, quantity returned, date of disposition, and ultimate disposition of the returned drug product. If the reason for a drug product being returned implicates associated batches, an appropriate investigation shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of § 211.192. Procedures for the holding, testing, and reprocessing of returned drug products shall be in writing and shall be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.208" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.11.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.208   Drug product salvaging.</HEAD>
<P>Drug products that have been subjected to improper storage conditions including extremes in temperature, humidity, smoke, fumes, pressure, age, or radiation due to natural disasters, fires, accidents, or equipment failures shall not be salvaged and returned to the marketplace. Whenever there is a question whether drug products have been subjected to such conditions, salvaging operations may be conducted only if there is (a) evidence from laboratory tests and assays (including animal feeding studies where applicable) that the drug products meet all applicable standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity and (b) evidence from inspection of the premises that the drug products and their associated packaging were not subjected to improper storage conditions as a result of the disaster or accident. Organoleptic examinations shall be acceptable only as supplemental evidence that the drug products meet appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. Records including name, lot number, and disposition shall be maintained for drug products subject to this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="212" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 212—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE FOR POSITRON EMISSION TOMOGRAPHY DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 355, 371, 374; Sec. 121, Pub. L. 105-115, 111 Stat. 2296.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 65431, Dec. 10, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.1   What are the meanings of the technical terms used in these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to words and phrases as they are used in this part. Other definitions of these words may apply when they are used in other parts of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Acceptance criteria</I> means numerical limits, ranges, or other criteria for tests that are used for or in making a decision to accept or reject a unit, lot, or batch of a PET drug product.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (21 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Active pharmaceutical ingredient</I> means a substance that is intended for incorporation into a finished PET drug product and is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis or monitoring of a disease or a manifestation of a disease in humans, but does not include intermediates used in the synthesis of such substance.
</P>
<P><I>Batch</I> means a specific quantity of PET drug intended to have uniform character and quality, within specified limits, that is produced according to a single production order during the same cycle of production.
</P>
<P><I>Batch production and control record</I> means a unique record that references an accepted master production and control record and documents specific details on production, labeling, and quality control for a single batch of a PET drug.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> means any ingredient intended for use in the production of a PET drug, including any ingredients that may not appear in the final PET drug product.
</P>
<P><I>Conditional final release</I> means a final release made prior to completion of a required finished-product test because of a malfunction involving analytical equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Final release</I> means the authoritative decision by a responsible person in a PET production facility to permit the use of a batch of a PET drug in humans.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive ingredient</I> means any intended component of the PET drug other than the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
</P>
<P><I>In-process material</I> means any material fabricated, compounded, blended, or derived by chemical reaction that is produced for, and is used in, the preparation of a PET drug.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means a batch, or a specifically identified portion of a batch, having uniform character and quality within specified limits. In the case of a PET drug produced by continuous process, a lot is a specifically identified amount produced in a unit of time or quantity in a manner that ensures its having uniform character and quality within specified limits.
</P>
<P><I>Lot number</I>, <I>control number</I>, or <I>batch number</I> means any distinctive combination of letters, numbers, or symbols from which the complete history of the production, processing, packing, holding, and distribution of a batch or lot of a PET drug can be determined.
</P>
<P><I>Master production and control record</I> means a compilation of instructions containing the procedures and specifications for the production of a PET drug.
</P>
<P><I>Material release</I> means the authoritative decision by a responsible person in a PET production facility to permit the use of a component, container and closure, in-process material, packaging material, or labeling in the production of a PET drug.
</P>
<P><I>PET</I> means positron emission tomography.
</P>
<P><I>PET drug</I> means a radioactive drug that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei by the emission of positrons and is used for providing dual photon positron emission tomographic diagnostic images. The definition includes any nonradioactive reagent, reagent kit, ingredient, nuclide generator, accelerator, target material, electronic synthesizer, or other apparatus or computer program to be used in the preparation of a PET drug. “PET drug” includes a “PET drug product” as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>PET drug product</I> means a finished dosage form of a PET drug, whether or not in association with one or more other ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>PET drug production facility</I> means a facility that is engaged in the production of a PET drug.
</P>
<P><I>Production</I> means the manufacturing, compounding, processing, packaging, labeling, reprocessing, repacking, relabeling, and testing of a PET drug.
</P>
<P><I>Quality assurance</I> means a system for ensuring the quality of active ingredients, PET drugs, intermediates, components that yield an active pharmaceutical ingredient, analytical supplies, and other components, including container-closure systems and in-process materials, through procedures, tests, analytical methods, and acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving facility</I> means any hospital, institution, nuclear pharmacy, imaging facility, or other entity or part of an entity that accepts a PET drug product that has been given final release, but does not include a common or contract carrier that transports a PET drug product from a PET production facility to a receiving facility.
</P>
<P><I>Specifications</I> means the tests, analytical procedures, and appropriate acceptance criteria to which a PET drug, PET drug product, component, container-closure system, in-process material, or other material used in PET drug production must conform to be considered acceptable for its intended use. Conformance to specifications means that a PET drug, PET drug product, component, container-closure system, in-process material, or other material used in PET drug production, when tested according to the described analytical procedures, meets the listed acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Strength</I> means the concentration of the active pharmaceutical ingredient (radioactivity amount per volume or weight at the time of calibration).
</P>
<P><I>Sub-batch</I> means a quantity of PET drug having uniform character and quality, within specified limits, that is produced during one succession of multiple irradiations, using a given synthesis and/or purification operation.
</P>
<P><I>Verification</I> means confirmation that an established method, process, or system meets predetermined acceptance criteria.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.2   What is current good manufacturing practice for PET drugs?</HEAD>
<P>Current good manufacturing practice for PET drugs is the minimum requirements for the methods to be used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the production, quality assurance, holding, or distribution of PET drugs intended for human use. Current good manufacturing practice is intended to ensure that each PET drug meets the requirements of the act as to safety and has the identity and strength, and meets the quality and purity characteristics, that it is supposed to have.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.5   To what drugs do the regulations in this part apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application solely to PET drugs.</I> The regulations in this part apply only to the production, quality assurance, holding, and distribution of PET drugs. Any human drug that does not meet the definition of a PET drug must be manufactured in accordance with the current good manufacturing practice requirements in parts 210 and 211 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigational and research PET drugs.</I> For investigational PET drugs for human use produced under an investigational new drug application in accordance with part 312 of this chapter, and PET drugs produced with the approval of a Radioactive Drug Research Committee in accordance with part 361 of this chapter, the requirement under the act to follow current good manufacturing practice is met by complying with the regulations in this part or by producing PET drugs in accordance with Chapter 823, “Radiopharmaceuticals for Positron Emission Tomography—Compounding,” May 1, 2009, pp. 365-369, 32d ed. of the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) National Formulary (NF) (USP 32/NF 27) (2009). The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Pkwy., Rockville, MD 20852, Geeta M. Tirumalai, 301-816-8352, e-mail: <I>gt@usp.org,</I> Internet address: <I>http://www.usp.org/USPNF/notices.</I> You may inspect a copy at the Food and Drug Administration Biosciences Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD, 20993-0002, 301-796-3504, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Personnel and Resources</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.10   What personnel and resources must I have?</HEAD>
<P>You must have a sufficient number of personnel with the necessary education, background, training, and experience to perform their assigned functions. You must have adequate resources, including facilities and equipment, to enable your personnel to perform their functions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Quality Assurance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.20" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.20   What activities must I perform to ensure drug quality?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Production operations.</I> You must oversee production operations to ensure that each PET drug meets the requirements of the act as to safety and has the identity and strength, and meets the quality and purity characteristics, that it is supposed to have.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Materials.</I> You must examine and approve or reject components, containers, closures, in-process materials, packaging materials, labeling, and finished dosage forms to ensure compliance with procedures and specifications affecting the identity, strength, quality, or purity of a PET drug.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specifications and processes.</I> You must approve or reject, before implementation, any initial specifications, methods, processes, or procedures, and any proposed changes to existing specifications, methods, processes, or procedures, to ensure that they maintain the identity, strength, quality, and purity of a PET drug. You must demonstrate that any change does not adversely affect the identity, strength, quality, or purity of any PET drug.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Production records.</I> You must review production records to determine whether errors have occurred. If errors have occurred, or a production batch or any component of the batch fails to meet any of its specifications, you must determine the need for an investigation, conduct investigations when necessary, and take appropriate corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quality assurance.</I> You must establish and follow written quality assurance procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Facilities and Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.30" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.30   What requirements must my facilities and equipment meet?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Facilities.</I> You must provide adequate facilities to ensure the orderly handling of materials and equipment, the prevention of mix-ups, and the prevention of contamination of equipment or product by substances, personnel, or environmental conditions that could reasonably be expected to have an adverse effect on product quality.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment procedures.</I> You must implement procedures to ensure that all equipment that could reasonably be expected to adversely affect the identity, strength, quality, or purity of a PET drug, or give erroneous or invalid test results when improperly used or maintained, is clean, suitable for its intended purposes, properly installed, maintained, and capable of repeatedly producing valid results. You must document your activities in accordance with these procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment construction and maintenance.</I> Equipment must be constructed and maintained so that surfaces that contact components, in-process materials, or PET drugs are not reactive, additive, or absorptive so as to alter the quality of PET drugs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Control of Components, Containers, and Closures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.40" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.40   How must I control the components I use to produce PET drugs and the containers and closures I package them in?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written procedures.</I> You must establish, maintain, and follow written procedures describing the receipt, login, identification, storage, handling, testing, and acceptance and/or rejection of components and drug product containers and closures. The procedures must be adequate to ensure that the components, containers, and closures are suitable for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written specifications.</I> You must establish appropriate written specifications for the identity, quality, and purity of components and for the identity and quality of drug product containers and closures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examination and testing.</I> Upon receipt, each lot of components and containers and closures must be uniquely identified and tested or examined to determine whether the lot complies with your specifications. You must not use in PET drug production any lot that does not meet its specifications, including any expiration date if applicable, or that has not yet received its material release. Any incoming lot must be appropriately designated as quarantined, accepted, or rejected. You must use a reliable supplier as a source of each lot of each component, container, and closure.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) If you conduct finished-product testing of a PET drug product that includes testing to ensure that the correct components have been used, you must determine that each lot of incoming components used in that PET drug product complies with written specifications by examining a certificate of analysis provided by the supplier. You are not required to perform a specific identity test on any of those components.
</P>
<P>(ii) If you do not conduct finished-product testing of a PET drug product that ensures that the correct components have been used, you must conduct identity testing on each lot of a component that yields an active ingredient and each lot of an inactive ingredient used in that PET drug product. This testing must be conducted using tests that are specific to each component that yields an active ingredient and each inactive ingredient. For any other component, such as a solvent or reagent, that is not the subject of finished-product testing, you must determine that each lot complies with written specifications by examining a certificate of analysis provided by the supplier; if you use such a component to prepare an inactive ingredient on site, you must perform an identity test on the components used to make the inactive ingredient before the components are released for use. However, if you use as an inactive ingredient a product that is approved under section 505 of the act (21 U.S.C. 355) and is marketed as a finished drug product intended for intravenous administration, you need not perform a specific identity test on that ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) You must examine a representative sample of each lot of containers and closures for conformity to its written specifications. You must perform at least a visual identification of each lot of containers and closures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Handling and storage.</I> You must handle and store components, containers, and closures in a manner that prevents contamination, mix-ups, and deterioration and ensures that they are and remain suitable for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records.</I> You must keep a record for each shipment of each lot of components, containers, and closures that you receive. The record must include the identity and quantity of each shipment, the supplier's name and lot number, the date of receipt, the results of any testing performed, the disposition of rejected material, and the expiration date (where applicable).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.50" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.50   What production and process controls must I have?</HEAD>
<P>You must have adequate production and process controls to ensure the consistent production of a PET drug that meets the applicable standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Written control procedures.</I> You must have written production and process control procedures to ensure and document that all key process parameters are controlled and that any deviations from the procedures are justified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Master production and control records.</I> You must have master production and control records that document all steps in the PET drug production process. The master production and control records must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and strength of the PET drug;
</P>
<P>(2) If applicable, the name and radioactivity or other measurement of each active pharmaceutical ingredient and each inactive ingredient per batch or per unit of radioactivity or other measurement of the drug product, and a statement of the total radioactivity or other measurement of any dosage unit;
</P>
<P>(3) A complete list of components designated by names and codes sufficiently specific to indicate any special quality characteristic;
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of all major pieces of equipment used in production;
</P>
<P>(5) An accurate statement of the weight or measurement of each component, using the same weight system (metric, avoirdupois, or apothecary) for each component. Reasonable variations are permitted in the amount of component necessary if they are specified in the master production and control records;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of action limits on radiochemical yield, i.e., the minimum percentage of yield beyond which investigation and corrective action are required;
</P>
<P>(7) Complete production and control instructions, sampling and testing procedures, specifications, special notations, and precautions to be followed; and
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the PET drug product containers, closures, and packaging materials, including a specimen or copy of each label and all other labeling.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Batch production and control records.</I> Each time a batch of a PET drug is produced, a unique batch production and control record must be created. The batch production record must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Name and strength of the PET drug;
</P>
<P>(2) Identification number or other unique identifier of the specific batch that was produced;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and radioactivity or other measure of each active pharmaceutical ingredient and each inactive ingredient per batch or per unit of radioactivity or other measurement of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(4) Each major production step (obtained from the approved appropriate master production and control record);
</P>
<P>(5) Weights (or other measure of quantity) and identification codes of components;
</P>
<P>(6) Dates of production steps and times of critical production steps;
</P>
<P>(7) Identification of major pieces of equipment used in production of the batch;
</P>
<P>(8) Testing results;
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling;
</P>
<P>(10) Initials or signatures of persons performing or checking each significant step in the operation; and
</P>
<P>(11) Results of any investigations conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Area and equipment checks.</I> The production area and all equipment in the production area must be checked to ensure cleanliness and suitability immediately before use. A record of these checks must be kept.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>In-process materials controls.</I> Process controls must include control of in-process materials to ensure that the materials are controlled until required tests or other verification activities have been completed or necessary approvals are received and documented.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Process verification.</I> (1) For a PET drug for which each entire batch undergoes full finished-product testing to ensure that the product meets all specifications, process verification, as described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, is not required.
</P>
<P>(2) When the results of the production of an entire batch of a PET drug are not fully verified through finished-product testing or when only the initial sub-batch in a series is tested, the PET drug producer must demonstrate that the process for producing the PET drug is reproducible and is capable of producing a drug product that meets the predetermined acceptance criteria. Process verification activities and results must be documented. Documentation must include the date and signature of the individual(s) performing the verification, the monitoring and control methods and data, and the major equipment qualified.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Laboratory Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.60" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.60   What requirements apply to the laboratories where I test components, in-process materials, and finished PET drug products?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Testing procedures.</I> Each laboratory used to conduct testing of components, in-process materials, and finished PET drug products must have and follow written procedures for the conduct of each test and for the documentation of the results.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications and standards.</I> Each laboratory must have sampling and testing procedures designed to ensure that components, in-process materials, and PET drug products conform to appropriate standards, including established standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Analytical methods.</I> Laboratory analytical methods must be suitable for their intended use and must be sufficiently sensitive, specific, accurate, and reproducible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Materials.</I> The identity, purity, and quality of reagents, solutions, and supplies used in testing procedures must be adequately controlled. All solutions that you prepare must be properly labeled to show their identity and expiration date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equipment.</I> All equipment used to perform the testing must be suitable for its intended purposes and capable of producing valid results.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equipment maintenance.</I> Each laboratory must have and follow written procedures to ensure that equipment is routinely calibrated, inspected, checked, and maintained, and that these activities are documented.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Test records.</I> Each laboratory performing tests related to the production of a PET drug must keep complete records of all tests performed to ensure compliance with established specifications and standards, including examinations and assays, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A suitable identification of the sample received for testing.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of each method used in the testing of the sample, a record of all calculations performed in connection with each test, and a statement of the weight or measurement of the sample used for each test.
</P>
<P>(3) A complete record of all data obtained in the course of each test, including the date and time the test was conducted, and all graphs, charts, and spectra from laboratory instrumentation, properly identified to show the specific component, in-process material, or drug product for each lot tested.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the results of tests and how the results compare with established acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(5) The initials or signature of the person performing the test and the date on which the test was performed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.61" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.61   What must I do to ensure the stability of my PET drug products through expiry?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Stability testing program.</I> You must establish, follow, and maintain a written testing program to assess the stability characteristics of your PET drug products. The test methods must be reliable, meaningful, and specific. The samples tested for stability must be representative of the lot or batch from which they were obtained and must be stored under suitable conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Storage conditions and expiration dates.</I> The results of such stability testing must be documented and used in determining appropriate storage conditions and expiration dates and times for each PET drug product you produce.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Finished Drug Product Controls and Acceptance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.70" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.70   What controls and acceptance criteria must I have for my finished PET drug products?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> You must establish specifications for each PET drug product, including criteria for determining identity, strength, quality, purity, and, if appropriate, sterility and pyrogens.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test procedures.</I> Before you implement a new test procedure in a specification, you must establish and document the accuracy, sensitivity, specificity, and reproducibility of the procedure. If you use an established compendial test procedure in a specification, you must first verify and document that the test works under the conditions of actual use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conformance to specifications.</I> Before final release, you must conduct an appropriate laboratory determination to ensure that each batch of a PET drug product conforms to specifications, except for sterility. For a PET drug product produced in sub-batches, before final release, you must conduct an appropriate laboratory determination to ensure that each sub-batch conforms to specifications, except for sterility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final release procedures.</I> Except as conditional final release is permitted in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, you must establish and follow procedures to ensure that each batch of a PET drug product is not given final release until the following are done:
</P>
<P>(1) An appropriate laboratory determination under paragraph (c) of this section is completed;
</P>
<P>(2) Associated laboratory data and documentation are reviewed and they demonstrate that the PET drug product meets specifications, except for sterility; and
</P>
<P>(3) A designated qualified individual authorizes final release by dated signature.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sterility testing.</I> Sterility testing need not be completed before final release but must be started within 30 hours after completion of production. The 30-hour requirement may be exceeded due to a weekend or holiday. If the sample for sterility testing is held longer than 30 hours, you must demonstrate that the longer period does not adversely affect the sample and the test results obtained will be equivalent to test results that would have been obtained if the test had been started within the 30-hour time period. Tested samples must be from individual batches and not pooled. If the product fails to meet a criterion for sterility, you must immediately notify all facilities that received the product of the test results and provide any appropriate recommendations. The notification must be documented. Upon completion of an investigation into the failure to meet a criterion for sterility, you must notify all facilities that received the product of the findings from the investigation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conditional final release.</I> (1) If you cannot complete one of the required finished-product tests for a batch of a PET drug product because of a malfunction involving analytical equipment, you may approve the conditional final release of the product if you meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) You have data documenting that preceding consecutive batches, produced using the same methods used for the conditionally released batch, demonstrate that the conditionally released batch will likely meet the established specifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) You determine that all other acceptance criteria are met;
</P>
<P>(iii) You retain a reserve sample of the conditionally released batch of drug product;
</P>
<P>(iv) You promptly correct the malfunction of analytical equipment, complete the omitted test using the reserve sample after the malfunction is corrected, and document that reasonable efforts have been made to prevent recurrence of the malfunction;
</P>
<P>(v) If you obtain an out-of-specification result when testing the reserve sample, you immediately notify the receiving facility; and
</P>
<P>(vi) You document all actions regarding the conditional final release of the drug product, including the justification for the release, all followup actions, results of completed testing, all notifications, and corrective actions to prevent recurrence of the malfunction involving analytical equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Even if the criteria in paragraph (f)(1) of this section are met, you may not approve the conditional final release of the product if the malfunction involving analytical equipment prevents the performance of a radiochemical identity/purity test or prevents the determination of the product's specific activity.
</P>
<P>(3) You may not release another batch of the PET drug product until you have corrected the problem concerning the malfunction of analytical equipment and completed the omitted finished-product test.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.71" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.71   What actions must I take if a batch of PET drug product does not conform to specifications?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rejection of nonconforming product.</I> You must reject a batch of a PET drug product that does not conform to specifications. You must have and follow procedures to identify and segregate the product to avoid mix-ups. You must have and follow procedures to investigate the cause(s) of the nonconforming product. The investigation must include, but is not limited to, examination of processes, operations, records, complaints, and any other relevant sources of information concerning the nonconforming product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigation.</I> You must document the investigation of a PET drug product that does not meet specifications, including the results of the investigation and what happened to the rejected PET drug product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correction of problems.</I> You must take action to correct any identified problems to prevent recurrence of a nonconforming product or other quality problem.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reprocessing.</I> If appropriate, you may reprocess a batch of a PET drug product that does not conform to specifications. If material that does not meet acceptance criteria is reprocessed, you must follow procedures stated in the product's approved application and the finished product must conform to specifications, except for sterility, before final release.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Packaging and Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.80" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.80   What are the requirements associated with labeling and packaging PET drug products?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A PET drug product must be suitably labeled and packaged to protect the product from alteration, contamination, and damage during the established conditions of shipping, distribution, handling, and use.
</P>
<P>(b) Labels must be legible and applied so as to remain legible and affixed during the established conditions of processing, storage, handling, distribution, and use.
</P>
<P>(c) All information stated on each label must also be contained in each batch production record.
</P>
<P>(d) Labeling and packaging operations must be controlled to prevent labeling and product mix-ups.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Distribution</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.90" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.90   What actions must I take to control the distribution of PET drug products?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written distribution procedures.</I> You must establish, maintain, and follow written procedures for the control of distribution of PET drug products shipped from the PET drug production facility to ensure that the method of shipping chosen will not adversely affect the identity, purity, or quality of the PET drug product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution records.</I> You must maintain distribution records for each PET drug product that include or refer to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the receiving facility that received each batch of a PET drug product;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and quantity of the PET drug product shipped;
</P>
<P>(3) The lot number, control number, or batch number for the PET drug product shipped; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date and time you shipped the PET drug product.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Complaint Handling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.100" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.100   What do I do if I receive a complaint about a PET drug product produced at my facility?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written complaint procedures.</I> You must develop and follow written procedures for the receipt and handling of all complaints concerning the quality or purity of, or possible adverse reactions to, a PET drug product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint review.</I> The procedures must include review by a designated person of any complaint involving the possible failure of a PET drug product to meet any of its specifications and an investigation to determine the cause of the failure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complaint records.</I> A written record of each complaint must be maintained in a file designated for PET drug product complaints. The record must include the name and strength of the PET drug product, the batch number, the name of the complainant, the date the complaint was received, the nature of the complaint, and the response to the complaint. It must also include the findings of any investigation and followup.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Returned products.</I> A PET drug product that is returned because of a complaint or for any other reason may not be reprocessed and must be destroyed in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.110" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.12.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.110   How must I maintain records of my production of PET drugs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Record availability.</I> Records must be maintained at the PET drug production facility or another location that is reasonably accessible to responsible officials of the production facility and to employees of FDA designated to perform inspections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record quality.</I> All records, including those not stored at the inspected establishment, must be legible, stored to prevent deterioration or loss, and readily available for review and copying by FDA employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention period.</I> You must maintain all records and documentation referenced in this part for a period of at least 1 year from the date of final release, including conditional final release, of a PET drug product.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="213" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 213—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE FOR MEDICAL GASES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360b, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 371, 374.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 51770, June 18, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part contain the minimum current good manufacturing practice for preparation of medical gases for administration to humans or animals.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall be applicable to such terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms apply to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acceptance criteria</I> means the product specifications and acceptance/rejection criteria, such as acceptable quality level and unacceptable quality level, with an associated sampling plan, that are necessary for making a decision to accept or reject a lot or batch (or any other convenient subgroups of manufactured units).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Batch</I> means a specific quantity of a medical gas or other material that is intended to have uniform character and quality, within specified limits, and is produced according to a single manufacturing order during the same cycle of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commingling or commingled</I> refers to the act of combining one lot of designated medical gas or component with another lot or lots of the same designated medical gas or component.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Component</I> means any ingredient intended for use in the manufacture of a medical gas, including those that may not appear in such gas. It does not include an incoming designated medical gas.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Designated medical gas</I> means a drug that is manufactured or stored in a liquefied, nonliquefied, or cryogenic state; is administered as a gas; and is defined in section 575(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>In-process material</I> means any material fabricated, compounded, blended, or derived by chemical reaction that is produced for, and used in, the preparation of the medical gas.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Incoming designated medical gas</I> means a designated medical gas received from one source that, after receipt, is commingled with the same gas from another source, used in a medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases or in the production of another medical gas, or further distributed.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Lot</I> means a batch, or a specific identified portion of a batch, having uniform character and quality within specified limits; or, in the case of a medical gas produced by continuous process, it is a specific identified amount produced in a unit of time or quantity in a manner that assures its having uniform character and quality within specified limits.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Lot number, control number, or batch number</I> means any distinctive combination of letters, numbers, or symbols, or any combination of them, from which the complete history of the manufacture, processing, packing, holding, and distribution of a batch or lot of medical gas or other material can be determined.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of medical gases</I> includes packaging and labeling operations, testing, and quality control.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Medical gas</I> has the meaning given the term in section 575(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Original manufacturer</I> means the person that initially produces a designated medical gas by chemical reaction, physical separation, compression of atmospheric air, purification (<I>e.g.,</I> re-processing an industrial gas into a medical gas), or other means.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Quality unit</I> means any person or persons designated with the authority and responsibility for overall quality management and other responsibilities as defined in § 213.22.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Strength</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The concentration of the medical gas (for example, weight/weight, weight/volume, or unit dose/volume basis); and/or
</P>
<P>(ii) The potency, that is, the therapeutic activity of the medical gas as indicated by appropriate laboratory tests or by adequately developed and controlled clinical data (expressed, for example, in terms of units by reference to a standard).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Organization and Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.22" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.22   Responsibilities of quality unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be a quality unit that shall have the responsibility and authority to approve or reject all components, medical gas containers and closures, in-process materials, packaging material, labeling, and medical gases, and the authority to review production records to assure that no errors have occurred or, if errors have occurred, that they have been fully investigated. The quality unit shall be responsible for approving or rejecting medical gases manufactured, processed, packed, or held under contract by another company.
</P>
<P>(b) Adequate laboratory facilities for the testing and approval (or rejection) of components, medical gas containers and closures, packaging materials, in-process materials, and medical gases shall be available to the quality unit.
</P>
<P>(c) The quality unit shall have the responsibility for approving or rejecting all procedures or specifications impacting on the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the medical gas.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsibilities and procedures applicable to the quality unit shall be in writing; such written procedures shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(e) Quality unit personnel may perform other functions provided appropriate written controls are in place to ensure any other functions are performed separately from quality unit responsibilities and such other functions do not interfere with the quality unit's responsibilities or subordinate the quality unit's responsibilities to any other unit.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.25" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.25   Personnel qualifications and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person engaged in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a medical gas shall have education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof, to enable that person to perform the assigned functions. Training shall be in the particular operations that the employee performs and in current good manufacturing practice (including the current good manufacturing practice regulations in this chapter and written procedures required by these regulations) as they relate to the employee's functions. Training in current good manufacturing practice shall be conducted by qualified individuals on a continuing basis and with sufficient frequency to assure that employees remain familiar with current good manufacturing practice requirements applicable to them. Written documentation shall be maintained demonstrating the completion of employee training, and shall include the date of the training, the type of the training, and the results of any completion criteria, such as test results.
</P>
<P>(b) There shall be an adequate number of qualified personnel to perform the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of each medical gas.
</P>
<P>(c) Only authorized personnel shall enter those areas of the buildings and facilities designated as limited-access areas.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.34" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.34   Consultants.</HEAD>
<P>Consultants advising on the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of medical gases shall have sufficient education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof, to advise on the subject for which they are retained. Records shall be maintained stating the name, address, and qualifications of any consultants and the type of service they provide.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Buildings and Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.42" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.42   Design and construction features.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Any buildings and facilities used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a medical gas shall be of adequate design, including having adequate space, for the orderly placement of equipment and materials to prevent mix-ups between:
</P>
<P>(i) Components;
</P>
<P>(ii) Incoming designated medical gases;
</P>
<P>(iii) Medical gas containers and closures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Labeling;
</P>
<P>(v) In-process materials; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Medical gases.
</P>
<P>(2) Such buildings and facilities shall also allow for adequate cleaning, maintenance, and proper operations.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Operations shall be performed within specifically defined areas of adequate size. There shall be separate or defined areas or such other control systems for the firm's operations as are necessary to prevent contamination or mix-ups during the course of the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) Receipt, identification, storage, and withholding from use of components, incoming designated medical gases, medical gas containers and closures, and labeling, pending the appropriate sampling, testing, or examination by the quality unit before release for manufacturing or packaging;
</P>
<P>(ii) Holding rejected components, incoming designated medical gases, medical gas containers and closures, and labeling before disposition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Storage of released components, incoming designated medical gases, medical gas containers and closures, and labeling;
</P>
<P>(iv) Storage of in-process materials;
</P>
<P>(v) Manufacturing and processing operations;
</P>
<P>(vi) Packaging and labeling operations;
</P>
<P>(vii) Quarantine storage before release of medical gases;
</P>
<P>(viii) Storage of medical gases after release; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Control and laboratory operations.
</P>
<P>(2) The flow of components, incoming designated medical gases, medical gas containers and closures, labeling, in-process materials, and medical gases through the buildings and facilities shall be designed to prevent contamination and mix-ups.
</P>
<P>(c) Any building or facility used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a medical gas shall be maintained in a clean condition so as to assure the safety, identity, strength, quality, and purity of the medical gas. Written procedures applicable to the maintenance and cleaning of buildings and facilities shall be established and followed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.63" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.63   Equipment design, size, and location.</HEAD>
<P>Equipment used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a medical gas shall be of appropriate design and adequate size, and be suitably located to facilitate operations for its intended use and any necessary cleaning and maintenance.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.65" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.65   Equipment construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Equipment shall be constructed so that surfaces that contact components, in-process materials, or medical gases shall not be reactive, additive, or absorptive so as to alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the medical gas beyond the official or other established requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Any substances required for operation, such as lubricants or coolants, shall not come into contact with components, containers, closures, in-process materials, or medical gases so as to alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the medical gas beyond the official or other established requirements.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.67" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.67   Equipment maintenance and cleaning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written procedures shall be established, maintained, and followed for adequate cleaning and maintenance of equipment used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of medical gases. These procedures shall include, but are not necessarily limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Assignment of responsibility for cleaning and maintaining equipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintenance and cleaning schedules, including, where appropriate, sanitizing schedules;
</P>
<P>(3) A description in sufficient detail of the methods, equipment, and materials used in cleaning and maintenance operations, and the methods of disassembling and reassembling equipment as necessary to assure proper cleaning and maintenance;
</P>
<P>(4) Removal or obliteration of previous batch identification;
</P>
<P>(5) Protection of clean equipment from contamination prior to use; and
</P>
<P>(6) Inspection of equipment for cleanliness immediately before use.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures described in paragraph (a) of this section shall not alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the medical gas beyond the established requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) Records shall be kept of cleaning, maintenance, and inspection as specified in §§ 213.180 and 213.182.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.68" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.68   Automatic, mechanical, and electronic equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Automatic, mechanical, and electronic equipment used in the manufacture, processing, packing, and holding of medical gases shall be routinely calibrated, inspected, and checked according to a written program designed to ensure proper performance. Written procedures and records of calibration, inspections, and checks shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) Computerized systems that record, store, or use data shall be appropriately validated.
</P>
<P>(c) A backup file of data entered into the computer system shall be maintained except where certain data, such as calculations performed in connection with laboratory analysis, are eliminated by computerization or other automated processes.
</P>
<P>(d) Appropriate change control shall be used whenever modifications are made to computer systems to assure that any changes do not adversely affect data integrity or product quality. Records of such modifications shall be maintained.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Control of Incoming Designated Medical Gas, Components, and Medical Gas Containers and Closures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.80" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.80   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be written procedures describing in sufficient detail the receipt, identification, storage, handling, sampling, testing, and approval or rejection of components, incoming designated medical gases, and medical gas containers and closures; such written procedures shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) Components, incoming designated medical gases, and medical gas containers and closures shall at all times be handled and stored in a manner to prevent contamination and mix-ups.
</P>
<P>(c) Lots of incoming designated medical gases or components, whether used directly as supply or commingled with an existing supply, shall be assigned a unique identification number.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.82" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.82   Receipt and storage of incoming designated medical gases.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Upon receipt of each shipment of each incoming designated medical gas, the firm shall either perform full compendial testing on the gas and record the results or verify and record that a signed certificate of analysis from the supplier accompanies each different designated medical gas in a shipment. The certificate of analysis shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Supplier's name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Name of the incoming designated medical gas;
</P>
<P>(iii) Lot number or other unique identification number;
</P>
<P>(iv) Actual analytical result obtained for strength, as well as the results of other tests performed;
</P>
<P>(v) Identification of the test method(s) used for analysis;
</P>
<P>(vi) New drug application and/or new animal drug application number of the incoming designated medical gas; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Supplier representative's signature and the date of signature.
</P>
<P>(2) If the incoming designated medical gas is obtained from a supplier other than the original manufacturer, the shipment shall also include complete information from the original manufacturer's certificate of analysis. The firm shall establish and maintain a program to ensure the reliability of the supplier's capabilities through appropriate assessment and testing procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) An identity test shall be performed upon receipt of the incoming designated medical gas.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.84" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.84   Testing and approval or rejection of components, containers, and closures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Components, containers, and closures (including valves) shall be examined for conformance with appropriate written procedures and specifications, and approved or rejected, prior to the manufacturing or filling process. In lieu of such examination by the firm, a statement of verification that the component, container, or closure meets specifications may be accepted from the supplier, provided that the firm establishes and maintains a program to ensure the reliability of the supplier's capabilities through appropriate assessment and testing provisions. Any rejected items shall be handled in accordance with § 213.89.
</P>
<P>(b) Firms shall take appropriate actions to protect against container and closure leaks, which shall include performing leak tests on containers and closures at the time of fill and after fill but prior to release.
</P>
<P>(c) Each component shall be sampled, tested, and approved or rejected as appropriate prior to use. This requirement can be met by performing testing for conformance with written specifications or by an identity test on the component accompanied by an acceptable certificate of analysis from the supplier, provided that the firm establishes and maintains a program to ensure the reliability of the supplier's capabilities through appropriate assessment and testing procedures.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.89" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.89   Rejected components, incoming designated medical gases, and medical gas containers and closures.</HEAD>
<P>Rejected components, incoming designated medical gases, and medical gas containers and closures shall be identified and controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent their use in manufacturing or processing operations for which they are unsuitable and shall be documented and assessed.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.94" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.94   Medical gas containers and closures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Medical gas containers and closures shall not be reactive, additive, or absorptive so as to alter the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the gas beyond the official or established requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Container closure systems shall provide adequate protection against foreseeable external factors in storage and use that can cause deterioration or contamination of the medical gas.
</P>
<P>(c) Medical gas containers and closures shall be clean to assure that they are suitable for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(d) Standards or specifications, methods of testing, and, where indicated, methods of cleaning shall be written and followed for medical gas containers and closures.
</P>
<P>(e) Medical gas containers and closures must meet the following requirements—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Gas-specific use outlet connections.</I> Portable cryogenic medical gas containers that are not manufactured with permanent gas use outlet connections (<I>e.g.,</I> those that have been silver-brazed) must have gas-specific use outlet connections that are attached to the valve body so that they cannot be readily removed or replaced (without making the valve inoperable and preventing the containers' use) except by the manufacturer. For the purposes of this paragraph (e)(1), the term <I>manufacturer</I> includes any individual or firm that fills high-pressure medical gas cylinders or cryogenic medical gas containers. For the purposes of this section, a <I>portable cryogenic medical gas container</I> is one that is capable of being transported and is intended to be attached to a medical gas supply system within a hospital, healthcare entity, nursing home, other facility, or home healthcare setting, or is used to fill small cryogenic gas containers for use by individual patients. The term excludes cryogenic containers that are not designed to be connected to a medical gas supply system, <I>e.g.,</I> tank trucks, trailers, rail cars, or small cryogenic gas containers for use by individual patients (including portable liquid oxygen units as defined at § 868.5655 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Gauges for certain medical gas containers.</I> Portable cryogenic medical gas containers as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and small cryogenic gas containers for use by individual patients (including portable liquid oxygen units as defined at § 868.5655 of this chapter) must have a working gauge sufficient to assist the user in determining whether the container contains an adequate supply of medical gas for continued use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Label and coloring requirements.</I> The labeling specified at § 201.328(a) of this chapter must be affixed to the container in a manner that does not interfere with other labeling. Each such label as well as materials used for coloring medical gas containers must be reasonably resistant to fading, durable when exposed to atmospheric conditions, and not readily soluble in water.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.100" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.100   Written procedures; deviations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be written procedures for production and process controls designed to assure that medical gases have the identity, strength, quality, and purity they purport or are represented to possess. Such procedures shall include all requirements in this subpart. These written procedures, including any changes, shall be drafted, reviewed, and approved by the appropriate organizational units and reviewed and approved by the quality unit.
</P>
<P>(b) Written production and process control procedures shall be followed in the execution of the various production and process control functions and shall be documented at the time of performance. Any deviation from the written procedures shall be recorded and justified.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.101" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.101   Charge-in of components and incoming designated medical gases.</HEAD>
<P>Written production and control procedures shall include the following, which are designed to assure that the medical gases produced have the identity, strength, quality, and purity they purport or are represented to possess:
</P>
<P>(a) Except when a monograph or formulary specifies a range, the batch shall be formulated with the intent to provide 100 percent of the labeled or established amount of each medical gas. When a monograph or formulary specifies a range for the contents of a medical gas, the batch shall be formulated with the intent to provide an amount of the medical gas within such specified range.
</P>
<P>(b) Components and incoming designated medical gases added to in-process supply or final product containers shall be weighed or measured as appropriate. In-process and final product containers shall identify the name of the component or designated medical gas or the name and percentage of each component or designated medical gas if they contain multiple components or designated medical gases, and the unique lot number assigned.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.110" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.110   Sampling and testing of in-process materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In-process materials shall be tested for identity, strength, quality, and purity as appropriate, and approved or rejected by the quality unit during the production process.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure batch uniformity and integrity of drug products, written procedures shall be established and followed that describe the in-process controls, and tests, or examinations to be conducted on appropriate samples of in-process materials of each batch. Such control procedures shall be established to monitor the output and to validate the performance of those manufacturing processes.
</P>
<P>(c) Rejected in-process materials shall be identified and controlled under a quarantine system designed to prevent their use in manufacturing or processing operations for which they are unsuitable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Packaging and Labeling Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.122" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.122   Materials examination and usage criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be written procedures describing in sufficient detail the receipt, identification, storage, handling, sampling, examination, and/or testing of labeling and packaging materials; such written procedures shall be followed. Labeling and packaging materials shall be representatively sampled, and examined or tested upon receipt and before use in packaging or labeling of a medical gas.
</P>
<P>(b) Any labeling or packaging materials meeting appropriate written specifications may be approved and released for use. Any labeling or packaging materials that do not meet such specifications shall be rejected to prevent their use in operations for which they are unsuitable.
</P>
<P>(c) Records shall be maintained for each shipment received of each different labeling and packaging material indicating receipt, examination, and whether accepted or rejected.
</P>
<P>(d) Labels and other labeling materials for each different medical gas, strength, or quantity of contents shall be stored with suitable identification to avoid mix-ups. Access to the label storage area shall be limited to authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(e) Labels, labeling, and other packaging materials that are obsolete, outdated, or that do not meet applicable requirements shall be destroyed.
</P>
<P>(f) Packaging and labeling operations shall include one of the following special control procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Dedication of labeling and packaging lines to each different strength of each different medical gas;
</P>
<P>(2) Use of appropriate electronic or electromechanical equipment to conduct a 100-percent examination for correct labeling during or after completion of finishing operations; or
</P>
<P>(3) Use of visual inspection to conduct a 100-percent examination for correct labeling during or after completion of labeling operations for hand-applied labeling. Such examination shall be performed by one person and independently verified by a second person.
</P>
<P>(g) Printing devices on, or associated with, manufacturing lines used to imprint labeling upon the unit label or case shall be monitored to assure that all imprinting conforms to the print specified in the batch production record.
</P>
<P>(h) Labels may be reused if they are legible, properly affixed to the container, and otherwise meet all applicable requirements.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.125" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.125   Labeling issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Labeling and packaging operations must be controlled to prevent labeling and product mix-ups. Procedures shall be written and followed describing in sufficient detail the control procedures employed for the issuance of labeling.
</P>
<P>(b) Procedures shall be used to reconcile the quantities of labeling issued, used, and returned, and shall require evaluation of discrepancies found between the quantity of medical gas and the quantity of labeling issued when such discrepancies are outside narrow preset limits based on historical operating data. Such discrepancies shall be investigated in accordance with § 213.192. Labeling reconciliation is waived for cut or roll labeling if a 100-percent examination for correct labeling is performed in accordance with § 213.122(f)(2). Labeling reconciliation is also waived for 360° wraparound labels on portable cryogenic medical gas containers.
</P>
<P>(c) All excess lot number stickers or decals bearing lot or control numbers shall be discarded.
</P>
<P>(d) Bulk or transport containers (as defined in § 201.161(c)(3) of this chapter) are exempt from this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.130" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.130   Packaging and labeling operations.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be written procedures designed to assure that correct labels, labeling, and packaging materials are used for medical gases; such written procedures shall be followed. These procedures shall incorporate the following features:
</P>
<P>(a) Prevention of mix-ups by physical or spatial separation from operations on other products.
</P>
<P>(b) Identification and handling of filled containers of medical gas that are set aside and held in unlabeled condition for future labeling operations to preclude mislabeling of individual containers, lots, or portions of lots. Identification need not be applied to each individual container but shall be sufficient to determine name, strength, quantity of contents, and lot or control number of each container.
</P>
<P>(c) Identification of the medical gas with a lot or control number that permits determination of the history of the manufacture and control of the batch. The lot or control number of the medical gas may be identified by use of a separate identification sticker or decal.
</P>
<P>(d) Examination of packaging and labeling materials for suitability and correctness before packaging operations, and documentation of such examination in the batch production record. Product labels, including 360° wraparound labels, can be reused provided they meet all applicable labeling requirements, all information on the label is legible, and the label is in good condition.
</P>
<P>(e) Inspection of the packaging and labeling facilities immediately before use to assure that all medical gases have been removed from previous operations. Inspection shall also be made to assure that packaging and labeling materials not suitable for subsequent operations have been removed. Results of inspection shall be documented in the batch production records.
</P>
<P>(f) Bulk or transport containers (as defined in § 201.161(c)(3) of this chapter) are exempt from this section provided they are identified with the name of the product contained therein and accompanied by documentation identifying the product as meeting applicable compendial standards.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Holding and Distribution</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.150" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.150   Warehousing and distribution procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written procedures shall be established, and followed, describing the distribution of medical gases and including a system by which the distribution of each lot can be readily determined to facilitate its recall if necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) Written procedures shall be established, and followed, describing the warehousing of medical gases, including quarantine of such gases before release by the quality unit.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Laboratory Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.160" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.160   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The establishment of any specifications, standards, sampling plans, test procedures, or other laboratory control mechanisms required by this subpart, including any change in such specifications, standards, sampling plans, test procedures, or other laboratory control mechanisms, shall be drafted by the appropriate organizational unit and reviewed and approved by the quality unit. The requirements in this subpart shall be followed and shall be documented at the time of performance. Any deviation from the written specifications, standards, sampling plans, test procedures, or other laboratory control mechanisms shall be recorded and justified.
</P>
<P>(b) Laboratory controls shall include the establishment of scientifically sound and appropriate specifications, standards, sampling plans, and test procedures designed to assure that components, medical gas containers and closures, in-process materials, labeling, and medical gases conform to appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. Laboratory controls shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of conformity to applicable written specifications for the acceptance of each lot within each shipment of components, medical gas containers and closures, and labeling used in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a medical gas. The specifications shall include a description of the sampling and testing procedures used. Samples shall be representative and adequately identified. Such procedures shall also require appropriate retesting of any component, container, or closure that is subject to deterioration.
</P>
<P>(2) Determination of conformance to written specifications and a description of sampling and testing procedures for in-process materials. Such samples shall be representative and properly identified.
</P>
<P>(3) Determination of conformance to written descriptions of sampling procedures and appropriate specifications for medical gases. Such samples shall be representative and properly identified.
</P>
<P>(4) The calibration or verification of calibration for instruments, apparatus, gauges, and recording devices at suitable intervals in accordance with an established written program containing specific directions, schedules, limits for accuracy and precision, and provisions for remedial action in the event accuracy and/or precision limits are not met. Instruments, apparatus, gauges, and recording devices not meeting established specifications shall not be used.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.165" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.165   Testing and release for distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each batch of medical gas, there shall be appropriate laboratory determination of satisfactory conformance to final specifications for the medical gas, including the identity and strength, prior to release.
</P>
<P>(b) Any sampling and testing plans shall be described in written procedures that shall include the method of sampling, the number of units per batch to be tested, and acceptance criteria. Such written procedures shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(c) The accuracy, sensitivity, specificity, and reproducibility of test methods employed by the firm shall be established and documented. Such validation and documentation may be accomplished in accordance with § 213.194(a)(2). The suitability of all testing methods shall be verified under actual conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(d) Medical gases failing to meet established standards or specifications and any other relevant quality criteria shall be rejected.
</P>
<P>(e) This section does not apply to the filling of a designated medical gas or medically appropriate combination of designated medical gases via liquid to liquid into a container at a delivery site.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.166" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.166   Stability testing and expiration dating for medical gases marketed under applications submitted under section 505 or section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For medical gases marketed under applications submitted under section 505 or section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, any stability testing performed and any expiration date established shall be in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, subject to the conditions established in their approved applications, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) To assure that the medical gas described in paragraph (a) of this section meets applicable standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity at the time of use:
</P>
<P>(1) The stability testing program shall be designed to assess the stability characteristics of the medical gas and its container closure system. The results of stability testing shall be used in determining appropriate storage conditions and any expiration date included on the label. The stability program shall include the appropriate sample size, test intervals, container closure systems, and storage conditions for samples retained for testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Any expiration dates included on the label shall appear in accordance with the requirements of § 201.17 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Stability shall be evaluated periodically to ensure that the medical gas continues to meet the standards for identity, strength, quality, and purity stated on the labeling to support the expiration date.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.180" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.180   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Record availability.</I> All records required under this part, or copies of such records, shall be readily available for authorized inspection during the retention period at the establishment where the activities described in such records occurred and are subject to copying as part of such inspection. Records that can be immediately retrieved from another location by computer or other electronic means shall be considered as meeting the requirements of this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record requirements.</I> All records must be legible, stored to prevent deterioration or loss, and original or accurate reproductions of the original records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention period.</I> Except where otherwise provided, all records required to be maintained in compliance with this part must be maintained for a period of at least 3 years after the distribution of the batch of medical gas.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintenance of written records.</I> Written records required by this part shall be maintained so that data therein can be used for evaluating, at least annually, the quality standards of each medical gas to determine the need for changes in specifications or manufacturing or control procedures. Written procedures shall be established and followed for such evaluations and shall include provisions for:
</P>
<P>(1) A review of a representative number of batches, whether approved or rejected, and, where applicable, records associated with the batch; and
</P>
<P>(2) A review of complaints, recalls, returned or salvaged medical gases, and investigations conducted under § 213.192 for each gas.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Written procedure requirements.</I> A firm shall establish and follow written procedures to assure that responsible officials of the firm are notified in writing of any recalls, reports of inspectional observations by FDA, regulatory actions related to good manufacturing practices brought by FDA, or investigations resulting from adverse event complaints.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.182" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.182   Equipment cleaning and use log.</HEAD>
<P>A written record of major equipment cleaning, maintenance (except routine maintenance such as lubrication and adjustments), and use shall be included in individual equipment logs that show the date, time, product, and lot number of each batch processed. If equipment is dedicated to manufacture of one product, then individual equipment logs are not required, provided that lots or batches of such product follow in numerical order and are manufactured in numerical sequence. In cases where dedicated equipment is employed, the records of cleaning, maintenance, and use shall be part of the batch record. The persons performing and double-checking the cleaning and maintenance (or, if the cleaning and maintenance is performed using automated equipment under § 213.68, just the person verifying the cleaning and maintenance done by the automated equipment) shall date and sign or initial the log indicating that the work was performed. Entries in the log shall be in chronological order.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.184" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.184   Records for components, medical gas containers and closures, and labeling.</HEAD>
<P>Records for components, medical gas containers and closures, and labeling shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The results of any test or examination performed (including those performed as required by § 213.84 or § 213.122) and the conclusions derived therefrom.
</P>
<P>(b) Documentation of the examination and review of labels and labeling for conformity with established specifications in accordance with §§ 213.122 and 213.130.
</P>
<P>(c) The disposition of rejected components, medical gas containers and closures, and labeling.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.186" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.186   Master production and control records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To assure uniformity from batch to batch, master production and control records for each medical gas shall be prepared, dated, and signed. The preparation of master production and control records shall be described in a written procedure and such written procedure shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) Master production and control records shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and strength of the medical gas;
</P>
<P>(2) A complete list of components and any incoming designated medical gases used in manufacturing designated by names or codes sufficiently specific to indicate any special quality characteristic;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the medical gas containers and closures, packaging materials, and labels; and
</P>
<P>(4) Complete manufacturing and control instructions, sampling and testing procedures, specifications, special notations, and precautions to be followed.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.189" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.189   Batch production and control records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Batch production and control records shall be prepared for each batch of medical gas produced.
</P>
<P>(b) These records shall include documentation that each significant step in the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of the medical gas produced was accomplished, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Dates of each significant step, including in-process and laboratory tests as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the container for the medical gas, including the number and size of the containers filled as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) Specific identification of each component and its source or in-process material used as applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) Measures of components used in the course of processing as applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) Testing results, including any in-process test results and finished product test results;
</P>
<P>(6) Dated signature or initials of the persons performing and directly supervising or checking each significant step in the operation;
</P>
<P>(7) Inspection of the packaging and labeling area before and after use;
</P>
<P>(8) Complete labeling control records, including specimens or copies of all labeling used and label application and reconciliation records as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any investigation made according to § 213.192.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.192" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.192   Production record review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturing production and control records, including those for packaging and labeling, shall be reviewed and approved by the quality unit to determine compliance with all established, approved written procedures before a batch is released or distributed. The quality unit must review production records to determine whether errors or unexplained discrepancies have occurred prior to batch release. If errors or unexplained discrepancies have occurred, or a batch or any component of the batch fails to meet any of its specifications, the firm must thoroughly investigate and take appropriate corrective actions. A written record of the investigation shall be made and shall include the conclusions and followup.
</P>
<P>(b) For production and control records of filling at a delivery site, quality unit review as described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be within one business day after fill.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.194" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.194   Laboratory records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Laboratory records related to the manufacture of a medical gas must include complete data derived from all tests necessary to assure compliance with established specifications and standards, including examinations and assays, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the sample, the batch or lot number to be tested, the date the sample was taken, and the date the sample was tested.
</P>
<P>(2) The method used in the testing of the sample, the result of the test, how the results compare with established standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity for the component, container, closure, in-process materials (as applicable), and medical gas tested, a record of any calculations performed in connection with each test and any calculated results, and the unit of measurement of the result for each test. It is not necessary to provide the actual calculation where the result is evident through use of simple addition and subtraction.
</P>
<P>(3) Where applicable, any graphs, charts, and spectra from laboratory instrumentation, properly identified to show the specific component, in-process material, or medical gas for each lot tested.
</P>
<P>(4) The initials or signature of the person performing the test and the initials or signature of a second person showing that the original records have been reviewed for accuracy, completeness, and compliance with established standards.
</P>
<P>(b) Complete records shall be maintained of any modification of an established method employed in testing. Such records shall include the reason for the modification and data to verify that the modification produced results that are at least as accurate and reliable for the material being tested as the established method.
</P>
<P>(c) Complete records shall be maintained of any testing and standardization of laboratory reference standards, reagents, and standard solutions.
</P>
<P>(d) Complete records shall be maintained of the periodic calibration or verification of calibration of laboratory instruments, apparatus, gauges, and recording devices required by § 213.160(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) Complete records shall be maintained of all stability testing performed in accordance with § 213.166.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.196" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.196   Distribution records.</HEAD>
<P>Distribution records shall contain the name of the medical gas, lot or batch number, name and address of the consignee, and date and quantity shipped. For medically appropriate combinations of designated medical gases, the distribution record shall include the percentage of each gas.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.198" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.198   Complaint files.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written procedures shall be established and followed for the receipt and handling of all written or oral complaints concerning a medical gas. These procedures must include quality unit review of any complaint involving the possible failure of a medical gas to meet any of its specifications and provisions for determining the need for an investigation in accordance with § 213.192 as well as determining whether the complaint represents an event that is required to be reported to FDA under part 230 of this chapter. Any complaint involving a possible leak of a container or closure must be reviewed, evaluated, and investigated in accordance with § 213.192.
</P>
<P>(b) A written record of each complaint regarding a medical gas must be maintained. The record must include the name of the gas, the lot or batch number, the name of the complainant, the date the complaint was received, the nature of the complaint, and the response to the complaint. It must also include the findings of any investigation and followup. Where an investigation is not conducted, the written record shall include the reason that an investigation was found not to be necessary and the name of the responsible person making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(c) Complaint files shall be maintained in a manner such that they are readily available for inspection by the firm or by FDA during an inspection. Complaint files shall be maintained for at least 1 year after the date the complaint was received or for at least 3 years after distribution of the medical gas, whichever is longer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Returned and Salvaged Medical Gases</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.204" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.204   Returned medical gases.</HEAD>
<P>Returned medical gases shall be identified as such and held. If the conditions under which such returned gases have been held, stored, or shipped before or during their return, or if the condition of the gas, its container, carton, or labeling, as a result of storage or shipping, casts doubt on the safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the gas, the returned gas shall be destroyed unless examination, testing, or other investigations prove the gas meets appropriate standards of safety, identity, strength, quality, or purity. Records of returned medical gases shall be maintained and shall include the name, lot number (or control number or batch number), reason for the return, quantity returned, date of disposition, and ultimate disposition of the returned gas. If the reason for a medical gas being returned implicates associated batches, an appropriate investigation shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of § 213.192. Procedures for the holding, testing, and use of returned medical gases shall be in writing and shall be followed. This section is not applicable to the routine refilling of cryogenic medical gas containers in the normal course of business unless the cryogenic medical gas container was returned due to a quality issue.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.208" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.13.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.208   Salvaging of medical gases.</HEAD>
<P>Medical gases in containers that have been subjected to improper storage conditions may be salvaged unless their containers have been subjected to adverse conditions that impact the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the gas or integrity of the container closure. Whenever there is a question whether medical gases have been subjected to such conditions, salvaging operations may be conducted only if there is evidence from laboratory tests that such gases meet all applicable standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity, and the integrity of the container closure system is not compromised. Procedures for the holding, testing, and use of salvaged medical gases shall be in writing and shall be followed.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="216" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 216—HUMAN DRUG COMPOUNDING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 353a, 353b, 355, and 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 10944, Mar. 8, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Compounded Drug Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.23" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.23   Bulk drug substances that can be used to compound drug products in accordance with section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following bulk drug substances can be used in compounding under section 503A(b)(1)(A)(i)(III) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(1) Brilliant Blue G, also known as Coomassie Brilliant Blue G-250.
</P>
<P>(2) Cantharidin (for topical use only).
</P>
<P>(3) Diphenylcyclopropenone (for topical use only).
</P>
<P>(4) N-acetyl-D-glucosamine (for topical use only).
</P>
<P>(5) Squaric acid dibutyl ester (for topical use only).
</P>
<P>(6) Thymol iodide (for topical use only).
</P>
<P>(b) After balancing the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, FDA has determined that the following bulk drug substances will not be included on the list of substances that can be used in compounding set forth in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Oxitriptan.
</P>
<P>(2) Piracetam.
</P>
<P>(3) Silver Protein Mild.
</P>
<P>(4) Tranilast.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will use the following criteria in evaluating substances considered for inclusion on the list set forth in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The physical and chemical characterization of the substance;
</P>
<P>(2) Any safety issues raised by the use of the substance in compounded drug products;
</P>
<P>(3) The available evidence of the effectiveness or lack of effectiveness of a drug product compounded with the substance, if any such evidence exists; and
</P>
<P>(4) Historical use of the substance in compounded drug products, including information about the medical condition(s) the substance has been used to treat and any references in peer-reviewed medical literature.
</P>
<P>(d) Based on evidence currently available, there are inadequate data to demonstrate the safety or efficacy of any drug product compounded using any of the drug substances listed in paragraph (a) of this section, or to establish general recognition of the safety or effectiveness of any such drug product. Any person who represents that a compounded drug made with a bulk drug substance that appears on this list is FDA approved, or otherwise endorsed by FDA generally or for a particular indication, will cause the drug to be misbranded under section 502(a) and/or 502(bb) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 4710, Feb. 19, 2019]













 
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.24" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.24   Drug products withdrawn or removed from the market for reasons of safety or effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>The following drug products were withdrawn or removed from the market because such drug products or components of such drug products have been found to be unsafe or not effective. The following drug products may not be compounded under the exemptions provided by section 503A(a) or section 503B(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>Adenosine phosphate:</I> All drug products containing adenosine phosphate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Adrenal cortex:</I> All drug products containing adrenal cortex.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Alatrofloxacin mesylate:</I> All drug products containing alatrofloxacin mesylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Aminopyrine:</I> All drug products containing aminopyrine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Astemizole:</I> All drug products containing astemizole.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Azaribine:</I> All drug products containing azaribine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Benoxaprofen:</I> All drug products containing benoxaprofen.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Bithionol:</I> All drug products containing bithionol.




</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Bromfenac sodium:</I> All drug products containing bromfenac sodium (except ophthalmic solutions).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Bromocriptine mesylate:</I> All drug products containing bromocriptine mesylate for prevention of physiological lactation.




</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Butamben:</I> All parenteral drug products containing butamben.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Camphorated oil:</I> All drug products containing camphorated oil.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Carbetapentane citrate:</I> All oral gel drug products containing carbetapentane citrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Casein, iodinated:</I> All drug products containing iodinated casein.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Cerivastatin sodium:</I> All drug products containing cerivastatin sodium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Chloramphenicol:</I> All oral drug products containing chloramphenicol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Chlorhexidine gluconate:</I> All tinctures of chlorhexidine gluconate formulated for use as a patient preoperative skin preparation.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Chlormadinone acetate:</I> All drug products containing chlormadinone acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Chloroform:</I> All drug products containing chloroform.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Cisapride:</I> All drug products containing cisapride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Cobalt:</I> All drug products containing cobalt salts (except radioactive forms of cobalt and its salts and cobalamin and its derivatives).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Dexfenfluramine hydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing dexfenfluramine hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Diamthazole dihydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing diamthazole dihydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Dibromsalan:</I> All drug products containing dibromsalan.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Diethylstilbestrol:</I> All oral and parenteral drug products containing 25 milligrams or more of diethylstilbestrol per unit dose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Dihydrostreptomycin sulfate:</I> All drug products containing dihydrostreptomycin sulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Dipyrone:</I> All drug products containing dipyrone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Encainide hydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing encainide hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Esmolol hydrochloride:</I> All parenteral dosage form drug products containing esmolol hydrochloride that supply 250 milligrams/milliliter of concentrated esmolol per 10-milliliter ampule.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Etretinate:</I> All drug products containing etretinate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Fenfluramine hydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing fenfluramine hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Flosequinan:</I> All drug products containing flosequinan.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Gatifloxacin:</I> All drug products containing gatifloxacin (except ophthalmic solutions).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Gelatin:</I> All intravenous drug products containing gelatin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Glycerol, iodinated:</I> All drug products containing iodinated glycerol.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Gonadotropin, chorionic:</I> All drug products containing chorionic gonadotropins of animal origin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Grepafloxacin:</I> All drug products containing grepafloxacin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Mepazine:</I> All drug products containing mepazine hydrochloride or mepazine acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Metabromsalan:</I> All drug products containing metabromsalan.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Methamphetamine hydrochloride:</I> All parenteral drug products containing methamphetamine hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Methapyrilene:</I> All drug products containing methapyrilene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Methopholine:</I> All drug products containing methopholine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Methoxyflurane:</I> All drug products containing methoxyflurane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Mibefradil dihydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing mibefradil dihydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Nitrofurazone:</I> All drug products containing nitrofurazone (except topical drug products formulated for dermatologic application).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Nomifensine maleate:</I> All drug products containing nomifensine maleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Novobiocin sodium:</I> All drug products containing novobiocin sodium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Ondansetron hydrochloride:</I> All intravenous drug products containing greater than a 16 milligram single dose of ondansetron hydrochloride.








</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Oxyphenisatin:</I> All drug products containing oxyphenisatin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Oxyphenisatin acetate:</I> All drug products containing oxyphenisatin acetate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Pemoline:</I> All drug products containing pemoline.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Pergolide mesylate:</I> All drug products containing pergolide mesylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phenacetin:</I> All drug products containing phenacetin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phenformin hydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing phenformin hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phenylpropanolamine:</I> All drug products containing phenylpropanolamine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Pipamazine:</I> All drug products containing pipamazine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Polyethylene glycol 3350, sodium chloride, sodium bicarbonate, potassium chloride, and bisacodyl:</I> All drug products containing polyethylene glycol 3350, sodium chloride, sodium bicarbonate, and potassium chloride for oral solution, and 10 milligrams or more of bisacodyl delayed-release tablets.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Potassium arsenite:</I> All drug products containing potassium arsenite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Potassium chloride:</I> All solid oral dosage form drug products containing potassium chloride that supply 100 milligrams or more of potassium per dosage unit (except for controlled-release dosage forms and those products formulated for preparation of solution prior to ingestion).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Povidone:</I> All intravenous drug products containing povidone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Propoxyphene:</I> All drug products containing propoxyphene.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Rapacuronium bromide:</I> All drug products containing rapacuronium bromide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Reserpine:</I> All oral dosage form drug products containing more than 1 milligram of reserpine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Rofecoxib:</I> All drug products containing rofecoxib.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sibutramine hydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing sibutramine hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sparteine sulfate:</I> All drug products containing sparteine sulfate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sulfadimethoxine:</I> All drug products containing sulfadimethoxine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sulfathiazole:</I> All drug products containing sulfathiazole (except for those formulated for vaginal use).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Suprofen:</I> All drug products containing suprofen (except ophthalmic solutions).
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sweet spirits of nitre:</I> All drug products containing sweet spirits of nitre.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Tegaserod maleate:</I> All drug products containing tegaserod maleate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Temafloxacin hydrochloride:</I> All drug products containing temafloxacin hydrochloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Terfenadine:</I> All drug products containing terfenadine.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>3,3′,4′,5-tetrachlorosalicylanilide:</I> All drug products containing 3,3′,4′,5-tetrachlorosalicylanilide.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Tetracycline:</I> All liquid oral drug products formulated for pediatric use containing tetracycline in a concentration greater than 25 milligrams/milliliter.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Ticrynafen:</I> All drug products containing ticrynafen.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Tribromsalan:</I> All drug products containing tribromsalan.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Trichloroethane:</I> All aerosol drug products intended for inhalation containing trichloroethane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Troglitazone:</I> All drug products containing troglitazone.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Trovafloxacin mesylate:</I> All drug products containing trovafloxacin mesylate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Urethane:</I> All drug products containing urethane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Valdecoxib:</I> All drug products containing valdecoxib.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Vinyl chloride:</I> All aerosol drug products containing vinyl chloride.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Zirconium:</I> All aerosol drug products containing zirconium.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Zomepirac sodium:</I> All drug products containing zomepirac sodium.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69676, Oct. 7, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 63573, Dec. 11, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="225" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 225—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE FOR MEDICATED FEEDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360b, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 52618, Nov. 30, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.1   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 501(a)(2)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act provides that a drug (including a drug contained in a medicated feed) shall be deemed to be adulterated if the methods used in, or the facilities or controls used for, its manufacture, processing, packing, or holding do not conform to or are not operated or administered in conformity with current good manufacturing practice to assure that such drug meets the requirement of the act as to safety and has the identity and strength, and meets the quality and purity characteristics, which it purports or is represented to possess.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The provisions of this part set forth the criteria for determining whether the manufacture of a medicated feed is in compliance with current good manufacturing practice. These regulations shall apply to all types of facilities and equipment used in the production of medicated feeds, and they shall also govern those instances in which failure to adhere to the regulations has caused nonmedicated feeds that are manufactured, processed, packed, or held to be adulterated. In such cases, the medicated feed shall be deemed to be adulterated within the meaning of section 501(a)(2)(B) of the act, and the nonmedicated feed shall be deemed to be adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(2)(C)(ii) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) The regulations in §§ 225.10 through 225.115 apply to facilities manufacturing one or more medicated feeds for which an approved medicated feed mill license is required. The regulations in §§ 225.120 through 225.202 apply to facilities manufacturing solely medicated feeds for which an approved license is not required.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the recordkeeping requirements in this part, Type B and Type C medicated feeds made from Type A articles or Type B feeds under approved NADAs or indexed listings and a medicated feed mill license are subject to the requirements of § 510.301 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 52618, Nov. 30, 1976, as amended at 51 FR 7389, Mar. 3, 1986; 64 FR 63203, Nov. 19, 1999; 72 FR 69120, Dec. 6, 2007; 79 FR 3739, Jan. 23, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.10   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Qualified personnel and adequate personnel training and supervision are essential for the proper formulation, manufacture, and control of medicated feeds. Training and experience leads to proper use of equipment, maintenance of accurate records, and detection and prevention of possible deviations from current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) All employees involved in the manufacture of medicated feeds shall have an understanding of the manufacturing or control operation(s) which they perform, including the location and proper use of equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer shall provide an on-going program of evaluation and supervision of employees in the manufacture of medicated feeds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 52618, Nov. 30, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 12426, Mar. 4, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Construction and Maintenance of Facilities and Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.20" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.20   Buildings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The location, design, construction, and physical size of the buildings and other production facilities are factors important to the manufacture of medicated feed. The features of facilities necessary for the proper manufacture of medicated feed include provision for ease of access to structures and equipment in need of routine maintenance; ease of cleaning of equipment and work areas; facilities to promote personnel hygiene; structural conditions for control and prevention of vermin and pest infestation; adequate space for the orderly receipt and storage of drugs and feed ingredients and the controlled flow of these materials through the processing and manufacturing operations; and the equipment for the accurate packaging and delivery of a medicated feed of specified labeling and composition.
</P>
<P>(b) The construction and maintenance of buildings in which medicated feeds are manufactured, processed, packaged, labeled, or held shall conform to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The building grounds shall be adequately drained and routinely maintained so that they are reasonably free from litter, waste, refuse, uncut weeds or grass, standing water, and improperly stored equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) The building(s) shall be maintained in a reasonably clean and orderly manner.
</P>
<P>(3) The building(s) shall be of suitable construction to minimize access by rodents, birds, insects, and other pests.
</P>
<P>(4) The buildings shall provide adequate space and lighting for the proper performance of the following medicated feed manufacturing operations:
</P>
<P>(i) The receipt, control, and storage of components.
</P>
<P>(ii) Component processing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Medicated feed manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Packaging and labeling.
</P>
<P>(v) Storage of containers, packaging materials, labeling and finished products.
</P>
<P>(vi) Routine maintenance of equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.30" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.30   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Equipment which is designed to perform its intended function and is properly installed and used is essential to the manufacture of medicated feeds. Such equipment permits production of feeds of uniform quality, facilitates cleaning, and minimizes spillage of drug components and finished product.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) All equipment shall possess the capability to produce a medicated feed of intended potency, safety, and purity.
</P>
<P>(2) All equipment shall be maintained in a reasonably clean and orderly manner.
</P>
<P>(3) All equipment, including scales and liquid metering devices, shall be of suitable size, design, construction, precision, and accuracy for its intended purpose.
</P>
<P>(4) All scales and metering devices shall be tested for accuracy upon installation and at least once a year thereafter, or more frequently as may be necessary to insure their accuracy.
</P>
<P>(5) All equipment shall be so constructed and maintained as to prevent lubricants and coolants from becoming unsafe additives in feed components or medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(6) All equipment shall be designed, constructed, installed and maintained so as to facilitate inspection and use of cleanout procedure(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.35" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.35   Use of work areas, equipment, and storage areas for other manufacturing and storage purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Many manufacturers of medicated feeds are also involved in the manufacture, storage, or handling of products which are not intended for animal feed use, such as fertilizers, herbicides, insecticides, fungicides, rodenticides, and other pesticides. Manufacturing, storage, or handling of nonfeed and feed products in the same facilities may cause adulteration of feed products with toxic or otherwise unapproved feed additives.
</P>
<P>(b) Work areas and equipment used for the manufacture or storage of medicated feeds or components thereof shall not be used for, and shall be physically separated from, work areas and equipment used for the manufacture of fertilizers, herbicides, insecticides, fungicides, rodenticides, and other pesticides unless such articles are approved drugs, indexed drugs, or approved food additives intended for use in the manufacture of medicated feed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 52618, Nov. 30, 1976, as amended at 72 FR 69120, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Product Quality Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.42" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.42   Components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A medicated feed, in addition to providing nutrients, is a vehicle for the administration of a drug, or drugs, to animals. To ensure proper safety and effectiveness, such medicated feeds must contain the labeled amounts of drugs. It is necessary that adequate procedures be established for the receipt, storage, and inventory control for all such drugs to aid in assuring their identity, strength, quality, and purity when incorporated into products.
</P>
<P>(b) The receipt, storage, and inventory of drugs, including undiluted drug components, medicated premixes, and semiprocessed (i.e., intermediate premixes, inplant premixes and concentrates) intermediate mixes containing drugs, which are used in the manufacture and processing of medicated feeds shall conform to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Incoming shipments of drugs shall be visually examined for identity and damage. Drugs which have been subjected to conditions which may have adversely affected their identity, strength, quality, or purity shall not be accepted for use.
</P>
<P>(2) Packaged drugs in the storage areas shall be stored in their original closed containers.
</P>
<P>(3) Bulk drugs shall be identified and stored in a manner such that their identity, strength, quality, and purity will be maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) Drugs in the mixing areas shall be properly identified, stored, handled, and controlled to maintain their integrity and identity. Sufficient space shall be provided for the location of each drug.
</P>
<P>(5) A receipt record shall be prepared and maintained for each lot of drug received. The receipt record shall accurately indicate the identity and quantity of the drug, the name of the supplier, the supplier's lot number or an identifying number assigned by the feed manufacturer upon receipt which relates to the particular shipment, the date of receipt, the condition of the drug when received, and the return of any damaged drugs.
</P>
<P>(6) A daily inventory record for each drug used shall be maintained and shall list by manufacturer's lot number or the feed manufacturer's shipment identification number at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of drug on hand at the beginning and end of the work day (the beginning amount being the same as the previous day's closing inventory if this amount has been established to be correct); the quantity shall be determined by weighing, counting, or measuring, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of each drug used, sold, or otherwise disposed of.
</P>
<P>(iii) The batches or production runs of medicated feed in which each drug was used.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the drug is used in the preparation of a semiprocessed intermediate mix intended for use in the manufacture of medicated feed, any additional information which may be required for the purpose of paragraph (b)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Action taken to reconcile any discrepancies in the daily inventory record.
</P>
<P>(7) Drug inventory shall be maintained of each lot or shipment of drug by means of a daily comparison of the actual amount of drug used with the theoretical drug usage in terms of the semiprocessed, intermediate and finished medicated feeds manufactured. Any significant discrepancy shall be investigated and corrective action taken. The medicated feed(s) remaining on the premises which are affected by this discrepancy shall be detained until the discrepancy is reconciled.
</P>
<P>(8) All records required by this section shall be maintained on the premises for at least one year after complete use of a drug component of a specific lot number or feed manufacturer's shipment identification number.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.58" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.58   Laboratory controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The periodic assay of medicated feeds for drug components provides a measure of performance of the manufacturing process in manufacturing a uniform product of intended potency.
</P>
<P>(b) The following assay requirements shall apply to medicated feeds:
</P>
<P>(1) For feeds requiring a medicated feed mill license (Form FDA 3448) for their manufacture and marketing, at least three representative samples of medicated feed containing each drug or drug combination used in the establishment shall be collected and assayed by approved official methods, at periodic intervals during the calendar year, unless otherwise specified in this chapter. At least one of these assays shall be performed on the first batch using the drug. If a medicated feed contains a combination of drugs, only one of the drugs need be subject to analysis each time, provided the one tested is different from the one(s) previously tested.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) The originals or copies of all results of assays, including those from State feed control officials and any other governmental agency, shall be maintained on the premises for a period of not less than 1 year after distribution of the medicated feed. The results of assays performed by State feed control officials may be considered toward fulfillment of the periodic assay requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the results of assays indicate that the medicated feed is not in accord with label specifications or is not within permissible assay limits as specified in this chapter, investigation and corrective action shall be implemented and an original or copy of the record of such action maintained on the premises.
</P>
<P>(e) Corrective action shall include provisions for discontinuing distribution where the medicated feed fails to meet the labeled drug potency. Distribution of subsequent production of the particular feed shall not begin until it has been determined that proper control procedures have been established.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 52618, Nov. 30, 1976, as amended at 51 FR 7390, Mar. 3, 1986; 55 FR 11577, Mar. 29, 1990; 64 FR 63203, Nov. 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.65" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.65   Equipment cleanout procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Adequate cleanout procedures for all equipment used in the manufacture and distribution of medicated feeds are essential to maintain proper drug potency and avoid unsafe contamination of feeds with drugs. Such procedures may consist of cleaning by physical means, e.g., vacuuming, sweeping, washing, etc. Alternatively, flushing or sequencing or other equally effective techniques may be used whereby the equipment is cleaned either through use of a feed containing the same drug(s) or through use of drug free feedstuffs.
</P>
<P>(b) All equipment, including that used for storage, processing, mixing, conveying, and distribution that comes in contact with the active drug component, feeds in process, or finished medicated feed shall be subject to all reasonable and effective procedures to prevent unsafe contamination of manufactured feed. The steps used to prevent unsafe contamination of feeds shall include one or more of the following, or other equally effective procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Such procedures shall, where appropriate, consist of physical means (vacuuming, sweeping, or washing), flushing, and/or sequential production of feeds.
</P>
<P>(2) If flushing is utilized, the flush material shall be properly identified, stored, and used in a manner to prevent unsafe contamination of other feeds.
</P>
<P>(3) If sequential production of medicated feeds is utilized, it shall be on a predetermined basis designed to prevent unsafe contamination of feeds with residual drugs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Packaging and Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.80" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.80   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appropriate labeling identifies the medicated feed, and provides the user with directions for use which, if adhered to, will assure that the article is safe and effective for its intended purposes.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Labels and labeling, including placards, shall be received, handled, and stored in a manner that prevents labeling mixups and assures that correct labeling is employed for the medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(2) Labels and labeling, including placards, upon receipt from the printer shall be proofread against the Master Record File to verify their suitability and accuracy. The proofread label shall be dated, initialed by a responsible individual, and kept for 1 year after all the labels from that batch have been used.
</P>
<P>(3) In those instances where medicated feeds are distributed in bulk, complete labeling shall accompany the shipment and be supplied to the consignee at the time of delivery. Such labeling may consist of a placard or other labels attached to the invoice or delivery ticket, or manufacturer's invoice that identifies the medicated feed and includes adequate information for the safe and effective use of the medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(4) Label stock shall be reviewed periodically and discontinued labels shall be discarded.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.102" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.102   Master record file and production records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Master Record File provides the complete procedure for manufacturing a specific product, setting forth the formulation, theoretical yield, manufacturing procedures, assay requirements, and labeling of batches or production runs. The production record(s) includes the complete history of a batch or production run. This record includes the amounts of drugs used, the amount of medicated feed manufactured, and provides a check for the daily inventory record of drug components.
</P>
<P>(b) The Master Record File and production records shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) A Master Record File shall be prepared, checked, dated, and signed or initialed by a qualified person and shall be retained for not less than 1 year after production of the last batch or production run of medicated feed to which it pertains. The Master Record File or card shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and weight percentage or measure of each drug or drug combination and each nondrug ingredient to be used in manufacturing a stated weight of the medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy or description of the label or labeling that will accompany the medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Manufacturing instructions or reference thereto that have been determined to yield a properly mixed medicated feed of the specified formula for each medicated feed produced on a batch or continuous operation basis, including mixing steps, mixing times and, in the case of medicated feeds produced by continuous production run, any additional manufacturing directions including, when indicated, the settings of equipment.
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate control directions or reference thereto, including the manner and frequency of collecting the required number of samples for specified laboratory assay.
</P>
<P>(2) The original production record or copy thereof shall be prepared by qualified personnel for each batch or run of medicated feed produced and shall be retained on the premises for not less than 1 year. The production record shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Product identification, date of production, and a written endorsement in the form of a signature or initials by a responsible individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantity and name of drug components used.
</P>
<P>(iii) The theoretical quantity of medicated feed to be produced.
</P>
<P>(iv) The actual quantity of medicated feed produced. In those instances where the finished feed is stored in bulk and actual yield cannot be accurately determined, the firm shall estimate the quantity produced and provide the basis for such estimate in the Master Record File.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a custom formula feed made to the specifications of a customer, the Master Record File and production records required by this section shall consist either of such records or of copies of the customer's purchase orders and the manufacturer's invoices bearing the information required by this section. When a custom order is received by telephone, the manufacturer shall prepare the required production records.
</P>
<P>(4) Batch production records shall be checked by a responsible individual at the end of the working day in which the product was manufactured to determine whether all required production steps have been performed. If significant discrepancies are noted, an investigation shall be instituted immediately, and the production record shall describe the corrective action taken.
</P>
<P>(5) Each batch or production run of medicated feed shall be identified with its own individual batch or production run number, code, date, or other suitable identification applied to the label, package, invoice or shipping document. This identification shall permit the tracing of the complete and accurate manufacturing history of the product by the manufacturer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.110" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.110   Distribution records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Distribution records permit the manufacturer to relate complaints to specific batches and/or production runs of medicated feed. This information may be helpful in instituting a recall.
</P>
<P>(b) Distribution records for each shipment of a medicated feed shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Each distribution record shall include the date of shipment, the name and address of purchaser, the quantity shipped, and the name of the medicated feed. A lot or control number, or date of manufacture or other suitable identification shall appear on the distribution record or the label issued with each shipment.
</P>
<P>(2) The originals or copies of the distribution records shall be retained on the premises for not less than one year after the date of shipment of the medicated feed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.115" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.115   Complaint files.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Complaints and reports of experiences of product defects relative to the drug's efficacy or safety may provide an indicator as to whether or not medicated feeds have been manufactured in conformity with current good manufacturing practices. These complaints and experiences may reveal the existence of manufacturing problems not otherwise detected through the normal quality control procedures. Timely and appropriate follow-up action can serve to correct a problem and minimize future problems.
</P>
<P>(b) The medicated feed manufacturer shall maintain on the premises a file which contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The original or copy of a record of each oral and written complaint received relating to the safety and effectiveness of the product produced. The record shall include the date of the complaint, the complainant's name and address, name and lot or control number or date of manufacture of the medicated feed involved, and the specific details of the complaint. This record shall also include all correspondence from the complainant and/or memoranda of conversations with the complainant, and a description of all investigations made by the manufacturer and of the method of disposition of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) For medicated feeds whose manufacture require a medicated feed mill license (Form FDA 3448), records and reports of clinical and other experience with the drug shall be maintained and reported, under § 510.301 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 52618, Nov. 30, 1976, as amended at 51 FR 7390, Mar. 3, 1986; 57 FR 6475, Feb. 25, 1992; 64 FR 63203, Nov. 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Facilities and Equipment</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 7390, Mar. 3, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.120" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.120   Buildings and grounds.</HEAD>
<P>Buildings used for production of medicated feed shall provide adequate space for equipment, processing, and orderly receipt and storage of medicated feed. Areas shall include access for routine maintenance and cleaning of equipment. Buildings and grounds shall be constructed and maintained in a manner to minimize vermin and pest infestation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.130" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.130   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>Equipment shall be capable of producing a medicated feed of intended potency and purity, and shall be maintained in a reasonably clean and orderly manner. Scales and liquid metering devices shall be accurate and of suitable size, design, construction, precision, and accuracy for their intended purposes. All equipment shall be designed, constructed, installed, and maintained so as to facilitate inspection and use of cleanout procedure(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.135" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.135   Work and storage areas.</HEAD>
<P>Work areas and equipment used for the production or storage of medicated feeds or components thereof shall not be used for, and shall be physically separated from, work areas and equipment used for the manufacture and storage of fertilizers, herbicides, insecticides, fungicides, rodenticides, and other pesticides unless such articles are approved or index listed for use in the manufacture of animal feed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 69120, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Product Quality Assurance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 7390, Mar. 3, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.142" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.142   Components.</HEAD>
<P>Adequate procedures shall be established and maintained for the identification, storage, and inventory control (receipt and use) of all Type A medicated articles and Type B medicated feeds intended for use in the manufacture of medicated feeds to aid in assuring the identity, strength, quality, and purity of these drug sources. Packaged Type A medicated articles and Type B medicated feeds shall be stored in designated areas in their original closed containers. Bulk Type A medicated articles and bulk Type B medicated feeds shall be identified and stored in a manner such that their identity, strength, quality, and purity will be maintained. All Type A medicated articles and Type B medicated feeds shall be used in accordance with their labeled mixing directions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.158" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.158   Laboratory assays.</HEAD>
<P>Where the results of laboratory assays of drug components, including assays by State feed control officials, indicate that the medicated feed is not in accord with the permissible limits specified in this chapter, investigation and corrective action shall be implemented immediately by the firm and such records shall be maintained on the premises for a period of 1 year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.165" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.165   Equipment cleanout procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Adequate procedures shall be established and used for all equipment used in the production and distribution of medicated feeds to avoid unsafe contamination of medicated and nonmedicated feeds.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.180" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.180   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>Labels shall be received, handled, and stored in a manner that prevents label mixups and assures that the correct labels are used for the medicated feed. All deliveries of medicated feeds, whether bagged or in bulk, shall be adequately labeled to assure that the feed can be properly used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 7390, Mar. 3, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.202" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.15.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.202   Formula, production, and distribution records.</HEAD>
<P>Records shall be maintained identifying the formulation, date of mixing, and if not for own use, date of shipment. The records shall be adequate to facilitate the recall of specific batches of medicated feed that have been distributed. Such records shall be retained on the premises for 1 year following the date of last distribution.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0152)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 7390, Mar. 3, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="226" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 226—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE FOR TYPE A MEDICATED ARTICLES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360b, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 14031, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.1   Current good manufacturing practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria in §§ 226.10 through 226.115, inclusive, shall apply in determining whether the methods used in, or the facilities and controls used for the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of a Type A medicated article(s) conform to or are operated or administered in conformity with current good manufacturing practice to assure that a Type A medicated article(s) meets the requirements of the act as to safety, and has the identity and strength, and meets the quality and purity characteristics which it purports or is represented to possess, as required by section 501(a)(2)(B) of the act. The regulations in this part 226 permit the use of precision, automatic, mechanical, or electronic equipment in the production of a Type A medicated article(s) when adequate inspection and checking procedures or other quality control procedures are used to assure proper performance.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to maintaining records and reports required in this part, Type A medicated articles requiring approved NADAs are subject to the requirements of § 514.80 of this chapter. Similarly, Type A medicated articles listed in the index are subject to the requirements of § 516.165 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14031, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 68 FR 15364, Mar. 31, 2003; 72 FR 69120, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.10   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The key personnel and any consultants involved in the manufacture and control of the Type A medicated article(s) shall have a background of appropriate education or appropriate experience or combination thereof for assuming responsibility to assure that the Type A medicated article(s) has the proper labeling and the safety, identity, strength, quality, and purity that it purports to possess.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Construction and Maintenance of Facilities and Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.20" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.20   Buildings.</HEAD>
<P>Buildings in which Type A medicated article(s) are manufactured, processed, packaged, labeled, or held shall be maintained in a clear and orderly manner and shall be of suitable size, construction and location in relation to surroundings to facilitate maintenance and operation for their intended purpose. The building shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide adequate space for the orderly placement of equipment and materials used in any of the following operations for which they are employed to minimize risk of mixups between different Type A medicated article(s), their components, packaging, or labeling:
</P>
<P>(1) The receipt, sampling, control, and storage of components.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturing and processing operations performed on the Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(3) Packaging and labeling operations.
</P>
<P>(4) Storage of containers, packaging materials, labeling, and finished products.
</P>
<P>(5) Control laboratory operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide adequate lighting and ventilation, and when necessary for the intended production or control purposes, adequate screening, dust and temperature controls, to avoid contamination of Type A medicated article(s), and to avoid other conditions unfavorable to the safety, identity, strength, quality, and purity of the raw materials and Type A medicated article(s) before, during, and after production.
</P>
<P>(c) Provide for adequate washing, cleaning, toilet, and locker facilities.
</P>
<FP>Work areas and equipment used for the production of Type A medicated article(s) or for the storage of the components of Type A medicated article(s) shall not be used for the production, mixing or storage of finished or unfinished insecticides, fungicides, rodenticides, or other pesticides or their components unless such materials are recognized as approved drugs intended for use in animal feeds.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.30" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.30   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>Equipment used for the manufacture, processing, packaging, bulk shipment, labeling, holding, or control of Type A medicated article(s) or their components shall be maintained in a clean and orderly manner and shall be of suitable design, size, construction, and location to facilitate maintenance and operation for its intended purpose. The equipment shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Be so constructed that any surfaces that come into contact with Type A medicated article(s) are suitable, in that they are not reactive, additive, or absorptive to an extent that significantly affects the identity, strength, quality, or purity of the Type A medicated article(s) or its components.
</P>
<P>(b) Be so constructed that any substance required for the operation of the equipment, such as lubricants, coolants, etc., may be employed without hazard of becoming an unsafe additive to the Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(c) Be constructed to facilitate adjustment, cleaning, and maintenance, and to assure uniformity of production and reliability of control procedures and to assure the exclusion from Type A medicated article(s) of contamination, including cross-contamination from manufacturing operations.
</P>
<P>(d) Be suitably grounded electrically to prevent lack of uniform mixing due to electrically charged particles.
</P>
<P>(e) Be of suitable size and accuracy for use in any intended measuring, mixing, or weighing operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Product Quality Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.40" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.40   Production and control procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Production and control procedures shall include all reasonable precautions, including the following, to assure that the Type A medicated article(s) produced have the identity, strength, quality, and purity they purport to possess:
</P>
<P>(a) Each critical step in the process, such as the selection, weighing, and measuring of components; the addition of drug components during the process; weighing and measuring during various stages of the processing; and the determination of the finished yield, shall be performed by one or more competent, responsible individuals. If such steps in the processing are controlled by precision, automatic, mechanical, or electronic equipment, their proper performance shall be adequately checked by one or more competent, responsible individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) All containers to be used for undiluted drugs, drug components, intermediate mixtures thereof, and Type A medicated article(s) shall be received, adequately identified, and properly stored and handled in a manner adequate to avoid mixups and contamination.
</P>
<P>(c) Equipment, including dust-control and other equipment, such as that used for holding and returning recovered or flush-out materials back into production, shall be maintained and operated in a manner to avoid contamination of the Type A medicated article(s) and to insure the integrity of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(d) Competent and responsible personnel shall check actual against theoretical yield of a batch of Type A medicated article(s), and, in the event of any significant discrepancies, key personnel shall prevent distribution of the batch in question and other associated batches of Type A medicated article(s) that may have been involved in a mixup with it.
</P>
<P>(e) Adequate procedures for cleaning of those parts of storage, mixing conveying and other equipment coming in contact with the drug component of the Type A medicated article(s) shall be used to avoid contamination of Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(f) If there is sequential production of batches of a Type A medicated article(s) containing the same drug component (or components) at the same or lower levels, there shall be sufficient safeguards to avoid any buildup above the specified levels of the drug components in any of the batches of the Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(g) Production and control procedures shall include provision for discontinuing distribution of any Type A medicated article(s) found by the assay procedures, or other controls performed to fail to conform to appropriate specifications. Distribution of subsequent production of such Type A medicated article(s) shall not begin until it has been determined that proper control procedures have been established.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.42" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.42   Components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drug components, including undiluted drugs and any intermediate mixes containing drugs used in the manufacture and processing of Type A medicated article(s), shall be received, examined or tested, stored, handled, and otherwise controlled in a manner to maintain the integrity and identification of such articles. Appropriate receipt and inventory records shall be maintained for 2 years, and such records shall show the origin of any drug components, the manufacturer's control number (if any), the dates and batches in which they were used, and the results of any testing of them.
</P>
<P>(b) Nondrug components shall be stored and otherwise handled in a manner to avoid contamination, including cross-contamination from manufacturing operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.58" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.58   Laboratory controls.</HEAD>
<P>Laboratory controls shall include the establishment of adequate specifications and test procedures to assure that the drug components and the Type A medicated article(s) conform to appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. Laboratory controls shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) The establishment of master records containing appropriate specifications and a description of the test procedures used to check them for each kind of drug component used in the manufacture of Type A medicated article(s). This may consist of the manufacturer's or supplier's statement of specifications and methods of analyses.
</P>
<P>(b) The establishment of specifications for Type A medicated article(s) and a description of necessary laboratory test procedures to check such specifications.
</P>
<P>(c) Assays which shall be made of representative samples of finished Type A medicated article(s) in accordance with the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(1) Each batch of a Type A medicated article(s) manufactured from an undiluted drug shall be assayed for its drug component(s).
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Type A medicated article(s) which are manufactured by dilution of Type A medicated article(s) assayed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, each batch shall be assayed for its drug component(s) with the first five consecutive batches assaying within the limitations, followed thereafter by assay of representative samples of not less than 5 percent of all batches produced. When any batch does not assay within limitations, each batch should again be assayed until five consecutive batches are within limitations.
</P>
<P>(d) A determination establishing that the drug components remain uniformly dispersed and stable in the Type A medicated article(s) under ordinary conditions of shipment, storage, and use. This may consist of a determination on a Type A medicated article(s) of substantially the same formula and characteristics. Suitable expiration dates shall appear on the labels of the Type A medicated article(s) to assure that the articles meet the appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity at the time of use.
</P>
<P>(e) Adequate provision to check the reliability, accuracy, and precision of any laboratory test procedure used. The official methods in “Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> methods described in an official compendium, and any method submitted as a part of a food additive petition or new-drug application that has been accepted by the Food and Drug Administration shall be regarded as meeting this provision.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies may be obtained from: AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) Provisions for the maintenance of the results of any assays, including dates and endorsement of analysts. Such records shall be retained in the possession of the manufacturer and shall be maintained for a period of at least 2 years after distribution by the manufacturer of the Type A medicated article(s) has been completed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14031, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 55 FR 11577, Mar. 29, 1990; 55 FR 23703, June 12, 1990; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Packaging and Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.80" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.80   Packaging and labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Packaging and labeling operations shall be adequately controlled:
</P>
<P>(1) To assure that only those Type A medicated article(s) that have met the specifications established in the master-formula records shall be distributed.
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent mixups during the packaging and labeling operations.
</P>
<P>(3) To assure that correct labeling is employed for each Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(4) To identify Type A medicated article(s) with lot or control numbers that permit determination of the history of the manufacture and control of the batch of Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(b) Packaging and labeling operations shall provide:
</P>
<P>(1) For storage of labeling in a manner to avoid mixups.
</P>
<P>(2) For careful checking of labeling for identity and conformity to the labeling specified in the batch-production records.
</P>
<P>(3) For adequate control of the quantities of labeling issued for use with the Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(c) Type A medicated article(s) shall be distributed in suitable containers to insure the safety, identity, strength, and quality of the finished product.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.102" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.102   Master-formula and batch-production records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each Type A medicated article(s) master-formula records shall be prepared, endorsed, and dated by a competent and responsible individual and shall be independently checked, reconciled, endorsed, and dated by a second competent and responsible individual. The record shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the Type A medicated article(s) and a specimen copy of its label.
</P>
<P>(2) The weight or measure of each ingredient, adequately identified, to be used in manufacturing a stated weight of the Type A medicated article(s).
</P>
<P>(3) A complete formula for each batch size, or of appropriate size in the case of continuous systems to be produced from the master-formula record, including a complete list of ingredients designated by names or codes sufficiently specific to indicate any special quality characteristics; an accurate statement of the weight or measure of each ingredient, except that reasonable variations may be permitted in the amount of ingredients necessary in the preparation of the Type A medicated article(s), provided that the variations are stated in the master formula; an appropriate statement concerning any calculated excess of an ingredient; and a statement of the theoretical yield.
</P>
<P>(4) Manufacturing instructions for each type of Type A medicated article(s) produced on a batch or continuous operation basis, including mixing steps and mixing times that have been determined to yield an adequately mixed Type A medicated article(s); and in the case of Type A medicated article(s) produced by continuous production run, any additional manufacturing directions including, when indicated, the settings of equipment that have been determined to yield an adequately mixed Type A medicated article(s) of the specified formula.
</P>
<P>(5) Control instructions, procedures, specifications, special notations, and precautions to be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) A separate batch-production and control record shall be prepared for each batch or run of Type A medicated article(s) produced and shall be retained for at least 2 years after distribution by the manufacturer has been completed. The batch-production and control record shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Product identification, date of production, and endorsement by a competent and responsible individual.
</P>
<P>(2) Records of each step in the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, and controlling of the batch, including dates, specific identification of drug components used, weights or measures of all components, laboratory-control results, mixing times, and the endorsements of the individual actively performing or the individual actively supervising or checking each step in the operation.
</P>
<P>(3) A batch number that permits determination of all laboratory-control procedures and results on the batch and all lot or control numbers appearing on the labels of the Type A medicated article(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.110" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.110   Distribution records.</HEAD>
<P>Complete records shall be maintained for each shipment of Type A medicated article(s) in a manner that will facilitate the recall, diversion, or destruction of the Type A medicated article(s), if necessary. Such records shall be retained for at least 2 years after the date of the shipment by the manufacturer and shall include the name and address of the consignee, the date and quantity shipped, and the manufacturing dates, control numbers, or marks identifying the Type A medicated article(s) shipped.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.115" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.16.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.115   Complaint files.</HEAD>
<P>Records shall be maintained for a period of 2 years of all written or verbal complaints concerning the safety or efficacy of each Type A medicated article(s). Complaints shall be evaluated by competent and responsible personnel and, where indicated, appropriate action shall be taken. The record shall indicate the evaluation and the action.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="230" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 230—CERTIFICATION AND POSTMARKETING REPORTING FOR DESIGNATED MEDICAL GASES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 355a, 355f, 356, 356a, 356b, 356c, 356e, 360b, 360cc, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 371, 374, 379e, 379k-1, 381.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 51777, June 18, 2024, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.1   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth procedures and requirements for the submission to, and the review by, the Food and Drug Administration of certifications to market designated medical gases under sections 575 and 576 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as well as amendments and supplements to those certifications. This part also sets forth the postmarketing safety reporting requirements for designated medical gases.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish an efficient process for the certification of designated medical gases and to establish an effective system for surveillance of such gases.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations contained in sections 201 and 575 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to those terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms apply to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Adverse event</I> means any untoward medical occurrence associated with the use of a designated medical gas in humans or animals, whether or not it is considered related to the designated medical gas. An adverse event can occur in the course of the use of a designated medical gas; from overdose of a designated medical gas, whether accidental or intentional; from abuse of a designated medical gas; from discontinuation of the designated medical gas (<I>e.g.,</I> physiological withdrawal); and it includes any failure of expected pharmacological action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicant</I> means any person who submits a certification request for a designated medical gas under this part, including a supplement, and any person who owns a granted certification for a designated medical gas under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certification request</I> means a submission under section 576 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act requesting certification of a medical gas as a designated medical gas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>FDA</I> or <I>Agency</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Individual case safety report</I> (ICSR) means a description of an adverse event related to an individual patient or subject.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>ICSR attachments</I> means documents related to the adverse event described in an ICSR, such as medical records, hospital discharge summaries, or other documentation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Life-threatening adverse event</I> means any adverse event that places the patient, in the view of the initial reporter, at <I>immediate</I> risk of death from the adverse event as it occurred, <I>i.e.,</I> it does not include an adverse event that, had it occurred in a more severe form, might have caused death.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Minimum data set for an ICSR for an adverse event</I> means the minimum four elements required for reporting an ICSR of an adverse event: An identifiable patient, an identifiable reporter, a suspect designated medical gas, and an adverse event.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Nonapplicant</I> means any person other than the applicant whose name appears on the label of a designated medical gas container as a manufacturer, packer, or distributor.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Serious adverse event</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An adverse event is considered “serious” if it results in any of the following outcomes:
</P>
<P>(A) Death;
</P>
<P>(B) A life-threatening adverse event;
</P>
<P>(C) Inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization;
</P>
<P>(D) A persistent or significant incapacity or substantial disruption of the ability to conduct normal life functions; and/or
</P>
<P>(E) A congenital anomaly/birth defect.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other events that may be considered serious adverse events: Important medical events that may not result in one of the listed outcomes in this definition may be considered serious adverse events when, based upon appropriate medical judgment, they may jeopardize the patient or study subject and may require medical or surgical intervention to prevent one of the outcomes listed in this paragraph (b)(10). Examples include: Allergic bronchospasm requiring intensive treatment in an emergency department or at home, blood dyscrasias or convulsions that do not result in inpatient hospitalization, or the development of product dependency or product abuse. Additional examples in animals include: Severe hypersensitivity reactions or respiratory distress.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Certification of Designated Medical Gases</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.50" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.50   General requirements for all submission types.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must submit a request for certification.</I> (1) The certification process described in this subpart applies to designated medical gases for the indications described in section 576(a)(3)(A)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Any person who seeks to initially introduce or deliver for introduction a designated medical gas into interstate commerce shall file a request for certification. The certification process is the same for all designated medical gases, regardless of whether it is intended for human use, animal use, or both. The applicant must identify its intention to market its designated medical gas for human use, animal use, or both.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person that proposes to market a medical gas that is a new drug for human use must obtain approval under part 314 of this chapter, and any person that proposes to market a medical gas that is a new animal drug for animal use must obtain approval under part 514 of this chapter, unless—
</P>
<P>(i) The medical gas meets the definition of a designated medical gas; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The medical gas is proposed to be marketed alone or in combination (as medically appropriate) with another designated medical gas or other designated medical gases, for which a certification or certifications have been granted, for a use described under section 576(a)(3)(A)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The applicant must include the following information in its certification request</I>—(1) <I>Applicant information.</I> The applicant must identify the name, address, telephone number, and email address of the person requesting certification. If the address of the person requesting certification is not in the United States, the certification request is required to contain the name and address of, and be countersigned by, an attorney, agent, or other authorized official who resides or maintains a place of business within the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type of submission.</I> The applicant must indicate the type of submission as one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Original certification request.</I> An initial request submitted by an applicant for certification of a medical gas as a designated medical gas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amendment to a pending certification request.</I> Any submission related to a pending submission that revises existing information or provides additional information, including responses to Information Request Letters.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Resubmission.</I> Any submission that has been revised and submitted again following a previous denial. If an applicant chooses to resubmit its submission, it must provide a written response to the deficiencies identified in FDA's denial letter, along with other information required for certification requests.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Supplement to a granted certification.</I> Any submission that contains a change to a granted certification.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other.</I> Any submission that does not fit in one of the other categories.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Description of medical gas.</I> A separate certification request is required to be submitted for each designated medical gas for which certification is sought. Each designated medical gas certification request must include the name of the medical gas and a certification statement from the applicant that the designated medical gas meets the appropriate compendial standard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Facility information.</I> Each certification request must include the name and address of the facility or facilities where the designated medical gas will be initially produced. For each facility, include a brief description of the manufacturing or processing activities performed, the FDA Establishment Identifier, if one exists, and the Unique Facility Identifier in accordance with the requirements of part 207 of this chapter and section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. For amendments and supplements, only changes to the list of facilities are required to be included.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certification of adequate manufacture, processing, packaging, and holding of designated medical gas.</I> The applicant must certify that the applicant's methods, facilities, and controls used for the manufacture, processing, packing, and holding of the designated medical gas, as applicable, are adequate to ensure its safety, identity, strength, quality, and purity.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Additional information.</I> The applicant must provide any other information which FDA deems appropriate to determine whether the medical gas is a designated medical gas. The applicant may also provide other information that the applicant believes will assist FDA in evaluating the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where and how to submit a request for certification.</I> The applicant must submit a signed, completed request for certification form either in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive, or in hard copy by submitting two paper copies to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.65" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.65   Withdrawal by the applicant of a certification request before it is deemed granted.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may at any time withdraw a certification request that is not yet deemed granted by notifying FDA in writing. A decision to withdraw the certification request is without prejudice to refiling. The Agency will retain the certification request and will provide a copy to the applicant on request under the fee schedule in § 20.45 of this chapter (FDA's public information regulations).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.70" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.70   Supplements and other changes to a granted certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant must submit a supplement if any information in the certification request changes after the request has been deemed granted, including, but not limited to, the addition of a new facility manufacturing the designated medical gas, a change in contact information, or a change in the corporate name.
</P>
<P>(b) Each supplement must include a signed, completed request for certification form with the updated information in accordance with § 230.50. The updated information must be submitted no later than 30 calendar days after the date the change occurred.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.72" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.72   Change in ownership of a granted certification.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may transfer ownership of its certification. At the time of transfer the new and former owners are required to submit information to FDA as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The former owner must submit a letter or other document that states that all rights to the certification have been transferred to the new owner.
</P>
<P>(b) The new owner must submit a supplement under § 230.70 signed by the new owner describing any changes in the conditions in the granted certification and a letter or other document containing the date that the change in ownership is effective.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.80" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.80   Annual report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant must submit each year within 60 calendar days of the new calendar year an annual report containing the information described in paragraph (b) of this section. The applicant must submit a signed, completed annual report form either in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive, or in hard copy by submitting two paper copies to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705.
</P>
<P>(b) The report must contain, for the prior calendar year, the following information in the order listed:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Summary.</I> A brief summary of significant new information that might affect the safety, effectiveness, or labeling of the designated medical gas, including any actions the applicant has taken or intends to take as a result of this new information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Distribution data.</I> Information about the quantity of the designated medical gas distributed by the applicant. The information must include the National Drug Code (NDC) numbers, the quantities distributed for domestic use, and the quantities distributed for foreign use. Disclosure of financial or pricing data is not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Administrative changes.</I> Any changes to the applicant's name or contact information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Current facilities.</I> A list of current facilities where the designated medical gas is initially produced, and a list of facilities that are no longer in use.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.100" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.100   FDA review of submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In reviewing a submission pursuant to § 230.50, FDA will consider information provided with the submission along with any other available, relevant information of which FDA becomes aware, including information obtained from State or Federal officials, FDA inspection reports, or any other source.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will deny a submission if FDA finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The medical gas that is the subject of the submission is not a designated medical gas;
</P>
<P>(2) The submission does not contain the required information or otherwise appears to lack sufficient information to determine that the medical gas is a designated medical gas;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's methods, facilities, and controls used for the manufacture, processing, and handling of the designated medical gas, as applicable, are not adequate to ensure its safety, identity, strength, quality, and purity; or
</P>
<P>(4) Denying the request is otherwise necessary to protect the public health.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 60 calendar days of filing of a submission, FDA may contact the applicant to request additional information regarding the submission if it determines that required information is not included in the submission, that FDA needs such information to determine whether the medical gas is a designated medical gas, or that FDA determines such information is necessary to protect the public health. Upon receipt of an amendment to a pending certification request, this 60-day review period will restart. If FDA is not able to contact the applicant to obtain and evaluate the information within the 60-day review period, FDA may find that the submission lacks sufficient information to permit a determination that the medical gas is a designated medical gas and deny the submission. If FDA is able to contact the applicant but is not provided with the additional information requested within the 60-day review period, FDA may find that the request lacks sufficient information to permit a determination that the medical gas is a designated medical gas and deny the submission.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 60 calendar days of filing of a submission, if FDA makes one of the findings described in paragraph (b) of this section, FDA will notify the applicant in writing that the submission is denied and provide the basis for FDA's determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.105" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.105   When a submission is deemed granted.</HEAD>
<P>Unless FDA makes one of the findings described in § 230.100(b) and notifies the applicant within 60 calendar days of filing that the submission is denied, the certification is deemed to be granted and the designated medical gas will be deemed to have in effect an approved application under section 505 or section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or both, as applicable, for the indications described in section 576(a)(3)(A)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. FDA will notify the applicant in writing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.150" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.150   Withdrawal or revocation of approval of an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Withdrawal.</I> (1) FDA will notify the applicant, and afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to withdraw approval of the application under the procedure in § 314.200 of this chapter, § 514.200 of this chapter, or both, as applicable, if any of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary of Health and Human Services has suspended the approval of the application for a designated medical gas on a finding that there is an imminent hazard to the public health. FDA will promptly afford the applicant an expedited hearing following summary suspension on a finding of imminent hazard to health.
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA finds:
</P>
<P>(A) That clinical or other experience, tests, or other scientific data show that the designated medical gas is unsafe for use under the conditions of use upon the basis of which the application was approved; or
</P>
<P>(B) That new evidence of clinical experience not available to FDA until after the application was approved, or tests by new methods, or tests by methods not deemed reasonably applicable when the application was approved, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application was approved, reveal that the designated medical gas is not shown to be safe for use under the conditions of use upon the basis of which the application was approved; or
</P>
<P>(C) Upon the basis of new information before FDA with respect to the designated medical gas, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application was approved, that there is a lack of substantial evidence from adequate and well-controlled investigations as defined in § 314.126 of this chapter, that the designated medical gas will have the effect it is purported or represented to have under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its labeling; or
</P>
<P>(D) That the application contains any untrue statement of a material fact.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may notify the applicant, and afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to withdraw approval of the application under the procedure in § 314.200 of this chapter, § 514.200 of this chapter, or both, as applicable, if the Agency finds:
</P>
<P>(i) That the applicant has failed to establish a system for maintaining required records, or has repeatedly or deliberately failed to maintain required records or to make required reports applicable to designated medical gases, including under sections 505(k) and 512(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, part 213 of this chapter, and § 314.81(b)(3) of this chapter, or that the applicant has refused to permit access to, or copying or verification of, its records.
</P>
<P>(ii) That on the basis of new information before FDA, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application was approved, the methods used in, or the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, and packing of the designated medical gas are inadequate to ensure and preserve its identity, strength, quality, and purity and were not made adequate within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the Agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) That on the basis of new information before FDA, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application was approved, the labeling of the designated medical gas, based on a fair evaluation of all material facts, is false or misleading in any particular, and the labeling was not corrected by the applicant within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the Agency.
</P>
<P>(iv) That the applicant has failed to comply with the notice requirements of section 510(j)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will withdraw approval of an application if the applicant requests its withdrawal because the designated medical gas subject to the application is no longer being marketed, provided none of the conditions listed in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section applies to the designated medical gas. FDA will consider a written request for a withdrawal under this paragraph (a)(3) to be a waiver of an opportunity for hearing otherwise provided for in this section. Withdrawal of approval of an application under this paragraph (a)(3) is without prejudice to refiling.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA may notify an applicant that it believes a potential problem associated with a designated medical gas is sufficiently serious that the designated medical gas should be removed from the market and may ask the applicant to waive the opportunity for hearing otherwise provided for under this section, to permit FDA to withdraw approval of the application for the product, and to remove voluntarily the product from the market. If the applicant agrees, the Agency will not make a finding under paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, but will withdraw approval of the application in a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that contains a brief summary of the Agency's and the applicant's views of the reasons for withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(5) If FDA withdraws an approval, FDA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing the withdrawal of approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revocation.</I> FDA may revoke the grant of a certification if FDA determines, after providing the applicant with notice and opportunity for an informal hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, that the request for certification contains any material omission or falsification.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Postmarketing Quality and Safety Reporting</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.205" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.205   Field alert reports.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant shall submit a field alert report containing all information described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section about distributed designated medical gases and articles to the FDA district office that is responsible for the facility involved as soon as possible but no later than 45 calendar days from the date the applicant, or its agent or contractor, obtained information suggesting that a reportable incident has occurred. If the information suggests that the reportable incident may require a rapid response to address a public health risk, the applicant must as soon as possible, but no later than 3 working days from obtaining the information, submit a field alert report. The information may be provided by telephone or other rapid communication means, with prompt written followup. The report and its mailing cover should be plainly marked: “Designated Medical Gas—Field Alert Report.”
</P>
<P>(a) Information concerning any incident that causes the designated medical gas or its labeling to be mistaken for, or applied to, another article.
</P>
<P>(b) Information concerning any bacteriological contamination, or any significant chemical, physical, or other change or deterioration in the distributed designated medical gas, or any failure of one or more distributed batches of the designated medical gas to meet established specifications.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.210" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.210   General reporting requirements for designated medical gas adverse events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of safety information.</I> Each applicant and nonapplicant must promptly review all safety information that the applicant or nonapplicant receives or otherwise obtains from any source, foreign or domestic, such as information derived from commercial marketing experience, reports in the published scientific and medical literature, unpublished scientific papers, and reports from regulatory authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety reporting disclaimer.</I> (1) A report or information submitted by an applicant or nonapplicant (and any release by FDA of that report or information) under § 230.220 or § 230.230 does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the applicant or nonapplicant or by FDA that the report or information constitutes an admission that the designated medical gas caused or contributed to an adverse effect.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant or nonapplicant need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted under § 230.220 or § 230.230 constitutes an admission that the designated medical gas caused or contributed to an adverse effect.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.220" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.220   Human designated medical gas ICSR requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>ICSR reporting</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, applicants and nonapplicants must submit each ICSR associated with the use of a designated medical gas in humans described in paragraph (b) of this section to FDA as soon as possible but no later than 15 calendar days from the date when the applicant or nonapplicant has met the reporting criteria described in paragraph (b) of this section and acquired a minimum data set for an ICSR for an adverse event.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Copies of ICSRs obtained from FDA.</I> An applicant or nonapplicant should not resubmit under this section any ICSRs obtained from FDA's adverse event reporting database or forwarded to the applicant or nonapplicant by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Followup information.</I> Applicants and nonapplicants must submit any new information that is related to a previously submitted ICSR or an ICSR that was sent to the applicant or nonapplicant by FDA no later than 15 calendar days after the information is received or otherwise obtained.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirements</I>—(1) <I>Serious adverse events</I>—(i) <I>Reported to or otherwise received by the applicant or nonapplicant.</I> Applicants and nonapplicants must submit ICSRs for serious adverse events reported to or otherwise received by the applicant or nonapplicant (such as a report initiated by a patient, consumer, or healthcare professional, or received at the request of the applicant or nonapplicant).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reported from the scientific literature.</I> Applicants and nonapplicants must submit ICSRs for serious adverse events obtained from published scientific and medical journals either as case reports or as the result of a formal clinical trial.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exception to reporting requirements for serious adverse events.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, ICSRs are not required for reports of the death of a patient who was administered oxygen, unless the applicant or nonapplicant is aware of evidence to suggest that the death was caused by the administration of oxygen.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other adverse event reports to be submitted upon notification by FDA.</I> Upon notification by FDA, applicants and nonapplicants must submit, in a timeframe established by FDA, ICSRs for any adverse events that are not required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The notification will specify the adverse events to be reported and the reason for requiring the reports.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Completing and submitting ICSRs.</I> This paragraph (c) describes how to complete and submit ICSRs required under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Electronic format for submissions.</I> (i) ICSRs and ICSR attachments must be in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive.
</P>
<P>(ii) An applicant or nonapplicant may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the requirements in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. These waivers will be granted on a limited basis for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitting ICSRs</I>—(i) <I>Single submission of each ICSR.</I> Submit each ICSR only once.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Separate ICSR for each patient.</I> The applicant or nonapplicant must submit a separate ICSR for each patient who experiences an adverse event reportable under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Coding terms.</I> The adverse event terms described in the ICSR must be coded using standardized medical terminology.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Minimum data set.</I> All ICSRs submitted under this section must contain at least the minimum data set for an ICSR for an adverse event. The applicant or nonapplicant must actively seek the minimum data set in a manner consistent with the written procedures under paragraph (f) of this section. Applicants and nonapplicants must document and maintain records of their efforts to obtain the minimum data set.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>ICSR elements.</I> The applicant or nonapplicant must complete all known, available elements of an ICSR as specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) For adverse events, applicants and nonapplicants must actively seek any information needed to complete all applicable elements, consistent with their written procedures under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Applicants and nonapplicants must document and maintain records of their efforts to obtain the missing information.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Supporting documentation.</I> An applicant or nonapplicant must submit the following types of supporting documentation in an ICSR, if available:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the autopsy report if the patient died, or a copy of the hospital discharge summary if the patient was hospitalized. The applicant or nonapplicant must submit each document as an ICSR attachment. The ICSR attachment must be submitted either with the initial ICSR or no later than 15 calendar days after obtaining the document. English translations of foreign language documents must be provided.
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the published article as an ICSR attachment for each ICSR of an adverse event obtained from the published scientific and medical literature. Foreign language articles must be accompanied by an English translation of the abstract. When submitting more than one ICSR from the same published article, the applicant or nonapplicant must submit only one copy of the article with one of the ICSRs. For the remaining ICSRs not accompanied by a copy of the published article, the applicant or nonapplicant must include the cross-reference to the specific ICSR to which the article is attached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information reported on ICSRs.</I> ICSRs must include the following information, subject to paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Patient information, which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient identification code;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient age at the time of adverse event, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient sex; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(2) Adverse event, which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Outcome attributed to adverse event;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of adverse event;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of ICSR submission;
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of adverse event;
</P>
<P>(v) Adverse event term(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Description of relevant tests conducted, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) Suspect designated medical gas(es), which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dose, frequency, and route of administration used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Therapy dates;
</P>
<P>(iv) Diagnosis for use (indication);
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the adverse event abated after the use of the designated medical gas(es) stopped or the dose was reduced;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the adverse event reappeared after reintroduction of the designated medical gas(es);
</P>
<P>(vii) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(viii) National Drug Code (NDC) number; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates.
</P>
<P>(4) Initial reporter information, which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, email address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the initial reporter is a healthcare professional; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Occupation, if a healthcare professional.
</P>
<P>(5) Applicant or nonapplicant information, which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicant or nonapplicant name, address, email address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Report source, such as spontaneous, literature, or study;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date the report was received by applicant or nonapplicant;
</P>
<P>(iv) New drug application and/or new animal drug application number;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the ICSR is an expedited report;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the ICSR is an initial report or followup report; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent followup report(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) For a period of 10 years from the initial receipt of information, each applicant or nonapplicant must maintain records of information relating to adverse events under this section, whether or not submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) These records must include raw data, correspondence, and any other information relating to the evaluation and reporting of adverse event information that is received or otherwise obtained by the applicant or nonapplicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon written notice by FDA, the applicant or nonapplicant must submit any or all of these records to FDA within 5 calendar days after receipt of the notice. The applicant or nonapplicant must permit any authorized FDA employee, at reasonable times, to access, copy, and verify these established and maintained records described in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Written procedures.</I> The applicant or nonapplicant must develop written procedures needed to fulfill the requirements in this section for the surveillance, receipt, evaluation, and reporting to FDA of adverse event information, including procedures for employee training and for obtaining and processing adverse event information from other applicants and nonapplicants.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Patient privacy.</I> An applicant or nonapplicant should not include in reports under this section the names and addresses of individual patients; instead, the applicant or nonapplicant should assign a unique code for identification of the patient. The applicant or nonapplicant should include the name of the reporter from whom the information was received as part of the initial reporter information, even when the reporter is the patient. As set forth in FDA's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter, FDA generally may not disclose the names of patients, individual reporters, healthcare professionals, hospitals, and geographical identifiers submitted to FDA in adverse event reports.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 230.230" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.17.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 230.230   Animal designated medical gas adverse event reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Report for adverse events.</I> This report provides information on each adverse event associated with the use of a designated medical gas in animals, regardless of the source of the information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Serious adverse events.</I> The applicant or nonapplicant must submit serious adverse events to FDA as soon as possible but no later than within 15 calendar days of first receiving the information. The report must be submitted to the Agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, unless the applicant or nonapplicant obtains a waiver under paragraph (b)(2) of this section or FDA requests the report in an alternate format.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reported to or otherwise received by the applicant or nonapplicant.</I> Applicants and nonapplicants must submit reports for <I>each serious adverse event</I> reported to or otherwise received by the applicant or nonapplicant (such as reports initiated by a patient, consumer, veterinarian, or other healthcare professional, or received at the request of the applicant or nonapplicant), regardless of whether the applicant or nonapplicant believes the events are related to the designated medical gas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reported from the scientific and medical literature.</I> Applicants and nonapplicants must submit reports for each serious adverse event obtained from the published scientific and medical literature regardless of whether the applicant or nonapplicant believes the events are related to the designated medical gas.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exception to reporting requirements for serious adverse events.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, reports are not required to be submitted for the death of an animal that was administered oxygen, unless the applicant or nonapplicant becomes aware of evidence to suggest that the death was caused by the administration of oxygen.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other adverse event reports to be submitted upon notification by FDA.</I> Upon notification by FDA, applicants and nonapplicants must submit reports of adverse events associated with the use of a designated medical gas in animals that do not qualify for reporting under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The notice will specify the adverse events to be reported and the reason for requiring the reports.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Copies of adverse event reports obtained from FDA.</I> An applicant or nonapplicant should not resubmit under this section any adverse event reports obtained from FDA's adverse event reporting database or forwarded to the applicant or nonapplicant by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format for submissions</I>—(1) <I>Electronic submissions.</I> Reports submitted to FDA under this section must be submitted in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. Data provided in electronic submissions must be in conformance with the data elements in Form FDA 1932 and FDA technical documents describing transmission. As necessary, FDA will issue updated technical documents on how to provide the electronic submission (<I>e.g.,</I> method of transmission and processing, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files). Unless requested by FDA, paper copies of reports submitted electronically should not be submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waivers.</I> An applicant or nonapplicant may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the electronic submission requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The initial request may be provided by telephone or email to the Center for Veterinary Medicine's Division of Pharmacovigilance and Surveillance, with prompt written followup submitted as a letter to the granted certification(s). FDA will grant waivers on a limited basis for good cause shown. If FDA grants a waiver, the applicant or nonapplicant must comply with the conditions for reporting specified by FDA upon granting the waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records to be maintained.</I> (1) For a period of 5 years from the initial receipt of information, each applicant or nonapplicant must maintain records of information relating to adverse event reports under this section, whether or not submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) These records must include raw data, correspondence, and any other information relating to the evaluation and reporting of adverse event information that is received or otherwise obtained by the applicant or nonapplicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon written notice by FDA, the applicant or nonapplicant must submit any or all of these records to FDA within 5 calendar days after receipt of the notice. The applicant or nonapplicant must permit any authorized FDA employee, at reasonable times, to access, copy, and verify these established and maintained records described in this section.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="250" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 250—SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS FOR SPECIFIC HUMAN DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 336, 342, 352, 353, 355, 361(a), 362(a) and (c), 371, 375(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 14033, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Drugs Regarded as Misbranded</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.11" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.11   Thyroid-containing drug preparations intended for treatment of obesity in humans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Investigation by the Food and Drug Administration has revealed that a large number of drug preparations containing thyroid or thyrogenic substances in combination with central nervous system stimulants, with or without one or more additional drug substances such as barbiturates or laxatives, are being marketed for or as adjuncts to the treatment, control, or management of obesity in humans. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs finds that the administration of such combinations for said purposes is without medical rationale except possibly in those relatively uncommon instances where the condition is directly related to hypothyroidism and there exists a concurrent need for appetite control (in such instances the safety and effectiveness of such combinations are not generally recognized). In particular, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs finds that neither the consensus of informed medical opinion nor clinical experience justifies any representation that such combinations are safe and effective in connection with the treatment, control, or management of obesity in patients having normal thyroid function.
</P>
<P>(b) Combinations of thyroid or other thyrogenic drugs with central nervous system stimulants with or without other drug substances when offered for or as adjuncts to the treatment, control, or management of obesity not related to hypothyroidism are regarded as misbranded. Such combinations when offered for obesity in humans directly attributable to established hypothyroidism are regarded as new drugs within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.12" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.12   Stramonium preparations labeled with directions for use in self-medication regarded as misbranded.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Stramonium products for inhalation have been offered for use in the therapy of the acute attacks of bronchial asthma for many years although their reliability and effectiveness are questionable. Recently, a significantly increased number of reports have come to the attention of the Food and Drug Administration showing that such products have been subject to abuse and misuse on a fairly large scale, mostly by young people, through oral ingestion for the purpose of producing hallucinations. Reports of such use have been received from physicians and police and other law enforcement authorities. Reports have also appeared in the public press and in medical journals.
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling these products with a warning that they are not for oral ingestion has not been effective in protecting the public. Misuse of stramonium preparations can cause serious toxic effects including toxic delirium, visual disturbances, fever, and coma. A number of serious reactions have already occurred from the oral ingestion of such products.
</P>
<P>(c) On the basis of this information, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs has concluded that such articles have a potentiality for harmful effect through misuse and are not safe for use except under the supervision of a physician. In the interest of public health protection, therefore, the Food and Drug Administration adopts the following policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Preparations containing stramonium supplied from the leaves, seeds, or any other part of the plant in the form of a powder, pipe mixture, cigarette, or any other form, with or without admixture of other ingredients, will be regarded as misbranded if they are labeled with directions for use in self-medication.
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration will, on request, furnish comment on proposed labeling limiting any such preparation to prescription sale.
</P>
<P>(d) The labeling or dispensing of stramonium preparations contrary to this statement after 60 days following the date of its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> may be made the subject of regulatory proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—New Drug or Prescription Status of Specific Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.100" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.100   Amyl nitrite inhalant as a prescription drug for human use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Amyl nitrite inhalant has been available over-the-counter for emergency use by the patient in the management of angina pectoris for a number of years. As a result of a proposed policy statement published August 25, 1967 (32 FR 12404), the Commissioner of Food and Drugs received reports of the abuse of this drug by those who do not require it for medical purposes. Additionally, comment included a great deal of concern expressed by individual physicians, medical associations, pharmaceutical associations, manufacturers, and State and local health authorities. Based on the information available, it is the opinion of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, concurred in by the Food and Drug Administration Medical Advisory Board, that amyl nitrite inhalant is a drug with a potentiality for harmful effect and that it should be removed from over-the-counter status and restricted to sale on the prescription of a practitioner licensed by law to administer such drug.
</P>
<P>(b) Therefore, amyl nitrite inhalant will be regarded as misbranded unless the labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed bears adequate information for its safe and effective use by physicians, in accordance with § 201.100(c) of this chapter, and its label bears the statement “Rx only.” 
</P>
<P>(c) Regulatory proceedings may be initiated with regard to the interstate shipment of amyl nitrite inhalant that is labeled, advertised, or dispensed contrary to this statement of policy if such act occurs after July 1, 1969.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14033, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.101" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.101   Amphetamine and methamphetamine inhalers regarded as prescription drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recurring reports of abuse and misuse of methamphetamine (also known as desoxyephedrine) inhalers show that they have a potentiality for harmful effect and that they should not be freely available to the public through over-the-counter sale. From complaints by law-enforcement officials, health officials, individual physicians, parents, and others as well as from Food and Drug Administration investigations, it is evident that the wicks from these inhalers are being removed and the methamphetamine they contain is being used as a substitute for amphetamine tablets. Amphetamine tablets and amphetamine inhalers have been restricted to prescription sale because of their potentiality for harm to the user.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the considered opinion of the Food and Drug Administration that, in order to adequately protect the public health, inhalers containing methamphetamine or methamphetamine salts (d-desoxyephedrine, or dl-desoxyephedrine, or their salts), as well as amphetamine inhalers should be restricted to prescription sale and should be labeled with the statement “Rx only.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14033, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.102" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.102   Drug preparations intended for human use containing certain “coronary vasodilators”.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Food and Drug Administration finds that the following “coronary vasodilators” are extensively regarded by physicians as safe and useful as employed under medical supervision for the management of angina pectoris in some patients:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Amyl nitrite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Erythrityl tetranitrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mannitol hexanitrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitroglycerin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium nitrite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium nitrite.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Additionally, new-drug applications have been approved for products containing:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Inositol hexanitrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isosorbide dinitrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octyl nitrite.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentaerythritol tetranitrate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triethanolamine trinitrate biphosphate (trolnitrate phosphate).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration also finds that there is neither substantial evidence of effectiveness nor a general recognition by qualified experts that such drugs are effective for any of the other purposes for which some such drugs are promoted to the medical profession in labeling and advertising. In particular, neither clinical investigations nor clinical experience justify any representations that such drugs are effective in the management of hypertension; in the management of coronary insufficiency or coronary artery disease, except for their anginal manifestations; or in the management of the post coronary state, except angina pectoris present after coronary occlusion and myocardial infarction.
</P>
<P>(c) Any preparation containing such drugs that is labeled or advertised for any use other than management of angina pectoris, or that is represented to be efficacious for any other purpose by reason of its containing such drug, will be regarded by the Food and Drug Administration as misbranded and subject to regulatory proceedings, unless such recommendations are covered by the approval of a new-drug application based on a showing of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(d) Any such drug in long-acting dosage form is regarded as a new drug that requires an approved new-drug application before marketing.
</P>
<P>(e) Any of the drugs listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is regarded as a new drug that requires an approved new-drug application. Articles for which new-drug approvals are now in effect should be covered by supplemental new-drug applications as necessary to provide for labeling revisions consistent with this policy statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 250.103-250.104" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 250.103-250.104   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.105" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.105   Gelsemium-containing preparations regarded as prescription drugs.</HEAD>
<P>It is the consensus of informed medical opinion that the margin of safety between the therapeutic and toxic concentration of gelsemium is narrow and it is difficult to predict the point at which the dose will be toxic. Very small doses may cause toxic symptoms. It is therefore the view of the Food and Drug Administration that gelsemium is not a proper ingredient in any product that is to be sold without prescription. Accordingly, any drug containing gelsemium will be regarded as misbranded under section 503(b)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if its label fails to bear in a prominent and conspicuous fashion the statement “Rx only.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14033, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 250.106-250.107" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 250.106-250.107   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.108" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.108   Potassium permanganate preparations as prescription drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There have been a number of reports in the medical literature of serious injuries to women resulting from the misuse of potassium permanganate in an effort to induce abortion. Reports from physicians who have treated such cases show that the injuries are commonly caused by introducing tablets or crystals of potassium permanganate into the vagina. Experience with these cases shows that such use of potassium permanganate is not effective in producing abortion, but that instead the drug produces serious and painful injury to the walls of the vagina, causing ulcers, massive hemorrhage, and infection. Such dangerous and useless employment of potassium permanganate is apparently encouraged among the misinformed by the mistaken idea that the vaginal bleeding caused by the corrosive action of the drug indicates a termination of pregnancy, which it does not.
</P>
<P>(b) Potassium permanganate is a strong oxidizing agent, a highly caustic, tissue-destroying chemical, and a poison. There are no circumstances under which crystals and tablets of potassium permanganate constitute safe dosage forms for use in self-medication. It is the consensus of informed medical opinion that the only dosage forms of potassium permanganate known to be safe for use in self-medication are aqueous solutions containing not more than 0.04 percent potassium permanganate. Such solutions are safe for use in self-medication only by external application to the skin.
</P>
<P>(c) In view of the very real potentiality for harmful effect, and the actual injuries caused by the misuse of potassium permanganate, the Food and Drug Administration believes that in order adequately to protect the public health:
</P>
<P>(1) Potassium permanganate and potassium permanganate tablets intended for human use are drugs subject to section 503(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and should be restricted to prescription sale. Such drugs will be regarded as misbranded if at any time prior to dispensing the label fails to bear the statement “Rx only.”
</P>
<P>(2) Potassium permanganate labeled for use as a prescription component in human drugs under the exemption provided in § 201.120 of this chapter or labeled for manufacturing use under the exemption provided in § 201.122 of this chapter will be regarded as misbranded unless the label bears the statement, “Rx only.”
</P>
<P>(3) These drugs will be regarded as misbranded when intended for veterinary use unless the label bears the legend, “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to sale by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian”; <I>Provided, however,</I> That this shall not apply to a drug labeled and marketed for veterinary use if such drug contains not more than 50 percent of potassium permanganate and includes other ingredients which make it unsuitable for human use and unlikely that the article would be used in an attempt to induce abortion.
</P>
<P>(4) Any preparation of potassium permanganate intended for over-the-counter sale for human use internally or by application to any mucous membranes or for use in the vagina will be regarded as misbranded under the provisions of section 502(f) (1) and (2) and section 502(j) of the act.
</P>
<P>(5) Any other preparation of potassium permanganate intended for over-the-counter sale for human use will be regarded as misbranded under section 502(f) (1) and (2) and section 502(j) of the act unless, among other things, all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) It is an aqueous solution containing not more than 0.04 percent potassium permanganate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The label and labeling bear, in juxtaposition with adequate directions for use, clear warning statements designated as “Warning,” and to the effect: “Warning—For external use on the skin only. Severe injury may result from use internally or as a douche. Avoid contact with mucous membranes.”
</P>
<P>(d) The labeling or dispensing of any potassium permanganate preparations intended for drug use within the jurisdiction of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act contrary to this statement after 60 days from the date of its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> may be made the subject of regulatory proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14033, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Drugs and Foods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.201" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.201   Preparations for the treatment of pernicious anemia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ninth announcement of the Anti-anemia Preparations Advisory Board of the United States Pharmacopeia is concerned with the status of the treatment of pernicious anemia. It clearly presents the following facts:
</P>
<P>(1) The Sixteenth Revision of the Pharmacopeia of the United States, which became official on October 1, 1960, does not include preparations intended for the treatment of pernicious anemia by oral administration.
</P>
<P>(2) The U.S.P. unit for anti-anemia preparations no longer has any significance.
</P>
<P>(3) The U.S.P. Anti-anemia Preparations Advisory Board was disbanded.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the scientific evidence and conclusions summarized in the statement of the U.S.P. Anti-anemia Preparations Advisory Board as well as pertinent information from other sources, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs finds it is the consensus of well informed medical opinion that:
</P>
<P>(1) The parenteral administration of cyanocobalamin or vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> is generally recognized as a fully effective treatment of pernicious anemia. Parenteral cyanocobalamin preparations have not been and are not authorized for use except by or on the prescription of a duly licensed medical practitioner.
</P>
<P>(2) Some patients afflicted with pernicious anemia do not respond to orally ingested products. There is no known way to predict which patients will fail to respond or will cease to respond to the treatment of pernicious anemia with orally ingested preparations.
</P>
<P>(3) The substitution of a possibly inadequate treatment, such as the ingestion of oral preparations of vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> with intrinsic factor concentrate, in place of parenteral vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> products for a disease condition as serious as pernicious anemia cannot be regarded as safe in all cases.
</P>
<P>(4) The development of the classical symptoms of pernicious anemia that would cause a person to seek medical attention may in some cases be delayed by oral ingestion of intrinsic factor. Pernicious anemia is a disease that is associated, among other things, with a higher than normal incidence of cancer of the stomach and that for the safety of the patient, requires continuous expert medical supervision.
</P>
<P>(5) With inadequate treatment there may be markedly deleterious effects on the nervous system. It is well established that whereas the development of anemia is completely reversible with adequate treatment, the involvement of the nervous system may not be completely reversible and thus may result in permanent damage.
</P>
<P>(6) Some hematologists prescribe oral preparations of vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> in the treatment of pernicious-anemia patients.
</P>
<P>(7) Intrinsic factor and intrinsic factor concentrate serve no known useful therapeutic or nutritive purpose except to the extent that they do increase the gastrointestinal absorption of vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> in patients with a deficiency or absence of intrinsic factor, which may eventually lead to pernicious anemia. This conclusion does not apply to diagnostic procedures using radioactive cyanocobalamin.
</P>
<P>(8) Medical expertise is required for the diagnosis as well as the management of pernicious anemia.
</P>
<P>(c) The Eleventh Edition of The National Formulary and its first Interim Revision include monographs for oral preparations of vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> with intrinsic factor concentrate, establish a unit of vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> with intrinsic factor concentrate, and provide for a National Formulary Anti-anemia Preparations Advisory Board to assign the potency of such preparations. This provides for the availability of such oral preparations, standardized within the meaning of the broad limits characteristic of the evaluation of such preparations.
</P>
<P>(d) Any drug that is offered for or purports to contain intrinsic factor or intrinsic factor concentrate will be regarded as misbranded within the meaning of section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless it is labeled with the statement “Rx only.”
</P>
<P>(e) Any drug for oral ingestion intended, represented, or advertised for the prevention or treatment of pernicious anemia or which purports to contain any substance or mixture of substances described in paragraph (d) of this section (other than diagnostic drugs containing radioactive cyanocobalamin) will be regarded as misbranded under sections 502 (f)(2) and (j) of the act unless its labeling bears a statement to the effect that some patients afflicted with pernicious anemia may not respond to the orally ingested product and that there is no known way to predict which patients will respond or which patients may cease to respond to the orally ingested products. The labeling shall also bear a statement that periodic examinations and laboratory studies of pernicious anemia patients are essential and recommended.
</P>
<P>(f) Under section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, intrinsic factor and intrinsic factor concentrate are regarded as food additives. No food additive regulation nor existing extension of the effective date of section 409 of the act authorizes these additives in foods, including foods for special dietary uses. Any food containing added intrinsic factor or intrinsic factor concentrate will be regarded as adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(2)(C) of the act.
</P>
<P>(g) Regulatory action may be initiated with respect to any article shipped within the jurisdiction of the act contrary to the provisions of this policy statement after the 180th day following publication of this statement in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14033, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Requirements for Drugs and Cosmetics</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.250" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.18.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.250   Hexachlorophene, as a component of drug and cosmetic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Antibacterial component.</I> The use of hexachlorophene as an antibacterial component in drug and cosmetic products has expanded widely in recent years. It is used in such products because of its bacteriostatic action against gram-positive organisms, especially against strains of staphylococcus; however, hexachlorophene offers no protection against gram-negative infections. In addition the antibacterial activity depends largely on repeated use. A notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of April 4, 1972 (37 FR 6775), invited data on OTC antimicrobial ingredients, including hexachlorophene, for review by an OTC Drug Advisory Review Panel to be convened under the procedures set forth in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of May 11, 1972 (37 FR 9464). This statement of policy will remain in effect unless and until replaced by a monograph resulting from the OTC Drug Advisory Review Panel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adverse effects.</I> Though considered safe for many years, recent information has become available associating hexachlorophene with toxic effects, including deaths. Studies have shown that toxic amounts of hexachlorophene can be absorbed through the skin of humans, especially the skin of premature babies or damaged skin. Human toxicity reports include data on symptomatology, blood and tissue levels of hexachlorophene, and descriptions of neuropathologic lesions. Recent infant deaths due to use of baby powder accidentally contaminated with 6 percent hexachlorophene have occurred. The accumulated evidence of toxicity is sufficient to require that continued marketing of hexachlorophene containing products be carefully defined in order to protect consumers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prescription drugs.</I> (1) Because of their potential for harmful effect, drugs containing hexachlorophene, other than as a preservative as described below, are not considered to have been shown to be safe and effective, are regarded as new drugs requiring approved new drug applications, and would be misbranded for over-the-counter distribution. In the interest of public health protection, hexachlorophene containing drugs will be regarded as misbranded and subject to regulatory proceedings unless the label bears the statement “Rx only,” and the labeling on or within the package from which the drug is to be dispensed bears adequate information for its safe and effective use by practitioners, in accord with § 201.100(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration recognizes that hexachlorophene is useful as a bacteriostatic skin cleanser. It further concludes that the margin of safety is such that products containing hexachlorophene may appropriately be used within clearly delineated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(3) In order for such drugs to bear adequate information for safe and effective use the following statements are representative of the type of labeling for products shown to be effective bacteriostatic skin cleansers. Labeling for products other than bacteriostatic skin cleansers will be determined through the new drug procedures based on the available data.
</P>
<P>(i) In the labeling other than on the immediate container label.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Indications
</HD1>
<P>1. Bacteriostatic skin cleanser for surgical scrubbing or handwashing as part of patient care.
</P>
<P>2. For topical application to control an outbreak of gram-positive infection where other infection control procedures have been unsuccessful. Use only as long as necessary for infection control.
</P>
<HD1>Contraindications
</HD1>
<P>1. Not for use on burned or denuded skin or on mucous membranes.
</P>
<P>2. Not for routine prophylactic total body bathing.
</P>
<HD1>Warnings
</HD1>
<P>Rinse thoroughly after use. Patients should be closely monitored and use should be immediately discontinued at the first sign of any of the symptoms described below.
</P>
<P>Hexachlorophene is rapidly absorbed and may produce toxic blood levels when applied to skin lesions such as ichthyosis congenita or the dermatitis of Letterer-Siwe's syndrome or other generalized dermatologic conditions. Application to burns has also produced neurotoxicity and death.
</P>
<P>Infants have developed dermatitis, irritability, generalized clonic muscular contractions and decerebrate rigidity following application of a 6 percent hexachlorophene powder. Examination of brainstems of those infants revealed vacuolization like that which can be produced in newborn experimental animals following repeated topical application of 3 percent hexachlorophene. Moreover, a study of histologic sections of premature infants who died of unrelated causes has shown a positive correlation between hexachlorophene baths and lesions in white matter of brains.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) On the immediate container label prominently displayed and in bold print:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Special Warning: This compound may be toxic if used other than as directed. Rinse thoroughly after use. Monitor patients closely for toxicity symptoms.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Marketing of products for the indications listed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section may be continued without an approved new drug application (or required supplement thereto) either until a notice of opportunity for hearing is issued on a proposal by the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research to refuse to approve such new drug application (or required supplement) or until January 31, 1978, whichever comes first, if all the following conditions were met after September 27, 1972:
</P>
<P>(i) The product is labeled with the statement “Rx only” and adequate information for safe and effective use as set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days, or by (10-27-72) the holder of an approved new drug application submits a supplement to provide for the revised label and full disclosure labeling. As the label and labeling will have been put into use, the supplement should be submitted under the provision of § 314.70(c)(6)(iii) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days, or by (10-27-72) the holder of an approved new drug application submits a supplement to provide for a revised formulation where appropriate to comply with this order.
</P>
<P>(iv) Within 90 days, or by (12-26-72) the holder of an approved new drug application submits a supplement containing blood level data obtained from use of the drug as recommended, unless such information is a part of the new drug application file.
</P>
<P>(v) Within 90 days, or by (12-26-72), the manufacturer or distributor of such a drug for which a new drug approval is not in effect submits a new drug application in accord with § 314.50 of the new drug regulations (21 CFR 314.50), including blood level data obtained from use of the drug as recommended.
</P>
<P>(5) Prescription drug products may contain hexachlorophene as part of an effective preservative system only under the conditions and limitations provided for under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Over-the-counter (OTC) drugs.</I> Over-the-counter drug products, other than those which in normal use may be applied to mucous membranes or which are intended to be used on mucous membranes, may contain hexachlorophene only as part of an effective preservative system, at a level that is no higher than necessary to achieve the intended preservative function, and in no event higher than 0.1 percent. Such use of hexachlorophene shall be limited to situations where an alternative preservative has not yet been shown to be as effective or where adequate integrity and stability data for the reformulated product are not yet available. This use of hexachlorophene will not, by itself, require an approved new drug application. Use of hexachlorophene as a preservative at a level higher than 0.1 percent is regarded as a new drug use requiring an approved new drug application, which must be submitted within the time set out in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cosmetics.</I> Hexachlorophene may be used as a preservative in cosmetic products other than those which in normal use may be applied to mucous membranes or which are intended to be used on mucous membranes, at a level that is no higher than necessary to achieve the intended preservative function, and in no event higher than 0.1 percent. Such use of hexachlorophene shall be limited to situations where an alternative preservative has not yet been shown to be as effective or where adequate integrity and stability data for the reformulated product are not yet available. The component of a preservative system whether hexachlorophene or other antimicrobial agent, should be selected on the basis of the effect on the total microbial ecology of the product, not merely on gram-positive bacteria.
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate safety data do not presently exist to justify wider use of hexachlorophene in cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(2) Antibacterial ingredients used as substitutes for hexachlorophene in cosmetic products, and finished cosmetic products containing such ingredients, shall be adequately tested for safety prior to marketing. Any such ingredient or product whose safety is not adequately substantiated prior to marketing may be adulterated and will in any event be deemed misbranded unless it contains a conspicuous front panel statement that the product has not been adequately tested for safety and may be hazardous.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content statement.</I> All reference to hexachlorophene limit in this order is on a weight-in-weight (w/w) basis. Quantitative declaration of hexachlorophene content on the labeling of the products, where required, shall be on a w/w basis.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Shipments of products.</I> Shipments of products falling within the scope of paragraphs (c), (d), or (e) of this section which are not in compliance with the guidelines stated herein shall be the subject of regulatory proceedings after the effective date of the final order.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Prior notices.</I> This order preempts any conditions for marketing products set forth in the following prior notices.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>1. DESI No. 4749 (34 FR 15389, October 2, 1969), “Certain OTC Drugs for Topical Use.”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2. DESI No. 2855 (35 FR 12423, August 4, 1970), “Certain Mouthwash and Gargle Preparations.”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3. DESI No. 8940 (36 FR 14510, August 6, 1971), “Topical Cream Containing Pyrilamine Maleate, Benzocaine, Hexachlorophene, and Cetrimonium Bromide.”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4. DESI No. 6615 (36 FR 18022, September 8, 1971), “Deodorant/Antiperspirant.”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5. DESI No. 6270 (36 FR 23330, December 8, 1971), “Certain Preparations Containing Hexachlorophene”.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14033, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 63773, Dec. 20, 1977; 55 FR 11577, Mar. 29, 1990; 67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002; 69 FR 18763, Apr. 8, 2004]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="251" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 251—SECTION 804 IMPORTATION PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360eee-1, 371, 374, 381, 384.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 62126, Oct. 1, 2020, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.1   Scope of the part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the procedures that Section 804 Importation Program sponsors (SIP Sponsors) must follow when submitting plans to implement time-limited programs to begin importation of drugs from Canada under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This part also sets forth certain requirements that are necessary for such programs to be authorized by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Additionally, this part sets forth requirements for eligible prescription drugs and requirements for entities that engage in importation of eligible prescription drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) This part includes provisions that exempt eligible prescription drugs that meet certain requirements from section 502(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This part also includes provisions that exempt certain transactions involving eligible prescription drugs from certain requirements in section 582 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms in section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to the terms used in this part, if not otherwise defined in this section. The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Active ingredient</I> has the meaning set forth in § 314.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse event</I> means any untoward medical occurrence associated with the use of a drug product in humans, whether or not it is considered related to the drug product. An adverse event can occur in the course of the use of a drug product; from overdose of a drug product, whether accidental or intentional; from abuse of a drug product; from discontinuation of the drug product (e.g., physiological withdrawal); and it includes any failure of expected pharmacological action.
</P>
<P><I>Combination product</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Constituent part</I> has the meaning set forth in § 4.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Disability</I> means a substantial disruption of a person's ability to conduct normal life functions.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible prescription drug:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Means a drug subject to section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that has been approved and has received a Notice of Compliance and a Drug Identification Number (DIN) from the Health Products and Food Branch of Health Canada (HPFB) and, but for the fact that it deviates from the required U.S. labeling, also meets the conditions in an FDA-approved new drug application (NDA) or abbreviated new drug application (ANDA) for a drug that is currently commercially marketed in the United States, including those relating to the drug substance, drug product, production process, quality controls, equipment, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>eligible prescription drug</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802));
</P>
<P>(ii) A biological product (as defined in section 351(i)(1) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(i)(1)));
</P>
<P>(iii) An infused drug (including a peritoneal dialysis solution);
</P>
<P>(iv) An intravenously injected drug;
</P>
<P>(v) A drug that is inhaled during surgery;
</P>
<P>(vi) An intrathecally or intraocularly injected drug;
</P>
<P>(vii) A drug that is subject to a risk evaluation and mitigation strategy under section 505-1 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(viii) A drug that is not a “product” for purposes of section 582 as defined in section 581(13) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Entered (or entry) for consumption</I> has the meaning set forth in 19 CFR 141.0a(f).
</P>
<P><I>Entry</I> means the information or data filed electronically in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)-authorized electronic data interchange system to secure the release of imported merchandise from CBP, or the act of filing that information or data.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign Seller</I> means an establishment within Canada engaged in the distribution of an eligible prescription drug that is imported or offered for importation into the United States. A Foreign Seller must have an active Drug Establishment License to wholesale drugs by Health Canada. A Foreign Seller must be registered with provincial regulatory authorities to distribute HPFB-approved drugs. A Foreign Seller must not be licensed by a provincial regulatory authority with an international pharmacy license that allows it to distribute drugs that are approved by countries other than Canada and that are not HPFB-approved for distribution in Canada. A Foreign Seller must also be registered with FDA under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in accordance with the requirements described in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Illegitimate foreign product</I> means a drug purchased by a Foreign Seller from a manufacturer, and intended for sale to the Importer in the United States, where the Foreign Seller has credible evidence that shows that the product:
</P>
<P>(1) Is counterfeit, diverted, or stolen;
</P>
<P>(2) Is intentionally adulterated such that the product would result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans;
</P>
<P>(3) Is the subject of a fraudulent transaction; or
</P>
<P>(4) Appears otherwise unfit for distribution such that the product would be reasonably likely to result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans.
</P>
<P><I>Importer</I> means a pharmacist or wholesaler. An Importer must be a State-licensed pharmacist, or a State- or FDA-licensed wholesale distributor, who is the U.S. owner of an eligible prescription drug at the time of entry into the United States. The Importer's pharmacist license or wholesale distributor license (if issued by a State and not FDA) must be issued by a State that is a SIP Sponsor or SIP Co-Sponsor. An Importer's pharmacist or wholesale distributor license must be in effect (<I>i.e.,</I> not expired) and the Importer's license must be in good standing with the licensor.
</P>
<P><I>Individual case safety report (ICSR)</I> means a description of an adverse event related to an individual patient or subject.
</P>
<P><I>ICSR attachments</I> means any document related to the adverse event described in an ICSR, such as medical records, hospital discharge summaries, or other documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Life-threatening adverse event</I> means any adverse event that places the patient, in the view of the initial reporter, at immediate risk of death from the adverse event as it occurred, <I>i.e.,</I> it does not include an adverse event that, had it occurred in a more severe form, might have caused death.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means an applicant, as defined in § 314.3 of this chapter, or a person who owns or operates an establishment that manufactures an eligible prescription drug. Manufacturer also means a holder of a drug master file containing information necessary to conduct the Statutory Testing, prepare the manufacturer's attestation and information statement, or otherwise comply with section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or this part.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum data set for an adverse event</I> means the minimum four elements required for reporting an ICSR of an adverse event: An identifiable patient, an identifiable reporter, a suspect drug product, and an adverse event.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacist</I> means a person licensed by a State to practice pharmacy, including the dispensing and selling of prescription drugs.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-Import Request</I> means a request made to FDA by an Importer that must be granted by FDA before the Importer can start importation under a Section 804 Importation Program.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying laboratory</I> means a laboratory in the United States that has been approved by FDA for the purposes of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Relabel</I> has the meaning set forth in § 207.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Relabeler</I> has the meaning set forth in § 207.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Repack or repackage</I> has the meaning set forth in § 207.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible individual(s)</I> means an individual or individuals who are designated in the Section 804 Importation Program compliance plan. Such individuals are responsible for ensuring compliance with the requirements of the Section 804 Importation Program under their oversight and with the applicable provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Section 804 Importation Program (“SIP”)</I> means a program under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and this part, that has been authorized by FDA for the importation of eligible prescription drugs from Canada.
</P>
<P><I>Section 804 Importation Program Sponsor (“SIP Sponsor”)</I> means a State or Indian Tribe that regulates wholesale drug distribution and the practice of pharmacy that submits a proposal to FDA that describes a program to facilitate the importation of prescription drugs from Canada under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and is responsible for oversight of the implementation of the program. After an initial 2-year period beginning on the date of the first import entry under any SIP authorized under this part, the Secretary may determine, based on experience under the program, that there is a sufficient likelihood that a proposal that does not include a State or Indian Tribe as the SIP sponsor could provide the same level of assurance of safety as a proposal that does include such a sponsor, such that FDA may begin receiving, reviewing, and potentially authorizing applications for SIPs without such a sponsor. After the Secretary makes such a determination, a pharmacist or wholesaler may propose a SIP that does not include a State or Indian Tribe as a sponsor, and FDA may authorize such a SIP if the sponsor demonstrates that the SIP meets the criteria for authorization with the same level of assurance of safety as a proposal that includes a State or Indian Tribe as the SIP sponsor, which FDA shall evaluate consistent with any considerations described in the Secretary's determination, including by evaluating whether the application demonstrates that the proposed sponsor has sufficient relevant experience, such as participating in a SIP and demonstrating compliance with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Section 804 Importation Program Co-Sponsor (“SIP Co-Sponsor”)</I> means any other State or Indian Tribe, or a pharmacist or a wholesale distributor that, with the SIP Sponsor, signs a proposal to FDA that describes a program to facilitate the importation of prescription drugs from Canada under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Section 804 Serial Identifier (“SSI”)</I> means a unique alphanumeric serial number of up to 20 characters that is assigned and placed on or affixed by the Foreign Seller to each package and homogenous case of the product that the Foreign Seller intends to sell to an Importer. For purposes of the SSI, “package” means the smallest individual saleable unit of product for distribution that is intended by the Foreign Seller for sale to an Importer located in the United States, and “individual saleable unit” means the smallest container of product sold by the Foreign Seller to the Importer.
</P>
<P><I>Serious adverse event</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An adverse event is considered “serious” if it results in any of the following outcomes:
</P>
<P>(i) Death;
</P>
<P>(ii) A life-threatening adverse event;
</P>
<P>(iii) Inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization;
</P>
<P>(iv) A persistent or significant incapacity or substantial disruption of the ability to conduct normal life functions; and/or
</P>
<P>(v) A congenital anomaly/birth defect.
</P>
<P>(2) Other events that may be considered serious adverse events: Important medical events that may not result in one of the listed outcomes in this definition may be considered serious adverse events when, based upon appropriate medical judgment, they may jeopardize the patient or study subject and may require medical or surgical intervention to prevent one of the outcomes listed in this definition. Examples include: Allergic bronchospasm requiring intensive treatment in an emergency department or at home, blood dyscrasias or convulsions that do not result in inpatient hospitalization, or the development of product dependency or product abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Statutory Testing</I> means the testing of an eligible prescription drug as required by section 804(d)(1)(J) and (L) and section 804(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including for authenticity, for degradation, and to ensure that the prescription drug is in compliance with established specifications and standards.
</P>
<P><I>Suspect foreign product</I> means a drug purchased by a Foreign Seller from a manufacturer, and intended for sale to an Importer in the United States, for which the Foreign Seller has reason to believe that such product:
</P>
<P>(1) Is potentially counterfeit, diverted, or stolen;
</P>
<P>(2) Is potentially intentionally adulterated such that the product would result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans;
</P>
<P>(3) Is potentially the subject of a fraudulent transaction; or
</P>
<P>(4) Appears otherwise unfit for distribution such that the product would result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans.
</P>
<P><I>Transaction</I> means the transfer of product between persons in which a change of ownership occurs, in accordance with section 581(24) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. For the purposes of this part, “transaction” includes the sale and transfer of product between the manufacturer and Foreign Seller. The sale and transfer of product between Foreign Seller and Importer also constitutes a “transaction.”
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected adverse event</I> means an adverse event that is not included in the current U.S. labeling for the drug product. Events that may be symptomatically or pathophysiologically related to an adverse event included in the labeling but differ from the labeled event because of greater severity or specificity would be considered unexpected. “Unexpected,” as used in this definition, also refers to adverse events that are mentioned in the product labeling as occurring with a class of products or anticipated from the pharmacological properties of the product but are not specifically mentioned as occurring with the particular product.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example of greater severity.</I> Under this definition, hepatic necrosis would be unexpected if the labeling referred only to elevated hepatic enzymes or hepatitis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example of greater specificity.</I> Cerebral thromboembolism and cerebral hemorrhage would be unexpected if the labeling included only cerebrovascular accidents.
</P>
<P><I>Unique facility identifier</I> means the identifier required to be submitted by the registrant for drug establishment registration under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in accordance with § 207.25 of this chapter. For Foreign Sellers registering under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the term “unique facility identifier” means the identifier required to be submitted under § 251.9 in accordance with the system specified under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesaler</I> means a person licensed as a wholesale distributor, as the terms “licensed” and “wholesale distributor” are defined in section 581(9)(A) and 581(29), respectively. The term “wholesaler” does not include a person authorized to import drugs under section 801(d)(1).
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Section 804 Importation Program Proposals and Pre-Import Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.3   SIP proposal submission requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A SIP Sponsor may delegate implementation activities to a SIP co-sponsor but the SIP Sponsor remains responsible for oversight of the implementation of the program.
</P>
<P>(b) A SIP Sponsor must only designate one Foreign Seller and one Importer per initial proposal. Additional Foreign Sellers and Importers may be added to an authorized SIP through a supplemental proposal under § 251.8.
</P>
<P>(c) A SIP Sponsor that intends to implement a SIP under this part must submit a proposal to FDA in electronic format via FDA's Electronic Submissions Gateway (ESG) or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA. The proposal must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A cover sheet containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Name or names of SIP Sponsor and co-sponsors, if any;
</P>
<P>(ii) Name and contact information for a person authorized to serve as the point of contact with FDA during its review of the proposal; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The signature of the SIP Sponsor and co-sponsors, if any, or authorized representative who is an employee or agent of the Sponsor or co-sponsor and has been authorized to sign the proposal for the Sponsor or co-sponsor. The signatory must reside or have a place of business within the United States, and the proposal cover sheet must contain the name, title, and business address of the signatory.
</P>
<P>(2) A table of contents;
</P>
<P>(3) An introductory statement that includes an overview of the SIP Sponsor's SIP Proposal; and
</P>
<P>(4) The SIP Sponsor's importation plan.
</P>
<P>(d) The overview of the SIP Proposal must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the SIP, if any, and the name or names and address or addresses of the SIP Sponsor and co-sponsors, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, email address, and telephone number of the responsible individual(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The name and DIN of each eligible prescription drug that the SIP Sponsor seeks to include in the SIP;
</P>
<P>(4) The name and address of the applicant that holds the approved NDA or ANDA for each eligible prescription drug's FDA-approved counterpart, and the approved NDA or ANDA number;
</P>
<P>(5) The name and address of the manufacturer of the finished dosage form of the eligible prescription drug, if known or reasonably known;
</P>
<P>(6) The name and address of the manufacturer of the active ingredient or ingredients of the eligible prescription drugs, if known or reasonably known;
</P>
<P>(7) The name and address of the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(8) A copy of the Foreign Seller's Health Canada Drug Establishment License;
</P>
<P>(9) The name and address of the Importer;
</P>
<P>(10) The name and address of the FDA-registered repackager or relabeler, if different from the Importer, that will relabel the eligible prescription drugs (including any limited repackaging in accordance with the requirements in this part), along with adequate evidence of registration and of satisfactory resolution of any objectionable conditions or practices identified during its most recent FDA inspection, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(11) A summary of how the SIP Sponsor will ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The imported eligible prescription drugs meet the Statutory Testing requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) The supply chain is secure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The labeling requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part are met;
</P>
<P>(iv) The post-importation pharmacovigilance and other requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part are met; and
</P>
<P>(v) The SIP will result in a significant reduction in the cost to the American consumer of the eligible prescription drugs that the SIP Sponsor seeks to import.
</P>
<P>(e) The SIP Sponsor's importation plan must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the SIP Sponsor, including any co-sponsors, identify the responsible individual(s), and identify the applicant that holds the approved NDA or ANDA for each eligible prescription drug's FDA-approved counterpart, the manufacturer(s) of the finished dosage form and the active ingredient or ingredients of each eligible prescription drug that the SIP Sponsor seeks to import, if known or reasonably known, the Foreign Seller, if known or reasonably known, and the Importer, and explain the legal relationship, if any, of each of these entities to the SIP Sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) Include an attestation and information statement containing a complete disclosure of any past criminal convictions or violations of State, Federal, or Canadian laws regarding drugs or devices against or by the responsible individual(s), Foreign Seller, or Importer or an attestation that the responsible individual(s), Foreign Seller, or Importer has not been involved in, or convicted of, any such violations. Such attestation and information statement must include principals, any shareholder who owns 10 percent or more of outstanding stock in any non-publicly held corporation, directors, officers, and any facility manager or designated representative of such manager.
</P>
<P>(3) Include a list of all disciplinary actions, to include the date of and parties to any action imposed against the responsible individual(s), Foreign Seller, or Importer by State, Federal, or Canadian regulatory bodies, including any such actions against the principals, owners, directors, officers, quality unit, or any facility manager or designated representative of such manager for the previous 7 years prior to submission of the SIP Proposal.
</P>
<P>(4) Include:
</P>
<P>(i) The Health Canada inspectional history for the Foreign Seller for the previous 5 years or, if the Foreign Seller has been licensed for less than 5 years, for the duration of its period of licensure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The State and Federal inspectional history for the Importer for the previous 5 years or, if the Importer has been licensed for less than 5 years, for the duration of its period of licensure.
</P>
<P>(5) Include the proprietary name (if any), the established name, the approved application numbers, and the DIN and National Drug Code (NDC) for each eligible prescription drug that the SIP Sponsor seeks to import from Canada and for its FDA-approved counterpart. The SIP Sponsor's importation plan must also include as much of the information that is required by § 251.5 about the HPFB-approved product and its FDA-approved counterpart as is available, including the name and quantity of the active ingredient, the inactive ingredients, and the dosage form.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide adequate evidence that each HPFB-approved drug's FDA-approved counterpart drug is currently commercially marketed in the United States.
</P>
<P>(7) Describe, to the extent possible, the testing that will be done to establish that the HPFB-approved drug meets the conditions in the NDA or ANDA for the HPFB-approved drug's FDA-approved counterpart. The SIP Sponsor's importation plan must also identify the qualifying laboratory that will conduct the Statutory Testing for the Importer, if the Importer is responsible for conducting the Statutory Testing, and it must establish that the laboratory is qualified in accordance with § 251.15 to conduct the tests.
</P>
<P>(8) Include a copy of the FDA-approved drug labeling for the FDA-approved counterpart of the eligible prescription drug, a copy of the proposed labeling that will be used for the eligible prescription drug, and a side-by-side comparison of the FDA-approved labeling and the proposed labeling, including the Prescribing Information, carton and container labeling, and patient labeling (e.g., Medication Guide, Instructions for Use, patient package inserts), with all differences annotated and explained. The SIP Proposal must also include a copy of the HPFB-approved labeling.
</P>
<P>(9) Explain how the SIP Sponsor will ensure that the SIP will result in a significant reduction in the cost to the American consumer of the eligible prescription drugs that the SIP Sponsor seeks to import. The explanation must include any assumptions and uncertainty, and it must be sufficiently detailed to allow for a meaningful evaluation.
</P>
<P>(10) Explain how the SIP Sponsor will ensure that all the participants in the SIP comply with the requirements of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(11) Describe the procedures the SIP Sponsor will use to ensure that the requirements of this part are met, including the steps that will be taken to ensure that the:
</P>
<P>(i) Storage, handling, and distribution practices of supply chain participants, including transportation providers, meet the requirements of part 205 of this chapter and do not affect the quality or impinge on the security of the eligible prescription drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Supply chain is secure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Importer screens the eligible prescription drugs it imports for evidence that they are adulterated, counterfeit, damaged, tampered with, expired, suspect foreign product, or illegitimate foreign product; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Importer fulfills its responsibilities to submit adverse event, field alert, and other reports required by the SIP, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or this part.
</P>
<P>(12) Explain how the SIP Sponsor will educate pharmacists, healthcare providers, pharmacy benefit managers, health insurance issuers and plans, as appropriate, and patients about the eligible prescription drugs imported under its SIP.
</P>
<P>(13) Include the SIP's recall plan, including an explanation of how the SIP Sponsor will obtain recall or market withdrawal information and how it will ensure that recall or market withdrawal information is shared among the SIP Sponsor, the Foreign Seller, the Importer, and FDA and provided to the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(14) Include the SIP's return plan, including an explanation of how the SIP Sponsor will ensure that product that is returned after distribution in the United States is properly dispositioned in the United States, if it is a non-saleable return, in order to protect patients from expired or unsafe drugs, and an explanation of how the SIP Sponsor will prevent the non-saleable returned eligible prescription drugs from being exported from the United States. In the event that a returned eligible prescription drug may be considered saleable, include an explanation for how the returned product will be determined to be saleable and under what circumstances such eligible prescription drugs may be re-distributed in the United States.
</P>
<P>(15) Include the SIP's compliance plan, which must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the division of responsibilities among co-sponsors, if any, which includes a plan for timely communication of any compliance issues to the SIP Sponsor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of responsible individual(s) and a description of the respective area(s) of the SIP, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or this part that will be under each responsible individual's oversight;
</P>
<P>(iii) The creation of written compliance policies, procedures, and protocols;
</P>
<P>(iv) The provision of education and training to ensure that Foreign Sellers, Importers, qualifying laboratories, and their employees understand their compliance-related obligations;
</P>
<P>(v) The creation and maintenance of effective lines of communication, including a process to protect the anonymity of complainants and to protect whistleblowers; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The adoption of processes and procedures for uncovering and addressing noncompliance, misconduct, or conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(16) Explain how the SIP Sponsor will ensure that any information that the manufacturer supplies to authenticate a prescription drug being tested and confirm that the labeling of the prescription drug complies with labeling requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and any trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential that the manufacturer supplies for the purposes of testing or otherwise complying with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, are kept in strict confidence and used only for the purposes of testing or otherwise complying with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.4" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.4   Review and authorization of importation program proposals.</HEAD>
<P>Based on a review of a SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal submitted under this part, FDA may authorize a SIP, modify a SIP, or extend the authorization period of a SIP, that meets the requirements of this part. FDA may use a phased review process to review a SIP Proposal that does not identify a Foreign Seller in an initial submission, under which FDA may notify the Sponsor of such a SIP Proposal whether the Sponsor's SIP Proposal otherwise meets the requirements of this part. In such a case, the required information regarding importers, relabelers, and repackagers still must be included in the initial submission of the SIP Proposal, and the SIP Proposal will be denied if a Foreign Seller is not identified within 6 months of the initial submission date of the SIP Proposal.
</P>
<P>(a) FDA may deny a request for authorization, modification, or extension of a SIP, including if a SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal does not meet the requirements of this part. When a SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal meets the requirements of this part, FDA may nonetheless decide not to authorize the SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal. For example, FDA may decide not to authorize a SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal because of potential safety concerns with the SIP; because a Foreign Seller is not identified within 6 months of the initial submission of the SIP Proposal; because of the degree of uncertainty that the SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal would adequately ensure the protection of public health; because of, based on the recommendation of another Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) component as directed by the Secretary, the relative likelihood that the SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal would not result in significant cost savings to the American consumer; because of the potential for conflicts of interest; or in order to limit the number of authorized SIPs so FDA can effectively and efficiently carry out its responsibilities under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in light of the amount of resources allocated to carrying out such responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will notify a SIP Sponsor in writing when FDA receives the SIP Sponsor's SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will make a reasonable effort to promptly communicate to a SIP Sponsor about any information required by § 251.3 that was not submitted in a SIP Proposal.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA may notify a SIP Sponsor if FDA believes additional information would help FDA's review of a SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify a SIP Sponsor in writing whether FDA has decided to authorize or not to authorize the SIP Sponsor's SIP Proposal or supplemental proposal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.5   Pre-Import Request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An eligible prescription drug may not be imported or offered for import under this part unless the Importer has filed a Pre-Import Request for that drug in accordance with this section and FDA has granted the Pre-Import Request.
</P>
<P>(b) The Importer must submit a complete Pre-Import Request in electronic format via the ESG, or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA, at least 30 calendar days prior to the scheduled date of arrival or entry for consumption, whichever occurs first, of an eligible prescription drug covered under an authorized SIP.
</P>
<P>(c) A complete Pre-Import Request must include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the Importer, including Importer name; business type (wholesale distributor or pharmacist); U.S. license number(s) and State(s) of license; business address; unique facility identifier if required to register with FDA as an establishment under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or FDA establishment identification number if not required to register under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and the name, email address, and phone number of a contact person.
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the FDA-authorized SIP, including the name of the SIP, if any; the name or names of the SIP Sponsor and co-sponsors, if any; business address; and the name, email address, and phone number of a contact person.
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of the Foreign Seller, including the name of the Foreign Seller; business address; unique facility identifier; any license numbers issued by Health Canada or a provincial regulatory body; and the name, email address, and phone number of a contact person.
</P>
<P>(4) Identification and description of each drug covered by the Pre-Import Request, including, for each drug, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Established and proprietary name of the HPFB-approved drug, as applicable; DIN; and complete product description, including strength, description of dosage form, and route(s) of administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) Active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) information, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of API;
</P>
<P>(B) Manufacturer of API and its unique facility identifier; and
</P>
<P>(C) Amount of API and unit measure in the eligible prescription drug;
</P>
<P>(iii) Established name and proprietary name, as applicable, of the FDA-approved counterpart drug and NDA or ANDA number.
</P>
<P>(iv) Manufacturer of the eligible prescription drug with the business address and unique facility identifier.
</P>
<P>(v) Copies of the invoice and any other documents related to the manufacturer's sale of the drug to the Foreign Seller that was provided by the manufacturer to the Importer, and copies of the same documents provided by the Foreign Seller to the Importer.
</P>
<P>(vi) Quantity, listed separately by dosage form, strength, batch and lot or control number assigned by the manufacturer to the eligible prescription drug intended to be imported under this Pre-Import Request, compared to the quantity of each batch and lot or control number originally received by the Foreign Seller from the manufacturer, and the date of such receipt.
</P>
<P>(vii) Expiration date of the HFPB-approved drug, listed by lot or control number assigned by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(viii) Expiration date to be assigned to the eligible prescription drug when relabeled by the Importer with a complete description of how that expiration date was determined using the manufacturer's stability studies in accordance with the FDA-approved NDA or ANDA.
</P>
<P>(ix) NDC proposed for assignment by the Importer.
</P>
<P>(x) FDA product code for the eligible prescription drug(s) to be imported.
</P>
<P>(xi) Unless the manufacturer has notified the Importer that it intends to conduct the required testing as provided in § 251.16(e), a Statutory Testing plan that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of how the samples will be selected from a shipment for the Statutory Testing;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and location of the qualifying laboratory in the United States that will conduct the Statutory Testing; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the testing method(s) that will be used to conduct the Statutory Testing.
</P>
<P>(xii) Attestation and information statement from the manufacturer that establishes that the drug proposed for import, but for the fact that it bears the HPFB-approved labeling, meets the conditions in the FDA-approved NDA or ANDA, including any process-related or other requirements for which compliance cannot be established through laboratory testing. Accordingly, the attestation and information statement must include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) Confirmation that the HPFB-approved drug has the active ingredient(s), active ingredient source(s) (including manufacturing facility or facilities), inactive ingredient(s), dosage form, strength(s), and route(s) of administration described in the FDA-approved drug's NDA or ANDA.
</P>
<P>(B) Confirmation that the HPFB-approved drug conforms to the specifications in the FDA-approved drug's NDA or ANDA regarding the quality of the drug substance(s), drug product, intermediates, raw materials, reagents, components, in-process materials, container closure systems, and other materials used in the production of the drug.
</P>
<P>(C) Confirmation that the HPFB-approved drug was manufactured in accordance with the conditions described in the FDA-approved drug's NDA or ANDA, including with regard to the facilities and manufacturing lines that are used, and in compliance with current good manufacturing practice requirements set forth in section 501 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and parts 4 (if a combination product), 210, and 211 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(D) Original date of manufacture or the date used to calculate the labeled expiration date based on the HPFB-approved or scientifically validated expiration period, the expiration period set forth in the FDA-approved drug's NDA or ANDA, and any other information needed to label the drug with an expiration date within the expiration dating period determined by stability studies in the FDA-approved NDA or ANDA.
</P>
<P>(E) Information needed to confirm that the labeling of the prescription drug complies with labeling requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Information related to the importation, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Location of the eligible prescription drugs in Canada and anticipated date of shipment (date the eligible prescription drug(s) leave their location in Canada);
</P>
<P>(B) Name, address, email address, and telephone number of the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(C) Anticipated date of export from Canada and Canadian port of exportation;
</P>
<P>(D) Anticipated date and approximate time of arrival at the port authorized by FDA to import eligible prescription drugs under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(E) The name, address, unique facility identifier or FDA establishment identification number, and telephone number of the secured warehouse, location within a specific foreign trade zone, or other secure distribution facility controlled by or under contract with the Importer where the eligible prescription drug will be stored pending testing, relabeling, and FDA determination of admissibility;
</P>
<P>(F) Information regarding the facility where the relabeling and any repackaging allowed under the authorized SIP will occur for the eligible prescription drug, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The facility's unique facility identifier;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The facility's name, address, and FDA establishment identifier number;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The anticipated date the relabeling and any limited repackaging will be completed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information about where the relabeled drug will be stored pending distribution, including the FDA establishment identification number of the storage facility, if available.
</P>
<P>(d) The manufacturer must provide the attestation and information statement described in paragraph (c)(4)(xii) of this section to the Importer within 30 calendar days of receiving the Importer's request. If the manufacturer cannot provide the attestation and information statement, it must notify FDA and the Importer of its inability to provide the attestation and information statement and articulate with specificity the reason(s) why it cannot provide the attestation and information statement.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The Importer must provide the executed batch record, including the certificate of analysis, for at least one recently manufactured, commercial-scale batch of the HPFB-approved drug, and at least one recently manufactured, commercial-scale batch of the FDA-approved drug that was produced for and released for distribution to the U.S. market under an NDA or ANDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer must provide these records to the Importer, within 30 calendar days of receiving the Importer's request, for each manufacturing line that the manufacturer used to produce either or both of the drugs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.6" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.6   Termination of authorized importation programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless an extension is granted under this part, authorization for a SIP automatically terminates after 2 years, or a shorter period of time if a shorter period of time is specified in the authorization for the SIP.
</P>
<P>(b) The authorization period for a SIP begins when the Importer, or its authorized customs broker, files an electronic import entry for consumption for its first shipment of drugs under the SIP.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, authorization for a SIP terminates if the Importer, or its authorized customs broker, does not file an electronic import entry for consumption for a shipment of eligible prescription drugs under the SIP within 1 year of the date that the SIP was authorized.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will terminate authorization of a SIP upon request from the SIP Sponsor.
</P>
<P>(e) An eligible prescription drug cannot be shipped into the United States under this part, and is subject to refusal of admission into the United States, if the authorization of the SIP has terminated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.7" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.7   Suspension and revocation of authorized importation programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may suspend a SIP under any of the circumstances set forth in § 251.18, or under any other circumstances in FDA's discretion. An eligible prescription drug cannot be shipped into the United States under this part, and is subject to refusal of admission into the United States, if FDA has suspended the SIP or revoked its authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) SIP Sponsors and other SIP participants must agree to submit to audits of their books and records and inspections of their facilities as a condition of participation in a SIP. If a SIP Sponsor, manufacturer, Foreign Seller, Importer, qualifying laboratory, or other participant in the supply chain delays, denies, or limits an inspection, or refuses to permit entry, inspection, or audit of its facility or its records, FDA may suspend the SIP, in whole or in part, immediately.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may revoke authorization of a SIP, in whole or in part, including with respect to one or more drugs in the SIP, at any time if FDA determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The SIP Proposal contained an untrue statement of material fact;
</P>
<P>(2) The SIP Proposal omitted material information;
</P>
<P>(3) The SIP no longer meets the requirements of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, this part, or the SIP, including, among other things, if FDA finds that the manufacturer, the Foreign Seller, the Importer, or any other supply chain participant is found to be not compliant with section 501(a)(2)(A) or (B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(4) Continued implementation of the SIP is reasonably likely to pose additional risk to the public's health and safety;
</P>
<P>(5) Confidential manufacturer information was disclosed in violation of § 251.16;
</P>
<P>(6) Continued implementation of the SIP is not reasonably likely to result in a significant reduction in the cost of the drugs covered by the SIP to the American consumer;
</P>
<P>(7) Continued monitoring of the SIP imposes too much of a burden on FDA or HHS resources for carrying out this part or is inconsistent with FDA or HHS prioritization of resources;
</P>
<P>(8) Continued implementation of the SIP is otherwise inappropriate; or
</P>
<P>(9) Grounds exist for suspension under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section and FDA determines it should revoke, either instead of, or after, suspension.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.8" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.8   Modification or extension of authorized importation programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A supplemental proposal to modify or extend an authorized SIP must be submitted in electronic format via the ESG, or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA, for FDA's consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA's review and authorization of a supplemental proposal to modify or extend an authorized SIP is governed by this part. In reviewing a supplemental proposal, FDA may take into account information learned subsequent to authorization of the SIP.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may authorize a supplemental proposal from a SIP Sponsor to add additional Foreign Sellers or additional Importers to an authorized SIP if FDA determines the SIP Sponsor has adequately demonstrated that the SIP has consistently imported eligible prescription drugs in accordance with section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part. Each supply chain under a SIP must be limited to one manufacturer, one Foreign Seller, and one Importer.
</P>
<P>(d) If FDA authorizes changes to a SIP, the Importer must submit a new Pre-Import Request in accordance with § 251.5.
</P>
<P>(e) A SIP Sponsor must not make any changes or permit any changes to be made to a SIP without first securing FDA's authorization.
</P>
<P>(f) A SIP Sponsor may request that FDA extend the authorization period of an authorized SIP. Such a request must be submitted at least 90 calendar days before the SIP's authorization period will expire. To be eligible for an extension of the authorized SIP, a SIP must be up to date on all of the information and records-related requirements of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part. FDA may extend the authorization period for up to 2 years at a time.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Certain Requirements for Section 804 Importation Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.9" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.9   Registration of Foreign Sellers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any Foreign Seller(s) designated in a SIP Proposal must be registered with FDA before FDA will authorize the SIP Proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) To register, a Foreign Seller must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the owner or operator; if a partnership, the name of each partner; if a corporation, the name of each corporate officer and director, and the place of incorporation;
</P>
<P>(2) All names of the Foreign Seller, including names under which the Foreign Seller conducts business or names by which the Foreign Seller is known;
</P>
<P>(3) Physical address and telephone number(s) of the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(4) Registration number, if previously assigned by FDA;
</P>
<P>(5) A unique facility identifier in accordance with the system specified under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(6) All types of operations performed by the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(7) Name, mailing address, telephone number, and email address of the official contact for the establishment; and
</P>
<P>(8) Name, mailing address, telephone number, and email address of:
</P>
<P>(i) The U.S. agent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Importer to which the Foreign Seller plans to sell eligible prescription drugs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Each SIP Sponsor with which the Foreign Seller works.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.10   Reviewing and updating registration information for Foreign Sellers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited updates.</I> A Foreign Seller must update its registration information no later than 30 calendar days after:
</P>
<P>(1) Closing or being sold;
</P>
<P>(2) Changing its name or physical address; or
</P>
<P>(3) Changing the name, mailing address, telephone number, or email address of the official contact or the U.S. agent. A Foreign Seller, official contact, or U.S. agent may notify FDA about a change of information for the designated official contact or U.S. agent, but only a Foreign Seller is permitted to designate a new official contact or U.S. agent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual review and update of registration information.</I> A Foreign Seller must review and update all registration information required under § 251.9.
</P>
<P>(1) The first review and update must occur during the period beginning on October 1 and ending December 31 of the year of initial registration, if the initial registration occurs prior to October 1. Subsequent reviews and updates must occur annually, during the period beginning on October 1 and ending December 31 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) The updates must reflect new changes not previously required to be reported, along with a summary of the registration updates that were provided to FDA as required during the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(3) If no changes have occurred since the last registration, a Foreign Seller must certify that no changes have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.11" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.11   Official contact and U.S. agent for Foreign Sellers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Official contact.</I> A Foreign Seller subject to the registration requirements of this part must designate an official contact. The official contact is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensuring the accuracy of registration information as required by § 251.9; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing, disseminating, routing, and responding to all communications from FDA, including emergency communications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>U.S. agent.</I> (1) A Foreign Seller must designate a single U.S. agent. The U.S. agent must reside or maintain a place of business in the United States and may not be a mailbox, answering machine or service, or other place where a person acting as the U.S. agent is not physically present. The U.S. agent is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviewing, disseminating, routing, and responding to all communications from FDA, including emergency communications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Responding to questions concerning those drugs that are imported or offered for import to the United States; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Assisting FDA in scheduling inspections.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may provide certain information and/or documents to the U.S. agent. The provision of information and/or documents by FDA to the U.S. agent is equivalent to providing the same information and/or documents to the Foreign Seller.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.12" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.12   Importer responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Importer is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) In accordance with the procedures set forth in § 207.33 of this chapter, proposing an NDC for assignment for each eligible prescription drug imported pursuant to this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Examining the Canadian labeling of a sample of each shipment of eligible prescription drugs to verify that the labeling is that of the HPFB-approved drug, and attesting that such examination has been conducted through reports to FDA required under this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Screening eligible prescription drugs for evidence that they are adulterated, counterfeit, damaged, tampered with, expired, suspect foreign product, or illegitimate foreign product;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensuring the eligible prescription drug is relabeled with the required U.S. labeling, including the container and carton labeling; Prescribing Information; and patient labeling, such as Medication Guides, Instruction for Use documents, and patient package inserts, in accordance with §§ 251.13 and 251.14(d);
</P>
<P>(5) Arranging for an entry to be submitted in accordance with § 251.17;
</P>
<P>(6) Collecting and submitting the information and documentation to FDA about the imported drug(s) pursuant to section 804(d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in addition to information about the Foreign Seller, as set forth in § 251.19; and
</P>
<P>(7) Submitting the adverse event, field alert, and other reports, and complying with drug recalls, in accordance with § 251.18.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Importer is also relabeling the eligible prescription drug, the Importer must also:
</P>
<P>(1) Register with FDA as a repackager or relabeler under section 510(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in accordance with § 207.25 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain a labeler code from FDA and propose an NDC for each eligible prescription drug pursuant to § 207.33 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) List each eligible prescription drug pursuant to § 207.53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Importer is not itself relabeling the eligible prescription drug, the Importer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain its own labeler code from FDA under § 207.33(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the eligible prescription drug incorporates the NDC the Importer proposed for assignment, which must include the Importer's labeler code; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that the entity relabeling an eligible prescription drug on its behalf proposes an NDC pursuant to § 207.33 of this chapter and lists each eligible prescription drug pursuant to § 207.53 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.13" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.13   Labeling of eligible prescription drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the request of a SIP Sponsor or Importer, the manufacturer of an eligible prescription drug must provide an Importer written authorization for the Importer to use, at no cost, the FDA-approved labeling for the drug. If the manufacturer fails to do so within 30 calendar days of receiving the Importer's request, FDA may deem this authorization to have been given.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the exemption provided in subpart D of part 201 of this chapter, an eligible prescription drug imported for purposes of this part is exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The Importer or the manufacturer certifies that the drug meets all labeling requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including the requirements of this part. The Importer of an eligible prescription drug must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Propose an NDC for the drug following the procedures in § 207.33 of this chapter and list the drug following the procedures in § 207.53 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Take responsibility to ensure that the entity performing relabeling on its behalf lists each eligible prescription drug and incorporates the NDC the Importer proposed for assignment in accordance with the applicable requirements of part 207 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The drug must be:
</P>
<P>(i) In the possession of a person (or his or her agents or employees), including Foreign Sellers and Importers, regularly and lawfully engaged in the manufacture, transportation, storage, or wholesale distribution of prescription drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the possession of a retail, hospital, or clinic pharmacy, or a public health agency, regularly and lawfully engaged in dispensing prescription drugs; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the possession of a practitioner licensed by law to administer or prescribe such drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) The drug is to be dispensed in accordance with section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(4) At the time the drug is sold or dispensed, the labeling of the drug must be the same as the FDA-approved labeling under the applicable NDA or ANDA, except that the labeling must bear conspicuously:
</P>
<P>(i) The Importer's NDC for the eligible prescription drug, and such NDC must replace any other NDC otherwise appearing on the label of the FDA-approved drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) The lot number assigned by the manufacturer of the eligible prescription drug, on the carton labeling and on the container label;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and place of business of the Importer;
</P>
<P>(iv) The statement: “[This drug was/These drugs were] imported from Canada without the authorization of [Name of Applicant] under the [Name of SIP Sponsor] Section 804 Importation Program.” If the SIP maintains a website, the statement could also include the website address. This statement must appear in the HOW SUPPLIED/STORAGE AND HANDLING section for products subject to §§ 201.56(d) and 201.57 of this chapter, or in the HOW SUPPLIED section for products subject to §§ 201.56(e) and 201.80 of this chapter. The statement also must be included on the immediate container label and outside package;
</P>
<P>(v) For products subject to §§ 201.56(d) and 201.57(c)(17)(iii) of this chapter, the NDC(s) assigned to the eligible prescription drug in accordance with the procedures in § 207.33 of this chapter must be included in the HOW SUPPLIED/STORAGE AND HANDLING section in place of the NDC(s) assigned to the FDA-approved versions of the drug. The NDC(s) also must be included on the immediate container label and outside package;
</P>
<P>(vi) For products subject to §§ 201.56(d) and 201.57(a)(11)(ii) of this chapter, the Adverse Reaction Contact Reporting Statement under the Adverse Reactions heading in the Highlights of Prescribing Information. This statement must include the Importer's name and the telephone number of the firm to provide a structured process for reporting suspected adverse events; and
</P>
<P>(vii) For products subject to §§ 201.56(e) and 201.80(k)(3) of this chapter, the NDC(s) assigned to the eligible prescription drug in accordance with the procedures in § 207.33 of this chapter. The NDC(s) must be included in the HOW SUPPLIED section in place of the NDC(s) assigned to the FDA-approved versions of the drug. The NDC(s) also must be included on the immediate container label and outside package.
</P>
<P>(c) The Importer is responsible for relabeling the drug, or arranging for it to be relabeled, to meet the requirements of this part. The relabeling and associated limited repackaging activities must meet applicable requirements, including applicable current good manufacturing practice requirements under parts 210 and 211 of this chapter. Except for repackaging that is necessary to perform the relabeling described in this part, further repackaging of drugs imported pursuant to a SIP is prohibited. Repackaging the container closure of a drug is not permitted under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The Importer may submit to FDA, in electronic format via the ESG or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA, under § 251.8, a supplemental proposal to modify the labeling of an eligible prescription drug, for example if the eligible prescription drug's container is too small to fit the additional information required by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.14" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.14   Supply chain security requirements for eligible prescription drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>SIP Sponsor.</I> A sponsor of an authorized SIP must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each drug imported under the SIP is HPFB-approved and labeled for sale in Canada by the manufacturer before it reaches the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(2) For each drug that is imported under the SIP and that is manufactured outside Canada, the drug was authorized for import into Canada by the manufacturer and was not transshipped through Canada for sale in another country;
</P>
<P>(3) For each drug imported under the SIP, the drug was sold by the manufacturer directly to a Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(4) For each drug imported under the SIP, the Foreign Seller ships the drug directly to the Importer in the United States;
</P>
<P>(5) For each drug imported under the SIP, the Foreign Seller identified in the SIP meets applicable supply chain security requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(6) The Importer identified in the SIP meets the applicable requirements of this part and in sections 582(c) and (d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(7) Returned eligible prescription drugs are properly dispositioned in, and not exported from, the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manufacturer.</I> For each transaction of the eligible prescription drug, the manufacturer must provide to the Importer, within 30 calendar days of receiving the Importer's request, a copy of all transaction documents that were provided from the manufacturer to the Foreign Seller.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign Seller.</I> (1) A Foreign Seller must have systems in place to:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether a drug in its possession or control that it intends to sell to the Importer under a SIP is a suspect foreign product. Upon making a determination that a drug in its possession or control is a suspect foreign product, or upon receiving a request for verification from FDA that the Foreign Seller has determined that a product within its possession or control is a suspect foreign product, a Foreign Seller must:
</P>
<P>(A) Quarantine such product within its possession or control until such product is cleared or dispositioned;
</P>
<P>(B) Promptly conduct an investigation, in coordination with the Importer and the manufacturer, as applicable, to determine whether the product is an illegitimate foreign product, and verify the product at the package level, including the SSI; and
</P>
<P>(C) If the Foreign Seller makes the determination that a suspect foreign product is not an illegitimate foreign product, promptly notify FDA of such determination for those products that FDA has requested verification.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine whether a drug in its possession or control that it intends to sell to the Importer under a SIP is an illegitimate foreign product. Upon making a determination that a drug in its possession or control is an illegitimate foreign product, the Foreign Seller must:
</P>
<P>(A) Quarantine such product within the possession or control of the Foreign Seller from product intended for distribution until such product is dispositioned;
</P>
<P>(B) Disposition the illegitimate foreign product within the possession or control of the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(C) Take reasonable and appropriate steps to assist a manufacturer or Importer to disposition an illegitimate product not in the possession or control of the Foreign Seller; and
</P>
<P>(D) Retain a sample of the product for further physical examination or laboratory analysis of the product by the manufacturer or FDA (or other appropriate Federal or State official) upon request by FDA (or other appropriate Federal or State official), as necessary and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Upon determining that a product in the possession or control of the Foreign Seller is an illegitimate foreign product, the Foreign Seller must notify FDA and the Importer that the Foreign Seller received such illegitimate product not later than 24 hours after making such determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon the receipt of a notification from the manufacturer, FDA, the Importer or other wholesale distributor, or dispenser that a determination has been made that a product that had been sold by the Foreign Seller is an illegitimate foreign product, a Foreign Seller must identify all illegitimate foreign product subject to such notification that is in the possession or control of the Foreign Seller, including any product that is subsequently received, and perform the activities to investigate the product described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon making a determination, in consultation with FDA, that a notification is no longer necessary, a Foreign Seller must promptly notify the Importer and person who sent the notification that the notification is terminated.
</P>
<P>(iv) A Foreign Seller must keep records of the disposition of an illegitimate foreign product for not less than 6 years after the conclusion of the disposition.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon request by FDA, or other appropriate Federal or State official, in the event of a recall or for purposes of investigating a suspect foreign product or an illegitimate foreign product, a Foreign Seller must promptly provide the official with information about its transactions with the manufacturer and the Importer.
</P>
<P>(4) A Foreign Seller, upon receiving a shipment of eligible prescription drugs from the manufacturer, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Separate the portion of drugs intended for sale to the Importer located in the United States, and store such portion separately from that portion of product intended for sale in the Canadian market;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assign an SSI to each package and homogenous case intended for sale to the Importer in the United States, unless each such package and homogenous case displayed a manufacturer-affixed or imprinted product identifier, as such term is defined in section 581(14) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, at the time of receipt by the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(iii) Affix or imprint the SSI on each package and homogenous case intended for sale to the Importer in the United States. Such SSI must be located on blank space on the package or homogenous case and must not obscure any labeling for the Canadian market, including the DIN; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Keep records associating the SSI with the DIN and all the records the Foreign Seller received from the manufacturer upon receipt of the original shipment intended for the Canadian market for not less than 6 years.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon receiving a request for verification from the Importer or other authorized repackager, wholesale distributor, or dispenser that is in possession or control of a product such person believes to be distributed by such Foreign Seller, a Foreign Seller must, not later than 24 hours after receiving the request for verification, or in such other reasonable time as determined by the FDA based on the circumstances of the request, notify the person making the request whether the SSI that is the subject of the request corresponds to the SSI affixed or imprinted by the Foreign Seller. If a Foreign Seller responding to a request for verification identifies an SSI that does not correspond to that SSI affixed or imprinted by the Foreign Seller, the Foreign Seller must treat such product as suspect foreign product and conduct an investigation as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. If the Foreign Seller determines the product is an illegitimate foreign product, the Foreign Seller must advise the person making the request of such determination at the time such Foreign Seller responds to the request for verification.
</P>
<P>(6) For each transaction between the Foreign Seller and the Importer for an eligible prescription drug, the Foreign Seller must provide:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the Foreign Seller purchased the product directly from the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The proprietary name (if any) and the established name of the product;
</P>
<P>(iii) The strength and dosage form of the product;
</P>
<P>(iv) The container size;
</P>
<P>(v) The number of containers;
</P>
<P>(vi) The lot number of the product assigned by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(vii) The date of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(viii) The date of the shipment, if more than 24 hours after the date of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(ix) The business name and address of the person associated with the Foreign Seller from whom ownership is being transferred;
</P>
<P>(x) The business name and address of the person associated with the Importer to whom ownership is being transferred;
</P>
<P>(xi) The SSI for each package and homogenous case of product; and
</P>
<P>(xii) The Canadian DIN for each product transferred.
</P>
<P>(7) Upon a request by FDA, or other appropriate Federal or State official, in the event of a recall or for purposes of investigating a suspect foreign product or an illegitimate foreign product, the Foreign Seller must promptly provide the official with information about its transactions with the manufacturer and the Importer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Importers.</I> (1) An Importer of an eligible prescription drug must purchase the drug directly from a Foreign Seller in Canada.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an eligible prescription drug in a transaction from the Foreign Seller, an Importer must facilitate the affixation or imprinting of a product identifier, as defined in section 581(14) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, for all eligible prescription drugs. The Importer must ensure that such affixation or imprinting occurs at the same time the product is relabeled with the required U.S.-approved labeling for the drug product and, except for repackaging necessary to perform the relabeling described in this part, cannot otherwise relabel or repackage the product. The Importer may affix or imprint the product identifier, or the Importer may contract with an entity registered with FDA under part 207 of this chapter to accomplish such relabeling, provided that the entity does not otherwise relabel or repackage the product, except for repackaging that is necessary to perform the relabeling described in this part. Any entity with which the Importer contracts to accomplish such labeling must, even if not engaged in a repackaging operation with respect to the eligible prescription drug, have systems and processes in place to meet applicable requirements of a “repackager” under section 582(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for any transaction involving the eligible prescription drug.
</P>
<P>(3) The repackager that affixes or imprints the product identifier on each package and homogenous case of an eligible prescription drug in accordance with section 582 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which may be the Importer or the Importer's authorized repackager—
</P>
<P>(i) May affix or imprint a product identifier only on a package of an eligible prescription drug that has a serial number that was assigned and affixed by the Foreign Seller;
</P>
<P>(ii) Must maintain the product identifier information for such drug for not less than 6 years; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Must maintain records for not less than 6 years that associate the product identifier the repackager affixes or imprints with the serial number assigned by the Foreign Seller and the Canadian DIN.
</P>
<P>(4) An Importer must retain records, for not less than 6 years, that allow the Importer to associate the product identifier affixed or imprinted on each package or homogenous case of product it received from the Foreign Seller, with the SSI that had been assigned by the Foreign Seller, and the Canadian DIN that was on the package when the Foreign Seller received the product from the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(5) An Importer must, upon receipt of an eligible prescription drug and records from a Foreign Seller, compare such information with information the Importer received from the manufacturer, including relevant documentation about the transaction that the manufacturer provided to the Foreign Seller upon its transfer of ownership of the product for the Canadian market.
</P>
<P>(6) An Importer must comply with all applicable requirements of section 582 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including requirements that apply to subsequent transactions with trading partners, unless a waiver, exception, or exemption applies.
</P>
<P>(7) For transactions of eligible prescription drugs between Importers and Foreign Sellers under a SIP, an Importer is exempt from the following specific supply chain security requirements that are otherwise applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An Importer is exempt from the prohibition on receiving a product for which the previous owner did not provide the transaction history, transaction information, and transaction statement, under sections 582(c)(1)(A) or (d)(1)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as applicable, provided that the Importer receives from the Foreign Seller the information required under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An Importer is exempt from the prohibition on receiving a product that is not encoded with a product identifier, under sections 582(c)(2) or (d)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as applicable, provided that the product the Importer received from the Foreign Seller has an SSI.
</P>
<P>(iii) An Importer is exempt from the prohibition on conducting a transaction with an entity that is not an “authorized trading partner,” under sections 582(c)(3) or (d)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) An Importer is exempt from the requirement to verify that a product in the Importer's possession or control contains a “standardized numerical identifier” at the package level, under sections 582(c)(4)(A)(i)(II) or (d)(4)(A)(ii)(II) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act as applicable, provided that the Importer verifies that each package and homogenous case of the product includes the SSI affixed or imprinted by the Foreign Seller.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.15" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.15   Qualifying laboratory requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be considered a qualifying laboratory for purposes of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, a laboratory must have ISO 17025 accreditation.
</P>
<P>(b) To be considered a qualifying laboratory for purposes of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, a laboratory must have an FDA inspection history and it must have satisfactorily addressed any objectionable conditions or practices identified during its most recent FDA inspection, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) To be considered a qualifying laboratory for purposes of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, a laboratory must comply with the applicable current good manufacturing practice requirements, including provisions regarding laboratory controls in § 211.160 of this chapter and laboratory records in § 211.194 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.16" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.16   Laboratory testing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The manufacturer or the Importer must arrange for drugs imported under an authorized SIP to be tested by a qualifying laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless the manufacturer conducts the Statutory Testing, in accordance with this part, the manufacturer of the drugs imported under an authorized SIP must supply to the Importer, within 30 calendar days of receiving the Importer's request, all information needed to conduct the Statutory Testing, including any testing protocols, Certificate of Analysis, and samples of analytical reference standards that the manufacturer has developed. The manufacturer must also provide the Importer, within 30 calendar days of receiving the Importer's request, with formulation information about the HPFB-approved drug, a stability-indicating assay, and the FDA-approved drug to facilitate authentication.
</P>
<P>(c) Testing done on a statistically valid sample of the batch or shipment, as applicable, must be sufficiently thorough to establish, in conjunction with data and information from the manufacturer, that the batch or shipment is eligible for importation under a SIP. The size of the sample must be large enough to enable a statistically valid statement to be made regarding the authenticity and stability of the quantity of the batch in the shipment or the entire shipment, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) The statistically valid sample of the HPFB-approved drug must be subjected to testing to confirm that the HPFB-approved drug meets the FDA-approved drug's specifications and standards, which include the analytical procedures and methods and the acceptance criteria. In addition, to test for degradation, a stability-indicating assay provided by the manufacturer must be conducted on the sample of the drug that is proposed for import.
</P>
<P>(e) If the manufacturer performs the Statutory Testing at a qualifying laboratory, the testing results, a complete set of laboratory records, a detailed description of the selection method for the samples, the testing methods used, complete data derived from all tests necessary to ensure that the eligible prescription drug meets the specifications and standards of the FDA-approved drug that are established in the NDA or ANDA, a Certificate of Analysis, and any other documentation demonstrating that the testing meets the requirements under section 804 must be submitted in electronic format directly to FDA via the ESG or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA. The manufacturer must notify the Importer and FDA of the manufacturer's intent to perform the Statutory Testing, and identify the qualifying laboratory for FDA review and approval pursuant to section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, within 30 calendar days of receipt of the request from the Importer described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Regardless of whether testing under this section is performed by the manufacturer or Importer, the sample of a batch or shipment of drugs must be randomly selected for testing or, in the alternative, the sample must be selected to be representative of the quantity of the batch in a shipment or of a shipment, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) Information supplied by the manufacturer to authenticate the prescription drug being tested and confirm that the labeling of the prescription drug complies with labeling requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and any trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential that the manufacturer supplies for the purposes of testing or otherwise complying with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, must be kept in strict confidence and used only for the purposes of testing or otherwise complying with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(h) To ensure that the information described in paragraph (g) of this section is protected:
</P>
<P>(1) The information that the manufacturer supplies about a prescription drug must not be disseminated except for the purpose of testing or otherwise complying with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The SIP Sponsor must take all of the steps set out in the authorized SIP Proposal to ensure that the information is kept in strict confidence and used only for the purpose of testing or otherwise complying with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.17" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.17   Importation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Importers must ensure that each shipment of eligible prescription drugs imported or offered for import pursuant to this part is accompanied by an import entry for consumption filed electronically as a formal entry in ACE, or another CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system, and designated in such a system as a drug imported pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Importer may make entry for consumption and arrival of shipments containing eligible prescription drugs only at the CBP port of entry authorized by FDA to import eligible prescription drugs under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The Importer must keep the product at a secured warehouse, location within a specific foreign trade zone, or other secure distribution facility controlled by or under contract with the Importer, and under appropriate environmental conditions to maintain the integrity of the products, until FDA issues an admissibility decision. The secured warehouse or other secure distribution facility must be within 30 miles of the authorized Port of Entry for examination.
</P>
<P>(c) If the entry for consumption is filed in ACE before the testing and relabeling of the eligible prescription drug, the Importer must submit an application to bring the drug into compliance and must relabel and test the drug in accordance with the plan approved by FDA pursuant to §§ 1.95 and 1.96 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon arrival in the United States of an initial shipment that contains a batch of an eligible prescription drug identified in a Pre-Import Request that has been granted by FDA, the Importer must select a statistically valid sample of that batch to send to a qualifying laboratory for Statutory Testing, unless the manufacturer conducts the Statutory Testing at a qualifying laboratory.
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of any subsequent shipment composed entirely of a batch of an eligible prescription drug that has already been tested in accordance with this part, the Importer must select a statistically valid sample of the shipment to send to a qualifying laboratory for Statutory Testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The Importer must send three sets of the samples sent to the qualifying laboratory in accordance with § 251.16 to the FDA field lab identified by FDA when the Agency granted the Pre-Import Request.
</P>
<P>(3) The Importer must submit to FDA a complete set of laboratory records, a detailed description of the sampling method used to select the sample of the eligible prescription drug sent to the qualifying laboratory, the testing protocols used, complete data derived from all tests necessary to ensure that the eligible prescription drug meets the specifications of the FDA-approved drug that are established in the NDA or ANDA, a Certificate of Analysis, and all relevant documentation demonstrating that the testing meets the requirements under section 804(e)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as well as any additional information FDA deems necessary to evaluate whether the drug meets manufacturing, quality, and safety standards.
</P>
<P>(e) If the manufacturer conducts the Statutory Testing, upon arrival in the United States of an initial shipment that contains a batch of an eligible prescription drug identified in a Pre-Import Request that has been granted by FDA, a statistically valid sample of that batch must be selected to send to a qualifying laboratory for the Statutory Testing.
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of any subsequent shipment composed entirely of a batch or batches of an eligible prescription drug that has already been tested in accordance with this part, the manufacturer must select a statistically valid sample of that shipment to send to a qualifying laboratory for that Statutory Testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer must send three sets of the samples the manufacturer sent to the qualifying laboratory in accordance with § 251.16 to the FDA field lab identified by FDA when the Agency granted the Pre-Import Request.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer must submit to FDA, directly in electronic form to the ESG or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA, a complete set of laboratory records, a detailed description of the selection method for the sample of the eligible prescription drug sent to the qualifying laboratory, the testing methods used, complete data derived from all tests necessary to ensure that the eligible prescription drug meets the conditions in the FDA-approved drug's NDA or ANDA, a Certificate of Analysis, and all relevant documentation demonstrating that the testing meets the requirements under section 804(e)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as well as any additional information FDA deems necessary to evaluate whether the drug meets manufacturing, quality, and safety standards.
</P>
<P>(f) After FDA has reviewed the testing results provided by the Importer or manufacturer and determined that they are acceptable, FDA will notify the Importer and then the Importer must cause the eligible prescription drug to be relabeled with the required U.S. labeling.
</P>
<P>(g) After the eligible prescription drug has been shown by testing and relabeling to meet the requirements of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, the Importer or the manufacturer must provide to FDA the written certification described in section 804(d)(1)(K) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in electronic format via the ESG or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.18" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.18   Post-importation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Stopping importation.</I> If at any point a SIP Sponsor determines that a drug, manufacturer, Foreign Seller, Importer, qualifying laboratory, or other participant in or element of the supply chain in the authorized SIP does not meet all applicable requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, FDA regulations, and the authorized SIP, the SIP Sponsor must immediately stop importation of all drugs under the SIP, notify FDA, and demonstrate to FDA that importation has in fact been stopped.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Field alert reports.</I> Importers must submit NDA and ANDA field alert reports, as described in §§ 314.81(b)(1) and 314.98 of this chapter, to the manufacturer and to FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional reporting requirements for combination products.</I> For combination products containing a device constituent part, Importers must submit the reports to the manufacturer and to FDA described in § 4.102(c)(1) of this chapter and maintain the records described in §§ 4.102(c)(1) and 4.105(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adverse event reports</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> An Importer must establish and maintain records and submit to FDA and the manufacturer reports of all adverse events associated with the use of its drug products imported under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of safety information.</I> The Importer must promptly review all domestic safety information for the eligible prescription drugs obtained or otherwise received by the Importer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited ICSRs.</I> The Importer must submit expedited ICSRs for each domestic adverse event to FDA and the manufacturer as soon as possible but no later than 15 calendar days from the date when the Importer has both met the reporting criteria described in this paragraph (d) and acquired a minimum data set for that adverse event.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Serious, unexpected adverse events.</I> The Importer must submit expedited ICSRs for domestic adverse events reported to the Importer spontaneously (such as reports initiated by a patient, consumer, or healthcare professional) that are both serious and unexpected, whether or not the Importer believes the events are related to the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other adverse event reports to be expedited upon notification by FDA.</I> Upon notification by FDA, the Importer must submit as expedited ICSRs any adverse event reports that do not qualify for expedited reporting under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section. The notice will specify the adverse events to be reported and the reason for requiring the expedited reports.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Followup reports for expedited ICSRs.</I> The Importer must actively seek any missing data elements under paragraph (d)(7) of this section or updated information for any previously submitted expedited ICSR under paragraph (d)(3) of this section. The Importer must also investigate any new information it obtains or otherwise receives about previously submitted expedited ICSRs. The Importer must submit followup reports for expedited ICSRs to FDA and the manufacturer as soon as possible but no later than 15 calendar days after obtaining the new information. The Importer must document and maintain records of its efforts to obtain missing or incomplete information.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Nonexpedited ICSRs.</I> The Importer must submit to FDA and the manufacturer an ICSR for each domestic adverse event not reported under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section (all serious, expected adverse events and nonserious adverse events) within 90 calendar days from the date when the Importer has both met the reporting criteria described in this paragraph (d) and acquired a minimum data set for that adverse event.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Completing and submitting safety reports.</I> This paragraph (d)(6) describes how to complete and submit ICSRs required under this section. Additionally, upon written notice, FDA may require the Importer to submit any of this section's adverse event reports at a different time period than identified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) and (7) through (11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Electronic format for submissions.</I> (A) ICSR and ICSR attachments must be submitted in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive, as described in § 314.80(g)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(B) The Importer may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the requirements in paragraph (d)(6)(i)(A) of this section, as described in § 314.80(g)(2) of this chapter. These waivers will be granted on a limited basis for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Completing and submitting ICSRs</I>—(A) <I>Single submission.</I> Submit each ICSR only once.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Separate ICSR.</I> The Importer must submit a separate ICSR for each patient who experiences an adverse event reportable under paragraph (d)(3)(i) or (ii) or (d)(4) or (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Coding terms.</I> The adverse event terms described in the ICSR must be coded using standardized medical terminology.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Minimum data set.</I> All ICSRs submitted under this section must contain at least the minimum data set for an adverse event. The Importer must actively seek the minimum data set in a manner consistent with its written procedures under paragraph (d)(9) of this section. The Importer must document and maintain records of its efforts to obtain the minimum data set.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>ICSR elements.</I> The Importer must complete all available elements of an ICSR as specified in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Importer must actively seek any information needed to complete all applicable elements, consistent with its written procedures under paragraph (d)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Importer must document and maintain records of its efforts to obtain the missing information.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Supporting documentation.</I> When submitting supporting documentation for expedited ICSRs of adverse events, the Importer must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Submit for each ICSR for a domestic adverse event, if available, a copy of the autopsy report if the patient died, or a copy of the hospital discharge summary if the patient was hospitalized. The Importer must submit each document as an ICSR attachment. The ICSR attachment must be submitted either with the initial ICSR or no later than 15 calendar days after obtaining the document.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Include in the ICSR a list of available, relevant documents (such as medical records, laboratory results, death certificates) that are held in its drug product safety files. Upon written notice from FDA, the Importer must submit a copy of these documents within 5 calendar days of the FDA notice.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Information reported on ICSRs.</I> ICSRs must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient information, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Patient identification code;
</P>
<P>(B) Patient age at the time of adverse event, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(C) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(D) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adverse event, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Outcome attributed to adverse event;
</P>
<P>(B) Date of adverse event;
</P>
<P>(C) Date of ICSR submission;
</P>
<P>(D) Description of adverse event (including a concise medical narrative);
</P>
<P>(E) Adverse drug event term(s);
</P>
<P>(F) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(G) Other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Suspect medical product(s), which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Name;
</P>
<P>(B) Dose, frequency, and route of administration used;
</P>
<P>(C) Therapy dates;
</P>
<P>(D) Diagnosis for use (indication);
</P>
<P>(E) Whether the product is a combination product;
</P>
<P>(F) Whether adverse event abated after drug use stopped or dose reduced;
</P>
<P>(G) Whether adverse event reappeared after reintroduction of drug;
</P>
<P>(H) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(I) Expiration date;
</P>
<P>(J) NDC; and
</P>
<P>(K) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates.
</P>
<P>(iv) Initial reporter information, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the initial reporter is a healthcare professional; and
</P>
<P>(C) Occupation, if a healthcare professional.
</P>
<P>(v) Importer information, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Importer name and contact office address;
</P>
<P>(B) Importer telephone number;
</P>
<P>(C) Date the report was received by the Importer;
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the ICSR is an expedited report;
</P>
<P>(E) Whether the ICSR is an initial report or followup report; and
</P>
<P>(F) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent followup report(s).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (i) For a period of 10 years from the initial receipt of information, the Importer must maintain records of information relating to adverse event reports under this section, whether or not submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) These records must include raw data, correspondence, and any other information relating to the evaluation and reporting of adverse event information that is obtained by the Importer.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon written notice by FDA, the Importer must submit any or all of these records to FDA within 5 calendar days after receipt of the notice. The Importer must permit any authorized FDA employee, at reasonable times, to access, copy, and verify its established and maintained records described in this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Written procedures.</I> The Importer must develop written procedures needed to fulfill the requirements in this section for the surveillance, receipt, evaluation, and reporting to FDA and the manufacturer of adverse event information, including procedures for employee training, and for obtaining and processing safety information from the Foreign Seller.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Patient privacy.</I> The Importer must not include in reports under this section the names and addresses of individual patients; instead, the Importer must assign a unique code for identification of the patient. The Importer must include the name of the reporter from whom the information was received as part of the initial reporter information, even when the reporter is the patient. As set forth in FDA's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter, FDA generally may not disclose the names of patients, individual reporters, healthcare professionals, hospitals, and geographical identifiers submitted to FDA in adverse event reports.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Safety reporting disclaimer.</I> (i) A report or information submitted by the Importer under this section (and any release by FDA of that report or information) does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the Importer or by FDA that the report or information constitutes an admission that the eligible prescription drug imported under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act caused or contributed to an adverse event.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Importer need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted as described in this section constitutes an admission that the drug product caused or contributed to an adverse event.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Drug recalls.</I> (1) The SIP Sponsor must establish a procedure to track the public announcements of the manufacturer of each drug it imports under section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and the SIP Sponsor must also monitor FDA's recall website for recall or market withdrawal information relevant to the drugs that it imports under section 804.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA, the SIP Sponsor, the Foreign Seller, the Importer, or the manufacturer determines that a recall is warranted, the SIP Sponsor must effectuate the recall in accordance with its written recall plan under paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A SIP must have a written recall plan that describes the procedures to perform a recall of the product and specifies who will be responsible for performing the procedures. The recall plan must cover recalls mandated or requested by FDA and recalls initiated by the SIP Sponsor, the Foreign Seller, the Importer, or the manufacturer. The recall plan must include sufficient procedures for the SIP Sponsor to:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately cease distribution of the drugs affected by the recall;
</P>
<P>(ii) Directly notify consignees of the drug(s) included in the recall, including how to return or dispose of the recalled drugs;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the depth to which the recall will extend (e.g., wholesale, intermediate wholesale, retail or consumer level) if not specified by FDA;
</P>
<P>(iv) Notify the public about any hazard(s) presented by the recalled drug when appropriate to protect the public health;
</P>
<P>(v) Conduct effectiveness checks to verify that all consignees at the specified recall depth have received notification about the recall and have taken appropriate action;
</P>
<P>(vi) Appropriately dispose of recalled product; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Notify FDA of the recall.
</P>
<P>(4) In the event of a recall, the Importer must, upon request by FDA, provide transaction history, information, and statement (as these terms are defined in sections 581(25), 581(26), and 581(27) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act), in accordance with applicable requirements under sections 582(c)(1)(C) and 582(d)(1)(D).
</P>
<P>(i) The Importer must also provide to FDA, upon request, information given by the manufacturer under § 251.14(a)(6), including transaction documents that were provided from the manufacturer to the Foreign Seller.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Foreign Seller must provide to FDA, upon request, information about its transactions of the recalled drug with the manufacturer and the Importer.
</P>
<P>(5) The Foreign Seller and Importer must cooperate with any recalls, including recalls initiated by the SIP Sponsor, FDA, the Foreign Seller, the Importer, or the drug's manufacturer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.19" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.19   Reports to FDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A SIP Sponsor must submit a report to FDA each quarter in electronic format via the ESG or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA containing the information set forth in this section, beginning after the SIP Sponsor files an electronic import entry for consumption for its first shipment of drugs under the SIP. If the SIP Sponsor specifies in such report that the information contained in the report is being transmitted on behalf of the Importer and in order to fulfill the Importer's obligation under § 251.12, the Importer need not separately submit such information to FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) The report in paragraph (a) of this section must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, telephone number, and professional license number (if any) of the Importer;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and quantity of the active ingredient of the imported eligible prescription drug(s);
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the dosage form of the eligible prescription drug(s);
</P>
<P>(4) The date(s) on which the eligible prescription drug(s) were shipped;
</P>
<P>(5) The quantity of the eligible prescription drug(s) that was shipped;
</P>
<P>(6) The lot or control number assigned to the eligible prescription drug(s) by the manufacturer of the eligible prescription drug(s);
</P>
<P>(7) The point of origin (<I>i.e.,</I> the manufacturer) and the destination (<I>i.e.,</I> the wholesaler, pharmacy, or patient to whom the Importer sells the drug) of the eligible prescription drug(s);
</P>
<P>(8) The per unit price paid by the Importer for the prescription drug(s) in U.S. dollars; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any other information that FDA determines is necessary for the protection of the public health.
</P>
<P>(c) The Importer must also confirm as part of the report in paragraph (a) of this section that the eligible prescription drug(s) were bought directly from the manufacturer by the Foreign Seller and that the Foreign Seller sold the eligible prescription drug(s) directly to the Importer.
</P>
<P>(d) The report in paragraph (a) of this section must include the following documentation:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation from the Foreign Seller specifying the manufacturer of each eligible prescription drug and the quantity of each lot of the eligible prescription drug(s) received by the Foreign Seller from that manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation demonstrating that the eligible prescription drug was received by the Foreign Seller from the manufacturer and subsequently shipped by the Foreign Seller to the Importer;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of the quantity of each lot of the eligible prescription drug(s) received by the Foreign Seller, demonstrating that the quantity being imported into the United States is not more than the quantity that was received by the Foreign Seller; and
</P>
<P>(4) Documentation demonstrating that the sampling and testing requirements described in section 804(d)(1)(J)(i)(III) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act were met for each shipment of each eligible prescription drug.
</P>
<P>(e) The report in paragraph (a) of this section must include certifications from the Importer for each shipment of each eligible prescription drug that the drug is approved for marketing in the United States and is not adulterated or misbranded and meets all labeling requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This certification must include:
</P>
<P>(1) That there is an authorized SIP;
</P>
<P>(2) That the imported drug is covered by the authorized SIP;
</P>
<P>(3) That the drug is an eligible prescription drug as defined in this part;
</P>
<P>(4) That the FDA-approved counterpart of the drug is currently commercially marketed in the United States;
</P>
<P>(5) That the drug is approved for marketing in Canada; and
</P>
<P>(6) That the drug is not adulterated or misbranded and meets all labeling requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(f) The report in paragraph (a) of this section must include laboratory records, including complete data derived from all tests necessary to ensure that each eligible prescription drug is in compliance with established specifications and standards, and documentation demonstrating that the Statutory Testing was conducted at a qualifying laboratory, unless the manufacturer conducted the testing and submitted this information directly to FDA.
</P>
<P>(g) The report in paragraph (a) of this section must include data, information, and analysis on the SIP's cost savings to the American consumer for the drugs imported under the SIP.
</P>
<P>(h) A SIP Sponsor must submit a report to FDA within 10 calendar days, in electronic format via the ESG or to an alternative transmission point identified by FDA, regarding any applicable criminal conviction, violation of law, or disciplinary action as described in § 251.3(e)(2) and (3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.20" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.20   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are not separate and are not severable from one another. If any provision is stayed or determined to be invalid or unenforceable, the remaining provisions shall not continue in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.21" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.19.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.21   Consequences for violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An article that is imported or offered for import into the United States in violation of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or this part is subject to refusal under section 801 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The importation of a prescription drug in violation of section 804 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the falsification of any record required to be maintained or provided to FDA under section 804; or any other violation of this part is a prohibited act under section 301(aa) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.










</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="290" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 290—CONTROLLED DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 352, 353, 355, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 14040, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 290.1" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 290.1   Controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>Any drug that is a controlled substance listed in schedule II, III, IV, or V of the Federal Controlled Substances Act or implementing regulations must be dispensed by prescription only as required by section 503(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless specifically exempted in § 290.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 4906, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 290.2" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 290.2   Exemption from prescription requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The prescription-dispensing requirements of section 503(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are not necessary for the protection of the public health with respect to a compound, mixture, or preparation containing not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams that also includes one or more nonnarcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by codeine alone.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 4907, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 290.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 290.5   Drugs; statement of required warning.</HEAD>
<P>The label of any drug listed as a “controlled substance” in schedule II, III, or IV of the Federal Controlled Substances Act shall, when dispensed to or for a patient, contain the following warning: “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed.” This statement is not required to appear on the label of a controlled substance dispensed for use in clinical investigations which are “blind.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 290.6" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 290.6   Spanish-language version of required warning.</HEAD>
<P>By direction of section 305(c) of the Federal Controlled Substances Act, § 290.5, promulgated under section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, requires the following warning on the label of certain drugs when dispensed to or for a patient: “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed.” The Spanish version of this is: “Precaucion: La ley Federal prohibe el transferir de esta droga a otra persona que no sea el paciente para quien fue recetada.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 290.10" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 290.10   Definition of emergency situation.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of authorizing an oral prescription of a controlled substance listed in schedule II of the Federal Controlled Substances Act, the term <I>emergency situation</I> means those situations in which the prescribing practitioner determines:
</P>
<P>(a) That immediate administration of the controlled substance is necessary, for proper treatment of the intended ultimate user; and
</P>
<P>(b) That no appropriate alternative treatment is available, including administration of a drug which is not a controlled substance under schedule II of the Act, and
</P>
<P>(c) That it is not reasonably possible for the prescribing practitioner to provide a written prescription to be presented to the person dispensing the substance, prior to the dispensing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Specific Controlled Drugs [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="299" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 299—DRUGS; OFFICIAL NAMES AND ESTABLISHED NAMES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 351, 352, 355, 358, 360b, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 14041, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 299.3" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.21.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 299.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part 299, <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, sections 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 (21 U.S.C. 321-392), with all amendments thereto.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the act shall be applicable to such terms when used in this part 299.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>official name</I> means, with respect to a drug or ingredient thereof, the name designated in this part 299 under section 508 of the act as the official name.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 299.4" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.21.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 299.4   Established names for drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 508 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (added by the Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendments of 1962; Pub. L. 87-781) authorizes the Commissioner of Food and Drugs to designate an official name for any drug if he determines that such action is necessary or desirable in the interest of usefulness and simplicity. Section 502(e) of the act (as amended by said Drug Amendments) prescribes that the labeling of a drug must bear its established name, if there is one, to the exclusion of any other nonproprietary name (except the applicable systematic chemical name or the chemical formula) and, if the drug is fabricated from two or more ingredients, the established name of each active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>established name</I> is defined in section 502(e)(3) of the act as (1) an official name designated pursuant to section 508 of the act; (2) if no such official name has been designated for the drug and the drug is an article recognized in an official compendium, then the official title thereof in such compendium; and (3) if neither paragraphs (b) (1) or (2) of this section applies, then the common or usual name of the drug.
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration recognizes the skill and experience of the U.S. Adopted Names Council (USAN) in deriving names for drugs. The U.S. Adopted Names Council is a private organization sponsored by the American Medical Association, the United States Pharmacopeia, and the American Pharmaceutical Association, and has been engaged in the assignment of names to drugs since January 1964. The Council negotiates with manufacturing firms in the selection of nonproprietary names for drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) The Food and Drug Administration cooperates with and is represented on the USAN Council. In addition, the Food and Drug Administration agrees with “Guiding Principles for Coining U.S. Adopted Names for Drugs,” published in <I>USAN and the USP Dictionary of Drug Names</I> (USAN 1985 ed., 1961-1984 cumulative list), which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from: U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Parkway, Rockville, MD 20852, or are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> All applicants for new-drug applications and sponsors for “Investigational New Drug Applications” (IND's) are encouraged to contact the USAN Council for assistance in selection of a simple and useful name for a new chemical entity. Approval of a new-drug application providing for the use of a new drug substance may be delayed if a simple and useful nonproprietary name does not exist for the substance and if one is not proposed in the application that meets the above-cited guidelines. Prior use of a name in the medical literature or otherwise will not commit the Food and Drug Administration to adopting such terminology as official.
</P>
<P>(e) The Food and Drug Administration will not routinely designate official names under section 508 of the act. As a result, the established name under section 502(e) of the act will ordinarily be either the compendial name of the drug or, if there is no compendial name, the common and usual name of the drug. Interested persons, in the absence of the designation by the food and Drug Administration of an official name, may rely on as the established name for any drug the current compendial name or the USAN adopted name listed in <I>USAN and the USP Dictionary of Drug Names.</I> The Food and Drug Administration, however, will continue to publish official names under the provisions of section 508 of the act when the agency determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The USAN or other official or common or usual name is unduly complex or is not useful for any other reason;
</P>
<P>(2) Two or more official names have been applied to a single drug, or to two or more drugs that are identical in chemical structure and pharmacological action and that are substantially identical in strength, quality, and purity; or
</P>
<P>(3) No USAN or other official or common or usual name has been applied to a medically useful drug. Any official name published under section 508 of the act will be the established name of the drug.
</P>
<P>(f) A cumulative list of U.S. adopted names selected and released since June 15, 1961, is published yearly by the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., in <I>USAN and the USP Dictionary of Drug Names.</I> Copies may be purchased from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Parkway, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14041, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 37575, Sept. 25, 1984; 53 FR 5369, Feb. 24, 1988; 55 FR 11577, Mar. 29, 1990; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 299.5" NODE="21:4.0.1.1.21.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 299.5   Drugs; compendial name.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The name by which a drug is designated shall be clearly distinguishing and differentiating from any name recognized in an official compendium unless such drug complies in identity with the identity prescribed in an official compendium under such recognized name.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>drug defined in an official compendium</I> means a drug having the identity prescribed for a drug in an official compendium.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement that a drug defined in an official compendium differs in strength, quality, or purity from the standard of strength, quality, or purity set forth for such drug in an official compendium shall show all the respects in which such drug so differs, and the extent of each such difference.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Dec. 18, 2025 
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="5" NODE="21:5" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 5</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (Continued) 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>300 


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:5.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES (CONTINUED) </HEAD>

<DIV4 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—DRUGS FOR HUMAN USE 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="300" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 300—GENERAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 351, 352, 355, 360b, 360bbb-0a, 371.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Combination Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.50   Fixed-combination prescription drugs for humans.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration's policy in administering the new-drug, antibiotic, and other regulatory provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act regarding fixed combination dosage form prescription drugs for humans is as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Two or more drugs may be combined in a single dosage form when each component makes a contribution to the claimed effects and the dosage of each component (amount, frequency, duration) is such that the combination is safe and effective for a significant patient population requiring such concurrent therapy as defined in the labeling for the drug. Special cases of this general rule are where a component is added: 
</P>
<P>(1) To enhance the safety or effectiveness of the principal active component; and
</P>
<P>(2) To minimize the potential for abuse of the principal active component.
</P>
<P>(b) If a combination drug presently the subject of an approved new-drug application has not been recognized as effective by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs based on his evaluation of the appropriate National Academy of Sciences-National Research Council panel report, or if substantial evidence of effectiveness has not otherwise been presented for it, then formulation, labeling, or dosage changes may be proposed and any resulting formulation may meet the appropriate criteria listed in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) A fixed-combination prescription drug for humans that has been determined to be effective for labeled indications by the Food and Drug Administration, based on evaluation of the NAS-NRC report on the combination, is considered to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13496, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Substances Generally Prohibited From Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.100" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.100   Chlorofluorocarbon propellants.</HEAD>
<P>The use of chlorofluorocarbons in human drugs as propellants in self-pressurized containers is generally prohibited except as provided by § 2.125 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11317, Mar. 17, 1978] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Annual Summary Reporting Requirements.</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 56276, Sept. 14, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 300.200" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.1.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.200   Annual summary requirements under the Right to Try Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions: The following definitions of terms apply only to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligible investigational drug.</I> An eligible investigational drug is as defined in section 561B(a)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible patient.</I> An eligible patient is as defined in section 561B(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investigational New Drug (IND).</I> An IND is as defined in § 312.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Known serious adverse event.</I> A serious adverse event (as defined in § 312.32 of this chapter) is considered “known” if the manufacturer or sponsor is aware of it.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Manufacturer or sponsor.</I> A manufacturer or sponsor is the person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Meets the definition of “sponsor” in § 312.3 of this chapter for the eligible investigational drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has submitted an application for the eligible investigational drug under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is other than a contract manufacturer acting on behalf of a manufacturer or sponsor, producing the eligible investigational drug provided to an eligible patient on behalf of the persons described in paragraph (a)(5)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a manufacturer or sponsor of an eligible investigational drug shall submit to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), no later than March 31 of each year, an annual summary of any use of eligible investigational drugs supplied to any eligible patient under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for the period of January 1 through December 31 of the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(2) For a manufacturer or sponsor of an eligible investigational drug that has supplied an eligible patient with an eligible investigational drug under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act between the period from enactment of section 561B (May 30, 2018) and December 31, 2022, the manufacturer or sponsor shall submit to FDA a first annual summary covering that period no later than March 31, 2023.
</P>
<P>(c) For each eligible investigational drug, the annual summary must include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The name of the eligible investigational drug and applicable IND number.</I> The name and IND number of the eligible investigational drug supplied by the manufacturer or sponsor for use under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Number of doses supplied.</I> The total number of doses supplied by the manufacturer or sponsor to eligible patients for use under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Each dose of an eligible investigational drug supplied for an eligible patient shall be counted as a dose supplied.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Number of patients treated.</I> The total number of eligible patients for whom the manufacturer or sponsor provided the eligible investigational drug for use under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. An eligible patient treated more than one time or with multiple doses of an eligible investigational drug shall be counted as a single patient.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use for which the eligible investigational drug was made available.</I> A tabular summary identifying the diseases or conditions for which the eligible investigational drug was made available for use under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Any known serious adverse events and outcomes.</I> A tabular summary of any known serious adverse events, including resulting outcomes, experienced by patients treated with the eligible investigational drug under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Annual summaries submitted pursuant to this section shall be submitted in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive, and shall be sent directly to a designated point of contact for submissions made under section 561B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The annual summaries must be submitted to the designated point of contact and shall not be submitted to a particular investigational new drug application. FDA will specify the designated point of contact for submission of the annual summary on FDA's website, as described at <I>https://www.fda.gov</I>.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="310" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 310—NEW DRUGS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360b-360f, 360j, 360hh-360ss, 361(a), 371, 374, 375, 379e, 379k-l; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 242(a), 262.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (secs. 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended; 21 U.S.C. 321-392). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>person</I> includes individuals, partnerships, corporations, and associations. 
</P>
<P>(f) The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the act shall be applicable to such terms when used in the regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>New drug substance</I> means any substance that when used in the manufacture, processing, or packing of a drug, causes that drug to be a new drug, but does not include intermediates used in the synthesis of such substance. 
</P>
<P>(h) The newness of a drug may arise by reason (among other reasons) of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The newness for drug use of any substance which composes such drug, in whole or in part, whether it be an active substance or a menstruum, excipient, carrier, coating, or other component. 
</P>
<P>(2) The newness for a drug use of a combination of two or more substances, none of which is a new drug. 
</P>
<P>(3) The newness for drug use of the proportion of a substance in a combination, even though such combination containing such substance in other proportion is not a new drug. 
</P>
<P>(4) The newness of use of such drug in diagnosing, curing, mitigating, treating, or preventing a disease, or to affect a structure or function of the body, even though such drug is not a new drug when used in another disease or to affect another structure or function of the body. 
</P>
<P>(5) The newness of a dosage, or method or duration of administration or application, or other condition of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling of such drug, even though such drug when used in other dosage, or other method or duration of administration or application, or different condition, is not a new drug. 
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>sponsor</I> means the person or agency who assumes responsibility for an investigation of a new drug, including responsibility for compliance with applicable provisions of the act and regulations. The “sponsor” may be an individual, partnership, corporation, or Government agency and may be a manufacturer, scientific institution, or an investigator regularly and lawfully engaged in the investigation of new drugs. 
</P>
<P>(k) The phrase <I>related drug(s)</I> includes other brands, potencies, dosage forms, salts, and esters of the same drug moiety, including articles prepared or manufactured by other manufacturers: and any other drug containing a component so related by chemical structure or known pharmacological properties that, in the opinion of experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of drugs, it is prudent to assume or ascertain the liability of similar side effects and contraindications. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Special packaging</I> as defined in section 2(4) of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 means packaging that is designed or constructed to be significantly difficult for children under 5 years of age to open or obtain a toxic or harmful amount of the substance contained therein within a reasonable time and not difficult for normal adults to use properly, but does not mean packaging which all such children cannot open or obtain a toxic or harmful amount within a reasonable time. 
</P>
<P>(m) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) The term <I>radioactive drug</I> means any substance defined as a drug in section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act which exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of nuclear particles or photons and includes any nonradioactive reagent kit or nuclide generator which is intended to be used in the preparation of any such substance but does not include drugs such as carbon-containing compounds or potassium-containing salts which contain trace quantities of naturally occurring radionuclides. The term “radioactive drug” includes a “radioactive biological product” as defined in § 600.3(ee) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11680, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 39 FR 20484, June 11, 1974; 40 FR 31307, July 25, 1975; 46 FR 8952, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 7492, Feb. 22, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.4" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.4   Biologics; products subject to license control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a drug has an approved license under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262 <I>et seq.</I>) or under the animal virus, serum, and toxin law of March 4, 1913 (21 U.S.C. 151 <I>et seq.</I>), it is not required to have an approved application under section 505 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain marketing approval for radioactive biological products for human use, as defined in § 600.3(ee) of this chapter, manufacturers must comply with the provisions of § 601.2(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56448, Oct. 20, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 14981, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.6" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.6   Applicability of “new drug” or safety or effectiveness findings in drug efficacy study implementation notices and notices of opportunity for hearing to identical, related, and similar drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration's conclusions on the effectiveness of drugs are currently being published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as Drug Efficacy Study Implementation (DESI) Notices and as Notices of Opportunity for Hearing. The specific products listed in these notices include only those that were introduced into the market through the new drug procedures from 1938-62 and were submitted for review by the National Academy of Sciences-National Research Council (NAS-NRC), Drug Efficacy Study Group. Many products which are identical to, related to, or similar to the products listed in these notices have been marketed under different names or by different firms during this same period or since 1962 without going through the new drug procedures or the Academy review. Even though these products are not listed in the notices, they are covered by the new drug applications reviewed and thus are subject to these notices. All persons with an interest in a product that is identical, related, or similar to a drug listed in a drug efficacy notice or a notice of opportunity for a hearing will be given the same opportunity as the applicant to submit data and information, to request a hearing, and to participate in any hearing. It is not feasible for the Food and Drug Administration to list all products which are covered by an NDA and thus subject to each notice. However, it is essential that the findings and conclusions that a drug product is a “new drug” or that there is a lack of evidence to show that a drug product is safe or effective be applied to all identical, related, and similar drug products to which they are reasonably applicable. Any product not in compliance with an applicable drug efficacy notice is in violation of section 505 (new drugs) and/or section 502 (misbranding) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An identical, related, or similar drug includes other brands, potencies, dosage forms, salts, and esters of the same drug moiety as well as of any drug moiety related in chemical structure or known pharmacological properties.
</P>
<P>(2) Where experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of drugs would conclude that the findings and conclusions, stated in a drug efficacy notice or notice of opportunity for hearing, that a drug product is a “new drug” or that there is a lack of evidence to show that a drug product is safe or effective are applicable to an identical, related, or similar drug product, such product is affected by the notice. A combination drug product containing a drug that is identical, related, or similar to a drug named in a notice may also be subject to the findings and conclusions in a notice that a drug product is a “new drug” or that there is a lack of evidence to show that a drug product is safe or effective.
</P>
<P>(3) Any person may request an opinion on the applicability of such a notice to a specific product by writing to the Food and Drug Administration at the address shown in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Manufacturers and distributors of drugs should review their products as drug efficacy notices are published and assure that identical, related, or similar products comply with all applicable provisions of the notices.
</P>
<P>(d) The published notices and summary lists of the conclusions are of particular interest to drug purchasing agents. These agents should take particular care to assure that the same purchasing policy applies to drug products that are identical, related, or similar to those named in the drug efficacy notices. The Food and Drug Administration applies the same regulatory policy to all such products. In many instances a determination can readily be made as to the applicability of a drug efficacy notice by an individual who is knowledgeable about drugs and their indications for use. Where the relationships are more subtle and not readily recognized, the purchasing agent may request an opinion by writing to the Food and Drug Administration at the address shown in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) Interested parties may submit to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Office of Compliance, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, the names of drug products, and of their manufacturers or distributors, that should be the subject of the same purchasing and regulatory policies as those reviewed by the Drug Efficacy Study Group. Appropriate action, including referral to purchasing officials of various government agencies, will be taken. 
</P>
<P>(f) This regulation does not apply to OTC drugs identical, similar, or related to a drug in the Drug Efficacy Study unless there has been or is notification in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that a drug will not be subject to an OTC panel review pursuant to §§ 330.10, 330.11, and 330.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11680, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 48 FR 2755, Jan. 21, 1983; 50 FR 8996, Mar. 6, 1985; 55 FR 11578, Mar. 29, 1990; 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Administrative Rulings and Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.100" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.100   New drug status opinions; statement of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Over the years since 1938 the Food and Drug Administration has given informal advice to inquirers as to the new drug status of preparations. These drugs have sometimes been identified only by general statements of composition. Generally, such informal opinions were incorporated in letters that did not explicitly relate all of the necessary conditions and qualifications such as the quantitative formula for the drug and the conditions under which it was prescribed, recommended, or suggested. This has contributed to misunderstanding and misinterpretation of such opinions. 
</P>
<P>(b) These informal opinions that an article is “not a new drug” or “no longer a new drug” require reexamination under the Kefauver-Harris Act (Public Law 87-781; 76 Stat. 788-89). In particular, when approval of a new drug application is withdrawn under provisions of section 505(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a drug generally recognized as safe may become a “new drug” within the meaning of section 201(p) of said act as amended by the Kefauver-Harris Act on October 10, 1962. This is of special importance by reason of proposed actions to withdraw approval of new drug applications for lack of substantial evidence of effectiveness as a result of reports of the National Academy of Sciences—National Research Council on its review of drug effectiveness; for example, see the notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of January 23, 1968 (33 FR 818), regarding rutin, quercetin, et al. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any marketed drug is a “new drug” if any labeling change made after October 9, 1962, recommends or suggests new conditions of use under which the drug is not generally recognized as safe and effective by qualified experts. Undisclosed or unreported side effects as well as the emergence of new knowledge presenting questions with respect to the safety or effectiveness of a drug may result in its becoming a “new drug” even though it was previously considered “not a new drug.” Any previously given informal advice that an article is “not a new drug” does not apply to such an article if it has been changed in formulation, manufacture control, or labeling in a way that may significantly affect the safety of the drug. 
</P>
<P>(d) For these reasons, all opinions previously given by the Food and Drug Administration to the effect that an article is “not a new drug” or is “no longer a new drug” are hereby revoked. This does not mean that all articles that were the subjects of such prior opinions will be regarded as new drugs. The prior opinions will be replaced by opinions of the Food and Drug Administration that are qualified and current on when an article is “not a new drug,” as set forth in this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11680, Mar. 29, 1974]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.103" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.103   New drug substances intended for hypersensitivity testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration is aware of the need in the practice of medicine for the ingredients of a new drug to be available for tests of hypersensitivity to such ingredients and therefore will not object to the shipment of a new drug substance, as defined in § 310.3(g), for such purpose if all of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The shipment is made as a result of a specific request made to the manufacturer or distributor by a practitioner licensed by law to administer such drugs, and the use of such drugs for patch testing is not promoted by the manufacturer or distributor. 
</P>
<P>(2) The new drug substance requested is an ingredient in a marketed new drug and is not one that is an ingredient solely in a new drug that is legally available only under the investigational drug provisions of this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) The label bears the following prominently placed statements in lieu of adequate directions for use and in addition to complying with the other labeling provisions of the act: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Rx only”; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) “For use only in patch testing”. 
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity shipped is limited to an amount reasonable for the purpose of patch testing in the normal course of the practice of medicine and is used solely for such patch testing. 
</P>
<P>(5) The new drug substance is manufactured by the same procedures and meets the same specifications as the component used in the finished dosage form. 
</P>
<P>(6) The manufacturer or distributor maintains records of all shipments for this purpose for a period of 2 years after shipment and will make them available to the Food and Drug Administration on request. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the requested new drug substance is intended for investigational use in humans or the substance is legally available only under the investigational drug provisions of part 312 of this chapter, the submission of an “Investigational New Drug Application” (IND) is required. The Food and Drug Administration will offer assistance to any practitioner wishing to submit an Investigational New Drug Application.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to drugs or their components that are subject to the licensing requirements of the Public Health Service Act of 1944, as amended. (See subchapter F—Biologics, of this chapter.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11680, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 55 FR 11578, Mar. 29, 1990; 67 FR 4907, Feb. 1, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—New Drugs Exempted From Prescription-Dispensing Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.200" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.200   Prescription-exemption procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Duration of prescription requirement.</I> Any drug limited to prescription use under section 503(b)(1)(B) of the act remains so limited until it is exempted as provided in paragraph (b) or (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prescription-exemption procedure for drugs limited by a new drug application.</I> Any drug limited to prescription use under section 503(b)(1)(B) of the act shall be exempted from prescription-dispensing requirements when the Commissioner finds such requirements are not necessary for the protection of the public health by reason of the drug's toxicity or other potentiality for harmful effect, or the method of its use, or the collateral measures necessary to its use, and he finds that the drug is safe and effective for use in self-medication as directed in proposed labeling. A proposal to exempt a drug from the prescription-dispensing requirements of section 503(b)(1)(B) of the act may be initiated by the Commissioner or by any interested person. Any interested person may file a petition seeking such exemption, which petition may be pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, or in the form of a supplement to an approved new drug application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>New drug status of drugs exempted from the prescription requirement.</I> A drug exempted from the prescription requirement under the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section is a “new drug” within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act until it has been used to a material extent and for a material time under such conditions except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prescription legend not allowed on exempted drugs.</I> The use of the prescription caution statement quoted in section 503(b) (4) of the act, in the labeling of a drug exempted under the provisions of this section, constitutes misbranding. Any other statement or suggestion in the labeling of a drug exempted under this section, that such drug is limited to prescription use, may constitute misbranding. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prescription-exemption procedure of OTC drug review.</I> A drug limited to prescription use under section 503(b)(1)(B) of the act may also be exempted from prescription-dispensing requirements by the procedure set forth in § 330.13 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11680, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 41 FR 32582, Aug. 4, 1976; 42 FR 4714, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 72 FR 15043, Mar. 30, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.201" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.201   Exemption for certain drugs limited by new-drug applications to prescription sale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prescription-dispensing requirements of section503(b)(1)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are not necessary for the protection of the public health with respect to the following drugs subject to new drug applications: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>N</I>-Acetyl-<I>p</I>-aminophenol (acetaminophen, <I>p</I>-hydroxy-acetanilid) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The <I>N</I>-acetyl-<I>p</I>-aminophenol is prepared, with or without other drugs, in tablet or other dosage form suitable for oral use in self-medication, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The <I>N</I>-acetyl-<I>p</I>-aminophenol and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505 (b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 0.325 gram (5 grains) of <I>N</I>-acetyl-<I>p</I>-aminophenol per dosage unit, or if it is in liquid form not more than 100 milligrams of <I>N</I>-acetyl-<I>p</I>-aminophenol per milliliter. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in minor conditions as a simple analgesic. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The dosages of <I>N</I>-acetyl-<I>p</I>-aminophenol recommended or suggested in the labeling do not exceed: For adults, 0.65 gram (10 grains) per dose or 2.6 grams (40 grains) per 24-hour period: for children 6 to 12 years of age, one-half of the maximum adult dose or dosage; for children 3 to 6 years of age, one-fifth of the maximum adult dose or dosage. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations, a clear warning statement against administration of the drug to children under 3 years of age and against use of the drug for more than 10 days, unless such uses are directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(viii) If the article is offered for use in arthritis or rheumatism, the labeling prominently bears a statement that the beneficial effects claimed are limited to the temporary relief of minor aches and pains of arthritis and rheumatism and, in juxtaposition with directions for use in such conditions, a conspicuous warning statement, such as “Caution: If pain persists for more than 10 days, or redness is present, or in conditions affecting children under 12 years of age, consult a physician immediately”. 
</P>
<P>(2) Sodium gentisate (sodium-2, 5-dihydroxybenzoate) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The sodium gentisate is prepared, with or without other drugs, in tablet or other dosage form suitable for oral use in self-medication, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The sodium gentisate and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 0.5 gram (7.7 grains) of anhydrous sodium gentisate per dosage unit. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in minor conditions as a simple analgesic. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The dosages of sodium gentisate recommended or suggested in the labeling do not exceed: For adults, 0.5 gram (7.7 grains) per dose of 2.0 grams (31 grains) per 24-hour period; for children 6 to 12 years of age, one-half of the maximum adult dose or dosage. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations, a clear warning statement against administration of the drug to children under 6 years of age and against use of the drug for a prolonged period, except as such uses may be directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(3) Isoamylhydrocupreine and zolamine hydrochloride (N, N-dimethyl-N′-2-thiazolyl-N′-<I>p</I>-methoxybenzyl-ethyl- enediamine hydrochloride) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The isoamylhydrocupreine and zolamine hydrochloride are prepared in dosage form suitable for self-medication as rectal suppositories or as an ointment and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The isoamylhydrocupreine, zola-amine hydrochloride, and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 0.25 percent of isoamylhydrocupreine and 1.0 percent of zolamine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(v) If the preparation is in suppository form, it contains not more than 5.0 milligrams of isoamylhydrocupreine and not more than 20.0 milligrams of zolamine hydrochloride per suppository. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in the temporary relief of local pain and itching associated with hemorrhoids. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The directions provide for the use of not more than two suppositories or two applications of ointment in a 24-hour period. 
</P>
<P>(viii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations, a clear warning statement against use of the preparation in case of rectal bleeding, as this may indicate serious disease. 
</P>
<P>(4) Phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate (<I>N,N</I>-dimethyl-(<I>a</I>-phenyl-<I>O</I>-toloxy) ethylamine dihydrogen citrate), preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate is prepared, with or without other drugs, in tablet or other dosage form suitable for oral use in self-medication, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 88 milligrams of phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate (equivalent to 50 milligrams of phenyltoloxamine) per dosage unit. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in the temporary relief of the symptoms of hay fever and/or the symptoms of other minor conditions in which it is indicated. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The dosages recommended or suggested in the labeling do not exceed: For adults, 88 milligrams of phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate (equivalent to 50 milligrams of phenyltoloxamine) per dose or 264 milligrams of phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate (equivalent to 150 milligrams of phenyltoloxamine) per 24-hour period; for children 6 to 12 years of age, one-half of the maximum adult dose or dosage. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Clear warning statements against administration of the drug to children under 6 years of age, except as directed by a physician, and against driving a car or operating machinery while using the drug, since it may cause drowsiness. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If the article is offered for temporary relief of the symptoms of colds, a statement that continued administration for such use should not exceed 3 days, except as directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(5)-(7) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(8) Dicyclomine hydrochloride (1-cyclohexylhexahydrobenzoic acid. β-diethylaminoethyl ester hydrochloride; diethylaminocarbethoxy-bicyclohexyl hydrochloride) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The dicyclomine hydrochloride is prepared with suitable antacid and other components, in tablet or other dosage form for oral use in self-medication, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The dicyclomine hydrochloride and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 5 milligrams of dicyclomine hydrochloride per dosage unit, or if it is in liquid form not more than 0.5 milligram of dicyclomine hydrochloride per milliliter. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use only by adults and children over 12 years of age, in the temporary relief of gastric hyperacidity. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The dosages recommended or suggested in the directions for use do not exceed 10 milligrams of dicyclomine hydrochloride per dose or 30 milligrams in a 24-hour period. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations, clear warning statements against: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Exceeding the recommended dosage. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Prolonged use, except as directed by a physician, since persistent or recurring symptoms may indicate a serious disease requiring medical attention. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Administration to children under 12 years of age except as directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(9)-(10) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(11) Hexadenol (a mixture of tetracosanes and their oxidation products) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The hexadenol is prepared and packaged, with or without other drugs, solvents, and propellants, in a form suitable for self-medication by external application to the skin as a spray, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The hexadenol and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 5 percent by weight of hexadenol. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use by external application in the treatment of minor burns and minor skin irritations. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the directions for use, clear warning statements against: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Use on serious burns or skin conditions or prolonged use, except as directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Spraying the preparation in the vicinity of eyes, mouth, nose, or ears. 
</P>
<P>(12) Sulfur dioxide preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The sulfur dioxide is prepared with or without other drugs, in an aqueous solution packaged in a hermetic container suitable for use in self-medication by external application to the skin, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The sulfur dioxide and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 5 grams of sulfur dioxide per 100 milliliters of solution. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use by external application to the smooth skin in the prevention or treatment of minor conditions in which it is indicated. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The directions for use recommend or suggest not more than two applications a day for not more than 1 week, except as directed by a physician.
</P>
<P>(13)-(15) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(16) Tuaminoheptane sulfate (2-aminoheptane sulfate) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The tuaminoheptane sulfate is prepared, with or without other drugs, in an aqueous vehicle suitable for administration in self-medication as nose drops, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The preparation is packaged with a style of container or assembly suited to self-medication by the recommended route of administration, and delivering not more than 0.1 milliliter of the preparation per drop. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The tuaminoheptane sulfate and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(v) The tuaminoheptane sulfate content of the preparation does not exceed 10 milligrams per milliliter. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in the temporary relief of nasal congestion. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The dosages recommended or suggested in the directions for use do not exceed the equivalent: For adults, 5 drops of a 1 percent solution per nostril per dose, and 5 doses in a 24-hour period; for children 1 to 6 years of age, 3 drops of a 1 percent solution per nostril per dose, and 5 doses in a 24-hour period; for infants under 1 year of age, 2 drops of a 1 percent solution per nostril per dose, and 5 doses in a 24-hour period. 
</P>
<P>(viii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Clear warning statements against use of more than 5 doses daily, and against use longer than 4 days unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A clear warning statement to the effect that frequent use may cause nervousness or sleeplessness, and that individuals with high blood pressure, heart disease, diabetes, or thyroid disease should not use the preparation unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(17) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(18) Vibesate (a mixture of copolymers of hydroxy-vinyl chlorideacetate, sebacic acid, and modified maleic rosin ester) preparations meeting all the following conditions. 
</P>
<P>(i) The vibesate is prepared and packaged, with or without other drugs, solvents, and propellants, in a form suitable for self-medication by external application to the skin as a spray, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The vibesate and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 13 percent by weight of vibesate. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use by external application as a dressing for minor burns, minor cuts, or other minor skin irritations. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The labeling bears in juxtaposition with the directions for use clear warning statements against: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Use on serious burns and on infected, deep, and puncture wounds unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Spraying the preparation near the eyes or other mucous membranes. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Inhaling the preparation. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Use near open flames. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Puncturing the container or throwing the container into fire. 
</P>
<P>(19) Pramoxine hydrochloride (4-<I>N</I>-butoxyphenyl γ-morpholinopropyl ether hydrochloride) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The pramoxine hydrochloride is prepared, with or without other drugs, in a dosage form suitable for use in self-medication by external application to the skin, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The pramoxine hydrochloride and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 1.0 percent of pramoxine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use by external application to the skin for the temporary relief of pain or itching due to minor burns and sunburn, nonpoisonous insect bites, and minor skin irritations. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The directions for use recommend or suggest not more than four applications of the preparation per day, unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the directions for use, clear warning statements against: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Prolonged use. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Application to large areas of the body. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Continued use if redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases, unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Use in the eyes or nose. 
</P>
<P>(20) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(21) Pamabrom (2-amino-2-methylpropanol-1-8-bromotheophyllinate) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The pamabrom is prepared with appropriate amounts of a suitable analgesic and with or without other drugs, in tablet or other dosage form suitable for oral use in self-medication, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The pamabrom and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 50 milligrams of pamabrom per dosage unit. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in the temporary relief of the minor pains and discomforts that may occur a few days before and during the menstrual period. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The dosages recommended or suggested in the labeling do not exceed 50 milligrams of pamabrom per dose or 200 milligrams per 24-hour period. 
</P>
<P>(22) Diphemanil methylsulfate (4-diphenylmethylene-1,1-dimethyl-piperidinium methylsulfate) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The diphemanil methylsulfate is prepared, with or without other drugs, in a dosage form suitable for use in self-medication by external application to the skin, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The diphemanil methylsulfate and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 2.0 percent of diphemanil methylsulfate. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use by external application to the skin for the relief of symptoms of mild poison ivy, oak, and sumac and other minor irritations and itching of the skin. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The directions for use recommend or suggest not more than four applications of the preparation per day, unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the directions for use, a clear warning statement, such as: “Caution: If redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases, discontinue use and consult physician.” 
</P>
<P>(23) Dyclonine hydrochloride (4-butoxy-3-piperidinopropiophenone hydrochloride; 4-<I>n</I>-butoxy-β-piperidonopropiophenone hydrochloride) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The dyclonine hydrochloride is prepared, with or without other drugs, in a dosage form suitable for use as a cream or ointment in self-medication by external application to the skin, or rectally, and contains no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The dyclonine hydrochloride and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 1.0 percent of dyclonine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) By external application to the skin for the temporary relief of pain and itching in sunburn, nonpoisonous insect bites, minor burns, cuts, abrasions, and other minor skin irritations. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the prevention or treatment of other minor conditions in which it is indicated. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the directions for use, clear warning statements against: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Continued use if redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases, unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Use in case of rectal bleeding, as this may indicate serious disease. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Use in the eyes. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Prolonged use. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Application to large areas of the body. 
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Use for deep or puncture wounds or serious burns. 
</P>
<P>(24) Chlorothen citrate (chloromethapyrilene citrate; <I>N,N</I>-dimethyl-<I>N</I>′-(2-pyridyl)-<I>N</I>′-(5-chloro-2-thenyl) ethylenediamine citrate) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The chlorothen citrate is prepared, with or without other drugs, in tablet or other dosage form suitable for oral use in self-medication, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The chlorothen citrate and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 25 milligrams of chlorothen citrate per dosage unit. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in the temporary relief of the symptoms of hay fever and/or the symptoms of other minor conditions in which it is indicated. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The dosages recommended or suggested in the labeling do not exceed: For adults, 25 milligrams of chlorothen citrate per dose or 150 milligrams of chlorothen citrate per 24-hour period; for children 6 to 12 years of age, one-half of the maximum adult dose or dosage. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Clear warning statements against administration of the drug to children under 6 years of age or exceeding the recommended dosage, unless directed by a physician, and against driving a car or operating machinery while using the drug, since it may cause drowsiness. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If the article is offered for the temporary relief of symptoms of colds, a statement that continued administration for such use should not exceed 3 days, unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(25) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(26) Methoxyphenamine hydrochloride (β-(<I>o</I>-methoxyphenyl)-isopropyl-methylamine hydrochloride; 1-(<I>o</I>-methoxyphenyl)- 2-methylamino-propane hydrochloride) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The methoxyphenamine hydrochloride is prepared with appropriate amounts of a suitable antitussive, with or without other drugs, in a dosage form suitable for oral use in self-medication, and containing no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The methoxyphenamine hydrochloride and all other components of the preparation meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 3.5 milligrams of methoxyphenamine hydrochloride per milliliter. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use in the temporary relief of cough due to minor conditions in which it is indicated. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The dosages recommended or suggested in the labeling do not exceed: For adults, 35 milligrams of methoxyphenamine hydrochloride per dose or 140 milligrams of methoxyphenamine hydrochloride per 24-hour period; for children 6 to 12 years of age, one-half of the maximum adult dose or dosage. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The label bears a conspicuous warning to keep the drug out of the reach of children, and the labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A clear warning statement against administration of the drug to children under 6 years of age, unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A clear warning statement to the effect that frequent or prolonged use may cause nervousness, restlessness, or drowsiness, and that individuals with high blood pressure, heart disease, diabetes, or thyroid disease should not use the preparation unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A clear warning statement against use of the drug in the presence of high fever or if cough persists, since persistent cough as well as high fever may indicate the presence of a serious condition. 
</P>
<P>(27) Biphenamine hydrochloride (β-diethylaminoethyl-3-phenyl-2-hydroxybenzoate hydrochloride) preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The biphenamine hydrochloride is prepared in a form suitable for use as a shampoo and contains no drug limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The biphenamine hydrochloride meets its professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preparation is a new drug, an application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for it. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The preparation contains not more than 1 percent of biphenamine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation is labeled with adequate directions for use for the temporary relief of itching and scaling due to dandruff. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The label bears a conspicuous warning to keep the drug out of the reach of children. 
</P>
<P>(28) Tyloxapol (an alkylarylpolyether alcohol) and benzalkonium chloride ophthalmic preparations meeting all the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The tyloxapol and benzalkonium chloride are prepared, with other appropriate ingredients which are not drugs limited to prescription sale under the provisions of section 503(b)(1) of the act, as a sterile, isotonic aqueous solution suitable for use in self-medication on eye prostheses. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The preparation is so packaged as to volume and type of container as to afford adequate protection and be suitable for self-medication with a minimum risk of contamination of the solution during use. Any dispensing unit is sterile and so packaged as to maintain sterility until the package is opened. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The tyloxapol, benzalkonium chloride, and other ingredients used to prepare the isotonic aqueous solution meet their professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. 
</P>
<P>(iv) An application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act is approved for the drug. 
</P>
<P>(v) The preparation contains 0.25 percent of tyloxapol and 0.02 percent of benzalkonium chloride. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The label bears a conspicuous warning to keep the drug out of the reach of children and the labeling bears, in juxtaposition with the dosage recommendations, a clear warning that if irritation occurs, persists, or increases, use of the drug should be discontinued and a physician consulted. The labeling includes a statement that the dropper or other dispensing tip should not touch any surface, since this may contaminate the solution. 
</P>
<P>(29) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11680, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 42 FR 36994, July 19, 1977; 52 FR 15892, Apr. 30, 1987; 52 FR 30055, Aug. 12, 1987; 55 FR 31779, Aug. 3, 1990; 57 FR 58374, Dec. 9, 1992; 58 FR 49898, Sept. 23, 1993; 59 FR 4218, Jan. 28, 1994; 60 FR 52507, Oct. 6, 1995; 72 FR 15043, Mar. 30, 2007; 72 FR 67640, Nov. 30, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.305" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.305   Records and reports concerning adverse drug experiences on marketed prescription drugs for human use without approved new drug applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> FDA is requiring manufacturers, packers, and distributors of marketed prescription drug products that are not the subject of an approved new drug or abbreviated new drug application to establish and maintain records and make reports to FDA of all serious, unexpected adverse drug experiences associated with the use of their drug products. Any person subject to the reporting requirements of paragraph (c) of this section must also develop written procedures for the surveillance, receipt, evaluation, and reporting of postmarketing adverse drug experiences to FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions of terms apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse event associated with the use of a drug in humans, whether or not considered drug related, including the following: An adverse event occurring in the course of the use of a drug product in professional practice; an adverse event occurring from drug overdose whether accidental or intentional; an adverse event occurring from drug abuse; an adverse event occurring from drug withdrawal; and any failure of expected pharmacological action.
</P>
<P><I>Disability.</I> A substantial disruption of a person's ability to conduct normal life functions.
</P>
<P><I>Individual case safety report (ICSR).</I> A description of an adverse drug experience related to an individual patient or subject.
</P>
<P><I>ICSR attachments.</I> Documents related to the adverse drug experience described in an ICSR, such as medical records, hospital discharge summaries, or other documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Life-threatening adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse drug experience that places the patient, in the view of the initial reporter, at <I>immediate</I> risk of death from the adverse drug experience as it occurred, <I>i.e.</I>, it does not include an adverse drug experience that, had it occurred in a more severe form, might have caused death.
</P>
<P><I>Serious adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse drug experience occurring at any dose that results in any of the following outcomes: Death, a life-threatening adverse drug experience, inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, a persistent or significant disability/incapacity, or a congenital anomaly/birth defect. Important medical events that may not result in death, be life-threatening, or require hospitalization may be considered a serious adverse drug experience when, based upon appropriate medical judgment, they may jeopardize the patient or subject and may require medical or surgical intervention to prevent one of the outcomes listed in this definition. Examples of such medical events include allergic bronchospasm requiring intensive treatment in an emergency room or at home, blood dyscrasias or convulsions that do not result in inpatient hospitalization, or the development of drug dependency or drug abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse drug experience that is not listed in the current labeling for the drug product. This includes events that may be symptomatically and pathophysiologically related to an event listed in the labeling, but differ from the event because of greater severity or specificity. For example, under this definition, hepatic necrosis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater severity) if the labeling only referred to elevated hepatic enzymes or hepatitis. Similarly, cerebral thromboembolism and cerebral vasculitis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater specificity) if the labeling only listed cerebral vascular accidents. “Unexpected,” as used in this definition, refers to an adverse drug experience that has not been previously observed (<I>i.e.</I>, included in the labeling) rather than from the perspective of such experience not being anticipated from the pharmacological properties of the pharmaceutical product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> Each person identified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section must submit to FDA adverse drug experience information as described in this section. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, 15-day “Alert reports” and followup reports, including ICSRs and any ICSR attachments, must be submitted to the Agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Postmarketing 15-day “Alert reports”.</I> (i) Any person whose name appears on the label of a marketed prescription drug product as its manufacturer, packer, or distributor must report to FDA each adverse drug experience received or otherwise obtained that is both serious and unexpected as soon as possible, but no later than 15 calendar days from initial receipt of the information by the person whose name appears on the label. Each report must be accompanied by the current content of labeling in electronic format as an ICSR attachment unless it is already on file at FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) A person identified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section is not required to submit a 15-day “Alert report” for an adverse drug experience obtained from a postmarketing study (whether or not conducted under an investigational new drug application) unless the applicant concludes that there is a reasonable possibility that the drug caused the adverse experience.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Postmarketing 15-day “Alert reports”—followup.</I> Each person identified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section must promptly investigate all serious, unexpected adverse drug experiences that are the subject of these postmarketing 15-day Alert reports and must submit followup reports within 15 calendar days of receipt of new information or as requested by FDA. If additional information is not obtainable, records should be maintained of the unsuccessful steps taken to seek additional information. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Submission of reports.</I> To avoid unnecessary duplication in the submission of, and followup to, reports required in this section, a packer's or distributor's obligations may be met by submission of all reports of serious adverse drug experiences to the manufacturer of the drug product. If a packer or distributor elects to submit these adverse drug experience reports to the manufacturer rather than to FDA, it must submit, by any appropriate means, each report to the manufacturer within 5 calendar days of its receipt by the packer or distributor, and the manufacturer must then comply with the requirements of this section even if its name does not appear on the label of the drug product. Under this circumstance, the packer or distributor must maintain a record of this action which must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of each adverse drug experience report;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the report was received by the packer or distributor;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date the report was submitted to the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and address of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) A person identified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section is not required to resubmit to FDA adverse drug experience reports forwarded to that person by FDA; however, the person must submit all <I>followup</I> information on such reports to FDA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information reported on ICSRs.</I> ICSRs include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Patient information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Patient identification code;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient age at the time of adverse drug experience, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse drug experience.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Outcome attributed to adverse drug experience;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of adverse drug experience;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of ICSR submission;
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of adverse drug experience (including a concise medical narrative);
</P>
<P>(v) Adverse drug experience term(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspect medical product(s).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dose, frequency, and route of administration used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Therapy dates;
</P>
<P>(iv) Diagnosis for use (indication);
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the product is a combination product as defined in § 3.2(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the product is a prescription or nonprescription product;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether adverse drug experience abated after drug use stopped or dose reduced;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether adverse drug experience reappeared after reintroduction of drug;
</P>
<P>(ix) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(x) Expiration date;
</P>
<P>(xi) National Drug Code (NDC) number; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Initial reporter information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the initial reporter is a health care professional; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Occupation, if a health care professional.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Manufacturer, packer, or distributor information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturer, packer, or distributor name and contact office address;
</P>
<P>(ii) Telephone number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report source, such as spontaneous, literature, or study;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date the report was received by manufacturer, packer, or distributor;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the ICSR is a 15-day “Alert report”;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the ICSR is an initial report or followup report; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent followup report(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Electronic format for submissions.</I> (1) Each report required to be submitted to FDA under this section, including the ICSR and any ICSR attachments, must be submitted in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files).
</P>
<P>(2) Each person identified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. These waivers will be granted on a limited basis for good cause shown. FDA will issue guidance on requesting a waiver of the requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Patient privacy.</I> Manufacturers, packers, and distributors should not include in reports under this section the names and addresses of individual patients; instead, the manufacturer, packer, and distributor should assign a unique code for identification of the patient. The manufacturer, packer, and distributor should include the name of the reporter from whom the information was received as part of the initial reporter information, even when the reporter is the patient. The names of patients, individual reporters, health care professionals, hospitals, and geographical identifiers in adverse drug experience reports are not releasable to the public under FDA's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) Each manufacturer, packer, and distributor must maintain for a period of 10 years records of all adverse drug experiences required under this section to be reported, including raw data and any correspondence relating to the adverse drug experiences, and the records required to be maintained under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturers and packers may retain the records required in paragraph (f)(1) of this section as part of its complaint files maintained under § 211.198 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturers, packers, and distributors must permit any authorized FDA employee, at all reasonable times, to have access to and copy and verify the records established and maintained under this section. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Disclaimer.</I> A report or information submitted by a manufacturer, packer, or distributor under this section (and any release by FDA of that report or information) does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the manufacturer, packer, or distributor, or by FDA, that the report or information constitutes an admission that the drug caused or contributed to an adverse effect. The manufacturer, packer, or distributor need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted under this section constitutes an admission that the drug caused or contributed to an adverse effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 24479, July 3, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 37936, Oct. 13, 1987; 55 FR 11578, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 17980, Apr. 28, 1992; 62 FR 34167, June 25, 1997; 62 FR 52249, Oct. 7, 1997; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002; 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009; 79 FR 33087, June 10, 2014]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.306" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.306   Notification of a permanent discontinuance or an interruption in manufacturing of marketed prescription drugs for human use without approved new drug applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Marketed prescription drug products that are not the subject of an approved new drug or abbreviated new drug application are subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of a permanent discontinuance or an interruption in manufacturing.</I> The manufacturer of each product subject to this section must make the notifications required under § 314.81(b)(3)(iii) of this chapter and otherwise comply with § 314.81(b)(3)(iii) of this chapter. If the manufacturer of a product subject to this section fails to provide notification as required under § 314.81(b)(3)(iii), FDA will send a letter to the manufacturer and otherwise follow the procedures set forth under § 314.81(b)(3)(iii)(<I>e</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Drug shortages list.</I> FDA will include on the drug shortages list required by § 314.81(b)(3)(iii)(<I>d</I>) drug products that are subject to this section that it determines to be in shortage. For such drug products, FDA will provide the names of each manufacturer rather than the names of each applicant. With respect to information collected under this paragraph, FDA will observe the confidentiality and disclosure provisions set forth in § 314.81(b)(3)(iii)(<I>d</I>)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 38938, July 8, 2015]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Requirements for Specific New Drugs or Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.501" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.501   Patient package inserts for oral contraceptives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for a patient package insert.</I> The safe and effective use of oral contraceptive drug products requires that patients be fully informed of the benefits and the risks involved in their use. An oral contraceptive drug product that does not comply with the requirements of this section is misbranded under section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Each dispenser of an oral contraceptive drug product shall provide a patient package insert to each patient (or to an agent of the patient) to whom the product is dispensed, except that the dispenser may provide the insert to the parent or legal guardian of a legally incompetent patient (or to the agent of either). The patient package insert is required to be placed in or accompany each package dispensed to the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution requirements.</I> (1) For oral contraceptive drug products, the manufacturer and distributor shall provide a patient package insert in or with each package of the drug product that the manufacturer or distributor intends to be dispensed to a patient.
</P>
<P>(2) Patient package inserts for oral contraceptives dispensed in acute-care hospitals or long-term care facilities will be considered to have been provided in accordance with this section if provided to the patient before administration of the first oral contraceptive and every 30 days thereafter, as long as the therapy continues.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of patient package insert.</I> A patient package insert for an oral contraceptive drug product is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the drug.
</P>
<P>(2) A summary including a statement concerning the effectiveness of oral contraceptives in preventing pregnancy, the contraindications to the drug's use, and a statement of the risks and benefits associated with the drug's use.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement comparing the effectiveness of oral contraceptives to other methods of contraception.
</P>
<P>(4) A boxed warning concerning the increased risks associated with cigarette smoking and oral contraceptive use.
</P>
<P>(5) A discussion of the contraindications to use, including information that the patient should provide to the prescriber before taking the drug.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of medical conditions that are not contraindications to use but deserve special consideration in connection with oral contraceptive use and about which the patient should inform the prescriber.
</P>
<P>(7) A warning regarding the most serious side effects of oral contraceptives.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement of other serious adverse reactions and potential safety hazards that may result from the use of oral contraceptives.
</P>
<P>(9) A statement concerning common, but less serious side effects which may help the patient evaluate the benefits and risks from the use of oral contraceptives.
</P>
<P>(10) Information on precautions the patients should observe while taking oral contraceptives, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of risks to the mother and unborn child from the use of oral contraceptives before or during early pregnancy;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement concerning excretion of the drug in human milk and associated risks to the nursing infant;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement about laboratory tests which may be affected by oral contraceptives; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that identifies activities and drugs, foods, or other substances the patient should avoid because of their interactions with oral contraceptives.
</P>
<P>(11) Information about how to take oral contraceptives properly, including information about what to do if the patient forgets to take the product, information about becoming pregnant after discontinuing use of the drug, a statement that the drug product has been prescribed for the use of the patient and should not be used for other conditions or given to others, and a statement that the patient's pharmacist or practitioner has a more technical leaflet about the drug product that the patient may ask to review.
</P>
<P>(12) A statement of the possible benefits associated with oral contraceptive use.
</P>
<P>(13) The following information about the drug product and the patient package insert:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor, or the name and place of business of the dispenser of the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date, identified as such, of the most recent revision of the patient package insert placed prominently immediately after the last section of the labeling.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other indications.</I> The patient package insert may identify indications in addition to contraception that are identified in the professional labeling for the drug product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Labeling guidance texts.</I> The Food and Drug Administration issues informal labeling guidance texts under § 10.90(b)(9) of this chapter to provide assistance in meeting the requirements of this section. A request for a copy of the guidance texts should be directed to the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Division of Reproductive and Urologic Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requirement to supplement approved application.</I> Holders of approved applications for oral contraceptive drug products that are subject to the requirements of this section are required to submit supplements under § 314.70(c) of this chapter to provide for the labeling required by this section. Such labeling may be put into use without advance approval by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22587, May 25, 1989, as amended at 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.502" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.502   Certain drugs accorded new drug status through rulemaking procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The drugs listed in this paragraph (a) have been determined by rulemaking procedures to be new drugs within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. An approved new drug application under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing the following drugs:




</P>
<P>(1) Aerosol drug products for human use containing 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
</P>
<P>(2) Aerosol drug products containing zirconium.
</P>
<P>(3) Amphetamines (amphetamine, dextroamphetamine, and their salts, and levamfetamine and its salts) for human use.
</P>
<P>(4) Camphorated oil drug products.
</P>
<P>(5) Certain halogenated salicylanilides (tribromsalan (TBS, 3,4′,5-tribromosalicylanilide), dibromsalan (DBS, 4′, 5-dibromosalicylanilide), metabromsalan (MBS, 3, 5-dibromosalicylanilide), and 3,3′, 4,5′-tetrachlorosalicylanilide (TC-SA)) as an ingredient in drug products.
</P>
<P>(6) Chloroform used as an ingredient (active or inactive) in drug products.
</P>
<P>(7) Cobalt preparations intended for use by man.
</P>
<P>(8) Intrauterine devices for human use for the purpose of contraception that incorporate heavy metals, drugs, or other active substances.
</P>
<P>(9) Oral prenatal drugs containing fluorides intended for human use.
</P>
<P>(10) Parenteral drug products in plastic containers.
</P>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) Sweet spirits of nitre drug products.
</P>
<P>(13) Thorium dioxide for drug use.
</P>
<P>(14) Timed release dosage forms.
</P>
<P>(15) Vinyl chloride as an ingredient, including propellant, in aerosol drug products.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12084, Mar. 14, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 84 FR 68334, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.503" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.503   Requirements regarding certain radioactive drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On January 8, 1963 (28 FR 183), the Commissioner of Food and Drugs exempted investigational radioactive new drugs from part 312 of this chapter provided they were shipped in complete conformity with the regulations issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. This exemption also applied to investigational radioactive biologics. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is the opinion of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and the Food and Drug Administration that this exemption should not apply for certain specific drugs and that these drugs should be appropriately labeled for uses for which safety and effectiveness can be demonstrated by new drug applications or through licensing under the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262 <I>et seq.</I>) in the case of biologics. Continued distribution under the investigational exemption when the drugs are intended for established uses will not be permitted. 
</P>
<P>(c) Based on its experience in regulating investigational radioactive pharmaceuticals, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has compiled a list of reactor-produced isotopes for which it considers that applicants may reasonably be expected to submit adequate evidence of safety and effectiveness for use as recommended in appropriate labeling. Such use may include, among others, the uses in this tabulation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Isotope
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium 51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chromate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spleen scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Placenta localization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red blood cell labeling and survival studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labeled human serum albumin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gastrointestinal protein loss studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Placenta localization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labeled red blood cells</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt 58 or Cobalt 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labeled cyanocobalamin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intestinal absorption studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold 198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colloidal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liver scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intracavitary treatment of pleural effusions and/or ascites.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interstitial treatment of cancer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diagnosis of thyroid functions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thyroid scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Treatment of hyperthyroidism and/or cardiac dysfunction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Treatment of thyroid carcinoma.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodinated human serum albumin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blood volume determinations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cisternography.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brain tumor localization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Placenta localization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cardiac scans for determination of pericardial effusions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rose Bengal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liver function studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liver scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodopyracet, sodium iodohippurate, sodium diatrizoate, diatrizoate methylglucamine, sodium diprotrizoate, sodium acetrizoate, or sodium iothalamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kidney function studies and kidney scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labeled fats and/or fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fat absorption studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cholografin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cardiac scans for determination of pericardial effusions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Macroaggregated iodinated human serum albumin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lung scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colloidal microaggregated human serum albumin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liver scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diagnosis of thyroid function.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodinated human serum albumin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blood volume determinations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rose Bengal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liver function studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodopyracet, sodium iodohippurate, sodium diatrizoate, diatrizoate methyl-glucamine, sodium diprotrizoate, sodium acetrizoate, or sodium iothalamate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kidney function studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labeled fats and/or fatty acids</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fat absorption studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron 59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chloride, citrate and/or sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron turnover studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton 85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diagnosis of cardiac abnormalities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury 197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chlormerodrin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kidney scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brain scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury 203 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kidney scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brain scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus 32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Soluble phosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Treatment of polycythemia vera.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Treatment of leukemia and bone metastasis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colloidal chromic phosphate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intracavitary treatment of pleural effusions and/or ascites.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interstitial treatment of cancer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium 42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potassium space studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium 75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labeled methionine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pancreas scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium 85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nitrate or chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bone scans on patients with diagnosed cancer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium 99m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pertechnetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brain scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thyroid scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sulfur colloid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liver and spleen scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pertechnetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Placenta localization.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blood pool scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salivary gland scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diethylenetri-amine pentaacetic acid (DTPA)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kidney scans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon 133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diagnosis of cardia abnormalities. Cerebral bloodflow studies. Pulmonary function studies. Muscle bloodflow studies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This item has been removed from the AEC list for kidney scans but is included as the requirements of this order are applicable.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d)(1) In view of the extent of experience with the isotopes listed in paragraph (c) of this section, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and the Food and Drug Administration conclude that such isotopes should not be distributed under investigational-use labeling when they are actually intended for use in medical practice. 
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as applied to any drug or biologic containing any of the isotopes listed in paragraph (c) of this section, in the “chemical form” and intended for the uses stated, is terminated on March 3, 1972, except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as applied to any drug or biologic containing any of the isotopes listed in paragraph (c) of this section, in the “chemical form” and intended for the uses stated, for which drug a new drug application or a “Investigational New Drug Application” was submitted prior to March 3, 1972, or for which biologic an application for product license or “Investigational New Drug Application” was submitted prior to March 3, 1972, is terminated on August 20, 1976, unless an approvable notice was issued on or before August 20, 1976, in which case the exemption is terminated either upon the subsequent issuance of a nonapprovable notice for the new drug application or on November 20, 1976, whichever occurs first. 
</P>
<P>(e) No exemption from section 505 of the act or from part 312 of this chapter is in effect or has been in effect for radioactive drugs prepared from accelerator-produced radioisotopes, naturally occurring isotopes, or nonradioactive substances used in conjunction with isotopes. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Based on its experience in regulating investigational radioactive pharmaceuticals, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has compiled a list of reactor-produced isotopes for which it considers that applicants may reasonably be expected to submit adequate evidence of safety and effectiveness for use as recommended in appropriate labeling; such use may include, among others, the uses in this tabulation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Isotope
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine 18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fluoride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bone imaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diethylenetriamine pentaacetic acid (DTPA)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brain imaging; kidney imaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Placenta imaging; blood pool imaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium 99m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Human serum albumin microspheres</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lung imaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diethylenetriamine pentaacetic acid (Sn)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kidney imaging; kidney function studies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brain imaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polyphosphates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bone imaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Technetated aggregated albumin (human)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lung imaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disodium etidronate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bone imaging.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) In view of the extent of experience with the isotopes listed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and the Food and Drug Administration conclude that they should not be distributed under investigational-use labeling when they are actually intended for use in medical practice. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any manufacturer or distributor interested in continuing to ship in interstate commerce drugs containing the isotopes listed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section for any of the indications listed, shall submit, on or before August 25, 1975 to the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, a new drug application or a “Investigational New Drug Application” for each such drug for which the manufacturer or distributor does not have an approved new drug application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act. If the drug is a biologic, a “Investigational New Drug Application” or an application for a license under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, in lieu of any submission to the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research. 
</P>
<P>(4) The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as applied to any drug or biologic containing any of the isotopes listed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, in the “chemical form” and intended for the uses stated, is terminated on August 26, 1975 except as provided in paragraph (f)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(5)(ii) of this section, the exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as applied to any drug containing any of the isotopes listed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, in the “chemical form” and intended for the uses stated, for which drug a new drug application or “Investigational New Drug Application” was submitted to the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research on or before August 25, 1975 is terminated on August 20, 1976, unless an approvable notice was issued on or before August 20, 1976, in which case the exemption is terminated either upon the subsequent issuance of a nonapprovable notice for the new drug application or on November 20, 1976, whichever occurs first. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as applied to any biologic containing any of the isotopes listed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section in the “chemical form” and intended for the uses stated, for which biologic an application for product license or “Investigational New Drug Application” was submitted to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research on or before August 25, 1975 is terminated on October 20, 1976, unless an approvable notice was issued on or before October 20, 1976, in which case the exemption is terminated either upon the subsequent issuance of a nonapprovable notice for the new drug application or on January 20, 1977, whichever occurs first. 
</P>
<P>(g) The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as applied to any drug intended solely for investigational use as part of a research project, which use had been approved on or before July 25, 1975 in accordance with 10 CFR 35.11 (or equivalent regulation of an Agreement State) is terminated on February 20, 1976 if the manufacturer of such drug or the sponsor of the investigation of such drug submits on or before August 25, 1975 to the Food and Drug Administration, Bureau of Drugs, HFD-150, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The research project title; 
</P>
<P>(2) A brief description of the purpose of the project; 
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the investigator responsible; 
</P>
<P>(4) The name and license number of the institution holding the specific license under 10 CFR 35.11 (or equivalent regulation of an Agreement State); 
</P>
<P>(5) The name and maximum amount per subject of the radionuclide used; 
</P>
<P>(6) The number of subjects involved; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The date on which the administration of the radioactive drugs is expected to be completed. 
</P>
<P>(h) The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, as applied to any drug not referred to in paragraphs (d), (f), and (g) of this section, is terminated on August 26, 1975.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11680, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 31307, July 25, 1975; 40 FR 44543, Sept. 29, 1975; 41 FR 35171, Aug. 20, 1976; 41 FR 42947, Sept. 29, 1976; 50 FR 8996, Mar. 6, 1985; 55 FR 11578, Mar. 29, 1990; 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.509" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.509   Parenteral drug products in plastic containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any parenteral drug product packaged in a plastic immediate container is not generally recognized as safe and effective, is a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act, and requires an approved new drug application as a condition for marketing. An “Investigational New Drug Application” set forth in part 312 of this chapter is required for clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this section, the term “large volume parenteral drug product” means a terminally sterilized aqueous drug product packaged in a single-dose container with a capacity of 100 milliliters or more and intended to be administered or used intravenously in a human.
</P>
<P>(c) Until the results of compatibility studies are evaluated, a large volume parenteral drug product for intravenous use in humans that is packaged in a plastic immediate container on or after April 16, 1979, is misbranded unless its labeling contains a warning that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that additives may be incompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that, if additive drugs are introduced into the parenteral system, aseptic techniques should be used and the solution should be thoroughly mixed.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that a solution containing an additive drug should not be stored.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not apply to a biological product licensed under the Public Health Service Act of July 1, 1944 (42 U.S.C. 201).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12084, Mar. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.515" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.515   Patient package inserts for estrogens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for a patient package insert.</I> FDA concludes that the safe and effective use of drug products containing estrogens requires that patients be fully informed of the benefits and risks involved in the use of these drugs. Accordingly, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, each estrogen drug product restricted to prescription distribution, including products containing estrogens in fixed combinations with other drugs, shall be dispensed to patients with a patient package insert containing information concerning the drug's benefits and risks. An estrogen drug product that does not comply with the requirements of this section is misbranded under section 502(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution requirements.</I> (1) For estrogen drug products, the manufacturer and distributor shall provide a patient package insert in or with each package of the drug product that the manufacturer or distributor intends to be dispensed to a patient.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of estrogen drug products in bulk packages intended for multiple dispensing, and in the case of injectables in multiple-dose vials, a sufficient number of patient labeling pieces shall be included in or with each package to assure that one piece can be included with each package or dose dispensed or administered to every patient. Each bulk package shall be labeled with instructions to the dispensor to include one patient labeling piece with each package dispensed or, in the case of injectables, with each dose administered to the patient. This section does not preclude the manufacturer or labeler from distributing additional patient labeling pieces to the dispensor.
</P>
<P>(3) Patient package inserts for estrogens dispensed in acute-care hospitals or long-term care facilities will be considered to have been provided in accordance with this section if provided to the patient before administration of the first estrogen and every 30 days thereafter, as long as the therapy continues.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Patient package insert contents.</I> A patient package insert for an estrogen drug product is required to contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the drug.
</P>
<P>(2) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement regarding the benefits and proper uses of estrogens.
</P>
<P>(4) The contraindications to use, <I>i.e.</I>, when estrogens should not be used.
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the most serious risks associated with the use of estrogens.
</P>
<P>(6) A brief summary of other side effects of estrogens.
</P>
<P>(7) Instructions on how a patient may reduce the risks of estrogen use.
</P>
<P>(8) The date, identified as such, of the most recent revision of the patient package insert.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Guidance language.</I> The Food and Drug Administration issues informal labeling guidance texts under § 10.90(b)(9) of this chapter to provide assistance in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. Requests for a copy of the guidance text should be directed to the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Division of Reproductive and Urologic Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section does not apply to estrogen-progestogen oral contraceptives. Labeling requirements for these products are set forth in § 310.501.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requirement to supplement approved application.</I> Holders of approved applications for estrogen drug products that are subject to the requirements of this section must submit supplements under § 314.70(c) of this chapter to provide for the labeling required by paragraph (a) of this section. Such labeling may be put into use without advance approval by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 18723, May 4, 1990, as amended at 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.517" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.517   Labeling for oral hypoglycemic drugs of the sulfonylurea class.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The University Group Diabetes Program clinical trial has reported an association between the administration of tolbutamide and increased cardiovascular mortality. The Food and Drug Administration has concluded that this reported association provides adequate basis for a warning in the labeling. In view of the similarities in chemical structure and mode of action, the Food and Drug Administration also believes it is prudent from a safety standpoint to consider that the possible increased risk of cardiovascular mortality from tolbutamide applies to all other sulfonylurea drugs as well. Therefore, the labeling for oral hypoglycemic drugs of the sulfonylurea class shall include a warning concerning the possible increased risk of cardiovascular mortality associated with such use, as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling for oral hypoglycemic drugs of the sulfonylurea class shall include in boldface type at the beginning of the “Warnings” section of the labeling the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Special Warning on Increased Risk of Cardiovascular Mortality
</HD1>
<P>The administration of oral hypoglycemic drugs has been reported to be associated with increased cardiovascular mortality as compared to treatment with diet alone or diet plus insulin. This warning is based on the study conducted by the University Group Diabetes Program (UGDP), a long-term prospective clinical trial designed to evaluate the effectiveness of glucose-lowering drugs in preventing or delaying vascular complications in patients with non-insulin-dependent diabetes. The study involved 823 patients who were randomly assigned to one of four treatment groups (<I>Diabetes,</I> 19 (supp. 2): 747-830, 1970).
</P>
<P>UGDP reported that patients treated for 5 to 8 years with diet plus a fixed dose of tolbutamide (1.5 grams per day) had a rate of cardiovascular mortality approximately 2
<FR>1/2</FR> times that of patients treated with diet alone. A significant increase in total mortality was not observed, but the use of tolbutamide was discontinued based on the increase in cardiovascular mortality, thus limiting the opportunity for the study to show an increase in overall mortality. Despite controversy regarding the interpretation of these results, the findings of the UGDP study provide an adequate basis for this warning. The patient should be informed of the potential risks and advantages of (name of drug) and of alternative modes of therapy.
</P>
<P>Although only one drug in the sulfonylurea class (tolbutamide) was included in this study, it is prudent from a safety standpoint to consider that this warning may also apply to other oral hypoglycemic drugs in this class, in view of their close similarities in mode of action and chemical structure.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 14331, Apr. 11, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.518" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.518   Drug products containing iron or iron salts.</HEAD>
<P>Drug products containing elemental iron or iron salts as an active ingredient in solid oral dosage form, e.g., tablets or capsules shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Labeling.</I> (1) The label of any drug in solid oral dosage form (e.g., tablets or capsules) that contains iron or iron salts for use as an iron source shall bear the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>WARNING: Accidental overdose or iron-containing products is a leading cause of fatal poisoning in children under 6. Keep this product out of reach of children. In case of accidental overdose, call a doctor or poison control center immediately.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2)(i) The warning statement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the information panel of the immediate container label.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a drug product is packaged in unit-dose packaging, and if the immediate container bears labeling but not a label, the warning statement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the immediate container labeling in a way that maximizes the likelihood that the warning is intact until all of the dosage units to which it applies are used.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the immediate container is not the retail package, the warning statement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall also appear prominently and conspicuously on the information panel of the retail package label.
</P>
<P>(4) The warning statement shall appear on any labeling that contains warnings.
</P>
<P>(5) The warning statement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be set off in a box by use of hairlines.
</P>
<P>(b) The iron-containing inert tablets supplied in monthly packages of oral contraceptives are categorically exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 59715, Oct. 17, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.519" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.519   Drug products marketed as over-the-counter (OTC) daytime sedatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Antihistamines, bromides, and scopolamine compounds, either singly or in combinations, have been marketed as ingredients in over-the-counter (OTC) drug products for use as daytime sedatives. The following claims have been made for daytime sedative products: “occasional simple nervous tension,” “nervous irritability,” “nervous tension headache,” “simple nervousness due to common every day overwork and fatigue,” “a relaxed feeling,” “calming down and relaxing,” “gently soothe away the tension,” “calmative,” “resolving that irritability that ruins your day,” “helps you relax,” “restlessness,” “when you're under occasional stress . . . helps you work relaxed.” Based on evidence presently available, there are no ingredients that can be generally recognized as safe and effective for use as OTC daytime sedatives. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted as an OTC daytime sedative (or any similar or related indication) is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted as an OTC daytime sedative (or any similar or related indication) is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Any OTC daytime sedative drug product introduced into interstate commerce after December 24, 1979, that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 36380, June 22, 1979; 45 FR 47422, July 15, 1980, as amended at 55 FR 11579, Mar. 29, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.527" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.527   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for external use as hair growers or for hair loss prevention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Amino acids, aminobenzoic acid, ascorbic acid, benzoic acid, biotin and all other B-vitamins, dexpanthenol, estradiol and other topical hormones, jojoba oil, lanolin, nucleic acids, polysorbate 20, polysorbate 60, sulfanilamide, sulfur 1 percent on carbon in a fraction of paraffinic hydrocarbons, tetracaine hydrochloride, urea, and wheat germ oil have been marketed as ingredients in OTC drug products for external use as hair growers or for hair loss prevention. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these or any other ingredients intended for OTC external use as a hair grower or for hair loss prevention. Based on evidence currently available, all labeling claims for OTC hair grower and hair loss prevention drug products for external use are either false, misleading, or unsupported by scientific data. Therefore, any OTC drug product for external use containing an ingredient offered for use as a hair grower or for hair loss prevention cannot be considered generally recognized as safe and effective for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for external use as a hair grower or for hair loss prevention is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC external use as a hair grower or for hair loss prevention is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After January 8, 1990, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 28777, July 7, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.528" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.528   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for use as an aphrodisiac.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any product that bears labeling claims that it will arouse or increase sexual desire, or that it will improve sexual performance, is an aphrodisiac drug product. Anise, cantharides, don qual, estrogens, fennel, ginseng, golden seal, gotu kola, Korean ginseng, licorice, mandrake, methyltestosterone, minerals, nux vomica, Pega Palo, sarsaparilla, strychnine, testosterone, vitamins, yohimbine, yohimbine hydrochloride, and yohimbinum have been present as ingredients in such drug products. Androgens (e.g., testosterone and methyltestosterone) and estrogens are powerful hormones when administered internally and are not safe for use except under the supervision of a physician. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of any of these ingredients, or any other ingredient, for OTC use as an aphrodisiac. Labeling claims for aphrodisiacs for OTC use are either false, misleading, or unsupported by scientific data. The following claims are examples of some that have been made for aphrodisiac drug products for OTC use: “acts as an aphrodisiac;” “arouses or increases sexual desire and improves sexual performance;” “helps restore sexual vigor, potency, and performance;” “improves performance, staying power, and sexual potency;” and “builds virility and sexual potency.” Based on evidence currently available, any OTC drug product containing ingredients for use as an aphrodisiac cannot be generally recognized as safe and effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or prompted for use as an aphrodisiac is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, (the act), for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use as an aphrodisiac is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After January 8, 1990, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 28786, July 7, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.529" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.529   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for oral use as insect repellents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Thiamine hydrochloride (vitamin B-1) has been marketed as an ingredient in over-the-counter (OTC) drug products for oral use as an insect repellent (an orally administered drug product intended to keep insects away). There is a lack of adequate data to establish the effectiveness of this, or any other ingredient for OTC oral use as an insect repellent. Labeling claims for OTC orally administered insect repellent drug products are either false, misleading, or unsupported by scientific data. The following claims are examples of some that have been made for orally administered OTC insect repellent drug products: “Oral mosquito repellent,” “mosquitos avoid you,” “bugs stay away,” “keep mosquitos away for 12 to 24 hours,” and “the newest way to fight mosquitos.” Therefore, any drug product containing ingredients offered for oral use as an insect repellent cannot be generally recognized as safe and effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for oral use as an insect repellent is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted OTC for oral use as an insect repellent is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Any such drug product in interstate commerce after December 17, 1985, that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25171, June 17, 1985, as amended at 55 FR 11579, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.530" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.530   Topically applied hormone-containing drug products for over-the-counter (OTC) human use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “hormone” is used broadly to describe a chemical substance formed in some organ of the body, such as the adrenal glands or the pituitary, and carried to another organ or tissue, where it has a specific effect. Hormones include, for example, estrogens, progestins, androgens, anabolic steroids, and adrenal corticosteroids, and synthetic analogs. Estrogens, progesterone, pregnenolone, and pregnenolone acetate have been present as ingredients in OTC drug products marketed for topical use as hormone creams. However, there is a lack of adequate data to establish effectiveness for any OTC drug use of these ingredients. Therefore, with the exception of those hormones identified in paragraph (e) of this section, any OTC drug product containing an ingredient offered for use as a topically applied hormone cannot be considered generally recognized as safe and effective for its intended use. The intended use of the product may be inferred from the product's labeling, promotional material, advertising, and any other relevant factor. The use of the word “hormone” in the text of the labeling or in the ingredient statement is an implied drug claim. The claim implied by the use of this term is that the product will have a therapeutic or some other physiological effect on the body. Therefore, reference to a product as a “hormone cream” or any statement in the labeling indicating that “hormones” are present in the product, or any statement that features or emphasizes the presence of a hormone ingredient in the product, will be considered to be a therapeutic claim for the product, or a claim that the product will affect the structure or function of the body, and will consequently cause the product to be a drug.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted as a topically applied hormone-containing product for drug use, with the exception of those hormones identified in paragraph (e) of this section, is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act, for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use as a topically applied hormone-containing drug product is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) After March 9, 1994, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action. 
</P>
<P>(e) This section does not apply to hydrocortisone and hydrocortisone acetate labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC topical use in accordance with part 348 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 47610, Sept. 9, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.531" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.531   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for the treatment of boils.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aminacrine hydrochloride, benzocaine, bismuth subnitrate, calomel, camphor, cholesterol, ergot fluid extract, hexachlorophene, ichthammol, isobutamben, juniper tar (oil of cade), lanolin, magnesium sulfate, menthol, methyl salicylate, oxyguinoline sulfate, petrolatum, phenol, pine tar, rosin, rosin cerate, sassafras oil, sulfur, thymol, triclosan, and zinc oxide have been present in OTC boil treatment drug products. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these or any other ingredient for OTC use for the treatment of boils. Treatment is defined as reducing the size of a boil or reducing an infection related to a boil. Treatment has involved the use of “drawing salves” for these purposes. These “drawing salves” contained various ingredients. Based on evidence currently available, any OTC drug product offered for the treatment of boils cannot be considered generally recognized as safe and effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for the treatment of boils is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any OTC boil treatment drug product is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) After May 7, 1991, any such OTC drug product that contains aminacrine hydrochloride, bismuth subnitrate, calomel, camphor, cholesterol, ergot fluid extract, hexachlorophene, isobutamben, juniper tar (oil of cade), lanolin, magnesium sulfate, menthol, methyl salicylate, oxyguinoline sulfate, petrolatum, phenol, pine tar, rosin, rosin cerate, sassafras oil, thymol, or zinc oxide initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action. 
</P>
<P>(e) After May 16, 1994, any such OTC drug product that contains benzocaine, ichthammol, sulfur, or triclosan initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action. 
</P>
<P>(f) This section does not apply to drug products that contain benzocaine labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC topical use in accordance with part 348 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 60336, Nov. 15, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.532" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.532   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) to relieve the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amino acids glycine, alanine, and glutamic acid (alone or in combination) and the ingredient sabal have been present in over-the-counter (OTC) drug products to relieve the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy, e.g., urinary urgency and frequency, excessive urinating at night, and delayed urination. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these or any other ingredients for OTC use in relieving the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy. In addition, there is no definitive evidence that any drug product offered for the relief of the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy would alter the obstructive or inflammatory signs and symptoms of this condition. Therefore, self-medication with OTC drug products might unnecessarily delay diagnosis and treatment of progressive obstruction and secondary infections. Based on evidence currently available, any OTC drug product containing ingredients offered for use in relieving the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy cannot be generally recognized as safe and effective.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted to relieve the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use to relieve the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After August 27, 1990, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6930, Feb. 27, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.533" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.533   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for human use as an anticholinergic in cough-cold drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Atropine sulfate, belladonna alkaloids, and belladonna alkaloids as contained in Atropa belladonna and Datura stramonium have been present as ingredients in cough-cold drug products for use as an anticholinergic. Anticholinergic drugs have been marketed OTC in cough-cold drug products to relieve excessive secretions of the nose and eyes, symptoms that are commonly associated with hay fever, allergy, rhinitis, and the common cold. Atropine sulfate for oral use as an anticholinergic is probably safe at dosages that have been used in marketed cough-cold products (0.2 to 0.3 milligram); however, there are inadequate data to establish general recognition of the effectiveness of this ingredient. The belladonna alkaloids, which contain atropine (<I>d, dl</I> hyoscyamine) and scopolamine (<I>l-</I> hyoscine), are probably safe for oral use at dosages that have been used in marketed cough-cold products (0.2 milligram) but there are inadequate data to establish general recognition of the effectiveness of these ingredients as an anticholinergic for cough-cold use. Belladonna alkaloids for inhalation use, as contained in Atropa belladonna and Datura stramonium, are neither safe nor effective as an OTC anticholinergic. There are inadequate safety and effectiveness data to establish general recognition of the safety and/or effectiveness or any of these ingredients, or any other ingredient, for OTC use as an anticholinergic in cough-cold drug products.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC cough-cold drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for use as an anticholinergic is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any cough-cold drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use as an anticholinergic is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After the effective date of the final regulation, any such OTC cough-cold drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for use as an anticholinergic may not be initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce unless it is the subject of an approved new drug application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 46587, Nov. 8, 1985, as amended at 55 FR 11579, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.534" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.534   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for human use as oral wound healing agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Allantoin, carbamide peroxide in anhydrous glycerin, water soluble chlorophyllins, and hydrogen peroxide in aqueous solution have been present in oral mucosal injury drug products for use as oral wound healing agents. Oral wound healing agents have been marketed as aids in the healing of minor oral wounds by means other than cleansing and irrigating, or by serving as a protectant. Allantoin, carbamide peroxide in anhydrous glycerin, water soluble chlorophyllins, and hydrogen peroxide in aqueous solution are safe for use as oral wound healing agents, but there are inadequate data to establish general recognition of the effectiveness of these ingredients as oral wound healing agents.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for use as an oral wound healing agent is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use as an oral wound healing agent is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After the effective date of the final regulation, any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for use as an oral wound healing agent may not be initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce unless it is the subject of an approved new drug application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26114, July 18, 1986, as amended at 55 FR 11579, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.536" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.536   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for use as a nailbiting or thumbsucking deterrent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Denatonium benzoate and sucrose octaacetate have been present in OTC nailbiting and thumbsucking deterrent drug products. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these and any other ingredients (e.g., cayenne pepper) for OTC use as a nailbiting or thumbsucking deterrent. Based on evidence currently available, any OTC drug product containing ingredients offered for use as a nailbiting or thumbsucking deterrent cannot be generally recognized as safe and effective.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, and promoted as a nailbiting or thumbsucking deterrent is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use as a nailbiting or thumbsucking deterrent is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After March 2, 1994, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 46754, Sept. 2, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.537" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.537   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for oral administration for the treatment of fever blisters and cold sores.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <E T="04">l</E>-lysine (lysine, lysine hydrochloride), <I>Lactobacillus acidophilus,</I> and <I>Lactobacillus bulgaricus</I> have been present in orally administered OTC drug products to treat fever blisters and cold sores. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these or any other orally administered ingredients for OTC use to treat or relieve the symptoms or discomfort of fever blisters and cold sores. Based on evidence currently available, any OTC drug product for oral administration containing ingredients offered for use in treating or relieving the symptoms or discomfort of fever blisters and cold sores cannot be generally recognized as safe and effective.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product for oral administration that is labeled, represented, or promoted to treat or relieve the symptoms or discomfort of fever blisters and cold sores is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product for oral administration labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use to treat or relieve the symptoms or discomfort of fever blisters and cold sores is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) After December 30, 1992, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 29173, June 30, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.538" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.538   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for use for ingrown toenail relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any product that bears labeling claims such as for “temporary relief of discomfort from ingrown toenails,” or “ingrown toenail relief product,” or “ingrown toenail reliever,” or similar claims is considered an ingrown toenail relief drug product. Benzocaine, chlorobutanol, chloroxylenol, dibucaine, tannic acid, and urea have been present as ingredients in such products. There is lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these or any other ingredients for OTC use for ingrown toenail relief. Based on evidence currently available, any OTC drug product containing ingredients offered for use for ingrown toenail relief cannot be generally recognized as safe and effective.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for ingrown toenail relief is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use for ingrown toenail relief is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After March 9, 1994, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<P>(e) This section does not apply to sodium sulfide labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC topical use for ingrown toenail relief in accordance with part 358, subpart D of this chapter, after June 6, 2003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 47605, Sept. 9, 1993, as amended at 68 FR 24348, May 7, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.540" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.540   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for use as stomach acidifiers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Betaine hydrochloride, glutamic acid hydrochloride, diluted hydrochloric acid, and pepsin have been present as ingredients in over-the-counter (OTC) drug products for use as stomach acidifiers. Because of the lack of adequate data to establish the effectiveness of these or any other ingredients for use in treating achlorhydria and hypochlorhydria, and because such conditions are asymptomatic, any OTC drug product containing ingredients offered for use as a stomach acidifier cannot be considered generally recognized as safe and effective.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for use as a stomach acidifier is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted as a stomach acidifier for OTC use is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After the effective date of the final regulation, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31271, Aug. 17, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.541" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.541   Over-the-counter (OTC) drug products containing active ingredients offered for use in the treatment of hypophosphatemia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hypophosphatemia is a condition in which an abnormally low plasma level of phosphate occurs in the blood. This condition is not amenable to self-diagnosis or self-treatment. Treatment of this condition should be restricted to the supervision of a physician. For this reason, any drug product containing ingredients offered for OTC use in the treatment of hypophosphatemia cannot be considered generally recognized as safe and effective.
</P>
<P>(b) Any drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use in the treatment of hypophosphatemia is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use in the treatment of hypophosphatemia is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of his chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After November 12, 1990, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 19858, May 11, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.542" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.542   Over-the-counter (OTC) drug products containing active ingredients offered for use in the treatment of hyperphosphatemia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hyperphosphatemia is a condition in which an abnormally high plasma level of phosphate occurs in the blood. This condition in not amenable to self-diagnosis or self-treatment. Treatment of this condition should be restricted to the supervision of a physician. For this reason, any drug product containing ingredients offered for OTC use in the treatment of hyperphosphatemia cannot be considered generally recognized as safe and effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use in the treatment of hyperphosphatemia is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for use in the treatment of hyperphosphatemia is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) After November 12, 1990, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 19858, May 11, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.543" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.543   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for human use in exocrine pancreatic insufficiency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hemicellulase, pancreatin, and pancrelipase have been present as ingredients in exocrine pancreatic insufficiency drug products. Pancreatin and pancrelipase are composed of enzymes: amylase, trypsin (protease), and lipase. Significant differences have been shown in the bioavailability of marketed exocrine pancreatic insufficiency drug products produced by different manufacturers. These differences raise a potential for serious risk to patients using these drug products. The bioavailability of pancreatic enzymes is dependent on the process used to manufacture the drug products. Information on this process is not included in an OTC drug monograph. Therefore, the safe and effective use of these enzymes for treating exocrine pancreatic insufficiency cannot be regulated adequately by an OTC drug monograph. Information on the product's formulation, manufacture, quality control procedures, and final formulation effectiveness testing are necessary in an approved application to ensure that a company has the ability to manufacture a proper bioactive formulation. In addition, continuous physician monitoring of patients who take these drug products is a collateral measure necessary to the safe and effective use of these enzymes, causing such products to be available by prescription only. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use in the treatment of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use in the treatment of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) After May 7, 1991, any such OTC drug product that contains hemicellulase initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action. 
</P>
<P>(e) After October 24, 1995, any such OTC drug product that contains pancreatin or pancrelipase initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 20165, Apr. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.544" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.544   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for use as a smoking deterrent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any product that bears labeling claims that it “helps stop or reduce the cigarette urge,” “helps break the cigarette habit,” “helps stop or reduce smoking,” or similar claims is a smoking deterrent drug product. Cloves, coriander, eucalyptus oil, ginger (Jamaica), lemon oil (terpeneless), licorice root extract, lobeline (in the form of lobeline sulfate or natural lobelia alkaloids or <I>Lobelia inflata</I> herb), menthol, methyl salicylate, povidone-silver nitrate, quinine ascorbate, silver acetate, silver nitrate, and thymol have been present as ingredients in such drug products. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these or any other ingredients for OTC use as a smoking deterrent. Based on evidence currently available, any OTC drug product containing ingredients offered for use as a smoking deterrent cannot be generally recognized as safe and effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted as a smoking deterrent is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use as a smoking deterrent is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) After May 7, 1991, any such OTC drug product containing cloves, coriander, eucalyptus oil, ginger (Jamaica), lemon oil (terpeneless), licorice root extract, menthol, methyl salicylate, quinine ascorbate, silver nitrate, and/or thymol initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action. After December 1, 1993, any such OTC drug product containing lobeline (in the form of lobeline sulfate or natural lobelia alkaloids or <I>Lobelia inflata</I> herb), povidone-silver nitrate, silver acetate, or any other ingredients initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 31241, June 1, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.545" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.545   Drug products containing certain active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for certain uses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A number of active ingredients have been present in OTC drug products for various uses, as described below. However, based on evidence currently available, there are inadequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of these ingredients for the specified uses:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Topical acne drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcloxa
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alkyl isoquinolinium bromide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum chlorohydrex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum hydroxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzocaine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium polysulfide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium thiosulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroxylenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cloxyquin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coal tar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzothiophene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estrone
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium aluminum silicate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenolate sodium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl salicylate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Povidone-iodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyrilamine maleate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol (as single ingredient)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol monoacetate (as single ingredient)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylic acid (over 2 up to 5 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium borate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium thiosulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetracaine hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin E
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc oxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc stearate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfide</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Anticaries drug products</I>—(i) <I>Approved as of May 7, 1991.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Hydrogen fluoride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium carbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium monofluorophosphate (6 percent rinse)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium phosphate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of October 7, 1996.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Calcium sucrose phosphate
</FP>
<FP>Dicalcium phosphate dihydrate
</FP>
<FP>Disodium hydrogen phosphate 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These ingredients are nonmonograph except when used to prepare acidulated phosphate fluoride treatment rinses identified in § 355.10(a)(3) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Phosphoric acid 
<SU>1</SU>
</FP>
<FP>Sodium dihydrogen phosphate
</FP>
<FP>Sodium dihydrogen phosphate monohydrate
</FP>
<FP>Sodium phosphate, dibasic anhydrous reagent 
<SU>1</SU></FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Antidiarrheal drug products</I>—(i) <I>Approved as of May 7, 1991.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum hydroxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Atropine sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium carbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carboxymethylcellulose sodium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Homatropine methylbromide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hyoscyamine sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lactobacillus acidophilus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lactobacillus bulgaricus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Opium, powdered
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Opium tincture
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Paregoric
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl salicylate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scopolamine hydrobromide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc phenolsulfonate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of</I> April 19, 2004; April 18, 2005, <I>for products with annual sales less than $25,000.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Attapulgite, activated
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subnitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium hydroxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium polycarbophil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Charcoal (activated)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pectin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polycarbophil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium carbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhubarb fluidextract</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Antiperspirant drug products</I>—(i) <I>Ingredients</I>—<I>Approved as of May 7, 1991.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alum, potassium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum bromohydrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum chloride (alcoholic solutions)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum chloride (aqueous solution) (aerosol only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum sulfate, buffered (aerosol only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium aluminum chlorohydroxy lactate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of December 9, 2004; June 9, 2005, for products with annual sales less than $25,000.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum sulfate buffered with sodium aluminum lactate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cold, cough, allergy, bronchodilator, and antiasthmatic drug products</I>—(i) <I>Antihistamine drug products</I>—(A) <I>Ingredients.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene fumarate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thenyldiamine hydrochloride</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) <I>Ingredients.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene fumarate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thenyldiamine hydrochloride</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Nasal decongestant drug products</I>—(A) <I>Approved as of May 7, 1991.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Allyl isothiocyanate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor (lozenge)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Creosote, beechwood (oral)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptol (lozenge)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptol (mouthwash)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptus oil (lozenge)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptus oil (mouthwash)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol (mouthwash)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint oil (mouthwash)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thenyldiamine hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol (lozenge)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol (mouthwash)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) <I>Approved as of August 23, 1995.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bornyl acetate (topical) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cedar leaf oil (topical) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Creosote, beechwood (topical)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ephedrine (oral) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ephedrine hydrochloride (oral) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ephedrine sulfate (oral) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Racephedrine hydrochloride (oral/topical)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) Approved as of April 11, 2007; October 11, 2007, for products with annual sales less than $25,000. Any ingredient(s) labeled with claims or directions for use for sinusitis or for relief of nasal congestion associated with sinusitis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Expectorant drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ammonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Antimony potassium tartrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Beechwood creosote
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoin preparations (compound tincture of benzoin, tincture of benzoin)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroform
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptol/eucalyptus oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Horehound 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodides (calcium iodide anyhydrous, hydroidic acid syrup, iodized lime, potassium iodide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ipecac
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ipecac fluidextract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ipecac syrup
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol/peppermint oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pine tar preparations (extract white pine compound, pine tar, syrup of pine tar, compound white pine syrup, white pine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium guaiacolsulfonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Squill preparations (squill, squill extract)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Terpin hydrate preparations (terpin hydrate, terpin hydrate elixir)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tolu preparations (tolu, tolu balsam, tolu balsam tincture)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil (spirits of turpentine)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Bronchodilator drug products</I>—(A) <I>Approved as of October 2, 1987.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aminophylline 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belladonna alkaloids 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Euphorbia pilulifera 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Metaproterenol sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methoxyphenamine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pseudoephedrine sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Theophylline, anhydrous 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Theophylline calcium salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Theophylline sodium glycinate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Approved as of January 29, 1996. Any combination drug product containing theophylline (e.g., theophylline and ephedrine, or theophylline and ephedrine and phenobarbital). 
</P>
<P>(C) Approved as of June 19, 1996. Any ingredient(s) in a pressurized metered-dose inhaler container.
</P>
<P>(D) Approved as of October 29, 2001. Any oral bronchodilator active ingredient (e.g., ephedrine, ephedrine hydrochloride, ephedrine sulfate, racephedrine hydrochloride, or any other ephedrine salt) in combination with any analgesic(s) or analgesic-antipyretic(s), anticholinergic, antihistamine, oral antitussive, or stimulant active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Dandruff/seborrheic dermatitis/psoriasis drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alkyl isoquinolinium bromide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allantoin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzalkonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium undecylenate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Captan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroxylenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Colloidal oatmeal
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cresol, saponated
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethohexadiol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Juniper tar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lauryl isoquinolinium bromide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury oleate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylbenzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl salicylate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenolate sodium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pine tar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Povidone-iodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium borate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salicylate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecylenic acid</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(8) <I>Digestive aid drug products</I>—(i) <I>Approved as of May 7, 1991.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bismuth sodium tartrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium carbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cellulase
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dehydrocholic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Duodenal substance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Garlic, dehydrated
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glutamic acid hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hemicellulase
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Homatropine methylbromide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium hydroxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium trisilicate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ox bile extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pancreatin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pancrelipase
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Papain
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pepsin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium bicarbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of November 10, 1993.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum hydroxide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amylase 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anise seed 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aromatic powder
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Asafetida 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aspergillus oryza enzymes (except lactase enzyme derived from <I>Aspergillus oryzae</I>) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bacillus acidophilus 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bean 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belladonna alkaloids 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belladonna leaves, powdered extract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Betaine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subcarbonate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subgallate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Black radish powder 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Blessed thistle (cnicus benedictus) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Buckthorn 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium gluconate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capsicum 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capsicum, fluid extract of 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbon 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cascara sagrada extract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Catechu, tincture 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Catnip 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chamomile flowers 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Charcoal, wood 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroform 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamon oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamon tincture 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citrus pectin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diastase 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diastase malt 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dog grass 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Elecampane 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ether 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fennel acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Galega 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ginger 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrastis canadensis (golden seal) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hectorite 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Horsetail 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Huckleberry 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrastis fluid extract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrochloric acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron ox bile 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Johnswort 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Juniper 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kaolin, colloidal 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Knotgrass 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lactic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lactose 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lavender compound, tincture of
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linden 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lipase 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lysine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mannitol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mycozyme 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myrrh, fluid extract of 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nettle 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nickel-pectin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nux vomica extract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Orthophosphoric acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Papaya, natural 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pectin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint spirit 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenacetin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium bicarbonate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium carbonate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Protease 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Prolase 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhubarb fluid extract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Senna 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stem bromelain 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Strawberry
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Strychnine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trillium 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Woodruff</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Charcoal, activated
</P>
<P>(9) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(10) <I>External analgesic drug products</I>—(i) <I>Analgesic and anesthetic drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aspirin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloral hydrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorobutanol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclomethycaine sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylamide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Counterirritant drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Chloral hydrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptus oil</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Male genital desensitizer drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Benzyl alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphorated metacresol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ephedrine hydrochloride</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Diaper rash drug products.</I> Any ingredient(s) labeled with claims or directions for use in the treatment and/or prevention of diaper rash.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Fever blister and cold sore treatment drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Allyl isothiocyanate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aspirin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth sodium tartrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor (exceeding 3 percent) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capsaicin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capsicum 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capsicum oleoresin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloral hydrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorobutanol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclomethycaine sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptus oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycol salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Histamine dihydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol (exceeding 1 percent) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl nicotinate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pectin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylamide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Strong ammonia solution 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tripelennamine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trolamine salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) <I>Insect bite and sting drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alcohol, ethoxylated alkyl 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzalkonium chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calamine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ergot fluidextract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferric chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Panthenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyrilamine maleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium borate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trolamine salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc oxide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zirconium oxide</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vii) <I>Poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aspirin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzethonium chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzocaine (0.5 to 1.25 percent) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bithionol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calamine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cetalkonium chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloral hydrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorobutanol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorpheniramine maleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Creosote, beechwood 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclomethycaine sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dexpanthenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diperodon hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptus oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycol salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hectorite 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogen peroxide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Impatiens biflora tincture 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron oxide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl alcohol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lanolin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead acetate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Merbromin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercuric chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Panthenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Parethoxycaine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Povidone-vinylacetate copolymers 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyrilamine maleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylamide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Simethicone 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfur 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trolamine salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zirconium oxide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zyloxin</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Laxative drug products</I>—(i)(A) <I>Bulk laxatives.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Agar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carrageenan (degraded)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carrageenan (native)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guar gun</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(i)(B) <I>Bulk laxatives</I>—<I>Approved as of</I> March 29, 2007.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Granular dosage forms containing psyllium (hemicellulose), psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid, psyllium seed, psyllium seed (blond), psyllium seed husks, plantago husks, or plantago seed including, but not limited to, any granules that are:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(<I>1</I>) Swallowed dry prior to drinking liquid,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(<I>2</I>) Dispersed, suspended, or partially dissolved in liquid prior to swallowing,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(<I>3</I>) Chewed, partially chewed, or unchewed, and then washed down (or swallowed) with liquid, or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(<I>4</I>) Sprinkled over food.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Saline laxative.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Tartaric acid</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Stool softener.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Poloxamer 188</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv)(A) <I>Stimulant laxatives—Approved as of May 7, 1991.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aloin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bile salts/acids 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium pantothenate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calomel 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Colocynth 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Elaterin resin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Frangula 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gamboge 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ipomea 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jalap 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ox bile 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Podophyllum resin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Prune concentrate dehydrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Prune powder 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rhubarb, Chinese 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium Oleate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv)(B) <I>Stimulant laxatives—Approved as of January 29, 1999.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Danthron
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenolphthalein</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) <I>Stimulant laxatives</I>—<I>Approved as of</I> November 5, 2002.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aloe ingredients (aloe, aloe extract, aloe flower extract)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cascara sagrada ingredients (casanthranol, cascara fluidextract aromatic, cascara sagrada bark, cascara sagrada extract, cascara sagrada fluidextract).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(13) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Oral health care drug products (nonantimicrobial).</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Antipyrine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cresol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibucaine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibucaine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lidocaine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lidocaine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methly salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myrrh tincture 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyrilamine maleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sorbitol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sugars 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetracaine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetracaine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(15) <I>Topical otic drug products</I>—(i) <I>For the prevention of swimmer's ear and for the drying of water-clogged ears, approved as of May 7, 1991.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetic acid</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>For the prevention of swimmer's ear, approved as of August 15, 1995.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Glycerin and anhydrous glycerin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl alcohol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(16) <I>Poison treatment drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ipecac fluidextract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ipecac tincture 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(17) <I>Skin bleaching drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Mercury, ammoniated</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(18) <I>Skin protectant drug products</I>—(i)(A) <I>Ingredients—Approved as of May 7, 1991.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Allantoin (wound healing claims only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfur
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc acetate (wound healing claims only)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) <I>Ingredients—Approved as of</I> June 4, 2004; June 6, 2005, <I>for products with annual sales less than $25,000.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Beeswax
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subnitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cetyl alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glyceryl stearate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl palmitate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Live yeast cell derivative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shark liver oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearyl alcohol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Astringent drug products.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetone 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alum, ammonium 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alum, potassium 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum chlorhydroxy complex 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aromatics 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzalkonium chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzethonium chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzocaine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium acetate (except calcium acetate monohydrate when combined with aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate to provide an aluminum acetate solution as described in § 347.20(b) of this chapter)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor gum 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Clove oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Colloidal oatmeal 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cresol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cupric sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptus oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferric subsulfate (Monsel's Solution)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Honey 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl alcohol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxyquinoline sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P-t-butyl-m-cresol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyoxeythylene laurate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium ferrocyanide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sage oil 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silver nitrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium borate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium diacetate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Talc 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid glycerite 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Topical starch 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc oxide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc phenolsulfonate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc stearate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Diaper rash drug products.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aluminum hydroxide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cocoa butter 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cysteine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Protein hydrolysate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Racemethionine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfur 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc acetate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc carbonate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Fever blister and cold sore treatment drug products.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bismuth subnitrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyridoxine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfur 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Topical starch 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trolamine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc sulfate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Insect bite and sting drug products</I>—(A) <I>Ingredients—Approved as of November 10, 1993.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alcohol, ethoxylated alkyl
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonia solution, strong
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ammonium hydroxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzalkonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ergot fluid extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferric chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyrilamine maleate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium borate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trolamine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zirconium oxide</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) <I>Ingredients—Approved as of</I> June 4, 2004; June 6, 2005, <I>for products with annual sales less than $25,000.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Beeswax
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subnitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cetyl alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glyceryl stearate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl palmitate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Live yeast cell derivative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shark liver oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearyl alcohol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) <I>Poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac drug products</I>—(A) <I>Ingredients—Approved as of November 10, 1993.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anion and cation exchange resins buffered
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzocaine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subnitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bithionol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cetalkonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloral hydrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorpheniramine maleate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Creosote
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diperodon hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eucalyptus oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferric chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hectorite
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogen peroxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Impatiens biflora tincture
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron oxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lanolin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead acetate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lidocaine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Merbromin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercuric chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Panthenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Parethoxycaine hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyltoloxamine dihydrogen citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Povidone-vinylacetate copolymers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Simethicone
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Topical starch
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trolamine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zirconium oxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zyloxin</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) <I>Ingredients—Approved as of</I> June 4, 2004; June 6, 2005, <I>for products with annual sales less than $25,000.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Beeswax
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subnitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cetyl alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glyceryl stearate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isopropyl palmitate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Live yeast cell derivative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shark liver oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stearyl alcohol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(19) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Weight control drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alfalfa
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alginic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anise oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arginine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ascorbic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bearberry
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Biotin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bone marrow, red
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Buchu
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Buchu, potassium extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caffeine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caffeine citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium carbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium caseinate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium lactate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium pantothenate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carboxymethylcellulose sodium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carrageenan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cholecalcierol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Choline
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chondrus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cnicus benedictus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper gluconate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corn oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corn syrup
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corn silk, potassium extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cupric sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<E T="52">12</E>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cystine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dextrose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Docusate sodium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ergocalciferol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferric ammonium citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferric pyrophosphate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferrous fumarate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferrous gluconate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferrous sulfate (iron)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Flax seed
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Folic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fructose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guar gum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Histidine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrastis canadensis
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Inositol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isoleucine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Juniper, potassium extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Karaya gum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kelp
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lactose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lecithin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Leucine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Liver concentrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lysine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lysine hydrochloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium oxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Malt
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maltodextrin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Manganese citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mannitol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methionine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylcellulose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mono- and di-glycerides
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Niacinamide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Organic vegetables
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pancreatin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pantothenic acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Papain
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Papaya enzymes
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pepsin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenacetin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylalanine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphorus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phytolacca
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pineapple enzymes
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Plantago seed
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium citrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyridoxine hydrochloride (vitamin B<E T="52">6</E>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Riboflavin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rice polishings
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saccharin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sea minerals
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sesame seed
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium bicarbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium caseinate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium chloride (salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soybean protein
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Soy meal
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sucrose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiamine hydrochloride (vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiamine mononitrate (vitamin B<E T="52">1</E> mononitrate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Threonine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tricalcium phosphate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tryptophan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tyrosine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uva ursi, potassium extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Valine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vegetable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin A
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin A acetate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin A palmitate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin E
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wheat germ
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Xanthan gum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Yeast</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(21) <I>Ophthalmic drug products.</I> (i) <I>Ophthalmic anesthetic drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Antipyrine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperocaine hydrochloride</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Ophthalmic anti-infective drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mild silver protein
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Yellow mercuric oxide</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Ophthalmic astringent drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Infusion of rose petals</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Ophthalmic demulcent drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Polyethylene glycol 6000</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Ophthalmic vasoconstrictor drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Phenylephrine hydrochloride (less than 0.08 percent)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(22) <I>Topical antifungal drug products.</I> (i) <I>Diaper rash drug products.</I> Any ingredient(s) labeled with claims or directions for use in the treatment and/or prevention of diaper rash.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ingredients.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcloxa 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alum, potassium 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amyltricresols, secondary 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Basic fuchsin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzethonium chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzoxiquine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boric acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Camphor 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Candicidin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorothymol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coal tar 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichlorophen 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylparaben 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxyquinoline 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxyquinoline sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenolate sodium 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propionic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylparaben 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salicylic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium borate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium caprylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium propionate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfur 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tannic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thymol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tolindate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triacetin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc caprylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc propionate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Any ingredient(s) labeled with claims or directions for use on the scalp or on the nails.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Ingredients.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Camphorated metacresol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroxylenol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>m</I>-cresol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nystatin</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(23) <I>Internal analgesic drug products</I>—(i) <I>Approved as of November 10, 1993.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Aminobenzoic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Antipyrine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aspirin, aluminum 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Codeine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Codeine phosphate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Codeine sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodoantipyrine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lysine aspirin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene fumarate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenacetin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pheniramine maleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyrilamine maleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Quinine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salsalate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium aminobenzoate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of</I> February 22, 1999.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Any atropine ingredient
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Any ephedrine ingredient</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(24) <I>Orally administered menstrual drug products</I>—(i) <I>Approved as of November 10, 1993.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Alcohol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alfalfa leaves 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aloes 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Asclepias tuberosa 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Asparagus 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Barosma 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bearberry (extract of uva ursi) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bearberry fluidextract (extract of bearberry) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Blessed thistle (cnicus benedictus) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Buchu powdered extract (extract of buchu) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium lactate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium pantothenate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capsicum oleoresin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cascara fluidextract, aromatic (extract of cascara) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorprophenpyridamine maleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cimicifuga racemosa 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Codeine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Collinsonia (extract stone root) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corn silk 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Couch grass 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dog grass extract 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl nitrite 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferric chloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ferrous sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gentiana lutea (gentian) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycyrrhiza (licorice) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Homatropine methylbromide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrangea, powdered extract (extract of hydrangea) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrastis canadensis (golden seal) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hyoscyamine sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Juniper oil (oil of juniper) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnesium sulfate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methenamine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylene blue 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Natural estrogenic hormone 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Niacinamide 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nutmeg oil (oil of nutmeg) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oil of erigeron 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Parsley 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peppermint spirit 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pepsin, essence 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenacetin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenindamine tartrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenyl salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piscidia erythrina 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pipsissewa 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium acetate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium nitrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Riboflavin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saw palmetto 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Senecio aureus 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium benzoate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium nitrate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sucrose 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulferated oils of turpentine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Taraxacum officinale 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Theobromine sodium salicylate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Theophylline 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiamine hydrochloride 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triticum 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine, venice (venice turpertine) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Urea</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of</I> February 22, 1999.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Any atropine ingredient
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Any ephedrine ingredient</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(25) <I>Pediculicide drug products</I>—(i) <I>Approved as of November 10, 1993.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Benzocaine 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl alcohol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl benzoate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorophenothane (dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coconut oil soap, aqueous 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper oleate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Docusate sodium 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Formic acid 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobornyl thiocyanoacetate 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Picrotoxin 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylene glycol 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sabadilla alkaloids 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sulfur, sublimed 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiocyanoacetate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of June 14, 1994.</I> The combination of pyrethrum extract (formerly named pyrethrins) and piperonyl butoxide in an aerosol dosage formulation.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Anorectal drug products</I>—(i) <I>Anticholinergic drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Atropine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belladonna extract</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Antiseptic drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Boric acid
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boroglycerin
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrastis
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium salicylic acid phenolate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Astringent drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Tannic acid</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Counterirritant drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Camphor (greater than 3 to 11 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrastis
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Menthol (1.25 to 16 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turpentine oil (rectified) (6 to 50 percent)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Keratolytic drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Precipitated sulfur
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sublimed sulfur</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) <I>Local anesthetic drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Diperodon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenacaine hydrochloride</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vii) <I>Other drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Collinsonia extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Escherichia coli vaccines
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lappa extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Leptandra extract
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Live yeast cell derivative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mullein</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(viii) <I>Protectant drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bismuth oxide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subcarbonate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subgallate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bismuth subnitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lanolin alcohols</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ix) <I>Vasoconstrictor drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Epinephrine undecylenate</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(x) <I>Wound healinq drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cholecalciferol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cod liver oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Live yeast cell derivative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peruvian balsam
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shark liver oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitamin A</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(xi) <I>Combination drug products.</I> Any combination drug product containing hydrocortisone and pramoxine hydrochloride.


</P>
<P>(27) <I>Topical antimicrobial drug products</I>—(i) <I>First aid antiseptic drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ammoniated mercury
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calomel (mercurous chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Merbromin (mercurochrome)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercufenol chloride (ortho-chloromercuriphenol, ortho-hydroxyphenylmercuric chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercuric chloride (bichloride of mercury, mercury chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercuric oxide, yellow
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercuric salicylate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercuric sulfide, red
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury oleate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury sulfide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitromersol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Para-chloromercuriphenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylmercuric nitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thimerosal
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vitromersol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zyloxin</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Diaper rash drug products.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Para-chloromercuriphenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Any other ingredient containing mercury</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Consumer antiseptic hand wash drug products.</I> Approved as of September 6, 2017.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cloflucarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorosalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorophene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (ammonium ether sulfate and polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaurate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (phosphate ester of alkylaryloxy polyethylene glycol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylbenzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonylphenoxypoly (ethyleneoxy) ethanoliodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol (greater than 1.5 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol (less than 1.5 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poloxamer iodine complex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Povidone-iodine (5 to 10 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Secondary amyltricresols
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium oxychlorosene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tribromsalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclocarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclosan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triple Dye
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecoylium chloride iodine complex</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Consumer antiseptic body wash drug products.</I> Approved as of September 6, 2017.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cloflucarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorosalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorophene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (phosphate ester of alkylaryloxy polyethylene glycol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine tincture
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylbenzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonylphenoxypoly (ethyleneoxy) ethanoliodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol (greater than 1.5 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol (less than 1.5 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poloxamer iodine complex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Povidone-iodine (5 to 10 percent)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Secondary amyltricresols
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium oxychlorosene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tribromsalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclocarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclosan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triple Dye
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecoylium chloride iodine complex</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Health care personnel hand wash drug products.</I> Approved as of December 20, 2018.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cloflucarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorosalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorophene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (ammonium ether sulfate and polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaurate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (phosphate ester of alkylaryloxy polyethylene glycol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylbenzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonylphenoxypoly (ethyleneoxy) ethanoliodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poloxamer-iodine complex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Secondary amyltricresols
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium oxychlorosene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tribromsalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclocarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclosan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecoylium chloride iodine complex</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Surgical hand scrub drug products.</I> Approved as of December 20, 2018.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cloflucarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorosalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorophene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (ammonium ether sulfate and polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaurate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (phosphate ester of alkylaryloxy polyethylene glycol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylbenzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonylphenoxypoly (ethyleneoxy) ethanoliodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poloxamer-iodine complex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Secondary amyltricresols
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium oxychlorosene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tribromsalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclocarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclosan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecoylium chloride iodine complex</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ix) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Patient antiseptic skin preparation drug products.</I> Approved as of December 20, 2018.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Cloflucarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorosalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorophene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexylresorcinol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine complex (phosphate ester of alkylaryloxy polyethylene glycol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine tincture (USP)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodine topical solution (USP)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercufenol chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylbenzethonium chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nonylphenoxypoly (ethyleneoxy) ethanoliodine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poloxamer-iodine complex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Secondary amyltricresols
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium oxychlorosene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tribromsalan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclocarban
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triclosan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triple dye
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Undecoylium chloride iodine complex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Combination of calomel, oxyquinoline benzoate, triethanolamine, and phenol derivative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Combination of mercufenol chloride and secondary amyltricresols in 50 percent alcohol</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(28) <I>Vaginal contraceptive drug products</I>—(i) <I>Approved as of October 22, 1998.</I> 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Dodecaethylene glycol monolaurate (polyethylene glycol 600 monolaurate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Laureth 10S
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methoxypolyoxyethyleneglycol 550 laurate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylmercuric acetate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylmercuric nitrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Any other ingredient containing mercury</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Approved as of November 5, 2002.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Octoxynol 9</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(29) <I>Sunscreen drug products.</I> (i) <I>Ingredients.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Diethanolamine methoxycinnamate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Digalloyl trioleate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl 4-[bis(hydroxypropyl)] aminobenzoate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glyceryl aminobenzoate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lawsone with dihydroxyacetone
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Red petrolatum</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Any ingredients labeled with any of the following or similar claims. Instant protection or protection immediately upon application.
</P>
<P>Claims for “all-day” protection or extended wear claims citing a specific number of hours of protection that is inconsistent with the directions for application in 21 CFR 201.327.
</P>
<P>(30) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for the uses specified and containing any active ingredient(s) as specified in paragraph (a) of this section is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 210(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act), for which an approved new drug application under section 505 of the Act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for the OTC uses and containing any active ingredient(s) as specified in paragraph (a) of this section is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any OTC drug product that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action if initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the dates specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(42) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) May 7, 1991, for products subject to paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(2)(i), (a)(3)(i), (a)(4)(i), (a)(6)(i)(A), (a)(6)(ii)(A), (a)(7) (except as covered by paragraph (d)(3) of this section), (a)(8)(i), (a)(10)(i) through (a)(10)(iii), (a)(12)(i)(A), (a)(12)(ii) through (a)(12)(iv)(A), (a)(14) through (a)(15)(i), (a)(16) through (a)(18)(i)(A), (a)(18)(ii) (except as covered by paragraph (d)(22) of this section), (a)(18)(iii), (a)(18)(iv), (a)(18)(v)(A), and (a)(18)(vi)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) February 10, 1992, for products subject to paragraph (a)(20) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) December 4, 1992, for products subject to paragraph (a)(7) of this section that contain menthol as an antipruritic in combination with the antidandruff ingredient coal tar identified in § 358.710(a)(1) of this chapter. This section does not apply to products allowed by § 358.720(b) of this chapter after April 5, 2007.
</P>
<P>(4) February 28, 1990, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section, except those that contain ipecac.
</P>
<P>(5) September 14, 1993, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section that contain ipecac.
</P>
<P>(6) December 9, 1993, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) March 6, 1989, for products subject to paragraph (a)(21) of this section, except those that contain ophthalmic anti-infective ingredients listed in paragraph (a)(21)(ii).
</P>
<P>(8) June 18, 1993, for products subject to paragraph (a)(21) of this section that contain ophthalmic anti-infective ingredients.
</P>
<P>(9) June 18, 1993, for products subject to paragraph (a)(10)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) June 18, 1993, for products subject to paragraph (a)(22)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) November 10, 1993, for products subject to paragraphs (a)(8)(ii), (a)(10)(v) through (a)(10)(vii), (a)(18)(ii) (except products that contain ferric subsulfate as covered by paragraph (d)(22) of this section and except products that contain calcium acetate monohydrate as covered by paragraph (d)(39) of this section) through (a)(18)(v)(A), (a)(18)(vi)(A), (a)(22)(ii), (a)(23)(i), (a)(24)(i), and (a)(25) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) March 2, 1994, for products subject to paragraph (a)(22)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) August 5, 1991, for products subject to paragraph (a)(26) of this section, except for those that contain live yeast cell derivative and a combination of hydrocortisone and pramoxine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(14) September 2, 1994, for products subject to paragraph (a)(26)(vii) and (a)(26)(x) of this section that contain live yeast cell derivative.
</P>
<P>(15) September 23, 1994, for products subject to paragraph (a)(22)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(16) June 14, 1994, for products subject to paragraph (a)(25)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(17) April 19, 2004, for products subject to paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. April 18, 2005, for products with annual sales less than $25,000.
</P>
<P>(18) August 15, 1995, for products subject to paragraph (a)(15)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(19) October 2, 1987, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(iv)(A) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(20) January 29, 1996, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(iv)(B) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(21) April 21, 1994, for products subject to paragraph (a)(8)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(22) April 21, 1993, for products subject to paragraph (a)(18)(ii) of this section that contain ferric subsulfate.
</P>
<P>(23) August 23, 1995, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(ii)(B) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(24) October 7, 1996, for products subject to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(25) June 19, 1996, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(iv)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(26) February 22, 1999, for products subject to paragraphs (a)(23)(ii) and (a)(24)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(27) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(28) October 22, 1998, for products subject to paragraphs (a)(27) and (a)(28)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(29) January 29, 1999, for products subject to paragraph (a)(12)(iv)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(30) November 5, 2002, for products subject to paragraph (a)(12)(iv)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(31) December 31, 2002, for products subject to paragraph (a)(29)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(32) June 4, 2004, for products subject to paragraphs (a)(18)(i)(B), (a)(18)(v)(B), and (a)(18)(vi)(B) of this section. June 6, 2005, for products with annual sales less than $25,000.
</P>
<P>(33) October 29, 2001, for products subject to paragraph (a)(6)(iv)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(34) December 9, 2004, for products subject to paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section. June 9, 2005, for products with annual sales less than $25,000.
</P>
<P>(35) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(36) November 5, 2002, for products subject to paragraph (a)(28)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(37) September 25, 2003, for products subject to paragraph (a)(26)(xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(38) October 1, 2007, for products subject to paragraph (a)(12)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(39) September 6, 2010, for products subject to paragraph (a)(18)(ii) of this section that contain calcium acetate monohydrate, except as provided in § 347.20(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(40) December 17, 2012, for products subject to paragraph (a)(29)(ii) of this section. December 17, 2013, for products with annual sales less than $25,000.


</P>
<P>(41) September 6, 2017, for products subject to paragraph (a)(27)(iii) or (iv) of this section.


</P>
<P>(42) December 20, 2018, for products subject to paragraphs (a)(27)(vi) through (x) of this section.
















</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 46919, Nov. 7, 1990]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 310.545, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 61 FR 9571, Mar. 8, 1996, in § 310.545 in paragraph (a)(6)(ii)(B), the entry for “l-desoxyephedrine (topical)” was stayed until further notice.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.546" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.546   Drug products containing active ingredients offered over-the-counter (OTC) for the treatment and/or prevention of nocturnal leg muscle cramps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Quinine sulfate alone or in combination with vitamin E has been present in over-the-counter (OTC) drug products for the treatment and/or prevention of nocturnal leg muscle cramps, <I>i.e.</I>, a condition of localized pain in the lower extremities usually occurring in middle life and beyond with no regular pattern concerning time or severity. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of quinine sulfate, vitamin E, or any other ingredients for OTC use in the treatment and/or prevention of nocturnal leg muscle cramps. In the doses used to treat or prevent this condition, quinine sulfate has caused adverse events such as transient visual and auditory disturbances, dizziness, fever, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Quinine sulfate may cause unpredictable serious and life-threatening hypersensitivity reactions requiring medical intervention and hospitalization; fatalities have been reported. The risk associated with use of quinine sulfate, in the absence of evidence of its effectiveness, outweighs any potential benefit in treating and/or preventing this benign, self-limiting condition. Based upon the adverse benefit-to-risk ratio, any drug product containing quinine or quinine sulfate cannot be considered generally recognized as safe for the treatment and/or prevention of nocturnal leg muscle cramps. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product that is labeled, represented, or promoted for the treatment and/or prevention of nocturnal leg muscle cramps is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use for the treatment and/or prevention of nocturnal leg muscle cramps is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After February 22, 1995, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 43252, Aug. 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.547" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.547   Drug products containing quinine offered over-the-counter (OTC) for the treatment and/or prevention of malaria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Quinine and quinine salts have been used OTC for the treatment and/or prevention of malaria, a serious and potentially life-threatening disease. Quinine is no longer the drug of choice for the treatment and/or prevention of most types of malaria. In addition, there are serious and complicating aspects of the disease itself and some potentially serious and life-threatening risks associated with the use of quinine at doses employed for the treatment of malaria. There is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety of quinine drug products for OTC use in the treatment and/or prevention of malaria. Therefore, quinine or quinine salts cannot be safely and effectively used for the treatment and/or prevention of malaria except under the care and supervision of a doctor.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product containing quinine or quinine salts that is labeled, represented, or promoted for the treatment and/or prevention of malaria is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act, for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product labeled, represented, or promoted for OTC use for the treatment and/or prevention of malaria is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After April 20, 1998, any such OTC drug product initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 13528, Mar. 20, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.548" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.548   Drug products containing colloidal silver ingredients or silver salts offered over-the-counter (OTC) for the treatment and/or prevention of disease.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Colloidal silver ingredients and silver salts have been marketed in over-the-counter (OTC) drug products for the treatment and prevention of numerous disease conditions. There are serious and complicating aspects to many of the diseases these silver ingredients purport to treat or prevent. Further, there is a lack of adequate data to establish general recognition of the safety and effectiveness of colloidal silver ingredients or silver salts for OTC use in the treatment or prevention of any disease. These ingredients and salts include, but are not limited to, silver proteins, mild silver protein, strong silver protein, silver, silver ion, silver chloride, silver cyanide, silver iodide, silver oxide, and silver phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) Any OTC drug product containing colloidal silver ingredients or silver salts that is labeled, represented, or promoted for the treatment and/or prevention of any disease is regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) for which an approved application or abbreviated application under section 505 of the act and part 314 of this chapter is required for marketing. In the absence of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application, such product is also misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Clinical investigations designed to obtain evidence that any drug product containing colloidal silver or silver salts labeled, represented, or promoted for any OTC drug use is safe and effective for the purpose intended must comply with the requirements and procedures governing the use of investigational new drugs as set forth in part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After September 16, 1999, any such OTC drug product containing colloidal silver or silver salts initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 44658, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="312" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 312—INVESTIGATIONAL NEW DRUG APPLICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360bbb, 371; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 312 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains procedures and requirements governing the use of investigational new drugs, including procedures and requirements for the submission to, and review by, the Food and Drug Administration of investigational new drug applications (IND's). An investigational new drug for which an IND is in effect in accordance with this part is exempt from the premarketing approval requirements that are otherwise applicable and may be shipped lawfully for the purpose of conducting clinical investigations of that drug.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulations in the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.2" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in this section, this part applies to all clinical investigations of products that are subject to section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or to the licensing provisions of the Public Health Service Act (58 Stat. 632, as amended (42 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) The clinical investigation of a drug product that is lawfully marketed in the United States is exempt from the requirements of this part if all the following apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) The investigation is not intended to be reported to FDA as a well-controlled study in support of a new indication for use nor intended to be used to support any other significant change in the labeling for the drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the drug that is undergoing investigation is lawfully marketed as a prescription drug product, the investigation is not intended to support a significant change in the advertising for the product;
</P>
<P>(iii) The investigation does not involve a route of administration or dosage level or use in a patient population or other factor that significantly increases the risks (or decreases the acceptability of the risks) associated with the use of the drug product; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The investigation is conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 and with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The investigation is conducted in compliance with the requirements of § 312.7.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A clinical investigation involving an in vitro diagnostic biological product listed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section is exempt from the requirements of this part if (<I>a</I>) it is intended to be used in a diagnostic procedure that confirms the diagnosis made by another, medically established, diagnostic product or procedure and (<I>b</I>) it is shipped in compliance with § 312.160.
</P>
<P>(ii) In accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the following products are exempt from the requirements of this part: (<I>a</I>) blood grouping serum; (<I>b</I>) reagent red blood cells; and (<I>c</I>) anti-human globulin.
</P>
<P>(3) A drug intended solely for tests in vitro or in laboratory research animals is exempt from the requirements of this part if shipped in accordance with § 312.160.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will not accept an application for an investigation that is exempt under the provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) A clinical investigation involving use of a placebo is exempt from the requirements of this part if the investigation does not otherwise require submission of an IND. 
</P>
<P>(6) A clinical investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter is not exempt from the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bioavailability studies.</I> The applicability of this part to in vivo bioavailability studies in humans is subject to the provisions of § 320.31.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unlabeled indication.</I> This part does not apply to the use in the practice of medicine for an unlabeled indication of a new drug product approved under part 314 or of a licensed biological product. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Guidance.</I> FDA may, on its own initiative, issue guidance on the applicability of this part to particular investigational uses of drugs. On request, FDA will advise on the applicability of this part to a planned clinical investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 51529, Oct. 2, 1996; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the Act apply to those terms when used in this part:
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms also apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (secs. 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.</I>, as amended (21 U.S.C. 301-392)). 
</P>
<P><I>Clinical investigation</I> means any experiment in which a drug is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, one or more human subjects. For the purposes of this part, an experiment is any use of a drug except for the use of a marketed drug in the course of medical practice.
</P>
<P><I>Contract research organization</I> means a person that assumes, as an independent contractor with the sponsor, one or more of the obligations of a sponsor, e.g., design of a protocol, selection or monitoring of investigations, evaluation of reports, and preparation of materials to be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P><I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P><I>IND</I> means an investigational new drug application. For purposes of this part, “IND” is synonymous with “Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Drug.” 
</P>
<P><I>Independent ethics committee (IEC)</I> means a review panel that is responsible for ensuring the protection of the rights, safety, and well-being of human subjects involved in a clinical investigation and is adequately constituted to provide assurance of that protection. An institutional review board (IRB), as defined in § 56.102(g) of this chapter and subject to the requirements of part 56 of this chapter, is one type of IEC.
</P>
<P><I>Investigational new drug</I> means a new drug or biological drug that is used in a clinical investigation. The term also includes a biological product that is used in vitro for diagnostic purposes. The terms “investigational drug” and “investigational new drug” are deemed to be synonymous for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Investigator</I> means an individual who actually conducts a clinical investigation (<I>i.e.</I>, under whose immediate direction the drug is administered or dispensed to a subject). In the event an investigation is conducted by a team of individuals, the investigator is the responsible leader of the team. “Subinvestigator” includes any other individual member of that team. 
</P>
<P><I>Marketing application</I> means an application for a new drug submitted under section 505(b) of the act or a biologics license application for a biological product submitted under the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person who takes responsibility for and initiates a clinical investigation. The sponsor may be an individual or pharmaceutical company, governmental agency, academic institution, private organization, or other organization. The sponsor does not actually conduct the investigation unless the sponsor is a sponsor-investigator. A person other than an individual that uses one or more of its own employees to conduct an investigation that it has initiated is a sponsor, not a sponsor-investigator, and the employees are investigators. 
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor-Investigator</I> means an individual who both initiates and conducts an investigation, and under whose immediate direction the investigational drug is administered or dispensed. The term does not include any person other than an individual. The requirements applicable to a sponsor-investigator under this part include both those applicable to an investigator and a sponsor. 
</P>
<P><I>Subject</I> means a human who participates in an investigation, either as a recipient of the investigational new drug or as a control. A subject may be a healthy human or a patient with a disease.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999; 73 FR 22815, Apr. 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.6" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.6   Labeling of an investigational new drug.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The immediate package of an investigational new drug intended for human use shall bear a label with the statement “Caution: New Drug—Limited by Federal (or United States) law to investigational use.” 
</P>
<P>(b) The label or labeling of an investigational new drug shall not bear any statement that is false or misleading in any particular and shall not represent that the investigational new drug is safe or effective for the purposes for which it is being investigated.
</P>
<P>(c) The appropriate FDA Center Director, according to the procedures set forth in §§ 201.26 or 610.68 of this chapter, may grant an exception or alternative to the provision in paragraph (a) of this section, to the extent that this provision is not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of a human drug product that is or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 72 FR 73599, Dec. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.7" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.7   Promotion of investigational drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Promotion of an investigational new drug.</I> A sponsor or investigator, or any person acting on behalf of a sponsor or investigator, shall not represent in a promotional context that an investigational new drug is safe or effective for the purposes for which it is under investigation or otherwise promote the drug. This provision is not intended to restrict the full exchange of scientific information concerning the drug, including dissemination of scientific findings in scientific or lay media. Rather, its intent is to restrict promotional claims of safety or effectiveness of the drug for a use for which it is under investigation and to preclude commercialization of the drug before it is approved for commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commercial distribution of an investigational new drug.</I> A sponsor or investigator shall not commercially distribute or test market an investigational new drug. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prolonging an investigation.</I> A sponsor shall not unduly prolong an investigation after finding that the results of the investigation appear to establish sufficient data to support a marketing application. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 19476, May 22, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002; 74 FR 40899, Aug. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.8" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.8   Charging for investigational drugs under an IND.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General criteria for charging.</I> (1) A sponsor must meet the applicable requirements in paragraph (b) of this section for charging in a clinical trial or paragraph (c) of this section for charging for expanded access to an investigational drug for treatment use under subpart I of this part, except that sponsors need not fulfill the requirements in this section to charge for an approved drug obtained from another entity not affiliated with the sponsor for use as part of the clinical trial evaluation (e.g., in a clinical trial of a new use of the approved drug, for use of the approved drug as an active control).
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor must justify the amount to be charged in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A sponsor must obtain prior written authorization from FDA to charge for an investigational drug.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will withdraw authorization to charge if it determines that charging is interfering with the development of a drug for marketing approval or that the criteria for the authorization are no longer being met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charging in a clinical trial</I>—(1) <I>Charging for a sponsor's drug.</I> A sponsor who wishes to charge for its investigational drug, including investigational use of its approved drug, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide evidence that the drug has a potential clinical benefit that, if demonstrated in the clinical investigations, would provide a significant advantage over available products in the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation, or prevention of a disease or condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that the data to be obtained from the clinical trial would be essential to establishing that the drug is effective or safe for the purpose of obtaining initial approval of a drug, or would support a significant change in the labeling of an approved drug (e.g., new indication, inclusion of comparative safety information); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the clinical trial could not be conducted without charging because the cost of the drug is extraordinary to the sponsor. The cost may be extraordinary due to manufacturing complexity, scarcity of a natural resource, the large quantity of drug needed (e.g., due to the size or duration of the trial), or some combination of these or other extraordinary circumstances (e.g., resources available to a sponsor).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration of charging in a clinical trial.</I> Unless FDA specifies a shorter period, charging may continue for the length of the clinical trial.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charging for expanded access to investigational drug for treatment use.</I> (1) A sponsor who wishes to charge for expanded access to an investigational drug for treatment use under subpart I of this part must provide reasonable assurance that charging will not interfere with developing the drug for marketing approval.
</P>
<P>(2) For expanded access under § 312.320 (treatment IND or treatment protocol), such assurance must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence of sufficient enrollment in any ongoing clinical trial(s) needed for marketing approval to reasonably assure FDA that the trial(s) will be successfully completed as planned;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evidence of adequate progress in the development of the drug for marketing approval; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Information submitted under the general investigational plan (§ 312.23(a)(3)(iv)) specifying the drug development milestones the sponsor plans to meet in the next year.
</P>
<P>(3) The authorization to charge is limited to the number of patients authorized to receive the drug under the treatment use, if there is a limitation.
</P>
<P>(4) Unless FDA specifies a shorter period, charging for expanded access to an investigational drug for treatment use under subpart I of this part may continue for 1 year from the time of FDA authorization. A sponsor may request that FDA reauthorize charging for additional periods.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Costs recoverable when charging for an investigational drug.</I> (1) A sponsor may recover only the direct costs of making its investigational drug available.
</P>
<P>(i) Direct costs are costs incurred by a sponsor that can be specifically and exclusively attributed to providing the drug for the investigational use for which FDA has authorized cost recovery. Direct costs include costs per unit to manufacture the drug (e.g., raw materials, labor, and nonreusable supplies and equipment used to manufacture the quantity of drug needed for the use for which charging is authorized) or costs to acquire the drug from another manufacturing source, and direct costs to ship and handle (e.g., store) the drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) Indirect costs include costs incurred primarily to produce the drug for commercial sale (e.g., costs for facilities and equipment used to manufacture the supply of investigational drug, but that are primarily intended to produce large quantities of drug for eventual commercial sale) and research and development, administrative, labor, or other costs that would be incurred even if the clinical trial or treatment use for which charging is authorized did not occur.
</P>
<P>(2) For expanded access to an investigational drug for treatment use under §§ 312.315 (intermediate-size patient populations) and 312.320 (treatment IND or treatment protocol), in addition to the direct costs described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, a sponsor may recover the costs of monitoring the expanded access IND or protocol, complying with IND reporting requirements, and other administrative costs directly associated with the expanded access IND.
</P>
<P>(3) To support its calculation for cost recovery, a sponsor must provide supporting documentation to show that the calculation is consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1) and, if applicable, (d)(2) of this section. The documentation must be accompanied by a statement that an independent certified public accountant has reviewed and approved the calculations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 40899, Aug. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.10   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor may request FDA to waive applicable requirement under this part. A waiver request may be submitted either in an IND or in an information amendment to an IND. In an emergency, a request may be made by telephone or other rapid communication means. A waiver request is required to contain at least one of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation why the sponsor's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary or cannot be achieved; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of an alternative submission or course of action that satisfies the purpose of the requirement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Other information justifying a waiver. 
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may grant a waiver if it finds that the sponsor's noncompliance would not pose a significant and unreasonable risk to human subjects of the investigation and that one of the following is met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary for the agency to evaluate the application, or compliance cannot be achieved; 
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor's proposed alternative satisfies the requirement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's submission otherwise justifies a waiver.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Investigational New Drug Application (IND)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.20   Requirement for an IND.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor shall submit an IND to FDA if the sponsor intends to conduct a clinical investigation with an investigational new drug that is subject to § 312.2(a).
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor shall not begin a clinical investigation subject to § 312.2(a) until the investigation is subject to an IND which is in effect in accordance with § 312.40.
</P>
<P>(c) A sponsor shall submit a separate IND for any clinical investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Such a clinical investigation is not permitted to proceed without the prior written authorization from FDA. FDA shall provide a written determination 30 days after FDA receives the IND or earlier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 51529, Oct. 2, 1996; 62 FR 32479, June 16, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.21" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.21   Phases of an investigation.</HEAD>
<P>An IND may be submitted for one or more phases of an investigation. The clinical investigation of a previously untested drug is generally divided into three phases. Although in general the phases are conducted sequentially, they may overlap. These three phases of an investigation are a follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Phase 1.</I> (1) Phase 1 includes the initial introduction of an investigational new drug into humans. Phase 1 studies are typically closely monitored and may be conducted in patients or normal volunteer subjects. These studies are designed to determine the metabolism and pharmacologic actions of the drug in humans, the side effects associated with increasing doses, and, if possible, to gain early evidence on effectiveness. During Phase 1, sufficient information about the drug's pharmacokinetics and pharmacological effects should be obtained to permit the design of well-controlled, scientifically valid, Phase 2 studies. The total number of subjects and patients included in Phase 1 studies varies with the drug, but is generally in the range of 20 to 80.
</P>
<P>(2) Phase 1 studies also include studies of drug metabolism, structure-activity relationships, and mechanism of action in humans, as well as studies in which investigational drugs are used as research tools to explore biological phenomena or disease processes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Phase 2.</I> Phase 2 includes the controlled clinical studies conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of the drug for a particular indication or indications in patients with the disease or condition under study and to determine the common short-term side effects and risks associated with the drug. Phase 2 studies are typically well controlled, closely monitored, and conducted in a relatively small number of patients, usually involving no more than several hundred subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Phase 3.</I> Phase 3 studies are expanded controlled and uncontrolled trials. They are performed after preliminary evidence suggesting effectiveness of the drug has been obtained, and are intended to gather the additional information about effectiveness and safety that is needed to evaluate the overall benefit-risk relationship of the drug and to provide an adequate basis for physician labeling. Phase 3 studies usually include from several hundred to several thousand subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.22" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.22   General principles of the IND submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA's primary objectives in reviewing an IND are, in all phases of the investigation, to assure the safety and rights of subjects, and, in Phase 2 and 3, to help assure that the quality of the scientific evaluation of drugs is adequate to permit an evaluation of the drug's effectiveness and safety. Therefore, although FDA's review of Phase 1 submissions will focus on assessing the safety of Phase 1 investigations, FDA's review of Phases 2 and 3 submissions will also include an assessment of the scientific quality of the clinical investigations and the likelihood that the investigations will yield data capable of meeting statutory standards for marketing approval.
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of information on a particular drug that must be submitted in an IND to assure the accomplishment of the objectives described in paragraph (a) of this section depends upon such factors as the novelty of the drug, the extent to which it has been studied previously, the known or suspected risks, and the developmental phase of the drug.
</P>
<P>(c) The central focus of the initial IND submission should be on the general investigational plan and the protocols for specific human studies. Subsequent amendments to the IND that contain new or revised protocols should build logically on previous submissions and should be supported by additional information, including the results of animal toxicology studies or other human studies as appropriate. Annual reports to the IND should serve as the focus for reporting the status of studies being conducted under the IND and should update the general investigational plan for the coming year.
</P>
<P>(d) The IND format set forth in § 312.23 should be followed routinely by sponsors in the interest of fostering an efficient review of applications. Sponsors are expected to exercise considerable discretion, however, regarding the content of information submitted in each section, depending upon the kind of drug being studied and the nature of the available information. Section 312.23 outlines the information needed for a commercially sponsored IND for a new molecular entity. A sponsor-investigator who uses, as a research tool, an investigational new drug that is already subject to a manufacturer's IND or marketing application should follow the same general format, but ordinarily may, if authorized by the manufacturer, refer to the manufacturer's IND or marketing application in providing the technical information supporting the proposed clinical investigation. A sponsor-investigator who uses an investigational drug not subject to a manufacturer's IND or marketing application is ordinarily required to submit all technical information supporting the IND, unless such information may be referenced from the scientific literature.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.23" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.23   IND content and format.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor who intends to conduct a clinical investigation subject to this part shall submit an “Investigational New Drug Application” (IND) including, in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cover sheet (Form FDA-1571).</I> A cover sheet for the application containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and telephone number of the sponsor, the date of the application, and the name of the investigational new drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the phase or phases of the clinical investigation to be conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) A commitment not to begin clinical investigations until an IND covering the investigations is in effect.
</P>
<P>(iv) A commitment that an Institutional Review Board (IRB) that complies with the requirements set forth in part 56 will be responsible for the initial and continuing review and approval of each of the studies in the proposed clinical investigation and that the investigator will report to the IRB proposed changes in the research activity in accordance with the requirements of part 56.
</P>
<P>(v) A commitment to conduct the investigation in accordance with all other applicable regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(vi) The name and title of the person responsible for monitoring the conduct and progress of the clinical investigations.
</P>
<P>(vii) The name(s) and title(s) of the person(s) responsible under § 312.32 for review and evaluation of information relevant to the safety of the drug.
</P>
<P>(viii) If a sponsor has transferred any obligations for the conduct of any clinical study to a contract research organization, a statement containing the name and address of the contract research organization, identification of the clinical study, and a listing of the obligations transferred. If all obligations governing the conduct of the study have been transferred, a general statement of this transfer—in lieu of a listing of the specific obligations transferred—may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(ix) The signature of the sponsor or the sponsor's authorized representative. If the person signing the application does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the IND is required to contain the name and address of, and be countersigned by, an attorney, agent, or other authorized official who resides or maintains a place of business within the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A table of contents.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Introductory statement and general investigational plan.</I> (i) A brief introductory statement giving the name of the drug and all active ingredients, the drug's pharmacological class, the structural formula of the drug (if known), the formulation of the dosage form(s) to be used, the route of administration, and the broad objectives and planned duration of the proposed clinical investigation(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) A brief summary of previous human experience with the drug, with reference to other IND's if pertinent, and to investigational or marketing experience in other countries that may be relevant to the safety of the proposed clinical investigation(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) If the drug has been withdrawn from investigation or marketing in any country for any reason related to safety or effectiveness, identification of the country(ies) where the drug was withdrawn and the reasons for the withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(iv) A brief description of the overall plan for investigating the drug product for the following year. The plan should include the following: (<I>a</I>) The rationale for the drug or the research study; (<I>b</I>) the indication(s) to be studied; (<I>c</I>) the general approach to be followed in evaluating the drug; (<I>d</I>) the kinds of clinical trials to be conducted in the first year following the submission (if plans are not developed for the entire year, the sponsor should so indicate); (<I>e</I>) the estimated number of patients to be given the drug in those studies; and (<I>f</I>) any risks of particular severity or seriousness anticipated on the basis of the toxicological data in animals or prior studies in humans with the drug or related drugs.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Investigator's brochure.</I> If required under § 312.55, a copy of the investigator's brochure, containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the drug substance and the formulation, including the structural formula, if known.
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the pharmacological and toxicological effects of the drug in animals and, to the extent known, in humans.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the pharmacokinetics and biological disposition of the drug in animals and, if known, in humans. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of information relating to safety and effectiveness in humans obtained from prior clinical studies. (Reprints of published articles on such studies may be appended when useful.)
</P>
<P>(v) A description of possible risks and side effects to be anticipated on the basis of prior experience with the drug under investigation or with related drugs, and of precautions or special monitoring to be done as part of the investigational use of the drug.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Protocols.</I> (i) A protocol for each planned study. (Protocols for studies not submitted initially in the IND should be submitted in accordance with § 312.30(a).) In general, protocols for Phase 1 studies may be less detailed and more flexible than protocols for Phase 2 and 3 studies. Phase 1 protocols should be directed primarily at providing an outline of the investigation—an estimate of the number of patients to be involved, a description of safety exclusions, and a description of the dosing plan including duration, dose, or method to be used in determining dose—and should specify in detail only those elements of the study that are critical to safety, such as necessary monitoring of vital signs and blood chemistries. Modifications of the experimental design of Phase 1 studies that do not affect critical safety assessments are required to be reported to FDA only in the annual report.
</P>
<P>(ii) In Phases 2 and 3, detailed protocols describing all aspects of the study should be submitted. A protocol for a Phase 2 or 3 investigation should be designed in such a way that, if the sponsor anticipates that some deviation from the study design may become necessary as the investigation progresses, alternatives or contingencies to provide for such deviation are built into the protocols at the outset. For example, a protocol for a controlled short-term study might include a plan for an early crossover of nonresponders to an alternative therapy.
</P>
<P>(iii) A protocol is required to contain the following, with the specific elements and detail of the protocol reflecting the above distinctions depending on the phase of study:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A statement of the objectives and purpose of the study.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The name and address and a statement of the qualifications (curriculum vitae or other statement of qualifications) of each investigator, and the name of each subinvestigator (e.g., research fellow, resident) working under the supervision of the investigator; the name and address of the research facilities to be used; and the name and address of each reviewing Institutional Review Board.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The criteria for patient selection and for exclusion of patients and an estimate of the number of patients to be studied.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A description of the design of the study, including the kind of control group to be used, if any, and a description of methods to be used to minimize bias on the part of subjects, investigators, and analysts.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The method for determining the dose(s) to be administered, the planned maximum dosage, and the duration of individual patient exposure to the drug.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) A description of the observations and measurements to be made to fulfill the objectives of the study.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) A description of clinical procedures, laboratory tests, or other measures to be taken to monitor the effects of the drug in human subjects and to minimize risk.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Chemistry, manufacturing, and control information.</I> (i) As appropriate for the particular investigations covered by the IND, a section describing the composition, manufacture, and control of the drug substance and the drug product. Although in each phase of the investigation sufficient information is required to be submitted to assure the proper identification, quality, purity, and strength of the investigational drug, the amount of information needed to make that assurance will vary with the phase of the investigation, the proposed duration of the investigation, the dosage form, and the amount of information otherwise available. FDA recognizes that modifications to the method of preparation of the new drug substance and dosage form and changes in the dosage form itself are likely as the investigation progresses. Therefore, the emphasis in an initial Phase 1 submission should generally be placed on the identification and control of the raw materials and the new drug substance. Final specifications for the drug substance and drug product are not expected until the end of the investigational process.
</P>
<P>(ii) It should be emphasized that the amount of information to be submitted depends upon the scope of the proposed clinical investigation. For example, although stability data are required in all phases of the IND to demonstrate that the new drug substance and drug product are within acceptable chemical and physical limits for the planned duration of the proposed clinical investigation, if very short-term tests are proposed, the supporting stability data can be correspondingly limited.
</P>
<P>(iii) As drug development proceeds and as the scale or production is changed from the pilot-scale production appropriate for the limited initial clinical investigations to the larger-scale production needed for expanded clinical trials, the sponsor should submit information amendments to supplement the initial information submitted on the chemistry, manufacturing, and control processes with information appropriate to the expanded scope of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Reflecting the distinctions described in this paragraph (a)(7), and based on the phase(s) to be studied, the submission is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Drug substance.</I> A description of the drug substance, including its physical, chemical, or biological characteristics; the name and address of its manufacturer; the general method of preparation of the drug substance; the acceptable limits and analytical methods used to assure the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the drug substance; and information sufficient to support stability of the drug substance during the toxicological studies and the planned clinical studies. Reference to the current edition of the United States Pharmacopeia—National Formulary may satisfy relevant requirements in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Drug product.</I> A list of all components, which may include reasonable alternatives for inactive compounds, used in the manufacture of the investigational drug product, including both those components intended to appear in the drug product and those which may not appear but which are used in the manufacturing process, and, where applicable, the quantitative composition of the investigational drug product, including any reasonable variations that may be expected during the investigational stage; the name and address of the drug product manufacturer; a brief general description of the manufacturing and packaging procedure as appropriate for the product; the acceptable limits and analytical methods used to assure the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the drug product; and information sufficient to assure the product's stability during the planned clinical studies. Reference to the current edition of the United States Pharmacopeia—National Formulary may satisfy certain requirements in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A brief general description of the composition, manufacture, and control of any placebo used in a controlled clinical trial.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Labeling.</I> A copy of all labels and labeling to be provided to each investigator.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Environmental analysis requirements.</I> A claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or 25.31 or an environmental assessment under § 25.40. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Pharmacology and toxicology information.</I> Adequate information about pharmacological and toxicological studies of the drug involving laboratory animals or in vitro, on the basis of which the sponsor has concluded that it is reasonably safe to conduct the proposed clinical investigations. The kind, duration, and scope of animal and other tests required varies with the duration and nature of the proposed clinical investigations. Guidance documents are available from FDA that describe ways in which these requirements may be met. Such information is required to include the identification and qualifications of the individuals who evaluated the results of such studies and concluded that it is reasonably safe to begin the proposed investigations and a statement of where the investigations were conducted and where the records are available for inspection. As drug development proceeds, the sponsor is required to submit informational amendments, as appropriate, with additional information pertinent to safety.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Pharmacology and drug disposition.</I> A section describing the pharmacological effects and mechanism(s) of action of the drug in animals, and information on the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the drug, if known.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Toxicology. (a</I>) An integrated summary of the toxicological effects of the drug in animals and in vitro. Depending on the nature of the drug and the phase of the investigation, the description is to include the results of acute, subacute, and chronic toxicity tests; tests of the drug's effects on reproduction and the developing fetus; any special toxicity test related to the drug's particular mode of administration or conditions of use (e.g., inhalation, dermal, or ocular toxicology); and any in vitro studies intended to evaluate drug toxicity.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For each toxicology study that is intended primarily to support the safety of the proposed clinical investigation, a full tabulation of data suitable for detailed review.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each nonclinical laboratory study subject to the good laboratory practice regulations under part 58, a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Previous human experience with the investigational drug.</I> A summary of previous human experience known to the applicant, if any, with the investigational drug. The information is required to include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the investigational drug has been investigated or marketed previously, either in the United States or other countries, detailed information about such experience that is relevant to the safety of the proposed investigation or to the investigation's rationale. If the drug has been the subject of controlled trials, detailed information on such trials that is relevant to an assessment of the drug's effectiveness for the proposed investigational use(s) should also be provided. Any published material that is relevant to the safety of the proposed investigation or to an assessment of the drug's effectiveness for its proposed investigational use should be provided in full. Published material that is less directly relevant may be supplied by a bibliography.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the drug is a combination of drugs previously investigated or marketed, the information required under paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section should be provided for each active drug component. However, if any component in such combination is subject to an approved marketing application or is otherwise lawfully marketed in the United States, the sponsor is not required to submit published material concerning that active drug component unless such material relates directly to the proposed investigational use (including publications relevant to component-component interaction).
</P>
<P>(iii) If the drug has been marketed outside the United States, a list of the countries in which the drug has been marketed and a list of the countries in which the drug has been withdrawn from marketing for reasons potentially related to safety or effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Additional information.</I> In certain applications, as described below, information on special topics may be needed. Such information shall be submitted in this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Drug dependence and abuse potential.</I> If the drug is a psychotropic substance or otherwise has abuse potential, a section describing relevant clinical studies and experience and studies in test animals.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Radioactive drugs.</I> If the drug is a radioactive drug, sufficient data from animal or human studies to allow a reasonable calculation of radiation-absorbed dose to the whole body and critical organs upon administration to a human subject. Phase 1 studies of radioactive drugs must include studies which will obtain sufficient data for dosimetry calculations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pediatric studies.</I> Plans for assessing pediatric safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other information.</I> A brief statement of any other information that would aid evaluation of the proposed clinical investigations with respect to their safety or their design and potential as controlled clinical trials to support marketing of the drug.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Relevant information.</I> If requested by FDA, any other relevant information needed for review of the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information previously submitted.</I> The sponsor ordinarily is not required to resubmit information previously submitted, but may incorporate the information by reference. A reference to information submitted previously must identify the file by name, reference number, volume, and page number where the information can be found. A reference to information submitted to the agency by a person other than the sponsor is required to contain a written statement that authorizes the reference and that is signed by the person who submitted the information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Material in a foreign language.</I> The sponsor shall submit an accurate and complete English translation of each part of the IND that is not in English. The sponsor shall also submit a copy of each original literature publication for which an English translation is submitted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Number of copies.</I> The sponsor shall submit an original and two copies of all submissions to the IND file, including the original submission and all amendments and reports.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Numbering of IND submissions.</I> Each submission relating to an IND is required to be numbered serially using a single, three-digit serial number. The initial IND is required to be numbered 000; each subsequent submission (e.g., amendment, report, or correspondence) is required to be numbered chronologically in sequence.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Identification of exception from informed consent.</I> If the investigation involves an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, the sponsor shall prominently identify on the cover sheet that the investigation is subject to the requirements in § 50.24 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 53 FR 1918, Jan. 25, 1988; 61 FR 51529, Oct. 2, 1996; 62 FR 40599, July 29, 1997; 63 FR 66669, Dec. 2, 1998; 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.30" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.30   Protocol amendments.</HEAD>
<P>Once an IND is in effect, a sponsor shall amend it as needed to ensure that the clinical investigations are conducted according to protocols included in the application. This section sets forth the provisions under which new protocols may be submitted and changes in previously submitted protocols may be made. Whenever a sponsor intends to conduct a clinical investigation with an exception from informed consent for emergency research as set forth in § 50.24 of this chapter, the sponsor shall submit a separate IND for such investigation.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>New protocol.</I> Whenever a sponsor intends to conduct a study that is not covered by a protocol already contained in the IND, the sponsor shall submit to FDA a protocol amendment containing the protocol for the study. Such study may begin provided two conditions are met: (1) The sponsor has submitted the protocol to FDA for its review; and (2) the protocol has been approved by the Institutional Review Board (IRB) with responsibility for review and approval of the study in accordance with the requirements of part 56. The sponsor may comply with these two conditions in either order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Changes in a protocol.</I> (1) A sponsor shall submit a protocol amendment describing any change in a Phase 1 protocol that significantly affects the safety of subjects or any change in a Phase 2 or 3 protocol that significantly affects the safety of subjects, the scope of the investigation, or the scientific quality of the study. Examples of changes requiring an amendment under this paragraph include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any increase in drug dosage or duration of exposure of individual subjects to the drug beyond that in the current protocol, or any significant increase in the number of subjects under study.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any significant change in the design of a protocol (such as the addition or dropping of a control group).
</P>
<P>(iii) The addition of a new test or procedure that is intended to improve monitoring for, or reduce the risk of, a side effect or adverse event; or the dropping of a test intended to monitor safety.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A protocol change under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be made provided two conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The sponsor has submitted the change to FDA for its review; and
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The change has been approved by the IRB with responsibility for review and approval of the study. The sponsor may comply with these two conditions in either order.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, a protocol change intended to eliminate an apparent immediate hazard to subjects may be implemented immediately provided FDA is subsequently notified by protocol amendment and the reviewing IRB is notified in accordance with § 56.104(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>New investigator.</I> A sponsor shall submit a protocol amendment when a new investigator is added to carry out a previously submitted protocol, except that a protocol amendment is not required when a licensed practitioner is added in the case of a treatment protocol under § 312.315 or § 312.320. Once the investigator is added to the study, the investigational drug may be shipped to the investigator and the investigator may begin participating in the study. The sponsor shall notify FDA of the new investigator within 30 days of the investigator being added.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content and format.</I> A protocol amendment is required to be prominently identified as such (<I>i.e.</I>, “Protocol Amendment: New Protocol”, “Protocol Amendment: Change in Protocol”, or “Protocol Amendment: New Investigator”), and to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) In the case of a new protocol, a copy of the new protocol and a brief description of the most clinically significant differences between it and previous protocols. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a change in protocol, a brief description of the change and reference (date and number) to the submission that contained the protocol.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a new investigator, the investigator's name, the qualifications to conduct the investigation, reference to the previously submitted protocol, and all additional information about the investigator's study as is required under § 312.23(a)(6)(iii)(<I>b</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Reference, if necessary, to specific technical information in the IND or in a concurrently submitted information amendment to the IND that the sponsor relies on to support any clinically significant change in the new or amended protocol. If the reference is made to supporting information already in the IND, the sponsor shall identify by name, reference number, volume, and page number the location of the information.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor desires FDA to comment on the submission, a request for such comment and the specific questions FDA's response should address.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When submitted.</I> A sponsor shall submit a protocol amendment for a new protocol or a change in protocol before its implementation. Protocol amendments to add a new investigator or to provide additional information about investigators may be grouped and submitted at 30-day intervals. When several submissions of new protocols or protocol changes are anticipated during a short period, the sponsor is encouraged, to the extent feasible, to include these all in a single submission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 53 FR 1918, Jan. 25, 1988; 61 FR 51530, Oct. 2, 1996; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002; 74 FR 40942, Aug. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.31" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.31   Information amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for information amendment.</I> A sponsor shall report in an information amendment essential information on the IND that is not within the scope of a protocol amendment, IND safety reports, or annual report. Examples of information requiring an information amendment include:
</P>
<P>(1) New toxicology, chemistry, or other technical information; or
</P>
<P>(2) A report regarding the discontinuance of a clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content and format of an information amendment.</I> An information amendment is required to bear prominent identification of its contents (e.g., “Information Amendment: Chemistry, Manufacturing, and Control”, “Information Amendment: Pharmacology-Toxicology”, “Information Amendment: Clinical”), and to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the nature and purpose of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) An organized submission of the data in a format appropriate for scientific review.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor desires FDA to comment on an information amendment, a request for such comment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When submitted.</I> Information amendments to the IND should be submitted as necessary but, to the extent feasible, not more than every 30 days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 53 FR 1918, Jan. 25, 1988; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.32" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.32   IND safety reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions of terms apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Adverse event</I> means any untoward medical occurrence associated with the use of a drug in humans, whether or not considered drug related.
</P>
<P><I>Life-threatening adverse event</I> or <I>life-threatening suspected adverse reaction.</I> An adverse event or suspected adverse reaction is considered “life-threatening” if, in the view of either the investigator or sponsor, its occurrence places the patient or subject at immediate risk of death. It does not include an adverse event or suspected adverse reaction that, had it occurred in a more severe form, might have caused death.
</P>
<P><I>Serious adverse event</I> or <I>serious suspected adverse reaction.</I> An adverse event or suspected adverse reaction is considered “serious” if, in the view of either the investigator or sponsor, it results in any of the following outcomes: Death, a life-threatening adverse event, inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, a persistent or significant incapacity or substantial disruption of the ability to conduct normal life functions, or a congenital anomaly/birth defect. Important medical events that may not result in death, be life-threatening, or require hospitalization may be considered serious when, based upon appropriate medical judgment, they may jeopardize the patient or subject and may require medical or surgical intervention to prevent one of the outcomes listed in this definition. Examples of such medical events include allergic bronchospasm requiring intensive treatment in an emergency room or at home, blood dyscrasias or convulsions that do not result in inpatient hospitalization, or the development of drug dependency or drug abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Suspected adverse reaction</I> means any adverse event for which there is a reasonable possibility that the drug caused the adverse event. For the purposes of IND safety reporting, “reasonable possibility” means there is evidence to suggest a causal relationship between the drug and the adverse event. Suspected adverse reaction implies a lesser degree of certainty about causality than adverse reaction, which means any adverse event caused by a drug.
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected adverse event</I> or <I>unexpected suspected adverse reaction.</I> An adverse event or suspected adverse reaction is considered “unexpected” if it is not listed in the investigator brochure or is not listed at the specificity or severity that has been observed; or, if an investigator brochure is not required or available, is not consistent with the risk information described in the general investigational plan or elsewhere in the current application, as amended. For example, under this definition, hepatic necrosis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater severity) if the investigator brochure referred only to elevated hepatic enzymes or hepatitis. Similarly, cerebral thromboembolism and cerebral vasculitis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater specificity) if the investigator brochure listed only cerebral vascular accidents. “Unexpected,” as used in this definition, also refers to adverse events or suspected adverse reactions that are mentioned in the investigator brochure as occurring with a class of drugs or as anticipated from the pharmacological properties of the drug, but are not specifically mentioned as occurring with the particular drug under investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of safety information.</I> The sponsor must promptly review all information relevant to the safety of the drug obtained or otherwise received by the sponsor from foreign or domestic sources, including information derived from any clinical or epidemiological investigations, animal or in vitro studies, reports in the scientific literature, and unpublished scientific papers, as well as reports from foreign regulatory authorities and reports of foreign commercial marketing experience for drugs that are not marketed in the United States.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>IND safety reports.</I> The sponsor must notify FDA and all participating investigators (i.e., all investigators to whom the sponsor is providing drug under its INDs or under any investigator's IND) in an IND safety report of potential serious risks, from clinical trials or any other source, as soon as possible, but in no case later than 15 calendar days after the sponsor determines that the information qualifies for reporting under paragraph (c)(1)(i), (c)(1)(ii), (c)(1)(iii), or (c)(1)(iv) of this section. In each IND safety report, the sponsor must identify all IND safety reports previously submitted to FDA concerning a similar suspected adverse reaction, and must analyze the significance of the suspected adverse reaction in light of previous, similar reports or any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Serious and unexpected suspected adverse reaction.</I> The sponsor must report any suspected adverse reaction that is both serious and unexpected. The sponsor must report an adverse event as a suspected adverse reaction only if there is evidence to suggest a causal relationship between the drug and the adverse event, such as:
</P>
<P>(A) A single occurrence of an event that is uncommon and known to be strongly associated with drug exposure (e.g., angioedema, hepatic injury, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome);
</P>
<P>(B) One or more occurrences of an event that is not commonly associated with drug exposure, but is otherwise uncommon in the population exposed to the drug (e.g., tendon rupture);
</P>
<P>(C) An aggregate analysis of specific events observed in a clinical trial (such as known consequences of the underlying disease or condition under investigation or other events that commonly occur in the study population independent of drug therapy) that indicates those events occur more frequently in the drug treatment group than in a concurrent or historical control group.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Findings from other studies.</I> The sponsor must report any findings from epidemiological studies, pooled analysis of multiple studies, or clinical studies (other than those reported under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section), whether or not conducted under an IND, and whether or not conducted by the sponsor, that suggest a significant risk in humans exposed to the drug. Ordinarily, such a finding would result in a safety-related change in the protocol, informed consent, investigator brochure (excluding routine updates of these documents), or other aspects of the overall conduct of the clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Findings from animal or in vitro testing.</I> The sponsor must report any findings from animal or in vitro testing, whether or not conducted by the sponsor, that suggest a significant risk in humans exposed to the drug, such as reports of mutagenicity, teratogenicity, or carcinogenicity, or reports of significant organ toxicity at or near the expected human exposure. Ordinarily, any such findings would result in a safety-related change in the protocol, informed consent, investigator brochure (excluding routine updates of these documents), or other aspects of the overall conduct of the clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Increased rate of occurrence of serious suspected adverse reactions.</I> The sponsor must report any clinically important increase in the rate of a serious suspected adverse reaction over that listed in the protocol or investigator brochure.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Submission of IND safety reports.</I> The sponsor must submit each IND safety report in a narrative format or on FDA Form 3500A or in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will periodically issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files). The sponsor may submit foreign suspected adverse reactions on a Council for International Organizations of Medical Sciences (CIOMS) I Form instead of a FDA Form 3500A. Reports of overall findings or pooled analyses from published and unpublished in vitro, animal, epidemiological, or clinical studies must be submitted in a narrative format. Each notification to FDA must bear prominent identification of its contents, i.e., “IND Safety Report,” and must be transmitted to the review division in the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or in the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research that has responsibility for review of the IND. Upon request from FDA, the sponsor must submit to FDA any additional data or information that the agency deems necessary, as soon as possible, but in no case later than 15 calendar days after receiving the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unexpected fatal or life-threatening suspected adverse reaction reports.</I> The sponsor must also notify FDA of any unexpected fatal or life-threatening suspected adverse reaction as soon as possible but in no case later than 7 calendar days after the sponsor's initial receipt of the information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reporting format or frequency.</I> FDA may require a sponsor to submit IND safety reports in a format or at a frequency different than that required under this paragraph. The sponsor may also propose and adopt a different reporting format or frequency if the change is agreed to in advance by the director of the FDA review division that has responsibility for review of the IND.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investigations of marketed drugs.</I> A sponsor of a clinical study of a drug marketed or approved in the United States that is conducted under an IND is required to submit IND safety reports for suspected adverse reactions that are observed in the clinical study, at domestic or foreign study sites. The sponsor must also submit safety information from the clinical study as prescribed by the postmarketing safety reporting requirements (e.g., §§ 310.305, 314.80, and 600.80 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reporting study endpoints.</I> Study endpoints (e.g., mortality or major morbidity) must be reported to FDA by the sponsor as described in the protocol and ordinarily would not be reported under paragraph (c) of this section. However, if a serious and unexpected adverse event occurs for which there is evidence suggesting a causal relationship between the drug and the event (e.g., death from anaphylaxis), the event must be reported under § 312.32(c)(1)(i) as a serious and unexpected suspected adverse reaction even if it is a component of the study endpoint (e.g., all-cause mortality).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Followup.</I> (1) The sponsor must promptly investigate all safety information it receives.
</P>
<P>(2) Relevant followup information to an IND safety report must be submitted as soon as the information is available and must be identified as such, i.e., “Followup IND Safety Report.”
</P>
<P>(3) If the results of a sponsor's investigation show that an adverse event not initially determined to be reportable under paragraph (c) of this section is so reportable, the sponsor must report such suspected adverse reaction in an IND safety report as soon as possible, but in no case later than 15 calendar days after the determination is made.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclaimer.</I> A safety report or other information submitted by a sponsor under this part (and any release by FDA of that report or information) does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the sponsor or FDA that the report or information constitutes an admission that the drug caused or contributed to an adverse event. A sponsor need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted by the sponsor constitutes an admission that the drug caused or contributed to an adverse event.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 59961, Sept. 29, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.33" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.33   Annual reports.</HEAD>
<P>A sponsor shall within 60 days of the anniversary date that the IND went into effect, submit a brief report of the progress of the investigation that includes:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual study information.</I> A brief summary of the status of each study in progress and each study completed during the previous year. The summary is required to include the following information for each study:
</P>
<P>(1) The title of the study (with any appropriate study identifiers such as protocol number), its purpose, a brief statement identifying the patient population, and a statement as to whether the study is completed.
</P>
<P>(2) The total number of subjects initially planned for inclusion in the study; the number entered into the study to date, tabulated by age group, gender, and race; the number whose participation in the study was completed as planned; and the number who dropped out of the study for any reason.
</P>
<P>(3) If the study has been completed, or if interim results are known, a brief description of any available study results.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Summary information.</I> Information obtained during the previous year's clinical and nonclinical investigations, including:
</P>
<P>(1) A narrative or tabular summary showing the most frequent and most serious adverse experiences by body system.
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of all IND safety reports submitted during the past year.
</P>
<P>(3) A list of subjects who died during participation in the investigation, with the cause of death for each subject.
</P>
<P>(4) A list of subjects who dropped out during the course of the investigation in association with any adverse experience, whether or not thought to be drug related.
</P>
<P>(5) A brief description of what, if anything, was obtained that is pertinent to an understanding of the drug's actions, including, for example, information about dose response, information from controlled trials, and information about bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(6) A list of the preclinical studies (including animal studies) completed or in progress during the past year and a summary of the major preclinical findings.
</P>
<P>(7) A summary of any significant manufacturing or microbiological changes made during the past year.
</P>
<P>(c) A description of the general investigational plan for the coming year to replace that submitted 1 year earlier. The general investigational plan shall contain the information required under § 312.23(a)(3)(iv).
</P>
<P>(d) If the investigator brochure has been revised, a description of the revision and a copy of the new brochure.
</P>
<P>(e) A description of any significant Phase 1 protocol modifications made during the previous year and not previously reported to the IND in a protocol amendment.
</P>
<P>(f) A brief summary of significant foreign marketing developments with the drug during the past year, such as approval of marketing in any country or withdrawal or suspension from marketing in any country.
</P>
<P>(g) If desired by the sponsor, a log of any outstanding business with respect to the IND for which the sponsor requests or expects a reply, comment, or meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 63 FR 6862, Feb. 11, 1998; 67 FR 9585, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.38" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.38   Withdrawal of an IND.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time a sponsor may withdraw an effective IND without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(b) If an IND is withdrawn, FDA shall be so notified, all clinical investigations conducted under the IND shall be ended, all current investigators notified, and all stocks of the drug returned to the sponsor or otherwise disposed of at the request of the sponsor in accordance with § 312.59.
</P>
<P>(c) If an IND is withdrawn because of a safety reason, the sponsor shall promptly so inform FDA, all participating investigators, and all reviewing Institutional Review Boards, together with the reasons for such withdrawal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.40" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.40   General requirements for use of an investigational new drug in a clinical investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An investigational new drug may be used in a clinical investigation if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor of the investigation submits an IND for the drug to FDA; the IND is in effect under paragraph (b) of this section; and the sponsor complies with all applicable requirements in this part and parts 50 and 56 with respect to the conduct of the clinical investigations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each participating investigator conducts his or her investigation in compliance with the requirements of this part and parts 50 and 56.
</P>
<P>(b) An IND goes into effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Thirty days after FDA receives the IND, unless FDA notifies the sponsor that the investigations described in the IND are subject to a clinical hold under § 312.42; or 
</P>
<P>(2) On earlier notification by FDA that the clinical investigations in the IND may begin. FDA will notify the sponsor in writing of the date it receives the IND.
</P>
<P>(c) A sponsor may ship an investigational new drug to investigators named in the IND:
</P>
<P>(1) Thirty days after FDA receives the IND; or
</P>
<P>(2) On earlier FDA authorization to ship the drug.
</P>
<P>(d) An investigator may not administer an investigational new drug to human subjects until the IND goes into effect under paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.41" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.41   Comment and advice on an IND.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may at any time during the course of the investigation communicate with the sponsor orally or in writing about deficiencies in the IND or about FDA's need for more data or information.
</P>
<P>(b) On the sponsor's request, FDA will provide advice on specific matters relating to an IND. Examples of such advice may include advice on the adequacy of technical data to support an investigational plan, on the design of a clinical trial, and on whether proposed investigations are likely to produce the data and information that is needed to meet requirements for a marketing application.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the communication is accompanied by a clinical hold order under § 312.42, FDA communications with a sponsor under this section are solely advisory and do not require any modification in the planned or ongoing clinical investigations or response to the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.42" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.42   Clinical holds and requests for modification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A clinical hold is an order issued by FDA to the sponsor to delay a proposed clinical investigation or to suspend an ongoing investigation. The clinical hold order may apply to one or more of the investigations covered by an IND. When a proposed study is placed on clinical hold, subjects may not be given the investigational drug. When an ongoing study is placed on clinical hold, no new subjects may be recruited to the study and placed on the investigational drug; patients already in the study should be taken off therapy involving the investigational drug unless specifically permitted by FDA in the interest of patient safety.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for imposition of clinical hold</I>—(1) <I>Clinical hold of a Phase 1 study under an IND.</I> FDA may place a proposed or ongoing Phase 1 investigation on clinical hold if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Human subjects are or would be exposed to an unreasonable and significant risk of illness or injury;
</P>
<P>(ii) The clinical investigators named in the IND are not qualified by reason of their scientific training and experience to conduct the investigation described in the IND;
</P>
<P>(iii) The investigator brochure is misleading, erroneous, or materially incomplete; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The IND does not contain sufficient information required under § 312.23 to assess the risks to subjects of the proposed studies.
</P>
<P>(v) The IND is for the study of an investigational drug intended to treat a life-threatening disease or condition that affects both genders, and men or women with reproductive potential who have the disease or condition being studied are excluded from eligibility because of a risk or potential risk from use of the investigational drug of reproductive toxicity (<I>i.e.</I>, affecting reproductive organs) or developmental toxicity (<I>i.e.</I>, affecting potential offspring). The phrase “women with reproductive potential” does not include pregnant women. For purposes of this paragraph, “life-threatening illnesses or diseases” are defined as “diseases or conditions where the likelihood of death is high unless the course of the disease is interrupted.” The clinical hold would not apply under this paragraph to clinical studies conducted: 
</P>
<P>(A) Under special circumstances, such as studies pertinent only to one gender (e.g., studies evaluating the excretion of a drug in semen or the effects on menstrual function); 
</P>
<P>(B) Only in men or women, as long as a study that does not exclude members of the other gender with reproductive potential is being conducted concurrently, has been conducted, or will take place within a reasonable time agreed upon by the agency; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Only in subjects who do not suffer from the disease or condition for which the drug is being studied.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clinical hold of a Phase 2 or 3 study under an IND.</I> FDA may place a proposed or ongoing Phase 2 or 3 investigation on clinical hold if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the conditions in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(v) of this section apply; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan or protocol for the investigation is clearly deficient in design to meet its stated objectives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clinical hold of an expanded access IND or expanded access protocol.</I> FDA may place an expanded access IND or expanded access protocol on clinical hold under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Final use.</I> FDA may place a proposed expanded access IND or treatment use protocol on clinical hold if it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(A) The pertinent criteria in subpart I of this part for permitting the expanded access use to begin are not satisfied; or
</P>
<P>(B) The expanded access IND or expanded access protocol does not comply with the requirements for expanded access submissions in subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ongoing use.</I> FDA may place an ongoing expanded access IND or expanded access protocol on clinical hold if it is determined that the pertinent criteria in subpart I of this part for permitting the expanded access are no longer satisfied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Clinical hold of any study that is not designed to be adequate and well-controlled.</I> FDA may place a proposed or ongoing investigation that is not designed to be adequate and well-controlled on clinical hold if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the conditions in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section apply; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is reasonable evidence the investigation that is not designed to be adequate and well-controlled is impeding enrollment in, or otherwise interfering with the conduct or completion of, a study that is designed to be an adequate and well-controlled investigation of the same or another investigational drug; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Insufficient quantities of the investigational drug exist to adequately conduct both the investigation that is not designed to be adequate and well-controlled and the investigations that are designed to be adequate and well-controlled; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The drug has been studied in one or more adequate and well-controlled investigations that strongly suggest lack of effectiveness; or
</P>
<P>(v) Another drug under investigation or approved for the same indication and available to the same patient population has demonstrated a better potential benefit/risk balance; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) The drug has received marketing approval for the same indication in the same patient population; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) The sponsor of the study that is designed to be an adequate and well-controlled investigation is not actively pursuing marketing approval of the investigational drug with due diligence; or 
</P>
<P>(viii) The Commissioner determines that it would not be in the public interest for the study to be conducted or continued. FDA ordinarily intends that clinical holds under paragraphs (b)(4)(ii), (b)(4)(iii) and (b)(4)(v) of this section would only apply to additional enrollment in nonconcurrently controlled trials rather than eliminating continued access to individuals already receiving the investigational drug.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Clinical hold of any investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter.</I> FDA may place a proposed or ongoing investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter on clinical hold if it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the conditions in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section apply; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The pertinent criteria in § 50.24 of this chapter for such an investigation to begin or continue are not submitted or not satisfied.
</P>
<P>(6) Clinical hold of any investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.23(d) of this chapter. FDA may place a proposed or ongoing investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.23(d) of this chapter on clinical hold if it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the conditions in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section apply; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination by the President to waive the prior consent requirement for the administration of an investigational new drug has not been made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discussion of deficiency.</I> Whenever FDA concludes that a deficiency exists in a clinical investigation that may be grounds for the imposition of clinical hold FDA will, unless patients are exposed to immediate and serious risk, attempt to discuss and satisfactorily resolve the matter with the sponsor before issuing the clinical hold order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Imposition of clinical hold.</I> The clinical hold order may be made by telephone or other means of rapid communication or in writing. The clinical hold order will identify the studies under the IND to which the hold applies, and will briefly explain the basis for the action. The clinical hold order will be made by or on behalf of the Division Director with responsibility for review of the IND. As soon as possible, and no more than 30 days after imposition of the clinical hold, the Division Director will provide the sponsor a written explanation of the basis for the hold.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Resumption of clinical investigations.</I> An investigation may only resume after FDA (usually the Division Director, or the Director's designee, with responsibility for review of the IND) has notified the sponsor that the investigation may proceed. Resumption of the affected investigation(s) will be authorized when the sponsor corrects the deficiency(ies) previously cited or otherwise satisfies the agency that the investigation(s) can proceed. FDA may notify a sponsor of its determination regarding the clinical hold by telephone or other means of rapid communication. If a sponsor of an IND that has been placed on clinical hold requests in writing that the clinical hold be removed and submits a complete response to the issue(s) identified in the clinical hold order, FDA shall respond in writing to the sponsor within 30-calendar days of receipt of the request and the complete response. FDA's response will either remove or maintain the clinical hold, and will state the reasons for such determination. Notwithstanding the 30-calendar day response time, a sponsor may not proceed with a clinical trial on which a clinical hold has been imposed until the sponsor has been notified by FDA that the hold has been lifted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeal.</I> If the sponsor disagrees with the reasons cited for the clinical hold, the sponsor may request reconsideration of the decision in accordance with § 312.48.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conversion of IND on clinical hold to inactive status.</I> If all investigations covered by an IND remain on clinical hold for 1 year or more, the IND may be placed on inactive status by FDA under § 312.45.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 19477, May 22, 1987; 57 FR 13249, Apr. 15, 1992; 61 FR 51530, Oct. 2, 1996; 63 FR 68678, Dec. 14, 1998; 64 FR 54189, Oct. 5, 1999; 65 FR 34971, June 1, 2000; 74 FR 40942, Aug. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.44" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.44   Termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section describes the procedures under which FDA may terminate an IND. If an IND is terminated, the sponsor shall end all clinical investigations conducted under the IND and recall or otherwise provide for the disposition of all unused supplies of the drug. A termination action may be based on deficiencies in the IND or in the conduct of an investigation under an IND. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a termination shall be preceded by a proposal to terminate by FDA and an opportunity for the sponsor to respond. FDA will, in general, only initiate an action under this section after first attempting to resolve differences informally or, when appropriate, through the clinical hold procedures described in § 312.42.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for termination</I>—(1) <I>Phase 1.</I> FDA may propose to terminate an IND during Phase 1 if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Human subjects would be exposed to an unreasonable and significant risk of illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(ii) The IND does not contain sufficient information required under § 312.23 to assess the safety to subjects of the clinical investigations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The methods, facilities, and controls used for the manufacturing, processing, and packing of the investigational drug are inadequate to establish and maintain appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity as needed for subject safety.
</P>
<P>(iv) The clinical investigations are being conducted in a manner substantially different than that described in the protocols submitted in the IND.
</P>
<P>(v) The drug is being promoted or distributed for commercial purposes not justified by the requirements of the investigation or permitted by § 312.7.
</P>
<P>(vi) The IND, or any amendment or report to the IND, contains an untrue statement of a material fact or omits material information required by this part.
</P>
<P>(vii) The sponsor fails promptly to investigate and inform the Food and Drug Administration and all investigators of serious and unexpected adverse experiences in accordance with § 312.32 or fails to make any other report required under this part.
</P>
<P>(viii) The sponsor fails to submit an accurate annual report of the investigations in accordance with § 312.33.
</P>
<P>(ix) The sponsor fails to comply with any other applicable requirement of this part, part 50, or part 56.
</P>
<P>(x) The IND has remained on inactive status for 5 years or more.
</P>
<P>(xi) The sponsor fails to delay a proposed investigation under the IND or to suspend an ongoing investigation that has been placed on clinical hold under § 312.42(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Phase 2 or 3.</I> FDA may propose to terminate an IND during Phase 2 or Phase 3 if FDA finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the conditions in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(xi) of this section apply; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The investigational plan or protocol(s) is not reasonable as a bona fide scientific plan to determine whether or not the drug is safe and effective for use; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) There is convincing evidence that the drug is not effective for the purpose for which it is being investigated.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may propose to terminate a treatment IND if it finds that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the conditions in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (x) of this section apply; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any of the conditions in § 312.42(b)(3) apply. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Opportunity for sponsor response.</I> (1) If FDA proposes to terminate an IND, FDA will notify the sponsor in writing, and invite correction or explanation within a period of 30 days. 
</P>
<P>(2) On such notification, the sponsor may provide a written explanation or correction or may request a conference with FDA to provide the requested explanation or correction. If the sponsor does not respond to the notification within the allocated time, the IND shall be terminated. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor responds but FDA does not accept the explanation or correction submitted, FDA shall inform the sponsor in writing of the reason for the nonacceptance and provide the sponsor with an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA under part 16 on the question of whether the IND should be terminated. The sponsor's request for a regulatory hearing must be made within 10 days of the sponsor's receipt of FDA's notification of nonacceptance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Immediate termination of IND.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, if at any time FDA concludes that continuation of the investigation presents an immediate and substantial danger to the health of individuals, the agency shall immediately, by written notice to the sponsor from the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, terminate the IND. An IND so terminated is subject to reinstatement by the Director on the basis of additional submissions that eliminate such danger. If an IND is terminated under this paragraph, the agency will afford the sponsor an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 on the question of whether the IND should be reinstated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 55 FR 11579, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 13249, Apr. 15, 1992; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.45" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.45   Inactive status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If no subjects are entered into clinical studies for a period of 2 years or more under an IND, or if all investigations under an IND remain on clinical hold for 1 year or more, the IND may be placed by FDA on inactive status. This action may be taken by FDA either on request of the sponsor or on FDA's own initiative. If FDA seeks to act on its own initiative under this section, it shall first notify the sponsor in writing of the proposed inactive status. Upon receipt of such notification, the sponsor shall have 30 days to respond as to why the IND should continue to remain active. 
</P>
<P>(b) If an IND is placed on inactive status, all investigators shall be so notified and all stocks of the drug shall be returned or otherwise disposed of in accordance with § 312.59. 
</P>
<P>(c) A sponsor is not required to submit annual reports to an IND on inactive status. An inactive IND is, however, still in effect for purposes of the public disclosure of data and information under § 312.130. 
</P>
<P>(d) A sponsor who intends to resume clinical investigation under an IND placed on inactive status shall submit a protocol amendment under § 312.30 containing the proposed general investigational plan for the coming year and appropriate protocols. If the protocol amendment relies on information previously submitted, the plan shall reference such information. Additional information supporting the proposed investigation, if any, shall be submitted in an information amendment. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 312.30, clinical investigations under an IND on inactive status may only resume (1) 30 days after FDA receives the protocol amendment, unless FDA notifies the sponsor that the investigations described in the amendment are subject to a clinical hold under § 312.42, or (2) on earlier notification by FDA that the clinical investigations described in the protocol amendment may begin. 
</P>
<P>(e) An IND that remains on inactive status for 5 years or more may be terminated under § 312.44.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.47" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.47   Meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Meetings between a sponsor and the agency are frequently useful in resolving questions and issues raised during the course of a clinical investigation. FDA encourages such meetings to the extent that they aid in the evaluation of the drug and in the solution of scientific problems concerning the drug, to the extent that FDA's resources permit. The general principle underlying the conduct of such meetings is that there should be free, full, and open communication about any scientific or medical question that may arise during the clinical investigation. These meetings shall be conducted and documented in accordance with part 10. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“End-of-Phase 2” meetings and meetings held before submission of a marketing application.</I> At specific times during the drug investigation process, meetings between FDA and a sponsor can be especially helpful in minimizing wasteful expenditures of time and money and thus in speeding the drug development and evaluation process. In particular, FDA has found that meetings at the end of Phase 2 of an investigation (end-of-Phase 2 meetings) are of considerable assistance in planning later studies and that meetings held near completion of Phase 3 and before submission of a marketing application (“pre-NDA” meetings) are helpful in developing methods of presentation and submission of data in the marketing application that facilitate review and allow timely FDA response. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>End-of-Phase 2 meetings</I>—(i) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of an end-of-phase 2 meeting is to determine the safety of proceeding to Phase 3, to evaluate the Phase 3 plan and protocols and the adequacy of current studies and plans to assess pediatric safety and effectiveness, and to identify any additional information necessary to support a marketing application for the uses under investigation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for meeting.</I> While the end-of-Phase 2 meeting is designed primarily for IND's involving new molecular entities or major new uses of marketed drugs, a sponsor of any IND may request and obtain an end-of-Phase 2 meeting.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Timing.</I> To be most useful to the sponsor, end-of-Phase 2 meetings should be held before major commitments of effort and resources to specific Phase 3 tests are made. The scheduling of an end-of-Phase 2 meeting is not, however, intended to delay the transition of an investigation from Phase 2 to Phase 3.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Advance information.</I> At least 1 month in advance of an end-of-Phase 2 meeting, the sponsor should submit background information on the sponsor's plan for Phase 3, including summaries of the Phase 1 and 2 investigations, the specific protocols for Phase 3 clinical studies, plans for any additional nonclinical studies, plans for pediatric studies, including a time line for protocol finalization, enrollment, completion, and data analysis, or information to support any planned request for waiver or deferral of pediatric studies, and, if available, tentative labeling for the drug. The recommended contents of such a submission are described more fully in FDA Staff Manual Guide 4850.7 that is publicly available under FDA's public information regulations in part 20.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Conduct of meeting.</I> Arrangements for an end-of-Phase 2 meeting are to be made with the division in FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research which is responsible for review of the IND. The meeting will be scheduled by FDA at a time convenient to both FDA and the sponsor. Both the sponsor and FDA may bring consultants to the meeting. The meeting should be directed primarily at establishing agreement between FDA and the sponsor of the overall plan for Phase 3 and the objectives and design of particular studies. The adequacy of the technical information to support Phase 3 studies and/or a marketing application may also be discussed. FDA will also provide its best judgment, at that time, of the pediatric studies that will be required for the drug product and whether their submission will be deferred until after approval. Agreements reached at the meeting on these matters will be recorded in minutes of the conference that will be taken by FDA in accordance with § 10.65 and provided to the sponsor. The minutes along with any other written material provided to the sponsor will serve as a permanent record of any agreements reached. Barring a significant scientific development that requires otherwise, studies conducted in accordance with the agreement shall be presumed to be sufficient in objective and design for the purpose of obtaining marketing approval for the drug.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>“Pre-NDA” and “pre-BLA” meetings.</I> FDA has found that delays associated with the initial review of a marketing application may be reduced by exchanges of information about a proposed marketing application. The primary purpose of this kind of exchange is to uncover any major unresolved problems, to identify those studies that the sponsor is relying on as adequate and well-controlled to establish the drug's effectiveness, to identify the status of ongoing or needed studies adequate to assess pediatric safety and effectiveness, to acquaint FDA reviewers with the general information to be submitted in the marketing application (including technical information), to discuss appropriate methods for statistical analysis of the data, and to discuss the best approach to the presentation and formatting of data in the marketing application. Arrangements for such a meeting are to be initiated by the sponsor with the division responsible for review of the IND. To permit FDA to provide the sponsor with the most useful advice on preparing a marketing application, the sponsor should submit to FDA's reviewing division at least 1 month in advance of the meeting the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief summary of the clinical studies to be submitted in the application.
</P>
<P>(ii) A proposed format for organizing the submission, including methods for presenting the data.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the status of needed or ongoing pediatric studies.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other information for discussion at the meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990; 63 FR 66669, Dec. 2, 1998; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.48" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.48   Dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Food and Drug Administration is committed to resolving differences between sponsors and FDA reviewing divisions with respect to requirements for IND's as quickly and amicably as possible through the cooperative exchange of information and views.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative and procedural issues.</I> When administrative or procedural disputes arise, the sponsor should first attempt to resolve the matter with the division in FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research which is responsible for review of the IND, beginning with the consumer safety officer assigned to the application. If the dispute is not resolved, the sponsor may raise the matter with the person designated as ombudsman, whose function shall be to investigate what has happened and to facilitate a timely and equitable resolution. Appropriate issues to raise with the ombudsman include resolving difficulties in scheduling meetings and obtaining timely replies to inquiries. Further details on this procedure are contained in FDA Staff Manual Guide 4820.7 that is publicly available under FDA's public information regulations in part 20.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scientific and medical disputes.</I> (1) When scientific or medical disputes arise during the drug investigation process, sponsors should discuss the matter directly with the responsible reviewing officials. If necessary, sponsors may request a meeting with the appropriate reviewing officials and management representatives in order to seek a resolution. Requests for such meetings shall be directed to the director of the division in FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research which is responsible for review of the IND. FDA will make every attempt to grant requests for meetings that involve important issues and that can be scheduled at mutually convenient times.
</P>
<P>(2) The “end-of-Phase 2” and “pre-NDA” meetings described in § 312.47(b) will also provide a timely forum for discussing and resolving scientific and medical issues on which the sponsor disagrees with the agency.
</P>
<P>(3) In requesting a meeting designed to resolve a scientific or medical dispute, applicants may suggest that FDA seek the advice of outside experts, in which case FDA may, in its discretion, invite to the meeting one or more of its advisory committee members or other consultants, as designated by the agency. Applicants may rely on, and may bring to any meeting, their own consultants. For major scientific and medical policy issues not resolved by informal meetings, FDA may refer the matter to one of its standing advisory committees for its consideration and recommendations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Responsibilities of Sponsors and Investigators</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.50   General responsibilities of sponsors.</HEAD>
<P>Sponsors are responsible for selecting qualified investigators, providing them with the information they need to conduct an investigation properly, ensuring proper monitoring of the investigation(s), ensuring that the investigation(s) is conducted in accordance with the general investigational plan and protocols contained in the IND, maintaining an effective IND with respect to the investigations, and ensuring that FDA and all participating investigators are promptly informed of significant new adverse effects or risks with respect to the drug. Additional specific responsibilities of sponsors are described elsewhere in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.52" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.52   Transfer of obligations to a contract research organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor may transfer responsibility for any or all of the obligations set forth in this part to a contract research organization. Any such transfer shall be described in writing. If not all obligations are transferred, the writing is required to describe each of the obligations being assumed by the contract research organization. If all obligations are transferred, a general statement that all obligations have been transferred is acceptable. Any obligation not covered by the written description shall be deemed not to have been transferred.
</P>
<P>(b) A contract research organization that assumes any obligation of a sponsor shall comply with the specific regulations in this chapter applicable to this obligation and shall be subject to the same regulatory action as a sponsor for failure to comply with any obligation assumed under these regulations. Thus, all references to “sponsor” in this part apply to a contract research organization to the extent that it assumes one or more obligations of the sponsor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.53" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.53   Selecting investigators and monitors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Selecting investigators.</I> A sponsor shall select only investigators qualified by training and experience as appropriate experts to investigate the drug.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control of drug.</I> A sponsor shall ship investigational new drugs only to investigators participating in the investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obtaining information from the investigator.</I> Before permitting an investigator to begin participation in an investigation, the sponsor shall obtain the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A signed investigator statement (Form FDA-1572) containing:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the investigator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and code number, if any, of the protocol(s) in the IND identifying the study(ies) to be conducted by the investigator;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and address of any medical school, hospital, or other research facility where the clinical investigation(s) will be conducted;
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and address of any clinical laboratory facilities to be used in the study;
</P>
<P>(v) The name and address of the IRB that is responsible for review and approval of the study(ies);
</P>
<P>(vi) A commitment by the investigator that he or she:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Will conduct the study(ies) in accordance with the relevant, current protocol(s) and will only make changes in a protocol after notifying the sponsor, except when necessary to protect the safety, the rights, or welfare of subjects;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Will comply with all requirements regarding the obligations of clinical investigators and all other pertinent requirements in this part;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Will personally conduct or supervise the described investigation(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Will inform any potential subjects that the drugs are being used for investigational purposes and will ensure that the requirements relating to obtaining informed consent (21 CFR part 50) and institutional review board review and approval (21 CFR part 56) are met; 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Will report to the sponsor adverse experiences that occur in the course of the investigation(s) in accordance with § 312.64;
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Has read and understands the information in the investigator's brochure, including the potential risks and side effects of the drug; and
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Will ensure that all associates, colleagues, and employees assisting in the conduct of the study(ies) are informed about their obligations in meeting the above commitments.
</P>
<P>(vii) A commitment by the investigator that, for an investigation subject to an institutional review requirement under part 56, an IRB that complies with the requirements of that part will be responsible for the initial and continuing review and approval of the clinical investigation and that the investigator will promptly report to the IRB all changes in the research activity and all unanticipated problems involving risks to human subjects or others, and will not make any changes in the research without IRB approval, except where necessary to eliminate apparent immediate hazards to the human subjects.
</P>
<P>(viii) A list of the names of the subinvestigators (e.g., research fellows, residents) who will be assisting the investigator in the conduct of the investigation(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Curriculum vitae.</I> A curriculum vitae or other statement of qualifications of the investigator showing the education, training, and experience that qualifies the investigator as an expert in the clinical investigation of the drug for the use under investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clinical protocol.</I> (i) For Phase 1 investigations, a general outline of the planned investigation including the estimated duration of the study and the maximum number of subjects that will be involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Phase 2 or 3 investigations, an outline of the study protocol including an approximation of the number of subjects to be treated with the drug and the number to be employed as controls, if any; the clinical uses to be investigated; characteristics of subjects by age, sex, and condition; the kind of clinical observations and laboratory tests to be conducted; the estimated duration of the study; and copies or a description of case report forms to be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Financial disclosure information.</I> Sufficient accurate financial information to allow the sponsor to submit complete and accurate certification or disclosure statements required under part 54 of this chapter. The sponsor shall obtain a commitment from the clinical investigator to promptly update this information if any relevant changes occur during the course of the investigation and for 1 year following the completion of the study.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Selecting monitors.</I> A sponsor shall select a monitor qualified by training and experience to monitor the progress of the investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 61 FR 57280, Nov. 5, 1996; 63 FR 5252, Feb. 2, 1998; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.54" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.54   Emergency research under § 50.24 of this chapter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sponsor shall monitor the progress of all investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. When the sponsor receives from the IRB information concerning the public disclosures required by § 50.24(a)(7)(ii) and (a)(7)(iii) of this chapter, the sponsor promptly shall submit to the IND file and to Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, copies of the information that was disclosed, identified by the IND number.
</P>
<P>(b) The sponsor also shall monitor such investigations to identify when an IRB determines that it cannot approve the research because it does not meet the criteria in the exception in § 50.24(a) of this chapter or because of other relevant ethical concerns. The sponsor promptly shall provide this information in writing to FDA, investigators who are asked to participate in this or a substantially equivalent clinical investigation, and other IRB's that are asked to review this or a substantially equivalent investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 51530, Oct. 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003;  88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.55" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.55   Informing investigators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before the investigation begins, a sponsor (other than a sponsor-investigator) shall give each participating clinical investigator an investigator brochure containing the information described in § 312.23(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(b) The sponsor shall, as the overall investigation proceeds, keep each participating investigator informed of new observations discovered by or reported to the sponsor on the drug, particularly with respect to adverse effects and safe use. Such information may be distributed to investigators by means of periodically revised investigator brochures, reprints or published studies, reports or letters to clinical investigators, or other appropriate means. Important safety information is required to be relayed to investigators in accordance with § 312.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.56" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.56   Review of ongoing investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sponsor shall monitor the progress of all clinical investigations being conducted under its IND.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor who discovers that an investigator is not complying with the signed agreement (Form FDA-1572), the general investigational plan, or the requirements of this part or other applicable parts shall promptly either secure compliance or discontinue shipments of the investigational new drug to the investigator and end the investigator's participation in the investigation. If the investigator's participation in the investigation is ended, the sponsor shall require that the investigator dispose of or return the investigational drug in accordance with the requirements of § 312.59 and shall notify FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) The sponsor shall review and evaluate the evidence relating to the safety and effectiveness of the drug as it is obtained from the investigator. The sponsors shall make such reports to FDA regarding information relevant to the safety of the drug as are required under § 312.32. The sponsor shall make annual reports on the progress of the investigation in accordance with § 312.33.
</P>
<P>(d) A sponsor who determines that its investigational drug presents an unreasonable and significant risk to subjects shall discontinue those investigations that present the risk, notify FDA, all institutional review boards, and all investigators who have at any time participated in the investigation of the discontinuance, assure the disposition of all stocks of the drug outstanding as required by § 312.59, and furnish FDA with a full report of the sponsor's actions. The sponsor shall discontinue the investigation as soon as possible, and in no event later than 5 working days after making the determination that the investigation should be discontinued. Upon request, FDA will confer with a sponsor on the need to discontinue an investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.57" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.57   Recordkeeping and record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor shall maintain adequate records showing the receipt, shipment, or other disposition of the investigational drug. These records are required to include, as appropriate, the name of the investigator to whom the drug is shipped, and the date, quantity, and batch or code mark of each such shipment.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor shall maintain complete and accurate records showing any financial interest in § 54.4(a)(3)(i), (a)(3)(ii), (a)(3)(iii), and (a)(3)(iv) of this chapter paid to clinical investigators by the sponsor of the covered study. A sponsor shall also maintain complete and accurate records concerning all other financial interests of investigators subject to part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A sponsor shall retain the records and reports required by this part for 2 years after a marketing application is approved for the drug; or, if an application is not approved for the drug, until 2 years after shipment and delivery of the drug for investigational use is discontinued and FDA has been so notified.
</P>
<P>(d) A sponsor shall retain reserve samples of any test article and reference standard identified in, and used in any of the bioequivalence or bioavailability studies described in, § 320.38 or § 320.63 of this chapter, and release the reserve samples to FDA upon request, in accordance with, and for the period specified in § 320.38.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 58 FR 25926, Apr. 28, 1993; 63 FR 5252, Feb. 2, 1998; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.58" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.58   Inspection of sponsor's records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FDA inspection.</I> A sponsor shall upon request from any properly authorized officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration, at reasonable times, permit such officer or employee to have access to and copy and verify any records and reports relating to a clinical investigation conducted under this part. Upon written request by FDA, the sponsor shall submit the records or reports (or copies of them) to FDA. The sponsor shall discontinue shipments of the drug to any investigator who has failed to maintain or make available records or reports of the investigation as required by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Controlled substances.</I> If an investigational new drug is a substance listed in any schedule of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 801; 21 CFR part 1308), records concerning shipment, delivery, receipt, and disposition of the drug, which are required to be kept under this part or other applicable parts of this chapter shall, upon the request of a properly authorized employee of the Drug Enforcement Administration of the U.S. Department of Justice, be made available by the investigator or sponsor to whom the request is made, for inspection and copying. In addition, the sponsor shall assure that adequate precautions are taken, including storage of the investigational drug in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet, or other securely locked, substantially constructed enclosure, access to which is limited, to prevent theft or diversion of the substance into illegal channels of distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.59" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.59   Disposition of unused supply of investigational drug.</HEAD>
<P>The sponsor shall assure the return of all unused supplies of the investigational drug from each individual investigator whose participation in the investigation is discontinued or terminated. The sponsor may authorize alternative disposition of unused supplies of the investigational drug provided this alternative disposition does not expose humans to risks from the drug. The sponsor shall maintain written records of any disposition of the drug in accordance with § 312.57.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.60   General responsibilities of investigators.</HEAD>
<P>An investigator is responsible for ensuring that an investigation is conducted according to the signed investigator statement, the investigational plan, and applicable regulations; for protecting the rights, safety, and welfare of subjects under the investigator's care; and for the control of drugs under investigation. An investigator shall obtain the informed consent of each human subject to whom the drug is administered, in accordance with part 50 of this chapter. Additional specific responsibilities of clinical investigators are set forth in this part and in parts 50 and 56 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 88248, Dec. 21, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.61" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.61   Control of the investigational drug.</HEAD>
<P>An investigator shall administer the drug only to subjects under the investigator's personal supervision or under the supervision of a subinvestigator responsible to the investigator. The investigator shall not supply the investigational drug to any person not authorized under this part to receive it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.62" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.62   Investigator recordkeeping and record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disposition of drug.</I> An investigator is required to maintain adequate records of the disposition of the drug, including dates, quantity, and use by subjects. If the investigation is terminated, suspended, discontinued, or completed, the investigator shall return the unused supplies of the drug to the sponsor, or otherwise provide for disposition of the unused supplies of the drug under § 312.59.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Case histories.</I> An investigator is required to prepare and maintain adequate and accurate case histories that record all observations and other data pertinent to the investigation on each individual administered the investigational drug or employed as a control in the investigation. Case histories include the case report forms and supporting data including, for example, signed and dated consent forms and medical records including, for example, progress notes of the physician, the individual's hospital chart(s), and the nurses' notes. The case history for each individual shall document that informed consent was obtained prior to participation in the study. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention.</I> An investigator shall retain records required to be maintained under this part for a period of 2 years following the date a marketing application is approved for the drug for the indication for which it is being investigated; or, if no application is to be filed or if the application is not approved for such indication, until 2 years after the investigation is discontinued and FDA is notified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 61 FR 57280, Nov. 5, 1996; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.64" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.64   Investigator reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Progress reports.</I> The investigator shall furnish all reports to the sponsor of the drug who is responsible for collecting and evaluating the results obtained. The sponsor is required under § 312.33 to submit annual reports to FDA on the progress of the clinical investigations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety reports.</I> An investigator must immediately report to the sponsor any serious adverse event, whether or not considered drug related, including those listed in the protocol or investigator brochure and must include an assessment of whether there is a reasonable possibility that the drug caused the event. Study endpoints that are serious adverse events (e.g., all-cause mortality) must be reported in accordance with the protocol unless there is evidence suggesting a causal relationship between the drug and the event (e.g., death from anaphylaxis). In that case, the investigator must immediately report the event to the sponsor. The investigator must record nonserious adverse events and report them to the sponsor according to the timetable for reporting specified in the protocol.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final report.</I> An investigator shall provide the sponsor with an adequate report shortly after completion of the investigator's participation in the investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial disclosure reports.</I> The clinical investigator shall provide the sponsor with sufficient accurate financial information to allow an applicant to submit complete and accurate certification or disclosure statements as required under part 54 of this chapter. The clinical investigator shall promptly update this information if any relevant changes occur during the course of the investigation and for 1 year following the completion of the study.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 63 FR 5252, Feb. 2, 1998; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 75 FR 59963, Sept. 29, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.66" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.66   Assurance of IRB review.</HEAD>
<P>An investigator shall assure that an IRB that complies with the requirements set forth in part 56 will be responsible for the initial and continuing review and approval of the proposed clinical study. The investigator shall also assure that he or she will promptly report to the IRB all changes in the research activity and all unanticipated problems involving risk to human subjects or others, and that he or she will not make any changes in the research without IRB approval, except where necessary to eliminate apparent immediate hazards to human subjects.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.68" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.68   Inspection of investigator's records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>An investigator shall upon request from any properly authorized officer or employee of FDA, at reasonable times, permit such officer or employee to have access to, and copy and verify any records or reports made by the investigator pursuant to § 312.62. The investigator is not required to divulge subject names unless the records of particular individuals require a more detailed study of the cases, or unless there is reason to believe that the records do not represent actual case studies, or do not represent actual results obtained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.69" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.69   Handling of controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>If the investigational drug is subject to the Controlled Substances Act, the investigator shall take adequate precautions, including storage of the investigational drug in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet, or other securely locked, substantially constructed enclosure, access to which is limited, to prevent theft or diversion of the substance into illegal channels of distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.70" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.70   Disqualification of a clinical investigator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA has information indicating that an investigator (including a sponsor-investigator) has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the requirements of this part, part 50 or part 56 of this chapter, or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research will furnish the investigator written notice of the matter complained of and offer the investigator an opportunity to explain the matter in writing, or, at the option of the investigator, in an informal conference. If an explanation is offered and accepted by the applicable Center, the Center will discontinue the disqualification proceeding. If an explanation is offered but not accepted by the applicable Center, the investigator will be given an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter on the question of whether the investigator is eligible to receive test articles under this part and eligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) After evaluating all available information, including any explanation presented by the investigator, if the Commissioner determines that the investigator has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the requirements of this part, part 50 or part 56 of this chapter, or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Commissioner will notify the investigator, the sponsor of any investigation in which the investigator has been named as a participant, and the reviewing institutional review boards (IRBs) that the investigator is not eligible to receive test articles under this part. The notification to the investigator, sponsor, and IRBs will provide a statement of the basis for such determination. The notification also will explain that an investigator determined to be ineligible to receive test articles under this part will be ineligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, including drugs, biologics, devices, new animal drugs, foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, and tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(c) Each application or submission to FDA under the provisions of this chapter containing data reported by an investigator who has been determined to be ineligible to receive FDA-regulated test articles is subject to examination to determine whether the investigator has submitted unreliable data that are essential to the continuation of an investigation or essential to the approval of a marketing application, or essential to the continued marketing of an FDA-regulated product.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the data remaining are inadequate to support a conclusion that it is reasonably safe to continue the investigation, the Commissioner will notify the sponsor, who shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter. If a danger to the public health exists, however, the Commissioner shall terminate the IND immediately and notify the sponsor and the reviewing IRBs of the termination. In such case, the sponsor shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA under part 16 on the question of whether the IND should be reinstated. The determination that an investigation may not be considered in support of a research or marketing application or a notification or petition submission does not, however, relieve the sponsor of any obligation under any other applicable regulation to submit to FDA the results of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the continued approval of the product for which the data were submitted cannot be justified, the Commissioner will proceed to withdraw approval of the product in accordance with the applicable provisions of the relevant statutes.
</P>
<P>(f) An investigator who has been determined to be ineligible under paragraph (b) of this section may be reinstated as eligible when the Commissioner determines that the investigator has presented adequate assurances that the investigator will employ all test articles, and will conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, solely in compliance with the applicable provisions of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 25359, Apr. 30, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Drugs Intended to Treat Life-threatening and Severely-debilitating Illnesses</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 353, 355, 371; 42 U.S.C. 262.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 41523, Oct. 21, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 312.80" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.80   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this section is to establish procedures designed to expedite the development, evaluation, and marketing of new therapies intended to treat persons with life-threatening and severely-debilitating illnesses, especially where no satisfactory alternative therapy exists. As stated § 314.105(c) of this chapter, while the statutory standards of safety and effectiveness apply to all drugs, the many kinds of drugs that are subject to them, and the wide range of uses for those drugs, demand flexibility in applying the standards. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has determined that it is appropriate to exercise the broadest flexibility in applying the statutory standards, while preserving appropriate guarantees for safety and effectiveness. These procedures reflect the recognition that physicians and patients are generally willing to accept greater risks or side effects from products that treat life-threatening and severely-debilitating illnesses, than they would accept from products that treat less serious illnesses. These procedures also reflect the recognition that the benefits of the drug need to be evaluated in light of the severity of the disease being treated. The procedure outlined in this section should be interpreted consistent with that purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.81" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.81   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This section applies to new drug and biological products that are being studied for their safety and effectiveness in treating life-threatening or severely-debilitating diseases. 
</P>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the term “life-threatening” means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Diseases or conditions where the likelihood of death is high unless the course of the disease is interrupted; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Diseases or conditions with potentially fatal outcomes, where the end point of clinical trial analysis is survival. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, the term “severely debilitating” means diseases or conditions that cause major irreversible morbidity. 
</P>
<P>(c) Sponsors are encouraged to consult with FDA on the applicability of these procedures to specific products. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 41523, Oct. 21, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.82" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.82   Early consultation.</HEAD>
<P>For products intended to treat life-threatening or severely-debilitating illnesses, sponsors may request to meet with FDA-reviewing officials early in the drug development process to review and reach agreement on the design of necessary preclinical and clinical studies. Where appropriate, FDA will invite to such meetings one or more outside expert scientific consultants or advisory committee members. To the extent FDA resources permit, agency reviewing officials will honor requests for such meetings 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-investigational new drug (IND) meetings.</I> Prior to the submission of the initial IND, the sponsor may request a meeting with FDA-reviewing officials. The primary purpose of this meeting is to review and reach agreement on the design of animal studies needed to initiate human testing. The meeting may also provide an opportunity for discussing the scope and design of phase 1 testing, plans for studying the drug product in pediatric populations, and the best approach for presentation and formatting of data in the IND.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>End-of-phase 1 meetings.</I> When data from phase 1 clinical testing are available, the sponsor may again request a meeting with FDA-reviewing officials. The primary purpose of this meeting is to review and reach agreement on the design of phase 2 controlled clinical trials, with the goal that such testing will be adequate to provide sufficient data on the drug's safety and effectiveness to support a decision on its approvability for marketing, and to discuss the need for, as well as the design and timing of, studies of the drug in pediatric patients. For drugs for life-threatening diseases, FDA will provide its best judgment, at that time, whether pediatric studies will be required and whether their submission will be deferred until after approval. The procedures outlined in § 312.47(b)(1) with respect to end-of-phase 2 conferences, including documentation of agreements reached, would also be used for end-of-phase 1 meetings. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 41523, Oct. 21, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 66669, Dec. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.83" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.83   Treatment protocols.</HEAD>
<P>If the preliminary analysis of phase 2 test results appears promising, FDA may ask the sponsor to submit a treatment protocol to be reviewed under the procedures and criteria listed in §§ 312.305 and 312.320. Such a treatment protocol, if requested and granted, would normally remain in effect while the complete data necessary for a marketing application are being assembled by the sponsor and reviewed by FDA (unless grounds exist for clinical hold of ongoing protocols, as provided in § 312.42(b)(3)(ii)). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 41523, Oct. 21, 1988, as amended at 76 FR 13880, Mar. 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.84" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.84   Risk-benefit analysis in review of marketing applications for drugs to treat life-threatening and severely-debilitating illnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA's application of the statutory standards for marketing approval shall recognize the need for a medical risk-benefit judgment in making the final decision on approvability. As part of this evaluation, consistent with the statement of purpose in § 312.80, FDA will consider whether the benefits of the drug outweigh the known and potential risks of the drug and the need to answer remaining questions about risks and benefits of the drug, taking into consideration the severity of the disease and the absence of satisfactory alternative therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) In making decisions on whether to grant marketing approval for products that have been the subject of an end-of-phase 1 meeting under § 312.82, FDA will usually seek the advice of outside expert scientific consultants or advisory committees. Upon the filing of such a marketing application under § 314.101 or part 601 of this chapter, FDA will notify the members of the relevant standing advisory committee of the application's filing and its availability for review.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA concludes that the data presented are not sufficient for marketing approval, FDA will issue a complete response letter under § 314.110 of this chapter or the biological product licensing procedures. Such letter, in describing the deficiencies in the application, will address why the results of the research design agreed to under § 312.82, or in subsequent meetings, have not provided sufficient evidence for marketing approval. Such letter will also describe any recommendations made by the advisory committee regarding the application.
</P>
<P>(d) Marketing applications submitted under the procedures contained in this section will be subject to the requirements and procedures contained in part 314 or part 600 of this chapter, as well as those in this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 41523, Oct. 21, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 39607, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.85" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.85   Phase 4 studies.</HEAD>
<P>Concurrent with marketing approval, FDA may seek agreement from the sponsor to conduct certain postmarketing (phase 4) studies to delineate additional information about the drug's risks, benefits, and optimal use. These studies could include, but would not be limited to, studying different doses or schedules of administration than were used in phase 2 studies, use of the drug in other patient populations or other stages of the disease, or use of the drug over a longer period of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.86" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.86   Focused FDA regulatory research.</HEAD>
<P>At the discretion of the agency, FDA may undertake focused regulatory research on critical rate-limiting aspects of the preclinical, chemical/manufacturing, and clinical phases of drug development and evaluation. When initiated, FDA will undertake such research efforts as a means for meeting a public health need in facilitating the development of therapies to treat life-threatening or severely debilitating illnesses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.87" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.87   Active monitoring of conduct and evaluation of clinical trials.</HEAD>
<P>For drugs covered under this section, the Commissioner and other agency officials will monitor the progress of the conduct and evaluation of clinical trials and be involved in facilitating their appropriate progress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.88" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.88   Safeguards for patient safety.</HEAD>
<P>All of the safeguards incorporated within parts 50, 56, 312, 314, and 600 of this chapter designed to ensure the safety of clinical testing and the safety of products following marketing approval apply to drugs covered by this section. This includes the requirements for informed consent (part 50 of this chapter) and institutional review boards (part 56 of this chapter). These safeguards further include the review of animal studies prior to initial human testing (§ 312.23), and the monitoring of adverse drug experiences through the requirements of IND safety reports (§ 312.32), safety update reports during agency review of a marketing application (§ 314.50 of this chapter), and postmarketing adverse reaction reporting (§ 314.80 of this chapter).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.110" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.110   Import and export requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Imports.</I> An investigational new drug offered for import into the United States complies with the requirements of this part if it is subject to an IND that is in effect for it under § 312.40 and: (1) The consignee in the United States is the sponsor of the IND; (2) the consignee is a qualified investigator named in the IND; or (3) the consignee is the domestic agent of a foreign sponsor, is responsible for the control and distribution of the investigational drug, and the IND identifies the consignee and describes what, if any, actions the consignee will take with respect to the investigational drug. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exports.</I> An investigational new drug may be exported from the United States for use in a clinical investigation under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) An IND is in effect for the drug under § 312.40, the drug complies with the laws of the country to which it is being exported, and each person who receives the drug is an investigator in a study submitted to and allowed to proceed under the IND; or
</P>
<P>(2) The drug has valid marketing authorization in Australia, Canada, Israel, Japan, New Zealand, Switzerland, South Africa, or in any country in the European Union or the European Economic Area, and complies with the laws of the country to which it is being exported, section 802(b)(1)(A), (f), and (g) of the act, and § 1.101 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(3) The drug is being exported to Australia, Canada, Israel, Japan, New Zealand, Switzerland, South Africa, or to any country in the European Union or the European Economic Area, and complies with the laws of the country to which it is being exported, the applicable provisions of section 802(c), (f), and (g) of the act, and § 1.101 of this chapter. Drugs exported under this paragraph that are not the subject of an IND are exempt from the label requirement in § 312.6(a); or
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the person exporting the drug sends an email certification to the Office of Global Policy and Strategy at <I>OGPSExecSec@fda.hhs.gov,</I> or a written certification to the Office of Global Policy and Strategy (HFG-1), Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 3420, Silver Spring, MD 20993, at the time the drug is first exported and maintains records documenting compliance with this paragraph (b)(4). The certification shall describe the drug that is to be exported (<I>i.e.,</I> trade name (if any), generic name, and dosage form), identify the country or countries to which the drug is to be exported, and affirm that:


</P>
<P>(i) The drug is intended for export;
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug is intended for investigational use in a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(iii) The drug meets the foreign purchaser's or consignee's specifications;
</P>
<P>(iv) The drug is not in conflict with the importing country's laws;
</P>
<P>(v) The outer shipping package is labeled to show that the package is intended for export from the United States;
</P>
<P>(vi) The drug is not sold or offered for sale in the United States;
</P>
<P>(vii) The clinical investigation will be conducted in accordance with § 312.120;
</P>
<P>(viii) The drug is manufactured, processed, packaged, and held in substantial conformity with current good manufacturing practices;
</P>
<P>(ix) The drug is not adulterated within the meaning of section 501(a)(1), (a)(2)(A), (a)(3), (c), or (d) of the act;
</P>
<P>(x) The drug does not present an imminent hazard to public health, either in the United States, if the drug were to be reimported, or in the foreign country; and
</P>
<P>(xi) The drug is labeled in accordance with the foreign country's laws.
</P>
<P>(5) In the event of a national emergency in a foreign country, where the national emergency necessitates exportation of an investigational new drug, the requirements in paragraph (b)(4) of this section apply as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Situations where the investigational new drug is to be stockpiled in anticipation of a national emergency.</I> There may be instances where exportation of an investigational new drug is needed so that the drug may be stockpiled and made available for use by the importing country if and when a national emergency arises. In such cases:
</P>
<P>(A) A person may export an investigational new drug under paragraph (b)(4) of this section without making an affirmation with respect to any one or more of paragraphs (b)(4)(i), (b)(4)(iv), (b)(4)(vi), (b)(4)(vii), (b)(4)(viii), and/or (b)(4)(ix) of this section, provided that he or she:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Provides a written statement explaining why compliance with each such paragraph is not feasible or is contrary to the best interests of the individuals who may receive the investigational new drug;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provides a written statement from an authorized official of the importing country's government. The statement must attest that the official agrees with the exporter's statement made under paragraph (b)(5)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section; explain that the drug is to be stockpiled solely for use of the importing country in a national emergency; and describe the potential national emergency that warrants exportation of the investigational new drug under this provision; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Provides a written statement showing that the Secretary of Health and Human Services (the Secretary), or his or her designee, agrees with the findings of the authorized official of the importing country's government. Persons who wish to obtain a written statement from the Secretary should direct their requests to Secretary's Operations Center, Office of Emergency Operations and Security Programs, Office of Public Health Emergency Preparedness, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20201. Requests may be also be sent by FAX: 202-619-7870 or by e-mail: <I>HHS.SOC@hhs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Exportation may not proceed until FDA has authorized exportation of the investigational new drug. FDA may deny authorization if the statements provided under paragraphs (b)(5)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (b)(5)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section are inadequate or if exportation is contrary to public health.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Situations where the investigational new drug is to be used for a sudden and immediate national emergency.</I> There may be instances where exportation of an investigational new drug is needed so that the drug may be used in a sudden and immediate national emergency that has developed or is developing. In such cases:
</P>
<P>(A) A person may export an investigational new drug under paragraph (b)(4) of this section without making an affirmation with respect to any one or more of paragraphs (b)(4)(i), (b)(4)(iv), (b)(4)(v), (b)(4)(vi), (b)(4)(vii), (b)(4)(viii), (b)(4)(ix), and/or (b)(4)(xi), provided that he or she:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Provides a written statement explaining why compliance with each such paragraph is not feasible or is contrary to the best interests of the individuals who are expected to receive the investigational new drug and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provides sufficient information from an authorized official of the importing country's government to enable the Secretary, or his or her designee, to decide whether a national emergency has developed or is developing in the importing country, whether the investigational new drug will be used solely for that national emergency, and whether prompt exportation of the investigational new drug is necessary. Persons who wish to obtain a determination from the Secretary should direct their requests to Secretary's Operations Center, Office of Emergency Operations and Security Programs, Office of Public Health Emergency Preparedness, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20201. Requests may be also be sent by FAX: 202-619-7870 or by e-mail: <I>HHS.SOC@hhs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Exportation may proceed without prior FDA authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> Exportation under paragraph (b) of this section may not occur if:
</P>
<P>(1) For drugs exported under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the IND pertaining to the clinical investigation is no longer in effect;
</P>
<P>(2) For drugs exported under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the requirements in section 802(b)(1), (f), or (g) of the act are no longer met;
</P>
<P>(3) For drugs exported under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the requirements in section 802(c), (f), or (g) of the act are no longer met;
</P>
<P>(4) For drugs exported under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the conditions underlying the certification or the statements submitted under paragraph (b)(5) of this section are no longer met; or
</P>
<P>(5) For any investigational new drugs under this section, the drug no longer complies with the laws of the importing country.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insulin and antibiotics.</I> New insulin and antibiotic drug products may be exported for investigational use in accordance with section 801(e)(1) of the act without complying with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 70729, Nov. 23, 2005; 88 FR 18037, Mar. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.120" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.120   Foreign clinical studies not conducted under an IND.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptance of studies.</I> (1) FDA will accept as support for an IND or application for marketing approval (an application under section 505 of the act or section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act) (42 U.S.C. 262)) a well-designed and well-conducted foreign clinical study not conducted under an IND, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The study was conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP). For the purposes of this section, GCP is defined as a standard for the design, conduct, performance, monitoring, auditing, recording, analysis, and reporting of clinical trials in a way that provides assurance that the data and reported results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of trial subjects are protected. GCP includes review and approval (or provision of a favorable opinion) by an independent ethics committee (IEC) before initiating a study, continuing review of an ongoing study by an IEC, and obtaining and documenting the freely given informed consent of the subject (or a subject's legally authorized representative, if the subject is unable to provide informed consent) before initiating a study. GCP does not require informed consent in life-threatening situations when the IEC reviewing the study finds, before initiation of the study, that informed consent is not feasible and either that the conditions present are consistent with those described in § 50.23 or § 50.24(a) of this chapter, or that the measures described in the study protocol or elsewhere will protect the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects; and
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA is able to validate the data from the study through an onsite inspection if the agency deems it necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) Although FDA will not accept as support for an IND or application for marketing approval a study that does not meet the conditions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, FDA will examine data from such a study.
</P>
<P>(3) Marketing approval of a new drug based solely on foreign clinical data is governed by § 314.106 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supporting information.</I> A sponsor or applicant who submits data from a foreign clinical study not conducted under an IND as support for an IND or application for marketing approval must submit to FDA, in addition to information required elsewhere in parts 312, 314, or 601 of this chapter, a description of the actions the sponsor or applicant took to ensure that the research conformed to GCP as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. The description is not required to duplicate information already submitted in the IND or application for marketing approval. Instead, the description must provide either the following information or a cross-reference to another section of the submission where the information is located:
</P>
<P>(1) The investigator's qualifications;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the research facilities;
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed summary of the protocol and results of the study and, should FDA request, case records maintained by the investigator or additional background data such as hospital or other institutional records;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the drug substance and drug product used in the study, including a description of the components, formulation, specifications, and, if available, bioavailability of the specific drug product used in the clinical study;
</P>
<P>(5) If the study is intended to support the effectiveness of a drug product, information showing that the study is adequate and well controlled under § 314.126 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) The name and address of the IEC that reviewed the study and a statement that the IEC meets the definition in § 312.3 of this chapter. The sponsor or applicant must maintain records supporting such statement, including records of the names and qualifications of IEC members, and make these records available for agency review upon request;
</P>
<P>(7) A summary of the IEC's decision to approve or modify and approve the study, or to provide a favorable opinion;
</P>
<P>(8) A description of how informed consent was obtained;
</P>
<P>(9) A description of what incentives, if any, were provided to subjects to participate in the study;
</P>
<P>(10) A description of how the sponsor(s) monitored the study and ensured that the study was carried out consistently with the study protocol; and
</P>
<P>(11) A description of how investigators were trained to comply with GCP (as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section) and to conduct the study in accordance with the study protocol, and a statement on whether written commitments by investigators to comply with GCP and the protocol were obtained. Any signed written commitments by investigators must be maintained by the sponsor or applicant and made available for agency review upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers.</I> (1) A sponsor or applicant may ask FDA to waive any applicable requirements under paragraphs (a)(1) and (b) of this section. A waiver request may be submitted in an IND or in an information amendment to an IND, or in an application or in an amendment or supplement to an application submitted under part 314 or 601 of this chapter. A waiver request is required to contain at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation why the sponsor's or applicant's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary or cannot be achieved;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of an alternative submission or course of action that satisfies the purpose of the requirement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other information justifying a waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may grant a waiver if it finds that doing so would be in the interest of the public health.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> A sponsor or applicant must retain the records required by this section for a foreign clinical study not conducted under an IND as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the study is submitted in support of an application for marketing approval, for 2 years after an agency decision on that application;
</P>
<P>(2) If the study is submitted in support of an IND but not an application for marketing approval, for 2 years after the submission of the IND.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22815, Apr. 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.130" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.130   Availability for public disclosure of data and information in an IND.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The existence of an investigational new drug application will not be disclosed by FDA unless it has previously been publicly disclosed or acknowledged. 
</P>
<P>(b) The availability for public disclosure of all data and information in an investigational new drug application for a new drug will be handled in accordance with the provisions established in § 314.430 for the confidentiality of data and information in applications submitted in part 314. The availability for public disclosure of all data and information in an investigational new drug application for a biological product will be governed by the provisions of §§ 601.50 and 601.51. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of § 314.430, FDA shall disclose upon request to an individual to whom an investigational new drug has been given a copy of any IND safety report relating to the use in the individual.
</P>
<P>(d) The availability of information required to be publicly disclosed for investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter will be handled as follows: Persons wishing to request the publicly disclosable information in the IND that was required to be filed in Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, shall submit a request under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987. Redesignated at 53 FR 41523, Oct. 21, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 51530, Oct. 2, 1996; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45065, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.140" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.140   Address for correspondence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor must send an initial IND submission to the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) or to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), depending on the Center responsible for regulating the product as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For drug products regulated by CDER.</I> Send the IND submission to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>For biological products regulated by CDER.</I> Send the IND submission to the Central  Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For biological products regulated by CBER.</I> Send the IND submission to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(b) On receiving the IND, the responsible Center will inform the sponsor which one of the divisions in CDER or CBER is responsible for the IND. Amendments, reports, and other correspondence relating to matters covered by the IND should be sent to the appropriate center at the address indicated in this section and marked to the attention of the responsible division. The outside wrapper of each submission shall state what is contained in the submission, for example, “IND Application”, “Protocol Amendment”, etc.
</P>
<P>(c) All correspondence relating to export of an investigational drug under § 312.110(b)(2) shall be submitted to the International Affairs Staff (HFY-50), Office of Health Affairs, Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 14981, Mar. 24, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009; 74 FR 55771, Oct. 29, 2009; 75 FR 37295, June 29, 2010; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2015; 81 FR 17066, Mar. 28, 2016; 84 FR 6673, Feb. 28, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.145" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.145   Guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA has made available guidance documents under § 10.115 of this chapter to help you to comply with certain requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) and the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) maintain lists of guidance documents that apply to the centers' regulations. The lists are maintained on the Internet and are published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A request for a copy of the CDER list should be directed to the Office of Training and Communications, Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. A request for a copy of the CBER list should be directed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3103, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000, as amended at 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Drugs for Investigational Use in Laboratory Research Animals or In Vitro Tests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.160" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.160   Drugs for investigational use in laboratory research animals or in vitro tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorization to ship.</I> (1)(i) A person may ship a drug intended solely for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research purposes if it is labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>CAUTION: Contains a new drug for investigational use only in laboratory research animals, or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) A person may ship a biological product for investigational in vitro diagnostic use that is listed in § 312.2(b)(2)(ii) if it is labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>CAUTION: Contains a biological product for investigational in vitro diagnostic tests only.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) A person shipping a drug under paragraph (a) of this section shall use due diligence to assure that the consignee is regularly engaged in conducting such tests and that the shipment of the new drug will actually be used for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research.
</P>
<P>(3) A person who ships a drug under paragraph (a) of this section shall maintain adequate records showing the name and post office address of the expert to whom the drug is shipped and the date, quantity, and batch or code mark of each shipment and delivery. Records of shipments under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section are to be maintained for a period of 2 years after the shipment. Records and reports of data and shipments under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section are to be maintained in accordance with § 312.57(b). The person who ships the drug shall upon request from any properly authorized officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration, at reasonable times, permit such officer or employee to have access to and copy and verify records required to be maintained under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of authorization to ship.</I> FDA may terminate authorization to ship a drug under this section if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor of the investigation has failed to comply with any of the conditions for shipment established under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The continuance of the investigation is unsafe or otherwise contrary to the public interest or the drug is used for purposes other than bona fide scientific investigation. FDA will notify the person shipping the drug of its finding and invite immediate correction. If correction is not immediately made, the person shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA pursuant to part 16.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposition of unused drug.</I> The person who ships the drug under paragraph (a) of this section shall assure the return of all unused supplies of the drug from individual investigators whenever the investigation discontinues or the investigation is terminated. The person who ships the drug may authorize in writing alternative disposition of unused supplies of the drug provided this alternative disposition does not expose humans to risks from the drug, either directly or indirectly (e.g., through food-producing animals). The shipper shall maintain records of any alternative disposition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8831, Mar. 19, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23031, June 17, 1987. Redesignated at 53 FR 41523, Oct. 21, 1988; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Expanded Access to Investigational Drugs for Treatment Use</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 40942, Aug. 13, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 312.300" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.300   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart contains the requirements for the use of investigational new drugs and approved drugs where availability is limited by a risk evaluation and mitigation strategy (REMS) when the primary purpose is to diagnose, monitor, or treat a patient's disease or condition. The aim of this subpart is to facilitate the availability of such drugs to patients with serious diseases or conditions when there is no comparable or satisfactory alternative therapy to diagnose, monitor, or treat the patient's disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions of terms apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Immediately life-threatening disease or condition</I> means a stage of disease in which there is reasonable likelihood that death will occur within a matter of months or in which premature death is likely without early treatment.
</P>
<P><I>Serious disease or condition</I> means a disease or condition associated with morbidity that has substantial impact on day-to-day functioning. Short-lived and self-limiting morbidity will usually not be sufficient, but the morbidity need not be irreversible, provided it is persistent or recurrent. Whether a disease or condition is serious is a matter of clinical judgment, based on its impact on such factors as survival, day-to-day functioning, or the likelihood that the disease, if left untreated, will progress from a less severe condition to a more serious one.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.305" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.305   Requirements for all expanded access uses.</HEAD>
<P>The criteria, submission requirements, safeguards, and beginning treatment information set out in this section apply to all expanded access uses described in this subpart. Additional criteria, submission requirements, and safeguards that apply to specific types of expanded access are described in §§ 312.310 through 312.320.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria.</I> FDA must determine that:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient or patients to be treated have a serious or immediately life-threatening disease or condition, and there is no comparable or satisfactory alternative therapy to diagnose, monitor, or treat the disease or condition;
</P>
<P>(2) The potential patient benefit justifies the potential risks of the treatment use and those potential risks are not unreasonable in the context of the disease or condition to be treated; and
</P>
<P>(3) Providing the investigational drug for the requested use will not interfere with the initiation, conduct, or completion of clinical investigations that could support marketing approval of the expanded access use or otherwise compromise the potential development of the expanded access use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission.</I> (1) An expanded access submission is required for each type of expanded access described in this subpart. The submission may be a new IND or a protocol amendment to an existing IND. Information required for a submission may be supplied by referring to pertinent information contained in an existing IND if the sponsor of the existing IND grants a right of reference to the IND.
</P>
<P>(2) The expanded access submission must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A cover sheet (Form FDA 1571) meeting the requirements of § 312.23(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) The rationale for the intended use of the drug, including a list of available therapeutic options that would ordinarily be tried before resorting to the investigational drug or an explanation of why the use of the investigational drug is preferable to the use of available therapeutic options;
</P>
<P>(iii) The criteria for patient selection or, for an individual patient, a description of the patient's disease or condition, including recent medical history and previous treatments of the disease or condition;
</P>
<P>(iv) The method of administration of the drug, dose, and duration of therapy;
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the facility where the drug will be manufactured;
</P>
<P>(vi) Chemistry, manufacturing, and controls information adequate to ensure the proper identification, quality, purity, and strength of the investigational drug;
</P>
<P>(vii) Pharmacology and toxicology information adequate to conclude that the drug is reasonably safe at the dose and duration proposed for expanded access use (ordinarily, information that would be adequate to permit clinical testing of the drug in a population of the size expected to be treated); and
</P>
<P>(viii) A description of clinical procedures, laboratory tests, or other monitoring necessary to evaluate the effects of the drug and minimize its risks.
</P>
<P>(3) The expanded access submission and its mailing cover must be plainly marked “EXPANDED ACCESS SUBMISSION.” If the expanded access submission is for a treatment IND or treatment protocol, the applicable box on Form FDA 1571 must be checked.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safeguards.</I> The responsibilities of sponsors and investigators set forth in subpart D of this part are applicable to expanded access use under this subpart as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) A licensed physician under whose immediate direction an investigational drug is administered or dispensed for an expanded access use under this subpart is considered an <I>investigator</I>, for purposes of this part, and must comply with the responsibilities for investigators set forth in subpart D of this part to the extent they are applicable to the expanded access use.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual or entity that submits an expanded access IND or protocol under this subpart is considered a <I>sponsor</I>, for purposes of this part, and must comply with the responsibilities for sponsors set forth in subpart D of this part to the extent they are applicable to the expanded access use.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensed physician under whose immediate direction an investigational drug is administered or dispensed, and who submits an IND for expanded access use under this subpart is considered a <I>sponsor-investigator</I>, for purposes of this part, and must comply with the responsibilities for sponsors and investigators set forth in subpart D of this part to the extent they are applicable to the expanded access use.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investigators.</I> In all cases of expanded access, investigators are responsible for reporting adverse drug events to the sponsor, ensuring that the informed consent requirements of part 50 of this chapter are met, ensuring that IRB review of the expanded access use is obtained in a manner consistent with the requirements of part 56 of this chapter, and maintaining accurate case histories and drug disposition records and retaining records in a manner consistent with the requirements of § 312.62. Depending on the type of expanded access, other investigator responsibilities under subpart D may also apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sponsors.</I> In all cases of expanded access, sponsors are responsible for submitting IND safety reports and annual reports (when the IND or protocol continues for 1 year or longer) to FDA as required by §§ 312.32 and 312.33, ensuring that licensed physicians are qualified to administer the investigational drug for the expanded access use, providing licensed physicians with the information needed to minimize the risk and maximize the potential benefits of the investigational drug (the investigator's brochure must be provided if one exists for the drug), maintaining an effective IND for the expanded access use, and maintaining adequate drug disposition records and retaining records in a manner consistent with the requirements of § 312.57. Depending on the type of expanded access, other sponsor responsibilities under subpart D may also apply.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Beginning treatment</I>—(1) <I>INDs.</I> An expanded access IND goes into effect 30 days after FDA receives the IND or on earlier notification by FDA that the expanded access use may begin.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protocols.</I> With the following exceptions, expanded access use under a protocol submitted under an existing IND may begin as described in § 312.30(a).
</P>
<P>(i) Expanded access use under the emergency procedures described in § 312.310(d) may begin when the use is authorized by the FDA reviewing official.
</P>
<P>(ii) Expanded access use under § 312.320 may begin 30 days after FDA receives the protocol or upon earlier notification by FDA that use may begin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clinical holds.</I> FDA may place any expanded access IND or protocol on clinical hold as described in § 312.42.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.310" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.310   Individual patients, including for emergency use.</HEAD>
<P>Under this section, FDA may permit an investigational drug to be used for the treatment of an individual patient by a licensed physician.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria.</I> The criteria in § 312.305(a) must be met; and the following determinations must be made:
</P>
<P>(1) The physician must determine that the probable risk to the person from the investigational drug is not greater than the probable risk from the disease or condition; and
</P>
<P>(2) FDA must determine that the patient cannot obtain the drug under another IND or protocol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission.</I> The expanded access submission must include information adequate to demonstrate that the criteria in § 312.305(a) and paragraph (a) of this section have been met. The expanded access submission must meet the requirements of § 312.305(b).
</P>
<P>(1) If the drug is the subject of an existing IND, the expanded access submission may be made by the sponsor or by a licensed physician.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor may satisfy the submission requirements by amending its existing IND to include a protocol for individual patient expanded access.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensed physician may satisfy the submission requirements by obtaining from the sponsor permission for FDA to refer to any information in the IND that would be needed to support the expanded access request (right of reference) and by providing any other required information not contained in the IND (usually only the information specific to the individual patient).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safeguards.</I> (1) Treatment is generally limited to a single course of therapy for a specified duration unless FDA expressly authorizes multiple courses or chronic therapy.
</P>
<P>(2) At the conclusion of treatment, the licensed physician or sponsor must provide FDA with a written summary of the results of the expanded access use, including adverse effects.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may require sponsors to monitor an individual patient expanded access use if the use is for an extended duration.
</P>
<P>(4) When a significant number of similar individual patient expanded access requests have been submitted, FDA may ask the sponsor to submit an IND or protocol for the use under § 312.315 or § 312.320.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency procedures.</I> If there is an emergency that requires the patient to be treated before a written submission can be made, FDA may authorize the expanded access use to begin without a written submission. The FDA reviewing official may authorize the emergency use by telephone.
</P>
<P>(1) Emergency expanded access use may be requested by telephone, facsimile, or other means of electronic communications. For investigational biological drug products regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, the request should be directed to the Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, 240-402-8010 or 1-800-835-4709, e-mail: <I>ocod@fda.hhs.gov.</I> For all other investigational drugs, the request for authorization should be directed to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, 301-796-3400, e-mail: <I>druginfo@fda.hhs.gov.</I> After normal working hours (8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.), the request should be directed to the FDA Emergency Call Center, 866-300-4374, e-mail: <I>emergency.operations@fda.hhs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The licensed physician or sponsor must explain how the expanded access use will meet the requirements of §§ 312.305 and 312.310 and must agree to submit an expanded access submission within 15 working days of FDA's authorization of the use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 40942, Aug. 13, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 32659, June 9, 2010; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.315" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.315   Intermediate-size patient populations.</HEAD>
<P>Under this section, FDA may permit an investigational drug to be used for the treatment of a patient population smaller than that typical of a treatment IND or treatment protocol. FDA may ask a sponsor to consolidate expanded access under this section when the agency has received a significant number of requests for individual patient expanded access to an investigational drug for the same use.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Need for expanded access.</I> Expanded access under this section may be needed in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Drug not being developed.</I> The drug is not being developed, for example, because the disease or condition is so rare that the sponsor is unable to recruit patients for a clinical trial.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drug being developed.</I> The drug is being studied in a clinical trial, but patients requesting the drug for expanded access use are unable to participate in the trial. For example, patients may not be able to participate in the trial because they have a different disease or stage of disease than the one being studied or otherwise do not meet the enrollment criteria, because enrollment in the trial is closed, or because the trial site is not geographically accessible.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approved or related drug.</I> (i) The drug is an approved drug product that is no longer marketed for safety reasons or is unavailable through marketing due to failure to meet the conditions of the approved application, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug contains the same active moiety as an approved drug product that is unavailable through marketing due to failure to meet the conditions of the approved application or a drug shortage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> The criteria in § 312.305(a) must be met; and FDA must determine that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is enough evidence that the drug is safe at the dose and duration proposed for expanded access use to justify a clinical trial of the drug in the approximate number of patients expected to receive the drug under expanded access; and
</P>
<P>(2) There is at least preliminary clinical evidence of effectiveness of the drug, or of a plausible pharmacologic effect of the drug to make expanded access use a reasonable therapeutic option in the anticipated patient population.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> The expanded access submission must include information adequate to satisfy FDA that the criteria in § 312.305(a) and paragraph (b) of this section have been met. The expanded access submission must meet the requirements of § 312.305(b). In addition:
</P>
<P>(1) The expanded access submission must state whether the drug is being developed or is not being developed and describe the patient population to be treated.
</P>
<P>(2) If the drug is not being actively developed, the sponsor must explain why the drug cannot currently be developed for the expanded access use and under what circumstances the drug could be developed.
</P>
<P>(3) If the drug is being studied in a clinical trial, the sponsor must explain why the patients to be treated cannot be enrolled in the clinical trial and under what circumstances the sponsor would conduct a clinical trial in these patients.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safeguards.</I> (1) Upon review of the IND annual report, FDA will determine whether it is appropriate for the expanded access to continue under this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If the drug is not being actively developed or if the expanded access use is not being developed (but another use is being developed), FDA will consider whether it is possible to conduct a clinical study of the expanded access use.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the drug is being actively developed, FDA will consider whether providing the investigational drug for expanded access use is interfering with the clinical development of the drug.
</P>
<P>(iii) As the number of patients enrolled increases, FDA may ask the sponsor to submit an IND or protocol for the use under § 312.320.
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor is responsible for monitoring the expanded access protocol to ensure that licensed physicians comply with the protocol and the regulations applicable to investigators.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 312.320" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 312.320   Treatment IND or treatment protocol.</HEAD>
<P>Under this section, FDA may permit an investigational drug to be used for widespread treatment use.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria.</I> The criteria in § 312.305(a) must be met, and FDA must determine that:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Trial status.</I> (i) The drug is being investigated in a controlled clinical trial under an IND designed to support a marketing application for the expanded access use, or
</P>
<P>(ii) All clinical trials of the drug have been completed; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Marketing status.</I> The sponsor is actively pursuing marketing approval of the drug for the expanded access use with due diligence; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Evidence.</I> (i) When the expanded access use is for a serious disease or condition, there is sufficient clinical evidence of safety and effectiveness to support the expanded access use. Such evidence would ordinarily consist of data from phase 3 trials, but could consist of compelling data from completed phase 2 trials; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the expanded access use is for an immediately life-threatening disease or condition, the available scientific evidence, taken as a whole, provides a reasonable basis to conclude that the investigational drug may be effective for the expanded access use and would not expose patients to an unreasonable and significant risk of illness or injury. This evidence would ordinarily consist of clinical data from phase 3 or phase 2 trials, but could be based on more preliminary clinical evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission.</I> The expanded access submission must include information adequate to satisfy FDA that the criteria in § 312.305(a) and paragraph (a) of this section have been met. The expanded access submission must meet the requirements of § 312.305(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safeguard.</I> The sponsor is responsible for monitoring the treatment protocol to ensure that licensed physicians comply with the protocol and the regulations applicable to investigators.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="314" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 314—APPLICATIONS FOR FDA APPROVAL TO MARKET A NEW DRUG 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 355a, 355f, 356, 356a, 356b, 356c, 356e, 360cc, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 371, 374, 379e, 379k-1.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 314 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004; 81 FR 69639, Oct. 6, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.1   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth procedures and requirements for the submission to, and the review by, the Food and Drug Administration of applications and abbreviated applications to market a new drug under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as well as amendments, supplements, and postmarketing reports to them.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to drug products subject to licensing by FDA under the Public Health Service Act (58 Stat. 632 as amended (42 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>)) and subchapter F of chapter I of title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) The following provisions do not apply to designated medical gases, which are subject to the certification and postmarketing reporting requirements under part 230 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Sections 314.50 through 314.72;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 314.80;
</P>
<P>(3) Section 314.81, except paragraph (b)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) Section 314.90;
</P>
<P>(5) Subpart C of this part;
</P>
<P>(6) Sections 314.100 through 314.162;
</P>
<P>(7) Subpart H of this part; and
</P>
<P>(8) Subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulations in the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 57 FR 17981, Apr. 28, 1992; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 89 FR 51782, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.2" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish an efficient and thorough drug review process in order to: (a) Facilitate the approval of drugs shown to be safe and effective; and (b) ensure the disapproval of drugs not shown to be safe and effective. These regulations are also intended to establish an effective system for FDA's surveillance of marketed drugs. These regulations shall be construed in light of these objectives.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to those terms when used in this part and part 320 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms apply to this part and part 320 of this chapter:
</P>
<P><I>180-day exclusivity period</I> is the 180-day period beginning on the date of the first commercial marketing of the drug (including the commercial marketing of the reference listed drug) by any first applicant. The 180-day period ends on the day before the date on which an ANDA submitted by an applicant other than a first applicant could be approved.
</P>
<P><I>505(b)(2) application</I> is an NDA submitted under section 505(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for a drug for which at least some of the investigations described in section 505(b)(1)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and relied upon by the applicant for approval of the NDA were not conducted by or for the applicant and for which the applicant has not obtained a right of reference or use from the person by or for whom the investigations were conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Abbreviated application, abbreviated new drug application, or ANDA</I> is the application described under § 314.94, including all amendments and supplements to the application.
</P>
<P><I>Acknowledgment letter</I> is a written, postmarked communication from FDA to an applicant stating that the Agency has determined that an ANDA is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review. An acknowledgment letter indicates that the ANDA is regarded as received.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> is the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (section 201 <I>et seq.</I> (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>)).
</P>
<P><I>Active ingredient</I> is any component that is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals. The term includes those components that may undergo chemical change in the manufacture of the drug product and be present in the drug product in a modified form intended to furnish the specified activity or effect.
</P>
<P><I>Active moiety</I> is the molecule or ion, excluding those appended portions of the molecule that cause the drug to be an ester, salt (including a salt with hydrogen or coordination bonds), or other noncovalent derivative (such as a complex, chelate, or clathrate) of the molecule, responsible for the physiological or pharmacological action of the drug substance.
</P>
<P><I>ANDA holder</I> is the applicant that owns an approved ANDA.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> is any person who submits an NDA (including a 505(b)(2) application) or ANDA or an amendment or supplement to an NDA or ANDA under this part to obtain FDA approval of a new drug and any person who owns an approved NDA (including a 505(b)(2) application) or ANDA.
</P>
<P><I>Application, new drug application, or NDA</I> is the application described under § 314.50, including all amendments and supplements to the application. An NDA refers to “stand-alone” applications submitted under section 505(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and to 505(b)(2) applications.
</P>
<P><I>Approval letter</I> is a written communication to an applicant from FDA approving an NDA or an ANDA.
</P>
<P><I>Assess the effects of the change</I> is to evaluate the effects of a manufacturing change on the identity, strength, quality, purity, and potency of a drug product as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug product.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized generic drug</I> is a listed drug, as defined in this section, that has been approved under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and is marketed, sold, or distributed directly or indirectly to the retail class of trade with labeling, packaging (other than repackaging as the listed drug in blister packs, unit doses, or similar packaging for use in institutions), product code, labeler code, trade name, or trademark that differs from that of the listed drug.
</P>
<P><I>Bioavailability</I> is the rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moiety is absorbed from a drug product and becomes available at the site of drug action. For drug products that are not intended to be absorbed into the bloodstream, bioavailability may be assessed by scientifically valid measurements intended to reflect the rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moiety becomes available at the site of drug action.
</P>
<P><I>Bioequivalence</I> is the absence of a significant difference in the rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moiety in pharmaceutical equivalents or pharmaceutical alternatives becomes available at the site of drug action when administered at the same molar dose under similar conditions in an appropriately designed study. Where there is an intentional difference in rate (e.g., in certain extended-release dosage forms), certain pharmaceutical equivalents or alternatives may be considered bioequivalent if there is no significant difference in the extent to which the active ingredient or moiety from each product becomes available at the site of drug action. This applies only if the difference in the rate at which the active ingredient or moiety becomes available at the site of drug action is intentional and is reflected in the proposed labeling, is not essential to the attainment of effective body drug concentrations on chronic use, and is considered medically insignificant for the drug. For drug products that are not intended to be absorbed into the bloodstream, bioequivalence may be assessed by scientifically valid measurements intended to reflect the rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moiety becomes available at the site of drug action.
</P>
<P><I>Bioequivalence requirement</I> is a requirement imposed by FDA for in vitro and/or in vivo testing of specified drug products that must be satisfied as a condition of marketing.
</P>
<P><I>Class 1 resubmission</I> is the resubmission of an NDA or efficacy supplement, following receipt of a complete response letter, that contains one or more of the following: Final printed labeling, draft labeling, certain safety updates, stability updates to support provisional or final dating periods, commitments to perform postmarketing studies (including proposals for such studies), assay validation data, final release testing on the last lots used to support approval, minor reanalyses of previously submitted data, and other comparatively minor information.
</P>
<P><I>Class 2 resubmission</I> is the resubmission of an NDA or efficacy supplement, following receipt of a complete response letter, that includes any item not specified in the definition of “Class 1 resubmission,” including any item that would require presentation to an advisory committee.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial marketing</I> is the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of a drug product described in an ANDA, outside the control of the ANDA applicant, except that the term does not include transfer of the drug product for investigational use under part 312 of this chapter or transfer of the drug product to parties identified in the ANDA for reasons other than sale. Commercial marketing includes the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the reference listed drug by the ANDA applicant.
</P>
<P><I>Complete response letter</I> is a written communication to an applicant from FDA usually describing all of the deficiencies that the Agency has identified in an NDA or ANDA that must be satisfactorily addressed before it can be approved.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> is any ingredient intended for use in the manufacture of a drug product, including those that may not appear in such drug product.
</P>
<P><I>Date of approval</I> is the date on the approval letter from FDA stating that the NDA or ANDA is approved, except that the date of approval for an NDA described in section 505(x)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is determined as described in section 505(x)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. “Date of approval” refers only to a final approval and not to a tentative approval.
</P>
<P><I>Dosage form</I> is the physical manifestation containing the active and inactive ingredients that delivers a dose of the drug product. This includes such factors as:
</P>
<P>(1) The physical appearance of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(2) The physical form of the drug product prior to dispensing to the patient;
</P>
<P>(3) The way the product is administered; and
</P>
<P>(4) The design features that affect frequency of dosing.
</P>
<P><I>Drug product</I> is a finished dosage form, e.g., tablet, capsule, or solution, that contains a drug substance, generally, but not necessarily, in association with one or more other ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Drug substance</I> is an active ingredient that is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease or to affect the structure or any function of the human body, but does not include intermediates used in the synthesis of such ingredient.
</P>
<P><I>Efficacy supplement</I> is a supplement to an approved NDA proposing to make one or more related changes from among the following changes to product labeling:
</P>
<P>(1) Add or modify an indication or claim;
</P>
<P>(2) Revise the dose or dose regimen;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for a new route of administration;
</P>
<P>(4) Make a comparative efficacy claim naming another drug product;
</P>
<P>(5) Significantly alter the intended patient population;
</P>
<P>(6) Change the marketing status from prescription to over-the-counter use;
</P>
<P>(7) Provide for, or provide evidence of effectiveness necessary for, the traditional approval of a product originally approved under subpart H of this part; or
</P>
<P>(8) Incorporate other information based on at least one adequate and well-controlled clinical study.
</P>
<P><I>FDA or Agency</I> is the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>First applicant</I> is an ANDA applicant that, on the first day on which a substantially complete application containing a paragraph IV certification is submitted for approval of a drug, submits a substantially complete application that contains, and for which the applicant lawfully maintains, a paragraph IV certification for the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive ingredient</I> is any component other than an active ingredient.
</P>
<P><I>Listed drug</I> is a new drug product that has been approved under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for safety and effectiveness or under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which has not been withdrawn or suspended under section 505(e)(1) through (5) or section 505(j)(6) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and which has not been withdrawn from sale for what FDA has determined are reasons of safety or effectiveness. Listed drug status is evidenced by the drug product's identification in the current edition of FDA's “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations” (the list) as an approved drug. A drug product is deemed to be a listed drug on the date of approval for the NDA or ANDA for that drug product.
</P>
<P><I>NDA holder</I> is the applicant that owns an approved NDA.
</P>
<P><I>Newly acquired information</I> is data, analyses, or other information not previously submitted to the Agency, which may include (but is not limited to) data derived from new clinical studies, reports of adverse events, or new analyses of previously submitted data (e.g., meta-analyses) if the studies, events, or analyses reveal risks of a different type or greater severity or frequency than previously included in submissions to FDA.
</P>
<P><I>Original application or original NDA</I> is a pending NDA for which FDA has never issued a complete response letter or approval letter, or an NDA that was submitted again after FDA had refused to file it or after it was withdrawn without being approved.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph IV acknowledgment letter</I> is a written, postmarked communication from FDA to an applicant stating that the Agency has determined that a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA containing a paragraph IV certification is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review. A paragraph IV acknowledgment letter indicates that the 505(b)(2) application is regarded as filed or the ANDA is regarded as received.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph IV certification</I> is a patent certification of invalidity, unenforceability, or noninfringement described in § 314.50(i)(1)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) or § 314.94(a)(12)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Patent owner</I> is the owner of the patent for which information is submitted for an NDA.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmaceutical alternatives</I> are drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its precursor, but not necessarily in the same amount or dosage form or as the same salt or ester. Each such drug product individually meets either the identical or its own respective compendial or other applicable standard of identity, strength, quality, and purity, including potency and, where applicable, content uniformity, disintegration times, and/or dissolution rates.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmaceutical equivalents</I> are drug products in identical dosage forms and route(s) of administration that contain identical amounts of the identical active drug ingredient, <I>i.e.,</I> the same salt or ester of the same therapeutic moiety, or, in the case of modified-release dosage forms that require a reservoir or overage or such forms as prefilled syringes where residual volume may vary, that deliver identical amounts of the active drug ingredient over the identical dosing period; do not necessarily contain the same inactive ingredients; and meet the identical compendial or other applicable standard of identity, strength, quality, and purity, including potency and, where applicable, content uniformity, disintegration times, and/or dissolution rates.
</P>
<P><I>Postmark</I> is an independently verifiable evidentiary record of the date on which a document is transmitted, in an unmodifiable format, to another party. For postmarks made by the U.S. Postal Service or a designated delivery service, the date of transmission is the date on which the document is received by the domestic mail service of the U.S. Postal Service or by a designated delivery service. For postmarks documenting an electronic event, the date of transmission is the date (in a particular time zone) that FDA sends the electronic transmission on its host system as evidenced by a verifiable record. If the sender and the intended recipient are located in different time zones, it is the sender's time zone that provides the controlling date of electronic transmission.
</P>
<P><I>Reference listed drug</I> is the listed drug identified by FDA as the drug product upon which an applicant relies in seeking approval of its ANDA.
</P>
<P><I>Reference standard</I> is the drug product selected by FDA that an applicant seeking approval of an ANDA must use in conducting an in vivo bioequivalence study required for approval.
</P>
<P><I>Resubmission,</I> in the context of a complete response letter, is submission by the applicant of all materials needed to fully address all deficiencies identified in the complete response letter. An NDA or ANDA for which FDA issued a complete response letter, but which was withdrawn before approval and later submitted again, is not a resubmission.
</P>
<P><I>Right of reference or use</I> is the authority to rely upon, and otherwise use, an investigation for the purpose of obtaining approval of an NDA, including the ability to make available the underlying raw data from the investigation for FDA audit, if necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Same drug product formulation</I> is the formulation of the drug product submitted for approval and any formulations that have minor differences in composition or method of manufacture from the formulation submitted for approval, but are similar enough to be relevant to the Agency's determination of bioequivalence.
</P>
<P><I>Specification</I> is the quality standard (<I>i.e.,</I> tests, analytical procedures, and acceptance criteria) provided in an approved NDA or ANDA to confirm the quality of drug substances, drug products, intermediates, raw materials, reagents, components, in-process materials, container closure systems, and other materials used in the production of a drug substance or drug product. For the purpose of this definition, acceptance criteria means numerical limits, ranges, or other criteria for the tests described.
</P>
<P><I>Strength</I> is the amount of drug substance contained in, delivered, or deliverable from a drug product, which includes:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The total quantity of drug substance in mass or units of activity in a dosage unit or container closure (e.g., weight/unit dose, weight/volume or weight/weight in a container closure, or units/volume or units/weight in a container closure); and/or, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The concentration of the drug substance in mass or units of activity per unit volume or mass (e.g., weight/weight, weight/volume, or units/volume); or
</P>
<P>(2) Such other criteria the Agency establishes for determining the amount of drug substance contained in, delivered, or deliverable from a drug product if the weights and measures described in paragraph (i) of this definition do not apply (e.g., certain drug-device combination products for which the amount of drug substance is emitted per use or unit time).
</P>
<P><I>Substantially complete application</I> is an ANDA that on its face is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review. Sufficiently complete means that the ANDA contains all the information required under section 505(j)(2)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and does not contain a deficiency described in § 314.101(d) and (e).
</P>
<P><I>Tentative approval</I> is notification that an NDA or ANDA otherwise meets the requirements for approval under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, but cannot be approved because there is a 7-year period of orphan exclusivity for a listed drug under section 527 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 316.31 of this chapter, or that a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA otherwise meets the requirements for approval under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, but cannot be approved until the conditions in § 314.107(b)(1)(iii), (b)(3), or (c) are met; because there is a period of exclusivity for the listed drug under § 314.108; because there is a period of pediatric exclusivity for the listed drug under section 505A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; because there is a period of exclusivity for the listed drug under section 505E of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or because a court order pursuant to 35 U.S.C. 271(e)(4)(A) orders that the NDA or ANDA may be approved no earlier than the date specified. A drug product that is granted tentative approval is not an approved drug and will not be approved until FDA issues an approval letter after any necessary additional review of the NDA or ANDA.
</P>
<P><I>The list</I> is the list of approved drug products published in FDA's current “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations,” available electronically on FDA's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/cder</I>.
</P>
<P><I>Therapeutic equivalents</I> are approved drug products that are pharmaceutical equivalents for which bioequivalence has been demonstrated, and that can be expected to have the same clinical effect and safety profile when administered to patients under the conditions specified in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69636, Oct. 6, 2016]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.50   Content and format of an NDA.</HEAD>
<P>NDAs and supplements to approved NDAs are required to be submitted in the form and contain the information, as appropriate for the particular submission, required under this section. Three copies of the NDA are required: An archival copy, a review copy, and a field copy. An NDA for a new chemical entity will generally contain an application form, an index, a summary, five or six technical sections, case report tabulations of patient data, case report forms, drug samples, and labeling, including, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter. Other NDAs will generally contain only some of those items, and information will be limited to that needed to support the particular submission. These include an NDA of the type described in section 505(b)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, an amendment, and a supplement. The NDA is required to contain reports of all investigations of the drug product sponsored by the applicant, and all other information about the drug pertinent to an evaluation of the NDA that is received or otherwise obtained by the applicant from any source. FDA will maintain guidance documents on the format and content of NDAs to assist applicants in their preparation.








</P>
<P>(a) <I>Application form.</I> The applicant must submit a completed and signed application form that contains the following:


</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant; the date of the NDA; the NDA number if previously issued (for example, if the NDA is a resubmission or an amendment or supplement); the name of the drug product, including its established, proprietary, code, and chemical names; the dosage form and strength; the route of administration; the identification numbers of all INDs (as defined in § 312.3(b) of this chapter) that are referenced in the NDA; the identification numbers of all drug master files and other applications under this part that are referenced in the NDA; and the drug product's proposed indications for use.






</P>
<P>(2) A statement whether the submission is an original submission, a 505(b)(2) application, a resubmission, or a supplement to an application under § 314.70.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement whether the applicant proposes to market the drug product as a prescription or an over-the-counter product.
</P>
<P>(4) A check-list identifying what enclosures required under this section the applicant is submitting.
</P>
<P>(5) The applicant, or the applicant's attorney, agent, or other authorized official must sign the NDA. If the person signing the NDA does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the NDA is required to contain the name and address of, and be countersigned by, an attorney, agent, or other authorized official who resides or maintains a place of business within the United States.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Index.</I> The archival copy of the NDA is required to contain a comprehensive index by volume number and page number to the summary under paragraph (c) of this section, the technical sections under paragraph (d) of this section, and the supporting information under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Summary.</I> (1) An NDA is required to contain a summary of the NDA in enough detail that the reader may gain a good general understanding of the data and information in the NDA, including an understanding of the quantitative aspects of the data. The summary is not required for supplements under § 314.70. Resubmissions of an NDA should contain an updated summary, as appropriate. The summary should discuss all aspects of the NDA, and synthesize the information into a well-structured and unified document. The summary should be written at approximately the level of detail required for publication in, and meet the editorial standards generally applied by, refereed scientific and medical journals. In addition to the agency personnel reviewing the summary in the context of their review of the NDA, FDA may furnish the summary to FDA advisory committee members and agency officials whose duties require an understanding of the NDA. To the extent possible, data in the summary should be presented in tabular and graphic forms. FDA has prepared a guideline under § 10.90(b) that provides information about how to prepare a summary. The summary required under this paragraph may be used by FDA or the applicant to prepare the Summary Basis of Approval document for public disclosure (under § 314.430(e)(2)(ii)) when the NDA is approved.
</P>
<P>(2) The summary is required to contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed text of the labeling, including, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter, for the drug, with annotations to the information in the summary and technical sections of the NDA that support the inclusion of each statement in the labeling, and, if the NDA is for a prescription drug, statements describing the reasons for omitting a section or subsection of the labeling format in § 201.57 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement identifying the pharmacologic class of the drug and a discussion of the scientific rationale for the drug, its intended use, and the potential clinical benefits of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief description of the marketing history, if any, of the drug outside the United States, including a list of the countries in which the drug has been marketed, a list of any countries in which the drug has been withdrawn from marketing for any reason related to safety or effectiveness, and a list of countries in which applications for marketing are pending. The description is required to describe both marketing by the applicant and, if known, the marketing history of other persons.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the chemistry, manufacturing, and controls section of the NDA.
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of the nonclinical pharmacology and toxicology section of the NDA.
</P>
<P>(vi) A summary of the human pharmacokinetics and bioavailability section of the NDA.
</P>
<P>(vii) A summary of the microbiology section of the NDA (for anti-infective drugs only).
</P>
<P>(viii) A summary of the clinical data section of the NDA, including the results of statistical analyses of the clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(ix) A concluding discussion that presents the benefit and risk considerations related to the drug, including a discussion of any proposed additional studies or surveillance the applicant intends to conduct postmarketing.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Technical sections.</I> The NDA is required to contain the technical sections described below. Each technical section is required to contain data and information in sufficient detail to permit the agency to make a knowledgeable judgment about whether to approve the NDA or whether grounds exist under section 505(d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to refuse to approve the NDA. The required technical sections are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chemistry, manufacturing, and controls section.</I> A section describing the composition, manufacture, and specification of the drug substance and the drug product, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Drug substance.</I> A full description of the drug substance including its physical and chemical characteristics and stability; the name and address of its manufacturer; the method of synthesis (or isolation) and purification of the drug substance; the process controls used during manufacture and packaging; and the specifications necessary to ensure the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the drug substance and the bioavailability of the drug products made from the substance, including, for example, tests, analytical procedures, and acceptance criteria relating to stability, sterility, particle size, and crystalline form. The NDA may provide additionally for the use of alternatives to meet any of these requirements, including alternative sources, process controls, and analytical procedures. Reference to the current edition of the U.S. Pharmacopeia and the National Formulary may satisfy relevant requirements in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>(a)</I>) <I>Drug product.</I> A list of all components used in the manufacture of the drug product (regardless of whether they appear in the drug product) and a statement of the composition of the drug product; the specifications for each component; the name and address of each manufacturer of the drug product; a description of the manufacturing and packaging procedures and in-process controls for the drug product; the specifications necessary to ensure the identity, strength, quality, purity, potency, and bioavailability of the drug product, including, for example, tests, analytical procedures, and acceptance criteria relating to sterility, dissolution rate, container closure systems; and stability data with proposed expiration dating. The NDA may provide additionally for the use of alternatives to meet any of these requirements, including alternative components, manufacturing and packaging procedures, in-process controls, and analytical procedures. Reference to the current edition of the U.S. Pharmacopeia and the National Formulary may satisfy relevant requirements in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Unless provided by paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(<I>a</I>) of this section, for each batch of the drug product used to conduct a bioavailability or bioequivalence study described in § 320.38 or § 320.63 of this chapter or used to conduct a primary stability study: The batch production record; the specification for each component and for the drug product; the names and addresses of the sources of the active and noncompendial inactive components and of the container and closure system for the drug product; the name and address of each contract facility involved in the manufacture, processing, packaging, or testing of the drug product and identification of the operation performed by each contract facility; and the results of any test performed on the components used in the manufacture of the drug product as required by § 211.84(d) of this chapter and on the drug product as required by § 211.165 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The proposed or actual master production record, including a description of the equipment, to be used for the manufacture of a commercial lot of the drug product or a comparably detailed description of the production process for a representative batch of the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Environmental impact.</I> The NDA is required to contain either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or 25.31 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant may, at its option, submit a complete chemistry, manufacturing, and controls section 90 to 120 days before the anticipated submission of the remainder of the NDA. FDA will review such early submissions as resources permit.
</P>
<P>(v) The applicant must include a statement certifying that the field copy of the NDA has been provided to the applicant's home FDA district office. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonclinical pharmacology and toxicology section.</I> A section describing, with the aid of graphs and tables, animal and in vitro studies with drug, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Studies of the pharmacological actions of the drug in relation to its proposed therapeutic indication and studies that otherwise define the pharmacologic properties of the drug or are pertinent to possible adverse effects.
</P>
<P>(ii) Studies of the toxicological effects of the drug as they relate to the drug's intended clinical uses, including, as appropriate, studies assessing the drug's acute, subacute, and chronic toxicity; carcinogenicity; and studies of toxicities related to the drug's particular mode of administration or conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Studies, as appropriate, of the effects of the drug on reproduction and on the developing fetus.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any studies of the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the drug in animals.
</P>
<P>(v) For each nonclinical laboratory study subject to the good laboratory practice regulations under part 58 a statement that it was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Human pharmacokinetics and bioavailability section.</I> A section describing the human pharmacokinetic data and human bioavailability data, or information supporting a waiver of the submission of in vivo bioavailability data under subpart B of part 320, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of each of the bioavailability and pharmacokinetic studies of the drug in humans performed by or on behalf of the applicant that includes a description of the analytical procedures and statistical methods used in each study and a statement with respect to each study that it either was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the NDA describes in the chemistry, manufacturing, and controls section tests, analytical procedures, and acceptance criteria needed to assure the bioavailability of the drug product or drug substance, or both, a statement in this section of the rationale for establishing the tests, analytical procedures, and acceptance criteria, including data and information supporting the rationale.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summarizing discussion and analysis of the pharmacokinetics and metabolism of the active ingredients and the bioavailability or bioequivalence, or both, of the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Microbiology section.</I> If the drug is an anti-infective drug, a section describing the microbiology data, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the biochemical basis of the drug's action on microbial physiology.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the antimicrobial spectra of the drug, including results of in vitro preclinical studies to demonstrate concentrations of the drug required for effective use.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any known mechanisms of resistance to the drug, including results of any known epidemiologic studies to demonstrate prevalence of resistance factors.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of clinical microbiology laboratory procedures (for example, in vitro sensitivity discs) needed for effective use of the drug.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Clinical data section.</I> A section describing the clinical investigations of the drug, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description and analysis of each clinical pharmacology study of the drug, including a brief comparison of the results of the human studies with the animal pharmacology and toxicology data. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description and analysis of each controlled clinical study pertinent to a proposed use of the drug, including the protocol and a description of the statistical analyses used to evaluate the study. If the study report is an interim analysis, this is to be noted and a projected completion date provided. Controlled clinical studies that have not been analyzed in detail for any reason (e.g., because they have been discontinued or are incomplete) are to be included in this section, including a copy of the protocol and a brief description of the results and status of the study.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of each uncontrolled clinical study, a summary of the results, and a brief statement explaining why the study is classified as uncontrolled.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description and analysis of any other data or information relevant to an evaluation of the safety and effectiveness of the drug product obtained or otherwise received by the applicant from any source, foreign or domestic, including information derived from clinical investigations, including controlled and uncontrolled studies of uses of the drug other than those proposed in the NDA, commercial marketing experience, reports in the scientific literature, and unpublished scientific papers.
</P>
<P>(v) An integrated summary of the data demonstrating substantial evidence of effectiveness for the claimed indications. Evidence is also required to support the dosage and administration section of the labeling, including support for the dosage and dose interval recommended. The effectiveness data must be presented by gender, age, and racial subgroups and must identify any modifications of dose or dose interval needed for specific subgroups. Effectiveness data from other subgroups of the population of patients treated, when appropriate, such as patients with renal failure or patients with different levels of severity of the disease, also must be presented.
</P>
<P>(vi) A summary and updates of safety information, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The applicant must submit an integrated summary of all available information about the safety of the drug product, including pertinent animal data, demonstrated or potential adverse effects of the drug, clinically significant drug/drug interactions, and other safety considerations, such as data from epidemiological studies of related drugs. The safety data must be presented by gender, age, and racial subgroups. When appropriate, safety data from other subgroups of the population of patients treated also must be presented, such as for patients with renal failure or patients with different levels of severity of the disease. A description of any statistical analyses performed in analyzing safety data should also be included, unless already included under paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section. 




</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The applicant must, under section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, update periodically its pending NDA with new safety information learned about the drug that may reasonably affect the statement of contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse reactions in the draft labeling and, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter. These “safety update reports” must include the same kinds of information (from clinical studies, animal studies, and other sources) and must be submitted in the same format as the integrated summary in paragraph (d)(5)(vi)(<I>a</I>) of this section. In addition, the reports must include the case report forms for each patient who died during a clinical study or who did not complete the study because of an adverse event (unless this requirement is waived). The applicant must submit these reports (<I>1</I>) 4 months after the initial submission; (<I>2</I>) in a resubmission following receipt of a complete response letter; and (<I>3</I>) at other times as requested by FDA. Before submitting the first such report, applicants are encouraged to consult with FDA regarding further details on its form and content. 






</P>
<P>(vii) If the drug has a potential for abuse, a description and analysis of studies or information related to abuse of the drug, including a proposal for scheduling under the Controlled Substances Act. A description of any studies related to overdosage is also required, including information on dialysis, antidotes, or other treatments, if known. 
</P>
<P>(viii) An integrated summary of the benefits and risks of the drug, including a discussion of why the benefits exceed the risks under the conditions stated in the labeling. 
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement with respect to each clinical study involving human subjects that it either was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50. 
</P>
<P>(x) If a sponsor has transferred any obligations for the conduct of any clinical study to a contract research organization, a statement containing the name and address of the contract research organization, identification of the clinical study, and a listing of the obligations transferred. If all obligations governing the conduct of the study have been transferred, a general statement of this transfer—in lieu of a listing of the specific obligations transferred—may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(xi) If original subject records were audited or reviewed by the sponsor in the course of monitoring any clinical study to verify the accuracy of the case reports submitted to the sponsor, a list identifying each clinical study so audited or reviewed.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Statistical section.</I> A section describing the statistical evaluation of clinical data, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the information submitted under paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section concerning the description and analysis of each controlled clinical study, and the documentation and supporting statistical analyses used in evaluating the controlled clinical studies. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the information submitted under paragraph (d)(5)(vi)(<I>a</I>) of this section concerning a summary of information about the safety of the drug product, and the documentation and supporting statistical analyses used in evaluating the safety information.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Pediatric use section.</I> A section describing the investigation of the drug for use in pediatric populations, including an integrated summary of the information (the clinical pharmacology studies, controlled clinical studies, or uncontrolled clinical studies, or other data or information) that is relevant to the safety and effectiveness and benefits and risks of the drug in pediatric populations for the claimed indications, a reference to the full descriptions of such studies provided under paragraphs (d)(3) and (d)(5) of this section, and information required to be submitted under § 314.55.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Samples and labeling.</I> (1) Upon request from FDA, the applicant must submit the samples described below to the places identified in the Agency's request. FDA generally will ask applicants to submit samples directly to two or more Agency laboratories that will perform all necessary tests on the samples and validate the applicant's analytical procedures.












</P>
<P>(i) Four representative samples of the following, each sample in sufficient quantity to permit FDA to perform three times each test described in the NDA to determine whether the drug substance and the drug product meet the specifications given in the NDA:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The drug product proposed for marketing; 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The drug substance used in the drug product from which the samples of the drug product were taken; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Reference standards and blanks (except that reference standards recognized in an official compendium need not be submitted).
</P>
<P>(ii) Samples of the finished market package, if requested by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant must submit the following in the archival copy of the NDA:
</P>
<P>(i) Three copies of the analytical procedures and related descriptive information contained in the chemistry, manufacturing, and controls section under paragraph (d)(1) of this section for the drug substance and the drug product that are necessary for FDA's laboratories to perform all necessary tests on the samples and to validate the applicant's analytical procedures. The related descriptive information includes a description of each sample; the proposed regulatory specifications for the drug; a detailed description of the methods of analysis; supporting data for accuracy, specificity, precision and ruggedness; and complete results of the applicant's tests on each sample.
</P>
<P>(ii) Copies of the label and all labeling for the drug product (including, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter) for the drug product (4 copies of draft labeling or 12 copies of final printed labeling).




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Case report forms and tabulations.</I> The archival copy of the NDA is required to contain the following case report tabulations and case report forms:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Case report tabulations.</I> The NDA is required to contain tabulations of the data from each adequate and well-controlled study under § 314.126 (Phase 2 and Phase 3 studies as described in §§ 312.21 (b) and (c) of this chapter), tabulations of the data from the earliest clinical pharmacology studies (Phase 1 studies as described in § 312.21(a) of this chapter), and tabulations of the safety data from other clinical studies. Routine submission of other patient data from uncontrolled studies is not required. The tabulations are required to include the data on each patient in each study, except that the applicant may delete those tabulations which the agency agrees, in advance, are not pertinent to a review of the drug's safety or effectiveness. Upon request, FDA will discuss with the applicant in a “pre-NDA” conference those tabulations that may be appropriate for such deletion. Barring unforeseen circumstances, tabulations agreed to be deleted at such a conference will not be requested during the conduct of FDA's review of the NDA. If such unforeseen circumstances do occur, any request for deleted tabulations will be made by the director of the FDA division responsible for reviewing the NDA, in accordance with paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Case report forms.</I> The NDA is required to contain copies of individual case report forms for each patient who died during a clinical study or who did not complete the study because of an adverse event, whether believed to be drug related or not, including patients receiving reference drugs or placebo. This requirement may be waived by FDA for specific studies if the case report forms are unnecessary for a proper review of the study.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional data.</I> The applicant must submit to FDA additional case report forms and tabulations needed to conduct a proper review of the NDA, as requested by the director of the FDA division responsible for reviewing the NDA. The applicant's failure to submit information requested by FDA within 30 days after receipt of the request may result in the agency viewing any eventual submission as a major amendment under § 314.60 and extending the review period as necessary. If desired by the applicant, the FDA division director will verify in writing any request for additional data that was made orally. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Presentation and format.</I> Applicants are invited to meet with FDA before submitting an NDA to discuss the presentation and format of supporting information. If the applicant and FDA agree, the applicant may submit tabulations of patient data and case report forms in an alternate form.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Other.</I> The following general requirements apply to the submission of information within the summary under paragraph (c) of this section and within the technical sections under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant ordinarily is not required to resubmit information previously submitted, but may incorporate the information by reference. A reference to information submitted previously is required to identify the file by name, reference number, volume, and page number in the agency's records where the information can be found. A reference to information submitted to the agency by a person other than the applicant is required to contain a written statement that authorizes the reference and that is signed by the person who submitted the information.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant must submit an accurate and complete English translation of each part of the NDA that is not in English. The applicant must submit a copy of each original literature publication for which an English translation is submitted.






</P>
<P>(3) If an applicant who submits an NDA under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act obtains a “right of reference or use,” as defined under § 314.3(b), to an investigation described in clause (A) of section 505(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the applicant must include in its NDA a written statement signed by the owner of the data from each such investigation that the applicant may rely on in support of the approval of its NDA, and provide FDA access to, the underlying raw data that provide the basis for the report of the investigation submitted in its NDA.


</P>
<P>(h) <I>Patent information.</I> The NDA is required to contain the patent information described under § 314.53. 




</P>
<P>(i) <I>Patent certification</I>—(1) <I>Contents.</I> A 505(b)(2) application is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Patents claiming drug substance, drug product, or method of use.</I> (A) An appropriate patent certification or statement with respect to each patent issued by the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office that, in the opinion of the applicant and to the best of its knowledge, claims the drug substance or drug product on which investigations that are relied upon by the applicant for approval of its 505(b)(2) application were conducted or that claims an approved use for such drug and for which information is required to be filed under section 505(b) and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53. For each such patent, the applicant must provide the patent number and certify, in its opinion and to the best of its knowledge, one of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That the patent information has not been submitted to FDA. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph I Certification”;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That the patent has expired. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph II Certification”;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The date on which the patent will expire. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph III Certification”; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>)(<I>i</I>) That the patent is invalid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed by the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product for which the 505(b)(2) application is submitted. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph IV Certification”. This certification must be submitted in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I, (<I>name of applicant</I>), certify that Patent No. ____ (<I>is invalid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed by the manufacture, use, or sale of</I>) (<I>name of proposed drug product</I>) for which this 505(b)(2) application is submitted.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The certification must be accompanied by a statement that the applicant will comply with the requirements under § 314.52(a) with respect to providing a notice to each owner of the patent or its representative and to the NDA holder (or, if the NDA holder does not reside or maintain a place of business within the United States, its attorney, agent, or other authorized official) for the drug product that is claimed by the patent or a use of which is claimed by the patent and with the requirements under § 314.52(b) with respect to sending the notice and under § 314.52(c) with respect to the content of the notice.
</P>
<P>(B) If the drug on which investigations that are relied upon by the applicant were conducted is itself a licensed generic drug of a patented drug first approved under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, an appropriate patent certification or statement under this section with respect to each patent that claims the first-approved patented drug or that claims an approved use for such a drug.
</P>
<P>(C) If, before the date of submission of an original 505(b)(2) application, there is a drug product approved in an NDA that is pharmaceutically equivalent to the drug product for which the original 505(b)(2) application is submitted, an appropriate patent certification or statement under this section with respect to each patent that claims the drug substance or drug product or that claims an approved use for one such drug product.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No relevant patents.</I> If, in the opinion of the applicant and to the best of its knowledge, there are no patents described in paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section, a certification in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In the opinion and to the best knowledge of (<I>name of applicant</I>), there are no patents that claim the drug or drugs on which investigations that are relied upon in this 505(b)(2) application were conducted or that claim a use of such drug or drugs.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Method-of-use patent.</I> (A) If information that is submitted under section 505(b) or (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53 is for a method-of-use patent, and the labeling for the drug product for which the applicant is seeking approval does not include an indication or other condition of use that is covered by the method-of-use patent, a statement explaining that the method-of-use patent does not claim a proposed indication or other condition of use.
</P>
<P>(B) If the labeling of the drug product for which the applicant is seeking approval includes an indication or other condition of use that, according to the patent information submitted under section 505(b) or (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53 or in the opinion of the applicant, is claimed by a method-of-use patent, the applicant must submit an applicable certification under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Licensing agreements.</I> If a 505(b)(2) application is submitted for a drug or method of using a drug claimed by a patent and the applicant has a licensing agreement with the patent owner, the applicant must submit a paragraph IV certification as to that patent and a statement that the applicant has been granted a patent license. If the patent owner consents to approval of the 505(b)(2) application (if otherwise eligible for approval) as of a specific date, the 505(b)(2) application must contain a written statement from the patent owner that it has a licensing agreement with the applicant and that it consents to approval of the 505(b)(2) application as of a specific date.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Untimely filing of patent information.</I> (i) If a patent described in paragraph (i)(1)(i)(A) of this section is issued and the holder of the approved NDA for the patented drug does not file with FDA the required information on the patent within 30 days of issuance of the patent, an applicant who submitted a 505(b)(2) application that, before the submission of the patent information, contained an appropriate patent certification or statement is not required to submit a patent certification or statement to address the patent or patent information that is late-listed with respect to the pending 505(b)(2) application. Except as provided in § 314.53(f)(1), an NDA holder's amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent will be considered untimely filing of patent information unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent is submitted within 30 days of patent issuance;
</P>
<P>(B) The amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent is submitted within 30 days of approval of a corresponding change to product labeling; or
</P>
<P>(C) The amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent is submitted within 30 days of a decision by the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office or by a Federal district court, the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit, or the U.S. Supreme Court that is specific to the patent and alters the construction of a method-of-use claim(s) of the patent, and the amendment contains a copy of the decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) An applicant whose 505(b)(2) application is submitted after the NDA holder's untimely filing of patent information or whose 505(b)(2) application was previously filed but did not contain an appropriate patent certification or statement at the time of the patent submission must submit a certification under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section and/or a statement under paragraph (i)(1)(iii) of this section as to that patent.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disputed patent information.</I> If an applicant disputes the accuracy or relevance of patent information submitted to FDA, the applicant may seek a confirmation of the correctness of the patent information in accordance with the procedures under § 314.53(f). Unless the patent information is withdrawn, the applicant must submit an appropriate certification or statement for each listed patent.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Amended certifications.</I> A patent certification or statement submitted under paragraphs (i)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section may be amended at any time before the approval of the 505(b)(2) application. An applicant must submit an amended certification as an amendment to a pending 505(b)(2) application. If an applicant with a pending 505(b)(2) application voluntarily makes a patent certification for an untimely filed patent, the applicant may withdraw the patent certification for the untimely filed patent. Once an amendment is submitted to change the certification, the 505(b)(2) application will no longer be considered to contain the prior certification.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>After finding of infringement.</I> An applicant who has submitted a paragraph IV certification and is sued for patent infringement must submit an amendment to change its certification if a court enters a final decision from which no appeal has been or can be taken, or signs and enters a settlement order or consent decree in the action that includes a finding that the patent is infringed, unless the final decision, settlement order, or consent decree also finds the patent to be invalid. In its amendment, the applicant must certify under paragraph (i)(1)(i)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section that the patent will expire on a specific date or, with respect to a patent claiming a method of use, the applicant may instead provide a statement under paragraph (i)(1)(iii) of this section if the applicant amends its 505(b)(2) application such that the applicant is no longer seeking approval for a method of use claimed by the patent. Once an amendment for the change has been submitted, the 505(b)(2) application will no longer be considered to contain a paragraph IV certification to the patent. If a final decision finds the patent to be invalid and infringed, an amended certification is not required.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>After request to remove a patent or patent information from the list.</I> If the list reflects that an NDA holder has requested that a patent or patent information be removed from the list and no ANDA applicant is eligible for 180-day exclusivity based on a paragraph IV certification to that patent, the patent or patent information will be removed and any applicant with a pending 505(b)(2) application (including a tentatively approved 505(b)(2) application) who has made a certification with respect to such patent must submit an amendment to withdraw its certification. In the amendment, the applicant must state the reason for withdrawing the certification or statement (that the patent has been removed from the list). If the list reflects that an NDA holder has requested that a patent or patent information be removed from the list and one or more first applicants are eligible for 180-day exclusivity based on a paragraph IV certification to that patent, the patent will remain listed until any 180-day exclusivity based on that patent has expired or has been extinguished. A 505(b)(2) applicant is not required to provide or maintain a certification to a patent or patent information that remains listed only for purposes of a first applicant's 180-day exclusivity for its ANDA. Once an amendment to withdraw the certification has been submitted, the 505(b)(2) application will no longer be considered to contain a paragraph IV certification to the patent. If removal of a patent from the list results in there being no patents listed for the listed drug(s) identified in the 505(b)(2) application, the applicant must submit an amended certification reflecting that there are no listed patents.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other amendments.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraphs (i)(4) and (i)(6)(iii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An applicant must amend a submitted certification or statement if, at any time before the approval of the 505(b)(2) application, the applicant learns that the submitted certification or statement is no longer accurate; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An applicant must submit an appropriate patent certification or statement under paragraph (i)(1) of this section if, after submission of the 505(b)(2) application, a new patent is issued by the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office that, in the opinion of the applicant and to the best of its knowledge, claims a listed drug relied upon or that claims an approved use for such listed drug for which information is required to be filed under section 505(b) and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53.
</P>
<P>(B) An applicant is not required to submit a supplement to change a submitted certification when information on an otherwise applicable patent is submitted after the approval of the 505(b)(2) application.




</P>
<P>(j) <I>Claimed exclusivity.</I> A new drug product, upon approval, may be entitled to a period of marketing exclusivity under the provisions of § 314.108. If an applicant believes its drug product is entitled to a period of exclusivity, it must submit with the NDA prior to approval the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the applicant is claiming exclusivity. 
</P>
<P>(2) A reference to the appropriate paragraph under § 314.108 that supports its claim.
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant claims exclusivity under § 314.108(b)(2), information to show that, to the best of its knowledge or belief, a drug has not previously been approved under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act containing any active moiety in the drug for which the applicant is seeking approval. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the applicant claims exclusivity under § 314.108(b)(4) or (b)(5), the following information to show that the NDA contains “new clinical investigations” that are “essential to approval of the NDA or supplement” and were “conducted or sponsored by the applicant:” 






</P>
<P>(i) <I>“New clinical investigations.</I>” A certification that to the best of the applicant's knowledge each of the clinical investigations included in the NDA meets the definition of “new clinical investigation” set forth in § 314.108(a). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>“Essential to approval.”</I> A list of all published studies or publicly available reports of clinical investigations known to the applicant through a literature search that are relevant to the conditions for which the applicant is seeking approval, a certification that the applicant has thoroughly searched the scientific literature and, to the best of the applicant's knowledge, the list is complete and accurate and, in the applicant's opinion, such published studies or publicly available reports do not provide a sufficient basis for the approval of the conditions for which the applicant is seeking approval without reference to the new clinical investigation(s) in the NDA, and an explanation as to why the studies or reports are insufficient. 


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>“Conducted or sponsored by.”</I> If the applicant was the sponsor named in the Form FDA 1571 for an IND under which the new clinical investigation(s) that is essential to the approval of its NDA was conducted, identification of the IND by number. If the applicant was not the sponsor of the IND under which the clinical investigation(s) was conducted, a certification that the applicant or its predecessor in interest provided substantial support for the clinical investigation(s) that is essential to the approval of its NDA, and information supporting the certification. 



 To demonstrate “substantial support,” an applicant must either provide a certified statement from a certified public accountant that the applicant provided 50 percent or more of the cost of conducting the study or provide an explanation of why FDA should consider the applicant to have conducted or sponsored the study if the applicant's financial contribution to the study is less than 50 percent or the applicant did not sponsor the investigational new drug. A predecessor in interest is an entity, e.g., a corporation, that the applicant has taken over, merged with, or purchased, or from which the applicant has purchased all rights to the drug. Purchase of nonexclusive rights to a clinical investigation after it is completed is not sufficient to satisfy this definition.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Financial certification or disclosure statement.</I> The NDA must contain a financial certification or disclosure statement or both as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Format of an original NDA</I>—(1) <I>Archival copy.</I> The applicant must submit a complete archival copy of the NDA that contains the information required under paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section. FDA will maintain the archival copy during the review of the NDA to permit individual reviewers to refer to information that is not contained in their particular technical sections of the NDA, to give other agency personnel access to the NDA for official business, and to maintain in one place a complete copy of the NDA. Except as required by paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, applicants may submit the archival copy on paper or in electronic format provided that electronic submissions are made in accordance with part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Labeling.</I> The content of labeling required under § 201.100(d)(3) of this chapter (commonly referred to as the package insert or professional labeling), including all text, tables, and figures, must be submitted to the agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (l)(5) of this section. This requirement is in addition to the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section that copies of the formatted label and all labeling be submitted. Submissions under this paragraph must be made in accordance with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements of § 11.10(a), (c) through (h), and (k), and the corresponding requirements of § 11.30.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review copy.</I> The applicant must submit a review copy of the NDA. Each of the technical sections, described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (6) of this section, in the review copy is required to be separately bound with a copy of the application form required under paragraph (a) of this section and a copy of the summary required under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Field copy.</I> The applicant must submit a field copy of the NDA that contains the technical section described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a copy of the application form required under paragraph (a) of this section, a copy of the summary required under paragraph (c) of this section, and a certification that the field copy is a true copy of the technical section described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section contained in the archival and review copies of the NDA.










</P>
<P>(4) <I>Binding folders.</I> The applicant may obtain from FDA sufficient folders to bind the archival, the review, and the field copies of the NDA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electronic format submissions.</I> Electronic format submissions must be in a form that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will periodically issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 314.50, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.52" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.52   Notice of certification of invalidity, unenforceability, or noninfringement of a patent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of certification.</I> For each patent that claims the listed drug or drugs relied upon or that claims a use for such listed drug or drugs and for which the 505(b)(2) applicant submits a paragraph IV certification, the applicant must send notice of such certification by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or by a designated delivery service, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section, to each of the following persons:
</P>
<P>(1) Each owner of the patent that is the subject of the certification or the representative designated by the owner to receive the notice. The name and address of the patent owner or its representative may be obtained from the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office; and


</P>
<P>(2) The holder of the approved NDA under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for each drug product which is claimed by the patent or a use of which is claimed by the patent and for which the applicant is seeking approval, or, if the NDA holder does not reside or maintain a place of business within the United States, the NDA holder's attorney, agent, or other authorized official. The name and address of the NDA holder or its attorney, agent, or authorized official may be obtained by sending a written or electronic communication to the Central Document Room, Attn: Orange Book Staff, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, or to the Orange Book Staff at the email address listed on the Agency's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph (a) does not apply to a method-of-use patent that does not claim a use for which the applicant is seeking approval.
</P>
<P>(4) An applicant may send notice by an alternative method only if FDA has agreed in advance that the method will produce an acceptable form of documentation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sending the notice.</I> (1) Except as provided under paragraph (d) of this section, the applicant must send the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section on or after the date of filing described in § 314.101(a)(2) or (3), as applicable, but not later than 20 days after the date of the postmark on the paragraph IV acknowledgment letter. The 20-day clock described in this paragraph (b) begins on the day after the date of the postmark on the paragraph IV acknowledgment letter. When the 20th day falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the 20th day will be the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(2) Any notice required by paragraph (a) of this section is invalid if it is sent before the date of filing described in § 314.101(a)(2) or, if FDA notifies the applicant that FDA has refused to file the 505(b)(2) application, before the date described in § 314.101(a)(3) on which the 505(b)(2) application is filed. The applicant will not have complied with this paragraph (b) until it sends valid notice.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must submit to FDA an amendment to its 505(b)(2) application that includes a statement certifying that the notice has been provided to each person identified under paragraph (a) of this section and that the notice met the content requirement under paragraph (c) of this section. A copy of the notice itself need not be submitted to the Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of a notice.</I> In the notice, the applicant must cite section 505(b)(3)(D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the notice must include, but is not limited to, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that a 505(b)(2) application that contains any required bioavailability or bioequivalence studies has been submitted by the applicant and filed by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The NDA number.
</P>
<P>(3) The established name, if any, as defined in section 502(e)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, of the proposed drug product.
</P>
<P>(4) The active ingredient, strength, and dosage form of the proposed drug product.
</P>
<P>(5) The patent number and expiration date of each patent on the list alleged to be invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed.
</P>
<P>(6) A detailed statement of the factual and legal basis of the applicant's opinion that the patent is not valid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed. The applicant must include in the detailed statement:
</P>
<P>(i) For each claim of a patent alleged not to be infringed, a full and detailed explanation of why the claim is not infringed.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each claim of a patent alleged to be invalid or unenforceable, a full and detailed explanation of the grounds supporting the allegation.
</P>
<P>(7) If the applicant alleges that the patent will not be infringed and the applicant seeks to preserve the option to later file a civil action for declaratory judgment in accordance with section 505(c)(3)(D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, then the notice must be accompanied by an offer of confidential access to the 505(b)(2) application for the sole and limited purpose of evaluating possible infringement of the patent that is the subject of the paragraph IV certification.
</P>
<P>(8) If the applicant does not reside or have a place of business in the United States, the name and address of an agent in the United States authorized to accept service of process for the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment or supplement to a 505(b)(2) application.</I> (1) If, after the date of filing described in § 314.101(a)(2) or (3), as applicable, an applicant submits an amendment or supplement to its 505(b)(2) application that includes a paragraph IV certification, the applicant must send the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section at the same time that the amendment or supplement to the 505(b)(2) application is submitted to FDA, regardless of whether the applicant has already given notice with respect to another such certification contained in the 505(b)(2) application or in an amendment or supplement to the 505(b)(2) application.
</P>
<P>(2) If, before the date of filing described in § 314.101(a)(2) or (3), as applicable, an applicant submits a paragraph IV certification in an amendment, the applicant must send the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the procedures in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant that submits an amendment or supplement to seek approval of a different strength must provide notice of any paragraph IV certification in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Documentation of timely sending and receipt of notice.</I> The applicant must amend its 505(b)(2) application to provide documentation of the date of receipt of the notice required under paragraph (a) of this section by each person provided the notice. The amendment must be submitted to FDA within 30 days after the last date on which notice was received by a person described in paragraph (a) of this section. The applicant's amendment also must include documentation that its notice was sent on a date that complies with the timeframe required by paragraph (b) or (d) of this section, as applicable. FDA will accept, as adequate documentation of the date the notice was sent, a copy of the registered mail receipt, certified mail receipt, or receipt from a designated delivery service, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section. FDA will accept as adequate documentation of the date of receipt a return receipt, a signature proof of delivery by a designated delivery service, or a letter acknowledging receipt by the person provided the notice. An applicant may rely on another form of documentation only if FDA has agreed to such documentation in advance. A copy of the notice itself need not be submitted to the Agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Forty-five day period after receipt of notice.</I> If the requirements of this section are met, the Agency will presume the notice to be complete and sufficient and will count the day following the date of receipt of the notice by the patent owner or its representative and by the approved NDA holder or its attorney, agent, or other authorized official as the first day of the 45-day period provided for in section 505(c)(3)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. FDA may, if the applicant amends its 505(b)(2) application with a written statement that a later date should be used, count from such later date.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Designated delivery services.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, the term “designated delivery service” is any delivery service provided by a trade or business that the Agency determines:
</P>
<P>(i) Is available to the general public throughout the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records electronically to its database, kept in the regular course of its business, or marks on the cover in which any item referred to in this section is to be delivered, the date on which such item was given to such trade or business for delivery; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides overnight or 2-day delivery service throughout the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may periodically issue guidance regarding designated delivery services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69641, Oct. 6, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 6673, Feb. 28, 2019]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.53" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.53   Submission of patent information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must submit patent information.</I> This section applies to any applicant who submits to FDA an NDA or an amendment to it under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.50 or a supplement to an approved NDA under § 314.70, except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Patents for which information must be submitted and patents for which information must not be submitted</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> An applicant described in paragraph (a) of this section must submit to its NDA the required information, on the required FDA declaration form, set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for each patent that claims the drug or a method of using the drug that is the subject of the NDA or amendment or supplement to it and with respect to which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product. For purposes of this part, such patents consist of drug substance (active ingredient) patents, drug product (formulation and composition) patents, and method-of-use patents. For patents that claim the drug substance, the applicant must submit information only on those patents that claim the drug substance that is the subject of the pending or approved NDA or that claim a drug substance that is the same as the active ingredient that is the subject of the approved or pending NDA. For patents that claim only a polymorph that is the same as the active ingredient described in the approved or pending NDA, the applicant must certify in the required FDA declaration form that the applicant has test data, as set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, demonstrating that a drug product containing the polymorph will perform the same as the drug product described in the NDA. For patents that claim a drug product, the applicant must submit information only on those patents that claim the drug product, as is defined in § 314.3, that is described in the pending or approved NDA. For patents that claim a method of use, the applicant must submit information only on those patents that claim indications or other conditions of use for which approval is sought or has been granted in the NDA. The applicant must separately identify each pending or approved method of use and related patent claim(s). For approved NDAs, the NDA holder's description of the patented method of use required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(P)(<I>3</I>) of this section must describe only the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent for which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product. If the method(s) of use claimed by the patent does not cover an indication or other approved condition of use in its entirety, the applicant must describe only the specific approved method of use claimed by the patent for which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product. For approved NDAs, the NDA holder submitting information on the method-of-use patent must identify with specificity the section(s) and subsection(s) of the approved labeling that describes the method(s) of use claimed by the patent submitted. Process patents, patents claiming packaging, patents claiming metabolites, and patents claiming intermediates are not covered by this section, and information on these patents must not be submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test data for submission of patent information for patents that claim only a polymorph.</I> The test data, referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A full description of the polymorphic form of the drug substance, including its physical and chemical characteristics and stability; the method of synthesis (or isolation) and purification of the drug substance; the process controls used during manufacture and packaging; and such specifications and analytical methods as are necessary to assure the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the polymorphic form of the drug substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) The executed batch record for a drug product containing the polymorphic form of the drug substance and documentation that the batch was manufactured under current good manufacturing practice requirements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstration of bioequivalence between the executed batch of the drug product that contains the polymorphic form of the drug substance and the drug product as described in the NDA;
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of all components used in the manufacture of the drug product containing the polymorphic form and a statement of the composition of the drug product; a statement of the specifications and analytical methods for each component; a description of the manufacturing and packaging procedures and in-process controls for the drug product; such specifications and analytical methods as are necessary to assure the identity, strength, quality, purity, and bioavailability of the drug product, including release and stability data complying with the approved product specifications to demonstrate pharmaceutical equivalence and comparable product stability; and
</P>
<P>(v) Comparative in vitro dissolution testing on 12 dosage units each of the executed test batch and the NDA product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> An applicant described in paragraph (a) of this section must submit the required patent information described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section for each patent that meets the requirements described in paragraph (b) of this section. We will not accept the patent information unless it is submitted on the appropriate form, Form FDA 3542 or 3542a, and contains the information required in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. These forms may be obtained on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I> by searching for “forms”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drug substance (active ingredient), drug product (formulation or composition), and method-of-use patents</I>—(i) <I>Original declaration.</I> For each patent that claims a drug substance (active ingredient), drug product (formulation and composition), or method of use, the applicant must submit Form FDA 3542a. The following information and verification is required, subject to the exceptions listed in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(S) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) NDA number;
</P>
<P>(B) The NDA applicant's name, full address, phone number and, if available, fax number and email address;
</P>
<P>(C) Trade name (or proposed trade name) of new drug;
</P>
<P>(D) Active ingredient(s) of new drug;
</P>
<P>(E) Strength(s) of new drug;
</P>
<P>(F) Dosage form(s) and route(s) of administration of new drug, and whether the applicant proposes to market the new drug for prescription use or over-the-counter use;
</P>
<P>(G) U.S. patent number, issue date, and expiration date of patent submitted;
</P>
<P>(H) The patent owner's name, full address, phone number and, if available, fax number and email address;
</P>
<P>(I) The name, full address, phone number and, if available, fax number and email address of an agent or representative who resides or maintains a place of business within the United States authorized to receive notice of patent certification under section 505(b)(3) and (j)(2)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and §§ 314.52 and 314.95 (if patent owner or NDA applicant or holder does not reside or have a place of business within the United States);
</P>
<P>(J) Information on whether the patent has been submitted previously for the NDA or supplement;
</P>
<P>(K) If the patent has been submitted previously for listing, identify all change(s) from the previously submitted patent information and specify whether the change is related to the patent or related to an FDA action or procedure;
</P>
<P>(L) Information on whether the patent is a product-by-process patent in which the product claimed is novel;
</P>
<P>(M) Information on the drug substance (active ingredient) patent, including the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the patent claims a drug substance that is an active ingredient in the drug product described in the NDA or supplement;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Whether the patent claims only a polymorph that is the same active ingredient that is described in the pending NDA or supplement;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whether the applicant has test data, described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, demonstrating that a drug product containing only the polymorph will perform the same as the drug product described in the NDA or supplement, and a description of the polymorphic form(s) claimed by the patent for which such test data exist;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Whether the patent claims only a metabolite of the active ingredient; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Whether the patent claims only an intermediate;
</P>
<P>(N) Information on the drug product (composition/formulation) patent, including the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the patent claims the drug product for which approval is being sought, as defined in § 314.3; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Whether the patent claims only an intermediate;
</P>
<P>(O) Information on each method-of-use patent, including the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the patent claims one or more methods of using the drug product for which approval is being sought and a description of each pending method of use and related patent claim of the patent being submitted;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Identification of the specific section(s) and subsection(s) of the proposed labeling for the drug product that describes the method of use claimed by the patent submitted; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An applicant that submits information for a patent that claims one or more methods of using the drug product must also submit information described in either paragraph (c)(2)(i)(M) or (N) of this section, regarding whether that patent also claims either the drug substance (active ingredient) or the drug product (composition/formulation).
</P>
<P>(P) Whether there are no relevant patents that claim the drug substance (active ingredient), drug product (formulation or composition), or method(s) of use, for which the applicant is seeking approval and with respect to which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(Q) A signed verification that states:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The undersigned declares that this is an accurate and complete submission of patent information for the NDA, amendment, or supplement pending under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This time-sensitive patent information is submitted pursuant to 21 CFR 314.53. I attest that I am familiar with 21 CFR 314.53 and this submission complies with the requirements of the regulation. I verify under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(R) Information on whether the applicant, patent owner or attorney, agent, representative, or other authorized official signed the form; the name of the person; and the full address, phone number and, if available, the fax number and email address; and
</P>
<P>(S) Exceptions to required submission of patent information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If an applicant submits the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(M) of this section for a patent that claims the drug substance (active ingredient) and meets the requirements for listing on that basis, then the applicant is not required to provide the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(N) of this section on whether that patent also claims the drug product (composition/formulation);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If an applicant submits the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(N) of this section for a patent that claims the drug product (composition/formulation) and meets the requirements for listing on that basis, then the applicant is not required to provide the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(M) of this section on whether that patent also claims the drug substance (active ingredient);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the applicant submits a supplement for a change other than one of the changes listed under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, then the patent information submission requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Submission of patent information upon and after approval.</I> Within 30 days after the date of approval of its NDA or supplement, the applicant must submit Form FDA 3542 for each patent that claims the drug substance (active ingredient), drug product (formulation and composition), or approved method of use. FDA will not list or publish patent information if it is not provided on this form or if the patent declaration does not contain the required information or indicates the patent is not eligible for listing. Patent information must also be submitted for patents issued after the date of approval of the NDA as required in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section. As described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, to be timely filed, patent information for patents issued after the date of approval of the NDA must be submitted to FDA within 30 days of the date of issuance of the patent. If the applicant submits the required patent information within the 30 days, but we notify an applicant that a declaration form is incomplete or shows that the patent is not eligible for listing, the applicant must submit an acceptable declaration form within 15 days of FDA notification to be considered timely filed. The following information and verification statement is required, subject to the exceptions listed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(T) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) NDA number;
</P>
<P>(B) The NDA holder's name, full address, phone number and, if available, fax number and email address;
</P>
<P>(C) Trade name of new drug;
</P>
<P>(D) Active ingredient(s) of new drug;
</P>
<P>(E) Strength(s) of new drug;
</P>
<P>(F) Dosage form(s) and route(s) of administration of new drug, and whether the new drug is approved for prescription use or over-the-counter use;
</P>
<P>(G) Approval date of NDA or supplement;
</P>
<P>(H) U.S. patent number, issue date, and expiration date of patent submitted;
</P>
<P>(I) The patent owner's name, full address, phone number and, if available, fax number and email address;
</P>
<P>(J) The name, full address, phone number and, if available, fax number and email address of an agent or representative who resides or maintains a place of business within the United States authorized to receive notice of patent certification under section 505(b)(3) and (j)(2)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and §§ 314.52 and 314.95 (if patent owner or NDA applicant or holder does not reside or have a place of business within the United States);
</P>
<P>(K) Information on whether the patent has been submitted previously for the NDA or supplement;
</P>
<P>(L) If the patent has been submitted previously for listing, identify all change(s) from the previously submitted patent information and specify whether the change is related to the patent or related to an FDA action or procedure;
</P>
<P>(M) Information on whether the patent is a product-by-process patent in which the product claimed is novel;
</P>
<P>(N) Information on the drug substance (active ingredient) patent, including the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the patent claims a drug substance that is an active ingredient in the drug product described in the approved NDA;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Whether the patent claims only a polymorph that is the same as the active ingredient that is described in the approved NDA;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whether the applicant has test data, described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, demonstrating that a drug product containing only the polymorph will perform the same as the drug product described in the approved NDA and a description of the polymorphic form(s) claimed by the patent for which such test data exist;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Whether the patent claims only a metabolite of the active ingredient; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Whether the patent claims only an intermediate;
</P>
<P>(O) Information on the drug product (composition/formulation) patent, including the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the patent claims the approved drug product as defined in § 314.3; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Whether the patent claims only an intermediate;
</P>
<P>(P) Information on each method-of-use patent, including the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the patent claims one or more approved methods of using the approved drug product and a description of each approved method of use and related patent claim of the patent being submitted;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Identification of the specific section(s) and subsection(s) of the approved labeling for the drug product that describes the method of use claimed by the patent submitted;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The description of the patented method of use as required for publication, which must contain adequate information to assist 505(b)(2) and ANDA applicants in determining whether a listed method-of-use patent claims a use for which the 505(b)(2) or ANDA applicant is not seeking approval (for example, if the method(s) of use claimed by the patent does not cover an indication or other approved condition of use in its entirety, then the applicant must describe only the specific approved method of use claimed by the patent for which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An applicant that submits information for a patent that claims one or more methods of using the drug product must also submit information described in either paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(N) or (O) of this section, regarding whether that patent also claims either the drug substance (active ingredient) or the drug product (composition/formulation).
</P>
<P>(Q) Whether there are no relevant patents that claim the approved drug substance (active ingredient), the approved drug product (formulation or composition), or approved method(s) of use and with respect to which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(R) A signed verification that states:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The undersigned declares that this is an accurate and complete submission of patent information for the NDA, amendment, or supplement approved under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This time-sensitive patent information or response to a request under 21 CFR 314.53(f)(1) is submitted pursuant to 21 CFR 314.53. I attest that I am familiar with 21 CFR 314.53 and this submission complies with the requirements of the regulation. I verify under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(S) Information on whether the applicant, patent owner or attorney, agent, representative, or other authorized official signed the form; the name of the person; and the full address, phone number and, if available, the fax number and email address; and
</P>
<P>(T) Exceptions to required submission of patent information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If an applicant submits the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(N) of this section for a patent that claims the drug substance (active ingredient) and meets the requirements for listing on that basis, then the applicant is not required to provide the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(O) of this section on whether that patent also claims the drug product (composition/formulation).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If an applicant submits the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(O) of this section for a patent that claims the drug product (composition/formulation) and meets the requirements for listing on that basis, then the applicant is not required to provide the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(N) of this section on whether that patent also claims the drug substance (active ingredient).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the applicant submits a supplement for a change other than one of the changes listed under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, then the patent information submission requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No relevant patents.</I> If the applicant believes that there are no relevant patents that claim the drug substance (active ingredient), drug product (formulation or composition), or the method(s) of use for which the applicant has received approval, and with respect to which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product, the applicant will verify this information in the appropriate form, Form FDA 3542 or 3542a.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Authorized signature.</I> The declarations required by this section must be signed by the applicant or patent owner, or the applicant's or patent owner's attorney, agent (representative), or other authorized official.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>When and where to submit patent information</I>—(1) <I>Original NDA.</I> An applicant must submit with its original NDA submitted under this part, the information described in paragraph (c) of this section on each drug substance (active ingredient), drug product (formulation and composition), and method-of-use patent issued before the NDA is filed with FDA and for which patent information is required to be submitted under this section. If a patent is issued after the NDA is filed with FDA but before the NDA is approved, the applicant must, within 30 days of the date of issuance of the patent, submit the required patent information in an amendment to the NDA under § 314.60.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supplements.</I> (i) An applicant must submit patent information required under paragraph (c) of this section for a patent that claims the drug substance, drug product, or method of use for which approval is sought in any of the following supplements:
</P>
<P>(A) To add or change the dosage form or route of administration;
</P>
<P>(B) To add or change the strength; or
</P>
<P>(C) To change the drug product from prescription use to over-the-counter use.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the applicant submits a supplement for a change other than one of the changes listed under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section (for example, to change the formulation, to add a new indication or other condition of use, or to make any other patented change regarding the drug substance, drug product, or any method of use), the following patent information submission requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(A) If existing patents for which information required by paragraph (c) of this section has already been submitted to FDA for the product approved in the original NDA claim the changed product, the applicant is not required to resubmit this patent information pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section unless the published description of the patented method of use would change upon approval of the supplement, and FDA will continue to list this patent information for the product;
</P>
<P>(B) If one or more existing patents for which information has already been submitted to FDA no longer claim the changed product, the applicant must submit a request under paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section to remove that patent information from the list at the time of approval of the supplement;
</P>
<P>(C) If one or more existing drug substance (active ingredient), drug product (formulation and composition), or method-of-use patents claim the changed product for which approval is sought in the supplement and such patent information has not been submitted to FDA, the applicant must submit the patent information required under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Newly issued patents.</I> If a patent is issued for a drug substance, drug product, or method of use after an NDA is approved, the applicant must submit to FDA, as described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, the required patent information within 30 days of the date of issuance of the patent. If the required patent information is not submitted within 30 days of the issuance of the patent, FDA will list the patent, but patent certifications or statements will be governed by the provisions regarding untimely filed patent information at §§ 314.50(i)(4) and (6) and 314.94(a)(12)(vi) and (viii).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Submission of Forms FDA 3542a and 3542</I>—(i) <I>Patent information submitted with the filing of an NDA, amendment, or supplement.</I> The applicant must submit patent information required by paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(i) of this section and § 314.50(h) or § 314.70(f) on Form FDA 3542a to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, or to FDA in an electronic format submission that complies with § 314.50(l)(5). Form FDA 3542a should not be submitted to the Orange Book Staff in the Office of Generic Drugs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Patent information submitted upon and after approval of an NDA or supplement.</I> The applicant must submit patent information required by paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section on Form FDA 3542 to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, or to FDA in an electronic format submission that complies with § 314.50(l)(5). Form FDA 3542 should not be submitted to the Orange Book Staff in the Office of Generic Drugs.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Submission date.</I> Patent information will be considered to be submitted to FDA for purposes of paragraph (d)(3) of this section as of the earlier of the date the information submitted on Form FDA 3542 is date-stamped by the Central Document Room, or officially received by FDA in an electronic format submission that complies with § 314.50(l)(5).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Identification.</I> Each submission of patent information, except information submitted with an original NDA, must bear prominent identification as to its contents, <I>i.e.,</I> “Patent Information,” or, if submitted after approval of an NDA, “Time Sensitive Patent Information.”


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public disclosure of patent information.</I> FDA will publish in the list the patent number and expiration date of each patent that is required to be, and is, submitted to FDA by an applicant, and for each method-of-use patent, the description of the method of use claimed by the patent as required by § 314.53(c)(2)(ii)(P)(<I>3</I>). FDA will publish such patent information upon approval of the NDA, or, if the patent information is submitted by the applicant after approval of an NDA as provided under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, as soon as possible after the submission to the Agency of the patent information. A request for copies of the submitted patent information must be sent in writing to the Freedom of Information Staff at the address listed on the Agency's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>. The submitted patent information, and requests to remove a patent or patent information from the list, may be subject to public disclosure.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Correction of patent information errors</I>—(1) <I>Requests by persons other than the NDA holder.</I> If any person disputes the accuracy or relevance of patent information submitted to the Agency under this section and published by FDA in the list, or believes that an NDA holder has failed to submit required patent information, that person must first notify the Agency in a written or electronic communication titled “314.53(f) Patent Listing Dispute.” The patent listing dispute communication must include a statement of dispute that describes the specific grounds for disagreement regarding the accuracy or relevance of patent information for FDA to send to the applicable NDA holder. For a dispute regarding the accuracy or relevance of patent information regarding an approved method of using the drug product, this statement of dispute must be only a narrative description (no more than 250 words) of the person's interpretation of the scope of the patent. This statement of dispute must only contain information for which the person consents to disclosure because FDA will send the text of the statement to the applicable NDA holder without review or redaction. The patent listing dispute communication should be directed to the Central Document Room, Attn: Orange Book Staff, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, or to the Orange Book Staff at the email address listed on the Agency's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Communication with the NDA holder</I>—(A) <I>Drug substance or drug product claim.</I> For requests submitted under this paragraph (f)(1) that are directed to the accuracy or relevance of submitted patent information regarding a drug substance or drug product claim, the Agency will send the statement of dispute to the applicable NDA holder. The NDA holder must confirm the correctness of the patent information and include the signed verification required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(R) of this section or withdraw or amend the patent information in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section within 30 days of the date on which the Agency sends the statement of dispute. Unless the NDA holder withdraws or amends its patent information in response to the patent listing dispute, the Agency will not change the patent information in the Orange Book.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Method-of-use claim.</I> For requests submitted under this paragraph (f)(1) that are directed to the accuracy or relevance of submitted patent information regarding an approved method of using the drug product, FDA will send the statement of dispute to the NDA holder. The NDA holder must confirm the correctness of its description of the approved method of use claimed by the patent that has been included as the “Use Code” in the Orange Book, or withdraw or amend the patent information in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section, provide a narrative description (no more than 250 words) of the NDA holder's interpretation of the scope of the patent that explains why the existing or amended “Use Code” describes only the specific approved method of use claimed by the patent for which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product, and include the signed verification required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(R) of this section within 30 days of the date on which the Agency sends the statement of dispute. The narrative description must only contain information for which the NDA holder consents to disclosure because FDA will send the text of the statement to the person who submitted the patent listing dispute without review or redaction.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the NDA holder confirms the correctness of the patent information, provides the narrative description required by paragraph (f)(1)(i)(B) of this section, and includes the signed verification required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(R) of this section within 30 days of the date on which the Agency sends the statement of dispute, the Agency will not change the patent information in the Orange Book.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the NDA holder responds to the patent listing dispute with amended patent information in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section, provides the narrative description required by paragraph (f)(1)(i)(B) of this section, and includes the signed verification required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(R) of this section within 30 days of the date on which the Agency sends the statement of dispute, FDA will update the Orange Book to reflect the amended patent information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Patent certification or statement during and after patent listing dispute.</I> A 505(b)(2) application or ANDA must contain an appropriate certification or statement for each listed patent, including the disputed patent, during and after the patent listing dispute.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Information on patent listing disputes.</I> FDA will promptly post information on its Web site regarding whether a patent listing dispute has been submitted for a published description of a patented method of use for a drug product and whether the NDA holder has timely responded to the patent listing dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests by the NDA holder</I>—(i) <I>Patents or patent claims that no longer meet the statutory requirements for listing.</I> If the NDA holder determines that a patent or patent claim no longer meets the requirements for listing in section 505(b)(1) or (c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (including if there has been a judicial finding of invalidity for a listed patent, from which no appeal has been or can be taken), the NDA holder is required to promptly notify FDA to amend the patent information or withdraw the patent or patent information and request that the patent or patent information be removed from the list. If the NDA holder is required by court order to amend patent information or withdraw a patent from the list, it must submit an amendment to its NDA that includes a copy of the order, within 14 days of the date the order was entered, to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266. The amendment to the NDA must bear the identification described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section. FDA will remove a patent or patent information from the list if there is no first applicant eligible for 180-day exclusivity based on a paragraph IV certification to that patent or after the 180-day exclusivity period of a first applicant based on that patent has expired or has been extinguished.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Patent term restoration.</I> If the term of a listed patent is extended pursuant to 35 U.S.C. 156(e), the NDA holder must submit on Form FDA 3542 a correction to the expiration date of the patent. This correction must be submitted within 30 days of receipt of a certificate of extension as described in 35 U.S.C. 156(e)(1) or documentation of an extension of the term of the patent as described in 35 U.S.C. 156(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Submission of corrections or changes to patent information.</I> Corrections or changes to previously submitted patent information, other than withdrawal of a patent and requests to remove a patent from the list, must be submitted on Form FDA 3542 or 3542a, as appropriate, in an amendment or supplement to the NDA. The amendment or supplement to the NDA must bear the identification described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section. We will not accept the corrections or changes unless they are submitted on the appropriate forms.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Submission of patent withdrawals and requests to remove a patent from the list.</I> Withdrawal of a patent and requests to remove a patent from the list must be submitted to the same addresses described in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section, except that the withdrawal or request to remove a patent from the list is not required to be submitted on Form FDA 3542 and may be submitted by letter. Withdrawal of a patent and a request to remove a patent from the list must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The NDA number to which the request applies;
</P>
<P>(B) Each product(s) approved in the NDA to which the request applies; and
</P>
<P>(C) The patent number.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69643, Oct. 6, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 6673, Feb. 28, 2019]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.54" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.54   Procedure for submission of a 505(b)(2) application requiring investigations for approval of a new indication for, or other change from, a listed drug.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act does not permit approval of an ANDA for a new indication, nor does it permit approval of other changes in a listed drug if investigations, other than bioavailability or bioequivalence studies, are essential to the approval of the change. Any person seeking approval of a drug product that represents a modification of a listed drug (e.g., a new indication or new dosage form) and for which investigations, other than bioavailability or bioequivalence studies, are essential to the approval of the changes may, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, submit a 505(b)(2) application. This 505(b)(2) application need contain only that information needed to support the modification(s) of the listed drug.


</P>
<P>(1) The applicant must submit a complete archival copy of the application that contains the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The information required under § 314.50(a), (b), (c), (d)(1), (d)(3), (e), and (g), except that § 314.50(d)(1)(ii)(<I>c</I>) must contain the proposed or actual master production record, including a description of the equipment, to be used for the manufacture of a commercial lot of the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The information required under § 314.50 (d)(2), (d)(4) (if an anti-infective drug), (d)(5), (d)(6), and (f) as needed to support the safety and effectiveness of the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of each listed drug for which FDA has made a finding of safety and effectiveness and on which finding the applicant relies in seeking approval of its proposed drug product by established name, if any, proprietary name, dosage form, strength, route of administration, name of listed drug's application holder, and listed drug's approved NDA number. The listed drug(s) identified as relied upon must include a drug product approved in an NDA that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is pharmaceutically equivalent to the drug product for which the original 505(b)(2) application is submitted; and
</P>
<P>(B) Was approved before the original 505(b)(2) application was submitted.








</P>
<P>(iv) If the applicant is seeking approval only for a new indication and not for the indications approved for the listed drug on which the applicant relies, a certification so stating. 
</P>
<P>(v) Any patent information required under section 505(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to any patent which claims the drug for which approval is sought or a method of using such drug and to which a claim of patent infringement could reasonably be asserted if a person not licensed by the owner of the patent engaged in the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any patent certification or statement required under section 505(b)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to any relevant patents that claim the listed drug(s) on which investigations relied on by the applicant for approval of the application were conducted, or that claim a use for the listed drug(s). A 505(b)(2) applicant seeking approval of a drug that is pharmaceutically equivalent to a listed drug approved in an NDA implicitly relies upon one such pharmaceutically equivalent listed drug.
</P>
<P>(vii) If the applicant believes the change for which it is seeking approval is entitled to a period of exclusivity, the information required under § 314.50(j). 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant must submit a review copy that contains the technical sections described in § 314.50(d)(1), except that the section described in § 314.50(d)(1)(ii)(<I>c</I>) must contain the proposed or actual master production record, including a description of the equipment, to be used for the manufacture of a commercial lot of the drug product, and § 314.50(d)(3), and the technical sections described in § 314.50(d)(2), (d)(4) through (6), and (f) when needed to support the modification. Each of the technical sections in the review copy is required to be separately bound with a copy of the information required under § 314.50(a), (b), and (c) and a copy of the proposed labeling.






</P>
<P>(3) The information required by § 314.50 (d)(2), (d)(4) (if an anti-infective drug), (d)(5), (d)(6), and (f) for the listed drug on which the applicant relies must be satisfied by reference to the listed drug under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant must submit a field copy of the 505(b)(2) application that contains the technical section described in § 314.50(d)(1), a copy of the information required under § 314.50(a) and (c), and certification that the field copy is a true copy of the technical section described in § 314.50(d)(1) contained in the archival and review copies of the 505(b)(2) application.
</P>
<P>(b) A 505(b)(2) application may not be submitted under this section for a drug product whose only difference from a listed drug is that:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which its active ingredient(s) is absorbed or otherwise made available to the site of action is less than that of the listed drug; or
</P>
<P>(2) The rate at which its active ingredient(s) is absorbed or otherwise made available to the site of action is unintentionally less than that of the listed drug.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17982, Apr. 28, 1992; 57 FR 61612, Dec. 28, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 47351, Sept. 8, 1993; 59 FR 50364, Oct. 3, 1994; 81 FR 69647, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.55" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.55   Pediatric use information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required assessment.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, each application for a new active ingredient, new indication, new dosage form, new dosing regimen, or new route of administration shall contain data that are adequate to assess the safety and effectiveness of the drug product for the claimed indications in all relevant pediatric subpopulations, and to support dosing and administration for each pediatric subpopulation for which the drug is safe and effective. Where the course of the disease and the effects of the drug are sufficiently similar in adults and pediatric patients, FDA may conclude that pediatric effectiveness can be extrapolated from adequate and well-controlled studies in adults usually supplemented with other information obtained in pediatric patients, such as pharmacokinetic studies. Studies may not be needed in each pediatric age group, if data from one age group can be extrapolated to another. Assessments of safety and effectiveness required under this section for a drug product that represents a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing treatments for pediatric patients must be carried out using appropriate formulations for each age group(s) for which the assessment is required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deferred submission.</I> (1) FDA may, on its own initiative or at the request of an applicant, defer submission of some or all assessments of safety and effectiveness described in paragraph (a) of this section until after approval of the drug product for use in adults. Deferral may be granted if, among other reasons, the drug is ready for approval in adults before studies in pediatric patients are complete, or pediatric studies should be delayed until additional safety or effectiveness data have been collected. If an applicant requests deferred submission, the request must provide a certification from the applicant of the grounds for delaying pediatric studies, a description of the planned or ongoing studies, and evidence that the studies are being or will be conducted with due diligence and at the earliest possible time.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA determines that there is an adequate justification for temporarily delaying the submission of assessments of pediatric safety and effectiveness, the drug product may be approved for use in adults subject to the requirement that the applicant submit the required assessments within a specified time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> FDA may grant a full or partial waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section on its own initiative or at the request of an applicant. A request for a waiver must provide an adequate justification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Full waiver.</I> An applicant may request a waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the applicant certifies that:
</P>
<P>(i) The drug product does not represent a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing treatments for pediatric patients and is not likely to be used in a substantial number of pediatric patients;
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary studies are impossible or highly impractical because, e.g., the number of such patients is so small or geographically dispersed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) There is evidence strongly suggesting that the drug product would be ineffective or unsafe in all pediatric age groups.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Partial waiver.</I> An applicant may request a waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to a specified pediatric age group, if the applicant certifies that:
</P>
<P>(i) The drug product does not represent a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing treatments for pediatric patients in that age group, and is not likely to be used in a substantial number of patients in that age group;
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary studies are impossible or highly impractical because, e.g., the number of patients in that age group is so small or geographically dispersed;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is evidence strongly suggesting that the drug product would be ineffective or unsafe in that age group; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant can demonstrate that reasonable attempts to produce a pediatric formulation necessary for that age group have failed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>FDA action on waiver.</I> FDA shall grant a full or partial waiver, as appropriate, if the agency finds that there is a reasonable basis on which to conclude that one or more of the grounds for waiver specified in paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section have been met. If a waiver is granted on the ground that it is not possible to develop a pediatric formulation, the waiver will cover only those pediatric age groups requiring that formulation. If a waiver is granted because there is evidence that the product would be ineffective or unsafe in pediatric populations, this information will be included in the product's labeling.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of “meaningful therapeutic benefit”.</I> For purposes of this section and § 201.23 of this chapter, a drug will be considered to offer a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing therapies if FDA estimates that:
</P>
<P>(i) If approved, the drug would represent a significant improvement in the treatment, diagnosis, or prevention of a disease, compared to marketed products adequately labeled for that use in the relevant pediatric population. Examples of how improvement might be demonstrated include, for example, evidence of increased effectiveness in treatment, prevention, or diagnosis of disease, elimination or substantial reduction of a treatment-limiting drug reaction, documented enhancement of compliance, or evidence of safety and effectiveness in a new subpopulation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug is in a class of drugs or for an indication for which there is a need for additional therapeutic options.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption for orphan drugs.</I> This section does not apply to any drug for an indication or indications for which orphan designation has been granted under part 316, subpart C, of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66670, Dec. 2, 1998]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.56" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.56   Nonprescription drug product with an additional condition for nonprescription use (ACNU).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The following definition applies to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Additional condition for nonprescription use</I> (ACNU) means one or more FDA-approved conditions that an applicant of a nonprescription drug product must implement to ensure consumers' appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both, of the nonprescription drug product without the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law to administer such drug if an applicant demonstrates and FDA determines that labeling alone is insufficient to ensure appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separate application required for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU</I>. Notwithstanding § 310.200(b) of this chapter, an applicant must submit a separate application for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU. Initial approval for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU cannot be obtained through a supplement to an approved application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific requirements for an application for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU.</I> The applicant must submit an application that complies with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>New drug application (NDA).</I> When fulfilling the content and format requirements under § 314.50, an NDA for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU must include—
</P>
<P>(i) A statement regarding whether the purpose of the ACNU is to ensure appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both, by consumers of the nonprescription drug product with an ACNU without the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law to administer such drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement regarding the necessity of the ACNU;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of how the ACNU ensures appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the key elements of the ACNU, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The additional condition implemented by the applicant to be fulfilled by the consumer to obtain the nonprescription drug product with an ACNU;
</P>
<P>(B) The labeling specifically associated with the ACNU; and
</P>
<P>(C) The criteria by which the consumer would successfully fulfill the ACNU, including a description of the specific actions to be taken by a consumer or required responses to be provided by a consumer;
</P>
<P>(v) Adequate data or other information that demonstrates the necessity of the ACNU to ensure appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both;
</P>
<P>(vi) Adequate data or other information that demonstrates the effect of the ACNU on the appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the specific way(s) the ACNU is operationalized.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Abbreviated new drug application (ANDA).</I> When fulfilling the content and format requirements under § 314.94, an ANDA for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement regarding whether the purpose of the ACNU is to ensure appropriate self-selection or appropriate actual use, or both, by consumers of the nonprescription drug product with an ACNU without the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law to administer such drug, which must be the same as the purpose of the ACNU for its reference listed drug (RLD);
</P>
<P>(ii) Information demonstrating that the key elements of the ACNU are the same as the key elements of the ACNU for its RLD; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the specific way(s) the ACNU is operationalized. If an applicant believes the ACNU is operationalized in the same way as the RLD, include information demonstrating that the ACNU is operationalized in the same way as the RLD. If a different way to operationalize the proposed ACNU is used, include information to show that this different way to operationalize the proposed ACNU achieves the same purpose as the ACNU for its RLD and that the differences from the RLD are otherwise acceptable in an ANDA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Simultaneous marketing of nonprescription and prescription drug products.</I> An ACNU constitutes a meaningful difference between a nonprescription drug product and a prescription drug product, such that a prescription drug product and a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU may be simultaneously marketed even if there is not another meaningful difference between the two products that makes the nonprescription drug product safe and effective for use without the supervision of a healthcare practitioner licensed by law to administer such drug (<I>e.g.,</I> a different active ingredient, indication, strength, route of administration, dosage form, or patient population).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 105330, Dec. 26, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.60   Amendments to an unapproved NDA, supplement, or resubmission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of NDA.</I> FDA generally assumes that when an original NDA, supplement to an approved NDA, or resubmission of an NDA or supplement is submitted to the Agency for review, the applicant believes that the Agency can approve the NDA, supplement, or resubmission as submitted. However, the applicant may submit an amendment to an NDA, supplement, or resubmission that has been filed under § 314.101 but is not yet approved.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of major amendment.</I> 

 (1) Submission of a major amendment to an original NDA, efficacy supplement, or resubmission of an NDA or efficacy supplement within 3 months of the end of the initial review cycle constitutes an agreement by the applicant under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to extend the initial review cycle by 3 months. (For references to a resubmission of an NDA or efficacy supplement in paragraph (b) of this section, the timeframe for reviewing the resubmission is the “review cycle” rather than the “initial review cycle.”) FDA may instead defer review of the amendment until the subsequent review cycle. If the agency extends the initial review cycle for an original NDA, efficacy supplement, or resubmission under this paragraph, the division responsible for reviewing the NDA, supplement, or resubmission will notify the applicant of the extension. The initial review cycle for an original NDA, efficacy supplement, or resubmission of an NDA or efficacy supplement may be extended only once due to submission of a major amendment. FDA may, at its discretion, review any subsequent major amendment during the initial review cycle (as extended) or defer review until the subsequent review cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) Submission of a major amendment to an original NDA, efficacy supplement, or resubmission of an NDA or efficacy supplement more than 3 months before the end of the initial review cycle will not extend the cycle. FDA may, at its discretion, review such an amendment during the initial review cycle or defer review until the subsequent review cycle.
</P>
<P>(3) Submission of an amendment to an original NDA, efficacy supplement, or resubmission of an NDA or efficacy supplement that is not a major amendment will not extend the initial review cycle. FDA may, at its discretion, review such an amendment during the initial review cycle or defer review until the subsequent review cycle.




</P>
<P>(4) Submission of a major amendment to a manufacturing supplement within 2 months of the end of the initial review cycle constitutes an agreement by the applicant under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to extend the initial review cycle by 2 months. FDA may instead defer review of the amendment until the subsequent review cycle. If the agency extends the initial review cycle for a manufacturing supplement under this paragraph, the division responsible for reviewing the supplement will notify the applicant of the extension. The initial review cycle for a manufacturing supplement may be extended only once due to submission of a major amendment. FDA may, at its discretion, review any subsequent major amendment during the initial review cycle (as extended) or defer review until the subsequent review cycle.
</P>
<P>(5) Submission of an amendment to a supplement other than an efficacy or manufacturing supplement will not extend the initial review cycle. FDA may, at its discretion, review such an amendment during the initial review cycle or defer review until the subsequent review cycle.
</P>
<P>(6) A major amendment may not include data to support an indication or claim that was not included in the original NDA, supplement, or resubmission, but it may include data to support a minor modification of an indication or claim that was included in the original NDA, supplement, or resubmission.
</P>
<P>(7) When FDA defers review of an amendment until the subsequent review cycle, the agency will notify the applicant of the deferral in the complete response letter sent to the applicant under § 314.110 of this part.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on certain amendments.</I>



(1) An unapproved NDA may not be amended if all of the following conditions apply:




</P>
<P>(i) The unapproved NDA is for a drug for which a previous NDA has been approved and granted a period of exclusivity in accordance with section 505(c)(3)(E)(ii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that has not expired;






</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant seeks to amend the unapproved NDA to include a published report of an investigation that was conducted or sponsored by the applicant entitled to exclusivity for the drug;
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant has not obtained a right of reference or use to the investigation described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section; and




</P>
<P>(iv) The report of the investigation described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section would be essential to the approval of the unapproved NDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The submission of an amendment described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section will cause the unapproved NDA to be deemed to be withdrawn by the applicant under § 314.65 on the date of receipt by FDA of the amendment. The amendment will be considered a resubmission of the NDA, which may not be accepted except as provided in accordance with section 505(c)(3)(E)(ii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Field copy.</I> The applicant must submit a field copy of each amendment to a section of the NDA described in § 314.50(d)(1). The applicant must include in its submission of each such amendment to FDA a statement certifying that a field copy of the amendment has been sent to the applicant's home FDA district office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Different drug.</I> An applicant may not amend a 505(b)(2) application to seek approval of a drug that is a different drug from the drug in the original submission of the 505(b)(2) application. For purposes of this paragraph (e), a drug is a different drug if it has been modified to have a different active ingredient, different route of administration, different dosage form, or difference in excipients that requires either a separate clinical study to establish safety or effectiveness or, for topical products, that requires a separate in vivo demonstration of bioequivalence. However, notwithstanding the limitation described in this paragraph (e), an applicant may amend the 505(b)(2) application to seek approval of a different strength.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Patent certification requirements.</I> (1) An amendment to a 505(b)(2) application is required to contain an appropriate patent certification or statement described in § 314.50(i) or a recertification for a previously submitted paragraph IV certification if approval is sought for any of the following types of amendments:
</P>
<P>(i) To add a new indication or other condition of use;
</P>
<P>(ii) To add a new strength;
</P>
<P>(iii) To make other than minor changes in product formulation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) To change the physical form or crystalline structure of the active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) If the amendment to the 505(b)(2) application does not contain a patent certification or statement, the applicant must verify that the proposed change described in the amendment is not one of the types of amendments described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992; 58 FR 47352, Sept. 8, 1993; 63 FR 5252, Feb. 2, 1998; 69 FR 18764, Apr. 8, 2004; 73 FR 39608, July 10, 2008; 81 FR 69648, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.65" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.65   Withdrawal by the applicant of an unapproved application.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may at any time withdraw an application that is not yet approved by notifying the Food and Drug Administration in writing. If, by the time it receives such notice, the agency has identified any deficiencies in the application, we will list such deficiencies in the letter we send the applicant acknowledging the withdrawal. A decision to withdraw the application is without prejudice to refiling. The agency will retain the application and will provide a copy to the applicant on request under the fee schedule in § 20.45 of FDA's public information regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 25287, May 12, 2003; 73 FR 39609, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.70" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.70   Supplements and other changes to an approved NDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Changes to an approved NDA.</I> (1)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, the applicant must notify FDA about each change in each condition established in an approved NDA beyond the variations already provided for in the NDA. The notice is required to describe the change fully. Depending on the type of change, the applicant must notify FDA about the change in a supplement under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section or by inclusion of the information in the annual report to the NDA under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The submission and grant of a written request for an exception or alternative under § 201.26 of this chapter satisfies the applicable requirements in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. However, any grant of a request for an exception or alternative under § 201.26 of this chapter must be reported as part of the annual report to the NDA under paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
<P>(2) The NDA holder must assess the effects of the change before distributing a drug product made with a manufacturing change.




</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, an applicant must make a change provided for in those paragraphs in accordance with a regulation or guidance that provides for a less burdensome notification of the change (for example, by submission of a supplement that does not require approval prior to distribution of the product or in an annual report).
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant must promptly revise all promotional labeling and advertising to make it consistent with any labeling change implemented in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Except for a supplement providing for a change in the labeling, the applicant must include in each supplement and amendment to a supplement providing for a change under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section a statement certifying that a field copy has been provided in accordance with § 314.440(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(6) A supplement or annual report must include a list of all changes contained in the supplement or annual report. For supplements, this list must be provided in the submission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Changes requiring supplement submission and approval prior to distribution of the product made using the change (major changes).</I> (1) A supplement must be submitted for any change in the drug substance, drug product, production process, quality controls, equipment, or facilities that has a substantial potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the drug product as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(2) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Except those described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, changes in the qualitative or quantitative formulation of the drug product, including inactive ingredients, or in the specifications provided in the approved NDA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes requiring completion of studies in accordance with part 320 of this chapter to demonstrate the equivalence of the drug product to the drug product as manufactured without the change or to the reference listed drug;
</P>
<P>(iii) Changes that may affect drug substance or drug product sterility assurance, such as changes in drug substance, drug product, or component sterilization method(s) or an addition, deletion, or substitution of steps in an aseptic processing operation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes in the synthesis or manufacture of the drug substance that may affect the impurity profile and/or the physical, chemical, or biological properties of the drug substance;
</P>
<P>(v) The following labeling changes:
</P>
<P>(A) Changes in labeling, except those described in paragraphs (c)(6)(iii), (d)(2)(ix), or (d)(2)(x) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) If applicable, any change to a Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter, except for changes in the information specified in § 208.20(b)(8)(iii) and (b)(8)(iv) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the information required by § 201.57(a) of this chapter, with the following exceptions that may be reported in an annual report under paragraph (d)(2)(x) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Removal of a listed section(s) specified in § 201.57(a)(5) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Changes to the most recent revision date of the labeling as specified in § 201.57(a)(15) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(vi) Changes in a drug product container closure system that controls the drug product delivered to a patient or changes in the type (e.g., glass to high density polyethylene (HDPE), HDPE to polyvinyl chloride, vial to syringe) or composition (e.g., one HDPE resin to another HDPE resin) of a packaging component that may affect the impurity profile of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(vii) Changes solely affecting a natural product, a recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide, or a complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody for the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Changes in the virus or adventitious agent removal or inactivation method(s);
</P>
<P>(B) Changes in the source material or cell line; and
</P>
<P>(C) Establishment of a new master cell bank or seed.
</P>
<P>(viii) Changes to a drug product under an NDA that is subject to a validity assessment because of significant questions regarding the integrity of the data supporting that NDA.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must obtain approval of a supplement from FDA prior to distribution of a drug product made using a change under paragraph (b) of this section. Except for submissions under paragraph (e) of this section, the following information must be contained in the supplement:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the proposed change;
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug product(s) involved;
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturing site(s) or area(s) affected;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the methods used and studies performed to assess the effects of the change;
</P>
<P>(v) The data derived from such studies;
</P>
<P>(vi) For a natural product, a recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide, or a complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody, relevant validation protocols and a list of relevant standard operating procedures must be provided in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (b)(3)(iv) and (b)(3)(v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(vii) For sterilization process and test methodologies related to sterilization process validation, relevant validation protocols and a list of relevant standard operating procedures must be provided in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (b)(3)(iv) and (b)(3)(v) of this section.


</P>
<P>(4) An applicant may ask FDA to expedite its review of a supplement for public health reasons or if a delay in making the change described in it would impose an extraordinary hardship on the applicant. Such a supplement should be plainly marked: “Prior Approval Supplement-Expedited Review Requested.”




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Changes requiring supplement submission at least 30 days prior to distribution of the drug product made using the change (moderate changes).</I> (1) A supplement must be submitted for any change in the drug substance, drug product, production process, quality controls, equipment, or facilities that has a moderate potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the drug product as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug product. If the supplement provides for a labeling change under paragraph (c)(6)(iii) of this section, 12 copies of the final printed labeling must be included.
</P>
<P>(2) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the container closure system that does not affect the quality of the drug product, except those described in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes solely affecting a natural protein, a recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide or a complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody, including:
</P>
<P>(A) An increase or decrease in production scale during finishing steps that involves different equipment; and
</P>
<P>(B) Replacement of equipment with that of a different design that does not affect the process methodology or process operating parameters.
</P>
<P>(iii) Relaxation of an acceptance criterion or deletion of a test to comply with an official compendium that is consistent with FDA statutory and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) A supplement submitted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is required to give a full explanation of the basis for the change and identify the date on which the change is to be made. The supplement must be labeled “Supplement—Changes Being Effected in 30 Days” or, if applicable under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, “Supplement—Changes Being Effected.”
</P>
<P>(4) Pending approval of the supplement by FDA, except as provided in paragraph (c)(6) of this section, distribution of the drug product made using the change may begin not less than 30 days after receipt of the supplement by FDA. The information listed in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) through (b)(3)(vii) of this section must be contained in the supplement.
</P>
<P>(5) The applicant must not distribute the drug product made using the change if within 30 days following FDA's receipt of the supplement, FDA informs the applicant that either:
</P>
<P>(i) The change requires approval prior to distribution of the drug product in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any of the information required under paragraph (c)(4) of this section is missing; the applicant must not distribute the drug product made using the change until the supplement has been amended to provide the missing information.
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may designate a category of changes for the purpose of providing that, in the case of a change in such category, the holder of an approved NDA may commence distribution of the drug product involved upon receipt by the agency of a supplement for the change. These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Addition to a specification or changes in the methods or controls to provide increased assurance that the drug substance or drug product will have the characteristics of identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency that it purports or is represented to possess;
</P>
<P>(ii) A change in the size and/or shape of a container for a nonsterile drug product, except for solid dosage forms, without a change in the labeled amount of drug product or from one container closure system to another;
</P>
<P>(iii) Changes in the labeling to reflect newly acquired information, except for changes to the information required in § 201.57(a) of this chapter (which must be made under paragraph (b)(2)(v)(C) of this section), to accomplish any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) To add or strengthen a contraindication, warning, precaution, or adverse reaction for which the evidence of a causal association satisfies the standard for inclusion in the labeling under § 201.57(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(B) To add or strengthen a statement about drug abuse, dependence, psychological effect, or overdosage;
</P>
<P>(C) To add or strengthen an instruction about dosage and administration that is intended to increase the safe use of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(D) To delete false, misleading, or unsupported indications for use or claims for effectiveness; or
</P>
<P>(E) Any labeling change normally requiring a supplement submission and approval prior to distribution of the drug product that FDA specifically requests be submitted under this provision.
</P>
<P>(7) If the agency disapproves the supplemental NDA, it may order the manufacturer to cease distribution of the drug product(s) made with the manufacturing change.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Changes to be described in an annual report (minor changes).</I> (1) Changes in the drug substance, drug product, production process, quality controls, equipment, or facilities that have a minimal potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the drug product as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug product must be documented by the applicant in the next annual report in accordance with § 314.81(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any change made to comply with a change to an official compendium, except a change described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, that is consistent with FDA statutory and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) The deletion or reduction of an ingredient intended to affect only the color of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(iii) Replacement of equipment with that of the same design and operating principles except those equipment changes described in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) A change in the size and/or shape of a container containing the same number of dosage units for a nonsterile solid dosage form drug product, without a change from one container closure system to another;




</P>
<P>(v) A change within the container closure system for a nonsterile drug product, based upon a showing of equivalency to the approved system under a protocol approved in the NDA or published in an official compendium;
</P>
<P>(vi) An extension of an expiration dating period based upon full shelf life data on production batches obtained from a protocol approved in the NDA;
</P>
<P>(vii) The addition or revision of an alternative analytical procedure that provides the same or increased assurance of the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the material being tested as the analytical procedure described in the approved NDA, or deletion of an alternative analytical procedure;






</P>
<P>(viii) The addition by embossing, debossing, or engraving of a code imprint to a solid oral dosage form drug product other than a modified release dosage form, or a minor change in an existing code imprint;
</P>
<P>(ix) A change in the labeling concerning the description of the drug product or in the information about how the drug product is supplied, that does not involve a change in the dosage strength or dosage form; and
</P>
<P>(x) An editorial or similar minor change in labeling, including a change to the information allowed by paragraphs (b)(2)(v)(C)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For changes under this category, the applicant is required to submit in the annual report:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement by the holder of the approved NDA that the effects of the change have been assessed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A full description of the manufacturing and controls changes, including the manufacturing site(s) or area(s) involved;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date each change was implemented;
</P>
<P>(iv) Data from studies and tests performed to assess the effects of the change; and,
</P>
<P>(v) For a natural product, recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide, complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody, sterilization process or test methodology related to sterilization process validation, a cross-reference to relevant validation protocols and/or standard operating procedures.




</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protocols.</I> An applicant may submit one or more protocols describing the specific tests and studies and acceptance criteria to be achieved to demonstrate the lack of adverse effect for specified types of manufacturing changes on the identity, strength, quality, purity, and potency of the drug product as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug product. Any such protocols, if not included in the approved NDA, or changes to an approved protocol, must be submitted as a supplement requiring approval from FDA prior to distribution of a drug product produced with the manufacturing change. The supplement, if approved, may subsequently justify a reduced reporting category for the particular change because the use of the protocol for that type of change reduces the potential risk of an adverse effect.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Patent information.</I> The applicant must comply with the patent information requirements under section 505(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Claimed exclusivity.</I> If an applicant claims exclusivity under § 314.108 upon approval of a supplement for change to its previously approved drug product, the applicant must include with its supplement the information required under § 314.50(j).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Different drug.</I> An applicant may not supplement a 505(b)(2) application to seek approval of a drug that is a different drug from the drug in the approved 505(b)(2) application. For purposes of this paragraph (h), a drug is a different drug if it has been modified to have a different active ingredient, different route of administration, different dosage form, or difference in excipients that requires either a separate clinical study to establish safety or effectiveness or, for topical products, that requires a separate in vivo demonstration of bioequivalence. However, notwithstanding the limitation described in this paragraph (h), an applicant may supplement the 505(b)(2) application to seek approval of a different strength.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 18764, Apr. 8, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 3997, Jan. 24, 2006; 72 FR 73600, Dec. 28, 2007; 73 FR 49609, Aug. 22, 2008; 81 FR 69648, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.71" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.71   Procedures for submission of a supplement to an approved application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only the applicant may submit a supplement to an application.
</P>
<P>(b) All procedures and actions that apply to an application under § 314.50 also apply to supplements, except that the information required in the supplement is limited to that needed to support the change. A supplement is required to contain an archival copy and a review copy that include an application form and appropriate technical sections, samples, and labeling; except that a supplement for a change other than a change in labeling is required also to contain a field copy. 
</P>
<P>(c) All procedures and actions that apply to applications under this part, including actions by applicants and the Food and Drug Administration, also apply to supplements except as specified otherwise in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 58 FR 47352, Sept. 8, 1993; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 73 FR 39609, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.72" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.72   Change in ownership of an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may transfer ownership of its application. At the time of transfer the new and former owners are required to submit information to the Food and Drug Administration as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The former owner shall submit a letter or other document that states that all rights to the application have been transferred to the new owner.
</P>
<P>(2) The new owner shall submit an application form signed by the new owner and a letter or other document containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The new owner's commitment to agreements, promises, and conditions made by the former owner and contained in the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date that the change in ownership is effective; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Either a statement that the new owner has a complete copy of the approved application, including supplements and records that are required to be kept under § 314.81, or a request for a copy of the application from FDA's files. FDA will provide a copy of the application to the new owner under the fee schedule in § 20.45 of FDA's public information regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) The new owner shall advise FDA about any change in the conditions in the approved application under § 314.70, except the new owner may advise FDA in the next annual report about a change in the drug product's label or labeling to change the product's brand or the name of its manufacturer, packer, or distributor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 14212, Apr. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 68 FR 25287, May 12, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.80" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.80   Postmarketing reporting of adverse drug experiences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions of terms apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse event associated with the use of a drug in humans, whether or not considered drug related, including the following: An adverse event occurring in the course of the use of a drug product in professional practice; an adverse event occurring from drug overdose whether accidental or intentional; an adverse event occurring from drug abuse; an adverse event occurring from drug withdrawal; and any failure of expected pharmacological action.
</P>
<P><I>Individual case safety report (ICSR).</I> A description of an adverse drug experience related to an individual patient or subject.
</P>
<P><I>ICSR attachments.</I> Documents related to the adverse drug experience described in an ICSR, such as medical records, hospital discharge summaries, or other documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Disability.</I> A substantial disruption of a person's ability to conduct normal life functions.
</P>
<P><I>Life-threatening adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse drug experience that places the patient, in the view of the initial reporter, at <I>immediate</I> risk of death from the adverse drug experience as it occurred, <I>i.e.</I>, it does not include an adverse drug experience that, had it occurred in a more severe form, might have caused death.
</P>
<P><I>Serious adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse drug experience occurring at any dose that results in any of the following outcomes: Death, a life-threatening adverse drug experience, inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, a persistent or significant disability/incapacity, or a congenital anomaly/birth defect. Important medical events that may not result in death, be life-threatening, or require hospitalization may be considered a serious adverse drug experience when, based upon appropriate medical judgment, they may jeopardize the patient or subject and may require medical or surgical intervention to prevent one of the outcomes listed in this definition. Examples of such medical events include allergic bronchospasm requiring intensive treatment in an emergency room or at home, blood dyscrasias or convulsions that do not result in inpatient hospitalization, or the development of drug dependency or drug abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected adverse drug experience.</I> Any adverse drug experience that is not listed in the current labeling for the drug product. This includes events that may be symptomatically and pathophysiologically related to an event listed in the labeling, but differ from the event because of greater severity or specificity. For example, under this definition, hepatic necrosis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater severity) if the labeling only referred to elevated hepatic enzymes or hepatitis. Similarly, cerebral thromboembolism and cerebral vasculitis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater specificity) if the labeling only listed cerebral vascular accidents. “Unexpected,” as used in this definition, refers to an adverse drug experience that has not been previously observed (<I>i.e.</I>, included in the labeling) rather than from the perspective of such experience not being anticipated from the pharmacological properties of the pharmaceutical product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of adverse drug experiences.</I> Each applicant having an approved application under § 314.50 or, in the case of a 505(b)(2) application, an effective approved application, must promptly review all adverse drug experience information obtained or otherwise received by the applicant from any source, foreign or domestic, including information derived from commercial marketing experience, postmarketing clinical investigations, postmarketing epidemiological/surveillance studies, reports in the scientific literature, and unpublished scientific papers. Applicants are not required to resubmit to FDA adverse drug experience reports forwarded to the applicant by FDA; however, applicants must submit all followup information on such reports to FDA. Any person subject to the reporting requirements under paragraph (c) of this section must also develop written procedures for the surveillance, receipt, evaluation, and reporting of postmarketing adverse drug experiences to FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The applicant must submit to FDA adverse drug experience information as described in this section. Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, these reports must be submitted to the Agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Postmarketing 15-day “Alert reports”.</I> The applicant must report each adverse drug experience that is both serious and unexpected, whether foreign or domestic, as soon as possible but no later than 15 calendar days from initial receipt of the information by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Postmarketing 15-day “Alert reports”—followup.</I> The applicant must promptly investigate all adverse drug experiences that are the subject of these postmarketing 15-day Alert reports and must submit followup reports within 15 calendar days of receipt of new information or as requested by FDA. If additional information is not obtainable, records should be maintained of the unsuccessful steps taken to seek additional information. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Submission of reports.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section, concerning the submission of postmarketing 15-day Alert reports, also apply to any person other than the applicant whose name appears on the label of an approved drug product as a manufacturer, packer, or distributor (nonapplicant). To avoid unnecessary duplication in the submission to FDA of reports required by paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section, obligations of a nonapplicant may be met by submission of all reports of serious adverse drug experiences to the applicant. If a nonapplicant elects to submit adverse drug experience reports to the applicant rather than to FDA, the nonapplicant must submit, by any appropriate means, each report to the applicant within 5 calendar days of initial receipt of the information by the nonapplicant, and the applicant must then comply with the requirements of this section. Under this circumstance, the nonapplicant must maintain a record of this action which must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of each adverse drug experience report;
</P>
<P>(B) The date the report was received by the nonapplicant;
</P>
<P>(C) The date the report was submitted to the applicant; and
</P>
<P>(D) The name and address of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic adverse drug experience reports.</I> (i) The applicant must report each adverse drug experience not reported under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section at quarterly intervals, for 3 years from the date of approval of the application, and then at annual intervals. The applicant must submit each quarterly report within 30 days of the close of the quarter (the first quarter beginning on the date of approval of the application) and each annual report within 60 days of the anniversary date of approval of the application. Upon written notice, FDA may extend or reestablish the requirement that an applicant submit quarterly reports, or require that the applicant submit reports under this section at different times than those stated. For example, the agency may reestablish a quarterly reporting requirement following the approval of a major supplement. Followup information to adverse drug experiences submitted in a periodic report may be submitted in the next periodic report. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each periodic report is required to contain:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Descriptive information.</I> (<I>1</I>) A narrative summary and analysis of the information in the report;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An analysis of the 15-day Alert reports submitted during the reporting interval (all 15-day Alert reports being appropriately referenced by the applicant's patient identification code, adverse reaction term(s), and date of submission to FDA);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A history of actions taken since the last report because of adverse drug experiences (for example, labeling changes or studies initiated); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An index consisting of a line listing of the applicant's patient identification code, and adverse reaction term(s) for all ICSRs submitted under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>ICSRs for serious, expected, and nonserious adverse drug experiences.</I> An ICSR for each adverse drug experience not reported under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (all serious, expected and nonserious adverse drug experiences). All such ICSRs must be submitted to FDA (either individually or in one or more batches) within the timeframe specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. ICSRs must only be submitted to FDA once.
</P>
<P>(iii) Periodic reporting, except for information regarding 15-day Alert reports, does not apply to adverse drug experience information obtained from postmarketing studies (whether or not conducted under an investigational new drug application), from reports in the scientific literature, and from foreign marketing experience. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scientific literature.</I> A 15-day Alert report based on information in the scientific literature must be accompanied by a copy of the published article. The 15-day reporting requirements in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (<I>i.e.</I>, serious, unexpected adverse drug experiences) apply only to reports found in scientific and medical journals either as case reports or as the result of a formal clinical trial.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Postmarketing studies.</I> An applicant is not required to submit a 15-day Alert report under paragraph (c) of this section for an adverse drug experience obtained from a postmarketing study (whether or not conducted under an investigational new drug application) unless the applicant concludes that there is a reasonable possibility that the drug caused the adverse experience. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Information reported on ICSRs.</I> ICSRs include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Patient information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Patient identification code;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient age at the time of adverse drug experience, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse drug experience.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Outcome attributed to adverse drug experience;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of adverse drug experience;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of ICSR submission;
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of adverse drug experience (including a concise medical narrative);
</P>
<P>(v) Adverse drug experience term(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspect medical product(s).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dose, frequency, and route of administration used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Therapy dates;
</P>
<P>(iv) Diagnosis for use (indication);
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the product is a prescription or nonprescription product;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the product is a combination product as defined in § 3.2(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether adverse drug experience abated after drug use stopped or dose reduced;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether adverse drug experience reappeared after reintroduction of drug;
</P>
<P>(ix) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(x) Expiration date;
</P>
<P>(xi) National Drug Code (NDC) number; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Initial reporter information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the initial reporter is a health care professional; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Occupation, if a health care professional.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Applicant information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Applicant name and contact office address;
</P>
<P>(ii) Telephone number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report source, such as spontaneous, literature, or study;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date the report was received by applicant;
</P>
<P>(v) Application number and type;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the ICSR is a 15-day “Alert report”;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether the ICSR is an initial report or followup report; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent followup report(s).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Electronic format for submissions.</I> (1) Safety report submissions, including ICSRs, ICSR attachments, and the descriptive information in periodic reports, must be in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files).
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant or nonapplicant may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the requirements in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. These waivers will be granted on a limited basis for good cause shown. FDA will issue guidance on requesting a waiver of the requirements in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Multiple reports.</I> An applicant should not include in reports under this section any adverse drug experiences that occurred in clinical trials if they were previously submitted as part of the approved application. If a report applies to a drug for which an applicant holds more than one approved application, the applicant should submit the report to the application that was first approved. If a report refers to more than one drug marketed by an applicant, the applicant should submit the report to the application for the drug listed first in the report.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Patient privacy.</I> An applicant should not include in reports under this section the names and addresses of individual patients; instead, the applicant should assign a unique code for identification of the patient. The applicant should include the name of the reporter from whom the information was received as part of the initial reporter information, even when the reporter is the patient. The names of patients, health care professionals, hospitals, and geographical identifiers in adverse drug experience reports are not releasable to the public under FDA's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The applicant must maintain for a period of 10 years records of all adverse drug experiences known to the applicant, including raw data and any correspondence relating to adverse drug experiences.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Withdrawal of approval.</I> If an applicant fails to establish and maintain records and make reports required under this section, FDA may withdraw approval of the application and, thus, prohibit continued marketing of the drug product that is the subject of the application.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Disclaimer.</I> A report or information submitted by an applicant under this section (and any release by FDA of that report or information) does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the applicant or FDA that the report or information constitutes an admission that the drug caused or contributed to an adverse effect. An applicant need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted under this section constitutes an admission that the drug caused or contributed to an adverse effect. For purposes of this provision, the term “applicant” also includes any person reporting under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 14212, Apr. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 51 FR 24481, July 3, 1986; 52 FR 37936, Oct. 13, 1987; 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992; 62 FR 34168, June 25, 1997; 62 FR 52251, Oct. 7, 1997; 63 FR 14611, Mar. 26, 1998; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 69 FR 13473, Mar. 23, 2004; 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009; 79 FR 33088, June 10, 2014]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.81" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.81   Other postmarketing reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Each applicant shall make the reports for each of its approved applications and abbreviated applications required under this section and section 505(k) of the act.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The applicant shall submit to the Food and Drug Administration at the specified times two copies of the following reports:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>NDA—Field alert report.</I> The applicant shall submit information of the following kinds about distributed drug products and articles to the FDA district office that is responsible for the facility involved within 3 working days of receipt by the applicant. The information may be provided by telephone or other rapid communication means, with prompt written followup. The report and its mailing cover should be plainly marked: “NDA—Field Alert Report.”
</P>
<P>(i) Information concerning any incident that causes the drug product or its labeling to be mistaken for, or applied to, another article.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information concerning any bacteriological contamination, or any significant chemical, physical, or other change or deterioration in the distributed drug product, or any failure of one or more distributed batches of the drug product to meet the specification established for it in the application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual report.</I> The applicant shall submit each year within 60 days of the anniversary date of U.S. approval of the application, two copies of the report to the FDA division responsible for reviewing the application. Each annual report is required to be accompanied by a completed transmittal Form FDA 2252 (Transmittal of Periodic Reports for Drugs for Human Use), and must include all the information required under this section that the applicant received or otherwise obtained during the annual reporting interval that ends on the U.S. anniversary date. The report is required to contain in the order listed: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Summary.</I> A brief summary of significant new information from the previous year that might affect the safety, effectiveness, or labeling of the drug product. The report is also required to contain a brief description of actions the applicant has taken or intends to take as a result of this new information, for example, submit a labeling supplement, add a warning to the labeling, or initiate a new study. The summary shall briefly state whether labeling supplements for pediatric use have been submitted and whether new studies in the pediatric population to support appropriate labeling for the pediatric population have been initiated. Where possible, an estimate of patient exposure to the drug product, with special reference to the pediatric population (neonates, infants, children, and adolescents) shall be provided, including dosage form.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) <I>Distribution data.</I> Information about the quantity of the drug product distributed under the approved application, including that distributed to distributors. The information is required to include the National Drug Code (NDC) number, the total number of dosage units of each strength or potency distributed (e.g., 100,000/5 milligram tablets, 50,000/10 milliliter vials), and the quantities distributed for domestic use and the quantities distributed for foreign use. Disclosure of financial or pricing data is not required.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Authorized generic drugs.</I> If applicable, the date each authorized generic drug (as defined in § 314.3) entered the market, the date each authorized generic drug ceased being distributed, and the corresponding trade or brand name. Each dosage form and/or strength is a different authorized generic drug and should be listed separately. The first annual report submitted on or after January 25, 2010 must include the information listed in this paragraph for any authorized generic drug that was marketed during the time period covered by an annual report submitted after January 1, 1999. If information is included in the annual report with respect to any authorized generic drug, a copy of that portion of the annual report must be sent to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Office of New Drug Quality Assessment, Bldg. 21, rm. 2562, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, and marked “Authorized Generic Submission” or, by e-mail, to the Authorized Generics electronic mailbox at <I>AuthorizedGenerics@fda.hhs.gov</I> with “Authorized Generic Submission” indicated in the subject line. However, at such time that FDA has required that annual reports be submitted in an electronic format, the information required by this paragraph must be submitted as part of the annual report, in the electronic format specified for submission of annual reports at that time, and not as a separate submission under the preceding sentence in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Labeling.</I> (<I>a</I>) Currently used professional labeling, patient brochures or package inserts (if any), and a representative sample of the package labels.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The content of labeling required under § 201.100(d)(3) of this chapter (<I>i.e.</I>, the package insert or professional labeling), including all text, tables, and figures, must be submitted in electronic format. Electronic format submissions must be in a form that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will periodically issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files). Submissions under this paragraph must be made in accordance with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements of § 11.10(a), (c) through (h), and (k), and the corresponding requirements of § 11.30.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A summary of any changes in labeling that have been made since the last report listed by date in the order in which they were implemented, or if no changes, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Chemistry, manufacturing, and controls changes.</I> (<I>a</I>) Reports of experiences, investigations, studies, or tests involving chemical or physical properties, or any other properties of the drug (such as the drug's behavior or properties in relation to microorganisms, including both the effects of the drug on microorganisms and the effects of microorganisms on the drug). These reports are only required for new information that may affect FDA's previous conclusions about the safety or effectiveness of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A full description of the manufacturing and controls changes not requiring a supplemental application under § 314.70 (b) and (c), listed by date in the order in which they were implemented.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Nonclinical laboratory studies.</I> Copies of unpublished reports and summaries of published reports of new toxicological findings in animal studies and in vitro studies (e.g., mutagenicity) conducted by, or otherwise obtained by, the applicant concerning the ingredients in the drug product. The applicant shall submit a copy of a published report if requested by FDA.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Clinical data.</I> (<I>a</I>) Published clinical trials of the drug (or abstracts of them), including clinical trials on safety and effectiveness; clinical trials on new uses; biopharmaceutic, pharmacokinetic, and clinical pharmacology studies; and reports of clinical experience pertinent to safety (for example, epidemiologic studies or analyses of experience in a monitored series of patients) conducted by or otherwise obtained by the applicant. Review articles, papers describing the use of the drug product in medical practice, papers and abstracts in which the drug is used as a research tool, promotional articles, press clippings, and papers that do not contain tabulations or summaries of original data should not be reported. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Summaries of completed unpublished clinical trials, or prepublication manuscripts if available, conducted by, or otherwise obtained by, the applicant. Supporting information should not be reported. (A study is considered completed 1 year after it is concluded.)
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Analysis of available safety and efficacy data in the pediatric population and changes proposed in the labeling based on this information. An assessment of data needed to ensure appropriate labeling for the pediatric population shall be included.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Status reports of postmarketing study commitments.</I> A status report of each postmarketing study of the drug product concerning clinical safety, clinical efficacy, clinical pharmacology, and nonclinical toxicology that is required by FDA (e.g., accelerated approval clinical benefit studies, pediatric studies) or that the applicant has committed, in writing, to conduct either at the time of approval of an application for the drug product or a supplement to an application, or after approval of the application or a supplement. For pediatric studies, the status report shall include a statement indicating whether postmarketing clinical studies in pediatric populations were required by FDA under § 201.23 of this chapter. The status of these postmarketing studies shall be reported annually until FDA notifies the applicant, in writing, that the agency concurs with the applicant's determination that the study commitment has been fulfilled or that the study is either no longer feasible or would no longer provide useful information.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Content of status report.</I> The following information must be provided for each postmarketing study reported under this paragraph: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Applicant's name.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Product name.</I> Include the approved drug product's established name and proprietary name, if any. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>NDA, ANDA, and supplement number.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Date of U.S. approval of NDA or ANDA.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Date of postmarketing study commitment.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Description of postmarketing study commitment.</I> The description must include sufficient information to uniquely describe the study. This information may include the purpose of the study, the type of study, the patient population addressed by the study and the indication(s) and dosage(s) that are to be studied. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Schedule for completion and reporting of the postmarketing study commitment.</I> The schedule should include the actual or projected dates for submission of the study protocol to FDA, completion of patient accrual or initiation of an animal study, completion of the study, submission of the final study report to FDA, and any additional milestones or submissions for which projected dates were specified as part of the commitment. In addition, it should include a revised schedule, as appropriate. If the schedule has been previously revised, provide both the original schedule and the most recent, previously submitted revision. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Current status of the postmarketing study commitment.</I> The status of each postmarketing study should be categorized using one of the following terms that describes the study's status on the anniversary date of U.S. approval of the application or other agreed upon date: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Pending.</I> The study has not been initiated, but does not meet the criterion for delayed. 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Ongoing.</I> The study is proceeding according to or ahead of the original schedule described under paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>7</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Delayed.</I> The study is behind the original schedule described under paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>7</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Terminated.</I> The study was ended before completion but a final study report has not been submitted to FDA. 
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) <I>Submitted.</I> The study has been completed or terminated and a final study report has been submitted to FDA. 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) <I>Explanation of the study's status.</I> Provide a brief description of the status of the study, including the patient accrual rate (expressed by providing the number of patients or subjects enrolled to date, and the total planned enrollment), and an explanation of the study's status identified under paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>8</I>) of this section. If the study has been completed, include the date the study was completed and the date the final study report was submitted to FDA, as applicable. Provide a revised schedule, as well as the reason(s) for the revision, if the schedule under paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>7</I>) of this section has changed since the last report. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Public disclosure of information.</I> Except for the information described in this paragraph, FDA may publicly disclose any information described in paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section, concerning a postmarketing study, if the agency determines that the information is necessary to identify the applicant or to establish the status of the study, including the reasons, if any, for failure to conduct, complete, and report the study. Under this section, FDA will not publicly disclose trade secrets, as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter, or information, described in § 20.63 of this chapter, the disclosure of which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Status of other postmarketing studies.</I> A status report of any postmarketing study not included under paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section that is being performed by, or on behalf of, the applicant. A status report is to be included for any chemistry, manufacturing, and controls studies that the applicant has agreed to perform and for all product stability studies. 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Log of outstanding regulatory business.</I> To facilitate communications between FDA and the applicant, the report may, at the applicant's discretion, also contain a list of any open regulatory business with FDA concerning the drug product subject to the application (e.g., a list of the applicant's unanswered correspondence with the agency, a list of the agency's unanswered correspondence with the applicant).


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other reporting</I>—(i) <I>Advertisements and promotional labeling.</I> The applicant shall submit specimens of mailing pieces and any other labeling or advertising devised for promotion of the drug product at the time of initial dissemination of the labeling and at the time of initial publication of the advertisement for a prescription drug product. Mailing pieces and labeling that are designed to contain samples of a drug product are required to be complete, except the sample of the drug product may be omitted. Each submission is required to be accompanied by a completed transmittal Form FDA-2253 (Transmittal of Advertisements and Promotional Labeling for Drugs for Human Use) and is required to include a copy of the product's current professional labeling. Form FDA-2253 is available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/opacom/morechoices/fdaforms/cder.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special reports.</I> Upon written request the agency may require that the applicant submit the reports under this section at different times than those stated.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notification of a permanent discontinuance or an interruption in manufacturing.</I> (<I>a</I>) An applicant of a prescription drug product must notify FDA in writing of a permanent discontinuance of manufacture of the drug product or an interruption in manufacturing of the drug product that is likely to lead to a meaningful disruption in supply of that drug in the United States if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The drug product is life supporting, life sustaining, or intended for use in the prevention or treatment of a debilitating disease or condition, including any such drug used in emergency medical care or during surgery; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The drug product is not a radiopharmaceutical drug product.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Notifications required by paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>a</I>) of this section must be submitted to FDA electronically in a format that FDA can process, review, and archive:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) At least 6 months prior to the date of the permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If 6 months' advance notice is not possible because the permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing was not reasonably anticipated 6 months in advance, as soon as practicable thereafter, but in no case later than 5 business days after the permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing occurs.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Notifications required by paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>a</I>) of this section must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name of the drug subject to the notification, including the NDC for such drug;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whether the notification relates to a permanent discontinuance of the drug or an interruption in manufacturing of the drug;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A description of the reason for the permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The estimated duration of the interruption in manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>)(<I>1</I>) FDA will maintain a publicly available list of drugs that are determined by FDA to be in shortage. This drug shortages list will include the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The names and NDC(s) for such drugs;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The name of each applicant for such drugs;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The reason for the shortage, as determined by FDA from the following categories: Requirements related to complying with good manufacturing practices; regulatory delay; shortage of an active ingredient; shortage of an inactive ingredient component; discontinuation of the manufacture of the drug; delay in shipping of the drug; demand increase for the drug; or other reason; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The estimated duration of the shortage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) FDA may choose not to make information collected to implement this paragraph available on the drug shortages list or available under section 506C(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 356c(c)) if FDA determines that disclosure of such information would adversely affect the public health (such as by increasing the possibility of hoarding or other disruption of the availability of the drug to patients). FDA will also not provide information on the public drug shortages list or under section 506C(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that is protected by 18 U.S.C. 1905 or 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), including trade secrets and commercial or financial information that is considered confidential or privileged under § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) If an applicant fails to submit a notification as required under paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>a</I>) of this section and in accordance with paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, FDA will issue a letter to the applicant informing it of such failure.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Not later than 30 calendar days after the issuance of such a letter, the applicant must submit to FDA a written response setting forth the basis for noncompliance and providing the required notification under paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>a</I>) of this section and including the information required under paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>c</I>) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Not later than 45 calendar days after the issuance of a letter under paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>e</I>) of this section, FDA will make the letter and the applicant's response to the letter public, unless, after review of the applicant's response, FDA determines that the applicant had a reasonable basis for not notifying FDA as required under paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(<I>a</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The following definitions of terms apply to paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Drug shortage</I> or <I>shortage</I> means a period of time when the demand or projected demand for the drug within the United States exceeds the supply of the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Intended for use in the prevention or treatment of a debilitating disease or condition</I> means a drug product intended for use in the prevention or treatment of a disease or condition associated with mortality or morbidity that has a substantial impact on day-to-day functioning.
</P>
<P><I>Life supporting or life sustaining</I> means a drug product that is essential to, or that yields information that is essential to, the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life.
</P>
<P><I>Meaningful disruption</I> means a change in production that is reasonably likely to lead to a reduction in the supply of a drug by a manufacturer that is more than negligible and affects the ability of the manufacturer to fill orders or meet expected demand for its product, and does not include interruptions in manufacturing due to matters such as routine maintenance or insignificant changes in manufacturing so long as the manufacturer expects to resume operations in a short period of time.


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Withdrawal of approved drug product from sale.</I> (<I>a</I>) Within 30 calendar days of the withdrawal of an approved drug from sale, applicants who are manufacturers, repackers, or relabelers subject to part 207 of this chapter must submit the following information about the drug, in accordance with the applicable requirements described in §§ 207.61 and 207.65:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The National Drug Code (NDC);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The identity of the drug by established name and by proprietary name, if any;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The new drug application number or abbreviated application number;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The date on which the drug is expected to be no longer in commercial distribution. FDA requests that the reason for withdrawal of the drug from sale be included with the information.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Within 30 calendar days of the withdrawal of an approved drug from sale, applicants who are not subject to part 207 of this chapter must submit the information listed in paragraphs (b)(3)(iv)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>4</I>) of this section. The information must be submitted either electronically or in writing to the Drug Registration and Listing Office, Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Reporting under paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(<I>a</I>) of this section constitutes compliance with the requirements of § 207.57 of this chapter to update drug listing information with respect to the withdrawal from sale.


</P>
<P>(v) <I>Report of an additional condition for nonprescription use (ACNU) failure for a nonprescription drug product with an ACNU</I>—(A) <I>ACNU failure.</I> An ACNU failure occurs upon either of the following events:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A failure associated with the implementation of a key element of an ACNU under § 314.56(c)(1)(iv) or (c)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A failure associated with the operationalization of an ACNU under § 314.56(c)(1)(vii) or (c)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Review of ACNU failure.</I> The applicant must develop written procedures for the surveillance, receipt, evaluation, and reporting of ACNU failures to FDA.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Report of ACNU failure.</I> If an applicant receives or otherwise obtains information regarding an adverse drug experience associated with an ACNU failure before the submission of a report of an ACNU failure, an applicant must submit a report in the form of an individual case safety report (ICSR) that describes both the adverse drug experience and the associated ACNU failure. The ICSR must contain the information required in § 314.80(f) and paragraph (b)(3)(v)(A) of this section. If a previously submitted report of ACNU failure reports only an ACNU failure or if a previously submitted ICSR reports only an adverse drug experience, and the applicant subsequently receives or otherwise obtains information regarding an associated adverse drug experience or associated ACNU failure, the applicant must submit a follow up report to the previously submitted report with the new information. The follow-up report must include the information required in § 314.80(f) or paragraph (b)(3)(v)(A) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Content of Report of ACNU failure.</I> The report of an ACNU failure must include the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Required information.</I> The name, address, email, and telephone number of the applicant; an identifiable reporter; the drug product name; and the description of the ACNU failure.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Additional information if available to the applicant.</I> In addition, the report must include the following information, if known:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Drug product strength; National Drug Code (NDC); lot number; and NDA or ANDA number.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Initial reporter information including name, address, and telephone number of the initial reporter.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent follow-up report(s), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) ACNU failure term(s).
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Date of ACNU failure (or best estimate).
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Date the ACNU failure was reported to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Location of the ACNU failure, including business name and contact information.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Concise narrative summary of the ACNU failure including whether any of the following circumstances occurred: the consumer accessed or used the drug product without successfully fulfilling the ACNU; the consumer successfully fulfilled the ACNU but could not access or use the drug product; or the consumer was unable to make an attempt to fulfill the ACNU.
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) Description of the remedial action initiated or completed to address the ACNU failure, including the type of remedial action initiated or completed (for example, repair, replace, recall, inspection, modification, or adjustment).
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) Description of the corrective action to prevent reoccurrence of an ACNU failure of the same nature.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Submission.</I> (<I>1</I>) The applicant must submit the report of an ACNU failure as soon as possible but no later than 15 calendar days from the date when the applicant has acquired the minimum dataset for an ACNU failure.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The applicant must also investigate any new information it receives or otherwise obtains about a previously submitted report of an ACNU failure and assess the relationship or impact of the new information on the initial report. The applicant must submit any follow-up report of an ACNU failure as soon as possible but no later than 15 calendar days after obtaining the new information.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Electronic format for submissions.</I> (<I>1</I>) The report of an ACNU failure must be submitted to FDA in accordance with § 314.80(g).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An applicant may request, in writing, a waiver of the requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(v)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section in accordance with § 314.90 or § 314.99.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The applicant must maintain for a period of 10 years, the records of all reports of ACNU failures and associated adverse drug experiences known to the applicant, including raw data and any correspondence relating to a report of an ACNU failure.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Multiple applications.</I> For all reports required by this section, the applicant shall submit the information common to more than one application only to the application first approved, and shall not report separately on each application. The submission is required to identify all the applications to which the report applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Patient identification.</I> Applicants should not include in reports under this section the names and addresses of individual patients; instead, the applicant should code the patient names whenever possible and retain the code in the applicant's files. The applicant shall maintain sufficient patient identification information to permit FDA, by using that information alone or along with records maintained by the investigator of a study, to identify the name and address of individual patients; this will ordinarily occur only when the agency needs to investigate the reports further or when there is reason to believe that the reports do not represent actual results obtained.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Withdrawal of approval.</I> If an applicant fails to make reports required under this section, FDA may withdraw approval of the application and, thus, prohibit continued marketing of the drug product that is the subject of the application.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Collection of information requirements approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 14212, Apr. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992; 63 FR 66670, Dec. 2, 1998; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 65 FR 64617, Oct. 30, 2000; 66 FR 10815, Feb. 20, 2001; 68 FR 69019, Dec. 11, 2003; 69 FR 18766, Apr. 8, 2004; 69 FR 48775, Aug. 11, 2004; 72 FR 58999, Oct. 18, 2007; 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009; 74 FR 37167, July 28, 2009; 76 FR 78539, Dec. 19, 2011; 80 FR 38938, July 8, 2015; 81 FR 60221, Aug. 31, 2016; 89 FR 105331, Dec. 26, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.90" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.90   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may ask the Food and Drug Administration to waive under this section any requirement that applies to the applicant under §§ 314.50 through 314.81. An applicant may ask FDA to waive under § 314.126(c) any criteria of an adequate and well-controlled study described in § 314.126(b). A waiver request under this section is required to be submitted with supporting documentation in an NDA, or in an amendment or supplement to an NDA. The waiver request is required to contain one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation why the applicant's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary or cannot be achieved;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of an alternative submission that satisfies the purpose of the requirement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Other information justifying a waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may grant a waiver if it finds one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary for the agency to evaluate the NDA or compliance cannot be achieved;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant's alternative submission satisfies the requirement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's submission otherwise justifies a waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA grants the applicant's waiver request with respect to a requirement under §§ 314.50 through 314.81, the waived requirement will not constitute a basis for refusal to approve an NDA under § 314.125.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 81 FR 69649, Oct. 6, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Abbreviated Applications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 314.92" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.92   Drug products for which abbreviated applications may be submitted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Abbreviated applications are suitable for the following drug products within the limits set forth under § 314.93:
</P>
<P>(1) Drug products that are the same as a listed drug. A “listed drug” is defined in § 314.3. For determining the suitability of an abbreviated new drug application, the term “same as” means identical in active ingredient(s), dosage form, strength, route of administration, and conditions of use, except that conditions of use for which approval cannot be granted because of exclusivity or an existing patent may be omitted. If a listed drug has been voluntarily withdrawn from or not offered for sale by its manufacturer, a person who wishes to submit an abbreviated new drug application for the drug shall comply with § 314.122.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) Drug products that have been declared suitable for an abbreviated new drug application submission by FDA through the petition procedures set forth under § 10.30 of this chapter and § 314.93.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will publish in the list listed drugs for which abbreviated applications may be submitted. The list is available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, 202-783-3238.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.93" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.93   Petition to request a change from a listed drug.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The only changes from a listed drug for which the agency will accept a petition under this section are those changes described in paragraph (b) of this section. Petitions to submit ANDAs for other changes from a listed drug will not be approved.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who wants to submit an ANDA for a drug product which is not identical to a listed drug in route of administration, dosage form, and strength, or in which one active ingredient is substituted for one of the active ingredients in a listed combination drug, must first obtain permission from FDA to submit such an ANDA.
</P>
<P>(c) To obtain permission to submit an ANDA for a change described in paragraph (b) of this section, a person must submit and obtain approval of a petition requesting the change. A person seeking permission to request such a change from a reference listed drug shall submit a petition in accordance with § 10.20 of this chapter and in the format specified in § 10.30 of this chapter. The petition shall contain the information specified in § 10.30 of this chapter and any additional information required by this section. If any provision of § 10.20 or § 10.30 of this chapter is inconsistent with any provision of this section, the provisions of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(d) The petitioner shall identify a listed drug and include a copy of the proposed labeling for the drug product that is the subject of the petition and a copy of the approved labeling for the listed drug. The petitioner may, under limited circumstances, identify more than one listed drug, for example, when the proposed drug product is a combination product that differs from the combination reference listed drug with regard to an active ingredient, and the different active ingredient is an active ingredient of a listed drug. The petitioner shall also include information to show that:
</P>
<P>(1) The active ingredients of the proposed drug product are of the same pharmacological or therapeutic class as those of the reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(2) The drug product can be expected to have the same therapeutic effect as the reference listed drug when administered to patients for each condition of use in the reference listed drug's labeling for which the applicant seeks approval.


</P>
<P>(3) If the proposed drug product is a combination product with one different active ingredient, including a different ester or salt, from the reference listed drug, that the different active ingredient has previously been approved in a listed drug or is a drug that does not meet the definition of “new drug” in section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.




</P>
<P>(e) No later than 90 days after the date a petition that is permitted under paragraph (a) of this section is submitted, FDA will approve or disapprove the petition.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will approve a petition properly submited under this section unless it finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Investigations must be conducted to show the safety and effectiveness of the drug product or of any of its active ingredients, its route of administration, dosage form, or strength which differs from the reference listed drug; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a petition that seeks to change an active ingredient, the drug product that is the subject of the petition is not a combination drug; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For a combination drug product that is the subject of the petition and has an active ingredient different from the reference listed drug:
</P>
<P>(A) The drug product may not be adequately evaluated for approval as safe and effective on the basis of the information required to be submitted under § 314.94; or
</P>
<P>(B) The petition does not contain information to show that the different active ingredient of the drug product is of the same pharmacological or therapeutic class as the ingredient of the reference listed drug that is to be changed and that the drug product can be expected to have the same therapeutic effect as the reference listed drug when administered to patients for each condition of use in the listed drug's labeling for which the applicant seeks approval; or
</P>
<P>(C) The different active ingredient is not an active ingredient in a listed drug or a drug that meets the requirements of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(D) The remaining active ingredients are not identical to those of the listed combination drug; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any of the proposed changes from the listed drug would jeopardize the safe or effective use of the product so as to necessitate significant labeling changes to address the newly introduced safety or effectiveness problem; or
</P>
<P>(v) FDA has determined that the reference listed drug has been withdrawn from sale for safety or effectiveness reasons under § 314.161, or the reference listed drug has been voluntarily withdrawn from sale and the agency has not determined whether the withdrawal is for safety or effectiveness reasons; or
</P>
<P>(vi) A drug product is approved in an NDA for the change described in the petition.


</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph, “investigations must be conducted” means that information derived from animal or clinical studies is necessary to show that the drug product is safe or effective. Such information may be contained in published or unpublished reports.




</P>
<P>(3) If FDA approves a petition submitted under this section, the agency's response may describe what additional information, if any, will be required to support an ANDA for the drug product. FDA may, at any time during the course of its review of an ANDA, request additional information required to evaluate the change approved under the petition.




</P>
<P>(f)(1) FDA may withdraw approval of a petition if the agency receives any information demonstrating that the petition no longer satisfies the conditions under paragraph (e) of this section.






</P>
<P>(2) If, after approval of a petition and before approval of an ANDA submitted pursuant to the approved petition, a drug product is approved in an NDA for the change described in the petition, the petition and the listed drug identified in the petition can no longer be the basis for ANDA submission, irrespective of whether FDA has withdrawn approval of the petition. A person seeking approval for such drug product must submit a new ANDA that identifies the pharmaceutically equivalent reference listed drug as the basis for ANDA submission and comply with applicable regulatory requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 81 FR 69649, Oct. 6, 2016]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.94" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.94   Content and format of an ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>ANDAs are required to be submitted in the form and contain the information required under this section. Three copies of the ANDA are required, an archival copy, a review copy, and a field copy. FDA will maintain guidance documents on the format and content of ANDAs to assist applicants in their preparation.</P>
<P>(a) <I>ANDAs.</I>  Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the applicant must submit a complete archival copy of the abbreviated new drug application that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Application form.</I> The applicant must submit a completed and signed application form that contains the information described under § 314.50(a)(1), (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5). The applicant must state whether the submission is an ANDA under this section or a supplement to an ANDA under § 314.97.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Table of contents.</I> The archival copy of the ANDA is required to contain a table of contents that shows the volume number and page number of the contents of the submission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Basis for ANDA submission.</I> An ANDA must refer to a listed drug. Ordinarily, that listed drug will be the drug product selected by the Agency as the reference standard for conducting bioequivalence testing. The ANDA must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the reference listed drug, including its dosage form and strength. For an ANDA based on an approved petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and § 314.93, the reference listed drug must be the same as the listed drug referenced in the approved petition.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement as to whether, according to the information published in the list, the reference listed drug is entitled to a period of marketing exclusivity under section 505(j)(5)(F) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) For an ANDA based on an approved petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and § 314.93, a reference to the FDA-assigned docket number for the petition and a copy of FDA's correspondence approving the petition.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (i) A statement that the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling proposed for the drug product have been previously approved for the reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reference to the applicant's annotated proposed labeling and to the currently approved labeling for the reference listed drug provided under paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Active ingredients.</I> (i) For a single-active-ingredient drug product, information to show that the active ingredient is the same as that of the reference single-active-ingredient listed drug, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the active ingredient of the proposed drug product is the same as that of the reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(B) A reference to the applicant's annotated proposed labeling and to the currently approved labeling for the reference listed drug provided under paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a combination drug product, information to show that the active ingredients are the same as those of the reference listed drug except for any different active ingredient that has been the subject of an approved petition, as follows:




</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the active ingredients of the proposed drug product are the same as those of the reference listed drug, or if one of the active ingredients differs from one of the active ingredients of the reference listed drug and the ANDA is submitted under the approval of a petition under § 314.93 to vary such active ingredient, information to show that the other active ingredients of the drug product are the same as the other active ingredients of the reference listed drug, information to show that the different active ingredient is an active ingredient of another listed drug or of a drug that does not meet the definition of “new drug” in section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and such other information about the different active ingredient that FDA may require.




</P>
<P>(B) A reference to the applicant's annotated proposed labeling and to the currently approved labeling for the reference listed drug provided under paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Route of administration, dosage form, and strength.</I> (i) Information to show that the route of administration, dosage form, and strength of the drug product are the same as those of the reference listed drug except for any differences that have been the subject of an approved petition, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the route of administration, dosage form, and strength of the proposed drug product are the same as those of the reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(B) A reference to the applicant's annotated proposed labeling and to the currently approved labeling for the reference listed drug provided under paragraph (a)(8) of this section.




</P>
<P>(ii) If the route of administration, dosage form, or strength of the drug product differs from the reference listed drug and the ANDA is submitted under an approved petition under § 314.93, such information about the different route of administration, dosage form, or strength that FDA may require.




</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bioequivalence.</I> (i) Information that shows that the drug product is bioequivalent to the reference listed drug upon which the applicant relies. A complete study report must be submitted for the bioequivalence study upon which the applicant relies for approval. For all other bioequivalence studies conducted on the same drug product formulation as defined in § 314.3(b), the applicant must submit either a complete or summary report. If a summary report of a bioequivalence study is submitted and FDA determines that there may be bioequivalence issues or concerns with the product, FDA may require that the applicant submit a complete report of the bioequivalence study to FDA; or


</P>
<P>(ii) If the ANDA is submitted pursuant to a petition approved under § 314.93, the results of any bioavailability or bioequivalence testing required by the Agency, or any other information required by the Agency to show that the active ingredients of the proposed drug product are of the same pharmacological or therapeutic class as those in the reference listed drug and that the proposed drug product can be expected to have the same therapeutic effect as the reference listed drug. If the proposed drug product contains a different active ingredient than the reference listed drug, FDA will consider the proposed drug product to have the same therapeutic effect as the reference listed drug if the applicant provides information demonstrating that:
</P>
<P>(A) There is an adequate scientific basis for determining that substitution of the specific proposed dose of the different active ingredient for the dose of the member of the same pharmacological or therapeutic class in the reference listed drug will yield a resulting drug product whose safety and effectiveness have not been adversely affected.
</P>
<P>(B) The unchanged active ingredients in the proposed drug product are bioequivalent to those in the reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(C) The different active ingredient in the proposed drug product is bioequivalent to an approved dosage form containing that ingredient and approved for the same indication as the proposed drug product or is bioequivalent to a drug product offered for that indication which does not meet the definition of “new drug” under section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each in vivo or in vitro bioequivalence study contained in the ANDA:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the analytical and statistical methods used in each study; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to each study involving human subjects, a statement that the study either was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105 of this chapter, and that it was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter.














</P>
<P>(8) <I>Labeling</I>—(i) <I>Listed drug labeling.</I> A copy of the currently approved labeling (including, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter) for the listed drug referred to in the ANDA, if the ANDA relies on a reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Copies of proposed labeling.</I> Copies of the label and all labeling for the drug product including, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter (4 copies of draft labeling or 12 copies of final printed labeling).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Statement on proposed labeling.</I> A statement that the applicant's proposed labeling including, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter is the same as the labeling of the reference listed drug except for differences annotated and explained under paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section.


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Comparison of approved and proposed labeling.</I> A side-by-side comparison of the applicant's proposed labeling including, if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter with the approved labeling for the reference listed drug with all differences annotated and explained. Labeling (including the container label, package insert, and, if applicable, Medication Guide) proposed for the drug product must be the same as the labeling approved for the reference listed drug, except for changes required because of differences approved under a petition filed under § 314.93 or because the drug product and the reference listed drug are produced or distributed by different manufacturers. Such differences between the applicant's proposed labeling and labeling approved for the reference listed drug may include differences in expiration date, formulation, bioavailability, or pharmacokinetics, labeling revisions made to comply with current FDA labeling guidelines or other guidance, or omission of an indication or other aspect of labeling protected by patent or accorded exclusivity under section 505(j)(5)(F) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.




</P>
<P>(9) <I>Chemistry, manufacturing, and controls.</I> (i) The information required under § 314.50(d)(1), except that the information required under § 314.50(d)(1)(ii)(<I>c</I>) must contain the proposed or actual master production record, including a description of the equipment, to be used for the manufacture of a commercial lot of the drug product.








</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inactive ingredients.</I> Unless otherwise stated in paragraphs (a)(9)(iii) through (a)(9)(v) of this section, an applicant must identify and characterize the inactive ingredients in the proposed drug product and provide information demonstrating that such inactive ingredients do not affect the safety or efficacy of the proposed drug product.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Inactive ingredient changes permitted in drug products intended for parenteral use.</I> Generally, a drug product intended for parenteral use must contain the same inactive ingredients and in the same concentration as the reference listed drug identified by the applicant under paragraph (a)(3) of this section. However, an applicant may seek approval of a drug product that differs from the reference listed drug in preservative, buffer, or antioxidant provided that the applicant identifies and characterizes the differences and provides information demonstrating that the differences do not affect the safety or efficacy of the proposed drug product.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Inactive ingredient changes permitted in drug products intended for ophthalmic or otic use.</I> Generally, a drug product intended for ophthalmic or otic use must contain the same inactive ingredients and in the same concentration as the reference listed drug identified by the applicant under paragraph (a)(3) of this section. However, an applicant may seek approval of a drug product that differs from the reference listed drug in preservative, buffer, substance to adjust tonicity, or thickening agent provided that the applicant identifies and characterizes the differences and provides information demonstrating that the differences do not affect the safety or efficacy of the proposed drug product, except that, in a product intended for ophthalmic use, an applicant may not change a buffer or substance to adjust tonicity for the purpose of claiming a therapeutic advantage over or difference from the listed drug, e.g., by using a balanced salt solution as a diluent as opposed to an isotonic saline solution, or by making a significant change in the pH or other change that may raise questions of irritability.




</P>
<P>(v) <I>Inactive ingredient changes permitted in drug products intended for topical use.</I> Generally, a drug product intended for topical use, solutions for aerosolization or nebulization, and nasal solutions shall contain the same inactive ingredients as the reference listed drug identified by the applicant under paragraph (a)(3) of this section. However, an ANDA may include different inactive ingredients provided that the applicant identifies and characterizes the differences and provides information demonstrating that the differences do not affect the safety or efficacy of the proposed drug product. 






</P>
<P>(10) <I>Samples.</I> The information required under § 314.50(e)(1) and (e)(2)(i). Samples need not be submitted until requested by FDA.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Other.</I> The information required under § 314.50(g).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Patent certification</I>—(i) <I>Patents claiming drug substance, drug product, or method of use.</I> (A) An appropriate patent certification or statement with respect to each patent issued by the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office that, in the opinion of the applicant and to the best of its knowledge, claims the reference listed drug or that claims a use of such listed drug for which the applicant is seeking approval under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and for which information is required to be filed under section 505(b) and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53. For each such patent, the applicant must provide the patent number and certify, in its opinion and to the best of its knowledge, one of the following circumstances:


</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That the patent information has not been submitted to FDA. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph I Certification”; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That the patent has expired. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph II Certification”; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The date on which the patent will expire. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph III Certification”; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>)(<I>i</I>) That the patent is invalid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed by the manufacture, use, or sale of the drug product for which the ANDA is submitted. The applicant must entitle such a certification “Paragraph IV Certification”. This certification must be submitted in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I, (<I>name of applicant),</I> certify that Patent No. _____ (<I>is invalid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed by the manufacture, use, or sale of</I>) (<I>name of proposed drug product</I>) for which this ANDA is submitted.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The certification must be accompanied by a statement that the applicant will comply with the requirements under § 314.95(a) with respect to providing a notice to each owner of the patent or its representative and to the NDA holder (or, if the NDA holder does not reside or maintain a place of business within the United States, its attorney, agent, or other authorized official) for the listed drug, with the requirements under § 314.95(b) with respect to sending the notice, and with the requirements under § 314.95(c) with respect to the content of the notice.
</P>
<P>(B) If the ANDA refers to a listed drug that is itself a licensed generic product of a patented drug first approved under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, an appropriate patent certification or statement under paragraph (a)(12)(i) and/or (iii) of this section with respect to each patent that claims the first-approved patented drug or that claims a use for such drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No relevant patents.</I> If, in the opinion of the applicant and to the best of its knowledge, there are no patents described in paragraph (a)(12)(i) of this section, a certification in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In the opinion and to the best knowledge of (name of applicant), there are no patents that claim the listed drug referred to in this ANDA or that claim a use of the listed drug.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Method-of-use patent.</I> (A) If patent information is submitted under section 505(b) or (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53 for a patent claiming a method of using the listed drug, and the labeling for the drug product for which the applicant is seeking approval does not include an indication or other condition of use that is covered by the method-of-use patent, a statement explaining that the method-of-use patent does not claim a proposed indication or other condition of use.
</P>
<P>(B) If the labeling of the drug product for which the applicant is seeking approval includes an indication or other condition of use that, according to the patent information submitted under section 505(b) or (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53 or in the opinion of the applicant, is claimed by a method-of-use patent, an applicable certification under paragraph (a)(12)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Licensing agreements.</I> If the ANDA is for a drug or method of using a drug claimed by a patent and the applicant has a licensing agreement with the patent owner, the applicant must submit a paragraph IV certification as to that patent and a statement that the applicant has been granted a patent license. If the patent owner consents to approval of the ANDA (if otherwise eligible for approval) as of a specific date, the ANDA must contain a written statement from the patent owner that it has a licensing agreement with the applicant and that it consents to approval of the ANDA as of a specific date.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Untimely filing of patent information.</I> (A) If a patent on the listed drug is issued and the holder of the approved NDA for the listed drug does not file with FDA the required information on the patent within 30 days of issuance of the patent, an applicant who submitted an ANDA for that drug that contained an appropriate patent certification or statement before the submission of the patent information is not required to submit a patent certification or statement to address the patent or patent information that is late-listed with respect to the pending ANDA. Except as provided in § 314.53(f)(1), an NDA holder's amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent will be considered untimely filing of patent information unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent is submitted within 30 days of patent issuance;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent is submitted within 30 days of approval of a corresponding change to product labeling; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The amendment to the description of the approved method(s) of use claimed by the patent is submitted within 30 days of a decision by the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office or by a Federal district court, the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit, or the U.S. Supreme Court that is specific to the patent and alters the construction of a method-of-use claim(s) of the patent, and the amendment contains a copy of the decision.
</P>
<P>(B) An applicant whose ANDA is submitted after the NDA holder's untimely filing of patent information, or whose pending ANDA was previously submitted but did not contain an appropriate patent certification or statement at the time of the patent submission, must submit a certification under paragraph (a)(12)(i) of this section and/or a statement under paragraph (a)(12)(iii) of this section as to that patent.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Disputed patent information.</I> If an applicant disputes the accuracy or relevance of patent information submitted to FDA, the applicant may seek a confirmation of the correctness of the patent information in accordance with the procedures under § 314.53(f). Unless the patent information is withdrawn, the applicant must submit an appropriate certification or statement for each listed patent.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Amended certifications.</I> A patent certification or statement submitted under paragraphs (a)(12)(i) through (iii) of this section may be amended at any time before the approval of the ANDA. If an applicant with a pending ANDA voluntarily makes a patent certification for an untimely filed patent, the applicant may withdraw the patent certification for the untimely filed patent. An applicant must submit an amended certification as an amendment to a pending ANDA. Once an amendment is submitted to change a certification, the ANDA will no longer be considered to contain the prior certification.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>After finding of infringement.</I> An applicant who has submitted a paragraph IV certification and is sued for patent infringement must submit an amendment to change its certification if a court enters a final decision from which no appeal has been or can be taken, or signs and enters a settlement order or consent decree in the action that includes a finding that the patent is infringed, unless the final decision, settlement order, or consent decree also finds the patent to be invalid. In its amendment, the applicant must certify under paragraph (a)(12)(i)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section that the patent will expire on a specific date or, with respect to a patent claiming a method of use, the applicant may instead provide a statement under paragraph (a)(12)(iii) of this section if the applicant amends its ANDA such that the applicant is no longer seeking approval for a method of use claimed by the patent. Once an amendment for the change has been submitted, the ANDA will no longer be considered to contain a paragraph IV certification to the patent. If a final judgment finds the patent to be invalid and infringed, an amended certification is not required.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>After request to remove a patent or patent information from the list.</I> If the list reflects that an NDA holder has requested that a patent or patent information be removed from the list and no ANDA applicant is eligible for 180-day exclusivity based on a paragraph IV certification to that patent, the patent or patent information will be removed and any applicant with a pending ANDA (including a tentatively approved ANDA) who has made a certification with respect to such patent must submit an amendment to withdraw its certification. In the amendment, the applicant must state the reason for withdrawing the certification or statement (that the patent has been removed from the list). If the list reflects that an NDA holder has requested that a patent or patent information be removed from the list and one or more first applicants are eligible for 180-day exclusivity based on a paragraph IV certification to that patent, the patent will remain listed until any 180-day exclusivity based on that patent has expired or has been extinguished. After any applicable 180-day exclusivity has expired or has been extinguished, the patent or patent information will be removed and any applicant with a pending ANDA (including a tentatively approved ANDA) who has made a certification with respect to such patent must submit an amendment to withdraw its certification. Once an amendment to withdraw the certification has been submitted, the ANDA will no longer be considered to contain a paragraph IV certification to the patent. If removal of a patent from the list results in there being no patents listed for the listed drug identified in the ANDA, the applicant must submit an amended certification reflecting that there are no relevant patents.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Other amendments.</I> (<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(12)(vi) and (a)(12)(viii)(C)(<I>2</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An applicant must amend a submitted certification or statement if, at any time before the date of approval of the ANDA, the applicant learns that the submitted certification or statement is no longer accurate; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) An applicant must submit an appropriate patent certification or statement under paragraph (a)(12)(i) and/or (iii) of this section if, after submission of the ANDA, a new patent is issued by the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office that, in the opinion of the applicant and to the best of its knowledge, claims the reference listed drug or that claims an approved use for such reference listed drug and for which information is required to be filed under section 505(b) and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.53. For a paragraph IV certification, the certification must not be submitted earlier than the first working day after the day the patent is published in the list.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An applicant is not required to submit a supplement to change a submitted certification when information on a patent on the listed drug is submitted after the approval of the ANDA.








</P>
<P>(13) <I>Financial certification or disclosure statement.</I> An ANDA must contain a financial certification or disclosure statement as required by part 54 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Drug products subject to the Drug Efficacy Study Implementation (DESI) review.</I> If the ANDA is for a duplicate of a drug product that is subject to FDA's DESI review (a review of drug products approved as safe between 1938 and 1962) or other DESI-like review and the drug product evaluated in the review is a listed drug, the applicant must comply with the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format of an ANDA.</I> (1) The applicant must submit a complete archival copy of the ANDA as required under paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section. FDA will maintain the archival copy during the review of the ANDA to permit individual reviewers to refer to information that is not contained in their particular technical sections of the ANDA, to give other Agency personnel access to the ANDA for official business, and to maintain in one place a complete copy of the ANDA.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Format of submission.</I> An applicant may submit portions of the archival copy of the ANDA in any form that the applicant and FDA agree is acceptable, except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Labeling.</I> The content of labeling required under § 201.100(d)(3) of this chapter (commonly referred to as the package insert or professional labeling), including all text, tables, and figures, must be submitted to the agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section. This requirement applies to the content of labeling for the proposed drug product only and is in addition to the requirements of paragraph (a)(8)(ii) of this section that copies of the formatted label and all proposed labeling be submitted. Submissions under this paragraph must be made in accordance with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements of § 11.10(a), (c) through (h), and (k), and the corresponding requirements of § 11.30.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Electronic format submissions.</I> Electronic format submissions must be in a form that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will periodically issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files). 
</P>
<P>(2) For ANDAs, the applicant must submit a review copy of the ANDA that contains two separate sections. One section must contain the information described under paragraphs (a)(2) through (6) and (8) and (9) of this section and section 505(j)(2)(A)(vii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and a copy of the analytical procedures and descriptive information needed by FDA's laboratories to perform tests on samples of the proposed drug product and to validate the applicant's analytical procedures. The other section must contain the information described under paragraphs (a)(3), (7), and (8) of this section. Each of the sections in the review copy is required to contain a copy of the application form described under paragraph (a) of this section.








</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant may obtain from FDA sufficient folders to bind the archival, the review, and the field copies of the ANDA. 
</P>
<P>(5) The applicant must submit a field copy of the ANDA that contains the technical section described in paragraph (a)(9) of this section, a copy of the application form required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and a certification that the field copy is a true copy of the technical section described in paragraph (a)(9) of this section contained in the archival and review copies of the ANDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992; 57 FR 29353, July 1, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 47352, Sept. 8, 1993; 59 FR 50364, Oct. 3, 1994; 63 FR 5252, Feb. 2, 1998; 63 FR 66399, Dec. 1, 1998; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000; 67 FR 77672, Dec. 19, 2002; 68 FR 69019, Dec. 11, 2003; 69 FR 18766, Apr. 8, 2004; 74 FR 2861, Jan. 16, 2009; 76 FR 13880, Mar. 15, 2011; 81 FR 69649, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.95" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.95   Notice of certification of invalidity, unenforceability, or noninfringement of a patent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of certification.</I> For each patent that claims the listed drug or that claims a use for such listed drug for which the applicant is seeking approval and for which the applicant submits a paragraph IV certification, the applicant must send notice of such certification by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or by a designated delivery service, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section to each of the following persons:
</P>
<P>(1) Each owner of the patent that is the subject of the certification or the representative designated by the owner to receive the notice. The name and address of the patent owner or its representative may be obtained from the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office; and




</P>
<P>(2) The holder of the approved NDA under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for the listed drug that is claimed by the patent and for which the applicant is seeking approval, or, if the NDA holder does not reside or maintain a place of business within the United States, the NDA holder's attorney, agent, or other authorized official. The name and address of the NDA holder or its attorney, agent, or authorized official may be obtained by sending a written or electronic communication to the Central Document Room, Attn: Orange Book Staff, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266 or to the Orange Book Staff at the email address listed on the Agency's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph (a) does not apply to a method-of-use patent that does not claim a use for which the applicant is seeking approval.
</P>
<P>(4) An applicant may send notice by an alternative method only if FDA has agreed in advance that the method will produce an acceptable form of documentation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sending the notice.</I> (1) Except as provided under paragraph (d) of this section, the applicant must send the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section on or after the date it receives a paragraph IV acknowledgment letter from FDA, but not later than 20 days after the date of the postmark on the paragraph IV acknowledgment letter. The 20-day clock described in this paragraph (b) begins on the day after the date of the postmark on the paragraph IV acknowledgment letter. When the 20th day falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the 20th day will be the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(2) Any notice required by paragraph (a) of this section is invalid if it is sent before the applicant's receipt of a paragraph IV acknowledgment letter, or before the first working day after the day the patent is published in the list. The applicant will not have complied with this paragraph (b) until it sends valid notice.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must submit to FDA an amendment to its ANDA that includes a statement certifying that the notice has been provided to each person identified under paragraph (a) of this section and that the notice met the content requirements under paragraph (c) of this section. A copy of the notice itself need not be submitted to the Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of a notice.</I> In the notice, the applicant must cite section 505(j)(2)(B)(iv) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the notice must include, but is not limited to, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that FDA has received an ANDA submitted by the applicant containing any required bioavailability or bioequivalence data or information.
</P>
<P>(2) The ANDA number.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the applicant has received the paragraph IV acknowledgment letter for the ANDA.
</P>
<P>(4) The established name, if any, as defined in section 502(e)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, of the proposed drug product.
</P>
<P>(5) The active ingredient, strength, and dosage form of the proposed drug product.
</P>
<P>(6) The patent number and expiration date of each listed patent for the reference listed drug alleged to be invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed.
</P>
<P>(7) A detailed statement of the factual and legal basis of the applicant's opinion that the patent is not valid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed. The applicant must include in the detailed statement:
</P>
<P>(i) For each claim of a patent alleged not to be infringed, a full and detailed explanation of why the claim is not infringed.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each claim of a patent alleged to be invalid or unenforceable, a full and detailed explanation of the grounds supporting the allegation.
</P>
<P>(8) If the applicant alleges that the patent will not be infringed and the applicant seeks to preserve the option to later file a civil action for declaratory judgment in accordance with section 505(j)(5)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, then the notice must be accompanied by an offer of confidential access to the ANDA for the sole and limited purpose of evaluating possible infringement of the patent that is the subject of the paragraph IV certification.
</P>
<P>(9) If the applicant does not reside or have a place of business in the United States, the name and address of an agent in the United States authorized to accept service of process for the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment or supplement to an ANDA.</I> (1) If, after receipt of a paragraph IV acknowledgment letter or acknowledgment letter, an applicant submits an amendment or supplement to its ANDA that includes a paragraph IV certification, the applicant must send the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section at the same time that the amendment or supplement to the ANDA is submitted to FDA, regardless of whether the applicant has already given notice with respect to another such certification contained in the ANDA or in an amendment or supplement to the ANDA.
</P>
<P>(2) If, before receipt of a paragraph IV acknowledgment letter, an applicant submits an amendment to its ANDA that includes a paragraph IV certification, the applicant must send the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the procedures in paragraph (b) of this section. If an ANDA applicant's notice of its paragraph IV certification is timely provided in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and the applicant has not submitted a previous paragraph IV certification, FDA will base its determination of whether the applicant is a first applicant on the date of submission of the amendment containing the paragraph IV certification.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant that submits an amendment or supplement to seek approval of a different strength must provide notice of any paragraph IV certification in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Documentation of timely sending and receipt of notice.</I> The applicant must amend its ANDA to provide documentation of the date of receipt of the notice required under paragraph (a) of this section by each person provided the notice. The amendment must be submitted to FDA within 30 days after the last date on which notice was received by a person described in paragraph (a) of this section. The applicant's amendment also must include documentation that its notice was sent on a date that complies with the timeframe required by paragraph (b) or (d) of this section, as applicable, and a dated printout of the entry for the reference listed drug in FDA's “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations” (the list) that includes the patent that is the subject of the paragraph IV certification. FDA will accept, as adequate documentation of the date the notice was sent, a copy of the registered mail receipt, certified mail receipt, or receipt from a designated delivery service as defined in paragraph (g) of this section. FDA will accept as adequate documentation of the date of receipt a return receipt, signature proof of delivery by a designated delivery service, or a letter acknowledging receipt by the person provided the notice. An applicant may rely on another form of documentation only if FDA has agreed to such documentation in advance. A copy of the notice itself need not be submitted to the Agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Forty-five day period after receipt of notice.</I> If the requirements of this section are met, FDA will presume the notice to be complete and sufficient, and it will count the day following the date of receipt of the notice by the patent owner or its representative and by the approved NDA holder or its attorney, agent, or other authorized official as the first day of the 45-day period provided for in section 505(j)(5)(B)(iii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. FDA may, if the applicant provides a written statement to FDA that a later date should be used, count from such later date.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Designated delivery services.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, the term “designated delivery service” means any delivery service provided by a trade or business that the Agency determines:
</P>
<P>(i) Is available to the general public throughout the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records electronically to its database, kept in the regular course of its business, or marks on the cover in which any item referred to in this section is to be delivered, the date on which such item was given to such trade or business for delivery; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides overnight or 2-day delivery service throughout the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may periodically issue guidance regarding designated delivery services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69651, Oct. 6, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 6673, Feb. 28, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.96" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.96   Amendments to an unapproved ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>ANDA.</I> (1) An applicant may amend an ANDA that is submitted under § 314.94, but not yet approved, to revise existing information or provide additional information. Amendments containing bioequivalence studies must contain reports of all bioequivalence studies conducted by the applicant on the same drug product formulation, unless the information has previously been submitted to FDA in the ANDA. A complete study report must be submitted for any bioequivalence study upon which the applicant relies for approval. For all other bioequivalence studies conducted on the same drug product formulation as defined in § 314.3 of this chapter, the applicant must submit either a complete or summary report. If a summary report of a bioequivalence study is submitted and FDA determines that there may be bioequivalence issues or concerns with the product, FDA may require that the applicant submit a complete report of the bioequivalence study to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) Submission of an amendment containing significant data or information before the end of the initial review cycle constitutes an agreement between FDA and the applicant to extend the initial review cycle only for the time necessary to review the significant data or information and for no more than 180 days.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Field copy.</I> The applicant must submit a field copy of each amendment under § 314.94(a)(9). The applicant, other than a foreign applicant, must include in its submission of each such amendment to FDA a statement certifying that a field copy of the amendment has been sent to the applicant's home FDA district office.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Different listed drug.</I> An applicant may not amend an ANDA to seek approval of a drug referring to a listed drug that is different from the reference listed drug identified in the ANDA. This paragraph (c) applies if, at any time before the approval of the ANDA, a different listed drug is approved that is the pharmaceutical equivalent to the product in the ANDA and is designated as a reference listed drug. This paragraph (c) also applies if changes are proposed in an amendment to the ANDA such that the proposed product is a pharmaceutical equivalent to a different listed drug than the reference listed drug identified in the ANDA. A change of the reference listed drug must be submitted in a new ANDA. However, notwithstanding the limitation described in this paragraph (c), an applicant may amend the ANDA to seek approval of a different strength.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Patent certification requirements.</I> An amendment to an ANDA is required to contain an appropriate patent certification or statement described in § 314.94(a)(12) or a recertification for a previously submitted paragraph IV certification if approval is sought for any of the following types of amendments:
</P>
<P>(i) To add a new indication or other condition of use;
</P>
<P>(ii) To add a new strength;
</P>
<P>(iii) To make other than minor changes in product formulation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) To change the physical form or crystalline structure of the active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(2) If the amendment to the ANDA does not contain a patent certification or statement, the applicant must verify that the proposed change described in the amendment is not one of the types of amendments described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 47352, Sept. 8, 1993; 64 FR 401, Jan. 5, 1999; 73 FR 39609, July 10, 2008; 74 FR 2861, Jan. 16, 2009; 81 FR 69652, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.97" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.97   Supplements and other changes to an approved ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The applicant must comply with the requirements of §§ 314.70 and 314.71 regarding the submission of supplemental ANDAs and other changes to an approved ANDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Different listed drug.</I> An applicant may not supplement an ANDA to seek approval of a drug referring to a listed drug that is different from the current reference listed drug identified in the ANDA. This paragraph (b) applies if changes are proposed in a supplement to the ANDA such that the proposed product is a pharmaceutical equivalent to a different listed drug than the reference listed drug identified in the ANDA. A change of reference listed drug must be submitted in a new ANDA. However, notwithstanding the limitation described in this paragraph (b), an applicant may supplement the ANDA to seek approval of a different strength.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69653, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.98" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.98   Postmarketing reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant having an approved abbreviated new drug application under § 314.94 that is effective must comply with the requirements of § 314.80 regarding the reporting and recordkeeping of adverse drug experiences.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant must make the reports required under § 314.81 and section 505(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for each of its approved abbreviated applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 33089, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.99" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.99   Other responsibilities of an applicant of an ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant must comply with the requirements of § 314.65 regarding withdrawal by the applicant of an unapproved ANDA and § 314.72 regarding a change in ownership of an ANDA.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant may ask FDA to waive under this section any requirement that applies to the applicant under §§ 314.92 through 314.99. The applicant must comply with the requirements for a waiver under § 314.90. If FDA grants the applicant's waiver request with respect to a requirement under §§ 314.92 through 314.99, the waived requirement will not constitute a basis for refusal to approve an ANDA under § 314.127.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">81 FR 69653, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—FDA Action on Applications and Abbreviated Applications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 314.100" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.100   Timeframes for reviewing applications and abbreviated applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, within 180 days of receipt of an application for a new drug under section 505(b) of the act or an abbreviated application for a new drug under section 505(j) of the act, FDA will review it and send the applicant either an approval letter under § 314.105 or a complete response letter under § 314.110. This 180-day period is called the “initial review cycle.”
</P>
<P>(b) At any time before approval, an applicant may withdraw an application under § 314.65 or an abbreviated application under § 314.99 and later submit it again for consideration.
</P>
<P>(c) The initial review cycle may be adjusted by mutual agreement between FDA and an applicant or as provided in §§ 314.60 and 314.96, as the result of a major amendment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 39609, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.101" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.101   Filing an NDA and receiving an ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing an NDA.</I> (1) Within 60 days after FDA receives an NDA, the Agency will determine whether the NDA may be filed. The filing of an NDA means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the NDA is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA finds that none of the reasons in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section for refusing to file the NDA apply, the Agency will file the NDA and notify the applicant in writing. In the case of a 505(b)(2) application that contains a paragraph IV certification, the applicant will be notified via a paragraph IV acknowledgment letter. The date of filing will be the date 60 days after the date FDA received the NDA. The date of filing begins the 180-day period described in section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This 180-day period is called the “filing clock.”
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA refuses to file the NDA, the Agency will notify the applicant in writing and state the reason under paragraph (d) or (e) of this section for the refusal. If FDA refuses to file the NDA under paragraph (d) of this section, the applicant may request in writing within 30 days of the date of the Agency's notification an informal conference with the Agency about whether the Agency should file the NDA. If, following the informal conference, the applicant requests that FDA file the NDA (with or without amendments to correct the deficiencies), the Agency will file the NDA over protest under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, notify the applicant in writing, and review it as filed. If the NDA is filed over protest, the date of filing will be the date 60 days after the date the applicant requested the informal conference. The applicant need not resubmit a copy of an NDA that is filed over protest. If FDA refuses to file the NDA under paragraph (e) of this section, the applicant may amend the NDA and resubmit it, and the Agency will make a determination under this section whether it may be filed.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Receiving an ANDA.</I> An ANDA will be evaluated after it is submitted to determine whether the ANDA may be received. Receipt of an ANDA means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the abbreviated application is substantially complete.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA finds that none of the reasons in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section for considering the ANDA not to have been received applies, the ANDA is substantially complete and the Agency will receive the ANDA and notify the applicant in writing. If FDA determines, upon evaluation, that an ANDA was substantially complete as of the date it was submitted to FDA, FDA will consider the ANDA to have been received as of the date of submission. In the case of an ANDA that contains a paragraph IV certification, the applicant will be notified via a paragraph IV acknowledgment letter.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA considers the ANDA not to have been received under paragraph (d) or (e) of this section, FDA will notify the applicant of the refuse-to-receive decision. The applicant may then:
</P>
<P>(i) Withdraw the ANDA under § 314.99; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Correct the deficiencies and resubmit the ANDA; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Take no action, in which case FDA may consider the ANDA withdrawn after 1 year.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NDA or ANDA deficiencies.</I> FDA may refuse to file an NDA or may not consider an ANDA to be received if any of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) The NDA or ANDA does not contain a completed application form.
</P>
<P>(2) The NDA or ANDA is not submitted in the form required under § 314.50 or § 314.94.
</P>
<P>(3) The NDA or ANDA is incomplete because it does not on its face contain information required under section 505(b) or section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 314.50 or § 314.94. In determining whether an ANDA is incomplete on its face, FDA will consider the nature (e.g., major or minor) of the deficiencies, including the number of deficiencies in the ANDA.
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant fails to submit a complete environmental assessment, which addresses each of the items specified in the applicable format under § 25.40 of this chapter or fails to provide sufficient information to establish that the requested action is subject to categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.31 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) The NDA or ANDA does not contain an accurate and complete English translation of each part of the NDA or ANDA that is not in English.
</P>
<P>(6) The NDA or ANDA does not contain a statement for each nonclinical laboratory study that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, for each study not conducted in compliance with part 58 of this chapter, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(7) The NDA or ANDA does not contain a statement for each clinical study that the study was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to those regulations, and that it was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter, or, if the study was subject to but was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, the NDA or ANDA does not contain a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(8) The drug product that is the subject of the submission is already covered by an approved NDA or ANDA and the applicant of the submission:
</P>
<P>(i) Has an approved NDA or ANDA for the same drug product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is merely a distributor and/or repackager of the already approved drug product.
</P>
<P>(9) The NDA is submitted as a 505(b)(2) application for a drug that is a duplicate of a listed drug and is eligible for approval under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulatory deficiencies.</I> The Agency will refuse to file an NDA or will consider an ANDA not to have been received if any of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug product is subject to licensing by FDA under the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) and subchapter F of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Submission of a 505(b)(2) application or an ANDA is not permitted under section 505(c)(3)(E)(ii), 505(j)(5)(F)(ii), 505A(b)(1)(A)(i)(I), 505A(c)(1)(A)(i)(I), or 505E(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Outcome of FDA review.</I> (1) Within 180 days after the date of filing, plus the period of time the review period was extended (if any), FDA will either:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the NDA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Issue a notice of opportunity for a hearing if the applicant asked FDA to provide it an opportunity for a hearing on an NDA in response to a complete response letter.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 180 days after the date of receipt, plus the period of time the review clock was extended (if any), FDA will either approve or disapprove the ANDA. If FDA disapproves the ANDA, FDA will issue a notice of opportunity for hearing if the applicant asked FDA to provide it an opportunity for a hearing on an ANDA in response to a complete response letter.
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph (f) does not apply to NDAs or ANDAs that have been withdrawn from FDA review by the applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69653, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.102" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.102   Communications between FDA and applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General principles.</I> During the course of reviewing an application or an abbreviated application, FDA shall communicate with applicants about scientific, medical, and procedural issues that arise during the review process. Such communication may take the form of telephone conversations, letters, or meetings, whichever is most appropriate to discuss the particular issue at hand. Communications shall be appropriately documented in the application in accordance with § 10.65 of this chapter. Further details on the procedures for communication between FDA and applicants are contained in a staff manual guide that is publicly available.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of easily correctable deficiencies.</I> FDA reviewers shall make every reasonable effort to communicate promptly to applicants easily correctable deficiencies found in an application or an abbreviated application when those deficiencies are discovered, particularly deficiencies concerning chemistry, manufacturing, and controls issues. The agency will also inform applicants promptly of its need for more data or information or for technical changes in the application or the abbreviated application needed to facilitate the agency's review. This early communication is intended to permit applicants to correct such readily identified deficiencies relatively early in the review process and to submit an amendment before the review period has elapsed. Such early communication would not ordinarily apply to major scientific issues, which require consideration of the entire pending application or abbreviated application by agency managers as well as reviewing staff. Instead, major scientific issues will ordinarily be addressed in a complete response letter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ninety-day conference.</I> Approximately 90 days after the agency receives the application, FDA will provide applicants with an opportunity to meet with agency reviewing officials. The purpose of the meeting will be to inform applicants of the general progress and status of their applications, and to advise applicants of deficiencies that have been identified by that time and that have not already been communicated. This meeting will be available on applications for all new chemical entities and major new indications of marketed drugs. Such meetings will be held at the applicant's option, and may be held by telephone if mutually agreed upon. Such meetings would not ordinarily be held on abbreviated applications because they are not submitted for new chemical entities or new indications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>End-of-review conference.</I> At the conclusion of FDA's review of an NDA as designated by the issuance of a complete response letter, FDA will provide the applicant with an opportunity to meet with agency reviewing officials. The purpose of the meeting will be to discuss what further steps need to be taken by the applicant before the application can be approved. Requests for such meetings must be directed to the director of the division responsible for reviewing the application.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other meetings.</I> Other meetings between FDA and applicants may be held, with advance notice, to discuss scientific, medical, and other issues that arise during the review process. Requests for meetings shall be directed to the director of the division responsible for reviewing the application or abbreviated application. FDA will make every attempt to grant requests for meetings that involve important issues and that can be scheduled at mutually convenient times. However, “drop-in” visits (<I>i.e.</I>, an unannounced and unscheduled visit by a company representative) are discouraged except for urgent matters, such as to discuss an important new safety issue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17988, Apr. 28, 1992; 57 FR 29353, July 1, 1992, as amended at 73 FR 39609, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.103" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.103   Dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FDA is committed to resolving differences between applicants and FDA reviewing divisions with respect to technical requirements for applications or abbreviated applications as quickly and amicably as possible through the cooperative exchange of information and views.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative and procedural issues.</I> When administrative or procedural disputes arise, the applicant should first attempt to resolve the matter with the division responsible for reviewing the application or abbreviated application, beginning with the consumer safety officer assigned to the application or abbreviated application. If resolution is not achieved, the applicant may raise the matter with the person designated as ombudsman, whose function shall be to investigate what has happened and to facilitate a timely and equitable resolution. Appropriate issues to raise with the ombudsman include resolving difficulties in scheduling meetings, obtaining timely replies to inquiries, and obtaining timely completion of pending reviews. Further details on this procedure are contained in a staff manual guide that is publicly available under FDA's public information regulations in part 20.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scientific and medical disputes.</I> (1) Because major scientific issues are ordinarily communicated to applicants in a complete response letter pursuant to § 314.110, the “end-of-review conference” described in § 314.102(d) will provide a timely forum for discussing and resolving, if possible, scientific and medical issues on which the applicant disagrees with the agency. In addition, the “ninety-day conference” described in § 314.102(c) will provide a timely forum for discussing and resolving, if possible, issues identified by that date.
</P>
<P>(2) When scientific or medical disputes arise at other times during the review process, applicants should discuss the matter directly with the responsible reviewing officials. If necessary, applicants may request a meeting with the appropriate reviewing officials and management representatives in order to seek a resolution. Ordinarily, such meetings would be held first with the Division Director, then with the Office Director, and finally with the Center Director if the matter is still unresolved. Requests for such meetings shall be directed to the director of the division responsible for reviewing the application or abrreviated application. FDA will make every attempt to grant requests for meetings that involve important issues and that can be scheduled at mutually convenient times.
</P>
<P>(3) In requesting a meeting designed to resolve a scientific or medical dispute, applicants may suggest that FDA seek the advice of outside experts, in which case FDA may, in its discretion, invite to the meeting one or more of its advisory committee members or other consultants, as designated by the agency. Applicants may also bring their own consultants. For major scientific and medical policy issues not resolved by informal meetings, FDA may refer the matter to one of its standing advisory committees for its consideration and recommendations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 14212, Apr. 11, 1985, as amended at 57 FR 17989, Apr. 28, 1992; 73 FR 39609, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.104" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.104   Drugs with potential for abuse.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration will inform the Drug Enforcement Administration under section 201(f) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 801) when an application or abbreviated application is submitted for a drug that appears to have an abuse potential.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17989, Apr. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.105" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.105   Approval of an NDA and an ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will approve an NDA and send the applicant an approval letter if none of the reasons in § 314.125 for refusing to approve the NDA applies. FDA will issue a tentative approval letter if an NDA otherwise meets the requirements for approval under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, but cannot be approved because there is a 7-year period of orphan exclusivity for the listed drug under section 527 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 316.31 of this chapter, or if a 505(b)(2) application otherwise meets the requirements for approval under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, but cannot be approved until the conditions in § 314.107(b)(3) are met; because there is a period of exclusivity for the listed drug under § 314.108; because there is a period of pediatric exclusivity for the listed drug under section 505A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or because there is a period of exclusivity for the listed drug under section 505E of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A drug product that is granted tentative approval is not an approved drug and will not be approved until FDA issues an approval after any necessary additional review of the NDA. FDA's tentative approval of a drug product is based on information available to FDA at the time of the tentative approval letter (<I>i.e.,</I> information in the 505(b)(2) application and the status of current good manufacturing practices of the facilities used in the manufacturing and testing of the drug product) and is therefore subject to change on the basis of new information that may come to FDA's attention. A new drug product may not be marketed until the date of approval.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will approve an NDA and issue the applicant an approval letter on the basis of draft labeling if the only deficiencies in the NDA concern editorial or similar minor deficiencies in the draft labeling. Such approval will be conditioned upon the applicant incorporating the specified labeling changes exactly as directed, and upon the applicant submitting to FDA a copy of the final printed labeling prior to marketing.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will approve an NDA after it determines that the drug meets the statutory standards for safety and effectiveness, manufacturing and controls, and labeling, and an ANDA after it determines that the drug meets the statutory standards for manufacturing and controls, labeling, and, where applicable, bioequivalence. While the statutory standards apply to all drugs, the many kinds of drugs that are subject to the statutory standards and the wide range of uses for those drugs demand flexibility in applying the standards. Thus FDA is required to exercise its scientific judgment to determine the kind and quantity of data and information an applicant is required to provide for a particular drug to meet the statutory standards. FDA makes its views on drug products and classes of drugs available through guidance documents, recommendations, and other statements of policy.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will approve an ANDA and send the applicant an approval letter if none of the reasons in § 314.127 for refusing to approve the ANDA applies. FDA will issue a tentative approval letter if an ANDA otherwise meets the requirements for approval under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, but cannot be approved because there is a 7-year period of orphan exclusivity for the listed drug under section 527 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 316.31 of this chapter, or cannot be approved until the conditions in § 314.107(b)(3) or (c) are met; because there is a period of exclusivity for the listed drug under § 314.108; because there is a period of pediatric exclusivity for the listed drug under section 505A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or because there is a period of exclusivity for the listed drug under section 505E of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A drug product that is granted tentative approval is not an approved drug and will not be approved until FDA issues an approval after any necessary additional review of the ANDA. FDA's tentative approval of a drug product is based on information available to FDA at the time of the tentative approval letter (<I>i.e.,</I> information in the ANDA and the status of current good manufacturing practices of the facilities used in the manufacturing and testing of the drug product) and is therefore subject to change on the basis of new information that may come to FDA's attention. A new drug product may not be marketed until the date of approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69654, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.106" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.106   Foreign data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The acceptance of foreign data in an application generally is governed by § 312.120 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>As sole basis for marketing approval.</I> An application based solely on foreign clinical data meeting U.S. criteria for marketing approval may be approved if: (1) The foreign data are applicable to the U.S. population and U.S. medical practice; (2) the studies have been performed by clinical investigators of recognized competence; and (3) the data may be considered valid without the need for an on-site inspection by FDA or, if FDA considers such an inspection to be necessary, FDA is able to validate the data through an on-site inspection or other appropriate means. Failure of an application to meet any of these criteria will result in the application not being approvable based on the foreign data alone. FDA will apply this policy in a flexible manner according to the nature of the drug and the data being considered.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation between FDA and applicants.</I> Applicants are encouraged to meet with agency officials in a “presubmission” meeting when approval based solely on foreign data will be sought.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.107" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.107   Date of approval of a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A drug product may be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce when the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA for the drug product is approved. A 505(b)(2) application or ANDA for a drug product is approved on the date FDA issues an approval letter under § 314.105 for the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of patent(s) on the listed drug.</I> As described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, the status of patents listed for the listed drug(s) relied upon or reference listed drug, as applicable, must be considered in determining the first possible date on which a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA can be approved. The criteria in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section will be used to determine, for each relevant patent, the date that patent will no longer prevent approval. The first possible date on which the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA can be approved will be calculated for each patent, and the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved on the last applicable date.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timing of approval based on patent certification or statement.</I> If none of the reasons in § 314.125 or § 314.127, as applicable, for refusing to approve the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA applies, and none of the reasons in paragraph (d) of this section for delaying approval applies, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately, if the applicant certifies under § 314.50(i) or § 314.94(a)(12) that:
</P>
<P>(A) The applicant is aware of a relevant patent but the patent information required under section 505(b) or (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act has not been submitted to FDA; or
</P>
<P>(B) The relevant patent has expired; or
</P>
<P>(C) The relevant patent is invalid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (c) of this section, and the 45-day period provided for in section 505(c)(3)(C) and (j)(5)(B)(iii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act has expired; or
</P>
<P>(D) There are no relevant patents.
</P>
<P>(ii) Immediately, if the applicant submits an appropriate statement under § 314.50(i) or § 314.94(a)(12) explaining that a method-of-use patent does not claim an indication or other condition of use for which the applicant is seeking approval, except that if the applicant also submits a paragraph IV certification to the patent, then the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) On the date specified, if the applicant certifies under § 314.50(i) or § 314.94(a)(12) that the relevant patent will expire on a specified date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Patent information filed after submission of 505(b)(2) application or ANDA.</I> If the holder of the approved NDA for the listed drug submits patent information required under § 314.53 after the date on which the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA was submitted to FDA, the 505(b)(2) applicant or ANDA applicant must comply with the requirements of § 314.50(i)(4) and (6) and § 314.94(a)(12)(vi) and (viii) regarding submission of an appropriate patent certification or statement. If the applicant submits an amendment certifying under § 314.50(i)(1)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) or § 314.94(a)(12)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) that the relevant patent is invalid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed, and complies with the requirements of § 314.52 or § 314.95, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved immediately upon submission of documentation of receipt of notice of paragraph IV certification under § 314.52(e) or § 314.95(e). The 45-day period provided for in section 505(c)(3)(C) and (j)(5)(B)(iii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act does not apply in these circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disposition of patent litigation</I>—(i) <I>Approval upon expiration of 30-month period or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years from date of listed drug approval.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) through (viii) of this section, if, with respect to patents for which required information was submitted under § 314.53 before the date on which the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA was submitted to FDA (excluding an amendment or supplement to the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA), the applicant certifies under § 314.50(i) or § 314.94(a)(12) that the relevant patent is invalid, unenforceable, or will not be infringed, and the patent owner or its representative or the exclusive patent licensee brings suit for patent infringement within 45 days of receipt of the notice of certification from the applicant under § 314.52 or § 314.95, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved 30 months after the later of the date of the receipt of the notice of certification by any owner of the listed patent or by the NDA holder (or its representative(s)) unless the court has extended or reduced the period because of a failure of either the plaintiff or defendant to cooperate reasonably in expediting the action; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the patented drug product qualifies for 5 years of exclusive marketing under § 314.108(b)(2) and the patent owner or its representative or the exclusive patent licensee brings suit for patent infringement during the 1-year period beginning 4 years after the date of approval of the patented drug and within 45 days of receipt of the notice of certification from the applicant under § 314.52 or § 314.95, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved at the expiration of the 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years from the date of approval of the NDA for the patented drug product.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Federal district court decision of invalidity, unenforceability, or non-infringement.</I> If before the expiration of the 30-month period, or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years where applicable, the district court decides that the patent is invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed (including any substantive determination that there is no cause of action for patent infringement or invalidity), the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved on:
</P>
<P>(A) The date on which the court enters judgment reflecting the decision; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date of a settlement order or consent decree signed and entered by the court stating that the patent that is the subject of the certification is invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Appeal of Federal district court judgment of infringement.</I> If before the expiration of the 30-month period, or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years where applicable, the district court decides that the patent has been infringed, and if the judgment of the district court is appealed, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved on:
</P>
<P>(A) The date on which the mandate is issued by the court of appeals entering judgment that the patent is invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed (including any substantive determination that there is no cause of action for patent infringement or invalidity); or
</P>
<P>(B) The date of a settlement order or consent decree signed and entered by the court of appeals stating that the patent that is the subject of the certification is invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Affirmation or non-appeal of Federal district court judgment of infringement.</I> If before the expiration of the 30-month period, or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years where applicable, the district court decides that the patent has been infringed, and if the judgment of the district court is not appealed or is affirmed, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved no earlier than the date specified by the district court in an order under 35 U.S.C. 271(e)(4)(A).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Grant of preliminary injunction by Federal district court.</I> If before the expiration of the 30-month period, or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years where applicable, the district court grants a preliminary injunction prohibiting the applicant from engaging in the commercial manufacture or sale of the drug product until the court decides the issues of patent validity and infringement, and if the court later decides that:
</P>
<P>(A) The patent is invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The patent is infringed, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) or (iv) of this section, whichever is applicable.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Written consent to approval by patent owner or exclusive patent licensee.</I> If before the expiration of the 30-month period, or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years where applicable, the patent owner or the exclusive patent licensee (or their representatives) agrees in writing that the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved any time on or after the date of the consent, approval may be granted on or after that date.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Court order terminating 30-month or 7
<FR>1/2</FR>-year period.</I> If before the expiration of the 30-month period, or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years where applicable, the court enters an order requiring the 30-month or 7
<FR>1/2</FR>-year period to be terminated, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved in accordance with the court's order.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Court order of dismissal without a finding of infringement.</I> If before the expiration of the 30-month period, or 7
<FR>1/2</FR> years where applicable, the court(s) enter(s) an order of dismissal, with or without prejudice, without a finding of infringement in each pending suit for patent infringement brought within 45 days of receipt of the notice of paragraph IV certification sent by the 505(b)(2) or ANDA applicant, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved on or after the date of the order.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tentative approval.</I> FDA will issue a tentative approval letter when tentative approval is appropriate in accordance with this section. In order for a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA to be approved under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the applicant must receive an approval letter from the Agency. Tentative approval of an NDA or ANDA does not constitute “approval” of an NDA or ANDA and cannot, absent an approval letter from the Agency, result in an approval under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of approval of subsequent ANDA.</I> (1) If an ANDA contains a paragraph IV certification for a relevant patent and the ANDA is not that of a first applicant, the ANDA is regarded as the ANDA of a subsequent applicant. The ANDA of a subsequent applicant will not be approved during the period when any first applicant is eligible for 180-day exclusivity or during the 180-day exclusivity period of a first applicant. Any applicable 180-day exclusivity period cannot extend beyond the expiration of the patent upon which the 180-day exclusivity period was based.
</P>
<P>(2) A first applicant must submit correspondence to its ANDA notifying FDA within 30 days of the date of its first commercial marketing of its drug product or the reference listed drug. If an applicant does not notify FDA, as required in this paragraph (c)(2), of this date, the date of first commercial marketing will be deemed to be the date of the drug product's approval.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA concludes that a first applicant is not actively pursuing approval of its ANDA, FDA may immediately approve an ANDA(s) of a subsequent applicant(s) if the ANDA(s) is otherwise eligible for approval.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delay due to exclusivity.</I> The Agency will also delay the approval of a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA if delay is required by the exclusivity provisions in § 314.108; section 527 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 316.31 of this chapter; section 505A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or section 505E of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. When the approval of a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA is delayed under this section and § 314.108; section 527 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 316.31 of this chapter; section 505A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or section 505E of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA will be approved on the latest of the days specified under this section and § 314.108; section 527 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 316.31 of this chapter; section 505A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or section 505E of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification of court actions or written consent to approval.</I> (1) The applicant must submit the following information to FDA, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of any judgment by the court (district court or mandate of the court of appeals) or settlement order or consent decree signed and entered by the court (district court or court of appeals) finding a patent described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section invalid, unenforceable, or not infringed, or finding the patent valid and infringed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Written notification of whether or not any action by the court described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section has been appealed within the time permitted for an appeal;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of any order entered by the court terminating the 30-month or 7
<FR>1/2</FR>-year period as described in paragraph (b)(3)(i), (ii), (vii), or (viii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) A copy of any written consent to approval by the patent owner or exclusive patent licensee described in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) A copy of any preliminary injunction described in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section, and a copy of any subsequent court order lifting the injunction; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A copy of any court order pursuant to 35 U.S.C. 271(e)(4)(A) ordering that a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved no earlier than the date specified (irrespective of whether the injunction relates to a patent described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) All information required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section must be sent to the applicant's NDA or ANDA, as appropriate, within 14 days of the date of entry by the court, the date of appeal or expiration of the time for appeal, or the date of written consent to approval, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Forty-five day period after receipt of notice of paragraph IV certification</I>—(1) <I>Computation of 45-day time clock.</I> The 45-day clock described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section as to each recipient required to receive notice of paragraph IV certification under § 314.52 or § 314.95 begins on the day after the date of receipt of the applicant's notice of paragraph IV certification by the recipient. When the 45th day falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the 45th day will be the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification of filing of legal action.</I> (i) The 505(b)(2) or ANDA applicant must notify FDA in writing within 14 days of the filing of any legal action filed within 45 days of receipt of the notice of paragraph IV certification by any recipient. A 505(b)(2) applicant must send the notification to its NDA. An ANDA applicant must send the notification to its ANDA. The notification to FDA of the legal action must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The 505(b)(2) application or ANDA number.
</P>
<P>(B) The name of the 505(b)(2) or ANDA applicant.
</P>
<P>(C) The established name of the drug product or, if no established name exists, the name(s) of the active ingredient(s), the drug product's strength, and dosage form.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that an action for patent infringement, identified by court, case number, and the patent number(s) of the patent(s) at issue in the action, has been filed in an appropriate court on a specified date.
</P>
<P>(ii) A patent owner or NDA holder (or its representative(s)) may also notify FDA of the filing of any legal action for patent infringement. The notice should contain the information and be sent to the offices or divisions described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the 505(b)(2) or ANDA applicant, the patent owner(s), the NDA holder, or its representative(s) does not notify FDA in writing before the expiration of the 45-day time period or the completion of the Agency's review of the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA, whichever occurs later, that a legal action for patent infringement was filed within 45 days of receipt of the notice of paragraph IV certification, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved upon expiration of the 45-day period (if the 505(b)(2) or ANDA applicant confirms that a legal action for patent infringement has not been filed) or upon completion of the Agency's review of the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver.</I> If the patent owner or NDA holder who is an exclusive patent licensee (or its representative(s)) waives its opportunity to file a legal action for patent infringement within 45 days of a receipt of the notice of certification and the patent owner or NDA holder who is an exclusive patent licensee (or its representative(s)) submits to FDA a valid waiver before the 45 days elapse, the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be approved upon completion of the Agency's review of the NDA or ANDA. FDA will only accept a waiver in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>Name of patent owner or NDA holder who is an exclusive patent licensee or its representative(s)</I>) has received notice from (<I>name of applicant</I>) under (<I>section 505(b)(3) or 505(j)(2)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act</I>) and does not intend to file an action for patent infringement against (<I>name of applicant</I>) concerning the drug (<I>name of drug</I>) before (<I>date on which 45 days elapse</I>). (<I>Name of patent owner or NDA holder who is an exclusive patent licensee</I>) waives the opportunity provided by (<I>section 505(c)(3)(C) or 505(j)(5)(B)(iii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act</I>) and does not object to FDA's approval of (<I>name of applicant</I>)'s (<I>505(b)(2) application or ANDA</I>) for (<I>name of drug</I>) with an approval date on or after the date of this submission.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) <I>Conversion of approval to tentative approval.</I> If FDA issues an approval letter in error or a court enters an order requiring, in the case of an already approved 505(b)(2) application or ANDA, that the date of approval be delayed, FDA will convert the approval to a tentative approval if appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69655, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.108" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.108   New drug product exclusivity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in § 314.3 and the following definitions of terms apply to this section: 
</P>
<P><I>Approved under section 505(b)</I> means an NDA submitted under section 505(b) and approved on or after October 10, 1962, or an application that was “deemed approved” under section 107(c)(2) of Public Law 87-781.
</P>
<P><I>Bioavailability study</I> means a study to determine the bioavailability or the pharmacokinetics of a drug. 
</P>
<P><I>Clinical investigation</I> means any experiment other than a bioavailability study in which a drug is administered or dispensed to, or used on, human subjects. 
</P>
<P><I>Conducted or sponsored by the applicant</I> with regard to an investigation means that before or during the investigation, the applicant was named in Form FDA-1571 filed with FDA as the sponsor of the investigational new drug application under which the investigation was conducted, or the applicant or the applicant's predecessor in interest, provided substantial support for the investigation. To demonstrate “substantial support,” an applicant must either provide a certified statement from a certified public accountant that the applicant provided 50 percent or more of the cost of conducting the study or provide an explanation why FDA should consider the applicant to have conducted or sponsored the study if the applicant's financial contribution to the study is less than 50 percent or the applicant did not sponsor the investigational new drug. A predecessor in interest is an entity, e.g., a corporation, that the applicant has taken over, merged with, or purchased, or from which the applicant has purchased all rights to the drug. Purchase of nonexclusive rights to a clinical investigation after it is completed is not sufficient to satisfy this definition. 
</P>
<P><I>Essential to approval</I> means, with regard to an investigation, that there are no other data available that could support approval of the NDA.
</P>
<P><I>New chemical entity</I> means a drug that contains no active moiety that has been approved by FDA in any other NDA submitted under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P><I>New clinical investigation</I> means an investigation in humans the results of which have not been relied on by FDA to demonstrate substantial evidence of effectiveness of a previously approved drug product for any indication or of safety for a new patient population and do not duplicate the results of another investigation that was relied on by the agency to demonstrate the effectiveness or safety in a new patient population of a previously approved drug product. For purposes of this section, data from a clinical investigation previously submitted for use in the comprehensive evaluation of the safety of a drug product but not to support the effectiveness of the drug product would be considered new. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of and timing of approval of a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA.</I> (1) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) If a drug product that contains a new chemical entity was approved after September 24, 1984, in an NDA submitted under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, no person may submit a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for a drug product that contains the same active moiety as in the new chemical entity for a period of 5 years from the date of approval of the first approved NDA, except that the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA may be submitted after 4 years if it contains a certification of patent invalidity or noninfringement described in § 314.50(i)(1)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) or § 314.94(a)(12)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) The approval of a 505(b)(2) application or ANDA described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section will occur as provided in § 314.107(b)(1) or (2), unless the owner of a patent that claims the drug, the patent owner's representative, or exclusive licensee brings suit for patent infringement against the applicant during the 1-year period beginning 48 months after the date of approval of the NDA for the new chemical entity and within 45 days after receipt of the notice described at § 314.52 or § 314.95, in which case, approval of the 505(b)(2) application or ANDA will occur as provided in § 314.107(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) If an NDA:
</P>
<P>(i) Was submitted under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Was approved after September 24, 1984;
</P>
<P>(iii) Was for a drug product that contains an active moiety that has been previously approved in another NDA under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Contained reports of new clinical investigations (other than bioavailability studies) conducted or sponsored by the applicant that were essential to approval of the application, for a period of 3 years after the date of approval of the application, the Agency will not approve a 505(b)(2) application or an ANDA for the conditions of approval of the NDA, or an ANDA submitted pursuant to an approved petition under section 505(j)(2)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that relies on the information supporting the conditions of approval of an original NDA.
</P>
<P>(5) If a supplemental NDA:
</P>
<P>(i) Was approved after September 24, 1984; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contained reports of new clinical investigations (other than bioavailability studies) that were conducted or sponsored by the applicant that were essential to approval of the supplemental NDA, for a period of 3 years after the date of approval of the supplemental application, the Agency will not approve a 505(b)(2) application or an ANDA for a change, or an ANDA submitted pursuant to an approved petition under section 505(j)(2)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that relies on the information supporting a change approved in the supplemental NDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 50368, Oct. 3, 1994, as amended at 81 FR 69657, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.110" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.110   Complete response letter to the applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Complete response letter.</I> FDA will send the applicant a complete response letter if the agency determines that we will not approve the application or abbreviated application in its present form for one or more of the reasons given in § 314.125 or § 314.127, respectively.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Description of specific deficiencies.</I> A complete response letter will describe all of the specific deficiencies that the agency has identified in an application or abbreviated application, except as stated in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complete review of data.</I> A complete response letter reflects FDA's complete review of the data submitted in an original application or abbreviated application (or, where appropriate, a resubmission) and any amendments that the agency has reviewed. The complete response letter will identify any amendments that the agency has not yet reviewed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inadequate data.</I> If FDA determines, after an application is filed or an abbreviated application is received, that the data submitted are inadequate to support approval, the agency might issue a complete response letter without first conducting required inspections and/or reviewing proposed product labeling.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Recommendation of actions for approval.</I> When possible, a complete response letter will recommend actions that the applicant might take to place the application or abbreviated application in condition for approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicant actions.</I> After receiving a complete response letter, the applicant must take one of following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Resubmission.</I> Resubmit the application or abbreviated application, addressing all deficiencies identified in the complete response letter.
</P>
<P>(i) A resubmission of an application or efficacy supplement that FDA classifies as a Class 1 resubmission constitutes an agreement by the applicant to start a new 2-month review cycle beginning on the date FDA receives the resubmission.
</P>
<P>(ii) A resubmission of an application or efficacy supplement that FDA classifies as a Class 2 resubmission constitutes an agreement by the applicant to start a new 6-month review cycle beginning on the date FDA receives the resubmission.
</P>
<P>(iii) A resubmission of an NDA supplement other than an efficacy supplement constitutes an agreement by the applicant to start a new review cycle the same length as the initial review cycle for the supplement (excluding any extension due to a major amendment of the initial supplement), beginning on the date FDA receives the resubmission.
</P>
<P>(iv) A major resubmission of an abbreviated application constitutes an agreement by the applicant to start a new 6-month review cycle beginning on the date FDA receives the resubmission.
</P>
<P>(v) A minor resubmission of an abbreviated application constitutes an agreement by the applicant to start a new review cycle beginning on the date FDA receives the resubmission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Withdrawal.</I> Withdraw the application or abbreviated application. A decision to withdraw an application or abbreviated application is without prejudice to a subsequent submission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request opportunity for hearing.</I> Ask the agency to provide the applicant an opportunity for a hearing on the question of whether there are grounds for denying approval of the application or abbreviated application under section 505(d) or (j)(4) of the act, respectively. The applicant must submit the request to the Associate Director for Policy, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993. Within 60 days of the date of the request for an opportunity for a hearing, or within a different time period to which FDA and the applicant agree, the agency will either approve the application or abbreviated application under § 314.105, or refuse to approve the application under § 314.125 or abbreviated application under § 314.127 and give the applicant written notice of an opportunity for a hearing under § 314.200 and section 505(c)(1)(B) or (j)(5)(c) of the act on the question of whether there are grounds for denying approval of the application or abbreviated application under section 505(d) or (j)(4) of the act, respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to take action.</I> (1) An applicant agrees to extend the review period under section 505(c)(1) or (j)(5)(A) of the act until it takes any of the actions listed in paragraph (b) of this section. For an application or abbreviated application, FDA may consider an applicant's failure to take any of such actions within 1 year after issuance of a complete response letter to be a request by the applicant to withdraw the application, unless the applicant has requested an extension of time in which to resubmit the application. FDA will grant any reasonable request for such an extension. FDA may consider an applicant's failure to resubmit the application within the extended time period or to request an additional extension to be a request by the applicant to withdraw the application.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA considers an applicant's failure to take action in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section to be a request to withdraw the application, the agency will notify the applicant in writing. The applicant will have 30 days from the date of the notification to explain why the application should not be withdrawn and to request an extension of time in which to resubmit the application. FDA will grant any reasonable request for an extension. If the applicant does not respond to the notification within 30 days, the application will be deemed to be withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 39609, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.120" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.120   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.122" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.122   Submitting an abbreviated application for, or a 505(j)(2)(C) petition that relies on, a listed drug that is no longer marketed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An abbreviated new drug application that refers to, or a petition under section 505(j)(2)(C) of the act and § 314.93 that relies on, a listed drug that has been voluntarily withdrawn from sale in the United States must be accompanied by a petition seeking a determination whether the listed drug was withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons. The petition must be submitted under §§ 10.25(a) and 10.30 of this chapter and must contain all evidence available to the petitioner concerning the reasons for the withdrawal from sale. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a petition described in paragraph (a) of this section is submitted, the agency will consider the evidence in the petition and any other evidence before the agency, and determine whether the listed drug is withdrawn from sale for safety or effectiveness reasons, in accordance with the procedures in § 314.161. 
</P>
<P>(c) An abbreviated new drug application described in paragraph (a) of this section will be disapproved, under § 314.127(a)(11), and a 505(j)(2)(C) petition described in paragraph (a) of this section will be disapproved, under § 314.93(e)(1)(iv), unless the agency determines that the withdrawal of the listed drug was not for safety or effectiveness reasons.
</P>
<P>(d) Certain drug products approved for safety and effectiveness that were no longer marketed on September 24, 1984, are not included in the list. Any person who wishes to obtain marketing approval for such a drug product under an abbreviated new drug application must petition FDA for a determination whether the drug product was withdrawn from the market for safety or effectiveness reasons and request that the list be amended to include the drug product. A person seeking such a determination shall use the petition procedures established in § 10.30 of this chapter. The petitioner shall include in the petition information to show that the drug product was approved for safety and effectiveness and all evidence available to the petitioner concerning the reason that marketing of the drug product ceased.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17990, Apr. 28, 1992; 57 FR 29353, July 1, 1992]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.125" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.125   Refusal to approve an NDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will refuse to approve the NDA and for a new drug give the applicant written notice of an opportunity for a hearing under § 314.200 on the question of whether there are grounds for denying approval of the NDA under section 505(d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, if:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA sends the applicant a complete response letter under § 314.110;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant requests an opportunity for hearing for a new drug on the question of whether the NDA is approvable; and
</P>
<P>(3) FDA finds that any of the reasons given in paragraph (b) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may refuse to approve an NDA for any of the following reasons, unless the requirement has been waived under § 314.90:


</P>
<P>(1) The methods to be used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of the drug substance or the drug product are inadequate to preserve its identity, strength, quality, purity, stability, and bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(2) The investigations required under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act do not include adequate tests by all methods reasonably applicable to show whether or not the drug is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling.
</P>
<P>(3) The results of the tests show that the drug is unsafe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling or the results do not show that the drug product is safe for use under those conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) There is insufficient information about the drug to determine whether the product is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling.
</P>
<P>(5) There is a lack of substantial evidence consisting of adequate and well-controlled investigations, as defined in § 314.126, that the drug product will have the effect it purports or is represented to have under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling.
</P>
<P>(6) The proposed labeling is false or misleading in any particular.
</P>
<P>(7) The NDA contains an untrue statement of a material fact.
</P>
<P>(8) The drug product's proposed labeling does not comply with the requirements for labels and labeling in part 201.
</P>
<P>(9) The NDA does not contain bioavailability or bioequivalence data required under part 320 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(10) A reason given in a letter refusing to file the NDA under § 314.101(d), if the deficiency is not corrected.
</P>
<P>(11) The drug will be manufactured in whole or in part in an establishment that is not registered and not exempt from registration under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and part 207.
</P>
<P>(12) The applicant does not permit a properly authorized officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services an adequate opportunity to inspect the facilities, controls, and any records relevant to the NDA.
</P>
<P>(13) The methods to be used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of the drug substance or the drug product do not comply with the current good manufacturing practice regulations in parts 210 and 211.
</P>
<P>(14) The NDA does not contain an explanation of the omission of a report of any investigation of the drug product sponsored by the applicant, or an explanation of the omission of other information about the drug pertinent to an evaluation of the NDA that is received or otherwise obtained by the applicant from any source.
</P>
<P>(15) A nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the NDA and that is essential to show that the drug is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 of this chapter and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study.
</P>
<P>(16) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the NDA, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected.
</P>
<P>(17) The applicant or contract research organization that conducted a bioavailability or bioequivalence study described in § 320.38 or § 320.63 of this chapter that is contained in the NDA refuses to permit an inspection of facilities or records relevant to the study by a properly authorized officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services or refuses to submit reserve samples of the drug products used in the study when requested by FDA.
</P>
<P>(18) For a new drug, the NDA failed to contain the patent information required by section 505(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(19) The 505(b)(2) application failed to contain a patent certification or statement with respect to each listed patent for a drug product approved in an NDA that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is pharmaceutically equivalent to the drug product for which the original 505(b)(2) application is submitted; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Was approved before the original 505(b)(2) application was submitted.
</P>
<P>(20) For an NDA for a nonprescription drug product with an additional condition for nonprescription use under § 314.56, if FDA has determined the application failed to meet the requirements in § 314.56 applicable to NDAs.










</P>
<P>(c) For drugs intended to treat life-threatening or severely-debilitating illnesses that are developed in accordance with §§ 312.80 through 312.88 of this chapter, the criteria contained in paragraphs (b) (3), (4), and (5) of this section shall be applied according to the considerations contained in § 312.84 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 41524, Oct. 21, 1988; 57 FR 17991, Apr. 28, 1992; 58 FR 25926, Apr. 28, 1993; 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999; 73 FR 39610, July 10, 2008; 74 FR 9766, Mar. 6, 2009; 81 FR 60221, Aug. 31, 2016; 81 FR 69658, Oct. 6, 2016; 89 FR 105331, Dec. 26, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.126" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.126   Adequate and well-controlled studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of conducting clinical investigations of a drug is to distinguish the effect of a drug from other influences, such as spontaneous change in the course of the disease, placebo effect, or biased observation. The characteristics described in paragraph (b) of this section have been developed over a period of years and are recognized by the scientific community as the essentials of an adequate and well-controlled clinical investigation. The Food and Drug Administration considers these characteristics in determining whether an investigation is adequate and well-controlled for purposes of section 505 of the act. Reports of adequate and well-controlled investigations provide the primary basis for determining whether there is “substantial evidence” to support the claims of effectiveness for new drugs. Therefore, the study report should provide sufficient details of study design, conduct, and analysis to allow critical evaluation and a determination of whether the characteristics of an adequate and well-controlled study are present.
</P>
<P>(b) An adequate and well-controlled study has the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a clear statement of the objectives of the investigation and a summary of the proposed or actual methods of analysis in the protocol for the study and in the report of its results. In addition, the protocol should contain a description of the proposed methods of analysis, and the study report should contain a description of the methods of analysis ultimately used. If the protocol does not contain a description of the proposed methods of analysis, the study report should describe how the methods used were selected.
</P>
<P>(2) The study uses a design that permits a valid comparison with a control to provide a quantitative assessment of drug effect. The protocol for the study and report of results should describe the study design precisely; for example, duration of treatment periods, whether treatments are parallel, sequential, or crossover, and whether the sample size is predetermined or based upon some interim analysis. Generally, the following types of control are recognized:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Placebo concurrent control.</I> The test drug is compared with an inactive preparation designed to resemble the test drug as far as possible. A placebo-controlled study may include additional treatment groups, such as an active treatment control or a dose-comparison control, and usually includes randomization and blinding of patients or investigators, or both.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dose-comparison concurrent control.</I> At least two doses of the drug are compared. A dose-comparison study may include additional treatment groups, such as placebo control or active control. Dose-comparison trials usually include randomization and blinding of patients or investigators, or both.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No treatment concurrent control.</I> Where objective measurements of effectiveness are available and placebo effect is negligible, the test drug is compared with no treatment. No treatment concurrent control trials usually include randomization.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Active treatment concurrent control.</I> The test drug is compared with known effective therapy; for example, where the condition treated is such that administration of placebo or no treatment would be contrary to the interest of the patient. An active treatment study may include additional treatment groups, however, such as a placebo control or a dose-comparison control. Active treatment trials usually include randomization and blinding of patients or investigators, or both. If the intent of the trial is to show similarity of the test and control drugs, the report of the study should assess the ability of the study to have detected a difference between treatments. Similarity of test drug and active control can mean either that both drugs were effective or that neither was effective. The analysis of the study should explain why the drugs should be considered effective in the study, for example, by reference to results in previous placebo-controlled studies of the active control drug.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Historical control.</I> The results of treatment with the test drug are compared with experience historically derived from the adequately documented natural history of the disease or condition, or from the results of active treatment, in comparable patients or populations. Because historical control populations usually cannot be as well assessed with respect to pertinent variables as can concurrent control populations, historical control designs are usually reserved for special circumstances. Examples include studies of diseases with high and predictable mortality (for example, certain malignancies) and studies in which the effect of the drug is self-evident (general anesthetics, drug metabolism).
</P>
<P>(3) The method of selection of subjects provides adequate assurance that they have the disease or condition being studied, or evidence of susceptibility and exposure to the condition against which prophylaxis is directed.
</P>
<P>(4) The method of assigning patients to treatment and control groups minimizes bias and is intended to assure comparability of the groups with respect to pertinent variables such as age, sex, severity of disease, duration of disease, and use of drugs or therapy other than the test drug. The protocol for the study and the report of its results should describe how subjects were assigned to groups. Ordinarily, in a concurrently controlled study, assignment is by randomization, with or without stratification.
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate measures are taken to minimize bias on the part of the subjects, observers, and analysts of the data. The protocol and report of the study should describe the procedures used to accomplish this, such as blinding.
</P>
<P>(6) The methods of assessment of subjects' response are well-defined and reliable. The protocol for the study and the report of results should explain the variables measured, the methods of observation, and criteria used to assess response.
</P>
<P>(7) There is an analysis of the results of the study adequate to assess the effects of the drug. The report of the study should describe the results and the analytic methods used to evaluate them, including any appropriate statistical methods. The analysis should assess, among other things, the comparability of test and control groups with respect to pertinent variables, and the effects of any interim data analyses performed.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research may, on the Director's own initiative or on the petition of an interested person, waive in whole or in part any of the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a specific clinical investigation, either prior to the investigation or in the evaluation of a completed study. A petition for a waiver is required to set forth clearly and concisely the specific criteria from which waiver is sought, why the criteria are not reasonably applicable to the particular clinical investigation, what alternative procedures, if any, are to be, or have been employed, and what results have been obtained. The petition is also required to state why the clinical investigations so conducted will yield, or have yielded, substantial evidence of effectiveness, notwithstanding nonconformance with the criteria for which waiver is requested.
</P>
<P>(d) For an investigation to be considered adequate for approval of a new drug, it is required that the test drug be standardized as to identity, strength, quality, purity, and dosage form to give significance to the results of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(e) Uncontrolled studies or partially controlled studies are not acceptable as the sole basis for the approval of claims of effectiveness. Such studies carefully conducted and documented, may provide corroborative support of well-controlled studies regarding efficacy and may yield valuable data regarding safety of the test drug. Such studies will be considered on their merits in the light of the principles listed here, with the exception of the requirement for the comparison of the treated subjects with controls. Isolated case reports, random experience, and reports lacking the details which permit scientific evaluation will not be considered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990; 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.127" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.127   Refusal to approve an ANDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will refuse to approve an ANDA for a new drug under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for any of the following reasons, unless the requirement has been waived under § 314.99:


</P>
<P>(1) The methods used in, or the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, and packing of the drug product are inadequate to ensure and preserve its identity, strength, quality, and purity.
</P>
<P>(2) Information submitted with the ANDA is insufficient to show that each of the proposed conditions of use has been previously approved for the listed drug referred to in the ANDA.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) If the reference listed drug has only one active ingredient, information submitted with the ANDA is insufficient to show that the active ingredient is the same as that of the reference listed drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the reference listed drug has more than one active ingredient, information submitted with the ANDA is insufficient to show that the active ingredients are the same as the active ingredients of the reference listed drug; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the reference listed drug has more than one active ingredient and if the ANDAis for a drug product that has an active ingredient different from the reference listed drug:
</P>
<P>(A) Information submitted with the ANDA is insufficient to show:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That the other active ingredients are the same as the active ingredients of the reference listed drug; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That the different active ingredient is an active ingredient of a listed drug or a drug that does not meet the requirements of section 201(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or 
</P>
<P>(B) No petition to submit an ANDA for the drug product with the different active ingredient was approved under § 314.93.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) If the ANDA is for a drug product whose route of administration, dosage form, or strength purports to be the same as that of the listed drug referred to in the ANDA, information submitted in the abbreviated new drug application is insufficient to show that the route of administration, dosage form, or strength is the same as that of the reference listed drug; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the ANDA is for a drug product whose route of administration, dosage form, or strength is different from that of the listed drug referred to in the application, no petition to submit an ANDA for the drug product with the different route of administration, dosage form, or strength was approved under § 314.93.
</P>
<P>(5) If the ANDA was submitted under the approval of a petition under § 314.93, the ANDA did not contain the information required by FDA with respect to the active ingredient, route of administration, dosage form, or strength that is not the same as that of the reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Information submitted in the ANDA is insufficient to show that the drug product is bioequivalent to the listed drug referred to in the ANDA; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the ANDA was submitted under a petition approved under § 314.93, information submitted in the ANDA is insufficient to show that the active ingredients of the drug product are of the same pharmacological or therapeutic class as those of the reference listed drug and that the drug product can be expected to have the same therapeutic effect as the reference listed drug when administered to patients for each condition of use approved for the reference listed drug.
</P>
<P>(7) Information submitted in the ANDA is insufficient to show that the labeling proposed for the drug is the same as the labeling approved for the listed drug referred to in the ANDA except for changes required because of differences approved in a petition under § 314.93 or because the drug product and the reference listed drug are produced or distributed by different manufacturers or because aspects of the listed drug's labeling are protected by patent, or by exclusivity, and such differences do not render the proposed drug product less safe or effective than the listed drug for all remaining, nonprotected conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Information submitted in the ANDA or any other information available to FDA shows that:


</P>
<P>(A) The inactive ingredients of the drug product are unsafe for use, as described in paragraph (a)(8)(ii) of this section, under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling proposed for the drug product; or
</P>
<P>(B) The composition of the drug product is unsafe, as described in paragraph (a)(8)(ii) of this section, under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling because of the type or quantity of inactive ingredients included or the manner in which the inactive ingredients are included.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) FDA will consider the inactive ingredients or composition of a drug product unsafe and refuse to approve an ANDA under paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section if, on the basis of information available to the agency, there is a reasonable basis to conclude that one or more of the inactive ingredients of the proposed drug or its composition raises serious questions of safety or efficacy. From its experience with reviewing inactive ingredients, and from other information available to it, FDA may identify changes in inactive ingredients or composition that may adversely affect a drug product's safety or efficacy. The inactive ingredients or composition of a proposed drug product will be considered to raise serious questions of safety or efficacy if the product incorporates one or more of these changes. Examples of the changes that may raise serious questions of safety or efficacy include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A change in an inactive ingredient so that the product does not comply with an official compendium.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A change in composition to include an inactive ingredient that has not been previously approved in a drug product for human use by the same route of administration.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A change in the composition of a parenteral drug product to include an inactive ingredient that has not been previously approved in a parenteral drug product.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A change in composition of a drug product for ophthalmic use to include an inactive ingredient that has not been previously approved in a drug for ophthalmic use.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The use of a delivery or a modified release mechanism never before approved for the drug.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A change in composition to include a significantly greater content of one or more inactive ingredients than previously used in the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the drug product is intended for topical administration, a change in the properties of the vehicle or base that might increase absorption of certain potentially toxic active ingredients thereby affecting the safety of the drug product, or a change in the lipophilic properties of a vehicle or base, e.g., a change from an oleaginous to a water soluble vehicle or base.
</P>
<P>(B) FDA will consider an inactive ingredient in, or the composition of, a drug product intended for parenteral use to be unsafe and will refuse to approve the ANDA unless it contains the same inactive ingredients, other than preservatives, buffers, and antioxidants, in the same concentration as the listed drug, and, if it differs from the listed drug in a preservative, buffer, or antioxidant, the ANDA contains sufficient information to demonstrate that the difference does not affect the safety or efficacy of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(C) FDA will consider an inactive ingredient in, or the composition of, a drug product intended for ophthalmic or otic use unsafe and will refuse to approve the ANDA unless it contains the same inactive ingredients, other than preservatives, buffers, substances to adjust tonicity, or thickening agents, in the same concentration as the listed drug, and if it differs from the listed drug in a preservative, buffer, substance to adjust tonicity, or thickening agent, the ANDA contains sufficient information to demonstrate that the difference does not affect the safety or efficacy of the drug product and the labeling does not claim any therapeutic advantage over or difference from the listed drug.
</P>
<P>(9) Approval of the listed drug referred to in the ANDA has been withdrawn or suspended for grounds described in § 314.150(a) or FDA has published a notice of opportunity for hearing to withdraw approval of the reference listed drug under § 314.150(a). 
</P>
<P>(10) Approval of the listed drug referred to in the ANDA has been withdrawn under § 314.151 or FDA has proposed to withdraw approval of the reference listed drug under § 314.151(a). 
</P>
<P>(11) FDA has determined that the reference listed drug has been withdrawn from sale for safety or effectiveness reasons under § 314.161, or the reference listed drug has been voluntarily withdrawn from sale and the agency has not determined whether the withdrawal is for safety or effectiveness reasons, or approval of the reference listed drug has been suspended under § 314.153, or the agency has issued an initial decision proposing to suspend the reference listed drug under § 314.153(a)(1). 
</P>
<P>(12) The abbreviated new drug application does not meet any other requirement under section 505(j)(2)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(13) The abbreviated new drug application contains an untrue statement of material fact.
</P>
<P>(14) For an ANDA submitted pursuant to an approved petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and § 314.93, an NDA subsequently has been approved for the change described in the approved petition.
</P>
<P>(15) For an ANDA for a nonprescription drug product with an additional condition for nonprescription use under § 314.56, if FDA has determined the application failed to meet the requirements in § 314.56 applicable to ANDAs.



 
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may refuse to approve an ANDA for a new drug if the applicant or contract research organization that conducted a bioavailability or bioequivalence study described in § 320.63 of this chapter that is contained in the ANDA refuses to permit an inspection of facilities or records relevant to the study by a properly authorized officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services or refuses to submit reserve samples of the drug products used in the study when requested by FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17991, Apr. 28, 1992; 57 FR 29353, July 1, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 25927, Apr. 28, 1993; 67 FR 77672, Dec. 19, 2002; 81 FR 69658, Oct. 6, 2016; 89 FR 105331, Dec. 26, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.150" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.150   Withdrawal of approval of an application or abbreviated application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will notify the applicant, and, if appropriate, all other persons who manufacture or distribute identical, related, or similar drug products as defined in §§ 310.6 and 314.151(a) of this chapter and for a new drug afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to withdraw approval of the application or abbreviated new drug application under section 505(e) of the act and under the procedure in § 314.200, if any of the following apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Health and Human Services has suspended the approval of the application or abbreviated application for a new drug on a finding that there is an imminent hazard to the public health. FDA will promptly afford the applicant an expedited hearing following summary suspension on a finding of imminent hazard to health. 
</P>
<P>(2) FDA finds:
</P>
<P>(i) That clinical or other experience, tests, or other scientific data show that the drug is unsafe for use under the conditions of use upon the basis of which the application or abbreviated application was approved; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) That new evidence of clinical experience, not contained in the application or not available to FDA until after the application or abbreviated application was approved, or tests by new methods, or tests by methods not deemed reasonably applicable when the application or abbreviated application was approved, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application or abbreviated application was approved, reveal that the drug is not shown to be safe for use under the conditions of use upon the basis of which the application or abbreviated application was approved; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon the basis of new information before FDA with respect to the drug, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application or abbreviated application was approved, that there is a lack of substantial evidence from adequate and well-controlled investigations as defined in § 314.126, that the drug will have the effect it is purported or represented to have under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its labeling; or
</P>
<P>(iv) That the application or abbreviated application contains any untrue statement of a material fact; or
</P>
<P>(v) That the patent information prescribed by section 505(c) of the act was not submitted within 30 days after the receipt of written notice from FDA specifying the failure to submit such information; or
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may notify the applicant, and, if appropriate, all other persons who manufacture or distribute identical, related, or similar drug products as defined in § 310.6, and for a new drug afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to withdraw approval of the application or abbreviated new drug application under section 505(e) of the act and under the procedure in § 314.200, if the agency finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That the applicant has failed to establish a system for maintaining required records, or has repeatedly or deliberately failed to maintain required records or to make required reports under section 505(k) or 507(g) of the act and § 314.80, § 314.81, or § 314.98, or that the applicant has refused to permit access to, or copying or verification of, its records.
</P>
<P>(2) That on the basis of new information before FDA, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application or abbreviated application was approved, the methods used in, or the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, and packing of the drug are inadequate to ensure and preserve its identity, strength, quality, and purity and were not made adequate within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the agency.
</P>
<P>(3) That on the basis of new information before FDA, evaluated together with the evidence available when the application or abbreviated application was approved, the labeling of the drug, based on a fair evaluation of all material facts, is false or misleading in any particular, and the labeling was not corrected by the applicant within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the agency.
</P>
<P>(4) That the applicant has failed to comply with the notice requirements of section 510(j)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(5) That the applicant has failed to submit bioavailability or bioequivalence data required under part 320 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) The application or abbreviated application does not contain an explanation of the omission of a report of any investigation of the drug product sponsored by the applicant, or an explanation of the omission of other information about the drug pertinent to an evaluation of the application or abbreviated application that is received or otherwise obtained by the applicant from any source.
</P>
<P>(7) That any nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the application or abbreviated application and that is essential to show that the drug is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its labeling was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 of this chapter and no reason for the noncompliance was provided or, if it was, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study.
</P>
<P>(8) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the application or abbreviated application, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected.
</P>
<P>(9) That the applicant or contract research organization that conducted a bioavailability or bioequivalence study described in § 320.38 or § 320.63 of this chapter that is contained in the application or abbreviated application refuses to permit an inspection of facilities or records relevant to the study by a properly authorized officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services or refuses to submit reserve samples of the drug products used in the study when requested by FDA.
</P>
<P>(10) That the labeling for the drug product that is the subject of the abbreviated new drug application is no longer consistent with that for the listed drug referred to in the abbreviated new drug application, except for differences approved in the abbreviated new drug application or those differences resulting from:
</P>
<P>(i) A patent on the listed drug issued after approval of the abbreviated new drug application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclusivity accorded to the listed drug after approval of the abbreviated new drug application that do not render the drug product less safe or effective than the listed drug for any remaining, nonprotected condition(s) of use.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will withdraw approval of an application or abbreviated application if the applicant requests its withdrawal because the drug subject to the application or abbreviated application is no longer being marketed, provided none of the conditions listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section applies to the drug. FDA will consider a written request for a withdrawal under this paragraph to be a waiver of an opportunity for hearing otherwise provided for in this section. Withdrawal of approval of an application or abbreviated application under this paragraph is without prejudice to refiling.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may notify an applicant that it believes a potential problem associated with a drug is sufficiently serious that the drug should be removed from the market and may ask the applicant to waive the opportunity for hearing otherwise provided for under this section, to permit FDA to withdraw approval of the application or abbreviated application for the product, and to remove voluntarily the product from the market. If the applicant agrees, the agency will not make a finding under paragraph (b) of this section, but will withdraw approval of the application or abbreviated application in a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that contains a brief summary of the agency's and the applicant's views of the reasons for withdrawal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17993, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 25927, Apr. 28, 1993; 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.151" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.151   Withdrawal of approval of an abbreviated new drug application under section 505(j)(5) of the act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Approval of an abbreviated new drug application approved under § 314.105(d) may be withdrawn when the agency withdraws approval, under § 314.150(a) or under this section, of the approved drug referred to in the abbreviated new drug application. If the agency proposed to withdraw approval of a listed drug under § 314.150(a), the holder of an approved application for the listed drug has a right to notice and opportunity for hearing. The published notice of opportunity for hearing will identify all drug products approved under § 314.105(d) whose applications are subject to withdrawal under this section if the listed drug is withdrawn, and will propose to withdraw such drugs. Holders of approved applications for the identified drug products will be provided notice and an opportunity to respond to the proposed withdrawal of their applications as described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The published notice of opportunity for hearing on the withdrawal of the listed drug will serve as notice to holders of identified abbreviated new drug applications of the grounds for the proposed withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(2) Holders of applications for drug products identified in the notice of opportunity for hearing may submit written comments on the notice of opportunity for hearing issued on the proposed withdrawal of the listed drug. If an abbreviated new drug application holder submits comments on the notice of opportunity for hearing and a hearing is granted, the abbreviated new drug application holder may participate in the hearing as a nonparty participant as provided for in § 12.89 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the approval of an abbreviated new drug application for a drug product identified in the notice of opportunity for hearing on the withdrawal of a listed drug will be withdrawn when the agency has completed the withdrawal of approval of the listed drug.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If the holder of an application for a drug identified in the notice of opportunity for hearing has submitted timely comments but does not have an opportunity to participate in a hearing because a hearing is not requested or is settled, the submitted comments will be considered by the agency, which will issue an initial decision. The initial decision will respond to the comments, and contain the agency's decision whether there are grounds to withdraw approval of the listed drug and of the abbreviated new drug applications on which timely comments were submitted. The initial decision will be sent to each abbreviated new drug application holder that has submitted comments.
</P>
<P>(2) Abbreviated new drug application holders to whom the initial decision was sent may, within 30 days of the issuance of the initial decision, submit written objections. 
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may, at its discretion, hold a limited oral hearing to resolve dispositive factual issues that cannot be resolved on the basis of written submissions. 
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no timely objections to the initial decision, it will become final at the expiration of 30 days. 
</P>
<P>(5) If timely objections are submitted, they will be reviewed and responded to in a final decision. 
</P>
<P>(6) The written comments received, the initial decision, the evidence relied on in the comments and in the initial decision, the objections to the initial decision, and, if a limited oral hearing has been held, the transcript of that hearing and any documents submitted therein, shall form the record upon which the agency shall make a final decision. 
</P>
<P>(7) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, any abbreviated new drug application whose holder submitted comments on the notice of opportunity for hearing shall be withdrawn upon the issuance of a final decision concluding that the listed drug should be withdrawn for grounds as described in § 314.150(a). The final decision shall be in writing and shall constitute final agency action, reviewable in a judicial proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(8) Documents in the record will be publicly available in accordance with § 10.20(j) of this chapter. Documents available for examination or copying will be placed on public display in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, room. 1-23, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Rockville, MD 20857, promptly upon receipt in that office. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the agency determines, based upon information submitted by the holder of an abbreviated new drug application, that the grounds for withdrawal of the listed drug are not applicable to a drug identified in the notice of opportunity for hearing, the final decision will state that the approval of the abbreviated new drug application for such drug is not withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17994, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.152" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.152   Notice of withdrawal of approval of an application or abbreviated application for a new drug.</HEAD>
<P>If the Food and Drug Administration withdraws approval of an application or abbreviated application for a new drug, FDA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing the withdrawal of approval. If the application or abbreviated application was withdrawn for grounds described in § 314.150(a) or § 314.151, the notice will announce the removal of the drug from the list of approved drugs published under section 505(j)(6) of the act and shall satisfy the requirement of § 314.162(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17994, Apr. 28, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.153" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.153   Suspension of approval of an abbreviated new drug application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension of approval.</I> The approval of an abbreviated new drug application approved under § 314.105(d) shall be suspended for the period stated when:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services, under the imminent hazard authority of section 505(e) of the act or the authority of this paragraph, suspends approval of a listed drug referred to in the abbreviated new drug application, for the period of the suspension;
</P>
<P>(2) The agency, in the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section, or in any subsequent written notice given an abbreviated new drug application holder by the agency, concludes that the risk of continued marketing and use of the drug is inappropriate, pending completion of proceedings to withdraw or suspend approval under § 314.151 or paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) The agency, under the procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, issues a final decision stating the determination that the abbreviated application is suspended because the listed drug on which the approval of the abbreviated new drug application depends has been withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness or has been suspended under paragraph (b) of this section. The suspension will take effect on the date stated in the decision and will remain in effect until the agency determines that the marketing of the drug has resumed or that the withdrawal is not for safety or effectiveness reasons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for suspension of abbreviated new drug applications when a listed drug is voluntarily withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons.</I> (1) If a listed drug is voluntarily withdrawn from sale, and the agency determines that the withdrawal from sale was for reasons of safety or effectiveness, the agency will send each holder of an approved abbreviated new drug application that is subject to suspension as a result of this determination a copy of the agency's initial decision setting forth the reasons for the determination. The initial decision will also be placed on file with the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, room 1-23, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Rockville, MD 20857.
</P>
<P>(2) Each abbreviated new drug application holder will have 30 days from the issuance of the initial decision to present, in writing, comments and information bearing on the initial decision. If no comments or information is received, the initial decision will become final at the expiration of 30 days.
</P>
<P>(3) Comments and information received within 30 days of the issuance of the initial decision will be considered by the agency and responded to in a final decision.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may, in its discretion, hold a limited oral hearing to resolve dispositive factual issues that cannot be resolved on the basis of written submissions.
</P>
<P>(5) If the final decision affirms the agency's initial decision that the listed drug was withdrawn for reasons of safety or effectiveness, the decision will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in compliance with § 314.152, and will, except as provided in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, suspend approval of all abbreviated new drug applications identified under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and remove from the list the listed drug and any drug whose approval was suspended under this paragraph. The notice will satisfy the requirement of § 314.162(b). The agency's final decision and copies of materials on which it relies will also be filed with the Dockets Management Staff (address in paragraph (b)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(6) If the agency determines in its final decision that the listed drug was withdrawn for reasons of safety or effectiveness but, based upon information submitted by the holder of an abbreviated new drug application, also determines that the reasons for the withdrawal of the listed drug are not relevant to the safety and effectiveness of the drug subject to such abbreviated new drug application, the final decision will state that the approval of such abbreviated new drug application is not suspended.
</P>
<P>(7) Documents in the record will be publicly available in accordance with § 10.20(j) of this chapter. Documents available for examination or copying will be placed on public display in the Dockets Management Staff (address in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) promptly upon receipt in that office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17995, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.160" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.160   Approval of an application or abbreviated application for which approval was previously refused, suspended, or withdrawn.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the Food and Drug Administration's own initiative or upon request of an applicant, FDA may, on the basis of new data, approve an application or abbreviated application which it had previously refused, suspended, or withdrawn approval. FDA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing the approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17995, Apr. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.161" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.161   Determination of reasons for voluntary withdrawal of a listed drug.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A determination whether a listed drug that has been voluntarily withdrawn from sale was withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons may be made by the agency at any time after the drug has been voluntarily withdrawn from sale, but must be made:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to approving an abbreviated new drug application that refers to the listed drug;
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever a listed drug is voluntarily withdrawn from sale and abbreviated new drug applications that referred to the listed drug have been approved; and
</P>
<P>(3) When a person petitions for such a determination under §§ 10.25(a) and 10.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may petition under §§ 10.25(a) and 10.30 of this chapter for a determination whether a listed drug has been voluntarily withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons. Any such petition must contain all evidence available to the petitioner concerning the reason that the drug is withdrawn from sale.
</P>
<P>(c) If the agency determines that a listed drug is withdrawn from sale for safety or effectiveness reasons, the agency will, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, publish a notice of the determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) If the agency determines under paragraph (a) of this section that a listed drug is withdrawn from sale for safety and effectiveness reasons and there are approved abbreviated new drug applications that are subject to suspension under section 505(j)(5) of the act, FDA will initiate a proceeding in accordance with § 314.153(b).
</P>
<P>(e) A drug that the agency determines is withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons will be removed from the list, under § 314.162. The drug may be relisted if the agency has evidence that marketing of the drug has resumed or that the withdrawal is not for safety or effectiveness reasons. A determination that the drug is not withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons may be made at any time after its removal from the list, upon the agency's initiative, or upon the submission of a petition under §§ 10.25(a) and 10.30 of this chapter. If the agency determines that the drug is not withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons, the agency shall publish a notice of this determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice will also announce that the drug is relisted, under § 314.162(c). The notice will also serve to reinstate approval of all suspended abbreviated new drug applications that referred to the listed drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17995, Apr. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.162" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.162   Removal of a drug product from the list.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will remove a previously approved new drug product from the list for the period stated when:
</P>
<P>(1) The agency withdraws or suspends approval of a new drug application or an abbreviated new drug application under § 314.150(a) or § 314.151 or under the imminent hazard authority of section 505(e) of the act, for the same period as the withdrawal or suspension of the application; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The agency, in accordance with the procedures in § 314.153(b) or § 314.161, issues a final decision stating that the listed drug was withdrawn from sale for safety or effectiveness reasons, or suspended under § 314.153(b), until the agency determines that the withdrawal from the market has ceased or is not for safety or effectiveness reasons.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice announcing the removal of a drug from the list.
</P>
<P>(c) At the end of the period specified in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, FDA will relist a drug that has been removed from the list. The agency will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice announcing the relisting of the drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17996, Apr. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.170" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.170   Adulteration and misbranding of an approved drug.</HEAD>
<P>All drugs, including those the Food and Drug Administration approves under section 505 of the act and this part, are subject to the adulteration and misbranding provisions in sections 501, 502, and 503 of the act. FDA is authorized to regulate approved new drugs by regulations issued through informal rulemaking under sections 501, 502, and 503 of the act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985. Redesignated at 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992, and amended at 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Hearing Procedures for New Drugs</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 314.200" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.200   Notice of opportunity for hearing; notice of participation and request for hearing; grant or denial of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of opportunity for hearing.</I> The Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, will give the applicant, and all other persons who manufacture or distribute identical, related, or similar drug products as defined in § 310.6 of this chapter, notice and an opportunity for a hearing on the Center's proposal to refuse to approve an application or to withdraw the approval of an application or abbreviated application under section 505(e) of the act. The notice will state the reasons for the action and the proposed grounds for the order.
</P>
<P>(1) The notice may be general (that is, simply summarizing in a general way the information resulting in the notice) or specific (that is, either referring to specific requirements in the statute and regulations with which there is a lack of compliance, or providing a detailed description and analysis of the specific facts resulting in the notice).
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will publish the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and will state that the applicant, and other persons subject to the notice under § 310.6, who wishes to participate in a hearing, has 30 days after the date of publication of the notice to file a written notice of participation and request for hearing. The applicant, or other persons subject to the notice under § 310.6, who fails to file a written notice of participation and request for hearing within 30 days, waives the opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) It is the responsibility of every manufacturer and distributor of a drug product to review every notice of opportunity for a hearing published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to determine whether it covers any drug product that person manufactures or distributes. Any person may request an opinion of the applicability of a notice to a specific product that may be identical, related, or similar to a product listed in a notice by writing to the Division of New Drugs and Labeling Compliance, Office of Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. A person shall request an opinion within 30 days of the date of publication of the notice to be eligible for an opportunity for a hearing under the notice. If a person requests an opinion, that person's time for filing an appearance and request for a hearing and supporting studies and analyses begins on the date the person receives the opinion from FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will provide the notice of opportunity for a hearing to applicants and to other persons subject to the notice under § 310.6, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) To any person who has submitted an application or abbreviated application, by delivering the notice in person or by sending it by registered or certified mail to the last address shown in the application or abbreviated application.
</P>
<P>(2) To any person who has not submitted an application or abbreviated application but who is subject to the notice under § 310.6 of this chapter, by publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Notice of participation and request for a hearing, and submission of studies and comments.</I> The applicant, or any other person subject to the notice under § 310.6, who wishes to participate in a hearing, shall file with the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, (i) within 30 days after the date of the publication of the notice (or of the date of receipt of an opinion requested under paragraph (a)(3) of this section) a written notice of participation and request for a hearing and (ii) within 60 days after the date of publication of the notice, unless a different period of time is specified in the notice of opportunity for a hearing, the studies on which the person relies to justify a hearing as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The applicant, or other person, may incorporate by reference the raw data underlying a study if the data were previously submitted to FDA as part of an application, abbreviated application, or other report.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will not consider data or analyses submitted after 60 days in determining whether a hearing is warranted unless they are derived from well-controlled studies begun before the date of the notice of opportunity for hearing and the results of the studies were not available within 60 days after the date of publication of the notice. Nevertheless, FDA may consider other studies on the basis of a showing by the person requesting a hearing of inadvertent omission and hardship. The person requesting a hearing shall list in the request for hearing all studies in progress, the results of which the person intends later to submit in support of the request for a hearing. The person shall submit under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section a copy of the complete protocol, a list of the participating investigators, and a brief status report of the studies.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other interested person who is not subject to the notice of opportunity for a hearing may also submit comments on the proposal to withdraw approval of the application or abbreviated application. The comments are requested to be submitted within the time and under the conditions specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The person requesting a hearing is required to submit under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section the studies (including all protocols and underlying raw data) on which the person relies to justify a hearing with respect to the drug product. Except, a person who requests a hearing on the refusal to approve an application is not required to submit additional studies and analyses if the studies upon which the person relies have been submitted in the application and in the format and containing the summaries required under § 314.50.
</P>
<P>(1) If the grounds for FDA's proposed action concern the effectiveness of the drug, each request for hearing is required to be supported only by adequate and well-controlled clinical studies meeting all of the precise requirements of § 314.126 and, for combination drug products, § 300.50, or by other studies not meeting those requirements for which a waiver has been previously granted by FDA under § 314.126. Each person requesting a hearing shall submit all adequate and well-controlled clinical studies on the drug product, including any unfavorable analyses, views, or judgments with respect to the studies. No other data, information, or studies may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) The submission is required to include a factual analysis of all the studies submitted. If the grounds for FDA's proposed action concern the effectiveness of the drug, the analysis is required to specify how each study accords, on a point-by-point basis, with each criterion required for an adequate well-controlled clinical investigation established under § 314.126 and, if the product is a combination drug product, with each of the requirements for a combination drug established in § 300.50, or the study is required to be accompanied by an appropriate waiver previously granted by FDA. If a study concerns a drug or dosage form or condition of use or mode of administration other than the one in question, that fact is required to be clearly stated. Any study conducted on the final marketed form of the drug product is required to be clearly identified.
</P>
<P>(3) Each person requesting a hearing shall submit an analysis of the data upon which the person relies, except that the required information relating either to safety or to effectiveness may be omitted if the notice of opportunity for hearing does not raise any issue with respect to that aspect of the drug; information on compliance with § 300.50 may be omitted if the drug product is not a combination drug product. A financial certification or disclosure statement or both as required by part 54 of this chapter must accompany all clinical data submitted. FDA can most efficiently consider submissions made in the following format.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I. Safety data.
</P>
<P>A. Animal safety data.
</P>
<P>1. Individual active components.
</P>
<P>a. Controlled studies.
</P>
<P>b. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies.
</P>
<P>2. Combinations of the individual active components.
</P>
<P>a. Controlled studies.
</P>
<P>b. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies.
</P>
<P>B. Human safety data.
</P>
<P>1. Individual active components.
</P>
<P>a. Controlled studies.
</P>
<P>b. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies.
</P>
<P>c. Documented case reports.
</P>
<P>d. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination about the safety of each individual active component.
</P>
<P>2. Combinations of the individual active components.
</P>
<P>a. Controlled studies.
</P>
<P>b. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies.
</P>
<P>c. Documented case reports.
</P>
<P>d. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination about the safety of each individual active component.
</P>
<P>II. Effectiveness data.
</P>
<P>A. Individual active components: Controlled studies, with an analysis showing clearly how each study satisfies, on a point-by-point basis, each of the criteria required by § 314.126.
</P>
<P>B. Combinations of individual active components.
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies with an analysis showing clearly how each study satisfies on a point-by-point basis, each of the criteria required by § 314.126. 
</P>
<P>2. An analysis showing clearly how each requirement of § 300.50 has been satisfied. 
</P>
<P>III. A summary of the data and views setting forth the medical rationale and purpose for the drug and its ingredients and the scientific basis for the conclusion that the drug and its ingredients have been proven safe and/or effective for the intended use. If there is an absence of controlled studies in the material submitted or the requirements of any element of § 300.50 or § 314.126 have not been fully met, that fact is required to be stated clearly and a waiver obtained under § 314.126 is required to be submitted.
</P>
<P>IV. A statement signed by the person responsible for such submission that it includes in full (or incorporates by reference as permitted in § 314.200(c)(2)) all studies and information specified in § 314.200(d).
</P>
<P>(<E T="04">Warning:</E> A willfully false statement is a criminal offense, 18 U.S.C. 1001.)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Contentions that a drug product is not subject to the new drug requirements.</I> A notice of opportunity for a hearing encompasses all issues relating to the legal status of each drug product subject to it, including identical, related, and similar drug products as defined in § 310.6. A notice of appearance and request for a hearing under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section is required to contain any contention that the product is not a new drug because it is generally recognized as safe and effective within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act, or because it is exempt from part or all of the new drug provisions of the act under the exemption for products marketed before June 25, 1938, contained in section 201(p) of the act or under section 107(c) of the Drug Amendments of 1962, or for any other reason. Each contention is required to be supported by a submission under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section and the Commissioner of Food and Drugs will make an administrative determination on each contention. The failure of any person subject to a notice of opportunity for a hearing, including any person who manufactures or distributes an identical, related, or similar drug product as defined in § 310.6, to submit a notice of participation and request for hearing or to raise all such contentions constitutes a waiver of any contentions not raised.
</P>
<P>(1) A contention that a drug product is generally recognized as safe and effective within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act is required to be supported by submission of the same quantity and quality of scientific evidence that is required to obtain approval of an application for the product, unless FDA has waived a requirement for effectiveness (under § 314.126) or safety, or both. The submission should be in the format and with the analyses required under paragraph (d) of this section. A person who fails to submit the required scientific evidence required under paragraph (d) waives the contention. General recognition of safety and effectiveness shall ordinarily be based upon published studies which may be corroborated by unpublished studies and other data and information.
</P>
<P>(2) A contention that a drug product is exempt from part or all of the new drug provisions of the act under the exemption for products marketed before June 25, 1938, contained in section 201(p) of the act, or under section 107(c) of the Drug Amendments of 1962, is required to be supported by evidence of past and present quantitative formulas, labeling, and evidence of marketing. A person who makes such a contention should submit the formulas, labeling, and evidence of marketing in the following format.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I. Formulation.
</P>
<P>A. A copy of each pertinent document or record to establish the exact quantitative formulation of the drug (both active and inactive ingredients) on the date of initial marketing of the drug.
</P>
<P>B. A statement whether such formulation has at any subsequent time been changed in any manner. If any such change has been made, the exact date, nature, and rationale for each change in formulation, including any deletion or change in the concentration of any active ingredient and/or inactive ingredient, should be stated, together with a copy of each pertinent document or record to establish the date and nature of each such change, including, but not limited to, the formula which resulted from each such change. If no such change has been made, a copy of representative documents or records showing the formula at representative points in time should be submitted to support the statement.
</P>
<P>II. Labeling.
</P>
<P>A. A copy of each pertinent document or record to establish the identity of each item of written, printed, or graphic matter used as labeling on the date the drug was initially marketed.
</P>
<P>B. A statement whether such labeling has at any subsequent time been discontinued or changed in any manner. If such discontinuance or change has been made, the exact date, nature, and rationale for each discontinuance or change and a copy of each pertinent document or record to establish each such discontinuance or change should be submitted, including, but not limited to, the labeling which resulted from each such discontinuance or change. If no such discontinuance or change has been made, a copy of representative documents or records showing labeling at representative points in time should be submitted to support the statement.
</P>
<P>III. Marketing.
</P>
<P>A. A copy of each pertinent document or record to establish the exact date the drug was initially marketed.
</P>
<P>B. A statement whether such marketing has at any subsequent time been discontinued. If such marketing has been discontinued, the exact date of each such discontinuance should be submitted, together with a copy of each pertinent document or record to establish each such date.
</P>
<P>IV. Verification.
</P>
<P>A statement signed by the person responsible for such submission, that all appropriate records have been searched and to the best of that person's knowledge and belief it includes a true and accurate presentation of the facts.
</P>
<P><E T="04">(Warning:</E> A willfully false statement is a criminal offense, 18 U.S.C. 1001.)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The Food and Drug Administration will not find a drug product, including any active ingredient, which is identical, related, or similar, as described in § 310.6, to a drug product, including any active ingredient for which an application is or at any time has been effective or deemed approved, or approved under section 505 of the act, to be exempt from part or all of the new drug provisions of the act.
</P>
<P>(4) A contention that a drug product is not a new drug for any other reason is required to be supported by submission of the factual records, data, and information that are necessary and appropriate to support the contention.
</P>
<P>(5) It is the responsibility of every person who manufactures or distributes a drug product in reliance upon a “grandfather” provision of the act to maintain files that contain the data and information necessary fully to document and support that status.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Separation of functions commences upon receipt of a request for hearing. The Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, will prepare an analysis of the request and a proposed order ruling on the matter. The analysis and proposed order, the request for hearing, and any proposed order denying a hearing and response under paragraph (g) (2) or (3) of this section will be submitted to the Office of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for review and decision. When the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research recommends denial of a hearing on all issues on which a hearing is requested, no representative of the Center will participate or advise in the review and decision by the Commissioner. When the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research recommends that a hearing be granted on one or more issues on which a hearing is requested, separation of functions terminates as to those issues, and representatives of the Center may participate or advise in the review and decision by the Commissioner on those issues. The Commissioner may modify the text of the issues, but may not deny a hearing on those issues. Separation of functions continues with respect to issues on which the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research has recommended denial of a hearing. The Commissioner will neither evaluate nor rule on the Center's recommendation on such issues and such issues will not be included in the notice of hearing. Participants in the hearing may make a motion to the presiding officer for the inclusion of any such issue in the hearing. The ruling on such a motion is subject to review in accordance with § 12.35(b). Failure to so move constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing on such an issue. Separation of functions on all issues resumes upon issuance of a notice of hearing. The Office of the General Counsel, Department of Health and Human Services, will observe the same separation of functions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Summary judgment.</I> A person who requests a hearing may not rely upon allegations or denials but is required to set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact that requires a hearing with respect to a particular drug product specified in the request for hearing.
</P>
<P>(1) Where a specific notice of opportunity for hearing (as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) is used, the Commissioner will enter summary judgment against a person who requests a hearing, making findings and conclusions, denying a hearing, if it conclusively appears from the face of the data, information, and factual analyses in the request for the hearing that there is no genuine and substantial issue of fact which precludes the refusal to approve the application or abbreviated application or the withdrawal of approval of the application or abbreviated application; for example, no adequate and well-controlled clinical investigations meeting each of the precise elements of § 314.126 and, for a combination drug product, § 300.50 of this chapter, showing effectiveness have been identified. Any order entering summary judgment is required to set forth the Commissioner's findings and conclusions in detail and is required to specify why each study submitted fails to meet the requirements of the statute and regulations or why the request for hearing does not raise a genuine and substantial issue of fact.
</P>
<P>(2) When following a general notice of opportunity for a hearing (as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research concludes that summary judgment against a person requesting a hearing should be considered, the Director will serve upon the person requesting a hearing by registered mail a proposed order denying a hearing. This person has 60 days after receipt of the proposed order to respond with sufficient data, information, and analyses to demonstrate that there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact which justifies a hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) When following a general or specific notice of opportunity for a hearing a person requesting a hearing submits data or information of a type required by the statute and regulations, and the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research concludes that summary judgment against the person should be considered, the Director will serve upon the person by registered mail a proposed order denying a hearing. The person has 60 days after receipt of the proposed order to respond with sufficient data, information, and analyses to demonstrate that there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact which justifies a hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) If review of the data, information, and analyses submitted show that the grounds cited in the notice are not valid, for example, that substantial evidence of effectiveness exists, the Commissioner will enter summary judgment for the person requesting the hearing, and rescind the notice of opportunity for hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Commissioner grants a hearing, it will begin within 90 days after the expiration of the time for requesting the hearing unless the parties otherwise agree in the case of denial of approval, and as soon as practicable in the case of withdrawal of approval.
</P>
<P>(6) The Commissioner will grant a hearing if there exists a genuine and substantial issue of fact or if the Commissioner concludes that a hearing would otherwise be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(7) If the manufacturer or distributor of an identical, related, or similar drug product requests and is granted a hearing, the hearing may consider whether the product is in fact identical, related, or similar to the drug product named in the notice of opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(8) A request for a hearing, and any subsequent grant or denial of a hearing, applies only to the drug products named in such documents.
</P>
<P>(h) FDA will issue a notice withdrawing approval and declaring all products unlawful for drug products subject to a notice of opportunity for a hearing, including any identical, related, or similar drug product under § 310.6, for which an opportunity for a hearing is waived or for which a hearing is denied. The Commissioner may defer or stay the action pending a ruling on any related request for a hearing or pending any related hearing or other administrative or judicial proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 14212, Apr. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 17996, Apr. 28, 1992; 59 FR 14364, Mar. 28, 1994; 63 FR 5252, Feb. 2, 1998; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 69 FR 48775, Aug. 11, 2004; 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.201" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.201   Procedure for hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Parts 10 through 16 apply to hearings relating to new drugs under section 505 (d) and (e) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.235" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.235   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs will certify the transcript and record. In any case in which the Commissioner enters an order without a hearing under § 314.200(g), the record certified by the Commissioner is required to include the requests for hearing together with the data and information submitted and the Commissioner's findings and conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer or distributor of an identical, related, or similar drug product under § 310.6 may seek judicial review of an order withdrawing approval of a new drug application, whether or not a hearing has been held, in a United States court of appeals under section 505(h) of the act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 314.410" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.410   Imports and exports of new drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Imports.</I> (1) A new drug may be imported into the United States if: (i) It is the subject of an approved application under this part; or (ii) it complies with the regulations pertaining to investigational new drugs under part 312; and it complies with the general regulations pertaining to imports under subpart E of part 1. 
</P>
<P>(2) A drug substance intended for use in the manufacture, processing, or repacking of a new drug may be imported into the United States if it complies with the labeling exemption in § 201.122 pertaining to shipments of drug substances in domestic commerce. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exports.</I> (1) A new drug may be exported if it is the subject of an approved application under this part or it complies with the regulations pertaining to investigational new drugs under part 312.
</P>
<P>(2) A new drug substance that is covered by an application approved under this part for use in the manufacture of an approved drug product may be exported by the applicant or any person listed as a supplier in the approved application, provided the drug substance intended for export meets the specification of, and is shipped with a copy of the labeling required for, the approved drug product.
</P>
<P>(3) Insulin or an antibiotic drug may be exported without regard to the requirements in section 802 of the act if the insulin or antibiotic drug meets the requirements of section 801(e)(1) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985. Redesignated at 57 FR 17983, Apr. 28, 1992, and amended at 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999; 69 FR 18766, Apr. 8, 2004] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.420" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.420   Drug master files.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A drug master file is a submission of information to the Food and Drug Administration by a person (the drug master file holder) who intends it to be used for one of the following purposes: To permit the holder to incorporate the information by reference when the holder submits an investigational new drug application under part 312 or submits an application or an abbreviated application or an amendment or supplement to them under this part, or to permit the holder to authorize other persons to rely on the information to support a submission to FDA without the holder having to disclose the information to the person. FDA ordinarily neither independently reviews drug master files nor approves or disapproves submissions to a drug master file. Instead, the agency customarily reviews the information only in the context of an application under part 312 or this part. A drug master file may contain information of the kind required for any submission to the agency, including information about the following:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Drug substance, drug substance intermediate, and materials used in their preparation, or drug product; 
</P>
<P>(3) Packaging materials; 
</P>
<P>(4) Excipient, colorant, flavor, essence, or materials used in their preparation; 
</P>
<P>(5) FDA-accepted reference information. (A person wishing to submit information and supporting data in a drug master file (DMF) that is not covered by Types II through IV DMF's must first submit a letter of intent to the Drug Master File Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.) FDA will then contact the person to discuss the proposed submission. 
</P>
<P>(b) An investigational new drug application or an application, abbreviated application, amendment, or supplement may incorporate by reference all or part of the contents of any drug master file in support of the submission if the holder authorizes the incorporation in writing. Each incorporation by reference is required to describe the incorporated material by name, reference number, volume, and page number of the drug master file.
</P>
<P>(c) A drug master file is required to be submitted in two copies. The agency has prepared guidance that provides information about how to prepare a well-organized drug master file. If the drug master file holder adds, changes, or deletes any information in the file, the holder shall notify in writing, each person authorized to reference that information. Any addition, change, or deletion of information in a drug master file (except the list required under paragraph (d) of this section) is required to be submitted in two copies and to describe by name, reference number, volume, and page number the information affected in the drug master file.
</P>
<P>(d) The drug master file is required to contain a complete list of each person currently authorized to incorporate by reference any information in the file, identifying by name, reference number, volume, and page number the information that each person is authorized to incorporate. If the holder restricts the authorization to particular drug products, the list is required to include the name of each drug product and the application number, if known, to which the authorization applies.
</P>
<P>(e) The public availability of data and information in a drug master file, including the availability of data and information in the file to a person authorized to reference the file, is determined under part 20 and § 314.430.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 53 FR 33122, Aug. 30, 1988; 55 FR 28380, July 11, 1990; 65 FR 1780, Jan. 12, 2000; 65 FR 56479, Sept. 19, 2000; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 69 FR 13473, Mar. 23, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.430" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.430   Availability for public disclosure of data and information in an application or abbreviated application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will determine the public availability of any part of an application or abbreviated application under this section and part 20 of this chapter. For purposes of this section, the application or abbreviated application includes all data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the application or abbreviated application, including investigational new drug applications, drug master files under § 314.420, supplements submitted under § 314.70 or § 314.97, reports under § 314.80 or § 314.98, and other submissions. For purposes of this section, safety and effectiveness data include all studies and tests of a drug on animals and humans and all studies and tests of the drug for identity, stability, purity, potency, and bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will not publicly disclose the existence of an application or abbreviated application before an approval letter is sent to the applicant under § 314.105 or tentative approval letter is sent to the applicant under § 314.107, unless the existence of the application or abbreviated application has been previously publicly disclosed or acknowledged.
</P>
<P>(c) If the existence of an unapproved application or abbreviated application has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the application or abbreviated application is available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the existence of an application or abbreviated application has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged before the agency sends an approval letter to the applicant, no data or information contained in the application or abbreviated application is available for public disclosure before the agency sends an approval letter, but the Commissioner may, in his or her discretion, disclose a summary of selected portions of the safety and effectiveness data that are appropriate for public consideration of a specific pending issue; for example, for consideration of an open session of an FDA advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, FDA will make available to the public upon request the information in the investigational new drug application that was required to be filed in Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, for investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Persons wishing to request this information shall submit a request under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(e) After FDA sends an approval letter to the applicant, the following data and information in the application or abbreviated application are immediately available for public disclosure, unless the applicant shows that extraordinary circumstances exist. A list of approved applications and abbreviated applications, entitled “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations,” is available from the Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402. This list is updated monthly.
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) If the application applies to a new drug, all safety and effectiveness data previously disclosed to the public as set forth in § 20.81 and a summary or summaries of the safety and effectiveness data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the application. The summaries do not constitute the full reports of investigations under section 505(b)(1) of the act (21 U.S.C. 355(b)(1)) on which the safety or effectiveness of the drug may be approved. The summaries consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For an application approved before July 1, 1975, internal agency records that describe safety and effectiveness data and information, for example, a summary of the basis for approval or internal reviews of the data and information, after deletion of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Names and any information that would identify patients or test subjects or investigators.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Any inappropriate gratuitous comments unnecessary to an objective analysis of the data and information.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an application approved on or after July 1, 1975, a Summary Basis of Approval (SBA) document that contains a summary of the safety and effectiveness data and information evaluated by FDA during the drug approval process. The SBA is prepared in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Before approval of the application, the applicant may prepare a draft SBA which the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research will review and may revise. The draft may be submitted with the application or as an amendment.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research may prepare the SBA.
</P>
<P>(3) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61.
</P>
<P>(4) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information after deletion of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of all active ingredients and any inactive ingredients previously disclosed to the public as set forth in § 20.81.
</P>
<P>(6) An assay procedure or other analytical procedure, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61.
</P>
<P>(7) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions between FDA and the applicant relating to the application, under the provisions of part 20.
</P>
<P>(f) All safety and effectiveness data and information which have been submitted in an application and which have not previously been disclosed to the public are available to the public, upon request, at the time any one of the following events occurs unless extraordinary circumstances are shown:
</P>
<P>(1) No work is being or will be undertaken to have the application approved.
</P>
<P>(2) A final determination is made that the application is not approvable and all legal appeals have been exhausted.
</P>
<P>(3) Approval of the application is withdrawn and all legal appeals have been exhausted.
</P>
<P>(4) A final determination has been made that the drug is not a new drug.
</P>
<P>(5) For applications submitted under section 505(b) of the act, the effective date of the approval of the first abbreviated application submitted under section 505(j) of the act which refers to such drug, or the date on which the approval of an abbreviated application under section 505(j) of the act which refers to such drug could be made effective if such an abbreviated application had been submitted.
</P>
<P>(6) For abbreviated applications submitted under section 505(j) of the act, when FDA sends an approval letter to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(g) The following data and information in an application or abbreviated application are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as set forth in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they do not represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of that data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<P>(h) The compilations of information specified in § 20.117 are available for public disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 55 FR 11580, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 17996, Apr. 28, 1992; 61 FR 51530, Oct. 2, 1996; 64 FR 26698, May 13, 1998; 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999; 66 FR 1832, Jan. 10, 2001; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 69 FR 18766, Apr. 8, 2004; 73 FR 39610, July 10, 2008; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.440" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.440   Addresses for applications and abbreviated applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants shall send applications, abbreviated applications, and other correspondence relating to matters covered by this part, except for products listed in paragraph (b) of this section, to the appropriate office identified below:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, an application under § 314.50 or § 314.54 submitted for filing should be directed to the Central Document Room, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266. Applicants may obtain information about folders for binding applications on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/cder/ddms/binders.htm.</I> After FDA has filed the application, the agency will inform the applicant which division is responsible for the application. Amendments, supplements, resubmissions, requests for waivers, and other correspondence about an application that has been filed should be addressed to 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, to the attention of the appropriate division.


</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, an abbreviated application under § 314.94, and amendments, supplements, and resubmissions should be directed to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266. This includes items sent by parcel post or overnight courier service. Correspondence not associated with an abbreviated application also should be addressed to 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.


</P>
<P>(3) A request for an opportunity for a hearing under § 314.110 on the question of whether there are grounds for denying approval of an application, except an application under paragraph (b) of this section, should be directed to the Associate Director for Policy (HFD-5).
</P>
<P>(4) The field copy of an application, an abbreviated application, amendments, supplements, resubmissions, requests for waivers, and other correspondence about an application and an abbreviated application shall be sent to the applicant's home FDA district office, except that a foreign applicant shall send the field copy to the appropriate address identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applicants shall send applications and other correspondence relating to matters covered by this part for the drug products listed below to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, except applicants shall send a request for an opportunity for a hearing under § 314.110 on the question of whether there are grounds for denying approval of an application to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, ATTN: Director, at the same address.
</P>
<P>(1) Ingredients packaged together with containers intended for the collection, processing, or storage of blood and blood components;
</P>
<P>(2) Plasma volume expanders and hydroxyethyl starch for leukapheresis;
</P>
<P>(3) Blood component processing solutions and shelf life extenders; and
</P>
<P>(4) Oxygen carriers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7493, Feb. 22, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 21238, May 23, 1985; 55 FR 11581, Mar. 29, 1990; 57 FR 17997, Apr. 28, 1992; 58 FR 47352, Sept. 8, 1993; 62 FR 43639, Aug. 15, 1997; 69 FR 13473, Mar. 23, 2004; 70 FR 14981, Mar. 24, 2005; 73 FR 39610, July 10, 2008; 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009; 75 FR 37295, June 29, 2010; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2015; 84 FR 6673, Feb. 28, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.445" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.445   Guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA has made available guidance documents under § 10.115 of this chapter to help you to comply with certain requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) maintains a list of guidance documents that apply to CDER's regulations. The list is maintained on the Internet and is published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A request for a copy of the CDER list should be directed to the Office of Training and Communications, Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56480, Sept. 19, 2000, as amended at 74 FR 13113, Mar. 26, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Accelerated Approval of New Drugs for Serious or Life-Threatening Illnesses</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 58958, Dec. 11, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 314.500" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.500   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to certain new drug products that have been studied for their safety and effectiveness in treating serious or life-threatening illnesses and that provide meaningful therapeutic benefit to patients over existing treatments (e.g., ability to treat patients unresponsive to, or intolerant of, available therapy, or improved patient response over available therapy).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 58958, Dec. 11, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.510" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.510   Approval based on a surrogate endpoint or on an effect on a clinical endpoint other than survival or irreversible morbidity.</HEAD>
<P>FDA may grant marketing approval for a new drug product on the basis of adequate and well-controlled clinical trials establishing that the drug product has an effect on a surrogate endpoint that is reasonably likely, based on epidemiologic, therapeutic, pathophysiologic, or other evidence, to predict clinical benefit or on the basis of an effect on a clinical endpoint other than survival or irreversible morbidity. Approval under this section will be subject to the requirement that the applicant study the drug further, to verify and describe its clinical benefit, where there is uncertainty as to the relation of the surrogate endpoint to clinical benefit, or of the observed clinical benefit to ultimate outcome. Postmarketing studies would usually be studies already underway. When required to be conducted, such studies must also be adequate and well-controlled. The applicant shall carry out any such studies with due diligence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.520" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.520   Approval with restrictions to assure safe use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA concludes that a drug product shown to be effective can be safely used only if distribution or use is restricted, FDA will require such postmarketing restrictions as are needed to assure safe use of the drug product, such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Distribution restricted to certain facilities or physicians with special training or experience; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Distribution conditioned on the performance of specified medical procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) The limitations imposed will be commensurate with the specific safety concerns presented by the drug product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.530" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.530   Withdrawal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For new drugs approved under §§ 314.510 and 314.520, FDA may withdraw approval, following a hearing as provided in part 15 of this chapter, as modified by this section, if:
</P>
<P>(1) A postmarketing clinical study fails to verify clinical benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant fails to perform the required postmarketing study with due diligence; 
</P>
<P>(3) Use after marketing demonstrates that postmarketing restrictions are inadequate to assure safe use of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant fails to adhere to the postmarketing restrictions agreed upon;
</P>
<P>(5) The promotional materials are false or misleading; or 
</P>
<P>(6) Other evidence demonstrates that the drug product is not shown to be safe or effective under its conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of opportunity for a hearing.</I> The Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research will give the applicant notice of an opportunity for a hearing on the Center's proposal to withdraw the approval of an application approved under § 314.510 or § 314.520. The notice, which will ordinarily be a letter, will state generally the reasons for the action and the proposed grounds for the order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of data and information.</I> (1) If the applicant fails to file a written request for a hearing within 15 days of receipt of the notice, the applicant waives the opportunity for a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant files a timely request for a hearing, the agency will publish a notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with §§ 12.32(e) and 15.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant who requests a hearing under this section must, within 30 days of receipt of the notice of opportunity for a hearing, submit the data and information upon which the applicant intends to rely at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Separation of functions (as specified in § 10.55 of this chapter) will not apply at any point in withdrawal proceedings under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for hearings.</I> Hearings held under this section will be conducted in accordance with the provisions of part 15 of this chapter, with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) An advisory committee duly constituted under part 14 of this chapter will be present at the hearing. The committee will be asked to review the issues involved and to provide advice and recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer, the advisory committee members, up to three representatives of the applicant, and up to three representatives of the Center may question any person during or at the conclusion of the person's presentation. No other person attending the hearing may question a person making a presentation. The presiding officer may, as a matter of discretion, permit questions to be submitted to the presiding officer for response by a person making a presentation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judicial review.</I> The Commissioner's decision constitutes final agency action from which the applicant may petition for judicial review. Before requesting an order from a court for a stay of action pending review, an applicant must first submit a petition for a stay of action under § 10.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 58958, Dec. 11, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.540" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.540   Postmarketing safety reporting.</HEAD>
<P>Drug products approved under this program are subject to the postmarketing recordkeeping and safety reporting applicable to all approved drug products, as provided in §§ 314.80 and 314.81.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.550" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.550   Promotional materials.</HEAD>
<P>For drug products being considered for approval under this subpart, unless otherwise informed by the agency, applicants must submit to the agency for consideration during the preapproval review period copies of all promotional materials, including promotional labeling as well as advertisements, intended for dissemination or publication within 120 days following marketing approval. After 120 days following marketing approval, unless otherwise informed by the agency, the applicant must submit promotional materials at least 30 days prior to the intended time of initial dissemination of the labeling or initial publication of the advertisement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.560" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.560   Termination of requirements.</HEAD>
<P>If FDA determines after approval that the requirements established in § 314.520, § 314.530, or § 314.550 are no longer necessary for the safe and effective use of a drug product, it will so notify the applicant. Ordinarily, for drug products approved under § 314.510, these requirements will no longer apply when FDA determines that the required postmarketing study verifies and describes the drug product's clinical benefit and the drug product would be appropriate for approval under traditional procedures. For drug products approved under § 314.520, the restrictions would no longer apply when FDA determines that safe use of the drug product can be assured through appropriate labeling. FDA also retains the discretion to remove specific postapproval requirements upon review of a petition submitted by the sponsor in accordance with § 10.30.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Approval of New Drugs When Human Efficacy Studies Are Not Ethical or Feasible</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 37995, May 31, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 314.600" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.600   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to certain new drug products that have been studied for their safety and efficacy in ameliorating or preventing serious or life-threatening conditions caused by exposure to lethal or permanently disabling toxic biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear substances. This subpart applies only to those new drug products for which: Definitive human efficacy studies cannot be conducted because it would be unethical to deliberately expose healthy human volunteers to a lethal or permanently disabling toxic biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear substance; and field trials to study the product's effectiveness after an accidental or hostile exposure have not been feasible. This subpart does not apply to products that can be approved based on efficacy standards described elsewhere in FDA's regulations (e.g., accelerated approval based on surrogate markers or clinical endpoints other than survival or irreversible morbidity), nor does it address the safety evaluation for the products to which it does apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.610" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.610   Approval based on evidence of effectiveness from studies in animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may grant marketing approval for a new drug product for which safety has been established and for which the requirements of § 314.600 are met based on adequate and well-controlled animal studies when the results of those animal studies establish that the drug product is reasonably likely to produce clinical benefit in humans. In assessing the sufficiency of animal data, the agency may take into account other data, including human data, available to the agency. FDA will rely on the evidence from studies in animals to provide substantial evidence of the effectiveness of these products only when:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a reasonably well-understood pathophysiological mechanism of the toxicity of the substance and its prevention or substantial reduction by the product;
</P>
<P>(2) The effect is demonstrated in more than one animal species expected to react with a response predictive for humans, unless the effect is demonstrated in a single animal species that represents a sufficiently well-characterized animal model for predicting the response in humans;
</P>
<P>(3) The animal study endpoint is clearly related to the desired benefit in humans, generally the enhancement of survival or prevention of major morbidity; and
</P>
<P>(4) The data or information on the kinetics and pharmacodynamics of the product or other relevant data or information, in animals and humans, allows selection of an effective dose in humans.
</P>
<P>(b) Approval under this subpart will be subject to three requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Postmarketing studies.</I> The applicant must conduct postmarketing studies, such as field studies, to verify and describe the drug's clinical benefit and to assess its safety when used as indicated when such studies are feasible and ethical. Such postmarketing studies would not be feasible until an exigency arises. When such studies are feasible, the applicant must conduct such studies with due diligence. Applicants must include as part of their application a plan or approach to postmarketing study commitments in the event such studies become ethical and feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval with restrictions to ensure safe use.</I> If FDA concludes that a drug product shown to be effective under this subpart can be safely used only if distribution or use is restricted, FDA will require such postmarketing restrictions as are needed to ensure safe use of the drug product, commensurate with the specific safety concerns presented by the drug product, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Distribution restricted to certain facilities or health care practitioners with special training or experience;
</P>
<P>(ii) Distribution conditioned on the performance of specified medical procedures, including medical followup; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Distribution conditioned on specified recordkeeping requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information to be provided to patient recipients.</I> For drug products or specific indications approved under this subpart, applicants must prepare, as part of their proposed labeling, labeling to be provided to patient recipients. The patient labeling must explain that, for ethical or feasibility reasons, the drug's approval was based on efficacy studies conducted in animals alone and must give the drug's indication(s), directions for use (dosage and administration), contraindications, a description of any reasonably foreseeable risks, adverse reactions, anticipated benefits, drug interactions, and any other relevant information required by FDA at the time of approval. The patient labeling must be available with the product to be provided to patients prior to administration or dispensing of the drug product for the use approved under this subpart, if possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.620" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.620   Withdrawal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reasons to withdraw approval.</I> For new drugs approved under this subpart, FDA may withdraw approval, following a hearing as provided in part 15 of this chapter, as modified by this section, if:
</P>
<P>(1) A postmarketing clinical study fails to verify clinical benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant fails to perform the postmarketing study with due diligence;
</P>
<P>(3) Use after marketing demonstrates that postmarketing restrictions are inadequate to ensure safe use of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant fails to adhere to the postmarketing restrictions applied at the time of approval under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) The promotional materials are false or misleading; or
</P>
<P>(6) Other evidence demonstrates that the drug product is not shown to be safe or effective under its conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of opportunity for a hearing.</I> The Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) will give the applicant notice of an opportunity for a hearing on CDER's proposal to withdraw the approval of an application approved under this subpart. The notice, which will ordinarily be a letter, will state generally the reasons for the action and the proposed grounds for the order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of data and information.</I> (1) If the applicant fails to file a written request for a hearing within 15 days of receipt of the notice, the applicant waives the opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant files a timely request for a hearing, the agency will publish a notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with §§ 12.32(e) and 15.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant who requests a hearing under this section must, within 30 days of receipt of the notice of opportunity for a hearing, submit the data and information upon which the applicant intends to rely at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Separation of functions (as specified in § 10.55 of this chapter) will not apply at any point in withdrawal proceedings under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for hearings.</I> Hearings held under this section will be conducted in accordance with the provisions of part 15 of this chapter, with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) An advisory committee duly constituted under part 14 of this chapter will be present at the hearing. The committee will be asked to review the issues involved and to provide advice and recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer, the advisory committee members, up to three representatives of the applicant, and up to three representatives of CDER may question any person during or at the conclusion of the person's presentation. No other person attending the hearing may question a person making a presentation. The presiding officer may, as a matter of discretion, permit questions to be submitted to the presiding officer for response by a person making a presentation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judicial review.</I> The Commissioner of Food and Drugs' decision constitutes final agency action from which the applicant may petition for judicial review. Before requesting an order from a court for a stay of action pending review, an applicant must first submit a petition for a stay of action under § 10.35 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.630" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.630   Postmarketing safety reporting.</HEAD>
<P>Drug products approved under this subpart are subject to the postmarketing recordkeeping and safety reporting requirements applicable to all approved drug products, as provided in §§ 314.80 and 314.81.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.640" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.640   Promotional materials.</HEAD>
<P>For drug products being considered for approval under this subpart, unless otherwise informed by the agency, applicants must submit to the agency for consideration during the preapproval review period copies of all promotional materials, including promotional labeling as well as advertisements, intended for dissemination or publication within 120 days following marketing approval. After 120 days following marketing approval, unless otherwise informed by the agency, the applicant must submit promotional materials at least 30 days prior to the intended time of initial dissemination of the labeling or initial publication of the advertisement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.650" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.4.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.650   Termination of requirements.</HEAD>
<P>If FDA determines after approval under this subpart that the requirements established in §§ 314.610(b)(2), 314.620, and 314.630 are no longer necessary for the safe and effective use of a drug product, FDA will so notify the applicant. Ordinarily, for drug products approved under § 314.610, these requirements will no longer apply when FDA determines that the postmarketing study verifies and describes the drug product's clinical benefit. For drug products approved under § 314.610, the restrictions would no longer apply when FDA determines that safe use of the drug product can be ensured through appropriate labeling. FDA also retains the discretion to remove specific postapproval requirements upon review of a petition submitted by the sponsor in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="315" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 315—DIAGNOSTIC RADIOPHARMACEUTICALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 371, 374, 379e; sec. 122, Pub. L. 105-115, 111 Stat. 2322 (21 U.S.C. 355 note).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 26667, May 17, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 315.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 315.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to radiopharmaceuticals intended for in vivo administration for diagnostic and monitoring use. They do not apply to radiopharmaceuticals intended for therapeutic purposes. In situations where a particular radiopharmaceutical is proposed for both diagnostic and therapeutic uses, the radiopharmaceutical must be evaluated taking into account each intended use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 315.2" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 315.2   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, <I>diagnostic radiopharmaceutical</I> means:
</P>
<P>(a) An article that is intended for use in the diagnosis or monitoring of a disease or a manifestation of a disease in humans and that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of nuclear particles or photons; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any nonradioactive reagent kit or nuclide generator that is intended to be used in the preparation of such article as defined in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 315.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 315.3   General factors relevant to safety and effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>FDA's determination of the safety and effectiveness of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical includes consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The proposed use of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical in the practice of medicine,
</P>
<P>(b) The pharmacological and toxicological activity of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical (including any carrier or ligand component of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical), and
</P>
<P>(c) The estimated absorbed radiation dose of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 315.4" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 315.4   Indications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals, the categories of proposed indications for use include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Structure delineation;
</P>
<P>(2) Functional, physiological, or biochemical assessment;
</P>
<P>(3) Disease or pathology detection or assessment; and
</P>
<P>(4) Diagnostic or therapeutic patient management.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical is not intended to provide disease-specific information, the proposed indications for use may refer to a biochemical, physiological, anatomical, or pathological process or to more than one disease or condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 315.5" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 315.5   Evaluation of effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The effectiveness of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical is assessed by evaluating its ability to provide useful clinical information related to its proposed indications for use. The method of this evaluation varies depending upon the proposed indication(s) and may use one or more of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim of structure delineation is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting the ability to locate anatomical structures and to characterize their anatomy.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim of functional, physiological, or biochemical assessment is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting reliable measurement of function(s) or physiological, biochemical, or molecular process(es).
</P>
<P>(3) The claim of disease or pathology detection or assessment is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting that the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical has sufficient accuracy in identifying or characterizing the disease or pathology.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim of diagnostic or therapeutic patient management is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting that the test is useful in diagnostic or therapeutic patient management.
</P>
<P>(5) For a claim that does not fall within the indication categories identified in § 315.4, the applicant or sponsor should consult FDA on how to establish the effectiveness of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical for the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) The accuracy and usefulness of the diagnostic information is determined by comparison with a reliable assessment of actual clinical status. A reliable assessment of actual clinical status may be provided by a diagnostic standard or standards of demonstrated accuracy. In the absence of such diagnostic standard(s), the actual clinical status must be established in another manner, e.g., patient followup.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 315.6" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 315.6   Evaluation of safety.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Factors considered in the safety assessment of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical include, among others, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The radiation dose;
</P>
<P>(2) The pharmacology and toxicology of the radiopharmaceutical, including any radionuclide, carrier, or ligand;
</P>
<P>(3) The risks of an incorrect diagnostic determination;
</P>
<P>(4) The adverse reaction profile of the drug;
</P>
<P>(5) Results of human experience with the radiopharmaceutical for other uses; and
</P>
<P>(6) Results of any previous human experience with the carrier or ligand of the radiopharmaceutical when the same chemical entity as the carrier or ligand has been used in a previously studied product.
</P>
<P>(b) The assessment of the adverse reaction profile includes, but is not limited to, an evaluation of the potential of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical, including the carrier or ligand, to elicit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Allergic or hypersensitivity responses,
</P>
<P>(2) Immunologic responses,
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in the physiologic or biochemical function of the target and nontarget tissues, and
</P>
<P>(4) Clinically detectable signs or symptoms.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) To establish the safety of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical, FDA may require, among other information, the following types of data:
</P>
<P>(i) Pharmacology data,
</P>
<P>(ii) Toxicology data,
</P>
<P>(iii) Clinical adverse event data, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Radiation safety assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of new safety data required will depend on the characteristics of the product and available information regarding the safety of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical, and its carrier or ligand, obtained from other studies and uses. Such information may include, but is not limited to, the dose, route of administration, frequency of use, half-life of the ligand or carrier, half-life of the radionuclide, and results of clinical and preclinical studies. FDA will establish categories of diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals based on defined characteristics relevant to risk and will specify the amount and type of safety data that are appropriate for each category (e.g., required safety data may be limited for diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals with a well established, low-risk profile). Upon reviewing the relevant product characteristics and safety information, FDA will place each diagnostic radiopharmaceutical into the appropriate safety risk category.
</P>
<P>(d) Radiation safety assessment. The radiation safety assessment must establish the radiation dose of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical by radiation dosimetry evaluations in humans and appropriate animal models. The maximum tolerated dose need not be established.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="316" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 316—ORPHAN DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360aa, 360bb, 360cc, 360dd, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 316 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.1   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements sections 525, 526, 527, and 528 of the act and provides procedures to encourage and facilitate the development of drugs for rare diseases or conditions, including biological products and antibiotics. This part sets forth the procedures and requirements for:
</P>
<P>(1) Submissions to FDA of:
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for recommendations for investigations of drugs for rare diseases or conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests for designation of a drug for a rare disease or condition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Requests for gaining exclusive approval for a drug for a rare disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Allowing a sponsor to provide an investigational drug under a treatment protocol to patients who need the drug for treatment of a rare disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to food, medical devices, or drugs for veterinary use.
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 35132, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.2" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish standards and procedures for determining eligibility for the benefits provided for in section 2 of the Orphan Drug Act, including written recommendations for investigations of orphan drugs, a 7-year period of exclusive marketing, and treatment use of investigational orphan drugs. This part is also intended to satisfy Congress' requirements that FDA promulgate procedures for the implementation of sections 525(a) and 526(a) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the act apply to those terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms apply to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act as amended by section 2 of the Orphan Drug Act (sections 525-528 (21 U.S.C. 360aa-360dd)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Active moiety</I> means the molecule or ion, excluding those appended portions of the molecule that cause the drug to be an ester, salt (including a salt with hydrogen or coordination bonds), or other noncovalent derivative (such as a complex, chelate, or clathrate) of the molecule, responsible for the physiological or pharmacological action of the drug substance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clinically superior</I> means that a drug is shown to provide a significant therapeutic advantage over and above that provided by an approved drug (that is otherwise the same drug) in one or more of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(i) Greater effectiveness than an approved drug (as assessed by effect on a clinically meaningful endpoint in adequate and well controlled clinical trials). Generally, this would represent the same kind of evidence needed to support a comparative effectiveness claim for two different drugs; in most cases, direct comparative clinical trials would be necessary; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Greater safety in a substantial portion of the target populations, for example, by the elimination of an ingredient or contaminant that is associated with relatively frequent adverse effects. In some cases, direct comparative clinical trials will be necessary; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In unusual cases, where neither greater safety nor greater effectiveness has been shown, a demonstration that the drug otherwise makes a major contribution to patient care.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Director</I> means the Director of FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Holder</I> means the sponsor in whose name an orphan drug is designated and approved.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>IND</I> means an investigational new drug application under part 312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person or agency engaged in the manufacture of a drug that is subject to investigation and approval under the act or the biologics provisions of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262-263).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Marketing application</I> means an application for approval of a new drug filed under section 505(b) of the act or an application for a biologics license submitted under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Orphan drug</I> means a drug intended for use in a rare disease or condition as defined in section 526 of the act.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Orphan-drug designation</I> means FDA's act of granting a request for designation under section 526 of the act.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Orphan-drug exclusive approval</I> or <I>exclusive approval</I> means that, effective on the date of FDA approval as stated in the approval letter of a marketing application for a sponsor of a designated orphan drug, no approval will be given to a subsequent sponsor of the same drug for the same use or indication for 7 years, except as otherwise provided by law or in this part. A designated drug will receive orphan-drug exclusive approval only if the same drug has not already been approved for the same use or indication.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Orphan subset of a non-rare disease or condition (“orphan subset”)</I> means that use of the drug in a subset of persons with a non-rare disease or condition may be appropriate but use of the drug outside of that subset (in the remaining persons with the non-rare disease or condition) would be inappropriate owing to some property(ies) of the drug, for example, drug toxicity, mechanism of action, or previous clinical experience with the drug.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Same drug</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) If it is a drug composed of small molecules, a drug that contains the same active moiety as a previously approved drug and is intended for the same use as the previously approved drug, even if the particular ester or salt (including a salt with hydrogen or coordination bonds) or other noncovalent derivative such as a complex, chelate or clathrate has not been previously approved, except that if the subsequent drug can be shown to be clinically superior to the first drug, it will not be considered to be the same drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) If it is a drug composed of large molecules (macromolecules), a drug that contains the same principal molecular structural features (but not necessarily all of the same structural features) and is intended for the same use as a previously approved drug, except that, if the subsequent drug can be shown to be clinically superior, it will not be considered to be the same drug. This criterion will be applied as follows to different kinds of macromolecules:
</P>
<P>(A) Two protein drugs would be considered the same if the only differences in structure between them were due to post-translational events or infidelity of translation or transcription or were minor differences in amino acid sequence; other potentially important differences, such as different glycosylation patterns or different tertiary structures, would not cause the drugs to be considered different unless the differences were shown to be clinically superior.
</P>
<P>(B) Two polysaccharide drugs would be considered the same if they had identical saccharide repeating units, even if the number of units were to vary and even if there were postpolymerization modifications, unless the subsequent drug could be shown to be clinically superior.
</P>
<P>(C) Two polynucleotide drugs consisting of two or more distinct nucleotides would be considered the same if they had an identical sequence of purine and pyrimidine bases (or their derivatives) bound to an identical sugar backbone (ribose, deoxyribose, or modifications of these sugars), unless the subsequent drug were shown to be clinically superior.
</P>
<P>(D) Closely related, complex partly definable drugs with similar therapeutic intent, such as two live viral vaccines for the same indication, would be considered the same unless the subsequent drug was shown to be clinically superior.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Sponsor</I> means the entity that assumes responsibility for a clinical or nonclinical investigation of a drug, including the responsibility for compliance with applicable provisions of the act and regulations. A sponsor may be an individual, partnership, corporation, or Government agency and may be a manufacturer, scientific institution, or an investigator regularly and lawfully engaged in the investigation of drugs. For purposes of the Orphan Drug Act, FDA considers the real party or parties in interest to be a sponsor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999; 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999; 78 FR 35132, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.4" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.4   Address for submissions.</HEAD>
<P>All correspondence and requests for FDA action under the provisions of this rule should be addressed as follows: Office of Orphan Products Development, Food and Drug Administration, Bldg. 32, Rm. 5271, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 35133, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Written Recommendations for Investigations of Orphan Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.10   Content and format of a request for written recommendations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor's request for written recommendations from FDA concerning the nonclinical and clinical investigations necessary for approval of a marketing application shall be submitted in the form and contain the information required in this section. FDA may require the sponsor to submit information in addition to that specified in paragraph (b) of this section if FDA determines that the sponsor's initial request does not contain adequate information on which to base recommendations.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor shall submit two copies of a completed, dated, and signed request for written recommendations that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor's name and address.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the sponsor is requesting written recommendations on orphan-drug development under section 525 of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the sponsor's primary contact person and/or resident agent, and the person's title, address, and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(4) The generic name and trade name, if any, of the drug and a list of the drug product's components or description of the drug product's formulation, and chemical and physical properties.
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed dosage form and route of administration.
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the disease or condition for which the drug is proposed to be investigated and the proposed indication or indications for use for such disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(7) Current regulatory and marketing status and history of the drug product, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the product is the subject of an IND or a marketing application (if the product is the subject of an IND or a marketing application, the IND or marketing application numbers should be stated and the investigational or approved indication or indications for use specified);
</P>
<P>(ii) Known marketing experience or investigational status outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(iii) So far as is known or can be determined, all indications previously or currently under investigation anywhere; 
</P>
<P>(iv) All adverse regulatory actions taken by the United States or foreign authorities.
</P>
<P>(8) The basis for concluding that the drug is for a disease or condition that is rare in the United States, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The size and other known demographic characteristics of the patient population affected and the source of this information.
</P>
<P>(ii) For drugs intended for diseases or conditions affecting 200,000 or more people in the United States, or for a vaccine, diagnostic drug, or preventive drug that would be given to 200,000 or more persons per year, a summary of the sponsor's basis for believing that the disease or condition described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section occurs so infrequently that there is no reasonable expectation that the costs of drug development and marketing will be recovered in future sales of the drug in the United States. The estimated costs and sales data should be submitted as provided for in § 316.21(c).
</P>
<P>(9) A summary and analysis of available data on the pharmacologic effects of the drug.
</P>
<P>(10) A summary and analysis of available nonclinical and clinical data pertinent to the drug and the disease to be studied including copies of pertinent published reports. When a drug proposed for orphan drug designation is intended to treat a life-threatening or severely debilitating illness, especially where no satisfactory alternative therapy exists, the sponsor may wish voluntarily to provide this information. A sponsor of such a drug may be entitled to expeditious development, evaluation, and marketing under 21 CFR part 312, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(11) An explanation of how the data summarized and analyzed under paragraphs (b)(9) and (b)(10) of this section support the rationale for use of the drug in the rare disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(12) A definition of the population from which subjects will be identified for clinical trials, if known.
</P>
<P>(13) A detailed outline of any protocols under which the drug has been or is being studied for the rare disease or condition and a summary and analysis of any available data from such studies.
</P>
<P>(14) The sponsor's proposal as to the scope of nonclinical and clinical investigations needed to establish the safety and effectiveness of the drug.
</P>
<P>(15) Detailed protocols for each proposed United States or foreign clinical investigation, if available.
</P>
<P>(16) Specific questions to be addressed by FDA in its recommendations for nonclinical laboratory studies and clinical investigations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992; 58 FR 6167, Jan. 26, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.12   Providing written recommendations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will provide the sponsor with written recommendations concerning the nonclinical laboratory studies and clinical investigations necessary for approval of a marketing application if none of the reasons described in § 316.14 for refusing to do so applies.
</P>
<P>(b) When a sponsor seeks written recommendations at a stage of drug development at which advice on any clinical investigations, or on particular investigations would be premature, FDA's response may be limited to written recommendations concerning only nonclinical laboratory studies, or only certain of the clinical studies (e.g., Phase 1 studies as described in § 312.21 of this chapter). Prior to providing written recommendations for the clinical investigations required to achieve marketing approval, FDA may require that the results of the nonclinical laboratory studies or completed early clinical studies be submitted to FDA for agency review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.14" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.14   Refusal to provide written recommendations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may refuse to provide written recommendations concerning the nonclinical laboratory studies and clinical investigations necessary for approval of a marketing application for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) The information required to be submitted by § 316.10(b) has not been submitted, or the information submitted is incomplete.
</P>
<P>(2) There is insufficient information about:
</P>
<P>(i) The drug to identify the active moiety and its physical and chemical properties, if these characteristics can be determined; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The disease or condition to determine that the disease or condition is rare in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The reasons for believing that the drug may be useful for treating the rare disease or condition with that drug; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The regulatory and marketing history of the drug to determine the scope and type of investigations that have already been conducted on the drug for the rare disease or condition; or
</P>
<P>(v) The plan of study for establishing the safety and effectiveness of the drug for treatment of the rare disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(3) The specific questions for which the sponsor seeks the advice of the agency are unclear or are not sufficiently specific.
</P>
<P>(4) On the basis of the information submitted and on other information available to the agency, FDA determines that the disease or condition for which the drug is intended is not rare in the United States.
</P>
<P>(5) On the basis of the information submitted and on other information available to the agency, FDA determines that there is an inadequate basis for permitting investigational use of the drug under part 312 of this chapter for the rare disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(6) The request for information contains an untrue statement of material fact.
</P>
<P>(b) A refusal to provide written recommendations will be in writing and will include a statement of the reason for FDA's refusal. Where practicable, FDA will describe the information or material it requires or the conditions the sponsor must meet for FDA to provide recommendations.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 90 days after the date of a letter from FDA requesting additional information or material or setting forth the conditions that the sponsor is asked to meet, the sponsor shall either:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the information or material or amend the request for written recommendations to meet the conditions sought by FDA; or
</P>
<P>(2) Withdraw the request for written recommendations. FDA will consider a sponsor's failure to respond within 90 days to an FDA letter requesting information or material or setting forth conditions to be met to be a withdrawal of the request for written recommendations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Designation of an Orphan Drug</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.20   Content and format of a request for orphan-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor that submits a request for orphan-drug designation of a drug for a specified rare disease or condition shall submit each request in the form and containing the information required in paragraph (b) of this section. A sponsor may request orphan-drug designation of a previously unapproved drug, or of a new use for an already marketed drug. In addition, a sponsor of a drug that is otherwise the same drug as an already approved drug may seek and obtain orphan-drug designation for the subsequent drug for the same rare disease or condition if it can present a plausible hypothesis that its drug may be clinically superior to the first drug. More than one sponsor may receive orphan-drug designation of the same drug for the same rare disease or condition, but each sponsor seeking orphan-drug designation must file a complete request for designation as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor shall submit two copies of a completed, dated, and signed request for designation that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the sponsor requests orphan-drug designation for a rare disease or condition, which shall be identified with specificity.
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the sponsor; the name of the sponsor's primary contact person and/or resident agent including title, address, telephone number, and email address; the generic and trade name, if any, of the drug, or, if neither is available, the chemical name or a meaningful descriptive name of the drug; and the name and address of the source of the drug if it is not manufactured by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the rare disease or condition for which the drug is being or will be investigated, the proposed use of the drug, and the reasons why such therapy is needed.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the drug, to include the identity of the active moiety if it is a drug composed of small molecules, or of the principal molecular structural features if it is composed of macromolecules; its physical and chemical properties, if these characteristics can be determined; and a discussion of the scientific rationale to establish a medically plausible basis for the use of the drug for the rare disease or condition, including all relevant data from in vitro laboratory studies, preclinical efficacy studies conducted in an animal model for the human disease or condition, and clinical experience with the drug in the rare disease or condition that are available to the sponsor, whether positive, negative, or inconclusive. Animal toxicology studies are generally not relevant to a request for orphan-drug designation. Copies of pertinent unpublished and published papers are also required.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the sponsor of a drug that is otherwise the same drug as an already approved drug seeks orphan-drug designation for the subsequent drug for the same rare disease or condition, an explanation of why the proposed variation may be clinically superior to the first drug.
</P>
<P>(6) Where a sponsor requests orphan-drug designation for a drug for only a subset of persons with a particular disease or condition that otherwise affects 200,000 or more people (“orphan subset”), a demonstration that, due to one or more properties of the drug, the remaining persons with such disease or condition would not be appropriate candidates for use of the drug.
</P>
<P>(7) A summary of the regulatory status and marketing history of the drug in the United States and in foreign countries, e.g., IND and marketing application status and dispositions, what uses are under investigation and in what countries; for what indication is the drug approved in foreign countries; what adverse regulatory actions have been taken against the drug in any country.
</P>
<P>(8) Documentation, with appended authoritative references, to demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(i) The disease or condition for which the drug is intended affects fewer than 200,000 people in the United States or, if the drug is a vaccine, diagnostic drug, or preventive drug, the persons to whom the drug will be administered in the United States are fewer than 200,000 per year as specified in § 316.21(b), or 
</P>
<P>(ii) For a drug intended for diseases or conditions affecting 200,000 or more people, or for a vaccine, diagnostic drug, or preventive drug to be administered to 200,000 or more persons per year in the United States, there is no reasonable expectation that costs of research and development of the drug for the indication can be recovered by sales of the drug in the United States as specified in § 316.21(c).
</P>
<P>(c) Any of the information previously provided by the sponsor to FDA under subpart B of this part may be referenced by specific page or location if it duplicates information required elsewhere in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 35133, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.21" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.21   Verification of orphan-drug status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) So that FDA can determine whether a drug qualifies for orphan-drug designation under section 526(a) of the act, the sponsor shall include in its request to FDA for orphan-drug designation under § 316.20 either:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation as described in paragraph (b) of this section that the number of people affected by the disease or condition for which the drug is to be developed is fewer than 200,000 persons; or
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation as described in paragraph (c) of this section that demonstrates that there is no reasonable expectation that the sales of the drug will be sufficient to offset the costs of developing the drug for the U.S. market and the costs of making the drug available in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of documenting that the number of people affected by the disease or condition for which the drug is to be developed is less than 200,000 persons, “prevalence” is defined as the number of persons in the United States who have been diagnosed as having the disease or condition at the time of the submission of the request for orphan-drug designation. To document the number of persons in the United States who have the disease or condition for which the drug is to be developed, the sponsor shall submit to FDA evidence showing:
</P>
<P>(1) The estimated prevalence of the disease or condition for which the drug is being developed, together with a list of the sources (including dates of information provided and literature citations) for the estimate;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request by FDA, the estimated prevalence of any other disease or condition for which the drug has already been approved or for which the drug is currently being developed, together with an explanation of the bases of these estimates; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated number of people to whom the drug will be administered annually if the drug is a vaccine or is a drug intended for diagnosis or prevention of a rare disease or condition, together with an explanation of the bases of these estimates (including dates of information provided and literature citations).
</P>
<P>(c) When submitting documentation that there is no reasonable expectation that costs of research and development of the drug for the disease or condition can be recovered by sales of the drug in the United States, the sponsor shall submit to FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) Data on all costs that the sponsor has incurred in the course of developing the drug for the U.S. market. These costs shall include, but are not limited to, nonclinical laboratory studies, clinical studies, dosage form development, record and report maintenance, meetings with FDA, determination of patentability, preparation of designation request, IND/marketing application preparation, distribution of the drug under a “treatment” protocol, licensing costs, liability insurance, and overhead and depreciation. Furthermore, the sponsor shall demonstrate the reasonableness of the cost data. For example, if the sponsor has incurred costs for clinical investigations, the sponsor shall provide information on the number of investigations, the years in which they took place, and on the scope, duration, and number of patients that were involved in each investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If the drug was developed wholly or in part outside the United States, in addition to the documentation listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Data on and justification for all costs that the sponsor has incurred outside of the United States in the course of developing the drug for the U.S. market. The justification, in addition to demonstrating the reasonableness of the cost data, must also explain the method that was used to determine which portion of the foreign development costs should be applied to the U.S. market, and what percent these costs are of total worldwide development costs. Any data submitted to foreign government authorities to support drug pricing determinations must be included with this information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Data that show which foreign development costs were recovered through cost recovery procedures that are allowed during drug development in some foreign countries. For example, if the sponsor charged patients for the drug during clinical investigations, the revenues collected by the sponsor must be reported to FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) In cases where the drug has already been approved for marketing for any indication or in cases where the drug is currently under investigation for one or more other indications (in addition to the indication for which orphan-drug designation is being sought), a clear explanation of and justification for the method that is used to apportion the development costs among the various indications.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of and justification for any development costs that the sponsor expects to incur after the submission of the designation request. In cases where the extent of these future development costs are not clear, the sponsor should request FDA's advice and assistance in estimating the scope of nonclinical laboratory studies and clinical investigations and other data that are needed to support marketing approval. Based on these recommendations, a cost estimate should be prepared.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of and justification for production and marketing costs that the sponsor has incurred in the past and expects to incur during the first 7 years that the drug is marketed.
</P>
<P>(6) An estimate of and justification for the expected revenues from sales of the drug in the United States during its first 7 years of marketing. The justification should assume that the total market for the drug is equal to the prevalence of the disease or condition that the drug will be used to treat. The justification should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An estimate of the expected market share of the drug in each of the first 7 years that it is marketed, together with an explanation of the basis for that estimate;
</P>
<P>(ii) A projection of and justification for the price at which the drug will be sold; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Comparisons with sales of similarly situated drugs, where available.
</P>
<P>(7) The name of each country where the drug has already been approved for marketing for any indication, the dates of approval, the indication for which the drug is approved, and the annual sales and number of prescriptions in each country since the first approval date.
</P>
<P>(8) A report of an independent certified public accountant in accordance with Statement on Standards for Attestation established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants on agreed upon procedures performed with respect to the data estimates and justifications submitted pursuant to this section. Cost data shall be determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(d) A sponsor that is requesting orphan-drug designation for a drug designed to treat a disease or condition that affects 200,000 or more persons shall, at FDA's request, allow FDA or FDA-designated personnel to examine at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner all relevant financial records and sales data of the sponsor and manufacturer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 35133, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.22" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.22   Permanent-resident agent for foreign sponsor.</HEAD>
<P>Every foreign sponsor that seeks orphan-drug designation shall name a permanent resident of the United States as the sponsor's agent upon whom service of all processes, notices, orders, decisions, requirements, and other communications may be made on behalf of the sponsor. Notifications of changes in such agents or changes of address of agents should preferably be provided in advance, but not later than 60 days after the effective date of such changes. The permanent-resident agent may be an individual, firm, or domestic corporation and may represent any number of sponsors. The name of the permanent-resident agent, address, telephone number, and email address shall be provided to: Office of Orphan Products Development, Food and Drug Administration, Bldg. 32, rm. 5271, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 35133, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.23" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.23   Timing of requests for orphan-drug designation; designation of already approved drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor may request orphan-drug designation at any time in its drug development process prior to the time that sponsor submits a marketing application for the drug for the same rare disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor may request orphan-drug designation of an already approved drug for an unapproved use without regard to whether the prior marketing approval was for a rare disease or condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 35133, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.24" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.24   Deficiency letters and granting orphan-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will send a deficiency letter to the sponsor if the request for orphan-drug designation lacks information required under §§ 316.20 and 316.21, or contains inaccurate or incomplete information. FDA may consider a designation request voluntarily withdrawn if the sponsor fails to respond to the deficiency letter within 1 year of issuance of the deficiency letter, unless within that same timeframe the sponsor requests in writing an extension of time to respond. This request must include the reason(s) for the requested extension and the length of time of the requested extension. FDA will grant all reasonable requests for an extension. In the event FDA denies a request for an extension of time, FDA may consider the designation request voluntarily withdrawn. In the event FDA considers a designation request voluntarily withdrawn, FDA will so notify the sponsor in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will grant the request for orphan-drug designation if none of the reasons described in § 316.25 for requiring or permitting refusal to grant such a request applies.
</P>
<P>(c) When a request for orphan-drug designation is granted, FDA will notify the sponsor in writing and will publicize the orphan-drug designation in accordance with § 316.28.
</P>
<P>(d) A sponsor may voluntarily withdraw an orphan-drug designation request or an orphan-drug designation at any time after the request is submitted or granted, respectively, by submitting a written request for withdrawal to FDA. FDA will acknowledge such withdrawal in a letter to the sponsor. Any benefits attendant to designation (such as orphan-exclusive approval) will cease once designation is voluntarily withdrawn, from the date of FDA's acknowledgement letter. If a sponsor voluntarily withdraws designation, FDA will publicize such withdrawal in accordance with § 316.28.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 35133, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.25" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.25   Refusal to grant orphan-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will refuse to grant a request for orphan-drug designation if any of the following reasons apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug is not intended for a rare disease or condition because:
</P>
<P>(i) There is insufficient evidence to support the estimate that the drug is intended for treatment of a disease or condition in fewer than 200,000 people in the United States, or that the drug is intended for use in prevention or in diagnosis in fewer than 200,000 people annually in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the drug is intended for prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of a disease or condition affecting 200,000 or more people in the United States, the sponsor has failed to demonstrate that there is no reasonable expectation that development and production costs will be recovered from sales of the drug for such disease or condition in the United States. A sponsor's failure to comply with § 316.21 shall constitute a failure to make the demonstration required in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) There is insufficient information about the drug, or the disease or condition for which it is intended, to establish a medically plausible basis for expecting the drug to be effective in the prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of that disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(3) The drug is otherwise the same drug as an already approved drug for the same rare disease or condition and the sponsor has not submitted a medically plausible hypothesis for the possible clinical superiority of the subsequent drug.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may refuse to grant a request for orphan-drug designation if the request for designation contains an untrue statement of material fact or omits material information or if the request is otherwise ineligible under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 35133, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.26" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.26   Amendment to orphan-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to approval of a marketing application for a designated orphan drug, the sponsor holding designation may apply for an amendment to the designated use if the proposed change is due to new and unexpected findings in research on the drug, information arising from FDA recommendations, or unforeseen developments in treatment or diagnosis of the disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will grant the amendment if it finds that the initial designation request was made in good faith and that the amendment is intended to conform the orphan-drug designation to the results of unanticipated research findings, to unforeseen developments in the treatment or diagnosis of the disease or condition, or to changes based on FDA recommendations, and that, as of the date of the submission of the amendment request, the amendment would not result in exceeding the prevalence or cost recovery thresholds in § 316.21(a)(1) or (a)(2) upon which the drug was originally designated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 35134, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.27" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.27   Change in ownership of orphan-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor may transfer ownership of or any beneficial interest in the orphan-drug designation of a drug to a new sponsor. At the time of the transfer, the new and former owners are required to submit the following information to FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) The former owner or assignor of rights shall submit a letter or other document that states that all or some rights to the orphan-drug designation of the drug have been transferred to the new owner or assignee and that a complete copy of the request for orphan-drug designation, including any amendments to the request, supplements to the granted request, and correspondence relevant to the orphan-drug designation, has been provided to the new owner or assignee.
</P>
<P>(2) The new owner or assignee of rights shall submit a statement accepting orphan-drug designation and a letter or other document containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The date that the change in ownership or assignment of rights is effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the new owner has a complete copy of the request for orphan-drug designation including any amendments to the request, supplements to the granted request, and correspondence relevant to the orphan-drug designation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A specific description of the rights that have been assigned and those that have been reserved. This may be satisfied by the submission of either a list of rights assigned and reserved or copies of all relevant agreements between assignors and assignees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and address of a new primary contact person or resident agent.
</P>
<P>(b) No sponsor may relieve itself of responsibilities under the Orphan Drug Act or under this part by assigning rights to another person without:
</P>
<P>(1) Assuring that the sponsor or the assignee will carry out such responsibilities; or
</P>
<P>(2) Obtaining prior permission from FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992; 58 FR 6167, Jan. 26, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.28" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.28   Publication of orphan-drug designations.</HEAD>
<P>Each month FDA will update a publicly available cumulative posting of all drugs designated as orphan drugs. These postings will contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and address of the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(b) The generic name and trade name, if any, or, if neither is available, the chemical name or a meaningful descriptive name of the drug;
</P>
<P>(c) The date of the granting of orphan-drug designation;
</P>
<P>(d) The designated use in the rare disease or condition; and
</P>
<P>(e) If the drug loses designation after August 12, 2013, the date of it no longer having designation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 35134, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.29" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.29   Revocation of orphan-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may revoke orphan-drug designation for any drug if the agency finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The request for designation contained an untrue statement of material fact; or
</P>
<P>(2) The request for designation omitted material information required by this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) FDA subsequently finds that the drug in fact had not been eligible for orphan-drug designation at the time of submission of the request therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) For an approved drug, revocation of orphan-drug designation also suspends or withdraws the sponsor's exclusive marketing rights for the drug but not the approval of the drug's marketing application.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a drug has been designated as an orphan drug because the prevalence of a disease or condition (or, in the case of vaccines, diagnostic drugs, or preventive drugs, the target population) is under 200,000 in the United States at the time of designation, its designation will not be revoked on the ground that the prevalence of the disease or condition (or the target population) becomes more than 200,000 persons.
</P>
<P>(d) If FDA revokes orphan-drug designation, FDA will publicize that the drug is no longer designated in accordance with § 316.28(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 35134, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.30" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.30   Annual reports of holder of orphan-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>Within 14 months after the date on which a drug was designated as an orphan drug and annually thereafter until marketing approval, the sponsor of a designated drug shall submit a brief progress report to the FDA Office of Orphan Products Development on the drug that includes:
</P>
<P>(a) A short account of the progress of drug development including a review of preclinical and clinical studies initiated, ongoing, and completed and a short summary of the status or results of such studies.
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the investigational plan for the coming year, as well as any anticipated difficulties in development, testing, and marketing; and
</P>
<P>(c) A brief discussion of any changes that may affect the orphan-drug status of the product. For example, for products nearing the end of the approval process, sponsors should discuss any disparity between the probable marketing indication and the designated indication as related to the need for an amendment to the orphan-drug designation pursuant to § 316.26.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Orphan-drug Exclusive Approval</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.31" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.31   Scope of orphan-drug exclusive approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may approve a sponsor's marketing application for a designated orphan drug for use in the rare disease or condition for which the drug was designated, or for select indication(s) or use(s) within the rare disease or condition for which the drug was designated. Unless FDA previously approved the same drug for the same use or indication, FDA will not approve another sponsor's marketing application for the same drug for the same use or indication before the expiration of 7 years from the date of such approval as stated in the approval letter from FDA, except that such a marketing application can be approved sooner if, and at such time as, any of the following occurs:
</P>
<P>(1) Withdrawal of exclusive approval or revocation of orphan-drug designation by FDA under any provision of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Withdrawal for any reason of the marketing application for the drug in question; or
</P>
<P>(3) Consent by the holder of exclusive approval to permit another marketing application to gain approval; or
</P>
<P>(4) Failure of the holder of exclusive approval to assure a sufficient quantity of the drug under section 527 of the act and § 316.36.
</P>
<P>(b) Orphan-drug exclusive approval protects only the approved indication or use of a designated drug. If such approval is limited to only particular indication(s) or uses(s) within the rare disease or condition for which the drug was designated, FDA may later approve the drug for additional indication(s) or uses(s) within the rare disease or condition not protected by the exclusive approval. If the sponsor who obtains approval for these new indication(s) or uses(s) has orphan-drug designation for the drug for the rare disease or condition, FDA will recognize a new orphan-drug exclusive approval for these new (not previously approved) indication(s) or use(s) from the date of approval of the drug for such new indication(s) or use(s).
</P>
<P>(c) If a sponsor's marketing application for a drug product is determined not to be approvable because approval is barred under section 527 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act until the expiration of the period of exclusive marketing of another drug, FDA will so notify the sponsor in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62085, Dec. 29, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 35134, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.34" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.34   FDA recognition of exclusive approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will send the sponsor (or, the permanent-resident agent, if applicable) timely written notice recognizing exclusive approval once the marketing application for a designated orphan-drug product has been approved, if the same drug has not already been approved for the same use or indication. The written notice will inform the sponsor of the requirements for maintaining orphan-drug exclusive approval for the full 7-year term of exclusive approval.
</P>
<P>(b) When a marketing application is approved under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355) for a designated orphan drug that qualifies for exclusive approval, FDA will publish in its publication entitled “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations” information identifying the sponsor, the drug, and the date of termination of the orphan-drug exclusive approval. A subscription to this publication and its monthly cumulative supplements is available from the Superintendent of Documents, Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402-9325, and is also available online at <I>http://www.accessdata.fda.gov/scripts/cder/ob/default.cfm.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) If a drug is otherwise the same drug as a previously approved drug for the same use or indication, FDA will not recognize orphan-drug exclusive approval if the sponsor fails to demonstrate upon approval that the drug is clinically superior to the previously approved drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 35135, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.36" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.36   Insufficient quantities of orphan drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 527 of the act, whenever the Director has reason to believe that the holder of exclusive approval cannot assure the availability of sufficient quantities of an orphan drug to meet the needs of patients with the disease or condition for which the drug was designated, the Director will so notify the holder of this possible insufficiency and will offer the holder one of the following options, which must be exercised by a time that the Director specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the Director in writing, or orally, or both, at the Director's discretion, views and data as to how the holder can assure the availability of sufficient quantities of the orphan drug within a reasonable time to meet the needs of patients with the disease or condition for which the drug was designated; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the Director in writing the holder's consent for the approval of other marketing applications for the same drug before the expiration of the 7-year period of exclusive approval.
</P>
<P>(b) If, within the time that the Director specifies, the holder fails to consent to the approval of other marketing applications and if the Director finds that the holder has not shown that it can assure the availability of sufficient quantities of the orphan drug to meet the needs of patients with the disease or condition for which the drug was designated, the Director will issue a written order withdrawing the drug product's exclusive approval. This order will embody the Director's findings and conclusions and will constitute final agency action. An order withdrawing the sponsor's exclusive marketing rights may issue whether or not there are other sponsors that can assure the availability of alternative sources of supply. Once withdrawn under this section, exclusive approval may not be reinstated for that drug.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Open Protocols for Investigations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.40" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.40   Treatment use of a designated orphan drug.</HEAD>
<P>Prospective investigators seeking to obtain treatment use of designated orphan drugs may do so as provided in subpart I of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 40945, Aug. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Availability of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.50   Guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development will maintain and make publicly available a list of guidance documents that apply to the regulations in this part. The list is maintained on the Internet and is published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A request for a copy of the list should be directed to the Office of Orphan Products Development, Food and Drug Administration, Bldg. 32, rm. 5271, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 35135, June 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 316.52" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.6.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 316.52   Availability for public disclosure of data and information in requests and applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will not publicly disclose the existence of a request for orphan-drug designation under section 526 of the act prior to final FDA action on the request unless the existence of the request has been previously publicly disclosed or acknowledged.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether or not the existence of a pending request for designation has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the request are available for public disclosure prior to final FDA action on the request.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon final FDA action on a request for designation, FDA will determine the public availability of data and information in the request in accordance with part 20 and § 314.430 of this chapter and other applicable statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with § 316.28, FDA will make a cumulative list of all orphan drug designations available to the public and update such list monthly.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will not publicly disclose the existence of a pending marketing application for a designated orphan drug for the use for which the drug was designated unless the existence of the application has been previously publicly disclosed or acknowledged.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA will determine the public availability of data and information contained in pending and approved marketing applications for a designated orphan drug for the use for which the drug was designated in accordance with part 20 and § 314.430 of this chapter and other applicable statutes and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="317" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 317—QUALIFYING PATHOGENS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 355f, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 32480, June 5, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 317.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 317.1   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 317.2" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 317.2   List of qualifying pathogens that have the potential to pose a serious threat to public health.</HEAD>
<P>The term “qualifying pathogen” in section 505E(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is defined to mean any of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acinetobacter</I> species.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aspergillus</I> species.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Burkholderia cepacia</I> complex.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Campylobacter</I> species.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Candida</I> species.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clostridium difficile.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Coccidioides</I> species.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Cryptococcus</I> species.
</P>
<P>(i) Enterobacteriaceae.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Enterococcus</I> species.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Helicobacter pylori.</I>
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> complex.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Neisseria gonorrhoeae.</I>
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Neisseria meningitidis.</I>
</P>
<P>(o) Non-tuberculous mycobacteria species.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Pseudomonas</I> species.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Staphylococcus aureus.</I>
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Streptococcus agalactiae.</I>
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Streptococcus pneumoniae.</I>
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Streptococcus pyogenes.</I>
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Vibrio cholerae.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="320" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 320—BIOAVAILABILITY AND BIOEQUIVALENCE REQUIREMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 355, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions contained in § 314.3 of this chapter apply to those terms when used in this part.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 69658, Oct. 6, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Determining the Bioavailability or Bioequivalence of Drug Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 1648, Jan. 7, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 320.21" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.21   Requirements for submission of bioavailability and bioequivalence data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person submitting a full new drug application to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) shall include in the application either:
</P>
<P>(1) Evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability of the drug product that is the subject of the application; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Information to permit FDA to waive the submission of evidence measuring in vivo bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person submitting an abbreviated new drug application to FDA shall include in the application either:
</P>
<P>(1) Evidence demonstrating that the drug product that is the subject of the abbreviated new drug application is bioequivalent to the reference listed drug (defined in § 314.3(b) of this chapter). A complete study report must be submitted for the bioequivalence study upon which the applicant relies for approval. For all other bioequivalence studies conducted on the same drug product formulation, the applicant must submit either a complete or summary report. If a summary report of a bioequivalence study is submitted and FDA determines that there may be bioequivalence issues or concerns with the product, FDA may require that the applicant submit a complete report of the bioequivalence study to FDA; or
</P>
<P>(2) Information to show that the drug product is bioequivalent to the reference listed drug which would permit FDA to waive the submission of evidence demonstrating in vivo bioequivalence as provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person submitting a supplemental application to FDA shall include in the supplemental application the evidence or information set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if the supplemental application proposes any of the following changes:
</P>
<P>(1) A change in the manufacturing site or a change in the manufacturing process, including a change in product formulation or dosage strength, beyond the variations provided for in the approved application.
</P>
<P>(2) A change in the labeling to provide for a new indication for use of the drug product, if clinical studies are required to support the new indication for use.
</P>
<P>(3) A change in the labeling to provide for a new dosage regimen or for an additional dosage regimen for a special patient population, e.g., infants, if clinical studies are required to support the new or additional dosage regimen.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may approve a full new drug application, or a supplemental application proposing any of the changes set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, that does not contain evidence of in vivo bioavailability or information to permit waiver of the requirement for in vivo bioavailability data, if all of the following conditions are met.
</P>
<P>(1) The application is otherwise approvable.
</P>
<P>(2) The application agrees to submit, within the time specified by FDA, either:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability and demonstrating the in vivo bioequivalence of the drug product that is the subject of the application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Information to permit FDA to waive measurement of in vivo bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(e) Evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability and demonstrating the in vivo bioequivalence of a drug product shall be obtained using one of the approaches for determining bioavailability set forth in § 320.24.
</P>
<P>(f) Information to permit FDA to waive the submission of evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability or demonstrating the in vivo bioequivalence shall meet the criteria set forth in § 320.22.
</P>
<P>(g) Any person holding an approved full or abbreviated new drug application shall submit to FDA a supplemental application containing new evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability or demonstrating the in vivo bioequivalence of the drug product that is the subject of the application if notified by FDA that:
</P>
<P>(1) There are data demonstrating that the dosage regimen in the labeling is based on incorrect assumptions or facts regarding the pharmacokinetics of the drug product and that following this dosage regimen could potentially result in subtherapeutic or toxic levels; or 
</P>
<P>(2) There are data measuring significant intra-batch and batch-to-batch variability, e.g., plus or minus 25 percent, in the bioavailability of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(h) The requirements of this section regarding the submission of evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability or demonstrating the in vivo bioequivalence apply only to a full or abbreviated new drug application or a supplemental application for a finished dosage formulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17998, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 77672, Dec. 19, 2002; 74 FR 2862, Jan. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.22" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.22   Criteria for waiver of evidence of in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person submitting a full or abbreviated new drug application, or a supplemental application proposing any of the changes set forth in § 320.21(c), may request FDA to waive the requirement for the submission of evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability or demonstrating the in vivo bioequivalence of the drug product that is the subject of the application. An applicant shall submit a request for waiver with the application. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, FDA shall waive the requirement for the submission of evidence of in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence if the drug product meets any of the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), (d), or (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) For certain drug products, the in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence of the drug product may be self-evident. FDA shall waive the requirement for the submission of evidence obtained in vivo measuring the bioavailability or demonstrating the bioequivalence of these drug products. A drug product's in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence may be considered self-evident based on other data in the application if the product meets one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug product:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a parenteral solution intended solely for administration by injection, or an ophthalmic or otic solution; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains the same active and inactive ingredients in the same concentration as a drug product that is the subject of an approved full new drug application or abbreviated new drug application.
</P>
<P>(2) The drug product:
</P>
<P>(i) Is administered by inhalation as a gas, e.g., a medicinal or an inhalation anesthetic; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains an active ingredient in the same dosage form as a drug product that is the subject of an approved full new drug application or abbreviated new drug application.
</P>
<P>(3) The drug product:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a solution for application to the skin, an oral solution, elixir, syrup, tincture, a solution for aerosolization or nebulization, a nasal solution, or similar other solubilized form; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains an active drug ingredient in the same concentration and dosage form as a drug product that is the subject of an approved full new drug application or abbreviated new drug application; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains no inactive ingredient or other change in formulation from the drug product that is the subject of the approved full new drug application or abbreviated new drug application that may significantly affect absorption of the active drug ingredient or active moiety for products that are systemically absorbed, or that may significantly affect systemic or local availability for products intended to act locally.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA shall waive the requirement for the submission of evidence measuring the in vivo bioavailability or demonstrating the in vivo bioequivalence of a solid oral dosage form (other than a delayed release or extended release dosage form) of a drug product determined to be effective for at least one indication in a Drug Efficacy Study Implementation notice or which is identical, related, or similar to such a drug product under § 310.6 of this chapter unless FDA has evaluated the drug product under the criteria set forth in § 320.33, included the drug product in the Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations List, and rated the drug product as having a known or potential bioequivalence problem. A drug product so rated reflects a determination by FDA that an in vivo bioequivalence study is required.
</P>
<P>(d) For certain drug products, bioavailability may be measured or bioequivalence may be demonstrated by evidence obtained in vitro in lieu of in vivo data. FDA shall waive the requirement for the submission of evidence obtained in vivo measuring the bioavailability or demonstrating the bioequivalence of the drug product if the drug product meets one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) The drug product is in the same dosage form, but in a different strength, and is proportionally similar in its active and inactive ingredients to another drug product for which the same manufacturer has obtained approval and the conditions in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (d)(2)(iii) of this section are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The bioavailability of this other drug product has been measured;
</P>
<P>(ii) Both drug products meet an appropriate in vitro test approved by FDA; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant submits evidence showing that both drug products are proportionally similar in their active and inactive ingredients.
</P>
<P>(iv) Paragraph (d) of this section does not apply to delayed release or extended release products.
</P>
<P>(3) The drug product is, on the basis of scientific evidence submitted in the application, shown to meet an in vitro test that has been correlated with in vivo data.
</P>
<P>(4) The drug product is a reformulated product that is identical, except for a different color, flavor, or preservative that could not affect the bioavailability of the reformulated product, to another drug product for which the same manufacturer has obtained approval and the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The bioavailability of the other product has been measured; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Both drug products meet an appropriate in vitro test approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA, for good cause, may waive a requirement for the submission of evidence of in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence if waiver is compatible with the protection of the public health. For full new drug applications, FDA may defer a requirement for the submission of evidence of in vivo bioavailability if deferral is compatible with the protection of the public health.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA, for good cause, may require evidence of in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence for any drug product if the agency determines that any difference between the drug product and a listed drug may affect the bioavailability or bioequivalence of the drug product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17998, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 77673, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.23" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.23   Basis for measuring in vivo bioavailability or demonstrating bioequivalence.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The in vivo bioavailability of a drug product is measured if the product's rate and extent of absorption, as determined by comparison of measured parameters, e.g., concentration of the active drug ingredient in the blood, urinary excretion rates, or pharmacological effects, do not indicate a significant difference from the reference material's rate and extent of absorption. For drug products that are not intended to be absorbed into the bloodstream, bioavailability may be assessed by scientifically valid measurements intended to reflect the rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moiety becomes available at the site of action.
</P>
<P>(2) Statistical techniques used must be of sufficient sensitivity to detect differences in rate and extent of absorption that are not attributable to subject variability.
</P>
<P>(3) A drug product that differs from the reference material in its rate of absorption, but not in its extent of absorption, may be considered to be bioavailable if the difference in the rate of absorption is intentional, is appropriately reflected in the labeling, is not essential to the attainment of effective body drug concentrations on chronic use, and is considered medically insignificant for the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Two drug products will be considered bioequivalent drug products if they are pharmaceutical equivalents or pharmaceutical alternatives whose rate and extent of absorption do not show a significant difference when administered at the same molar dose of the active moiety under similar experimental conditions, either single dose or multiple dose. Some pharmaceutical equivalents or pharmaceutical alternatives may be equivalent in the extent of their absorption but not in their rate of absorption and yet may be considered bioequivalent because such differences in the rate of absorption are intentional and are reflected in the labeling, are not essential to the attainment of effective body drug concentrations on chronic use, and are considered medically insignificant for the particular drug product studied.
</P>
<P>(2) For drug products that are not intended to be absorbed into the bloodstream, bioequivalence may be demonstrated by scientifically valid methods that are expected to detect a significant difference between the drug and the listed drug in safety and therapeutic effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17999, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 77673, Dec. 19, 2002, 81 FR 69658, Oct. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.24" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.24   Types of evidence to measure bioavailability or establish bioequivalence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bioavailability may be measured or bioequivalence may be demonstrated by several in vivo and in vitro methods. FDA may require in vivo or in vitro testing, or both, to measure the bioavailability of a drug product or establish the bioequivalence of specific drug products. Information on bioequivalence requirements for specific products is included in the current edition of FDA's publication “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations” and any current supplement to the publication. The selection of the method used to meet an in vivo or in vitro testing requirement depends upon the purpose of the study, the analytical methods available, and the nature of the drug product. Applicants shall conduct bioavailability and bioequivalence testing using the most accurate, sensitive, and reproducible approach available among those set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. The method used must be capable of measuring bioavailability or establishing bioequivalence, as appropriate, for the product being tested.
</P>
<P>(b) The following in vivo and in vitro approaches, in descending order of accuracy, sensitivity, and reproducibility, are acceptable for determining the bioavailability or bioequivalence of a drug product. 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) An in vivo test in humans in which the concentration of the active ingredient or active moiety, and, when appropriate, its active metabolite(s), in whole blood, plasma, serum, or other appropriate biological fluid is measured as a function of time. This approach is particularly applicable to dosage forms intended to deliver the active moiety to the bloodstream for systemic distribution within the body; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An in vitro test that has been correlated with and is predictive of human in vivo bioavailability data; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An in vivo test in humans in which the urinary excretion of the active moiety, and, when appropriate, its active metabolite(s), are measured as a function of time. The intervals at which measurements are taken should ordinarily be as short as possible so that the measure of the rate of elimination is as accurate as possible. Depending on the nature of the drug product, this approach may be applicable to the category of dosage forms described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. This method is not appropriate where urinary excretion is not a significant mechanism of elimination. 
</P>
<P>(3) An in vivo test in humans in which an appropriate acute pharmacological effect of the active moiety, and, when appropriate, its active metabolite(s), are measured as a function of time if such effect can be measured with sufficient accuracy, sensitivity, and reproducibility. This approach is applicable to the category of dosage forms described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section only when appropriate methods are not available for measurement of the concentration of the moiety, and, when appropriate, its active metabolite(s), in biological fluids or excretory products but a method is available for the measurement of an appropriate acute pharmacological effect. This approach may be particularly applicable to dosage forms that are not intended to deliver the active moiety to the bloodstream for systemic distribution.
</P>
<P>(4) Well-controlled clinical trials that establish the safety and effectiveness of the drug product, for purposes of measuring bioavailability, or appropriately designed comparative clinical trials, for purposes of demonstrating bioequivalence. This approach is the least accurate, sensitive, and reproducible of the general approaches for measuring bioavailability or demonstrating bioequivalence. For dosage forms intended to deliver the active moiety to the bloodstream for systemic distribution, this approach may be considered acceptable only when analytical methods cannot be developed to permit use of one of the approaches outlined in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(2) of this section, when the approaches described in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iii), and (b)(3) of this section are not available. This approach may also be considered sufficiently accurate for measuring bioavailability or demonstrating bioequivalence of dosage forms intended to deliver the active moiety locally, e.g., topical preparations for the skin, eye, and mucous membranes; oral dosage forms not intended to be absorbed, e.g., an antacid or radiopaque medium; and bronchodilators administered by inhalation if the onset and duration of pharmacological activity are defined.
</P>
<P>(5) A currently available in vitro test acceptable to FDA (usually a dissolution rate test) that ensures human in vivo bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(6) Any other approach deemed adequate by FDA to measure bioavailability or establish bioequivalence.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may, notwithstanding prior requirements for measuring bioavailability or establishing bioequivalence, require in vivo testing in humans of a product at any time if the agency has evidence that the product:
</P>
<P>(1) May not produce therapeutic effects comparable to a pharmaceutical equivalent or alternative with which it is intended to be used interchangeably;
</P>
<P>(2) May not be bioequivalent to a pharmaceutical equivalent or alternative with which it is intended to be used interchangeably; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Has greater than anticipated potential toxicity related to pharmacokinetic or other characteristics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 17999, Apr. 28, 1992; 57 FR 29354, July 1, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 77673, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.25" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.25   Guidelines for the conduct of an in vivo bioavailability study.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Guiding principles.</I> (1) The basic principle in an in vivo bioavailability study is that no unnecessary human research should be done. 
</P>
<P>(2) An in vivo bioavailability study is generally done in a normal adult population under standardized conditions. In some situations, an in vivo bioavailability study in humans may preferably and more properly be done in suitable patients. Critically ill patients shall not be included in an in vivo bioavailability study unless the attending physician determines that there is a potential benefit to the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic design.</I> The basic design of an in vivo bioavailability study is determined by the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The scientific questions to be answered. 
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of the reference material and the dosage form to be tested. 
</P>
<P>(3) The availability of analytical methods. 
</P>
<P>(4) Benefit-risk considerations in regard to testing in humans. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comparison to a reference material.</I> In vivo bioavailability testing of a drug product shall be in comparison to an appropriate reference material unless some other approach is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Previously unmarketed active drug ingredients or therapeutic moieties.</I> (1) An in vivo bioavailability study involving a drug product containing an active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety that has not been approved for marketing can be used to measure the following pharmacokinetic data:
</P>
<P>(i) The bioavailability of the formulation proposed for marketing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The essential pharmacokinetic characteristics of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, such as the rate of absorption, the extent of absorption, the half-life of the therapeutic moiety in vivo, and the rate of excretion and/or metabolism. Dose proportionality of the active drug ingredient or the therapeutic moiety needs to be established after single-dose administration and in certain instances after multiple-dose administration. This characterization is a necessary part of the investigation of the drug to support drug labeling. 
</P>
<P>(2) The reference material in such a bioavailability study should be a solution or suspension containing the same quantity of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety as the formulation proposed for marketing. 
</P>
<P>(3) The reference material should be administered by the same route as the formulation proposed for marketing unless an alternative or additional route is necessary to answer the scientific question under study. For example, in the case of an active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety that is poorly absorbed after oral administration, it may be necessary to compare the oral dosage form proposed for marketing with the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety administered in solution both orally and intravenously. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>New formulations of active drug ingredients or therapeutic moieties approved for marketing.</I> (1) An in vivo bioavailability study involving a drug product that is a new dosage form, or a new salt or ester of an active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety that has been approved for marketing can be used to:
</P>
<P>(i) Measure the bioavailability of the new formulation, new dosage form, or new salt or ester relative to an appropriate reference material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Define the pharmacokinetic parameters of the new formulation, new dosage form, or new salt or ester to establish dosage recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The selection of the reference material(s) in such a bioavailability study depends upon the scientific questions to be answered, the data needed to establish comparability to a currently marketed drug product, and the data needed to establish dosage recommendations. 
</P>
<P>(3) The reference material should be taken from a current batch of a drug product that is the subject of an approved new drug application and that contains the same active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, if the new formulation, new dosage form, or new salt or ester is intended to be comparable to or to meet any comparative labeling claims made in relation to the drug product that is the subject of an approved new drug application. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Extended release formulations.</I> (1) The purpose of an in vivo bioavailability study involving a drug product for which an extended release claim is made is to determine if all of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) The drug product meets the extended release claims made for it. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bioavailability profile established for the drug product rules out the occurrence of any dose dumping. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The drug product's steady-state performance is equivalent to a currently marketed nonextended release or extended release drug product that contains the same active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety and that is subject to an approved full new drug application. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The drug product's formulation provides consistent pharmacokinetic performance between individual dosage units. 
</P>
<P>(2) The reference material(s) for such a bioavailability study shall be chosen to permit an appropriate scientific evaluation of the extended release claims made for the drug product. The reference material shall be one of the following or any combination thereof: 
</P>
<P>(i) A solution or suspension of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A currently marketed noncontrolled release drug product containing the same active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety and administered according to the dosage recommendations in the labeling of the noncontrolled release drug product. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A currently marketed extended release drug product subject to an approved full new drug application containing the same active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety and administered according to the dosage recommendations in the labeling proposed for the extended release drug product. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A reference material other than one set forth in paragraph (f)(2) (i), (ii) or (iii) of this section that is appropriate for valid scientific reasons. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combination drug products.</I> (1) Generally, the purpose of an in vivo bioavailability study involving a combination drug product is to determine if the rate and extent of absorption of each active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety in the combination drug product is equivalent to the rate and extent of absorption of each active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety administered concurrently in separate single-ingredient preparations. 
</P>
<P>(2) The reference material in such a bioavailability study should be two or more currently marketed, single-ingredient drug products each of which contains one of the active drug ingredients or therapeutic moieties in the combination drug product. The Food and Drug Administration may, for valid scientific reasons, specify that the reference material shall be a combination drug product that is the subject of an approved new drug application. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Food and Drug Administration may permit a bioavailability study involving a combination drug product to determine the rate and extent of absorption of selected, but not all, active drug ingredients or therapeutic moieties in the combination drug product. The Food and Drug Administration may permit this determination if the pharmacokinetics and the interactions of the active drug ingredients or therapeutic moieties in the combination drug product are well known and the therapeutic activity of the combination drug product is generally recognized to reside in only one of the active drug ingredients or therapeutic moieties, e.g., ampicillin in an ampicillin-probenecid combination drug product. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Use of a placebo as the reference material.</I> Where appropriate or where necessary to demonstrate the sensitivity of the test, the reference material in a bioavailability study may be a placebo if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The study measures the therapeutic or acute pharmacological effect of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The study is a clinical trial to establish the safety and effectiveness of the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Standards for test drug product and reference material.</I> (1) Both the drug product to be tested and the reference material, if it is another drug product, shall be shown to meet all compendial or other applicable standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity, including potency and, where applicable, content uniformity, disintegration times, and dissolution rates. 
</P>
<P>(2) Samples of the drug product to be tested shall be manufactured using the same equipment and under the same conditions as those used for full-scale production. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1648, Jan. 7, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 77674, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.26" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.26   Guidelines on the design of a single-dose in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence study.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic principles.</I> (1) An in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence study should be a single-dose comparison of the drug product to be tested and the appropriate reference material conducted in normal adults.
</P>
<P>(2) The test product and the reference material should be administered to subjects in the fasting state, unless some other approach is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Study design.</I> (1) A single-dose study should be crossover in design, unless a parallel design or other design is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons, and should provide for a drug elimination period. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless some other approach is appropriate for valid scientific reasons, the drug elimination period should be either: 
</P>
<P>(i) At least three times the half-life of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its metabolite(s), measured in the blood or urine; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) At least three times the half-life of decay of the acute pharmacological effect. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collection of blood samples.</I> (1) When comparison of the test product and the reference material is to be based on blood concentration time curves, unless some other approach is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons, blood samples should be taken with sufficient frequency to permit an estimate of both: 
</P>
<P>(i) The peak concentration in the blood of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its metabolite(s), measured; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total area under the curve for a time period at least three times the half-life of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its metabolite(s), measured. 
</P>
<P>(2) In a study comparing oral dosage forms, the sampling times should be identical. 
</P>
<P>(3) In a study comparing an intravenous dosage form and an oral dosage form, the sampling times should be those needed to describe both: 
</P>
<P>(i) The distribution and elimination phase of the intravenous dosage form; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The absorption and elimination phase of the oral dosage form. 
</P>
<P>(4) In a study comparing drug delivery systems other than oral or intravenous dosage forms with an appropriate reference standard, the sampling times should be based on valid scientific reasons. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Collection of urine samples.</I> When comparison of the test product and the reference material is to be based on cumulative urinary excretion-time curves, unless some other approach is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons, samples of the urine should be collected with sufficient frequency to permit an estimate of the rate and extent of urinary excretion of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its metabolite(s), measured. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Measurement of an acute pharmacological effect.</I> (1) When comparison of the test product and the reference material is to be based on acute pharmacological effect-time curves, measurements of this effect should be made with sufficient frequency to permit a reasonable estimate of the total area under the curve for a time period at least three times the half-life of decay of the pharmacological effect, unless some other approach is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons. 
</P>
<P>(2) The use of an acute pharmacological effect to determine bioavailability may further require demonstration of dose-related response. In such a case, bioavailability may be determined by comparison of the dose-response curves as well as the total area under the acute pharmacological effect-time curves for any given dose. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1648, Jan. 7, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 77674, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.27" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.27   Guidelines on the design of a multiple-dose in vivo bioavailability study.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic principles.</I> (1) In selected circumstances it may be necessary for the test product and the reference material to be compared after repeated administration to determine steady-state levels of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety in the body. 
</P>
<P>(2) The test product and the reference material should be administered to subjects in the fasting or nonfasting state, depending upon the conditions reflected in the proposed labeling of the test product. 
</P>
<P>(3) A multiple-dose study may be required to determine the bioavailability of a drug product in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) There is a difference in the rate of absorption but not in the extent of absorption. 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is excessive variability in bioavailability from subject to subject. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The concentration of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its metabolite(s), in the blood resulting from a single dose is too low for accurate determination by the analytical method. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The drug product is an extended release dosage form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Study design.</I> (1) A multiple-dose study should be crossover in design, unless a parallel design or other design is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons, and should provide for a drug elimination period if steady-state conditions are not achieved. 
</P>
<P>(2) A multiple-dose study is not required to be of crossover design if the study is to establish dose proportionality under a multiple-dose regimen or to establish the pharmacokinetic profile of a new drug product, a new drug delivery system, or an extended release dosage form. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a drug elimination period is required, unless some other approach is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons, the drug elimination period should be either: 
</P>
<P>(i) At least five times the half-life of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its active metabolite(s), measured in the blood or urine; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) At least five times the half-life of decay of the acute pharmacological effect. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Achievement of steady-state conditions.</I> Whenever a multiple-dose study is conducted, unless some other approach is more appropriate for valid scientific reasons, sufficient doses of the test product and reference material should be administered in accordance with the labeling to achieve steady-state conditions. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Collection of blood or urine samples.</I> (1) Whenever comparison of the test product and the reference material is to be based on blood concentration-time curves at steady state, appropriate dosage administration and sampling should be carried out to document attainment of steady state.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever comparison of the test product and the reference material is to be based on cumulative urinary excretion-time curves at steady state, appropriate dosage administration and sampling should be carried out to document attainment of steady state.
</P>
<P>(3) A more complete characterization of the blood concentration or urinary excretion rate during the absorption and elimination phases of a single dose administered at steady-state is encouraged to permit estimation of the total area under concentration-time curves or cumulative urinary excretion-time curves and to obtain pharmacokinetic information, e.g., half-life or blood clearance, that is essential in preparing adequate labeling for the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Steady-state parameters.</I> (1) In certain instances, e.g., in a study involving a new drug entity, blood clearances at steady-state obtained in a multiple-dose study should be compared to blood clearances obtained in a single-dose study to support adequate dosage recommendations. 
</P>
<P>(2) In a linear system, the area under the blood concentration-time curve during a dosing interval in a multiple-dose steady-state study is directly proportional to the fraction of the dose absorbed and is equal to the corresponding “zero to infinity” area under the curve for a single-dose study. Therefore, when steady-state conditions are achieved, a comparison of blood concentrations during a dosing interval may be used to define the fraction of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety absorbed. 
</P>
<P>(3) Other methods based on valid scientific reasons should be used to determine the bioavailability of a drug product having dose-dependent kinetics (non-linear system). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Measurement of an acute pharmacological effect.</I> When comparison of the test product and the reference material is to be based on acute pharmacological effect-time curves, measurements of this effect should be made with sufficient frequency to demonstrate a maximum effect and a lack of significant difference between the test product and the reference material. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1648, Jan. 7, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 77674, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.28" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.28   Correlation of bioavailability with an acute pharmacological effect or clinical evidence.</HEAD>
<P>Correlation of in vivo bioavailability data with an acute pharmacological effect or clinical evidence of safety and effectiveness may be required if needed to establish the clinical significance of a special claim, e.g., in the case of an extended release preparation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1648, Jan. 7, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 77674, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.29" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.29   Analytical methods for an in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence study.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The analytical method used in an in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence study to measure the concentration of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its active metabolite(s), in body fluids or excretory products, or the method used to measure an acute pharmacological effect shall be demonstrated to be accurate and of sufficient sensitivity to measure, with appropriate precision, the actual concentration of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its active metabolite(s), achieved in the body.
</P>
<P>(b) When the analytical method is not sensitive enough to measure accurately the concentration of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety, or its active metabolite(s), in body fluids or excretory products produced by a single dose of the test product, two or more single doses may be given together to produce higher concentration if the requirements of § 320.31 are met. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1648, Jan. 7, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 77674, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.30" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.30   Inquiries regarding bioavailability and bioequivalence requirements and review of protocols by the Food and Drug Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs strongly recommends that, to avoid the conduct of an improper study and unnecessary human research, any person planning to conduct a bioavailability or bioequivalence study submit the proposed protocol for the study to FDA for review prior to the initiation of the study. 
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may review a proposed protocol for a bioavailability or bioequivalence study and will offer advice with respect to whether the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The design of the proposed bioavailability or bioequivalence study is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) The reference material to be used in the bioavailability or bioequivalence study is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed chemical and statistical analytical methods are adequate. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) General inquiries relating to in vivo bioavailability requirements and methodology shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Office of Clinical Pharmacology, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(2) General inquiries relating to bioequivalence requirements and methodology shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Division of Bioequivalence (HFD-650), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855-2773. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 18000, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 77674, Dec. 19, 2002; 74 FR 13114, Mar. 26, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.31" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.31   Applicability of requirements regarding an “Investigational New Drug Application.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person planning to conduct an in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence study in humans shall submit an “Investigational New Drug Application” (IND) if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The test product contains a new chemical entity as defined in § 314.108(a) of this chapter; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The study involves a radioactively labeled drug product; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The study involves a cytotoxic drug product. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person planning to conduct a bioavailability or bioequivalence study in humans using a drug product that contains an already approved, non-new chemical entity shall submit an IND if the study is one of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A single-dose study in normal subjects or patients where either the maximum single or total daily dose exceeds that specified in the labeling of the drug product that is the subject of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application. 
</P>
<P>(2) A multiple-dose study in normal subjects or patients where either the single or total daily dose exceeds that specified in the labeling of the drug product that is the subject of an approved new drug application or abbreviated new drug application. 
</P>
<P>(3) A multiple-dose study on an extended release product on which no single-dose study has been completed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of parts 50, 56, and 312 of this chapter are applicable to any bioavailability or bioequivalence study in humans conducted under an IND.
</P>
<P>(d) A bioavailability or bioequivalence study in humans other than one described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section is exempt from the requirements of part 312 of this chapter if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) If the study is one described under § 320.38(b) or § 320.63, the person conducting the study, including any contract research organization, must retain reserve samples of any test article and reference standard used in the study and release the reserve samples to FDA upon request, in accordance with, and for the period specified in, § 320.38; 
</P>
<P>(2) An in vivo bioavailability or bioequivalence study in humans must be conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, and informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) The person conducting the study, including any contract research organization, must notify FDA and all participating investigators of any serious adverse event, as defined in § 312.32(a), observed during the conduct of the study as soon as possible but in no case later than 15 calendar days after becoming aware of its occurrence. Each report must be submitted on FDA Form 3500A or in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will periodically issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files). Each report must bear prominent identification of its contents, i.e., “bioavailability/bioequivalence safety report.” The person conducting the study, including any contract research organization, must also notify FDA of any fatal or life-threatening adverse event from the study as soon as possible but in no case later than 7 calendar days after becoming aware of its occurrence. Each notification under this paragraph must be submitted to the Director, Office of Generic Drugs in the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research at FDA. Relevant followup information to a bioavailability/bioequivalence safety report must be submitted as soon as the information is available and must be identified as such, i.e., “Followup bioavailability/bioequivalence safety report.” Upon request from FDA, the person conducting the study, including any contract research organization, must submit to FDA any additional data or information that the agency deems necessary, as soon as possible, but in no case later than 15 calendar days after receiving the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 18000, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 25927, Apr. 28, 1993; 67 FR 77674, Dec. 19, 2002; 75 FR 59963, Sept. 29, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.32" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.32   Procedures for establishing or amending a bioequivalence requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration, on its own initiative or in response to a petition by an interested person, may propose and promulgate a regulation to establish a bioequivalence requirement for a product not subject to section 505(j) of the act if it finds there is well-documented evidence that specific pharmaceutical equivalents or pharmaceutical alternatives intended to be used interchangeably for the same therapeutic effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Are not bioequivalent drug products; or 
</P>
<P>(2) May not be bioequivalent drug products based on the criteria set forth in § 320.33; or 
</P>
<P>(3) May not be bioequivalent drug products because they are members of a class of drug products that have close structural similarity and similar physicochemical or pharmacokinetic properties to other drug products in the same class that FDA finds are not bioequivalent drug products.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA shall include in a proposed rule to establish a bioequivalence requirement the evidence and criteria set forth in § 320.33 that are to be considered in determining whether to issue the proposal. If the rulemaking is proposed in response to a petition, FDA shall include in the proposal a summary and analysis of the relevant information that was submitted in the petition as well as other available information to support the establishment of a bioequivalence requirement. 
</P>
<P>(c) FDA, on its own initiative or in response to a petition by an interested person, may propose and promulgate an amendment to a bioequivalence requirement established under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 18000, Apr. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.33" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.33   Criteria and evidence to assess actual or potential bioequivalence problems.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs shall consider the following factors, when supported by well-documented evidence, to identify specific pharmaceutical equivalents and pharmaceutical alternatives that are not or may not be bioequivalent drug products.
</P>
<P>(a) Evidence from well-controlled clinical trials or controlled observations in patients that such drug products do not give comparable therapeutic effects. 
</P>
<P>(b) Evidence from well-controlled bioequivalence studies that such products are not bioequivalent drug products. 
</P>
<P>(c) Evidence that the drug products exhibit a narrow therapeutic ratio, e.g., there is less than a 2-fold difference in median lethal dose (LD<E T="52">50</E>) and median effective dose (ED<E T="52">50</E>) values, or have less than a 2-fold difference in the minimum toxic concentrations and minimum effective concentrations in the blood, and safe and effective use of the drug products requires careful dosage titration and patient monitoring. 
</P>
<P>(d) Competent medical determination that a lack of bioequivalence would have a serious adverse effect in the treatment or prevention of a serious disease or condition. 
</P>
<P>(e) Physicochemical evidence that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The active drug ingredient has a low solubility in water, e.g., less than 5 milligrams per 1 milliliter, or, if dissolution in the stomach is critical to absorption, the volume of gastric fluids required to dissolve the recommended dose far exceeds the volume of fluids present in the stomach (taken to be 100 milliliters for adults and prorated for infants and children). 
</P>
<P>(2) The dissolution rate of one or more such products is slow, e.g., less than 50 percent in 30 minutes when tested using either a general method specified in an official compendium or a paddle method at 50 revolutions per minute in 900 milliliters of distilled or deionized water at 37 °C, or differs significantly from that of an appropriate reference material such as an identical drug product that is the subject of an approved full new drug application. 
</P>
<P>(3) The particle size and/or surface area of the active drug ingredient is critical in determining its bioavailability. 
</P>
<P>(4) Certain physical structural characteristics of the active drug ingredient, e.g., polymorphic forms, conforms, solvates, complexes, and crystal modifications, dissolve poorly and this poor dissolution may affect absorption. 
</P>
<P>(5) Such drug products have a high ratio of excipients to active ingredients, e.g., greater than 5 to 1. 
</P>
<P>(6) Specific inactive ingredients, e.g., hydrophilic or hydrophobic excipients and lubricants, either may be required for absorption of the active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety or, alternatively, if present, may interfere with such absorption. 
</P>
<P>(f) Pharmacokinetic evidence that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The active drug ingredient, therapeutic moiety, or its precursor is absorbed in large part in a particular segment of the gastrointestinal tract or is absorbed from a localized site. 
</P>
<P>(2) The degree of absorption of the active drug ingredient, therapeutic moiety, or its precursor is poor, e.g., less than 50 percent, ordinarily in comparison to an intravenous dose, even when it is administered in pure form, e.g., in solution. 
</P>
<P>(3) There is rapid metabolism of the therapeutic moiety in the intestinal wall or liver during the process of absorption (first-pass metabolism)  so the therapeutic effect and/or toxicity of such drug product is determined by the rate as well as the degree of absorption. 
</P>
<P>(4) The therapeutic moiety is rapidly metabolized or excreted so that rapid dissolution and absorption are required for effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(5) The active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety is unstable in specific portions of the gastrointestinal tract and requires special coatings or formulations, e.g., buffers, enteric coatings, and film coatings, to assure adequate absorption. 
</P>
<P>(6) The drug product is subject to dose dependent kinetics in or near the therapeutic range, and the rate and extent of absorption are important to bioequivalence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1635, Jan. 7, 1977. Redesignated and amended at 57 FR 18001, Apr. 28, 1992; 81 FR 17066, Mar. 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.34" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.34   Requirements for batch testing and certification by the Food and Drug Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Commissioner determines that individual batch testing by the Food and Drug Administration is necessary to assure that all batches of the same drug product meet an appropriate in vitro test, he shall include in the bioequivalence requirement a requirement for manufacturers to submit samples of each batch to the Food and Drug Administration and to withhold distribution of the batch until notified by the Food and Drug Administration that the batch may be introduced into interstate commerce. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner will ordinarily terminate a requirement for a manufacturer to submit samples for batch testing on a finding that the manufacturer has produced four consecutive batches that were tested by the Food and Drug Administration and found to meet the bioequivalence requirement, unless the public health requires that batch testing be extended to additional batches.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1635, Jan. 7, 1977. Redesignated at 57 FR 18001, Apr. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.35" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.35   Requirements for in vitro testing of each batch.</HEAD>
<P>If a bioequivalence requirement specifies a currently available in vitro test or an in vitro bioequivalence standard comparing the drug product to a reference standard, the manufacturer shall conduct the test on a sample of each batch of the drug product to assure batch-to-batch uniformity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1635, Jan. 7, 1977. Redesignated at 57 FR 18001, Apr. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.36" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.36   Requirements for maintenance of records of bioequivalence testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All records of in vivo or in vitro tests conducted on any marketed batch of a drug product to assure that the product meets a bioequivalence requirement shall be maintained by the manufacturer for at least 2 years after the expiration date of the batch and submitted to the Food and Drug Administration on request.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who contracts with another party to conduct a bioequivalence study from which the data are intended to be submitted to FDA as part of an application submitted under part 314 of this chapter shall obtain from the person conducting the study sufficient accurate financial information to allow the submission of complete and accurate financial certifications or disclosure statements required under part 54 of this chapter and shall maintain that information and all records relating to the compensation given for that study and all other financial interest information required under part 54 of this chapter for 2 years after the date of approval of the application. The person maintaining these records shall, upon request for any properly authorized officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration, at reasonable time, permit such officer or employee to have access to and copy and verify these records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1635, Jan. 7, 1977. Redesignated at 57 FR 18001, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 5252, Feb. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.38" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.38   Retention of bioavailability samples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant of an application or supplemental application submitted under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or, if bioavailability testing was performed under contract, the contract research organization shall retain an appropriately identified reserve sample of the drug product for which the applicant is seeking approval (test article) and of the reference standard used to perform an in vivo bioavailability study in accordance with and for the studies described in paragraph (b) of this section that is representative of each sample of the test article and reference standard provided by the applicant for the testing.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserve samples shall be retained for the following test articles and reference standards and for the studies described:
</P>
<P>(1) If the formulation of the test article is the same as the formulation(s) used in the clinical studies demonstrating substantial evidence of safety and effectiveness for the test article's claimed indications, a reserve sample of the test article used to conduct an in vivo bioavailability study comparing the test article to a reference oral solution, suspension, or injection.
</P>
<P>(2) If the formulation of the test article differs from the formulation(s) used in the clinical studies demonstrating substantial evidence of safety and effectiveness for the test article's claimed indications, a reserve sample of the test article and of the reference standard used to conduct an in vivo bioequivalence study comparing the test article to the formulation(s) (reference standard) used in the clinical studies.
</P>
<P>(3) For a new formulation, new dosage form, or a new salt or ester of an active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety that has been approved for marketing, a reserve sample of the test article and of the reference standard used to conduct an in vivo bioequivalence study comparing the test article to a marketed product (reference standard) that contains the same active drug ingredient or therapeutic moiety.
</P>
<P>(c) Each reserve sample shall consist of a sufficient quantity to permit FDA to perform five times all of the release tests required in the application or supplemental application.
</P>
<P>(d) Each reserve sample shall be adequately identified so that the reserve sample can be positively identified as having come from the same sample as used in the specific bioavailability study.
</P>
<P>(e) Each reserve sample shall be stored under conditions consistent with product labeling and in an area segregated from the area where testing is conducted and with access limited to authorized personnel. Each reserve sample shall be retained for a period of at least 5 years following the date on which the application or supplemental application is approved, or, if such application or supplemental application is not approved, at least 5 years following the date of completion of the bioavailability study in which the sample from which the reserve sample was obtained was used.
</P>
<P>(f) Authorized FDA personnel will ordinarily collect reserve samples directly from the applicant or contract research organization at the storage site during a preapproval inspection. If authorized FDA personnel are unable to collect samples, FDA may require the applicant or contract research organization to submit the reserve samples to the place identified in the agency's request. If FDA has not collected or requested delivery of a reserve sample, or if FDA has not collected or requested delivery of any portion of a reserve sample, the applicant or contract research organization shall retain the sample or remaining sample for the 5-year period specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Upon release of the reserve samples to FDA, the applicant or contract research organization shall provide a written assurance that, to the best knowledge and belief of the individual executing the assurance, the reserve samples came from the same samples as used in the specific bioavailability or bioequivalence study identified by the agency. The assurance shall be executed by an individual authorized to act for the applicant or contract research organization in releasing the reserve samples to FDA.
</P>
<P>(h) A contract research organization may contract with an appropriate, independent third party to provide storage of reserve samples provided that the sponsor of the study has been notified in writing of the name and address of the facility at which the reserve samples will be stored.
</P>
<P>(i) If a contract research organization conducting a bioavailability or bioequivalence study that requires reserve sample retention under this section or § 320.63 goes out of business, it shall transfer its reserve samples to an appropriate, independent third party, and shall notify in writing the sponsor of the study of the transfer and provide the study sponsor with the name and address of the facility to which the reserve samples have been transferred.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 25927, Apr. 28, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 320.63" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.8.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 320.63   Retention of bioequivalence samples.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant of an abbreviated application or a supplemental application submitted under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or, if bioequivalence testing was performed under contract, the contract research organization shall retain reserve samples of any test article and reference standard used in conducting an in vivo or in vitro bioequivalence study required for approval of the abbreviated application or supplemental application. The applicant or contract research organization shall retain the reserve samples in accordance with, and for the period specified in, § 320.38 and shall release the reserve samples to FDA upon request in accordance with § 320.38.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 25928, Apr. 28, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 402, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="328" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 328—OVER-THE-COUNTER DRUG PRODUCTS INTENDED FOR ORAL INGESTION THAT CONTAIN ALCOHOL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 371.












</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 13595, Mar. 13, 1995, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 328 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Reference in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Alcohol</I> means the substance known as ethanol, ethyl alcohol, or Alcohol, USP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inactive ingredient</I> means any component of a product other than an active ingredient as defined in § 210.3(b)(7) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.10   Alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any over-the-counter (OTC) drug product intended for oral ingestion shall not contain alcohol as an inactive ingredient in concentrations that exceed those established in this part, unless a specific exemption, as provided in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, has been approved.
</P>
<P>(b) For any OTC drug product intended for oral ingestion and labeled for use by adults and children 12 years of age and over, the amount of alcohol in the product shall not exceed 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) For any OTC drug product intended for oral ingestion and labeled for use by children 6 to under 12 years of age, the amount of alcohol in the product shall not exceed 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) For any OTC drug product intended for oral ingestion and labeled for use by children under 6 years of age, the amount of alcohol in the product shall not exceed 0.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) The Food and Drug Administration will grant an exemption from paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section where appropriate, upon petition under the provisions of § 10.30 of this chapter. Appropriate cause, such as a specific solubility or manufacturing problem, must be adequately documented in the petition. Decisions with respect to requests for exemption shall be maintained in a permanent file for public review by the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(f) Ipecac syrup is exempt from the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The following drugs are temporarily exempt from the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Aromatic Cascara Fluidextract.
</P>
<P>(2) Cascara Sagrada Fluidextract.
</P>
<P>(3) Orally ingested homeopathic drug products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 13595, Mar. 13, 1995, as amended at 61 FR 58630, Nov. 18, 1996; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.50   Principal display panel of all OTC drug products intended for oral ingestion that contain alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount (percentage) of alcohol present in a product shall be stated in terms of percent volume of absolute alcohol at 60 °F (15.56 °C) in accordance with § 201.10(d)(2) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) A statement expressing the amount (percentage) of alcohol present in a product shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the “principal display panel,” as defined in § 201.60 of this chapter. For products whose principal display panel is on the immediate container label and that are not marketed in another retail package (e.g., an outer box), the statement of the percentage of alcohol present in the product shall appear prominently and conspicuously on the “principal display panel” of the immediate container label. 
</P>
<P>(c) For products whose principal display panel is on the retail package and the retail package is not the immediate container, the statement of the percentage of alcohol present in the product shall also appear on the immediate container label; it may appear anywhere on that label in accord with section 502(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) The statement expressing the amount (percentage) of alcohol present in the product shall be in a size reasonably related to the most prominent printed matter on the panel or label on which it appears, and shall be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed.
</P>
<P>(e) For a product to state in its labeling that it is “alcohol free,” it must contain no alcohol (0 percent). 
</P>
<P>(f) For any OTC drug product intended for oral ingestion containing over 5 percent alcohol and labeled for use by adults and children 12 years of age and over, the labeling shall contain the following statement in the directions section: “Consult a physician for use in children under 12 years of age.”
</P>
<P>(g) For any OTC drug product intended for oral ingestion containing over 0.5 percent alcohol and labeled for use by children ages 6 to under 12 years of age, the labeling shall contain the following statement in the directions section: “Consult a physician for use in children under 6 years of age.”
</P>
<P>(h) When the direction regarding age in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section differs from an age-limiting direction contained in any OTC drug monograph in this chapter, the direction containing the more stringent age limitation shall be used.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="329" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 329—NONPRESCRIPTION HUMAN DRUG PRODUCTS SUBJECT TO SECTION 760 OF THE FEDERAL FOOD, DRUG, AND COSMETIC ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 371, 379aa.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 33089, June 10, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 329.100" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.100   Postmarketing reporting of adverse drug events under section 760 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> Reports of serious adverse events required by section 760 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act) must include the information specified in this section, as applicable. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, these reports must be submitted to the Agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of reports.</I> For purposes of reporting serious adverse events under section 760 of the FD&amp;C Act, an individual case safety report (ICSR) constitutes the MedWatch form required to be submitted by section 760(d) of the FD&amp;C Act. ICSRs include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Patient information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Patient identification code;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient age at the time of adverse drug experience, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse event.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Outcome attributed to adverse drug event;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of adverse drug event;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of ICSR submission;
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of adverse drug event (including a concise medical narrative);
</P>
<P>(v) Adverse drug event term(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspect medical product(s).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dose, frequency, and route of administration used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Therapy dates;
</P>
<P>(iv) Diagnosis for use (indication);
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the product is a combination product as defined in § 3.2(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the product is a prescription or nonprescription product;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether adverse drug event abated after drug use stopped or dose reduced;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether adverse drug event reappeared after reintroduction of drug;
</P>
<P>(ix) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(x) Expiration date;
</P>
<P>(xi) National Drug Code (NDC) number; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Initial reporter information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the initial reporter is a health care professional; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Occupation, if a health care professional.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Responsible person (as defined in section 760(b) of the FD&amp;C Act) information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name and contact office address;
</P>
<P>(ii) Telephone number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report source, such as spontaneous;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date the report was received by responsible person;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the ICSR is a 15-day report;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the ICSR is an initial report or followup report; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent followup report(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic format for submissions.</I> (1) Each report required to be submitted to FDA under section 760 of the FD&amp;C Act, accompanied by a copy of the label on or within the retail package of the drug and any other documentation (as ICSR attachments), must be in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation, and organization of files).
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible person may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. These waivers will be granted on a limited basis for good cause shown. FDA will issue guidance on requesting a waiver of the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Patient privacy.</I> The responsible person should not include in reports under this section the names and addresses of individual patients; instead, the responsible person should assign a unique code for identification of the patient. The responsible person should include the name of the reporter from whom the information was received as part of the initial reporter information, even when the reporter is the patient. The names of patients, health care professionals, hospitals, and geographical identifiers in adverse drug event reports are not releasable to the public under FDA's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="330" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 330—OVER-THE-COUNTER (OTC) HUMAN DRUGS WHICH ARE GENERALLY RECOGNIZED AS SAFE AND EFFECTIVE AND NOT MISBRANDED 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360fff-6, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 11741, Mar. 29, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 330 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.1   General conditions for general recognition as safe, effective and not misbranded.</HEAD>
<P>An over-the-counter (OTC) drug listed in this subchapter is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions contained in this part and each of the conditions contained in any applicable monograph. Any product which fails to conform to each of the conditions contained in this part and in an applicable monograph is liable to regulatory action. 
</P>
<P>(a) The product is manufactured in compliance with current good manufacturing practices, as established by parts 210 and 211 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The establishment(s) in which the drug product is manufactured is registered, and the drug product is listed, in compliance with part 207 of this chapter. It is requested but not required that the number assigned to the product pursuant to part 207 of this chapter appear on all drug labels and in all drug labeling. If this number is used, it shall be placed in the manner set forth in part 207 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The product is labeled in compliance with chapter V of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and subchapter C <I>et seq.</I> of this chapter, including the format and content requirements in § 201.66 of this chapter. An OTC drug product that is not in compliance with chapter V and subchapter C, including § 201.66 of this chapter, is subject to regulatory action. For purposes of § 201.61(b) of this chapter, the statement of identity of the product shall be the term or phrase used in the applicable OTC drug monograph established in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The “Uses” section of the label and labeling of the product shall contain the labeling describing the “Indications” that have been established in an applicable OTC drug monograph or alternative truthful and nonmisleading statements describing only those indications for use that have been established in an applicable monograph, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. Any other labeling under this subchapter and subchapter C <I>et seq.</I> of this chapter shall be stated in the exact language where exact language has been established and identified by quotation marks in an applicable OTC drug monograph or by regulation (e.g., § 201.63 of this chapter), except as provided in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The advertising for the product prescribes, recommends, or suggests its use only under the conditions stated in the labeling. 
</P>
<P>(e) The product contains only suitable inactive ingredients which are safe in the amounts administered and do not interfere with the effectiveness of the preparation or with suitable tests or assays to determine if the product meets its professed standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. Color additives may be used only in accordance with section 721 of the act and subchapter A of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) The product container and container components meet the requirements of § 211.94 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(g) The labeling for all drugs contains the general warning: “Keep out of reach of children.” [highlighted in bold type]. The labeling of drugs shall also state as follows: For drugs used by oral administration, “In case of overdose, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away”; for drugs used topically, rectally, or vaginally and not intended for oral ingestion, “If swallowed, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away”; and for drugs used topically and intended for oral use, “If more than used for” (insert intended use, e.g., pain) “is accidentally swallowed, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away.” The Food and Drug Administration will grant an exemption from these general warnings where appropriate upon petition, which shall be maintained in a permanent file for public review by the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(h) Where no maximum daily dosage limit for an active ingredient is established in this part, it is used in a product at a level that does not exceed the amount reasonably required to achieve its intended effect. 
</P>
<P>(i) The following terms may be used interchangeably in the labeling of OTC drug products, provided such use does not alter the meaning of the labeling that has been established and identified in an applicable monograph or by regulation. The following terms shall not be used to change in any way the title, headings, and subheadings required under § 201.66(c)(1) through (c)(9) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) “Abdominal” or “stomach” (in context only).
</P>
<P>(2) “Administer” or “give”.
</P>
<P>(3) “Aggravate(s)” or “make(s) worse”.
</P>
<P>(4) “Application of this product” or “applying”.
</P>
<P>(5) “Are uncertain” or “do not know”.
</P>
<P>(6) “Ask” or “consult” or “contact”.
</P>
<P>(7) “Asking” or “consulting”.
</P>
<P>(8) “Assistance” or “help” or “aid”.
</P>
<P>(9) “Associated with” or “due to” or “caused by”.
</P>
<P>(10) “Avoid contact with eyes” or “do not get into eyes”.
</P>
<P>(11) “Avoid inhaling” or “do not inhale”.
</P>
<P>(12) “Before a doctor is consulted” or “without first consulting your doctor” or “consult your doctor before”.
</P>
<P>(13) “Beverages” or “drinks”.
</P>
<P>(14) “Clean” or “cleanse”.
</P>
<P>(15) “Consulting” or “advising”.
</P>
<P>(16) “Continue(s)” or “persist(s)” or “is persistent” or “do(es) not go away” or “last(s)”.
</P>
<P>(17) “Daily” or “every day”.
</P>
<P>(18) “Develop(s)” or “begin(s)” or “occur(s)”.
</P>
<P>(19) “Difficulty” or “trouble”.
</P>
<P>(20) “Difficulty in urination” or “trouble urinating”.
</P>
<P>(21) “Discard” or “throw away”.
</P>
<P>(22) “Discontinue” or “stop” or “quit”.
</P>
<P>(23) “Doctor” or “physician”.
</P>
<P>(24) “Drowsiness” or “the drowsiness effect”.
</P>
<P>(25) “Drowsiness may occur” or “you may get drowsy”.
</P>
<P>(26) “Enlargement of the” or “an enlarged”.
</P>
<P>(27) “Especially in children” or especially children”.
</P>
<P>(28) “Exceed” or “use more than” or “go beyond”.
</P>
<P>(29) “Exceed recommended dosage” or “use more than directed”.
</P>
<P>(30) “Excessive” or “too much”.
</P>
<P>(31) “Excitability may occur” or “you may get excited”.
</P>
<P>(32) “Experience” or “feel”.
</P>
<P>(33) “For relief of” or “relieves”.
</P>
<P>(34) “For temporary reduction of” or “temporarily reduces”.
</P>
<P>(35) “For the temporary relief of” or “temporarily relieves”.
</P>
<P>(36) “For the treatment of” or “treats”.
</P>
<P>(37) “Frequently” or “often”.
</P>
<P>(38) “Give to” or “use in”.
</P>
<P>(39) “Immediately” or “right away” or “directly”.
</P>
<P>(40) “Immediately” or “as soon as”.
</P>
<P>(41) “Immediately following” or “right after”.
</P>
<P>(42) “Improve(s)” or “get(s) better” or “make(s) better”.
</P>
<P>(43) “Increased” or “more”.
</P>
<P>(44) “Increase your risk of” or “cause”.
</P>
<P>(45) “Indication(s)” or “Use(s)”.
</P>
<P>(46) “Inhalation” or “puff”.
</P>
<P>(47) “In persons who” or “if you” or “if the child”.
</P>
<P>(48) “Instill” or “put”.
</P>
<P>(49) “Is (are) accompanied by” or “you also have” (in context only) or “(optional: that) occur(s) with”.
</P>
<P>(50) “Longer” or “more”.
</P>
<P>(51) “Lung” or “pulmonary”.
</P>
<P>(52) “Medication(s)” or “medicine(s)” or “drug(s)”.
</P>
<P>(53) “Nervousness, dizziness, or sleeplessness occurs” or “you get nervous, dizzy, or sleepless”.
</P>
<P>(54) “Not to exceed” or “do not exceed” or “not more than”.
</P>
<P>(55) “Obtain(s)” or “get(s)”.
</P>
<P>(56) “Passages” or “passageways” or “tubes”.
</P>
<P>(57) “Perforation of” or “hole in”.
</P>
<P>(58) “Persistent” or “that does not go away” or “that continues” or “that lasts”.
</P>
<P>(59) “Per day” or “daily”.
</P>
<P>(60) “Presently” or “now”.
</P>
<P>(61) “Produce(s)” or “cause(s)”.
</P>
<P>(62) “Prompt(ly)” or “quick(ly)” or “right away”.
</P>
<P>(63) “Reduce” or “minimize”.
</P>
<P>(64) “Referred to as” or “of”.
</P>
<P>(65) “Sensation” or “feeling”.
</P>
<P>(66) “Solution” or “liquid”.
</P>
<P>(67) “Specifically” or “definitely”.
</P>
<P>(68) “Take” or “use” or “give”.
</P>
<P>(69) “Tend(s) to recur” or “reoccur(s)” or “return(s)” or “come(s) back”.
</P>
<P>(70) “To avoid contamination” or “avoid contamination” or “do not contaminate”.
</P>
<P>(71) “To help” or “helps”.
</P>
<P>(72) “Unless directed by a doctor” or “except under the advice of a doctor” or “unless told to do so by a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(73) “Use caution” or “be careful”.
</P>
<P>(74) “Usually” or “generally” (in context only).
</P>
<P>(75) “You” (“Your”) or “the child” (“the child's”).
</P>
<P>(76) “You also have” or “occurs with”.
</P>
<P>(77) “When practical” or “if possible”.
</P>
<P>(78) “Whether” or “if”.
</P>
<P>(79) “Worsen(s)” or “get(s) worse” or “make(s) worse”.
</P>
<P>(j) The following connecting terms may be deleted from the labeling of OTC drug products, provided such deletion does not alter the meaning of the labeling that has been established and identified in an applicable monograph or by regulation. The following terms shall not be used to change in any way the specific title, headings, and subheadings required under § 201.66(c)(1) through (c)(9) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) “And”.
</P>
<P>(2) “As may occur with”.
</P>
<P>(3) “Associated” or “to be associated”.
</P>
<P>(4) “Consult a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(5) “Discontinue use”.
</P>
<P>(6) “Drug Interaction Precaution”.
</P>
<P>(7) “Due to”.
</P>
<P>(8) “Except under the advice and supervision of a physician”.
</P>
<P>(9) “If this occurs”.
</P>
<P>(10) “In case of”.
</P>
<P>(11) “Notice”.
</P>
<P>(12) “Or”.
</P>
<P>(13) “Occurring with”.
</P>
<P>(14) “Or as directed by a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(15) “Such as”.
</P>
<P>(16) “Such as occurs with”.
</P>
<P>(17) “Tends to”.
</P>
<P>(18) “This product”.
</P>
<P>(19) “Unless directed by a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(20) “While taking this product” or “before taking this product”.
</P>
<P>(21) “Within”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11741, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 11718, Mar. 13, 1975; 40 FR 13496, Mar. 27, 1975; 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 46 FR 8459, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 8996, Mar. 6, 1985; 51 FR 16266, May 1, 1986; 55 FR 11581, Mar. 29, 1990; 59 FR 4000, Jan. 28, 1994; 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 64 FR 13294, Mar. 17, 1999; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.2" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.2   Pregnancy-nursing warning.</HEAD>
<P>A pregnancy-nursing warning for OTC drugs is set forth under § 201.63 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 54758, Dec. 3, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.3   Imprinting of solid oral dosage form drug products.</HEAD>
<P>A requirement to imprint an identification code on solid oral dosage form drug products is set forth under part 206 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 47959, Sept. 13, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.5" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.5   Drug categories.</HEAD>
<P>Monographs promulgated pursuant to the provisions of this part shall be established in this part 330 and following parts and shall cover the following designated categories: 
</P>
<P>(a) Antacids. 
</P>
<P>(b) Laxatives. 
</P>
<P>(c) Antidiarrheal products. 
</P>
<P>(d) Emetics. 
</P>
<P>(e) Antiemetics. 
</P>
<P>(f) Antiperspirants. 
</P>
<P>(g) Sunburn prevention and treatment products. 
</P>
<P>(h) Vitamin-mineral products. 
</P>
<P>(i) Antimicrobial products. 
</P>
<P>(j) Dandruff products. 
</P>
<P>(k) Oral hygiene aids. 
</P>
<P>(l) Hemorrhoidal products. 
</P>
<P>(m) Hematinics. 
</P>
<P>(n) Bronchodilator and antiasthmatic products. 
</P>
<P>(o) Analgesics. 
</P>
<P>(p) Sedatives and sleep aids. 
</P>
<P>(q) Stimulants. 
</P>
<P>(r) Antitussives. 
</P>
<P>(s) Allergy treatment products. 
</P>
<P>(t) Cold remedies. 
</P>
<P>(u) Antirheumatic products. 
</P>
<P>(v) Ophthalmic products. 
</P>
<P>(w) Contraceptive products. 
</P>
<P>(x) Miscellaneous dermatologic products. 
</P>
<P>(y) Dentifrices and dental products such as analgesics, antiseptics, etc. 
</P>
<P>(z) Miscellaneous (all other OTC drugs not falling within one of the above therapeutic categories). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.10   Procedures for classifying OTC drugs as generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded, and for establishing monographs.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of classifying over-the-counter (OTC) drugs as drugs generally recognized among qualified experts as safe and effective for use and as not misbranded drugs, the following regulations shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure for establishing OTC drug monographs</I>—(1) <I>Advisory review panels.</I> The Commissioner shall appoint advisory review panels of qualified experts to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of OTC drugs, to review OTC drug labeling, and to advise him on the promulgation of monographs establishing conditions under which OTC drugs are generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded. A single advisory review panel shall be established for each designated category of OTC drugs and every OTC drug category will be considered by a panel. The members of a panel shall be qualified experts (appointed by the Commissioner) and may include persons from lists submitted by organizations representing professional, consumer, and industry interests. The Commissioner shall designate the chairman of each panel. Summary minutes of all meetings shall be made. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for data and views.</I> The Commissioner will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> requesting interested persons to submit, for review and evaluation by an advisory review panel, published and unpublished data and information pertinent to a designated category of OTC drugs. Data and information submitted pursuant to a published notice, and falling within the confidentiality provisions of 18 U.S.C. 1905, 5 U.S.C. 552(b), or 21 U.S.C. 331(j), shall be handled by the advisory review panel and the Food and Drug Administration as confidential until publication of a proposed monograph and the full report(s) of the panel or until the Commissioner places the panel's recommendations on public display at the office of the Dockets Management Staff. Thirty days thereafter such data and information shall be made publicly available and may be viewed at the office of the Dockets Management Staff of the Food and Drug Administration, except to the extent that the person submitting it demonstrates that it still falls within the confidentiality provisions of one or more of those statutes. To be considered, eight copies of the data and/or views on any marketed drug within the class must be submitted, preferably bound, indexed, and on standard sized paper (approximately 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inches). When requested, abbreviated submissions should be sent. All submissions must be in the following format: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>OTC Drug Review Information
</HD1>
<P>I. Label(s) and all labeling (preferably mounted and filed with the other data—facsimile labeling is acceptable in lieu of actual container labeling). 
</P>
<P>II. A statement setting forth the quantities of active ingredients of the drug. 
</P>
<P>III. Animal safety data. 
</P>
<P>A. Individual active components. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>B. Combinations of the individual active components. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>C. Finished drug product. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>IV. Human safety data. 
</P>
<P>A. Individual active components. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>3. Documented case reports. Identify expected or frequently reported side effects.
</P>
<P>4. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination as to the safety of each individual active component. 
</P>
<P>5. Pertinent medical and scientific literature. 
</P>
<P>B. Combinations of the individual active components. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>3. Documented case reports. Identify expected or frequently reported side effects.
</P>
<P>4. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination as to the safety of combinations of the individual active components. 
</P>
<P>5. Pertinent medical and scientific literature. 
</P>
<P>C. Finished drug product. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>3. Documented case reports. Identify expected or frequently reported side effects.
</P>
<P>4. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination as to the safety of the finished drug product. 
</P>
<P>5. Pertinent medical and scientific literature. 
</P>
<P>V. Efficacy data. 
</P>
<P>A. Individual active components. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>3. Documented case reports. Identify expected or frequently reported side effects.
</P>
<P>4. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination on the efficacy of each individual active component. 
</P>
<P>5. Pertinent medical and scientific literature. 
</P>
<P>B. Combinations of the individual active components. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>3. Documented case reports. Identify expected or frequently reported side effects.
</P>
<P>4. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination on the efficacy of combinations of the individual active components. 
</P>
<P>5. Pertinent medical and scientific literature. 
</P>
<P>C. Finished drug product. 
</P>
<P>1. Controlled studies. 
</P>
<P>2. Partially controlled or uncontrolled studies. 
</P>
<P>3. Documented case reports. Identify expected or frequently reported side effects.
</P>
<P>4. Pertinent marketing experiences that may influence a determination on the efficacy of the finished drug product. 
</P>
<P>5. Pertinent medical and scientific literature. 
</P>
<P>VI. A summary of the data and views setting forth the medical rationale and purpose (or lack thereof) for the drug and its ingredients and the scientific basis (or lack thereof) for the conclusion that the drug and its ingredients have been proven safe and effective for the intended use. If there is an absence of controlled studies in the material submitted, an explanation as to why such studies are not considered necessary must be included.
</P>
<P>VII. An official United States Pharmacopeia (USP)-National Formulary (NF) drug monograph for the active ingredient(s) or botanical drug substance(s), or a proposed standard for inclusion in an article to be recognized in an official USP-NF drug monograph for the active ingredient(s) or botanical drug substance(s). Include information showing that the official or proposed compendial monograph for the active ingredient or botanical drug substance is consistent with the active ingredient or botanical drug substance used in the studies establishing safety and effectiveness and with the active ingredient or botanical drug substance marketed in the OTC product(s) to a material extent and for a material time. If differences exist, explain why.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Deliberations of an advisory review panel.</I> An advisory review panel will meet as often and for as long as is appropriate to review the data submitted to it and to prepare a report containing its conclusions and recommendations to the Commissioner with respect to the safety and effectiveness of the drugs in a designated category of OTC drugs. A panel may consult any individual or group. Any interested person may request an opportunity to present oral views to the panel; such request may be granted or denied by the panel. Such requests for oral presentations should be in written form including a summarization of the data to be presented to the panel. Any interested person may present written data and views which shall be considered by the panel. This information shall be presented to the panel in the format set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and within the time period established for the drug category in the notice for review by a panel. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Standards for safety, effectiveness, and labeling.</I> The advisory review panel, in reviewing the data submitted to it and preparing its conclusions and recommendations, and the Commissioner, in reviewing the conclusions and recommendations of the panel and the published proposed, tentative, and the final monographs, shall apply the following standards to determine general recognition that a category of OTC drugs is safe and effective and not misbranded: 
</P>
<P>(i) Safety means a low incidence of adverse reactions or significant side effects under adequate directions for use and warnings against unsafe use as well as low potential for harm which may result from abuse under conditions of widespread availability. Proof of safety shall consist of adequate tests by methods reasonably applicable to show the drug is safe under the prescribed, recommended, or suggested conditions of use. This proof shall include results of significant human experience during marketing. General recognition of safety shall ordinarily be based upon published studies which may be corroborated by unpublished studies and other data. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Effectiveness means a reasonable expectation that, in a significant proportion of the target population, the pharmacological effect of the drug, when used under adequate directions for use and warnings against unsafe use, will provide clinically significant relief of the type claimed. Proof of effectiveness shall consist of controlled clinical investigations as defined in § 314.126(b) of this chapter, unless this requirement is waived on the basis of a showing that it is not reasonably applicable to the drug or essential to the validity of the investigation and that an alternative method of investigation is adequate to substantiate effectiveness. Investigations may be corroborated by partially controlled or uncontrolled studies, documented clinical studies by qualified experts, and reports of significant human experience during marketing. Isolated case reports, random experience, and reports lacking the details which permit scientific evaluation will not be considered. General recognition of effectiveness shall ordinarily be based upon published studies which may be corroborated by unpublished studies and other data. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The benefit-to-risk ratio of a drug shall be considered in determining safety and effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(iv) An OTC drug may combine two or more safe and effective active ingredients and may be generally recognized as safe and effective when each active ingredient makes a contribution to the claimed effect(s); when combining of the active ingredients does not decrease the safety or effectiveness of any of the individual active ingredients; and when the combination, when used under adequate directions for use and warnings against unsafe use, provides rational concurrent therapy for a significant proportion of the target population. 
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling shall be clear and truthful in all respects and may not be false or misleading in any particular. It shall state the intended uses and results of the product; adequate directions for proper use; and warnings against unsafe use, side effects, and adverse reactions in such terms as to render them likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual, including individuals of low comprehension, under customary conditions of purchase and use. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A drug shall be permitted for OTC sale and use by the laity unless, because of its toxicity or other potential for harmful effect or because of the method or collateral measures necessary to its use, it may safely be sold and used only under the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law to administer such drugs. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Advisory review panel report to the Commissioner.</I> An advisory review panel may submit to the Commissioner a report containing its conclusions and recommendations with respect to the conditions under which OTC drugs falling within the category covered by the panel are generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded. Included within this report shall be: 
</P>
<P>(i) A recommended monograph or monographs covering the category of OTC drugs and establishing conditions under which the drugs involved are generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded (Category I). This monograph may include any conditions relating to active ingredients, labeling indications, warnings and adequate directions for use, prescription or OTC status, and any other conditions necessary and appropriate for the safety and effectiveness of drugs covered by the monograph. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of active ingredients, labeling claims or other statements, or other conditions reviewed and excluded from the monograph on the basis of the panel's determination that they would result in the drug's not being generally recognized as safe and effective or would result in misbranding (Category II). 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of active ingredients, labeling claims or other statements, or other conditions reviewed and excluded from the monograph on the basis of the panel's determination that the available data are insufficient to classify such condition under either paragraph (a)(5) (i) or (ii) of this section and for which further testing is therefore required (Category III). The report may recommend the type of further testing required and the time period within which it might reasonably be concluded. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Proposed monograph.</I> After reviewing the conclusions and recommendations of the advisory review panel, the Commissioner shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a proposed order containing: 
</P>
<P>(i) A monograph or monographs establishing conditions under which a category of OTC drugs or a specific or specific OTC drugs are generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded (Category I). 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the conditions excluded from the monograph on the basis of the Commissioner's determination that they would result in the drug's not being generally recognized as safe and effective or would result in misbranding (Category II). 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the conditions excluded from the monograph on the basis of the Commissioner's determination that the available data are insufficient to classify such conditions under either paragraph (a)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section (Category III). 
</P>
<P>(iv) The full report(s) of the panel to the Commissioner. The proposed order shall specify a reasonable period of time within which conditions falling within paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section may be continued in marketed products while the data necessary to support them are being obtained for evaluation by the Food and Drug Administration. The summary minutes of the panel meetings shall be made available to interested persons upon request. Any interested person may, within 90 days after publication of the proposed order in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> file with the Dockets Management Staff of the Food and Drug Administration written comments in triplicate. Comments may be accompanied by a memorandum or brief in support thereof. All comments may be reviewed at the office of the Dockets Management Staff between the hours of 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. Within 30 days after the final day for submission of comments, reply comments may be filed with the Dockets Management Staff; these comments shall be utilized to reply to comments made by other interested persons and not to reiterate a position. The Commissioner may satisfy this requirement by publishing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a proposed order summarizing the full report of the advisory review panel, containing its conclusions and recommendations, to obtain full public comment before undertaking his own evaluation and decision on the matters involved. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tentative final monograph.</I> (i) After reviewing all comments, reply comments, and any new data and information or, alternatively, after reviewing a panel's recommendations, the Commissioner shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a tentative order containing a monograph establishing conditions under which a category of OTC drugs or specific OTC drugs are generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded. Within 90 days, any interested person may file with the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, written comments or written objections specifying with particularity the omissions or additions requested. These objections are to be supported by a brief statement of the grounds therefor. A request for an oral hearing may accompany such objections.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner may also publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a separate tentative order containing a statement of those active ingredients reviewed and proposed to be excluded from the monograph on the basis of the Commissioner's determination that they would result in a drug product not being generally recognized as safe and effective or would result in misbranding. This order may be published when no substantive comments in opposition to the panel report or new data and information were received by the Food and Drug Administration under paragraph (a)(6)(iv) of this section or when the Commissioner has evaluated and concurs with a panel's recommendation that a condition be excluded from the monograph. Within 90 days, any interested person may file with the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, written objections specifying with particularity the provision of the tentative order to which objection is made. These objections are to be supported by a brief statement of the grounds therefor. A request for an oral hearing may accompany such objections.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 12 months after publishing a tentative order pursuant to paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section, any interested person may file with the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, new data and information to support a condition excluded from the monograph in the tentative order.
</P>
<P>(iv) Within 60 days after the final day for submission of new data and information, comments on the new data and information may be filed with the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(v) New data and information submitted after the time specified in this paragraph but prior to the establishment of a final monograph will be considered as a petition to amend the monograph and will be considered by the Commissioner only after a final monograph has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless the Commisisoner finds that good cause has been shown that warrants earlier consideration.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Oral hearing before the Commissioner.</I> After reviewing objections filed in response to the tentative final monograph, the Commissioner, if he finds reasonable grounds in support thereof, shall by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> schedule an oral hearing. The notice scheduling an oral hearing shall specify the length of the hearing and how the time shall be divided among the parties requesting the hearing. The hearing shall be conducted by the Commissioner and may not be delegated. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Final monograph.</I> After reviewing the objections, the entire administrative record including all new data and information and comments, and considering the arguments made at any oral hearing, the Commissioner shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final order containing a monograph establishing conditions under which a category of OTC drugs or a specific or specific OTC drugs are generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded. The monograph shall become effective as specified in the order.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Administrative record.</I> (i) All data and information to be considered in any proceeding pursuant to this section shall be submitted in response to the request for data and views pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, in response to any other notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or accepted by the panel during its deliberations pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section or submitted to the Dockets Management Staff as part of the comments during the 90-day period and 30-day rebuttal comment period permitted pursuant to paragraph (a)(6) of this section or submitted to the Dockets Management Staff during the 12-month period or as part of the comments during the 60-day period permitted pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commissioner shall make all decisions and issue all orders pursuant to this section solely on the basis of the administrative record, and shall not consider data or information not included as part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(iii) The administrative record shall consist solely of the following material: All notices and orders published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> all data and views submitted in response to the request published pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, in response to any other notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or accepted by the panel during its deliberations pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section, all minutes of panel meetings, the panel report(s), all comments and rebuttal comments submitted on the proposed monograph and all new data and information submitted pursuant to paragraph (a)(6) of this section, all objections submitted on the tentative final monograph and all new data and information and comments submitted pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section, the complete record of any oral public hearing conducted pursuant to paragraph (a)(8) of this section, all other comments requested at any time by the Commissioner, all data and information for which the Commissioner has reopened the administrative record, and all other material that the Commissioner includes in the administrative record as part of the basis for the Commissioner's decision.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Court appeal.</I> The monograph contained in the final order constitutes final agency action from which appeal lies to the courts. The Food and Drug Administration will request consolidation of all appeals in a single court. Upon court appeal, the Commissioner may, at his discretion, stay the effective date for part or all of the monograph pending appeal and final court adjudication. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Amendment of monographs.</I> (i) The Commissioner may propose on the Commissioner's own initiative to amend or repeal any monograph established pursuant to this section. Any interested person may petition the Commissioner for such proposal pursuant to § 10.30 of this chapter. The Commissioner may deny the petition if the Commissioner finds a lack of safety or effectiveness employing the standards in paragraph (a)(4) of this section (in which case the appeal provisions of paragraph (a)(11) of this section shall apply), or the Commissioner may publish a proposed amendment or repeal in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Commissioner finds general recognition of safety and effectiveness employing the standards in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. Any interested person may, within 90 days after publication of the proposed order in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> file with the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, written comments in triplicate. Comments may be accompanied by a memorandum or brief in support thereof. All comments may be reviewed in the Dockets Management Staff between the hours of 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. After reviewing the comments, the Commissioner shall publish a final order amending the monograph established under the provisions of paragraph (a)(9) of this section or withdraw the proposal if comments opposing the amendment are persuasive. A new drug application may be submitted in lieu of, or in addition to, a petition under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) A new drug application may be submitted in lieu of a petition to amend the OTC drug monograh only if the drug product with the condition that is the subject of the new drug application has not been marketed on an interim basis (such as under the provisions of paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section), all clinical testing has been conducted pursuant to a new drug application plan, and no marketing of the product with the condition for which approval is sought is undertaken prior to approval of the new drug application. The Food and Drug Administration shall handle a new drug application as a petition for amendment of a monograph, and shall review it on that basis, if the provisions of this paragraph preclude approval of a new drug application but permit the granting of such a petition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory action.</I> Any product which fails to conform to an applicable monograph after its effective date is liable to regulatory action.
</P>
<P>(c) Information and data submitted under this section shall include, with respect to each nonclinical laboratory study contained in the application, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Institutional review and informed consent.</I> Information and data submitted under this section after July 27, 1981, shall include statements regarding each clinical investigation involving human subjects, from which the information and data are derived, that it either was conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to such requirements in accordance with §§ 56.104 or 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Financial certification or disclosure statement.</I> Any clinical data submitted under this section must be accompanied by financial certifications or disclosure statements or both as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11741, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 39 FR 39556, Nov. 8, 1974; 42 FR 19141, Apr. 12, 1977; 42 FR 54800, Oct. 11, 1977; 46 FR 8460, 8955, Jan. 27, 1981; 46 FR 14340, Feb. 27, 1981; 46 FR 21360, Apr. 10, 1981; 46 FR 47738, Sept. 29, 1981; 50 FR 7516, Feb. 22, 1985; 55 FR 11581, Mar. 29, 1990; 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998; 67 FR 3073, Jan. 23, 2002; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.11" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.11   NDA deviations from applicable monograph.</HEAD>
<P>A new drug application requesting approval of an OTC drug deviating in any respect from a monograph that has become final shall be in the form required by § 314.50 of this chapter, but shall include a statement that the product meets all conditions of the applicable monograph except for the deviation for which approval is requested and may omit all information except that pertinent to the deviation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11741, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 55 FR 11581, Mar. 29, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.12   Status of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs previously reviewed under the Drug Efficacy Study (DESI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) There were 420 OTC drugs reviewed in the Drug Efficacy Study (a review of drugs introduced to the market through new drug procedures between 1938 and 1962). A careful review has been made of the reports on these drugs to determine those drugs for which implementation may be deferred without significant risk to the public health, pending review by appropriate OTC drug advisory review panels and promulgation of a monograph. 
</P>
<P>(b) On and after April 20, 1972, a number of notices were published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> concerning previously unpublished OTC drugs reviewed by the National Academy of Sciences-National Research Council Drug Efficacy Study Group. Only the evaluations and comments of the panels were published, with no conclusions of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. Those publications were for the purpose of giving interested persons the benefit of the Academy's opinions. For those products, and also for OTC drug products previously published with the Commissioner's conclusions (except for the products listed in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section, all requests for data, revised labeling, requests for new drug applications, abbreviated new drug applications, updating supplements, data to support less than effective claims, if any, etc., are deferred, and such OTC drug products are instead subject to the OTC drug review in their appropriate classes pursuant to the procedures established in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of the following DESI announcements are not deferred (the reference document may also pertain to prescription drugs): 
</P>
<P>(i) Certain Surgical Sutures (DESI 4725), published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of November 11, 1971 (36 FR 21612). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Absorbable Dusting Powder (DESI 6264), published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of May 25, 1971 (36 FR 9475). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Certain Insulin Preparations (DESI 4286), published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of April 9, 1971 (36 FR 6842). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Sulfo-Van Ointment (DESI 2230), published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of October 8, 1970 (35 FR 15860). 
</P>
<P>(v) Antiperspirants and Deodorants Containing Neomycin Sulfate (DESI 11048) for which an order revoking provisions for certification or release was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of December 5, 1972 (37 FR 25820) and has been stayed by the filing of objections. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Thorexin Cough Medicine (DESI 11160) for which a notice of opportunity for hearing was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of February 2, 1973 (38 FR 3210). 
</P>
<P>(vii) Antibiotic susceptibility discs (DESI 90235) for which an order providing for certain discs to be certified and removing provisions for certification of other discs was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of September 30, 1972 (37 FR 20525) and has been stayed by the filing of objections notice of which was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of March 15, 1973 (38 FR 7007). 
</P>
<P>(2) Deferral of requirements is not appropriate when an announcement has been published and has been followed by a final order classifying a drug either as lacking substantial evidence of effectiveness or as not shown to be safe. These products will be removed from the market, if they have not already been removed. Regulatory action will also be undertaken against identical, similar and related products (21 CFR 310.6). Deferral of requirements is not appropriate for the following (the referenced document may also pertain to prescription drugs): 
</P>
<P>(i) Certain Sulfonamide-Decongestant Nasal Preparation (DESI 4850), for which notice of withdrawal of approval of new drug applications was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of October 24, 1970 (35 FR 16605, 16606). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Eskay's Theranates, containing strychnine, sodium, and calcium glycerophosphates, thiamine hydrochloride, alcohol, and phosphoric acid (DESI 2220), for which notice of withdrawal of approval of the new drug application was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of February 18, 1971 (36 FR 3152). 
</P>
<P>(iii) The following topical drugs (DESI 1726), for which notice of withdrawal of new drug applications was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of August 28, 1971 (36 FR 17368): 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Rhulitol Solution, containing tannic acid, chlorobutanol, phenol, camphor, alum, and isopropyl alcohol. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Zirnox Topical Lotion, containing phenyitoloxamine citrate and zirconium oxide. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Menacyl Tablets, containing aspirin, menadione, and ascorbic acid (DESI 6363), for which notice of withdrawal of approval of the new drug application was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of July 23, 1970 (35 FR 11827). 
</P>
<P>(v) Curad Medicated Adhesive Bandage containing sulfathiazole (DESI 4964), for which notice of withdrawal of approval of the new drug application was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of December 31, 1969 (34 FR 20441). 
</P>
<P>(vi) Drugs Containing Rutin, Quercetin, Hesperidin, or any Bioflavonoids (DESI 5960), for which notice of withdrawal of approval of new drug applications was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of July 3, 1970 (35 FR 10872, 10873) and October 17, 1970 (35 FR 16332). A further notice of opportunity for hearing with respect to the drugs covered by the October 17, 1970 <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will be published at a later date. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Antibiotics in Combination with Other Drugs for Nasal Use (DESI 7561), for which an order revoking provision for certification was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of August 6, 1971 (36 FR 14469) and confirmed in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of October 28, 1971 (36 FR 20686). 
</P>
<P>(viii) Antibiotic Troches (DESI 8328), for which an order revoking provision for certification was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of July 14, 1971 (36 FR 13089) and confirmed in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of October 9, 1971 (36 FR 19695). 
</P>
<P>(ix) Certain Drugs Containing Oxyphenisatin or Oxyphenisatin Acetate (DESI 10732), for which notices of withdrawal of approval of new drug applications were published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of February 1, 1972 (37 FR 2460), and March 9, 1973 (38 FR 6419). 
</P>
<P>(x) Curad Medicated Adhesive Bandage containing tyrothricin-nitrofurazone (DESI 6898), for which an order revoking provision for certification was published March 14, 1972 (37 FR 5294), and confirmed in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of July 6, 1972 (37 FR 13254). 
</P>
<P>(xi) Candette Cough Gel (DESI 11562), for which notice of withdrawal of approval of the new drug application was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of November 19, 1972 (37 FR 25249). 
</P>
<P>(xii) Certain OTC Multiple-Vitamin Preparations for Oral Use containing excessive amounts of vitamin D and/or vitamin A (DESI 97), for which notice of withdrawal of approval of the new drug applications was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of November 29, 1972 (37 FR 25249). 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Certain Sulfonamide-Containing Preparations for Topical Ophthalmic or Otic Use (DESI 368, for which a notice of withdrawal of approval was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of February 2, 1973 (38 FR 3208). 
</P>
<P>(xiv) Those parts of the publication entitled “Certain Mouthwash and Gargle Preparations” (DESI 2855) pertaining to Tyrolaris Mouthwash, containing tyrothricin, panthenol, and alcohol, for which an order revoking provision for certification was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of February 2, 1967 (32 FR 1172) prior to the drug efficacy study implementation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Manufacturers and distributors should take notice that the information on OTC drugs provided by the Drug Efficacy Study review is valuable information as to the deficiencies in the data available to support indications for use. They are encouraged to perform studies to obtain adequate evidence of effectiveness for the review of OTC drugs which is already in progress. In the interim it is in the public interest that manufacturers and distributors of all OTC drugs effect changes in their formulations and/or labeling to bring the products into conformity with current medical knowledge and experience. 
</P>
<P>(d) Manufacturers and distributors of OTC drugs may be reluctant to make appropriate formulation and/or labeling changes for fear of losing the protection of the so-called “grandfather” provisions of the 1938 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (sec. 201(p)(1)) and the 1962 amendments to the act (sec. 107(c) of those amendments). To encourage and facilitate prompt changes, the Food and Drug Administration will not take legal action against any OTC drug, other than those not deferred, based on a charge that the product is a new drug and not grandfathered under the act as a result of the changes if the changes in formulation and/or labeling are of the following kind: 
</P>
<P>(1) The addition to the labeling of warning, contraindications, side effects, and/or precaution information. 
</P>
<P>(2) The deletion from the labeling of false, misleading, or unsupported indications for use or claims of effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in the components or composition of the drug that will give increased assurance that the drug will have its intended effect, yet not raise or contribute any added safety questions. 
</P>
<P>(4) Changes in the components or composition of the drug which may reasonably be concluded to improve the safety of the drug, without diminishing its effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(e) The forbearance from legal action for lack of grandfather protection is an interim procedure designed to encourage appropriate change in formulation and/or labeling during the time period required to review the various classes of OTC drugs. At such time as an applicable OTC drug monograph becomes effective, the interim procedure will automatically be terminated and any appropriate regulatory action will be initiated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.13" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.13   Conditions for marketing ingredients recommended for over-the-counter (OTC) use under the OTC drug review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before the publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of an applicable proposed monograph, an OTC drug product that contains: (1) An active ingredient limited, on or after May 11, 1972, to prescription use for the indication and route of administration under consideration by an OTC advisory review panel, and not thereafter exempted from such limitation pursuant to § 310.200 of this chapter, or 
</P>
<P>(2) An active ingredient at a dosage level higher than that available in an OTC drug product on December 4, 1975, shall be regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act for which an approved new drug application is required. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An OTC drug product that contains: (i) An active ingredient limited, on or after May 11, 1972, to prescription use for the indication and route of administration under consideration by an OTC advisory review panel, and not thereafter exempted from such limitation pursuant to § 310.200 of this chapter, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An active ingredient at a dosage level higher than that available in an OTC drug product on December 4, 1975, which ingredient and/or dosage level is classified by the panel in category I (conditions subject to § 330.10(a)(6)(i)) shall be regarded as a new drug within the meaning of section 201(p) of the act for which an approved new drug application is required if marketed for OTC use prior to the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of a proposed monograph. 
</P>
<P>(2) An OTC drug product covered by paragraph (b)(1) of this section which is marketed after the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of a proposed monograph but prior to the effective date of a final monograph shall be subject to the risk that the Commissioner may not accept the panel's recommendation and may instead adopt a different position that may require relabeling, recall, or other regulatory action. The Commissioner may state such position at any time by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> either separately or as part of another document; appropriate regulatory action will commence immediately and will not await publication of a final monograph. Marketing of such a product with a formulation or labeling not in accord with a proposed monograph or tentative final monograph also may result in regulatory action against the product, the marketer, or both. 
</P>
<P>(c) An OTC drug product that contains: (1) An active ingredient limited, on or after May 11, 1972, to prescription use for the indication and route of administration under consideration by an OTC advisory review panel, and not thereafter exempted from such limitation pursuant to § 310.200 of this chapter, or 
</P>
<P>(2) An active ingredient at a dosage level higher than that available in any OTC drug product on December 4, 1975, which ingredient and/or dosage level is classified by the panel in category II (conditions subject to § 330.10(a)(6)(ii)), may be marketed only after:
</P>
<P>(i) The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or the Commissioner tentatively determines that the ingredient is generally recognized as safe and effective, and the Commissioner states by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (separately or as part of another document) that marketing under specified conditions will be permitted; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The ingredient is determined by the Commissioner to be generally recognized as safe and effective and is included in the appropriate published OTC drug final monograph; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A new drug application for the product has been approved.
</P>
<P>(d) An OTC drug product that contains: (1) An active ingredient limited, on or after May 11, 1972, to prescription use for the indication and route of administration under consideration by an OTC advisory review panel, and not thereafter exempted from such limitation pursuant to § 310.200 of this chapter, or 
</P>
<P>(2) An active ingredient at a dosage level higher than that available in any OTC drug product on December 4, 1975, which ingredient and/or dosage level is classified by the panel in category III (conditions subject to § 330.10(a)(6)(iii)), may be marketed only after:
</P>
<P>(i) The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research or the Commissioner tentatively determines that the ingredient is generally recognized as safe and effective, and the Commissioner states by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (separately or as part of another document) that marketing under specified conditions will be permitted;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ingredient is determined by the Commissioner to be generally recognized as safe and effective and is included in the appropriate published OTC drug final monograph; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A new drug application for the product has been approved.
</P>
<P>(e) This section applies only to conditions under consideration as part of the OTC drug review initiated on May 11, 1972, and evaluated under the procedures set forth in § 330.10. Section 330.14(h) applies to the marketing of all conditions under consideration and evaluated using the criteria and procedures set forth in § 330.14.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 32582, Aug. 4, 1976, as amended at 47 FR 17739, Apr. 23, 1982; 50 FR 8996, Mar. 6, 1985; 55 FR 11581, Mar. 29, 1990; 67 FR 3074, Jan. 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.14" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.14   Additional criteria and procedures for classifying OTC drugs as generally recognized as safe and effective and not misbranded.</HEAD>
<P>This section sets forth additional criteria and procedures by which over-the-counter (OTC) drugs initially marketed in the United States after the OTC drug review began in 1972 and OTC drugs without any U.S. marketing experience can be considered in the OTC drug monograph system. This section also addresses conditions regulated as a cosmetic or dietary supplement in a foreign country that would be regulated as OTC drugs in the United States. Section 330.15 sets forth timelines for FDA review and action.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the following definitions of terms apply to this section and to § 330.15.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Botanical drug substance</I> means a drug substance derived from one or more plants, algae, or macroscopic fungi, but does not include a highly purified or chemically modified substance derived from such a source.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Condition</I> means an active ingredient or botanical drug substance (or a combination of active ingredients or botanical drug substances), dosage form, dosage strength, or route of administration, marketed for a specific OTC use, except as excluded in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date of filing</I> means the date of the notice from FDA stating that FDA has made a threshold determination that the safety and effectiveness data submission is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review; or, if the submission is filed over protest in accordance with paragraph (j)(3) of this section, the date of filing is the date of the notice from FDA stating that FDA has filed the submission over protest (this date will be no later than 30 days after the request that FDA file the submission over protest).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Feedback letter</I> means a letter issued by the agency in accordance with paragraph (g)(4) of this section that informs the sponsor and other interested persons who have submitted data under paragraph (f) of this section that a condition is initially determined not to be generally recognized as safe and effective (GRASE).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Safety and effectiveness data submission</I> means a data package submitted by a sponsor or other interested person that includes safety and effectiveness data and information under paragraph (f) of this section and that is represented by the submitter as being a complete submission.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sponsor</I> means the person that submitted a time and extent application (TEA) under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Time and extent application (TEA)</I> means a submission by a sponsor under paragraph (c) of this section, which will be evaluated by the agency to determine eligibility of a condition for consideration in the OTC drug monograph system.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> To be considered for inclusion in the OTC drug monograph system, the condition must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The condition must be marketed for OTC purchase by consumers. If the condition is marketed in another country in a class of OTC drug products that may be sold only in a pharmacy, with or without the personal involvement of a pharmacist, it must be established that this marketing restriction does not indicate safety concerns about the condition's toxicity or other potentiality for harmful effect, the method of its use, or the collateral measures necessary to its use.
</P>
<P>(2) The condition must have been marketed OTC for a minimum of 5 continuous years in the same country and in sufficient quantity, as determined in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii), (c)(2)(iii), and (c)(2)(iv) of this section. Depending on the condition's extent of marketing in only one country with 5 continuous years of marketing, marketing in more than one country may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time and extent application.</I> Certain information must be provided when requesting that a condition subject to this section be considered for inclusion in the OTC drug monograph system. The following information must be provided in the format of a time and extent application (TEA):
</P>
<P>(1) Basic information about the condition that includes a description of the active ingredient(s) or botanical drug substance(s), pharmacologic class(es), intended OTC use(s), OTC strength(s) and dosage form(s), route(s) of administration, directions for use, and the applicable existing OTC drug monograph(s) under which the condition would be marketed or the request and rationale for creation of a new OTC drug monograph(s).
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed chemical description of the active ingredient(s) that includes a full description of the drug substance, including its physical and chemical characteristics, the method of synthesis (or isolation) and purification of the drug substance, and any specifications and analytical methods necessary to ensure the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the drug substance.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a botanical drug substance(s), a detailed description of the botanical ingredient (including proper identification of the plant, plant part(s), alga, or macroscopic fungus used; a certificate of authenticity; and information on the grower/supplier, growing conditions, harvest location and harvest time); a qualitative description (including the name, appearance, physical/chemical properties, chemical constituents, active constituent(s) (if known), and biological activity (if known)); a quantitative description of the chemical constituents, including the active constituent(s) or other chemical marker(s) (if known and measurable); the type of manufacturing process (e.g., aqueous extraction, pulverization); and information on any further processing of the botanical substance (e.g., addition of excipients or blending).
</P>
<P>(iii) Reference to the current edition of the U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP)-National Formulary (NF) or foreign compendiums may help satisfy the requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A list of all countries in which the condition has been marketed. Include the following information for each country. (For a condition that has been marketed OTC in 5 or more countries with a minimum of 5 continuous years of marketing in at least one country, the sponsor may submit information in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section):
</P>
<P>(i) How the condition has been marketed (e.g., OTC general sales direct-to-consumer; sold only in a pharmacy, with or without the personal involvement of a pharmacist; dietary supplement; or cosmetic). If the condition has been marketed as a nonprescription pharmacy-only product, establish that this marketing restriction does not indicate safety concerns about its toxicity or other potentiality for harmful effect, the method of its use, or the collateral measures necessary to its use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The cumulative total number of dosage units (e.g., tablets, capsules, ounces) sold for each dosage form of the condition. Manufacturers or suppliers of OTC active ingredients may provide dosage unit information as the total weight of active ingredient sold. List the various package sizes for each dosage form in which the condition is marketed OTC. Provide an estimate of the minimum number of potential consumer exposures to the condition using one of the following calculations:
</P>
<P>(A) Divide the total number of dosage units sold by the number of dosage units in the largest package size marketed, or
</P>
<P>(B) Divide the total weight of the active ingredient sold by the total weight of the active ingredient in the largest package size marketed.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the population demographics (percentage of various racial/ethnic groups) and the source(s) from which this information has been compiled, to ensure that the condition's use(s) can be reasonably extrapolated to the U.S. population.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the use pattern (<I>i.e.,</I> how often it is to be used (according to the label) and for how long) varies between countries based on the condition's packaging and labeling, or changes in use pattern have occurred over time in one or more countries, describe the use pattern for each country and explain why there are differences or changes.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the country's system for identifying adverse drug experiences, especially those found in OTC marketing experience, including method of collection if applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of how long the condition has been marketed in each country and how long the current product labeling has been in use, accompanied by a copy of the current product labeling. All labeling that is not in English must be translated to English in accordance with § 10.20(c)(2) of this chapter. State whether the current product labeling has or has not been authorized, accepted, or approved by a regulatory body in each country where the condition is marketed.
</P>
<P>(4) For a condition that has been marketed OTC in five or more countries with a minimum of 5 continuous years of marketing in at least one country, the sponsor may select at least five of these countries from which to submit information in accord with paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (c)(2)(iv) of this section. Selected countries must include the country with a minimum of 5 continuous years of OTC marketing, countries that have the longest duration of marketing, and countries having the most support for extent of marketing, <I>i.e.</I>, a large volume of sales with cultural diversity among users of the product. If the condition meets these criteria in countries listed in section 802(b)(1)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, some of these countries should be included among the five selected. Sponsors should provide information from more than five countries if they believe that it is needed to support eligibility. Sponsors should explain the basis for the countries selected in the TEA.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of all countries where the condition is marketed only as a prescription drug and the reasons why its marketing is restricted to prescription in these countries.
</P>
<P>(6) A list of all countries in which the condition has been withdrawn from marketing or in which an application for OTC marketing approval has been denied. Include the reasons for such withdrawal or application denial.
</P>
<P>(7) The information requested in paragraphs (c)(2), (c)(2)(i) through (c)(2)(iv), and (c)(3) of this section must be provided in a table format. The labeling required by paragraph (c)(3) of this section must be attached to the table.
</P>
<P>(8) For OTC drugs that have been marketed for more than 5 years in the United States under a new drug application, the information requested in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(iii), (c)(2)(v), (c)(3), and (c)(5) of this section need not be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of information</I>; <I>confidentiality.</I> The sponsor must submit three copies of the TEA to the Central Document Room, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. The Food and Drug Administration will handle the TEA as confidential until such time as a decision is made on the eligibility of the condition for consideration in the OTC drug monograph system. If the condition is found eligible, the TEA will be placed on public display in the Dockets Management Staff after deletion of information deemed confidential under 18 U.S.C. 1905, 5 U.S.C. 552(b), or 21 U.S.C. 331(j). Sponsors must identify information that is considered confidential under these statutory provisions. If the condition is not found eligible, the TEA will not be placed on public display, but a letter from the agency to the sponsor stating why the condition was not found acceptable will be placed on public display in the Dockets Management Staff.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of eligibility.</I> If the condition is found eligible, the agency will publish a notice of eligibility in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and provide the sponsor and other interested parties an opportunity to submit data to demonstrate safety and effectiveness. When the notice of eligibility is published, the agency will place the TEA on public display in the Dockets Management Staff.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safety and effectiveness data submission.</I> The notice of eligibility will request a safety and effectiveness data submission that includes published and unpublished data to demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of the condition for its intended OTC use(s), as well as the submission of any other relevant data and views. These data will be submitted to a docket established in the Dockets Management Staff and will be publicly available for viewing at that office, except data deemed confidential under 18 U.S.C. 1905, 5 U.S.C. 552(b), or 21 U.S.C. 331(j). Data considered confidential under these provisions must be clearly identified. Any proposed compendial standards for the condition will not be considered confidential. The safety and effectiveness data submission must be sufficiently complete to be filed by the agency under paragraph (j)(2) of this section. Safety and effectiveness data and other information submitted under this paragraph are subject to the requirements in § 330.10(c), (e), and (f). The safety and effectiveness data submission must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All data and information listed in § 330.10(a)(2) under the outline “OTC Drug Review Information,” items III through VII.
</P>
<P>(2) All serious adverse drug experiences as defined in §§ 310.305 and 314.80 of this chapter, from each country where the condition has been or is currently marketed as a prescription drug or as an OTC drug or product. Provide individual adverse drug experience reports (FDA Form 3500A or equivalent) along with a summary of all serious adverse drug experiences and expected or frequently reported side effects for the condition. Individual reports that are not in English must be translated to English in accordance with § 10.20(c)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Administrative procedures.</I> The agency may use an advisory review panel to evaluate the safety and effectiveness data in accord with the provisions of § 330.10(a)(3). Alternatively, the agency may evaluate the data in conjunction with the advisory review panel or on its own without using an advisory review panel. The agency will use the safety, effectiveness, and labeling standards in § 330.10(a)(4)(i) through (a)(4)(vi) in evaluating the data.
</P>
<P>(1) If the agency uses an advisory review panel to evaluate the data, the panel may submit its recommendations in its official minutes of meeting(s) or by a report under the provisions of § 330.10(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may act on an advisory review panel's recommendations using the procedures in §§ 330.10(a)(2) and 330.10(a)(6) through (a)(10).
</P>
<P>(3) If the condition is initially determined to be generally recognized as safe and effective for OTC use in the United States, the agency will propose to include it in an appropriate OTC drug monograph(s), either by amending an existing monograph(s) or establishing a new monograph(s), if necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) If the condition is initially determined not to be GRASE for OTC use in the United States, the agency will inform the sponsor and other interested persons who have submitted data of its determination by feedback letter, a copy of which will be placed on public display in the docket established in the Dockets Management Staff. The agency will publish a notice of proposed rulemaking to include the condition in § 310.502 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(5) Interested parties will have an opportunity to submit comments and new data. The agency will subsequently publish a final rule (or reproposal if necessary) in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Marketing.</I> A condition submitted under this section for consideration in the OTC drug monograph system may be marketed in accordance with an applicable final OTC drug monograph(s) only after the agency determines that the condition is generally recognized as safe and effective and includes it in the appropriate OTC drug final monograph(s), and the condition complies with paragraph (i) of this section. When an OTC drug monograph has not been finalized and finalization is not imminent, after the agency has evaluated the comments to a proposed rule to include a new condition in a tentative final monograph as generally recognized as safe and effective and the agency has not changed its position as a result of the comments, and the condition complies with paragraph (i) of this section, the agency may publish a notice of enforcement policy that allows marketing to begin pending completion of the final monograph subject to the risk that the agency may, prior to or in the final monograph, adopt a different position that could require relabeling, recall, or other regulatory action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compendial monograph.</I> Any active ingredient or botanical drug substance included in a final OTC drug monograph or the subject of an enforcement notice described in paragraph (h) of this section must be recognized in an official USP-NF drug monograph that sets forth its standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity. Sponsors must include an official or proposed compendial monograph as part of the safety and effectiveness data submission listed in § 330.10(a)(2) under item VII of the outline entitled “OTC DRUG REVIEW INFORMATION.”


</P>
<P>(j) <I>Filing determination.</I> (1) After FDA receives a safety and effectiveness data submission, the agency will determine whether the submission may be filed. The filing of a submission means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the submission is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA finds that none of the reasons in paragraph (j)(4) of this section for refusing to file the safety and effectiveness data submission apply, the agency will file the submission and notify the submitter in writing. FDA will post a copy of the notice to the docket. The date of filing begins the FDA timelines described in § 330.15(c)(3) and (4). Data submitted after the date of filing will be considered before the issuance of a notice of proposed rulemaking if there is adequate time for review; otherwise, the data will be considered as comments to the proposed rule after issuance of a notice of proposed rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA refuses to file the safety and effectiveness data submission, the agency will notify the submitter in writing and state the reason(s) under paragraph (j)(4) of this section for the refusal. The submitter may request in writing, within 30 days of the date of the agency's notification, a meeting with the agency about whether the agency should file the submission, and FDA will convene the meeting within 30 days of the request. If, within 120 days after the meeting, the submitter requests that FDA file the submission (with or without correcting the deficiencies), the agency will file the safety and effectiveness data submission over protest under paragraph (j)(2) of this section, notify the submitter in writing and post a copy to the docket, and review the submission as filed. The submitter must have a meeting before requesting that FDA file the submission over protest but need not resubmit a copy of a safety and effectiveness data submission that is filed over protest. A safety and effectiveness data submission and the corresponding TEA-eligible condition are both not deemed under consideration if FDA refuses to file the safety and effectiveness data submission, and it is not filed over protest; the condition remains eligible for consideration and the sponsor or any interested person can pursue consideration of the condition in the future by submitting a new safety and effectiveness data submission.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA may refuse to file a safety and effectiveness data submission if any of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) The submission is incomplete because it does not contain information required under paragraph (f) of this section. If the submission does not contain required information because such information or data are not relevant to the condition, the submission must clearly identify and provide an explanation for the omission.
</P>
<P>(ii) The submission is not organized or formatted in a manner to enable the agency to readily determine whether it is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review.
</P>
<P>(iii) The submission does not contain a signed statement that the submission represents a complete safety and effectiveness data submission and that the submission includes all the safety and effectiveness data and information available to the submitter at the time of the submission, whether positive or negative.
</P>
<P>(iv) The submission does not contain an analysis and summary of the data and other supporting information, organized by clinical or nonclinical area, such as clinical efficacy data, clinical safety data, clinical pharmacology, adverse event reports, animal toxicology, chemistry data, and compendial status.
</P>
<P>(v) The submission does not contain a supporting document summarizing the strategy used for literature searches, including search terms, sources, dates accessed, and years reviewed.
</P>
<P>(vi) The submission does not contain a reference list of supporting information, such as published literature, unpublished information, abstracts and case reports, and a copy of the supporting information.
</P>
<P>(vii) The submission includes data or information relevant for making a GRASE determination marked as confidential without a statement that the information may be released to the public.
</P>
<P>(viii) The submission does not contain a complete environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter or fails to provide sufficient information to establish that the requested action is subject to categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.31 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ix) The submission does not contain a statement for each nonclinical laboratory study that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if it was not conducted in compliance with part 58 of this chapter, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(x) The submission does not contain a statement for each clinical investigation involving human subjects that the investigation was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to those regulations, and that the investigation was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(xi) The submission does not include financial certification or disclosure statements, or both, as required by part 54 of this chapter, accompanying any clinical data submitted.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Withdrawal of consideration.</I> (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (g) of this section, FDA may withdraw consideration of a TEA submission or a safety and effectiveness data submission if:
</P>
<P>(i) The person that submitted the submission requests that its submission be withdrawn from consideration; or
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA deems the submission to be withdrawn from consideration due to the submitter's failure to respond to communications from FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) Before FDA deems a submission withdrawn under paragraph (k)(1)(ii) of this section, FDA will notify the person that submitted the submission. If, within 90 days from the date of the notice from FDA, the submitter requests that FDA not withdraw consideration of the submission, FDA will not deem the submission to be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA withdraws consideration of a submission under paragraph (k)(1) of this section, FDA will post a notice of withdrawal to the docket, except in the case of a TEA submission that is withdrawn from consideration before issuance of a notice of eligibility, in which case, the notice of withdrawal will only be provided to the sponsor. Information that has been posted to the public docket for the condition at the time of the withdrawal (such as a notice of eligibility or a safety and effectiveness data submission that has been accepted for filing and posted to the docket) will remain in the public docket. If the condition has been found eligible through issuance of a notice of eligibility, the condition remains eligible for consideration and the sponsor or any interested person can pursue consideration of the condition in the future by submitting a new safety and effectiveness data submission.
</P>
<P>(4) If FDA withdraws consideration of a submission under paragraph (k)(1) of this section, the timelines under § 330.15(c) will no longer apply as of the date of withdrawal, and the submission will not be included in the metrics under § 330.15(b).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 3074, Jan. 23, 2002, as amended at 81 FR 84475, Nov. 23, 2016; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.15" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.11.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.15   Timelines for FDA review and action on time and extent applications and safety and effectiveness data submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to the review of a condition in a time and extent application (TEA) submitted under § 330.14 for consideration in the over-the-counter (OTC) drug monograph system. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) A sunscreen active ingredient or combination of sunscreen active ingredients, and other conditions for such ingredients; or
</P>
<P>(2) A non-sunscreen active ingredient or combination of non-sunscreen active ingredients, and other conditions for such ingredients submitted in a TEA under § 330.14 before November 27, 2014, subject to section 586F(a)(1)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Metrics.</I> FDA will maintain and update annually, a publicly available posting of metrics for the review of TEAs and safety and effectiveness data submissions that are subject to the timelines in this section. The posting will contain the following information for tracking the extent to which the timelines set forth in paragraph (c) of this section were met during the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>(1) Number and percent of eligibility notices or ineligibility letters issued within 180 days of submission of a TEA;
</P>
<P>(2) Number and percent of filing determinations issued within 90 days of submission of a safety and effectiveness data submission;
</P>
<P>(3) If applicable, number and percent of feedback letters issued within 730 days from the date of filing;
</P>
<P>(4) Number and percent of notices for proposed rulemaking issued within 1,095 days from the date of filing;
</P>
<P>(5) Number and percent of final rules issued within 912 days of closing of the docket of the proposed rulemaking; and
</P>
<P>(6) Total number of TEAs submitted under § 330.14.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timelines for FDA review and action.</I> FDA will review and take an action within the following timelines:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 180 days of submission of a TEA under § 330.14(c), FDA will issue a notice of eligibility or post to the docket a letter of ineligibility, in accordance with § 330.14(d) and (e).
</P>
<P>(2) Within 90 days of submission of a safety and effectiveness data submission, in accordance with § 330.14(j), FDA will issue a filing determination. The date of filing begins the FDA timelines in paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 730 days from the date of filing, if the condition is initially determined not to be GRASE for OTC use in the United States, FDA will inform the sponsor and other interested persons who have submitted data of its determination by feedback letter in accordance with § 330.14(g)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) Within 1,095 days from the date of filing of a safety and effectiveness data submission, FDA will issue a notice of proposed rulemaking to either:
</P>
<P>(i) Include the condition in an appropriate OTC monograph(s), either by amending an existing monograph(s) or establishing a new monograph(s), if necessary; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Include the condition in § 310.502 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Within 912 days of the closing of the docket of the proposed rulemaking under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, FDA will issue a final rule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 84477, Nov. 23, 2016]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="331" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 331—ANTACID PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER (OTC) HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 19874, June 4, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>An over-the-counter antacid product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the following conditions and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.10   Antacid active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The active antacid ingredients of the product consist of one or more of the ingredients permitted in § 331.11 within any maximum daily dosage limit established, each ingredient is included at a level that contributes at least 25 percent of the total acid neutralizing capacity of the product, and the finished product contains at least 5 meq of acid neutralizing capacity as measured by the procedure provided in the United States Pharmacopeia 23/National Formulary 18. The method established in § 331.20 shall be used to determine the percent contribution of each antacid active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not apply to an antacid ingredient specifically added as a corrective to prevent a laxative or constipating effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 19874, June 4, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 4822, Feb. 8, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.11" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.11   Listing of specific active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aluminum-containing active ingredients: 
</P>
<P>(1) Basic aluminum carbonate gel. 
</P>
<P>(2) Aluminum hydroxide (or as aluminum hydroxide-hexitol stabilized polymer, aluminum hydroxide-magnesium carbonate codried gel, aluminum hydroxide-magnesium trisilicate codried gel, aluminum-hydroxide sucrose powder hydrated). 
</P>
<P>(3) Dihydroxyaluminum aminoacetate and dihydroxyaluminum aminoacetic acid. 
</P>
<P>(4) Aluminum phosphate gel when used as part of an antacid combination product and contributing at least 25 percent of the total acid neutralizing capacity; maximum daily dosage limit is 8 grams. 
</P>
<P>(5) Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) Bicarbonate-containing active ingredients: Bicarbonate ion; maximum daily dosage limit 200 mEq. for persons up to 60 years old and 100 mEq. for persons 60 years or older. 
</P>
<P>(c) Bismuth-containing active ingredients: 
</P>
<P>(1) Bismuth aluminate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Bismuth carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(3) Bismuth subcarbonate. 
</P>
<P>(4) Bismuth subgallate. 
</P>
<P>(5) Bismuth subnitrate. 
</P>
<P>(d) Calcium-containing active ingredients: Calcium, as carbonate or phosphate; maximum daily dosage limit 160 mEq. calcium (e.g., 8 grams calcium carbonate). 
</P>
<P>(e) Citrate-containing active ingredients: Citrate ion, as citric acid or salt; maximum daily dosage limit 8 grams. 
</P>
<P>(f) Glycine (aminoacetic acid). 
</P>
<P>(g) Magnesium-containing active ingredients: 
</P>
<P>(1) Hydrate magnesium aluminate activated sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Magaldrate. 
</P>
<P>(3) Magnesium aluminosilicates. 
</P>
<P>(4) Magnesium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(5) Magnesium glycinate. 
</P>
<P>(6) Magnesium hydroxide. 
</P>
<P>(7) Magnesium oxide. 
</P>
<P>(8) Magnesium trisilicate. 
</P>
<P>(h) Milk solids, dried. 
</P>
<P>(i) Phosphate-containing active ingredients: 
</P>
<P>(1) Aluminum phosphate; maximum daily dosage limit 8 grams. 
</P>
<P>(2) Mono or dibasic calcium salt; maximum daily dosage limit 2 grams. 
</P>
<P>(3) Tricalcium phosphate; maximum daily dosage limit 24 grams. 
</P>
<P>(j) Potassium-containing active ingredients: 
</P>
<P>(1) Potassium bicarbonate (or carbonate when used as a component of an effervescent preparation); maximum daily dosage limit 200 mEq. of bicarbonate ion for persons up to 60 years old and 100 mEq. of bicarbonate ion for persons 60 years or older. 
</P>
<P>(2) Sodium potassium tartrate. 
</P>
<P>(k) Sodium-containing active ingredients: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sodium bicarbonate (or carbonate when used as a component of an effervescent preparation); maximum daily dosage limit 200 mEq. of sodium for persons up to 60 years old and 100 mEq. of sodium for persons 60 years or older, and 200 mEq. of bicarbonate ion for persons up to 60 years old and 100 mEq. of bicarbonate ion for persons 60 years or older. That part of the warning required by § 330.1(g), which states, “Keep this and all drugs out of the reach of children” is not required on a product which contains only sodium bicarbonate powder and which is intended primarily for other than drug uses.
</P>
<P>(2) Sodium potassium tartrate. 
</P>
<P>(l) Silicates: 
</P>
<P>(1) Magnesium aluminosilicates. 
</P>
<P>(2) Magnesium trisilicate. 
</P>
<P>(m) Tartrate-containing active ingredients. Tartaric acid or its salts; maximum daily dosage limit 200 mEq. (15 grams) of tartrate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 19874, June 4, 1974, as amended at 51 FR 27763, Aug. 1, 1986; 55 FR 19859, May 11, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.15" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.15   Combination with nonantacid active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An antacid may contain any generally recognized as safe and effective nonantacid laxative ingredient to correct for constipation caused by the antacid. No labeling claim of the laxative effect may be used for such a product. 
</P>
<P>(b) An antacid may contain any generally recognized as safe and effective analgesic ingredient(s), if it is indicated for use solely for the concurrent symptoms involved, e.g., headache and acid indigestion, and is marketed in a form intended for ingestion as a solution. 
</P>
<P>(c) An antacid may contain any generally recognized as safe and effective antiflatulent ingredient if it is indicated for use solely for the concurrent symptoms of gas associated with heartburn, sour stomach or acid indigestion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Testing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.20   Determination of percent contribution of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>To determine the percent contribution of an antacid active ingredient, place an accurately weighed amount of the antacid active ingredient equal to the amount present in a unit dose of the product into a 250-milliliter (mL) beaker. If wetting is desired, add not more than 5 mL of alcohol (neutralized to an apparent pH of 3.5), and mix to wet the sample thoroughly. Add 70 mL of water, and mix on a magnetic stirrer at 300 ±30 r.p.m. for 1 minute. Analyze the acid neutralizing capacity of the sample according to the procedure provided in the United States Pharmacopeia 23/National Formulary 18 and calculate the percent contribution of the antacid active ingredient in the total product as follows: 
</P>
<P>Percent contribution  = (Total mEq. Antacid Active Ingredient × 100)/(Total mEq. Antacid Product).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4823, Feb. 8, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.21" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.21   Test modifications.</HEAD>
<P>The formulation or mode of administration of certain products may require a modification of the United States Pharmacopeia 23/National Formulary 18 acid neutralizing capacity test. Any proposed modification and the data to support it shall be submitted as a petition under the rules established in § 10.30 of this chapter. All information submitted will be subject to the disclosure rules in part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4823, Feb. 8, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.30" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.30   Labeling of antacid products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “antacid.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following: “For the relief of” (optional, any or all of the following:) “heartburn,” “sour stomach,” and/or “acid indigestion” (which may be followed by the optional statement:) “and upset stomach associated with” (optional, as appropriate) “this symptom” or “these symptoms.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings, under the heading “Warnings”, which may be combined but not rearranged to eliminate duplicative words or phrases if the resulting warning is clear and understandable: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Do not take more than (maximum recommended daily dosage, broken down by age groups if appropriate, expressed in units such as tablets or teaspoonfuls) in a 24-hour period, or use the maximum dosage of this product for more than 2 weeks, except under the advice and supervision of a physician.” 
</P>
<P>(2) For products which cause constipation in 5 percent or more of persons who take the maximum recommended dosage: “May cause constipation.” 
</P>
<P>(3) For products which cause laxation in 5 percent or more of persons who take the maximum recommended dosage: “May have laxative effect.” 
</P>
<P>(4) For products containing more than 5 gm per day lactose in a maximum daily dosage: “Do not use this product except under advice and supervision of a physician if you are allergic to milk or milk products.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Drug interaction precaution.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statement “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> presently taking a prescription drug. Antacids may interact with certain prescription drugs.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Directions for use.</I> The labeling of the product contains the recommended dosage, under the heading “Directions”, per time interval (e.g., every 4 hours) or time period (e.g., 4 times a day) broken down by age groups if appropriate, followed by “or as directed by a physician.” 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exemption from the general accidental overdose warning.</I> The labeling for antacid drug products containing the active ingredients identified in § 331.11(a), (b), and (d) through (m); permitted combinations of these ingredients provided for in § 331.10; and any of these ingredients or combinations of these ingredients in combination with simethicone (identified in § 332.10 of this chapter and provided for in § 331.15(c)), are exempt from the requirement in § 330.1(g) of this chapter that the labeling bear the general warning statement “In case of accidental overdose, seek professional assistance or contact a poison control center immediately.” With the exception of sodium bicarbonate powder products identified in § 331.11(k)(1), the labeling must continue to bear the first part of the general warning in § 330.1(g) of this chapter, which states, “Keep this and all drugs out of the reach of children.”
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) The word “doctor” may be substituted for the word “physician” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 19874, June 4, 1974, as amended at 47 FR 38484, Aug. 31, 1982; 51 FR 16266, May 1, 1986; 51 FR 27763, Aug. 1, 1986; 52 FR 7830, Mar. 13, 1987; 55 FR 11581, Mar. 29, 1990; 58 FR 45208, Aug. 26, 1993; 59 FR 60556, Nov. 25, 1994; 61 FR 17806, Apr. 22, 1996; 64 FR 13295, Mar. 17, 1999; 69 FR 13734, Mar. 24, 2004] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.80" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.80   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of the product provided to health professionals (but not to the general public): 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall contain the neutralizing capacity of the product as calculated using the procedure set forth in United States Pharmacopeia 23/National Formulary 18 expressed in terms of the dosage recommended per minimum time interval or, if the labeling recommends more than one dosage, in terms of the minimum dosage recommended per minimum time interval.
</P>
<P>(2) May contain an indication for the symptomatic relief of hyperacidity associated with the diagnosis of peptic ulcer, gastritis, peptic esophagitis, gastric hyperacidity, and hiatal hernia. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing basic aluminum carbonate gel identified in § 331.11(a)(1)—Indication.</I> “For the treatment, control, or management of hyperphosphatemia, or for use with a low phosphate diet to prevent formation of phosphate urinary stones, through the reduction of phosphates in the serum and urine.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing aluminum identified in § 331.11(a)</I>—<I>Warnings.</I> (i) Prolonged use of aluminum-containing antacids in patients with renal failure may result in or worsen dialysis osteomalacia. Elevated tissue aluminum levels contribute to the development of the dialysis encephalopathy and osteomalacia syndromes. Small amounts of aluminum are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and renal excretion of aluminum is impaired in renal failure. Aluminum is not well removed by dialysis because it is bound to albumin and transferrin, which do not cross dialysis membranes. As a result, aluminum is deposited in bone, and dialysis osteomalacia may develop when large amounts of aluminum are ingested orally by patients with impaired renal function. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Aluminum forms insoluble complexes with phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract, thus decreasing phosphate absorption. Prolonged use of aluminum-containing antacids by normophosphatemic patients may result in hypophosphatemia if phosphate intake is not adequate. In its more severe forms, hypophosphatemia can lead to anorexia, malaise, muscle weakness, and osteomalacia. 
</P>
<P>(b) Professional labeling for an antacid-antiflatulent combination may contain the information allowed for health professionals for antacids and antiflatulents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 19874, June 4, 1974. Redesignated and amended at 55 FR 19859, May 11, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="332" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 332—ANTIFLATULENT PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 19877, June 4, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>An over-the-counter antiflatulent product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the following conditions and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Antigas.</I> A term that may be used interchangeably with the term antiflatulent. Neither term should be considered as describing the mechanism of action of the active ingredient contained in the product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 8838, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.10   Antiflatulent active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>Simethicone; maximum daily dose 500 mg. There is no dosage limitation at this time for professional labeling. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.15" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.15   Combination with non-antiflatulent active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>An antiflatulent may contain any generally recognized as safe and effective antacid ingredient(s) if it is indicated for use solely for the concurrent symptoms of gas associated with heartburn, sour stomach or acid indigestion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.30" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.30   Labeling of antiflatulent drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “antiflatulent,” “antigas,” or “antiflatulent (antigas).”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” one or more of the phrases listed in this paragraph (b), as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) (Select one of the following: “Alleviates or Relieves”) “the symptoms referred to as gas.”
</P>
<P>(2) (Select one of the following: “Alleviates” or “Relieves”) (select one or more of the following: “bloating,” “pressure,” “fullness,” or “stuffed feeling”) “commonly referred to as gas.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption from the general accidental overdose warning.</I> The labeling for antiflatulent drug products containing simethicone identified in § 332.10 and antacid/antiflatulent combination drug products provided for in § 332.15, containing the active ingredients identified in § 331.11(a), (b), and (d) through (m) of this chapter are exempt from the requirement in § 330.1(g) of this chapter that the labeling bear the general warning statement “In case of accidental overdose, seek professional assistance or contact a poison control center immediately.” The labeling must continue to bear the first part of the general warning in § 330.1(g) of this chapter, which states, “Keep this and all drugs out of the reach of children.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 19877, June 4, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 11719, Mar. 13, 1975; 51 FR 16266, May 1, 1986; 51 FR 27763, Aug. 1, 1986; 52 FR 7830, Mar. 13, 1987; 61 FR 8838, Mar. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.31" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.13.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.31   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of the product provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain as additional indications postoperative gas pain or for use in endoscopic examination. 
</P>
<P>(b) Professional labeling for an antiflatulent-antacid combination may contain information allowed for health professionals for antacids and antiflatulents. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="333" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 333—TOPICAL ANTIMICROBIAL DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 47322, Dec. 11, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—First Aid Antibiotic Drug Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.101" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter first aid antibiotic drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this subpart and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.103" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>First aid antibiotic.</I> An antibiotic-containing drug product applied topically to the skin to help prevent infection in minor cuts, scrapes, and burns.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47322, Dec. 11, 1987, as amended at 64 FR 403, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.110" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.110   First aid antibiotic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The product consists of any of the following active ingredients within the specified concentration established for each ingredient and in the specified dosage form:
</P>
<P>(a) Bacitracin ointment containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(b) Bacitracin zinc ointment containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin zinc in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(c) Chlortetracycline hydrochloride ointment containing, in each gram, 30 milligrams of chlortetracycline hydrochloride in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(d) Neomycin sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin in a suitable water soluble or oleaginous ointment base.
</P>
<P>(e) Neomycin sulfate cream containing, in each gram, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin in a suitable cream base.
</P>
<P>(f) Tetracycline hydrochloride ointment containing, in each gram, 30 milligrams of tetracycline hydrochloride in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47322, Dec. 11, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 18838, May 25, 1988; 64 FR 403, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.120" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.120   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The following combinations are permitted provided each active ingredient is present within the established concentration and in the specified dosage form, and the product is labeled in accordance with § 333.160.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Combinations of antibiotic active ingredients.</I> (1) Bacitracin-neomycin sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin and 3.5 milligrams of neomycin in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(2) Bacitracin-neomycin sulfate-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, in a suitable ointment base the following:
</P>
<P>(i) 500 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, and 5,000 units of polymyxin B; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 400 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, and 5,000 units of polymyxin B;
</P>
<P>(3) Bacitracin-polymyxin B sulfate topical aerosol containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin and 5,000 units of polymyxin B in a suitable vehicle, packaged in a pressurized container with suitable inert gases.
</P>
<P>(4) Bacitracin zinc-neomycin sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin and 3.5 milligrams of neomycin in a suitable ointment base. 
</P>
<P>(5) Bacitracin zinc-neomycin sulfate-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, in a suitable ointment base the following:
</P>
<P>(i) 400 units of bacitracin, 3 milligrams of neomycin, and 8,000 units of polymyxin B; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 400 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, and 5,000 units of polymyxin B; or
</P>
<P>(iii) 500 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, and 5,000 units of polymyxin B; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 500 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, and 10,000 units of polymyxin B;
</P>
<P>(6) Bacitracin zinc-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin and 10,000 units of polymyxin B in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(7) Bacitracin zinc-polymyxin B sulfate topical aerosol containing, in each gram, 120 units of bacitracin and 2,350 units of polymyxin B in a suitable vehicle, packaged in a pressurized container with suitable inert gases. 
</P>
<P>(8) Bacitracin zinc-polymyxin B sulfate topical powder containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin and 10,000 units of polymyxin B in a suitable base. 
</P>
<P>(9) Neomycin sulfate-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin and 5,000 units of polymyxin B in a suitable water miscible base.
</P>
<P>(10) Neomycin sulfate-polymyxin B sulfate cream containing, in each gram, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin and 10,000 units of polymyxin B in a suitable vehicle.
</P>
<P>(11) Oxytetracycline hydrochloride-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, 30 milligrams of oxytetracycline and 10,000 units of polymyxin B in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(12) Oxytetracycline hydrochloride-polymyxin B sulfate topical powder containing, in each gram, 30 milligrams of oxytetracycline and 10,000 units of polymyxin B with a suitable filler.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combinations of first aid antibiotic active ingredients and local anesthetic active ingredients.</I> (1) Bacitracin ointment containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(2) Bacitracin-neomycin sulfate-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, in a suitable ointment base the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) 500 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, 5,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 400 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, 5,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) Bacitracin-polymyxin B sulfate topical aerosol containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin and 5,000 units of polymyxin B and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient in a suitable vehicle, packaged in a pressurized container with suitable inert gases.
</P>
<P>(4) Bacitracin zinc-neomycin sulfate-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, in a suitable ointment base the following:
</P>
<P>(i) 400 units of bacitracin, 3 milligrams of neomycin, 8,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 400 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, 5,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient; or
</P>
<P>(iii) 500 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, 5,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 500 units of bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, 10,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient;
</P>
<P>(5) Bacitracin zinc-polymyxin B sulfate ointment containing, in each gram, 500 units of bacitracin, 10,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient in a suitable ointment base.
</P>
<P>(6) Neomycin sulfate-polymyxin B sulfate cream containing, in each gram, 3.5 milligrams of neomycin, 10,000 units of polymyxin B, and any single generally recognized as safe and effective amine or “caine”-type local anesthetic active ingredient in a suitable vehicle.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47322, Dec. 11, 1987; 52 FR 48792, Dec. 24, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 18838, May 25, 1988; 55 FR 9722, Mar. 15, 1990; 55 FR 40381, Oct. 3, 1990; 55 FR 50172, Dec. 5, 1990; 64 FR 403, Jan. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.150" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.150   Labeling of first aid antibiotic drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “first aid antibiotic.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following: “First aid to help” [select one of the following: “prevent,” (“decrease” (“the risk of” or “the chance of”)), (“reduce” (“the risk of” or “the chance of”)), “guard against,” or “protect against”] [select one of the following: “infection,” “bacterial contamination,” or “skin infection”] “in minor cuts, scrapes, and burns.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) “For external use only. Do not use in the eyes or apply over large areas of the body. In case of deep or puncture wounds, animal bites, or serious burns, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing chlortetracycline hydrochloride or tetracycline hydrochloride.</I>“Stop use and consult a doctor if the condition persists or gets worse. Do not use longer than 1 week unless directed by doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For any product containing bacitracin, bacitracin zinc, neomycin, neomycin sulfate, polymyxin B, and/or polymyxin B sulfate.</I> “Stop use and consult a doctor if the condition persists or gets worse, or if a rash or other allergic reaction develops. Do not use if you are allergic to any of the ingredients. Do not use longer than 1 week unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements under the heading “Directions”: (1) <I>For ointment and cream products.</I> “Clean the affected area. Apply a small amount of this product (an amount equal to the surface area of the tip of a finger) on the area 1 to 3 times daily. May be covered with a sterile bandage.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For powder products.</I> “Clean the affected area. Apply a light dusting of the powder on the area 1 to 3 times daily. May be covered with a sterile bandage.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For aerosol products.</I> “Clean the affected area. Spray a small amount of this product on the area 1 to 3 times daily. May be covered with a sterile bandage.”
</P>
<P>(e) The word “doctor” may be substituted for the word “physician” in any of the labeling statements in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47332, Dec. 11, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 58472, Nov. 15, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.160" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.160   Labeling of permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>Statements of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> For a combination drug product that has an established name, the labeling of the product states the established name of the combination drug product, followed by the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs. For a combination drug product that does not have an established name, the labeling of the product states the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the indication(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the “Indications” sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For permitted combinations identified in § 333.120(a).</I> The indications in § 333.150 should be used. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For permitted combinations identified in § 333.120(b).</I> In addition to the required indication identified in § 333.150, the labeling of the product may state, under the heading “Indications,” the following additional indication: “First aid for the temporary relief of” (select one of the following: “pain,” “discomfort,” “pain or discomfort” or “pain and itching”) “in minor cuts, scrapes, and burns.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Warnings,” the warning(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the warnings sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Directions,” directions that conform to the directions established for each ingredient in the directions sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs. When the time intervals or age limitations for administrations of the individual ingredients differ, the directions for the combination product may not exceed any maximum dosage limits established for the individual ingredients in the applicable OTC drug monograph. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Topical Antifungal Drug Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 49898, Sept. 23, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 333.201" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.201   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter antifungal drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this subpart and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Reference in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.203" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.203   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Antifungal.</I> A drug which inhibits the growth and reproduction of fungal cells and decreases the number of fungi present. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Athlete's foot.</I> An infection of the feet caused by certain dermatophytic fungi. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dermatophyte.</I> A fungus that invades and lives upon the skin or in the hair or nails. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fungus.</I> Any of a large division of plants, including dermatophytes, yeasts, and molds, characterized by a simple cell structure and the absence of chlorophyll. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Jock itch.</I> A chronic and recurrent infection caused by certain dermatophytic fungi; affects the upper, inner thighs and sometimes extends to the groin and the pubic area; the condition most frequently occurs in men, but may also occur in women. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Ringworm.</I> A skin infection caused by certain dermatophytic fungi. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.210" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.210   Antifungal active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any one of the following within the specified concentration established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) Clioquinol 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) Haloprogin 1 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Miconazole nitrate 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) Povidone-iodine 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) Tolnaftate 1 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) Undecylenic acid, calcium undecylenate, copper undecylenate, and zinc undecylenate may be used individually or in any ratio that provides a total undecylenate concentration of 10 to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) Clotrimazole 1 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 49898, Sept. 23, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 5943, Feb. 8, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.250" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.250   Labeling of antifungal drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “antifungal.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the phrase listed in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section and may contain the additional phrase listed in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 333.210 labeled for the treatment of athlete's foot, jock itch, and ringworm.</I> (i) (Select one of the following: “Treats,” “For the treatment of,” “For effective treatment of,” “Cures,” “For the cure of,” “Clears up,” or “Proven clinically effective in the treatment of”) “most” (select one condition from any one or more of the following groups of conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) “Athlete's foot,” athlete's foot (dermatophytosis),” “athlete's foot (tinea pedis),” or “tinea pedis (athlete's foot)”;
</P>
<P>(B) “Jock itch,” “jock itch (tinea cruris),” or “tinea cruris (jock itch)”; or
</P>
<P>(C) “Ringworm,” “ringworm (tinea corporis),” or “tinea corporis (ringworm).”)
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the information identified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the labeling of the product may contain the following statement: (Select one of the following: “Relieves,” “For relief of,” “For effective relief of,” or “Soothes,”) (select one or more of the following: “Itching,” “scaling,” “cracking,” “burning,” “redness,” “soreness,” “irritation,” “discomfort,” “chafing associated with jock itch,” “itchy, scaly skin between the toes,” or “itching, burning feet”).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing the ingredient identified in § 333.210(e) labeled for the prevention of athlete's foot.</I> (i) (Select one of the following: “Clinically proven to prevent,” “Prevents,” “Proven effective in the prevention of,” “Helps prevent,” “For the prevention of,” “For the prophylaxis (prevention) of,” “Guards against,” or “Prevents the recurrence of”) “most” (select one of the following: “Athlete's foot,” “athlete's foot (dermatophytosis),” “athlete's foot (tinea pedis),” or “tinea pedis (athlete's foot)”) “with daily use.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the information identified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the labeling of the product may contain the following statement: “Clears up most athlete's foot infection and with daily use helps keep it from coming back.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 330.210.</I> (i) “Do not use on children under 2 years of age unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “For external use only.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “Avoid contact with the eyes.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products labeled according to paragraph (b)(1) of this section for the treatment of athlete's foot and ringworm.</I> “If irritation occurs or if there is no improvement within 4 weeks, discontinue use and consult a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products labeled according to paragraph (b)(1) of this section for the treatment of jock itch.</I> “If irritation occurs or if there is no improvement within 2 weeks, discontinue use and consult a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products labeled according to paragraph (b)(2) of this section for the prevention of athlete's foot.</I> “If irritation occurs, discontinue use and consult a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing the ingredient identified in § 333.210(a) labeled according to paragraph (b)(1) of this section.</I> The following statements must appear in boldface type as the first warnings under the “Warnings” heading. (i) “Do not use on children under 2 years of age.” (This warning is to be used in place of the warning in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(ii) “Do not use for diaper rash.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements under the heading “Directions”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products labeled according to paragraph (b)(1) of this section for the treatment of athlete's foot, jock itch, and ringworm.</I> [Select one of the following: “Clean” or “Wash”] “the affected area and dry thoroughly. Apply” (the word “spray” may be used to replace the word “apply” for aerosol products) “a thin layer of the product over affected area twice daily (morning and night) or as directed by a doctor. Supervise children in the use of this product. For athlete's foot: Pay special attention to spaces between the toes; wear well-fitting, ventilated shoes, and change shoes and socks at least once daily. For athlete's foot and ringworm, use daily for 4 weeks; for jock itch, use daily for 2 weeks. If condition persists longer, consult a doctor. This product is not effective on the scalp or nails.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products labeled according to paragraph (b)(2) of this section for the prevention of athlete's foot.</I> “To prevent athlete's foot,” (select one of the following: “clean” or “wash”) “the feet and dry thoroughly. Apply” (the word “spray” may be used to replace the word “apply” for aerosol products) “a thin layer of the product to the feet once or twice daily (morning and/or night). Supervise children in the use of this product. Pay special attention to spaces between the toes; wear well-fitting, ventilated shoes, and change shoes and socks at least once daily.” 
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 49898, Sept. 23, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 52305, Aug. 29, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.280" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.280   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain the following additional indication: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For products containing haloprogin or miconazole nitrate identified in § 333.210 (a) and (c).</I> “For the treatment of superficial skin infections caused by yeast (<I>Candida albicans</I>).” 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Topical Acne Drug Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 41019, Aug. 16, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 333.301" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.301   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter acne drug product in a form suitable for topical application is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this subpart and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.303" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.303   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acne.</I> A disease involving the oil glands and hair follicles of the skin which is manifested by blackheads, whiteheads, acne pimples, and acne blemishes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acne blemish.</I> A flaw in the skin resulting from acne. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acne drug product.</I> A drug product used to reduce the number of acne blemishes, acne pimples, blackheads, and whiteheads. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acne pimple.</I> A small, prominent, inflamed elevation of the skin resulting from acne. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Blackhead.</I> A condition of the skin that occurs in acne and is characterized by a black tip. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Whitehead.</I> A condition of the skin that occurs in acne and is characterized by a small, firm, whitish elevation of the skin. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.310" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.310   Acne active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Benzoyl peroxide, 2.5 to 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) Resorcinol, 2 percent, when combined with sulfur in accordance with § 333.320(a).
</P>
<P>(c) Resorcinol monoacetate, 3 percent, when combined with sulfur in accordance with § 333.320(b).
</P>
<P>(d) Salicylic acid, 0.5 to 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) Sulfur, 3 to 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) Sulfur, 3 to 8 percent, when combined with resorcinol or resorcinol monoacetate in accordance with § 333.320.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 9776, Mar. 4, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.320" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.320   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Resorcinol identified in § 333.310(b) may be combined with sulfur identified in § 333.310(f).
</P>
<P>(b) Resorcinol monoacetate identified in § 333.310(c) may be combined with sulfur identified in § 333.310(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 9776, Mar. 4, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.350" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.14.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.350   Labeling of acne drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “acne medication,” “acne treatment,” “acne medication” (insert dosage form, e.g., “cream,” “gel,” “lotion,” or “ointment”), or “acne treatment” (insert dosage form, e.g., “cream,” “gel,” “lotion,” or “ointment”).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the phrase listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and may contain any of the additional phrases listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) “For the” (select one of the following: “management” or “treatment”) “of acne.” 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the information identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the labeling of the product may contain any one or more of the following statements: 
</P>
<P>(i) (Select one of the following: “Clears,” “Clears up,” “Clears up most,” “Dries,” “Dries up,” “Dries and clears,” “Helps clear,” “Helps clear up,” “Reduces the number of,” or “Reduces the severity of”) (select one or more of the following: “acne blemishes,” “acne pimples,” “blackheads,” or “whiteheads”) which may be followed by “and allows skin to heal.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Penetrates pores to” (select one of the following: “eliminate most,” “control,” “clear most,” or “reduce the number of”) (select one or more of the following: “acne blemishes,” “acne pimples,” “blackheads,” or “whiteheads”). 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Helps keep skin clear of new” (select one or more of the following: “acne blemishes,” “acne pimples,” “blackheads,” or “whiteheads”). 
</P>
<P>(iv) “Helps prevent new” (select one or more of the following: “acne blemishes,” “acne pimples,” “blackheads,” or “whiteheads”) which may be followed by “from forming.” 
</P>
<P>(v) “Helps prevent the development of new” (select one or more of the following: “acne blemishes,” “acne pimples,” “blackheads,” or “whiteheads”). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredients identified in § 330.310.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling states “For external use only.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] skin irritation and dryness is more likely to occur if you use another topical acne medication at the same time. If irritation occurs, only use one topical acne medication at a time.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing sulfur identified in § 333.310(e) and (f).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling states “Do not use on [bullet] broken skin [bullet] large areas of the skin.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] apply only to areas with acne.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing any combination identified in § 333.320.</I> (i) The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] rinse right away with water if it gets in eyes.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “Stop use and ask a doctor [bullet] if skin irritation occurs or gets worse.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing benzoyl peroxide identified in § 333.310(a).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling states “Do not use if you [bullet] have very sensitive skin [bullet] are sensitive to benzoyl peroxide.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] avoid unnecessary sun exposure and use a sunscreen [bullet] avoid contact with the eyes, lips, and mouth [bullet] avoid contact with hair and dyed fabrics, which may be bleached by this product [bullet] skin irritation may occur, characterized by redness, burning, itching, peeling, or possibly swelling. Irritation may be reduced by using the product less frequently or in a lower concentration.”
</P>
<P>(iii) The labeling states “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] irritation becomes severe.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products applied containing any ingredient identified in § 333.310.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] clean the skin thoroughly before applying this product [bullet] cover the entire affected area with a thin layer one to three times daily [bullet] because excessive drying of the skin may occur, start with one application daily, then gradually increase to two or three times daily if needed or as directed by a doctor [bullet] if bothersome dryness or peeling occurs, reduce application to once a day or every other day.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products applied and left on the skin containing benzoyl peroxide identified in § 333.310(a).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling states the directions in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “[bullet] if going outside, apply sunscreen after using this product. If irritation or sensitivity develops, stop use of both products and ask a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products applied and removed from the skin containing any ingredient identified in § 333.310.</I> Products, such as soaps and masks, may be applied and removed and should include appropriate directions. All products containing benzoyl peroxide should include the directions in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Optional directions.</I> In addition to the required directions in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section, the product may contain the following optional labeling: “<I>Sensitivity Test for a New User.</I> Apply product sparingly to one or two small affected areas during the first 3 days. If no discomfort occurs, follow the directions stated (select one of the following: ‘elsewhere on this label,’ ‘above,’ or ‘below’).”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 41019, Aug. 16, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 9776, Mar. 4, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="335" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 335—ANTIDIARRHEAL DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 18881, April 17, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter antidiarrheal drug product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Antidiarrheal.</I> A drug that can be shown by objective measurement to treat or control (stop) the symptoms of diarrhea.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diarrhea.</I> A condition characterized by increased frequency of loose, watery stools (three or more daily) during a limited period (24 to 48 hours), usually with no identifiable cause.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Travelers' diarrhea.</I> A subset of diarrhea occurring in travelers that is most commonly caused by an infectious agent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18881, Apr. 17, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 26302, May 12, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.10   Antidiarrheal active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any one of the following when used within the dosage limits established for each ingredient in § 335.50(d):
</P>
<P>(a) Bismuth subsalicylate.
</P>
<P>(b) Kaolin.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.15.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.50   Labeling of antidiarrheal drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product either as an “antidiarrheal” or “for diarrhea.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Use,” one or more of the phrases listed in this paragraph (b), as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b) may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing bismuth subsalicylate identified in § 335.10(a).</I> The labeling states [select one of the following: “controls” or “relieves”] [select one or both of the following: “diarrhea” or “travelers' diarrhea”]. If both “diarrhea” and “travelers' diarrhea” are selected, each shall be preceded by a bullet in accordance with § 201.66(b)(4) and (d)(4) of this chapter and the heading “Uses” shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing kaolin identified in § 335.10(b).</I> The labeling states “helps firm stool within 24 to 48 hours”.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional indications</I>—(i) When any additional indications are used, the heading “Uses” shall be used and each listed use shall be preceded by a bullet in accord with § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the indication in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, one or both of the following may be used for products containing bismuth subsalicylate in § 335.10(a): “[bullet] reduces number of bowel movements” “[bullet] helps firm stool”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 335.10.</I> (i) “Do not use if you have [bullet] bloody or black stool”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Ask a doctor before use if you have [bullet] fever [bullet] mucus in the stool”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing bismuth subsalicylate identified in § 335.10(a).</I> (i) The following shall appear in accordance with § 201.66(c)(5)(ii) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(A) The Reye's syndrome warning in § 201.314(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(B) “Allergy alert: Contains salicylate. Do not take if you are [bullet] allergic to salicylates (including aspirin), [bullet] taking other salicylate products”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Do not use if you have [bullet] an ulcer [bullet] a bleeding problem”.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are taking any drug for [bullet] anticoagulation (thinning the blood) [bullet] diabetes [bullet] gout [bullet] arthritis”.
</P>
<P>(iv) “When using this product a temporary, but harmless, darkening of the stool and/or tongue may occur”.
</P>
<P>(v) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] symptoms get worse [bullet] ringing in the ears or loss of hearing occurs [bullet] diarrhea lasts more than 2 days”.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing kaolin identified in § 335.10(b).</I> (i) “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are taking any other drugs. Try to use at least 3 hours before or after taking any other drugs.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] symptoms get worse [bullet] diarrhea lasts more than 2 days”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 335.10.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] drink plenty of clear fluids to help prevent dehydration caused by diarrhea”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing bismuth subsalicylate identified in § 335.10(a).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] adults and children 12 years and over:” 525 milligrams “every 
<FR>1/2</FR> to 1 hour, or” 1,050 milligrams “every hour as needed [bullet] do not exceed” 4,200 milligrams “in 24 hours [bullet] use until diarrhea stops but not more than 2 days [bullet] children under 12 years: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing kaolin identified in § 335.10(b).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] adults and children 12 years and over:” 26.2 grams “after each loose stool [bullet] continue to take every 6 hours until stool is firm but not more than 2 days [bullet] do not exceed” [262 grams] “in 24 hours [bullet] children under 12 years of age: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Products that meet the criteria established in § 201.66(d)(10) of this chapter.</I> The information described in § 201.66(c) of this chapter shall be printed in accordance with the following specifications.
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling shall meet the requirements of § 201.66(c) of this chapter except that the information in § 201.66(c)(3) of this chapter may be omitted, and the information in § 201.66(c)(5) and (c)(6) of this chapter may be presented as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The words “Contains salicylate.” may be omitted from the warning in § 335.50(c)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>(ii) The subheading “When using this product” in § 335.50(c)(2)(iv) may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(iii) The words “continue to” may be omitted from the directions in § 335.50(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling shall be printed in accordance with the requirements of § 201.66(d) of this chapter except that any requirements related to § 201.66(c)(3) of this chapter and the bullet in the warning in § 335.50(c)(1)(i) may be omitted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18881, Apr. 17, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 26302, May 12, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="336" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 336—ANTIEMETIC DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 15892, Apr. 30, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter antiemetic drug product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this part and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Antiemetic.</I> An agent that prevents or treats nausea and vomiting. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.10   Antiemetic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the dosage limits established for each ingredient in § 336.50(d): 
</P>
<P>(a) Cyclizine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) Dimenhydrinate. 
</P>
<P>(c) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(d) Meclizine hydrochloride. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.50   Labeling of antiemetic drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “antiemetic.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states the following under the heading “Indications,” “For the prevention and treatment of the nausea, vomiting, or dizziness associated with motion sickness.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings:” 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 336.10</I>—(i) <I>When labeled for use in adults and for those products that can be and are labeled for use in children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not take this product, unless directed by a doctor, if you have a breathing problem such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, or if you have glaucoma or difficulty in urination due to enlargement of the prostate gland.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For those products that can be and are labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not give this product to children who have a breathing problem such as chronic bronchitis or who have glaucoma, without first consulting the child's doctor.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing cyclizine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(a).</I> “Do not give to children under 6 years of age unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing dimenhydrinate identified in § 336.10(b).</I> “Do not give to children under 2 years of age unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(c).</I> “Do not give to children under 6 years of age unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing meclizine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(d).</I> “Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products containing cyclizine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(a) or meclizine hydrochloride identified in § 330.10(d).</I> “May cause drowsiness; alcohol, sedatives, and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this product. Do not take this product if you are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting your doctor. Use caution when driving a motor vehicle or operating machinery.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For products containing dimenhydrinate identified in § 336.10(b) or diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(c).</I> “May cause marked drowsiness; alcohol, sedatives, and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this product. Do not take this product if you are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting your doctor. Use caution when driving a motor vehicle or operating machinery.” 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(c).</I> “Do not use [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> with any other product containing diphenhydramine, including one used on skin”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing cyclizine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(a).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 50 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 200 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: Oral dosage is 25 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing dimenhydrinate identified in § 336.10(b).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 50 to 100 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 400 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: Oral dosage is 25 to 50 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 150 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 2 to under 6 years of age: Oral dosage is 12.5 to 25 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(c).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 25 to 50 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 300 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: Oral dosage is 12.5 to 25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 150 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing meclizine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(d).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 25 to 50 milligrams once daily, or as directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 15892, Apr. 30, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35809, Sept. 15, 1988; 59 FR 16982, Apr. 11, 1994; 67 FR 72559, Dec. 6, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.80" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.80   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain the following additional indications. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For products containing cyclizine hydrochloride, dimenhydrinate, and diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10 (a), (b), and (c).</I> “For the treatment of vertigo of motion sickness.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For products containing meclizine hydrochloride identified in § 336.10(d).</I> “For the treatment of vertigo.” 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="338" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 338—NIGHTTIME SLEEP-AID DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 6826, Feb. 14, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter nighttime sleep-aid drug product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Nighttime sleep-aid.</I> A drug that is useful for the relief of occasional sleeplessness by individuals who have difficulty falling asleep. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.10   Nighttime sleep-aid active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the dosage limits established for each ingredient in § 338.50(d): 
</P>
<P>(a) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) Diphenhydramine citrate. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.17.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.50   Labeling of nighttime sleep-aid drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “nighttime sleep-aid.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” one or more of the phrases listed in this paragraph. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) (“Helps you” or “Reduces time to”) “fall asleep if you have difficulty falling asleep.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “For relief of occasional sleeplessness.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “Helps to reduce difficulty falling asleep.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Do not give to children under 12 years of age.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “If sleeplessness persists continuously for more than 2 weeks, consult your doctor. Insomnia may be a symptom of serious underlying medical illness.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “Do not take this product, unless directed by a doctor, if you have a breathing problem such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, or if you have glaucoma or difficulty in urination due to enlargement of the prostate gland.”
</P>
<P>(4) “Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this product. Do not take this product if you are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting your doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(5) “Do not use [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> with any other product containing diphenhydramine, even one used on skin”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 338.10(a).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 50 milligrams at bedtime if needed, or as directed by a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate identified in § 338.10(b).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 76 milligrams at bedtime if needed, or as directed by a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 6826, Feb. 14, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 16983, Apr. 11, 1994; 67 FR 72559, Dec. 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="340" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 340—STIMULANT DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 6105, Feb. 29, 1988, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter stimulant drug product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this part and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Stimulant.</I> A drug which helps restore mental alertness or wakefulness during fatigue or drowsiness.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredient</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.10   Stimulant active ingredient.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of caffeine when used within the dosage limits established in § 340.50(d).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.50   Labeling of stimulant drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “altertness aid” or a “stimulant.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following: “Helps restore mental alertness or wakefulness when experiencing fatigue or drowsiness.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the Act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) “The recommended dose of this product contains about as much caffeine as a cup of coffee. Limit the use of caffeine-containing medications, foods, or beverages while taking this product because too much caffeine may cause nervousness, irritability, sleeplessness, and, occasionally, rapid heart beat.”
</P>
<P>(2) “For occasional use only. Not intended for use as a substitute for sleep. If fatigue or drowsiness persists or continues to recur, consult a” (select one of the following: “physician” or “doctor”).
</P>
<P>(3) “Do not give to children under 12 years of age.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 100 to 200 milligrams not more often than every 3 to 4 hours.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="341" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 341—COLD, COUGH, ALLERGY, BRONCHODILATOR, AND ANTIASTHMATIC DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 341 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter cold, cough, allergy, bronchodilator, or antiasthmatic drug product in a form suitable for oral, inhalant, or topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this part and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 35339, Oct. 2, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bronchodilator drug.</I> A drug used to overcome spasms that cause narrowing of the bronchial air tubes, such as in the symptomatic treatment of the wheezing and shortness of breath of asthma. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral antitussive drug.</I> A drug that either is taken by mouth or is dissolved in the mouth in the form of a lozenge and acts systemically to relieve cough. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Topical antitussive drug.</I> A drug that relieves cough when inhaled after being applied topically to the throat or chest in the form of an ointment or from a steam vaporizer, or when dissolved in the mouth in the form of a lozenge for a local effect.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expectorant drug.</I> A drug taken orally to promote or facilitate the removal of secretions from the respiratory airways. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Antihistamine drug.</I> A drug used for the relief of the symptoms of hay fever and upper respiratory allergies (allergic rhinitis). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Oral nasal decongestant drug.</I> A drug that is taken by mouth and acts systemically to reduce nasal congestion caused by acute or chronic rhinitis. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Topical nasal decongestant drug.</I> A drug that when applied topically inside the nose, in the form of drops, jellies, or sprays, or when inhaled intranasally reduces nasal congestion caused by acute or chronic rhinitis. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calibrated dropper.</I> A dropper calibrated such that the volume error incurred in measuring any liquid does not exceed 15 percent under normal use conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Effervescent dosage form.</I> A dosage form intended to be dissolved in water before administration. It contains, in addition to the active ingredient(s), mixtures of acids (citric acid, tartaric acid) and sodium bicarbonate, which release carbon dioxide when dissolved in water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 35339, Oct. 2, 1986, as amended at 54 FR 8509, Feb. 28, 1989; 55 FR 40382, Oct. 3, 1990; 57 FR 58374, Dec. 9, 1992; 59 FR 43409, Aug. 23, 1994; 71 FR 43362, Aug. 1, 2006] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.12   Antihistamine active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the dosage limits established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) Brompheniramine maleate.
</P>
<P>(b) Chlorcyclizine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(c) Chlorpheniramine maleate.
</P>
<P>(d) Dexbrompheniramine maleate.
</P>
<P>(e) Dexchlorpheniramine maleate.
</P>
<P>(f) Diphenhydramine citrate.
</P>
<P>(g) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(h) Doxylamine succinate.
</P>
<P>(i) Phenindamine tartrate.
</P>
<P>(j) Pheniramine maleate. 
</P>
<P>(k) Pyrilamine maleate.
</P>
<P>(l) Thonzylamine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(m) Triprolidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 58374, Dec. 9, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 4218, Jan. 28, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.14" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.14   Antitussive active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredients of the product consist of any of the following when used within the dosage limits and in the dosage forms established for each ingredient in § 341.74(d):
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Oral antitussives.</I> (1) Chlophedianol hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Codeine ingredients.</I> The following ingredients may be used only in combination in accordance with § 290.2 and 21 CFR 1308.15(c).
</P>
<P>(i) Codeine.
</P>
<P>(ii) Codeine phosphate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Codeine sulfate.
</P>
<P>(3) Dextromethorphan.
</P>
<P>(4) Dextromethorphan hydrobromide.
</P>
<P>(5) Diphenhydramine citrate.
</P>
<P>(6) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Topical antitussives.</I> (1) Camphor.
</P>
<P>(2) Menthol.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30055, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 29174, June 3, 1994; 67 FR 4907, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.16" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.16   Bronchodilator active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredients of the product consist of any of the following when used within the dosage limits established for each ingredient: 
</P>
<P>(a) Ephedrine. 
</P>
<P>(b) Ephedrine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(c) Ephedrine sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(d) Epinephrine. 
</P>
<P>(e) Epinephrine bitartrate. 
</P>
<P>(f) Racephedrine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(g) Racepinephrine hydrochloride.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 35339, Oct. 2, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.18" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.18   Expectorant active ingredient.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product is guaifenesin when used within the dosage limits established in § 341.78(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 8509, Feb. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.20   Nasal decongestant active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the dosage limits and in the dosage forms established for each ingredient: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Oral nasal decongestants.</I> (1) Phenylephrine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(3) Pseudoephedrine sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(4) Phenylephrine bitartrate in an effervescent dosage form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Topical nasal decongestants.</I> (1) Levmetamfetamine.
</P>
<P>(2) Ephedrine. 
</P>
<P>(3) Ephedrine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(4) Ephedrine sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(6) Naphazoline hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(7) Oxymetazoline hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(8) Phenylephrine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(9) Propylhexedrine. 
</P>
<P>(10) Xylometazoline hydrochloride.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 43409, Aug. 23, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 40650, July 30, 1998; 71 FR 43362, Aug. 1, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.40" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.40   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The following combinations are permitted provided each active ingredient is present within the dosage limits established in parts 341, 343, and 356 of this chapter and the product is labeled in accordance with §§ 341.70 or 341.85:
</P>
<P>(a) Any single antihistamine active ingredient identified in § 341.12 may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(b) Any single antihistamine active ingredient identified in § 341.12 may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(c) Any single antihistamine active ingredient identified in § 341.12 may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(d) Any single antihistamine active ingredient identified in § 341.12(a) through (e) and (h) through (m) may be combined with any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a)(1) through (a)(4) provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85(c)(4). Diphenhydramine citrate in §§ 341.12(f) and 341.14(a)(5) or diphenhydramine hydrochloride in §§ 341.12(g) and 341.14(a)(6) may be both the antihistamine and the antitussive active ingredient provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.70(a).
</P>
<P>(e) Any single antihistamine active ingredient identified in § 341.12(a) through (e) and (h) through (m) may be combined with any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a)(1) through (a)(4) and any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85(c)(4). Diphenhydramine citrate in §§ 341.12(f) and 341.14(a)(5) or diphenhydramine hydrochloride in §§ 341.12(g) and 341.14(a)(6) may be both the antihistamine and the antitussive active ingredient provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.70(a).
</P>
<P>(f) Any single antihistamine active ingredient identified in § 341.12(a) through (e) and (h) through (m) may be combined with any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a)(1) through (a)(4) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85(c)(4). Diphenhydramine citrate in §§ 341.12(f) and 341.14(a)(5) or diphenhydramine hydrochloride in §§ 341.12(g) and 341.14(a)(6) may be both the antihistamine and the antitussive active ingredient provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.70(a).
</P>
<P>(g) Any single antihistamine active ingredient identified in § 341.12(a) through (e) and (h) through (m) may be combined with any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a)(1) through (a)(4) and any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85(c)(4). Diphenhydramine citrate in §§ 341.12(f) and 341.14(a)(5) or diphenhydramine hydrochloride in §§ 341.12(g) and 341.14(a)(6) may be both the antihistamine and the antitussive active ingredient provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.70(a).
</P>
<P>(h) Any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a)(1) through (a)(4) may be combined with any single expectorant active ingredient identified in § 341.18 provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(i) Any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(j) Any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a)(1) through (a)(4) may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any single expectorant active ingredient identified in § 341.18 provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(k) Any single antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) or (b)(2) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral anesthetic/analgesic active ingredient, or any combination of anesthetic/analgesic active ingredients provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85. If the combination contains a topical antitussive, the product must be formulated in a solid dosage form to be dissolved in the mouth. Menthol in § 341.14(b)(2) and part 356 of this chapter may be both the antitussive and the anesthetic/analgesic active ingredient provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.70(b).
</P>
<P>(l) Any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(m) Any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(n) Any single oral antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a)(1) through (a)(4) may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any single expectorant active ingredient identified in § 341.18 and any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(o) Any single expectorant active ingredient identified in § 341.18 may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(p) Any single expectorant active ingredient identified in § 341.18 may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(q) Any single expectorant active ingredient identified in § 341.18 may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(r) Any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient, or any combination of acetaminophen with other analgesic-antipyretic active ingredients, or any aspirin and antacid combination provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(s) Any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral anesthetic/analgesic active ingredient identified, or any combination of anesthetic/analgesic active ingredients provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(t) Any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) may be combined with any single antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) or (b)(2) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral anesthetic/analgesic active ingredient, or any combination of anesthetic/analgesic active ingredients provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85. If the combination contains a topical antitussive, the product must be formulated in a solid dosage form to be dissolved in the mouth.
</P>
<P>(u) Camphor identified in § 341.14(b)(1) may be combined with menthol identified in § 341.14(b)(2) and eucalyptus oil (1.2 to 1.3 percent) provided that the product is available only in a suitable ointment vehicle and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(v) Levmetamfetamine identified in § 341.20(b)(1) may be combined with aromatics (camphor (54 milligrams (mg)), menthol (80 mg), methyl salicylate (11 mg), and lavender oil (4 mg)) provided that the product is available only as a nasal inhaler and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(w) Any single antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) or (b)(2) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral demulcent active ingredient provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85. If the combination contains a topical antitussive, the product must be formulated in a solid dosage form to be dissolved in the mouth.
</P>
<P>(x) Any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral demulcent active ingredient provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(y) Any single antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) or (b)(2) may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral demulcent active ingredient provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85. If the combination contains a topical antitussive, the product must be formulated in a solid dosage form to be dissolved in the mouth.
</P>
<P>(z) Any single antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) or (b)(2) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral anesthetic/analgesic active ingredient or any combination of anesthetic/analgesic active ingredients and any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral demulcent active ingredient provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85. If the combination contains a topical antitussive, the product must be formulated in a solid dosage form to be dissolved in the mouth.
</P>
<P>(aa) Any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral anesthetic/analgesic active ingredient or any combination of oral anesthetic/analgesic active ingredients and any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral demulcent active ingredient provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85.
</P>
<P>(bb) Any single antitussive active ingredient identified in § 341.14(a) or (b)(2) may be combined with any single oral nasal decongestant active ingredient identified in § 341.20(a) and any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral anesthetic/analgesic active ingredient identified or any combination of anesthetic/analgesic active ingredients and any generally recognized as safe and effective single oral demulcent active ingredient provided that the product is available in either a liquid (to be swallowed) or a solid dosage form (to be dissolved in the mouth and swallowed) and provided that the product is labeled according to § 341.85. If the combination contains a topical antitussive, the product must be formulated in a solid dosage form to be dissolved in the mouth.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78168, Dec. 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.70" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.70   Labeling of OTC drug products containing ingredients that are used for treating concurrent symptoms (in either a single-ingredient or combination drug product).</HEAD>
<P>The statements of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate and diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.14(a)(5) and (a)(6).</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “antihistamine/cough suppressant” or “antihistamine/antitussive (cough suppressant).” The indications shall be combined from §§ 341.72(b) and 341.74(b). The warnings shall be combined from §§ 341.72(c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(4), and (c)(6) and 341.74(c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4). Alternatively, all of the warnings in § 341.74(c) shall be used. The directions for OTC labeling shall follow §§ 341.74(d)(1)(iv) or (d)(1)(v), as applicable. The directions for professional labeling shall follow § 341.90(j) or (k), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For products containing menthol identified in §§ 341.14(b)(2) and 356.12(f) of this chapter.</I> The product contains 5 to 10 milligrams menthol. The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “cough suppressant/oral anesthetic” or “antitussive (cough suppressant)/oral anesthetic.” The indications shall be combined from § 341.74(b) and part 356 of this chapter. The warnings shall be combined from § 341.74(c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) and part 356 of this chapter. The directions shall be: “Directions [in bold type] [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> adults and children 2 years and over: dissolve lozenge slowly in the mouth. Repeat every 2 hours as needed or as directed by a doctor. [bullet] children under 2 years of age: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 15703, Apr. 9, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 78170, Dec. 23, 2002; 68 FR 17881, Apr. 14, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.72" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.72   Labeling of antihistamine drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “antihistamine.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” any of the phrases listed in paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) “Temporarily” (select one of the following: “relieves,” “alleviates,” “decreases,” “reduces,” or “dries”) “runny nose and” (select one of the following: “relieves,” “alleviates,” “decreases,” or “reduces”) “sneezing, itching of the nose or throat, and itchy, watery eyes due to hay fever” (which may be followed by one or both of the following: “or other upper respiratory allergies” or “(allergic rhinitis)”). 
</P>
<P>(2) “For the temporary relief of runny nose, sneezing, itching of the nose or throat, and itchy, watery eyes due to hay fever” (which may be followed by one or both of the following: “or other upper respiratory allergies” or “(allergic rhinitis)”).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings, under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) “May cause excitability especially in children.”
</P>
<P>(2) “Do not take this product, unless directed by a doctor, if you have a breathing problem such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, or if you have glaucoma or difficulty in urination due to enlargement of the prostate gland.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing brompheniramine maleate, chlorcyclizine hydrochloride, chlorpheniramine maleate, dexbrompheniramine maleate, dexchlorpheniramine maleate, phenindamine tartrate, pheniramine maleate, pyrilamine maleate, thonzylamine hydrochloride, or triprolidine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (i), (j), (k), (l), and (m).</I> “May cause drowsiness; alcohol, sedatives, and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this product. Do not take this product if you are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting your doctor. Use caution when driving a motor vehicle or operating machinery.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate, diphenhydramine hydrochloride, or doxylamine succinate identified in § 341.12(f), (g), and (h).</I> “May cause marked drowsiness; alcohol, sedatives, and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this product. Do not take this product if you are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting your doctor. Use caution when driving a motor vehicle or operating machinery.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing phenindamine tartrate identified in § 341.12(i).</I> “May cause nervousness and insomnia in some individuals.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products that are labeled only for use by children under 12 years of age.</I> The labeling of the product contains only the warnings identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(5) of this section as well as the following:
</P>
<P>(i) “Do not give this product to children who have a breathing problem such as chronic bronchitis, or who have glaucoma, without first consulting the child's doctor.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing brompheniramine maleate, chlorpheniramine maleate, dexbrompheniramine maleate, dexchlorpheniramine maleate, phenindamine tartrate, pheniramine maleate, pyrilamine maleate, thonzylamine hydrochloride, or triprolidine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(a), (c), (d), (e), (i), (j), (k), (l), and (m).</I> “May cause drowsiness. Sedatives and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Do not give this product to children who are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting the child's doctor.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate, diphenhydramine hydrochloride, or doxylamine succinate identified in § 341.12(f), (g), and (h).</I> “May cause marked drowsiness. Sedatives and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Do not give this product to children who are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting the child's doctor.”
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate or diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(f) and (g).</I> “Do not use [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> with any other product containing diphenhydramine, even one used on skin”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(7) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate or diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(f) and (g).</I> “Do not use [bullet] with any other product containing diphenhydramine, even one used on skin”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing brompheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(a).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 4 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 24 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 2 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 12 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing chlorcyclizine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(b).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 25 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 12 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing chlorpheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(c).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 4 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 24 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 2 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 12 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing dexbrompheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(d).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 2 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 12 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 1 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 6 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing dexchlorpheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(e).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 2 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 12 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 1 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 6 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate identified in § 341.12(f).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 38 to 76 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 456 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 19 to 38 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 228 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(g).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 25 to 50 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 300 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 12.5 to 25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 150 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>For products containing doxylamine succinate identified in § 341.12(h).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 7.5 to 12.5 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 3.75 to 6.25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 37.5 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>For products containing phenindamine tartrate identified in § 341.12(i).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 150 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 12.5 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>For products containing pheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(j).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 12.5 to 25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 150 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 6.25 to 12.5 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>For products containing pyrilamine maleate identified in § 341.12(k).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 25 to 50 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 200 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 12.5 to 25 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 100 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>For products containing thonzylamine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(l).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 50 to 100 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 600 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 25 to 50 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 300 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>For products containing triprolidine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(m).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 2.5 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 10 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 1.25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 5 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 58374, Dec. 9, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 4218, Jan. 28, 1994; 67 FR 72559, Dec. 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.74" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.74   Labeling of antitussive drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “cough suppressant” or an “antitussive (cough suppressant).”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” any of the phrases listed in this paragraph (b), as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) “Temporarily” (select one of the following: “alleviates,” “calms,” “controls,” “decreases,” “quiets,” “reduces,” “relieves,” or “suppresses”) “cough due to” (select one of the following: “minor bronchial irritation” or “minor throat and bronchial irritation”) (select one of the following: “as may occur with,” “associated with,” or “occurring with”) (select one of the following: “A cold” or “the common cold”) “or inhaled irritants.”
</P>
<P>(2) “Temporarily” (select one of the following: “alleviates,” “calms,” “controls,” “decreases,” “quiets,” “reduces,” “relieves,” or “suppresses”) “cough” (select one of the following: “as may occur with,” “associated with,” or “occurring with”) (select one of the following: “A cold,” “the common cold,” or “inhaled irritants”).
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the required information identified in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section, the labeling of the product may contain any (one or more) of the following statements:
</P>
<P>(i) “Cough suppressant which temporarily” (select one of the following: “Alleviates,” “controls,” “decreases,” “reduces,” “relieves,” or “suppresses”) “the impulse to cough.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Temporarily helps you cough less.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “Temporarily helps to” (select one of the following: “Alleviate,” “control,” “decrease,” “reduce,” “relieve,” or “suppress”) “the cough reflex that causes coughing.”
</P>
<P>(iv) “Temporarily” (select one of the following: “Alleviates,” “controls,” “decreases,” “reduces,” “relieves,” or “suppresses”) “the intensity of coughing.”
</P>
<P>(v) (Select one of the following: “Alleviates,” “Controls,” “Decreases,” “Reduces,” “Relieves,” or “Suppresses”) (select one of the following: “Cough,” “the impulse to cough,” or “your cough”) “to help you” (select one of the following: “Get to sleep,” “sleep,” or “rest”).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>For products containing chlophedianol hydrochloride, codeine ingredients, dextromethorphan, or dextromethorphan hydrobromide identified in § 341.14(a) (1), (2), (3), and (4).</I> “Calms the cough control center and relieves coughing.”
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>For products containing chlophedianol hydrochloride, dextromethorphan, dextromethorphan hydrobromide, camphor, or menthol identified in § 341.14(a) (1), (3), (4) and (b) (1) and (2).</I> (<I>a</I>) “Nonnarcotic cough suppressant for the temporary” (select one of the following: “alleviation,” “control,” “decrease,” “reduction,” “relief,” or “suppression”) “of cough.”
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) (Select one of the following: “Alleviates,” “Controls,” “Decreases,” “Reduces,” “Relieves,” or “Suppresses”) “cough impulses without narcotics.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For oral and topical antitussives.</I> “A persistent cough may be a sign of a serious condition. If cough persists for more than 1 week, tends to recur, or is accompanied by fever, rash, or persistent headache, consult a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For oral and topical antitussives labeled for adults or for adults and children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not take this product for persistent or chronic cough such as occurs with smoking, asthma, or emphysema, or if cough is accompanied by excessive phlegm (mucus) unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For oral and topical antitussives labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not give this product for persistent or chronic cough such as occurs with asthma or if cough is accompanied by excessive phlegm (mucus) unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Oral antitussives</I>—(i) <I>For products containing codeine ingredients identified in § 341.14(a)(2).</I> “May cause or aggravate constipation.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing codeine ingredients identified in § 341.14(a)(2) when labeled only for adults.</I> “Do not take this product if you have a chronic pulmonary disease or shortness of breath unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing codeine ingredients identified in § 341.14(a)(2) when labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not give this product to children who have a chronic pulmonary disease, shortness of breath, or who are taking other drugs unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products containing codeine ingredients identified in § 341.14(a)(2) when labeled for use in adults and children under 12 years of age.</I> “Adults and children who have a chronic pulmonary disease or shortness of breath, or children who are taking other drugs, should not take this product unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products containing dextromethorphan or dextromethorphan hydrobromide as identified in § 341.14 (a)(3) and (a)(4) when labeled for adults or for adults and children under 12 years of age. Drug interaction precaution.</I> “Do not use if you are now taking a prescription monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) (certain drugs for depression, psychiatric, or emotional conditions, or Parkinson's disease), or for 2 weeks after stopping the MAOI drug. If you do not know if your prescription drug contains an MAOI, ask a doctor or pharmacist before taking this product.”
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>For products containing dextromethorphan or dextromethorphan hydrobromide as identified in § 341.14 (a)(3) and (a)(4) when labeled only for children under 12 years of age. Drug interaction precaution.</I> “Do not use in a child who is taking a prescription monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) (certain drugs for depression, psychiatric, or emotional conditions, or Parkinson's disease), or for 2 weeks after stopping the MAOI drug. If you do not know if your child's prescription drug contains an MAOI, ask a doctor or pharmacist before giving this product.”
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate or diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.14 (a)(5) and (a)(6).</I> “May cause excitability especially in children.”
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate or diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.14 (a)(5) and (a)(6) when labeled only for children under 12 years of age</I>—(A) “Do not give this product to children who have a breathing problem such as chronic bronchitis, or who have glaucoma, without first consulting the child's doctor.”
</P>
<P>(B) “May cause marked drowsiness. Sedatives and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Do not give this product to children who are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting the child's doctor.”
</P>
<P>(C) “Do not use [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> with any other product containing diphenhydramine, even one used on skin”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ix) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate or diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.14 (a)(5) and (a)(6) when labeled for use in adults and children under 12 years of age</I>—(A) “Do not take this product, unless directed by a doctor, if you have a breathing problem such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, or if you have glaucoma or difficulty in urination due to enlargement of the prostate gland.”
</P>
<P>(B) “May cause marked drowsiness; alcohol, sedatives, and tranquilizers may increase the drowsiness effect. Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking this product. Do not take this product if you are taking sedatives or tranquilizers, without first consulting your doctor. Use caution when driving a motor vehicle or operating machinery.”
</P>
<P>(C) “Do not use [bullet] with any other product containing diphenhydramine, even one used on skin”. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Topical antitussives</I>—(i) <I>For products containing camphor or menthol identified in § 341.14 (b) (1) and (2) in a suitable ointment vehicle.</I> “For external use only. Do not take by mouth or place in nostrils.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing camphor or menthol identified in § 341.14(b) (1) and (2) for steam inhalation use.</I> “For steam inhalation only. Do not take by mouth.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For any product containing camphor or menthol in a suitable ointment vehicle or for steam inhalation use and meets the definition of one of the signal words (“extremely flammable,” “flammable,” “combustible”) as described in 16 CFR 1500.3(b)(10).</I> The labeling contains the appropriate flammability signal word(s) followed by a colon and the statement “Keep away from fire or flame.” 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For any product containing camphor or menthol in a suitable ointment vehicle and that does not contain a flammability signal word as described in 16 CFR 1500.3(b)(10).</I> “When using this product, do not [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> heat [bullet] microwave [bullet] add to hot water or any container where heating water. May cause splattering and result in burns.” [Information highlighted in bold type.] 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For a definition of the term “bullet,” see § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) <I>For any product containing camphor or menthol in a suitable ointment vehicle and that contains a flammability signal word as described in 16 CFR 1500.3(b)(10).</I> “When using this product, do not [bullet] heat [bullet] microwave [bullet] use near an open flame [bullet] add to hot water or any container where heating water. May cause splattering and result in burns.” [Information highlighted in bold type.] 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>For any product containing camphor or menthol for steam inhalation use.</I> “When using this product, do not [bullet] heat [bullet] microwave [bullet] use near an open flame [bullet] add to hot water or any container where heating water except when adding to cold water only in a hot steam vaporizer. May cause splattering and result in burns.” [Information highlighted in bold type.] 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>For any product formulated in a volatile vehicle.</I> The labeling contains the following statement under the heading “Other information”: “Close container tightly and store at room temperature away from heat.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Oral antitussives</I>—(i) <I>For products containing chlophedianol hydrochloride identified in § 341.14(a)(1).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 25 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 100 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: Oral dosage is 12.5 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 50 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: Consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing codeine ingredients identified in § 341.14(a)(2).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 10 to 20 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 120 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: Oral dosage is 5 to 10 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 60 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: Consult a doctor. A special measuring device should be used to give an accurate dose of this product to children under 6 years of age. Giving a higher dose than recommended by a doctor could result in serious side effects for your child.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing dextromethorphan or dextromethorphan hydrobromide identified in § 341.14(a) (3) and (4).</I> The dosage is equivalent to dextromethorphan hydrobromide. Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 10 to 20 milligrams every 4 hours or 30 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 120 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: Oral dosage is 5 to 10 milligrams every 4 hours or 15 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 60 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 2 to under 6 years of age: Oral dosage is 2.5 to 5 milligrams every 4 hours or 7.5 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 30 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 2 years of age: Consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate identified in § 341.14(a)(5).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 38 milligrams every 4 hours, not to exceed 228 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 19 milligrams every 4 hours, not to exceed 114 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.14(a)(6).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 25 milligrams every 4 hours, not to exceed 150 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 12.5 milligrams every 4 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours, or as directed by a doctor. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Topical antitussives</I>—(i) <I>For products containing camphor identified in § 341.14(b)(1) in a suitable ointment vehicle.</I> The product contains 4.7 to 5.3 percent camphor. “[bullet] see important warnings under ‘When using this product’ [appears as the first statement under the heading “Directions” and is highlighted in bold type] [bullet] adults and children 2 years and older: [bullet] rub on the throat and chest in a thick layer [bullet] cover with a warm, dry cloth if desired [bullet] clothing should be loose about throat and chest to help vapors reach the nose and mouth [bullet] use up to three times daily or as directed by a doctor [bullet] children under 2 years of age: Ask a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing menthol identified in § 341.14(b)(2) in a suitable ointment vehicle.</I> The product contains 2.6 to 2.8 percent menthol. “[bullet] see important warnings under 'When using this product' ” [appears as the first statement under the heading “Directions” and is highlighted in bold type] [bullet] adults and children 2 years and older: [bullet] rub on the throat and chest in a thick layer [bullet] cover with a warm, dry cloth if desired [bullet] clothing should be loose about throat and chest to help vapors reach the nose and mouth [bullet] use up to three times daily or as directed by a doctor [bullet] children under 2 years of age: Ask a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing menthol identified in § 341.14(b)(2) in a lozenge.</I> The product contains 5 to 10 milligrams menthol. Adults and children 2 to under 12 years of age: Allow lozenge to dissolve slowly in the mouth. May be repeated every hour as needed or as directed by a doctor. Children under 2 years of age: Consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products containing camphor identified in § 341.14(b)(1) for steam inhalation use.</I> The product contains 6.2 percent camphor. “[bullet] see important warnings under ‘When using this product’ ” [appears as the first statement under the heading “Directions” and is highlighted in bold type] [bullet] adults and children 2 years and older: (select one of the following, as appropriate: <I>For products formulated to be added directly to cold water inside a hot steam vaporizer.</I> [bullet] use 1 tablespoonful of solution for each quart of water or 1
<FR>1/2</FR> teaspoonsful of solution for each pint of water [bullet] add solution directly to cold water only in a hot steam vaporizer [bullet] follow manufacturer's directions for using vaporizer or <I>For products formulated to be placed in the medication chamber of a hot steam vaporizer.</I> [bullet] place water in the vaporizer and follow manufacturer's directions for using vaporizer [bullet] place solution in the medication chamber only) [bullet] breathe in the medicated vapors [bullet] use up to three times daily or as directed by a doctor [bullet] children under 2 years of age: Ask a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products containing menthol identified in § 341.14(b)(2) for steam inhalation use.</I> The product contains 3.2 percent menthol. “[bullet] see important warnings under ‘When using this product’ ”[appears as the first statement under the heading “Directions” and is highlighted in bold type] [bullet] adults and children 2 years and older: (select one of the following, as appropriate: <I>For products formulated to be added directly to cold water inside a hot steam vaporizer.</I> [bullet] use 1 tablespoonful of solution for each quart of water or 1
<FR>1/2</FR> teaspoonsful of solution for each pint of water [bullet] add solution directly to cold water only in a hot steam vaporizer [bullet] follow manufacturer's directions for using vaporizer or <I>For products formulated to be placed in the medication chamber of a hot steam vaporizer.</I> [bullet] place water in the vaporizer and follow manufacturer's directions for using vaporizer [bullet] place solution in the medication chamber only) [bullet] breathe in the medicated vapors [bullet] use up to three times daily or as directed by a doctor [bullet] children under 2 years of age: Ask a doctor.
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exemption from the general accidental overdose warning.</I> The labeling for antitussive drug products containing the active ingredient identified in § 341.14(b)(2) marketed in accordance with § 341.74(d)(2)(iii) is exempt from the requirement in § 330.1(g) of this chapter that the labeling bear the general warning statement “In case of accidental overdose, seek professional assistance or contact a poison control center immediately.” The labeling must continue to bear the first part of the general warning in § 330.1(g) of this chapter, which states, “Keep this and all drugs out of the reach of children.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30055, Aug. 12, 1987; 52 FR 35610, Sept. 22, 1987; 53 FR 35809, Sept. 15, 1988; 55 FR 27808, July 6, 1990; 55 FR 40383, Oct. 3, 1990; 58 FR 54236, Oct. 20, 1993; 59 FR 29174, June 3, 1994; 59 FR 36051, July 15, 1994; 64 FR 13295, Mar. 17, 1999; 65 FR 8, Jan. 3, 2000; 65 FR 46867, Aug. 1, 2000; 67 FR 72559, Dec. 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.76" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.76   Labeling of bronchodilator drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “bronchodilator.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indication.</I> The labeling of the product states the following under the heading “Use”: “for temporary relief of mild symptoms of intermittent asthma: [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> wheezing [bullet] tightness of chest [bullet] shortness of breath”. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indication for use that has been established and listed in this paragraph (b) may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for the definition of “bullet.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) The following statements shall appear after the subheading “Do not use” [in bold type]:
</P>
<P>(i) “[Bullet] unless a doctor said you have asthma”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “[Bullet] if you are now taking a prescription monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) (certain drugs taken for depression, psychiatric or emotional conditions, or Parkinson's disease), or for 2 weeks after stopping the MAOI drug. If you do not know if your prescription drug contains an MAOI, ask a doctor or pharmacist before taking this product.”
</P>
<P>(2) The following information shall appear after the subheading “Ask a doctor before use if you have” [in bold type]: “[bullet] ever been hospitalized for asthma [bullet] heart disease [bullet] high blood pressure [bullet] diabetes [bullet] thyroid disease [bullet] seizures [bullet] narrow angle glaucoma [bullet] a psychiatric or emotional condition [bullet] trouble urinating due to an enlarged prostate gland”.
</P>
<P>(3) The following information shall appear after the subheading “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are” [in bold type]:
</P>
<P>(i) “[Bullet] taking prescription drugs for asthma, obesity, weight control, depression, or psychiatric or emotional conditions”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “[Bullet] taking any drug that contains phenylephrine, pseudoephedrine, ephedrine, or caffeine (such as for allergy, cough-cold, or pain)”.
</P>
<P>(4) The following information shall appear after the subheading “When using this product” [in bold type]:
</P>
<P>(i) “[Bullet] your blood pressure or heart rate may go up. This could increase your risk of heart attack or stroke, which may cause death.” [in bold type]
</P>
<P>(ii) “[Bullet] your risk of heart attack or stroke increases if you: [Bullet] have a history of high blood pressure or heart disease [Bullet] take this product more frequently or take more than the recommended dose”. [in bold type]
</P>
<P>(iii) “[Bullet] avoid foods or beverages that contain caffeine”.
</P>
<P>(iv) “[Bullet] avoid dietary supplements containing ingredients reported or claimed to have a stimulant effect”.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing ephedrine, ephedrine hydrochloride, ephedrine sulfate, or racephedrine hydrochloride identified in § 341.16(a), (b), (c), and (f).</I> (i) The following information shall appear after the subheading “Asthma alert: Because asthma may be life threatening, see a doctor if you” [in bold type]:
</P>
<P>(A) “[Bullet] are not better in 60 minutes”.
</P>
<P>(B) “[Bullet] get worse”.
</P>
<P>(C) “[Bullet] need more than [insert total number of dosage units that equals 150 milligrams] in 24 hours”.
</P>
<P>(D) “[Bullet] use more than [insert total number of dosage units that equals 100 milligrams] in 24 hours for 3 or more days a week”.
</P>
<P>(E) “[Bullet] have more than 2 asthma attacks in a week”.
</P>
<P>(F) “These may be signs that your asthma is getting worse.”
</P>
<P>(G) “[Bullet] This product will not give you asthma relief as quickly as an inhaled bronchodilator.”
</P>
<P>(ii) This “Asthma alert” shall appear on any labeling that contains warnings and shall be the first warning statement under the heading “Warnings”.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products containing epinephrine, epinephrine bitartrate, or racepinephrine hydrochloride identified in § 341.16(d), (e), and (g).</I> (i) The following information shall appear after the subheading “Asthma alert: Because asthma may be life threatening, see a doctor if you” [in bold type]:
</P>
<P>(A) “[Bullet] are not better in 20 minutes”.
</P>
<P>(B) “[Bullet] get worse”.
</P>
<P>(C) “[Bullet] need more than 12 inhalations in 24 hours”.
</P>
<P>(D) “[Bullet] use more than 9 inhalations in 24 hours for 3 or more days a week”.
</P>
<P>(E) “[Bullet] have more than 2 asthma attacks in a week”.
</P>
<P>(F) “These may be signs that your asthma is getting worse.”
</P>
<P>(ii) This “Asthma alert” shall appear on any labeling that contains warnings and shall be the first warning statement under the heading “Warnings.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products intended for use in a hand-held rubber bulb nebulizer.</I> The following statement shall also appear after the subheading “Do not use” along with the other information in paragraph (c)(1) of this section: “[bullet] if product is brown in color or cloudy”.
</P>
<P>(7) The following information shall appear after the subheading “Stop use and ask a doctor if” [in bold type]:
</P>
<P>(i) “[Bullet] your asthma is getting worse (see Asthma alert)”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “[Bullet] you have difficulty sleeping”.
</P>
<P>(iii) “[Bullet] you have a rapid heart beat”.
</P>
<P>(iv) “[Bullet] you have tremors, nervousness, or seizure”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing ephedrine, ephedrine hydrochloride, ephedrine sulfate, or racephedrine hydrochloride identified in § 341.16(a), (b), (c), and (f):</I> (i) “[Bullet] do not take more than directed” [sentence appears as first bulleted statement under “Directions” and in bold type]
</P>
<P>(ii) “[Bullet] adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dose is 12.5 to 25 milligrams every 4 hours as needed. Do not take more than 150 milligrams in 24 hours”.
</P>
<P>(iii) “[Bullet] children under 12 years of age: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing epinephrine, epinephrine bitartrate, and racepinephrine hydrochloride identified in § 341.16(d), (e), and (g) for use in a hand-held rubber bulb nebulizer.</I> The ingredient is used in an aqueous solution at a concentration equivalent to 1-percent epinephrine:
</P>
<P>(i) “[Bullet] do not use more than directed” [appears as first bulleted statement under “Directions” and in bold type].
</P>
<P>(ii) “[Bullet] adults and children 4 years of age and over: 1 to 3 inhalations not more often than every 3 hours. Do not use more than 12 inhalations in 24 hours. The use of this product by children should be supervised by an adult.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “[Bullet] children under 4 years of age: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Collection of information requirement approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0237)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 35339, Oct. 2, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 7126, Mar. 9, 1987; 52 FR 7830, Mar. 13, 1987; 53 FR 35810, Sept. 15, 1988; 58 FR 54242, Oct. 20, 1993; 61 FR 25146, May 20, 1996; 62 FR 9684, Mar. 4, 1997; 64 FR 13295, Mar. 17, 1999; 76 FR 44487, July 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.78" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.78   Labeling of expectorant drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “expectorant.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following: “Helps loosen phlegm (mucus) and thin bronchial secretions to” (select one or more of the following: “rid the bronchial passageways of bothersome mucus,” “drain bronchial tubes,” and “make coughs more productive”). Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings, under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) “A persistent cough may be a sign of a serious condition. If cough persists for more than 1 week, tends to recur, or is accompanied by a fever, rash, or persistent headache, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For expectorant drug products labeled for adults or for adults and children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not take this product for persistent or chronic cough such as occurs with smoking, asthma, chronic bronchitis, or emphysema, or where cough is accompanied by excessive phlegm (mucus) unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For expectorant drug products labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not give this product for persistent or chronic cough such as occurs with asthma or if cough is accompanied by excessive phlegm (mucus) unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions” for products containing guaifenesin identified in § 341.18: Adults and children 12 years of age and over: oral dosage is 200 to 400 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 2,400 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 100 to 200 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 1,200 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 50 to 100 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 600 milligrams in 24 hours. Children under 2 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 8509, Feb. 28, 1989, as amended at 57 FR 29177, June 30, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.80" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.80   Labeling of nasal decongestant drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “nasal decongestant.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the phrase listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, as appropriate, and may contain any additional phrases listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) (Select one of the following: “For the temporary relief of nasal congestion” or “Temporarily relieves nasal congestion”) (which may be followed by any of the following in paragraphs (b)(1) (i), (ii), and (iii) of this section): 
</P>
<P>(i) “due to” (select one of the following: “the common cold” or “a cold”). 
</P>
<P>(ii) “due to” (select one of the following: “hay fever,” “hay fever (allergic rhinitis),” “hay fever or other upper respiratory allergies,” or “hay fever or other upper respiratory allergies (allergic rhinitis)”). 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the information identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the labeling of the product may contain any (one or more) of the following statements: 
</P>
<P>(i) (Select one of the following: “For the temporary relief of” or “Temporarily relieves”) (select one of the following: “stuffy nose,” “stopped up nose,” “nasal stuffiness,” or “clogged up nose.”) 
</P>
<P>(ii) (Select one of the following: “Reduces swelling of,” “Decongests,” or “Helps clear”) “nasal passages; shrinks swollen membranes.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “Temporarily restores freer breathing through the nose.” 
</P>
<P>(iv) “Helps decongest sinus openings and passages; temporarily relieves sinus congestion and pressure.” 
</P>
<P>(v) “Promotes nasal and/or sinus drainage; temporarily relieves sinus congestion and pressure.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Oral nasal decongestants</I>—(i) <I>For products containing phenylephrine hydrochloride, pseudoephedrine hydrochloride, pseudoephedrine sulfate, or phenylephrine bitartrate identified in § 341.20 (a)(1) through (a)(4) when labeled for adults.</I> (A) “Do not exceed recommended dosage. [first sentence in boldface type] If nervousness, dizziness, or sleeplessness occur, discontinue use and consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(B) “If symptoms do not improve within 7 days or are accompanied by fever, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(C) “Do not take this product if you have heart disease, high blood pressure, thyroid disease, diabetes, or difficulty in urination due to enlargement of the prostate gland unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Drug interaction precaution.</I> “Do not use if you are now taking a prescription monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) (certain drugs for depression, psychiatric, or emotional conditions, or Parkinson's disease), or for 2 weeks after stopping the MAOI drug. If you do not know if your prescription drug contains an MAOI, ask a doctor or pharmacist before taking this product.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing phenylephrine hydrochloride, pseudoephedrine hydrochloride, pseudoephedrine sulfate, or phenylephrine bitartrate identified in § 341.20 (a)(1) through (a)(4) when labeled for children under 12 years of age.</I> (A) “Do not exceed recommended dosage. [first sentence in boldface type] If nervousness, dizziness, or sleeplessness occur, discontinue use and consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(B) “If symptoms do not improve within 7 days or are accompanied by fever, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(C) “Do not give this product to a child who has heart disease, high blood pressure, thyroid disease, or diabetes unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Drug interaction precaution.</I> “Do not use in a child who is taking a prescription monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) (certain drugs for depression, psychiatric, or emotional conditions, or Parkinson's disease), or for 2 weeks after stopping the MAOI drug. If you do not know if your child's prescription drug contains an MAOI, ask a doctor or pharmacist before giving this product.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For oral nasal decongestant products labeled for both adults and children under 12 years of age.</I> The labeling of the product contains the warnings identified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Topical nasal decongestants</I>—(i) <I>For products containing any topical nasal decongestant identified in § 341.20(b) when labeled for adults.</I> (A) “Do not exceed recommended dosage.” [sentence in boldface type] 
</P>
<P>(B) “This product may cause temporary discomfort such as burning, stinging, sneezing, or an increase in nasal discharge.” 
</P>
<P>(C) “The use of this container by more than one person may spread infection.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing levmetamfetamine identified in § 341.20(b)(1) when used in an inhalant dosage form and when labeled for adults.</I> “Do not use this product for more than 7 days. Use only as directed. Frequent or prolonged use may cause nasal congestion to recur or worsen. If symptoms persist, ask a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing ephedrine, ephedrine hydrochloride, ephedrine sulfate, naphazoline hydrochloride, oxymetazoline hydrochloride, phenylephrine hydrochloride, or xylometazoline hydrochloride identified in § 341.20 (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(6), (b)(7), (b)(8), and (b)(10) when used as nasal sprays, drops, or jellies and when labeled for adults.</I> (A) “Do not use this product for more than 3 days. Use only as directed. Frequent or prolonged use may cause nasal congestion to recur or worsen. If symptoms persist, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(B) “Do not use this product if you have heart disease, high blood pressure, thyroid disease, diabetes, or difficulty in urination due to enlargement of the prostate gland unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products containing naphazoline hydrochloride identified in § 341.20(b)(6) at a concentration of 0.05 percent.</I> “Do not use this product in children under 12 years of age because it may cause sedation if swallowed.”
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products containing propylhexedrine identified in § 341.20(b)(9) when used in an inhalant dosage form and when labeled for adults.</I> “Do not use this product for more than 3 days. Use only as directed. Frequent or prolonged use may cause nasal congestion to recur or worsen. If symptoms persist, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>For products containing any topical nasal decongestant identified in § 341.20(b) when labeled for children under 12 years of age.</I> The labeling of the product contains the warnings identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>For products containing levmetamfetamine identified in § 341.20(b)(1) when used in an inhalant dosage form and when labeled for children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not use this product for more than 7 days. Use only as directed. Frequent or prolonged use may cause nasal congestion to recur or worsen. If symptoms persist, ask a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>For products containing ephedrine, ephedrine hydrochloride, ephedrine sulfate, naphazoline hydrochloride, oxymetazoline hydrochloride, phenylephrine hydrochloride, or xylometazoline hydrochloride identified in § 341.20(b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(6), (b)(7), (b)(8), and (b)(10) when used as nasal sprays, drops, or jellies and when labeled for children under 12 years of age.</I> (A) “Do not use this product for more than 3 days. Use only as directed. Frequent or prolonged use may cause nasal congestion to recur or worsen. If symptoms persist, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(B) “Do not use this product in a child who has heart disease, high blood pressure, thyroid disease, or diabetes unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>For products containing propylhexedrine identified in § 341.20(b)(9) when used in an inhalant dosage form and when labeled for children under 12 years of age.</I> “Do not use this product for more than 3 days. Use only as directed. Frequent or prolonged use may cause nasal congestion to recur or worsen. If symptoms persist, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>For topical nasal decongestant products labeled for both adults and for children under 12 years of age.</I> The labeling of the product contains the applicable warnings identified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii), (c)(2)(iii), and (c)(2)(v) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Oral nasal decongestants</I>—(i) <I>For products containing phenylephrine hydrochloride identified in § 341.20(a)(1).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: 10 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 60 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: 5 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 30 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 2 to under 6 years of age: 2.5 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 15 milligrams in 24 hours. Children under 2 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing pseudoephedrine hydrochloride or pseudoephedrine sulfate identified in § 341.20 (a)(2) and (a)(3).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: 60 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours not to exceed 240 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 6 to under 12 years of age: 30 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours not to exceed 120 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 2 to under 6 years of age: 15 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours not to exceed 60 milligrams in 24 hours. Children under 2 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing phenylephrine bitartrate identified in § 341.20(a)(4).</I> Include information on the number of dosage units and the quantity of water the dosage units are to be dissolved in prior to administration as shown in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dose 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adults and children 12 years of age and over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15.6 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 62.4 milligrams in 24 hours
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children 6 to under 12 years of age</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8 milligrams every 4 hours not to exceed 31.2 milligrams in 24 hours
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Children under 6 years of age</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ask a doctor
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup>Headings are not required to appear in the product's labeling</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Topical nasal decongestants</I>—(i) <I>For products containing levmetamfetamine identified in § 341.20(b)(1) when used in an inhalant dosage form.</I> The product delivers in each 800 milliliters of air 0.04 to 0.150 milligrams of levmetamfetamine. Adults: 2 inhalations in each nostril not more often than every 2 hours. Children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): 1 inhalation in each nostril not more often than every 2 hours. Children under 6 years of age: ask a doctor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing ephedrine, ephedrine hydrochloride, or ephedrine sulfate identified in § 341.20(b) (2), (3), and (4)</I>—(A) <I>Nasal drops or sprays—For a 0.5-percent aqueous solution.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 4 hours. Children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): 1 or 2 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 4 hours. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nasal jelly</I>—<I>For a 0.5-percent water-based jelly.</I> Adults and children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 4 hours. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing naphazoline hydrochloride identified in § 341.20(b)(6)</I>—(A) <I>Nasal drops or sprays</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>For a 0.05-percent aqueous solution.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: 1 or 2 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 6 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>For a 0.025-percent aqueous solution.</I> Children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): 1 or 2 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 6 hours. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nasal jelly</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>For a 0.05-percent water-based jelly.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 6 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>For a 0.025-percent water-based jelly.</I> Children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 6 hours. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products containing oxymetazoline hydrochloride identified in § 341.20(b)(7)</I>—(A) <I>Nasal drops or sprays</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>For a 0.05-percent aqueous solution.</I> Adults and children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 10 to 12 hours. Do not exceed 2 doses in any 24-hour period. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>A 0.025-percent aqueous solution in a container having either a calibrated dropper or a metered-dose spray that delivers no more than 0.027 milligrams of oxymetazoline per three drops or three sprays.</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age (with adult supervision): 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 10 to 12 hours. Use only recommended amount. Do not exceed 2 doses in any 24-hour period. [previous two sentences in boldface type] Children under 2 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nasal jelly—For a 0.05-percent water-based jelly.</I> Adults and children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 10 to 12 hours. Do not exceed 2 doses in any 24-hour period. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products containing phenylephrine hydrochloride identified in § 341.20(b)(8)</I>—(A) <I>Nasal drops or sprays</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>For a 1-percent aqueous solution.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 4 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>For a 0.5-percent aqueous solution.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 4 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>For a 0.25-percent aqueous solution.</I> Adults and children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 4 hours. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>A 0.125-percent aqueous solution in a container having either a calibrated dropper or a metered-dose spray that delivers no more than 0.135 milligrams of phenylephrine per three drops or three sprays.</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age (with adult supervision): 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 4 hours. Use only recommended amount. [previous sentence in boldface type] Children under 2 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nasal jelly</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>For a 1-percent water-based jelly.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 4 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>For a 0.5-percent water-based jelly.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 4 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>For a 0.25-percent water-based jelly.</I> Adults and children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 4 hours. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>For products containing propylhexedrine identified in § 341.20(b)(9) when used in an inhalant dosage form.</I> The product delivers in each 800 milliliters of air 0.40 to 0.50 milligrams of propylhexedrine. Adults and children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): 2 inhalations in each nostril not more often than every 2 hours. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>For products containing xylometazoline hydrochloride identified in § 341.20(b)(10)</I>—(A) <I>Nasal drops or sprays</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>For a 0.1-percent aqueous solution.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 8 to 10 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>A 0.05-percent aqueous solution in a container having either a calibrated dropper or a metered-dose spray that delivers no more than 0.054 milligrams of xylometazoline per three drops or three sprays.</I> Children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 8 to 10 hours. Children 2 to under 6 years of age (with adult supervision): 2 or 3 drops or sprays in each nostril not more often than every 8 to 10 hours. Use only recommended amount. Do not exceed 3 doses in any 24-hour period. [previous two sentences in boldface type] Children under 2 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nasal jelly</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>For a 0.1-percent water-based jelly.</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 8 to 10 hours. Do not give to children under 12 years of age unless directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>For a 0.05-percent water-based jelly.</I> Children 6 to under 12 years of age (with adult supervision): place a small amount in each nostril and inhale well back into the nasal passages. Use not more often than every 8 to 10 hours. Children under 6 years of age: consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Other required statements—For products containing levmetamfetamine or propylhexedrine identified in § 341.20(b)(1) or (b)(9) when used in an inhalant dosage form.</I> (A) “This inhaler is effective for a minimum of 3 months after first use.”
</P>
<P>(B) “Keep inhaler tightly closed.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 43409, Aug. 23, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 40650, July 30, 1998; 64 FR 13295, Mar. 17, 1999; 65 FR 8, Jan. 3, 2000; 70 FR 58977, Oct. 11, 2005; 71 FR 43362, Aug. 1, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.85" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.85   Labeling of permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The statements of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> For a combination drug product that has an established name, the labeling of the product states the established name of the combination drug product, followed by the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs. If there is no established name, the labeling of the product states the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For permitted combinations identified in § 341.40(a), (c), (f), (g), (l), (m), (n), (o), (q), and (r) containing an analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient.</I> The analgesic-antipyretic component of the product shall be identified as a “pain reliever” or “analgesic (pain reliever).” If the product is also labeled to relieve fever, then the analgesic-antipyretic component is identified as a “pain reliever-fever reducer” or “analgesic (pain reliever)-antipyretic (fever reducer).”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” the indication(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the indications sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph (b). Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in the applicable OTC drug monographs or listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For permitted combinations containing an analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient identified in § 341.40(a), (c), (f). (g), (l), (m), (n), (o), (q), and (r) when labeled for relief of general cough-cold symptoms and/or the common cold.</I> (i) The labeling for the analgesic-antipyretic ingredients states “[bullet] temporarily relieves [bullet] minor aches and pains [bullet] headache” and “[bullet] temporarily reduces fever”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling for the cough-cold ingredient(s) may follow a separate bullet(s) or may be combined with the relieves part of the indication in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For permitted combinations containing an analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient identified in § 341.40(a), (c), (f), (g), (m), (q), and (r) when labeled for relief of hay fever/allergic rhinitis and/or nasal congestion symptoms.</I> (i) The labeling for the analgesic-antipyretic ingredients states “[bullet] temporarily relieves [bullet] minor aches and pains [bullet] headache”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The indication(s) for the cough-cold ingredient(s) consists of the labeling for antihistamines in § 341.72(b)(1) or (b)(2) and/or nasal decongestants in § 341.80(b)(1)(ii), as appropriate, and the labeling for any other cough-cold combination. This labeling may follow a separate bullet(s) or may be combined with the indication in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For permitted combinations containing an oral analgesic-antipyretic active ingredient identified in § 341.40(a), (c), (f), (g), (m), (q), and (r) when labeled for relief of general cough-cold symptoms and/or the common cold and for relief of hay fever/allergic rhinitis and/or nasal congestion symptoms.</I> The labeling states both indications in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For permitted combinations containing an oral anesthetic-analgesic active ingredient identified in § 341.40(k), (s), (t), (z), (aa), and (bb).</I> The labeling for the anesthetic-analgesic ingredients in part 356 of this chapter should be used.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For permitted combinations containing camphor, menthol, and eucalyptus oil identified in § 341.40(u).</I> The labeling for antitussive ingredients in § 341.74(b) should be used.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For permitted combinations containing levmetamfetamine with aromatics identified in § 341.40(v).</I> The labeling for nasal decongestant ingredients in § 341.80(b) should be used.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Other allowable statements.</I> In addition to the required information identified in paragraph (b) of this section, the labeling of the combination drug product may contain any of the “other allowable statements” (if any), that are identified in the applicable OTC drug monographs, provided such statements are neither placed in direct conjunction with information required to appear in the labeling nor occupy labeling space with greater prominence or conspicuousness than the required information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Warnings,” the warning(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the warnings sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For permitted combinations containing an antitussive and an analgesic-antipyretic identified in § 341.40(f), (g), (l), and (m).</I> The labeling states the following warnings:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products labeled only for adults.</I> The following warning should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.74(c)(1) and part 343 of this chapter: “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] [bullet] pain or cough gets worse or lasts more than 7 days [bullet] fever gets worse or lasts more than 3 days [bullet] redness or swelling is present [bullet] new symptoms occur [bullet] cough comes back or occurs with rash or headache that lasts. These could be signs of a serious condition.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I> The following warning should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.74(c)(3) and part 343 of this chapter: “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] [bullet] pain or cough gets worse or lasts more than 5 days [bullet] fever gets worse or lasts more than 3 days [bullet] redness or swelling is present [bullet] new symptoms occur [bullet] cough comes back or occurs with rash or headache that lasts. These could be signs of a serious condition.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products labeled for both adults and for children under 12 years of age.</I> The following warning should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.74(c)(2) and part 343 of this chapter: “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] [bullet] pain or cough gets worse or lasts more than 5 days (children) or 7 days (adults) [bullet] fever gets worse or lasts more than 3 days [bullet] redness or swelling is present [bullet] new symptoms occur [bullet] cough comes back or occurs with rash or headache that lasts. These could be signs of a serious condition.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For permitted combinations containing an expectorant and an analgesic-antipyretic identified in § 341.40(o).</I> The labeling states the following warnings:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products labeled only for adults.</I> The warning in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.78(c)(3) and part 343 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products labeled only for children under 12 years of age.</I> The warning in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.78(c)(3) and part 343 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products labeled for both adults and for children under 12 years of age.</I> The warning in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.78(c)(3) and part 343 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For permitted combinations containing a nasal decongestant and an analgesic-antipyretic identified in § 341.40(c), (g), (m), (n), (q), and (r).</I> The labeling states the following warnings:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products labeled only for adults.</I> The following warning should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.80(c)(1)(i)(B) and part 343 of this chapter: “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] [bullet] pain or nasal congestion gets worse or lasts more than 7 days [bullet] fever gets worse or lasts more than 3 days [bullet] redness or swelling is present [bullet] new symptoms occur”.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products labeled for only children under 12 years of age.</I> The following warning should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.80(c)(1)(ii)(B) and part 343 of this chapter: “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] [bullet] pain or nasal congestion gets worse or lasts more than 5 days [bullet] fever gets worse or lasts more than 3 days [bullet] redness or swelling is present [bullet] new symptoms occur”.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products labeled for both adults and children under 12 years of age.</I> The following warning should be used instead of the warnings in § 341.80(c)(1)(iii) and part 343 of this chapter: “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] [bullet] pain or nasal congestion gets worse or lasts more than 5 days (children) or 7 days (adults) [bullet] fever gets worse or lasts more than 3 days [bullet] redness or swelling is present [bullet] new symptoms occur”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For permitted combinations containing an antihistamine combined with an oral antitussive.</I> The labeling states the warning “When using this product [in bold type] [bullet] may cause marked drowsiness.” The word “marked” may be deleted from the warning upon petition under the provisions of § 10.30 of this chapter provided adequate data are submitted to demonstrate that the combination product does not cause a significant increase in drowsiness as compared with each active ingredient when tested alone. The petition and the data it contains will be maintained in a permanent file for public review in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For permitted combinations containing camphor, menthol, and eucalyptus oil identified in § 341.40(u).</I> The labeling states the warnings for topical antitussive ingredients in § 341.74(c).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For permitted combinations containing levmetamfetamine with aromatics identified in § 341.40(v).</I> The labeling states the warnings for topical nasal decongestant ingredients in § 341.80(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Directions,” directions that conform to the directions established for each ingredient in the directions sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in paragraph (d) of this section. When the time intervals or age limitations for administration of the individual ingredients differ, the directions for the combination product may not exceed any maximum dosage limits established for the individual ingredients in the applicable OTC drug monograph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For permitted combinations containing an anesthetic/analgesic and/or a demulcent in a liquid dosage form identified in § 341.40(k), (s), (t), (w), (x), (y), (z), (aa), and (bb).</I> The labeling states “[optional, bullet] gargle, swish around, or keep in the mouth for at least 1 minute and then swallow. Do not spit out.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For permitted combinations containing camphor, menthol, and eucalyptus oil identified in § 341.40(u).</I> The labeling states the directions for topical antitussive ingredients in § 341.74(d).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For permitted combinations containing levmetamfetamine with aromatics identified in § 341.40(v).</I> The labeling states the directions for topical nasal decongestant ingredients in § 341.80(d)(2)(i) and (d)(2)(viii).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78170, Dec. 23, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 58977, Oct. 11, 2005; 71 FR 43362, Aug. 1, 2006; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.90" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.19.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.90   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling of the product provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain the following additional dosage information for products containing the active ingredients identified below: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For products containing ephedrine, ephedrine hydrochloride, ephedrine sulfate, or racephedrine hydrochloride identified in § 341.16 (a), (b), (c), and (f).</I> Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 6.25 to 12.5 milligrams every 4 hours, not to exceed 75 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 0.3 to 0.5 milligram per kilogram of body weight every 4 hours, not to exceed 2 milligrams per kilogram of body weight in 24 hours. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For products containing chlophedianol hydrochloride identified in 341.14(a)(1).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 12.5 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 50 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>For products containing codeine ingredients identified in § 341.14(a)(2).</I> (1) Children 2 to under 6 years of age: Oral dosage is 1 milligram per kilogram body weight per day administered in four equal divided doses. The average body weight for each age may also be used to determine dosage as follows: For children 2 years of age (average body weight, 12 kilograms), the oral dosage is 3 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 12 milligrams in 24 hours; for children 3 years of age (average body weight, 14 kilograms), the oral dosage is 3.5 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 14 milligrams in 24 hours; for children 4 years of age (average body weight, 16 kilograms), the oral dosage is 4 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 16 milligrams in 24 hours: for children 5 years of age (average body weight, 18 kilograms), the oral dosage is 4.5 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 18 milligrams in 24 hours. The manufacturer must relate these dosages for its specific product dosages for its specific product to the use of the calibrated measuring device discussed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. If age is used to determine the dose, the directions must include instructions to reduce the dose for low-weight children.
</P>
<P>(2) Parents should be instructed to obtain and use a calibrated measuring device for administering the drug to the child, to use extreme care in measuring the dosage, and not exceed the recommended daily dosage.
</P>
<P>(3) A dispensing device (such as a dropper calibrated for age or weight) should be dispensed along with the product when it is intended for use in children 2 to under 6 years of age to prevent possible overdose due to improper measuring of the dose.
</P>
<P>(4) Codeine is not recommended for use in children under 2 years of age. Children under 2 years may be more susceptible to the respiratory depressant effects of codeine, including respiratory arrest, coma, and death.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The following labeling indication may be used for products containing guaifenesin identified in § 341.18 when used as a single ingredient product.</I> “Helps loosen phlegm and thin bronchial secretions in patients with stable chronic bronchitis.” 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>For products containing brompheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(a).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 1 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 6 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>For products containing chlorcyclizine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(b).</I> Children 6 to under 12 years of age: oral dosage is 12.5 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 37.5 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 6.25 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 18.75 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>For products containing chlorpheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(c).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 1 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 6 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>For products containing dexbrompheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(d).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 0.5 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 3 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products containing dexchlorpheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(e).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years: oral dosage is 0.5 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 3 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate identified in § 341.12(f).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 9.5 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 57 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(g).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 6.25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 37.5 mg in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>For products containing doxylamine succinate identified in § 341.12(h).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 1.9 to 3.125 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 18.75 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>For products containing phenindamine tartrate identified in § 341.12(i).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 6.25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 37.5 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>For products containing pheniramine maleate identified in § 341.12(j).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 3.125 to 6.25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 37.5 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>For products containing pyrilamine maleate identified in § 341.12(k).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 6.25 to 12.5 milligrams every 6 to 8 hours, not to exceed 50 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>For products containing thonzylamine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(l).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 12.5 to 25 milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 150 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>For products containing triprolidine hydrochloride identified in § 341.12(m).</I> Children 4 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 0.938 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 3.744 milligrams in 24 hours. Children 2 to under 4 years of age: oral dosage is 0.625 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 2.5 milligrams in 24 hours. Infants 4 months to under 2 years of age: oral dosage is 0.313 milligram every 4 to 6 hours, not to exceed 1.252 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine citrate identified in § 341.14(a)(5).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 9.5 milligrams every 4 hours, not to exceed 57 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>For products containing diphenhydramine hydrochloride identified in § 341.14(a)(6).</I> Children 2 to under 6 years of age: oral dosage is 6.25 milligrams every 4 hours, not to exceed 37.5 milligrams in 24 hours.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 35339, Oct. 2, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 30057, Aug. 12, 1987; 54 FR 8509, Feb. 28, 1989; 57 FR 58376, Dec. 9, 1992; 59 FR 4218, Jan. 28, 1994; 59 FR 29174, June 3, 1994; 59 FR 36051, July 15, 1994] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="343" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 343—INTERNAL ANALGESIC, ANTIPYRETIC, AND ANTIRHEUMATIC DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 56814, Oct. 23, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter analgesic-antipyretic drug product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this part in addition to each of the general conditions established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Analgesic</I>—<I>antipyretic drug.</I> An agent used to alleviate pain and to reduce fever.
</P>
<P><I>Cardiovascular drug.</I> An agent used to prevent ischemic events.
</P>
<P><I>Rheumatologic drug.</I> An agent used for the treatment of rheumatologic disorders.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.12   Cardiovascular active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aspirin.
</P>
<P>(b) Buffered aspirin. Aspirin identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be buffered with any antacid ingredient(s) identified in § 331.11 of this chapter provided that the finished product contains at least 1.9 milliequivalents of acid-neutralizing capacity per 325 milligrams of aspirin as measured by the procedure provided in the United States Pharmacopeia 23/National Formulary 18.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.13" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.13   Rheumatologic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aspirin.
</P>
<P>(b) Buffered aspirin. Aspirin identified in paragraph (a) of this section may be buffered with any antacid ingredient(s) identified in § 331.11 of this chapter provided that the finished product contains at least 1.9 milliequivalents of acid-neutralizing capacity per 325 milligrams of aspirin as measured by the procedure provided in the United States Pharmacopeia 23/National Formulary 18.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.22" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.22   Permitted combinations of active ingredients for cardiovascular-rheumatologic use.</HEAD>
<P>Combinations containing aspirin must meet the standards of an acceptable dissolution test, as set forth in § 343.90. The following combinations are permitted: Aspirin identified in §§ 343.12 and 343.13 may be combined with any antacid ingredient identified in § 331.11 of this chapter or any combination of antacids permitted in accordance with § 331.10(a) of this chapter provided that the finished product meets the requirements of § 331.10 of this chapter and is marketed in a form intended for ingestion as a solution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 343.50-343.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 343.50-343.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.80" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.80   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling of an over-the-counter drug product written for health professionals (but not for the general public) shall consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For products containing aspirin identified in §§ 343.12 and 343.13 or permitted combinations identified in § 343.22.</I> (These products must meet United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standards for dissolution or drug release in § 343.90.)
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling contains the following prescribing information under the heading “Comprehensive Prescribing Information” and the subheadings “Description,” “Clinical Pharmacology,” “Clinical Studies,” “Animal Toxicology,” “Indications and Usage,” “Contraindications,” “Warnings,” “Precautions,” “Adverse Reactions,” “Drug Abuse and Dependence,” “Overdosage,” “Dosage and Administration,” and “How Supplied” in the exact language and the exact order provided as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>COMPREHENSIVE PRESCRIBING INFORMATION
</HD1>
<HD1>DESCRIPTION
</HD1>
<P>(<I>Insert the proprietary name and the established name (if any) of the drug, type of dosage form (followed by the phrase “for oral administration”), the established name(s) and quantity of the active ingredient(s) per dosage unit, the total sodium content in milligrams per dosage unit if the sodium content of a single recommended dose is 5 milligrams or more, the established name(s) (in alphabetical order) of any inactive ingredient(s) which may cause an allergic hypersensitivity reaction, the pharmacological or therapeutic class of the drug, and the chemical name(s) and structural formula(s) of the drug.</I>) Aspirin is an odorless white, needle-like crystalline or powdery substance. When exposed to moisture, aspirin hydrolyzes into salicylic and acetic acids, and gives off a vinegary-odor. It is highly lipid soluble and slightly soluble in water.
</P>
<HD1>CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY
</HD1>
<P><I>Mechanism of Action:</I> Aspirin is a more potent inhibitor of both prostaglandin synthesis and platelet aggregation than other salicylic acid derivatives. The differences in activity between aspirin and salicylic acid are thought to be due to the acetyl group on the aspirin molecule. This acetyl group is responsible for the inactivation of cyclo-oxygenase via acetylation.
</P>
<HD1>Pharmacokinetics
</HD1>
<P><I>Absorption:</I> In general, immediate release aspirin is well and completely absorbed from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Following absorption, aspirin is hydrolyzed to salicylic acid with peak plasma levels of salicylic acid occurring within 1-2 hours of dosing (see <E T="04">Pharmacokinetics</E>—<I>Metabolism</I>). The rate of absorption from the GI tract is dependent upon the dosage form, the presence or absence of food, gastric pH (the presence or absence of GI antacids or buffering agents), and other physiologic factors. Enteric coated aspirin products are erratically absorbed from the GI tract.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution:</I> Salicylic acid is widely distributed to all tissues and fluids in the body including the central nervous system (CNS), breast milk, and fetal tissues. The highest concentrations are found in the plasma, liver, renal cortex, heart, and lungs. The protein binding of salicylate is concentration-dependent, <I>i.e.</I>, nonlinear. At low concentrations (&lt;100 micrograms/milliliter (µg/mL)), approximately 90 percent of plasma salicylate is bound to albumin while at higher concentrations (&gt;400 µg/mL), only about 75 percent is bound. The early signs of salicylic overdose (salicylism), including tinnitus (ringing in the ears), occur at plasma concentrations approximating 200 µg/mL. Severe toxic effects are associated with levels &gt;400 µg/mL. (See <E T="04">Adverse Reactions</E> and <E T="04">Overdosage.</E>)
</P>
<P><I>Metabolism:</I> Aspirin is rapidly hydrolyzed in the plasma to salicylic acid such that plasma levels of aspirin are essentially undetectable 1-2 hours after dosing. Salicylic acid is primarily conjugated in the liver to form salicyluric acid, a phenolic glucuronide, an acyl glucuronide, and a number of minor metabolites. Salicylic acid has a plasma half-life of approximately 6 hours. Salicylate metabolism is saturable and total body clearance decreases at higher serum concentrations due to the limited ability of the liver to form both salicyluric acid and phenolic glucuronide. Following toxic doses (10-20 grams (g)), the plasma half-life may be increased to over 20 hours.
</P>
<P><I>Elimination:</I> The elimination of salicylic acid follows zero order pharmacokinetics; (<I>i.e.</I>, the rate of drug elimination is constant in relation to plasma concentration). Renal excretion of unchanged drug depends upon urine pH. As urinary pH rises above 6.5, the renal clearance of free salicylate increases from &lt;5 percent to &gt;80 percent. Alkalinization of the urine is a key concept in the management of salicylate overdose. (See <E T="04">Overdosage.</E>) Following therapeutic doses, approximately 10 percent is found excreted in the urine as salicylic acid, 75 percent as salicyluric acid, and 10 percent phenolic and 5 percent acyl glucuronides of salicylic acid.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacodynamics</I> Aspirin affects platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting prostaglandin cyclo-oxygenase. This effect lasts for the life of the platelet and prevents the formation of the platelet aggregating factor thromboxane A2. Nonacetylated salicylates do not inhibit this enzyme and have no effect on platelet aggregation. At somewhat higher doses, aspirin reversibly inhibits the formation of prostaglandin I<E T="52">2</E> (prostacyclin), which is an arterial vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation.
</P>
<P>At higher doses aspirin is an effective anti-inflammatory agent, partially due to inhibition of inflammatory mediators via cyclo-oxygenase inhibition in peripheral tissues. In vitro studies suggest that other mediators of inflammation may also be suppressed by aspirin administration, although the precise mechanism of action has not been elucidated. It is this nonspecific suppression of cyclo-oxygenase activity in peripheral tissues following large doses that leads to its primary side effect of gastric irritation. (See <E T="04">Adverse Reactions.</E>)
</P>
<HD1>CLINICAL STUDIES
</HD1>
<P><I>Ischemic Stroke and Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA):</I> In clinical trials of subjects with TIA's due to fibrin platelet emboli or ischemic stroke, aspirin has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of the combined endpoint of stroke or death and the combined endpoint of TIA, stroke, or death by about 13-18 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Suspected Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI):</I> In a large, multi-center study of aspirin, streptokinase, and the combination of aspirin and streptokinase in 17,187 patients with suspected acute MI, aspirin treatment produced a 23-percent reduction in the risk of vascular mortality. Aspirin was also shown to have an additional benefit in patients given a thrombolytic agent.
</P>
<P><I>Prevention of Recurrent MI and Unstable Angina Pectoris:</I> These indications are supported by the results of six large, randomized, multi-center, placebo-controlled trials of predominantly male post-MI subjects and one randomized placebo-controlled study of men with unstable angina pectoris. Aspirin therapy in MI subjects was associated with a significant reduction (about 20 percent) in the risk of the combined endpoint of subsequent death and/or nonfatal reinfarction in these patients. In aspirin-treated unstable angina patients the event rate was reduced to 5 percent from the 10 percent rate in the placebo group.
</P>
<P><I>Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris:</I> In a randomized, multi-center, double-blind trial designed to assess the role of aspirin for prevention of MI in patients with chronic stable angina pectoris, aspirin significantly reduced the primary combined endpoint of nonfatal MI, fatal MI, and sudden death by 34 percent. The secondary endpoint for vascular events (first occurrence of MI, stroke, or vascular death) was also significantly reduced (32 percent).
</P>
<P><I>Revascularization Procedures:</I> Most patients who undergo coronary artery revascularization procedures have already had symptomatic coronary artery disease for which aspirin is indicated. Similarly, patients with lesions of the carotid bifurcation sufficient to require carotid endarterectomy are likely to have had a precedent event. Aspirin is recommended for patients who undergo revascularization procedures if there is a preexisting condition for which aspirin is already indicated.
</P>
<P><I>Rheumatologic Diseases:</I> In clinical studies in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis and osteoarthritis, aspirin has been shown to be effective in controlling various indices of clinical disease activity.
</P>
<HD1>ANIMAL TOXICOLOGY
</HD1>
<P>The acute oral 50 percent lethal dose in rats is about 1.5 g/kilogram (kg) and in mice 1.1 g/kg. Renal papillary necrosis and decreased urinary concentrating ability occur in rodents chronically administered high doses. Dose-dependent gastric mucosal injury occurs in rats and humans. Mammals may develop aspirin toxicosis associated with GI symptoms, circulatory effects, and central nervous system depression. (See <E T="04">Overdosage.</E>)
</P>
<HD1>INDICATIONS AND USAGE
</HD1>
<P><I>Vascular Indications (Ischemic Stroke, TIA, Acute MI, Prevention of Recurrent MI, Unstable Angina Pectoris, and Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris):</I> Aspirin is indicated to: (1) Reduce the combined risk of death and nonfatal stroke in patients who have had ischemic stroke or transient ischemia of the brain due to fibrin platelet emboli, (2) reduce the risk of vascular mortality in patients with a suspected acute MI, (3) reduce the combined risk of death and nonfatal MI in patients with a previous MI or unstable angina pectoris, and (4) reduce the combined risk of MI and sudden death in patients with chronic stable angina pectoris.
</P>
<P><I>Revascularization Procedures (Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG), Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA), and Carotid Endarterectomy):</I> Aspirin is indicated in patients who have undergone revascularization procedures (<I>i.e.</I>, CABG, PTCA, or carotid endarterectomy) when there is a preexisting condition for which aspirin is already indicated.
</P>
<P><I>Rheumatologic Disease Indications (Rheumatoid Arthritis, Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis, Spondyloarthropathies, Osteoarthritis, and the Arthritis and Pleurisy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)):</I> Aspirin is indicated for the relief of the signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, spondyloarthropathies, and arthritis and pleurisy associated with SLE.
</P>
<HD1>CONTRAINDICATIONS
</HD1>
<P><I>Allergy:</I> Aspirin is contraindicated in patients with known allergy to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug products and in patients with the syndrome of asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps. Aspirin may cause severe urticaria, angioedema, or bronchospasm (asthma).
</P>
<P><I>Reye's Syndrome:</I> Aspirin should not be used in children or teenagers for viral infections, with or without fever, because of the risk of Reye's syndrome with concomitant use of aspirin in certain viral illnesses.
</P>
<HD1>WARNINGS
</HD1>
<P><I>Alcohol Warning:</I> Patients who consume three or more alcoholic drinks every day should be counseled about the bleeding risks involved with chronic, heavy alcohol use while taking aspirin.
</P>
<P><I>Coagulation Abnormalities:</I> Even low doses of aspirin can inhibit platelet function leading to an increase in bleeding time. This can adversely affect patients with inherited (hemophilia) or acquired (liver disease or vitamin K deficiency) bleeding disorders.
</P>
<P><I>GI Side Effects:</I> GI side effects include stomach pain, heartburn, nausea, vomiting, and gross GI bleeding. Although minor upper GI symptoms, such as dyspepsia, are common and can occur anytime during therapy, physicians should remain alert for signs of ulceration and bleeding, even in the absence of previous GI symptoms. Physicians should inform patients about the signs and symptoms of GI side effects and what steps to take if they occur.
</P>
<P><I>Peptic Ulcer Disease:</I> Patients with a history of active peptic ulcer disease should avoid using aspirin, which can cause gastric mucosal irritation and bleeding.
</P>
<HD1>PRECAUTIONS
</HD1>
<HD3>General
</HD3>
<P><I>Renal Failure:</I> Avoid aspirin in patients with severe renal failure (glomerular filtration rate less than 10 mL/minute).
</P>
<P><I>Hepatic Insufficiency:</I> Avoid aspirin in patients with severe hepatic insufficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Sodium Restricted Diets:</I> Patients with sodium-retaining states, such as congestive heart failure or renal failure, should avoid sodium-containing buffered aspirin preparations because of their high sodium content.
</P>
<HD3>Laboratory Tests
</HD3>
<P>Aspirin has been associated with elevated hepatic enzymes, blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine, hyperkalemia, proteinuria, and prolonged bleeding time.
</P>
<HD3>Drug Interactions
</HD3>
<P><I>Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors:</I> The hyponatremic and hypotensive effects of ACE inhibitors may be diminished by the concomitant administration of aspirin due to its indirect effect on the renin-angiotensin conversion pathway.
</P>
<P><I>Acetazolamide:</I> Concurrent use of aspirin and acetazolamide can lead to high serum concentrations of acetazolamide (and toxicity) due to competition at the renal tubule for secretion.
</P>
<P><I>Anticoagulant Therapy (Heparin and Warfarin):</I> Patients on anticoagulation therapy are at increased risk for bleeding because of drug-drug interactions and the effect on platelets. Aspirin can displace warfarin from protein binding sites, leading to prolongation of both the prothrombin time and the bleeding time. Aspirin can increase the anticoagulant activity of heparin, increasing bleeding risk.
</P>
<P><I>Anticonvulsants:</I> Salicylate can displace protein-bound phenytoin and valproic acid, leading to a decrease in the total concentration of phenytoin and an increase in serum valproic acid levels.
</P>
<P><I>Beta Blockers:</I> The hypotensive effects of beta blockers may be diminished by the concomitant administration of aspirin due to inhibition of renal prostaglandins, leading to decreased renal blood flow, and salt and fluid retention.
</P>
<P><I>Diuretics:</I> The effectiveness of diuretics in patients with underlying renal or cardiovascular disease may be diminished by the concomitant administration of aspirin due to inhibition of renal prostaglandins, leading to decreased renal blood flow and salt and fluid retention.
</P>
<P><I>Methotrexate:</I> Salicylate can inhibit renal clearance of methotrexate, leading to bone marrow toxicity, especially in the elderly or renal impaired.
</P>
<P><I>Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAID's):</I> The concurrent use of aspirin with other NSAID's should be avoided because this may increase bleeding or lead to decreased renal function.
</P>
<P><I>Oral Hypoglycemics:</I> Moderate doses of aspirin may increase the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic drugs, leading to hypoglycemia.
</P>
<P><I>Uricosuric Agents (Probenecid and Sulfinpyrazone):</I> Salicylates antagonize the uricosuric action of uricosuric agents.
</P>
<P><I>Carcinogenesis, Mutagenesis, Impairment of Fertility:</I> Administration of aspirin for 68 weeks at 0.5 percent in the feed of rats was not carcinogenic. In the Ames Salmonella assay, aspirin was not mutagenic; however, aspirin did induce chromosome aberrations in cultured human fibroblasts. Aspirin inhibits ovulation in rats. (See <I>Pregnancy.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Pregnancy:</I> Pregnant women should only take aspirin if clearly needed. Because of the known effects of NSAID's on the fetal cardiovascular system (closure of the ductus arteriosus), use during the third trimester of pregnancy should be avoided. Salicylate products have also been associated with alterations in maternal and neonatal hemostasis mechanisms, decreased birth weight, and with perinatal mortality.
</P>
<P><I>Labor and Delivery:</I> Aspirin should be avoided 1 week prior to and during labor and delivery because it can result in excessive blood loss at delivery. Prolonged gestation and prolonged labor due to prostaglandin inhibition have been reported.
</P>
<P><I>Nursing Mothers:</I> Nursing mothers should avoid using aspirin because salicylate is excreted in breast milk. Use of high doses may lead to rashes, platelet abnormalities, and bleeding in nursing infants.
</P>
<P><I>Pediatric Use:</I> Pediatric dosing recommendations for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are based on well-controlled clinical studies. An initial dose of 90-130 mg/kg/day in divided doses, with an increase as needed for anti-inflammatory efficacy (target plasma salicylate levels of 150-300 µg/mL) are effective. At high doses (<I>i.e.</I>, plasma levels of greater than 200 µg/mL), the incidence of toxicity increases.
</P>
<HD1>ADVERSE REACTIONS
</HD1>
<P>Many adverse reactions due to aspirin ingestion are dose-related. The following is a list of adverse reactions that have been reported in the literature. (See <E T="04">Warnings.</E>)
</P>
<P><I>Body as a Whole</I>: Fever, hypothermia, thirst.
</P>
<P><I>Cardiovascular:</I> Dysrhythmias, hypotension, tachycardia.
</P>
<P><I>Central Nervous System:</I> Agitation, cerebral edema, coma, confusion, dizziness, headache, subdural or intracranial hemorrhage, lethargy, seizures.
</P>
<P><I>Fluid and Electrolyte:</I> Dehydration, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis.
</P>
<P><I>Gastrointestinal:</I> Dyspepsia, GI bleeding, ulceration and perforation, nausea, vomiting, transient elevations of hepatic enzymes, hepatitis, Reye's Syndrome, pancreatitis.
</P>
<P><I>Hematologic:</I> Prolongation of the prothrombin time, disseminated intravascular coagulation, coagulopathy, thrombocytopenia.
</P>
<P><I>Hypersensitivity:</I> Acute anaphylaxis, angioedema, asthma, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, urticaria.
</P>
<P><I>Musculoskeletal:</I> Rhabdomyolysis.
</P>
<P><I>Metabolism:</I> Hypoglycemia (in children), hyperglycemia.
</P>
<P><I>Reproductive:</I> Prolonged pregnancy and labor, stillbirths, lower birth weight infants, antepartum and postpartum bleeding.
</P>
<P><I>Respiratory:</I> Hyperpnea, pulmonary edema, tachypnea.
</P>
<P><I>Special Senses:</I> Hearing loss, tinnitus. Patients with high frequency hearing loss may have difficulty perceiving tinnitus. In these patients, tinnitus cannot be used as a clinical indicator of salicylism.
</P>
<P><I>Urogenital:</I> Interstitial nephritis, papillary necrosis, proteinuria, renal insufficiency and failure.
</P>
<HD1>DRUG ABUSE AND DEPENDENCE
</HD1>
<P>Aspirin is nonnarcotic. There is no known potential for addiction associated with the use of aspirin.
</P>
<HD1>OVERDOSAGE
</HD1>
<P>Salicylate toxicity may result from acute ingestion (overdose) or chronic intoxication. The early signs of salicylic overdose (salicylism), including tinnitus (ringing in the ears), occur at plasma concentrations approaching 200 µg/mL. Plasma concentrations of aspirin above 300 µg/mL are clearly toxic. Severe toxic effects are associated with levels above 400 µg/mL. (See <E T="04">Clinical Pharmacology.</E>) A single lethal dose of aspirin in adults is not known with certainty but death may be expected at 30 g. For real or suspected overdose, a Poison Control Center should be contacted immediately. Careful medical management is essential.
</P>
<P><I>Signs and Symptoms:</I> In acute overdose, severe acid-base and electrolyte disturbances may occur and are complicated by hyperthermia and dehydration. Respiratory alkalosis occurs early while hyperventilation is present, but is quickly followed by metabolic acidosis.
</P>
<P><I>Treatment:</I> Treatment consists primarily of supporting vital functions, increasing salicylate elimination, and correcting the acid-base disturbance. Gastric emptying and/or lavage is recommended as soon as possible after ingestion, even if the patient has vomited spontaneously. After lavage and/or emesis, administration of activated charcoal, as a slurry, is beneficial, if less than 3 hours have passed since ingestion. Charcoal adsorption should not be employed prior to emesis and lavage.
</P>
<P>Severity of aspirin intoxication is determined by measuring the blood salicylate level. Acid-base status should be closely followed with serial blood gas and serum pH measurements. Fluid and electrolyte balance should also be maintained.
</P>
<P>In severe cases, hyperthermia and hypovolemia are the major immediate threats to life. Children should be sponged with tepid water. Replacement fluid should be administered intravenously and augmented with correction of acidosis. Plasma electrolytes and pH should be monitored to promote alkaline diuresis of salicylate if renal function is normal. Infusion of glucose may be required to control hypoglycemia.
</P>
<P>Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis can be performed to reduce the body drug content. In patients with renal insufficiency or in cases of life-threatening intoxication, dialysis is usually required. Exchange transfusion may be indicated in infants and young children.
</P>
<HD1>DOSAGE AND ADMINISTRATION
</HD1>
<P>Each dose of aspirin should be taken with a full glass of water unless patient is fluid restricted. Anti-inflammatory and analgesic dosages should be individualized. When aspirin is used in high doses, the development of tinnitus may be used as a clinical sign of elevated plasma salicylate levels except in patients with high frequency hearing loss.
</P>
<P><I>Ischemic Stroke and TIA:</I> 50-325 mg once a day. Continue therapy indefinitely.
</P>
<P><I>Suspected Acute MI:</I> The initial dose of 160-162.5 mg is administered as soon as an MI is suspected. The maintenance dose of 160-162.5 mg a day is continued for 30 days post-infarction. After 30 days, consider further therapy based on dosage and administration for prevention of recurrent MI.
</P>
<P><I>Prevention of Recurrent MI:</I> 75-325 mg once a day. Continue therapy indefinitely.
</P>
<P><I>Unstable Angina Pectoris:</I> 75-325 mg once a day. Continue therapy indefinitely.
</P>
<P><I>Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris:</I> 75-325 mg once a day. Continue therapy indefinitely.
</P>
<P><I>CABG:</I> 325 mg daily starting 6 hours post-procedure. Continue therapy for 1 year post-procedure.
</P>
<P><I>PTCA:</I> The initial dose of 325 mg should be given 2 hours pre-surgery. Maintenance dose is 160-325 mg daily. Continue therapy indefinitely.
</P>
<P><I>Carotid Endarterectomy:</I> Doses of 80 mg once daily to 650 mg twice daily, started presurgery, are recommended. Continue therapy indefinitely.
</P>
<P><I>Rheumatoid Arthritis:</I> The initial dose is 3 g a day in divided doses. Increase as needed for anti-inflammatory efficacy with target plasma salicylate levels of 150-300 µg/mL. At high doses (<I>i.e.</I>, plasma levels of greater than 200 µg/mL), the incidence of toxicity increases.
</P>
<P><I>Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis:</I> Initial dose is 90-130 mg/kg/day in divided doses. Increase as needed for anti-inflammatory efficacy with target plasma salicylate levels of 150-300 µg/mL. At high doses (<I>i.e.</I>, plasma levels of greater than 200 µg/mL), the incidence of toxicity increases. 
</P>
<P><I>Spondyloarthropathies:</I> Up to 4 g per day in divided doses.
</P>
<P><I>Osteoarthritis:</I> Up to 3 g per day in divided doses.
</P>
<P><I>Arthritis and Pleurisy of SLE:</I> The initial dose is 3 g a day in divided doses. Increase as needed for anti-inflammatory efficacy with target plasma salicylate levels of 150-300 µg/mL. At high doses (<I>i.e.</I>, plasma levels of greater than 200 mµ/mL), the incidence of toxicity increases.
</P>
<HD1>HOW SUPPLIED
</HD1>
<P>(<I>Insert specific information regarding, strength of dosage form, units in which the dosage form is generally available, and information to facilitate identification of the dosage form as required under § 201.57(k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(3).) Store in a tight container at 25</I> °C (77 °F); excursions permitted to 15-30 °C (59-86 °F).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>REV: October 23, 1998.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to, and immediately preceding, the labeling required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the professional labeling may contain the following highlights of prescribing information in the exact language and exact format provided, but only when accompanied by the comprehensive prescribing information required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01de98.008.gif"/>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 56814, Oct. 23, 1998; 63 FR 66015, 66016, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 49653, Sept. 14, 1999]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Testing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.90" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.20.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.90   Dissolution and drug release testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aspirin capsules.</I> Aspirin capsules must meet the dissolution standard for aspirin capsules as contained in the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) 23 at page 132.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aspirin delayed-release capsules and aspirin delayed-release tablets.</I> Aspirin delayed-release capsules and aspirin delayed-release tablets must meet the drug release standard for aspirin delayed-release capsules and aspirin delayed-release tablets as contained in USP 23 at pages 133 and 136 respectively.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aspirin tablets.</I> Aspirin tablets must meet the dissolution standard for aspirin tablets as contained in USP 23 at page 134.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Aspirin, alumina, and magnesia tablets.</I> Aspirin in combination with alumina and magnesia in a tablet dosage form must meet the dissolution standard for aspirin, alumina, and magnesia tablets as contained in USP 23 at page 138.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Aspirin, alumina, and magnesium oxide tablets.</I> Aspirin in combination with alumina, and magnesium oxide in a tablet dosage form must meet the dissolution standard for aspirin, alumina, and magnesium tablets as contained in USP 23 at page 139.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Aspirin effervescent tablets for oral solution.</I> Aspirin effervescent tablets for oral solution must meet the dissolution standard for aspirin effervescent tablets for oral solution as contained in USP 23 at page 137.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Buffered aspirin tablets.</I> Buffered aspirin tablets must meet the dissolution standard for buffered aspirin tablets as contained in USP 23 at page 135.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="344" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 344—TOPICAL OTIC DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 28660, Aug. 8, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter topical otic drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this part in addition to each of the general conditions established in § 330.1. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Anhydrous glycerin.</I> An ingredient that may be prepared by heating glycerin U.S.P. at 150 °C for 2 hours to drive off the moisture content. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Earwax removal aid.</I> A drug used in the external ear canal that aids in the removal of excessive earwax. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Water-clogged ears.</I> The retention of water in the external ear canal, thereby causing discomfort and a sensation of fullness or hearing impairment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ear drying aid.</I> A drug used in the external ear canal to help dry water-clogged ears.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 28660, Aug. 8, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 48905, Aug. 10, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.10   Earwax removal aid active ingredient.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of carbamide peroxide 6.5 percent formulated in an anhydrous glycerin vehicle. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 28660, Aug. 8, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 48905, Aug. 10, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.12   Ear drying aid active ingredient.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of isopropyl alcohol 95 percent in an anhydrous glycerin 5 percent base.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 48905, Aug. 10, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.50   Labeling of earwax removal aid drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “earwax removal aid.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indication.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indication,” the following: “For occasional use as an aid to” (which may be followed by: “soften, loosen, and”) “remove excessive earwax.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Do not use if you have ear drainage or discharge, ear pain, irritation, or rash in the ear or are dizzy; consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “Do not use if you have an injury or perforation (hole) of the ear drum or after ear surgery unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “Do not use for more than 4 days; if excessive earwax remains after use of this product, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(4) “Avoid contact with the eyes.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statement under the heading “Directions”: FOR USE IN THE EAR ONLY. Adults and children over 12 years of age: tilt head sideways and place 5 to 10 drops into ear. Tip of applicator should not enter ear canal. Keep drops in ear for several minutes by keeping head tilted or placing cotton in the ear. Use twice daily for up to 4 days if needed, or as directed by a doctor. Any wax remaining after treatment may be removed by gently flushing the ear with warm water, using a soft rubber bulb ear syringe. Children under 12 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 28660, Aug. 8, 1986; 52 FR 7830, Mar. 13, 1987; 65 FR 48905, Aug. 10, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.52" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.21.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.52   Labeling of ear drying aid drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “ear drying aid.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Use,” the following: “dries water in the ears” (optional, which may be followed by: “and relieves water-clogged ears”) (which may be followed by any or all of the following: “after: [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> swimming [bullet] showering [bullet] bathing [bullet] washing the hair”). Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Flammable [in bold type]: Keep away from fire or flame.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “Do not use [in bold type] in the eyes.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “Ask a doctor before use if you have [in bold type] [bullet] ear drainage or discharge [bullet] pain, irritation, or rash in the ear [bullet] had ear surgery [bullet] dizziness.” 
</P>
<P>(4) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [in bold type] irritation (too much burning) or pain occurs.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statement under the heading “Directions”: [optional, bullet] “apply 4 to 5 drops in each affected ear.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 48905, Aug. 10, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="346" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 346—ANORECTAL DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 31779, Aug. 3, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter anorectal drug product in a form suitable for external (topical) or intrarectal (rectal) administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 212 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Analgesic, anesthetic drug.</I> A topically (externally) applied drug that relieves pain by depressing cutaneous sensory receptors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Anorectal drug.</I> A drug that is used to relieve symptoms caused by anorectal disorders in the anal canal, perianal area, and/or the lower rectal areas.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Antipruritic drug.</I> A topically (externally) applied drug that relieves itching by depressing cutaneous sensory receptors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Astringent drug.</I> A drug that is applied topically (externally) to the skin or mucous membranes for a local and limited protein coagulant effect.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>External use.</I> Topical application of an anorectal drug product to the skin of the perianal area and/or the skin of the anal canal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Intrarectal use.</I> Topical application of an anorectal drug product to the mucous membrane of the rectum.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Keratolytic drug.</I> A drug that causes desquamation (loosening) and debridement or sloughing of the surface cells of the epidermis.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Local anesthetic drug.</I> A drug that produces local disappearance of pain, burning, itching, irritation, and/or discomfort by reversibly blocking nerve conduction when applied to nerve tissue in appropriate concentrations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protectant drug.</I> A drug that provides a physical barrier, forming a protective coating over skin or mucous membranes.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Vasoconstrictor.</I> A drug that causes temporary constriction of blood vessels.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.10   Local anesthetic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used in the concentration or within the concentration range established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) Benzocaine 5 to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) Benzyl alcohol 1 to 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Dibucaine 0.25 to 1 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) Dibucaine hydrochloride 0.25 to 1 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) Dyclonine hydrochloride 0.5 to 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(f) Lidocaine 2 to 5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(g) Pramoxine hydrochloride 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(h) Tetracaine 0.5 to 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(i) Tetracaine hydrochloride 0.5 to 1 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.12   Vasoconstrictor active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used in the concentration or within the concentration range established for each ingredient.
</P>
<P>(a) Ephedrine sulfate 0.1 to 1.25 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Epinephrine 0.005 to 0.01 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) Epinephrine hydrochloride 0.005 to 0.01 percent. 
</P>
<P>(d) Phenylephrine hydrochloride 0.25 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.14" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.14   Protectant active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following active ingredients may be used as the sole protectant active ingredient in a product if the ingredient as identified constitutes 50 percent or more by weight of the final product. In addition, the following active ingredients may be used in concentrations of less than 50 percent by weight only when used in combinations in accordance with § 346.22 (a), (b), or (n).
</P>
<P>(1) Aluminum hydroxide gel.
</P>
<P>(2) Cocoa butter.
</P>
<P>(3) Glycerin in a 20- to 45-percent (weight/weight) aqueous solution so that the final product contains not less than 10 and not more than 45 percent glycerin (weight/weight). Any combination product containing glycerin must contain at least this minimum amount of glycerin.
</P>
<P>(4) Hard fat.
</P>
<P>(5) Kaolin.
</P>
<P>(6) Lanolin.
</P>
<P>(7) Mineral oil.
</P>
<P>(8) Petrolatum.
</P>
<P>(9) Topical starch.
</P>
<P>(10) White petrolatum.
</P>
<P>(b) The following active ingredients may not be used as a sole protectant ingredient but may be used in combination with one, two, or three other protectant active ingredients in accordance with § 346.22 (a), (b), (n), and (o) and with the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) Calamine not to exceed 25 percent by weight per dosage unit (based on the zinc oxide content of calamine).
</P>
<P>(2) Cod liver oil, provided that the product is labeled so that the amount of the product that is used in a 24-hour period represents a quantity that provides 10,000 U.S.P. units of vitamin A and 400 U.S.P. units of cholecalciferol.
</P>
<P>(3) Shark liver oil, provided that the product is labeled so that the amount of the product that is used in a 24-hour period represents a quantity that provides 10,000 U.S.P. units of vitamin A and 400 U.S.P. units of cholecalciferol.
</P>
<P>(4) Zinc oxide not to exceed 25 percent by weight per dosage unit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.16" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.16   Analgesic, anesthetic, and antipruritic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the concentration range established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) Camphor 0.1 to 3 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Juniper tar 1 to 5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) Menthol 0.1 to 1 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.18" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.18   Astringent active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the concentration range established for each ingredient: 
</P>
<P>(a) Calamine, within a concentration range of 5 to 25 percent by weight per dosage unit (based on the zinc oxide content of calamine).
</P>
<P>(b) Witch hazel, 10 to 50 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) Zinc oxide, within a concentration range of 5 to 25 percent by weight per dosage unit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 31779, Aug. 3, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 28767, June 3, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.20   Keratolytic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the concentration range established for each ingredient: 
</P>
<P>(a) Alcloxa 0.2 to 2 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Resorcinol 1 to 3 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.22" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.22   Permitted combinations of anorectal active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any two, three, or four protectants identified in § 346.14(a) may be combined, except aluminum hydroxide gel in § 346.14(a)(1) and kaolin in § 346.14(a)(5) may not be combined with any ingredient in § 346.14(a) (2), (4), (6), (7), (8) and (10), and (b) (2) and (3), provided that the combined percentage by weight of all protectants in the combination is at least 50 percent of the final product (e.g., 1 gram of a 2-gram dosage unit). Any protectant ingredient included in the combination must be present at a level that contributes at least 12.5 percent by weight (e.g., 0.25 gram of a 2-gram dosage unit), except cod liver oil and shark liver oil. If an ingredient in § 346.14(b) is included in the combination, it must not exceed the concentration limit specified in § 346.14(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) Any single anorectal ingredient identified in § 346.10, 346.12, 346.16, 346.18, or 346.20 may be combined with up to four protectants in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Any single local anesthetic identified in § 346.10 may be combined with any single vasoconstrictor identified in § 346.12. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any single local anesthetic identified in § 346.10 may be combined with any single astringent identified in § 346.18.
</P>
<P>(e) Any single local anesthetic identified in § 346.10 may be combined with any single keratolytic identified in § 346.20.
</P>
<P>(f) Any single vasoconstrictor identified in § 346.12 may be combined with any single astringent identified in § 346.18. 
</P>
<P>(g) Any single analgesic, anesthetic, and antipruritic identified in § 346.16 may be combined with any single astringent identified in § 346.18. 
</P>
<P>(h) Any single analgesic, anesthetic, and antipruritic identified in § 346.16 may be combined with any single keratolytic identified in § 346.20.
</P>
<P>(i) Any single astringent identified in § 346.18 may be combined with any single keratolytic identified in § 346.20.
</P>
<P>(j) Any single local anesthetic identified in § 346.10 may be combined with any single vasoconstrictor identified in § 346.12 and with any single astringent identified in § 346.18.
</P>
<P>(k) Any single local anesthetic identified in § 346.10 may be combined with any single astringent identified in § 346.18 and with any single keratolytic identified in § 346.20.
</P>
<P>(l) Any single vasoconstrictor identified in § 346.12 may be combined with any single analgesic, anesthetic, and antipruritic identified in § 346.16 and with any single astringent identified in § 346.18.
</P>
<P>(m) Any single analgesic, anesthetic, and antipruritic identified in § 346.16 may be combined with any single astringent identified in § 346.18 and with any single keratolytic identified in § 346.20.
</P>
<P>(n) Any combination of ingredients listed in paragraphs (c) through (m) of this section may be combined with up to four protectants in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(o) Any product containing calamine for use as a protectant and/or as an astringent and/or containing zinc oxide for use as a protectant and/or as an astringent may not have a total weight of zinc oxide exceeding 25 percent by weight per dosage unit.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.50   Labeling of anorectal drug products.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling of the product contains the following information for anorectal ingredients identified in §§ 346.10, 346.12, 346.14, 346.16, 346.18, and 346.20, and for combinations of anorectal ingredients identified in § 346.22. Unless otherwise specified, the labeling in this subpart is applicable to anorectal drug products for both external and intrarectal use. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as “anorectal (hemorrhoidal),” “hemorrhoidal,” “hemorrhoidal (anorectal) (insert dosage form, e.g., cream, lotion, or ointment).” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” any of the phrases listed in paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) (“For the temporary relief of,” “Gives temporary relief of,” or “Helps relieve the”) (As an option, select one or both of the following: “local” or “anorectal”) [select one or more of the following: “discomfort,” “itching,” or “itching and discomfort,” followed by: “in the perianal area” or “associated with” (select one or more of the following: “hemorrhoids,” “anorectal disorders,” “inflamed hemorrhoidal tissues,” “anorectal inflammation,” “hemorrhoidal tissues,” or “piles (hemorrhoids).”)] 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional indications.</I> Indications applicable to each active ingredient of the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting indication is clear and understandable. In addition to the indication identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the labeling of the product intended for external or intrarectal use may also contain the following indications, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products for external use only containing any ingredient identified in § 346.10.</I> “For the temporary relief of” (select one or more of the following: “pain,” “soreness,” or “burning”).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing epinephrine or epinephrine hydrochloride identified in § 346.12 (b) and (c) for external use only, and for products containing ephedrine sulfate or phenylephrine hydrochloride identified in § 346.12 (a) and (d).</I> 
</P>
<P>(A) “Temporarily reduces the swelling associated with” (select one of the following: “irritated hemorrhoidal tissue and other anorectal disorders” or “irritation in hemorrhoids and other anorectal disorders”). 
</P>
<P>(B) “Temporarily shrinks hemorrhoidal tissue.” 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products for external use only containing glycerin identified in § 346.14(a)(3) and for products for external and/or intrarectal use containing any protectant identified in § 346.14(a) (2), (4), (6) through (10), and (b) (1) through (4).</I> 
</P>
<P>(A) “Temporarily forms a protective coating over inflamed tissues to help prevent drying of tissues.” 
</P>
<P>(B) “Temporarily protects irritated areas.” 
</P>
<P>(C) “Temporarily relieves burning.” 
</P>
<P>(D) “Provides temporary relief from skin irritations.” 
</P>
<P>(E) “Temporarily provides a coating for relief of anorectal discomforts.” 
</P>
<P>(F) “Temporarily protects the inflamed, irritated anorectal surface” (select one of the following: “to help make bowel movements less painful” or “from irritation and abrasion during bowel movement”). 
</P>
<P>(G) “Temporarily protects inflamed perianal skin.” 
</P>
<P>(H) “Temporarily relieves the symptoms of perianal skin irritation.” 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>For products containing aluminum hydroxide gel identified in § 346.14(a)(1) and for products containing kaolin identified in § 346.14(a)(5).</I> “For the temporary relief of itching associated with moist anorectal conditions.” 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>For products for external use only containing any analgesic, anesthetic, and antipruritic identified in § 346.16.</I> (A) “For the temporary relief of” (select one or both of the following: “pain” or “burning”). 
</P>
<P>(B) “Can help distract from pain.” 
</P>
<P>(C) “May provide a cooling sensation.” 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>For products for external use only containing witch hazel identified in § 346.18(b), and for products for external use and/or intrarectal use containing calamine or zinc oxide identified in § 346.18 (a) and (c).</I> 
</P>
<P>(A) “Aids in protecting irritated anorectal areas.” 
</P>
<P>(B) “Temporary relief of” (select one or both of the following: “irritation” or “burning”). 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>For products for external use only containing any ingredient identified in § 346.20.</I> The indication in paragraph (b)(1) of this section applies. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> Warnings applicable to each active ingredient of the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting warning is clear and understandable. The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) “If condition worsens or does not improve within 7 days, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “Do not exceed the recommended daily dosage unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “In case of bleeding, consult a doctor promptly.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products for external use only.</I> “Do not put this product into the rectum by using fingers or any mechanical device or applicator.” 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products for intrarectal use to be used with a special applicator such as a pile pipe or other mechanical device.</I> “Do not use this product with an applicator if the introduction of the applicator into the rectum causes additional pain. Consult a doctor promptly.” 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products for external use only containing any local anesthetic identified in § 346.10, menthol identified in § 346.16(c), or resorcinol identified in § 346.20(b).</I> “Certain persons can develop allergic reactions to ingredients in this product. If the symptom being treated does not subside or if redness, irritation, swelling, pain, or other symptoms develop or increase, discontinue use and consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For products containing any vasoconstrictor identified in § 346.12.</I> (i) “Do not use this product if you have heart disease, high blood pressure, thyroid disease, diabetes, or difficulty in urination due to enlargement of the prostate gland unless directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Ask a doctor or pharmacist before use if you are [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> presently taking a prescription drug for high blood pressure or depression.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing ephedrine sulfate identified in § 346.12(a).</I> “Some users of this product may experience nervousness, tremor, sleeplessness, nausea, and loss of appetite. If these symptoms persist or become worse, consult your doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>For products containing aluminum hydroxide gel identified in § 346.14(a)(1) and for products containing kaolin identified in § 346.14(a)(5).</I> “Remove petrolatum or greasy ointment before using this product because they interfere with the ability of this product to adhere properly to the skin area.” 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>For products for external use only containing resorcinol identified in § 346.20(b).</I> “Do not use on open wounds near the anus.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> Directions applicable to each active ingredient of the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable. The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: 
</P>
<P>(1) “<I>Adults:</I> When practical, cleanse the affected area” (select one or both of the following: “with mild soap and warm water and rinse thoroughly” or “by patting or blotting with an appropriate cleansing pad”). “Gently dry by patting or blotting with toilet tissue or a soft cloth before application of this product.” [Other appropriate directions in this section may be inserted here.] “Children under 12 years of age: consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products for external use only.</I> “Apply externally to the affected area” (insert appropriate time interval of administration as identified in paragraphs (d)(6), (7), (8), or (9) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products for external use that are pads containing anorectal ingredients.</I> “Gently apply to the affected area by patting and then discard.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products for intrarectal use that are wrapped suppositories.</I> “Remove wrapper before inserting into the rectum.” 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products for intrarectal use that are to be used with a special applicator such as a pile pipe or other mechanical device.</I> “FOR INTRARECTAL USE: Attach applicator to tube. Lubricate applicator well, then gently insert applicator into the rectum.” 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products for external use only containing any of the local anesthetics identified in § 346.10; analgesics, anesthetics, and antipruritics identified in § 346.16; or alcloxa or resorcinol identified in § 346.20.</I> Apply to the affected area up to 6 times daily.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products for external use only containing dibucaine or dibucaine hydrochloride identified in § 346.10 (c) and (d).</I> Apply to the affected area up to 3 or 4 times daily. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products for external use only containing pramoxine hydrochloride identified in § 346.10(g).</I> Apply to the affected area up to 5 times daily. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For products containing vasoconstrictors identified in § 346.12.</I> Apply to the affected area up to 4 times daily. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>For products for external use only containing glycerin identified in § 346.14(a)(3) or witch hazel identified in § 346.18(b), and for products for external and/or intrarectal use containing any protectant identified in § 346.14(a)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), (7), and (9), and (b)(1), (2), (3), and (4), or any astringent identified in § 346.18(a) and (c).</I> Apply to the affected area up to 6 times daily or after each bowel movement. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>For products containing petrolatum or white petrolatum identified in § 346.14(a)(8) and (10).</I> Apply liberally to the affected area as often as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 31779, Aug. 3, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 28767, June 3, 1994; 64 FR 13295, Mar. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.52" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.22.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.52   Labeling of permitted combinations of anorectal active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>Indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> For a combination drug product that has an established name, the labeling of the product states the established name of the combination drug product, followed by the statement of identity established in § 346.50(a). For a combination drug product that does not have an established name, the labeling of the product states the statement of identity established in § 346.50(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the indication(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the indications sections of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Warnings,” the warning(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the warnings sections of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Directions,” directions that conform to the directions established for each ingredient in the directions sections of this subpart. When the time intervals or age limitations for administration of the individual ingredients differ, the directions for the combination product may not exceed any maximum dosage limits established for the individual ingredients in the applicable OTC drug monograph. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="347" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 347—SKIN PROTECTANT DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 54462, Oct. 21, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter skin protectant drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Astringent drug product.</I> A drug product applied to the skin or mucous membranes for a local and limited protein coagulant effect.
</P>
<P><I>Lip protectant drug product.</I> A drug product that temporarily prevents dryness and helps relieve chapping of the exposed surfaces of the lips; traditionally called “lip balm.”
</P>
<P><I>Poison ivy, oak, sumac dermatitis.</I> An allergic contact dermatitis due to exposure to plants of the genus Rhus (poison ivy, poison oak, poison sumac), which contain urushiol, a potent skin-sensitizer.
</P>
<P><I>Skin protectant drug product.</I> A drug product that temporarily protects injured or exposed skin or mucous membrane surfaces from harmful or annoying stimuli, and may help provide relief to such surfaces.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 33376, June 4, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 33377, June 4, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 347.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.10   Skin protectant active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredients of the product consist of any of the following, within the concentration specified for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) Allantoin, 0.5 to 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) Aluminum hydroxide gel, 0.15 to 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Calamine, 1 to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) Cocoa butter, 50 to 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) Cod liver oil, 5 to 13.56 percent, in accordance with § 347.20(a)(1) or (a)(2), provided the product is labeled so that the quantity used in a 24-hour period does not exceed 10,000 U.S.P. Units vitamin A and 400 U.S.P. Units cholecalciferol.
</P>
<P>(f) Colloidal oatmeal, 0.007 percent minimum; 0.003 percent minimum in combination with mineral oil in accordance with § 347.20(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(g) Dimethicone, 1 to 30 percent.
</P>
<P>(h) Glycerin, 20 to 45 percent.
</P>
<P>(i) Hard fat, 50 to 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(j) Kaolin, 4 to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(k) Lanolin, 12.5 to 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(l) Mineral oil, 50 to 100 percent; 30 to 35 percent in combination with colloidal oatmeal in accordance with § 347.20(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(m) Petrolatum, 30 to 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(n) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) Sodium bicarbonate.
</P>
<P>(p) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q) Topical starch, 10 to 98 percent.
</P>
<P>(r) White petrolatum, 30 to 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(s) Zinc acetate, 0.1 to 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(t) Zinc carbonate, 0.2 to 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(u) Zinc oxide, 1 to 25 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.12   Astringent active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any one of the following within the specified concentration established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) Aluminum acetate, 0.13 to 0.5 percent (depending on the formulation and concentration of the marketed product, the manufacturer must provide adequate directions so that the resulting solution to be used by the consumer contains 0.13 to 0.5 percent aluminum acetate).
</P>
<P>(b) Aluminum sulfate, 46 to 63 percent (the concentration is based on the anhydrous equivalent).
</P>
<P>(c) Witch hazel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.20   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Combinations of skin protectant active ingredients.</I> (1) Any two or more of the ingredients identified in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r) may be combined provided the combination is labeled according to § 347.50(b)(1) and provided each ingredient in the combination is within the concentration specified in § 347.10.
</P>
<P>(2) Any two or more of the ingredients identified in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (g), (h), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r) may be combined provided the combination is labeled according to § 347.50(b)(2) and provided each ingredient in the combination is within the concentration specified in § 347.10.
</P>
<P>(3) Any two or more of the ingredients identified in § 347.10(b), (c), (j), (s), (t), and (u) may be combined provided the combination is labeled according to § 347.50(b)(3) and provided each ingredient in the combination is within the concentration specified in § 347.10.
</P>
<P>(4) The ingredients identified in § 347.10(f) and (l) may be combined provided the combination is labeled according to § 347.50(b)(7) and provided each ingredient in the combination is within the concentration specified in § 347.10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combination of ingredients to prepare an aluminum acetate solution.</I> Aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate may be combined with calcium acetate monohydrate in powder or tablet form to provide a 0.13 to 0.5 percent aluminum acetate solution when the powder or tablet is dissolved in the volume of water specified in “Directions.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Combinations of skin protectant and external analgesic active ingredients.</I> Any one (two when required to be in combination) or more of the active ingredients identified in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r) may be combined with any of the following generally recognized as safe and effective external analgesic active ingredients: Single amine and “caine”-type local anesthetics, alcohols and ketones, antihistamines, or any permitted combination of these ingredients, but not with hydrocortisone, provided the product is labeled according to § 347.60(b)(l).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Combinations of skin protectant and first aid antiseptic active ingredients.</I> Any one (two when required to be in combination) or more of the active ingredients identified in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single first aid antiseptic active ingredient, or any permitted combination of these ingredients, provided the product is labeled according to § 347.60(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Combinations of skin protectant and sunscreen active ingredients.</I> Any one (two when required to be in combination) or more of the skin protectant active ingredients identified in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (g), (h), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r) may be combined with any generally recognized as safe and effective single sunscreen active ingredient, or any permitted combination of these ingredients, provided the product meets the conditions in § 352.20(b) of this chapter and is labeled according to §§ 347.60(b)(3) and 352.60(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 33377, June 4, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 9765, Mar. 6, 2009]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 68 FR 33377, June 4, 2003, in § 347.20 paragraph (d) was stayed until further notice, effective June 4, 2004. At 74 FR 9765, Mar. 6, 2009, in § 347.20, paragraph (d) was redesignated as paragraph (e).</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 33377, June 4, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 347.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.50   Labeling of skin protectant drug products.</HEAD>
<P>A skin protectant drug product may have more than one labeled use and labeling appropriate to different uses may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases as long as the labeling is clear and understandable. When the labeling of the product contains more than one labeled use, the appropriate statement(s) of identity, indications, warnings, and directions must be stated in the labeling.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product with one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For any product.</I> “Skin protectant” (optional, may add dosage form, e.g., “cream,” “gel,” “lotion,” or “ointment”).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For any product formulated as a lip protectant.</I> “Skin protectant,” “lip protectant,” or “lip balm” (optional, may add dosage form, e.g., “cream,” “gel,” “lotion,” or “ointment”).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 347.10(b), (c), (j), (s), (t), and (u).</I> “Poison ivy, oak, sumac drying” (optional, may add dosage form, e.g., “cream,” “gel,” “lotion,” or “ointment”).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 347.10(b), (c), (f), (j), (o), (s), (t), and (u).</I> “Poison ivy, oak, sumac protectant.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” one or more of the phrases listed in this paragraph (b), as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the uses that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r).</I> The labeling states “temporarily protects minor: [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> cuts [bullet] scrapes [bullet] burns”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See</I> § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (g), (h), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r)</I>—(i) <I>The labeling states</I> (optional: “helps prevent and”) “temporarily protects” (optional: “and helps relieve”) (optional: “chafed,”) “chapped or cracked skin” (optional: “and lips”). This statement may be followed by the optional statement: “helps” (optional: “prevent and”) “protect from the drying effects of wind and cold weather”. [If both statements are used, each is preceded by a bullet.]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products formulated as a lip protectant.</I> The labeling states (optional: “helps prevent and”) “temporarily protects” (optional: “and helps relieve”) (optional: “chafed,”) “chapped or cracked lips”. This statement may be followed by the optional statement: “helps” (optional: “prevent and”) “protect from the drying effects of wind and cold weather”. [If both statements are used, each is preceded by a bullet.]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 347.10(b), (c), (j), (s), (t), and (u).</I> The labeling states “dries the oozing and weeping of poison: [bullet] ivy [bullet] oak [bullet] sumac”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing colloidal oatmeal identified in § 347.10(f).</I> The labeling states “temporarily protects and helps relieve minor skin irritation and itching due to: [select one or more of the following: ‘[bullet] rashes’ ‘[bullet] eczema’ ‘[bullet] poison ivy, oak, or sumac’ ‘[bullet] insect bites’].”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing sodium bicarbonate identified in § 347.10(o).</I> The labeling states “temporarily protects and helps relieve minor skin irritation and itching due to: [bullet] poison ivy, oak, or sumac [bullet] insect bites”.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products containing topical starch identified in § 347.10(q).</I> The labeling states “temporarily protects and helps relieve minor skin irritation”.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For products containing the combination of ingredients in § 347.20(a)(4).</I> The labeling states “temporarily protects and helps relieve minor skin irritation and itching due to: [select one or more of the following: ‘rashes’ or ‘eczema’].” [If both conditions are used, each is preceded by a bullet.]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) “For external use only” in accord with § 201.66(c)(5)(i) of this chapter. For products containing only mineral oil in § 347.10(l) or sodium bicarbonate in § 347.10(o), this warning may be omitted if labeling for oral use of the product is also provided.
</P>
<P>(2) “When using this product [bullet] do not get into eyes”.
</P>
<P>(3) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] condition worsens [bullet] symptoms last more than 7 days or clear up and occur again within a few days”.
</P>
<P>(4) For products labeled according to § 347.50(b)(1) or (b)(2): “Do not use on [bullet] deep or puncture wounds [bullet] animal bites [bullet] serious burns”.
</P>
<P>(5) For products containing colloidal oatmeal identified in § 347.10(f) when labeled for use as a soak in a tub. “When using this product [bullet] to avoid slipping, use mat in tub or shower”.
</P>
<P>(6) For powder products containing kaolin identified in § 347.10(j) or topical starch identified in § 347.10(q)—(i) “Do not use on [bullet] broken skin”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “When using this product [bullet] keep away from face and mouth to avoid breathing it”.
</P>
<P>(7) For products containing colloidal oatmeal identified in § 347.10(f) or sodium bicarbonate identified in § 347.10(o) when labeled for use as a soak, compress, or wet dressing. “When using this product [bullet] in some skin conditions, soaking too long may overdry”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements, as appropriate, under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products labeled according to § 347.50(b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(5), or (b)(6).</I> The labeling states “apply as needed”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing colloidal oatmeal identified in § 347.10(f)</I>—(i) <I>For products requiring dispersal in water.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] turn warm water faucet on to full force [bullet] slowly sprinkle” (manufacturer to insert quantity to be used) “of colloidal oatmeal directly under the faucet into the tub or container [bullet] stir any colloidal oatmeal settled on the bottom”.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>For products used as a soak in a bath.</I> The manufacturer must provide adequate directions to obtain a solution containing a minimum of 0.007 percent colloidal oatmeal or 0.003 percent colloidal oatmeal in the oilated form for a tub bath, sitz bath, or infant bath, or a minimum of 0.25 percent colloidal oatmeal for a foot bath. “For use as a soak in a bath: [bullet] soak affected area for 15 to 30 minutes as needed, or as directed by a doctor [bullet] pat dry (do not rub) to keep a thin layer on the skin”.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>For products used as a compress or wet dressing.</I> The manufacturer must provide adequate directions to obtain a solution containing a minimum of 0.25 percent colloidal oatmeal. “For use as a compress or wet dressing: [bullet] soak a clean, soft cloth in the mixture [bullet] apply cloth loosely to affected area for 15 to 30 minutes [bullet] repeat as needed or as directed by a doctor [bullet] discard mixture after each use”.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For topical products intended for direct application.</I> The labeling states “apply as needed”.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing sodium bicarbonate identified in § 347.10(o).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] adults and children 2 years of age and over:”
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling states “For use as a paste: [bullet] add enough water to the sodium bicarbonate to form a paste [bullet] apply to the affected area of the skin as needed, or as directed by a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “For use as a soak in a bath: [bullet] dissolve 1 to 2 cupfuls in a tub of warm water [bullet] soak for 10 to 30 minutes as needed, or as directed by a doctor [bullet] pat dry (do not rub) to keep a thin layer on the skin”.
</P>
<P>(iii) The labeling states “For use as a compress or wet dressing: [bullet] add sodium bicarbonate to water to make a mixture in a container [bullet] soak a clean, soft cloth in the mixture [bullet] apply cloth loosely to affected area for 15 to 30 minutes [bullet] repeat as needed or as directed by a doctor [bullet] discard mixture after each use”.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any of the directions in paragraphs (d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(ii), or (d)(3)(iii) of this section shall be followed by the statement: “[bullet] children under 2 years: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing aluminum hydroxide gel identified in § 347.10(b).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] children under 6 months: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing glycerin identified in § 347.10(h).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] children under 6 months: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For products containing zinc acetate identified in § 347.10(s).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] children under 2 years: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Products formulated and labeled as a lip protectant and that meet the criteria established in § 201.66(d)(10) of this chapter.</I> The title, headings, subheadings, and information described in § 201.66(c) of this chapter shall be printed in accordance with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling shall meet the requirements of § 201.66(c) of this chapter except that the title, headings, and information described in § 201.66(c)(1), (c)(3), (c)(6), and (c)(7) may be omitted, and the headings, subheadings, and information described in § 201.66(c)(2), (c)(4), and (c)(5) may be presented as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The active ingredients (§ 201.66(c)(2) of this chapter) shall be listed in alphabetical order.
</P>
<P>(ii) The heading and the indication required by § 201.66(c)(4) of this chapter may be limited to: “Use [in bold type] helps” (optional: “prevent and”) “protect” (optional: “and relieve”) “chapped lips”. If both optional terms are used, the indication may be limited to: “Use [in bold type] helps prevent, protect, and relieve chapped lips”.
</P>
<P>(iii) The “external use only” warning in § 347.50(c)(1) and in § 201.66(c)(5)(i) of this chapter may be omitted. The warnings in § 347.50(c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4) are not required.
</P>
<P>(iv) The subheadings in § 201.66(c)(5)(iii) through (c)(5)(vi) of this chapter may be omitted, provided the information after the heading “Warning” contains the warning in § 347.50(e)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(v) The warnings in § 201.66(c)(5)(x) of this chapter may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling shall be printed in accordance with the requirements of § 201.66(d) of this chapter except that any requirements related to § 201.66(c)(1), (c)(3), (c)(6), and (c)(7), and the horizontal barlines and hairlines described in § 201.66(d)(8), may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Products containing only cocoa butter, petrolatum, or white petrolatum identified in § 347.10(d), (m), and (r), singly or in combination with each other, and marketed other than as a lip protectant.</I> (1) The labeling shall meet the requirements of § 201.66(c) of this chapter except that the headings and information described in § 201.66(c)(3) and (c)(7) may be omitted, and the headings, subheadings, and information described in § 201.66(c)(2), (c)(4), and (c)(5) may be presented as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The active ingredients (§ 201.66(c)(2) of this chapter) shall be listed in alphabetical order.
</P>
<P>(ii) The heading and the indication required by § 201.66(c)(4) of this chapter may be limited to “Use [in bold type] helps protect minor cuts and burns” or “Use [in bold type] helps” (optional: “prevent and”) “protect chapped skin” or “Use [in bold type] helps protect minor cuts and burns and” (optional: “prevent and protect”) “chapped skin”.
</P>
<P>(iii) The warning in § 347.50(c)(3) may be revised to read “<I>See</I> a doctor if condition lasts more than 7 days.”
</P>
<P>(iv) The subheadings in § 201.66(c)(5)(iv) through (c)(5)(vii) of this chapter may be omitted, provided the information after the heading “Warnings” contains the warnings in § 347.50(c)(2), (c)(4), and (f)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling shall be printed in accordance with the requirements of § 201.66(d) of this chapter except that any requirements related to § 201.66(c)(3) and (c)(7) may be omitted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 33377, June 4, 2003, as amended at 68 FR 68511, Dec. 9, 2003; 73 FR 6017, Feb. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.52" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.52   Labeling of astringent drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “astringent.” <I>For products containing the combination of aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate and calcium acetate monohydrate identified in § 347.20(b)</I>, under the “Purpose” heading identified in § 201.66(c)(3) of this chapter, the labeling of each active ingredient in the product states “Astringent*”, which is followed by the statements “* When combined together in water, these ingredients form the active ingredient aluminum acetate. See [the following in bold italic type] Directions.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses” any of the phrases listed in this paragraph (b), as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b) may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition of section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing aluminum acetate identified in § 347.12(a) or the combination of aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate and calcium acetate monohydrate identified in § 347.20(b).</I> “For temporary relief of minor skin irritations due to: [select one or more of the following: ‘poison ivy,’ ‘poison oak,’ ‘poison sumac,’ ‘insect bites,’ ‘athlete's foot,’ or ‘rashes caused by soaps, detergents, cosmetics, or jewelry’].”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing aluminum sulfate identified in § 347.12(b) for use as a styptic pencil.</I> “Stops bleeding caused by minor surface cuts and abrasions as may occur during shaving.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing witch hazel identified in § 347.12(c).</I> “Relieves minor skin irritations due to: [select one or more of the following: 'insect bites,' 'minor cuts,' or 'minor scrapes'].” [If more than one condition is used, each is preceded by a bullet.]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For all products</I>—(i) The labeling states “For external use only”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] avoid contact with eyes. If contact occurs, rinse thoroughly with water.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing aluminum acetate identified in § 347.12(a), witch hazel identified in § 347.12(c), or the combination of aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate and calcium acetate monohydrate identified in § 347.20(b).</I> The labeling states “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] condition worsens or symptoms last more than 7 days”.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing aluminum acetate identified in § 347.12(a) or the combination of aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate and calcium acetate monohydrate identified in § 347.20(b) when labeled for use as a compress or wet dressing.</I> The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] do not cover compress or wet dressing with plastic to prevent evaporation”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing aluminum acetate identified in § 347.12(a) or the combination of aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate and calcium acetate monohydrate identified in § 347.20(b) when labeled for use as a soak, compress, or wet dressing.</I> The labeling states “When using this product [bullet] in some skin conditions, soaking too long may overdry”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing aluminum acetate identified in § 347.12(a) or the combination of aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate and calcium acetate monohydrate identified in § 347.20(b)</I>—(i) <I>For products used as a soak.</I> “For use as a soak: [preceding words in bold type] [bullet] soak affected area for 15 to 30 minutes as needed, or as directed by a doctor [bullet] repeat 3 times a day or as directed by a doctor [bullet] discard solution after each use” .
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products used as a compress or wet dressing.</I> “For use as a compress or wet dressing: [preceding words in bold type] [bullet] soak a clean, soft cloth in the solution [bullet] apply cloth loosely to affected area for 15 to 30 minutes [bullet] repeat as needed or as directed by a doctor [bullet] discard solution after each use”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing aluminum sulfate identified in § 347.12(b) for use as a styptic pencil.</I> “Moisten tip of pencil with water and apply to the affected area. Dry pencil after use.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing witch hazel identified in § 347.12(c).</I> “Apply as often as needed”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing the combination of aluminum sulfate tetradecahydrate and calcium acetate monohydrate identified in § 347.20(b)</I>—(i) <I>For powder dosage form.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] dissolve 1 to 3 packets in [insert volume] of cool or warm water [bullet] stir until fully dissolved; do not strain or filter. The resulting mixture contains [insert percent] (1 packet), [insert percent] (2 packets), or [insert percent] (3 packets) aluminum acetate and is ready for use.” These statements shall be the first statements under the heading “Directions”.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For tablet dosage form.</I> The labeling states “[bullet] dissolve 1 to 3 tablets in [insert volume] of cool or warm water [bullet] stir until fully dissolved; do not strain or filter. The resulting mixture contains [insert percent] (1 tablet), [insert percent] (2 tablets), or [insert percent] (3 tablets) aluminum acetate and is ready for use.” These statements shall be the first statements under the heading “Directions”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Products formulated and labeled as a styptic pencil and that meet the criteria established in § 201.66(d)(10) of this chapter.</I> The title, headings, subheadings, and information described in § 201.66(c) of this chapter shall be printed in accordance with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling shall meet the requirements of § 201.66(c) of this chapter except that the headings and information described in § 201.66(c)(3) and (c)(7) may be omitted, and the headings, subheadings, and information described in § 201.66(c)(4) and (c)(5) may be presented as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The heading and indication required by § 201.66(c)(4) of this chapter may be limited to: “Use [in bold type] stops bleeding of minor cuts from shaving”.
</P>
<P>(ii) The “external use only” warning in § 347.52(c)(1) and in § 201.66(c)(5)(i) of this chapter may be omitted. The second warning in § 347.52(c)(1) may state: “avoid contact with eyes”. The warning in § 201.66(c)(5)(x) may be limited to the following: “Keep out of reach of children.” The subheadings in § 201.66(c)(5)(iii) through (c)(5)(vii) may be omitted, provided the information after the heading “Warning” contains the warnings in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling shall be printed in accordance with the requirements of § 201.66(d) of this chapter except that any requirements related to § 201.66(c)(3) and (c)(7), and the horizontal barlines and hairlines described in § 201.66(d)(8), may be omitted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 33377, June 4, 2003, as amended at 68 FR 35293, June 13, 2003; 69 FR 3005, Jan. 22, 2004; 74 FR 9765, Mar. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.23.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.60   Labeling of permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The statement of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> For a combination drug product that has an established name, the labeling of the product states the established name of the combination drug product, followed by the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs. For a combination drug product that does not have an established name, the labeling of the product states the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” the indication(s) for each ingredient in the combination as established in the indications sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph (b). Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established in the applicable OTC drug monographs or listed in this paragraph (b) may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. In addition to the required information identified in this paragraph (b), the labeling of the product may contain any of the “other allowable statements” that are identified in the applicable monographs, provided such statements are neither placed in direct conjunction with information required to appear in the labeling nor occupy labeling space with greater prominence or conspicuousness than the required information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Combinations of skin protectant and external analgesic active ingredients in § 347.20(b).</I> In addition to any or all of the indications for skin protectant drug products in § 347.50(b)(1), any or all of the allowable indications for external analgesic drug products may be used if the product is labeled for concurrent symptoms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combinations of skin protectant and first aid antiseptic active ingredients in § 347.20(c).</I> In addition to any or all of the indications for skin protectant drug products in § 347.50(b)(1), the required indications for first aid antiseptic drug products should be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combinations of skin protectant and sunscreen active ingredients in § 347.20(d).</I> In addition to any or all of the indications for skin protectant drug products in § 347.50(b)(2)(i), the required indications for sunscreen drug products should be used and any or all of the additional indications for sunscreen drug products may be used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Warnings,” the warning(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the warnings section of the applicable OTC drug monographs unless otherwise stated in this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For combinations containing a skin protectant and a sunscreen identified in §§ 347.20(d) and 352.20(b).</I> The warnings for sunscreen drug products in § 352.60(c) of this chapter are used.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Directions,” directions that conform to the directions established for each ingredient in the directions sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph (d). When the time intervals or age limitations for administration of the individual ingredients differ, the directions for the combination product may not contain any dosage that exceeds those established for any individual ingredient in the applicable OTC drug monograph(s), and may not provide for use by any age group lower than the highest minimum age limit established for any individual ingredient.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For combinations containing a skin protectant and a sunscreen identified in §§ 347.20(d) and 352.20(b).</I> The directions for sunscreen drug products in § 352.60(d) of this chapter are used.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="348" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 348—EXTERNAL ANALGESIC DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 27656, June 19, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter external analgesic drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Male genital desensitizing drug product.</I> A drug product applied to the penis to help in temporarily slowing the onset of ejaculation.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.10   Analgesic, anesthetic, and antipruritic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following within the specified concentration established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Male genital desensitizers.</I> (1) Benzocaine, 3 to 7.5 percent in a water-soluble base.
</P>
<P>(2) Lidocaine in a metered spray with approximately 10 milligrams per spray.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.24.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.50   Labeling of external analgesic drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 348.10(a).</I> “Male genital desensitizer.”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” any of the phrases listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 348.10(a).</I> (i) “Helps in the prevention of premature ejaculation.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “For temporary male genital desensitization, helping to slow the onset of ejaculation.” 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Helps in temporarily” (select one of the following: “retarding the onset of,” “slowing the onset of,” or “prolonging the time until”) followed by “ejaculation.” 
</P>
<P>(iv) “For reducing oversensitivity in the male in advance of intercourse.”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 348.10(a).</I> (i) “Premature ejaculation may be due to a condition requiring medical supervision. If this product, used as directed, does not provide relief, discontinue use and consult a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Avoid contact with the eyes.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “If you or your partner develop a rash or irritation, such as burning or itching, discontinue use. If symptoms persist, consult a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 348.10(a)</I>—(i) <I>For products containing benzocaine identified in § 348.10(a)(1).</I> “Apply a small amount to head and shaft of penis before intercourse, or use as directed by a doctor. Wash product off after intercourse.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing lidocaine identified in § 348.10(a)(2).</I> “Apply 3 or more sprays, not to exceed 10, to head and shaft of penis before intercourse, or use as directed by a doctor. Wash product off after intercourse.”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="349" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 349—OPHTHALMIC DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 7090, Mar. 4, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter ophthalmic drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this part and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ophthalmic drug product.</I> A drug product, which should be sterile in accordance with § 200.50, to be applied to the eyelid or instilled in the eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Astringent.</I> A locally acting pharmacologic agent which, by precipitating protein, helps to clear mucus from the outer surface of the eye. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Buffering agent.</I> A substance which stabilizes the pH of solutions against changes produced by introduction of acids or bases from such sources as drugs, body fluids, tears, etc. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Demulcent.</I> An agent, usually a water-soluble polymer, which is applied topically to the eye to protect and lubricate mucous membrane surfaces and relieve dryness and irritation. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Emollient.</I> An agent, usually a fat or oil, which is applied locally to eyelids to protect or soften tissues and to prevent drying and cracking. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Eyewash, eye lotion, irrigating solution.</I> A sterile aqueous solution intended for washing, bathing, or flushing the eye. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hypertonicity agent.</I> An agent which exerts an osmotic gradient greater than that present in body tissues and fluids, so that water is drawn from the body tissues and fluids across semipermeable membranes. Applied topically to the eye, a hypertonicity agent creates an osmotic gradient which draws water out of the cornea. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Isotonicity.</I> A state or quality in which the osmotic pressure in two fluids is equal. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Vasoconstrictor.</I> A pharmacologic agent which, when applied topically to the mucous membranes of the eye, causes transient constriction of conjunctival blood vessels. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.10   Ophthalmic astringent.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient and its concentration in the product is as follows: Zinc sulfate, 0.25 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.12" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.12   Ophthalmic demulcents.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredients of the product consist of any of the following, within the established concentrations for each ingredient: 
</P>
<P>(a) Cellulose derivatives: 
</P>
<P>(1) Carboxymethylcellulose sodium, 0.2 to 2.5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Hydroxyethyl cellulose, 0.2 to 2.5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(3) Hypromellose, 0.2 to 2.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Methylcellulose, 0.2 to 2.5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Dextran 70, 0.1 percent when used with another polymeric demulcent agent in this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Gelatin, 0.01 percent. 
</P>
<P>(d) Polyols, liquid: 
</P>
<P>(1) Glycerin, 0.2 to 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Polyethylene glycol 300, 0.2 to 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(3) Polyethylene glycol 400, 0.2 to 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(4) Polysorbate 80, 0.2 to 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(5) Propylene glycol, 0.2 to 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(e) Polyvinyl alcohol, 0.1 to 4 percent. 
</P>
<P>(f) Povidone, 0.1 to 2 percent. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7090, Mar. 4, 1988, as amended at 68 FR 32982, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.14" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.14   Ophthalmic emollients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredients of the product consist of any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Lanolin preparations: 
</P>
<P>(1) Anhydrous lanolin, 1 to 10 percent in combination with one or more oleaginous emollient agents included in the monograph. 
</P>
<P>(2) Lanolin, 1 to 10 percent in combination with one or more oleaginous emollient agents included in the monograph. 
</P>
<P>(b) Oleaginous ingredients: 
</P>
<P>(1) Light mineral oil, up to 50 percent in combination with one or more other emollient agents included in the monograph. 
</P>
<P>(2) Mineral oil, up to 50 percent in combination with one or more other emollient agents included in the monograph. 
</P>
<P>(3) Paraffin, up to 5 percent in combination with one or more other emollient agents included in the monograph. 
</P>
<P>(4) Petrolatum, up to 100 percent. 
</P>
<P>(5) White ointment, up to 100 percent. 
</P>
<P>(6) White petrolatum, up to 100 percent. 
</P>
<P>(7) White wax, up to 5 percent in combination with one or more other emollient agents included in the monograph. 
</P>
<P>(8) Yellow wax, up to 5 percent in combination with one or more other emollient agents included in the monograph. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.16" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.16   Ophthalmic hypertonicity agent.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient and its concentration in the product is as follows: Sodium chloride, 2 to 5 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.18" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.18   Ophthalmic vasoconstrictors.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of one of the following, within the established concentration for each ingredient: 
</P>
<P>(a) Ephedrine hydrochloride, 0.123 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Naphazoline hydrochloride, 0.01 to 0.03 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) Phenylephrine hydrochloride, 0.08 to 0.2 percent. 
</P>
<P>(d) Tetrahydrozoline hydrochloride, 0.01 to 0.05 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.20   Eyewashes.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product is purified water. The product also contains suitable tonicity agents to establish isotonicity with tears, suitable agents for establishing pH and buffering to achieve the same pH as tears, and a suitable preservative agent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 7921, Feb. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.30" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.30   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The following combinations are permitted provided each active ingredient is present within the established concentration, and the product is labeled in accordance with § 349.79. 
</P>
<P>(a) Any single ophthalmic astringent active ingredient identified in § 349.10 may be combined with any single ophthalmic vasoconstrictor active ingredient identified in § 349.18. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any two or three ophthalmic demulcent active ingredients identified in § 349.12 may be combined. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any single ophthalmic demulcent active ingredient identified in § 349.12 or any ophthalmic demulcent combination identified in paragraph (b) of this section may be combined with any single ophthalmic vasoconstrictor identified in § 349.18. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any single ophthalmic astringent active ingredient identified in § 349.10 may be combined with any single ophthalmic vasoconstrictor active ingredient identified in § 349.18 and any single ophthalmic demulcent identified in § 349.12 or ophthalmic demulcent combination identified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any two or more emollient active ingredients identified in § 349.14 may be combined as necessary to give the product proper consistency for application to the eye. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.50   Labeling of ophthalmic drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where applicable, indications in this part applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this part, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of the product contains the following warnings, under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For ophthalmic drug products packaged in multi-use containers.</I> “To avoid contamination, do not touch tip of container to any surface. Replace cap after using.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For ophthalmic drug products packaged in single-use containers.</I> “To avoid contamination, do not touch tip of container to any surface. Do not reuse. Once opened, discard.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For ophthalmic drug products containing mercury compounds used as a preservative.</I> “This product contains (name and quantity of mercury-containing ingredient) as a preservative. Do not use this product if you are sensitive to” (select one of the following: “mercury” or “(insert name of mercury-containing ingredient) or any other ingredient containing mercury).”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.55" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.55   Labeling of ophthalmic astringent drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “astringent” (select one of the following: “eye” or “ophthalmic”) “(insert dosage form, e.g., drops).” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following phrase: “For the temporary relief of discomfort from minor eye irritations.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> In addition to the warnings in § 349.50, the labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings” for products containing any ingredient identified in § 349.10: 
</P>
<P>(1) “If you experience eye pain, changes in vision, continued redness or irritation of the eye, or if the condition worsens or persists for more than 72 hours, discontinue use and consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “If solution changes color or becomes cloudy, do not use.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: Instill 1 to 2 drops in the affected eye(s) up to four times daily. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.60   Labeling of ophthalmic demulcent drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug(s), if any, and identifies the product as a “lubricant” or “demulcent (lubricant)” (select one of the following: “eye” or “ophthalmic”) “(insert dosage form, e.g., drops).” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” one or more of the following phrases: 
</P>
<P>(1) “For the temporary relief of burning and irritation due to dryness of the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “For the temporary relief of discomfort due to minor irritations of the eye or to exposure to wind or sun.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “For use as a protectant against further irritation or to relieve dryness of the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(4) “For use as a lubricant to prevent further irritation or to relieve dryness of the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> In addition to the warnings in § 349.50, the labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings” for products containing any ingredient identified in § 349.12: 
</P>
<P>(1) “If you experience eye pain, changes in vision, continued redness or irritation of the eye, or if the condition worsens or persists for more than 72 hours, discontinue use and consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “If solution changes color or becomes cloudy, do not use.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: Instill 1 or 2 drops in the affected eye(s) as needed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.65" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.65   Labeling of ophthalmic emollient drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug(s), if any, and identifies the product as a “lubricant” or “emollient (lubricant)” (select one of the following: “eye” or “ophthalmic”) “(insert dosage form, e.g., ointment).” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” one or more of the following phrases: 
</P>
<P>(1) “For the temporary relief of burning and irritation due to dryness of the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “For the temporary relief of discomfort due to minor irritations of the eye or to exposure to wind or sun.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “For use as a protectant against further irritation or to relieve dryness of the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(4) “For use as a lubricant to prevent further irritation or to relieve dryness of the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> In addition to the warnings in § 349.50, the labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings” for products containing any ingredient identified in § 349.14: “If you experience eye pain, changes in vision, continued redness or irritation of the eye, or if the condition worsens or persists for more than 72 hours, discontinue use and consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: Pull down the lower lid of the affected eye and apply a small amount (one-fourth inch) of ointment to the inside of the eyelid. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.70" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.70   Labeling of ophthalmic hypertonicity drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “hypertonicity” (select one of the following: “eye” or “ophthalmic”) “(insert dosage form, e.g., drops).” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following phrase: “For the temporary relief of corneal edema.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> In addition to the warnings in § 349.50, the labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings” for products containing any ingredient identified in § 349.16: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Do not use this product except under the advice and supervision of a doctor. If you experience eye pain, changes in vision, continued redness or irritation of the eye, or if the condition worsens or persists, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “This product may cause temporary burning and irritation on being instilled into the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “If solution changes color or becomes cloudy, do not use.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: Instill 1 or 2 drops in the affected eye(s) every 3 or 4 hours, or as directed by a doctor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.75" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.75   Labeling of ophthalmic vasoconstrictor drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug(s), if any, and identifies the product as a “redness reliever” or “vasoconstrictor (redness reliever)” (select one of the following: “eye” or “ophthalmic”) “(insert dosage form, e.g., drops).” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following phrase: “Relieves redness of the eye due to minor eye irritations.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> In addition to the warnings in § 349.50, the labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings” for products containing any ingredient identified in § 349.18: 
</P>
<P>(1) “If you experience eye pain, changes in vision, continued redness or irritation of the eye, or if the condition worsens or persists for more than 72 hours, discontinue use and consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “Ask a doctor before use if you have [in bold type] narrow angle glaucoma.”
</P>
<P>(3) “Overuse of this product may produce increased redness of the eye.” 
</P>
<P>(4) “If solution changes color or becomes cloudy, do not use.” 
</P>
<P>(5) “When using this product [in bold type] pupils may become enlarged temporarily.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: Instill 1 to 2 drops in the affected eye(s) up to four times daily.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7090, Mar. 4, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 38428, June 21, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.78" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.78   Labeling of eyewash drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product identifies the product with one or more of the following terms: “eyewash,” “eye irrigation,” or “eye irrigating solution.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” one of the following phrases: 
</P>
<P>(1) “For” (select one of the following: “flushing,” “irrigating,” “cleansing,” “washing,” or “bathing”) “the eye to remove” (select one or more of the following: “loose foreign material,” “air pollutants (smog or pollen),” or “chlorinated water”). 
</P>
<P>(2) “For” (select one of the following: “flushing,” “irrigating,” “cleansing,” “washing,” or “bathing”) “the eye to help relieve” (select one or more of the following: “irritation,” “discomfort,” “burning,” “stinging,” “smarting,” or “itching”) “by removing” (select one or more of the following: “loose foreign material,” “air pollutants (smog or pollen),” or “chlorinated water”). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> In addition to the warnings in § 349.50, the labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings” for all eyewash products: 
</P>
<P>(1) “If you experience eye pain, changes in vision, continued redness or irritation of the eye, or if the condition worsens or persists, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) “Obtain immediate medical treatment for all open wounds in or near the eyes.” 
</P>
<P>(3) “If solution changes color or becomes cloudy, do not use.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For eyewash products intended for use with an eyecup.</I> Rinse cup with clean water immediately before each use. Avoid contamination of rim and inside surfaces of cup. Fill cup half full and apply the cup to the affected eye, pressing tightly to prevent the escape of the liquid, and tilt the head backward. Open eyelids wide and rotate eyeball to ensure thorough bathing with the wash or lotion. Rinse cup with clean water after each use. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For eyewash products intended for use with a nozzle applicator.</I> Flush the affected eye as needed, controlling the rate of flow of solution by pressure on the bottle. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 7090, Mar. 4, 1988, as amended at 68 FR 7921, Feb. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.79" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.79   Labeling of permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>Statements of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> For a combination drug product that has an established name, the labeling of the product states the established name of the combination drug product, followed by the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of this part. For a combination drug product that does not have an established name, the labeling of the product states the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the indication(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the indications sections of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Warnings,” the warning(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the warnings sections of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Directions,” directions that conform to the directions established for each ingredient in the directions sections of this part. When the time intervals or age limitations for administration of the individual ingredients differ, the directions for the combination product may not exceed any maximum dosage limits established for the individual ingredients in the applicable OTC drug monograph. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.80" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.25.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.80   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling of any OTC ophthalmic demulcent drug product provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain instructions for the use of these products in professional eye examinations (<I>i.e.</I>, gonioscopy, electroretinography). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="350" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 350—ANTIPERSPIRANT DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 34291, June 9, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 350.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 350.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter antiperspirant drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 350.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 350.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Antiperspirant.</I> A drug product applied topically that reduces the production of perspiration (sweat) at that site.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 350.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 350.10   Antiperspirant active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following within the established concentration and dosage formulation. Where applicable, the ingredient must meet the aluminum to chloride, aluminum to zirconium, and aluminum plus zirconium to chloride atomic ratios described in the U.S. Pharmacopeia-National Formulary. The concentration of ingredients in paragraphs (b) through (j) of this section is calculated on an anhydrous basis, omitting from the calculation any buffer component present in the compound, in an aerosol or nonaerosol dosage form. The concentration of ingredients in paragraphs (k) through (r) of this section is calculated on an anhydrous basis, omitting from the calculation any buffer component present in the compound, in a nonaerosol dosage form. The labeled declaration of the percentage of the active ingredient should exclude any water, buffer components, or propellant.
</P>
<P>(a) Aluminum chloride up to 15 percent, calculated on the hexahydrate form, in an aqueous solution nonaerosol dosage form.
</P>
<P>(b) Aluminum chlorohydrate up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Aluminum chlorohydrex polyethylene glycol up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) Aluminum chlorohydrex propylene glycol up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) Aluminum dichlorohydrate up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) Aluminum dichlorohydrex polyethylene glycol up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) Aluminum dichlorohydrex propylene glycol up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(h) Aluminum sesquichlorohydrate up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(i) Aluminum sesquichlorohydrex polyethylene glycol up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(j) Aluminum sesquichlorohydrex propylene glycol up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(k) Aluminum zirconium octachlorohydrate up to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(l) Aluminum zirconium octachlorohydrex gly up to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(m) Aluminum zirconium pentachlorohydrate up to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(n) Aluminum zirconium pentachlorohydrex gly up to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(o) Aluminum zirconium tetrachlorohydrate up to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(p) Aluminum zirconium tetrachlorohydrex gly up to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(q) Aluminum zirconium trichlorohydrate up to 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(r) Aluminum zirconium trichlorohydrex gly up to 20 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 350.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 350.50   Labeling of antiperspirant drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as an “antiperspirant.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” the phrase listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and may contain any additional phrases listed in paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(5) of this section, as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the uses that have been established and listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) For any product, the labeling states [select one of the following: “decreases,” “lessens,” or “reduces”] “underarm” [select one of the following: “dampness,” “perspiration,” “sweat,” “sweating,” or “wetness”].
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling may state “also [select one of the following: ‘decreases,’ ‘lessens,’ or ‘reduces’] underarm [select one of the following: ‘dampness,’ ‘perspiration,’ ‘sweat,’ ‘sweating,’ or ‘wetness’] due to stress”.
</P>
<P>(3) For products that demonstrate standard effectiveness (20 percent sweat reduction) over a 24-hour period, the labeling may state [select one of the following: “all day protection,” “lasts all day,” “lasts 24 hours,” or “24 hour protection”].
</P>
<P>(4) For products that demonstrate extra effectiveness (30 percent sweat reduction), the labeling may state “extra effective”.
</P>
<P>(5) Products that demonstrate extra effectiveness (30 percent sweat reduction) sustained over a 24-hour period may state the claims in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section either individually or combined, e.g., “24 hour extra effective protection”, “all day extra effective protection,” “extra effective protection lasts 24 hours,” or “extra effective protection lasts all day”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) “Do not use on broken skin”.
</P>
<P>(2) “Stop use if rash or irritation occurs”.
</P>
<P>(3) “Ask a doctor before use if you have kidney disease”.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products in an aerosolized dosage form.</I> (i) “When using this product [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> keep away from face and mouth to avoid breathing it”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The warning required by § 369.21 of this chapter for drugs in dispensers pressurized by gaseous propellants.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statement under the heading “Directions”: “apply to underarms only”.
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 69 FR 61149, Oct. 15, 2004, the limitation of the enhanced duration claim to 24 hours (21 CFR 350.50 (b)(3) and (b) (5)) was stayed until further notice.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Guidelines for Effectiveness Testing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 350.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.26.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 350.60   Guidelines for effectiveness testing of antiperspirant drug products.</HEAD>
<P>An antiperspirant in finished dosage form may vary in degree of effectiveness because of minor variations in formulation. To assure the effectiveness of an antiperspirant, the Food and Drug Administration is providing guidelines that manufacturers may use in testing for effectiveness. These guidelines are on file in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. These guidelines are available on the FDA's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/cder/otc/index.htm</I> or on request for a nominal charge by submitting a Freedom of Information (FOI) request in writing to FDA's Division of Freedom of Information (address is located on the agency's web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 34291, June 9, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="352" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 352—SUNSCREEN DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE [STAYED INDEFINITELY]
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 27687, May 21, 1999, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 68 FR 33381, June 4, 2003, part 352 was stayed until further notice, effective June 4, 2004.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter sunscreen drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to Chapter I of Title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Minimal erythema dose (MED).</I> The quantity of erythema-effective energy (expressed as Joules per square meter) required to produce the first perceptible, redness reaction with clearly defined borders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Product category designation (PCD).</I> A labeling designation for sunscreen drug products to aid in selecting the type of product best suited to an individual's complexion (pigmentation) and desired response to ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Minimal sun protection product.</I> A sunscreen product that provides a sun protection factor (SPF) value of 2 to under 12.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Moderate sun protection product.</I> A sunscreen product that provides an SPF value of 12 to under 30.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>High sun protection product.</I> A sunscreen product that provides an SPF value of 30 or above.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sunscreen active ingredient.</I> An active ingredient listed in § 352.10 that absorbs, reflects, or scatters radiation in the UV range at wavelengths from 290 to 400 nanometers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sun protection factor (SPF) value.</I> The UV energy required to produce an MED on protected skin divided by the UV energy required to produce an MED on unprotected skin, which may also be defined by the following ratio: SPF value  = MED (protected skin (PS))/MED (unprotected skin (US)), where MED (PS) is the minimal erythema dose for protected skin after application of 2 milligrams per square centimeter of the final formulation of the sunscreen product, and MED (US) is the minimal erythema dose for unprotected skin, <I>i.e.</I>, skin to which no sunscreen product has been applied. In effect, the SPF value is the reciprocal of the effective transmission of the product viewed as a UV radiation filter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.10   Sunscreen active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following, within the concentration specified for each ingredient, and the finished product provides a minimum SPF value of not less than 2 as measured by the testing procedures established in subpart D of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Aminobenzoic acid (PABA) up to 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) Avobenzone up to 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Cinoxate up to 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) Dioxybenzone up to 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) Homosalate up to 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) Menthyl anthranilate up to 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(i) Octocrylene up to 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(j) Octyl methoxycinnamate up to 7.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(k) Octyl salicylate up to 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(l) Oxybenzone up to 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(m) Padimate O up to 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(n) Phenylbenzimidazole sulfonic acid up to 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(o) Sulisobenzone up to 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(p) Titanium dioxide up to 25 percent.
</P>
<P>(q) Trolamine salicylate up to 12 percent.
</P>
<P>(r) Zinc oxide up to 25 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27687, May 21, 1999]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 67 FR 41823, June 20, 2002, § 352.10 was amended by revising paragraphs (f) through (n), effective Sept. 1, 2002. This amendment could not be incorporated because at 66 FR 67485, Dec. 31, 2001, the effective date was stayed until further notice. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:
</PSPACE>
<REVTXT>


<HEAD>§ 352.10   Sunscreen active ingredients.</HEAD><STARS/>
<P>(f) Ensulizole up to 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) Homosalate up to 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) Meradimate up to 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(j) Octinoxate up to 7.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(k) Octisalate up to 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(l) Octocrylene up to 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(m) Oxybenzone up to 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(n) Padimate O up to 8 percent.


</P><STARS/>

</REVTXT></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.20   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The SPF of any combination product is measured by the testing procedures established in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Combinations of sunscreen active ingredients.</I> (1) Two or more sunscreen active ingredients identified in § 352.10(a), (c), (e), (f), and (h) through (r) may be combined with each other in a single product when used in the concentrations established for each ingredient in § 352.10. The concentration of each active ingredient must be sufficient to contribute a minimum SPF of not less than 2 to the finished product. The finished product must have a minimum SPF of not less than the number of sunscreen active ingredients used in the combination multiplied by 2.
</P>
<P>(2) Two or more sunscreen active ingredients identified in § 352.10(b), (c), (e), (f), (i) through (l), (o), and (q) may be combined with each other in a single product when used in the concentrations established for each ingredient in § 352.10. The concentration of each active ingredient must be sufficient to contribute a minimum SPF of not less than 2 to the finished product. The finished product must have a minimum SPF of not less than the number of sunscreen active ingredients used in the combination multiplied by 2.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combinations of sunscreen and skin protectant active ingredients.</I> Any single sunscreen active ingredient or any permitted combination of sunscreen active ingredients when used in the concentrations established for each ingredient in § 352.10 may be combined with one or more skin protectant active ingredients identified in § 347.10(a), (d), (e), (g), (h), (i), (k), (l), (m), and (r) of this chapter. The concentration of each sunscreen active ingredient must be sufficient to contribute a minimum SPF of not less that 2 to the finished product. The finished product must have a minimum SPF of not less than the number of sunscreen active ingredients used in the combination multiplied by 2, and the product must be labeled according to § 352.60.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27687, May 21, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 33380, June 4, 2003]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 67 FR 41823, June 20, 2002, § 352.20 was amended by revising paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(2), effective Sept. 1, 2002. This amendment could not be incorporated because at 66 FR 67485, Dec. 31, 2001 the effective date was stayed until further notice. For the convenience of the user, the text is set forth as follows:
</PSPACE>
<REVTXT>


<HEAD>§ 352.20   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD><STARS/>
<P>(a) <I>Combinations of sunscreen active ingredients.</I> (1) Two or more sunscreen active ingredients identified in § 352.10(a), (c), (e), (f), (g), and (i) through (r) may be combined with each other in a single product when used in the concentrations established for each ingredient in § 352.10. The concentration of each active ingredient must be sufficient to contribute a minimum SPF of not less than 2 to the finished product. The finished product must have a minimum SPF of not less than the number of sunscreen active ingredients used in the combination multiplied by 2.
</P>
<P>(2) Two or more sunscreen active ingredients identified in § 352.10(b), (c), (e), (g), (j) through (m), (o), and (q) may be combined with each other in a single product when used in the concentrations established for each ingredient in § 352.10. The concentration of each active ingredient must be sufficient to contribute a minimum SPF of not less than 2 to the finished product. The finished product must have a minimum SPF of not less than the number of sunscreen active ingredients used in the combination multiplied by 2.
</P><STARS/>

</REVTXT></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.50   Principal display panel of all sunscreen drug products.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the statement of identity required in § 352.52, the following labeling statements shall be prominently placed on the principal display panel:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For products that do not satisfy the water resistant or very water resistant sunscreen product testing procedures in § 352.76</I>—(1) <I>For products with SPF values up to 30.</I> “SPF (insert tested SPF value of the product up to 30).”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products with SPF values over 30.</I> “SPF 30” (select one of the following: “plus” or “ + ”). Any statement accompanying the marketed product that states a specific SPF value above 30 or similar language indicating a person can stay in the sun more than 30 times longer than without sunscreen will cause the product to be misbranded under section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For products that satisfy the water resistant sunscreen product testing procedures in § 352.76.</I> (1) (Select one of the following: “Water,” “Water/Sweat,” or “Water/Perspiration”) “Resistant.”
</P>
<P>(2) “SPF (insert SPF value of the product, as stated in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, after it has been tested using the water resistant sunscreen product testing procedures in § 352.76).”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>For products that satisfy the very water resistant sunscreen product testing procedures in § 352.76.</I> (1) “Very” (select one of the following: “Water,” “Water/Sweat,” or “Water/Perspiration”) “Resistant.”
</P>
<P>(2) “SPF (insert SPF value of the product, as stated in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, after it has been tested using the very water resistant sunscreen product testing procedures in § 352.76).”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.52" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.52   Labeling of sunscreen drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “sunscreen.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” all of the phrases listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that are applicable to the product and may contain any of the additional phrases listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the uses that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 352.10.</I> (i) “[bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> helps prevent sunburn [bullet] higher SPF gives more sunburn protection”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>For products that satisfy the water resistant testing procedures identified in § 352.76.</I> “[bullet] retains SPF after 40 minutes of” (select one or more of the following: “activity in the water,” “sweating,” or “perspiring”).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products that satisfy the very water resistant testing procedures identified in § 352.76.</I> “[bullet] retains SPF after 80 minutes of” (select one or more of the following: “activity in the water,” “sweating,” or “perspiring”).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional indications.</I> In addition to the indications provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the following may be used for products containing any ingredient in § 352.10:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products that provide an SPF of 2 to under 12.</I> Select one or both of the following: [“[bullet]” (select one of the following: “provides minimal,” “provides minimum,” “minimal,” or “minimum”) “protection against” (select one of the following: “sunburn” or “sunburn and tanning”)], or “[bullet] for skin that sunburns minimally”.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products that provide an SPF of 12 to under 30.</I> Select one or both of the following: [“[bullet]” (select one of the following: “provides moderate” or “moderate”) “protection against” (select one of the following: “sunburn” or “sunburn and tanning”)], or “[bullet] for skin that sunburns easily”.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products that provide an SPF of 30 or above.</I> Select one or both of the following: [“[bullet]” (select one of the following: “provides high” or “high”) “protection against” (select one of the following: “sunburn” or “sunburn and tanning”)], or “[bullet] for skin highly sensitive to sunburn”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings:”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 352.10.</I> (i) “When using this product [bullet] keep out of eyes. Rinse with water to remove.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] rash or irritation develops and lasts”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 352.10 marketed as a lip protectant or lipstick.</I> The external use only warning in § 201.66(c)(5)(i) of this chapter and the warning in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section are not required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements, as appropriate, under the heading “Directions.” More detailed directions applicable to a particular product formulation (e.g., cream, gel, lotion, oil, spray, etc.) may also be included.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient in § 352.10.</I> (i) “[bullet] apply” (select one or more of the following, as applicable: “liberally,” “generously,” “smoothly,” or “evenly”) “(insert appropriate time interval, if a waiting period is needed) before sun exposure and as needed”.
</P>
<P>(ii) “[bullet] children under 6 months of age: ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>In addition to the directions provided in § 352.52(d)(1), the following may be used for products containing any ingredient in § 352.10.</I> “[bullet] reapply as needed or after towel drying, swimming, or” (select one of the following: “sweating” or “perspiring”).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>If the additional directions provided in § 352.52(d)(2) are used, the phrase “and as needed” in § 352.52(d)(1) is not required.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products marketed as a lip protectant or lipstick.</I> The directions in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section are not required.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Statement on product performance</I>—(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 352.10, the following PCD labeling claims may be used under the heading “Other information” or anywhere outside of the “Drug Facts” box or enclosure.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For products containing active ingredient(s) that provide an SPF value of 2 to under 12.</I> (Select one of the following: “minimal” or “minimum”) “sun protection product.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For products containing active ingredient(s) that provide an SPF value of 12 to under 30.</I> “moderate sun protection product.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For products containing active ingredient(s) that provide an SPF value of 30 or above.</I> “high sun protection product.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 352.10, the following labeling statement may be used under the heading “Other information” or anywhere outside of the “Drug Facts” box or enclosure.</I> “Sun alert: Limiting sun exposure, wearing protective clothing, and using sunscreens may reduce the risks of skin aging, skin cancer, and other harmful effects of the sun.” Any variation of this statement will cause the product to be misbranded under section 502 of the act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Products labeled for use only on specific small areas of the face (e.g., lips, nose, ears, and/or around eyes) and that meet the criteria established in § 201.66(d)(10) of this chapter.</I> The title, headings, subheadings, and information described in § 201.66(c) of this chapter shall be printed in accordance with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling shall meet the requirements of § 201.66(c) of this chapter except that the title, headings, and information described in § 201.66(c)(1), (c)(3), and (c)(7) may be omitted, and the headings, subheadings, and information described in § 201.66(c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(5), and (c)(6) may be presented as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The active ingredients (§ 201.66(c)(2) of this chapter) shall be listed in alphabetical order.
</P>
<P>(ii) The heading and the indication required by § 201.66(c)(4) of this chapter may be limited to: “Use [in bold type] helps protect against sunburn.” For a lip protectant product, the heading and the indication required by § 201.66(c)(4) may be limited to: “Use [in bold type] helps protect against sunburn and chapped lips.”
</P>
<P>(iii) The “external use only” warning in § 201.66(c)(5)(i) of this chapter may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(iv) The subheadings in § 201.66(c)(5)(iii) through (c)(5)(vii) of this chapter may be omitted, provided the information after the heading “Warnings” states: “Keep out of eyes.” and “Stop use if skin rash occurs.”
</P>
<P>(v) The warning in § 201.66(c)(5)(x) of this chapter may be limited to the following: “Keep out of reach of children.”
</P>
<P>(vi) For a lip protectant product or lipstick, the warnings “Keep out of eyes” in § 352.52(f)(1)(iv) and “Keep out of reach of children” in § 352.52(f)(1)(v) and the directions in § 352.52(d) may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling shall be printed in accordance with the requirements of § 201.66(d) of this chapter except that any requirements related to § 201.66(c)(1), (c)(3), and (c)(7), and the horizontal barlines and hairlines described in § 201.66(d)(8), may be omitted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27687, May 21, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 33380, June 4, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.60   Labeling of permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>Statements of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> For a combination drug product that has an established name, the labeling of the product states the established name of the combination drug product, followed by the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs. For a combination drug product that does not have an established name, the labeling of the product states the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” the indication(s) for each ingredient in the combination as established in the indications sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established in the applicable OTC drug monographs or listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided by § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) In addition, the labeling of the product may contain any of the “other allowable statements” that are identified in the applicable monographs.
</P>
<P>(2) For permitted combinations containing a sunscreen and a skin protectant identified in § 352.20(b), any or all of the applicable indications for sunscreens in § 352.52(b) and the indication for skin protectants in § 347.50(b)(2)(i) of this chapter should be used. For products marketed as a lip protectant, the indication in § 352.52(f)(1)(ii) should be used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Warnings,” the warning(s) for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the warnings section of the applicable OTC drug monographs, except that the warning for skin protectants in § 347.50(c)(3) of this chapter is not required for permitted combinations containing a sunscreen and a skin protectant identified in § 352.20(b). For products marketed as a lip protectant or lipstick, § 352.52(f)(1)(iii), (f)(1)(iv) (except “Keep out of eyes,” which may be omitted), and (f)(1)(vi) apply.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “directions,” directions that conform to the directions established for each ingredient in the directions sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph. When the time intervals or age limitations for administration of the individual ingredients differ, the directions for the combination product may not contain any dosage that exceeds those established for any individual ingredient in the applicable OTC drug monograph(s), and may not provide for use by any age group lower than the highest minimum age limit established for any individual ingredient. For permitted combinations containing a sunscreen and a skin protectant identified in § 352.20(b), the directions for sunscreens in § 352.52(d) should be used. For products marketed as a lip protectant or lipstick, § 352.52(d)(4) applies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27687, May 21, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 33380, June 4, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Testing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.70" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.70   Standard sunscreen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Laboratory validation.</I> A standard sunscreen shall be used concomitantly in the testing procedures for determining the SPF value of a sunscreen drug product to ensure the uniform evaluation of sunscreen drug products. The standard sunscreen shall be an 8-percent homosalate preparation with a mean SPF value of 4.47 (standard deviation  = 1.279). In order for the SPF determination of a test product to be considered valid, the SPF of the standard sunscreen must fall within the standard deviation range of the expected SPF (<I>i.e.</I>, 4.47 ±1.279) and the 95-percent confidence interval for the mean SPF must contain the value 4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preparation of the standard homosalate sunscreen.</I> (1) The standard homosalate sunscreen is prepared from two different preparations (preparation A and preparation B) with the following compositions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Composition of Preparation A and Preparation B of the Standard Sunscreen
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredients
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent by weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Preparation A
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lanolin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Homosalate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">White petrolatum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stearic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylparaben</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Preparation B
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylparaben</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Edetate disodium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylene glycol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triethanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Purified water U.S.P</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74.30</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Preparation A and preparation B are heated separately to 77 to 82 °C, with constant stirring, until the contents of each part are solubilized. Add preparation A slowly to preparation B while stirring. Continue stirring until the emulsion formed is cooled to room temperature (15 to 30 °C). Add sufficient purified water to obtain 100 grams of standard sunscreen preparation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assay of the standard homosalate sunscreen.</I> Assay the standard homosalate sunscreen preparation by the following method to ensure proper concentration:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preparation of the assay solvent.</I> The solvent consists of 1 percent glacial acetic acid (V/V) in denatured ethanol. The denatured ethanol should not contain a UV radiation absorbing denaturant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preparation of a 1-percent solution of the standard homosalate sunscreen preparation.</I> Accurately weigh 1 gram of the standard homosalate sunscreen preparation into a 100-milliliter volumetric flask. Add 50 milliliters of the assay solvent. Heat on a steam bath and mix well. Cool the solution to room temperature (15 to 30 °C). Then dilute the solution to volume with the assay solvent and mix well to make a 1-percent solution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preparation of the test solution (1:50 dilution of the 1-percent solution).</I> Filter a portion of the 1-percent solution through number 1 filter paper. Discard the first 10 to 15 milliliters of the filtrate. Collect the next 20 milliliters of the filtrate (second collection). Add 1 milliliter of the second collection of the filtrate to a 50-milliliter volumetric flask. Dilute this solution to volume with assay solvent and mix well. This is the test solution (1:50 dilution of the 1-percent solution).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Spectrophotometric determination.</I> The absorbance of the test solution is measured in a suitable double beam spectrophotometer with the assay solvent and reference beam at a wavelength near 306 nanometers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation of the concentration of homosalate.</I> The concentration of homosalate is determined by the following formula which takes into consideration the absorbance of the sample of the test solution, the dilution of the 1-percent solution (1:50), the weight of the sample of the standard homosalate sunscreen preparation (1 gram), and the standard absorbance value (172) of homosalate as determined by averaging the absorbance of a large number of batches of raw homosalate:
</P>
<FP-2>Concentration of homosalate = absorbance × 50 × 100 × 172 = percent concentration by weight.


</FP-2>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.71" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.71   Light source (solar simulator).</HEAD>
<P>A solar simulator used for determining the SPF of a sunscreen drug product should be filtered so that it provides a continuous emission spectrum from 290 to 400 nanometers similar to sunlight at sea level from the sun at a zenith angle of 10° it has less than 1 percent of its total energy output contributed by nonsolar wavelengths shorter than 290 nanometers; and it has not more than 5 percent of its total energy output contributed by wavelengths longer than 400 nanometers. In addition, a solar simulator should have no significant time-related fluctuations in radiation emissions after an appropriate warmup time, and it should have good beam uniformity (within 10 percent) in the exposure plane. To ensure that the solar simulator delivers the appropriate spectrum of UV radiation, it must be measured periodically with an accurately-calibrated spectroradiometer system or equivalent instrument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.72" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.72   General testing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Selection of test subjects (male and female).</I> (1) Only fair-skin subjects with skin types I, II, and III using the following guidelines shall be selected:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>Selection of Fair-skin Subjects</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Skin Type and Sunburn and Tanning History (Based on first 30 to 45 minutes sun exposure after a winter season of no sun exposure.)</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>I—Always burns easily; never tans (sensitive).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>II—Always burns easily; tans minimally (sensitive).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>III—Burns moderately; tans gradually (light brown) (normal).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IV—Burns minimally; always tans well (moderate brown) (normal).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>V—Rarely burns; tans profusely (dark brown) (insensitive).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VI—Never burns; deeply pigmented (insensitive).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) A medical history shall be obtained from all subjects with emphasis on the effects of sunlight on their skin. Ascertain the general health of the individual, the individual's skin type (I, II, or III), whether the individual is taking medication (topical or systemic) that is known to produce abnormal sunlight responses, and whether the individual is subject to any abnormal responses to sunlight, such as a phototoxic or photoallergic response.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test site inspection.</I> The physical examination shall determine the presence of sunburn, suntan, scars, active dermal lesions, and uneven skin tones on the areas of the back to be tested. The presence of nevi, blemishes, or moles will be acceptable if in the physician's judgment they will not interfere with the study results. Excess hair on the back is acceptable if the hair is clipped or shaved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Informed consent.</I> Legally effective written informed consent must be obtained from all individuals.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test site delineation</I>—(1) <I>Test site area.</I> A test site area serves as an area for determining the subject's MED after application of either the sunscreen standard or the test sunscreen product, or for determining the subject's MED when the skin is unprotected (control site). The area to be tested shall be the back between the beltline and the shoulder blade (scapulae) and lateral to the midline. Each test site area for applying a product or the standard sunscreen shall be a minimum of 50-square centimeters, e.g., 5 × 10 centimeters. The test site areas are outlined with ink. If the person is to be tested in an upright position, the lines shall be drawn on the skin with the subject upright. If the subject is to be tested while prone, the markings shall be made with the subject prone.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test subsite area.</I> Each test site area shall be divided into at least three test subsite areas that are at least 1 square centimeter. Usually four or five subsites are employed. Each test subsite within a test site area is subjected to a specified dosage of UV radiation, in a series of UV radiation exposures, in which the test site area is exposed for the determination of the MED.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application of test materials.</I> To ensure standardized reporting and to define a product's SPF value, the application of the product shall be expressed on a weight basis per unit area which establishes a standard film. Both the test sunscreen product and the standard sunscreen application shall be 2 milligrams per square centimeter. For oils and most lotions, the viscosity is such that the material can be applied with a volumetric syringe. For creams, heavy gels, and butters, the product shall be warmed slightly so that it can be applied volumetrically. On heating, care shall be taken not to alter the product's physical characteristics, especially separation of the formulations. Pastes and ointments shall be weighed, then applied by spreading on the test site area. A product shall be spread by using a finger cot. If two or more sunscreen drug products are being evaluated at the same time, the test products and the standard sunscreen, as specified in § 352.70, should be applied in a blinded, randomized manner. If only one sunscreen drug product is being tested, the testing subsites should be exposed to the varying doses of UV radiation in a randomized manner.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiting period.</I> Before exposing the test site areas after applying a product, a waiting period of at least 15 minutes is required.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Number of subjects.</I> A test panel shall consist of not more than 25 subjects with the number fixed in advance by the investigator. From this panel, at least 20 subjects must produce valid data for analysis.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Response criteria.</I> In order that the person who evaluates the MED responses does not know which sunscreen formulation was applied to which site or what doses of UV radiation were administered, he/she must not be the same person who applied the sunscreen drug product to the test site or administered the doses of UV radiation. After UV radiation exposure from the solar simulator is completed, all immediate responses shall be recorded. These include several types of typical responses such as the following: An immediate darkening or tanning, typically greyish or purplish in color, fading in 30 to 60 minutes, and attributed to photo-oxidation of existing melanin granules; immediate reddening, fading rapidly, and viewed as a normal response of capillaries and venules to heat, visible and infrared radiation; and an immediate generalized heat response, resembling prickly heat rash, fading in 30 to 60 minutes, and apparently caused by heat and moisture generally irritating to the skin's surface. After the immediate responses are noted, each subject shall shield the exposed area from further UV radiation for the remainder of the test day. The MED is determined 22 to 24 hours after exposure. The erythema responses of the test subject should be evaluated under the following conditions: The source of illumination should be either a tungsten light bulb or a warm white fluorescent light bulb that provides a level of illumination at the test site within the range of 450 to 550 lux, and the test subject should be in the same position used when the test site was irradiated. Testing depends upon determining the smallest dose of energy that produces redness reaching the borders of the exposure site at 22 to 24 hours postexposure for each series of exposures. To determine the MED, somewhat more intense erythemas must also be produced. The goal is to have some exposures that produce absolutely no effect, and of those exposures that produce an effect, the maximal exposure should be no more than twice the total energy of the minimal exposure.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Rejection of test data.</I> Test data shall be rejected if the exposure series fails to elicit an MED response on either the treated or unprotected skin sites, or if the responses on the treated sites are randomly absent (which indicates the product was not spread evenly), or if the subject was noncompliant (e.g., subject withdraws from the test due to illness or work conflicts, subject does not shield the exposed testing sites from further UV radiation until the MED is read, etc.).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.73" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.73   Determination of SPF value.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The following erythema action spectrum shall be used to calculate the erythema effective exposure of a solar simulator:
</P>
<FP-1>V<E T="52">i</E> (λ) = 1.0 (250 &lt;λ &lt;298 nm)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>V<E T="52">i</E> (λ) = 1.0<E T="51">0.094 (298 -</E> <E T="63">l</E><E T="51">)</E> (298 &lt;λ &lt;328 nanometers)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>V<E T="52">i</E> (λ) = 1.0<E T="51">0.015 (139 -</E> <E T="63">l</E><E T="51">)</E> (328 &lt;λ &lt;400 nanometers)
</FP-1>
<P>(2) The data contained in this action spectrum are to be used as spectral weighting factors to calculate the erythema effective exposure of a solar simulator as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21my99.000.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of MED of the unprotected skin.</I> A series of UV radiation exposures expressed as Joules per square meter (adjusted to the erythema action spectrum calculated according to § 352.73(a)) is administered to the subsite areas on each subject with an accurately calibrated solar simulator. A series of five exposures shall be administered to the untreated, unprotected skin to determine the subject's inherent MED. The doses selected shall be a geometric series represented by (1.25
<SU>n</SU>), wherein each exposure time interval is 25 percent greater than the previous time to maintain the same relative uncertainty (expressed as a constant percentage), independent of the subject's sensitivity to UV radiation, regardless of whether the subject has a high or low MED. Usually, the MED of a person's unprotected skin is determined the day prior to testing a product. This MED(US) shall be used in the determination of the series of UV radiation exposures to be administered to the protected site in subsequent testing. The MED(US) should be determined again on the same day as the standard and test sunscreens and this MED(US) should be used in calculating the SPF.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of individual SPF values.</I> A series of UV radiation exposures expressed as Joules per square meter (adjusted to the erythema action spectrum calculated according to § 352.73(a)) is administered to the subsite areas on each subject with an accurately-calibrated solar simulator. A series of seven exposures shall be administered to the protected test sites to determine the MED of the protected skin (MED(PS)). The doses selected shall consist of a geometric series of five exposures, where the middle exposure is placed to yield the expected SPF plus two other exposures placed symmetrically around the middle exposure. The exact series of exposures to be given to the protected skin shall be determined by the previously established MED(US) and the expected SPF of the test sunscreen. For products with an expected SPF less than 8, the exposures shall be the MED(US) times 0.64X, 0.80X, 0.90X, 1.00X, 1.10X, 1.25X, and 1.56X, where X equals the expected SPF of the test product. For products with an expected SPF between 8 and 15, the exposures shall be the MED(US) times 0.69X, 0.83X, 0.91X, 1.00X, 1.09X, 1.20X, and 1.44X, where X equals the expected SPF of the test product. For products with an expected SPF greater that 15, the exposures shall be the MED(US) times 0.76X, 0.87X, 0.93X, 1.00X, 1.07X, 1.15X, and 1.32X, where X equals the expected SPF of the test product. The MED is the quantity of erythema-effective energy required to produce the first perceptible, unambiguous redness reaction with clearly defined borders at 22 to 24 hours postexposure. The SPF value of the test sunscreen is then calculated from the dose of UV radiation required to produce the MED of the protected skin and from the dose of UV radiation required to produce the MED of the unprotected skin (control site) as follows:
</P>
<P>SPF value  = the ratio of erythema effective exposure (Joules per square meter) (MED(PS)) to the erythema effective exposure (Joules per square meter) (MED(US)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of the test product's SPF value and PCD.</I> Use data from at least 20 test subjects with n representing the number of subjects used. First, for each subject, compute the SPF value as stated in § 352.73(b) and (c). Second, compute the mean SPF value, x
<AC T="8"/>, and the standard deviation, s, for these subjects. Third, obtain the upper 5-percent point from the t distribution table with n-1 degrees of freedom. Denote this value by t. Fourth, compute ts/ √n. Denote this quantity by A (<I>i.e.</I>, A  = ts/ √n). Fifth, calculate the SPF value to be used in labeling as follows: the label SPF equals the largest whole number less than x
<AC T="8"/>. - A. Sixth and last, the drug product is classified into a PCD as follows: if 30 + A &lt;x
<AC T="8"/>, the PCD is High; if 12 + A &lt;x
<AC T="8"/> &lt;30 + A, the PCD is Moderate; if 2 + A &lt;x
<AC T="8"/> &lt;12 + A, the PCD is Minimal; if x
<AC T="8"/> &lt;2 + A, the product shall not be labeled as a sunscreen drug product and shall not display an SPF value.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.76" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.76   Determination if a product is water resistant or very water resistant.</HEAD>
<P>The general testing procedures in § 352.72 shall be used as part of the following tests, except where modified in this section. An indoor fresh water pool, whirlpool, and/or jacuzzi maintained at 23 to 32 °C shall be used in these testing procedures. Fresh water is clean drinking water that meets the standards in 40 CFR part 141. The pool and air temperature and the relative humidity shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure for testing the water resistance of a sunscreen product.</I> For sunscreen products making the claim of “water resistant,” the label SPF shall be the label SPF value determined after 40 minutes of water immersion using the following procedure for the water resistance test:
</P>
<P>(1) Apply sunscreen product (followed by the waiting period after application of the sunscreen product indicated on the product labeling).
</P>
<P>(2) 20 minutes moderate activity in water.
</P>
<P>(3) 20-minute rest period (do not towel test sites).
</P>
<P>(4) 20 minutes moderate activity in water.
</P>
<P>(5) Conclude water test (air dry test sites without toweling).
</P>
<P>(6) Begin solar simulator exposure to test site areas as described in § 352.73.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for testing a very water resistant sunscreen product.</I> For sunscreen products making the claim of “very water resistant,” the label SPF shall be the label SPF value determined after 80 minutes of water immersion using the following procedure for the very water resistant test:
</P>
<P>(1) Apply sunscreen product (followed by the waiting period after application of the sunscreen product indicated on the product labeling).
</P>
<P>(2) 20 minutes moderate activity in water.
</P>
<P>(3) 20-minute rest period (do not towel test sites).
</P>
<P>(4) 20 minutes moderate activity in water.
</P>
<P>(5) 20-minute rest period (do not towel test sites).
</P>
<P>(6) 20 minutes moderate activity in water.
</P>
<P>(7) 20-minute rest period (do not towel test sites).
</P>
<P>(8) 20 minutes moderate activity in water.
</P>
<P>(9) Conclude water test (air dry test sites without toweling).
</P>
<P>(10) Begin solar simulator exposure to test site areas as described in § 352.73.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.77" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.27.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.77   Test modifications.</HEAD>
<P>The formulation or mode of administration of certain products may require modification of the testing procedures in this subpart. In addition, alternative methods (including automated or in vitro procedures) employing the same basic procedures as those described in this subpart may be used. Any proposed modification or alternative procedure shall be submitted as a petition in accord with § 10.30 of this chapter. The petition should contain data to support the modification or data demonstrating that an alternative procedure provides results of equivalent accuracy. All information submitted will be subject to the disclosure rules in part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="355" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 355—ANTICARIES DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 52507, Oct. 6, 1995, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 355 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter anticaries drug product in a form suitable for topical administration to the teeth is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this part and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Abrasive.</I> Solid materials that are added to dentifrices to facilitate mechanical removal of dental plaque, debris, and stain from tooth surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Anhydrous glycerin.</I> An ingredient that may be prepared by heating glycerin U.S.P. at 150 °C for 2 hours to drive off the moisture content.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Anticaries drug.</I> A drug that aids in the prevention and prophylactic treatment of dental cavities (decay, caries). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dental caries.</I> A disease of calcified tissues of teeth characterized by demineralization of the inorganic portion and destruction of the organic matrix.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dentifrice.</I> An abrasive-containing dosage form (gel, paste, or powder) for delivering an anticaries drug to the teeth. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fluoride.</I> The inorganic form of the chemical element fluorine in combination with other elements.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fluoride ion.</I> The negatively charged atom of the chemical element fluorine.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fluoride supplement.</I> A special treatment rinse dosage form that is intended to be swallowed, and is promoted to health professionals for use in areas where the water supply contains 0 to 0.7 parts per million (ppm) fluoride ion.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preventive treatment gel.</I> A dosage form for delivering an anticaries drug to the teeth. Preventive treatment gels are formulated in an anhydrous glycerin base with suitable thickening agents included to adjust viscosity. Preventive treatment gels do not contain abrasives.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Treatment rinse.</I> A liquid dosage form for delivering an anticaries drug to the teeth.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Treatment rinse concentrated solution.</I> A fluoride treatment rinse in a concentrated form to be mixed with water before using to result in the appropriate fluoride concentration specified in the monograph.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Treatment rinse effervescent tablets.</I> A fluoride treatment rinse prepared by adding an effervescent tablet (a concentrated solid dosage form) to water before using to result in the appropriate fluoride concentration specified in the monograph.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Treatment rinse powder.</I> A fluoride treatment rinse prepared by adding the powder (a concentrated solid dosage form) to water before using to result in the appropriate fluoride concentration specified in the monograph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 52507, Oct. 6, 1995, as amended at 61 FR 52286, Oct. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Active Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.10   Anticaries active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used in the concentration and dosage form established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Sodium fluoride</I>—(1) <I>Dentifrices containing 850 to 1,150 ppm theoretical total fluorine in a gel or paste dosage form.</I> Sodium fluoride 0.188 to 0.254 percent with an available fluoride ion concentration ≥650 parts per million (ppm).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dentifrices containing 850 to 1,150 ppm theoretical total fluorine in a powdered dosage form.</I> Sodium fluoride 0.188 to 0.254 percent with an available fluoride ion concentration of ≥850 ppm for products containing the abrasive sodium bicarbonate and a poured-bulk density of 1.0 to 1.2 grams per milliliter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment rinses.</I> (i) An aqueous solution of acidulated phosphate fluoride derived from sodium fluoride acidulated with a mixture of sodium phosphate, monobasic, and phosphoric acid to a level of 0.1 molar phosphate ion and a pH of 3.0 to 4.5 and which yields an effective fluoride ion concentration of 0.02 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) An aqueous solution of acidulated phosphate fluoride derived from sodium fluoride acidulated with a mixture of sodium phosphate, dibasic, and phosphoric acid to a pH of 3.5 and which yields an effective fluoride ion concentration of 0.01 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sodium fluoride 0.02 percent aqueous solution with a pH of approximately 7.
</P>
<P>(iv) Sodium fluoride 0.05 percent aqueous solution with a pH of approximately 7. 
</P>
<P>(v) Sodium fluoride concentrate containing adequate directions for mixing with water before using to result in a 0.02-percent or 0.05-percent aqueous solution with a pH of approximately 7.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sodium monofluorophosphate</I>—(1) <I>Dentifrices containing 850 to 1,150 ppm theoretical total fluorine in a gel or paste dosage form.</I> Sodium monofluorophosphate 0.654 to 0.884 percent with an available fluoride ion concentration (consisting of PO<E T="52">3</E> F<E T="51">=</E> and F<E T="51">−</E> combined) ≥800 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dentifrices containing 1,500 ppm theoretical total fluorine in a gel or paste dosage form.</I> Sodium monofluorophosphate 1.153 percent with an available fluoride ion concentration (consisting of PO<E T="52">3</E> F<E T="51">=</E> and F<E T="51">−</E> combined) ≥1,275 ppm. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stannous fluoride</I>—(1) <I>Dentifrices containing 850 to 1,150 ppm theoretical total fluorine in a gel or paste dosage form.</I> (i) Stannous fluoride 0.351 to 0.474 percent with an available fluoride ion concentration ≥700 ppm for products containing abrasives other than calcium pyrophosphate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stannous fluoride 0.351 to 0.474 percent with an available fluoride ion concentration ≥290 ppm for products containing the abrasive calcium pyrophosphate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preventive treatment gel.</I> Stannous fluoride 0.4 percent in an anhydrous glycerin gel, made from anhydrous glycerin and the addition of suitable thickening agents to adjust viscosity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment rinse.</I> Stannous fluoride concentrate marketed in a stable form and containing adequate directions for mixing with water immediately before using to result in a 0.1-percent aqueous solution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 52507, Oct. 6, 1995, as amended at 61 FR 52286, Oct. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.20   Packaging conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Package size limitation.</I> Due to the toxicity associated with fluoride active ingredients, the following package size limitations are required for anticaries drug products: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dentifrices.</I> Dentifrice (toothpastes and tooth powders) packages shall not contain more than 276 milligrams (mg) total fluorine per package.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preventive treatment gels and treatment rinses.</I> Preventive treatment gel and treatment rinse packages shall not contain more than 120 mg total fluorine per package.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> Package size limitations do not apply to anticaries drug products marketed for professional office use only and labeled in accord with § 355.60.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tight container packaging.</I> To minimize moisture contamination, all fluoride powdered dentifrices shall be packaged in a tight container as defined as a container that protects the contents from contamination by extraneous liquids, solids, or vapors, from loss of the article, and from efflorescence, deliquescence, or evaporation under the ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipment, storage, and distribution, and is capable of tight reclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.50" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.50   Labeling of anticaries drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as: (select one or both of the following: ‘anticavity’ or ‘fluoride’) (select one of the following as appropriate: “dentifrice,” “toothpaste,” “tooth polish,” “tooth powder;” (optional: “dental”) “preventive treatment gel;” or (optional: “treatment” or “dental”)) (select one of the following: “rinse,” “concentrated solution,” “rinse powder,” or “rinse effervescent tablets”). The word “mouthwash” may be substituted for the word “rinse” in this statement of identity if the product also has a cosmetic use, as defined in section 201(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 321(i)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indication.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indication,” the following: “Aids in the prevention of dental (select one of the following: “cavities,” “decay,” “caries (decay),” or “caries (cavities)”). Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indication for use that has been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warning.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warning under the heading “Warning”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For all fluoride dentifrice (gel, paste, and powder) products.</I> “Keep out of reach of children under 6 years of age. [highlighted in bold type] If more than used for brushing is accidentally swallowed, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away.” These warnings shall be used in place of the general warning statements required by § 330.1(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For all fluoride rinse and preventive treatment gel products.</I> “Keep out of reach of children. [highlighted in bold type] If more than used for” (select appropriate word: “brushing” or “rinsing”) “is accidentally swallowed, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away.” These warnings shall be used in place of the general warning statements required by § 330.1(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For anticaries dentifrice products</I>—(i) <I>Gel or paste dosage form with a theoretical total fluorine concentration of 850 to 1,150 ppm identified in § 355.10(a)(1), (b)(1), and (c)(1).</I> Adults and children 2 years of age and older: Brush teeth thoroughly, preferably after each meal or at least twice a day, or as directed by a dentist or doctor. Instruct children under 6 years of age in good brushing and rinsing habits (to minimize swallowing). Supervise children as necessary until capable of using without supervision. Children under 2 years of age: Consult a dentist or doctor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Gel or paste dosage form with a theoretical total fluorine concentration of 1,500 ppm identified in § 355.10(b)(2).</I> Adults and children 6 years of age and older: Brush teeth thoroughly, preferably after each meal or at least twice a day, or as directed by a dentist or doctor. Instruct children under 12 years of age in good brushing and rinsing habits (to minimize swallowing). Supervise children as necessary until capable of using without supervision. Children under 6 years of age: Do not use unless directed by a dentist or doctor.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Powdered dosage form with a theoretical total fluorine concentration of 850 to 1,150 ppm identified in § 355.10(a)(2).</I> Adults and children 6 years of age and older: Apply powder to a wet toothbrush; completely cover all bristles. Brush for at least 30 seconds. Reapply powder as before and brush again. Rinse and spit out thoroughly. Brush teeth, preferably after each meal or at least twice a day, or as directed by a dentist or doctor. Instruct children under 12 years of age in good brushing and rinsing habits (to minimize swallowing). Supervise children as necessary until capable of using without supervision. Children under 6 years of age: Do not use unless directed by a dentist or doctor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For anticaries treatment rinse products</I>—(i) <I>For acidulated phosphate fluoride solution containing 0.02 percent fluoride ion, sodium fluoride 0.05 percent, sodium fluoride concentrate, and stannous fluoride concentrate identified in § 355.10(a)(3)(i), (a)(3)(iv), (a)(3)(v), and (c)(3).</I> Adults and children 6 years of age and older: Use once a day after brushing your teeth with a toothpaste. Vigorously swish 10 milliliters of rinse between your teeth for 1 minute and then spit out. Do not swallow the rinse. Do not eat or drink for 30 minutes after rinsing. Instruct children under 12 years of age in good rinsing habits (to minimize swallowing). Supervise children as necessary until capable of using without supervision. Children under 6 years of age: Consult a dentist or doctor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For acidulated phosphate fluoride solution containing 0.01 percent fluoride ion and sodium fluoride 0.02 percent aqueous solution identified in § 355.10(a)(3)(ii) and (a)(3)(iii).</I> Adults and children 6 years of age and older: Use twice a day after brushing your teeth with a toothpaste. Vigorously swish 10 milliliters of rinse between your teeth for 1 minute and then spit out. Do not swallow the rinse. Do not eat or drink for 30 minutes after rinsing. Instruct children under 12 years of age in good rinsing habits (to minimize swallowing). Supervise children as necessary until capable of using without supervision. Children under 6 years of age: consult a dentist or doctor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For stannous fluoride treatment rinse products.</I> (i) “Use immediately after preparing the rinse.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For powder or effervescent tablets used to prepare treatment rinses.</I> “Do not use as a rinse until all the” (select one of the following: “powder” or “tablet”) “has dissolved.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For anticaries preventive treatment gel products.</I> Adults and children 6 years of age and older: Use once a day after brushing your teeth with a toothpaste. Apply the gel to your teeth and brush thoroughly. Allow the gel to remain on your teeth for 1 minute and then spit out. Do not swallow the gel. Do not eat or drink for 30 minutes after brushing. Instruct children under 12 years of age in the use of this product (to minimize swallowing). Supervise children as necessary until capable of using without supervision. Children under 6 years of age: consult a dentist or doctor. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For all concentrated treatment rinse solutions, powders, and effervescent tablets.</I> The following statement shall appear as the first statement under directions: “Do not use before mixing with water.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional labeling statements for anticaries drug products.</I> The following statements need not appear under warnings, but are required to appear on the label of anticaries drugs products as applicable.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For all preventive treatment gels.</I> “This is a(n)” (select one or both of the following: “anticavity” or “fluoride”) “preventive treatment gel, not a toothpaste. Read directions carefully before using.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For all stannous fluoride treatment rinse, preventive treatment gel, and dentifrice products.</I> “This product may produce surface staining of the teeth. Adequate toothbrushing may prevent these stains which are not harmful or permanent and may be removed by your dentist.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Optional additional labeling statements</I>—(1) <I>For fluoride treatment rinses and preventive treatment gels.</I> The following labeling statement may appear in the required boxed area designated “APPROVED USES”: “The combined daily use of a fluoride preventive treatment” (select one of the following: “rinse” or “gel”) “and a fluoride toothpaste can help reduce the incidence of dental cavities.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For dentifrice products containing 1,500 ppm theoretical total fluorine.</I> “Adults and children over 6 years of age may wish to use this extra-strength fluoride dentifrice if they reside in a nonfluoridated area or if they have a greater tendency to develop cavities.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 52507, Oct. 6, 1995; 60 FR 57927, Nov. 24, 1995; 61 FR 51187, Oct. 7, 1996; 64 FR 13296, Mar. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.55" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.55   Principal display panel of all fluoride rinse drug products.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the statement of identity required in § 355.50, the following statement shall be prominently placed on the principal display panel: “IMPORTANT: Read directions for proper use.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.60" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.60   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling for anticaries fluoride treatment rinses identified in § 355.10(a)(3) and (c)(3) that are specially formulated so they may be swallowed (fluoride supplements) and are provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain the following additional dosage information: Children 3 to under 14 years of age: As a supplement in areas where the water supply is nonfluoridated (less than 0.3 parts per million (ppm)), clean the teeth with a toothpaste and rinse with 5 milliliters (mL) of 0.02 percent or 10 mL of 0.01 percent fluoride ion rinse daily, then swallow. When the water supply contains 0.3 to 0.7 ppm fluoride ion, reduce the dose to 2.5 mL of 0.02 percent or 5 mL of 0.01 percent fluoride ion rinse daily.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling for products marketed to health to health professionals in package sizes larger than those specified in § 355.20 shall include the statements: “For Professional Office Use Only” and “This product is not intended for home or unsupervised consumer use.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Testing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 355.70" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.28.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 355.70   Testing procedures for fluoride dentifrice drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A fluoride dentifrice drug product shall meet the biological test requirements for animal caries reduction and one of the following tests: Enamel solubility reduction or fluoride enamel uptake. The testing procedures for these biological tests are labeled <I>Biological Testing Procedures for Fluoride Dentifrices</I>; these testing procedures are on file under Docket No. 80N-0042 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and are available on request to that office.
</P>
<P>(b) The United States Pharmacopeia fluoride dentifrice reference standards along with reference standard stability profiles (total fluoride, available fluoride ion, pH, and specific gravity) required to be used in the biological tests are available to any purchaser upon written request to the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 1260 Twinbrook Parkway, Rockville, MD 20852. 
</P>
<P>(c) Alternative testing procedures may be used. Any proposed modification or alternative testing procedures shall be submitted as a petition in accord with § 10.30 of this chapter. The petition should contain data to support the modification or data demonstrating that an alternative testing procedure provides results of equivalent accuracy. All information submitted will be subjected to the disclosure rules in part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 52507, Oct. 6, 1995, as amended at 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="357" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 357—MISCELLANEOUS INTERNAL DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Anthelmintic Drug Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 27759, Aug. 1, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 357.101" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter anthelmintic drug product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this subpart and each general condition established in § 330.1.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.103" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.103   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Anthelmintic.</I> An agent that is destructive to worms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.110" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.110   Anthelmintic active ingredient.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product is pyrantel pamoate when used within the dosage limits established in § 357.150(d)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.150" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.150   Labeling of anthelmintic drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “pinworm treatment.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indication.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indication,” the following: “For the treatment of pinworms.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) “Abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, or dizziness sometimes occur after taking this drug. If any of these conditions persist consult a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(2) “If you are pregnant or have liver disease, do not take this product unless directed by a doctor.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) Adults, children 12 years of age and over, and children 2 years to under 12 years of age: Oral dosage is a single dose of 5 milligrams of pyrantel base per pound, or 11 milligrams per kilogram, of body weight not to exceed 1 gram. Dosing information should be converted to easily understood directions for the consumer using the following dosage schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dosage (taken as a single dose) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 25 pounds or under 2 years old</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not use unless directed by a doctor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 25 to 37 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125 milligrams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 38 to 62 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250 milligrams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 63 to 87 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">375 milligrams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 88 to 112 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 milligrams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">113 to 137 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">625 milligrams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">138 to 162 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">750 milligrams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">163 to 187 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">875 milligrams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">188 pounds and over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000 milligrams.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Depending on the product, the label should state the quantity of drug as a liquid measurement (e.g., teaspoonsful) or as the number of dosage units (e.g., tablets) to be taken for the varying body weights. (If appropriate, it is recommended that a measuring cup graduated by body weight and/or liquid measurement be provided with the product.) Manufacturers should present this information as appropriate for their product and may vary the format of this chart as necessary.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) “Read package insert carefully before taking this medication. Take only according to directions and do not exceed the recommended dosage unless directed by a doctor. Medication should only be taken on time as a single dose; do not repeat treatment unless directed by a doctor. When one individual in a household has pinworms, the entire household should be treated unless otherwise advised. See Warnings. If any worms other than pinworms are present before or after treatment, consult a doctor. If any symptoms or pinworms are still present after treatment, consult a doctor.
</P>
<P>(3) “This product can be taken any time of day, with or without meals. It may be taken alone or with milk or fruit juice. Use of a laxative is not necessary prior to, during, or after medication.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Optional wording.</I> The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27759, Aug. 1, 1986; 52 FR 7831, Mar. 13, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35810, Sept. 15, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.152" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.152   Package inserts for anthelmintic drug products.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling of the product contains a consumer package insert which includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A discussion of the symptoms suggestive of pinworm infestation, including a statement that pinworms must be visually identified before taking this medication.
</P>
<P>(b) A detailed description of how to find and identify the pinworm.
</P>
<P>(c) A commentary on the life cycle of the pinworm.
</P>
<P>(d) A commentary on the ways in which pinworms may be spread from person to person and hygienic procedures to follow to avoid such spreading.
</P>
<P>(e) The appropriate labeling information contained in § 357.150
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Collection of information requirement approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0232)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27759, Aug. 1, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 2515, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.180" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.180   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain an additional indication: “For the treatment of common roundworm infestation.” 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Cholecystokinetic Drug Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.201" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.201   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter cholecystokinetic drug product in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this subpart in addition to each of the general conditions established in § 330.1.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 27005, June 10, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.203" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.203   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Cholecystokinetic drug product.</I> A drug product that causes contraction of the gallbladder and is used during the course of diagnostic gallbladder studies (cholecystography).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 27005, June 10, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.210" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.210   Cholecystokinetic active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following when used within the specified concentration and dosage form established for each ingredient:
</P>
<P>(a) 50-percent aqueous emulsion of corn oil.
</P>
<P>(b) Hydrogenated soybean oil in a suitable, water-dispersible powder. The hydrogenated soybean oil is food-grade, partially hydrogenated with a melting point of 41 to 43.5 °C, an iodine value of 65 to 69, and a fatty acid composition as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fatty acid
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent composition
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Myristic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palmitic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palmitoleic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stearic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linoleic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linolenic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arachidic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Behenic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 8321, Feb. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.250" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.250   Labeling of cholecystokinetic drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “gallbladder diagnostic agent.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the following: “For the contraction of the gallbladder during diagnostic gallbladder studies.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2), subject to the provisions of section 502 of the act relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) “Take only when instructed by a doctor:”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing 50-percent aqueous emulsion of corn oil.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) “Shake well before using.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Oral dosage is 60 milliliters 20 minutes before diagnostic gallbladder x-ray or as directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing hydrogeneated soybean oil.</I> Oral dosage is 12.4 grams in a suitable, water-dispersible powder in 2 to 3 ounces of water. Stir briskly to prepare a suspension before using. Drink 20 minutes before diagnostic gallbladder x-ray or as directed by a doctor.
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 27005, June 10, 1983, as amended at 51 FR 16267, May 1, 1986; 52 FR 7830, Mar. 13, 1987; 54 FR 8321, Feb. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.280" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.280   Professional labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling provided to health professionals (but not to the general public) may contain the following information for ingredients identified in § 357.210: <I>Indication.</I> “For visualization of biliary ducts during cholecystography.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 8321, Feb. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-H [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Deodorant Drug Products for Internal Use</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 19865, May 11, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 357.801" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.801   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter deodorant drug product for internal use in a form suitable for oral administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this subpart and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.803" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.803   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Colostomy.</I> An external operative opening of the colon. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deodorant for internal use.</I> An ingredient taken internally to reduce odors arising from conditions such as colostomies, ileostomies, or fecal incontinence. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ileostomy.</I> An external operative opening from the ileum. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Incontinence.</I> An inability to retain urine or feces.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.810" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.810   Active ingredients for deodorant drug products for internal use.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of either of the following when used within the dosage limits established for each ingredient in § 357.850(d): 
</P>
<P>(a) Bismuth subgallate. 
</P>
<P>(b) Chlorophyllin copper complex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 357.850" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.29.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.850   Labeling of deodorant drug products for internal use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “deodorant for internal use” or as a “colostomy or ileostomy deodorant.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” any of the phrases listed in paragraph (b) of this section as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in paragraph (b) of this section may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing bismuth subgallate identified in § 357.810(a).</I> “An aid to reduce odor from a colostomy or ileostomy.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing chlorophyllin copper complex identified in § 357.810(b).</I> (i) “An aid to reduce odor from a colostomy or ileostomy.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “An aid to reduce fecal odor due to incontinence.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: (1) <I>For products containing chlorophyllin copper complex identified in § 357.810(b).</I> (i) “If cramps or diarrhea occurs, reduce the dosage. If symptoms persist, consult your doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) The warning required by § 330.1(g) of this chapter concerning overdose is not required on products containing chlorophyllin copper complex identified in § 357.810(b). 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions.” 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing bismuth subgallate identified in § 357.810(a).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 200 to 400 milligrams up to 4 times daily. Children under 12 years of age: consult a doctor. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing chlorophyllin copper complex identified in § 357.810(b).</I> Adults and children 12 years of age and over: Oral dosage is 100 to 200 milligrams daily in divided doses as required. If odor is not controlled, take up to an additional 100 milligrams daily in divided doses as required. The smallest effective dose should be used. Do not exceed 300 milligrams daily. Children under 12 years of age: consult a doctor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="358" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 358—MISCELLANEOUS EXTERNAL DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 33255, Aug. 14, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Wart Remover Drug Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.101" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter wart remover drug product in a form suitable for topical application is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this subpart and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.103" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Wart remover drug product.</I> A topical agent used for the removal of common or plantar warts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collodion-like vehicle.</I> A solution containing pyroxylin (nitrocellulose) in an appropriate nonaqueous solvent that leaves a transparent cohesive film when applied to the skin in a thin layer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plaster vehicle.</I> A fabric, plastic, or other suitable backing material in which medication is usually incorporated for topical application to the skin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.110" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.110   Wart remover active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The product consists of any of the following active ingredients within the specified concentration and in the dosage form established for each ingredient.
</P>
<P>(a) Salicylic acid 12 to 40 percent in a plaster vehicle.
</P>
<P>(b) Salicylic acid 5 to 17 percent in a collodion-like vehicle.
</P>
<P>(c) Salicylic acid 15 percent in a karaya gum, glycol plaster vehicle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.150" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.150   Labeling of wart remover drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “wart remover.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” any of the phrases listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) “For the removal of common warts. The common wart is easily recognized by the rough ‘cauliflower-like’ appearance of the surface.”
</P>
<P>(2) “For the removal of plantar warts on the bottom of the foot. The plantar wart is recognized by its location only on the bottom of the foot, its tenderness, and the interruption of the footprint pattern.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 358.110.</I> (i) “For external use only.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Do not use this product on irritated skin, on any area that is infected or reddened, if you are a diabetic, or if you have poor blood circulation.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “If discomfort persists, see your doctor.”
</P>
<P>(iv) “Do not use on moles, birthmarks, warts with hair growing from them, genital warts, or warts on the face or mucous membranes.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For any product formulated in a flammable vehicle.</I> (i) The labeling should contain an appropriate flammability signal word, e.g. “extremely flammable,” “flammable,” “combustible,” consistent with 16 CFR 1500.3(b)(10).
</P>
<P>(ii) “Keep away from fire or flame.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For any product formulated in a volatile vehicle.</I> “Cap bottle tightly and store at room temperature away from heat.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For any product formulated in a collodion-like vehicle.</I> (i) “If product gets into the eye, flush with water for 15 minutes.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Avoid inhaling vapors.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing salicylic acid identified in § 358.110(a).</I> “Wash affected area.” (Optional: “May soak wart in warm water for 5 minutes.”) “Dry area thoroughly.” (If appropriate: “Cut plaster to fit wart.”) “Apply medicated plaster. Repeat procedure every 48 hours as needed (until wart is removed) for up to 12 weeks.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing salicylic acid identified in § 358.110(b).</I> “Wash affected area.” (Optional: “May soak wart in warm water for 5 minutes.”) “Dry area thoroughly. Apply” (select one of the following, as appropriate: “one drop” or “small amount”) “at a time with” (select one of the following, as appropriate: “applicator” or “brush”) “to sufficiently cover each wart. Let dry. Repeat this procedure once or twice daily as needed (until wart is removed) for up to 12 weeks.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing salicylic acid identified in § 358.110(c).</I> “Wash affected area.” (Optional: “May soak wart in warm water for 5 minutes.”) “Dry area thoroughly. Gently smooth wart surface with emery file supplied.” (If appropriate: “Cut plaster to fit wart.”) “Apply a drop of warm water to the wart, keeping the surrounding skin dry. Apply medicated plaster at bedtime and leave in place for at least 8 hours. In the morning, remove plaster and discard. Repeat procedure every 24 hours as needed (until wart is removed) for up to 12 weeks.” 
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The phrase “or podiatrist” may be used in addition to the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section when a product is labeled with the indication identified in § 358.150(b)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33255, Aug. 14, 1990; 55 FR 37403, Sept. 11, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 44495, Sept. 28, 1992; 59 FR 60317, Nov. 23, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Ingrown Toenail Relief Drug Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 24348, May 7, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 358.301" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.301   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter ingrown toenail relief drug product in a form suitable for topical administration is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this subpart and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter 1 of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.303" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.303   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ingrown toenail relief drug product.</I> A drug product applied to an ingrown toenail that relieves pain or discomfort either by softening the nail or by hardening the nail bed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retainer ring.</I> A die cut polyethylene foam pad coated on one side with medical grade acrylic pressure-sensitive adhesive. The retainer ring has slots, center-cut completely through the foam with the cut of sufficient size to allow for localization of an active ingredient in a gel vehicle to a specific target area. The retainer ring is used with adhesive bandage strips to place over the retainer ring to hold it in place.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.310" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.310   Ingrown toenail relief active ingredient.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product is sodium sulfide 1 percent in a gel vehicle. The gel vehicle is an aqueous, semisolid system with large organic molecules interpenetrated with a liquid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.350" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.350   Labeling of ingrown toenail relief drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the product, if any, and identifies the product as an “ingrown toenail relief product” or as an “ingrown toenail discomfort reliever.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Use,” the following: “for temporary relief of” [select one or both of the following: ‘pain’ or ‘discomfort’] “from ingrown toenails”. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the use that has been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) “For external use only” in accord with § 201.66(c)(5)(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) “Do not use [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> on open sores”.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) “Ask a doctor before use if you have [bullet] diabetes [bullet] poor circulation [bullet] gout”.
</P>
<P>(4) “When using this product [bullet] use with a retainer ring”.
</P>
<P>(5) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] redness or swelling of your toe increases [bullet] discharge is present around the nail [bullet] symptoms last more than 7 days or clear up and occur again within a few days”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) “[Bullet] adults and children 12 years and over:”
</P>
<P>(i) “[Bullet] wash the affected area and dry thoroughly [bullet] place retainer ring on toe with slot over the area where the ingrown nail and the skin meet. Smooth ring down firmly. [bullet] apply enough gel product to fill the slot in the ring [bullet] place round center section of bandage strip directly over the gel-filled ring to seal the gel in place. Smooth ends of bandage strip around toes.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “[Bullet] repeat twice daily (morning and night) for up to 7 days until discomfort is relieved or until the nail can be lifted out of the nail groove and easily trimmed”.
</P>
<P>(2) “[Bullet] children under 12 years: ask a doctor”.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Corn and Callus Remover Drug Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 33261, Aug. 14, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 358.501" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.501   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter corn and callus remover drug product in a form suitable for topical application is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this subpart and each of the general conditions established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.503" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.503   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Corn and callus remover drug product.</I> A topical agent used for the removal of corns and calluses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collodion-like vehicle.</I> A solution containing pyroxylin (nitrocellulose) in an appropriate nonaqueous solvent that leaves a transparent cohesive film when applied to the skin in a thin layer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plaster vehicle.</I> A fabric, plastic, or other suitable backing material in which medication is usually incorporated for topical application to the skin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.510" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.510   Corn and callus remover active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The product consists of any of the following active ingredients within the specified concentrations and in the dosage form established for each ingredient.
</P>
<P>(a) Salicylic acid 12 to 40 percent in a plaster vehicle.
</P>
<P>(b) Salicylic acid 12 to 17.6 percent in a collodion-like vehicle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.550" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.550   Labeling of corn and callus remover drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “corn and callus remover.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the phrase listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and may contain the additional phrase listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) “For the removal of corns and calluses.”
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the information identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the labeling of the product may contain the following statement: “Relieves pain by removing corns and calluses.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 358.510.</I> (i) “For external use only.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Do not use this product on irritated skin, on any area that is infected or reddened, if you are a diabetic, or if you have poor blood circulation.” 
</P>
<P>(iii) “If discomfort persists, see your doctor or podiatrist.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For any product formulated in a flammable vehicle.</I> (i) The labeling should contain an appropriate flammability signal word, e.g., “extremely flammable,” “flammable,” “combustible,” consistent with 16 CFR 1500.3(b)(10).
</P>
<P>(ii) “Keep away from fire or flame.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For any product formulated in a volatile vehicle.</I> “Cap bottle tightly and store at room temperature away from heat.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For any product formulated in a collodion-like vehicle.</I> (i) “If product gets into the eye, flush with water for 15 minutes.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Avoid inhaling vapors.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing salicylic acid identified in § 358.510(a).</I> “Wash affected area and dry thoroughly.” (If appropriate: “Cut plaster to fit corn/callus.”) “Apply medicated plaster. After 48 hours remove the medicated plaster. Repeat this procedure every 48 hours as needed for up to 14 days (until corn/callus is removed).” (Optional: “May soak corn/callus in warm water for 5 minutes to assist in removal.”)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing salicylic acid identified in § 358.510(b).</I> “Wash affected area and dry thoroughly. Apply” (select one of the following, as appropriate: “one drop” or “small amount”) “at a time with” (select one of the following, as appropriate: “applicator” or “brush”) “to sufficiently cover each corn/callus. Let dry. Repeat this procedure once or twice daily as needed for up to 14 days (until corn/callus is removed).” (Optional: “May soak corn/callus in warm water for 5 minutes to assist in removal.”)
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33261, Aug. 14, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 44494, Sept. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Pediculicide Drug Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 65455, Dec. 14, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 358.601" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.601   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter pediculicide drug product in a form suitable for topical application is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each condition in this subpart and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.603" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.603   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P><I>Pediculicide drug product.</I> A drug product for the treatment of head, pubic (crab), and body lice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.610" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.610   Pediculicide active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredients of the product consist of the combination of pyrethrum extract (providing a concentration of pyrethrins of 0.17 to 0.33 percent) with piperonyl butoxide (2 to 4 percent) in a nonaerosol dosage formulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 43303, Aug. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.650" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.650   Labeling of pediculicide drug products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product as a “lice treatment.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” the following: “treats head, pubic (crab), and body lice.” Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the uses that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”:
</P>
<P>(1) “For external use only” in accord with § 201.66(c)(5)(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) “Do not use [bullet] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> near eyes [bullet] inside nose, mouth, or vagina [bullet] on lice in eyebrows or eyelashes. See a doctor if lice are present in these areas.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See § 201.66(b)(4) of this chapter for definition of bullet symbol.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) “Ask a doctor before use if you are [bullet] allergic to ragweed. May cause breathing difficulty or an asthmatic attack.”
</P>
<P>(4) “When using this product [bullet] keep eyes tightly closed and protect eyes with a washcloth or towel [bullet] if product gets in eyes, flush with water right away [bullet] scalp itching or redness may occur”.
</P>
<P>(5) “Stop use and ask a doctor if [bullet] breathing difficulty occurs [bullet] eye irritation occurs [bullet] skin or scalp irritation continues or infection occurs”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions”:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling states “[bullet] Important: Read warnings before use” [statement shall appear first and in bold type].
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling states “adults and children 2 years and over:” [in bold type]. 
</P>
<P>(3) For head lice treatment products “Inspect [in bold type] [bullet] check each household member with a magnifying glass in bright light for lice/nits (eggs) [bullet] look for tiny nits near scalp, beginning at back of neck and behind ears [bullet] examine small sections of hair at a time [bullet] unlike dandruff which moves when touched, nits stick to the hair [bullet] if either lice or nits are found, treat with this product”.
</P>
<P>(4) Select one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For shampoo products</I> “Treat [in bold type] [bullet] apply thoroughly to (optional, may add “dry”) hair or other affected area. For head lice, first apply behind ears and to back of neck. [bullet] allow product to remain for 10 minutes, but no longer [bullet] use warm water to form a lather, shampoo, then thoroughly rinse [bullet] for head lice, towel dry hair and comb out tangles”.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For nonshampoo products</I> “Treat [in bold type] [bullet] apply thoroughly to (optional, may add “dry”) hair or other affected area. For head lice, first apply behind ears and to back of neck. [bullet] allow product to remain for 10 minutes, but no longer [bullet] wash area thoroughly with warm water and soap or shampoo [bullet] for head lice, towel dry hair and comb out tangles”.
</P>
<P>(5) “Remove lice and their eggs (nits) [in bold type] [bullet] use a fine-tooth or special lice/nit comb. Remove any remaining nits by hand (using a throw-away glove). [bullet] hair should remain slightly damp while removing nits [bullet] if hair dries during combing, dampen slightly with water [bullet] for head lice, part hair into sections. Do one section at a time starting on top of head. Longer hair may take 1 to 2 hours. [bullet] lift a 1- to 2-inch wide strand of hair. Place comb as close to scalp as possible and comb with a firm, even motion away from scalp. [bullet] pin back each strand of hair after combing [bullet] clean comb often. Wipe nits away with tissue and discard in a plastic bag. Seal bag and discard to prevent lice from coming back. [bullet] after combing, thoroughly recheck for lice/nits. Repeat combing if necessary. [bullet] check daily for any lice/nits that you missed”.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling states “[bullet] a second treatment must be done in 7 to 10 days to kill any newly hatched lice”.
</P>
<P>(7) The labeling states “[bullet] if infestation continues, see a doctor for other treatments”.
</P>
<P>(8) The labeling states “children under 2 years:” [in bold type] “ask a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other information.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following statements, as appropriate, under the heading “Other information.” This information may appear in a package insert. If a package insert is used, the “Other information” section on the outer carton or container label shall include a statement referring to the package insert for additional information.
</P>
<P>(1) “Head lice [highlighted in bold type] [bullet] lay small white eggs (nits) on hair shaft close to scalp [bullet] nits are most easily found on back of neck or behind ears [bullet] disinfect hats, hair ribbons, scarves, coats, towels, and bed linens by machine washing in hot water (above 54 °C (130 °F)), then using hottest dryer cycle for at least 20 minutes [bullet] items that cannot be washed (bedspreads, blankets, pillows, stuffed toys, etc.) should be dry-cleaned or sealed in a plastic bag for 4 weeks, then removed outdoors and shaken out very hard before using again [bullet] items that cannot be washed, dry-cleaned, or stored may be sprayed with a product designed for this purpose [bullet] soak all combs and brushes in hot water (above 54 °C (130 °F)) for at least 10 minutes [bullet] vacuum all carpets, mattresses, upholstered furniture, and car seats that may have been used by affected people”.
</P>
<P>(2) “Pubic (crab) lice [highlighted in bold type] [bullet] may be transmitted by sexual contact. Sexual partners should be treated simultaneously to avoid reinfestation [bullet] lice are very small and look like brown or grey dots on skin [bullet] usually cause intense itching and lay small white eggs (nits) on the hair shaft generally close to the skin surface [bullet] may be present on the short hairs of groin, thighs, trunk, and underarms, and occasionally on the beard and mustache [bullet] disinfect underwear by machine washing in hot water (above 54 °C (130 °F)), then using hottest dryer cycle for at least 20 minutes”.
</P>
<P>(3) “Body lice [highlighted in bold type] [bullet] body lice and their eggs (nits) are generally found in the seams of clothing particularly in waistline and armpit area [bullet] body lice feed on skin then return to clothing to lay their eggs [bullet] disinfect clothing by machine washing in hot water (above 54 °C (130 °F)), then using hottest dryer cycle for at least 20 minutes [bullet] do not seal clothing in a plastic bag because nits can remain dormant for up to 30 days”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 75417, Dec. 31, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Drug Products for the Control of Dandruff, Seborrheic Dermatitis, and Psoriasis</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 63568, Dec. 4, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 358.701" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.701   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An over-the-counter dandruff, seborrheic dermatitis, or psoriasis drug product in a form suitable for topical application is generally recognized as safe and effective and is not misbranded if it meets each of the conditions in this subpart and each general condition established in § 330.1 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this subpart to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.703" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.703   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Coal tar.</I> The tar used for medicinal purposes that is obtained as a byproduct during the destructive distillation of bituminous coal at temperatures in the range of 900 °C to 1,100 °C. It may be further processed using either extraction with alcohol and suitable dispersing agents and maceration times or fractional distillation with or without the use of suitable organic solvents. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dandruff.</I> A condition involving an increased rate of shedding of dead epidermal cells of the scalp. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Psoriasis.</I> A condition of the scalp or body characterized by irritation, itching, redness, and extreme excess shedding of dead epidermal cells. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Seborrheic dermatitis.</I> A condition of the scalp or body characterized by irritation, itching, redness, and excess shedding of dead epidermal cells. 
</P>
<P>(e) Selenium sulfide, micronized. Selenium sulfide that has been finely ground and that has a median particle size of approximately 5 micrometers (µm), with not more than 0.1 percent of the particles greater than 15 µm and not more than 0.1 percent of the particles less than 0.5 µm.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 63568, Dec. 4, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 4001, Jan. 28, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.710" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.710   Active ingredients for the control of dandruff, seborrheic dermatitis, or psoriasis.</HEAD>
<P>The active ingredient of the product consists of any of the following within the specified concentration established for each ingredient: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Active ingredients for the control of dandruff.</I> (1) Coal tar, 0.5 to 5 percent. When a coal tar solution, derivative, or fraction is used as the source of the coal tar, the labeling shall specify the identity and concentration of the coal tar source used and the concentration of the coal tar present in the final product. 
</P>
<P>(2) Pyrithione zinc, 0.3 to 2 percent when formulated to be applied and then washed off after brief exposure. 
</P>
<P>(3) Pyrithione zinc, 0.1 to 0.25 percent when formulated to be applied and left on the skin or scalp. 
</P>
<P>(4) Salicylic acid, 1.8 to 3 percent. 
</P>
<P>(5) Selenium sulfide, 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(6) Selenium sulfide, micronized, 0.6 percent. 
</P>
<P>(7) Sulfur, 2 to 5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Active ingredients for the control of seborrheic dermatitis.</I> (1) Coal tar, 0.5 to 5 percent. When a coal tar solution, derivative, or fraction is used as the source of the coal tar, the labeling shall specify the identity and concentration of the coal tar source used and the concentration of the coal tar present in the final product. 
</P>
<P>(2) Pyrithione zinc, 0.95 to 2 percent when formulated to be applied and then washed off after brief exposure. 
</P>
<P>(3) Pyrithione zinc, 0.1 to 0.25 percent when formulated to be applied and left on the skin or scalp. 
</P>
<P>(4) Salicylic acid, 1.8 to 3 percent. 
</P>
<P>(5) Selenium sulfide, 1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Active ingredients for the control of psoriasis.</I> (1) Coal tar, 0.5 to 5 percent. When a coal tar solution, derivative, or fraction is used as the source of the coal tar, the labeling shall specify the identity and concentration of the coal tar source used and the concentration of the coal tar present in the final product.
</P>
<P>(2) Salicylic acid, 1.8 to 3 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 63568, Dec. 4, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 4001, Jan. 28, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.720" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.720   Permitted combinations of active ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Combination of active ingredients for the control of dandruff.</I> Salicylic acid identified in § 358.710(a)(4) may be combined with sulfur identified in § 358.710(a)(7) provided each ingredient is present within the established concentration and the product is labeled according to § 358.750.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combination of control of dandruff and external analgesic active ingredients.</I> Coal tar identified in § 358.710(a)(1) may be used at a concentration of 1.8 percent coal tar solution, on a weight to volume basis, in combination with menthol, 1.5 percent, in a shampoo formulation provided the product is labeled according to § 358.760.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 9852, Mar. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.750" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.750   Labeling of drug products for the control of dandruff, seborrheic dermatitis, or psoriasis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> The labeling of the product contains the established name of the drug, if any, and identifies the product with one or more of the following, as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Dandruff (insert product form)” or “antidandruff (insert product form)”. 
</P>
<P>(2) “Seborrheic dermatitis (insert product form)”. 
</P>
<P>(3) “Psoriasis (insert product form)”. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Indications,” the phrase listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and may contain any of the terms listed in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the indications for use that have been established and listed in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(1) (“For relief of” or “Controls”) “the symptoms of” (select one or more of the following, as appropriate: “dandruff,” “seborrheic dermatitis,” and/or “psoriasis.”) 
</P>
<P>(2) The following terms or phrases may be used in place of or in addition to the words “For the relief of” or “Controls” in the indications in paragraph (b)(1) of this section: “fights,” “reduces,” “helps eliminate,” “helps stop,” “controls recurrence of,” “fights recurrence of,” “helps prevent recurrence of,” “reduces recurrence of,” “helps eliminate recurrence of,” “helps stop recurrence of.” 
</P>
<P>(3) The following terms may be used in place of the words “the symptoms of” in the indications in paragraph (b)(1) of this section: (“skin” and/or “scalp,” as appropriate) (select one or more of the following: “itching,” “irritation,” “redness,” “flaking,” “scaling,”) “associated with.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following warnings under the heading “Warnings”: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 358.710.</I> (i) “For external use only.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Avoid contact with the eyes. If contact occurs, rinse eyes thoroughly with water.” 
</P>
<P>(iii) “If condition worsens or does not improve after regular use of this product as directed, consult a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For any product containing coal tar identified in § 358.710(a), (b), or (c).</I> (i) “Use caution in exposing skin to sunlight after applying this product. It may increase your tendency to sunburn for up to 24 hours after application.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Do not use for prolonged periods without consulting a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing coal tar when formulated to be applied and left on the skin (e.g., creams, ointments, lotions).</I> “Do not use this product in or around the rectum or in the genital area or groin except on the advice of a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For products containing coal tar identified in § 358.710(c) for the control of psoriasis.</I> “Do not use this product with other forms of psoriasis therapy such as ultraviolet radiation or prescription drugs unless directed to do so by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For products containing any ingredient identified in § 358.710(b) or (c) for the control of seborrheic dermatitis or psoriasis.</I> “If condition covers a large area of the body, consult your doctor before using this product.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product contains the following information under the heading “Directions.” More detailed directions applicable to a particular product formulation may also be included. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For products containing active ingredients for the control of dandruff, seborrheic dermatitis, or psoriasis when formulated to be applied and then washed off after brief (a few minutes) exposure (e.g, shampoos, preshampoo rinses, postshampoo rinses).</I> “For best results use at least twice a week or as directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For products containing active ingredients for the control of dandruff, seborrheic dermatitis, or psoriasis when formulated so as to be applied and left on the skin or scalp (e.g., creams, ointments, lotions, hairgrooms).</I> “Apply to affected areas one to four times daily or as directed by a doctor.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For products containing active ingredients for the control of seborrheic dermatitis or psoriasis of the skin when formulated as soaps.</I> “Use on affected areas in place of your regular soap.” 
</P>
<P>(e) The word “physician” may be substituted for the word “doctor” in any of the labeling statements in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 358.760" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.30.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 358.760   Labeling of permitted combinations of active ingredients for the control of dandruff.</HEAD>
<P>The statement of identity, indications, warnings, and directions for use, respectively, applicable to each ingredient in the product may be combined to eliminate duplicative words or phrases so that the resulting information is clear and understandable.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of identity.</I> For a combination drug product that has an established name, the labeling of the product states the established name of the combination drug product, followed by the statement of identity for each ingredient in the combination, as established in the statement of identity sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Combinations of control of dandruff and external analgesic active ingredients in § 358.720(b).</I> The label states “dandruff/anti-itch shampoo” or “antidandruff/anti-itch shampoo”.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indications.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Uses,” one or more of the phrases listed in this paragraph (b), as appropriate. Other truthful and nonmisleading statements, describing only the uses that have been established and listed in this paragraph (b), may also be used, as provided in § 330.1(c)(2) of this chapter, subject to the provisions of section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) relating to misbranding and the prohibition in section 301(d) of the act against the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of unapproved new drugs in violation of section 505(a) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Combinations of control of dandruff and external analgesic active ingredients in § 358.720(b).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] [select one of the following: ‘for relief of' or ‘controls'] the symptoms of dandruff [bullet] [select one of the following: ‘additional' or ‘extra'] relief of itching due to dandruff”.
</P>
<P>(2) The following terms or phrases may be used in place of or in addition to the words “for the relief of” or “controls” in the indications in paragraph (b)(1) of this section: “fights,” “reduces,” “helps eliminate,” “helps stop,” “controls recurrence of,” “fights recurrence of,” “helps prevent recurrence of,” “reduces recurrence of,” “helps eliminate recurrence of,” “helps stop recurrence of.”
</P>
<P>(3) The following terms may be used in place of the words “the symptoms of” in the indication in paragraph (b)(1) of this section: “scalp” (select one or more of the following: “itching,” “irritation,” “redness,” “flaking,” “scaling”) “associated with”.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warnings.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Warnings,” the warning(s) listed in § 358.750(c)(1) and (c)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directions.</I> The labeling of the product states, under the heading “Directions,” directions that conform to the directions established for each ingredient in the directions sections of the applicable OTC drug monographs, unless otherwise stated in this paragraph (d). When the time intervals or age limitations for administration of the individual ingredients differ, the directions for the combination product may not contain any dosage that exceeds those established for any individual ingredient in the applicable OTC drug monograph(s), and may not provide for use by any age group lower than the highest minimum age limit established for any individual ingredient.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Combinations of control of dandruff and external analgesic active ingredients in § 358.720(b).</I> The labeling states “[bullet] wet hair [bullet] apply shampoo and work into a lather [bullet] rinse thoroughly [bullet] for best results, use at least twice a week or as directed by a doctor”.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 9852, Mar. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="361" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 361—PRESCRIPTION DRUGS FOR HUMAN USE GENERALLY RECOGNIZED AS SAFE AND EFFECTIVE AND NOT MISBRANDED: DRUGS USED IN RESEARCH
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 371; 42 U.S.C. 262.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 361.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.31.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 361.1   Radioactive drugs for certain research uses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Radioactive drugs (as defined in § 310.3(n) of this chapter) are generally recognized as safe and effective when administered, under the conditions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, to human research subjects during the course of a research project intended to obtain basic information regarding the metabolism (including kinetics, distribution, and localization) of a radioactively labeled drug or regarding human physiology, pathophysiology, or biochemistry, but not intended for immediate therapeutic, diagnostic, or similar purposes or to determine the safety and effectiveness of the drug in humans for such purposes (<I>i.e.</I>, to carry out a clinical trial). Certain basic research studies, e.g., studies to determine whether a drug localizes in a particular organ or fluid space and to describe the kinetics of that localization, may have eventual therapeutic or diagnostic implications, but the initial studies are considered to be basic research within the meaning of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The conditions under which use of radioactive drugs for research are considered safe and effective are: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Approval by Radioactive Drug Research Committee.</I> A Radioactive Drug Research Committee, composed and approved by the Food and Drug Administration in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, has determined, in accordance with the standards set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The pharmacological dose is within the limits set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The radiation dose is within the limits set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The radiation exposure is justified by the quality of the study being undertaken and the importance of the information it seeks to obtain; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The study meets the other requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section regarding qualifications of the investigator, proper licensure for handling radioactive materials, selection and consent of research subjects, quality of radioactive drugs used, research protocol design, reporting of adverse reactions, and approval by an appropriate Institutional Review Committee; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The use of the radioactive drug in human subjects has the approval of the Radioactive Drug Research Committee. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limit on pharmacological dose.</I> The amount of active ingredient or combination of active ingredients to be administered shall be known not to cause any clinically detectable pharmacological effect in human beings. If the same active ingredients (exclusive of the radionuclide) are to be administered simultaneously, e.g., under a “Investigational New Drug Application” or for a therapeutic use in accordance with labeling for a drug approved under part 314 of this chapter, the total amount of active ingredients including the radionuclide shall be known not to exceed the dose limitations applicable to the separate administration of the active ingredients excluding the radionuclide. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limit on radiation dose.</I> The amount of radioactive material to be administered shall be such that the subject receives the smallest radiation dose with which it is practical to perform the study without jeopardizing the benefits to be obtained from the study. 
</P>
<P>(i) Under no circumstances may the radiation dose to an adult research subject from a single study or cumulatively from a number of studies conducted within 1 year be generally recognized as safe if such dose exceeds the following:
</P>
<FP>Whole body, active blood-forming organs, lens of the eye, and gonads:
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rems
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Single dose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Annual and total dose commitment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other organs:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Single dose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Annual and total dose commitment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For a research subject under 18 years of age at his last birthday, the radiation dose shall not exceed 10 percent of that set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) All radioactive material included in the drug either as essential material or as a significant contaminant or impurity shall be included when determining the total radiation doses and dose commitments. Radiation doses from x-ray procedures that are part of the research study (<I>i.e.</I>, would not have occurred but for the study) shall also be included. The possibility of followup studies shall be considered for inclusion in the dose calculations. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Numerical definitions of dose shall be based on an absorbed fraction method of radiation absorbed dose calculation, such as the system set forth by the Medical Internal Radiation Dose Committee of the Society of Nuclear Medicine, or the system set forth by the International Commission on Radiological Protection. 
</P>
<P>(c) A Radioactive Drug Research Committee, in order to comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall be composed, shall function, and shall obtain and maintain approval of the Food and Drug Administration in conformity with the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Membership.</I> A Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall consist of at least five individuals. Each committee shall include the following three individuals: (i) A physician recognized as a specialist in nuclear medicine, (ii) a person qualified by training and experience to formulate radioactive drugs, and (iii) a person with special competence in radiation safety and radiation dosimetry. The remainder of the committee shall consist of individuals qualified in various disciplines pertinent to the field of nuclear medicine (e.g., radiology, internal medicine, clinical pathology, hematology, endocrinology, radiation therapy, radiation physics, radiation biophysics, health physics, and radiopharmacy). Membership shall be sufficiently diverse to permit expert review of the technical and scientific aspects of proposals submitted to the committee. The addition of consultants in other pertinent medical disciplines is encouraged. A Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall be either associated with a medical institution operated for care of patients and with sufficient scientific expertise to allow for selection of committee members from its faculty, or with a committee established by a State authority to provide advice on radiation health matters. Joint committees involving more than one medical institution which have been established in order to achieve a high level and diversity of experience will be acceptable. The Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research may modify any of the foregoing requirements in a particular situation where alternative factors provide substantially the same composition and association. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Function.</I> Each Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall select a chairman, who shall sign all applications, minutes, and reports of the committee. Each committee shall meet at least once each quarter in which research activity has been authorized or conducted. A quorum consisting of more than 50 percent of the membership must be present with appropriate representation of the required fields of specialization. Minutes shall be kept and shall include the numerical results of votes on protocols involving use in human subjects. No member shall vote on a protocol in which he is an investigator. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reports.</I> Each Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall submit an annual report on or before January 31 of each year to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, HFD-160, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857. The annual report shall include the names and qualifications of the members of, and of any consultants used by, the Radioactive Drug Research Committee, and, for each study conducted during the preceding year, a summary of information presented in the following format: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Report on Research Use of Radioactive Drug
</HD1>
<P>1. Title of the research project. 
</P>
<P>2. Brief description of the purpose of the research project. 
</P>
<P>3. Name of the investigator responsible. 
</P>
<P>4. Pharmacological dose: 
</P>
<P>a. Active ingredients. 
</P>
<P>b. Maximum amount administered per subject. 
</P>
<P>5. Name of the radionuclide(s) used, including any present, as significant contaminants or impurities.
</P>
<P>6. Radiation absorbed dose. Provide the maximum dose commitement to the whole body and each organ specified in 21 CFR 361.1(b)(3)(i) that was received by a representative subject and the calculations or references that were used to estimate these maximum dose commitments. The report shall include the dose contribution of both the administered radionuclide(s) and any X-ray procedures associated with the study. If the study elicits data on the uptake or excretion of the radioactive drug pertinent to the estimation of dose commitment, report the mean value and range of values. For each subject provide: 
</P>
<P>(a) Age, sex, and approximate weight.
</P>
<P>(b) Total activity of each radionuclide administered for each radioactive drug used in the study. Report each X-ray procedure used in conjunction with the study. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the subject has participated in other radioactive drug research studies, report the name of the radioactive drug used in these other studies, the date of administration, and the total activity of each radionuclide administered. If any X-ray procedures were used, identify the X-ray procedure(s) and include an estimate of the absorbed radiation doses. 
</P>
<P>(d) If more than one administration of a radioactive drug per subject, cumulative radiation dose and dose commitment, expressed as whole body, active blood-forming organs, lens of the eye, gonads, and other organ doses from the administered radionuclides. 
</P>
<P>7. A claim of confidentiality, if any. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Contents of this report are available for public disclosure unless confidentiality is requested by the investigator and it is adequately shown by the investigator that the report constitutes a trade secret or confidential commercial information as defined in 21 CFR 20.61.</P></NOTE>
<FP-DASH>           
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>Investigator  
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>           
</FP-DASH>
<FRP>Chairman, Radioactive Drug 
</FRP>
<FRP>Research Committee  </FRP></EXTRACT>
<FP>At any time a proposal is approved which involves exposure either of more than 30 research subjects, or of any research subject under 18 years of age, the committee shall immediately submit to the Food and Drug Administration a special summary of information in the format shown in this paragraph. Contents of these reports are available for public disclosure, unless confidentiality is requested by the investigator and it is adequately shown by the investigator that the report constitutes a trade secret or confidential commercial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</FP>
<P>(4) <I>Approval.</I> Each Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall be specifically approved by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research of the Food and Drug Administration. Applications shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, HFD-160, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, and shall contain the names and qualifications of the members of the committee, and a statement that the committee agrees to comply with the requirements set forth in this section. Approval shall be based upon an assessment of the qualifications of the members of the committee, and the assurance that all necessary fields of expertise are covered. Approval of a committee may be withdrawn at any time for failure of the committee to comply with any of the requirements of this section. Approval of a committee shall remain effective unless and until the FDA withdraws such approval. Changes in membership and applications for new members shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration as soon as, or before, vacancies occur on the committee. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Monitoring.</I> The Food and Drug Administration shall conduct periodic reviews of approved committees. Monitoring of the activities of the committee shall be conducted through review of its annual report, through review of minutes and full protocols for certain studies, and through on-site inspections. 
</P>
<P>(d) In making the determination required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall consider the following requirements and assure that each is met: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Radiation dose to subjects.</I> To assure that the radiation dose to research subjects is as low as practicable to perform the study and meet the criteria of § 361.1(b)(3), the Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall require that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The investigator provide absorbed dose calculations based on biologic distribution data available from published literature or from other valid studies. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The investigator provide for an acceptable method of radioassay of the radioactive drug prior to its use to assure that the dose calculations actually reflect the administered dose. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The radioactive drug chosen for the study has that combination of half-life, types of radiations, radiation energy, metabolism, chemical properties, etc., which results in the lowest dose to the whole body or specific organs with which it is possible to obtain the necessary information. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The investigator utilize adequate and appropriate instrumentation for the detection and measurement of the specific radionuclide. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pharmacological dosage.</I> To determine that the amount of active ingredients to be administered does not exceed the limitations set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the committee shall require that the investigator provide pharmacological dose calculations based on data available from published literature or from other valid human studies. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualifications of investigators.</I> Each investigator shall be qualified by training and experience to conduct the proposed research studies. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>License to handle radioactive materials.</I> The responsible investigator or institutions shall, in the case of reactor-produced isotopes, be licensed by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or Agreement State to possess and use the specific radionuclides for research use or be a listed investigator under a broad license, or in the case of non-reactor-produced isotopes, be licensed by other appropriate State or local authorities, when required by State or local law, to possess and use the specific radionuclides for research use. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Human research subjects.</I> Each investigator shall select appropriate human subjects and shall obtain the review and approval of an institutional review committee that conforms to the requirements of part 56 of this chapter, and shall obtain the consent of the subjects or their legal representatives in accordance with part 50 of this chapter. The research subjects shall be at least 18 years of age and legally competent. Exceptions are permitted only in those special situations when it can be demonstrated to the committee that the study presents a unique opportunity to gain information not currently available, requires the use of research subjects less than 18 years of age, and is without significant risk to the subject. Studies involving minors shall be supported with review by qualified pediatric consultants to the Radioactive Drug Research Committee. Each female research subject of childbearing potential shall state in writing that she is not pregnant, or, on the basis of a pregnancy test be confirmed as not pregnant, before she may participate in any study.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Quality of radioactive drug.</I> The radioactive drug used in the research study shall meet appropriate chemical, pharmaceutical, radiochemical, and radionuclidic standards of identity, strength, quality, and purity as needed for safety and be of such uniform and reproducible quality as to give significance to the research study conducted. The Radioactive Drug Research Committee shall determine that radioactive materials for parenteral use are prepared in sterile and pyrogen-free form. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Research protocol.</I> No matter how small the amount of radioactivity, no study involving administration of a radioactive drug, as defined in § 310.3(n) of this chapter, to research subjects under this section, shall be permitted unless the Radioactive Drug Research Committee concludes, in its judgment, that scientific knowledge and benefit is likely to result from that study. Therefore, the protocol shall be based upon a sound rationale derived from appropriate animal studies or published literature and shall be of sound design such that information of scientific value may result. The radiation dose shall be both sufficient and no greater than necessary to obtain valid measurement. The projected number of subjects shall be sufficient but no greater than necessary for the purpose of the study. The number of subjects shall also reflect the fact that the study is intended to obtain basic research information referred to in paragraph (a) of this section and not intended for immediate therapeutic, diagnostic or similar purposes or to determine the safety and effectiveness of the drug in humans for such purposes (<I>i.e.</I>, to carry out a clinical trial). 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Adverse reactions.</I> The investigator shall immediately report to the Radioactive Drug Research Committee all adverse effects associated with the use of the radioactive drug in the research study. All adverse reactions probably attributable to the use of the radioactive drug in the research study shall be immediately reported by the Radioactive Drug Research Committee to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, HFD-160, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Approval by an institutional review board.</I> The investigator shall obtain the review and approval of an institutional review board that conforms to the requirements of part 56 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The results of any research conducted pursuant to this section as part of the evaluation of a drug pursuant to part 312 of this chapter shall be included in the submissions required under part 312 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) A radioactive drug prepared, packaged, distributed, and primarily intended for use in accordance with the requirements of this section shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act and §§ 201.5 and 201.100 of this chapter if the packaging, label, and labeling are in compliance with Federal, State, and local law regarding radioactive materials and if the label of the immediate container and shielded container, if any, either separate from or as part of any label and labeling required for radioactive materials by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or by State or local radiological health authorities bear the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The statement “Rx only”; 
</P>
<P>(2) The statement “To be administered in compliance with the requirements of Federal regulations regarding radioactive drugs for research use (21 CFR 361.1)”; 
</P>
<P>(3) The established name of the drug, if any; 
</P>
<P>(4) The established name and quantity of each active ingredient; 
</P>
<P>(5) The name and half-life of the radionuclide, total quantity of radioactivity in the drug product's immediate container, and amount of radioactivity per unit volume or unit mass at a designated referenced time; 
</P>
<P>(6) The route of administration, if it is for the other than oral use; 
</P>
<P>(7) The net quantity of contents; 
</P>
<P>(8) An identifying lot or control number from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the package of the drug; 
</P>
<P>(9) The name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor; 
</P>
<P>(10) The expiration date, if any; 
</P>
<P>(11) If the drug is intended for parenteral use, a statement as to whether the contents are sterile; 
</P>
<P>(12) If the drug is for other than oral use, the names of all inactive ingredients, except that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Trace amounts of harmless substances added solely for individual product identification need not be named. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the drug is intended for parenteral use, the quantity or proportion of all inactive ingredients, except that ingredients added to adjust pH or to make the drug isotonic may be declared by name and a statement of their effect; if the vehicle is water for injection, it need not be named. <I>Provided, however,</I> That in the case of containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information, the information required by paragraphs (f) (1) and (12) of this section may be placed on the shielded container only.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 31308, July 25, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 44543, Sept. 29, 1975; 42 FR 15674, Mar. 22, 1977; 43 FR 14646, Apr. 7, 1978; 46 FR 8955, Jan. 27, 1981; 49 FR 44460, Nov. 7, 1984; 50 FR 8996, Mar. 6, 1985; 55 FR 11582, Mar. 29, 1990; 56 FR 10806, Mar. 14, 1991; 67 FR 4907, Feb. 1, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="369" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 369—INTERPRETATIVE STATEMENTS RE WARNINGS ON DRUGS AND DEVICES FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER SALE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.








</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 11745, Mar. 29, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 369 appear at 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions and Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.1" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.1   Purpose of issuance.</HEAD>
<P>The warning and caution statements suggested in subparts B and C of this part, for inclusion in the label or labeling of drugs and devices subject to section 502(d) and (f)(2) and other relevant provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are issued for the purpose of assisting industry in preparing proper labeling for these articles for over-the-counter sale and in meeting the legal requirements of the act that the label or labeling of drugs and devices bear adequate warnings, in such manner and form as are necessary for the protection of users. Only section 502(d) of the act requires use of the specific language included in these suggested warning and caution statements. These suggested warning or caution statements are illustrative of those that may be necessary or desirable. It is the responsibility of the manufacturer, packer, shipper, or distributor in interstate commerce to see that such statements are adequate for compliance with the provisions of the law. Omission of any article from this suggested list does not relieve drugs and devices subject to provisions of the act from bearing adequate warning or caution statements where such statements are necessary or desirable for the protection of the user. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.2" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part, the term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) The terms <I>drugs</I> and <I>devices</I> are defined in section 201(g) and (k) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Official compendia are defined in section 201(j) of the act. 






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.3" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.3   Warnings required on drugs exempted from prescription-dispensing requirements of section 503(b)(1)(C).</HEAD>
<P>Drugs exempted from prescription-dispensing requirements under section 503(b)(1)(C) of the act are subject to the labeling requirements prescribed in § 310.201(a) of this chapter. Although, for convenience, warning and caution statements for a number of the drugs named in § 310.201 of this chapter (cross-referenced in the text of this part) are included in subpart B of this part, the inclusion of such drugs in §§ 369.20 or 369.21 in no way affects the requirements for compliance with § 310.201(a) of this chapter, or the provisions of an effective application pursuant to section 505(b) of the act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72907, Nov. 16, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.4" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.4   Warnings suggested for drugs by formal or informal statements of policy.</HEAD>
<P>The warning and caution statements included in subpart B of this part in no way affect any warning statement suggested for such drugs or devices by any statement of policy or interpretation in subchapter C of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11745, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 13496, Mar. 27, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.6" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.7" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.7   Warnings required by official compendia.</HEAD>
<P>Any drug included in the official compendia defined by the act shall bear such warning or caution statement as may be required by such compendia, and no statement in subpart B or subpart C of this part is intended to alter, modify, or permit the omission of any such statement required by such compendia. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.8" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.8   Warning statements in relation to conditions for use.</HEAD>
<P>The mention in any warning or caution statement included in subparts A, B, and C of this part, of a disease condition does not imply a finding on the part of the Food and Drug Administration that any drug or device is efficacious in such condition; nor is any drug or device bearing labeling referring to such disease condition precluded from regulatory action under the applicable provisions of the act if such claim is considered to be misbranding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.9" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.9   General warnings re accidental ingestion by children.</HEAD>
<P>Section 369.20 includes under certain items, but not all medicines, the statement: “Keep this and all medicines out of children's reach. In case of overdose, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away,” or “Keep out of reach of children.” However, in view of the possibility of accidental ingestion of drugs, it is not only suggested but is recommended that one of these statements be used on the label of all drug products.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 13296, Mar. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.10" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.10   Conspicuousness of warning statements.</HEAD>
<P>Necessary warning statements should appear in the labeling prominently and conspicuously as compared to other words, statements, designs, and devices, and in bold type on clearly contrasting background, in order to comply with the provisions of section 502(c) and (f)(2) of the act. The warning statements should be placed in the labeling in juxtaposition with the directions for use and, in any case, should appear on the label when there is sufficient label space in addition to mandatory label information. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Warning and Caution Statements for Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.20" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.20   Drugs; recommended warning and caution statements.</HEAD>
<FP>ACETANILID. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not exceed recommended dosage. Overdosage or continued use may result in serious blood disturbances.
</P>
<FP>ACETOPHENETIDIN CONTAINING PREPARATIONS. (See § 201.309 of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—This medication may damage the kidneys when used in large amounts or for a long period of time. Do not take more than the recommended dosage, nor take regularly for longer than 10 days without consulting your physician.
</P>
<FP>ANESTHETICS FOR EXTERNAL USE (LOCAL ANESTHETICS). (See also § 310.201(a)(19) and (23) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not use in the eyes. Not for prolonged use. If the condition for which this preparation is used persists or if a rash or irritation develops, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>ANTIHISTAMINICS FOR EXTERNAL USE (EXCEPT PREPARATIONS FOR OPHTHALMIC USE). 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not use in the eyes. If the condition for which this preparation is used persists or if a rash or irritation develops, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>ANTIHISTAMINICS, ORAL. (See also § 310.201(a)(4) and (a)(24) of this chapter.)
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—This preparation may cause drowsiness. Do not drive or operate machinery while taking this medication. Do not give to children under 6 years of age or exceed the recommended dosage unless directed by physician. 
</P>
<P>The reference to drowsiness is not required on preparations for the promotion of sleep or on preparations that are shown not to produce drowsiness.
</P>
<FP>ANTIPYRINE. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not exceed recommended dosage. If skin rash appears, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>ANTISEPTICS FOR EXTERNAL USE. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—In case of deep or puncture wounds or serious burns, consult physician. If redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases or if infection occurs discontinue use and consult physician. 
</P>
<P>The reference to wounds and burns is not required on preparations intended solely for diaper rash.
</P>
<FP>ARSENIC PREPARATIONS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Frequent or prolonged use may cause serious injury. Do not exceed recommended dosage. Keep out of the reach of children.
</P>
<FP>BELLADONNA PREPARATIONS AND PREPARATIONS OF ITS ALKALOIDS (ATROPINE, HYOSCYAMINE, AND SCOPOLAMINE (HYOSCINE); HYOSCYAMUS, STRAMONIUM, THEIR DERIVATIVES, AND RELATED DRUG PREPARATIONS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Not to be used by persons having glaucoma or excessive pressure within the eye, by elderly persons (where undiagnosed glaucoma or excessive pressure within the eye occurs most frequently), or by children under 6 years of age, unless directed by a physician. Discontinue use if blurring of vision, rapid pulse, or dizziness occurs. Do not exceed recommended dosage. Not for frequent or prolonged use. If dryness of the mouth occurs, decrease dosage. If eye pain occurs, discontinue use and see your physician immediately as this may indicate undiagnosed glaucoma. 
</P>
<P>In the case of scopolamine or scopolamine aminoxide preparations indicated for insomnia, the portion of the above warning that reads “children under 6 years of age” should read instead “children under 12 years of age”.
</P>
<FP>BORIC ACID (POWDERED, CRYSTALLINE, OR GRANULAR). 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not use as a dusting powder, especially on infants, or take internally. Use only as a solution. Do not apply to badly broken or raw skin, or to large areas of the body.
</P>
<FP>BROMIDES. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Use only as directed. Do not give to children or use in the presence of kidney disease. If skin rash appears or if nervous symptoms persist, recur frequently, or are unusual, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>CARBOLIC ACID (PHENOL) PREPARATIONS (MORE THAN 0.5 PERCENT) FOR EXTERNAL USE. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Use according to directions. Do not apply to large areas of the body. If applied to fingers or toes, do not bandage.
</P>
<FP>CATHARTICS AND LAXATIVES—IRRITANTS AND OTHER PERISTALTIC STIMULANTS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not use when abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting are present. Frequent or prolonged use of this preparation may result in dependence on laxatives. 
</P>
<P>Mercury preparations should have added to the “frequent use” statement, the words “and serious mercury poisoning”. 
</P>
<P>Phenolphthalein preparations should bear, in addition to the general warning, the following statement: 
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If skin rash appears, do not use this or any other preparation containing phenolphthalein. 
</P>
<P>See also Mineral Oil Laxatives.
</P>
<FP>CHLORATES: MOUTH WASH OR GARGLE. 
</FP>
<P>Avoid swallowing.
</P>
<FP>COBALT PREPARATIONS (See also § 250.106 of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not exceed the recommended dosage. Do not administer to children under 12 years of age unless directed by physician. Do not use for more than 2 months unless directed by physician. 
</P>
<P>This warning is not required on articles containing not more than 0.5 milligram of cobalt as a cobalt salt per dosage unit and which recommend administration of not more than 0.5 milligram per dose and not more than 2 milligrams per 24-hour period.
</P>
<FP>“COUGH-DUE-TO-COLD” PREPARATIONS. (See also § 310.201(a)(20) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Persons with a high fever or persistent cough should not use this preparation unless directed by physician.
</P>
<FP>COUNTERIRRITANTS AND RUBEFACIENTS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not apply to irritated skin or if excessive irritation develops. Avoid getting into the eyes or on mucous membranes. 
</P>
<P>If offered for use in arthritis or rheumatism, in juxtaposition therewith, the statement: 
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If pain persists for more than 10 days, or redness is present, or in conditions affecting children under 12 years of age consult a physician immediately. 
</P>
<P>See also “Salicylates” in this section for additional warnings for preparations containing methyl salicylate.
</P>
<FP>CREOSOTE, CRESOLS, GUAIACOL, AND SIMILAR SUBSTANCES IN PREPARATIONS FOR EXTERNAL USE. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not apply to large areas of the body.
</P>
<FP>CREOSOTE, CRESOLS, GUAIACOL, AND SIMILAR SUBSTANCES IN DOUCHE PREPARATIONS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—The use of solutions stronger than those recommended may result in severe local irritation, burns, or serious poisoning. Mix as directed before pouring into douche bag. Do not use more often than twice weekly unless directed by physician.
</P>
<FP>DENTURE RELINERS, PADS, AND CUSHIONS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning—For temporary use only.</I> Long-term use of this product may lead to faster bone loss, continuing irritation, sores, and tumors. For Use Only Until a Dentist Can Be Seen.
</P>
<FP>DENTURE REPAIR KITS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning—For emergency repairs only.</I> Long-term use of home-repaired dentures may cause faster bone loss, continuing irritation, sores, and tumors. This kit for emergency use only. See Dentist Without Delay.
</P>
<FP>DOUCHE PREPARATIONS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not use more often than twice weekly unless directed by physician. 
</P>
<P>See also Creosote * * * Douche for additional warning.
</P>
<FP>DRESSINGS, PROTECTIVE SPRAY-ON TYPE. (See also § 310.201(a) (11) and (18) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—In case of deep or puncture wounds or serious burns consult physician. If redness, irritation, swelling or pain persists or increases or if infection occurs consult physician. Keep away from eyes or other mucous membranes. Avoid inhaling. 
</P>
<P>See also Dispensers Pressurized by Gaseous Propellants * * * for additional warnings to be included for products under pressure.
</P>
<FP>IODINE AND IODIDES (ORAL). 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If a skin rash appears, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>MERCURY PREPARATIONS FOR EXTERNAL USE. 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Discontinue use if rash or irritation develops or if condition for which used persists. Frequent or prolonged use, or application to large areas may cause serious mercury poisoning.
</P>
<FP>MINERAL OIL LAXATIVES. (See also § 201.302 of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Take only at bedtime. Avoid prolonged use. Do not administer to infants or young children, in pregnancy, or to bedridden or aged patients unless directed by physician.
</P>
<FP>NASAL PREPARATIONS: VASOCONSTRICTORS (PHENYL- PROPANOLAMINE). 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not exceed recommended dosage.
</P>
<FP>NUX VOMICA AND STRYCHNINE PREPARATIONS.
</FP>
<P>“Do not use more than the recommended dosage. Keep out of reach of children. In case of overdose, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away.”
</P>
<FP>OPHTHALMIC PREPARATIONS. (See also § 200.50 of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P>Boric acid offered for use in the preparation of ophthalmic solutions should bear the statement: Prepare solution by boiling in water. Store in a sterile container. Prepare sufficient for one day's use and discard unused portion.
</P>
<FP>PHENACETIN-CONTAINING PREPARATION. (See acetophenetidin.)
</FP>
<FP>PHENYLPROPANOLAMINE HY- DROCHLORIDE PREPARATIONS, ORAL. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Individuals with high blood pressure, heart disease, diabetes, or thyroid disease should use only as directed by physician.
</P>
<FP>POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE AQUEOUS SOLUTIONS (CONTAINING NOT MORE THAN 0.04 PERCENT POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE). (See § 250.108 of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—For external use on the skin only. Severe injury may result from use internally or as a douche. Avoid contact with mucous membranes.
</P>
<FP>QUININE AND OTHER CINCHONA DERIVATIVES (EXCEPT FOR USE IN MALARIA). 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Discontinue use if ringing in the ears, deafness, skin rash, or visual disturbances occur.
</P>
<FP>RESINS, OLEORESINS, AND VOLATILE OILS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, or skin rash occurs, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>RESORCINOL (NOT THE MONOACETATE) HAIR PREPARATIONS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Excessive use of this preparation may temporarily discolor blond, white, or red hair.
</P>
<FP>SALICYLATES, INCLUDING ASPIRIN AND SALICYLAMIDE (EXCEPT METHYL SALICYLATE, EFFERVESCENT SALICYLATE PREPARATIONS, AND PREPARATIONS OF AMINOSALICYLIC ACID AND ITS SALTS). (See also § 201.314 of this chapter.)
</FP>
<P>“Keep out of reach of children. In case of overdose, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away;” or “Keep out of reach of children.”
</P>
<P>If the article is an aspirin preparation, it should bear the first of the above two warning statements. In either case, the above information should appear on the label.
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—For children under 3 years of age, consult your physician; or
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—For younger children, consult your physician.
</P>
<P>One of the two immediately preceding caution statements is required on the label of all aspirin tablets, but such a statement is not required on the labels of other salicylates clearly offered for administration to adults only.
</P>
<P>If offered for use in arthritis or rheumatism, in juxtaposition therewith, the statement:
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If pain persists for more than 10 days, or redness is present, or in conditions affecting children under 12 years of age, consult a physician immediately.
</P>
<FP>SALICYLATES: METHYL SALICYLATE (WINTERGREEN OIL). (See also §§ 201.303 and 201.314 of this chapter.)
</FP>
<P>“Do not use otherwise than as directed. Keep out of reach of children to avoid accidental poisoning. If swallowed, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away.”
</P>
<P>If the preparation is a counter-irritant or rubefacient the statement:
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Discontinue use if excessive irritation of the skin develops. Avoid getting into the eyes or on mucous membranes.
</P>
<P>If offered for use in arthritis or rheumatism, in juxtaposition therewith, the statement:
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If pain persists for more than 10 days, or redness is present, or in conditions affecting children under 12 years of age consult a physician immediately.
</P>
<FP>SILVER. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Frequent or prolonged use of this preparation may result in permanent discoloration of skin and mucous membranes.
</P>
<FP>SODIUM PERBORATE MOUTHWASH AND GARGLE AND TOOTHPASTE. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Discontinue use if irritation or inflammation develops, or increases. Avoid swallowing.
</P>
<FP>SULFONAMIDE NOSE DROPS. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not use if a known allergy to sulfonamide drugs exists.
</P>
<FP>SULFUR PREPARATION FOR EXTERNAL USE. 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If undue skin irritation develops or increases, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>THROAT PREPARATIONS FOR TEMPORARY RELIEF OF MINOR SORE THROAT: LOZENGES, TROCHES, WASHES, GARGLES, ETC. (See also § 201.315 of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Severe or persistent sore throat or sore throat accompanied by high fever, headache, nausea, and vomiting may be serious. Consult physician promptly. Do not use more than 2 days or administer to children under 3 years of age unless directed by physician.
</P>
<FP>TOOTHACHE PREPARATIONS. 
</FP>
<P>For temporary use only until a dentist can be consulted.
</P>
<FP>ZINC STEARATE DUSTING POWDERS.
</FP>
<P>“Keep out of reach of children; avoid inhaling. If swallowed, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11745, Mar. 29, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 8917, Mar. 3, 1975; 40 FR 13496, Mar. 27, 1975; 41 FR 10885, Mar. 15, 1976; 51 FR 27760, Aug. 1, 1986; 51 FR 35340, Oct. 2, 1986; 52 FR 15893, Apr. 30, 1987; 52 FR 30057, Aug. 12, 1987; 52 FR 47324, Dec. 11, 1987; 53 FR 7093, Mar. 4, 1988; 55 FR 31783, Aug. 3, 1990; 57 FR 58376, Dec. 9, 1992; 59 FR 43412, Aug. 23, 1994; 64 FR 13296, Mar. 17, 1999; 68 FR 18882, Apr. 17, 2003; 68 FR 34293, June 9, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.21" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.32.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.21   Drugs; warning and caution statements required by regulations.</HEAD>
<FP>ACETAMINOPHEN (N-ACETYL-<I>p</I>-AMINOPHENOL) (See § 310.201(a)(1) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not give to children under 3 years of age or use for more than 10 days unless directed by a physician. 
</P>
<P>If offered for use in arthritis, or rheumatism, in juxtaposition therewith, the statement: 
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If pain persists for more than 10 days, or redness is present, or in conditions affecting children under 12 years of age consult a physician immediately.
</P>
<FP>ALCOHOL RUBBING COMPOUND. (See 26 CFR 182.855(a)(5); The National Formulary, Tenth Edition 1955, pp. 27-28; and section 502(g) of the act). 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—For external use only. If taken internally serious gastric distrubances will result.
</P>
<FP>ANTIHISTAMINICS, ORAL (PHENYLTOLOXAMINE DIHYDROGEN CITRATE AND CHLOROTHEN CITRATE PREPARATIONS). (See § 310.201(a)(4) and (a)(24) of this chapter.)
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—This preparation may cause drowsiness. Do not drive or operate machinery while taking this medication. Do not give to children under 6 years of age or exceed the recommended dosage unless directed by physician. 
</P>
<P>If offered for symptoms of colds, the statement: 
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If relief does not occur within 3 days, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>DICYCLOMINE HYDROCHLORIDE WITH AN ANTACID. (See § 310.201(a)(8) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not exceed the recommended dosage. Do not administer to children under 12 years of age or use for a prolonged period unless directed by physician, since persistent or recurring symptoms may indicate a serious disease requiring medical attention.
</P>
<FP>DIPHEMANIL METHYLSULFATE FOR EXTERNAL USE. (See § 310.201(a)(22) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases, discontinue use and consult physician.
</P>
<FP>DRUGS IN DISPENSERS PRESSURIZED BY GASEOUS PROPELLANTS. (See also § 310.201(a) (11) and (18) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P>The warnings herein shall appear prominently and conspicuously, but in no case may the letters be less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in height. 
</P>
<P>If the label of any package is too small to accommodate the warnings, the Commissioner may establish by regulation an acceptable alternative method, e.g., a type size smaller than 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in height. A petition requesting such a regulation, as an amendment to this paragraph, shall be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff in the form established in part 10 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Avoid spraying in eyes. Contents under pressure. Do not puncture or incinerate. Do not store at temperature above 120 °F. Keep out of reach of children. 
</P>
<P>In the case of products packaged in glass containers, the word “break” may be substituted for the word “puncture.” 
</P>
<P>The words “Avoid spraying in eyes” may be deleted from the warning in the case of a product not expelled as a spray, or that is intended to be used in the eyes. 
</P>
<P>In addition to the above warning, the label of a drug packaged in a self-pressurized container in which the propellant consists in whole or in part of a halocarbon or hydrocarbon shall bear the following warning: 
</P>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Use only as directed. Intentional misuse by deliberately concentrating and inhaling the contents can be harmful or fatal. 
</P>
<P>The warning is not required for the following products:
</P>
<P>(a) Products expelled in the form of a foam or cream, which contain less than ten percent propellant in the container;
</P>
<P>(b) Products in a container with a physical barrier that prevents escape of the propellant at the time of use;
</P>
<P>(c) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than 2 ozs. that are designed to release a measured amount of product with each valve actuation;
</P>
<P>(d) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> oz.
</P>
<FP>DYCLONINE HYDROCHLORIDE. (See § 310.201(a)(23) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not use in the eyes. Not for prolonged use. Do not apply to large areas of the body. If redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases, discontinue use unless directed by physician. Do not use, but consult physician for deep or puncture wounds or serious burns. Do not use in case of rectal bleeding, as this may indicate serious disease.
</P>
<FP>HEXADENOL. (See § 310.201(a)(11) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Do not use for treatment of serious burns or skin conditions or for conditions which persist for prolonged periods. In such cases, consult your physician. Do not spray in vicinity of eyes, mouth, nose, or ears. Do not store above 120 °F.
</P>
<FP>IPECAC SYRUP IN ONE-FLUID OUNCE CONTAINERS FOR EMERGENCY TREATMENT OF POISONING, TO INDUCE VOMITING. (See § 201.308 of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P>Ipecac syrup packaged for over-the-counter sale must bear statements to the following effect, in a prominent and conspicuous manner: 
</P>
<P>The following statement (boxed and in red letters): 
</P>
<P>“For emergency use to cause vomiting in poisoning. Before using, call physician, the Poison Control Center, or hospital emergency room immediately for advice.” 
</P>
<P>The following warning: Warning—Keep out of reach of children. Do not use in unconscious persons. Ordinarily, this drug should not be used if strychnine, corrosives such as alkalies (lye) and strong acids, or petroleum distillates such as kerosene, gasoline, coal oil, fuel oil, paint thinner, or cleaning fluid have been ingested.
</P>
<FP>ISOAMYLHYRDOCUPREINE AND ZOLAMINE HYDROCHLORIDE RECTAL PREPARATIONS FOR EXTERNAL USE (See § 310.201(a)(3) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Warning—</I>Do not use this preparation in case of rectal bleeding, as this may indicate serious disease.
</P>
<FP>NEOMYCIN SULFATE WITH A VASOCONSTRICTOR, IN NASAL PREPARATIONS (SPRAY OR DROPS). 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution—</I>Do not exceed recommended dosage. Do not administer to children under 3 years of age unless directed by physician.
</P>
<FP>PRAMOXINE HYDROCHLORIDE FOR EXTERNAL USE. (See § 310.201(a)(19) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution—</I>Do not use in the eyes or nose. Not for prolonged use. Do not apply to large areas of the body. If redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases, discontinue use unless directed by a physician.
</P>
<FP>SODIUM GENTISATE. (See §§ 201.314 and 310.301(a)(2) of this chapter.)
</FP>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Do not use in children under 6 years of age or use for prolonged period unless directed by physician.
</P>
<P>“Keep out of reach of children. In case of overdose, get medical help or contact a Poison Control Center right away.”
</P>
<P>If offered for use in arthritis or rheumatism, in juxtaposition therewith, the statement:
</P>
<P><I>Caution</I>—If pain persists for more than 10 days, or redness is present, or in conditions affecting children under 12 years of age, consult a physician immediately.
</P>
<FP>TUAMINOHEPTANE SULFATE NASAL PREPARATIONS. (See § 310.201(a)(16) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution—</I>Do not exceed recommended dosage. Overdosage may cause nervousness, restlessness, or sleeplessness. Individuals with high blood pressure, heart disease, diabetes, or thyroid disease should use only as directed by physician. Do not use for more than 3 or 4 consecutive days unless directed by physician.
</P>
<FP>VIBESATE PREPARATIONS. (See § 310.201(a)(18) of this chapter.) 
</FP>
<P><I>Caution—</I>Do not use but consult physician for deep or puncture wounds or serious burns. If redness, irritation, swelling, or pain persists or increases, discontinue use and consult physician. 
</P>
<P><I>Warning—</I>Contents under pressure. Do not puncture. Do not use or store near heat or open flame. Exposure to temperatures above 130 °Fahrenheit may cause bursting. Never throw container into fire or incinerator.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 11745, Mar. 29, 1974]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 369.21, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="370-499" NODE="21:5.0.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 370-499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 7, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="6" NODE="21:6" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 6</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>500 


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:6.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E—ANIMAL DRUGS, FEEDS, AND RELATED PRODUCTS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="500" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 500—GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 342, 343, 348, 351, 352, 353, 360b, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13802, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Administrative Rulings and Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.23" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.23   Thermally processed low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 507.5(b) of this chapter, the provisions of parts 507 and 113 of this chapter apply to the manufacturing, processing, or packing of low-acid foods in hermetically sealed containers, and intended for use as food for animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.24" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.24   Emergency permit control.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of part 108 of this chapter shall apply to the issuance of emergency control permits for the manufacturer or packer of thermally processed low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers, and intended for use as food for animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 37681, July 19, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.25" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.25   Anthelmintic drugs for use in animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs has determined that, in order to assure that anthelmintic drugs, including animal feeds bearing or containing such drugs, which do not carry the prescription statement are labeled to provide adequate directions for their effective use, labeling of these anthelmintic drugs shall bear, in addition to other required information, a statement that a veterinarian should be consulted for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. 
</P>
<P>(b) The label and any labeling furnishing or purporting to furnish directions for use, shall bear conspicuously the following statement: “Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.” 
</P>
<P>(c) For drugs covered by approved new animal drug applications, the labeling revisions required for compliance with this section may be placed into effect without prior approval, as provided for in § 514.8(c)(3) of this chapter. For drugs listed in the index, the labeling revisions required for compliance with this section may be placed into effect without prior granting of a request for a modification, as provided for in § 516.161(b)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Labeling revisions required for compliance with this section shall be placed into effect by February 25, 1975, following which, any such drugs that are introduced into interstate commerce and not in compliance with this section will be subject to regulatory proceedings. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13802, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 71 FR 74782, Dec. 13, 2006; 72 FR 69120, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.26" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.26   Timed-release dosage form drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drugs are being offered in dosage forms that are designed to release the active ingredients over a prolonged period of time. There is a possibility of unsafe overdosage or ineffective dosage if such products are improperly made and the active ingredients are released at one time, over too short or too long a period of time, or not released at all. Drugs marketed in this form, which are referred to by such terms as timed-release, controlled-release, prolonged-release, sustained-release, or delayed-release drugs, are regarded as new animal drugs within the meaning of section 201(v) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Timed-release dosage form animal drugs that are introduced into interstate commerce are deemed to be adulterated within the meaning of section 501(a)(5) of the act and subject to regulatory action, unless such animal drug is the subject of an approved new animal drug application, or listed in the index, as required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The fact that the labeling of this kind of drug may claim delayed, prolonged, controlled, or sustained-release of all or only some of the active ingredients does not affect the new animal drug status of such articles. A new animal drug application or index listing is required in any such case.
</P>
<P>(d) New animal drug applications for timed-release dosage form animal drugs must contain, among other things, data to demonstrate safety and effectiveness by establishing that the article is manufactured using procedures and controls to ensure release of the total dosage at a safe and effective rate. Data submitted in the new animal drug application must demonstrate that the formulation of the drug and the procedures used in its manufacture will ensure release of the active ingredient(s) of the drug at a safe and effective rate and that these release characteristics will be maintained until the expiration date of the drug. When the drug is intended for use in food-producing animals, data submitted must also demonstrate that, with respect to possible residues of the drug, food derived from treated animals is safe for consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 8635, Feb. 11, 1977, as amended at 60 FR 38480, July 27, 1995; 72 FR 69120, Dec. 6, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.27" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.27   Methylene blue-containing drugs for use in animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) New information requires a re- evaluation of the status of drugs containing methylene blue (tetramethylthionine chloride) for oral use in cats or dogs.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) It has been demonstrated that two orally administered urinary antiseptic-antispasmodic preparations that contained methylene blue cause Heinz body hemolytic anemia in cats when used according to label directions. The specific cause of the reaction was determined to be the methylene blue contained in the preparations. The reaction can be severe enough to cause death of treated animals.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Heinz body hemolytic anemia reaction to methylene blue has also been demonstrated in dogs under laboratory conditions. The precise mechanism by which methylene blue produces the characteristic erythrocytic inclusion bodies (Heinz bodies) and associated hemolytic anemia is unclear.
</P>
<P>(2) The effectiveness of orally administered methylene blue as a urinary antiseptic is open to question. It appears that following oral administration, methylene blue is poorly and erratically absorbed and also slowly and erratically excreted in the urine. Studies in the dog indicate it is excreted in the urine essentially as leukomethylene blue stabilized in some manner. Methylene blue itself is stepwise demethylated in alkaline solutions (alkaline urine being a frequent consequence of urinary infection) to Azure B, Azure A, and Azure C. The antiseptic efficacy of all of these excretion products is unsubstantiated.
</P>
<P>(3) In view of the foregoing, the Commissioner has concluded that animal drugs containing methylene blue for oral use in cats or dogs are neither safe nor generally recognized as effective within the meaning of section 201(v) of the act and are therefore considered new animal drugs. Accordingly, all prior formal and informal opinions expressed by the Food and Drug Administration that such drugs are “not new drugs” or “no longer new drugs” are hereby revoked.
</P>
<P>(b) Animal drugs that contain methylene blue for oral use in cats or dogs and not the subject of an approved new animal drug application (NADA) are deemed to be adulterated under the provisions of section 501(a) (5) and/or (6) and/or misbranded under section 502(a) of the act and subject to regulatory action as of April 10, 1978.
</P>
<P>(c) Sponsors of animal drugs that contain methylene blue for oral use in cats or dogs and not the subject of an approved new animal drug application (NADA) may submit an application in conformity with § 514.1 of this chapter. Such applications will be processed in accordance with section 512 of the act. Submission of an NADA will not constitute grounds for continued marketing of this drug substance until such application is approved.
</P>
<P>(d) New animal drug applications required by this regulation pursuant to section 512 of the act shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration. Center for Veterinary Medicine, Office of New Animal Drug Evaluation (HFV-100), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 9803, Mar. 10, 1978; 43 FR 12310, Mar. 24, 1978, as amended at 54 FR 18279, Apr. 28, 1989; 57 FR 6475, Feb. 25, 1992; 60 FR 38480, July 27, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.29" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.29   Gentian violet for use in animal feed.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration has determined that gentian violet is not generally recognized as safe for use in animal feed and is a food additive subject to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), unless it is intended for use as a new animal drug, in which case it is subject to section 512 of the act. The Food and Drug Administration has determined that gentian violet is not prior sanctioned for any use in animal feed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40506, Aug. 15, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.30" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.30   Gentian violet for animal drug use.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has determined that gentian violet is not generally recognized as safe and effective for any veterinary drug use in food animals and is a new animal drug subject to section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. FDA has determined that gentian violet is not exempted from new animal drug status under the “grandfather” provisions of the Drug Amendments of 1962 (21 U.S.C. 342).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40507, Aug. 15, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.45" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.45   Use of polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) in the production, handling, and storage of animal feed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) represent a class of toxic industrial chemicals manufactured and sold under a variety of trade names, including: Aroclor (United States); Phenoclor (France); Colphen (Germany); and Kanaclor (Japan). PCB's are highly stable, heat resistant, and nonflammable chemicals. Industrial uses of PCB's include, or did include in the past, their use as electrical transformer and capacitor fluids, heat transfer fluids, hydraulic fluids, plasticizers, and in formulations of lubricants, coatings, and inks. Their unique physical and chemical properties and widespread, uncontrolled industrial applications have caused PCB's to be a persistent and ubiquitous contaminant in the environment, causing the contamination of certain foods. In addition, incidents have occurred in which PCB's have directly contaminated animal feeds as a result of industrial accidents (leakage or spillage of PCB fluids from plant equipment). These accidents in turn cause the contamination of food intended for human consumption (meat, milk, and eggs). Investigations by the Food and Drug Administration have revealed that heat exchange fluids for certain pasteurization equipment used in processing animal feed contain PCB's. Although heat exchange fluids in such equipment are considered to be in <I>closed systems,</I> leakage has occurred that resulted in direct contamination of animal feed with PCB's and subsequently resulted in the transfer of PCB's to human food produced by animals consuming the contaminated feed. The use of PCB-containing coatings on the inner walls of silos has resulted in the contamination of silage which has in turn caused PCB residues in the milk of dairy cows consuming the contaminated silage. Since PCB's are toxic chemicals, the PCB contamination of food as a result of these and other incidents represent a hazard to public health. It is therefore necessary to place certain restrictions on the industrial uses of PCB's in the production, handling, and storage of animal feed. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following special provisions are necessary to preclude accidental PCB contamination of animal feed: 
</P>
<P>(1) Coatings or paints for use on the contact surfaces of feed storage areas may not contain PCB's or any other harmful or deleterious substances likely to contaminate feed. 
</P>
<P>(2) New equipment or machinery for handling or processing feed in or around an establishment producing animal feed shall not contain PCB's. 
</P>
<P>(3) On or before Sept. 4, 1973, the management of establishments producing animal feed shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Have the heat exchange fluid used in existing equipment or machinery for handling and processing feed sampled and tested to determine whether it contains PCB's, or verify the absence of PCB's in such formulations by other appropriate means. On or before Sept. 4, 1973, any such fluid formulated with PCB's must to the fullest extent possible commensurate with current good manufacturing practices, be replaced with a heat exchange fluid that does not contain PCB's. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Eliminate to the fullest extent possible commensurate with current good manufacturing practices from the animal feed producing establishment any PCB-containing lubricants for equipment or machinery used for handling or processing animal feed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Eliminate to the fullest extent possible commensurate with current good manufacturing practices from the animal feed producing establishment any other PCB-containing materials, whenever there is a reasonable expectation that such materials could cause animal feed to become contaminated with PCB's either as a result of normal use or as a result of accident, breakage, or other mishap. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The toxicity and other characteristics of fluids selected as PCB replacements must be adequately determined so that the least potentially hazardous replacement should be used. In making this determination with respect to a given fluid, consideration should be given to (<I>a</I>) its toxicity; (<I>b</I>) the maximum quantity that could be spilled onto a given quantity of food before it would be noticed, taking into account its color and odor; (<I>c</I>) possible signaling devices in the equipment to indicate a loss of fluid, etc.; (<I>d</I>) and its environmental stability and tendency to survive and be concentrated through the food chain. The judgment as to whether a replacement fluid is sufficiently non-hazardous is to be made on an individual installation and operation basis. 
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of this section, the provisions do not apply to electrical transformers and condensers containing PCB's in sealed containers. 
</P>
<P>(d) For the purpose of this section, the term <I>animal feed</I> includes all articles used for food or drink for animals other than man. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.46" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.46   Hexachlorophene in animal drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs has determined that there are no adequate data to establish that animal drugs containing hexachlorophene are safe and effective for any animal use other than in topical products for use on non-food-producing animals as part of a product preservative system at a level not to exceed 0.1 percent; that there is no information on the potential risk to humans from exposure to hexachlorophene by persons who apply animal products containing the drug at levels higher than 0.1 percent; and that there is likewise no information on human exposure to animals on which these animal drugs have been used and no information on possible residues of hexachlorophene in edible products of food-producing animals treated with new animal drugs that contain any quantity of hexachlorophene.
</P>
<P>(b) Animal drugs containing hexachlorophene for other than preservative use on non-food-producing animals at levels not exceeding 0.1 percent are considered new animal drugs and shall be the subject of new animal drug applications (NADA's).
</P>
<P>(c) Any person currently marketing animal drugs that contain hexachlorophene other than as part of a product preservative system for products used on non-food-producing animals at a level not exceeding 0.1 percent shall submit a new animal drug application, supplement an existing application, or reformulate the product by September 29, 1977. Each application or supplemental application shall include adequate data to establish that the animal drug is safe and effective. If the animal drug is currently subject to an approved new animal drug application, each reformulation shall require an approved supplemental application. The interim marketing of these animal drugs may continue until the application has been approved, until it has been determined that the application is not approvable under the provisions of § 514.111 of this chapter, or until an existing approved application has been withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(d) After September 29, 1977, animal drugs that contain hexachlorophene other than for preservative use on non-food-producing animals at a level not exceeding 0.1 percent that are introduced into interstate commerce shall be deemed to be adulterated within the meaning of section 501(a)(5) of the act (21 U.S.C. 351(a)(5)) unless such animal drug is the subject of a new animal drug application submitted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. Action to withdraw approval of new animal drug applications will be initiated if supplemental new animal drug applications have not been submitted in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(e) New animal drug applications submitted for animal drugs containing hexachlorophene for use in or on food-producing animals shall include adequate data to assure that edible products from treated animals are safe for human consumption under the labeled conditions of use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 33725, July 1, 1977; 42 FR 37975, July 26, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.50" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.50   Propylene glycol in or on cat food.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration has determined that propylene glycol in or on cat food is not generally recognized as safe and is a food additive subject to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act). The Food and Drug Administration also has determined that this use of propylene glycol is not prior sanctioned.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19544, May 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Animal Drug Labeling Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.51" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.51   Labeling of animal drugs; misbranding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Among the representations on the label or labeling of an animal drug which will render the drug misbranded are any broad statements suggesting or implying that the drug is not safe and effective for use when used in accordance with labeling direction, or suggesting or implying that the labeling does not contain adequate warnings or adequate directions for use. Such statements include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any statement that disclaims liability when the drug is used in accordance with directions for use contained on the label or labeling. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any statement that disclaims liability when the drug is used under “abnormal” or “unforeseeable” conditions. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any statement limiting the warranty for the products to a warranty that the drug in the package contains the ingredients listed on the label. 
</P>
<P>(b) This regulation is not intended to prohibit any liability disclaimer that purports to limit the amount of damages or that sets forth the legal theory under which damages are to be recovered. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person wishing to obtain an evaluation of an animal drug liability disclaimer under this regulation may submit it to Division of Compliance, (HFV-230), Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855. A supplemental NADA providing appropriately revised labeling shall be submitted for any approved new animal drug the labeling of which is not in compliance with this regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 8473, Feb. 27, 1976, as amended at 54 FR 18279, Apr. 28, 1989; 57 FR 6475, Feb. 25, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.52" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.52   Use of terms such as “tonic”, “tone”, “toner”, or “conditioner” in the labeling of preparations intended for use in or on animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The use of terms such as <I>tonic, tone, toner,</I> and similar terms in the labeling of a product intended for use in or on animals implies that such product is capable of a therapeutic effect(s) and causes such a product to be a drug within the meaning of section 201(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The unqualified use of such terms in a product's labeling fails to provide adequate directions and indications for use of such product and causes it to be misbranded within the meaning of section 502(a) and (f)(1) of the act. The terms <I>tonic, tone, toner,</I> and similar terms may be used in labeling only when appropriately qualified so as to fully inform the user regarding the intended use(s) of the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) The unqualified use of the term <I>conditioner</I> and similar terms in the labeling of a product intended for use in or on animals implies that such product is capable of a therapeutic effect(s) and causes such a product to be a drug within the meaning of section 201(g) of the act. The unqualified use of such terms in a product's labeling fails to provide adequate directions and indications for use of such product and causes it to be misbranded within the meaning of section 502(a) and (f)(1) of the act. The term <I>conditioner</I> and similar terms may be used in labeling only when appropriately qualified so as to fully inform the user regarding the intended use(s) of the product. A product labeled as a “conditioner” or with a similar term can be either a food or drug depending upon the manner in which the term is qualified in the labeling to reflect the product's intended use. 
</P>
<P>(c) An article so qualified as to be represented as a drug must be the subject of an approved new animal drug application unless the use of the article under the conditions set forth in its labeling is generally recognized as safe and effective among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of animal drugs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.55" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.55   Exemption from certain drug-labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 201.105(c) of this chapter provides that in the case of certain drugs for which directions, hazards, warnings, and use information are commonly known to practitioners licensed by law, such information may be omitted from the dispensing package. Under this proviso, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs will offer an opinion, upon written request, stating reasonable grounds therefore on a proposal to omit such information from the dispensing package. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs has considered submitted material covering a number of drug products and has offered the opinion that the following drugs when intended for those veterinary uses for which they are now generally employed by the veterinary medical profession, should be exempt from the requirements of § 201.105(c) of this chapter, provided that they meet the conditions prescribed in this paragraph. Preparations that are not in dosage unit form (for example, solutions) will be regarded as meeting the conditions with respect to the maximum quantity of drug per dosage unit if they are prepared in a manner that enables accurate and ready administration of a quantity of drug not in excess of the stated maximum per dosage unit:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>Atropine sulfate.</I> As an injectable for cattle, goats, horses, pigs, and sheep, not in excess of 15 milligrams per dosage unit; as an injectable for cats and dogs, not in excess of 0.6 milligram per dosage unit. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Barbital sodium.</I> For oral use in cats and dogs, not in excess of 300 milligrams per dosage unit. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Epinephrine injection. 1:1,000.</I> For cats, dogs, cattle, goats, horses, pigs, and sheep (except as provided in § 500.65). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Morphine sulfate.</I> As an injectable for dogs, not in excess of 15 milligrams per dosage unit. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Pentobarbital sodium.</I> For oral use in cats and dogs, not in excess of 100 milligrams per dosage unit. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phenobarbital sodium.</I> For oral use in cats and dogs, not in excess of 100 milligrams per dosage unit. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Procaine hydrochloride injection.</I> Containing not in excess of 2 percent procaine hydrochloride, with or without epinephrine up to a concentration of 1:50,000. For use in cats, dogs, cattle, goats, horses, pigs, and sheep. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Thyroid.</I> For oral use in dogs, not in excess of 60 milligrams per dosage unit.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Requirements for Specific Animal Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.65" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.65   Epinephrine injection 1:1,000 in 10-milliliter containers for emergency treatment of anaphylactoid shock in cattle, horses, sheep, and swine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Anaphylactoid reactions in cattle, horses, sheep, and swine occur occasionally from the injection of antibiotics, bacterins, and vaccines. Adequate directions for use of these antibiotics, bacterins, and vaccines can generally be written for use by the laity and thus are available to livestock producers. Epinephrine injection is effective for the treatment of anaphylactoid reactions in animals and would be of value in saving lives of animals if it were readily available at the time of administration of the causative agents. In connection with this problem the Food and Drug Administration has obtained the views of the Advisory Committee on Veterinary Medicine, and other experts, and has concluded that adequate directions for over-the-counter sale of epinephrine injection 1:1,000 can be prepared. 
</P>
<P>(b) In view of the above, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs has concluded that it is in the public interest to make epinephrine injection 1:1,000 available for sale without a prescription provided that it is packaged in vials not exceeding 10 milliliters and its label bears, in addition to other required information, the following statements in a prominent and conspicuous manner: “For emergency use only in treating anaphylactoid shock. Usual Dosage: Cattle, horses, sheep, and swine—1 cubic centimeter per 100 pounds of body weight. Inject subcutaneously”. 
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling must also bear a description of the symptoms of anaphylactoid shock including glassy eyes, increased salivation, grinding of the teeth, rapid breathing, muscular tremors, staggering gait, and collapse with death following. These symptoms may appear shortly after injection of a bacterin, vaccine, or antibiotic. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Regulation of Carcinogenic Compounds Used in Food-Producing Animals</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 49586, Dec. 31, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 500.80" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.80   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act requires that sponsored compounds intended for use in food-producing animals be shown to be safe and that food produced from animals exposed to these compounds be shown to be safe for consumption by people. The statute prohibits the use in food-producing animals of any compound found to induce cancer when ingested by people or animals unless it can be determined by methods of examination prescribed or approved by the Secretary (a function delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs) that no residue of that compound will be found in the food produced from those animals under conditions of use reasonably certain to be followed in practice. This subpart identifies the steps a sponsor of a compound shall follow to secure the approval of the compound. The requirements of this subpart shall also apply to a request for an import tolerance under § 510.205 of this chapter. FDA guidance documents contain the procedures and protocols FDA recommends for the implementation of this subpart. These guidance documents are available from the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. Requests for these guidance documents should be identified with Docket No. 1983D-0288.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA concludes on the basis of the threshold assessment that a sponsor shall conduct carcinogenicity testing on the sponsored compound, FDA will also determine whether and to what extent the sponsor shall conduct carcinogenicity testing on metabolites of the sponsored compound. The bioassays that a sponsor conducts must be designed to assess carcinogenicity and to determine the quantitative aspects of any carcinogenic response. 
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA concludes on the basis of the threshold assessment or at a later time during the approval process or during the review of a request for an import tolerance that the data show that the sponsored compound and its metabolites should not be subject to this subpart, FDA will continue to consider the compound for approval under the general safety provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for risks other than cancer or continue its review of the import tolerance request under the provisions of §§ 510.201 through 510.213 of this chapter (Subpart C—Import Tolerances for Residues of Unapproved New Animal Drugs in Food).
</P>
<P>(d) This subpart does not apply to essential nutrients.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49586, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 62 FR 66983, Dec. 23, 1997; 65 FR 56480, Sept. 19, 2000; 67 FR 78174, Dec. 23, 2002; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 69 FR 17292, Apr. 2, 2004; 86 FR 52410, Sept. 21, 2021; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.82" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.82   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the act apply to those terms when used in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions apply to this subpart: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (sections 201-901, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 301-392)). 
</P>
<P><I>Essential nutrients</I> means compounds that are found in the tissues of untreated, healthy target animals and not produced in sufficient quantity to support the animal's growth, development, function, or reproduction, e.g., vitamins, <I>essential</I> minerals, <I>essential</I> amino acids, and <I>essential</I> fatty acids. These compounds must be supplied from external sources. 
</P>
<P><I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P><I>Limit of detection (LOD)</I> means the lowest concentration of analyte that can be confirmed by the approved regulatory method.
</P>
<P><I>Marker residue</I> means the residue selected for assay whose concentration is in a known relationship to the concentration of the residue of carcinogenic concern in the last tissue to deplete to its S<E T="52">m</E>. 
</P>
<P><I>No residue</I> means the marker residue is below the limit of detection using the approved regulatory method. The “no residue” designation applies only to compounds of carcinogenic concern.
</P>
<P><I>Preslaughter withdrawal period</I> or <I>milk discard time</I> means the time after cessation of administration of the sponsored compound at which no residue is detectable in the edible product using the approved regulatory method (i.e., the marker residue is below the LOD). 
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory method</I> means the aggregate of all experimental procedures for measuring and confirming the presence of the marker residue of the sponsored compound in the target tissue of the target animal. 
</P>
<P><I>R</I><E T="52">m</E> means the concentration of the marker residue in the target tissue when the residue of carcinogenic concern is equal to S<E T="52">m</E>.
</P>
<P><I>Residue</I> means any compound present in edible tissues of the target animal which results from the use of the sponsored compound, including the sponsored compound, its metabolites, and any other substances formed in or on food because of the sponsored compound's use. 
</P>
<P><I>Residue of carcinogenic concern</I> means all compounds in the total residue of a demonstrated carcinogen excluding any compounds judged by FDA not to present a carcinogenic risk.
</P>
<P><I>S</I><E T="54">m</E> means the concentration of a residue of carcinogenic concern in a specific edible tissue corresponding to no significant increase in the risk of cancer to the human consumer. For the purpose of § 500.84(c)(1), FDA will assume that this S<E T="52">m</E> will correspond to the concentration of residue in a specific edible tissue that corresponds to a maximum lifetime risk of cancer in the test animals of 1 in 1 million.
</P>
<P><I>S</I><E T="54">o</E> means the concentration of a residue of carcinogenic concern in the total human diet that represents no significant increase in the risk of cancer to the human consumer. For the purpose of § 500.84(c)(1), FDA will assume that this S<E T="52">o</E> will correspond to the concentration of test compound in the total diet of test animals that corresponds to a maximum lifetime risk of cancer in the test animals of 1 in 1 million.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means the person or organization proposing or holding an approval by FDA for the use of a sponsored compound or the person initiating a request for an import tolerance under § 510.205 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsored compound</I> means any drug or food additive or color additive proposed for use, or used, in food-producing animals or in their feed. 
</P>
<P><I>Target animals</I> means the production class of animals in which a sponsored compound is proposed or intended for use. 
</P>
<P><I>Target tissue</I> means the edible tissue selected to monitor for residues in the target animals, including, where appropriate, milk or eggs. 
</P>
<P><I>Test animals</I> means the species selected for use in the toxicity tests. 
</P>
<P><I>Threshold assessment</I> means FDA's review of data and information about a sponsored compound to determine whether chronic bioassays in test animals are necessary to resolve questions concerning the carcinogenicity of the compound. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49586, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 67 FR 78174, Dec. 23, 2002; 77 FR 50593, Aug. 22, 2012; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 86 FR 52410, Sept. 21, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.84" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.84   Conditions for approval of the sponsored compound.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On the basis of the results of the chronic bioassays and other information, FDA will determine whether any of the substances tested are carcinogenic. 
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA concludes that the results of the bioassays do not establish carcinogenicity, then FDA will not subject the sponsored compound to the remainder of the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) For each sponsored compound that FDA decides should be regulated as a carcinogen, FDA will either analyze the data from the bioassays using a statistical extrapolation procedure as outlined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or evaluate an alternate procedure proposed by the sponsor as provided in § 500.90. In either case, paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(1) For each substance tested in separate bioassays, FDA will calculate the concentration of the residue of carcinogenic concern that corresponds to a maximum lifetime risk to the test animal of 1 in 1 million. FDA will designate the lowest value obtained as S<E T="52">o</E>. Because the total diet is not derived from food-producing animals, FDA will make corrections for food intake. FDA will designate as S<E T="52">m</E> the concentration of residue in a specific edible tissue corresponding to a maximum lifetime risk of cancer in test animals of 1 in 1 million. 
</P>
<P>(2) From the appropriate residue chemistry data FDA will calculate the R<E T="52">m</E> as described in § 500.86(c). The sponsor must provide a regulatory method in accordance with § 500.88(b). FDA will calculate the LOD of the method from data submitted by the sponsor under § 500.88. The LOD must be less than or equal to R<E T="52">m</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will conclude that the provisions of this subpart are satisfied when no residue of the compound is detectable (that is, the marker residue is below the LOD) using the approved regulatory method under the conditions of use of the sponsored compound, including any required preslaughter withdrawal period or milk discard time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49586, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 67 FR 78174, Dec. 23, 2002; 77 FR 50593, Aug. 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.86" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.86   Marker residue and target tissue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each edible tissue, the sponsor shall measure the depletion of the residue of carcinogenic concern until its concentration is at or below S<E T="52">m</E>. 
</P>
<P>(b) In one or more edible tissues, the sponsor shall also measure the depletion of one or more potential marker residues until the concentration of the residue of carcinogenic concern is at or below S<E T="52">m</E>. 
</P>
<P>(c) From these data, FDA will select a target tissue and a marker residue and designate the concentration of marker residue (R<E T="52">m</E>) that the regulatory method must be capable of measuring in the target tissue. FDA will select R<E T="52">m</E> such that the absence of the marker residue in the target tissue above R<E T="52">m</E> can be taken as confirmation that the residue of carcinogenic concern does not exceed S<E T="52">m</E> in each of the edible tissues and, therefore, that the residue of carcinogenic concern in the diet of people does not exceed S<E T="52">o</E>. 
</P>
<P>(d) When a compound is to be used in milk- or egg-producing animals, milk or eggs must be the target tissue in addition to the tissue selected to monitor for residues in the edible carcass.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0228)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.88" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.88   Regulatory method.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sponsor shall submit for evaluation and validation a regulatory method developed to monitor compliance with FDA's operational definition of no residue. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulatory method must be able to confirm the identity of the marker residue in the target tissue at a minimum concentration corresponding to the R<E T="52">m</E>. FDA will determine the LOD from the submitted analytical method validation data.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the complete regulatory method for ascertaining the marker residue in the target tissue in accordance with the provisions of sections 409(c)(3)(A), 512(d)(1)(I), and 721(b)(5)(B) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) If the sponsor initially submitted a request for an import tolerance under § 510.205 of this chapter, FDA will make the complete regulatory method for ascertaining the marker residue in the target tissue publicly available pursuant to § 510.207(b) of this chapter.


</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0228)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49586, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 67 FR 78174, Dec. 23, 2002; 86 FR 52410, Sept. 21, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.90" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.90   Waiver of requirements.</HEAD>
<P>In response to a petition or on the Commissioner's own initiative, the Commissioner may waive, in whole or in part, the requirements of this subpart except those provided under § 500.88. A petition for this waiver may be filed by any person who would be adversely affected by the application of the requirements to a particular compound. The petition shall explain and document why the requirements from which a waiver is requested are not reasonably applicable to the compound, and set forth clearly the reasons why the alternative procedures will provide the basis for concluding that approval of the compound satisfies the requirements of the anticancer provisions of the act. If the Commissioner determines that waiver of any of the requirements of this subpart is appropriate, the Commissioner will state the basis for that determination in the regulation approving marketing of the sponsored compound.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0228)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.92" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.92   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart E applies to all new animal drug applications, food additive petitions, color additive petitions, and requests for import tolerances concerning any compound intended for use in food-producing animals (including supplemental applications and amendments to petitions).
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart E also applies in the following manner to compounds already approved: 
</P>
<P>(1) For those compounds that FDA determines may induce cancer when ingested by man or animals, i.e., suspect carcinogens, §§ 500.80(b), 500.82, and 500.90 apply. 
</P>
<P>(2) For those compounds that FDA determines have been shown to induce cancer when ingested by man or animals, §§ 500.82 through 500.90 apply. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49586, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 52410, Sept. 21, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Methods for Detection of Residues of Carcinogenic Compounds Used in Food-Producing Animals</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 72618, Nov. 25, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 500.1410" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.1.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.1410   N-methyl-2-pyrrolidone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard for residues.</I> No residues of <I>n</I>-methyl-2-pyrrolidone may be found in the uncooked edible tissues of cattle and swine as determined by methods in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration's Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. It may be obtained from the sources indicated elsewhere in paragraph (b) of this section and at: <I>https://www.fda.gov/about-fda/center-veterinary-medicine/cvm-foia-electronic-reading-room.</I> It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-7002.
</P>
<P>(i) “Method of Analysis: <I>N</I>-methyl-2-pyrrolidone,” September 26, 2011; the method of analysis for uncooked edible tissues of cattle.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Merck Animal Health, 29160 Intervet Lane, Millsboro, DE 19966, 1-800-211-3573.
</P>
<P>(i) “Determinative and Confirmatory Procedures for the Analysis of N-Methyl-2-pyrrolidone (NMP) in Swine Liver Tissue using LC-MS/MS,” July 20, 2017; the method of analysis for uncooked edible tissues of swine.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.814, 522.955, and 522.1660a of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 10966, Feb. 28, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 55562, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="501" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 501—ANIMAL FOOD LABELING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1453, 1454, 1455; 21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 342, 343, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.1   Principal display panel of package form animal food.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>principal display panel</I> as it applies to food in package form and as used in this part, means the part of a label that is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. The principal display panel shall be large enough to accommodate all the mandatory label information required to be placed thereon by this part with clarity and conspicuousness and without obscuring design, vignettes, or crowding. Where packages bear alternate principal display panels, information required to be placed on the principal display panel shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. For the purpose of obtaining uniform type size in declaring the quantity of contents for all packages of substantially the same size, the term <I>area of the principal display panel</I> means the area of the side or surface that bears the principal display panel, which area shall be: 
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a rectangular package where one entire side properly can be considered to be the principal display panel side, the product of the height times the width of that side; 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a cylindrical or nearly cylindrical container, 40 percent of the product of the height of the container times the circumference; 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of any otherwise shaped container, 40 percent of the total surface of the container: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where such container presents an obvious <I>principal display panel</I> such as the top of a triangular or circular package, the area shall consist of the entire top surface. In determining the area of the principal display panel, exclude tops, bottoms, flanges at tops and bottoms of cans, and shoulders and necks of bottles or jars. In the case of cylindrical or nearly cylindrical containers, information required by this part to appear on the principal display panel shall appear within that 40 percent of the circumference which is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.2" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.2   Information panel of package for animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>information panel</I> as it applies to packaged food means that part of the label immediately contiguous and to the right of the principal display panel as observed by an individual facing the principal display panel with the following exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the part of the label immediately contiguous and to the right of the principal display panel is too small to accommodate the necessary information or is otherwise unusable label space, e.g., folded flaps or can ends, the panel immediately contiguous and to the right of this part of the label may be used. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the package has one or more alternate principal display panels, the information panel is immediately contiguous and to the right of any principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the top of the container is the principal display panel and the package has no alternate principal display panel, the information panel is any panel adjacent to the principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(b) All information required to appear on the label of any package of food pursuant to §§ 501.4, 501.5, 501.8 and 501.17 shall appear either on the principal display panel or on the information panel, unless otherwise specified by regulations in this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) All information appearing on the principal display panel or the information panel pursuant to this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously, but in no case may the letters and/or numbers be less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in height unless an exemption pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section is established. The requirements for conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications of §§ 501.15 and 501.105(h) (1) and (2). 
</P>
<P>(1) Packaged foods are exempt from the type size requirements of this paragraph: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(i) The package is designed such that it has a surface area that can bear an information panel and/or an alternate principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The area of surface available for labeling on the principal display panel of the package as this term is defined in § 501.1 is less than 10 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The label information includes a full list of ingredients in accordance with regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The information required by paragraph (b) of this section appears on the principal display panel or information panel label in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph (c) except that the type size is not less than 
<FR>3/64</FR> inch in height. 
</P>
<P>(2) Packaged foods are exempt from the type size requirements of this paragraph: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(i) The package is designed such that it has a single <I>obvious principal display panel</I> as this term is defined in § 501.1 and has no other available surface area for an information panel or alternate principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The area of surface available for labeling on the principal display panel of the package as this term is defined in § 501.1 is less than 12 square inches and bears all labeling appearing on the package. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The label information includes a full list of ingredients in accordance with regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The information required by paragraph (b) of this section appears on the single, obvious principal display panel in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph (c) except that the type size is not less than 
<FR>1/32</FR> inch in height. 
</P>
<P>(3) Packaged foods are exempt from the type size requirements of this paragraph: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(i) The package is designed such that it has a total surface area available to bear labeling of less than 12 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The label information includes a full list of ingredients in accordance with regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The information required by paragraph (b) of this section appears on the principal display panel or information panel label in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph (c) except that the type size is not less than 
<FR>1/32</FR> inch in height. 
</P>
<P>(d) All information required to appear on the principal display panel or on the information panel pursuant to this section shall appear on the same panel unless there is insufficient space. In determining the sufficiency of the available space, any vignettes, design, and other nonmandatory label information shall not be considered. If there is insufficient space for all of this information to appear on a single panel, it may be divided between these two panels except that the information required pursuant to any given section or part shall all appear on the same panel. A food whose label is required to bear the ingredient statement on the principal display panel may bear all other information specified in paragraph (b) of this section on the information panel. 
</P>
<P>(e) All information appearing on the information panel pursuant to this section shall appear in one place without other intervening material. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the label of any package of food is too small to accommodate all of the information required by §§ 501.4, 501.5, 501.8, and 501.17, the Commissioner may establish by regulation an acceptable alternative method of disseminating such information to the public, e.g., a type size smaller than one-sixteenth inch in height, or labeling attached to or inserted in the package or available at the point of purchase. A petition requesting such a regulation, as an amendment to this paragraph shall be submitted pursuant to part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 4716, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.3   Identity labeling of animal food in package form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of a food in package form shall bear as one of its principal features a statement of the identity of the commodity. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such statement of identity shall be in terms of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name now or hereafter specified in or required by any applicable Federal law or regulation; or, in the absence thereof, 
</P>
<P>(2) The common or usual name of the food; or, in the absence thereof, 
</P>
<P>(3) An appropriately descriptive term, or when the nature of the food is obvious, a fanciful name commonly used by the public for such food. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where a food is marketed in various optional forms (whole, slices, diced, etc.), the particular form shall be considered to be a necessary part of the statement of identity and shall be declared in letters of a type size bearing a reasonable relation to the size of the letters forming the other components of the statement of identity; except that if the optional form is visible through the container or is depicted by an appropriate vignette, the particular form need not be included in the statement. This specification does not affect the required declarations of identity under definitions and standards for foods promulgated pursuant to section 401 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(d) This statement of identity shall be presented in bold type on the principal display panel, shall be in a size reasonably related to the most prominent printed matter on such panel, and shall be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed. 
</P>
<P>(e) Under the provisions of section 403(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a food shall be deemed to be misbranded if it is an imitation of another food unless its label bears, in type of uniform size and prominence, the word <I>imitation</I> and, immediately thereafter, the name of the food imitated. 
</P>
<P>(1) A food shall be deemed to be an imitation and thus subject to the requirements of section 403(c) of the act if it is a substitute for and resembles another food but is nutritionally inferior to that food. 
</P>
<P>(2) A food that is a substitute for and resembles another food shall not be deemed to be an imitation provided it meets each of the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) It is not nutritionally inferior to the food for which it substitutes and which it resembles. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Its label bears a common or usual name that complies with the provisions of § 502.5 of this chapter and that is not false or misleading, or in the absence of an existing common or usual name, an appropriately descriptive term that is not false or misleading. The label may, in addition, bear a fanciful name which is not false or misleading. 
</P>
<P>(3) A food for which a common or usual name is established by regulation (e.g., in a standard of identity pursuant to section 401 of the act, in a common or usual name regulation and may, in addition, bear a fanciful name which is not false or misleading, and established pursuant to part 502 of this chapter), and which complies with all of the applicable requirements of such regulation(s), shall not be deemed to be an imitation.
</P>
<P>(4) Nutritional inferiority includes: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any reduction in the content of an essential nutrient that is present in a measurable amount. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Commissioner concludes that a food is a substitute for and resembles another food but is inferior to the food imitated for reasons other than those set forth in this paragraph, he may propose appropriate revisions to this regulation or he may propose a separate regulation governing the particular food. 
</P>
<P>(f) A label may be required to bear the percentage(s) of a characterizing ingredient(s) or information concerning the presence or absence of an ingredient(s) or the need to add an ingredient(s) as part of the common or usual name of the food pursuant to part 502 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977; 54 FR 18279, Apr. 28, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.4" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.4   Animal food; designation of ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ingredients required to be declared on the label of a food, including foods that comply with standards of identity that require labeling in compliance with this part 501, except those exempted by § 501.100, shall be listed by common or usual name in descending order of predominance by weight on either the principal display panel or the information panel in accordance with the provisions of § 501.2. 
</P>
<P>(b) The name of an ingredient shall be a specific name and not a collective (generic) name, except that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Spices, flavorings, colorings and chemical preservatives shall be declared according to the provisions of § 501.22. 
</P>
<P>(2) An ingredient which itself contains two or more ingredients and which has an established common or usual name, conforms to a standard established pursuant to the Meat Inspection or Poultry Products Inspection Acts by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, or conforms to a definition and standard of identity established pursuant to section 401 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, shall be designated in the statement of ingredients on the label of such food by either of the following alternatives: 
</P>
<P>(i) By declaring the established common or usual name of the ingredient followed by a parenthetical listing of all ingredients contained therein in descending order of predominance except that, if the ingredient is a food subject to a definition and standard of identity established in this subchapter E, only the ingredients required to be declared by the definition and standard of identity need be listed; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) By incorporating into the statement of ingredients in descending order of predominance in the finished food, the common or usual name of every component of the ingredient without listing the ingredient itself. 
</P>
<P>(3) Skim milk, concentrated skim milk, reconstituted skim milk, and nonfat dry milk may be declared as <I>skim milk</I> or <I>nonfat milk.</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) Milk, concentrated milk, reconstituted milk, and dry whole milk may be declared as <I>milk.</I> 
</P>
<P>(5) Bacterial cultures may be declared by the word <I>cultured</I> followed by the name of the substrate, e.g., <I>made from cultured skim milk or cultured buttermilk.</I> 
</P>
<P>(6) Sweetcream buttermilk, concentrated sweetcream buttermilk, reconstituted sweetcream buttermilk, and dried sweetcream buttermilk may be declared as <I>buttermilk.</I> 
</P>
<P>(7) Whey, concentrated whey, reconstituted whey, and dried whey may be declared as <I>whey.</I> 
</P>
<P>(8) Cream, reconstituted cream, dried cream, and plastic cream (sometimes known as concentrated milkfat) may be declared as <I>cream.</I> 
</P>
<P>(9) Butteroil and anhydrous butterfat may be declared as <I>butterfat.</I> 
</P>
<P>(10) Dried whole eggs, frozen whole eggs, and liquid whole eggs may be declared as <I>eggs.</I> 
</P>
<P>(11) Dried egg whites, frozen egg whites, and liquid egg whites may be declared as <I>egg whites.</I> 
</P>
<P>(12) Dried egg yolks, frozen egg yolks, and liquid egg yolks may be declared as <I>egg yolks.</I> 
</P>
<P>(13) A livestock or poultry feed may be declared by a collective name listed in § 501.110 if it is an animal feed within the meaning of section 201(w) of the act and meets the requirements for the use of a collective name as prescribed in § 501.110 for certain feed ingredients. 
</P>
<P>(14) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(15) When all the ingredients of a wheat flour are declared in an ingredient statement, the principal ingredient of the flour shall be declared by the name(s) specified in §§ 137.105, 137.200, 137.220, 137.225 of this chapter, i.e., the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of flour, or bromated flour, or enriched flour, or self-rising flour is <I>flour, white flour, wheat flour,</I> or <I>plain flour</I>; the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of durum flour is <I>durum flour</I>; the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of whole wheat flour, or bromated whole wheat flour is <I>whole wheat flour, graham flour,</I> or <I>entire wheat flour</I>; and the first ingredient designated in the ingredient list of whole durum wheat flour is <I>whole durum wheat flour.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) When water is added to reconstitute, completely or partially, an ingredient permitted by paragraph (b) of this section to be declared by a class name, the position of the ingredient class name in the ingredient statement shall be determined by the weight of the unreconstituted ingredient plus the weight of the quantity of water added to reconstitute that ingredient, up to the amount of water needed to reconstitute the ingredient to single strength. Any water added in excess of the amount of water needed to reconstitute the ingredient to single strength shall be declared as <I>water</I> in the ingredient statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977; 60 FR 38480, July 27, 1995] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.5   Animal food; name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a food in packaged form shall specify conspicuously the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for declaration of the name of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor shall be deemed to be satisfied, in the case of a corporation, only by the actual corporate name, which may be preceded or followed by the name of the particular division of the corporation. In the case of an individual, partnership, or association, the name under which the business is conducted shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where the food is not manufactured by the person whose name appears on the label, the name shall be qualified by a phrase that reveals the connection such person has with such food; such as “Manufactured for ______,” “Distributed by ______,” or any other wording that expresses the facts. 
</P>
<P>(d) The statement of the place of business shall include the street address, city, state, and ZIP Code; however, the street address may be omitted if it is shown in a current city directory or telephone directory. The requirement for inclusion of the ZIP Code shall apply only to consumer commodity labels developed or revised after the effective date of this section. In the case of nonconsumer packages, the ZIP Code shall appear either on the label or the labeling (including invoice). 
</P>
<P>(e) If a person manufactures, packs, or distributes a food at a place other than his principal place of business, the label may state the principal place of business in lieu of the actual place where such food was manufactured or packed or is to be distributed, unless such statement would be misleading. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.8" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.8   Labeling of animal food with number of servings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of any package of a food which bears a representation as to the number of servings contained in such package shall bear in immediate conjunction with such statement, and in the same size type as is used for such statement, a statement of the net quantity (in terms of weight, measure, or numerical count) of each such serving; however, such statement may be expressed in terms that differ from the terms used in the required statement of net quantity of contents (for example, cupfuls, tablespoonfuls, etc.) when such differing term is common to cookery and describes a constant quantity. Such statement may not be misleading in any particular. A statement of the number of units in a package is not in itself a statement of the number of servings. 
</P>
<P>(b) If there exists a voluntary product standard promulgated pursuant to the procedures found in 15 CFR part 10 by the Department of Commerce, quantitatively defining the meaning of the term <I>serving</I> with respect to a particular food, then any label representation as to the number of servings in such packaged food shall correspond with such quantitative definition. (Copies of published standards are available upon request from the National Bureau of Standards, Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20234.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.15" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.15   Animal food; prominence of required statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A word, statement, or other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label may lack that prominence and conspicuousness required by section 403(f) of the act by reason (among other reasons) of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on the part or panel of the label which is presented or displayed under customary conditions of purchase; 
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on two or more parts or panels of the label, each of which has sufficient space therefor, and each of which is so designed as to render it likely to be, under customary conditions of purchase, the part or panel displayed; 
</P>
<P>(3) The failure of the label to extend over the area of the container or package available for such extension, so as to provide sufficient label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information; 
</P>
<P>(4) Insufficiency of label space (for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information) resulting from the use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label; 
</P>
<P>(5) Insufficiency of label space (for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information) resulting from the use of label space to give materially greater conspicuousness to any other word, statement, or information, or to any design or device; or 
</P>
<P>(6) Smallness or style of type in which such word, statement, or information appears, insufficient background contrast, obscuring designs or vignettes, or crowding with other written, printed, or graphic matter. 
</P>
<P>(b) No exemption depending on insufficiency of label space, as prescribed in regulations promulgated under section 403(e) or (i) of the act, shall apply if such insufficiency is caused by: 
</P>
<P>(1) The use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label; 
</P>
<P>(2) The use of label space to give greater conspicuousness to any word, statement, or other information that is required by section 403(f) of the act; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The use of label space for any representation in a foreign language. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) All words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear thereon in the English language: <I>Provided, however,</I> That in the case of articles distributed solely in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or in a territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be substituted for English. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the label contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label shall appear thereon in the foreign language. 
</P>
<P>(3) If any article of labeling (other than a label) contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear on such article of labeling. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.17" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.17   Animal food labeling warning statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Self-pressurized containers.</I> (1) The label of a food packaged in a self-pressurized container and intended to be expelled from the package under pressure shall bear the following warning: 
</P>
<P><I>Warning</I> Avoid spraying in eyes. Contents under pressure. Do not puncture or incinerate. Do not store at temperature above 120 °F. Keep out of reach of children. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of products intended for use by children, the phrase “except under adult supervision” may be added at the end of the last sentence in the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of products packaged in glass containers, the word “break” may be substituted for the word “puncture” in the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) The words “Avoid spraying in eyes” may be deleted from the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section in the case of a product not expelled as a spray. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Self-pressurized containers with halocarbon or hydrocarbon propellants.</I> (1) In addition to the warning required by paragraph (a) of this section, the label of a food packaged in a self-pressurized container in which the propellant consists in whole or in part of a halocarbon or a hydrocarbon shall bear the following warning: 
</P>
<P><I>Warning</I> Use only as directed. Intentional misuse by deliberately concentrating and inhaling the contents can be harmful or fatal. 
</P>
<P>(2) The warning required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not required for the following products: 
</P>
<P>(i) Products expelled in the form of a foam or cream, which contain less than 10 percent propellant in the container. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Products in a container with a physical barrier that prevents escape of the propellant at the time of use. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than 2 ozs that are designed to release a measured amount of product with each valve actuation. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> oz. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Animal food containing or manufactured with a chlorofluorocarbon or other ozone-depleting substance.</I> Labeling requirements for animal foods that contain or are manufactured with a chlorofluorocarbon or other ozone-depleting substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are set forth in 40 CFR part 82. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 22033, Apr. 29, 1977; 61 FR 20101, May 3, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.18" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.18   Misbranding of animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Among representations in the labeling of a food which render such food misbranded is a false or misleading representation with respect to another food or a drug, device, or cosmetic. 
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling of a food which contains two or more ingredients may be misleading by reason (among other reasons) of the designation of such food in such labeling by a name which includes or suggests the name of one or more but not all such ingredients, even though the names of all such ingredients are stated elsewhere in the labeling. 
</P>
<P>(c) Among representations in the labeling of a food which render such food misbranded is any representation that expresses or implies a geographical origin of the food or any ingredient of the food except when such representation is either: 
</P>
<P>(1) A truthful representation of geographical origin. 
</P>
<P>(2) A trademark or trade name provided that as applied to the article in question its use is not deceptively misdescriptive. A trademark or trade name comprised in whole or in part of geographical words shall not be considered deceptively misdescriptive if it: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has been so long and exclusively used by a manufacturer or distributor that it is generally understood by the consumer to mean the product of a particular manufacturer or distributor; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is so arbitrary or fanciful that it is not generally understood by the consumer to suggest geographic origin. 
</P>
<P>(3) A part of the name required by applicable Federal law or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(4) A name whose market significance is generally understood by the consumer to connote a particular class, kind, type, or style of food rather than to indicate geographical origin. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Animal Food Labeling Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.22" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.22   Animal foods; labeling of spices, flavorings, colorings, and chemical preservatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The term <I>artificial flavor</I> or <I>artificial flavoring</I> means any substance, the function of which is to impart flavor, which is not derived from a spice, fruit or fruit juice, vegetable or vegetable juice, edible yeast, herb, bark, bud, root, leaf or similar plant material, meat, fish, poultry, eggs, dairy products, or fermentation products thereof. Artificial flavor includes the substances listed in §§ 172.515(b) and 582.60 of this chapter except where these are derived from natural sources. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>spice</I> means any aromatic vegetable substance in the whole, broken, or ground form, except for those substances which have been traditionally regarded as foods, such as onions, garlic and celery; whose significant function in food is seasoning rather than nutritional; that is true to name; and from which no portion of any volatile oil or other flavoring principle has been removed. Spices include the spices listed in subpart A of part 582 of this chapter, such as the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Allspice, Anise, Basil, Bay leaves, Caraway seed, Cardamon, Celery seed, Chervil, Cinnamon, Cloves, Coriander, Cumin seed, Dill seed, Fennel seed, Fenugreek, Ginger, Horseradish, Mace, Marjoram, Mustard flour, Nutmeg, Oregano, Paprika, Parsley, Pepper, black; Pepper, white; Pepper, red; Rosemary, Saffron, Sage, Savory, Star aniseed, Tarragon, Thyme, Turmeric.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Paprika, turmeric, and saffron or other spices which are also colors, shall be declared as <I>spice and coloring</I> unless declared by their common or usual name. 
</FP>
<P>(3) The term <I>natural flavor</I> or <I>natural flavoring</I> means the essential oil, oleoresin, essence or extractive, protein hydrolysate, distillate, or any product of roasting, heating or enzymolysis, which contains the flavoring constituents derived from a spice, fruit or fruit juice, vegetable or vegetable juice, edible yeast, herb, bark, bud, root, leaf or similar plant material, meat, seafood, poultry, eggs, dairy products, or fermentation products thereof, whose significant function in food is flavoring rather than nutritional. Natural flavors, include the natural essence or extractives obtained from plants listed in subpart A of part 582 of this chapter, and the substances listed in § 172.510 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>artificial color</I> or <I>artificial coloring</I> means any <I>color additive</I> as defined in § 70.3(f) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>chemical preservative</I> means any chemical that, when added to food, tends to prevent or retard deterioration thereof, but does not include common salt, sugars, vinegars, spices, or oils extracted from spices, substances added to food by direct exposure thereof to wood smoke, or chemicals applied for their insecticidal or herbicidal properties. 
</P>
<P>(b) A food which is subject to the requirements of section 403(k) of the act shall bear labeling, even though such food is not in package form. 
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of artificial flavoring, artificial coloring, or chemical preservative shall be placed on the food, or on its container or wrapper, or on any two or all of these, as may be necessary to render such statement likely to be read by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use of such food. 
</P>
<P>(d) A food shall be exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403(k) of the act if it is not in package form and the units thereof are so small that a statement of artificial flavoring, artificial coloring, or chemical preservative, as the case may be, cannot be placed on such units with such conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use. 
</P>
<P>(e) A food shall be exempt while held for sale from the requirements of section 403(k) of the act (requiring label statement of any artificial flavoring, artificial coloring, or chemical preservatives) if said food, having been received in bulk containers at a retail establishment, is displayed to the purchaser with either (1) the labeling of the bulk container plainly in view or (2) a counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously the information required to be stated on the label pursuant to section 403(k) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(f) A fruit or vegetable shall be exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403(k) of the act with respect to a chemical preservative applied to the fruit or vegetable as a pesticide chemical prior to harvest. 
</P>
<P>(g) A flavor shall be labeled in the following way when shipped to a food manufacturer or processor (but not a consumer) for use in the manufacture of a fabricated food, unless it is a flavor for which a standard of identity has been promulgated, in which case it shall be labeled as provided in the standard: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the flavor consists of one ingredient, it shall be declared by its common or usual name. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the flavor consists of two or more ingredients, the label either may declare each ingredient by its common or usual name or may state “All flavor ingredients contained in this product are approved for use in a regulation of the Food and Drug Administration.” Any flavor ingredient not contained in one of these regulations, and any nonflavor ingredient, shall be separately listed on the label. 
</P>
<P>(3) In cases where the flavor contains a solely natural flavor(s), the flavor shall be so labeled, e.g., <I>strawberry flavor, banana flavor,</I> or <I>natural strawberry flavor.</I> In cases where the flavor contains both a natural flavor and an artificial flavor, the flavor shall be so labeled, e.g., <I>natural and artificial strawberry flavor.</I> In cases where the flavor contains a solely artificial flavor(s), the flavor shall be so labeled, e.g., <I>artificial strawberry flavor.</I> 
</P>
<P>(h) The label of a food to which flavor is added shall declare the flavor in the statement of ingredients in the following way: 
</P>
<P>(1) Spice, natural flavor, and artificial flavor may be declared as <I>spice, natural flavor,</I> or <I>artificial flavor,</I> or any combination thereof, as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(2) An incidental additive in a food, originating in a spice or flavor used in the manufacture of the food, need not be declared in the statement of ingredients if it meets the requirements of § 501.100(a)(3). 
</P>
<P>(3) Substances obtained by cutting, grinding, drying, pulping, or similar processing of tissues derived from fruit, vegetable, meat, fish, or poultry, e.g., powdered or granulated onions, garlic powder, and celery powder, are commonly understood by consumers to be food rather than flavor and shall be declared by their common or usual name. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any salt (sodium chloride) used as an ingredient in food shall be declared by its common or usual name <I>salt.</I> 
</P>
<P>(5) Any monosodium glutamate used as an ingredient in food shall be declared by its common or usual name <I>monosodium glutamate.</I> 
</P>
<P>(6) Any pyroligneous acid or other artificial smoke flavors used as an ingredient in a food may be declared as <I>artificial flavor</I> or <I>artificial smoke flavor.</I> No representation may be made, either directly or implied, that a food flavored with pyroligneous acid or other artificial smoke flavor has been smoked or has a true smoked flavor, or that a seasoning sauce or similar product containing pyroligneous acid or other artificial smoke flavor and used to season or flavor other foods will result in a smoked product or one having a true smoked flavor. 
</P>
<P>(i) If the label, labeling, or advertising of a food makes any direct or indirect representations with respect to the primary recognizable flavor(s), by word, <I>vignette,</I> e.g., depiction of a fruit, or other means, or if for any other reason the manufacturer or distributor of a food wishes to designate the type of flavor in the food other than through the statement of ingredients, such flavor shall be considered the characterizing flavor and shall be declared in the following way: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the food contains no artificial flavor which simulates, resembles or reinforces the characterizing flavor, the name of the food on the principal display panel or panels of the label shall be accompanied by the common or usual name of the characterizing flavor in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the name of the food, except that: 
</P>
<P>(i) If the food is one that is commonly expected to contain a characterizing food ingredient, and the food contains natural flavor derived from such ingredient and an amount of characterizing ingredient insufficient to independently characterize the food, or the food contains no such ingredient, the name of the characterizing flavor may be immediately preceded by the word <I>natural</I> and shall be immediately followed by the word <I>flavored</I> in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the name of the characterizing flavor. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If none of the natural flavor used in the food is derived from the product whose flavor is simulated, the food in which the flavor is used shall be labeled either with the flavor of the product from which the flavor is derived or as <I>artificially flavored.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the food contains both a characterizing flavor from the product whose flavor is simulated and other natural flavor which simulates, resembles or reinforces the characterizing flavor, the food shall be labeled in accordance with the introductory text and paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section and the name of the food shall be immediately followed by the words <I>with other natural flavor</I> in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the name of the characterizing flavor. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the food contains any artificial flavor which simulates, resembles or reinforces the characterizing flavor, the name of the food on the principal display panel or panels of the label shall be accompanied by the common or usual name(s) of the characterizing flavor, in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters used in the name of the food and the name of the characterizing flavor shall be accompanied by the word(s) <I>artificial</I> or <I>artificially flavored,</I> in letters not less than one-half the height of the letters in the name of the characterizing flavor. 
</P>
<P>(3) Wherever the name of the characterizing flavor appears on the label (other than in the statement of ingredients) so conspicuously as to be easily seen under customary conditions of purchase, the words prescribed by this paragraph shall immediately and conspicuously precede or follow such name, without any intervening written, printed, or graphic matter, except: 
</P>
<P>(i) Where the characterizing flavor and a trademark or brand are presented together, other written, printed, or graphic matter that is a part of or is associated with the trademark or brand may intervene if the required words are in such relationship with the trademark or brand as to be clearly related to the characterizing flavor; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the finished product contains more than one flavor subject to the requirements of this paragraph, the statements required by this paragraph need appear only once in each statement of characterizing flavors present in such food. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the finished product contains three or more distinguishable characterizing flavors, or a blend of flavors with no primary recognizable flavor, the flavor may be declared by an appropriately descriptive generic term in lieu of naming each flavor. 
</P>
<P>(4) A flavor supplier shall certify, in writing, that any flavor he supplies which is designated as containing no artificial flavor does not, to the best of his knowledge and belief, contain any artificial flavor, and that he has added no artificial flavor to it. The requirement for such certification may be satisfied by a guarantee under section 303(c)(2) of the act which contains such a specific statement. A flavor used shall be required to make such a written certification only where he adds to or combines another flavor with a flavor which has been certified by a flavor supplier as containing no artificial flavor, but otherwise such user may rely upon the supplier's certification and need make no separate certification. All such certifications shall be retained by the certifying party throughout the period in which the flavor is supplied and for a minimum of 3 years thereafter, and shall be subject to the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The certifying party shall make such certifications available upon request at all reasonable hours to any duly authorized officer, or employee of the Food and Drug Administration or any other employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services. Such certifications are regarded by the Food and Drug Administration as reports to the government and as guarantees or other undertakings within the meaning of section 301(h) of the act and subject the certifying party to the penalties for making any false report to the government under 18 U.S.C. 1001 and any false guarantee or undertaking under section 303(a) of the act. The defenses provided under section 303(c)(2) of the act shall be applicable to the certifications provided for in this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever possible, the Food and Drug Administration shall verify the accuracy of a reasonable number of certifications made pursuant to this section, constituting a representative sample of such certifications, and shall not request all such certifications. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where no person authorized to provide such information is reasonably available at the time of inspection, the certifying party shall arrange to have such person and the relevant materials and records ready for verification as soon as practicable; provided that, whenever the Food and Drug Administration has reason to believe that the supplier or user may utilize this period to alter inventories or records, such additional time shall not be permitted. Where such additional time is provided, the Food and Drug Administration may require the certifying party to certify that relevant inventories have not been materially disturbed and relevant records have not been altered or concealed during such period. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The certifying party shall provide, to an officer or representative duly designated by the Secretary, such qualitative statement of the composition of the flavor or product covered by the certification as may be reasonably expected to enable the Secretary's representatives to determine which relevant raw and finished materials and flavor ingredient records are reasonably necessary to verify the certifications. The examination conducted by the Secretary's representative shall be limited to inspection and review of inventories and ingredient records for those certifications which are to be verified. 
</P>
<P>(v) Review of flavor ingredient records shall be limited to the qualitative formula and shall not include the quantitative formula. The person verifying the certifications may make only such notes as are necessary to enable him to verify such certification. Only such notes or such flavor ingredient records as are necessary to verify such certification or to show a potential or actual violation may be removed or transmitted from the certifying party's place of business: <I>Provided,</I> That, where such removal or transmittal is necessary for such purposes the relevant records and notes shall be retained as separate documents in Food and Drug Administration files, shall not be copied in other reports, and shall not be disclosed publicly other than in a judicial proceeding brought pursuant to the act or 18 U.S.C. 1001. 
</P>
<P>(j) A food to which a chemical preservative(s) is added shall, except when exempt pursuant to § 501.100, bear a label declaration stating both the common or usual name of the ingredient(s) and a separate description of its function, e.g., <I>preservative, to retard spoilage, a mold inhibitor, to help protect flavor</I> or <I>to promote color retention.</I> 
</P>
<P>(k) The label of an animal food to which any coloring has been added shall declare the coloring in the statement of ingredients in the manner specified in paragraphs (k)(1) and (k)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) A color additive or the lake of a color additive subject to certification under section 721(c) of the act shall be declared by the name of the color additive listed in the applicable regulation in part 74 or part 82 of this chapter, except that it is not necessary to include the “FD&amp;C” prefix or the term “No.” in the declaration, but the term “Lake” shall be included in the declaration of the lake of the certified color additive (e.g., Blue 1 Lake). Manufacturers may parenthetically declare an appropriate alternative name of the certified color additive following its common or usual name as specified in part 74 or part 82 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Color additives not subject to certification may be declared as “Artificial Color,” “Artificial Color Added,” or “Color Added” (or by an equally informative term that makes clear that a color additive has been used in the food). Alternatively, such color additives may be declared as “Colored with ____” or “____ color,” the blank to be filled with the name of the color additive listed in the applicable regulation in part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977; 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977; 76 FR 71254, Nov. 17, 2011] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Exemptions From Animal Food Labeling Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.100   Animal food; exemptions from labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following foods are exempt from compliance with the requirements of section 403(i)(2) of the act (requiring a declaration on the label of the common or usual name of each ingredient when the food is fabricated from two or more ingredients). 
</P>
<P>(1) An assortment of different items of food, when variations in the items that make up different packages packed from such assortment normally occur in good packing practice and when such variations result in variations in the ingredients in different packages, with respect to any ingredient that is not common to all packages. Such exemption, however, shall be on the condition that the label shall bear, in conjunction with the names of such ingredients as are common to all packages, a statement (in terms that are as informative as practicable and that are not misleading) indicating by name other ingredients which may be present. 
</P>
<P>(2) A food having been received in bulk containers at a retail establishment, if displayed to the purchaser with either (i) the labeling of the bulk container plainly in view or (ii) a counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously the information required to be stated on the label pursuant to section 403(i)(2) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(3) Incidental additives that are present in a food at insignificant levels and do not have any technical or functional effect in that food. For the purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), incidental additives are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Substances that have no technical or functional effect but are present in a food by reason of having been incorporated into the food as an ingredient of another food, in which the substance did have a functional or technical effect. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Processing aids, which are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Substances that are added to a food during the processing of such food but are removed in some manner from the food before it is packaged in its finished form. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Substances that are added to a food during processing, are converted into constituents normally present in the food, and do not significantly increase the amount of the constituents naturally found in the food. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Substances that are added to a food for their technical or functional effect in the processing but are present in the finished food at insignificant levels and do not have any technical or functional effect in that food. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Substances migrating to food from equipment or packaging or otherwise affecting food that are not food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the act; or if they are food additives as so defined, they are used in conformity with regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(b) A food repackaged in a retail establishment is exempt from the following provisions of the act if the conditions specified are met. 
</P>
<P>(1) Section 403(e)(1) of the act (requiring a statement on the label of the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor). 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 403(g)(2) of the act (requiring the label of a food which purports to be or is represented as one for which a definition and standard of identity has been prescribed to bear the name of the food specified in the definition and standard and, insofar as may be required by the regulation establishing the standard the common names of the optional ingredients present in the food), if the food is displayed to the purchaser with its interstate labeling clearly in view, or with a counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously the information required by these provisions. 
</P>
<P>(3) Section 403(i)(1) of the act (requiring the label to bear the common or usual name of the food), if the food is displayed to the purchaser with its interstate labeling clearly in view, or with a counter card, sign, or other appropriate device bearing prominently and conspicuously the common or usual name of the food, or if the common or usual name of the food is clearly revealed by its appearance. 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, a shipment or other delivery of a food which is, in accordance with the practice of the trade, to be processed, labeled, or repacked in substantial quantity at an establishment other than that where originally processed or packed, shall be exempt, during the time of introduction into and movement in interstate commerce and the time of holding in such establishment, from compliance with the labeling requirements of section 403 (c), (e), (g), (h), (i), (j) and (k) of the act if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce is the operator of the establishment where such food is to be processed, labeled, or repacked; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In case such person is not such operator, such shipment or delivery is made to such establishment under a written agreement, signed by and containing the post office addresses of such person and such operator, and containing such specifications for the processing, labeling, or repacking, as the case may be, of such food in such establishment as will ensure, if such specifications are followed, that such food will not be adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act upon completion of such processing, labeling, or repacking. Such person and such operator shall each keep a copy of such agreement until 2 years after the final shipment or delivery of such food from such establishment, and shall make such copies available for inspection at any reasonable hour to any officer or employee of the Department who requests them. 
</P>
<P>(e) Conditions affecting expiration of exemptions. 
</P>
<P>(1) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a food under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall, at the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment become void ab initio if the food comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed. 
</P>
<P>(2) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a food under paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall become void ab initio with respect to the person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce upon refusal by such person to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a food under paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall expire: 
</P>
<P>(i) At the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment if the food comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon refusal by the operator of the establishment where such food is to be processed, labeled, or repacked, to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement as required by such paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(g) The label declaration of a harmless marker used to identify a particular manufacturer's product may result in unfair competition through revealing a trade secret. Exemption from the label declaration of such a marker is granted, therefore, provided that the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The person desiring to use the marker without label declaration of its presence has submitted to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs full information concerning the proposed usage and the reasons why he believes label declaration of the marker should be subject to this exemption; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The person requesting the exemption has received from the Commissioner of Food and Drugs a finding that the marker is harmless and that the exemption has been granted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.103" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.103   Petitions requesting exemptions from or special requirements for label declaration of ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition pursuant to part 10 of this chapter may issue a proposal to amend § 501.4 to specify the manner in which an ingredient(s) shall be declared, i.e., by specific or class name, or § 501.100 to exempt an ingredient(s) from the requirements for label declaration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.105" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.105   Declaration of net quantity of contents when exempt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of a food in package form shall bear a declaration of the net quantity of contents. This shall be expressed in the terms of weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of numerical count and weight or measure. The statement shall be in terms of fluid measure if the food is liquid, or in terms of weight if the food is solid, semisolid, or viscous, or a mixture of solid and liquid; except that such statement may be in terms of dry measure if the food is a fresh fruit, fresh vegetable, or other dry commodity that is customarily sold by dry measure. If there is a firmly established general consumer usage and trade custom of declaring the contents of a liquid by weight, or a solid, semisolid, or viscous product by fluid measure, it may be used. Whenever the Commissioner determines that an existing practice of declaring net quantity of contents by weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination in the case of a specific packaged food does not facilitate value comparisons by consumers and offers opportunity for consumer confusion, he will by regulation designate the appropriate term or terms to be used for such commodity. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Statements of weight shall be in terms of avoirdupois pound and ounce. 
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of fluid measure shall be in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid ounce subdivisions thereof, and shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of frozen food that is sold and consumed in a frozen state, express the volume at the frozen temperature. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of refrigerated food that is sold in the refrigerated state, express the volume at 40 °F (4 °C). 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of other foods, express the volume at 68 °F (20 °C). 
</P>
<P>(3) Statements of dry measure shall be in terms of the U.S. bushel of 2,150.42 cubic inches and peck, dry quart, and dry pint subdivisions thereof. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the declaration of quantity of contents by numerical count does not give adequate information as to the quantity of food in the package, it shall be combined with such statement of weight, measure, or size of the individual units of the foods as will provide such information. 
</P>
<P>(d) The declaration may contain common or decimal fractions. A common fraction shall be in terms of halves, quarters, eighths, sixteenths, or thirty-seconds; except that if there exists a firmly established general consumer usage and trade custom of employing different common fractions in the net quantity declaration of a particular commodity, they may be employed. A common fraction shall be reduced to its lowest terms; a decimal fraction shall not be carried out to more than two places. A statement that includes small fractions of an ounce shall be deemed to permit smaller variations than one which does not include such fractions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The declaration shall be located on the principal display panel of the label, and with respect to packages bearing alternate principal panels it shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(f) The declaration shall appear as a distinct item on the principal display panel, shall be separated (by at least a space equal to the height of the lettering used in the declaration) from other printed label information appearing above or below the declaration and (by at least a space equal to twice the width of the letter “N” of the style of type used in the quantity of contents statement) from other printed label information appearing to the left or right of the declaration. It shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count (such as <I>jumbo quart</I> and <I>full gallon</I>) that tends to exaggerate the amount of the food in the container. It shall be placed on the principal display panel within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed: <I>Provided,</I> That on packages having a principal display panel of 5 square inches or less, the requirement for placement within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel shall not apply when the declaration of net quantity of contents meets the other requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) The declaration shall accurately reveal the quantity of food in the package exclusive of wrappers and other material packed therewith; provided that in the case of foods packed in containers designed to deliver the food under pressure, the declaration shall state the net quantity of the contents that will be expelled when the instructions for use as shown on the container are followed. The propellant is included in the net quantity declaration. 
</P>
<P>(h) The declaration shall appear in conspicuous and easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast (by typography, layout, color, embossing, or molding) to other matter on the package; except that a declaration of net quantity blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface is permissible when all label information is so formed on the surface. Requirements of conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio of height to width (of the letter) shall not exceed a differential of 3 units to 1 unit (no more than 3 times as high as it is wide). 
</P>
<P>(2) Letter heights pertain to upper case or capital letters. When upper and lower case or all lower case letters are used, it is the lower case letter “o” or its equivalent that shall meet the minimum standards. 
</P>
<P>(3) When fractions are used, each component numeral shall meet one-half the minimum height standards. 
</P>
<P>(i) The declaration shall be in letters and numerals in a type size established in relationship to the area of the principal display panel of the package and shall be uniform for all packages of substantially the same size by complying with the following type specifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of 5 square inches or less. 
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 5 but not more than 25 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(3) Not less than 
<FR>3/16</FR> inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 25 but not more than 100 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(4) Not less than 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 100 square inches, except not less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch in height if the area is more than 400 square inches.
</P>
<FP>Where the declaration is blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface rather than by printing, typing, or coloring, the lettering sizes specified in paragraphs (i) (1) through (4) of this section shall be increased by 
<FR>1/16</FR> of an inch. 
</FP>
<P>(j) On packages containing less than 4 pounds or 1 gallon and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure: 
</P>
<P>(1) The declaration shall be expressed both in ounces, with identification by weight or by liquid measure and, if applicable (1 pound or 1 pint or more) followed in parentheses by a declaration in pounds for weight units, with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound (see examples set forth in paragraphs (m) (1) and (2) of this section), or in the case of liquid measure, in the largest whole units (quarts, quarts and pints, or pints, as appropriate) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (see examples in paragraphs (m) (3) and (4) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(2) If the net quantity of contents declaration appears on a random package, that is a package which is one of a lot, shipment, or delivery of packages of the same consumer commodity with varying weights and with no fixed weight pattern, it may, when the net weight exceeds 1 pound, be expressed in terms of pounds and decimal fractions of the pound carried out to not more than two decimal places. When the net weight does not exceed 1 pound, the declaration on the random package may be in decimal fractions of the pound in lieu of ounces (see example in paragraph (m)(5) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(3) The declaration may appear in more than one line. The term <I>net weight</I> shall be used when stating the net quantity of contents in terms of weight. Use of the terms <I>net</I> or <I>net contents</I> in terms of fluid measure or numerical count is optional. It is sufficient to distinguish avoirdupois ounce from fluid ounce through association of terms; for example, <I>Net wt. 6 oz.</I> or <I>6 oz. net wt.</I> and <I>6 fl. oz.</I> or <I>net contents 6 fl. oz.</I> 
</P>
<P>(k) On packages containing 4 pounds or 1 gallon or more and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure, the declaration shall be expressed in pounds for weight units with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fraction of the pound, or in the case of fluid measure, it shall be expressed in the largest whole unit (gallons followed by common or decimal fraction of a gallon or by the next smaller whole unit or units (quarts, or quarts and pints)) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (see paragraph (m)(6) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Examples:</I> (1) A declaration of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds weight shall be expressed as <I>Net Wt. 24 oz. (1 lb. 8 oz.), Net Wt. 24 oz. (1
<FR>1/2</FR> lb.),</I> or <I>Net Wt. 24 oz. (1.5 lb.).</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) A declaration of 
<FR>3/4</FR> pound avoirdupois weight shall be expressed as <I>Net Wt. 12 oz.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) A declaration of 1 quart liquid measure shall be expressed as <I>Net 32 fl. oz. (1 qt.).</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) A declaration of 1
<FR>3/4</FR> quarts liquid measure shall be expressed as <I>Net contents 56 fluid ounces (1 quart 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pints)</I> or as <I>Net 56 fluid oz. (1 qt. 1 pt. 8 oz.),</I> but not in terms of quart and ounce such as <I>Net 56 fluid oz. (1 quart 24 ounces).</I> 
</P>
<P>(5) On a random package, declaration of 
<FR>3/4</FR> pound avoirdupois may be expressed as <I>Net Wt. .75 lb.</I> 
</P>
<P>(6) A declaration of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons liquid measure shall be expressed as <I>Net contents 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons, Net contents 2.5 gallons,</I> or <I>Net contents 2 gallons 2 quarts</I> and not as <I>2 gallons 4 pints.</I> 
</P>
<P>(n) For quantities, the following abbreviations and none other may be employed (periods and plural forms are optional): 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>weight wt.</LI>
<LI>ounce oz.</LI>
<LI>pound lb.</LI>
<LI>gallon gal.</LI>
<LI>pint pt.</LI>
<LI>quart qt.</LI>
<LI>fluid fl.</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<P>(o) Nothing in this section shall prohibit supplemental statements at locations other than the principal display panel(s) describing in nondeceptive terms the net quantity of contents; provided, that such supplemental statements of net quantity of contents shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count that tends to exaggerate the amount of the food contained in the package; for example, <I>jumbo quart</I> and <I>full gallon.</I> Dual or combination declarations of net quantity of contents as provided for in paragraphs (a), (c), and (j) of this section (for example, a combination of net weight plus numerical count, net contents plus dilution directions of a concentrate, etc.) are not regarded as supplemental net quantity statements and may be located on the principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(p) A separate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system is not regarded as a supplemental statement and an accurate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure may also appear on the principal display panel or on other panels. 
</P>
<P>(q) The declaration of net quantity of contents shall express an accurate statement of the quantity of contents of the package. Reasonable variations caused by loss or gain of moisture during the course of good distribution practice or by unavoidable deviations in good manufacturing practice will be recognized. Variations from stated quantity of contents shall not be unreasonably large. 
</P>
<P>(r) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(s) On a multiunit retail package, a statement of the quantity of contents shall appear on the outside of the package and shall include the number of individual units, the quantity of each individual unit, and, in parentheses, the total quantity of contents of the multiunit package in terms of avoirdupois or fluid ounces, except that such declaration of total quantity need not be followed by an additional parenthetical declaration in terms of the largest whole units and subdivisions thereof, as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this section. A multiunit retail package may thus be properly labeled: <I>6-16 oz. bottles—(96 fl. oz.)</I> or <I>3-16 oz. cans—(net wt. 48 oz).</I> For the purposes of this section, <I>multiunit retail package</I> means a package containing two or more individually packaged units of the identical commodity and in the same quantity, intended to be sold as part of the multiunit retail package but capable of being individually sold in full compliance with all requirements of the regulations in this part. Open multiunit retail packages that do not obscure the number of units nor prevent examination of the labeling on each of the individual units are not subject to this paragraph if the labeling of each individual unit complies with the requirements of paragraphs (f) and (i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(t) Where the declaration of net quantity of contents is in terms of net weight and/or drained weight or volume and does not accurately reflect the actual quantity of the contents or the product falls below the applicable standard of fill of container because of equipment malfunction or otherwise unintentional product variation, and the label conforms in all other respects to the requirements of this chapter, the mislabeled food product may be sold by the manufacturer or processor directly to institutions operated by Federal, State or local governments: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The purchaser shall sign a statement at the time of sale stating that he is aware that the product is mislabeled to include acknowledgement of the nature and extent of the mislabeling, e.g., “Actual net weight may be as low as __% below labeled quantity” and that any subsequent distribution by him of said product except for his own institutional use is unlawful. This statement shall be kept on file at the principal place of business of the manufacturer or processor for 2 years subsequent to the date of shipment of the product and shall be available to the Food and Drug Administration upon request. 
</P>
<P>(2) The product shall be labeled on the outside of its shipping container with the statement(s): 
</P>
<P>(i) When the variation concerns net weight and/or drained weight of volume—“Product Mislabeled. Actual net weight (drained weight or volume where appropriate) may be as low as __% below labeled quantity. This Product Not for Retail Distribution,” the blank to be filled in with the maximum percentage variance between the labeled and actual weight or volume of contents of the individual packages in the shipping container, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) When the variation is in regard to a fill of container standard—“Product Mislabeled. Actual fill may be as low as __% below standard of fill. This Product Not for Retail Distribution.”
</P>
<P>(3) The statements required by paragraphs (t)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section, which may be consolidated where appropriate, shall appear prominently and conspicuously as compared to other printed matter on the shipping container and in boldface print or type on a clear, contrasting background in order to render them likely to be read and understood by the purchaser under ordinary conditions of purchase.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38619, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 54 FR 18279, Apr. 28, 1989; 85 FR 72908, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.2.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.110   Animal feed labeling; collective names for feed ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An animal feed shall be exempt from the requirements of section 403(i)(2) of the act with respect to its label bearing the common or usual names of the animal feed ingredients listed in paragraph (b) of this section under the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The animal feed is intended solely for livestock and poultry. 
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the animal feed bears the collective name(s) prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section in lieu of the corresponding common or usual names of the individual feed ingredients contained therein. 
</P>
<P>(3) The label of the animal feed otherwise conforms to the requirements of section 403(i)(2) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(4) The ingredients of any feed listed in paragraph (b) of this section neither contain nor are food additives as defined in section 201(s) of the act unless provided for by and in conformity with applicable regulations established pursuant to section 409 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each collective name referred to in this paragraph may be used for the purpose of labeling where one or more of the ingredients listed for that collective name are present. The animal feed ingredients listed under each of the collective names are the products defined by the Association of American Feed Control Officials. The collective names are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Animal protein products</I> include one or more of the following: Animal products, marine products, and milk products. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Forage products</I> include one or more of the following: Alfalfa meals, entire plant meals, hays, and stem meals. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Grain products</I> include one or more of the following: Barley, grain sorghums, maize (corn), oats, rice, rye, and wheat. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Plant protein products</I> include one or more of the following: Algae meals, coconut meals (copra), cottonseed meals, guar meal, linseed meals, peanut meals, safflower meals, soybean meals, sunflower meals, and yeasts. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Processed grain byproducts</I> include one or more of the following: Brans, brewers dried grains, distillers grains, distillers solubles, flours, germ meals, gluten feeds, gluten meals, grits, groats, hominy feeds, malt sprouts, middlings, pearled, polishings, shorts, and wheat mill run. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Roughage products</I> include one or more of the following: Cobs, hulls, husks, pulps, and straws. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="502" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 502—COMMON OR USUAL NAMES FOR NONSTANDARDIZED ANIMAL FOODS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 343, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 502.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.5   General principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common or usual name of a food, which may be a coined term, shall accurately identify or describe, in as simple and direct terms as possible, the basic nature of the food or its characterizing properties or ingredients. The name shall be uniform among all identical or similar products and may not be confusingly similar to the name of any other food that is not reasonably encompassed within the same name. Each class or subclass of food shall be given its own common or usual name that states, in clear terms, what it is in a way that distinguishes it from different foods. 
</P>
<P>(b) The common or usual name of a food shall include the percentage(s) of any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) when the proportion of such ingredient(s) or component(s) in the food has a material bearing on price or consumer acceptance or when the labeling or the appearance of the food may otherwise create an erroneous impression that such ingredient(s) or component(s) is present in an amount greater than is actually the case. The following requirements shall apply unless modified by a specific regulation in this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) The percentage of a characterizing ingredient or component shall be declared on the basis of its quantity in the finished product (i.e., weight/weight in the case of solids, or volume/volume in the case of liquids). 
</P>
<P>(2) The percentage of a characterizing ingredient or component shall be declared by the words “containing (or contains) __ percent (or %) __” or “__ percent (or %) __” with the first blank filled in with the percentage expressed as a whole number not greater than the actual percentage of the ingredient or component named and the second blank filled in with the common or usual name of the ingredient or component. The word “containing” (or “contains”), when used, shall appear on a line immediately below the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraph (a) of this section. For each characterizing ingredient or component, the words “__ percent (or %) __”shall appear following or directly below the word “containing” (or “contains”), or directly below the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraph (a) of this section when the word “containing” (or “contains”) is not used, in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the following alternatives: 
</P>
<P>(i) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages having a principal display panel with an area of 5 square inches or less and not less than one-eighth inch in height if the area of the principal display panel is greater than 5 square inches; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not less than one-half the height of the largest type appearing in the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The common or usual name of a food shall include a statement of the presence or absence of any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) and/or the need for the user to add any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) when the presence or absence of such ingredient(s) or component(s) in the food has a material bearing on price or consumer acceptance or when the labeling or the appearance of the food may otherwise create an erroneous impression that such ingredient(s) or component(s) is present when it is not, and consumers may otherwise be misled about the presence or absence of the ingredient(s) or component(s) in the food. The following requirements shall apply unless modified by a specific regulation in this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) The presence or absence of a characterizing ingredient or component shall be declared by the words “containing (or contains) ____” or “containing (or contains) _____” or “no _____” or “does not contain _____”, with the blank being filled in with the common or usual name of the ingredient or component. 
</P>
<P>(2) The need for the user of a food to add any characterizing ingredient(s) or component(s) shall be declared by an appropriate informative statement. 
</P>
<P>(3) The statement(s) required under paragraph (c) (1) and/or (2) of this section shall appear following or directly below the part of the common or usual name of the food required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, in easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast to other printed or graphic matter, and in a height not less than the larger of the alternatives established under paragraph (b)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) A common or usual name of a food may be established by common usage or by establishment of a regulation in this part, in a standard of identity, or in other regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38627, Sept. 10, 1976. Redesignated at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.19" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.19   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition, may publish a proposal to issue, amend, or revoke, under this part, a regulation prescribing a common or usual name for a food, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the principal display panel of a food for which a common or usual name regulation is established is too small to accommodate all mandatory requirements, the Commissioner may establish by regulation an acceptable alternative, e.g., a smaller type size. A petition requesting such a regulation, which would amend the applicable regulation, shall be submitted pursuant to part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 4716, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 10980, Feb. 25, 1977. Redesignated at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977, and amended at 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 24254, May 13, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="507" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 507—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE, HAZARD ANALYSIS, AND RISK-BASED PREVENTIVE CONTROLS FOR FOOD FOR ANIMALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 342, 343, 350d note, 350g, 350g note, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 243, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.1   Applicability and status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria and definitions in this part apply in determining whether an animal food is:
</P>
<P>(1) Adulterated within the meaning of:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 402(a)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that the food has been manufactured under such conditions that it is unfit for food; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 402(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in that the food has been prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions whereby it may have become contaminated with filth, or whereby it may have been rendered injurious to health; and
</P>
<P>(2) In violation of section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 264).
</P>
<P>(b) The operation of a facility that manufactures, processes, packs, or holds animal food for sale in the United States if the owner, operator, or agent in charge of such facility is required to comply with, and is not in compliance with, section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or subparts C, D, E, or F of this part and § 507.7 is a prohibited act under section 301(uu) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Animal food covered by specific current good manufacturing practice regulations also is subject to the requirements of those regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided by § 507.12, if a facility is required to comply with subpart B of part 507 and is also required to comply with subpart B of part 117 of this chapter because the facility manufactures, processes, packs, or holds human food and animal food, then the facility may choose to comply with the requirements in subpart B of part 117, instead of subpart B of part 507, as to the manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding of animal food at that facility. If a facility is required to comply with subpart C of part 507 and is also required to comply with subpart C of part 117 of this chapter, then the facility may choose to comply with the requirements in subpart C of part 117 as to the manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding of animal food at the facility, instead of subpart C of part 507, provided the food safety plan also addresses hazards for the animal food, if applicable, that require a preventive control. When applying the requirements of part 117 of this chapter to animal food, the term “food” in part 117 includes animal food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Adequate</I> means that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose in keeping with good public (human and animal) health practice.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any facility that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another facility.
</P>
<P><I>Animal food</I> means food for animals other than man and includes pet food, animal feed, and raw materials and ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Audit</I> means the systematic, independent, and documented examination (through observation, investigation, records review, discussions with employees of the audited entity, and, as appropriate, sampling and laboratory analysis) to assess an audited entity's food safety processes and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Calendar day</I> means every day shown on the calendar.
</P>
<P><I>Correction</I> means an action to identify and correct a problem that occurred during the production of animal food, without other actions associated with a corrective action procedure (such as actions to reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur, evaluate all affected animal food for safety, and prevent affected animal food from entering commerce).
</P>
<P><I>Critical control point</I> means a point, step, or procedure in a food process at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce such hazard to an acceptable level.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental pathogen</I> means a pathogen capable of surviving and persisting within the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding environment such that food for animals may be contaminated and may result in foodborne illness if that animal food is not treated to significantly minimize or prevent the environmental pathogen. Examples of environmental pathogens for the purposes of this part include <I>Listeria monocytogenes</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. but do not include the spores of pathogenic sporeforming bacteria.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means a domestic facility or a foreign facility that is required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in accordance with the requirements of part 1, subpart H of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Farm</I> means farm as defined in § 1.227 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Food</I> means food as defined in section 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and includes raw materials and ingredients.
</P>
<P><I>Food-contact surfaces</I> are those surfaces that contact animal food and those surfaces from which drainage, or other transfer, onto the animal food or onto surfaces that contact the animal food ordinarily occurs during the normal course of operations. “Food-contact surfaces” includes utensils and animal food-contact surfaces of equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time equivalent employee</I> is a term used to represent the number of employees of a business entity for the purpose of determining whether the business qualifies for the small business exemption. The number of full-time equivalent employees is determined by dividing the total number of hours of salary or wages paid directly to employees of the business entity and of all of its affiliates and subsidiaries by the number of hours of work in 1 year, 2,080 hours (<I>i.e.,</I> 40 hours × 52 weeks). If the result is not a whole number, round down to the next lowest whole number.
</P>
<P><I>Harvesting</I> applies to farms and farm mixed-type facilities and means activities that are traditionally performed on farms for the purpose of removing raw agricultural commodities from the place they were grown or raised and preparing them for use as animal food. Harvesting is limited to activities performed on raw agricultural commodities, or on processed foods created by drying/dehydrating a raw agricultural commodity without additional manufacturing/processing, on a farm. Harvesting does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Examples of harvesting include cutting (or otherwise separating) the edible portion of the raw agricultural commodity from the crop plant and removing or trimming part of the raw agricultural commodity (<I>e.g.,</I> foliage, husks, roots, or stems). Examples of harvesting also include cooling, field coring, filtering, gathering, hulling, shelling, sifting, threshing, trimming of outer leaves of, and washing raw agricultural commodities grown on a farm.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means any biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical agent that has the potential to cause illness or injury in humans or animals.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard requiring a preventive control</I> means a known or reasonably foreseeable hazard for which a person knowledgeable about the safe manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of animal food would, based on the outcome of a hazard analysis (which includes an assessment of the severity of the illness or injury to humans or animals if the hazard were to occur and the probability that the hazard will occur in the absence of preventive controls), establish one or more preventive controls to significantly minimize or prevent the hazard in an animal food and components to manage those controls (such as monitoring, corrections or corrective actions, verification, and records) as appropriate to the animal food, the facility, and the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system.
</P>
<P><I>Holding</I> means storage of animal food and also includes activities performed incidental to storage of an animal food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective storage of that animal food, such as fumigating animal food during storage, and drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities when the drying/dehydrating does not create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating hay or alfalfa)). Holding also includes activities performed as a practical necessity for the distribution of that animal food (such as blending of the same raw agricultural commodity and breaking down pallets), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Holding facilities could include warehouses, cold storage facilities, storage silos, grain elevators, and liquid-storage tanks.
</P>
<P><I>Known or reasonably foreseeable hazard</I> means a biological, chemical (including radiological), or physical hazard that is known to be, or has the potential to be, associated with the facility or the animal food.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means the animal food produced during a period of time and identified by an establishment's specific code.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing/processing</I> means making animal food from one or more ingredients, or synthesizing, preparing, treating, modifying, or manipulating animal food, including food crops or ingredients. Examples of manufacturing/processing activities include: Baking, boiling, bottling, canning, cooking, cooling, cutting, distilling, drying/dehydrating raw agricultural commodities to create a distinct commodity (such as drying/dehydrating grapes to produce raisins), evaporating, eviscerating, extracting juice, extruding, formulating, freezing, grinding, homogenizing, irradiating, labeling, milling, mixing, packaging (including modified atmosphere packaging), pasteurizing, peeling, pelleting, rendering, treating to manipulate ripening, trimming, washing, or waxing. For farms and farm mixed-type facilities, manufacturing/processing does not include activities that are part of harvesting, packing, or holding.
</P>
<P><I>Microorganisms</I> means yeasts, molds, bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and microscopic parasites and includes species that are pathogens. The term “undesirable microorganisms” includes those microorganisms that are pathogens, that subject animal food to decomposition, that indicate that animal food is contaminated with filth, or that otherwise may cause animal food to be adulterated.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-type facility</I> means an establishment that engages in both activities that are exempt from registration under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and activities that require the establishment to be registered. An example of such a facility is a “farm mixed-type facility,” which is an establishment that is a farm, but also conducts activities outside the farm definition that require the establishment to be registered.
</P>
<P><I>Monitor</I> means to conduct a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess whether control measures are operating as intended.
</P>
<P><I>Packing</I> means placing animal food into a container other than packaging the animal food and also includes repacking and activities performed incidental to packing or repacking an animal food (<I>e.g.,</I> activities performed for the safe or effective packing or repacking of that animal food (such as sorting, culling, grading, and weighing or conveying incidental to packing or repacking)), but does not include activities that transform a raw agricultural commodity into a processed food as defined in section 201(gg) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Pathogen</I> means a microorganism of public (human or animal) health significance.
</P>
<P><I>Pest</I> refers to any objectionable animals or insects including birds, rodents, flies, and larvae.
</P>
<P><I>Plant</I> means the building or structure, or parts thereof, used for or in connection with the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of animal food.
</P>
<P><I>Preventive controls</I> means those risk-based, reasonably appropriate procedures, practices, and processes that a person knowledgeable about the safe manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of animal food would employ to significantly minimize or prevent the hazards identified under the hazard analysis that are consistent with the current scientific understanding of safe food manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding at the time of the analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Preventive controls qualified individual</I> means a qualified individual who has successfully completed training in the development and application of risk-based preventive controls at least equivalent to that received under a standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by FDA, or is otherwise qualified through job experience to develop and apply a food safety system.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified auditor</I> means a person who is a qualified individual as defined in this part and has technical expertise obtained through education, training, or experience (or the combination thereof) necessary to perform the auditing function. Examples of potential qualified auditors include:
</P>
<P>(1) A government employee, including a foreign government employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) An audit agent of a certification body that is accredited in accordance with regulations in part 1, subpart M of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified end-user,</I> with respect to food, means the consumer of the food (where the term consumer does not include a business); or a restaurant or retail food establishment (as those terms are defined in § 1.227 of this chapter) that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is located:
</P>
<P>(i) In the same State or the same Indian reservation as the qualified facility that sold the food to such restaurant or retail food establishment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than 275 miles from such facility; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is purchasing the food for sale directly to consumers at such restaurant or retail food establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified facility</I> means (when including the sales by any subsidiary; affiliate; or subsidiaries or affiliates, collectively, of any entity of which the facility is a subsidiary or affiliate) a facility that is a very small business as defined in this part, or a facility to which both of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) During the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year, the average annual monetary value of the food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at such facility that is sold directly to qualified end-users (as defined in this part) during such period exceeded the average annual monetary value of the food sold by such facility to all other purchasers; and
</P>
<P>(2) The average annual monetary value of all food sold during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year was less than $500,000, adjusted for inflation.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified facility exemption</I> means an exemption applicable to a qualified facility under § 507.5(d).
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual</I> means a person who has the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to manufacture, process, pack, or hold safe animal food as appropriate to the individual's assigned duties. A qualified individual may be, but is not required to be, an employee of the establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Raw agricultural commodity</I> has the meaning given in section 201(r) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving facility</I> means a facility that is subject to subparts C and E of this part and that manufactures/processes a raw material or other ingredient that it receives from a supplier.
</P>
<P><I>Rework</I> means clean, unadulterated animal food that has been removed from processing for reasons other than insanitary conditions or that has been successfully reconditioned by reprocessing and that is suitable for use as animal food.
</P>
<P><I>Sanitize</I> means to adequately treat cleaned surfaces by a process that is effective in destroying vegetative cells of pathogens, and in substantially reducing numbers of other undesirable microorganisms, but without adversely affecting the product or its safety for animals or humans.
</P>
<P><I>Significantly minimize</I> means to reduce to an acceptable level, including to eliminate.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means, for purposes of this part, a business (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) employing fewer than 500 full-time equivalent employees.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means any company which is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by another company.
</P>
<P><I>Supplier</I> means the establishment that manufactures/processes the animal food, raises the animal, or grows the food that is provided to a receiving facility without further manufacturing/processing by another establishment, except for further manufacturing/processing that consists solely of the addition of labeling or similar activity of a <I>de minimis</I> nature.
</P>
<P><I>Supply-chain-applied control</I> means a preventive control for a hazard in a raw material or other ingredient when the hazard in the raw material or other ingredient is controlled before its receipt.
</P>
<P><I>Unexposed packaged animal food</I> means packaged animal food that is not exposed to the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Validation</I> means obtaining and evaluating scientific and technical evidence that a control measure, combination of control measures, or the food safety plan as a whole, when properly implemented, is capable of effectively controlling the identified hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Verification</I> means the application of methods, procedures, tests and other evaluations, in addition to monitoring, to determine whether a control measure or combination of control measures is or has been operating as intended and to establish the validity of the food safety plan.
</P>
<P><I>Very small business</I> means, for purposes of this part, a business (including any subsidiaries and affiliates) averaging less than $2,500,000, adjusted for inflation, per year, during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year in sales of animal food plus the market value of animal food manufactured, processed, packed, or held without sale (<I>e.g.,</I> held for a fee or supplied to a farm without sale).
</P>
<P><I>Water activity</I> (a<E T="52">w</E>) means a measure of the free moisture in an animal food and is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.
</P>
<P><I>Written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients</I> means written procedures to ensure that raw materials and other ingredients are received only from suppliers approved by the receiving facility (or, when necessary and appropriate, on a temporary basis from unapproved suppliers whose raw materials or other ingredients are subjected to adequate verification activities before acceptance for use).
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means, for purposes of this part, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3717, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.4" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.4   Qualifications of individuals who manufacture, process, pack, or hold animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The management of an establishment must ensure that all individuals who manufacture, process, pack, or hold animal food subject to subparts B and F of this part are qualified to perform their assigned duties; and
</P>
<P>(2) The owner, operator, or agent in charge of a facility must ensure that all individuals who manufacture, process, pack, or hold animal food subject to subparts C, D, E, or F of this part are qualified to perform their assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Each individual engaged in manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding animal food (including temporary and seasonal personnel) or in the supervision thereof must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a qualified individual as that term is defined in § 507.3, <I>i.e.,</I> have the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to manufacture, process, pack, or hold safe animal food as appropriate to the individual's assigned duties; and
</P>
<P>(2) Receive training in the principles of animal food hygiene and animal food safety, including the importance of employee health and personal hygiene, as appropriate to the animal food, the facility and the individual's assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(c) Responsibility for ensuring compliance by individuals with the requirements of this part must be clearly assigned to supervisory personnel who have the education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to supervise the production of safe animal food.
</P>
<P>(d) Records that document training required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be established and maintained and are subject to the recordkeeping requirements in subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.5   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part does not apply to establishments, including “farms” (as defined in § 1.227 of this chapter), that are not required to register under section 415 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Subparts C and E of this part do not apply with respect to activities that are subject to § 500.23 and part 113 of this chapter (Thermally Processed Low-Acid Foods Packaged in Hermetically Sealed Containers) at an animal food facility if you are required to comply with, and are in compliance with, part 113 of this chapter with respect to those activities.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is applicable only with respect to those microbiological hazards regulated under part 113 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Subparts C and E of this part do not apply to activities of a facility that are subject to section 419 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (Standards for Produce Safety).
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in subpart D of this part, subparts C and E of this part do not apply to a qualified facility. Qualified facilities are subject to the requirements in § 507.7.
</P>
<P>(e) For a farm mixed-type facility that is a small or very small business, subparts C and E of this part do not apply to on-farm packing or holding of processed animal food, and § 507.7 does not apply to on-farm packing or holding of processed animal food by a very small business, if the only packing or holding activities subject to section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that the business conducts are the following low-risk packing or holding activity/animal food combinations—<I>i.e.,</I> packing (or repacking) (including weighing or conveying incidental to packing or repacking); sorting, culling, or grading incidental to packing or storing; and storing (ambient, cold and controlled atmosphere) of:
</P>
<P>(1) Roughage products (<I>e.g.,</I> alfalfa meal, entire plant meal, stem meal, pomace, and pulp);
</P>
<P>(2) Plant protein meals (<I>e.g.,</I> algae, coconut (copra), guar, and peanut);
</P>
<P>(3) Grain by-products and processed grain products (<I>e.g.,</I> bran, flour, germ meal, grits, groats, hominy feed, malt sprouts, middlings, pearled grain, polished grain, brewers grain, distillers grain, and gluten meal);
</P>
<P>(4) Oilseed products (<I>e.g.,</I> oil and meal of safflower, soybean, or sunflower);
</P>
<P>(5) Molasses (<I>e.g.,</I> processed sugar cane, sugar beets, and citrus);
</P>
<P>(6) Animal protein meals (<I>e.g.,</I> blood, feather, meat, meat and bone, and marine (<I>e.g.,</I> crab, fish, shrimp));
</P>
<P>(7) Milk products (<I>e.g.,</I> casein, cheese rind, and lactalbumin);
</P>
<P>(8) Animal tissue-derived products (<I>e.g.,</I> fat);
</P>
<P>(9) Vitamins, minerals, and concentrates;
</P>
<P>(10) Processing aids (<I>e.g.,</I> enzymes, preservatives, and stabilizers); and
</P>
<P>(11) Any other processed animal food that does not require time/temperature control for safety.
</P>
<P>(f) For a farm mixed-type facility that is a small or very small business, subparts C and E of this part do not apply to on-farm manufacturing/processing activities conducted by a small or very small business for distribution into commerce, and § 507.7 does not apply to on-farm manufacturing/processing activities conducted by a very small business for distribution into commerce, if the only manufacturing/processing activities subject to section 418 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that the business conducts consists of the following low-risk manufacturing/processing activity/animal food combinations:
</P>
<P>(1) Chopping or shredding hay;
</P>
<P>(2) Cracking, crimping, flaking, pearling, peeling, shelling, or wafering—grain (<I>e.g.,</I> barley, sorghum, corn, oats, rice, rye, and wheat) or oilseed (<I>e.g.,</I> beans, canola, cottonseed, linseed, soybeans, and sunflowers);
</P>
<P>(3) Crushing, dry rolling, grinding, milling, pulverizing—grain, oilseed, grain by-products and processed grain products, oilseed products, hay, ensiled material, culled fruits and vegetables, roughage (<I>e.g.,</I> cobs, hulls, husks, and straws), or roughage products;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensiling (including chopping, shredding, mixing, storing, or fermenting), that is, making silage or haylage from forage (<I>e.g.,</I> sorghum (milo), corn (maize), alfalfa, and grass), grain, culled fruits and vegetables, or roughage;
</P>
<P>(5) Extracting (mechanical) or wet rolling grain, oilseed, brewers grain by-products, or distillers grain by-products;
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling roughage products, plant protein meals, grain by-products and processed grain products, oilseed products, molasses, animal protein meals, milk products, animal tissue-derived products, vitamins, minerals, concentrates, processing aids, finished animal food, including animal food ready for consumption, or any other processed animal food that does not require time/temperature control for safety; and
</P>
<P>(7) Packaging roughage products, plant protein meals, grain by-products and processed grain products, oilseed products, molasses, animal protein meals, milk products, animal tissue-derived products, vitamins, minerals, concentrates, processing aids, finished animal food, including animal food ready for consumption, or any other processed animal food that does not require time/temperature control for safety.
</P>
<P>(g) Subparts C and E of this part do not apply to facilities that are solely engaged in the storage of raw agricultural commodities (other than fruits and vegetables) intended for further distribution or processing.
</P>
<P>(h) Subpart B of this part does not apply to any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishments solely engaged in the holding and/or transportation of one or more raw agricultural commodities;
</P>
<P>(2) Establishments solely engaged in hulling, shelling, drying, packing, and/or holding nuts and hulls (without manufacturing/processing, such as grinding shells or roasting nuts); and
</P>
<P>(3) Establishments solely engaged in ginning of cotton (without manufacturing/processing, such as extracting oil from cottonseed).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3717, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.7" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.7   Requirements that apply to a qualified facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A qualified facility must submit the following attestations to FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) An attestation that the facility is a qualified facility as defined in § 507.3. For the purpose of determining whether a facility satisfies the definition of qualified facility, the baseline year for calculating the adjustment for inflation is 2011; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An attestation that you have identified the potential hazards associated with the animal food being produced, are implementing preventive controls to address the hazards, and are monitoring the performance of the preventive controls to ensure that such controls are effective; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An attestation that the facility is in compliance with State, local, county, tribal, or other applicable non-Federal food safety law, including relevant laws and regulations of foreign countries, including an attestation based on licenses, inspection reports, certificates, permits, credentials, certification by an appropriate agency (such as a State department of agriculture), or other evidence of oversight.
</P>
<P>(b) The attestations required by paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to FDA by any one of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Electronic submission.</I> To submit electronically, go to <I>http://www.fda.gov/furls</I> and follow the instructions. This Web site is available from wherever the Internet is accessible, including libraries, copy centers, schools, and Internet cafes. FDA encourages electronic submission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submission by mail.</I> (i) You must use Form FDA 3942b. You may obtain a copy of this form by any of the following mechanisms:
</P>
<P>(A) Download it from <I>http://www.fda.gov/pcafrule</I>;
</P>
<P>(B) Write to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (HFS-681), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740; or
</P>
<P>(C) Request a copy of this form by phone at 1-800-216-7331 or 301-575-0156.
</P>
<P>(ii) Send a paper Form FDA 3942b to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (HFS-681), 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. We recommend that you submit a paper copy only if your facility does not have reasonable access to the Internet.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A facility must determine and document its status as a qualified facility on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) The attestations required by paragraph (a) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Submitted to FDA initially:
</P>
<P>(A) By <I>December 16, 2019</I> for a facility that begins manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding animal food before <I>September 17, 2019;</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Before beginning operations, for a facility that begins manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding animal food after <I>September 17, 2019;</I> or
</P>
<P>(C) By July 31 of the applicable calendar year, when the status of a facility changes from “not a qualified facility” to “qualified facility” based on the annual determination required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning in 2020, submitted to FDA every 2 years during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31.
</P>
<P>(3) When the status of a facility changes from “qualified facility” to “not a qualified facility” based on the annual determination required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the facility must notify FDA of that change in status using Form FDA 3942b by July 31 of the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) When the status of a facility changes from “qualified facility” to “not a qualified facility,” the facility must comply with subparts C and E of this part no later than December 31 of the applicable calendar year unless otherwise agreed to by FDA and the facility.
</P>
<P>(e) A qualified facility that does not submit attestations under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must provide notification to consumers as to the name and complete business address of the facility where the animal food was manufactured or processed (including the street address or P.O. Box, city, state, and zip code for domestic facilities, and comparable full address information for foreign facilities) as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If an animal food packaging label is required, the notification required by paragraph (e) of this section must appear prominently and conspicuously on the label of the animal food.
</P>
<P>(2) If an animal food packaging label is not required, the notification required by paragraph (e) of this section must appear prominently and conspicuously, at the point of purchase, on a label, poster, sign, placard, or documents delivered contemporaneously with the animal food in the normal course of business, or in an electronic notice, in the case of Internet sales.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) A qualified facility must maintain those records relied upon to support the attestations that are required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The records that a qualified facility must maintain are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3717, Jan. 22, 2016; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.10" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.10   Applicability of subparts C and E of this part to a facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subparts C and E of this part do not apply to a facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged animal food that does not require time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens.
</P>
<P>(b) A facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged animal food, including unexposed packaged animal food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens is subject to the modified requirements in § 507.51 for any unexposed packaged animal food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.12" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.12   Applicability of this part to the holding and distribution of human food by-products for use as animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, the requirements of this part do not apply to by-products of human food production, or the off-farm packing and holding of raw agricultural commodities, that are packed or held by that human food facility for distribution as animal food if:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The human food facility is subject to and in compliance with subpart B of part 117 of this chapter and in compliance with all applicable human food safety requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For the off-farm packing and holding of produce (as defined in part 112 of this chapter), the human food facility is subject to and in compliance with § 117.8 of this chapter and in compliance with all applicable human food safety requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and implementing regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The human food facility does not further manufacture or process the by-products intended for use as animal food.
</P>
<P>(b) The human food by-products for use as animal food identified in paragraph (a) of this section must be held and distributed by that facility in accordance with §§ 507.28 and 117.95 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Current Good Manufacturing Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.14" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.14   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The management of the establishment must take reasonable measures and precautions to ensure that all persons working in direct contact with animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, and animal food-packaging materials conform to hygienic practices to the extent necessary to protect against the contamination of animal food.
</P>
<P>(b) The methods for conforming to hygienic practices and maintaining cleanliness include:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintaining adequate personal cleanliness;
</P>
<P>(2) Washing hands thoroughly in an adequate hand-washing facility as necessary and appropriate to protect against contamination;
</P>
<P>(3) Removing or securing jewelry and other objects that might fall into animal food, equipment, or containers;
</P>
<P>(4) Storing clothing or other personal belongings in areas other than where animal food is exposed or where equipment or utensils are cleaned; and
</P>
<P>(5) Taking any other necessary precautions to protect against the contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, or animal food-packaging materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.17" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.17   Plant and grounds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The grounds around an animal food plant under the control of the management of the establishment must be kept in a condition that will protect against the contamination of animal food. Maintenance of grounds must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Properly storing equipment, removing litter and waste, and cutting weeds or grass within the immediate vicinity of the plant that may constitute an attractant, breeding place, or harborage for pests;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining driveways, yards, and parking areas so that they do not constitute a source of contamination in areas where animal food is exposed;
</P>
<P>(3) Adequately draining areas that may contribute to contamination of animal food; and
</P>
<P>(4) Treating and disposing of waste so that it does not constitute a source of contamination in areas where animal food is exposed.
</P>
<P>(b) The plant must be suitable in size, construction, and design to facilitate cleaning, maintenance, and pest control to reduce the potential for contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, and animal food-packaging materials, including that the plant must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide adequate space between equipment, walls, and stored materials to permit employees to perform their duties and to allow cleaning and maintenance of equipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Be constructed in a manner such that drip or condensate from fixtures, ducts, and pipes does not serve as a source of contamination;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide adequate ventilation (mechanical or natural) where necessary and appropriate to minimize vapors (<I>e.g.,</I> steam) and fumes in areas where they may contaminate animal food and in a manner that minimizes the potential for contaminating animal food;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide adequate lighting in hand-washing areas, toilet rooms, areas where animal food is received, manufactured, processed, packed, or held, and areas where equipment or utensils are cleaned; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide shatter-resistant light bulbs, fixtures, and skylights, or other glass items suspended over exposed animal food in any step of preparation, to protect against the contamination of animal food in case of glass breakage.
</P>
<P>(c) The plant must protect animal food stored outdoors in bulk from contamination by any effective means, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Using protective coverings where necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) Controlling areas over and around the bulk animal food to eliminate harborages for pests; and
</P>
<P>(3) Checking on a regular basis for pests, pest infestation, and product condition related to safety of the animal food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.19" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.19   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Buildings, structures, fixtures, and other physical facilities of the plant must be kept clean and in good repair to prevent animal food from becoming adulterated.
</P>
<P>(b) Animal food-contact and non-contact surfaces of utensils and equipment must be cleaned and maintained and utensils and equipment stored as necessary to protect against the contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, or animal food-packaging materials. When necessary, equipment must be disassembled for thorough cleaning. In addition:
</P>
<P>(1) When animal food-contact surfaces used for manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding animal food are wet-cleaned, the surfaces must, when necessary, be thoroughly dried before subsequent use; and
</P>
<P>(2) In wet processing of animal food, when cleaning and sanitizing are necessary to protect against the introduction of undesirable microorganisms into animal food, all animal food-contact surfaces must be cleaned and sanitized before use and after any interruption during which the animal food-contact surfaces may have become contaminated.
</P>
<P>(c) Cleaning compounds and sanitizing agents must be safe and adequate under the conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(d) The following applies to toxic materials:
</P>
<P>(1) Only the following toxic materials may be used or stored in the plant area where animal food is manufactured, processed, or exposed:
</P>
<P>(i) Those required to maintain clean and sanitary conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Those necessary for use in laboratory testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Those necessary for plant and equipment maintenance and operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Those necessary for use in the plant's operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Toxic materials described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section (<I>e.g.,</I> cleaning compounds, sanitizing agents, and pesticide chemicals) must be identified, used, and stored in a manner that protects against the contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, or animal food-packaging materials; and
</P>
<P>(3) Other toxic materials (such as fertilizers and pesticides not included in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) must be stored in an area of the plant where animal food is not manufactured, processed, or exposed.
</P>
<P>(e) Effective measures must be taken to exclude pests from the manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding areas and to protect against the contamination of animal food by pests. The use of pesticides in the plant is permitted only under precautions and restrictions that will protect against the contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, and animal food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(f) Trash must be conveyed, stored, and disposed of in a way that protects against the contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, animal food-packaging materials, water supplies, and ground surfaces, and minimizes the potential for the trash to become an attractant and harborage or breeding place for pests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3717, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.20" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.20   Water supply and plumbing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following apply to the water supply:
</P>
<P>(1) Water must be adequate for the operations and must be derived from an adequate source;
</P>
<P>(2) Running water at a suitable temperature, and under suitable pressure as needed, must be provided in all areas where required for the manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding of animal food, for the cleaning of equipment, utensils, and animal food-packaging materials, or for employee hand-washing facilities;
</P>
<P>(3) Water that contacts animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, or animal food-packaging materials must be safe for its intended use; and
</P>
<P>(4) Water may be reused for washing, rinsing, or conveying animal food if it does not increase the level of contamination of the animal food.
</P>
<P>(b) Plumbing must be designed, installed, and maintained to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry adequate quantities of water to required locations throughout the plant;
</P>
<P>(2) Properly convey sewage and liquid disposable waste from the plant;
</P>
<P>(3) Avoid being a source of contamination to animal food, water supplies, equipment, or utensils, or creating an unsanitary condition;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide adequate floor drainage in all areas where floors are subject to flooding-type cleaning or where normal operations release or discharge water or other liquid waste on the floor; and
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure that there is no backflow from, or cross-connection between, piping systems that discharge waste water or sewage and piping systems that carry water for animal food or animal food manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(c) Sewage and liquid disposal waste must be disposed of through an adequate sewerage system or through other adequate means.
</P>
<P>(d) Each plant must provide employees with adequate, readily accessible toilet facilities. Toilet facilities must be kept clean and must not be a potential source of contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, or animal food-packaging materials.
</P>
<P>(e) Each plant must provide hand-washing facilities designed to ensure that an employee's hands are not a potential source of contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, or animal food-packaging materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.22" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.22   Equipment and utensils.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following apply to plant equipment and utensils used in manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding animal food:
</P>
<P>(1) All plant equipment and utensils, including equipment and utensils that do not come in contact with animal food, must be designed and constructed of such material and workmanship to be adequately cleanable, and must be properly maintained;
</P>
<P>(2) Equipment and utensils must be designed, constructed, and used appropriately to avoid the adulteration of animal food with non-food grade lubricants, fuel, metal fragments, contaminated water, or any other contaminants;
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment must be installed so as to facilitate the cleaning and maintenance of the equipment and adjacent spaces;
</P>
<P>(4) Animal food-contact surfaces must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Made of materials that withstand the environment of their use and the action of animal food, and, if applicable, the action of cleaning compounds, cleaning procedures, and sanitizing agents;
</P>
<P>(ii) Made of nontoxic materials; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintained to protect animal food from being contaminated.
</P>
<P>(b) Holding, conveying, manufacturing, and processing systems, including gravimetric, pneumatic, closed, and automated systems, must be designed, constructed, and maintained in a way to protect against the contamination of animal food.
</P>
<P>(c) Each freezer and cold storage compartment used to hold animal food must be fitted with an accurate temperature-measuring device.
</P>
<P>(d) Instruments and controls used for measuring, regulating, or recording temperatures, pH, a<E T="52">w</E>, or other conditions that control or prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms in animal food must be accurate, precise, adequately maintained, and adequate in number for their designated uses.
</P>
<P>(e) Compressed air or other gases mechanically introduced into animal food or used to clean animal food-contact surfaces or equipment must be used in such a way to protect against the contamination of animal food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.25" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.25   Plant operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Management of the establishment must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) All operations in the manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding of animal food (including operations directed to receiving, inspecting, transporting, and segregating) are conducted in accordance with the current good manufacturing practice requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Animal food, including raw materials, other ingredients, or rework is accurately identified;
</P>
<P>(3) Animal food-packaging materials are safe and suitable;
</P>
<P>(4) The overall cleanliness of the plant is under the supervision of one or more competent individuals assigned responsibility for this function;
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate precautions are taken so that plant operations do not contribute to contamination of animal food, animal food-contact surfaces, and animal food-packaging materials;
</P>
<P>(6) Chemical, microbial, or extraneous-material testing procedures are used where necessary to identify sanitation failures or possible animal food contamination;
</P>
<P>(7) Animal food that has become adulterated is rejected, disposed of, or if appropriate, treated or processed to eliminate the adulteration. If disposed of, it must be done in a manner that protects against the contamination of other animal food; and
</P>
<P>(8) All animal food manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding is conducted under such conditions and controls as are necessary to minimize the potential for the growth of undesirable microorganisms to protect against the contamination of animal food.
</P>
<P>(b) Raw materials and other ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Must be examined to ensure that they are suitable for manufacturing and processing into animal food and must be handled under conditions that will protect against contamination and minimize deterioration. In addition:
</P>
<P>(i) Shipping containers (<I>e.g.,</I> totes, drums, and tubs) and bulk vehicles holding raw materials and other ingredients must be examined upon receipt to determine whether contamination or deterioration of animal food has occurred;
</P>
<P>(ii) Raw materials must be cleaned as necessary to minimize contamination; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Raw materials and other ingredients, including rework, must be stored in containers designed and constructed in a way that protects against contamination and deterioration, and held under conditions, <I>e.g.,</I> appropriate temperature and relative humidity, that will minimize the potential for growth of undesirable microorganisms and prevent the animal food from becoming adulterated;
</P>
<P>(2) Susceptible to contamination with mycotoxins or other natural toxins must be evaluated and used in a manner that does not result in animal food that can cause injury or illness to animals or humans; and
</P>
<P>(3) If frozen, must be kept frozen. If thawing is required prior to use, it must be done in a manner that minimizes the potential for the growth of undesirable microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding operations, the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Animal food must be maintained under conditions, <I>e.g.,</I> appropriate temperature and relative humidity, that will minimize the potential for growth of undesirable microorganisms and prevent the animal food from becoming adulterated during manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding;
</P>
<P>(2) Measures taken during manufacturing, processing, packing, and holding of animal food to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of undesirable microorganisms (<I>e.g.,</I> heat treating, freezing, refrigerating, irradiating, controlling pH, or controlling a<E T="52">w</E>) must be adequate to prevent adulteration of animal food;
</P>
<P>(3) Work-in-process and rework must be handled in such a way that it is protected against contamination and the growth of undesirable microorganisms;
</P>
<P>(4) Steps such as cutting, drying, defatting, grinding, mixing, extruding, pelleting, and cooling, must be performed in a way that protects against the contamination of animal food;
</P>
<P>(5) Filling, assembling, packaging, and other operations must be performed in such a way that protects against the contamination of animal food and the growth of undesirable microorganisms;
</P>
<P>(6) Animal food that relies principally on the control of water activity (a<E T="52">w</E>) for preventing the growth of undesirable microorganisms must be processed to and maintained at a safe a<E T="52">w</E> level;
</P>
<P>(7) Animal food that relies principally on the control of pH for preventing the growth of undesirable microorganisms must be monitored and maintained at the appropriate pH; and
</P>
<P>(8) When ice is used in contact with animal food, it must be made from water that is safe and must be used only if it has been manufactured in accordance with current good manufacturing practice as outlined in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.27" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.27   Holding and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Animal food held for distribution must be held under conditions that will protect against contamination and minimize deterioration, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Containers used to hold animal food before distribution must be designed, constructed of appropriate material, cleaned as necessary, and maintained to protect against the contamination of animal food; and
</P>
<P>(2) Animal food held for distribution must be held in a way that protects against contamination from sources such as trash.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling for the animal food ready for distribution must contain, when applicable, information and instructions for safely using the animal food for the intended animal species.
</P>
<P>(c) Shipping containers (<I>e.g.,</I> totes, drums, and tubs) and bulk vehicles used to distribute animal food must be examined prior to use to protect against the contamination of animal food from the container or vehicle when the facility is responsible for transporting the animal food itself or arranges with a third party to transport the animal food.
</P>
<P>(d) Animal food returned from distribution must be assessed for animal food safety to determine the appropriate disposition. Returned animal food must be identified as such and segregated until assessed.
</P>
<P>(e) Unpackaged or bulk animal food must be held in a manner that does not result in unsafe cross contamination with other animal food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3717, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.28" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.28   Holding and distribution of human food by-products for use as animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Human food by-products held for distribution as animal food must be held under conditions that will protect against contamination, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Containers and equipment used to convey or hold human food by-products for use as animal food before distribution must be designed, constructed of appropriate material, cleaned as necessary, and maintained to protect against the contamination of human food by-products for use as animal food;
</P>
<P>(2) Human food by-products for use as animal food held for distribution must be held in a way to protect against contamination from sources such as trash; and
</P>
<P>(3) During holding, human food by-products for use as animal food must be accurately identified.
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling that identifies the product by the common or usual name must be affixed to or accompany the human food by-products for use as animal food when distributed.
</P>
<P>(c) Shipping containers (<I>e.g.,</I> totes, drums, and tubs) and bulk vehicles used to distribute human food by-products for use as animal food must be examined prior to use to protect against the contamination of animal food from the container or vehicle when the facility is responsible for transporting the human food by-products for use as animal food itself or arranges with a third party to transport the human food by-products for use as animal food.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hazard Analysis and Risk-Based Preventive Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.31" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.31   Food safety plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must prepare, or have prepared, and implement a written food safety plan.
</P>
<P>(b) One or more preventive controls qualified individuals must prepare, or oversee the preparation of, the food safety plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The written food safety plan must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The written hazard analysis as required by § 507.33(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) The written preventive controls as required by § 507.34(b);
</P>
<P>(3) The written supply-chain program as required by subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The written recall plan as required by § 507.38(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(5) The written procedures for monitoring the implementation of the preventive controls as required by § 507.40(a);
</P>
<P>(6) The written corrective action procedures as required by § 507.42(a)(1); and
</P>
<P>(7) The written verification procedures as required by § 507.49(b).
</P>
<P>(d) The food safety plan required by this section is a record that is subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 12491, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.33" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.33   Hazard analysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) You must conduct a hazard analysis to identify and evaluate, based on experience, illness data, scientific reports, and other information, known or reasonably foreseeable hazards for each type of animal food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at your facility to determine whether there are any hazards requiring a preventive control; and
</P>
<P>(2) The hazard analysis must be written regardless of its outcome.
</P>
<P>(b) The hazard identification must consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Known or reasonably foreseeable hazards that include:
</P>
<P>(i) Biological hazards, including microbiological hazards such as parasites, environmental pathogens, and other pathogens;
</P>
<P>(ii) Chemical hazards, including radiological hazards, substances such as pesticide and drug residues, natural toxins, decomposition, unapproved food or color additives, and nutrient deficiencies or toxicities (such as inadequate thiamine in cat food, excessive vitamin D in dog food, and excessive copper in food for sheep); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Physical hazards (such as stones, glass, and metal fragments); and
</P>
<P>(2) Known or reasonably foreseeable hazards that may be present in the animal food for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) The hazard occurs naturally;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hazard may be unintentionally introduced; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The hazard may be intentionally introduced for purposes of economic gain.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The hazard analysis must include an evaluation of the hazards identified in paragraph (b) of this section to assess the severity of the illness or injury to humans or animals if the hazard were to occur and the probability that the hazard will occur in the absence of preventive controls.
</P>
<P>(2) The hazard evaluation required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include an evaluation of environmental pathogens whenever an animal food is exposed to the environment prior to packaging and the packaged animal food does not receive a treatment or otherwise include a control measure (such as a formulation lethal to the pathogen) that would significantly minimize the pathogen.
</P>
<P>(d) The hazard evaluation must consider the effect of the following on the safety of the finished animal food for the intended animal:
</P>
<P>(1) The formulation of the animal food;
</P>
<P>(2) The condition, function, and design of the facility and equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) Raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(4) Transportation practices;
</P>
<P>(5) Manufacturing/processing procedures;
</P>
<P>(6) Packaging activities and labeling activities;
</P>
<P>(7) Storage and distribution;
</P>
<P>(8) Intended or reasonably foreseeable use;
</P>
<P>(9) Sanitation, including employee hygiene; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other relevant factors such as the temporal (<I>e.g.,</I> weather-related) nature of some hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> levels of some natural toxins).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3717, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.34" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.34   Preventive controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) You must identify and implement preventive controls to provide assurances that any hazards requiring a preventive control will be significantly minimized or prevented and the animal food manufactured, processed, packed, or held by your facility will not be adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Preventive controls required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls at critical control points (CCPs), if there are any CCPs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls, other than those at CCPs, that are also appropriate for animal food safety.
</P>
<P>(b) Preventive controls must be written.
</P>
<P>(c) Preventive controls include, as appropriate to the facility and animal food:
</P>
<P>(1) Process controls. Process controls include procedures, practices, and processes to ensure the control of parameters during operations such as heat processing, irradiating, and refrigerating animal food. Process controls must include, as appropriate to the nature of the applicable control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(i) Parameters associated with the control of the hazard; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum or minimum value, or combination of values, to which any biological, chemical, or physical parameter must be controlled to significantly minimize or prevent a hazard requiring a process control.
</P>
<P>(2) Sanitation controls. Sanitation controls include procedures, practices, and processes to ensure that the facility is maintained in a sanitary condition adequate to significantly minimize or prevent hazards such as environmental pathogens and biological hazards due to employee handling. Sanitation controls must include, as appropriate to the facility and the animal food, procedures, practices, and processes for the:
</P>
<P>(i) Cleanliness of animal food-contact surfaces, including animal food-contact surfaces of utensils and equipment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevention of cross-contamination from insanitary objects and from personnel to animal food, animal food-packaging material, and other animal food-contact surfaces and from raw product to processed product.
</P>
<P>(3) Supply-chain controls. Supply-chain controls include the supply-chain program as required by subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) A recall plan as required by § 507.38; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other preventive controls. These include any other procedures, practices, and processes necessary to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. Examples of other controls include hygiene training and other current good manufacturing practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.36" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.36   Circumstances in which the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a manufacturing/processing facility is not required to implement a preventive control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a manufacturer/processor, you are not required to implement a preventive control when you identify a hazard requiring a preventive control (identified hazard) and any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(1) You determine and document that the type of animal food could not be consumed without application of an appropriate control;
</P>
<P>(2) You rely on your customer who is subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in this subpart to ensure that the identified hazard will be significantly minimized or prevented; and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the animal food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the animal food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance, subject to the requirements of § 507.37, that the customer has established and is following procedures (identified in the written assurance) that will significantly minimize or prevent the identified hazard (except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section);
</P>
<P>(3) You rely on your customer who is not subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in this subpart to provide assurance it is manufacturing, processing, or preparing the animal food in accordance with applicable animal food safety requirements and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the animal food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the animal food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance that it is manufacturing, processing, or preparing the animal food in accordance with applicable animal food safety requirements;
</P>
<P>(4) You rely on your customer to provide assurance that the animal food will be processed to control the identified hazard by an entity in the distribution chain subsequent to the customer and you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose in documents accompanying the animal food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the animal food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually obtain from your customer written assurance, subject to the requirements of § 507.37, that your customer:
</P>
<P>(A) Will disclose in documents accompanying the animal food, in accordance with the practice of the trade, that the animal food is “not processed to control [identified hazard]”; and
</P>
<P>(B) Will only sell to another entity that agrees, in writing, it will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Follow procedures (identified in a written assurance) that will significantly minimize or prevent the identified hazard (if the entity is subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in subpart C of this part), except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, or manufacture, process, or prepare the animal food in accordance with applicable animal food safety requirements (if the entity is not subject to the requirements for hazard analysis and risk-based preventive controls in subpart C of this part); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Obtain a similar written assurance from the entity's customer, subject to the requirements of § 507.37, as in paragraphs (a)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(5) You have established, documented, and implemented a system that ensures control, at a subsequent distribution step, of the hazards in the animal food you distribute and you document the implementation of that system.
</P>
<P>(b) You must document any circumstance specified in paragraph (a) of this section that applies to you, including:
</P>
<P>(1) A determination in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section that the type of animal food could not be consumed without application of an appropriate control;
</P>
<P>(2) The annual written assurance from your customer in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) The annual written assurance from your customer in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) The annual written assurance from your customer in accordance with paragraph (a)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Your system, in accordance with paragraph (a)(5) of this section, that ensures control, at a subsequent distribution step, of the hazards in the animal food you distribute.
</P>
<P>(c) For the written assurance required by paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, if your customer has determined that the identified hazard in paragraph (a) of this section is not a hazard in the animal food intended for use for a specific animal species, your customer's written assurance may provide this determination (including animal species and why the identified hazard is not a hazard) instead of providing assurance of procedures established and followed that will significantly minimize or prevent the identified hazard.
</P>
<P>(d) For the written assurance required by paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, if the entity in the distribution chain subsequent to your customer is subject to subpart C of this part and has determined that the identified hazard in paragraph (a) of this section is not a hazard in the animal food intended for use for a specific animal species, that entity's written assurance may provide this determination (including animal species and why the identified hazard is not a hazard) instead of providing assurance that the identified hazard will be significantly minimized or prevented.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3717, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.37" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.37   Provision of assurances required under § 507.36(a)(2), (3), and (4).</HEAD>
<P>A facility that provides a written assurance under § 507.36(a)(2), (3), or (4) must act consistently with the assurance and document its actions taken to satisfy the written assurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.38" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.38   Recall plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For animal food with a hazard requiring a preventive control you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish a written recall plan for the animal food; and
</P>
<P>(2) Assign responsibility for performing all procedures in the recall plan.
</P>
<P>(b) The written recall plan must include procedures that describe the steps to perform the following actions as appropriate to the facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly notify direct consignees about the animal food being recalled, including how to return or dispose of the affected animal food;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the public about any hazard presented by the animal food when appropriate to protect human and animal health;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct effectiveness checks to verify the recall has been carried out; and
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriately dispose of recalled animal food, <I>e.g.,</I> through reprocessing, reworking, diverting to another use that would not present a safety concern, or destroying the animal food.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.39" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.39   Preventive control management components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the preventive controls required under § 507.34 are subject to the following preventive control management components as appropriate to ensure the effectiveness of the preventive controls, taking into account the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitoring in accordance with § 507.40;
</P>
<P>(2) Corrective actions and corrections in accordance with § 507.42; and
</P>
<P>(3) Verification in accordance with § 507.45.
</P>
<P>(b) The supply-chain program established in subpart E of this part is subject to the following preventive control management components as appropriate to ensure the effectiveness of the supply-chain program, taking into account the nature of the hazard controlled before receipt of the raw material or other ingredient:
</P>
<P>(1) Corrective actions and corrections in accordance with § 507.42, taking into account the nature of any supplier non-conformance;
</P>
<P>(2) Review of records in accordance with § 507.49(a)(4)(ii); and
</P>
<P>(3) Reanalysis in accordance with § 507.50.
</P>
<P>(c) The recall plan established in § 507.38 is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.40" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.40   Monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>As appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system you must:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish and implement written procedures, including the frequency with which they are to be performed, for monitoring the preventive controls; and
</P>
<P>(b) Monitor the preventive controls with adequate frequency to provide assurance that they are consistently performed.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) You must document the monitoring of preventive controls in accordance with this section in records that are subject to verification in accordance with § 507.45(a)(2) and records review in accordance with § 507.49(a)(4)(i);
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Records of refrigeration temperature during storage of animal food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin production by, pathogens may be affirmative records demonstrating temperature is controlled or exception records demonstrating loss of temperature control; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Exception records may be adequate in circumstances other than monitoring of refrigeration temperature.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.42" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.42   Corrective actions and corrections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As appropriate to the nature of the hazard and the nature of the preventive control, except as provided by paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) You must establish and implement written corrective action procedures that must be taken if preventive controls are not properly implemented, including procedures to address, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The presence of a pathogen or appropriate indicator organism in animal food detected as a result of product testing conducted in accordance with § 507.49(a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The presence of an environmental pathogen or appropriate indicator organism detected through the environmental monitoring conducted in accordance with § 507.49(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) The corrective action procedures must describe the steps to be taken to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate action is taken to identify and correct a problem that has occurred with implementation of a preventive control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate action is taken when necessary, to reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur;
</P>
<P>(iii) All affected animal food is evaluated for safety; and
</P>
<P>(iv) All affected animal food is prevented from entering into commerce if you cannot ensure the affected animal food is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as provided by paragraph (c) of this section, you are subject to the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section if any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(i) A preventive control is not properly implemented and a corrective action procedure has not been established;
</P>
<P>(ii) A preventive control, combination of preventive controls, or the food safety plan as a whole is found to be ineffective; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A review of records in accordance with § 507.49(a)(4) finds that the records are not complete, the activities conducted did not occur in accordance with the food safety plan, or appropriate decisions were not made about corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(2) If any of the circumstances listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section apply, you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Take corrective action to identify and correct the problem;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur;
</P>
<P>(iii) Evaluate all affected animal food for safety;
</P>
<P>(iv) As necessary, prevent affected animal food from entering commerce as would be done following the corrective action procedure under paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) When appropriate, reanalyze the food safety plan in accordance with § 507.50 to determine whether modification of the food safety plan is required.
</P>
<P>(c) You do not need to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) You take action, in a timely manner, to identify and correct conditions and practices that are not consistent with the sanitation controls in § 507.34(c)(2)(i) or (ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) You take action, in a timely manner, to identify and correct a minor and isolated problem that does not directly impact product safety.
</P>
<P>(d) All corrective actions (and, when appropriate, corrections) taken in accordance with this section must be documented in records. These records are subject to verification in accordance with § 507.45(a)(3) and records review in accordance with § 507.49(a)(4)(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.45" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.45   Verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Verification activities must include, as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(1) Validation in accordance with § 507.47;
</P>
<P>(2) Verification that monitoring is being conducted as required by § 507.39 (and in accordance with § 507.40);
</P>
<P>(3) Verification that appropriate decisions about corrective actions are being made as required by § 507.39 (and in accordance with § 507.42);
</P>
<P>(4) Verification of implementation and effectiveness in accordance with § 507.49; and
</P>
<P>(5) Reanalysis in accordance with § 507.50.
</P>
<P>(b) All verification activities conducted in accordance with this section must be documented in records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.47" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.47   Validation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must validate that the preventive controls identified and implemented in accordance with § 507.34 are adequate to control the hazard as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system.
</P>
<P>(b) The validation of the preventive controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Must be performed (or overseen) by a preventive controls qualified individual:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Prior to implementation of the food safety plan; or
</P>
<P>(B) When necessary to demonstrate the control measures can be implemented as designed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Within 90 calendar days after production of the applicable animal food first begins; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 90 calendar days after production of the applicable animal food first begins;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a change to a control measure or combination of control measures could impact whether the control measure or combination of control measures, when properly implemented, will effectively control the hazards; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever a reanalysis of the food safety plan reveals the need to do so.
</P>
<P>(2) Must include obtaining and evaluating scientific and technical evidence (or, when such evidence is not available or is inadequate, conducting studies) to determine whether the preventive controls, when properly implemented, will effectively control the hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) You do not need to validate:
</P>
<P>(1) The sanitation controls in § 507.34(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) The recall plan in § 507.38;
</P>
<P>(3) The supply-chain program in subpart E of this part; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other preventive controls, if the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification that validation is not applicable based on factors such as the nature of the hazard, and the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3718, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.49" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.49   Verification of implementation and effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must verify that the preventive controls are consistently implemented and are effectively and significantly minimizing or preventing the hazards. To do so, you must conduct activities that include the following, as appropriate to the facility, the animal food, and the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system:
</P>
<P>(1) Calibration of process monitoring and verification instruments (or checking them for accuracy);
</P>
<P>(2) Product testing for a pathogen (or appropriate indicator organism) or other hazard;
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental monitoring, for an environmental pathogen or for an appropriate indicator organism, if contamination of an animal food with an environmental pathogen is a hazard requiring a preventive control, by collecting and testing environmental samples; and
</P>
<P>(4) Review of the following records within the specified timeframes, by (or under the oversight of) a preventive controls qualified individual, to ensure the records are complete, the activities reflected in the records occurred in accordance with the food safety plan, the preventive controls are effective, and appropriate decisions were made about corrective actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring and corrective action records within 7-working days after the records are created or within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 7-working days; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of calibration, testing (<I>e.g.,</I> product testing, environmental monitoring), and supplier and supply-chain verification activities, and other verification activities within a reasonable time after the records are created; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other activities appropriate for verification of implementation and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(b) As appropriate to the facility, the food, the nature of the preventive control, and the role of the preventive control in the facility's food safety system, you must establish and implement written procedures for the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) The method and frequency of calibrating process monitoring instruments and verification instruments (or checking them for accuracy) as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Product testing as required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Procedures for product testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be scientifically valid;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the test microorganism(s) or other analyte(s);
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the procedures for identifying samples, including their relationship to specific lots of product;
</P>
<P>(iv) Include the procedures for sampling, including the number of samples and the sampling frequency;
</P>
<P>(v) Identify the test(s) conducted, including the analytical method(s) used;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify the laboratory conducting the testing; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Include the corrective action procedures required by § 507.42(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental monitoring as required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Procedures for environmental monitoring must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be scientifically valid;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the test microorganism(s);
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the locations from which samples will be collected and the number of sites to be tested during routine environmental monitoring. The number and location of sampling sites must be adequate to determine whether preventive controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify the timing and frequency for collecting and testing samples. The timing and frequency for collecting and testing samples must be adequate to determine whether preventive controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(v) Identify the test(s) conducted, including the analytical method(s) used;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify the laboratory conducting the testing; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Include the corrective action procedures required by § 507.42(a)(1)(ii).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.50" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.50   Reanalysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food safety plan as a whole at least once every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(b) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food safety plan as a whole, or the applicable portion of the food safety plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever a significant change in the activities conducted at your facility creates a reasonable potential for a new hazard or creates a significant increase in a previously identified hazard;
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever you become aware of new information about potential hazards associated with the animal food;
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever appropriate after an unanticipated animal food safety problem in accordance with § 507.42(b); and
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever you find that a preventive control, combination of preventive controls, or the food safety plan as a whole is ineffective.
</P>
<P>(c) You must complete the reanalysis required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and validate, as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system, any additional preventive controls needed to address the hazard identified:
</P>
<P>(1) Before any change in activities (including any change in preventive control) at the facility is operative; or
</P>
<P>(2) When necessary to demonstrate the control measures can be implemented as designed:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 90 calendar days after production of the applicable animal food first begins; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 90 calendar days after production of the applicable animal food first begins.
</P>
<P>(d) You must revise the written food safety plan if a significant change in the activities conducted at your facility creates a reasonable potential for a new hazard or a significant increase in a previously identified hazard, or document the basis for the conclusion that no revisions are needed.
</P>
<P>(e) A preventive controls qualified individual must perform (or oversee) the reanalysis.
</P>
<P>(f) You must conduct a reanalysis of the food safety plan when FDA determines it is necessary to respond to new hazards and developments in scientific understanding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3718, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.51" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.51   Modified requirements that apply to a facility solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged animal food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a facility that is solely engaged in the storage of unexposed packaged animal food stores any such refrigerated packaged animal food that requires time/temperature control to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin formation by pathogens, the facility must conduct the following activities as appropriate to ensure the effectiveness of the temperature controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish and implement temperature controls adequate to significantly minimize or prevent the growth of, or toxin formation by, pathogens;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor the temperature controls with adequate frequency to provide assurance that the temperature controls are consistently performed;
</P>
<P>(3) If there is a loss of temperature control that may impact the safety of such refrigerated packaged animal food, take appropriate corrective actions to:
</P>
<P>(i) Correct the problem and reduce the likelihood that the problem will recur;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate all affected animal food for safety; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Prevent the animal food from entering commerce, if you cannot ensure the affected animal food is not adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(4) Verify that temperature controls are consistently implemented by:
</P>
<P>(i) Calibrating temperature monitoring and recording devices (or checking them for accuracy);
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing records of calibration within a reasonable time after the records are created; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviewing records of monitoring and corrective actions taken to correct a problem with the control of temperature within 7-working days after the records are created or within a reasonable timeframe, provided that the preventive controls qualified individual prepares (or oversees the preparation of) a written justification for a timeframe that exceeds 7-working days; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish and maintain the following records:
</P>
<P>(i) Records (whether affirmative records demonstrating temperature is controlled or exception records demonstrating loss of temperature control) documenting the monitoring of temperature controls for any such refrigerated packaged animal food;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of corrective actions taken when there is a loss of temperature control that may impact the safety of any such refrigerated packaged animal food; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Records documenting the verification activities.
</P>
<P>(b) The records that a facility must establish and maintain under paragraph (a)(5) of this section are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3718, Jan. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.53" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.53   Requirements applicable to a preventive controls qualified individual and a qualified auditor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) One or more preventive controls qualified individuals must do or oversee the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Preparation of the food safety plan (§ 507.31(b));
</P>
<P>(2) Validation of the preventive controls (§ 507.47(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(3) Written justification for validation to be performed in a timeframe that exceeds the first 90 calendar days of production of the applicable animal food;
</P>
<P>(4) Determination that validation is not required (§ 507.47(c)(4));
</P>
<P>(5) Review of records (§ 507.49(a)(4));
</P>
<P>(6) Written justification for review of records of monitoring and corrective actions within a timeframe that exceeds 7-working days;
</P>
<P>(7) Reanalysis of the food safety plan (§ 507.50(d)); and
</P>
<P>(8) Determination that reanalysis can be completed, and additional preventive controls validated, as appropriate to the nature of the preventive control and its role in the facility's food safety system, in a timeframe that exceeds the first 90 calendar days of production of the applicable animal food.
</P>
<P>(b) A qualified auditor must conduct an onsite audit (§ 507.135(a)).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) To be a preventive controls qualified individual, the individual must have successfully completed training in the development and application of risk-based preventive controls at least equivalent to that received under a standardized curriculum recognized as adequate by FDA or be otherwise qualified through job experience to develop and apply a food safety system. Job experience may qualify an individual to perform these functions if such experience has provided an individual with knowledge at least equivalent to that provided through the standardized curriculum. This individual may be, but is not required to be, an employee of the facility; and
</P>
<P>(2) To be a qualified auditor, a qualified individual must have technical expertise obtained through education, training, or experience (or a combination thereof) necessary to perform the auditing function.
</P>
<P>(d) All applicable training in the development and application of risk-based preventive controls must be documented in records, including the date of the training, the type of training, and the person(s) trained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.55" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.55   Implementation records required for this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must establish and maintain the following records documenting implementation of the food safety plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation, as required by § 507.36(b), of the basis for not establishing a preventive control in accordance with § 507.36(a);
</P>
<P>(2) Records that document the monitoring of preventive controls;
</P>
<P>(3) Records that document corrective actions;
</P>
<P>(4) Records that document verification, including, as applicable, those related to:
</P>
<P>(i) Validation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Verification of monitoring;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verification of corrective actions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Calibration of process monitoring and verification instruments;
</P>
<P>(v) Product testing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Environmental monitoring;
</P>
<P>(vii) Records review; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Reanalysis;
</P>
<P>(5) Records that document the supply-chain program; and
</P>
<P>(6) Records that document applicable training for the preventive controls qualified individual and the qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(b) The records that you must establish and maintain are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Withdrawal of a Qualified Facility Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.60" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.60   Circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may withdraw a qualified facility exemption under § 507.5(d):
</P>
<P>(1) In the event of an active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak that is directly linked to the qualified facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA determines that it is necessary to protect the public (human or animal) health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak based on conditions or conduct associated with the qualified facility that are material to the safety of the animal food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at such facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Before FDA issues an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption, FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) May consider one or more other actions to protect the public (human or animal) health or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak, including, a warning letter, recall, administrative detention, suspension of registration, refusal of animal food offered for import, seizure, and injunction;
</P>
<P>(2) Must notify the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, in writing of circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw the exemption, and provide an opportunity for the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility to respond in writing, within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the notification, to FDA's notification; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must consider the actions taken by the facility to address the circumstances that may lead FDA to withdraw the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.62" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.62   Issuance of an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FDA Division Director in whose division the qualified facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Division of Compliance in the Center for Veterinary Medicine), or an FDA official senior to either such Director, must approve an order to withdraw the exemption before the order is issued.
</P>
<P>(b) Any officer or qualified employee of FDA may issue an order to withdraw the exemption after it has been approved in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA must issue an order to withdraw the exemption to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA must issue an order to withdraw the exemption in writing, signed and dated by the officer or qualified employee of FDA who is issuing the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16554, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.65" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.65   Contents of an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption under § 507.5(d) must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The date of the order;
</P>
<P>(b) The name, address, and location of the qualified facility;
</P>
<P>(c) A brief, general statement of the reasons for the order, including information relevant to one or both of the following circumstances that leads FDA to issue the order:
</P>
<P>(1) An active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak that is directly linked to the facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) Conditions or conduct associated with a qualified facility that are material to the safety of the animal food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at such facility.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement that the facility must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with subparts C and E of this part on the date that is 120 calendar days after the date of receipt of the order or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; or
</P>
<P>(2) Appeal the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order in accordance with the requirements of § 507.69.
</P>
<P>(e) A statement that a facility may request that FDA reinstate an exemption that was withdrawn by following the procedures in § 507.85;
</P>
<P>(f) The text of section 418(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(g) A statement that any informal hearing on an appeal of the order must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter, with certain exceptions described in § 507.73;
</P>
<P>(h) The mailing address, telephone number, email address, fax number, and name of the FDA Division Director in whose division the facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the same information for the Director of the Division of Compliance in the Center for Veterinary Medicine); and
</P>
<P>(i) The name and the title of the FDA representative who approved the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3718, Jan. 22, 2016; 85 FR 16554, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.67" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.67   Compliance with, or appeal of, an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you receive an order under § 507.65 to withdraw a qualified facility exemption, you must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with applicable requirements of this part within 120 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; or
</P>
<P>(2) Appeal the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order in accordance with the requirements of § 507.69.
</P>
<P>(b) Submission of an appeal, including submission of a request for an informal hearing, will not operate to delay or stay any administrative action, including enforcement action by FDA, unless the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, as a matter of discretion, determines that delay or a stay is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) If you appeal the order, and FDA confirms the order:
</P>
<P>(1) You must comply with applicable requirements of this part within 120 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order, or within a reasonable timeframe, agreed to by FDA, based on a written justification, submitted to FDA, for a timeframe that exceeds 120 calendar days from the date of receipt of the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) You are no longer subject to the requirements in § 507.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.69" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.69   Procedure for submitting an appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To appeal an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the appeal in writing to the FDA Division Director in whose division the facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Division of Compliance in the Center for Veterinary Medicine), at the mailing address, email address, or fax number identified in the order within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of confirmation of the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) Respond with particularity to the facts and issues contained in the order, including any supporting documentation upon which you rely.
</P>
<P>(b) In a written appeal of the order withdrawing an exemption provided under § 507.5(d), you may include a written request for an informal hearing as provided in § 507.71.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 3718, Jan. 22, 2016; 85 FR 16554, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.71" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.71   Procedure for requesting an informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you appeal the order, you:
</P>
<P>(1) May request an informal hearing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must submit any request for an informal hearing together with your written appeal submitted in accordance with § 507.69 within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for an informal hearing may be denied, in whole or in part, if the presiding officer determines that no genuine and substantial issue of material fact has been raised by the material submitted. If the presiding officer determines that a hearing is not justified, written notice of the determination will be given to you explaining the reason for the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.73" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.73   Requirements applicable to an informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If you request an informal hearing, and FDA grants the request:
</P>
<P>(a) The hearing will be held within 15 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed or, if applicable, within a timeframe agreed upon in writing by you and FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer may require that a hearing conducted under this subpart be completed within 1 calendar day, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA must conduct the hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The order withdrawing an exemption under §§ 507.62 and 507.65, rather than the notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides notice of opportunity for a hearing under this section and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for a hearing under this subpart must be addressed to the FDA Division Director (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Division of Compliance in the Center for Veterinary Medicine) as provided in the order withdrawing an exemption.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 507.75, rather than § 16.42(a) of this chapter, describes the FDA employees who preside at hearings under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 16.60(e) and (f) of this chapter does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer must prepare a written report of the hearing. All written material presented at the hearing will be attached to the report. The presiding officer must include as part of the report of the hearing a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue, and must include a proposed decision, with a statement of reasons. The hearing participant may review and comment on the presiding officer's report within 2 calendar days of issuance of the report. The presiding officer will then issue the final decision.
</P>
<P>(5) Section 16.80(a)(4) of this chapter does not apply to a regulatory hearing under this subpart. The presiding officer's report of the hearing and any comments on the report by the hearing participant under paragraph (c)(4) of this section are part of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(6) No party shall have the right, under § 16.119 of this chapter to petition the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for reconsideration or a stay of the presiding officer's final decision.
</P>
<P>(7) If FDA grants a request for an informal hearing on an appeal of an order withdrawing an exemption, the hearing must be conducted as a regulatory hearing under a regulation in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that § 16.95(b) does not apply to a hearing under this subpart. With respect to a regulatory hearing under this subpart, the administrative record of the hearing specified in §§ 16.80(a)(1) through (3), and (a)(5), of this chapter, and 507.73(c)(5) constitutes the exclusive record for the presiding officer's final decision. For purposes of judicial review under § 10.45 of this chapter, the record of the administrative proceeding consists of the record of the hearing and the presiding officer's final decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16554, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.75" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.75   Presiding officer for an appeal and for an informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer for an appeal, and for an informal hearing, must be an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16555, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.77" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.77   Timeframe for issuing a decision on an appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you appeal the order without requesting a hearing, the presiding officer must issue a written report that includes a final decision confirming or revoking the withdrawal by the 10th calendar day after the appeal is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) If you appeal the order and request an informal hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) If FDA grants the request for a hearing and the hearing is held, the presiding officer must provide a 2 calendar day opportunity for the hearing participants to review and submit comments on the report of the hearing under § 507.73(c)(4), and must issue a final decision within 10 calendar days after the hearing is held; or
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA denies the request for a hearing, the presiding officer must issue a final decision on the appeal confirming or revoking the withdrawal within 10 calendar days after the date the appeal is filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.80" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.80   Revocation of an order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An order to withdraw a qualified facility exemption is revoked if:
</P>
<P>(a) You appeal the order and request an informal hearing, FDA grants the request for an informal hearing, and the presiding officer does not confirm the order within the 10 calendar days after the hearing, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time; or
</P>
<P>(b) You appeal the order and request an informal hearing, FDA denies the request for an informal hearing, and FDA does not confirm the order within the 10 calendar days after the appeal is filed, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time; or
</P>
<P>(c) You appeal the order without requesting an informal hearing, and FDA does not confirm the order within the 10 calendar days after the appeal is filed, or issues a decision revoking the order within that time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.83" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.83   Final agency action.</HEAD>
<P>Confirmation of a withdrawal order by the presiding officer is considered a final agency action for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 702.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.85" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.85   Reinstatement of a qualified facility exemption that was withdrawn.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the FDA Division Director in whose division your facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Division of Compliance in the Center for Veterinary Medicine) determines that a facility has adequately resolved any problems with the conditions and conduct that are material to the safety of the animal food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at the facility and that continued withdrawal of the exemption is not necessary to protect public (human and animal) health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak, the FDA Division Director in whose division your facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Division of Compliance in the Center for Veterinary Medicine) will, on his or her own initiative or on the request of a facility, reinstate the exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) You may ask FDA to reinstate an exemption that has been withdrawn under the procedures of this subpart as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a request, in writing, to the FDA Division Director in whose division your facility is located (or, in the case of a foreign facility, the Director of the Division of Compliance in the Center for Veterinary Medicine); and
</P>
<P>(2) Present data and information to demonstrate that you have adequately resolved any problems with the conditions and conduct that are material to the safety of the animal food manufactured, processed, packed, or held at your facility, such that continued withdrawal of the exemption is not necessary to protect public (human and animal) health and prevent or mitigate a foodborne illness outbreak.
</P>
<P>(c) If your exemption was withdrawn under § 507.60(a)(1) and FDA later determines, after finishing the active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak, that the outbreak is not directly linked to your facility, FDA will reinstate your exemption under § 507.5(d), and FDA will notify you in writing that your exempt status has been reinstated.
</P>
<P>(d) If your exemption was withdrawn under both § 507.60(a)(1) and (2) and FDA later determines, after finishing the active investigation of a foodborne illness outbreak, that the outbreak is not directly linked to your facility, FDA will inform you of this finding and you may ask FDA to reinstate your exemption under § 507.5(d) in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 16555, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Supply-Chain Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.105" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.105   Requirement to establish and implement a supply-chain program.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Except as provided by paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, the receiving facility must establish and implement a risk-based supply-chain program for those raw materials and other ingredients for which the receiving facility has identified a hazard requiring a supply-chain-applied control.
</P>
<P>(2) A receiving facility that is an importer, is in compliance with the foreign supplier verification requirements under part 1, subpart L of this chapter, and has documentation of verification activities conducted under § 1.506(e) of this chapter (which provides assurance that the hazards requiring a supply-chain-applied control for the raw material or other ingredient have been significantly minimized or prevented) need not conduct supplier verification activities for that raw material or other ingredient.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements in this subpart do not apply to animal food that is supplied for research or evaluation use, provided that such animal food:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not intended for retail sale and is not sold or distributed to the public;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is labeled with the statement “Animal food for research or evaluation use”;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is supplied in a small quantity that is consistent with a research, analysis, or quality assurance purpose, the animal food is used only for this purpose, and any unused quantity is properly disposed of; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is accompanied with documents, in accordance with the practice of the trade, stating that the animal food will be used for research or evaluation purposes and cannot be sold or distributed to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) The supply-chain program must be written.
</P>
<P>(c) When a supply-chain-applied control is applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier (<I>e.g.,</I> when a non-supplier applies controls to certain produce (<I>i.e.,</I> produce covered by part 112 of this chapter), because growing, harvesting, and packing activities are under different management), the receiving facility must:
</P>
<P>(1) Verify the supply-chain-applied control; or
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain documentation of an appropriate verification activity from another entity, review and assess the entity's applicable documentation, and document that review and assessment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.110   General requirements applicable to a supply-chain program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The supply-chain program must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Using approved suppliers as required by § 507.120;
</P>
<P>(2) Determining appropriate supplier verification activities (including determining the frequency of conducting the activity) as required by § 507.125;
</P>
<P>(3) Conducting supplier verification activities as required by §§ 507.130 and 507.135;
</P>
<P>(4) Documenting supplier verification activities as required by § 507.175; and
</P>
<P>(5) When applicable, verifying a supply-chain-applied control applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier and documenting that verification as required by § 507.175, or obtaining documentation of an appropriate verification activity from another entity, reviewing and assessing that documentation, and documenting the review and assessment as required by § 507.175.
</P>
<P>(b) The following are appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients:
</P>
<P>(1) Onsite audits;
</P>
<P>(2) Sampling and testing of the raw material or other ingredient;
</P>
<P>(3) Review of the supplier's relevant food safety records; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other appropriate supplier verification activities based on supplier performance and the risk associated with the raw material or other ingredient.
</P>
<P>(c) The supply-chain program must provide assurance that a hazard requiring a supply-chain-applied control has been significantly minimized or prevented.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Except as provided by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, in approving suppliers and determining the appropriate supplier verification activities and the frequency with which they are conducted, the following must be considered:
</P>
<P>(i) The hazard analysis of the animal food, including the nature of the hazard controlled before receipt of the raw material or other ingredient, applicable to the raw material and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity or entities that will be applying controls for the hazards requiring a supply-chain-applied control;
</P>
<P>(iii) Supplier performance, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The supplier's procedures, processes, and practices related to the safety of the raw material and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(B) Applicable FDA food safety regulations and information relevant to the supplier's compliance with those regulations, including an FDA warning letter or import alert relating to the safety of animal food and other FDA compliance actions related to animal food safety (or, when applicable, relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States, and information relevant to the supplier's compliance with those laws and regulations); and
</P>
<P>(C) The supplier's food safety history relevant to the raw materials or other ingredients that the receiving facility receives from the supplier, including available information about results from testing raw materials or other ingredients for hazards, audit results relating to the safety of the animal food, and responsiveness of the supplier in correcting problems; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other factors as appropriate and necessary, such as storage and transportation practices.
</P>
<P>(2) Considering supplier performance can be limited to the supplier's compliance history as required by paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, if the supplier is:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualified facility as defined by § 507.3;
</P>
<P>(ii) A farm that grows produce and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A shell egg producer that is not subject to the requirements of part 118 of this chapter because it has less than 3,000 laying hens.
</P>
<P>(e) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of a receiving facility determines through auditing, verification testing, document review, relevant consumer, customer, or other complaints, or otherwise that the supplier is not controlling hazards that the receiving facility has identified as requiring a supply-chain-applied control, the receiving facility must take and document prompt action in accordance with § 507.42 to ensure that raw materials or other ingredients from the supplier do not cause animal food that is manufactured or processed by the receiving facility to be adulterated under section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.115   Responsibilities of the receiving facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The receiving facility must approve suppliers.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided by paragraphs (a)(3) and (4) of this section, the receiving facility must determine and conduct appropriate supplier verification activities, and satisfy all documentation requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) An entity other than the receiving facility may do any of the following, provided that the receiving facility reviews and assesses the entity's applicable documentation, and documents that review and assessment:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients by the entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Document that written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients are being followed by the entity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine, conduct, or both determine and conduct, the appropriate supplier verification activities, with appropriate documentation.
</P>
<P>(4) The supplier may conduct and document sampling and testing of raw materials and other ingredients, for the hazard controlled by the supplier, as a supplier verification activity for a particular lot of product and provide such documentation to the receiving facility, provided that the receiving facility reviews and assesses that documentation, and documents that review and assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, a receiving facility may not accept any of the following as a supplier verification activity:
</P>
<P>(1) A determination by its supplier of the appropriate supplier verification activities for that supplier;
</P>
<P>(2) An audit conducted by its supplier;
</P>
<P>(3) A review by its supplier of that supplier's own relevant food safety records; or
</P>
<P>(4) The conduct by its supplier of other appropriate supplier verification activities for that supplier within the meaning of § 507.110(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this section do not prohibit a receiving facility from relying on an audit provided by its supplier when the audit of the supplier was conducted by a third-party qualified auditor in accordance with §§ 507.130(f) and 507.135.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.120" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.120   Using approved suppliers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The receiving facility must approve suppliers in accordance with the requirements of § 507.110(d), and document that approval, before receiving raw materials and other ingredients received from those suppliers;
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients must be established and followed;
</P>
<P>(2) The written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients must ensure that raw materials and other ingredients are received only from approved suppliers (or, when necessary and appropriate, on a temporary basis from unapproved suppliers whose raw materials or other ingredients are subjected to adequate verification activities before acceptance for use); and
</P>
<P>(3) Use of the written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients must be documented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.125" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.125   Determining appropriate supplier verification activities (including determining the frequency of conducting the activity).</HEAD>
<P>Appropriate supplier verification activities (including the frequency of conducting the activity) must be determined in accordance with the requirements of § 507.110(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.130" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.130   Conducting supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (c), (d), or (e) of this section, one or more of the supplier verification activities specified in § 507.110(b), as determined under § 507.110(d), must be conducted for each supplier before using the raw material or other ingredient from that supplier and periodically thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as provided by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, when a hazard in a raw material or other ingredient will be controlled by the supplier and is one for which there is a reasonable probability that exposure to the hazard will result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate supplier verification activity is an onsite audit of the supplier; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The audit must be conducted before using the raw material or other ingredient from the supplier and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section do not apply if there is a written determination that other verification activities and/or less frequent onsite auditing of the supplier provide adequate assurance that the hazards are controlled.
</P>
<P>(c) If a supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 507.3, the receiving facility does not need to comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if the receiving facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtains written assurance that the supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 507.3:
</P>
<P>(i) Before first approving the supplier for an applicable calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an annual basis thereafter, by December 31 of each calendar year, for the following calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains written assurance, at least every 2 years, that the supplier is producing the raw material or other ingredient in compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations (or, when applicable, relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States). The written assurance must include either:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the preventive controls that the supplier is implementing to control the applicable hazard in the animal food; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the facility is in compliance with State, local, county, tribal, or other applicable non-Federal food safety laws, including relevant laws and regulations of foreign countries.
</P>
<P>(d) If a supplier is a farm that grows produce and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5, the receiving facility does not need to comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for produce that the receiving facility receives from the farm as a raw material or other ingredient if the receiving facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtains written assurance that the raw material or other ingredient provided by the supplier is not subject to part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5:
</P>
<P>(i) Before first approving the supplier for an applicable calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an annual basis thereafter, by December 31 of each calendar year, for the following calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains written assurance, at least every 2 years, that the farm acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(e) If a supplier is a shell egg producer that is not subject to the requirements of part 118 of this chapter because it has less than 3,000 laying hens, the receiving facility does not need to comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if the receiving facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtains written assurance that the shell eggs produced by the supplier are not subject to part 118 because the shell egg producer has less than 3,000 laying hens:
</P>
<P>(i) Before first approving the supplier for an applicable calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an annual basis thereafter, by December 31 of each calendar year, for the following calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains written assurance, at least every 2 years, that the shell egg producer acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(f) There must not be any financial conflicts of interest that influence the results of the verification activities listed in § 507.110(b) and payment must not be related to the results of the activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 56337, Sept. 17, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 12491, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.135" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.135   Onsite audit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An onsite audit of a supplier must be performed by a qualified auditor.
</P>
<P>(b) If the raw material or other ingredient at the supplier is subject to one or more FDA food safety regulations, an onsite audit must consider such regulations and include a review of the supplier's written plan (<I>e.g.,</I> Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan or other food safety plan), if any, and its implementation, for the hazard being controlled (or, when applicable, an onsite audit may consider relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The following may be substituted for an onsite audit, provided that the inspection was conducted within 1 year of the date that the onsite audit would have been required to be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) The written results of an appropriate inspection of the supplier for compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations by FDA, by representatives of other Federal Agencies (such as the United States Department of Agriculture), or by representatives of State, local, tribal, or territorial agencies; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a foreign supplier, the written results of an inspection by FDA or the food safety authority of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) For inspections conducted by the food safety authority of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or determined to be equivalent, the animal food that is the subject of the onsite audit must be within the scope of the official recognition or equivalence determination, and the foreign supplier must be in, and under the regulatory oversight of, such country.
</P>
<P>(d) If the onsite audit is solely conducted to meet the requirements of this subpart by an audit agent of a certification body that is accredited in accordance with regulations in part 1, subpart M of this chapter, the audit is not subject to the requirements in those regulations.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.175" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.175   Records documenting the supply-chain program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The records documenting the supply-chain program are subject to the requirements of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The receiving facility must review the records listed in paragraph (c) of this section in accordance with § 507.49(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) The receiving facility must document the following in records as applicable to its supply-chain program:
</P>
<P>(1) The written supply-chain program;
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation that a receiving facility that is an importer is in compliance with the foreign supplier verification program requirements under part 1, subpart L of this chapter, including documentation of verification activities conducted under § 1.506(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of the approval of a supplier;
</P>
<P>(4) Written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(5) Documentation demonstrating use of the written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(6) Documentation of the determination of the appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(7) Documentation of the conduct of an onsite audit. This documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the supplier subject to the onsite audit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of audit procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) The dates the audit was conducted;
</P>
<P>(iv) The conclusions of the audit;
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the audit; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Documentation that the audit was conducted by a qualified auditor;
</P>
<P>(8) Documentation of sampling and testing conducted as a supplier verification activity. This documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the raw material or other ingredient tested (including lot number, as appropriate) and the number of samples tested;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the test(s) conducted, including the analytical method(s) used;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date(s) on which the test(s) were conducted and the date of the report;
</P>
<P>(iv) The results of the testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken in response to detection of hazards; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Information identifying the laboratory conducting the testing;
</P>
<P>(9) Documentation of the review of the supplier's relevant food safety records. This documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the supplier whose records were reviewed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date(s) of review;
</P>
<P>(iii) The general nature of the records reviewed;
</P>
<P>(iv) The conclusions of the review; and
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken in response to significant deficiencies identified during the review;
</P>
<P>(10) Documentation of other appropriate supplier verification activities based on the supplier performance and the risk associated with the raw material or other ingredient;
</P>
<P>(11) Documentation of any determination that verification activities other than an onsite audit, and/or less frequent onsite auditing of a supplier, provide adequate assurance that the hazards are controlled when a hazard in a raw material or other ingredient will be controlled by the supplier and is one for which there is a reasonable probability that exposure to the hazard will result in serious adverse health consequences or death to humans or animals;
</P>
<P>(12) The following documentation of an alternative verification activity for a supplier that is a qualified facility:
</P>
<P>(i) The written assurance that the supplier is a qualified facility as defined by § 507.3; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The written assurance that the supplier is producing the raw material or other ingredient in compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations (or, when applicable, relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States);
</P>
<P>(13) The following documentation of an alternative verification activity for a supplier that is a farm that supplies a raw material or other ingredient and is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) The written assurance that supplier is not a covered farm under part 112 of this chapter in accordance with § 112.4(a), or in accordance with §§ 112.4(b) and 112.5; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The written assurance that the farm acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose food safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States);
</P>
<P>(14) The following documentation of an alternative verification activity for a supplier that is a shell egg producer that is not subject to the requirements established in part 118 of this chapter because it has less than 3,000 laying hens:
</P>
<P>(i) The written assurance that the shell eggs provided by the supplier are not subject to part 118 of this chapter because the supplier has less than 3,000 laying hens; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The written assurance that the shell egg producer acknowledges that its food is subject to section 402 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (or, when applicable, that its food is subject to relevant laws and regulations of a country whose safety system FDA has officially recognized as comparable or has determined to be equivalent to that of the United States);
</P>
<P>(15) The written results of an appropriate inspection of the supplier for compliance with applicable FDA food safety regulations by FDA, by representatives of other Federal Agencies (such as the United States Department of Agriculture), or by representatives from State, local, tribal, or territorial agencies, or the food safety authority of another country when the results of such an inspection is substituted for an onsite audit;
</P>
<P>(16) Documentation of actions taken with respect to supplier non-conformance;
</P>
<P>(17) Documentation of verification of a supply-chain-applied control applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier; and
</P>
<P>(18) When applicable, documentation of the receiving facility's review and assessment of:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicable documentation from an entity other than the receiving facility that written procedures for receiving raw materials and other ingredients are being followed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Applicable documentation, from an entity other than the receiving facility, of the determination of the appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(iii) Applicable documentation, from an entity other than the receiving facility, of conducting the appropriate supplier verification activities for raw materials and other ingredients;
</P>
<P>(iv) Applicable documentation, from its supplier, of:
</P>
<P>(A) The results of sampling and testing conducted by the supplier; or
</P>
<P>(B) The results of an audit conducted by a third-party qualified auditor in accordance with §§ 507.130(f) and 507.135; and
</P>
<P>(v) Applicable documentation, from an entity other than the receiving facility, of verification activities when a supply-chain-applied control is applied by an entity other than the receiving facility's supplier.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Requirements Applying to Records That Must Be Established and Maintained</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.200   Records subject to the requirements of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, all records required by this part are subject to all requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Records obtained by FDA in accordance with this part are subject to the disclosure requirements under part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) All records required by this part must be made promptly available to a duly authorized representative of the Secretary of Health and Human Services for official review and copying upon oral or written request.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of § 507.206 apply only to the written food safety plan.
</P>
<P>(e) The requirements of § 507.202(a)(2), (4), and (5) and (b) do not apply to the records required by § 507.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.202" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.202   General requirements applying to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be kept as original records, true copies (such as photocopies, pictures, scanned copies, microfilm, microfiche, or other accurate reproductions of the original records), or electronic records;
</P>
<P>(2) Contain the actual values and observations obtained during monitoring and as appropriate, during verification activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Be accurate, indelible, and legible;
</P>
<P>(4) Be created concurrently with performance of the activity documented; and
</P>
<P>(5) Be as detailed as necessary to provide history of work performed.
</P>
<P>(b) All records must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Information adequate to identify the plant or facility (<I>e.g.,</I> the name, and when necessary, the location of the plant or facility);
</P>
<P>(2) The date and, when appropriate, the time of the activity documented;
</P>
<P>(3) The signature or initials of the person performing the activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, the identity of the product and the lot code, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) Records that are established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this part and that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this part, but that also are required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations, remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.206" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.206   Additional requirements applying to the food safety plan.</HEAD>
<P>The owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility must sign and date the food safety plan upon initial completion and upon any modification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.208" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.208   Requirements for record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All records required by this part must be retained at the plant or facility for at least 2 years after the date they were prepared.
</P>
<P>(2) Records that a facility relies on during the 3-year period preceding the applicable calendar year to support its status as a qualified facility must be retained at the facility as long as necessary to support the status of a facility as a qualified facility during the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) Records that relate to the general adequacy of the equipment or processes being used by a facility, including the results of scientific studies and evaluations, must be retained by the facility for at least 2 years after their use is discontinued (<I>e.g.,</I> because the facility has updated the written food safety plan (§ 507.31) or records that document validation of the written food safety plan (§ 507.45(b))).
</P>
<P>(c) Except for the food safety plan, offsite storage of records is permitted if such records can be retrieved and provided onsite within 24 hours of request for official review. The food safety plan must remain onsite. Electronic records are considered to be onsite if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(d) If the plant or facility is closed for a prolonged period, the food safety plan may be transferred to some other reasonably accessible location but must be returned to the plant or facility within 24 hours for official review upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.212" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.212   Use of existing records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Existing records (<I>e.g.,</I> records that are kept to comply with other Federal, State, or local regulations, or for any other reason) do not need to be duplicated if they contain all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this subpart. Existing records may be supplemented as necessary to include all of the required information and satisfy the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The information required by this part does not need to be kept in one set of records. If existing records contain some of the required information, any new information required by this part may be kept either separately or combined with the existing records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 507.215" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.4.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.215   Special requirements applicable to a written assurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any written assurance required by this part must contain the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Effective date;
</P>
<P>(2) Printed names and signatures of authorized officials;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicable assurance under:
</P>
<P>(i) § 507.36(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(ii) § 507.36(a)(3);
</P>
<P>(iii) § 507.36(a)(4);
</P>
<P>(iv) § 507.130(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(v) § 507.130(d)(2); or
</P>
<P>(vi) § 507.130(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) A written assurance required under § 507.36(a)(2), (3) or (4) must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Acknowledgement that the facility that provides the written assurance assumes legal responsibility to act consistently with the assurance and document its actions taken to satisfy the written assurance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provision that if the assurance is terminated in writing by either entity, responsibility for compliance with the applicable provisions of this part reverts to the manufacturer/processor as of the date of termination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="509" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 509—UNAVOIDABLE CONTAMINANTS IN ANIMAL FOOD AND FOOD-PACKAGING MATERIAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 336, 342, 346, 346a, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 509 appear at 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 509.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 509.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of terms contained in section 201 of the act are applicable to such terms when used in this part unless modified in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A <I>naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance</I> is a poisonous or deleterious substance that is an inherent natural constituent of a food and is not the result of environmental, agricultural, industrial, or other contamination.
</P>
<P>(d) An <I>added poisonous or deleterious substance</I> is a poisonous or deleterious substance that is not a naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance. When a naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance is increased to abnormal levels through mishandling or other intervening acts, it is an added poisonous or deleterious substance to the extent of such increase.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Food</I> includes pet food, animal feed, and substances migrating to food from food-contact articles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 509.4" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 509.4   Establishment of tolerances, regulatory limits, and action levels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When appropriate under the criteria of § 509.6, a tolerance for an added poisonous or deleterious substance, which may be a food additive, may be established by regulation in subpart B of this part under the provisions of section 406 of the act. A tolerance may prohibit any detectable amount of the substance in food.
</P>
<P>(b) When appropriate under the criteria of § 509.6, and under section 402(a)(1) of the act, a regulatory limit for an added poisonous or deleterious substance, which may be a food additive, may be established by regulation in subpart C of this part under the provisions of sections 402(a)(1) and 701(a) of the act. A regulatory limit may prohibit any detectable amount of the substance in food. The regulatory limit established represents the level at which food is adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) When appropriate under the criteria of § 509.6, an action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance, which may be a food additive, may be established to define a level of contamination at which a food may be regarded as adulterated. 
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever an action level is established or changed, a notice shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as soon as practicable thereafter. The notice shall call attention to the material supporting the action level which shall be on file with the Dockets Management Staff before the notice is published. The notice shall invite public comment on the action level.
</P>
<P>(d) A regulation may be established in subpart D of this part to identify a food containing a naturally occurring poisonous or deleterious substance which will be deemed to be adulterated under section 402(a)(1) of the act. These regulations do not constitute a complete list of such foods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 20786, May 21, 1990; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 509.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 509.5   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition, may issue a proposal to establish, revoke, or amend a regulation under this part. Any such petition shall include an adequate factual basis to support the petition, shall be in the form set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter, and will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for comment if it contains reasonable grounds for the proposed regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 18280, Apr. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 509.6" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 509.6   Added poisonous or deleterious substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Use of an added poisonous or deleterious substance, other than a pesticide chemical, that is also a food additive will be controlled by a regulation issued under section 409 of the act when possible. When such a use cannot be approved under the criteria of section 409 of the act, or when the added poisonous or deleterious substance is not a food additive, a tolerance, regulatory limit, or action level may be established pursuant to the criteria in paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this section. Residues resulting from the use of an added poisonous or deleterious substance that is also a pesticide chemical will ordinarily be controlled by a tolerance established in a regulation issued under sections 406, 408, or 409 of the act by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). When such a regulation has not been issued, an action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance that is also a pesticide chemical may be established by the Food and Drug Administration. The Food and Drug Administration will request EPA to recommend such an action level pursuant to the criteria established in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) A tolerance for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The substance cannot be avoided by good manufacturing practice.
</P>
<P>(2) The tolerance established is sufficient for the protection of the public health, taking into account the extent of which the presence of the substance cannot be avoided and the other ways in which the consumer may be affected by the same or related poisonous or deleterious substances.
</P>
<P>(3) No technological or other changes are foreseeable in the near future that might affect the appropriateness of the tolerance established. Examples of changes that might affect the appropriateness of the tolerance include anticipated improvements in good manufacturing practice that would change the extent to which use of the substance is unavoidable and anticipated studies expected to provide significant new toxicological or use data.
</P>
<P>(c) A regulatory limit for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established when each of the following criteria is met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The substance cannot be avoided by current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(2) There is no tolerance established for the substance in the particular food under sections 406, 408, or 409 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(3) There is insufficient information by which a tolerance may be established for the substance under section 406 of the act or technological changes appear reasonably possible that may affect the appropriateness of a tolerance. The regulatory limit established represents the level at which food is adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(d) An action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established when the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section are met, except that technological or other changes that might affect the appropriateness of the tolerance are foreseeable in the near future. An action level for an added poisonous or deleterious substance in any food may be established at a level at which the Food and Drug Administration may regard the food as adulterated within the meaning of section 402(a)(1) of the act, without regard to the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section or in section 406 of the act. An action level will be withdrawn when a tolerance or regulatory limit for the same substance and use has been established. 
</P>
<P>(e) Tolerances will be established under authority appropriate for action levels (sections 306, 402(a), and 701(a) of the act, together with section 408 or 409 of the act, if appropriate) as well as under authority appropriate for tolerances (sections 406 and 701 of the act). In the event the effectiveness of a tolerance is stayed pursuant to section 701(e)(2) of the act by the filing of an objection, the order establishing the tolerance shall be deemed to be an order establishing an action level until final action is taken upon such objection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 20786, May 21, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 509.7" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 509.7   Unavoidability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tolerances and action levels in this part are established at levels based on the unavoidability of the poisonous or deleterious substance concerned and do not establish a permissible level of contamination where it is avoidable.
</P>
<P>(b) Compliance with tolerances, regulatory limits, and action levels does not excuse failure to observe either the requirement in section 402(a)(4) of the act that food may not be prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions or the other requirements in this chapter that food manufacturers must observe current good manufacturing practices. Evidence obtained through factory inspection or otherwise indicating such a violation renders the food unlawful, even though the amounts of poisonous or deleterious substances are lower than the currently established tolerances, regulatory limits, or action levels. The manufacturer of food must at all times utilize quality control procedures which will reduce contamination to the lowest level currently feasible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 20786, May 21, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 509.15" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 509.15   Use of polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) in establishments manufacturing food-packaging materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) represent a class of toxic industrial chemicals manufactured and sold under a variety of trade names, including: Aroclor (United States); Phenoclor (France); Colphen (Germany); and Kanaclor (Japan). PCB's are highly stable, heat resistant, and nonflammable chemicals. Industrial uses of PCB's include, or did include in the past, their use as electrical transformer and capacitor fluids, heat transfer fluids, hydraulic fluids, and plasticizers, and in formulations of lubricants, coatings, and inks. Their unique physical and chemical properties and widespread, uncontrolled industrial applications have caused PCB's to be a persistent and ubiquitous contaminant in the environment, causing the contamination of certain foods. In addition, incidents have occurred in which PCB's have directly contaminated animal feeds as a result of industrial accidents (leakage or spillage of PCB fluids from plant equipment). These accidents in turn caused the contamination of food products intended for human consumption (meat, milk and eggs). Investigations by the Food and Drug Administration have revealed that a significant percentage of paper food-packaging material contains PCB's which can migrate to the packaged food. The origin of PCB's in such material is not fully understood. Reclaimed fibers containing carbonless copy paper (contains 3 to 5 percent PCB's) have been identified as a primary source of PCB's in paper products. Some virgin paper products have also been found to contain PCB's, the source of which is generally attributed to direct contamination from industrial accidents from the use of PCB-containing equipment and machinery in food-packaging manufacturing establishments. Since PCB's are toxic chemicals, the PCB contamination of food-packaging materials as a result of industrial accidents, which can cause the PCB contamination of food, represents a hazard to public health. It is therefore necessary to place certain restrictions on the industrial uses of PCB's in establishments manufacturing food-packaging materials. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following special provisions are necessary to preclude the accidental PCB contamination of food-packaging materials: 
</P>
<P>(1) New equipment or machinery for manufacturing food-packaging materials shall not contain or use PCB's. 
</P>
<P>(2) On or before September 4, 1973, the management of establishments manufacturing food-packaging materials shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Have the heat exchange fluid used in existing equipment for manufacturing food-packaging materials sampled and tested to determine whether it contains PCB's or verify the absence of PCB's in such formulations by other appropriate means. On or before Sept. 4, 1973, any such fluid formulated with PCB's must to the fullest extent possible commensurate with current good manufacturing practices be replaced with a heat exchange fluid that does not contain PCB's. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Eliminate to the fullest extent possible commensurate with current good manufacturing practices from the establishment any other PCB-containing equipment, machinery and materials wherever there is a reasonable expectation that such articles could cause food-packaging materials to become contaminated with PCB's either as a result of normal use or as a result of accident, breakage, or other mishap. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The toxicity and other characteristics of fluids selected as PCB replacements must be adequately determined so that the least potentially hazardous replacement is used. In making this determination with respect to a given fluid, consideration should be given to (<I>a</I>) its toxicity; (<I>b</I>) the maximum quantity that could be spilled onto a given quantity of food before it would be noticed, taking into account its color and odor; (<I>c</I>) possible signaling devices in the equipment to indicate a loss of fluid, etc.; and (<I>d</I>) its environmental stability and tendency to survive and be concentrated through the food chain. The judgment as to whether a replacement fluid is sufficiently non-hazardous is to be made on an individual installation and operation basis. 
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of this section do not apply to electrical transformers and condensers containing PCB's in sealed containers. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Tolerances for Unavoidable Poisonous or Deleterious Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 509.30" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 509.30   Temporary tolerances for polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) are toxic, industrial chemicals. Because of their widespread, uncontrolled industrial applications, PCB's have become a persistent and ubiquitous contaminant in the environment. As a result, certain foods and animal feeds, principally those of animal and marine origin, contain PCB's as unavoidable, environmental contaminants. PCB's are transmitted to the food portion (meat, milk, and eggs) of food producing animals ingesting PCB contaminated animal feed. In addition, a significant percentage of paper food-packaging materials contain PCB's which may migrate to the packaged food. The source of PCB's in paper food-packaging materials is primarily of certain types of carbonless copy paper (containing 3 to 5 percent PCB's) in waste paper stocks used for manufacturing recycled paper. Therefore, temporary tolerances for residues of PCB's as unavoidable environmental or industrial contaminants are established for a sufficient period of time following the effective date of this paragraph to permit the elimination of such contaminants at the earliest practicable time. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term <I>polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's)</I> is applicable to mixtures of chlorinated biphenyl compounds, irrespective of which mixture of PCB's is present as the residue. The temporary tolerances for residues of PCB's are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) 0.2 part per million in finished animal feed for food-producing animals (except the following finished animal feeds: feed concentrates, feed supplements, and feed premixes). 
</P>
<P>(2) 2 parts per million in animal feed components of animal origin, including fishmeal and other by-products of marine origin and in finished animal feed concentrates, supplements, and premixes intended for food-producing animals. 
</P>
<P>(3) 10 parts per million in paper food-packaging material intended for or used with finished animal feed and any components intended for animal feeds. The tolerance shall not apply to paper food-packaging material separated from the food therein by a functional barrier which is impermeable to migration of PCB's. 
</P>
<P>(b) A compilation entitled “Analytical Methodology for Polychlorinated Biphenyls, February 1973” for determining compliance with the tolerances established in this section is available from the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 52821, Sept. 30, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 8460, Jan. 27, 1981; 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Regulatory Limits for Added Poisonous or Deleterious Substances [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Naturally Occurring Poisonous or Deleterious Substances [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="510" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 510—NEW ANIMAL DRUGS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 360b, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.3   Definitions and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (secs. 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended; 21 U.S.C. 321-392). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Person</I> means individuals, partnerships, corporations, and associations. 
</P>
<P>(f) The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the act shall be applicable to such terms when used in the regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>new animal drug</I> means any drug intended for use for animals other than man, including any drug intended for use in animal feed but not including such animal feed: 
</P>
<P>(1) The composition of which is such that such drug is not generally recognized, among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of animal drugs, as safe and effective for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling thereof; except that such a drug not so recognized shall not be deemed to be a <I>new animal drug</I> if at any time prior to June 25, 1938, it was subject to the Food and Drug Act of June 30, 1906, as amended, and if at such time its labeling contained the same representations concerning the conditions of its use; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The composition of which is such that such drug, as a result of investigations to determine its safety and effectiveness for use under such conditions, has become so recognized but which has not, otherwise than in such investigations, been used to a material extent or for a material time under such conditions. 
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>animal feed</I> means an article which is intended for use for food for animals other than man and which is intended for use as a substantial source of nutrients in the diet of the animal, and is not limited to a mixture intended to be the sole ration of the animal. 
</P>
<P>(i) The newness of an animal drug, including a new animal drug intended for use in or on animal feed, may arise by reason of: (1) The newness for its intended drug use of any substance of which the drug is comprised, in whole or in part, whether it be an active substance or a menstruum, excipient, carrier, coating, or other component; (2) the newness for its intended drug use of a combination of two or more substances, none of which is itself a new animal drug; (3) the newness for its intended drug use of the proportion of a substance in a combination, even though such combination containing such substance in other proportion is not a new animal drug; (4) the newness for its intended drug use in a different species of animal; (5) the newness of its intended drug use in diagnosing, curing, mitigating, treating, or preventing a disease, or to affect a structure or function of the animal body, even though such drug is not a new animal drug when used in another disease or to affect another structure or function of the body; or (6) the newness of a dosage, or method or duration of administration or application, or any other condition of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling of such drug, even though such drug or animal feed containing such drug when used in another dosage, or another method or duration of administration or application, or different condition, is not a new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Animals used only for laboratory research</I> and <I>laboratory research animals</I> mean individual animals or groups of animals intended for use and used solely for laboratory research purposes, regardless of species, and does not include animals intended to be used for any food purposes or animals intended to be kept as livestock. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Sponsor</I> means the person requesting designation for a minor-use or minor-species drug as defined in part 516 of this chapter, who must be the real party in interest of the development and the intended or actual production and sales of such drug (in this context, the sponsor may be an individual, partnership, organization, or association). Sponsor also means the person responsible for an investigation of a new animal drug. In this context, the sponsor may be an individual, partnership, corporation, or Government agency or may be a manufacturer, scientific institution, or an investigator regularly and lawfully engaged in the investigation of new animal drugs. Sponsor also means the person submitting or receiving approval for a new animal drug application (in this context, the sponsor may be an individual, partnership, organization, or association). In all contexts, the sponsor is responsible for compliance with applicable provisions of the act and regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 7517, Feb. 22, 1985; 54 FR 22741, May 26, 1989; 64 FR 69190, Dec. 10, 1999; 72 FR 41017, July 26, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.4" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.4   Biologics; products subject to license control.</HEAD>
<P>An animal drug produced and distributed in full conformance with the animal virus, serum, and toxin law of March 4, 1913 (37 Stat. 832; 21 U.S.C. 151 <I>et seq.</I> ) and any regulations issued thereunder shall not be deemed to be subject to section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.7" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.7   Consignees of new animal drugs for use in the manufacture of animal feed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A new animal drug intended for use in the manufacture of animal feed shall be deemed to be unsafe unless at the time of its removal from the establishment of a manufacturer, packer, or distributor of such drug, such manufacturer, packer, or distributor has an unrevoked written statement from the consignee of such drug, or a notice from the Secretary, to the effect that with respect to the use of such drug in animal feed the consignee: 
</P>
<P>(1) Holds a license issued under § 515.20 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) Will, if the consignee is not the user of the drug, ship such drug only to a holder of an approved application under § 515.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Where such drugs are intended for export and/or 
</P>
<P>(2) When the use of such drug in the manufacture of a finished feed has been exempted from the requirements of section 512(m) of the act under the conditions specified by regulations published in part 558 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 64 FR 63203, Nov. 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.95" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.95   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Administrative Rulings and Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.105" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.105   Labeling of drugs for use in milk-producing animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 526 of this chapter provides for new animal drugs intended for intramammary use in animals and includes conditions of use intended to prevent the contamination of milk from the use of such drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) Preparations containing antibiotics and other potent drugs labeled with directions for use in milk-producing animals will be misbranded under section 502(f)(2) of the act unless their labeling bears appropriate warnings and directions for use to avoid adulteration of milk under section 402(a)(2)(c)(ii) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is the position of the Food and Drug Administration that the labeling for such preparations should bear a clear warning that either: 
</P>
<P>(1) The article should not be administered to animals producing milk, since to do so would result in contamination of the milk; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The label should bear the following statement: “Warning: Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and for __ hours after the latest treatment must not be used for food”, the blank being filled in with the figure that the manufacturer has determined by appropriate investigation is needed to insure that the milk will not carry violative residues resulting from use of the preparation. If the use of the preparation as recommended does not result in contamination of the milk, neither of the above warning statements is required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 63 FR 32980, June 17, 1998; 64 FR 51241, Sept. 22, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.106" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.106   Labeling of antibiotic and antibiotic-containing drugs intended for use in milk-producing animals.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the labeling of an antibiotic drug included in the regulations in this chapter suggests or recommends its use in milk-producing animals, the label of such drugs shall bear either the statement “Warning: Not for use in animals producing milk, since this use will result in contamination of the milk” or the statement “Warning: Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and for __hours after the latest treatment must not be used for food”, the blank being filled in with the figure that the Commissioner has authorized the manufacturer of the drug to use. The Commissioner shall determine what such figures shall be from information submitted by the manufacturer and which the Commissioner considers is adequate to prove that period of time after the latest treatment that the milk from treated animals will contain no violative residues from use of the preparation. If the Commissioner determines from the information submitted that the use of the antibiotic drug as recommended does not result in its appearance in the milk, the Commissioner may exempt the drug from bearing either of the above warning statements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 32980, June 17, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.110   Antibiotics used in food-producing animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration in the interest of fulfilling its responsibilities with regard to protection of the public health has requested an evaluation of the public health aspects of the use of antibiotics in veterinary medical and nonmedical uses. There is particular concern with regard to the potential hazards associated with the extensive use of antibiotics administered to food-producing animals. Accordingly, an ad hoc committee on the Veterinary Medical and Nonmedical Uses of Antibiotics was established by the Food and Drug Administration to study and advise the Commissioner of Food and Drugs on the uses of antibiotics in veterinary medicine and for various nonmedical purposes as such uses may affect the enforcement of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to their safety and effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(b) Based upon an evaluation of the conclusions of said Committee and other relevant material, § 510.112 was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of August 23, 1966 (31 FR 11141), asking sponsors of drugs containing any antibiotic intended for use in food-producing animals to submit data to establish whether such antibiotic and its metabolites are present as residues in edible tissues, milk, and eggs from treated animals. The data on the residues of antibiotics in milk from intramammary infusion preparations were requested within 60 days and the data on all other products were requested within 180 days following the date of publication of § 510.112 in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) An evaluation of the data now available shows that use of many antibiotic preparations cause residues in edible products of treated animals for varying and, in some cases, for long periods of time following the last administration. Because of the accumulation of new information with regard to the development of resistance of bacteria to antibiotics, the ability of bacteria to transfer this resistance, and the development of sensitivity to antibiotics in humans, unauthorized and unsafe residues of antibiotics cannot be permitted in food obtained from treated animals. 
</P>
<P>(d) Based on evaluation of information available, including the conclusions of the aforementioned ad hoc Committee, the Commissioner concludes that antibiotic preparations intended for use in food-producing animals, other than topical and ophthalmic preparations, are not generally recognized among qualified experts as having been shown to be safe for their intended use(s) within the meaning of section 201(s) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) Therefore, all exemptions from the provisions of section 409 of the act for use of antibiotics in food-producing animals based on sanctions or approvals granted prior to enactment of the Food Additives Amendment of 1958 (Pub. L. 85-929; 72 Stat. 1784) will be revoked and the uses which are concluded to be safe will be covered by food additive regulations. On those products for which there are inadequate residue data, actions will be initiated to withdraw approval of new-drug applications under the provisions of section 505 of the act. Antibiotic preparations, other than those for topical and ophthalmic application in food-producing animals, which are not covered by food additive regulations will be subject to regulatory action within 180 days after publication of the forthcoming revocation order. 
</P>
<P>(f) Because of the variation in the period of time that antibiotic residues may remain in edible products from treated animals, all injectable, intramammary infusion, intrauterine, and oral preparations, including medicated premixes intended for use in food-producing animals, are deemed to be new drugs as well as food additives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 54 FR 18280, Apr. 28, 1989; 64 FR 403, Jan. 5, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.112" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.112   Antibiotics used in veterinary medicine and for nonmedical purposes; required data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An ad hoc committee, Committee on the Veterinary Medical and Nonmedical Uses of Antibiotics, was formed by the Food and Drug Administration to study, and advise the Commissioner on, the use of antibiotics in veterinary medicine and for various nonmedical purposes as such uses may affect the enforcement of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the safety and effectiveness of such substances. A copy of the report may be obtained from the Food and Drug Administration, Office of Public Affairs, Room 15-05, Parklawn Building, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the report of the Committee and other information, sponsors of drugs containing any antibiotic intended for use in food-producing animals shall submit data for determining whether or not such antibiotics and their metabolites are present as residues in edible tissues, milk, and eggs from treated animals; however, in the case of a drug for which such data have already been submitted and for which a regulation has been promulgated under section 409 of the act, only such data as has been accumulated since the issuance of the regulation need be submitted. 
</P>
<P>(c) The required data shall be submitted within 180 days of the date of publication of this section in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; except that in the case of data on intramammary infusion preparations the data shall be submitted within 60 days of such publication. Data demonstrating the absence in milk of residues of intramammary infusion preparations when used as directed in their labeling are needed within the 60-day period because of the importance of milk in the human diet. 
</P>
<P>(d) Regulatory proceedings including revocation of prior sanctions, or actions to suspend or amend new drug or antibiotic approvals granted prior to passage of the Food Additives Amendment of 1958 (72 Stat. 1784), may be initiated with regard to the continued marketing of any antibiotic preparation on which the required information is not submitted within the period of time prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) Questions relating to the acceptability of proposed research protocols and assay methods for determining the amount of antibiotic residues in food should be directed to the Director, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 46 FR 8460, Jan. 27, 1981; 54 FR 18280, Apr. 28, 1989; 57 FR 6475, Feb. 25, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Import Tolerances for Residues of Unapproved New Animal Drugs in Food</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 52410, Sept. 21, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 510.201" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.201   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to tolerances for residues of new animal drugs not approved or conditionally approved for use in the United States, but lawfully used in another country and present in imported, animal-derived food and food products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.202" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions of terms apply when used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>CNADA</I> means an application for conditional approval of a new animal drug submitted under section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and includes all amendments and permissible supplements.
</P>
<P><I>Import tolerance</I> means a tolerance for a residue of a new animal drug not approved or conditionally approved for use in the United States, but present in any imported edible portion of any animal.
</P>
<P><I>NADA</I> means a new animal drug application submitted under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including all amendments and permissible supplements, for approval of a new animal drug.
</P>
<P><I>Request</I> means a request to establish or amend an import tolerance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.203" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.203   Initiation of a proceeding to establish or amend an import tolerance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person may request that the Commissioner establish or amend an import tolerance. Such a request must be in the form specified in § 510.205 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may initiate a proceeding to establish or amend an import tolerance on his or her own initiative pursuant to § 10.25(b) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.205" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.205   Content and administration of a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pertinent information previously submitted to and currently retained in the files of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) may be incorporated in, and will be considered as part of, a request on the basis of specific reference to such information. If the requester refers to any nonpublic information other than its own, the requester shall obtain a written right of reference to that nonpublic information and submit the right of reference with the request. Any reference to published information offered in support of a request should be accompanied by reprints or copies of such references.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests shall be submitted and addressed to the Document Control Unit (HFV-199), Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855. Requests may be submitted in an electronic format as authorized by FDA. See FDA′s Electronic Submissions Gateway website: <I>https://www.fda.gov/industry/electronic-submissions-gateway.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Any material submitted in a foreign language shall be accompanied by a complete and accurate English translation. Translations of literature printed in a language other than English shall be accompanied by copies of the original publication.
</P>
<P>(d) The request must be dated and must be signed by the requester or by his or her authorized attorney, agent, or official and shall state the requester's correspondence address. If the requester or such authorized representative does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the requester must also furnish the name and post office address of, and the request must be countersigned by, an authorized attorney, agent, or official residing or maintaining a place of business within the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) The request must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The established name and all pertinent information concerning the new animal drug, including chemical identity and composition of the new animal drug, and its physical, chemical, and biological properties;
</P>
<P>(2) The conditions of use for the new animal drug, including the route of administration and dosage, together with all labeling, directions, and recommendations regarding the uses in countries in which the new animal drug is lawfully used;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed import tolerance(s) for residues of the new animal drug;
</P>
<P>(4) Human food safety information to support the proposed import tolerance(s) in either of the following forms:
</P>
<P>(i) If a permanent maximum residue limit (MRL) has been established by the Codex Alimentarius Committee (Codex MRL), the requester shall provide the permanent Codex MRL and monographs and reports from the Joint Expert Committee on Food Additives (JECFA) of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO) of the United Nations and/or monographs and reports from the Joint FAO/WHO Meeting on Pesticide Residues (JMPR) that support the development of the permanent Codex MRL. FDA may request additional information as needed.
</P>
<P>(ii) If no permanent Codex MRL has been established, or upon notification by FDA, the requester must provide full reports of investigations made with respect to the human food safety of the new animal drug. A request may be regarded as incomplete unless it includes full reports of adequate tests by all methods reasonably applicable to show whether or not any imported edible portion of any animal receiving the new animal drug will be safe for human consumption. The reports must include detailed data derived from appropriate animal and other biological experiments in which the methods used and the results obtained are clearly set forth, including data submitted to the appropriate regulatory authority in any country where the new animal drug is lawfully used. The request must also include a statement that all such reports have been submitted or contain an explanation of why such reports were not submitted. With respect to each nonclinical laboratory study contained in the request, the requestor must submit either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance, and how this may have impacted the study;
</P>
<P>(5) Other human food safety information as deemed necessary by the Commissioner;
</P>
<P>(6) A description of practicable methods for determining the quantity, if any, of the new animal drug in or on food, and any substance formed in or on food because of its use;
</P>
<P>(7) An environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any information required under §§ 500.80 through 500.92 of this chapter (Subpart E, Regulation of Carcinogenic Compounds Used in Food-Producing Animals), where applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) A request to amend an established import tolerance must contain information to support each proposed change. The request may omit statements made in the original request for which no change is proposed.
</P>
<P>(g) The requester may withdraw the request at any time before the notification provided for in § 510.207(a) of this chapter has been made publicly available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.206" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.206   Review of information supporting actions to establish or amend an import tolerance.</HEAD>
<P>In establishing or amending an import tolerance, the Commissioner shall rely on data sufficient to demonstrate that a proposed tolerance is safe based on similar food safety criteria used by the Commissioner to establish tolerances for applications for new animal drugs filed under section 512(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. In establishing or amending an import tolerance, the Commissioner will give appropriate consideration to the anticipated residue concentrations and conditions of use of the new animal drug specified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.207" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.207   Disclosure of information submitted in a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a request is determined to be complete for FDA's consideration, the Commissioner will provide public notification of the request containing the name of the requester and a brief description of the request in general terms. A copy of the notification will be sent to the requester at the time the information is made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) Any notification establishing, amending, or revoking an import tolerance will be made publicly available. A summary of the basis for the decision will be publicly released in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter. If FDA determines that the new animal drug referred to in the request is a new animal drug that induces cancer when ingested by people or animals, and the requester complies with the requirements of §§ 500.80 through 500.92 of this chapter (Subpart E, Regulation of Carcinogenic Compounds Used in Food-Producing Animals), the regulatory method for ascertaining the marker residue in the target tissue will be made publicly available. All information and safety data submitted with the request, or previously submitted information incorporated in, and considered as part of, a request on the basis of specific reference to such information, shall be available for public disclosure, also in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter. Trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information are exempted from release under § 20.61 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.209" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.209   Establishment, denial, or amendment of an import tolerance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an import tolerance is established or amended, the Commissioner will provide public notification of the action, which will be effective from the date of public notification. A copy of the notification will be sent to any requestor at the time the information is made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) If a request to establish or amend an import tolerance is denied, a notification of the denial will be made publicly available, and a copy of the denial letter, including the reasons for such action, will be sent to the requester.
</P>
<P>(c) A tolerance established in an approved NADA or conditionally approved CNADA will supersede an existing import tolerance. In the event the conditionally approved CNADA is not renewed or is withdrawn, or such drug does not achieve approval under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act within 5 years following the date of the conditional approval, the Agency will reinstate the import tolerance unless § 510.210(a)(1) or (a)(2) is applicable at that time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.210" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.210   Revocation of an import tolerance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner, on his or her own initiative or on the petition of an interested person, under § 10.25 of this chapter, may revoke an import tolerance if:
</P>
<P>(1) Scientific evidence shows an import tolerance to be unsafe; or
</P>
<P>(2) Information demonstrates that the use of a new animal drug under actual use conditions results in food being imported into the United States with residues exceeding the import tolerance.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner will provide public notification under § 510.207(b) that will specify the basis for the decision and will be effective at the time the information is made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) A petition for revocation must be submitted in the form specified in § 10.30 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.212" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.212   Administrative reconsideration of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may at any time, on his or her own initiative or on the petition of an interested person under part 10 of this chapter, reconsider part or all of a decision to establish, not establish, amend, or revoke an import tolerance.
</P>
<P>(b) A petition for reconsideration must be submitted in accordance with § 10.20 of this chapter and in the form specified in § 10.33 of this chapter no later than 30 days after the date of public notification of the decision involved. The Commissioner may, for good cause, permit a petition to be filed more than 30 days after public notification of the decision. The petition for reconsideration must demonstrate that relevant information contained in the administrative record was not previously or not adequately considered by the Commissioner. No new information may be included in a petition for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(c) An interested person who wishes to rely on information not included in the administrative record shall submit either a petition to amend an import tolerance under § 510.205 or to revoke an import tolerance under § 510.210 and § 10.25 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.213" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.213   Administrative stay of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may at any time, on his or her own initiative or on the request of an interested person under part 10 of this chapter, stay or extend the effective date of a decision to establish, not establish, amend, or revoke an import tolerance.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for stay must be submitted in accordance with § 10.20 of this chapter and in the form specified in § 10.35 of this chapter no later than 30 days after public notification of the decision involved. The Commissioner may, for good cause, permit a petition to be filed more than 30 days after public notification of the decision.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.301" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.301   Records and reports concerning experience with animal feeds bearing or containing new animal drugs for which an approved medicated feed mill license application is in effect.</HEAD>
<P>Records and reports of clinical and other experience with the new animal drug will be maintained and reported, appropriately identified with the new animal drug application(s) or index listing(s) to which they relate, to the Center for Veterinary Medicine in duplicate in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Immediately upon receipt by the applicant, complete records or reports covering information of the following kinds: 
</P>
<P>(1) Information concerning any mixup in the new animal drug or its labeling with another article. 
</P>
<P>(2) Information concerning any bacteriological or any significant chemical, physical, or other change or deterioration in the drug, or any failure of one or more distributed batches of the drug to meet the specifications established for it in the new animal drug application or request for determination of eligibility for indexing.
</P>
<P>(b) As soon as possible, and in any event within 15 working days of its receipt by the applicant, complete records or reports concerning any information of the following kinds: 
</P>
<P>(1) Information concerning any unexpected side effect, injury, toxicity, or sensitivity reaction or any unexpected incidence or severity thereof associated with clinical uses, studies, investigations, or tests, whether or not determined to be attributable to the new animal drug, except that this requirement shall not apply to the submission of information described in a written communication to the applicant from the Food and Drug Administration as types of information that may be submitted at other designated intervals. <I>Unexpected</I> as used in this paragraph refers to conditions or developments not previously submitted as part of the new animal drug application or in support of the index listing or not encountered during clinical trials of the drug, or conditions or developments occurring at a rate higher than shown by information previously submitted as part of the new animal drug application or in support of the index listing or at a rate higher than encountered during such clinical trials.
</P>
<P>(2) Information concerning any unusual failure of the new animal drug to exhibit its expected pharmacological activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 54 FR 18280, Apr. 28, 1989; 72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.305" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.305   Maintenance of copies of approved medicated feed mill licenses to manufacture animal feed bearing or containing new animal drugs.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant shall maintain in a single accessible location:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the approved medicated feed mill license (Form FDA 3448) on the premises of the manufacturing establishment; and
</P>
<P>(b) Approved or index listed labeling for each Type B and/or Type C feed being manufactured on the premises of the manufacturing establishment or the facility where the feed labels are generated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 63203, Nov. 19, 1999, as amended at 72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Requirements for Specific New Animal Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.410" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.410   Corticosteroids for oral, injectable, and ophthalmic use in animals; warnings and labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration has received reports of side effects associated with the oral, injectable, and ophthalmic use of corticosteroid animal drugs. The use of these drugs administered orally or by injection has resulted in premature parturition when administered during the last trimester of pregnancy. Premature parturition may be followed by dystocia, fetal death, retained placenta, and metritis. Additionally, corticosteroids used in dogs, rabbits, and rodents during pregnancy have produced cleft palate in offspring. Use in dogs has resulted in other congenital anomalies, including deformed forelegs, phocomelia, and anasarca. Drugs subject to this section are required to carry the veterinary prescription legend and are subject to the labeling requirements of § 201.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) In view of these potentially serious side effects, the Food and Drug Administration has concluded that the labeling on or within packaged corticosteroid-containing preparations intended for animal use shall bear conspicuously the following warning statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning:</I> Clinical and experimental data have demonstrated that corticosteroids administered orally or by injection to animals may induce the first stage of parturition if used during the last trimester of pregnancy and may precipitate premature parturition followed by dystocia, fetal death, retained placenta, and metritis.
</P>
<P>Additionally, corticosteroids administered to dogs, rabbits, and rodents during pregnancy have resulted in cleft palate in offspring. Corticosteroids administered to dogs during pregnancy have also resulted in other congenital anomalies, including deformed forelegs, phocomelia, and anasarca.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 48535, Dec. 13, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.440" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.440   Injectable iron preparations.</HEAD>
<P>There has been an increasing interest in the use of injectable iron compounds for the prevention or treatment of iron-deficiency anemia in animals. Although some such preparations have been shown to be safe, such articles are regarded as new animal drugs within the meaning of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Accordingly, an approved new animal drug application is required prior to the marketing of such preparations within the jurisdiction of the act. In addition to the need for demonstrating the safety of such articles, the labeling of such preparations should not only recommend appropriate dosages of iron but also declare the amount (in milligrams) of available iron (Fe) per milliliter of the subject product. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.455" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.455   Requirements for free-choice medicated feeds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is free-choice medicated feed?</I> For the purpose of this part, free-choice medicated feed is medicated feed that is placed in feeding or grazing areas and is not intended to be consumed fully at a single feeding or to constitute the entire diet of the animal. Free-choice feeds include, but are not limited to, medicated blocks (agglomerated feed compressed or rendered into a solid mass and cohesive enough to hold its form), mineral mixes, and liquid feed tank supplements (“lick tank” supplements) containing one or more new animal drugs. The manufacture of medicated free-choice feeds is subject to the current good manufacturing practice regulations in part 225 of this chapter for medicated feeds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What is required for new animal drugs intended for use in free-choice feed?</I> Any new animal drug intended for use in free-choice feed must be approved for such use under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 360(b)) or listed in the index under section 572 of the act (21 U.S.C. 360ccc-1). Such approvals under section 512 of the act must be:
</P>
<P>(1) An original new animal drug application (NADA),
</P>
<P>(2) A supplemental NADA, or
</P>
<P>(3) An abbreviated NADA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What are the approval requirements under section 512 of the act for new animal drugs intended for use in free-choice feed?</I> An approval under section 512 of the act for a Type A medicated article intended for use in free-choice feed must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Data, or reference to data in a master file (MF), showing that the target animal consumes the new animal drug in the Type C free-choice feed in an amount that is safe and effective (consumption/effectiveness data); and
</P>
<P>(2) Data, or reference to data in an MF, showing the relevant ranges of conditions under which the drug will be chemically and physically stable in the Type C free-choice feed under field conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How are consumption/effectiveness and/or stability data to be submitted?</I> The data must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly in the NADA, by a sponsor; and/or
</P>
<P>(2) To an MF that a sponsor may then reference in its NADA with written consent of the MF holder.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>What will be stated in the published approval for a new animal drug intended for use in free-choice feed?</I> The approval of a new animal drug intended for use in free-choice feed, as published in this subchapter, will include:
</P>
<P>(1) The formula and/or specifications of the free-choice medicated feed, where the owner of this information requests such publication, or
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the approval has been granted for a proprietary formula and/or specifications.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>When is a medicated feed mill license required for the manufacture of a free-choice medicated feed?</I> An approved medicated feed mill license is required for the manufacture of the following types of feeds:
</P>
<P>(1) All free-choice medicated feeds that contain a Category II drug, and
</P>
<P>(2) Free-choice medicated feeds that contain a Category I drug and use a proprietary formula and/or specifications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 30197, May 27, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Sponsors of Approved Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.600" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.6.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.600   Names, addresses, and drug labeler codes of sponsors of approved applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 512(i) of the act requires publication of names and addresses of sponsors of approved applications for new animal drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) In this section each name and address is identified by a numerical drug labeler code. The labeler codes identify the sponsors of the new animal drug applications associated with the regulations published pursuant to section 512(i) of the act. The codes appear in the appropriate regulations and serve as a reference to the names and addresses listed in this section. The drug labeler code is established pursuant to section 510 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) The names, addresses, and drug labeler codes of sponsors of approved new animal drug applications are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">(1) Alphabetical Listing of Sponsors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Firm name and address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drug labeler code
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A &amp; G Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 1030 West Commodore Blvd., Jackson, NJ 08527</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">057699
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Accord Healthcare, Inc., 126 E Lincoln Ave., Rahway, NJ 07065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016729
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ADM Animal Nutrition, Inc., 1000 North 30th St., Quincy, IL 62305-3115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">012286
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agri-Tech, Inc., 4722 Broadway, Kansas City, MO 64112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017762
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aiping Pharmaceutical, Inc., 350W Wireless Blvd., Hauppauge, NY 11788</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">011788
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ajenat Pharmaceuticals, LLC, 6911 Bryan Dairy Rd., Suite 210, Largo, FL 33777</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">082983


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Akorn Operating Co. LLC, 5605 Centerpoint Ct., Suite A, Gurnee, IL 60031</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">059399
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alexion Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 121 Seaport Blvd., Boston, MA 02210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069334
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">American Regent, Inc., Animal Health Division, Shirley, NY 11967</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">010797
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anika Therapeutics Inc., 236 West Cummings Park, Woburn, MA 01801</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">060865
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anivive Lifesciences, Inc., 3777 Worsham Ave., Long Beach, CA 90808</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086121
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anzac Animal Health, LLC, 218 Millwell Dr., Suite B, Maryland Heights, MO 63043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086073
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AquaBounty Technologies, Inc., 2 Mill and Main Pl., Suite 395, Maynard, MA 01754</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086053
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aurora Pharmaceutical, Inc., 1196 Highway 3 South, Northfield, MN 55057-3009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">051072
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Axcentive SARL, Chemin de Champouse, Quartier Violesi, 13320 Bouc Bel Air, France</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086009
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B.L. Mitchell, Inc., 103 Hwy. 82 E., Leland, MS 38756</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">067188
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bausch Health US, LLC, 400 Somerset Corporate Blvd., Bridgewater, NJ 08807</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">099207


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bimeda Animal Health Ltd., 1B The Herbert Building, The Park, Carrickmines, Dublin 18, Ireland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061133
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boehringer Ingelheim Animal Health USA, Inc., 3239 Satellite Blvd., Duluth, GA 30096</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ceva Sante Animale, 10 Avenue de la Ballastière, 33500 Libourne, France</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">013744
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chanelle Pharmaceuticals Manufacturing Ltd., Loughrea, County Galway, Ireland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061651
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cronus Pharma Specialities India Private Ltd., Plot No.9(B), Survey No. 99/1, GMR Hyderabad Aviation SEZ Ltd., Mamidipalle Village, Balapur Mandal, Shamshabad, Rangareddy, Hyderabad, Telangana, 500108, India</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069043
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dechra, Ltd., Snaygill Industrial Estate, Keighley Rd., Skipton, North Yorkshire, BD23 2RW, United Kingdom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">043264
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dechra Veterinary Products LLC, 7015 College Blvd., Suite 525, Overland Park, KS 66211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017033
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diamond Animal Health, Inc., 2538 SE 43rd St., Des Moines, IA 50327</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">053701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Domes Pharma S.A., ZAC de Champ Lamet, 3 rue Andre Citroen, Pont-du-Chateau, Auvergne-Rhône-Alpes, 63430, FRANCE</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086189
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ECO LLC, 506 Carnegie Centre, Suite 400, Princeton, NJ 08540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066916
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elanco US Inc., 450 Elanco Circle, Indianapolis, IN 46221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Farnam Companies, Inc., 301 West Osborn, Phoenix, AZ 85013-3928</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Felix Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd., 25-28 North Wall Quay, Dublin 1, Ireland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086101
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">First Priority, Inc., 1590 Todd Farm Dr., Elgin, IL 60123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058829 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fougera Pharmaceuticals, Inc., P.O. Box 2006, 60 Baylis Rd., Melville, NY 11747</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">025463
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Genus plc, 1525 River Road, Deforest, WI 53532</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086205
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GTC Biotherapeutics, Inc., 175 Crossing Blvd., Framingham, MA 01702</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">042976
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Happy Jack, Inc., Snow Hill, NC 28580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">023851
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hemoglobin Oxygen Therapeutics, LLC, 674 Souder Rd., Souderton, PA 18964</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">063075
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hikma Pharmaceuticals USA, Inc., 2 Esterbrook Ln., Cherry Hill, NJ 08003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086194
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HQ Specialty Pharma Corp., 120 Rte. 17 North, suite 130, Paramus, NJ 07652</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">042791
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Huvepharma EOOD, 5th Floor, 3A Nikolay Haytov Str., 1113 Sofia, Bulgaria</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IMPAX Laboratories, Inc., 30831 Huntwood Ave., Hayward, CA 94544</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000115


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Intervet, Inc., 126 E Lincoln Ave., Rahway, NJ 07065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ishihara Sangyo Kaisha, Ltd., 3-15, Edobori 1-chome, Nishi-ku, Osaka 550-0002, Japan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">064642
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ivaoes Animal Health, 1200 NW 78th, Suite 200-D, Doral, FL 33126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086064
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jaguar Animal Health, 200 Pine St., Suite 600, San Francisco, CA 94104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086149
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kinetic Technologies, LLC, 1700 Albany Pl SE, Orange City, IA 51041</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">051031
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lloyd, Inc., 604 W. Thomas Ave., Shenandoah, IA 51601</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061690
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Med-Pharmex, Inc., 2727 Thompson Creek Rd., Pomona, CA 91767-1861</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054925
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mizner Bioscience LLC, 225 NE Mizner Blvd., Suite 760, Boca Raton, FL 33432</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086039
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Modern Veterinary Therapeutics, LLC, 14343 SW 119th Ave., Miami, FL 33186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">015914
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mylan Institutional, Inc., 12720 Dairy Ashford Rd., Sugar Land, TX 77478</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">051079
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mylan Institutional LLC, a Viatris Company, 3711 Collins Ferry Rd., Morgantown, WV 26505</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">063286
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Natchez Animal Supply Co., 201 John R. Junkin Dr., Natchez, MS 39120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">049968
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neogen Corp., 944 Nandino Blvd., Lexington, KY 40511</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">059051
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Noble Pharma, LLC, 4602 Domain Dr., Menomonie, WI 54751</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086119
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Norbrook Laboratories Ltd., Carnbane Industrial Estate, Newry, County Down, BT35 6QQ, United Kingdom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">055529
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orion Corp., Orionintie 1, 02200 Espoo, Finland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">052483
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parnell Technologies Pty. Ltd., unit 4, 476 Gardeners Rd., Alexandria, New South Wales 2015, Australia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">068504
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pegasus Laboratories, Inc., 8809 Ely Rd., Pensacola, FL 32514</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">055246
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pharmaceutical Ventures, Ltd., P.O. Box D1400, Pomona, NY 10970</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">050057
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pharmacosmos, Inc., 120 Headquarters Plz., Morristown, NJ 07960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">042552
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pharmaq AS, Skogmo Industriomrade, N-7863 Overhalla, Norway</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">015331
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pharmgate Inc., 1800 Sir Tyler Dr., Wilmington, NC 28405</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phibro Animal Health Corp., GlenPointe Centre East, 3d floor, 300 Frank W. Burr Blvd., suite 21, Teaneck, NJ 07666</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Piramal Pharma Ltd., Ground Floor, Piramal Ananta, Agastya Corporate Park, Mumbai, Maharashtra, 400070, India</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">065085
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Planalquimica Industrial Ltda., Rua das Magnolias nr. 2405, Jardim das Bandeiras, CEP 13053-120, Campinas, Sao Paulo, Brazil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">060728
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Purina Animal Nutrition LLC, 4001 Lexington Ave., North Arden Hills, MN 55126-2910</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qbiotics Group Ltd., Level 14, 15 Lakes Street, Cairns, Queensland, QLD4870, Australia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qilu Animal Health Products Co., Ltd., No. 10688, Wenliang Road, Dongjia Town,


<br/>Licheng District Jinan, Shandong, 250100, China</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086163


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quo Vademus, LLC, 277 Faison McGowan Rd., Kenansville, NC 28349</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">076475
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Revivicor, Inc., a wholly owned subsidiary of United Therapeutics Corp., 1700 Kraft Dr., Suite 2400, Blacksburg, VA 24060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086134
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ridley USA, Inc., 111 W Cherry St., Suite 500, Mankato, MN 56001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">067949
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sergeant's Pet Care Products LLC, 10077 S. 134th St., Omaha, NE 68138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">021091


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sparhawk Laboratories, Inc., 12340 Santa Fe Trail Dr., Lenexa, KS 66215</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Squire Laboratories, Inc., 100 Mill St., Revere, MA 02151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017153
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Summit Hill Laboratories, P.O. Box 535, Navesink, NJ 07752</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">037990
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Syndel USA, 1441 W. Smith Rd., Ferndale, WA 98248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">050378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Taro Pharmaceuticals U.S.A., Inc., 3 Skyline Dr., Hawthorne, NY 10532</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">051672
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Therio, Inc., 8801 Anderson Ave., Manhattan, KS 66503</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">052923
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TriviumVet, Unit 3A, Cleaboy Business Park, Old Kilmeaden Road, Waterford, Waterford, X91 H5FE, Ireland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086169
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Union Agener, Inc., 1788 Lovers Ln., Augusta, GA 30901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086106
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VetDC, Inc., 320 E. Vine Dr., suite 218, Fort Collins, CO 80524</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086072
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vétoquinol N.-A., Inc., 2000 chemin Georges, Lavaltrie (PQ), Canada, J5T 3S5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">059320 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vetoquinol USA, Inc., 4250 N Sylvania Ave., Fort Worth, TX 76137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017030
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Virbac AH, Inc., PO Box 162059, Fort Worth, TX 76161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">051311
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warburton Technology Ltd., 36 Fitzwilliam Square, Dublin 2, Dublin, D02HX82, Ireland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066679
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wildcat Feeds, 215 NE Strait Ave., Topeka, KS 66616</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wildlife Laboratories, Inc., 1230 W. Ash St., suite D, Windsor, CO 80550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">053923 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zoetis Inc., 333 Portage St., Kalamazoo, MI 49007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ZyVet Animal Health, Inc., 73 Route 31N, Pennington, NJ 08534</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086117
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">(2) Numerical Listing of Sponsors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drug labeler code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Firm name and address
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">000010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boehringer Ingelheim Animal Health USA, Inc., 3239 Satellite Blvd., Duluth, GA 30096.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">000061</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intervet, Inc., 126 E Lincoln Ave., Rahway, NJ 07065
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">000115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IMPAX Laboratories, Inc., 30831 Huntwood Ave., Hayward, CA 94544.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">010797</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">American Regent, Inc., Animal Health Division, Shirley, NY 11967.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">011788</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aiping Pharmaceutical, Inc., 350W Wireless Blvd., Hauppauge, NY 11788.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">012286</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ADM Animal Nutrition, Inc., 1000 North 30th St., Quincy, IL 62305-3115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">012578</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Janssen Pharmaceutica NV, Turnhoutseweg 30, B-2340 Beerse, Belgium.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">013744</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ceva Sante Animale, 10 Avenue de la Ballastière, 33500 Libourne, France.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">015331</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pharmaq AS, Skogmo Industriomrade, N-7863 Overhalla, Norway.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">015914</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Modern Veterinary Therapeutics, LLC, 14343 SW 119th Ave., Miami, FL 33186.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">016592</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Huvepharma EOOD, 5th Floor, 3A Nikolay Haytov Str., 1113 Sofia, Bulgaria.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">016729</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accord Healthcare, Inc., 126 E Lincoln Ave., Rahway, NJ 07065.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">017030</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vetoquinol USA, Inc., 4250 N. Sylvania Ave., Fort Worth, TX 76137.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">017033</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dechra Veterinary Products LLC, 7015 College Blvd., Suite 525, Overland Park, KS 66211.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">017135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farnam Companies, Inc., 301 West Osborn, Phoenix, AZ 85013-3928.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">017153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Squire Laboratories, Inc., 100 Mill St., Revere, MA 02151.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">017762</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agri-Tech, Inc., 4722 Broadway, Kansas City, MO 64112.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">017800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Purina Animal Nutrition LLC, 4001 Lexington Ave., North Arden Hills, MN 55126-2910.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">021091</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sergeant's Pet Care Products LLC, 10077 S. 134th St., Omaha, NE 68138
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">023851</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Happy Jack, Inc., Snow Hill, NC 28580.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">025463</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fougera Pharmaceuticals, Inc., P.O. Box 2006, 60 Baylis Rd., Melville, NY 11747.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">037990</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summit Hill Laboratories, P.O. Box 535, Navesink, NJ 07752.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">042552</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pharmacosmos, Inc., 120 Headquarters Plz., Morristown, NJ 07960.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">042791</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HQ Specialty Pharma Corp., 120 Rte. 17 North, suite 130, Paramus, NJ 07652.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">042976</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GTC Biotherapeutics, Inc., 175 Crossing Blvd., Framingham, MA 01702.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">043264</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dechra, Ltd., Snaygill Industrial Estate, Keighley Rd., Skipton, North Yorkshire, BD23 2RW, United Kingdom.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">049968</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Natchez Animal Supply Co., 201 John R. Junkin Dr., Natchez, MS 39120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">050057</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pharmaceutical Ventures, Ltd., P.O. Box D1400, Pomona, NY 10970.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">050378</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Syndel USA, 1441 W. Smith Rd., Ferndale, WA 98248.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">051031</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kinetic Technologies, LLC, 1700 Albany Pl SE, Orange City, IA 51041. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">051072</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aurora Pharmaceutical, Inc., 1196 Highway 3 South, Northfield, MN 55057-3009.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">051079</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mylan Institutional, Inc., 12720 Dairy Ashford Rd., Sugar Land, TX 77478.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">051311</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Virbac AH, Inc., PO Box 162059, Fort Worth, TX 76161.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">051672</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Taro Pharmaceuticals U.S.A., Inc., 3 Skyline Dr., Hawthorne, NY 10532.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">052483</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orion Corp., Orionintie 1, 02200 Espoo, Finland.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">052923</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Therio, Inc., 8801 Anderson Ave., Manhattan, KS 66503.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">053701</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diamond Animal Health, Inc., 2538 SE 43rd St., Des Moines, IA 50327.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">053923</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wildlife Laboratories, Inc., 1230 W. Ash St., suite D, Windsor, CO 80550. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">054771</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zoetis Inc., 333 Portage St., Kalamazoo, MI 49007.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">054925</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Med-Pharmex, Inc., 2727 Thompson Creek Rd., Pomona, CA 91767-1861.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">055246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pegasus Laboratories, Inc., 8809 Ely Rd., Pensacola, FL 32514.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">055529</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Norbrook Laboratories Ltd., Carnbane Industrial Estate, Newry, County Down, BT35 6QQ, United Kingdom.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">057699</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A &amp; G Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 1030 West Commodore Blvd., Jackson, NJ 08527.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">058005</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sparhawk Laboratories, Inc., 12340 Santa Fe Trail Dr., Lenexa, KS 66215.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">058198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elanco US Inc., 450 Elanco Circle, Indianapolis, IN 46221
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">058829</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First Priority, Inc., 1590 Todd Farm Dr., Elgin, IL 60123. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">059051</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Neogen Corp., 944 Nandino Blvd., Lexington, KY 40511.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">059320</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vétoquinol N.-A., Inc., 2000 chemin Georges, Lavaltrie (PQ), Canada, J5T 3S5. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">059399</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Akorn Operating Co. LLC, 5605 Centerpoint Ct., Suite A, Gurnee, IL 60031.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">060728</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Planalquimica Industrial Ltda., Rua das Magnolias nr. Jardim das Bandeiras, CEP 13053-120, Campinas, Sao Alto, Brazil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">060865</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anika Therapeutics Inc., 236 West Cummings Park, Woburn, MA 01801.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">061133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bimeda Animal Health Ltd., 1B The Herbert Building, The Park, Carrickmines, Dublin 18, Ireland.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">061651</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chanelle Pharmaceuticals Manufacturing Ltd., Loughrea, County Galway, Ireland.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">061690</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lloyd, Inc., 604 W. Thomas Ave., Shenandoah, IA 51601.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">062794</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mylan Bertek Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 12720 Dairy Ashford, Sugar Land, TX 77478.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">063075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hemoglobin Oxygen Therapeutics, LLC, 674 Souder Rd., Souderton, PA 18964.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">063286</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mylan Institutional LLC, a Viatris Company, 3711 Collins Ferry Rd., Morgantown, WV 26505.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">064642</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ishihara Sangyo Kaisha, Ltd., 3-15, Edobori 1-chome, Nishi-ku, Osaka 550-0002, Japan.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">064950</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Genus Lifesciences Inc., 700 N Fenwick St., Allentown, PA 18109.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">065085</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piramal Pharma Ltd., Ground Floor, Piramal Ananta, Agastya Corporate Park, Mumbai, Maharashtra, 400070, India.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">066104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phibro Animal Health Corp., GlenPointe Centre East, 3d floor, 300 Frank W. Burr Blvd., suite 21, Teaneck, NJ 07666.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">066679</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Warburton Technology Ltd., 36 Fitzwilliam Square, Dublin 2, Dublin, D02HX82, Ireland.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">066916</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ECO LLC, 506 Carnegie Centre, Suite 400, Princeton, NJ 08540
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">067188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B.L. Mitchell, Inc., 103 Hwy. 82 E., Leland, MS 38756.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">067949</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ridley USA, Inc., 111 W Cherry St., Suite 500, Mankato, MN 56001.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">068504</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parnell Technologies Pty. Ltd., unit 4, 476 Gardeners Rd., Alexandria, New South Wales 2015, Australia.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">069043</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cronus Pharma Specialities India Private Ltd., Plot No.9(B), Survey No. 99/1, GMR Hyderabad Aviation SEZ Ltd., Mamidipalle Village, Balapur Mandal, Shamshabad, Rangareddy, Hyderabad, Telangana, 500108, India.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">069254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pharmgate Inc., 1800 Sir Tyler Dr., Wilmington, NC 28405.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">069334</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alexion Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 121 Seaport Blvd., Boston, MA 02210.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">076475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quo Vademus, LLC, 277 Faison McGowan Rd., Kenansville, NC 28349.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">082983</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ajenat Pharmaceuticals, LLC, 6911 Bryan Dairy Rd., Suite 210, Largo, FL 33777
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086009</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Axcentive SARL, Chemin de Champouse, Quartier Violesi, 13320 Bouc Bel Air, France.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086039</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mizner Bioscience LLC, 225 NE Mizner Blvd., Suite 760, Boca Raton, FL 33432.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086053</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AquaBounty Technologies, Inc., 2 Mill and Main Pl., Suite 395, Maynard, MA 01754.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086064</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ivaoes Animal Health, 1200 NW 78th, Suite 200-D, Doral, FL 33126.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086072</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VetDC, Inc., 320 E Vine Dr., suite 218, Fort Collins, CO 80524.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086073</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anzac Animal Health, LLC, 218 Millwell Dr., Suite B, Maryland Heights, MO 63043.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Felix Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd., 25-28 North Wall Quay, Dublin 1, Ireland.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Union Agener, Inc., 1788 Lovers Ln., Augusta, GA 30901.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wildcat Feeds, 215 NE Strait Ave., Topeka, KS 66616.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ZyVet Animal Health, Inc., 73 Route 31N, Pennington, NJ 08534.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Noble Pharma, LLC, 4602 Domain Dr., Menomonie, WI 54751.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anivive Lifesciences, Inc., 3777 Worsham Ave., Long Beach, CA 90808.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qbiotics Group Ltd., Level 14, 15 Lakes Street, Cairns, Queensland, QLD4870, Australia.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Revivicor, Inc., a wholly owned subsidiary of United Therapeutics Corp., 1700 Kraft Dr., Suite 2400, Blacksburg, VA 24060.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jaguar Animal Health, 200 Pine St., Suite 600, San Francisco, CA 94104.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086163</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qilu Animal Health Products Co., Ltd., No. 10688, Wenliang Road, Dongjia Town, Licheng District Jinan, Shandong, 250100, China
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TriviumVet, Unit 3A, Cleaboy Business Park, Old Kilmeaden Road, Waterford, Waterford, X91 H5FE, Ireland.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Domes Pharma S.A., ZAC de Champ Lamet, 3 rue Andre Citroen, Pont-du-Chateau, Auvergne-Rhône-Alpes, 63430, FRANCE.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hikma Pharmaceuticals USA, Inc., 2 Esterbrook Ln., Cherry Hill, NJ 08003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">086205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Genus plc, 1525 River Road, Deforest, WI 53532
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">099207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bausch Health US, LLC, 400 Somerset Corporate Blvd., Bridgewater, NJ 08807.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13807, Mar. 27, 1975]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 510.600, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="511" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 511—NEW ANIMAL DRUGS FOR INVESTIGATIONAL USE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 360b, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 511.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.1   New animal drugs for investigational use exempt from section 512(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New animal drugs for tests in vitro and in laboratory research animals.</I> (1) A shipment or other delivery of a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug intended solely for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research purposes shall be exempt from section 512 (a) and (m) of the act if it is labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution.</I> Contains a new animal drug for investigational use only in laboratory research animals or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The person distributing or causing the distribution of new animal drugs for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research purposes under this exemption shall use due diligence to assure that the consignee is regularly engaged in conducting such tests and that the shipment of the new animal drug will actually be used for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research. 
</P>
<P>(3) The person who introduced such shipment or who delivered the new animal drug for introduction into interstate commerce shall maintain adequate records showing the name and post office address of the expert or expert organization to whom the new animal drug is shipped and the date, quantity, and batch or code mark of each shipment and delivery for a period of 2 years after such shipment and delivery. Upon the request of a properly authorized employee of the Department at reasonable times, he shall make such records available for inspection and copying. 
</P>
<P>(4) The exemption allowed in this paragraph shall not apply to any new animal drug intended for in vitro use in the regular course of diagnosing or treating disease, including antibacterial sensitivity discs impregnated with any new animal drug or drugs, which discs are intended for use in determining susceptibility of microorganisms to the new animal drug or drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New animal drugs for clinical investigation in animals.</I> A shipment or other delivery of a new animal drug or an animal feed containing a new animal drug intended for clinical investigational use in animals shall be exempt from section 512(a) and (m) of the act if all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The label shall bear the statements:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution.</I> Contains a new animal drug for use only in investigational animals in clinical trials. Not for use in humans. Edible products of investigational animals are not to be used for food unless authorization has been granted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration or by the U.S. Department of Agriculture.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>In the case of containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear the caution statements required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the statements may be included on the carton label and other labeling on or within the package from which the new animal drug is to be dispensed. 
</P>
<P>(2) The person or firm distributing or causing the distribution of the new animal drug or animal feed containing a new animal drug shall use due diligence to assure that the new animal drug or animal feed containing a new animal drug will actually be used for tests in animals and is not used in humans. 
</P>
<P>(3) The person who introduced such shipment or who delivered the new animal drug or animal feed containing a new animal drug for introduction into interstate commerce shall maintain adequate records showing the name and post office address of the investigator to whom the new animal drug or animal feed containing a new animal drug is shipped and the date, quantity, and batch or code mark of each shipment and delivery for a period of 2 years after such shipment and delivery. Upon the request of a properly authorized employee of the Department at reasonable times, such records shall be made available for inspection and copying. 
</P>
<P>(4) Prior to shipment of the new animal drug for clinical tests in animals, the sponsor of the investigation shall submit in triplicate to FDA a “Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Animal Drug” including a signed statement containing the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of the new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) All labeling and other pertinent information to be supplied to the investigators. When such pertinent information includes nonclinical laboratory studies, the information shall include, with respect to each nonclinical study, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and address of each clinical investigator. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The approximate number of animals to be treated (or if not available, the amount of new animal drug to be shipped). 
</P>
<P>(v) If the new animal drug is given to food-producing animals, the statement shall contain the following additional information: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A commitment that the edible products from such animals shall not be used for food without prior authorization in accordance with the provisions prescribed in this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Approximate dates of the beginning and end of the experiment or series of experiments. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The maximum daily dose(s) to be administered to a given species, the size of animal, maximum duration of administration, method(s) of administration, and proposed withdrawal time, if any. 
</P>
<P>(vi) If a sponsor has transferred any obligations for the conduct of any clinical study to a contract research organization, a statement containing the name and address of the contract research organization, identification of the clinical study, and a listing of the obligations transferred. If all obligations governing the conduct of the study have been transferred, a general statement of this transfer—in lieu of a listing of the specific obligations transferred—may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(5) Authorization for use of edible products derived from a treated food-producing animal may be granted under the provisions of this section and when the following specified conditions are met, except that in the case of an animal administered any unlicensed experimental veterinary biological product regulated under the viruses, serums, toxins statute (21 U.S.C., chapter V, sec. 151 <I>et seq.</I> ) the product shall be exempt from the requirements of this section when U.S. Department of Agriculture approval has been obtained as provided in 9 CFR 103.2. Conditional authorization may be granted in advance of identification of the name(s) and address(es) of the clinical investigator(s) as required by paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section. Information required for authorization shall include, in addition to all other requirements of this section, the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Data to show that consumption of food derived from animals treated at the maximum levels with the minimum withdrawal periods, if any, specified in accordance with paragraph (b)(4)(v)(<I>c</I>) of this section, will not be inconsistent with the public health; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Data to show that food derived from animals treated at the maximum levels and with the minimum withdrawal periods, if any, specified in accordance with paragraph (b)(4)(v)(<I>c</I>) of this section, does not contain drug residues or metabolites. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and location of the packing plant where the animals will be processed, except that this requirement may be waived, on request, by the terms of the authorization.
</P>
<FP>Authorizations granted under this paragraph do not exempt investigational animals and their products from compliance with other applicable inspection requirements. Any person who contests a refusal to grant such authorization shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA pursuant to part 16 of this chapter. 
</FP>
<P>(6) On written request of FDA, the sponsor shall submit any additional information reported to or otherwise received by him with respect to the investigation deemed necessary to facilitate a determination whether there are grounds in the interest of public health for terminating the exemption. 
</P>
<P>(7) The sponsor shall assure himself that the new animal drug is shipped only to investigators who: 
</P>
<P>(i) Are qualified by scientific training and/experience to evaluate the safety and/or effectiveness of the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall maintain complete records of the investigations, including complete records of the receipt and disposition of each shipment or delivery of the new animal drug under investigation. Copies of all records of the investigation shall be retained by the investigator for 2 years after the termination of the investigation or approval of a new animal drug application. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall furnish adequate and timely reports of the investigation to the sponsor. 
</P>
<P>(8) The sponsor: 
</P>
<P>(i) Shall retain all reports received from investigators for 2 years after the termination of the investigation or approval of a new animal drug application and make such reports available to a duly authorized employee of the Department for inspection at all reasonable times. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall provide for current monitoring of the investigation by a person qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate information obtained from the investigation, and shall promptly investigate and report to FDA and to all investigators any findings associated with use of the new animal drug that may suggest significant hazards pertinent to the safety of the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall not unduly prolong distribution of the new animal drug for investigational use. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall not, nor shall any person acting for or on behalf of the sponsor, represent that the new animal drug is safe or effective for the purposes for which it is under investigation. This requirement is not intended to restrict the full exchange of scientific information. 
</P>
<P>(v) Shall not commercially distribute nor test-market the new animal drug until a new animal drug application is approved pursuant to section 512(c) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(9) If the shipment or other delivery of the new animal drug is imported or offered for importation into the United States for clinical investigational use in animals, it shall also meet the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The importer of all such shipments or deliveries is an agent of the foreign exporter residing in the United States or the ultimate consignee, which person has, prior to such shipments and deliveries, informed FDA of his intention to import the new animal drug as sponsor in compliance with the conditions prescribed in this subdivision; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The new animal drug is shipped directly to a scientific institution with adequate facilities and qualified personnel to conduct laboratory or clinical investigations and is intended solely for use in such institutions and which institution has submitted a statement as sponsor of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(10) The sponsor shall submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.33 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disqualification of a clinical investigator.</I> (1) If FDA has information indicating that an investigator (including a sponsor-investigator) has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the conditions of these exempting regulations or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Center for Veterinary Medicine will furnish the investigator written notice of the matter complained of and offer the investigator an opportunity to explain the matter in writing, or, at the option of the investigator, in an informal conference. If an explanation is offered and accepted by the Center for Veterinary Medicine, the Center will discontinue the disqualification proceeding. If an explanation is offered but not accepted by the Center for Veterinary Medicine, the investigator will be given an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter on the question of whether the investigator is eligible to receive test articles under this part and eligible to conduct:
</P>
<P>(i) Any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any nonclinical laboratory study intended to support an application for a research or marketing permit for a new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(2) After evaluating all available information, including any explanation presented by the investigator, if the Commissioner determines that the investigator has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the conditions of the exempting regulations in this subchapter, or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Commissioner will notify the investigator and the sponsor of any investigation in which the investigator has been named as a participant that the investigator is not eligible to receive test articles under this part. The notification to the investigator and sponsor will provide a statement of the basis for such determination. The notification also will explain that an investigator determined to be ineligible to receive test articles under this part will be ineligible to conduct:
</P>
<P>(i) Any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, including drugs, biologics, devices, new animal drugs, foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, and tobacco products; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any nonclinical laboratory study intended to support an application for a research or marketing permit for a new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(3) Each application or submission to FDA under the provisions of this chapter containing data reported by an investigator who has been determined to be ineligible to receive FDA-regulated test articles is subject to examination to determine whether the investigator has submitted unreliable data that are essential to the continuation of an investigation or essential to the approval of a marketing application, or essential to the continued marketing of an FDA-regulated product.
</P>
<P>(4) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the data remaining are inadequate to support a conclusion that it is reasonably safe to continue the investigation, the Commissioner will notify the sponsor, who shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter. If a danger to the public health exists, however, the Commissioner shall terminate the exemption immediately and notify the sponsor of the termination. In such case, the sponsor shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA under part 16 on the question of whether the exemption should be reinstated. The determination that an investigation may not be considered in support of a research or marketing application or a notification or petition submission does not, however, relieve the sponsor of any obligation under any other applicable regulation to submit to FDA the results of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the continued approval of the product for which the data were submitted cannot be justified, the Commissioner will proceed to withdraw approval of the product in accordance with the applicable provisions of the relevant statutes.
</P>
<P>(6) An investigator who has been determined to be ineligible under paragraph (c)(2) of this section may be reinstated as eligible when the Commissioner determines that the investigator has presented adequate assurances that the investigator will employ all test articles, and will conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA and any nonclinical laboratory study intended to support an application for a research or marketing permit for a new animal drug, solely in compliance with the applicable provisions of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination of exemption.</I> If the Commissioner finds that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor of the investigation has failed to comply with any of the conditions for the exemption established under this section, or 
</P>
<P>(2) The continuance of the investigation is unsafe or otherwise contrary to the public interest or the drug is being or has been used for purposes other than bona fide scientific investigation, he shall first notify the sponsor and invite his immediate correction. If the conditions of the exemption are not immediately met, the sponsor shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA pursuant of part 16 of this chapter on whether the exemption should be terminated. If the exemption is terminated the sponsor shall recall or have destroyed the unused supplies of the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Statements and requests.</I> “Notice(s) of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Animal Drug” and requests for authorization to use investigational animals and their products for food should be addressed to the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contract research organizations.</I> (1) For purposes of this part and part 514, <I>contract research organization</I> means a person that assumes, as an independent contractor with the sponsor, one or more of the obligations of a sponsor, e.g., design of a protocol, selection or monitoring of investigations, evaluation of reports, and preparation of materials to be submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor may transfer responsibility for any or all of the obligations set forth in this part to a contract research organization. Any such transfer shall be in writing and, if not all obligations are transferred, shall describe each of the obligations being assumed by the contract research organization. If all obligations are transferred, a general statement that all obligations have been transferred is acceptable. Any obligation not covered by the written description shall be deemed not to have been transferred.
</P>
<P>(3) A contract research organization that assumes any obligation of a sponsor shall comply with the specific regulations in this chapter applicable to this obligation and shall be subject to the same regulatory action as a sponsor for failure to comply with any obligation assumed under these regulations. Thus, all references to <I>sponsor</I> in this part apply to a contract research organization to the extent that it assumes one or more obligations of the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Index of legally marketed unapproved new animal drugs for minor species.</I> All provisions of part 511 apply to new animal drugs for investigational use in support of indexing, as described in section 572 of the act, subject to the provisions of § 516.125 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13823, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 48268, Nov. 2, 1976; 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977; 50 FR 7517, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 52 FR 8847, Mar. 19, 1987; 54 FR 18280, Apr. 28, 1989; 57 FR 6475, Feb. 25, 1992; 62 FR 40599, July 29, 1997; 72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007; 77 FR 25359, Apr. 30, 2012; 82 FR 61446, Dec. 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Contract research organization</I> means a person that assumes, as an independent contractor with the sponsor, one or more of the obligations of a sponsor, e.g., design of a protocol, selection or monitoring of investigations, evaluation of reports, and preparation of materials to be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Investigator</I> means an individual who actually conducts a clinical investigation (i.e., under whose immediate direction the drug is administered or dispensed to a subject). In the event an investigation is conducted by a team of individuals, the investigator is the responsible leader of the team. “Subinvestigator” includes any other individual member of that team.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person who takes responsibility for and initiates a clinical investigation. The sponsor may be an individual or pharmaceutical company, governmental agency, academic institution, private organization, or other organization. The sponsor does not actually conduct the investigation unless the sponsor is a sponsor-investigator. A person other than an individual that uses one or more of its own employees to conduct an investigation that it has initiated is a sponsor, not a sponsor-investigator, and the employees are investigators.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor-Investigator</I> means an individual who both initiates and conducts an investigation, and under whose immediate direction the investigational drug is administered or dispensed. The term does not include any person other than an individual. The requirements applicable to a sponsor-investigator under this part include both those applicable to an investigator and a sponsor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 25359, Apr. 30, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="514" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 514—NEW ANIMAL DRUG APPLICATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 354, 356a, 360b, 360ccc, 360ddd, 360ddd-1, 371, 379e, 381.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.1   Applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications to be filed under section 512(b) of the act shall be submitted in the form and contain the information described in paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate to support the particular submission. If any part of the application is in a foreign language, an accurate and complete English translation shall be appended to such part. Translations of literature printed in a foreign language shall be accompanied by copies of the original publication. The application must be signed by the applicant or by an authorized attorney, agent, or official. If the applicant or such authorized representative does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the application must also furnish the name and post office address of, and must be countersigned by, an authorized attorney, agent, or official residing or maintaining a place of business within the United States. Pertinent information may be incorporated in, and will be considered as part of, an application on the basis of specific reference to such information, including information submitted under the provisions of § 511.1 of this chapter, in the files of the Food and Drug Administration; however, the reference must be specific in identifying the information. Any reference to information furnished by a person other than the applicant may not be considered unless its use is authorized in a written statement signed by the person who submitted it. The following provisions do not apply to designated medical gases, which are subject to the certification requirements under part 230 of this chapter: §§ 514.1(b) and (c), 514.3 through 514.8, 514.12, and 514.15, and subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for new animal drugs shall be submitted in triplicate and assembled in the manner prescribed by paragraph (b)(15) of this section, and shall include the following information, as appropriate to support the particular submission: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification.</I> Whether the submission is an original or supplemental application; the name and the address of the applicant; the date of the application; the trade name(s) (if one has been proposed) and chemical name(s) of the new animal drug. Upon receipt, the application will be assigned a number NADA __, which shall be used for all correspondence with respect to the application. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Table of contents and summary.</I> The application shall be organized in a cohesive fashion, shall contain a table of contents which identifies the data and other material submitted, and shall contain a well-organized summary and evaluation of the data in the following form: 
</P>
<P>(i) Chemistry: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Chemical structural formula or description for any new animal drug substance. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Relationship to other chemically or pharmacologically related drugs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Description of dosage form and quantitative composition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Scientific rationale and purpose the new animal drug is to serve: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Clinical purpose. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Highlights of laboratory studies: The reasons why certain types of studies were done or omitted as related to the proposed conditions of use and to information already known about this class of compounds. Emphasize any unusual or particularly significant pharmacological effects or toxicological findings. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Highlights of clinical studies: The rationale of the clinical study plan showing why types of studies were done, amended, or omitted as related to laboratory studies and prior clinical experience. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Conclusions: A short statement of conclusions combining the major points of effectiveness and safety as they relate to the use of the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> Three copies of each piece of all labeling to be used for the article (total of 9). 
</P>
<P>(i) All labeling should be identified to show its position on, or the manner in which it is to accompany the market package. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling for nonprescription new animal drugs should include adequate directions for use by the layman under all conditions of use for which the new animal drug is intended, recommended, or suggested in any of the labeling or advertising sponsored by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Labeling for prescription veterinary drugs should bear adequate information for use under which veterinarians can use the new animal drug safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including those purposes for which it is to be advertised or represented, in accord with § 201.105 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(iv) All labeling for prescription or nonprescription new animal drugs shall be submitted with any necessary use restrictions prominently and conspicuously displayed. 
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling for new animal drugs intended for use in the manufacture of medicated feeds shall include: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Specimens of labeling to be used for such new animal drug with adequate directions for the manufacture and use of finished feeds for all conditions for which the new animal drug is intended, recommended, or suggested in any of the labeling, including advertising, sponsored by the applicant. Ingredient labeling may utilize collective names as provided in § 501.110 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Representative labeling proposed to be used for Type B and Type C medicated feeds containing the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Draft labeling may be submitted for preliminary consideration of an application. Final printed labeling will ordinarily be required prior to approval of an application. Proposed advertising for veterinary prescription drugs may be submitted for comment or approval. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Components and composition.</I> A complete list of all articles used for production of the new animal drug including a full list of the composition of each article: 
</P>
<P>(i) A full list of the articles used as components of the new animal drug. This list should include all substances used in the synthesis, extraction, or other method of preparation of any new animal drug and in the preparation of the finished dosage form, regardless of whether they undergo chemical change or are removed in the process. Each component should be identified by its established name, if any, or complete chemical name, using structural formulas when necessary for specific identification. If any proprietary name is used, it should be followed by a complete quantitative statement of composition. Reasonable alternatives for any listed component may be specified. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A full statement of the composition of the new animal drug. The statement shall set forth the name and amount of each ingredient, whether active or not, contained in a stated quantity of the new animal drug in the form in which it is to be distributed (for example, amount per tablet or milliliter) and a batch formula representative of that to be employed for the manufacture of the finished dosage form. All components should be included in the batch formula regardless of whether they appear in the finished product. Any calculated excess of an ingredient over the label declaration should be designated as such and percent excess shown. Reasonable variation may be specified. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If it is a new animal drug produced by fermentation: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Source and type of microorganism used to produce the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Composition of media used to produce the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Type of precursor used, if any, to guide or enhance production of the antibiotic during fermentation. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Name and composition of preservative, if any, used in the broth. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A complete description of the extraction and purification processes including the names and compositions of the solvents, precipitants, ion exchange resins, emulsifiers, and all other agents used. 
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) If the new animal drug is produced by a catalytic hydrogenation process (such as tetracycline from chlortetracycline), a complete description of each chemical reaction with graphic formulas used to produce the new animal drug, including the names of the catalyst used, how it is removed, and how the new animal drug is extracted and purified. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Manufacturing methods, facilities, and controls.</I> A full description of the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, and packing of the new animal drug. This description should include full information with respect to any new animal drug in sufficient detail to permit evaluation of the adequacy of the described methods of manufacture, processing, and packing, and the described facilities and controls to determine and preserve the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the new animal drug, and the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) If the applicant does not himself perform all the manufacturing, processing, packaging, labeling, and control operations for any new animal drug, he shall: Identify each person who will perform any part of such operations and designate the part; and provide a signed statement from each such person fully describing, directly or by reference, the methods, facilities, and controls he will use in his part of the operation. The statement shall include a commitment that no changes will be made without prior approval by the Food and Drug Administration, unless permitted under § 514.8. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the qualifications, including educational background and experience, of the technical and professional personnel who are responsible for assuring that the new animal drug has the identity, strength, quality, and purity it purports or is represented to possess, and a statement of their responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the physical facilities including building and equipment used in manufacturing, processing, packaging, labeling, storage, and control operations. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The methods used in the synthesis, extraction, isolation, or purification of any new animal drug. When the specifications and controls applied to such new animal drugs are inadequate in themselves to determine its identity, strength, quality, and purity, the methods should be described in sufficient detail, including quantities used, times, temperature, pH, solvents, etc., to determine these characteristics. Alternative methods or variations in methods within reasonable limits that do not affect such characteristics of the new animal drug may be specified. A flow sheet and indicated equations should be submitted when needed to explain the process. 
</P>
<P>(v) Precautions to insure proper identity, strength, quality, and purity of the raw materials, whether active or not, including: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The specifications for acceptance and methods of testing for each lot of raw material. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A statement as to whether or not each lot of raw materials is given a serial number to identify it, and the use made of such numbers in subsequent plant operations. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The instructions used in the manufacturing, processing, packaging, and labeling of each dosage form of the new animal drug, including: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The method of preparation of the master formula records and individual batch records and the manner in which these records are used. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The number of individuals checking weight or volume of each individual ingredient entering into each batch of the new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A statement as to whether or not the total weight or volume of each batch is determined at any stage of the manufacturing process subsequent to making up a batch according to the formula card and, if so, at what stage and by whom it is done. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The precautions used in checking the actual package yield produced from a batch of the new animal drug with the theoretical yield. This should include a description of the accounting for such items as discards, breakage, etc., and the criteria used in accepting or rejecting batches of drugs in the event of an unexplained discrepancy. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The precautions used to assure that each lot of the new animal drug is packaged with the proper label and labeling, including provisions for labeling storage and inventory control. 
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Any special precautions used in the operations. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The analytical controls used during the various stages of the manufacturing, processing, packaging, and labeling of the new animal drug, including a detailed description of the collection of samples and the analytical procedures to which they are subjected. The analytical procedures should be capable of determining the active components within a reasonable degree of accuracy and of assuring the identity of such components. 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A description of practicable methods of analysis of adequate sensitivity to determine the amount of the new animal drug in the final dosage form should be included. The dosage form may be a finished pharmaceutical product, a Type A medicated article, a Type B or a Type C medicated feed, or a product for use in animal drinking water. Where two or more active ingredients are included, methods should be quantitative and specific for each active ingredient. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If the article is one that is represented to be sterile, the same information with regard to the manufacturing, processing, packaging, and the collection of samples of the drug should be given for sterility controls. Include the standards used for acceptance of each lot of the finished drug. 
</P>
<P>(viii) An explanation of the exact significance of any batch control numbers used in the manufacturing, processing, packaging, and labeling of the new animal drug, including such control numbers that may appear on the label of the finished article. State whether these numbers enable determination of the complete manufacturing history of the product. Describe any methods used to permit determination of the distribution of any batch if its recall is required. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Adequate information with respect to the characteristics of and the test methods employed for the container, closure, or other component parts of the drug package to assure their suitability for the intended use. 
</P>
<P>(x) A complete description of, and data derived from, studies of the stability of the new animal drug in the final dosage form, including information showing the suitability of the analytical methods used. A description of any additional stability studies underway or planned. Stability data for the finished dosage form of the new animal drug in the container in which it is to be marketed, including any proposed multiple dose container, and, if it is to be put into solution at the time of dispensing, for the solution prepared as directed. If the new animal drug is intended for use in the manufacture of Type C medicated feed as defined in § 558.3 of this chapter, stability data derived from studies in which representative formulations of the medicated feed articles are used. Similar data may be required for Type B medicated feeds as determined by the Food and Drug Administration on a case-by-case basis. Expiration dates shall be proposed for finished pharmaceutical dosage forms and Type A medicated articles. If the data indicate that an expiration date is needed for Type B or Type C medicated feeds, the applicant shall propose such expiration date. If no expiration date is proposed for Type B or Type C medicated feeds, the applicant shall justify its absence with data. 
</P>
<P>(xi) Additional procedures employed which are designed to prevent contamination and otherwise assure proper control of the product. An application may be refused unless it includes adequate information showing that the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacturing, processing, and packaging of the new animal drug are adequate to preserve its identity, strength, quality, and purity in conformity with good manufacturing practice and identifies each establishment, showing the location of the plant conducting these operations. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Samples.</I> Samples of the new animal drug and articles used as components and information concerning them may be requested by the Center for Veterinary Medicine as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Each sample shall consist of four identical, separately packaged subdivisions, each containing at least three times the amount required to perform the laboratory test procedures described in the application to determine compliance with its control specifications for identity and assays. Each of the samples submitted shall be appropriately packaged and labeled to preserve its characteristics, to identify the material and the quantity in each subdivision of the sample, and to identify each subdivision with the name of the applicant and the new animal drug application to which it relates. Included are: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A sample or samples of any reference standard and blank used in the procedures described in the application for assaying each new animal drug and other assayed components of the finished new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A representative sample or samples of each strength of the finished dosage form proposed in the application and employed in the clinical investigations and a representative sample or samples of each new animal drug from the batch(es) employed in the production of such dosage form. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A representative sample or samples of finished market packages of each strength of the dosage form of the new animal drug prepared for initial marketing and, if any such sample is not from a representative commercial-scale production batch, such a sample from a representative commercial-scale production batch, and a representative sample or samples of each new animal drug from the batch(es) employed in the production of such dosage form, provided that in the case of new animal drugs marketed in large packages the sample should contain only three times a sufficient quantity of the new animal drug to allow for performing the control tests for drug identity and assays. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The following information shall be included for the samples when requested: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) For each sample submitted, full information regarding its identity and the origin of any new animal drug contained therein (including a statement whether it was produced on a laboratory, pilot-plant, or full-production scale) and detailed results of all laboratory tests made to determine the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the batch represented by the sample, including assays. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For any reference standard submitted, a complete description of its preparation and the results of all laboratory tests on it. If the test methods used differed from those described in the application, full details of the methods employed in obtaining the reporting results. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Analytical methods for residues.</I> Applications shall include a description of practicable methods for determining the quantity, if any, of the new animal drug in or on food, and any substance formed in or on food because of its use, and the proposed tolerance or withdrawal period or other use restrictions to ensure that the proposed use of this drug will be safe. When data or other adequate information establish that it is not reasonable to expect the new animal drug to become a component of food at concentrations considered unsafe, a regulatory method is not required. 
</P>
<P>(i) The kind of information required by this subdivision may include: Complete experimental protocols for determining drug residue levels in the edible products, and the length of time required for residues to be eliminated from such products following the drug's use; residue studies conducted under appropriate (consistent with the proposed usage) conditions of dosage, time, and route of administration to show levels, if any, of the drug and/or its metabolites in test animals during and upon cessation of treatment and at intervals thereafter in order to establish a disappearance curve; if the drug is to be used in combination with other drugs, possible effects of interaction demonstrated by the appropriate disappearance curve or depletion patterns after drug withdrawal under appropriate (consistent with the proposed usage) conditions of dosage, time, and route of administration; if the drug is given in the feed or water, appropriate consumption records of the medicated feed or water and appropriate performance data in the treated animal; if the drug is to be used in more than one species, drug residue studies or appropriate metabolic studies conducted for each species that is food-producing. To provide these data, a sufficient number of birds or animals should be used at each sample interval. Appropriate use of labeled compounds (e.g. radioactive tracers), may be utilized to establish metabolism and depletion curves. Drug residue levels ordinarily should be determined in muscle, liver, kidney, and fat and where applicable, in skin, milk, and eggs (yolk and egg white). As a part of the metabolic studies, levels of the drug or metabolite should be determined in blood where feasible. Samples may be combined where necessary. Where residues are suspected or known to be present in litter from treated animals, it may be necessary to include data with respect to such residues becoming components of other agricultural commodities because of use of litter from treated animals. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A new animal drug that has the potential to contaminate human food with residues whose consumption could present a risk of cancer to people must satisfy the requirements of subpart E of part 500 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Evidence to establish safety and effectiveness.</I> (i) An application may be refused unless it contains full reports of adequate tests by all methods reasonably applicable to show whether or not the new animal drug is safe and effective for use as suggested in the proposed labeling. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An application may be refused unless it includes substantial evidence of the effectiveness of the new animal drug as defined in § 514.4.
</P>
<P>(iii) An application may be refused unless it contains detailed reports of the investigations, including studies made on laboratory animals, in which the purpose, methods, and results obtained are clearly set forth of acute, subacute, and chronic toxicity, and unless it contains appropriate clinical laboratory results related to safety and efficacy. Such information should include identification of the person who conducted each investigation, a statement of where the investigations were conducted, and where the raw data are available in the application. 
</P>
<P>(iv) All information pertinent to an evaluation of the safety and effectiveness of the new animal drug received or otherwise obtained by the applicant from any source, including information derived from other investigations or commercial marketing (for example, outside the United States), or reports in the scientific literature, both favorable and unfavorable, involving the new animal drug that is the subject of the application and related new animal drugs shall be submitted. An adequate summary may be acceptable in lieu of a reprint of a published report that only supports other data submitted. Include any evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the new animal drug that has been made by the applicant's veterinary or medical department, expert committee, or consultants. 
</P>
<P>(v) If the new animal drug is a combination of active ingredients or animal drugs, an application may be refused unless it includes substantial evidence of the effectiveness of the combination new animal drug as required in § 514.4.
</P>
<P>(vi) An application shall include a complete list of the names and post office addresses of all investigators who received the new animal drug. This may be incorporated in whole or in part by reference to information submitted under the provisions of § 511.1 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Explain any omission of reports from any investigator to whom the investigational new animal drug has been made available. The unexplained omission of any reports of investigations made with the new animal drug by the applicant or submitted to him by an investigator or the unexplained omission of any pertinent reports of investigations or clinical experience received or otherwise obtained by the applicant from published literature or other sources that would bias an evaluation of the safety of the new animal drug or its effectiveness in use, constitutes grounds for the refusal or withdrawal of the approval of an application. 
</P>
<P>(viii) If a sponsor has transferred any obligations for the conduct of any clinical study to a contract research organization, the application is required to include a statement containing the name and address of the contract research organization, identifying the clinical study, and listing the obligations transferred. If all obligations governing the conduct of the study have been transferred, a general statement of this transfer—in lieu of a listing of the specific obligations transferred—may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(ix) If original subject records were audited or reviewed by the sponsor in the course of monitoring any clinical study to verify the accuracy of the case reports submitted to the sponsor, a list identifying each clinical study so audited or reviewed.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Veterinary feed directive.</I> Three copies of a veterinary feed directive (VFD) must be submitted in a form that accounts for the information described under § 558.6(b)(3) and 558.6(b)(4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Supplemental applications.</I> If it is a supplemental application, full information shall be submitted on each proposed change concerning any statement made in the approved application. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Applicant's commitment.</I> It is understood that the labeling and advertising for the new animal drug will prescribe, recommend, or suggest its use only under the conditions stated in the labeling which is part of this application and if the article is a prescription new animal drug, it is understood that any labeling which furnishes or purports to furnish information for use or which prescribes, recommends, or suggests a dosage for use of the new animal drug will also contain, in the same language and emphasis, information for its use including indications, effects, dosages, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration, any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions contained in the labeling which is part of this application. It is understood that all representations in this application apply to the drug produced until changes are made in conformity with § 514.8. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Additional commitments.</I> (i) New animal drugs as defined in § 510.3 of this chapter, intended for use in the manufacture of animal feeds in any State will be shipped only to persons who may receive such drugs in accordance with § 510.7 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The methods, facilities, and controls described under item 5 of this application conform to the current good manufacturing practice regulations in subchapter C of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to each nonclinical laboratory study contained in the application, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(13) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Environmental assessment.</I> The applicant is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.33 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Assembling and binding the application.</I> Assemble and bind an original and two copies of the application as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Bind the original or ribbon copy of the application as copy No. 1. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Bind two identical copies as copy No. 2 and copy No. 3. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify each front cover with the name of the applicant, new animal drug, and the copy number. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Number each page of the application sequentially in the upper right hand corner or in another location so that the page numbers remain legible after the application has been bound, and organize the application consistent with paragraphs (b) (1) through (14) of this section. Each copy should bear the same page numbering, whether sequential in each volume or continuous and sequential throughout the application. 
</P>
<P>(v) Include complete labeling in each of the copies. It is suggested that labeling be identified by date of printing or date of preparation. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Submit separate applications for each different dosage form of the drug proposed. Repeating basic information pertinent to all dosage forms in each application is unnecessary if reference is made to the application containing such information. Include in each application information applicable to the specific dosage form, such as labeling, composition, stability data, and method of manufacture. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Submit in folders amendments, supplements, and other correspondence sent after submission of an original application. The front cover of these submissions should be identified with the name of the applicant, new animal drug, copy number, and the new animal drug application number, if known. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a new animal drug application is submitted for a new animal drug which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system, if it appears that the drug has a potential for abuse, the Commissioner shall forward that information to the Attorney General of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 514.1, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definition and interpretation of terms contained in this section apply to those terms as used throughout subchapter E.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse drug experience</I> is any adverse event associated with the use of a new animal drug, whether or not considered to be drug related, and whether or not the new animal drug was used in accordance with the approved labeling (i.e., used according to label directions or used in an extralabel manner, including but not limited to different route of administration, different species, different indications, or other than labeled dosage). Adverse drug experience includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) An adverse event occurring in animals in the course of the use of an animal drug product by a veterinarian or by a livestock producer or other animal owner or caretaker.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure of a new animal drug to produce its expected pharmacological or clinical effect (lack of expected effectiveness).
</P>
<P>(3) An adverse event occurring in humans from exposure during manufacture, testing, handling, or use of a new animal drug.
</P>
<P><I>ANADA</I> is an abbreviated new animal drug application including all amendments and supplements.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> is a person or entity who owns or holds on behalf of the owner the approval for an NADA or an ANADA, and is responsible for compliance with applicable provisions of the act and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Increased frequency of adverse drug experience</I> is an increased rate of occurrence of a particular serious adverse drug event, expected or unexpected, after appropriate adjustment for drug exposure.
</P>
<P><I>NADA</I> is a new animal drug application including all amendments and supplements.
</P>
<P><I>Nonapplicant</I> is any person other than the applicant whose name appears on the label and who is engaged in manufacturing, packing, distribution, or labeling of the product.
</P>
<P><I>Potential applicant</I> means any person:
</P>
<P>(1) Intending to investigate a new animal drug under section 512(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act),
</P>
<P>(2) Investigating a new animal drug under section 512(j) of the act,
</P>
<P>(3) Intending to file a new animal drug application (NADA) or supplemental NADA under section 512(b)(1) of the act, or
</P>
<P>(4) Intending to file an abbreviated new animal drug application (ANADA) under section 512(b)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P><I>Presubmission conference</I> means one or more conferences between a potential applicant and FDA to reach a binding agreement establishing a submission or investigational requirement.
</P>
<P><I>Presubmission conference agreement</I> means that section of the memorandum of conference headed “Presubmission Conference Agreement” that records any agreement on the submission or investigational requirement reached by a potential applicant and FDA during the presubmission conference.
</P>
<P><I>Product defect/manufacturing defect</I> is the deviation of a distributed product from the standards specified in the approved application, or any significant chemical, physical, or other change, or deterioration in the distributed drug product, including any microbial or chemical contamination. A manufacturing defect is a product defect caused or aggravated by a manufacturing or related process. A manufacturing defect may occur from a single event or from deficiencies inherent to the manufacturing process. These defects are generally associated with product contamination, product deterioration, manufacturing error, defective packaging, damage from disaster, or labeling error. For example, a labeling error may include any incident that causes a distributed product to be mistaken for, or its labeling applied to, another product.
</P>
<P><I>Serious adverse drug experience</I> is an adverse event that is fatal, or life-threatening, or requires professional intervention, or causes an abortion, or stillbirth, or infertility, or congenital anomaly, or prolonged or permanent disability, or disfigurement.
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected adverse drug experience</I> is an adverse event that is not listed in the current labeling for the new animal drug and includes any event that may be symptomatically and pathophysiologically related to an event listed on the labeling, but differs from the event because of greater severity or specificity. For example, under this definition hepatic necrosis would be unexpected if the labeling referred only to elevated hepatic enzymes or hepatitis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 15365, Mar. 31, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 51170, Aug. 18, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.4" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.4   Substantial evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of substantial evidence.</I> Substantial evidence means evidence consisting of one or more adequate and well-controlled studies, such as a study in a target species, study in laboratory animals, field study, bioequivalence study, or an in vitro study, on the basis of which it could fairly and reasonably be concluded by experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the effectiveness of the new animal drug involved that the new animal drug will have the effect it purports or is represented to have under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling or proposed labeling thereof. Substantial evidence shall include such adequate and well-controlled studies that are, as a matter of sound scientific judgment, necessary to establish that a new animal drug will have its intended effect.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Characteristics of substantial evidence</I>—(1) <I>Qualifications of experts.</I> Any study that is intended to be part of substantial evidence of the effectiveness of a new animal drug shall be conducted by experts qualified by scientific training and experience.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intended uses and conditions of use.</I> Substantial evidence of effectiveness of a new animal drug shall demonstrate that the new animal drug is effective for each intended use and associated conditions of use for and under which approval is sought.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dose range labeling.</I> Sponsors should, to the extent possible, provide for a dose range because it increases the utility of the new animal drug by providing the user flexibility in the selection of a safe and effective dose. In general, substantial evidence to support dose range labeling for a new animal drug intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease must consist of at least one adequate and well-controlled study on the basis of which qualified experts could fairly and reasonably conclude that the new animal drug will be effective for the intended use at the lowest dose of the dose range suggested in the proposed labeling for that intended use. Substantial evidence to support dose range labeling for a new animal drug intended to affect the structure or function of the body of an animal generally must consist of at least one adequate and well-controlled study on the basis of which qualified experts could fairly and reasonably conclude that the new animal drug will be effective for the intended use at all doses within the range suggested in the proposed labeling for the intended use.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Studies</I>—(i) <I>Number.</I> Substantial evidence of the effectiveness of a new animal drug for each intended use and associated conditions of use shall consist of a sufficient number of current adequate and well-controlled studies of sufficient quality and persuasiveness to permit qualified experts:
</P>
<P>(A) To determine that the parameters selected for measurement and the measured responses reliably reflect the effectiveness of the new animal drug;
</P>
<P>(B) To determine that the results obtained are likely to be repeatable, and that valid inferences can be drawn to the target animal population; and
</P>
<P>(C) To conclude that the new animal drug is effective for the intended use at the dose or dose range and associated conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Types.</I> Adequate and well-controlled studies that are intended to provide substantial evidence of the effectiveness of a new animal drug may include, but are not limited to, published studies, foreign studies, studies using models, and studies conducted by or on behalf of the sponsor. Studies using models shall be validated to establish an adequate relationship of parameters measured and effects observed in the model with one or more significant effects of treatment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substantial evidence for combination new animal drugs</I>—(1) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions of terms apply to this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Combination new animal drug</I> means a new animal drug that contains more than one active ingredient or animal drug that is applied or administered simultaneously in a single dosage form or simultaneously in or on animal feed or drinking water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dosage form combination new animal drug</I> means a combination new animal drug intended for use other than in animal feed or drinking water.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Antibacterial</I> with respect to a particular target animal species means an active ingredient or animal drug: That is approved in that species for the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of bacterial disease; or that is approved for use in that species for any other use that is attributable to its antibacterial properties. But, antibacterial does not include ionophores or arsenicals intended for use in combination in animal feed or drinking water.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Appropriate concurrent use</I> exists when there is credible evidence that the conditions for which the combination new animal drug is intended can occur simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combination new animal drugs that contain only active ingredients or animal drugs that have previously been separately approved.</I> (i) For dosage form combination new animal drugs, except for those that contain a nontopical antibacterial, that contain only active ingredients or animal drugs that have previously been separately approved for the particular uses and conditions of use for which they are intended in combination, a sponsor shall demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(A) By substantial evidence, as defined in this section, that any active ingredient or animal drug intended only for the same use as another active ingredient or animal drug in the combination makes a contribution to the effectiveness of the combination new animal drug;
</P>
<P>(B) That each active ingredient or animal drug intended for at least one use that is different from all the other active ingredients or animal drugs used in the combination provides appropriate concurrent use for the intended target animal population; and
</P>
<P>(C) That the active ingredients or animal drugs are physically compatible and do not have disparate dosing regimens if FDA, based on scientific information, has reason to believe the active ingredients or animal drugs are physically incompatible or have disparate dosing regimens.
</P>
<P>(ii) For combination new animal drugs intended for use in animal feed or drinking water that contain only active ingredients or animal drugs that have previously been separately approved for the particular uses and conditions of use for which they are intended in combination, the sponsor shall demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(A) By substantial evidence, as defined in this section, that any active ingredient or animal drug intended only for the same use as another active ingredient or animal drug in the combination makes a contribution to the effectiveness of the combination new animal drug;
</P>
<P>(B) For such combination new animal drugs that contain more than one antibacterial ingredient or animal drug, by substantial evidence, as defined in this section, that each antibacterial makes a contribution to labeled effectiveness;
</P>
<P>(C) That each active ingredient or animal drug intended for at least one use that is different from all other active ingredients or animal drugs used in the combination provides appropriate concurrent use for the intended target animal population; and
</P>
<P>(D) That the active ingredients or animal drugs intended for use in drinking water are physically compatible if FDA, based on scientific information, has reason to believe the active ingredients or animal drugs are physically incompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other combination new animal drugs.</I> For all other combination new animal drugs, the sponsor shall demonstrate by substantial evidence, as defined in this section, that the combination new animal drug will have the effect it purports or is represented to have under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling and that each active ingredient or animal drug contributes to the effectiveness of the combination new animal drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 40756, July 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.5   Presubmission conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General principle underlying the conduct of a presubmission conference.</I> The general principle underlying the conduct of any presubmission conference is that there should be candid, full, and open communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requesting a presubmission conference.</I> A potential applicant is entitled to one or more conferences prior to the submission of an NADA, supplemental NADA, or an ANADA to reach an agreement establishing part or all of a submission or investigational requirement. A potential applicant's request for a presubmission conference must be submitted to FDA in a signed letter. The letter must include a proposed agenda that clearly outlines the scope, purpose, and objectives of the presubmission conference and must list the names and positions of the representatives who are expected to attend the presubmission conference on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A potential applicant may request one or more presubmission conferences at any time prior to the filing of a NADA, supplemental NADA, or an ANADA. A request for a presubmission conference must be received by FDA at least 30 calendar days in advance of the requested conference date. FDA will schedule the presubmission conference at a time agreeable to both FDA and the potential applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advance information.</I> The potential applicant must provide to FDA, at least 30 calendar days before a scheduled presubmission conference, a detailed agenda, a copy of any materials to be presented at the conference, a list of proposed indications and, if available, a copy of the proposed labeling for the product under consideration, and copies of materials evaluated or referenced relative to issues listed in the agenda for the conference. If the materials are not provided or are not sufficient to provide the basis for meaningful discussion, FDA may elect to postpone part or all of the meeting until sufficient materials are provided to FDA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conduct of a presubmission conference.</I> The potential applicant and FDA may each bring consultants to the presubmission conference. The presubmission conference(s) will be directed primarily at establishing agreement between FDA and the potential applicant regarding a submission or investigational requirement. The submission or investigational requirement may include, among other things, the number, types, and general design of studies that are necessary to demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of a new animal drug for the intended uses and conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling for the new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation of a presubmission conference</I>—(1) <I>Memorandum of conference</I>—(i) <I>Preparation.</I> FDA will prepare a memorandum for each presubmission conference that will include, among other things, any background pertinent to the request for meeting; a summary of the key points of discussion; agreements; and action items and assignments of responsibility. That portion of the memorandum of conference that documents any agreements reached regarding all or part of a submission or investigational requirement will be included under the heading “Presubmission Conference Agreement.” If the presubmission conference agreement section of the memorandum is silent on an issue, including one that was discussed in the conference or addressed by materials provided for the conference, such silence does not constitute agreement between FDA and the potential applicant on the issue.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sending a copy to the potential applicant.</I> FDA will send a copy of the memorandum to the potential applicant for review no later than 45 calendar days after the date of the conference
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requests for changes or clarification.</I> If a potential applicant requests changes to, or clarification of, the substance of the memorandum, the request must be sent to FDA within 30 calendar days from the date a copy of the memorandum is sent to the applicant. If the potential applicant requests changes or clarification, FDA will send the potential applicant a response to their request no later than 45 calendar days after the date of receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Administrative record.</I> A copy of FDA's original memorandum of conference and, as appropriate, a copy of an amended memorandum to correct or clarify the content of the original memorandum will be made part of the administrative file.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Field studies.</I> If FDA requires more than one field study to establish by substantial evidence that the new animal drug is effective for its intended uses under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling, FDA will provide written scientific justification for requiring more than one field study. Such justification must be provided no later than 25 calendar days after the date of the conference at which the requirement for more than one field study is established. If FDA does not believe more than one field study is required but the potential applicant voluntarily proposes to conduct more than one field study, FDA will not provide such written justification. If FDA requires one field study to be conducted at multiple locations, FDA will provide justification for requiring multiple locations verbally during the presubmission conference and in writing as part of the memorandum of conference.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Modification of presubmission conference agreements.</I> An agreement made under a presubmission conference requested under section 512(b)(3) of the act and documented in a memorandum of conference is binding on the potential applicant and FDA and may only be modified if:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA and the potential applicant mutually agree to modify, in part or in whole, the agreement and such modification is documented and provided to the potential applicant as described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) FDA by written order determines that a substantiated scientific requirement essential to the determination of safety or effectiveness of the new animal drug appeared after the conference.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>When the terms of a presubmission conference agreement are not valid.</I> (1) A presubmission conference agreement will no longer be valid if:
</P>
<P>(i) The potential applicant makes to FDA, before, during, or after the presubmission conference, any untrue statement of material fact; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The potential applicant fails to follow any material term of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) A presubmission conference may no longer be valid if the potential applicant submits false or misleading data relating to a new animal drug to FDA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> FDA is committed to resolving differences between a potential applicant and FDA reviewing divisions with respect to requirements for the investigation of new animal drugs and for NADAs, supplemental NADAs, and ANADAs as quickly and amicably as possible through a cooperative exchange of information and views. When administrative or procedural disputes arise, a potential applicant should first attempt to resolve the matter within the appropriate review division beginning with the individual(s) most directly assigned to the review of the application or investigational exemption. If the dispute cannot be resolved after such attempts, the dispute shall be evaluated and administered in accordance with applicable regulations (21 CFR 10.75). Dispute resolution procedures may be further explained by guidance available from the Center for Veterinary Medicine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 51170, Aug. 18, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.6" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.6   Amended applications.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant may submit an amendment to an application that is pending, including changes that may alter the conditions of use, the labeling, safety, effectiveness, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the drug or the adequacy of the manufacturing methods, facilities, and controls to preserve them, in which case the unamended application may be considered as withdrawn and the amended application may be considered resubmitted on the date on which the amendment is received by the Food and Drug Administration. The applicant will be notified of such date. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.7" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.7   Withdrawal of applications without prejudice.</HEAD>
<P>The sponsor may withdraw his pending application from consideration as a new animal drug application upon written notification to the Food and Drug Administration. Such withdrawal may be made without prejudice to a future filing. Upon resubmission, the time limitation will begin to run from the date the resubmission is received by the Food and Drug Administration. The original application will be retained by the Food and Drug Administration although it is considered withdrawn. The applicant shall be furnished a copy at cost on request. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.8" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.8   Supplements and other changes to an approved application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) apply to those terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The following definitions of terms apply to this part:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assess the effects of the change</I> means to evaluate the effects of a manufacturing change on the identity, strength, quality, purity, and potency of a drug as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Drug substance</I> means an active ingredient as defined under § 210.3(b)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Minor changes and stability report (MCSR)</I> means an annual report that is submitted to the application once each year within 60 days before or after the anniversary date of the application's original approval or on a mutually agreed upon date. The report must include minor manufacturing and control changes made according to § 514.8(b)(4) or state that no changes were made; and stability data generated on commercial or production batches according to an approved stability protocol or commitment.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Specification</I> means the quality standard (i.e., tests, analytical procedures, and acceptance criteria) provided in an approved application to confirm the quality of drugs including, for example, drug substances, Type A medicated articles, drug products, intermediates, raw materials, reagents, components, in-process materials, container closure systems, and other materials used in the production of a drug. For the purpose of this definition, the term “acceptance criteria” means numerical limits, ranges, or other criteria for the tests described.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manufacturing changes to an approved application</I>—(1) <I>General provisions.</I> (i) The applicant must notify FDA about each change in each condition established in an approved application beyond the variations already provided for in the application. The notice is required to describe the change fully. Depending on the type of change, the applicant must notify FDA about it in a supplement under paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section or by inclusion of the information in the annual report to the application under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of an approved application under section 512 of the act must assess the effects of the change before distributing a drug made with a manufacturing change.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, an applicant must make a change provided for in those paragraphs in accordance with a regulation or guidance that provides for a less burdensome notification of the change (for example, by submission of a supplement that does not require approval prior to distribution of the drug, or by notification in the next annual report described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iv) In each supplement and amendment to a supplement providing for a change under paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section, the applicant must include a statement certifying that a field copy has been provided to the appropriate FDA district office. No field copy is required for a supplement providing for a change made to a drug manufactured outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(v) A supplement or annual report described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section must include a list of all changes contained in the supplement or annual report. For supplements, this list must be provided in the cover letter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes requiring submission and approval of a supplement prior to distribution of the drug made using the change (major changes).</I> (i) A supplement must be submitted for any change in the drug, production process, quality controls, equipment, or facilities that has a substantial potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the drug as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Except those described in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section, changes in the qualitative or quantitative formulation of the drug, including inactive ingredients, or in the specifications provided in the approved application;
</P>
<P>(B) Changes requiring completion of appropriate clinical studies to demonstrate the equivalence of the drug to the drug as manufactured without the change;
</P>
<P>(C) Changes that may affect drug substance or drug product sterility assurance, such as changes in drug substance, drug product or component sterilization method(s) or an addition, deletion, or substitution of steps in an aseptic processing operation;
</P>
<P>(D) Changes in the synthesis or manufacture of the drug substance that may affect the impurity profile and/or the physical, chemical, or biological properties of the drug substance;
</P>
<P>(E) Changes in a drug product container closure system that controls the drug delivered to the animal or changes in the type or composition of a packaging component that may affect the impurity profile of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(F) Changes solely affecting a natural product, a recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide, or a complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody for the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Changes in the virus or adventitious agent removal or inactivation method(s),
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Changes in the source material or cell line, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Establishment of a new master cell bank or seed;
</P>
<P>(G) Changes to a drug under an application that is subject to a validity assessment because of significant questions regarding the integrity of the data supporting that application.
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant must obtain approval of a supplement from FDA prior to distribution of a drug made using a change under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The supplement must be labeled “Prior Approval Supplement.” Except for submissions under paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, the following information must be contained in the supplement:
</P>
<P>(A) A completed Form FDA 356V;
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of the proposed change;
</P>
<P>(C) The drug(s) involved;
</P>
<P>(D) The manufacturing site(s) or area(s) affected;
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the methods used and studies performed to assess the effects of the change;
</P>
<P>(F) The data derived from such studies;
</P>
<P>(G) Appropriate documentation (for example, updated master batch records, specification sheets) including previously approved documentation (with the changes highlighted) or references to previously approved documentation;
</P>
<P>(H) For a natural product, a recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide, or a complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody, relevant validation protocols and standard operating procedures must be provided in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(E) and (b)(2)(iii)(F) of this section;
</P>
<P>(I) For sterilization process and test methodologies related to sterilization process validation, relevant validation protocols and a list of relevant standard operating procedures must be provided in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(E) and (b)(2)(iii)(F) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(J) Any other information as directed by FDA.
</P>
<P>(iv) An applicant may ask FDA to expedite its review of a supplement for public health reasons or if a delay in making the change described in it would impose an extraordinary hardship on the applicant. Such a supplement and its mailing cover must be plainly marked: “Prior Approval Supplement-Expedited Review Requested.”
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Comparability Protocols.</I> An applicant may submit one or more protocols describing the specific tests and studies and acceptance criteria to be achieved to demonstrate the lack of adverse effect for specified types of manufacturing changes on the identity, strength, quality, purity, and potency of the drug as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug. Any such protocols, if not included in the approved application, or changes to an approved protocol, must be submitted as a supplement requiring approval from FDA prior to distribution of the drug produced with the manufacturing change. The supplement, if approved, may subsequently justify a reduced reporting category for the particular change because the use of the protocol for that type of change reduces the potential risk of an adverse effect. A comparability protocol supplement must be labeled “Prior Approval Supplement—Comparability Protocol.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Changes requiring submission of a supplement at least 30 days prior to distribution of the drug made using the change (moderate changes).</I> (i) A supplement must be submitted for any change in the drug, production process, quality controls, equipment, or facilities that has a moderate potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the drug as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) A change in the container closure system that does not affect the quality of the drug except as otherwise described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Changes solely affecting a natural protein, a recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide or a complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An increase or decrease in production scale during finishing steps that involves different equipment, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Replacement of equipment with that of a different design that does not affect the process methodology or process operating parameters.
</P>
<P>(C) Relaxation of an acceptance criterion or deletion of a test to comply with an official compendium that is consistent with FDA statutory and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) A supplement submitted under paragraph (b)(3)(i) or (b)(3)(vi) of this section is required to give a full explanation of the basis for the change and identify the date on which the change is made. The supplement submitted under paragraph (b)(3)(i) must be labeled “Supplement-Changes Being Effected in 30 Days.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Pending approval of the supplement by FDA and except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section, distribution of the drug made using the change may begin not less than 30 days after receipt of the supplement by FDA. The information listed in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(A) through (b)(2)(iii)(J) of this section must be contained in the supplement.
</P>
<P>(v) The applicant must not distribute the drug made using the change if within 30 days following FDA's receipt of the supplement, FDA informs the applicant that either:
</P>
<P>(A) The change requires approval prior to distribution of the drug in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any of the information required under paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section is missing. In this case, the applicant must not distribute the drug made using the change until the supplement has been amended to provide the missing information.
</P>
<P>(vi) The agency may designate a category of changes for the purpose of providing that, in the case of a change in such category, the holder of an approved application may commence distribution of the drug involved upon receipt by the agency of a supplement for the change. The information listed in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(A) through (b)(2)(iii)(J) of this section must be contained in the supplement. The supplement must be labeled “Supplement-Changes Being Effected.” These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Addition to a specification or changes in the methods or controls to provide increased assurance that the drug will have the characteristics of identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency that it purports or is represented to possess; and
</P>
<P>(B) A change in the size and/or shape of a container for a nonsterile drug product, except for solid dosage forms, without a change in the labeled amount of drug product or from one container closure system to another.
</P>
<P>(vii) If the agency disapproves the supplemental application, it may order the manufacturer to cease distribution of the drug(s) made with the manufacturing change.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changes and updated stability data to be described and submitted in an annual report (minor changes).</I> (i) Changes in the drug, production process, quality controls, equipment, or facilities that have a minimal potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the drug as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the drug must be documented by the applicant in an annual report to the application as described under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section. The report must be labeled “Minor Changes and Stability Report.”
</P>
<P>(ii) These changes include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Any change made to comply with a change to an official compendium, except a change in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, that is consistent with FDA statutory and regulatory requirements;
</P>
<P>(B) The deletion or reduction of an ingredient intended to affect only the color of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(C) Replacement of equipment with that of the same design and operating principles except for those equipment changes described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) A change in the size and/or shape of a container containing the same number of dosage units for a nonsterile solid dosage form drug product, without a change from one container closure system to another;
</P>
<P>(E) A change within the container closure system for a nonsterile drug product, based upon a showing of equivalency to the approved system under a protocol approved in the application or published in an official compendium;
</P>
<P>(F) An extension of an expiration dating period based upon full shelf-life data on production batches obtained from a protocol approved in the application;
</P>
<P>(G) The addition or revision of an alternative analytical procedure that provides the same or increased assurance of the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the drug being tested as the analytical procedure described in the approved application, or deletion of an alternative analytical procedure; and
</P>
<P>(H) The addition by embossing, debossing, or engraving of a code imprint to a solid oral dosage form drug product other than a modified release dosage form, or a minor change in an existing code imprint.
</P>
<P>(iii) For changes under this category, the applicant is required to submit in the annual report:
</P>
<P>(A) A completed Form FDA 356V;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement by the holder of the approved application that the effects of the change have been assessed;
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed description of the change(s);
</P>
<P>(D) The manufacturing site(s) or area(s) involved;
</P>
<P>(E) The date each change was implemented;
</P>
<P>(F) Data from studies and tests performed to assess the effects of the change;
</P>
<P>(G) For a natural product, recombinant DNA-derived protein/polypeptide, complex or conjugate of a drug substance with a monoclonal antibody, sterilization process or test methodology related to sterilization process validation, relevant validation protocols and/or standard operating procedures;
</P>
<P>(H) Appropriate documentation (for example, updated master batch records, specification sheets, etc.) including previously approved documentation (with the changes highlighted) or references to previously approved documentation;
</P>
<P>(I) Updated stability data generated on commercial or production batches according to an approved stability protocol or commitment; and
</P>
<P>(J) Any other information as directed by FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling and other changes to an approved application</I>—(1) <I>General provisions.</I> The applicant must notify FDA about each change in each condition established in an approved application beyond the variations already provided for in the application. The notice is required to describe the change fully.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Labeling changes requiring the submission and approval of a supplement prior to distribution of the drug made using the change (major changes).</I> (i) Addition of intended uses and changes to package labeling require a supplement. These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Revision in labeling, such as updating information pertaining to effects, dosages, adverse reactions, contraindications, which includes information headed “adverse reactions,” “warnings,” “precautions,” and “contraindications,” except ones described in (c)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Addition of an intended use;
</P>
<P>(C) If it is a prescription drug, any mailing or promotional piece used after the drug is placed on the market is labeling requiring a supplemental application, unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The parts of the labeling furnishing directions, warnings, and information for use of the drug are the same in language and emphasis as labeling approved or permitted; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any other parts of the labeling are consistent with and not contrary to such approved or permitted labeling.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prescription drug labeling not requiring an approved supplemental application is submitted in accordance with § 514.80(b)(5)(ii).
</P>
<P>(D) Any other changes in labeling, except ones described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant must obtain approval of the supplement from FDA prior to distribution of the drug. The supplement must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A completed Form FDA 356V;
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of the proposed change;
</P>
<P>(C) The drug(s) involved;
</P>
<P>(D) The data derived from studies in support of the change; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any other information as directed by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling changes to be placed into effect prior to receipt of a written notice of approval of a supplemental application.</I> (i) Labeling changes of the following kinds that increase the assurance of drug safety proposed in supplemental applications must be placed into effect immediately:
</P>
<P>(A) The addition to package labeling, promotional labeling, or prescription drug advertising of additional warning, contraindication, adverse reaction, and precaution information;
</P>
<P>(B) The deletion from package labeling, promotional labeling, or drug advertising of false, misleading, or unsupported intended uses or claims for effectiveness; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other changes as directed by FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling changes (for example, design and style) that do not decrease safety of drug use proposed in supplemental applications may be placed into effect prior to written notice of approval from FDA of a supplemental application.
</P>
<P>(iii) A supplement submitted under paragraph (c)(3) of this section must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A full explanation of the basis for the changes, the date on which such changes are being effected, and plainly marked on the mailing cover and on the supplement, “Supplement—Labeling Changes Being Effected”;
</P>
<P>(B) Two sets of printed copies of any revised labeling to be placed in use, identified with the new animal drug application number; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement by the applicant that all promotional labeling and all drug advertising will promptly be revised consistent with the changes made in the labeling on or within the new animal drug package no later than upon approval of the supplemental application.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the supplemental application is not approved and the drug is being distributed with the proposed labeling, FDA may initiate an enforcement action because the drug is misbranded under section 502 of the act and/or adulterated under section 501 of the act. In addition, under section 512(e) of the act, FDA may, after due notice and opportunity for a hearing, issue an order withdrawing approval of the application.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changes providing for additional distributors to be reported under Records and reports concerning experience with approved new animal drugs (§ 514.80).</I> Supplemental applications as described under paragraph (c)(2) of this section will not be required for an additional distributor to distribute a drug that is the subject of an approved new animal drug application or abbreviated new animal drug application if the conditions described under § 514.80(b)(5)(iii) are met.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Patent information.</I> The applicant must comply with the patent information requirements under section 512(c)(3) of the act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claimed exclusivity.</I> If an applicant claims exclusivity under section 512(c)(2)(F) of the act upon approval of a supplemental application for a change in its previously approved drug, the applicant must include such a statement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Good laboratory practice for nonclinical laboratory studies.</I> A supplemental application that contains nonclinical laboratory studies must include, with respect to each nonclinical study, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 74782, Dec. 13, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.11" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.11   Confidentiality of data and information in a new animal drug application file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section the <I>NADA file</I> includes all data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the NADA, INAD's incorporated into the NADA, supplemental NADA's, reports under §§ 514.80 and 510.301 of this chapter, master files, and other related submissions. The availability for public disclosure of any record in the NADA file shall be handled in accordance with the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The existence of an NADA file will not be disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration before the application has been approved, unless it has been previously disclosed or acknowledged.
</P>
<P>(c) If the existence of an NADA file has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the NADA file is available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the existence of an NADA file has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged before the application has been approved, no data or information contained in the file is available for public disclosure, but the Commissioner may, in his discretion, disclose a summary of such selected portions of the safety and effectiveness data as are appropriate for public consideration of a specific pending issue, i.e., at an open session of a Food and Drug Administration advisory committee or pursuant to an exchange of important regulatory information with a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(e) After an application has been approved, the following data and information in the NADA file are immediately available for public disclosure unless extraordinary circumstances are shown:
</P>
<P>(1) All safety and effectiveness data and information previously disclosed to the public, as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) A summary or summaries of the safety and effectiveness data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the NADA file. Such summaries do not constitute the full reports of investigations under section 512(b)(1) of the act (21 U.S.C. 360b(b)(1)) on which the safety or effectiveness of the drug may be approved. Such summaries shall consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For an NADA approved prior to July 1, 1975, internal agency records that describe such data and information, e.g., a summary of basis for approval or internal reviews of the data and information, after deletion of:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Names and any information that would identify the investigators. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Any inappropriate gratuitous comments unnecessary to an objective analysis of the data and information. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For an NADA approved after July 1, 1975, a summary of such data and information prepared in one of the following two alternative ways shall be publicly released when the application is approved.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The Center for Veterinary Medicine may at an appropriate time prior to approval of the NADA require the applicant to prepare a summary of such data and information, which will be reviewed and, where appropriate, revised by the Center.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The Center for Veterinary Medicine may prepare its own summary of such data and information. 
</P>
<P>(3) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(4) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information, after deletion of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician, hospital, or other institution. 
</P>
<P>(5) A list of all active ingredients and any inactive ingredients previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(6) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(7) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to the NADA, in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) All safety and effectiveness data and information not previously disclosed to the public are available for public disclosure at the time any one of the following events occurs unless extraordinary circumstances are known: 
</P>
<P>(1) The NADA has been abandoned and no further work is being undertaken with respect to it. 
</P>
<P>(2) A final determination is made that the NADA is not approvable, and all legal appeals have been exhausted. 
</P>
<P>(3) Approval of the NADA is withdrawn, and all legal appeals have been exhausted. 
</P>
<P>(4) A final determination has been made that the animal drug is not a new animal drug. 
</P>
<P>(5) A final determination has been made that the animal drug may be marketed without submission of such safety and/or effectiveness data and information. 
</P>
<P>(g) The following data and information in an NADA file are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter: 
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures. 
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas. 
</P>
<P>(h) For purposes of this regulation, safety and effectiveness data include all studies and tests of an animal drug on animals and all studies and tests on the animal drug for identity, stability, purity, potency, and bioavailability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 3109, Jan. 14, 1977; 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977; 54 FR 18280, Apr. 28, 1989; 68 FR 15365, Mar. 31, 2003; 79 FR 14611, Mar. 17, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.12" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.12   Confidentiality of data and information in an investigational new animal drug notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The existence of an INAD notice will not be disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration unless it has previously been publicly disclosed or acknowledged. 
</P>
<P>(b) The availability for public disclosure of all data and information in an INAD file shall be handled in accordance with provisions established in § 514.11. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.15" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.15   Untrue statements in applications.</HEAD>
<P>Among the reasons why an application for a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug may contain an untrue statement of a material fact are: 
</P>
<P>(a) Differences in: 
</P>
<P>(1) Conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested by the applicant for the product from the conditions of such use stated in the application; 
</P>
<P>(2) Articles used as components of the product from those listed in the application; 
</P>
<P>(3) Composition of the product from that stated in the application; 
</P>
<P>(4) Methods used in or the facilities and controls used for the manufacture, processing, or packing of the product from such methods, facilities, and controls described in the application; 
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling from the specimens contained in the application; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The unexplained omission in whole or in part from an application or from an amendment or supplement to an application or from any record or report required under the provisions of section 512 of the act and § 514.80 or § 510.301 of this chapter of any information obtained from:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigations as to the safety, effectiveness, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the drug, made by the applicant on the drug, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Investigations or experience with the product that is the subject of the application, or any related product, available to the applicant from any source if such information is pertinent to an evaluation of the safety, effectiveness, identity, strength, quality, or purity of the drug, when such omission would bias an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the product. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any nonclinical laboratory study contained in the application was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations as set forth in part 58 of this chapter, and the application fails to include a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 7226, Feb. 28, 1984; 50 FR 7517, Feb. 22, 1985; 68 FR 15365, Mar. 31, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Actions on Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.80" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.80   Records and reports concerning experience with approved new animal drugs.</HEAD>
<P>The following table outlines the purpose for each paragraph of this section:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Purpose
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">21 CFR Paragraph and Title
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What information must be reported concerning approved NADAs or ANADAs?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(a) Applicability.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What authority does FDA have for requesting records and reports?
<br/>Who is required to establish, maintain, and report required information relating to experiences with a new animal drug?
<br/>Is information from foreign sources required?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(a)(1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What records must be established and maintained and what reports filed with FDA?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(a)(2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What is FDA's purpose for requiring reports?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(a)(3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Do applicants of Type A medicated articles have to establish, maintain, and report information required under § 514.80?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(a)(4).


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">How do the requirements under § 514.80 relate to current good manufacturing practices?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(a)(5).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Does this section apply to designated medical gases subject to the certification requirements under part 230?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(a)(6)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b) Reporting requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for reporting product/manufacturing defects?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(1) Three-day NADA/ANADA field alert report.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(2) Fifteen-day NADA/ANADA alert report.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for reporting serious and unexpected adverse drug experiences?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(2)(i) Initial report.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for followup reporting of serious and unexpected adverse drug experiences?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(2)(ii) Followup report.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for nonapplicants for reporting adverse drug experiences?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(3) Nonapplicant report.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the general requirements for submission of periodic drug experience reports, <E T="03">e.g.,</E> method of submission, submission date and frequency, when is it to be submitted, how many copies? 
<br/>How do I petition to change the date of submission or frequency of submissions?
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4) Periodic drug experience report.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What must be submitted in the periodic drug experience reports?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(i) through (b)(4)(iv).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What distribution data must be submitted?
<br/>How should the distribution data be submitted?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(i) Distribution data.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What labeling materials should be submitted?
<br/>How do I report changes to the labeling materials since the last report?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(ii) Labeling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iii) Nonclinical laboratory studies and clinical data not previously reported.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for submission of nonclinical laboratory studies?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iii)(A).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for submission of clinical laboratory data?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iii)(B).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">When must results of clinical trials conducted by or for the applicant be reported?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iii)(C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iv) Adverse drug experiences.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">How do I report product/manufacturing defects and adverse drug experiences not previously reported to FDA?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iv)(A).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for submitting adverse drug experiences cited in literature?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iv)(B).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for submitting adverse drug experiences in postapproval studies and clinical trials?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(iv)(C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for reporting increases in the frequency of serious, expected, and unexpected adverse drug experiences?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(4)(v) Summary report of increased frequency of adverse drug experience.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5) Other reporting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Can FDA request that an applicant submit information at different times than stated specifically in this regulation?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5)(i) Special drug experience report.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for submission of advertisement and promotional labeling to FDA?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5)(ii) Advertisements and promotional labeling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for adding a new distributor to the approved application?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5)(iii) Distributor's statement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What labels and how many labels need to be submitted for review?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5)(iii)(A).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What changes are required and allowed to distributor labeling?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5)(iii)(A)(<E T="03">1</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for making other changes to the distributor labeling?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5)(iii)(A)(<E T="03">2</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What information should be included in each new distributor's signed statement?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(b)(5)(iii)(B)(<E T="03">1</E>) through (b)(5)(iii)(B)(<E T="03">5</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the conditions for submitting information that is common to more than one application? (i.e., can I submit common information to one application?)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(c) Multiple applications.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What information has to be submitted to the common application and related application?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(c)(1) through (c)(4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What reports must be submitted to FDA electronically?
<br/>How can I apply for a waiver from the electronic reporting requirements?
<br/>How do I obtain Form FDA 1932 and Form FDA 2301?
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(d) Format for Submissions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">How long must I maintain records and reports required by this section?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(e) Records to be maintained.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What are the requirements for allowing access to these records and reports, and copying by authorized FDA officer or employee?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(f) Access to records and reports.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where do I mail reports that are not required to be submitted electronically?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(g) Mailing addresses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">What happens if the applicant fails to establish, maintain, or make the required reports?
<br/>What happens if the applicant refuses to allow FDA access to, and/or copying and/or verify records and reports?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(h) Withdrawal of approval.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Does an adverse drug experience reflect a conclusion that the report or information constitutes an admission that the drug caused an adverse effect?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">514.80(i) Disclaimer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) Each applicant must establish and maintain indexed and complete files containing full records of all information pertinent to safety or effectiveness of a new animal drug that has not been previously submitted as part of the NADA or ANADA. Such records must include information from domestic as well as foreign sources. Each nonapplicant must establish and maintain indexed and complete files containing full records of all information pertinent to safety or effectiveness of a new animal drug that is received or otherwise obtained by the nonapplicant. Such records must include information from domestic as well as foreign sources.
</P>
<P>(2) Each applicant must submit reports of data, studies, and other information concerning experience with new animal drugs to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for each approved NADA and ANADA, as required in this section. A nonapplicant must submit data, studies, and other information concerning experience with new animal drugs to the appropriate applicant, as required in this section. The applicant, in turn, must report the nonapplicant's data, studies, and other information to FDA. Applicants and nonapplicants must submit data, studies, and other information described in this section from domestic, as well as foreign sources.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA reviews the records and reports required in this section to facilitate a determination under section 512(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360b(e)) as to whether there may be grounds for suspending or withdrawing approval of the NADA or ANADA.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of this section also apply to any approved Type A medicated article. In addition, the requirements contained in § 514.80(b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(4)(iv), and (b)(4)(v) apply to any approved Type A medicated article incorporated in animal feeds.
</P>
<P>(5) The records and reports referred to in this section are in addition to those required by the current good manufacturing practice regulations in parts 211, 225, and 226 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) This section does not apply to designated medical gases, which are subject to the certification requirements under part 230 of this chapter. Part 230 of this chapter contains requirements related to records and reports concerning experience with the use of a designated medical gas in animals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirements</I>—(1) <I>Three-day NADA/ANADA field alert report.</I> This report provides information pertaining to product and manufacturing defects that may result in serious adverse drug events. The applicant (or nonapplicant through the applicant) must submit the report to the appropriate FDA District Office or local FDA resident post within 3 working days of first becoming aware that a defect may exist. The information initially may be provided by telephone or other telecommunication means, with prompt written followup using Form FDA 1932 “Veterinary Adverse Drug Reaction, Lack of Effectiveness, Product Defect Report.” The mailing cover for these reports must be plainly marked “3-Day NADA/ANADA Field Alert Report.” If the applicant elects to also report directly to the FDA's Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM), the applicant must submit the report to CVM in electronic format as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the applicant obtains a waiver under paragraph (d)(2) of this section or FDA requests the report in an alternate format.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fifteen-day NADA/ANADA alert report</I>—(i) <I>Initial report.</I> This report provides information on each serious, unexpected adverse drug event, regardless of the source of the information. The applicant (or nonapplicant through the applicant) must submit the report to FDA within 15 working days of first receiving the information. The report must be submitted to FDA in electronic format as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the applicant obtains a waiver under paragraph (d)(2) of this section or FDA requests the report in an alternate format.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Followup report.</I> The applicant must promptly investigate all adverse drug events that are the subject of 15-day NADA/ANADA alert reports. If this investigation reveals significant new information, a followup report must be submitted within 15 working days of receiving such information. A followup report must be submitted to FDA in electronic format as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the applicant obtains a waiver under paragraph (d)(2) of this section or FDA requests the report in an alternate format. The followup report must state the date of the initial report and provide the additional information. If additional information is sought but not obtained within 3 months of the initial report, a followup report is required describing the steps taken and why additional information was not obtained.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nonapplicant report.</I> Nonapplicants must forward reports of adverse drug experiences to the applicant within 3 working days of first receiving the information. The applicant must then submit the report(s) to FDA as required in this section. The nonapplicant must maintain records of all nonapplicant reports, including the date the nonapplicant received the information concerning adverse drug experiences, the name and address of the applicant, and a copy of the adverse drug experience report including the date such report was submitted to the applicant. If the nonapplicant elects to also report directly to FDA, the nonapplicant must submit the report to FDA in electronic format as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the nonapplicant obtains a waiver under paragraph (d)(2) of this section or FDA requests the report in an alternate format.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic drug experience report.</I> This report must be accompanied by a completed Form FDA 2301 “Transmittal of Periodic Reports and Promotional Materials for New Animal Drugs.” It must be submitted every 6 months for the first 2 years following approval of an NADA or ANADA and yearly thereafter. Reports required by this section must contain data and information for the full reporting period. The 6-month periodic drug experience reports must be submitted within 30 days following the end of the 6-month reporting period. The yearly periodic drug experience reports must be submitted within 90 days of the anniversary date of the approval of the NADA or ANADA. Any previously submitted information contained in the report must be identified as such. For yearly (annual) periodic drug experience reports, the applicant may petition FDA to change the date of submission or frequency of reporting, and after approval of such petition, file such reports on the new filing date or at the new reporting frequency. Also, FDA may require a report at different times or more frequently. The periodic drug experience report must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Distribution data.</I> (A) Information about the distribution of each new animal drug product, including information on any distributor-labeled product. This information must include the total number of distributed units of each size, strength, or potency (<I>e.g.,</I> 100,000 bottles of 100 5-milligram tablets; 50,000 10-milliliter vials of 5-percent solution). This information must be presented in two categories: Quantities distributed domestically and quantities exported.
</P>
<P>(B) Applicants submitting annual sales and distribution reports for antimicrobial new animal drug products under § 514.87 have the option not to report distribution data under paragraph (b)(4)(i)(A) of this section for the approved applications that include these same products, but only provided each of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Applicants must have submitted complete periodic drug experience reports under this section for such applications for at least 2 full years after the date of their initial approval.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Applicants must ensure that the beginning of the reporting period for the annual periodic drug experience reports for such applications is January 1. For applications that currently have a reporting period that begins on a date other than January 1, applicants must request a change in reporting submission date such that the reporting period begins on January 1 and ends on December 31, as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Applicants that change their reporting submission date must also submit a special drug experience report, as described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, that addresses any gaps in distribution data caused by the change in date of submission.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Applicants who choose not to report under paragraph (b)(4)(i)(A) of this section must ensure that full sales and distribution data for each product approved under such applications are alternatively reported under § 514.87, including products that are labeled for use only in nonfood-producing animals.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Labeling.</I> Applicant and distributor current package labeling, including package inserts (if any). For large-size package labeling or large shipping cartons, a representative copy must be submitted (e.g., a photocopy of pertinent areas of large feed bags). A summary of any changes in labeling made since the last report (listed by date of implementation) must be included with the labeling or if there have been no changes, a statement of such fact must be included with the labeling.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nonclinical laboratory studies and clinical data not previously reported.
</P>
<P>(A) Copies of in vitro studies (e.g., mutagenicity) and other nonclinical laboratory studies conducted by or otherwise obtained by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(B) Copies of published clinical trials of the new animal drug (or abstracts of them) including clinical trials on safety and effectiveness, clinical trials on new uses, and reports of clinical experience pertinent to safety conducted by or otherwise obtained by the applicant. Review articles, papers, and abstracts in which the drug is used as a research tool, promotional articles, press clippings, and papers that do not contain tabulations or summaries of original data are not required to be reported.
</P>
<P>(C) Descriptions of completed clinical trials conducted by or for the applicant must be submitted no later than 1 year after completion of research. Supporting information is not to be reported.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Adverse drug experiences.</I> (A) Product/manufacturing defects and adverse drug experiences not previously reported under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section must be reported individually to FDA in electronic format as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the applicant obtains a waiver under paragraph (d)(2) of this section or FDA requests the report in an alternate format.
</P>
<P>(B) Reports of adverse drug experiences in the literature must be noted in the periodic drug experience report. A bibliography of pertinent references must be included with the report. Upon FDA's request, the applicant must provide a full text copy of these publications.
</P>
<P>(C) Reports of previously not reported adverse drug experiences that occur in postapproval studies must be reported individually to FDA in electronic format as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the applicant obtains a waiver under paragraph (d)(2) of this section or FDA requests the report in an alternate format.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Summary report of increased frequency of adverse drug experience.</I> The applicant must periodically review the incidence of reports of adverse drug experiences to determine if there has been an increased frequency of serious (expected and unexpected) adverse drug events. The applicant must evaluate the increased frequency of serious (expected or unexpected) adverse drug events at least as often as reporting of periodic drug experience reports. The applicant must report the increased frequency of serious (expected and unexpected) adverse drug events in the periodic drug experience report. Summaries of reports of increased frequency of adverse drug events must be submitted in narrative form. The summaries must state the time period on which the increased frequency is based, time period comparisons in determining increased frequency, references to any reports previously submitted under paragraphs (b)(1), (2), and (3) and (b)(4)(iv)(A) and (C) of this section, the method of analysis, and the interpretation of the results. The summaries must be submitted in a separate section within the periodic drug experience report.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other reporting</I>—(i) <I>Special drug experience report.</I> Upon written request, FDA may require that the applicant submit a report required under § 514.80 at different times or more frequently than the timeframes stated in § 514.80.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Advertisements and promotional labeling.</I> The applicant must submit at the time of initial dissemination one set of specimens of mailing pieces and other labeling for prescription and over-the-counter new animal drugs. For prescription new animal drugs, the applicant must also submit one set of specimens of any advertisement at the time of initial publication or broadcast. Mailing pieces and labeling designed to contain product samples must be complete except that product samples may be omitted. Each submission of promotional labeling or advertisements must be accompanied by a completed Form FDA 2301.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Distributor's statement.</I> At the time of initial distribution of a new animal drug product by a distributor, the applicant must submit a special drug experience report accompanied by a completed Form FDA 2301 containing the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The distributor's current product labeling.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The distributor's labeling must be identical to that in the approved NADA/ANADA except for a different and suitable proprietary name (if used) and the name and address of the distributor. The name and address of the distributor must be preceded by an appropriate qualifying phrase as permitted by the regulations such as “manufactured for” or “distributed by.”
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Other labeling changes must be the subject of a supplemental NADA or ANADA as described under § 514.8.
</P>
<P>(B) A signed statement by the distributor stating:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The category of the distributor's operations (e.g., wholesale or retail),
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That the distributor will distribute the new animal drug only under the approved labeling,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) That the distributor will promote the product only for use under the conditions stated in the approved labeling,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) That the distributor will adhere to the records and reports requirements of this section, and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) That the distributor is regularly and lawfully engaged in the distribution or dispensing of prescription products if the product is a prescription new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple applications.</I> Whenever an applicant is required to submit a periodic drug experience report under the provisions of § 514.80(b)(4) with respect to more than one approved NADA or ANADA for preparations containing the same new animal drug so that the same information is required to be reported for more than one application, the applicant may elect to submit as a part of the report for one such application (the primary application) all the information common to such applications in lieu of reporting separately and repetitively on each. If the applicant elects to do this, the applicant must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) State when a report applies to multiple applications and identify all related applications for which the report is submitted by NADA or ANADA number.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the primary application contains a list of the NADA or ANADA numbers of all related applications.
</P>
<P>(3) Submit a completed Form FDA 2301 to the primary application and each related application with reference to the primary application by NADA/ANADA number and submission date for the complete report of the common information.
</P>
<P>(4) All other information specific to a particular NADA/ANADA must be included in the report for that particular NADA/ANADA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format for submissions</I>—(1) <I>Electronic submissions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, reports submitted to FDA under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii), (b)(3), and (b)(4)(iv)(A) and (C) of this section and reports submitted to CVM under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be submitted in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. Data provided in electronic submissions must be in conformance with the data elements in Form FDA 1932 and FDA technical documents describing transmission. As necessary, FDA will issue updated technical documents on how to provide the electronic submission (<I>e.g.,</I> method of transmission and processing, media, file formats, preparation, and organization of files). Unless requested by FDA, paper copies of reports submitted electronically should not be submitted to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waivers.</I> An applicant or nonapplicant may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the electronic submission requirements in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The initial request may be by telephone or email to CVM's Division of Veterinary Product Safety, with prompt written followup submitted as a letter to the application(s). FDA will grant waivers on a limited basis for good cause shown. If FDA grants a waiver, the applicant or nonapplicant must comply with the conditions for reporting specified by FDA upon granting the waiver.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Paper forms.</I> If approved by FDA before use, a computer-generated equivalent of Form FDA 1932 may be used for reports submitted to the appropriate FDA District Office or local FDA resident post under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and to FDA under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and a computer-generated equivalent of Form FDA 2301 may be used for reports submitted to FDA under paragraph (b)(4) of this section. Form FDA 1932 may be obtained on the FDA website, by telephoning CVM's Division of Veterinary Product Safety, or by submitting a written request to the following address: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Division of Veterinary Product Safety (HFV-240), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855-2764. Form FDA 2301 may be obtained on the FDA website, by telephoning CVM's Division of Surveillance (HFV-210), or by submitting a written request to the following address: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Division of Surveillance (HFV-210), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855-2764.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records to be maintained.</I> The applicants and nonapplicants must maintain records and reports of all information required by this section for a period of 5 years after the date of submission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Access to records and reports.</I> The applicant and nonapplicant must, upon request from any authorized FDA officer or employee, at all reasonable times, permit such officer or employee to have access to copy and to verify all such required records and reports.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mailing addresses.</I> Three-day alert reports must be submitted to the appropriate FDA District Office or local FDA resident post. Addresses for District Offices and resident posts may be obtained on the FDA website. Other reports not required to be submitted to FDA in electronic format must be submitted to the following address: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Document Control Unit (HFV-199), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855-2764.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Withdrawal of approval.</I> If FDA finds that the applicant has failed to establish the required records, or has failed to maintain those records, or failed to make the required reports, or has refused access to an authorized FDA officer or employee to copy or to verify such records or reports, FDA may withdraw approval of the application to which such records or reports relate. If FDA determines that withdrawal of the approval is necessary, the agency shall give the applicant notice and opportunity for hearing, as provided in § 514.200, on the question of whether to withdraw approval of the application.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Disclaimer.</I> Any report or information submitted under this section and any release of that report or information by FDA will be without prejudice and does not necessarily reflect a conclusion that the report or information constitutes an admission that the drug caused or contributed to an adverse event. A person need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information constitutes an admission that a drug caused or contributed to an adverse event.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 15365, Mar. 31, 2003, as amended at 81 FR 29141, May 11, 2016; 85 FR 45512, July 29, 2020; 90 FR 51782, June 18, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.87" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.87   Annual reports for antimicrobial animal drug sales and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant for each new animal drug product approved under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or conditionally approved under section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and containing an antimicrobial active ingredient, must submit an annual report to FDA on the amount of each such antimicrobial active ingredient in the drug that is sold or distributed in the reporting year for use in food-producing animal species, including information on any distributor-labeled product.
</P>
<P>(b) This report must identify the approved or conditionally approved application and must include the following information for each new animal drug product described in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A listing of each antimicrobial active ingredient contained in the product;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of each product sold or distributed by unit, including the container size, strength, and dosage form of such product units;
</P>
<P>(3) For each such product, a listing of the target animal species, indications, and production classes that are specified on the approved label;
</P>
<P>(4) For each such product, the number of units sold or distributed in the United States (<I>i.e.,</I> domestic sales) for each month of the reporting year; and
</P>
<P>(5) For each such product, the number of units sold or distributed outside the United States (<I>i.e.,</I> quantities exported) for each month of the reporting year.
</P>
<P>(c) Each report must also provide a species-specific estimate of the percentage of each product described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that was sold or distributed domestically in the reporting year for use in any of the following animal species categories, but only for such species that appear on the approved label: Cattle, swine, chickens, turkeys. The total of the species-specific percentages reported for each product must account for 100 percent of its sales and distribution; therefore, a fifth category of “other species/unknown” must also be reported.
</P>
<P>(d) Each report must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be submitted not later than March 31 each year;
</P>
<P>(2) Cover the period of the preceding calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be submitted using Form FDA 3744, “Antimicrobial Animal Drug Distribution Report.”
</P>
<P>(e) Sales and distribution data and information reported under this section will be considered to fall within the exemption for confidential commercial information established in § 20.61 of this chapter and will not be publicly disclosed, except that summary reports of such information aggregated in such a way that does not reveal information that is not available for public disclosure under this provision will be prepared by FDA and made available to the public as provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA will publish an annual summary report of the data and information it receives under this section for each calendar year by December 31 of the following year. Such annual reports must include a summary of sales and distribution data and information by antimicrobial drug class and may include additional summary data and information as determined by FDA. In order to protect confidential commercial information, each individual datum appearing in the summary report must:
</P>
<P>(1) Reflect combined product sales and distribution data and information obtained from three or more distinct sponsors of approved products that were actively sold or distributed that reporting year, and
</P>
<P>(2) Be reported in a manner consistent with protecting both national security and confidential commercial information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29141, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.100   Evaluation and comment on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the filed application has been evaluated, the applicant will be furnished written comment on any apparent deficiencies in the application. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the description of the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, and packing of such new animal drug appears adequate on its face, but it is not feasible to reach a conclusion as to the safety and effectiveness of the new animal drug solely from consideration of this description, the applicant may be notified that an establishment inspection is required to verify their adequacy. 
</P>
<P>(c) A request for samples of a new animal drug or any edible tissues and byproducts of animals treated with such a drug, shall specify the quantity deemed adequate to permit tests of analytical methods to determine their adequacy for regulatory purposes. The request should be made as early in the 180-day period as possible to assure timely completion. The date used for computing the 180-day limit for the purposes of section 512(c) of the act shall be moved forward 1 day for each day after the mailing date of the request until all of the requested samples are received. If the samples are not received within 90 days after the request, the application will be considered withdrawn without prejudice. 
</P>
<P>(d) The information contained in an application may be insufficient to determine whether a new animal drug is safe or effective in use if it fails to include (among other things) a statement showing whether such drug is to be limited to prescription sale and exempt under section 502(f) of the act from the requirement that its labeling bear adequate directions for lay use. If such drug is to be exempt, the information may also be insufficient if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The specimen labeling proposed fails to bear adequate information for professional use including indications, effects, dosages, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions under which practitioners licensed by law to administer such drug can use the drug for the purposes for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is to be advertised, or represented, in accordance with § 201.105 of this chapter, and information concerning hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions relevant with respect to any uses for which such drug is to be prescribed. 
</P>
<P>(2) The application fails to show that the labeling and advertising of such drug will offer the drug for use only under those conditions for which it is offered in the labeling that is part of the application. 
</P>
<P>(3) The application fails to show that all labeling that furnishes or purports to furnish information for professional use of such drug will contain, in the same language and emphasis, the information for use including indications, effects, dosages, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration and any relevant warnings, hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions, which is contained in the labeling that is part of the application in accordance with § 201.105 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) The information contained in an application will be considered insufficient to determine whether a new animal drug is safe and effective for use when there is a refusal or failure upon written notice to furnish inspectors authorized by the Food and Drug Administration an adequate opportunity to inspect the facilities, controls, and records pertinent to the application. 
</P>
<P>(f) On the basis of preliminary consideration of an application or supplemental application containing typewritten or other draft labeling in lieu of final printed labeling, an applicant may be informed that such application is approvable when satisfactory final printed labeling identical in content to such draft copy is submitted. 
</P>
<P>(g) When an application has been found incomplete on the basis of a need for the kind of information described in § 514.6, such application shall be considered withdrawn without prejudice to future filing on the date of issuance of the letter citing the inadequacies contained in the application, unless within 30 days the sponsor chooses to avail himself of the opportunity for hearing as prescribed by § 514.111. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.105" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.105   Approval of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner shall forward for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a regulation prescribing the conditions under which the new animal drug may be used, including the name and address of the applicant; the conditions and indications for use covered by the application; any tolerance, withdrawal period, or other use restrictions; any tolerance required for the new animal drug substance or its metabolites in edible products of food-producing animals; and, if such new animal drug is intended for use in animal feed, appropriate purposes and conditions of use (including special labeling requirements) applicable to any animal feed; and such other information the Commissioner deems necessary to assure safe and effective use. 
</P>
<P>(b) He shall notify the applicant by sending him a copy of the proposed publication as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 51 FR 7392, Mar. 3, 1986; 64 FR 63203, Nov. 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.106" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.106   Approval of supplemental applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 180 days after a supplement to an approved application is filed pursuant to § 514.8, the Commissioner shall approve the supplemental application in accordance with procedures set forth in § 514.105(a)(1) and (2) if he/she determines that the application satisfies the requirements of applicable statutory provisions and regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner will assign a supplemental application to its proper category to ensure processing of the application. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Category I.</I> Supplements that ordinarily do not require a reevaluation of any of the safety or effectiveness data in the parent application. Category I supplements include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A corporate change that alters the identity or address of the sponsor of the new animal drug application (NADA). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The sale, purchase, or construction of manufacturing facilities. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The sale or purchase of an NADA. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A change in container, container style, shape, size, or components. 
</P>
<P>(v) A change in approved labeling (color, style, format, addition, deletion, or revision of certain statements, e.g., trade name, storage, expiration dates, etc). 
</P>
<P>(vi) A change in promotional material for a prescription new animal drug not exempted by § 514.8(c)(2)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>) through (c)(2)(i)(C)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(vii) Changes in manufacturing processes that do not alter the method of manufacture or change the final dosage form. 
</P>
<P>(viii) A change in bulk drug shipments. 
</P>
<P>(ix) A change in an analytical method or control procedures that do not alter the approved standards. 
</P>
<P>(x) A change in an expiration date. 
</P>
<P>(xi) Addition of an alternate manufacturer, repackager, or relabeler of the drug product. 
</P>
<P>(xii) Addition of an alternate supplier of the new drug substance. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) A change permitted in advance of approval as described under § 514.8(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Category II.</I> Supplements that may require a reevaluation of certain safety or effectiveness data in the parent application. Category II supplements include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the active ingredient concentration or composition of the final product. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A change in quality, purity, strength, and identity specifications of the active or inactive ingredients. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A change in dose (amount of drug administered per dose). 
</P>
<P>(iv) A change in the treatment regimen (schedule of dosing). 
</P>
<P>(v) Addition of a new therapeutic claim to the approved uses of the product. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Addition of a new or revised animal production claim. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Addition of a new species. 
</P>
<P>(viii) A change in the prescription or over-the-counter status of a drug product. 
</P>
<P>(ix) A change in statements regarding side effects, warnings, precautions, and contraindications, except the addition of approved statements to container, package, and promotional labeling, and prescription drug advertising. 
</P>
<P>(x) A change in the drug withdrawal period prior to slaughter or in the milk discard time. 
</P>
<P>(xi) A change in the tolerance for drug residues. 
</P>
<P>(xii) A change in analytical methods for drug residues. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) A revised method of synthesis or fermentation of the new drug substance. 
</P>
<P>(xiv) Updating or changes in the manufacturing process of the new drug substance and/or final dosage form (other than a change in equipment that does not alter the method of manufacture of a new animal drug, or a change from one commercial batch size to another without any change in manufacturing procedure), or changes in the methods, facilities, or controls used for the manufacture, processing, packaging, or holding of the new animal drug (other than use of an establishment not covered by the approval that is in effect) that give increased assurance that the drug will have the characteristics of identity, strength, quality, and purity which it purports or is represented to possess.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 46052, Nov. 1, 1990; 55 FR 49973, Dec. 3, 1990; 56 FR 12422, Mar. 25, 1991, as amended at 71 FR 74785, Dec. 13, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.110   Reasons for refusing to file applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The date of receipt of an application for a new animal drug shall be the date on which the application shall be deemed to be filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a new animal drug shall not be considered acceptable for filing for any of the following reasons: 
</P>
<P>(1) It does not contain complete and accurate English translations of any pertinent part in a foreign language. 
</P>
<P>(2) Fewer than three copies are submitted. 
</P>
<P>(3) It is incomplete on its face in that it is not properly organized and indexed. 
</P>
<P>(4) On its face the information concerning required matter is so inadequate that the application is clearly not approvable. 
</P>
<P>(5) The new animal drug is to be manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed in whole or in part in any State in an establishment that has not been registered or exempted from registration under the provisions of section 510 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(6) The sponsor does not reside or maintain a place of business within the United States and the application has not been countersigned by an attorney, agent, or other representative of the applicant, which representative resides in the United States and has been duly authorized to act on behalf of the applicant and to receive communications on all matters pertaining to the application. 
</P>
<P>(7) The new animal drug is a drug subject to licensing under the animal virus, serum, and toxin law of March 4, 1913 (37 Stat. 832; 21 U.S.C. 151 <I>et seq.</I> ). Such applications will be referred to the U.S. Department of Agriculture for action.
</P>
<P>(8) It fails to include, with respect to each nonclinical laboratory study contained in the application, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reasons for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(9) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(10) The applicant fails to submit a complete environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter or fails to provide sufficient information to establish that the requested action is subject to categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.33 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) If an application is determined not to be acceptable for filing, the applicant shall be notified within 30 days of receipt of the application and shall be given the reasons therefore. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the applicant disputes the findings that his application is not acceptable for filing, he may make written request that the application be filed over protest, in which case it will be filed as of the day originally received.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 7517, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 62 FR 40600, July 29, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.111" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.111   Refusal to approve an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner shall, within 180 days after the filing of the application, inform the applicant in writing of his intention to issue a notice of opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to refuse to approve the application, if the Commissioner determines upon the basis of the application, or upon the basis of other information before him with respect to a new animal drug, that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The reports of investigations required to be submitted pursuant to section 512(b) of the act do not include adequate tests by all methods reasonably applicable to show whether or not such drug is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling thereof; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The results of such tests show that such drug is unsafe for use under such conditions or do not show that such drug is safe for use under such conditions; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The methods used in and the facilities and controls used for the manufacture, processing, and packing of such drug are inadequate to preserve its identity, strength, quality, and purity; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Upon the basis of the information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration as part of the application, or upon the basis of any other information before it with respect to such drug, it has insufficient information to determine whether such drug is safe for use under such conditions. In making this determination the Commissioner shall consider, among other relevant factors: 
</P>
<P>(i) The probable consumption of such drug and of any substance formed in or on food because of the use of such drug;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cumulative effect on man or animal of such drug, taking into account any chemically or pharmacologically related substances; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety factors which, in the opinion of experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety of such drugs, are appropriate for the use of animal experimentation data; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the proposed labeling are reasonably certain to be followed in practice; or
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluated on the basis of information submitted as part of the application and any other information before the Food and Drug Administration with respect to such drug, there is lack of substantial evidence as defined in § 514.4.
</P>
<P>(6) Failure to include an appropriate proposed tolerance for residues in edible products derived from animals or a withdrawal period or other restrictions for use of such drug if any tolerance or withdrawal period or other restrictions for use are required in order to assure that the edible products derived from animals treated with such drug will be safe. 
</P>
<P>(7) Based on a fair evaluation of all material facts, the labeling is false or misleading in any particular; or 
</P>
<P>(8) Such drug induces cancer when ingested by man or animal or, after appropriate tests for evaluation of the safety of such drug, induces cancer in man or animal, except that this subparagraph shall not apply with respect to such drug if the Commissioner finds that, under the conditions of use specified in proposed labeling and reasonably certain to be followed in practice: 
</P>
<P>(i) Such drug will not adversely affect the animal for which it is intended; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) No residue of such drug will be found (by methods of examination prescribed or approved by the Commissioner by regulations) in any edible portion of such animal after slaughter or in any food yielded by, or derived from the living animals. 
</P>
<P>(9) The applicant fails to submit an adequate environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter or fails to provide sufficient information to establish that the requested action is subject to categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.33 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(10) The drug fails to satisfy the requirements of subpart E of part 500 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(11) Any nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the application and that is essential to show that the drug is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations as set forth in part 58 of this chapter and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study.
</P>
<P>(12) The drug will be produced in whole or in part in an establishment that is not registered and not exempt from registration under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and part 207 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner, as provided in § 514.200 of this chapter, shall expeditiously notify the applicant of an opportunity for a hearing on the question of whether such application is approvable, unless by the 30th day following the date of issuance of the letter informing the applicant of the intention to issue a notice of opportunity for a hearing the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(1) Withdraws the application; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Waives the opportunity for a hearing; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Agrees with the Commissioner on an additional period to precede issuance of such notice of hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 22675, May 26, 1978; 44 FR 16007, Mar. 16, 1979; 50 FR 7517, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 52 FR 49588, Dec. 31, 1987; 54 FR 18280, Apr. 28, 1989; 62 FR 40600, July 29, 1997; 63 FR 10770, Mar. 5, 1998; 64 FR 40757, July 28, 1999; 64 FR 63204, Nov. 19, 1999; 81 FR 60221, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.115   Withdrawal of approval of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may suspend approval of an application approved pursuant to section 512(c) of the act and give the applicant prompt notice of his action and afford the applicant the opportunity for an expedited hearing on a finding that there is an imminent hazard to the health of man or of the animals for which such new animal drug or animal feed is intended. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner shall notify in writing the person holding an application approved pursuant to section 512(c) of the act and afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to withdraw approval of such application if he finds: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the application contains any untrue statement of a material fact; or 
</P>
<P>(2) That the applicant has made any changes from the standpoint of safety or effectiveness beyond the variations provided for in the application unless he has supplemented the application by filing with the Secretary adequate information respecting all such changes and unless there is in effect an approval of the supplemental application, or such changes are those for which written authorization or approval is not required as provided for in § 514.8. The supplemental application shall be treated in the same manner as the original application. 
</P>
<P>(3) That in the case of an application for use of a new animal drug approved or deemed approved pursuant to section 512(c) of the act: 
</P>
<P>(i) Experience or scientific data show that such drug is unsafe for use under the conditions of use upon the basis of which the application was approved; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) New evidence not contained in such application or not available to the Secretary until after such application was approved, or tests by new methods, or tests by methods not deemed reasonably applicable when such application was approved, evaluated together with the evidence available to the Secretary when the application was approved, shows that such drug is not shown to be safe for use under the conditions of use upon the basis of which the application was approved or that section 512 (d)(1)(H) of the act applies to such drug; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) On the basis of new information before him with respect to such drug, evaluated together with the evidence available to him when the application was approved, there is a lack of substantial evidence that such drug will have the effect it purports or is represented to have under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling thereof.
</P>
<P>(4) That any nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the application and that is essential to show that the drug is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations as set forth in part 58 of this chapter and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner may notify in writing the person holding an application approved pursuant to section 512(c) of the act and afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to withdraw approval of such application if he finds: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the applicant has failed to establish a system for maintaining required records, or has repeatedly or deliberately failed to maintain such records or to make required reports in accordance with a regulation or order under section 512(l)(1) of the act, or the applicant has refused to permit access to, or copying, or verification of, such records as required by section 512(l)(2) of the act; or 
</P>
<P>(2) That on the basis of new information before him evaluated together with the evidence before him when the application was approved, the methods used in, or the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, and packing of such drug or animal feed are inadequate to assure and preserve its identity, strength, quality, and purity and were not made adequate within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the Secretary specifying the matter complained of; or 
</P>
<P>(3) That on the basis of new information before him, evaluated together with the evidence before him when the application was approved, the labeling of such drug, based on a fair evaluation of all material facts, is false or misleading in any particular and was not corrected within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the Secretary specifying the matter complained of. 
</P>
<P>(d) Approval of an application pursuant to section 512(c) of the act will be withdrawn on the basis of a request for its withdrawal submitted in writing by a person holding an approved new animal drug application on the grounds that the drug subject to such application is no longer being marketed and information is included in support of this finding, provided none of the conditions cited in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section pertain to the subject drug. A written request for such withdrawal shall be construed as a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing as otherwise provided for in this section. Withdrawal of approval of an application under the provisions of this paragraph shall be without prejudice. 
</P>
<P>(e) On the basis of the withdrawal of approval of an application for a new animal drug approved pursuant to section 512(c) of the act, the regulation published pursuant to section 512(i) of the act covering the conditions of use of such drug as provided for in the application shall be revoked.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13825, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 7517, Feb. 22, 1985; 64 FR 63204, Nov. 19, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.116" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.116   Notice of withdrawal of approval of application.</HEAD>
<P>When an approval of an application submitted pursuant to section 512 of the act is withdrawn by the Commissioner, he will give appropriate public notice of such action by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.117" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.117   Adequate and well-controlled studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The primary purpose of conducting adequate and well-controlled studies of a new animal drug is to distinguish the effect of the new animal drug from other influences, such as spontaneous change in the course of the disease, normal animal production performance, or biased observation. One or more adequate and well-controlled studies are required to establish, by substantial evidence, that a new animal drug is effective. The characteristics described in paragraph (b) of this section have been developed over a period of years and are generally recognized as the essentials of an adequate and well-controlled study. Well controlled, as used in the phrase adequate and well controlled, emphasizes an important aspect of adequacy. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) considers these characteristics in determining whether a study is adequate and well controlled for purposes of section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 360b). Adequate and well-controlled studies, in addition to providing a basis for determining whether a new animal drug is effective, may also be relied upon to support target animal safety. The report of an adequate and well-controlled study should provide sufficient details of study design, conduct, and analysis to allow critical evaluation and a determination of whether the characteristics of an adequate and well-controlled study are present.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Characteristics.</I> An adequate and well-controlled study has the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) The protocol for the study (protocol) and the report of the study results (study report) must include a clear statement of the study objective(s).
</P>
<P>(2) The study is conducted in accordance with an appropriate standard of conduct that addresses, among other issues, study conduct, study personnel, study facilities, and study documentation. The protocol contains a statement acknowledging the applicability of, and intention to follow, a standard of conduct acceptable to FDA. The study report contains a statement describing adherence to the standard.
</P>
<P>(3) The study is conducted with a new animal drug that is produced in accordance with appropriate manufacturing practices, which include, but are not necessarily limited to, the manufacture, processing, packaging, holding, and labeling of the new animal drug such that the critical characteristics of identity, strength, quality, purity, and physical form of the new animal drug are known, recorded, and reproducible, to permit meaningful evaluations of and comparisons with other studies conducted with the new animal drug. The physical form of a new animal drug includes the formulation and physical characterization (including delivery systems thereof, if any) of the new animal drug as presented to the animal. The protocol and study report must include an identification number which can be correlated with the specific formulation and production process used to manufacture the new animal drug used in the study.
</P>
<P>(4) The study uses a design that permits a valid comparison with one or more controls to provide a quantitative evaluation of drug effects. The protocol and the study report must describe the precise nature of the study design, e.g., duration of treatment periods, whether treatments are parallel, sequential, or crossover, and the determination of sample size. Within the broad range of studies conducted to support a determination of the effectiveness of a new animal drug, certain of the controls listed below would be appropriate and preferred depending on the study conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Placebo concurrent control.</I> The new animal drug is compared with an inactive preparation designed to resemble the new animal drug as far as possible.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Untreated concurrent control.</I> The new animal drug is compared with the absence of any treatment. The use of this control may be appropriate when objective measurements of effectiveness, not subject to observer bias, are available.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Active treatment concurrent control.</I> The new animal drug is compared with known effective therapy. The use of this control is appropriate when the use of a placebo control or of an untreated concurrent control would unreasonably compromise the welfare of the animals. Similarity of the new animal drug and the active control drug can mean either that both drugs were effective or that neither was effective. The study report should assess the ability of the study to have detected a difference between treatments. The evaluation of the study should explain why the new animal drugs should be considered effective in the study, for example, by reference to results in previous placebo-controlled studies of the active control.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Historical control.</I> The results of treatment with the new animal drug are quantitatively compared with experience historically derived from the adequately documented natural history of the disease or condition, or with a regimen (therapeutic, diagnostic, prophylactic) whose effectiveness is established, in comparable animals. Because historical control populations usually cannot be as well assessed with respect to pertinent variables as can concurrent control populations, historical control designs are usually reserved for special circumstances. Examples include studies in which the effect of the new animal drug is self-evident or studies of diseases with high and predictable mortality, or signs and symptoms of predictable duration or severity, or, in the case of prophylaxis, predictable morbidity.
</P>
<P>(5) The study uses a method of selecting animals that provides adequate assurances that the animals are suitable for the purposes of the study. For example, the animals can reasonably be expected to have animal production characteristics typical of the class(es) of animals for which the new animal drug is intended, there is adequate assurance that the animals have the disease or condition being studied, or, in the case of prophylactic agents, evidence of susceptibility and exposure to the condition against which prophylaxis is desired has been provided. The protocol and the study report describe the method of selecting animals for the study.
</P>
<P>(6) The study uses a method to assign a treatment or a control to each experimental unit of animals that is random and minimizes bias. Experimental units of animals are groups of animals that are comparable with respect to pertinent variables such as age, sex, class of animal, severity of disease, duration of disease, dietary regimen, level of animal production, and use of drugs or therapy other than the new animal drug. The protocol and the study report describe the method of assignment of animals to an experimental unit to account for pertinent variables and method of assignment of a treatment or a control to the experimental units. When the effect of such variables is accounted for by an appropriate design, and when, within the same animal, effects due to the test drug can be obtained free of the effects of such variables, the same animal may be used for both the test drug and the control using the controls set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) The study uses methods to minimize bias on the part of observers and analysts of the data that are adequate to prevent undue influences on the results and interpretation of the study data. The protocol and study report explain the methods of observation and recording of the animal response variables and document the methods, such as “blinding” or “masking,” used in the study for excluding or minimizing bias in the observations.
</P>
<P>(8) The study uses methods to assess animal response that are well defined and reliable. The protocol and study report describe the methods for conducting the study, including any appropriate analytical and statistical methods, used to collect and analyze the data resulting from the conduct of the study, describe the criteria used to assess response, and, when appropriate, justify the selection of the methods to assess animal response.
</P>
<P>(9) There is an analysis and evaluation of the results of the study in accord with the protocol adequate to assess the effects of the new animal drug. The study report evaluates the methods used to conduct, and presents and evaluates the results of, the study as to their adequacy to assess the effects of the new animal drug. This evaluation of the results of the study assesses, among other items, the comparability of treatment and control groups with respect to pertinent variables and the effects of any interim analyses performed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Field studies.</I> (1) Field conditions as used in this section refers to conditions which closely approximate the conditions under which the new animal drug, if approved, is intended to be applied or administered.
</P>
<P>(2) Studies of a new animal drug conducted under field conditions shall, consistent with generally recognized scientific principles and procedures, use an appropriate control that permits comparison, employ procedures to minimize bias, and have the characteristics generally described in paragraph (b) of this section. However, because field studies are conducted under field conditions, it is recognized that the level of control over some study conditions need not or should not be the same as the level of control in laboratory studies. While not all conditions relating to a field study need to be or should be controlled, observations of the conditions under which the new animal drug is tested shall be recorded in sufficient detail to permit evaluation of the study. Adequate and well-controlled field studies shall balance the need to control study conditions with the need to observe the true effect of the new animal drug under closely approximated actual use conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver.</I> The Director of the Center for Veterinary Medicine (the Director) may, on the Director's own initiative or on the petition of an interested person, waive in whole or in part any of the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a specific study. A petition for a waiver is required to set forth clearly and concisely the specific criteria from which waiver is sought, why the criteria are not reasonably applicable to the particular study, what alternative procedures, if any, are to be, or have been employed, and what results have been obtained. The petition is also required to state why the studies so conducted will yield, or have yielded, substantial evidence of effectiveness, notwithstanding nonconformance with the criteria for which waiver is requested.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Uncontrolled studies.</I> Uncontrolled studies or partially controlled studies are not acceptable as the sole basis for the approval of claims of effectiveness or target animal safety. Such studies, carefully conducted and documented, may provide corroborative support of adequate and well-controlled studies regarding effectiveness and may yield valuable data regarding safety of the new animal drug. Such studies will be considered on their merits in light of the characteristics listed here. Isolated case reports, random experience, and reports lacking the details which permit scientific evaluation will not be considered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 10770, Mar. 5, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.120" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.120   Revocation of order refusing to approve an application or suspending or withdrawing approval of an application.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner, upon his own initiative or upon request of an applicant stating reasonable grounds therefor and if he finds that the facts so require, may issue an order approving an application that previously has had its approval refused, suspended, or withdrawn. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.121" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.121   Service of notices and orders.</HEAD>
<P>All notices and orders under this subchapter E and section 512 of the act pertaining to new animal drug applications shall be served: 
</P>
<P>(a) In person by any officer or employee of the Department designated by the Commissioner; or 
</P>
<P>(b) By mailing the order by certified mail addressed to the applicant or respondent at his last known address in the records of the Food and Drug Administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.200   Notice of opportunity for hearing; notice of participation and requests for hearing; grant or denial of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice to the applicant of opportunity for a hearing on a proposal by the Commissioner to refuse to approve an application or to withdraw the approval of an application will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> together with an explanation of the grounds for the proposed action. The notice will describe how to request a hearing. An applicant has 30 days after publication of the notice to request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) If the applicant fails to request a hearing within the 30-day timeframe, the Commissioner, without further notice, will publish a final order denying or withdrawing approval of the application.
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicant desires to request a hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 30 days after publication of the notice of opportunity for hearing, the applicant must submit to the Dockets Management Staff written objections and a request for a hearing in accordance with §§ 12.20 and 12.22. This request for a hearing must include each specific objection to the proposal on which a hearing is requested, together with a detailed description and analysis of the factual information (including all relevant clinical and other investigational data) the applicant will present in support of that objection. A request for a hearing may not rest upon mere allegations or denials or general descriptions of positions or contentions, but must set forth specific reliable evidence showing there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact that requires a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Commissioner determines upon review of the data and information submitted in the objections and request for a hearing that a hearing is not justified because no genuine and substantial issue of fact precludes the refusal to approve the application or the withdrawal of approval of the application (for example, the applicant has not identified any adequate and well-controlled clinical investigations to support the claims of effectiveness), the Commissioner will enter an order denying the hearing and stating the final findings and conclusions.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Commissioner determines upon review of the data and information submitted in the objections and request for a hearing that a hearing is justified, the Commissioner will publish a notice setting forth the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The regulation or order that is the subject of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement specifying any part of the regulation or order that has been stayed by operation of law or in the Commissioner's discretion;
</P>
<P>(iii) The parties to the hearing;
</P>
<P>(iv) The specific issues of fact for resolution at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(v) The presiding officer, or a statement that the presiding officer will be designated in a later notice; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The date, time, and place of the prehearing conference, or a statement that the date, time, and place will be announced in a later notice. However, in the case of a denial of approval, the hearing must not occur more than 90 days after expiration of the 30-day time period in which to request a hearing, unless the presiding officer and the applicant otherwise agree; and in the case of withdrawal of approval, the hearing will occur as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing will be open to the public; however, if the Commissioner finds that portions of the application which serve as a basis for the hearing contain information concerning a method or process entitled to protection as a trade secret, the part of the hearing involving such portions will not be public, unless the respondent so specifies in the request for a hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 52997, Aug. 11, 2016, as amended 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.201" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.201   Procedures for hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Hearings relating to new animal drugs under section 512(d) and (e) of the act shall be governed by part 12 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 63204, Nov. 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Judicial Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 514.235" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 514.235   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The transcript and record shall be certified by the Commissioner. In any case in which the Commissioner enters an order without a hearing pursuant to § 314.200(g) of this chapter, the request(s) for hearing together with the data and information submitted and the Commissioner's findings and conclusions shall be included in the record certified by the Commissioner. 
</P>
<P>(b) Judicial review of an order withdrawing approval of a new drug application, whether or not a hearing has been held, may be sought by a manufacturer or distributor of an identical, related, or similar drug product, as defined in § 310.6 of this chapter, in a United States court of appeals pursuant to section 505(h) of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 4717, Jan. 25, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="515" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 515—MEDICATED FEED MILL LICENSE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360b, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 63204, Nov. 19, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.10" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.10   Medicated feed mill license applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Medicated feed mill license applications (Form FDA 3448) may be obtained from the Public Health Service, Consolidated Forms and Publications Distribution Center, Washington Commerce Center, 3222 Hubbard Rd., Landover, MD 20785, or electronically from the Center for Veterinary Medicine at: <I>https://www.fda.gov/animal-veterinary/animal-food-feeds/medicated-feeds.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) A completed medicated feed mill license must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The full business name and address of the facility at which the manufacturing is to take place.
</P>
<P>(2) The facility's FDA registration number as required by section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).
</P>
<P>(3) The name, title, and signature of the responsible individual or individuals for that facility.
</P>
<P>(4) A certification that the animal feeds bearing or containing new animal drugs are manufactured and labeled in accordance with the applicable regulations published under section 512(i) of the act or in accordance with the index listing published under section 572(e)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, manufacturing, processing, packaging, and holding such animal feeds conform to current good manufacturing practice as described in section 501(a)(2)(B) of the act and in part 225 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) A certification that the facility will establish and maintain all records required by regulation or order issued under sections 512(m)(5)(A) or 504(a)(3)(A) of the act, and will permit access to, or copying or verification of such records.
</P>
<P>(7) A commitment that current approved or index listed Type B and/or Type C medicated feed labeling for each Type B and/or Type C medicated feed to be manufactured will be in the possession of the feed manufacturing facility prior to receiving the Type A medicated article containing such drug.
</P>
<P>(8) A commitment to renew registration every year with FDA as required in part 207 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Applications must be completed, signed, and submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Division of Food Compliance, 12225 Wilkins Ave., Rockville, MD 20852, or email (via attachment): <I>MedicatedFeedsTeamMail@fda.hhs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) Applications that are facially deficient will be returned to the applicant. All reasons for the return of the application will be made known to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon approval, the application will be signed by an authorized employee of FDA designated by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, and a copy will be returned to the applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 63204, Nov. 19, 1999, as amended at 72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007; 81 FR 60221, Aug. 31, 2016; 87 FR 58960, Sept. 29, 2022; 89 FR 51966, June 21, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.11" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.11   Supplemental medicated feed mill license applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After approval of a medicated feed mill license application to manufacture animal feed, a supplemental application shall be submitted for a change in ownership and/or a change in mailing address of the facility site.
</P>
<P>(b) Each supplemental application should be accompanied by a fully completed Form FDA 3448 and include an explanation of the change.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 working days after a supplemental application has been filed, if the Commissioner of Food and Drugs determines that the application provides adequate information respecting the change in ownership and/or postal address of the facility site, then an authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration designated by the Commissioner shall notify the applicant that it is approved by signing and mailing to the applicant a copy of the Form FDA 3448. Supplemental applications that do not provide adequate information shall be returned to the applicant and all reasons for the return of the application shall be made known to the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Actions on Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.20" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.20   Approval of medicated feed mill license applications.</HEAD>
<P>Within 90 days after an application has been filed under § 515.10, if the Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner) determines that none of the grounds for denying approval specified in section 512(m)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) applies, an authorized employee of the Food and Drug Administration designated by the Commissioner shall notify the applicant that it is approved by signing and mailing to the applicant a copy of the Form FDA 3448.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.21" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.21   Refusal to approve a medicated feed mill license application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner) shall within 90 days, or such additional period as may be agreed upon by the Commissioner and the applicant, after the filing of an application under § 515.10, inform the applicant in writing of his/her intention to issue a notice of opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to refuse to approve the application, if the Commissioner determines upon the basis of the application, on the basis of a preapproval inspection, or upon the basis of any other information before him that:
</P>
<P>(1) The application is incomplete, false, or misleading in any particular; or
</P>
<P>(2) The methods used in and the facilities and controls used for the manufacturing, processing, and packaging of such animal feed are not adequate to preserve the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the new animal drug therein; or
</P>
<P>(3) The facility manufactures animal feeds bearing or containing new animal drugs in a manner that does not accord with the specifications for manufacture or labels animal feeds bearing or containing new animal drugs in a manner that does not accord with the conditions or indications of use that are published under section 512(i) or 572(e)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner, as provided in § 515.30, shall expeditiously notify the applicant of an opportunity for a hearing on the question of whether such application is approvable, unless by the 30th day following the date of issuance of the letter informing the applicant of the intention to issue a notice of opportunity for a hearing the applicant:
</P>
<P>(1) Withdraws the application; or
</P>
<P>(2) Waives the opportunity for a hearing; or
</P>
<P>(3) Agrees with the Commissioner on an additional period to precede issuance of such notice of hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 63204, Nov. 19, 1999, as amended at 72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.22" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.22   Suspension and/or revocation of approval of a medicated feed mill license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of Health and Human Services may suspend a medicated feed mill license approved under section 512(m)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and give the person holding the medicated feed mill license application prompt notice of this action and afford the applicant the opportunity for an expedited hearing on a finding that there is an imminent hazard to the health of man or of the animals for which such animal feed is intended.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner) shall notify in writing the person holding an application approved under section 512(m)(2) of the act and afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to revoke approval of such application if the Commissioner finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That the application contains any untrue statement of a material fact; or
</P>
<P>(2) That the applicant has made any changes that would cause the application to contain any untrue statements of material fact or that would affect the safety or effectiveness of the animal feeds manufactured at the facility unless the applicant has supplemented the application by filing a supplemental application under § 515.11.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner may notify in writing the person holding an application approved under section 512(m)(2) of the act and afford an opportunity for a hearing on a proposal to revoke approval of such application if the Commissioner finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That the applicant has failed to establish a system for maintaining required records, or has repeatedly or deliberately failed to maintain such records or to make required reports in accordance with a regulation or order under sections 512(m)(5)(A) or 504(a)(3)(A) of the act, or the applicant has refused to permit access to, or copying, or verification of, such records as required by sections 512(m)(5)(B) or 504(a)(3)(B) of the act; or
</P>
<P>(2) That on the basis of new information before him, evaluated together with the evidence before him when such license was issued, the methods used in, or the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, packing, and holding of such animal feed are inadequate to assure and preserve the identity, strength, quality, and purity of the new animal drug therein, and were not made adequate within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the Commissioner specifying the matter complained of; or
</P>
<P>(3) That on the basis of new information before him, evaluated together with the evidence before him when such license was issued, the labeling of any animal feeds, based on a fair evaluation of all material facts, is false or misleading in any particular and was not corrected within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the Commissioner specifying the matter complained of; or
</P>
<P>(4) That on the basis of new information before him, evaluated together with the evidence before him when such license was issued, the facility has manufactured, processed, packed, or held animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug adulterated under section 501(a)(6) of the act, and the facility did not discontinue the manufacture, processing, packing, or holding of such animal feed within a reasonable time after receipt of written notice from the Commissioner specifying the matter complained of.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.23" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.23   Voluntary revocation of medicated feed mill license.</HEAD>
<P>A license issued under section 512(m)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) will be revoked on the basis of a request for its revocation submitted in writing by a responsible individual holding such license on the grounds that the facility no longer manufactures any animal feed covered under § 558.4(b) of this chapter. A written request for such revocation shall be construed as a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing as otherwise provided for in this section. Revocation of approval of a medicated feed mill license under the provisions of this paragraph shall be without prejudice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.24" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.24   Notice of revocation of a medicated feed mill license.</HEAD>
<P>When a license approved under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) is revoked by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner), the Commissioner will give appropriate public notice of such action by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.25" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.25   Revocation of order refusing to approve a medicated feed mill license application or suspending or revoking a license.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner), upon his/her own initiative or upon request of an applicant stating reasonable grounds therefor and if the Commissioner finds that the facts so require, may issue an order approving a medicated feed mill license application that previously has had its approval refused, suspended, or revoked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.26" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.26   Services of notices and orders.</HEAD>
<P>All notices and orders under this part 515 and section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) pertaining to medicated feed mill licenses shall be served:
</P>
<P>(a) In person by any officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services designated by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs; or
</P>
<P>(b) By mailing the order by certified mail addressed to the applicant or respondent at the applicant or respondent's last known address in the records of the Food and Drug Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.30" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.30   Contents of notice of opportunity for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice to the applicant of opportunity for a hearing on a proposal by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner) to refuse to approve a medicated feed mill license application or to revoke the approval of a medicated feed mill license will specify the grounds upon which the Commissioner proposes to issue this order. On request of the applicant, the Commissioner will explain the reasons for the action. The notice of opportunity for a hearing will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and will specify that the applicant has 30 days after issuance of the notice within which the Commissioner is required to file a written appearance electing whether:
</P>
<P>(1) To avail himself of the opportunity for a hearing; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not to avail himself of the opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) If the applicant fails to file a written appearance in answer to the notice of opportunity for hearing, this failure will be construed as an election not to avail himself of the opportunity for the hearing, and the Commissioner without further notice may enter a final order.
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicant elects to avail himself of the opportunity for a hearing, the applicant is required to file a written appearance requesting the hearing within 30 days after the publication of the notice, giving the reason why the application should not be refused or the medicated feed mill license should not be revoked, together with a well-organized and full-factual analysis of the information the applicant is prepared to prove in support of his opposition to the Commissioner's proposal. A request for a hearing may not rest upon mere allegations or denials, but must set forth specific facts showing there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact that requires a hearing. When it clearly appears from the information in the application and from the reasons and factual analysis in the request for the hearing that no genuine and substantial issue of fact precludes the refusal to approve the application or the revocation of approval of the application, the Commissioner will enter an order on this information, stating his/her findings and conclusions. If a hearing is requested and is justified by the applicant's response to the notice of opportunity for a hearing, the issues will be defined, an Administrative Law Judge will be named, and the Judge shall issue a written notice of the time and place at which the hearing will commence. In the case of denial of approval, such time shall be not more than 90 days after the expiration of such 30 days unless the Administrative Law Judge and the applicant otherwise agree; and, in the case of withdrawal of approval, such time shall be as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing will be open to the public; however, if the Commissioner finds that portions of the application which serve as a basis for the hearing contain information concerning a method or process entitled to protection as a trade secret, the part of the hearing involving such portions will not be public, unless the respondent so specifies in the appearance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.31" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.31   Procedures for hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Hearings relating to new animal drugs under section 512(m)(3) and (m)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) shall be governed by part 12 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Judicial Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.40" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.9.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.40   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The transcript and record shall be certified by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner). In any case in which the Commissioner enters an order without a hearing under § 314.200(g) of this chapter, the request(s) for hearing together with the data and information submitted and the Commissioner's findings and conclusions shall be included in the record certified by the Commissioner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="516" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 516—NEW ANIMAL DRUGS FOR MINOR USE AND MINOR SPECIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360ccc-1, 360ccc-2, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 41017, July 26, 2007, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements section 573 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 360ccc-2) and contains the following subparts:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A—General Provisions.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B—Designation of a Minor Use or Minor Species New Animal Drug.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to Chapter I of Title 21, unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.2" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes standards and procedures for implementing section 573 of the act, including designation of minor use or minor species new animal drugs and associated exclusive marketing rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 321) apply to those terms when used in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions of terms apply to all subparts of part 516:
</P>
<P><I>Active moiety</I> means the molecule or ion, excluding those appended portions of the molecule that cause the drug to be an ester, salt (including a salt with hydrogen or coordination bonds), or other noncovalent derivative (such as a complex, chelate, or clathrate) of the molecule, responsible for the pharmacological action of the drug substance.
</P>
<P><I>Functionally superior</I> means that a drug has been shown to provide a significant therapeutic or physiologic advantage over that provided by a conditionally-approved or approved MUMS drug, that is otherwise the same drug, in one or more of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(i) The drug has been shown to be more effective, as assessed by effect on a clinically meaningful endpoint in adequate and well-controlled clinical trials, than a conditionally approved or approved MUMS drug, that is otherwise the same drug. Generally, this would represent the same kind of evidence needed to support a comparative effectiveness claim for two different drugs; in most cases, direct comparative clinical trials will be necessary; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug has been shown to be safer than a conditionally-approved or approved MUMS drug, that is otherwise the same drug, in a substantial portion of the target population, for example, by the elimination of an ingredient or contaminant that is associated with relatively frequent adverse effects. In some cases, direct comparative clinical trials will be necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Infrequently</I>, as used in the minor use definition, means a disease or condition that is uncommon or that occurs only sporadically on an annualized basis.
</P>
<P><I>Limited geographical areas</I>, as used in the minor use definition, means regions of the United States distinguished by physical, chemical, or biological factors that limit the distribution of a disease or condition.
</P>
<P><I>Major species</I> means cattle, horses, swine, chickens, turkeys, dogs, and cats.
</P>
<P><I>Minor species</I> means animals, other than humans, that are not major species.
</P>
<P><I>Minor use</I> means the intended use of a drug in a major species for an indication that occurs infrequently and in only a small number of animals or in limited geographical areas and in only a small number of animals annually.
</P>
<P><I>MUMS drug</I> means a new animal drug, as defined in section 201 of the act, intended for a minor use or for use in a minor species.
</P>
<P><I>Same dosage form</I> means the same as one of the dosage form categories specified in the following parts of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) Part 520: Oral dosage form new animal drugs (excluding use in animal feeds as specified in part 558 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(ii) Part 522: Implantation or injectable dosage form new animal drugs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Part 524: Ophthalmic and topical dosage form new animal drugs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Part 526: Intramammary dosage forms.
</P>
<P>(v) Part 529: Certain other dosage form new animal drugs.
</P>
<P>(vi) Part 558: New animal drugs for use in animal feeds.
</P>
<P><I>Same drug</I> means a MUMS drug for which designation, indexing, or conditional approval is sought that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) If it is a MUMS drug composed of small molecules and contains the same active moiety as a prior designated, conditionally-approved, or approved MUMS drug, even if the particular ester or salt (including a salt with hydrogen or coordination bonds) or other noncovalent derivative such as a complex, chelate or clathrate is not the same, it is considered the same drug; except that, if the prior MUMS drug is conditionally approved or approved and the second MUMS drug is shown to be functionally superior to the conditionally approved or approved MUMS drug for the same intended use, it is not considered the same drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) If it is a MUMS drug composed of large molecules (macromolecules) and contains the same principal molecular structural features (but not necessarily all of the same structural features) as a prior designated, conditionally approved, or approved MUMS drug, it is considered the same drug; except that, if the prior MUMS drug is conditionally approved or approved and the second MUMS drug is shown to be functionally superior to the conditionally approved or approved MUMS drug for the same intended use, it is not considered the same drug. This criterion will be applied as follows to different kinds of macromolecules:
</P>
<P>(A) Two protein drugs would be considered the same if the only differences in structure between them were due to post-translational events or infidelity of translation or transcription or were minor differences in amino acid sequence; other potentially important differences, such as different glycosylation patterns or different tertiary structures, would not cause the drugs to be considered different unless the subsequent drug is shown to be functionally superior.
</P>
<P>(B) Two polysaccharide drugs would be considered the same if they had identical saccharide repeating units, even if the number of units were to vary and even if there were postpolymerization modifications, unless the subsequent drug is shown to be functionally superior.
</P>
<P>(C) Two polynucleotide drugs consisting of two or more distinct nucleotides would be considered the same if they had an identical sequence of purine and pyrimidine bases (or their derivatives) bound to an identical sugar backbone (ribose, deoxyribose, or modifications of these sugars), unless the subsequent drug is shown to be functionally superior.
</P>
<P>(D) Closely related, complex partly definable drugs with similar pharmacologic intent would be considered the same unless the subsequent drug is shown to be functionally superior.
</P>
<P><I>Same intended use</I> means an intended use of a MUMS drug, for which designation, indexing, or conditional approval is sought, that is determined to be the same as (or not different from) a previously designated, conditionally approved, or approved intended use of a MUMS drug. Same intended use is established by comparing two intended uses and not by simply comparing the specific language by means of which the intent is established in labeling in accordance with the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Two intended uses are considered the same if one of the intended uses falls completely within the scope of the other.
</P>
<P>(ii) For intended uses associated with diseases or conditions with multiple causative organisms, two intended uses are not considered the same when they involve different causative organisms or different subsets of causative organisms of that disease or condition when the causative organisms involved can reliably be shown to be clinically significant causes of the disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Two intended uses of a drug are not considered the same if they involve different intended species or different definable subpopulations (including “production classes”) of a species.
</P>
<P><I>Small number of animals</I> means equal to or less than 50,000 horses; 80,000 dogs; 150,000 cats; 310,000 cattle; 1,450,000 pigs; 14,000,000 turkeys; and 72,000,000 chickens.


</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means the person requesting designation for a MUMS drug who must be the real party in interest of the development and the intended or actual production and sales of such drug (in this context, the sponsor may be an individual, partnership, organization, or association). Sponsor also means the person responsible for an investigation of a new animal drug (in this context, the sponsor may be an individual, partnership, corporation, or Government agency or may be a manufacturer, scientific institution, or an investigator regularly and lawfully engaged in the investigation of new animal drugs). Sponsor also means the person submitting or receiving approval for a new animal drug application (in this context, the sponsor may be an individual, partnership, organization, or association). In all contexts, the sponsor is responsible for compliance with applicable provisions of the act and regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 41017, July 26, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 43050, Aug. 25, 2009; 75 FR 69588, Nov. 15, 2010; 87 FR 56589, Sept. 15, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Designation of a Minor Use or Minor Species New Animal Drug</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.11" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.11   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 573 of the act. Specifically, this subpart sets forth the procedures and requirements for submissions to FDA of requests for designation of a new animal drug for a minor use or a minor species.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.12" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.12   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes standards and procedures for determining eligibility for designation and the associated incentives and benefits described in section 573 of the act, including a 7-year period of exclusive marketing rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.13" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.13   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions of terms apply only in the context of subpart B of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office of Minor Use and Minor Species Animal Drug Development of the FDA Center for Veterinary Medicine.
</P>
<P><I>Intended use</I> means the intended treatment, control or prevention of a disease or condition, or the intention to affect the structure or function of the body of animals within an identified species, subpopulation of a species, or collection of species.
</P>
<P><I>MUMS-designated drug</I> means a new animal drug, as defined in section 201 of the act, intended for a minor use or for use in a minor species that has been designated under section 573 of the act.
</P>
<P><I>MUMS-drug exclusive marketing rights</I> or <I>exclusive marketing rights</I> means that, effective on the date of FDA conditional approval or approval as stated in the approval letter of an application for a MUMS-designated drug, no conditional approval or approval will be given to a subsequent application for the same drug, in the same dosage form, for the same intended use for 7 years, except as otherwise provided by law or in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.14" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.14   Submission of requests for designation.</HEAD>
<P>All correspondence relating to a request for designation of a MUMS drug must be addressed to the Director of the Office of Minor Use and Minor Species Animal Drug Development. Submissions not including all elements specified in § 516.20 will be returned to the sponsor without review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.16" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.16   Eligibility to request designation.</HEAD>
<P>The person requesting designation must be the sponsor and the real party in interest of the development and the intended or actual production and sales of the drug or the permanent-resident U.S. agent for such a sponsor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.20" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.20   Content and format of a request for MUMS-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor that submits a request for designation of a new animal drug intended for a minor use or minor species must submit each request in the form and containing the information required in paragraph (b) of this section. While a request for designation may involve multiple intended uses, each request for designation must constitute a separate submission. A sponsor may request MUMS-drug designation of a previously unapproved drug, or a new intended use or dosage form for an already conditionally approved or approved drug. Only one sponsor may receive MUMS-drug designation of the same drug, in the same dosage form, for the same intended use.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor must submit two copies of a completed, dated, and signed request for designation that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A request for designation of a new animal drug for a minor use or use in a minor species, which must be specific.
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the sponsor; the name of the sponsor's primary contact person and/or permanent-resident U.S. agent including title, address, and telephone number; the established name (and proprietary name, if any) of the active pharmaceutical ingredient of the drug; and the name and address of the source of the active pharmaceutical ingredient of the drug.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the proposed intended use for which the drug is being or will be investigated.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the drug and dosage form.
</P>
<P>(5) A discussion of the scientific rationale for the intended use of the drug; specific reference, including date(s) of submission, to all data from nonclinical laboratory studies, clinical investigations, copies of pertinent unpublished and published papers, and other relevant data that are available to the sponsor, whether positive, negative, or inconclusive.
</P>
<P>(6) A specific description of the product development plan for the drug, its dosage form, and its intended use.
</P>
<P>(7) If the drug is intended for a minor use in a major species, documentation in accordance with § 516.21, with appended authoritative references, to demonstrate that such use is a minor use.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that the sponsor submitting the request is the real party in interest of the development and the intended or actual production and sales of the product.
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the sponsor acknowledges that, upon granting a request for MUMS designation, FDA will make information regarding the designation publicly available as specified in § 516.28.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 41017, July 26, 2007, as amended at 75 FR 69588, Nov. 15, 2010; 77 FR 18685, Mar. 28, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.21" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.21   Documentation of minor use status.</HEAD>
<P>So that FDA can determine whether a drug qualifies for MUMS-drug designation as a minor use in a major species under section 573 of the act, the sponsor shall include in its request to FDA for MUMS-drug designation under § 516.20 documentation demonstrating that the use is limited to a small number of animals (annualized). This documentation must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The estimated total number of animals to which the drug could potentially be administered on an annual basis for the treatment, control, or prevention of the disease or condition for which the drug is being developed, including animals administered the drug as part of herd or flock treatment, together with a list of the sources (including dates of information provided and literature citations) for the estimate.
</P>
<P>(b) The estimated total number of animals referred to in paragraph (a) of this section may be further reduced to only a subset of the estimated total number of animals if administration of the drug is only medically justified for this subset. To establish this, requestors must demonstrate that administration of the drug to animals subject to the disease or condition for which the drug is being developed other than the subset is not medically justified. The sponsor must also include a list of the sources (including dates of information provided and literature citations) for the justification that administration of the drug to animals other than the targeted subset is medically inappropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 41017, July 26, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 43050, Aug. 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.22" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.22   Permanent-resident U.S. agent for foreign sponsor.</HEAD>
<P>Every foreign sponsor that seeks MUMS-drug designation shall name a permanent resident of the United States as the sponsor's agent upon whom service of all processes, notices, orders, decisions, requirements, and other communications may be made on behalf of the sponsor. Notifications of changes in such agents or changes of address of agents should preferably be provided in advance, but not later than 60 days after the effective date of such changes. The permanent-resident U.S. agent may be an individual, firm, or domestic corporation and may represent any number of sponsors. The name and address of the permanent-resident U.S. agent shall be provided to the Director of the Office of Minor Use and Minor Species Animal Drug Development.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.23" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.23   Timing of requests for MUMS-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>A sponsor may request MUMS-drug designation at any time in the drug development process prior to the submission of an application for either conditional approval or approval of the MUMS drug for which designation is being requested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.24" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.24   Granting MUMS-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may grant the request for MUMS-drug designation if none of the reasons described in § 516.25 for refusal to grant such a request apply.
</P>
<P>(b) When a request for MUMS-drug designation is granted, FDA will notify the sponsor in writing and will give public notice of the MUMS-drug designation in accordance with § 516.28.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.25" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.25   Refusal to grant MUMS-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will refuse to grant a request for MUMS-drug designation if any of the following reasons apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The drug is not intended for use in a minor species or FDA determines that there is insufficient evidence to demonstrate that the drug is intended for a minor use in a major species.
</P>
<P>(2) The drug is the same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use as one that already has a MUMS-drug designation but has not yet been conditionally approved or approved.
</P>
<P>(3) The drug is the same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use as one that is already conditionally approved or approved. A drug that FDA has found to be functionally superior is not considered the same drug as an already conditionally approved or approved drug even if it is otherwise the same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use.
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor has failed to provide:
</P>
<P>(i) A credible scientific rationale in support of the intended use,
</P>
<P>(ii) Sufficient information about the product development plan for the drug, its dosage form, and its intended use to establish that adherence to the plan can lead to successful drug development in a timely manner, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information required under § 516.20.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may refuse to grant a request for MUMS-drug designation if the request for designation contains an untrue statement of material fact or omits material information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.26" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.26   Amendment to MUMS-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to conditional approval or approval of an application for a MUMS-designated drug, the sponsor may apply for an amendment to the designated intended use if the proposed change is due to new and unexpected findings in research on the drug, information arising from FDA recommendations, or other unforeseen developments.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will grant the amendment if it finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That the initial designation request was made in good faith;
</P>
<P>(2) That the amendment is intended to make the MUMS-drug designated intended use conform to the results of new and unexpected findings in research on the drug, information arising from FDA recommendations, or other unforeseen developments; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a minor use, that as of the date of the submission of the amendment request, the amendment would not result in the intended use of the drug no longer being considered a minor use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.27" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.27   Change in sponsorship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor may transfer sponsorship of a MUMS-designated drug to another person. A change of sponsorship will also transfer the designation status of the drug which will remain in effect for the new sponsor subject to the same conditions applicable to the former sponsor provided that at the time of a potential transfer, the new and former sponsors submit the following information in writing and obtain permission from FDA:
</P>
<P>(1) The former sponsor shall submit a letter to FDA that documents the transfer of sponsorship of the MUMS-designated drug. This letter shall specify the date of the transfer. The former sponsor shall also certify in writing to FDA that a complete copy of the request for MUMS-drug designation, including any amendments to the request, and correspondence relevant to the MUMS-drug designation, has been provided to the new sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) The new sponsor shall submit a letter or other document containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement accepting the MUMS-drug designated file or application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date that the change in sponsorship is intended to be effective;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the new sponsor has a complete copy of the request for MUMS-drug designation, including any amendments to the request and any correspondence relevant to the MUMS-drug designation;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the new sponsor understands and accepts the responsibilities of a sponsor of a MUMS-designated drug established elsewhere in this subpart;
</P>
<P>(v) The name and address of a new primary contact person or permanent resident U.S. agent; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Evidence that the new sponsor is capable of actively pursuing approval with due diligence.
</P>
<P>(b) No sponsor may relieve itself of responsibilities under the act or under this subpart by assigning rights to another person without:
</P>
<P>(1) Assuring that the new sponsor will carry out such responsibilities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtaining prior permission from FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.28" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.28   Publication of MUMS-drug designations.</HEAD>
<P>FDA will periodically update a publicly available list of MUMS-designated drugs. This list will be placed on file at the FDA Dockets Management Staff, and will contain the following information for each MUMS-designated drug:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and address of the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(b) The established name and trade name, if any, of the drug;
</P>
<P>(c) The dosage form of the drug;
</P>
<P>(d) The species and the proposed intended use for which MUMS-drug designation was granted; and
</P>
<P>(e) The date designation was granted.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 41017, July 26, 2007, as amended at 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.29" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.29   Termination of MUMS-drug designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sponsor of a MUMS-designated drug must notify FDA of any decision to discontinue active pursuit of conditional approval or approval of such MUMS drug. FDA must terminate the designation upon such notification.
</P>
<P>(b) A conditionally-approved or approved MUMS-designated drug sponsor must notify FDA at least 1 year before it intends to discontinue the manufacture of such MUMS drug. FDA must terminate designation upon such notification.
</P>
<P>(c) MUMS designation shall terminate upon the expiration of any applicable period of exclusive marketing rights under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may terminate designation if it independently determines that the sponsor is not actively pursuing conditional approval or approval with due diligence. At a minimum, due diligence must be demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(1) Submission of annual progress reports in a timely manner in accordance with § 516.30 that demonstrate that the sponsor is progressing in accordance with the drug development plan submitted to the agency under § 516.20 and
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with all applicable requirements of part 511 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Designation of a conditionally approved or approved MUMS-designated drug and the associated exclusive marketing rights may be terminated if the sponsor is unable to provide sufficient quantities of the drug to meet the needs for which it is designated.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA may also terminate MUMS-drug designation for any drug if the agency finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The request for designation contained an untrue statement of material fact; or
</P>
<P>(2) The request for designation omitted material information required by this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(3) FDA subsequently finds that the drug in fact had not been eligible for MUMS-drug designation at the time of submission of the request;
</P>
<P>(4) The same drug, in the same dosage form, for the same intended use becomes conditionally approved or approved for another sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(5) FDA withdraws the conditional approval or approval of the application for the new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(g) For a conditionally approved or approved drug, termination of MUMS-drug designation also terminates the sponsor's exclusive marketing rights for the drug but does not withdraw the conditional approval or approval of the drug's application.
</P>
<P>(h) Where a drug has been MUMS-designated for a minor use in a major species, its designation will not be terminated on the grounds that the number of animals to which the drug could potentially be administered on an annual basis for the treatment, control, or prevention of the disease or condition for which the drug is being developed, including animals administered the drug as part of herd or flock treatment, subsequently increases.
</P>
<P>(i) When a MUMS-drug designation is terminated, FDA will notify the sponsor in writing and will give public notice of the termination of the MUMS-drug designation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.30" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.30   Annual reports for a MUMS-designated drug.</HEAD>
<P>Within 14 months after the date on which a MUMS drug is granted designation and annually thereafter until approval, the sponsor of a MUMS-designated drug shall submit a brief progress report on the drug to the investigational new animal drug file addressed to the Director of the Office of Minor Use and Minor Species Animal Drug Development that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A short account of the progress of drug development including a description of studies initiated, ongoing, and completed, and a short summary of the status or results of such studies;
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the investigational plan for the coming year, as well as any anticipated difficulties in development, testing, and marketing; and
</P>
<P>(c) A brief discussion of any changes that may affect the MUMS-designated drug status of the product. For example, situations in which testing data demonstrate that the proposed intended use is inappropriate due to unexpected issues of safety or effectiveness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.31" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.31   Scope of MUMS-drug exclusive marketing rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After conditional approval or approval of an application for a MUMS-designated drug in the dosage form and for the intended use for which MUMS-drug designation has been granted, FDA will not conditionally approve or approve another application or abbreviated application for the same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use before the expiration of 7 years after the date of conditional approval or approval as stated in the approval letter from FDA, except that such an application can be conditionally approved or approved sooner if, and at such time as, any of the following occurs:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA terminates the MUMS-drug designation and associated exclusive marketing rights under § 516.29; or
</P>
<P>(2) FDA withdraws the conditional approval or approval of the application for the drug for any reason; or
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor with exclusive marketing rights provides written consent to FDA to conditionally approve or approve another application before the expiration of 7 years; or
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor fails to assure a sufficient quantity of the drug in accordance with section 573 of the act and § 516.36.
</P>
<P>(b) If an application for a MUMS drug cannot be approved until the expiration of the period of exclusive marketing of a MUMS-designated drug, FDA will so notify the sponsor in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.34" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.34   FDA recognition of exclusive marketing rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will send the sponsor (or the permanent-resident U.S. agent, if applicable) timely written notice recognizing exclusive marketing rights when an application for a MUMS-designated drug has been conditionally approved or approved. The written notice will inform the sponsor of the requirements for maintaining MUMS-designated drug exclusive marketing rights for the full 7-year term. This notice will generally be contained in the letter conditionally approving or approving the application.
</P>
<P>(b) When an application is conditionally approved or approved for a MUMS-designated drug that qualifies for exclusive marketing rights, FDA will publish this information in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at the time of the conditional approval or approval. This notice will generally be contained in the notice of conditional approval or approval of the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.36" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.36   Insufficient quantities of MUMS-designated drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 573 of the act, whenever FDA has reason to believe that sufficient quantities of a conditionally-approved or approved, MUMS-designated drug to meet the needs for which the drug was designated cannot be assured by the sponsor, FDA will so notify the sponsor of this possible insufficiency and will offer the sponsor the following options, one of which must be exercised by a time that FDA specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide FDA information and data regarding how the sponsor can assure the availability of sufficient quantities of the MUMS-designated drug within a reasonable time to meet the needs for which the drug was designated; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provide FDA in writing the sponsor's consent for the conditional approval or approval of other applications for the same drug before the expiration of the 7-year period of exclusive marketing rights.
</P>
<P>(b) If, within the time that FDA specifies, the sponsor fails to consent to the conditional approval or approval of other applications and if FDA finds that the sponsor has not shown that it can assure the availability of sufficient quantities of the MUMS-designated drug to meet the needs for which the drug was designated, FDA will issue a written order terminating designation of the MUMS drug and the associated exclusive marketing rights. This order will state FDA's findings and conclusions and will constitute final agency action. An order terminating designation and associated exclusive marketing rights may issue whether or not there are other sponsors that can assure the availability of alternative sources of supply. Such an order will not withdraw the conditional approval or approval of an application. Once terminated under this section, neither designation, nor exclusive marketing rights may be reinstated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.52" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.52   Availability for public disclosure of data and information in requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will not publicly disclose the existence of a request for MUMS-drug designation under section 573 of the act prior to final FDA action on the request unless the existence of the request has been previously publicly disclosed or acknowledged.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether or not the existence of a pending request for designation has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the request are available for public disclosure prior to final FDA action on the request.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, upon final FDA action on a request for designation, the public availability of data and information in the request will be determined in accordance with part 20 of this chapter and other applicable statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with § 516.28, FDA will make a cumulative list of all MUMS-drug designations available to the public and update such list periodically. In accordance with § 516.29, FDA will give public notice of the termination of all MUMS-drug designations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 516.111" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.111   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 572 of the act and provides standards and procedures to establish an index of legally marketed unapproved new animal drugs. This subpart applies only to minor species and not to minor use in major species. This index is only available for new animal drugs intended for use in a minor species for which there is a reasonable certainty that the animal or edible products from the animal will not be consumed by humans or food-producing animals and for new animal drugs intended for use only in a hatchery, tank, pond, or other similar contained man-made structure in an early, nonfood life stage of a food-producing minor species, where safety for humans is demonstrated in accordance with the standard of section 512(d) of the act (including, for an antimicrobial new animal drug, with respect to antimicrobial resistance). The index shall not include a new animal drug that is contained in, or a product of, a transgenic animal. Among its topics, this subpart sets forth the standards and procedures for:
</P>
<P>(a) Investigational exemptions for indexing purposes;
</P>
<P>(b) Submissions to FDA of requests for determination of eligibility of a new animal drug for indexing;
</P>
<P>(c) Establishment and operation of expert panels;
</P>
<P>(d) Submissions to FDA of requests for addition of a new animal drug to the index;
</P>
<P>(e) Modifications to index listings;
</P>
<P>(f) Publication of the index; and
</P>
<P>(g) Records and reports.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.115   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following definitions of terms apply only in the context of subpart C of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Director OMUMS</I> means the Director of the Office of Minor Use and Minor Species Animal Drug Development of the FDA Center for Veterinary Medicine.
</P>
<P><I>Holder</I> means the requestor of an index listing after the request is granted and the new animal drug is added to the index.
</P>
<P><I>Index</I> means FDA's list of legally marketed unapproved new animal drugs for minor species.
</P>
<P><I>Intended use</I> has the same meaning as that given in § 516.13 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified expert panel</I> means a panel that is composed of experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the target animal safety and effectiveness of a new animal drug under consideration for indexing.
</P>
<P><I>Requestor</I> means the person making a request for determination of eligibility for indexing or a request for addition to the index.
</P>
<P><I>Transgenic animal</I> means an animal whose genome contains a nucleotide sequence that has been intentionally modified in vitro, and the progeny of such an animal, provided that the term ‘transgenic animal’ does not include an animal of which the nucleotide sequence of the genome has been modified solely by selective breeding.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions of the following terms are given in § 514.3 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>Adverse drug experience.
</P>
<P>Product defect/manufacturing defect.
</P>
<P>Serious adverse drug experience.
</P>
<P>Unexpected adverse drug experience.
</P>
<P>(c) The definitions of the following terms are given in § 516.3 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>Same dosage form.
</P>
<P>Same drug.
</P>
<P>Same intended use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.117" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.117   Submission of correspondence under this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Unless directed otherwise by FDA, all correspondence relating to any aspect of the new animal drug indexing process described in this subpart must be addressed to the Director, OMUMS. The initial correspondence for a particular index listing should include the name and address of the authorized contact person. Notifications of changes in such person or changes of address of such person should be provided in a timely manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.119" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.119   Permanent-resident U.S. agent for foreign requestors and holders.</HEAD>
<P>Every foreign requestor and holder shall name a permanent resident of the United States as their agent upon whom service of all processes, notices, orders, decisions, requirements, and other communications may be made on behalf of the requestor or holder. Notifications of changes in such agents or changes of address of agents should preferably be provided in advance, but not later than 60 days after the effective date of such changes. The permanent resident U.S. agent may be an individual, firm, or domestic corporation and may represent any number of requestors or holders. The name and address of the permanent-resident U.S. agent shall be submitted to the Director, OMUMS, and included in the index file.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.121" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.121   Meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A requestor or potential requestor is entitled to one or more meetings to discuss the requirements for indexing a new animal drug.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for such meetings should be in writing, be addressed to the Director, OMUMS, specify the participants attending on behalf of the requestor or potential requestor, and contain a proposed agenda for the meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days of receiving a request for a meeting, FDA will attempt to schedule the meeting at a time agreeable to both FDA and the person making the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.123" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.123   Informal conferences regarding agency administrative actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Should FDA make an initial decision denying a request for determination of eligibility for indexing, terminating an investigational exemption, determining that a qualified expert panel does not meet the selection criteria, denying a request for addition to the index, or removing a new animal drug from the index, FDA will give written notice that specifies the grounds for the initial decision and provides an opportunity for an informal conference for review of the decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The written notice will include information for scheduling the informal conference and state that a written request for a conference must be made within 60 days of the date FDA sends its notice.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 45 days of receiving a request for an informal conference, FDA will schedule and hold the informal conference at a time agreeable to both FDA and the person making the request.
</P>
<P>(d) Such an informal conference will be conducted by a presiding officer who will be the Director of the Center for Veterinary Medicine or his or her designee, excluding the Director of the Office of Minor Use and Minor Species Animal Drug Development and other persons significantly involved in the initial decision.
</P>
<P>(e) The person requesting an informal conference must provide a written response to FDA's initial decision at least 2 weeks prior to the date of the scheduled meeting. Generally, this written response would be attached to the request for an informal conference. At the option of the person requesting an informal conference, such written response to FDA's initial decision may act in lieu of a face-to-face meeting. In this case, the informal conference will consist of a review by the presiding officer of the submitted written response.
</P>
<P>(f) The purpose of an informal conference is to discuss scientific and factual issues. It will involve a discussion of FDA's initial decision and any written response to that decision.
</P>
<P>(g) Internal agency review of a decision must be based on the information in the administrative file. If the person requesting an informal conference presents new information not in the file, the matter will be returned to the appropriate lower level in the agency for reevaluation based on the new information.
</P>
<P>(h) Informal conferences under this part are not subject to the separation of functions rules in § 10.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) The rules of evidence do not apply to informal conferences. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views will be made or considered, but any party to the conference may comment upon or rebut all such data, information and views.
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) The presiding officer will prepare a written report regarding the subject of the informal conference that states and describes the basis for his or her findings. Whenever time permits, the parties to the informal conference will have 30 days to review and comment on the report.
</P>
<P>(l) The administrative record of the informal conference will consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) The notice providing an opportunity for an informal conference and the written response to the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) All written information and views submitted to the presiding officer at the conference or, at the discretion of the presiding officer, thereafter.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer's written report.
</P>
<P>(4) All correspondence and memoranda of any and all meetings between the participants and the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(m) The administrative record of the informal conference is closed to the submission of information at the close of the conference, unless the presiding officer specifically permits additional time for further submission.
</P>
<P>(n) The administrative record of the informal conference specified herein constitutes the exclusive record for decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.125" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.125   Investigational use of minor species new animal drugs to support indexing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigational use of a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug intended solely for investigational use in minor species shall meet the requirements of part 511 of this chapter if the investigational use is for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrating human food safety under section 572(a)(1)(B) of the act;
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrating safety with respect to individuals exposed to the new animal drug through its manufacture and use under section 572(c)(1)(F) of the act;
</P>
<P>(3) Conducting an environmental assessment under section 572(c)(1)(E) of the act; or
</P>
<P>(4) Obtaining approval of a new animal drug application or abbreviated new animal drug application under section 512(b) of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) Correspondence and information associated with investigations described in paragraph (a) of this section shall not be sent to the Director, OMUMS, but shall be submitted to FDA in accordance with the provisions of part 511 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The investigational use of a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug intended solely for investigational use in minor species, other than for an investigational use described in paragraph (a) of this section, shall meet the requirements of this section. For such investigations, all provisions of part 511 of this chapter apply with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Under § 511.1(a)(1) of this chapter, the label statement is as follows:
</P>
<P>“<I>Caution.</I> Contains a new animal drug for investigational use only in laboratory animals or for tests in vitro in support of index listing. Not for use in humans.”
</P>
<P>(2) Under § 511.1(b)(1) of this chapter, the label statement is as follows:
</P>
<P>“<I>Caution.</I> Contains a new animal drug for use only in investigational animals in clinical trials in support of index listing. Not for use in humans. Edible products of investigational animals are not to be used for food for humans or other animals unless authorization has been granted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration or by the U.S. Department of Agriculture.”
</P>
<P>(3) Under § 511.1(b)(4) of this chapter, the notice is titled “Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Animal Drug for Index Listing” and is submitted in duplicate to the Director, OMUMS.
</P>
<P>(4) Under § 511.1(c)(3) of this chapter, if an investigator is determined to be ineligible to receive new animal drugs, each “Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Animal Drug for Index Listing” and each request for indexing shall be examined with respect to the reliability of information submitted by the investigator.
</P>
<P>(5) Under § 511.1(c)(4) and (d)(2) of this chapter, with respect to termination of exemptions, the sponsor of an investigation shall not be granted an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA pursuant to part 16 of this chapter. Instead, the sponsor shall have an opportunity for an informal conference as described in § 516.123.
</P>
<P>(6) Under § 511.1(c)(5) of this chapter, if the Commissioner of Food and Drugs determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the data remaining are such that a request for addition to the index would have been denied, FDA will remove the new animal drug from the index in accordance with § 516.167.
</P>
<P>(d) The investigational use of a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug subject to paragraph (c) of this section shall not be subject to the good laboratory practice requirements in part 58 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Correspondence and information associated with investigations described in paragraph (c) of this section shall be sent to the Director, OMUMS, in accordance with the provisions of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.129" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.129   Content and format of a request for determination of eligibility for indexing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each request for determination of eligibility:
</P>
<P>(1) May involve only one drug (or one combination of drugs) in one dosage form;
</P>
<P>(2) May not involve a new animal drug that is contained in or a product of a transgenic animal;
</P>
<P>(3) May not involve the same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use as a drug that is already approved or conditionally approved; and
</P>
<P>(4) Must be submitted separately.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for determination of eligibility for indexing may involve multiple intended uses and/or multiple minor species. However, if a request for determination of eligibility for indexing that contains multiple intended uses and/or multiple minor species cannot be granted in any part, the entire request will be denied.
</P>
<P>(c) A requestor must submit two copies of a dated request signed by the authorized contact person for determination of eligibility for indexing that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the minor species or groups of minor species for which the new animal drug is intended;
</P>
<P>(2) Information regarding drug components and composition;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the intended use(s) of the new animal drug in the identified minor species or groups of minor species;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the proposed conditions of use associated with the stated intended use(s) of the new animal drug, including the proposed dosage, route of administration, contraindications, warnings, and any other significant limitations associated with the intended use(s) of the new animal drug;
</P>
<P>(5) A brief discussion of the need for the new animal drug for the intended use(s);
</P>
<P>(6) An estimate of the anticipated annual distribution of the new animal drug, in terms of the total quantity of active ingredient, after indexing;
</P>
<P>(7) Information to establish that the new animal drug is intended for use:
</P>
<P>(i) In a minor species for which there is a reasonable certainty that the animal or edible products from the animal will not be consumed by humans or food-producing animals; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In a hatchery, tank, pond, or other similar contained man-made structure in (which includes on) an early, non-food life stage of a food-producing minor species, and information to demonstrate food safety in accordance with the standards of section 512(d) of the act and § 514.111 of this chapter (including, for an antimicrobial new animal drug, with respect to antimicrobial resistance);
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing and packing of the new animal drug sufficient to demonstrate that the requestor has established appropriate specifications for the manufacture and control of the new animal drug and that the requestor has an understanding of current good manufacturing practices;
</P>
<P>(9) Either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.33 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(10) Information sufficient to support the conclusion that the new animal drug is safe under section 512(d) of the act with respect to individuals exposed to the new animal drug through its manufacture and use; and
</P>
<P>(11) The name and address of the contact person or permanent-resident U.S. agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.131" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.131   Refuse to file a request for determination of eligibility for indexing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a request for determination of eligibility for indexing contains all of the information required by § 516.129, FDA shall file it, and the filing date shall be the date FDA receives the request.
</P>
<P>(b) If a request for a determination of eligibility lacks any of the information required by § 516.129, FDA will not file it, but will inform the requestor in writing within 30 days of receiving the request as to what information is lacking.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.133" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.133   Denying a request for determination of eligibility for indexing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will deny a request for determination of eligibility for indexing if it determines upon the basis of the request evaluated together with any other information before it with respect to the new animal drug that:
</P>
<P>(1) The same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use is already approved or conditionally approved;
</P>
<P>(2) There is insufficient information to demonstrate that the new animal drug is intended for use:
</P>
<P>(i) In a minor species for which there is a reasonable certainty that the animal or edible products from the animal will not be consumed by humans or food-producing animals, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In a hatchery, tank, pond, or other similar contained man-made structure in (which includes on) an early, non-food life stage of a food-producing minor species, and there is insufficient evidence to demonstrate safety for humans in accordance with the standard of section 512(d) of the act and § 514.111 of this chapter (including, for an antimicrobial new animal drug, with respect to antimicrobial resistance);
</P>
<P>(3) The new animal drug is contained in or is a product of a transgenic animal;
</P>
<P>(4) There is insufficient information to demonstrate that the requestor has established appropriate specifications for the manufacture and control of the new animal drug and that the requestor has an understanding of current good manufacturing practices;
</P>
<P>(5) The requester fails to submit an adequate environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter or fails to provide sufficient information to establish that the requested action is subject to categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) There is insufficient information to determine that the new animal drug is safe with respect to individuals exposed to the new animal drug through its manufacture or use; or
</P>
<P>(7) The request for determination of eligibility for indexing fails to contain any other information required under the provisions of § 516.129.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may deny a request for determination of eligibility for indexing if it contains any untrue statement of a material fact or omits material information.
</P>
<P>(c) When a request for determination of eligibility for indexing is denied, FDA will notify the requestor in accordance with § 516.137.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.135" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.135   Granting a request for determination of eligibility for indexing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will grant the request for determination of eligibility for indexing if none of the reasons described in § 516.133 for denying such a request applies.
</P>
<P>(b) When a request for determination of eligibility for indexing is granted, FDA will notify the requestor in accordance with § 516.137.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.137" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.137   Notification of decision regarding eligibility for indexing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 90 days after the filing of a request for a determination of eligibility for indexing based on § 516.129(c)(7)(i), or 180 days for a request based on § 516.129(c)(7)(ii), FDA shall grant or deny the request, and notify the requestor of FDA's decision in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA denies the request, FDA shall provide due notice and an opportunity for an informal conference as described in § 516.123 regarding its decision. A decision of FDA to deny a request for determination of eligibility for indexing following an informal conference shall constitute final agency action subject to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.141" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.141   Qualified expert panels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment of a qualified expert panel.</I> Establishing a qualified expert panel is the first step in the process of requesting the addition of a new animal drug to the index. A qualified expert panel may not be established until FDA has determined that the new animal drug is eligible for indexing. The requestor must choose members for the qualified expert panel in accordance with selection criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section and submit information about these proposed members to FDA. FDA must determine whether the proposed qualified expert panel meets the selection criteria prior to the panel beginning its work. Qualified expert panels operate external to FDA and are not subject to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. App.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for the selection of a qualified expert panel.</I> (1) A qualified expert panel member must be an expert qualified by training and experience to evaluate a significant aspect of target animal safety or effectiveness of the new animal drug under consideration.
</P>
<P>(2) A qualified expert panel member must certify that he or she has a working knowledge of section 572 of the act (the indexing provisions of the statute) and this subpart, and that he or she has also read and understood a clear written statement provided by the requestor stating his or her duties and responsibilities with respect to reviewing the new animal drug proposed for addition to the index.
</P>
<P>(3) A qualified expert panel member may not be an FDA employee.
</P>
<P>(4) A qualified expert panel must have at least three members.
</P>
<P>(5) A qualified expert panel must have members with a range of expertise such that the panel, as a whole, is qualified by training and experience to evaluate the target animal safety and effectiveness of the new animal drug under consideration.
</P>
<P>(6) Unless FDA makes a determination to allow participation notwithstanding an otherwise disqualifying financial interest, a qualified expert panel member must not have a conflict of interest or the appearance of a conflict of interest, as described in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requestor responsibilities.</I> (1) The requestor must:
</P>
<P>(i) Choose members for the qualified expert panel in accordance with selection criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide each potential expert panel member a copy of section 572 of the act (the indexing provisions of the statute) and this subpart and obtain certification that he or she has a working knowledge of the information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide each potential expert panel member a written statement describing the purpose and scope of his or her participation on the qualified expert panel and obtain certification that he or she has read and understood the information. The written statement should describe the duties and responsibilities of qualified expert panels and their members established by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, including the need to prepare a written report under § 516.143.
</P>
<P>(iv) Obtain information from each potential expert panel member demonstrating that he or she is qualified by training and experience to evaluate the target animal safety and effectiveness of the new animal drug under consideration. This information can be obtained from a comprehensive curriculum vitae or similar document.
</P>
<P>(v) Notify each potential expert panel member that he or she must submit information relating to potential conflict of interest directly to FDA in a timely manner, as required in paragraph (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The requestor must submit, in writing, the names and addresses of the proposed qualified expert panel members and sufficient information about each proposed member for FDA to determine whether the panel meets the selection criteria listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) After FDA has determined that the qualified expert panel meets the selection criteria, the requestor must provide to the panel all information known by the requestor that is relevant to a determination of the target animal safety and the effectiveness of the new animal drug at issue. In addition, the requestor must notify FDA of the name of the qualified expert panel leader.
</P>
<P>(4) The requestor must immediately notify FDA if it believes a qualified expert panel member no longer meets the selection criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section or is otherwise not in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a qualified expert panel member cannot complete the review for which he or she was selected, the requestor must either choose a replacement or justify the continued work of the panel in the absence of the lost panelist. In either case, the requestor must submit sufficient information for FDA to determine whether the proposed revised qualified expert panel meets the selection criteria listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The requestor must keep copies of all information provided to, or received from, qualified expert panel members, including the written report, for 2 years after the completion of the report, or the product is added to the index, whichever occurs later, and make them available to a duly authorized employee of the agency at all reasonable times.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FDA responsibilities.</I> (1) FDA will determine whether the requestor's proposed qualified expert panel meets the selection criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section. FDA will expeditiously inform the requestor, in writing, of its determination. If FDA determines that the qualified expert panel does not meet the selection criteria, FDA will provide due notice and an opportunity for an informal conference as described in § 516.123. A determination by FDA that a proposed qualified expert panel does not meet the selection criteria following an informal conference shall constitute final agency action subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA determines that a qualified expert panel no longer meets the selection criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section or that the panel or its members are not in compliance with the requirements of this section, the agency will expeditiously inform the requestor, in writing, of this determination and provide due notice and an opportunity for an informal conference as described in § 516.123. A determination by FDA, following an informal conference, that a qualified expert panel no longer meets the selection criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section or that the panel or its members are not in compliance with the requirements of this section shall constitute final agency action subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Responsibilities of a qualified expert panel member.</I> A qualified expert panel member must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Continue to meet all selection criteria described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Act in accordance with generally accepted professional and ethical business practices.
</P>
<P>(3) Review all information relevant to a determination of the target animal safety and effectiveness of the new animal drug provided by the requestor. The panel should also consider all relevant information otherwise known by the panel members, including anecdotal information.
</P>
<P>(4) Participate in the preparation of the written report of the findings of the qualified expert panel, described in § 516.143.
</P>
<P>(5) Sign, or otherwise approve in writing, the written report. Such signature or other written approval will serve as certification that the written report meets the requirements of the written report in § 516.143.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide the information relating to potential conflict of interest described in paragraph (g) of this section to FDA for its consideration. Such information should be submitted directly to the Director, OMUMS, when notified by the requestor.
</P>
<P>(7) Immediately notify the requestor and FDA of any change in conflict of interest status.
</P>
<P>(8) Certify at the time of submission of the written report that there has been no change in conflict of interest status, or identify and document to FDA any such change.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional responsibilities of a qualified expert panel leader.</I> (1) The qualified expert panel leader must ensure that the activities of the panel are performed efficiently and in accordance with generally accepted professional and ethical business practices.
</P>
<P>(2) The qualified expert panel leader serves as the principal point of contact between representatives of the agency and the panel.
</P>
<P>(3) The qualified expert panel leader is responsible for submitting the written report and all notes or minutes relating to panel deliberations to the requestor.
</P>
<P>(4) The qualified expert panel leader must maintain a copy of the written report and all notes or minutes relating to panel deliberations that are submitted to the requestor for 2 years after the report is submitted. Such records must be made available to a duly authorized employee of the agency for inspection at all reasonable times.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prevention of conflicts of interest.</I> (1) For the purposes of this subpart, FDA will consider a conflict of interest to be any financial or other interest that could impair a person's objectivity in serving on the qualified expert panel or could create an unfair competitive advantage for a person or organization.
</P>
<P>(2) Factors relevant to whether there is a conflict of interest or the appearance of a conflict of interest include whether the qualified expert panel member, their spouse, their minor children, their general partners, or any organizations in which they serve as an officer, director, trustee, general partner or employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Is currently receiving or seeking funding from the requestor through a contract or research grant (either directly or indirectly through another entity, such as a university).
</P>
<P>(ii) Has any employment, contractual, or other financial arrangement with the requestor other than receiving a reasonable fee for serving as a member of the qualified expert panel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Has any ownership or financial interest in any drug, drug manufacturer, or drug distributor which will benefit from either a favorable or unfavorable evaluation or opinion.
</P>
<P>(iv) Has any ownership or financial interest in the new animal drug being reviewed by the qualified expert panel.
</P>
<P>(v) Has participated in the design, manufacture, or distribution of any drug that will benefit from either a favorable or unfavorable opinion of the qualified expert panel.
</P>
<P>(vi) Has provided within 1 year any consultative services regarding the new animal drug being reviewed by the qualified expert panel.
</P>
<P>(vii) Has entered into an agreement in which fees charged or accepted are contingent upon the panel member making a favorable evaluation or opinion.
</P>
<P>(viii) Receives payment for services related to preparing information the requestor presents to the qualified expert panel, other than for services related to the written report described in § 516.143.
</P>
<P>(3) To permit FDA to make a decision regarding potential conflict of interest, a potential qualified expert panel member must submit to the Director, OMUMS, the following information relating to themselves, their spouse, their minor children, their general partners, or any organizations in which they serve as an officer, director, trustee, general partner or employee, regarding the following issues to the extent that they are, in any way, relevant to the subject of the review of the qualified expert panel:
</P>
<P>(i) Investments (for example, stocks, bonds, retirement plans, trusts, partnerships, sector funds, etc.), including for each the following: Name of the firm, type of investment, owner (self, spouse, etc.), number of shares / current value.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employment (full or part time, current or under negotiation), including for each the following: Name of the firm, relationship (self, spouse, etc.), position in firm, date employment or negotiation began.
</P>
<P>(iii) Consultant/advisor (current or under negotiation), including for each the following: Name of the firm, topic/issue, amount received, date initiated.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contracts, grants, Cooperation Research and Development Agreement (CRADAs) (current or under negotiation), including for each the following: Type of agreement, product under study and indications, amount of remuneration (institution/self), time period, sponsor (government, firm, institution, individual), role of the person (site investigator, principal investigator, co-investigator, partner, no involvement, other), awardee.
</P>
<P>(v) Patents/royalties/trademarks, including for each the following: Description, name of firm involved, income received.
</P>
<P>(vi) Expert witness (last 12 months or under negotiation), including for each the following: For or against, name of firm, issue, amount received.
</P>
<P>(vii) Speaking/writing (last 12 months or under negotiation), including for each the following: Firm, topic/issue, amount received (honorarium/travel), date.
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether the potential qualified expert panel member, their spouse, their minor children, their general partners or any organizations in which they serve as an officer, director, trustee, general partner or employee, have had, at any time in the past, involvement of the kind noted in paragraph (g)(3)(i) through (g)(3)(vii) of this section with respect to the animal drug that is the subject of the qualified expert panel review.
</P>
<P>(ix) Whether there are any other involvements (other kinds of relationships) that would give the appearance of a conflict of interest which have not been described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) through (g)(3)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) In all cases, a response of “no,” “none,” or “not applicable” is satisfactory when there is no relevant information to submit.
</P>
<P>(xi) A certification statement signed by the potential qualified expert panel member to the effect that all information submitted is true and complete to the best of their knowledge, that they have read and understood their obligations as an expert panel member, and that they will notify FDA and the requestor of any change in their conflict of interest status.
</P>
<P>(4) The fact that a qualified expert panel member receives a reasonable fee for services as a member of the qualified expert panel, provided that the fee is no more than commensurate with the value of the time that the member devotes to the review process, does not constitute a conflict of interest or the appearance of a conflict of interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.143" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.143   Written report.</HEAD>
<P>The written report required in § 516.145(b)(3) shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Be written in English by a qualified expert panel meeting the requirements of § 516.141;
</P>
<P>(b) Describe the panel's evaluation of all available target animal safety and effectiveness information relevant to the proposed use of the new animal drug, including anecdotal information;
</P>
<P>(c) For all information considered, including anecdotal information, include either a citation to published literature or a summary of the information;
</P>
<P>(d) State the panel's opinion regarding whether the benefits of using the new animal drug for the proposed use in a minor species outweigh its risks to the target animal, taking into account the harm being caused by the absence of an approved or conditionally-approved new animal drug for the minor species in question;
</P>
<P>(e) Be signed, or otherwise approved in writing, by all panel members, in accordance with § 516.141; and
</P>
<P>(f) If the panel unanimously concludes that the benefits of using the new animal drug for the proposed use in a minor species outweigh its risks to the target animal, taking into account the harm being caused by the absence of an approved or conditionally-approved new animal drug for the minor species in question, the written report shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide draft labeling that includes all conditions of use and limitations of use of the new animal drug deemed necessary by the panel to assure that the benefits of use of the new animal drug outweigh the risks, or provide narrative information from which such labeling can be written by the requestor; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include a recommendation regarding whether the new animal drug should be limited to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.145" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.145   Content and format of a request for addition to the index.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A requestor may request addition of a new animal drug to the index only after the new animal drug has been granted eligibility for indexing.
</P>
<P>(b) A requestor shall submit two copies of a dated request signed by the authorized contact for addition of a new animal drug to the index that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of FDA's determination of eligibility issued under § 516.137;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of FDA's written determination that the proposed qualified expert panel meets the selection criteria provided for in § 516.141(b);
</P>
<P>(3) A written report that meets the requirements of § 516.143;
</P>
<P>(4) A proposed index entry that contains the information described in § 516.157;
</P>
<P>(5) Proposed labeling, including representative labeling proposed to be used for Type B and Type C medicated feeds if the drug is intended for use in the manufacture of medicated feeds;
</P>
<P>(6) Anticipated annual distribution of the new animal drug, in terms of the total quantity of active ingredient, after indexing;
</P>
<P>(7) A written commitment to manufacture the new animal drug and animal feeds bearing or containing such new animal drug according to current good manufacturing practices;
</P>
<P>(8) A written commitment to label, distribute, and promote the new animal drug only in accordance with the index entry;
</P>
<P>(9) The name and address of the contact person or permanent-resident U.S. agent; and
</P>
<P>(10) A draft Freedom of Information summary which includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A general information section that contains the name and address of the requestor and a description of the drug, route of administration, indications, and recommended dosage.
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of the names and affiliations of the members of the qualified expert panel, not including their addresses or other contact information.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the findings of the qualified expert panel concerning the target animal safety and effectiveness of the drug.
</P>
<P>(iv) Citations of all publicly-available literature considered by the qualified expert panel.
</P>
<P>(v) For an early life stage of a food-producing minor species animal, a human food safety summary.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon specific request by FDA, the requestor shall submit the information described in § 516.141 that it submitted to the qualified expert panel. Any such information not in English should be accompanied by an English translation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.147" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.147   Refuse to file a request for addition to the index.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a request for addition to the index contains all of the information required by § 516.145(b), FDA shall file it, and the filing date shall be the date FDA receives the request.
</P>
<P>(b) If a request for addition to the index lacks any of the information required by § 516.145, FDA will not file it, but will inform the requestor in writing within 30 days of receiving the request as to what information is lacking.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.149" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.149   Denying a request for addition to the index.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will deny a request for addition to the index if it finds the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use is already approved or conditionally approved;
</P>
<P>(2) On the basis of new information, the new animal drug no longer meets the conditions for eligibility for indexing;
</P>
<P>(3) The request for indexing fails to contain information required under the provisions of § 516.145;
</P>
<P>(4) The qualified expert panel fails to meet any of the selection criteria listed in § 516.141(b);
</P>
<P>(5) The written report of the qualified expert panel and other information available to FDA is insufficient to permit FDA to determine that the benefits of using the new animal drug for the proposed use in a minor species outweigh its risks to the target animal, taking into account the harm caused by the absence of an approved or conditionally-approved new animal drug for the minor species in question;
</P>
<P>(6) On the basis of the report of the qualified expert panel and other information available to FDA, the benefits of using the new animal drug for the proposed use in a minor species do not outweigh its risks to the target animal, taking into account the harm caused by the absence of an approved or conditionally-approved new animal drug for the minor species in question; or
</P>
<P>(7) The request contains any untrue statement of a material fact or omits material information.
</P>
<P>(b) When a request for addition to the index is denied, FDA will notify the requestor in accordance with § 516.153.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.151" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.151   Granting a request for addition to the index.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will grant the request for addition of a new animal drug to the index if none of the reasons described in § 516.149 for denying such a request applies.
</P>
<P>(b) When a request for addition of a new animal drug to the index is granted, FDA will notify the requestor in accordance with § 516.153.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.153" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.153   Notification of decision regarding index listing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 180 days after the filing of a request for addition of a new animal drug to the index, FDA shall grant or deny the request and notify the requestor of FDA's decision in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA denies the request for addition of a new animal drug to the index, FDA shall provide due notice and an opportunity for an informal conference as described in § 516.123. A decision of FDA to deny a request to index a new animal drug following an informal conference shall constitute final agency action subject to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.155" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.155   Labeling of indexed drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeling of an indexed drug that is found to be eligible for indexing under § 516.129(c)(7)(i) shall state, prominently and conspicuously: “LEGAL STATUS—In order to be legally marketed, a new animal drug intended for a minor species must be Approved, Conditionally Approved, or Indexed by the Food and Drug Administration. THIS PRODUCT IS INDEXED—MIF # (followed by the applicable minor species index file number and a period).” “Extra-label use is prohibited.” “This product is not to be used in animals intended for use as food for humans or food-producing animals.”


</P>
<P>(b) The labeling of an indexed drug that is found to be eligible for indexing for use in an early, non-food life stage of a food-producing minor species animal, under § 516.129(c)(7)(ii), shall state, prominently and conspicuously: “LEGAL STATUS—In order to be legally marketed, a new animal drug intended for a minor species must be Approved, Conditionally Approved, or Indexed by the Food and Drug Administration. THIS PRODUCT IS INDEXED—MIF # (followed by the applicable minor species index file number and a period).” “Extra-label use is prohibited.”
</P>
<P>(c) The labeling of an indexed drug shall contain such other information as may be prescribed in the index listing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 42362, May 15, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.157" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.157   Publication of the index and content of an index listing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will make the list of indexed drugs available through the FDA Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I> A printed copy can be obtained by writing to the Freedom of Information Staff or by visiting FDA's Freedom of Information Staff's Public Reading Room at the address listed on the Agency's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The list will contain the following information for each indexed drug:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the person who holds the index listing;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the drug and the intended use and conditions of use for which it is indexed;
</P>
<P>(3) Product labeling; and
</P>
<P>(4) Conditions and any limitations that FDA deems necessary regarding use of the drug.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 69121, Dec. 6, 2007; 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.161" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.161   Modifications to indexed drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After a drug is listed in the index, certain modifications to the index listing may be requested. Any modification of an index listing may not cause an indexed drug to be a different drug (or different combination of drugs) or a different dosage form. If such modification is requested, FDA will notify the holder that a new index listing is required for the new drug or dosage form.
</P>
<P>(b) Modifications to the indexed drug will fall under one of three categories and must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Urgent changes.</I> (i) The following modifications to an indexed drug or its labeling should be made as soon as possible, and a request to modify the indexed drug should be concurrently submitted:
</P>
<P>(A) The addition to package labeling, promotional labeling, or prescription drug advertising of additional warning, contraindication, side effect, or cautionary information.
</P>
<P>(B) The deletion from package labeling, promotional labeling, and drug advertising of false, misleading, or unsupported indications for use or claims for effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(C) Changes in manufacturing methods or controls required to correct product or manufacturing defects that may result in serious adverse drug events.
</P>
<P>(ii) The modifications described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section must be submitted to the Director, OMUMS, in the form of a request for modification of an indexed drug, and must contain sufficient information to permit FDA to determine the need for the modification and whether the modification appropriately addresses the need.
</P>
<P>(iii) FDA will take no action against an indexed drug or index holder solely because modifications of the kinds described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section are placed into effect by the holder prior to receipt of a written notice granting the request if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) A request to modify the indexed drug providing a full explanation of the basis for the modifications has been submitted, plainly marked on the mailing cover and on the request as follows: “Special indexing request— modifications being effected;”
</P>
<P>(B) The holder specifically informs FDA of the date on which such modifications are to be effected and submits two printed copies of any revised labeling to be placed in use, and
</P>
<P>(C) All promotional labeling and all drug advertising are promptly revised consistent with modifications made in the labeling on or within the indexed drug package.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Significant changes.</I> (i) The following modifications to an indexed drug or its labeling may be made only after a request has been submitted to and subsequently granted by FDA:
</P>
<P>(A) Addition of an intended use.
</P>
<P>(B) Addition of a species.
</P>
<P>(C) Addition or alteration of an active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(D) Alteration of the concentration of an active ingredient.
</P>
<P>(E) Alteration of dose or dosage regimen.
</P>
<P>(F) Alteration of prescription or over-the-counter status.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each modification described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section must go through the same review process as an original index listing and is subject to the same standards for review.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each submission of a request for a modification described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section should contain only one type of modification unless one modification is actually necessitated by another, such as a modification of dose necessitated by a modification of the concentration of an active ingredient. Submissions relating to addition of an intended use for an existing species or addition of a species should be submitted separately, but each such submission may include multiple additional intended uses and/or multiple additional species.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minor changes.</I> All modifications other than those described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section including, but not limited to, formulation, labeling, and manufacturing methods and controls (at the same level of detail that these were described in the request for determination of eligibility for indexing) must be submitted as part of the annual indexed drug experience report or as otherwise required by § 516.165.
</P>
<P>(c) When changes affect the index listing, it will be updated accordingly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.163" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.163   Change in ownership of an index file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A holder may transfer ownership of a drug's index file to another person.
</P>
<P>(1) The former owner shall submit in writing to FDA a statement that all rights in the index file have been transferred, giving the name and address of the new owner and the date of the transfer. The former owner shall also certify that a complete copy of the following, to the extent that they exist at the time of the transfer of ownership, has been provided to the new owner:
</P>
<P>(i) The request for determination of eligibility;
</P>
<P>(ii) The request for addition to the index;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any modifications to the index listing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any records and reports under § 516.165; and
</P>
<P>(v) All correspondence with FDA relevant to the indexed drug and its index listing.
</P>
<P>(2) The new owner shall submit the following information in writing to FDA:
</P>
<P>(i) The date that the change in ownership is effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the new owner has a complete copy of all documents listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the extent that they exist at the time of the transfer of ownership;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the new owner understands and accepts the responsibilities of a holder of an indexed drug;
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and address of a new primary contact person or permanent-resident U.S. agent; and
</P>
<P>(v) A list of labeling changes associated with the change of ownership (e.g., a new trade name) as draft labeling, with complete final printed labeling to be submitted in the indexed drug annual report in accordance with §§ 516.161 and 516.165.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receiving the necessary information to support a change of ownership of a drug's index file, FDA will update its publicly-available listing in accordance with § 516.157.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.165" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.165   Records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> (1) The recordkeeping and reporting requirements of this section apply to all holders of indexed drugs, including indexed drugs intended for use in medicated feeds.
</P>
<P>(2) A holder is not required to report information under this section if the holder has reported the same information under § 514.80 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The records and reports referred to in this section are in addition to those required by the current good manufacturing practice regulations in parts 211, 225, and 226 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will review the records and reports required in this section to determine, or facilitate a determination, whether there may be grounds for removing a drug from the index under section 572(f) of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> (1) Each holder of an indexed drug must establish and maintain complete files containing full records of all information pertinent to the safety or effectiveness of the indexed drug. Such records must include information from foreign and domestic sources.
</P>
<P>(2) The holder must, upon request from any authorized FDA officer or employee, at all reasonable times, permit such officer or employee to have access to copy and to verify all such records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements</I>—(1) <I>Three-day indexed drug field alert report.</I> The holder must inform the appropriate FDA District Office or local FDA resident post of any product or manufacturing defects that may result in serious adverse drug events within 3 working days of first becoming aware that such a defect may exist. The holder may initially provide this information by telephone or other electronic communication means, with prompt written followup. The mailing cover must be plainly marked “3-Day Indexed Drug Field Alert Report.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fifteen-day indexed drug alert report.</I> The holder must submit a report on each serious, unexpected adverse drug event, regardless of the source of the information. The holder must submit the report within 15 working days of first receiving the information. The mailing cover must be plainly marked “15-Day Indexed Drug Alert Report.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Annual indexed drug experience report.</I> The holder must submit this report every year on the anniversary date of the letter granting the request for addition of the new animal drug to the index, or within 60 days thereafter. The report must contain data and information for the full reporting period. Any previously submitted information contained in the report must be identified as such. The holder may ask FDA to change the date of submission and, after approval of such request, file such reports by the new filing date. The report must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of distributed units of each size, strength, or potency (e.g., 100,000 bottles of 100 5-milligram tablets; 50,000 10-milliliter vials of 5- percent solution) distributed during the reporting period. This information must be presented in two categories: Quantities distributed domestically and quantities exported. This information must include any distributor-labeled product.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the labeling has changed since the last report, include a summary of those changes and the holder's and distributor's current package labeling, including any package inserts. For large-size package labeling or large shipping cartons, submit a representative copy (e.g., a photocopy of pertinent areas of large feed bags). If the labeling has not changed since the last report, include a statement of such fact.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of any changes made during the reporting period in the methods used in, and facilities and controls used for, manufacture, processing, and packing. This information must be presented in the same level of detail that it was presented in the request for determination of eligibility for indexing. Do not include changes that have already been submitted under § 516.161.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nonclinical laboratory studies and clinical data not previously reported under this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Adverse drug experiences not previously reported under this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other information pertinent to safety or effectiveness of the indexed drug not previously reported under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Distributor's statement.</I> At the time of initial distribution of an indexed drug by a distributor, the holder must submit a report containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The distributor's current product labeling. This must be identical to that in the index listing except for a different and suitable proprietary name (if used) and the name and address of the distributor. The name and address of the distributor must be preceded by an appropriate qualifying phrase such as “manufactured for” or “distributed by.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A signed statement by the distributor stating:
</P>
<P>(A) The category of the distributor's operations (e.g., wholesale or retail);
</P>
<P>(B) That the distributor will distribute the drug only under the indexed drug labeling;
</P>
<P>(C) That the distributor will promote the indexed drug only for use under the conditions stated in the index listing; and
</P>
<P>(D) If the indexed drug is a prescription new animal drug, that the distributor is regularly and lawfully engaged in the distribution or dispensing of prescription products.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other reporting.</I> FDA may by order require that a holder submit information in addition to that required by this section or that the holder submit the same information but at different times or reporting periods.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.167" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.167   Removal from the index.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After due notice to the holder of the index listing and an opportunity for an informal conference as described in § 516.123, FDA shall remove a new animal drug from the index if FDA finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The same drug in the same dosage form for the same intended use has been approved or conditionally approved;
</P>
<P>(2) The expert panel failed to meet the requirements in § 516.141;
</P>
<P>(3) On the basis of new information before FDA, evaluated together with the evidence available to FDA when the new animal drug was listed in the index, the benefits of using the new animal drug for the indexed use do not outweigh its risks to the target animal, taking into account the harm caused by the absence of an approved or conditionally-approved new animal drug for the minor species in question;
</P>
<P>(4) Any of the conditions in § 516.133(a)(2), (5), or (6) are present;
</P>
<P>(5) The manufacture of the new animal drug is not in accordance with current good manufacturing practices;
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling, distribution, or promotion of the new animal drug is not in accordance with the index listing;
</P>
<P>(7) The conditions and limitations of use associated with the index listing have not been followed; or
</P>
<P>(8) Any information used to support the request for addition to the index contains any untrue statement of material fact.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency may partially remove an indexing listing if, in the opinion of the agency, such partial removal would satisfactorily resolve a safety or effectiveness issue otherwise warranting removal of the listing under section 572(f)(1)(B) of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may immediately suspend a new animal drug from the index if FDA determines that there is a reasonable probability that the use of the drug would present a risk to the health of humans or other animals. The agency will subsequently provide due notice and an opportunity for an informal conference as described in § 516.123.
</P>
<P>(d) A decision of FDA to remove a new animal drug from the index following an informal conference, if any, shall constitute final agency action subject to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.171" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.3.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.171   Confidentiality of data and information in an index file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the index file includes all data and information submitted to or incorporated by reference into the index file, such as data and information related to investigational use exemptions under § 516.125, requests for determination of eligibility for indexing, requests for addition to the index, modifications to indexed drugs, changes in ownership, reports submitted under § 516.165, and master files. The availability for public disclosure of any record in the index file shall be handled in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The existence of an index file will not be disclosed by FDA before an index listing has been made public by FDA, unless it has previously been publicly disclosed or acknowledged by the requestor.
</P>
<P>(c) If the existence of an index file has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the index file are available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(d) If the existence of an index file has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged before an index listing has been made public by FDA, no data or information contained in the file will be available for public disclosure before such index listing is made public, but the agency may, at its discretion, disclose a brief summary of such selected portions of the safety and effectiveness data as are appropriate for public consideration of a specific pending issue, e.g., at an open session of a Food and Drug Administration advisory committee or pursuant to an exchange of important regulatory information with a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(e) After FDA sends a written notice to the requestor granting a request for addition to the index, the following data and information in the index file are available for public disclosure unless extraordinary circumstances are shown:
</P>
<P>(1) All safety and effectiveness data and information previously disclosed to the public, as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A summary or summaries of the safety and effectiveness data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the index file. Such summaries do not constitute the full information described under section 572(c) and (d) of the act on which the safety or effectiveness of the drug may be determined. Such summaries will be based on the draft Freedom of Information summary submitted under § 516.145, which will be reviewed and, where appropriate, revised by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information, after deletion of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of all active ingredients and any inactive ingredients previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to the index file, in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) The following data and information in an index file are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter, or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.
</P>
<P>(g) Subject to the disclosure provisions of this section, the agency shall regard the contents of an index file as confidential information unless specifically notified in writing by the holder of the right to disclose, to reference, or otherwise utilize such information on behalf of another named person.
</P>
<P>(h) For purposes of this regulation, safety and effectiveness data include all studies and tests of an animal drug on animals and all studies and tests on the animal drug for identity, stability, purity, potency, and bioavailability.
</P>
<P>(i) Safety and effectiveness data and information that have not been previously disclosed to the public are available for public disclosure at the time any of the following events occurs unless extraordinary circumstances are shown:
</P>
<P>(1) No work is being or will be undertaken to have the drug indexed in accordance with the request.
</P>
<P>(2) A final determination is made that the drug cannot be indexed and all legal appeals have been exhausted.
</P>
<P>(3) The drug has been removed from the index and all legal appeals have been exhausted.
</P>
<P>(4) A final determination has been made that the animal drug is not a new animal drug.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Conditionally Approved New Animal Drugs For Minor Use and Minor Species</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 57200, Oct. 9, 2007, unless otherwise noted. 




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 516.498" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.498   Crofelemer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each delayed-release tablet contains 125 milligrams (mg) crofelemer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086149 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 tablet orally twice daily for 3 days for dogs weighing ≤140 pounds. Administer 2 tablets orally twice daily for 3 days for dogs weighing &gt;140 pounds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of chemotherapy-induced diarrhea in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 17944, Mar. 29, 2022. Redesignated at 88 FR 16546, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.570" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.570   Doramectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams of doramectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 200 micrograms per kilogram (10 milligrams per 110 pounds).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention and treatment of infestations caused by New World screwworm (<I>Cochliomyia hominivorax</I>) larvae (myiasis), and prevention of reinfestation for 21 days.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. Administer as a single subcutaneous or intramuscular injection. Do not slaughter cattle for human consumption within 35 days of treatment. Not for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5300, Feb. 6, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 41558, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.900" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.900   Fluralaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) of fluralaner
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 mg per kilogram (1.13 mg per one pound).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention and treatment of infestations caused by New World screwworm (<I>Cochliomyia hominivorax</I>) larvae (myiasis) and treatment and control of cattle fever tick (<I>Rhipicephalus microplus</I>) in beef cattle 2 months of age and older and replacement dairy heifers less than 20 months of age.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Environmental temperature affects the withdrawal period. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 98 days of treatment. If cattle are continuously exposed to temperatures at or above 60  °F after product administration, then cattle may be slaughtered for human consumption 44 days after treatment. Violative residues may result if cattle are exposed to temperatures below 60  °F after administration and are slaughtered at 44 days. Not for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows: use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows or heifers. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1012" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1012   Fuzapladib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is provided as a powder for injection that is reconstituted with 3.5 milliliter (mL) of provided diluent to a final concentration of 4 milligrams (mg) fuzapladib sodium per mL.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 064642 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer at a dosage of 0.4 mg (0.1 mL) per kilogram of body weight once daily for 3 consecutive days by intravenous (IV) injection over 15 seconds to 1 minute.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use in dogs.</I> For the management of clinical signs associated with acute onset of pancreatitis in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 16546, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1287" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1287   Lotilaner, moxidectin, praziquantel, and pyrantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 56.25 milligrams (mg) lotilaner, 0.056 mg moxidectin, 14.25 mg praziquantel, and 14.25 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(2) 112.5 mg lotilaner, 0.113 mg moxidectin, 28.5 mg praziquantel, and 28.5 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(3) 225 mg lotilaner, 0.225 mg moxidectin, 57 mg praziquantel, and 57 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(4) 450 mg lotilaner, 0.45 mg moxidectin, 114 mg praziquantel, and 114 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt); or
</P>
<P>(5) 900 mg lotilaner, 0.9 mg moxidectin, 228 mg praziquantel, and 228 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at the minimum dosage of 9 mg/pound (mg/lb) (20 mg/kilogram (mg/kg)) lotilaner, 0.009 mg/lb (0.02 mg/kg) moxidectin, 2.28 mg/lb (5 mg/kg) praziquantel, and 2.28 mg/lb (5 mg/kg) pyrantel (as pamoate salt).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of infestations caused by New World screwworm (<I>Cochliomyia hominivorax</I>) larvae (myiasis) in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older and weighing 3.3 pounds or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 20340, Apr. 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1449" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1449   Molidustat oral suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of suspension contains 25 milligrams (mg) molidustat sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a dosage of 5 mg/kg of body weight (2.3 mg/lb) daily for up to 28 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of nonregenerative anemia associated with chronic kidney disease in cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1760" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1760   Phenobarbital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 15, 16.2, 30, 32.4, 60, 64.8, 97.2 or 100 milligrams (mg) phenobarbital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 064950 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer phenobarbital as tablets given orally twice a day at the minimum dosage of 2.5 mg per kilogram of body weight (mg/kg) and may be titrated to effect to a maximum dosage of 5 mg/kg. The dosage of phenobarbital tablets should be adjusted based on monitoring the clinical response of the individual patient.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of seizures associated with idiopathic epilepsy in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 84699, Dec. 6, 2023; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1780" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1780   Pimobendan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>. Each chewable tablet contains 1.25, 2.5, 5, or 10 milligrams (mg) pimobendan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor</I>. See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a total daily dose of 0.23 mg per pound (0.5 mg per kilogram) body weight, using a suitable combination of whole or half tablets. The total daily dose should be divided into two portions administered approximately 12 hours apart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use in dogs.</I> For the delay of onset of congestive heart failure in dogs with Stage B2 preclinical myxomatous mitral valve disease (2019 ACVIM Consensus Statement). Stage B2 preclinical myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD) refers to dogs with asymptomatic MMVD that have a moderate or loud mitral murmur due to mitral regurgitation and cardiomegaly.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 76421, Dec. 14, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.2106" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.2106   Sirolimus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each sustained-release tablet contains 0.4, 1.2, or 2.4 milligrams (mg) sirolimus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086169 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once weekly at a dose of 0.3 mg/kilogram of bodyweight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the management of ventricular hypertrophy in cats with subclinical hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19624, May 9, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.2475" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.10.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.2475   Torsemide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.2 milligrams (mg) torsemide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 017030 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once daily at a dose of 0.05 to 0.2 mg/lb (0.11 to 0.44 mg/kg) of bodyweight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as concurrent therapy with pimobendan, spironolactone, and an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the management of pulmonary edema in dogs with congestive heart failure caused by myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="520" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 520—ORAL DOSAGE FORM NEW ANIMAL DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 520.23" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.23   Acepromazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 10 or 25 milligrams (mg) acepromazine maleate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 086117 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.25 to 1.0 mg per pound (/lb) body weight orally.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in tranquilization and as a preanesthetic agent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 to 1.0 mg/lb body weight orally.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a tranquilizer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10165, Mar. 5, 2010, as amended at 88 FR 84699, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.28" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.28   Acetazolamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A powder containing acetazolamide sodium, USP equivalent to 25 percent acetazolamide activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a dosage of 5 to 15 milligrams per pound of body weight daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the treatment of mild congestive heart failure and for rapid reduction of intraocular pressure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.35" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.35   Afoxolaner, moxidectin, and pyrantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 9.375 milligrams (mg) afoxolaner, 45 micrograms (mcg) moxidectin, and 18.75 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(2) 18.75 mg afoxolaner, 90 mcg moxidectin, and 37.5 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(3) 37.5 mg afoxolaner, 180 mcg moxidectin, and 75 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(4) 75 mg afoxolaner, 360 mcg moxidectin, and 150 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt); or
</P>
<P>(5) 150 mg afoxolaner, 720 mcg moxidectin, and 300 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once a month at the minimum dose of 1.14 mg/lb (2.5 mg/kg) afoxolaner, 5.45 mcg/lb (12 mcg/kg) moxidectin, and 2.27 mg/lb (5.0 mg/kg) pyrantel. For heartworm disease prevention, give once monthly for at least 6 months after last exposure to mosquitoes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and for the treatment and control of adult hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Ancylostoma braziliense,</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) and roundworm (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) infections. Kills adult fleas and is indicated for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and the treatment and control of <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick), <I>Amblyomma maculatum</I> (Gulf Coast tick), and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (longhorned tick) infestations for 1 month in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older, weighing 4 pounds of body weight or greater. For the prevention of <I>Borrelia burgdorferi</I> infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> vector ticks.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 84699, Dec. 6, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 6799, Jan. 21, 2025; 90 FR 40969, Aug. 22,2025; 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.38" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.38   Albendazole oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.38a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.38a   Albendazole suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 45.5 milligrams (mg) (4.55 percent) or 113.6 mg (11.36 percent) albendazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.34 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Administer 11.36 percent suspension:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 4.54 mg/pound (lb) body weight (10 mg/kilogram (kg)) as a single oral dose using dosing gun or dosing syringe.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal and control of adult liver flukes (<I>Fasciola hepatica</I>); heads and segments of tapeworms (<I>Moniezia benedeni</I> and <I>M. expansa</I>); adult and 4th stage larvae of stomach worms (brown stomach worms including 4th stage inhibited larvae (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I>), barberpole worm (<I>Haemonchus contortus</I> and <I>H. placei</I>), small stomach worm (<I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>)); adult and 4th stage larvae of intestinal worms (thread-necked intestinal worm (<I>Nematodirus spathiger</I> and <I>N. helvetianus</I>), small intestinal worm (<I>Cooperia punctata</I> and <I>C. oncophora</I>)); adult stages of intestinal worms (hookworm (<I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I>), bankrupt worm (<I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis</I>), nodular worm (<I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>)); adult and 4th stage larvae of lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter within 27 days of last treatment. Do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age: Do not administer to female cattle during first 45 days of pregnancy or for 45 days after removal of bulls.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep.</I> Administer 4.45 or 11.36 percent suspension:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3.4 mg/lb body weight (7.5 mg/kg) as a single oral dose using dosing gun or dosing syringe.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal and control of adult liver flukes (<I>Fasciola hepatica</I> and <I>Fascioloides magna</I>); heads and segments of common tapeworms (<I>Moniezia expansa</I>) and fringed tapeworm (<I>Thysanosoma actinioides</I>); adult and fourth stage larvae of stomach worms (brown stomach worm (<I>Ostertagia circumcinta</I> and <I>Marshallagia marshalli</I>), barberpole worm (<I>Haemonchus contortus</I>), small stomach worm (<I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>)); adult and fourth stage larvae of intestinal worms (thread-necked intestinal worm (<I>Nematodirus spathiger</I> and <I>N. filicollis</I>), Cooper's worm (<I>Cooperia oncophora</I>), bankrupt worm (<I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis</I>), nodular worm (<I>Oesophagostomum columbianum</I>), and large-mouth bowel worm (<I>Chabertia ovina</I>)); adult and larval stages of lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus filaria</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter within 7 days of last treatment. Do not administer to ewes during first 30 days of pregnancy or for 30 days after removal of rams.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goats.</I> Administer 11.36 percent suspension:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 4.54 mg/lb body weight (10 mg/kg) as a single oral dose using dosing gun or dosing syringe.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of adult liver flukes (<I>Fasciola hepatica</I>) in nonlactating goats.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter within 7 days of last treatment. Do not administer to does during the first 30 days of pregnancy or for 30 days after removal of bucks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 11027, Feb. 29, 2008. Redesignated at 78 FR 66264, Nov. 5, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.38b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.38b   Albendazole paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product contains 30 percent albendazole. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.34 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Equivalent to 4.54 milligrams per 1 pound of body weight (10 milligrams per kilogram). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal and control of the following internal parasites of cattle: adult liver flukes (<I>Fasciola hepatica</I>); heads and segments of tapeworms (<I>Moniezia benedeni, M. expansa</I>); adult and 4th stage larvae of stomach worms (brown stomach worms including 4th stage inhibited larvae (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I>); barberpole worm (<I>Haemonchus contortus, H. placei</I>); small stomach worm (<I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>)); adult and 4th stages larvae of intestinal worms (thread-necked intestinal worm (<I>Nematodirus spathiger, N. helvetianus</I>); small intestinal worm (<I>Cooperia punctata</I> and <I>C. oncophora</I>)); adult stages of intestinal worms (hookworm (<I>Bunostomum phlebotmum</I>); bankrupt worm (<I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis</I>), nodular worm (<I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>)); adult and 4th stage larvae of lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer as a single oral dose. Do not slaughter within 27 days of last treatment. Do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age. Do not administer to female cattle during first 45 days of pregnancy or for 45 days after removal of bulls. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 51385, Dec. 15, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55658, Nov. 2, 1995. Redesignated at 78 FR 66264, Nov. 5, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.43" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.43   Afoxolaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 11.3, 28.3, 68, or 136 milligrams (mg) afoxolaner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once a month at a minimum dosage of 1.14 mg/pound (2.5 mg/kilogram).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas and for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>); and the treatment and control of <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick), <I>Amblyomma maculatum</I> (Gulf Coast tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (longhorned tick) infestations in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older, weighing 4 pounds of body weight or greater, for 1 month; and for the prevention of <I>Borrelia burgdorferi</I> infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> vector ticks.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 66264, Nov. 5, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 37619, July 2, 2014; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 39182, Aug. 9, 2019; 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023; 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.48" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.48   Altrenogest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 2.2 milligrams (mg) altrenogest.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 000061 and 051072 for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 053701 for use as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See § 556.36 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Conditions of use—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1.0 mL per 110 pounds body weight (0.044 mg/kg) daily for 15 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For suppression of estrus in mares.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 6.8 mL (15 mg altrenogest) per gilt once daily for 14 consecutive days by top-dressing on a portion of each gilt's daily feed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For synchronization of estrus in sexually mature gilts that have had at least one estrous cycle.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in gilts having a previous or current history of uterine inflammation (i.e., acute, subacute or chronic endometritis). Gilts must not be slaughtered for human consumption for 21 days after the last treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 47960, Sept. 17, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 62006, Oct. 31, 2003; 72 FR 9455, Feb. 21, 2008; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 77 FR 32012, May 31, 2012; 80 FR 34278, June 16, 2015; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017; 83 FR 13635, Mar. 30, 2018; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 91 FR 20340, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.62" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.62   Aminopentamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 0.2 milligram (mg) aminopentamide hydrogen sulphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally every 8 to 12 hours as follows: For animals weighing up to 10 pounds (lbs): 0.1 mg; for animals weighing 11 to 20 lbs: 0.2 mg; for animals weighing 21 to 50 lbs: 0.3 mg; for animals weighing 51 to 100 lbs: 0.4 mg; for animal weighing over 100 lbs: 0.5 mg. Dosage may be gradually increased up to a maximum of five times the suggested dosage. Oral administration of tablets may be preceded by subcutaneous or intramuscular use of the injectable form of the drug.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of vomiting and/or diarrhea, nausea, acute abdominal visceral spasm, pylorospasm, or hypertrophic gastritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.82" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.82   Aminopropazine oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.82a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.82a   Aminopropazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains aminopropazine fumarate equivalent to 25 percent aminopropazine base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a dosage of 1 to 2 milligrams per pound of body weight, repeated every 12 hours as indicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For reducing excessive smooth muscle contractions, such as occur in urethral spasms associated with urolithiasis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.82b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.82b   Aminopropazine and neomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains aminopropazine fumarate equivalent to 25 percent aminopropazine base and neomycin sulfate equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) of neomycin base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a dosage of 1 to 2 mg per pound of body weight, repeated every 12 hours as indicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of bacterial diarrhea caused by organisms susceptible to neomycin and to reduce smooth muscle contractions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88   Amoxicillin oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88a   Amoxicillin trihydrate film-coated tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 50, 100, 150, 200, or 400 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight, twice a day for 5 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections of the respiratory tract (tonsillitis, tracheobronchitis), genitourinary tract (cystitis), gastrointestinal tract (bacterial gastroenteritis), and soft tissues (abscesses, lacerations, wounds), caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis,</I> and bacterial dermatitis caused by <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>P. mirabilis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 to 10 mg/lb of body weight, once daily for 5 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections caused by susceptible organisms as follows: upper respiratory tract due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>E. coli;</I> genitourinary tract (cystitis) due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> gastrointestinal tract due to <I>E. coli;</I> and skin and soft tissue (abscesses, lacerations, and wounds) due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37319, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55658, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88b   Amoxicillin trihydrate for oral suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> When reconstituted, each milliliter contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Dogs</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight, twice a day for 5 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections caused by susceptible strains of organisms as follows: respiratory tract (tonsillitis, tracheobronchitis) caused by <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Escherichia coli,</I> and <I>Proteus mirabilis;</I> genitourinary tract (cystitis) caused by <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> gastrointestinal tract (bacterial gastroenteritis) caused by <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> bacterial dermatitis caused by <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> and soft tissues (abscesses, lacerations, and wounds) caused by <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>P. mirabilis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 to 10 mg/lb of body weight, once daily for 5 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections caused by susceptible strains of organisms as follows: upper respiratory tract due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., <I>E. coli, Pasteurella</I> spp., and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> genitourinary tract (cystitis) due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli, P. mirabilis,</I> and <I>Corynebacterium</I> spp.; gastrointestinal tract due to <I>E. coli, Proteus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.; skin and soft tissue (abscesses, lacerations, and wounds) due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I> 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000856 and 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conditions of use.</I> <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 mg/lb of body weight, twice a day for 5 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial dermatitis due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>E. coli,</I> and soft tissue infections (abscesses, wounds, lacerations) due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli, P. mirabilis</I> and <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37319, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 42623, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55658, Nov. 2, 1995; 62 FR 13302, Mar. 20, 1997; 67 FR 67521, Nov. 6, 2002; 68 FR 54658, Sept. 18, 2003; 68 FR 55824, Sept. 29, 2003; 79 FR 28816, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88c   Amoxicillin trihydrate oral suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 0.8-milliliter dose contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 40 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 40 mg orally twice a day using a dosing pump. Treat animals for 48 hours after all symptoms have subsided but not beyond 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of baby pigs under 10 pounds for porcine colibacillosis caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> susceptible to amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter during treatment or for 15 days after latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37319, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55658, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28817, May 20, 2014; 85 FR 18118, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88d   Amoxicillin trihydrate soluble powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 115.4 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in preruminating calves including veal calves</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 400 mg per 100 pounds of body weight twice daily by drench or in milk. Treatment should be continued for 48 hours after all symptoms have subsided but not to exceed 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial enteritis when due to susceptible <I>Escherichia coli</I> in preruminating calves including veal calves.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter animals during treatment or for 20 days after the latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37319, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 42623, Sept. 15, 1992; 58 FR 18304, Apr. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 55658, Nov. 2, 1995; 62 FR 5525, Feb. 6, 1997; 79 FR 28817, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88e   Amoxicillin trihydrate boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 400 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 400 mg per 100 pounds of body weight twice daily. Treatment should be continued for 48 hours after all symptoms have subsided but not to exceed 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial enteritis when due to susceptible <I>Escherichia coli</I> in preruminating calves including veal calves.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter animals during treatment or for 20 days after the latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37320, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 62 FR 5526, Feb. 6, 1997; 79 FR 28817, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88f" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88f   Amoxicillin trihydrate tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 50, 100, 200, or 400 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 051311 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 mg per pound of body weight twice daily for 5 to 7 days or 48 hours after all symptoms have subsided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial dermatitis due to <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Escherichia coli;</I> and soft tissue infections (abscesses, wounds, lacerations) due to <I>S. aureus, Enterococcus faecalis, E. coli, Proteus mirabilis,</I> and <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28817, May 20, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 64740, Dec. 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88g" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88g   Amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet or chewable tablet contains amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin and 12.5 mg clavulanic acid, 100 mg amoxicillin and 25 mg clavulanic acid, 200 mg amoxicillin and 50 mg clavulanic acid, or 300 mg amoxicillin and 75 mg clavulanic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of tablets and chewable tablets as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 017033 and 069043 for use of tablets as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 013744 for use of chewable tablets as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 6.25 milligrams (equivalent to 5 milligrams amoxicillin and 1.25 milligrams clavulanic acid) per pound of body weight twice daily for 5 to 7 days or for 48 hours after all signs have subsided. Deep pyoderma may require treatment for 21 days; do not treat for more than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of skin and soft tissue infections such as wounds, abscesses, cellulitis, superficial/juvenile and deep pyoderma due to susceptible strains of the following organisms: Beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus,</I> non-beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>E. coli.</I> Periodontal infections due to susceptible strains of both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 62.5 milligrams (50 milligrams amoxicillin and 12.5 milligrams clavulanic acid) twice daily for 5 to 7 days or for 48 hours after all signs have subsided. Urinary tract infections may require treatment for 10 to 14 days or longer. The maximum duration of treatment should not exceed 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of skin and soft tissue infections such as wounds, abscesses, and cellulitis/dermatitis due to susceptible strains of the following organisms: Beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus,</I> non-beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. Urinary tract infections (cystitis) due to susceptible strains of <I>E. coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37320, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 63 FR 13121, Mar. 18, 1998; 79 FR 28817, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 34278, June 16, 2015; 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017; 82 FR 43484, Sept. 18, 2017; 82 FR 58556, Dec. 13, 2017; 87 FR 58960, Sept. 29, 2022; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.88h" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.88h   Amoxicillin trihydrate and clavulanate potassium for oral suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> When constituted, each milliliter (mL) of suspension contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium equivalent to 12.5 mg clavulanic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 017033, 054771, and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 6.25 mg/lb (1 mL/10 lb of body weight) twice a day. Skin and soft tissue infections such as abscesses, cellulitis, wounds, superficial/juvenile pyoderma, and periodontal infections should be treated for 5 to 7 days or for 48 hours after all signs have subsided. If no response is seen after 5 days of treatment, therapy should be discontinued and the case reevaluated. Deep pyoderma may require treatment for 21 days; the maximum duration of treatment should not exceed 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of skin and soft tissue infections such as wounds, abscesses, cellulitis, superficial/juvenile and deep pyoderma due to susceptible strains of the following organisms: Beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus,</I> non-beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>Escherichia coli.</I> Treatment of periodontal infections due to susceptible strains of both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 62.5 mg (1 mL) twice daily. Skin and soft tissue infections such as abscesses and cellulitis/dermatitis should be treated for 5 to 7 days or 48 hours after all symptoms have subsided, not to exceed 30 days. If no response is seen after 3 days of treatment, therapy should be discontinued and the case reevaluated. Urinary tract infections may require treatment for 10 to 14 days or longer. The maximum duration of treatment should not exceed 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of skin and soft tissue infections, such as wounds, abscesses, and cellulitis/dermatitis due to susceptible strains of the following organisms: Beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus,</I> non-beta-lactamase-producing <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Escherichia coli, Pasteurella multocida,</I> and <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. Urinary tract infections (cystitis) due to susceptible strains of <I>E. coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 17944, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.90" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.90   Ampicillin oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.90a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.90a   Ampicillin tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains ampicillin trihydrate equivalent to 50 or 100 milligrams of ampicillin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 milligrams per pound of body weight, at 8-hour intervals, 1 to 2 hours prior to feeding, to be continued 36 to 48 hours after all symptoms have subsided. If no improvement is seen within 5 days, stop treatment, reevaluate diagnosis, and change therapy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Oral treatment of infections caused by susceptible organisms as follows: Upper respiratory infections, tonsillitis, and bronchitis due to <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis,</I> and <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., urinary tract infections (cystitis) due to <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>E., coli, P. mirabilis,</I> and <I>Enterococcus</I> spp.; gastrointestinal infections due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Enterococcus</I> spp., and <I>E. coli.</I> ; infections associated with abscesses, lacerations, and wounds caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37321, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014. Redesignated at 85 FR 18118, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.90b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.90b   Ampicillin capsules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains ampicillin trihydrate equivalent to 125, 250, or 500 milligrams of ampicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 to 10 milligrams per pound of body weight two or three times daily. In severe or acute conditions, 10 milligrams per pound of body weight, three times daily. Administer 1 to 2 hours prior to feeding.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment against strains of gram-negative and gram-positive organisms sensitive to ampicillin and associated with respiratory tract infections (tracheobronchitis and tonsillitis); urinary tract infections (cystitis); bacterial gastroenteritis; generalized infections (septicemia) associated with abscesses, lacerations, and wounds; and bacterial dermatitis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 30 milligrams per pound of body weight or three times daily. Administer 1 to 2 hours prior to feeding.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment against strains of gram-negative and gram-positive organisms sensitive to ampicillin and associated with respiratory tract infections (bacterial pneumonia); urinary tract infections (cystitis); and generalized infections (septicemia) associated with abscesses, lacerations, and wounds.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37321, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 61016, Nov. 19, 1993; 79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014. Redesignated at 85 FR 18118, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.90c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.90c   Ampicillin boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains ampicillin trihydrate equivalent to 400 milligrams of ampicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in nonruminating calves</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 milligrams per pound of body weight twice daily not to exceed 4 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Oral treatment of bacterial enteritis (colibacillosis) caused by <I>E. coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated calves must not be slaughtered for food during treatment and for 7 days after the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37322, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 61016, Nov. 19, 1993; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014. Redesignated and amended at 85 FR 18118, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.100   Amprolium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter of solution contains 96 milligrams (mg) amprolium (9.6 percent solution).
</P>
<P>(2) Each gram of powder contains 200 mg amprolium (20 percent).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592 and 061133 for use of products described in paragraph (a) of this section as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 051072 and 066104 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Growing chickens, turkeys, and laying hens.</I> It is used in drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer at the 0.012 percent level in drinking water as soon as coccidiosis is diagnosed and continue for 3 to 5 days (in severe outbreaks, give amprolium at the 0.024 percent level); continue with 0.006 percent amprolium-medicated water for an additional 1 to 2 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of coccidiosis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Use as the sole source of amprolium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calves.</I> Administer concentrate solution or soluble powder as a drench or in drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use and amounts</I>—(A) As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria bovis</I> and <I>E. zurnii</I>, administer 5 mg per kilogram (mg/kg) body weight for 21 days during periods of exposure or when experience indicates that coccidiosis is likely to be a hazard.
</P>
<P>(B) As an aid in the treatment of coccidiosis caused by <I>E. bovis</I> and <I>E. zurnii</I>, administer 10 mg/kg body weight for 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Use as the sole source of amprolium.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56346, Sept. 27, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 60551, Oct. 25, 2007; 73 FR 45611, Aug. 6, 2008; 73 FR 70276, Nov. 20, 2008; 74 FR 10484, Mar. 11, 2009; 76 FR 38554, July 1, 2011; 76 FR 40808, July 12, 2011; 78 FR 23, Jan. 2, 2013; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 78 FR 57058, Sept. 17, 2013; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 59133, Aug. 29, 2016; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019; 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.110   Apramycin sulfate soluble powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A water soluble powder used to make a medicated drinking water containing apramycin sulfate equivalent to 0.375 gram of apramycin activity per gallon of drinking water.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water at the rate of 12.5 milligrams of apramycin per kilogram (5.7 milligrams per pound) of body weight per day for 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of porcine colibacillosis (weanling pig scours) caused by strains of <I>Escherichia coli</I> sensitive to apramycin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter treated swine for 28 days following treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 15771, Apr. 13, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 19642, May 9, 1984; 53 FR 37753, Sept. 28, 1988; 79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016] 








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.136" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.136   Atinvicitinib tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 4.8, 7.2, 21.6, or 31.6 milligrams (mg) of atinvicitinib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.36 to 0.54 mg atinvicitinib per pound (0.8 to 1.2 mg atinvicitinib per kilogram) of body weight, once daily, with food.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pruritus associated with allergic dermatitis in dogs 6 months of age and older.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.154" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.154   Bacitracin oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.154a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.154a   Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of soluble powder contains the equivalent of 50 grams of bacitracin activity for use as in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section, or the equivalent of 200 grams of bacitracin activity for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.70 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Broiler and replacement chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 100 mg per gal in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Indications for use.</I> Aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <I>Clostridium perfringens</I> susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution daily. Use as the sole source of drinking water. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 200 to 400 mg per gal in drinking water. Administer continuously 5 to 7 days or as long as clinical signs persist, then reduce to prevention levels (100 mg/gal).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of necrotic enteritis caused by <I>C. perfringens</I> susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution daily. Use as the sole source of drinking water.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Growing turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 400 milligrams (mg) per gallon (gal) in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Aid in the control of transmissible enteritis complicated by organisms susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution daily. Use as the sole source of drinking water.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 gram per gallon in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of swine dysentery associated with <I>Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.</I> Administer continuously for 7 days or until signs of dysentery disappear.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution daily. Use as the sole source of drinking water. Treatment not to exceed 14 days. Not to be given to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Growing quail</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 400 mg per gal in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention of ulcerative enteritis due to <I>Clostridium colinum</I> susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily. Use as sole source of drinking water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37322, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 42623, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 38474, July 17, 1998; 64 FR 13068, Mar. 17, 1999; 76 FR 53050, Aug. 25, 2011; 79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 34278, June 16, 2015; 88 FR 14897, Mar. 10, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.154b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.154b   Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate and streptomycin sulfate powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains 200 units bacitracin methylenedisalicylate and streptomycin sulfate equivalent to 20 milligrams of streptomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 level teaspoonful per 10 pounds of body weight three times daily, mixed in a small quantity of liquid or feed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by pathogens susceptible to bacitracin and streptomycin such as <I>Escherichia coli, Proteus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and for the symptomatic treatment of associated diarrhea.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 17702, Apr. 7, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.154c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.154c   Bacitracin zinc soluble powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound contains the equivalent of not less than 5 grams of bacitracin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.70 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Broiler chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 100 milligrams per gallon in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Indications for use.</I> Prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <I>Clostridium perfringens</I> susceptible to bacitracin zinc.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 200 to 400 milligrams per gallon in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of necrotic enteritis caused by <I>Clostridium perfringens</I> susceptible to bacitracin zinc.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Growing quail</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 500 milligrams per gallon in drinking water for 5 days followed by 165 milligrams per gallon in drinking water for 10 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of ulcerative enteritis caused by <I>Clostridium</I> spp. Susceptible to bacitracin zinc.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution daily.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37322, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.170" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.170   Bexagliflozin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 15 milligrams bexagliflozin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one tablet by mouth to cats 6.6 lb (3.0 kg) or greater once daily, at approximately the same time each day, with or without food, and regardless of blood glucose level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To improve glycemic control in otherwise healthy cats with diabetes mellitus not previously treated with insulin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.222" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.222   Bunamidine hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Chemical name. N,N</I>-Dibutyl-4-(hexyloxy)-1-naphthamidine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is an oral tablet containing 100, 200, or 400 milligrams of bunamidine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) The drug is intended for oral administration to dogs for the treatment of the tapeworms <I>Dipylidium caninum, Taenia pisiformis,</I> and <I>Echinococcus granulosus,</I> and to cats for the treatment of the tapeworms <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia taeniaeformis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) It is administered to cats and dogs at the rate of 25 to 50 milligrams per kilogram of body weight. The drug should be given on an empty stomach and food should not be given for 3 hours following treatment. 
</P>
<P>(3) Tablets should not be crushed, mixed with food, or dissolved in liquid. Repeat treatments should not be given within 14 days. The drug should not be given to male dogs within 28 days prior to their use for breeding. Do not administer to dogs or cats having known heart conditions. 
</P>
<P>(4) For use only by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 13018, Mar. 8, 1977; 46 FR 48642, Oct. 2, 1981; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61624, Nov. 19, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.246" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.246   Butorphanol tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains butorphanol tartrate equivalent to 1, 5, or 10 milligrams (mg) butorphanol base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.25 mg butorphanol base per pound of body weight. Repeat at intervals of 6 to 12 hours as required. Treatment should not normally be required for longer than 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of chronic nonproductive cough associated with tracheobronchitis, tracheitis, tonsillitis, laryngitis, and pharyngitis associated with inflammatory conditions of the upper respiratory tract.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28818, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.260   <E T="7462">n</E>-Butyl chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains 221, 442, 884, or 1,768 milligrams (mg); or 4.42 grams of <I>n</I>-butyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 023851 for capsules containing 221, 442, 884, or 1,768 mg, or 4.42 grams (g); and
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for capsules containing 221 mg.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer capsules orally based on body weight as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Capsules containing 221 mg: Under 5 pounds, 1 capsule per 1
<FR>1/4</FR> pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) Capsules containing 442 mg: Under 5 pounds, 1 capsule per 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(iii) Capsules containing 884 mg:
</P>
<P>(A) Under 5 pounds, 1 capsule;
</P>
<P>(B) 5 to 10 pounds, 2 capsules;
</P>
<P>(C) 10 to 20 pounds, 3 capsules;
</P>
<P>(D) 20 to 40 pounds, 4 capsules;
</P>
<P>(E) Over 40 pounds, 5 capsules.
</P>
<P>(iv) Capsules containing 1,768 mg: Dogs weighing 5 to 10 pounds, 1 capsule.
</P>
<P>(v) Capsules containing 4.42 g: Dogs weighing 40 pounds or over, 1 capsule.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal of ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Ancylostoma braziliense,</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) from dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Dogs should not be fed for 18 to 24 hours before being given the drug. Administration of the drug should be followed in 
<FR>1/2</FR> to 1 hour with a mild cathartic. Normal feeding may be resumed 4 to 8 hours after treatment. Animals subject to reinfection may be retreated in 2 weeks. A veterinarian should be consulted before using in severely debilitated dogs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 10819, Feb. 23, 2021]







 



 






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.292" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.292   Capromorelin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 30 milligrams (mg) capromorelin; or
</P>
<P>(2) 20 mg capromorelin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs.</I> Use product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 mg/kg once daily by mouth.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For appetite stimulation in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats.</I> Use product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2 mg/kg once daily by mouth.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For management of weight loss in cats with chronic kidney disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 59133, Aug. 29, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 4207, Jan. 24, 2020; 86 FR 17063, Apr. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.301" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.301   Caramiphen ethanedisulfonate and ammonium chloride tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 10 milligrams of 5st caramiphen ethanedisulfonate and 80 milligrams of ammonium chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One tablet per 15 to 30 pounds of body weight every 4 to 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For relief of cough.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 55385, Nov. 28, 1978, as amended at 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014. Redesignated at 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.302" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.302   Carnidazole tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 10 milligrams of carnidazole. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 053923 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Adult pigeons: 1 tablet (10 milligrams); newly weaned pigeons: 
<FR>1/2</FR> tablet (5 milligrams). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treating trichomoniasis (canker) in ornamental and homing pigeons. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in pigeons intended for human food. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism or when severely ill birds do not respond to treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32336, Aug. 7, 1989. Redesignated at 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.304" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.304   Carprofen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each caplet contains 25, 75, or 100 milligrams (mg) carprofen.
</P>
<P>(2) Each chewable tablet contains 25, 75, or 100 mg carprofen.
</P>
<P>(3) Each chewable tablet contains 25, 37.5, 50, 75, or 100 mg carprofen.
</P>
<P>(4) Each flavored tablet contains 25, 75, or 100 mg carprofen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 054771, 055529, and 082983 for use of products described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 058198, 086101 and 086117 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 069043 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 086101 for use of product described in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight once daily or 1 mg/lb twice daily. For the control of postoperative pain, administer approximately 2 hours before the procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis and for the control of postoperative pain associated with soft tissue and orthopedic surgeries.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal Law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 66581, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 32181, June 16, 1999; 66 FR 63165, Dec. 5, 2001; 67 FR 6866, Feb. 14, 2002; 67 FR 65038, Oct. 23, 2002; 67 FR 65697, Oct. 28, 2002; 70 FR 30626, May 27, 2005; 71 FR 51995, Sept. 1, 2006; 72 FR 68478, Dec. 5, 2007; 74 FR 21768, May 11, 2009; 78 FR 52853, Aug. 27, 2013; 78 FR 66264, Nov. 5, 2013; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014. Redesignated and amended at 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015; 80 FR 34278, June 16, 2015; 80 FR 61296, Oct. 13, 2015; 82 FR 43484, Sept. 18, 2017; 84 FR 12493, Apr. 2, 2019; 85 FR 4207, Jan. 24, 2020; 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021; 86 FR 14817, Mar. 19, 2021; 86 FR 61684, Nov. 8, 2021; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024; 90 FR 19625, May 9, 2025; 90 FR 40969, Aug. 22, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.314" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.314   Cefadroxil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains 50, 100, or 200 milligrams (mg) or 1 gram of cefadroxil.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter of suspension constituted from powder contains 50 mg of cefadroxil.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 042791 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Dogs.</I> Administer 10 mg per pound (/lb) body weight twice daily orally.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats.</I> Administer 10 mg/lb body weight once daily orally.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Dogs.</I> For the treatment of skin and soft tissue infections including cellulitis, pyoderma, dermatitis, wound infections, and abscesses due to susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus.</I> For the treatment of genitourinary tract infections (cystitis) due to susceptible strains of <I>Escherichia coli</I>, <I>Proteus mirabilis</I>, and <I>S. aureus.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats.</I> For the treatment of skin and soft tissue infections including abscesses, wound infections, cellulitis, and dermatitis caused by susceptible strains of <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>Staphylococcus epidermidis</I>, and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10165, Mar. 5, 2010, as amended at 87 FR 76421, Dec. 14, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.370" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.370   Cefpodoxime tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains cefpodoxime proxetil equivalent to 100 or 200 milligrams (mg) cefpodoxime.
</P>
<P>(2) Each chewable tablet contains cefpodoxime proxetil equivalent to 100 or 200 mg cefpodoxime.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 017033 and 086101 for use of product in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of products in paragraph (a) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 to 10 mg per kilogram (2.3 to 4.5 mg per pound) body weight daily for 5 to 7 days, or for 2 to 3 days beyond the cessation of clinical signs, up to a maximum of 28 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (wounds and abscesses) caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius</I>, <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>Streptococcus canis</I> (group G, beta-hemolytic), <I>Escherichia coli</I>, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, and <I>Proteus mirabilis.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 52815, Aug. 30, 2004, as amended at 78 FR 5714, Jan. 28, 2013; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015; 82 FR 12169, Mar. 1, 2017; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023; 91 FR 5300, Feb. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.376" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.376   Cephalexin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 75, 150, 300, or 600 milligrams (mg) cephalexin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 22 mg per kilogram of body weight twice daily for 28 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of secondary superficial bacterial pyoderma in dogs caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 47512, Aug. 9, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.390" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.390   Chloramphenicol oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.390a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.390a   Chloramphenicol tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 50, 100, 250, or 500 milligrams (mg); 1 or 2.5 grams (g) of chloramphenicol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) For use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(i), and (c)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) No. 069043 for 100-, 250-, and 500-mg; and 1- and 2.5-g tablets;
</P>
<P>(ii) No. 054771 for 100-, 250-, and 500-mg tablets;
</P>
<P>(2) For use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(ii), and (c)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) No. 061133 for 50-, 100-, 250-, and 500-mg; and 1-g tablets;
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 25 mg per pound of body weight by mouth every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) For the treatment of bacterial pulmonary infections, bacterial infections of the urinary tract, bacterial enteritis, and bacterial infections associated with canine distemper caused by susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the treatment of bacterial gastroenteritis associated with bacterial diarrhea, bacterial pulmonary infections, and bacterial infections of the urinary tract caused by susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4896, Feb. 1, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 21059, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 48944, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.390b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.390b   Chloramphenicol capsules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains 50, 100, 250, or 500 milligrams (mg) chloramphenicol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 050057 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this product in food-producing animals.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 25 mg per pound of body weight every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial pulmonary infections, bacterial infections of the urinary tract, bacterial enteritis, and bacterial infections associated with canine distemper caused by susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 75398, Dec. 20, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 18442, Apr. 4, 2008; 75 FR 55676, Sept. 14, 2010; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.390c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.390c   Chloramphenicol palmitate oral suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains chloramphenicol palmitate equivalent to 30 milligrams of chloramphenicol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use. Dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 25 milligrams per pound of body weight every 6 hours. If no response is obtained in 3 to 5 days, discontinue use and reevaluate diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial pulmonary infections, infections of the urinary tract, enteritis, and infections associated with canine distemper that are caused by organisms susceptible to chloramphenicol.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in animals that are raised for food production. Must not be used in meat-, egg-, or milk-producing animals. The length of time that residues persist in milk or tissues has not been determined. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37323, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 42623, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.434" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.434   Chlorphenesin carbamate tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 400 milligrams of chlorphenesin carbamate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 50 milligrams per pound of body weight on first day; 25 milligrams per pound of body weight each following day. Divide total daily dose into 2 or 3 equal doses—administer at 12- or 8-hour intervals. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as an adjunct to therapy of acute inflammatory and traumatic conditions of skeletal muscles. The drug provides relief of the signs of discomfort associated with myositis, muscle sprains, traumatic injuries, stifle injuries—especially when administered before or after surgery—and invertebral disc syndrome (can be used concurrently with adrenal corticosteroids). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16009, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.441" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.441   Chlortetracycline powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Chlortetracycline powder contains not less than 15 milligrams per gram chlortetracycline hydrochloride, or chlortetracycline bisulfate equivalent to 25.6, 64 or 102.4 grams per pound (56.4, 141 or 225.6 milligrams per gram) chlortetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
<P>(1) No. 069254 for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.




</P>
<P>(2) No. 066104 for use as in paragraphs (d)(4)(i)(A), (d)(4)(i)(B), and (d)(4)(ii) through (d)(4)(iv) of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 069043 and 076475 for use as in paragraphs (d)(4)(i)(A), (d)(4)(i)(B), and (d)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section.






</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.150 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) Use as chlortetracycline hydrochloride in drinking water as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Swine</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Ten milligrams per pound of body weight daily in divided doses. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</I> (<I>Haemophilus</I> spp.), and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp. </P>
<P>(<I>2) Limitations.</I> Prepare a fresh solution twice daily; as sole source of chlortetracycline; administer for not more than 5 days. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) Use as chlortetracycline hydrochloride in a drench or drinking water as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calves</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Ten milligrams per pound of body weight daily in divided doses. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E. coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever) associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>A. pleuropneumoniae</I> (<I>Haemophilus</I> spp.), and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2) Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; as sole source of chlortetracycline; administer for not more than 5 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 24 hours of treatment; do not administer this product with milk or milk replacers; administer 1 hour before or 2 hours after feeding milk or milk replacers; a withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves; do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(4) The following uses of chlortetracycline hydrochloride or chlortetracycline bisulfate in drinking water or drench were reviewed by the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council (NAS/NRC) and found effective:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Chickens</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 200 to 400 milligrams per gallon. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of infectious synovitis caused by <I>Mycoplasma synoviae.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; as sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 14 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 24 hours of treatment; do not use in laying chickens. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amount.</I> 400 to 800 milligrams per gallon. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of chronic respiratory disease and air-sac infections caused by <I>M. gallisepticum</I> and <I>E. coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; as sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 14 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 24 hours of treatment; do not use in laying chickens. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Amount.</I> One thousand milligrams per gallon. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of mortality due to fowl cholera caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> susceptible to chlortetracycline. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> See paragraph (d)(4)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Growing turkeys</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 400 milligrams per gallon. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of infectious synovitis caused by <I>M. synoviae.</I> 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; as sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 14 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 24 hours of treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amount.</I> 25 milligrams per pound of body weight daily. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of complicating bacterial organisms associated with bluecomb (transmissible enteritis, coronaviral enteritis). 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; as sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 14 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 24 hours of treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Swine</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per pound body weight daily in divided doses. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E.</I> <I>coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. And bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</I> (<I>Haemophilus</I> spp.), and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp. 


</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily as the sole source of chlortetracycline. Do not use for more than 5 days. For Nos. 066104, 069043, 069254, and 076475: Do not slaughter animals for food within 5 days of treatment. For No. 069254: Do not slaughter animals for food within 24 hours of treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Calves, beef cattle, and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per pound daily in divided doses. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E.</I> <I>coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. And bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever complex) associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>A. pleuropneumoniae</I> (<I>Haemophilus</I> spp.), and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; use as a drench; as sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 5 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 24 hours of treatment; do not use in lactating cattle; do not administer this product with milk or milk replacers; administer 1 hour before or 2 hours after feeding milk or milk replacers; a withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves; do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(5) Use in a drench or drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Chickens</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 200 to 400 mg/gal, for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of infectious synovitis caused by <I>M. synoviae</I> susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; use as the sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 14 consecutive days; do not use in laying chickens; do not administer to chickens within 24 hours of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amount.</I> 400 to 800 mg/gal, for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) and air-sac infections caused by <I>M. gallisepticum</I> and <I>E. coli</I> susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> As in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Amount.</I> One thousand mg/gal, for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of mortality due to fowl cholera caused by Pasteurella multocida susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> As in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Growing Turkeys</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 400 mg/gal, for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of infectious synovitis caused by Mycoplasma synoviae susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; use as the sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 14 consecutive days; do not administer to growing turkeys within 24 hours of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amount.</I> 25 mg/lb body weight daily, for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of complicating bacterial organisms associated with bluecomb (transmissible enteritis, coronaviral enteritis) susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> As in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Swine</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg/lb body weight daily, for 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E. coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp., and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>A. pleuropneumoniae</I>, and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp. Susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; use as the sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 5 days; do not administer to swine within 24 hours of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Calves, beef cattle, and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg/lb body weight daily in divided doses, for 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp., and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Histophilus</I> spp., and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp. Susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Prepare fresh solution daily; use as a drench; use as the sole source of chlortetracycline; do not use for more than 5 days; do not administer to cattle within 24 hours of slaughter; do not use in lactating dairy cattle; do not administer this product with milk or milk replacers; administer 1 hour before or 2 hours after feeding milk or milk replacers; a withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves; do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37324, Aug. 18, 1992]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 520.441, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.443" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.443   Chlortetracycline tablets and boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 25 milligrams (mg) chlortetracycline hydrochloride; each bolus contains 250 or 500 mg chlortetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 069043 for use of a 250-mg bolus as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 016592 for use of a 25-mg tablet as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 016592 for use of a 500-mg bolus as in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.150 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in calves</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One 250 milligram bolus per 50 pounds of body weight twice a day for 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Klesbsiella</I> spp., and <I>Haemophilus</I> spp. 


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer bolus directly by mouth or crush and dissolve in milk or water for drenching or bucket feeding. Do not use for more than 5 days. Do not administer within 24 hours of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount.</I> One 25 milligram tablet for each 5 pounds of body weight every 12 hours daily for 3 to 5 days. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E. coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. And bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp., susceptible to chlortetracycline. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer tablet directly by mouth or crush and dissolve in water for drenching; if no improvement is noted after 3 days of treatment, consult a veterinarian; do not use for more than 5 days; when feeding milk or milk replacer, administration 1 hour before or 2 hours after feeding; do not administer within 24 hours of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amount.</I> One 500 milligram bolus per 100 pounds of body weight twice a day for 3 to 5 days. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E. coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp., and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp., susceptible to chlortetracycline. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use for more than 5 days. Do not administer within 24 hours of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37325, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002. Redesignated and amended at 76 FR 49649, Aug. 11, 2011; 78 FR 21059, Apr. 9, 2013; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.445" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.445   Chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of soluble powder contains chlortetracycline bisulfate equivalent to 102.4 grams (g) of chlortetracycline hydrochloride and sulfamethazine bisulfate equivalent to 102.4 g of sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.150 and 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine.</I> Administer in drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> 250 milligrams (mg) of chlortetracycline and 250 mg of sulfamethazine per gallon.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention and treatment of bacterial enteritis; as an aid in the reduction of the incidence of cervical abscesses; and as an aid in the maintenance of weight gains in the presence of bacterial enteritis and atrophic rhinitis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Use as the sole source of chlortetracycline and sulfonamide. Not to be used for more than 28 consecutive days. Withdraw 15 days before slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49649, Aug. 11, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.446" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.446   Clindamycin capsules and tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each capsule contains the equivalent of 25, 75, 150, or 300 milligrams (mg) clindamycin as the hydrochloride salt.
</P>
<P>(2) Each tablet contains the equivalent of 25, 75, or 150 mg clindamycin as the hydrochloride salt.
</P>
<P>(3) Each capsule contains the equivalent of 25, 75, or 150 mg clindamycin as the hydrochloride salt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 054771 and 069043 for use of capsules described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 051311 and 086101 for use of tablets described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 043806 for use of tablets described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Wounds, abscesses, and dental infections: 2.5 to 15 mg per pound (/lb) body weight every 12 hours for a maximum of 28 days. Osteomyelitis: 5.0 to 15 mg/lb body weight every 12 hours for a minimum of 28 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (wounds and abscesses) due to susceptible strains of coagulase-positive staphylococci (<I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> or <I>S. intermedius</I>), deep wounds and abscesses due to susceptible strains of <I>Bacteroides fragilis</I>, <I>Prevotella melaninogenicus</I>, <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>, and <I>Clostridium perfringens</I>, dental infections due to susceptible strains of <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>B. fragilis</I>, <I>P. melaninogenicus</I>, <I>F. necrophorum</I>, and <I>C. perfringens</I>, and osteomyelitis due to susceptible strains of <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>B. fragilis</I>, <I>P. melaninogenicus</I>, <I>F. necrophorum</I>, and <I>C. perfringens.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 54954, Aug. 27, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 55824, Sept. 29, 2003; 69 FR 32273, June 9, 2004; 71 FR 39204, July 12, 2006; 73 FR 4077, Jan. 24, 2008; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 76386, Dec. 9, 2015; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 90 FR 40969, Aug. 22, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.447" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.447   Clindamycin solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains the equivalent of 25 milligrams (mg) clindamycin as the hydrochloride salt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 051311, 054771, 058829, 061133, and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Wounds, abscesses, and dental infections: 2.5 to 15 mg per pound (/lb) body weight every 12 hours for a maximum of 28 days. Osteomyelitis: 5.0 to 15 mg/lb body weight every 12 hours for a minimum of 28 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (wounds and abscesses) due to susceptible strains of coagulase-positive staphylococci (<I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> or <I>S. intermedius</I>), deep wounds and abscesses due to susceptible strains of <I>Bacteroides fragilis</I>, <I>Prevotella melaninogenicus</I>, <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>, and <I>Clostridium perfringens</I>; dental infections due to susceptible strains of <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>B. fragilis</I>, <I>P. melaninogenicus</I>, <I>F. necrophorum</I>, and <I>C. perfringens</I>; and osteomyelitis due to susceptible strains of <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>B. fragilis</I>, <I>P. melaninogenicus</I>, <I>F. necrophorum</I>, and <I>C. perfringens.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Cats—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5.0 to 15.0 mg/lb body weight every 24 hours for a maximum of 14 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (wounds and abscesses) due to susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I>, <I>S. intermedius</I>, <I>Streptococcus spp.</I>; deep wounds and abscesses due to susceptible strains of <I>Clostridium perfringens</I> and <I>Bacteroides fragilis</I>; and dental infections due to susceptible strains of <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>S. intermedius</I>, <I>Streptococcus spp.</I>, <I>C. perfringens</I>, and <I>B. fragilis.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 54954, Aug. 27, 2002, as amended at 67 FR 78684, Dec. 26, 2002; 68 FR 55824, Sept. 29, 2003; 69 FR 31734, June 7, 2004; 71 FR 39543, July 13, 2006; 72 FR 19796, Apr. 20, 2007; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 78 FR 30197, May 22, 2013; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.452" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.452   Clenbuterol syrup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 72.5 micrograms of clenbuterol hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally twice a day (b.i.d.). Initial dose is 0.5 milliliter per 100 pounds body weight (0.8 micrograms per kilogram) for 3 days (6 treatments). If no improvement, administer 1 milliliter per 100 pounds (1.6 micrograms per kilogram) for 3 days (6 treatments). If no improvement, administer 1.5 milliliters per 100 pounds (2.4 micrograms per kilogram) for 3 days (6 treatments). If no improvement, administer 2.0 milliliters per 100 pounds (3.2 micrograms per kilogram) for 3 days (6 treatments). If no improvement, horse is nonresponder to clenbuterol and treatment should be discontinued.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Indicated for the management of horses affected with airway obstruction, such as occurs in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treat at effective dose for 30 days. At the end of the 30-day treatment period, drug should be withdrawn. If signs return, the 30-day treatment period may be repeated. If repeating treatment, the step-wise dosage schedule should be repeated. The effect of this drug on breeding stallions and brood mares has not been determined. Treatment starting with dosages higher than the initial dose is not recommended. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food animals. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 41419, Aug. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.455" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.455   Clomipramine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 5, 20, 40, or 80 milligrams (mg) clomipramine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 051311, 086039, and 086101 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2 to 4 milligrams of clomipramine hydrochloride per kilogram (0.9 to 1.8 milligrams per pound) of body weight per day, administered as a single daily dose or divided twice daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as part of a comprehensive behavioral management program to treat separation anxiety in dogs greater than 6 months of age.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 1762, Jan. 12, 1999, as amended at 72 FR 262, Jan. 4, 2007; 86 FR 57996, Oct. 20, 2021; 91 FR 20340, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.462" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.462   Clorsulon drench.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a suspension containing 8.5 percent clorsulon (85 milligrams per milliliter).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.163 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use. Cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One-quarter fluid ounce per 200 pounds of body weight (7 milligrams per kilogram or 3.2 milligrams per pound of body weight).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of immature and adult liver fluke (<I>Fasciola hepatica</I>) infestations in cattle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Using dose syringe, deposit drench over back of tongue. Do not treat cattle within 8 days of slaughter. Because a withdrawal time in milk has not been established, do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10221, Mar. 14, 1985, as amended at 62 FR 63270, Nov. 28, 1997; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.522" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.522   Cyclosporine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each cyclosporine capsule, USP (MODIFIED) contains 10, 25, 50, or 100 milligrams (mg) cyclosporine.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter of cyclosporine oral solution, USP (MODIFIED) contains 100 mg cyclosporine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use of products described in paragraph (a) as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 017033 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 051311 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 013744 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs.</I> Use capsules described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or solution as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 mg per kilogram (mg/kg) of body weight given orally as a single daily dose for 30 days. Following this initial daily treatment period, the dosage may be tapered by decreasing the frequency of administration to every other day or two times a week, until a minimum frequency is reached which will maintain the desired therapeutic effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of atopic dermatitis in dogs weighing at least 4 pounds.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats.</I> Use the solution described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as follow:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 7 mg/kg of body weight orally as a single daily dose for a minimum of 4 to 6 weeks or until resolution of clinical signs. Following this initial daily treatment period, the dosage may be tapered by decreasing the frequency of administration to every other day or twice weekly to maintain the desired therapeutic effect.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of feline allergic dermatitis as manifested by excoriations (including facial and neck), miliary dermatitis, eosinophilic plaques, and self-induced alopecia in cats at least 6 months of age and at least 3 lbs (1.4 kg) in body weight.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 54804, Sept. 19, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 78815, Dec. 20, 2011; 84 FR 12493, Apr. 2, 2019; 86 FR 17063, Apr. 1, 2021; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024; 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.530" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.530   Cythioate oral liquid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 15 milligrams of cythioate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 058198 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 15 milligrams cythioate per 10 pounds of body weight every third day or twice a week.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Dogs, for control of fleas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 5614, Feb. 14, 1984, as amended at 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.531" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.531   Cythioate tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 30 or 90 milligrams (mg) cythioate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use of 30- and 90-mg tablets.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of the 30-mg tablet.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 30 milligrams cythioate per 20 pounds of body weight every third day or twice a week.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Dogs, for control of fleas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 5615, Feb. 14, 1984, as amended at 59 FR 26942, May 25, 1994; 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.534" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.534   Decoquinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains 8 milligrams (0.8 percent) decoquinate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.170 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use. Calves</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Feed 22.7 milligrams per 100 pounds of body weight (0.5 milligram per kilogram) per day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of coccidiosis in ruminating and nonruminating calves, including veal calves, caused by <I>Eimeria bovis</I> and <I>E. zuernii.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Feed in whole milk at the rate of 22.7 milligrams per 100 pounds body weight daily (0.5 milligram per kilogram) for at least 28 days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 10103, Mar. 2, 1999, as amended at 64 FR 30386, June 8, 1999; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.538" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.538   Deracoxib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 12, 25, 50, 75, or 100 milligrams (mg) deracoxib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 013744, 058198, and 086101 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally as needed, as a single daily dose based on body weight:
</P>
<P>(i) 1 to 2 mg/kilogram (kg) (0.45 to 0.91 mg/pound (lb)), for use as in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) 1 to 2 mg/kg (0.45 to 0.91 mg/lb) for 3 days, for use as in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) 3 to 4 mg/kg (1.4 to 1.8 mg/lb) for up to 7 days, for use as in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with dental surgery.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with orthopedic surgery.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 68760, Nov. 13, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 18882, Apr. 17, 2003; 72 FR 37437, July 10, 2007; 73 FR 33692, June 13, 2008; 77 FR 3928, Jan. 26, 2012; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 61684, Nov. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.540" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.540   Dexamethasone oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.540a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.540a   Dexamethasone powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each packet contains 10 milligrams (mg) of dexamethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cattle and horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 to 10 mg per animal the first day then 5 mg per day as required by drench or by sprinkling on a small amount of feed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As supportive therapy following parenteral steroid administration for management or inflammatory conditions such as acute arthritic lameness, and for various stress conditions where corticosteroids are required while the animal is being treated for a specific condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.540b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.540b   Dexamethasone tablets and boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus is half-scored and contains 10 milligrams of dexamethasone. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in cattle and horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 to 10 milligrams on the first day, then 5 milligrams per day as required.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As supportive therapy following parenteral steroid administration for management or inflammatory conditions such as acute arthritic lameness, and for various stress conditions where corticosteroids are required while the animal is being treated for a specific condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 0.25 milligram of dexamethasone.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Dogs: Administer orally 0.25 to 1.25 milligrams per day for up to 7 days. Cats: Administer orally 0.125 to 0.5 milligrams per day for up to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an anti-inflammatory agent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 26273, June 23, 1975, as amended at 44 FR 7130, Feb. 6, 1979; 50 FR 49372, Dec. 2, 1985; 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 55 FR 8461, Mar. 8, 1990; 66 FR 14073, Mar. 9, 2001; 68 FR 4914, Jan. 31, 2003; 70 FR 16934, Apr. 4, 2005; 79 FR 28819, May 20, 2014; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.540c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.540c   Dexamethasone chewable tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each half-scored tablet contains 0.25 milligram of dexamethasone. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051031 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by free-choice feeding or crumbled over food 0.25 to 1.25 milligrams daily in single or two divided doses until response is noted or 7 days have elapsed. When response is attained, dosage should be gradually reduced by 0.125 milligram per day until maintenance level is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As supportive therapy in nonspecific dermatosis and inflammatory conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 7130, Feb. 6, 1979, as amended at 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014; 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.563" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.563   Diatrizoate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Diatrizoate meglumine oral solution is a water soluble radiopaque medium containing 66 percent diatrizoate meglumine and 10 percent diatrizoate sodium. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 0.5 to 1.0 milliliter per pound of body weight by gavage or stomach tube. Administered rectally 0.5 to 1.0 milliliter per pound of body weight diluted with 1 part of the drug to 5 parts of water.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For radiography of the gastrointestinal tract.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 12993, Mar. 9, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 41489, Oct. 11, 1985; 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.580" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.580   Dichlorophene and toluene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains 50 milligrams (mg) of dichlorophene and 60 mg of toluene, or multiples thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 017135 and 023851 for use only as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 000061, 054771, and 069043 for use in a single dose or divided-dosage regimen.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required statement.</I> Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism, and before administering to weak or debilitated animals. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Single dose: Administer 100 mg of dicholorophene and 120 mg of toluene per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) Divided dose: Administer 100 mg of dichlorophene and 120 mg of toluene per 5 pounds of body weight (20 and 24 mg per pound) daily for 6 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal of ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>); and as an aid in removing tapeworms (<I>Taenia pisiformis, Dipylidium caninum,</I> and <I>Echinococcus granulosus</I>) from dogs and cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Withhold solid foods and milk for at least 12 hours prior to medication and for 4 hours afterward. Repeat treatment in 2 to 4 weeks in animals subject to reinfection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 10332, Feb. 15, 1980]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 520.580, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.581" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.581   Dichlorophene tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 1 gram of dichlorophene. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 023851 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required statement.</I> Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism, and before administering to weak or debilitated animals. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use. Dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Single dose of 1 tablet (1 gram of dichlorophene) for each 10 pounds of body weight. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used as an aid in the removal of tapeworms (<I>Taenia pisiformis</I> and <I>Dipylidium caninum</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Withhold solid foods and milk for at least 12 hours prior to medication and for 4 hours afterward.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 10333, Feb. 15, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.596" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.596   Dichlorvos powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) Each 2-ounce packet contains 2.27 grams (4 percent) dichlorvos.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milligram of powder contains 2.27 milligrams (mg) dichlorvos.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.180 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine (adult gilts, sows, and boars)</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Add powder to the indicated amount of feed and administered shortly after mixing, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight of animal in pounds
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pounds of feed to
<br/>be mixed with
<br/>each 0.08
<br/>ounce of
<br/>dichlorvos
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pounds of mixed
<br/>feed to be
<br/>administered to
<br/>each pig as a
<br/>single treatment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of pigs
<br/>to be treated
<br/>per 0.08
<br/>ounce of
<br/>dichlorvos
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20-30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31-40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61-80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81-100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of sexually mature (adult), sexually immature and/or 4th stage larvae of the whipworm (<I>Trichuris suis</I>), nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum</I> spp.), large round-worm (<I>Ascaris suum</I>), and the mature thick stomach worm (<I>Ascarops strongylina</I>) occurring in the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract of pigs, boars, and open or bred gilts and sows.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use this product on animals either simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. The preparation should be mixed thoroughly with the feed on a clean, impervious surface. Do not allow swine access to feed other than that containing the preparation until treatment is complete. Do not treat pigs with signs of scours until these signs subside or are alleviated by proper medication. Resume normal feeding schedule afterwards. Swine may be retreated in 4 to 5 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in the grain portion of the ration at a dosage of 14.2 to 18.5 mg per pound of body weight as a single dose. Administered at one-half of the single recommended dosage and repeated 8 to 12 hours later in the treatment of very aged, emaciated, or debilitated subjects or those reluctant to consume medicated feed. In suspected cases of severe ascarid infection sufficient to cause concern over mechanical blockage of the intestinal tract, the split dosage should be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of bots (<I>Gastrophilus intestinalis, G. nasalis</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris, S. equinus, S. edentatus</I>), small strongyles (of the genera <I>Cyathostomum, Cylicocercus, Cylicocyclus, Cylicodontophorus, Triodontophorus, Poteriostomum, Gyalocephalus</I>), pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), and large roundworm (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>) in horses including ponies and mules. Not for use in foals (sucklings and young weanlings).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses which are severely debilitated, suffering from diarrhea or severe constipation, infectious disease, toxemia, or colic. Do not administer in conjunction with or within 1 week of administration of muscle relaxant drugs, phenothiazine derived tranquilizers or central nervous system depressant drugs. Horses should not be subjected to insecticide treatment for 5 days prior to or after treating with the drug. Do not administer to horses afflicted with chronic alveolar emphysema (heaves) or related respiratory conditions. The product is a cholinesterase inhibitor and should not be used simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase inhibiting drugs, pesticides or chemicals. Do not use in animals other than horses, ponies, and mules. Do not use in horses, ponies, and mules intended for food purposes. Do not allow fowl access to feed containing this preparation or to fecal excrement from treated animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48944, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.598" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.598   Dichlorvos tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 2, 5, 10, or 20 milligrams (mg) dichlorvos.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs, puppies, cats, and kittens</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at 5 mg dichlorvos per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Dogs and puppies:</I> Removal and control of intestinal roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats and kittens:</I> Removal and control of intestinal roundworms (<I>Toxocara cati</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.600" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.600   Dichlorvos capsules and pellets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains 2.27 milligrams (mg) (4 percent) dichlorvos.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer any combination of capsules and/or pellets so that the animal receives a single dose equaling 12 to 15 mg of dichlorvos per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of <I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I> (roundworms), <I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I> (hookworms), and <I>Trichuris vulpis</I> (whipworm) residing in the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.602" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.602   Dichlorvos gel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milligram (mg) of gel contains 2.27 milligrams (mg) dichlorvos.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 20 mg per kilogram of body weight for the removal of bots and ascarids. Repeat administration every 21 to 28 days for the control of bots and ascarids. For the control of bots only, the repeat dosage is 10 milligrams per kilogram of body weight every 21 to 28 days during bot fly season.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of first, second, and third instar bots (<I>Gastrophilus intestinalis</I> and <I>G. nasalis</I>), sexually mature and sexually immature (4th stage) ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>) in horses and foals.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.606" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.606   Diclazuril.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 100 grams (g) of pellets contain 1.56 g diclazuril.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 milligram (mg) per kilogram (0.45 mg per pound) of body weight in the daily grain ration for 28 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) caused by <I>Sarcocystis neurona.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 20943, Apr. 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.608" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.608   Dicloxacillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains dicloxacillin sodium monohydrate equivalent to 50, 100, 200, or 500 milligrams of dicloxacillin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600 (c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 to 10 milligrams per pound of body weight, three times daily. In severe cases, up to 25 milligrams per pound of body weight three times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of pyoderma (pyogenic dermatitis) due to penicillinase-producing staphylococci sensitive to dicloxacillin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37325, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.620" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.620   Diethylcarbamazine oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.622" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.622   Diethylcarbamazine citrate oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.622a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.622a   Diethylcarbamazine citrate tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsors.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) See 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of 100, 200, and 300 milligram tablets for prevention of heartworm disease in dogs and as an aid in the treatment of ascarid infections in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) See 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of 50, 100, 200, 300, or 400 milligram tablets for prevention of heartworm disease in dogs, as an aid in the control of ascarid infections in dogs, and as an aid in the treatment of ascarid infections in dogs and cats.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of 60, 120, or 180 milligram tablets for prevention of heartworm disease in dogs, as an aid in the control of ascarid infections in dogs, and as an aid in the treatment of ascarid infections in dogs and cats.
</P>
<P>(6) See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of 50, 100, 200, 300, or 400 milligram tablets for prevention of heartworm disease in dogs, as an aid in the control of ascarid infections in dogs, and as an aid in the treatment of ascarid infections in dogs and cats.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dosage/indications for use.</I> (i) Three milligrams per pound of body weight daily for prevention of heartworm disease (<I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>) in dogs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Three milligrams per pound of body weight daily as an aid in the control of ascarid infections (<I>Toxocara canis</I>) in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Twenty-five to 50 milligrams per pound of body weight as an aid in the treatment of ascarid infections in dogs (<I>Toxocara canis</I>) and cats (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 23230, Apr. 24, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 41038, Aug. 14, 1981; 46 FR 46315, Sept. 18, 1981; 46 FR 61653, Dec. 18, 1981; 47 FR 10805, Mar. 12, 1982; 47 FR 14150, Apr. 2, 1982; 50 FR 41489, Oct. 11, 1985; 50 FR 49372, Dec. 2, 1985; 53 FR 40056, Oct. 13, 1988; 53 FR 40727, Oct. 18, 1988; 55 FR 8461, Mar. 8, 1990; 61 FR 34728, July 3, 1996; 62 FR 35076, June 30, 1997; 66 FR 14073, Mar. 9, 2001; 68 FR 4914, Jan. 31, 2003; 76 FR 17777, Mar. 31, 2011; 77 FR 4896, Feb. 1, 2012; 78 FR 21059, Apr. 7, 2013; 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.622b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.622b   Diethylcarbamazine citrate syrup.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of syrup contains 60 milligrams of diethylcarbamazine citrate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (i) The drug is indicated for use in dogs for the prevention of infection with <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and <I>T. canis</I> and <I>T. leonina.</I> It is also indicated for treatment of ascarid infections of <I>T. canis</I> and <I>T. leonina</I> in dogs and <I>T. cati</I> in cats. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For prevention of heartworm and ascarid infections in dogs, the drug may be added to the daily diet at a dosage rate of 3.0 milligrams per pound of body weight per day or given directly by mouth at the same dosage rate. For treatment of ascarid infections in dogs and cats, the drug is administered at a dosage level of 25 to 50 milligrams per pound of body weight preferably administered immediately after feeding. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Older dogs should be proven negative for the presence of <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> infection before administration of the drug. Those with proven infection of <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> should be rendered negative using adulticidal and microfilaricidal drugs before administration of this drug. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of syrup contains 60 milligrams of diethylcarbamazine citrate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (i) The drug is used in dogs between 4 weeks and 8 months of age for the removal of ascarids (<I>Toxacara canis</I>) and in animals over 4 weeks of age for the prevention of heartworm disease (<I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug is administered (<I>a</I>) for removal of ascarids at a dosage of 50 milligrams per pound of body weight divided into two equal doses and administered 8 to 12 hours apart (morning and night), orally or mixed with either dry or wet food, and (<I>b</I>) for prevention of heartworm disease at a dosage of 3 milligrams per pound of body weight daily, orally or in food, in heartworm endemic areas, from the beginning of mosquito activity, during the mosquito season, and for 2 months following the end thereof. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Dogs older than 8 months of age may be infected with <I>Dirofilaria immitis.</I> Use of the drug is contraindicated in dogs with active <I>D. immitis</I> infections. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 28265, July 9, 1976; 44 FR 3967, Jan. 19, 1979; 47 FR 14150, Apr. 2, 1982; 47 FR 35186, Aug. 13, 1982; 49 FR 33997, Aug. 28, 1984; 50 FR 41489, Oct. 11, 1985; 53 FR 47027, Oct. 18, 1988; 61 FR 34728, July 3, 1996; 62 FR 35076, June 30, 1997; 62 FR 38906, July 21, 1997; 77 FR 4897, Feb. 1, 2012; 78 FR 21059, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.622c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.622c   Diethylcarbamazine citrate chewable tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 30, 45, 60, 120, 150, or 180 milligrams of diethylcarbamazine citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See drug listing nos. in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for identification of sponsors as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) For 054771, use of 60, 120, or 180 milligram tablets as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) For 061690, use of 45 or 150 milligram tablets as in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) For 061133, use of 60-, 120-, or 180-milligram tablets as in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) For 000061, use of 60-milligram tablets as in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) For 069043, use of 30, 60, 120, or 180 milligram tablets as in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 3 milligrams per pound of body weight per day for prevention of heartworm disease and control of ascarids; 25 to 50 milligrams per pound of body weight as an aid in treatment of ascarid infections. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) For prevention of heartworm disease (<I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>) in dogs; as an aid in control of ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis</I>) in dogs; as an aid in treatment of ascarid (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) infections in dogs and cats. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For prevention of infection with <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> (heartworm disease) in dogs; as an aid in treatment of ascarid (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) infections in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) For prevention of heartworm disease (<I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>) in dogs. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 6941, Feb. 17, 1978]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 520.622c, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.623" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.623   Diethylcarbamazine and oxibendazole chewable tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains either 60, 120, or 180 milligrams of diethylcarbamazine citrate with 45, 91, or 136 milligrams of oxibendazole, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally to dogs at a dosage level of 6.6 milligrams of diethylcarbamazine citrate per kilogram of body weight (3 milligrams per pound of body weight) and 5.0 milligrams of oxibendazole per kilogram of body weight (2.27 milligrams per pound of body weight).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention of infection with <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> (heartworm disease) and <I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> (hookworm infection) and for removal and control of <I>Trichuris vulpis</I> (whipworm infection) and mature and immature stages of intestinal <I>Toxocara canis</I> (ascarid infection). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 28768, July 16, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 45759, Nov. 14, 1988; 54 FR 3776, Jan. 26, 1989; 54 FR 6804, Feb. 14, 1989; 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.666" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.666   Dirlotapide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 5 milligrams (mg) dirlotapide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The initial dosage is 0.01 mL/kg (0.0045 mL/lb) body weight for the first 14 days. After the first 14 days of treatment, the dose volume is doubled to 0.02 mL/kg (0.009 mL/lb) body weight for the next 14 days (days 15 to 28 of treatment). Dogs should be weighed monthly and the dose volume adjusted every month, as necessary, to maintain a target percent weight loss until the desired weight is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the management of obesity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 263, Jan. 4, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.763" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.763   Dithiazanine oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.763a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.763a   Dithiazanine tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 10, 50, 100, or 200 milligrams (mg) dithiazanine iodide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use and amount.</I> Administer orally immediately after feeding as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For large roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I>): 10 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight for 3 to 5 days;
</P>
<P>(ii) For hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) and whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>): 10 mg/lb of body weight for 7 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) For Strongyloides (<I>Strongyloides canis, Strongyloides stercoralis</I>): 10 mg/lb of body weight for 10 to 12 days;
</P>
<P>(iv) For heartworm microfilariae (<I>Dirofilaria immitus</I>): 3 to 5 mg/lb of body weight for 7 to 10 days. Treatment for heartworm microfilariae should follow 6 weeks after therapy for adult worms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.763b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.763b   Dithiazanine powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablespoon of powder contains 200 milligrams (mg) dithiazanine iodide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use and amount.</I> Administer orally by mixing in food as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For large roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I>): 10 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight for 3 to 5 days;
</P>
<P>(ii) For hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) and whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>): 10 mg/lb of body weight for 7 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) For Strongyloides (<I>Strongyloides canis,</I> <I>Strongyloides stercoralis</I>): 10 mg/lb of body weight for 10 to 12 days;
</P>
<P>(iv) For heartworm microfilariae (<I>Dirofilaria immitus</I>): 3 to 5 mg/lb of body weight for 7 to 10 days. Treatment for heartworm microfilariae should follow 6 weeks after therapy for adult worms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.763c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.763c   Dithiazanine iodide and piperazine citrate suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 69 milligrams (mg) dithiazanine iodide and 83 mg piperazine base (as piperazine citrate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1 ounce (30 milliliters) per 100 pounds of body weight for the first 500 pounds; 
<FR>3/4</FR> ounce for each 100 pounds thereafter, up to 1,200 pounds; 10
<FR>1/4</FR> ounces to animals over 1,200 pounds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of large roundworms, <I>Parascaris equorum;</I> small strongyles; large strongyles, <I>Strongylus vulgaris;</I> and pinworms, <I>Oxyuris equi.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer by drench or mixed with the daily ration as a single dose. Treatment is recommended in spring and fall. In a heavily infested environment, treatment may be repeated every 30 days. Not for use in horses intended for food purposes. Severely debilitated animals should not be wormed except on the advice of a veterinarian. If the drug is for administration by stomach tube, it shall be labeled: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 52696, Nov. 23, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 32342, July 15, 1983; 53 FR 40727, Oct. 18, 1988; 62 FR 35076, June 30, 1997; 78 FR 21059, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 28820, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.766" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.766   Domperidone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 110 milligrams (mg) domperidone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.5 mg per pound (mg/lb) (1.1 mg/kilogram (kg)) by mouth once daily starting 10 to 15 days prior to the expected foaling date. Treatment may be continued for up to 5 days after foaling if mares are not producing adequate milk.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention of fescue toxicosis in periparturient mares.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 67031, Nov. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.784" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.784   Doxylamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is in tablet form and contains doxylamine succinate as the active drug ingredient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Horses: Administer orally 1 to 2 milligrams (mg) per pound (/lb) of body weight per day divided into 3 or 4 equal doses. Dogs and cats: Administer orally 2 to 3 mg/lb of body weight per day divided into 3 or 4 equal doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use when antihistaminic therapy may be expected to alleviate some signs of disease in horses, dogs, and cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 60140, Nov. 25, 1977; 46 FR 48642, Oct. 2, 1981; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61624, Nov. 19, 1997; 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.812" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.812   Enrofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(i) 22.7, 68.0, or 136.0 milligrams (mg) enrofloxacin; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 22.7, 68.0, 136.0, or 272 mg enrofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each chewable tablet contains 22.7, 68.0, or 136.0 mg enrofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(3) Each soft chewable tablet contains 22.7, 68.0, or 136.0 mg enrofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use of products described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 017033, 086117, and 086194 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 055529 and 086101 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally as a single, daily dose or divided into two equal doses at 12-hour intervals.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dogs.</I> 5 to 20 mg per kilogram (/kg) (2.27 to 9.07 mg per pound (/lb)) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats.</I> 5 mg/kg (2.27 mg/lb) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the management of diseases associated with bacteria susceptible to enrofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 30197, May 22, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 52853, Aug. 27, 2013; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 53310, Oct. 7, 2019; 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 90 FR 40969, Aug. 22, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.816" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.816   Epsiprantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains either 12.5, 25, 50, or 100 milligrams of epsiprantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 milligrams per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Removal of canine cestodes <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia pisiformis.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1.25 milligrams per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Removal of feline cestodes <I>D.</I> <I>caninum</I> and <I>T.</I> <I>taeniaeformis.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 50615, Dec. 8, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 64740, Dec. 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.823" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.823   Erythromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains erythromycin phosphate equivalent to 0.89 gram of erythromycin master standard.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.230 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in drinking water as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Broiler and replacement chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.500 gram per gallon for 5 days.</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the control of chronic respiratory disease due to <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum</I> susceptible to erythromycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in replacement pullets over 16 weeks of age. Do not use in chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 1 day before slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Replacement chickens and chicken breeders</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.500 gram per gallon for 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the control of infectious coryza due to <I>Haemophilus gallinarum</I> susceptible to erythromycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in replacement pullets over 16 weeks of age. Do not use in chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 1 day before slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Growing turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.500 gram per gallon for 7 days.</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the control of blue comb (nonspecific infectious enteritis) caused by organisms susceptible to erythromycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 1 day before slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 45 FR 56798, Aug. 26, 1980; 66 FR 14073, Mar. 9, 2001; 68 FR 4914, Jan. 31, 2003; 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.852" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.852   Estriol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 1 milligram (mg) estriol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer at an initial dose of 2 mg per dog per day. The dosage may be titrated to as low as 0.5 mg per dog every second day, depending on response.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of estrogen-responsive urinary incontinence in ovariohysterectomized female dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78150, Dec. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.863" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.92" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.863   Ethylisobutrazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains either 10 milligrams or 50 milligrams of ethylisobutrazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 2 to 5 milligrams per pound of body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a tranquilizer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 46 FR 48642, Oct. 2, 1981; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61624, Nov. 19, 1997; 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.903" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.93" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.903   Febantel oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.903a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.94" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.903a   Febantel paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 455 milligrams (45.5 percent) febantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer paste orally at 6 milligrams per kilogram (2.73 milligrams per pound) of body weight on the base of the tongue or well mixed into a portion of the normal grain ration. For animals maintained on premises where reinfection is likely to occur, retreatment may be necessary. For most effective results, retreat in 6 to 8 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris, S. edentatus,</I> <I>S. equinus</I>); ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>—sexually mature and immature); pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>—adult and 4th stage larva); and various small strongyles in horses, foals, and ponies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.903b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.95" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.903b   Febantel suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each ounce of suspension contains 2.75 grams (9.3 percent ounce) febantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 3 milliliters per 100 pounds body weight or 1 fluid ounce per 1000 pounds (6 milligrams per kilogram body weight). Administer by stomach tube or drench, or by mixing well into a portion of the normal grain ration. For animals maintained on premises where reinfection is likely to occur, retreatment may be necessary. For most effective results, retreat in 6 to 8 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>—adult and sexually immature), pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>—adult and 4th stage larvae), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris, S. edentatus,</I> <I>S. equinus</I>), and various small strongyles in horses, breeding stallions and mares, pregnant mares, foals, and ponies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Febantel suspension may be used in combination with trichlorfon oral liquid in accordance with the provisions of § 520.2520c, this section, and the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Combine 1 part febantel suspension with 5 parts trichlorfon liquid.
</P>
<P>(2) Allow animal to consume a portion of daily grain ration; administer mixture by stomach tube at rate of 18 milliliters per 100 pounds of body weight.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 8587, Feb. 8, 1980, as amended at 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.903c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.96" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.903c   Febantel and praziquantel paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 34 milligrams of febantel and 3.4 milligrams of praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) Dogs and cats (over 6 months of age): 10 milligrams of febantel and 1 milligram of praziquantel per kilogram of body weight (1 gram of paste per 7.5 pounds body weight) administered by mouth or in the food once daily for 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) Puppies and kittens (less than 6 months of age): 15 milligrams of febantel and 1.5 milligrams of praziquantel per kilogram of body weight (1 gram of paste per 5 pounds body weight) administered by mouth on a full stomach once daily for 3 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) Dogs and puppies: For removal of hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>), whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>), ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>), and tapeworms (<I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia pisiformis</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) Cats and kittens: For removal of hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I>), ascarids (<I>Toxocara cati</I>) and tapeworms (<I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia taeniaeformis</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 19167, May 7, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 48533, Dec. 1, 1988; 56 FR 50813, Oct. 9, 1991; 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014. Redesignated at 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.903d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.97" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.903d   Febantel tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each scored tablet contains 27.2 milligrams of febantel for use in dogs, puppies, cats, and kittens or 163.3 milligrams of febantel for use in dogs, puppies, and cats.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Dogs and cats.</I> Ten milligrams per kilogram body weight. Administer once daily for 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Puppies and kittens fewer than 6 months of age.</I> Fifteen milligrams per kilogram body weight. Administer once daily for 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) For removal of hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>), ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) and whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>) in dogs and puppies.
</P>
<P>(ii) For removal of hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I>) and ascarids (<I>Toxocara cati</I>) in cats and kittens.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 50655, Oct. 8, 1991, as amended at 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014. Redesignated at 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.905" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.98" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.905   Fenbendazole oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.905a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.99" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.905a   Fenbendazole suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 100 milligrams (mg) fenbendazole for use as in paragraphs (e)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section; or 200 mg fenbendazole for use as in paragraphs (e)(5) and (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 055529 as in paragraphs (e)(2) and (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.275 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Fenbendazole suspension 10 percent and approved forms of trichlorfon, when used concomitantly for treating the indications provided in paragraph (e) of this section and for treating infections of stomach bot as provided in § 520.2520, have been shown to be compatible and not to interfere with one another.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 5 mg per kilogram (/kg) (2.3 mg per pound (/lb)) for the control of large strongyles, small strongyles, and pinworms; 10 mg/kg for the control of ascarids.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus, S. vulgaris, Triodontophorus</I> species), small strongyles (<I>Cyathostomum</I> species, <I>Cylicocyclus</I> species, <I>Cylicostephanus</I> species, <I>Cylicodontophorus</I> species), pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>) and ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beef and dairy cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 2.3 mg/lb of body weight (5 mg/kg).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: Adult (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>); Stomach worms: Adult brown stomach worms (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I>); adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<I>Haemonchus contortus</I> and <I>H. placei</I>); adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): Hookworms (<I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<I>Nematodirus helvetianus</I>), small intestinal worms (<I>Cooperia punctata</I> and <I>C. oncophora</I>), bankrupt worms (<I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis</I>), and nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from cows during treatment and for 48 hours after the last treatment must not be used for human consumption. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 8 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beef cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 4.6 mg/lb of body weight (10 mg/kg).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of stomach worms (fourth-stage inhibited larvae/type II ostertagiasis), <I>Ostertagia ostertagi,</I> and tapeworms, <I>Moniezia benedeni.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 8 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Goats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 2.3 mg/lb of body weight (5 mg/kg).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of stomach worms (adults) <I>Haemonchus contortus</I> and <I>Teladorsagia circumcincta.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Goats must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 6 days following last treatment with this drug product. Because a milk discard time has not been established, do not use in lactating goats.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally via drinking water at a daily dose of 1 mg/kg body weight (0.454 mg/lb) for 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of adult <I>Ascaridia galli</I> in broiler chickens and replacement chickens, and for the treatment and control of adult <I>A. galli</I> and <I>Heterakis gallinarum</I> in breeding chickens and laying hens.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Swine, except for nursing piglets</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally via the drinking water at a daily dose of 2.2 mg/kg of body weight (1.0 mg/lb) for 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: Adult <I>Metastrongylus apri,</I> Adult <I>Metastrongylus pudendotectus;</I> Gastrointestinal worms: Adult and larvae (L3, L4 stages, liver, lung, intestinal forms) large roundworms (<I>Ascaris suum</I>), Adult nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum dentatum, O. quadrispinulatum</I>), Adult small stomach worms (<I>Hyostrongylus rubidus</I>), Adult and larvae (L2, L3, L4 stages—intestinal mucosal forms) whipworms (<I>Trichuris suis</I>); and Kidney worms: Adult and larvae <I>Stephanurus dentatus.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Swine intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 2 days from the last treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59069, Nov. 15, 1977; 43 FR 12311, Mar. 24, 1978. Redesignated at 44 FR 1375, Jan. 5, 1979, and amended at 46 FR 29464, June 2, 1981; 47 FR 15327, Apr. 9, 1982; 48 FR 42809, Sept. 20, 1983; 49 FR 1983, Jan. 17, 1984; 53 FR 40058, Oct. 13, 1988; 59 FR 26943, May 25, 1994; 61 FR 29478, June 11, 1996; 63 FR 63983, Nov. 18, 1998; 66 FR 47960, Sept. 17, 2001; 68 FR 26205, May 15, 2003; 74 FR 17770, Apr. 17, 2009; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 76 FR 17336, Mar. 29, 2011; 80 FR 76386, Dec. 9, 2015; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021; 86 FR 61684, Nov. 8, 2021; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022; 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.905b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.100" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.905b   Fenbendazole granules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of granules contains 222 milligrams (mg) fenbendazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 mg/kilogram (kg) for large strongyles, small strongyles, and pinworms; 10 mg/kg for ascarids.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of infections of large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus, S. vulgaris</I>), small strongyles, pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), and ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Sprinkle the appropriate amount of drug on a small amount of the usual grain ration. Prepare for each horse individually. Withholding feed or water is not necessary. Retreat in 6 to 8 weeks if required. Do not use in horses intended for food. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 50 mg/kg daily for 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I>), hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Uncinaria stenocephala</I>), whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>), and tapeworms (<I>Taenia pisiformis</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Mix the appropriate amount of drug with a small amount of the usual food; dry dog food may require slight moistening to facilitate mixing. Medicated food must be fully consumed. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Zoo and wildlife animals</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg/kg per day for 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of internal parasites of <I>Felidae</I> and <I>Ursidae</I> as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Lion (<I>Panthera leo</I>) and Tiger (<I>Panthera tigris</I>): Ascarid (<I>Toxocara cati, Toxascaris leonina</I>), Hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(B) Cheetah (<I>Acinonyx jubatus</I>): Ascarid (<I>Toxocara cati, Toxascaris leonina</I>).
</P>
<P>(C) Puma (<I>Felis concolor</I>), Panther (<I>Panthera</I> spp.), Leopard (<I>Panthera pardus</I>), Jaguar (<I>Panthera onca</I>): Ascarid (<I>Toxocara cati, Toxascaris leonina</I>), Hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma</I> spp.), Tapeworm (<I>Taenia hydatigena, T. krabbei, T. taeniaeformis</I>).
</P>
<P>(D) Black Bear (<I>Ursus americanus</I>): Ascarid (<I>Baylisascaris transfuga, Toxascaris leonina</I>), Hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I>), Tapeworm (<I>Taenia hydatigena, T. krabbei</I>).
</P>
<P>(E) Polar Bear (<I>Ursus maritimus</I>) and Grizzly Bear (<I>Ursus horribilis</I>): Ascarid (<I>Baylisascaris transfuga, Toxascaris leonina</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Top dress or mix with a small portion of food. Must be fully consumed prior to feeding. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Do not use 14 days before or during the hunting season.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 1375, Jan. 5, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 15327, Apr. 9, 1982; 48 FR 50528, Nov. 2, 1983; 59 FR 35252, July 11, 1994; 66 FR 47960, Sept. 17, 2001; 67 FR 47450, July 19, 2002; 71 FR 19429, Apr. 14, 2006; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.905c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.101" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.905c   Fenbendazole paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 100 milligrams (mg) fenbendazole (10 percent).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.275 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Indications for use and amounts.</I> (A) For the treatment and control of large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus,</I> <I>S. vulgaris</I>), small strongyles, and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>). For large strongyles, small strongyles, and pinworms, the recommended dose is 5 mg/kg (2.3 mg/lb).
</P>
<P>(B) For treatment and control of ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>). For ascarids, the recommended dose is 10 mg/kg (4.6 mg/lb).
</P>
<P>(C) For treatment and control of hypobiotic (encysted early third-stage), late third-stage, and fourth-stage cyathostome larvae, as well as fourth-stage <I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> larvae, the recommended dose is 10 mg/kg (4.6 mg/lb) daily for 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(D) For the control of arteritis caused by fourth-stage larvae of <I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> in horses.
</P>
<P>(E) Fenbendazole paste 10 percent may be used concomitantly with approved forms of trichlorfon for the indications provided in paragraph (e)(1)(i)(A) of this section and for treating infections of stomach bots as provided in § 520.2520.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beef and dairy cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 2.3 mg/lb (5 mg/kg) body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: Adult (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>); Stomach worms: Adult brown stomach worms (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I>), adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<I>Haemonchus contortus</I>), fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<I>H. placei</I>), and adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): Hookworms (<I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<I>Nematodirus helvetianus</I>), small intestinal worms (<I>Cooperia punctata</I> and <I>C. oncophora</I>), bankrupt worms (<I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis</I>), and nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken during treatment and for 96 hours after the last treatment must not be used for human consumption. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 8 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 24185, May 2, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 76 FR 17337, Mar. 29, 2011; 86 FR 57996, Oct. 20, 2021; 87 FR 10968, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.905d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.102" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.905d   Fenbendazole powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 2-ounce packet contains 2.27 grams (4 percent) fenbendazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.275 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is administered to swine as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> 3 milligrams fenbendazole per kilogram body weight per day (1.36 milligrams per pound per day).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal and control of large roundworms (<I>Ascaris suum</I>); lungworms (<I>Metastrongylus apri</I>); nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum dentatum, O. quadrispinulatum</I>); small stomach worms (<I>Hyostrongylus rubidus</I>); whipworms (<I>Trichuris suis</I>); and kidneyworms (<I>Stephanurus dentatus</I>— mature and immature).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Thoroughly mix the contents of the packet(s) with swine ration and administer according to label directions. Feed as sole ration for 3 consecutive days. Can be fed to pregnant sows. No prior withdrawal of feed or water is necessary. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 18090, Apr. 27, 1984, as amended at 49 FR 20485, May 15, 1984; 66 FR 47960, Sept. 17, 2001; 70 FR 32489, June 3, 2005; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 83 FR 48945, Oct. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.928" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.103" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.928   Firocoxib tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each chewable tablet contains 57 or 227 milligrams (mg) firocoxib.
</P>
<P>(2) Each tablet contains 57 mg firocoxib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 000010, 013744, 055246, 055529, and 086101 for use of products described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 000010, 055246, and 086101 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 mg/kg (2.27 mg/lb) body weight. Administer once daily as needed for osteoarthritis and for 3 days as needed for postoperative pain and inflammation associated with soft-tissue and orthopedic surgery. Administer approximately 2 hours before soft tissue or orthopedic surgery.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis; and for the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with soft-tissue and orthopedic surgery.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one 57-mg tablet to horses weighing 800 to 1,300 lb once daily for up to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 51171, Aug. 18, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 2808, Jan. 16, 2008; 73 FR 64885, Oct. 31, 2008; 81 FR 67151, Sept. 30, 2016; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022; 88 FR 14897, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024; 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.929" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.104" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.929   Firocoxib solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 9 milligram (mg) firocoxib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 051072 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.1 mg per kilogram (0.045 mg per pound) of body weight once daily for up to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.930" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.105" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.930   Firocoxib paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milligram (mg) of paste contains 0.82 mg firocoxib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 0.1 mg per kilogram (0.045 mg per pound) body weight daily for up to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 5788, Feb. 3, 2006, as amended at 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.955" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.106" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.955   Florfenicol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) contains 23 milligrams (mg) florfenicol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061, 054925, and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.283 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water <I>ad libitum</I> at 400 mg per gallon (100 parts per million (ppm)) for 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of swine respiratory disease (SRD) associated with <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae, Pasteurella multocida, Salmonella choleraesuis</I> and <I>Streptococcus suis.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter within 16 days of last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78357, Dec. 24, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 262, Jan. 4, 2007; 78 FR 52854, Aug. 27, 2013; 82 FR 12169, Mar. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.960" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.107" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.960   Flumethasone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 0.0625 milligram of flumethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Dogs:</I> Administer orally from 0.0625 to 0.25 milligram daily in divided doses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats:</I> Administer orally from 0.03125 to 0.125 milligram daily in divided doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Dogs:</I> It is used for musculoskeletal conditions due to inflammation of muscles or joints and accessory structures, where permanent structural changes do not exist, such as arthritis, the disc syndrome, and myositis.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs and cats:</I> It is used in certain acute and chronic dermatoses of varying etiology to help control the pruritus, irritation, and inflammation associated with these conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 7131, Feb. 6, 1979, as amended at 61 FR 5506, Feb. 13, 1996; 79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.970" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.108" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.970   Flunixin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each 10-gram (g) packet of granules contains flunixin meglumine equivalent to 250 milligrams (mg) of flunixin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each 30-g syringe of paste contains flunixin meglumine equivalent to 1,500 mg of flunixin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of products described in paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg per pound of body weight per day for up to 5 days.</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For alleviation of inflammation and pain associated with musculoskeletal disorders.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 53051, Aug. 25, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.980" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.109" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.980   Fluoxetine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 8, 16, 32, or 64 milligrams (mg) fluoxetine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 055246 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 mg per kilogram body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of canine separation anxiety in conjunction with a behavior modification plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 6463, Feb. 12, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.998" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.110" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.998   Fluralaner chewable tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each chewable tablet contains 112.5, 250, 500, 1,000, or 1,400 milligrams (mg) fluralaner.
</P>
<P>(2) Each chewable tablet contains 45, 100, 200, 400, or 560 mg fluralaner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally as a single dose with food:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Chewable tablets described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</I> Administer every 12 weeks, an appropriate combination of tablets to provide a minimum dose of 11.4 mg per pound (lb) (25 mg per kilogram (kg)) body weight. May be administered every 8 weeks in case of potential exposure to <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> ticks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Chewable tablets described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</I> Administer monthly, an appropriate combination of tablets to provide a minimum dose of 4.5 mg/lb (10 mg/kg) body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Chewable tablets described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</I> Kills adult fleas; for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>), and the treatment and control of tick infestations (<I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (Asian longhorned tick)) for 12 weeks in dogs and puppies 6 months of age and older, and weighing 4.4 lbs or greater; and for the treatment and control of <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick) infestations for 8 weeks in dogs and puppies 6 months of age and older, and weighing 4.4 lbs or greater.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Chewable tablets described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</I> Kills adult fleas; for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>C. felis</I>), and the treatment and control of tick infestations (<I>I. scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>D. variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>R. sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>H. longicornis</I> (Asian longhorned tick)) for 1 month in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older, and weighing 4.4 lb or greater; and for the treatment and control of <I>A. americanum</I> (lone star tick) infestations for 1 month in dogs and puppies 6 months of age and older, and weighing 4.4 lb or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 90 FR 6800, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.999" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.111" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.999   Fluralaner oral solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) fluralaner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in laying hens and replacement chickens</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally to chickens via the drinking water as 2 single doses, spaced 7 days apart, with each dose consumed over a period of 6 to 24 hours. Each dose is 0.5 mg fluralaner/kilogram (kg) (0.227 mg/pound (mg/lb)) body weight, equivalent to 0.05 mL fluralaner oral solution/kg body weight (0.023 mL/lb).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of northern fowl mites (<I>Ornithonyssus sylviarum</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Chickens must not be slaughtered for human consumption for 11 days after the last treatment. No egg discard is required when used according to the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5300, Feb. 6, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1010" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.112" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1010   Furosemide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains 12.5 or 50 milligrams (mg) furosemide.
</P>
<P>(2) Each bolus contains 2 grams (g) furosemide.
</P>
<P>(3) Each packet of powder contains 2 g furosemide.
</P>
<P>(4) Each milliliter of syrup contains 10 mg furosemide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of dosage forms and strengths listed in paragraph (a) of this section for uses as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 000010 and 086117 for tablets in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for conditions of use in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(A), and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000061 for tablets in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for conditions of use in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(A), and (d)(3) of this section; for boluses in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and powder in paragraph (a)(3) of this section for conditions of use in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and for syrup in paragraph (a)(4) of this section for conditions of use in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (d)(2)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 058829 and 069043 for use of syrup in paragraph (a)(4) of this section for conditions of use in paragraph (d)(2)(i) and (d)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 mg per pound (/lb) body weight using powder, or one 2-g bolus per animal, per day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of physiological parturient edema of the mammary gland and associated structures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treatment not to exceed 48 hours post-parturition. Milk taken during treatment and for 48 hours after the last treatment must not be used for food. Cattle must not be slaughtered for food within 48 hours following last treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 mg/lb body weight, once or twice daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For treatment of edema (pulmonary congestion, ascites) associated with cardiac insufficiency and acute noninflammatory tissue edema.
</P>
<P>(B) For treatment of edema (pulmonary congestion, ascites) associated with cardiac insufficiency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 mg/lb body weight, once or twice daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of edema (pulmonary congestion, ascites) associated with cardiac insufficiency and acute noninflammatory tissue edema.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 47960, Sept. 17, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 74419, Dec. 14, 2004; 70 FR 50182, Aug. 26, 2005; 70 FR 76396, Dec. 27, 2005; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 91 FR 5300, Feb. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1044" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.113" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1044   Gentamicin sulfate oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1044a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.114" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1044a   Gentamicin sulfate oral solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of aqueous solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 50 milligrams of gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Colibacillosis: 1 milliliter per 2 gallons of drinking water for 3 consecutive days, to provide 0.5 milligram/pound/day; swine dysentery: 1 milliliter per 1 gallon of drinking water for 3 consecutive days, to provide 1.0 milligram/pound/day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> In weanling swine for control and treatment of colibacillosis caused by strains of <I>E. coli</I> sensitive to gentamicin, and in swine for control and treatment of swine dysentery associated with <I>Treponema hyodysenteriae.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter treated swine for food for at least 3 days following treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 10302, Mar. 11, 1983. Redesignated at 49 FR 572, Jan. 5, 1984, and amended at 49 FR 14332, Apr. 11, 1984; 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 62 FR 34169, June 25, 1997; 71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1044b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.115" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1044b   Gentamicin sulfate pig pump oral solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of pig pump oral solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 4.35 milligrams of gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.15 milliliters of pig pump oral solution (5 milligrams of gentamicin) orally per pig one time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> In neonatal swine 1 to 3 days of age for control and treatment of colibacillosis caused by strains of <I>E. coli</I> sensitive to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in neonatal swine only. Do not slaughter treated swine for food for at least 14 days following treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 572, Jan. 5, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 62 FR 29011, May 29, 1997; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1044c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.116" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1044c   Gentamicin sulfate powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to:
</P>
<P>(1) 16.7, 66.7, or 333.3 milligrams (mg) gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(2) 333.3 mg gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for products described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592 and 061133 for product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water for 3 consecutive days as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For colibacillosis: Gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 25 mg of gentamicin per gallon of drinking water to provide 0.5 mg per pound of body weight per day;
</P>
<P>(ii) For swine dysentery: Gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 50 mg of gentamicin per gallon of drinking water to provide 1 mg per pound of body weight per day. Treatment may be repeated if dysentery recurs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control and treatment of colibacillosis in weanling swine caused by strains of <I>Escherichia coli</I> sensitive to gentamicin, and for control and treatment of swine dysentery associated with <I>Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdrawal period: 10 days. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4226, Jan. 27, 2012, as amended at 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016; 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019; 87 FR 10968, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1060" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.117" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1060   Glucose and glycine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each packet of powder contains 8.82 grams sodium chloride, 4.20 grams potassium phosphate, 0.5 gram citric acid anhydrous, 0.12 gram potassium citrate, 6.36 grams aminoacetic acid (glycine), and 44.0 grams glucose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in calves</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Dissolve each packet in 2 quarts of warm water and administer to each calf as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Scouring and/or dehydrated calves.</I> Feed 2 quarts of solution, twice daily for 2 days (four feedings). No milk or milk replacer should be fed during this period. For the next four feedings (days 3 and 4), use 1 quart of solution together with 1 quart of milk replacer. Thereafter, feed as normal.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Newly purchased calves.</I> Feed 2 quarts of solution instead of milk as the first feed upon arrival. For the next scheduled feeding, use 1 quart of solution mixed together with 1 quart of milk or milk replacer. Thereafter, feed as normal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of dehydration associated with diarrhea (scours); and as an early treatment at the first signs of scouring. It may also be used as followup treatment following intravenous fluid therapy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> The product should not be used in animals with severe dehydration (down, comatose, or in a state of shock). Such animals need intravenous therapy. A veterinarian should be consulted in severely scouring calves. The product is not nutritionally complete if administered by itself for long periods of time. It should not be administered beyond the recommended treatment period without the addition of milk or milk replacer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28821, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1084" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.118" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1084   Grapiprant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 20, 60, or 100 milligrams (mg) grapiprant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.9 mg/lb (2 mg/kg) once daily by mouth.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 36789, June 8, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 14587, Apr. 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.119" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1100   Griseofulvin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The powder complies with U.S.P. for griseofulvin, microsize.
</P>
<P>(2) Each bolus contains 2.5 grams griseofulvin.
</P>
<P>(3) Each tablet contains 125 or 500 milligrams griseofulvin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of products described in paragraph (a) for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use of the powder described in paragraph (a)(1) for use as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A) and (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount and indications for use.</I> (A) For equine ringworm infection caused by <I>Trichophyton equinum</I> or <I>Microsporum gypseum</I>, administer soluble powder described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section daily as a drench or as a top dressing on feed for not less than 10 days as follows: adults, 2.5 grams; yearlings, 1.25 to 2.5 grams; and foals, 1.25 grams.
</P>
<P>(B) For treating ringworm infection caused by <I>T. equinum</I>, administer boluses described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section daily for not less than 10 days as follows: adults, 1 bolus; yearlings, one-half to 1 bolus; and foals, one-half bolus.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) Dogs and cats: (i) <I>Amount.</I> 125- and 500-milligram tablets administered orally as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) Daily (single or divided) dose as follows: For animals weighing up to 6 pounds: 62.5 milligrams; for animals weighing 6 to 18 pounds: 125 milligrams; for animals weighing 18 to 36 pounds: 250 milligrams; for animals weighing 36 to 48 pounds: 375 milligrams; for animal weighing 48 to 75 pounds: 500 milligrams.
</P>
<P>(B) Weekly (single) dose: If experience indicates that treatment is more effective for the drug given in large doses, administer at intervals of 7 to 10 days, a dose equal to 10 milligrams/pound of body weight × body weight × number of days between treatments. Dosage should be adjusted according to response. Administer additional dose after the animal is free of infection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of fungal infections of the skin, hair, and claws caused by <I>Trichophyton mentagrophytes, T. rubrum, T. schoenleini, T. sulphurem, T. verrucosum, T. interdigitale, Epidermophyton floccosum, Microsporum gypseum, M. canis, M. audouini.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 42948, Sept. 29, 1976; 43 FR 28458, June 30, 1978; 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 54 FR 30205, July 19, 1989; 71 FR 38073, July 5, 2006; 77 FR 28253, May 14, 2012; 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1120" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.120" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1120   Haloxon oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1120a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.121" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1120a   Haloxon drench.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each packet contains 141.5 grams haloxon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Do not use any drug, insecticide, pesticide, or other chemical having cholinesterase-inhibiting activity either simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with haloxon. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.310 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Dissolve each packet in 32 fluid ounces of water and administer as follows: For animals weighing up to 100 pounds: 
<FR>1/2</FR> fluid ounce; for animals weighing 100 to 150 pounds: 
<FR>3/4</FR> fluid ounce; for animals weighing 150 to 200 pounds: 1 fluid ounce; for animals weighing 200 to 300 pounds: 1
<FR> 1/2</FR> fluid ounces; for animals weighing 300 to 450 pounds: 2 fluid ounces; for animals weighing 450 to 700 pounds: 3 fluid ounces; for animals weighing 700 to 1,000 pounds: 4 fluid ounces; for animals weighing 1,000 to 1,200 pounds: 5 fluid ounces; for animals weighing over 1,200 pounds: 6 fluid ounces. Retreat in 3 to 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of gastrointestinal roundworms of the genera <I>Haemonchus, Ostertagia,</I> <I>Trichostrongylus,</I> and <I>Cooperia.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat dairy animals of breeding age. Do not treat within 1 week of slaughter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 45 FR 10333, Feb. 15, 1980; 46 FR 48642, Oct. 2, 1981; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61624, Nov. 19, 1997; 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1120b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.122" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1120b   Haloxon boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains 10.1 grams of haloxon. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.310 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administered one bolus per 500 pounds body weight (35 to 50 milligrams per kilogram of body weight). Retreat in 3 to 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of gastrointestinal roundworms of the genera <I>Haemonchus, Ostertagia,</I> <I>Trichostrongylus,</I> and <I>Cooperia.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat dairy animals of breeding age or older. Do not treat within 1 week of slaughter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 44 FR 61591, Oct. 29, 1979; 46 FR 48642, Oct. 2, 1981; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1136" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.123" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1136   Ilunocitinib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 4.8, 6.4, 8.5, and 15 milligrams (mg) ilunocitinib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 0.27 to 0.36 mg ilunocitinib/lb (0.6 to 0.8 mg ilunocitinib/kg) body weight, once daily, with or without food.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pruritus associated with allergic dermatitis and control of atopic dermatitis in dogs at least 12 months of age.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1150" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.124" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1150   Imepitoin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 100 or 400 milligrams (mg) imepitoin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally twice daily, approximately 12 hours apart, at a dose of 13.6 mg per pound (30 mg/kg) of body weight. Initiate therapy starting 2 days prior to the day of the expected noise event and continuing through the noise event.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of noise aversion in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12494, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1156" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.125" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1156   Imidacloprid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 7.5 or 37.5 milligrams (mg) imidacloprid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer daily one 7.5-mg chewable tablet to dogs weighing 4 to 22 pounds (lb) or one 37.5-mg chewable table to dogs weighing 23 to 110 lb.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas and is indicated for the treatment of flea infestations on dogs and puppies 10 weeks of age and older and weighing 4 lb or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not give to puppies younger than 10 weeks of age or to dogs weighing less than 4 lb. Do not give more than one tablet a day.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 18775, Apr. 8, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1157" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.126" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1157   Iodinated casein.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 1-gram tablet contains 25 milligrams of iodinated casein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 017762 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 
<FR>1/5</FR> to 1 tablet per 10 pounds of body weight (equivalent to 0.5 to 2.5 milligrams of iodinated casein per pound of body weight).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For dogs for apparent decreased thyroid activity where the signs are alopecia, scaliness of the skin surface, loss of hair, seborrhea, thickening of the skin, hyperpigmentation, and lethargy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 22469, May 30, 1984, as amended at 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1158" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.127" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1158   Iodochlorhydroxyquin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains 10 grams of iodochlorhydroxyquin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600 (c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1 bolus (10 grams) daily for a 1,000-pound horse.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of equine diarrhea.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 8054, Feb. 25, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 41489, Oct. 11, 1985; 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1189" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.128" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1189   Itraconazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) of itraconazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 mg/kilogram (kg) (0.5 mL/kg) of body weight once daily on alternating weeks for 3 treatment cycles.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of dermatophytosis caused by <I>Microsporum canis</I> in cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 12169, Mar. 1, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 57996, Oct. 20, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1192" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.129" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1192   Ivermectin paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milligram (mg) of paste contains 0.0187 mg (1.87 percent) or 0.00153 mg (0.153 percent) of ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (e) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000010 for use of a 1.87 percent paste as in (e)(1) of this section and a 0.153 percent paste for use as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 051311, 054925, 058198, and 061133 for use of a 1.87 percent paste for use as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.344 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 micrograms per kilogram (91 micrograms per pound) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of Large Strongyles (adults): <I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (also early forms in blood vessels), <I>S. edentatus</I> (also tissue stages), <I>S. equinus</I>, <I>Triodontophorus</I> spp. Including <I>T. brevicauda</I> and <I>T. serratus</I>, and <I>Craterostomum acuticaudatum</I>; Small Strongyles (adults, including those resistant to some benzimidazole class compounds): <I>Coronocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C. coronatus</I>, <I>C. labiatus</I>, and <I>C. labratus</I>, <I>Cyathostomum</I> spp. Including <I>C. catinatum</I> and <I>C. pateratum</I>, <I>Cylicocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C. insigne</I>, <I>C. leptostomum</I>, <I>C. nassatus</I>, and <I>C. brevicapsulatus</I>, <I>Cylicodontophorus</I> spp., <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp. Including <I>C. calicatus</I>, <I>C. goldi</I>, <I>C. longibursatus</I>, and <I>C. minutus</I>, and <I>Petrovinema poculatum</I>; Small Strongyles (fourth-stage larvae); Pinworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae): <I>Oxyuris equi</I>; Ascarids (adults and third- and fourth-stage larvae): <I>Parascaris equorum</I>; Hairworms (adults): <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>; Large mouth Stomach Worms (adults): <I>Habronema muscae</I>; Bots (oral and gastric stages): <I>Gasterophilus</I> spp. Including <I>G. intestinalis</I> and <I>G. nasalis</I>; Lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae): <I>Dictyocaulus arnfieldi</I>; Intestinal Threadworms (adults): <I>Strongyloides westeri</I>; Summer Sores caused by <I>Habronema</I> and <I>Draschia</I> spp. cutaneous third-stage larvae; Dermatitis caused by neck threadworm microfilariae, <I>Onchocerca</I> sp.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For oral use only. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 23 milligrams per 250 pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used in cattle for the treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (including inhibited forms), <I>O. lyrata, Haemonchus placei, Trichostrongylus axei, T. colubriformis, Cooperia oncophora, C. punctata, Nematodirus helvetianus, Bunostomum phlebotomum, Strongyloides papillosus</I> (adults only), <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum, Trichuris ovis</I> (adults only)); lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>); grubs (first, second, and third instars) (<I>Hypoderma bovis, H. lineatum</I>); and sucking lice (<I>Linognathus vituli, Haematopinus eurysternus</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For oral use only. Do not treat cattle within 24 days of slaughter. Because withdrawal time in milk has not been established, do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 22275, May 29, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 27819, July 8, 1985; 51 FR 44449, Dec. 10, 1986; 53 FR 51273, Dec. 21, 1988; 62 FR 63270, Nov. 28, 1997; 65 FR 70661, Nov. 27, 2000; 67 FR 71820, Dec. 3, 2002; 68 FR 43294, July 22, 2003; 69 FR 59131, Oct. 4, 2004; 70 FR 8514, Feb. 22, 2005; 71 FR 40010, July 14, 2006; 71 FR 67298, Nov. 21, 2006; 73 FR 34184, June 17, 2008; 74 FR 6542, Feb. 10, 2009; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1193" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.130" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1193   Ivermectin tablets and chewables.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet or chewable contains 68, 136, or 272 micrograms (mcg) ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each chewable contains 55 or 165 mcg ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000010 for use of tablets or chewables described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d)(1) and chewables described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 051311 and 069043 for use of tablets described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs.</I> For use in dogs 6 weeks of age and older as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 6.0 mcg per kilogram (kg) of body weight (2.72 mcg per pound (lb)), minimum. Up to 25 lb, 68 mcg; 26 to 50 lb, 136 mcg; 51 to 100 lb, 272 mcg; over 100 lb, a combination of the appropriate tablets. Administer at monthly dosing intervals.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To prevent canine heartworm disease by eliminating the tissue stage of heartworm larvae (<I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>) for 1 month (30 days) after infection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats.</I> For use in cats 6 weeks of age and older as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Up to 2.3 kilograms (up to 5 lb), 55 mcg; 2.3 to 6.8 kilograms (5 to 15 lb), 165 mcg; over 6.8 kilograms (15 lb), a combination of the appropriate chewables (recommended minimum dose of 24 mcg/kg of body weight (10.9 mcg/lb)). Administer once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To prevent feline heartworm disease by eliminating the tissue stage of heartworm larvae <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> for a month (30 days) after infection, and for removal and control of adult and immature (L4) hookworms <I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I> and <I>A. braziliense.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 11230, Mar. 13, 2002, as amended at 67 FR 21996, May 2, 2002; 69 FR 43735, July 22, 2004; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1194" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.131" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1194   Ivermectin meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of meal contains 6 milligrams ivermectin (0.6 percent).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 017135 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 136 micrograms (mcg) ivermectin per pound (/lb) body weight (300 mcg/kilogram) as a single dose on approximately 2 lb grain or sweet feed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of Large Strongyles (adults): <I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (also early forms in blood vessels), <I>S.</I> <I>edentatus</I> (also tissue stages), <I>S.</I> <I>equinus</I>, <I>Triodontophorus</I> spp. Including <I>T.</I> <I>brevicauda</I> and <I>T.</I> <I>serratus</I>, and <I>Craterostomum acuticaudatum</I>; Small Strongyles (adults, including those resistant to some benzimidazole class compounds): <I>Coronocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C.</I> <I>coronatus</I>, <I>C.</I> <I>labiatus</I>, and <I>C.</I> <I>labratus</I>, <I>Cyathostomum</I> spp. Including <I>C.</I> <I>catinatum</I> and <I>C.</I> <I>pateratum</I>, <I>Cylicocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C.</I> <I>insigne</I>, <I>C.</I> <I>leptostomum</I>, <I>C.</I> <I>nassatus</I>, and <I>C.</I> <I>brevicapsulatus</I>, <I>Cylicodontophorus</I> spp., <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp. Including <I>C.</I> <I>calicatus</I>, <I>C.</I> <I>goldi</I>, <I>C.</I> <I>longibursatus</I>, and <I>C.</I> <I>minutus</I>, and <I>Petrovinema poculatum</I>; Small Strongyles (fourth-stage larvae); Pinworms (adults and fourth stage larvae): <I>Oxyuris equi</I>; Ascarids (adults and third- and fourth-stage larvae): <I>Parascaris equorum</I>; Hairworms (adults): <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>; Large Mouth Stomach Worms (adults): <I>Habronema muscae</I>; Bots (oral and gastric stages): G<I>asterophilus</I> spp. Including <I>G.</I> <I>intestinalis</I> and <I>G.</I> <I>nasalis</I>; Lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae): <I>Dictyocaulus arnfieldi</I>; Intestinal Threadworms (adults): <I>Strongyloides westeri</I>; Summer Sores caused by <I>Habronema</I> and <I>Draschia</I> spp. Cutaneous third-stage larvae; Dermatitis caused by neck threadworm microfilariae, <I>Onchocerca</I> sp.
</P>
<P><I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 1817, Jan. 11, 2005, as amended at 70 FR 19262, Apr. 13, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1195" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.132" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1195   Ivermectin liquid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter (mL) contains 10 milligrams (mg) ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL of micellar solution contains 0.8 mg ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 058005 and 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (e)(1)(ii)(A), and (e)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058829 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (e)(1)(ii)(B), and (e)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 000010 and 058829 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.344 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 micrograms (mcg) per kilogram (/kg) of body weight as a single dose by stomach tube or as an oral drench.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of:
</P>
<P>(A) Large Strongyles (adults): <I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (also early forms in blood vessels), <I>S. edentatus</I> (also tissue stages), <I>S. equinus</I>, <I>Triodontophorus</I> spp. Including <I>T. brevicauda</I> and <I>T. serratus</I>, and <I>Craterostomum acuticaudatum</I>; Small Strongyles (adults, including those resistant to some benzimidazole class compounds): <I>Coronocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C. coronatus</I>, <I>C. labiatus</I>, and <I>C. labratus</I>, <I>Cyathostomum</I> spp. Including <I>C. catinatum</I> and <I>C. pateratum</I>, <I>Cylicocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C. insigne</I>, <I>C. leptostomum</I>, <I>C. nassatus</I>, and <I>C. brevicapsulatus</I>, <I>Cylicodontophorus</I> spp., <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp. Including <I>C. calicatus</I>, <I>C. goldi</I>, <I>C. longibursatus</I>, and <I>C. minutus</I>, and <I>Petrovinema poculatum</I>; Small Strongyles (fourth-stage larvae); Pinworms (adults and fourth stage larvae): <I>Oxyuris equi</I>; Ascarids (adults and third- and fourth-stage larvae): <I>Parascaris equorum</I>; Hairworms (adults): <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>; Large mouth Stomach Worms (adults): <I>Habronema muscae</I>; Bots (oral and gastric stages): <I>Gasterophilus</I> spp. Including <I>G. intestinalis</I> and <I>G. nasalis</I>; Lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae): <I>Dictyocaulus arnfieldi</I>; Intestinal Threadworms (adults), <I>Strongyloides westeri</I>; Summer Sores caused by <I>Habronema</I> and <I>Draschia</I> spp. Cutaneous third-stage larvae; Dermatitis caused by neck threadworm microfilariae, <I>Onchocerca</I> sp.
</P>
<P>(B) Large Strongyles (<I>Strongylus equinus</I> (adult), <I>S. vulgaris</I> (adult and arterial larval stages), <I>S. endentatus</I> (adult and migrating tissue stages), <I>Triodontophorus</I> spp. (adult)); Small Strongyles including those resistant to some benzimidazole class compounds (<I>Cyathostomum</I> spp. (adult and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Cylicocyclus</I> spp., <I>Cylicodontophorus</I> spp., <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp.); Pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I> (adult and fourth-stage larvae)); Ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I> (adult and third- and fourth-stage larvae)); Hairworms (<I>Trichostongylus axei</I> ( adult)); Large mouth Stomach Worms (<I>Habronema muscae</I> (adult)); Stomach Bots (<I>Gastrophilus</I> spp. (oral and gastric stages)); Lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus arnfieldi</I> (adult and fourth-stage larvae)); intestinal threadworms (<I>Strongyloides westeri</I> (adult)); Summer Sores caused by <I>Habronema</I> and <I>Draschia</I> spp. Cutaneous third-stage larvae; and Dermatitis caused by neck threadworm microfilariae (<I>Onchocerca</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 mcg/kg (3 mL/26 pounds) of body weight as a single dose oral drench.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of the adult and fourth-stage larvae of gastrointestinal roundworms (<I>Haemonchus contortus, H. placei</I> (adults only), <I>Ostertagia circumcincta, Trichostrongylus axei, T. colubriformis, Cooperia oncophora</I> (adults only), <I>C. curticei, Oesophagostomum columbianum, O. venulosum</I> (adults only), <I>Nematodirus battus, N. spathiger, S. papillosus</I> (adults only), <I>Chabertia ovina</I> (adult only), <I>Trichuris ovis</I> (adults only)); lungworms (<I>D. filaria</I>); and all larval stages of the nasal bot <I>Oestrus ovis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in sheep only. Do not use in other animal species as severe adverse reactions, including fatalities in dogs, may result. Do not treat sheep within 11 days of slaughter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 50597, Aug. 5, 2002, as amended at 69 FR 57173, Sept. 24, 2004; 71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006; 71 FR 38072, July 5, 2006; 72 FR 9456, Feb. 21, 2008; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 10964, Feb. 27, 2014; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1196" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.133" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1196   Ivermectin and pyrantel tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains either 68 micrograms (µg) of ivermectin and 57 milligrams (mg) of pyrantel (as pamoate salt), or 136 µg and 114 mg, or 272 µg and 227 mg, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010, 051311, and 053701 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a minimum of 6 µg of ivermectin and 5 mg of pyrantel per kilogram (2.72 µg and 2.27 mg per pound) of body weight monthly.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To prevent canine heartworm disease by eliminating the tissue larval stages of <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> for up to a month (30 days) after infection and treatment and control of adult roundworms <I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina,</I> and adult hookworms <I>Ancylostoma caninum, A. braziliense,</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 8542, Feb. 16, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 15186, Apr. 5, 1996; 61 FR 59004, Nov. 20, 1996; 62 FR 63270, Nov. 28, 1997; 66 FR 35756, July 9, 2001; 67 FR 21996, May 2, 2002; 68 FR 55823, Sept. 29, 2003; 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1197" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.134" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1197   Ivermectin sustained-release bolus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each sustained-release bolus contains 1.72 grams of ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances. See § 556.344 of this chapter.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in ruminating calves</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one bolus per calf weighing at least 275 pounds (lb) (125 kilograms (kg)) and not more than 660 lb (300 kg) on the day of administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications.</I> For treatment and control, throughout the grazing season (approximately 130 days), of gastrointestinal roundworms <I>Haemonchus placei, Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (including inhibited fourth-stage larvae), <I>Trichostrongylus axei, T. colubriformis, Cooperia</I> spp., <I>Nematodirus helvetianus, Bunostomum phlebotomum, Oesophagostomum radiatum;</I> lungworms <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus;</I> grubs <I>Hypoderma</I> spp.; sucking lice <I>Linognathus vituli, Solenopotes capillatus;</I> mange mites <I>Psoroptes ovis, Sarcoptes scabiei,</I> and ticks <I>Amblyomma americanum.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> The bolus was specifically designed for use in cattle; do not use in other animal species. Calves must be ruminating and older than 12 weeks of age. Do not administer to calves weighing less than 275 lb (125 kg). Do not administer a damaged bolus. Because a milk withdrawal time has not been established, do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age. Do not slaughter cattle within 180 days of treatment. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67452, Dec. 23, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 63270, Nov. 28, 1997; 65 FR 45876, July 26, 2000; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1198" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.135" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1198   Ivermectin and praziquantel paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milligram (mg) of paste contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 0.0155 mg (1.55 percent) ivermectin and 0.0775 mg (7.75 percent) praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(2) 0.0187 mg (1.87 percent) ivermectin and 0.1403 mg (14.03 percent) praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (d) of this section.—
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000010 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i), (d)(2)(i) and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 051311 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii), (d)(2)(ii), and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) 200 micrograms (mcg) per kilogram (/kg) ivermectin (91 mcg per pound (/lb)) and 1 mg/kg praziquantel (454 mcg/lb) body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) 200 mcg/kg ivermectin (91 mcg/lb) and 1.5 mg/kg praziquantel (681 mcg/lb) body weight.
</P>
<P>(iii) 200 mcg/kg ivermectin (91 mcg/lb) and 2.5 mg/kg praziquantel (1.14 mg/lb).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) For treatment and control of the following parasites: Tapeworms—<I>Anoplocephala perfoliata;</I> Large Strongyles (adults)—<I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (also early forms in blood vessels), <I>S. edentatus</I> (also tissue stages), <I>S. equinus, Triodontophorus</I> spp. Including <I>T. brevicauda</I> and <I>T. serratus,</I> and <I>Craterostomum acuticaudatum;</I> Small Strongyles (adults, including those resistant to some benzimidazole class compounds)—<I>Coronocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C. coronatus, C. labiatus,</I> and <I>C. labratus; Cyathostomum</I> spp. Including <I>C. catinatum</I> and <I>C. pateratum; Cylicocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C. insigne, C. leptostomum,</I> <I>C. nassatus,</I> and <I>C. brevicapsulatus; Cylicodontophorus</I> spp.; <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp. Including <I>C. calicatus, C. goldi,</I> <I>C. longibursatus,</I> and <I>C. minutus,</I> and <I>Petrovinema poculatum;</I> Small Strongyles—fourth-stage larvae; Pinworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Oxyuris equi;</I> Ascarids (adults and third- and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Parascaris equorum;</I> Hairworms (adults)—<I>Trichostrongylus axei;</I> Large-mouth Stomach Worms (adults)—<I>Habronema muscae;</I> Bots (oral and gastric stages)—<I>Gasterophilus</I> spp. Including <I>G. intestinalis</I> and <I>G. nasalis;</I> Lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Dictyocaulus arnfieldi;</I> Intestinal Threadworms (adults)—<I>Strongyloides westeri;</I> Summer Sores caused by <I>Habronema</I> and <I>Draschia</I> spp. Cutaneous third-stage larvae; Dermatitis caused by neck threadworm microfilariae of <I>Onchocerca</I> sp.
</P>
<P>(ii) For treatment and control of the following parasites: Tapeworms—<I>Anoplocephala perfoliata;</I> Large Strongyles (adults)—<I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (also early forms in blood vessels), <I>S. edentatus</I> (also tissue stages), <I>S. equinus, Triodontophorus</I> spp.; Small Strongyles (adults, including those resistant to some benzimidazole class compounds)—<I>Cyathostomum</I> spp.; <I>Cylicocyclus</I> spp.; <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp., <I>Cylicodontophorus</I> spp.; Small Strongyles—fourth-stage larvae; Pinworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Oxyuris equi;</I> Ascarids (adults and third- and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Parascaris equorum;</I> Hairworms (adults)—<I>Trichostrongylus axei;</I> Large-mouth Stomach Worms (adults)—<I>Habronema muscae;</I> Bots (oral and gastric stages)—<I>Gasterophilus</I> spp.; Lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Dictyocaulus arnfieldi;</I> Intestinal Threadworms (adults)—<I>Strongyloides westeri;</I> Summer Sores caused by <I>Habronema</I> and <I>Draschia</I> spp. Cutaneous third-stage larvae; Dermatitis caused by neck threadworm microfilariae, <I>Onchocerca</I> sp.
</P>
<P>(iii) For treatment and control of the following parasites in horses over 5 months of age: Tapeworms—<I>Anoplocephala perfoliata;</I> Large Strongyles (adults)—<I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (also early forms in blood vessels), <I>S. edentatus</I> (also tissue stages), <I>S. equinus, Triodontophorus</I> spp. Including <I>T. brevicauda</I> and <I>T. serratus,</I> and <I>Craterostomum acuticaudatum;</I> Small Strongyles (adults, including those resistant to some benzimidazole class compounds)—<I>Coronocyclus</I> spp. Including <I>C. coronatus, C. labiatus,</I> and <I>C. labratus; Cyathostomum</I> spp. Including <I>C. catinatum</I> and <I>C. pateratum; Cylicocyclus</I> spp. including <I>C. insigne, C. leptostomum,</I> <I>C. nassatus,</I> and <I>C. brevicapsulatus; Cylicodontophorus</I> spp.; <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp. including <I>C. calicatus, C. goldi,</I> <I>C. longibursatus,</I> and <I>C. minutus,</I> and <I>Petrovinema poculatum;</I> Small Strongyles—fourth-stage larvae; Pinworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Oxyuris equi;</I> Ascarids (adults and third- and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Parascaris equorum;</I> Hairworms (adults)—<I>Trichostrongylus axei;</I> Large-mouth Stomach Worms (adults)—<I>Habronema muscae;</I> Bots (oral and gastric stages)—<I>Gasterophilus</I> spp. including <I>G. intestinalis</I> and <I>G. nasalis;</I> Lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae)—<I>Dictyocaulus arnfieldi;</I> Intestinal Threadworms (adults)—<I>Strongyloides westeri;</I> Summer Sores caused by <I>Habronema</I> and <I>Draschia</I> spp. cutaneous third-stage larvae; Dermatitis caused by neck threadworm microfilariae of <I>Onchocerca</I> sp.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For oral use only. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 55309, Sept. 25, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 49808, Aug. 12, 2004; 70 FR 65835, Nov. 1, 2005; 79 FR 37619, July 2, 2014; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1199" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.136" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1199   Ivermectin, pyrantel, and praziquantel tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet or soft chewable tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 34 micrograms (mcg) ivermectin, 28.5 milligrams (mg) pyrantel pamoate, and 28.5 mg praziquantel;
</P>
<P>(2) 68 mcg ivermectin, 57 mg pyrantel pamoate, and 57 mg praziquantel;
</P>
<P>(3) 136 mcg ivermectin, 114 mg pyrantel pamoate, and 114 mg praziquantel; or
</P>
<P>(4) 272 mcg ivermectin, 228 mg pyrantel pamoate, and 228 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer monthly according to body weight as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) 6 to 12 lb: one tablet as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) 12.1 to 25 lb: one tablet as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) 25.1 to 50 lb: one tablet as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) 50.1 to 100 lb: one tablet as described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Greater than 100 lb: use the appropriate combination of tablets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To prevent canine heartworm disease by eliminating the tissue stage of heartworm larvae (<I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>) for 1 month (30 days) after infection and for the treatment and control of roundworm (<I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I>), hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Uncinaria stenocephala, Ancylostoma braziliense</I>) and tapeworm (<I>Dipylidium caninum, Taenia pisiformis</I>) infections.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 65052, Nov. 7, 2006, as amended at 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 14587, Apr. 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.137" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1200   Ivermectin, fenbendazole, and praziquantel tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains either:
</P>
<P>(1) 68 micrograms (µg) ivermectin, 1.134 grams fenbendazole, and 57 milligrams (mg) praziquantel; or
</P>
<P>(2) 27 µg ivermectin, 454 mg fenbendazole, and 23 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer tablets to provide 6 µg per kilogram (/kg) ivermectin, 100 mg/kg fenbendazole, and 5 mg/kg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of adult <I>Toxocara canis</I> (roundworm), <I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> (hookworm), <I>Trichuris vulpis</I> (whipworm), and <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> (tapeworm), and for the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> in adult dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 33692, June 13, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1204" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.138" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1204   Kanamycin, bismuth subcarbonate, activated <E T="7462">attapulgite.</E></HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each 5 milliliters (mL) of suspension contains 100 milligrams (mg) kanamycin (as the sulfate), 250 mg bismuth subcarbonate, and 500 mg activated attapulgite (aluminum magnesium silicate).
</P>
<P>(2) Each tablet contains 100 mg kanamycin (as the sulfate), 250 mg bismuth subcarbonate, and 500 mg activated attapulgite.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 mL of suspension or 1 tablet per 20 pounds body weight every 8 hours. Maximum dose: 5 mL of suspension or 3 tablets every 8 hours. Dogs under 10 pounds: 2.5 mL of suspension or 
<FR>1/2</FR> tablet every 8 hours. A recommended initial loading dose should be twice the amount of a single dose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by organisms susceptible to kanamycin and the symptomatic relief of the associated diarrhea.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 53 FR 27851, July 25, 1988; 56 FR 8710, Mar. 1, 1991; 64 FR 403, Jan. 5, 1999; 71 FR 43968, Aug. 3, 2006; 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.139" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242   Levamisole.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.140" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242a   Levamisole powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each package of powder contains 9.075, 11.7, 18.15, 46.8, 362.7, or 544.5 grams (g) levamisole hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of 46.8- and 544.5-g packages as in paragraph (e)(1)(i), (e)(1)(ii)(B), and (e)(1)(iii) of this section; for 11.7-, 46.8-, and 544.5-g packages as in paragraph (e)(2)(i), (e)(2)(ii)(B), and (e)(2)(iii) of this section; and for an 18.15-g package as in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of a 46.8-g package as in paragraph (e)(1)(i), (e)(1)(ii)(A), and (e)(1)(iii) of this section; for 11.7- and 46.8-g packages as in paragraph (e)(2)(i), (e)(2)(ii)(A), and (e)(2)(iii) of this section; and for 9.075- and 18.15-g packages as in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 016592 for use of 46.8- and 544.5-g packages as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (e)(1)(ii)(B), and (e)(1)(iii) and (e)(2)(i), (e)(2)(ii)(B), and (e)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 061133 for use of 46.8-, 362.7-, and 544.5-g packages as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (e)(1)(ii)(B), (e)(1)(iii), (e)(2)(i), (e)(2)(ii)(B), and (e)(2)(iii) of this section; and for use of an 18.15-g package as in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.350 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as an anthelmintic as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 8 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg) body weight as a drench.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) Effective against the following nematode infections: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus, Ostertagia</I>); intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodirus, Bunostomum, Oesophagostomum</I>); and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>).
</P>
<P>(B) Effective against the following adult nematode infections: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus placei, Ostertagia ostertagi, Trichostrongylus axei</I>); intestinal worms (<I>T. longispicularis, Cooperia oncophora, C. punctata, Nematodirus spathiger, Bunostomum phlebotomum, Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>); and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter for food within 48 hours of treatment. Not for use in dairy animals of breeding age. Conditions of constant helminth exposure may require retreatment 2 to 4 weeks after the first treatment. Consult your veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 8 mg/kg body weight as a drench.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) Effective against the following nematode infections: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus, Ostertagia</I>); intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodirus, Bunostomum, Oesophagostomum, Chabertia</I>); and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>).
</P>
<P>(B) Effective against the following adult nematode infections: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus contortus, Trichostrongylus axei, Teladorsagia circumcincta</I>); intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis, Cooperia curticei, Nematodirus spathiger, Bunostomum trigonocephalum, Oesophagostomum columbianum, Chabertia ovina</I>), and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus filaria</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter for food within 72 hours of treatment. Conditions of constant helminth exposure may require retreatment 2 to 4 weeks after the first treatment. Consult veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 8 mg/kg body weight in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Effective against the following nematode infections: Large roundworms (<I>Ascaris suum</I>), nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum</I> spp.), intestinal thread worms (<I>Strongyloides ransomi</I>) and lungworms (<I>Metastrongylus spp.</I> ).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer within 72 hours of slaughter for food. Pigs maintained under conditions of constant exposure to worms may require retreatment within 4 to 5 weeks after the first treatment. Consult your veterinarian before administering to sick swine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 9753, Mar. 2, 2004, as amended at 69 FR 33839, June 17, 2004; 70 FR 2353, Jan. 13, 2005; 77 FR 28253, May 14, 2012; 78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.141" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242b   Levamisol boluses or oblets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains 2.19 grams levamisol hydrochloride. Each oblet contains 0.184 grams levamisol hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required labeling.</I> Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.350 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 2.19-gram boluses as a single dose as follows: 250 to 450 pounds, 
<FR>1/2</FR> bolus; 450 to 750 pounds, 1 bolus; and 750 to 1,050 pounds, 1
<FR>1/2</FR> boluses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Anthelmintic effective against the following nematode infections: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus,</I> <I>Ostertagia</I>), intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia,</I> <I>Nematodirus, Bunostomum,</I> <I>Oesophagostomum</I>), and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Conditions of constant helminth exposure may require re-treatment within 2 to 4 weeks after the first treatment. Do not slaughter for food within 48 hours of treatment. Not for use in dairy animals of breeding age. Consult veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally one 0.184-gram oblet for each 50 pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Anthelmintic effective against the following nematode infections: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus,</I> <I>Ostertagia</I>), intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia,</I> <I>Nematodirus, Bunostomum,</I> <I>Oesophagostomum, Chabertia</I>), and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Conditions of constant helminth exposure may require re-treatment within 2 to 4 weeks after the first treatment. Do not slaughter for food within 72 hours of treatment. Consult a veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28822, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.142" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242c   Levamisol and piperazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each ounce of solution contains 0.36 gram of levamisole hydrochloride and piperazine dihydrochloride equivalent to 3.98 grams of piperazine base.
</P>
<P>(2) A soluble powder which when constituted with water contains in each fluid ounce 0.45 gram of levamisole hydrochloride and piperazine dihydrochloride equivalent to 5.0 grams of piperazine base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Aqueous solution: administer by stomach tube or drench 1 fluid ounce per 100 pounds of body weight. Reconstituted soluble powder: administer by stomach tube 1 fluid ounce per 125 pounds of body weight. If reinfection occurs, re-treat animals at 6- to 8-week intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> An anthelmintic effective against infections of large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris, S. edentatus</I>), small strongyles (<I>Cylicocercus</I> spp., <I>Cylicocyclus</I> spp., <I>Cylicodontophorus</I> spp., <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp., <I>Cylicotetrapedon</I> spp.), ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.143" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242d   Levamisole resinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is levamisole adsorbed on a resin, in a concentration equivalent to 10 percent levamisole hydrochloride. Each 2.05-ounce (58.1 gram) packet contains levamisole equivalent to 5.806 grams of levamisole hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043781 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.350 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> In swine it is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> The equivalent of 8 milligrams per kilogram of body weight, as a single dose, mixed in the animal's ration. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal of and control of the following nematode infections: large roundworms (<I>Ascaris suum</I>), nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum</I> spp.), lungworms (<I>Metastrongylus</I> spp.), intestinal threadworms (<I>Strongyloides ransomi</I>), and swine kidney worms (<I>Stephanurus dentatum</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For pigs from weaning to market weight, mix one 58.1-gram packet of levamisole resinate containing the equivalent of 10-percent levamisole hydrochloride in 40 pounds of feed and administer 1 pound of medicated feed per 40 pounds of body weight as sole ration. For breeding swine, mix 1 packet of the 10-percent resinate in 16 pounds of feed and administer 1 pound of medicated feed per 100 pounds of body weight as sole ration. Administer as single doses. Withhold regular feed overnight and administer medicated feed the following morning. Do not withhold water during fasting. Do not treat within 72 hours of slaughter. Salivation or muzzle foam may be observed. The reaction will disappear a short time after feeding. If pigs are infected with mature lungworms, coughing and vomiting may be observed. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 18171, Apr. 28, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 3574, Jan. 18, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.144" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242e   Levamisole hydrochloride effervescent tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 907 milligrams of levamisole hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.350 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used for swine as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> The equivalent of 8 milligrams of levamisole hydrochloride per kilogram of body weight, as a single dose. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> See § 520.1242a(f)(3)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Withholding water from pigs before treatment is not necessary. Add one tablet for each 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons of water; mix thoroughly. Allow 1 gallon of medicated water for each 100 pounds body weight of pigs to be treated. No other source of water should be offered. After pigs have consumed medicated water, resume use of regular water. Pigs maintained under conditions of constant worm exposure may require re-treatment within 4 to 5 weeks. Consult your veterinarian before administering to sick swine. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. Do not administer within 72 hours of slaughter for food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 6087, Jan. 25, 1980, as amended at 67 FR 63055, Oct. 10, 2002; 78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242f" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.145" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242f   Levamisol gel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of gel contains 115 milligrams (11.5 percent) levamisol hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.350 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Eight milligrams of levamisole hydrochloride per kilogram of body weight, as a single oral dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Anthelmintic effective against the following nematode infections: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus, Ostertagia</I>), intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodirus, Bunostomum, Oesophagostomum</I>), and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Conditions of constant helminth exposure may require re-treatment within 2 to 4 weeks after the first treatment; do not administer to cattle within 6 days of slaughter for food; do not administer to dairy animals of breeding age; consult veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Breeding swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Eight milligrams per kilogram of body weight (3.6 milligrams per pound) as a single oral dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditions of use.</I> For treating breeding swine infected with the following nematodes: Large roundworms (<I>Ascaris suum</I>), nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum</I> spp.), lungworms (<I>Metastrongylus</I> spp.), intestinal threadworms (<I>Strongyloides ransomi</I>), and kidney worms (<I>Stephanurus dentatus</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> May require retreatment in 4 to 5 weeks. Do not use within 11 days of slaughter for food. Consult your veterinarian for assistance before using in severely debilitated animals and in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 22517, May 25, 1982; 47 FR 30242, July 13, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 11429, Mar. 18, 1983; 51 FR 29215, Aug. 15, 1986; 67 FR 63055, Oct. 10, 2002; 78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1242g" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.146" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1242g   Levamisole resinate and famphur paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a paste containing 11.6 percent levamisole resinate (50 percent potency) and 23.6 percent famphur. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Do not use any cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, insecticides, or chemicals on cattle simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with this product. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.273 and 556.350 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 8 milligrams of levamisole hydrochloride (equivalent) and 30 milligrams of famphur activity per kilogram of body weight. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of cattle infected with the following parasites: Stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus, Ostertagia</I>), intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodirus, Bunostomum, Oesophagostomum</I>), lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>), cattle grubs (<I>Hypoderma</I>), biting lice (<I>Bovicola</I>), and sucking lice (<I>Linognathus, Solenoptes</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Drug is not effective against lice eggs. Conditions of constant helminth and ectoparasitic exposure may require retreatment within 2 to 4 weeks after first treatment. Do not administer to cattle within 19 days of slaughter. Do not administer to dairy animals of breeding age. Do not use in calves less than 3 months old, or in debilitated animals. Do not treat Brahman bulls. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23757, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 1353, Jan. 13, 1989; 57 FR 7652, Mar. 4, 1992; 62 FR 55160, Oct. 23, 1997; 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1248" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.147" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1248   Levothyroxine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 0.1, 0.2, 0.3, 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 0.7, 0.8, or 1.0 milligrams (mg) levothyroxine sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 059051 and 061690 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by mouth as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) No. 061690: 0.1 mg/10 pounds (lb) body weight (0.022 mg/kilogram (kg)) as a single dose every 24 hours or as a divided dose every 12 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) No. 059051: 0.1 mg/10 lb (0.01 mg/lb, 0.022 mg/kg) body weight twice daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For replacement therapy for diminished thyroid function in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 57996, Oct. 20, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1263" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.148" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1263   Lincomycin.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1263a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.149" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1263a   Lincomycin tablets and syrup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each ounce of syrup contains lincomycin hydrochloride equivalent to either 25 or 50 milligrams (mg) lincomycin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each tablet contains lincomycin hydrochloride equivalent to either 25 or 50 mg lincomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 10 mg per pound of body weight every 12 hours, or 7 mg per pound of body weight every 8 hours, for up to 12 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For infections caused by gram-positive organisms which are sensitive to its action, particularly streptococci and staphylococci.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1263b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.150" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1263b   Lincomycin hydrochloride soluble powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of soluble powder contains lincomycin hydrochloride equivalent to 0.4 grams of lincomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 061133 and 066104 for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592 and 076475 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See § 556.360 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer at a dose rate of 250 milligrams (mg) of lincomycin per gallon of drinking water. In clinical studies, this dose rate provided an average of 3.8 mg of lincomycin per pound of body weight per day. The drug should be administered for a minimum of 5 consecutive days beyond the disappearance of symptoms (bloody stools) up to a maximum of 10 consecutive days. If water treatment is discontinued prior to this time, a lincomycin treatment program may be continued with lincomycin Type A medicated article at 100 grams lincomycin per ton of complete feed as the sole ration according to label directions. A dose of 3.8 mg lincomycin per pound of body weight may be maintained by medicating the drinking water at a concentration of 250 mg per gallon of drinking water when pigs are consuming 1.5 gallons per 100 lb of body weight per day. Under these circumstances the concentration of lincomycin required in medicated water may be adjusted to compensate for variations in age and weight of animals, the nature and severity of disease symptoms, environmental temperature and humidity, each of which affects water consumption. For use in automatic water proportioner to deliver 1 ounce of stock solution per gallon of drinking water. After a treatment program is discontinued, a control program for swine dysentery may be followed by feeding lincomycin Type A medicated article at 40 grams lincomycin per ton of complete feed as the sole ration.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of swine dysentery (bloody scours) in swine. Not for use in pregnant swine or swine intended for breeding.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Discard medicated drinking water if not used within 2 days. Fresh stock should be prepared daily. Do not use the water treatment and the feed treatment simultaneously. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to water containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. If clinical signs of bloody scours (watery, mucoid, or bloody stools) have not improved during the first 6 days of medication, discontinue treatment and redetermine the diagnosis. On rare occasions, some pigs may show reddening of the skin, swelling of the anus, and irritable behavior. These conditions have been self-correcting within five to seven days without discontinuing the lincomycin treatment. The safety of lincomycin has not been demonstrated for pregnant swine or swine intended for breeding. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Broiler chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer at a dose rate of 64 mg of lincomycin per gallon of drinking water. Start medication as soon as the diagnosis of necrotic enteritis is determined. The drug should be administered for 7 consecutive days. After water medication is discontinued, a control program for necrotic enteritis may be followed by feeding lincomycin Type A medicated article at 2 grams lincomycin per ton of complete feed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of necrotic enteritis caused by <I>Clostridium perfringens</I> susceptible to lincomycin in broiler chickens.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in laying hens or breeder chickens. Discard medicated drinking water if not used within 2 days. Fresh stock should be prepared daily. Do not use the water treatment and the feed treatment simultaneously. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to water containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Honey bees</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 100 mg lincomycin per hive once weekly for 3 weeks. Mix 250 mg LINCOMIX Soluble Powder (100 mg lincomycin) with 20 g confectioners'/powder sugar and dust over the top bars of the brood chamber.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of American foulbrood (<I>Paenibacillus larvae</I>) in honey bees.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> The drug should be fed early in the spring or late in the fall and consumed by the bees before the main honey flow begins to avoid contamination of production honey. Complete treatments at least 4 weeks before main honey flow. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3966, Jan. 28, 1983, as amended at 55 FR 3209, Jan. 31, 1990; 60 FR 14217, Mar. 16, 1995; 62 FR 65020, Dec. 10, 1997; 64 FR 13341, Mar. 18, 1999; 64 FR 13508, Mar. 19, 1999; 64 FR 66382, Nov. 26, 1999; 65 FR 10705, Feb. 29, 2000; 67 FR 17284, Apr. 10, 2002; 67 FR 71819, Dec. 3, 2002; 67 FR 78356, Dec. 24, 2002; 68 FR 3817, Jan. 27, 2003; 70 FR 1818, Jan. 11, 2005; 77 FR 20988, Apr. 9, 2012; 77 FR 29217, May 17, 2012; 78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016; 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019. Redesignated at 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023; 91 FR 20340, Apr. 16, 2026; 91 FR 33071, June 3, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1265" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.151" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1265   Lincomycin and spectinomycin powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The following salts of lincomycin and spectinomycin are present in a soluble powder in the ratio of 1 to 2 on the basis of equivalency of lincomycin base to equivalency of spectinomycin base:
</P>
<P>(1) Lincomycin hydrochloride monohydrate and spectinomycin sulfate tetrahydrate.
</P>
<P>(2) Lincomycin hydrochloride monohydrate and spectinomycin dihydrochloride pentahydrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592, 061133, and 066104 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.360 and 556.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in chickens</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2 grams of antibiotic activity per gallon of drinking water; administer as the sole source of water for the first 5 to 7 days of life.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the control of airsacculitis caused by either <I>Mycoplasma synoviae</I> or <I>M. gallisepticum</I> susceptible to lincomycin-spectinomycin and complicated chronic respiratory disease (air sac infection) caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and <I>M. gallisepticum</I> susceptible to lincomycin-spectinomycin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 13220, Mar. 22, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 40881, July 15, 2005; 71 FR 71038, Dec. 8, 2006; 77 FR 56770, Sept. 14, 2012; 78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016; 83 FR 48945, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8972, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1284" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.152" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1284   Liothyronine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 60 or 120 micrograms (µg) liothyronine as the sodium salt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally to dogs at levels up to 12.8 µg per kilogram (/kg) of body weight per day. Dosage should be adjusted according to the severity of the condition and the response of the patient. Dosage at the total replacement level (12.8 µg/kg of body weight) should be considered for initiating therapy and then titrated downward for optimum maintenance effect. Twice daily administration is recommended.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of hypothyroidism in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1286" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.153" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1286   Lotilaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in dogs: 56.25, 112.5, 225, 450, or 900 milligrams (mg) lotilaner; or
</P>
<P>(2) For use in cats: 12 or 48 mg lotilaner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once a month at the recommended minimum dosage of 9 mg/lb (20 mg/kg).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas, and for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>), and the treatment and control of tick infestations (<I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (longhorned tick)) for one month in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older, and weighing 4.4 pounds or greater. For the prevention of <I>Borrelia burgdorferi</I> infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> vector ticks.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once a month at the recommended minimum dosage of 2.7 mg/lb (6 mg/kg).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas, and for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) for 1 month in cats and kittens 8 weeks of age and older, and weighing 2.0 pounds or greater; and for the treatment and control of <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick) for 1 month in cats and kittens 6 months of age and older, and weighing 2.0 pounds or greater.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021; 91 FR 20341, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1287" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.154" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1287   Lotilaner, moxidectin, praziquantel, and pyrantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 56.25 milligrams (mg) lotilaner, 0.056 mg moxidectin, 14.25 mg praziquantel, and 14.25 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(2) 112.5 mg lotilaner, 0.113 mg moxidectin, 28.5 mg praziquantel, and 28.5 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(3) 225 mg lotilaner, 0.225 mg moxidectin, 57 mg praziquantel, and 57 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(4) 450 mg lotilaner, 0.45 mg moxidectin, 114 mg praziquantel, and 114 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt); or
</P>
<P>(5) 900 mg lotilaner, 0.9 mg moxidectin, 228 mg praziquantel, and 228 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once a month, at the minimum dosage of 9 mg/lb (20 mg/kg) lotilaner, 0.009 mg/lb (0.02 mg/kg) moxidectin, 2.28 mg/lb (5 mg/kg) praziquantel, and 2.28 mg/lb (5 mg/kg) pyrantel (as pamoate salt).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and for the treatment and control of roundworm (immature adult and adult <I>Toxocara cani</I>s and adult <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>), hookworm (fourth stage larvae, immature adult, and adult <I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and adult <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>), and tapeworm (<I>Dipylidium caninum, Taenia pisiformis,</I> and <I>Echinococcus granulosus</I>) infections. Kills adult fleas and is indicated for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and the treatment and control of tick infestations (<I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (longhorned tick)) for one month in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older, and weighing 3.3 pounds or greater. For the prevention of <I>Borrelia burgdorferi</I> infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> vector ticks.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 6800, Jan. 21, 2025, as amended at 90 FR 40969, Aug. 22, 2025; 91 FR 20341, Apr. 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1288" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.155" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1288   Lufenuron tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) Tablets containing 45, 90, 204.9, or 409.8 milligrams (mg) lufenuron for use as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (c)(1)(ii)(A), (c)(1)(iii), (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii)(A), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Flavored tablets containing 45, 90, 204.9, or 409.8 milligrams (mg) lufenuron for use as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (c)(1)(ii)(B), and (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Flavored tablets containing 90 or 204.9 mg lufenuron for use as in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii)(A) or (c)(2)(ii)(B), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Flavored tablets containing 135 or 270 mg lufenuron for use as in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii)(A), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Minimum of 10 mg lufenuron per kilogram (4.5 mg per pound (lb)) of body weight, once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) For the prevention and control of flea populations.
</P>
<P>(B) The concurrent use of flavored lufenuron tablets described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) of this section with nitenpyram tablets as in § 520.1510(d)(1) of this chapter is indicated to kill adult fleas and prevent flea eggs from hatching.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in dogs and puppies 4 weeks of age and older.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Minimum of 30 mg lufenuron per kilogram (13.6 mg/lb) of body weight, once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) For the control of flea populations.
</P>
<P>(B) The concurrent use of flavored lufenuron tablets described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section with nitenpyram tablets as in § 520.1510(d)(2) of this chapter is indicated to kill adult fleas and prevent flea eggs from hatching.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in cats and kittens 4 weeks of age and older.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 51905, Aug. 29, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1289" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.156" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1289   Lufenuron suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each individual dose pack contains either 135 or 270 milligrams of lufenuron.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Minimum of 13.6 milligrams per pound of body weight (30 milligrams per kilogram). Recommended dose of 135 milligrams for up to 10 pounds of body weight or 270 milligrams for 11 to 20 pounds. Cats over 20 pounds are provided the appropriate combination of packs. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of flea populations. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For oral use in cats 6 weeks of age or older, once a month, mixed with food. Administer in conjunction with a full meal to ensure adequate absorption. Treat all cats in the household to ensure maximum benefits. Because the drug has no affect on adult fleas, the concurrent use of insecticides that kill adults may be necessary depending on the severity of the infestation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 20402, Apr. 26, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 8371, Feb. 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1310" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.157" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1310   Marbofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet or chewable tablet contains 25, 50, 100, or 200 milligrams (mg) marbofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 017033, 054771, 069043, and 086117 for use of tablets.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 086101 for use of chewable tablets.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1.25 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight once daily, but may be increased to 2.5 mg/lb of body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of infections in dogs and cats associated with bacteria susceptible to marbofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 39919, July 23, 1999, as amended at 66 FR 46369, Sept. 5, 2001; 78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014; 85 FR 45307, July 28, 2020; 88 FR 27698, May 3, 2023; 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1315" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.158" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1315   Maropitant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains 16, 24, 60, or 160 milligrams (mg) maropitant as maropitant citrate.
</P>
<P>(2) Each chewable tablet contains 16, 24, 60, or 160 mg maropitant as maropitant citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 054771, 086101, and 086117 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 086101 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use and amount.</I> (i) For prevention of acute vomiting in dogs 2 to 7 months of age, administer a minimum dose of 2.0 mg per kilogram (/kg) body weight once daily for up to 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) For prevention of acute vomiting in dogs 7 months of age and older, administer a minimum dose of 2.0 mg/kg body weight once daily until resolution of acute vomiting.
</P>
<P>(iii) For prevention of vomiting due to motion sickness in dogs 4 months of age and older, administer a minimum of 8.0 mg/kg body weight once daily for up to 2 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 9243, Mar. 1, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 53459, Sept. 4, 2015; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024; 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1320" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.159" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1320   Mebendazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of powder contains either 40 or 166.7 milligrams of mebendazole.
</P>
<P>(2) Each gram of paste contains 200 milligrams of mebendazole.
</P>
<P>(3) Each milliliter of suspension contains 33.3 milligrams of mebendazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 gram of mebendazole per 250 pounds of body weight per dose, as an oral powder, paste or suspension.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of infections caused by large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>); large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus,</I> <I>S. vulgaris</I>); small strongyles; and mature and immature (4th larval stage) pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> The drug is compatible with carbon disulfide. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 100 milligrams of mebendazole per 10 pounds of body weight, once daily for 3 days, as an oral powder by mixing with a small quantity of food, preferably before the regular meal.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used for treatment of infections of roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis</I>), hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Uncinaria stenocephala</I>), whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>), and tapeworms (<I>Taenia pisiformis</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28823, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1326" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.160" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1326   Mebendazole and trichlorfon oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1326a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.161" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1326a   Mebendazole and trichlorfon powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains 83.3 milligrams of mebendazole and 375.0 milligrams of trichlorofon. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 8.8 milligrams of mebendazole and 40 milligrams of trichlorofon per kilogram of body weight. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used in horses for the treatment of infections of bots (<I>Gastrophilus intestinalis</I> and <I>G. nasalis</I>), large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus, S. vulgaris</I>), small strongyles, and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi.</I>) 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 10759, Feb. 19, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 52330, Oct. 27, 1981. Redesignated at 51 FR 13212, Apr. 18, 1986, as amended at 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1326b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.162" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1326b   Mebendazole and trichlorfon paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 100 milligrams of mebendazole and 454 milligrams of trichlorfon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 8.8 milligrams of mebendazole and 40 milligrams of trichlorfon per kilogram of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used in horses for treatment of infections of bots (<I>Gastrophilus intestinalis</I> and <I>G. nasalis</I>), large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus, S. vulgaris</I>), small strongyles, and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer more than once every 30 days. Do not treat sick or debilitated animals, foals under 4 months of age, or mares in the last month of pregnancy. Trichlorfon is a cholinesterase inhibitor. Do not administer simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with, or exposure to, cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. Do not administer intravenous anesthetics, especially muscle relaxants, concurrently. Not for use in horses intended for food. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 13212, Apr. 18, 1986, as amended at 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1330" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.163" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1330   Meclofenamic acid granules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of granules contains 5 milligrams (5 percent) meclofenamic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 milligram per pound of body weight (1 gram per 1000 pounds) once daily for 5 to 7 days by addition to the daily grain ration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute or chronic inflammatory diseases involving the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1331" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.164" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1331   Meclofenamic acid tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains either 10 or 20 milligrams of meclofenamic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1.1 milligrams per kilogram (0.5 milligram per pound) daily for 5 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of signs and symptoms of chronic inflammatory disease involving the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 43385, Oct. 25, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 23390, June 22, 1988; 78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1341" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.165" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1341   Megestrol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 5 or 20 milligrams of megestrol acetate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally, intact, or crushed and mixed with food as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For the postponement of estrus by proestrus treatment: 1 milligram per pound of body weight per day for 8 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the postponement of estrus by anestrus treatment: 0.25 milligram per pound of body weight per day for 32 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) For alleviation of false pregnancy: 1 milligram per pound of body weight per day for 8 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the postponement of estrus and the alleviation of false pregnancy in female dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1367" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.166" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1367   Meloxicam.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) Each milliliter of suspension contains 0.5 milligrams (mg) meloxicam.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter of suspension contains 1.5 mg meloxicam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 000010 and 069043 for use of the products described in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 013744, 055529, and 086101 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally as a single dose at 0.09 mg per pound (mg/lb) body weight (0.2 mg per kilogram (mg/kg)) on the first day of treatment. For all treatments after day 1, administer 0.045 mg/lb (0.1 mg/kg) body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 42968, July 21, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 69523, Nov. 30, 2004. Redesignated and amended at 78 FR 57058, Sept. 17, 2013; 80 FR 53459, Sept. 4, 2015; 91 FR 5301, Feb. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1375" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.167" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1375   Methimazole tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 2.5 or 5 milligrams (mg) methimazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors,</I> See Nos. 043264 and 086101in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The starting dose is 2.5 mg every 12 hours. Following 3 weeks of treatment, the dose should be titrated to effect based on individual serum total T4 (TT4) levels and clinical response. Dose adjustments should be made in 2.5 mg increments. The maximum total dosage is 20 mg per day divided, not to exceed 10 mg as a single administration.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of hyperthyroidism.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 27707, June 11, 2009. Redesignated and amended at 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1376" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.168" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1376   Methimazole solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 5 milligrams (mg) methimazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a starting dose of 2.5 mg every 12 hours. Following 3 weeks of treatment, the dose should be titrated to effect based on individual serum total T4 (TT4) levels and clinical response. Dose adjustments should be made in 2.5 mg increments with a maximum dosage of 20 mg per day divided, not to exceed 10 mg as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of hyperthyroidism.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024, as amended at 91 FR 41559, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1380" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.169" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1380   Methocarbamol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 500 milligrams (mg) of methocarbamol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 60 mg per pound of body weight in two or three equally divided doses, followed each following day by 30 to 60 mg per pound of body weight, usually not to exceed 14 to 21 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an adjunct to therapy for acute inflammatory and traumatic conditions of the skeletal muscles in order to reduce muscular spasms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1408" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.170" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1408   Methylprednisolone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 1, 2, or 4 milligrams (mg) of methylprednisolone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 to 15 pounds (lbs): 2 mg; 15 to 40 lbs: 2 to 4 mg; 40 to 80 lbs: 4 to 8 mg. Administer total daily dose orally in equally divided doses 6 to 10 hours apart until response is noted or 7 days have elapsed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an anti-inflammatory agent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1409" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.171" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1409   Methylprednisolone and aspirin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 0.5 milligram of methylprednisolone and 300 milligrams of aspirin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Under 15 pounds, 
<FR>1/4</FR> to 1 tablet daily; 15 to 60 pounds, 1 to 2 tablets daily; 60 pounds and over, 2 tablets daily. Administer total daily dose in divided doses 6 to 10 hours apart, with a light feeding. When response is attained, dosage should be gradually reduced until maintenance level is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an anti-inflammatory and analgesic agent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 21566, May 13, 1983, as amended at 78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1422" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.172" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1422   Metoserpate hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Chemical name.</I> Methyl-<I>o</I>-methyl-18-epireserpate hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.410 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in drinking water for replacement chickens as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> 568.5 milligrams per gallon (0.015 percent). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a tranquilizer for flock treatment of chickens prior to handling. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> To be used one time as a treatment for replacement chickens up to 16 weeks of age; usual drinking water should be withheld prior to treatment to provide adequate consumption of medicated drinking water; not for use in laying chickens; chickens slaughtered within 72 hours following treatment must not be used for food. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount.</I> 2 to 4 milligrams per 2.2 pounds of body weight. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in control of hysteria. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> To be used as a treatment for replacement chickens up to 16 weeks of age; usual drinking water should be withheld prior to treatment to provide adequate consumption of medicated drinking water; the drug should be administered at a dosage level of 4 milligrams per 2.2 pounds of body weight followed by 2 treatments at 4-day intervals of 2 milligrams per 2.2 pounds of body weight; not for use in laying chickens; chickens slaughtered within 72 hours following treatment must not be used for food. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 76 FR 17337, Mar. 29, 2011; 78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1425" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.173" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1425   Metronidazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 125 milligrams (mg) metronidazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 25 mg per kilogram (11.3 mg per pound) of body weight twice daily for 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of <I>Giardia duodenalis</I> infection in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1430" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.174" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1430   Mibolerone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 100 micrograms of mibolerone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 30 micrograms for animals weighing 1 to 25 pounds; 60 micrograms for animals weighing 26 to 50 pounds; 120 micrograms for animals weighing 51 to 100 pounds; 180 micrograms for animals weighing over 100 pounds, German Shepherds, or German Shepherd mix. Administer daily, orally or in a small amount of food, at least 30 days before expected initiation of heat, and continue daily as long as desired, but not for more than 24 months.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of estrus (heat) in adult female dogs not intended primarily for breeding purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 15625, Apr. 14, 1978, as amended at 78 FR 28824, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1441" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.175" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1441   Milbemycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each flavored tablet contains 2.3, 5.75, 11.5, or 23.0 milligrams (mg) of milbemycin oxime.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 013744 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> For hookworm, roundworm, and whipworm, administer 0.23 mg per pound (mg/lb) of body weight (0.5 mg per kilogram (mg/kg)). For heartworm, administer 0.05 mg/lb of body weight (0.1 mg/kg). Administer once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis,</I> control of hookworm infections caused by <I>Ancylostoma caninum,</I> and removal and control of adult roundworm infections caused by <I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I> and whipworm infections caused by <I>Trichuris vulpis</I> in dogs and puppies 4 weeks of age or greater and 2 pounds body weight or greater.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.91 mg/lb of body weight (2.0 mg/kg) once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and the removal of adult <I>Toxocara cati</I> (roundworm) and <I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I> (hookworm) infections in cats 6 weeks of age or greater and 1.5 pounds body weight or greater.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12494, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1443" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.176" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1443   Milbemycin oxime and lufenuron.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Tablets containing: 2.3 milligrams (mg) milbemycin oxime and 46 mg lufenuron, 5.75 mg milbemycin oxime and 115 mg lufenuron, 11.5 mg milbemycin oxime and 230 mg lufenuron, or 23 mg milbemycin oxime and 460 mg lufenuron.
</P>
<P>(2) Flavored tablets containing: 2.3 mg milbemycin oxime and 46 mg lufenuron, 5.75 mg milbemycin oxime and 115 mg lufenuron, 11.5 mg milbemycin oxime and 230 mg lufenuron, or 23 mg milbemycin oxime and 460 mg lufenuron.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg milbemycin oxime and 10 mg lufenuron per kilogram of body weight, once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For use in dogs and puppies for the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis,</I> for prevention and control of flea populations, for control of adult <I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> (hookworm), and for removal and control of adult <I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I> (roundworm), and <I>Trichuris vulpis</I> (whipworm) infections.
</P>
<P>(B) The concurrent use of flavored milbemycin oxime and lufenuron tablets described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section with nitenpyram tablets as in § 520.1510(d)(1) of this chapter is indicated to kill adult fleas and prevent flea eggs from hatching.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28629, May 27, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 41190, Aug. 3, 1998; 68 FR 51905, Aug. 29, 2003. Redesignated at 77 FR 47512, Aug. 9, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015; 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1445" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.177" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1445   Milbemycin oxime and praziquantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 2.3 milligrams (mg) milbemycin oxime and 22.8 mg praziquantel;
</P>
<P>(2) 5.75 mg milbemycin oxime and 57 mg praziquantel;
</P>
<P>(3) 11.5 mg milbemycin oxime and 114 mg praziquantel; or
</P>
<P>(4) 23 mg milbemycin oxime and 228 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally, once a month, a minimum dosage of 0.23 mg per pound (mg/lb) of body weight (0.5 mg per kilogram (mg/kg)) milbemycin oxime and 2.28 mg/lb of body weight (5 mg/kg) praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and for the treatment and control of adult roundworm (<I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I>), adult hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I>), adult whipworm (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>), and adult tapeworm (<I>Taenia pisiformis, Echinococcus multilocularis, E. granulosus,</I> and <I>Dipylidium caninum</I>) infections in dogs and puppies 2 pounds of body weight or greater and 6 weeks of age and older.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 47512, Aug. 9, 2012, as amended at 82 FR 58556, Dec. 13, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1447" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.178" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1447   Milbemycin oxime, lufenuron, and praziquantel tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 2.3 milligrams (mg) milbemycin oxime, 46 mg lufenuron, and 22.8 mg praziquantel;
</P>
<P>(2) 5.75 mg milbemycin oxime, 115 mg lufenuron, and 57 mg praziquantel;
</P>
<P>(3) 11.5 mg milbemycin oxime, 230 mg lufenuron, and 114 mg praziquantel; or
</P>
<P>(4) 23 mg milbemycin oxime, 460 mg lufenuron, and 228 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg milbemycin oxime, 10 mg lufenuron, and 5 mg of praziquantel per kilogram of body weight, once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis;</I> for the prevention and control of flea populations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>); and for the treatment and control of adult roundworm (<I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I>), adult hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I>), adult whipworm (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>), and adult tapeworm (<I>Dipylidium caninum, Taenia pisiformis,</I> <I>Echinococcus multilocularis,</I> and <I>E. granulosus</I>) infections in dogs and puppies 2 pounds of body weight or greater and 6 weeks of age and older.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4225, Jan. 27, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015; 83 FR 13635, Mar. 30, 2018; 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1450" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.179" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1450   Morantel tartrate oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1450a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.180" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1450a   Morantel tartrate bolus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains 2.2 grams morantel tartrate equivalent to 1.3 grams of morantel base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.425 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One bolus per 500 pounds of body weight (4.4 milligrams per pound of body weight) as a single oral dose. Boluses may be divided in half for more accurate dosing as follows: up to 325 pounds, 
<FR>1/2</FR> bolus; 326 to 600 pounds, 1 bolus; 601 to 900 pounds, 1
<FR>1/2</FR> boluses; and 901 to 1,200 pounds, 2 boluses. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal and control of mature gastrointestinal nematode infections of cattle including stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus</I> spp., <I>Ostertagia</I> spp., <I>Trichostrongylus</I> spp.), worms of the small intestine (<I>Cooperia</I> spp., <I>Trichostrongylus</I> spp., <I>Nematodirus</I> spp.), and worms of the large intestine (<I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Conditions of constant worm exposure may require retreatment in 2 to 4 weeks. Consult your veterinarian before administering to severely debilitated animals and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. Do not treat within 14 days of slaughter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50949, Oct. 16, 1981. Redesignated at 49 FR 47831, Dec. 7, 1984, and amended at 51 FR 9005, Mar. 17, 1986; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1450b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.181" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1450b   Morantel tartrate cartridge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug product consists of a stainless-steel cylinder having both ends closed with polyethylene diffusing discs and containing a morantel tartrate paste. The paste contains 22.7 grams of morantel tartrate equivalent to 13.5 grams of morantel base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.425 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Grazing cattle: Administer 1 cartridge to each animal at the start of the grazing season.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of the adult stage of the following gastrointestinal nematode infections in weaned calves and yearling cattle weighing a minimum of 200 pounds: <I>Ostertagia</I> spp., <I>Trichostrongylus axei, Cooperia</I> spp., and <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally with the dosing gun to all cattle that will be grazing the same pasture. Effectiveness of the drug product is dependent upon continuous control of the gastrointestinal parasites for approximately 90 days following administration. Therefore, treated cattle should not be moved to pastures grazed in the same grazing season/calendar year by untreated cattle. Do not administer to cattle within 106 days of slaughter. Consult your veterinarian before administering to severely debilitated animals and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47831, Dec. 7, 1984, as amended at 51 FR 23415, June 27, 1986; 51 FR 41081, Nov. 13, 1986; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1450c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.182" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1450c   Morantel tartrate sustained-release trilaminate cylinder/sheet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug product consists of a trilaminated, perforated, plastic sheet formed into a cylinder having plastic plugs in its ends. The core lamina contains 19.8 grams of morantel tartrate equivalent to 11.8 grams of morantel base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.425 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Grazing cattle: Administer 1 cartridge to each animal at the start of the grazing season.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of the adult stage of the following gastrointestinal nematode infections in weaned calves and yearling cattle weighing a minimum of 200 pounds: <I>Ostertagia</I> spp., <I>Trichostrongylus axei, Cooperia</I> spp., and <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally with the dosing gun to all cattle that will be grazing the same pasture. Effectiveness of the drug product is dependent upon continuous control of the gastrointestinal parasites for approximately 90 days following administration. Therefore, treated cattle should not be moved to pastures grazed in the same grazing season/calendar year by untreated cattle. Do not administer to cattle within 102 days of slaughter. Consult your veterinarian before administering to severely debilitated animals and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 13396, Apr. 2, 1991, as amended at 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1451" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.183" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1451   Moxidectin tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 30, 68, or 136 micrograms of moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 3 micrograms per kilogram (1.36 micrograms per pound) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To prevent infection by the canine heartworm <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and the subsequent development of canine heartworm disease.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 37713, July 15, 1997, as amended at 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1452" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.184" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1452   Moxidectin gel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 20 milligrams (2 percent) moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses and ponies</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 0.4 milligram moxidectin per kilogram (2.2 pounds) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of large strongyles: <I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (adults and L4/L5 arterial stages), <I>S.</I> <I>edentatus</I> (adult and tissue stages), <I>Triodontophorus brevicauda</I> (adults), and <I>T.</I> <I>serratus</I> (adults); small strongyles (adults): <I>Cyathostomum</I> spp., including <I>C. catinatum</I> and <I>C. pateratum</I>; <I>Cylicocyclus.</I> spp., including <I>C. insigne, C. leptostomum, C. nassatus</I>, and <I>C. radiatus; Cyliocostephanus</I> spp., including <I>C. calicatus, C. goldi, C. longibursatus,</I> and <I>C. minutus</I>; <I>Coronocyclus</I> spp., including <I>C. coronatus, C. labiatus,</I> and <I>C. labratus</I>; <I>Gyalocephalus capitatus</I>; and <I>Petrovinema poculatus</I>; small strongyles: undifferentiated lumenal larvae; encysted cyathostomes (late L3 and L4 mucosal cyathostome larvae); ascarids: <I>Parascaris equorum</I> (adults and L4 larval stages); pinworms: <I>Oxyuris equi</I> (adults and L4 larval stages); hairworms: <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I> (adults); large-mouth stomach worms: <I>Habronema muscae</I> (adults); and horse stomach bots: <I>Gasterophilus intestinalis</I> (2nd and 3rd instars) and <I>G.</I> <I>nasalis</I> (3rd instars). One dose also suppresses strongyle egg production for 84 days.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 42902, Aug. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 66105, Nov. 24, 1999; 68 FR 51445, Aug. 27, 2003; 69 FR 24959, May 5, 2004; 70 FR 75017, Dec. 19, 2005; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1453" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.185" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1453   Moxidectin and praziquantel gel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 20 milligrams (mg) (2.0 percent) moxidectin and 125 mg (12.5 percent) praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses and ponies</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by mouth as a single dose: 0.4 mg moxidectin per kilogram and 2.5 mg praziquantel per kilogram (2.2 pounds) body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of large strongyles: <I>Strongylus vulgaris</I> (adults and L4/L5 arterial stages), <I>S.</I> <I>edentatus</I> (adult and tissue stages), <I>Triodontophorus brevicauda</I> (adults), and <I>T.</I> <I>serratus</I> (adults); small strongyles (adults): (<I>Cyathostomum</I> spp., including <I>C. catinatum</I> and <I>C. pateratum</I>; <I>Cylicocyclus</I> spp., including <I>C. insigne, C. leptostomum, C. nassatus</I>, and <I>C. radiatus</I>; <I>Cylicostephanus</I> spp., including <I>C. calicatus, C. goldi, C. longibursatus,</I> and <I>C. minutus</I>; <I>Coronocyclus</I> spp., including <I>C. coronatus, C. labiatus,</I> and <I>C. labratus</I>; <I>Gyalocephalus capitatus</I>; and <I>Petrovinema poculatus</I>; small strongyles: undifferentiated lumenal larvae; encysted cyathostomes (late L3 and L4 mucosal cyathostome larvae); ascarids: <I>Parascaris equorum</I> (adults and L4 larval stages); pinworms: <I>Oxyuris equi</I> (adults and L4 larval stages); hairworms: <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I> (adults); large-mouth stomach worms: <I>Habronema muscae</I> (adults); horse stomach bots: <I>Gasterophilus intestinalis</I> (2nd and 3rd instars) and <I>G.</I> <I>nasalis</I> (3rd instars); and tapeworms: <I>Anoplocephala perfoliata</I> (adults). One dose also suppresses strongyle egg production for 84 days.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 51446, Aug. 27, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 21956, Apr. 23, 2004; 70 FR 75017, Dec. 19, 2005; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1454" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.186" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1454   Moxidectin solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 1 milligram (mg) moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.426 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in sheep</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 mL per 11 pounds body weight (1 mL per 5 kilograms) by mouth.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of the adult and L4 larval stages of <I>Haemonchus contortus</I>, <I>Teladorsagia circumcincta</I>, <I>T. trifurcata</I>, <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>, <I>T. colubriformis</I>, <I>T. vitrinus</I>, <I>Cooperia curticei</I>, <I>C. oncophora</I>, <I>Oesophagostomum columbianum</I>, <I>O. venulosum</I>, <I>Nematodirus battus</I>, <I>N. filicollis</I>, and <I>N. spathiger.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Sheep must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 7 days of treatment. Because a withholding time in milk has not been established for this product, do not use in female sheep providing milk for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 76163, Dec. 23, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 48714, Aug. 9, 2011; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017; 86 FR 14818, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1468" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.187" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1468   Naproxen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of granules contains 500 milligrams (mg) (50 percent) naproxen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg per kilogram of body weight twice daily top dressed on feed for up to 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of inflammation and associated pain and lameness exhibited with arthritis, as well as myositis and other soft tissue diseases of the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1484" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.188" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1484   Neomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each ounce of powder contains 20.3 grams (g) neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 14.2 g neomycin base).
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter of solution contains 200 milligrams (mg) neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 140 mg neomycin base).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592, 054771, 058005, and 061133 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 016592, 054771, and 058005 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special labeling considerations.</I> Labeling shall bear the following warning statements: “A withdrawal period has not been established for use in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Use of more than one product containing neomycin or failure to follow withdrawal times may result in illegal drug residues.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle, swine, sheep, and goats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight per day (22 mg per kilogram (/kg)) in divided doses for a maximum of 14 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of colibacillosis (bacterial enteritis) caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> susceptible to neomycin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue treatment prior to slaughter as follows: Cattle, 1 day; sheep, 2 days; swine and goats, 3 days. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg/lb of body weight per day (22 mg/kg) for 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of mortality associated with <I>E. coli</I> susceptible to neomycin sulfate in growing turkeys.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56866, Sept. 28, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 68738, Nov. 28, 2006; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1510" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.189" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1510   Nitenpyram.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 11.4 or 57 milligrams (mg) nitenpyram.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 021091 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A), (d)(1)(ii)(A), and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000061 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(B) and (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> The concurrent use of nitenpyram tablets and flavored milbemycin/lufenuron tablets as in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section shall be by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> (A) One 11.4-mg tablet for dogs weighing less than 25 pounds (lb) or one 57-mg tablet for dogs weighing more than 25 lb, as needed, for use as in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) One 11.4-mg tablet for dogs weighing less than 25 lb or one 57 mg tablet for dogs weighing more than 25 lbs, once or twice weekly, for use as in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For the treatment of flea infestations on dogs and puppies 4 weeks of age and older and 2 lbs of body weight or greater.
</P>
<P>(B) The concurrent use of nitenpyram tablets as in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section with either flavored lufenuron tablets as in § 520.1288(c)(1) of this chapter or flavored milbemycin and lufenuron tablets as in § 520.1443(d)(1) is indicated to kill adult fleas and prevent flea eggs from hatching.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> (A) One 11.4-mg tablet, as needed, for use as in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) One 11.4-mg tablet, once or twice weekly, for use as in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For the treatment of flea infestations on cats and kittens 4 weeks of age and older and 2 lbs of body weight or greater.
</P>
<P>(B) The concurrent use of nitenpyram tablets as in paragraph (d)(2)(i)(B) of this section with flavored lufenuron tablets as in § 520.1288(c)(2) of this chapter is indicated to kill adult fleas and prevent flea eggs from hatching.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 51906, Aug. 29, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015; 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021; 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1604" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.190" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1604   Oclacitinib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet or chewable tablet contains 3.6, 5.4, or 16 milligrams (mg) of oclacitinib as oclacitinib maleate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 0.18 to 0.27 mg/per pound of body weight (0.4 to 0.6 mg/kg body weight) twice daily for up to 14 days; then administered once daily for maintenance therapy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of pruritus associated with allergic dermatitis and control of atopic dermatitis in dogs at least 12 months of age.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 42007, July 15, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1615" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.191" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1615   Omeprazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 0.37 gram omeprazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> When labeled for use as in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, product labeling shall bear: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) For treatment of gastric ulcers, 1.8 milligrams per pound (mg/lb) of body weight (4 milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg)) once daily for 4 weeks. For prevention of recurrence of gastric ulcers, 0.9 mg/lb of body weight (2 mg/kg) once daily for at least an additional 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) For prevention of gastric ulcers using the premarked syringe, one dose per day for 8 or 28 days. Each dose delivers at least 1 mg/kg of body weight. Horses over 1,200 lb body weight should receive two doses per day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) For treatment and prevention of recurrence of gastric ulcers in horses and foals 4 weeks of age and older.
</P>
<P>(ii) For prevention of gastric ulcers in horses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 13220, Mar. 22, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 59374, Oct. 10, 2006; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1616" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.192" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1616   Orbifloxacin tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 5.7, 22.7, or 68 milligrams (mg) orbifloxacin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 to 7.5 mg per kilogram body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For management of diseases associated with bacteria susceptible to orbifloxacin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14643, Mar. 23, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 26646, May 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1618" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.193" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1618   Orbifloxacin suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 30 milligrams (mg) orbifloxacin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1.1 to 3.4 mg/lb (2.5 to 7.5 mg/kg) of body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of urinary tract infections (cystitis) in dogs caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius</I>, <I>Proteus mirabilis</I>, <I>Escherichia coli,</I> and <I>Enterococcus faecalis</I> and skin and soft tissue infections (wounds and abscesses) in dogs caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius</I>, <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I>, coagulase-positive staphylococci, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, <I>Proteus mirabilis</I>, <I>Pseudomonas</I> spp., <I>Klebsiella pneumoniae</I>, <I>E. coli</I>, <I>Enterobacter</I> spp., <I>Citrobacter</I> spp., <I>E. faecalis</I>, β-hemolytic streptococci (Group G), and <I>Streptococcus equisimilis.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3.4 mg/lb (7.5 mg/kg) of body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (wounds and abscesses) in cats caused by susceptible strains of <I>S. aureus</I>, <I>E. coli</I>, and <I>P. multocida.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 26646, May 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1628" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.194" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1628   Oxfendazole powder and pellets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) <I>Powder for suspension.</I> Each gram of powder contains 7.57 percent oxfendazole. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pellets.</I> Each gram of pellets contains 6.49 percent oxfendazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per kilogram of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used in horses for removal of the following gastrointestinal worms: Large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), mature and immature pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, Strongylus vulgaris,</I> and <I>Strongylus equinus</I>), and small strongyles.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations</I>—(i) <I>Powder for suspension.</I> For gravity administration via stomach tube or for positive administration via stomach tube and dose syringe. Discard unused portions of suspension after 24 hours. Mix drug according to directions prior to use. Administer drug with caution to sick or debilitated horses. Not for use in horses intended for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Pellets.</I> The drug is given by sprinkling on the grain portion of the ration. Withholding feed or water prior to administration is not necessary. Administer drug with caution to sick or debilitated horses. Not for use in horses intended for food. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 35211, June 19, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 26301, May 12, 1981; 46 FR 60570, Dec. 11, 1981; 49 FR 28549, July 13, 1984; 61 FR 5506, Feb. 13, 1996; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1629" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.195" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1629   Oxfendazole paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 0.375 gram oxfendazole (37.5 percent). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per kilogram (2.2 pounds) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used in horses for removal of the following gastrointestinal worms: Large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), mature and 4th stage larvae pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. vulgaris,</I> and <I>S. equinus</I>), and small strongyles. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Horses maintained on premises where reinfection is likely to occur should be retreated in 6 to 8 weeks. Withholding feed or water prior to use is unnecessary. Administer drug with caution to sick or debilitated horses. Not for use in horses intended for food. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 185 milligrams of oxfendazole (18.5 percent).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.495 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 4.5 milligrams per kilogram of body weight (2.05 milligrams per pound).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used in cattle for the removal and control of the following worms: lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>—adult, L4); stomach worms: barberpole worms (<I>Haemonchus contortus</I> and <I>H. placei</I>—adult), small stomach worms (<I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>—adult), brown stomach worms (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I>—adult, L4, inhibited L4); intestinal worms; nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>—adult), hookworms (<I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I>—adult), small intestinal worms (<I>Cooperia punctata, C. oncophora,</I> and <I>C. mcmasteri</I>—adult, L4); and tapeworms (<I>Moniezia benedeni</I>—adult).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in cattle only. Treatment may be repeated in 4 to 6 weeks. Cattle must not be slaughtered until 11 days after treatment. Do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age. Consult a veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 38250, Sept. 28, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 39443, July 23, 1993; 61 FR 5506, Feb. 13, 1996; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1630" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.196" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1630   Oxfendazole suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 90.6 milligrams (mg) oxfendazole (9.06 percent).
</P>
<P>(2) 225.0 mg oxfendazole (22.5 percent).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances. See</I> § 556.495 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter. If labeled for administration by stomach tube: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses.</I> Use the product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg per kilogram (/kg) of body weight by stomach tube or dose syringe. Horses maintained on premises where reinfection is likely to occur should be retreated in 6 to 8 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), mature and 4th stage larvae pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. vulgaris,</I> and <I>S. equinus</I>), and small strongyles.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Withholding feed or water prior to use is unnecessary. Administer drug with caution to sick or debilitated horses. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle.</I> Use the products described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 4.5 mg/kg of body weight by dose syringe. Treatment may be repeated in 4 to 6 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of: lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>—adult, L4); stomach worms: barberpole worms (<I>Haemonchus contortus</I> and <I>H. placei</I>—adult), small stomach worms (<I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>—adult), brown stomach worms (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I>—adult, L4, inhibited L4); intestinal worms; nodular worms (<I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>—adult), hookworms (<I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I>—adult), small intestinal worms (<I>Cooperia punctata, C. oncophora,</I> and <I>C. surnabada</I>—adult, L4), and tapeworms (<I>Moniezia benedeni</I>—adult).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle must not be slaughtered until 7 days after treatment. Because a withdrawal time in milk has not been established, do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 46943, Nov. 8, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 8710, Mar. 1, 1991; 61 FR 5506, Feb. 13, 1996; 72 FR 10596, Mar. 9, 2007; 73 FR 45610, Aug. 6, 2008; 75 FR 10166, Mar. 5, 2010; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1631" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.197" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1631   Oxfendazole and trichlorfon paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 28.5 milligrams oxfendazole and 454.5 milligrams trichlorfon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 milligrams of oxfendazole and 40 milligrams of trichlorfon per kilogram of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used in horses for removal of bots (<I>Gasterophilus intestinalis,</I> 2nd and 3rd instars; <I>G. nasalis,</I> 3rd instar) and the following gastrointestinal worms: Large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), adult and 4th stage larvae; large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. vulgaris,</I> and <I>S. equinus</I>); and small strongyles. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Horses maintained on premises where reinfection is likely to occur should be retreated in 6 to 8 weeks. Withholding feed or water before use is unnecessary. Administer with caution to sick or debilitated horses. Not for use in horses intended for food. Do not administer to mares during the last month of pregnancy. Trichlorfon is a cholinesterase inhibitor. Do not use this product in animals simultaneously with, or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to, cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 50291, Dec. 10, 1985, as amended at 61 FR 5506, Feb. 13, 1996; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1638" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.198" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1638   Oxibendazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of paste contains 227 milligrams (mg) (22.7 percent) oxibendazole.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter of suspension contains 100 mg (10 percent) oxibendazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Suspension product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be labeled: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For uses other than for threadworms (<I>Strongyloides westeri</I>), 10 mg oxibendazole per kilogram (/kg) body weight; for threadworms (<I>Strongyloides westeri</I>), 15 mg/kg. Horses maintained on premises where reinfection is likely to occur should be re-treated in 6 to 8 weeks. Administer suspension product by stomach tube in 3 to 4 pints of warm water, or by top dressing or mixing into a portion of the normal grain ration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal and control of large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus,</I> <I>S. vulgaris</I>); small strongyles (genera <I>Cylicostephanus, Cylicocyclus,</I> <I>Cyathostomum, Triodontophorus,</I> <I>Cylicodontophorus,</I> and <I>Gyalocephalus</I>); large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>); pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>) including various larval stages; and threadworms (<I>Strongyloides westeri</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1660" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.199" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1660   Oxytetracycline.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1660a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.200" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1660a   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1660b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.201" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1660b   Oxytetracycline capsules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains 125 or 250 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 25 to 50 mg per pound of body weight per day in divided doses at 12-hour intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial pneumonia caused by <I>Brucella bronchiseptica,</I> tonsilitis caused by <I>Streptococcus hemolyticus,</I> bacterial enteritis caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> urinary tract infections caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> and wound infections caused by <I>Staphylococcus aureus.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014; 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1660c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.202" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1660c   Oxytetracycline tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 250 or 500 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline hydrochloride.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See § 556.500 of this chapter.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in beef and dairy cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amounts.</I> 10 mg per pound of body weight every 12 hours for treatment; 5 mg per pound of body weight every 12 hours for control.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of bacterial enteritis caused by <I>Salmonella typhimurium</I> and <I>Escherichia coli</I> (colibacillosis) and bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever complex, pasteurellosis) caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue treatment 7 days prior to slaughter. Not for use in lactating dairy cattle. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 32440, June 23, 1981, as amended at 50 FR 1045, Jan. 9, 1985; 63 FR 70334, Dec. 21, 1998; 70 FR 16394, Apr. 4, 2005; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014; 88 FR 14897, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1660d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.203" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1660d   Oxytetracycline powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a soluble powder distributed in packets or pails having several concentrations of oxytetracycline hydrochloride (independent of the various net weights) as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Each 18.14 grams of powder contains 1 gram of oxytetracycline hydrochloride (OTC HCl) (packets: 4, 6.4, and 16 oz.).
</P>
<P>(2) Each 4.43 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packets: 4 and 16 oz.).
</P>
<P>(3) Each 1.32 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packets: 2.39, 4.78, and 9.55 oz.; jars: 2.25 lbs.; and pails: 4.5 lbs.).
</P>
<P>(4) Each 2.73 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packets: 2.46 and 9.87 oz, 3.09 and 3.91 lb; pail: 3.09 lb).
</P>
<P>(5) Each 4.2 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packets: 3.8 and 15.2 oz; pails: 4.74 and 23.7 lb).
</P>
<P>(6) Each 1.32 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packet: 4.78 oz.; pail: 5 lb). Each 2.73 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packet: 9.87 oz).
</P>
<P>(7) Each 1.32 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packet: 4.78 and 9.6 oz.; pails: 2 and 5 lb); each 18.1 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packet: 6.4 oz.; pails: 2 and 5 lb).
</P>
<P>(8) Each 135.5-gram packet (4.78 ounce) contains 102.4 grams of OTC HCl. Each 677.5-gram packet (23.9 ounce) contains 512 grams of OTC HCl.
</P>
<P>(9) Each 2.73 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packets: 9.87 and, 19.75 oz, and 3.91 lb; pails: 3.09 and 5 lb).
</P>
<P>(10) Each 2.73 grams of powder contains 1 gram of OTC HCl (packets: 9.87 and 19.74 oz; pails: 5 lb).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of OTC HCl concentrations in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of this section in chickens, turkeys, swine, cattle, sheep, and honey bees.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 016592 for use of OTC HCl concentration in paragraph (a)(4) of this section in chickens, turkeys, and swine.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 066104 for use of OTC HCl concentration in paragraph (a)(5) of this section in turkeys and chickens.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 016592 for use of OTC HCl concentration in paragraph (a)(6) of this section in chickens, turkeys, and swine.
</P>
<P>(5) No. 061133 for use of OTC HCl concentration in paragraph (a)(7) of this section in chickens, turkeys, swine, cattle, sheep, and honeybees.
</P>
<P>(6) No. 069254 for use of OTC HCl concentrations in paragraph (a)(8) of this section in chickens, turkeys, swine, cattle, sheep, and honey bees.
</P>
<P>(7) No. 061133 for use of OTC HCl concentration in paragraph (a)(9) of this section in chickens, turkeys, and swine.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) It is used in drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Chickens</I>—(A)(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 200 to 400 milligrams/gallon for 7 to 14 days. Not to be used for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of infectious synovitis caused by <I>Mycoplasma synoviae</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Do not use in birds producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 400 to 800 milligrams/gallon for 7 to 14 days. Not to be used for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) and air sac infections caused by <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum</I> and <I>E. coli</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline; control of fowl cholera caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Do not use in birds producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Turkeys</I>—(A)(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 200 to 400 milligrams/gallon for 7 to 14 days. Not to be used for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of hexamitiasis caused by <I>Hexamita meleagridis</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Do not use in birds producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter those products sponsored by Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. Withdraw 4 days prior to slaughter those products sponsored by No. 016592. Zero-day withdrawal for those products sponsored by Nos. 016592 and 069254. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 400 milligrams/gallon for 7 to 14 days. Not to be used for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of infectious synovitis caused by <I>Mycoplasma synoviae</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Do not use in birds producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter those products sponsored by Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. Withdraw 4 days prior to slaughter those products sponsored by No. 016592. Zero-day withdrawal for those products sponsored by Nos. 016592 and 069254. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 25 milligrams per pound of body weight daily for 7 to 14 days. Not to be used for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> Growing turkeys. Control of complicating bacterial organisms associated with bluecomb (transmissible enteritis, coronaviral enteritis) susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Do not use in birds producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter those products sponsored by Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. Withdraw 4 days prior to slaughter those products sponsored by No. 054628. Zero-day withdrawal for those products sponsored by Nos. 057561 and 069254. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Swine</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 10 milligrams per pound of body weight daily in drinking water. Administer up to 14 days; do not use for more than 14 consecutive days those products sponsored by Nos. 054771, 061133, and 069254. Administer up to 5 days; do not use for more than 5 consecutive days those products sponsored by Nos. 016592 and 061133.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and <I>Salmonella choleraesuis</I> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline. For breeding swine: Control and treatment of leptospirosis (reducing the incidence of abortions and shedding of leptospira) caused by <I>Leptospira pomona</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw zero days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Calves, beef cattle, and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 10 milligrams per pound of body weight daily for up to 14 days. Do not use for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <I>E. coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever complex) caused by <I>P. multocida</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(C) Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter. A milk discard period has not been established for this product in lactating dairy cattle. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sheep</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 10 milligrams per pound of body weight daily for up to 14 days. Not to be used for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <I>E. coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever complex) caused by <I>P. multocida</I> susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(C) Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) It is used in the food of honey bees as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 milligrams per colony, administered via either a 1:1 sugar syrup (equal parts of sugar and water weight to weight) or dusting with a powdered sugar mixture. The drug is administered in 3 applications of sugar syrup or 3 dustings at 4- to 5-day intervals.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of American foulbrood caused by <I>Paenibacillus larvae</I>.
</P>
<P>(iii) The drug should be fed early in the spring or fall and consumed by the bees before main honey flow begins to avoid contamination of production honey. Remove at least 6 weeks prior to main honey flow. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 520.1660d, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1664" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.204" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1664   Oxytetracycline and carbomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Oxytetracycline: The antibiotic substance produced by growth of <I>Streptomyces rimosus</I> or the same antibiotic substance produced by any other means. 
</P>
<P>(2) Carbomycin: The antibiotic substance produced by growth of <I>Streptomyces halstedii</I> or the same antibiotic substance produced by any other means.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> The quantities of oxytetracycline in paragraph (e) of this section refer to the activity of oxytetracycline hydrochloride and the quantities of carbomycin listed refer to the activity of an appropriate standard. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.110 and 556.500 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as oxytetracycline hydrochloride plus carbomycin base in drinking water of chickens as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.0 gram of oxytetracycline and 1.0 gram carbomycin per gallon for not more than 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the prevention and treatment of complicated chronic respiratory disease (air-sac infection) caused by <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum</I> and secondary bacterial organisms associated with chronic respiratory disease such as <I>E. coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 94989, Dec. 27, 2016. Redesignated at 88 FR 55563, Aug. 16, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1696" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.205" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1696   Penicillin.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1696a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.206" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1696a   Penicillin G powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains penicillin G potassium equivalent to 1.54 million units of penicillin G.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 016592, 042791, 054771, 061133, and 076475 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.510 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in turkeys</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1,500,000 units per gallon drinking water for 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of erysipelas caused by <I>Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue treatment at least 1 day prior to slaughter. Not for use in turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37326, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 42493, Aug. 18, 1994; 60 FR 26359, May 17, 1995; 62 FR 55160, Oct. 23, 1997; 65 FR 10705, Feb. 29, 2000; 66 FR 14073, Mar. 9, 2001; 68 FR 4914, Jan. 31, 2003; 68 FR 26204, May 15, 2003; 69 FR 9946, Mar. 3, 2004; 69 FR 41428, July 9, 2004; 77 FR 20988, Apr. 9, 2012; 78 FR 28825, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 36789, June 8, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019. Redesignated at 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1696c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.207" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1696c   Penicillin V tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains penicillin V potassium equivalent to 125 milligrams (200,000 units) or 250 milligrams (400,000 units) of penicillin V.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 15 milligrams per pound of body weight every 6 to 8 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of respiratory, urogenital, skin and soft tissue infections and septicemia caused by pathogens susceptible to penicillin V potassium.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37327, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 58775, Nov. 15, 1994; 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019. Redesignated at 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1705" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.208" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1705   Pergolide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 1 milligram (mg) pergolide (as pergolide mesylate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 017033 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a starting dose of 2 micrograms/kilograms (µ/kg) once daily. Dosage may be adjusted to effect, not to exceed 4 µg/kg daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of clinical signs associated with Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (Equine Cushing's Disease).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 15960, Mar. 19, 2012, as amended at 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 91 FR 20341, Apr. 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1720" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.209" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1720   Phenylbutazone oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1720a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.210" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1720a   Phenylbutazone tablets and boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 100, 200, or 400 milligrams (mg), or 1 gram (g) phenylbutazone. Each bolus contains 1, 2, or 4 g phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of 100- or 400-mg or 1-g tablets, or 2- or 4-g boluses, in dogs and horses.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 069043 for use of 100- or 200-mg or 1-g tablets in dogs and horses.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 054771 and 061133 for use of 100-mg or 1-g tablets in dogs and horses.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 058829 for use of 100-mg or 1-g tablets in dogs and horses.
</P>
<P>(5) No. 058198 for use of 1-g tablets in horses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 20 mg per pound of body weight daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 g per 500 pounds of body weight daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law prohibits the use of this drug in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 8192, Feb. 13, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 1146, Jan. 12, 2009; 76 FR 11331, Mar. 2, 2011; 76 FR 17777, Mar. 31, 2011; 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 85 FR 45307, July 28, 2020; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1720b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.211" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1720b   Phenylbutazone granules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each package of granules contains 1 or 8 grams of phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for 8-gram package.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 059320 for 1-gram package.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 to 2 grams per 500 pounds of body weight, not to exceed 4 grams, daily as required. by adding to a portion of the usual grain ration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law prohibits the use of this drug in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1720c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.212" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1720c   Phenylbutazone paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of paste contains 0.2 grams phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(2) Each gram of paste contains 0.35 grams phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 017030 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 grams of phenylbutazone per 500 pounds of body weight, not to exceed 4 grams daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law prohibits the use of this drug in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 84762, Dec. 23, 1980, as amended at 58 FR 29777, May 24, 1993; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 68 FR 43926, July 25, 2003; 72 FR 60550, Oct. 25, 2007; 77 FR 4897, Feb. 1, 2012; 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1720d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.213" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1720d   Phenylbutazone gel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 30 grams of gel contains 4 grams of phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. require bioequivalency and safety information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 grams of phenylbutazone per 500 pounds of body weight, not to exceed 4 grams daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system of horses. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law prohibits the use of this drug in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13561, Apr. 5, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 49372, Dec. 2, 1985; 55 FR 8462, Mar. 8, 1990; 66 FR 14073, Mar. 9, 2001; 68 FR 4915, Jan. 31, 2003; 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1720e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.214" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1720e   Phenylbutazone powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each 1.15 grams (g) of powder contains 1 g phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(2) Each 10 g of powder contains 1 g phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 086119 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 057699 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 to 2 g (1 to 2 level scoops, using the scoop provided) per 500 pounds of body weight on a small amount of palatable feed, not exceed 4 g per animal daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculosketetal system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this product in female cattle 20 months of age or older. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 27956, May 18, 2007, as amended at 90 FR 6800, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1760" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.215" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1760   Phenylpropanolamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each chewable tablet contains 25, 50, or 75 milligram (mg) phenylpropanolamine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) Each extended-release tablet contains 18, 38, 74, or 145 mg phenylpropanolamine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 055246 and 086117 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 055246 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) and (c)(2) and)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Chewable tablet: 2 mg/kg of body weight twice daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) Extended-release tablet: 2 to 4 mg/kg of body weight once daily with food.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of urinary incontinence due to urethral sphincter hypotonus in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 15961, Mar. 19, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1780" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.216" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1780   Pimobendan tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 1.25, 2.5, 5, or 10 milligrams (mg) pimobendan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a total daily dose of 0.23 mg per pound (0.5 mg per kilogram) body weight, using a suitable combination of whole or half tablets. The total daily dose should be divided into two portions administered approximately 12 hours apart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the delay of onset of congestive heart failure in dogs with Stage B2 preclinical myxomatous mitral valve disease. Stage B2 preclinical myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD) refers to dogs with asymptomatic MMVD that have a moderate or loud mitral murmur due to mitral regurgitation and cardiomegaly. For the management of the signs of mild, moderate, or severe congestive heart failure in dogs due to clinical MMVD or dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM); for use with concurrent therapy for congestive heart failure (<I>e.g.,</I> furosemide, etc.,) as appropriate on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 27733, May 17, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 18158, Apr. 1, 2014; 87 FR 10968, Feb. 28, 2022; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024; 91 FR 20341, Apr. 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1782" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.217" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1782   Pimobendan solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 1.5 milligrams (mg) pimobendan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a total daily dose of 0.23 mg/lb (0.5 mg/kg) body weight. The total daily dose should be divided into two equal portions administered approximately 12 hours apart (<I>i.e.,</I> morning and evening).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the delay of onset of congestive heart failure (CHF) in dogs with Stage B2 preclinical myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD). Stage B2 preclinical MMVD refers to dogs with asymptomatic MMVD that have a moderate or loud mitral murmur due to mitral regurgitation and cardiomegaly. For the management of the signs of mild, moderate, or severe CHF in dogs due to clinical MMVD or dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM); for use with concurrent therapy for CHF (<I>e.g.,</I> furosemide, etc.) as appropriate on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024, as amended at 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1802" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.218" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1802   Piperazine-carbon disulfide complex oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1802a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.219" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1802a   Piperazine-carbon disulfide complex suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each fluid ounce of suspension contains 7.5 grams of piperazine-carbon disulfide complex. The piperazine-carbon disulfide complex contains equimolar parts of piperazine and carbon disulfide (1 gram contains 530 mgs of piperazine and 470 mgs of carbon disulfide). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses and ponies</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 fluid ounce per 100 pounds of body weight by stomach tube or dose syringe after withholding feed overnight or for 8 to 10 hours. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removing ascarids (large roundworms, <I>Parascaris equorum),</I> bots (<I>Gastrophilus</I> spp.), small strongyles, large strongyles (<I>Strongyles</I> spp.), and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 52781, Aug. 8, 1980, as amended at 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1802b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.220" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1802b   Piperazine-carbon disulfide complex boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains 20 grams of piperazine-carbon disulfide complex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses and ponies</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For removal of ascarids and small strongyles, 1 bolus (20 grams) per 500 pounds body weight; removal of large strongyles, pinworms, and bots, 1 bolus per 250 pounds body weight. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removing ascarids (large roundworms, <I>Parascaris equorum</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus</I> spp.) bots (<I>Gastrophilus</I> spp.), small strongyles, and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Withhold feed overnight or for 8 to 10 hours. Give water just before and/or after treatment. Resume regular feeding 4 to 6 hours after treatment. Treatment of debilitated or anemic animals is contraindicated. Do not administer to animals that are or were recently affected with colic, diarrhea, or infected with a serious infectious disease. As with most anthelmintics, drastic cathartics or other gastrointestinal irritants should not be administered in conjunction with this drug. Animals in poor condition or heavily parasitized should be given one half the recommended dose and treated again in 2 or 3 weeks. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 52782, Aug. 8, 1980, as amended at 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1802c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.221" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1802c   Piperazine-carbon disulfide complex with phenothiazine suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each fluid ounce contains 5 grams of piperazine-carbon disulfide complex and 0.83 gram of phenothiazine. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses and ponies</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 fluid ounce per 100 pounds of body weight by stomach tube or dose syringe after withholding feed overnight or for 8 to 10 hours. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removing ascarids (large roundworms, <I>Parascaris equorum</I>), bots (<I>Gastrophilus</I> spp.), small strongyles, and large strongyles (<I>Strongylus</I> spp.). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 52782, Aug. 8, 1980, as amended at 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1803" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.222" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1803   Piperazine citrate capsules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains piperazine citrate equivalent to 140 milligrams of piperazine base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 021091 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The contents of 1 capsule should be mixed with the food of the animal for each 5 pounds, or fraction thereof of body weight, except dogs weighing over 25 pounds should be given the contents of 6 capsules. The drug should be mixed in 1/2 of the regular feeding and when the animal has finished eating the dosed food, the remainder of the food may be given. Dogs and cats may be wormed at 6 to 8 weeks of age. The first treatment should be repeated 10 days later. Reinfection may occur. Repeat treatment if indicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal of large roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Severely debilitated animals should not be treated except on the advice of a veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 54 FR 38515, Sept. 19, 1989; 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1805" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.223" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1805   Piperazine phosphate with thenium closylate tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each scored tablet contains the equivalent of 250 milligrams piperazine hexahydrate (as piperazine phosphate) and 125 milligrams thenium (as thenium closylate) or 500 milligrams piperazine hexahydrate (as piperazine phosphate) and 250 milligrams thenium (as thenium closylate). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally to dogs as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Number of Tablets at Each of the Two Doses
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Animal weight (lb)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">375 mg
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">750 mg
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 but less than 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 but less than 10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 or heavier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of immature (fourth stage larvae) and adult hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, A. braziliense,</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) and ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis</I>) from weaned pups and adult dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32747, July 28, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 55476, Dec. 10, 1982; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1806" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.224" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1806   Piperazine suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains piperazine monohydrochloride equivalent to 33.5 milligrams (mg) piperazine base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 017135 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal of roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis</I>and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dosage.</I> Administer 20 to 30 mg piperazine base per pound body weight as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer by mixing into the animal's ration to be consumed at one feeding. For animals in heavily contaminated areas, reworm at monthly intervals. Not for use in unweaned pups or animals less than 3 weeks of age.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17319, Apr. 6, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1840" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.225" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1840   Poloxalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Polyoxypropylene-polyoxyethylene glycol nonionic block polymer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 067949 for use as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 066104 for use as in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.517 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) For treatment of legume (alfalfa, clover) bloat in cattle. Administer as a drench at the rate of 25 grams for animals up to 500 pounds and 50 grams for animals over 500 pounds of body weight. 
</P>
<P>(2) For control of legume (alfalfa, clover) bloat in cattle. Administer, in molasses block containing 6.6 percent poloxalene, at the rate of 0.8 oz. of block (1.5 grams poloxalene) per 100 lbs. of body weight per day. 
</P>
<P>(3) For prevention of legume (alfalfa, clover) and wheat pasture bloat in cattle. A 53-percent poloxalene top dressing on individual rations of ground feed. Dosage is 1 gram of poloxalene per 100 pounds of body weight daily. If bloating conditions are severe, the dose is doubled. Treatment should be started 2 to 3 days before exposure to bloat-producing conditions. Repeat use of the drug if animals are exposed to bloat-producing conditions for more than 12 hours after the last treatment. Do not exceed the double dose in any 24-hour period. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 39857, Aug. 29, 1975; 42 FR 41854, Aug. 19, 1977; 50 FR 5385, Feb. 8, 1985; 54 FR 33501, Aug. 15, 1989; 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 58 FR 26523, May 4, 1993; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 66 FR 47963, Sept. 17, 2001; 69 FR 62811, Oct. 28, 2004; 70 FR 32489, June 3, 2005; 78 FR 28826, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1855" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.226" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1855   Ponazuril.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of paste contains 150 milligrams (mg) ponazuril.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 15 mg per kilogram (kg) (6.81 mg per pound (lb)) body weight as the first dose, followed by 5 mg/kg (2.27 mg/lb) body weight once daily for a period of 27 additional days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis caused by <I>Sarcocystis neurona.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 43774, Aug. 21, 2001, as amended at 79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 34278, June 16, 2015; 80 FR 53459, Sept. 4, 2015; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1858" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.227" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1858   Potassium bromide chewable tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 250 or 500 milligrams (mg) potassium bromide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 055246 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 25 to 68 mg per kilogram (11 to 31 mg per pound) of body weight. The dosage should be adjusted based on monitoring of clinical response of the individual patient.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of seizures associated with idiopathic epilepsy in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1860" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.228" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1860   Pradofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 25 milligrams (mg) pradofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3.4 mg/lb (7.5 mg/kg) body weight once daily for 7 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (wounds and abscesses) in cats caused by susceptible strains of <I>Pasteurella multocida, Streptococcus canis,</I> <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus felis,</I> and <I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 76863, Dec. 31, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1870" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.229" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1870   Praziquantel tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains 34 milligrams (mg) praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(2) Each tablet contains 11.5 or 23 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(3) Each chewable tablet contains 23 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 069043 and 086101 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraphs (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 086101 for use of product as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 pounds (lb) and under, 
<FR>1/2</FR> tablet (17 mg); 6 to 10 lb, 1 tablet (34 mg); 11 to 15 lb, 1
<FR>1/2</FR> tablets (51 mg); 16 to 30 lb, 2 tablets (68 mg); 31 to 45 lb, 3 tablets (102 mg); 46 to 60 lb, 4 tablets (136 mg); over 60 lb, 5 tablets maximum (170 mg). Administer directly by mouth or crumbled and in feed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) For removal of canine cestodes <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia pisiformis.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) For removal of the canine cestode <I>Echinococcus granulosus,</I> and for removal and control of the canine cestode <I>Echinococcus multilocularis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations</I>—(A) If labeled only for use as in paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) of this section: Not intended for use in puppies less than 4 weeks of age. Consult your veterinarian before administering tablets to weak or debilitated animals and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<P>(B) If labeled for use as in paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(B) of this section: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of feline cestodes <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia taeniaeformis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dosage.</I> Cats 4 pounds and under, 11.5 mg; 5 to 11 pounds, 23 mg; over 11 pounds, 34.5 mg.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer directly by mouth or crumbled and in feed. Not intended for use in kittens less than 6 weeks of age. For over the counter use: Consult your veterinarian before administering tablets to weak or debilitated animals, and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 60570, Dec. 11, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 26377, June 18, 1982; 55 FR 2234, Jan. 23, 1990; 58 FR 7864, Feb. 10, 1993; 58 FR 42853, Aug. 12, 1993; 68 FR 57351, Oct. 3, 2003; 69 FR 62181, Oct. 25, 2004; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023; 91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1871" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.230" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1871   Praziquantel and pyrantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains 13.6 milligrams (mg) praziquantel and 54.3 mg pyrantel base (as pyrantel pamoate), 18.2 mg praziquantel and 72.6 mg pyrantel base (as pyrantel pamoate), or 27.2 mg praziquantel and 108.6 mg pyrantel base (as pyrantel pamoate).
</P>
<P>(2) Each chewable tablet contains 30 mg praziquantel and 30 mg pyrantel pamoate or 114 mg praziquantel and 114 mg pyrantel pamoate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) for use as in paragraph (d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) See No. 058198 for use of tablets described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for use as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) See No. 051311 for use of tablets described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for use as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Dosage.</I> Administer a minimum dose of 2.27 mg praziquantel and 9.2 mg pyrantel pamoate per pound of body weight according to the dosing tables on labeling. May be given directly by mouth or in a small amount of food. Do not withhold food prior to or after treatment. If reinfection occurs, treatment may be repeated. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of tapeworms (<I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia taeniaeformis</I>), hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I>), and large roundworms (<I>Toxocara cati</I>) in cats and kittens.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in kittens less than 2 months of age or weighing less than 2.0 pounds. Consult your veterinarian before giving to sick or pregnant animals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a minimum dose of 5 mg praziquantel and 5 mg pyrantel pamoate per kilogram body weight (2.27 mg praziquantel and 2.27 mg pyrantel pamoate per pound body weight) according to the dosing tables on labeling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>), hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I>, <I>Ancylostoma braziliense</I>, and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>), and tapeworms (<I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia pisiformis</I>) in dogs and puppies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 58652, Nov. 3, 1993, as amended at 72 FR 16270, Apr. 4, 2007; 75 FR 54018, Sept. 3, 2010; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1872" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.231" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1872   Praziquantel, pyrantel pamoate, and febantel tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet or chewable tablet contains either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Tablet No. 1: 22.7 milligrams praziquantel, 22.7 milligrams pyrantel base, and 113.4 milligrams febantel; or
</P>
<P>(2) Tablet No. 2: 68 milligrams praziquantel, 68 milligrams pyrantel base, and 340.2 milligrams febantel.
</P>
<P>(3) Tablet No. 3: 136 milligrams (mg) praziquantel, 136 mg pyrantel base, and 680.4 mg febantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as a single dose directly by mouth or in a small amount of food as follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Weight of animal
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Number of tablets per dose
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Kilograms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pounds
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tablet no. 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tablet no. 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tablet no. 3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.9 to 1.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3 to 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.6 to 5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 to 12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 1/2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.9 to 8.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 to 18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.6 to 11.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">19 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 1/2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11.8 to 13.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">26 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14.1 to 20.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31 to 44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 1/2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20.4 to 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27.7 to 40.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">61 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 1/2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41.3 to 54.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">91 to 120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal of tapeworms (<I>Dipylidium caninum, Taenia pisiformis, Echinococcus granulosus</I>); hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum, Uncinaria stenocephala</I>); ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina</I>); and whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>) and for the removal and control of tapeworm <I>Echinococcus multilocularis</I> in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 33908, July 1, 1994, as amended at 61 FR 29651, June 12, 1996; 68 FR 22293, Apr. 28, 2003; 71 FR 6677, Feb. 9, 2006; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1880" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.232" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1880   Prednisolone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 5 or 20 milligrams prednisolone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061690 in § 510.600(c)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.5 milligrams per 4.5 kilograms (10 pounds) body weight per day. Administer total daily dose orally in equally divided doses 6 to 10 hours apart until response is noted or 7 days have elapsed. When response is attained, dosage should be gradually reduced until maintenance level is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as an anti-inflammatory agent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 4718, Feb. 7, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 57832, Nov. 22, 1995; 63 FR 148, Jan. 5, 1998; 79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1892" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.233" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1892   Pregabalin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) pregabalin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 052483 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally as a single dose of 5 mg/kg (0.1 mL/kg) approximately 1.5 hours before the start of the transportation or veterinary visit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For alleviation of acute anxiety and fear associated with transportation and veterinary visits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1900" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.234" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1900   Primidone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 50 or 250 milligrams of primidone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 069043 for use of 250 milligram tablets.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of 50 and 250 milligram tablets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Twenty-five milligrams of primidone per pound of body weight (55 milligrams per kilogram of body weight) daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of convulsions associated with idiopathic epilepsy, epileptiform convulsions, viral encephalitis, distemper, and hardpad disease that occurs as a clinically recognizable lesion in certain entities in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 61594, Dec. 6, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 55386, Nov. 28, 1978; 46 FR 8467, Jan. 27, 1981; 46 FR 57477, Nov. 24, 1981; 53 FR 40727, Oct. 18, 1988; 56 FR 37473, Aug. 7, 1991; 62 FR 35076, June 30, 1997; 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1920" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.235" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1920   Prochlorperazine and isopropamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsules contains either:
</P>
<P>(1) 3.33 milligrams of prochlorperazine (as the dimaleate) and 1.67 milligrams of isopropamide (as the iodide); or
</P>
<P>(2) 10 milligrams of prochlorperazine (as the dimaleate) and 5 milligrams of isopropamide (as the iodide).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) Capsules described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are administered orally to dogs weighing from 4 to 15 pounds at the rate of 1 capsule twice daily. These capsules are administered orally to dogs weighing from 16 to 30 pounds at the rate of 1 or 2 capsules twice daily. For dogs weighing less than 4 pounds, administer orally an appropriate fraction of the contents of one of these capsules.
</P>
<P>(ii) Capsules described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section are given to dogs weighing 30 pounds and over at the rate of 1 capsule twice daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of gastrointestinal disturbances associated with emotional stress.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1921" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.236" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1921   Prochlorperazine, isopropamide, and neomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains either:
</P>
<P>(1) Capsule No. 1: 3.33 milligrams of prochlorperazine (as the dimaleate), 1.67 milligrams of isopropamide (as the iodide), and 25 milligrams of neomycin base (as the sulfate); or
</P>
<P>(2) Capsule No. 3: 10 milligrams of prochlorperazine (as the dimaleate), 5 milligrams of isopropamide (as the iodide), and 75 milligrams of neomycin base (as the sulfate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer capsules orally twice daily to dogs as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Animal weight (pounds)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number of capsules per dose
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capsule No. 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capsule No. 3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 to 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment infectious bacterial gastroenteritis associated with emotional stress.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 14103, Apr. 10, 1984, as amended at 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.1962" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.237" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.1962   Promazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Conforms to N.F. XII for promazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.45 to 0.9 milligrams per pound of body weight mixed with an amount of feed that will be readily consumed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For quieting excitable, unruly, or intractable horses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2002" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.238" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2002   Propiopromazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 10 or 20 milligrams of propiopromazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.5 to 2.0 milligrams per pound of body weight once or twice daily, depending upon the degree of tranquilization desired.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For oral administration as a tranquilizer. As an aid in handling difficult, excited, and unruly dogs, and in controlling excessive kennel barking, car sickness, and severe dermatitis. It is also indicated for use in minor surgery and prior to routine examinations, laboratory procedures, and diagnostic procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2041" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.239" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2041   Pyrantel pamoate chewable tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains pyrantel pamoate equivalent to 22.7 or 113.5 milligrams pyrantel base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 017135 and 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Provides at least 2.27 milligrams pyrantel base per pound body weight for dogs weighing more than 5 pounds, and at least 4.54 milligrams of pyrantel base per pound body weight for dogs weighing 5 pounds or less. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>In dogs and puppies.</I> For removal of ascarids (<I>Toxocara canis; Toxascaris leonina</I>) and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum; Uncinaria stenocephala</I>). 
</P>
<P>(ii) In puppies and adult dogs and in lactating bitches after whelping. To prevent reinfection of <I>Toxocara canis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer to puppies at 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, and 10 weeks of age. Administer to lactating bitches 2 to 3 weeks after whelping. Retreatment of adult dogs may be necessary at monthly intervals as determined by laboratory fecal examinations. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37937, Oct. 13, 1987, as amended at 57 FR 48163, Oct. 22, 1992; 58 FR 44611, Aug. 24, 1993; 66 FR 9650, Feb. 9, 2001; 67 FR 21996, May 2, 2002; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 82 FR 12169, Mar. 1, 2017; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2042" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.240" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2042   Pyrantel pamoate tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains pyrantel pamoate equivalent to 22.7, 45.4, or 113.5 milligrams of pyrantel base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 017135 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used for dogs as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> For dogs weighing over 5 pounds, use at least 2.27 milligrams of pyrantel base per pound of body weight; for dogs weighing 5 pounds or less, use at least 4.54 milligrams of pyrantel base per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal and control of large roundworms (ascarids) (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>), and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally directly or in a small amount of food. To prevent reinfection of <I>T. canis</I> in puppies, lactating bitches after whelping, and adult dogs; treat puppies 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, and 10 weeks of age; treat lactating bitches 2 to 3 weeks after whelping; routinely treat adult dogs monthly. Do not withhold food prior to or after treatment. The presence of these parasites should be confirmed by laboratory fecal examination. A followup fecal examination should be conducted 2 to 4 weeks after first treatment regimen to determine the need for re-treatment. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 52700, Nov. 14, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 22073, May 25, 1984; 57 FR 48163, Oct. 22, 1992; 58 FR 44611, Aug. 24, 1993] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2043" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.241" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2043   Pyrantel pamoate suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter (mL) contains pyrantel pamoate equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) pyrantel base.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL contains pyrantel pamoate equivalent to 2.27 or 4.54 mg pyrantel base.
</P>
<P>(3) Each mL contains pyrantel pamoate equivalent to 4.54 mg pyrantel base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 054771, 058829, and 069043 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 054771, 058198, and 058829 for use of the products described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 023851 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(3) as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses and ponies.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 mg per pound (/lb) body weight as a single dose mixed with the usual grain ration, or by stomach tube or dose syringe.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of mature infections of large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris, S. edentatus, S. equinus</I>); pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>); large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>); and small strongyles.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. When the drug is for administration by stomach tube, it shall be labeled: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dogs and puppies</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 2.27 mg/lb body weight as a single dose in the animal's feed bowl by itself or mixed in a small quantity of food.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal of large roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Additional treatment may be required and should be confirmed by fecal examination within 2 to 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs, puppies, and lactating bitches after whelping</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> 2.27 mg/lb body weight.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> To prevent reinfections of <I>T. canis.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer to puppies at 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, and 10 weeks of age. Administer to lactating bitches 2 to 3 weeks after whelping. Adult dogs kept in heavily contaminated quarters may be treated at monthly intervals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 43248, June 27, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 54803, Sept. 19, 2003; 68 FR 55199, Sept. 23, 2003; 68 FR 55825, Sept. 29, 2003; 75 FR 52622, Aug. 27, 2010; 76 FR 17337, Mar. 29, 2011; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 76386, Dec. 9, 2015; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2044" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.242" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2044   Pyrantel pamoate paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) Each milliliter (mL) contains 180 milligrams (mg) pyrantel base (as pyrantel pamoate).
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL contains 226 mg pyrantel base (as pyrantel pamoate).
</P>
<P>(3) Each mL contains 171 mg pyrantel base (as pyrantel pamoate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1)(i) and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 017135 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 061133 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1)(i) and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in horses and ponies as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (i) 3 mg per pound (/lb) body weight as single oral dose for removal and control of infections from the following mature parasites: large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris</I>, <I>S. edentatus</I>, <I>S. equinus</I>); small strongyles; pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>); and large roundworms (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) 6 mg/lb body weight as single oral dose for the removal and control of mature infections of tapeworms (<I>Anoplocephala perfoliata</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 29447, May 23, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 17337, Mar. 29, 2011; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2045" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.243" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2045   Pyrantel tartrate powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains 106 milligrams (10.6 percent) or 113 milligrams (11.3 percent) pyrantel tartrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of 11.3 percent powder as in paragraph (d)(1) and 10.6 percent powder as in paragraph (d)(2) and of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.560 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as a single dose at 0.57 gram of pyrantel tartrate per 100 pounds of body weight mixed with the usual grain ration. Do not administer by stomach tube or dose syringe.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of infections from the following mature parasites: Large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris, S. edentatus,</I> <I>S. equinus</I>), small strongyles (<I>Trichonema</I> spp., <I>Triodontophorus</I>), pinworms (<I>Oxyuris</I>), and large roundworms (<I>Parascaris</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat severely debilitated animals with this drug. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Add to feed at 0.4 gram pyrantel tartrate per pound of non-pelleted ration. The ration is administered as a single treatment as the sole ration at the rate of 1 pound per 40 pounds of animal weight for animals up to 200 pounds. Animals 200 pounds and over are administered 5 pounds of ration per animal.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of large roundworms (<I>Ascaris suum</I>) and nodular worm (<I>Oesophagostomum</I>) infections.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Consult veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals. Do not treat within 24 hours of slaughter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28827, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2046" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.244" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2046   Pyrantel tartrate pellets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of pellets contains 12.5 milligrams (mg) (1.25 percent) pyrantel tartrate; or
</P>
<P>(2) Each gram of pellets contains 21.1 mg (2.11 percent) pyrantel tartrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of products described in paragraph (a) as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as a single dose at 12.5 mg per 2.2 pounds of body weight mixed with the usual grain ration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the removal and control of infections from the following mature parasites: Large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris, S. edentatus,</I> <I>S. equinus</I>), small strongyles (<I>Trichonema</I> spp., <I>Triodontophorus</I>), pinworms (<I>Oxyuris</I>), and large roundworms (<I>Parascaris</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat severely debilitated animals with this drug. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28828, May 20, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2075" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.245" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2075   Robenacoxib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 10, 20, or 40 milligrams (mg) robenacoxib for use in dogs; or
</P>
<P>(2) 6 mg robenacoxib for use in cats.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 086117 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.91 mg/lb (2 mg/kg) orally, once daily, for a maximum of 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with soft tissue surgery in dogs weighing at least 5.5 lb (2.5 kg) and at least 4 months of age for a maximum of 3 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.45 mg/lb (1 mg/kg) orally, once daily, for a maximum of 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with orthopedic surgery, ovariohysterectomy, and castration in cats weighing at least 5.5 lb (2.5 kg) and at least 4 months of age for a maximum of 3 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18648, Apr. 5, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 10964, Feb. 27, 2014; 81 FR 59133, Aug. 29, 2016; 91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2086" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.246" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2086   Sarolaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, or 120 milligrams (mg) sarolaner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once a month at the recommended minimum dosage of 0.91 mg/lb (2 mg/kg).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas, and is indicated for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>), and the treatment and control of tick infestations (<I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick), <I>Amblyomma maculatum</I> (Gulf Coast tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (Asian longhorned tick)) for 1 month in dogs 6 months of age or older and weighing 2.8 pounds or greater. For the prevention of <I>Borrelia burgdorferi</I> infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> vector ticks.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 12169, Mar. 1, 2017; 86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021; 90 FR 6800, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2090" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.247" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2090   Sarolaner, moxidectin, and pyrantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 3.0 milligrams (mg) sarolaner, 0.06 mg moxidectin, and 12.5 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(2) 6.0 mg sarolaner, 0.12 mg moxidectin, and 25.0 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(3) 12.0 mg sarolaner, 0.24 mg moxidectin, and 50.0 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(4) 24.0 mg sarolaner, 0.48 mg moxidectin, and 100 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt);
</P>
<P>(5) 48.0 mg sarolaner, 0.96 mg moxidectin, and 200 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt); or
</P>
<P>(6) 72.0 mg sarolaner, 1.44 mg moxidectin, and 300 mg pyrantel (as pamoate salt).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally, once a month, at the recommended minimum dose of 0.54 mg/lb (1.2 mg/kg) sarolaner, 0.011 mg/lb (24 µg/kg) moxidectin, and 2.27 mg/lb (5 mg/kg) pyrantel (as pamoate salt).


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and for the treatment and control of roundworm (immature adult and adult <I>Toxocara canis</I> and adult <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>) and hookworm (L4, immature adult, and adult <I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and adult <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) infections. Kills adult fleas (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and is indicated for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations, the prevention of <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> (tapeworm) infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ctenocephalides felis</I> vector fleas on the treated dog, and the treatment and control of tick infestations with <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick), <I>Amblyomma maculatum</I> (Gulf Coast tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (Asian longhorned tick) for one month in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older, and weighing 2.8 pounds or greater. For the prevention of <I>Borrelia burgdorferi</I> infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> vector ticks.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 45307, July 28, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021; 87 FR 17945, Mar. 29, 2022; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024; 90 FR 6800, Jan. 21, 2025; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2098" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.248" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2098   Selegiline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 2, 5, 10, 15, or 30 milligrams (mg) selegiline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (i) Administer 1 mg per kilogram (0.45 mg per pound) of body weight once daily for control of clinical signs associated with uncomplicated pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer 0.5 to 1.0 mg per kilogram of body weight once daily for the control of clinical signs associated with canine cognitive dysfunction syndrome.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28828, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.249" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2100   Selenium and vitamin E.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 2.19 milligrams (mg) sodium selenite (equivalent to 1 mg selenium) and 56.2 mg (68 I.U.) vitamin E as d-alpha tocopheryl acid succinate; or
</P>
<P>(2) 0.548 mg sodium selenite (equivalent to 0.25 mg selenium) and 14 mg (17 I.U.) vitamin E as d-alpha tocopheryl acid succinate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) Dogs over 20 pounds: Administer 1 capsule described in paragraph (a)(1) per 20 pounds of body weight to a maximum of 5 capsules. Repeat at 3 day intervals until a satisfactory therapeutic response is observed. Maintenance dosage is 1 capsule per 40 pounds of body weight every 3 to 7 days, or longer, as required.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dogs under 20 pounds: Administer 1 capsule described in paragraph (a)(2) per 5 pounds of body weight with a minimum of 1 capsule. Repeat at 3-day intervals until a satisfactory response is observed. Maintenance dosage is 1 capsule per 10 pounds of body weight every 3 to 7 days, or longer, as required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in alleviating and controlling inflammation, pain, and lameness associated with certain arthropathies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28828, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2123" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.250" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2123   Spectinomycin oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2123a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.251" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2123a   Spectinomycin tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains spectinomycin dihydrochloride equivalent to 100 milligrams (mg) spectinomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally to provide 10 mg per pound (lb) of body weight twice daily. Dosage may be continued for 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of infectious diarrhea and gastroenteritis caused by organisms susceptible to spectinomycin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 6607, Feb. 5, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 28828, May 20, 2014; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2123b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.252" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2123b   Spectinomycin powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram (g) of powder contains spectinomycin dihydrochloride pentahydrate equivalent to 0.5 g spectinomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in chickens.</I> It is administered in the drinking water of growing chickens as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Indications for use and amounts.</I> (i) As an aid in controlling infectious synovitis due to <I>Mycoplasma synoviae</I> in broiler chickens, administer 1 g per gallon of water as the only source of drinking water for the first 3 to 5 days of life.
</P>
<P>(ii) As an aid in the prevention or control of losses due to CRD associated with <I>M. gallisepticum</I> (PPLO) in growing chickens, administer 2 g per gallon of water as the only source of drinking water for the first 3 days of life and for 1 day following each vaccination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer to laying chickens. Do not administer within 5 days of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 6607, Feb. 5, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2123c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.253" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2123c   Spectinomycin solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains spectinomycin dihydrochloride pentahydrate equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) spectinomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 016592, 054771, and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 mg per pound (lb) of body weight orally twice daily for 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of porcine enteric colibacillosis (scours) caused by <I>E. coli</I> susceptible to spectinomycin in pigs under 4 weeks of age.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer to pigs over 15 lb body weight or over 4 weeks of age. Do not administer within 21 days of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 6607, Feb. 5, 2008, as amended at 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 28828, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 14897, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2130" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.254" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2130   Spinosad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 140, 270, 560, 810, or 1620 milligrams (mg) spinosad.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer tablets once a month at a recommended minimum dosage of 13.5 mg per pound (30 mg per kilogram) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To kill fleas and for the prevention and treatment of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) for 1 month on dogs and puppies 14 weeks of age and older and 5.0 pounds of body weight or greater.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer tablets once a month at a minimum dosage of 22.5 mg per pound (50 mg per kilogram) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To kill fleas and for the prevention and treatment of flea infestations (<I>C. felis</I>) for 1 month on cats and kittens 14 weeks of age and older and 4.1 pounds of body weight or greater.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 60623, Oct. 4, 2012, as amended at 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016; 87 FR 10968, Feb. 28, 2022; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2134" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.255" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2134   Spinosad and milbemycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 140 milligrams (mg) spinosad and 2.3 mg milbemycin oxime, 270 mg spinosad and 4.5 mg milbemycin oxime, 560 mg spinosad and 9.3 mg milbemycin oxime, 810 mg spinosad and 13.5 mg milbemycin oxime, or 1,620 mg spinosad and 27 mg milbemycin oxime.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer once a month at a minimum dosage of 13.5 mg/pound (lb) (30 mg/kilogram (kg)) of body weight spinosad and 0.2 mg/lb (0.5 mg/kg) of body weight milbemycin oxime.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To kill fleas; for the prevention and treatment of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>); for the prevention of heartworm disease (<I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>); and for the treatment and control of adult hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I>), adult roundworm (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>), and adult whipworm (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>) infections in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age or older and 5 lbs of body weight or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12563, Mar. 8, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2138" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.256" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2138   Spironolactone and benazepril.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each chewable tablet contains 20 milligrams (mg) spironolactone and 2.5 mg benazepril hydrochloride, 40 mg spironolactone and 5 mg benazepril hydrochloride, or 80 mg spironolactone and 10 mg benazepril hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 013744 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once daily, with food, at a dose of 0.9 mg per pound (lb) (2 mg per kilogram (kg)) spironolactone and 0.11 mg/lb (0.25 mg/kg) benazepril hydrochloride, according to dog body weight using a suitable combination of whole and/or half tablets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> With concurrent therapy (<I>e.g.,</I> furosemide, etc.) for the management of clinical signs of mild, moderate, or severe congestive heart failure in dogs due to atrioventricular valvular insufficiency (AVVI).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2150" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.257" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2150   Stanozolol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet or chewable tablet contains 2 milligrams stanozolol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Dogs:</I> Administered orally to small breeds, 
<FR>1/2</FR> to 1 tablet twice daily for several weeks; to large breeds, 1 to 2 tablets twice daily for several weeks. The tablets may be crushed and administered in feed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats:</I> Administered orally 
<FR>1/2</FR> to 1 tablet twice daily for several weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an anabolic steroid treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28828, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2158" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.258" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2158   Streptomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 250 milligrams (25 percent) streptomycin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.610 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> Use in drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Calves</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 15 milligrams per pound (mg/pound) of body weight (1.0 to 1.5 grams per gallon) for up to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. susceptible to streptomycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 15 mg/pound of body weight (1.0 to 1.5 grams per gallon) for up to 4 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and <I>Salmonella</I> spp. susceptible to streptomycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 15 mg/pound of body weight (0.6 to 0.9 grams per gallon) for up to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of nonspecific infectious enteritis caused by organisms susceptible to streptomycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw 4 days before slaughter. Do not administer to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37327, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 47211, Sept. 8, 1993; 63 FR 51821, Sept. 29, 1998. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 28828, May 20, 2014; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015; 80 FR 61296, Oct. 13, 2015]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2184" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.259" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2184   Sulfachloropyrazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains 476 milligrams of sodium sulfachloropyrazine monohydrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerance.</I> See § 556.625 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in chickens.</I> It is used in the drinking water of broilers, breeder flocks, and replacement chickens as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water as 0.03 percent solution for 3 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of coccidiosis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw 4 days prior to slaughter. Do not use in chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28829, May 20, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.260" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2200   Sulfachlorpyridazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Sodium sulfachlorpyridazine powder.


</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter (mL) of suspension contains 50 milligrams (mg) of sodium sulfachlorpyridazine.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.630 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Calves</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 30 to 45 mg sulfachlorpyridazine powder per pound (/lb) of body weight per day in milk or milk replacer in divided doses twice daily for 1 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of diarrhea caused or complicated by <I>Escherichia coli</I> (colibacillosis).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated ruminating calves must not be slaughtered for food during treatment or for 7 days after the last treatment. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 20 to 35 mg/lb body weight per day in divided doses twice daily for 1 to 5 days in drinking water or an oral suspension containing 50 mg per mL.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of diarrhea caused or complicated by <I>E. coli</I> (colibacillosis).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated swine must not be slaughtered for food during treatment or for 4 days after the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10166, Mar. 5, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 28829, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2215" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.261" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2215   Sulfadiazine/pyrimethamine suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of suspension contains 250 milligrams (mg) sulfadiazine (as the sodium salt) and 12.5 mg pyrimethamine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 055246 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 20 mg sulfadiazine per kilogram (kg) body weight and 1 mg/kg pyrimethamine daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) caused by <I>Sarcocystis neurona.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 70054, Dec. 2, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 53686, Sept. 17, 2008; 75 FR 69586, Nov. 15, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2218" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.262" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2218   Sulfamerazine, sulfamethazine, and sulfaquinoxaline powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 195-gram (g) packet of powder contains 78 g sulfamerazine, 78 g sulfamethazine, and 39 g sulfaquinoxaline.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.660, 556.670, and 556.685 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) As an aid in the control of coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria tenella</I> and <I>E. necatrix</I> susceptible to sulfamerazine, sulfamethazine, and sulfaquinoxaline: Provide medicated water (0.04 percent solution) for 2 to 3 days, then plain water for 3 days, then medicated water (0.025 percent solution) for 2 days. If bloody droppings appear, repeat at 0.025 percent level for 2 more days. Do not change litter.
</P>
<P>(B) As an aid in the control of acute fowl cholera caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> susceptible to sulfamerazine, sulfamethazine, and sulfaquinoxaline: Provide medicated water (0.04 percent solution) for 2 to 3 days. If disease recurs, repeat treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat chickens within 14 days of slaughter for food. Do not medicate chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) As an aid in the control of coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria meleagrimitis</I> and <I>E. adenoeides</I> susceptible to sulfamerazine, sulfamethazine, and sulfaquinoxaline: Provide medicated water (0.025 percent solution) for 2 days, then plain water for 3 days, then medicated water (0.025 percent solution) for 2 days, then plain water for 3 days, then medicated water (0.025 percent solution) for 2 days. Repeat if necessary. Do not change litter.
</P>
<P>(B) As an aid in the control of acute fowl cholera caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> susceptible to sulfamerazine, sulfamethazine, and sulfaquinoxaline: Provide medicated water (0.04 percent solution) for 2 to 3 days. If disease recurs, repeat treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat turkeys within 14 days of slaughter for food. Do not medicate turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 13001, Mar. 14, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 28829, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 34278, June 16, 2015; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2220" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.263" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2220   Sulfadimethoxine oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2220a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.264" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2220a   Sulfadimethoxine oral solution and soluble powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each ounce of solution contains 3.75 grams (12.5 percent) sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(2) Each 107 grams of powder contains the equivalent of 94.6 grams sulfadimethoxine as sulfadimethoxine sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592, 054771, 054925, and 069043 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592, 054771, 054925, 058829, 061133, and 066104 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.640 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Broiler and replacement chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.875 grams per gallon (0.05 percent) of drinking water for 6 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of outbreaks of coccidiosis, fowl cholera, and infectious coryza.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Do not administer to chickens over 16 weeks (112 days) of age. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.938 grams per gallon (0.025 percent) of drinking water for 6 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Growing turkeys: For treatment of disease outbreaks of coccidiosis and fowl cholera.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Do not administer to turkeys over 24 weeks (168 days) of age. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1.18 to 2.36 grams per gallon (0.031 to 0.062 percent) of drinking water. As a drench, administer 2.5 grams per 100 pounds of body weight for first day, then 1.25 grams per 100 pounds of body weight per day for the next 4 consecutive days. If no improvement within 2 to 3 days, reevaluate diagnosis. Do not treat beyond 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Dairy calves, dairy heifers, and beef cattle: For the treatment of shipping fever complex and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. sensitive to sulfadimethoxine; and calf diphtheria and foot rot associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> (<I>Sphaerophorus necrophorus</I>) sensitive to sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw 7 days before slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this product in lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28829, May 20, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 87 FR 10968, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2220b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.265" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2220b   Sulfadimethoxine suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 50 milligrams (mg) sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 25 mg per pound of body weight, followed by 12.5 mg per pound of body weight daily until the animal is free of clinical signs for 48 hours.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of sulfadimethoxine-susceptible bacterial infections in dogs and cats and enteritis associated with coccidiosis in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28829, May 20, 2014, as amended at 88 FR 55564, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2220c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.266" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2220c   Sulfadimethoxine tablet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 125, 250, or 500 milligrams (mg) sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 25 mg per pound of body weight, followed by 12.5 mg per pound of body weight daily until the animal is free of clinical signs for 48 hours.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of sulfadimethoxine-susceptible bacterial infections in dogs and cats and enteritis associated with coccidiosis in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28829, May 20, 2014, as amended at 88 FR 55564, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2220d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.267" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2220d   Sulfadimethoxine bolus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains 2.5, 5, or 15 grams sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.640 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.5 grams per 100 pounds body weight for 1 day followed by 1.25 grams per 100 pounds body weight per day; treat for 4 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of shipping fever complex and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. sensitive to sulfadimethoxine; and calf diphtheria and foot rot associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> sensitive to sulfadimethoxine.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer within 7 days of slaughter. Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and 60 hours (five milkings) after the latest treatment must not be used for food. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28829, May 20, 2014, as amended at 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2220e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.268" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2220e   Sulfadimethoxine extended-release bolus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each extended-release bolus contains 12.5 grams sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.640 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in beef cattle and non-lactating dairy cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one 12.5-gram-sustained-release bolus for the nearest 200 pounds of body weight, i.e., 62.5 milligrams per pound of body weight. Do not repeat treatment for 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of shipping fever complex and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. sensitive to sulfadimethoxine; and calf diphtheria and foot rot associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> sensitive to sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Do not administer within 12 days of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28830, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2220f" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.269" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2220f   Sulfadimethoxine and ormetoprim tablet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 120 milligrams (mg) (100 mg sulfadimethoxine and 20 mg ormetoprim), 240 mg (200 mg sulfadimethoxine and 40 mg ormetoprim), 600 mg (500 mg sulfadimethoxine and 100 mg ormetoprim), or 1200 mg (1000 mg sulfadimethoxine and 200 mg ormetoprim).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> On the first day of treatment, administer 25 mg per pound (55 mg per kilogram) of body weight. Then follow with a daily dosage of 12.5 mg per pound (27.5 mg per kilogram) of body weight. Do not exceed a total of 21 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications of use.</I> Treatment of skin and soft tissue infections (wounds and abscesses) in dogs caused by strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> and <I>Escherichia coli</I> and urinary tract infections caused by <I>E. coli, Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Proteus mirabilus</I> susceptible to ormetoprim-potentiated sulfadimethoxine.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28830, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2240" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.270" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2240   Sulfaethoxypyridazine.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2240a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.271" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2240a   Sulfaethoxypyridazine solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 62.5 milligrams (mg) sodium sulfaethoxypyridazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.650 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3.8 grams per gallon for first day followed by 1.9 grams per gallon for not less than 3 days nor more than 9 days. Use as the sole source of sulfonamide.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial scours pneumonia enteritis, bronchitis, septicemia accompanying <I>Salmonella choleraesuis</I> infection.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat within 10 days of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> For use at 2.5 grams per gallon. Administer at the rate of 1 gallon per 100 pounds of body weight per day for 4 days. Use as the sole source of sulfonamide.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of respiratory infections (pneumonia, shipping fever), foot rot, calf scours; and as adjunctive therapy in septicemia accompanying mastitis and metritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat within 16 days of slaughter. Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and for 72 hours (6 milkings) after latest treatment must not be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28830, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2240b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.272" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2240b   Sulfaethoxypyridazine tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each tablet contains 2.5 or 15 grams sulfaethoxypyridazine.
</P>
<P>(2) Each extended-release tablet contains 5 grams sulfaethoxypyridazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.650 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>2.5- or 15-gram tablets</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 25 milligrams per pound of body weight per day for 4 days. Use as the sole source of sulfonamide.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of respiratory infections (pneumonia, shipping fever), foot rot, calf scours; as adjunctive therapy in septicemia accompanying mastitis and metritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat within 16 days of slaughter. Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and for 72 hours (6 milkings) after latest treatment must not be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>15-gram extended-release tablets</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 100 milligrams per pound of body weight. Use as the sole source of sulfonamide.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of foot rot and respiratory infections (shipping fever and pneumonia) caused by sulfonamide-susceptible pathogens (<I>E. coli, Streptococci,</I> <I>Staphylococci, Sphaerophorus necrophorus</I> and Gram-negative rods including <I>Pasteurella</I>); and for use prophylactically during periods of stress for reducing losses due to sulfonamide sensitive disease conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat within 16 days of slaughter. Not for use in lactating dairy cows. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28830, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.273" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2260   Sulfamethazine oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2260a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.274" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2260a   Sulfamethazine oblets and boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each oblet or bolus contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 2.5, 5, or 15 grams sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(2) 5 grams sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of products described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 016592 for use of products described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) Oblets and boluses described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as a single dose 100 milligrams per pound (mg/lb) of body weight the first day and 50 mg/lb of body weight on each following day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) <I>Beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle.</I> For the treatment of bacterial pneumonia and bovine respiratory disease complex (shipping fever complex) (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp.), colibacillosis (bacterial scours) (<I>Escherichia coli</I>), necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>), calf diphtheria (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>), acute mastitis (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp.), acute metritis (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp.), and coccidiosis (<I>Eimeria bovis</I> and <I>E. zurnii</I>).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Horses.</I> For the treatment of bacterial pneumonia (secondary infections associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp.), strangles (<I>Streptococcus</I> equi), and bacterial enteritis (<I>Escherichia coli</I>).


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer for more than 5 consecutive days. Do not treat cattle within 10 days of slaughter. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use of sulfamethazine in this class of cattle may cause milk residues. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.






</P>
<P>(2) Boluses described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 10 grams (2 boluses) of sulfamethazine per 100 pounds of body weight the first day, then 5 grams (1 bolus) of sulfamethazine per 100 pounds of body weight daily for up to 4 additional consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) <I>Ruminating beef and dairy calves.</I> For treatment of the following diseases caused by organisms susceptible to sulfamethazine: bacterial scours (colibacillosis) caused by <I>Escherichia coli;</I> necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) and calf diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum;</I> bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp.; and coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria bovis</I> and <I>E. zurnii.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer for more than 5 consecutive days. Do not treat calves within 11 days of slaughter. Do not use in calves to be slaughtered under 1 month of age or in calves being fed an all milk diet. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older; such use may cause drug residues in milk. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 58961, Sept. 29, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 14897, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2260b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.275" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2260b   Sulfamethazine sustained-release boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of a 27-gram sulfamethazine sustained-release bolus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 27 grams (1 bolus) for each 150 pounds of body weight as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For nonlactating cattle for the treatment of infections caused by organisms sensitive to sulfamethazine such as hemorrhagic septicemia (shipping fever complex), bacterial pneumonia, foot rot, and calf diphtheria and as an aid in the control of bacterial diseases usually associated with shipping and handling of cattle.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> If no response within 2 to 3 days, reevaluate therapy; do not crush tablets; treated animals must not be slaughtered for food within 28 days after the latest treatment; Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of a 32.1-gram sustained-release bolus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 32.1 grams (1 bolus) per 200 pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For beef and nonlactating dairy cattle for the treatment of diseases caused by sulfamethazine-sensitive organisms as follows: bacterial pneumonia and bovine respiratory disease complex (shipping fever complex) caused by <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., colibacillosis (bacterial scours) caused by <I>E. coli,</I> necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) and calf diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum,</I> and acute mastitis and acute metritis caused by <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.)


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use of sulfamethazine in this class of cattle may cause milk residues. Do not treat animals within 12 days of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of an 8.02-gram sulfamethazine sustained-release bolus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2 boluses (8.02 grams per bolus) per 100 pounds of body weight, as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Administer orally to ruminating calves for the prolonged treatment of the following diseases when caused by one or more of the listed pathogenic organisms sensitive to sulfamethazine: bacterial pneumonia (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp.), colibacillosis (bacterial scours) (<I>E. coli</I>), and calf diphtheria (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>).


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in ruminating replacement calves only. Do not slaughter animals for food for at least 12 days after the last dose. Exceeding two consecutive doses may cause violative tissue residue to remain beyond the withdrawal time. Do not use in calves under 1 month of age or calves being fed an all milk diet. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of a 30-gram sulfamethazine sustained-release bolus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer at the rate of 1 bolus (30 grams per bolus) per 200 pounds of body weight, as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Administer orally to beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle for the treatment of the following diseases when caused by one or more of the listed pathogenic organisms sensitive to sulfamethazine: bovine respiratory disease complex (shipping fever complex) associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp.; bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurell</I> spp.; necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) and calf diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>; colibacillosis (bacterial scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I>; coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria bovis</I> and <I>E. zurnii</I>; acute mastitis and metritis caused by <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle only. Do not slaughter animals for food for at least 8 days after the last dose. Do not use in lactating dairy cattle. Do not administer more than two consecutive doses. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 36132, July 14, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 18803, Apr. 26, 1983; 48 FR 32760, July 19, 1983; 49 FR 29057, July 18, 1984; 50 FR 49372, Dec. 2, 1985; 51 FR 30212, Aug. 25, 1986; 53 FR 40727, Oct. 18, 1988; 54 FR 14341, Apr. 11, 1989; 55 FR 8462, Mar. 8, 1990; 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 59 FR 22754, May 3, 1994; 61 FR 4875, Feb. 9, 1996; 62 FR 35076, June 30, 1997; 66 FR 14073, Mar. 9, 2001; 68 FR 4915, Jan. 31, 2003; 70 FR 8290, Feb. 18, 2005; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 28830, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022; 88 FR 55564, Aug. 16, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2260c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.276" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2260c   Sulfamethazine sustained-release tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each extended-release tablet contains 8 grams sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 8 grams (1 tablet) per 45 pounds of body weight as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> In calves for sustained treatment of pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., colibacillosis (bacterial scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli;</I> and calf diptheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food within 18 days after the latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 26763, June 10, 1983, as amended at 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 59 FR 22754, May 3, 1994; 61 FR 4875, Feb. 9, 1996; 79 FR 28830, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2261" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.277" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2261   Sulfamethazine sodium oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2261a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.278" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2261a   Sulfamethazine solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 125 milligrams (12.5 percent) sulfamethazine sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water to provide: Cattle and swine 112.5 milligrams of sulfamethazine sodium per pound of body weight per day on the first day and 56.25 milligrams per pound of body weight on subsequent days; Chickens, 61 to 89 milligrams of sulfamethazine sodium per pound of body weight per day, and turkeys 53 to 130 milligrams of sulfamethazine sodium per pound of body weight per day, depending upon the dosage, age, and class of chickens or turkeys, ambient temperature, and other factors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of diseases caused by organisms sensitive to sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Beef and nonlactating dairy cattle.</I> Treatment of bacterial pneumonia and bovine respiratory disease complex (shipping fever complex) (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp.), colibacillosis (bacterial scours) (<I>Escherichia coli</I>), necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>), calf diphtheria (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>), acute mastitis (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp.), and acute metritis (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Swine.</I> Treatment of porcine colibacillosis (bacterial scours) (<I>Escherichia coli</I>), and bacterial pneumonia (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> In chickens for control of infectious coryza (<I>Avibacterium paragallinarum</I>), coccidiosis (<I>Eimeria tenella, Eimeria necatrix</I>), acute fowl cholera (<I>Pasteurella multocida</I>), and pullorum disease (<I>Salmonella</I> Pullorum). In turkeys for control of coccidiosis (<I>Eimeria meleagrimitis, Eimeria adenoeides</I>). Medicate as follows: Infectious coryza in chickens, medicate for 2 consecutive days; acute fowl cholera and pullorum disease, in chickens, medicate for 6 consecutive days; coccidiosis, in chickens and turkeys, medicate as in paragraph (c) of this section, then reduce amount of medication to one-half for 4 additional days.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Add the required dose to that amount of water that will be consumed in 1 day. Consumption should be carefully checked. Have only medicated water available during treatment. Withdraw medication from cattle, chickens, and turkeys 10 days prior to slaughter for food. Withdraw medication from swine 15 days before slaughter for food. Do not medicate chickens or turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. Treatment of all diseases should be instituted early. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond the remission of disease symptoms, but not to exceed a total of 5 consecutive days in cattle or swine. Medicated cattle, swine, chickens, and turkeys must actually consume enough medicated water which provides the recommended dosages. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use of sulfamethazine in this class of cattle may cause milk residues. A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 25322, June 11, 1982, as amended at 47 FR 25735, June 15, 1982; 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 70 FR 32489, June 3, 2005; 74 FR 36112, July 22, 2009; 75 FR 10166, Mar. 5, 2010; 76 FR 17337, Mar. 29, 2011; 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 36789, June 8, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2261b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.279" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2261b   Sulfamethazine powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A soluble powder composed of 100 percent sulfamethazine sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 016592 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water to provide 58 to 85 milligrams (mg) per pound (/lb) of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of infectious coryza (<I>Avibacterium paragallinarum</I>), coccidiosis (<I>Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix</I>), acute fowl cholera (<I>Pasteurella multocida</I>), and pullorum disease (<I>Salmonella</I> Pullorum).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Add the required dose to that amount of water that will be consumed in 1 day. Consumption should be carefully checked. Have only medicated water available during treatment. Withdraw medication 10 days prior to slaughter for food. Do not medicate chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Treatment of all diseases should be instituted early. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond the remission of disease symptoms. Medicated chickens must actually consume enough medicated water which provides the recommended dosages. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water to provide 50 to 124 mg/lb of body weight per day
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of coccidiosis (<I>E. meleagrimitis</I>, <I>E. adenoeides</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Add the required dose to that amount of water that will be consumed in 1 day. Consumption should be carefully checked. Have only medicated water available during treatment. Withdraw medication 10 days prior to slaughter for food. Do not medicate turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. Treatment of all diseases should be instituted early. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond the remission of disease symptoms. Medicated turkeys must actually consume enough medicated water which provides the recommended dosages. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water, or as a drench, to provide 108 mg/lb of body weight on the first day and 54 mg/lb of body weight per day on the second, third, and fourth days of administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of porcine colibacillosis (bacterial scours) (<I>E. coli</I>), and bacterial pneumonia (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Add the required dose to that amount of water that will be consumed in 1 day. Consumption should be carefully checked. Have only medicated water available during treatment. Withdraw medication 15 days prior to slaughter for food. Treatment of all diseases should be instituted early. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond the remission of disease symptoms, but not to exceed a total of 5 consecutive days. Medicated swine must actually consume enough medicated water which provides the recommended dosages. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water, or as a drench, to provide 108 mg/lb of body weight on the first day and 54 mg/lb of body weight per day on the second, third, and fourth days of administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use in beef and nonlactating dairy cattle.</I> Treatment of bacterial pneumonia and bovine respiratory disease complex (shipping fever complex) (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp.), colibacillosis (bacterial scours) (<I>E. coli</I>), necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>), calf diphtheria (<I>F. necrophorum</I>), acute mastitis (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp.), and acute metritis (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Add the required dose to that amount of water that will be consumed in 1 day. Consumption should be carefully checked. Have only medicated water available during treatment. Withdraw medication 10 days prior to slaughter for food. Treatment of all diseases should be instituted early. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond the remission of disease symptoms, but not to exceed a total of 5 consecutive days. Medicated cattle must actually consume enough medicated water which provides the recommended dosages. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use of sulfamethazine in this class of cattle may cause milk residues. Do not use in calves under one (1) month of age or calves being fed an all-milk diet. Use in these classes of calves may cause violative residues to remain beyond the withdrawal time. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70303, Dec. 4, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 10166, Mar. 5, 2010; 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014; 80 FR 61296, Oct. 13, 2015; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2280" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.280" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2280   Sulfamethizole and methenamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 250 milligrams of sulfamethizole and 250 milligrams of methenamine mandelate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 1 tablet per 20 pounds of body weight 3 times per day until clinical signs are alleviated. To reduce the possibility of relapse, continue therapy for a week to 10 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of urinary tract infections such as cystitis, nephritis, prostatitis, urethritis, and pyelonephritis. As an aid in the management of complications resulting from surgical manipulations of the urinary tract such as removal of calculi from the bladder, in ureterostomies, and in instrumentation of the urethra and bladder.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 13561, Apr. 5, 1985; 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2325" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.281" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2325   Sulfaquinoxaline oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2325a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.282" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2325a   Sulfaquinoxaline powder and solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsor.</I> See § 510.600(c) of this chapter for identification of the sponsors.
</P>
<P>(1) To No. 016592 for use of a 25-percent sulfaquinoxaline soluble powder and a 20-percent sulfaquinoxaline sodium solution as provided for in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) To Nos. 016592 and 054771 for use of a 31.92-percent sulfaquinoxaline solution (sodium and potassium salts) as provided for in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(3), (c)(4)(i), and (c)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 054771 for use of a 28.62-percent sulfaquinoxaline sodium solution as provided in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.685 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) As an aid in the control of outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</I> and <I>E. brunetti.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer at the 0.04 percent level for 2 or 3 days, skip 3 days then administer at the 0.025 percent level for 2 more days. If bloody droppings appear, repeat treatment at the 0.025 percent level for 2 more days. Do not change litter unless absolutely necessary. Do not give flushing mashes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys.</I> (i) As an aid in the control of outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria meleagrimitis</I> and <I>E. adenoeides.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer at the 0.025 percent level for 2 days, skip 3 days, give for 2 days, skip 3 days and give for 2 more days. Repeat if necessary. Do not change litter unless absolutely necessary. Do not give flushing mashes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) As an aid in the control of acute fowl cholera caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> susceptible to sulfaquinoxaline and fowl typhoid caused by <I>Salmonella gallinarum</I> susceptible to sulfaquinoxaline.
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer at the 0.04 percent level for 2 or 3 days. Move birds to clean ground. If disease recurs, repeat treatment. If cholera has become established as the respiratory or chronic form, use feed medicated with sulfaquinoxaline. Poultry which have survived typhoid outbreaks should not be kept for laying house replacements or breeders unless tests show they are not carriers.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle and calves.</I> (i) For the control and treatment of outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <I>Eimeria bovis</I> or <I>E. zurnii.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer at the 0.015-percent level for 3 to 5 days in drinking water medicated with sulfaquinoxaline solution.
</P>
<P>(iii) In lieu of treatment as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, administer 1 teaspoon of 25 percent sulfaquinoxaline soluble powder per day for each 125 pounds of body weight for 3 to 5 days in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Not for use in lactating dairy cattle. Do not give to chickens, turkeys, or cattle within 10 days of slaughter for food. Do not medicate chickens or turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3964, Jan. 28, 1983, as amended at 48 FR 26762, June 10, 1983; 55 FR 29843, July 23, 1990; 59 FR 28769, June 3, 1994; 59 FR 33197, June 28, 1994; 61 FR 24443, May 15, 1996; 61 FR 63711, Dec. 2, 1996; 62 FR 37712, July 15, 1997; 65 FR 10705, Feb. 29, 2000; 69 FR 41427, July 9, 2004; 69 FR 60547, Oct. 12, 2004; 74 FR 36112, July 22, 2009; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 36789, June 8, 2016; 81 FR 59134, Aug. 29, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2325b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.283" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2325b   Sulfaquinoxaline drench.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A soluble powder containing 25 percent sulfaquinoxaline.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.685 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 teaspoon of 25 percent sulfaquinoxaline soluble powder for each 125 pounds of body weight for 3 to 5 days as a drench.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control and treatment of outbreaks of coccidiosis in cattle and calves caused by <I>Eimeria bovis</I> or <I>E. zuernii.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in lactating dairy cattle. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 12169, Mar. 1, 2017; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 84 FR 53310, Oct. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2330" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.284" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2330   Sulfisoxazole tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 260 milligrams (4 grains) of sulfisoxazole. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one tablet orally per 4 pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Use in dogs and cats as an aid in treatment of bacterial pneumonia and bacterial enteritis when caused by organisms sensitive to sulfisoxazole.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Repeat dosage at 24-hour intervals until 2 to 3 days after disappearance of clinical symptoms. (Administration of one-half daily dosage at 12-hour intervals or one-third daily dosage at 8-hour intervals will provide a more constant blood level.) Provide adequate supply of drinking water. If symptoms persist after using this preparation for 2 or 3 days, consult a veterinarian. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 60895, Dec. 29, 1978, as amended at 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014; 87 FR 76421, Dec. 14, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2335" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.285" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2335   Telmisartan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) telmisartan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.5 mg/kilogram (kg) (0.68 mg/pound (lb)) orally twice daily for 14 days, followed by 2 mg/kg (0.91 mg/lb) orally once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of systemic hypertension in cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64740, Dec. 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2340" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.286" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2340   Tepoxalin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 30, 50, 100, or 200 milligrams (mg) tepoxalin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg per kilogram (/kg) daily; or 20 mg/kg on the initial day of treatment, followed by 10 mg/kg daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 34795, June 11, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.287" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345   Tetracycline.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.288" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345a   Tetracycline capsules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains 50, 100, 125, 250, or 500 milligrams (mg) tetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 25 mg per pound of body weight per day in divided doses every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of infections caused by organisms sensitive to tetracycline hydrochloride, such as bacterial gastroenteritis due to <I>E.</I> <I>coli</I> and urinary tract infections due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>E. coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 50182, Aug. 26, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 18442, Apr. 4, 2008; 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.289" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345b   Tetracycline tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 100, 250, or 500 milligrams of tetracycline (as the hydrochloride).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use. Dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 25 milligrams per pound of body weight per day in divided doses every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections caused by organisms sensitive to tetracycline hydrochloride, such as bacterial gastroenteritis due to <I>E. coli</I> and urinary tract infections due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>E. coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally; continue treatment until symptoms of the disease have subsided and temperature is normal for 48 hours; not for use in animals raised for food production; Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37327, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.290" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345c   Tetracycline boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains 500 milligrams of tetracycline (as the hydrochloride).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.720 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use. Calves</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per pound of body weight per day in divided doses.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E. coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Hemophilus</I> spp., and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally for 3 to 5 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 14 days of treatment; use as sole source of tetracycline.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per pound of body weight per day in two divided doses.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial pneumonia caused by organisms susceptible to tetracycline, bacterial enteritis caused by <I>E. coli,</I> and salmonella organisms susceptible to tetracycline.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally for not more than 5 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 12 days of treatment; use as sole source of tetracycline.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37328, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 67151, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.291" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345d   Tetracycline powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of powder contains 25, 102.4, or 324 grams tetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors listed in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for conditions of use as in paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771: 25 grams per pound as in paragraphs (d)(3) and (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 066104: 25, 102.4, and 324 grams per pound as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 016592 and 054771: 25, 102.4, and 324 grams per pound as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Nos. 016592, 054925, 061133, and 076475: 324 grams per pound as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) No. 016592: 25 grams per pound as in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.720 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is administered in drinking water as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Calves</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per pound of body weight per day in divided doses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever complex) associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae (Haemophilus</I> spp.), and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp., susceptible to tetracycline.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer for 3 to 5 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 4 days of treatment for No. 066104 and within 5 days of treatment for Nos. 016592, 054771, 054925, and 061133; prepare a fresh solution daily; use as the sole source of tetracycline. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams per pound of body weight per day in divided doses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control and treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>E. coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>A. pleuropneumoniae (Haemophilus</I> spp.), and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp., susceptible to tetracycline.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer for 3 to 5 days; do not slaughter animals for food within 7 days of treatment for No. 066104 and within 4 days of treatment for Nos. 016592, 054771, 054925, and 061133; prepare a fresh solution daily; use as the sole source of tetracycline. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Chronic respiratory disease: 400 to 800 milligrams per gallon. Infectious synovitis: 200 to 400 milligrams per gallon. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD or air-sac disease) caused by <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum</I> and <I>E. coli</I>; control of infectious synovitis caused by <I>M. synoviae</I> susceptible to tetracycline.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer for 7 to 14 days; do not slaughter for food within 4 days of treatment; not for use in chickens producing eggs for human consumption; prepare a fresh solution daily; use as the sole source of tetracycline. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> For infectious synovitis: 400 milligrams per gallon. For complicating bacterial organisms associated with bluecomb (transmissible enteritis or coronaviral enteritis): 25 milligrams per pound of body weight per day. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of infectious synovitis caused by <I>M. synoviae</I>; control of bluecomb complicated by organisms sensitive to tetracycline.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer for 7 to 14 days; do not slaughter for food within 4 days of treatment; not for use in turkeys producing eggs for human consumption; prepare a fresh solution daily; use as the sole source of tetracycline. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 17693, Apr. 14, 1994, as amended at 59 FR 19133, Apr. 22, 1994; 62 FR 5319, Feb. 5, 1997; 62 FR 35076, June 30, 1997; 62 FR 46668, Sept. 4, 1997; 62 FR 55160, Oct. 23, 1997; 64 FR 37673, July 13, 1999; 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 70 FR 16934, Apr. 4, 2005; 70 FR 67353, Nov. 7, 2005; 71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006; 75 FR 10166, Mar. 5, 2010; 75 FR 12981, Mar. 18, 2010; 76 FR 17338, Mar. 29, 2011; 77 FR 20988, Apr. 9, 2012; 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014; 81 FR 17607, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 22523, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 94990, Dec. 27, 2016; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.292" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345e   Tetracycline solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains the equivalent of either 25 or 100 milligrams of tetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 25 milligrams per pound of body weight per day in divided doses every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections caused by organisms sensitive to tetracycline hydrochloride, such as bacterial gastroenteritis due to <I>Escherichia coli</I> and urinary tract infections due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>E. coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally; continue treatment until symptoms have subsided and the temperature is normal for 48 hours; not for use in animals which are raised for food production; Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 25 milligrams per pound of body weight per day in divided doses every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections caused by organisms susceptible to tetracycline hydrochloride, such as bacterial gastroenteritis due to <I>E. coli</I> and urinary tract infections due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>E. coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally; continue treatment until the temperature has been normal for 48 hours; not for use in food-producing animals; Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37329, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345f" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.293" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345f   Tetracycline phosphate complex and sodium novobiocin capsules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains the equivalent of 60 milligrams of tetracycline hydrochloride and 60 milligrams of novobiocin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams of each antibiotic per pound of body weight (1 capsule for each 6 pounds) every 12 hours. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of acute or chronic canine respiratory infections such as tonsillitis, bronchitis, and tracheobronchitis when caused by pathogens susceptible to tetracycline and/or novobiocin, such as <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Escherichia coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37329, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345g" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.294" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345g   Tetracycline hydrochloride and sodium novobiocin tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains the equivalent of 60 milligrams of tetracycline hydrochloride and 60 milligrams of novobiocin, or 180 milligrams of tetracycline hydrochloride and 180 milligrams of novobiocin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams of each antibiotic per pound of body weight (one single-strength tablet for each 6 pounds or one triple-strength tablet for each 18 pounds). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of acute or chronic canine respiratory infections such as tonsillitis, bronchitis, and tracheobronchitis when caused by pathogens susceptible to tetracycline and/or novobiocin, such as <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Escherichia coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37329, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 28831, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2345h" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.295" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2345h   Tetracycline hydrochloride, sodium novobiocin, and prednisolone tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains the equivalent of 60 milligrams of tetracycline hydrochloride, 60 milligrams of novobiocin, and 1.5 milligrams of prednisolone or 180 milligrams of tetracycline hydrochloride, 180 milligrams of novobiocin, and 4.5 milligrams of prednisolone. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 milligrams of each antibiotic and 0.25 milligram of prednisolone per pound of body weight (one single-strength tablet for each 6 pounds or one triple-strength tablet for each 18 pounds) every 12 hours for 48 hours. Treatment is to be continued with novobiocin and tetracycline alone at the same dose schedule for an additional 3 days or longer as needed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of acute and chronic canine respiratory infections such as tonsillitis, bronchitis, and tracheobronchitis when caused by pathogens susceptible to tetracycline and/or novobiocin, such as <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Escherichia coli,</I> when it is necessary to initially reduce the severity of associated clinical signs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37329, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 28832, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2362" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.296" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2362   Thenium closylate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains thenium closylate equivalent to 500 milligrams thenium base.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Thenium closylate tablets contain thenium closylate equivalent to 500 milligrams thenium as base in each tablet. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Dogs weighing over 10 pounds: Administer 1 tablet as a single dose. Dogs weighing 5 to 10 pounds: Administered one-half tablet twice during a single day. Repeat treatment after 2 or 3 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of canine ancylostomiasis by the removal from the intestines of the adult forms of the species <I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I> (hookworms).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 53477, Dec. 7, 1976; 46 FR 48642, Oct. 2, 1981; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 79 FR 28832, May 20, 2014] 







 















 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2382" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.297" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2382   Thiabendazole and triclorfon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 5 grams of thiabendazole with 4.5 grams of trichlorfon, or 20 grams of thiabendazole with 18 grams of trichlorfon. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 017135 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2 grams of thiabendazole with 1.8 grams of trichlorfon per 100 pounds of body weight sprinkled on the animals' usual daily ration of feed, or may be mixed in 5 to 10 fluid ounces of water and administered by stomach tube or drench.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of bots (<I>Gasterophilus</I> spp.), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus</I> spp.), small strongyles (genera <I>Cyathostomum, Cylicobrachytus,</I> <I>Craterostomum, Oesophagodontus,</I> <I>Poteriostomum</I>), pinworms (<I>Oxyuris</I> spp., <I>Strongyloides</I> spp.), and ascarids (<I>Parascaris</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23071, May 28, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 48229, Oct. 18, 1983; 79 FR 28832, May 20, 2014. Redesignated at 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019. Redesignated at 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2455" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.298" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2455   Tiamulin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of soluble powder contains 450 milligrams (mg) tiamulin hydrogen fumarate.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 125 mg (12.5 percent) tiamulin hydrogen fumarate.
</P>
<P>(3) Each mL of solution contains 123 mg (12.3 percent) tiamulin hydrogen fumarate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for products described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 066104 for products described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 016592, 051072, 051311, and 061133 for product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.732 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> Administer in drinking water for 5 consecutive days:
</P>
<P>(i) 3.5 mg per (/) lb of body weight daily for treatment of swine dysentery associated with <I>Brachyspira hyodysenteriae</I> susceptible to tiamulin.
</P>
<P>(ii) 10.5 mg/lb of body weight daily for treatment of swine pneumonia due to <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</I> susceptible to tiamulin.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Use as only source of drinking water. Prepare fresh medicated water daily. Withdraw medication 3 days before slaughter following treatment at 3.5 mg/lb and 7 days before slaughter following treatment at 10.5 mg/lb of body weight. Swine being treated with tiamulin should not have access to feeds containing polyether ionophores (e.g., lasalocid, monensin, narasin, salinomycin, or semduramicin) as adverse reactions may occur. The effects of tiamulin on swine reproductive performance, pregnancy, and lactation have not been determined.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 75017, Dec. 19, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 7180, Feb. 13, 2009; 75 FR 54492, Sept. 8, 2010; 77 FR 56770, Sept. 14, 2012; 78 FR 17596, Mar. 22, 2013; 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015; 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020; 87 FR 17945, Mar. 29, 2022; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2471" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.299" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2471   Tilmicosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of concentrate solution contains 250 milligrams (mg) tilmicosin as tilmicosin phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 016592 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See § 556.735 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer in drinking water at a concentration of 200 mg per liter for 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) For the control of swine respiratory disease associated with <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> and <I>Haemophilus parasuis</I> in groups of swine in buildings where a respiratory disease outbreak is diagnosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the control of swine respiratory disease associated with <I>Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae</I> in the presence of Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus (PRRSV) in groups of swine in buildings where a respiratory disease outbreak is diagnosed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Swine intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 7 days of the last treatment with this product. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 18158, Apr. 1, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2473" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.300" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2473   Tioxidazole oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2473a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.301" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2473a   Tioxidazole granules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of granules contains 200 milligrams of tioxidazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 milligrams per pound of body weight as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Removal of mature large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus,</I> and <I>S. vulgaris</I>), mature ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), mature and immature (4th larval stage) pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), and mature small strongyles (<I>Triodontophorus</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For administration with feed: Sprinkle required amount of granules on a small amount of the usual grain ration and mix. Prepare for each horse individually. Withholding of feed or water not necessary. Not for use in horses intended for food. The reproductive safety of tioxidazole in breeding animals has not been determined. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. It is recommended that this drug be administered with caution to sick or debilitated horses.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 52772, Dec. 26, 1985; 51 FR 2693, Jan. 21, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2473b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.302" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2473b   Tioxidazole paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each plastic syringe contains 6.25 grams of tioxidazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 milligrams of tioxidazole per pound of body weight as a single dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Removal of mature large strongyles (<I>Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus,</I> and <I>S. vulgaris</I>), mature ascarids (<I>Parascaris equorum</I>), mature and immature (4th larval stage) pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>), and mature small strongyles (<I>Triodontophorus</I> spp.).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer orally by inserting the nozzle of the syringe through the space between front and back teeth and deposit the required dose on the base of the tongue. Before dosing, make sure the horse's mouth contains no feed. Not for use in horses intended for food. The reproductive safety of tioxidazole in breeding animals has not been determined. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. It is recommended that this drug be administered with caution to sick or debilitated horses.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 43059, Nov. 9, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2475" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.303" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2475   Toceranib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 10, 15, or 50 milligrams (mg) toceranib as toceranib phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer an initial dose of 3.25 mg per kilogram (1.48 mg per pound) body weight, orally every other day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of Patnaik grade II or III, recurrent, cutaneous mast cell tumors with or without regional lymph node involvement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 28875, June 18, 2009, as amended at 79 FR 28832, May 20, 2014]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2520" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.304" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2520   Trichlorfon oral dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2520a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.305" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2520a   Trichlorfon and atropine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) For trichlorfon: O,O-Dimethyl 2,2,2-trichloro-1-hydroxyethyl phosphonate.
</P>
<P>(2) For atropine: Atropine N.F.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in mice</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.67 grams of trichlorfon and 7.7 milligrams of atropine per liter continuously for 7 to 14 days as the sole source of drinking water.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of <I>Syphacia obvelata</I> (pinworm) in laboratory mice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28832, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2520b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.306" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2520b   Trichlorfon boluses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each bolus contains either 7.3, 10.9, 14.6, or 18.2 g of trichlorfon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 18.2 milligrams per pound of body weight, except for strongyles use 36.4 milligrams per pound of body weight. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For horses for removal of bots (<I>Gastrophilus nasalis, Gastrophilus intestinalis</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris</I>), small strongyles, large roundworms (ascarids, <I>Parascaris equorum</I>), and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 48127, July 18, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2520c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.307" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2520c   Trichlorfon granules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each package contains either 18.2 or 36.4 g of trichlorfon. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 18.2 milligrams per pound of body weight. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For horses for removal of bots (<I>Gastrophilus nasalis, Gastrophilus intestinalis</I>), large roundworms (ascarids, <I>Parascaris equorum</I>), and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 48128, July 18, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2520d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.308" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2520d   Trichlorfon, phenothiazine, and piperazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 54.10 grams (1.91 ounces) of water dispersible powder contains 9.10 grams of trichlorfon, 6.25 grams of phenothiazine, and the equivalent of 20.0 grams of piperazine base (as piperazine dihydrochloride).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 18.2 milligrams (mg) of trichlorfon, 12.5 mg of phenothiazine, and 40 mg of piperazine base per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of bots (<I>Gastrophilus nasalis, Gastrophilus intestinalis</I>), large strongyles (<I>Strongylus vulgaris</I>), small strongyles, large roundworms (ascarids, <I>Parascaris equorum</I>), and pinworms (<I>Oxyuris equi</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2757, Jan. 21, 1983. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014; 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014, § 520.2520d was amended in part by redesignating paragraph (e) as (c). This action could not be performed because paragraph (e) did not exist.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2582" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.309" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2582   Triflupromazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 10 or 25 milligrams (mg) triflupromazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 1 to 2 mg per pound of body weight daily, followed by 1 mg daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For relief of anxiety, to help control psychomotor over-activity, and to increase the tolerance of animals to pain and pruritus. For use in various clinical procedures which require the aid of a tranquilizer, antiemetic, or preanesthetic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2598" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.310" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2598   Trilostane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains 5, 10, 20, 30, 60, or 120 milligrams (mg) trilostane.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The starting dose is 1.0 to 3.0 milligrams per pound (2.2 to 6.7 milligrams per kilogram) once a day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of pituitary-dependent and adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 21767, May 11, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 30464, June 26, 2009; 80 FR 53460, Sept. 4, 2015; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2604" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.311" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2604   Trimeprazine and prednisolone tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 5 milligrams (mg) trimeprazine tartrate and 2 mg prednisolone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 086117 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally an initial dosage: for dogs weighing up to 10 pounds, 
<FR>1/2</FR> tablet twice daily; for dogs weighing 11 to 20 pounds, 1 tablet twice daily; for dogs weighing 21 to 40 pounds, 2 tablets twice daily; and for dogs weighing over 40 pounds, 3 tablets twice daily. After 4 days, reduce dosage to one-half the initial dose or to an amount sufficient to maintain remission of symptoms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of itching regardless of cause; and for reduction of inflammation commonly associated with most skin disorders of dogs such as eczema, caused by internal disorders, otitis, and dermatitis, allergic, parasitic, pustular, and nonspecific origins. As adjunctive therapy in various cough conditions including treatment of “kennel cough” or tracheobronchitis, bronchitis including allergic bronchitis, infections, and coughs of nonspecific origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014, as amended at 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2605" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.312" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2605   Trimeprazine and prednisolone capsules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each capsule contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 3.75 milligrams (mg) trimeprazine in sustained released form (as trimeprazine tartrate) and 1 mg prednisolone (Capsule No. 1); or
</P>
<P>(2) 7.5 mg trimeprazine in sustained release form (as trimeprazine tartrate) and 2 mg prednisolone (Capsule No. 2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally once daily an initial dosage:
</P>
<P>(i) For dogs weighing up to 10 pounds: one Capsule No. 1;
</P>
<P>(ii) For dogs weighing 11 to 20 pounds, one Capsule No. 2 or two Capsule No. 1;
</P>
<P>(iii) For dogs weighing 21 to 40 pounds, two Capsule No. 2 or four Capsule No. 1; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For dogs weighing over 40 pounds, three Capsule No. 2 or six Capsule No. 1. After 4 days, the dosage is reduced to approximately 
<FR>1/2</FR> the initial dosage or to an amount just sufficient to maintain remission of symptoms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of itching regardless of cause; and for reduction of inflammation commonly associated with most skin disorders of dogs such as eczema, caused by internal disorders, otitis, and dermatitis, allergic, parasitic, pustular and nonspecific. As adjunctive therapy in various cough conditions including treatment of “kennel cough” or tracheobronchitis, bronchitis including allergic bronchitis, in tonsillitis, acute upper respiratory infections and coughs of nonspecific origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2610" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.313" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2610   Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 30 milligrams (mg) (5 mg trimethoprim and 25 mg sulfadiazine), 120 mg (20 mg trimethoprim and 100 mg sulfadiazine), 480 mg (80 mg trimethoprim and 400 mg sulfadiazine) or 960 mg (160 mg trimethoprim and 800 mg sulfadiazine).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at 30 mg per kilogram of body weight (14 milligrams per pound) once daily. Alternatively, especially in severe infections, the initial dose may be followed by one-half the recommended daily dose every 12 hours. Administer for 2 to 3 days after symptoms have subsided. Do not treat for more than 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used in dogs where systemic antibacterial action against sensitive organisms is required, either alone or as an adjunct to surgery or debridement with associated infection. The drug is indicated where control of bacterial infection is required during the treatment of acute urinary tract infections, acute bacterial complications of distemper, acute respiratory tract infections, acute alimentary tract infections, wound infections, and abscesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28833, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2611" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.314" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2611   Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine paste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram (g) of paste contains 67 milligrams (mg) trimethoprim and 333 mg sulfadiazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for product administered as in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000061 for product administered as in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally as a single daily dose for 5 to 7 days:
</P>
<P>(i) 5 g of paste (335 mg trimethoprim and 1,665 mg sulfadiazine) per 150 pounds (68 kilograms) of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(ii) 3.75 g of paste (250 mg trimethoprim and 1,250 mg sulfadiazine) per 110 pounds (50 kilograms) of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use where systemic antibacterial action against sensitive organisms is required during treatment of acute strangles, respiratory infections, acute urogenital infections, and wound infections and abscesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 30802, May 31, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 28834, May 20, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2612" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.315" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2612   Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of suspension contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 10 milligrams (mg) trimethoprim and 50 mg sulfadiazine; or
</P>
<P>(2) 400 mg combined active ingredients (67 mg trimethoprim and 333 mg sulfadiazine).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) for use as in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 051072 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) for use as in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 mL (10 mg trimethoprim and 50 mg sulfadiazine) per 5 pounds (lb) of body weight once daily, or one-half the recommended daily dose every 12 hours, for up to 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used in dogs where systemic antibacterial action against sensitive organisms is required, either alone or as an adjunct to surgery or debridement with associated infection. The drug is indicated where control of bacterial infection is required during the treatment of acute urinary tract infections, acute bacterial complications of distemper, acute respiratory tract infections, acute alimentary tract infections, wound infections, and abscesses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally at a dosage of 24 mg combined active ingredients per kilogram body weight (10.9 mg/lb) twice daily for 10 days. Administered by volume at 2.7 mL per 45.4 kilograms of body weight (2.7 mL/100 lb).</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of lower respiratory tract infections in horses caused by susceptible strains of <I>Streptococcus equi</I> subsp. <I>zooepidemicus.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 63872, Oct. 25, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2613" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.316" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2613   Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains 67 milligrams (mg) trimethoprim and 333 mg sulfadiazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 059051 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 3.75 grams of powder per 110 pounds (50 kilograms) of body weight in a small amount of feed, as a single daily dose, for 5 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of bacterial infections of horses during treatment of acute strangles, respiratory tract infections, acute urogenital infections, wound infections, and abscesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 36135, July 6, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 68289, Dec. 7, 1999; 79 FR 28834, May 20, 2014; 79 FR 64116, Oct. 28, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2640" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.317" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2640   Tylosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each container of soluble powder contains tylosin tartrate equivalent to:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 grams (g) tylosin base, or
</P>
<P>(2) 256 g tylosin base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (e) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592 and 058198 for use of the 100-g container as in paragraph (e) of this section
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use of the 100-or 256-g container as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(A), (e)(1)(ii), (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(4) of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) No. 061133 for use of a 100-g container as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(B) and (e)(1)(ii) of this section.






</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) Administer 2 grams per gallon (528 parts per million (ppm)) for 1 to 5 days as an aid in the treatment of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) associated with <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum</I> in broiler and replacement chickens. For the control of CRD associated with <I>M. gallisepticum</I> at time of vaccination or other stress in chickens. For the control of CRD associated with <I>Mycoplasma synoviae</I> in broiler chickens. Treated chickens should consume enough medicated drinking water to provide 50 milligrams (mg) tylosin per pound of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(B) Administer 851 to 1,419 mg/gallon (225 to 375 ppm) for 5 days for the control of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <I>Clostridium perfringens</I> in broiler chickens.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in layers producing eggs for human consumption. Do not administer within 24 hours of slaughter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2 grams per gallon (528 ppm) for 2 to 5 days as the sole source of drinking water. Treated turkeys should consume enough medicated drinking water to provide 60 mg tylosin per pound of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the reduction in severity of effects of infectious sinusitis associated with <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in layers producing eggs for human consumption. Do not administer within 5 days of slaughter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 250 mg per gallon (66 ppm) as the only source of drinking water for 3 to 10 days, depending on the severity of the condition being treated.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For the treatment and control of swine dysentery associated with <I>Brachyspira hyodysenteriae</I> when followed immediately by tylosin phosphate medicated feed; and for the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (PPE, ileitis) associated with <I>Lawsonia intracellularis</I> when followed immediately by tylosin phosphate medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(B) For the treatment and control of swine dysentery associated with <I>Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer within 48 hours of slaughter. As indicated in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, follow with tylosin phosphate medicated feed as in § 558.625(f)(1)(vi)(<I>c</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Honey bees</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Mix 200 milligrams tylosin in 20 grams confectioners'/powdered sugar. Use immediately. Apply (dust) this mixture over the top bars of the brood chamber once weekly for 3 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of American foulbrood (<I>Paenibacillus larvae</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> The drug should be fed early in the spring or fall and consumed by the bees before the main honey flow begins, to avoid contamination of production honey. Complete treatments at least 4 weeks before main honey flow.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13838, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 49841, Dec. 5, 1985; 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 62 FR 39443, July 23, 1997; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 70 FR 69439, Nov. 16, 2005; 73 FR 76946, Dec. 18, 2008; 75 FR 76259, Dec. 8, 2010; 76 FR 59024, Sept. 23, 2011; 77 FR 29217, May 17, 2012; 79 FR 37620, July 2, 2014; 79 FR 53136, Sept. 8, 2014; 79 FR 64116, Oct. 28, 2014; 80 FR 34278, June 16, 2015; 83 FR 14587, Apr. 5, 2018; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 87 FR 76421, Dec. 14, 2022; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2645" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.318" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2645   Tylvalosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Granules containing 62.5 percent tylvalosin (w/w) as tylvalosin tartrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 066916 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.748 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 50 parts per million (ppm) tylvalosin continuously in drinking water for 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of porcine proliferative enteropathy (PPE) associated with <I>Lawsonia intracellularis</I> infection in groups of swine intended for slaughter and female swine intended for breeding in buildings experiencing an outbreak of PPE; and for control of swine respiratory disease (SRD) associated with <I>Bordetella bronchiseptica, Glaesserella (Haemophilus) parasuis, Pasteurella multocida,</I> <I>Streptococcus suis,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae</I> in groups of swine intended for slaughter and female swine intended for breeding in buildings experiencing an outbreak of SRD.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 55415, Sept. 10, 2012, as amended at 83 FR 13635, Mar. 30, 2018; 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021; 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2654" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.319" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2654   Velagliflozin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 15 milligrams (mg) velagliflozin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer orally 0.45 mg per pound of body weight (1 mg per kilogram) velagliflozin once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To improve glycemic control in otherwise healthy cats with diabetes mellitus not previously treated with insulin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.2700" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.320" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.2700   Verdinexor tablets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tablet contains 2.5, 10, 22.5, or 50 milligrams (mg) verdinexor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer verdinexor tablets orally at an initial dose of 1.25 mg per kilogram (mg/kg) of body weight twice per week with at least 72 hours between doses. If tolerated after 2 weeks, increase the dose to 1.5 mg/kg twice per week with at least 72 hours between doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of lymphoma in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="522" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 522—IMPLANTATION OR INJECTABLE DOSAGE FORM NEW ANIMAL DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 522.23" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.23   Acepromazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) acepromazine maleate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs, cats, and horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Dogs: 0.25 to 0.5 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight; Cats: 0.5 to 1.0 mg/lb of body weight; Horses: 2.0 to 4.0 mg per 100 lbs of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a tranquilizer and as a preanesthetic agent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10167, Mar. 5, 2010; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16182, Mar. 25, 2014; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.52" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.52   Alfaxalone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 10 milligrams (mg) alfaxalone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats and dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Cats</I>—(A) <I>Induction of general anesthesia.</I> Administer by intravenous injection over approximately 60 seconds or until clinical signs show the onset of anesthesia, 2.2 to 9.7 mg/kilogram (kg) for cats that did not receive a preanesthetic or 1.0 to 10.8 mg/kg for cats that received a preanesthetic.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Maintenance of general anesthesia following induction.</I> Administer an intravenous bolus containing 1.1 to 1.3 mg/kg to provide an additional 7 to 8 minutes of anesthesia in preanesthetized cats; a dose containing 1.4 to 1.5 mg/kg provides an additional 3 to 5 minutes anesthesia in unpreanesthetized cats.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs</I>—(A) <I>Induction of general anesthesia.</I> Administer by intravenous injection over approximately 60 seconds or until clinical signs show the onset of anesthesia, 1.5 to 4.5 mg/kg for dogs that did not receive a preanesthetic or 0.2 to 3.5 mg/kg for dogs that received a preanesthetic.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Maintenance of general anesthesia following induction.</I> Administer an intravenous bolus containing 1.2 to 1.4 mg/kg to provide an additional 6 to 8 minutes of anesthesia in preanesthetized dogs; a dose of 1.5 to 2.2 mg/kg provides an additional 6 to 8 minutes of anesthesia in unpreanesthetized dogs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the induction and maintenance of anesthesia and for induction of anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic, in dogs and cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Alfaxalone is a Class IV controlled substance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 64717, Oct. 23, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 64116, Oct. 28, 2014; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.56" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.56   Amikacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) of amikacin as amikacin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 mg/pound (lb) of body weight twice daily by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of genitourinary tract infections (cystitis) caused by susceptible strains of <I>Escherichia coli</I> and <I>Proteus</I> spp. and skin and soft tissue infections caused by susceptible strains of <I>Pseudomonas</I> spp. and <I>E. coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 17338, Mar. 29, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16183, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.62" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.62   Aminopentamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.5 milligram (mg) aminopentamide hydrogen sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection every 8 to 12 hours as follows: For animals weighing up to 10 pounds (lbs): 0.1 mg; For animals weighing 11 to 20 lbs: 0.2 mg; For animals weighing 21 to 50 lbs: 0.3 mg; For animals weighing 51 to 100 lbs: 0.4 mg; For animals weighing over 100 lbs: 0.5 mg. Dosage may be gradually increased up to a maximum of five times the suggested dosage. Following parenteral use, dosage may be continued by oral administration of tablets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of vomiting and/or diarrhea, nausea, acute abdominal visceral spasm, pylorospasm, or hypertrophic gastritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16183, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.82" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.82   Aminopropazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains aminopropazine fumarate equivalent to 25 milligrams (mg) aminopropazine base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 mg per pound of body weight, repeated every 12 hours as indicated, by intramuscular or intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For reducing excessive smooth muscle contractions, such as occur in urethral spasms associated with urolithiasis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.25 mg per pound of body weight, repeated every 12 hours as indicated, by intramuscular or intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For reducing excessive smooth muscle contractions, such as occur in colic spasms.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16183, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.88" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.88   Amoxicillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each vial contains 3 grams (g) of amoxicillin trihydrate. Each milliliter of constituted suspension contains 100 or 250 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin trihydrate for use as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Each vial contains 25 g of amoxicillin trihydrate. Each milliliter of constituted suspension contains 250 mg amoxicillin trihydrate for use as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerance.</I> See § 556.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 mg per pound of body weight daily for up to 5 days by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) <I>Dogs.</I> For treatment of infections caused by susceptible strains of organisms as follows: Respiratory infections (tonsillitis, tracheobronchitis) due to <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Escherichia coli,</I> and <I>Proteus mirabilis;</I> genitourinary infections (cystitis) due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> gastrointestinal infections (bacterial gastroenteritis) due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> bacterial dermatitis due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> soft tissue infections (abscesses, lacerations, and wounds), due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>P. mirabilis.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Cats.</I> For treatment of infections caused by susceptible strains of organisms as follows: Upper respiratory infections due to <I>S. aureus, Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., <I>E. coli, Pasteurella</I> spp., and <I>P. mirabilis;</I> genitourinary infections (cystitis) due to <I>S. aureus, Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli, P. mirabilis,</I> and <I>Corynebacterium</I> spp.; gastrointestinal infections due to <I>E. coli, Proteus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.; skin and soft tissue infections (abscesses, lacerations, and wounds) due to <I>S. aureus, Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg per pound of body weight daily for up to 5 days by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of diseases due to amoxicillin-susceptible organisms as follows: Respiratory tract infections (shipping fever, pneumonia) due to <I>P. multocida,</I> <I>P. hemolytica, Haemophilus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp. and acute necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) due to <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food during treatment and for 25 days after the last treatment. Milk from treated cows must not be used for human consumption during treatment or for 96 hours (8 milkings) after last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16183, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.90" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.90   Ampicillin injectable dosage forms.</HEAD>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16183, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.90a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.90a   Ampicillin trihydrate suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter contains ampicillin trihydrate equivalent to 200 milligrams (mg) of ampicillin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter contains ampicillin trihydrate equivalent to 150 mg of ampicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3)(i)(A), (d)(3)(ii)(A), (d)(3)(iii), and (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(B), (d)(3)(ii)(B), and (d)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> For enteritis: 3 mg per pound of body weight, intramuscularly, once or twice daily, for up to 3 days. For pneumonia: 3 mg per pound of body weight, intramuscularly, twice daily, for up to 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial enteritis in calves caused by <I>Escherichia coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. susceptible to ampicillin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food use during treatment or for 9 days after the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection, once or twice daily, for up to 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial enteritis (colibacillosis) caused by <I>E. coli</I> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. susceptible to ampicillin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food use during treatment or for 15 days after the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> (A) 3 to 6 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection, once or twice daily. Usual treatment is 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(B) 3 to 5 mg of ampicillin per pound of body weight, once a day for up to 4 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) Treatment of respiratory tract infections due to <I>E. coli, Pseudomonas</I> spp., <I>Proteus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.; tonsillitis due to <I>E. coli, Pseudomonas</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp.; generalized infections (septicemia) associated with abscesses, lacerations, and wounds due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(B) Treatment of bacterial infections of the upper respiratory tract (tonsillitis) due to <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli, Proteus</I> spp., and <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., and soft tissue infections (abscesses, lacerations, and wounds) due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>E. coli,</I> when caused by susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 to 10 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, once or twice daily. Usual treatment is 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of generalized infections (septicemia) associated with abscesses, lacerations, and wounds due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>Pasteurella</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16183, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.90b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.90b   Ampicillin trihydrate powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of aqueous suspension constituted from ampicillin trihydrate powder contains 200, 250, or 400 milligrams (mg) ampicillin equivalents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 042791 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 mg/pound (lb) of body weight twice daily by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of strains of organisms susceptible to ampicillin and associated with respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, gastrointestinal infections, skin infections, soft tissue infections, and postsurgical infections.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2 to 5 mg/lb of body weight once daily by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of respiratory tract infections caused by organisms susceptible to ampicillin, bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever, calf pneumonia, and bovine pneumonia) caused by <I>Aerobacter</I> spp., <I>Klebsiella</I> spp., <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Pasteurella multocida,</I> and <I>Escherichia coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat cattle for more than 7 days. Milk from treated cows must not be used for food during treatment and for 48 hours (4 milkings) after the last treatment. Cattle must not be slaughtered for food during treatment and for 144 hours (6 days) after the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37331, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 42623, Sept. 15, 1992; 58 FR 18304, Apr. 8, 1993; 63 FR 41420, Aug. 4, 1998; 75 FR 10167, Mar. 5, 2010; 76 FR 17338, Mar. 29, 2011; 76 FR 53051, Aug. 25, 2011; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017; 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.90c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.90c   Ampicillin sodium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of aqueous solution constituted from ampicillin sodium powder contains 300 milligrams (mg) ampicillin equivalents.
</P>
<P>(b) See Nos. 042791 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>: 3 mg per pound of body weight twice daily by intravenous or intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of respiratory tract infections (pneumonia and strangles) due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp. (including <I>S. equi</I>), <I>Escherichia coli</I>, and <I>Proteus mirabilis</I>, and skin and soft tissue infections (abscesses and wounds) due to <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>E. coli</I>, and <I>P. mirabilis</I>, when caused by susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 45158, Aug. 13, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 16184, Mar. 25, 2014; 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.144" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.144   Arsenamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10.0 milligrams arsenamide sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.1 milliliter (mL) per pound of body weight (1.0 mL for every 10 pounds) by intravenous injection twice a day for 2 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and prevention of canine heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16184, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.147" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.147   Atipamezole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 5.0 milligrams atipamezole hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 015914, 052483, 068504, 069043, and 086101 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3,750 mcg/m
<SU>2</SU> intramuscularly for the reversal of intravenous dexmedetomidine hydrochloride or medetomidine hydrochloride and 5,000 mcg/m
<SU>2</SU> intramuscularly for the reversal of intramuscular dexmedetomidine hydrochloride or medetomidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the reversal of the sedative and analgesic effects of dexmedetomidine hydrochloride and medetomidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 48830, Sept. 17, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 71640, Dec. 22, 1999; 72 FR 264, Jan. 4, 2007; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.150" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.150   Azaperone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 40 milligrams (mg) azaperone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.68 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of aggressiveness when mixing or regrouping weanling or feeder pigs weighing up to 80 pounds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dosage.</I> 2.2 mg per kilogram (1 mg per pound) by deep intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 65689, Dec. 11, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 46613, Aug. 6, 2012; 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.158" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.158   Bedinvetmab.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-use vial contains 5, 10, 15, 20, or 30 milligrams (mg) bedinvetmab in an extractable volume of 1 milliliter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.23 mg/pound (0.5 mg/kilogram) body weight monthly by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain associated with osteoarthritis in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 55564, Aug. 16, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.161" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.161   Betamethasone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains:
</P>
<P>(1) Betamethasone acetate equivalent to 10.8 milligrams (mg) betamethasone and betamethasone disodium phosphate equivalent to 3 mg of betamethasone.
</P>
<P>(2) Betamethasone dipropionate equivalent to 5 mg betamethasone and betamethasone sodium phosphate equivalent to 2 mg of betamethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii)(A), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000061 for product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii)(B), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intramuscular injection 0.25 to 0.5 milliliter (mL) per 20 pounds of body weight, depending on the severity of the condition. Frequency of dosage depends on recurrence of pruritic symptoms. Dosage may be repeated every 3 weeks or when symptoms recur, not to exceed a total of four injections.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the control of pruritus associated with dermatoses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.5 to 5 mL by intra-articular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For the treatment of various inflammatory joint conditions; for example, acute and traumatic lameness involving the carpel and fetlock joints.
</P>
<P>(B) As an aid in the control of inflammation associated with various arthropathies.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16184, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.163" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.163   Betamethasone dipropionate and betamethasone sodium phosphate aqueous suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Betamethasone dipropionate and betamethasone sodium phosphate aqueous suspension is a sterile aqueous suspension. Each milliliter of the suspension contains the equivalent of 5 milligrams of betamethasone as betamethasone dipropionate and 2 milligrams of betamethasone as betamethasone sodium phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs.</I> (i) It is used as an aid in the control of pruritus associated with dermatoses. 
</P>
<P>(ii) It is administered by intramuscular injection at a dosage of 0.25 to 0.5 milliliter per 20 pounds of body weight, depending on the severity of the condition. Frequency of dosage depends on recurrence of pruritic symptoms. Dosage may be repeated every 3 weeks or when symptoms recur, not to exceed a total of 4 injections. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses.</I> (i) It is used as an aid in the control of inflammation associated with various arthropathies. 
</P>
<P>(ii) It is administered aseptically by intraarticular injection at a dosage of 2.5 to 5 milliliters per joint, depending on the severity of the condition and the joint size. Dosage may be repeated upon recurrence of clinical signs. Injection into the joint cavity should be preceded by withdrawal of synovial fluid. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Not for use in horses intended for food. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clinical and experimental data.</I> It has been demonstrated that corticosteroids administered orally or parenterally to animals may induce the first stage of parturition when administered during the last trimester of pregnancy and may precipitate premature parturition followed by dystocia, fetal death, retained placenta, and metritis. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Restrictions.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 27316, July 2, 1976; 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.167" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.167   Betamethasone sodium phosphate and betamethasone acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of suspension contains 6 milligrams (mg) betamethasone (3.15 mg betamethasone sodium phosphate and 2.85 mg betamethasone acetate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 010797 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.5 mL (9 mg total betamethasone) per joint by intra-articular injection. May be administered concurrently in up to two joints per horse.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis in horses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.204" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.204   Boldenone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 25 or 50 milligrams (mg) boldenone undecylenate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg per pound body weight by intramuscular injection. Treatment may be repeated at 3-week intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid for treating debilitated horses when an improvement in weight, hair coat, or general physical condition is desired.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer to horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 70998, Nov. 25, 2005, as amended at 79 FR 16184, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.224" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.224   Bupivacaine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of liposomal suspension contains 13.3 milligrams (mg) bupivacaine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5.3 mg/kg (0.4 mL/kg) by infiltration injection into the tissue layers at the time of incisional closure.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For single-dose infiltration into the surgical site to provide local postoperative analgesia for cranial cruciate ligament surgery.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5.3 mg/kg per forelimb (0.4 mL/kg per forelimb), for a total dose of 10.6 mg/kg/cat, as a 4-point nerve block prior to onychectomy.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a peripheral nerve block to provide regional postoperative analgesia following onychectomy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67151, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.230" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.230   Buprenorphine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 1.8 milligrams (mg) buprenorphine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.24 mg per kilogram (0.11 mg per pound) by subcutaneous injection once daily, for up to 3 days. Administer the first dose approximately 1 hour prior to surgery.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of postoperative pain associated with surgical procedures in cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 53136, Sept. 8, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.234" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.234   Butamisole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 11 milligrams (mg) butamisole hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.1 mg per pound of body weight by subcutaneous injection. In problem cases, retreatment for whipworms may be necessary in approximately 3 months. For hookworms, a second injection should be given 21 days after the initial treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of infections with whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>), and the hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16184, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.246" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.246   Butorphanol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains butorphanol (as butorphanol tartrate) in the following amounts:
</P>
<P>(1) 0.5 milligrams (mg);
</P>
<P>(2) 2 mg; or
</P>
<P>(3) 10 mg
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(3) as in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 000061, 017033, and 059399 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.025 mg per pound of body weight by subcutaneous injection at intervals of 6 to 12 hours, as required. If necessary, increase dose to a maximum of 0.05 mg per pound of body weight. Treatment should not normally be required for longer than 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of chronic nonproductive cough associated with tracheo-bronchitis, tracheitis, tonsillitis, laryngitis, and pharyngitis associated with inflammatory conditions of the upper respiratory tract.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.2 mg per pound of body weight by subcutaneous injection. Dose may be repeated up to 4 times per day. Do not treat for more than 2 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of pain in cats caused by major or minor trauma, or pain associated with surgical procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.05 mg per pound of body weight by intravenous injection. Dose may be repeated within 3 to 4 hours. Treatment should not exceed 48 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of pain associated with colic and postpartum pain in adult horses and yearlings.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 27957, May 18, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 31358, June 2, 2008; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 75 FR 22524, Apr. 29, 2010; 77 FR 60302, Oct. 3, 2012; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16184, Mar. 25, 2014; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015; 87 FR 17945, Mar. 29, 2022; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.275" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.275   N-Butylscopolammonium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) N-butylscopolammonium bromide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 0.3 mg per kilogram of body weight (0.14 mg per pound) slowly intravenously.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of abdominal pain (colic) associated with spasmodic colic, flatulent colic, and simple impactions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 35512, June 25, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.304" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.304   Carprofen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) carprofen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 016729, 017033, 054771, 055529, 069043, and 086101 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2 mg/lb (4.4 mg/kg) body weight once daily or 1 mg/lb (2.2 mg/kg) twice daily, by subcutaneous injection. For the control of postoperative pain, administer approximately 2 hours before the procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of use.</I> For the relief of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis and for the control of postoperative pain associated with soft tissue and orthopedic surgeries. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 26205, May 15, 2003, as amended at 68 FR 34796, June 11, 2003; 68 FR 49351, Aug. 18, 2003. Redesignated at 73 FR 29685, May 22, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 82 FR 43484, Sept. 18, 2017; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023; 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.311" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.311   Cefovecin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of constituted solution contains 80 milligrams (mg) cefovecin as the sodium salt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 086163 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3.6 mg/pound (lb) (8 mg/kilograms (kg)) body weight as a single subcutaneous injection. A second subcutaneous injection of 3.6 mg/lb (8 mg/kg) may be administered if response to therapy is not complete.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (secondary superficial pyoderma, abscesses, and wounds) in dogs caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus intermedius</I> and <I>Streptococcus canis</I> (Group G).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3.6 mg/lb (8 mg/kg) body weight as a single, one-time subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of skin infections (wounds and abscesses) in cats caused by susceptible strains of <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 29685, May 22, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.313" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.313   Ceftiofur injectable dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.313a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.313a   Ceftiofur crystalline free acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product is a suspension of ceftiofur crystalline free acid.
</P>
<P>(1) Each milliliter (mL) contains 100 milligrams (mg) ceftiofur equivalents.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL contains 200 mg ceftiofur equivalents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.113 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine.</I> The formulation described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5.0 mg CE per kilogram (kg) of body weight by intramuscular injection in the postauricular region of the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of swine respiratory disease (SRD) associated with <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</I>, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, <I>Haemophilus parasuis</I>, and <I>Streptococcus suis.</I> For the control of SRD associated with <I>A. pleuropneumoniae, P. multocida,</I> <I>H. parasuis,</I> and <I>S. suis</I> in groups of pigs where SRD has been diagnosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Following label use as a single treatment, a 14-day pre-slaughter withdrawal period is required. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits extra-label use of this drug in swine for disease prevention purposes; at unapproved doses, frequencies, durations, or routes of administration; and in unapproved, major food-producing species/production classes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle.</I> The formulation described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> For subcutaneous (SC) injection in the posterior aspect of the ear where it attaches to the head (base of the ear) in lactating dairy cattle. For SC injection in the middle third of the posterior aspect of the ear or in the base of the ear in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(A) Single-dose regimen: 6.6 mg ceftiofur equivalents per kg of body weight as a single injection.
</P>
<P>(B) Two-dose regimen: 6.6 mg ceftiofur equivalents per kg of body weight given as two injections in the base of the ear approximately 72 hours apart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) Single-dose regimen: For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD, shipping fever, pneumonia) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</I> and <I>Histophilus somni</I> in beef, non-lactating dairy, and lactating dairy cattle. For the control of respiratory disease in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle which are at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica, P. multocida,</I> and <I>H. somni.</I> For the treatment of bovine foot rot (interdigital necrobacillosis) associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> and <I>Porphyromonas levii</I> in beef, non-lactating dairy, and lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(B) Two-dose regimen: For the treatment of acute metritis (0-to 10-days postpartum) associated with bacterial organisms susceptible to ceftiofur in lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Following label use as either a single-dose or 2-dose regimen, a 13-day pre-slaughter withdrawal period is required after the last treatment. A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits extra-label use of this drug in cattle for disease prevention purposes; at unapproved doses, frequencies, durations, or routes of administration; and in unapproved, major food-producing species/production classes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Horses.</I> The formulation described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Two intramuscular injections, 4 days apart, at a dose of 3.0 mg/lb (6.6 mg/kg) body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of lower respiratory tract infections in horses caused by susceptible strains of <I>Streptococcus equi</I> ssp. <I>zooepidemicus.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 60296, Oct. 22, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 43892, July 23, 2004. Redesignated and amended at 71 FR 39546, July 13, 2006; 73 FR 58872, Oct. 8, 2008; 75 FR 4692, Jan. 29, 2010; 75 FR 62468, Oct. 12, 2010; 77 FR 26162, May 3, 2012; 79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014; 79 FR 37620, July 2, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.313b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.313b   Ceftiofur hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains:
</P>
<P>(1) Ceftiofur hydrochloride equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) of ceftiofur equivalents in the inactive vehicles phospholipan 90H, sorbitan monooleate, and cottonseed oil;
</P>
<P>(2) Ceftiofur hydrochloride equivalent to 50 mg ceftiofur equivalents in the inactive vehicles polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate (polysorbate 80) in a caprylic/capric triglyceride suspension; or
</P>
<P>(3) Ceftiofur hydrochloride equivalent to 50 mg ceftiofur equivalents in the inactive vehicles aluminum monostearate, sorbitan monooleate, and medium chain triglycerides.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for products described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) No. 055529 for the product described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.113 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits extra-label use of this drug in cattle and swine for disease prevention purposes; at unapproved doses, frequencies, durations, or routes of administration; and in unapproved major food-producing species/production classes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 to 5 mg per kilogram (/kg) of body weight by intramuscular injection. Treatment should be repeated at 24-hour intervals for a total of 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of swine bacterial respiratory disease (swine bacterial pneumonia) associated with <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</I>, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, <I>Salmonella</I> Choleraesuis, and <I>Streptococcus suis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For products described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section: Treated swine must not be slaughtered for 4 days following the last treatment. For products described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section: Treated swine must not be slaughtered for 6 days following the last treatment when injection site volumes are greater than 5 mL up to the maximum injection site volume of 15 mL. Treated swine must not be slaughtered for 4 days when injection site volumes are less than or equal to 5 mL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For bovine respiratory disease and acute bovine interdigital necrobacillosis: 1.1 to 2.2 mg/kg of body weight at 24-hour intervals for 3 to 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(B) For bovine respiratory disease: 2.2 mg/kg of body weight administered twice at a 48 hour interval.
</P>
<P>(C) For acute metritis: 2.2 mg/kg of body weight at 24-hour intervals for 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD, shipping fever, pneumonia) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica</I>, <I>P. multocida</I>, and <I>Histophilus somni</I>; acute bovine interdigital necrobacillosis (foot rot, pododermatitis) associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> and <I>Bacteroides melaninogenicus</I>; and acute metritis (0 to 14 days post-partum) associated with bacteria susceptible to ceftiofur.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> (A) For products described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section: Treated cattle must not be slaughtered for 3 days following the last treatment. For products described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section: Treated cattle must not be slaughtered for 4 days following the last treatment.
</P>
<P>(B) A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 29479, June 11, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 53578, Oct. 6, 1998; 67 FR 45901, July 11, 2002; 69 FR 47362, Aug. 5, 2004. Redesignated and amended at 71 FR 39544, July 13, 2006; 73 FR 45612, Aug. 6, 2008; 76 FR 17338, Mar. 29, 2011; 78 FR 66264, Nov. 5, 2013; 84 FR 39183, Aug. 9, 2019; 84 FR 53311, Oct. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.313c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.313c   Ceftiofur sodium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of aqueous solution constituted from ceftiofur sodium powder contains 50 milligrams (mg) ceftiofur equivalents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 017033 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.113 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits extra-label use of this drug in cattle, swine, chickens, and turkeys for disease prevention purposes; at unapproved doses, frequencies, durations, or routes of administration; and in unapproved major food-producing species/production classes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 to 5 mg per kilogram (/kg) body weight by intramuscular injection for 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of swine bacterial respiratory disease (swine bacterial pneumonia) associated with <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</I>, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, <I>Salmonella choleraesuis</I>, and <I>Streptococcus suis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated pigs must not be slaughtered for 4 days following the last treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 to 1.0 mg/lb body weight by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection for 3 days. Additional treatments may be given on days 4 and 5 for animals which do not show satisfactory response.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bovine respiratory disease (shipping fever, pneumonia) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</I> and <I>Histophilus somni.</I> Also, for the treatment of acute bovine interdigital necrobacillosis (foot rot, pododermatitis) associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> and <I>Bacteroides melaninogenicus.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treated cattle must not be slaughtered for 4 days following the last treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sheep</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 to 1.0 mg/lb body weight by intramuscular injection for 3 days. Additional treatments may be given on days 4 and 5 for animals which do not show satisfactory response.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of sheep respiratory disease (sheep pneumonia) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica</I> and <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Goats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 to 1.0 mg/lb body weight by intramuscular injection for 3 days. Additional treatments may be given on days 4 and 5 for animals which do not show satisfactory response.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of caprine respiratory disease (goat pneumonia) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica</I> and <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.08 to 0.20 mg as a single subcutaneous injection in the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of early mortality associated with <I>Escherichia coli</I> organisms susceptible to ceftiofur in day-old chicks.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.17 to 0.5 mg as a single subcutaneous injection in the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of early mortality associated with <I>E. coli</I> organisms susceptible to ceftiofur in day-old poults.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2.2 to 4.4 mg/kg (1.0 to 2.0 mg/lb) body weight by intramuscular injection. Treatment should be repeated every 24 hours, continued for 48 hours after clinical signs have disappeared, and should not exceed 10 days. A maximum of 10 mL should be administered per injection site.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of respiratory infections in horses associated with <I>Streptococcus zooepidemicus.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1.0 mg/lb (2.2 mg/kg) body weight by subcutaneous injection. Treatment should be repeated at 24-hour intervals for 5 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of canine urinary tract infections associated with <I>E. coli</I> and <I>Proteus mirabilis.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 5369, Feb. 24, 1988, as amended at 55 FR 13768, Apr. 12, 1990; 56 FR 12119, Mar. 22, 1991; 57 FR 41862, Sept. 14, 1992; 59 FR 41666, Aug. 15, 1994; 59 FR 54518, Nov. 1, 1994; 60 FR 51719, Oct. 3, 1995; 61 FR 35130, July 5, 1996; 61 FR 66583, Dec. 18, 1996; 66 FR 21283, Apr. 30, 2001; 66 FR 32540, June 15, 2001; 69 FR 47362, Aug. 5, 2004. Redesignated and amended at 71 FR 39544, July 13, 2006; 74 FR 34236, July 15, 2009; 77 FR 29218, May 17, 2012; 79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014; 79 FR 21127, Apr. 15, 2014; 82 FR 12169, Mar. 1, 2017; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.380" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.380   Chloral hydrate, pentobarbital, and magnesium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 42.5 milligrams (mg) of chloral hydrate, 8.86 mg of pentobarbital, and 21.2 mg of magnesium sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For general anesthesia: Administer 20 to 50 milliliters per 100 pounds of body weight by intravenous injection until the desired effect is produced. Cattle usually require a lower dosage on the basis of body weight. As a sedative-relaxant: Administer at a level of one-fourth to one-half of the anesthetic dosage level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For general anesthesia and as a sedative-relaxant in cattle and horses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.390" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.390   Chloramphenicol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 100 milligrams of chloramphenicol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> <I>Dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 to 15 milligrams per pound of body weight, intramuscularly or intravenously, every 6 hours. In severe infections, use 4 to 6 hour treatment intervals the first day. If no response is obtained in 3 to 5 days, discontinue use and reevaluate diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections of the respiratory tract, the urinary tract, and enteritis and tonsillitis caused by organisms susceptible to chloramphenicol. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37331, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 65 FR 45877, July 26, 2000; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.454" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.454   Clodronate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 60 milligrams (mg) clodronate disodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.8 mg per kilogram of body weight by intramuscular injection up to a maximum dose of 900 mg per horse.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of clinical signs associated with navicular syndrome.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 37620, July 2, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.460" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.460   Cloprostenol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains cloprostenol sodium equivalent to:
</P>
<P>(1) 125 micrograms (µg) of cloprostenol; or
</P>
<P>(2) 250 µg of cloprostenol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000061 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) through (viii) and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 068504 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) through (vii), (c)(1)(ix), and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount and indications for use.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Administer 375 µg by intramuscular injection to induce abortion in pregnant feedlot heifers from 1 week after mating until 4
<FR>1/2</FR> months of gestation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer 500 µg by intramuscular injection for unobserved or non-detected estrus in beef cows, lactating dairy cows, and replacement beef and dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Administer 500 µg by intramuscular injection for treatment of pyometra or chronic endometritis in beef cows, lactating dairy cows, and replacement beef and dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Administer 500 µg by intramuscular injection for treatment of mummified fetus in beef cows, lactating dairy cows, and replacement beef and dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(v) Administer 500 µg by intramuscular injection for treatment of luteal cysts in beef cows, lactating dairy cows, and replacement beef and dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(vi) Administer 500 µg by intramuscular injection for abortion of beef cows, lactating dairy cows, and replacement beef and dairy heifers from 1 week after mating until 5 months of gestation. Not for use in heifers placed in feedlots.
</P>
<P>(vii) Administer 500 µg by intramuscular injection as a single injection regimen or double injection regimen with a second injection 11 days after the first injection, for estrus synchronization in beef cows, lactating dairy cows, and replacement beef and dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(viii) For use with gonadorelin acetate to synchronize estrous cycles to allow for fixed time artificial insemination (FTAI) in lactating dairy cows: administer to each cow 86 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection, followed 6 to 8 days later by 500 µg cloprostenol by intramuscular injection, followed 30 to 72 hours later by 86 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection. Gonadorelin acetate as provided in § 522.1077(a)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ix) For use with gonadorelin to synchronize estrous cycles to allow for FTAI in lactating dairy cows: administer to each cow by intramuscular injection, followed 6 to 8 days later by 500 µg cloprostenol by intramuscular injection, followed 30 to 72 hours later by gonadorelin by intramuscular injection. Gonadorelin as provided in § 522.1077(a)(1) through (3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020; 88 FR 84700, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.468" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.468   Colistimethate sodium powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each vial contains colistimethate sodium equivalent to 10 grams colistin activity and mannitol to be reconstituted with 62.5 milliliters sterile saline or sterile water for injection. The resulting solution contains colistimethate sodium equivalent to 133 milligrams per milliliter colistin activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.167 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) 1- to 3-day-old chickens.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dosage.</I> 0.2 milligram colistin activity per chicken.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Control of early mortality associated with <I>Escherichia coli</I> organisms susceptible to colistin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous injection in the neck of 1- to 3-day-old chickens. Not for use in laying hens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not use in turkeys. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 13123, Mar. 18, 1998, as amended at 79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.480" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.480   Corticotropin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of aqueous solution contains 40 or 80 U.S.P. (I.U.) units of repository corticotropin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 061133 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 043264 for use as in paragraph (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one unit per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a diagnostic aid to test for adrenal dysfunction.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one unit per pound of body weight by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, to be repeated as indicated.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For stimulation of the adrenal cortex where there is a general deficiency of corticotropin (ACTH).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 85 FR 45308, July 28, 2020; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.500" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.500   Cosyntropin injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) contains 0.25 milligrams (mg) cosyntropin, 1 mg glacial acetic acid, 0.82 mg sodium acetate trihydrate, 8.1 mg sodium chloride, and water for injection (to 100%).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.25 mg (1 mL) per dog weighing 10-110 pounds (4.5-50 kilograms) by intravenous or intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the evaluation of adrenal function in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. It is a violation of Federal law to use this product other than as directed in the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.522" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.522   Danofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 180 milligrams (mg) danofloxacin as the mesylate salt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.169 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount and indications for use.</I> Administer by subcutaneous injection either:
</P>
<P>(i) 6 mg per kilogram (/kg) of body weight, repeated in 48 hours, for the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica</I> and <I>Pasteurella multocida;</I> or
</P>
<P>(ii) 8 mg/kg of body weight as a single dose for the treatment of BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica</I> and <I>P. multocida</I> and for the control of BRD in beef cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica</I> and <I>P. multocida.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption should not be slaughtered within 4 days from the last treatment. Do not use in cattle intended for dairy production. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extra-label use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78972, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 77 FR 4227, Jan. 27, 2012; 79 FR 16185, Mar. 25, 2014; 79 FR 53136, Sept. 8, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.533" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.533   Deslorelin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each implant contains 2.1 milligrams (mg) deslorelin acetate.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 051311 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses and ponies</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> One implant per mare subcutaneously in the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For inducing ovulation within 48 hours in estrous mares with an ovarian follicle greater than 30 millimeters (mm) in diameter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses or ponies intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81456, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 18158, Apr. 1, 2014; 87 FR 17945, Mar. 29, 2022; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.535" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.535   Desoxycorticosterone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 25 milligrams (mg) of desoxycorticosterone pivalate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 043264 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (c)(2)(i), and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058198 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii), (c)(2)(ii), and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) Administer an initial dose of 2.2 mg/kilogram (1 mg/lb) of body weight by subcutaneous injection. Subsequent dosages should be individualized according to label instructions based on patient response to therapy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dosage requirements are variable and must be individualized on the basis of the response of the patient to therapy. Initial dose of 1 milligram per pound (0.45 kilogram) of body weight every 25 days, intramuscularly. Usual dose is 0.75 to 1.0 milligram per pound of body weight every 21 to 30 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) For use as replacement therapy for mineralocorticoid deficiency in dogs with primary hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's Disease).
</P>
<P>(ii) For use as replacement therapy for the mineralocorticoid deficit in dogs with primary adrenocortical insufficiency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.536" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.536   Detomidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specification.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams of detomidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 015914, 052483, and 059399 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For sedation, analgesia, or sedation and analgesia: 20 or 40 micrograms per kilogram (0.2 or 0.4 milliliter per 100 kilogram or 220 pounds) by body weight, depending on depth and duration required. For sedation, administer by intraveneous (IV) or intramuscular (IM) injection; for analgesia, administer by IV injection; for both sedation and analgesia, administer by IV injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indication for use.</I> As a sedative and analgesic to facilitate minor surgical and diagnostic procedures in mature horses and yearlings.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16186, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.540" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.540   Dexamethasone solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 2 milligrams (mg) dexamethasone.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) Nos. 000061, 016592, and 061133 for use as in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) No. 058005 for use as in paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(C), (a)(3)(i)(D), (a)(3)(ii)(A), and (a)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> The drug is administered intravenously or intramuscularly and dosage may be repeated if necessary, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Dogs.</I> 0.25 to 1 mg.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Cats.</I> 0.125 to 0.5 mg.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Horses.</I> 2.5 to 5 mg.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Cattle.</I> 5 to 20 mg, depending on the severity of the condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is indicated:
</P>
<P>(A) For the treatment of primary bovine ketosis and as an anti-inflammatory agent in cattle and horses;
</P>
<P>(B) As an anti-inflammatory agent in dogs and cats.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 2.0 mg of dexamethasone or 4.0 mg of dexamethasone sodium phosphate (equivalent to 3.0 mg dexamethasone).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.25 to 1 mg by intravenous injection, repeated for 3 to 5 days or until a response is noted.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in dogs for the treatment of inflammatory conditions, as supportive therapy in canine posterior paresis, as supportive therapy before or after surgery to enhance recovery of poor surgical risks, and as supportive therapy in nonspecific dermatosis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 2.0 mg of dexamethasone or 4.0 mg of dexamethasone sodium phosphate (equivalent to 3.0 mg of dexamethasone).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.5 to 5.0 mg by intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in horses as a rapid adrenal glucocorticoid and/or anti-inflammatory agent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 2.0 mg of dexamethasone or 4.0 mg of dexamethasone sodium phosphate (equivalent to 3.0 mg of dexamethasone).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsors.</I> See the following numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) Nos. 016592 and 051031 for intravenous or intramuscular use of 2.0 milligrams dexamethasone injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) No. 054771 for intravenous use of 2.0 milligrams dexamethasone injection.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous or intramuscular injection as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Dogs:</I> 0.25 to 1 mg.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Cats:</I> 0.125 to 0.5 mg.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Horses:</I> 2.5 to 5 mg.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in dogs, cats, and horses as an anti-inflammatory agent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 4.0 mg of dexamethasone sodium phosphate (equivalent to 3.0 mg dexamethasone).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Dogs:</I> 0.25 to 1 mg; may be repeated for 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Horses:</I> 2.5 to 5 mg.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in dogs and horses for glucocorticoid and anti-inflammatory effect.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 28265, July 9, 1976]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 522.540, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.558" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.558   Dexmedetomidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 0.1 milligrams (mg) dexmedetomidine hydrochloride; or
</P>
<P>(2) 0.5 mg dexmedetomidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 017033, 068504, 069043, 086101, and 086117 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 052483 for use of products described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Indications for use and amount.</I> (A) For use as a sedative and analgesic to facilitate clinical examinations, clinical procedures, minor surgical procedures, and minor dental procedures, administer 375 micrograms (µg) per square meter (/m
<SU>2</SU>) of body surface area by intravenous injection or 500 µg/m
<SU>2</SU> of body surface area by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(B) For use as a preanesthetic to general anesthesia, administer 125 µg/m
<SU>2</SU> of body surface area or 375 µg/m
<SU>2</SU> of body surface area by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 40 µg/killogram by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a sedative and analgesic to facilitate clinical examinations, clinical procedures, minor surgical procedures, and minor dental procedures; and as a preanesthetic to general anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 263, Jan. 4, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 19797, Apr. 20, 2007; 72 FR 51365, Sept. 7, 2007; 75 FR 60308, Sept. 30, 2010; 78 FR 25183, Apr. 30, 2013; 78 FR 33699, June 5, 2013; 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015; 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021; 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023; 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023; 91 FR 5301, Feb. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.563" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.563   Diatrizoate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 34.3 percent diatrizoate meglumine and 35 percent diatrizoate sodium, or 66 percent diatrizoate meglumine and 10 percent diatrizoate sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For excretion urography, administer 0.5 to 1.0 milliliter (mL) per pound of body weight to a maximum of 30 mL intravenously. For cystography, remove urine, administer 5 to 25 mL directly into the bladder via catheter. For urethrography, administer 1.0 to 5 mL via catheter into the urethra to provide desired contrasts delineation. For angiocardiography (including aortography) rapidly inject 5 to 10 mL directly into the heart via catheter or intraventricular puncture. For cerebral angiography, rapid injection of 3 to 10 mL via carotid artery. For peripheral arteriography and/or venography and selective coronary arteriography, rapidly inject 3 to 10 mL intravascularly into the vascular bed to be delineated. For lymphography, slowly inject 1.0 to 10 mL directly into the lymph vessel to be delineated. For arthrography, slowly inject 1.0 to 5 mL directly into the joint to be delineated. For discography, slowly inject 0.5 to 1.0 mL directly into the disc to be delineated. For sialography, slowly inject 0.5 to 1.0 mL into the duct to be delineated. For delineation of fistulous tracts, slowly inject quantity necessary to fill the tract. For delineation of peritoneal hernias, inject 0.5 to 1.0 mL per pound of body weight directly into the peritoneal cavity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For visualization in excretion urography, including renal angiography, uretography, cystography, and urethrography; aortography; angiocardiography, peripheral arteriography, and venography; selective coronary arteriography; cerebral angiography; lymphography; arthrography; discography; and sialography; and as an aid in delineating peritoneal hernias and fistulous tracts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16186, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.650" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.650   Dihydrostreptomycin sulfate injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains dihydrostreptomycin sulfate equivalent to 500 milligrams of dihydrostreptomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerance.</I> See § 556.200 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 milligrams per pound of body weight by deep intramuscular injection every 12 hours, for 3 to 5 days or until the urine is free of leptospira for at least 72 hours as measured by darkfield microscopic examination. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of leptospirosis in dogs and horses due to <I>Leptospira canicola, L. icterohemorrhagiae,</I> and <I>L. pomona;</I> in cattle due to <I>L. pomona;</I> and in swine due to <I>L. pomona;</I> and <I>L. grippotyphosa.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue use 30 days before slaughter for food. Not for use in animals producing milk because use of the drug will contaminate the milk. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37331, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 42623, Sept. 15, 1992; 79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014; 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.690" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.690   Dinoprost.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains dinoprost tromethamine equivalent to:
</P>
<P>(1) 5 milligrams (mg) dinoprost; or
</P>
<P>(2) 12.5 mg dinoprost.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 054771 and 061133 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Administer products described in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 25 mg as an intramuscular injection of the 5 mg/mL product or as an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection of the 12.5 mg/mL product.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a luteolytic agent; effective only in those cattle having a corpus luteum, <I>i.e.,</I> those which ovulated at least 5 days prior to treatment.
</P>
<P>(A) For estrus synchronization in beef cows, beef heifers and replacement dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(B) For unobserved (silent) estrus in lactating dairy cows with a corpus luteum.
</P>
<P>(C) For treatment of pyometra (chronic endometritis) in cattle.
</P>
<P>(D) For abortion in beef cows, beef heifers and replacement dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(E) For use with gonadorelin injection as in § 522.1077 of this chapter to synchronize estrous cycles to allow fixed-time artificial insemination (FTAI) in lactating dairy cows.
</P>
<P>(F) For use with progesterone intravaginal inserts as in § 529.1940 of this chapter for synchronization of estrus in lactating dairy cows.
</P>
<P>(G) For use with progesterone intravaginal inserts as in § 529.1940 of this chapter for synchronization of estrus in suckled beef cows and replacement beef and dairy heifers, advancement of first postpartum estrus in suckled beef cows, and advancement of first pubertal estrus in beef heifers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses.</I> Administer product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 mg per 100 pounds of body weight as a single intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For controlling the timing of estrus in estrous cycling mares.
</P>
<P>(B) For difficult-to-breed mares (clinically anestrous mares that have a corpus luteum).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Administer product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg as a single intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For parturition induction in swine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 41824, June 20, 2002, as amended at 79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014; 79 FR 44278, July 31, 2014; 79 FR 64116, Oct. 28, 2014; 80 FR 61296, Oct. 13, 2015; 80 FR 76386, Dec. 9, 2015; 81 FR 36789, June 8, 2016; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 87 FR 17945, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.723" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.723   Diprenorphine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 2 milligrams of diprenorphine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 053923 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> It is administered intramuscularly or intravenously at a suitable dosage level depending upon the species.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is used for reversing the effects of etorphine hydrochloride injection, veterinary, the use of which is provided for in § 522.883, in wild and exotic animals.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in wild or exotic animals only. Do not use in domestic food-producing animals. Do not use 30 days before, or during, the hunting season in free-ranging wild animals that might be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Distribution is restricted to veterinarians engaged in zoo and exotic animal practice, wildlife management programs, and researchers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.770" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.770   Doramectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams of doramectin.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.222 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 micrograms per kilogram (10 milligrams per 110 pounds).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms, lungworms, eyeworms, grubs, sucking lice, and mange mites. To control infections and to protect from reinfection with <I>Cooperia oncophora</I> and <I>Haemonchus placei</I> for 14 days, <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> for 21 days, and <I>C. punctata, Oesophagostomum radiatum,</I> and <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I> for 28 days after treatment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. Administer as a single subcutaneous or intramuscular injection. Do not slaughter cattle for human consumption within 35 days of treatment. Not for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 300 micrograms per kilogram (10 milligrams per 75 pounds).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms, lungworms, kidney worms, sucking lice, and mange mites.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. Administer as a single intramuscular injection. Do not slaughter swine for human consumption within 24 days of treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 53321, Oct. 11, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 44410, Aug. 21, 1997; 62 FR 62242, Nov. 21, 1997; 63 FR 68183, Dec. 10, 1998; 64 FR 13509, Mar. 19, 1999; 79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 88 FR 55564, Aug. 16, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.772" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.772   Doramectin and levamisole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 5 milligrams (mg) of doramectin and 150 mg levamisole hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.222 and 556.350 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Inject subcutaneously in the neck as a single dose at a dosage of 0.2 mg doramectin (0.91 mg/lb) and 6 mg of levamisole hydrochloride per kg (2.72 mg/lb) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (adults and fourth stage larvae): <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (including inhibited larvae), <I>O. lyrata, Haemonchus placei,</I> <I>Trichostrongylus axei, T. colubriformis,</I> <I>T. longispicularis</I> (adults only), <I>Cooperia oncophora, C. pectinata</I> (adults only), <I>C. punctata, C. surnabada,</I> <I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I> (adults only), <I>Strongyloides papillosus</I> (adults only), <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum, Trichuris</I> spp. (adults only) and <I>Nematodirus helvetianus</I> (adults only); lungworms (adults and fourth stage larvae): <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus;</I> eyeworms (adults): <I>Thelazia</I> spp.; grubs (parasitic stages): <I>Hypoderma bovis</I> and <I>H. lineatum;</I> sucking lice: <I>Haematopinus eurysternus, Linognathus vituli,</I> and <I>Solenopotes capillatus;</I> mange mites: <I>Psoroptes bovis</I> and <I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I> in beef cattle 2 months of age and older and replacement dairy heifers less than 20 months of age. Not for use in beef bulls intended for breeding over 1 year of age, dairy calves, and veal calves.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 15 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows; use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows or heifers. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 14898, Mar. 10, 2023; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024; 90 FR 19625, May 9, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.784" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.784   Doxylamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 11.36 milligrams (mg) of doxylamine succinate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Horses:</I> Administer 25 mg per hundred pounds of body weight by intramuscular, subcutaneous, or slow intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs and cats:</I> Administer 0.5 to 1 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection. Doses may be repeated at 8 to 12 hours, if necessary, to produce desired effect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in conditions in which antihistaminic therapy may be expected to alleviate some signs of disease in horses, dogs, and cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.800" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.800   Droperidol and fentanyl.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) of droperidol and 0.4 mg of fentanyl citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) For analgesia and tranquilization, administer as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) 1 milliliter (mL) per 15 to 20 pounds (lbs) of body weight by intramuscular injection in conjunction with atropine sulfate administered at the rate of 0.02 mg per pound of body weight; or
</P>
<P>(B) 1 mL per 25 to 60 lbs of body weight by intravenous injection in conjunction with atropine sulfate administered at the rate of 0.02 mg per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) For general anesthesia, administer as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Administer 1 mL per 40 lbs of body weight by intramuscular injection in conjunction with atropine sulfate administered at the rate of 0.02 mg per pound of body weight and followed in 10 minutes by an intravenous administration of sodium pentobarbital at the rate of 3 mg per pound of body weight; or
</P>
<P>(B) Administer 1 mL per 25 to 60 lbs of body weight by intravenous injection in conjunction with atropine sulfate administered at the rate of 0.02 mg per pound of body weight and followed within 15 seconds by an intravenous administration of sodium pentobarbital at the rate of 3 mg per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an analgesic and tranquilizer and for general anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.810" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.810   Embutramide, chloroquine, and lidocaine solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 135 milligrams (mg) embutramide; 45 mg chloroquine phosphate, U.S.P.; and 1.9 mg lidocaine, U.S.P.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One mL per 5 pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For euthanasia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in animals intended for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 36337, June 23, 2005, as amended at 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.812" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.812   Enrofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 22.7 milligrams (mg) enrofloxacin or
</P>
<P>(2) 100 mg enrofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016729, 017033, 055529, 058198, 069043, and 086101 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 051311, 055529, 058005, 058198, 061133, 069043, and 086101 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerance.</I> See § 556.226 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extra-label use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs.</I> Use the product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 mg per kilogram (/kg) of body weight (1.13 mg per pound) as a single, intramuscular, initial dose followed by use of tablets twice daily for 2 to 3 days beyond cessation of clinical signs to a maximum of 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the management of diseases associated with bacteria susceptible to enrofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle.</I> Use the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Single-dose therapy:</I> For treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD), administer 7.5 to 12.5 mg/kg of body weight (3.4 to 5.7 mL per 100 pounds (/100 lb)) once by subcutaneous injection. For control of BRD, administer 7.5 mg/kg of body weight (3.4 mL/100 lb) once by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multiple-day therapy:</I> For treatment of BRD, administer 2.5 to 5.0 mg/kg of body weight (1.1 to 2.3 mL/100 lb) by subcutaneous injection. Treatment should be repeated at 24-hour intervals for 3 days. Additional treatments may be given on days 4 and 5 to animals that have shown clinical improvement but not total recovery.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) <I>Single-dose therapy:</I> For the treatment of BRD associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, Histophilus somni,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma bovis</I> in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle; for the control of BRD in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica, P. multocida, H. somni</I> and <I>M. bovis.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multiple-day therapy:</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</I> and <I>Histophilus somni</I> in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 28 days from the last treatment. This product is not approved for female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Use the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) Administer 7.5 mg/kg of body weight once, by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection behind the ear, for the treatment and control of swine respiratory disease (SRD) associated with <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae, Pasteurella multocida, Haemophilus parasuis, Streptococcus suis, Bordetella bronchiseptica, and Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Administer 7.5 mg/kg of body weight once, by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection behind the ear, for the control of colibacillosis in groups or pens of weaned pigs where colibacillosis associated with <I>Escherichia coli</I> has been diagnosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 5 days of receiving a single-injection dose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 10597, Mar. 9, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 17890, Apr. 2, 2008; 73 FR 21819, Apr. 23, 2008; 76 FR 22611, Apr. 22, 2011; 77 FR 55415, Sept. 10, 2012; 77 FR 76863, Dec. 31, 2012; 78 FR 19987, Apr. 3, 2013; 79 FR 37620, July 2, 2014; 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015; 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015; 80 FR 61296, Oct. 13, 2015; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 53311, Oct. 7, 2019; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021; 86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021; 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022; 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.814" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.814   Eprinomectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) eprinomectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 500.1410 and 556.227 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle on pasture</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 mg/kilogram of body weight by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of the following internal and external parasites: Gastrointestinal roundworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) <I>Bunostomum phlebotomum, Cooperia oncophora,</I> <I>C. punctata, C. surnabada,</I> <I>Trichostrongylus axei, Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (including inhibited stage); (adults) <I>Haemonchus placei, Oesophagostomum radiatum,</I> <I>O. lyrata, T. colubriformis;</I> lungworms (adults) <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus;</I> cattle grubs <I>Hypoderma bovis;</I> mites <I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I> var. <I>bovis.</I> Prevents reinfection with <I>C. oncophora, C. punctata,</I> and <I>T. axei</I> for 100 days following treatment; <I>H. placei, O. radiatum,</I> <I>O. lyrata,</I> and <I>O. ostertagi</I> for 120 days following treatment; and <I>B. phlebotomum</I> and <I>D. viviparus</I> for 150 days following treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 48 days of the last treatment. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 72618, Nov. 25, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 37620, July 2, 2014; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.820" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.820   Erythromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) erythromycin base.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL of solution contains 200 mg erythromycin base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.230 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dog.</I> Administer product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 to 5 mg per pound (/lb) body weight, intramuscularly, two to three times daily, for up to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial pneumonia, upper respiratory infections (tonsillitis, bronchitis, tracheitis, pharyngitis, pleurisy), endometritis and metritis, and bacterial wound infections caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp., <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and <I>Corynebacterium</I> spp., sensitive to erythromycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats.</I> Administer product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 to 5 mg/lb body weight, intramuscularly, two to three times daily, for up to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial pneumonia, upper respiratory infections (rhinitis, bronchitis), secondary infections associated with panleukopenia, and bacterial wound infections caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., susceptible to erythromycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cattle.</I> Administer products described in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> 4 mg/lb body weight by deep intramuscular injection once daily for up to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (shipping fever complex and bacterial pneumonia) associated with <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> susceptible to erythromycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in female dairy cattle over 20 months of age. Do not slaughter treated animals within 6 days of last treatment. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. To avoid excess trim, do not slaughter within 21 days of last injection. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 69142, Dec. 7, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.840" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.840   Estradiol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each silicone rubber implant contains 25.7 or 43.9 milligrams (mg) estradiol and is coated with not less than 0.5 mg oxytetracycline powder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.240 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef steer calves 2 months of age and older</I>—(i) <I>Amount and indications for use.</I> (A) An extended-release implant containing 25.7 mg estradiol for increased rate of weight gain for up to 200 days.
</P>
<P>(B) An extended-release implant containing 43.9 mg estradiol for increased rate of weight gain for up to 400 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous ear implantation only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in beef steer calves 2 months of age and older. Safety and effectiveness following reimplantation have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter)</I>—(i) <I>Amount and indications for use.</I> (A) An extended-release implant containing 25.7 mg estradiol for increased rate of weight gain for up to 200 days.
</P>
<P>(B) An extended-release implant containing 43.9 mg estradiol for increased rate of weight gain for up to 400 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous ear implantation only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter). Safety and effectiveness following reimplantation have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amount and indications for use.</I> (A) An extended-release implant containing 25.7 mg estradiol for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency for up to 200 days.
</P>
<P>(B) An extended-release implant containing 43.9 mg estradiol for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency for up to 400 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous ear implantation only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter. Safety and effectiveness following reimplantation have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 67818, Nov. 22, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 31723, May 30, 2012; 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016; 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022; 88 FR 14898, Mar. 10, 2023; 89 FR 42357, May 15, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.850" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.850   Estradiol valerate and norgestomet in combination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product is a two-component drug consisting of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An implant containing 6.0 milligrams of norgestomet.
</P>
<P>(2) An injectable solution (sesame oil) containing 3.0 milligrams of norgestomet and 5.0 milligrams of estradiol valerate per 2 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.240 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One implant and 2 milliliters of injection at time of implantation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For synchronization of estrus/ovulation in cycling beef cattle and non-lactating dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Insert implant subcutaneously in the ear only; then immediately inject solution intramuscularly only. Counting the day of implantation as day 1, remove the implant on day 10. Collect all implants as they are removed and burn them. While animals are restrained for artificial insemination, avoid other treatments such as vaccinations, dipping, pour-on grub and louse prevention, spraying, etc. When inseminating without estrus detection, the entire treated group should be started at 48 hours after the last implant has been removed and should be completed within 6 hours. Where estrus detection is preferred, insemination should be approximately 12 hours after first detection of estrus. Those that do not conceive can be re-bred when they return to estrus approximately 17 to 25 days after implant removal. Do not use in cows producing milk for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 55477, Dec. 10, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 49656, Oct. 27, 1983; 51 FR 33592, Sept. 22, 1986; 54 FR 1165, Jan. 12, 1989; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.863" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.863   Ethylisobutrazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) of ethylisobutrazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2 to 5 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection for profound tranquilization. Administer 1 to 2 mg per pound of body weight by intravenous injection to effect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a tranquilizer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16187, Mar. 25, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.883" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.883   Etorphine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 1 milligram of etorphine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 053923 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Distribution is restricted to veterinarians engaged in zoo and exotic animal practice, wildlife management programs, and researchers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administered intramuscularly by hand syringe or syringe dart at a suitable dosage level depending upon the species.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the immobilization of wild and exotic animals.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in domestic food-producing animals. Do not use 30 days before, or during, the hunting season in free-ranging wild animals that might be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16188, Mar. 25, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.914" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.914   Fenprostalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter of solution contains 0.5 milligram (mg) fenprostalene.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter of solution contains 0.25 mg fenprostalene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.277 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling shall bear the following statements: Women of childbearing age, asthmatics, and persons with bronchial and other respiratory problems should exercise extreme caution when handling this product. It is readily absorbed through the skin and may cause abortion and/or bronchiospasms. Accidental spillage on the skin should be washed off immediately with soap and water.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Indications for use and amount.</I> (A) For feedlot heifers to induce abortion when pregnant 150 days or less, administer 1 mg (2 milliliter (mL)) subcutaneously.
</P>
<P>(B) For beef or nonlactating dairy cattle for estrus synchronization, administer a single or two 1-mg (2-mL) doses subcutaneously, 11 to 13 days apart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a single injection of 0.25 mg (1 mL) subcutaneously.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the induction of parturition in sows and gilts pregnant at least 112 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16188, Mar. 25, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.930" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.930   Firocoxib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) firocoxib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.04 mg/pound (lb) (0.09 mg/kilogram (kg)) of body weight (BW) intravenously, once daily, for up to 5 days. If further treatment is needed, firocoxib oral paste can be administered at a dosage of 0.045 mg/lb (0.1 mg/kg) of BW for up to an additional 9 days of treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 59611, Sept. 28, 2010, as amended at 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.955" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.955   Florfenicol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 300 milligrams (mg) florfenicol in the inactive vehicles 2-pyrrolidone and triacetin.
</P>
<P>(2) 300 mg florfenicol in the inactive vehicles n-methyl-2-pyrrolidone, propylene glycol, and polyethylene glycol.
</P>
<P>(3) 300 mg florfenicol in the inactive vehicles 2-pyrrolidone and glycerol formal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d)(1)(i); and
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000061 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 054771, 058005, and 069043 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 055529 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(3) as in paragraph (d)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 500.1410 and 556.283 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef and non-lactating dairy cattle.</I> (i) 300 mg per milliliter (mL) florfenicol in the inactive vehicles 2-pyrrolidone and triacetin:</P>
<P>(A) <I>Amount.</I> 40 mg/kilogram (kg) body weight as a single subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica</I>, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, <I>Histophilus somni</I>, and <I>Mycoplasma bovis</I> in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 44 days of treatment. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use of florfenicol in this class of cattle may cause milk residues. A withdrawal period has not been established in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(ii) 300 mg/mL florfenicol in the inactive vehicles n-methyl-2- pyrrolidone, propylene glycol, and polyethylene glycol, or in 2-pyrrolidone and glycerol formal:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> 20 mg/kg of body weight as an intramuscular injection. A second dose should be administered 48 hours later. Alternatively, 40 mg/kg of body weight as a single subcutaneous injection may be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of BRD associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida</I>, and <I>Histophilus somni.</I> For treatment of bovine interdigital phlegmon (foot rot, acute interdigital necrobacillosis, infectious pododermatitis) associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> and <I>Bacteroides melaninogenicus.</I>
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> 40 mg/kg of body weight as a single subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of respiratory disease in cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, and Histophilus somni.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 28 days of the last intramuscular treatment. Nos. 000061, 054771, 058005, and 069043: Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 38 days of subcutaneous treatment. No. 055529: Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 33 days of subcutaneous treatment. This product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>. (i) 300 mg/mL florfenicol in the inactive vehicles n-methyl-2-pyrrolidone, propylene glycol, and polyethylene glycol:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Amount.</I> 15 mg/kg of body weight as an intramuscular injection. A second dose should be administered 48 hours later.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of swine respiratory disease associated with <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae, Pasteurella multocida,</I> <I>Salmonella</I> Choleraesuis, <I>Streptococcus suis, Bordetella bronchiseptica,</I> and <I>Glaesserella (Haemophilus) parasuis</I> in swine except for nursing piglets and swine of reproductive age intended for breeding.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Swine intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 11 days of the last intramuscular treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 21041, Apr. 18, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 66574, Dec. 16, 2009; 79 FR 18158, Apr. 1, 2014; 79 FR 53136, Sept. 8, 2014; 80 FR 61296, Oct. 13, 2015; 80 FR 76386, Dec. 9, 2015; 86 FR 14819, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022; 87 FR 17945, Mar. 29, 2022; 87 FR 76421, Dec. 14, 2022; 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.956" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.956   Florfenicol and flunixin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 300 milligrams (mg) florfenicol and 16.5 mg flunixin (27.37 mg flunixin meglumine).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 068504 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.283 and 556.286 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions for use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 40 mg florfenicol/kg body weight (BW) and 2.2 mg flunixin/kg BW (equivalent to 2 mL/15 kg BW or 6 mL/100 lbs) once, by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica</I>, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, <I>Histophilus somni</I>, and <I>Mycoplasma bovis</I>, and control of BRD-associated pyrexia in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 38 days of treatment. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 1275, Jan. 11, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 54018, Sept. 3, 2010; 79 FR 18158, Apr. 1, 2014; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.960" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.960   Flumethasone injectable dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.960a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.960a   Flumethasone suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 2 milligrams (mg) of flumethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 6 to 10 mg by intra-articular injection. Dosage is limited to a single injection per week in any one synovial structure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in the various disease states involving synovial structures (joints) of horses where excessive synovial fluid of inflammatory origin is present and where permanent structural changes do not exist. Such conditions include arthritis, carpitis, and osselets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16188, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.960b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.960b   Flumethasone acetate solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 2 milligrams (mg) of flumethasone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intramuscular injection as follows: Dogs weighing up to 10 pounds (lbs): 2 mg; dogs weighing 10 to 25 lbs: 4 mg; dogs weighing over 25 lbs: 8 mg. Dosage should be adjusted according to the weight of the animal, the severity of the symptoms, and the response noted. Dosage by injection should not exceed 3 days of therapy. With chronic conditions intramuscular therapy may be followed by oral administration of flumethasone tablets at a daily dose of from 0.0625 to 0.25 mg per animal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in certain acute and chronic canine dermatoses of varying etiology to help control the pruritus, irritation, and inflammation associated with these conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16188, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.960c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.960c   Flumethasone solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.5 milligrams (mg) of flumethasone.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.25 to 2.5 milligrams (mg) daily by intravenous, intramuscular, or intra-articular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in the treatment of musculoskeletal conditions due to inflammation, where permanent structural changes do not exist, e.g., bursitis, carpitis, osselets, and myositis; and allergic states, e.g., hives, urticaria, and insect bites.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.0625 to 0.25 mg daily by intravenous, intramuscular, or subcutaneous injection; 0.125 to 1.0 mg daily by intra-lesional injection, depending on the size and location of the lesion; or 0.166 to 1.0 mg daily by intra-articular injection, depending on the severity of the condition and the size of the involved joint.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in the treatment of musculoskeletal conditions due to inflammation of muscles or joints and accessory structures where permanent structural changes do not exist, e.g., arthritis, osteoarthritis, disc syndrome, and myositis (in septic arthritis, appropriate antibacterial therapy should be concurrently administered); certain acute and chronic dermatoses of varying etiology to help control associated pruritus, irritation, and inflammation; otitis externa in conjunction with topical medication; allergic states, e.g., hives, urticaria, and insect bites; and shock and shock-like states by intravenous administration.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.03125 to 0.125 mg daily by intravenous, intramuscular, or subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in the treatment of certain acute and chronic dermatoses of varying etiology to help control associated pruritus, irritation, and inflammation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16188, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 88 FR 55564, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.970" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.970   Flunixin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains flunixin meglumine equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) flunixin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) See Nos. 000061, 055529, 061133, and 069043 for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) See No. 054771 for use as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) See Nos. 016592 and 058198 for use as in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.286 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight per day, intravenously or intramuscularly, for up to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For alleviation of inflammation and pain associated with musculoskeletal disorders, and alleviation of visceral pain associated with colic.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use</I>—(A) Administer 1.1 to 2.2 mg/kilogram (kg) (0.5 to 1.0 mg/lb) of body weight per day intravenously, as a single dose or divided into two doses administered at 12-hour intervals, for up to 3 days for control of pyrexia associated with bovine respiratory disease and endotoxemia or for control of inflammation in endotoxemia.
</P>
<P>(B) Administer 2.2 mg/kg (1.0 mg/lb) of body weight once intravenously for control of pyrexia associated with acute bovine mastitis.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Approved only for intravenous administration in cattle. Intramuscular administration has resulted in violative residues in the edible tissues of cattle sent to slaughter. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 4 days of last treatment. Milk that has been taken during treatment and for 36 hours after the last treatment must not be used for food. Do not use in dry dairy cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for use in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.2 mg/kg (1.0 mg/lb) of body weight as a single intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pyrexia associated with swine respiratory disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Swine must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 12 days of last treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 39103, Aug. 2, 1977, as amended at 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 60 FR 54942, Oct. 27, 1995; 62 FR 22888, Apr. 28, 1997; 63 FR 38749, July 20, 1998; 67 FR 9400, Mar. 1, 2002; 68 FR 70701, Dec. 19, 2003; 69 FR 53618, Sept. 2, 2004; 69 FR 60308, Oct. 8, 2004; 70 FR 48868, Aug. 22, 2005; 70 FR 70998, Nov. 25, 2005; 71 FR 15564, Mar. 29, 2006; 71 FR 16222, Mar. 31, 2006; 73 FR 2809, Jan. 16, 2008; 73 FR 28037, May 15, 2008; 74 FR 6994, Feb. 12, 2009; 74 FR 34236, July 15, 2009; 75 FR 13225, Mar. 19, 2010; 75 FR 76260, Dec. 8, 2010; 79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014; 82 FR 43484, Sept. 18, 2017; 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021; 89 FR 85426, Oct. 28, 2024; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.995" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.995   Fluprostenol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains fluprostenol sodium equivalent to 50 micrograms (µg) of fluprostenol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.55 µg fluprostenol per kilogram of body weight by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in mares for its luteolytic effect to control the timing of estrus in estrous cycling and in clinically anestrous mares that have a corpus luteum.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.998" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.998   Fluralaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product is supplied in two vials, one vial containing 2.51 grams of sterile fluralaner and one vial containing the required 15 milliliters (mL) of sterile vehicle for constitution. Each mL of constituted suspension contains 150 milligrams (mg) fluralaner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as a single subcutaneous dose every 12 months or every 8 months in the case of potential exposure to <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> ticks. The subcutaneous dose volume is 0.1 mL of the constituted suspension/kilogram (kg) body weight (0.045 mL per pound (mL/lb)). This volume provides a dose of 15 mg fluralaner per kilogram body weight (6.8 mg/lb).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas and for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>); for the treatment and control of tick infestations <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick), and <I>Amblyomma maculatum</I> (Gulf Coast tick) for 12 months in dogs and puppies 6 months of age and older; and for the treatment and control of <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick) infestations for 8 months in dogs and puppies 6 months of age and older.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5301, Feb. 6, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1002" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1002   Follicle stimulating hormone.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each package contains 2 vials. One vial contains dry, powdered, porcine pituitary gland equivalent to 75 units (NIH-FSH-S1) of follicle stimulating hormone. The other vial contains 10 milliliters of aqueous diluent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 052923 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Dosage.</I> 12.5 units of follicle stimulating hormone twice a day for 3 days (a total of 75 units). To effect regression of the corpus luteum, prostaglandin should be given with the 5th dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For induction of superovulation in cows for procedures requiring the production of multiple ova at a single estrus.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For intramuscular use in cows that are not pregnant and have a normal corpus luteum. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Specifications</I>—(i) <I>Single pack.</I> Each package contains 2 vials. One vial contains 700 international units (IU) porcine-pituitary-derived follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) equivalent to 400 milligrams NIH-FSH-P1, as a dry powder. The other vial contains 20 milliliters (mL) of bacteriostatic sodium chloride injection. When constituted, each milliliter of solution contains 35 IU FSH.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dual pack.</I> Each package contains 2 vials. Each vial contains 700 international units (IU) porcine-pituitary-derived FSH equivalent to 400 milligrams NIH-FSH-P1, as a dry powder. Constitute with 20 mL bacteriostatic sodium chloride injection, using strict aseptic technique. When constituted, each milliliter of solution contains 35 IU FSH.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 017030 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Dosage.</I> Administer 2.5 mL (87.5 IU) intramuscularly, twice daily at 12-hour intervals, for 4 consecutive days. In conjunction with the 6th dose, administer an approved prostaglandin product for cattle (cloprostenol sodium or dinoprost tromethamine), using the labeled dosage and administration instructions to cause luteolysis and induce estrus. See § 522.460 for use of cloprostenol sodium or § 522.690 for use of dinoprost tromethamine.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the induction of superovulation in beef and dairy heifers and cows.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 47377, Sept. 9, 1993, as amended at 62 FR 62242, Nov. 21, 1997; 76 FR 2808, Jan. 18, 2011; 79 FR 53136, Sept. 8, 2014; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017; 82 FR 43484, Sept. 18, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1008" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1008   Frunevetmab.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 7 milligrams (mg) frunevetmab.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer once a month by subcutaneous injection the full contents of one or two 1-mL vials to achieve a minimum dosage of 0.45 mg/lb (1 mg/kg) body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain associated with osteoarthritis in cats.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1010" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1010   Furosemide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) furosemide monoethanolamine.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL of solution contains 50 mg furosemide diethanolamine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of products described in paragraph (a) of this section for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000010 as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for use as in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for use as in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 058198 as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for use as in paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2)(i), and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 000061 as described in paragraph (a)(2) for use as in paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2)(iii), and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1.25 to 2.5 mg per pound (/lb) body weight once or twice daily, intramuscularly or intravenously.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of edema (pulmonary congestion, ascites) associated with cardiac insufficiency and acute noninflammatory tissue edema.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 250 to 500 mg per animal once or twice daily, intramuscularly or intravenously.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of edema (pulmonary congestion, ascites) associated with cardiac insufficiency, and acute noninflammatory tissue edema.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg/lb body weight once or twice daily, intramuscularly or intravenously.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of acute noninflammatory tissue edema.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Amount.</I> 250 to 500 mg/animal once or twice daily, intramuscularly or intravenously.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of edema (pulmonary congestion, ascites) associated with cardiac insufficiency, and acute noninflammatory tissue edema.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 500 mg/animal once daily, intramuscularly or intravenously; or 250 mg/animal twice daily at 12-hour intervals, intramuscularly or intravenously.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of physiological parturient edema of the mammary gland and associated structures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treatment not to exceed 48 hours post-parturition. Milk taken during treatment and for 48 hours (four milkings) after the last treatment must not be used for food. Cattle must not be slaughtered for food within 48 hours following last treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 47961, Sept. 17, 2001, as amended at 67 FR 18086, Apr. 15, 2002; 68 FR 59881, Oct. 20, 2003; 69 FR 17585, Apr. 5, 2004; 71 FR 39548, July 13, 2006; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 76 FR 17338, Mar. 29, 2011; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1014" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1014   Gamithromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 150 milligrams (mg) gamithromycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.292 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 6 mg/kilogram of body weight (2 mL per 110 pounds) one time by subcutaneous injection in the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</I> <I>Histophilus somni,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma bovis</I> in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle; and for the control of respiratory disease in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica</I> and <I>P. multocida.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 35 days from the last treatment. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 57906, Sept. 19, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 26162, May 3, 2012; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 91 FR 5301, Feb. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1020" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1020   Gelatin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 100 milliliters contains 8 grams of gelatin in a 0.85 percent sodium chloride solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The exact dosage to be administered must be determined after evaluating the animal's condition and will vary according to the size of the animal and the degree of shock. A suggested dosage range for small animals such as dogs is 4 to 8 cubic centimeters per pound body weight. The suggested dosage range for large animals such as sheep, calves, cows, or horses is 2 to 4 cubic centimeters per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use to restore circulatory volume and maintain blood pressure in animals being treated for shock.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1044" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1044   Gentamicin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 5, 50, or 100 milligrams (mg) gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of 5 mg per milliliter (/mL) solution in swine as in paragraph (d)(4), 50 mg/mL solution in dogs and cats as in paragraph (d)(1), 50 mg/mL and 100 mg/mL solution in chickens and turkeys as in paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058005 for use of 5 mg/mL solution in swine as in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 069043 for use of 50 mg/mL solution in dogs as in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Nos. 016592 and 061133 for use of 100 mg/mL solution in turkeys as in paragraph (d)(2) and in chickens as in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Two milligrams of gentamicin per pound of body weight, twice daily on the first day, once daily thereafter, using a 50 milligram-per-milliliter solution. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(<I>a</I>) <I>Dogs.</I> For the treatment of infections of urinary tract (cystitis, nephritis), respiratory tract (tonsillitis, pneumonia, tracheobronchitis), skin and soft tissue (pyodermatitis, wounds, lacerations, peritonitis). 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Cats.</I> For the treatment of infections of urinary tract (cystitis, nephritis), respiratory tract (pneumonitis, pneumonia, upper respiratory tract infections), skin and soft tissue (wounds, lacerations, peritonitis), and as supportive therapy for secondary bacterial infections associated with panleucopenia. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer intramuscularly or subcutaneously. If response is not noted after 7 days, the antibiotic sensitivity of the infecting organism should be retested. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer subcutaneously in the neck 1 mg of gentamicin per 0.2 mL dose, using the 50- or 100-mg/mL product diluted with sterile saline to a concentration of 5 mg/mL.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the prevention of early mortality in 1- to 3-day old turkey poults due to <I>Arizona paracolon</I> infections susceptible to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Injected poults must not be slaughtered for food for at least 9 weeks after treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.








</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chickens</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer subcutaneously in the neck 0.2 mg of gentamicin per 0.2 mL dose, using the 50- or 100-mg/mL product diluted with sterile saline to a concentration of 1.0 mg/mL.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention of early mortality in day-old chickens caused by <I>Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhimurium,</I> and <I>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</I> susceptible to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Injected chicks must not be slaughtered for food for at least 5 weeks after treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 mg of gentamicin as a single intramuscular dose using the 5 mg/mL solution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of porcine colibacillosis in piglets up to 3 days old caused by strains of <I>Escherichia coli</I> sensitive to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For single intramuscular dose in pigs up to 3 days of age only. Do not slaughter treated animals for food for at least 40 days following treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.


</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2 milligrams of gentamicin per pound of body weight, twice daily on the first day, then once daily. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in the treatment of urinary tract infections (cystitis) caused by <I>Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli,</I> and <I>Staphylococcus aureus.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer intramuscularly or subcutaneously. If no improvement is seen after 3 days, treatment should be discontinued and the diagnosis reevaluated. Treatment not to exceed 7 days. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 1942, Jan. 13, 1978, as amended at 48 FR 791, Jan. 7, 1983; 51 FR 15606, Apr. 25, 1986; 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 53 FR 40727, Oct. 18, 1988; 60 FR 29985, June 7, 1995; 61 FR 24441, May 15, 1996; 62 FR 45157, Aug. 26, 1997; 63 FR 59714, Nov. 5, 1998; 63 FR 68182, Dec. 10, 1998; 65 FR 45877, July 26, 2000; 71 FR 76901, Dec. 22, 2006; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 21127, Apr. 15, 2014; 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 16547, Mar. 20, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1055" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1055   Gleptoferron.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) contains the equivalent of 200 milligrams of elemental iron as gleptoferron, a complex of ferric hydroxide and dextran glucoheptonic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 013744 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use and amounts.</I> (i) Prevention of anemia due to iron deficiency: Administer 1 mL (200 mg iron) per pig by intramuscular injection on or before 3 days of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treatment of anemia due to iron deficiency: Administer 1 mL (200 mg iron) per pig by intramuscular injection as soon as signs of deficiency appear.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 59134, Aug. 29, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1066" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1066   Glycopyrrolate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.2 milligram glycopyrrolate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 micrograms per pound of body weight (0.25 milliliter per 10 pounds of body weight) by intravenous, intramuscular, or subcutaneous injection in dogs or by intramuscular injection in cats.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a preanesthetic agent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 64451, Nov. 2, 2006, as amended at 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1077" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1077   Gonadorelin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 43 micrograms (µg) of gonadorelin as gonadorelin acetate;
</P>
<P>(2) 100 µg of gonadorelin as gonadorelin acetate;
</P>
<P>(3) 50 µg of gonadorelin as gonadorelin diacetate tetrahydrate (equivalent to 43 µg gonadorelin); or
</P>
<P>(4) 50 µg of gonadorelin as gonadorelin hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of the 43-µg/mL product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (iii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(2) No. 068504 for use of the 100-µg/mL product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 000010 and 061133 for use of the 50-µg/mL product described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 054771 for use of the 50-µg/mL product described in paragraph (a)(4) as in paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) and (vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.304 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Concurrent luteolytic drug use is approved as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Cloprostenol injection for use as in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section as provided by No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cloprostenol injection for use as in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section as provided by No. 068504 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cloprostenol injection for use as in paragraph (e)(1)(v) of this section as provided by Nos. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(iv) Dinoprost injection for use as in paragraph (e)(1)(vi) of this section as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use and amounts.</I> (i) For the treatment of ovarian follicular cysts in dairy cattle: Administer 86 µg gonadorelin (No. 000061), or 100 µg gonadorelin diacetate tetrahydrate (Nos. 000010 and 061133), or 100 µg gonadorelin (as gonadorelin acetate; No. 068504) by intramuscular or intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the treatment of ovarian follicular cysts in cattle: Administer 100 µg gonadorelin hydrochloride by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(iii) For use with cloprostenol sodium to synchronize estrous cycles to allow for fixed-time artificial insemination (FTAI) in beef cows and lactating dairy cows: Administer to each cow 86 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection, followed 6 to 8 days later by 500 µg cloprostenol by intramuscular injection, followed 30 to 72 hours later by 86 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(iv) For use with cloprostenol sodium to synchronize estrous cycles to allow for fixed-time artificial insemination (FTAI) in lactating dairy cows and beef cows: Administer to each cow 100 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection, followed 6 to 8 days later by 500 µg cloprostenol by intramuscular injection, followed 30 to 72 hours later by 100 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(v) For use with cloprostenol sodium to synchronize estrous cycles to allow for fixed-time artificial insemination (FTAI) in lactating dairy cows and beef cows: Administer to each cow 100 µg gonadorelin diacetate tetrahydrate by intramuscular injection, followed 6 to 8 days later by 500 µg cloprostenol by intramuscular injection, followed 30 to 72 hours later by 100 µg gonadorelin diacetate tetrahydrate by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(vi) For use with dinoprost injection to synchronize estrous cycles to allow fixed-time artificial insemination (FTAI) in lactating dairy cows: Administer to each cow 100 to 200 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection, followed 6 to 8 days later by 25 mg dinoprost by intramuscular injection, followed 30 to 72 hours later by 100 to 200 µg gonadorelin by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64740, Dec. 18, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 8973, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 86 FR 13184, Mar. 8, 2021; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 17946, Mar. 29, 2022; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1079" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1079   Serum gonadotropin and chorionic gonadotropin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each dose consists of 400 international units (I.U.) serum gonadotropin and 200 I.U. chorionic gonadotropin as a freeze-dried powder to be reconstituted with 5 milliliters of sterile aqueous diluent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.304 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 400 I.U. serum gonadotropin with 200 I.U. chorionic gonadotropin per 5 milliliters dose per animal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Gilts.</I> For induction of fertile estrus (heat) in healthy prepuberal (noncycling) gilts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sows.</I> For induction of estrus in healthy weaned sows experiencing delayed return to estrus. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous use only.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Gilts.</I> For use only in gilts over 5
<FR>1/2</FR> months of age and weighing at least 85 kilograms (187 pounds).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sows.</I> Delayed return to estrus is most prevalent after the first litter. The effectiveness has not been established after later litters. Delayed return to estrus often occurs during periods of adverse environmental conditions, and sows mated under such conditions may farrow smaller than normal litters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 1405, Jan. 16, 1990, as amended at 58 FR 52222, Oct. 7, 1993; 74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1081" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1081   Chorionic gonadotropin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each vial contains 5,000, 10,000 or 20,000 USP units of lyophilized powder for constitution with accompanying diluent to a 10-milliliter solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A), (d)(1)(i)(B) and (d)(1)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) No. 000061 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A) and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.304 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> As a single dose. Dosage may be repeated in 14 days if the animal's behavior or examination of the ovaries <I>per rectum</I> indicates retreatment.
</P>
<P>(A) 10,000 USP units by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(B) 500 to 2,500 USP units by intrafollicular injection.
</P>
<P>(C) 2,500 to 5,000 USP units by intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For parenteral use in cows for treatment of nymphomania (frequent or constant heat) due to cystic ovaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Finfish</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 50 to 510 IU per pound of body weight for males, 67 to 1,816 IU per pound of body weight for females, by intramuscular injection. Up to three doses may be administered.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> An aid in improving spawning function in male and female brood finfish.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> In fish intended for human consumption, the total dose administered per fish (all injections combined) should not exceed 25,000 IU chorionic gonadotropin. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 61516, Nov. 25, 2009, as amended at 76 FR 17778, Mar. 31, 2011; 77 FR 55414, Sept. 10, 2012; 79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014; 83 FR 13635, Mar. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1083" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1083   Gonadotropin releasing factor analog-diphtheria toxoid conjugate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 0.2 milligrams (mg) gonadotropin releasing factor analog-diphtheria toxoid conjugate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Each intact male pig or gilt should receive two 2-mL (0.4 mg) doses by subcutaneous injection. Administer the first dose no earlier than 9 weeks of age. Administer the second dose at least 4 weeks after the first dose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Intact male pigs intended for slaughter:</I> For the temporary immunological castration (suppression of testicular function) and reduction of boar taint.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Gilts intended for slaughter:</I> For the temporary suppression of estrus.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. For reduction of boar taint, intact male pigs should be slaughtered no earlier than 3 weeks and no later than 10 weeks after the second dose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 27889, May 13, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 4227, Jan. 27, 2012; 79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014; 85 FR 45308, July 28, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1085" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1085   Guaifenesin powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product is a sterile powder containing guaifenesin. A solution is prepared by dissolving the drug in sterile water for injection to make a solution containing 50 milligrams of guaifenesin per milliliter of solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 037990 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 milliliter of prepared solution per pound of body weight by rapid intravenous infusion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a muscle relaxant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1086" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1086   Guaifenesin solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) of guaifenesin and 50 mg of dextrose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 037990 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 milliliter per pound of body weight by rapid intravenous infusion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a skeletal muscle relaxant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1125" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1125   Hemoglobin glutamer-200 (bovine).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 125 milliliter bag contains 13 grams per deciliter of polymerized hemoglobin of bovine origin in modified Lactated Ringer's Solution. It is a sterile, clear, dark purple solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 063075 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One-time dose of 10 to 30 milliliters per kilogram of body weight administered intravenously at a rate of up to 10 milliliters per kilogram per hour.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of anemia in dogs by increasing systemic oxygen content (plasma hemoglobin concentration) and improving the clinical signs associated with anemia, regardless of the cause of anemia (hemolysis, blood loss, or ineffective erythropoiesis).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 11598, Mar. 10, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 20732, Apr. 18, 2000; 79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1145" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1145   Hyaluronate.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of sterile aqueous solution contains 10 milligrams of hyaluronate sodium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 054771 in § 510.600(c).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Small and medium-size joints (carpal, fetlock): 20 mg; larger joint (hock): 40 mg. Treatment may be repeated at weekly intervals for a total of three treatments. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of joint dysfunction in horses due to noninfectious synovitis associated with equine osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of sterile aqueous solution contains 5 milligrams of hyaluronate sodium. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Small and medium-size joints (carpal, fetlock): 10 mg; larger joint (hock): 20 mg. Treatment may be repeated at weekly intervals for a total of four treatments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of joint dysfunction in horses due to noninfectious synovitis associated with equine osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of sterile aqueous solution contains 10 milligrams of hyaluronate sodium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Small and medium-size joints (carpal, fetlock): 20 mg. Treatment may be repeated after 1 or more weeks but not to exceed 2 injections per week for a total of 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the intra-articular treatment of carpal or fetlock joint dysfunction in horses due to acute or chronic, non-infectious synovitis associated with equine osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of sterile aqueous solution contains 10 milligrams of hyaluronate sodium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 50 milligrams in carpal and fetlock joints.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of equine carpal and fetlock joint dysfunction caused by traumatic and/or degenerative joint disease of mild to moderate severity.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 milligrams (mg) hyaluronate sodium; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 mg hyaluronate sodium with benzyl alcohol as a preservative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) No. 000010 for use of products described in paragraph (e)(1) as in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) No. 017030 for use of product described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) as in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 20 mg of the product described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section by intra-articular injection into the carpus or fetlock; or 40 mg of the product described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (e)(1)(ii) of this section by slow intravenous injection into the jugular vein. Treatment may be repeated at weekly intervals for a total of three treatments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of carpal or fetlock joint dysfunction due to noninfectious synovitis associated with equine osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of sterile aqueous solution contains 11 milligrams of hyaluronate sodium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 060865 in § 510.600(c).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Small and medium-size joints (carpal, fetlock): 22 mg; larger joint (hock): 44 mg. Treatment may be repeated at weekly intervals for a total of three treatments. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of joint dysfunction in horses due to noninfectious synovitis associated with equine osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 45124, Nov. 15, 1984, as amended at 51 FR 11438, Apr. 3, 1986; 51 FR 25032, July 10, 1986; 53 FR 19773, May 31, 1988; 53 FR 22297, June 15, 1988; 56 FR 50814, Oct. 9, 1991; 57 FR 2837, Jan. 24, 1992; 59 FR 33198, June 28, 1994; 61 FR 59003, Nov. 20, 1996; 63 FR 59216, Nov. 3, 1998; 71 FR 1689, Jan. 11, 2006; 71 FR 39204, July 12, 2006; 75 FR 1274, Jan. 11, 2010; 75 FR 10167, Mar. 5, 2010; 78 FR 73698, Dec. 9, 2013; 79 FR 16189, Mar. 25, 2014; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 80 FR 34279, June 16, 2015; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1155" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1155   Imidocarb powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product is a sterile powder containing imidocarb dipropionate. Each milliliter of constituted solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) of imidocarb base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Imidocarb dipropionate is sold only under permit issued by the Director of the National Program Planning Staff, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, to licensed or full-time State, Federal, or military veterinarians.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses and zebras</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For <I>Babesia caballi</I> infections, administer 2 mg of imidocarb base per kilogram of body weight by intramuscular injection in the neck region, repeating dosage once after 24 hours. For <I>Babesia equi</I> infections, administer 4 mg of imidocarb base per kilogram of body weight by intramuscular injection in the neck region, repeating dosage four times at 72-hour intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of babesiosis (piroplasmosis) caused by <I>Babesia caballi</I> and <I>Babesia equi.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16190, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1156" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1156   Imidocarb solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 120 milligrams (mg) of imidocarb dipropionate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 6.6 mg per kilogram (3 mg per pound) of body weight by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection. Repeat the dose after 2 weeks for a total of two treatments.</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of clinical signs of babesiosis and/or demonstrated <I>Babesia</I> organisms in the blood.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16190, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1160" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1160   Insulin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter (mL) of porcine insulin zinc suspension contains 40 international units (IU) of insulin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL of protamine zinc recombinant human insulin suspension contains 40 IU of insulin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600 of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(A), (c)(1)(ii), (c)(1)(iii), (c)(2)(i)(A), (c)(2)(ii), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000010 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(B), (c)(1)(ii), (c)(1)(iii), (c)(2)(i)(B), (c)(2)(ii), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Porcine zinc insulin zinc.</I> Administer an initial once-daily dose of 0.5 IU per kilogram of body weight by subcutaneous injection concurrently with or right after a meal. Adjust this once-daily dose at appropriate intervals based on clinical signs, urinalysis results, and glucose curve values until adequate glycemic control has been attained. Twice-daily therapy should be initiated if the duration of insulin action is determined to be inadequate. If twice-daily treatment is initiated, the two doses should be 25 percent less than the once daily dose required to attain an acceptable nadir.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Protamine zinc recombinant human insulin.</I> Administer a starting dose of 0.2 to 0.5 IU/pound of body weight (0.5 to 1.0 IU/kg) once daily. When transitioning from another insulin product, this form of insulin should be started once daily, regardless of the frequency of prior insulin use. The dose should be given concurrently with or right after a meal. Reevaluate the dog at appropriate intervals and adjust the dose based on both clinical signs and laboratory test results until adequate glycemic control has been attained. Twice-daily therapy should be initiated if the duration of insulin action is determined to be inadequate. If twice-daily treatment is initiated, the two doses should be 25 percent less than the once daily dose required to attain an acceptable nadir.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the reduction of hyperglycemia and hyperglycemia-associated clinical signs in dogs with diabetes mellitus.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Porcine insulin zinc.</I> Administer an initial dose of 1 to 2 IU by subcutaneous injection. Injections should be given twice daily at approximately 12-hour intervals. For cats fed twice daily, the injections should be concurrent with or right after a meal. For cats fed ad libitum, no change in feeding is needed. Adjust the dose at appropriate intervals based on clinical signs, urinalysis results, and glucose curve values until adequate glycemic control has been attained.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Protamine zinc recombinant human insulin.</I> Administer an initial dose of 0.1 to 0.3 IU/pound of body weight (0.2 to 0.7 IU/kilogram) every 12 hours. The dose should be given concurrently with or right after a meal. Re-evaluate the cat at appropriate intervals and adjust the dose based on both clinical signs and glucose nadirs until adequate glycemic control has been attained.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the reduction of hyperglycemia and hyperglycemia-associated clinical signs in cats with diabetes mellitus.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 25827, May 10, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 21042, Apr. 18, 2008; 74 FR 61517, Nov. 25, 2009; 74 FR 66048, Dec. 14, 2009; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1182" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1182   Iron injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> See § 510.440 of this chapter. Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains the equivalent of:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 milligrams (mg) of elemental iron derived from:
</P>
<P>(i) Ferric hydroxide;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ferric oxide; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Elemental iron.
</P>
<P>(2) 200 mg of elemental iron derived from ferric hydroxide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors and conditions of us</I>e. It is used in young piglets by sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592 and 042552 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For prevention of iron deficiency anemia, inject 100 mg (1 mL) by intramuscular injection at 2 to 4 days of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) For treatment of iron deficiency anemia, inject 100 mg (1 mL) by intramuscular injection. Dosage may be repeated in approximately 10 days.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For the prevention of anemia due to iron deficiency, administer an initial intramuscular injection of 100 mg at 2 to 4 days of age. Dosage may be repeated in 14 to 21 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the treatment of anemia due to iron deficiency, administer an intramuscular injection of 200 mg.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 000061 and 013744 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For the prevention of iron deficiency anemia, administer intramuscularly an amount of drug containing 100 to 150 mg of elemental iron to animals from 1 to 3 days of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the treatment of iron deficiency anemia, administer intramuscularly an amount of drug containing 100 to 200 mg of elemental iron per animal. Dosage may be repeated in 10 days to 2 weeks.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For prevention of iron deficiency anemia, administer 1 mL by intramuscular injection at 2 to 5 days of age. Dosage may be repeated at 2 weeks of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) For treatment of iron deficiency anemia, administer 1 to 2 mL by intramuscular injection at 5 to 28 days of age.
</P>
<P>(5) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For prevention of anemia due to iron deficiency, administer 100 mg by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection at 2 to 4 days of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) For treatment of anemia due to iron deficiency, administer 100 mg by intramuscular or subcutaneous injection up to 4 weeks of age.
</P>
<P>(6) Nos. 016592 and 058005 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For prevention of anemia due to iron deficiency, administer 100 mg by intramuscular injection at 2 to 4 days of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) For treatment of anemia due to iron deficiency, administer 100 mg by intramuscular injection. Treatment may be repeated in 10 days.
</P>
<P>(7) Nos. 016592, 042552, and 058005 for use product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For prevention of anemia due to iron deficiency, intramuscularly inject 200 mg of elemental iron (1 mL) at 1 to 3 days of age.
</P>
<P>(ii) For treatment of anemia due to iron deficiency, intramuscularly inject 200 mg of elemental iron at the first sign of anemia.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 12635, Mar. 10, 2008, as amended at 73 FR 14385, Mar. 18, 2008; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 78 FR 44433, July 24, 2013; 79 FR 16190, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 59134, Aug. 29, 2016; 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021; 89 FR 85427, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1185" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1185   Isoflupredone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 2 milligrams (mg) of isoflupredone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 10 to 20 mg by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in the treatment of bovine ketosis. For alleviation of pain associated with generalized and acute localized arthritic conditions; for treating acute hypersensitivity reactions; and as an aid in correcting circulatory defects associated with severe toxicity and shock.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption should not be slaughtered within 7 days of last treatment. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses and swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Horses.</I> Administer 5 to 20 mg by intramuscular injection for systemic effect or by intrasynovial injection into a joint cavity, tendon sheath, or bursa for local effect.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Swine.</I> The usual dose for a 300-pound animal is 5 mg by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For alleviation of pain associated with generalized and acute localized arthritic conditions; for treating acute hypersensitivity reactions; and as an aid in correcting circulatory defects associated with severe toxicity and shock.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption should not be slaughtered within 7 days of last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16190, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1192" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1192   Ivermectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL of solution contains 10 mg ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(3) Each mL of solution contains 2.7 mg ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.


</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 000010, 016592, 055529, 058005, and 061133 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraphs (e)(2) through (e)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000010 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraphs (e)(3) and (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.344 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling shall bear the following precaution: “This product should not be used in other animal species as severe adverse reactions, including fatalities in dogs, may result.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 micrograms per kilogram (µg/kg) of body weight by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of gastrointestinal nematodes (adults and fourth-stage larvae) (<I>Haemonchus placei</I>, <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (including inhibited larvae), <I>O. lyrata</I>, <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I>, <I>T. colubriformis</I>, <I>Cooperia oncophora</I>, <I>C. punctata</I>, <I>C. pectinata</I>, <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I>, <I>Nematodirus helvetianus</I> (adults only), <I>N. spathiger</I> (adults only), <I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I>); lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>); grubs (parasitic stages) (<I>Hypoderma bovis</I>, <I>H. lineatum</I>); sucking lice (<I>Linognathus vituli</I>, <I>Haematopinus eurysternus</I>, <I>Solenopotes capillatus</I>); mites (<I>scabies</I>) (<I>Psoroptes ovis</I> (syn. <I>P. communis</I> var. <I>bovis</I>), <I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I> var. <I>bovis</I>). For control of infections and to protect from reinfection with <I>D. viviparus</I> and <I>O. radiatum</I> for 28 days after treatment; <I>O. ostertagi</I>, <I>T. axei</I>, and <I>C. punctata</I> for 21 days after treatment; <I>H. placei</I> and <I>C. oncophora</I> for 14 days after treatment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat cattle within 35 days of slaughter. Because a withdrawal time in milk has not been established, do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 300 µg/kg of body weight by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) (large roundworm, <I>Ascaris suum</I>; red stomach worm, <I>Hyostrongylus rubidus</I>; nodular worm, <I>Oesophagostomum</I> spp.; threadworm, <I>Strongyloides ransomi</I> (adults only)); somatic roundworm larvae (threadworm, <I>S. ransomi</I> (somatic larvae)); lungworms (<I>Metastrongylus</I> spp. (adults only)); lice (<I>H. suis</I>); and mites (<I>S. scabiei</I> var. <I>suis</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat swine within 18 days of slaughter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>American bison</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 µg/kg of body weight by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of grubs (<I>H. bovis</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter within 56 days of last treatment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reindeer</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 µg/kg of body weight by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of warbles (<I>Oedemagena tarandi</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat reindeer within 56 days of slaughter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Ranch-raised foxes</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 200 µg/kg of body weight by subcutaneous injection. Repeat in 3 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of ear mites (<I>Otodectes cynotis</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 27735, May 17, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 62771, Nov. 7, 2007; 74 FR 9049, Mar. 2, 2009; 75 FR 26647, May 12, 2010; 76 FR 57906, Sept. 19, 2011; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 81 FR 59134, Aug. 29, 2016; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1193" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.92" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1193   Ivermectin and clorsulon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) (1 percent) ivermectin and 100 mg (10 percent) clorsulon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010, 055529, 058005, 061133, and 061651 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.163 and 556.344 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 mL (10 mg ivermectin and 100 mg clorsulon) per 50 kilograms (110 pounds) by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of gastrointestinal nematodes (adults and fourth-stage larvae) (<I>Haemonchus placei, Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (including inhibited larvae), <I>O. lyrata, Trichostrongylus axei,</I> <I>T. colubriformis, Cooperia oncophora,</I> <I>C. punctata, C. pectinata,</I> <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum, Nematodirus helvetianus</I> (adults only), <I>N. spathiger</I> (adults only), <I>Bunostomum phlebotomum;</I> lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>); liver flukes (adults only) (<I>Fasciola hepatica</I>); cattle grubs (parasitic stages) (<I>Hypoderma bovis, H. lineatum</I>); sucking lice (<I>Linognathus vituli, Haematopinus eurysternus, Solenopotes capillatus</I>); mange mites (cattle scab) (<I>Psoroptes ovis</I> (syn. <I>P. communis</I> var. <I>bovis</I>), <I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I> var. <I>bovis</I>); and for control of infections of <I>D. viviparus</I> and <I>O. radiatum</I> for 28 days after treatment; <I>O. ostertagi, T. axei,</I> and <I>C. punctata</I> for 21 days after treatment; and <I>H. placei</I> and <I>C. oncophora</I> for 14 days after treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat cattle within 21 days of slaughter. Because a withdrawal time in milk has not been established, do not use in female dairy cattle of breeding age. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 38984, Sept. 24, 1990, as amended at 62 FR 14302, Mar. 26, 1997; 62 FR 63271, Nov. 28, 1997; 64 FR 26671, May 17, 1999; 69 FR 31735, June 7, 2004; 72 FR 27734, May 17, 2007; 77 FR 64717, Oct. 23, 2012; 79 FR 64116, Oct. 28, 2014; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021; 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016, § 522.1193 was amended; however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1204" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.93" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1204   Kanamycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 or 200 milligrams (mg) of kanamycin as kanamycin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection 5 mg per pound of body weight per day in equally divided doses at 12-hour intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial infections due to kanamycin sensitive organisms in dogs and cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16190, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1222" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.94" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1222   Ketamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains ketamine hydrochloride equivalent to 100 milligrams (mg) ketamine base activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 00010, 017033, 054771, 058198, 059399, and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 to 15 mg/pound body weight intramuscularly, depending on the effect desired.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For restraint or as the sole anesthetic agent in diagnostic or minor, brief surgical procedures that do not require skeletal muscle relaxation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subhuman primates</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3 to 15 mg/kilogram body weight intramuscularly, depending upon the species, general condition, and age of the subject.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For restraint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 17283, Apr. 10, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 8192, Feb. 13, 2008. Redesignated at 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 13229, Mar. 13, 2015; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023; 88 FR 55564, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1223" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.95" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1223   Ketamine, promazine, and aminopentamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains ketamine hydrochloride equivalent to 100 milligrams (mg) ketamine base activity, 7.5 (mg) of promazine hydrochloride, and 0.0625 mg of aminopentamide hydrogen sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intramuscular injection 15 to 20 mg ketamine base per pound of body weight, depending on the effect desired.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used in cats as the sole anesthetic agent for ovariohysterectomy and general surgery.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1225" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.96" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1225   Ketoprofen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) ketoprofen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.345 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection 1.0 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight once daily for up to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For alleviation of inflammation and pain associated with musculoskeletal disorders in horses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous injection 3 mg per kilogram (1.36 mg/lb) of body weight once daily for up to 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pyrexia associated with bovine respiratory disease (BRD) in beef heifers, beef steers, beef calves 2 months of age and older, beef bulls, replacement dairy heifers, and dairy bulls.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in reproducing animals over 1 year of age. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 48 hours following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in female dairy cattle 1 year of age or older, including dry dairy cows; use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows or heifers. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1242" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.97" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1242   Levamisole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains levamisole phosphate equivalent to 136.5 or 182 milligrams of levamisole hydrochloride (13.65 or 18.2 percent).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 016592 in § 510.600 of this chapter for use of 13.65 percent injection, and see No. 054771 for use of 13.65 and 18.2 percent injection.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.350 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2 milliliters per 100 pounds of body weight, subcutaneously in the neck.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) The 13.65 percent injection is used as an anthelmintic in cattle for treatment of the following parasites: stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus, Ostertagia</I>), intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodirus, Bunostomum, Oesophagostomum, Chabertia</I>), and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) The 18.2 percent injection is used as an anthelmintic in cattle for treatment of the following parasites: stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus, Ostertagia</I>), intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodirus, Bunostomum, Oesophagostomum</I>) and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer more than 10 milliliters per site. Cattle that are severely parasitized or maintained under conditions of constant helminth exposure may require re-treatment within 2 to 4 weeks after first treatment. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism. Consult your veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals or animals under severe stress. Do not administer to cattle within 7 days of slaughter. Do not administer to dairy animals of breeding age.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 20489, May 12, 1978, as amended at 43 FR 29289, July 7, 1978; 43 FR 60895, Dec. 29, 1978; 47 FR 10807, Mar. 12, 1982; 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 65 FR 61090, Oct. 16, 2000; 67 FR 63055, Oct. 10, 2002. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.98" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1260   Lincomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains lincomycin hydrochloride monohydrate equivalent to:
</P>
<P>(1) 25, 50, 100, or 300 milligrams (mg) lincomycin.
</P>
<P>(2) 25, 100, or 300 mg lincomycin.
</P>
<P>(3) 300 mg lincomycin.
</P>
<P>(4) 100 or 300 mg lincomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of concentrations in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592 and 058005 for use of concentrations in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 054771 for use of concentration in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 061133 for use of concentrations in paragraph (a)(4) of this section as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> When common labeling for use of the drug in dogs, cats, and swine is included with the drug, all such uses are subject to the labeling requirements of § 201.105 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.360 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used for animals as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight twice daily or 10 mg/lb body weight once daily by intramuscular injection; 5 to 10 mg/lb body weight one or two times daily by slow intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Infections caused by Gram-positive organisms, particularly streptococci and staphylococci. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 5 mg/lb body weight once daily by intramuscular injection for 3 to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infectious arthritis and mycoplasma pneumonia. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat within 48 hours of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 31351, Aug. 2, 1985; 67 FR 34388, May 14, 2002; 68 FR 51705, Aug. 28, 2003; 69 FR 11507, Mar. 11, 2004; 69 FR 47361, Aug. 5, 2004; 71 FR 51996, Sept. 1, 2006; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 59134, Aug. 29, 2016; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1289" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.99" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1289   Lufenuron.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 100 milligrams (mg) of lufenuron.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg per kilogram (4.5 mg per pound) of body weight every 6 months, by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of flea populations in cats 6 weeks of age and older.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 61297, Oct. 13, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1290" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.100" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1290   Luprostiol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 7.5 milligrams (mg) luprostiol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling shall bear the following statements: <I>Warning:</I> Women of childbearing age, asthmatics, and persons with bronchial and other respiratory problems should exercise extreme caution when handling this product. In the early stages, women may be unaware of their pregnancies. Luprostiol is readily absorbed through the skin and can cause abortion and/or bronchiospasms. Direct contact with the skin should therefore be avoided. Accidental spillage on the skin should be washed off immediately with soap and water. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 7.5 mg by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(2) Indications for use. For estrus control and termination of pregnancy in mares.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 1185, Jan. 12, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 61 FR 66582, Dec. 18, 1996; 74 FR 25146, May 27, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1315" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.101" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1315   Maropitant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) maropitant as maropitant citrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 017033 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.0 mg per kilogram (mg/kg) of body weight by subcutaneous or intravenous injection once daily for up to 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention and treatment of acute vomiting.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1.0 mg/kg of body weight by subcutaneous or intravenous injection once daily for up to 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of vomiting.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 9243, Mar. 1, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 39391, July 3, 2012; 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1335" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.102" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1335   Medetomidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 1.0 milligrams of medetomidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 015914 and 052483 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 750 micrograms intravenously (IV) or 1,000 micrograms intramuscularly per square meter of body surface. The IV route is more efficacious for dental care.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a sedative and analgesic in dogs over 12 weeks of age to facilitate clinical examinations, clinical procedures, minor surgical procedures not requiring muscle relaxation, and minor dental procedures not requiring intubation. The intravenous route of administration is more efficacious for dental care.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 21075, May 9, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 82 FR 58556, Dec. 13, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1338" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.103" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1338   Medetomidine and vatinoxan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.5 milligrams (mg) medetomidine hydrochloride and 10 mg vatinoxan hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intramuscular injection a dose based on body surface area (BSA). Calculate the dose using 1 mg medetomidine per square meter (/m
<SU>2</SU>) BSA or use the dosing table provided in labeling.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a sedative and analgesic in dogs to facilitate clinical examination, clinical procedures, and minor surgical procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022, as amended at 87 FR 76421, Dec. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1350" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.104" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1350   Melatonin implant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a silicone rubber elastomer implant containing 2.7 milligrams of melatonin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 053923 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One implant per mink.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in healthy male and female kit and adult female mink (<I>Mustela vison</I>) to accelerate the fur priming cycle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous implantation in mink only. Do not implant potential breeding stock. Do not use in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 37422, July 22, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1362" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.105" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1362   Melarsomine powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug consists of a vial of lyophilized powder containing 50 milligrams of melarsomine dihydrochloride which is reconstituted with the provided 2 milliliters of sterile water for injection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 086073 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer only by deep intramuscular injection in the lumbar muscles (L<E T="52">3</E>-L<E T="52">5</E>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications.</I> Treatment of stabilized, class 1, 2, and 3 heartworm disease (asymptomatic to mild, moderate, and severe, respectively) caused by immature (4 month-old, stage L<E T="52">5</E>) to mature adult infections of <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 49340, Sept. 25, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1367" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.106" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1367   Meloxicam.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 5.0 milligrams (mg) meloxicam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010, 016729, 017033, 055529, and 086101 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.09 mg per pound (mg/lb) body weight (0.2 mg per kilogram (mg/kg)) by intravenous or subcutaneous injection on the first day of treatment. For treatment after day 1, administer meloxicam suspension orally at 0.045 mg/lb (0.1 mg/kg) body weight once daily as in § 520.1367(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.14 mg/lb (0.3 mg/kg) body weight as a single, one-time subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with orthopedic surgery, ovariohysterectomy, and castration when administered prior to surgery.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 68724, Dec. 10, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 69523, Nov. 30, 2004; 78 FR 5715, Jan. 28, 2013; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 85 FR 18119, Apr. 1, 2020; 88 FR 14898, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1372" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.107" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1372   Mepivacaine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 20 milligrams mepivacaine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For nerve block, 3 to 15 mL; for epidural anesthesia, 5 to 20 mL; for intra-articular anesthesia, 10 to 15 mL; for infiltration, as required; for anesthesia of the laryngeal mucosa prior to ventriculectomy, by topical spray, 25 to 40 mL, by infiltration, 20 to 50 mL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a local anesthetic for infiltration, nerve block, intra-articular and epidural anesthesia, and topical and/or infiltration anesthesia of the laryngeal mucosa prior to ventriculectomy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 39547, July 13, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 88 FR 14898, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1380" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.108" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1380   Methocarbamol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) of methocarbamol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051031 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Dogs and cats.</I> Administer by intravenous injection 20 mg per pound of body weight for moderate conditions or 25 to 100 mg per pound of body weight for severe conditions (tetanus and strychnine poisoning). The total cumulative dose should not to exceed 150 mg per pound of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Horses.</I> Administer by intravenous injection 2 to 10 mg per pound of body weight for moderate conditions or 10 to 25 mg per pound of body weight for severe conditions (tetanus). Additional amounts may be needed to relieve residual effects and to prevent recurrence of symptoms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an adjunct for treating acute inflammatory and traumatic conditions of the skeletal muscles and to reduce muscular spasms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1410" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.109" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1410   Methylprednisolone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 20 or 40 milligrams (mg) of methylprednisolone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2 to 40 mg (up to 120 mg in extremely large breeds or dogs with severe involvement) by intramuscular injection or up to 20 mg by intrasynovial injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of inflammation and related disorders; treatment of allergic and dermatologic disorders; and as supportive therapy to antibacterial treatment of severe infections.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 10 to 20 mg by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of inflammation and related disorders; treatment of allergic and dermatologic disorders; and as supportive therapy to antibacterial treatment of severe infections.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 200 mg by intramuscular injection or 40 to 240 mg by intrasynovial injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of inflammation and related disorders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 59058, Dec. 19, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 741, Jan. 8, 1986; 53 FR 40728, Oct. 18, 1988; 62 FR 35076, June 30, 1997; 76 FR 53051, Aug. 25, 2011; 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1450" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.110" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1450   Moxidectin solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 055529, 058198, and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.426 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle—(1) Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous injection 1 mL for each 110 pounds (lb) (50 kilograms (kg)) body weight to provide 0.2 mg moxidectin/2.2 lb (0.2 mg/kg) body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: For treatment and control of Gastrointestinal roundworms: <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (adults, fourth-stage larvae, and inhibited larvae), <I>Haemonchus placei</I> (adults), <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Cooperia oncophora</I> (adults), <I>Cooperia pectinata</I> (adults), <I>Cooperia punctata</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Cooperia spatulata</I> (adults), <I>Cooperia surnabada</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Nematodirus helvetianus</I> (adults), <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Trichuris</I> spp. (adults); Lungworms: <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae); Cattle grubs: <I>Hypoderma bovis</I> and <I>Hypoderma lineatum;</I> Mites: <I>Psoroptes ovis</I> (<I>Psoroptes communis</I> var. <I>bovis</I>); Lice: <I>Linognathus vituli</I> and <I>Solenopotes capillatus.</I> For protection from reinfection with <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I> and <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I> for 42 days after treatment, with <I>Haemonchus placei</I> for 35 days after treatment, and with <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> and <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I> for 14 days after treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 21 days of treatment. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 36337, June 23, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 7414, Feb. 13, 2006; 76 FR 48714, Aug. 9, 2011; 82 FR 21690, May 10, 2017; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 27699, May 3, 2023; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1451" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.111" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1451   Moxidectin microspheres for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug product consists of two separate vials. One vial contains 10 percent moxidectin microspheres and the second vial contains a vehicle for constitution of the moxidectin microspheres.
</P>
<P>(1) Each milliliter (mL) of constituted suspension contains 3.4 milligrams (mg) moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL of constituted suspension contains 10 mg moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 54771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) Using the suspension described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, administer 0.05 mL of the constituted suspension per kilogram (kg) of body weight (0.023 mL per pound (lb)) as a single subcutaneous injection to provide 0.17 mg/kg body weight (0.0773 mg/lb).
</P>
<P>(ii) Using the suspension described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, administer 0.05 mL of the constituted suspension/kg of body weight (0.023 mL/lb) as a single subcutaneous injection to provide 0.5 mg/kg body weight (0.23 mg/lb).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Suspension described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</I> For prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> in dogs 6 months of age and older; and for treatment of existing larval and adult hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) infections.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Suspension described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</I> For prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> for 12 months in dogs 12 months of age and older; and for treatment of existing larval and adult hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>) infections.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1452" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.112" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1452   Nalorphine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 5 milligrams of nalorphine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One milligram per 5 pounds; intravenously, intramuscularly, or subcutaneously.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Respiratory and circulatory depression in dogs resulting from overdosage of, or unusual sensitivity to, morphine and certain other narcotics. Not for depression due to any other cause.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 6707, Feb. 2, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 36418, Aug. 20, 1982; 62 FR 63271, Nov. 28, 1997; 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1465" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.113" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1465   Naltrexone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams of naltrexone hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 053923 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in elk and moose</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 100 milligrams of naltrexone hydrochloride for each milligram of carfentanil citrate administered. One-quarter of the dose should be administered intravenously and three-quarters of the dose should be administered subcutaneously.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an antagonist to carfentanil citrate immobilization in free-ranging or confined elk and moose (<I>Cervidae</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in domestic food-producing animals. Do not use in free-ranging animals for 45 days before or during hunting season. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 5320, Feb. 5, 1997, as amended at 79 FR 16191, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1468" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.114" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1468   Naproxen for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a lyophilized powder which is reconstituted with sterile water for injection to form a 10 percent sterile aqueous solution (100 milligrams per milliliter).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Dosage.</I> Five milligrams per kilogram of body weight intravenously followed by maintenance oral therapy of 10 milligrams per kilogram of body weight twice daily for up to 14 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of inflammation and associated pain and lameness exhibited with arthritis, as well as myositis and other soft tissue diseases of the musculoskeletal system of the horse.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in horses intended for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 26763, May 15, 1981. Redesignated and amended at 51 FR 24525, July 7, 1986; 61 FR 5507, Feb. 13, 1996; 79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1484" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.115" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1484   Neomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) of neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 35 mg of neomycin base).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 mg per pound of body weight daily by intramuscular or intravenous injection, divided into portions administered every 6 to 8 hours for 3 to 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute and chronic bacterial infections due to organisms susceptible to neomycin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for parenteral use in food-producing animals because of prolonged residues in edible tissues. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1503" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.116" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1503   Neostigmine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 2 milligrams (mg) neostigmine methylsulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer to cattle and horses at a dosage level of 1 mg per (/) 100 pounds (lbs) of body weight subcutaneously. Administer to sheep at a dosage level of 1 to 1
<FR>1/2</FR> mg/100 lbs body weight subcutaneously. Administer to swine at a dosage level of 2 to 3 mg/100 lbs body weight intramuscularly. These doses may be repeated as indicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treating rumen atony; initiating peristalsis which causes evacuation of the bowel; emptying the urinary bladder; and stimulating skeletal muscle contractions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in animals producing milk, since this use will result in contamination of the milk. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1610" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.117" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1610   Oleate sodium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) of sodium oleate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 037990 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by parenteral injection depending on the area of response desired. An injection of 1 milliliter (mL) will produce a response of approximately 15 square centimeters. Do not inject more than 2 mL per injection site. Regardless of the number of injection sites, the total volume used should not exceed 10 mL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used in horses to stimulate infiltration of cellular blood components that subsequently differentiate into fibrous and/or fibrocartilagenous tissue.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 27034, July 1, 1976, as amended at 50 FR 40966, Oct. 8, 1985; 79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1660" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.118" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1660   Oxytetracycline injectable dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1660a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.119" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1660a   Oxytetracycline solution, 200 milligrams/milliliter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of sterile solution contains 200 milligrams of oxytetracycline base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010, 016592, 054771, 055529, 061133, and 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.500 of this chapter; and for No. 061133, see also § 500.1410 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef cattle, dairy cattle, and calves including prerumenative (veal) calves</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) 3 to 5 mg per pound of body weight (mg/lb BW) per day (/day) intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intravenously for treatment of pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. and <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., foot-rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum,</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii,</I> leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona,</I> wound infections and acute metritis caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp., and anthrax caused by <I>Bacillus anthracis.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) 5 mg/lb BW/day intramuscularly or intravenously for treatment of anaplasmosis caused by <I>Anaplasma marginale,</I> severe foot-rot, and advanced cases of other indicated diseases.
</P>
<P>(C) 9 mg/lb BW intramuscularly or subcutaneously as single dosage where retreatment of calves and yearlings for bacterial pneumonia is impractical, for treatment of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye) caused by <I>Moraxella bovis,</I> or where retreatment for anaplasmosis is impractical.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue treatment at least 28 days prior to slaughter. Milk taken from animals during treatment and for 96 hours after the last treatment must not be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) Sows: 3 mg/lb BW intramuscularly once, approximately 8 hours before farrowing or immediately after completion of farrowing, as an aid in control of infectious enteritis (baby pig scours, colibacillosis) in suckling pigs caused by <I>E.</I> <I>coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) 3 to 5 mg/lb BW/day intramuscularly for treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours, colibacillosis) caused by <I>E.</I> <I>coli,</I> pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida,</I> and leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) 9 mg/lb BW as a single dosage where retreatment for pneumonia is impractical.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer intramuscularly. Do not inject more than 5 mL per site in adult swine. Discontinue treatment at least 28 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 16479, Mar. 14, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 69 FR 31879, June 8, 2004]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 522.1660a, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1660b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.120" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1660b   Oxytetracycline solution, 300 milligrams/milliliter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 300 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 055529 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> When labeled for use as in paragraph (e)(1)(i)(D) or (e)(1)(i)(E) of this section, labeling shall also bear the following: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef cattle, nonlactating dairy cattle, and calves including preruminating (veal) calves</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) 3 to 5 mg per pound of bodyweight (mg/lb BW) per day (/day) intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intravenously for treatment of pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. and <I>Histophilus</I> spp., foot-rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum,</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii,</I> leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona,</I> wound infections and acute metritis caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(B) 5 mg/lb BW/day intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intravenously for treatment of severe foot-rot, and advanced cases of other indicated diseases.
</P>
<P>(C) 9 mg/lb BW intramuscularly or subcutaneously as single dosage where retreatment of calves and yearlings for bacterial pneumonia is impractical or for treatment of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye) caused by <I>Moraxella bovis.</I>
</P>
<P>(D) 9 to 13.6 mg/lb BW intramuscularly or subcutaneously as single dosage where retreatment of calves and yearlings for bacterial pneumonia is impractical or for treatment of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye) caused by <I>Moraxella bovis.</I>
</P>
<P>(E) 13.6 mg/lb BW intramuscularly or subcutaneously as a single dosage for control of respiratory disease in cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>Mannheimia</I> (<I>Pasteurella</I>) <I>haemolytica.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Treatment should be continued 24 to 48 hours following remission of disease signs, however, not to exceed a total of four consecutive days. Do not inject more than 10 mL per site in adult cattle, reducing the volume according to age and body size to 1 to 2 mL in small calves. Exceeding the highest recommended level of drug/lb BW/day, administering more than the recommended number of treatments, and/or exceeding 10 mL intramuscularly or subcutaneously per injection site may result in antibiotic residues beyond the withdrawal time. Rapid intravenous administration may result in animal collapse. Oxytetracycline should be administered intravenously slowly over a period of at least 5 minutes. Discontinue treatment at least 28 days prior to slaughter. Not for use in lactating dairy animals. For No. 055529: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) Sows: 3 mg/lb BW intramuscularly once, approximately 8 hours before farrowing or immediately after completion of farrowing, as an aid in control of infectious enteritis (baby pig scours, colibacillosis) in suckling pigs caused by <I>E.</I> <I>coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) 3 to 5 mg/lb BW/day intramuscularly for treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours, colibacillosis) caused by <I>E.</I> <I>coli,</I> pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida,</I> and leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) 9 mg/lb BW as a single dosage where retreatment for pneumonia is impractical.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer intramuscularly. Treatment should be continued 24 to 48 hours beyond remission of disease signs, however, not to exceed a total of 4 consecutive days. Exceeding the highest recommended level of drug/lb BW/day, administering more than the recommended number of treatments, and/or exceeding 5 mL intramuscularly per injection site may result in antibiotic residues beyond the withdrawal time. Discontinue treatment at least 28 days prior to slaughter. For No. 055529: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 54805, Sept. 19, 2003. Redesignated and amended at 69 FR 31879, June 8, 2004; 73 FR 14926, Mar. 20, 2008; 88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1662" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.121" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1662   Oxytetracycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For related tolerances see § 556.500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg per pound of body weight (mg/lb) per day by intramuscular injection. Leptospirosis, severe foot-rot, and severe forms of the indicated diseases should be treated with 5 mg/lb per day. Treatment should be continued for 24 to 48 hours following remission of clinical signs of disease, not to exceed 4 consecutive days. Not more than 10 mL should be injected per injection site in adult cattle, and only 2 mL per injection site in calves weighing 100 pounds or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Beef cattle, beef calves, nonlactating dairy cattle, and dairy calves; for treatment of diseases due to oxytetracycline-susceptible organisms as follows: Pneumonia and shipping fever complex (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp<I>., Haemophilus</I> spp<I>., Klebsiella</I> spp.), bacterial enteritis (scours) (<I>Escherichia coli</I>), foot-rot (<I>Spherophorus necrophorus</I>), diphtheria (<I>Spherophorus necrophorus</I>), wooden tongue (<I>Actinobacillus lignieresii</I>), leptospirosis (<I>Leptospira pomona</I>), and wound infections and acute metritis caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue treatment at least 20 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 50 or 100 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg per pound of body weight (mg/lb) per day; 5 mg/lb per day for the treatment of anaplasmosis, severe foot-rot, and severe cases of other indicated diseases. For 50-mg/mL solution, administer intramuscularly or intravenously; for 100-mg/mL solution, administer intramuscularly only. Treatment should be continued for 24 to 48 hours following remission of clinical signs of disease, not to exceed 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of diseases due to oxytetracycline-susceptible organisms as follows: Pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp<I>., Haemophilus</I> spp<I>.,</I> and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp<I>.,</I> foot-rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Spherophorus necrophorus,</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii,</I> leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona,</I> anaplasmosis caused by <I>Anaplasma marginale;</I> and wound infections and acute metritis caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Exceeding the highest recommended dose of 5 mg/lb, administering at recommended levels for more than 4 consecutive days, and/or exceeding 10 mL intramuscularly per injection site may result in antibiotic residues beyond the withdrawal time. Discontinue treatment at least 18 days prior to slaughter. Not for use in lactating dairy cattle. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Swine</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg/lb per day by intramuscular injection. Sows: Administer 3 mg/lb by intramuscular injection approximately 8 hours before farrowing or immediately after completion of farrowing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours, colibacillosis) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida,</I> and leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona.</I> Sows: as an aid in control of infectious enteritis (baby pig scours, colibacillosis) in suckling pigs caused by <I>Escherichia coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not inject more than 5 mL per injection site. Do not use for more than 4 consecutive days. Discontinue treatment at least 26 days before slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 100 mg of oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg of oxytetracycline per pound of body weight per day by intramuscular injection, not to exceed a total of 4 consecutive days. Administer 5 mg/lb of body weight per day for treatment of anaplasmosis, severe foot-rot, or severe cases of other indicated diseases, not to exceed a total of 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of diseases due to oxytetracycline-susceptible organisms as follows: Pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. and <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., foot-rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum,</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii,</I> leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona,</I> and wound infections and acute metritis caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp. For treatment of anaplasmosis caused by <I>Anaplasma marginale</I> and anthrax caused by <I>Bacillus anthracis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Discontinue treatment at least 15 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 mg of oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous or intramuscular injection at 3 to 5 mg/lb of body weight per day, not exceed a total of 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella spp.</I> and <I>Haemophilus spp.;</I> foot-rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Spherophorus necrophorus;</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli;</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii;</I> leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona;</I> wound infections and acute metritis caused by staphylococcal and streptococcal organisms; and treatment of anaplasmosis caused by <I>Anaplasma marginale</I> and anthrax caused by <I>Bacillus anthracis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Discontinue treatment at least 22 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conditions of use in swine.</I> It is used in swine as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intramuscular injection at 3 to 5 mg/lb of body weight per day to swine, not to exceed a total of 4 consecutive days. Administered to sows at 3 mg/lb of body weight approximately 8 hours before farrowing or immediately after farrowing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used for the treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours, colibacillosis) caused by <I>Escherichia coli;</I> pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida;</I> and leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona.</I> Administered to sows as an aid in the control of infectious enteritis (baby pig scours, colibacillosis) in suckling pigs caused by <I>Escherichia coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue treatment at least 22 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Poultry (broilers, turkeys, and breeding chickens).</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer subcutaneously to chickens and turkeys according to age as directed on labeling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of air sacculitis (air-sac disease, chronic respiratory disease) caused by <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum</I> and <I>Escherichia coli;</I> fowl cholera caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida;</I> infectious sinusitis caused by <I>Mycoplasma gallisepticum;</I> and infectious synovitis caused by <I>Mycoplasma synoviae.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not administer to laying hens unless the eggs are used for hatching only. Discontinue treatment at least 5 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 100 mg of oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg of oxytetracycline per pound of body weight per day by intramuscular injection, not to exceed a total of 4 consecutive days. Administer 5 mg/lb of body weight per day for treatment of anaplasmosis, severe foot-rot, or severe cases of other indicated diseases, not to exceed a total of 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of diseases due to oxytetracycline-susceptible organisms as follows: Pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. and <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., foot-rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum,</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii,</I> leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona,</I> and wound infections and acute metritis caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp. For treatment of anaplasmosis caused by <I>Anaplasma marginale</I> and anthrax caused by <I>Bacillus anthracis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Discontinue treatment at least 15 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use.</I> For the treatment of diseases due to oxytetracycline-susceptible organisms as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Beef cattle, beef calves, nonlactating dairy cattle, and dairy calves</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg/lb body weight per day by intramuscular, intravenous, or subcutaneous injection. In severe forms of the indicated diseases, administer 5 mg/lb body weight per day. Continue treatment 24 to 48 hours following remission of clinical signs of disease, not to exceed 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., or <I>Klebsiella</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not inject more than 10 mL per intramuscular injection site in adult cattle, and no more than 1 mL per site in calves weighing 100 pounds or less. Do not slaughter cattle for 13 days after intramuscular or intravenous treatment, or 2 days after subcutaneous treatment. Exceeding the highest recommended dosage or duration of treatment (not more than 4 consecutive days) may result in residues beyond the withdrawal period. A withdrawal period has not been established for use of this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Swine</I>—(A) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg/lb body weight per day by intramuscular injection. Sows: Administer 3 mg/lb body weight once, by intramuscular injection, approximately 8 hours before farrowing or immediately after completion of farrowing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial enteritis (scours, colibacillosis) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida,</I> and leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona.</I> Sows: As an aid in control of infectious enteritis (baby pig scours, colibacillosis) in suckling pigs caused by <I>Escherichia coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not inject more than 5 mL per site. Discontinue treatment at least 20 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 50 or 100 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of 50- and 100-mg/mL solution and Nos. 016592 and 055529 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of 100-mg/mL solution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in beef cattle, beef calves, nonlactating dairy cattle, and dairy calves</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg/lb body weight per day by intramuscular injection; 5 mg/lb body weight per day for treatment of severe forms of the indicated diseases.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp., foot-rot and calf diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum,</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii;</I> and wound infections and acute metritis caused by <I>Staphylococcus</I> spp. and <I>Streptococcus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not inject more than 10 mL per site in adult cattle. Reduce the volume administered per injection site according to age and body size. In calves weighing 100 pounds or less, do not inject more than 2 mL per site. Discontinue treatment at least 22 days before slaughter. Not for use in lactating dairy animals. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) of oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in beef cattle, beef calves, nonlactating dairy cattle, and dairy calves</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg/lb body weight per day by intramuscular injection not to exceed a total of 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella spp.;</I> foot-rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Spherophorus necrophorus;</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli;</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii;</I> wound infections and acute metritis caused by staphylococcal and streptococcal organisms susceptible to oxytetracycline.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Discontinue treatment at least 18 days before slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains either 50 or 100 milligrams (mg) of oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg/lb body weight daily by intravenous injection. Administer 5 mg/lb for anaplasmosis, severe foot rot, and severe forms of other diseases. Treatment should be continued 24 to 48 hours following remission of clinical signs of disease, but not to exceed 4 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of diseases due to oxytetracycline-susceptible organisms as follows: Pneumonia and shipping fever complex associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. and <I>Haemophilus</I> spp., foot rot and diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum,</I> bacterial enteritis (scours) caused by <I>Escherichia coli,</I> wooden tongue caused by <I>Actinobacillus lignieresii,</I> leptospirosis caused by <I>Leptospira pomona,</I> anaplasmosis caused by <I>Anaplasma marginale</I> and anthrax caused by <I>Bacillus anthracis;</I> and acute metritis and wound infections caused by staphylococcal and streptococcal organisms.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in lactating dairy cattle. Discontinue use at least 19 days prior to slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975. Redesignated at 88 FR 14898, Mar. 10, 2023]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 522.1662, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1663" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.122" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1663   Oxytetracycline hydrochloride with lidocaine injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 50 or 100 milligrams of oxytetracycline hydrochloride and 2 percent lidocaine in each milliliter of sterile aqueous solution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) The drug is indicated for use in the treatment of diseases of dogs caused by pathogens sensitive to oxytetracycline hydrochloride including treatment for the following conditions in dogs caused by susceptible microorganisms: Bacterial infections of the urinary tract caused by <I>Hemolytic staphylococcus, Streptococcus spp.,</I> Bacterial pulmonary infections caused by <I>Brucella bronchiseptica, Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus,</I> secondary bacterial infections caused by <I>Micrococcus pyogenes var. albus, Brucella bronchiseptica, Streptococcus spp.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) The drug is administered intramuscularly at a recommended daily dosage to dogs at 5 milligrams per pound of body weight administered in divided doses at 6 to 12 hour intervals. Therapy should be continued for at least 24 hours after all symptoms have subsided. 
</P>
<P>(3) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 30615, July 5, 1983; 79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014. Redesignated at 88 FR 14898, Mar. 10, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1664" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.123" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1664   Oxytetracycline and flunixin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 300 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline base as amphoteric oxytetracycline and 20 mg flunixin base as flunixin meglumine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 055529 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.286 and 556.500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer once as an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection of 1 mL per 22 pounds (lb) body weight (BW) (13.6 mg oxytetracycline and 0.9 mg flunixin per lb BW) where retreatment of calves and yearlings for bacterial pneumonia is impractical due to husbandry conditions, such as cattle on range, or where their repeated restraint is inadvisable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. and for the control of associated pyrexia in beef and nonlactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Discontinue treatment at least 21 days prior to slaughter of cattle. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 3489, Jan. 20, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1680" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.124" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1680   Oxytocin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 20 USP units oxytocin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Obstetrical.</I> Administer drug intravenously, intramuscularly, or subcutaneously under aseptic conditions as indicated. The following dosages are recommended and may be repeated as conditions require: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S.P. units
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cats</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 to 0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dogs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 to 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 30.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ewes, Sows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 to 2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 to 50.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cows, Horses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Milk letdown.</I> Intravenous administration is desirable. The following dosage is recommended and may be repeated as conditions require:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S.P. units
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 to 1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 to 20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 to 1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 20.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Oxytocin may be used as a uterine contractor to precipitate and accelerate normal parturition and postpartum evacuation of uterine debris. In surgery it may be used postoperatively following cesarean section to facilitate involution and resistance to the large inflow of blood. It will contract smooth muscle cells of the mammary gland for milk letdown if the udder is in proper physiological state. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 63097, Nov. 2, 1979; 45 FR 1019, Jan. 4, 1980] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 522.1680, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1684" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.125" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1684   Pegbovigrastim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pre-filled, single-dose syringe contains 15 milligrams of pegbovigrastim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer the first dose (syringe) by subcutaneous injection 7 days prior to the cow's or heifer's anticipated calving date. If necessary, the first dose may be administered within a range of 4 to 10 days prior to the anticipated calving date to accommodate management schedules. Administer the second dose (syringe) by subcutaneous injection within 24 hours after calving.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the reduction in the incidence of clinical mastitis in the first 30 days of lactation in periparturient dairy cows and periparturient replacement dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 36789, June 8, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1696" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.126" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1696   Penicillin G procaine injectable dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1696a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.127" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1696a   Penicillin G benzathine and penicillin G procaine suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of aqueous suspension contains penicillin G benzathine and penicillin G procaine, each equivalent to 150,000 units of penicillin G. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for the conditions of use in paragraph (d) of this section as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 054771 and 061133 for use as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592 and 061133 for use as in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(A), and (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 054771 for use as in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(B), and (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.510 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses, dogs, and beef cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Beef cattle.</I> 2 milliliters per 150 pounds of body weight intramuscularly or subcutaneously. Repeat dosage in 48 hours. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Horses.</I> 2 milliliters per 150 pounds of body weight intramuscularly. Repeat dosage in 48 hours. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Dogs.</I> 1 milliliter per 10 to 25 pounds of body weight intramuscularly or subcutaneously. Repeat dosage in 48 hours. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bacterial infections susceptible to penicillin G. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in beef cattle within 30 days of slaughter. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beef cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2 milliliters per 150 pounds of body weight subcutaneously. Repeat dosage in 48 hours. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) Treatment of bacterial pneumonia (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp., <I>Actinomyces pyogenes</I>, <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I>); upper respiratory infections such as rhinitis or pharyngitis (<I>A. pyogenes</I>); blackleg (<I>Clostridium chauvoei</I>).
</P>
<P>(B) As in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A) of this section; and prophylaxis of bovine shipping fever in 300- to 500-pound beef calves. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use within 30 days of slaughter. For No. 016592: A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. For No. 016592: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 711, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 34534, June 10, 2003; 70 FR 21947, Apr. 28, 2005; 70 FR 50182, Aug. 26, 2005; 73 FR 16754, Mar. 31, 2008; 75 FR 54017, Sept. 3, 2010; 77 FR 4897, Feb. 1, 2012; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020; 88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1696b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.128" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1696b   Penicillin G procaine aqueous suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains penicillin G procaine equivalent to 300,000 units of penicillin G. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592 and 054771 for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 055529 and 061133 for use as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.510 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10,000 units per pound body weight daily by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections caused by penicillin-sensitive organisms. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle, sheep, swine, and horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 3,000 units per pound body weight (1 milliliter per 100 pounds body weight) daily by intramuscular injection. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of cattle and sheep for bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever) caused by <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>; swine for erysipelas caused by <I>Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae</I>; and horses for strangles caused by <I>Streptococcus equi.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in horses intended for food. Milk that has been taken during treatment and for 48 hours after the last treatment must not be used for food.
</P>
<P>(A) For Nos. 054771 and 061133: Do not exceed 7 days of treatment in nonlactating dairy and beef cattle, sheep, and swine, or 5 days in lactating cattle. Discontinue treatment for the following number of days before slaughter: Nonruminating cattle (calves)—7; all other cattle—4; sheep—8; and swine—6.
</P>
<P>(B) For Nos. 016592 and 055529: treatment should not exceed 4 consecutive days. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Discontinue treatment for the following number of days before slaughter: cattle—14; sheep—9; and swine—7.
</P>
<P>(C) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 712, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 34534, June 10, 2003; 68 FR 42589, July 18, 2003; 69 FR 17586, Apr. 5, 2004; 70 FR 16935, Apr. 4, 2005; 73 FR 14177, Mar. 17, 2008; 75 FR 54017, Sept. 3, 2010; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16192, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020; 88 FR 14899, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023; 89 FR 85427, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1696c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.129" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1696c   Penicillin G procaine in oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains penicillin G procaine equivalent to 300,000 units of penicillin G.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Dogs and cats—10,000 units per pound of body weight once daily. Horses—3,000 units per pound of body weight once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of infections of dogs, cats, and horses caused by penicillin-susceptible organisms such as Streptococci, Staphylococci, and Corynebacteria.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in food-producing animals. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37333, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 16193, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1698" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.130" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1698   Pentazocine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains pentazocine lactate equivalent to 30 milligrams (mg) of pentazocine base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.15 mg pentazocine base per pound of body weight daily by intravenous or intramuscular injection. In cases of severe pain, a second dose is recommended by intramuscular injection 10 to 15 minutes after the initial dose at the same level.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For symptomatic relief of pain due to colic.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.75 to 1.50 mg of pentazocine base per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For amelioration of pain accompanying postoperative recovery, fracture, trauma, and spinal disorders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 31450, June 21, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 36995, July 19, 1977; 47 FR 5409, Feb. 5, 1982; 55 FR 23076, June 6, 1990; 79 FR 16193, Mar. 25, 2014. Redesignated at 86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021, and further redesignated at 88 FR 14899, Mar. 10, 2023] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1700" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.131" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1700   Pentobarbital and phenytoin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 390 milligrams (mg) pentobarbital sodium and 50 mg phenytoin sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061, 051311, 054925, and 086119 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Product labeling shall bear the following warning statements: “ENVIRONMENTAL HAZARD: This product is toxic to wildlife. Birds and mammals feeding on treated animals may be killed. Euthanized animals must be properly disposed of by deep burial, incineration, or other method in compliance with State and local laws, to prevent consumption of carcass material by scavenging wildlife.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 mL per 10 pounds of body weight as a single, bolus intravenous or intracardiac injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For humane, painless, and rapid euthanasia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in animals intended for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020, as amended at 85 FR 45308, July 28, 2020. Redesignated at 86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021; 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1703" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.132" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1703   Pentobarbital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 64.8 milligrams (mg) of sodium pentobarbital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The drug is administered intravenously “to effect”. For general surgical anesthesia, the usual dose is 11 to 13 mg per pound of body weight. For sedation, the usual dose is approximately 2 mg per pound of body weight. For relieving convulsive seizures caused by strychnine in dogs, the injection should be administered intravenously “to effect”. The drug may be administered intraperitoneally. When given intraperitoneally, it is administered at the same dosage level as for intravenous administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is indicated for use as a general anesthetic in dogs and cats. Although it may be used as a general surgical anesthetic for horses, it is usually given at a lower dose to cause sedation and hypnosis and may be supplemented with a local anesthetic. It may also be used in dogs for the symptomatic treatment of strychnine poisoning.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16193, Mar. 25, 2014. Redesignated at 86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1704" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.133" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1704   Pentosan polysulfate sodium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 250 milligrams (mg) of pentosan polysulfate sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 mg per kilogram of body weight (1.4 mg per pound) by intramuscular injection once weekly for 4 weeks for a total of four doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of clinical signs associated with osteoarthritis in horses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1720" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.134" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1720   Phenylbutazone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) of phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter of solution contains 200 mg of phenylbutazone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 000061, 054771, 058198, and 061133 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 058005 and 069043 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection 10 mg per pound of body weight daily in three divided doses, not to exceed 800 mg daily regardless of weight. Limit intravenous administration to 2 successive days. Oral medication may follow.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used for the relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection 1 to 2 grams (g) per 1,000 pounds of body weight daily in three divided doses, not to exceed 4 g daily. Limit intravenous administration to not more than 5 successive days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16193, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1820" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.135" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1820   Pituitary luteinizing hormone powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a lyophilized pituitary extract. Each 6-milliliter vial contains an amount equivalent to 25 milligrams of standard pituitary luteinizing hormone and is reconstituted for use by addition of 5 milliliters of 0.9 percent aqueous sodium chloride solution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Cattle and horses: 25 milligrams; swine: 5 milligrams; sheep: 2.5 milligrams; and dogs: 1.0 milligram. Preferably given by intravenous injection, it may be administered subcutaneously. Treatment may be repeated in 1 to 4 weeks, or as indicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the treatment of breeding disorders related to pituitary hypofunction in cattle, horses, swine, sheep, and dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 79 FR 16193, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1850" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.136" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1850   Polysulfated glycosaminoglycan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each 1-milliliter (mL) ampule of solution contains 250 milligrams (mg) polysulfated glycosaminoglycan.
</P>
<P>(2) Each mL of solution packaged in 5-mL ampules or 20-, 30-, or 50-mL vials contains 100 mg polysulfated glycosaminoglycan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 010797 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of noninfectious degenerative and/or traumatic joint dysfunction and associated lameness of the carpal and hock joints in horses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Intra-articular use (carpal)</I>: 250 mg once a week for 5 weeks.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Intramuscular use (carpal and hock)</I>: 500 mg every 4 days for 28 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of signs associated with noninfectious degenerative and/or traumatic arthritis of canine synovial joints.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 2 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection twice weekly for up to 4 weeks (maximum of 8 injections).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 56896, Oct. 5, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 67816, Dec. 21, 2009] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1860" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.137" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1860   Pradofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 200 milligrams (mg) pradofloxacin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.530 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a single dose of 10 mg/kg (2.3 mL/100 lb) body weight by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Cattle intended for slaughter (beef calves 2 months of age and older, growing beef steers, growing beef heifers, and beef bulls intended for slaughter), and in cattle intended for breeding less than 1 year of age (replacement beef and dairy heifers less than 1 year of age and beef and dairy bulls less than 1 year of age): for the treatment of bovine respiratory disease associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, Histophilus somni,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma bovis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 4 days of treatment. Not for use in female dairy cattle 1 year of age and older, including dry dairy cows; use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a single dose of 7.5 mg/kg (1.7 mL/100 lb) body weight by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Weaned swine intended for slaughter (nursery, growing, and finishing swine, boars intended for slaughter, barrows, gilts intended for slaughter, and sows intended for slaughter): for the treatment of swine respiratory disease associated with <I>Bordetella bronchiseptica, Glaesserella (Haemophilus) parasuis, Pasteurella multocida, Streptococcus suis,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Swine intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 2 days of treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 85427, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1862" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.138" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1862   Pralidoxime powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each vial contains 1 gram (g) of pralidoxime chloride powder for mixing with 20 cubic centimeters of sterile water for injection. Each milliliter of constituted solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) pralidoxime chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as soon as possible after exposure to the poison. Before administration of the sterile pralidoxime chloride, atropine is administered intravenously at a dosage rate of 0.05 mg per pound of body weight, followed by administration of an additional 0.15 mg of atropine per pound of body weight administered intramuscularly. Then the appropriate dosage of sterile pralidoxime chloride is administered slowly intravenously. The dosage rate for sterile pralidoxime chloride when administered to horses is 2 g per horse. When administered to dogs and cats, it is 25 mg per pound of body weight. For small dogs and cats, sterile pralidoxime chloride may be administered either intraperitoneally or intramuscularly. A mild degree of atropinization should be maintained for at least 48 hours. Following severe poisoning, a second dose of sterile pralidoxime chloride may be given after 1 hour if muscle weakness has not been relieved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used in horses, dogs, and cats as an antidote in the treatment of poisoning due to those pesticides and chemicals of the organophosphate class which have anticholinesterase activity in horses, dogs, and cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16193, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1870" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.139" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1870   Praziquantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 56.8 milligrams of praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 058198 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection for dogs and puppies 5 pounds (lb) and under, 0.3 mL; for 6 to 10 lb, 0.5 mL; for 11 to 25 lb, 1.0 mL; if over 25 lb, 0.2 mL/5 lb body weight to a maximum of 3 mL.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of canine cestodes <I>Dipylidium caninum, Taenia pisiformis,</I> and <I>Echinococcus granulosus,</I> and removal and control of canine cestode <I>Echinococcus multilocularis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts the drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection for cats and kittens under 5 lb, 0.2 mL; 5 to 10 lb, 0.4 mL; 11 lb and over, 0.6 mL maximum.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For removal of feline cestodes <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Taenia taeniaeformis.</I> 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts the drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 10464, Feb. 3, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 6617, Feb. 16, 1982; 58 FR 42853, Aug. 12, 1993; 67 FR 79853, Dec. 31, 2002; 78 FR 17868, Mar. 25, 2013; 81 FR 67151, Sept. 30, 2016; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1881" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.140" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1881   Prednisolone acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 25 milligrams (mg) of prednisolone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The drug is administered to horses intra-articularly at a dosage level of 50 to 100 mg. The dose may be repeated when necessary. The drug is administered to dogs and cats intramuscularly at a dosage level of 10 to 50 mg. The dosage may be repeated when necessary. If the condition is of a chronic nature, an oral corticosteroid may be given as a maintenance dosage. The drug may be given intra-articularly to dogs and cats at a dosage level of 5 to 25 mg. The dose may be repeated when necessary after 7 days for two or three doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> The drug is indicated in the treatment of dogs, cats, and horses for conditions requiring an anti-inflammatory agent. The drug is indicated for the treatment of acute musculoskeletal inflammations such as bursitis, carpitis, and spondylitis. The drug is indicated as supportive therapy in nonspecific dermatosis such as summer eczema and atopy. The drug may be used as supportive therapy pre- and postoperatively and for various stress conditions when corticosteroids are required while the animal is being treated for a specific condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16194, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1883" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.141" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1883   Prednisolone sodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) prednisolone sodium phosphate (equivalent to 14.88 mg of prednisolone).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer intravenously in a dosage of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> to 5 mg per pound of body weight, initially for shock and shock-like states, followed by equal maintenance doses at 1-, 3-, 6-, or 10-hour intervals as determined by the condition of the animal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Administer when a rapid adrenal glucocorticoid and/or anti-inflammatory effect is necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 59881, Oct. 20, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1884" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.142" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1884   Prednisolone sodium succinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of prednisolone sodium succinate injection contains: Prednisolone sodium succinate equivalent in activity to 10, 20, or 50 milligrams (mg) of prednisolone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for products containing 10, 20, and 50 mg equivalent prednisolone activity per milliliter for use in horses, dogs, and cats as provided in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount and indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Horses.</I> Administer 50 to 100 mg as an initial dose by intravenous injection over a period of one-half to 1 minute, or by intramuscular injection, and may be repeated in inflammatory, allergic, or other stress conditions at intervals of 12, 24, or 48 hours, depending upon the size of the animal, the severity of the condition and the response to treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs.</I> Administer by intravenous injection at a range of 2.5 to 5 mg per pound of body weight as an initial dose followed by maintenance doses at 1, 3, 6, or 10 hour intervals, as determined by the condition of the animal, for treatment of shock.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dogs and cats.</I> Administer by intramuscular injection for treatment of inflammatory, allergic, and less severe stress conditions, where immediate effect is not required, at 1 to 5 mg ranging upward to 30 to 50 mg in large breeds of dogs. Dosage may be repeated in 12 to 24 hours and continued for 3 to 5 days if necessary. If permanent corticosteroid effect is required, oral therapy with prednisolone tablets may be substituted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16194, Mar. 25, 2014]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1890" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.143" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1890   Prednisone suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 10 to 40 milligrams (mg) of prednisone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Horses.</I> Administer 100 to 400 mg by intramuscular injection, repeating if necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs and cats.</I> Administer 0.25 to 1.0 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection for 3 to 5 days or until a response is noted. Treatment may be continued with an orally administered dose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used for conditions requiring an anti-inflammatory agent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16194, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1920" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.144" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1920   Prochlorperazine and isopropamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains prochlorperazine edisylate equivalent to 4 milligrams (mg) prochlorperazine and isopropamide iodide equivalent to 0.28 mg of isopropamide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) Dosage is administered by subcutaneous injection twice daily as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight of animal in pounds
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dosage in
<br/>milliliters
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 to 14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5-1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2-3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3-4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 to 60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Following the last injection, administer prochlorperazine and isopropamide sustained release capsules as indicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in dogs and cats in which gastrointestinal disturbances are associated with emotional stress.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16194, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1940" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.145" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1940   Progesterone and estradiol benzoate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications</I>—(1) <I>Each implant consists of progesterone and estradiol benzoate.</I> (i) 100 mg progesterone and 10 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of four pellets, each containing 25 mg progesterone and 2.5 mg estradiol benzoate).
</P>
<P>(ii) 200 mg progesterone and 20 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of eight pellets, each containing 25 mg progesterone and 2.5 mg estradiol benzoate).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Each implant consists of progesterone and estradiol benzoate and tylosin tartrate.</I> (i) 100 mg progesterone, 10 mg estradiol benzoate, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of four pellets, each containing 25 mg progesterone and 2.5 mg estradiol benzoate, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate).
</P>
<P>(ii) 200 mg progesterone, 20 mg estradiol benzoate, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of eight pellets, each containing 25 mg progesterone and 2.5 mg estradiol benzoate, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(A), (e)(1)(ii), (e)(2)(i)(A), (B), (C), and (e)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058198 for use as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(A), (e)(1)(i)(B), (e)(1)(ii), and (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.240 and 556.540 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling of implants described in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (a)(2)(ii) for use in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(B), (e)(1)(ii), (e)(3)(i), and (e)(3)(ii) of this section shall bear the following: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef calves 45 days of age and older and weighing up to 400 lbs</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) An implant containing 100 mg progesterone and 10 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 100 mg progesterone, 10 mg estradiol benzoate, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Other than when used as described in (e)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation). The implant as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant. Do not use in beef calves less than 45 days of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because effectiveness and safety have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Growing beef steers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) An implant containing 200 mg progesterone and 20 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 200 mg progesterone and 20 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain in a reimplantation program where an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is the first implant and an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is administered approximately 70 days later.
</P>
<P>(C) An implant containing 200 mg progesterone and 20 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain in a reimplantation program where an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is the first implant and an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is administered approximately 70 days later.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Other than when used as described in paragraphs (e)(2)(i)(B) or (C) of this section, the implant described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter as safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because effectiveness and safety have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Growing beef steers weighing 400 lbs or more</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> An implant containing 200 mg progesterone, 20 mg estradiol benzoate, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate as described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> The implant as described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section is not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because effectiveness and safety have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 42358, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.1962" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.146" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.1962   Promazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) promazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(A), (c)(1)(ii)(A), (c)(1)(iii), and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(B), (c)(1)(ii)(B), and (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> (A) 0.2 to 0.5 milligrams per pounds (mg/lb) body weight intramuscularly or intravenously every 4 to 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(B) 0.2 to 0.5 mg/lb body weight intravenously as required.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For use as a tranquilizer, preanesthetic, or for minor operative procedures in conjunction with local anesthesia; and as adjunctive therapy for tetanus.
</P>
<P>(B) For use as a tranquilizer and preanesthetic.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 to 2 mg/lb body weight intramuscularly or intravenously every 4 to 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a tranquilizer, preanesthetic, for minor operative procedures in conjunction with local anesthesia, as adjunctive therapy for tetanus, and as an antiemetic prior to worming; or to prevent motion sickness in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 18962, Mar. 27, 1981, as amended at 68 FR 59881, Oct. 20, 2003; 70 FR 50183, Aug. 26, 2005; 79 FR 16194, Mar. 25, 2014; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2002" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.147" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2002   Propiopromazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 5 or 10 milligrams (mg) propiopromazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> Administer 0.05 to 0.5 mg per pound of body weight by intravenous or intramuscular injection for tranquilization. Administer 0.25 mg per pound of body weight by intravenous injection as a preanesthetic.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2005" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.148" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2005   Propofol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of emulsion contains 10 milligrams (mg) propofol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 086064 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(i), (c)(3), (d)(1), (d)(2)(i), and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(ii), (c)(3), (d)(1), (d)(2)(ii), and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 054771 and 068504 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(iii), and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection according to label directions. The use of preanesthetic medication reduces propofol dose requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) As a single injection to provide general anesthesia for short procedures; for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia using incremental doses to effect; and for induction of general anesthesia where maintenance is provided by inhalant anesthetics.
</P>
<P>(ii) For induction of general anesthesia; for maintenance of anesthesia for up to 20 minutes; and for induction of general anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic.
</P>
<P>(iii) For induction and maintenance of general anesthesia; and for induction of general anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection according to label directions. The use of preanesthetic medication reduces propofol dose requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) As a single injection to provide general anesthesia for short procedures; for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia using incremental doses to effect; and for induction of general anesthesia where maintenance is provided by inhalant anesthetics.
</P>
<P>(ii) For induction and maintenance of general anesthesia; and for induction of general anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 20269, Apr. 19, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 38700, July 6, 2010; 78 FR 17868, Mar. 25, 2013; 79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014; 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015; 81 FR 36789, June 8, 2016; 90 FR 6800, Jan. 21, 2025; 90 FR 19625, May 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2012" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.149" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2012   Prostalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 1 milligram of prostalene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 5 micrograms per kilogram of body weight as a single subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of estrus in mares.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2063" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.150" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2063   Pyrilamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) of pyrilamine maleate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use as in paragraph (c)(1)(i), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use as in paragraph (c)(1)(ii), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) Horses, 40 to 60 mg per 100 pounds (lbs) body weight; foals, 20 mg/100 lbs body weight. Administer by intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intravenous injection. Dosage may be repeated every 6 to 12 hours whenever necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Horses, 40 to 60 mg/100 lbs body weight; foals, 20 mg/100 lbs body weight. Administer by slow intravenous injection. Dosage may be repeated every 6 to 12 hours if necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is intended for treating horses in conditions in which antihistaminic therapy may be expected to lead to alleviation of some signs of disease.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2065" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.151" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2065   Rabacfosadine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each vial of powder contains 16.4 milligrams (mg) rabacfosadine. Each milliliter of constituted solution contains 8.2 mg rabacfosadine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer rabacfosadine at 1 mg/kilogram body weight as a 30-minute intravenous infusion, once every 3 weeks, for up to 5 doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of lymphoma in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2075" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.152" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2075   Robenacoxib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) robenacoxib.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 058198 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.91 mg per pound (2 mg/kilogram (kg)) by subcutaneous injection, once daily, for a maximum of 3 days. After the initial subcutaneous dose, subsequent doses can be given by subcutaneous injection or as the oral tablet in dogs weighing at least 5.5 pounds (2.5 kg) and at least 4 months of age, for a maximum of 3 total doses over 3 days, not to exceed 1 dose per day. See § 520.2075(c)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with soft tissue surgery in dogs at least 4 months of age for a maximum of 3 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.91 mg per pound (2 mg/kg) by subcutaneous injection, once daily, for a maximum of 3 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with orthopedic surgery, ovariohysterectomy, and castration in cats at least 4 months of age for a maximum of 3 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 61297, Oct. 13, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 12170, Mar. 1, 2017; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2076" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.153" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2076   Romifidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams (mg) romifidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 40 to 120 micrograms per kilogram of body weight (mcg/kg BW) intravenously for sedation and analgesia; 100 mcg/kg BW intravenously as a preanesthetic.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a sedative and analgesic to facilitate handling, clinical examinations, clinical procedures, and minor surgical procedures in adult horses; and for use as a preanesthetic prior to the induction of general anesthesia in adult horses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 47363, Aug. 5, 2004, as amended at 79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2092" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.154" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2092   Secobarbital and dibucaine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 400 milligram (mg) secobarbital sodium and 25 mg dibucaine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Product labeling shall bear the following warning statements: “ENVIRONMENTAL HAZARD: This product is toxic to wildlife. Birds and mammals feeding on treated animals may be killed. Euthanized animals must be properly disposed of by deep burial, incineration, or other method in compliance with State and local laws, to prevent consumption of carcass material by scavenging wildlife.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 mL per 10 pounds of body weight as a single, bolus intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For humane, painless, and rapid euthanasia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in animals intended for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.155" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2100   Selenium and vitamin E.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of emulsion contains 5.48 milligrams (mg) sodium selenite (equivalent to 2.5 mg selenium) and 50 mg of vitamin E (68 I.U.) (as d-alpha tocopheryl acetate).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 milliliter (mL) per (/) 100 pounds (lbs) of body weight by intravenous injection or by deep intramuscular injection in divided doses in two or more sites in the gluteal or cervical muscles. Administration may be repeated at 5 to 10 day intervals.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention and treatment of selenium-tocopherol deficiency syndrome in horses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 2.19 mg of sodium selenite (equivalent to 1 mg of selenium), 50 mg of vitamin E (68 I.U.) (as d-alpha tocopheryl acetate).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection in divided doses in two or more sites at 1 mL/20 lbs of body weight with a minimum dosage of 
<FR>1/4</FR> mL and a maximum dosage of 5 mL. The dose is repeated at 3-day intervals until a satisfactory therapeutic response is observed. A maintenance regimen is then initiated which consists of 1 mL per 40 lbs of body weight with a minimum dosage of 
<FR>1/4</FR> mL which is repeated every 3 days or 7 days, or longer, as required to maintain continued improvement or an asymptomatic condition; or the drug may be used in capsule form for oral maintenance therapy.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in alleviating and controlling inflammation, pain, and lameness associated with certain arthropathies in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 2.19 milligrams of selenite sodium (equivalent to 1 milligram selenium), 50 milligrams vitamin E (68 U.S.P. units).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Dosage.</I> Calves: 2.5 to 3.75 milliliters per 100 pounds of body weight. Lambs 2 weeks of age and older: 1 milliliter per 40 pounds of body weight, minimum 1 milliliter. Ewes: 2.5 milliliters per 100 pounds of body weight. Sows: 1 milliliter per 40 pounds of body weight. Weanling pigs: 1 milliliter per 40 pounds of body weight, minimum 1 milliliter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Calves, lambs, and ewes: prevention and treatment of white muscle disease (selenium-tocopherol deficiency syndrome). Sows and weanling pigs: an aid in the prevention and treatment of selenium-tocopherol deficiency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous or intramuscular use. Not for use in newborn pigs. Do not use in pregnant ewes. Calves: Discontinue use 30 days before treated calves are slaughtered for human consumption. Lambs, ewes, sows, or pigs: Discontinue use 14 days before treated lambs, ewes, sows, or pigs are slaughtered for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 10.95 milligrams selenite sodium (equivalent to 5 milligrams selenium), 50 milligrams vitamin E (68 U.S.P. units).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Dosage.</I> Breeding beef cows: 1 milliliter per 200 pounds of body weight during the middle third of gestation, and 30 days before calving. Weanling calves: 1 milliliter per 200 pounds of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Weanling calves and breeding beef cows: For the prevention and treatment of selenium-tocopherol deficiency syndrome.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous or intramuscular use. Discontinue use 30 days before treated cattle are slaughtered for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 0.55 milligram selenite sodium (equivalent to 0.25 milligram selenium), 50 milligrams (68 U.S.P. units) vitamin E.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(i) <I>Dosage.</I> Newborn lambs: 1 milliliter. Lambs 2 weeks of age or older: 4 milliliters. Baby pigs: 1 milliliter (or treat the sow during the last week of pregnancy). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Lambs: for prevention and treatment of white muscle disease (selenium-tocopherol deficiency syndrome). Baby pigs: an aid in the prevention and treatment of selenium-tocopherol deficiency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> For subcutaneous or intramuscular use only. Discontinue use 14 days before treated animals are slaughtered for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 57 FR 21209, May 19, 1992; 58 FR 57556, Oct. 26, 1993; 60 FR 57833, Nov. 22, 1995; 64 FR 27916, May 24, 1999; 79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014; 91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2112" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.156" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2112   Sometribove zinc suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose syringe contains 500 milligrams (mg) sometribove zinc in a prolonged-release suspension. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086106 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Inject 500 mg every 14 days starting during the 9th or 10th week (57 to 70 days) after calving and continue until the end of lactation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To increase production of marketable milk in healthy lactating dairy cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Use in lactating dairy cows only. Safety to replacement bulls born to treated dairy cows has not been established. Inject subcutaneously. Avoid injections within 2 weeks of expected slaughter to minimize injection site blemishes on carcass. There is no milk discard or preslaughter withdrawal period. Use may reduce pregnancy rates and increase days open. Treated cows are at an increased risk for mastitis and higher milk somatic cell counts. Use care to differentiate increased body temperature due to use of this product from an increased body temperature that may occur due to illness. Cows treated with this product may have more enlarged hocks and disorders of the foot region. Use may reduce hemoglobin and hematocrit values during treatment. Human warning: Avoid prolonged or repeated contact with eyes and skin.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 59947, Nov. 12, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2002; 68 FR 62006, Oct. 31, 2003; 74 FR 53164, Oct. 16, 2009; 81 FR 48702, July 26, 2016; 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2120" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.157" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2120   Spectinomycin hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) spectinomycin hydrochloride (as spectinomycin dihydrochloride pentahydrate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592 and 054771 for use as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058198 for use as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is administered as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Turkeys (1- to 3-day-old poults) and chickens (newly hatched chicks)</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) Administer 5 mg per poult subcutaneously as an aid in the control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) associated with <I>Escherichia coli</I> in 1- to 3-day-old turkey poults.
</P>
<P>(B) Administer 10 mg per poult as a single subcutaneous injection in the nape of the neck as an aid in the control of airsacculitis associated with <I>Mycoplasma meleagridis</I> sensitive to spectinomycin in 1- to 3-day-old turkey poults.
</P>
<P>(C) Administer 2.5 to 5 mg per chick as an aid in the control of mortality and to lessen severity of infections caused by <I>M. synoviae, Salmonella typhimurium, S. infantis,</I> and <I>E. coli.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> For use only in 1- to 3-day-old turkey poults and newly hatched chicks. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.5 to 5.0 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection twice daily. Treatment may be continued for 4 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of infections caused by gram-negative and gram-positive organisms susceptible to spectinomycin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2121" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.158" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2121   Spectinomycin sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains spectinomycin sulfate tetrahydrate equivalent to 100 milligrams (mg) spectinomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 15 mg per kilogram of body weight at 24-hour intervals for 3 to 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (pneumonia) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida</I>, and <I>Histophilus somni.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter within 11 days of last treatment. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use in this class of cattle may cause residues in milk. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31178, June 6, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014; 88 FR 14899, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2150" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.159" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2150   Stanozolol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 50 milligrams (mg) of stanozolol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Dogs and cats.</I> For cats and small breeds of dogs: 25 mg. For larger dogs: 50 mg. Administer by deep intramuscular injection in the thigh at weekly intervals, for several weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Horses.</I> Administer 25 mg per 100 pounds of body weight by deep intramuscular injection in the gluteal region at weekly intervals, for not more than 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as an anabolic steroid treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16195, Mar. 25, 2014]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2220" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.160" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2220   Sulfadimethoxine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 milligrams (mg) of sulfadimethoxine sodium.
</P>
<P>(2) 400 mg of sulfadimethoxine sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 069043 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (d)(2), (3), and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 016592 and 061133 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.640 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous injection at an initial dose of 25 mg per pound of body weight followed by 12.5 mg per pound of body weight every 24 hours thereafter. Continue treatment until the animal is free from symptoms for 48 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in the treatment of sulfadimethoxine-susceptible bacterial infections in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous or subcutaneous injection at an initial dose of 55 mg per kilogram of body weight followed by 27.5 mg per kilogram of body weight every 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of respiratory, genitourinary tract, enteric, and soft tissue infections when caused by <I>Streptococci, Staphylococci,</I> <I>Escherichia, Salmonella,</I> <I>Klebsiella, Proteus,</I> or <I>Shigella</I> organisms sensitive to sulfadimethoxine, and in the treatment of canine bacterial enteritis associated with coccidiosis and canine Salmonellosis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection at an initial dose of 55 mg per kilogram of body weight followed by 27.5 mg per kilogram of body weight every 24 hours until the patient is asymptomatic for 48 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of respiratory disease caused by Streptococcus equi (strangles).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer an initial dose of 25 mg per pound of body weight by intravenous injection followed by 12.5 mg per pound of body weight every 24 hours until the animal is asymptomatic for 48 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease complex (shipping fever complex) and bacterial pneumonia associated with <I>Pasteurella</I> spp. sensitive to sulfadimethoxine; necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) and calf diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> sensitive to sulfadimethoxine.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from animals during treatment and for 60 hours (5 milkings) after the latest treatment must not be used for food. Do not administer within 5 days of slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16196, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 14900, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2240" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.161" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2240   Sulfaethoxypyridazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is an aqueous solution of sulfaethoxypyridazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.650 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I> <I>in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.5 grams per 100 pounds of body weight per day by intravenous injection for not more than 4 days; or first treatment may be followed by 3 days of treatment with sulfaethoxypyridazine in drinking water or tablets in accordance with §§ 520.2240a(e) and 520.2240b(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of respiratory infection (pneumonia, shipping fever), foot rot, calf scours; as adjunctive therapy in septicemia accompanying mastitis and metritis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat within 16 days of slaughter. Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and for 72 hours (6 milkings) after the latest treatment must not be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16196, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.162" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2260   Sulfamethazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 250 milligrams (mg) sulfamethazine sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Initially administer 20 mL for each 50 pounds (lb) of body weight (100 mg/lb) by intravenous injection, followed by 20 mL per 100 lb of body weight (50 mg/lb) by intravenous injection, daily thereafter. Treatment should not exceed a total of 5 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For cattle for treatment of bacterial pneumonia and bovine respiratory disease complex (shipping fever complex) (<I>Pasteurella</I> spp.), colibacillosis (bacterial scours) (<I>Escherichia coli</I>), necrotic pododermatitis (foot rot) (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>), calf diphtheria (<I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I>), acute mastitis and acute metritis (<I>Streptococcus</I> spp.) when caused by one or more pathogenic organisms sensitive to sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Withdraw medication from cattle 10 days prior to slaughter. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 62055, Dec. 22, 1981, as amended at 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 75 FR 10167, Mar. 5, 2010; 76 FR 53051, Aug. 25, 2011; 81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2340" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.163" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2340   Sulfomyxin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Sulfomyxin for injection is sterile. It is derived from the antibiotic substance produced by the growth of <I>Bacillus polymyxa</I> or is the same substance produced by any other means. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> The quantities of antibiotic in paragraph (e) of this section refer to the activity of the appropriate standard. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.700 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) It is used or intended for use in chickens and turkeys as an aid in the treatment of disease caused or complicated by <I>E. coli,</I> such as colibacillosis and complicated chronic respiratory disease. 
</P>
<P>(2) It is administered by subcutaneous injection as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Age of birds in days
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Antibiotic activity
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chickens (units)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Turkeys (units)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 to 14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 to 28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29 to 63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) A second injection may be given 3 days later if symptoms persist. 


</P>
<P>(4) Not for use in laying hens; do not treat chickens within 5 days of slaughter. Do not treat turkeys within 7 days of slaughter. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 79 FR 16196, Mar. 25, 2014; 88 FR 14900, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2343" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.164" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2343   Testosterone propionate and estradiol benzoate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058198 for use as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.240 and 556.710 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling of the implants described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall bear the following: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> An implant containing 200 mg testosterone propionate and 20 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of eight pellets, each containing 25 mg testosterone propionate and 2.5 mg estradiol benzoate) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Growing beef heifers weighing 400 lbs or more</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> An implant containing 200 mg testosterone propionate, 20 mg estradiol benzoate, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of eight pellets, each containing 25 mg testosterone propionate and 2.5 mg estradiol benzoate, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 42358, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2404" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.165" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2404   Thialbarbitone sodium for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Thialbarbitone sodium for injection when reconstituted with sterile distilled water provides 94 milligrams of thialbarbitone sodium per milliliter of solution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) The drug is administered as a general anesthetic in surgical procedures on dogs, cats, swine, sheep, cattle, and horses. The drug is used for procedures of relatively short duration. However, the period of anesthesia can be lengthened by slower initial injection and supplemental administration during surgery. 
</P>
<P>(2) It is administered intravenously. The drug is injected slowly to dogs, cats, cattle, sheep, and swine. For horses, it is recommended that a pre-anesthetic sedation be administered to the horse 30 minutes before the drug is administered. The drug is then injected rapidly and completely. The drug is used at the following dosage levels:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Species
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight of animal in pounds
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dosage in milligrams per pound
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dog</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30-50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10-30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.3-37.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3-7.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cattle and swine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7-9.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calves and sheep</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4-11.8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13858, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 79 FR 16196, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2424" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.166" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2424   Thiamylal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a sterile powder. It is reconstituted with sterile distilled water, water for injection, or sodium chloride injection, to a desired concentration of 0.5 to 4 percent sodium thiamylal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection to effect. The average single dose is:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dogs and cats:</I> 8 milligrams (mg) per pound of body weight (when used with a preanesthetic, generally one-half the normal dose).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Swine:</I> 40 mg per 5 pounds (lbs) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Horses:</I> Light anesthesia, 1 gram per 500 lbs to 1,100 lbs of body weight; deep anethesia, 1 gram per 300 lbs of body weight (40 mg/12 lbs of body weight).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Cattle:</I> Short duration, 20 mg/5 lbs of body weight; longer duration, 40 mg/7 lbs of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used as an ultra-short-acting anesthetic in dogs, cats, swine, horses, and cattle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16196, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2444" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.167" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2444   Thiopental injectable dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2444a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.168" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2444a   Thiopental powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains sodium thiopental powder for constitution with sterile water for injection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer by intravenous injection as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) 6 to 9 milligrams (mg) per pound of body weight for brief anesthesia (6 to 10 minutes).
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 to 12 mg per pound of body weight for anesthesia of 15 to 25 minutes duration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used as an anesthetic for intravenous administration to dogs and cats during short to moderately long surgical and other procedures. It is also used to induce anesthesia in dogs and cats which then have surgical anesthesia maintained by use of a volatile anesthetic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16196, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2444b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.169" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2444b   Thiopental and pentobarbital powder for injection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of powder contains 750 milligrams (mg) of sodium thiopental and 250 mg of sodium pentobarbital powder for dilution with sterile water for injection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For total anesthesia, it is given at approximately 10 to 12 mg per pound of body weight over a period of 3.5 to 5 minutes. When preanesthetic medication is used, wait at least an hour before administering thiopental and sodium pentobarbital for injection, and the dosage necessary for anesthesia is reduced. Usually 
<FR>1/2</FR> to 
<FR>2/3</FR> the normal amount is adequate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used as an anesthetic for intravenous administration to dogs and cats during short to moderately long surgical procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16197, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2450" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.170" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2450   Tigilanol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 1 milligram tigilanol tiglate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086132 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as an intratumoral injection at a dose of 0.5 mL per cubic centimeter of tumor volume.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of non-metastatic cutaneous mast cell tumors and non-metastatic subcutaneous mast cell tumors located at or distal to the elbow or the hock in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 17064, Apr. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2460" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.171" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2460   Tildipirosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 180 milligrams (mg) tildipirosin.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.733 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 4 mg/kg of bodyweight one time by subcutaneous injection in the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</I> and <I>Histophilus somni</I> in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle; and for the control of respiratory disease in beef and non-lactating dairy cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica, P. multocida,</I> and <I>H. somni.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 21 days from the last treatment. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39391, July 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2470" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.172" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2470   Tiletamine and zolazepam.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a sterile powder. Each milliliter of constituted solution contains tiletamine hydrochloride equivalent to 50 milligrams (mg) of tiletamine base and zolazepam hydrochloride equivalent to 50 mg of zolazepam base.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 017033, 051311, and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Expressed as milligrams of the drug combination:
</P>
<P>(A) An initial intramuscular dosage of 3 to 4.5 milligrams per pound (mg/lb) of body weight for diagnostic purposes; 4.5 to 6 mg/lb of body weight for minor procedures of short duration such as repair of lacerations and wounds, castrations, and other procedures requiring mild to moderate analgesia. Supplemental doses when required should be less than the initial dose and the total dose given should not exceed 12 mg/lb of body weight. The maximum total safe dose is 13.6 mg/lb of body weight.
</P>
<P>(B) Administer intravenously at 1 to 2 mg/lb (2.2 to 4.4 mg/kg) body weight to effect for induction of anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) Intramuscular administration in dogs for restraint and minor procedures of short duration (30 minutes average) requiring mild to moderate analgesia.
</P>
<P>(B) Intravenous administration in dogs for induction of anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> An initial intramuscular dosage of 4.4 to 5.4 mg/lb of body weight is recommended for such procedures as dentistry, treatment of abscesses, foreign body removal, and related types of surgery; 4.8 to 5.7 mg/lb of body weight for minor procedures requiring mild to moderate analgesia, such as repair of lacerations, castrations, and other procedures of short duration. Initial dosages of 6.5 to 7.2 mg/lb of body weight are recommended for ovariohysterectomy and onychectomy. When supplemental doses are required, such individual supplemental doses should be given in increments that are less than the initial dose and the total dose given (initial dose plus supplemental doses) should not exceed the maximum allowable safe dose of 32.7 mg/lb of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For restraint or for anesthesia combined with muscle relaxation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16197, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 14587, Apr. 5, 2018; 86 FR 17064, Apr. 1, 2021; 87 FR 10969, Feb. 28, 2022; 88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2471" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.173" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2471   Tilmicosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 300 milligrams (mg) tilmicosin base as tilmicosin phosphate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.735 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 20 milligrams per kilograms (mg/kg) of body weight as a single subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica</I>, <I>Pasteurella multocida</I>, and <I>Histophilus somni.</I> For the control of respiratory disease in cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica.</I>


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 42 days of last treatment. Do not use in lactating dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use of tilmicosin in this class of cattle may cause milk residues. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 mg/kg body weight as a single subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of ovine respiratory disease (ORD) associated with <I>Mannheimia</I> (<I>P.) haemolytica.</I>




</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in lactating ewes producing milk for human consumption. Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 42 days of last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 72367, Dec. 5, 2002, as amended at 75 FR 9334, Mar. 2, 2010; 81 FR 48703, July 26, 2016; 88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2473" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.174" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2473   Tiludronate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each vial of powder contains 500 milligrams (mg) tiludronate disodium. Each milliliter of constituted solution contains 20 mg tiludronate disodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a single dose of 1 mg per kilogram (0.45 mg/pound) of body weight by intravenous infusion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indication for use.</I> For the control of clinical signs associated with navicular syndrome.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 18159, Apr. 1, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 21691, May 10, 2017; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2474" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.175" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2474   Tolazoline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains tolazoline hydrochloride equivalent to 100 milligrams (mg) of base activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 059399 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer slowly by intravenous injection 4 mg per kilogram of body weight or 1.8 mg per pound (4 milliliters (mL) per 100 kilograms or 4 mL per 220 pounds).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in horses when it is desirable to reverse the effects of sedation and analgesia caused by xylazine.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16197, Mar. 25, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 80 FR 13230, Mar. 13, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2476" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.176" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2476   Trenbolone acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A), (d)(1)(ii) and (iii), (d)(2)(i)(A), and (d)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058198 for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.739 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling of implants described in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) and (d)(2)(i)(B) of this section shall bear the following: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Steers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Use 126 days prior to slaughter; should be reimplanted once after 63 days.
</P>
<P>(A) 140 milligrams (mg) trenbolone acetate (one implant consisting of 7 pellets, each pellet containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(B) 140 mg trenbolone acetate (one implant consisting of 8 pellets, each of 7 pellets containing 20 milligrams trenbolone acetate, and 1 pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant subcutaneously in ear only. Do not use in animals intended for subsequent breeding or in dairy animals. Safety and effectiveness have not been established in veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Use last 63 days prior to slaughter.
</P>
<P>(A) 200 mg trenbolone acetate (one implant consisting of 10 pellets, each pellet containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(B) 200 mg of trenbolone acetate (one implant consisting of 11 pellets, each of 10 pellets containing 20 mg of trenbolone acetate, and 1 pellet containing 29 mg of tylosin tartrate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant subcutaneously in ear only. Do not use in animals intended for subsequent breeding or in dairy animals. Safety and effectiveness have not been established in veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 47961, Sept. 17, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 70056, Dec. 2, 2004; 74 FR 61517, Nov. 25, 2009; 81 FR 48703, July 26, 2016; 88 FR 55566, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2477" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.177" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2477   Trenbolone acetate and estradiol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(B), (d)(1)(ii), (d)(2)(i)(B), (d)(2)(i)(D), (d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(i)(B), (d)(3)(i)(D), (d)(3)(ii), (d)(4)(i)(A), (d)(4)(i)(B), and (d)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 000061 for use in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A), (d)(1)(i)(C), (d)(1)(ii), (d)(2)(i)(A), (d)(2)(i)(C), (d)(2)(i)(E), (d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(i)(A), (d)(3)(i)(C), (d)(3)(i)(E), (d)(3)(ii), (d)(4)(i)(A), and (d)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 054771 for use in paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(A), (C), (d)(2)(ii), (d)(4)(i)(A), and (d)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.240 and 556.739 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling of implants described in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(B), (d)(2)(i)(B), (d)(2)(i)(D), (d)(3)(i)(B), (d)(3)(i)(D), and (d)(4)(i)(B) of this section shall bear the following: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) G<I>rowing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications.</I> (A) An implant containing 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 20 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of 10 pellets each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 200 mg trenbolone acetate, 20 mg estradiol, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of 10 pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol, and 1 pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(C) An extended- and delayed-release implant containing 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 20 mg estradiol (1 implant consisting of 10 coated pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency during 70 to 200 days after implantation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Growing beef steers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications.</I> (A) An implant containing 80 mg trenbolone acetate and 16 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of four pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 4 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 80 mg trenbolone acetate, 16 mg estradiol, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of four pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 4 mg estradiol, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(C) An implant containing 120 mg trenbolone acetate and 24 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of six pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 4 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(D) An implant containing 120 mg trenbolone acetate, 24 mg estradiol, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of six pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 4 mg estradiol, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(E) An extended-release implant containing 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 40 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of six coated pellets and four uncoated pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 4 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency for up to 200 days after implantation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers fed in confinement for slaughter. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications.</I> (A) An implant containing 80 mg trenbolone acetate and 8 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of four pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 80 mg trenbolone acetate, 8 mg estradiol, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of four pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(C) An implant containing 140 mg trenbolone acetate and 14 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of seven pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(D) An implant containing 140 mg trenbolone acetate, 14 mg estradiol, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of seven pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(E) An extended-release implant containing 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 20 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of six coated pellets and four uncoated pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 2 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency for up to 200 days after implantation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter)</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) An implant containing 40 mg trenbolone acetate and 8 mg estradiol (one implant consisting of two pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 4 mg estradiol) for increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 40 mg trenbolone acetate, 8 mg estradiol, and 29 mg tylosin tartrate (one implant consisting of two pellets, each containing 20 mg trenbolone acetate and 4 mg estradiol, and one pellet containing 29 mg tylosin tartrate) for increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter). Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or calves born to these cows.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 42359, May 15, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2478" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.178" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2478   Trenbolone acetate and estradiol benzoate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each implant consists of:
</P>
<P>(i) 50 milligrams (mg) trenbolone acetate and 7 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of two pellets, each pellet containing 25 mg trenbolone acetate and 3.5 mg estradiol benzoate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) 100 milligrams (mg) trenbolone acetate and 14 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of four pellets, each pellet containing 25 mg trenbolone acetate and 3.5 mg estradiol benzoate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(iii) 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 28 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of eight pellets, each pellet containing 25 mg trenbolone acetate and 3.5 mg estradiol benzoate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(2) Each extended-release implant consists of:
</P>
<P>(i) 150 mg trenbolone acetate and 21 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of six pellets with a porous polymer film coating, each pellet containing 25 mg trenbolone acetate and 3.5 mg estradiol benzoate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 28 mg estradiol benzoate (one implant consisting of eight pellets with a porous polymer film coating, each pellet containing 25 mg trenbolone acetate and 3.5 mg estradiol benzoate) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.240 and 556.739 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use</I>. 
</P>
<P>(A) An implant containing 100 mg trenbolone acetate and 14 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain in growing beef steers fed in confinement for slaughter and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter. For increased rate of weight gain for up to 200 days in a reimplantation program where an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is the first implant and an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) or (iii) or (a)(2)(ii) of this section is administered 60 to 120 days later.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 28 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in growing beef steers fed in confinement for slaughter and for increased rate of weight gain in growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter. For increased rate of weight gain for up to 200 days in a reimplantation program where an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is the first implant and an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is administered 60 to 120 days later.
</P>
<P>(C) An extended-release implant containing 150 mg trenbolone acetate and 21 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for increased rate of weight gain for up to 200 days.
</P>
<P>(D) An extended-release implant containing 200 mg trenbolone acetate and 28 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency for up to 200 days. For increased rate of weight gain for up to 200 days in a reimplantation program where an implant as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is the first implant and an implant as described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section is administered 60 to 120 days later.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Other than as described on the labeling, this implant is not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter as safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because effectiveness and safety have not been established. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. The extended-release implant described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, used as described in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(C) of this section, is not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter)</I>—(i) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (A) An implant containing 50 mg trenbolone acetate and 7 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 100 mg trenbolone acetate and 14 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(C) An extended-release implant containing 150 mg trenbolone acetate and 21 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for increased rate of weight gain for up to 200 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter). Safety and effectiveness following reimplantation have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because effectiveness and safety have not been established. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Growing beef steers and heifers in a dry lot</I>—(i) <I>Amount and indications for use.</I> (A) An implant containing 50 mg trenbolone acetate and 7 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for increased rate of weight gain in growing beef steers and heifers in a dry lot.
</P>
<P>(B) An implant containing 100 mg trenbolone acetate and 14 mg estradiol benzoate as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for increased rate of weight gain in growing beef steers and heifers in a dry lot.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously in ear only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant in growing beef steers and heifers in a dry lot. Safety and effectiveness following reimplantation have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because effectiveness and safety have not been established. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in dairy cows or in animals intended for subsequent breeding. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 14900, Mar. 10, 2023; 89 FR 85427, Oct. 28, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 6801, Jan. 21, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2483" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.179" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2483   Triamcinolone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 2 or 6 milligrams (mg) triamcinolone acetonide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Intramuscular or subcutaneous.</I> For inflammatory, arthritic, or allergic disorders, administer 0.05 to 0.1 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight as a single injection. For dermatologic disorders, administer 0.1 mg per pound (/lb) of body weight as a single injection. If symptoms recur, the dose may be repeated, or oral corticosteroid therapy may be instituted.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Intralesional.</I> Administer 1.2 to 1.8 mg, divided in several injections around the lesion, spaced 0.5 to 2.5 centimeters apart, depending on lesion size. At any one site, the dose injected should not exceed 0.6 mg. and should be well into the cutis to prevent rupture of the epidermis. When treating animals with multiple lesions, do not exceed a total dose of 6 mg.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Intra-articular and intrasynovial.</I> Administer 1 to 3 mg as a single injection, depending on the size of the joint and severity of symptoms. After 3 or 4 days, repeat dosage if indicated. If initial results are inadequate or too transient, dosage may be increased, not to exceed 3 mg.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of inflammation and related disorders, and the management and treatment of acute arthritis and allergic and dermatologic disorders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount</I>—(A) <I>Intramuscular or subcutaneous.</I> Administer 0.01 to 0.02 mg/lb of body weight as a single injection. Usual dose is 12 to 20 mg.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Intra-articular and intrasynovial.</I> Administer 6 to 18 mg as a single injection, depending on the size of the joint and severity of symptoms. After 3 or 4 days, repeat dosage if indicated. If initial results are inadequate or too transient, dosage may be increased, not to exceed 18 mg.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of inflammation and related disorders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10167, Mar. 5, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 80 FR 34279, June 16, 2015; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2582" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.180" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2582   Triflupromazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) of triflupromazine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Dogs.</I> Administer by intravenous injection at a dosage of 0.5 to 1 mg per pound of body weight daily, or by intramuscular injection at a dosage of 1 to 2 mg per pound of body weight daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats.</I> Administer by intramuscular injection at a dosage of 2 to 4 mg per pound of body weight daily.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Horses.</I> Administer by intravenous or intramuscular injection at a dosage of 10 to 15 mg per 100 pounds of body weight daily to a maximum dose of 100 mg.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in dogs, cats, and horses to relieve anxiety and to help control psychomotor overactivity as well as to increase the tolerance of animals to pain and pruritus. The drug is indicated in various office and clinical procedures which require the aid of a tranquilizer, antiemetic, or preanesthetic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 16197, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2610" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.181" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2610   Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 40 milligrams (mg) trimethoprim suspended in a solution containing 200 mg sulfadiazine; or
</P>
<P>(2) 80 mg trimethoprim suspended in a solution containing 400 mg sulfadiazine (as the sodium salt).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 1 mL of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section (40 mg trimethoprim and 200 mg sulfadiazine) per 20 pounds (9 kilograms) of body weight per day by subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute urinary tract infections, acute bacterial complications of distemper, acute respiratory tract infections, acute alimentary tract infections, and acute septicemia due to Streptococcus zooepidemicus.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2 mL of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section (160 mg trimethoprim and 800 mg sulfadiazine) per 100 pounds (45 kilograms) of body weight per day by intravenous injection as single, daily dose for 5 to 7 days. The daily dose may also be halved and given morning and evening.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use where systemic antibacterial action against sensitive organisms is required during treatment of acute strangles, respiratory tract infections, acute urogenital infections, and wound infections and abscesses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 30803, May 31, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 16197, Mar. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2615" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.182" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2615   Tripelennamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) of tripelennamine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 016592 and 051031 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.741 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.5 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in treating conditions in which antihistaminic therapy may be expected to lead to alleviation of some signs of disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.5 mg per pound of body weight by intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in treating conditions in which antihistaminic therapy may be expected to lead to alleviation of some signs of disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.5 mg per pound of body weight by intravenous or intramuscular injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use in treating conditions in which antihistaminic therapy may be expected to lead to alleviation of some signs of disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken during treatment and for 24 hours after the last treatment must not be used for human consumption. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 4 days following the last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 44450, Dec. 10, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 29480, June 11, 1996; 62 FR 4164, Jan. 29, 1997; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 16198, Mar. 25, 2014; 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2630" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.183" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2630   Tulathromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 milligrams (mg) tulathromycin
</P>
<P>(2) 25 mg tulathromycin
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 000061, 013744, 051311, 054771, 055529, 058198, 061133, 068504, and 069043 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i), (d)(1)(ii), (d)(1)(iii)(A), and (d)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 013744, 051311, 054771, 058198, 068504, and 069043 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i), (d)(1)(ii)(B), (d)(1)(iii)(B), and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.745 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 mg per kilogram (/kg) body weight as a single subcutaneous injection in the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) <I>Beef and non-lactating dairy cattle.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</I> <I>Histophilus somni,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma bovis.</I> For the control of respiratory disease in cattle at high risk of developing BRD associated with <I>M. haemolytica, P. multocida,</I> <I>H. somni,</I> and <I>M. bovis.</I> For the treatment of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK) associated with <I>Moraxella bovis.</I> For the treatment of bovine foot rot (interdigital necrobacillosis) associated with <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> and <I>Porphyromonas levii.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Suckling calves, dairy calves, and veal calves.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</I> <I>Histophilus somni,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma bovis.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> (A) Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 18 days from the last treatment. This drug is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(B) Calves intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 22 days from the last treatment. Not for use in ruminating cattle. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 mg/kg body weight as a single intramuscular injection in the neck.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of swine respiratory disease (SRD) associated with <I>Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</I>, <I>P. multocida</I>, <I>Bordetella bronchiseptica</I>, <I>Haemophilus parasuis</I>, and <I>Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae</I>; and for the control of SRD associated with <I>A. pleuropneumoniae</I>, <I>P. multocida</I>, and <I>M. hyopneumoniae</I> in groups of pigs where SRD has been diagnosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Swine intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 5 days from the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 39918, July 12, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 57416, Sept. 29, 2006; 72 FR 54540, Sept. 26, 2007; 73 FR 6018, Feb. 1, 2008; 73 FR 58872, Oct. 8, 2008; 74 FR 53165, Oct. 16, 2009; 78 FR 63872, Oct. 25, 2013; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 80 FR 13230, Mar. 13, 2015; 81 FR 67151, Sept. 30, 2016; 86 FR 57997, Oct. 20, 2021; 87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022; 88 FR 16548, Mar. 20, 2023; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024; 90 FR 6801, Jan. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2632" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.184" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2632   Tulathromycin and ketoprofen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) tulathromycin and 120 milligrams (mg) ketoprofen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.345 and 556.745 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer as a single subcutaneous injection 2.5 mg tulathromycin and 3 mg ketoprofen per kilogram (1.1 mL/100 lb) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <I>Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, Histophilus somni,</I> and <I>Mycoplasma bovis,</I> and control of pyrexia associated with BRD in beef steers, beef heifers, beef calves 2 months of age and older, beef bulls, dairy bulls, and replacement dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in reproducing animals over 1 year of age. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 18 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in female dairy cattle 1 year of age or older, including dry dairy cows; use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows or heifers. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 61685, Nov. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2640" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.185" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2640   Tylosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 50 or 200 milligrams (mg) of tylosin activity (as tylosin base).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:


</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592 and 058198 for use of 50- or 200-mg/mL solutions as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use of a 200-mg/mL solution as in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling must bear the warning statements: “Do not administer to horses or other equines. Injection of tylosin in equines has been fatal.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 8 mg per pound (mg/lb) of body weight by intramuscular injection once daily for not more than 5 consecutive days. Continue treatment 24 hours after symptoms disappear.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of bovine respiratory complex (shipping fever, pneumonia) usually associated with <I>Pasteurella multocida</I> and <I>Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</I> foot rot (necrotic pododermatitis) and calf diphtheria caused by <I>Fusobacterium necrophorum</I> and metritis caused by <I>A. pyogenes.</I>


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 21 days of the last use of this drug product. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. This product is not approved for use in calves intended to be processed for veal. A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.












</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 4 mg/lb of body weight by intramuscular injection twice daily for not more than 3 consecutive days. Continue treatment 24 hours after symptoms disappear. If tylosin medicated drinking water is used as a followup treatment for swine dysentery, the animal should thereafter receive feed containing 40 to 100 grams of tylosin per ton for 2 weeks to assure depletion of tissue residues.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of swine arthritis caused by <I>Mycoplasma hyosynoviae;</I> swine pneumonia caused by <I>Pasteurella</I> spp.; swine erysipelas caused by <I>Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae;</I> swine dysentery associated with <I>Treponema hyodysenteriae</I> when followed by appropriate medication in the drinking water and/or feed.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Swine intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 14 days of the last use of this drug product. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 3 to 5 mg/lb of body weight by intramuscular injection at 12- to 24-hour intervals.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use</I>—(A) <I>Dogs.</I> Treatment of upper respiratory infections such as bronchitis, tracheobronchitis, tracheitis, laryngitis, tonsillitis, and pneumonia caused by <I>Staphylococci</I> spp., hemolytic <I>Streptococci</I> spp., and <I>Pasteurella multocida.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Cats.</I> Treatment of upper respiratory infections when caused by <I>Staphylococci</I> spp. and hemolytic <I>Streptococci</I> spp. and for feline pneumonitis when caused by tylosin-susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67151, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 32992, July 11, 2019; 88 FR 14900, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023; 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2662" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.186" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2662   Xylazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains xylazine hydrochloride equivalent to:
</P>
<P>(1) 20 milligrams (mg) xylazine.
</P>
<P>(2) 100 mg xylazine.
</P>
<P>(3) 300 mg xylazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 069043 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 061133 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraphs (d)(2), (d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(ii)(A), and (d)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 061651 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraphs (d)(2), (d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(ii)(A), and (d)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 059399 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraphs (d)(2), (d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(ii)(A), and (d)(3)(iii) of this section; and product described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as in paragraphs (d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(ii)(B), and (d)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg/pound (lb) intravenously or 1.0 mg/lb subcutaneously.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To produce sedation, as an analgesic, and as a preanesthetic to local or general anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 0.5 mg/lb intravenously or 1.0 mg/lb intramuscularly.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To produce sedation, as an analgesic, and as a preanesthetic to local or general anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Elk and deer</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer intramuscularly, by hand syringe, or by syringe dart, in the heavy muscles of the croup or shoulder as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Elk (<I>Cervus canadensis</I>): 0.25 to 0.5 mg/lb.
</P>
<P>(B) Mule deer (<I>Odocoileus hemionus</I>), sika deer (<I>Cervus nippon</I>), and white-tailed deer (<I>Odocoileus virginianus</I>): 1 to 2 mg/lb.
</P>
<P>(C) Fallow deer (<I>Dama dama</I>): 2 to 4 mg/lb.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) To produce sedation, as an analgesic, and as a preanesthetic to local anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(B) To produce sedation, accompanied by a shorter period of analgesia. May be used to calm and facilitate handling of fractious animals for diagnostic procedures, for minor surgical procedures, for therapeutic medication for sedation and relief of pain following injury or surgery, and as a preanesthetic to local anesthetic. At the recommended dosages, can be used in conjunction with local anesthetics, such as procaine or lidocaine.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in domestic food-producing animals. Do not use in Cervidae less than 15 days before or during the hunting season.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 26206, May 15, 2003, as amended at 75 FR 10167, Mar. 5, 2010, 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 16198, Mar. 25, 2014; 79 FR 21127, Apr. 15, 2014; 79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014; 80 FR 13230, Mar. 13, 2015; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 87 FR 17946, Mar. 29, 2022; 90 FR 19625, May 9, 2025; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2670" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.187" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2670   Yohimbine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 2 or 5 milligrams (mg) of yohimbine (as hydrochloride).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 059399 for use of in 2 mg/mL solution as in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 053923 for use of in 5 mg/mL solution as in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.05 mg per pound (0.11 mg per kilogram) of body weight by intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> To reverse the effects of xylazine in dogs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in food-producing animals. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deer and elk</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.2 to 0.3 mg per kilogram of body weight by intravenous injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> A s an antagonist to xylazine sedation in free ranging or confined members of the family Cervidae (deer and elk).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in domestic food-producing animals. Do not use for 30 days before or during hunting season. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 74020, Dec. 15, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 13230, Mar. 13, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2680" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.188" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2680   Zeranol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pellet contains 12, 18, or 20 milligrams (mg) zeranol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.760 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 36 mg zeranol (one implant consisting of 3 pellets, each pellet containing 12 mg zeranol) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I>(A) For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter.
</P>
<P>(B) For increased rate of weight gain in beef calves 2 months of age or older, in growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter), and in growing beef steers and heifers in a dry lot. 


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant pellets subcutaneously only. Not approved for repeated implantation (reimplantation) with this or any other cattle ear implant within a single production phase as safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated. Do not use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves because effectiveness and safety have not been evaluated. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in replacement beef heifers after weaning or in bulls, dairy cows, or replacement dairy heifers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Feedlot lambs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 12 mg zeranol (one implant consisting of 1 pellet containing 12 mg zeranol) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed conversion.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant subcutaneously in ear only. Do not use in breeding animals. Do not implant animals within 40 days of slaughter. Safety and effectiveness have not been established in veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Steers fed in confinement for slaughter</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 72 mg zeranol (one implant consisting of 6 pellets, each pellet containing 12 mg zeranol) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant subcutaneously in ear only. Safety and effectiveness have not been established in veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder steers, and heifers)</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 138 mg zeranol (one implant consisting of 7 pellets, each of 6 pellets containing 20 mg zeranol and a seventh pellet containing 18 mg zeranol) per implant dose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Implant subcutaneously in ear only. Safety and effectiveness have not been established in veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 19639, Apr. 25, 1994; 60 FR 26360, May 17, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 64 FR 46840, Aug. 27, 1999; 67 FR 6867, Feb. 14, 2002; 70 FR 6764, Feb. 9, 2005; 88 FR 55566, Aug. 16, 2023; 91 FR 5301, Feb. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2690" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.189" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2690   Zinc gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 13.1 milligrams zinc as zinc gluconate neutralized to pH 7.0 with L-arginine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 011788 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The volume injected into each testicle is based on testicular width as determined by measuring each testicle at its widest point using a metric scale (millimeter) caliper.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Intratesticular injection for chemical sterilization of 3- to 10-month-old male dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 26995, May 19, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 79064, Dec. 21, 2011; 87 FR 76422, Dec. 14, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 522.2694" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.190" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 522.2694   Zinc, copper, manganese, and selenium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 60 milligrams (mg) zinc as zinc oxide, 15 mg copper as copper carbonate, 10 mg manganese as manganese carbonate, and 5 mg selenium as sodium selenite.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 066679 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer a single dose by subcutaneous injection to cattle up to 1 year of age, 1 mL/100 lb bodyweight; to cattle from 1 to 2 years of age, 1 mL/150 lb bodyweight, and to cattle over 2 years of age, 1 mL/200 lb bodyweight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As a supplemental source of zinc, copper, manganese, and selenium in cattle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle must not be slaughtered for human food consumption within 14 days of the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="524" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 524—OPHTHALMIC AND TOPICAL DOSAGE FORM NEW ANIMAL DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 524.86" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.86   Amitraz.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Amitraz liquid contains 19.9 percent amitraz in an organic solvent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use.</I> For dogs for the treatment of generalized demodicosis (<I>Demodex canis</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount.</I> One 10.6 milliliter bottle per 2 gallons of warm water (250 parts per million) for each treatment, for a total of 3 to 6 treatments, 14 days apart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 18589, Apr. 30, 1982, as amended at 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.154" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.154   Bacitracin, neomycin, and polymyxin B ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 500 units bacitracin, 3.5 milligrams (mg) neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 3.5 mg neomycin base), and 10,000 units polymyxin B sulfate; or
</P>
<P>(2) 400 units bacitracin zinc, 5 mg neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 3.5 mg neomycin base), and 10,000 units polymyxin B sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 000061, 043264, and 086189 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply a thin film over the cornea 3 or 4 times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of superficial bacterial infections of the eyelid and conjunctiva of dogs and cats when due to susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37333, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61625, Nov. 19, 1997; 77 FR 64717, Oct. 23, 2012; 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014; 80 FR 61297, Oct. 13, 2015; 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.155" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.155   Bacitracin, neomycin, polymyxin B, and hydrocortisone ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains 400 units of bacitracin zinc, 5 milligrams (mg) of neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 3.5 mg of neomycin sulfate), 10,000 units of polymyxin B sulfate, and10 mg of hydrocortisone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply a thin film over the cornea three or four times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treating acute or chronic conjunctivitis caused by susceptible organisms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37333, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61626, Nov. 19, 1997; 77 FR 64717, Oct. 23, 2012; 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.230" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.230   Buprenorphine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 20 milligrams (mg) buprenorphine. The drug is supplied in tubes containing 0.4 mL (8 mg) or 1.0 mL (20 mg).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically to the dorsal cervical area at the base of the skull a single dose of 1.2 to 3.1 mg/lb (2.7 to 6.7 mg/kg) approximately 1 to 2 hours before surgery.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of postoperative pain associated with surgical procedures in cats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Buprenorphine is a Schedule III controlled substance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 58962, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.390" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.390   Chloramphenicol ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram contains 10 milligrams chloramphenicol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 043264 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply every 3 hours around the clock for 48 hours, after which night instillations may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis caused by pathogens susceptible to chloramphenicol.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4897, Feb. 1, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 64717, Oct. 23, 2012; 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.402" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.402   Chlorhexidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains 10 milligrams chlorhexidine acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 058829 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs, cats, and horses</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a topical antiseptic ointment for surface wounds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 265, Jan. 4, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.450" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.450   Clotrimazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of cream contains 10 milligrams of clotrimazole. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch ribbon of cream per square inch of lesion once daily for 2 to 4 weeks. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications of use.</I> For the treatment of fungal infections of dogs and cats caused by <I>Microsporum canis</I> and <I>Trichophyton mentagrophytes.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 48128, July 18, 1980, as amended at 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014; 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.463" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.463   Copper naphthenate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount.</I> The drug is a 37.5 percent solution of copper naphthenate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 017135, 054771, and 058829 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply daily to affected hooves until fully healed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in treating horses and ponies for thrush caused by organisms susceptible to copper naphthenate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Use on horses and ponies only. Avoid contact around eyes. Do not contaminate feed. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 4250, Jan. 29, 1982, as amended at 68 FR 55825, Sept. 29, 2003; 71 FR 38074, July 5, 2006; 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.575" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.575   Cyclosporine ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains 2 milligrams of cyclosporine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply a 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch strip of ointment directly on the cornea or into the conjunctival sac of the affected eye(s) every 12 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For management of chronic keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) and chronic superficial keratitis (CSK) in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48651, Sept. 20, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 48940, Sept. 18, 1997; 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.590" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.590   Diclofenac.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of cream contains 10 milligrams diclofenac sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply a 5-inch (5″) ribbon of cream twice daily over the affected joint for up to 10 days and rub thoroughly into the hair covering the joint until it disappears.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use in horses.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis in tarsal, carpal, metacarpophalangeal, metatarsophalangeal, and proximal interphalangeal (hock, knee, fetlock and pastern) joints.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 40767, July 7, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 26782, June 4, 2009; 74 FR 47436, Sept. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.660" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.660   Dimethyl sulfoxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 90 percent dimethyl sulfoxide and 10 percent water.
</P>
<P>(2) Each milliliter (mL) of gel product contains 90 percent dimethyl sulfoxide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses and dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Horses.</I> Apply topically two to three times daily in an amount not to exceed 100 mL per day. Total duration of therapy should not exceed 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs.</I> Apply topically three to four times daily in an amount not to exceed 20 mL per day. Total duration of therapy should not exceed 14 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To reduce acute swelling due to trauma.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.770" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.770   Doramectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 5 milligrams (mg) doramectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 051072, 054771, and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.222 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically 1 mL (5 mg doramectin) per 22 lb (10 kg) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms: <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (inhibited fourth-stage larvae), <I>Ostertagia lyrata</I> (adults), <I>Haemonchus placei</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Trichostrongylus colubriformis</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Cooperia oncophora</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Cooperia punctata</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Cooperia pectinata</I> (adults), <I>Cooperia surnabada</I> (adults), <I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I> (adults), <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae), <I>Trichuris spp.</I> (adults); lungworms: <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I> (adults and fourth-stage larvae); eyeworms: <I>Thelazia gulosa</I> (adults), <I>Thelazia skrjabini</I> (adults); grubs: <I>Hypoderma bovis</I> and <I>Hypoderma lineatum</I>; sucking lice: <I>Linognathus vituli</I>, <I>Haematopinus eurysternus</I>, and <I>Solenopotes capillatus</I>; biting lice: <I>Bovicola (Damalinia) bovis</I>; mange mites: <I>Chorioptes bovis</I> and <I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I>; horn flies: <I>Haematobia irritans</I>; and to control infections and to protect from reinfection with <I>Cooperia oncophora</I>, <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I>, <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I>, and <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I> for 28 days; and with <I>Cooperia punctata</I> and <I>Haemonchus placei</I> for 35 days after treatment; and to control infestations and to protect from reinfestation with <I>Linognathus vituli</I> for 42 days and with <I>Bovicola (Damalinia) bovis</I> for 77 days after treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 45 days of treatment. Not for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 48392, Aug. 10, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 43046, July 26, 2005; 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014; 84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019; 87 FR 10970, Feb. 28, 2022; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023; 90 FR 6801, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.775" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.775   Emodepside and praziquantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 21.4 milligrams (mg) emodepside and 85.7 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The recommended minimum dose is 1.36 mg/pound (lb) (3 mg/kilogram (kg)) emodepside and 5.45 mg/lb (12 mg/kg) praziquantel applied as a single topical dose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment and control of hookworm infections caused by <I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I> (adults, immature adults, and fourth stage larvae), roundworm infections caused by <I>Toxocara cati</I> (adults and fourth stage larvae), and tapeworm infections caused by <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> (adults) and <I>Taenia taeniaeformis</I> (adults).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 42291, Aug. 2, 2007, as amended at 86 FR 14820, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.802" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.802   Enrofloxacin and silver sulfadiazine otic emulsion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 5 milligrams (mg) enrofloxacin and 10 mg silver sulfadiazine. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 058198 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—<I>Dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 5 to 10 drops for dogs weighing 35 pounds (lb) or less and 10 to 15 drops for dogs weighing more than 35 lb; applied twice daily for up to 14 days. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa in dogs. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal law prohibits the extralabel use of this drug in food-producing animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 66620, Nov. 7, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 10967, Feb. 27, 2014; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021; 89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.814" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.814   Eprinomectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) contains 5 milligrams (mg) of eprinomectin.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010, 051072, 055529, and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.227 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply 5 mg (1 mL) per 10 kilograms (kg) of body weight (500 micrograms/kg) topically along backbone from withers to tailhead.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (<I>Haemonchus placei</I> (adult and L4), <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (adult and L4, including inhibited L4), <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I> (adult and L4), <I>T. colubriformis</I> (adult and L4), <I>T. longispicularis</I> (adult), <I>Cooperia oncophora</I> (adult and L4), <I>C. punctata</I> (adult and L4), <I>C. surnabada</I> (adult and L4), <I>Nematodirus helvetianus</I> (adult and L4), <I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I> (adult and L4), <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I> (adult and L4), <I>Strongyloides papillosus</I> (adults), <I>Trichuris</I> spp. (adults)); lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus,</I> adult and L4); cattle grubs (all parasitic stages <I>Hypoderma lineatum, H. bovis</I>); lice (<I>Damalinia bovis, Linognathus vituli, Haematopinus eurysternus, Solenopotes capillatus</I>); mange mites (<I>Chorioptes bovis, Sarcoptes scabiei</I>); and horn flies (<I>Haematobia irritans</I>). Controls and protects from reinfection of <I>D. viviparus</I> for 21 days after treatment and <I>H. irritans</I> for 7 days after treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> A withdrawal period has not been established for preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 72619, Nov. 25, 2011, as amended at 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023; 90 FR 19625, May 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.815" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.815   Eprinomectin and praziquantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 4 milligrams (mg) eprinomectin and 83 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Using the 0.3 mL and 0.9 mL unit applicators, administer a minimum dose of 0.23 mg eprinomectin per pound body weight and 4.55 mg praziquantel per pound body weight by topical application on the dorsal midline between the base of the skull and the shoulder blades.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis,</I> and for the treatment and control of roundworms (adult and fourth stage larval <I>Toxocara cati</I>), hookworms (adult and fourth stage larval <I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme;</I> adult <I>Ancylostoma braziliense</I>), and tapeworms (adult <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> and <I>Echinococcus multilocularis</I>), in cats and kittens 7 weeks of age and older and 1.8 lbs or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.838" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.838   Esafoxolaner, eprinomectin, and praziquantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of topical solution contains 12 milligrams (mg) esafoxolaner, 4 mg eprinomectin, and 83 mg praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer the entire contents of a provided unit applicator topically once a month at a minimum dose of 0.055 mL/lb (0.12 mL/kg), which delivers a minimum dose of 0.66 mg/lb (1.45 mg/kg) esafoxolaner, 0.23 mg/lb (0.51 mg/kg) eprinomectin, and 4.55 mg/lb (10.0 mg/kg) praziquantel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis.</I> Kills adult fleas (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and is indicated for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations, the treatment and control of <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick) and <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick) infestations, and the treatment and control of roundworms (fourth-stage larval and adult <I>Toxocara cati</I>), hookworms (fourth-stage larval and adult <I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme;</I> adult <I>Ancylostoma braziliense</I>), and tapeworms (<I>Dipylidium caninum</I>) in cats and kittens 8 weeks of age and older, and weighing 1.8 lbs or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 55566, Aug. 16, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.900" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.900   Famphur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is in liquid form containing 13.2 percent famphur. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Do not use on animals simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.273 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply 1 ounce per 200 pounds body weight, not to exceed a total dosage of 4 ounces, from the shoulder to the tail head as a single treatment. Apply as soon as possible after heel fly activity ceases.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use in beef and nonlactating dairy cattle.</I> For control of cattle grubs and to reduce cattle lice infestations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not slaughter within 35 days after treatment. Do not use on lactating dairy cows or dry dairy cows within 21 days of freshening, calves less than 3 months old, animals stressed from castration, overexcitement or dehorning, sick or convalescent animals. Animals may become dehydrated and under stress following shipment. Do not treat until they are in good condition. Brahman and Brahman crossbreeds are less tolerant of cholinesterase-inhibiting insecticides than other breeds. Do not treat Brahman bulls. Swine should be eliminated from area where runoff occurs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 34352, Aug. 30, 1984; 57 FR 7652, Mar. 4, 1992; 59 FR 28769, June 3, 1994; 62 FR 55161, Oct. 23, 1997; 62 FR 61626, Nov. 19, 1997; 69 FR 41427, July 9, 2004; 79 FR 10968, Feb. 27, 2014; 83 FR 48946, Sept. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.920" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.920   Fenthion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) The drug is a liquid containing:
</P>
<P>(i) 3 percent of fenthion; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 20 percent fenthion.
</P>
<P>(2) The drug is a solution containing either 5.6 or 13.8 percent fenthion. Each concentration is available in 2 volumes which are contained in single-dose applicators.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 058198 for use of products described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.280 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> It is used at the rate of one-half fluid ounce per 100 pounds of body weight applied topically on the backline of the animal. Only one application per season should be made for grub control and this will also provide initial control of lice. A second application for lice control may be made if animals become reinfested, but no sooner than 35 days after the first treatment. Proper timing of treatment is important for grub control; cattle should be treated as soon as possible after heel-fly activity ceases.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of grubs and lice in beef and nonlactating cattle.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use on animals simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. Cattle should not be slaughtered within 35 days following a single treatment. If a second application is made for lice control, cattle should not be slaughtered within 45 days of the second treatment. The drug must not be used within 28 days of freshening of dairy cattle. If freshening should occur within 28 days after treatment, do not use milk as human food for the balance of the 28-day interval. Do not treat lactating dairy cattle; calves less than 3 months old; or sick, convalescent, or stressed livestock. Do not treat cattle for 10 days before or after shipping, weaning, or dehorning or after exposure to contagious infectious diseases.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beef cattle and dairy cattle not of breeding age</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> It is administered as a single, topical application placed on the backline of animals as follows: For animals weighing 150 to 300 pounds, apply 4 milliliters (mL); for animals weighing 301 to 600 pounds, apply 8 mL; for animals weighing 601 to 900 pounds, apply 12 mL; for animals weighing 901 to 1,200 pounds, apply 16 mL; and for animal weighing over 1,200 pounds, apply 20 mL. For most effective results, cattle should be treated as soon as possible after heel-fly activity ceases. A second application is required for animals heavily infested with lice or for those which become reinfested. A second application should be made no sooner than 35 days after the first treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of cattle grubs and as an aid in controlling lice on beef cattle and on dairy cattle not of breeding age.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use on animals simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. Host-parasite reactions such as bloat, salivation, staggering and paralysis may sometimes occur when cattle are treated while the common cattle grub (<I>Hypoderma lineatum</I>) is in the gullet, or while the northern cattle grub (<I>H. bovis</I>) is in the area of the spinal cord. Cattle should be treated before these stages of grub development. Consult your veterinarian, extension livestock specialist, or extension entomologist regarding the timing of treatment. If it is impossible to determine the area from which the cattle came and/or exact stage of the grubs, it is recommended that the cattle receive only a maintenance ration of low-energy feed during the treatment period. This lessens the likelihood of severe bloat which may occur in cattle on full feed when the common grub is killed while in the gullet. Do not treat dairy cattle of breeding age; calves less than 3 months old; sick, convalescent, or severely stressed livestock. Do not treat cattle for 10 days before or after shipping, weaning, dehorning, or after exposure to contagious or infectious diseases. Do not slaughter within 45 days of treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Four to 8 milligrams per kilogram of body weight. Apply the contents of the proper size, single-dose tube directly to one spot on the dog's skin.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For flea control on dogs only.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10968, Feb. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.955" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.955   Florfenicol, terbinafine, and betamethasone acetate otic gel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 10 milligrams (mg) florfenicol, 10 mg terbinafine, and 1 mg betamethasone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one dose (1 tube) per affected ear(s) and repeat administration in 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa in dogs associated with susceptible strains of bacteria (<I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius</I>) and yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 13230, Mar. 13, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.957" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.957   Florfenicol, terbinafine, and mometasone otic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, prefilled dropperette contains 1 milliliter (mL) of a solution containing 16.6 milligrams (mg) florfenicol, 14.8 mg terbinafine (equivalent to 16.6 mg terbinafine hydrochloride), and 2.2 mg mometasone furoate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 017030, 051072, and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one dropperette (1 mL) per affected ear(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa in dogs associated with susceptible strains of yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>) and bacteria (<I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 76387, Dec. 9, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 64740, Dec. 18, 2018; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023; 91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.960" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.960   Flumethasone, neomycin, and polymyxin B ophthalmic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of ophthalmic preparation contains 0.10 milligram flumethasone, 5.0 milligrams neomycin sulfate (3.5 milligrams neomycin base), and 10,000 units of polymyxin B sulfate, with or without hydroxypropyl methylcellulose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Preparation containing hydroxypropyl methylcellulose.</I> Dogs: 1 to 2 drops per eye, every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preparation without hydroxyproply methylcellulose.</I> Dogs and cats: 2 to 3 drops per eye, every 4 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of the inflammation, edema, and secondary bacterial infections associated with topical ophthalmological conditions of the eye such as corneal injuries, incipient pannus, superficial keratitis, conjunctivitis, acute nongranulomatous anterior uveitis, kerato- conjunctivitis, and blepharitis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 16012, Mar. 16, 1979, as amended at 61 FR 5507, Feb. 13, 1996; 79 FR 10968, Feb. 27, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.970" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.970   Flunixin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 milligrams (mg) flunixin (equivalent to 83 mg flunixin meglumine).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.286 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply only once at a dose of 3.3 mg flunixin per kg body weight (1.5 mg/lb; 3 mL per 100 lbs) topically in a narrow strip along the dorsal midline from the withers to the tailhead.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pyrexia associated with bovine respiratory disease and acute bovine mastitis, and the control of pain associated with foot rot in beef cattle 2 months of age and older and dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in beef and dairy bulls intended for breeding over 1 year of age. Milk that has been taken during treatment and for 48 hours after treatment must not be used for human consumption. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 8 days of treatment. Not for use in replacement dairy heifers 20 months of age or older or dry dairy cows; use in these cattle may cause drug residues in calves born to these cows or heifers. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Approved only as a single topical dose in cattle. Repeated treatments may result in violative residues in milk or in edible tissues. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 13635, Mar. 30, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Fluocinolone Topical and Otic Dosage Forms</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.981" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.981   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.981a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.981a   Fluocinolone cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 0.025 percent fluocinolone acetonide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 099207 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> A small amount is applied to the affected area two or three times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of pruritis and inflammation associated with certain superficial acute and chronic dermatoses. It is used in the treatment of allergic and acute moist dermatitis and for the relief of superficial inflammation caused by chemical burns and physical abrasions.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 62 FR 40932, July 31, 1997; 79 FR 10968, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.981b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.981b   Fluocinolone solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 0.01 percent fluocinolone acetonide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 099207 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> A small amount of solution is applied to the affected area two or three times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Dogs.</I> For the relief of pruritis and inflammation associated with otitis externa and certain superficial acute and chronic dermatoses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cats.</I> For the relief of pruritis and inflammation associated with acute otitis externa and certain superficial acute and chronic dermatoses.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 62 FR 40932, July 31, 1997; 79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.981c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.981c   Fluocinolone and neomycin cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 0.025 percent fluocinolone acetonide and 0.5 percent neomycin sulfate (0.35 percent neomycin base). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 099207 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> A small amount is applied to the affected area two or three times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Dogs.</I> For the relief of pruritis and inflammation associated with superficial acute and chronic dermatoses. It is used in the treatment of allergic and acute moist dermatitis and nonspecific dermatoses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs and cats.</I> Used in the treatment of wound infections.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 62 FR 40932, July 31, 1997; 79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.981d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.981d   Fluocinolone and dimethyl sulfoxide solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.01 percent fluocinolone acetonide and 20 percent dimethyl sulfoxide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill 1 to 2 milliliters into each anal sac following expression of anal sac contents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of impaction commonly present in apparently normal anal sacs, for the reversal of inflammatory changes associated with abnormal anal sacs, and to counteract the offensive odor of anal sac secretions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.981e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.981e   Fluocinolone and dimethyl sulfoxide otic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.01 percent fluocinolone acetonide and 60 percent dimethyl sulfoxide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill 4 to 6 drops (0.2 milliliter) twice daily into the ear canal for a maximum period of 14 days. The total dosage used should not exceed 17 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of pruritis and inflammation associated with acute and chronic otitis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.998" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.998   Fluralaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 280 milligrams (mg) fluralaner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically as a single dose every 12 weeks according to the label dosage schedule to provide a minimum dose of 11.4 mg/lb (25 mg/kg) body weight. May be administered every 8 weeks in case of potential exposure to <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> ticks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas; for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and the treatment and control of tick infestations (<I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), and <I>Rhipicephalus sanguineus</I> (brown dog tick)) for 12 weeks in dogs and puppies 6 months of age and older, and weighing 4.4 lb or greater; for the treatment and control of <I>A. americanum</I> (lone star tick) infestations for 8 weeks in dogs and puppies 6 months of age and older, and weighing 4.4 lb or greater.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically as a single dose every 12 weeks according to the label dosage schedule to provide a minimum dose of 18.2 mg/lb (40 mg/kg) body weight. May be administered every 8 weeks in case of potential exposure to <I>D. variabilis</I> ticks.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas; for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>C. felis</I>) and the treatment and control of <I>I. scapularis</I> (black-legged tick) and <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (Asian longhorned tick) infestations for 12 weeks in cats and kittens 6 months of age and older, and weighing 2.6 lb or greater; for the treatment and control of <I>D. variabilis</I> (American dog tick) infestations for 8 weeks in cats and kittens 6 months of age and older, and weighing 2.6 lb or greater.




</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67152, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 43485, Sept. 18, 2017; 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1001" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1001   Fluralaner and moxidectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 280 milligram (mg) fluralaner and 14 mg moxidectin. Each individually packaged tube contains either 112.5 mg fluralaner and 5.6 mg moxidectin; 250 mg fluralaner and 12.5 mg moxidectin; or 500 mg fluralaner and 25 mg moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically as a single dose every 2 months to provide a minimum dose of 18.2 mg/lb (40 mg/kg) fluralaner and 0.9 mg/lb (2 mg/kg) moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> and for the treatment of infections with intestinal roundworm (<I>Toxocara cati,</I> fourth-stage larvae, immature adults, and adults) and hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme,</I> fourth-stage larvae, immature adults, and adults); kills adult fleas and is indicated for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and the treatment and control of tick infestations (<I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), <I>Haemaphysalis longicornis</I> (Asian longhorned tick), and <I>Amblyomma maculatum</I> (Gulf Coast tick)) for 2 months in cats and kittens 6 months of age and older and weighing 2.6 lb or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 58963, Sept. 29, 2022; 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1005" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1005   Furazolidone powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product contains either 4 or 10 percent furazolidone in inert dispersing agent and propellant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> (1) See No. 051031 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii), and (c)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) See No. 017135 for use of the 4 percent product as in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Hold container about 6 to 12 inches from the eye or affected area and apply only enough powder to impart a light yellow color. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications of use</I>—(i) <I>Dogs.</I> For treatment or prevention of bacterial infection of superficial wounds, abrasions, lacerations, and pyogenic dermatitis. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Horses.</I> For treatment or prevention of bacterial infection of superficial wounds, abrasions, lacerations, and following firing (heat or electrocautery). 
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Horses and ponies.</I> For treatment or prevention of bacterial infection of superficial wounds, abrasions, and lacerations caused by <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus spp.</I> and <I>Proteus spp.</I> sensitive to furazolidone. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For topical application in horses, ponies, and dogs: Clean affected area thoroughly, apply drug once or twice daily, and repeat treatment as required. Use only as recommended by a veterinarian in treatment of puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement or suturing, those of a chronic nature involving proud flesh, generalized and chronic infections of the skin, and those skin conditions associated with intense itching. If redness, irritation, or swelling persists or increases, discontinue use and consult a veterinarian. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 49543, July 25, 1980, as amended at 50 FR 30153, July 24, 1985; 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 57 FR 31314, July 15, 1992; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 65 FR 41588, July 6, 2000; 79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014; 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044   Gentamicin ophthalmic and topical dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044a   Gentamicin ophthalmic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 3 milligrams of gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 086189 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 1 or 2 drops into the conjunctival sac 2 to 4 times a day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the topical treatment of infections of the conjunctiva caused by susceptible bacteria.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044b   Gentamicin and betamethasone otic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 3 milligrams (mg) gentamicin base and betamethasone valerate equivalent to 1 mg betamethasone alcohol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amounts and indications for use.</I> (i) For the treatment of acute and chronic otitis externa caused by bacteria sensitive to gentamicin in dogs, instill three to eight drops of solution into the ear canal twice daily for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the treatment of infected superficial lesions caused by bacteria sensitive to gentamicin in dogs and cats, apply a sufficient amount of the drug to cover the treatment area twice daily for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006, as amended at 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044c   Gentamicin ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 3 milligrams of gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 017033 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply approximately a 1/2-inch strip to the affected eye 2 to 4 times a day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of conjunctivitis caused by susceptible bacteria.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 47363, Aug. 5, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 64717, Oct. 23, 2012; 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044d   Gentamicin and betamethasone ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 3 milligrams of gentamicin base and betamethasone valerate equivalent to 1 milligram of betamethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Otitis externa.</I> Instill 3 to 8 drops into the ear canal twice daily for 7 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Infected superficial lesions.</I> Apply to cover the treatment area twice daily for 7 to 14 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute and chronic otitis externa and infected superficial lesions caused by bacteria sensitive to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 26378, June 18, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 7832, Mar. 13, 1987; 79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044e   Gentamicin spray.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specification.</I> Each milliliter of sterile aqueous solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 1.07 milligrams of gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Hold the sprayer upright 3 to 6 inches from the affected eye, with the opening directed towards the eye, and pump once. Treat once daily for up to 3 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of pinkeye in cattle (infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis) caused by <I>Moraxella bovis.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Conditions other than bacterial infections of the bovine eye and infectious keratoconjunctivitis caused by <I>Moraxella bovis</I> may produce similar signs. If conditions persists or increases, discontinue use and consult a veterinarian. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 41157, Sept. 14, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 7833, Mar. 13, 1987; 79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014; 84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044f" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044f   Gentamicin and betamethasone spray.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of spray contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 0.57 milligram (mg) gentamicin base and betamethasone valerate equivalent to 0.284 mg betamethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061, 017033, 058005, and 058829 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Hold bottle upright 3 to 6 inches from the lesion and depress the sprayer head twice. Administer two spray actuations two to four times daily for 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of infected superficial lesions caused by bacteria susceptible to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 5929, Feb. 8, 2007; 74 FR 22822, May 15, 2009; 77 FR 3598, Jan. 25, 2012; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044g" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044g   Gentamicin, betamethasone, and clotrimazole ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram (g) of ointment contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 3 milligrams (mg) gentamicin base, betamethasone valerate equivalent to 1 mg betamethasone, and 10 mg clotrimazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of 7.5- or 15-gram (g) tubes, 12.5-, 30-, or 215-g bottles.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 069043 for use of 10-, 20-, 40-, or 215-g bottles.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 025463 for use of 7.5- or 15-g tubes, or 215-g bottles.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill ointment twice daily into the ear canal for 7 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(i) From 7.5- or 15-g tubes; 10-, 12.5-, or 30-g bottles: 4 drops for dogs weighing less than 30 pounds (lb) or 8 drops for dogs weighing 30 lb or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) From 20-, 40-, or 215-g bottles: 2 drops for dogs weighing less than 30 lb or 4 drops for dogs weighing 30 lb or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) From 20- or 215-g bottles: 2 drops for dogs weighing less than 30 lb or 4 drops for dogs weighing 30 lb or more.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute and chronic canine otitis externa associated with yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>, formerly <I>Pityrosporum canis</I>) and/or bacteria susceptible to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 38973, July 21, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 31932, June 11, 1998; 68 FR 42970, July 21, 2003; 70 FR 8291, Feb. 18, 2005; 71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006; 71 FR 16481, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 38261, July 6, 2006; 71 FR 56867, Sept. 28, 2006; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014; 81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016; 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044h" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044h   Gentamicin, mometasone, and clotrimazole otic suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of suspension contains gentamicin sulfate, United States Pharmacopeia (USP) equivalent to 3 milligram (mg) gentamicin base, mometasone furoate monohydrate or mometasone furoate anhydrous, USP, equivalent to 1 mg mometasone, and 10 mg clotrimazole, USP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054925 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For dogs weighing less than 30 pounds (lb), instill 4 drops from the 7.5 gram (g), 15 g, or 30 g bottles (2 drops from the 215 g bottle) once daily into the ear canal. For dogs weighing 30 lb or more, instill 8 drops from the 7.5 g, 15 g, or 30 g bottles (4 drops from the 215 g bottle) once daily into the ear canal. Therapy should continue for 7 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa caused by susceptible strains of yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>) and bacteria (<I>Pseudomonas</I> spp. [including <I>P. aeruginosa</I>], coagulase-positive staphylococci, <I>Enterococcus faecalis, Proteus mirabilis,</I> and beta-hemolytic streptococci).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 712, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 15370, Mar. 31, 2003; 70 FR 36338, June 23, 2005; 79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014; 81 FR 59134, Aug. 29, 2016; 91 FR 20342, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1044i" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1044i   Gentamicin and betamethasone ophthalmic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 3 milligrams (mg) of gentamicin base and 1 mg betamethasone acetate equivalent to 0.89 mg betamethasone alcohol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill one or two drops of solution in the conjunctival sac three or four times a day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment of external eye infections and inflammation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 54492, Sept. 8, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 13230, Mar. 13, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1132" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1132   Hydrocortisone, miconazole, and gentamicin otic suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of suspension contains 1.11 milligrams (mg) hydrocortisone aceponate, 17.4 mg miconazole nitrate, and 1.5 mg gentamicin (as gentamicin sulfate).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No.051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill 1.0 mL in the affected ear once daily for 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa in dogs associated with susceptible strains of yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>) and bacteria (<I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78150, Dec. 16, 2011, as amended at 83 FR 13635, Mar. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1140" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1140   Imidacloprid and ivermectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product is available in unit applicator tubes containing 0.4, 1.0, 2.5, or 4.0 milliliters (mL). Each mL of solution contains 100 milligrams (mg) imidacloprid and 800 micrograms (µg) ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of Use in Dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The recommended minimum dosage is 4.5 mg/pound (lb) (10 mg/kilogram (kg)) of imidacloprid and 36.4 µg/lb (80 µg/kg) of ivermectin, topically once a month.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for Use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>; kills adult fleas and is indicated for the treatment of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78685, Dec. 26, 2002, as amended at 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1144j" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1144j   Gentamicin, posaconazole, and mometasone furoate otic suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> A 0.8 milliliters (mL) dose delivers 6.88 milligrams (mg) gentamicin, 2.08 mg posaconazole, and 1.68 mg mometasone furoate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—This product should be administered by a veterinary professional.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> The dose volume is 0.8 mL per affected ear. Verify the tympanic membrane is intact prior to administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa associated with susceptible strains of yeast <I>(Malassezia pachydermatis)</I> and bacteria <I>(Staphylococcus pseudintermedius and Pseudomonas aeruginosa))</I> in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1146" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1146   Imidacloprid and moxidectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 milligrams (mg) imidacloprid and 25 mg moxidectin; or
</P>
<P>(2) 100 mg imidacloprid and 10 mg moxidectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 017030, 051072, 051311, 055529, 058198, and 061133for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 017030, 051072, 051311, 055529, 058198, and 061133 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 051072, 055529, 058198, 061133, and 061651 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Topically apply 4.5 mg/lb body weight (10 mg/kg) imidacloprid and 1.1 mg/lb (2.5 mg/kg) moxidectin, once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>; and the treatment and control of intestinal roundworms (<I>Toxocara canis</I> and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I>), hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I>), and whipworms (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I>); kills adult fleas and treats flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>).
</P>
<P>(B) For treatment of <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I> circulating microfilariae in heartworm-positive dogs and the treatment and control of sarcoptic mange caused by <I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I> var. <I>canis.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Topically apply 4.5 mg/lb body weight (10 mg/kg) imidacloprid and 0.45 mg/lb (1.0 mg/kg) moxidectin, once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>; for the treatment and control of ear mite (<I>Otodectes cynotis</I>) infestations, intestinal roundworms (<I>Toxocara cati</I>), and hookworms (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I>); kills adult fleas and treats flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ferrets</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Topically apply 9.0 mg/lb body weight (20 mg/kg) imidacloprid and 0.9 mg/lb (2 mg/kg) moxidectin, once a month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis</I>; kills adult fleas (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and is indicated for the treatment of flea infestations on ferrets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 10597, Mar. 9, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 73698, Dec. 9, 2013; 85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 13185, Mar. 8, 2021; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 17946, Mar. 29, 2022; 87 FR 58963, Sept. 29, 2022; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023; 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024; 90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1193" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1193   Ivermectin topical solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 5 milligrams of ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010, 016592, 055529, 058829, and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.344 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One mL per 22 pounds (0.5 milligram per kilogram) of body weight applied topically to the back of the animal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> It is used for the treatment and control of: Gastrointestinal roundworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) <I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (including inhibited stage), <I>Haemonchus placei, Trichostrongylus axei,</I> <I>T. colubriformis, Cooperia oncophora,</I> <I>C. punctata, C. surnabada,</I> <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I> (adults); <I>Strongyloides papillosus, Trichuris</I> spp.; lungworms (adults and fourth-stage larvae) <I>Dictyocaulus viviparus;</I> cattle grubs (parasitic stages) <I>Hypoderma bovis, H. lineatum;</I> mites <I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I> var. <I>bovis;</I> lice <I>Linognathus vituli, Haematopinus eurysternus,</I> <I>Damalinia bovis, Solenoptes capillatus;</I> and horn flies <I>Haematobia irritans.</I> It controls infections and prevents reinfection with <I>O. radiatum</I> and <I>D. viviparus</I> for 28 days after treatment, <I>C. punctata</I> and <I>T. axei</I> for 21 days after treatment, <I>O. ostertagi, H. placei,</I> <I>C. oncophora,</I> and <I>C. surnabada</I> for 14 days after treatment, and <I>D. bovis</I> for 56 days after treatment.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not treat cattle within 48 days of slaughter. Do not use on female dairy cattle of breeding age or on calves to be processed for veal. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 50551, Dec. 7, 1990, as amended at 62 FR 38908, July 21, 1997; 62 FR 63271, Nov. 28, 1997; 63 FR 44385, Aug. 19, 1998; 66 FR 13236, Mar. 5, 2001; 66 FR 63165, Dec. 5, 2001; 68 FR 3817, Jan. 27, 2003; 68 FR 4713, Jan. 30, 2003; 69 FR 501, Jan. 6, 2004; 69 FR 62181, Oct. 25, 2004; 71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006; 72 FR 6464, Feb. 12, 2007; 74 FR 36112, July 22, 2009; 75 FR 26648, May 12, 2010; 76 FR 81807, Dec. 29, 2011; 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 78 FR 63872, Oct. 25, 2013; 81 FR 25328, Apr. 28, 2016; 83 FR 13635, Mar. 30, 2018; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 13185, Mar. 8, 2021; 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023; 89 FR 42360, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1195" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1195   Ivermectin otic suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tube contains 0.5 milliliter (mL) of a 0.01 percent suspension of ivermectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer the contents of one 0.5-mL tube topically into each external ear canal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of adult ear mite (<I>Otodectes cynotis</I>) infestations in cats and kittens 4 weeks of age and older. Effectiveness against eggs and immature stages has not been proven.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 7578, Jan. 24, 2001, as amended at 74 FR 26782, June 4, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1200   Kanamycin ophthalmic and topical dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1200a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1200a   Kanamycin ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains 3.5 milligrams kanamycin activity as kanamycin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply a thin film to the affected eye three or four times daily or more frequently if deemed advisable. Treatment should be continued for at least 48 hours after the eye appears normal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of various eye infections (conjunctivitis, blepharitis, dacryocystitis, keratitis, and corneal ulcerations) due to bacteria sensitive to kanamycin. For prophylaxis in traumatic conditions, removal of foreign bodies, and intraocular surgery.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10969, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1200b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1200b   Kanamycin ophthalmic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 10 milligrams kanamycin activity as kanamycin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill a few drops into the affected eye every 3 hours or more frequently if deemed advisable. Administer as frequently as possible for the first 48 hours, after which the frequency of applications may be decreased. Treatment should be continued for at least 48 hours after the eye appears normal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of various eye infections (conjunctivitis, blepharitis, dacryocystitis, keratitis, and corneal ulcerations) due to bacteria sensitive to kanamycin. For prophylaxis in traumatic conditions, removal of foreign bodies, and intraocular surgery.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1204" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1204   Kanamycin, amphomycin, and hydrocortisone ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains 5 milligrams kanamycin activity as kanamycin sulfate, 5 milligrams of amphomycin activity as the calcium salt, and 10 milligrams of hydrocortisone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply to the affected areas of the skin at least twice daily. In severe or widespread lesions it may be desirable to apply the ointment more than twice daily. After some improvement is observed, treatment can usually be reduced to once daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute otitis externa, furunculosis, folliculitis, pruritus, anal gland infections, erythema, decubital ulcers, superficial wounds, and superficial abscesses associated with bacterial infections caused by organisms susceptible to one or both antibiotics.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1240" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1240   Levamisole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 200 milligrams of levamisole per milliliter of diethylene glycol monobutyl ether (DGME) solution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.350 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use. Cattle</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2.5 milliliters per 110 pounds (10 milligrams of levamisole per kilogram) of body weight as a single dose topically to the back of the animal. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Anthelmintic effective against stomach worms (<I>Haemonchus, Trichostrongylus, Ostertagia</I>), intestinal worms (<I>Trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodirus, Bunostomum, Oesophagostomum, Chabertia</I>), and lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Conditions of constant helminth exposure may require retreatment within 2 to 4 weeks after the first treatment. Cattle must not be slaughtered within 9 days following last treatment. Do not administer to dairy animals of breeding age. Do not treat animals before dipping or prior to exposure to heavy rain. Consult your veterinarian for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism, and before using in severely debilitated animals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10887, Apr. 6, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 7504, Mar. 9, 1988; 62 FR 61626, Nov. 19, 1997; 67 FR 78355, Dec. 24, 2002; 79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1312" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1312   Marbofloxacin, terbinafine, and dexamethasone otic suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-use tube contains 15.1 milligrams (mg) marbofloxacin, 22.7 mg terbinafine, and 2.01 mg dexamethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one dose (1 tube) per affected ear once. Do not clean the ear canal for 30 days after administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa associated with susceptible strains of yeast <I>(Malassezia pachydermatis)</I> and bacteria <I>(Staphylococcus pseudintermedius)</I> in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1376" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1376   2-Mercaptobenzothiazole solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 1.3 percent 2-mercaptobenzothiazole in a suitable solvent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 017135 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply twice daily to affected area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For dogs as an aid in the treatment of hot spots (moist dermatitis) and as first aid for scrapes and abrasions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Clip hair from affected area before applying. If no improvement is seen within 1 week, consult a veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 15618, Apr. 12, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 50913, Aug. 22, 2000; 68 FR 33381, June 4, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1443" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1443   Miconazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of cream contains miconazole nitrate equivalent to 20 milligrams miconazole base.
</P>
<P>(2) Each gram of lotion or spray contains miconazole nitrate equivalent to 1 percent miconazole base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of cream, lotion, and spray;
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058829 for use of lotion and spray.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply once daily by rubbing into or spraying a light covering on the infected site and the immediate surrounding vicinity. Continue treatment for 2 to 4 weeks until infection is completely eradicated as determined by appropriate laboratory examination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For topical treatment of infections caused by <I>Microsporum canis</I>, <I>Microsporum gypseum</I>, and <I>Trichophyton mentagrophytes.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006, as amended at 91 FR 41560, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1445" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1445   Miconazole, polymixin B, and prednisolone suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 23 milligrams (mg) miconazole nitrate, 0.5293 mg polymixin B sulfate, and 5 mg prednisolone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill five drops in the ear canal twice daily for 7 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of canine otitis externa associated with susceptible strains of yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>) and bacteria (<I>Staphylococcus pseudintermedius</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[ 75 FR 4693, Jan. 29, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 46613, Aug. 6, 2012; 81 FR 48703, July 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1446" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1446   Milbemycin otic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each tube contains 0.25 milliliter of a 0.1 percent solution of milbemycin oxime.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> One tube administered topically into each external ear canal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of ear mite (<I>Otodectes cynotis</I>) infestations in cats and kittens 4 weeks of age and older. Effectiveness is maintained throughout the life cycle of the ear mite.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 13905, Mar. 15, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 13849, Mar. 8, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1448" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1448   Mirtazapine transdermal ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains 20 milligrams (mg) mirtazapine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically by applying a 1.5 inch ribbon of ointment (approximately 2 mg) on the inner pinna of the cat's ear once daily for 14 days. Alternate the daily application of ointment between the left and right inner pinna of the ears.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For body weight gain in cats with a history of weight loss.




</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64740, Dec. 18, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 45308, July 28, 2020; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1450" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1450   Moxidectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 5 milligrams (mg) moxidectin (0.5 percent solution).
</P>
<P>(2) 25 mg moxidectin (2.5 percent solution).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) No. 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.426 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically 0.5 mg per kilogram (kg) of body weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Beef and dairy cattle: For treatment and control of internal and external parasites: gastrointestinal roundworms (<I>Ostertagia ostertagi</I> (adult and L4, including inhibited larvae), <I>Haemonchus placei</I> (adult and L4), <I>Trichostrongylus axei</I> (adult and L4), <I>T. colubriformis</I> (adult and L4), <I>Cooperia oncophora</I> (adult and L4), <I>C. pectinata</I> (adult), <I>C. punctata</I> (adult and L4), <I>C. spatulata</I> (adult), <I>C. surnabada</I> (adult and L4), <I>Bunostomum phlebotomum</I> (adult), <I>Oesophagostomum radiatum</I> (adult and L4), <I>Nematodirus helvetianus</I> (adult and L4)); lungworms (<I>Dictyocaulus viviparus</I> (adult and L4)); cattle grubs (<I>Hypoderma bovis, H. lineatum</I>); mites (<I>Chorioptes bovis, Psoroptes ovis</I> (<I>P. communis</I> var. <I>bovis</I>)); lice (<I>Linognathus vituli, Haematopinus eurysternus,</I> <I>Solenopotes capillatus, Bovicola</I> (<I>Damalinia</I>) <I>bovis</I>); and horn flies (<I>Haematobia irritans</I>). To control infections and to protect from reinfection with <I>H. placei</I> for 14 days after treatment, <I>O. radiatum</I> and <I>O. ostertagi</I> for 28 days after treatment, and <I>D. viviparus</I> for 42 days after treatment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> A withdrawal period has not been established for this product on preruminating calves. Do not use on calves to be processed for veal. See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dogs</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically a minimum of 1.1 mg per pound (lb) (2.5 mg/kg) of body weight, once monthly using the appropriate preloaded applicator tube.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis,</I> as well as the treatment and control of intestinal hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma caninum</I> (adult, immature adult, and L4 larvae) and <I>Uncinaria stenocephala</I> (adult, immature adult, and L4 larvae)), roundworm (<I>Toxocara canis</I> (adult and L4 larvae) and <I>Toxascaris leonina</I> (adult)), and whipworm (<I>Trichuris vulpis</I> (adult)) infections in dogs and puppies that are at least 7 weeks of age and that weigh at least 3 lbs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14036, Mar. 24, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 36617, June 9, 2000; 66 FR 46370, Sept. 5, 2001. Redesignated at 76 FR 48715, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 53460, Sept. 4, 2015; 82 FR 21691, May 10, 2017; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1465" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1465   Mupirocin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of ointment contains 20 milligrams mupirocin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 025463, 051672, and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply twice daily. Treatment should not exceed 30 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the topical treatment of bacterial infections of the skin, including superficial pyoderma, caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> and <I>S. intermedius.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 18119, Apr. 11, 2007, as amended at 75 FR 79296, Dec. 20, 2010; 78 FR 52854, Aug. 27, 2013; 79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014; 82 FR 11508, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484   Neomycin ophthalmic and topical dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484b   Neomycin, isoflupredone, and tetracaine powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 15-gram insufflator bottle contains 5 milligrams (mg) neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 3.5 mg neomycin base), 1 mg isoflupredone acetate, and 5 mg tetracaine hydrochloride in a powder base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses, dogs, and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply to affected areas as a dusting powder.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment or as adjunctive therapy of certain ear and skin conditions caused by or associated with neomycin-susceptible organisms and/or allergy; as a superficial dressing applied to minor cuts, wounds, lacerations, abrasions, and for postsurgical application where reduction of pain and inflammatory response is deemed desirable; as a dusting powder following amputation of tails, claws, and dewclaws and following ear trimming, castrating, and such surgical procedures as ovariohysterectomies. For the treatment of acute otitis externa, acute moist dermatitis, and interdigital dermatitis in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 18172, Apr. 28, 1978; 79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014; 85 FR 45308, July 28, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484c" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484c   Neomycin, isoflupredone, and tetracaine ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 5 milligrams of neomycin sulfate (equivalent to 3.5 milligrams of neomycin base), 1 milligram of isoflupredone acetate, and 5 milligrams of tetracaine hydrochloride in each gram of ointment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> In treatment of otitis externa and other inflammatory conditions of the external ear canal, a quantity of ointment sufficient to fill the external ear canal; may be applied one to three times daily. When used on the skin or mucous membranes, the affected area should be cleansed, and a small amount of the ointment applied and spread or rubbed in gently. The involved area may be treated one to three times a day and these daily applications continued in accordance with the clinical response.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute otitis externa in dogs and to a lesser degree, chronic otitis externa in dogs. It also is effective in treating anal gland infections and moist dermatitis in the dog and is a useful dressing for minor cuts, lacerations, abrasions, and post-surgical therapy in the horse, cat, and dog. It may also be used following amputation of dewclaws, tails and claws, following ear trimming and castrating operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 18172, Apr. 28, 1978; 79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484d" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484d   Neomycin, hydrocortisone, and tetracaine otic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product contains 5 milligrams of neomycin sulfate, equivalent to 3.5 milligrams of neomycin base, 5 milligrams of hydrocortisone acetate, and 5 milligrams of tetracaine hydrochloride in each gram of ointment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill a quantity of ointment sufficient to fill the external ear canal; may be applied one to three times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of ear canker and other inflammatory conditions of the external ear canal, acute otitis externa and, to a lesser degree, chronic otitis externa.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 21922, May 24, 1984; 79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484e" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484e   Neomycin and polymyxin B ophthalmic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of the ophthalmic preparation contains 5.0 milligrams neomycin sulfate (3.5 milligrams neomycin base), and 10,000 Units of polymyxin B sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill 1 to 2 drops per eye every 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of bacterial infections associated with topical ophthalmological conditions such as corneal injuries, superficial keratitis, conjunctivitis, keratoconjunctivitis, and blepharitis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 5507, Feb. 13, 1996; 79 FR 10970, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484f" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484f   Neomycin, prednisolone, and tetracaine otic suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product contains 5 milligrams of neomycin sulfate equivalent to 3.5 milligrams of neomycin base, 2.5 milligrams of prednisolone acetate, and 5 milligrams of tetracaine hydrochloride in each milliliter of sterile suspension. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Instill 2 to 6 drops in the external ear canal 2 or 3 times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute otitis externa and, to a lesser degree, chronic otitis externa; as treatment or adjunctive therapy of certain ear conditions caused by or associated with neomycin-susceptible organisms and/or allergy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 79 FR 10971, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484g" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484g   Neomycin, thiabendazole, and dexamethasone solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 40 milligrams (mg) thiabendazole, 3.2 mg neomycin (from neomycin sulfate), and 1 mg dexamethasone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000010 and 017033 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> In treating dermatoses affecting areas other than the ear, the surface of the lesions should be well moistened (2 to 4 drops per square inch) twice daily. In treating otitis externa, instill 5 to 15 drops in the ear twice daily. Treat for up to 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the treatment of bacterial, mycotic, and inflammatory dermatoses and otitis externa.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 62 FR 63271, Nov. 28, 1997; 79 FR 10971, Feb. 27, 2014; 80 FR 61297, Oct. 13, 2015; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484h" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484h   Neomycin, penicillin, polymyxin B, and hydrocortisone suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 25 milligrams of neomycin sulfate equivalent to 17.5 milligrams of neomycin, 10,000 international units of penicillin G procaine, 5,000 international units of polymyxin B sulfate, 2 milligrams of hydrocortisone acetate, and 1.25 milligrams of hydrocortisone sodium succinate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Rub a small amount into the affected area 1 to 3 times a day. After definite improvement, apply once daily or every other day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of summer eczema, atopic dermatitis, interdigital eczema, and otitis externa caused by bacteria susceptible to neomycin, penicillin, and polymyxin B.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use—dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Rub a small amount into the involved area 1 to 3 times a day. After definite improvement, it may be applied once a day or every other day. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Treatment of summer eczema, atopic dermatitis, interdigital eczema, and otitis externa caused by bacteria susceptible to neomycin, penicillin, and polymyxin B.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in dogs only. Shake drug thoroughly and clean lesion before using. If redness, irritation, or swelling persists or increases, discontinue use and reevaluate diagnosis. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 5105, Feb. 3, 1994, as amended at 79 FR 10971, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484i" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484i   Neomycin and hydrocortisone ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 5 milligrams of neomycin sulfate, equivalent to 3.5 milligrams of neomycin base, and 5 milligrams of hydrocortisone acetate in each gram of ointment.
<SU>1</SU> 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply 3 or 4 times daily into the conjunctival sac. With improvement, frequency may be reduced to 2 or 3 times daily. For treatment of ear canker and other inflammatory conditions of the external ear canal, fill external ear canal 1 to 3 times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of infections, allergic and traumatic keratitis, conjunctivitis, acute otitis externa and, to a lesser degree, chronic otitis externa.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 40456, Sept. 12, 1978, as amended at 79 FR 10971, Feb. 27, 2014] 






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1484k" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1484k   Neomycin and prednisolone suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of suspension contains 2.5 milligrams of prednisolone acetate and 5 milligrams of neomycin sulfate equivalent to 3.5 milligrams of neomycin base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For beginning treatment of acute ocular inflammations place 1 or 2 drops in the conjunctival sac 3 to 6 times during a 24 hour period. When improvement occurs, reduce the dosage to 1 drop 2 to 4 times daily. For otitis externa, place 2 to 6 drops in the external ear canal 2 or 3 times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of treating infectious, allergic and traumatic keratitis and conjunctivitis, acute otitis externa, and chronic otitis externa.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10971, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1580" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1580   Nitrofurazone topical dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1580a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1580a   Nitrofurazone ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 0.2 percent nitrofurazone in a water-soluble base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(1) See Nos. 058005, 059051, 061133, and 069043 for use on dogs, cats, or horses.
</P>
<P>(2) See No. 017135 for use on dogs and horses.
</P>
<P>(3) See Nos. 017153 and 058829 for use on horses.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply directly on the lesion with a spatula or first place on a piece of gauze. The preparation should remain on the lesion for at least 24 hours. Use of a bandage is optional.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention or treatment of surface bacterial infections of wounds, burns, and cutaneous ulcers of dogs, cats, or horses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For use only on dogs, cats, and horses. Do not use on horses intended for human consumption. Federal law prohibits the use of this product in food-producing animals. In case of deep or puncture wounds or serious burns, use only as recommended by veterinarian. If redness, irritation, or swelling persists or increases, discontinue use; consult veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43402, June 27, 1980. Redesignated at 79 FR 10971, Feb. 27, 2014]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 524.1580a, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1580b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1580b   Nitrofurazone soluble powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 0.2 percent nitrofurazone in a water-soluble base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 059051 and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply several times daily to the lesion or affected area from the plastic squeeze bottle. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention or treatment of surface bacterial infections of wounds, burns, skin ulcers, and abscesses after incision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> In case of deep or puncture wounds or serious burns, use only as recommended by veterinarian. If redness, irritation, or swelling persists or increases, discontinue use; consult veterinarian. For use only on dogs, cats, and horses (not for food use).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 43402, June 27, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 43368, Oct. 1, 1982; 48 FR 28984, June 24, 1983; 53 FR 40728, Oct. 18, 1988; 54 FR 30542, July 21, 1989; 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 59 FR 33197, June 28, 1994; 60 FR 55659, Nov. 2, 1995; 62 FR 35077, June 30, 1997; 76 FR 17778, Mar. 31, 2011; 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013. Redesignated at 79 FR 10971, Feb. 27, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 64117, Oct. 28, 2014; 83 FR 48947, Sept. 28, 2018] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1600" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1600   Nystatin ophthalmic and topical dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1600a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1600a   Nystatin, neomycin, thiostrepton, and triamcinolone ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of petrolatum base or each gram of vanishing cream base ointment contains: 100,000 units of nystatin; neomycin sulfate equivalent to 2.5 milligrams of neomycin base; 2,500 units of thiostrepton; and 1.0 milligram of triamcinolone acetonide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) For petrolatum base ointments: Nos. 025463 and 054771; or
</P>
<P>(2) For vanishing cream base ointments: Nos. 025463 and 054771.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> (i) For topical dermatological use: Clean affected areas and remove any encrusted discharge or exudate, and apply sparingly either ointment in a thin film.
</P>
<P>(ii) For otic use: Clean ear canal of impacted cerumen, remove any foreign bodies such as grass awns and ticks, and instill three to five drops of petrolatum base ointment. Preliminary use of a local anesthetic may be advisable.
</P>
<P>(iii) For infected anal glands and cystic areas: Drain gland or cyst and fill with petrolatum base ointment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> (i) Topically: Use either ointment in dogs and cats for anti-inflammatory, antipruritic, antifungal, and antibacterial treatment of superficial bacterial infections, and for dermatologic disorders characterized by inflammation and dry or exudative dermatitis, particularly associated with bacterial or candidal (<I>Candida albicans</I>) infections.
</P>
<P>(ii) Otitis, cysts, and anal gland infections: Use petrolatum base ointment in dogs and cats for the treatment of acute and chronic otitis and interdigital cysts, and in dogs for anal gland infections.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 29770, July 11, 1978; 50 FR 41490, Oct. 11, 1985; 53 FR 39257, Oct. 6, 1988; 54 FR 5431, Feb. 3, 1989; 54 FR 48090, Nov. 21, 1989; 56 FR 50653, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55660, Nov. 2, 1995; 61 FR 63712, Dec. 2, 1996; 64 FR 42831, Aug. 6, 1999; 67 FR 67521, Nov. 6, 2002; 68 FR 55201, Sept. 23, 2003; 70 FR 50183, Aug. 26, 2005; 71 FR 13542, Mar. 16, 2006; 79 FR 10972, Feb. 27, 2014; 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1600b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1600b   Nystatin, neomycin, thiostrepton, and triamcinolone ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each cubic centimeter of ointment contains: 100,000 units of nystatin, neomycin sulfate equivalent to 2.5 milligrams of neomycin base, 2,500 units of thiostrepton, and 1.0 milligram of triamcinolone acetonide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 053501 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.430 and 556.470 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Dogs and cats</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Apply 1 drop of ointment to the affected eye(s) 2 or 3 times daily. Treatment may be continued for up to 2 weeks if necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as an anti-inflammatory, antipruritic, antifungal (<I>Candida albicans</I>), and antibacterial ointment for local therapy in keratitis and conjunctivitis.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Apply small line of ointment to the affected eye(s) once daily. Treatment may be continued for up to 2 weeks if necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For infectious kerato-conjunctivitis (pinkeye).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 41490, Oct. 11, 1985; 79 FR 10972, Feb. 27, 2014; 84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1610" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1610   Orbifloxacin, mometasone furoate monohydrate, and posaconazole suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of suspension contains 10 milligrams (mg) orbifloxacin, mometasone furoate monohydrate equivalent to 1 mg mometasone furoate, and 1 mg posaconazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For dogs weighing less than 30 lbs. instill 4 drops once daily into the ear canal. For dogs weighing 30 lbs. or more, instill 8 drops into the ear canal. Therapy should continue for 7 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa associated with susceptible strains of yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>) and bacteria (coagulase-positive staphylococci, <I>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</I>, and <I>Enterococcus faecalis</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16346, Apr. 1, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1662" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1662   Oxytetracycline ophthalmic and topical dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1662a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1662a   Oxytetracycline and hydrocortisone spray.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 3-ounce unit of oxytetracycline hydrochloride and hydrocortisone spray contains 300 milligrams of oxytetracycline hydrochloride and 100 milligrams of hydrocortisone with an inert freon propellant such that a 1-second spray treatment will deliver approximately 2.5 milligrams of oxytetracycline hydrochloride and 0.8 milligram of hydrocortisone. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> A small quantity should be sprayed on the affected surface by holding the container about 6 inches from the area to be treated and pressing the nozzle for 1 or 2 seconds. Only sufficient spray to coat the skin thinly is necessary. The application of small amounts at frequent intervals will give best results. Before treating animals with long or matted hair, it may be necessary to clip the affected area or spread the hairs to allow the medication to contact the skin surface. Relief may be noted following the first or second treatment; however, treatment should not be discontinued too soon after the initial favorable response has been obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the relief of discomfort and continued treatment of many allergic, infectious, and traumatic skin conditions; for the prevention of bacterial infections in superficial wounds, cuts, and abrasions, treatment of allergic dermatoses, including urticaria, eczemas, insect bites, and cutaneous drug reactions, infections associated with minor burns and wounds, and nonspecific pruritus.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Keep away from eyes or other mucous membranes; avoid inhaling; use with adequate ventilation; in case of deep or puncture wounds or serious burns, consult a veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 79 FR 10972, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1662b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1662b   Oxytetracycline and polymyxin B ophthalmic ointment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each gram of the ointment contains oxytetracycline hydrochloride equivalent to 5 milligrams of oxytetracycline and 10,000 units of polymyxin B sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically to the eye two to four times daily.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prophylaxis and local treatment of superficial ocular infections due to oxytetracycline- and polymyxin-sensitive organisms including ocular infections due to streptococci, rickettsiae, <I>E. coli,</I> and <I>A. aerogenes</I> (such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, pinkeye, corneal ulcer, and blepharitis in dogs, cats, cattle, sheep, and horses); ocular infections due to secondary bacterial complications associated with distemper in dogs; and ocular infections due to bacterial inflammatory conditions which may occur secondary to other infectious diseases in dogs, cats, cattle, sheep, and horses.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 79 FR 10972, Feb. 27, 2014; 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1742" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1742   Phosmet emulsifiable liquid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The emulsifiable liquid contains 11.6 percent <I>N-</I>(mercaptomethyl) phthalimide <I>S</I>-(<I>O,O-</I> dimethyl phosphorodithioate). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See 40 CFR 180.261.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Methods of application.</I> Methods of application to control the following conditions on beef cattle:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(1)


</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">To control/method of use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dilution rate (gal. drug: gal. of water)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grubs:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pour-on</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spray</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lice:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pour-on</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:2 or 1:5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spray</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:49 or 1:100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hornflies:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spray</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:49 or 1:100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cattle Ticks:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:60 or 1:240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spray</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Southern cattle ticks:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:60 or 1:240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spray</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scabies mites:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lone Star Ticks:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spray</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1:49 or 1:100</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>Dip vat procedure.</I> (A) Prior to charging vat, empty old contents and thoroughly clean the vat. Dip vats should be calibrated to maintain an accurate dilution. Add water, then drug to the vat according to the dilution rate indicated in the table. Add super phosphate at a rate of 100 pounds per 1,000 gallons of vat solution. Super phosphate is added to control the pH of the solution and ensure vat stability. Super phosphate is usually available at most fertilizer dealers as 0-45-0 or 0-46-0. Stir the dip thoroughly, preferably with a compressed air device; however, any form of thorough mixing is adequate. Re-stir vat contents prior to each use. During the dipping operation, each time the dip's volume is reduced by 
<FR>1/8</FR> to 
<FR>1/4</FR> of its initial volume, replenish with water and add the drug at a rate of 1 gallon for each 50 or 200 gallons water added—depending on dilution rate 1:60 or 1:240. Also add super phosphate as necessary to maintain pH between 4.5 and 6.5. Stir well and resume dipping. Repeat replenishment process as necessary. For evaportion, add additional water accordingly. For added water due to rainfall, merely replenish dip with the product according to directions. If overflow occurs, either analyze for drug concentration and adjust accordingly or dispose of vat contents and recharge. Check pH after each addition of water or super phosphate to assure proper pH controls.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Dip maintenance.</I> (<I>1</I>) With use of dip vat tester, dipping may continue as long as the drug concentration is maintained between 0.15 and 0.25 percent, and the dip is not too foul for satisfactory use as indicated by foul odor or excessive darkening (i.e., color changes from beige to very dark brown).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Without use of dip vat tester, vat should be emptied, cleaned, and recharged each time one of the following occurs: When the dip has been charged for 120 days; when the dip becomes too foul for satisfactory use, within the 120-day limit; if the number of animals dipped equals twice the number of gallons of the initial dip volume, within the 120-day limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Spray method.</I> To prepare the spray, mix drug with water according to table and stir thoroughly. Apply the fresh mixture as a high-pressure spray, taking care to wet the skin, not just the hair. Apply to the point of “runoff,” about 1 gallon of diluted spray per adult animal. Lesser amounts will permit runoff for younger animals.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pour-on method.</I> Dilute the drug with water according to table by slowly adding water to the product while stirring. Apply 1 ounce of the diluted mixture per 100 pounds of body weight (to a maximum of 8 ounces per head) down the center line of the back.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of applications for cattle grub control.</I> For optimum cattle grub control, it is important to treat as soon as possible after the heel fly season, before the grub larvae reach the gullet or spinal canal, as the rapid kill of large numbers of larvae in these tissues may cause toxic side effects, such as bloat, salivation, staggering, and paralysis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment regimens.</I> (i) Control of scabies mites requires two treatments, 10 to 14 days apart.
</P>
<P>(ii) Control of Lone Star Ticks and hornflies requires two treatments, 7 days apart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Warnings.</I> The drug is a cholinesterase inhibitor. Do not use this drug on animals simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. Do not apply within 21 days of slaughter. For use on beef cattle only. Do not treat sick, convalescent, or stressed cattle, or calves less than 3 months old except in Federal or State eradication programs where immediate treatment of all animals in an infested herd is mandatory. Be sure free access to drinking water is available to cattle prior to dipping. Do not dip excessively thirsty animals. Do not dip animals when overheated. Repeat treatment as necessary but not more often than every 7 to 10 days. Treatment for lice, ticks, hornflies, and scabies mites may be made any time of the year except when cattle grub larvae are in the gullet or spinal canal. Treatment for lice, ticks, and scabies mites may be made any time 7 to 10 days following treatment for grubs. Do not treat grubs when the grub larvae are in the gullet or spinal canal. Do not get in eyes, on skin, or on clothing. Do not breathe spray mist. Wear rubber gloves, goggles, and protective clothing. In case of skin contact, wash immediately with soap and water; for eyes, flush with water. Wash all contaminated clothing with soap and hot water before re-use. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 46 FR 27914, May 22, 1981; 48 FR 39607, Sept. 1, 1983; 54 FR 51021, Dec. 12, 1989; 61 FR 8873, Mar. 6, 1996; 62 FR 61626, Nov. 19, 1997; 63 FR 5255, Feb. 2, 1998; 85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.1982" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.1982   Proparacaine ophthalmic solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is an aqueous solution containing 0.5 percent proparacaine hydrochloride, 2.45 percent glycerin as a stabilizer, and 0.2 percent chlorobutanol (choral derivative) and 1:10,000 benzalkonium chloride as preservatives. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs and cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> It is administered as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For removal of sutures: Instill one to two drops 2 or 3 minutes before removal of stitches.
</P>
<P>(ii) For removal of foreign bodies from eye, ear, and nose: For ophthalmic use, instill three to five drops in the eye prior to examination; for otic use, instill five to ten drops in the ear; for nasal use, instill five to ten drops in each nostril every 3 minutes for three doses.
</P>
<P>(iii) For tonometry: Instill one to two drops immediately before measurement.
</P>
<P>(iv) As an aid in treatment of otitis: Instill two drops into the ear every 5 minutes for three doses.
</P>
<P>(v) For minor surgery: Instill one or more drops as required.
</P>
<P>(vi) For catheterization: Instill two to three drops with a blunt 20-gauge needle immediately before inserting catheter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a topical ophthalmic anesthetic. It is used as an anesthetic in cauterization of corneal ulcers, removal of foreign bodies and sutures from the cornea, and measurement of intraocular pressure (tonometry) when glaucoma is suspected; as an aid in the removal of foreign bodies from the nose and ear canal; as an accessory in the examination and treatment of painful otitis, in minor surgery, and prior to catheterization.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Keep away from eyes or other mucous membranes; avoid inhaling; use with adequate ventilation; in case of deep or puncture wounds or serious burns, consult a veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) The drug is indicated for use as a topical ophthalmic anesthetic in animals. It is used as an anesthetic in cauterization of corneal ulcers, removal of foreign bodies and sutures from the cornea, and measurement of intraocular pressure (tonometry) when glaucoma is suspected. Local applications may also be used as an aid in the removal of foreign bodies from the nose and ear canal, as an accessory in the examination and treatment of painful otitis, in minor surgery, and prior to catheterization. 
</P>
<P>(2) It is administered as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) For removal of sutures: Instill one to two drops 2 or 3 minutes before removal of stitches. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For removal of foreign bodies from eye, ear, and nose: For ophthalmic use, instill three to five drops in the eye prior to examination; for otic use, instill five to 10 drops in the ear; for nasal use, instill five to 10 drops in each nostril every 3 minutes for three doses. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For tonometry: Instill one to two drops immediately before measurement. 
</P>
<P>(iv) As an aid in treatment of otitis: Instill two drops into the ear every 5 minutes for three doses. 
</P>
<P>(v) For minor surgery: Instill one or more drops as required. 
</P>
<P>(vi) For catheterization: Instill two to three drops with a blunt 20-gauge needle immediately before inserting catheter. 
</P>
<P>(3) For use only by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13873, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 41490, Oct. 11, 1985; 79 FR 10972, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2080" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2080   Ropinirole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 30 milligrams (mg) ropinirole (equivalent to 34.2 mg ropinirole hydrochloride).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 052483 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Using the table provided in labeling, administer the number of eye drops topically, corresponding to body weight, that results in a target dose of 3.75 mg per square meter (mg/m
<SU>2</SU>) (dose band 2.7 to 5.4 mg/m
<SU>2</SU>). If the dog does not vomit within 20 minutes of the first dose, then a second dose may be administered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the induction of vomiting in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 13185, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2098" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2098   Selamectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter contains 60 or 120 milligrams (mg) of selamectin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 051072, 051311, 054771, 055529, 061133, and 086117 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer topically 2.7 mg of selamectin per pound (6 mg per kilogram) of body weight.</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> Kills adult fleas and prevents flea eggs from hatching for 1 month, and it is indicated for the prevention and control of flea infestations (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>), prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis,</I> and treatment and control of ear mite (<I>Otodectes cynotis</I>) infestations in dogs and cats. Treatment and control of sarcoptic mange (<I>Sarcoptes scabiei</I>) and control of tick (<I>Dermacentor variabilis</I>) infestations in dogs. Treatment and control of intestinal hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I>) and roundworm (<I>Toxocara cati</I>) infections in cats. For dogs 6 weeks of age and older, and cats 8 weeks of age and older.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 37401, July 12, 1999, as amended at 64 FR 48707, Sept. 8, 1999; 65 FR 45282, July 21, 2000; 74 FR 19878, Apr. 30, 2009; 79 FR 10972, Feb. 27, 2014; 86 FR 17064, Apr. 1, 2021; 87 FR 58963, Sept. 29, 2022; 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024; 89 FR 42360, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2099" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2099   Selamectin and sarolaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 60 milligrams (mg) selamectin and 10 mg sarolaner. The drug is provided in single dose tubes containing 0.25, 0.5, or 1 mL of solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in cats</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2.7 mg selamectin per pound (/lb) (6 mg per kilogram (/kg)) of body weight and 0.45 mg/lb sarolaner (1 mg/kg) by emptying the contents of the tube on the back of the animal at the base of the neck in front of the shoulder blades.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of heartworm disease caused by <I>Dirofilaria immitis,</I> the treatment and control of roundworm (<I>Toxocara cati</I>) and intestinal hookworm (<I>Ancylostoma tubaeforme</I>) infections, and the treatment and control of ear mite (<I>Otodectes cynotis</I>) infestations. Kills adult fleas (<I>Ctenocephalides felis</I>) and is indicated for the treatment and prevention of flea infestations, the prevention of <I>Dipylidium caninum</I> (tapeworm) infections as a direct result of killing <I>Ctenocephalides felis</I> vector fleas on the treated cat, and the treatment and control of tick infestations with <I>Amblyomma americanum</I> (lone star tick), <I>Amblyomma maculatum</I> (Gulf Coast tick), <I>Dermacentor variabilis</I> (American dog tick), and <I>Ixodes scapularis</I> (black-legged tick) for 1 month in cats and kittens 8 weeks and older, and weighing 2.8 pounds or greater.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12494, Apr. 2, 2019, as amended at 89 FR 14410, Feb. 27, 2024; 90 FR 6801, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2101" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2101   Selenium disulfide suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The product contains 0.9-percent weight in weight (w/w) selenium disulfide (1-percent weight in volume (w/v)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 017135 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use on dogs</I>—(1) <I>Indications for use.</I> For use as a cleansing shampoo and as an agent for removing skin debris associated with dry eczema, seborrhea, and nonspecific dermatoses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount.</I> One to 2 ounces per application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Use carefully around scrotum and eyes, covering scrotum with petrolatum. Allow the shampoo to remain for 5 to 15 minutes before thorough rinsing. Repeat treatment once or twice a week. If conditions persist or if rash or irritation develops, discontinue use and consult a veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 53351, Nov. 26, 1982, as amended at 48 FR 32762, July 19, 1983; 54 FR 36962, Sept. 6, 1989; 56 FR 9623, Mar. 7, 1991; 58 FR 41025, Aug. 2, 1993; 63 FR 26981, May 15, 1998; 70 FR 50183, Aug. 26, 2005; 84 FR 39184, Aug. 9, 2019; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2338" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2338   Terbinafine and betamethasone acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 10 milligrams (mg) terbinafine and 1 mg betamethasone acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 043264 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one dose (1 tube) per affected ear(s) and repeat administration in 7 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of otitis externa in dogs, associated with susceptible strains of yeast (<I>Malassezia pachydermatis</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 42360, May 15, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2350" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2350   Tolnaftate cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug contains 1 percent tolnaftate in an anhydrous cream base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply a small amount of the cream to the affected areas once or twice a day for 2 to 4 weeks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of ringworm lesions due to <I>Microsporum canis</I> and <I>Microsporum gypseum.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10972, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2482" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2482   Triamcinolone spray.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 0.15 milligrams triamcinolone acetonide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051311 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply sufficient pump sprays to uniformly and thoroughly wet the affected areas while avoiding run off of excess product. Administer twice daily for 7 days, then once daily for 7 days, then every other day for an additional 14 days (28 days total).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pruritus associated with allergic dermatitis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 4916, Jan. 31, 2003, as amended at 78 FR 17868, Mar. 25, 2013]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 524.2620" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.13.0.1.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 524.2620   Liquid crystalline trypsin, Peru balsam, castor oil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of liquid or aerosol contains 0.12 milligram of crystalline trypsin, 87.0 milligrams of Peru balsam, and 788.0 milligrams of castor oil.
</P>
<P>(2) Each gram of liquid or aerosol contains 0.1 milligram of crystalline trypsin, 72.5 milligrams of Peru balsam, and 800 milligrams of castor oil.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (c) in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 069043 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) No. 017135 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply directly to the wound site.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the treatment of external wounds and assists healing by facilitating the removal of necrotic tissue, exudate, and organic debris.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014, as amended at 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="526" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 526—INTRAMAMMARY DOSAGE FORM NEW ANIMAL DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360b.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 526.88" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.88   Amoxicillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains amoxicillin trihydrate equivalent to 62.5 milligrams (mg) amoxicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 62.5 mg amoxicillin) into each infected quarter every 12 hours for a maximum of 3 doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of subclinical infectious bovine mastitis due to <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> and <I>Straphylococcus aureus</I> (penicillin sensitive).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from animals during treatment and for 60 hours (5 milkings) after the last treatment must not be used for food. Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food purposes within 12 days after the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37334, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55660, Nov. 2, 1995; 68 FR 44878, July 31, 2003; 86 FR 13185, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.313" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.313   Ceftiofur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 125 milligrams (mg) ceftiofur equivalents as the hydrochloride salt; or
</P>
<P>(2) 500 mg ceftiofur equivalents as the hydrochloride salt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.113 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one syringe (125 mg ceftiofur equivalents) into each affected quarter. Repeat treatment in 24 hours. Once daily treatment may be repeated for up to 8 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of clinical mastitis associated with coagulase-negative staphylococci, <I>Streptococcus dysgalactiae,</I> and <I>Escherichia coli;</I> and the treatment of diagnosed subclinical mastitis associated with coagulase-negative staphylococci and <I>S. dysgalactiae</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from cows during treatment (a maximum of 8 daily infusions) and for 72 hours after the last treatment must not be used for human consumption. Following label use for up to 8 consecutive days, a 2-day preslaughter withdrawal period is required. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law prohibits extralabel use of this drug in lactating dairy cattle for disease prevention purposes; at unapproved doses; frequencies, durations, or routes of administration; and in unapproved major food-producing species/production classes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (500 mg ceftiofur equivalents) into each affected quarter at the time of dry off.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of subclinical mastitis in dairy cattle at the time of dry off associated with <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus dysgalactiae,</I> and <I>Streptococcus uberis</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from cows completing a 30-day dry-off period may be used for food with no milk discard due to ceftiofur residues. Following intramammary infusion, a 16-day preslaughter withdrawal period is required for treated cows. No preslaughter withdrawal period is required for neonatal calves from treated cows regardless of colostrum consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special considerations.</I> Federal law prohibits extralabel use of this drug in dry dairy cattle for disease prevention purposes; at unapproved doses; frequencies, durations, or routes of administration; and in unapproved major food-producing species/production classes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 9516, Feb. 28, 2005, as amended at 70 FR 20048, Apr. 18, 2005. Redesignated and amended at 71 FR 39545, July 13, 2006; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2013; 79 FR 18159, Apr. 1, 2014; 80 FR 34279, June 16, 2015; 86 FR 13185, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.363" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.363   Cephapirin benzathine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains 300 milligrams cephapirin activity (as cephapirin benzathine).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.115 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (300 mg cephapirin activity) into each quarter following last milking, but no later than 30 days before calving.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis caused by susceptible strains of <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> and <I>Staphylococcus aureus,</I> including penicillin-resistant strains.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in dry cows only. Not to be used within 30 days of calving. Milk from treated cows must not be used for food during the first 72 hours after calving. Animals infused with this product must not be slaughtered for food until 42 days after the latest infusion. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 37174, Aug. 22, 1978, as amended at 53 FR 27851, July 25, 1988; 73 FR 12262, Mar. 7, 2008; 75 FR 10168, Mar. 5, 2010; 76 FR 17338, Mar. 29, 2011; 86 FR 13186, Mar. 8, 2021; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.365" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.365   Cephapirin sodium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains 200 milligrams (mg) cephapirin sodium activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.115 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one syringe (200 mg cephapirin activity) into each infected quarter immediately after the quarter has been completely milked out. Do not milk out for 12 hours. Repeat once only in 12 hours.</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis in lactating cows caused by susceptible strains of <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> and <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> including strains resistant to penicillin.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and for 96 hours after the last treatment must not be used for food. Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food until 4 days after the last treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 57455, Dec. 10, 1975, as amended at 53 FR 27852, July 25, 1988. Redesignated at 63 FR 8349, Feb. 19, 1998; 65 FR 20733, Apr. 18, 2000; 73 FR 3181, Jan. 17, 2008; 75 FR 10168, Mar. 5, 2010; 86 FR 13186, Mar. 8, 2021; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.464" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.464   Cloxacillin benzathine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 7.5- or 10-milliliter syringe contains cloxacillin benzathine equivalent to 500 milligrams (mg) cloxacillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.165 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 500 mg cloxacillin) into each quarter immediately after last milking, but no later than 30 days before calving.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis caused by <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> and <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> including penicillin resistant strains in dairy cows during the dry period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Animals infused with this product must not be slaughtered for food until 30 days after the latest infusion. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 13186, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.465" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.465   Cloxacillin sodium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains cloxacillin sodium equivalent to 200 milligrams (mg) cloxacillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.165 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 200 mg cloxacillin) into each infected quarter. Treatment should be repeated at 12-hour intervals for a total of 3 doses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis in lactating cows due to <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> and <I>Staphylococcus aureus,</I> nonpenicillinase-producing strains.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from treated animals within 48 hours (4 milkings) after the latest treatment should not be used for food. Treated animals should not be slaughtered for food within 10 days after the latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37335, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 55660, Nov. 2, 1995; 68 FR 44878, July 31, 2003. Redesignated at 85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020. Redesignated and amended at 86 FR 13186, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.820" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.820   Erythromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each single-dose, 6-milliliter (mL) syringe contains 300 milligrams (mg) erythromycin (as the base).
</P>
<P>(2) Each single-dose, 12-mL syringe contains 600 mg erythromycin (as the base).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.230 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one 6-mL syringe (300 mg erythromycin base) into each infected quarter. Repeat infusion at 12-hour intervals for a maximum of 3 infusions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis due to <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae,</I> and <I>Streptococcus uberis</I> in lactating cows.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from animals during treatment and for 36 hours (3 milkings) after the latest treatment must not be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one 12-mL syringe (600 mg erythromycin base) into each infected quarter at the time of drying off.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis due to <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae,</I> <I>Streptococcus dysgalactiae,</I> and <I>Streptococcus uberis</I> in dry cows.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in dry cows only. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 13186, Mar. 8, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.1130" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.1130   Hetacillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains hetacillin potassium equivalent of 62.5 milligrams (mg) ampicillin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.316 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 62.5 mg ampicillin) into each infected quarter. Repeat at 24-hour intervals for a maximum of 3 treatments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of acute, chronic, or subclinical mastitis in lactating cows caused by susceptible strains of <I>Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Staphylococcus aureus,</I> and <I>Escherichia coli</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk that has been taken from animals during treatment and for 72 hours (6 milkings) after the latest treatment must not be used for food. Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food until 10 days after the latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37335, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 75 FR 10168, Mar. 5, 2010; 84 FR 53311, Oct. 7, 2019; 86 FR 13186, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.1590" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.1590   Novobiocin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 150 milligrams (mg) of novobiocin equivalents as sodium novobiocin, or
</P>
<P>(2) 400 mg of novobiocin equivalents as sodium novobiocin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.460 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 150 mg novobiocin) into each infected quarter after milking. Repeat treatment once after 24 hours. Do not milk for at least 6 hours after treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> in lactating cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from treated animals within 72 hours (6 milkings) after latest treatment should not be used for food. Do not slaughter treated animals for food for 15 days following latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 400 mg novobiocin) into each quarter at the time of drying off.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> and <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> in dry cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For udder installation for the treatment of mastitis in dry cows only. Infuse each quarter at the time of drying off, but not less than 30 days prior to calving. Do not slaughter treated animals for food for 30 days following udder infusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 13187, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.1696" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.1696   Penicillin G procaine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains penicillin G procaine equivalent to 100,000 units of penicillin G.
</P>
<P>(b) See Nos. 042791 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.510 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one 10-milliliter syringe (equivalent to 100,000 units penicillin G) into each infected quarter. Treatment may be repeated at 12-hour intervals for not more than 3 doses, as indicated by clinical response.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis caused by <I>Streptococcus agalactiae, S. dysgalactiae,</I> and <I>S. uberus</I> in lactating cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For intramammary infusion in lactating cows only. Discard all milk for 60 hours (5 milkings) after the latest treatment. Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 3 days of latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one 10-milliliter syringe (equivalent to 100,000 units penicillin G) into each infected quarter at time of drying-off.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis caused by <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> in dry cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For intramammary infusion in dry cows only. Animals intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 14 days of last treatment. Discard all milk for 72 hours (6 milkings) following calving, or later as indicated by the marketable quality of the milk. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 13187, Mar. 8, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 57998, Oct. 20, 2021; 88 FR 27700, May 3, 2023; 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.1697" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.1697   Penicillin G procaine and dihydrostreptomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-use, 10-milliliter syringe contains a suspension of:
</P>
<P>(1) Penicillin G procaine equivalent to 200,000 units penicillin G and dihydrostreptomycin sulfate equivalent to 300 milligrams dihydrostreptomycin; or
</P>
<P>(2) Penicillin G procaine equivalent to 1 million units penicillin G and dihydrostreptomycin sulfate equivalent to 1 gram dihydrostreptomycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 042791 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.200 and 556.510 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 200,000 units penicillin G and 300 milligrams dihydrostreptomycin) into each quarter at the last milking prior to drying off.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of subclinical mastitis in dairy cows at the time of drying off, specifically against infections caused by <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> and <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For use in dry cows only. Not to be used within 6 weeks of calving. Milk taken from cows within 24 hours (2 milkings) after calving must not be used for food. Animals infused with this drug must not be slaughtered for food within 60 days of treatment or within 24 hours after calving. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section in dry cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>. Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 1 million units penicillin G and 1 gram dihydrostreptomycin) into each quarter at the last milking prior to drying off.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> To reduce the frequency of existing infection and to prevent new infections with <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> in dry cows.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in lactating cows. Not to be used within 6 weeks of calving. Milk taken from cows within 96 hours (8 milkings) after calving must not be used for food. Animals infused with this drug must not be slaughtered for food within 60 days from the time of infusion or within 96 hours after calving. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37336, Aug. 18, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 83 FR 14587, Apr. 5, 2018. Redesignated and amended at 86 FR 13187, Mar. 8, 2021; 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.1698" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.1698   Penicillin G procaine and novobiocin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-use, 10-milliliter syringe contains a suspension of:
</P>
<P>(1) Penicillin G procaine equivalent to 100,000 units penicillin G and 150 milligrams (mg) novobiocin as novobiocin sodium; or
</P>
<P>(2) Penicillin G procaine equivalent to 200,000 units penicillin G and 400 mg novobiocin as novobiocin sodium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.460 and 556.510 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 100,000 units penicillin G and 150 mg novobiocin) into each infected quarter after milking. Repeat once after 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of mastitis caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae,</I> and <I>Streptococcus uberis</I> in lactating cows.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For udder instillation in lactating cows only. Do not milk for at least 6 hours after treatment; thereafter, milk at regular intervals. Milk taken from treated animals within 72 hours (6 milkings) after the latest treatment must not be used for food. Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food for 15 days following the latest treatment. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use for syringe described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one syringe (equivalent to 200,000 units penicillin G and 400 mg novobiocin) into each quarter at dry off.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of subclinical mastitis caused by susceptible strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> and <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I> in dry cows.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> For udder instillation in dry cows only. Do not use less than 30 days prior to calving. Milk from treated cows must not be used for food during the first 72 hours after calving. Treated animals must not be slaughtered for food for 30 days following udder infusion. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 37336, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 42623, Sept. 15, 1992; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019. Redesignated and amended at 86 FR 13187, Mar. 8, 2021; 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 526.1810" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.14.0.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 526.1810   Pirlimycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each single-dose, 10-milliliter syringe contains 50 milligrams (mg) of pirlimycin (as pirlimycin hydrochloride).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.515 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in lactating cows</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse the contents of one syringe (50 mg pirlimycin) into each infected quarter. Daily treatment may be repeated at 24-hour intervals for up to 8 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of clinical and subclinical mastitis in lactating dairy cattle associated with <I>Staphylococcus</I> species such as <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> and <I>Streptococcus</I> species such as <I>Streptococcus agalactiae</I>, <I>Streptococcus dysgalactiae</I>, and <I>Streptococcus uberis.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Milk taken from animals during treatment and for 36 hours following the last treatment must not be used for food regardless of treatment duration. Following infusion twice at a 24-hour interval, treated animals must not be slaughtered for 9 days. Following any extended duration of therapy (infusion longer than twice at a 24-hour interval, up to 8 consecutive days), animals must not be slaughtered for 21 days. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 58486, Nov. 2, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 61091, Oct. 16, 2000; 73 FR 811, Jan. 4, 2008; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="528" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 528—INTENTIONAL GENOMIC ALTERATIONS IN ANIMALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 6823, Feb. 11, 2009, unless otherwise noted. 




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 528.1080" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.15.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.1080   Bc2371 recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid construct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications and intended use.</I> A single copy of Bc2371, a human Factor VII recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (rDNA) gene construct, located on chromosome 3p1.1-2 in a diploid line (R69) of hemizygous and homozygous New Zealand white rabbits (<I>Oryctolagus cuniculus</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086047 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Intended use.</I> The construct directs gene expression of recombinant human Factor VII (hFVII) in the mammary gland such that recombinant hFVII zymogen is present in the rabbit milk, enabling purification and activation of recombinant hFVIIa intended for the treatment of hemophilia A or B in humans with inhibitors to Factors VIII and IX.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Food or feed from R69 rabbits is not permitted in the food or feed supply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12494, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.1092" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.15.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.1092   opAFP-GHc2 recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid construct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A single copy of the α-form of the <I>opAFP-GHc2</I> recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (rDNA) construct at the α-locus in the EO-1 α lineage of triploid, hemizygous, all-female Atlantic salmon (<I>Salmo salar</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086053 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indications for use.</I> Significantly more of these Atlantic salmon grow to at least 100 grams within 2,700 Celsius degree-days than their comparators.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> These Atlantic salmon are produced as eyed-eggs and grown-out only in physically-contained, freshwater culture facilities specified in an FDA-approved application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 73104, Nov. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.2000" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.15.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.2000   Deletion of exon 7 of CD163 gene in domestic pigs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Deletion of one (heterozygous) or two (homozygous) copies of exon 7 of <I>CD163</I> gene1(abbreviated CD163ΔE7) in domestic pigs (<I>Sus scrofa domesticus</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086205 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Intended use.</I> Deletion of exon 7 of the <I>CD163</I> gene in domestic pigs (<I>Sus scrofa domesticus)</I> is intended to confer resistance to porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRSV) in homozygous pigs. Pigs carrying one or two copies of CD163<E T="8063">D</E><E T="51">E7</E>, and their offspring, are intended for breeding or to be used as sources of food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40970, Aug. 22, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.2001" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.15.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.2001   <E T="0714">pPL657</E> recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid construct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications. pPL657</I> in the <I>glycoprotein galactosyltransferase alpha-1,3</I> (<I>GGTA1</I>) gene in domestic pigs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086134 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Intended use. pPL657</I> rDNA construct in the <I>glycoprotein galactosyltransferase alpha-1,3</I> gene (<I>GGTA1</I>) in the lineage of domestic pigs (<I>Sus scrofa domesticus</I>) hemizygous and homozygous for the intentional genomic alteration resulting in undetectable endogenous galactose alpha-1,3-galactose sugar residues on biological derivatives of domestic pigs homozygous for the intentional genomic alteration lineage that are intended to be used as sources of food or human therapeutics including excipients, devices, drugs, or biological products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Pigs of this lineage (possessing the intentional genomic alteration (<I>pPL657</I> rDNA construct)) should not be treated with aminoglycoside drugs and must only be housed in physically contained facilities specified in the approved application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 17064, Apr. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.2010" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.15.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.2010   Human lysosomal acid lipase recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid construct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A single copy of a human lysosomal acid lipase (hLAL) recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (rDNA) gene construct located at the SYN LAL-C site in chromosome 6 in a specific, diploid line (SBC LAL-C) of hemizygous and homozygous domestic chickens (<I>Gallus gallus</I>), derived from the lineage progenitor XLL 109.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 069334 in § 510.600 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Intended use.</I> The gene construct directs the expression of that encoding gene such that recombinant, human lysosomal acid lipase (rhLAL) protein intended for the treatment of human disease is present in SBC LAL-C chicken egg whites.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Food or feed from XLL 109 chickens is not permitted in the food or feed supply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="529" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 529—CERTAIN OTHER DOSAGE FORM NEW ANIMAL DRUGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13881, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 529.56" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.56   Amikacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter (mL) of solution contains 250 milligrams of amikacin as amikacin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 2 grams (8 mL) diluted with 200 mL of sterile physiological saline by intrauterine infusion daily for 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treating genital tract infections (endometritis, metritis, and pyometra) in mares caused by susceptible organisms including <I>Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas</I> spp., and <I>Klebsiella</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 17339, Mar. 29, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.382" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.382   Chloramine-T.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Chloramine-T trihydrate powder for solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 086009 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.118 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Freshwater-reared salmonids</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 12 to 20 milligrams per liter (mg/L) water in a continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day for 60 minutes on consecutive or alternative days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of mortality in freshwater-reared salmonids due to bacterial gill disease associated with <I>Flavobacterium</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Walleye</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 10 to 20 mg/L water in a continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day for 60 minutes on consecutive or alternative days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of mortality in walleye due to external columnaris disease associated with <I>Flavobacterium columnare.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Freshwater-reared warmwater finfish</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> 20 mg/L water in a continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day for 60 minutes on consecutive or alternative days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of mortality in freshwater-reared warmwater finfish due to external columnaris disease associated with <I>F. columnare.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 37621, July 2, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.400" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.400   Chlorhexidine tablets and suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specification.</I> Each tablet and each 28-milliliter syringe of suspension contain 1 gram of chlorhexidine dihydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.120 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Place 1 or 2 tablets deep in each uterine horn; or infuse a solution of 1 tablet disolved in an appropriate amount of clean boiled water; or infuse one syringe of suspension into the uterus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For prevention or treatment of metritis and vaginitis in cows and mares when caused by pathogens sensitive to chlorhexidine dihydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Prior to administration, remove any unattached placental membranes, any excess uterine fluid or debris, and carefully clean external genitalia. Use a clean, sterile inseminating pipette for administrating solutions and suspensions. Treatment may be repeated in 48 to 72 hours.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10705, Feb. 23, 1979, as amended at 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 81 FR 67152, Sept. 30, 2016; 84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.443" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.443   Ciclesonide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A non-pressurized metered dose inhaler and drug cartridge combination containing a solution of 30 milligrams/milliliter of the prodrug ciclesonide. Each actuation releases 343 micrograms (mcg) of ciclesonide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer an initial dose of 8 actuations (2,744 mcg ciclesonide) twice daily for 5 days, followed by 12 actuations (4,116 mcg ciclesonide) once daily for 5 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the management of clinical signs associated with severe equine asthma.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.536" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.536   Detomidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 7.6 milligrams (mg) of detomidine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 052483 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.018 mg per pound (mg/lb) (0.040 mg/kilogram (kg) sublingually.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For sedation and restraint.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 21163, Apr. 23, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 16533, Mar. 24, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.539" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.539   Dexmedetomidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 0.09 milligrams (mg) dexmedetomidine (equivalent to 0.1 mg dexmedetomidine hydrochloride).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 052483 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer onto the oral mucosa between the dog's cheek and gum at a dose of 125 micrograms per square meter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of noise aversion in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 17608, Mar. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.778" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.778   Doxycycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Doxycycline hyclate solution contains 8.5 percent doxycycline activity. A syringe of N-methyl-2-pyrrolidone and poly (DL-lactide) mixed with a syringe of doxycycline produces 0.5 milliliter of solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Apply subgingivally to periodontal pocket(s) of affected teeth.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For treatment and control of periodontal disease.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1004" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1004   Formalin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Formalin is an aqueous solution containing approximately 37 percent by weight of formaldehyde gas, U.S.P.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for uses as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 050378 for use as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 049968 and 067188 for use as in paragraphs (d)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii), (d)(2)(i), (ii), and (iii), and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is added to environmental water as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Indications for use</I>—(i) <I>Penaeid shrimp.</I> For control of external protozoan parasites <I>Bodo</I> spp., <I>Epistylis</I> spp., and <I>Zoothamnium</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>All finfish.</I> For control of external protozoa <I>Ichthyophthirius</I> spp., <I>Chilodonella</I> spp., <I>Ichthyobodo</I> spp., <I>Ambiphrya</I> spp., <I>Epistylis</I> spp., and <I>Trichodina</I> spp., and the monogeneans <I>Cleidodiscus</I> spp., <I>Gyrodactylus</I> spp., and <I>Dactylogyrus</I> spp.
</P>
<P>(iii) All finfish eggs: For control of fungi of the family Saprolegniaceae.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Freshwater-reared finfish.</I> For the control of mortality due to saprolegniasis associated with fungi in the family Saprolegniaceae.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount.</I> The drug concentrations required are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For control of external protozoan parasites on shrimp:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Shrimp 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Concentration of formalin (microliters per liter)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tanks and raceways (up to 4 hours daily)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Earthen ponds (single treatment)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Penaeid Shrimp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 to 100 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Treat for up to 4 hours daily. Treatment may be repeated daily until parasite control is achieved. Use the lower concentration when tanks or raceways are heavily loaded with phytoplankton or shrimp, to avoid oxygen depletion due to the biological oxygen demand created by decay of dead phytoplankton. Alternatively, a higher concentration might be used if dissolved oxygen is strictly monitored.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Single treatment. Treatment may be repeated in 5 to 10 days if needed.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For control of external parasites on finfish:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aquatic species
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Administer in tanks and raceways for up to 1 hour (microliter/liter or part per million (µL/L or ppm))
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Administer in earthen ponds single treatment (µL/L or ppm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salmon and trout:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 50 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 to 25 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 50 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 to 25 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other finfish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 to 25 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use the lower concentration when ponds are heavily loaded with phytoplankton or fish to avoid oxygen depletion due to the biological oxygen demand by decay of dead phytoplankton. Alternatively, a higher concentration may be used if dissolved oxygen is strictly monitored.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Although the indicated concentrations are considered safe for cold and warm water finfish, a small number of each lot or pond to be treated should always be used to check for any unusual sensitivity to formalin before proceeding.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) For control of fungi of the family Saprolegniaceae on finfish eggs: Eggs of all finfish except Acipenseriformes, 1,000 to 2,000 µL/L (ppm) for 15 minutes; eggs of Acipenseriformes, up to 1,500 µL/L (ppm) for 15 minutes. A preliminary bioassay should be conducted on a small subsample of fish eggs to determine sensitivity before treating an entire group. This is necessary for all species because egg sensitivity can vary with species or strain and the unique conditions at each facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) For the control of mortality in freshwater-reared finfish due to saprolegniasis associated with fungi in the family Saprolegniaceae: In tanks and raceways, administer 150 µL/L (ppm) for 60 minutes per day on alternate days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Fish tanks and raceways may be treated daily until parasite control is achieved. Pond treatment may be repeated in 5 to 10 days if needed. However, pond treatments for <I>Ichthyophthirius</I> spp. should be made at 2-day intervals until control is achieved. Egg tanks may be treated as often as necessary to prevent growth of fungi. Do not use formalin which has been subjected to temperatures below 40 °F, or allowed to freeze. Treatments in tanks and raceways should never exceed 1 hour for fish or 4 hours for penaeid shrimp (even if they show no sign of distress), nor should it exceed 15 minutes for fish eggs. Do not apply formalin to ponds with water warmer than 27 °C (80 °F), when a heavy bloom of phytoplankton is present, or when the concentration of dissolved oxygen is less than 5 milligrams per liter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 11441, Apr. 3, 1986, as amended at 58 FR 59169, Nov. 8, 1993; 59 FR 60076, Nov. 22, 1994; 63 FR 38304, July 16, 1998; 68 FR 5563; Feb. 4, 2003; 72 FR 45158, Aug. 13, 2007; 76 FR 17339, Mar. 29, 2011; 79 FR 2786, Jan. 16, 2014; 82 FR 58556, Dec. 13, 2017; 84 FR 53311, Oct. 7, 2019. Redesignated at 87 FR 10970, Feb. 28, 2022; 89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1044" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1044   Gentamicin in certain other dosage forms.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1044a" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1044a   Gentamicin solution for infusion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 50 or 100 milligrams gentamicin sulfate.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061, 016592, 054771, 058005, 058198, 061133, and 069043 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Infuse 2 to 2.5 grams per day for 3 to 5 days during estrus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of bacterial infections of the uterus (metritis) and as an aid in improving conception in mares with uterine infections caused by bacteria sensitive to gentamicin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 51727, Aug. 31, 2006, as amended at 78 FR 17597, Mar. 22, 2013; 78 FR 21060, Apr. 9, 2013; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 83 FR 48947, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1044b" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1044b   Gentamicin solution for dipping eggs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains gentamicin sulfate equivalent to 50 milligrams of gentamicin base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 000061 and 054925 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in turkeys</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> The drug is added to clean water to provide a dip solution with a gentamicin concentration of 250 to 1,000 parts per million. A concentration of 500 parts per million is recommended. Clean eggs should be held submerged in the gentamicin solution under a vacuum of about 27.5 to 38 centimeters of mercury for 5 minutes followed by additional soaking in gentamicin solution for approximately 10 minutes at atmospheric pressure. Eggs can also be treated by warming them for 3 to 6 hours at approximately 100 °F then immediately submerging them in gentamicin solution maintained at about 40 °F, keeping the eggs submerged for 10 to 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> As an aid in the reduction or elimination of the following microorganisms from turkey-hatching eggs: <I>Arizona hinshawii</I> (<I>paracolon</I>), <I>Salmonella</I> Saintpaul, and <I>Mycoplasma meleagridis.</I>


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Eggs which have been dipped in the drug shall not be used for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13881, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 52 FR 7833, Mar. 13, 1987; 62 FR 22889, Apr. 28, 1997; 71 FR 13543, Mar. 16, 2006; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023; 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1115   Halothane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a colorless, odorless, nonflammable, nonexplosive, heavy liquid containing 0.01 percent thymol as a preservative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Two to 5 percent of inhaled atmosphere for induction of anesthesia; 0.5 to 2 percent for maintenance of anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For nonfood animals for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in animals intended for food. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 27915, May 22, 1981, as amended at 62 FR 29014, May 29, 1997; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1150" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1150   Hydrogen peroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 396.1 milligrams (mg) hydrogen peroxide (a 35% w/w solution).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 050378 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Indications and amount.</I> (i) Freshwater-reared finfish eggs for the control of mortality in due to saprolegniasis associated with fungi in the family Saprolegniaceae:
</P>
<P>(A) For all coldwater and coolwater species of freshwater-reared finfish eggs: 500 to 1,000 mg per liter (/L) of culture water for 15 minutes in a continuous flow system once per day on consecutive or alternate days until hatch, or
</P>
<P>(B) For all freshwater-reared warmwater finfish eggs: 750 to 1,000 mg/L for 15 minutes in a continuous flow system once per day on consecutive or alternate days until hatch.
</P>
<P>(ii) Freshwater-reared finfish for the control of mortality due to saprolegniasis associated with the fungi in the family Saprolegniaceae: For freshwater-reared coldwater finfish including salmonids (all life stages), freshwater-reared coolwater finfish fingerlings and adults, and freshwater-reared warmwater finfish fingerlings and adults: 75 mg/L for 60 minutes in continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day on alternate days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Freshwater-reared salmonids for the control of mortality due to bacterial gill disease associated with <I>Flavobacterium branchiophilum:</I> 100 mg/L for 30 minutes, or 50 to 100 mg/L for 60 minutes, in a continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day on alternate days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(iv) Freshwater-reared salmonids for the treatment and control of <I>Gyrodactylus</I> spp: 100 mg/L for 30 minutes, or 50 mg/L for 60 minutes, in a continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day on alternate days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(v) Freshwater-reared coolwater and warmwater finfish fingerlings and adults for the control of mortality due to external columnaris disease associated with <I>Flavobacterium columnare:</I> 50 to 75 mg/L for 60 minutes in continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day on alternate days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(vi) Freshwater-reared coolwater finfish fry and warmwater finfish fry for the control of mortality due to external columnaris disease associated with <I>Flavobacterium columnare:</I> 50 mg/L for 60 minutes in continuous flow water supply or as a static bath once per day on alternate days for three treatments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> (i) Initial bioassay on a small number is recommended before treating the entire group.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eggs: Some strains of rainbow trout eggs are sensitive to hydrogen peroxide treatment at a time during incubation concurrent with blastopore formation through closure, about 70 to 140 Daily Temperature Units, °C. Consider withholding treatment or using an alternate therapeutant during that sensitive time to reduce egg mortalities due to drug toxicity.
</P>
<P>(iii) Finfish: Because finfish sensitivity to 35% PEROX-AID® increases with increasing water temperature, consider administering initial treatments at the lower end of the treatment regimen or reducing water temperature before treatment. Do not use this product to treat northern pike (<I>Esox lucius</I>) or paddlefish (<I>Polyodon spathula</I>) of any age. Do not use this product to treat pallid sturgeon fry. Use with caution on walleye (<I>Sander vitreus</I>) and ornamental finfish.
</P>
<P>(iv) Preharvest withdrawal time: Zero days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 5330, Feb. 6, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 73698, Dec. 9, 2013; 85 FR 4208, Jan. 24, 2020; 89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1186" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1186   Isoflurane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is a clear, colorless, stable liquid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 010019, 017033, 054771, and 065085 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use.</I> Administer by inhalation:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Horses:</I> For induction of surgical anesthesia: 3 to 5 percent isoflurane (with oxygen) for 5 to 10 minutes. For maintenance of surgical anesthesia: 1.5 to 1.8 percent isoflurane (with oxygen).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dogs:</I> For induction of surgical anesthesia: 2 to 2.5 percent isoflurane (with oxygen) for 5 to 10 minutes. For maintenance of surgical anesthesia: 1.5 to 1.8 percent isoflurane (with oxygen).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For induction and maintenance of general anesthesia in horses and dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 594, Jan. 7, 1986, as amended at 54 FR 23472, June 1, 1989; 58 FR 17346, Apr. 2, 1993; 59 FR 44315, Aug. 29, 1994; 60 FR 40456, Aug. 9, 1995; 63 FR 8122, Feb. 18, 1998; 63 FR 24106, May 1, 1998; 66 FR 17510, Apr. 2, 2001; 71 FR 43967, Aug. 3, 2006; 74 FR 68530, Dec. 28, 2009; 76 FR 16533, Mar. 24, 2011; 78 FR 14669, Mar. 7, 2013; 78 FR 17868, Mar. 25, 2013; 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015; 87 FR 58963, Sept. 29, 2022; 89 FR 14411, Feb. 27, 2024; 89 FR 42360, May 15, 2024; 91 FR 41561, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1350" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1350   Meloxicam.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of solution contains 5 milligrams (mg) meloxicam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 0.1 mg per kilogram of body weight once daily using the metered dose pump.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 76863, Dec. 31, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1660" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1660   Oxytetracycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Each gram of powder contains 366 milligrams (mg) oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) Each gram of powder contains 753 mg oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of products described in paragraph (a) of this section as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 054771 and 061133 for use of product in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 054771, 061133, and 069254 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances. See</I> § 556.500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in finfish</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Immerse fish in a solution containing 200 to 700 mg oxytetracycline hydrochloride (buffered) per liter of water for 2 to 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For skeletal marking of finfish fry and fingerlings.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 6557, Feb. 11, 2004, as amended at 69 FR 61999, Oct. 22, 2004; 70 FR 41140, July 18, 2005; 72 FR 26289, May 9, 2007; 76 FR 17026, Mar. 28, 2011; 79 FR 10973, Feb. 27, 2014; 81 FR 22524, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 94991, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.1940" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.1940   Progesterone intravaginal inserts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each insert contains:
</P>
<P>(1) 1.38 grams (g) progesterone in molded silicone over a nylon spine.
</P>
<P>(2) 0.3 g progesterone in molded silicone over a flexible nylon spine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and the product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.540 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Product labeling shall bear the following warning: “Avoid contact with skin by wearing protective gloves when handling inserts. Store removed inserts in a sealable container until they can be disposed of in accordance with applicable local, state, and Federal regulations.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cows</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one intravaginal insert per animal for 7 days. When used for indications listed in paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, administer 25 mg dinoprost as a single intramuscular injection 1 day prior to insert removal (Day 6). When used for indications listed in paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, administer 25 mg dinoprost as a single intramuscular injection on the day of insert removal (Day 7).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> (A) For synchronization of estrus in suckled beef cows and replacement beef and dairy heifers; for advancement of first postpartum estrus in suckled beef cows; and for advancement of first pubertal estrus in replacement beef heifers.
</P>
<P>(B) For synchronization of estrus in lactating dairy cows.
</P>
<P>(C) For synchronization of the return to estrus in lactating dairy cows inseminated at the immediately preceding estrus.
</P>
<P>(D) For induction of estrous cycles in anestrous lactating dairy cows.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in beef or dairy heifers of insufficient size or age for breeding or in animals with abnormal, immature, or infected genital tracts. Do not use in anestrous lactating dairy cows less than 42 days or greater than 78 days postpartum. Do not use in lactating dairy cows less than 40 days postpartum. Do not use in beef cows that are less than 20 days postpartum. Do not use an insert more than once. To prevent the potential transmission of venereal and bloodborne diseases, the inserts should be disposed after a single use. Administration of vaginal inserts for periods greater than 7 days may result in reduced fertility. Dinoprost injection for use as in paragraphs (e)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section as in § 522.690 of this chapter, provided by Nos. 054771 and 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ewes</I>—(i) <I>Amount.</I> Administer one intravaginal insert per animal for 5 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indications for use.</I> For induction of estrus in ewes (sheep) during seasonal anestrus.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in animals with abnormal, immature, or infected genital tracts; or in ewes that have never lambed. Do not use an insert more than once. To prevent the potential transmission of venereal and bloodborne diseases, the inserts should be disposed after a single use. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 59074, Nov. 17, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 63085, Oct. 14, 2010; 79 FR 10965, 10974, Feb. 27, 2014; 79 FR 44278, July 31, 2014; 87 FR 10970, Feb. 28, 2022; 87 FR 17947, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.2110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.2110   Sevoflurane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Sevoflurane liquid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 017033, 054771, 065085, and 068504 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> For induction of surgical anesthesia: up to 7 percent sevoflurane. For maintenance of surgical anesthesia: 3.7 to 4 percent sevoflurane with oxygen in the absence of premedication and 3.3 to 3.6 percent in the presence of premedication.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For induction and maintenance of general anesthesia in dogs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 71640, Dec. 22, 1999, as amended at 73 FR 25508, May 7, 2008; 74 FR 10484, Mar. 11, 2009, 75 FR 1021, Jan. 8, 2010; 76 FR 16533, Mar. 24, 2011; 78 FR 17868, Mar. 25, 2013; 80 FR 18776, Apr. 8, 2015. Redesignated at 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 58963, Sept. 29, 2022; 89 FR 42360, May 15, 2024; 91 FR 41561, July 7, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.2464" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.2464   Ticarcillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each vial contains ticarcillin disodium powder equivalent to 6 grams of ticarcillin for reconstitution with 25 milliliters of sterile water for injection or sterile physiological saline.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in horses</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 6 grams daily by intrauterine infusion for 3 consecutive days during estrus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the treatment of endometritis caused by beta-hemolytic streptococci.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10974, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.2503" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.2503   Tricaine methanesulfonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> The drug is ethyl-<I>m</I>-amino-benzoate methanesulfonate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 050378 and 051212 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fish.</I> The drug is added to ambient water at a concentration of from 15 to 330 milligrams per liter depending upon the degree of anesthetization or sedation desired, the species and size of the fish, and the temperature and softness of the water. Preliminary tests of solutions must be made with small numbers of fish to determine the desired rates of sedation or anesthesia and the appropriate exposure times for the specific lots of fish under prevailing conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amphibians and other aquatic coldblooded animals.</I> The drug is added to ambient water in concentrations of from 1:1000 to 1:20,000 depending upon species and stage of development.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the temporary immobilization of fish, amphibians, and other aquatic coldblooded animals (poikilotherms) as an aid in handling during manual spawning (fish stripping), weighing, measuring, marking, surgical operations, transport, photography, and research.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not use within 21 days of harvesting fish for food. Use in fish intended for food should be restricted to Ictaluridae, Salmonidae, Esocidae, and Percidae, and water temperature exceeding 10 °C (50 °F). In other fish and in coldblooded animals, the drug should be limited to hatchery or laboratory use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10974, Feb. 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 529.2620" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.16.0.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 529.2620   Triptorelin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each milliliter of gel contains 100 micrograms (mcg) triptorelin as triptorelin acetate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 051072 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> Administer 200 mcg intravaginally approximately 96 hours after weaning.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the synchronization of time of insemination in weaned sows to facilitate a single fixed-time artificial insemination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Not approved for use in gilts. Safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated in these animals. Should not be used in sows with obvious reproductive tract abnormalities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 64717, Oct. 23, 2012, as amended at 90 FR 6801, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="530" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 530—EXTRALABEL DRUG USE IN ANIMALS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1453, 1454, 1455; 21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 357, 360b, 371, 379e.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 57743, Nov. 7, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the extralabel use in an animal of any approved new animal drug or approved new human drug by or on the lawful order of a licensed veterinarian within the context of a valid veterinary-client-patient relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.2" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish conditions for extralabel use or intended extralabel use in animals by or on the lawful order of licensed veterinarians of Food and Drug Administration approved new animal drugs and approved new human drugs. Such use is limited to treatment modalities when the health of an animal is threatened or suffering or death may result from failure to treat. This section implements the Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994 (the AMDUCA) (Pub. L. 103-396). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Extralabel use</I> means actual use or intended use of a drug in an animal in a manner that is not in accordance with the approved labeling. This includes, but is not limited to, use in species not listed in the labeling, use for indications (disease or other conditions) not listed in the labeling, use at dosage levels, frequencies, or routes of administration other than those stated in the labeling, and deviation from the labeled withdrawal time based on these different uses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDA</I> means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) The phrase <I>a reasonable probability that a drug's use may present a risk to the public health</I> means that FDA has reason to believe that use of a drug may be likely to cause a potential adverse event.
</P>
<P>(d) The phrase <I>use of a drug may present a risk to the public health</I> means that FDA has information that indicates that use of a drug may cause an adverse event.
</P>
<P>(e) The phrase <I>use of a drug presents a risk to the public health</I> means that FDA has evidence that demonstrates that the use of a drug has caused or likely will cause an adverse event.
</P>
<P>(f) A <I>residue</I> means any compound present in edible tissues that results from the use of a drug, and includes the drug, its metabolites, and any other substance formed in or on food because of the drug's use.
</P>
<P>(g) A <I>safe level</I> is a conservative estimate of a drug residue level in edible animal tissue derived from food safety data or other scientific information. Concentrations of residues in tissue below the safe level will not raise human food safety concerns. A safe level is not a safe concentration or a tolerance and does not indicate that an approval exists for the drug in that species or category of animal from which the food is derived.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Veterinarian</I> means a person licensed by a State or Territory to practice veterinary medicine.
</P>
<P>(i) A <I>valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship</I> is one in which:
</P>
<P>(1) A veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of (an) animal(s) and the need for medical treatment, and the client (the owner of the animal or animals or other caretaker) has agreed to follow the instructions of the veterinarian;
</P>
<P>(2) There is sufficient knowledge of the animal(s) by the veterinarian to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal(s); and
</P>
<P>(3) The practicing veterinarian is readily available for followup in case of adverse reactions or failure of the regimen of therapy. Such a relationship can exist only when the veterinarian has recently seen and is personally acquainted with the keeping and care of the animal(s) by virtue of examination of the animal(s), and/or by medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal(s) are kept.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.4" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.1.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.4   Advertising and promotion.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed as permitting the advertising or promotion of extralabel uses in animals of approved new animal drugs or approved human drugs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.1.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.5   Veterinary records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a condition of extralabel use permitted under this part, to permit FDA to ascertain any extralabel use or intended extralabel use of drugs that the agency has determined may present a risk to the public health, veterinarians shall maintain the following records of extralabel uses. Such records shall be legible, documented in an accurate and timely manner, and be readily accessible to permit prompt retrieval of information. Such records shall be adequate to substantiate the identification of the animals and shall be maintained either as individual records or, in food animal practices, on a group, herd, flock, or per-client basis. Records shall be adequate to provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The established name of the drug and its active ingredient, or if formulated from more than one ingredient, the established name of each ingredient;
</P>
<P>(2) The condition treated;
</P>
<P>(3) The species of the treated animal(s);
</P>
<P>(4) The dosage administered; 
</P>
<P>(5) The duration of treatment;
</P>
<P>(6) The numbers of animals treated; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The specified withdrawal, withholding, or discard time(s), if applicable, for meat, milk, eggs, or any food which might be derived from any food animals treated.
</P>
<P>(b) A veterinarian shall keep all required records for 2 years or as otherwise required by Federal or State law, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who is in charge, control, or custody of such records shall, upon request of a person designated by FDA, permit such person designated by FDA to, at all reasonable times, have access to, permit copying, and verify such records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Rules and Provisions for Extralabel Uses of Drugs in Animals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.10" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.10   Provision permitting extralabel use of animal drugs.</HEAD>
<P>An approved new animal drug or human drug intended to be used for an extralabel purpose in an animal is not unsafe under section 512 of the act and is exempt from the labeling requirements of section 502(f) of the act if such use is:
</P>
<P>(a) By or on the lawful written or oral order of a licensed veterinarian within the context of a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship; and 
</P>
<P>(b) In compliance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.11" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.11   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to uses which do not comply with the provision set forth in § 530.10, the following specific extralabel uses are not permitted and result in the drug being deemed unsafe within the meaning of section 512 of the act:
</P>
<P>(a) Extralabel use in an animal of an approved new animal drug or human drug by a lay person (except when under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian);
</P>
<P>(b) Extralabel use of an approved new animal drug or human drug in or on an animal feed;
</P>
<P>(c) Extralabel use resulting in any residue which may present a risk to the public health; and
</P>
<P>(d) Extralabel use resulting in any residue above an established safe level, safe concentration or tolerance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.12" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.12   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>Any human or animal drug prescribed and dispensed for extralabel use by a veterinarian or dispensed by a pharmacist on the order of a veterinarian shall bear or be accompanied by labeling information adequate to assure the safe and proper use of the product. Such information shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and address of the prescribing veterinarian. If the drug is dispensed by a pharmacy on the order of a veterinarian, the labeling shall include the name of the prescribing veterinarian and the name and address of the dispensing pharmacy, and may include the address of the prescribing veterinarian; 
</P>
<P>(b) The established name of the drug or, if formulated from more than one active ingredient, the established name of each ingredient;
</P>
<P>(c) Any directions for use specified by the veterinarian, including the class/species or identification of the animal or herd, flock, pen, lot, or other group of animals being treated, in which the drug is intended to be used; the dosage, frequency, and route of administration; and the duration of therapy;
</P>
<P>(d) Any cautionary statements; and 
</P>
<P>(e) The veterinarian's specified withdrawal, withholding, or discard time for meat, milk, eggs, or any other food which might be derived from the treated animal or animals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.13" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.13   Extralabel use from compounding of approved new animal and approved human drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to compounding of a product from approved animal or human drugs by a veterinarian or a pharmacist on the order of a veterinarian within the practice of veterinary medicine. Nothing in this part shall be construed as permitting compounding from bulk drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) Extralabel use from compounding of approved new animal or human drugs is permitted if:
</P>
<P>(1) All relevant portions of this part have been complied with;
</P>
<P>(2) There is no approved new animal or approved new human drug that, when used as labeled or in conformity with criteria established in this part, will, in the available dosage form and concentration, appropriately treat the condition diagnosed. Compounding from a human drug for use in food-producing animals will not be permitted if an approved animal drug can be used for the compounding;
</P>
<P>(3) The compounding is performed by a licensed pharmacist or veterinarian within the scope of a professional practice;
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate procedures and processes are followed that ensure the safety and effectiveness of the compounded product;
</P>
<P>(5) The scale of the compounding operation is commensurate with the established need for compounded products (e.g., similar to that of comparable practices); and
</P>
<P>(6) All relevant State laws relating to the compounding of drugs for use in animals are followed.
</P>
<P>(c) Guidance on the subject of compounding may be found in guidance documents issued by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specific Provisions Relating to Extralabel Use of Animal and Human Drugs in Food-Producing Animals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.20" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.3.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.20   Conditions for permitted extralabel animal and human drug use in food-producing animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following conditions must be met for a permitted extralabel use in food-producing animals of approved new animal and human drugs:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no approved new animal drug that is labeled for such use and that contains the same active ingredient which is in the required dosage form and concentration, except where a veterinarian finds, within the context of a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship, that the approved new animal drug is clinically ineffective for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to prescribing or dispensing an approved new animal or human drug for an extralabel use in food animals, the veterinarian must:
</P>
<P>(i) Make a careful diagnosis and evaluation of the conditions for which the drug is to be used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish a substantially extended withdrawal period prior to marketing of milk, meat, eggs, or other edible products supported by appropriate scientific information, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Institute procedures to assure that the identity of the treated animal or animals is carefully maintained; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Take appropriate measures to assure that assigned timeframes for withdrawal are met and no illegal drug residues occur in any food-producing animal subjected to extralabel treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) The following additional conditions must be met for a permitted extralabel use of in food-producing animals an approved human drug, or of an animal drug approved only for use in animals not intended for human consumption:
</P>
<P>(1) Such use must be accomplished in accordance with an appropriate medical rationale; and
</P>
<P>(2) If scientific information on the human food safety aspect of the use of the drug in food-producing animals is not available, the veterinarian must take appropriate measures to assure that the animal and its food products will not enter the human food supply.
</P>
<P>(c) Extralabel use of an approved human drug in a food-producing animal is not permitted under this part if an animal drug approved for use in food-producing animals can be used in an extralabel manner for the particular use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.21" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.3.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.21   Prohibitions for food-producing animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may prohibit the extralabel use of an approved new animal or human drug or class of drugs in food-producing animals if FDA determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) An acceptable analytical method needs to be established and such method has not been established or cannot be established; or
</P>
<P>(2) The extralabel use of the drug or class of drugs presents a risk to the public health.
</P>
<P>(b) A prohibition may be a general ban on the extralabel use of the drug or class of drugs or may be limited to a specific species, indication, dosage form, route of administration, or combination of factors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.22" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.3.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.22   Safe levels and analytical methods for food-producing animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may establish a safe level for extralabel use of an approved human drug or an approved new animal drug when the agency finds that there is a reasonable probability that an extralabel use may present a risk to the public health. FDA may:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish a finite safe level based on residue and metabolism information from available sources;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish a safe level based on the lowest level that can be measured by a practical analytical method; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Establish a safe level based on other appropriate scientific, technical, or regulatory criteria.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may require the development of an acceptable analytical method for the quantification of residues above any safe level established under this part. If FDA requires the development of such an acceptable analytical method, the agency will publish notice of that requirement in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c) The extralabel use of an animal drug or human drug that results in residues exceeding a safe level established under this part is an unsafe use of such drug.
</P>
<P>(d) If the agency establishes a safe level for a particular species or category of animals and a tolerance or safe concentration is later established through an approval for that particular species or category of animals, for that species or category of animals, the safe level is superseded by the tolerance or safe concentration for that species or category of animals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.23" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.3.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.23   Procedure for setting and announcing safe levels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may issue an order establishing a safe level for a residue of an extralabel use of an approved human drug or an approved animal drug. The agency will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the order. The notice will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement setting forth the agency's finding that there is a reasonable probability that extralabel use in animals of the human drug or animal drug may present a risk to the public health;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for that finding; and
</P>
<P>(3) A request for public comments.
</P>
<P>(b) A current listing of those drugs for which a safe level for extralabel drug use in food-producing animals has been established, the specific safe levels, and the availability, if any, of a specific analytical method or methods for drug residue detection will be codified in § 530.40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.24" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.3.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.24   Procedure for announcing analytical methods for drug residue quantification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may issue an order announcing a specific analytical method or methods for the quantification of extralabel use drug residues above the safe levels established under § 530.22 for extralabel use of an approved human drug or an approved animal drug. The agency will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the order, including the name of the specific analytical method or methods and the drug or drugs for which the method is applicable. 
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of analytical methods for the quantification of extralabel use drug residues above the safe levels established under § 530.22 will be available upon request from the Communications and Education Branch (HFV-12), Division of Program Communication and Administrative Management, Center for Veterinary Medicine, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855. When an analytical method for the detection of extralabel use drug residues above the safe levels established under § 530.22 is developed, and that method is acceptable to the agency, FDA will incorporate that method by reference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.25" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.3.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.25   Orders prohibiting extralabel uses for drugs in food-producing animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may issue an order prohibiting extralabel use of an approved new animal or human drug in food-producing animals if the agency finds, after providing an opportunity for public comment, that:
</P>
<P>(1) An acceptable analytical method required under § 530.22 has not been developed, submitted, and found to be acceptable by FDA or that such method cannot be established; or
</P>
<P>(2) The extralabel use in animals presents a risk to the public health.
</P>
<P>(b) After making a determination that the analytical method required under § 530.22 has not been developed and submitted, or that such method cannot be established, or that an extralabel use in animals of a particular human drug or animal drug presents a risk to the public health, FDA will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> with a 90-day delayed effective date, an order of prohibition for an extralabel use of a drug in food-producing animals. Such order shall state that an acceptable analytical method required under § 530.22 has not been developed, submitted, and found to be acceptable by FDA; that such method cannot be established; or that the extralabel use in animals presents a risk to the public health; and shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Specify the nature and extent of the order of prohibition and the reasons for the prohibition;
</P>
<P>(2) Request public comments; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a period of not less than 60 days for comments.
</P>
<P>(c) The order of prohibition will become effective 90 days after date of publication of the order unless FDA publishes a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> prior to that date, that revokes the order of prohibition, modifies it, or extends the period of public comment.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency may publish an order of prohibition with a shorter comment period and/or delayed effective date than specified in paragraph (b) of this section in exceptional circumstances (e.g., where there is immediate risk to the public health), provided that the order of prohibition states that the comment period and/or effective date have been abbreviated because there are exceptional circumstances, and the order of prohibition sets forth the agency's rationale for taking such action.
</P>
<P>(e) If FDA publishes a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> modifying an order of prohibition, the agency will specify in the modified order of prohibition the nature and extent of the modified prohibition, the reasons for it, and the agency's response to any comments on the original order of prohibition.
</P>
<P>(f) A current listing of drugs prohibited for extralabel use in animals will be codified in § 530.41.
</P>
<P>(g) After the submission of appropriate information (i.e., adequate data, an acceptable method, approval of a new animal drug application for the prohibited extralabel use, or information demonstrating that the prohibition was based on incorrect data), FDA may, by publication of an appropriate notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> remove a drug from the list of human and animal drugs prohibited for extralabel use in animals, or may modify a prohibition.
</P>
<P>(h) FDA may prohibit extralabel use of a drug in food-producing animals without establishing a safe level.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Extralabel Use of Human and Animal Drugs in Animals Not Intended for Human Consumption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.30" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.4.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.30   Extralabel drug use in nonfood animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Because extralabel use of animal and human drugs in nonfood-producing animals does not ordinarily pose a threat to the public health, extralabel use of animal and human drugs is permitted in nonfood-producing animal practice except when the public health is threatened. In addition, the provisions of § 530.20(a)(1) will apply to the use of an approved animal drug.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA determines that an extralabel drug use in animals not intended for human consumption presents a risk to the public health, the agency may publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice prohibiting such use following the procedures in § 530.25. The prohibited extralabel drug use will be codified in § 530.41.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Safe Levels for Extralabel Use of Drugs in Animals and Drugs Prohibited From Extralabel Use in Animals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.40" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.5.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.40   Safe levels and availability of analytical methods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with § 530.22, the following safe levels for extralabel use of an approved animal drug or human drug have been established: [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with § 530.22, the following analytical methods have been accepted by FDA: [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.41" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.17.5.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.41   Drugs prohibited for extralabel use in animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following drugs, families of drugs, and substances are prohibited for extralabel animal and human drug uses in food-producing animals.
</P>
<P>(1) Chloramphenicol;
</P>
<P>(2) Clenbuterol;
</P>
<P>(3) Diethylstilbestrol (DES);
</P>
<P>(4) Dimetridazole;
</P>
<P>(5) Ipronidazole;
</P>
<P>(6) Other nitroimidazoles;
</P>
<P>(7) Furazolidone.
</P>
<P>(8) Nitrofurazone.
</P>
<P>(9) Sulfonamide drugs in lactating dairy cattle (except approved use of sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromomethazine, and sulfaethoxypyridazine);
</P>
<P>(10) Fluoroquinolones; and
</P>
<P>(11) Glycopeptides.
</P>
<P>(12) Phenylbutazone in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older.
</P>
<P>(13) Cephalosporins (not including cephapirin) in cattle, swine, chickens, or turkeys:
</P>
<P>(i) For disease prevention purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) At unapproved doses, frequencies, durations, or routes of administration; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the drug is not approved for that species and production class.
</P>
<P>(b) The following drugs, families of drugs, and substances are prohibited for extralabel animal and human drug uses in nonfood-producing animals: [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) The following drugs, or classes of drugs, that are approved for treating or preventing influenza A, are prohibited from extralabel use in chickens, turkeys, and ducks:
</P>
<P>(1) Adamantanes.
</P>
<P>(2) Neuraminidase inhibitors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 27947, May 22, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 5471, Feb. 6, 2002; 68 FR 9530, Feb. 28, 2003; 68 FR 14134, Mar. 24, 2003; 71 FR 14377, Mar. 22, 2006; 77 FR 745, Jan. 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="556" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 556—TOLERANCES FOR RESIDUES OF NEW ANIMAL DRUGS IN FOOD</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 342, 360b, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act requires an applicant seeking approval or conditional approval of a new animal drug to submit a proposed tolerance as part of its new animal drug application when such a tolerance is needed to assure that the proposed use of the new animal drug will be safe (see sections 512(b)(1)(H) and 571(a)(2)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act). FDA assigns tolerances for animal drugs used in food-producing animals as part of the application approval process. Tolerances for approved and conditionally approved new animal drugs are codified in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Compounds that have been found to be carcinogenic are regulated under subpart E of part 500 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI)</I> means the daily intake which, during up to an entire life of a human, appears to be without adverse effects or harm to the health of the consumer. The ADI most often will be set on the basis of the drug's toxicological, microbiological, or pharmacological properties. It is usually expressed in micrograms or milligrams of the chemical per kilogram of body weight per day.
</P>
<P><I>Acute reference dose (ARfD)</I> means an estimate of the amount of residues expressed on a body weight basis that can be ingested in a period of 24 hours or less without adverse effects or harm to the health of the human consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Edible tissues</I> means muscle, liver, kidney, fat, skin with fat in natural proportions, whole eggs, whole milk, and honey.
</P>
<P><I>Marker residue</I> means the residue whose concentration is in a known relationship to the concentration of total residue in an edible tissue.
</P>
<P><I>mg/kg</I> means milligrams per kilogram.
</P>
<P><I>Not required,</I> in reference to tolerances in this part, means that at the time of approval:
</P>
<P>(1) No withdrawal period was necessary for residues of the drug to deplete to or below the concentrations considered to be safe, or an adequate withdrawal period was inherent in the proposed drug use, and there was a rapid depletion of residues, so there was no concern about residues resulting from misuse or overdosing; or
</P>
<P>(2) No withdrawal period was necessary because the drug was poorly absorbed or metabolized rapidly so as to make selection of an analyte impractical or impossible.
</P>
<P><I>ppb</I> means parts per billion (equivalent to nanograms per gram (ng/g) or µg/kg).
</P>
<P><I>ppm</I> means parts per million (equivalent to micrograms per gram (µg/g) or mg/kg).
</P>
<P><I>ppt</I> means parts per trillion (equivalent to picograms per gram (pg/g) or nanograms per kilogram (ng/kg)).
</P>
<P><I>Residue</I> means any compound present in edible tissues that results from the use of a drug, and includes the drug, its metabolites, and any other substance formed in or on food because of the drug's use.
</P>
<P><I>Target tissue</I> means the edible tissue selected to monitor for residues in the target animals.
</P>
<P><I>Tolerance</I> means the maximum concentration of a marker residue, or other residue indicated for monitoring, that can legally remain in a specific edible tissue of a treated animal.
</P>
<P><I>Total residue</I> means the aggregate of all compounds that results from the use of an animal drug, including the drug, its metabolites, and any other substances formed in or on food because of such drug use.
</P>
<P><I>µg/kg</I> means microgram per kilogram.
</P>
<P><I>Zero,</I> in reference to tolerances in this part, means any residues detected in the edible tissue renders it unsafe.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.5   General considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The tolerances listed in subpart B of this part pertain only to the species and production classes of the animal for which the drug use has been approved or conditionally approved. Approved and conditionally approved conditions of use in parts 516, 520, 522, 524, 526, 529, and 558 of this chapter, including the species and production classes of animals, are referenced in each tolerance section in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) All tolerances refer to the concentrations of a marker residue, or other residue indicated for monitoring, permitted in uncooked tissues.
</P>
<P>(c) After a tolerance is listed, the finding that the concentration of the marker residue in the target tissue from a tested animal is at or below the tolerance indicates that all edible tissues (excluding milk and eggs unless otherwise indicated) from that tested animal are safe for human consumption. If a listed tolerance is not expressly linked to a target tissue, then the tolerance is specific only for the named edible tissue and inferences cannot be made about the safety of the other edible tissues from the tested animal.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA requires that a drug sponsor submit a practicable method as part of their new animal drug application. FDA uses the practicable method to determine the quantity of the drug residues that can safely remain in edible tissues (<I>i.e.,</I> the tolerance), the withdrawal period, and any other use restrictions necessary to ensure that the proposed use of the drug will be safe.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Tolerances for Residues of Approved and Conditionally Approved New Animal Drugs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.34" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.34   Albendazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of albendazole is 5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for albendazole 2-aminosulfone (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.05 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.25 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.05 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goat.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.25 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.38a and 520.38b of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.36" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.36   Altrenogest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of altrenogest is 0.04 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for altrenogest (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 4 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 1 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 520.48 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.38" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.38   Amoxicillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for amoxicillin is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues: 0.01 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.88d, 520.88e, 522.88, and 526.88 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.40" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.40   Ampicillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for ampicillin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues: 0.01 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: 0.01 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.90c, 522.90a, and 522.90b of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18120, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.50" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.50   Amprolium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for amprolium are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver, kidney, and muscle: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fat: 2.0 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) Liver and kidney: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Eggs:
</P>
<P>(A) Egg yolks: 8 ppm.
</P>
<P>(B) Whole eggs: 4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pheasants.</I> (i) Liver: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.100, 558.55, and 558.58 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.52" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.52   Apramycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of apramycin is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for apramycin (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> Kidney (target tissue): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.110 and 558.59 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.60" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.60   Avilamycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of avilamycin is 1.1 mg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for avilamycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.68 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.68" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.68   Azaperone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of azaperone is 0.63 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for azaperone is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.150 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.70" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.70   Bacitracin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of bacitracin is 0.05 mg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for bacitracin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens, turkeys, pheasants, quail.</I> Edible tissues: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.154a, 520.154c, 558.76, and 558.78 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.75" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.75   Bambermycins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for bambermycins are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.95 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.100   Carbadox.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for quinoxaline-2-carboxylic acid (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> Liver (target tissue): 30 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.115 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.110   Carbomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for carbomycin is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 520.1664 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.113" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.113   Ceftiofur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake and acute reference dose</I>—(1) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of ceftiofur is 30 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acute reference dose (ARfD).</I> The ARfD for total residue of ceftiofur is 0.830 mg/kg of body weight.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for desfuroylceftiofur (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 0.4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Milk: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goats.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 8 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Milk: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sheep.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 0.25 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.313a, 522.313b, 522.313c, and 526.313 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.115   Cephapirin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for cephapirin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: 0.02 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 526.363 and 526.365 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.118" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.118   Chloramine-T.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of chloramine-T is 5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for <I>para</I>-toluenesulfonamide (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fish.</I> Muscle/skin (target tissue): 0.9 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 529.382 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.120" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.120   Chlorhexidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for chlorhexidine is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 529.400 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.150" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.150   Chlortetracycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of tetracyclines including chlortetracycline, oxytetracycline, and tetracycline is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for the sum of tetracycline residues are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kidney and fat: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens, turkeys, and ducks.</I> (i) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kidney and fat: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Eggs: 0.4 ppm for chlortetracycline only.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sheep.</I> (i) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kidney and fat: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kidney and fat: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.441, 520.443, 520.445, 558.128, and 558.140 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.160" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.160   Clopidol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for clopidol are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) Liver and kidney: 15 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.175 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.163" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.163   Clorsulon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of clorsulon is 8 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for clorsulon (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 1.0 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.462 and 522.1193 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.165" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.165   Cloxacillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for cloxacillin is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues: 0.01 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 526.464 and 526.465 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.167" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.167   Colistimethate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for colistimethate is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.468 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.168" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.168   Coumaphos.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for coumaphos (measured as coumaphos and its oxygen analog, O,O-diethyl O-3- chloro-4-methyl-2-oxo-2 H-1- benzopyran-7-yl phosphate) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eggs: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.185 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.169" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.169   Danofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of danofloxacin is 2.4 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for danofloxacin (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.522 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.170" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.170   Decoquinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of decoquinate is 75 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for decoquinate are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Muscle: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues (excluding milk): 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Muscle: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues (excluding eggs): 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goats.</I> (i) Muscle: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues (excluding milk): 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.534 and 558.195 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.180" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.180   Dichlorvos.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for dichlorvos is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.596 and 558.198 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.185" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.185   Diclazuril.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of diclazuril is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for diclazuril are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) Liver: 3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Skin/fat: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.205 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.200   Dihydrostreptomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for dihydrostreptomycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Kidney: 2.0 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Milk: 0.125 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Kidney: 2.0 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.650, 526.1696b, and 526.1696c of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.222" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.222   Doramectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of doramectin is 0.75 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for doramectin (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 300 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 30 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Liver (target tissue): 160 ppb.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.770, 522.772, and 524.770 of this chapter.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.224" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.224   Efrotomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of efrotomycin is 10 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for efrotomycin is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.235 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.226" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.226   Enrofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of enrofloxacin is 3 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for enrofloxacin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.1 ppm desethylene ciprofloxacin (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.5 ppm enrofloxacin (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 516.812 and 522.812 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.227" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.227   Eprinomectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of eprinomectin is 10 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for eprinomectin B<E T="52">1a</E> (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 1.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 100 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Milk: 12 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.814 and 524.814 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.230" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.230   Erythromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for erythromycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.125 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eggs: 0.025 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.823, 522.820, 526.820, and 558.248 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.240" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.240   Estradiol and related esters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Residues.</I> Residues of estradiol are not permitted in excess of the following increments above the concentrations of estradiol naturally present in untreated animals:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Muscle: 0.2 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 0.6 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Kidney: 1.2 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fat: 1.2 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.840, 522.850, 522.1940, 522.2343, 522.2477, and 522.2478 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 17947, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.260   Ethopabate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for ethopabate, measured as metaphenetidine, are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Liver: 1.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kidney: 1.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.58 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.273" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.273   Famphur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for famphur including its oxygen analog is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1242g, 524.900, and 558.254 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.275" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.275   Fenbendazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of fenbendazole is 40 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for fenbendazole are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.8 ppm fenbendazole (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: 0.22 ppm fenbendazole sulfoxide (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 5.2 ppm fenbendazole sulfone (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) Eggs: 1.8 ppm fenbendazole sulfone (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goats.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.8 ppm fenbendazole (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 3.2 ppm fenbendazole (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Turkeys.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 6 ppm fenbendazole sulfone (marker residue).


</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Quail.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 6 ppm fenbendazole sulfone (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.905a, 520.905b, 520.905c, 520.905d, and 558.258 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 57998, Oct. 20, 2021; 86 FR 61686, Nov. 8, 2021; 89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.277" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.277   Fenprostalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of fenprostalene is 0.08 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for fenprostalene are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.914 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.280" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.280   Fenthion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for fenthion is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 524.920 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.283" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.283   Florfenicol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of florfenicol is 10 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for florfenicol amine (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 3.7 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 2.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Catfish.</I> Muscle (target tissue): 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Freshwater-reared warmwater finfish (other than catfish) and salmonids.</I> Muscle/skin (target tissue): 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.955, 522.955, 522.956, and 558.261 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.286" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.286   Flunixin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of flunixin is 0.72 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for flunixin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 125 ppb flunixin free acid (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 25 ppb flunixin free acid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Milk: 2 ppb 5-hydroxy flunixin (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 30 ppb flunixin free acid (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 25 ppb flunixin free acid.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.956, 522.970, 522.1664, and 524.970 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.290" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.290   Fluralaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of fluralaner is 10 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for parent fluralaner (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 320 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 110 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Eggs: 2500 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 500 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 350 ppb.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 516.900 and 520.999 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5301, Feb. 6, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 41561, July 7, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.292" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.292   Gamithromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of gamithromycin is 10 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for gamithromycin (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 500 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 150 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.1014 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.300" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.300   Gentamicin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of gentamicin is 60 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for gentamicin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver: 0.3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kidney (target tissue): 0.4 ppm gentamicin (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(iii) Fat: 0.4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1044a, 520.1044b, 520.1044c, 522.1044, 524.1044e, and 529.1044b of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.304" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.304   Gonadotropin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for residues of total gonadotropins (human chorionic gonadotropin and pregnant mare serum gonadotropin) is 42.25 International Units per kilogram of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for gonadotropin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fish.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.1079 and 522.1081 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.308" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.308   Halofuginone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of halofuginone hydrobromide is 0.7 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for halofuginone (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.16 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.13 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.265 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.310" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.310   Haloxon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for haloxon is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1120a and 520.1120b of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.316" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.316   Hetacillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for ampicillin (marker residue for hetacillin) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle. Edible tissues:</I> 0.01 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 526.1130 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 53311, Oct. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.330" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.330   Hygromycin B.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for hygromycin B are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.274 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.344" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.344   Ivermectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of ivermectin is 5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for 22,23-dihydroavermectin B<E T="52">1</E>a (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>American bison.</I> Liver (target tissue): 15 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 1.6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 650 ppb.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reindeer.</I> Liver (target tissue): 15 ppb.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sheep.</I> Liver (target tissue): 30 ppb.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 20 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 20 ppb.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1192, 520.1195, 520.1197, 522.1192, 522.1193, 524.1193, and 558.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.345" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.345   Ketoprofen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of ketoprofen is 5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for ketoprofen (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 0.36 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.1225 and 522.2632 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 61686, Nov. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.346" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.346   Laidlomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of laidlomycin is 7.5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for laidlomycin (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.305 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.347" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.347   Lasalocid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of lasalocid is 10 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for lasalocid (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.7 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Skin with adhering fat (target tissue): 1.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 0.4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rabbits.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.7 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sheep.</I> Liver (target tissue): 1.0 ppm.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Turkeys.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Skin with adhering fat: 0.4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.311 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.350" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.350   Levamisole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for levamisole are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1242a, 520.1242b, 520.1242d, 520.1242e, 520.1242f, 520.1242g, 522.1242, and 524.1240 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.360" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.360   Lincomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of lincomycin is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for lincomycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver: 0.6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Honey.</I> 750 ppb.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1263b, 522.1260, and 558.325 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021, in § 556.360, paragraph (c) was amended; however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.370" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.370   Lubabegron.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residues of lubabegron is 3 micrograms per kilogram of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for lubabegron (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 10 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 3 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Kidney: 20 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.330 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12494, Apr. 2, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 17947, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.375" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.375   Maduramicin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for maduramicin (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Fat (target tissue): 0.38 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.340 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.380" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.380   Melengestrol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for melengestrol is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Fat: 25 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.342 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.410" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.410   Metoserpate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for metoserpate is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.02 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 520.1422 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.420" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.420   Monensin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of monensin is 12.5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for monensin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver: 0.10 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle, kidney, and fat: 0.05 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Milk: Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goats.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.05 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Quail.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.355 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.425" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.425   Morantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of morantel tartrate is 10 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for N-methyl-1,3-propanediamine (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.7 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Goats.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.7 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1450a, 520.1450b, 520.1450c, and 558.360 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.426" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.426   Moxidectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of moxidectin is 4 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for moxidectin (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Fat (target tissue): 900 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 200 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 50 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iv) Milk: 40 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep.</I> (i) Fat (target tissue): 900 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 200 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 50 ppb.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1454, 522.1450, and 524.1450 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.428" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.428   Narasin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of narasin is 5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for narasin (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Abdominal fat (target tissue): 480 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 558.363 and 558.364 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.430" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.430   Neomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of neomycin is 6 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for neomycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 7.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 3.6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 1.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fat: 7.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(v) Milk: 0.15 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep and goats.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 7.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 3.6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 1.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fat: 7.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(v) Milk: 0.15 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 7.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 3.6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 1.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fat: 7.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Turkeys.</I> (i) Skin with adhering fat: 7.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 3.6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 1.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1484, 524.1600b, 558.365, and 558.455 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.445" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.445   Nicarbazin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residues of nicarbazin (4,4′-dinitrocarbanilide and 2-hydroxy-4,6-dimethylpyrimidine) is 200 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for 4,4′-dinitrocarbanilide (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Liver (target tissue): 52 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 558.364 and 558.366 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.460" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.460   Novobiocin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for novobiocin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding milk): 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens, turkeys, and ducks.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 526.1590, 526.1696d, and 558.415 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.470" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.470   Nystatin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for nystatin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 524.1600b and 558.430 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.490" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.490   Ormetoprim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for ormetoprim are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens, turkeys, ducks, and chukar partridges.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Salmonids and catfish.</I> Edible tissues: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.575 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.495" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.495   Oxfendazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of oxfendazole is 7 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for fenbendazole (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.8 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1629 and 520.1630 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.500" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.500   Oxytetracycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total tetracycline residues (chlortetracycline, oxytetracycline, and tetracycline) is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for the sum of tetracycline residues are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fat and kidney: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Milk: 0.3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fat and kidney: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Finfish.</I> Muscle (with adhering skin when edible): 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lobster.</I> Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Swine and sheep.</I> (i) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fat and kidney: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Honey.</I> 750 ppb.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1660c, 520.1660d, 520.1664, 522.1660a, 522.1660b, 522.1662, 522.1664, 529.1660, 558.450, and 558.455 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020; 88 FR 16549, Mar. 20, 2023, 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.510" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.510   Penicillin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for penicillin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.05 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pheasants and quail.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sheep and swine.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.01 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1696a, 522.1696a, 522.1696b, 526.1696, 526.1697, and 526.1698 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.515" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.515   Pirlimycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of pirlimycin is 0.01 mg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for pirlimycin (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Milk: 0.4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 526.1810 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.517" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.517   Poloxalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for poloxalene is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1840 and 558.464 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.530" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.530   Pradofloxacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of pradofloxacin is 2 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for pradofloxacin (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Kidney (target tissue): 30 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Kidney (target tissue): 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.1860 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.540" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.540   Progesterone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Residues.</I> Residues of progesterone are not permitted in excess of the following increments above the concentrations of progesterone naturally present in untreated animals:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle and sheep.</I> (i) Muscle: 5 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 15 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Kidney: 30 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fat: 30 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.1940 and 529.1940 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.560" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.560   Pyrantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for pyrantel are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver and kidney: 10 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2045 and 558.485 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.570" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.570   Ractopamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of ractopamine hydrochloride is 1.25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for ractopamine (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.09 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.03 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.15 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.05 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Turkeys.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 0.45 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.500 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.580" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.580   Robenidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for robenidine are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Skin and fat: 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.515 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.592" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.592   Salinomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of salinomycin is 5 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for salinomycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quail.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.550 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.597" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.597   Semduramicin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of semduramicin is 3 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for semduramicin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Liver: 400 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 130 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.555 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.600" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.600   Spectinomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of spectinomycin is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for spectinomycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Kidney (target tissue): 4 ppm spectinomycin (marker residue).
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.25 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.1265, 520.2123b, 520.2123c, 522.2120, and 522.2121 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.610" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.610   Streptomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for streptomycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle and swine.</I> (i) Kidney: 2.0 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Kidney: 2.0 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 520.2158 of this chapter.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.625" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.625   Sulfachloropyrazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for sulfachloropyrazine is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 520.2184 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.630" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.630   Sulfachlorpyridazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for sulfachlorpyridazine are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle and swine.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2200 and 522.2200 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.640" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.640   Sulfadimethoxine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for sulfadimethoxine are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Catfish and salmonids.</I> Edible tissues: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: 0.01 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chickens, turkeys, ducks, and chukar partridges.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2220a, 520.2220d, 520.2220e, 522.2220, and 558.575 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.650" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.650   Sulfaethoxypyridazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for sulfaethoxypyridazine are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2240a, 520.2240b, and 522.2240 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.660" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.660   Sulfamerazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for sulfamerazine is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Trout.</I> Edible tissues: Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2218 and 558.582 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.670" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.670   Sulfamethazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for sulfamethazine are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Edible tissues: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.445, 520.2218, 520.2260a, 520.2260b, 520.2260c, 520.2261a, 520.2261b, 522.2260, 558.140, and 558.630 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.685" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.685   Sulfaquinoxaline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for sulfaquinoxaline are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2218, 520.2325a, 520.2325b, and 558.586 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.700" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.700   Sulfomyxin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for sulfomyxin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Zero.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.2340 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.710" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.710   Testosterone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Residues.</I> Residues of testosterone are not permitted in excess of the following increments above the concentrations of testosterone naturally present in untreated animals:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Fat: 2.6 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kidney: 1.9 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iii) Liver: 1.3 ppb.
</P>
<P>(iv) Muscle: 0.64 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.2343 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 10970, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.720" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.720   Tetracycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total tetracycline residues (chlortetracycline, oxytetracycline, and tetracycline) is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for the sum of tetracycline residues are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle and sheep.</I> (i) Kidney and fat: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) Kidney and fat: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Kidney and fat: 12 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2345c and 520.2345d of this chapter.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.732" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.92" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.732   Tiamulin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of tiamulin is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for 8-alpha-hydroxymutilin (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine.</I> Liver (target tissue): 0.6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2455 and 558.612 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.733" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.93" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.733   Tildipirosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of tildipirosin is 50 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for tildipirosin (the marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (the target tissue): 10 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.2460 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.735" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.94" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.735   Tilmicosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of tilmicosin is 25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for tilmicosin (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 1.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 1.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 7.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2471, 522.2471, and 558.618 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.739" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.95" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.739   Trenbolone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of trenbolone is 0.4 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for trenbolone is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.2476, 522.2477, and 522.2478 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.741" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.96" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.741   Tripelennamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for tripelennamine are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Edible tissues (excluding milk): 200 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: 20 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.2615 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.745" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.97" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.745   Tulathromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of tulathromycin is 15 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for CP-60,300 (marker residue) are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Liver (target tissue): 5.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I> Kidney (target tissue): 15 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 522.2630 and 522.2632 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 61686, Nov. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.746" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.98" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.746   Tylosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for tylosin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver, kidney, fat, and muscle: 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Milk: 0.05 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens and turkeys.</I> (i) Liver, kidney, fat, and muscle: 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eggs: 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Liver, kidney, fat, and muscle: 0.2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Honey.</I> 500 ppb.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2640, 522.2640, 558.625, and 558.630 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.748" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.99" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.748   Tylvalosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residues of tylvalosin is 47.7 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> A tolerance for tylvalosin in edible tissues of swine is not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See §§ 520.2645 and 558.633 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.750" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.100" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.750   Virginiamycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of virginiamycin is 250 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for virginiamycin are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens.</I> Edible tissues (excluding eggs): Not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> (i) Kidney, skin, and fat: 0.4 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liver: 0.3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Muscle: 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.635 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.760" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.101" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.760   Zeranol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of zeranol is 1.25 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for zeranol are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): Not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sheep.</I> Edible tissues (excluding milk): 20 ppb.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 522.2680 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.765" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.102" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.765   Zilpaterol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable daily intake (ADI).</I> The ADI for total residue of zilpaterol is 0.083 µg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerance for zilpaterol freebase (marker residue) is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cattle.</I> (i) Liver (target tissue): 12 ppb.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 10 ppb.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.665 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32993, July 11, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 556.770" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.18.2.2.103" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 556.770   Zoalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerances.</I> The tolerances for zoalene and its metabolite 3-amino-5-nitro-<I>o</I>-toluamide are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens.</I> (i) Liver and kidney: 6 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Muscle: 3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fat: 2 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys.</I> Liver and muscle: 3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related conditions of use.</I> See § 558.680 of this chapter.


</P>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="558" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 558—NEW ANIMAL DRUGS FOR USE IN ANIMAL FEEDS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 354, 360b, 360ccc, 360ccc-1, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.3   Definitions and general considerations applicable to this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Regulations in this part provide for approved uses of drugs and combinations of drugs in animal feeds. Approved combinations of such drugs are specifically identified or incorporated by cross-reference. Unless specifically provided for by the regulations, a combination of two or more drugs is not approved. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions apply to terms used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) New animal drugs approved for use in animal feed are placed in two categories as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Category I—These drugs require no withdrawal period at the lowest use level in each major species for which they are approved or are approved for use only in minor species.
</P>
<P>(ii) Category II—These drugs require a withdrawal period at the lowest use level for at least one major species for which they are approved, or are regulated on a “no-residue” basis or with a zero tolerance because of carcinogenic concern regardless of whether a withdrawal period is required in any species.
</P>
<P>(2) A “Type A medicated article” is intended solely for use in the manufacture of another Type A medicated article or a Type B or Type C medicated feed. It consists of a new animal drug(s), with or without carrier (e.g., calcium carbonate, rice hull, corn, gluten) with or without inactive ingredients. The manufacture of a Type A medicated article requires an application approved under § 514.105 of this chapter or an index listing granted under § 516.151 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) A “Type B medicated feed” is intended solely for the manufacture of other medicated feeds (Type B or Type C). It contains a substantial quantity of nutrients including vitamins and/or minerals and/or other nutritional ingredients in an amount not less than 25 percent of the weight. It is manufactured by diluting a Type A medicated article or another Type B medicated feed. The maximum concentration of animal drug(s) in a Type B medicated feed is 200 times the highest continuous use level for Category I drugs and 100 times the highest continuous use level for Category II drugs. The term “highest continuous use level” means the highest dosage at which the drug is approved for continuous use (14 days or more), or, if the drug is not approved for continuous use, it means the highest level used for disease prevention or control. If the drug is approved for multiple species at different use levels, the highest approved level of use would govern under this definition. The manufacture of a Type B medicated feed from a Category II, Type A medicated article requires a medicated feed mill license application approved under § 515.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) A “Type C medicated feed” is intended as the complete feed for the animal or may be fed “top dressed” (added on top of usual ration) on or offered “free-choice” (e.g., supplement) in conjunction with other animal feed. It contains a substantial quantity of nutrients including vitamins, minerals, and/or other nutritional ingredients. It is manufactured by diluting a Type A medicated article or a Type B medicated feed. A Type C medicated feed may be further diluted to produce another Type C medicated feed. The manufacture of a Type C medicated feed from a Category II, Type A medicated article requires a medicated feed mill license application approved under § 515.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) A Type B or Type C medicated feed manufactured from a drug component (bulk or “drum-run” (dried crude fermentation product)) requires an application approved under § 514.105 of this chapter or an index listing granted under § 516.151 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) A “veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug” is a drug intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed pursuant to section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed pursuant to section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive.
</P>
<P>(7) A “veterinary feed directive” is a written (nonverbal) statement issued by a licensed veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice that orders the use of a VFD drug or combination VFD drug in or on an animal feed. This written statement authorizes the client (the owner of the animal or animals or other caretaker) to obtain and use animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug or combination VFD drug to treat the client's animals only in accordance with the conditions for use approved, conditionally approved, or indexed by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(8) A “medicated feed” means a Type B medicated feed as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section or a Type C medicated feed as defined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(9) For the purposes of this part, a “distributor” means any person who distributes a medicated feed containing a VFD drug to another person. Such other person may be another distributor or the client-recipient of a VFD.
</P>
<P>(10) An “animal production facility” is a location where animals are raised for any purpose, but does not include the specific location where medicated feed is made. 
</P>
<P>(11) An “acknowledgment letter” is a written (nonverbal) communication provided to a distributor (consignor) from another distributor (consignee). An acknowledgment letter must be provided either in hardcopy or through electronic media and must affirm:
</P>
<P>(i) That the distributor will not ship such VFD feed to an animal production facility that does not have a VFD,
</P>
<P>(ii) That the distributor will not ship such VFD feed to another distributor without receiving a similar written acknowledgment letter, and
</P>
<P>(iii) That the distributor has complied with the distributor notification requirements of § 558.6(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(12) A “combination veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug” is a combination new animal drug (as defined in § 514.4(c)(1)(i) of this chapter) intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed under section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed under section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian, and at least one of the new animal drugs in the combination is a VFD drug. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a combination VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful VFD.
</P>
<P>(13) “Major species” means cattle, horses, swine, chickens, turkeys, dogs, and cats.
</P>
<P>(14) “Minor species” means animals, other than humans, that are not major species.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 7392, Mar. 3, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 2682, Jan. 26, 1987; 54 FR 51386, Dec. 15, 1989; 56 FR 19268, Apr. 26, 1991; 64 FR 63206, Nov. 19, 1999; 65 FR 76929, Dec. 8, 2000; 72 FR 69130, Dec. 6, 2007; 80 FR 31733, June 3, 2015; 81 FR 57800, Aug. 24, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.4" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.4   Requirement of a medicated feed mill license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A feed manufacturing facility must possess a medicated feed mill license in order to manufacture a Type B or Type C medicated feed from a Category II, Type A medicated article.
</P>
<P>(b) The manufacture of the following types of feed are exempt from the required license, unless otherwise specified:
</P>
<P>(1) Type B or Type C medicated feed using Category I, Type A medicated articles or Category I, Type B or Type C medicated feeds; and
</P>
<P>(2) Type B or Type C medicated feed using Category II, Type B or Type C medicated feeds.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of Type B and Type C medicated feeds shall also conform to the conditions of use provided for in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) This paragraph identifies each drug by category, the maximum level of drug in Type B medicated feeds, and the assay limits for the drug in Type A medicated articles and Type B and Type C medicated feeds, as follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Category I
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drug 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assay limits percent 
<sup>1</sup> Type A 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type B maximum (200x) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assay limits percent 
<sup>1</sup> Type B/C 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amprolium with Ethopabate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22.75 g/lb (5.0%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Avilamycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3 g/lb (1.6%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-110.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0 g/lb (5.5%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bacitracin zinc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 g/lb (1.1%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bambermycins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">800 g/ton (0.09%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120/70-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0 g/lb (8.8%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-115/70-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coumaphos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 g/lb (1.3%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decoquinate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.72 g/lb (0.6%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorvos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33.0 g/lb (7.3%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90-120/80-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diclazuril</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">182 g/t (0.02%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115/70-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efrotomycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.45 g/lb (0.32%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodinated casein</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0 g/lb (4.4%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laidlomycin propionate potassium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 g/lb (0.22%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90-115/85-115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lasalocid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0 g/lb (8.8%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type B (cattle and sheep): 80-120; Type C (all): 75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lincomycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0 g/lb (4.4%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lubabegron</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87-107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">908 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115/80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 g/ton (0.0011%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monensin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0 g/lb (8.8%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens, turkeys, and quail: 75-125; Cattle: 5-10 g/ton 80-120; Cattle: 10-30 g/ton 85-115; Goats: 20 g/ton 85-115; Liq. feed: 80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Narasin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 g/lb (1.98%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115/75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nicarbazin (granular)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 g/lb (1.98%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115/75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Narasin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 g/lb (1.98%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115/75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nystatin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 g/lb (1.1%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0 g/lb (4.4%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125/65-135.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poloxalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">54.48 g/lb (12.0%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liq. feed: 85-115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ractopamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.46 g/lb (0.54%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-110/75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salinomycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 g/lb (1.3%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Semduramicin (as semduramicin sodium)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.27 g/lb (0.50%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Semduramicin (as semduramicin sodium biomass)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.27 g/lb (0.50%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tylosin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 g/lb (2.2%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tylvalosin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.86 g/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Virginiamycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 g/lb (2.2%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zoalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.35 g/lb (2.5%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Percent of labeled amount.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Values given represent ranges for either Type B or Type C medicated feeds. For those drugs that have two range limits, the first set is for a Type B medicated feed and the second set is for a Type C medicated feed. These values (ranges) have been assigned in order to provide for the possibility of dilution of a Type B medicated feed with lower assay limits to make Type C medicated feed.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Category II
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drug
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assay limits percent 
<sup>1</sup> Type A 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type B maximum (100x)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assay limits percent 
<sup>1</sup> Type B/C 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amprolium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.35 g/lb (2.5%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apramycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88-112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5 g/lb (1.65%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbadox</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 g/lb (0.55%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clopidol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.4 g/lb (2.5%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90-115/80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erythromycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.625 g/lb (1.02%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Famphur</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5 g/lb (1.21%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90-115/80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fenbendazole</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93-113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.87 g/lb (1.96%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Florfenicol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1 g/lb (2.0%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine feed: 85-115
<br/>Catfish feed: 80-110.
<br/>Salmonid feed: 80-110.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Halofuginone hydrobromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">272.0 g/ton (.03%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hygromycin B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200 g/ton (0.13%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ivermectin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,180 g/ton (0.13%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-110.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maduramicin ammonium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">545 g/ton (.06%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Morantel tartrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">66.0 g/lb (14.52%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neomycin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 g/lb (4.4%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 g/lb (4.4%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">65-135.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Neomycin sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 g/lb (22.0%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nicarbazin (granular)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.675 g/lb (1.25%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115/75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nicarbazin (powder)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.08 g/lb (2.00%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115/80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Novobiocin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17.5 g/lb (3.85%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyrantel tartrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36 g/lb (7.9%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Robenidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 g/lb (0.33%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfadimethoxine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poultry: 5.675 g/lb
<br/>Fish: 85.1 g/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-115/75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ormetoprim</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poultry: 3.405 g/lb
<br/>Fish: 17.0 g/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfamerazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.6 g/lb (4.0%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfamethazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 g/lb (2.2%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 g/lb (2.2%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-125/70-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfamethazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 g/lb (2.2%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tylosin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 g/lb (2.2%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfaquinoxaline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.2 g/lb (2.5%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85-115.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tiamulin hydrogen fumarate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 g/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90-115/70-130.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tilmicosin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">37.9 g/lb (8.35%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine Type B/C feed: 85-115.
<br/>Cattle Type B feed: 85-115.
<br/>Cattle Type C feed: 80-110.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zilpaterol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">680 g/t (0.075%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-110/75-115.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Percent of labeled amount.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Values given represent ranges for either Type B or Type C medicated feeds. For those drugs that have two range limit, the first set is for a Type B medicated feed and the second set is for a Type C medicated feed. These values (ranges) have been assigned in order to provide for the possibility of dilution of a Type B medicated feed with lower assay limits to make a Type C medicated feed.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) When drugs from both categories are in combination, the Category II requirements will apply to the combination drug product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 7392, Mar. 3, 1986]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.4, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.5" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.5   Requirements for liquid medicated feed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What types of liquid medicated feeds are covered by this section?</I> This section covers the following types of liquid medicated feed:
</P>
<P>(1) Type B feed that is intended for further manufacture of other medicated feeds (§ 558.3(b)(3)) or:
</P>
<P>(2) Type C feed that is intended for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Further manufacture of another Type C feed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Top-dressing (adding on top of the usual ration) (§ 558.3(b)(4)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How is liquid free-choice medicated feed regulated?</I> Liquid free-choice medicated feed is covered by this section and by § 510.455.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What is required for new animal drugs intended for use in liquid feed?</I> Any new animal drug intended for use in liquid feed must be approved for such use under section 512 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) or index listed under section 572 of the act. Such approvals under section 512 of the act must be:
</P>
<P>(1) An original NADA,
</P>
<P>(2) A supplemental NADA, or
</P>
<P>(3) An abbreviated NADA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>What are the approval requirements under section 512 of the act for new animal drugs intended for use in liquid feed?</I> An approval under section 512 of the act for a new animal drug intended for use in liquid feed must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Data, or a reference to data in a master file (MF), that shows the relevant ranges of conditions under which the drug will be chemically stable in liquid feed under field use conditions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Data, or a reference to data in an MF, that shows that the drug is physically stable in liquid feed under field conditions; or
</P>
<P>(3) Feed labeling with recirculation or agitation directions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For liquid feeds stored in recirculating tank systems: Recirculate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For liquid feeds stored in mechanical, air, or other agitation-type tank systems: Agitate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, creating a turbulence at the bottom of the tank that is visible at the top. Agitate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>How are chemical and physical stability data to be submitted?</I> The data must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly in the NADA,
</P>
<P>(2) By a sponsor, or
</P>
<P>(3) To an MF that a sponsor may then reference in its NADA with written consent of the MF holder.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>What will be stated in the published approval for a new animal drug intended for use in liquid feed?</I> The approval of a new animal drug intended for use in liquid feed as published in this subchapter will include the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The formula and/or specifications of the liquid medicated feed, where the owner of this information requests such publication; and/or
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the approval has been granted for a proprietary formula and/or specifications.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When is a medicated feed mill license required for the manufacture of a liquid medicated feed?</I> An approved medicated feed mill license is required for the manufacture of the following types of feeds:
</P>
<P>(1) All liquid medicated feeds that contain a Category II drug, and
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid medicated feeds that contain a Category I drug and use a proprietary formula and/or specifications.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>What measures are in place to prevent certain drugs, approved for use in animal feed or drinking water but not in liquid medicated feed, from being diverted to use in liquid feeds?</I> Any product containing any form of bacitracin, oxytetracycline, or chlortetracycline, intended for oral administration via animal feed and/or drinking water, and not approved for use in a liquid medicated feed must include in its labeling the following statement: “FOR USE IN ___ ONLY. NOT FOR USE IN LIQUID MEDICATED FEEDS.” The blank may be filled in with the words: “DRY FEEDS”, “DRINKING WATER”, or “DRY FEEDS AND DRINKING WATER”.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Can the labeling provisions of paragraph (h) of this section be waived, and how can I apply for a waiver?</I> (1) The labeling provisions of paragraph (h) of this section may be waived if there is evidence to indicate that it is unlikely a new animal drug would be used in the manufacture of a liquid medicated feed.
</P>
<P>(2) To obtain a waiver, you must submit a letter requesting a waiver to the Office of New Animal Drug Evaluation (HFV-100), Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855.
</P>
<P>(3) The letter must include a copy of the product label; a description of the formulation; and information to establish that the physical, chemical, or other properties of the new animal drug are such that diversion to use in liquid medicated feed is unlikely.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>What else do I need to know about the labeling provisions of paragraph (h) of this section?</I> The labeling provisions of paragraph (h) of this section may be implemented without prior approval as provided for in § 514.8(c)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 30197, May 27, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 74785, Dec. 13, 2006; 72 FR 69131, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.6" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.1.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.6   Veterinary feed directive drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements related to veterinary feed directive (VFD) drugs.</I> (1) Animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug or a combination VFD drug (a VFD feed or combination VFD feed) may be fed to animals only by or upon a lawful VFD issued by a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<P>(2) A VFD feed or combination VFD feed must not be fed to animals after the expiration date on the VFD.
</P>
<P>(3) Use and labeling of a VFD drug or a combination VFD drug in feed is limited to the approved, conditionally approved, or indexed conditions of use. Use of feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug in a manner other than as directed on the labeling (extralabel use) is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(4) All involved parties (the veterinarian, the distributor, and the client) must retain a copy of the VFD for 2 years. The veterinarian must retain the original VFD in its original form (electronic or hardcopy). The distributor and client copies may be kept as an electronic copy or hardcopy.
</P>
<P>(5) All involved parties must make the VFD and any other records specified in this section available for inspection and copying by FDA upon request.
</P>
<P>(6) All labeling and advertising for VFD drugs, combination VFD drugs, and feeds containing VFD drugs or combination VFD drugs must prominently and conspicuously display the following cautionary statement: “Caution: Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of the veterinarian issuing the VFD.</I> (1) In order for a VFD to be lawful, the veterinarian issuing the VFD must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be licensed to practice veterinary medicine; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be operating in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice and in compliance with all applicable veterinary licensing and practice requirements, including issuing the VFD in the context of a veterinarian-client-patient relationship (VCPR) as defined by the State. If applicable VCPR requirements as defined by such State do not include the key elements of a valid VCPR as defined in § 530.3(i) of this chapter, the veterinarian must issue the VFD in the context of a valid VCPR as defined in § 530.3(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The veterinarian must only issue a VFD that is in compliance with the conditions for use approved, conditionally approved, or indexed for the VFD drug or combination VFD drug.
</P>
<P>(3) The veterinarian must ensure that the following information is fully and accurately included on the VFD:
</P>
<P>(i) The veterinarian's name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) The client's name, business or home address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(iii) The premises at which the animals specified in the VFD are located;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date of VFD issuance;
</P>
<P>(v) The expiration date of the VFD. This date must not extend beyond the expiration date specified in the approval, conditional approval, or index listing, if such date is specified. In cases where the expiration date is not specified in the approval, conditional approval, or index listing, the expiration date of the VFD must not exceed 6 months after the date of issuance;
</P>
<P>(vi) The name of the VFD drug(s);
</P>
<P>(vii) The species and production class of animals to be fed the VFD feed;
</P>
<P>(viii) The approximate number of animals to be fed the VFD feed by the expiration date of the VFD. The approximate number of animals is the potential number of animals of the species and production class identified on the VFD that will be fed the VFD feed or combination VFD feed at the specified premises by the expiration date of the VFD;
</P>
<P>(ix) The indication for which the VFD is issued;
</P>
<P>(x) The level of VFD drug in the VFD feed and duration of use;
</P>
<P>(xi) The withdrawal time, special instructions, and cautionary statements necessary for use of the drug in conformance with the approval;
</P>
<P>(xii) The number of reorders (refills) authorized, if permitted by the drug approval, conditional approval, or index listing. In cases where reorders (refills) are not specified on the labeling for an approved, conditionally approved, or index listed VFD drug, reorders (refills) are not permitted;
</P>
<P>(xiii) The statement: “Use of feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug in a manner other than as directed on the labeling (extralabel use) is not permitted.”;
</P>
<P>(xiv) An affirmation of intent for combination VFD drugs as described in paragraph (6) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(xv) The veterinarian's electronic or written signature.
</P>
<P>(4) The veterinarian may, at his or her discretion, enter the following information on the VFD to more specifically identify the animals authorized to be treated/fed the VFD feed:
</P>
<P>(i) A more specific description of the location of animals (<I>e.g.,</I> by site, pen, barn, stall, tank, or other descriptor that the veterinarian deems appropriate);
</P>
<P>(ii) The approximate age range of the animals;
</P>
<P>(iii) The approximate weight range of the animals; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other information the veterinarian deems appropriate to identify the animals specified in the VFD.
</P>
<P>(5) For VFDs intended to authorize the use of an approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination VFD drug that includes more than one VFD drug, the veterinarian must include the drug-specific information required in paragraphs (b)(3)(vi), (ix), (x), and (xi) of this section for each VFD drug in the combination.
</P>
<P>(6) The veterinarian may restrict VFD authorization to only include the VFD drug(s) cited on the VFD or may expand such authorization to allow the use of the cited VFD drug(s) along with one or more over-the-counter (OTC) animal drugs in an approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination VFD drug. The veterinarian must affirm his or her intent regarding combination VFD drugs by including one of the following statements on the VFD:
</P>
<P>(i) “This VFD only authorizes the use of the VFD drug(s) cited in this order and is not intended to authorize the use of such drug(s) in combination with any other animal drugs.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “This VFD authorizes the use of the VFD drug(s) cited in this order in the following FDA-approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination(s) in medicated feed that contains the VFD drug(s) as a component.” [List specific approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination medicated feeds following this statement.]
</P>
<P>(iii) “This VFD authorizes the use of the VFD drug(s) cited in this order in any FDA-approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination(s) in medicated feed that contains the VFD drug(s) as a component.”
</P>
<P>(7) The veterinarian must issue a written (nonverbal) VFD.
</P>
<P>(8) The veterinarian must send a copy of the VFD to the distributor via hardcopy, facsimile (fax), or electronically. If in hardcopy, the veterinarian must send the copy of the VFD to the distributor either directly or through the client.
</P>
<P>(9) The veterinarian must provide a copy of the VFD to the client.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities of any person who distributes an animal feed containing a VFD drug or a combination VFD drug.</I> (1) The distributor is permitted to fill a VFD only if the VFD contains all the information required in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The distributor is permitted to distribute an animal feed containing a VFD drug or combination VFD drug only if it complies with the terms of the VFD and is manufactured and labeled in conformity with the approved, conditionally approved, or indexed conditions of use for such drug.
</P>
<P>(3) The distributor must keep records of the receipt and distribution of all medicated animal feed containing a VFD drug for 2 years.
</P>
<P>(4) In addition to other applicable recordkeeping requirements found in this section, if the distributor manufactures the animal feed bearing or containing the VFD drug, the distributor must also keep VFD feed manufacturing records for 1 year in accordance with part 225 of this chapter. Such records must be made available for inspection and copying by FDA upon request.
</P>
<P>(5) A distributor of animal feed containing a VFD drug must notify FDA prior to the first time it distributes animal feed containing a VFD drug. The notification is required one time per distributor and must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The distributor's complete name and business address;
</P>
<P>(ii) The distributor's signature or the signature of the distributor's authorized agent; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The date the notification was signed.
</P>
<P>(6) A distributor must also notify FDA within 30 days of any change in ownership, business name, or business address.
</P>
<P>(7) The notifications cited in paragraphs (c)(5) and (6) of this section must be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Division of Food Compliance, 12225 Wilkins Ave., Rockville, MD 20852, or email (via attachment): <I>MedicatedFeedsTeamMail@fda.hhs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(8) A distributor is permitted to distribute a VFD feed to another distributor only if the originating distributor (consignor) first obtains a written (nonverbal) acknowledgment letter, as defined in § 558.3(b)(11), from the receiving distributor (consignee) before the feed is shipped. Consignor distributors must retain a copy of each consignee distributor's acknowledgment letter for 2 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 31733, June 3, 2015; 80 FR 35841, June 23, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 50784, Aug. 18, 2020; 89 FR 51966, June 21, 2024]







</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific New Animal Drugs for Use in Animal Feeds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.55" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.55   Amprolium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 25 percent amprolium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.50 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Do not use in Type B or Type C medicated feeds containing bentonite. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 113.5 to 11, 350; to provide 5 milligrams per kilogram of body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top-dress on or mix in the daily ration. Feed for 21 days when experience indicates that coccidiosis is likely to be a hazard, as the sole source of amprolium. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 113.5 to 11, 350; to provide 10 milligrams per kilogram of body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves: As an aid in the treatment of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top-dress on or mix in the daily ration. Feed for 5 days as the sole source of amprolium. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Chickens.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 36.3 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement chickens: For development of active immunity to coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously until onset of production as follows:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Growing conditions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Up to 5 weeks of age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">From 5 to 8 weeks of age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Over 8 weeks of age
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Severe exposure to coccidiosis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.6-113.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.3-113.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.008%-0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.004%-0.0125%)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moderate exposure to coccidiosis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.6-113.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54.5-113.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.3-113.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.008%-0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.006%-0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.004%-0.0125%)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Slight exposure to coccidiosis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.3-113.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.3-113.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.3-113.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.004%-0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.004%-0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.004%-0.0125%)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 36.3 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement chickens: For development of active immunity to coccidiosis; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed according to subtable in item (i). Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 72.6 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E> only</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; as sole source of amprolium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 72.6 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E> only; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; as sole source of amprolium. Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Laying chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; as the sole source of amprolium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Laying chickens: For treatment of coccidiosis in moderate outbreaks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 2 weeks
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 113.5 to 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Replacement chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously from day-old until onset of production; as the sole source of amprolium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; as sole source of amprolium
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 113.5 to 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; as sole source of amprolium. Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laying chickens: For treatment of coccidiosis in severe outbreaks.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 2 weeks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Turkeys.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins 1 to 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For prevention of coccidiosis; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole source of amprolium; bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 113.5 to 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For prevention of coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; as sole source of amprolium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Pheasants.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing pheasants: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria colchici, E. duodenalis,</E> and <E T="03">E. phasiani</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Use as sole source of amprolium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Permitted combinations.</I> Amprolium may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10985, Mar. 15, 1976]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.55, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.58" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.58   Amprolium and ethopabate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing:
</P>
<P>(1) 25 percent amprolium and 8 percent ethopabate or 5 percent amprolium and 1.6 percent ethopabate;
</P>
<P>(2) 25 percent amprolium and 0.8 percent ethopabate or 5 percent amprolium and 0.16 percent ethopabate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.50 and 556.260 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Do not use in Type B or Type C medicated feeds containing bentonite. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in chicken feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amprolium and ethopabate in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Amprolium 113.5 and ethopabate 3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration; as sole source of amprolium. Not for laying chickens</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Amprolium 113.5 and ethopabate 36.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens and replacement chickens: where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis where severe exposure to coccidiosis from <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E> is likely to occur</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration; as sole source of amprolium. Not for chickens over 16 weeks of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Amprolium 113.5 and ethopabate 36.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Broiler chickens and replacement chickens: where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired; to aid in prevention of coccidiosis where severe exposure to coccidiosis from <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E> is likely to occur; for increased rate of weight gain in broiler chickens raised in floor pens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration from the time chickens are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Not for chickens over 16 weeks of age; do not feed to laying chickens; as sole source of amprolium; not for use as a treatment for outbreaks of coccidiosis. Bacitracin as bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Amprolium 113.5 and ethopabate 36.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin zinc) 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Broiler chickens: As an aid in prevention of coccidiosis where severe exposure to coccidiosis from <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E> is likely to occur; for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration from the time birds are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard, up to 16 weeks of age. If losses exceed 0.5% in a 2-day period, obtain an accurate diagnosis and follow the instructions of your veterinarian or poultry pathologist. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Not for chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not feed as a treatment for outbreaks of coccidiosis. Do not change the litter while giving this feed unless absolutely necessary. Use as the sole source of amprolium. Do not use in feeds containing bentonite. Bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Amprolium 113.5 and ethopabate 36.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins 1 to 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis where severe exposure to coccidiosis from <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E> is likely to occur; for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; as sole source of amprolium
<br/>Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Amprolium 227 and ethopabate 3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler chickens and replacement chickens where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired; prevention of coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not for laying chickens</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) Amprolium and ethopabate may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(1)-(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10990, Mar. 15, 1976]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.58, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.59" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.59   Apramycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A articles containing 75 grams apramycin (as apramycin sulfate) per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for apramycin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for apramycin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Apramycin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For control of porcine colibacillosis (weanling pig scours) caused by susceptible strains of <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 14 consecutive days. Withdraw 28 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94995, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 10970, Feb. 28, 2022]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.68" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.68   Avilamycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of Type A medicated article contains 45.4 or 90.7 grams of avilamycin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.60 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for avilamycin medicated feeds must not exceed 90 days from the date of issuance. VFDs for avilamycin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> Administer in feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Avilamycin in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 13.6 to 40.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> in broiler chickens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 21 consecutive days. To assure responsible antimicrobial drug use in broiler chickens, treatment administration must begin on or before 18 days of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 13.6 to 40.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens,</E> and as an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by E<E T="03">imeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 21 consecutive days. Feed to chickens that are at risk of developing, but not yet showing clinical signs of, necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens.</E> To assure responsible antimicrobial drug use in broiler chickens, treatment administration must begin on or before 18 days of age. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 13.6 to 40.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Narasin, 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E>; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E>.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 21 consecutive days to chickens that are at risk of developing, but not yet showing clinical signs of, necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E>. To assure responsible antimicrobial drug use in broiler chickens, treatment administration must begin on or before 18 days of age. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Narasin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 13.6 to 40.9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Narasin, 27 to 45 plus nicarbazin, 27 to 45
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens;</E> and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E>


</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 21 consecutive days to chickens that are at risk of developing, but not yet showing clinical signs of, necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens.</E> Avilamycin has not been demonstrated to be effective in broiler chickens showing clinical signs of necrotic enteritis prior to the start of medication. To assure responsible antimicrobial drug use in broiler chickens, treatment administration must begin on or before 18 days of age. The safety of avilamycin has not been established in chickens intended for breeding purposes. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Narasin and nicarbazin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter


</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 13.6 to 40.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Salinomycin sodium, 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E>; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati</E>.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 21 consecutive days. Feed to chickens that are at risk of developing, but not yet showing clinical signs of, necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E>. Not approved for use with pellet binders. To assure responsible antimicrobial drug use in broiler chickens, treatment administration must begin on or before 18 days of age. The safety of avilamycin has not been established in chickens intended for breeding purposes. Avilamycin has not been demonstrated to be effective in broiler chickens showing clinical signs of necrotic enteritis prior to the start of medication. Do not feed to laying hens producing eggs for human consumption. May be fatal if fed to adult turkeys or to horses. Salinomycin as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Avilamycin in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combinationin grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weaned pigs less than 14 weeks of age: For the reduction in incidence and overall severity of diarrhea in the presence of pathogenic <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> in groups of weaned pigs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 21 consecutive days. To assure responsible antimicrobial drug use in pigs, do not administer to pigs 14 weeks of age or older</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 61297, Oct. 13, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 76387, Dec. 9, 2015; 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 48703, July 26, 2016; 81 FR 59134, Aug. 29, 2016; 81 FR 67152, Sept. 30, 2016; 82 FR 11509, Feb. 24, 2017; 83 FR 14587, Apr. 5, 2018; 83 FR 64741, Dec. 18, 2018; 84 FR 8974, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 33001, July 11, 2019; 85 FR 4209, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 45308, July 28, 2020; 86 FR 13188, Mar. 8, 2021; 86 FR 14821, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023; 90 FR 40971, Aug. 22, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.76" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.76   Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Type A medicated articles containing feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate equivalent to 10, 25, 30, 40, 50, 60, or 75 grams bacitracin per pound.
</P>
<P>(2) Type A medicated article containing feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate equivalent to 50 grams bacitracin per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of products in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 069254 for use of product in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.70 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bacitracin in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and replacement chickens: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 10 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laying hens: For increased egg production and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration for the first 7 months of egg production</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and replacement chickens: For the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 28 to 35 days, starting from the time chicks are placed for brooding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254






</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and replacement chickens: As an aid in the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Start at first clinical signs of disease. Vary dosage based on severity of infection. Administer continuously for 5 to 7 days or as long as clinical signs persist, then reduce medication to prevention level (50 grams/ton)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bacitracin in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: As an aid in the control of transmissible enteritis complicated by organisms susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bacitracin in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing and finishing swine: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing and finishing swine: For control of swine dysentery (bloody scours) associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae</E> in pigs up to 250 lbs body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Feed 250 grams per ton of complete feed on premises with a history of swine dysentery, but where signs of the disease have not yet occurred or following an approved treatment of the disease condition. Diagnosis should be confirmed by a veterinarian a when results are not satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pregnant sows: For control of clostridial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> in suckling piglets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As the sole ration. Feed to sows from 14 days before through 21 days after farrowing on premises with a history of clostridial scours. Diagnosis should be confirmed by a veterinarian when results are not satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bacitracin
<br/>amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 70 mg per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction in the number of liver condemnations due to abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer continuously throughout the feeding period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 250 mg per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction in the number of liver condemnations due to abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer continuously for 5 days then discontinue for subsequent 25 days, repeat the pattern during the feeding period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Game birds</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bacitracin in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing pheasants: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 5 to 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing quail: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in quail not over 5 weeks of age</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to quail not over 5 weeks of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing quail: For the prevention of ulcerative enteritis in growing quail due to <E T="03">Clostridium colinum</E> susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Amprolium as in § 558.55.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amprolium and ethopabate as in § 558.58.
</P>
<P>(iii) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<P>(iv) Clopidol as in § 558.175.
</P>
<P>(v) Decoquinate as in § 558.195.
</P>
<P>(vi) Diclazuril as in § 558.198.
</P>
<P>(vii) Fenbendazole as in § 558.258.
</P>
<P>(viii) Halofuginone as in § 558.265.
</P>
<P>(ix) Ivermectin as in § 558.300.
</P>
<P>(x) Lasalocid as in § 558.311.
</P>
<P>(xi) Monensin as in § 558.355.
</P>
<P>(xii) Narasin as in § 558.363.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Narasin and nicarbazin as in § 558.364.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Nicarbazin as in § 558.366.
</P>
<P>(xv) Robenidine as in § 558.515.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Salinomycin as in § 558.550.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Semduramicin as in § 558.555.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Zoalene as in § 558.680.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10993, Mar. 15, 1976]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.76, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.78" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.78   Bacitracin zinc.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing bacitracin zinc equivalent to 10, 25, 40, or 50 grams per pound bacitracin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.70 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bacitracin zinc in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combinations in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing chickens</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys and pheasants: for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys and pheasants</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 5 to 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quail; for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing quail; feed as the Type C feed to starting quail through 5 weeks of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 10 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laying chickens; improved feed efficiency and increased egg production</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine; increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing and finishing swine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine; increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In Type C feed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 20 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine; improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) It is used in feed for growing cattle at 35 to 70 milligrams per head per day as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) To aid in stimulating growth and improving feed efficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency; see sponsor 054771.
</P>
<P>(3) Bacitracin zinc may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Amprolium and ethopabate as in § 558.58.
</P>
<P>(ii) Clopidol as in § 558.175.
</P>
<P>(iii) Decoquinate as in § 558.195.
</P>
<P>(iv) Lasalocid as in § 558.311.
</P>
<P>(v) Monensin as in § 558.355.
</P>
<P>(vi) Naracin as in § 558.363.
</P>
<P>(vii) Nicarbazin as in § 558.366.
</P>
<P>(viii) Robenidine as in § 558.515.
</P>
<P>(ix) Salinomycin as in § 558.550.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10994, Mar. 15, 1976]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.78, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.95" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.95   Bambermycins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 2, 4, or 10 grams bambermycins per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Bambermycins liquid Type B feeds may be manufactured from dry bambermycins Type A articles. The liquid Type B feeds must have a pH of 3.8 to 7.5, moisture content of 30 to 45 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date for the liquid Type B feed is 8 weeks after date of manufacture. The expiration date for the dry Type C feed made from the liquid Type B feed is 1 week after date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens.</I> Use in medicated feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bambermycins in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys.</I> Use in medicated feed as follows:



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bambermycins in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor


</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> Use in medicated feed as follows:



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bambermycins in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor

 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 2 to 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine: For improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bambermycins in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor




</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 1 to 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously at a rate of 10 to 20 milligrams per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 2 to 80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter), and replacement beef and dairy heifers on pasture: For increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously on a hand-fed basis at a rate of 10 to 40 milligrams per head per day in 1 to 10 pounds of supplemental Type C medicated feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592.


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Used as a free-choice Type C medicated loose-mineral feed for pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, and feeder cattle; and beef replacement heifers) as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Specifications.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International Feed No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Deflorinated phosphate (20.5% calcium, 18.5% phosphorus)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-080</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chloride (salt)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium carbonate (38% calcium)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-069</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corn distillers dried grains w/solubles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5-28-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-756</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin and trace mineral premix *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.........</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.........</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yeast (primary dehydrated yeast)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7-05-533</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bambermycins Type A article (10 g/lb)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.........</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-431</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium sulfate (67%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-758</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium premix (270 mg/lb) *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.........</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-720</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium sulfate (0.33%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-06-098</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*Content of vitamin/trace mineral premix may be varied. However, they should be comparable to those used for other free-choice feeds. Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Selenium must comply with 21 CFR 573.920. Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide (EDDI) should comply with FDA Compliance Policy Guides Sec. 651.100 (CPG 7125.18).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Amount per ton.</I> 120 grams.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>)<I>Indications for use.</I> For increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> For free-choice feeding to pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, and feeder cattle; and beef replacement heifers). Feed a nonmedicated commercial mineral product for 6 weeks to stabilize consumption between 2.66 and 10.66 ounces per head per day. Feed continuously to provide 10 to 40 milligrams bambermycins per head per day. Daily bambermycins intakes in excess of 20 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 20 mg/head/day.
</P>
<P>(iv) Use free-choice Type C medicated feeds for pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, and feeder cattle; and beef replacement heifers) as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>Amount.</I> Feed continuously to provide 10 to 40 milligrams of bambermycins per head per day.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> For increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Each use in a free-choice Type C medicated feed must be the subject of an approved new animal drug application (NADA) or supplemental NADA as required by 21 CFR 510.455. Daily bambermycins intakes in excess of 20 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 20 mg/head/day.
</P>
<P>(v) Used as a free-choice Type C medicated loose mineral feed for pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, and feeder cattle; and dairy and beef replacement heifers) as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International Feed No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Deflorinated phosphate (20.5% calcium, 18.5% phosphorus)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-080</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chloride (salt)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium carbonate (38% calcium)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-069</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15.45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corn distillers dried grains w/solubles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5-28-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-756</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin and trace mineral premix *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yeast (primary dehydrated yeast)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7-05-533</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bambermycins Type A article (10 g/lb)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-431</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium sulfate (67%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-758</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper sulfate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-720</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium sulfate (0.33%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-06-098</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Content of vitamin/trace mineral premix may be varied. However, they should be comparable to those used for other free-choice feeds. Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide (EDDI) should comply with FDA Compliance Policy Guides Sec. 651.100 (CPG 7125.18).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) <I>Amount per ton.</I> 120 grams.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Indications for use.</I> For increased rate of weight gain.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Limitations.</I> For free-choice feeding to pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, and feeder cattle; and dairy and beef replacement heifers). Feed a non-medicated commercial mineral product for 6 weeks to stabilize consumption between 2.66 and 10.66 ounces per head per day. Feed continuously to provide 10 to 40 milligrams bambermycins per head per day. Daily bambermycins intakes in excess of 20 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 20 mg/head/day.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Combinations.</I> Bambermycins may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Amprolium as in § 558.55.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amprolium and ethopabate as in § 558.58.
</P>
<P>(iii) Clopidol as in § 558.175.
</P>
<P>(iv) Diclazuril as in § 558.198.
</P>
<P>(v) Halofuginone as in § 558.265.
</P>
<P>(vi) Lasalocid as in § 558.311.
</P>
<P>(vii) Monensin as in § 558.355.
</P>
<P>(viii) Narasin as in § 558.363.
</P>
<P>(ix) Narasin and nicarbazin as in § 558.364.
</P>
<P>(x) Nicarbazin as in § 558.366.
</P>
<P>(xi) Salinomycin as in § 558.550.
</P>
<P>(xii) Zoalene as in § 558.680.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.95, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.115   Carbadox.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approvals.</I> Type A medicated articles: 2.2. percent (10 grams per pound) to 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.100 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special considerations.</I> Do not use in Type B or Type C medicated feeds containing bentonite.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used for swine as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount per ton.</I> 10-25 grams (0.0011-0.00275 percent). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> For increase in rate of weight gain and improvement of feed efficiency. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in pregnant swine or swine intended for breeding purposes. Do not feed to swine within 42 days of slaughter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount per ton.</I> 50 grams (0.0055 percent). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of swine dysentery (vibrionic dysentery, bloody scours, or hemorrhagic dysentery); control of bacterial swine enteritis (salmonellosis or necrotic enteritis caused by <I>Salmonella choleraesuis</I>); increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Not for use in pregnant swine or swine intended for breeding purposes. Do not feed to swine within 42 days of slaughter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amount per ton.</I> Carbadox 50 grams (0.0055 percent) plus pyrantel tartrate, 96 grams (0.0106 percent). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> For control of swine dysentery (vibrionic dysentery, bloody scours, or hemorrhagic dysentery); control of bacterial swine enteritis (salmonellosis or necrotic enteritis caused by <I>Salmonella choleraesuis</I>); aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<I>Ascaris suum</I>) infections; aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<I>Oesophagostomum</I>) infections. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitations.</I> Do not feed to swine over 75 pounds; do not feed within 10 weeks of slaughter; consult a veterinarian before feeding to severely debilitated animals; feed continuously as sole ration. Do not use in complete feeds containing less than 15 percent crude protein.
</P>
<P>(4) Carbadox may also be used in combination with oxytetracycline as in § 558.450.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 45164, Oct. 1, 1975; 40 FR 57798, Dec. 12, 1975; 42 FR 761, Jan. 4, 1977; 51 FR 7396, Mar. 3, 1986; 63 FR 59216, Nov. 3, 1998; 66 FR 47963, Sept. 17, 2001; 69 FR 51173, Aug. 18, 2004; 82 FR 21691, May 10, 2017] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.128" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.128   Chlortetracycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing either chlortetracycline calcium complex equivalent to chlortetracycline hydrochloride, or for products intended for use in milk replacer, chlortetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>No. 054771:</I> 50, 70, 80, 90, or 100 grams per pound (g/lb) Type A medicated article.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No. 066104:</I> 10, 20, 30, 50, 70, or 100 g/lb of Type A medicated article.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No. 069254:</I> 50, 90, or 100 g/lb of Type A medicated article.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.150 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for chlortetracycline medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for chlortetracycline shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) In milk replacers or starter feed; include on labeling the warning: “A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.”
</P>
<P>(4) Manufacture for use in free-choice feeds as in paragraph (e)(4)(vi) of this section must conform to § 510.455 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) When manufactured for use as in paragraph (e)(5)(iii) of this section, include on labeling the warning: “Psittacosis, avian chlamydiosis, or ornithosis is a reportable communicable disease, transmissible between wild and domestic birds, other animals, and man. Contact appropriate public health and regulatory officials.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chlortetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 100 to 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">Mycoplasma synoviae</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. For No. 066104: Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 066104 069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 100 to 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clopidol, 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti;</E> and for control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">M. synoviae</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration from the time chicks are placed in floor pens for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Chlortetracycline as provided by No. 054771; clopidol as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 100 to 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decoquinate, 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E><E T="03"> E. mivati, E. acervulina,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti;</E> and for control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">M, synoviae</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Bentonite should not be used in decoquinate feeds. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption
<br/>Chlortetracycline and decoquinate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 100 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Robenidine, 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. mivati, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. tenella, E. acervulina,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix;</E> as an aid in the control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) caused by <E T="03">Mycoplasma gallisepticum</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and as an aid in the control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">M. synoviae</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not use this product in feeds conta
<br/>Chlortetracycline and robenidine as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 200 to 400 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For the control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) and air sac infection caused by <E T="03">M. gallisepticum</E> and <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. For No. 066104: Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 066104 069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amprolium, 227 and ethopabate, 3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For chickens where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired: For prevention of coccidiosis; and for treatment of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) caused by <E T="03">M. gallisepticum</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use in low calcium feed containing 0.8% dietary calcium and 1.5% sodium sulfate; feed continuously as sole ration for 7 to 14 days; do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Chlortetracycline as provided by No. 054771; amprolium and ethopabate as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decoquinate, 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broilers: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. mivati,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti;</E> and for the treatment of chronic respiratory disease (air sac infection) and the prevention of synovitis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for no more than 8 weeks. Use in low calcium feed containing 0.8% dietary calcium. Bentonite should not be used in decoquinate feeds. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption
<br/>Chlortetracycline and decoquinate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Robenidine 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. mivati, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. tenella, E. acervulina,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix;</E> as an aid in the control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) caused by <E T="03">M. gallisepticum</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and as an aid in the control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">M. synoviae</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not use this product in feeds containing bentonite. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter
<br/>Chlortetracycline and robenidine as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 500 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For the reduction of mortality due to <E T="03">E. coli</E> infections susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Feed for 5 days. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 048-761 and No. 069254 under ANADA 200-510: zero withdrawal time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Feed for 5 days; withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 500 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: As an aid in the reduction of mortality due to <E T="03">E. coli</E> infections susceptible to chlortetracycline; and as an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> <E T="03">E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 5 days as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. Not to be fed continuously for more than 5 days. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter. See § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by No. 054771; monensin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) 500 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Robenidine, 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria mivati, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. tenella, E. acervulina,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix;</E> as an aid in the reduction of mortality due to <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration for up to 5 days. Do not use this product in feeds containing bentonite. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter
<br/>Chlortetracycline and robenidine as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) 500 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salinomycin, 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> <E T="03">E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati;</E> and as an aid in the reduction of mortality due to <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For use in low calcium feeds containing 0.8% calcium. Not approved for use with pellet binders. Not to be fed continuously for more than 5 days. Do not feed to laying chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter. May be fatal if accidentally fed to adult turkeys or horses. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; salinomycin as provided by Nos. 054771 or 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592 054771 069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chlortetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">M. synoviae</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 400 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Turkeys: For control of hexamitiasis caused by <E T="03">Hexamita meleagridis</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Turkey poults not over 4 weeks of age: For reduction of mortality due to paratyphoid caused by <E T="03">Salmonella typhimurium</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 25 mg/lb of body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of complicating bacterial organisms associated with bluecomb (transmissible enteritis; coronaviral enteritis) susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chlortetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 50 to 100 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For reducing the incidence of cervical lymphadenitis (jowl abscesses) caused by Group E <E T="03">Streptococci</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 400 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Breeding swine: For the control of leptospirosis (reducing the incidence of abortion and shedding of leptospirae) caused by <E T="03">Leptospira pomona</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for not more than 14 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 10 mg/lb of body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and <E T="03">S. choleraesuis</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; for the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis) caused by <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed approximately 400 g/ton, varying with body weight and feed consumption to provide 10 mg/lb per day. Feed for not more than 14 days. Withdraw 5 d prior to slaughter for sponsor No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 10 mg/lb of body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and <E T="03">S. choleraesuis</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">P. multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; for the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis) caused by <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed approximately 400 g/ton, varying with body weight and feed consumption to provide 10 mg/lb per day. Feed for not more than 14 days. Chlortetracycline and bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 10 mg/lb of body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and <E T="03">S. choleraesuis</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">P. multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed chlortetracycline at approximately 400 g/ton of feed, varying with body weight and food consumption, to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight. Feed for not more than 14 days. Withdraw 5 d prior to slaughter for sponsor No. 069254. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 054771; chlortetracycline provided by Nos. 054771 and 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 10 mg/lb of body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tiamulin hydrogen fumarate, 35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira</E> (formerly <E T="03">Serpulina</E> or <E T="03">Treponema</E>) <E T="03">hyodysenteriae</E> susceptible to tiamulin and for treatment of swine bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and <E T="03">Salmonella choleraesuis</E> sensitive to chlortetracycline and treatment of bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">P. multocida</E> sensitive to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed chlortetracycline at approximately 400 g/ton of feed, varying with body weight and food consumption, to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight. Feed continuously as the sole ration for 14 days. Withdraw medicated feed 2 days before slaughter. Tiamulin as provided by Nos. 058198 or 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chlortetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) to provide 70 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing cattle (over 400 lb): For reduction of liver condemnation due to liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed to provide chlortetracycline at the rate of 70 mg per animal daily. A withdrawal period has not been established in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 5.83 to 14 g/ton to provide 70 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter (over 400 lb): For reduction of the incidence of liver abscesses, increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed or mixed at feeding with the Type C medicated feed containing 5.83 to 14 g/ton chlortetracycline. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 7 to 17.5 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter over 400 lb: For reduction of the incidence of liver abscesses and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 70 mg chlortetracycline per head per day and 50 to 480 mg monensin per head per day. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 grams per ton (360 mg monensin per head per day). For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 7 to 17.5 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter over 400 lb: For reduction of the incidence of liver abscesses and for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 70 mg chlortetracycline per head per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per lb. body weight per day to provide, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg monensin per head per day. For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) to provide 0.5 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle (over 700 lb): For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed to provide chlortetracycline at the rate of 0.5 mg per pound of body weight daily. Withdraw 48 hours prior to slaughter. To sponsor Nos. 054771 and 069254: Zero withdrawal time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 33.33 to 50 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/lb of body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef heifers over 700 lb: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed or mixed at feeding with the Type C medicated feed containing 33.33 to 50 g/ton chlortetracycline. Feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate shall not exceed 24 days. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 25 to 1,100 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, beef replacement heifers) over 700 pounds: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously on a hand-fed basis 0.5 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg lasalocid per head daily in at least 1 pound of feed. Daily lasalocid intakes in excess of 200 mg/head/day in pasture cattle have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg lasalocid/head/day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 25 to 1,100 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600; melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef heifers on pasture over 700 pounds: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline, increased rate of weight gain, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 25 to 1,100 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 600 g/ton lasalocid to provide 0.5 mg chlortetracycline per lb body weight per day and not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg lasalocid per head per day in at least 1 pound of feed. Do not exceed 24 days of feeding. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 33.33 to 66.67 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter over 700 lbs: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 0.5 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and 50 to 480 mg monensin per head per day. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 grams per ton (360 mg monensin per head per day). For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 33.33 to 66.67 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter over 700 lbs: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 0.5 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per lb. body weight per day to provide, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg monensin per head per day. For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) 50 to 117 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 7.14 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter under 700 lbs: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head per day and 50 to 480 mg monensin per head per day. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 grams per ton (360 mg monensin per head per day). For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) 50 to 117 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter under 700 lbs: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per lb. body weight per day to provide, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg monensin per head per day. For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiii) 50 to 117 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 7.14 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For the control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head per day and 50 to 480 mg monensin per head per day. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 grams per ton (360 mg monensin per head per day). For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiv) 50 to 117 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, &gt;10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For the control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per lb. body weight per day to provide, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg monensin per head per day. For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xv) to provide 0.5 to 2.0 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle: As an aid in the control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In Type C free-choice cattle feeds such as feed blocks or salt-mineral mixes manufactured from approved Type A articles. See paragraph (d)(4) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvi) to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves, beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed approximately 400 g/ton, varying with body weight and feed consumption to provide 10 mg/lb per day. Treat for not more than 5 days. To sponsor No. 054771 (NADAs 048-761 and 046-699) and to sponsor No. 069254 (ANADA 200-510): May be mixed in the cattle's daily ration or administered as a top-dress. In feed including milk replacers withdraw 10 days prior to slaughter. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 046-699: 24-hour withdrawal period. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 048-761 and No. 069254 under ANADA 200-510: Zero withdrawal period. See paragraph (d)(3) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvii) to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves (up to 250 lb): For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by Escherichia coli susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xviii) 400 to 2,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and 50 to 480 mg monensin per head per day. Feed for not more than 5 days, then continue feeding monensin Type C medicated feed alone. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 grams per ton (360 mg monensin per head per day). For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xix) 400 to 2,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per lb. body weight per day to provide, depending upon severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg monensin per head per day. Feed for not more than 5 days, then continue feeding monensin Type C medicated feed alone. For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xx) 400 to 2,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef calves 2 months of age and older: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and 0.14 to 1.00 mg monensin per lb. body weight per day to provide, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 200 mg of monensin per head per day. Feed for not more than 5 days, then continue to feed monensin Type C medicated feed alone. For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198, chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxi) 400 to 2,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 15 to 84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef and dairy heifers: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For replacement beef and dairy heifers not currently being fed monensin: Feed as the sole ration for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per pound of body weight per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day, depending upon severity of challenge, to provide 50 to 100 mg monensin per head per day in a minimum of 1 pound of Type C medicated feed. After 5 days, continue to feed monensin Type C medicated feed alone to provide 50 to 200 mg monensin per head per day in a minimum of 1 pound of Type C medicated feed.
<br/>For replacement beef and dairy heifers currently being fed monensin: Feed as the sole ration for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per pound of body weight per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day, depending upon severity of challenge, to provide 50 to 200 mg monensin per head per day in a minimum of 1 pound of Type C medicated feed. After 5 days, continue to feed monensin Type C medicated feed alone. This drug is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Monensin as provided by No. 058198 or 016592; chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254, 016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxii) 400 to 2,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 15 to 400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef and dairy heifers: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For replacement beef and dairy heifers not currently being fed monensin: Feed as the sole ration for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per pound of body weight per day and 50 to 100 mg monensin per head per day in a minimum of 1 pound of Type C medicated feed. After 5 days, continue to feed monensin Type C medicated feed alone to provide 50 to 200 mg monensin per head per day in a minimum of 1 pound of Type C medicated feed.
<br/>For replacement beef and dairy heifers currently being fed monensin: Feed as the sole ration for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per pound of body weight per day and 50 to 200 mg monensin per head per day in a minimum of 1 pound of Type C medicated feed. After 5 days, continue to feed monensin Type C medicated feed alone. This drug is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. Monensin as provided by No. 058198 or 016592; chlortetracycline by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0692544, 0165924
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxiii) 500 to 2,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laidlomycin, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously at a rate of 30 to 75 mg laidlomycin propionate potassium per head per day for not more than 5 days. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.305(d) of this chapter. Laidlomycin as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxiv) 500 to 4,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laidlomycin, 5 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously at a rate of 30 to 75 mg laidlomycin propionate potassium per head per day for not more than 5 days. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.305(d) of this chapter. Laidlomycin as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxv) 500 to 2,000 to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and not less than 100 mg or more than 360 mg lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxvi) 500 to 1,200 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 25 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb body weight and not less than 250 mg or more than 360 mg lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxvii) 500 to 4,000 to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, dairy and beef replacement heifers): For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously on a hand-fed basis for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb. body weight per day and not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg lasalocid per head per day in at least 1 pound of feed. Daily lasalocid intakes in excess of 200 mg/head/day in pasture cattle have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg lasalocid/head/day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxviii) 500 to 4,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600: Melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement dairy heifers on pasture less than 20 months of age and replacement beef heifers on pasture: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline, increased rate of weight gain, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 500 to 4,000 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 600 g/ton lasalocid to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb body weight per day and not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg lasalocid per head per day in at least 1 pound of feed for not more than 5 days. After completing feeding of this combination, continue feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate alone for a total time not exceeding 24 days of feeding. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254, lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxix) 500 to 4,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves, beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hand feed continuously for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg/lb body weight per day. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 046-699: 24-hour withdrawal period. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 048-761 and No. 069254 under ANADA 200-510: Zero withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxx) 500 to 4,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decoquinate, 12.9 to 90.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves, beef and non-lactating dairy cattle: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at a rate of 1g chlortetracycline per 100 lb body weight/day and 22.7 mg decoquinate per 100 lb of body weight/day for not more than 5 days. When it is fully consumed, resume feeding 22.7 mg decoquinate per 100 lb of body weight/day for a total of 28 days to prevent coccidiosis. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Do not feed to animals producing milk for food. Decoquinate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxi) 500 to 4,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline, increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 500 to 4,000 g/ton chlortetracycline for not more than 5 days. After completing feeding of this combination, continue feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate alone. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxii) 500 to 4,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement dairy heifers less than 20 months of age and replacement beef heifers: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline, and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 500 to 4,000 g/ton chlortetracycline for not more than 5 days. After completing feeding of this combination, continue feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate alone for a total time not exceeding 24 days. Use in dairy heifers less than 20 months of age may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxiii) 4,000 to 20,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves, beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer as a top dress, varying with body weight and feed consumption, to provide 10 mg/lb per day. Treat for not more than 5 days. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxiv) 4,000 to 20,000 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decoquinate, 90.8 to 535.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves, beef and non-lactating dairy cattle: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at a rate of 1g chlortetracycline per 100 lb body weight/day and 22.7 mg decoquinate per 100 lb of body weight/day for not more than 5 days. When it is fully consumed, resume feeding 22.7 mg decoquinate per 100 lb of body weight/day for a total of 28 days to prevent coccidiosis. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Do not feed to animals producing milk for food. Decoquinate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxv) 4,000 to 20,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline, and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top dress 0.5 to 2 pounds of this medicated feed containing both drugs onto or mix at feeding with a non-medicated feed for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per pound of body weight per day. After completing feeding of this combination, continue feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate alone. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxvi) 4,000 to 20,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement dairy heifers less than 20 months of age and replacement beef heifers: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline, and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top dress 0.5 to 2 pounds of this medicated feed containing both drugs onto or mix at feeding with a non-medicated feed for not more than 5 days to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per pound of body weight per day. After completing feeding of this combination, continue feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate alone for a total time not exceeding 24 days. Use in dairy heifers less than 20 months of age may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxvii) to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed to provide chlortetracycline at the rate of 350 mg per animal daily. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Withdrawal periods: To sponsor No. 054771 under NADAs 046-699 and 049-287, No. 066104 under NADA 092-286, and No. 069254 under NADA 048-480: Withdraw 48 hours prior to slaughter. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 048-761 and No. 069254 under NADA 138-935 and ANADA 200-510: Zero withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxviii) to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle (under 700 lb): For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed to provide chlortetracycline at the rate of 350 mg per animal daily. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Withdrawal periods: To sponsor No. 054771 under NADAs 046-699 and 049-287, No. 066104 under NADA 092-286, and No. 069254 under NADA 048-480: Withdraw 48 hours prior to slaughter. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 048-761 and No. 069254 under NADA 138-935 and ANADA 200-510: Zero withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xxxix) 50 to 350 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef heifers under 700 lb: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed or mixed at feeding with the Type C medicated feed containing 50 to 350 g/ton chlortetracycline for up to 24 days of feeding. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xl) 20 to 350 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle and replacement dairy heifers: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed to provide chlortetracycline at the rate of 350 mg per head per day. This drug is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. To sponsor No. 054771 under NADA 048-761 and No. 069254 under ANADA 200-510: Zero withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xli) 20 to 350 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline, increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with the Type C medicated feed containing 20 to 350 g/ton chlortetracycline. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xlii) 20 to 350 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement dairy heifers less than 20 months of age and replacement beef heifers: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed or mixed at feeding with the Type C medicated feed containing 20 to 350 g/ton chlortetracycline. Feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate shall not exceed 24 days of feeding. Use in dairy heifers less than 20 months of age may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xliii) 23.3 to 58.3 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laidlomycin, 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously at a rate of 30 to 75 mg laidlomycin propionate potassium per head per day. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.305(d) of this chapter. Laidlomycin as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xliv) 14.6 to 116.7 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laidlomycin, 5 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously at a rate of 30 to 75 mg laidlomycin propionate potassium per head per day. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.305(d) of this chapter. Laidlomycin as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xlv) 25 to 42.2 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 25 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle under 700 pounds fed in confinement for slaughter: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and not less than 250 mg nor more than 360 mg lasalocid per head daily. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xlvi) 25 to 42.2 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 25 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and not less than 250 mg nor more than 360 mg lasalocid per head daily. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xlvii) 25 to 100 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle under 700 pounds fed in confinement for slaughter: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and not less than 100 mg nor more than 360 mg lasalocid per head daily. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xlviii) 25 to 100 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and not less than 100 mg nor more than 360 mg lasalocid per head daily. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xlix) 25 to 700 to provide 350 g/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, dairy and beef replacement heifers): For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously on a hand-fed basis at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and not less than 60 mg nor more than 300 mg lasalocid per head per day in at least 1 pound of feed. Daily lasalocid intakes in excess of 200 mg/head/day in pasture cattle have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg lasalocid/head/day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(l) 25 to 700 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600; melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef heifers on pasture: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline, increased rate of weight gain, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 25 to 700 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 600 g/ton lasalocid to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head daily and not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg lasalocid per head daily in at least 1 pound of feed. Do not exceed 24 days of feeding. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(li) 25 to 700 to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, beef replacement heifers) under 700 pounds: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously on a hand-fed basis at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and not less than 60 mg nor more than 300 mg lasalocid per head per day in at least 1 pound of feed. Daily lasalocid intakes in excess of 200 mg/head/day in pasture cattle have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg lasalocid/head/day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(lii) 25 to 700 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 600; melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef heifers on pasture under 700 pounds: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline, increased rate of weight gain, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 25 to 700 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 600 g/ton lasalocid to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head daily and not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg lasalocid per head daily in at least 1 pound of feed. Do not exceed 24 days of feeding. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(liii) 25 to 2,800 to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle weighing under 700 pounds: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hand feed continuously at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb. body weight daily to cattle with a maximum of 360 mg of lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline and lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(liv) 25 to 2,800 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8; melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter under 700 pounds: For control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <E T="03">Anaplasma marginale</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline, control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii,</E> increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 25 to 2,800 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 181.8 g/ton lasalocid to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head per day and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb. of body weight daily with a maximum of 360 mg lasalocid per head per day. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(lv) 25 to 2,800 to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle weighing up to 800 pounds: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hand feed continuously at a rate of 350 mg chlortetracycline and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb. body weight daily to cattle with a maximum of 360 mg of lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(lvi) 25 to 2,800 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8; melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter up to 800 pounds: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline, control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii,</E> increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 25 to 2,800 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 181.8 g/ton lasalocid to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head daily and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb. of body weight daily with a maximum of 360 mg lasalocid per head per day. See§ 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(lvii) 25 to 2,800 g/ton to provide 350 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8; melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement beef heifers up to 800 pounds: For control of bacterial pneumonia associated with shipping fever complex caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella</E> spp. susceptible to chlortetracycline, control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii,</E> and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 25 to 2,800 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 181.8 g/ton lasalocid to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline per head daily and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb. of body weight daily with a maximum of 360 mg lasalocid per head per day. Do not exceed 24 days of feeding. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(lviii) 500 to 4,000 to provide 10 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle weighing up to 800 pounds: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline; and for the control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hand feed continuously for not more than 5 days at a rate of 10 mg chlortetracycline and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb. body weight daily to cattle with a maximum of 360 mg of lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing lasalocid. No withdrawal period is required. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(lix) 500 to 4,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8; melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter up to 800 pounds: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline, control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii,</E> increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 500 to 4,000 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 181.8 g/ton lasalocid to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb of body weight per day and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb of body weight per day with a maximum of 360 mg lasalocid per head per day for not more than 5 days of feeding. After completing feeding of this combination, continue feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate alone. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(lx) 500 to 4,000 g/ton to provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8; melengestrol acetate, 0.5 to 2 g/ton to provide 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement dairy heifers up to 800 pounds and less than 20 months of age and replacement beef heifers up to 800 pounds: For the treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> organisms susceptible to chlortetracycline, control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii,</E> and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 500 to 4,000 g/ton of chlortetracycline and 30 to 181.8 g/ton lasalocid to provide 10 mg chlortetracycline per lb of body weight per day and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb of body weight per day with a maximum of 360 mg lasalocid per head per day for not more than 5 days. After completing feeding of this combination, continue feeding a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing melengestrol acetate alone. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Chlortetracycline as provided by Nos. 054771 or 069254; lasalocid and melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Minor species.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chlortetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 80 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Breeding sheep; reducing the incidence of (vibrionic) abortion caused by <E T="03">Campylobacter fetus</E> infection susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 200 to 400 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ducks: For the control and treatment of fowl cholera caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed in complete ration to provide from 8 to 28 mg/lb of body weight per day, depending upon age and severity of disease, for not more than 21 days. Do not feed to ducks producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 10 mg/g of finished feed daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Psittacine birds (cockatoos, macaws, and parrots) suspected or known to be infected with psittacosis caused by <E T="03">Chlamydia psittaci</E> sensitive to chlortetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 45 days. Each bird should consume daily an amount of medicated feed equal to one fifth of its body weight. See paragraph (d)(5) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) It is used as a free-choice, loose mineral Type C feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Specifications.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International feed No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicalcium Phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-26-335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium Chloride (Salt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium Oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-756
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cottonseed Meal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5-01-625
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trace Mineral/Vitamin Premix 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium Carbonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dried Cane Molasses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-04-695
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-03-755
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral Oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8-03-123
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron Oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-431
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlortetracycline Type A medicated article (90 gram/lb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Content of vitamin and trace mineral premixes may be varied. However, they should be comparable to those used for other free-choice feeds. Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Selenium must comply with 21 CFR 573.920. Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide (EDDI) should comply with FDA Compliance Policy Guides Sec. 651.100 (CPG 7125.18).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 6,000 grams per ton.
</P>
<P>(iii) Indications for use. Beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: As an aid in the control of active infection of anaplasmosis caused by <I>Anaplasma marginale</I> susceptible to chlortetracycline.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Limitations.</I> Feed continuously on a free-choice basis at a rate of 0.5 to 2.0 mg chlortetracycline per pound of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94995, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 21691, May 10, 2017; 82 FR 43485, Sept. 18, 2017; 83 FR 13636, Mar. 30, 2018; 83 FR 14588, Apr. 5, 2018; 83 FR 48947, Sept. 28, 2018; 83 FR 64741, Dec. 18, 2018; 84 FR 8975, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 39185, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 13189, Mar. 8, 2021; 86 FR 14822, Mar. 19, 2021; 86 FR 17064, Apr. 1, 2021; 86 FR 57999, Oct. 20, 2021; 86 FR 61686, Nov. 8, 2021; 87 FR 58963, Sept. 29, 2022; 87 FR 76422, Dec. 14, 2022; 88 FR 14901, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 55567, Aug. 16, 2023; 89 FR 14411, Feb. 27, 2024; 89 FR 95103, Dec. 2, 2024; 90 FR 6801, Jan. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.140" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.140   Chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing:
</P>
<P>(1) 35 grams (g) per pound (/lb) each, chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(2) 40 g/lb each, chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 069254 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nos. 054771 and 069254 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.150 and 556.670 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chlortetracycline
<br/>and sulfamethazine
<br/>amount each
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) To provide 350 milligrams per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle: As an aid in the maintenance of weight gains in the presence of respiratory disease such as shipping fever.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 28 days. Withdraw 7 days prior to slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 35 to 105 g/ton, each</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: As an aid in the maintenance of weight gains in the presence of respiratory disease such as shipping fever, and for improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 28 days to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline, 350 mg sulfamethazine, and 100 to 300 mg lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to Type C feeds containing lasalocid as ingestion may be fatal. Safety of lasalocid for use in unapproved species has not been established. Withdraw 7 days prior to slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 35 to 42.2 g/ton, each</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 25 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: As an aid in the maintenance of weight gains in the presence of respiratory disease such as shipping fever, and for improved feed efficiency and increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 28 days to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline, 350 mg sulfamethazine, and 250 to 300 mg lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to Type C feeds containing lasalocid as ingestion may be fatal. Safety of lasalocid for use in unapproved species has not been established. Withdraw 7 days prior to slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 35 to 700 g/ton, each</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 30 to 181.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle up to 800 lb: As an aid in the maintenance of weight gains in the presence of respiratory disease such as shipping fever, and for control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E>.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hand feed continuously for 28 days to provide 350 mg chlortetracycline, 350 mg sulfamethazine, and 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb body weight per day up to a maximum of 360 mg lasalocid per head per day. Do not allow horses or other equines access to Type C feeds containing lasalocid as ingestion may be fatal. Safety of lasalocid for use in unapproved species has not been established. Withdraw 7 days prior to slaughter. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 100 g/ton of feed each, chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For reduction of the incidence of cervical abscesses; treatment of bacterial swine enteritis (salmonellosis or necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Salmonella choleraesuis</E> and vibrionic dysentery); prevention of these diseases during times of stress; and maintenance of weight gains in the presence of atrophic rhinitis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Withdraw 15 days prior to slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 37622, July 2, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 13231, Mar. 13, 2015; 81 FR 63054, Sept. 14, 2016; 81 FR 95004, Dec. 27, 2016; 82 FR 21691, May 10, 2017; 84 FR 12495, Apr. 2, 2019; 86 FR 13189, Mar. 8, 2021; 86 FR 14822, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.175" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.175   Clopidol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 25 percent clopidol.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.160 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Clopidol in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens and re-placement chickens intended for use as caged layers: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration from the time chicks are placed in floor pens until slaughter. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin zinc, 5 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration; bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104 016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and replacement chickens intended for use as caged layers: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration; feed up to 16 weeks of age if intended for use as caged layers; withdraw 5 days before slaughter if given at the level of 0.025 percent in feed or reduce level to 0.0125 percent 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration until 5 days before slaughter. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter or feed 113.5 g/ton clopidol and 1 to 2 g/ton bambermycins during those 5 days before slaughter. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Clopidol in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 113.5 or 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: As an aid in the prevention of leucocytozoonosis caused by <E T="03">Leucocytozoon smithi.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For turkeys grown for meat purposes only; feed continuously as the sole ration at 0.0125 or 0.025 percent clopidol depending on management practices, degree of exposure, and amount of feed eaten; withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Combinations.</I> Clopidol may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 17882, Apr. 14, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 60551, Oct. 25, 2007; 74 FR 61028, Nov. 23, 2009; 79 FR 10965, 10982, Feb. 27, 2014; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 95004, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 12495, Apr. 2, 2019; 86 FR 14822, Mar. 19, 2021; 91 FR 20343, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.185" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.185   Coumaphos.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 1.12, 2.0, 11.2, or 50 percent coumaphos.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.168 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Labeling shall bear the following warning: The active ingredient coumaphos is a cholinesterase inhibitor. Do not use this product on animals simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with, or exposure to, cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals.
</P>
<P>(2) See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in laying chickens.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coumaphos in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 27.2 (0.003 percent)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laying chickens: For control of capillary worm (<E T="03">Capillaria obsignata</E>) and as an aid in control of common round worm (<E T="03">Ascaridia galli</E>) and cecal worm (<E T="03">Heterakis gallinae</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for 14 days. If reinfection occurs, treatment may be repeated, but not sooner than 3 weeks after the end of the previous treatment. Do not feed to chickens within 10 days of vaccination or other conditions of stress.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 36.3 (0.004 percent)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement pullets: For control of capillary worm (<E T="03">Capillaria obsignata</E>) and as an aid in control of common round worm (<E T="03">Ascaridia galli</E>) and cecal worm (<E T="03">Heterakis gallinae</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for from 10 to 14 days. Do not feed to chickens under 8 weeks of age or within 10 days of vaccination or other conditions of stress. If birds are maintained on contaminated litter or exposed to infected birds, a second 10- to 14-day treatment is recommended, but not sooner than 3 weeks after the end of the previous treatment. If reinfection occurs after production begins, repeat treatment as recommended for laying flocks.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 14822, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.195" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.195   Decoquinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 6 percent decoquinate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.170 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Bentonite should not be used in decoquinate feeds.
</P>
<P>(2) Type A medicated articles may be used to manufacture dry or liquid Type B cattle (including veal calf), sheep, and goat feeds as in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Type C cattle feeds may be manufactured from decoquinate liquid Type B feeds having a pH between 5.0 to 6.5 and containing a suspending agent to maintain a viscosity of not less than 500 centipoises.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Decoquinate in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. mivati, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not feed to laying hens producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as bacitracin methylenedisalicylate), 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. mivati, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not use in feeds containing bentonite. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin zinc, 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. mivati, E. maxima,</E> and<E T="03"> E. brunetti;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Decoquinate in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 12.9 to 90.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle (including ruminating and nonruminating calves and veal calves): For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed Type C feed or milk replacer to provide 22.7 milligrams (mg) per 100 pounds (lb) of body weight (0.5 mg/kg) per day. Feed at least 28 days during periods of exposure to coccidiosis or when it is likely to be a hazard. Do not feed to cows producing milk for human consumption. See paragraph (d)(3) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 12.9 to 90.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 22.7 mg of decoquinate per 100 lb of body weight per day and 50 to 360 mg of monensin per head per day. Feed at least 28 days during periods of coccidiosis exposure or when experience indicates that coccidiosis is likely to be a hazard. Do not feed to cows producing milk for human consumption. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminant calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Also see paragraph (d)(1) of this section and § 558.355(d)(9)(i). Monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 90.9 to 535.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle (including ruminating and nonruminating calves and veal calves): For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed Type C medicated feed supplements as a top dress or mix into the daily ration to provide 22.7 mg per 100 lb of body weight (0.5 mg/kg) per day. Feed at least 28 days during periods of exposure to coccidiosis or when it is likely to be a hazard. Do not feed to cows producing milk for food. See paragraph (d)(3) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Minor species</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Decoquinate in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 12.9 to 90.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Young sheep: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria ovinoidalis, E. crandallis, E. parva,</E> and <E T="03">E. bakuensis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed Type C feed or milk replacer at a rate to provide 22.7 mg per 100 lb of body weight (0.5 mg per kg) per day; feed for at least 28 days during periods of exposure to coccidiosis or when it is likely to be a hazard. Do not feed to sheep producing milk for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Young goats: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria christenseni</E> and <E T="03">E. ninakohlyakimovae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed Type C feed or milk replacer at a rate to provide 22.7 mg per 100 lb of body weight (0.5 mg per kg) per day; feed for at least 28 days during periods of exposure to coccidiosis or when it is likely to be a hazard. Do not feed to goats producing milk for human consumption
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 90.9 to 535.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Young sheep: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria ovinoidalis, E. crandallis, E. parva,</E> and <E T="03">E. bakuensis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed Type C medicated feed supplements as a top dress or mix into the daily ration to provide 22.7 mg per 100 lb of body weight (0.5 mg per kg) per day; feed for at least 28 days during periods of exposure to coccidiosis or when it is likely to be a hazard. Do not feed to sheep producing milk for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Young goats: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria christenseni</E> and <E T="03">E. ninakohlyakimovae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed Type C medicated feed supplements as a top dress or mix into the daily ration to provide 22.7 mg per 100 lb of body weight (0.5 mg per kg) per day; feed for at least 28 days during periods of exposure to coccidiosis or when it is likely to be a hazard. Do not feed to goats producing milk for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Decoquinate may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<P>(iv) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 72370, Dec. 5, 2002; 68 FR 15372, Mar. 31, 2003; 69 FR 26499, May 13, 2004; 69 FR 52816, Aug. 30, 2004; 69 FR 62407, Oct. 26, 2004; 69 FR 67264, Nov. 17, 2004; 70 FR 2567, Jan. 14, 2005; 78 FR 25183, Apr. 30, 2013; 79 FR 10982, Feb. 27, 2014; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 17860, Mar. 31, 2014; 80 FR 13231, Mar. 13, 2015; 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 22525, Apr. 18, 2016; 81 FR 67152, Sept. 30, 2016; 81 FR 95004, Dec. 27, 2016; 83 FR 48947, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 12496, Apr. 2, 2019; 85 FR 18121, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 14822, Mar. 19, 2021; 91 FR 20343, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.198" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.198   Dichlorvos.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of Type A medicated article containing 3.1 or 9.6 percent dichlorvos.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054628 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.180 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Dichlorvos is to be included in meal or mash or mixed with feed in crumble form only after the crumble feed has been manufactured. Do not mix in feeds to be pelleted nor with pelleted feed. Do not soak the feed or administer as wet mash. Feed must be dry when administered. Do not use in animals other than swine. Do not allow fowl access to feed containing this preparation or to feces from treated animals.
</P>
<P>(2) Dichlorvos is a cholinesterase inhibitor. Do not use this product in animals simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals. If human or animal poisoning should occur, immediately consult a physician or a veterinarian. Atropine is antidotal.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling for Type A articles and Type B feeds must include a statement that containers or materials used in packaging such Type A articles and Type B feeds are not to be reused and all such packaging materials must be destroyed after the product has been used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in swine feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dichlorvos
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 348</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine up to 70 pounds body weight: For the removal and control of mature, immature, and/or fourth-stage larvae of the whipworm (<E T="03">Trichuris suis</E>), nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> sp.), large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) and the thick stomach worm (<E T="03">Ascarops strongylina</E>) of the gastrointestinal tract.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as sole ration for 2 consecutive days. For swine from 70 pounds to market weight, feed as sole ration at the rate of 8.4 pounds of feed per head until the medicated feed has been consumed. For boars, open or bred gilts, and sows, feed as sole ration at the rate of 4.2 pounds per head per day for 2 consecutive days.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054628
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 479</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boars, open or bred gilts, and sows: For the removal and control of mature, immature, and/or fourth-stage larvae of the whipworm (<E T="03">Trichuris suis</E>), nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> sp.), large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) and the thick stomach worm (<E T="03">Ascarops strongylina</E>) of the gastrointestinal tract.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as sole ration at the rate of 6 pounds per head for one feeding.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054628
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 334 to 500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pregnant swine: An aid in improving litter production efficiency by increasing pigs born alive, birth weights, survival to market, and rate of weight gain. Treatment also removes and controls mature, immature and/or fourth stage larvae of whipworm (<E T="03">Trichuris suis</E>), nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum spp.</E>) large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>), and the thick stomach worm (<E T="03">Ascarops strongylina</E>) occurring in the gastrointestinal tract of the sow or gilt.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mix into a gestation feed to provide 1,000 milligrams per head daily during last 30 days of gestation.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054628</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12497, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.205" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.205   Diclazuril.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 0.2 percent diclazuril.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.185 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens.</I> For chickens it is used as follows:


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Diclazuril
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mitis (mivati),</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima.</E> Because diclazuril is effective against <E T="03">E. maxima</E> later in its life cycle, subclinical intestinal lesions may be present for a short time after infection. Diclazuril was shown in studies to reduce lesion scores and improve performance and health of birds challenged with <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mitis (mivati),</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency. Because diclazuril is effective against <E T="03">E. maxima</E> later in its life cycle, subclinical intestinal lesions may be present for a short time after infection. Diclazuril was shown in studies to reduce lesion scores and improve performance and health of birds challenged with <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mitis (mivati),</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency. Because diclazuril is effective against <E T="03">E. maxima</E> later in its life cycle, subclinical intestinal lesions may be present for a short time after infection. Diclazuril was shown in studies to reduce lesion scores and improve performance and health of birds challenged with <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. Bambermycins provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys.</I> For turkeys it is used as follows:



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Diclazuril
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. gallopavonis,</E> and<E T="03"> E. meleagrimitis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to breeding turkeys. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. gallopavonis,</E> and<E T="03"> E. meleagrimitis,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to breeding turkeys. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. gallopavonis,</E> and<E T="03"> E. meleagrimitis,</E> and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to breeding turkeys. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. gallopavonis,</E> and<E T="03"> E. meleagrimitis,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to breeding turkeys. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Diclazuril may also be used in combination with virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 35923, July 2, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 50134, Aug. 17, 2000; 66 FR 47962, 47963, Sept. 17, 2001; 66 FR 62917, Dec. 4, 2001; 67 FR 34830, May 16, 2002; 67 FR 47257, July 18, 2002; 67 FR 48549, July 25, 2002; 69 FR 9947, Mar. 3, 2004; 72 FR 60552, Oct. 25, 2007; 79 FR 10982, Feb. 27, 2014; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 95004, Dec. 27, 2016. Redesignated and amended at 84 FR 12497, 12498, Apr. 2, 2019; 87 FR 10970, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.235" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.235   Efrotomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 14.5 grams efrotomycin per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.224 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efrotomycin
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Not to be used in swine weighing more than 250 pounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 3.6 to 14.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Not to be used in swine weighing more than 250 pounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38442, Aug. 25, 1992, as amended at 62 FR 63271, Nov. 28, 1997; 84 FR 33001, July 11, 2019; 84 FR 39185, Aug. 9, 2019; 85 FR 45309, July 28, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.248" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.248   Erythromycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 92.5 grams per pound erythromycin (as the thiocyanate salt).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 061133 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.230 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for erythromycin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for erythromycin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Erythromycin in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 92.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: As an aid in the prevention of chronic respiratory disease during periods of stress</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 2 days before stress and 3 to 6 days after stress. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061623
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 92.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: As an aid in the prevention of infectious coryza</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 7 to 14 days. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061623
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: As an aid in the prevention and reduction of lesions and in lowering severity of chronic respiratory disease (CRD)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 5 to 8 days. Withdraw 48 hours before slaughter. Do not use in birds producing eggs for food</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061623</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Erythromycin thiocyanate in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 92.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: As an aid in the prevention of chronic respiratory disease during periods of stress</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 2 days before stress and 3 to 6 days after stress</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061623
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: As an aid in the prevention and reduction of lesions and in lowering severity of chronic respiratory disease (CRD)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 5 to 8 days. Do not use in birds producing eggs for food</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">061623</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10999, Mar. 15, 1976, as amended at 45 FR 56799, Aug. 26, 1980; 49 FR 31281, Aug. 6, 1984; 51 FR 7397, Mar. 3, 1986; 52 FR 2684, Jan. 26, 1987; 54 FR 12189, Mar. 24, 1989; 66 FR 14074, Mar. 9, 2001; 68 FR 4915, Jan. 31, 2003; 79 FR 10982, Feb. 27, 2014; 81 FR 36790, June 8, 2016; 81 FR 95004, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 8975, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.254" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.254   Famphur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 13.2 or 33.3 percent famphur.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.273 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Famphur is a cholinesterase inhibitor. Do not use this product in animals simultaneously or within a few days before or after treatment with or exposure to cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs, pesticides, or chemicals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in cattle feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Famphur amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) To provide 1.1 milligrams per pound (mg/lb) body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle: For control of grubs and as an aid in control of sucking lice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 30 days. Withdraw from dry dairy cows and heifers 21 days prior to freshening. Withdraw 4 days prior to slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) To provide 2.3 mg/lb body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle: For control of grubs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 10 days. Withdraw from dry dairy cows and heifers 21 days prior to freshening. Withdraw 4 days prior to slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 39185, Aug. 9, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 17947, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.258" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.258   Fenbendazole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles: 4 percent (18.1 grams per pound (g/lb)), 8 percent (36.2 g/lb), and 20 percent (90.7 g/lb) fenbendazole.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.275 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Turkeys.</I>


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount fenbendazole in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 14.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the treatment and control of gastrointestinal worms: roundworms, adults and larvae (<E T="03">Ascaridia dissimilis</E>); cecal worms, adults and larvae (<E T="03">Heterakis gallinarum</E>), an important vector of <E T="03">Histomonas meleagridis</E> (Blackhead)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for 6 days. For growing turkeys only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Swine.</I>


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fenbendazole
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 to 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For the treatment and control of Lungworms: adult (<E T="03">Metastrongylus apri</E> and <E T="03">M. pudendotectus</E>); Gastrointestinal worms: adult and larvae (L3, 4 stages—liver, lung, intestinal forms) large roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>); adult nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum dentatum, O. quadrispinulatum</E>); adult small stomach worms (<E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus</E>); adult and larvae (L2, 3, 4 stages—intestinal mucosal forms) whipworms (<E T="03">Trichuris suis);</E> and Kidney worms: adult and larvae (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 9 mg/kg of body weight (4.08 mg/lb) over a period of 3 to 12 consecutive days. Swine must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 4 days following last treatment with this drug product</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 10 to 300 (to provide 9 mg/kg of body weight)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing/finishing swine: For the removal and control of adult stage lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus apri</E> and <E T="03">M. pudendotectus</E>); adult and larvae (L3, 4 stages—liver, lung, intestinal forms) large roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>); adult stage nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum dentatum, O. quadrispinulatum</E>); adult stage small stomach worms (<E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus</E>); adult and larvae (L2, 3, 4 stages—intestinal mucosal forms) whipworms (<E T="03">Trichuris suis</E>); adult and larvae kidney worms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus</E>); and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Under conditions of continued exposure to parasites, retreatment may be needed after 4 to 6 weeks. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 10 to 300 (to provide 9 mg/kg of body weight)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Growing/finishing swine: For the removal and control of adult stage lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus apri</E> and <E T="03">M. pudendotectus</E>); adult and larvae (L3, 4 stages—liver, lung, intestinal forms) large roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>); adult stage nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum dentatum, O. quadrispinulatum</E>); adult stage small stomach worms (<E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus</E>); adult and larvae (L2, 3, 4 stages—intestinal mucosal forms) whipworms (<E T="03">Trichuris suis</E>); adult and larvae kidney worms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus</E>); and for control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Treponema hyodysenteriae</E> on premises with a history of swine dysentery, but where signs of disease have not yet occurred; or following an approved treatment of the disease condition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Growing/finishing swine: Feed as sole ration. Not for use in growing and finishing swine that weigh more than 250 lbs. Diagnosis of swine dysentery should be confirmed by a veterinarian when results are not satisfactory. Under conditions of continued exposure to parasites, retreatment may be needed after 4 to 6 weeks. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Pregnant sows: For the removal and control of adult stage lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus apri</E> and <E T="03">M. pudendotectus</E>); adult and larvae (L3, 4 stages—liver, lung, intestinal forms) large roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>); adult stage nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum dentatum, O. quadrispinulatum</E>); adult stage small stomach worms (<E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus</E>); adult and larvae (L2, 3, 4 stages—intestinal mucosal forms) whipworms (<E T="03">Trichuris suis</E>); adult and larvae kidney worms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus</E>); for control of clostridial enteritis in suckling pigs caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Pregnant sows: Feed as sole ration. Diagnosis of clostridial enteritis should be confirmed by a veterinarian when results are not satisfactory. Under conditions of continued exposure to parasites, retreatment may be needed after 4 to 6 weeks. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Cattle.</I>

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fenbendazole
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 200 to 1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy and beef cattle: For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: adult (<E T="03">Dictyocaulus viviparus</E>); Stomach worms: adult brown stomach worms (<E T="03">Ostertagia ostertagi</E>), adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">Haemonchus contortus</E>), fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">H. placei</E>), and adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus axei</E>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): hookworms (<E T="03">Bunostomum phlebotomum</E>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<E T="03">Nematodirus helvetianus</E>), small intestinal worms (<E T="03">Cooperia punctata</E> and<E T="03"> C. oncophora</E>), bankrupt worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus colubriformis</E>), and nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum radiatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 1 day to provide 5 mg/kg body weight (2.27 mg/lb). Milk taken during treatment and for 60 hours after the last treatment must not be used for human consumption. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 13 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Top dress medicated feed</I>—(A) <I>Proprietary formulas.</I> The following feed can be manufactured only per an approved proprietary formula and specifications:



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fenbendazole
<br/>concentration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) 2.27 g/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef and dairy cattle: For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: adult (<E T="03">Dictyocaulus viviparus</E>); Stomach worms: adult brown stomach worms (<E T="03">Ostertagia ostertagi</E>), adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">Haemonchus contortus</E>), fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">H. placei</E>), and adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus axei</E>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): hookworms (<E T="03">Bunostomum phlebotomum</E>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<E T="03">Nematodirus helvetianus</E>), small intestinal worms (<E T="03">Cooperia punctata and C. oncophora</E>), bankrupt worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus colubriformis</E>), and nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum radiatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a top dress for 1 day to provide 5 mg/kg body weight (2.27 mg/lb). Milk taken during treatment and for 60 hours after the last treatment must not be used for human consumption. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 13 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Free-choice medicated feeds</I>—(A) <I>Proprietary formulas (21 CFR 510.455(e)(2)).</I> The following feeds can be manufactured only per an approved proprietary formula and specifications:



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fenbendazole
<br/>concentration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) 12,100 g/ton mineral</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle on pasture: For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: adult (<E T="03">Dictyocaulus viviparus</E>); Stomach worms: adult brown stomach worms (<E T="03">Ostertagia ostertagi</E>), adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">Haemonchus contortus</E>), fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">H. placei</E>), and adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus axei</E>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): hookworms (<E T="03">Bunostomum phlebotomum</E>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<E T="03">Nematodirus helvetianus</E>), small intestinal worms (<E T="03">Cooperia punctata</E> and<E T="03"> C. oncophora</E>), bankrupt worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus colubriformis</E>), and nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum radiatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed free-choice at the rate of 0.0375 lb per 100 pounds of body weight over a 3- to 6-day period to provide a total of 2.27 mg fenbendazole per pound of body weight. Not for use in dairy cattle. Beef cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 13 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) 2.27 g/lb mineral</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle on pasture: For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: adult (<E T="03">Dictyocaulus viviparus</E>); Stomach worms: adult brown stomach worms (<E T="03">Ostertagia ostertagi</E>), adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">Haemonchus contortus</E>), fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">H. placei</E>), and adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus axei</E>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): hookworms (<E T="03">Bunostomum phlebotomum</E>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<E T="03">Nematodirus helvetianus</E>), small intestinal worms (<E T="03">Cooperia punctata</E> and<E T="03"> C. oncophora</E>), bankrupt worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus colubriformis</E>), and nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum radiatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed free-choice at the rate of 0.10 lb (1.6 oz) per 100 pounds of body weight over a 3- to 6-day period, to deliver a total of 2.27 mg fenbendazole per pound of body weight. Not for use in dairy cattle. Beef cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 13 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">3</E>) 750 mg/lb of protein block (to provide 5 mg/kg body weight (2.27 mg/lb))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle: For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: adult (<E T="03">Dictyocaulus viviparus</E>); Stomach worms: adult brown stomach worms (<E T="03">Ostertagia ostertagi</E>), adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">Haemonchus contortus</E>), fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">H. placei</E>), and adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus axei</E>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): hookworms (<E T="03">Bunostomum phlebotomum</E>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<E T="03">Nematodirus helvetianus</E>), small intestinal worms (<E T="03">Cooperia punctata</E> and<E T="03"> C. oncophora</E>), bankrupt worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus colubriformis</E>), and nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum radiatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed free choice at a rate of 0.1 pound of block per 100 pounds of body weight per day for 3 days to deliver a total of 2.27 mg fenbendazole per pound of body weight. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 16 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows or heifers. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">4</E>) 750 mg/lb of molasses block (to provide 5 mg/kg body weight (2.27 mg/lb))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle: For the treatment and control of: Lungworms: adult (<E T="03">Dictyocaulus viviparus</E>); Stomach worms: adult brown stomach worms (<E T="03">Ostertagia ostertagi</E>), adult and fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">Haemonchus contortus</E>), fourth-stage larvae barberpole worms (<E T="03">H. placei</E>), and adult and fourth-stage larvae small stomach worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus axei</E>); Intestinal worms (adult and fourth-stage larvae): hookworms (<E T="03">Bunostomum phlebotomum</E>), thread-necked intestinal worms (<E T="03">Nematodirus helvetianus</E>), small intestinal worms (<E T="03">Cooperia punctata</E> and<E T="03"> C. oncophora</E>), bankrupt worms (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus colubriformis</E>), and nodular worms (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum radiatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed free choice at a rate of 0.1 pound of block per 100 pounds of body weight per day for 3 days to deliver a total of 2.27 mg fenbendazole per pound of body weight. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 11 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows or heifers. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061




</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) <I>Published formulas (§ 510.455(e)(1) of this chapter).</I> The following feeds can be manufactured only per one of the formulas and specifications published below:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Amount.</I> 5 mg/kg body weight (2.27 mg/lb), including the following formulations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International Feed No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">i</E>) Free-choice, dry Type C feed:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Salt (sodium chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Monosodium phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-288
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dried cane molasses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-04-695
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Zinc sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-05-556
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Copper sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fenbendazole 20% Type A article</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">ii</E>) Free-choice, dry Type C feed:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Salt (sodium chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dicalcium phosphate (18.5% P)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-00-080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Calcium carbonate (38% Ca)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Magnesium oxide (56% Mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-756
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Zinc sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-05-556
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8-03-123
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dried cane molasses (46% sugars)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-04-695
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Potassium iodide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-03-759
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fenbendazole 20% Type A article</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">iii</E>) Free-choice, liquid Type C feed 
<sup>2</sup>:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cane molasses 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.902</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-13-251
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Urea solution, 55%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5-05-707
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Phosphoric acid 75% (feed grade)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-03-707
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Xantham gum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8-15-818
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Trace minerals 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Vitamin premix 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fenbendazole 20% Type A article</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Selenium is not approved for use in the liquid, free-choice formulations described in paragraph (e)(3)(iv)(B) of this section. Free-choice cattle feeds containing selenium must comply with published regulations (<E T="03">see</E> 21 CFR 573.920).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The labeling for the liquid free-choice Type C medicated feed must bear an expiration date of 12 weeks after the date of manufacture.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The percentage of cane molasses and water in the formulation may be adjusted as needed to bring the brix value of the molasses to the industry standard of 79.5 brix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The contents of any added vitamin and trace mineral may be varied; however, they should be comparable to those used by the manufacturer for other free-choice cattle feeds.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indications for use.</I> As in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Limitations.</I> Feed a total of 5 mg of fenbendazole per kg (2.27 mg/lb) of body weight to cattle over a 3- to 6-day period. Milk taken during treatment and for 60 hours after the last treatment must not be used for human consumption. Cattle must not be slaughtered for human consumption within 13 days following last treatment with this drug product. Not for use in beef calves less than 2 months of age, dairy calves, and veal calves. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Horses.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fenbendazole
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4,540</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 mg/kg body weight (2.27 mg/lb) for the control of large strongyles (<E T="03">Strongylus edentatus, S. equinus, S. vulgaris, Triodontophorus</E> spp.), small strongyles (<E T="03">Cyathostomum</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicocyclus</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicostephanus</E> spp.), and pinworms (<E T="03">Oxyuris equi</E>); 10 mg/kg body weight (4.54 mg/lb) for the control of ascarids (<E T="03">Parascaris equorum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at the rate of 0.1 lb of feed per 100 lb of body weight to provide 2.27 mg fenbendazole/lb of body weight in a 1-day treatment or 0.2 lb of feed per 100 lb of body weight to provide 4.54 mg fenbendazole/lb of body weight in a 1-day treatment. All horses must be eating normally to ensure that each animal consumes an adequate amount of the medicated feed. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Zoo and wildlife animals.</I>



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Species/Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fenbendazole
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Feral swine (<E T="03">Sus scrofa</E>):</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 to 325</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and control of kidney worm (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus</E>), roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>), nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum dentatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use as a complete feed at a rate to provide 3 mg/kg/day for 3 consecutive days. Prior withdrawal of feed or water is not necessary. Retreatment may be required in 6 weeks. Do not use 14 days before or during the hunting season</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Ruminants (subfamily Antilopinae, Hippotraginae, Caprinae)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 to 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and control of small stomach worm (<E T="03">Trichostrongylus</E> spp.), thread necked intestinal worm (<E T="03">Nematodirus</E> spp.), barberpole worm (<E T="03">Haemonchus</E> spp.), whipworm (<E T="03">Trichuris</E> spp.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use as a complete feed at a rate to provide 2.5 mg/kg/day for 3 consecutive days. Prior withdrawal of feed or water is not necessary. Retreatment may be required in 6 weeks. Do not use 14 days before or during the hunting season</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Rocky mountain bighorn sheep (<E T="03">Ovis c. canadensis</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">375 to 1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and control of <E T="03">Protostrongylus</E> spp.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use as a complete feed at a rate to provide 10 mg/kg/day for 3 consecutive days. Prior withdrawal of feed or water is not necessary. Retreatment may be required in 6 weeks. Do not use 14 days before or during the hunting season</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Wild quail</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and control of Gastrointestinal worms: cecal worms (<E T="03">Aulonocephalus</E> spp.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 21 consecutive days. Prior withdrawal of feed is not necessary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) Fenbendazole may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 58935, Nov. 26, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 34534, June 10, 2003; 72 FR 66046, Nov. 27, 2007; 73 FR 58873, Oct. 8, 2008; 74 FR 61517, Nov. 25, 2009; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 95005, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 12499, Apr. 2, 2019; 86 FR 14822, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 58964, Sept. 29, 2022; 88 FR 14904, Mar. 10, 2023; 89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.261" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.261   Florfenicol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing florfenicol in the following concentrations:
</P>
<P>(1) 40 grams per kilogram for use as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) 500 grams per kilogram for use as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers as in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 000061 for use of products described in paragraph (a) of this section as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 066104 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.283 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for florfenicol medicated feeds:
</P>
<P>(i) For swine must not exceed 90 days from the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) For fish must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(3) VFDs for florfenicol shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(4) Type A medicated articles and medicated feeds intended for use in fish shall bear the following: “Not for use in animals intended for breeding purposes. The effects of florfenicol on reproductive performance have not been determined. Toxicity studies in dogs, rats, and mice have associated the use of florfenicol with testicular degeneration and atrophy.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Florfenicol in grams/ton of feed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the control of swine respiratory disease (SRD) associated with <E T="03">Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</E>, <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E>, <E T="03">Streptococcus suis</E>, and <E T="03">Bordetella bronchiseptica</E> in groups of swine in buildings experiencing an outbreak of SRD.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as a sole ration for 5 consecutive days. The safety of florfenicol on swine reproductive performance, pregnancy, and lactation have not been determined. Feeds containing florfenicol must be withdrawn 13 days prior to slaughter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Fish</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Florfenicol in grams/ton of feed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 182 to 2,724</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Catfish: For the control of mortality due to enteric septicemia of catfish associated with <E T="03">Edwardsiella ictaluri</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a sole ration for 10 consecutive days to deliver 10 to 15 milligrams (mg) florfenicol per kilogram (kg) of fish. Feed containing florfenicol shall not be fed for more than 10 days. Following administration, fish should be reevaluated by a licensed veterinarian before initiating a further course of therapy. A dose-related decrease in hematopoietic/lymphopoietic tissue may occur. The time required for hematopoietic/lymphopoietic tissues to regenerate was not evaluated. The effects of florfenicol on reproductive performance have not been determined. Feeds containing florfenicol must be withdrawn 15 days prior to slaughter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 182 to 2,724</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Freshwater-reared salmonids: for the control of mortality due to coldwater disease associated with <E T="03">Flavobacterium psychrophilum</E> and furunculosis associated with <E T="03">Aeromonas salmonicida</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a sole ration for 10 consecutive days to deliver 10 to 15 mg florfenicol per kg of fish. Feed containing florfenicol shall not be fed for more than 10 days. Following administration, fish should be reevaluated by a licensed veterinarian before initiating a further course of therapy. The effects of florfenicol on reproductive performance have not been determined. Feeds containing florfenicol must be withdrawn 15 days prior to slaughter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 182 to 2,724</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Freshwater-reared finfish: For the control of mortality due to columnaris disease associated with <E T="03">Flavobacterium columnare</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a sole ration for 10 consecutive days to deliver 10 to 15 mg florfenicol per kg of fish for freshwater-reared warmwater finfish and other freshwater-reared finfish. Feed containing florfenicol shall not be fed for more than 10 days. Following administration, fish should be reevaluated by a licensed veterinarian before initiating a further course of therapy. For catfish, a dose-related decrease in hematopoietic/lymphopoietic tissue may occur. The time required for hematopoietic/lymphopoietic tissues to regenerate was not evaluated. The effects of florfenicol on reproductive performance have not been determined. Feeds containing florfenicol must be withdrawn 15 days prior to slaughter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 273 to 2,724</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Freshwater-reared warmwater finfish: For the control of mortality due to streptococcal septicemia associated with <E T="03">Streptococcus iniae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a sole ration for 10 consecutive days to deliver 15 mg florfenicol per kg of fish. Feed containing florfenicol shall not be fed for more than 10 days. Following administration, fish should be reevaluated by a licensed veterinarian before initiating a further course of therapy. For catfish, a dose-related decrease in hematopoietic/lymphopoietic tissue may occur. The time required for hematopoietic/lymphopoietic tissues to regenerate was not evaluated. The effects of florfenicol on reproductive performance have not been determined. Feeds containing florfenicol must be withdrawn 15 days prior to slaughter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 70047, Nov. 21, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 70304, Dec. 4, 2006; 72 FR 19798, Apr. 20, 2007; 72 FR 65885, Nov. 26, 2007; 77 FR 32012, May 31, 2012; 79 FR 18159, Apr. 1, 2014; 80 FR 76387, Dec. 9, 2015; 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 67152, Sept. 30, 2016; 86 FR 14822, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 10971, Feb. 28, 2022; 89 FR 85428, Oct. 28, 2024; 90 FR 6802, Jan. 21, 2025]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.265" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.265   Halofuginone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 6 grams of halofuginone hydrobromide per kilogram.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.308 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Halofuginone in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to layers. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to layers. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E, acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to layers. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement broiler breeder chickens and replacement cage laying chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. mivati</E>/<E T="03">E. mitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to replacement cage laying chickens until 20 weeks of age. Feed continuously as sole ration to replacement broiler breeder chickens until 16 weeks of age. Do not feed to laying chickens or water fowl. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Halofuginone in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 1.36 to 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Withdraw 7 days before slaughter. Do not feed to layers or water fowl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 1.36 to 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Withdraw 7 days before slaughter. Do not feed to laying chickens or water fowl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 1.36 to 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Withdraw 7 days before slaughter. Do not feed to laying chickens or waterfowl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Halofuginone may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 33719, Aug. 21, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 42518, Oct. 21, 1985; 51 FR 7397, Mar. 3, 1986; 51 FR 11439, Apr. 3, 1986; 51 FR 14989, Apr. 22, 1986; 51 FR 23737, July 1, 1986; 53 FR 1018, Jan. 15, 1988; 53 FR 11065, Apr. 5, 1988; 54 FR 11519, Mar. 21, 1989; 54 FR 28052, July 5, 1989; 59 FR 51498, Oct. 12, 1994; 61 FR 21076, May 9, 1996; 61 FR 24694, May 16, 1996; 64 FR 42597, Aug. 5, 1999; 65 FR 45712, July 25, 2000; 66 FR 47962, Sept. 17, 2001; 71 FR 27956, May 15, 2006; 79 FR 10982, Feb. 27, 2014; 84 FR 8975, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.274" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.274   Hygromycin B.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 2.4 or 8 grams hygromycin B per pound (g/lb).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for as follows:
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.330 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for hygromycin B medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for hygromycin B shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hygromycin B grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 8 to 12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For control of infections of large roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris galli</E>), cecal worms (<E T="03">Heterakis gallinae</E>), and capillary worms (<E T="03">Capillaria obsignata</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use in complete feed. Withdraw 3 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hygromycin B grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For control of infections of large roundworms (<E T="03">A. suis</E>), nodular worms (<E T="03">O. dentatum</E>), and whipworms (<E T="03">Trichuris suis</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In market hogs, use in complete feed for 8 weeks during the growing period. Withdraw 15 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95005, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.295" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.295   Iodinated casein.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing iodinated casein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor. See</I> No. 017762 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Ducks</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing ducks: For increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017762
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Dairy cows</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount in grams/pound
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 0.5 to 1.5 per 100 lb of body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy cows: For increased milk production</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This drug is effective for limited periods of time, and the effectiveness is limited to the declining phase of lactation. Administration must be accompanied with increased feed intake. Administration may increase heat sensitivity of the animal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017762
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 45309, July 28, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 14823, Mar. 19, 2021]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.300" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.300   Ivermectin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 2.72 grams ivermectin per pound (g/lb).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 000010 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.344 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> See § 500.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in swine.</I> It is used in feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ivermectin in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 1.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weaned, growing-finishing swine: For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Ascarops strongylina,</E> adults; <E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp., adults and fourth-stage larvae); kidneyworms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae); lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus</E> spp., adults); threadworms (<E T="03">Strongyloides ransomi,</E> adults and somatic larvae); lice (<E T="03">Haematopinus suis</E>); and mange mites (<E T="03">Sarcoptes scabiei</E> var. <E T="03">suis</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the only feed for 7 consecutive days to provide 0.1 milligrams per kilograms (mg/kg) of body weight per day. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 1.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weaned, growing-finishing swine: For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Ascarops strongylina,</E> adults; <E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp., adults and fourth-stage larvae); kidneyworms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae); lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus</E> spp., adults); threadworms (<E T="03">Strongyloides ransomi,</E> adults and somatic larvae); lice (<E T="03">Haematopinus suis</E>); and mange mites (<E T="03">Sarcoptes scabiei</E>var. <E T="03">suis</E>); and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the only feed for 7 consecutive days to provide 0.1 mg/kg of body weight per day. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) 1.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weaned, growing-finishing swine: For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Ascarops strongylina,</E> adults; <E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp., adults and fourth-stage larvae); kidneyworms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae); lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus</E> spp., adults); threadworms (<E T="03">Strongyloides ransomi,</E> adults and somatic larvae); lice (<E T="03">Haematopinus suis</E>); and mange mites (<E T="03">Sarcoptes scabiei</E> var. <E T="03">suis</E>); and for control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Treponema hyodysenteriae</E> on premises with a history of swine dysentery, but where symptoms have not yet occurred, or following an approved treatment of disease condition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the only feed for 7 consecutive days to provide 0.1 mg/kg of body weight per day. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) 1.8 to 11.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adult and breeding swine: For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Ascarops strongylina,</E> adults; <E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp., adults and fourth-stage larvae); kidneyworms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae); lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus</E> spp., adults); threadworms (<E T="03">Strongyloides ransomi,</E> adults and somatic larvae, and prevention of transmission of infective larvae to piglets, via the colostrum or milk, when fed during gestation); lice (<E T="03">Haematopinus suis</E>); and mange mites (<E T="03">Sarcoptes scabiei</E> var. <E T="03">suis</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the only feed for 7 consecutive days to provide 0.1 mg/kg of body weight per day. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) 1.8 to 11.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pregnant sows: For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Ascarops strongylina,</E> adults; <E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp., adults and fourth-stage larvae); kidneyworms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae); lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus</E> spp., adults); threadworms (<E T="03">Strongyloides ransomi,</E> adults and somatic larvae, and prevention of transmission of infective larvae to piglets, via the colostrum or milk, when fed during gestation); lice (<E T="03">Haematopinus suis</E>); and mange mites (<E T="03">Sarcoptes scabiei</E> var. <E T="03">suis</E>); and for control of clostridial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> in suckling piglets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the only feed for 7 consecutive days to provide 0.1 mg/kg of body weight per day. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Feed bacitracin methylenedisalicylate Type C medicated feed to sows from 14 days before through 21 days after farrowing on premises with a history of clostridial scours</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) 18.2 to 120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adult and breeding swine: For treatment and control of gastrointestinal roundworms (<E T="03">Ascaris suum,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Ascarops strongylina,</E> adults; <E T="03">Hyostrongylus rubidus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae; <E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp., adults and fourth-stage larvae); kidneyworms (<E T="03">Stephanurus dentatus,</E> adults and fourth-stage larvae); lungworms (<E T="03">Metastrongylus</E> spp., adults); threadworms (<E T="03">Strongyloides ransomi,</E> adults and somatic larvae, and prevention of transmission of infective larvae to piglets, via the colostrum or milk, when fed during gestation); lice (<E T="03">Haematopinus suis</E>); and mange mites (<E T="03">Sarcoptes scabiei</E> var. <E T="03">suis</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top dress on daily ration for individual treatment for 7 consecutive days to provide 0.1 mg/kg of body weight per day. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000010</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37437, July 10, 2007, as amended at 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 95005, Dec. 27, 2016; 84 FR 12499, Apr. 2, 2019; 84 FR 39185, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.305" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.305   Laidlomycin propionate potassium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 50 grams laidlomycin propionate potassium per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See § 556.346 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Laidlomycin propionate potassium Type B liquid medicated feeds may be manufactured from dry laidlomycin propionate potassium Type A medicated articles. The Type B liquid medicated feeds must have a pH of 6.0 to 8.0, dry matter of 62 to 75 percent, and bear appropriate mixing directions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For liquid feeds stored in recirculating tank systems: Recirculate immediately prior to use for no less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For liquid feeds stored in mechanical, air, or other agitation type tank systems: Agitate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, creating a turbulence at the bottom of the tank that is visible at the top. Agitate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of the Type B liquid medicated feed is 21 days after date of manufacture. The expiration date for the dry Type C medicated feed made from the Type B liquid medicated feed is 7 days after date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling for all Type B medicated feeds (liquid and dry) and Type C medicated feeds containing laidlomycin propionate potassium shall bear the following statements:
</P>
<P>(i) Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing laidlomycin propionate potassium.
</P>
<P>(ii) The safety of laidlomycin propionate potassium in unapproved species has not been established.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not for use in animals intended for breeding.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Laidlomycin propionate potassium in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration Type C medicated feeds to provide 30 to 75 mg laidlomycin propionate potassium per head per day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 5-10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration Type C medicated feeds to provide 30 to 150 mg laidlomycin propionate potassium per head per day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) Laidlomycin propionate potassium may also be used in combination with chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 18297, Apr. 18, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 53509, Oct. 16, 1995; 62 FR 9929, Mar. 5, 1997; 63 FR 27845, May 21, 1998; 66 FR 46706, Sept. 7, 2001; 68 FR 13839, Mar. 21, 2003; 68 FR 42590, July 18, 2003; 69 FR 30198, May 27, 2004; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 95005, Dec. 27, 2016; 86 FR 14823, Mar. 19, 2021; 91 FR 20343, Apr. 16, 2026; 91 FR 33072, June 3, 2026] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.311" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.311   Lasalocid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of Type A medicated article contains 68 grams (15 percent), 90.7 grams (20 percent), or 150 grams (33.1 percent) lasalocid as lasalocid sodium activity. A minimum of 90 percent of lasalocid activity is derived from lasalocid A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerance.</I> See § 556.347 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Type C cattle and sheep feeds may be manufactured from lasalocid liquid Type B feeds which have a pH of 4.0 to 8.0 and bear appropriate mixing directions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For liquid feeds stored in recirculating tank systems: Recirculate immediately prior to use for no less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For liquid feeds stored in mechanical, air, or other agitation-type tank systems: Agitate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, creating a turbulence at the bottom of the tank that is visible at the top. Agitate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(2) A physically stable lasalocid liquid feed will not be subject to the requirements for mixing directions prescribed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section provided it has a pH of 4.0 to 8.0 and contains a suspending agent(s) sufficient to maintain a viscosity of not less than 300 centipoises per second for 3 months.
</P>
<P>(3) If a manufacturer is unable to meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section, the manufacturer may secure approval of a positionally stable liquid feed by:
</P>
<P>(i) Either filing a new animal drug application for the product or establishing a master file containing data to support the stability of its product;
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorizing the agency to reference and rely upon the data in the master file to support approval of a supplemental new animal drug application to establish physical stability; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the sponsor of an approved new animal drug application to file a supplement to provide for use of its lasalocid Type A article in the manufacture of the liquid feed specified in the appropriate master file. If the data demonstrate the stability of the liquid feed described in the master file, the supplemental new animal drug application will be approved. The approval will provide a basis for the individual liquid feed manufacturer to manufacture under a medicated feed license the liquid mediated feed described in the master file. A manufacturer who seeks to market a physically unstable lasalocid liquid feed with mixing directions different from the standard directions established in paragraph (d)(1) of this section may also follow this procedure.
</P>
<P>(4) If adequate information is submitted to show that a particular liquid feed containing lasalocid is stable outside the pH of 4.0 to 8.0, the pH restriction described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section may be waived.
</P>
<P>(5) Required label statements:
</P>
<P>(i) For liquid Type B feed (cattle and sheep): Mix thoroughly with grain and/or roughage prior to feeding. Feeding undiluted, mixing errors, or inadequate mixing (recirculation or agitation) may result in an excess lasalocid concentration which could be fatal to cattle and sheep. Do not allow horses or other equines access to Type A articles or Type B feeds containing lasalocid as ingestion may be fatal. Safety of lasalocid for use in unapproved species has not been established.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Type A articles or Type B feeds (cattle and sheep): Feeding undiluted or mixing errors may result in an excess lasalocid concentration which could be fatal to cattle and sheep. Do not allow horses or other equines access to Type A articles or Type B feeds containing lasalocid as ingestion may be fatal. Safety of lasalocid for use in unapproved species has not been established.
</P>
<P>(iii) For Type A articles, Type B or Type C feeds (cattle): A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(6) Lasalocid Type A medicated articles containing lasalocid dried fermentation residue are for use in cattle and sheep feed only.
</P>
<P>(7) Each use in a free-choice Type C cattle feed as in paragraphs (e)(3)(vi) through (e)(3)(viii) of this section must be the subject of an approved NADA or supplemental NADA as provided in § 510.455 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) The conditions of use for chickens are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lasalocid in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler or fryer chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and for improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin zinc, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens. For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Bacitracin zinc provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Bambermycins provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The conditions of use for turkeys are:



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lasalocid in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys; For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria meleagrimitis, E. gallopavonis,</E> and <E T="03">E. adenoeides.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. meleagrimitis, E. gallopavonis,</E> and <E T="03">E. adenoeides;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) in this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin zinc, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. meleagrimitis, E. gallopavonis,</E> and <E T="03">E. adenoeides;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) in this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The conditions of use for cattle are—



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lasalocid amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 to 30 grams/ton of feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed to provide not less than 100 milligrams (mg) nor more than 360 mg of lasalocid sodium activity per head per day.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 25 to 30 grams/ton of feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For improved feed efficiency and increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed to provide not less than 250 mg nor more than 360 mg of lasalocid sodium activity per head per day.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg of lasalocid per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and beef replacement heifers): For increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously at a rate of not less than 60 mg or more than 300 mg of lasalocid per head per day when on pasture. The drug must be contained in at least 1 pound of feed. Daily intakes of lasalocid in excess of 200 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 pounds (lb) body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle up to 800 lb: For control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hand feed continuously at a rate of 1 mg of lasalocid per 2.2 lb body weight per day to provide not more than 360 mg of lasalocid per head per day.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 1 mg lasalocid per 2.2 lb body weight per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement calves: For control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In milk replacer powder, hand feed at a rate of 1 mg of lasalocid per 2.2 lb body weight per day. A withdrawal period has not been established for lasalocid in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 1,440 grams/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers): For increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a free-choice Type C medicated loose mineral, feed continuously at a rate of not less than 60 mg nor more than 200 mg of lasalocid per head per day.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">012286
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 1,440 grams/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers): For increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a free-choice Type C medicated mineral block, feed continuously at a rate of not less than 60 mg nor more than 200 mg of lasalocid per head per day.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 300 grams/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers): for increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a free-choice Type C medicated protein block, feed continuously at a rate of not less than 60 mg nor more than 200 mg of lasalocid per head per day.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">067949
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 60 to 300 mg of lasalocid per head per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter) and replacement beef and dairy heifers on pasture: For increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as a Type C free-choice medicated feed at a rate of 60 to 300 mg of lasalocid per head per day. Daily intakes of lasalocid in excess of 200 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) The conditions of use for minor species are:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lasalocid in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 20 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheep maintained in confinement: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria ovina, E. crandallis, E. ovinoidalis (E. ninakohlyakimovae), E. parva,</E> and <E T="03">E. intricata.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed to provide not less than 15 milligrams (mg) nor more than 70 mg of lasalocid sodium activity per head per day depending on body weight.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chukar partridges: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. legionensis.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration up to 8 weeks of age.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rabbits: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. stiedae.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration up to 6 1/2 weeks of age</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) It is used as a free-choice mineral Type C feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Specifications.</I>



</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International feed No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defluorinated phosphate (20.5% Ca, 18.5% P)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chloride (salt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium carbonate (38% Ca)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cottonseed meal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5-01-621
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-03-755
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium premix (0.02 percent Se)
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dried cane molasses (46% sugars)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4-04-695
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-758
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin premix
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide (58% Mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-756
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-06-098
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trace mineral premix
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lasalocid Type A medicated article (68 g/lb)
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Content of the vitamin and trace mineral premixes may be varied; however, they should be comparable to those used by the firm for other free-choice feeds. Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Selenium must comply with 21 CFR 573.920. Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide (EDDI) should comply with FDA Compliance Policy Guides Sec. 651.100 (CPG 7125.18).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> To provide 1,440 g lasalocid per ton, use 21.2 lbs (1.06%) of a lasalocid Type A medicated article containing 68 g/lb. If using a lasalocid Type A medicated article containing 90.7 g/lb, use 15.88 lbs per ton (0.794%), adding molasses.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 1,440 grams per ton.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers): for increased rate of weight gain. Intakes of lasalocid in excess of 200 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg/head/day.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Limitations.</I> For pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers); feed continuously on a free-choice basis at a rate of 60 to 300 milligrams lasalocid per head per day. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) It is used as a ruminant free-choice liquid Type C feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Specifications.</I> 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International feed No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cane molasses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55.167</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4-13-241
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condensed molasses fermentation solubles</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50% Urea Solution (23% N)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium polyphosphate solution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-08-42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid (54%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-03-707
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xanthan gum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8-15-818
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trace mineral premix
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin premix
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lasalocid liquid Type A medicated article (90.7 g/lb)
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.083</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">

</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Content of the vitamin and trace mineral premixes may be varied; however, they should be comparable to those used by the firm for other free-choice feeds. Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Selenium must comply with 21 CFR 573.920. Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide (EDDI) should comply with FDA Compliance Policy Guides Sec. 651.100 (CPG 7125.18).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> To provide 150 gm lasalocid per ton, use 1.652 lb (0.083%) of a lasalocid liquid Type A medicated article containing 90.7 g/lb. If using a dry lasalocid Type A medicated article containing 68 g/lb, use, use 2.206 lbs per ton (0.111%), replacing molasses. If using a dry lasalocid Type A medicated article containing 90.7 g/lb, use 1.652 lbs per ton (0.083%), adding molasses.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 150 grams per ton.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers): for increased rate of weight gain. Intakes of lasalocid in excess of 200 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg/head/day.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Limitations.</I> For pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers). Feed continuously on a free-choice basis at a rate of 60 to 300 milligrams lasalocid per head per day.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) It is used as a free-choice, loose mineral Type C feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Specifications.</I> 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International feed No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monocalcium phosphate (21% P)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-082
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Salt</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distillers dried grains w/ solubles</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5-28-236
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dried cane molasses (46% Sugars)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4-04-695
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-03-755
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trace mineral/vitamin premix
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium carbonate (38% Ca)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8-03-123
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide (58% Mg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-756
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron oxide (52% Fe)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-431
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lasalocid Type A medicated article (68 g/lb)
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Content of the vitamin and trace mineral premixes may be varied; however, they should be comparable to those used by the firm for other free-choice feeds. Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Selenium must comply with 21 CFR 573.920. Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide (EDDI) should comply with FDA Compliance Policy Guides Sec. 651.100 (CPG 7125.18).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> To provide 1,088 g lasalocid per ton, use 16 lbs (0.80%) of a lasalocid Type A medicated article containing 68 g/lb. If using a lasalocid Type A medicated article containing 90.7 g/lb, use 12 lbs per ton (0.6%), adding molasses.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> 1,088 grams per ton.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Indications for use.</I> Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder cattle, and dairy and beef replacement heifers): For increased rate of weight gain. Intakes of lasalocid in excess of 200 mg/head/day have not been shown to be more effective than 200 mg/head/day.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Limitations.</I> Feed continuously on a free-choice basis at a rate of 60 to 300 mg lasalocid per head per day.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Lasalocid may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<P>(ii) Chlortetracycline and sulfamethazine as in § 558.140.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<P>(iv) Melengestrol as in § 558.342.
</P>
<P>(v) Oxytetracycline as in § 558.450.
</P>
<P>(vi) Tylosin alone or in combination with melengestrol acetate as in § 558.625.
</P>
<P>(vii) Virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 44382, Oct. 8, 1976]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.311, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.325" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.325   Lincomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 20 or 50 grams of lincomycin (as lincomycin hydrochloride agricultural grade) per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.360 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for lincomycin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for lincomycin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling of Type A medicated articles and Type B and Type C medicated feeds containing lincomycin shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(i) “Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects.”
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling of medicated feeds containing lincomycin intended for use in swine shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(i) “Occasionally, swine fed lincomycin may within the first 2 days after the onset of treatment develop diarrhea and/or swelling of the anus. On rare occasions, some pigs may show reddening of the skin and irritable behavior. These conditions have been self-correcting within 5 to 8 days without discontinuing the lincomycin treatment.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “The effects of lincomycin on swine reproductive performance, pregnancy, and lactation have not been determined.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lincomycin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Not for use in laying hens, breeder chickens, or turkeys</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clopidol, 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and for the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to broiler chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Not for use in laying hens, breeder chickens, or turkeys. Consult a veterinarian or poultry pathologist if losses exceed 0.5% in a two-day period. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Clopidol as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decoquinate, 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. mivati, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti,</E> and for the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not use in feeds containing bentonite. Not for use in laying hens, breeding chickens, or turkeys. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Decoquinate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Halofuginone 2.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin; and the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter. Do not feed to laying chickens or waterfowl. Halofuginone hydrobromide as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin, and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Type C feed must be used within 4 weeks of manufacture. Not for use in laying hens, breeding chickens, or turkeys. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin in broiler chickens up to 16 weeks of age</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Not for use in laying hens, breeding chickens, or turkeys. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. In the absence of coccidiosis in broiler chickens, the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake, resulting in reduced weight gain. Do not use this medicated feed after 90 days from the date of manufacture. Monensin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Robenidine hydrochloride, 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin, and as an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria mivati, E. brunetti, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Do not use in feeds containing bentonite. Do not feed to laying hens producing eggs for human consumption. Not for use in laying hens, breeding chickens, or turkeys. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter. Type C feed containing robenidine hydrochloride must be fed within 50 days from the date of manufacture. Robenidine hydrochloride as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salinomycin sodium activity, 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E maxima,</E> <E T="03">E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and for the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to broiler chickens. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Not for use in laying hens, breeding chickens, or turkeys. May be fatal if accidentally fed to adult turkeys or horses. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Do not use in Type C medicated feeds containing pellet binders. Salinomycin sodium activity as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zoalene, 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention and control of coccidiosis and for the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to lincomycin in broiler chickens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration from the time chicks are placed in floor pens until slaughtered for meat. Not for use in laying hens, breeding chickens, or turkeys. Consult a veterinarian or poultry pathologist if losses exceed 0.5% in a two-day period. Do not allow rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses, or ruminants access to feeds containing lincomycin. Ingestion by these species may result in severe gastrointestinal effects. Zoalene as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lincomycin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the control of swine dysentery and the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis) caused by <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as sole ration. For use in swine on premises with a history of swine dysentery but where symptoms have not yet occurred, or following use of lincomycin at 100 grams (g)/ton for the treatment of swine dysentery and the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For control of swine dysentery on premises with a history of swine dysentery, but where symptoms have not yet occurred; as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; and as an aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Not to be fed to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 6 days prior to slaughter. Lincomycin as provided by No. 054771; pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and/or control of swine dysentery; for removal and control of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 3 days as the sole ration. Not to be fed to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter. Lincomycin as provided by No. 054771; pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and/or control of swine dysentery; as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; and as an aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For treatment of swine dysentery, feed 100 grams of lincomycin and 96 grams of pyrantel tartrate per ton of complete feed for 3 weeks or until clinical signs of the disease disappear, following with 40 grams of lincomycin and 96 grams of pyrantel tartrate per ton of complete feed as the sole ration. Not to be fed to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 6 days prior to slaughter. Lincomycin as provided by No. 054771; pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and/or control of swine dysentery; for removal and control of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) and nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a single therapeutic treatment at a rate of 1 lb of feed per 40 lb of body weight for animals up to 200 lb and 5 lb of feed per head for animals over 200 lb. Not to be fed to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter. See paragraph (d) of this section. Lincomycin as provided by No. 054771; pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment of swine dysentery and the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis) caused by <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a sole ration for 3 weeks or until signs of disease (watery, mucoid, or bloody stools) disappear</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment of swine dysentery; as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; and as an aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 3 weeks or until clinical signs of the disease disappear. Not to be fed to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 6 days prior to slaughter. Lincomycin as provided by No. 054771; pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and/or control of swine dysentery; for removal and control of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 3 days as the sole ration. Not to be fed to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter. Lincomycin as provided by No. 054771; pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and/or control of swine dysentery; for removal and control of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) and nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a single therapeutic treatment. Not to be fed to swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter. Lincomycin as provided by No. 054771; pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For reduction in the severity of the effects of respiratory disease associated with <E T="03">Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as sole ration for 21 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiii) [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiv) 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel tartrate, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For reduction in the severity of the effects of respiratory disease associated with <E T="03">Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae;</E> to aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; and to aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections in swine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 21 days. Not for use in swine that weigh more than 250 pounds. Withdraw 6 days before slaughter. Lincomycin as provided by No. 066104; pyrantel tartrate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95005, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 12170, Mar. 1, 2017; 82 FR 21691, May 10, 2017; 83 FR 13637, Mar. 30, 2018; 83 FR 14588, Apr. 5, 2018; 83 FR 48947, Sept. 28, 2018; 83 FR 64741, Dec. 18, 2018; 84 FR 8976, Mar. 13, 2019; 84 FR 12501, Apr. 2, 2019; 84 FR 39185, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 14824, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 55570, Aug. 16, 2023; 91 FR 20344, Apr. 16, 2026]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.330" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.330   Lubabegron.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of Type A medicated article contains 4.54 grams (10 grams per kilogram) or 22.7 grams (50 grams per kilogram) of lubabegron as lubabegron fumarate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.370 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Labeling shall bear the following caution statements:
</P>
<P>(1) Lubabegron has not been approved for use in breeding animals because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated in these animals.
</P>
<P>(2) Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing lubabegron.
</P>
<P>(3) A decrease in dry matter intake may be noticed in some animals receiving lubabegron.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) It is used in cattle feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lubabegron (as lubabegron fumarate) in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration to provide 13 to 90 mg lubabegron/head/day during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, suppression of estrus (heat), and for reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed (0.5 to 2 lb(s) per head per day) must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 1.25 to 4.54 g/ton lubabegron to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate and 13 to 90 mg lubabegron per head per day. Feed as the sole ration during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section and in § 558.342(d). Lubabegron fumarate as provided by No. 058198; melengestrol acetate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight and for improved feed efficiency during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 13 to 90 mg lubabegron/head/day and 50 to 480 mg monensin/head/day during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 g/ton (360 mg monensin/head/day). See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section and in § 558.355(d). Lubabegron fumarate as provided by No. 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592, 058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight; and for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E> during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration to provide 13 to 90 mg lubabegron/head/day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section and in § 558.355(d). Lubabegron fumarate as provided by No. 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592, 058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 and melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, suppression of estrus (heat), for reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight, and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E> during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed (0.5 to 2 lb(s) per head per day) must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 1.25 to 4.54 g/ton lubabegron and 10 to 40 g/ton monensin, to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate and 13 to 90 mg lubabegron per head per day, and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day, depending upon severity of challenge, up to a maximum of 480 mg monensin per head per day. Feed as the sole ration during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section, and in §§ 558.342(d) and 558.355(d). Lubabegron fumarate as provided by No. 058198; monensin as provided by No. 058198 or 016592; melengestrol acetate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198, 016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Lubabegron may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Tylosin as in § 558.625.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12501, Apr. 2, 2019, as amended at 84 FR 53311, Oct. 7, 2019; 88 FR 14905, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 84701, Dec. 6, 2023; 90 FR 6802, Jan. 21, 2025; 91 FR 5301, Feb. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.340" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.340   Maduramicin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 4.54 grams maduramicin per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor. See</I> No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances. See</I> § 556.375 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 4.54 to 5.45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. tenella, E. brunetti, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. For broiler chickens only. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 45310, July 28, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.342" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.342   Melengestrol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) Dry Type A medicated articles containing 100 or 200 milligrams (mg) melengestrol acetate per pound.
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid Type A medicated article containing 500 mg melengestrol acetate per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of products described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 016592, 051311, 054771, and 058198 for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.380 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Type B or C medicated feeds may be manufactured from melengestrol acetate liquid Type A articles or Type B or C medicated feeds which have a pH of 4.0 to 8.0 and bear appropriate mixing directions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For liquid feeds stored in recirculating tank systems: Recirculate immediately prior to use for no less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For liquid feeds stored in mechanical, air, or other agitation type tank systems: Agitate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, creating a turbulence at the bottom of the tank that is visible at the top. Agitate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(2) A physically stable melengestrol acetate liquid Type B or C feed will not be subject to the requirements for mixing directions prescribed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section provided it has a pH of 4.0 to 8.0 and contains a suspending agent(s) sufficient to maintain a viscosity of not less than 300 centipoises per second for 3 months.
</P>
<P>(3) Liquid or dry combination Type B or C medicated feeds containing melengestrol acetate and lasalocid must be labeled in accordance with § 558.311(d).
</P>
<P>(4) Liquid or dry combination Type B or C medicated feeds containing melengestrol acetate and monensin must be labeled in accordance with § 558.355(d).
</P>
<P>(5) Liquid combination Type B or C medicated feeds containing melengestrol acetate and tylosin must be manufactured in accordance with § 558.625(d).
</P>
<P>(6) Liquid melengestrol acetate may not be mixed with oxytetracycline in a common liquid feed supplement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Cattle.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Melengestrol 
<br/>acetate in 
<br/>mg/head/day </TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination 
<br/>in grams/ton


</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 0.25 to 0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer 0.5 to 2.0 pounds (lb)/head/day of medicated feed containing 0.125 to 1.0 mg melengestrol acetate/lb to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate/head/day.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592, 051311, 054771, 058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers intended for breeding: For suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer 0.5 to 2.0 lb/head/day of Type C feed containing 0.25 to 1.0 mg melengestrol acetate/lb to provide 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate/head/day. Do not exceed 24 days of feeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592, 051311, 054771, 058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 0.25 to 0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat); and for control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Add at the rate of 0.5 to 2.0 lb/head/day a medicated feed (liquid or dry) containing 0.125 to 1.0 mg melengestrol acetate/lb to a feed containing 10 to 30 g of lasalocid per ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate and 100 to 360 milligrams of lasalocid per head/day. See § 558.311(d) of this chapter. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771, 058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 0.25 to 0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat); and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At the rate of 0.5 to 2.0 lb/head/day, a Type C top-dress medicated feed containing 0.25 to 2 g melengestrol acetate per ton must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 10 to 40 g of monensin per ton to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate/head/day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight, depending on severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg monensin/head/day. See § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; melengestrol acetate as provided by No. 016952, 066104, or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Melengestrol may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Oxytetracycline as in § 558.450.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ractopamine as in § 558.500.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tylosin as in § 558.625.
</P>
<P>(iv) Zilpaterol as in § 558.665.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 28535, June 3, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.342, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.348" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.348   Mibolerone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each 6.5 ounce can contains 30 or 60 micrograms (µg) of mibolerone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor. See</I> No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of use in dogs</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 30 µg for animals weighing up to 25 pounds; 60 µg for animals weighing 26 to 50 pounds; 120 µg for animals weighing 51 to 100 pounds; 180 µg for animals weighing over 100 pounds, or German Shepherds or German Shepherd mix weighing 30 to 80 pounds. Administer daily at least 30 days before expected initiation of heat and continue as long as desired, but for not more than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For the prevention of estrus (heat) in adult female dogs not intended primarily for breeding purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Mibolerone should not be used in bitches before first estrous period or in purebred Bedlington terriers. It is not intended for animals being used primarily for breeding purposes. Use orally in adult female dogs only. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 45310, July 28, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.355" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.355   Monensin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 45, 60, 90.7, 110, or 113.4 grams monensin, USP, per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 016592 for use of a Type A medicated article containing 90.7 grams monensin, USP, per pound as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (e)(1)(ii), (e)(1)(vii), (e)(1)(xiv), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(v), and (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.420 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Type C chicken feed containing monensin as the mycelial cake shall bear an expiration date of 90 days after its date of manufacture. 
</P>
<P>(2)-(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Liquid Type B feeds shall bear an expiration date of 8 weeks after its date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(5) All Type A medicated articles containing monensin shall bear the following warning statement: When mixing and handling monensin Type A medicated articles, use protective clothing, impervious gloves, and a dust mask. Operators should wash thoroughly with soap and water after handling. If accidental eye contact occurs, immediately rinse thoroughly with water.
</P>
<P>(6) All formulations containing monensin shall bear the following caution statement: Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal.
</P>
<P>(7) Type A medicated articles containing monensin intended for use in cattle and goats shall bear, in addition to the caution statement in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, the following statements:
</P>
<P>(i) Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Feeding undiluted or mixing errors resulting in high concentrations of monensin has been fatal to cattle and could be fatal to goats.
</P>
<P>(iii) Must be thoroughly mixed in feeds before use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Do not feed undiluted.
</P>
<P>(v) Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result.
</P>
<P>(vi) Do not feed to lactating goats.
</P>
<P>(vii) If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing (see paragraphs (d)(10)(i) and (d)(10)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(viii) A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal.
</P>
<P>(ix) You may notice the following: Reduced voluntary feed intake in dairy cows fed monensin. This reduction increases with higher doses of monensin fed. Rule out monensin as the cause of reduced feed intake before attributing to other causes such as illness, feed management, or the environment. Reduced milk fat percentage in dairy cows fed monensin. This reduction increases with higher doses of monensin fed. Increased incidence of cystic ovaries and metritis in dairy cows fed monensin. Reduced conception rates, increased services per animal, and extended days open and corresponding calving intervals in dairy cows fed monensin. Have a comprehensive and ongoing nutritional, reproductive, and herd health program in place when feeding monensin to dairy cows.
</P>
<P>(x) Inadequate mixing (recirculation or agitation) of monensin liquid Type B or Type C medicated feeds has resulted in increased monensin concentration which has been fatal to cattle and could be fatal to goats.
</P>
<P>(8) Type A medicated articles containing monensin intended for use in chickens, turkeys, and quail shall bear the following statements:
</P>
<P>(i) Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be thoroughly mixed in feeds before use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not feed undiluted.
</P>
<P>(iv) Do not feed to laying chickens.
</P>
<P>(v) Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age.
</P>
<P>(vi) Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens.
</P>
<P>(vii) Some strains of turkey coccidia may be monensin tolerant or resistant. Monensin may interfere with development of immunity to turkey coccidiosis.
</P>
<P>(viii) In the absence of coccidiosis in broiler chickens the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain.
</P>
<P>(9) Type B feeds containing monensin shall bear the statements specified in the following paragraphs of this section when intended for use in:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cattle (as described in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) through (iii), (vi), and (vii); and (e)(4)(i) through (vi) of this section).</I> See paragraphs (d)(6) and (d)(7)(i) through (v), (vii), and (viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dairy cows (as described in paragraphs (e)(3)(iv) and (v) of this section).</I> See paragraphs (d)(6) and (d)(7)(i) through (iv), (vii), (viii), and (ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Goats</I>: See paragraphs (d)(6) and (d)(7)(i) through (d)(7)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Chickens</I>: See paragraphs (d)(8)(i) through (d)(8)(vi), and (d)(8)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Turkeys:</I> See paragraphs (d)(8)(i), (d)(8)(ii), (d)(8)(iii), and (d)(8)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Quail</I>: See paragraphs (d)(8)(i), (d)(8)(ii), and (d)(8)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) Type C feeds containing monensin shall bear the statements specified in the following paragraphs of this section when intended for use in:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cattle (as described in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) through (iii), (vi), and (vii); and (e)(4)(i) through (vi) of this section).</I> See paragraphs (d)(6) and (d)(7)(i), (v), (vii), and (viii) of this section. Paragraph (d)(7)(vii) of this section does not apply to free-choice Type C medicated feeds as defined in § 510.455 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dairy cows (as described in paragraphs (e)(3)(iv) and (v) of this section).</I> See paragraphs (d)(6) and (d)(7)(i), (vii), (viii), and (ix) of this section. Paragraph (d)(7)(vii) of this section does not apply to free-choice Type C medicated feeds as defined in § 510.455 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Goats</I>: See paragraphs (d)(6), (d)(7)(i), (d)(7)(v), and (d)(7)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Chickens</I>: See paragraphs (d)(8)(i), (d)(8)(iv), (d)(8)(v), (d)(8)(vi), and (d)(8)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Turkeys</I>: See paragraphs (d)(8)(i) and (d)(8)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Quail</I>: See paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) Type B and Type C liquid feeds requiring recirculation or agitation that contain monensin and are intended for use in cattle (including dairy cows) and goats shall bear the caution statement specified in paragraph (d)(7)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) Mixing directions for liquid feeds requiring recirculation or agitation:
</P>
<P>(i) For liquid feeds stored in recirculating tank systems: Recirculate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For liquid feeds stored in mechanical, air, or other agitation-type tank systems: Agitate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, creating a turbulence at the bottom of the tank that is visible at the top. Agitate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monensin in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not feed to laying chickens. In the absence of coccidiosis in broiler chickens the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laying hen replacement chickens and layer breeder replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not feed to laying chickens. In the absence of coccidiosis in broiler chickens the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. In the absence of coccidiosis, the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Do not feed to laying chickens. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration throughout the feeding period. Do not feed to laying chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal. In the absence of coccidiosis in broiler chickens, the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Monensin provided by No. 058198, bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laying hen replacement chickens and layer breeder replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration throughout the feeding period. Do not feed to laying chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Monensin provided by No. 058198, bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Layer replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not feed to laying chickens. Monensin sodium provided by No. 058198, bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 5 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,<E T="03"> E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increase in rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 28 to 35 days, starting from the time chicks are placed for brooding. Do not feed to laying chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal. In the absence of coccidiosis in broiler chickens, the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Monensin provided by No. 058198, bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laying hen replacement chickens and layer breeder replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 28 to 35 days, starting from the time chicks are placed for brooding. Do not feed to laying chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Monensin provided by No. 058198, bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler and layer replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for improved feed efficiency, and as an aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not feed to laying chickens. Monensin sodium provided by No. 058198, bacitracin methylenedisalicylate provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin zinc), 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal. In the absence of coccidiosis in broiler chickens, the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin zinc, 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. In the absence of coccidiosis, the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Do not feed to laying chickens. Bacitracin zinc provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiii) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin zinc, 10 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. In the absence of coccidiosis, the use of monensin with no withdrawal period may limit feed intake resulting in reduced weight gain. Do not feed to laying chickens. Bacitracin zinc provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiv) 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increase in rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monensin in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E.gallopavonis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For growing turkeys only. Feed continuously as sole ration. Some strains of turkey coccidia may be monensin tolerant or resistant. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Do not feed to laying hens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Monensin may interfere with development of immunity to turkey coccidiosis. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. The optimum level depends upon the severity of coccidiosis exposure. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by Nos. 066104 or 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicycate, 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis,</E> and as an aid in the control of transmissible enteritis complicated by organisms susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c)<E T="03"> of this chapter.</E> See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis,</E> and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides, E. meleagrimitis,</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monensin in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously in complete feed at a rate of 50 to 480 milligrams of monensin per head per day. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 grams per ton (360 milligrams per head per day). See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at a rate of 0.14 to 0.42 milligram per pound of body weight per day, depending upon the severity of challenge, up to maximum of 480 milligrams per head per day. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 10 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves excluding veal calves: For prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at a rate of 0.14 to 1.0 milligram monensin per pound of body weight per day, depending upon the severity of challenge, up to maximum of 200 milligrams per head per day. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 11 to 22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy cows: For increased milk production efficiency (production of marketable solids-corrected milk per unit of feed intake)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously to dry and lactating dairy cows in a total mixed ration (“complete feed”). See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 11 to 400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy cows: For increased milk production efficiency (production of marketable solids-corrected milk per unit of feed intake)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously to dry and lactating dairy cows in a component feeding system (including top dress). The Type C medicated feed must be fed in a minimum of 1 lb of feed to provide 185 to 660 mg/head/day monensin to lactating cows or 115 to 410 mg/head/day monensin to dry cows. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 15 to 400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter) or in a dry lot and replacement beef and dairy heifers: For increased rate of weight gain, and for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain, feed at a rate of 50 to 200 milligrams monensin per head per day in not less than 1 pound of feed or, after the 5th day, feed at a rate of 400 milligrams per head per day every other day in not less than 2 pounds of feed. For prevention and control of coccidiosis, feed at a rate of 0.14 to 0.42 milligram per pound of body weight per day, depending on severity of challenge, up to 200 milligrams per head per day. During first 5 days of feeding, cattle should receive no more than 100 milligrams per day in not less than 1 pound of feed. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 25 to 400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cows: For improved feed efficiency when receiving supplemental feed, and for the prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as supplemental feed, either hand-fed in a minimum of 1 pound of feed or mixed in a total ration. For improved feed efficiency, feed continuously at a rate of 50 to 200 milligrams monensin per head per day. For prevention and control of coccidiosis, feed at a rate of 0.14 to 0.42 milligram per pound of body weight per day, depending upon severity of challenge, up to a maximum of 200 milligrams per head per day. During first 5 days of feeding, cattle should receive no more than 100 milligrams per head per day in not less than 1 pound of feed. See special labeling considerations in paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Free-choice cattle feeds</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monensin
<br/>amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 150 milligrams per pound of protein-mineral block (0.033%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter) and replacement beef heifers on pasture: For increased rate of weight gain, and for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E> in pasture cattle which may require supplemental feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide 50 to 200 milligrams of monensin (0.34 to 1.33 pounds of block) per head per day, at least 1 block per 10 to 12 head of cattle. Roughage must be available at all times. Do not allow animals access to other protein blocks, salt or mineral, while being fed this product. See paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">012286
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 175 milligrams per pound of protein-mineral block (0.038%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter): For increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide 40 to 200 milligrams of monensin (0.25 to 1.13 pounds or 4 to 18 ounces of block) per head per day, at least 1 block per 4 head of cattle. Do not allow cattle access to salt or mineral while being fed this product. Ingestion by cattle of monensin at levels of 600 milligrams per head per day and higher has been fatal. See paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 400 milligrams per pound of protein-mineral block (0.088%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pasture cattle (slaughter, stocker, feeder, and dairy and beef replacement heifers): For increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide 80 to 200 milligrams of monensin (0.2 to 0.5 pounds of block) per head per day, at least 1 block per 5 head of cattle. Feed blocks continuously. Do not feed salt or minerals containing salt. The effectiveness of this block in cull cows and bulls has not been established. See paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">067949
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 400 mg per pound of block</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter) and beef replacement heifers): for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide 50 to 200 mg of monensin (2 to 8 ounces of block) per head per day, in at least one block per five head of cattle. Feed blocks continuously. Do not feed salt of mineral supplements in addition to this block. Discontinue feeding if block consumption falls below 2 ounces or rises above 8 ounces daily. See paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">086113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 1,620 grams per ton of mineral granules as specified in paragraph (e)(4)(v)(A) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers on pasture (stocker, feeder, and slaughter) or in a dry lot and replacement beef and dairy heifers: For increased rate of weight gain, and for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at a rate of 50 to 200 milligrams per head per day. During the first 5 days of feeding, cattle should receive no more than 100 milligrams per day. Do not feed additional salt or minerals. Do not mix with grain or other feeds. Monensin is toxic to cattle when consumed at higher than approved levels. Stressed and/or feed- and/or water-deprived cattle should be adapted to the pasture and to unmedicated mineral supplement before using the monensin mineral supplement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications.</I> Use as free-choice Type C medicated feed formulated as mineral granules as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">International feed No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monocalcium phosphate (21% phosphorus, 15% calcium)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-01-082
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium chloride (salt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-04-152
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dried cane molasses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-04-695
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ground limestone (33% calcium) or calcium carbonate (38% calcium)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6-02-632
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cane molasses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-04-696
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Processed grain by-products (as approved by AAFCO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vitamin/trace mineral premix 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monensin Type A article, 90.7 grams per pound 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antidusting oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Content of vitamin and trace mineral premixes may be varied. However, they should be comparable to those used for other free-choice feeds. Formulation modifications require FDA approval prior to marketing. Selenium must comply with 21 CFR 573.920. Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide should comply with FDA Compliance Policy Guide Sec. 651.100 (CPG 7125.18).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> To provide 1,620 g monensin per ton, use 17.8 lb (0.89%) of a monensin Type A medicated article containing 90.7 g monensin per pound. If using a monensin Type A medicated article containing 113.4 grams monensin per pound, use 14.2 lb (0.71%), subtracting ground limestone.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Minor species</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monensin in


<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing bobwhite quail: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria dispersa</E> and <E T="03">E. lettyae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Not for broiler breeder replacement chickens. Do not feed to laying hens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not allow horses, other equines, mature turkeys, or guinea fowl access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses and guinea fowl has been fatal.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goats maintained in confinement: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria crandallis, E. christenseni,</E> and <E T="03">E. ninakohlyakimovae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously. Do not feed to lactating goats. See paragraph (d)(11) of this section for provisions for monensin liquid Type C goat feeds.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592


<br/>058198
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) Monensin may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Avilamycin as in § 558.68.
</P>
<P>(ii) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<P>(iii) Decoquinate as in § 558.195.
</P>
<P>(iv) Lubabegron as in § 558.330.
</P>
<P>(v) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<P>(vi) Melengestrol acetate as in § 558.342.
</P>
<P>(vii) Oxytetracycline as in § 558.450.
</P>
<P>(viii) Ractopamine as in § 558.500.
</P>
<P>(ix) Tilmicosin as in § 558.618.
</P>
<P>(x) Tylosin as in § 558.625.
</P>
<P>(xi) Virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<P>(xii) Zilpaterol alone or in combination as in § 558.665.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.355, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.360" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.360   Morantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of Type A medicated article contains 88 grams morantel tartrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.425 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Do not use in Type B or Type C medicated feeds containing bentonite.
</P>
<P>(2) Consult your veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Morantel tartrate in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 0.44 to 4.4 grams of morantel tartrate per pound of feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle: For removal and control of mature gastrointestinal nematode infections of cattle including stomach worms (<E T="03">Haemonchus</E> spp., <E T="03">Ostertagia</E> spp., <E T="03">Trichostrongylus</E> spp.), worms of the small intestine (<E T="03">Cooperia</E> spp., <E T="03">Trichostrongylus</E> spp., <E T="03">Nematodirus</E> spp.), and worms of the large intestine (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum radiatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a single therapeutic treatment at 0.44 gram of morantel tartrate per 100 pounds of body weight. Fresh water should be available at all times. When medicated feed is consumed, resume normal feeding. Conditions of constant worm exposure may require retreatment in 2 to 4 weeks. Do not treat cattle within 14 days of slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 0.44 to 4.4 grams of morantel tartrate per pound of feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goats: For removal and control of mature gastrointestinal nematode infections of goats including <E T="03">Haemonchus contortus, Ostertagia (Teladorsagia) circumcincta,</E> and <E T="03">Trichostrongylus axei</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a single therapeutic treatment at 0.44 gram of morantel tartrate per 100 pounds of body weight. Fresh water should be available at all times. When medicated feed is consumed, resume normal feeding. Conditions of constant worm exposure may require retreatment in 2 to 4 weeks. Do not treat goats within 30 days of slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 39185, Aug. 9, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.363" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.363   Narasin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 36, 45, 54, 72, or 90 grams narasin per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See § 556.428 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> An expiration date of 2 months (8 weeks) is required for narasin Type C medicated swine feeds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Narasin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler chickens only. Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 54 to 72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate), 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. The narasin concentration should be adjusted to meet the severity of the coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate), 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency, and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration throughout the feeding period. The narasin concentration should be adjusted to meet the severity of the coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate), 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens,</E> and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 28 to 35 days, starting from the time chicks are placed for brooding. The narasin concentration should be adjusted to meet the severity of the coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 54 to 72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin zinc), 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. The narasin concentration should be adjusted to meet the severity of the coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 54 to 72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and<E T="03"> E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler chickens only. Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Narasin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 13.6 to 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine: For increased rate of weight gain when fed for at least 4 weeks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for at least 4 weeks to swine during the growing-finishing period as the sole ration. No increased benefit in rate of weight gain has been shown when narasin concentrations in the diet are greater than 13.6 g/ton. Effectiveness has not been demonstrated when fed for durations less than 4 weeks. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Not approved for use in breeding animals because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated in these animals. Swine being fed with narasin should not have access to feeds containing pleuromutilins (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, tiamulin) as adverse reactions may occur. If signs of toxicity occur, discontinue use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 18.1 to 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency when fed for at least 4 weeks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for at least 4 weeks to swine during the growing-finishing period as the sole ration. No increased benefit in rate of weight gain has been shown when narasin concentrations in the diet are greater than 13.6 g/ton. Effectiveness has not been demonstrated when fed for durations less than 4 weeks. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Not approved for use in breeding animals because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated in these animals. Swine being fed with narasin should not have access to feeds containing pleuromutilins (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, tiamulin) as adverse reactions may occur. If signs of toxicity occur, discontinue use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Narasin single-ingredient Type A medicated articles may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Avilamycin as in § 558.68.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64741, Dec. 18, 2018, as amended at 86 FR 14825, Mar. 19, 2021; 91 FR 20345, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.364" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.364   Narasin and nicarbazin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> A fixed-ratio, combination drug Type A medicated article containing 36 grams narasin and 36 grams nicarbazin per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.428 and 556.445 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Narasin and
<br/>nicarbazin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 27 to 45 of each drug</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying hens. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to formulations containing narasin. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. The two drugs can be combined only at a 1:1 ratio for the 27 to 45 grams per ton range. Only granular nicarbazin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter may be used in the combination</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 27 to 45 of each drug</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying hens. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to formulations containing narasin. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 27 to 45 of each drug</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration throughout the feeding period. For broiler chickens only. Do not feed to laying hens. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to formulations containing narasin. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 27 to 45 of each drug</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and as an aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying hens. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to formulations containing narasin. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 27 to 45 of each drug</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and for the prevention of mortality caused by necrotic enteritis associated with <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for 28 to 35 days, starting from the time chicks are placed for brooding. For broiler chickens only. Do not feed to laying hens. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to formulations containing narasin. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 27 to 45 of each drug</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati,</E> and as an aid in the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">To control necrotic enteritis, start medication at first clinical signs of disease; vary dosage based on the severity of infection; administer continuously for 5 to 7 days or as long as clinical signs persist, then reduce bacitracin to prevention level (50 g/ton). Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Do not allow turkeys, horses, or other equines access to formulations containing narasin. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 27 to 45 of each drug</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis, and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use as a treatment for coccidiosis. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Do not allow turkeys, horses, or other equines access to formulations containing narasin. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Narasin and nicarbazin fixed-ratio, combination drug Type A medicated articles may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Avilamycin as in § 558.68.
</P>
<P>(ii) Virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64742, Dec. 18, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 8981, Mar. 13, 2019; 88 FR 14907, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 16550, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.365" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.365   Neomycin sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 325 grams neomycin sulfate per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for neomycin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for neomycin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> Neomycin sulfate is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Neomycin Sulfate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for Use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 250 to 2,250 grams per ton (g/t) of dry type C feed.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">   </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle, swine, sheep, and goats. For treatment and control of colibacillosis (bacterial enteritis) caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> susceptible to neomycin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">To provide 10 milligrams (mg) of neomycin sulfate per pound of body weight per day for a maximum of 14 days. The concentration of neomycin sulfate required in medicated feed must be adjusted to compensate for variation in age and weight of animal, the nature and severity of disease signs, and environmental temperature and humidity, each of which affects feed consumption. If symptoms persist after using for 2 or 3 days, consult a veterinarian. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond remission of disease symptoms. Discontinue treatment prior to slaughter as follows: Cattle 1 day, swine 3 days, sheep 2 days, and goats 3 days. A withdrawal period has not been established for use in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. A milk discard time has not been established for use in lactating dairy cattle or lactating dairy goats. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older or female dairy goats 12 months of age or older. For use in dry feeds only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 400 to 2,000 g/t of type C milk replacer.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">To provide 10 mg of neomycin sulfate per pound of body weight per day for a maximum of 14 days. Amount consumed will vary depending on animal's consumption and weight. If symptoms persist after using for 2 or 3 days, consult a veterinarian. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond remission of disease symptoms. Discontinue treatment prior to slaughter as follows: Cattle 1 day, swine 3 days, sheep 2 days, and goats 3 days. A withdrawal period has not been established for use in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. A milk discard time has not been established for use in lactating dairy cattle or lactating dairy goats. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older or female dairy goats 12 months of age or older. For use in milk replacers only.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 70576, Dec. 17, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 45881, July 26, 2000; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 95009, Dec. 27, 2016. Redesignated at 83 FR 64742, Dec. 18, 2018]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.366" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.366   Nicarbazin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 25 percent nicarbazin.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 060728, 066104, and 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.445 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nicarbazin in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination
<br/>in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 90.8 to 181.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: As an aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use as a treatment for outbreaks of coccidiosis. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter for use levels at or below 113.5 g/ton. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter for use levels above 113.5 g/ton</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104






</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 90.8 to 181.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis, and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use as a treatment for outbreaks of coccidiosis. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter for use levels at or below 113.5 g/ton. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter for use levels above 113.5 g/ton. Nicarbazin as provided by No. 066104; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 90.8 to 181.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens; As an aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis, and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use as a treatment for coccidiosis. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter for use levels at or below 113.5 g/ton. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter for use levels above 113.5 g/ton. Nicarbazin as provided by No. 066104; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 90.8 to 181.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis, and as an aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use as a treatment for outbreaks of coccidiosis. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter for use levels at or below 113.5 g/ton. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter for use levels above 113.5 g/ton. Nicarbazin as provided by No. 066104; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: As an aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use as a treatment for coccidiosis. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">060728


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens; aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis, and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use as a treatment for coccidiosis. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter. Nicarbazin as provided by No. 066104; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">060728
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin zinc, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens; aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis, and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler chickens only. Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter. Nicarbazin as provided by No. 066104, bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in preventing outbreaks of cecal (<E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E>) and intestinal (<E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E>) coccidiosis, and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration from time chicks are placed on litter until past the time when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard; do not use as a treatment for coccidiosis. Do not use in flushing mashes. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter. Nicarbazin as provided by No. 066104; bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Nicarbazin single-ingredient Type A medicated articles may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64743, Dec. 18, 2018, as amended at 86 FR 14825, Mar. 19, 2021; 88 FR 14907, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 55570, Aug. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.415" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.415   Novobiocin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 25 grams of novobiocin activity per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.460 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in animal feeds as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Novobiocin amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) To provide 6 to 7 milligrams per pound (mg/lb) of body weight per day.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: As an aid in the treatment of breast blisters associated with staphylococcal infections susceptible to novobiocin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer feed which contains not less than 200 grams of novobiocin activity per ton of feed as the sole ration for 5 to 7 days. Not for laying chickens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) To provide 10 to 14 mg/lb of body weight per day.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For the treatment of staphylococcal synovitis and generalized staphylococcal infections susceptible to novobiocin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer feed which contains not less than 350 grams of novobiocin activity per ton of feed as the sole ration for 5 to 7 days. Not for laying chickens. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Novobiocin amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) To provide 4 to 5 mg/lb of body weight per day.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: As an aid in the treatment of breast blisters associated with staphylococcal infections susceptible to novobiocin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer feed which contains not less than 200 grams of novobiocin activity per ton of feed as the sole ration for 5 to 7 days. Not for laying turkeys. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) To provide 5 to 8 mg/lb of body weight per day.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: As an aid in the control of recurring outbreaks of fowl cholera caused by strains of <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to novobiocin following initial treatment with 7 to 8 mg/lb of body weight per day.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer feed which contains not less than 200 grams of novobiocin activity per ton of feed as the sole ration for 5 to 7 days. Not for laying turkeys. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) To provide 7 to 8 mg/lb of body weight per day.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For the treatment of staphylococcal synovitis and generalized staphylococcal infections susceptible to novobiocin; and treatment of acute outbreaks of fowl cholera caused by strains of <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to novobiocin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer feed which contains not less than 350 grams of novobiocin activity per ton of feed as the sole ration for 5 to 7 days. Not for laying turkeys. Withdraw 4 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Minor species</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Novobiocin amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 350 grams per ton.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ducks: For the control of infectious serositis and fowl cholera in ducks caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella anatipestifer</E> and <E T="03">P. multocida,</E> susceptible to novobiocin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer as the sole ration for 5 to 7 days. Continue medication for 14 days if necessary. Repeat if reinfection occurs. Discontinue use at least 3 days before slaughter. Not for use in laying ducks.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) To provide 20 mg/lb of body weight per day.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mink: For the treatment of generalized infections, abscesses, or urinary infections caused by staphylococcal or other novobiocin sensitive organisms.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer feed which contains not less than 200 grams of novobiocin activity per ton of feed as the sole ration for 7 days.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 45 FR 42263, June 24, 1980; 51 FR 7399, Mar. 3, 1986; 52 FR 36402, Sept. 29, 1987; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 84 FR 12501, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.430" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.430   Nystatin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 20 grams of nystatin activity per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.470 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing and laying chickens and growing turkeys: As an aid in the control of crop mycosis and mycotic diarrhea (<E T="03">Candida albicans</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing and laying chickens and growing turkeys: For the treatment of crop mycosis and mycotic diarrhea (<E T="03">Candida albicans</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">To be fed for 7 to 10 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 11002, Mar. 15, 1976, as amended at 51 FR 7399, Mar. 3, 1986; 52 FR 2686, Jan. 26, 1987; 53 FR 40729, Oct. 18, 1988; 55 FR 8461, Mar. 8, 1990; 57 FR 8578, Mar. 11, 1992; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 85 FR 45310, July 28, 2020] 



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.450" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.450   Oxytetracycline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each pound of Type A medicated article contains:
</P>
<P>(1) Oxytetracycline (from oxytetracycline quaternary salt) equivalent to 50 or 100 grams oxytetracycline hydrochloride; or oxytetracycline (from oxytetracycline dihydrate base) equivalent to 10, 30, 50, 100, or 200 grams oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) Oxytetracycline (from oxytetracycline dihydrate base) equivalent to 50, 100, or 200 grams oxytetracycline hydrochloride; or 100 grams oxytetracycline hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 066104: Type A medicated articles as in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 069254: Type A medicated articles as in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for oxytetracycline medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for oxytetracycline shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with § 558.5, labeling shall bear the statement: “For use in dry animal feed only. Not for use in liquid feed supplements.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 100 to 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">Mycoplasma synoviae</E> and control of fowl cholera caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not use in feed containing less than 0.55% dietary calcium. Use in such low calcium feeds may result in violative residues. Zero-day withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and for the control of complicated chronic respiratory disease (CRD or air sac infection) caused by <E T="03">Mycoplasma gallisepticum</E> and <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not use in feed containing less than 0.55% dietary calcium. Use in such low calcium feeds may result in violative residues. Withdraw 72 hours before slaughter. See § 558.355(d) of this chapter Oxytetracycline as provided by No. 066104; monensin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 400 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) and air sac infection caused by <E T="03">Mycoplasma gallisepticum</E> and <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not use in feed containing less than 0.55% dietary calcium. Use in such low calcium feeds may result in violative residues. Zero-day withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 400 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Robenidine, 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and for the control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) and air sac infection caused by <E T="03">Mycoplasma gallisepticum</E> and <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not use in feed containing less than 0.55% dietary calcium. Use in such low calcium feeds may result in violative residues. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter. Oxytetracycline as provided by No. 066104; robenidine as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 500 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For reduction of mortality due to air sacculitis (air sac infection) caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 5 days. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not use in feed containing less than 0.55% dietary calcium. Use in such low calcium feeds may result in violative residues. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 500 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 90 to 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and as an aid in the reduction of mortality due to air-sacculitis (air sac infection) caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> sensitive to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 5 days as the sole ration. Treat at first clinical signs of the disease. Do not feed to laying chickens. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not use in feed containing less than 0.55% dietary calcium. Use in such low calcium feeds may result in violative residues. Withdraw 72 hours before slaughter. See § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Oxytetracycline as provided by No. 066104; monensin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 500 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salinomycin, 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima;</E> and as an aid in the reduction of mortality due to air-sacculitis (air sac infection) caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> sensitive to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 5 days as the sole ration. Treat at first clinical signs of the disease. Do not feed to laying chickens. Do not use in feed containing less than 0.55% dietary calcium. Use in such low calcium feeds may result in violative residues. Withdraw 24 hours before slaughter. Oxytetracycline as provided by No. 066104; salinomycin as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 100 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of hexamitiasis caused by <E T="03">Hexamita meleagridis</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. Zero-day withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 200 g/ton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">M. synoviae</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. For No. 066104, withdraw 5 days before slaughter. For No. 069254, zero-day withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 25 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of complicating bacterial organisms associated with bluecomb (transmissible enteritis; coronaviral enteritis) susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption. For No. 066104, withdraw 5 days before slaughter. For No. 069254, zero-day withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor


</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and <E T="03">Salmonella choleraesuis</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline and treatment of bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Breeding swine: For control and treatment of leptospirosis (reducing the incidence of abortion and shedding of leptospirae) caused by <E T="03">Leptospira pomona</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for not more than 14 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carbadox, 10 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and <E T="03">Salmonella choleraesuis</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline and treatment of bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for 7 to 14 days. Not for use in pregnant swine or swine intended for breeding purposes. Do not mix in feeds containing bentonite. Do not feed to swine within 42 days of slaughter. Oxytetracycline and carbadox as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor








</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves and beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever complex) caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. For No. 069254, withdraw 5 days before slaughter. For No. 066104, zero-day withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days in milk replacer or starter feed. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows. For No. 069254, withdraw 5 days before slaughter. For No. 066104, zero-day withdrawal period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 75 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing cattle (over 400 lb): For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254






</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 75 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid 25 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter (over 400 lb): For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously to provide 250 to 360 mg lasalocid and 75 mg of oxytetracycline per head per day. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 75 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter (over 400 lb): For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses; and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg of melengestrol acetate and 75 mg of oxytetracycline per head per day. Melengestrol as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771 




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 0.5 to 2.0 g/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle: For prevention and treatment of the early stages of shipping fever complex</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed 3 to 5 days before and after arrival in feedlots. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, including dry dairy cows. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk and/or in calves born to these cows</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Minor species</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheep: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">P. multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days; withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 200 mg/colony as a dust (200 mg/oz) or syrup (200 mg/5 lb)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Honey bees: For control of American foulbrood caused by <E T="03">Paenibacillus larvae</E> and European foulbrood caused by <E T="03">Melissococcus plutonius</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apply every 4 to 5 days for a total of three applications. Remove at least 6 weeks prior to main honey flow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 800 mg/colony as an extender patty (800 mg/patty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Honey bees: For control of American foulbrood caused by <E T="03">Paenibacillus larvae</E> and European foulbrood caused by <E T="03">Melissococcus plutonius</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use as a single application. Remove at least 6 weeks prior to main honey flow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 333 to 7,500 g/ton to provide 2.5 to 3.75 g/100 lb of fish/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Freshwater-reared salmonids: for control of ulcer disease caused by <E T="03">Haemophilus piscium,</E> furunculosis caused by <E T="03">Aeromonas salmonicida,</E> bacterial hemorrhagic septicemia caused by <E T="03">A. hydrophila,</E> and pseudomonas disease</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer in mixed ration for 10 days. Do not liberate fish or slaughter fish for food for 21 days following the last administration of medicated feed


<br/></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Catfish: for control of bacterial hemorrhagic septicemia caused by <E T="03">A. hydrophila</E> and pseudomonas disease</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer in mixed ration for 10 days. Do not liberate fish or slaughter fish for food for 21 days following the last administration of medicated feed. Do not administer when water temperature is below 16.7 °C (62 °F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 500 to 7,500 g/ton to provide 3.75 g/100 lb of fish/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Freshwater-reared salmonids: for control of mortality due to coldwater disease associated with <E T="03">Flavobacterium psychrophilum</E> or for control of mortality due to columnaris disease associated with <E T="03">Flavobacterium columnare</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer in mixed ration for 10 days. Do not liberate fish or slaughter fish for food for 21 days following the last administration of medicated feed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Freshwater-reared salmonids weighing up to 55 grams: for marking of the skeletal tissue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 10 days. Immediate release is permitted following last feeding of medicated feed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3. Catfish: for control of mortality due to columnaris disease associated with <E T="03">Flavobacterium columnare</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer in mixed ration for 10 days. Do not liberate fish or slaughter fish for food for 21 days following the last administration of medicated feed. Do not administer when water temperature is below 16.7 °C (62 °F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 1.25 to 25 g/kg to provide 11.35 g/100 lb of fish/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pacific salmon not over 30 grams body weight: for marking of the skeletal tissue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer medicated feed as the sole ration for 4 consecutive days. Do not liberate for at least 7 days following last feeding of medicated feed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 1 g/lb of medicated feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lobsters: For control of gaffkemia caused by <E T="03">Aerococcus viridans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer as sole ration for 5 consecutive days; withdraw medicated feed 30 days before harvesting lobsters</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95009, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 11512, Feb. 24, 2017; 83 FR 48948, Sept. 28, 2018; 84 FR 12502, Apr. 2, 2019; 86 FR 14825, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 10972, Feb. 28, 2022; 87 FR 76423, Dec. 14, 2022; 88 FR 14907, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 55571, Aug. 16, 2023; 89 FR 85429, Oct. 28, 2024]







</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.455" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.455   Oxytetracycline and neomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing oxytetracycline equivalent to 50 grams per pound (g/lb) oxytetracycline hydrochloride and 50 g/lb neomycin sulfate or oxytetracycline equivalent to 100 g/lb oxytetracycline hydrochloride and 100 g/lb neomycin sulfate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 066104 and 069254 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.430 and 556.500 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for oxytetracycline and neomycin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for oxytetracycline and neomycin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) Cattle feeds shall bear the following warning statement: “Use of more than one product containing neomycin or failure to follow withdrawal times may result in illegal drug residues.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Indications for use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens.</I> It is used in feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline and neomycin sulfate amount in grams per ton of feed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">Mycoplasma synoviae</E>; control of fowl cholera caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption; in low calcium feed, withdraw 3 d before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For control of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) and air sac infection caused by <E T="03">M. gallisepticum</E> and <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption; in low calcium feeds, withdraw 3 d before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chickens: For reduction of mortality due to air sacculitis (air-sac- infection) caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 5 d; do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption; withdraw 24 hours before slaughter; in low calcium feeds withdraw 3 d before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys.</I> It is used in feed as follows:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline and neomycin sulfate amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 100 g/ton of feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of hexamitiasis caused by <E T="03">Hexamita meleagridis</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 200 g/ton of feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of infectious synovitis caused by <E T="03">M. synoviae</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; withdraw 5 d before slaughter; do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) To provide 25 milligrams per pound (mg/lb) of body weight daily.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: For control of complicating bacterial organisms associated with bluecomb (transmissible enteritis; coronaviral enteritis) susceptible to oxytetracycline.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; withdraw 5 d before slaughter; do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for human consumption.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Swine.</I> It is used in feed as follows:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline and neomycin sulfate amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) To provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and <E T="03">Salmonella choleraesuis</E> and treatment of bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">P. multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline; treatment and control of colibacillosis (bacterial enteritis) caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to neomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; withdraw 5 d before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) To provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Breeding swine: For control and treatment of leptospirosis (reducing the incidence of abortion and shedding of leptospirae) caused by <E T="03">Leptospira pomona</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for not more than 14 d; withdraw 5 d before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Cattle.</I> It is used in feed as follows:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline and neomycin sulfate amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) To provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves and beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever complex) caused by <E T="03">P. multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline; treatment and control of colibacillosis (bacterial enteritis) caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to neomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; in feed or milk replacers. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond remission of disease symptoms. A withdrawal period has not been established for use in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. A milk discard time has not been established for use in lactating dairy cattle. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Withdraw 5 d before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) To provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calves (up to 250 lb): For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline; treatment and control of colibacillosis (bacterial enteritis) caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to neomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 d; in milk replacers or starter feed. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond remission of disease symptoms. A withdrawal period has not been established for use in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. A milk discard time has not been established for use in lactating dairy cattle. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Withdraw 5 d before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) To provide 75 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing cattle (over 400 lb): For the reduction of the incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) To provide 0.5 to 2.0 g/head/ day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle: For prevention and treatment of the early stages of shipping fever complex</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed 3 to 5 d before and after arrival in feedlots. A withdrawal period has not been established for use in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. A milk discard time has not been established for use in lactating dairy cattle. Do not use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Sheep.</I> It is used in feed as follows:







</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxytetracycline and neomycin sulfate amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) To provide 10 mg/lb of body weight daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheep: For treatment of bacterial enteritis caused by <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> and bacterial pneumonia caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to oxytetracycline; treatment and control of colibacillosis (bacterial enteritis) caused by <E T="03">E. coli</E> susceptible to neomycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 7 to 14 days. Treatment should continue 24 to 48 hours beyond remission of clinical signs of disease. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


<br/>069254</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]





</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 16225, Mar. 31, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 40724, Aug. 13, 2009; 80 FR 13232, Mar. 13, 2015; 81 FR 95012, Dec. 27, 2016; 87 FR 76423, Dec. 14, 2022; 88 FR 27701, May 3, 2023]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.464" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.464   Poloxalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Dry Type A medicated articles containing 53 percent poloxalene or liquid Type A medicated articles containing 99.5 percent poloxalene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.517 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use.</I> (1) For prevention of legume (alfalfa, clover) and wheat pasture bloat in cattle. 
</P>
<P>(2) Poloxalene dry Type A article and liquid Type A article must be thoroughly blended and evenly distributed in feed prior to use. This may be accomplished by adding the Type A article to a small quantity of feed, mixing thoroughly, then adding this mixture to the remaining feed and again mixing thoroughly. Dosage is 1 gram of poloxalene per 100 pounds of body weight daily and continued during exposure to bloat producing conditions. If bloating conditions are severe, the dose is doubled. Treatment should be started 2 to 3 days before exposure to bloat-producing conditions. Repeat dosage if animals are exposed to bloat-producing conditions more than 12 hours after the last treatment. Do not exceed the higher dosage levels in any 24-hour period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 39857, Aug. 29, 1975, as amended at 51 FR 7399, Mar. 3, 1986; 52 FR 2686, Jan. 26, 1987; 56 FR 50654, Oct. 8, 1991; 60 FR 55660, Nov. 2, 1995; 79 FR 13545, Mar. 11, 2014; 84 FR 33001, July 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.470" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.470   Polyoxyethylene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Each molasses-based block contains 2.2 percent polyoxyethylene (23) lauryl ether.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 067949 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> 2 grams of polyoxyethylene (23) lauryl ether per 100 kilograms of body weight per day (1 pound of block per 500 kilogram (1,100 pound) animal per day). Initially, provide one block per five head of cattle. Start treatment 10 to 14 days before exposure to bloat-producing pastures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indications for use.</I> For reduction of the incidence of bloat (alfalfa and clover) in pastured cattle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations.</I> Administer free-choice to beef cattle and nonlactating dairy cattle only. Do not allow cattle access to other sources of salt while being fed this product. Do not feed this product to animals without adequate forage/roughage consumption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 14826, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.485" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.485   Pyrantel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 48 or 80 grams per pound pyrantel tartrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 066104: 48 and 80 grams per pound for use as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 017135 and 054771: 48 grams per pound for use as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.560 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) See § 500.25 of this chapter. Consult a veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals.
</P>
<P>(2) Do not mix in Type B or Type C medicated feeds containing bentonite.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pyrantel
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: As an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E>) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration in a Type C feed. Withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For the removal and control of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 3 days as the sole ration in a Type C feed. Withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For the removal and control of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) and nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E>) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for a single therapeutic treatment in Type C feed at a rate of 1 lb of feed per 40 lb of body weight for animals up to 200 lb, and 5 lb of feed per head for animals 200 lb or over. Withdraw 24 hours prior to slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Horses</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pyrantel tartrate


<br/>g/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 120 to 1,200 to provide 1.2 mg/lb body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For prevention of <E T="03">Strongylus vulgaris</E> larval infections; control of adult large strongyles (<E T="03">S. vulgaris,</E> and<E T="03"> S. edentatus</E>), adult and 4th stage larvae small strongyles (<E T="03">Cyathostomum</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicocyclus</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicostephanus</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicodontophorus</E> spp., <E T="03">Poteriostomum</E> spp., and <E T="03">Triodontophorus</E> spp.), adult and 4th stage larvae pinworms (<E T="03">Oxyuris equi</E>), and adult and 4th stage larvae ascarids (<E T="03">Parascaris equorum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the horse's daily grain ration during the time that the animal is at risk of exposure to internal parasites. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Consult your veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017135


<br/>054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Top dress medicated feed</I>—(A) <I>Proprietary Formulas.</I> The following feed can be manufactured only per an approved proprietary formula and specifications:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pyrantel tartrate amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) 9.6 g/lb to provide 1.2 mg/lb body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prevention of <E T="03">Strongylus vulgaris</E> larval infections; control of adult large strongyles (<E T="03">S. vulgaris,</E> and <E T="03">S. edentatus</E>), adult and 4th stage larvae small strongyles (<E T="03">Cyathostomum</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicocyclus</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicostephanus</E> spp., <E T="03">Cylicodontophorus</E> spp., <E T="03">Poteriostomum</E> spp., and <E T="03">Triodontophorus</E> spp.), adult and 4th stage larvae pinworms (<E T="03">Oxyuris equi</E>), and adult and 4th stage larvae ascarids (<E T="03">Parascaris equorum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as a top dress during the time that the animal is at risk of exposure to internal parasites. Do not use in horses intended for human consumption. Consult your veterinarian before using in severely debilitated animals and for assistance in the diagnosis, treatment, and control of parasitism</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017135


<br/>054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) [Reserved].</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) Pyrantel may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Carbadox as in § 558.115.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tylosin as in § 558.625.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48948, Sept. 28, 2018, as amended at 83 FR 64744, Dec. 18, 2018; 86 FR 14826, Mar. 19, 2021; 89 FR 42360, May 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.500" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.500   Ractopamine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 9 or 45.4 grams of ractopamine hydrochloride per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) Nos. 016592 and 058198: Type A medicated articles containing 9 or 45.4 grams per pound (g/lb) ractopamine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(2) Nos. 051311 and 066104: Type A medicated articles containing 45.4 g/lb ractopamine hydrochloride.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.570 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Labeling of Type A medicated articles and Type B and Type C feeds shall bear the following: “Not for use in animals intended for breeding.”
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling of Type A medicated articles and Type B and Type C medicated feeds intended for swine shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(i) “No increased benefit has been shown when ractopamine hydrochloride concentrations in the diet are greater than 4.5 g/ton (5 ppm).”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Ractopamine hydrochloride use may increase the number of injured, lame, and/or fatigued pigs during marketing. Behavioral signs such as hyperactivity, anxiety, and aggression have been reported in pigs fed ractopamine hydrochloride.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “Additional Recommendations: To help mitigate the signs identified in the Animal Safety Warnings section, see the Pork Quality Assurance (PQA Plus) and Transport Quality Assurance (TQA) recommendations for best practices in swine care during handling, transport, and marketing.”
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling of Type B and Type C tom turkey feeds shall bear the following: “No increased benefit has been shown when ractopamine concentrations in the diet are greater than 4.6 g/ton.”
</P>
<P>(4) Tylosin in combinations as tylosin phosphate.
</P>
<P>(5) Ractopamine liquid Type B cattle feeds may be manufactured from dry ractopamine Type A articles. The liquid Type B feeds must be maintained at a pH of 4.5 to 7.5 or, if in combination with monensin and/or tylosin, at a pH of 4.5 to 6.0. Mixing directions for liquid Type B feeds requiring recirculation or agitation: Recirculate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling of Type A medicated articles and Type B and Type C medicated feeds intended for cattle feeds shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(i) “Behavioral signs such as agitation and decreased feed consumption have been reported in cattle fed ractopamine hydrochloride.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Additional Recommendations: See the Beef Quality Assurance (BQA) recommendations for best practices in cattle care and handling during ractopamine hydrochloride feeding, transport, and marketing to help mitigate the behavioral signs stated in the Animal Safety Warnings section above.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ractopamine hydrochloride in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4.5 to 9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in finishing swine, weighing at least 150 lb, fed a complete ration containing at least 16% crude protein for the last 45 to 90 lb of gain prior to slaughter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not for use in swine intended for breeding. Feed as sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved] </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ractopamine hydrochloride in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 8.2 to 24.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 70 to 430 mg of ractopamine hydrochloride per head per day during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Not for use in cattle intended for breeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>051311
<br/>066104
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 8.2 to 24.6 to provide 70 to 430 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb of body weight, depending on severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E> during the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Not for animals intended for breeding. See special labeling considerations in § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Ractopamine as provided by No. 016592, 066104, or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>066104
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 9.8 to 24.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 90 to 430 mg ractopamine hydrochloride per head per day during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Not for use in cattle intended for breeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>051311
<br/>066104
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 9.8 to 24.6 to provide 90 to 430 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb of body weight, depending on severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, increased carcass leanness, and prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E> during the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Not for animals intended for breeding. See special labeling considerations in § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Ractopamine as provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>066104
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 9.8 to 24.6 to provide 90 to 430 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb of body weight, depending on severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day, plus melengestrol acetate to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, increased carcass leanness, prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii,</E> and suppression of estrus (heat) during the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Not for animals intended for breeding. See special labeling considerations in §§ 558.342(d) and 558.355(d) of this chapter. Ractopamine as provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; melengestrol acetate as provided by No. 016592, 054771 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>066104
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 100 to 800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed a minimum of 1 lb per head per day of Type C top-dress medicated feed to provide 70 to 400 mg ractopamine hydrochloride per head per day during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Not for use in cattle intended for breeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>051311
<br/>066104
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Not to exceed 800; to provide 70 to 400 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb of body weight, depending on severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E> during the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top dress ractopamine at a minimum of 1.0 lb/head/day of medicated feed continuously during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Not for animals intended for breeding. See special labeling considerations in § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Ractopamine as provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>066104
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ractopamine hydrochloride in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4.6 to 11.8 (5 to 13 ppm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finishing hen turkeys: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency when fed for the last 7 to 14 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration during the last 7 to 14 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 4.6 to 11.8 (5 to 13 ppm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finishing tom turkeys: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency when fed for the last 14 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration during the last 14 days prior to slaughter. Feeding ractopamine to tom turkeys during periods of excessive heat can result in increased mortality.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 4.6 to 11.8 (5 to 13 ppm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finishing hen turkeys: As in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section; and for the prevention of coccidiosis in growing turkeys caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides</E>, <E T="03">E. meleagrimitis</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration during the last 7 to 14 days prior to slaughter. See § 558.355(d).</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 4.6 to 11.8 (5 to 13 ppm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finishing tom turkeys: As in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section; and for the prevention of coccidiosis in growing turkeys caused by <E T="03">Eimeria adenoeides</E>, <E T="03">E. meleagrimitis</E> and <E T="03">E. gallopavonis.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration during the last 14 days prior to slaughter. Feeding ractopamine to tom turkeys during periods of excessive heat can result in increased mortality. See § 558.355(d).</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Ractopamine may also be used in combination with tylosin in as in § 558.625.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 71820, Dec. 3, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 54659, Sept. 18, 2003; 69 FR 12068, Mar. 15, 2004; 69 FR 51174, Aug. 18, 2004; 71 FR 31074, June 1, 2006; 71 FR 67301, Nov. 21, 2006; 72 FR 10358, Mar. 8, 2007; 72 FR 41619, July 31, 2007; 72 FR 56897, Oct. 5, 2007; 72 FR 62571, Nov. 6, 2007; 72 FR 65667, Nov. 23, 2007; 72 FR 70777, Dec. 13, 2007; 73 FR 72715, Dec. 1, 2008; 73 FR 75323, Dec. 11, 2008; 74 FR 66914, Dec. 17, 2009; 75 FR 1276, Jan. 11, 2010; 75 FR 5888, Feb. 5, 2010; 75 FR 20917, Apr. 22, 2010; 75 FR 54018, Sept. 3, 2010; 77 FR 31724, May 30, 2012; 78 FR 63872, Oct. 25, 2013; 79 FR 13546, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 37621, July 2, 2014; 79 FR 44278, July 31, 2014; 79 FR 53136, Sept. 8, 2014; 80 FR 61298, Oct. 13, 2015; 81 FR 48703, July 26, 2016; 81 FR 95013, Dec. 27, 2016; 85 FR 18122, Apr. 1, 2020; 85 FR 45311, July 28, 2020; 86 FR 58013, Oct. 20, 2021; 87 FR 17947, Mar. 29, 2022; 89 FR 42361, May 15, 2024; 91 FR 20346, Apr. 16, 2026; 91 FR 33072, June 3, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.515" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.515   Robenidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 30 grams per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.580 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Type C feed containing robenidine hydrochloride must be fed within 50 days from the date of manufacture. Do not use in Type B or Type C medicated feeds containing bentonite. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in feed for chickens as follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Robenidine hydrochloride in grams/ton 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30 (0.0033 pct)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. mivati, E. brunetti, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for food. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as bacitracin methylenedisalicylate) 4 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. mivati, E. brunetti, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix.</E> For increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as bacitracin methylenedisalicylate) 27 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. mivati, E. brunetti, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix.</E> For improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as bacitracin methylenedisalicylate) 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as bacitracin methylenedisalicylate) 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by Clostridium spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">To control a necrotic enteritis outbreak, start medication at first clinical signs of disease; administer continuously for 5 to 7 days or as long as clinical signs persist, then reduce bacitracin methylenedisalicylate to prevention level (50 g/ton). Do not feed to laying hens. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as bacitracin zinc) 4 to 30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. mivati, E. brunetti, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix.</E> For increased rate of weight gain.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as bacitracin zinc) 27 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For broiler and fryer chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">E. mivati, E. brunetti, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. necatrix.</E> For improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. Withdraw 5 days prior to slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>054771</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) Robenidine may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(1) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<P>(2) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<P>(3) Oxytetracycline as in § 558.450.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.515, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.550" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.550   Salinomycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 30 or 60 grams of salinomycin sodium activity per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.592 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> Not approved for use with pellet binders.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Salinomycin in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler, roaster, and replacement (breeder and layer) chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. May be fatal if accidentally fed to adult turkeys or horses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate) 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens and replacement chickens. Not for use in laying hens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Discontinue use prior to sexual maturity. The dosage of salinomycin sodium should be adjusted to meet the severity of the coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. May be fatal if fed to adult turkeys or horses. Salinomycin as provided by No. 016592; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate) 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens and replacement chickens. Not for use in laying hens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati,</E> and as an aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Discontinue use prior to sexual maturity. The dosage of salinomycin sodium should be adjusted to meet the severity of the coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. May be fatal if fed to adult turkeys or horses. Salinomycin as provided by No. 016592; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin methylenedisalicylate) 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens and replacement chickens. Not for use in laying hens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati,</E> and as an aid in the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin methylenedisalicylate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Discontinue use prior to sexual maturity. The dosage of salinomycin sodium should be adjusted to meet the severity of the coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. To control a necrotic enteritis outbreak, start medication at the first clinical signs of disease. The bacitracin methylenedisalicylate dosage range permitted provides for different levels based on severity of the infection. Consult a poultry diagnostic laboratory or pathologist to determine the diagnosis and advice regarding the optimal level of bacitracin methylenedisalicylate. Administer continuously for 5-7 days or as long as clinical signs persist, and then reduce bacitracin methylenedisalicylate dosage to prevention level (50 g/ton). May be fatal if fed to adult turkeys or to horses. Salinomycin as provided by No. 016592; bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin (as feed grade bacitracin zinc), 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati,</E> and for increased rate of weight gain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration. The dosage of salinomycin sodium should be adjusted to meet the severity of coccidial challenge, which varies with environmental and management conditions. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. May be fatal if accidently fed to adult turkeys or horses. Do not use in Type C medicated feeds containing pellet binders. Bacitracin zinc as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins, 1 to 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and<E T="03"> E. mivati,</E> and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. Not approved for use with pellet binders. May be fatal if accidentally fed to adult turkeys or horses. Salinomycin and bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Game birds</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Salinomycin in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quail: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria dispersa</E> and <E T="03">E. lettyae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. May be fatal if accidentally fed to adult turkeys or horses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Combinations.</I> Salinomycin may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i) Avilamycin as in § 558.68.
</P>
<P>(ii) Chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<P>(iv) Oxytetracycline as in § 558.450.
</P>
<P>(v) Virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30616, July 5, 1983]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.550, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.555" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.555   Semduramicin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing:
</P>
<P>(1) 22.7 grams (g) per pound (lb) (50 g/kilogram (kg)) semduramicin (as semduramicin sodium).
</P>
<P>(2) 22.7 g/lb (50 g/kg) semduramicin (as semduramicin sodium biomass).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter for use of product described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as in paragraph (d) of this section; for use of product described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section as in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.597 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use in chickens.</I> It is used in chicken feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Semduramicin in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combinations in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 22.7 (25 ppm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. brunetti, E. maxima, E. mivati</E>/<E T="03">E. mitis, E. necatrix</E>, and <E T="03">E. tenella.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not feed to laying hens.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 22.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate 10 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; for improved feed efficiency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to laying hens. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in chickens.</I> It is used in chicken feed as follows: 

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Semduramicin in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 22.7 (25 ppm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti, E. necatrix, and E. mitis.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not feed to laying hens.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) [Reserved] </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) Semduramicin may also be used in combination with virginiamycin as in § 558.635.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 17477, Apr. 13, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 57928, Nov. 24, 1995; 61 FR 29481, June 11, 1996; 61 FR 43451, Aug. 23, 1996; 61 FR 66584, Dec. 18, 1996; 62 FR 66985, Dec. 23, 1997; 64 FR 48296, Sept. 3, 1999; 66 FR 47964, Sept. 17, 2001; 69 FR 13221, Mar. 22, 2004; 70 FR 41961, July 21, 2005; 73 FR 812, Jan. 4, 2008; 74 FR 41631, Aug. 18, 2009; 79 FR 10983, Feb. 27, 2014; 79 FR 13546, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 17609, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 95013, Dec. 27, 2016; 86 FR 14826, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 17948, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.575" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.575   Sulfadimethoxine and ormetoprim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing either:
</P>
<P>(1) 25 percent sulfadimethoxine and 15 percent ormetoprim; or
</P>
<P>(2) 25 percent sulfadimethoxine and 5 percent ormetoprim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsors in § 510.600(c) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) No. 054771 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(1) as in paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(2)(i), and (e)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 015331 for use of the product described in paragraph (a)(2) as in paragraphs (e)(3)(iv) and (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.490 and 556.640 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for sulfadimethoxine and ormetoprim medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for sulfadimethoxine and ormetoprim shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in animal feeds as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sulfadimethoxine
<br/>and ormetoprim
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Sulfadimethoxine, 113.5; ormetoprim, 68.1.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by all <E T="03">Eimeria</E> species known to be pathogenic to chickens, namely, <E T="03">E. tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and bacterial infections due to <E T="03">Haemophilus gallinarum</E> (infectious coryza), <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> (colibacillosis) and <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> (fowl cholera).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as sole ration. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Sulfadimethoxine, 113.5; ormetoprim, 68.1.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement chickens: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by all <E T="03">Eimeria</E> species known to be pathogenic to chickens, namely, <E T="03">E. tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and bacterial infections due to <E T="03">Haemophilus gallinarum</E> (infectious coryza), <E T="03">Escherichia coli</E> (colibacillosis) and <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> (fowl cholera).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as sole ration. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks (112 days) of age. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sulfadimethoxine
<br/>and ormetoprim
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Sulfadimethoxine, 56.75; ormetoprim, 34.05.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkeys: As an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by all <E T="03">Eimeria</E> species known to be pathogenic to turkeys, namely, <E T="03">E. adenoeides, E. gallopavonis,</E> and <E T="03">E. meleagrimitis</E> and bacterial infection due to <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> (fowl cholera).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not feed to turkeys producing eggs for food. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Minor species</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sulfadimethoxine
<br/>and ormetoprim amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Sulfadimethoxine, 227; ormetoprim, 136.2 grams/ton of feed.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ducks, including breeding ducks: As an aid in the control of bacterial infections due to <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> (fowl cholera).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as sole ration for 7 days. Medication should be started at the first signs of infection. Do not feed to ducks producing eggs for food. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Sulfadimethoxine, 454; ormetoprim, 272.4 grams/ton of feed.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ducks: As an aid in the control of bacterial infections due to <E T="03">Escherichia coli, Riemerella anatipestifer,</E> and severe challenge of <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> (fowl cholera).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as a sole ration for 7 days. Medication should be started at the first signs of infection. Not for breeding ducks. Do not feed to ducks producing eggs for food. Withdraw 5 days before slaughter.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Sulfadimethoxine, 113.5; ormetoprim, 68.1 grams/ton of feed.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chukar partridges: For prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria kofoidi</E> and <E T="03">E. legionensis.</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously to young birds up to 8 weeks of age as sole ration.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 630 to 3780 g/ton sulfadimethoxine and 126 to 756 g/ton ormetoprim to provide 50 milligrams (mg) of active ingredients per kilogram of body per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salmonids: For the control of furunculosis in salmonids (trout and salmon) caused by <E T="03">Aeromonas salmonicida</E> strains susceptible to sulfadimethoxine and ormetoprim combination</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer for 5 consecutive days. Withdraw 42 days before release as stocker fish or slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">015331
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 630 to 3780 g/ton sulfadimethoxine and 126 to 756 g/ton ormetoprim to provide 50 mg of active ingredients per kilogram of body per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Catfish: For control of enteric septicemia of catfish caused by <E T="03">Edwardsiella ictaluri</E> strains susceptible to sulfadimethoxine and ormetoprim combination</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer for 5 consecutive days. Withdraw 3 days before slaughter or release as stocker fish</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">015331
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 13550, Mar. 11, 1977; 49 FR 33442, Aug. 23, 1984; 49 FR 46371, Nov. 26, 1984; 51 FR 7400, Mar. 3, 1986; 51 FR 18884, May 23, 1986; 52 FR 2686, Jan. 26, 1987; 54 FR 1686, Jan. 17, 1989; 63 FR 27846, May 21, 1998; 64 FR 26672, May 17, 1999; 64 FR 43910, Aug. 12, 1999; 66 FR 46707, Sept. 7, 2001; 70 FR 52292, Sept. 2, 2005; 79 FR 10983, Feb. 27, 2014; 79 FR 13546, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 95013, Dec. 27, 2016; 83 FR 13637, Mar. 30, 2018; 84 FR 12502, Apr. 2, 2019; 86 FR 14827, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 76424, Dec. 14, 2022; 91 FR 20347, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.582" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.582   Sulfamerazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 99 percent sulfamerazine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.660 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for sulfamerazine medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for sulfamerazine shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in fish feed for as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sulfamerazine
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) To deliver 10 grams of sulfamerazine per 100 pounds of fish per day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rainbow trout, brook trout, and brown trout: For control of furunculosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formulate to deliver 10 grams of sulfamerazine per 100 pounds of fish per day. Treat for not more than 14 days. Do not treat within 3 weeks of marketing or stocking in stream open to fishing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95013, Dec. 27, 2016]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.586" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.586   Sulfaquinoxaline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 40 percent sulfaquinoxaline.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.685 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for sulfaquinoxaline medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for sulfaquinoxaline shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sulfaquinoxaline
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 0.015 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in preventing outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E> under average conditions of exposure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously from the time birds are placed on litter and continue past the age when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. If death losses exceed 0.5 percent in a 2-day period, obtain a laboratory diagnosis. If coccidiosis is the cause, use the sulfaquinoxaline levels recommended for control of outbreaks, returning to the original dosage schedule after the outbreak has subsided. Losses may result from intercurrent disease, other conditions affecting drug intake, or variant strains of coccidia species which can contribute to the virulence of coccidiosis under field conditions. Do not treat chickens within 10 days of slaughter. Do not medicate chickens producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 0.0175 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in preventing outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E> where excessive exposure to coccidia is increased due to overcrowding or other management factors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously from the time birds are placed on litter and continue past the age when coccidiosis is ordinarily a hazard. If death losses exceed 0.5 percent in a 2-day period, obtain a laboratory diagnosis. If coccidiosis is the cause, use the sulfaquinoxaline levels recommended for control of outbreaks, returning to the original dosage schedule after the outbreak has subsided. Losses may result from intercurrent disease, other conditions affecting drug intake, or variant strains of coccidia species which can contribute to the virulence of coccidiosis under field conditions. Do not treat chickens within 10 days of slaughter. Do not medicate chickens producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 0.1 to 0.05 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in controlling outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. brunetti</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at 0.1 percent level for first 48 to 72 hours. Skip 3 days; 0.05 percent for 2 days, skip 3 days; 0.05 percent for 2 days. If bloody droppings recur, give 0.05 percent for another 2 days. Do not treat chickens within 10 days of slaughter. Do not medicate chickens producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 0.05 or 0.1 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in the control of acute fowl cholera caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to sulfaquinoxaline and fowl typhoid caused by <E T="03">Salmonella gallinarum</E> susceptible to sulfaquinoxaline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed 0.1 percent for 48 to 72 hours. Mortality should be brought under control. After medication, move birds to clean ground or to a clean house. If disease recurs, use 0.05 percent in feed again for 2 days. Do not treat chickens or turkeys within 10 days of slaughter for food. Do not medicate chickens or turkeys producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sulfaquinoxaline
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 0.0175 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in preventing outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria meleagrimitis</E> and <E T="03">E. adenoeides</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously during time birds are closely confined. May be continued for a week to 10 days after flock is transferred to range to reduce danger of an outbreak following moving of the flock. Do not treat turkeys within 10 days of slaughter. Do not medicate turkeys producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 0.05 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in controlling outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria meleagrimitis</E> and <E T="03">E. adenoeides</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 2 days. Follow with 3 days on regular feed and 2 more days on 0.05 percent sulfaquinoxaline feed. Again follow with 3 days on regular feed and 2 more days on 0.05 percent sulfaquinoxaline feed. Continue this schedule if necessary until all signs of the outbreaks have subsided. Do not treat turkeys within 10 days of slaughter. Do not medicate turkeys producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 0.05 or 0.1 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in the control of acute fowl cholera caused by <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> susceptible to sulfaquinoxaline and fowl typhoid caused by <E T="03">Salmonella gallinarum</E> susceptible to sulfaquinoxaline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed 0.1 percent for 48 to 72 hours. Mortality should be brought under control. After medication, move birds to clean ground or to a clean house. If disease recurs, use 0.05 percent in feed again for 2 days. Do not treat chickens or turkeys within 10 days of slaughter for food. Do not medicate chickens or turkeys producing eggs for human consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Rabbits</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sulfaquinoxaline
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 0.025 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in preventing coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria stiedae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Treatment to be started after weaning. Feed continuously for 30 days or feed medicated feed for 2 days out of every week until marketing. Do not treat within 10 days of slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 0.1 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As an aid in controlling outbreaks of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria stiedae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 2 weeks. Do not treat within 10 days of slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95013, Dec. 27, 2016]









</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.612" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.612   Tiamulin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A article containing 363.2 grams of tiamulin hydrogen fumarate per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.732 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Swine being treated with tiamulin should not have access to feeds containing polyether ionophores (e.g., lasalocid, monensin, narasin, salinomycin, or semduramycin) as adverse reactions may occur. If signs of toxicity occur, discontinue use.
</P>
<P>(2) The effects of tiamulin on swine reproductive performance, pregnancy, and lactation have not been determined.
</P>
<P>(3) Use as sole source of tiamulin.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine.</I> It is used as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tiamulin hydrogen fumarate in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. For control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira</E> (formerly <E T="03">Serpulina</E> or <E T="03">Treponema</E>) <E T="03">hyodysenteriae</E> susceptible to tiamulin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration on premises with a history of swine dysentery but where signs of disease have not yet occurred or following approved treatment of disease. Withdraw 2 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. For control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for not less than 10 days. Withdraw 2 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For treatment of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira</E> (formerly <E T="03">Serpulina</E> or <E T="03">Treponema</E>) <E T="03">hyodysenteriae</E> susceptible to tiamulin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole feed for 14 consecutive days. Withdraw feed 7 days before slaughter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Tiamulin may also be used in combination with chlortetracycline as in § 558.128.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 7268, Feb. 19, 2002, as amended at 69 FR 62407, Oct. 26, 2004; 70 FR 75018, Dec. 19, 2005; 74 FR 6, Jan. 2, 2009; 77 FR 24139, Apr. 23, 2012; 79 FR 13546, Mar. 11, 2014. Redesignated and amended at 80 FR 13232, Mar. 13, 2015; 81 FR 95015, Dec. 27, 2016; 86 FR 14827, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.618" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.618   Tilmicosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 90.7 grams (g) per pound tilmicosin as tilmicosin phosphate (200 g per kilogram).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See Nos. 016592 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.735 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) VFDs for tilmicosin phosphate shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling of tilmicosin Type B or Type C medicated feeds must bear the following warnings:
</P>
<P>(i) Do not allow horses or other equines access to feeds containing tilmicosin.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Special considerations for use of tilmicosin medicated swine feeds include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The expiration date of VFDs for tilmicosin must not exceed 90 days from the time of issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling of tilmicosin Type B or Type C medicated feeds for swine must bear the following warning: “Do not use in any feeds containing bentonite. Bentonite in feeds may affect the efficacy of tilmicosin.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Feed containing tilmicosin shall not be fed to pigs for more than 21 days during each phase of production without ceasing administration for reevaluation of antimicrobial use by a licensed veterinarian before reinitiating a further course of therapy with an appropriate antimicrobial.
</P>
<P>(5) Special consideration for use of tilmicosin medicated cattle feeds include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The expiration date of VFDs for cattle must not exceed 45 days from the time of issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling of tilmicosin Type B or Type C medicated feeds for cattle must bear the following warning: “Do not use in any feeds containing bentonite, cottonseed meal, or cottonseed hulls. Bentonite, cottonseed meal, or cottonseed hulls in feeds may affect the efficacy of tilmicosin.”
</P>
<P>(iii) To assure both food safety and responsible use in cattle, administration of feed containing tilmicosin to cattle experiencing an outbreak of BRD must be initiated during the first 45 days of the production period, shall not exceed a single 14-consecutive-day treatment, should not occur concurrent with or following administration of an injectable macrolide, and should not occur within 3 days following administration of a nonmacrolide injectable BRD therapy. Tilmicosin medicated feed treatment has not been evaluated in cattle with severe clinical disease. Cattle with severe clinical illness should be evaluated for individual treatment with an alternative non-macrolide therapy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tilmicosin
<br/>phosphate
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 181 to 363</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For the control of swine respiratory disease associated with <E T="03">Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae</E> and <E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for 21-day period, beginning approximately 7 days before an anticipated disease outbreak. The safety of tilmicosin has not been established in male swine intended for breeding purposes. Swine intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 7 days of the last treatment with this drug product</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198, 016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tilmicosin
<br/>phosphate
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 568 to 757</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef and nonlactating dairy cattle: For the control of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <E T="03">Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</E> and <E T="03">Histophilus somni</E> in groups of beef and nonlactating dairy cattle, where active BRD has been diagnosed in at least 10 percent of the animals in the group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 14 days to provide 12.5 mg tilmicosin/kg of bodyweight/day. The safety of tilmicosin has not been established in cattle intended for breeding purposes. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk. This drug product is not approved for use in calves intended to be processed for veal. A withdrawal period has not been established in preruminating calves. Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 28 days of the last treatment with this drug product</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198, 016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 568 to 757</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For improved feed efficiency; and for the control of bovine respiratory disease (BRD) associated with <E T="03">Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</E> and <E T="03">Histophilus somni</E> in groups of cattle fed in confinement for slaughter, where active BRD has been diagnosed in at least 10 percent of the animals in the group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 14 days to provide 12.5 mg tilmicosin/kg of bodyweight/day. The safety of tilmicosin has not been established in cattle intended for breeding purposes. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk. This drug product is not approved for use in calves intended to be processed for veal. A withdrawal period has not been established in pre-ruminating calves. Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 28 days of the last treatment with this drug product. See § 558.355(d). Tilmicosin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 568 to 757</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E>; and for the control of BRD associated with <E T="03">Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida,</E> and <E T="03">Histophilus somni</E> in groups of cattle fed in confinement for slaughter, where active BRD has been diagnosed in at least 10 percent of the animals in the group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously for 14 days to provide 12.5 mg tilmicosin/kg of bodyweight/day. The safety of tilmicosin has not been established in cattle intended for breeding purposes. This drug product is not approved for use in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older. Use in these cattle may cause drug residues in milk. This drug product is not approved for use in calves intended to be processed for veal. A withdrawal period has not been established in pre-ruminating calves. Cattle intended for human consumption must not be slaughtered within 28 days of the last treatment with this drug product. See § 558.355(d). Tilmicosin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68148, Dec. 27, 1996; 62 FR 15391, Apr. 1, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 13679, Mar. 22, 1999; 65 FR 76930, Dec. 8, 2000; 67 FR 21997, May 2, 2002; 69 FR 78306, Dec. 30, 2004; 76 FR 76894, Dec. 9, 2011; 77 FR 60623, Oct. 4, 2012; 78 FR 19987, Apr. 3, 2013; 80 FR 61298, Oct. 13, 2015; 80 FR 76387, Dec. 9, 2015; 81 FR 48703, July 26, 2016; 81 FR 59135, Aug. 29, 2016; 81 FR 67153, Sept. 30, 2016; 85 FR 18123, Apr. 1, 2020; 86 FR 14827, Mar. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.625" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.625   Tylosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing tylosin phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 016592: Type A medicated articles containing 40 or 100 grams per pound (g/lb).
</P>
<P>(2) No. 054771: Type A medicated article containing 40 g/lb.
</P>
<P>(3) No. 058198: Type A medicated articles containing 10, 40, or 100 g/lb.
</P>
<P>(4) No. 066104: Type A medicated articles containing 20 or 40 g/lb.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.746 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for tylosin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for tylosin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) Type C medicated feeds for cattle may be manufactured from tylosin liquid Type B medicated feeds which have a pH between 4.5 and 6.0 and which bear appropriate mixing directions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For liquid feeds stored in recirculating tank systems: Recirculate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For liquid feeds stored in mechanical, air, or other agitation-type tank systems: Agitate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, creating a turbulence at the bottom of the tank that is visible at the top. Agitate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(4) Tylosin liquid Type B medicated feeds must bear an expiration date of 31 days after the date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(5) Do not use tylosin liquid Type B medicated feeds in any liquid feed containing sodium metabisulfite or in any finished feed (supplement, concentrate, or complete feed) containing in excess of 2 percent bentonite.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tylosin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration 100 g of tylosin per ton of complete feed for at least 3 weeks. Follow with 40 grams per ton of complete feed until market weight</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae;</E> and as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration 100 g of tylosin per ton of complete feed for at least 3 weeks. Follow with 40 grams per ton of complete feed until market weight. Tylosin phosphate and pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration 100 g of tylosin per ton of complete feed for at least 3 weeks. Follow with 40 grams per ton of complete feed until market weight</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis;</E> and as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration 100 g of tylosin per ton of complete feed for at least 3 weeks. Follow with 40 grams per ton of complete feed until market weight. Tylosin phosphate and pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ractopamine hydrochloride,
<br/>4.5 to 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, increased carcass leanness, control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae,</E> and control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (PPE, ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> in finishing swine weighing at least 150 lb and fed a complete ration containing at least 16% crude protein for the last 45 to 90 lb of gain prior to slaughter. Not for use in swine intended for breeding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to finishing swine weighing at least 150 lb for the last 45 to 90 lb (group average) of weight gain prior to slaughter. Feed 100 g of tylosin per ton of complete feed for at least three weeks, followed by 40 g tylosin per ton of complete feed until pigs reach market weight. Ractopamine hydrochloride use may increase the number of injured, lame, and/or fatigued pigs during marketing. Behavioral signs such as hyperactivity, anxiety, and aggression have been reported in pigs fed ractopamine hydrochloride. Tylosin phosphate as provided by Nos. 058198 and 016592; ractopamine hydrochloride as provided by Nos. 058198 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 40 to 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae</E> immediately after medicating with tylosin in drinking water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer as tylosin phosphate in feed continuously as the sole ration for 2 to 6 weeks, immediately after treatment with tylosin tartrate in drinking water for 3 to 10 days as in § 520.2640(d)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the treatment and control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae</E> immediately after medicating with tylosin in drinking water; and as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer as tylosin phosphate in feed continuously as the sole ration for 2 to 6 weeks, immediately after treatment with tylosin tartrate in drinking water for 3 to 10 days as in § 520.2640(d)(3) of this chapter. Tylosin phosphate and pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 40 to 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (PPE, ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> immediately after medicating with tylosin in drinking water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer as tylosin phosphate in feed continuously as the sole ration for 2 to 6 weeks, immediately after treatment with tylosin tartrate in drinking water for 3 to 10 days as in § 520.2640(d)(3) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 40 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (PPE, ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> immediately after medicating with tylosin in drinking water; and as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Administer as tylosin phosphate in feed continuously as the sole ration for 2 to 6 weeks, immediately after treatment with tylosin tartrate in drinking water for 3 to 10 days as in § 520.2640(d)(3) of this chapter. Tylosin phosphate and pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 40 to 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ractopamine hydrochloride,


<br/>4.5 to 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, increased carcass leanness, the treatment and control of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae,</E> and control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (PPE, ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> immediately after medicating with tylosin in drinking water in finishing swine weighing at least 150 lb and fed a complete ration containing at least 16% crude protein for the last 45 to 90 lb of gain prior to slaughter. Not for use in swine intended for breeding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to finishing swine weighing at least 150 lb for the last 45 to 90 lb (group average) of weight gain prior to slaughter. Feed 40 to 100 grams of tylosin per ton of complete feed for 2 to 6 weeks immediately after medicating with tylosin in drinking water (250 mg tylosin per gallon) for 3 to 10 days as in § 520.2640(e)(3) of this chapter. Ractopamine hydrochloride use may increase the number of injured, lame, and/or fatigued pigs during marketing. Behavioral signs such as hyperactivity, anxiety, and aggression have been reported in pigs fed ractopamine hydrochloride. Tylosin phosphate as provided by Nos. 058198 and 016592; ractopamine hydrochloride as provided by Nos. 058198 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For reduction in severity of effects of atrophic rhinitis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pyrantel, 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For reduction in severity of effects of atrophic rhinitis; aid as an aid in the prevention of migration and establishment of large roundworm (<E T="03">Ascaris suum</E>) infections; aid in the prevention of establishment of nodular worm (<E T="03">Oesophagostomum</E> spp.) infections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Tylosin phosphate and pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. Tylosin phosphate and pyrantel as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104

(xiii) 100</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell">Ractopamine hydrochloride,
<br/>4.5 to 9</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell">For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, increased carcass leanness, and control of porcine proliferative enteropathies (PPE, ileitis) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> in finishing swine weighing at least 150 lb and fed a complete ration containing at least 16% crude protein for the last 45 to 90 lb of gain prior to slaughter. Not for use in swine intended for breeding</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to finishing swine weighing at least 150 lb for the last 45 to 90 lb (group average) of weight gain prior to slaughter. Feed 100 g of tylosin per ton of complete feed for 21 days. Ractopamine hydrochloride use may increase the number of injured, lame, and/or fatigued pigs during marketing. Behavioral signs such as hyperactivity, anxiety, and aggression have been reported in pigs fed ractopamine hydrochloride. Tylosin phosphate as provided by Nos. 058198 and 016592; ractopamine hydrochloride as provided by Nos. 058198 and 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tylosin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration to provide 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid, 100 to 1440; plus melengestrol, 0.25 to 2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Feed to heifers at the rate of 0.5 to 2.0 pound(s) per head per day (specify one level) to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate per head per day (specify one level), 100 to 360 mg lasalocid per head per day (specify one level), and 90 mg tylosin per head per day. This Type C product may be top dressed onto or mixed into a complete feed prior to feeding. Tylosin as provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198; lasalocid as provided by No. 054771; melengestrol as provided by Nos. 054771 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See §§ 558.311(d) and 558.342(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol, 0.25 to 2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Each pound contains 0.125 to 1.0 mg melengestrol acetate and 45 to 180 mg of tylosin. Feed to heifers at a rate of 0.5 to 2.0 pounds per head per day to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate and 60 to 90 mg tylosin per head per day. Prior to feeding, this Type C product must be top-dressed onto a complete feed or mixed into the amount of complete feed consumed by an animal per day. Tylosin provided by Nos. 016592 and 058198; melengestrol provided by Nos. 054771 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See § 558.342(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium</E> (<E T="03">Actinomyces</E>) <E T="03">pyogenes</E>; and for improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 50 to 480 monensin mg/head/day and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. A withdrawal time has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Tylosin provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See § 558.355(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium</E> (<E T="03">Actinomyces</E>) <E T="03">pyogenes</E>; and for prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. A withdrawal time has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Tylosin provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See § 558.355(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 30 plus decoquinate, 13.6 to 27.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii,</E> for improved feed efficiency, and for the reduction of incidence of liver abscesses associated with <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration to provide 22.7 mg of decoquinate per 100 lb. of body weight per day, 50 to 360 mg of monensin per head per day, and 60 to 90 mg tylosin (as tylosin phosphate). Feed for at least 28 days during periods of coccidiosis exposure or when experience indicates that coccidiosis is likely to be a hazard. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle feed is safe only for use in cattle. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. Do not use in feeds containing bentonite. Do not feed to cows producing milk for food. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. Tylosin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; decoquinate as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See §§ 558.311(d) and 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40 plus lubabegron fumarate, 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: for reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight; for reduction of incidence of liver abscesses associated with <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E> and for improved feed efficiency during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 13 to 90 mg lubabegron/head/day, 50 to 480 mg monensin/head/day, and 60 to 90 mg tylosin/head/day during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 g/ton (360 mg monensin/head/day). A decrease in dry matter intake may be noticed in some animals receiving lubabegron. Lubabegron has not been approved for use in breeding animals because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated in these animals. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing lubabegron and monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Feeding undiluted or mixing errors resulting in high concentrations of monensin has been fatal to cattle and could be fatal to goats. Must be thoroughly mixed in feeds before use. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product for preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See special labeling considerations in § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Tylosin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198, monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198, lubabegron fumarate as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592, 058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 plus lubabegron fumarate, 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: for reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight, for reduction of incidence of liver abscesses associated with <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E> and for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E> during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 13 to 90 mg lubabegron/head/day, 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day, and 60 to 90 mg tylosin/head/day during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. A decrease in dry matter intake may be noticed in some animals receiving lubabegron. Lubabegron has not been approved for use in breeding animals because safety and effectiveness have not been evaluated in these animals. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing lubabegron and monensin. Ingestion of monensin by horses has been fatal. Monensin medicated cattle and goat feeds are safe for use in cattle and goats only. Consumption by unapproved species may result in toxic reactions. Feeding undiluted or mixing errors resulting in high concentrations of monensin has been fatal to cattle and could be fatal to goats. Must be thoroughly mixed in feeds before use. Do not exceed the levels of monensin recommended in the feeding directions, as reduced average daily gains may result. If feed refusals containing monensin are fed to other groups of cattle, the concentration of monensin in the refusals and amount of refusals fed should be taken into consideration to prevent monensin overdosing. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product for preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See special labeling considerations in § 558.355(d) of this chapter. Tylosin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198, monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198, lubabegron fumarate as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592, 058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 plus lubabegron (as lubabegron fumarate), 1.25 to 4.54, plus melengestrol acetate, 0.25 to 2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, suppression of estrus (heat), for reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight, for the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii,</E> and for reduction of incidence of liver abscesses associated with <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E> during the last 14 to 91 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. Melengestrol acetate Type C top-dress medicated feed (0.5 to 2.0 lb per head per day) must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 8 to 10 g/ton tylosin, 1.25 to 4.54 g/ton lubabegron, and 10 to 40 g/ton monensin, to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate, 60 to 90 mg tylosin per head per day, 13 to 90 mg lubabegron per head per day, and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day, depending on severity of challenge, up to 480 mg monensin per head per day. See special labeling considerations in §§ 558.330(d), 558.342(d), and 558.355(d). Tylosin and monensin as provided by No. 058198 or 016592; lubabegron fumarate as provided by No. 058198; melengestrol acetate as provided in No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
<br/>016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 plus melengestrol 0.25 to 2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</E> for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to heifers at a rate of 0.5 to 2 pounds per head per day to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day melengestrol acetate and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. The melengestrol acetate portion of this Type C medicated feed must be mixed into the complete feed containing 10 to 40 g/ton monensin and 8 to 10 g/ton tylosin at feeding into the amount of complete feed consumed by an animal per day. A withdrawal time has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See §§ 558.342(d) and 558.355(d) of this chapter. Tylosin provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; melengestrol provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 plus ractopamine 8.2 to 24.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</E> for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 70 to 430 mg/head/day ractopamine and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin for the last 28 to 42 days on feed. A withdrawal time has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See special labeling considerations in §§ 558.355(d) and 558.500(d) of this chapter. Tylosin provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; ractopamine provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 plus ractopamine, not to exceed 800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</E> for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed a minimum of 1.0 lb/head/day ractopamine Type C top dress feed continuously to cattle fed in confinement for slaughter, to provide 70 to 400 mg/head/day ractopamine for the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Feed on top of a ration containing 10 to 40 g/ton monensin and 8 to 10 g/ton tylosin phosphate, to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight/day, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. A withdrawal time has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See special labeling considerations in §§ 558.355(d) and 558.500(d) of this chapter. Tylosin provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; ractopamine provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 plus ractopamine 9.8 to 24.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</E> for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 90 to 430 mg/head/day ractopamine and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin for the last 28 to 42 days on feed. A withdrawal time has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See special labeling considerations in §§ 558.355(d) and 558.500(d) of this chapter. Tylosin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; ractopamine as provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiv) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 plus ractopamine, 9.8 to 24.6, plus melengestrol, 0.125 to 1 mg/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes;</E> for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness; and suppression of estrus (heat) in heifers fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 28 to 42 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration to provide 90 to 430 mg/head/day ractopamine and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin for the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Feed melengestrol as a top dress or mixed with a complete ration at the rate of 0.5 to 2.0 pound/head/day (specify one level) to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate/head/day (specify one level). A withdrawal time has not been established for pre-ruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See special labeling considerations in §§ 558.342(d), 558.355(d), and 558.500(d) of this chapter. Tylosin provided by No. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 016592 or 058198; ractopamine as provided by No. 016592, 054771, or 058198; melengestrol acetate as provided by No. 016592 or 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592
<br/>054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xv) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 plus zilpaterol, 6.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E>; for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E zuernii</E>; and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 20 to 40 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration to cattle during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 to 90 mg/head/day zilpaterol, 0.14 to 0.42 mg/lb body weight/day monensin, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin, and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. Do not use in veal calves. Withdrawal period 3 days. Tylosin provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 058198; zilpaterol as provided by No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See §§ 558.355(d) and 558.665(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
<br/>016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvi) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 plus zilpaterol, 6.8 to 24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E>; for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E zuernii</E>; and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 20 to 40 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed this component feed continuously to cattle during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 mg/head/day zilpaterol, 0.14 to 0.42 mg/lb body weight/day monensin, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin, and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. Do not use in veal calves. Withdrawal period 3 days. Tylosin provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 058198; zilpaterol as provided by No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See §§ 558.355(d) and 558.665(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
<br/>016592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 plus zilpaterol, 6.8 plus melengestrol, 0.125 to 1 mg/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium</E> (<E T="03">Actinomyces</E>) <E T="03">pyogenes</E>; for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E zuernii</E>; and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 20 to 40 days on feed; and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration to cattle during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 to 90 mg/head/day zilpaterol, 0.14 to 0.42 mg/lb body weight/day monensin, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin, and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. Feed melengestrol as a top dress or mixed with a complete ration at the rate of 0.5 to 2.0 pound/head/day (specify one level) to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate/head/day (specify one level). Do not use in veal calves. Withdrawal period 3 days. Tylosin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 058198; zilpaterol as provided by No. 000061; melengestrol provided by Nos. 054771 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See §§ 558.342(d), 558.355(d) and 558.665(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
<br/>016592
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xviii) 8 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40 plus zilpaterol, 6.8 to 24 plus melengestrol, 0.125 to 1 mg/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses caused by <E T="03">Fusobacterium necrophorum</E> and <E T="03">Arcanobacterium</E> (<E T="03">Actinomyces</E>) <E T="03">pyogenes</E>; for prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E zuernii</E>; and for increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter for the last 20 to 40 days on feed; and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed this component feed continuously to cattle during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 mg/head/day zilpaterol, 0.14 to 0.42 mg/lb body weight/day monensin, depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin, and 60 to 90 mg/head/day tylosin. Feed melengestrol as a top dress or mixed with a complete ration at the rate of 0.5 to 2.0 pound/head/day (specify one level) to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg melengestrol acetate/head/day (specify one level). Do not use in veal calves. Withdrawal period 3 days. Tylosin as provided by Nos. 016592 or 058198; monensin as provided by No. 058198; zilpaterol as provided by No. 000061; melengestrol provided by Nos. 054771 or 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter. See §§ 558.342(d), 558.355(d) and 558.665(d) in this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
<br/>016592
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13959, Mar. 27, 1975]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 558.625, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.630" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.630   Tylosin and sulfamethazine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing equal amounts of tylosin phosphate and sulfamethazine, available in concentrations of 5, 10, 20, or 40 grams each, per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See sponsor numbers in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) No. 058198 for use as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No. 066104: 10 or 40 grams per pound each for use as in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See §§ 556.670 and 556.746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for tylosin and sulfamethazine medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for tylosin and sulfamethazine shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling shall bear the statement: “Do not use in medicated feeds containing in excess of 2% bentonite.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I> It is used in feed for swine as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tylosin phosphate and sulfamethazine
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 100 each</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For reduction in the severity of effects of atrophic rhinitis; lowering the incidence and severity of <E T="03">Bordetella bronchiseptica</E> rhinitis; prevention of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae;</E> control of swine pneumonias caused by bacterial pathogens (<E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> and/or <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E>); reducing the incidence of cervical lymphadenitis (jowl abscesses) caused by Group E <E T="03">Streptococci.</E> Only the sulfamethazine portion of this combination is active in controlling jowl abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Withdraw 15 days before swine are slaughtered</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 100 each</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For reduction in the severity of effects of atrophic rhinitis; lowering the incidence and severity of <E T="03">Bordetella bronchiseptica</E> rhinitis; prevention of swine dysentery associated with <E T="03">Brachyspira hyodysenteriae;</E> and control of swine pneumonias caused by bacterial pathogens (<E T="03">Pasteurella multocida</E> and/or <E T="03">Arcanobacterium pyogenes</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Withdraw 15 days before swine are slaughtered</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95021, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 33002, July 11, 2019; 91 FR 5303, Feb. 6, 2026]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.633" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.633   Tylvalosin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 77.12 grams tylvalosin per pound as tylvalosin tartrate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor.</I> See No. 066916 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.748 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) VFDs for tylvalosin shall not be refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) Crumbled Type C medicated feeds must bear an expiration date of 7 days after the date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tylvalosin in
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 38.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine: For the control of porcine proliferative enteropathy (PPE) associated with <E T="03">Lawsonia intracellularis</E> infection in groups of swine in buildings experiencing an outbreak of PPE.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration for 14 consecutive days.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066916
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 36790, June 8, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 67153, Sept. 30, 2016; 84 FR 12504, Apr. 2, 2019; 87 FR 17948, Mar. 29, 2022; 87 FR 58968, Sept. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.635" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.635   Virginiamycin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 10, 20, 50, or 227 grams virginiamycin per pound. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.750 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Federal law restricts medicated feed containing this veterinary feed directive (VFD) drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian. See § 558.6 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date of VFDs for virginiamycin medicated feeds must not exceed 6 months from the date of issuance. VFDs for virginiamycin shall not be refilled. 
</P>
<P>(3) Not for use in breeding swine over 120 pounds.
</P>
<P>(4) Dilute Type A article with at least 10 pounds of a feed ingredient prior to final mixing in 1 ton of Type C feed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Virginiamycin
<br/>grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not for use in layers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amprolium 72.6 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For field conditions where only <E T="03">E. tenella</E> is the major problem, feed continuously as the sole ration. Use as the sole source of amprolium. Do not use in feeds containing bentonite. Not for use in laying chickens. Amprolium as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amprolium 113.5 to 227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and for the prevention of coccidiosis where immunity to coccidiosis is not desired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For most field conditions as they exist under modern management practices, feed 113.5 g/ton amprolium continuously. Where severe coccidiosis conditions exist, feed 227 g/ton. Use as the sole source of amprolium. Do not use in feeds containing bentonite. Not for use in laying chickens. Amprolium as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diclazuril, 0.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mitis</E> (<E T="03">mivati),</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima.</E> Because diclazuril is effective against <E T="03">E. maxima</E> later in its life cycle, subclinical intestinal lesions may be present for a short time after infection. Diclazuril was shown in studies to reduce lesions scores and improve performance and health of birds challenged with <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to birds producing eggs for human consumption. Diclazuril as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lasalocid 68 to 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. For broiler or fryer chickens only. Lasalocid as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 90 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and as an aid in the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying chickens. See § 558.355(d) in this chapter. Monensin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Narasin, 54 to 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for broiler chickens. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Naracin as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Narasin, 27 to 54 plus nicarbazin, 27 to 54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria necatrix, E. tenella, E. acervulina, E. brunetti, E. mivati,</E> and <E T="03">E. maxima</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed as the sole ration for broiler chickens. Do not feed to chickens producing eggs for human consumption. Nicarbazin medicated broilers may show reduced heat tolerance if exposed to high temperature and high humidity. Provide adequate drinking water and ventilation during these periods. Do not allow adult turkeys, horses, or other equines access to narasin formulations. Ingestion of narasin by these species has been fatal. Naracin as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104






</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salinomycin 40 to 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria tenella, E. necatrix,</E> <E T="03">E. acervulina, E. maxima, E. brunetti,</E> and <E T="03">E. mivati</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to chickens over 16 weeks of age. Do not feed to laying chickens. Not approved for use with pellet binders. May be fatal if accidentally fed to adult turkeys or horses. Salinomycin as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semduramicin 22.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima, E mivati/mitis,</E> <E T="03">E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. tenella</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Do not feed to laying hens. Semduramicin as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semduramicin (biomass) 22.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention of necrotic enteritis caused by <E T="03">Clostridium perfringens</E> susceptible to virginiamycin; and for the prevention of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria acervulina, E. brunetti,</E> <E T="03">E. maxima, E mivati/mitis,</E> <E T="03">E. necatrix,</E> and <E T="03">E. tenella</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Withdraw 1 day before slaughter. Do not feed to laying hens. Semduramicin as provided by No. 066104 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Swine</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Virginiamycin grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine: As an aid in control of dysentery in swine up to 120 pounds in animals or on premises with a history of swine dysentery but where symptoms have not yet occurred</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 50 or 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine: For treatment and control of swine dysentery in swine up to 120 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed 100 grams per ton for 2 weeks, 50 grams per ton thereafter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing-finishing swine: For treatment of swine dysentery in nonbreeding swine over 120 pounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed for 2 weeks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Cattle</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Virginiamycin grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 13.5 to 16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration to provide 85 to 240 milligrams per head per day. Not for use in animals intended for breeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 13.5 to 16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For improved feed efficiency and reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at every feeding to provide 50 to 480 mg monensin/head/day and 85 to 240 mg virginiamycin/head/day. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 g/ton (360 mg monensin/head/day). A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 13.5 to 16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii,</E> and reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at every feeding to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending on the severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to a maximum of 480 mg monensin/head/day and 85 to 240 mg virginiamycin/head/day. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 13.5 to 16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 5 to 40; and lubabegron, 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 14 to 91 days on feed: For reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight, improved feed efficiency, and reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at every feeding as sole ration to provide 13 to 90 mg lubabegron/head/day, 50 to 480 mg monensin/head/day and 85 to 240 mg virginiamycin/head/day during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. No additional improvement in feed efficiency has been shown from feeding monensin at levels greater than 30 g/ton (360 mg monensin/head/day). A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 13.5 to 16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40; and lubabegron, 1.25 to 4.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 14 to 91 days on feed: For reduction of ammonia gas emissions per pound of live weight and hot carcass weight, the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">Eimeria zuernii,</E> and reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at every feeding as sole ration to provide 13 to 90 mg lubabegron/head/day, 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb body weight per day, depending on the severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to a maximum of 480 mg monensin/head/day and 85 to 240 mg virginiamycin/head/day during the last 14 to 91 days on feed. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 13.5 to 16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40; and ractopamine hydrochloride, 8.2 to 24.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 28 to 42 days on feed: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and<E T="03"> Eimeria zuernii,</E> and reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at every feeding as a sole ration to provide 70 to 430 mg ractopamine hydrochloride/head/day, 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb of body weight per day, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to a maximum of 480 mg monensin/head/day and 85 to 240 mg virginiamycin/head/day during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 13.5 to 6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40; and ractopamine hydrochloride, 9.8 to 24.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 28 to 42 days on feed: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, increased carcass leanness, the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and<E T="03"> Eimeria zuernii,</E> and reduction of incidence of liver abscesses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed at every feeding as a sole ration to provide 90 to 430 mg ractopamine hydrochloride/head/day, 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb of body weight per day, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to a maximum of 480 mg monensin/head/day and 85 to 240 mg virginiamycin/head/day during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. A withdrawal period has not been established for this product in preruminating calves. Do not use in calves to be processed for veal. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 13.5 to 16.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin, 10 to 40; and ractopamine hydrochloride, not to exceed 800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing beef steers and heifers fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 28 to 42 days on feed: For increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency, the prevention and control of coccidiosis caused by <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and<E T="03"> Eimeria zuernii,</E> and reduction of incidence of liver abscesses when ractopamine hydrochloride is used as a top dress with rations containing monensin and virginiamycin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed a minimum of 1.0 lb per head per day of this Type C top-dress medicated feed to provide 70 to 400 mg/head/day ractopamine hydrochloride during the last 28 to 42 days on feed. Must be top dressed onto or mixed at feeding with a Type C medicated feed containing 10 to 40 g/ton monensin and 13.5 to 16 g/ton virginiamycin (90% dry matter basis), to provide 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin/lb of body weight per day, depending upon severity of coccidiosis challenge, up to a maximum of 480 mg monensin/head/day and 85 to 240 mg virginiamycin/head/day. See § 558.355(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">066104


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95022, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 11512, Feb. 24, 2017; 82 FR 21692, May 10, 2017; 85 FR 18125, Apr. 1, 2020; 87 FR 10972, Feb. 28, 2022; 88 FR 14908, Mar. 10, 2023; 90 FR 40972, Aug. 22, 2025]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.665" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.665   Zilpaterol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated articles containing 21.77 grams (g) zilpaterol hydrochloride per pound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approvals.</I> See No. 000061 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> See § 556.765 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special considerations.</I> (1) Labeling shall bear the following caution statements: “Zilpaterol hydrochloride is not for use in animals intended for breeding. Do not allow horses or other equines access to feed containing zilpaterol. Do not use in veal calves.”
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling of Type A medicated articles and Type B medicated feeds used to manufacture complete Type C medicated feeds shall bear the caution statement in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling of complete Type C medicated feeds shall bear the following caution statements: “Not to be fed to cattle in excess of 90 mg zilpaterol/head/day in complete feed. If pen consumption of complete feed exceeds 26.5 lb/head/day (90 percent dry matter basis), zilpaterol should not be fed in complete feed.”
</P>
<P>(4) Type B Liquid Feeds can be manufactured containing 68 to 680 g zilpaterol hydrochloride/ton. The liquid Type B feeds must be maintained at a pH of 3.8 to 7.5. For liquid feeds stored in recirculating tank systems: Recirculate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, moving not less than 1 percent of the tank contents per minute from the bottom of the tank to the top. Recirculate daily as described even when not used. For liquid feeds stored in mechanical, air or other agitation-type tank systems: Agitate immediately prior to use for not less than 10 minutes, creating a turbulence at the bottom of the tank that is visible at the top. Agitate daily as described even when not used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions of use in cattle.</I> It is administered in feed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zilpaterol
<br/>hydrochloride
<br/>in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 6.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 to 90 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 6.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed; for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 to 90 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section. See paragraph § 558.355(d) of this chapter Monensin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) 6.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed; and for suppression of estrus (heat)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 to 90 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section
<br/>Melengestrol acetate as provided by Nos. 058198 or 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) 6.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40 plus melengestrol acetate to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed; for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> and for suppression of estrus (heat)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 to 90 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section. See paragraphs §§ 558.342(d) and 558.355(d) of this chapter
<br/>Monensin as provided by No. 058198; melengestrol acetate as provided by Nos. 058198 or 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5)-(6) [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) 6.8 to 24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) 6.8 to 24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed; and for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section. See paragraph § 558.355(d) of this chapter
<br/>Monensin as provided by No. 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) 6.8 to 24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melengestrol acetate to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed; and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section. See paragraph § 558.342(d) of this part
<br/>Melengestrol acetate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) 6.8 to 24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monensin 10 to 40, plus melengestrol acetate to provide 0.25 to 0.5 mg/head/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heifers fed in confinement for slaughter: For increased rate of weight gain, improved feed efficiency, and increased carcass leanness in cattle fed in confinement for slaughter during the last 20 to 40 days on feed; for prevention and control of coccidiosis due to <E T="03">Eimeria bovis</E> and <E T="03">E. zuernii;</E> and for suppression of estrus (heat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously during the last 20 to 40 days on feed to provide 60 mg zilpaterol hydrochloride per head per day and 0.14 to 0.42 mg monensin per pound of body weight per day depending on the severity of the coccidiosis challenge, up to 480 mg/head/day monensin. Withdrawal period: 3 days. See paragraph (d) of this section. See paragraphs §§ 558.342(d) and 558.355(d) of this chapter
<br/>Monensin as provided by No. 058198; melengestrol acetate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">000061</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) Zilpaterol may also be used in combination with tylosin as in § 558.625.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 53006, Sept. 8, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 9245, Mar. 1, 2007; 72 FR 6019, Feb. 1, 2008; 73 FR 14385, Mar. 18, 2008; 73 FR 16755, Mar. 31, 2008; 73 FR 18959, Apr. 8, 2008; 73 FR 19432, Apr. 10, 2008; 74 FR 61517, Nov. 25, 2009; 75 FR 11451, Mar. 11, 2010; 77 FR 31724, May 30, 2012; 78 FR 42008, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 52852, Aug. 27, 2013; 80 FR 13232, Mar. 13, 2015; 80 FR 53460, Sept. 4, 2015; 81 FR 48703, July 26, 2016; 81 FR 95025, Dec. 27, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 558.680" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.19.2.2.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 558.680   Zoalene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specifications.</I> Type A medicated article containing 25 percent zoalene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsors.</I> See Nos. 054771 and 058198 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Related tolerances.</I> See § 556.770 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of use</I>—(1) <I>Chickens</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zoalene in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 36.3 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement chickens: For development of active immunity to coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Grower ration not to be fed to birds over 14 weeks of age. Starter ration not to be fed to laying birds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Growing conditions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Starter ration
<br/>Grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Grower ration
<br/>Grams per ton
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Severe exposure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113.5 (0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.4-113.5
<br/>(0.0083%-0.0125%)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light to moderate exposure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.4-113.5
<br/>(0.0083%-0.0125%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.3-75.4
<br/>(0.004%-0.0083%)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zoalene in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams per ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 36.3-113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement chickens: For development of active immunity to coccidiosis; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration as in subtable in item (i). Grower ration not to be fed to birds over 14 weeks of age. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 36.3 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement chickens: For development of active immunity to coccidiosis; and as an aid in the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration as in the subtable in item (i). Grower ration not to be fed to birds over 14 weeks of age. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 36.3 to 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Replacement chickens: For development of active immunity to coccidiosis; and as an aid in the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration as in the subtable in item (i). To control necrotic enteritis, start medication at first clinical signs of disease; vary bacitracin dosage based on the severity of infection; administer continuously for 5 to 7 days or as long as clinical signs persist, then reduce bacitracin to prevention level (50 g/ton). Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention and control of coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Not to be fed to laying birds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention and control of coccidiosis; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention and control of coccidiosis; and as an aid in the prevention of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as the sole ration. Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate,
<br/>100 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: For prevention and control of coccidiosis; and as an aid in the control of necrotic enteritis caused or complicated by <E T="03">Clostridium</E> spp. or other organisms susceptible to bacitracin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. To control necrotic enteritis, start medication at first clinical signs of disease; vary bacitracin dosage based on the severity of infection; administer continuously for 5 to 7 days or as long as clinical signs persist, then reduce bacitracin to prevention level (50 g/ton). Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate as provided by No. 054771 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) 113.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bambermycins 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler chickens: As an aid in the prevention and control of coccidiosis; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. Do not feed to chickens over 14 weeks of age. Bambermycins as provided by No. 016592 in § 510.600(c) of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016592</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Turkeys</I>—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zoalene in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combination in grams/ton
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indications for use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sponsor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 113.5 to 170.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For prevention and control of coccidiosis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration. For turkeys grown for meat purposes only. Not to be fed to laying birds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 113.5 to 170.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bacitracin methylenedisalicylate, 4 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growing turkeys: For prevention and control of coccidiosis; and for increased rate of weight gain and improved feed efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feed continuously as sole ration until 14 to 16 weeks of age. For turkeys grown for meat purposes only. Not to be fed to laying birds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">054771
<br/>058198</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Zoalene may also be used in combination with:
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Lincomycin as in § 558.325.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 11005, Mar. 15, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 18618, Apr. 8, 1977; 42 FR 20817, Apr. 22, 1977; 42 FR 36995, July 19, 1977; 51 FR 7401, Mar. 3, 1986; 52 FR 2686, Jan. 26, 1987; 55 FR 8461, Mar. 8, 1990; 57 FR 8403, Mar. 10, 1992; 57 FR 8578, Mar. 11, 1992; 61 FR 35957, July 9, 1996; 63 FR 38750, July 20, 1998; 67 FR 6868, Feb. 14, 2002; 71 FR 16223, Mar. 31, 2006; 71 FR 27958, May 15, 2006; 76 FR 17027, Mar. 28, 2011; 79 FR 10983, Feb. 27, 2014; 79 FR 13546, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 17610, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 95025, Dec. 27, 2016; 82 FR 21693, May 10, 2017; 86 FR 14827, Mar. 19, 2021; 87 FR 17948, Mar. 29, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="564" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 564 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="570" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 570—FOOD ADDITIVES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 342, 346a, 348, 371. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 38644, Sept. 10, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 570 appear at 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.3" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this part, the term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act approved June 25, 1936 (52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended; 21 U.S.C. 301-392). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Food additives</I> includes all substances not exempted by section 201(s) of the act, the intended use of which results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, either in their becoming a component of food or otherwise affecting the characteristics of food. A material used in the production of containers and packages is subject to the definition if it may reasonably be expected to become a component, or to affect the characteristics, directly or indirectly, of food packed in the container. <I>Affecting the characteristics of food</I> does not include such physical effects, as protecting contents of packages, preserving shape, and preventing moisture loss. If there is no migration of a packaging component from the package to the food, it does not become a component of the food and thus is not a food additive. A substance that does not become a component of food, but that is used, for example, in preparing an ingredient of the food to give a different flavor, texture, or other characteristic in the food, may be a food additive. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Common use in food</I> means a substantial history of consumption of a substance by a significant number of animals of the species to which the substance is intended to be fed (and, for food-producing animals fed with such substance, also means a substantial history of consumption by humans consuming human foods derived from those food-producing animals), prior to January 1, 1958.
</P>
<P>(g) The word <I>substance</I> in the definition of the term <I>food additive</I> includes a food or feed or a component of a food or feed consisting of one or more ingredients. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Scientific procedures</I> include the application of scientific data (including, as appropriate, data from human, animal, analytical, or other scientific studies), information, and methods, whether published or unpublished, as well as the application of scientific principles, appropriate to establish the safety of a substance under the conditions of its intended use.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Safe</I> or <I>safety</I> means that there is a reasonable certainty in the minds of competent scientists that the substance is not harmful under the conditions of its intended use. 

It is impossible in the present state of scientific knowledge to establish with complete certainty the absolute harmlessness of the use of any substance. Safety may be determined by scientific procedures or by general recognition of safety. In determining safety, the following factors shall be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) The probable consumption of the substance and of any substance formed in or on food because of its use; 
</P>
<P>(2) The cumulative effect of the substance in the diet, taking into account any chemically or pharmacologically related substance or substances in such diet; 
</P>
<P>(3) Safety factors which, in the opinion of experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety of food and food ingredients, are generally recognized as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>nonperishable processed food</I> means any processed food not subject to rapid decay or deterioration that would render it unfit for consumption. Not included are hermetically sealed foods and other processed foods requiring refrigeration. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>General recognition of safety</I> shall be in accordance with § 570.30.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Prior sanction</I> means an explicit approval granted with respect to use of a substance in food prior to September 6, 1958, by the Food Drug and Administration or the United States Department of Agriculture pursuant to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Poultry Products Inspection Act, or the Meat Inspection Act.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Food</I> includes human food, substances migrating to food from food-contact articles, pet food, and animal feed.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Food-producing animal</I> means an animal used to produce human food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38644, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 55206, Oct. 14, 1977; 81 FR 55051, Aug. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.6" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.6   Opinion letters on food additive status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Over the years the Food and Drug Administration has given informal written opinions to inquirers as to the safety of articles intended for use as components of, or in contact with, food. Prior to the enactment of the Food Additives Amendment of 1958 (Pub. L. 85-929, Sept. 6, 1958), these opinions were given pursuant to section 402(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which reads in part: “A food shall be deemed to be adulterated if it bears or contains any poisonous or deleterious substance which may render it injurious to health”. 
</P>
<P>(b) Since enactment of the Food Additives Amendment, the Food and Drug Administration has advised such inquirers that an article: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is a food additive within the meaning of section 201(s) of the act; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is generally recognized as safe (GRAS); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Has prior sanction or approval under that amendment; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Is not a food additive under the conditions of intended use. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the interest of the public health, such articles which have been considered in the past by the Food and Drug Administration to be safe under the provisions of section 402(a)(1), or to be generally recognized as safe for their intended use, or to have prior sanction or approval, or not to be food additives under the conditions of intended use, must be reexamined in the light of current scientific information and current principles for evaluating the safety of food additives if their use is to be continued. 
</P>
<P>(d) Because of the time span involved, copies of many of the letters in which the Food and Drug Administration has expressed an informal opinion concerning the status of such articles may no longer be in the file of the Food and Drug Administration. In the absence of information concerning the names and uses made of all the articles referred to in such letters, their safety of use cannot be reexamined. For this reason all food additive status opinions of the kind described in paragraph (c) of this section given by the Food and Drug Administration are hereby revoked. 
</P>
<P>(e) The prior opinions of the kind described in paragraph (c) of this section will be replaced by qualified and current opinions if the recipient of each such letter forwards a copy of each to the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Office of Surveillance and Compliance (HFV-200), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, along with a copy of his letter of inquiry, on or before July 23, 1970. 
</P>
<P>(f) This section does not apply to food additive status opinion letters pertaining to articles that were considered by the Food and Drug Administration to be food additives nor to articles included in regulations in this Subchapter E if the articles are used in accordance with the requirements of such regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38644, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 54 FR 18281, Apr. 28, 1989; 57 FR 6476, Feb. 25, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.13" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.13   Indirect food additives resulting from packaging materials prior sanctioned for animal feed and pet food.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations providing for the use of food packaging materials as prior sanctioned in part 181 of this chapter are incorporated in Subchapter E as applicable to packaging materials used for animal feed and pet food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.14" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.14   Indirect food additives resulting from packaging materials for animal feed and pet food.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations providing for the use of food packaging materials in parts 174 through 179 of this chapter are incorporated in Subchapter E as applicable to packaging materials used for animal feed and pet food.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.15" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.15   Adoption of regulation on initiative of Commissioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner upon his own initiative may propose the issuance of a regulation prescribing, with respect to any particular use of a food additive, the conditions under which such additive may be safely used. Notice of such proposal shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall state the reasons for the proposal. 
</P>
<P>(b) Action upon a proposal made by the Commissioner shall proceed as provided in part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38644, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 4717, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.17" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.17   Exemption for investigational use and procedure for obtaining authorization to market edible products from experimental animals.</HEAD>
<P>A food additive or food containing a food additive intended for investigational use by qualified experts shall be exempt from the requirements of section 409 of the act under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) If intended for investigational use in vitro or in laboratory research animals, it bears a label which states prominently, in addition to the other information required by the act, the warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution.</I> Contains a new food additive for investigational use only in laboratory research animals or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) If intended for use in animals other than laboratory research animals and if the edible products of the animals are to be marketed as food, permission for the marketing of the edible products as food has been requested by the sponsor, and authorization has been granted by the Food and Drug Administration in accordance with § 511.1 of this chapter or by the Department of Agriculture in accordance with 9 CFR 309.17, and it bears a label which states prominently, in addition to the other information required by the act, the warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution.</I> Contains a new food additive for use only in investigational animals. Not for use in humans. 
</P>
<P>Edible products of investigational animals are not to be used for food unless authorization has been granted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration or by the U.S. Department of Agriculture.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) If intended for nonclinical laboratory studies in food-producing animals, the study is conducted in compliance with the regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38644, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 43 FR 60023, Dec. 22, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.18" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.18   Tolerances for related food additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Food additives that cause similar or related pharmacological effects will be regarded as a class, and in the absence of evidence to the contrary, as having additive toxic effects and will be considered as related food additives. 
</P>
<P>(b) Tolerances established for such related food additives may limit the amount of a common component that may be present, or may limit the amount of biological activity (such as cholinesterase inhibition) that may be present or may limit the total amount of related food additives that may be present. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where food additives from two or more chemicals in the same class are present in or on a food, the tolerance for the total of such additives shall be the same as that for the additive having the lowest numerical tolerance in this class, unless there are available methods that permit quantitative determination of the amount of each food additive present or unless it is shown that a higher tolerance is reasonably required for the combined additives to accomplish the physical or technical effect for which such combined additives are intended and that the higher tolerance will be safe. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where residues from two or more additives in the same class are present in or on a food and there are available methods that permit quantitative determination of each residue, the quantity of combined residues that are within the tolerance may be determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the quantity of each residue present. 
</P>
<P>(2) Divide the quantity of each residue by the tolerance that would apply if it occurred alone, and multiply by 100 to determine the percentage of the permitted amount of residue present. 
</P>
<P>(3) Add the percentages so obtained for all residues present. 
</P>
<P>(4) The sum of the percentages shall not exceed 100 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.19" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.1.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.19   Pesticide chemicals in processed foods.</HEAD>
<P>When pesticide chemical residues occur in processed foods due to the use of raw agricultural commodities that bore or contained a pesticide chemical in conformity with an exemption granted or a tolerance prescribed under section 408 of the act, the processed food will not be regarded as adulterated so long as good manufacturing practice has been followed in removing any residue from the raw agricultural commodity in the processing (such as by peeling or washing) and so long as the concentration of the residue in the processed food when ready to eat is not greater than the tolerance prescribed for the raw agricultural commodity. But when the concentration of residue in the processed food when ready to eat is higher than the tolerance prescribed for the raw agricultural commodity, the processed food is adulterated unless the higher concentration is permitted by a tolerance obtained under section 409 of the act. For example, if fruit bearing a residue of 7 parts per million of DDT permitted on the raw agricultural commodity is dried and a residue in excess of 7 parts per million of DDT results on the dried fruit, the dehydrated fruit is adulterated unless the higher tolerance for DDT is authorized by the regulations in this part. Food that is itself ready to eat, and which contains a higher residue than allowed for the raw agricultural commodity, may not be legalized by blending or mixing with other foods to reduce the residue in the mixed food below the tolerance prescribed for the raw agricultural commodity. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Food Additive Safety</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.20" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.20   General principles for evaluating the safety of food additives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In reaching a decision on any petition filed under section 409 of the act, the Commissioner will give full consideration to the specific biological properties of the compound and the adequacy of the methods employed to demonstrate safety for the proposed use, and the Commissioner will be guided by the principles and procedures for establishing the safety of food additives stated in current publications of the National Academy of Sciences-National Research Council. A petition will not be denied, however, by reason of the petitioner's having followed procedures other than those outlined in the publications of the National Academy of Sciences-National Research Council if, from available evidence, the Commissioner finds that the procedures used give results as reliable as, or more reliable than, those reasonably to be expected from the use of the outlined procedures. In reaching a decision, the Commissioner will give due weight to the anticipated levels and patterns of consumption of the additive specified or reasonably inferable. For the purposes of this section, the principles for evaluating safety of additives set forth in the above-mentioned publications will apply to any substance that may properly be classified as a food additive as defined in section 201(s) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request describing the proposed use of an additive and the proposed experiments to determine its safety, the Commissioner will advise a person who wishes to establish the safety of a food additive whether he believes the experiments planned will yield data adequate for an evaluation of the safety of the additive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.30" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.30   Eligibility for classification as generally recognized as safe (GRAS).</HEAD>
<P>(a) General recognition of safety may be based only on the views of experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety of substances directly or indirectly added to food. The basis of such views may be either (1) scientific procedures or (2) in the case of a substance used in food prior to January 1, 1958, through experience based on common use in food. General recognition of safety requires common knowledge throughout the scientific community knowledgeable about the safety of substances directly or indirectly added to food that there is reasonable certainty that the substance is not harmful to either the target animal or to humans consuming human food derived from food-producing animals under the conditions of its intended use (see § 570.3(i)).
</P>
<P>(b) General recognition of safety based upon scientific procedures shall require the same quantity and quality of scientific evidence as is required to obtain approval of a food additive. General recognition of safety through scientific procedures shall address safety for both the target animal and for humans consuming human food derived from food-producing animals and shall be based upon the application of generally available and accepted scientific data, information, or methods, which ordinarily are published, as well as the application of scientific principles, and may be corroborated by the application of unpublished scientific data, information, or methods.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) General recognition of safety through experience based on common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, shall address safety for both the target animal and for humans consuming human food derived from food-producing animals and may be achieved without the quantity or quality of scientific procedures required for approval of a food additive. General recognition of safety through experience based on common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, shall be based solely on food use of the substance in the same animal species prior to January 1, 1958, and shall ordinarily be based upon generally available data and information. An ingredient not in common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, may achieve general recognition of safety only through scientific procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) A substance used in food prior to January 1, 1958, may be generally recognized as safe through experience based on its common use in food when that use occurred exclusively or primarily outside of the United States if the information about the experience establishes that the substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use within the meaning of section 201(u) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (see also § 570.3(i)) for both the target animal and for humans consuming human food derived from food-producing animals. Common use in food prior to January 1, 1958, that occurred outside of the United States shall be documented by published or other information and shall be corroborated by information from a second, independent source that confirms the history and circumstances of use of the substance. The information used to document and to corroborate the history and circumstances of use of the substance must be generally available; that is, it must be widely available in the country in which the history of use has occurred and readily available to interested qualified experts in the United States. A person who concludes that a use of a substance is GRAS through experience based on its common use in food outside of the United States should notify FDA of that view in accordance with subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The food ingredients listed as GRAS in part 582 of this chapter or affirmed as GRAS in part 584 of this chapter do not include all substances that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use in food. Because of the large number of substances the intended use of which results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in their becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of food, it is impracticable to list all such substances that are GRAS. A food ingredient of natural biological origin that has been widely consumed for its nutrient properties in the United States prior to January 1, 1958, without known detrimental effects, which is subject only to conventional processing as practiced prior to January 1, 1958, and for which no known safety hazard exists, will ordinarily be regarded as GRAS without specific inclusion in part 582 or part 584 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) A food ingredient that is not GRAS or subject to a prior sanction requires a food additive regulation promulgated under section 409 of the act before it may be directly or indirectly added to food.
</P>
<P>(f) A food ingredient that is listed as GRAS in part 582 of this chapter shall be regarded as GRAS only if, in addition to all the requirements in the applicable regulation, it also meets all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) It complies with any applicable specifications, or in the absence of such specifications, shall be of a purity suitable for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) It performs an appropriate function in the food or food-contact article in which it is used.
</P>
<P>(3) It is used at a level no higher than necessary to achieve its intended purpose in that food or, if used as a component of a food-contact article, at a level no higher than necessary to achieve its intended purpose in that article.
</P>
<P>(g) New information may at any time require reconsideration of the GRAS status of a food ingredient. Any change in status shall be accomplished pursuant to § 570.38.
</P>
<P>(h) If a substance is affirmed as GRAS pursuant to § 570.35 and listed in a regulation with no limitation other than good manufacturing practice, it shall be regarded as GRAS if its conditions of use are not significantly different from those reported in the regulation as the basis on which the GRAS status of the substance was affirmed. If the conditions of use are significantly different, such use of the substance may not be GRAS. In such case a manufacturer may not rely on the regulation as authorizing the use but must independently establish that the use is GRAS or must use the substance in accordance with a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(i) If an ingredient is affirmed as GRAS pursuant to § 570.35 and listed in a regulation with specific limitation(s), it may be used in food only within such limitation(s) (including the category of food(s), the functional use(s) of the ingredient, and the level(s) of use). Any use of such an ingredient not in full compliance with each such established limitation shall require a food additive regulation.
</P>
<P>(j) Pursuant to § 570.35, a food ingredient may be affirmed as GRAS and listed in a regulation for a specific use(s) without a general evaluation of use of the ingredient. In addition to the use(s) specified in the regulation, other uses of such an ingredient may also be GRAS. Any affirmation of GRAS status for a specific use(s), without a general evaluation of use of the ingredient, is subject to reconsideration upon such evaluation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55206, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 81 FR 55052, Aug. 17, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.35" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.35   Affirmation of generally recognized as safe (GRAS) status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner, on his own initiative, may affirm that a substance that directly or indirectly becomes a component of food is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If the Commissioner proposes on his own initiative that a substance is entitled to affirmation as GRAS under the conditions of its intended use, he will place all of the data and information on which he relies on public file in the office of the Dockets Management Staff and will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice giving the name of the substance, its proposed uses, and any limitations proposed for purposes other than safety.
</P>
<P>(2) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will allow a period of 60 days during which any interested person may review the data and information and/or file comments with the Dockets Management Staff. Copies of all comments received shall be made available for examination in the Dockets Management Staff's office. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner will evaluate all comments received. If he concludes that there is convincing evidence that the substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use as described in § 570.30, he will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> listing the GRAS conditions of use in this subchapter E.
</P>
<P>(4) If, after evaluation of the comments, the Commissioner concludes that there is a lack of convincing evidence that the substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use and that it should be considered a food additive subject to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, he shall publish a notice thereof in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 570.38.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38644, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 4717, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 55207, Oct. 10, 1977; 50 FR 7517, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 54 FR 18281, Apr. 28, 1989; 62 FR 40600, July 29, 1997; 81 FR 55052, Aug. 17, 2016; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.38" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.38   Determination of food additive status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may, in accordance with § 570.35(b)(4), publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> determining that a substance is not GRAS under the conditions of its intended use and is a food additive subject to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Commissioner, on his own initiative or on the petition of any interested person, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, may issue a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> proposing to determine that a substance is not GRAS and is a food additive subject to section 409 of the act. Any petition shall include all relevant data and information of the type described in § 571.130(b) of this chapter. The Commissioner will place all of the data and information on which he relies on public file in the Dockets Management Staff and will include in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice the name of the substance, its known uses, and a summary of the basis for the determination. 
</P>
<P>(2) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will allow a period of 60 days during which any interested person may review the data and information and/or file comments with the Dockets Management Staff. Copies of all comments shall be made available for examination in the Dockets Management Staff. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner will evaluate all comments received. If he concludes that there is a lack of convincing evidence that the substance is GRAS or is otherwise exempt from the definition of a food additive in section 201(s) of the act, he will publish a notice thereof in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If he concludes that there is convincing evidence that the substance is GRAS, he will publish an order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> listing the substance in this subchapter E as GRAS. 
</P>
<P>(c) A <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice determining that a substance is a food additive shall provide for the use of the additive in food or food-contact surfaces as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) It may promulgate a food additive regulation governing use of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) It may promulgate an interim food additive regulation governing use of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(3) It may require discontinuation of the use of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(4) It may adopt any combination of the above three approaches for different uses or levels of use of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commissioner of Food and Drugs is aware of any prior sanction for use of the substance, he will concurrently propose a separate regulation covering such use of the ingredient under this subchapter E. If the Commissioner is unaware of any such applicable prior sanction, the proposed regulation will so state and will require any person who intends to assert or rely on such sanction to submit proof of its existence. Any regulation promulgated pursuant to this section constitutes a determination that excluded uses would result in adulteration of the food in violation of section 402 of the act, and the failure of any person to come forward with proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal will constitute a waiver of the right to assert or rely on such sanction at any later time. The notice will also constitute a proposal to establish a regulation under this subchapter E., incorporating the same provisions, in the event that such a regulation is determined to be appropriate as a result of submission of proof of such an applicable prior sanction in response to the proposal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38644, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 4717, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 55207, Oct. 14, 1977; 54 FR 18281, Apr. 28, 1989; 81 FR 55052, Aug. 17, 2016; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Generally Recognized as Safe (GRAS) Notice</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 55052, Aug. 17, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 570.203" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.203   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions and interpretations of terms in § 570.3 apply to such terms when used in this subpart. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P><I>Amendment</I> means any data and information that you submit regarding a filed GRAS notice before we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 570.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 570.265(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>GRAS</I> means generally recognized as safe.
</P>
<P><I>GRAS notice</I> means a submission that informs us of your view that a substance is not subject to the premarket approval requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act based on your conclusion that the substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use in accordance with § 570.30.
</P>
<P><I>Notified substance</I> means the substance that is the subject of your GRAS notice.
</P>
<P><I>Notifier</I> means the person (<I>e.g.,</I> an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity) who is responsible for the GRAS notice, even if another person (such as an attorney, agent, or qualified expert) prepares or submits the notice or provides an opinion about the basis for a conclusion of GRAS status.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified expert</I> means an individual who is qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety of substances under the conditions of their intended use in animal food.
</P>
<P><I>Supplement</I> means any data and information that you submit regarding a filed GRAS notice after we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 570.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 570.265(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>We, our,</I> and<I> us</I> refer to the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
</P>
<P><I>You</I> and <I>your</I> refer to a notifier.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.205" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.205   Opportunity to submit a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may notify FDA of a view that a substance is not subject to the premarket approval requirements of section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act based on that person's conclusion that the substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.210" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.210   How to send your GRAS notice to FDA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Send your GRAS notice to the Division of Animal Feeds (HFV-220), Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855.
</P>
<P>(b) When you submit your GRAS notice, you may do so either in an electronic format that is accessible for our evaluation or on paper. If you send your GRAS notice on paper, a single paper copy is sufficient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.215" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.215   Incorporation into a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>You may incorporate into your GRAS notice either specifically identified data and information that you previously submitted to the Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM), or specifically identified publicly available data and information submitted by another party, when such data and information remain in CVM's records, such as data and information contained in a previous GRAS notice or a food additive petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.220" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.220   General requirements applicable to a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A GRAS notice has seven parts as required by §§ 570.225 through 570.255. You must submit the data and information specified in each of these parts on separate pages or sets of pages.
</P>
<P>(b) You must include each of the seven parts in your GRAS notice. If you do not include a part, you must include with your GRAS notice an explanation of why that part does not apply to your GRAS notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.225" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.225   Part 1 of a GRAS notice: Signed statements and certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 1 of your GRAS notice must be dated and signed by a responsible official of your organization, or by your attorney or agent.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as required by paragraph (c)(8) of this section, you must not include any information that is trade secret or confidential commercial information in Part 1 of your GRAS notice.
</P>
<P>(c) In Part 1 of your GRAS notice, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform us that you are submitting a GRAS notice in accordance with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the name and address of your organization;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the name of the notified substance, using an appropriately descriptive term;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the intended conditions of use of the notified substance, including stating whether the substance will be added to food (including drinking water) for animals in which the substance will be used; identifying the foods to which it will be added, the levels of use in such foods, and the animal species for which these foods are intended (including, when appropriate, a description of a subpopulation expected to consume the notified substance); and the purposes for which the substance will be used;
</P>
<P>(5) Inform us of the statutory basis for your conclusion of GRAS status (<I>i.e.,</I> through scientific procedures in accordance with § 570.30(a) and (b) or through experience based on common use in animal food in accordance with § 570.30(a) and (c));
</P>
<P>(6) State your view that the notified substance is not subject to the premarket approval requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act based on your conclusion that the notified substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use;
</P>
<P>(7) State that, if we ask to see the data and information that are the basis for your conclusion of GRAS status, either during or after our evaluation of your notice, you will:
</P>
<P>(i) Agree to make the data and information available to us; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Agree to both of the following procedures for making the data and information available to us:
</P>
<P>(A) Upon our request, you will allow us to review and copy the data and information during customary business hours at the address you specify for where these data and information will be available to us; and
</P>
<P>(B) Upon our request, you will provide us with a complete copy of the data and information either in an electronic format that is accessible for our evaluation or on paper;
</P>
<P>(8) State your view as to whether any of the data and information in Parts 2 through 7 of your GRAS notice are exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (<I>e.g.,</I> as trade secret or as commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential);
</P>
<P>(9) Certify that, to the best of your knowledge, the GRAS notice is a complete, representative, and balanced submission that includes unfavorable information, as well as favorable information, known to you and pertinent to the evaluation of the safety and GRAS status of the use of the substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) State both the name and the position or title of the person who signs the GRAS notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.230" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.230   Part 2 of a GRAS notice: Identity, method of manufacture, specifications, and physical or technical effect.</HEAD>
<P>In Part 2 of your GRAS notice, you must include:
</P>
<P>(a) Scientific data and information that identifies the notified substance.
</P>
<P>(1) Examples of appropriate data and information include the chemical name, applicable registry numbers (such as a Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) registry number or an Enzyme Commission (EC) number), empirical formula, structural formula, quantitative composition, and characteristic properties.
</P>
<P>(2) When the source of a notified substance is a biological material, you must include data and information sufficient to identify:
</P>
<P>(i) The taxonomic source (<I>e.g.,</I> genus, species), including as applicable data and information at the sub-species level (<I>e.g.,</I> variety, strain);
</P>
<P>(ii) The part of any plant or animal used as the source; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any known toxicants that could be in the source;
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the method of manufacture of the notified substance in sufficient detail to evaluate the safety of the notified substance as manufactured;
</P>
<P>(c) Specifications for material that is of appropriate grade for use in animal food; and
</P>
<P>(d) When necessary to demonstrate safety, relevant data and information bearing on the physical or other technical effect the notified substance is intended to produce, including the quantity of the notified substance required to produce such effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.235" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.235   Part 3 of a GRAS notice: Target animal and human exposures.</HEAD>
<P>In part 3 of your GRAS notice, you must provide data and information about exposure to the target animal and to humans consuming human food derived from food-producing animals, regardless of whether your conclusion of GRAS status is through scientific procedures or through experience based on common use in food, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) For exposure to the target animal, you must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the notified substance that different target animal species are likely to consume in the animal food (including drinking water) as part of the animal's total diet, including the intended use and all other sources in the total diet; and
</P>
<P>(2) When applicable, the amount of any other substance that is expected to be formed in or on food because of the use of the notified substance (<I>e.g.,</I> hydrolytic products or reaction products);
</P>
<P>(3) When applicable, the amount of any other substance that is present with the notified substance either naturally or due to its manufacture (<I>e.g.,</I> contaminants or by-products);
</P>
<P>(4) The data and information you rely on to establish the amount of the notified substance and the amounts of any other substance in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section that different target animal species are likely to consume in the animal food (including drinking water) as part of the animal's total diet; and
</P>
<P>(b) When the intended use is in food for food-producing animals, you must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) The potential quantities of any residues that humans may be exposed to in edible animal tissues, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Residues of the notified substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Residues of any other substance that is expected to be formed in or on the animal food because of the use of the notified substance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Residues from any other substance that is present with the notified substance whether naturally, due to its manufacture (<I>e.g.,</I> contaminants or by-products), or produced as a metabolite in edible animal tissues when the notified substance is consumed by a food-producing animal; and
</P>
<P>(2) The data and information you rely on to establish, in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the potential quantities of any residues that humans may be exposed to in edible animal tissues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.240" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.240   Part 4 of a GRAS notice: Self-limiting levels of use.</HEAD>
<P>In circumstances where the amount of the notified substance that can be added to animal food is limited because animal food containing levels of the notified substance above a particular level would become unpalatable or technologically impractical, in Part 4 of your GRAS notice you must include data and information on such self-limiting levels of use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.245" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.245   Part 5 of a GRAS notice: Experience based on common use in food before 1958.</HEAD>
<P>If the statutory basis for your conclusion of GRAS status is through experience based on common use in animal food, in Part 5 of your GRAS notice you must include evidence of a substantial history of consumption of the notified substance for food use by a significant number of animals of the species to which the substance is intended to be fed prior to January 1, 1958, and evidence of a substantial history of consumption by humans consuming human foods derived from food-producing animals prior to January 1, 1958.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.250" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.250   Part 6 of a GRAS notice: Narrative.</HEAD>
<P>In Part 6 of your GRAS notice, you must include a narrative that provides the basis for your conclusion of GRAS status, in which:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) You must explain why the data and information in your notice provide a basis for your view that the notified substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use for both the target animal and for humans consuming human food derived from food-producing animals. In your explanation, you must address the safety of the notified substance, considering all animal food (including drinking water) as part of the animal's total diet, taking into account any chemically or pharmacologically related substances in such diet. In your explanation, you must also address the safety of the notified substance in regard to human exposure, considering all dietary sources and taking into account any chemically or pharmacologically related substances;
</P>
<P>(2) In your explanation, you must identify what specific data and information that you discuss in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section are generally available, and what specific data and information that you discuss in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section are not generally available, by providing citations to the list of data and information that you include in Part 7 of your GRAS notice in accordance with § 570.255;
</P>
<P>(b) You must explain how the generally available data and information that you rely on to establish safety in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section provide a basis for your conclusion that the notified substance is generally recognized, among qualified experts, to be safe under the conditions of its intended use for both the target animal and for humans consuming human food derived from food-producing animals;
</P>
<P>(c) You must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify, discuss, and place in context, data and information that are, or may appear to be, inconsistent with your conclusion of GRAS status, regardless of whether those data and information are generally available; or
</P>
<P>(2) State that you have reviewed the available data and information and are not aware of any data and information that are, or may appear to be, inconsistent with your conclusion of GRAS status;
</P>
<P>(d) If you view any of the data and information in your notice as exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, you must identify the specific data and information; and
</P>
<P>(e) For non-public, safety-related data and information considered in reaching a conclusion of GRAS status, you must explain how there could be a basis for a conclusion of GRAS status if qualified experts do not have access to such data and information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.255" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.255   Part 7 of a GRAS notice: List of supporting data and information in your GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In part 7 of your GRAS notice, you must include a list of all of the data and information that you discuss in Part 6 of your GRAS notice to provide a basis for your view that the notified substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use as described in accordance with § 570.250(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) You must specify which data and information that you list in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section are generally available, and which data and information are not generally available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.260   Steps you may take before FDA responds to your GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may submit a timely amendment to your filed GRAS notice, to update your GRAS notice or in response to a question from us, before we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 570.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 570.265(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) At any time before we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 570.265(b)(1), you may request in writing that we cease to evaluate your GRAS notice. Your request does not preclude you from submitting a future GRAS notice in accordance with this subpart with respect to the notified substance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.265" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.265   What FDA will do with a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) We will conduct an initial evaluation of your submission to determine whether to file it as a GRAS notice for evaluation of your view that the notified substance is GRAS under the conditions of its intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) If we file your submission as a GRAS notice, we will send you a letter that informs you of the date of filing.
</P>
<P>(3) If we do not file your submission as a GRAS notice, we will send you a letter that informs you of that fact and provide our reasons for not filing the submission as a GRAS notice.
</P>
<P>(4) We will consider any timely amendment that you submit to a filed GRAS notice, to update your GRAS notice or in response to a question from us, before we respond to you by letter in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if we deem that doing so is feasible within the timeframes established in paragraph (b) of this section. If we deem that considering your amendment is not feasible within the timeframes established in paragraph (b) of this section or if we have granted your request to cease to evaluate your notice, we will inform you that we are not considering your amendment.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Within 180 days of filing, we will respond to you by letter based on our evaluation of your notice. We may extend the 180 day timeframe by 90 days on an as needed basis.
</P>
<P>(2) If we extend the timeframe, we will inform you in writing of the extension as soon as practicable but no later than within 180 days of filing.
</P>
<P>(3) If you ask us to cease to evaluate your GRAS notice in accordance with § 570.260(b), we will send you a letter informing you of our decision regarding your request.
</P>
<P>(c) If circumstances warrant, we will send you a subsequent letter about the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.275" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.275   Public disclosure of a GRAS notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The data and information in a GRAS notice (including data and information submitted in any amendment or supplement to your GRAS notice, or incorporated into your GRAS notice) are:
</P>
<P>(1) Considered a mandatory, rather than voluntary, submission for purposes of their status under the Freedom of Information Act and our public information requirements in part 20 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Available for public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter as of the date that we receive your GRAS notice.
</P>
<P>(b) We will make the following readily accessible to the public:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of filed GRAS notices, including the information described in § 570.225(c)(2) through (c)(5);
</P>
<P>(2) The text of any letter that we issue under § 570.265(b)(1) or (c); and
</P>
<P>(3) The text of any letter that we issue under § 570.265(b)(3) if we grant your request that we cease to evaluate your notice.
</P>
<P>(c) We will disclose all remaining data and information that are not exempt from public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.280" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.21.4.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.280   Submission of a supplement.</HEAD>
<P>If circumstances warrant, you may submit a supplement to a filed GRAS notice after we respond to your notice by letter in accordance with § 570.265(b)(1) or cease to evaluate your notice in accordance with § 570.265(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="571" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 571—FOOD ADDITIVE PETITIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371; 42 U.S.C. 241. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 38647, Sept. 10, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.1   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Petitions to be filed with the Commissioner under the provisions of section 409(b) of the act shall be submitted in triplicate. If any part of the material submitted is in a foreign language, it shall be accompanied by an accurate and complete English translation. The petition shall state petitioner's post office address to which published notices or orders issued or objections filed pursuant to section 409 of the act may be sent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Pertinent information may be incorporated in, and will be considered as part of, a petition on the basis of specific reference to such information submitted to and retained in the files of the Food and Drug Administration. However, any reference to unpublished information furnished by a person other than the applicant will not be considered unless use of such information is authorized in a written statement signed by the person who submitted it. Any reference to published information offered in support of a food-additive petition should be accompanied by reprints or photostatic copies of such references. 
</P>
<P>(c) Petitions shall include the following data and be submitted in the following form: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FRP>(Date)   
</FRP>
<FP-DASH>Name of petitioner 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Post office address 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of food additive and proposed use 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Food and Drug Administration 
</FP>
<FP><E T="04">Center for Veterinary Medicine,</E> 
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Director, Division of Animal Feeds</I> (<I>HFV-220</I>), <I>7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855.</I> 
</FP-2>
<P><E T="04">Dear Sirs:</E> The undersigned, ____
</P>
<FP>submits this petition pursuant to section 409(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Cosmetic Act with respect to 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of the food additive and proposed use) 
</FP>
<P>Attached hereto, in triplicate, and constituting a part of this petition, are the following: 
</P>
<P>A. The name and all pertinent information concerning the food additive, including chemical identity and composition of the food additive, its physical, chemical, and biological properties, and specifications prescribing the minimum content of the desired component(s) and identifying and limiting the reaction byproducts and other impurities. Where such information is not available, a statement as to the reasons why it is not should be submitted. 
</P>
<P>When the chemical identity and composition of the food additive is not known, the petition shall contain information in sufficient detail to permit evaluation regarding the method of manufacture and the analytical controls used during the various stages of manufacturing, processing, or packing of the food additive which are relied upon to establish that it is a substance of reproducible composition. Alternative methods and controls and variations in methods and controls within reasonable limits that do not affect the characteristics of the substance or the reliability of the controls may be specified. 
</P>
<P>If the food additive is a mixture of chemicals, the petition shall supply a list of all substances used in the synthesis, extraction, or other method of preparation, regardless of whether they undergo chemical change in the process. Each substance should be identified by its common English name and complete chemical name, using structural formulas when necessary for specific identification. If any proprietary preparation is used as a component, the proprietary name should be followed by a complete quantitative statement of composition. Reasonable alternatives for any listed substance may be specified. 
</P>
<P>If the petitioner does not himself perform all the manufacturing, processing, and packing operations for a food additive, the petition shall identify each person who will perform a part of such operations and designate the part. 
</P>
<P>The petition shall include stability data, and, if the data indicate that it is needed to ensure the identity, strength, quality, or purity of the additive, the expiration date that will be employed. 
</P>
<P>B. The amount of the food additive proposed for use and the purposes for which it is proposed, together with all directions, recommendations, and suggestions regarding the proposed use, as well as specimens of the labeling proposed for the food additive and any labeling that will be required by applicable provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act on the finished food by reason of the use of the food additive. If the additive results or may reasonably be expected to result from the use of packaging material, the petitioner shall show how this may occur and what residues may reasonably be anticipated. 
</P>
<P>(Typewritten or other draft-labeling copy will be accepted for consideration of the petition, provided a statement is made that final printed labeling identical in content to the draft copy will be submitted as soon as available and prior to the marketing of the food additive. 
</P>
<P>If the food additive is one for which a tolerance limitation is required to assure its safety, the level of use proposed should be no higher than the amount reasonably required to accomplish the intended physical or other technical effect, even though the safety data may support a higher tolerance.) 
</P>
<P>C. Data establishing that the food additive will have the intended physical or other technical effect or that it may reasonably be expected to become a component, or to affect the characteristics, directly or indirectly, of food and the amount necessary to accomplish this. These data should include information in sufficient detail to permit evaluation with control data. 
</P>
<P>D. A description of practicable methods to determine the amount of the food additive in the raw, processed, and/or finished food and of any substance formed in or on such food because of its use. The test proposed shall be one that can be used for food-control purposes and that can be applied with consistent results by any properly equipped and trained laboratory personnel. 
</P>
<P>E. Full reports of investigations made with respect to the safety of the food additive. 
</P>
<P>(A petition may be regarded as incomplete unless it includes full reports of adequate tests reasonably applicable to show whether or not the food additive will be safe for its intended use. The reports ordinarily should include detailed data derived from appropriate animal and other biological experiments in which the methods used and the results obtained are clearly set forth. The petition shall not omit without explanation any reports of investigations that would bias an evaluation of the safety of the food additive.) 
</P>
<P>F. Proposed tolerances for the food additive, if tolerances are required in order to ensure its safety. A petitioner may include a proposed regulation. 
</P>
<P>G. If submitting petition to modify an existing regulation issued pursuant to section 409(c)(1)(A) of the act, full information on each proposed change that is to be made in the original regulation must be submitted. The petition may omit statements made in the original petition concerning which no change is proposed. A supplemental petition must be submitted for any change beyond the variations provided for in the original petition and the regulation issued on the basis of the original petition. 
</P>
<P>H. The petitioner is required to submit either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.32 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P2>Yours very truly, 
</P2>
<P>    Petitioner ____
</P>
<P>      By ____
</P>
<FRP>(Indicate authority) </FRP></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) The petitioner will be notified of the date on which his petition is filed, and an incomplete petition, or one that has not been submitted in triplicate, will usually be retained but not filed as a petition under section 409 of the act. The petitioner will be notified in what respects his petition is incomplete. 
</P>
<P>(e) The petition must be signed by the petitioner or by his attorney or agent, or (if a corporation) by an authorized official. 
</P>
<P>(f) The data specified under the several lettered headings should be submitted on separate sheets or sets of sheets, suitably identified. If such data have already been submitted with an earlier application, the present petition may incorporate it by specific reference to the earlier. If part of the data have been submitted by the manufacturer of the food additive as a master file, the petitioner may refer to the master file if and to the extent he obtains the manufacturer's written permission to do so. The manufacturer may authorize specific reference to the data without disclosure to the petitioner. Nothing herein shall prevent reference to published data. 
</P>
<P>(g) A petition shall be retained but shall not be filed if any of the data prescribed by section 409(b) of the act are lacking or are not set forth so as to be readily understood. 
</P>
<P>(h)(1) The following data and information in a food additive petition are available for public disclosure, unless extraordinary circumstances are shown, after the notice of filing of the petition is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or, if the petition is not promptly filed because of deficiencies in it, after the petitioner is informed that it will not be filed because of the deficiencies involved: 
</P>
<P>(i) All safety and functionality data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the petition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information, after deletion of: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of all ingredients contained in a food additive, whether or not it is in descending order of predominance. A particular ingredient or group of ingredients shall be deleted from any such list prior to public disclosure if it is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter, and a notation shall be made that any such ingredient list is incomplete. 
</P>
<P>(v) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) The following data and information in a food additive petition are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter: 
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas. 
</P>
<P>(3) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to a food additive petition are available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter when the food additive regulation is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this regulation, safety and functionality data include all studies and tests of a food additive on animals and humans and all studies and tests on a food additive for identity, stability, purity, potency, performance, and usefulness. 
</P>
<P>(i)(1) Within 15 days after receipt, the Commissioner will notify the petitioner of acceptance or nonacceptance of a petition, and if not accepted the reasons therefor. If accepted, the date of the notification letter sent to petitioner becomes the date of filing for the purposes of section 409(b)(5) of the act. If the petitioner desires, he may supplement a deficient petition after being notified regarding deficiencies. If the supplementary material or explanation of the petition is deemed acceptable, petitioner shall be notified. The date of such notification becomes the date of filing. If the petitioner does not wish to supplement or explain the petition and requests in writing that it be filed as submitted, the petition shall be filed and the petitioner so notified. The date of such notification becomes the date of filing. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 30 days from the date of filing of such petition, a notice of the filing, the name of the petitioner, and a brief description of the proposal in general terms. In the case of a food additive which becomes a component of food by migration from packaging material, the notice shall include the name of the migratory substance, and where it is different from that of one of the original components, the name of the parent component, the maximum quantity of the migratory substance that is proposed for use in food, and the physical or other technical effect which the migratory substance or its parent component is intended to have in the packaging material. A copy of the notice will be mailed to the petitioner when the original is forwarded to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication. 
</P>
<P>(j) The Commissioner may request a full description of the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the production of the food additive, or a sample of the food additive, articles used as components thereof, or of the food in which the additive is proposed to be used, at any time while a petition is under consideration. The Commissioner shall specify in the request for a sample of the food additive, or articles used as components thereof, or of the food in or on which the additive is proposed to be used, a quantity deemed adequate to permit tests of analytical methods to determine quantities of the food additive present in foods for which it is intended to be used or adequate for any study or investigation reasonably required with respect to the safety of the food additive or the physical or technical effect it produces. The date used for computing the 90-day limit for the purposes of section 409(c)(2) of the act shall be moved forward 1 day for each day after the mailing date of the request taken by the petitioner to submit the sample. If the information or sample is requested a reasonable time in advance of the 180 days, but is not submitted within such 180 days after filing of the petition, the petition will be considered withdrawn without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(k) If nonclinical laboratory studies are involved, petitions filed with the Commissioner under section 409(b) of the act shall include, with respect to each study, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38647, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 15675, Mar. 22, 1977; 50 FR 7518, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985; 52 FR 8583, Mar. 19, 1987; 57 FR 6476, Feb. 25, 1992; 62 FR 40600, July 29, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.6" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.6   Amendment of petition.</HEAD>
<P>After a petition has been filed, the petitioner may submit additional information or data in support thereof. In such cases, if the Commissioner determines that the additional information or data amounts to a substantive amendment, the petition as amended will be given a new filing date, and the time limitation will begin to run anew. If nonclinical laboratory studies are involved, additional information and data submitted in support of filed petitions shall include, with respect to each such study, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason or the noncompliance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38647, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 50 FR 7518, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 16668, Apr. 26, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.7" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.7   Withdrawal of petition without prejudice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In some cases the Commissioner will notify the petitioner that the petition, while technically complete, is inadequate to justify the establishment of a regulation or the regulation requested by petitioner. This may be due to the fact that the data are not sufficiently clear or complete. In such cases, the petitioner may withdraw the petition pending its clarification or the obtaining of additional data. This withdrawal will be without prejudice to a future filing. Upon refiling, the time limitation will begin to run anew from the date of refiling. 
</P>
<P>(b) At any time before the order provided for in § 571.100(a) has been forwarded to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication, the petitioner may withdraw the petition without prejudice to a future filing. Upon refiling the time limitation will begin to run anew. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Actions on Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.100" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.100   Regulation based on petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner will forward for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> within 90 days after filing of the petition (or within 180 days if the time is extended as provided for in section 409(c)(2) of the act), a regulation prescribing the conditions under which the food additive may be safely used (including, but not limited to, specifications as to the particular food or classes of food in or on which such additive may be used, the maximum quantity that may be used or permitted to remain in or on such food, the manner in which such additive may be added to or used in or on such food, and any directions or other labeling or packaging requirements for such additive deemed necessary by him to assure the safety of such use), and prior to the forwarding of the order to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication shall notify the petitioner of such order and the reasons for such action; or by order deny the petition, and shall notify the petitioner of such order and of the reasons for such action. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commissioner determines that additional time is needed to study and investigate the petition, he shall by written notice to the petitioner extend the 90-day period for not more than 180 days after the filing of the petition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.102" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.102   Effective date of regulation.</HEAD>
<P>A regulation published in accordance with § 571.100(a) shall become effective upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.110" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.110   Procedure for objections and hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Objections and hearings relating to food additive regulations under section 409(c), (d), or (h) of the act shall be governed by part 12 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 4717, Jan. 25, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.115   Application of the cancer clause of section 409 of the act.</HEAD>
<P>Food additives intended for use as an ingredient in food for animals that are raised for food production and that have the potential to contaminate human food with residues whose consumption could present a risk of cancer to people must satisfy the requirements of subpart E of part 500 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49588, Dec. 31, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 571.130" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.22.2.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 571.130   Procedure for amending and repealing tolerances or exemptions from tolerances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner, on his own initiative or on the petition of any interested person, pursuant to part 10 of this chapter, may propose the issuance of a regulation amending or repealing a regulation pertaining to a food additive or granting or repealing an exception for such additive. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any such petition shall include an assertion of facts, supported by data, showing that new information exists with respect to the food additive or that new uses have been developed or old uses abandoned, that new data are available as to toxicity of the chemical, or that experience with the existing regulation or exemption may justify its amendment or repeal. New data shall be furnished in the form specified in § 571.1 for submitting petitions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 4717, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="573" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 573—FOOD ADDITIVES PERMITTED IN FEED AND DRINKING WATER OF ANIMALS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Food Additive Listing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.120" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.120   Acrylamide-acrylic acid resin.</HEAD>
<P>Acrylamide-acrylic acid resin (hydrolized polyacrylamide), only for the purposes of this section as described below, may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced by polymerization of acrylamide with partial hydrolysis, or by copolymerization of acrylamide and acrylic acid with the greater part of the polymer being composed of acrylamide units. 
</P>
<P>(b) The additive meets the following specifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) A minimum molecular weight of 3 million. 
</P>
<P>(2) Viscosity range: 3,000 to 6,000 centipoises at 77 °F in a 1 percent aqueous solution as determined by LVF Brookfield Viscometer or equivalent using a number 6 spindle at 20 r.p.m. 
</P>
<P>(3) Residual acrylamide: Not more than 0.05 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is used as a thickener and suspending agent in nonmedicated aqueous suspensions intended for addition to animal feeds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 45 FR 38058, June 6, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.130" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.130   Aminoglycoside 3′-phospho- transferase II.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive aminoglycoside 3′-phosphotransferase II may be safely used in the development of genetically modified cotton, oilseed rape, and tomatoes in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the enzyme aminoglycoside 3′-phosphotransferase II (CAS Reg. No. 58943-39-8) which catalyzes the phosphorylation of certain aminoglycoside antibiotics, including kanamycin, neomycin, and gentamicin. 
</P>
<P>(b) Aminoglycoside 3′-phosphotransferase II is encoded by the <I>kan</I>
<SU>r</SU> gene originally isolated from transposon Tn<I>5</I> of the bacterium <I>Escherichia coli.</I> 
</P>
<P>(c) The level of the additive does not exceed the amount reasonably required for selection of plant cells carrying the <I>kan</I>
<SU>r</SU> gene along with the genetic material of interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26711, May 23, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.140" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.140   Ammoniated cottonseed meal.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive ammoniated cottonseed meal may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the product obtained by the treatment of cottonseed meal with anhydrous ammonia until a pressure of 50 pounds per square inch gauge is reached. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use in the feed of ruminants as a source of protein and/or as a source of nonprotein nitrogen in an amount not to exceed 20 percent of the total ration. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use, the label and labeling of the additive and of any feed additive supplement, concentrate, or premix prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum percentage of equivalent crude protein from the nonprotein nitrogen. 
</P>
<P>(3) Directions for use to provide not more than 20 percent of the additive in the total ration. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement: 
</P>
<P>(i) That not more than one-third of the total protein in the feed should come from nonprotein nitrogen sources. 
</P>
<P>(ii) That the additive is not to be given to debilitated or starved animals. 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Warning—This feed should be used only in accordance with directions furnished on the label.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 52397, Sept. 30, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.160" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.160   Ammoniated rice hulls.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive ammoniated rice hulls may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the product obtained by the treatment of ground rice hulls with monocalcium phosphate and anhydrous ammonia at a temperature of 350 °F and a pressure of 175 pounds per square inch. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use in the feed of beef cattle as a source of crude fiber and as the sole source of nonprotein nitrogen in an amount not to exceed 20 percent of the total ration. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and of any feed additive supplement, feed additive concentrate, or feed additive premix prepared therefrom, shall contain, in addition to other information required by the act, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum percentage of equivalent crude protein from the nonprotein nitrogen. 
</P>
<P>(3) Directions for use to provide not more than 20 percent of the additive in the total ration, and a prominent statement: “Warning—This feed should be used only in accordance with the directions furnished on the label.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.170" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.170   Ammonium formate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, ammonium formate, may be safely used in the manufacture of complete swine feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is manufactured by the reaction of 99.5 percent ammonia gas and 99 percent formic acid in a continuous loop reactor to produce a solution made up of 37 percent ammonium salt of formic acid and 62 percent formic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a feed acidifying agent, to lower the pH, in complete swine feeds at levels not to exceed 1.2 percent of the complete feed.
</P>
<P>(c) To ensure safe use of the additive, formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use including a statement that ammonium formate must be uniformly applied and thoroughly mixed into complete swine feeds and that the complete swine feeds so treated shall be labeled as containing ammonium formate.
</P>
<P>(3) Cautions for use including this statement: Caution: Follow label directions. Formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(e) To ensure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and paragraph (d) of this section, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate warnings and safety precautions concerning ammonium formate (37 percent ammonium salt of formic acid and 62 percent formic acid).
</P>
<P>(2) Statements identifying ammonium formate in formic acid (37 percent ammonium salt of formic acid and 62 percent formic acid) as a corrosive and possible severe irritant.
</P>
<P>(3) Information about emergency aid in case of accidental exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Statements reflecting requirements of applicable sections of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA), and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) human safety guidance regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contact address and telephone number for reporting adverse reactions or to request a copy of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 41725, July 19, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 42692, July 17, 2013; 82 FR 52209, Nov. 13, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.180" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.180   Anhydrous ammonia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food additive anhydrous ammonia is applied directly to corn plant material and thoroughly blended prior to ensiling. It is used or intended for use as a source of nonprotein nitrogen in cattle feed in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1), (2), or (3) as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The food additive anhydrous ammonia is applied as a component of an aqueous premix containing 16 to 17 percent ammonia, with molasses, minerals, and not less than 83 percent crude protein. The premix is a source of nonprotein nitrogen and minerals. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, the labeling shall bear an expiration date of not more than 10 weeks after date of manufacture; a statement that additional protein should not be fed to lactating dairy cows producing less than 32 pounds of milk per day nor beef cattle consuming less than 1 percent of body weight daily in shelled corn; and a warning not to use additional trace mineral supplementation with treated silage.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The food additive anhydrous ammonia is applied directly to corn plant material for use in dairy or beef cattle rations. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The anhydrous ammonia is applied at a rate not to exceed the equivalent of 0.35 percent of the corn plant material. 
</P>
<P>(iii) It is applied to corn plant material containing 30 to 35 percent dry matter.
</P>
<P>(iv) It is applied so that 75 to 85 percent of the additive is liquid at ambient pressure.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The food additive anhydrous ammonia is applied after being diluted to a 15 to 30 percent aqueous ammonia solution (by weight).
</P>
<P>(ii) The anhydrous ammonia solution is applied at a rate not to exceed anhydrous ammonia equivalent to 0.3 percent of the corn plant material.
</P>
<P>(iii) It is applied to corn plant material containing 28 to 38 percent dry matter.
</P>
<P>(iv) The silage treated with aqueous ammonia is to be fed to dairy cattle only.
</P>
<P>(b) Its labeling shall bear, in addition to the other requirements of the act, the name of the additive, the concentration of ammonia, the maximum percentage of equivalent crude protein from nonprotein nitrogen, and directions for use consistent with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 40284, July 10, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.200   Condensed animal protein hydrolysate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The condensed animal protein hydrolysate is produced from the meat byproducts scraped from cured (salted) hides taken from cattle slaughtered for food consumption. The meat byproduct is hydrolyzed with heat and phosphoric acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The additive shall conform to the following percent-by-weight specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Moisture, not less than 45 percent nor more than 50 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Protein, not less than 24 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salt (NaCl), not more than 15 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphorus, not less than 2.25 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses.</I> It is used or intended for use as a source of animal protein, phosphorus, and salt (NaCl) as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In poultry and swine feed in an amount not to exceed 5 percent by weight of the feed. 
</P>
<P>(2) In feed concentrates for cattle in an amount not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the concentrate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label and labeling shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, condensed animal protein hydrolysate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use including maximum quantities permitted for each species and a guaranteed analysis of the additive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.210" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.210   Benzoic acid.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, benzoic acid, may be safely used in the manufacture of complete swine feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is used or intended for use as a feed acidifying agent, to lower the pH, in complete swine feeds at levels not to exceed 0.5 percent of the complete feed.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive consists of not less than 99.5 percent benzoic acid (CAS 65-85-0) by weight with the sum of 2-methylbiphenyl, 3-methylbiphenyl, 4-methylbiphenyl, benzyl benzoate, and isomers of dimethylbiphenyl not to exceed 0.01 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and paragraph (b) of this section, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use including a statement that benzoic acid must be uniformly applied and thoroughly mixed into complete swine feeds and that the complete swine feeds so treated shall be labeled as containing benzoic acid.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate warnings and safety precautions concerning benzoic acid.
</P>
<P>(4) A warning statement identifying benzoic acid as a possible irritant.
</P>
<P>(5) Information about emergency aid in case of accidental exposure.
</P>
<P>(6) Contact address and telephone number for reporting adverse reactions or to request a copy of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 14176, Mar. 13, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.220" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.220   Feed-grade biuret.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive feed grade biuret may be safely used in ruminant feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the product resulting from the controlled pyrolysis of urea conforming to the following specifications:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Biuret</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 minimum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanuric acid and triuret</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total nitrogen (equivalent to 218.75 pct crude protein)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35 minimum.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) It is used in ruminant feeds as a source of nonprotein nitrogen. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive: 
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive and that of any feed additive supplement, feed additive concentrate, feed additive premix, or complete feed prepared therefrom shall contain, in addition to other information required by the act, the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum percentage of equivalent crude protein from nonprotein nitrogen. 
</P>
<P>(2) The label shall recommend that the diet be balanced to provide adequate nutrients when equivalent crude protein from all forms of nonprotein nitrogen exceed one-third of the total crude protein in the total daily ration. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 68 FR 27904, May 22, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.225" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.225   1,3-Butylene glycol.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive 1,3-butylene glycol (1,3-butanediol) may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) It complies with the specifications in § 173.220(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) It is intended for use in swine feed as a source of energy.
</P>
<P>(c) It is to be thoroughly mixed into feed at levels not to exceed 9 percent of the dry matter of the total ration.
</P>
<P>(d) 1,3-Butylene glycol should be mixed in feed with equipment adapted for the addition of liquids, and the feed should be mixed not less than 5 minutes after its addition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 40061, Oct. 13, 1988]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.230" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.230   Calcium formate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive calcium formate may be safely used in the manufacture of complete swine and poultry feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is manufactured by the reaction of butyraldehyde, formaldehyde, calcium hydroxide, and formic acid in water followed by purification and dried to produce a powder consisting of not less than 99.0 percent calcium formate (CAS 544-17-2). The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The additive consists of minimum 30.5 percent calcium and minimum 68.5 percent formate.
</P>
<P>(2) Trimethylolpropane (TMP) not to exceed 125 parts per million.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a feed acidifying agent, to lower the pH, in complete swine or poultry feeds at levels not to exceed 1.2 percent of the complete feed.
</P>
<P>(c) To ensure safe use of the additive, formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(d) To ensure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use including a statement that calcium formate must be uniformly applied and thoroughly mixed into complete feeds and that the complete feeds so treated shall be labeled as containing calcium formate.
</P>
<P>(3) Cautions for use including this statement: Caution: Follow label directions. Formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(e) To ensure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the act and paragraph (d) of this section, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate warnings and safety precautions concerning calcium formate.
</P>
<P>(2) Statements identifying calcium formate as a possible severe irritant.
</P>
<P>(3) Information about emergency aid in case of accidental exposure as follows.
</P>
<P>(i) Statements reflecting requirements of applicable sections of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act, and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) human safety guidance regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contact address and telephone number for reporting adverse reactions or to request a copy of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 87671, Dec. 19, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.240" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.240   Calcium periodate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive calcium periodate may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced by reacting calcium iodate with calcium hydroxide or calcium oxide to form a substance consisting of not less than 60 percent by weight of penta calcium orthoperiodate containing 28 to 31 percent by weight of iodine. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use in salt for livestock as a source of iodine. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.260   Calcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>Calcium silicate, including synthetic calcium silicate, may be safely used as an anticaking agent in animal feed, provided that the amount of calcium silicate does not exceed 2 percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.280" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.280   Feed-grade calcium stearate and sodium stearate.</HEAD>
<P>Feed-grade calcium stearate and sodium stearate may be safely used in an animal feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Feed-grade calcium stearate and sodium stearate are the calcium or sodium salts of a fatty acid mixture that is predominately stearic acid. Associated fatty acids, including palmitic acid and minor amounts of lauric, myristic, pentadecanoic, margaric, arachidic, and other fatty acids may be contained in the mixture, but such associated fatty acids in aggregate do not exceed 35 percent by weight of the mixture. The fatty acids may be derived from feed-grade fats or oils.
</P>
<P>(b) The additives meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Unsaponifiable matter does not exceed 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) They are free of chick-edema factor.
</P>
<P>(c) The additives are manufactured so that in aqueous solution they are exposed for 1 hour or longer to temperature in excess of 180 °F.
</P>
<P>(d) They are used as anticaking agents in animal feeds in accordance with current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 8573, Feb. 20, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.300" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.300   Choline xanthate.</HEAD>
<P>Choline xanthate may be safely used as a component of animal feed as an added source of choline to supplement the diets of poultry, ruminants, and swine in accordance with good feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.304" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.304   Chromium propionate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive chromium propionate may be safely used in animal feed as a source of supplemental chromium in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is manufactured by the reaction of a chromium salt with propionic acid, at an appropriate stoichiometric ratio, to produce triaqua-(mu<E T="52">3</E>-oxo) hexakis (mu<E T="52">2</E>-propionato-<I>O,O</I>′) trichromium propionate with the empirical formula, [Cr<E T="52">3</E>(O)(CH<E T="52">3</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>CO<E T="52">2</E>)<E T="52">6</E>(H<E T="52">2</E>O)<E T="52">3</E>]CH<E T="52">3</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>CO<E T="52">2</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is added to feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In complete feed for broiler chickens and growing turkeys at a level not to exceed 0.2 milligrams (mg) of chromium from chromium propionate per kilogram feed.
</P>
<P>(2) In feed for horses at a level not to exceed an intake of 4 mg of chromium from chromium propionate per horse per day.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Total chromium content, 8 to 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Hexavalent chromium content, less than 2 parts per million (ppm).
</P>
<P>(3) Arsenic, less than 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(4) Cadmium, less than 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(5) Lead, less than 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(6) Mercury, less than 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(7) Viscosity, not more than 2,000 centipoise.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive shall be incorporated into feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) It shall be incorporated into each ton of feed by adding no less than one pound of a premix containing no more than 181.4 milligrams of added chromium from chromium propionate per pound.
</P>
<P>(2) The premix manufacturer shall follow good manufacturing practices in the production of chromium propionate premixes. Inventory, production, and distribution records must provide a complete and accurate history of product production.
</P>
<P>(3) Chromium from all sources of supplemental chromium cannot exceed:
</P>
<P>(i) A level of 0.2 ppm in complete feed for broiler chickens and growing turkeys.
</P>
<P>(ii) An intake of 4 mg per horse per day.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive, any feed premix, and feed shall contain the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label and labeling of the additive and any feed premix shall also contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A guarantee for added chromium content.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate directions for use and cautions for use including these statements: “Caution: Follow label directions” and consistent with the directions for use, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) For feed for broiler chickens and growing turkeys, “Chromium from all sources of supplemental chromium cannot exceed 0.2 parts per million of the complete feed.”
</P>
<P>(B) For feed for horses, “Chromium from all sources of supplemental chromium cannot exceed 4 milligrams per horse per day.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 35611, June 3, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 14566, Mar. 13, 2020; 85 FR 48650, Aug. 12, 2020; 89 FR 5768, Jan. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.310" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.310   Crambe meal, heat toasted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The additive is the seed meal of <I>Crambe abyssinica</I> obtained after the removal of oil from the seed and hull. The oil may be removed by pre-press solvent extraction or by solvent extraction alone. The resulting seed meal is heat toasted.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive conforms to the following percent-by-weight specifications: moisture, not more than 11 percent; oil, not more than 4 percent; crude protein, not less than 24 percent; crude fiber, not more than 26 percent; glucosinolate calculated as epi-progoitrin, not more than 4 percent; goitrin, not more than 0.1 percent; nitrile calculated as 1-cyano-2-hydroxy-3-butene, not more than 1.4 percent. At least 50 percent of the nitrogen shall be soluble in 0.5 <I>M</I> sodium chloride. Myrosinase enzyme activity shall be absent.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use in the feed of feedlot cattle as a source of protein in an amount not to exceed 4.2 percent of the total ration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 30082, June 5, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.320" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.320   Diammonium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive diammonium phosphate may be safely used in ruminant feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is the product resulting from the neutralization of feeding-phosphoric-acid or defluorinated wet-process phosphoric acid with anhydrous ammonia. It contains not less than 106.25 percent equivalent crude protein (nitrogen × 6.25) and 20 percent phosphorus. It contains not more than the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>1 part fluorine to 100 parts phosphorus. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>75 parts per million or arsenic (as As). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>30 parts per million of heavy metals, as lead (Pb).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is used in ruminant feeds as a source of phosphorus and nitrogen in an amount that supplies not more than 2 percent of equivalent crude protein in the total daily ration. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and that of any feed additive supplement, feed additive concentrate, feed additive premix, or complete feed prepared therefrom shall contain, in addition to other information required by the act, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum percentage of equivalent crude protein from the nonprotein nitrogen. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the feed additive premix, feed additive concentrate, or feed additive supplement contains more than 2 percent equivalent crude protein from diammonium phosphate, adequate directions for use and a prominent statement, “Warning—This feed should be used only in accordance with directions furnished on the label.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.340" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.340   Diatomaceous earth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The additive consists of siliceous skeletal material derived from various species of diatoms. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The additive shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Lead, not more than 15 parts per million. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic (as As), not more than 20 parts per million 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorine, not more than 600 parts per million.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Uses.</I> It is used or intended for use as an inert carrier or anticaking agent in animal feeds in an amount not to exceed 2 percent by weight of the total ration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.360" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.360   Disodium EDTA.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive disodium EDTA (disodium ethylenediaminetetraace- tate) may be safely used in animal feeds, in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive contains a minimum of 99 percent disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate dihydrate (C<E T="52">10</E>H<E T="52">14</E>O<E T="52">8</E>N<E T="52">2</E>Na<E T="52">2</E> · 2H<E T="52">2</E>O). 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used to solubilize trace minerals in aqueous solutions, which are then added to animal feeds. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use in an amount not to exceed 240 parts per million of the additive in finished feed. 
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive the label and labeling shall bear: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate mixing directions to ensure that the chelated trace-mineral mix is uniformly blended throughout the feed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.380" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.380   Ethoxyquin in animal feeds.</HEAD>
<P>Ethoxyquin (1,2-dihydro-6-ethoxy-2,2,4-trimethylquinoline) may be safely used in animal feeds, when incorporated therein in accordance with the following prescribed conditions. 
</P>
<P>(a) It is intended for use only: (1) As a chemical preservative for retarding oxidation of carotene, xanthophylls, and vitamins A and E in animal feed and fish food and, (2) as an aid in preventing the development of organic peroxides in canned pet food. 
</P>
<P>(b) The maximum quantity of the additive permitted to be used and to remain in or on the treated article shall not exceed 150 parts per million. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the food additive container and that of any intermediate premixes prepared therefrom shall contain, in addition to other information required by the act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, ethoxyquin. 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the concentration or strength contained therein. 
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate use directions to provide for a finished article with the proper concentration of the additive as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, whether or not intermediate premixes are to be used. 
</P>
<P>(d) The label of any animal feed containing the additive shall, in addition to the other information required by the act, bear the statement “Ethoxyquin, a preservative” or “Ethoxyquin added to retard the oxidative destruction of carotene, xanthophylls, and vitamins A and E.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.400" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.400   Ethoxyquin in certain dehydrated forage crops.</HEAD>
<P>Ethoxyquin (1,2-dihydro-6-ethoxy-2,2,4-trimethylquinoline) may be safely used in the dehydrated forage crops listed in paragraph (a) of this section when incorporated therein in accordance with the conditions prescribed in this section: 
</P>
<P>(a) It may be added to dehydrated forage prepared from:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alfalfa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medicago sativa.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barley</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hordeum vulgare.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clovers:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Alsike clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trifolium hybridum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crimson clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trifolium incarnatum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Red clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trifolium pratense.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">White clover (including Ladino)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trifolium repens.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">White sweetclover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melilotus alba.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Yellow sweetclover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melilotus officinalis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coastal Bermudagrass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cynodon dactylon.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corn</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zea mays.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fescue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Festuca sp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oats</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Avena sativa.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orchardgrass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dactylis glomerata.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reed canarygrass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pharlaris arundinacea.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ryegrass (annual and perennial)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elymus sp. and Lolium perenne.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sorghums</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sorghum vulgare vars, feterita, shallu, kaoliang, broomcorn.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sudan grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sorghum vulgare sudanense.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Triticum aestivum.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>or any mixture of such forage crops, for use only as an animal feed. 
</FP>
<P>(b) Such additive is used only as a chemical preservative for the purpose of retarding oxidative destruction of naturally occurring carotenes and vitamin E in the forage crops. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is added to the dehydrated forage crops in an oil mixture containing only suitable animal or suitable vegetable oil, prior to grinding and mixing. 
</P>
<P>(d) The maximum quantity of the additive permitted to be used and to remain in or on the dehydrated forage crop shall not exceed 150 parts per million. 
</P>
<P>(e) To assure the safe use of the additive, the label of the market package shall contain, in addition to other information required by the act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive as specified in this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Directions for the incorporation of the additive in the forage crops, as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, with the directive that only suitable animal or suitable vegetable oils are to be used in the oil mix. 
</P>
<P>(f) The label of any dehydrated forage crops treated with the additive or the label of an animal-feed supplement containing such treated forage crops, shall, in addition to other information required by the act, bear the following statements: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Ethoxyquin, a preservative,” or “Ethoxyquin added to retard the oxidative destruction of carotene and vitamin E.” 
</P>
<P>(2) The statement “For use in animal feed only.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.420" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.420   Ethyl cellulose.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive ethyl cellulose may be safely used in animal feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is a cellulose ether containing ethoxy (OC<E T="52">2</E>H<E T="52">5</E>) groups attached by an ether linkage and containing on an anhydrous basis not more than 2.6 ethoxy groups per anhydroglucose unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use:
</P>
<P>(1) As a binder or filler in dry vitamin preparations to be incorporated into animal feed.
</P>
<P>(2) As a matrix scaffolding for tracers, and the ethyl cellulose content shall not exceed 80 percent of the tracer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 89 FR 48508, June 7, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.440" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.440   Ethylene dichloride.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive ethylene dichloride may be safely used in the manufacture of animal feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) It is used as a solvent in the extraction processing of animal byproducts for use in animal feeds. 
</P>
<P>(b) The maximum quantity of the additive permitted to remain in or on the extracted byproducts shall not exceed 300 parts per million. 
</P>
<P>(c) The extracted animal byproduct is added as a source of protein to a total ration at levels consistent with good feeding practices, but in no event at levels exceeding 13 percent of the total ration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.450" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.450   Fermented ammoniated condensed whey.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The product is produced by the <I>Lactobacillus delbrueckii</I> fermentation of whey with the addition of ammonia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The product contains 35 to 55 percent crude protein and not more than 42 percent equivalent crude protein from nonprotein nitrogen sources.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses.</I> The product is used as a source of protein and nonprotein nitrogen for cattle.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> (1) Store in a closed vented tank equipped for agitation. Agitate 5 minutes before using. Do not store at temperature above 110 °F (43 °C). 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum level of use of fermented ammoniated condensed whey and equivalent crude protein from all other added forms of nonprotein nitrogen shall not exceed 30 percent of the dietary crude protein. 
</P>
<P>(3) The additive may be used as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Mixed with grain, roughage, or grain and roughage prior to feeding. 
</P>
<P>(ii) As a component of free-choice liquid feeds, used to supplement the diets of cattle fed other sources of nutrients, fermented ammoniated condensed whey shall not exceed 80 percent of the free-choice liquid feed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Labeling.</I> The label shall bear, in addition to other information required by the act:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum percentage of equivalent crude protein from nonprotein nitrogen.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use in accordance with the provisions in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 33708, July 1, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 49115, Oct. 6, 1981; 89 FR 67856, Aug. 22, 2024]

 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.460" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.460   Formaldehyde.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive formaldehyde may be safely used in the manufacture of animal feeds in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is used, or intended for use, to improve the handling characteristics of fat by producing a dry, free-flowing product, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For animal fat in combination with certain oilseed meals, as a component of dry, nonpelletted feeds for beef and nonlactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(i) An aqueous blend of soybean and sunflower meals in a ratio of 3:1, respectively, is mixed with animal fat such that the oilseed meals and animal fat are in a ratio of 3:2. The feed ingredients are those defined by the “Official Publication” of the Association of American Feed Control Officials, Inc., 2003 ed., pp. 303, 308, and 309, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the Assistant Secretary-Treasurer, Association of American Feed Control Officials Inc., P.O. Box 478, Oxford, IN 47971, or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) Formaldehyde (37 percent solution) is added to the mixture at a level of 4 percent of the dry matter weight of the oilseed meals and animal fat. This mixture, upon drying, contains not more than 1 percent formaldehyde and not more than 12 percent moisture.
</P>
<P>(iii) To assure the safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), the label and labeling of the dried mixture shall bear:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(B) Adequate directions for use providing that the feed as consumed does not contain more than 25 percent of the mixture.
</P>
<P>(2) For soybean and canola seeds and/or meals to which there may be added vegetable oil as a component of dry, nonpelleted feeds for beef and dairy cattle, including lactating dairy cattle.
</P>
<P>(i) An aqueous blend of oilseed and/or meals, with or without added vegetable oil, in a ratio such that, on a dry matter basis, the final protein level will be 25 to 35 percent and the fat content will be 20 to 45 percent. The feed ingredients are those defined by the “Official Publication” of the Association of American Feed Control Officials, Inc., 2003 ed., pp. 301, 307, 308, and 309, which is incorporated by reference. The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies from the Assistant Secretary-Treasurer, Association of American Feed Control Officials Inc., P.O. Box 478, Oxford, IN 47971, or you may examine a copy at the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) Formaldehyde (37 percent solution) is added to the mixture at a level of 2.7 percent of the dry matter weight basis of the oilseeds and/or meals and the vegetable oil. This mixture, upon drying, contains not more than 0.5 percent formaldehyde and not more than 12 percent moisture.
</P>
<P>(iii) To assure the safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the act, the label and labeling of the dried mixture shall bear:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(B) The statement, “This supplement is not to exceed 12.5% of the total ration. Dietary calcium and magnesium levels should be considered when supplementing the diet with fat.”
</P>
<P>(C) The minimum and maximum levels of crude fat must be guaranteed and must be between −5 percent and +5 percent of the analyzed fat content for each batch.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The food additive is formaldehyde (CAS No. 50-00-0; 37 percent aqueous solution). It is used at a rate of 5.4 pounds (2.5 kilograms) per ton of animal feed or feed ingredient. It is an antimicrobial agent used to maintain complete animal feeds or feed ingredients <I>Salmonella</I> negative for up to 21 days.
</P>
<P>(2) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that formaldehyde solution which has been stored below 40 °F or allowed to freeze should not be applied to complete animal feeds or feed ingredients.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate directions for use including a statement that formaldehyde should be uniformly sprayed on and thoroughly mixed into the complete animal feeds or feed ingredients and that the complete animal feeds or feed ingredients so treated shall be labeled as containing formaldehyde. The label must prominently display the statement: “Treated with formaldehyde to maintain feed <I>Salmonella</I> negative. Use within 21 days.”
</P>
<P>(iv) The labeling for feed or feed ingredients to which formaldehyde has been added under the provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section is required to carry the following statement: “Treated with formaldehyde to maintain feed <I>Salmonella</I> negative. Use within 21 days.”
</P>
<P>(3) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate warnings and safety precautions concerning formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(ii) Statements identifying formaldehyde as a poison with potentials for adverse respiratory effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information about emergency aid in case of accidental inhalation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Statements reflecting requirements of applicable sections of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA), and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) human safety guidance regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) Contact address and phone number for reporting adverse reactions or to request a copy of the Materials Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 54 FR 18281, Apr. 28, 1989; 61 FR 15704, Apr. 9, 1996; 63 FR 53580, Oct. 6, 1998; 68 FR 65633, Nov. 21, 2003; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.480" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.480   Formic acid.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, formic acid, may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is used as a preservative in hay crop silage in an amount not to exceed 2.25 percent of the silage on a dry weight basis or 0.45 percent when direct cut, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The top foot of silage stored should not contain formic acid and
</P>
<P>(2) Silage should not be fed to livestock within 4 weeks of treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a feed acidifying agent, to lower the pH, in complete feed for swine and poultry at levels not to exceed 1.2 percent of the complete feed.
</P>
<P>(1) The additive consists of not less than 85 percent formic acid (CAS 64-18-6).
</P>
<P>(2) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Free methyl alcohol not to exceed 1,000 parts per million (ppm);
</P>
<P>(ii) Methyl formate not to exceed 1,000 ppm; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Moisture not to exceed 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) To ensure safe use of the additive, formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(4) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate directions for use including a statement that formic acid must be uniformly applied and thoroughly mixed into complete feeds and that the complete feeds so treated shall be labeled as containing formic acid.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cautions for use including this statement: Caution: Follow label directions. Formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(5) To ensure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate warnings and safety precautions concerning formic acid (85 percent formic acid).
</P>
<P>(ii) Statements identifying formic acid (85 percent formic acid) as a corrosive and possible severe irritant.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information about emergency aid in case of accidental exposure.
</P>
<P>(A) Statements reflecting requirements of applicable sections of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA), and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) human safety guidance regulations.
</P>
<P>(B) Contact address and telephone number for reporting adverse reactions or to request a copy of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 7106, Feb. 9, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 52209, Nov. 13, 2017; 83 FR 20, Jan. 2, 2018; 83 FR 66618, Dec. 27, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.485" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.485   Fumonisin esterase.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive fumonisin esterase may be safely used to degrade fumonisins in swine and poultry feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Fumonisin esterase, a carboxylesterase, is produced by a nontoxigenic and nonpathogenic yeast, <I>Komagataella phaffii,</I> genetically engineered to express the fumonisin esterase gene from the bacterium <I>Sphingopyxis</I> sp. Hydrolyzed fumonisin and two tricarballylic acid molecules are the reaction products of fumonisin hydrolysis by this 493 amino acid fumonisin esterase enzyme.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive shall meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The fermentation media for the <I>Komagataella phaffii</I> shall not contain methanol.
</P>
<P>(2) Viable genetically engineered <I>Komagataella phaffii</I> shall not be present.
</P>
<P>(3) One unit of fumonisin esterase activity is defined as the amount of enzymatic activity required to release one micromole of tricarballylic acid (CAS 99-14-9) per minute from 100 micromolar fumonisin B1 in 20 millimolar Tris-hydrochloride buffer (pH 8.0) containing 0.1 milligram per milliliter of bovine serum albumin at 30 °C.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is incorporated at a minimum of 15 units of fumonisin esterase activity per kilogram of complete feed:
</P>
<P>(1) Complete swine feeds cannot contain more than 10 parts per million of total fumonisins.
</P>
<P>(2) Complete feed for poultry being raised for slaughter cannot contain more than 50 parts per million of total fumonisins.
</P>
<P>(3) Complete feed for breeding poultry and hens laying eggs for human consumption cannot contain more than 15 parts per million of total fumonisins.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive, any feed premix, and complete feed shall contain the common or usual name of the additive's source, dried <I>Komagataella phaffii</I> fermentation product.
</P>
<P>(2) The label and labeling of the additive and any feed premix shall also contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Adequate directions for use including a statement that the additive must be uniformly applied and thoroughly mixed into complete feeds;
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee for the minimum amount of fumonisin esterase activity, expressed in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and the unit of weight being consistent with the inclusion rate stated in the directions for use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate warning and safety precaution statements concerning the additive as a respiratory sensitizer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A cautionary statement concerning the maximum fumonisin content as established in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 47344, Aug. 3, 2022, as amended at 87 FR 52682, Aug. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.490" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.490   Gamma-linolenic acid safflower meal.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive consists of the meal obtained after the removal of most of the oil from whole seeds or partially dehulled seeds or both obtained from a <I>Carthamus tinctorius</I> L. safflower Centennial variety genetically engineered to express the delta-6-desaturase gene from <I>Saprolegnia diclina</I> Humphrey. The 453 amino acid, delta-6-desaturase enzyme converts the fatty acid linoleic acid to gamma-linolenic acid during seed development. The resulting additive may be safely used in cattle and poultry feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive shall contain not less than 20 percent crude protein, not more than 40 percent crude fiber, not more than 10 percent moisture, and not more than 2 percent crude fat.
</P>
<P>(b) The crude fat in the additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Gamma-linolenic acid content not to exceed 55 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Total content of stearidonic acid and cis, cis-6, 9-octadecadienoic acid not to exceed a total of 0.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Total content of palmitic, stearic, oleic, linoleic, and other associated fatty acids to exceed a total of 40 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used or intended for use in cattle and poultry feeds as a source of protein in accordance with good manufacturing and feeding practices.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling of the additive, any feed premix, or complete feed shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive or the common name, safflower meal.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use in cattle and poultry feeds.
</P>
<P>(e) The additive may be identified by the common or usual name, safflower meal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35569, June 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.492" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.492   Gamma-linolenic acid safflower oil.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, gamma-linolenic acid safflower oil, may be safely used in animal food as a source of gamma-linolenic acid and other omega-6 fatty acids in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the oil obtained from whole seeds and/or partially dehulled seeds of a <I>Carthamus tinctorius</I> L. safflower Centennial variety genetically engineered to express the delta-6-desaturase gene from <I>Saprolegnia diclina</I> Humphrey. The 453 amino acid, delta-6-desaturase enzyme converts the fatty acid linoleic acid to gamma-linolenic acid (all-<I>cis</I>-6,9,12-octadecatrienoic acid) during seed development.
</P>
<P>(1) The additive obtained from the seeds of the genetically engineered safflower Centennial variety may be blended with oil obtained from seeds of non-engineered oleic acid safflower varieties in order to meet the specifications required for the additive or the blend in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The additive or a safflower oil blend containing the additive for use in animal food meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Crude fat content of the additive or the safflower oil blend is not less than 99.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Gamma-linolenic acid content is between 350 and 450 milligrams (mg) gamma-linolenic acid per gram of the additive or the safflower oil blend.
</P>
<P>(iii) Total content of stearidonic acid and <I>cis, cis</I>-6,9-octadecadienoic acid in the additive or the safflower oil blend must not exceed a total of 0.3 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) Addition of the additive, or the safflower oil blend, to complete dry adult maintenance dog food must meet the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Addition of the additive or the safflower oil blend cannot provide more than 36 mg gamma-linolenic acid per kilogram body weight of the dog per day in more than 86 mg of the additive or the safflower oil blend. This maximum addition rate of the additive, or the safflower oil blend, is 0.3 percent of a complete dry adult maintenance dog food containing 3,600 kilocalories of metabolizable energy per kilogram of food as-fed.
</P>
<P>(2) Adjustments must be made for differing concentrations of gamma-linolenic acid and for dog food formulas of different caloric density and/or that are fed to specific weights, breeds, or dogs of different activity levels to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) Addition of the additive, or the safflower oil blend, to complete dry adult maintenance cat food must meet the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Addition of the additive or the safflower oil blend cannot provide more than 33 mg gamma-linolenic acid per kilogram body weight of the cat per day in more than 79 mg of the additive or the safflower oil blend. This maximum addition rate of the additive, or the safflower oil blend, is 0.5 percent of a complete dry adult maintenance cat food containing 4,000 kilocalories of metabolizable energy per kilogram of food as-fed.
</P>
<P>(2) Adjustments must be made for differing concentrations of gamma-linolenic acid and for cat food formulas of different caloric density and/or that are fed to specific weights, breeds, or cats of different activity levels to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, gamma-linolenic acid safflower oil, or GLA safflower oil;
</P>
<P>(2) A guarantee for the minimum content of gamma-linolenic acid; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use such that the finished animal food complies with the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 6675, Feb. 28, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.496" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.496   Guanidinoacetic acid.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, guanidinoacetic acid, may be safely used in poultry feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is manufactured by reacting glycine with cyanamide in an aqueous solution.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use at levels not to exceed 0.12 percent of the complete feed:
</P>
<P>(1) To spare arginine in broiler chicken and turkey feeds; or
</P>
<P>(2) As a precursor of creatine in poultry feeds.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive consists of not less than 97 percent guanidinoacetic acid [<I>N</I>-(aminoiminomethyl)-glycine] (CAS 352-97-6) by weight.
</P>
<P>(d) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Dicyandiamide not to exceed 0.5 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) Cyanamide not to exceed 0.01 percent;
</P>
<P>(3) Melamine not to exceed 15 parts per million (ppm);
</P>
<P>(4) Sum of ammeline, ammelide, and cyanuric acid not to exceed 35 ppm; and
</P>
<P>(5) Water not to exceed 1 percent.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive, any feed premix, and complete feed shall contain the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label and labeling of the additive and any feed premix shall also contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement to indicate the maximum use level of guanidinoacetic acid must not exceed 0.12 percent of the complete feed for poultry; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 86269, Nov. 30, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 37038, July 14, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.500" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.500   Condensed, extracted glutamic acid fermentation product.</HEAD>
<P>Condensed, extracted glutamic acid fermentation product may be safely used in animal feed under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a concentrated mixture of the liquor remaining from the extraction of glutamic acid, combined with the cells of <I>Corynebacterium glutamicum</I> used to produce the glutamic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In poultry feed as a source of protein in an amount not to exceed 5 percent of the total ration. 
</P>
<P>(2) In cattle feed as a source of protein in an amount not to exceed 10 percent of the feed. 
</P>
<P>(c) In order to assure safe use, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the concentration of the additive contained in any mixture. 
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 89 FR 33231, Apr. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.520" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.520   Hemicellulose extract.</HEAD>
<P>Hemicellulose extract may be safely used in animal feed when incorporated therein in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is produced from the aqueous extract obtained by the treatment of wood with water at elevated temperatures (325 degrees-535 degrees F) and pressure (80 to 900 pounds per square inch) and contains primarily pentose and hexose sugars. 
</P>
<P>(b) The additive may be used in a liquid or dry state with the liquid product containing not less than 55 percent carbohydrate and the dry product containing not less than 84 percent carbohydrate. 
</P>
<P>(c) The additive is used as a source of metabolizable energy in animal feed in accordance with good manufacturing and feeding practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 43 FR 11181, Mar. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.530" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.530   Hydrogenated corn syrup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The product is produced by hydrogenation of corn syrup over a nickel catalyst. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The product contains 70 percent hydrogenated corn syrup and a maximum of 0.5 percent reducing sugars. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses.</I> The product is used as a humectant and plasticizer in preparation of soft-moist dog and cat foods. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> The product is preferably stored in a closed, stainless steel or aluminum container. The level of use of the product shall not exceed 15 percent of the total weight of the pet food formulation. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Labeling.</I> The labeling shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use in accordance with the provisions in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 22920, Apr. 4, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.540" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.540   Hydrolyzed leather meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> Hydrolyzed leather meal is produced from leather scraps that are treated with steam for not less than 33 minutes at a pressure of not less than 125 pounds per square inch. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The additive shall conform to the following percent-by-weight specifications:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Moisture, not less than 5 percent nor more than 10 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Crude protein, not less than 60 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Crude fat, not less than 5 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Crude fiber, not more than 6 percent. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chromium, not more than 2.75 percent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> It is used or intended for use as a source of protein in swine feeds in an amount not to exceed 1.0 percent by weight of the finished feed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The labels and labeling shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive, hydrolyzed leather meal. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions to provide finished feeds complying with paragraph (c) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.550" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.550   25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="9145">3</E>.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E>, may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is used or intended for use as a source of vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> activity in animal feed or drinking water in accordance with good manufacturing and feeding practices as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In feed or drinking water of layer and breeder chickens not to exceed 69 parts per billion (ppb) in feed or 34.5 ppb in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(2) In feed or drinking water of turkeys not to exceed:
</P>
<P>(i) 92 ppb in feed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In drinking water, 25 ppb for turkeys up to 3 weeks of age, 36 ppb for turkeys from 4 to 11 weeks of age, or 45 ppb for turkeys over 11 weeks of age.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive consists of not less than 94 percent 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> (9,10-secocholesta-5,7,10(19)-triene-3β, 25-diol).
</P>
<P>(c) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Not more than 1 percent of any individual sterol.
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than 5 percent water.
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than 20 parts per million (ppm) lead.
</P>
<P>(4) Not more than 20 ppm aluminum.
</P>
<P>(5) Not more than 1.0 percent solvents and non-detectable levels of 2′, 4′, 5′, 7′ tetraiodofluorescin.
</P>
<P>(6) Not more than 1 ppb 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement to indicate the maximum use level of 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> must not exceed 69 ppb in feed or 34.5 ppb in drinking water for layer and breeder chickens.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement to indicate for turkeys the maximum use level of 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> must not exceed 92 ppb in feed; or in drinking water, 25 ppb for turkeys up to 3 weeks of age, 36 ppb for turkeys from 4 to 11 weeks of age, or 45 ppb for turkeys over 11 weeks of age.
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate use directions to ensure that 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> (and all premixes) is uniformly blended throughout the feed or drinking water.
</P>
<P>(5) An expiration date on all premix labeling.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement on all premix labeling (feed and drinking water forms) that 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> cannot be used simultaneously in both feed and water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 49486, Oct. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.560" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.560   Iron ammonium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>Iron ammonium citrate may be safely used in animal feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the chemical green ferric ammonium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as an anticaking agent in salt for animal consumption so that the level of iron ammonium citrate does not exceed 25 parts per million (0.0025 percent) in the finished salt. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive the label or labeling of the additive shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.580" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.580   Iron-choline citrate complex.</HEAD>
<P>Iron-choline citrate complex made by reacting approximately equimolecular quantities of ferric hydroxide, choline, and citric acid may be safely used as a source of iron in animal feed. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.587" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.587   Komagataella pastoris dried yeast.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The food additive <I>Komagataella pastoris</I> dried yeast is non-viable and may be used in feed formulations of broiler chickens as a source of protein not to exceed 10 percent by weight of the total formulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The additive shall conform to the following percent-by-weight specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Crude protein, not less than 60 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Crude fat, not less than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Crude fiber, not more than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Ash, not more than 13 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) Moisture, not more than 6 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> To ensure safe use, the labeling of the additive and any feed additive supplement, concentrate, or premix prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to other required information, the name of the additive, directions for use to provide not more than 10 percent by weight of the total ration, and the statement “Caution: Not to be used in layers or other poultry intended for breeding.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 59170, Nov. 8, 1993. Redesignated and amended at 89 FR 72315, Sept. 5, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.600" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.600   Lignin sulfonates.</HEAD>
<P>Lignin sulfonates may be safely used in animal feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the food additive is either one, or a combination of, the ammonium, calcium, magnesium, or sodium salts of the extract of spent sulfite liquor derived from the sulfite digestion of wood or of abaca (<I>Musa textilis</I>) or of sisal (<I>Agave sisalana</I>) in either a liquid form (moisture not to exceed 50 percent by weight) or dry form (moisture not to exceed 6 percent by weight). 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use in an amount calculated on a dry weight basis, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) As a pelleting aid in the liquid or dry form in an amount not to exceed 4 percent of the finished pellets. 
</P>
<P>(2) As a binding aid in the liquid form in the flaking of feed grains in an amount not to exceed 4 percent of the flaked grain. 
</P>
<P>(3) As a surfactant in molasses used in feeds, as liquid lignin sulfonate, in an amount not to exceed 11 percent of the molasses. 
</P>
<P>(4) As a source of metabolizable energy, in the liquid or dry form, in an amount not to exceed 4 percent of the finished feed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.615" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.615   Marine microalgae.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, marine microalgae, may be safely used as a source of docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) and other omega-3 fatty acids in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is dried whole cells of nonviable, nontoxigenic, nonpathogenic <I>Schizochytrium</I> sp. algae grown as a pure culture.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used in complete, dry adult maintenance food for dogs in accordance with good manufacturing and feeding practices not to exceed 16.5 pounds per ton (7.5 kilograms (kg) per 1000 kg) of complete, dry, adult maintenance dog food.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive consists of not less than 17.0 percent (4<I>Z,</I>7<I>Z,</I>10<I>Z,</I>13<I>Z,</I>16<I>Z,</I>19<I>Z</I>)-docosa-4,7,10,13,16,19-hexaenoic acid (docosahexaenoic acid or DHA).
</P>
<P>(d) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than 40 percent crude fat;
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than 12 percent ash;
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than 8 percent unsaponifiable matter;
</P>
<P>(4) Not more than 5 percent insoluble impurities;
</P>
<P>(5) Not more than 5 percent free fatty acids; and
</P>
<P>(6) Not more than 6 percent water.
</P>
<P>(e) To ensure the safe use of the additive, in addition to other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive, any feed premix, and complete feed, shall contain the name of the additive, marine microalgae.
</P>
<P>(2) The label and labeling of the additive and any feed premix shall also contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement to indicate that the maximum use level of the additive shall not exceed 16.5 pounds per ton (7.5 kg per 1000 kg) of complete, dry, adult maintenance dog food.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19935, May 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.620" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.620   Menadione dimethylpyrimidinol bisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, menadione dimethylpyrimidinol bisulfite, may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is the 2-hydroxy-4,6-dimethylpyrimidinol salt of menadione (C<E T="52">1</E><E T="52">7</E>H<E T="52">1</E><E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">6</E>N<E T="52">2</E>S). 
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a nutritional supplement for the prevention of vitamin K deficiency as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In chicken and turkey feed at a level not to exceed 2 grams per ton of complete feed. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the feed of growing and finishing swine at a level not to exceed 10 grams per ton of feed. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear adequate directions for use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.625" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.625   Menadione nicotinamide bisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive may be safely used as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is 1,2,3,4-tetrahydro-2-methyl-1,4-dioxo-2-naphthalene sulfonic acid with 3-pyridine carboxylic acid amine (CAS No. 73581-79-0).
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a nutritional supplement for both the prevention of vitamin K deficiency and as a source of supplemental niacin as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In chicken and turkey feeds at a level not to exceed 2 grams per ton of complete feed.
</P>
<P>(2) In growing and finishing swine feeds at a level not to exceed 10 grams per ton of complete feed.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use, the label and labeling of the additive shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 46840, Aug. 27, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.637" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.637   Methyl esters of conjugated linoleic acid (cis-9, trans-11 and trans-10, cis-12-octadecadienoic acids).</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, methyl esters of conjugated linoleic acid (cis-9, trans-11 and trans-10, cis-12-octadecadienoic acids) may be safely used in swine feed and feed for early lactation dairy cows (less than 100 days in milk) in accordance with the prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by the reaction of refined sunflower oil with methanol to produce fatty acid methyl esters, which then undergo conjugation to yield methyl esters of octadecadienoic acid. The additive consists of not less than 28 percent methyl ester of cis-9, trans-11-octadecadienoic acid, and not less than 28 percent methyl ester of trans-10, cis-12-octadecadienoic acid with the sum of the other methyl esters of octadecadienoic acid not to exceed 4 percent. The additive shall contain not less than 35 percent of other fatty acid esters composed of oleic acid, palmitic acid, stearic acid, linoleic acid, and other associated acid esters.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use in the feed of:
</P>
<P>(1) Growing and finishing swine as a source of fatty acids at levels not to exceed 0.6% in the finished feed.
</P>
<P>(2) Early lactation dairy cows to reduce the energy concentration in milk when fed at levels not to exceed 33 grams per cow per day.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Free methyl alcohol not to exceed 0.015%.
</P>
<P>(2) Insoluble impurities not to exceed 0.1%.
</P>
<P>(3) Moisture not to exceed 0.5%.
</P>
<P>(4) Unsaponifiable matter not to exceed 1.0%.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the act:
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive and any feed premix shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement to indicate that methyl esters of conjugated linoleic acid (cis-9, trans-11 and trans-10, cis-12 octadecadienoic acids) must not be added to vitamin or mineral premixes.
</P>
<P>(2) The label and labeling of the additive, any feed premix, or complete feed prepared therefrom shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64198, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 21019, Apr. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.640" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.640   Methyl esters of higher fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive methyl esters of higher fatty acids may be safely used in animal feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by reaction of methyl alcohol with feed-grade fats or oils and consists of not less than 70 percent methyl esters of the following straight-chain monocarboxylic acids: Docosahexanoic acid, eicosapentanoic acid, linoleic acid, myristic acid, oleic acid, palmitic acid, palmitoleic acid, and stearic acid, and lesser amounts of the associated acid esters. 
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive meets the following specifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) Free methyl alcohol not to exceed 150 parts per million. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unsaponifiable matter not to exceed 2 percent. 
</P>
<P>(3) It is free of chick-edema factor or other factors toxic to chicks, as evidenced during the bioassay method for determining the chick-edema factor as prescribed in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) For the purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Unsaponifiable matter shall be determined by the method described in Section 28.081, “Unsaponifiable Residue (20)—Official Final Action” of the “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 13th Ed., 1980, p. 451, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> 
</P>
<P>(ii) The chick-edema factor bioassay method described under “26. Oils, Fats, and Waxes” in the <I>Journal of the Association of Official Agricultural Chemists,</I> Vol. 44, Page 146 (1961), or the method described under “Chick-Edema Factor—Bioassay Method (34)—Official Final Action” in §§ 28.113-28.117, “Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists,” 12th Ed., 1975, pp. 509-511, which is incorporated by reference, shall be employed. (Copies of the methods are available from the AOAC INTERNATIONAL, 481 North Frederick Ave., suite 500, Gaithersburg, MD 20877, or available for inspectionat the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> ) The presence of chick-edema factor shall be determined by a comparison between the mean log of the pericardial fluid volumes of a test group and of a concurrent negative control group. The significance of the difference in pericardial fluid volumes between the test group and the negative control group is determined by calculating a <I>“t”</I> value according to the formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.412.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where: 
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I><E T="54">t</E> and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I><E T="54">c</E> are the means of the logs of the pericardial fluid volumes of the test and control groups, respectively; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I><E T="54">t</E> and <I>n</I><E T="54">c</E> are the number of chicks in the respective groups; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>s</I><E T="54">t</E>
<SU>2</SU> and <I>s</I><E T="54">c</E>
<SU>2</SU> are the variances of the test and control groups, respectively. 
</FP-2>
<FP>The variances are calculated as follows:</FP></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.413.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>Σ<I>x</I> is the sum of the logs of the pericardial fluid volumes;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Σ<I>x</I>
<SU>2</SU> is the sum of the squares of the logs of the pericardial fluid volumes for either the test <I>t</I> or control <I>c</I> group data.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>The test sample is judged to contain chick-edema factor if the calculated <I>“t”</I> exceeds +1.3 and the mean log of the pericardial fluid volume obtained from the negative control group multiplied by 100 is less than 1.1461. 
</FP>
<P>(iii) “Other factors toxic to chicks” referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section shall be determined during the course of the bioassay test described in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, on the basis of chick deaths or other abnormalities not attributable to chick-edema factor or to the experimental conditions of the test. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is used or intended for use as a supplementary source of fat for animal feed. 
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The label and labeling of the additive, and any feed additive supplement, feed additive concentrate, feed additive premix, or complete feed prepared therefrom shall bear: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The designation “feed grade” in juxtaposition with the name and equally as prominent. 
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the additive and any feed additive supplement, feed additive concentrate, feed additive premix, or complete feed prepared therefrom shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 47 FR 9397, Mar. 5, 1982; 54 FR 18281, Apr. 28, 1989; 70 FR 40880, July 15, 2005; 70 FR 67651, Nov. 8, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.660" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.660   Methyl glucoside-coconut oil ester.</HEAD>
<P>Methyl glucoside-coconut oil ester may be safely used in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the specifications prescribed in § 172.816 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used as a surfactant in molasses intended for use in animal feed at a level not to exceed 320 parts per million. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.680" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.680   Mineral oil.</HEAD>
<P>Mineral oil may be safely used in animal feed, subject to the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>(a) Mineral oil, for the purpose of this section, is that complying with the definition and specifications contained in § 172.878 (a) and (b) or in § 178.3620(b)(1) (i) and (ii) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used in animal feeds for the following purposes: 
</P>
<P>(1) To reduce dustiness of feeds or mineral supplements. 
</P>
<P>(2) To serve as a lubricant in the preparation of pellets, cubes, or blocks and to improve resistance to moisture of such pellets, cubes, or blocks. 
</P>
<P>(3) To prevent the segregation of trace minerals in mineralized salt. 
</P>
<P>(4) To serve as a diluent carrier in the manufacture of feed grade biuret in accordance with good manufacturing practice. 
</P>
<P>(5) For the removal of water from substances intended as ingredients of animal feed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The quantity of mineral oil used in animal feed shall not exceed 3.0 percent in mineral supplements, nor shall it exceed 0.06 percent of the total ration when present in feed or feed concentrates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 47 FR 41106, Sept. 17, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.685" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.685   Natamycin.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive natamycin (CAS No. 7681-93-8) may be safely used in broiler chicken feeds in accordance with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a stereoisomer of 22-[(3-amino-3,6,dideoxy-β-D-mannopyranosyl)oxy]-1,3,26-trihydroxy-12-methyl-10-oxo-6,11,28-trioxatricyclo[22.3.1.0
<SU>5</SU>, 
<SU>7</SU>] octacosa-8,14,16,18,20-pentaene-25-carboxylic acid with the empirical formula C<E T="52">33</E>H<E T="52">47</E>NO<E T="52">13</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive shall conform to U.S.P. specifications.
</P>
<P>(c) The additive (as part of a premix composed of calcium carbonate, natamycin, and lactose) is used for retarding the growth of <I>Aspergillus parasiticus</I> in broiler chicken feeds for up to 14 days after the addition of natamycin.
</P>
<P>(d) Each pound (454 grams (g)) of the premix shall contain 434 (g) of calcium carbonate, 10 g of natamycin activity, and 10 g of lactose. The premix shall be mixed into broiler chicken feed at the rate of 1 pound (0.454 kilograms (kg)) per ton (908 kg) of feed to provide natamycin at a level of 11 parts per million (ppm). The premix shall be thoroughly mixed into the dry components of the broiler chicken feed before adding the liquid components. Broiler feeds to which the natamycin premix is added shall be used within 4 weeks of addition of the premix.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure the safe use of the additive, the label or labeling of the additive shall bear, in addition to other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and CAS number of the additive, and its purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) A listing of ingredients consisting of calcium carbonate, the additive, and lactose and their proportions in the premix as prescribed under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use to ensure a broiler chicken feed that is in compliance with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) An appropriate cautionary statement: “Caution: Store in a tightly-closed, light-resistant container in a cool, dry place.”
</P>
<P>(5) An expiration date of 1 year from the date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(6) A contact address and telephone number for reporting adverse reactions experienced by users, or to request a copy of the Material Safety Data Sheet for natamycin.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 19321, Apr. 13, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.696" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.696   Feed grade sodium formate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive, feed grade sodium formate, may be safely used in the manufacture of complete swine and poultry feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is manufactured by the reaction of 99 percent formic acid and 50 percent sodium hydroxide in water to produce a solution made up of at least 20.5 percent sodium salt of formic acid and not more than 61 percent formic acid.
</P>
<P>(b) The additive is used or intended for use as a feed acidifying agent, to lower the pH, in complete swine and poultry feeds at levels not to exceed 1.2 percent of the complete feed.
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(d) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use, including a statement that feed grade sodium formate must be uniformly applied and thoroughly mixed into complete feeds and that the complete feeds so treated shall be labeled as containing feed grade sodium formate.
</P>
<P>(3) Cautions for use including this statement: Caution: Follow label directions. Formic acid and formate salts from all added sources cannot exceed 1.2 percent of complete feed when multiple sources of formic acid and its salts are used in combination.
</P>
<P>(e) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the act and paragraph (d) of this section, the label and labeling shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate warnings and safety precautions concerning feed grade sodium formate.
</P>
<P>(2) Statements identifying feed grade sodium formate as a corrosive and possible severe irritant.
</P>
<P>(3) Information about emergency aid in case of accidental exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Statements reflecting requirements of applicable sections of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA), and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) human safety guidance regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contact address and telephone number for reporting adverse reactions or to request a copy of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67154, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 95027, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.700" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.700   Sodium nitrite.</HEAD>
<P>Sodium nitrite may be safely used in canned pet food containing meat and fish in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) It is used or intended for use alone as a preservative and color fixative in canned pet food containing fish, meat, and fish and meat byproducts so that the level of sodium nitrite does not exceed 20 parts per million. 
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The label of the additive shall bear: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the concentration of the additive in any mixture. 
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling shall bear adequate directions to provide a final product that complies with the limitations prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.720" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.720   Petrolatum.</HEAD>
<P>Petrolatum may be safely used in or on animal feed, subject to the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) Petrolatum complies with the specifications set forth in the U.S. Pharmacopeia XVI for white petrolatum or in The National Formulary XII for yellow petrolatum. 
</P>
<P>(b) Petrolatum meets the following ultraviolet absorbance limits when subjected to the analytical procedure described in § 172.886(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Ultraviolet absorbance per centimeter path length:</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Millimicrons
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280 to 289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290 to 299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 to 359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360 to 400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.04</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) It is used in animal feed for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To reduce dustiness of feeds or mineral supplements. 
</P>
<P>(2) To serve as a lubricant in the preparation of pellets, cubes, or blocks, and to improve resistance to moisture of such pellets, cubes, or blocks. 
</P>
<P>(d) The quantity of petrolatum present in animal feeds from the uses specified in paragraph (c) of this section shall not exceed 3 percent in mineral supplements nor shall it exceed 0.06 percent of the total ration when present in feed or feed concentrates. 
</P>
<P>(e) When used in combination with technical white mineral oil for the uses described in paragraph (c) of this section, the total quantity of combined petrolatum and technical white mineral oil shall not exceed the limits prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) Petrolatum may contain any antioxidant permitted in food by regulations issued in accordance with section 409 of the act, in an amount not greater than that required to produce its intended effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.740" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.740   Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons.</HEAD>
<P>Odorless light petroleum hydrocarbons complying with § 172.884(a) and (b) of this chapter may be safely used in an amount not in excess of that required as a component of insecticide formulations used in compliance with regulations issued in this part. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.760" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.760   Poloxalene.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive poloxalene may be safely used in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive consists of polyoxy-propylene-polyoxyethylene glycol non-ionic block polymer meeting the following specifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) Molecular weight range: 2,850-3,150. 
</P>
<P>(2) Hydroxyl number: 35.7-39.4. 
</P>
<P>(3) Cloud point (10 percent solution): 42 °C-46 °C. 
</P>
<P>(4) Structural formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01ja93.414.gif"/>
<P>(b) In feed as a surfactant for the flaking of feed grains when added to liquid grain conditioner in an amount not to exceed 1.0 percent of the conditioner. The conditioner is added to the feed at a rate of 1 quart per ton of feed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The label and labeling shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions and warnings for use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.780" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.780   Polyethylene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> Polyethylene consists of basic polymers manufactured by the catalytic polymerization of ethylene. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> (1) For the purposes of this section, polyethylene shall meet the specifications in item 2.1 of § 177.1520(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) The polyethylene is designed in a pellet form in a configuration presenting maximum angular surface having the following dimensions in centimeters: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>0.9 ±0.1 × 0.8 ±0.1 × 1.2 ±0.1</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> It is used as a replacement for roughage in feedlot rations for finishing slaughter cattle. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The labels and labeling shall bear in addition to the other information required by the Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive “polyethylene roughage replacement.” 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use which shall provide for the administration of one-half pound of polyethylene pellets per head per day for 6 successive days. All natural roughage should be removed for a minimum of 12 hours prior to administration of polyethylene roughage replacement. Roughage replacement must be adequately mixed in the ration for uniform distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 54 FR 18282, Apr. 28, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.800" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.800   Polyethylene glycol (400) mono- and dioleate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The food additive polyethylene glycol (400) mono- and dioleate meets the following specifications: Saponification number, 80-88; acid number, 5.0 maximum; and average molecular weight range, 640-680. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used as a processing aid in the production of animal feeds when present as a result of its addition to molasses in an amount not to exceed 250 parts per million of the molasses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.820" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.820   Polyoxyethylene glycol (400) mono- and dioleates.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polyoxyethylene glycol (400) mono- and dioleates may be safely used as an emulsifier in calf-milk replacer formulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.840" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.840   Polysorbate 60.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polysorbate 60 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monostearate) may be safely used in animal feeds in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) It is used alone or in combination with sorbitan monostearate as an emulsifier in mineral premixes and dietary supplements for animal feeds. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used as an emulsifier in milk-replacer formulations for calves. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.860" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.860   Polysorbate 80.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive polysorbate 80 (polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monooleate) may be safely used as an emulsifier in milk-replacer formulations for calves. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.870" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.870   Poly(2-vinylpyridine-co-styrene).</HEAD>
<P>The food additive poly(2-vinylpyridine-co-styrene) may be safely used as nutrient protectant in feed for beef cattle and dairy cattle and replacement dairy heifers when used in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The additive meets the following specifications:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component/property
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inherent viscosity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-1.6 deciliter per gram.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene moiety</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Vinylpyridine moiety.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 percent maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Residual styrene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 parts per billion maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Residual 2-vinylstyrene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 parts per billion maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy metals such as lead</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 parts per million maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 parts per million maximum.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Inherent viscosity of a 0.25 percent (weight/volume) solution in dimethylformamide.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The additive is used in the manufacture of rumen-stable, abomasum-dispersible nutrient(s) for beef cattle and dairy cattle and replacement dairy heifers such that the maximum use of the additive from all sources does not exceed 5.1 grams per head per day. The additive may be used to protect the following nutrients:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Methionine.</I> The resulting product must contain a maximum of 10 percent poly(2-vinylpyridine-co-styrene) by weight and a minimum of 55 percent methionine by weight. The coated methionine must be established through in vitro tests to be at least 90 percent rumen-stable, of which at least 90 percent is subsequently dispersible under abomasal conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Methionine and lysine.</I> The resulting product must contain a maximum of 10 percent poly(2-vinylpyridine-co-styrene) by weight and a minimum of a combined total of 55 percent methionine and lysine by weight. The coated methionine and lysine must be established through in vitro tests to be at least 90 percent rumen-stable, of which at least 90 percent is subsequently dispersible under abomasal conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Label and labeling.</I> To ensure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and of any feed additive supplement, feed additive concentrate, feed additive premix, or liquid feed supplement prepared therefrom, shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the concentration of poly(2-vinylpyridine-co-styrene) in any product or mixture.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for the use of the rumen-stable, abomasum-dispersible nutrient(s) products.
</P>
<P>(4) The following statement: “Warning: Maximum use of poly(2-vinylpyridine-co-styrene) from all sources is not to exceed 5.1 grams per head per day.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 7875, Mar. 5, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 24187, June 8, 1992; 61 FR 11547, Mar. 21, 1996; 70 FR 13100, Mar. 18, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.880" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.880   Normal propyl alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>Normal propyl alcohol may be safely used in feeds and feed supplements for cattle as a source of metabolizable energy. It is incorporated in the feed or feed supplement in an amount which provides not more than 54.5 grams of the additive per head per day. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.900" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.900   Pyrophyllite.</HEAD>
<P>Pyrophyllite (aluminum silicate monohydrate) may be safely used as the sole anticaking aid, blending agent, pelleting aid, or carrier in animal feed when incorporated therein in an amount not to exceed 2 percent in complete animal feed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.914" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.914   Salts of volatile fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> The food additive is a blend containing the ammonium or calcium salt of isobutyric acid and the ammonium or calcium salts of a mixture of 5-carbon acids—isovaleric, 2-methylbutyric, and <I>n</I>-valeric.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specifications.</I> The additive contains ammonium or calcium salts of volatile fatty acids and shall conform to the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Ammonium salts: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Components
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium salts of mixed 5-carbon acids (as identified in paragraph (a) of this section)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">48 to 54 percent. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium salt of isobutyric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22 to 26 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">28 percent maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3 percent maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 parts per million maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy metals such as lead</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 parts per million maximum.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Calcium salts: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Components
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium salts of mixed 5-carbon acids (as identified in paragraph (a) of this section)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">58 to 72 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium salt of isobutyric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">26 to 34 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium hydroxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 percent maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 percent maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 parts per million maximum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy metals such as lead</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 parts per million maximum.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> The additive is used or intended for use as a source of energy in dairy cattle feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labeling.</I> The label and labeling of the additive in any feed, feed supplement, feed concentrate, feed premix, or liquid feed supplement prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to other information required by the act, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate directions for use, including statements expressing maximum use levels. For ammonium salts of volatile fatty acids, the statements: “Not to exceed 160 grams per head per day thoroughly mixed in dairy cattle feed as a source of energy.” For calcium salts of volatile fatty acids, the statement: “Not to exceed 135 grams per head per day thoroughly mixed in dairy cattle feed as a source of energy.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 45125, Nov. 15, 1984; 50 FR 8606, Mar. 4, 1985, as amended at 70 FR 13100, Mar. 18, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.920" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.920   Selenium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Public Law 103-354 enacted October 13, 1994 (the 1994 Act), states that FDA shall not implement or enforce the final rule issued on September 13, 1993 (58 FR 47962), in which FDA stayed the 1987 amendments and any modification of such rule issued after enactment of the 1994 Act; unless the Commissioner of Food and Drugs makes a determination that:
</P>
<P>(1) Selenium additives are not essential at levels authorized in the absence of such final rule, to maintain animal nutrition and protect animal health;
</P>
<P>(2) selenium at such levels is not safe to the animals consuming the additive;
</P>
<P>(3) selenium at such levels is not safe to individuals consuming edible portions of animals that receive the additive;
</P>
<P>(4) selenium at such levels does not achieve its intended effect of promoting normal growth and reproduction of livestock and poultry; and
</P>
<P>(5) the manufacture and use of selenium at such levels cannot reasonably be controlled by adherence to current good manufacturing practice requirements. 
</P>
<P>(6) Paragraphs (b) through (i) of this section provide the currently acceptable levels of selenium supplementation.
</P>
<P>(b) The food additive selenium is a nutrient administered in animal feed as sodium selenite or sodium selenate as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, as a controlled-release sodium selenite bolus as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, as selenium yeast as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, as selenomethionine hydroxy analogue as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, or as zinc-L-selenomethionine complex as provided in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Selenium, as sodium selenite or sodium selenate, is added to feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In complete feed for chickens, swine, turkeys, sheep, cattle, and ducks at a level not to exceed 0.3 part per million. 
</P>
<P>(2) In feed supplements for limit feeding as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Sheep:</I> At a level not to exceed an intake of 0.7 milligram per head per day. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Beef cattle:</I> At a level not to exceed an intake of 3 milligrams per head per day. 
</P>
<P>(3) In salt-mineral mixtures for free-choice feeding as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Sheep:</I> Up to 90 parts per million in a mixture for free-choice feeding at a rate not to exceed an intake of 0.7 milligram per head per day. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Beef cattle:</I> Up to 120 parts per million in a mixture for free-choice feeding at a rate not to exceed an intake of 3 milligrams per head per day. 
</P>
<P>(4) The additive, as sodium selenite or sodium selenate, shall be incorporated into feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) It shall be incorporated into each ton of complete feed by adding no less than 1 pound of a premix containing no more than 272.4 milligrams of added selenium per pound.
</P>
<P>(ii) It shall be incorporated into each ton of salt-mineral mixture for sheep or beef cattle from a premix containing no more than 4.5 grams of added selenium per pound.
</P>
<P>(5) Usage of the additive must conform to the requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The premix manufacturer shall follow good manufacturing practices in the production of selenium premixes. Inventory, production, and distribution records must provide a complete and accurate history of product production. Production controls must assure products to be what they are purported and labeled. Production controls shall include analysis sufficient to adequately monitor quality. 
</P>
<P>(e) The label or labeling of any selenium premix shall bear adequate directions and cautions for use including this statement: “Caution: Follow label directions. The addition to feed of higher levels of this premix containing selenium is not permitted.” 
</P>
<P>(f) The additive is orally administered to beef and dairy cattle as an osmotically controlled, constant release bolus containing sodium selenite. Each bolus contains 360 milligrams of selenium as sodium selenite, and delivers 3 milligrams of selenium per day for 120 days. To ensure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The osmotically controlled, constant release bolus is for use only in beef and dairy cattle more than 3 months of age or over 200 pounds body weight.
</P>
<P>(2) Only one bolus containing 360 milligrams of selenium as sodium selenite is administered orally to each animal in 120 days.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling shall bear the following: “This bolus delivers the maximum daily allowable amount of selenium and shall be the sole source of supplementation. Do not use in areas containing excess selenium. Do not rebolus within 4 months.”
</P>
<P>(g) Selenium yeast is a dried, non-viable yeast (<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I>) cultivated in a fed-batch fermentation which provides incremental amounts of cane molasses and selenium salts in a manner which minimizes the detrimental effects of selenium salts on the growth rate of the yeast and allows for optimal incorporation of inorganic selenium into cellular organic material. Residual inorganic selenium is eliminated in a rigorous washing process and must not exceed 2 percent of the total selenium content in the final selenium yeast product.
</P>
<P>(1) Selenium, as selenium yeast, is added to feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In complete feed for chickens, turkeys, swine, beef cattle, and dairy cattle at a level not to exceed 0.3 part per million.
</P>
<P>(ii) In feed supplements for limit feeding for beef cattle at a level not to exceed an intake of 3 milligrams per head per day.
</P>
<P>(iii) In salt-mineral mixtures for free-choice feeding for beef cattle up to 120 parts per million in a mixture for free-choice feeding at a rate not to exceed an intake of 3 milligrams per head per day.
</P>
<P>(2) Guaranteed organic selenium content from selenium yeast must be declared on the selenium yeast product label.
</P>
<P>(3) The additive, as selenium yeast, shall be incorporated into feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) It shall be incorporated into each ton of complete feed by adding no less than 1 pound of a premix containing no more than 272.4 milligrams of added selenium per pound.
</P>
<P>(ii) It shall be incorporated into each ton of salt-mineral mixture for beef cattle from a premix containing no more than 4.5 grams of added selenium per pound.
</P>
<P>(4) Usage of this additive must conform to the requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) Selenomethionine hydroxy analogue [R,S-2-hydroxy-4-methylselenobutanoic acid (CAS 873660-49-2)] is manufactured by the reaction of elemental selenium with methyllithium to form a methylseleno salt, which is then reacted with R,S-2-hydroxybutyrolactone to form a salt of 2-hydroxy-4-methylselenobutanoic acid. After acidification and purification, the additive consists of not less than 39.5 percent total selenium by weight with a selenomethionine hydroxy analogue content of not less than 98 percent of total selenium. The total organic selenium content of the additive is not less than 99 percent of total selenium.
</P>
<P>(1) The selenomethionine hydroxy analogue meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Arsenic, not more than 2 parts per million (ppm);
</P>
<P>(ii) Cadmium, not more than 1 ppm;
</P>
<P>(iii) Lead, not more than 1 ppm; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Mercury, not more than 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) Selenium, as selenomethionine hydroxy analogue, is added to feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In complete feed for chickens, turkeys, swine, beef cattle, and dairy cattle at a level not to exceed 0.3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) In feed supplements for limit feeding for beef cattle at a level not to exceed an intake of 3 milligrams per head per day.
</P>
<P>(iii) In salt-mineral mixtures for free-choice feeding for beef cattle up to 120 parts per million in a mixture for free-choice feeding at a rate not to exceed an intake of 3 milligrams per head per day.
</P>
<P>(3) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling of selenomethionine hydroxy analogue in its packaged form shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, selenomethionine hydroxy analogue;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimum and maximum guarantees for a total selenium content of not less than 2.08 percent (weight/weight) and not more than 2.24 percent;
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimum guarantee for selenomethionine hydroxy analogue content of not less than 5.2 percent;
</P>
<P>(iv) The following statement, “Storage Conditions: Selenomethionine hydroxy analogue must be stored in a closed package at temperatures not higher than 20 °C (68 °F).”; and
</P>
<P>(v) An expiration date not to exceed 1 year from the date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(4) The additive, as selenomethionine hydroxy analogue, shall be incorporated into each ton of complete feed by adding no less than 1 pound of a premix containing no more than 272.4 milligrams of added selenium per pound.
</P>
<P>(5) Usage of this additive must conform to the requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.




</P>
<P>(i) Zinc-L-selenomethionine complex [(2<I>S</I>)-2-amino-4-(methylseleno)butanoate zinc chloride], is manufactured by the reaction of a soluble zinc salt with chemically synthesized L-selenomethionine at an appropriate stoichiometric ratio. The additive is produced in liquid form and consists of not less than 19 percent (weight/weight) of L-selenomethionine.
</P>
<P>(1) The zinc-L-selenomethionine complex meets the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Arsenic, not more than 0.5 ppm;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cadmium, not more than 1 ppm;
</P>
<P>(iii) Lead, not more than 1 ppm; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Mercury, not more than 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(2) Selenium, as zinc-L-selenomethionine complex, is added to complete feed for broiler chickens at a level not to exceed 0.3 ppm.
</P>
<P>(3) The additive, as zinc L-selenomethionine complex, shall be incorporated into each ton of complete feed by adding no less than 1 pound of a premix containing no more than 272.4 milligrams of added selenium per pound.
</P>
<P>(4) To assure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling of zinc-L-selenomethionine complex in its packaged form shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the additive, zinc-L-selenomethionine complex;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimum and maximum guarantees for total selenium;
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimum guarantee for selenomethionine content;
</P>
<P>(iv) The following statement, “Storage Conditions: zinc-L-selenomethionine complex must be stored in a closed package at temperature not higher than 25 °C (77  °F).”; and
</P>
<P>(v) An expiration date not to exceed 6 months from the date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(5) Usage of this additive must conform to the requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10888, Apr. 6, 1987; 52 FR 21001, June 4, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 14215, Apr. 10, 1989; 54 FR 15874, Apr. 19, 1989; 60 FR 53703, Oct. 17, 1995; 65 FR 35824, June 6, 2000; 65 FR 53167, Sept. 1, 2000; 67 FR 46851, July 17, 2002; 68 FR 52340, Sept. 3, 2003; 72 FR 39561, July 19, 2007; 84 FR 7993, Mar. 6, 2019; 86 FR 37036, July 14, 2021; 90 FR 21220, May 19, 2025]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 58 FR 47973, Sept. 13, 1993, the amendments to § 573.920 that were published at 52 FR 10887, Apr. 6, 1987; 52 FR 21001, June 4, 1987; and 54 FR 14214, Apr. 10, 1989 were stayed until further notice. At 59 FR 45973, Sept. 6, 1994, the stay was confirmed.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.940" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.940   Silicon dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive silicon dioxide may be safely used in animal feed in accordance with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is manufactured by vapor phase hydrolysis or by other means whereby the particle size is such as to accomplish the intended effect. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as an anticaking agent, antifoaming agent, carrier, and/or grinding aid in animal feed, including ingredients, intermediate premixes, premixes, supplements, concentrates, and complete feed.
</P>
<P>(c) To ensure safe use of the additive, silicon dioxide is to be used in an amount not to exceed that reasonably required to accomplish its intended effect, and silicon dioxide from all sources cannot exceed 2 percent by weight of the complete feed.
</P>
<P>(d) To ensure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling of the additive and ingredients, intermediate premixes, premixes, supplements, concentrates, and complete feed containing the additive shall meet the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including part 501 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) To ensure safe use of the additive, in addition to the other information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the label and labeling of the additive and ingredients, intermediate premixes, premixes, supplements, and concentrates containing the additive shall have:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the concentration of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that silicon dioxide from all sources cannot exceed 2 percent by weight of the complete feed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38652, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 83 FR 8930, Mar. 2, 2018; 84 FR 7993, Mar. 6, 2019; 85 FR 33539, June 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.960" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.960   Sorbitan monostearate.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive sorbitan monostearate may be safely used alone or in combination with polysorbate 60 as an emulsifier in mineral premixes and dietary supplements for animal feeds. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.980" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.980   Taurine.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive taurine (2-amino-ethanesulfonic acid) may be safely used in feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) It is used as a nutritional supplement in the feed of growing chickens. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is added to complete feeds so that the total taurine content does not exceed 0.054 percent of the feed. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive, the label and labeling shall bear in addition to the other information required by the Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the additive. 
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of the additive contained therein. 
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate directions for use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.1000" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.1000   Verxite.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive verxite may be safely used in animal feed in accordance with the following prescribed conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The additive is a magnesium-aluminum-iron silicate conforming to one of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Verxite granules: The additive contains a minimum of 98 percent of hydrobiotite; it is thermally expanded and has a bulk density of from 5 to 9 pounds per cubic foot. 
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used or intended for use: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In poultry feed at a level not to exceed 5 percent of the weight of the finished feed as a nonnutritive bulking agent for restricting calorie intake in pullet replacement feeds. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) As an anticaking or blending agent, pelleting aid, or nonnutritive carrier for the incorporation of nutrients in poultry, swine, dog, or ruminant feeds, in an amount not to exceed that necessary to accomplish its intended effect and in no case to exceed 1.5 percent of the dog feed or 5 percent of the final feed for other animals. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Verxite flakes: The additive contains a minimum of 98 percent of hydrobiotite; it has a bulk density of from 20 to 30 pounds per cubic foot. 
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used or intended for use as an anticaking or blending agent in ruminant feeds in an amount not to exceed that necessary to accomplish its intended effect and in no case to exceed 1 percent by weight of the final feed for ruminants. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Verxite grits: The additive contains a minimum of 80 percent of hydrobiotite; it has a bulk density of from 40 to 50 pounds per cubic foot. 
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used or intended for use as a partial roughage replacement in ruminant feeds in an amount not to exceed that necessary to accomplish its intended effect and in no case to exceed 1 percent by weight of the final feed. 
</P>
<P>(b) To assure safe use of the additive, the label of any feed additive supplement, feed additive concentrate, feed additive premix, or complete feed prepared therefrom shall bear, in addition to the other information required by the Act, the name of the additive (verxite granules, verxite flakes, or verxite grits), adequate directions for use, and, when the additive is present in excess of 1 percent, a statement of the quantity of the additive contained therein and the term “nonnutritive” in juxtaposition therewith. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.1010" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.1010   Xanthan gum.</HEAD>
<P>The food additive xanthan gum may be safely used in animal feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The food additive is xanthan gum as defined in § 172.695 of this chapter and meets all of the specifications thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) It is used or intended for use as a stabilizer, emulsifier, thickener, suspending agent, or bodying agent in animal feed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In calf milk replacers at a maximum use level of 0.1 percent, as fed.
</P>
<P>(2) In liquid feed supplements for ruminant animals at a maximum use level of 0.25 percent (5 pounds per ton).
</P>
<P>(c) To assure safe use of the additive:
</P>
<P>(1) The label of its container shall bear, in addition to other information required by the act, the name of the additive.
</P>
<P>(2) The label or labeling of the additive container shall bear adequate directions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 44630, Nov. 8, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 573.1020" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.23.2.2.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 573.1020   Yellow prussiate of soda.</HEAD>
<P>Yellow prussiate of soda (sodium ferrocyanide decahydrate: Na<E T="52">4</E>Fe(Cn)<E T="52">6</E>°-10H<E T="52">2</E>O) may be safely used as an anticaking agent in salt for animal consumption at a level not to exceed 13 parts per million. The additive contains a minimum of 99.0 percent by weight of sodium ferrocyanide decahydrate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38657, Sept. 10, 1976; 41 FR 48100, Nov. 2, 1976] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="579" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 579—IRRADIATION IN THE PRODUCTION, PROCESSING, AND HANDLING OF ANIMAL FEED AND PET FOOD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 348, 371. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 579.12" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.24.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.12   Incorporation of regulations in part 179.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations providing for irradiation in the production, processing, and handling of food in part 179 of this chapter are incorporated in subchapter E as applicable to use in the production, processing, handling, and labeling of animal feed and pet food, except where specifically provided for in this part. Any facility that treats animal feed and pet food with ionizing radiation must comply with the requirements of part 507 of this chapter and other applicable regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 5993, Feb. 19, 1986, as amended at 80 FR 56356, Sept. 17, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Radiation and Radiation Sources</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 579.22" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.24.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.22   Ionizing radiation for treatment of animal diets.</HEAD>
<P>Ionizing radiation for treatment of complete diets for animals may be safely used under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Energy sources.</I> Ionizing radiation is limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Gamma rays for sealed units of the radionuclides cobalt-60 or cesium-137.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrons generated from machine sources at energy levels not to exceed 10 million electron volts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uses.</I> (1) The ionizing radiation is used or intended for use in single treatment as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Food for irradiation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limitations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bagged complete diets, packaged feeds, feed ingredients, bulk feeds, animal treats and chews</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Absorbed dose: Not to exceed 50 kiloGrays. Feeds and feed ingredients treated by irradiation should be formulated to account for nutritional loss</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Microbial disinfection, control or elimination</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) If an irradiated feed ingredient is less than 5 percent of the final product, the final product can be irradiated without being considered to be re-irradiated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 5993, Feb. 19, 1986; 51 FR 8315, Mar. 11, 1986, as amended at 58 FR 18148, Apr. 8, 1993; 66 FR 18540, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 579.40" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.24.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.40   Ionizing radiation for the treatment of poultry feed and poultry feed ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>Ionizing radiation for the treatment of complete poultry diets and poultry feed ingredients may be safely used as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Energy sources.</I> Ionizing radiation is limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Gamma rays from sealed units of cobalt-60 or cesium-137;
</P>
<P>(2) Electrons generated from machine sources at energy levels not to exceed 10 million electron volts (MeV);
</P>
<P>(3) X-rays generated from machine sources at energies not to exceed 5 MeV, except as permitted by § 179.26(a)(4) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(4) X-rays generated from machine sources using tantalum or gold as the target material and using energies not to exceed 7.5 MeV.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation.</I> The ionizing radiation is used for feed or feed ingredients that do not contain drugs. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> Ionizing radiation is used as a single treatment for rendering complete poultry diets or poultry feed ingredients salmonella negative as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum dose 2.0 kiloGrays (kGy) (0.2 megarad (Mrad)); maximum dose 25 kGy (2.5 megarads Mrad). The absorbed dose of irradiation is to be based on initial concentration of salmonella using the relationship that 1.0 kGy (0.1 Mrad) reduces salmonella concentration by one log cycle (one decimal reduction). 
</P>
<P>(2) Feeds treated by irradiation should be formulated to account for nutritional loss. 
</P>
<P>(3) If an irradiated feed ingredient is less than 5 percent of the final product, the final product can be irradiated without being considered to be reirradiated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50099, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 27304, May 10, 2013; 78 FR 34565, June 10, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="582" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 582—SUBSTANCES GENERALLY RECOGNIZED AS SAFE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 38657, Sept. 10, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1   Substances that are generally recognized as safe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is impracticable to list all substances that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use. However, by way of illustration, the Commissioner regards such common food ingredients as salt, pepper, sugar, vinegar, baking powder, and monosodium glutamate as safe for their intended use. The lists in subparts B through H of this part include additional substances that, when used for the purposes indicated, in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice, are regarded by the Commissioner as generally recognized as safe for such uses. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, good manufacturing or feeding practice shall be defined to include the following restrictions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of a substance added to animal food does not exceed the amount reasonably required to accomplish its intended physical, nutritional, or other technical effect in food; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of a substance that becomes a component of animal food as a result of its use in the manufacturing, processing, or packaging of food, and which is not intended to accomplish any physical or other technical effect in the food itself, shall be reduced to the extent reasonably possible. 
</P>
<P>(3) The substance is of appropriate grade and is prepared and handled as a food ingredient. Upon request the Commissioner will offer an opinion, based on specifications and intended use, as to whether or not a particular grade or lot of the substance is of suitable purity for use in food and would generally be regarded as safe for the purpose intended, by experts qualified to evaluate its safety. 
</P>
<P>(c) The inclusion of substances in the list of nutrients does not constitute a finding on the part of the Department that the substance is useful as a supplement to the diet for animals. 
</P>
<P>(d) Substances that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use within the meaning of section 409 of the Act are listed in subparts B through H of this part. When the status of a substance has been reevaluated and affirmed as GRAS or deleted from subparts B through H of this part, an appropriate explanation will be noted, e.g., “affirmed as GRAS,” “food additive regulation,” “interim food additive regulation,” or “prohibited from use in food,” with a reference to the appropriate new regulation. Such notation will apply only to the specific use covered by the review, e.g., direct animal food use and/or indirect animal food use and/or animal feed use and will not affect its status for other uses not specified in the referenced regulation, pending a specific review of such other uses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.10" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.10   Spices and other natural seasonings and flavorings.</HEAD>
<P>Spices and other natural seasonings and flavorings that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Botanical name of plant source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alfalfa herb and seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Medicago sativa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allspice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimenta officinalis</E> Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambrette seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hibiscus abelmoschus L.</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Angelica archangelica</E> L. or other spp. of Angelica.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angostura (cusparia bark)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Galipea officinalis</E> Hancock.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimpinella anisum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anise, star</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Illicium verum Hook.</E> f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balm (lemon balm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melissa officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basil, bush</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ocimum minimum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basil, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ocimum basilicum L.</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Laurus nobilis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendula</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Calendula officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile), English or Roman</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anthemis nobilis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile), German or Hungarian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Matricaria chamomilla</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capparis spinosa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capsicum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum frutescens</E> L. or <E T="03">Capsicum annuum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Caraway</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carum carvi</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Caraway, black (black cumin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nigella sativa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cardamom (cardamon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Elettaria cardamomum</E> Maton.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum cassia</E> Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia, Padang or Batavia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum burmanni</E> Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum loureirii</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cayenne pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum frutescens</E> L. or <E T="03">Capsicum annuum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Celery seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apium graveolens</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chervil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anthriscus cerefolium</E> (L.) Hoffm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium schoenoprasum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon, Ceylon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum zeylanicum</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum cassia</E> Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum loureirii</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clary (clary sage)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia sclarea L.</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trifolium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cloves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eugenia caryophyllata</E> Thunb.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coriander</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Coriandrum sativum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumin (cummin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cuminum cyminum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumin, black (black caraway)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nigella sativa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dill</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anethum graveolens</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elder flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sambucus canadensis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fennel, common</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Foeniculum vulgare</E> Mill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fennel, sweet (finocchio, Florence fennel)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Foeniculum vulgare</E> Mill. var. duice (DC.) Alex.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fenugreek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trigonella foenum-graecum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Galanga (galangal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alpina officinarum</E> Hance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Garlic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium sativum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pelargonium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ginger</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Zingiber officinale</E> Rosc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycyrrhiza</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Glycyrrhiza glabra</E> L. and other spp. of <E T="03">Glycyrrhiza.</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grains of paradise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Amomum melegueta</E> Rosc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horehound (hoarhound)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Marrubium vulgare</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horseradish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Armoracia lapathifolia</E> Gilib.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hyssop</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hyssopus officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavender</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lavandula officinalis</E> Chaix.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Licorice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Glycyrrhiza glabra</E> L. and other spp. of <E T="03">Glycyrrhiza.</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linden flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tilia</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mace</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myristica fragrans</E> Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marigold, pot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Calendula officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marjoram, pot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Majorana onites</E> (L.) Benth.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marjoram, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Majorana hortensis</E> Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard, black or brown</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica nigra</E> (L.) Koch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard, brown</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica juncea</E> (L.) Coss.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard, white or yellow</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica hirta</E> Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nutmeg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myristica fragrans</E> Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oregano (oreganum, Mexican oregano, Mexican sage, origan)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lippia</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paprika</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum annuum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parsley</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Petroselinum crispum</E> (Mill.) Mansf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, black</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Piper nigrum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, cayenne</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum frutescens</E> L. or <E T="03">Capsicum annuum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Piper nigrum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peppermint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha piperita</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poppy seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Papaver somniferum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pot marigold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Calendula officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pot marjoram</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Majorana onites</E> (L.) Benth.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosemary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rosmarinus officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ruta graveolens</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saffron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Crocus sativus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage, Greek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia triloba</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, summer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Satureia hortensis</E> L. (Satureja).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, winter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Satureia montana</E> L. (Satureja).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sesame</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sesamum indicum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spearmint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha spicata</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Star anise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Illicium verum</E> Hook. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tarragon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia dracunculus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thymus vulgaris</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme, wild or creeping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thymus serpyllum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turmeric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Curcuma longa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanilla</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vanilla planifolia</E> Andr. or <E T="03">Vanilla tahitensis</E> J. W. Moore.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zedoary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Curcuma zedoaria</E> Rosc.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.20" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.20   Essential oils, oleoresins (solvent-free), and natural extractives (including distillates).</HEAD>
<P>Essential oils, oleoresins (solvent-free), and natural extractives (including distillates) that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Botanical name of plant source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alfalfa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Medicago sativa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allspice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimenta officinalis</E> Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Almond, bitter (free from prussic acid)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus amygdalus</E> Batsch, <E T="03">Prunus armeniaca</E> L. or <E T="03">Prunus persica</E> (L.) Batsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambrette (seed)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hibiscus moschatus</E> Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Angelica archangelica</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angelica stem</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angostura (cusparia bark)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Galipea officinalis</E> Hancock.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimpinella anisum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asafetida</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ferula assa-foetida</E> L. and related spp. of Ferula.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balm (lemon balm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melissa officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balsam of Peru</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myroxylon pereirae</E> Klotzsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ocimum basilicum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bay leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Laurus nobilis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bay (myrcia oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimenta racemosa</E> (Mill.) J. W. Moore.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bergamot (bergamot orange)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus aurantium</E> L. subsp. bergamia Wright et Arn.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bitter almond (free from prussic acid)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus amygdalus</E> Batsch, <E T="03">Prunus armeniaca</E> L., or <E T="03">Prunus persica</E> (L.) Batsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bois de rose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aniba rosaeodora</E> Ducke.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cacao</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Theobroma cacao</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile) flowers, Hungarian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Matricaria chamomilla</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camomile (chamomile) flowers, Roman or English</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anthemis nobilis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cananga</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cananga odorata</E> Hook. f. and Thoms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capsicum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum frutescens</E> L. and <E T="03">Capsicum annuum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Caraway</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carum carvi</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cardamom seed (cardamon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Elettaria cardamomum</E> Maton.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carob bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ceratonia siliqua</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carrot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Daucus carota</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cascarilla bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Croton eluteria</E> Benn.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia bark, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum cassia</E> Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia bark, Padang or Batavia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum burmanni</E> Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cassia bark, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum loureirii</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Celery seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apium graveolens</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cherry, wild, bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus serotina</E> Ehrh.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chervil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anthriscus cerefolium</E> (L.) Hoffm.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chicory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cichorium intybus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon bark, Ceylon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum zeylanicum</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon bark, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum cassia</E> Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon bark, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum loureirii</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon leaf, Ceylon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum zeylanicum</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon leaf, Chinese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum cassia</E> Blume.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cinnamon leaf, Saigon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum loureirii</E> Nees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Citronella</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cymbopogon nardus</E> Rendle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Citrus peels</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clary (clary sage)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia sclarea</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clove bud</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eugenia caryophyllata</E> Thunb.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clove leaf</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clove stem</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trifolium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coca (decocainized)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Erythroxylum coca</E> Lam. and other spp. of Erythroxylum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coffee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Coffea</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cola nut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cola acuminata</E> Schott and Endl., and other spp. of Cola.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coriander</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Coriandrum sativum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corn silk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Zea mays</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumin (cummin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cuminum cyminum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curacao orange peel (orange, bitter peel)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus aurantium</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cusparia bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Galipea officinalis</E> Hancock.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dandelion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Taraxacum officinale</E> Weber and <E T="03">T. laevigatum</E> DC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dandelion root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dill</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anethum graveolens</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dog grass (quackgrass, triticum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Agropyron repens</E> (L.) Beauv.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elder flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sambucus canadensis</E> L. and S. nigra L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Estragole (esdragol, esdragon, tarragon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia dracunculus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Estragon (tarragon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fennel, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Foeniculum vulgare</E> Mill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fenugreek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trigonella foenum-graecum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Galanga (galangal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alpinia officinarum</E> Hance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Garlic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium sativum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pelargonium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium, East Indian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cymbopogon martini</E> Stapf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geranium, rose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pelargonium graveolens</E> L'Her.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ginger</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Zingiber officinale</E> Rosc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycyrrhiza</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Glycyrrhiza glabra</E> L. and other spp. of Glycyrrhiza.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycyrrhizin, ammoniated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grapefruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus paradisi</E> Macf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guava</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Psidium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hickory bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carya</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horehound (hoarhound)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Marrubium vulgare</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hops</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Humulus lupulus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horsemint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Monarda punctata</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hyssop</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hyssopus officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Immortelle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Helichrysum augustifolium</E> DC.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jasmine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Jaminum officinale</E> L. and other spp. of Jasminum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Juniper (berries)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juniperus communis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kola nut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cola acuminata</E> Schott and Endl., and other spp. of Cola.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laurel berries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Laurus nobilis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laurel leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Laurus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavender</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lavandula officinalis</E> Chaix.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavender, spike</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lavandula latifolia</E> Vill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavandin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hybrids between <E T="03">Lavandula officinalis</E> Chaix and <E T="03">Lavandula latifolin</E> Vill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus limon</E> (L.) Burm. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon balm (see balm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cymbopogon citratus</E> DC. and <E T="03">Cymbopogon flexuosus</E> Stapf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lemon peel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus limon</E> (L.) Burm. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Licorice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Glycyrrhiza glabra</E> L. and other spp. of Glycyrrhiza.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lime</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus aurantifolia</E> Swingle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linden flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tilia</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Locust bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ceratonia siliqua</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lupulin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Humulus lupulus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mace</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myristica fragrans</E> Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malt (extract)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hordeum vulgare</E> L., or other grains.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mandarin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus reticulata</E> Blanco.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marjoram, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Majorana hortensis</E> Moench.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mate 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ilex paraguariensis</E> St. Hil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melissa (see balm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Menthol</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Menthyl acetate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molasses (extract)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharum officinarum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naringin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus paradisi</E> Macf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neroli, bigarade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus aurantium</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nutmeg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myristica fragrans</E> Houtt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Onion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium cepa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, bitter, flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus aurantium</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, bitter, peel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange leaf</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus sinensis</E> (L.) Osbeck.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, sweet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, sweet, flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Orange, sweet, peel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Origanum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Origanum</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palmarosa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cymbopogon martini</E> Stapf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paprika</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum annuum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parsley</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Petroselinum crispum</E> (Mill.) Mansf.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, black</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Piper nigrum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pepper, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Piper nigrum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peppermint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha piperita</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peruvian balsam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myroxylon pereirae</E> Klotzsch.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petitgrain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus aurantium</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petitgrain lemon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus limon</E> (L.) Burm. f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petitgrain mandarin or tangerine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus reticulata</E> Blanco.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pimenta</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimenta officinalis</E> Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pimenta leaf</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Primenta officinalis</E> Lindl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pipsissewa leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chimaphila umbellata</E> Nutt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pomegranate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Punica granatum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prickly ash bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Xanthoxylum</E> (<E T="03">or Zanthoxylum</E>) <E T="03">Americanum</E> Mill. or <E T="03">Xanthoxylum clava-herculis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose absolute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rosa alba</E> L., <E T="03">Rosa centifolia</E> L., <E T="03">Rosa damascena</E> Mill., <E T="03">Rosa gallica</E> L., and vars. of these spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose (otto of roses, attar of roses)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose buds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose fruit (hips)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose geranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pelargonium graveolens</E> L'Her.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rose leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rosa</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rosemary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rosmarinus officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ruta graveolens</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saffron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Crocus sativus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia officinalis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage, Greek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia triloba</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sage, Spanish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia lavandulaefolia</E> Vahl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">St. John's bread</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ceratonia siliqua</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, summer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Satureia hortensis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savory, winter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Satureia montana</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schinus molle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Schinus molle</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sloe berries (blackthorn berries)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus spinosa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spearmint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha spicata</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spike lavender</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lavandula latifolia</E> Vill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tamarind</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tamarindus indica</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tangerine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus reticulata</E> Blanco.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tannic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nutgalls of <E T="03">Quercus infectoria</E> Oliver and related spp. of Quercus. Also in many other plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tarragon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia dracunculus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thea sinensis</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thymus vulgaris</E> L. and <E T="03">Thymus zygis</E> var. gracilis Boiss.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyme, wild or creeping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thymus serpyllum</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triticum (see dog grass).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tuberose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Polianthes tuberosa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turmeric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Curcuma longa</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanilla</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vanilla planifolia</E> Andr. or <E T="03">Vanilla tahitensis</E> J. W. Moore.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Violet flowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Viola odorata</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Violet leaves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Violet leaves absolute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wild cherry bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus serotina</E> Ehrh.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ylang-ylang</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cananga odorata</E> Hook. f. and Thoms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zedoary bark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Curcuma zedoaria</E> Rosc.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.30" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.30   Natural substances used in conjunction with spices and other natural seasonings and flavorings.</HEAD>
<P>Natural substances used in conjunction with spices and other natural seasonings and flavorings that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Botanical name of plant source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Algae, brown (kelp)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Laminaria</E> spp. and <E T="03">Nereocystis</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Algae, red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Porphyra</E> spp. and <E T="03">Rhodymenia palmata</E> (L.) Grev.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dulse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rhodymenia palmata</E> (L.)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.40" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.40   Natural extractives (solvent-free) used in conjunction with spices, seasonings, and flavorings.</HEAD>
<P>Natural extractives (solvent-free) used in conjunction with spices, seasonings, and flavorings that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Botanical name of plant source
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Algae, brown</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Laminaria</E> spp. and <E T="03">Nereocystis</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Algae, red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Porphyra</E> spp. and <E T="03">Rhodymenia palmata</E> (L.) Grev.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apricot kernel (persic oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus armeniaca</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dulse</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rhodymenia palmata</E> (L.) Grev.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kelp (see algae, brown).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peach kernel (persic oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus persica</E> Sieb. et Zucc.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peanut stearine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Arachis hypogaea</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Persic oil (see apricot kernel and peach kernel).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quince seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cydonia oblonga</E> Miller.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.50" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.50   Certain other spices, seasonings, essential oils, oleoresins, and natural extracts.</HEAD>
<P>Certain other spices, seasonings, essential oils, oleoresins, and natural extracts that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the act, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Derivation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambergris</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Physeter macrocephalus</E> L.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Castoreum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Castor fiber L. and C. <E T="03">canadensis</E> Kuhl.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Civet (zibeth, zibet, zibetum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Civet cats, <E T="03">Viverra civetta</E> Schreber and <E T="03">Viverra zibetha</E> Schreber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cognac oil, white and green</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ethyl oenanthate,</E> so-called.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Musk (Tonquin musk)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Musk deer, <E T="03">Moschus moschiferus</E> L.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.60" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.60   Synthetic flavoring substances and adjuvants.</HEAD>
<P>Synthetic flavoring substances and adjuvants that are generally recognized as safe for their intended use, within the meaning of section 409 of the act, are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acetaldehyde (ethanal). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetoin (acetyl methylcarbinol). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aconitic acid (equisetic acid, citridic acid, achilleic acid). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anethole (parapropenyl anisole). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzaldehyde (benzoic aldehyde). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N</I>-Butyric acid (butanoic acid). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>d</I>- or <I>l</I>-Carvone (carvol). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cinnamaldehyde (cinnamic aldehyde). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citral (2,6-dimethyloctadien-2,6-<I>al</I>-8, geranial, neral). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decanal (<I>N</I>-decylaldhehyde, capraldehyde, capric aldehyde, caprinaldehyde, aldehyde <I>C</I>-10). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diacetyl (2,3-butandeione). Ethyl acetate. Ethyl butyrate. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methyl-3-phenyl glycidic acid ethyl ester (ethyl-methyl-phenyl-glycidate, so-called strawberry aldehyde, C-16 aldehyde). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl vanillin. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugenol. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geraniol (3,7-dimethyl-2,6 and 3,6-octadien-1-<I>ol</I>). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geranyl acetate (geraniol acetate). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycerol (glyceryl) tributyrate (tributyrin, butyrin). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Limonene (<I>d-, l-, and dl-</I>). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalool (linalol, 3,7-dimethyl-1,6-octadien-3-<I>ol</I>). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Linalyl acetate (bergamol). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>l</I>-Malic acid. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl anthranilate (methyl-2-aminobenzoate). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Piperonal (3,4-methylenedioxy-benzaldehyde, heliotropin). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vanillin.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.80" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.80   Trace minerals added to animal feeds.</HEAD>
<P>These substances added to animal feeds as nutritional dietary supplements are generally recognized as safe when added at levels consistent with good feeding practice. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> All substances listed may be in anhydrous or hydrated form.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Element
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Source compounds
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cobalt acetate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cobalt carbonate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cobalt chloride.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cobalt oxide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cobalt sulfate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper carbonate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper chloride.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper gluconate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper hydroxide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper orthophosphate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper oxide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper pyrophosphate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper sulfate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calcium iodate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calcium iodobehenate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cuprous iodide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3,5-Diiodosalicylic acid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethylenediamine dihydroiodide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potassium iodate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potassium iodide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sodium iodate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sodium iodide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thymol iodide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron ammonium citrate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron carbonate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron chloride.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron gluconate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron oxide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron phosphate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron pyrophosphate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron sulfate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reduced iron.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese acetate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese carbonate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese citrate (soluble).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese chloride.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese gluconate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese orthophosphate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese phosphate (dibasic).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese sulfate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganous oxide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zinc acetate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zinc carbonate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zinc chloride.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zinc oxide.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zinc sulfate.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.99" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.1.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.99   Adjuvants for pesticide chemicals.</HEAD>
<P>Adjuvants, identified and used in accordance with 40 CFR 180.910 and 180.920, which are added to pesticide use dilutions by a grower or applicator prior to application to the raw agricultural commodity, are exempt from the requirement of tolerances under section 409 of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72908, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Purpose Food Additives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1005" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1005   Acetic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Acetic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1009" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1009   Adipic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Adipic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a buffer and neutralizing agent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1033" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1033   Citric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Citric acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1057" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1057   Hydrochloric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Hydrochloric acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a buffer and neutralizing agent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1061" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1061   Lactic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Lactic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1069" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1069   Malic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Malic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1073" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1073   Phosphoric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Phosphoric acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1077" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1077   Potassium acid tartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium acid tartrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1087" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1087   Sodium acid pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium acid pyrophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1091" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1091   Succinic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Succinic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1095" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1095   Sulfuric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sulfuric acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1099" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1099   Tartaric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tartaric acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1125" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1125   Aluminum sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1127" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1127   Aluminum ammonium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum ammonium sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1129" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1129   Aluminum potassium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum potassium sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1131" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1131   Aluminum sodium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum sodium sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1135" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1135   Ammonium bicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ammonium bicarbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1137" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1137   Ammonium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ammonium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1139" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1139   Ammonium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ammonium hydroxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1141" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1141   Ammonium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ammonium phosphate (mono- and dibasic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1143" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1143   Ammonium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ammonium sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1155" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1155   Bentonite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Bentonite. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1165" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1165   Butane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Butane. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1191" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1191   Calcium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1193" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1193   Calcium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium chloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1195" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1195   Calcium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1199" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1199   Calcium gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium gluconate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1205" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1205   Calcium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium hydroxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1207" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1207   Calcium lactate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium lactate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1210" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1210   Calcium oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1217" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1217   Calcium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1235" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1235   Caramel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Caramel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1240" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1240   Carbon dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Carbon dioxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1275" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1275   Dextrans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Dextrans of average molecular weight below 100,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1320" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1320   Glycerin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Glycerin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1324" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1324   Glyceryl monostearate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Glyceryl monostearate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1355" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1355   Helium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Helium. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1366" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1366   Hydrogen peroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Hydrogen peroxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a bleaching agent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1400" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1400   Lecithin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Lecithin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1425" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1425   Magnesium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1428" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1428   Magnesium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium hydroxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1431" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1431   Magnesium oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1480" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1480   Methylcellulose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> U.S.P. methylcellulose, except that the methoxy content shall not be less than 27.5 percent and not more than 31.5 percent on a dry-weight basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1500" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1500   Monoammonium glutamate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monoammonium glutamate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1516" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1516   Monopotassium glutamate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monopotassium glutamate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1540" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1540   Nitrogen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Nitrogen. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1585" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1585   Papain.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Papain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1613" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1613   Potassium bicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium bicarbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1619" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1619   Potassium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1625" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1625   Potassium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1631" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1631   Potassium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium hydroxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1643" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1643   Potassium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1655" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1655   Propane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Propane. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1666" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1666   Propylene glycol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Propylene glycol. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe (except in cat food) when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38657, Sept. 10, 1976, as amended at 61 FR 19544, May 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1685" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1685   Rennet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Rennet (rennin). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1711" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1711   Silica aerogel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Silica aerogel as a finely powdered microcellular silica foam having a minimum silica content of 89.5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used as a component of antifoaming agents in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1721" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1721   Sodium acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium acetate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1736" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1736   Sodium bicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium bicarbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1742" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1742   Sodium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1745" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1745   Sodium carboxymethylcellulose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium carboxymethyl- cellulose is the sodium salt of carboxymethylcellulose not less than 99.5 percent on a dry-weight basis, with maximum substitution of 0.95 carboxymethyl groups per anhydroglucose unit, and with a minimum viscosity of 25 centipoises for 2 percent by weight aqueous solution at 25 °C. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1748" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1748   Sodium caseinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium caseinate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1751" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1751   Sodium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1763" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1763   Sodium hydroxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium hydroxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1775" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1775   Sodium pectinate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium pectinate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1778" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1778   Sodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1781" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1781   Sodium aluminum phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium aluminum phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1792" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1792   Sodium sesquicarbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium sesquicarbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1804" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1804   Sodium potassium tartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium potassium tartrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1810" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1810   Sodium tripolyphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium tripolyphosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1901" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1901   Triacetin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Triacetin (glyceryl triacetate). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1973" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1973   Beeswax.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Beeswax (yellow wax). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1975" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1975   Bleached beeswax.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Bleached beeswax (white wax). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.1978" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.2.2.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.1978   Carnauba wax.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Carnauba wax. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Anticaking Agents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.2122" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.3.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.2122   Aluminum calcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aluminum calcium silicate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in table salt in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.2227" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.3.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.2227   Calcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium silicate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent and 5 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used at levels not exceeding 2 percent in table salt and 5 percent in baking powder in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.2437" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.3.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.2437   Magnesium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium silicate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in table salt in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.2727" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.3.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.2727   Sodium aluminosilicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium aluminosilicate (sodium silicoaluminate). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 2 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.2729" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.3.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.2729   Hydrated sodium calcium aluminosilicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Hydrated sodium calcium aluminosilicate (sodium calcium silicoaluminate). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 2 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.2906" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.3.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.2906   Tricalcium silicate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tricalcium silicate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 2 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in table salt in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Chemical Preservatives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3013" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3013   Ascorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ascorbic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3021" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3021   Benzoic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Benzoic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.1 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3041" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3041   Erythorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Erythorbic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3081" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3081   Propionic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Propionic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3089" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3089   Sorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sorbic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3109" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3109   Thiodipropionic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Thiodipropionic acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content including essential (volatile) oil content of the food, provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3149" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3149   Ascorbyl palmitate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ascorbyl palmitate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3169" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3169   Butylated hydroxyanisole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Butylated hydroxyanisole. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of food provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3173" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3173   Butylated hydroxytoluene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Butylated hydroxytol- uene. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of food provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3189" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3189   Calcium ascorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium ascorbate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3221" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3221   Calcium propionate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium propionate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3225" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3225   Calcium sorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium sorbate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3280" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3280   Dilauryl thiodipropionate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Dilauryl thiodipropionate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of the food, provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3336" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3336   Gum guaiac.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Gum guaiac. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 0.1 percent (equivalent antioxidant activity 0.01 percent). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in edible fats or oils in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3490" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3490   Methylparaben.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Methylparaben (methyl <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoate). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.1 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3616" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3616   Potassium bisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium bisulfite. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice, except that it is not used in meats or in food recognized as source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3637" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3637   Potassium metabisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium metabisulfite. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice, except that it is not used in meats or in food recognized as source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3640" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3640   Potassium sorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium sorbate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3660" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3660   Propyl gallate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Propyl gallate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use in food when the total content of antioxidants is not over 0.02 percent of fat or oil content, including essential (volatile) oil content of the food, provided the substance is used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3670" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3670   Propylparaben.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Propylparaben (propyl <I>p</I>-hydroxybenzoate). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.1 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3731" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3731   Sodium ascorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium ascorbate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3733" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3733   Sodium benzoate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium benzoate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.1 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3739" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3739   Sodium bisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium bisulfite. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice, except that it is not used in meats or in food recognized as source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3766" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3766   Sodium metabisulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium metabisulfite. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice, except that it is not used in meats or in food recognized as source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3784" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3784   Sodium propionate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium propionate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3795" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3795   Sodium sorbate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium sorbate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3798" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3798   Sodium sulfite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium sulfite. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice, except that it is not used in meats or in food recognized as source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3845" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3845   Stannous chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Stannous chloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.0015 percent calculated as tin in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3862" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3862   Sulfur dioxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sulfur dioxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice, except that it is not used in meats or in food recognized as source of vitamin B<E T="52">1</E>. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.3890" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.4.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.3890   Tocopherols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tocopherols. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Emulsifying Agents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.4101" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.5.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.4101   Diacetyl tartaric acid esters of mono- and diglycerides of edible fats or oils, or edible fat-forming fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Diacetyl tartaric acid esters of mono- and diglycerides of edible fats or oils, or edible fat-forming fatty acids. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.4505" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.5.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.4505   Mono- and diglycerides of edible fats or oils, or edible fat-forming acids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Mono- and diglycerides of edible fats or oils, or edible fat-forming acids. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.4521" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.5.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.4521   Monosodium phosphate derivatives of mono- and diglycerides of edible fats or oils, or edible fat-forming fatty acids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monosodium phosphate derivatives of mono- and diglycerides of edible fats or oils, or edible fat-forming fatty acids. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.4666" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.5.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.4666   Propylene glycol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Propylene glycol. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Nutrients and/or Dietary Supplements 
<SU>1</SU></HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5013" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5013   Ascorbic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ascorbic acid.
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Amino acids listed in this subpart may be free hydrochloride salt, hydrated, or anhydrous form, where applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5017" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5017   Aspartic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Aspartic acid (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5049" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5049   Aminoacetic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Glycine (aminoacetic acid). 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in animal feeds in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5065" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5065   Linoleic acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Linoleic acid prepared from edible fats and oils and free from chick-edema factor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5118" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5118   Alanine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Alanine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5145" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5145   Arginine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Arginine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5159" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5159   Biotin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Biotin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5191" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5191   Calcium carbonate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium carbonate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5195" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5195   Calcium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5201" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5201   Calcium glycerophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium glycerophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5210" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5210   Calcium oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5212" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5212   Calcium pantothenate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium pantothenate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5217" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5217   Calcium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5223" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5223   Calcium pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium pyrophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5230" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5230   Calcium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5245" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5245   Carotene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Carotene. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5250" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5250   Choline bitartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Choline bitartrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5252" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5252   Choline chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Choline chloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5260" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5260   Copper gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Copper gluconate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.005 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5271" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5271   Cysteine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Cysteine (L-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5273" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5273   Cystine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Cystine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5301" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5301   Ferric phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ferric phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5304" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5304   Ferric pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ferric pyrophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5306" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5306   Ferric sodium pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ferric sodium pyrophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5308" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5308   Ferrous gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ferrous gluconate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5311" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5311   Ferrous lactate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ferrous lactate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5315" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5315   Ferrous sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ferrous sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5361" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5361   Histidine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Histidine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5370" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5370   Inositol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Inositol. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5375" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5375   Iron reduced.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Iron reduced. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5381" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5381   Isoleucine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Isoleucine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5406" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5406   Leucine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Leucine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5411" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5411   Lysine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Lysine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5431" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5431   Magnesium oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5434" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5434   Magnesium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium phosphate (di- and tribasic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5443" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5443   Magnesium sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Magnesium sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5446" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5446   Manganese chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Manganese chloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5449" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5449   Manganese citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Manganese citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5452" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5452   Manganese gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Manganese gluconate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5455" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5455   Manganese glycerophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Manganese glycerophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5458" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5458   Manganese hypophosphite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Manganese hypophosphite. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5461" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5461   Manganese sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Manganese sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5464" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5464   Manganous oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Manganous oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5470" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5470   Mannitol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Mannitol. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5475" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5475   Methionine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Methionine. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in animal feeds in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5477" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5477   Methionine hydroxy analog and its calcium salts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Methionine hydroxy analog and its calcium salts. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in animal feeds in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5530" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5530   Niacin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Niacin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5535" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5535   Niacinamide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Niacinamide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5580" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5580   D-Pantothenyl alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> D-Pantothenyl alcohol. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5590" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5590   Phenylalanine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Phenylalanine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5622" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5622   Potassium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium chloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5628" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5628   Potassium glycerophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium glycerophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5634" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5634   Potassium iodide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium iodide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 0.01 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in table salt as a source of dietary iodine in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5650" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5650   Proline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Proline (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5676" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5676   Pyridoxine hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Pyridoxine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5695" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5695   Riboflavin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Riboflavin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5697" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5697   Riboflavin-5-phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Riboflavin-5-phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5701" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5701   Serine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Serine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5772" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5772   Sodium pantothenate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium pantothenate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5778" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5778   Sodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5835" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5835   Sorbitol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sorbitol. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5875" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5875   Thiamine hydrochloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Thiamine hydrochloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5878" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5878   Thiamine mononitrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Thiamine mononitrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5881" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5881   Threonine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Threonine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5890" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5890   Tocopherols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tocopherols. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5892" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5892   <E T="7462">a</E>-Tocopherol acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product. a</I>-Tocopherol acetate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5915" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5915   Tryptophane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tryptophane (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5920" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5920   Tyrosine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tyrosine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5925" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5925   Valine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Valine (L- and DL-forms). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5930" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5930   Vitamin A.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Vitamin A. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5933" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5933   Vitamin A acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Vitamin A acetate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5936" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5936   Vitamin A palmitate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Vitamin A palmitate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5945" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5945   Vitamin B<E T="9145">12</E>.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Vitamin B<E T="52">12</E>. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5950" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5950   Vitamin D<E T="9145">2</E>.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Vitamin D<E T="52">2</E>. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5953" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5953   Vitamin D<E T="9145">3</E>.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Vitamin D<E T="52">3</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5985" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5985   Zinc chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc chloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5988" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5988   Zinc gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc gluconate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5991" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5991   Zinc oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5994" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5994   Zinc stearate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc stearate prepared from stearic acid free from chick-edema factor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.5997" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.6.2.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.5997   Zinc sulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Zinc sulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Sequestrants 
<SU>2</SU></HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6033" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6033   Citric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Citric acid.
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the purpose of this subpart, no attempt has been made to designate those sequestrants that may also function as chemical preservatives.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6085" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6085   Sodium acid phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium acid phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6099" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6099   Tartaric acid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tartaric acid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6185" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6185   Calcium acetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium acetate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6193" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6193   Calcium chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium chloride. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6195" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6195   Calcium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6197" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6197   Calcium diacetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium diacetate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6199" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6199   Calcium gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium gluconate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6203" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6203   Calcium hexametaphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium hexametaphosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6215" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6215   Monobasic calcium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monobasic calcium phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6219" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6219   Calcium phytate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium phytate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6285" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6285   Dipotassium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Dipotassium phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6290" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6290   Disodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Disodium phosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6386" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6386   Isopropyl citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Isopropyl citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.02 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6511" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6511   Monoisopropyl citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Monoisopropyl citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6625" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6625   Potassium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38657, Sept. 10, 1976. Redesignated at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6751" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6751   Sodium citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 38657, Sept. 10, 1976. Redesignated at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6754" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6754   Sodium diacetate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium diacetate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6757" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6757   Sodium gluconate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium gluconate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6760" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6760   Sodium hexametaphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium hexametaphosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6769" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6769   Sodium metaphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium metaphosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6778" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6778   Sodium phosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium phosphate (mono-, di-, and tribasic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6787" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6787   Sodium pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium pyrophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Condition of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6789" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6789   Tetra sodium pyrophosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tetra sodium pyrophosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6801" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6801   Sodium tartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium tartrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6804" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6804   Sodium potassium tartrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium potassium tartrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6807" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6807   Sodium thiosulfate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium thiosulfate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> 0.1 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations, restrictions, or explanation.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in salt in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6810" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6810   Sodium tripolyphosphate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium tripolyphosphate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.6851" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.7.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.6851   Stearyl citrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Stearyl citrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tolerance.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe for use at a level not exceeding 0.15 percent in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Stabilizers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7115" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7115   Agar-agar.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Agar-agar. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7133" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7133   Ammonium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Ammonium alginate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7187" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7187   Calcium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Calcium alginate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7255" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7255   Chondrus extract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Chondrus extract (carrageenin). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7330" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7330   Gum arabic.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Acacia (gum arabic). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7333" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7333   Gum ghatti.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Gum ghatti. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7339" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7339   Guar gum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Guar gum. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7343" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7343   Locust bean gum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Locust (carob) bean gum. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7349" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7349   Sterculia gum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sterculia gum (karaya gum). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7351" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7351   Gum tragacanth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Tragacanth (gum tragacanth). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7610" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7610   Potassium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Potassium alginate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 582.7724" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.25.8.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 582.7724   Sodium alginate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Sodium alginate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe when used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practice. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="584" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 584—FOOD SUBSTANCES AFFIRMED AS GENERALLY RECOGNIZED AS SAFE IN FEED AND DRINKING WATER OF ANIMALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 348, 371. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Listing of Specific Substances Affirmed as GRAS</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 584.200" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.26.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 584.200   Ethyl alcohol containing ethyl acetate.</HEAD>
<P>The feed additive ethyl alcohol containing ethyl acetate meets the requirement of 27 CFR 21.62, being not less than 92.5 percent ethyl alcohol, each 100 gallons having had added the equivalent of 4.25 gallons of 100 percent ethyl acetate. It is used in accordance with good feeding practices in ruminant feed supplements as a source of added energy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 52333, Oct. 27, 1981, as amended at 72 FR 41620, July 31, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 584.700" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.26.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 584.700   Hydrophobic silicas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> Amorphous fumed hydrophobic silica or precipitated hydrophobic silica (CAS Reg. No. 68611-0944-099, silane, dichlorodimethyl-, reaction products with silica).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> An anticaking/free-flow agent in vitamin preparations for animal feed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> Not to exceed 5 percent in the vitamin preparation. It shall be used in accordance with good manufacturing or feeding practices. It must be of purity suitable for intended use, and it must comply with the following specifications: 
</P>
<P>(i) Amorphous fumed hydrophobic silica: Not less than 99.0 percent silicon dioxide after ignition. Not more than 3 ppm arsenic. Not more than 0.003 percent heavy metals (as lead). Not more than 10 ppm lead. Not more than 2.5 percent loss on drying. Not more than 2 percent loss on ignition after drying. Not more than 1 percent insoluble substances. Not more than 50 parts per million dichlorodimethylsilane.
</P>
<P>(ii) Precipated hydrophobic silica: Not less than 94.0 percent silicon dioxide after ignition. Not more than 3 ppm arsenic. Not more than 0.003 percent heavy metals (as lead). Not more than 10 ppm lead. Not more than 7 percent loss on drying. Not more than 8.5 percent loss on ignition after drying. Not more than 5 percent soluble ionizable salts (as sodium sulfate). Not more than 1 percent insoluble substances. Not more than 50 parts per million dichlorodimethylsilane.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 43453, Aug. 23, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 584.725" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.26.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 584.725   25-Hydroxyvitamin D<E T="9145">3</E>.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Product.</I> 25-Hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> (9,10-secocholesta-5,7,10(19)-triene-3β, 25-diol).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions of use.</I> This substance is generally recognized as safe as a source of vitamin D<E T="52">3</E> activity in feed or drinking water of broiler chickens when used in accordance with the limitations in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> (1) Not to exceed 69 parts per billion (ppb) in feed or 34.5 ppb in drinking water. It shall be used in accordance with good manufacturing and feeding practices.
</P>
<P>(2) The product must comply with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Not less than 94.0 percent 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than 1 percent of any individual sterol.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than 5 percent water.
</P>
<P>(iv) Not more than 20 parts per million (ppm) lead.
</P>
<P>(v) Not more than 20 ppm aluminum.
</P>
<P>(vi) Not more than 1.0 percent solvents and non-detectable levels of 2′. 4′. 5′. 7′-tetraiodofluorescin.
</P>
<P>(3) Product labeling shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement to indicate that the maximum use level of 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> must not exceed 69 ppb in feed or 34.5 ppb in drinking water.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate use directions to ensure that 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> (and all premixes) is uniformly blended throughout the feed or drinking water.
</P>
<P>(iii) An expiration date on all premix labeling.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement on all premix labeling (feed and drinking water forms) that 25-hydroxyvitamin D<E T="52">3</E> should not be used simultaneously in both feed and water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 12564, Mar. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="589" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 589—SUBSTANCES PROHIBITED FROM USE IN ANIMAL FOOD OR FEED 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 342, 343, 348, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 589.1" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 589.1   Substances prohibited from use in animal food or feed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The substances listed in this part have been prohibited from use in animal food or feed by the Food and Drug Administration because of a determination that they present a potential risk to the public health or have not been shown by adequate scientific data to be safe for use in such food or feed. Use of any of these substances in violation of this part causes the animal food or feed involved to be adulterated and in violation of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part includes only a partial list of substances prohibited from use in animal food or feed; it is for easy reference purposes and is not a complete list of substances that may not lawfully be used in such animal food or feed. No substance may be used in animal food or feed unless it meets all applicable requirements of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration either on its own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition, may publish a proposal to establish, amend, or repeal a regulation under this part on the basis of new scientific evaluation or information. Any such petition shall include an adequate scientific basis to support the petition, shall be the form set forth in § 571.1 of this chapter, and will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for comment if it contains reasonable ground.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 28319, Apr. 29, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Listing of Specific Substances Prohibited From Use in Animal Food or Feed</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 589.1000" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 589.1000   Gentian violet.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration has determined that gentian violet has not been shown by adequate scientific data to be safe for use in animal feed. Use of gentian violet in animal feed causes the feed to be adulterated and in violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), in the absence of a regulation providing for its safe use as a food additive under section 409 of the act, unless it is subject to an effective notice of claimed investigational exemption for a food additive under § 570.17 of this chapter, or unless the substance is intended for use as a new animal drug and is subject to an approved application under section 512 of the act, or an index listing under section 572 of the act, or an effective notice of claimed investigational exemption for a new animal drug under part 511 of this chapter or § 516.125 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 69131, Dec. 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 589.1001" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 589.1001   Propylene glycol in or on cat food.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration has determined that propylene glycol in or on cat food has not been shown by adequate scientific data to be safe for use. Use of propylene glycol in or on cat food causes the feed to be adulterated and in violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), in the absence of a regulation providing for its safe use as a food additive under section 409 of the act, unless it is subject to an effective notice of claimed investigational exemption for a food additive under § 570.17 of this chapter, or unless the substance is intended for use as a new animal drug and is subject to an approved application under section 512 of the act or an effective notice of claimed investigational exemption for a new animal drug under part 511 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19544, May 2, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 589.2000" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 589.2000   Animal proteins prohibited in ruminant feed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Protein derived from mammalian tissues</I> means any protein-containing portion of mammalian animals, excluding: Blood and blood products; gelatin; tallow containing no more than 0.15 percent insoluble impurities and tallow derivatives as specified in § 589.2001; inspected meat products which have been cooked and offered for human food and further heat processed for feed (such as plate waste and used cellulosic food casings); milk products (milk and milk proteins); and any product whose only mammalian protein consists entirely of porcine or equine protein.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Renderer</I> means any firm or individual that processes slaughter byproducts, animals unfit for human consumption, or meat scraps. The term includes persons who collect such materials and subject them to minimal processing, or distribute them to firms other than renderers (as defined here) whose intended use for the products may include animal feed. The term includes renderers that also blend animal protein products.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Blender</I> means any firm or individual which obtains processed animal protein from more than one source or from more than one species, and subsequently mixes (blends) or redistributes an animal protein product.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Feed manufacturer</I> includes manufacturers of complete and intermediate feeds intended for animals, and includes on-farm in addition to off-farm feed manufacturing and mixing operations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Nonmammalian protein</I> includes proteins from nonmammalian animals.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Distributor</I> includes persons who distribute or transport feeds or feed ingredients intended for animals.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Ruminant</I> includes any member of the order of animals which has a stomach with four chambers (rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum) through which feed passes in digestion. The order includes, but is not limited to, cattle, buffalo, sheep, goats, deer, elk, and antelopes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Food additive status.</I> The Food and Drug Administration has determined that protein derived from mammalian tissues for use in ruminant feed is a food additive subject to section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act). The use or intended use in ruminant feed of any material that contains protein derived from mammalian tissues causes the feed to be adulterated and in violation of the act, unless it is the subject of an effective notice of claimed investigational exemption for a food additive under § 570.17 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for renderers that are not included in paragraph (e) of this section.</I> (1) Renderers that manufacture products that contain or may contain protein derived from mammalian tissues and that are intended for use in animal feed shall take the following measures to ensure that materials identified in paragraph (b) of this section are not used in the feed of ruminants:
</P>
<P>(i) Label the materials as follows: “Do not feed to cattle or other ruminants”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain records sufficient to track the materials throughout their receipt, processing, and distribution, and make the copies available for inspection and copying by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) Renderers described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section will be exempted from the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section if they:
</P>
<P>(i) Use exclusively a manufacturing method that has been validated by the Food and Drug Administration to deactivate the agent that causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) and whose design has been made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(ii) Use routinely a test method that has been validated by the Food and Drug Administration to detect the presence of the agent that causes TSE's and whose design has been made available to the public. Renderers whose products test positive for agents that cause TSE's must comply with paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section. Records of the test results shall be made available for inspection by the Food and Drug Administration; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Use exclusively a method for controlling the manufacturing process that minimizes the risk of the TSE agent entering the product and whose design has been made available to the public and validated by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) Renderers described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section will be exempted from the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section if they use a permanent method, approved by FDA, to make a mark indicating that the product contains or may contain protein derived from mammalian tissue. If the marking is by the use of an agent that cannot be detected on visual inspection, the renderer must use an agent whose presence can be detected by a method that has been validated by the Food and Drug Administration and whose design has been made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(4) Renderers shall comply with all applicable requirements under § 589.2001.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements for protein blenders, feed manufacturers, and distributors that are not included in paragraph (e) of this section.</I> (1) Protein blenders, feed manufacturers, and distributors that manufacture, blend, process, and distribute products that contain or may contain protein derived from mammalian tissues shall comply with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Protein blenders, feed manufacturers, and distributors, shall be exempt from paragraphs (d)(1) of this section if they:
</P>
<P>(i) Purchase animal products from renderers that certified compliance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section or purchase such materials from parties that certify that the materials were purchased from renderers that certified compliance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) Protein blenders, feed manufacturers, and distributors, shall be exempt from paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section if they:
</P>
<P>(i) Purchase animal protein products that are marked in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section or purchase such materials from renderers that certified compliance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, or purchase such materials from parties that certify that the materials were purchased from renderers that certified compliance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Pet food products that are sold or are intended for sale at retail and feeds for nonruminant laboratory animals are exempt from the labeling requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. However, if the pet food products or feeds for nonruminant laboratory animals are sold or are intended for sale as distressed or salvage items, then such products shall be labeled in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) Copies of certifications as described in paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section, shall be made available for inspection and copying by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirements for persons that intend to separate mammalian and nonmammalian materials.</I> (1) Renderers, protein blenders, feed manufacturers, distributors, and others that manufacture, process, blend and distribute both products that contain or may contain protein derived from mammalian tissues or feeds containing such products, and protein products from other animal tissues or feeds containing such products, and that intend to keep those products separate shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with paragraphs (c)(1) or (d)(1) of this section as appropriate except that the labeling requirement shall apply only to products that contain or may contain protein derived from mammalian tissues or feeds containing such products;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a renderer, obtain nonmammalian or pure porcine or pure equine materials only from single-species slaughter facilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide for measures to avoid commingling or cross-contamination;
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain separate equipment or facilities for the manufacture, processing, or blending of such materials; or
</P>
<P>(B) Use clean-out procedures or other means adequate to prevent carry-over of products that contain or may contain protein derived from mammalian tissues into animal protein or feeds that may be used for ruminants; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Maintain written procedures specifying the clean-out procedures or other means, and specifying the procedures for separating products that contain or may contain protein derived from mammalian tissue from all other protein products from the time of receipt until the time of shipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Renderers, blenders, feed manufacturers, and distributors will be exempted from applicable requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, if they meet the criteria for exemption under paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section, and (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Renderers shall comply with all applicable requirements under § 589.2001.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requirements for establishments and individuals that are responsible for feeding ruminant animals.</I> Establishments and individuals that are responsible for feeding ruminant animals shall maintain copies of purchase invoices and labeling for all feeds containing animal protein products received, and make the copies available for inspection and copying by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Adulteration and misbranding.</I> (1) Animal protein products, and feeds containing such products, that are not in compliance with paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section, excluding labeling requirements, will be deemed adulterated under section 402(a)(2)(C) or 402(a)(4) of the act.
</P>
<P>(2) Animal protein products, and feeds containing such products, that are not in compliance with the labeling requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section will be deemed misbranded under section 403(a)(1) or 403(f) of the act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Inspection; records retention.</I> (1) Records that are to be made available for inspection and copying, as required by this section, shall be kept for a minimum of 1 year.
</P>
<P>(2) Written procedures required by this section shall be made available for inspection and copying by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 30976, June 5, 1997, as amended at 73 FR 22756, Apr. 25, 2008]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 62 FR 30976, June 5, 1997, § 589.2000 was added. Paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section contains information collection and recordkeeping requirements and will not become effective until approval has been given by the Office of Management and Budget.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 589.2001" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.27.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 589.2001   Cattle materials prohibited in animal food or feed to prevent the transmission of bovine spongiform encephalopathy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to prohibit the use of certain cattle origin materials in the food or feed of all animals to further reduce the risk of the spread of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) within the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Cattle materials prohibited in animal feed</I> include:
</P>
<P>(i) The entire carcass of BSE-positive cattle;
</P>
<P>(ii) The brains and spinal cords of cattle 30 months of age and older;
</P>
<P>(iii) The entire carcass of cattle not inspected and passed for human consumption as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that are 30 months of age or older from which brains and spinal cords were not effectively removed or otherwise effectively excluded from animal feed;
</P>
<P>(iv) Mechanically separated beef as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section that is derived from materials specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i), (b)(1)(ii), and (b)(1)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Tallow as defined in paragraph (b)(5) of this section that is derived from materials specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i), (b)(1)(ii), and (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Cattle materials prohibited in animal feed do not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Tallow derivatives as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Tallow as defined in paragraph (b)(5) of this section that is derived from materials specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (b)(1)(iii) of this section and that contains no more than 0.15 percent insoluble impurities. Insoluble impurities must be measured by the method entitled “Insoluble Impurities” (AOCS Method Ca 3a-46), American Oil Chemists' Society (AOCS), 5th Edition, 1997, incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or another method equivalent in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity to AOCS Official Method Ca 3a-46. You may obtain copies of the method from the AOCS (<I>http://www.aocs.org</I>), 2211 W. Bradley Ave., Champaign, IL 61821. Copies may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(C) Materials as defined in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iii), (b)(1)(iv) (other than mechanically separated beef from the carcass of a BSE-positive cattle), and (b)(1)(v) of this section from cattle from a country that has been designated under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cattle not inspected and passed for human consumption</I> means cattle that did not pass antemortem inspection by the appropriate regulatory authority. This term includes nonambulatory disabled cattle. Nonambulatory disabled cattle are cattle that cannot rise from a recumbent position or that cannot walk, including, but not limited to, those with broken appendages, severed tendons or ligaments, nerve paralysis, fractured vertebral column, or metabolic conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mechanically separated beef</I> means a finely comminuted meat food product, resulting from the mechanical separation and removal of most of the bone from attached skeletal muscle of cattle carcasses and parts of carcasses.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Renderer</I> means any firm or individual that processes slaughter byproducts, animals unfit for human consumption, or meat scraps. The term includes persons who collect such materials and subject them to minimal processing, or distribute them to firms other than renderers (as defined in this paragraph) whose intended use for the products may include animal feed, industrial use, or other uses. The term includes renderers that also blend animal protein products.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tallow</I> means the rendered fat of cattle obtained by pressing or by applying any other extraction process to tissues derived directly from discrete adipose tissue masses or to other carcass parts and tissues.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tallow derivative</I> means any product obtained through initial hydrolysis, saponification, or trans-esterification of tallow; chemical conversion of material obtained by hydrolysis, saponification, or trans-esterification may be applied to obtain the desired product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) No animal feed or feed ingredient shall be manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contain, cattle materials prohibited in animal feed as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Renderers that receive, manufacture, process, blend, or distribute cattle materials prohibited in animal feed as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or products that contain or may contain cattle materials prohibited in animal feed, shall take the following measures to ensure that materials prohibited as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are not introduced into animal feed:
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude from use in animal feed the entire carcass of cattle not inspected and passed for human consumption as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(A) The brain and spinal cord are not effectively removed from such cattle or the brain and spinal cord from such cattle are not otherwise effectively excluded from animal feed; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such cattle are 30 months of age or older.
</P>
<P>(ii) If renderers remove brain and spinal cord from cattle not inspected and passed for human consumption, or separate such animals based on whether or not they are 30 months of age or older, renderers must maintain adequate written procedures specifying how these processes are carried out.
</P>
<P>(iii) Once cattle materials prohibited in animal feed have been separated from other cattle materials, provide for measures to avoid cross-contamination;
</P>
<P>(A) Use separate equipment while handling cattle materials prohibited in animal feed; or
</P>
<P>(B) Use separate containers that adequately prevent contact with animal feed, animal feed ingredients, or equipment surfaces;
</P>
<P>(iv) Label the cattle materials prohibited in animal feed and products that contain or may contain cattle materials prohibited in animal feed in a conspicuous manner as follows: “Do not feed to animals”;
</P>
<P>(v) Mark the cattle materials prohibited in animal feed and products that contain or may contain cattle materials prohibited in animal feed with an agent that can be readily detected on visual inspection; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Establish and maintain records sufficient to track cattle materials prohibited in animal feed to ensure such material is not introduced into animal feed, and make the records available for inspection and copying by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) Renderers that receive, manufacture, process, blend, or distribute any cattle materials shall take the following measures to ensure that materials prohibited as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are not used in animal feed:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish and maintain records sufficient to demonstrate that material rendered for use in animal feed was not manufactured from, processed with, or does not otherwise contain, cattle materials prohibited in animal feed and make copies of all records available for inspection and copying by the Food and Drug Administration. With respect to cattle materials obtained from establishments which have segregated cattle materials prohibited in animal feed, such records must demonstrate that establishments supplying cattle materials to the renderers have adequate procedures in place to effectively exclude cattle materials prohibited in animal feed; and these records shall be considered sufficient to meet this requirement if they include either:
</P>
<P>(A) Certification or other documentation from the supplier that material supplied to the renderer does not include cattle materials prohibited in animal feed; such certification or documentation is acceptable, provided that it includes a description of the segregation procedures used, documentation that the supplier confirms that its segregation procedures are in place prior to supplying any cattle material to the renderer, and records of the renderer's periodic review of the suppliers' certification or other documentation; or
</P>
<P>(B) Documentation of another method acceptable to FDA, such as third-party certification, for verifying that suppliers have effectively excluded cattle materials prohibited in animal feed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with all applicable requirements under § 589.2000 regarding animal proteins prohibited in ruminant feed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adulteration and misbranding.</I> (1) Failure of a renderer to comply with the requirements in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (c)(2)(iii), (c)(2)(v) and (c)(2)(vi), or (c)(3)(i) of this section will render the animal feed or feed ingredients adulterated under section 402(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).
</P>
<P>(2) Animal feed or feed ingredients that are not in compliance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section are adulterated under section 402(a)(2), 402(a)(3), or 402(a)(5) of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) Animal feed or feed ingredients that are not in compliance with the labeling requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section are misbranded under section 403(a)(1) or 403(f) of the act.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure of a renderer to comply with the requirements in paragraph (e) of this section will render the animal feed or feed ingredients adulterated under section 402(a)(4) of the act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inspection; records retention.</I> Records required to be made available for inspection and copying by the Food and Drug Administration, as required by this section, shall be kept for a minimum of 1 year.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Process for designating countries.</I> A country seeking designation must send a written request to the Director, Office of the Center Director, Center for Veterinary Medicine, at the address designated in § 5.1100 of this chapter. The request shall include information about that country's BSE case history, risk factors, measures to prevent the introduction and transmission of BSE, and any other information relevant to determining whether the cattle materials from the requesting country do or do not meet the definitions set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. FDA shall respond in writing to any such request and may impose conditions in granting any such request. Any grant by FDA of such a request under this paragraph will be subject to future review by FDA and may be revoked if FDA determines that the granted request is no longer appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22756, Apr. 25, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="590-599" NODE="21:6.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 590-599 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Mar. 13, 2024
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="7" NODE="21:7" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 7</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>600 


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:7.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="F" NODE="21:7.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER F—BIOLOGICS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="600" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 600—BIOLOGICAL PRODUCTS: GENERAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 356c, 356e, 360, 360i, 371, 374, 379k-l; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263, 263a, 264.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For U.S. Customs Service regulations relating to viruses, serums, and toxins, see 19 CFR 12.21-12.23. For U.S. Postal Service regulations relating to the admissibility to the United States mails see parts 124 and 125 of the Domestic Mail Manual, that is incorporated by reference in 39 CFR part 111.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.2   Mailing addresses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Licensed biological products regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER).</I> Unless otherwise stated in paragraph (c) of this section, or as otherwise prescribed by FDA regulation, all submissions to CBER referenced in parts 600 through 680 of this chapter, as applicable, must be sent to: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Examples of such submissions include: Biologics license applications (BLAs) and their amendments and supplements, biological product deviation reports, fatality reports, and other correspondence. Biological products samples must not be sent to this address but must be sent to the address in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensed biological products regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER).</I> Unless otherwise stated in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), or (c) of this section, or as otherwise prescribed by FDA regulation, all submissions to CDER referenced in parts 600, 601, and 610 of this chapter, as applicable, must be sent to: CDER Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705. Examples of such submissions include: BLAs and their amendments and supplements, and other correspondence.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Biological Product Deviation Reporting (CDER).</I> All biological product deviation reports required under § 600.14 must be sent to: Division of Compliance Risk Management and Surveillance, Office of Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertising and Promotional Labeling (CDER).</I> All advertising and promotional labeling supplements required under § 601.12(f) of this chapter must be sent to: Division of Drug Marketing, Advertising and Communication, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Samples and Protocols for licensed biological products regulated by CBER or CDER.</I> (1) Biological product samples and/or protocols, other than radioactive biological product samples and protocols, required under §§ 600.13, 600.22, 601.15, 610.2, 660.6, 660.36, or 660.46 of this chapter must be sent by courier service to: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, ATTN: Sample Custodian, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. G707, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. The protocol(s) may be placed in the box used to ship the samples to CBER. A cover letter should not be included when submitting the protocol with the sample unless it contains pertinent information affecting the release of the lot.
</P>
<P>(2) Radioactive biological products required under § 610.2 of this chapter must be sent by courier service to: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, ATTN: Sample Custodian, c/o White Oak Radiation Safety Program, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 52-72, Rm. G406A, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(d) Address information for submissions to CBER and CDER other than those listed in parts 600 through 680 of this chapter are included directly in the applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) Obtain updated mailing address information for biological products regulated by CBER at <I>http://www.fda.gov/BiologicsBloodVaccines/default.htm</I>, or for biological products regulated by CDER at <I>http://www.fda.gov/Drugs/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 14981, Mar. 24, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 13114, Mar. 26, 2009; 78 FR 19585, Apr. 2, 2013; 80 FR 18091, Apr. 3, 2015; 79 FR 33090, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subchapter: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Public Health Service Act (58 Stat. 682), approved July 1, 1944. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to whom the authority involved has been delegated. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commissioner of Food and Drugs</I> means the Commissioner of the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research</I> means Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research of the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State</I> means a State or the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, or the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Possession</I> includes among other possessions, Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Products</I> includes biological products and trivalent organic arsenicals. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Biological product</I> means a virus, therapeutic serum, toxin, antitoxin, vaccine, blood, blood component or derivative, allergenic product, protein, or analogous product, or arsphenamine or derivative of arsphenamine (or any other trivalent organic arsenic compound), applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of a disease or condition of human beings.
</P>
<P>(1) A virus is interpreted to be a product containing the minute living cause of an infectious disease and includes but is not limited to filterable viruses, bacteria, rickettsia, fungi, and protozoa. 
</P>
<P>(2) A therapeutic serum is a product obtained from blood by removing the clot or clot components and the blood cells. 
</P>
<P>(3) A toxin is a product containing a soluble substance poisonous to laboratory animals or to man in doses of 1 milliliter or less (or equivalent in weight) of the product, and having the property, following the injection of non-fatal doses into an animal, of causing to be produced therein another soluble substance which specifically neutralizes the poisonous substance and which is demonstrable in the serum of the animal thus immunized. 
</P>
<P>(4) An antitoxin is a product containing the soluble substance in serum or other body fluid of an immunized animal which specifically neutralizes the toxin against which the animal is immune. 
</P>
<P>(5) A product is analogous: 
</P>
<P>(i) To a virus if prepared from or with a virus or agent actually or potentially infectious, without regard to the degree of virulence or toxicogenicity of the specific strain used. 
</P>
<P>(ii) To a therapeutic serum, if composed of whole blood or plasma or containing some organic constituent or product other than a hormone or an amino acid, derived from whole blood, plasma, or serum. 
</P>
<P>(iii) To a toxin or antitoxin, if intended, irrespective of its source of origin, to be applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of disease or injuries of man through a specific immune process. 
</P>
<P>(6) A protein is any alpha amino acid polymer with a specific, defined sequence that is greater than 40 amino acids in size. When two or more amino acid chains in an amino acid polymer are associated with each other in a manner that occurs in nature, the size of the amino acid polymer for purposes of this paragraph (h)(6) will be based on the total number of amino acids in those chains, and will not be limited to the number of amino acids in a contiguous sequence.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Trivalent organic arsenicals</I> means arsphenamine and its derivatives (or any other trivalent organic arsenic compound) applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of diseases or injuries of man. 
</P>
<P>(j) A product is deemed <I>applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of diseases or injuries of man</I> irrespective of the mode of administration or application recommended, including use when intended through administration or application to a person as an aid in diagnosis, or in evaluating the degree of susceptibility or immunity possessed by a person, and including also any other use for purposes of diagnosis if the diagnostic substance so used is prepared from or with the aid of a biological product. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Proper name,</I> as applied to a product, means the name designated in the license for use upon each package of the product. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Dating period</I> means the period beyond which the product cannot be expected beyond reasonable doubt to yield its specific results. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Expiration date</I> means the calendar month and year, and where applicable, the day and hour, that the dating period ends.
</P>
<P>(n) The word <I>standards</I> means specifications and procedures applicable to an establishment or to the manufacture or release of products, which are prescribed in this subchapter or established in the biologics license application designed to insure the continued safety, purity, and potency of such products.
</P>
<P>(o) The word <I>continued</I> as applied to the safety, purity and potency of products is interpreted to apply to the dating period. 
</P>
<P>(p) The word <I>safety</I> means the relative freedom from harmful effect to persons affected, directly or indirectly, by a product when prudently administered, taking into consideration the character of the product in relation to the condition of the recipient at the time. 
</P>
<P>(q) The word <I>sterility</I> is interpreted to mean freedom from viable contaminating microorganisms, as determined by the tests conducted under § 610.12 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Purity</I> means relative freedom from extraneous matter in the finished product, whether or not harmful to the recipient or deleterious to the product. <I>Purity</I> includes but is not limited to relative freedom from residual moisture or other volatile substances and pyrogenic substances. 
</P>
<P>(s) The word <I>potency</I> is interpreted to mean the specific ability or capacity of the product, as indicated by appropriate laboratory tests or by adequately controlled clinical data obtained through the administration of the product in the manner intended, to effect a given result. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any legal person or entity engaged in the manufacture of a product subject to license under the act; “Manufacturer” also includes any legal person or entity who is an applicant for a license where the applicant assumes responsibility for compliance with the applicable product and establishment standards. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Manufacture</I> means all steps in propagation or manufacture and preparation of products and includes but is not limited to filling, testing, labeling, packaging, and storage by the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Location</I> includes all buildings, appurtenances, equipment and animals used, and personnel engaged by a manufacturer within a particular area designated by an address adequate for identification. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Establishment</I> has the same meaning as “facility” in section 351 of the Public Health Service Act and includes all locations.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Lot</I> means that quantity of uniform material identified by the manufacturer as having been thoroughly mixed in a single vessel. 
</P>
<P>(y) A <I>filling</I> refers to a group of final containers identical in all respects, which have been filled with the same product from the same bulk lot without any change that will affect the integrity of the filling assembly. 
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Process</I> refers to a manufacturing step that is performed on the product itself which may affect its safety, purity or potency, in contrast to such manufacturing steps which do not affect intrinsically the safety, purity or potency of the product. 
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Selling agent</I> or <I>distributor</I> means any person engaged in the unrestricted distribution, other than by sale at retail, of products subject to license. 
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Container</I> (referred to also as “final container”) is the immediate unit, bottle, vial, ampule, tube, or other receptacle containing the product as distributed for sale, barter, or exchange. 
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Package</I> means the immediate carton, receptacle, or wrapper, including all labeling matter therein and thereon, and the contents of the one or more enclosed containers. If no package, as defined in the preceding sentence, is used, the container shall be deemed to be the package. 
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Label</I> means any written, printed, or graphic matter on the container or package or any such matter clearly visible through the immediate carton, receptacle, or wrapper. 
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Radioactive biological product</I> means a biological product which is labeled with a radionuclide or intended solely to be labeled with a radionuclide.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Amendment</I> is the submission of information to a pending license application or supplement, to revise or modify the application as originally submitted.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Supplement</I> is a request to approve a change in an approved license application.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Distributed</I> means the biological product has left the control of the licensed manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Control</I> means having responsibility for maintaining the continued safety, purity, and potency of the product and for compliance with applicable product and establishment standards, and for compliance with current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>Assess the effects of the change</I>, as used in § 601.12 of this chapter, means to evaluate the effects of a manufacturing change on the identity, strength, quality, purity, and potency of a product as these factors may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product.
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Specification</I>, as used in § 601.12 of this chapter, means the quality standard (i.e., tests, analytical procedures, and acceptance criteria) provided in an approved application to confirm the quality of products, intermediates, raw materials, reagents, components, in-process materials, container closure systems, and other materials used in the production of a product. For the purpose of this definition, <I>acceptance criteria</I> means numerical limits, ranges, or other criteria for the tests described.
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Complete response letter</I> means a written communication to an applicant from FDA usually describing all of the deficiencies that the agency has identified in a biologics license application or supplement that must be satisfactorily addressed before it can be approved.
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Resubmission</I> means a submission by the biologics license applicant or supplement applicant of all materials needed to fully address all deficiencies identified in the complete response letter. A biologics license application or supplement for which FDA issued a complete response letter, but which was withdrawn before approval and later submitted again, is not a resubmission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32048, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 31313, July 25, 1975; 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 61 FR 24232, May 14, 1996; 62 FR 39901, July 24, 1997; 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999; 65 FR 66634, Nov. 7, 2000; 69 FR 18766, Apr. 8, 2004; 70 FR 14982, Mar. 24, 2005; 73 FR 39610, July 10, 2008; 77 FR 26174, May 3, 2012; 85 FR 10063, Feb. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Establishment Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.10" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.10   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personnel.</I> Personnel shall have capabilities commensurate with their assigned functions, a thorough understanding of the manufacturing operations which they perform, the necessary training and experience relating to individual products, and adequate information concerning the application of the pertinent provisions of this subchapter to their respective functions. Personnel shall include such professionally trained persons as are necessary to insure the competent performance of all manufacturing processes. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on personnel</I>—(1) <I>Specific duties.</I> Persons whose presence can affect adversely the safety and purity of a product shall be excluded from the room where the manufacture of a product is in progress. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sterile operations.</I> Personnel performing sterile operations shall wear clean or sterilized protective clothing and devices to the extent necessary to protect the product from contamination. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pathogenic viruses and spore-forming organisms.</I> Persons working with viruses pathogenic for man or with spore-forming microorganisms, and persons engaged in the care of animals or animal quarters, shall be excluded from areas where other products are manufactured, or such persons shall change outer clothing, including shoes, or wear protective covering prior to entering such areas. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Live vaccine work areas.</I> Persons may not enter a live vaccine processing area after having worked with other infectious agents in any other laboratory during the same working day. Only persons actually concerned with propagation of the culture, production of the vaccine, and unit maintenance, shall be allowed in live vaccine processing areas when active work is in progress. Casual visitors shall be excluded from such units at all times and all others having business in such areas shall be admitted only under supervision. Street clothing, including shoes, shall be replaced or covered by suitable laboratory clothing before entering a live vaccine processing unit. Persons caring for animals used in the manufacture of live vaccines shall be excluded from other animal quarters and from contact with other animals during the same working day.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32048, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 62 FR 53538, Oct. 15, 1997; 68 FR 75119, Dec. 30, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.11" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.11   Physical establishment, equipment, animals, and care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Work areas.</I> All rooms and work areas where products are manufactured or stored shall be kept orderly, clean, and free of dirt, dust, vermin and objects not required for manufacturing. Precautions shall be taken to avoid clogging and back-siphonage of drainage systems. Precautions shall be taken to exclude extraneous infectious agents from manufacturing areas. Work rooms shall be well lighted and ventilated. The ventilation system shall be arranged so as to prevent the dissemination of microorganisms from one manufacturing area to another and to avoid other conditions unfavorable to the safety of the product. Filling rooms, and other rooms where open, sterile operations are conducted, shall be adequate to meet manufacturing needs and such rooms shall be constructed and equipped to permit thorough cleaning and to keep air-borne contaminants at a minimum. If such rooms are used for other purposes, they shall be cleaned and prepared prior to use for sterile operations. Refrigerators, incubators and warm rooms shall be maintained at temperatures within applicable ranges and shall be free of extraneous material which might affect the safety of the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment.</I> Apparatus for sterilizing equipment and the method of operation shall be such as to insure the destruction of contaminating microorganisms. The effectiveness of the sterilization procedure shall be no less than that achieved by an attained temperature of 121.5 °C maintained for 20 minutes by saturated steam or by an attained temperature of 170 °C maintained for 2 hours with dry heat. Processing and storage containers, filters, filling apparatus, and other pieces of apparatus and accessory equipment, including pipes and tubing, shall be designed and constructed to permit thorough cleaning and, where possible, inspection for cleanliness. All surfaces that come in contact with products shall be clean and free of surface solids, leachable contaminants, and other materials that will hasten the deterioration of the product or otherwise render it less suitable for the intended use. For products for which sterility is a factor, equipment shall be sterile, unless sterility of the product is assured by subsequent procedures. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Laboratory and bleeding rooms.</I> Rooms used for the processing of products, including bleeding rooms, shall be effectively fly-proofed and kept free of flies and vermin. Such rooms shall be so constructed as to insure freedom from dust, smoke and other deleterious substances and to permit thorough cleaning and disinfection. Rooms for animal injection and bleeding, and rooms for smallpox vaccine animals, shall be disinfected and be provided with the necessary water, electrical and other services. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Animal quarters and stables.</I> Animal quarters, stables and food storage areas shall be of appropriate construction, fly-proofed, adequately lighted and ventilated, and maintained in a clean, vermin-free and sanitary condition. No manure or refuse shall be stored as to permit the breeding of flies on the premises, nor shall the establishment be located in close proximity to off-property manure or refuse storage capable of engendering fly breeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions on building and equipment use</I>—(1) <I>Work of a diagnostic nature.</I> Laboratory procedures of a clinical diagnostic nature involving materials that may be contaminated, shall not be performed in space used for the manufacture of products except that manufacturing space which is used only occasionally may be used for diagnostic work provided spore-forming pathogenic microorganisms are not involved and provided the space is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before the manufacture of products is resumed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spore-forming organisms for supplemental sterilization procedure control test.</I> Spore-forming organisms used as an additional control in sterilization procedures may be introduced into areas used for the manufacture of products, only for the purposes of the test and only immediately before use for such purposes: <I>Provided,</I> That (i) the organism is not pathogenic for man or animals and does not produce pyrogens or toxins, (ii) the culture is demonstrated to be pure, (iii) transfer of test cultures to culture media shall be limited to the sterility test area or areas designated for work with spore-forming organisms, (iv) each culture be labeled with the name of the microorganism and the statement “Caution: microbial spores. See directions for storage, use and disposition.”, and (v) the container of each culture is designed to withstand handling without breaking. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Work with spore-forming microorganisms.</I> (i) Manufacturing processes using spore-forming microorganisms conducted in a multiproduct manufacturing site must be performed under appropriate controls to prevent contamination of other products and areas within the site. Prevention of spore contamination can be achieved by using a separate dedicated building or by using process containment if manufacturing is conducted in a multiproduct manufacturing building. All product and personnel movement between the area where the spore-forming microorganisms are manufactured and other manufacturing areas must be conducted under conditions that will prevent the introduction of spores into other areas of the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) If process containment is employed in a multiproduct manufacturing area, procedures must be in place to demonstrate adequate removal of the spore-forming microorganism(s) from the manufacturing area for subsequent manufacture of other products. These procedures must provide for adequate removal or decontamination of the spore-forming microorganisms on and within manufacturing equipment, facilities, and ancillary room items as well as the removal of disposable or product dedicated items from the manufacturing area. Environmental monitoring specific for the spore-forming microorganism(s) must be conducted in adjacent areas during manufacturing operations and in the manufacturing area after completion of cleaning and decontamination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Live vaccine processing.</I> Live vaccine processing must be performed under appropriate controls to prevent cross contamination of other products and other manufacturing areas within the building. Appropriate controls must include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Using a dedicated manufacturing area that is either in a separate building, in a separate wing of a building, or in quarters at the blind end of a corridor and includes adequate space and equipment for all processing steps up to, but not including, filling into final containers; and
</P>
<P>(B) Not conducting test procedures that potentially involve the presence of microorganisms other than the vaccine strains or the use of tissue culture cell lines other than primary cultures in space used for processing live vaccine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If manufacturing is conducted in a multiproduct manufacturing building or area, using procedural controls, and where necessary, process containment. Process containment is deemed to be necessary unless procedural controls are sufficient to prevent cross contamination of other products and other manufacturing areas within the building. Process containment is a system designed to mechanically isolate equipment or an area that involves manufacturing using live vaccine organisms. All product, equipment, and personnel movement between distinct live vaccine processing areas and between live vaccine processing areas and other manufacturing areas, up to, but not including, filling in final containers, must be conducted under conditions that will prevent cross contamination of other products and manufacturing areas within the building, including the introduction of live vaccine organisms into other areas. In addition, written procedures and effective processes must be in place to adequately remove or decontaminate live vaccine organisms from the manufacturing area and equipment for subsequent manufacture of other products. Written procedures must be in place for verification that processes to remove or decontaminate live vaccine organisms have been followed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Equipment and supplies—contamination.</I> Equipment and supplies used in work on or otherwise exposed to any pathogenic or potentially pathogenic agent shall be kept separated from equipment and supplies used in the manufacture of products to the extent necessary to prevent cross-contamination. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Animals used in manufacture</I>—(1) <I>Care of animals used in manufacturing.</I> Caretakers and attendants for animals used for the manufacture of products shall be sufficient in number and have adequate experience to insure adequate care. Animal quarters and cages shall be kept in sanitary condition. Animals on production shall be inspected daily to observe response to production procedures. Animals that become ill for reasons not related to production shall be isolated from other animals and shall not be used for production until recovery is complete. Competent veterinary care shall be provided as needed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quarantine of animals</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> No animal shall be used in processing unless kept under competent daily inspection and preliminary quarantine for a period of at least 7 days before use, or as otherwise provided in this subchapter. Only healthy animals free from detectable communicable diseases shall be used. Animals must remain in overt good health throughout the quarantine periods and particular care shall be taken during the quarantine periods to reject animals of the equine genus which may be infected with glanders and animals which may be infected with tuberculosis. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Quarantine of monkeys.</I> In addition to observing the pertinent general quarantine requirements, monkeys used as a source of tissue in the manufacture of vaccine shall be maintained in quarantine for at least 6 weeks prior to use, except when otherwise provided in this part. Only monkeys that have reacted negatively to tuberculin at the start of the quarantine period and again within 2 weeks prior to use shall be used in the manufacture of vaccine. Due precaution shall be taken to prevent cross-infection from any infected or potentially infected monkeys on the premises. Monkeys to be used in the manufacture of a live vaccine shall be maintained throughout the quarantine period in cages closed on all sides with solid materials except the front which shall be screened, with no more than two monkeys housed in one cage. Cage mates shall not be interchanged. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Immunization against tetanus.</I> Horses and other animals susceptible to tetanus, that are used in the processing steps of the manufacture of biological products, shall be treated adequately to maintain immunity to tetanus. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Immunization and bleeding of animals used as a source of products.</I> Toxins or other nonviable antigens administered in the immunization of animals used in the manufacture of products shall be sterile. Viable antigens, when so used, shall be free of contaminants, as determined by appropriate tests prior to use. Injections shall not be made into horses within 6 inches of bleeding site. Horses shall not be bled for manufacturing purposes while showing persistent general reaction or local reaction near the site of bleeding. Blood shall not be used if it was drawn within 5 days of injecting the animals with viable microorganisms. Animals shall not be bled for manufacturing purposes when they have an intercurrent disease. Blood intended for use as a source of a biological product shall be collected in clean, sterile vessels. When the product is intended for use by injection, such vessels shall also be pyrogen-free. 
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reporting of certain diseases.</I> In cases of actual or suspected infection with foot and mouth disease, glanders, tetanus, anthrax, gas gangrene, equine infectious anemia; equine encephalomyelitis, or any of the pock diseases among animals intended for use or used in the manufacture of products, the manufacturer shall immediately notify the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(a) or (b)).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Monkeys used previously for experimental or test purposes.</I> Monkeys that have been used previously for experimental or test purposes with live microbiological agents shall not be used as a source of kidney tissue for the manufacture of vaccine. Except as provided otherwise in this subchapter, monkeys that have been used previously for other experimental or test purposes may be used as a source of kidney tissue upon their return to a normal condition, provided all quarantine requirements have been met. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Necropsy examination of monkeys.</I> Each monkey used in the manufacture of vaccine shall be examined at necropsy under the direction of a qualified pathologist, physician, or veterinarian having experience with diseases of monkeys, for evidence of ill health, particularly for (i) evidence of tuberculosis, (ii) presence of herpes-like lesions, including eruptions or plaques on or around the lips, in the buccal cavity or on the gums, and (iii) signs of conjunctivitis. If there are any such signs or other significant gross pathological lesions, the tissue shall not be used in the manufacture of vaccine. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filling procedures.</I> Filling procedures shall be such as will not affect adversely the safety, purity or potency of the product. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Containers and closures.</I> All final containers and closures shall be made of material that will not hasten the deterioration of the product or otherwise render it less suitable for the intended use. All final containers and closures shall be clean and free of surface solids, leachable contaminants and other materials that will hasten the deterioration of the product or otherwise render it less suitable for the intended use. After filling, sealing shall be performed in a manner that will maintain the integrity of the product during the dating period. In addition, final containers and closures for products intended for use by injection shall be sterile and free from pyrogens. Except as otherwise provided in the regulations of this subchapter, final containers for products intended for use by injection shall be colorless and sufficiently transparent to permit visual examination of the contents under normal light. As soon as possible after filling final containers shall be labeled as prescribed in § 610.60 <I>et seq.</I> of this chapter, except that final containers may be stored without such prescribed labeling provided they are stored in a sealed receptacle labeled both inside and outside with at least the name of the product, the lot number, and the filling identification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32048, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 10428, Mar. 11, 1976; 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 68 FR 75119, Dec. 30, 2003; 70 FR 14982, Mar. 24, 2005; 72 FR 59003, Oct. 18, 2007; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.12" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.12   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> Records shall be made, concurrently with the performance, of each step in the manufacture and distribution of products, in such a manner that at any time successive steps in the manufacture and distribution of any lot may be traced by an inspector. Such records shall be legible and indelible, shall identify the person immediately responsible, shall include dates of the various steps, and be as detailed as necessary for clear understanding of each step by one experienced in the manufacture of products. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records retention</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Records shall be retained for such interval beyond the expiration date as is necessary for the individual product, to permit the return of any clinical report of unfavorable reactions. The retention period shall be no less than five years after the records of manufacture have been completed or six months after the latest expiration date for the individual product, whichever represents a later date. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Records of recall.</I> Complete records shall be maintained pertaining to the recall from distribution of any product upon notification by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, to recall for failure to conform with the standards prescribed in the regulations of this subchapter, because of deterioration of the product or for any other factor by reason of which the distribution of the product would constitute a danger to health.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspension of requirement for retention.</I> The Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, may authorize the suspension of the requirement to retain records of a specific manufacturing step upon a showing that such records no longer have significance for the purposes for which they were made: <I>Provided,</I> That a summary of such records shall be retained. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records of sterilization of equipment and supplies.</I> Records relating to the mode of sterilization, date, duration, temperature and other conditions relating to each sterilization of equipment and supplies used in the processing of products shall be made by means of automatic recording devices or by means of a system of recording which gives equivalent assurance of the accuracy and reliability of the record. Such records shall be maintained in a manner that permits an identification of the product with the particular manufacturing process to which the sterilization relates. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Animal necropsy records.</I> A necropsy record shall be kept on each animal from which a biological product has been obtained and which dies or is sacrificed while being so used. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records in case of divided manufacturing responsibility.</I> If two or more establishments participate in the manufacture of a product, the records of each such establishment must show plainly the degree of its responsibility. In addition, each participating manufacturer shall furnish to the manufacturer who prepares the product in final form for sale, barter or exchange, a copy of all records relating to the manufacturing operations performed by such participating manufacturer insofar as they concern the safety, purity and potency of the lots of the product involved, and the manufacturer who prepares the product in final form shall retain a complete record of all the manufacturing operations relating to the product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32048, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 70 FR 14982, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.13" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.13   Retention samples.</HEAD>
<P>Manufacturers shall retain for a period of at least 6 months after the expiration date, unless a different time period is specified in additional standards, a quantity of representative material of each lot of each product, sufficient for examination and testing for safety and potency, except Whole Blood, Cryoprecipitated AHF, Platelets, Red Blood Cells, Plasma, and Source Plasma and Allergenic Products prepared to a physician's prescription. Samples so retained shall be selected at random from either final container material, or from bulk and final containers, provided they include at least one final container as a final package, or package-equivalent of such filling of each lot of the product as intended for distribution. Such sample material shall be stored at temperatures and under conditions which will maintain the identity and integrity of the product. Samples retained as required in this section shall be in addition to samples of specific products required to be submitted to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2). Exceptions may be authorized by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, when the lot yields relatively few final containers and when such lots are prepared by the same method in large number and in close succession.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10428, Mar. 11, 1976, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4133, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 70 FR 14982, Mar. 24, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.14" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.14   Reporting of biological product deviations by licensed manufacturers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must report under this section?</I> (1) You, the manufacturer who holds the biological product license and who had control over the product when the deviation occurred, must report under this section. If you arrange for another person to perform a manufacturing, holding, or distribution step, while the product is in your control, that step is performed under your control. You must establish, maintain, and follow a procedure for receiving information from that person on all deviations, complaints, and adverse events concerning the affected product. 
</P>
<P>(2) Exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Persons who manufacture only in vitro diagnostic products that are not subject to licensing under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act do not report biological product deviations for those products under this section but must report in accordance with part 803 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons who manufacture blood and blood components, including licensed manufacturers, unlicensed registered blood establishments, and transfusion services, do not report biological product deviations for those products under this section but must report under § 606.171 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Persons who manufacture Source Plasma or any other blood component and use that Source Plasma or any other blood component in the further manufacture of another licensed biological product must report: 
</P>
<P>(A) Under § 606.171 of this chapter, if a biological product deviation occurs during the manufacture of that Source Plasma or any other blood component; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Under this section, if a biological product deviation occurs after the manufacture of that Source Plasma or any other blood component, and during manufacture of the licensed biological product. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What do I report under this section?</I> You must report any event, and information relevant to the event, associated with the manufacturing, to include testing, processing, packing, labeling, or storage, or with the holding or distribution, of a licensed biological product, if that event meets all the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) Either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Represents a deviation from current good manufacturing practice, applicable regulations, applicable standards, or established specifications that may affect the safety, purity, or potency of that product; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Represents an unexpected or unforeseeable event that may affect the safety, purity, or potency of that product; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Occurs in your facility or another facility under contract with you; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Involves a distributed biological product. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When do I report under this section?</I> You should report a biological product deviation as soon as possible but you must report at a date not to exceed 45-calendar days from the date you, your agent, or another person who performs a manufacturing, holding, or distribution step under your control, acquire information reasonably suggesting that a reportable event has occurred. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How do I report under this section</I> You must report on Form FDA-3486. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where do I report under this section?</I> (1) For biological products regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), send the completed Form FDA 3486 to the CBER Document Control Center (see mailing address in § 600.2(a)), or submit electronically using CBER's electronic Web-based application. 
</P>
<P>(2) For biological products regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER), send the completed Form FDA-3486 to the Division of Compliance Risk Management and Surveillance (HFD-330) (see mailing addresses in § 600.2). CDER does not currently accept electronic filings.
</P>
<P>(3) If you make a paper filing, you should identify on the envelope that a biological product deviation report (BPDR) is enclosed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How does this regulation affect other FDA regulations?</I> This part supplements and does not supersede other provisions of the regulations in this chapter. All biological product deviations, whether or not they are required to be reported under this section, should be investigated in accordance with the applicable provisions of parts 211 and 820 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 66634, Nov. 7, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 14982, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.15" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.15   Temperatures during shipment.</HEAD>
<P>The following products shall be maintained during shipment at the specified temperatures: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Products.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cryoprecipitated AHF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−18 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Measles and Rubella Virus Vaccine Live</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Measles Live and Smallpox Vaccine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Measles, Mumps, and Rubella Virus Vaccine Live</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Measles and Mumps Virus Vaccine Live</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Measles Virus Vaccine Live</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mumps Virus Vaccine Live</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fresh Frozen Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−18 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquid Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 10 °C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−18 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platelet Rich Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Between 1 and 10 °C if the label indicates storage between 1 and 6 °C, or all reasonable methods to maintain the temperature as close as possible to a range between 20 and 24 °C, if the label indicates storage between 20 and 24 °C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platelets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Between 1 and 10 °C if the label indicates storage between 1 and 6 °C, or all reasonable methods to maintain the temperature as close as possible to a range between 20 to 24 °C, if the label indicates storage between 20 and 24 °C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poliovirus Vaccine Live Oral Trivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poliovirus Vaccine Live Oral Type I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poliovirus Vaccine Live Oral Type II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poliovirus Vaccine Live Oral Type III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red Blood Cells (liquid product)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Between 1 and 10 °C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red Blood Cells Frozen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−65 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubella and Mumps Virus Vaccine Live</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubella Virus Vaccine Live</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Smallpox Vaccine (Liquid Product)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Source Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Source Plasma Liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 °C or colder.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole Blood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blood that is transported from the collecting facility to the processing facility shall be transported in an environment capable of continuously cooling the blood toward a temperature range of 1 to 10 °C, or at a temperature as close as possible to 20 to 24 °C for a period not to exceed 6 hours. Blood transported from the storage facility shall be placed in an appropriate environment to maintain a temperature range between 1 to 10 °C during shipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yellow Fever Vaccine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 °C or colder.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> Exemptions or modifications shall be made only upon written approval, in the form of a supplement to the biologics license application, approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 39872, Nov. 12, 1974, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4133, Jan. 29, 1985; 50 FR 9000, Mar. 6, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 59 FR 49351, Sept. 28, 1994; 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Establishment Inspection</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.20   Inspectors.</HEAD>
<P>Inspections shall be made by an officer of the Food and Drug Administration having special knowledge of the methods used in the manufacture and control of products and designated for such purposes by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, or by any officer, agent, or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services specifically designated for such purpose by the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32048, Nov. 20, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.21" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.21   Time of inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The inspection of an establishment for which a biologics license application is pending need not be made until the establishment is in operation and is manufacturing the complete product for which a biologics license is desired. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32048, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 48 FR 26314, June 7, 1983; 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999; 84 FR 12508, Apr. 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.22" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.22   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Reporting of Adverse Experiences</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 54042, Oct. 27, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 600.80" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.80   Postmarketing reporting of adverse experiences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions of terms apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Adverse experience.</I> Any adverse event associated with the use of a biological product in humans, whether or not considered product related, including the following: An adverse event occurring in the course of the use of a biological product in professional practice; an adverse event occurring from overdose of the product whether accidental or intentional; an adverse event occurring from abuse of the product; an adverse event occurring from withdrawal of the product; and any failure of expected pharmacological action.
</P>
<P><I>Blood Component.</I> As defined in § 606.3(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Disability.</I> A substantial disruption of a person's ability to conduct normal life functions.
</P>
<P><I>Individual case safety report (ICSR).</I> A description of an adverse experience related to an individual patient or subject.
</P>
<P><I>ICSR attachments.</I> Documents related to the adverse experience described in an ICSR, such as medical records, hospital discharge summaries, or other documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Life-threatening adverse experience.</I> Any adverse experience that places the patient, in the view of the initial reporter, at immediate risk of death from the adverse experience as it occurred, i.e., it does not include an adverse experience that, had it occurred in a more severe form, might have caused death.
</P>
<P><I>Serious adverse experience.</I> Any adverse experience occurring at any dose that results in any of the following outcomes: Death, a life-threatening adverse experience, inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, a persistent or significant disability/incapacity, or a congenital anomaly/birth defect. Important medical events that may not result in death, be life-threatening, or require hospitalization may be considered a serious adverse experience when, based upon appropriate medical judgment, they may jeopardize the patient or subject and may require medical or surgical intervention to prevent one of the outcomes listed in this definition. Examples of such medical events include allergic bronchospasm requiring intensive treatment in an emergency room or at home, blood dyscrasias or convulsions that do not result in inpatient hospitalization, or the development of drug dependency or drug abuse.
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected adverse experience</I>: Any adverse experience that is not listed in the current labeling for the biological product. This includes events that may be symptomatically and pathophysiologically related to an event listed in the labeling, but differ from the event because of greater severity or specificity. For example, under this definition, hepatic necrosis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater severity) if the labeling only referred to elevated hepatic enzymes or hepatitis. Similarly, cerebral thromboembolism and cerebral vasculitis would be unexpected (by virtue of greater specificity) if the labeling only listed cerebral vascular accidents. “Unexpected,” as used in this definition, refers to an adverse experience that has not been previously observed (i.e., included in the labeling) rather than from the perspective of such experience not being anticipated from the pharmacological properties of the pharmaceutical product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of adverse experiences.</I> Any person having a biologics license under § 601.20 of this chapter must promptly review all adverse experience information pertaining to its product obtained or otherwise received by the applicant from any source, foreign or domestic, including information derived from commercial marketing experience, postmarketing clinical investigations, postmarketing epidemiological/surveillance studies, reports in the scientific literature, and unpublished scientific papers. Applicants are not required to resubmit to FDA adverse product experience reports forwarded to the applicant by FDA; applicants, however, must submit all followup information on such reports to FDA. Any person subject to the reporting requirements under paragraph (c) of this section must also develop written procedures for the surveillance, receipt, evaluation, and reporting of postmarketing adverse experiences to FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The applicant must submit to FDA postmarketing 15-day Alert reports and periodic safety reports pertaining to its biological product as described in this section. These reports must be submitted to the Agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Postmarketing 15-day “Alert reports”.</I> The applicant must report each adverse experience that is both serious and unexpected, whether foreign or domestic, as soon as possible but no later than 15 calendar days from initial receipt of the information by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Postmarketing 15-day “Alert reports”—followup.</I> The applicant must promptly investigate all adverse experiences that are the subject of these postmarketing 15-day Alert reports and must submit followup reports within 15 calendar days of receipt of new information or as requested by FDA. If additional information is not obtainable, records should be maintained of the unsuccessful steps taken to seek additional information. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Submission of reports.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section, concerning the submission of postmarketing 15-day Alert reports, also apply to any person whose name appears on the label of a licensed biological product as a manufacturer, packer, distributor, shared manufacturer, joint manufacturer, or any other participant involved in divided manufacturing. To avoid unnecessary duplication in the submission to FDA of reports required by paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section, obligations of persons other than the applicant of the final biological product may be met by submission of all reports of serious adverse experiences to the applicant of the final product. If a person elects to submit adverse experience reports to the applicant rather than to FDA, the person must submit, by any appropriate means, each report to the applicant within 5 calendar days of initial receipt of the information by the person, and the applicant must then comply with the requirements of this section. Under this circumstance, a person who elects to submit reports to the applicant of the final product shall maintain a record of this action which must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of all adverse biological product experience reports submitted to the applicant of the final product;
</P>
<P>(B) The date the report was received by the person;
</P>
<P>(C) The date the report was submitted to the applicant of the final product; and—
</P>
<P>(D) The name and address of the applicant of the final product.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic adverse experience reports.</I> (i) The applicant must report each adverse experience not reported under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section at quarterly intervals, for 3 years from the date of issuance of the biologics license, and then at annual intervals. The applicant must submit each quarterly report within 30 days of the close of the quarter (the first quarter beginning on the date of issuance of the biologics license) and each annual report within 60 days of the anniversary date of the issuance of the biologics license. Upon written notice, FDA may extend or reestablish the requirement that an applicant submit quarterly reports, or require that the applicant submit reports under this section at different times than those stated. Followup information to adverse experiences submitted in a periodic report may be submitted in the next periodic report. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each periodic report is required to contain:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Descriptive information.</I> (<I>1</I>) A narrative summary and analysis of the information in the report;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An analysis of the 15-day Alert reports submitted during the reporting interval (all 15-day Alert reports being appropriately referenced by the applicant's patient identification code for nonvaccine biological product reports or by the unique case identification number for vaccine reports, adverse reaction term(s), and date of submission to FDA);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A history of actions taken since the last report because of adverse experiences (for example, labeling changes or studies initiated);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An index consisting of a line listing of the applicant's patient identification code for nonvaccine biological product reports or by the unique case identification number for vaccine reports and adverse reaction term(s) for ICSRs submitted under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>ICSRs for serious, expected and, nonserious adverse experiences.</I> An ICSR for each adverse experience not reported under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (all serious, expected and nonserious adverse experiences). All such ICSRs must be submitted to FDA (either individually or in one or more batches) within the timeframe specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. ICSRs must only be submitted to FDA once.</P>
<P>(iii) Periodic reporting, except for information regarding 15-day Alert reports, does not apply to adverse experience information obtained from postmarketing studies (whether or not conducted under an investigational new drug application), from reports in the scientific literature, and from foreign marketing experience. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scientific literature.</I> A 15-day Alert report based on information in the scientific literature must be accompanied by a copy of the published article. The 15-day Alert reporting requirements in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (i.e., serious, unexpected adverse experiences) apply only to reports found in scientific and medical journals either as case reports or as the result of a formal clinical trial. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Postmarketing studies.</I> Applicants are not required to submit a 15-day Alert report under paragraph (c) of this section for an adverse experience obtained from a postmarketing clinical study (whether or not conducted under a biological investigational new drug application) unless the applicant concludes that there is a reasonable possibility that the product caused the adverse experience.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Information reported on ICSRs for nonvaccine biological products.</I> ICSRs for nonvaccine biological products include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Patient information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Patient identification code;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient age at the time of adverse experience, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse experience.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Outcome attributed to adverse experience;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of adverse experience;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of report;
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of adverse experience (including a concise medical narrative);
</P>
<P>(v) Adverse experience term(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspect medical product(s).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dose, frequency, and route of administration used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Therapy dates;
</P>
<P>(iv) Diagnosis for use (indication);
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the product is a combination product as defined in § 3.2(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the product is a prescription or nonprescription product;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether adverse experience abated after product use stopped or dose reduced;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether adverse experience reappeared after reintroduction of the product;
</P>
<P>(ix) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(x) Expiration date;
</P>
<P>(xi) National Drug Code (NDC) number, or other unique identifier; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Initial reporter information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the initial reporter is a health care professional; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Occupation, if a health care professional.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Applicant information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Applicant name and contact office address;
</P>
<P>(ii) Telephone number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report source, such as spontaneous, literature, or study;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date the report was received by applicant;
</P>
<P>(v) Application number and type;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the ICSR is a 15-day “Alert report”;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether the ICSR is an initial report or followup report; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent followup report(s).</P>
<P>(g) <I>Information reported on ICSRs for vaccine products.</I> ICSRs for vaccine products include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Patient information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Patient name, address, telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient age at the time of vaccination, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient birth weight for children under age 5.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse experience.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Outcome attributed to adverse experience;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date and time of adverse experience;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of report;
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of adverse experience (including a concise medical narrative);
</P>
<P>(v) Adverse experience term(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Illness at the time of vaccination;
</P>
<P>(vii) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspect medical product(s), including vaccines administered on the same date.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dose, frequency, and route or site of administration used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Number of previous vaccine doses;
</P>
<P>(iv) Vaccination date(s) and time(s);
</P>
<P>(v) Diagnosis for use (indication);
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the product is a combination product (as defined in § 3.2(e) of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether the adverse experience abated after product use stopped or dose reduced;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether the adverse experience reappeared after reintroduction of the product;
</P>
<P>(ix) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(x) Expiration date;
</P>
<P>(xi) National Drug Code (NDC) number, or other unique identifier; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Vaccine(s) administered in the 4 weeks prior to the vaccination date.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name of vaccine;
</P>
<P>(ii) Manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Lot number;
</P>
<P>(iv) Route or site of administration;
</P>
<P>(v) Date given; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Number of previous doses.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Initial reporter information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the initial reporter is a health care professional; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Occupation, if a health care professional.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Facility and personnel where vaccine was administered.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Name of person who administered vaccine;
</P>
<P>(ii) Name of responsible physician at facility where vaccine was administered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Name, address (including city, county, and state), and telephone number of facility where vaccine was administered.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Applicant information.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Applicant name and contact office address;
</P>
<P>(ii) Telephone number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report source, such as spontaneous, literature, or study;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date received by applicant;
</P>
<P>(v) Application number and type;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the ICSR is a 15-day “Alert report”;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether the ICSR is an initial report or followup report; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Unique case identification number, which must be the same in the initial report and any subsequent followup report(s).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic format for submissions.</I> (1) Safety report submissions, including ICSRs, ICSR attachments, and the descriptive information in periodic reports, must be in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files).
</P>
<P>(2) Persons subject to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the requirements in paragraph (h)(1) of this section. These waivers will be granted on a limited basis for good cause shown. FDA will issue guidance on requesting a waiver of the requirements in paragraph (h)(1) of this section. Requests for waivers must be submitted in accordance with § 600.90.</P>
<P>(i) <I>Multiple reports.</I> An applicant should not include in reports under this section any adverse experience that occurred in clinical trials if they were previously submitted as part of the biologics license application. If a report refers to more than one biological product marketed by an applicant, the applicant should submit the report to the biologics license application for the product listed first in the report.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Patient privacy.</I> For nonvaccine biological products, an applicant should not include in reports under this section the names and addresses of individual patients; instead, the applicant should assign a unique code for identification of the patient. The applicant should include the name of the reporter from whom the information was received as part of the initial reporter information, even when the reporter is the patient. The names of patients, health care professionals, hospitals, and geographical identifiers in adverse experience reports are not releasable to the public under FDA's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter. For vaccine adverse experience reports, these data will become part of the CDC Privacy Act System 09-20-0136, “Epidemiologic Studies and Surveillance of Disease Problems.” Information identifying the person who received the vaccine or that person's legal representative will not be made available to the public, but may be available to the vaccinee or legal representative.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The applicant must maintain for a period of 10 years records of all adverse experiences known to the applicant, including raw data and any correspondence relating to the adverse experiences. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Revocation of biologics license.</I> If an applicant fails to establish and maintain records and make reports required under this section with respect to a licensed biological product, FDA may revoke the biologics license for such a product in accordance with the procedures of § 601.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Exemptions.</I> Manufacturers of the following listed products are not required to submit adverse experience reports under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Whole blood or components of whole blood.
</P>
<P>(2) In vitro diagnostic products, including assay systems for the detection of antibodies or antigens to retroviruses. These products are subject to the reporting requirements for devices.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Disclaimer.</I> A report or information submitted by an applicant under this section (and any release by FDA of that report or information) does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the applicant or FDA that the report or information constitutes an admission that the biological product caused or contributed to an adverse effect. An applicant need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted under this section constitutes an admission that the biological product caused or contributed to an adverse effect. For purposes of this provision, this paragraph also includes any person reporting under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54042, Oct. 27, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 34168, June 25, 1997; 62 FR 52252, Oct. 7, 1997; 63 FR 14612, Mar. 26, 1998; 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999; 70 FR 14982, Mar. 24, 2005; 79 FR 33090, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.81" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.81   Distribution reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The applicant must submit to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, information about the quantity of the product distributed under the biologics license, including the quantity distributed to distributors. The interval between distribution reports must be 6 months. Upon written notice, FDA may require that the applicant submit distribution reports under this section at times other than every 6 months. The distribution report must consist of the bulk lot number (from which the final container was filled), the fill lot numbers for the total number of dosage units of each strength or potency distributed (e.g., fifty thousand per 10-milliliter vials), the label lot number (if different from fill lot number), labeled date of expiration, number of doses in fill lot/label lot, date of release of fill lot/label lot for distribution at that time. If any significant amount of a fill lot/label lot is returned, include this information. Disclosure of financial or pricing data is not required. As needed, FDA may require submission of more detailed product distribution information. Upon written notice, FDA may require that the applicant submit reports under this section at times other than those stated. Requests by an applicant to submit reports at times other than those stated should be made as a request for a waiver under § 600.90. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Electronic format.</I> Except as provided for in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the distribution reports required under paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to the Agency in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waivers.</I> An applicant may request, in writing, a temporary waiver of the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. These waivers will be granted on a limited basis for good cause shown. FDA will issue guidance on requesting a waiver of the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Requests for waivers must be submitted in accordance with § 600.90.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54042, Oct. 27, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 56449, Oct. 20, 1999; 70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005; 79 FR 33091, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.82" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.82   Notification of a permanent discontinuance or an interruption in manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of a permanent discontinuance or an interruption in manufacturing.</I> (1) An applicant of a biological product, other than blood or blood components for transfusion, which is licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, and which may be dispensed only under prescription under section 503(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(b)(1)), must notify FDA in writing of a permanent discontinuance of manufacture of the biological product or an interruption in manufacturing of the biological product that is likely to lead to a meaningful disruption in supply of that biological product in the United States if:
</P>
<P>(i) The biological product is life supporting, life sustaining, or intended for use in the prevention or treatment of a debilitating disease or condition, including any such biological product used in emergency medical care or during surgery; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The biological product is not a radiopharmaceutical biological product.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant of blood or blood components for transfusion, which is licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, and which may be dispensed only under prescription under section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, must notify FDA in writing of a permanent discontinuance of manufacture of any product listed in its license or an interruption in manufacturing of any such product that is likely to lead to a significant disruption in supply of that product in the United States if:
</P>
<P>(i) The product is life supporting, life sustaining, or intended for use in the prevention or treatment of a debilitating disease or condition, including any such product used in emergency medical care or during surgery; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant is a manufacturer of a significant percentage of the U.S. blood supply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission and timing of notification.</I> Notifications required by paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to FDA electronically in a format that FDA can process, review, and archive:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 6 months prior to the date of the permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing; or
</P>
<P>(2) If 6 months' advance notice is not possible because the permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing was not reasonably anticipated 6 months in advance, as soon as practicable thereafter, but in no case later than 5 business days after such a permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing occurs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information included in notification.</I> Notifications required by paragraph (a) of this section must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the biological product subject to the notification, including the National Drug Code for such biological product, or an alternative standard for identification and labeling that has been recognized as acceptable by the Center Director;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the applicant of the biological product;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the notification relates to a permanent discontinuance of the biological product or an interruption in manufacturing of the biological product;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the reason for the permanent discontinuance or interruption in manufacturing; and
</P>
<P>(5) The estimated duration of the interruption in manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Public list of biological product shortages.</I> FDA will maintain a publicly available list of biological products that are determined by FDA to be in shortage. This biological product shortages list will include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The names and National Drug Codes for such biological products, or the alternative standards for identification and labeling that have been recognized as acceptable by the Center Director;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of each applicant for such biological products;
</P>
<P>(iii) The reason for the shortage, as determined by FDA, selecting from the following categories: Requirements related to complying with good manufacturing practices; regulatory delay; shortage of an active ingredient; shortage of an inactive ingredient component; discontinuation of the manufacture of the biological product; delay in shipping of the biological product; demand increase for the biological product; or other reason; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The estimated duration of the shortage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidentiality.</I> FDA may choose not to make information collected to implement this paragraph available on the biological product shortages list or available under section 506C(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 356c(c)) if FDA determines that disclosure of such information would adversely affect the public health (such as by increasing the possibility of hoarding or other disruption of the availability of the biological product to patients). FDA will also not provide information on the public shortages list or under section 506C(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that is protected by 18 U.S.C. 1905 or 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), including trade secrets and commercial or financial information that is considered confidential or privileged under § 20.61 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Noncompliance letters.</I> If an applicant fails to submit a notification as required under paragraph (a) of this section and in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, FDA will issue a letter to the applicant informing it of such failure.
</P>
<P>(1) Not later than 30 calendar days after the issuance of such a letter, the applicant must submit to FDA a written response setting forth the basis for noncompliance and providing the required notification under paragraph (a) of this section and including the information required under paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not later than 45 calendar days after the issuance of a letter under this paragraph, FDA will make the letter and the applicant's response to the letter public, unless, after review of the applicant's response, FDA determines that the applicant had a reasonable basis for not notifying FDA as required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions of terms apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Biological product shortage</I> or <I>shortage</I> means a period of time when the demand or projected demand for the biological product within the United States exceeds the supply of the biological product.
</P>
<P><I>Intended for use in the prevention or treatment of a debilitating disease or condition</I> means a biological product intended for use in the prevention or treatment of a disease or condition associated with mortality or morbidity that has a substantial impact on day-to-day functioning.
</P>
<P><I>Life supporting or life sustaining</I> means a biological product that is essential to, or that yields information that is essential to, the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life.
</P>
<P><I>Meaningful disruption</I> means a change in production that is reasonably likely to lead to a reduction in the supply of a biological product by a manufacturer that is more than negligible and affects the ability of the manufacturer to fill orders or meet expected demand for its product, and does not include interruptions in manufacturing due to matters such as routine maintenance or insignificant changes in manufacturing so long as the manufacturer expects to resume operations in a short period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Significant disruption</I> means a change in production that is reasonably likely to lead to a reduction in the supply of blood or blood components by a manufacturer that substantially affects the ability of the manufacturer to fill orders or meet expected demand for its product, and does not include interruptions in manufacturing due to matters such as routine maintenance or insignificant changes in manufacturing so long as the manufacturer expects to resume operations in a short period of time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 38939, July 8, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.90" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.1.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.90   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may ask the Food and Drug Administration to waive under this section any requirement that applies to the applicant under §§ 600.80 and 600.81. A waiver request under this section is required to be submitted with supporting documentation. The waiver request is required to contain one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation why the applicant's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary or cannot be achieved,
</P>
<P>(2) A description of an alternative submission that satisfies the purpose of the requirement, or
</P>
<P>(3) Other information justifying a waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may grant a waiver if it finds one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary or cannot be achieved,
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant's alternative submission satisfies the requirement, or
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's submission otherwise justifies a waiver.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54042, Oct. 27, 1994, as amended at 79 FR 33092, June 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="601" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 601—LICENSING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1451-1561; 21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 356b, 360, 360c-360f, 360h-360j, 371, 374, 379e, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 262, 263, 264; sec 122, Pub. L. 105-115, 111 Stat. 2322 (21 U.S.C. 355 note), sec 7002(e), Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 817, as amended by sec. 607, Division N, Pub. L. 116-94, 133 Stat. 3127.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 32052, Nov. 20, 1973, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For U.S. Customs Service regulations relating to viruses, serums, and toxins, see 19 CFR 12.21-12.23. For U.S. Postal Service regulations relating to the admissibility to the United States mails see parts 124 and 125 of the Domestic Mail Manual, that is incorporated by reference in 39 CFR part 111.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.2   Applications for biologics licenses; procedures for filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> To obtain a biologics license under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act for any biological product, the manufacturer shall submit an application to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(a) or (b) of this chapter), on forms prescribed for such purposes, and shall submit data derived from nonclinical laboratory and clinical studies which demonstrate that the manufactured product meets prescribed requirements of safety, purity, and potency; with respect to each nonclinical laboratory study, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance; statements regarding each clinical investigation involving human subjects contained in the application, that it either was conducted in compliance with the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter; or was not subject to such requirements in accordance with § 56.104 or § 56.105, and was conducted in compliance with requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter. A full description of manufacturing methods; data establishing stability of the product through the dating period; sample(s) representative of the product for introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce; summaries of results of tests performed on the lot(s) represented by the submitted sample(s); specimens of the labels, enclosures, and containers, and if applicable, any Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter proposed to be used for the product; and the address of each location involved in the manufacture of the biological product shall be listed in the biologics license application. The applicant shall also include a financial certification or disclosure statement(s) or both for clinical investigators as required by part 54 of this chapter. An application for a biologics license shall not be considered as filed until all pertinent information and data have been received by the Food and Drug Administration. The applicant shall also include either a claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.31 of this chapter or an environmental assessment under § 25.40 of this chapter. The applicant, or the applicant's attorney, agent, or other authorized official shall sign the application. An application for any of the following specified categories of biological products subject to licensure shall be handled as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Therapeutic DNA plasmid products;
</P>
<P>(2) Therapeutic synthetic peptide products of 40 or fewer amino acids;
</P>
<P>(3) Monoclonal antibody products for in vivo use; and
</P>
<P>(4) Therapeutic recombinant DNA-derived products.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) To obtain marketing approval for a biological product subject to licensure which is a therapeutic DNA plasmid product, therapeutic synthetic peptide product of 40 or fewer amino acids, monoclonal antibody product for in vivo use, or therapeutic recombinant DNA-derived product, an applicant shall submit a biologics license application in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section except that the following sections in parts 600 through 680 of this chapter shall not be applicable to such products: §§ 600.10(b) and (c), 600.11, 600.12, 600.13, 610.53, and 610.62 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that the requirements in this paragraph (c) conflict with other requirements in this subchapter, this paragraph (c) shall supersede other requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) Approval of a biologics license application or issuance of a biologics license shall constitute a determination that the establishment(s) and the product meet applicable requirements to ensure the continued safety, purity, and potency of such products. Applicable requirements for the maintenance of establishments for the manufacture of a product subject to this section shall include but not be limited to the good manufacturing practice requirements set forth in parts 210, 211, 600, 606, and 820 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any establishment and product license for a biological product issued under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) that has not been revoked or suspended as of December 20, 1999, shall constitute an approved biologics license application in effect under the same terms and conditions set forth in such product license and such portions of the establishment license relating to such product.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Withdrawal from sale of approved biological products.</I> A holder of a biologics license application (BLA) must report to FDA, in accordance with the requirements of §§ 207.61 and 207.65, the withdrawal from sale of an approved biological product. The information must be submitted to FDA within 30 working days of the biological product's withdrawal from sale. The following information must be submitted: The holder's name; product name; BLA number; the National Drug Code; and the date on which the product is expected to be no longer in commercial distribution. The reason for the withdrawal of the biological product is requested but not required to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Master files</I>—(1) <I>Biologics license applications under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act not permitted to incorporate by reference drug substance, drug substance intermediate, or drug product information contained in a master file</I>. Except as provided in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, a biologics license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act may not incorporate by reference drug substance, drug substance intermediate, or drug product information contained in a master file, including a drug master file submitted under §  314.420 of this chapter, for the product, including for a biological product constituent part of a combination product.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Former approved applications deemed to be licenses for biological products pursuant to section 7002(e)(4) of the Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act of 2009</I>. An application for a biological product that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a former approved application under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that, pursuant to section 7002(e)(4) of the Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act of 2009, has been deemed to be a license for the biological product under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time it was so deemed, incorporated by reference drug substance, drug substance intermediate, and/or drug product information contained in a drug master file submitted under §  314.420 of this chapter, may continue to incorporate by reference the information contained in that drug master file. Amendments and supplements to such applications may also continue to incorporate by reference the information contained in that drug master file.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-biological product constituent parts of combination products regulated under biologics license applications under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act</I>. A biologics license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act may incorporate by reference drug substance, drug substance intermediate, and/or drug product information contained in a master file, including a drug master file submitted under §  314.420 of this chapter, for any non-biological product constituent part of a combination product.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Biologics license applications under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act permitted to incorporate by reference information contained in a master file that is not drug substance, drug substance intermediate, or drug product information</I>. Nothing in paragraph (g)(1) of this section limits or restricts a biologics license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act from incorporating by reference information contained in any master file, including a drug master file submitted under §  314.420 of this chapter, that is not drug substance, drug substance intermediate, or drug product information.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Investigational new drug applications.</I> Nothing in paragraph (g)(1) of this section limits or restricts an investigational new drug application for a product that would be subject to licensure under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act from incorporating by reference any information, including drug substance, drug substance intermediate, and drug product information, contained in a master file, including a drug master file submitted under §  314.420 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56450, Oct. 20, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015; 80 FR 37974, July 2, 2015; 81 FR 60221, Aug. 31, 2016; 89 FR 9756, Feb. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.3   Complete response letter to the applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Complete response letter.</I> The Food and Drug Administration will send the biologics license applicant or supplement applicant a complete response letter if the agency determines that it will not approve the biologics license application or supplement in its present form.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Description of specific deficiencies.</I> A complete response letter will describe all of the deficiencies that the agency has identified in a biologics license application or supplement, except as stated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inadequate data.</I> If FDA determines, after a biologics license application or supplement is filed, that the data submitted are inadequate to support approval, the agency might issue a complete response letter without first conducting required inspections, testing submitted product lots, and/or reviewing proposed product labeling.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recommendation of actions for approval.</I> When possible, a complete response letter will recommend actions that the applicant might take to place its biologics license application or supplement in condition for approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicant actions.</I> After receiving a complete response letter, the biologics license applicant or supplement applicant must take either of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Resubmission.</I> Resubmit the application or supplement, addressing all deficiencies identified in the complete response letter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Withdrawal.</I> Withdraw the application or supplement. A decision to withdraw the application or supplement is without prejudice to a subsequent submission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to take action.</I> (1) FDA may consider a biologics license applicant or supplement applicant's failure to either resubmit or withdraw the application or supplement within 1 year after issuance of a complete response letter to be a request by the applicant to withdraw the application or supplement, unless the applicant has requested an extension of time in which to resubmit the application or supplement. FDA will grant any reasonable request for such an extension. FDA may consider an applicant's failure to resubmit the application or supplement within the extended time period or request an additional extension to be a request by the applicant to withdraw the application.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA considers an applicant's failure to take action in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section to be a request to withdraw the application, the agency will notify the applicant in writing. The applicant will have 30 days from the date of the notification to explain why the application or supplement should not be withdrawn and to request an extension of time in which to resubmit the application or supplement. FDA will grant any reasonable request for an extension. If the applicant does not respond to the notification within 30 days, the application or supplement will be deemed to be withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 39611, July 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.4" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.4   Issuance and denial of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A biologics license shall be issued upon a determination by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research that the establishment(s) and the product meet the applicable requirements established in this chapter. A biologics license shall be valid until suspended or revoked.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commissioner determines that the establishment or product does not meet the requirements established in this chapter, the biologics license application shall be denied and the applicant shall be informed of the grounds for, and of an opportunity for a hearing on, the decision. If the applicant so requests, the Commissioner shall issue a notice of opportunity for hearing on the matter pursuant to § 12.21(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 4718, Jan. 25, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 19142, Apr. 12, 1977; 64 FR 56450, Oct. 20, 1999; 70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.5" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.5   Revocation of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A biologics license shall be revoked upon application of the manufacturer giving notice of intention to discontinue the manufacture of all products manufactured under such license or to discontinue the manufacture of a particular product for which a license is held and waiving an opportunity for a hearing on the matter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Commissioner shall notify the licensed manufacturer of the intention to revoke the biologics license, setting forth the grounds for, and offering an opportunity for a hearing on the proposed revocation if the Commissioner finds any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Authorized Food and Drug Administration employees after reasonable efforts have been unable to gain access to an establishment or a location for the purpose of carrying out the inspection required under § 600.21 of this chapter,
</P>
<P>(ii) Manufacturing of products or of a product has been discontinued to an extent that a meaningful inspection or evaluation cannot be made,
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has failed to report a change as required by § 601.12 of this chapter,
</P>
<P>(iv) The establishment or any location thereof, or the product for which the license has been issued, fails to conform to the applicable standards established in the license and in this chapter designed to ensure the continued safety, purity, and potency of the manufactured product,
</P>
<P>(v) The establishment or the manufacturing methods have been so changed as to require a new showing that the establishment or product meets the requirements established in this chapter in order to protect the public health, or
</P>
<P>(vi) The licensed product is not safe and effective for all of its intended uses or is misbranded with respect to any such use.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in § 601.6 of this chapter, or in cases involving willfulness, the notification required in this paragraph shall provide a reasonable period for the licensed manufacturer to demonstrate or achieve compliance with the requirements of this chapter, before proceedings will be instituted for the revocation of the license. If compliance is not demonstrated or achieved and the licensed manufacturer does not waive the opportunity for a hearing, the Commissioner shall issue a notice of opportunity for hearing on the matter under § 12.21(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56451, Oct. 20, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.6" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.6   Suspension of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Commissioner has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the grounds for revocation of a license exist and that by reason thereof there is a danger to health, the Commissioner may notify the licensed manufacturer that the biologics license is suspended and require that the licensed manufacturer do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the selling agents and distributors to whom such product or products have been delivered of such suspension, and
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, complete records of such deliveries and notice of suspension.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon suspension of a license, the Commissioner shall either:
</P>
<P>(1) Proceed under the provisions of § 601.5(b) of this chapter to revoke the license, or
</P>
<P>(2) If the licensed manufacturer agrees, hold revocation in abeyance pending resolution of the matters involved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56451, Oct. 20, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.7" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.7   Procedure for hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice of opportunity for hearing, notice of appearance and request for hearing, and grant or denial of hearing for a biological drug pursuant to this part, for which the exemption from the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in § 310.4 of this chapter has been revoked, shall be subject to the provisions of § 314.200 of this chapter except to the extent that the notice of opportunity for hearing on the matter issued pursuant to § 12.21(b) of this chapter specifically provides otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(b) Hearings pursuant to §§ 601.4 through 601.6 shall be governed by part 12 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a license has been suspended pursuant to § 601.6 and a hearing request has been granted, the hearing shall proceed on an expedited basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 4718, Jan. 25, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 19143, Apr. 12, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.8" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.8   Publication of revocation.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner, following revocation of a biologics license under 21 CFR 601.5(b), will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with a statement of the specific grounds for the revocation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 20585, May 5, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.9" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.9   Licenses; reissuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compliance with requirements.</I> A biologics license, previously suspended or revoked, may be reissued or reinstated upon a showing of compliance with requirements and upon such inspection and examination as may be considered necessary by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion of noncomplying location.</I> A biologics license, excluding a location or locations that fail to comply with the requirements in this chapter, may be issued without further application and concurrently with the suspension or revocation of the license for noncompliance at the excluded location or locations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion of noncomplying product(s).</I> In the case of multiple products included under a single biologics license application, a biologics license may be issued, excluding the noncompliant product(s), without further application and concurrently with the suspension or revocation of the biologics license for a noncompliant product(s).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56451, Oct. 20, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Biologics Licensing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.12" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.12   Changes to an approved application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) As provided by this section, an applicant must inform the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) (see mailing addresses in § 600.2 of this chapter) about each change in the product, production process, quality controls, equipment, facilities, responsible personnel, or labeling established in the approved license application(s). 
</P>
<P>(2) Before distributing a product made using a change, an applicant must assess the effects of the change and demonstrate through appropriate validation and/or other clinical and/or nonclinical laboratory studies the lack of adverse effect of the change on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (f) of this section, an applicant must make a change provided for in those paragraphs in accordance with a regulation or guidance that provides for a less burdensome notification of the change (for example, by submission of a supplement that does not require approval prior to distribution of the product or in an annual report).
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant must promptly revise all promotional labeling and advertising to make it consistent with any labeling change implemented in accordance with paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) A supplement or annual report must include a list of all changes contained in the supplement or annual report. For supplements, this list must be provided in the cover letter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Changes requiring supplement submission and approval prior to distribution of the product made using the change (major changes).</I> (1) A supplement shall be submitted for any change in the product, production process, quality controls, equipment, facilities, or responsible personnel that has a substantial potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, changes in the qualitative or quantitative formulation, including inactive ingredients, or in the specifications provided in the approved application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes requiring completion of an appropriate human study to demonstrate the equivalence of the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product;
</P>
<P>(iii) Changes in the virus or adventitious agent removal or inactivation method(s);
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes in the source material or cell line;
</P>
<P>(v) Establishment of a new master cell bank or seed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Changes which may affect product sterility assurance, such as changes in product or component sterilization method(s), or an addition, deletion, or substitution of steps in an aseptic processing operation.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must obtain approval of the supplement from FDA prior to distribution of the product made using the change. Except for submissions under paragraph (e) of this section, the following shall be contained in the supplement:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the proposed change;
</P>
<P>(ii) The product(s) involved;
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturing site(s) or area(s) affected;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the methods used and studies performed to evaluate the effect of the change on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product;
</P>
<P>(v) The data derived from such studies;
</P>
<P>(vi) Relevant validation protocols and data; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A reference list of relevant standard operating procedures (SOP's).
</P>
<P>(4) An applicant may ask FDA to expedite its review of a supplement for public health reasons or if a delay in making the change described in it would impose an extraordinary hardship on the applicant. Such a supplement and its mailing cover should be plainly marked: “Prior Approval Supplement-Expedited Review Requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Changes requiring supplement submission at least 30 days prior to distribution of the product made using the change.</I> (1) A supplement shall be submitted for any change in the product, production process, quality controls, equipment, facilities, or responsible personnel that has a moderate potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product. The supplement shall be labeled “Supplement—Changes Being Effected in 30 Days” or, if applicable under paragraph (c)(5) of this section, “Supplement—Changes Being Effected.”
</P>
<P>(2) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) An increase or decrease in production scale during finishing steps that involves different equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Replacement of equipment with that of similar, but not identical, design and operating principle that does not affect the process methodology or process operating parameters.
</P>
<P>(iv) Relaxation of an acceptance criterion or deletion of a test to comply with an official compendium that is consistent with FDA statutory and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Pending approval of the supplement by FDA, and except as provided in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, distribution of the product made using the change may begin not less than 30 days after receipt of the supplement by FDA. The information listed in paragraph (b)(3)(i) through (b)(3)(vii) of this section shall be contained in the supplement. 
</P>
<P>(4) If within 30 days following FDA's receipt of the supplement, FDA informs the applicant that either:
</P>
<P>(i) The change requires approval prior to distribution of the product in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any of the information required under paragraph (c)(3) of this section is missing; the applicant shall not distribute the product made using the change until FDA determines that compliance with this section is achieved.
</P>
<P>(5) In certain circumstances, FDA may determine that, based on experience with a particular type of change, the supplement for such change is usually complete and provides the proper information, and on particular assurances that the proposed change has been appropriately submitted, the product made using the change may be distributed immediately upon receipt of the supplement by FDA. These circumstances may include substantial similarity with a type of change regularly involving a “Supplement—Changes Being Effected” supplement or a situation in which the applicant presents evidence that the proposed change has been validated in accordance with an approved protocol for such change under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) If the agency disapproves the supplemental application, it may order the manufacturer to cease distribution of the products made with the manufacturing change.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Changes to be described in an annual report (minor changes).</I> (1) Changes in the product, production process, quality controls, equipment, facilities, or responsible personnel that have a minimal potential to have an adverse effect on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product shall be documented by the applicant in an annual report submitted each year within 60 days of the anniversary date of approval of the application. The Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, may approve a written request for an alternative date to combine annual reports for multiple approved applications into a single annual report submission. 
</P>
<P>(2) These changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any change made to comply with a change to an official compendium, except a change described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section, that is consistent with FDA statutory and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) The deletion or reduction of an ingredient intended only to affect the color of the product, except that a change intended only to affect Blood Grouping Reagents requires supplement submission and approval prior to distribution of the product made using the change in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) An extension of an expiration dating period based upon full shelf life data on production batches obtained from a protocol approved in the application;
</P>
<P>(iv) A change within the container closure system for a nonsterile product, based upon a showing of equivalency to the approved system under a protocol approved in the application or published in an official compendium;
</P>
<P>(v) A change in the size and/or shape of a container containing the same number of dosage units for a nonsterile solid dosage form product, without a change from one container closure system to another;
</P>
<P>(vi) The addition by embossing, debossing, or engraving of a code imprint to a solid dosage form biological product other than a modified release dosage form, or a minor change in an existing code imprint; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The addition or revision of an alternative analytical procedure that provides the same or increased assurance of the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the material being tested as the analytical procedure described in the approved application, or deletion of an alternative analytical procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) The following information for each change shall be contained in the annual report:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of all products involved; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A full description of the manufacturing and controls changes including: the manufacturing site(s) or area(s) involved; the date the change was made; a cross-reference to relevant validation protocols and/or SOP's; and relevant data from studies and tests performed to evaluate the effect of the change on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement by the holder of the approved application or license that the effects of the change have been assessed.
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant shall submit the report to the FDA office responsible for reviewing the application. The report shall include all the information required under this paragraph for each change made during the annual reporting interval which ends on the anniversary date in the order in which they were implemented.
</P>
<P>(e) An applicant may submit one or more protocols describing the specific tests and validation studies and acceptable limits to be achieved to demonstrate the lack of adverse effect for specified types of manufacturing changes on the identity, strength, quality, purity, or potency of the product as they may relate to the safety or effectiveness of the product. Any such protocols, or change to a protocol, shall be submitted as a supplement requiring approval from FDA prior to distribution of the product which, if approved, may justify a reduced reporting category for the particular change because the use of the protocol for that type of change reduces the potential risk of an adverse effect.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Labeling changes.</I> (1) Labeling changes requiring supplement submission—FDA approval must be obtained before distribution of the product with the labeling change. Except as described in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section, an applicant shall submit a supplement describing a proposed change in the package insert, package label, container label, or, if applicable, a Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter, and include the information necessary to support the proposed change. An applicant cannot use paragraph (f)(2) of this section to make any change to the information required in § 201.57(a) of this chapter. An applicant may report the minor changes to the information specified in paragraph (f)(3)(i)(D) of this section in an annual report. The supplement shall clearly highlight the proposed change in the labeling. The applicant shall obtain approval from FDA prior to distribution of the product with the labeling change.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Labeling changes requiring supplement submission—product with a labeling change that may be distributed before FDA approval.</I> (i) An applicant shall submit, at the time such change is made, a supplement for any change in the package insert, package label, or container label to reflect newly acquired information, except for changes to the package insert required in § 201.57(a) of this chapter (which must be made under paragraph (f)(1) of this section), to accomplish any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) To add or strengthen a contraindication, warning, precaution, or adverse reaction for which the evidence of a causal association satisfies the standard for inclusion in the labeling under § 201.57(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(B) To add or strengthen a statement about abuse, dependence, psychological effect, or overdosage;
</P>
<P>(C) To add or strengthen an instruction about dosage and administration that is intended to increase the safety of the use of the product; and
</P>
<P>(D) To delete false, misleading, or unsupported indications for use or claims for effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(E) Any labeling change normally requiring a supplement submission and approval prior to distribution of the product that FDA specifically requests be submitted under this provision.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pending approval of the supplement by FDA, the applicant may distribute a product with a package insert, package label, or container label bearing such change at the time the supplement is submitted. The supplement shall clearly identify the change being made and include necessary supporting data. The supplement and its mailing cover shall be plainly marked: “Special Labeling Supplement—Changes Being Effected.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling changes requiring submission in an annual report.</I> (i) An applicant shall submit any final printed package insert, package label, container label, or Medication Guide required under part 208 of this chapter incorporating the following changes in an annual report submitted to FDA each year as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Editorial or similar minor changes;
</P>
<P>(B) A change in the information on how the product is supplied that does not involve a change in the dosage strength or dosage form; 
</P>
<P>(C) A change in the information specified in § 208.20(b)(8)(iii) and (b)(8)(iv) of this chapter for a Medication Guide; and
</P>
<P>(D) A change to the information required in § 201.57(a) of this chapter as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Removal of a listed section(s) specified in § 201.57(a)(5) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Changes to the most recent revision date of the labeling as specified in § 201.57(a)(15) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(E) A change made pursuant to an exception or alternative granted under § 201.26 or § 610.68 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant may distribute a product with a package insert, package label, or container label bearing such change at the time the change is made.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Advertisements and promotional labeling.</I> Advertisements and promotional labeling shall be submitted to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or Center for Drug Evaluation and Research in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 314.81(b)(3)(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) The submission and grant of a written request for an exception or alternative under § 201.26 or § 610.68 of this chapter satisfies the requirements in paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) For purposes of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, information will be considered newly acquired if it consists of data, analyses, or other information not previously submitted to the agency, which may include (but are not limited to) data derived from new clinical studies, reports of adverse events, or new analyses of previously submitted data (e.g., meta-analyses) if the studies, events or analyses reveal risks of a different type or greater severity or frequency than previously included in submissions to FDA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failure to comply.</I> In addition to other remedies available in law and regulations, in the event of repeated failure of the applicant to comply with this section, FDA may require that the applicant submit a supplement for any proposed change and obtain approval of the supplement by FDA prior to distribution of the product made using the change.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative review.</I> Under § 10.75 of this chapter, an applicant may request internal FDA review of FDA employee decisions under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 39901, July 24, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 66399, Dec. 1, 1998. Redesignated at 65 FR 59718, Oct. 6, 2000, and amended at 69 FR 18766, Apr. 8, 2004; 70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005; 71 FR 3997, Jan. 24, 2006; 72 FR 73600, Dec. 28, 2007; 73 FR 49609, Aug. 22, 2008; 73 FR 68333, Nov. 18, 2008; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.14" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.14   Regulatory submissions in electronic format.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Electronic format submissions must be in a form that FDA can process, review, and archive. FDA will periodically issue guidance on how to provide the electronic submission (e.g., method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation and organization of files.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Labeling.</I> The content of labeling required under § 201.100(d)(3) of this chapter (commonly referred to as the package insert or professional labeling), including all text, tables, and figures, must be submitted to the agency in electronic format as described in paragraph (a) of this section. This requirement is in addition to the provisions of §§ 601.2(a) and 601.12(f) that require applicants to submit specimens of the labels, enclosures, and containers, or to submit other final printed labeling. Submissions under this paragraph must be made in accordance with part 11 of this chapter except for the requirements of § 11.10(a), (c) through (h), and (k), and the corresponding requirements of § 11.30.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 69020, Dec. 11, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.15" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.15   Foreign establishments and products: samples for each importation.</HEAD>
<P>Random samples of each importation, obtained by the District Director of Customs and forwarded to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter) must be at least two final containers of each lot of product. A copy of the associated documents which describe and identify the shipment must accompany the shipment for forwarding with the samples to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c)). For shipments of 20 or less final containers, samples need not be forwarded, provided a copy of an official release from the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or Center for Drug Evaluation and Research accompanies each shipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005, as amended at 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.20   Biologics licenses; issuance and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Examination—compliance with requirements.</I> A biologics license application shall be approved only upon examination of the product and upon a determination that the product complies with the standards established in the biologics license application and the requirements prescribed in the regulations in this chapter including but not limited to the good manufacturing practice requirements set forth in parts 210, 211, 600, 606, and 820 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of product.</I> No biologics license shall be issued unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The product intended for introduction into interstate commerce is available for examination, and
</P>
<P>(2) Such product is available for inspection during all phases of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manufacturing process—impairment of assurances.</I> No product shall be licensed if any part of the process of or relating to the manufacture of such product, in the judgment of the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, would impair the assurances of continued safety, purity, and potency as provided by the regulations contained in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inspection—compliance with requirements.</I> A biologics license shall be issued or a biologics license application approved only after inspection of the establishment(s) listed in the biologics license application and upon a determination that the establishment(s) complies with the standards established in the biologics license application and the requirements prescribed in applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>One biologics license to cover all locations.</I> One biologics license shall be issued to cover all locations meeting the establishment standards identified in the approved biologics license application and each location shall be subject to inspection by FDA officials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56451, Oct. 20, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 14983, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.21" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.21   Products under development.</HEAD>
<P>A biological product undergoing development, but not yet ready for a biologics license, may be shipped or otherwise delivered from one State or possession into another State or possession provided such shipment or delivery is not for introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce, except as provided in sections 505(i) and 520(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended, and the regulations thereunder (21 CFR parts 312 and 812).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56451, Oct. 20, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.22" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.22   Products in short supply; initial manufacturing at other than licensed location.</HEAD>
<P>A biologics license issued to a manufacturer and covering all locations of manufacture shall authorize persons other than such manufacturer to conduct at places other than such locations the initial, and partial manufacturing of a product for shipment solely to such manufacturer only to the extent that the names of such persons and places are registered with the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and it is found upon application of such manufacturer, that the product is in short supply due either to the peculiar growth requirements of the organism involved or to the scarcity of the animal required for manufacturing purposes, and such manufacturer has established with respect to such persons and places such procedures, inspections, tests or other arrangements as will ensure full compliance with the applicable regulations of this subchapter related to continued safety, purity, and potency. Such persons and places shall be subject to all regulations of this subchapter except §§ 601.2 to 601.6, 601.9, 601.10, 601.20, 601.21 to 601.33, and 610.60 to 610.65 of this chapter. For persons and places authorized under this section to conduct the initial and partial manufacturing of a product for shipment solely to a manufacturer of a product subject to licensure under § 601.2(c), the following additional regulations shall not be applicable: §§ 600.10(b) and (c), 600.11, 600.12, 600.13, and 610.53 of this chapter. Failure of such manufacturer to maintain such procedures, inspections, tests, or other arrangements, or failure of any person conducting such partial manufacturing to comply with applicable regulations shall constitute a ground for suspension or revocation of the authority conferred pursuant to this section on the same basis as provided in §§ 601.6 to 601.8 with respect to the suspension and the revocation of licenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 4718, Jan. 25, 1977, as amended at 61 FR 24233, May 14, 1996; 64 FR 56452, Oct. 20, 1999; 80 FR 37974, July 2, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.27" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.27   Pediatric studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required assessment.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, each application for a new active ingredient, new indication, new dosage form, new dosing regimen, or new route of administration shall contain data that are adequate to assess the safety and effectiveness of the product for the claimed indications in all relevant pediatric subpopulations, and to support dosing and administration for each pediatric subpopulation for which the product is safe and effective. Where the course of the disease and the effects of the product are similar in adults and pediatric patients, FDA may conclude that pediatric effectiveness can be extrapolated from adequate and well-controlled effectiveness studies in adults, usually supplemented with other information in pediatric patients, such as pharmacokinetic studies. In addition, studies may not be needed in each pediatric age group, if data from one age group can be extrapolated to another. Assessments required under this section for a product that represents a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing treatments must be carried out using appropriate formulations for the age group(s) for which the assessment is required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deferred submission.</I> (1) FDA may, on its own initiative or at the request of an applicant, defer submission of some or all assessments of safety and effectiveness described in paragraph (a) of this section until after licensing of the product for use in adults. Deferral may be granted if, among other reasons, the product is ready for approval in adults before studies in pediatric patients are complete, pediatric studies should be delayed until additional safety or effectiveness data have been collected. If an applicant requests deferred submission, the request must provide an adequate justification for delaying pediatric studies, a description of the planned or ongoing studies, and evidence that the studies are being or will be conducted with due diligence and at the earliest possible time.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA determines that there is an adequate justification for temporarily delaying the submission of assessments of pediatric safety and effectiveness, the product may be licensed for use in adults subject to the requirement that the applicant submit the required assessments within a specified time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> FDA may grant a full or partial waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section on its own initiative or at the request of an applicant. A request for a waiver must provide an adequate justification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Full waiver.</I> An applicant may request a waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the applicant certifies that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product does not represent a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing therapies for pediatric patients and is not likely to be used in a substantial number of pediatric patients;
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary studies are impossible or highly impractical because, e.g., the number of such patients is so small or geographically dispersed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) There is evidence strongly suggesting that the product would be ineffective or unsafe in all pediatric age groups.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Partial waiver.</I> An applicant may request a waiver of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to a specified pediatric age group, if the applicant certifies that:
</P>
<P>(i) The product does not represent a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing therapies for pediatric patients in that age group, and is not likely to be used in a substantial number of patients in that age group;
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary studies are impossible or highly impractical because, e.g., the number of patients in that age group is so small or geographically dispersed;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is evidence strongly suggesting that the product would be ineffective or unsafe in that age group; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant can demonstrate that reasonable attempts to produce a pediatric formulation necessary for that age group have failed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>FDA action on waiver.</I> FDA shall grant a full or partial waiver, as appropriate, if the agency finds that there is a reasonable basis on which to conclude that one or more of the grounds for waiver specified in paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section have been met. If a waiver is granted on the ground that it is not possible to develop a pediatric formulation, the waiver will cover only those pediatric age groups requiring that formulation. If a waiver is granted because there is evidence that the product would be ineffective or unsafe in pediatric populations, this information will be included in the product's labeling.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of “meaningful therapeutic benefit”.</I> For purposes of this section, a product will be considered to offer a meaningful therapeutic benefit over existing therapies if FDA estimates that:
</P>
<P>(i) If approved, the product would represent a significant improvement in the treatment, diagnosis, or prevention of a disease, compared to marketed products adequately labeled for that use in the relevant pediatric population. Examples of how improvement might be demonstrated include, e.g., evidence of increased effectiveness in treatment, prevention, or diagnosis of disease; elimination or substantial reduction of a treatment-limiting drug reaction; documented enhancement of compliance; or evidence of safety and effectiveness in a new subpopulation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The product is in a class of products or for an indication for which there is a need for additional therapeutic options.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption for orphan drugs.</I> This section does not apply to any product for an indication or indications for which orphan designation has been granted under part 316, subpart C, of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66671, Dec. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.28" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.28   Annual reports of postmarketing pediatric studies.</HEAD>
<P>Sponsors of licensed biological products shall submit the following information each year within 60 days of the anniversary date of approval of each product under the license to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(a) or (b) of this chapter):
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Summary.</I> A brief summary stating whether labeling supplements for pediatric use have been submitted and whether new studies in the pediatric population to support appropriate labeling for the pediatric population have been initiated. Where possible, an estimate of patient exposure to the drug product, with special reference to the pediatric population (neonates, infants, children, and adolescents) shall be provided, including dosage form. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clinical data.</I> Analysis of available safety and efficacy data in the pediatric population and changes proposed in the labeling based on this information. An assessment of data needed to ensure appropriate labeling for the pediatric population shall be included. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Status reports.</I> A statement on the current status of any postmarketing studies in the pediatric population performed by, or on behalf of, the applicant. The statement shall include whether postmarketing clinical studies in pediatric populations were required or agreed to, and, if so, the status of these studies shall be reported to FDA in annual progress reports of postmarketing studies under § 601.70 rather than under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 59718, Oct. 6, 2000, as amended at 65 FR 64618, Oct. 30, 2000; 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.29" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.29   Guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA has made available guidance documents under § 10.115 of this chapter to help you comply with certain requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) maintains a list of guidance documents that apply to the center's regulations. The lists are maintained on the Internet and are published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> You may request a copy of the CBER list from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3103, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56480, Sept. 19, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Diagnostic Radiopharmaceuticals</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 26668, May 17, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 601.30" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.30   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to radiopharmaceuticals intended for in vivo administration for diagnostic and monitoring use. It does not apply to radiopharmaceuticals intended for therapeutic purposes. In situations where a particular radiopharmaceutical is proposed for both diagnostic and therapeutic uses, the radiopharmaceutical must be evaluated taking into account each intended use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.31" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.31   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part,<I>diagnostic radiopharmaceutical</I> means:
</P>
<P>(a) An article that is intended for use in the diagnosis or monitoring of a disease or a manifestation of a disease in humans and that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of nuclear particles or photons; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any nonradioactive reagent kit or nuclide generator that is intended to be used in the preparation of such article as defined in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.32" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.32   General factors relevant to safety and effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>FDA's determination of the safety and effectiveness of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical includes consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The proposed use of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical in the practice of medicine;
</P>
<P>(b) The pharmacological and toxicological activity of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical (including any carrier or ligand component of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical); and
</P>
<P>(c) The estimated absorbed radiation dose of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.33" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.33   Indications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals, the categories of proposed indications for use include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Structure delineation;
</P>
<P>(2) Functional, physiological, or biochemical assessment;
</P>
<P>(3) Disease or pathology detection or assessment; and
</P>
<P>(4) Diagnostic or therapeutic patient management.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical is not intended to provide disease-specific information, the proposed indications for use may refer to a biochemical, physiological, anatomical, or pathological process or to more than one disease or condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.34" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.34   Evaluation of effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The effectiveness of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical is assessed by evaluating its ability to provide useful clinical information related to its proposed indications for use. The method of this evaluation varies depending upon the proposed indication(s) and may use one or more of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim of structure delineation is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting the ability to locate anatomical structures and to characterize their anatomy.
</P>
<P>(2) The claim of functional, physiological, or biochemical assessment is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting reliable measurement of function(s) or physiological, biochemical, or molecular process(es).
</P>
<P>(3) The claim of disease or pathology detection or assessment is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting that the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical has sufficient accuracy in identifying or characterizing the disease or pathology.
</P>
<P>(4) The claim of diagnostic or therapeutic patient management is established by demonstrating in a defined clinical setting that the test is useful in diagnostic or therapeutic patient management.
</P>
<P>(5) For a claim that does not fall within the indication categories identified in § 601.33, the applicant or sponsor should consult FDA on how to establish the effectiveness of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical for the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) The accuracy and usefulness of the diagnostic information is determined by comparison with a reliable assessment of actual clinical status. A reliable assessment of actual clinical status may be provided by a diagnostic standard or standards of demonstrated accuracy. In the absence of such diagnostic standard(s), the actual clinical status must be established in another manner, e.g., patient followup.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.35" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.35   Evaluation of safety.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Factors considered in the safety assessment of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical include, among others, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The radiation dose;
</P>
<P>(2) The pharmacology and toxicology of the radiopharmaceutical, including any radionuclide, carrier, or ligand;
</P>
<P>(3) The risks of an incorrect diagnostic determination;
</P>
<P>(4) The adverse reaction profile of the drug;
</P>
<P>(5) Results of human experience with the radiopharmaceutical for other uses; and
</P>
<P>(6) Results of any previous human experience with the carrier or ligand of the radiopharmaceutical when the same chemical entity as the carrier or ligand has been used in a previously studied product.
</P>
<P>(b) The assessment of the adverse reaction profile includes, but is not limited to, an evaluation of the potential of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical, including the carrier or ligand, to elicit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Allergic or hypersensitivity responses,
</P>
<P>(2) Immunologic responses,
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in the physiologic or biochemical function of the target and nontarget tissues, and
</P>
<P>(4) Clinically detectable signs or symptoms.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) To establish the safety of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical, FDA may require, among other information, the following types of data:
</P>
<P>(A) Pharmacology data,
</P>
<P>(B) Toxicology data,
</P>
<P>(C) Clinical adverse event data, and
</P>
<P>(D) Radiation safety assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of new safety data required will depend on the characteristics of the product and available information regarding the safety of the diagnostic radiopharmaceutical, and its carrier or ligand, obtained from other studies and uses. Such information may include, but is not limited to, the dose, route of administration, frequency of use, half-life of the ligand or carrier, half-life of the radionuclide, and results of clinical and preclinical studies. FDA will establish categories of diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals based on defined characteristics relevant to risk and will specify the amount and type of safety data that are appropriate for each category (e.g., required safety data may be limited for diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals with a well established, low-risk profile). Upon reviewing the relevant product characteristics and safety information, FDA will place each diagnostic radiopharmaceutical into the appropriate safety risk category.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Radiation safety assessment.</I> The radiation safety assessment must establish the radiation dose of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical by radiation dosimetry evaluations in humans and appropriate animal models. The maximum tolerated dose need not be established. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Accelerated Approval of Biological Products for Serious or Life-Threatening Illnesses</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 58959, Dec. 11, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 601.40" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.40   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to certain biological products that have been studied for their safety and effectiveness in treating serious or life-threatening illnesses and that provide meaningful therapeutic benefit to patients over existing treatments (e.g., ability to treat patients unresponsive to, or intolerant of, available therapy, or improved patient response over available therapy). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.41" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.41   Approval based on a surrogate endpoint or on an effect on a clinical endpoint other than survival or irreversible morbidity.</HEAD>
<P>FDA may grant marketing approval for a biological product on the basis of adequate and well-controlled clinical trials establishing that the biological product has an effect on a surrogate endpoint that is reasonably likely, based on epidemiologic, therapeutic, pathophysiologic, or other evidence, to predict clinical benefit or on the basis of an effect on a clinical endpoint other than survival or irreversible morbidity. Approval under this section will be subject to the requirement that the applicant study the biological product further, to verify and describe its clinical benefit, where there is uncertainty as to the relation of the surrogate endpoint to clinical benefit, or of the observed clinical benefit to ultimate outcome. Postmarketing studies would usually be studies already underway. When required to be conducted, such studies must also be adequate and well-controlled. The applicant shall carry out any such studies with due diligence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.42" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.42   Approval with restrictions to assure safe use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA concludes that a biological product shown to be effective can be safely used only if distribution or use is restricted, FDA will require such postmarketing restrictions as are needed to assure safe use of the biological product, such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Distribution restricted to certain facilities or physicians with special training or experience; or
</P>
<P>(2) Distribution conditioned on the performance of specified medical procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) The limitations imposed will be commensurate with the specific safety concerns presented by the biological product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.43" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.43   Withdrawal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For biological products approved under § 601.41 or § 601.42, FDA may withdraw approval, following a hearing as provided in part 15 of this chapter, as modified by this section, if:
</P>
<P>(1) A postmarketing clinical study fails to verify clinical benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant fails to perform the required postmarketing study with due diligence; 
</P>
<P>(3) Use after marketing demonstrates that postmarketing restrictions are inadequate to ensure safe use of the biological product;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant fails to adhere to the postmarketing restrictions agreed upon;
</P>
<P>(5) The promotional materials are false or misleading; or
</P>
<P>(6) Other evidence demonstrates that the biological product is not shown to be safe or effective under its conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of opportunity for a hearing.</I> The Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research will give the applicant notice of an opportunity for a hearing on the Center's proposal to withdraw the approval of an application approved under § 601.41 or § 601.42. The notice, which will ordinarily be a letter, will state generally the reasons for the action and the proposed grounds for the order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of data and information.</I> (1) If the applicant fails to file a written request for a hearing within 15 days of receipt of the notice, the applicant waives the opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant files a timely request for a hearing, the agency will publish a notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with §§ 12.32(e) and 15.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant who requests a hearing under this section must, within 30 days of receipt of the notice of opportunity for a hearing, submit the data and information upon which the applicant intends to rely at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Separation of functions (as specified in § 10.55 of this chapter) will not apply at any point in withdrawal proceedings under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for hearings.</I> Hearings held under this section will be conducted in accordance with the provisions of part 15 of this chapter, with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) An advisory committee duly constituted under part 14 of this chapter will be present at the hearing. The committee will be asked to review the issues involved and to provide advice and recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer, the advisory committee members, up to three representatives of the applicant, and up to three representatives of the Center may question any person during or at the conclusion of the person's presentation. No other person attending the hearing may question a person making a presentation. The presiding officer may, as a matter of discretion, permit questions to be submitted to the presiding officer for response by a person making a presentation. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judicial review.</I> The Commissioner's decision constitutes final agency action from which the applicant may petition for judicial review. Before requesting an order from a court for a stay of action pending review, an applicant must first submit a petition for a stay of action under § 10.35 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 58959, Dec. 11, 1992, as amended at 68 FR 34797, June 11, 2003; 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.44" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.44   Postmarketing safety reporting.</HEAD>
<P>Biological products approved under this program are subject to the postmarketing recordkeeping and safety reporting applicable to all approved biological products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.45" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.45   Promotional materials.</HEAD>
<P>For biological products being considered for approval under this subpart, unless otherwise informed by the agency, applicants must submit to the agency for consideration during the preapproval review period copies of all promotional materials, including promotional labeling as well as advertisements, intended for dissemination or publication within 120 days following marketing approval. After 120 days following marketing approval, unless otherwise informed by the agency, the applicant must submit promotional materials at least 30 days prior to the intended time of initial dissemination of the labeling or initial publication of the advertisement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.46" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.46   Termination of requirements.</HEAD>
<P>If FDA determines after approval that the requirements established in § 601.42, § 601.43, or § 601.45 are no longer necessary for the safe and effective use of a biological product, it will so notify the applicant. Ordinarily, for biological products approved under § 601.41, these requirements will no longer apply when FDA determines that the required postmarketing study verifies and describes the biological product's clinical benefit and the biological product would be appropriate for approval under traditional procedures. For biological products approved under § 601.42, the restrictions would no longer apply when FDA determines that safe use of the biological product can be assured through appropriate labeling. FDA also retains the discretion to remove specific postapproval requirements upon review of a petition submitted by the sponsor in accordance with § 10.30.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Confidentiality of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.50" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.50   Confidentiality of data and information in an investigational new drug notice for a biological product.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The existence of an IND notice for a biological product will not be disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration unless it has previously been publicly disclosed or acknowledged. 
</P>
<P>(b) The availability for public disclosure of all data and information in an IND file for a biological product shall be handled in accordance with the provisions established in § 601.51. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of § 601.51, the Food and Drug Administration shall disclose upon request to an individual on whom an investigational biological product has been used a copy of any adverse reaction report relating to such use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 44656, Dec. 24, 1974] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.51" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.51   Confidentiality of data and information in applications for biologics licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section the biological product file includes all data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in any application for a biologics license, IND's incorporated into any such application, master files, and other related submissions. The availability for public disclosure of any record in the biological product file shall be handled in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The existence of a biological product file will not be disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration before a biologics license application has been approved unless it has previously been publicly disclosed or acknowledged. The Food and Drug Administration will maintain a list available for public disclosure of biological products for which a license application has been approved.
</P>
<P>(c) If the existence of a biological product file has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the biological product file is available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the existence of a biological product file has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged before a license has been issued, no data or information contained in the file is available for public disclosure before such license is issued, but the Commissioner may, in his discretion, disclose a summary of such selected portions of the safety and effectiveness data as are appropriate for public consideration of a specific pending issue, e.g., at an open session of a Food and Drug Administration advisory committee or pursuant to an exchange of important regulatory information with a foreign government. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, FDA will make available to the public upon request the information in the IND that was required to be filed in Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, for investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Persons wishing to request this information shall submit a request under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(e) After a license has been issued, the following data and information in the biological product file are immediately available for public disclosure unless extraordinary circumstances are shown: 
</P>
<P>(1) All safety and effectiveness data and information. 
</P>
<P>(2) A protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) Adverse reaction reports, product experience reports, consumer complaints, and other similar data and information, after deletion of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Names and any information that would identify the person using the product. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Names and any information that would identify any third party involved with the report, such as a physician or hospital or other institution. 
</P>
<P>(4) A list of all active ingredients and any inactive ingredients previously disclosed to the public, as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(5) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it serves no regulatory or compliance purpose and it is shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(6) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to the biological product file, in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(7) All records showing the manufacturer's testing of a particular lot, after deletion of data or information that would show the volume of the drug produced, manufacturing procedures and controls, yield from raw materials, costs, or other material falling within § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(8) All records showing the testing of and action on a particular lot by the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(f) The following data and information in a biological product file are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public as defined in § 20.81 of this chapter or they relate to a product or ingredient that has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter: 
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures. 
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which is not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas. 
</P>
<P>(g) For purposes of this regulation, safety and effectiveness data include all studies and tests of a biological product on animals and humans and all studies and tests on the drug for identity, stability, purity, potency, and bioavailability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 44656, Dec. 24, 1974, as amended at 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977; 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 61 FR 51530, Oct. 2, 1996; 64 FR 56452, Oct. 20, 1999; 68 FR 24879, May 9, 2003; 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004; 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005; 88 FR 45066, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Postmarketing Studies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 64618, Oct. 30, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 601.70" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.70   Annual progress reports of postmarketing studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> This section applies to all required postmarketing studies (e.g., accelerated approval clinical benefit studies, pediatric studies) and postmarketing studies that an applicant has committed, in writing, to conduct either at the time of approval of an application or a supplement to an application, or after approval of an application or a supplement. Postmarketing studies within the meaning of this section are those that concern: 
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical safety; 
</P>
<P>(2) Clinical efficacy; 
</P>
<P>(3) Clinical pharmacology; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Nonclinical toxicology. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What to report.</I> Each applicant of a licensed biological product shall submit a report to FDA on the status of postmarketing studies for each approved product application. The status of these postmarketing studies shall be reported annually until FDA notifies the applicant, in writing, that the agency concurs with the applicant's determination that the study commitment has been fulfilled, or that the study is either no longer feasible or would no longer provide useful information. Each annual progress report shall be accompanied by a completed transmittal Form FDA-2252, and shall include all the information required under this section that the applicant received or otherwise obtained during the annual reporting interval which ends on the U.S. anniversary date. The report must provide the following information for each postmarketing study: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicant's name.</I> 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Product name.</I> Include the approved product's proper name and the proprietary name, if any. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Biologics license application (BLA) and supplement number.</I> 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Date of U.S. approval of BLA.</I> 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Date of postmarketing study commitment.</I> 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Description of postmarketing study commitment.</I> The description must include sufficient information to uniquely describe the study. This information may include the purpose of the study, the type of study, the patient population addressed by the study and the indication(s) and dosage(s) that are to be studied. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Schedule for completion and reporting of the postmarketing study commitment.</I> The schedule should include the actual or projected dates for submission of the study protocol to FDA, completion of patient accrual or initiation of an animal study, completion of the study, submission of the final study report to FDA, and any additional milestones or submissions for which projected dates were specified as part of the commitment. In addition, it should include a revised schedule, as appropriate. If the schedule has been previously revised, provide both the original schedule and the most recent, previously submitted revision. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Current status of the postmarketing study commitment.</I> The status of each postmarketing study should be categorized using one of the following terms that describes the study's status on the anniversary date of U.S. approval of the application or other agreed upon date: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Pending.</I> The study has not been initiated, but does not meet the criterion for delayed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ongoing.</I> The study is proceeding according to or ahead of the original schedule described under paragraph (b)(7) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Delayed.</I> The study is behind the original schedule described under paragraph (b)(7) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Terminated.</I> The study was ended before completion but a final study report has not been submitted to FDA. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Submitted.</I> The study has been completed or terminated and a final study report has been submitted to FDA. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Explanation of the study's status.</I> Provide a brief description of the status of the study, including the patient accrual rate (expressed by providing the number of patients or subjects enrolled to date, and the total planned enrollment), and an explanation of the study's status identified under paragraph (b)(8) of this section. If the study has been completed, include the date the study was completed and the date the final study report was submitted to FDA, as applicable. Provide a revised schedule, as well as the reason(s) for the revision, if the schedule under paragraph (b)(7) of this section has changed since the previous report. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to report.</I> Annual progress reports for postmarketing study commitments entered into by applicants shall be reported to FDA within 60 days of the anniversary date of the U.S. approval of the application for the product. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where to report.</I> Submit two copies of the annual progress report of postmarketing studies to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(a) or (b) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public disclosure of information.</I> Except for the information described in this paragraph, FDA may publicly disclose any information concerning a postmarketing study, within the meaning of this section, if the agency determines that the information is necessary to identify an applicant or to establish the status of the study including the reasons, if any, for failure to conduct, complete, and report the study. Under this section, FDA will not publicly disclose trade secrets, as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter, or information, described in § 20.63 of this chapter, the disclosure of which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 64618, Oct. 30, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Approval of Biological Products When Human Efficacy Studies Are Not Ethical or Feasible</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 37996, May 31, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 601.90" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.90   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to certain biological products that have been studied for their safety and efficacy in ameliorating or preventing serious or life-threatening conditions caused by exposure to lethal or permanently disabling toxic biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear substances. This subpart applies only to those biological products for which: Definitive human efficacy studies cannot be conducted because it would be unethical to deliberately expose healthy human volunteers to a lethal or permanently disabling toxic biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear substance; and field trials to study the product's efficacy after an accidental or hostile exposure have not been feasible. This subpart does not apply to products that can be approved based on efficacy standards described elsewhere in FDA's regulations (e.g., accelerated approval based on surrogate markers or clinical endpoints other than survival or irreversible morbidity), nor does it address the safety evaluation for the products to which it does apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.91" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.91   Approval based on evidence of effectiveness from studies in animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may grant marketing approval for a biological product for which safety has been established and for which the requirements of § 601.90 are met based on adequate and well-controlled animal studies when the results of those animal studies establish that the biological product is reasonably likely to produce clinical benefit in humans. In assessing the sufficiency of animal data, the agency may take into account other data, including human data, available to the agency. FDA will rely on the evidence from studies in animals to provide substantial evidence of the effectiveness of these products only when:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a reasonably well-understood pathophysiological mechanism of the toxicity of the substance and its prevention or substantial reduction by the product;
</P>
<P>(2) The effect is demonstrated in more than one animal species expected to react with a response predictive for humans, unless the effect is demonstrated in a single animal species that represents a sufficiently well-characterized animal model for predicting the response in humans;
</P>
<P>(3) The animal study endpoint is clearly related to the desired benefit in humans, generally the enhancement of survival or prevention of major morbidity; and
</P>
<P>(4) The data or information on the kinetics and pharmacodynamics of the product or other relevant data or information, in animals and humans, allows selection of an effective dose in humans.
</P>
<P>(b) Approval under this subpart will be subject to three requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Postmarketing studies.</I> The applicant must conduct postmarketing studies, such as field studies, to verify and describe the biological product's clinical benefit and to assess its safety when used as indicated when such studies are feasible and ethical. Such postmarketing studies would not be feasible until an exigency arises. When such studies are feasible, the applicant must conduct such studies with due diligence. Applicants must include as part of their application a plan or approach to postmarketing study commitments in the event such studies become ethical and feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval with restrictions to ensure safe use.</I> If FDA concludes that a biological product shown to be effective under this subpart can be safely used only if distribution or use is restricted, FDA will require such postmarketing restrictions as are needed to ensure safe use of the biological product, commensurate with the specific safety concerns presented by the biological product, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Distribution restricted to certain facilities or health care practitioners with special training or experience;
</P>
<P>(ii) Distribution conditioned on the performance of specified medical procedures, including medical followup; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Distribution conditioned on specified recordkeeping requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information to be provided to patient recipients.</I> For biological products or specific indications approved under this subpart, applicants must prepare, as part of their proposed labeling, labeling to be provided to patient recipients. The patient labeling must explain that, for ethical or feasibility reasons, the biological product's approval was based on efficacy studies conducted in animals alone and must give the biological product's indication(s), directions for use (dosage and administration), contraindications, a description of any reasonably foreseeable risks, adverse reactions, anticipated benefits, drug interactions, and any other relevant information required by FDA at the time of approval. The patient labeling must be available with the product to be provided to patients prior to administration or dispensing of the biological product for the use approved under this subpart, if possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.92" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.92   Withdrawal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reasons to withdraw approval.</I> For biological products approved under this subpart, FDA may withdraw approval, following a hearing as provided in part 15 of this chapter, as modified by this section, if:
</P>
<P>(1) A postmarketing clinical study fails to verify clinical benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant fails to perform the postmarketing study with due diligence;
</P>
<P>(3) Use after marketing demonstrates that postmarketing restrictions are inadequate to ensure safe use of the biological product;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant fails to adhere to the postmarketing restrictions applied at the time of approval under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) The promotional materials are false or misleading; or
</P>
<P>(6) Other evidence demonstrates that the biological product is not shown to be safe or effective under its conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of opportunity for a hearing.</I> The Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research will give the applicant notice of an opportunity for a hearing on the proposal to withdraw the approval of an application approved under this subpart. The notice, which will ordinarily be a letter, will state generally the reasons for the action and the proposed grounds for the order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of data and information.</I> (1) If the applicant fails to file a written request for a hearing within 15 days of receipt of the notice, the applicant waives the opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant files a timely request for a hearing, the agency will publish a notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with §§ 12.32(e) and 15.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant who requests a hearing under this section must, within 30 days of receipt of the notice of opportunity for a hearing, submit the data and information upon which the applicant intends to rely at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Separation of functions (as specified in § 10.55 of this chapter) will not apply at any point in withdrawal proceedings under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for hearings.</I> Hearings held under this section will be conducted in accordance with the provisions of part 15 of this chapter, with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) An advisory committee duly constituted under part 14 of this chapter will be present at the hearing. The committee will be asked to review the issues involved and to provide advice and recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer, the advisory committee members, up to three representatives of the applicant, and up to three representatives of CBER may question any person during or at the conclusion of the person's presentation. No other person attending the hearing may question a person making a presentation. The presiding officer may, as a matter of discretion, permit questions to be submitted to the presiding officer for response by a person making a presentation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judicial review.</I> The Commissioner of Food and Drugs' decision constitutes final agency action from which the applicant may petition for judicial review. Before requesting an order from a court for a stay of action pending review, an applicant must first submit a petition for a stay of action under § 10.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 37996, May 31, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.93" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.93   Postmarketing safety reporting.</HEAD>
<P>Biological products approved under this subpart are subject to the postmarketing recordkeeping and safety reporting applicable to all approved biological products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.94" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.94   Promotional materials.</HEAD>
<P>For biological products being considered for approval under this subpart, unless otherwise informed by the agency, applicants must submit to the agency for consideration during the preapproval review period copies of all promotional materials, including promotional labeling as well as advertisements, intended for dissemination or publication within 120 days following marketing approval. After 120 days following marketing approval, unless otherwise informed by the agency, the applicant must submit promotional materials at least 30 days prior to the intended time of initial dissemination of the labeling or initial publication of the advertisement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.95" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.2.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.95   Termination of requirements.</HEAD>
<P>If FDA determines after approval under this subpart that the requirements established in §§ 601.91(b)(2), 601.92, and 601.93 are no longer necessary for the safe and effective use of a biological product, FDA will so notify the applicant. Ordinarily, for biological products approved under § 601.91, these requirements will no longer apply when FDA determines that the postmarketing study verifies and describes the biological product's clinical benefit. For biological products approved under § 601.91, the restrictions would no longer apply when FDA determines that safe use of the biological product can be ensured through appropriate labeling. FDA also retains the discretion to remove specific postapproval requirements upon review of a petition submitted by the sponsor in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="606" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 606—CURRENT GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE FOR BLOOD AND BLOOD COMPONENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 355, 360, 360j, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263a, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Blood</I> means a product that is a fluid containing dissolved and suspended elements which was collected from the vascular system of a human.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unit</I> means the volume of blood or one of its components in a suitable volume of anticoagulant obtained from a single collection of blood from one donor. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Blood component</I> means a product containing a part of human blood separated by physical or mechanical means.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plasma for further manufacturing</I> means that liquid portion of blood separated and used as material to prepare another product. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Plasmapheresis</I> means the procedure in which blood is removed from the donor, the plasma is separated from the formed elements and at least the red blood cells are returned to the donor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plateletpheresis</I> means the procedure in which blood is removed from a donor, a platelet concentrate is separated, and the remaining formed elements are returned to the donor along with a portion of the residual plasma.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Leukapheresis</I> means the procedure in which blood is removed from the donor, a leukocyte concentrate is separated, and the remaining formed elements and residual plasma are returned to the donor. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Facilities</I> means any area used for the collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage or distribution of blood and blood components. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Processing</I> means any procedure employed after collection, and before or after compatibility testing of blood, and includes the identification of a unit of donor blood, the preparation of components from such unit of donor blood, serological testing, labeling and associated recordkeeping.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Compatibility testing</I> means the procedures performed to establish the matching of a donor's blood or blood components with that of a potential recipient.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Distributed</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The blood or blood components have left the control of the licensed manufacturer, unlicensed registered blood establishment, or transfusion service; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensed manufacturer has provided Source Plasma or any other blood component for use in the manufacture of a licensed biological product. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Control</I> means having responsibility for maintaining the continued safety, purity, and potency of the product and for compliance with applicable product and establishment standards, and for compliance with current good manufacturing practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 64 FR 45370, Aug. 19, 1999; 65 FR 66635, Nov. 7, 2000; 66 FR 1835, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 40889, Aug. 6, 2001; 72 FR 45886, Aug. 16, 2007; 80 FR 29894, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Organization and Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.20   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(b) The personnel responsible for the collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage or distribution of blood or blood components shall be adequate in number, educational background, training and experience, including professional training as necessary, or combination thereof, to assure competent performance of their assigned functions, and to ensure that the final product has the safety, purity, potency, identity and effectiveness it purports or is represented to possess. All personnel shall have capabilities commensurate with their assigned functions, a thorough understanding of the procedures or control operations they perform, the necessary training or experience, and adequate information concerning the application of pertinent provisions of this part to their respective functions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Persons whose presence can adversely affect the safety and purity of the products shall be excluded from areas where the collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage or distribution of blood or blood components is conducted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 62 FR 53538, Oct. 15, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Plant and Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.40" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.40   Facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Facilities shall be maintained in a clean and orderly manner, and shall be of suitable size, construction and location to facilitate adequate cleaning, maintenance and proper operations. The facilities shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Provide adequate space for the following when applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) Private and accurate examinations of individuals to determine their eligibility as blood donors. 
</P>
<P>(2) The withdrawal of blood from donors with minimal risk of contamination, or exposure to activities and equipment unrelated to blood collection. 
</P>
<P>(3) The storage of blood or blood components pending completion of tests. 
</P>
<P>(4) The quarantine storage of blood or blood components in a designated location pending repetition of those tests that initially gave questionable serological results. 
</P>
<P>(5) The storage of finished products prior to distribution. 
</P>
<P>(6) The quarantine storage, handling and disposition of products and reagents not suitable for use. 
</P>
<P>(7) The orderly collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage and distribution of blood and blood components to prevent contamination. 
</P>
<P>(8) The adequate and proper performance of all steps in plasmapheresis, plateletpheresis and leukapheresis procedures. 
</P>
<P>(9) The orderly conduction of all packaging, labeling and other finishing operations. 
</P>
<P>(b) Provide adequate lighting, ventilation and screening of open windows and doors. 
</P>
<P>(c) Provide adequate, clean, and convenient handwashing facilities for personnel, and adequate, clean, and convenient toilet facilities for donors and personnel. Drains shall be of adequate size and, where connected directly to a sewer, shall be equipped with traps to prevent back-siphonage. 
</P>
<P>(d) Provide for safe and sanitary disposal for the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Trash and items used during the collection, processing and compatibility testing of blood and blood components. 
</P>
<P>(2) Blood and blood components not suitable for use or distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 80 FR 29895, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.60" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.60   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Equipment used in the collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage and distribution of blood and blood components shall be maintained in a clean and orderly manner and located so as to facilitate cleaning and maintenance. The equipment shall be observed, standardized and calibrated on a regularly scheduled basis as prescribed in the Standard Operating Procedures Manual and shall perform in the manner for which it was designed so as to assure compliance with the official requirements prescribed in this chapter for blood and blood products. 
</P>
<P>(b) Equipment that shall be observed, standardized and calibrated with at least the following frequency, include but are not limited to:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance check
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Frequency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Frequency of calibration
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Temperature recorder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compare against thermometer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Daily</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As necessary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerated centrifuge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Observe speed and temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each day of use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hematocrit centrifuge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardize before initial use, after repairs or adjustments, and annually. Timer every 3 mo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General lab centrifuge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tachometer every 6 mo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automated blood-typing machine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Observe controls for correct results</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each day of use
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hemoglobinometer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardize against cyanmethemoglobin standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refractometer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardize against distilled water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blood container scale</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardize against container of known weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As necessary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water bath</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Observe temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh view box</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Autoclave</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each time of use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Serologic rotators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Observe controls for correct results</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each day of use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speed as necessary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laboratory thermometers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before initial use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electronic thermometers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monthly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vacuum blood agitator</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Observe weight of the first container of blood filled for correct results</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each day of use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardize with container of known mass or volume before initial use, and after repairs or adjustments.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Equipment employed in the sterilization of materials used in blood collection or for disposition of contaminated products shall be designed, maintained and utilized to ensure the destruction of contaminating microorganisms. The effectiveness of the sterilization procedure shall be no less than that achieved by an attained temperature of 121.5 °C (251 °F) maintained for 20 minutes by saturated steam or by an attained temperature of 170 °C (338 °F) maintained for 2 hours with dry heat.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975; 40 FR 55849, Dec. 2, 1975, as amended at 45 FR 9261, Feb. 12, 1980; 57 FR 11263, Apr. 2, 1992; 57 FR 12862, Apr. 13, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.65" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.65   Supplies and reagents.</HEAD>
<P>All supplies and reagents used in the collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage and distribution of blood and blood components shall be stored in a safe, sanitary and orderly manner. 
</P>
<P>(a) All surfaces coming in contact with blood and blood components intended for transfusion shall be sterile, pyrogen-free, and shall not interact with the product in such a manner as to have an adverse effect upon the safety, purity, potency or effectiveness of the product. All final containers and closures for blood and blood components not intended for transfusion shall be clean and free of surface solids and other contaminants. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each blood collecting container and its satellite container(s), if any, shall be examined visually for damage or evidence of contamination prior to its use and immediately after filling. Such examination shall include inspection for breakage of seals, when indicated, and abnormal discoloration. Where any defect is observed, the container shall not be used, or, if detected after filling, shall be properly discarded. 
</P>
<P>(c) Representative samples of each lot of the following reagents or solutions shall be tested on a regularly scheduled basis by methods described in the Standard Operating Procedures Manual to determine their capacity to perform as required:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reagent or solution
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Frequency of testing
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-human globulin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each day of use.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blood grouping reagents</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lectins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antibody screening and reverse grouping cells</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hepatitis test reagents</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each run.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Syphilis serology reagents</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Enzymes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each day of use.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Supplies and reagents that do not bear an expiration date shall be stored in such a manner that the oldest is used first. 
</P>
<P>(e) Supplies and reagents shall be used in a manner consistent with instructions provided by the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(f) Items that are required to be sterile and come into contact with blood should be disposable whenever possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 59 FR 23636, May 6, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Production and Process Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.100" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.100   Standard operating procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all instances, except clinical investigations, standard operating procedures shall comply with published additional standards in part 640 of this chapter for the products being processed; except that, references in part 640 relating to licenses, licensed establishments and submission of material or data to or approval by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, are not applicable to establishments not subject to licensure under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Establishments must establish, maintain, and follow written standard operating procedures for all steps in the collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage, and distribution of blood and blood components for allogeneic transfusion, autologous transfusion, and further manufacturing purposes; for all steps in the investigation of product deviations related to § 606.171; and for all steps in recordkeeping related to current good manufacturing practice and other applicable requirements and standards. Such procedures must be available to the personnel for use in the areas where the procedures are performed. The written standard operating procedures must include, but are not limited to, descriptions of the following, when applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Criteria used to determine donor eligibility, including acceptable medical history criteria. 
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of performing donor qualifying tests and measurements, including minimum and maximum values for a test or procedure when a factor in determining acceptability. 
</P>
<P>(3) Solutions and methods used to prepare the site of phlebotomy to give maximum assurance of a sterile container of blood. 
</P>
<P>(4) Method of accurately relating the product(s) to the donor. 
</P>
<P>(5) Blood collection procedure, including in-process precautions taken to measure accurately the quantity of blood removed from the donor. 
</P>
<P>(6) Methods of component preparation, including any time restrictions for specific steps in processing. 
</P>
<P>(7) All tests and repeat tests performed on blood and blood components during manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(8) Pretransfusion testing, where applicable, including precautions to be taken to identify accurately the recipient blood samples and crossmatched donor units. 
</P>
<P>(9) Procedures for investigating adverse donor and recipient reactions. 
</P>
<P>(10) Storage temperatures and methods of controlling storage temperatures for all blood products and reagents as prescribed in §§ 600.15 and 610.53 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(11) Length of expiration dates, if any, assigned for all final products as prescribed in § 610.53 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(12) Criteria for determining whether returned blood is suitable for reissue. 
</P>
<P>(13) Procedures used for relating a unit of blood or blood component from the donor to its final disposition. 
</P>
<P>(14) Quality control procedures for supplies and reagents employed in blood collection, processing and pretransfusion testing. 
</P>
<P>(15) Schedules and procedures for equipment maintenance and calibration. 
</P>
<P>(16) Labeling procedures, including safeguards to avoid labeling mixups. 
</P>
<P>(17) Procedures of plasmapheresis, plateletpheresis, and leukapheresis, if performed, including precautions to be taken to ensure reinfusion of a donor's own cells. 
</P>
<P>(18) Procedures for preparing recovered plasma, if performed, including details of separation, pooling, labeling, storage, and distribution.
</P>
<P>(19) Procedures under §§ 610.46 and 610.47 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) To identify previously donated blood and blood components from a donor who later tests reactive for evidence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection when tested under § 610.40 of this chapter, or when a blood establishment is made aware of other reliable test results or information indicating evidence of HIV or HCV infection;
</P>
<P>(ii) To quarantine in-date blood and blood components previously donated by such a donor that are intended for use in another person or further manufacture into injectable products, except pooled components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) To notify consignees to quarantine in-date blood and blood components previously donated by such a donor intended for use in another person or for further manufacture into injectable products, except pooled components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures;
</P>
<P>(iv) To determine the suitability for release, destruction, or relabeling of quarantined in-date blood and blood components;
</P>
<P>(v) To notify consignees of the results of the HIV or HCV testing performed on the donors of such blood and blood components;
</P>
<P>(vi) To notify the transfusion recipient, the recipient's physician of record, or the recipient's legal representative that the recipient received blood or blood components at increased risk of transmitting HIV or HCV, respectively.
</P>
<P>(20) Procedures for donor deferral as prescribed in § 610.41 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(21) Procedures for donor notification and notification of the referring physician of an autologous donor, including procedures for the appropriate followup if the initial attempt at notification fails, as prescribed in § 630.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(22) Procedures to control the risks of bacterial contamination of platelets, including all steps required under § 606.145.
</P>
<P>(c) All records pertinent to the lot or unit maintained pursuant to these regulations shall be reviewed before the release or distribution of a lot or unit of final product. The review or portions of the review may be performed at appropriate periods during or after blood collecting, processing, compatibility testing and storing. A thorough investigation, including the conclusions and followup, of any unexplained discrepancy or the failure of a lot or unit to meet any of its specifications shall be made and recorded. 
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the requirements of this subpart and in conformity with this section, any facility may utilize current standard operating procedures such as the manuals of the organizations, as long as such specific procedures are consistent with, and at least as stringent as, the requirements contained in this part.
</P>
<P>(1) American Association of Blood Banks. 
</P>
<P>(2) American National Red Cross. 
</P>
<P>(3) Other organizations or individual blood banks, subject to approval by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 61 FR 47422, Sept. 9, 1996; 64 FR 45370, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 31176, June 11, 2001; 72 FR 48798, Aug. 24, 2007; 80 FR 80651, Dec. 28, 2015; 80 FR 29895, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.110" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.110   Plateletpheresis, leukapheresis, and plasmapheresis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The use of plateletpheresis and leukapheresis procedures to obtain a product for a specific recipient may be at variance with the additional standards for specific products prescribed in this part provided that: (1) A physician has determined that the recipient must be transfused with the leukocytes or platelets from a specific donor, and (2) the procedure is performed under the supervision of a responsible physician who is aware of the health status of the donor, and the physician has determined and documented that the donor's health permits plateletpheresis or leukapheresis. 
</P>
<P>(b) Plasmapheresis of donors who do not meet the donor requirements of §§ 630.10, 630.15, 640.64 and 640.65 of this chapter for the collection of plasma containing rare antibodies shall be permitted only with the prior approval of the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 80 FR 29895, May 22, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Additional Labeling Standards for Blood and Blood Components</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.120" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.120   Labeling, general requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Labeling operations shall be separated physically or spatially from other operations in a manner adequate to prevent mixups.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling operation shall include the following labeling controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Labels shall be held upon receipt, pending review and proofing against an approved final copy, to ensure accuracy regarding identity, content, and conformity with the approved copy.
</P>
<P>(2) Each type of label representing different products shall be stored and maintained in a manner to prevent mixups, and stocks of obsolete labels shall be destroyed.
</P>
<P>(3) All necessary checks in labeling procedures shall be utilized to prevent errors in translating test results to container labels.
</P>
<P>(c) All labeling shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 35469, Aug. 30, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.121" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.121   Container label.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The container label requirements are designed to facilitate the use of a uniform container label for blood and blood components intended for use in transfusion or further manufacture by all blood establishments.
</P>
<P>(b) The label provided by the collecting facility and the initial processing facility must not be removed, altered, or obscured, except that the label may be altered to indicate the proper name of the product, with any appropriate modifiers and attributes, and other information required to identify accurately the contents of a container after blood components considered finished products have been prepared.
</P>
<P>(c) The container label must include the following information, as well as other specialized information as required in this section for specific products:
</P>
<P>(1) The proper name of the product in a prominent position, with any appropriate modifiers and attributes.
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, unique facility identifier, and, if a licensed product, the license number of each manufacturer; except the container label for blood and blood components for further manufacture is not required to include a unique facility identifier.
</P>
<P>(3) The donor or lot number relating the unit to the donor. If pooled, all donor numbers, all donation numbers, or a pool number that is traceable to each individual unit comprising the pool.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The expiration date, including the day, month, and year, and, if the dating period for the product is 72 hours or less, including any product prepared in a system that might compromise sterility, the hour of expiration.
</P>
<P>(ii) If Source Plasma intended for manufacturing into noninjectable products is pooled, the expiration date for the pool is determined from the collection date of the oldest unit in the pool, and the pooling records must show the collection date for each unit in the pool.
</P>
<P>(5) For Whole Blood, Plasma, Platelets, and partial units of Red Blood Cells, the volume of the product, accurate to within ±10 percent; or optionally for Platelets, the volume or volume range within reasonable limits.
</P>
<P>(6) Where applicable, the name and volume of source material.
</P>
<P>(7) The recommended storage temperature (in degrees Celsius).
</P>
<P>(8) If the product is intended for transfusion, the statements:
</P>
<P>(i) “Rx only.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “See circular of information for indications, contraindications, cautions, and methods of infusion.”
</P>
<P>(iii) “Properly identify intended recipient.”
</P>
<P>(iv) “This product may transmit infectious agents.”
</P>
<P>(v) The appropriate donor classification statement, <I>i.e.,</I> “paid donor” or “volunteer donor,” in no less prominence than the proper name of the product.
</P>
<P>(A) A paid donor is a person who receives monetary payment for a blood donation.
</P>
<P>(B) A volunteer donor is a person who does not receive monetary payment for a blood donation.
</P>
<P>(C) Benefits, such as time off from work, membership in blood assurance programs, and cancellation of nonreplacement fees that are not readily convertible to cash, do not constitute monetary payment within the meaning of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(9) If the product is intended for transfusion or as is otherwise appropriate, the ABO group and Rh type of the donor must be designated conspicuously. For Cryoprecipitated Antihemophiliac Factor (AHF), the Rh type may be omitted. The Rh type must be designated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the test using Anti-D Blood Grouping Reagent is positive, the product must be labeled: “Rh positive.”
</P>
<P>(ii) If the test using Anti-D Blood Grouping Reagent is negative, but the test for weak D (formerly D<E T="52">u</E>) is positive, the product must be labeled: “Rh positive.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If the test using Anti-D Blood Grouping Reagent is negative and the test for weak D (formerly D<E T="52">u</E>) is negative, the product must be labeled: “Rh negative.”
</P>
<P>(10) If the product is not intended for transfusion, a statement as applicable: “Caution: For Manufacturing Use Only,” or “Caution: For Use in Manufacturing Noninjectable Products Only,” or other cautionary statement as approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER).
</P>
<P>(11) If the product is intended for further manufacturing use, a statement listing the results of all the tests for relevant transfusion-transmitted infections required under § 610.40 of this chapter for which the donation has been tested and found negative; except that the container label for Source Plasma is not required to list the negative results of serological syphilis testing under § 640.65(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(12) The blood and blood components must be labeled in accordance with § 610.40 of this chapter, when the donation is tested and demonstrates evidence of infection due to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s).
</P>
<P>(13) The container label of blood or blood components intended for transfusion must bear encoded information in a format that is machine-readable and approved for use by the Director, CBER.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Who is subject to this machine-readable requirement?</I> All blood establishments that manufacture, process, repack, or relabel blood or blood components intended for transfusion and regulated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>What blood products are subject to this machine-readable requirement?</I> All blood and blood components intended for transfusion are subject to the machine-readable information label requirement in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>What information must be machine-readable?</I> Each label must have machine-readable information that contains, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) A unique facility identifier;
</P>
<P>(B) Lot number relating to the donor;
</P>
<P>(C) Product code; and
</P>
<P>(D) ABO and Rh of the donor, except as described in paragraphs (c)(9) and (i)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>How must the machine-readable information appear?</I> The machine-readable information must:
</P>
<P>(A) Be unique to the blood or blood component;
</P>
<P>(B) Be surrounded by sufficient blank space so that the machine-readable information can be scanned correctly; and
</P>
<P>(C) Remain intact under normal conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Where does the machine-readable information go?</I> The machine-readable information must appear on the label of any blood or blood component which is or can be transfused to a patient or from which the blood or blood component can be taken and transfused to a patient.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise approved by the Director, CBER, the container label for blood and blood components intended for transfusion must be white and print must be solid black, with the following additional exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) The ABO and Rh blood groups must be printed as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Rh positive: Use black print on white background and use solid black or other solid color for ABO.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rh negative: Use white print on black background for Rh and use black outline on a white background for ABO.
</P>
<P>(2) The proper name of the product, with any appropriate modifiers and attributes, the donor classification statement, and the statement “properly identify intended recipient” may be printed in solid red or in solid black.
</P>
<P>(3) The following color scheme may be used for differentiating ABO Blood groups:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Blood group
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Color of label
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">O</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blue
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yellow
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pink
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">White</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Special labels, such as those described in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section, may be color-coded.
</P>
<P>(e) Container label requirements for particular products or groups of products.
</P>
<P>(1) Whole Blood labels must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the applicable anticoagulant approved for use by the Director, CBER.
</P>
<P>(ii) The volume of anticoagulant.
</P>
<P>(iii) If tests for unexpected antibodies are positive, blood intended for transfusion must be labeled: “Contains (name of antibody).”
</P>
<P>(2) Except for frozen, deglycerolized, or washed Red Blood Cell products, Red Blood Cell labels must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The type of anticoagulant, and if applicable, the volume of Whole Blood and type of additive solution, with which the product was prepared.
</P>
<P>(ii) If tests for unexpected antibodies are positive and the product is intended for transfusion, the statement: “Contains (name of antibody).”
</P>
<P>(3) If tests for unexpected antibodies are positive, Plasma intended for transfusion must be labeled: “Contains (name of antibody).”
</P>
<P>(4) Recovered plasma labels must include:
</P>
<P>(i) In lieu of an expiration date, the date of collection of the oldest material in the container.
</P>
<P>(ii) For recovered plasma not meeting the requirements for manufacture into licensable products, the statement: “Not for Use in Products Subject to License Under Section 351 of the Public Health Service Act.”
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of anticoagulant with which the product was prepared.
</P>
<P>(5) Source Plasma labels must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The cautionary statement, as specified in paragraph (c)(10) of this section, must follow the proper name with any appropriate modifiers and attributes and be of similar prominence as the proper name.
</P>
<P>(ii) The statement “Store at −20 °C or colder,” provided, that where plasma is intended for manufacturing into noninjectable products, this statement may be replaced by a statement of the temperature appropriate for manufacture of the final product to be prepared from the plasma.
</P>
<P>(iii) The total volume or weight of plasma and total quantity and type of anticoagulant used.
</P>
<P>(iv) When plasma collected from a donor is reactive for a serologic test for syphilis, a statement that the plasma is reactive and must be used only for the manufacturing of positive control reagents for the serologic test for syphilis.
</P>
<P>(v) Source Plasma diverted for Source Plasma Salvaged must be relabeled “Source Plasma Salvaged” as prescribed in § 640.76 of this chapter. Immediately following the proper name of the product, with any appropriate modifiers and attributes, the labeling must prominently state as applicable, “STORAGE TEMPERATURE EXCEEDED −20 °C” or “SHIPPING TEMPERATURE EXCEEDED −5 °C.”
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement as to whether the plasma was collected from normal donors, or from donors in specific collection programs approved by the Director, CBER. In the case of specific collection programs, the label must state the defining characteristics of the plasma. In the case of immunized donors, the label must state the immunizing antigen.
</P>
<P>(f) Blood and blood components determined to be unsuitable for transfusion must be prominently labeled “NOT FOR TRANSFUSION,” and the label must state the reason the unit is considered unsuitable. The provision does not apply to blood and blood components intended solely for further manufacture.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) The following additional information must appear on the label for blood and blood components shipped in an emergency prior to completion of required tests, in accordance with § 610.40(g) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) The statement: “FOR EMERGENCY USE ONLY BY __ .”
</P>
<P>(2) Results of any tests prescribed under §§ 610.40 and 640.5(b) or (c) of this chapter completed before shipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Indication of any tests prescribed under §§ 610.40 and 640.5(b) or (c) of this chapter not completed before shipment.
</P>
<P>(i) The following additional information must appear on the label for blood and blood components intended for autologous transfusion:
</P>
<P>(1) Information adequately identifying the patient, <I>e.g.,</I> name, date of birth, hospital, and identification number.
</P>
<P>(2) Date of donation.
</P>
<P>(3) The statement: “AUTOLOGOUS DONOR.”
</P>
<P>(4) The ABO and Rh blood group and type, except as provided in paragraph (c)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Each container of blood and blood component intended for autologous use and obtained from a donor who fails to meet any of the donor eligibility requirements under § 630.10 of this chapter or who is reactive to or positive for one or more tests for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections under § 610.40 of this chapter must be prominently and permanently labeled “FOR AUTOLOGOUS USE ONLY” and as otherwise required under § 610.40 of this chapter. Such units also may have the ABO and Rh blood group and type on the label.
</P>
<P>(6) Units of blood and blood components originally intended for autologous use, except those labeled as prescribed under paragraph (i)(5) of this section, may be issued for allogeneic transfusion provided the container label complies with all applicable provisions of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section. In such case, the special label required under paragraphs (i)(1), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this section must be removed or otherwise obscured.
</P>
<P>(j) A tie-tag attached to the container may be used for providing the information required by paragraphs (e)(1)(iii), (e)(2)(ii), and (e)(3), (h), or (i)(1), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 16, Jan. 3, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 29895, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.122" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.122   Circular of information.</HEAD>
<P>A circular of information must be available for distribution if the product is intended for transfusion. The circular of information must provide adequate directions for use, including the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) Instructions to mix the product before use.
</P>
<P>(b) Instructions to use a filter in the administration equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) The statement “Do Not Add Medications” or an explanation concerning allowable additives.
</P>
<P>(d) A description of the product, its source, and preparation, including the name and proportion of the anticoagulant used in collecting the Whole Blood from each product is prepared.
</P>
<P>(e) A statement that the product was prepared from blood that was found negative when tested for relevant transfusion-transmitted infections, as required under § 610.40 of this chapter (include each test that was performed).
</P>
<P>(f) The statement: “Warning: The risk of transmitting infectious agents is present. Careful donor selection and available laboratory tests do not eliminate the hazard.”
</P>
<P>(g) The names of cryoprotective agents and other additives that may still be present in the product.
</P>
<P>(h) The names and results of all tests performed when necessary for safe and effective use.
</P>
<P>(i) The use of the product, indications, contradications, side effects and hazards, dosage and administration recommendations.
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) For Red Blood Cells, the circular of information must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Instructions to administer a suitable plasma volume expander if Red Blood Cells are substituted when Whole Blood is the indicated product.
</P>
<P>(2) A warning not to add Lactated Ringer's Injection U.S.P. solution to Red Blood Cell products.
</P>
<P>(l) For Platelets, the circular of information must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The approximate volume of plasma from which a sample unit of Platelets is prepared.
</P>
<P>(2) Instructions to begin administration as soon as possible, but not more than 4 hours after entering the container.
</P>
<P>(m) For Plasma, the circular of information must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A warning against further processing of the frozen product if there is evidence of breakage or thawing.
</P>
<P>(2) Instructions to thaw the frozen product at a temperature appropriate for the product.
</P>
<P>(3) When applicable, instructions to begin administration of the product within a specified time after thawing.
</P>
<P>(4) Instructions to administer to ABO-group-compatible recipients.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that this product has the same risk of transmitting infectious agents as Whole Blood; other plasma volume expanders without this risk are available for treating hypovolemia.
</P>
<P>(n) For Cryoprecipitated AHF, the circular of information must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the average potency is 80 or more International Units of antihemophilic factor.
</P>
<P>(2) The statement: “Usually contains at least 150 milligrams of fibrinogen”; or, alternatively, the average fibrinogen level determined by assay of representative units.
</P>
<P>(3) A warning against further processing of the product if there is evidence of breakage or thawing.
</P>
<P>(4) Instructions to thaw the product for no more than 15 minutes at a temperature of between 30 and 37 °C.
</P>
<P>(5) Instructions to store at room temperature after thawing and to begin administration as soon as possible but no more than 4 hours after entering the container or after pooling and within 6 hours after thawing.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that 0.9 percent Sodium Chloride Injection U.S.P. is the preferred diluent.
</P>
<P>(7) Adequate instructions for pooling to ensure complete removal of all concentrated material from each container.
</P>
<P>(8) The statement: “Good patient management requires monitoring treatment responses to Cryoprecipitated AHF transfusions with periodic plasma factor VIII or fibrinogen assays in hemophilia A and hypofibrinogenemic recipients, respectively.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 35470, Aug. 30, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 116, Jan. 5, 1988; 64 FR 45371, Aug. 19, 1999; 77 FR 18, Jan. 3, 2012; 80 FR 29895, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Laboratory Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.140" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.140   Laboratory controls.</HEAD>
<P>Laboratory control procedures shall include: 
</P>
<P>(a) The establishment of scientifically sound and appropriate specifications, standards and test procedures to assure that blood and blood components are safe, pure, potent and effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) Adequate provisions for monitoring the reliability, accuracy, precision and performance of laboratory test procedures and instruments. 
</P>
<P>(c) Adequate identification and handling of all test samples so that they are accurately related to the specific unit of product being tested, or to its donor, or to the specific recipient, where applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.145" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.145   Control of bacterial contamination of platelets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Blood collection establishments and transfusion services must assure that the risk of bacterial contamination of platelets is adequately controlled using FDA approved or cleared devices or other adequate and appropriate methods found acceptable for this purpose by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that a blood collection establishment identifies platelets as bacterially contaminated, that establishment must not release for transfusion the product or any other component prepared from the same collection, and must take appropriate steps to identify the organism.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that a transfusion service identifies platelets as bacterially contaminated, the transfusion service must not release the product and must notify the blood collection establishment that provided the platelets. The transfusion service must take appropriate steps to identify the organism; these steps may include contracting with the collection establishment or a laboratory to identify the organism. The transfusion service must further notify the blood collection establishment either by providing information about the species of the contaminating organism when the transfusion service has been able to identify it, or by advising the blood collection establishment when the transfusion service has determined that the species cannot be identified.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that a contaminating organism is identified under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, the collection establishment's responsible physician, as defined in § 630.3(i) of this chapter, must determine whether the contaminating organism is likely to be associated with a bacterial infection that is endogenous to the bloodstream of the donor, in accordance with a standard operating procedure developed under § 606.100(b)(22). This determination may not be further delegated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29895, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.151" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.151   Compatibility testing.</HEAD>
<P>Standard operating procedures for compatibility testing shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) A method of collecting and identifying the blood samples of recipients to ensure positive identification. 
</P>
<P>(b) The use of fresh recipient serum or plasma samples less than 3 days old for all pretransfusion testing if the recipient has been pregnant or transfused within the previous 3 months.
</P>
<P>(c) Procedures to demonstrate incompatibility between the donor's cell type and the recipient's serum or plasma type.
</P>
<P>(d) A provision that, if the unit of donor's blood has not been screened by a method that will demonstrate agglutinating, coating and hemolytic antibodies, the recipient's cells shall be tested with the donor's serum (minor crossmatch) by a method that will so demonstrate. 
</P>
<P>(e) Procedures to expedite transfusion in life-threatening emergencies. Records of all such incidents shall be maintained, including complete documentation justifying the emergency action, which shall be signed by a physician.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 64 FR 45371, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1835, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 40889, Aug. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.160" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.160   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Records shall be maintained concurrently with the performance of each significant step in the collection, processing, compatibility testing, storage and distribution of each unit of blood and blood components so that all steps can be clearly traced. All records shall be legible and indelible, and shall identify the person performing the work, include dates of the various entries, show test results as well as the interpretation of the results, show the expiration date assigned to specific products, and be as detailed as necessary to provide a complete history of the work performed. 
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate records shall be available from which to determine lot numbers of supplies and reagents used for specific lots or units of the final product. 
</P>
<P>(b) Records shall be maintained that include, but are not limited to, the following when applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) Donor records: 
</P>
<P>(i) Donor selection, including medical interview and examination and where applicable, informed consent. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanent and temporary deferrals for health reasons including reason(s) for deferral. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Donor adverse reaction complaints and reports, including results of all investigations and followup. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Therapeutic bleedings, including signed requests from attending physicians, the donor's disease and disposition of units. 
</P>
<P>(v) Immunization, including informed consent, identification of the antigen, dosage and route of administration. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Blood collection, including identification of the phlebotomist. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Records to relate the donor with the unit number of each previous donation from that donor.
</P>
<P>(viii) Records concerning the following activities performed under §§ 610.46 and 610.47 of this chapter: Quarantine; consignee notification; testing; notification of a transfusion recipient, the recipient's physician of record, or the recipient's legal representative; and disposition.
</P>
<P>(ix) The donor's postal address provided at the time of donation where the donor may be contacted within 8 weeks after donation.
</P>
<P>(x) Records of notification of donors deferred or determined not to be eligible for donation, including appropriate followup if the initial attempt at notification fails, performed under § 630.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(xi) Records of notification of the referring physician of a deferred autologous donor, including appropriate followup if the initial attempt at notification fails, performed under § 630.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Processing records: 
</P>
<P>(i) Blood processing, including results and interpretation of all tests and retests. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Component preparation, including all relevant dates and times. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Separation and pooling of recovered plasma. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Centrifugation and pooling of source plasma. 
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling, including initials of the person(s) performing the procedure. 
</P>
<P>(3) Storage and distribution records: 
</P>
<P>(i) Distribution and disposition, as appropriate, of blood and blood products. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Visual inspection of whole blood and red blood cells during storage and immediately before distribution. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Storage temperature, including initialed temperature recorder charts. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Reissue, including records of proper temperature maintenance. 
</P>
<P>(v) Emergency release of blood, including signature of requesting physician obtained before or after release. 
</P>
<P>(4) Compatibility test records: 
</P>
<P>(i) Results of all compatibility tests, including crossmatching, testing of patient samples, antibody screening and identification. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Results of confirmatory testing. 
</P>
<P>(5) Quality control records: 
</P>
<P>(i) Calibration and standardization of equipment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance checks of equipment and reagents. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Periodic check on sterile technique. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Periodic tests of capacity of shipping containers to maintain proper temperature in transit. 
</P>
<P>(v) Proficiency test results. 
</P>
<P>(6) Transfusion reaction reports and complaints, including records of investigations and followup. 
</P>
<P>(7) General records: 
</P>
<P>(i) Sterilization of supplies and reagents prepared within the facility, including date, time interval, temperature and mode. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Responsible personnel. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Biological product deviations. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Maintenance records for equipment and general physical plant. 
</P>
<P>(v) Supplies and reagents, including name of manufacturer or supplier, lot numbers, expiration date and date of receipt. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Disposition of rejected supplies and reagents used in the collection, processing and compatibility testing of blood and blood components. 
</P>
<P>(c) A donor number shall be assigned to each accepted donor, which relates the unit of blood collected to that donor, to his medical record, to any component or blood product from that donor's unit of blood, and to all records describing the history and ultimate disposition of these products. 
</P>
<P>(d) Records shall be retained for such interval beyond the expiration date for the blood or blood component as necessary to facilitate the reporting of any unfavorable clinical reactions. You must retain individual product records no less than 10 years after the records of processing are completed or 6 months after the latest expiration date for the individual product, whichever is the later date. When there is no expiration date, records shall be retained indefinitely. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records of deferred donors.</I> (1) Establishments must maintain at each location a record of all donors found to be ineligible or deferred at that location so that blood and blood components from an ineligible donor are not collected and/or released while the donor is ineligible or deferred; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establishments must maintain at all locations operating under the same license or under common management a cumulative record of donors deferred from donation under § 610.41 of this chapter because their donation tested reactive under § 610.40(a)(1) of this chapter for evidence of infection due to HIV, HBV, or HCV. In addition, establishments other than Source Plasma establishments must include in this cumulative record donors deferred from donation under § 610.41 of this chapter because their donation tested reactive under § 610.40(a)(2) of this chapter for evidence of infection due to HTLV or Chagas disease.
</P>
<P>(3) The cumulative record described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section must be updated at least monthly to add donors newly deferred under § 610.41 of this chapter due to reactive tests for evidence of infection due to HIV, HBV, or HCV, and, if applicable, HTLV or Chagas disease.
</P>
<P>(4) Establishments must revise the cumulative record described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section to remove donors who have been requalified under § 610.41(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 47422, Sept. 9, 1996; 64 FR 45371, Aug. 19, 1999; 65 FR 66635, Nov. 7, 2000; 66 FR 31176, June 11, 2001; 72 FR 48798, Aug. 24, 2007; 80 FR 80651, Dec. 28, 2015; 80 FR 29895, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.165" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.165   Distribution and receipt; procedures and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Distribution and receipt procedures shall include a system by which the distribution or receipt of each unit can be readily determined to facilitate its recall, if necessary. 
</P>
<P>(b) Distribution records shall contain information to readily facilitate the identification of the name and address of the consignee, the date and quantity delivered, the lot number of the unit(s), the date of expiration or the date of collection, whichever is applicable, or for crossmatched blood and blood components, the name of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(c) Receipt records shall contain the name and address of the collecting facility, date received, donor or lot number assigned by the collecting facility and the date of expiration or the date of collection, whichever is applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.170" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.170   Adverse reaction file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records shall be maintained of any reports of complaints of adverse reactions regarding each unit of blood or blood product arising as a result of blood collection or transfusion. A thorough investigation of each reported adverse reaction shall be made. A written report of the investigation of adverse reactions, including conclusions and followup, shall be prepared and maintained as part of the record for that lot or unit of final product by the collecting or transfusing facility. When it is determined that the product was at fault in causing a transfusion reaction, copies of all such written reports shall be forwarded to and maintained by the manufacturer or collecting facility. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a complication of blood collection or transfusion is confirmed to be fatal, the Director, Office of Compliance and Biologics Quality, CBER, must be notified by telephone, facsimile, express mail, or electronically transmitted mail as soon as possible. A written report of the investigation must be submitted to the Director, Office of Compliance and Biologics Quality, CBER, by mail, facsimile, or electronically transmitted mail (for mailing address, see § 600.2(a) of this chapter), within 7 days after the fatality by the collecting facility in the event of a donor reaction, or by the facility that performed the compatibility tests in the event of a transfusion reaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53532, Nov. 18, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 23833, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 35471, Aug. 30, 1985; 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 64 FR 45371, Aug. 19, 1999; 67 FR 9586, Mar. 4, 2002; 77 FR 18, Jan. 3, 2012; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.171" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.3.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.171   Reporting of product deviations by licensed manufacturers, unlicensed registered blood establishments, and transfusion services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must report under this section?</I> You, a licensed manufacturer of blood and blood components, including Source Plasma; an unlicensed registered blood establishment; or a transfusion service who had control over the product when the deviation occurred, must report under this section. If you arrange for another person to perform a manufacturing, holding, or distribution step, while the product is in your control, that step is performed under your control. You must establish, maintain, and follow a procedure for receiving information from that person on all deviations, complaints, and adverse events concerning the affected product. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What do I report under this section?</I> You must report any event, and information relevant to the event, associated with the manufacturing, to include testing, processing, packing, labeling, or storage, or with the holding or distribution, of both licensed and unlicensed blood or blood components, including Source Plasma, if that event meets all the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) Either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Represents a deviation from current good manufacturing practice, applicable regulations, applicable standards, or established specifications that may affect the safety, purity, or potency of that product; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Represents an unexpected or unforeseeable event that may affect the safety, purity, or potency of that product; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Occurs in your facility or another facility under contract with you; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Involves distributed blood or blood components. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When do I report under this section?</I> You should report a biological product deviation as soon as possible but you must report at a date not to exceed 45-calendar days from the date you, your agent, or another person who performs a manufacturing, holding, or distribution step under your control, acquire information reasonably suggesting that a reportable event has occurred. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How do I report under this section?</I> You must report on Form FDA-3486. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where do I report under this section?</I> You must send the completed Form FDA 3486 to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), either in paper or electronic format.
</P>
<P>(1) If you make a paper filing, send the completed form to the CBER Document Control Center (see mailing address in § 600.2(a) of this chapter), and identify on the envelope that a BPDR (biological product deviation report) is enclosed; or
</P>
<P>(2) If you make an electronic filing, send the completed Form FDA3486 electronically using CBER's electronic Web-based application.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How does this regulation affect other FDA regulations?</I> This part supplements and does not supersede other provisions of the regulations in this chapter. All biological product deviations, whether or not they are required to be reported under this section, should be investigated in accordance with the applicable provisions of parts 211, 606, and 820 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 66635, Nov. 7, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18092, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="607" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 607—ESTABLISHMENT REGISTRATION AND PRODUCT LISTING FOR MANUFACTURERS OF HUMAN BLOOD AND BLOOD PRODUCTS AND LICENSED DEVICES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 355, 360, 371, 374, 381, 393; 42 U.S.C. 262, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 52788, Nov. 12, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes establishment registration and product listing requirements for manufacturers of human blood and blood products.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes establishment registration and product listing requirements for manufacturers of products that meet the definition of a device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and that are licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, as well as licensed biological products used in the manufacture of a licensed device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60221, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act approved June 25, 1938 (52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended, 21 U.S.C. 301-392). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Blood and blood product</I> means a drug which consists of human whole blood, plasma, or serum or any product derived from human whole blood, plasma, or serum, hereinafter referred to as “blood product.” For the purposes of this part only, blood and blood product also means those products that meet the definition of a device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and that are licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, as well as licensed biological products used in the manufacture of a licensed device.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Establishment</I> means a place of business under one management at one general physical location. The term includes, among others, human blood and plasma donor centers, blood banks, transfusion services, other blood product manufacturers and independent laboratories that engage in quality control and testing for registered blood product establishments. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Manufacture</I> means the collection, preparation, processing or compatibility testing by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedures of any blood product which meets the definition of a drug as defined in section 201(g) of the act, and including manipulation, sampling, testing, or control procedures applied to the final product or to any part of the process. The term includes packaging, labeling, repackaging or otherwise changing the container, wrapper, or labeling of any blood product package in furtherance of the distribution of the blood product from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate consumer. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial distribution</I> means any distribution of a blood product except under the investigational use provisions of part 312 of this chapter, but does not include internal or interplant transfer of a bulk product substance between registered establishments within the same parent, subsidiary, and/or affiliate company. For foreign establishments, the term “commercial distribution” shall have the same meaning except that the term shall not include distribution of any blood or blood product that is neither imported nor offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Any material change</I> includes but is not limited to any change in the name of the blood product, in the quantity or identity of the active ingredient(s) or in the quantity or identity of the inactive ingredient(s) where quantitative listing of all ingredients is required pursuant to § 607.31(a)(2) and any significant change in the labeling of a blood product. Changes that are not significant include changes in arrangement or printing or changes of an editorial nature. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Bulk product substance</I> means any substance that is represented for use in a blood product and when used in the manufacturing of a blood product becomes an active ingredient or a finished dosage form of such product. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Advertising</I> and <I>labeling</I> include the promotional material described in § 202.1(l) (1) and (2) of this chapter, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(i) The definitions and interpretations contained in sections 201 and 510 of the act shall be applicable to such terms when used in this part 607.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>United States</I> agent means a person residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States whom a foreign establishment designates as its agent. This definition excludes mailboxes, answering machines or services, or other places where an individual acting as the foreign establishment's agent is not physically present.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Importer</I> means a person in the United States that is an owner, consignee, or recipient, at the time of entry, of a foreign establishment's blood product that is imported into the United States.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Foreign</I> for the purpose of registration and listing under this part when used to modify the term “establishment” refers to an establishment that is located in a foreign country and is the site where a blood product that is imported or offered for import into the United States was manufactured.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52788, Nov. 12, 1975, as amended at 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 66 FR 59158, Nov. 27, 2001; 81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.7" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.7   Establishment registration and product listing of blood banks and other firms manufacturing human blood and blood products.</HEAD>
<P>All owners or operators of establishments that engage in the manufacturing of blood products are required to register, pursuant to section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Registration and listing of blood products must comply with this part. Registration does not permit any blood bank or similar establishment to ship blood products in interstate commerce.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Domestic Blood Product Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.20   Who must register and submit a blood product list.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Owners or operators of all establishments, not exempt under section 510(g) of the act or subpart D of this part, that engage in the manufacture of blood products shall register and submit a list of every blood product in commercial distribution (except that registration and listing information may be submitted by the parent, subsidiary, and/or affiliate company for all establishments when operations are conducted at more than one establishment and there exists joint ownership and control among all the establishments). Blood products manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act must be listed whether or not the output of such blood product establishment or any particular blood product so listed enters interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) Preparatory to engaging in the manufacture of blood products, owners or operators of establishments who are submitting a biologics license application to manufacture blood products are required to register before the biologics license application is approved.
</P>
<P>(c) Except in the case of licensed device manufacturers, no registration fee is required. Establishment registration and blood product listing do not constitute an admission or agreement or determination that a blood product is a “drug” within the meaning of section 201(g) of the act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52788, Nov. 12, 1975, as amended at 64 FR 56452, Oct. 20, 1999; 66 FR 59158, Nov. 27, 2001; 81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.21" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.21   Times for establishment registration and blood product listing.</HEAD>
<P>The owner or operator of an establishment entering into an operation defined in § 607.3(d) shall register such establishment within 5 days after the beginning of such operation and submit a list of every blood product in commercial distribution at the time. If the owner or operator of the establishment has not previously entered into such operation (defined in § 607.3(d) of this chapter) for which a license is required, registration shall follow within 5 days after the submission of a biologics license application in order to manufacture blood products. Owners or operators of all establishments so engaged must register annually between October 1 and December 31 and must update their blood product listing every June and December.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52788, Nov. 12, 1975, as amended at 64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999; 81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.22" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.22   How to register establishments and list blood products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Initial and subsequent registrations and product listings must be submitted electronically through the Blood Establishment Registration and Product Listing system, or any future superseding electronic system. This information must be submitted in accordance with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements in § 11.10(b), (c), and (e), and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30. All information submitted under this part must be transmitted to FDA electronically unless FDA has granted a request for waiver of this requirement prior to the date on which the information is due. Submission of a request for waiver does not excuse timely compliance with the registration and listing requirements. FDA will grant a waiver request if FDA determines that the use of electronic means for submission of registration and listing information is not reasonable for the registrant making the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(b) Waiver requests under this section must be submitted in writing and must include the specific reasons why electronic submission is not reasonable for the registrant and a U.S. telephone number and mailing address where FDA can contact the registrant. All waiver requests must be sent to the Director of FDA's Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research through the Document Control Center (see addresses<I> in</I> § 600.2).
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA grants the waiver request, FDA may limit its duration and will specify terms of the waiver and provide information on how to submit establishment registration, drug listings, other information, and updates, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.25" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.25   Information required for establishment registration and blood product listing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Blood Establishment Registration and Product Listing system requires furnishing or confirming registration information required by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This information includes the name and street address of the establishment, including post office code; a registration number if previously assigned by FDA and a Unique Facility Identifier in accordance with the system specified under section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; all trade names used by the establishment; the kind of ownership or operation (that is, individually owned partnership, or corporation); and the name of the owner or operator of such establishment. The term “name of the owner or operator” must include, in the case of a partnership, the name of each partner and, in the case of a corporation, the name and title of each corporate officer and director and the name of the State of incorporation. The information required must be given separately for each establishment, as defined in § 607.3(c).
</P>
<P>(b) The following information must also be provided:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of blood products by established name as defined in section 502(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and by proprietary name, if any, which are being manufactured for commercial distribution at the identified establishment and which have not been included in any list previously submitted to FDA through the Blood Establishment Registration and Product Listing system or any future superseding electronic system.
</P>
<P>(2) For each blood product so listed that is subject to section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, the license number of the manufacturer issued by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) For each blood product listed, the registration number if previously assigned by FDA and the Unique Facility Identifier of the parent establishment. An establishment not owned, operated, or controlled by another firm or establishment is its own parent establishment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.26" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.26   Amendments to establishment registration.</HEAD>
<P>Changes in individual ownership, corporate or partnership structure, location, or blood product handling activity must be submitted electronically through the Blood Establishment Registration and Product Listing system, or any future superseding electronic system, as an amendment to registration within 5 calendar days of such changes. Changes in the names of officers and directors of the corporations do not require such amendment but must be shown at time of annual registration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52788, Nov. 12, 1975, as amended at 66 FR 59158, Nov. 27, 2001; 81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.30" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.30   Updating blood product listing information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After submission of the initial blood product listing information, every person who is required to list blood products under § 607.20 must submit electronically through the Blood Establishment Registration and Product Listing system, or any future superseding electronic system, at a minimum once in June and December of every year, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of each blood product introduced by the registrant for commercial distribution which has not been included in any list previously submitted. All of the information required by § 607.25(b) shall be provided for each such blood product. 
</P>
<P>(2) A list of each blood product formerly listed pursuant to § 607.25(b) for which commercial distribution has been discontinued, including for each blood product so listed the identity by established name and proprietary name, and date of discontinuance. It is requested but not required that the reason for discontinuance of distribution be included with this information. 
</P>
<P>(3) A list of each blood product for which a notice of discontinuance was submitted pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section and for which commercial distribution has been resumed, including for each blood product so listed the identity by established name as defined in section 502(e) of the act and by any proprietary name, the date of resumption, and any other information required by § 607.25(b) not previously submitted. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any material change in any information previously submitted. 
</P>
<P>(b) When no changes have occurred since the previously submitted list, no listing information is required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52788, Nov. 12, 1975, as amended at 81 FR 60222, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.31" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.31   Additional blood product listing information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the information routinely required by §§ 607.25 and 607.30, the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research may require submission of the following information by letter or by <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice:
</P>
<P>(1) For a particular blood product so listed, upon request made by the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research for good cause, a copy of all advertisements.
</P>
<P>(2) For a particular blood product so listed, upon a finding by the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research that it is necessary to carry out the purposes of the act, a quantitative listing of all ingredients.
</P>
<P>(3) For each registrant, upon a finding by the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research that it is necessary to carry out the purposes of the act, a list of each listed blood product containing a particular ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 59158, Nov. 27, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.35" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.35   Blood product establishment registration number.</HEAD>
<P>An establishment registration number will be assigned to each blood product establishment registered in accordance with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.37" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.37   Public disclosure of establishment registration and blood product listing information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, all registration and listing information obtained under §§ 607.25, 607.26, and 607.30 will be made available for public disclosure through the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) Blood Establishment Registration Database Web site by using the CBER electronic Web-based application or by going in person to the Food and Drug Administration, Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room (see addresses in § 20.120(a) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may find, in limited circumstances and on a case-by-case basis, that it would be consistent with the protection of the public health to exempt from public disclosure specific listing information obtained under § 607.25 or § 607.30.
</P>
<P>(c) Other requests for information regarding blood establishment registrations and blood product listings should be directed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research Office of Communication, Outreach, and Development, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3103, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.39" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.39   Misbranding by reference to establishment registration, validation of registration, or to registration number.</HEAD>
<P>Registration of an establishment, validation of registration, or assignment of a registration number does not in any way denote approval of the firm or its products nor does it mean that the products may be legally marketed. Any representation that creates an impression of official approval because of establishment registration, validation of registration, or possession of a registration number is misleading and constitutes misbranding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Foreign Blood Product Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.40" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.40   Establishment registration and blood product listing requirements for foreign blood product establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every foreign establishment shall comply with the establishment registration and blood product listing requirements contained in subpart B of this part, unless exempt under subpart D of this part or unless the blood product enters a foreign trade zone and is re-exported from that foreign trade zone without having entered U. S. commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) No blood product may be imported or offered for import into the United States unless it is the subject of a blood product listing as required under subpart B of this part and is manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed at a registered foreign establishment; however, this restriction does not apply to a blood product imported or offered for import under the investigational use provisions of part 312 of this chapter or to a blood product imported under section 801(d)(4) of the act. The establishment registration and blood product listing information shall be in the English language.
</P>
<P>(c) Each foreign establishment required to register under paragraph (a) of this section shall, as part of the establishment registration and blood product listing, submit the name and address of the establishment and the name of the individual responsible for submitting establishment registration and blood product listing information. Any changes in this information shall be reported to the Food and Drug Administration at the intervals specified for updating establishment registration information in § 607.26 and blood product listing information in § 607.30(a).
</P>
<P>(d) Each foreign establishment required to register under paragraph (a) of this section must submit the name, address, telephone number, and email address of its United States agent as part of its initial and updated registration information in accordance with subpart B of this part. Each foreign establishment must designate only one United States agent.
</P>
<P>(1) The United States agent shall reside or maintain a place of business in the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request from FDA, the United States agent shall assist FDA in communications with the foreign establishment, respond to questions concerning the foreign establishment's products that are imported or offered for import into the United States, and assist FDA in scheduling inspections of the foreign establishment. If the agency is unable to contact the foreign establishment directly or expeditiously, FDA may provide information or documents to the United States agent, and such an action shall be considered to be equivalent to providing the same information or documents to the foreign establishment.
</P>
<P>(3) The foreign establishment or the United States agent must report changes in the United States agent's name, address, telephone number, or email address to FDA within 30 calendar days of the change.
</P>
<P>(e) Each foreign establishment required to register under paragraph (a) of this section must register and list blood products using the Blood Establishment Registration and Product Listing system, or any superseding electronic system, unless FDA waives the electronic submission requirement in accordance with § 607.22.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 59159, Nov. 27, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.65" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.65   Exemptions for blood product establishments.</HEAD>
<P>The following classes of persons are exempt from registration and blood product listing in accordance with this part 607 under the provisions of section 510(g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of the act, or because the Commissioner of Food and Drugs has found, under section 510(g)(5), that such registration is not necessary for the protection of the public health. The exemptions in paragraphs (a), (b), (f), and (g) of this section are limited to those classes of persons located in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(a) Pharmacies that are operating under applicable local laws regulating dispensing of prescription drugs and that are not manufacturing blood products for sale other than in the regular course of the practice of the profession of pharmacy including the business of dispensing and selling blood products at retail. The supplying by such pharmacies of blood products to a practitioner licensed to administer such blood products for his use in the course of his professional practice or to other pharmacies to meet temporary inventory shortages are not acts which require such pharmacies to register. 
</P>
<P>(b) Practitioners who are licensed by law to prescribe or administer drugs and who manufacture blood products solely for use in the course of their professional practice. 
</P>
<P>(c) Persons who manufacture blood products which are not for sale, rather, are solely for use in research, teaching, or analysis, including laboratory samples. 
</P>
<P>(d) Carriers, by reason of their receipt, carriage, holding, or delivery of blood products in the usual course of business as carriers. 
</P>
<P>(e) Persons who engage solely in the manufacture of in vitro diagnostic blood products and reagents not subject to licensing under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262). This paragraph does not exempt such persons from registration and listing for medical devices required under part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Transfusion services which are a part of a facility that is certified under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 263a) and 42 CFR part 493 or has met equivalent requirements as determined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and which are engaged in the compatibility testing and transfusion of blood and blood components, but which neither routinely collect nor process blood and blood components. The collection and processing of blood and blood components in an emergency situation as determined by a responsible person and documented in writing, therapeutic collection of blood or plasma, the preparation of recovered human plasma for further manufacturing use, or preparation of red blood cells for transfusion are not acts requiring such transfusion services to register.
</P>
<P>(g) Persons who engage solely in the production of any plasma derivative, including, but not limited to, albumin, Immune Globulin, Factor VIII and Factor IX, bulk product substances such as fractionation intermediates or pastes, or recombinant versions of plasma derivatives or animal derived plasma derivatives. These persons must register and list under part 207 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52788, Nov. 12, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 37997, Aug. 25, 1978; 45 FR 85729, Dec. 30, 1980; 49 FR 34449, Aug. 31, 1984; 66 FR 31162, June 11, 2001; 66 FR 59159, Nov. 27, 2001; 72 FR 45886, Aug. 16, 2007; 81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Establishment Registration and Product Listing Of Licensed Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.80" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.80   Applicability of part 607 to licensed devices.</HEAD>
<P>Manufacturers of products that meet the definition of a device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and that are licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, as well as licensed biological products used in the manufacture of a licensed device, must register and list following the procedures under this part, with respect to their manufacture of those products, unless otherwise noted in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="610" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 610—GENERAL BIOLOGICAL PRODUCTS STANDARDS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360c, 360d, 360h, 360i, 371, 372, 374, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263, 263a, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 32056, Nov. 20, 1973, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For U.S. Customs Service regulations relating to viruses, serums, and toxins, see 19 CFR 12.21-12.23. For U.S. Postal Service regulations relating to the admissibility to the United States mails see parts 124 and 125 of the Domestic Mail Manual, that is incorporated by reference in 39 CFR part 111.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Release Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.1   Tests prior to release required for each lot.</HEAD>
<P>No lot of any licensed product shall be released by the manufacturer prior to the completion of tests for conformity with standards applicable to such product. Each applicable test shall be made on each lot after completion of all processes of manufacture which may affect compliance with the standard to which the test applies. The results of all tests performed shall be considered in determining whether or not the test results meet the test objective, except that a test result may be disregarded when it is established that the test is invalid due to causes unrelated to the product. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.2   Requests for samples and protocols; official release.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Licensed biological products regulated by CBER.</I> Samples of any lot of any licensed product together with the protocols showing results of applicable tests, may at any time be required to be sent to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter). Upon notification by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, a manufacturer shall not distribute a lot of a product until the lot is released by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research: <I>Provided,</I> That the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, shall not issue such notification except when deemed necessary for the safety, purity, or potency of the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensed biological products regulated by CDER.</I> Samples of any lot of any licensed product together with the protocols showing results of applicable tests, may at any time be required to be sent to the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter) for official release. Upon notification by the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, a manufacturer shall not distribute a lot of a biological product until the lot is released by the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research: <I>Provided</I>, That the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research shall not issue such notification except when deemed necessary for the safety, purity, or potency of the product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 31313, July 25, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 10941, Mar. 19, 1985; 55 FR 11013, 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.9" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.9   Equivalent methods and processes.</HEAD>
<P>Modification of any particular test method or manufacturing process or the conditions under which it is conducted as required in this part or in the additional standards for specific biological products in parts 620 through 680 of this chapter shall be permitted only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant presents evidence, in the form of a license application, or a supplement to the application submitted in accordance with § 601.12(b) or (c), demonstrating that the modification will provide assurances of the safety, purity, potency, and effectiveness of the biological product equal to or greater than the assurances provided by the method or process specified in the general standards or additional standards for the biological product; and
</P>
<P>(b) Approval of the modification is received in writing from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 39903, July 24, 1997, as amended at 70 FR 14984, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.10" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.10   Potency.</HEAD>
<P>Tests for potency shall consist of either in vitro or in vivo tests, or both, which have been specifically designed for each product so as to indicate its potency in a manner adequate to satisfy the interpretation of potency given by the definition in § 600.3(s) of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.11-610.11a" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.11-610.11a   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.12" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.12   Sterility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The test.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, manufacturers of biological products must perform sterility testing of each lot of each biological product's final container material or other material, as appropriate and as approved in the biologics license application or supplement for that product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test requirements.</I> (1) The sterility test must be appropriate to the material being tested such that the material does not interfere with or otherwise hinder the test.
</P>
<P>(2) The sterility test must be validated to demonstrate that the test is capable of reliably and consistently detecting the presence of viable contaminating microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(3) The sterility test and test components must be verified to demonstrate that the test method can consistently detect the presence of viable contaminating microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written procedures.</I> Manufacturers must establish, implement, and follow written procedures for sterility testing that describe, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The sterility test method to be used;
</P>
<P>(i) If culture-based test methods are used, include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) Composition of the culture media;
</P>
<P>(B) Growth-promotion test requirements; and
</P>
<P>(C) Incubation conditions (time and temperature).
</P>
<P>(ii) If non-culture-based test methods are used, include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) Composition of test components;
</P>
<P>(B) Test parameters, including acceptance criteria; and
</P>
<P>(C) Controls used to verify the method's ability to detect the presence of viable contaminating microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(2) The method of sampling, including the number, volume, and size of articles to be tested;
</P>
<P>(3) Written specifications for the acceptance or rejection of each lot; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of any other function critical to the particular sterility test method to ensure consistent and accurate results.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The sample.</I> The sample must be appropriate to the material being tested, considering, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) The size and volume of the final product lot;
</P>
<P>(2) The duration of manufacturing of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(3) The final container configuration and size;
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity or concentration of inhibitors, neutralizers, and preservatives, if present, in the tested material;
</P>
<P>(5) For a culture-based test method, the volume of test material that results in a dilution of the product that is not bacteriostatic or fungistatic; and
</P>
<P>(6) For a non-culture-based test method, the volume of test material that results in a dilution of the product that does not inhibit or otherwise hinder the detection of viable contaminating microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Verification.</I> (1) For culture-based test methods, studies must be conducted to demonstrate that the performance of the test organisms and culture media are suitable to consistently detect the presence of viable contaminating microorganisms, including tests for each lot of culture media to verify its growth-promoting properties over the shelf-life of the media.
</P>
<P>(2) For non-culture-based test methods, within the test itself, appropriate controls must be used to demonstrate the ability of the test method to continue to consistently detect the presence of viable contaminating microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Repeat test procedures.</I> (1) If the initial test indicates the presence of microorganisms, the product does not comply with the sterility test requirements unless a thorough investigation by the quality control unit can ascribe definitively the microbial presence to a laboratory error or faulty materials used in conducting the sterility testing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the investigation described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section finds that the initial test indicated the presence of microorganisms due to laboratory error or the use of faulty materials, a sterility test may be repeated one time. If no evidence of microorganisms is found in the repeat test, the product examined complies with the sterility test requirements. If evidence of microorganisms is found in the repeat test, the product examined does not comply with the sterility test requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) If a repeat test is conducted, the same test method must be used for both the initial and repeat tests, and the repeat test must be conducted with comparable product that is reflective of the initial sample in terms of sample location and the stage in the manufacturing process from which it was obtained.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Records.</I> The records related to the test requirements of this section must be prepared and maintained as required by §§ 211.167 and 211.194 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exceptions.</I> Sterility testing must be performed on final container material or other appropriate material as defined in the approved biologics license application or supplement and as described in this section, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) This section does not require sterility testing for Whole Blood, Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor, Platelets, Red Blood Cells, Plasma, Source Plasma, Smallpox Vaccine, Reagent Red Blood Cells, Anti-Human Globulin, and Blood Grouping Reagents.
</P>
<P>(2) A manufacturer is not required to comply with the sterility test requirements if the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, as appropriate, determines that data submitted in the biologics license application or supplement adequately establish that the route of administration, the method of preparation, or any other aspect of the product precludes or does not necessitate a sterility test to assure the safety, purity, and potency of the product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 26174, May 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.13" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.13   Purity.</HEAD>
<P>Products shall be free of extraneous material except that which is unavoidable in the manufacturing process described in the approved biologics license application. In addition, products shall be tested as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Test for residual moisture.</I> Each lot of dried product shall be tested for residual moisture and shall meet and not exceed established limits as specified by an approved method on file in the biologics license application. The test for residual moisture may be exempted by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, when deemed not necessary for the continued safety, purity, and potency of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Records.</I> Appropriate records for residual moisture under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be prepared and maintained as required by the applicable provisions of §§ 211.188 and 211.194 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test for pyrogenic substances.</I> Each lot of final containers of any product intended for use by injection shall be tested for pyrogenic substances by intravenous injection into rabbits as provided in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section: <I>Provided,</I> That notwithstanding any other provision of Subchapter F of this chapter, the test for pyrogenic substances is not required for the following products: Products containing formed blood elements; Cryoprecipitate; Plasma; Source Plasma; Normal Horse Serum; bacterial, viral, and rickettsial vaccines and antigens; toxoids; toxins; allergenic extracts; venoms; diagnostic substances and trivalent organic arsenicals.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Test dose.</I> The test dose for each rabbit shall be at least 3 milliliters per kilogram of body weight of the rabbit and also shall be at least equivalent proportionately, on a body weight basis, to the maximum single human dose recommended, but need not exceed 10 milliliters per kilogram of body weight of the rabbit, except that: (i) Regardless of the human dose recommended, the test dose per kilogram of body weight of each rabbit shall be at least 1 milliliter for immune globulins derived from human blood; (ii) for Streptokinase, the test dose shall be at least equivalent proportionately, on a body weight basis, to the maximum single human dose recommended. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test procedure, results, and interpretation; standards to be met.</I> The test for pyrogenic substances shall be performed according to the requirements specified in United States Pharmacopeia XX. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retest.</I> If the lot fails to meet the test requirements prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the test may be repeated once using five other rabbits. The temperature rises recorded for all eight rabbits used in testing shall be included in determining whether the requirements are met. The lot meets the requirements for absence of pyrogens if not more than three of the eight rabbits show individual rises in temperature of 0.6 °C or more, and if the sum of the eight individual maximum temperature rises does not exceed 3.7 °C.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32056, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 29710, July 15, 1975; 41 FR 10429, Mar. 11, 1976; 41 FR 41424, Sept. 22, 1976; 44 FR 40289, July 10, 1979; 46 FR 62845, Dec. 29, 1981; 49 FR 15187, Apr. 18, 1984; 50 FR 4134, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 28381, July 11, 1990; 64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.14" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.14   Identity.</HEAD>
<P>The contents of a final container of each filling of each lot shall be tested for identity after all labeling operations shall have been completed. The identity test shall be specific for each product in a manner that will adequately identify it as the product designated on final container and package labels and circulars, and distinguish it from any other product being processed in the same laboratory. Identity may be established either through the physical or chemical characteristics of the product, inspection by macroscopic or microscopic methods, specific cultural tests, or in vitro or in vivo immunological tests. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.15" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.15   Constituent materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ingredients, preservatives, diluents, adjuvants.</I> All ingredients used in a licensed product, and any diluent provided as an aid in the administration of the product, shall meet generally accepted standards of purity and quality. Any preservative used shall be sufficiently nontoxic so that the amount present in the recommended dose of the product will not be toxic to the recipient, and in the combination used it shall not denature the specific substances in the product to result in a decrease below the minimum acceptable potency within the dating period when stored at the recommended temperature. Products in multiple-dose containers shall contain a preservative, except that a preservative need not be added to Yellow Fever Vaccine; Poliovirus Vaccine Live Oral; viral vaccines labeled for use with the jet injector; dried vaccines when the accompanying diluent contains a preservative; or to an Allergenic Product in 50 percent or more volume in volume (v/v) glycerin. An adjuvant shall not be introduced into a product unless there is satisfactory evidence that it does not affect adversely the safety or potency of the product. The amount of aluminum in the recommended individual dose of a biological product shall not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(1) 0.85 milligrams if determined by assay;
</P>
<P>(2) 1.14 milligrams if determined by calculation on the basis of the amount of aluminum compound added; or 
</P>
<P>(3) 1.25 milligrams determined by assay provided that data demonstrating that the amount of aluminum used is safe and necessary to produce the intended effect are submitted to and approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(a) or (b) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extraneous protein; cell culture produced vaccines.</I> Extraneous protein known to be capable of producing allergenic effects in human subjects shall not be added to a final virus medium of cell culture produced vaccines intended for injection. If serum is used at any stage, its calculated concentration in the final medium shall not exceed 1:1,000,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Antibiotics.</I> A minimum concentration of antibiotics, other than penicillin, may be added to the production substrate of viral vaccines.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research may approve an exception or alternative to any requirement in this section. Requests for such exceptions or alternatives must be in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32056, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 46 FR 51903, Oct. 23, 1981; 48 FR 13025, Mar. 29, 1983; 48 FR 37023, Aug. 16, 1983; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4134, Jan. 29, 1985; 51 FR 15607, Apr. 25, 1986; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005; 76 FR 20518, Apr. 13, 2011; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.16" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.16   Total solids in serums.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by regulation, no liquid serum or antitoxin shall contain more than 20 percent total solids. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.17" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.17   Permissible combinations.</HEAD>
<P>Licensed products may not be combined with other licensed products either therapeutic, prophylactic or diagnostic, except as a license is obtained for the combined product. Licensed products may not be combined with nonlicensable therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic substances except as a license is obtained for such combination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.18" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.18   Cultures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Storage and maintenance.</I> Cultures used in the manufacture of products shall be stored in a secure and orderly manner, at a temperature and by a method that will retain the initial characteristics of the organisms and insure freedom from contamination and deterioration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identity and verification.</I> Each culture shall be clearly identified as to source strain. A complete identification of the strain shall be made for each new stock culture preparation. Primary and subsequent seed lots shall be identified by lot number and date of preparation. Periodic tests shall be performed as often as necessary to verify the integrity of the strain characteristics and freedom from extraneous organisms. Results of all periodic tests for verification of cultures and determination of freedom from extraneous organisms shall be recorded and retained.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cell lines used for manufacturing biological products</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> Cell lines used for manufacturing biological products shall be: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identified by history;
</P>
<P>(ii) Described with respect to cytogenetic characteristics and tumorigenicity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterized with respect to in vitro growth characteristics and life potential; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Tested for the presence of detectable microbial agents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tests.</I> Tests that are necessary to assure the safety, purity, and potency of a product may be required by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Director, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicability.</I> This paragraph applies to diploid and nondiploid cell lines. Primary cell cultures that are not subcultivated and primary cell cultures that are subsequently subcultivated for only a very limited number of population doublings are not subject to the provisions of this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> The records appropriate for cultures under this section shall be prepared and maintained as required by the applicable provisions of §§ 211.188 and 211.194 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32056, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 51 FR 44453, Dec. 10, 1986; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C—D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Testing Requirements for Relevant Transfusion-Transmitted Infections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.39" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.39   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions set out in § 630.3 of this chapter apply to this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29896, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.40" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.40   Test requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Human blood and blood components.</I> Except as specified in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, you, an establishment that collects blood and blood components for transfusion or for use in manufacturing a product, including donations intended as a component of, or used to manufacture, a medical device, must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Test each donation for evidence of infection due to the relevant transfusion-transmitted infections described in § 630.3(h)(1)(i) through (iii) of this chapter (HIV, HBV, and HCV).
</P>
<P>(2) Test each donation for evidence of infection due to the relevant transfusion-transmitted infections described in § 630.3(h)(1)(iv) through (vii) of this chapter (HTLV, syphilis, West Nile virus, and Chagas disease). The following exceptions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) To identify evidence of infection with syphilis in donors of Source Plasma, you must test donors for evidence of such infection in accordance with § 640.65(b) of this chapter, and not under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) You are not required to test donations of Source Plasma for evidence of infection due to the relevant transfusion-transmitted infections described in § 630.3(h)(1)(iv), (vi), and (vii) of this chapter (HTLV, West Nile virus, and Chagas disease).
</P>
<P>(iii) For each of the relevant transfusion-transmitted infections described in § 630.3(h)(1)(iv) through (vii) of this chapter (HTLV, syphilis, West Nile virus, and Chagas disease):
</P>
<P>(A) If, based on evidence related to the risk of transmission of that relevant transfusion-transmitted infection, testing each donation is not necessary to reduce adequately and appropriately the risk of transmission of such infection by blood or a blood component, you may adopt an adequate and appropriate alternative testing procedure that has been found acceptable for this purpose by FDA.
</P>
<P>(B) If, based on evidence related to the risk of transmission of that relevant transfusion-transmitted infection, testing previously required for that infection is no longer necessary to reduce adequately and appropriately the risk of transmission of such infection by blood or a blood component, you may stop such testing in accordance with procedures found acceptable for this purpose by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) For each of the relevant transfusion-transmitted infections described in § 630.3(h)(1)(viii) through (x) of this chapter (CJD, vCJD, malaria) and § 630.3(h)(2) of this chapter (other transfusion-transmitted infections):
</P>
<P>(i) You must test for evidence of infection when the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) A test(s) for the relevant transfusion-transmitted infection is licensed, approved or cleared by FDA for use as a donor screening test and is available for such use; and
</P>
<P>(B) Testing for the relevant transfusion-transmitted infection is necessary to reduce adequately and appropriately the risk of transmission of the relevant transfusion-transmitted infection by blood, or blood component, or blood derivative product manufactured from the collected blood or blood component.
</P>
<P>(ii) You must perform this testing on each donation, unless one of the following exceptions applies:
</P>
<P>(A) Testing of each donation is not necessary to reduce adequately and appropriately the risk of transmission of such infection by blood, blood component, or blood derivative product manufactured from the collected blood or blood component. When evidence related to the risk of transmission of such infection supports this determination, you may adopt an adequate and appropriate alternative testing procedure that has been found acceptable for this purpose by FDA.
</P>
<P>(B) Testing of each donation is not necessary to reduce adequately and appropriately the risk of transmission of such infection by blood, blood component, or blood derivative product manufactured from the collected blood or blood component. When evidence related to the risk of transmission of such infection supports this determination, you may stop such testing in accordance with procedures found acceptable for this purpose by FDA.
</P>
<P>(4) Evidence related to the risk of transmission of a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection that would support a determination that testing is not necessary, or that testing of each donation is not necessary, to reduce adequately and appropriately the risk of transmission of such infection by blood or blood component, as described in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section, or by blood, blood component, or blood derivative, as described in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section, includes epidemiological or other scientific evidence. It may include evidence related to the seasonality or geographic limitation of risk of transmission of such infection by blood or blood component, or other information related to when and how a donation is at risk of transmitting a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection. It may also include evidence related to the effectiveness of manufacturing steps (for example, the use of pathogen reduction technology) that reduce the risk of transmission of the relevant transfusion-transmitted infection by blood, blood components, or blood derivatives, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing using one or more licensed, approved, or cleared screening tests.</I> To perform testing for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections as required in paragraph (a) of this section, you must use screening tests that FDA has licensed, approved, or cleared for such use, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. You must perform one or more such tests as necessary to reduce adequately and appropriately the risk of transmission of relevant transfusion-transmitted infections.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to testing for dedicated donations, medical devices, and samples.</I>—(1) <I>Dedicated donations.</I> (i) You must test donations of human blood and blood components from a donor whose donations are dedicated to and used solely by a single identified recipient under paragraphs (a), (b), and (e) of this section; except that, if the donor makes multiple donations for a single identified recipient, you may perform such testing only on the first donation in each 30-day period. If an untested dedicated donation is made available for any use other than transfusion to the single, identified recipient, then this exemption from the testing required under this section no longer applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each donation must be labeled as required under § 606.121 of this chapter and with a label entitled “INTENDED RECIPIENT INFORMATION LABEL” containing the name and identifying information of the recipient. Each donation must also have the following label, as appropriate:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Donor Testing Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Label
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tests negative</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Label as required under § 606.121
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tested negative within the last 30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“DONOR TESTED WITHIN THE LAST 30 DAYS”</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Medical device.</I> (i) You are not required to test donations of human blood or blood components intended solely as a component of, or used to prepare, a medical device for evidence of infection due to the relevant transfusion-transmitted infections listed in § 630.3(h)(iv) of this chapter unless the final device contains viable leukocytes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Donations of human blood and blood components intended solely as a component of, or used to prepare, a medical device must be labeled “Caution: For Further Manufacturing Use as a Component of, or to Prepare, a Medical Device.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Samples.</I> You are not required to test samples of blood, blood components, plasma, or sera if used or distributed for clinical laboratory testing or research purposes and not intended for administration to humans or in the manufacture of a product.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Autologous donations.</I> You, an establishment that collects human blood or blood components from autologous donors, or you, an establishment that is a consignee of a collecting establishment, are not required to test donations of human blood or blood components from autologous donors for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections listed in paragraph (a) of this section, except:
</P>
<P>(1) If you allow any autologous donation to be used for allogeneic transfusion, you must assure that all autologous donations are tested under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If you ship autologous donations to another establishment that allows autologous donations to be used for allogeneic transfusion, you must assure that all autologous donations shipped to that establishment are tested under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If you ship autologous donations to another establishment that does not allow autologous donations to be used for allogeneic transfusion, you must assure that, at a minimum, the first donation in each 30-day period is tested under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Each autologous donation must be labeled as required under § 606.121 of this chapter and with the following label, as appropriate:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Donor Testing Status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Label
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Untested</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“DONOR UNTESTED”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tests negative</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Label as required under § 606.121
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reactive on current collection/reactive in the last 30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“BIOHAZARD” legend in § 610.40(h)(2)(ii)(B)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tested negative within the last 30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“DONOR TESTED WITHIN THE LAST 30 DAYS”</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Further testing.</I> You must further test each donation, including autologous donations, found to be reactive by a donor screening test performed under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section using a licensed, approved, or cleared supplemental test, when available. If no such supplemental test is available, you must perform one or more licensed, approved, or cleared tests as adequate and appropriate to provide additional information concerning the reactive donor's infection status. Except:
</P>
<P>(1) For autologous donations:
</P>
<P>(i) You must further test under this section, at a minimum, the first reactive donation in each 30 calendar day period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If you have a record for that donor of a positive result on further testing performed under this section, you do not have to further test an autologous donation.
</P>
<P>(2) You are not required to perform further testing of a donation found to be reactive by a treponemal donor screening test for syphilis.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Testing responsibility.</I> Required testing under this section, must be performed by a laboratory registered in accordance with part 607 of this chapter and either certified to perform such testing on human specimens under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 263a) under 42 CFR part 493 or has met equivalent requirements as determined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in accordance with those provisions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Release or shipment prior to testing.</I> Human blood or blood components that are required to be tested for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections designated in paragraph (a) of this section may be released or shipped prior to completion of testing in the following circumstances provided that you label the blood or blood components under § 606.121(h) of this chapter, you complete the tests for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections as soon as possible after release or shipment, and that you provide the results promptly to the consignee:
</P>
<P>(1) Only in appropriately documented medical emergency situations; or
</P>
<P>(2) For further manufacturing use as approved in writing by FDA.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Restrictions on shipment or use</I>—(1) <I>Reactive screening test.</I> You must not ship or use human blood or blood components that have a reactive screening test for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) designated in paragraph (a) of this section or that are collected from a donor with a previous record of a reactive screening test for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) designated in paragraph (a) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (h)(2)(i) through (h)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) You may ship or use blood or blood components intended for autologous use, including reactive donations, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) You must not ship or use human blood or blood components that have a reactive screening test for evidence of infection due to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) designated in paragraph (a) of this section or that are collected from a donor deferred under § 610.41(a) unless you meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Except for autologous donations, you must obtain from FDA written approval for the shipment or use;
</P>
<P>(B) You must appropriately label such blood or blood components as required under § 606.121 of this chapter, and with the “BIOHAZARD” legend;
</P>
<P>(C) Except for autologous donations, you must label such human blood and blood components as reactive for the appropriate screening test for evidence of infection due to the identified relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s);
</P>
<P>(D) If the blood or blood components are intended for further manufacturing use into injectable products, you must include a statement on the container label indicating the exempted use specifically approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(E) Each blood or blood component with a reactive screening test and intended solely as a component of, or used to prepare a medical device, must be labeled with the following label, as appropriate:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of Medical Device
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Label
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A medical device other than an in vitro diagnostic reagent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Caution: For Further Manufacturing Use as a Component of a Medical Device For Which There Are No Alternative Sources”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">An in vitro diagnostic reagent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Caution: For Further Manufacturing Into In Vitro Diagnostic Reagents For Which There Are No Alternative Sources”</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) The restrictions on shipment or use do not apply to samples of blood, blood components, plasma, or sera if used or distributed for clinical laboratory testing or research purposes, and not intended for administration in humans or in the manufacture of a product.
</P>
<P>(iv) You may use human blood or blood components from a donor with a previous record of a reactive screening test(s) for evidence of infection due to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) designated in paragraph (a) of this section, if:
</P>
<P>(A) At the time of donation, the donor is shown or was previously shown to be eligible by a requalification method or process found acceptable for such purposes by FDA under § 610.41(b); and
</P>
<P>(B) tests performed under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section are nonreactive.
</P>
<P>(v) Anti-HBc reactive donations, otherwise nonreactive when tested as required under this section, may be used for further manufacturing into plasma derivatives without prior FDA approval or a “BIOHAZARD” legend as required under paragraphs (h)(2)(ii)(A) and (h)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) You may use human blood or blood components, excluding Source Plasma, that test reactive by a screening test for syphilis as required under paragraph (a) of this section if, the donation is further tested by an adequate and appropriate test which demonstrates that the reactive screening test is a biological false positive. You must label the blood or blood components with both test results.
</P>
<P>(vii) You may use Source Plasma from a donor who tests reactive by a screening test for syphilis as required under § 640.65(b)(1)(i) of this chapter, if the donor meets the requirements of § 640.65(b)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 31162, June 11, 2001, as amended at 77 FR 18, Jan. 3, 2012; 80 FR 29896, May 22, 2015; 86 FR 49922, July 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.41" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.41   Donor deferral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You, an establishment that collects human blood or blood components, must defer donors testing reactive by a screening test for evidence of infection due to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) under § 610.40(a), from future donations of human blood and blood components, except:
</P>
<P>(1) You are not required to defer a donor who tests reactive for anti-HBc or anti-HTLV, types I and II, on only one occasion. However, you must defer the donor if further testing for HBV or HTLV has been performed under § 610.40(e) and the donor is found to be positive, or if a second, licensed, cleared, or approved screening test for HBV or HTLV has been performed on the same donation under § 610.40(a) and is reactive, or if the donor tests reactive for anti-HBc or anti-HTLV, types I and II, on more than one occasion;
</P>
<P>(2) A deferred donor who tests reactive for evidence of infection due to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) under § 610.40(a) may serve as a donor for blood or blood components shipped or used under § 610.40(h)(2)(ii);
</P>
<P>(3) A deferred donor who showed evidence of infection due to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) when previously tested under § 610.40(a), (b), and (e) subsequently may donate Source Plasma for use in the preparation of Hepatitis B Immune Globulin (Human) provided the current donation tests nonreactive for HBsAg and the donor is otherwise determined to be eligible;
</P>
<P>(4) A deferred donor, who otherwise is determined to be eligible for donation and tests reactive for anti-HBc or for evidence of infection due to HTLV, types I and II, may serve as a donor of Source Plasma;
</P>
<P>(5) A deferred donor who tests reactive for a relevant transfusion-transmitted infections(s) under § 610.40(a), may serve as an autologous donor under § 610.40(d).
</P>
<P>(b) A deferred donor subsequently may be found to be eligible as a donor of blood or blood components by a requalification method or process found acceptable for such purposes by FDA. Such a donor is considered no longer deferred.
</P>
<P>(c) You must comply with the requirements under §§ 610.46 and 610.47 when a donor tests reactive by a screening test for HIV or HCV required under § 610.40(a) and (b), or when you are aware of other reliable test results or information indicating evidence of HIV or HCV infection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 31164, June 11, 2001, as amended at 72 FR 48798, Aug. 24, 2007; 80 FR 29897, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.42" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.42   Restrictions on use for further manufacture of medical devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to labeling requirements in subchapter H of this chapter, when a medical device contains human blood or a blood component as a component of the final device, and the human blood or blood component was found to be reactive by a screening test performed under § 610.40(a) and (b), then you must include in the device labeling a statement of warning indicating that the product was manufactured from a donation found to be reactive by a screening test for evidence of infection due to the identified relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s).
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may approve an exception or alternative to the statement of warning required in paragraph (a) of this section based on evidence that the reactivity of the human blood or blood component in the medical device presents no significant health risk through use of the medical device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 31164, June 11, 2001, as amended at 80 FR 29897, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.44" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.44   Use of reference panels by manufacturers of test kits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When available and appropriate to verify acceptable sensitivity and specificity, you, a manufacturer of test kits, must use a reference panel you obtain from FDA or from an FDA designated source to test lots of the following products. You must test each lot of the following products, unless FDA informs you that less frequent testing is appropriate, based on your consistent prior production of products of acceptable sensitivity and specificity:
</P>
<P>(1) A test kit approved for use in testing donations of human blood and blood components for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections under § 610.40(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test kit approved for use in the diagnosis, prognosis, or monitoring of this relevant transfusion-transmitted infection.
</P>
<P>(b) You must not distribute a lot that is found to be not acceptable for sensitivity and specificity under § 610.44(a). FDA may approve an exception or alternative to this requirement. Applicants must submit such requests in writing. However, in limited circumstances, such requests may be made orally and permission may be given orally by FDA. Oral requests and approvals must be promptly followed by written requests and written approvals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 31164, June 11, 2001, as amended at 80 FR 29897, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.46" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.46   Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) “lookback” requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are an establishment that collects Whole Blood or blood components, including Source Plasma and Source Leukocytes, you must establish, maintain, and follow an appropriate system for the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 3 calendar days after a donor tests reactive for evidence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection when tested under § 610.40(a) and (b) or when you are made aware of other reliable test results or information indicating evidence of HIV infection, you must review all records required under § 606.160(d) of this chapter, to identify blood and blood components previously donated by such a donor. For those identified blood and blood components collected:
</P>
<P>(i) Twelve months and less before the donor's most recent nonreactive screening tests, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Twelve months and less before the donor's reactive direct viral detection test, e.g., nucleic acid test or HIV p24 antigen test, and nonreactive antibody screening test, whichever is the lesser period, you must:
</P>
<P>(A) Quarantine all previously collected in-date blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if intended for use in another person or for further manufacture into injectable products, except pooled blood components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures; and
</P>
<P>(B) Notify consignees to quarantine all previously collected in-date blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if intended for use in another person or for further manufacture into injectable products, except pooled blood components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) You must perform further testing for HIV as required under § 610.40(e) of this chapter on the reactive donation.
</P>
<P>(3) You must notify consignees of the results of further testing for HIV, or the results of the reactive screening test if further testing under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is not available, or if under an investigational new drug application (IND) or investigational device exemption (IDE), is exempted for such use by FDA, within 45 calendar days after the donor tests reactive for evidence of HIV infection under § 610.40(a) and (b) of this chapter. Notification of consignees must include the test results for blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section that were previously collected from donors who later test reactive for evidence of HIV infection.
</P>
<P>(4) You must release from quarantine, destroy, or relabel quarantined in-date blood and blood components, consistent with the results of the further testing performed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section or the results of the reactive screening test if further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE, exempted for such use by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are a consignee of Whole Blood or blood components, including Source Plasma and Source Leukocytes, you must establish, maintain, and follow an appropriate system for the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) You must quarantine all previously collected in-date blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except pooled blood components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures, when notified by the collecting establishment.
</P>
<P>(2) You must release from quarantine, destroy, or relabel quarantined in-date blood and blood components consistent with the results of the further testing performed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or the results of the reactive screening test if further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE, is exempted for such use by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) When further testing for HIV is positive or when the screening test is reactive and further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE is exempted for such use by FDA, you must notify transfusion recipients of previous collections of blood and blood components at increased risk of transmitting HIV infection, or the recipient's physician of record, of the need for recipient HIV testing and counseling. You must notify the recipient's physician of record or a legal representative or relative if the recipient is a minor, deceased, adjudged incompetent by a State court, or, if the recipient is competent but State law permits a legal representative or relative to receive information on behalf of the recipient. You must make reasonable attempts to perform the notification within 12 weeks after receiving the results of further testing for evidence of HIV infection from the collecting establishment, or after receiving the donor's reactive screening test result for HIV if further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE is exempted for such use by FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) Actions under this section do not constitute a recall as defined in § 7.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 48799, Aug. 24, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 29897, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.47" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.47   Hepatitis C virus (HCV) “lookback” requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are an establishment that collects Whole Blood or blood components, including Source Plasma and Source Leukocytes, you must establish, maintain, and follow an appropriate system for the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 3 calendar days after a donor tests reactive for evidence of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection when tested under § 610.40(a) and (b) of this chapter or when you are made aware of other reliable test results or information indicating evidence of HCV infection, you must review all records required under § 606.160(d) of this chapter, to identify blood and blood components previously donated by such a donor. For those identified blood and blood components collected:
</P>
<P>(i) Twelve months and less before the donor's most recent nonreactive screening tests, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Twelve months and less before the donor's reactive direct viral detection test, e.g., nucleic acid test and nonreactive antibody screening test, whichever is the lesser period, you must:
</P>
<P>(A) Quarantine all previously collected in-date blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if intended for use in another person or for further manufacture into injectable products, except pooled blood components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures; and
</P>
<P>(B) Notify consignees to quarantine all previously collected in-date blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if intended for use in another person or for further manufacture into injectable products, except pooled blood components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) You must perform further testing for HCV as required under § 610.40(e) on the reactive donation.
</P>
<P>(3) You must notify consignees of the results of further testing for HCV, or the results of the reactive screening test if further testing is not available, or if under an investigational new drug application (IND) or investigational device exemption (IDE), is exempted for such use by FDA, within 45 calendar days after the donor tests reactive for evidence of HCV infection under § 610.40(a) and (b). Notification of consignees must include the test results for blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section that were previously collected from donors who later test reactive for evidence of HCV infection.
</P>
<P>(4) You must release from quarantine, destroy, or relabel quarantined in-date blood and blood components consistent with the results of the further testing performed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or the results of the reactive screening test if further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE, exempted for such use by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are a consignee of Whole Blood or blood components, including Source Plasma or Source Leukocytes, you must establish, maintain, and follow an appropriate system for the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) You must quarantine all previously collected in-date blood and blood components identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except pooled blood components intended solely for further manufacturing into products that are manufactured using validated viral clearance procedures, when notified by the collecting establishment.
</P>
<P>(2) You must release from quarantine, destroy, or relabel quarantined in-date blood and blood components, consistent with the results of the further testing performed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or the results of the reactive screening test if further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE, is exempted for such use by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) When the further testing for HCV is positive or when the screening test is reactive and further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE, is exempted for such use by FDA, you must notify transfusion recipients of previous collections of blood and blood components at increased risk of transmitting HCV infection, or the recipient's physician of record, of the need for recipient HCV testing and counseling. You must notify the recipient's physician of record or a legal representative or relative if the recipient is a minor, adjudged incompetent by a State court, or if the recipient is competent but State law permits a legal representative or relative to receive information on behalf of the recipient. You must make reasonable attempts to perform the notification within 12 weeks after receiving the results of further testing for evidence of HCV infection from the collecting establishment, or after receiving the donor's reactive screening test result for HCV if further testing is not available, or if under an IND or IDE, is exempted for such use by FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) Actions under this section do not constitute a recall as defined in § 7.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 48799, Aug. 24, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 29897, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.48" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.48   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Dating Period Limitations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.50" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.50   Date of manufacture for biological products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When the dating period begins.</I> The dating period for a product must begin on the date of manufacture as described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. The dating period for a combination of two or more products must be no longer than the dating period of the component with the shortest dating period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining the date of manufacture for biological products other than Whole Blood and blood components.</I> The date of manufacture for biological products, other than Whole Blood and blood components, must be identified in the approved biologics license application as one of the following, whichever is applicable: The date of:
</P>
<P>(1) Potency test or other specific test as described in a biologics license application or supplement to the application;
</P>
<P>(2) Removal from animals or humans;
</P>
<P>(3) Extraction;
</P>
<P>(4) Solution;
</P>
<P>(5) Cessation of growth;
</P>
<P>(6) Final sterile filtration of a bulk solution;
</P>
<P>(7) Manufacture as described in part 660 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(8) Other specific manufacturing activity described in a biologics license application or supplement to the biologics license application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determining the date of manufacture for Whole Blood and blood components.</I> (1) The date of manufacture for Whole Blood and blood components must be one of the following, whichever is applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Collection date and/or time;
</P>
<P>(ii) Irradiation date;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time the red blood cell product was removed from frozen storage for deglycerolization;
</P>
<P>(iv) The time the additive or rejuvenation solution was added;
</P>
<P>(v) The time the product was entered for washing or removing plasma (if prepared in an open system);
</P>
<P>(vi) As specified in the instructions for use by the blood collection, processing, and storage system approved or cleared for such use by FDA; or
</P>
<P>(vii) As approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, in a biologics license application or supplement to the application.
</P>
<P>(2) For licensed Whole Blood and blood components, the date of manufacture must be identified in the approved biologics license application or supplement to the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 26691, May 4, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.53" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.53   Dating periods for Whole Blood and blood components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Dating periods for Whole Blood and blood components are specified in the table in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Table of dating periods.</I> In using the table in this paragraph, when a product in column A is stored at the storage temperature prescribed in column B, storage of a product must not exceed the dating period specified in column C, unless a different dating period is specified in the instructions for use by the blood collection, processing and storage system approved or cleared for such use by FDA. Container labels for each product must include the recommended storage temperatures.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Whole Blood and Blood Components Storage Temperatures and Dating Periods
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Storage temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dating period
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Whole Blood</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ACD, CPD, CP2D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Between 1 and 6 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 days from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CPDA-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35 days from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Red Blood Cells</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ACD, CPD, CP2D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Between 1 and 6 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 days from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CPDA-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35 days from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Additive solutions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 days from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Open system
<br/>(e.g., deglycerolized, washed)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24 hours after entering bag.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Deglycerolized in closed system with additive solution added</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 days after entering bag.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Irradiated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">28 days from date of irradiation or original dating, whichever is shorter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Frozen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−65 °C or colder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 years from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Platelets</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platelets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Between 20 and 24 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 days from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platelets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other temperatures according to storage bag instructions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified in the instructions for use by the blood collection, processing and storage system approved or cleared for such use by FDA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Plasma</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fresh Frozen Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−18 °C or colder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma Frozen Within 24 Hours After Phlebotomy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma Frozen Within 24 Hours After Phlebotomy Held at Room Temperature Up To 24 Hours After Phlebotomy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma Cryoprecipitate Reduced</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 years from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquid Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Between 1 and 6 °C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 days from end of Whole Blood dating period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Source Plasma (frozen injectable)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−20 °C or colder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 years from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Source Plasma Liquid (injectable)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 °C or colder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">According to approved biologics license application.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Source Plasma (noninjectable)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Temperature appropriate for final product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 years from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Therapeutic Exchange Plasma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−20 °C or colder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 years from date of collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Cryoprecipitated AHF</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cryoprecipitated AHF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−18 °C or colder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year from date of collection of source blood or from date of collection of oldest source blood in pre-storage pool.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Source Leukocytes</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Source Leukocytes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Temperature appropriate for final product</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In lieu of expiration date, the collection date must appear on the label.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The abbreviation “do.” for ditto is used in the table to indicate that the previous line is being repeated.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 26691, May 4, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Labeling Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.60" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.60   Container label.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Full label.</I> The following items shall appear on the label affixed to each container of a product capable of bearing a full label: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proper name of the product; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and license number of manufacturer; 
</P>
<P>(3) The lot number or other lot identification; 
</P>
<P>(4) The expiration date; 
</P>
<P>(5) The recommended individual dose, for multiple dose containers. 
</P>
<P>(6) The statement: “ ‘Rx only’ ” for prescription biologicals.
</P>
<P>(7) If a Medication Guide is required under part 208 of this chapter, the statement required under § 208.24(d) of this chapter instructing the authorized dispenser to provide a Medication Guide to each patient to whom the drug is dispensed and stating how the Medication Guide is provided, except where the container label is too small, the required statement may be placed on the package label.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Package label information.</I> If the container is not enclosed in a package, all the items required for a package label shall appear on the container label. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial label.</I> If the container is capable of bearing only a partial label, the container shall show as a minimum the name (expressed either as the proper or common name), the lot number or other lot identification and the name of the manufacturer; in addition, for multiple dose containers, the recommended individual dose. Containers bearing partial labels shall be placed in a package which bears all the items required for a package label. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No container label.</I> If the container is incapable of bearing any label, the items required for a container label may be omitted, provided the container is placed in a package which bears all the items required for a package label. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Visual inspection.</I> When the label has been affixed to the container a sufficient area of the container shall remain uncovered for its full length or circumference to permit inspection of the contents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32056, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 47 FR 22518, May 25, 1982; 63 FR 66400, Dec. 1, 1998; 67 FR 4907, Feb. 1, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.61" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.61   Package label.</HEAD>
<P>The following items shall appear on the label affixed to each package containing a product: 
</P>
<P>(a) The proper name of the product; 
</P>
<P>(b) The name, address, and license number of manufacturer; 
</P>
<P>(c) The lot number or other lot identification; 
</P>
<P>(d) The expiration date; 
</P>
<P>(e) The preservative used and its concentration, or if no preservative is used and the absence of a preservative is a safety factor, the words “no preservative”; 
</P>
<P>(f) The number of containers, if more than one; 
</P>
<P>(g) The amount of product in the container expressed as (1) the number of doses, (2) volume, (3) units of potency, (4) weight, (5) equivalent volume (for dried product to be reconstituted), or (6) such combination of the foregoing as needed for an accurate description of the contents, whichever is applicable; 
</P>
<P>(h) The recommended storage temperature; 
</P>
<P>(i) The words “Shake Well”, “Do not Freeze” or the equivalent, as well as other instructions, when indicated by the character of the product; 
</P>
<P>(j) The recommended individual dose if the enclosed container(s) is a multiple-dose container; 
</P>
<P>(k) The route of administration recommended, or reference to such directions in an enclosed circular; 
</P>
<P>(l) Known sensitizing substances, or reference to an enclosed circular containing appropriate information; 
</P>
<P>(m) The type and calculated amount of antibiotics added during manufacture; 
</P>
<P>(n) The inactive ingredients when a safety factor, or reference to an enclosed circular containing appropriate information; 
</P>
<P>(o) The adjuvant, if present; 
</P>
<P>(p) The source of the product when a factor in safe administration; 
</P>
<P>(q) The identity of each microorganism used in manufacture, and, where applicable, the production medium and the method of inactivation, or reference to an enclosed circular containing appropriate information; 
</P>
<P>(r) Minimum potency of product expressed in terms of official standard of potency or, if potency is a factor and no U.S. standard of potency has been prescribed, the words “No U.S. standard of potency.” 
</P>
<P>(s) The statement: “ ‘Rx only’ ” for prescription biologicals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32056, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 47 FR 22518, May 25, 1982; 55 FR 10423, Mar. 21, 1990; 67 FR 4907, Feb. 1, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.62" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.62   Proper name; package label; legible type.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Position.</I> The proper name of the product on the package label shall be placed above any trademark or trade name identifying the product and symmetrically arranged with respect to other printing on the label. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prominence.</I> The point size and typeface of the proper name shall be at least as prominent as the point size and typeface used in designating the trademark and trade name. The contrast in color value between the proper name and the background shall be at least as great as the color value between the trademark and trade name and the background. Typography, layout, contrast, and other printing features shall not be used in a manner that will affect adversely the prominence of the proper name. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Legible type.</I> All items required to be on the container label and package label shall be in legible type. “Legible type” is type of a size and character which can be read with ease when held in a good light and with normal vision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.63" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.63   Divided manufacturing responsibility to be shown.</HEAD>
<P>If two or more licensed manufacturers participate in the manufacture of a biological product, the name, address, and license number of each must appear on the package label, and on the label of the container if capable of bearing a full label.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.64" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.64   Name and address of distributor.</HEAD>
<P>The name and address of the distributor of a product may appear on the label provided that the name, address, and license number of the manufacturer also appears on the label and the name of the distributor is qualified by one of the following phrases: “Manufactured for _____”, “Distributed by ______”, “Manufactured by _____ for _____”, “Manufactured for _____ by ____”, “Distributor: _____”, or “Marketed by _____”. The qualifying phrases may be abbreviated. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 57330, Nov. 6, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.65" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.65   Products for export.</HEAD>
<P>Labels on packages or containers of products for export may be adapted to meet specific requirements of the regulations of the country to which the product is to be exported provided that in all such cases the minimum label requirements prescribed in § 610.60 are observed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.67" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.67   Bar code label requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Biological products must comply with the bar code requirements at § 201.25 of this chapter. However, the bar code requirements do not apply to devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or to blood and blood components intended for transfusion. For blood and blood components intended for transfusion, the requirements at § 606.121(c)(13) of this chapter apply instead.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 9171, Feb. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 610.68" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.5.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.68   Exceptions or alternatives to labeling requirements for biological products held by the Strategic National Stockpile.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appropriate FDA Center Director may grant an exception or alternative to any provision listed in paragraph (f) of this section and not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of a biological product, if the Center Director determines that compliance with such labeling requirement could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of such product that is or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.
</P>
<P>(b)(1)(i) A Strategic National Stockpile official or any entity that manufactures (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distributes, or stores a biological product that is or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile may submit, with written concurrence from a Strategic National Stockpile official, a written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section to the Center Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section on his or her own initiative.
</P>
<P>(2) A written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the specified lots, batches, or other units of the biological product that would be subject to the exception or alternative;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the labeling provision(s) listed in paragraph (f) of this section that are the subject of the exception or alternative request;
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain why compliance with such labeling provision(s) could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the biological product that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile;
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe any proposed safeguards or conditions that will be implemented so that the labeling of the product includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use of the product;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a draft of the proposed labeling of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the biological product subject to the exception or alternative; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide any other information requested by the Center Director in support of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) The Center Director must respond in writing to all requests under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A grant of an exception or alternative under this section will include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate by the Center Director so that the labeling of product subject to the exception or alternative includes the information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use.
</P>
<P>(e) If you are a sponsor receiving a grant of a request for an exception or alternative to the labeling requirements under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) You need not submit a supplement under § 601.12(f)(1) through (f)(2) of this chapter; however,
</P>
<P>(2) You must report any grant of a request for an exception or alternative under this section as part of your annual report under § 601.12(f)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative under this section to the following provisions of this chapter, to the extent that the requirements in these provisions are not explicitly required by statute:
</P>
<P>(1) § 610.60;
</P>
<P>(2) § 610.61(c) and (e) through (r);
</P>
<P>(3) § 610.62;
</P>
<P>(4) § 610.63;
</P>
<P>(5) § 610.64;
</P>
<P>(6) § 610.65; and
</P>
<P>(7) § 312.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 73600, Dec. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="630" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 630—REQUIREMENTS FOR BLOOD AND BLOOD COMPONENTS INTENDED FOR TRANSFUSION OR FOR FURTHER MANUFACTURING USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 355, 360, 371; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 31176, June 11, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 29898, May 22, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 630.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is the purpose of subparts A, B, and C of this part</I>? The purpose of these subparts, together with §§ 610.40 and 610.41 of this chapter, is to provide certain minimum criteria for each donation of blood and blood components, for:
</P>
<P>(1) Determining the eligibility of a donor of blood and blood components;
</P>
<P>(2) Determining the suitability of the donation of blood and blood components; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notifying a donor who is deferred from donation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who must comply with subparts A, B, and C of this part</I>? Blood establishments that manufacture blood and blood components, as defined in § 630.3(a) and (b), must comply with subparts A, B, and C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part and in part 610, subpart E, and part 640 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Blood</I> means a product that is a fluid containing dissolved and suspended elements which was collected from the vascular system of a human.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Blood component</I> means a product containing a part of blood separated by physical or mechanical means.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Donor</I> means a person who: (1) Donates blood or blood components for transfusion or for further manufacturing use; or
</P>
<P>(2) Presents as a potential candidate for such donation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligibility of a donor</I> means the determination that the donor is qualified to donate blood and blood components.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Infrequent plasma donor</I> means a donor who has:
</P>
<P>(1) Not donated plasma by plasmapheresis or a co-collection of plasma with another blood component in the preceding 4 weeks; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not donated more than 12.0 liters of plasma (14.4 liters of plasma for donors weighing more than 175 pounds) in the past year.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Intimate contact with risk for a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection</I> means having engaged in an activity that could result in the transfer of potentially infectious body fluids from one person to another.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Physician substitute</I> means a trained and qualified person(s) who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A graduate of an education program for health care workers that includes clinical training;
</P>
<P>(2) Currently licensed or certified as a health care worker in the jurisdiction where the collection establishment is located;
</P>
<P>(3) Currently certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Trained and authorized under State law, and/or local law when applicable, to perform the specified functions under the direction of the responsible physician.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Relevant transfusion-transmitted infection</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any of the following transfusion-transmitted infections:
</P>
<P>(i) Human immunodeficiency virus, types 1 and 2 (referred to, collectively, as HIV);
</P>
<P>(ii) Hepatitis B virus (referred to as HBV);
</P>
<P>(iii) Hepatitis C virus (referred to as HCV);
</P>
<P>(iv) Human T-lymphotropic virus, types I and II (referred to, collectively, as HTLV);
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Treponema pallidum</I> (referred to as syphilis);
</P>
<P>(vi) West Nile virus;
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Trypanosoma cruzi</I> (referred to as Chagas disease);
</P>
<P>(viii) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (referred to as CJD);
</P>
<P>(ix) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (referred to as vCJD); and
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Plasmodium</I> species (referred to as malaria).
</P>
<P>(2) A transfusion-transmitted infection not listed in paragraph (h)(1) of this section when the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate screening measures for the transfusion-transmitted infection have been developed and/or an appropriate screening test has been licensed, approved, or cleared for such use by FDA and is available; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The disease or disease agent:
</P>
<P>(A) May have sufficient incidence and/or prevalence to affect the potential donor population; or
</P>
<P>(B) May have been released accidentally or intentionally in a manner that could place potential donors at risk of infection.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Responsible physician</I> means an individual who is:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensed to practice medicine in the jurisdiction where the collection establishment is located;
</P>
<P>(2) Adequately trained and qualified to direct and control personnel and relevant procedures concerning the determination of donor eligibility; collection of blood and blood components; the immunization of a donor; and the return of red blood cells or other blood components to the donor during collection of blood component(s) by apheresis; and
</P>
<P>(3) Designated by the collection establishment to perform the activities described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Suitability of the donation</I> means a determination of whether the donation is acceptable for transfusion or for further manufacturing use.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Trained person</I> means an individual, including a physician substitute, who is authorized under State law, and/or local law when applicable, and adequately instructed and qualified to perform the specified functions under the direction of the responsible physician.
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) <I>Transfusion-transmitted infection</I> means a disease or disease agent:
</P>
<P>(1) That could be fatal or life-threatening, could result in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure, or could necessitate medical or surgical intervention to preclude permanent impairment of body function or permanent damage to a body structure; and
</P>
<P>(2) For which there may be a risk of transmission by blood or blood components, or by a blood derivative product manufactured from blood or blood components, because the disease or disease agent is potentially transmissible by that blood, blood component, or blood derivative product.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Donor Eligibility Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 29898, May 22, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 630.5" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.5   Medical supervision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must determine the eligibility of a donor</I>? The responsible physician must determine the eligibility of a donor of blood or blood components in accordance with this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Which activities related to the collection of blood and blood components, other than Source Plasma and plasma collected by plasmapheresis, may the responsible physician delegate</I>?
</P>
<P>(1) The responsible physician may delegate the following activities to a physician substitute or other trained person:
</P>
<P>(i) Determining the eligibility of a donor and documenting assessments related to that determination, except the responsible physician must not delegate:
</P>
<P>(A) The examination and determination of the donor's health required in § 630.10(f)(2) for donors with blood pressure measurements outside specified limits, or for certain more frequent donations under § 630.15(a)(1)(ii);
</P>
<P>(B) The determination of the health of the donor required in §§ 630.10(f)(4), 630.20(a), and 640.21(e)(4) of this chapter. The responsible physician may make this determination by telephonic or other offsite consultation; or
</P>
<P>(C) The determination of the health of the donor and the determination that the blood or blood component collected would present no undue medical risk to the transfusion recipient, as required in § 630.20(c). The responsible physician may make these determinations by telephonic or other offsite consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Collecting blood or blood components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Returning red blood cells to the donor during apheresis;
</P>
<P>(iv) Obtaining the informed consent of a plateletpheresis donor as described in § 640.21(g) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(v) Other activities provided that the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, determines that delegating the activities would present no undue medical risk to the donor or to the transfusion recipient, and authorizes the delegation of such activities.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible physician need not be present at the collection site when activities delegated under paragraph (b)(1) of this section are performed, provided that the responsible physician has delegated oversight of these activities to a trained person who is adequately trained and experienced in the performance of these activities and is also adequately trained and experienced in the recognition of and response to the known adverse responses associated with blood collection procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Which activities related to the collection of Source Plasma and plasma collected by plasmapheresis may the responsible physician delegate</I>?
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Donor eligibility and blood component collection activities.</I> (i) The responsible physician may delegate to a physician substitute or other trained person any of the activities described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section, provided that the responsible physician or a physician substitute is on the premises at the collection site:
</P>
<P>(A) The activities listed in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) and (b)(1)(v) of this section, with respect to Source Plasma and plasma collected by plasmapheresis. However, the responsible physician must not delegate:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The examination and determination of the donor's health required in § 630.10(f)(2) for donors with blood pressure measurements outside specified limits, or in § 630.15(b)(7) for certain donors who have experienced red blood cell loss;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The determination of the health of the donor required in §§ 630.10(f)(4) and 630.20(a) and (b). The responsible physician may make this determination by telephonic or other offsite consultation;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The determination of the health of the donor and the determination that the blood component would present no undue medical risk to the transfusion recipient, as required in § 630.20(c). The responsible physician may make this determination by telephonic or other offsite consultation.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The determination related to a donor's false-positive reaction to a serologic test for syphilis in accordance with § 640.65(b)(2)(iii) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The determination to permit plasmapheresis of a donor with a reactive serological test for syphilis in accordance with § 640.65(b)(2)(iv) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(B) The collection of Source Plasma in an approved collection program from a donor who is otherwise determined to be ineligible.
</P>
<P>(C) The collection of a blood sample in accordance with § 640.65(b)(1)(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) The responsible physician, who may or may not be present when these activities are performed, may delegate to a physician substitute the following activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Approval and signature for a plasmapheresis procedure as provided in § 640.65(b)(1)(ii) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(B) Review and signature for accumulated laboratory data, the calculated values of each component, and the collection records in accordance with § 640.65(b)(2)(i) of this chapter. However, the responsible physician must not delegate the decision to reinstate the deferred donor in accordance with that provision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Donor immunization.</I> The responsible physician must not delegate activities performed in accordance with § 640.66 of this chapter, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) The responsible physician may delegate to a physician substitute or other trained person the administration of an immunization other than red blood cells to a donor in an approved collection program, provided that the responsible physician or a physician substitute is on the premises at the collection site when the immunization is administered.
</P>
<P>(ii) The responsible physician may delegate to a physician substitute the administration of red blood cells to a donor in an approved collection program, provided that the responsible physician has approved the procedure and is on the premises at the collection site when the red blood cells are administered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical history, physical examination, informed consent, and examination before immunization.</I> Provided that such activities are performed under the supervision of the responsible physician, the responsible physician may delegate to a physician substitute the activities described in § 630.15(b)(1), (2), and (5). The responsible physician is not required to be present at the collection site when the physician substitute performs these activities under supervision.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Infrequent plasma donors.</I> (i) For infrequent plasma donors other than those described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, the responsible physician may delegate to a trained person the activities listed in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) and (b)(1)(v) of this section and the informed consent requirements described in § 630.15(b)(2). The responsible physician or a physician substitute need not be present at the collection site when any of these activities are performed, provided that the responsible physician has delegated oversight of these activities to a trained person who is not only adequately trained and experienced in the performance of these activities but also adequately trained and experienced in the recognition of and response to the known adverse responses associated with blood collection procedures. However, the responsible physician must not delegate:
</P>
<P>(A) The examination and determination of the donor's health required in § 630.10(f)(2) for donors with blood pressure measurements outside specified limits, or in § 630.15(b)(7) for certain donors who have experienced red blood cell loss; or
</P>
<P>(B) The determination of the health of the donor required in § 630.10(f)(4).
</P>
<P>(ii) For infrequent plasma donors who are otherwise ineligible or are participating in an approved immunization program, the responsible physician may delegate only in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Must rapid emergency medical services be available</I>? Establishments that collect blood or blood components must establish, maintain, and follow standard operating procedures for obtaining rapid emergency medical services for donors when medically necessary. In addition, establishments must assure that an individual (responsible physician, physician substitute, or trained person) who is currently certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation is located on the premises whenever collections of blood or blood components are performed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.10" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.10   General donor eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What factors determine the eligibility of a donor</I>? You, an establishment that collects blood or blood components, must not collect blood or blood components before determining that the donor is eligible to donate or before determining that an exception to this provision applies. To be eligible, the donor must be in good health and free from transfusion-transmitted infections as can be determined by the processes in this subchapter. A donor is not eligible if the donor is not in good health or if you identify any factor(s) that may cause the donation to adversely affect:
</P>
<P>(1) The health of the donor; or
</P>
<P>(2) The safety, purity, or potency of the blood or blood component.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What educational material must you provide to the donor before determining eligibility</I>? You must provide educational material concerning relevant transfusion-transmitted infections to donors before donation when donor education about that relevant transfusion-transmitted infection, such as HIV, is necessary to assure the safety, purity, and potency of blood and blood components. The educational material must include an explanation of the readily identifiable risk factors closely associated with exposure to the relevant transfusion-transmitted infection. You must present educational material in an appropriate form, such as oral, written or multimedia, and in a manner designed to be understood by the donor. The educational material must instruct the donor not to donate blood and blood components when a risk factor is present. When providing educational material to donors under this section, you may include in those materials the information required to be provided to donors under paragraph (g)(2)(ii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When must you determine the eligibility of a donor</I>? You must determine donor eligibility on the day of donation, and before collection. Except:
</P>
<P>(1) When a donor is donating blood components that cannot be stored for more than 24 hours, you may determine the donor's eligibility and collect a sample for testing required under § 610.40 of this chapter, no earlier than 2 calendar days before the day of donation, provided that your standard operating procedures address these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that, upon review, you find that a donor's responses to the donor questions before collection were incomplete, within 24 hours of the time of collection, you may clarify a donor's response or obtain omitted information required under paragraph (e) of this section, provided that your standard operating procedures address these activities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How must you determine the eligibility of a donor</I>? You must determine the donor's eligibility before collection of blood or blood components, by the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) You must consult the records of deferred donors maintained under § 606.160(e)(1) and (2) of this chapter. Exception: If pre-collection review of the record described in § 606.160(e)(2) of this chapter is not feasible because you cannot consult the cumulative record at the collection site, you must consult the cumulative record prior to release of any blood or blood component prepared from the collection.
</P>
<P>(2) Assure that the interval since the donor's last donation is appropriate;
</P>
<P>(3) Assess the donor's medical history; and
</P>
<P>(4) Perform a physical assessment of the donor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>How do you assess the donor's medical history</I>? Before collection you must conduct a medical history interview as described in this section to determine if the donor is in good health; to identify risk factors closely associated with exposure to, or clinical evidence of a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection; and to determine if there are other conditions that may adversely affect the health of the donor or the safety, purity, or potency of the blood or blood components or any product manufactured from the blood or blood components. Your assessment must include each of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Factors that make the donor ineligible to donate because of an increased risk for, or evidence of, a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection. A donor is ineligible to donate when information provided by the donor or other reliable evidence indicates possible exposure to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection if that risk of exposure is still applicable at the time of donation. Information and evidence indicating possible exposure to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection include:
</P>
<P>(i) Behaviors associated with a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Receipt of blood or blood components or other medical treatments and procedures associated with possible exposure to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection;
</P>
<P>(iii) Signs and/or symptoms of a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection;
</P>
<P>(iv) Institutionalization for 72 hours or more consecutively in the past 12 months in a correctional institution;
</P>
<P>(v) Intimate contact with risk for a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Nonsterile percutaneous inoculation.
</P>
<P>(2) Other factors that make the donor ineligible to donate. A donor is ineligible to donate when donating could adversely affect the health of the donor, or when the safety, purity, or potency of the blood or blood component could be affected adversely. Your assessment of the donor must include each of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Symptoms of a recent or current illness;
</P>
<P>(ii) Certain medical treatments or medications;
</P>
<P>(iii) Travel to, or residence in, an area endemic for a transfusion-transmitted infection, when such screening is necessary to assure the safety, purity, and potency of blood and blood components due to the risks presented by donor travel and the risk of transmission of that transfusion-transmitted infection by such donors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Exposure or possible exposure to an accidentally or intentionally released disease or disease agent relating to a transfusion-transmitted infection, if you know or suspect that such a release has occurred;
</P>
<P>(v) Pregnancy at the time of, or within 6 weeks prior to, donation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether, in the opinion of the interviewer, the donor appears to be under the influence of any drug, alcohol or for any reason does not appear to be providing reliable answers to medical history questions, or if the donor says that the purpose of donating is to obtain test results for a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The donor is a xenotransplantation product recipient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How do you perform a physical assessment of the donor</I>? You must determine on the day of donation, and before collection that the donor is in good health based on the following, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Temperature.</I> The donor's oral body temperature must not exceed 37.5 °C (99.5 °F), or the equivalent if measured at another body site;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Blood pressure.</I> The donor's systolic blood pressure must not measure above 180 mm of mercury, or below 90 mm of mercury, and the diastolic blood pressure must not measure above 100 mm of mercury or below 50 mms of mercury. A donor with measurements outside these limits may be permitted to donate only when the responsible physician examines the donor and determines and documents that the health of the donor would not be adversely affected by donating.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hemoglobin or hematocrit determination.</I> You must determine the donor's hemoglobin level or hematocrit value by using a sample of blood obtained by fingerstick, venipuncture, or by a method that provides equivalent results. Blood obtained from the earlobe is not acceptable.
</P>
<P>(i) Allogeneic donors must have a hemoglobin level or hematocrit value that is adequate to assure donor safety and product potency. The following minimum standards apply.
</P>
<P>(A) Female allogeneic donors must have a hemoglobin level that is equal to or greater than 12.5 grams of hemoglobin per deciliter of blood, or a hematocrit value that is equal to or greater than 38 percent. Recognizing that lower levels are also within normal limits for female donors, you may collect blood from female allogeneic donors who have a hemoglobin level between 12.0 and 12.5 grams per deciliter of blood, or a hematocrit value between 36 and 38 percent, provided that you have taken additional steps to assure that this alternative standard is adequate to ensure that the health of the donor will not be adversely affected due to the donation, in accordance with a procedure that has been found acceptable for this purpose by FDA.
</P>
<P>(B) Male allogeneic donors must have a hemoglobin level that is equal to or greater than 13.0 grams of hemoglobin per deciliter of blood, or a hematocrit value that is equal to or greater than 39 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) An autologous donor must have a hemoglobin level no less than 11.0 grams of hemoglobin per deciliter of blood, or a hematocrit value no less than 33 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pulse.</I> The donor's pulse must be regular and between 50 and 100 beats per minute. A donor with an irregular pulse or measurements outside these limits may be permitted to donate only when the responsible physician determines and documents that the health of the donor would not be adversely affected by donating.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Weight.</I> The donor must weigh a minimum of 50 kilograms (110 pounds).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Skin examination.</I> (i) The donor's phlebotomy site must be free of infection, inflammation, and lesions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The donor's arms and forearms must be free of punctures and scars indicative of injected drugs of abuse.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Are there additional requirements for determining the eligibility of the donor</I>? You must obtain the following from the donor on the day of donation:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Proof of identity and postal address.</I> You must obtain proof of identity of the donor and a postal address where the donor may be contacted for 8 weeks after donation; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Donor's acknowledgement.</I> (i) Prior to each donation, you must provide information to the donor addressing the elements specified in paragraphs (g)(2)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section and obtain the donor's acknowledgement that the donor has reviewed the information. You must establish procedures in accordance with § 606.100 of this chapter to assure that the donor has reviewed this material, and provide for a signature or other documented acknowledgement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The donor acknowledgement must not include any exculpatory language through which the donor is made to waive or appear to waive any of the donor's legal rights. It must, at a minimum clearly address the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The donor has reviewed the educational material provided under paragraph (b) of this section regarding relevant transfusion-transmitted infections;
</P>
<P>(B) The donor agrees not to donate if the donation could result in a potential risk to recipients as described in the educational material;
</P>
<P>(C) A sample of the donor's blood will be tested for specified relevant transfusion-transmitted infections;
</P>
<P>(D) If the donation is determined to be not suitable under § 630.30(a) or if the donor is deferred from donation under § 610.41 of this chapter, the donor's record will identify the donor as ineligible to donate and the donor will be notified under § 630.40 of the basis for the deferral and the period of deferral;
</P>
<P>(E) The donor has been provided and reviewed information regarding the risks and hazards of the specific donation procedure; and
</P>
<P>(F) The donor has the opportunity to ask questions and withdraw from the donation procedure.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>What must you do when a donor is not eligible</I>? You must not collect blood or blood components from a donor found to be ineligible prior to collection based on criteria in §§ 630.10 or 630.15, or deferred under § 610.41 of this chapter or § 630.30(b)(2), unless this subchapter provides an exception. You must defer donors found to be ineligible and you must notify the donor of their deferral under § 630.40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.15" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.15   Donor eligibility requirements specific to Whole Blood, Red Blood Cells and Plasma collected by apheresis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What additional donor eligibility requirements apply when you, an establishment that collects blood or blood components, collect Whole Blood or Red Blood Cells by apheresis</I>?
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Donation frequency must be consistent with protecting the health of the donor.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) For a collection resulting in a single unit of Whole Blood or Red Blood Cells collected by apheresis, donation frequency must be no more than once in 8 weeks, and for apheresis collections resulting in two units of Red Blood Cells, the donor must not donate more than once in 16 weeks.
</P>
<P>(ii) The limitations in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section apply unless the responsible physician examines the donor at the time of donation and one of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(A) The donation is for autologous use as prescribed by the donor's physician and the responsible physician determines and documents that the donation may proceed; or
</P>
<P>(B) The donation is a dedicated donation based on the intended recipient's documented exceptional medical need and the responsible physician determines and documents that the health of the donor would not be adversely affected by donating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Therapeutic phlebotomy.</I> When a donor who is determined to be eligible under § 630.10 undergoes a therapeutic phlebotomy under a prescription to promote the donor's health, you may collect from the donor more frequently than once in 8 weeks for collections resulting in a single unit of Whole Blood or Red Blood Cells, or once in 16 weeks for apheresis collections resulting in two units of Red Blood Cells, provided that the container label conspicuously states the disease or condition of the donor that necessitated phlebotomy. However, no labeling for the disease or condition is required under this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The donor meets all eligibility criteria;
</P>
<P>(ii) The donor undergoes a therapeutic phlebotomy as prescribed by a licensed health care provider treating the donor for:
</P>
<P>(A) Hereditary hemochromatosis; or
</P>
<P>(B) Another disease or condition, when the health of a donor with that disease or condition will not be adversely affected by donating, and the donor's disease or condition will not adversely affect the safety, purity, and potency of the blood and blood components, or any products manufactured from them, and the collection is in accordance with a procedure that has been found acceptable for this purpose by FDA; and
</P>
<P>(iii) You perform without charge therapeutic phlebotomies for all individuals with that disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What additional donor eligibility requirements apply when you, an establishment that collects blood or blood components, collect Source Plasma or plasma by plasmapheresis</I>?
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Medical history and physical examination.</I> Except as provided in § 630.25:
</P>
<P>(i) The responsible physician must conduct an appropriate medical history and physical examination of the donor on the day of the first donation or no more than 1 week before the first donation and at subsequent intervals of no longer than 1 year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The responsible physician must examine the donor for medical conditions that would place the donor at risk from plasmapheresis. If the donor is determined to be at risk, you must defer the donor from donating.
</P>
<P>(iii) The responsible physician must conduct a new medical history and physical examination of a donor who does not return for 6 months.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>What requirements apply to obtaining informed consent</I>?
</P>
<P>(i) The responsible physician must obtain the informed consent of a plasma donor on the first day of donation or no more than 1 week before the first donation, and at subsequent intervals of no longer than 1 year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The responsible physician must obtain the informed consent of a plasma donor who does not return within 6 months of the last donation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The responsible physician must explain the risks and hazards of the procedure to the donor. The explanation must include the risks of a hemolytic transfusion reaction if the donor is given the cells of another donor and the risks involved if the donor is immunized. The explanation must be made in such a manner that the donor may give their consent and has a clear opportunity to refuse the procedure.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a donor is enrolled in a new program, such as an immunization or special collection program, the responsible physician must again obtain an informed consent specific for that program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Weight.</I> You must weigh a donor at each donation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total protein level.</I> You must determine the donor's total plasma protein level before each plasmapheresis procedure. The donor must have a total plasma protein level of no less than 6.0 grams per deciliter and no more than 9.0 grams per deciliter in a plasma sample or a serum sample.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examination before immunization.</I> (i) No more than 1 week before the first immunization injection for the production of high-titer antibody plasma, the responsible physician must conduct an appropriate medical history and physical examination, as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in addition to assessing the general donor eligibility requirements under § 630.10. It is not necessary to repeat the medical history and physical examination requirement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if the immunized donor's plasma is collected within 3 weeks of the first immunization injection.
</P>
<P>(ii) You are not required to repeat the medical history and physical examination required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for a donor currently participating in a plasmapheresis collection program and determined to be eligible under § 630.10 unless the medical history and physical examination are due under paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Deferral of donors due to red blood cell loss.</I> (i) You must defer a donor from donating plasma by plasmapheresis for 8 weeks if the donor has donated a unit of Whole Blood, or a single unit of Red Blood Cells by apheresis. However, you may collect plasma by plasmapheresis after a donation of Whole Blood or a single unit of Red Blood Cells by apheresis after at least 2 calendar days have passed, provided that the extracorporeal volume of the apheresis device is less than 100 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(ii) You must defer a donor from donating plasma by plasmapheresis for a period of 16 weeks if the donor donates two units of Red Blood Cells during a single apheresis procedure;
</P>
<P>(iii) You must defer a donor for 8 weeks or more if the cumulative red blood cell loss in any 8 week period could adversely affect donor health.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exceptions to deferral due to red blood cell loss.</I> You are not required to defer a Source Plasma donor from donating plasma by plasmapheresis due to red blood cell loss if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The responsible physician examines the donor at the time of the current donation and determines and documents that the donor is in good health and the donor's health permits the plasmapheresis;
</P>
<P>(ii) The donor's plasma possesses a property, such as an antibody, antigen, or protein deficiency that is transitory, of a highly unusual or infrequent specificity, or of an unusually high titer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The special characteristics of the donor's plasma and the need for plasmapheresis of the donor under § 630.20(b) are documented at your establishment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The extracorporeal volume of the apheresis device is less than 100 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Malaria.</I> Freedom from risk of malaria is not required for a donor of Source Plasma.
</P>
<P>(9) You must comply with other requirements for collection of plasma in part 640 of this chapter and this part including restrictions on frequency of collection as specified in §§ 640.32 and 640.65 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.20   Exceptions for certain ineligible donors.</HEAD>
<P>After assessing donor eligibility under §§ 630.10 and 630.15, an establishment may collect blood and blood components from a donor who is determined to be not eligible to donate under any provision of § 630.10(e) and (f) or § 630.15(a) if one of the following sets of conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The donation is for autologous use only as prescribed by the donor's physician, the donor has a hemoglobin level no less than 11.0 grams of hemoglobin per deciliter of blood or a hematocrit value no less than 33 percent, and the responsible physician determines and documents that the donor's health permits the collection procedure; or
</P>
<P>(b) The donation is collected under a Source Plasma collection program which has received prior written approval from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, to collect plasma for further manufacturing use into in vitro products for which there are no alternative sources, the donor meets the criteria in § 630.10(f)(1) through (6), and the responsible physician determines and documents for each donation that the donor's health permits the collection procedure, and the collection takes place under the medical oversight specified in the approved plasmapheresis program.
</P>
<P>(c) The donation is restricted for use solely by a specific transfusion recipient based on documented exceptional medical need, and the responsible physician determines and documents that the donor's health permits the collection procedure, and that the donation presents no undue medical risk to the transfusion recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.25" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.25   Exceptions from certain donor eligibility requirements for infrequent plasma donors.</HEAD>
<P>For an infrequent plasma donor who is not participating in an immunization program, establishments are not required to:
</P>
<P>(a) Perform a medical history and physical examination of the donor under § 630.15(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(b) Perform a test for total protein under § 630.15(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(c) Determine the total plasma or serum protein and immunoglobulin composition under § 640.65(b)(1)(i) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(d) Review the data and records as required in § 640.65(b)(2)(i) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.30" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.30   Donation suitability requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When is a donation suitable</I>? A donation is suitable when:
</P>
<P>(1) The donor is not currently deferred from donation as determined by review of the records of deferred donors required under § 606.160(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The results in accordance with §§ 630.10 through 630.25 indicate that the donor is in good health and procedures were followed to ensure that the donation would not adversely affect the health of the donor;
</P>
<P>(3) The results in accordance with § 630.10(e) indicate that the donor is free from risk factors for, or evidence of, relevant transfusion-transmitted infections and other factors that make the donor ineligible to donate;
</P>
<P>(4) The donor's blood is tested in accordance with § 610.40 of this chapter, and is negative or nonreactive, unless an exception applies under § 610.40(h) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(5) The donation meets other requirements in this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What must you do when the donation is not suitable</I>? (1) You must not release the donation for transfusion or further manufacturing use unless it is an autologous donation, or an exception is provided in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) You must defer the donor when a donation is determined to be unsuitable based on the criteria in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) You must defer the donor of bacterially contaminated platelets when the contaminating organism is identified in accordance with § 606.145(d) of this chapter as likely to be associated with a bacterial infection that is endogenous to the bloodstream of the donor.
</P>
<P>(4) You must notify the deferred donor in accordance with the notification requirements in § 630.40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.35" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.35   Requalification of previously deferred donors.</HEAD>
<P>Establishments may determine a deferred donor to be eligible as a donor of blood and blood components if, at the time of the current collection, the donor meets the eligibility criteria in this part, except for the record of the previous deferral, and you determine that the criteria that were the basis for the previous deferral are no longer applicable. Criteria for the previous deferral are no longer applicable if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The previous deferral was for a defined period of time and that time period has passed, or the deferral was otherwise temporary, such as a deferral based on eligibility criteria described in §§ 630.10(f)(1) through (5) or 630.15(b)(4); or
</P>
<P>(b) For a donor deferred for reasons other than under § 610.41(a) of this chapter, you determine that the donor has met criteria for requalification by a method or process found acceptable for such purpose by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Donor Notification</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 29898, May 22, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 630.40" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.40   Requirements for notifying deferred donors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of donors.</I> You, an establishment that collects blood or blood components, must make reasonable attempts to notify any donor, including an autologous donor, who has been deferred based on the results of tests for evidence of infection with a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) as required by § 610.41(a) of this chapter; any donor who has been deferred as required under § 630.30(b)(3) because their donated platelets have been determined under § 606.145(d) of this chapter to be contaminated with an organism that is identified as likely to be associated with a bacterial infection that is endogenous to the bloodstream of the donor; and any donor who has been determined not to be eligible as a donor based on eligibility criteria under §§ 630.10 and 630.15. You must attempt to obtain the results of further testing required under § 610.40(e) of this chapter prior to notifying a donor of the deferral. If notification occurs prior to receipt of such results, you must also notify a deferred donor of the results of the further testing. You must notify a donor as described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of notification.</I> You must provide the following information to a donor deferred or determined not to be eligible as a donor as described in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) That the donor is deferred or determined not to be eligible for donation and the reason for that decision;
</P>
<P>(2) Where appropriate, the types of donation of blood or blood components that the donor should not donate in the future;
</P>
<P>(3) Where applicable, the results of tests for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) that were a basis for deferral under § 610.41 of this chapter, including results of further testing as required in § 610.40(e) of this chapter; and,
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, information concerning medical followup and counseling.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for notification.</I> You must make reasonable attempts to notify the donor within 8 weeks after determining that the donor is deferred or determined not to be eligible for donation as described in paragraph (a) of this section. You must document that you have successfully notified the donor or when you are unsuccessful that you have made reasonable attempts to notify the donor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Autologous donors.</I> (1) You also must provide the following information to the referring physician of an autologous donor who is deferred based on the results of tests for evidence of infection with a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s) or whose platelets indicate evidence of a bacterial infection that is endogenous to the bloodstream of the donor as described in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Information that the autologous donor is deferred based on the results of tests for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s), as required under § 610.41 of this chapter, and the reason for that decision;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where appropriate, the types of donation of blood or blood components that the autologous donor should not donate in the future; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The results of tests for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infection(s), that were a basis for deferral under § 610.41 of this chapter, including results of further testing as required in § 610.40(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) You must make reasonable attempts to notify the autologous donor's referring physician within 8 weeks after determining that the autologous donor is deferred as described in paragraph (a) of this section. You must document that you have successfully notified the autologous donor's referring physician or when you are unsuccessful that you have made reasonable attempts to notify the physician.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 31176, June 11, 2001. Redesignated and amended at 80 FR 29898, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="640" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 640—ADDITIONAL STANDARDS FOR HUMAN BLOOD AND BLOOD PRODUCTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263, 263a, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For U.S. Customs Service regulations relating to viruses, serums, and toxins, see 19 CFR 12.21-12.23. For U.S. Postal Service regulations relating to the admissibility to the United States mails see parts 124 and 125 of the Domestic Mail Manual, that is incorporated by reference in 39 CFR part 111.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Whole Blood</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.1   Whole Blood.</HEAD>
<P>The proper name of this product shall be Whole Blood. Whole Blood is defined as blood collected from human donors for transfusion to human recipients.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 4138, Jan. 29, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.2   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Manufacturing responsibility.</I> All manufacturing of Whole Blood, including donor examination, blood collection, laboratory tests, labeling, storage and issue, shall be done under the supervision and control of the same licensed establishment except that the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, may approve arrangements, upon joint request of two or more licensed establishments, which he finds are of such a nature as to assure compliance otherwise with the provisions of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Blood container.</I> The blood container shall not be entered prior to issue for any purpose except for blood collection or when the method of processing requires use of a different container. The container shall be uncolored and transparent to permit visual inspection of the contents and any closure shall be such as will maintain a hermetic seal and prevent contamination of the contents. The container material shall not interact with the contents under the customary conditions of storage and use, in such a manner as to have an adverse effect upon the safety, purity, or potency of the blood.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reissue of blood.</I> Blood that has been removed from storage controlled by a licensed establishment shall not be reissued by a licensed establishment unless the following conditions are observed: 
</P>
<P>(1) The container has a tamper-proof seal when originally issued and this seal remains unbroken; 
</P>
<P>(2) A segment is properly attached and has not been removed, except that blood lacking a properly attached segment may be reissued in an emergency provided it is accompanied by instructions for sampling and for use within 6 hours after entering the container for sampling;
</P>
<P>(3) The blood has been stored continuously at 1 to 6 °C and shipped between 1 and 10 °C; 
</P>
<P>(4) The blood is held for observation until a significant inspection consistent with the requirements of § 640.5(e) can be made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 4015, Jan. 28, 1976; 42 FR 59878, Nov. 22, 1977; 43 FR 34460, Aug. 4, 1978; 49 FR 15187, Apr. 18, 1984; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4138, Jan. 29, 1985; 53 FR 116, Jan. 5, 1988; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 45371, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001; 66 FR 40889, Aug. 6, 2001; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.4" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.4   Collection of the blood.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The donor center.</I> The pertinent requirements of §§ 600.10 and 600.11 of this chapter shall apply at both the blood establishment and at any other place where the bleeding is performed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Blood containers.</I> Blood containers and donor sets shall be pyrogen-free, sterile and identified by lot number. The amount of anticoagulant required for the quantity of blood to be collected shall be in the blood container when it is sterilized. In addition, all container and donor set surfaces that come in contact with blood used in the processing of Heparin Whole Blood shall be water repellent. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The anticoagulant solution.</I> The anticoagulant solution shall be sterile and pyrogen-free. Anticoagulant solutions shall be compounded and used according to a formula approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Donor identification.</I> Each unit of blood shall be so marked or identified by number or other symbol as to relate it to the individual donor whose identity shall be established to the extent necessary for compliance with § 630.10 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prevention of contamination of the blood.</I> The skin of the donor at the site of phlebotomy shall be prepared thoroughly and carefully by a method that gives maximum assurance of a sterile container of blood. The blood shall be collected by aseptic methods in a sterile system which may be closed or may be vented if the vent protects the blood against contamination.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Samples and segments for laboratory tests.</I> Samples and segments for laboratory tests shall meet the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) One or more segments shall be provided with each unit of blood when issued or reissued except as provided in § 640.2(c)(2) and all segments shall be from the donor who is the source of the unit of blood.
</P>
<P>(2) All samples for laboratory tests performed by the manufacturer and all segments accompanying a unit of blood shall be collected at the time of filling the original blood container.
</P>
<P>(3) All containers for all samples shall bear the donor's identification before collecting the samples. 
</P>
<P>(4) All segments accompanying a unit of blood shall be attached to the whole blood container before blood collection, in a tamperproof manner that will conspicuously indicate removal and reattachment.
</P>
<P>(5) Segments for compatibility testing shall contain blood mixed with the appropriate anticoagulant.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Storage.</I> Whole Blood must be placed in storage at a temperature between 1 and 6 °C immediately after collection unless the blood is to be further processed into another component or the blood must be transported from the donor center to the processing laboratory. If transported, the blood must be placed in temporary storage having sufficient refrigeration capacity to cool the blood continuously toward a temperature range between 1 and 10 °C until arrival at the processing laboratory. At the processing laboratory, the blood must be stored at a temperature between 1 and 6 °C. Blood from which a component is to be prepared must be held in an environment maintained at a temperature range specified for that component in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system approved for such use by the Director, CBER.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 42 FR 59878, Nov. 22, 1977; 43 FR 34460, Aug. 4, 1978; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4138, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 40889, Aug. 6, 2001; 72 FR 45887, Aug. 16, 2007; 73 FR 7464, Feb. 8, 2008; 80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.5" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.5   Testing the blood.</HEAD>
<P>All laboratory tests shall be made on a specimen of blood taken from the donor, and these tests shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of blood group.</I> Each container of Whole Blood shall be classified as to ABO blood group. At least two blood group tests shall be made and the unit shall not be issued until grouping tests by different methods or with different lots of antiserums are in agreement. Only those Anti-A and Anti-B Blood Grouping Reagents licensed under, or that otherwise meet the requirements of, the regulations of this subchapter shall be used, and the technique used shall be that for which the serum is specifically designed to be effective. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of the Rh factors.</I> Each container of Whole Blood shall be classified as to Rh type on the basis of tests done on the sample. The label shall indicate the extent of typing and the results of all tests performed. If the test, using Anti-D Blood Grouping Reagent, is positive, the container may be labeled “Rh Positive.” If the test is negative, the results shall be confirmed by further testing which shall include tests for the “weak D (formerly D
<SU>u</SU>).” Blood may be labeled “Rh Negative” if further testing is negative. Units testing positive after additional more specific testing shall be labeled as “Rh Positive.” Only Anti-Rh Blood Grouping Reagents licensed under, or that otherwise meet the requirements of, this subchapter shall be used, and the technique used shall be that for which the reagent is specifically designed to be effective.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sterility test.</I> Whole Blood intended for transfusion shall not be tested for sterility by a method that entails entering the final container before the blood is used for transfusion. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inspection.</I> Whole Blood shall be inspected visually during storage and immediately prior to issue. If the color or physical appearance is abnormal or there is any indication or suspicion of microbial contamination the unit of Whole Blood shall not be issued for transfusion. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Test for relevant transfusion-transmitted infections.</I> Whole Blood shall be tested for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections as required under § 610.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 4138, Jan. 29, 1985; 53 FR 117, Jan. 5, 1988; 53 FR 12764, Apr. 19, 1988; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001; 66 FR 40889, Aug. 6, 2001; 80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.6" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.6   Modifications of Whole Blood.</HEAD>
<P>Upon approval by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, of a supplement to the biologics license application for Whole Blood a manufacturer may prepare Whole Blood from which the antihemophilic factor has been removed, provided the Whole Blood meets the applicable requirements of this subchapter and the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The antihemophilic factor shall be removed in accordance with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of § 640.52. 
</P>
<P>(b) Although the closed system between the red blood cells and plasma shall be maintained, the red blood cells shall be maintained between 1 and 6 °C at all times, including that time when the plasma is being frozen for removal of the antihemophilic factor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4138, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 59 FR 49351, Sept. 28, 1994; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Red Blood Cells</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.10" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.10   Red Blood Cells.</HEAD>
<P>The proper name of this product shall be Red Blood Cells. The product is defined as red blood cells remaining after separating plasma from human blood.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 4138, Jan. 29, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.11" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.11   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Storage.</I> Immediately after processing, the Red Blood Cells shall be placed in storage and maintained at a temperature between 1 and 6 °C. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection.</I> The product shall be inspected immediately after separation of the plasma, periodically during storage, and at the time of issue. The product shall not be issued if there is any abnormality in color or physical appearance or if there is any indication of microbial contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 18292, May 3, 1976; 42 FR 59878, Nov. 11, 1977; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.12" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.12   Eligibility of donor.</HEAD>
<P>Establishments must determine the eligibility of donors of the source blood for Red Blood Cells in accordance with §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.13" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.13   Collection of the blood.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The source blood shall be collected as prescribed in § 640.4.
</P>
<P>(b) Source blood may also be derived from Whole Blood manufactured in accordance with applicable provisions of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.14" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.14   Testing the blood.</HEAD>
<P>Blood from which Red Blood Cells are prepared shall be tested as prescribed in § 610.40 of this chapter and § 640.5 (b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 117, Jan. 5, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001; 80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.15" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.15   Segments for testing.</HEAD>
<P>Segments collected in integral tubing shall meet the following standards:
</P>
<P>(a) One or more segments shall be provided with each unit of Whole Blood or Red Blood Cells when issued or reissued.
</P>
<P>(b) Before they are filled, all segments shall be marked or identified so as to relate them to the donor of that unit of red cells.
</P>
<P>(c) All segments accompanying a unit of Red Blood Cells shall be filled at the time the blood is collected or at the time the final product is prepared.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 40890, Aug. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.16" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.16   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Separation.</I> Within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system used, Red Blood Cells may be prepared either by centrifugation, done in a manner that will not tend to increase the temperature of the blood, or by normal undisturbed sedimentation. A portion of the plasma sufficient to insure optimal cell preservation shall be left with the red cells except when a cryoprotective substance or additive solution is added for prolonged storage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sterile system.</I> All surfaces that come in contact with the red cells shall be sterile and pyrogen-free.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final containers.</I> Final containers used for Red Blood Cells shall be the original blood containers unless the method of processing requires a different container. The final container shall meet the requirements for blood containers prescribed in § 640.2(c). At the time of filing, if a different container is used, it shall be marked or identified by number or other symbol so as to relate it to the donor of that unit of red cells.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 43 FR 34460, Aug. 4, 1978; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 40890, Aug. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.17" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.17   Modifications for specific products.</HEAD>
<P>Red Blood Cells Frozen: A cryophylactic substance may be added to the Red Blood Cells for extended manufacturers' storage at −65 °C or colder, provided the manufacturer submits data considered by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, as adequately demonstrating through in vivo cell survival and other appropriate tests that the addition of the substance, the materials used and the processing methods results in a final product that meets the required standards of safety, purity, and potency for Red Blood Cells, and that the frozen product will maintain those properties for the prescribed dating period. Section 640.11 (a) and (b) do not apply while a cryophylactic substance is present.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 18292, May 3, 1976; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Platelets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.20   Platelets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this product shall be Platelets. The product is defined as platelets collected from one unit of blood and resuspended in an appropriate volume of original plasma, as prescribed in § 640.24(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> The source material for Platelets is plasma which may be obtained by whole blood collection or by plateletpheresis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 4304, Jan. 29, 1975, as amended at 47 FR 49021, Oct. 29, 1982; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 72 FR 45887, Aug. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.21" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.21   Eligibility of donors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Establishments must determine the eligibility of donors of platelets derived from Whole Blood and donors of platelets collected by plateletpheresis in accordance with §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter, except as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A plateletpheresis donor must not serve as the source of platelets for transfusion if the donor has recently ingested a drug that adversely affects platelet function.
</P>
<P>(c) A Whole Blood donor must not serve as the source of platelets for transfusion if the donor has recently ingested a drug that adversely affects platelet function unless the unit is labeled to identify the ingested drug that adversely affects platelet function.
</P>
<P>(d) If you are collecting platelets by plateletpheresis, you must assess and monitor the donor's platelet count.
</P>
<P>(1) You must take adequate and appropriate steps to assure that the donor's platelet count is at least 150,000 platelets per microliter (/µL) before plateletpheresis begins. Exception: If you do not have records of a donor's platelet count from prior donations and you are not able to assess the donor's platelet count either prior to or immediately following the initiation of the collection procedure, you may collect platelets by plateletpheresis, but you must not collect 9.0 × 10
<SU>11</SU> or more platelets from that donor.
</P>
<P>(2) You must defer from platelet donation a donor whose pre-donation platelet count is less than 150,000 platelets/µL until a subsequent pre-donation platelet count indicates that the donor's platelet count is at least 150,000 platelets/µL; and
</P>
<P>(3) You must take appropriate steps to assure that the donor's intended post-donation platelet count will be no less than 100,000 platelets/µL.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Frequency of plateletpheresis collection.</I> (1) The donor may donate no more than a total of 24 plateletpheresis collections during a 12-month rolling period.
</P>
<P>(2) When you collect fewer than 6 × 10
<SU>11</SU> platelets, you must wait at least 2 calendar days before any subsequent plateletpheresis collection. You must not attempt to collect more than 2 collections within a 7 calendar day period.
</P>
<P>(3) When you collect 6 × 10
<SU>11</SU> or more platelets, you must wait at least 7 calendar days before any subsequent plateletpheresis collection.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception.</I> For a period not to exceed 30 calendar days, a donor may serve as a dedicated plateletpheresis donor for a single recipient, in accordance with § 610.40(c)(1) of this chapter, as often as is medically necessary, provided that the donor is in good health, as determined and documented by the responsible physician, and the donor's platelet count is at least 150,000 platelets/µL, measured at the conclusion of the previous donation or before initiating plateletpheresis for the current donation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Deferral of plateletpheresis donors due to red blood cell loss.</I> (1) You must defer a donor from donating platelets by plateletpheresis or a co-collection of platelets and plasma by apheresis for 8 weeks if the donor has donated a unit of Whole Blood, or a single unit of Red Blood Cells by apheresis unless at least 2 calendar days have passed and the extracorporeal volume of the apheresis device is less than 100 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(2) You must defer a donor from donating platelets for a period of 16 weeks if the donor donates two units of Red Blood Cells during a single apheresis procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) You must defer a donor for 8 weeks or more if the cumulative red blood cell loss in any 8 week period could adversely affect donor health.
</P>
<P>(g) The responsible physician must obtain the informed consent of a plateletpheresis donor on the first day of donation, and at subsequent intervals no longer than 1 year.
</P>
<P>(1) The responsible physician must explain the risks and hazards of the procedure to the donor; and
</P>
<P>(2) The explanation must be made in such a manner that the donor may give consent, and has a clear opportunity to refuse the procedure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.22" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.22   Collection of source material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole blood used as the source of Platelets shall be collected as prescribed in § 640.4.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) If plateletpheresis is used, the procedure for collection must be as prescribed in §§ 640.21, 640.64 (except paragraph (c)), and 640.65, or as described in an approved biologics license application (BLA) or an approved supplement to a BLA.
</P>
<P>(d) The phlebotomy shall be performed by a single uninterrupted venipuncture with minimal damage to, and minimal manipulation of, the donor's tissue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 4304, Jan. 29, 1975, as amended at 45 FR 27927, Apr. 25, 1980; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 59 FR 49351, Sept. 28, 1994; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999; 72 FR 45887, Aug. 16, 2007; 80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.23" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.23   Testing the blood.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Blood from which plasma is separated for the preparation of Platelets shall be tested as prescribed in § 610.40 of this chapter and § 640.5 (b) and (c). 
</P>
<P>(b) The tests shall be performed on a sample of blood collected at the time of collecting the source blood, and such sample container shall be labeled with the donor's number before the container is filled.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 4304, Jan. 29, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 53 FR 117, Jan. 5, 1988; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001; 80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.24" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.24   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Separation of plasma and platelets and resuspension of the platelets must be in a closed system. Platelets must not be pooled during processing unless the platelets are pooled as specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system approved for such use by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(b) Immediately after collection, the whole blood or plasma shall be held in storage between 20 and 24 °C unless it must be transported from the collection center to the processing laboratory. During such transport, all reasonable methods shall be used to maintain the temperature as close as possible to a range between 20 and 24 °C until it arrives at the processing laboratory where it shall be held between 20 and 24 °C until the platelets are separated. The platelet concentrate shall be separated within 4 hours or within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system.
</P>
<P>(c) The time and speed of centrifugation must have been demonstrated to produce an unclumped product, without visible hemolysis, that yields a count of not less than 5.5 × 10
<SU>10</SU> platelets per unit in at least 75 percent of the units tested. 
</P>
<P>(d) The volume of original plasma used for resuspension of the platelets shall be determined by the maintenance of a pH of not less than 6.2 during the storage period. The pH shall be measured on a sample of platelets which has been stored for the maximum dating period at the selected storage temperature. One of the following storage temperatures shall be used continuously:
</P>
<P>(1) 20 to 24 °C.
</P>
<P>(2) 1 to 6 °C.
</P>
<P>(e) Final containers used for Platelets shall be colorless and transparent to permit visual inspection of the contents; any closure shall maintain a hermetic seal and prevent contamination of the contents. The container material shall not interact with the contents, under the customary conditions of storage and use, in such a manner as to have an adverse effect upon the safety, purity, potency, or efficacy of the product. At the time of filling, the final container shall be marked or identified by number so as to relate it to the donor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 4304, Jan. 29, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 10983, Feb. 25, 1977; 47 FR 49021, Oct. 29, 1982; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 40890, Aug. 6, 2001; 72 FR 45887, Aug. 16, 2007; 73 FR 7464, Feb. 8, 2008] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.25" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.25   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Storage.</I> Immediately after resuspension, Platelets shall be placed in storage at the selected temperature range. If stored at 20 to 24 °C, a continuous gentle agitation of the platelet concentrate shall be maintained throughout the storage period. Agitation is optional if stored at a temperature between 1 and 6 °C.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality control testing.</I> Each month four units prepared from different donors shall be tested at the end of the storage period as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Platelet count.
</P>
<P>(2) pH of not less than 6.2 measured at the storage temperature of the unit.
</P>
<P>(3) Measurement of actual plasma volume.
</P>
<P>(4) If the results of the quality control testing indicate that the product does not meet the prescribed requirements, immediate corrective action shall be taken and a record maintained of such action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manufacturing responsibility.</I> All manufacturing of Platelets shall be performed at the same licensed establishment, except that the quality control testing under paragraph (b) of this section may be performed by a clinical laboratory which meets the standards of the Clinical Laboratories Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) (42 U.S.C. 263a) and is qualified to perform platelet counts. Such arrangements must be approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration. Such testing shall not be considered as divided manufacturing, as described in § 610.63 of this chapter, provided the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The results of each test are received within 10 days of the preparation of the platelet concentrate, and are maintained by the establishment licensed for Platelets so that they may be reviewed by an authorized representative of the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensed Platelets manufacturer has obtained a written agreement that the testing laboratory will permit an authorized representative of the Food and Drug Administration to inspect its testing procedures and facilities during reasonable business hours. 
</P>
<P>(3) The testing laboratory will participate in any proficiency testing programs undertaken by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 4304, Jan. 29, 1975, as amended at 47 FR 49021, Oct. 29, 1982; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 72 FR 45888, Aug. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Plasma</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.30" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.30   Plasma.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this component is Plasma. The component is defined as:
</P>
<P>(1) The fluid portion of one unit of human blood intended for intravenous use which is collected in a closed system, stabilized against clotting, and separated from the red cells; or
</P>
<P>(2) The fluid portion of human blood intended for intravenous use which is prepared by apheresis methods as specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system including closed and open systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> (1) Plasma shall be obtained by separating plasma from blood collected from blood donors or by plasmapheresis.
</P>
<P>(2) Plasma may be obtained from a unit of Whole Blood collected by another licensed establishment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59878, Nov. 22, 1977; 48 FR 13026, Mar. 29, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 72 FR 45888, Aug. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.31" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.31   Eligibility of donors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole Blood donors must meet the criteria for donor eligibility prescribed in §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Collection establishments must determine the eligibility of plasmapheresis donors in accordance with §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29904, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.32" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.32   Collection of source material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole Blood must be collected, transported, and stored as prescribed in § 640.4. When whole blood is intended for Plasma, Fresh Frozen Plasma, and Liquid Plasma, until the plasma is removed, the whole blood must be maintained at a temperature between 1 and 6 °C or as specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system approved for such use by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluations and Research. Whole blood intended for Platelet Rich Plasma must be maintained as prescribed in § 640.24 until the plasma is removed. The red blood cells must be placed in storage at a temperature between 1 and 6 °C immediately after the plasma is separated.
</P>
<P>(b) Plasma obtained by plasmapheresis shall be collected as prescribed in § 640.64 (except that paragraph (c)(3) of § 640.64 shall not apply), and § 640.65.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59878, Nov. 22, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 27927, Apr. 25, 1980; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 45372, Aug. 19, 1999; 72 FR 45888, Aug. 16, 2007; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.33" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.33   Testing the blood.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Blood from which plasma is separated shall be tested as prescribed in § 610.40 of this chapter and § 640.5 (b) and (c). 
</P>
<P>(b) Manufacturers of Plasma collected by plasmapheresis shall have testing and recordkeeping responsibilities equivalent to those prescribed in §§ 640.71 and 640.72.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59878, Nov. 22, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 17658, Mar. 23, 1979; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 53 FR 117, Jan. 5, 1988; 66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.34" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.34   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Plasma.</I> Plasma shall be separated from the red blood cells and shall be stored at −18 °C or colder within 6 hours after transfer to the final container or within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system unless the product is to be stored as Liquid Plasma.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fresh Frozen Plasma.</I> Fresh frozen plasma shall be prepared from blood collected by a single uninterrupted venipuncture with minimal damage to and minimal manipulation of the donor's tissue. The plasma must be separated from the red blood cells or collected by an apheresis procedure, and placed in a freezer within 8 hours or within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system, and stored at −18 °C or colder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liquid Plasma.</I> Liquid Plasma shall be separated from the red blood cells and shall be stored at a temperature of 1 to 6 °C within 4 hours after filling the final container or within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Platelet Rich Plasma.</I> Platelet rich plasma shall be prepared from blood collected by a single uninterrupted venipuncture with minimal damage to and manipulation of the donor's tissue. The plasma shall be separated from the red blood cells by centrifugation within 4 hours after completion of the phlebotomy or within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system. The time and speed of the centrifugation shall have been shown to produce a product with at least 250,000 platelets per microliter. The plasma shall be stored at a temperature between 20 and 24 °C immediately after filling the final container. A gentle and continuous agitation of the product shall be maintained throughout the storage period, if stored at a temperature of 20 to 24 °C.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Modifications of Plasma.</I> It is possible to separate Platelets and/or Cryoprecipitated AHF from Plasma. When these components are to be separated, the plasma shall be collected as described in § 640.32 for Plasma. 
</P>
<P>(1) Platelets shall be separated as prescribed in subpart C of part 640, prior to freezing the plasma. The remaining plasma may be labeled as “Fresh Frozen Plasma,” if frozen within 6 hours after filling the final container or within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system.
</P>
<P>(2) Cryoprecipitated AHF shall be removed as prescribed in subpart F of part 640. The remaining plasma shall be labeled “Plasma, Cryoprecipitate Reduced.”
</P>
<P>(3) Plasma remaining after both Platelets and Cryoprecipitated AHF have been removed may be labeled “Plasma, Cryoprecipitate Reduced.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>The final container.</I> (1) The final container shall have no color added to the plastic and shall be transparent to permit visual inspection of the contents; any closure shall maintain a hermetic seal and prevent contamination of the contents. 
</P>
<P>(2) The final container material shall not interact with the contents, under the customary conditions of storage and use, in such a manner as to have an adverse effect upon the safety, purity, potency, and effectiveness of the product. 
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to filling, the final container shall be identified by number so as to relate it to the donor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>The final product.</I> (1) The final product shall be inspected immediately after separation of the plasma and shall not be issued for transfusion if there is (i) any abnormality in color or physical appearance, or (ii) any indication of contamination. 
</P>
<P>(2) With the exception of Platelet Rich Plasma and Liquid Plasma the final product shall be inspected for evidence of thawing or breakage at the time of issuance, however, the containers need not be stored in a manner that shows evidence of thawing if records of continuous monitoring of the storage temperature establish that the temperature remained at −18 °C or colder. If continuous monitoring of the product is not available, the final product shall be stored in a manner that will show evidence of thawing and shall not be issued if there is any evidence of thawing.
</P>
<P>(3) No preservative shall be added to the final product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59878, Nov. 22, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 34460, Aug. 4, 1978; 48 FR 13026, Mar. 29, 1983; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 45373, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1836, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 40890, Aug. 6, 2001; 72 FR 45888, Aug. 16, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Cryoprecipitate</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.50" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.50   Cryoprecipitated AHF.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this product shall be Cryoprecipitated AHF. The product is defined as a preparation of antihemophilic factor, which is obtained from a single unit of plasma collected and processed in a closed system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> The source material for Cryoprecipitated AHF shall be plasma which may be obtained by whole blood collection or by plasmapheresis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 21774, Apr. 29, 1977; 48 FR 13026, Mar. 29, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.51" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.51   Eligibility of donors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole blood donors must meet the criteria for eligibility prescribed in §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Collection establishments must determine the eligibility of plasmapheresis donors in accordance with §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.52" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.52   Collection of source material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole blood used as a source of Cryoprecipitated AHF shall be collected as prescribed in § 640.4. Whole blood from which both Platelets and Cryoprecipitated AHF is derived shall be maintained as required under § 640.24 until the platelets are removed.
</P>
<P>(b) If plasmapheresis is used, the procedure for collection shall be as prescribed in § 640.64 (except that paragraph (c)(3) of that section shall not apply), and 640.65.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 21774, Apr. 29, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 45373, Aug. 19, 1999; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.53" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.53   Testing the blood.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Blood from which plasma is separated for the preparation of Cryoprecipitated AHF shall be tested as prescribed in § 610.40 of this chapter and § 640.5 (b) and (c). 
</P>
<P>(b) The tests shall be performed on a sample of blood collected at the time of collecting the source blood, and such sample container shall be labeled with the donor's number before the container is filled. 
</P>
<P>(c) Manufacturers of Cryoprecipitated AHF obtained from plasma collected by plasmapheresis shall have testing and record-keeping responsibilities equivalent to those prescribed in §§ 640.71 and 640.72.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 21774, Apr. 29, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 37546, July 22, 1977; 42 FR 43063, Aug. 26, 1977; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 53 FR 117, Jan. 5, 1988; 66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.54" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.54   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing the plasma.</I> (1) The plasma shall be separated from the red blood cells by centrifugation to obtain essentially cell-free plasma.
</P>
<P>(2) The plasma shall be placed in a freezer within 8 hours after blood collection or within the timeframe specified in the directions for use for the blood collecting, processing, and storage system. A combination of dry ice and organic solvent may be used for freezing: <I>Provided,</I> That the procedure has been shown not to cause the solvent to penetrate the container or leach plasticizer from the container into the plasma.
</P>
<P>(3) Immediately after separation and freezing of the plasma, the plasma shall be stored and maintained at −18 °C or colder until thawing of the plasma for further processing to remove the Cryoprecipitated AHF. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing the final product.</I> (1) The Cryoprecipitated AHF shall be separated from the plasma by a procedure that has been shown to produce an average of no less than 80 units of antihemophilic factor per final container. 
</P>
<P>(2) No diluent shall be added to the product by the manufacturer prior to freezing. 
</P>
<P>(3) The final container used for Cryoprecipitated AHF shall be colorless and transparent to permit visual inspection of the contents; any closure shall maintain a hermetic seal and prevent contamination of the contents. The container material shall not interact with the contents under customary conditions of storage and use in such a manner as to have an adverse effect upon the safety, purity, potency and effectiveness of the product. At the time of filling, the final container shall be identified by a number so as to relate it to the donor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 21774, Apr. 29, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 15330, Apr. 9, 1982; 50 FR 4139, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 45373, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1837, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 40890, Aug. 6, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.55" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.55   U.S. Standard preparation.</HEAD>
<P>A U.S. Standard Antihemophilic Factor (Factor VIII) preparation may be obtained from the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, (HFM-407) (see mailing addresses in § 600.2 of this chapter) for use in the preparation of a working reference to be employed in a quality control potency test of Cryoprecipitated AHF.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 21774, Apr. 29, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.56" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.56   Quality control test for potency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Quality control tests for potency of antihemophilic factor shall be conducted each month on at least four representative containers of Cryoprecipitated AHF. 
</P>
<P>(b) The results of each test are received by the establishment licensed for Cryoprecipitated AHF within 30 days of the preparation of the cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor and are maintained at that establishment so that they may be reviewed by an authorized representative of the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) The quality control test for potency may be performed by a clinical laboratory which meets the standards of the Clinical Laboratories Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) (42 U.S.C. 263a) and is qualified to perform potency tests for antihemophilic factor. Such arrangements must be approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration. Such testing shall not be considered as divided manufacturing, as described in § 610.63 of this chapter, provided the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment licensed for Cryoprecipitated AHF has obtained a written agreement that the testing laboratory will permit an authorized representative of the Food and Drug Administration to inspect its testing procedures and facilities during reasonable business hours. 
</P>
<P>(2) The testing laboratory will participate in any proficiency testing programs undertaken by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the average potency level of antihemophilic factor in the containers tested is less than 80 units of antihemophilic factor per container, immediate corrective actions shall be taken and a record maintained of such action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 21774, Apr. 29, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 64 FR 45373, Aug. 19, 1999; 66 FR 1837, Jan. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Source Plasma</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.60" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.60   Source Plasma.</HEAD>
<P>The proper name of the product shall be Source Plasma. The product is defined as the fluid portion of human blood collected by plasmapheresis and intended as source material for further manufacturing use. The definition excludes single donor plasma products intended for intravenous use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10768, Mar. 12, 1976, as amended at 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.64" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.64   Collection of blood for Source Plasma.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Blood containers.</I> Blood containers and donor sets must be pyrogen-free, sterile, and identified by lot number.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The anticoagulant solution.</I> The anticoagulant solution must be sterile and pyrogen-free. Anticoagulant solutions must be compounded and used according to a formula that has been approved for the applicant by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Donor identification.</I> Each unit of blood and plasma shall be so marked or identified by number or other symbol so as to relate it directly to the donor. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prevention of contamination of the blood and plasma.</I> The skin of the donor at the site of phlebotomy shall be prepared thoroughly and carefully by a method that gives maximum assurance of a sterile container of blood. The blood shall be collected, the plasma separated, and the cells returned to the donor by aseptic methods in a sterile system which may be closed, or may be vented if the vent protects the blood cells and plasma against contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973; 39 FR 13632, Apr. 16, 1974, as amended at 41 FR 10768, Mar. 12, 1976; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 59 FR 49351, Sept. 28, 1994; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999; 72 FR 45888, Aug. 16, 2007; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.65" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.65   Plasmapheresis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure-general.</I> The plasmapheresis procedure is a procedure in which, during a single visit to the establishment, blood is removed from a donor, the plasma separated from the formed elements, and at least the red blood cells returned to the donor. This procedure shall be described in detail in the biologics license application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures-specific requirements.</I> The plasmapheresis procedure shall meet the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Except as provided under § 630.25 of this chapter, the responsible physician must draw a sample of blood from each donor on the day of the initial physical examination or plasmapheresis, whichever comes first, and at least every 4 months thereafter. A serologic test for syphilis, a total plasma or serum protein determination, and a plasma or serum protein electrophoresis or quantitative immuno-diffusion test or an equivalent test to determine immunoglobulin composition of the plasma or serum shall be performed on the sample. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A repeat donor who does not return for plasmapheresis at the time the 4-month sample is due to be collected may be plasmapheresed on the day he appears: <I>Provided,</I> That no longer than 6 months has elapsed since the last sample was collected, and the responsible physician approves the plasmapheresis procedure and so indicates by signing the donor's record before such procedure is performed. The sample for the 4-month tests shall be collected on the day of the donor's return. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A repeat donor from whom the plasmapheresis center is unable to obtain a sample for testing as prescribed in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for a total period exceeding 6 months shall be processed as a new donor. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except as provided under § 630.25 of this chapter, the responsible physician must review the accumulated laboratory data, including any tracings of the plasma or serum protein electrophoresis pattern, the calculated values of the protein composition of each component, and the collection records within 14 calendar days after the sample is drawn to determine whether or not the donor should be deferred from further donation. If a determination is not made within 14 calendar days, the donor must be deferred pending such a determination. The responsible physician must sign the review. If the protein composition is not within normal limits established by the testing laboratory, or if the total protein level is less than 6.0 grams per deciliter or more than 9.0 grams per deciliter in a plasma sample or serum sample, the donor must be deferred from donation until the protein composition returns to acceptable levels. Reinstatement of the donor into the plasmapheresis program when the donor's protein composition values have returned to an acceptable level must first be approved by the responsible physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) A donor with a reactive serologic test for syphilis shall not be plasmapheresed again until the donor's serum is tested and found to be nonreactive to a serologic test for syphilis, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) (iii) and (iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A donor whose serum is determined to have a biologic false-positive reaction to a serologic test for syphilis may be plasmapheresed: <I>Provided,</I> That the donor's file identifies the serologic test for syphilis and results used to confirm the biologic false-positive reaction and indicates that the responsible physician has determined the false-positive reaction is not the result of an underlying disorder that would disqualify the donor from participation in the plasmapheresis program. If the serologic test for syphilis is performed at a facility other than the plasmapheresis center, all applicable provisions of § 640.71 shall be met. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A donor with a reactive serologic test for syphilis may be plasmapheresed only to obtain plasma to be used for further manufacturing into control serum for the serologic test for syphilis: <I>Provided,</I> That the responsible physician approves the donation, the donor's file contains a signed statement from a physician or clinic establishing that treatment for syphilis has been initiated and that continuance in the plasmapheresis program will not interfere with or jeopardize the treatment of the syphilitic donor. 
</P>
<P>(3) A donor identification system shall be established that positively identifies each donor and relates such donor directly to his blood and its components as well as to his accumulated records and laboratory data. Such system shall include either a photograph of each donor which shall be used on each visit to confirm the donor's identity, or some other method that provides equal or greater assurance of positively identifying the donor. 
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of whole blood, not including anticoagulant, removed from a donor during a manual plasmapheresis procedure or in any 2-day period shall not exceed 1,000 milliliters unless the donor's weight is 175 pounds or greater, in which case the amount of whole blood, not including anticoagulant, removed from the donor during a manual plasmapheresis procedure or in any 2-day period shall not exceed 1,200 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(5) The amount of whole blood, not including anticoagulant, removed from a donor during a manual plasmapheresis procedure within a 7-day period shall not exceed 2,000 milliliters unless the donor's weight is 175 pounds or greater, in which case the amount of whole blood, not including anticoagulant, removed from a donor during a manual plasmapheresis procedure within a 7-day period shall not exceed 2,400 milliliters.
</P>
<P>(6) No more than 500 milliliters of whole blood shall be removed from a donor at one time, unless the donor's weight is 175 pounds or greater, in which case no more than 600 milliliters of whole blood shall be removed from the donor at one time. 
</P>
<P>(7) The plasma shall be separated from the red blood cells immediately after blood collection. The maximum feasible volume of red blood cells shall be returned to the donor before another unit is collected.
</P>
<P>(8) The volume of plasma collected during an automated plasmapheresis collection procedure shall be consistent with the volumes specifically approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, and collection shall not occur less than 2 days apart or more frequently than twice in a 7-day period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 10769, Mar. 12, 1976; 64 FR 45373, Aug. 19, 1999; 64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.66" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.66   Immunization of donors.</HEAD>
<P>If specific immunization of a donor is to be performed, the selection, scheduling and administration of the antigen, and the evaluation of each donor's clinical response, shall be by the responsible physician. Any material used for immunization shall be either a product licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act for such purpose or one specifically approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration. Immunization procedures shall be on file at each plasmapheresis center where immunizations are performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.67" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.67   Laboratory tests.</HEAD>
<P>Each unit of Source Plasma shall be tested for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections as required under § 610.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001, as amended at 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.68" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.68   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sterile system.</I> All administration and transfer sets inserted into blood containers used for processing Source Plasma intended for manufacturing into injectable or noninjectable products and all interior surfaces of plasma containers used for processing Source Plasma intended for manufacturing into injectable products shall be sterile, pyrogen-free, nontoxic, and compatible with the contents under normal conditions of use. Only Sodium Chloride Injection USP shall be used as a red blood cell diluent. If the method of separation of the plasma intended for injectable products involves a system in which an airway must be inserted into the plasma container, the airway shall be sterile and constructed so as to exclude microorganisms and maintain a sterile system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final containers.</I> Final containers used for Source Plasma, whether integrally attached or separated from the original blood container, shall not be entered prior to issuance for any purpose except for filling with the plasma. Such containers shall be uncolored and hermetically sealed, and shall permit clear visibility of the contents. Final containers and their components shall not interact with the plasma contents under conditions of storage and use so as to alter the safety, quality, purity, or potency of the plasma and shall provide adequate protection against external factors that may cause deterioration or contamination. Prior to filling, the final container shall be marked or identified by number or other symbol which will relate it directly to the donor. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preservative.</I> Source Plasma shall not contain a preservative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 10769, Mar. 12, 1976; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.69" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.69   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pooling.</I> Two units of Source Plasma from the same donor may be pooled if such units are collected during one plasmapheresis procedure: <I>Provided,</I> That the pooling is done by a procedure that does not introduce a risk of contamination of the red blood cells and, for plasma intended for injectable products, gives maximum assurance of a sterile container of plasma. 
</P>
<P>(1) The pooling of plasma from two or more donors is not permitted in the manufacture of Source Plasma intended for manufacturing into injectable products. 
</P>
<P>(2) The pooling of plasma from two or more donors by the manufacturer of Source Plasma intended for manufacturing into noninjectable products is permitted: <I>Provided,</I> That the plasma from two or more donors is pooled after the plasma has been removed from the red blood cells, and after the red blood cell containers are sealed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Storage.</I> Immediately after filling, plasma intended for manufacturing into injectable products shall be stored at a temperature not warmer than −20 °C, except for plasma collected as provided in § 640.74. Plasma intended for manufacturing into noninjectable products may be stored at temperatures appropriate for the intended use of the final product, provided these temperatures are included in the Source Plasma license application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inspection.</I> Source Plasma intended for manufacturing into injectable products shall be inspected for evidence of thawing at the time of issuance, except that inspection of individual plasma containers need not be made if the records of continuous monitoring of the storage temperature establish that the temperature remained at −20 °C or colder. If there is evidence that the storage temperature has not been maintained at −20 °C or colder, the plasma may be relabeled and issued as provided in § 640.76(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Samples.</I> If samples are provided, they shall meet the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to filling, all samples shall be marked or identified so as to relate them directly to the donor of that unit of plasma.
</P>
<P>(2) All samples shall be filled at the time the final product is prepared by the person who prepares the final product.
</P>
<P>(3) All samples shall be representative of the contents of the final product or be collected from the donor at the time of filling the collection container.
</P>
<P>(4) All samples shall be collected in a manner that does not contaminate the contents of the final container.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions on distribution.</I> Establishments must ensure that Source Plasma donated by paid donors not be used for further manufacturing into injectable products until the donor has a record of being found eligible to donate in accordance with § 630.10 of this chapter and a record of negative test results on all tests required under § 610.40(a) of this chapter on two occasions in the past 6 months.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hold.</I> Source Plasma donated by paid donors determined to be suitable for further manufacturing into injectable products must be held in quarantine for a minimum of 60 calendar days before it is released for further manufacturing. If, after placing a donation in quarantine under this section, the donor is subsequently deferred under § 610.41 of this chapter, or you subsequently determine a donor to be ineligible under § 630.10 of this chapter due to risk factors closely associated with exposure to, or clinical evidence of, infection due to a relevant transfusion-transmitted infection, you must not distribute quarantined donations from that donor for further manufacturing use to make an injectable product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 10769, Mar. 12, 1976; 41 FR 14367, Apr. 5, 1976; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 45374, Aug. 19, 1999; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.71" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.71   Manufacturing responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All steps in the manufacturing of Source Plasma, including donor examination, blood collection, plasmapheresis, laboratory testing, labeling, storage, and issuing shall be performed by personnel of the establishment licensed to manufacture Source Plasma, except that testing performed in accordance with § 610.40 of this chapter and § 640.65(b) may be performed by personnel of an establishment licensed for blood and blood derivatives under section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act, or by a clinical laboratory that meets the standards of the Clinical Laboratories Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) (42 U.S.C. 263a): <I>Provided,</I> The establishment or clinical laboratory is qualified to perform the assigned test(s).
</P>
<P>(b) Such testing shall not be considered divided manufacturing, which requires two biologics licenses for Source Plasma: <I>Provided,</I> That
</P>
<P>(1) The results of such tests are maintained by the licensed manufacturer of the Source Plasma whereby such results may be reviewed by a responsible physician as required in § 640.65(b)(2) of this chapter and by an authorized representative of the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Source Plasma manufacturer has obtained a written agreement that the testing laboratory will permit authorized representatives of the Food and Drug Administration to inspect its testing procedures and facilities during reasonable business hours. 
</P>
<P>(3) The testing laboratory will participate in any proficiency testing programs undertaken by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10770, Mar. 12, 1976, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 53 FR 117, Jan. 5, 1988; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 64 FR 45374, Aug. 19, 1999; 64 FR 56453, Oct. 20, 1999; 66 FR 1837, Jan. 10, 2001; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.72" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.72   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the recordkeeping requirements of this subchapter, the following records shall be maintained: 
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation shall be available to ensure that the shipping temperature requirements of § 600.15 of this title and of § 640.74(b)(2) are being met for Source Plasma intended for manufacture into injectable products.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For each donor, establishments must maintain records including a separate and complete record of initial and periodic examinations, tests, laboratory data, and interviews, etc., as required in §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter and §§ 640.65, 640.66, and 640.67, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Negative results for testing for evidence of infection due to relevant transfusion-transmitted infections required in § 610.40 of this chapter, and the volume or weight of plasma withdrawn from a donor need not be recorded on the individual donor record if such information is maintained on the premises of the plasmapheresis center where the donor's plasma has been collected.
</P>
<P>(3) The original or a clear copy or other durable record which may be electronic of the donor's consent for participation in the plasmapheresis program or for immunization.
</P>
<P>(4) Records of the medical history and physical examination of the donor conducted in accordance with § 630.15(b)(1) of this chapter and, where applicable, § 630.15(b)(5) of this chapter must document the eligibility of the donor as a plasmapheresis donor and, when applicable, as an immunized donor.
</P>
<P>(5) If plasma that is reactive to a serologic test for syphilis is issued as prescribed in § 640.65(b)(2)(iv), the distribution records shall indicate by number those units that are reactive. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each donor record must be directly cross-referenced to the unit(s) of Source Plasma associated with the donor. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a repeat donor is rejected or a donor's plasma is found unsuitable, the donor's record shall contain a full explanation for the rejection. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a donor has a reaction while on the plasmapheresis premises, or a donor reaction is reported to the center after the donor has left the premises, the donor's record shall contain a full explanation of the reaction, including the measures taken to assist the donor and the outcome of the incident.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10770, Mar. 12, 1976, as amended at 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 53 FR 117, Jan. 5, 1988; 64 FR 45374, Aug. 19, 1999; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 80 FR 29905, May 22, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.73" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.73   Reporting of fatal donor reactions.</HEAD>
<P>If a donor has a fatal reaction which, in any way, may be associated with plasmapheresis the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research shall be notified by telephone as soon as possible. If the facility is located outside of the continental United States, notification by cable or telegram shall be acceptable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10770, Mar. 12, 1976, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.74" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.74   Modification of Source Plasma.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon approval by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, of a supplement to the biologics license application for Source Plasma, a manufacturer may prepare Source Plasma as a liquid product for a licensed blood derivative manufacturer who has indicated a need for a liquid product.
</P>
<P>(b) Source Plasma Liquid shall meet all standards of the frozen Source Plasma except: 
</P>
<P>(1) Source Plasma Liquid shall be stored in nonleachable containers so that the containers and their components will not interact with the plasma contents under conditions of storage and use so as to alter the safety, quality, purity, or potency of the plasma and shall provide adequate protection against external factors that may cause deterioration or contamination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Source Plasma Liquid shall be shipped, stored and labeled for storage at a temperature of 10 °C or colder. An exception to the shipping or storage temperature shall be approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, based upon his receipt of substantial evidence to support another temperature. Such evidence may be submitted by either the licensed manufacturer of the Source Plasma Liquid or the manufacturer of the final blood derivative product who has requested the Source Plasma Liquid.
</P>
<P>(3) The label for the Source Plasma Liquid shall be easily distinguished from that of the frozen product. Color coding shall not be used for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(4) The label affixed to each container of Source Plasma Liquid shall contain, in addition to the information required by § 606.121 of this chapter, but excluding § 606.121(e)(5)(ii) of this chapter, the name of the manufacturer of the final blood derivative product for whom it was prepared.
</P>
<P>(5) Source Plasma Liquid shall be inspected immediately prior to issuance. If the color or physical appearance is abnormal, or there is any indication or suspicion of microbial contamination, the unit of Source Plasma Liquid shall not be issued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973. Redesignated and amended at 41 FR 10770, Mar. 12, 1976; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 59 FR 49351, Sept. 28, 1994; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 56454, Oct. 20, 1999; 77 FR 18, Jan. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.76" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.76   Products stored or shipped at unacceptable temperatures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Storage temperature.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, Source Plasma intended for manufacture into injectable products that is inadvertently exposed (i.e., an unforeseen occurrence in spite of compliance with good manufacturing practice) to a storage temperature warmer than −20 °C and colder than + 10 °C may be issued only if labeled as “Source Plasma Salvaged.” The label shall be revised before issuance, and appropriate records shall be maintained identifying the units involved, describing their disposition, and explaining fully the conditions that caused the inadvertent temperature exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) Source Plasma intended for manufacture into injectable products that is exposed inadvertently (i.e., an unforeseen occurrence in spite of compliance with good manufacturing practice) to one episode of storage temperature fluctuation that is warmer than −20 °C and colder than −5 °C for not more than 72 hours is exempt from the labeling requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, provided that the plasma has been and remains frozen solid. Appropriate records shall be maintained identifying the units involved, describing their disposition, explaining fully the conditions that caused the inadvertent temperature exposure, and documenting that the episode of temperature elevation did not exceed 72 hours, that the temperature did not rise to warmer than −5 °C in storage, and that the plasma remained frozen solid throughout the period of elevated temperature. When requested, copies of the records shall be provided to the plasma derivative manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Shipping temperature.</I> If Source Plasma for manufacture into injectable products is exposed inadvertently (i.e., an unforeseen occurrence in spite of compliance with good manufacturing practice) to a shipping temperature warmer than −5 °C and colder than + 10 °C, the plasma derivative manufacturer shall label it “Source Plasma Salvaged.” Appropriate records shall be maintained identifying the units involved, describing their disposition, and explaining fully the conditions that caused the inadvertent temperature exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relabeling.</I> If Source Plasma is required to be relabeled as “Source Plasma Salvaged” under paragraph (a)(1) or (b) of this section, the person responsible for the relabeling shall cover the original label with either (1) a complete new label containing the appropriate information or (2) a partial label affixed to the original label and containing the appropriate new information, which covers the incorrect information regarding storage temperature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 80501, Dec. 5, 1980, as amended at 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Albumin (Human)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.80" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.80   Albumin (Human).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of the product shall be Albumin (Human). The product is defined as a sterile solution of the albumin derived from human plasma.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source material.</I> The source material of Albumin (Human) shall be plasma recovered from Whole Blood prepared as prescribed in §§ 640.1 through 640.5, or Source Plasma prepared as prescribed in §§ 640.60 through 640.76.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additives in source material.</I> Source material shall not contain an additive unless it is shown that the processing method yields a final product free of the additive to such extent that the continued safety, purity, potency, and effectiveness of the final product will not be adversely affected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27582, May 31, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.81" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.81   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture shall be the date of final sterile filtration of a uniform pool of bulk solution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing method.</I> The processing method shall not affect the integrity of the product, and shall have been shown to yield consistently a product which is safe for intravenous injection. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Microbial contamination.</I> All processing steps shall be conducted in a manner to minimize the risk of contamination from microorganisms, pyrogens, or other impurities. Preservatives to inhibit growth of microorganisms shall not be used during processing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Storage of bulk fraction.</I> Bulk concentrate to be held more than 1 week prior to further processing shall be stored in clearly identified closed vessels at a temperature of −5 °C or colder. Any other bulk form of the product, exclusive of the sterile bulk solution, to be held more than 1 week prior to further processing shall be stored in clearly identified closed vessels at a temperature of 5 °C or colder. Any bulk fraction to be held one week or less prior to further processing shall be stored in clearly identified closed vessels at a temperature of 5 °C or colder. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Heat treatment.</I> Heating of the final containers of Albumin (Human) shall begin within 24 hours after completion of filling. Heat treatment shall be conducted so that the solution is heated continuously for not less than 10, or more than 11 hours, at an attained temperature of 60±0.5 °C. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Stabilizer.</I> Either 0.08±0.016 millimole sodium caprylate, or 0.08±0.016 millimole sodium acetyltryptophanate and 0.08±0.016 millimole sodium caprylate per gram of protein shall be present as a stabilizer(s). Calculations of the stabilizer concentration may employ the labeled value for the protein concentration of the product as referred to in § 640.84(d). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Incubation.</I> All final containers of Albumin (Human) shall be incubated at 20 to 35 °C for at least 14 days following the heat treatment prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section. At the end of this incubation period, each final container shall be examined and all containers showing any indication of turbidity or microbial contamination shall not be issued. The contents of turbid final containers shall be examined microscopically and tested for sterility. If growth occurs, organisms shall be identified as to genus, and the material from such containers shall not be used for further manufacturing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27582, May 31, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999; 65 FR 13679, Mar. 14, 2000; 65 FR 52018, Aug. 28, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.82" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.82   Tests on final product.</HEAD>
<P>Tests shall be performed on the final product to determine that it meets the following standards: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Protein concentration.</I> Final product shall conform to one of the following concentrations: 4.0 ±0.25 percent; 5.0 ±0.30 percent; 20.0 ±1.2 percent; and 25.0 ±1.5 percent solution of protein. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protein composition.</I> At least 96 percent of the total protein in the final product shall be albumin, as determined by a method that has been approved for each manufacturer by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>pH.</I> The pH shall be 6.9 ±0.5 when measured in a solution of the final product diluted to a concentration of 1 percent protein with 0.15 molar sodium chloride.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sodium concentration.</I> The sodium concentration of the final product shall be 130 to 160 milliequivalents per liter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Potassium concentration.</I> The potassium concentration of the final product shall not exceed 2 milliequivalents per liter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Heat stability.</I> A final container sample of Albumin (Human) shall remain unchanged, as determined by visual inspection, after heating at 57 °C for 50 hours, when compared to its control consisting of a sample, from the same lot, which has not undergone this heating.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27582, May 31, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.83" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.83   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preservative.</I> The final product shall not contain a preservative. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Storage of bulk solution.</I> After all processing steps have been completed, the sterile bulk solution shall be stored in a manner that will ensure the continued sterility of the product, and at a temperature that shall not exceed the recommended storage temperature of the final product prescribed in § 610.53 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27582, May 31, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.84" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.84   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the labeling requirements of §§ 610.60, 610.61, and 610.62 of this chapter, the container and package labels shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The osmotic equivalent in terms of plasma, and the sodium concentration in terms of a value or a range in milliequivalents per liter;
</P>
<P>(b) The cautionary statement placed in a prominent position on the label, “Do Not Use if Turbid. Do Not Begin Administration More Than 4 Hours After the Container Has Been Entered.”;
</P>
<P>(c) The need for additional fluids when 20 percent or 25 percent albumin is administered to a patient with marked dehydration; 
</P>
<P>(d) The protein concentration, expressed as a 4 percent, 5 percent, 20 percent, or 25 percent solution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27582, May 31, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 2244, Jan. 19, 1984; 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Plasma Protein Fraction (Human)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 27583, May 31, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 640.90" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.90   Plasma Protein Fraction (Human).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of the product shall be Plasma Protein Fraction (Human). The product is defined as a sterile solution of protein composed of albumin and globulin, derived from human plasma.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source material.</I> The source material of Plasma Protein Fraction (Human) shall be plasma recovered from Whole Blood prepared as prescribed in §§ 640.1 through 640.5, or Source Plasma prepared as prescribed in §§ 640.60 through 640.76.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additives in source material.</I> Source material shall not contain an additive unless it is shown that the processing method yields a final product free of the additive to such extent that the continued safety, purity, potency, and effectiveness of the final product will not be adversely affected. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27583, May 31, 1977, as amended at 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.91" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.91   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture shall be the date of final sterile filtration of a uniform pool of bulk solution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing method.</I> The processing method shall not affect the integrity of the product, and shall have been shown to yield consistently a product which: 
</P>
<P>(1) After the heating prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section does not show an increase in the components with electrophoretic mobility similar to that of alpha globulin that amounts to more than 5 percent of the total protein. 
</P>
<P>(2) Contains less than 5 percent protein with a sedimentation coefficient greater than 7.0 S.
</P>
<P>(3) Is safe for intravenous injection. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Microbial contamination.</I> All processing steps shall be conducted in a manner to minimize the risk of contamination from microorganisms, pyrogens, or other impurities. Preservatives to inhibit growth of microorganisms shall not be used during processing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Storage of bulk fraction.</I> Bulk concentrate to be held more than 1 week prior to further processing shall be stored in clearly identified closed vessels at a temperature of −5 °C or colder. Any other bulk form of the product (exclusive of the sterile bulk solution) to be held more than 1 week prior to further processing, shall be stored in clearly identified closed vessels at a temperature of 5 °C or colder. Any bulk fraction to be held one week or less prior to further processing shall be stored in clearly identified closed vessels at a temperature of 5 °C or colder. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Heat treatment.</I> Heating of the final containers of Plasma Protein Fraction (Human) shall begin within 24 hours after completion of filling. Heat treatment shall be conducted so that the solution is heated continuously for not less than 10 or more than 11 hours at an attained temperature of 60±0.5 °C.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Stabilizer.</I> Either 0.08±0.016 millimole sodium caprylate, or 0.08±0.016 millimole sodium acetyltryptophanate and 0.08±0.016 millimole sodium caprylate per gram of protein shall be present as a stabilizer(s). Calculations of the stabilizer concentration may employ the labeled value 5 percent for the protein concentration of the product.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Incubation.</I> All final containers of Plasma Protein Fraction (Human) shall be incubated at 20 to 35 °C for at least 14 days following the heat treatment prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section. At the end of this incubation period, each final container shall be examined and all containers showing any indication of turbidity or microbial contamination shall not be issued. The contents of turbid final containers shall be examined microscopically and tested for sterility. If growth occurs, the types of organisms shall be identified as to genus and the material from such containers shall not be used for further manufacturing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27583, May 31, 1977, as amended at 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.92" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.92   Tests on final product.</HEAD>
<P>Tests shall be performed on the final product to determine that it meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Protein concentration.</I> The final product shall be a 5.0 ±0.30 percent solution of protein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protein composition.</I> The total protein in the final product shall consist of at least 83 percent albumin, and no more than 17 percent globulins. No more than 1 percent of the total protein shall be gamma globulin. The protein composition shall be determined by a method that has been approved for each manufacturer by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>pH.</I> The pH shall be 7.0 ±0.3 when measured in a solution of the final product diluted to a concentration of 1 percent protein with 0.15 molar sodium chloride.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sodium concentration.</I> The sodium concentration of the final product shall be 130 to 160 milliequivalents per liter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Potassium concentration.</I> The potassium concentration of the final product shall not exceed 2 milliequivalents per liter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Heat stability.</I> A final container sample of Plasma Protein Fraction (Human) shall remain unchanged, as determined by visual inspection, after heating at 57 °C for 50 hours, when compared to its control consisting of a sample, from the same lot, which has not undergone this heating.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27583, May 31, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999; 65 FR 13679, Mar. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.93" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.93   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preservative.</I> The final product shall not contain a preservative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Storage of bulk solution.</I> After all processing steps have been completed, the sterile bulk solution shall be stored in a manner that will ensure the continued sterility of the product, and at a temperature that shall not exceed the recommended storage temperature of the final product prescribed in § 610.53 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.94" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.94   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the labeling requirements of §§ 610.60, 610.61, and 610.62 of this chapter, the container and package labels shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The osmotic equivalent in terms of plasma, and the sodium concentration in terms of a value or a range in milliequivalents per liter.
</P>
<P>(b) The cautionary statement placed in a prominent position on the label, “Do Not Use if Turbid. Do Not Begin Administration More than 4 Hours After the Container Has Been Entered.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27583, May 31, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 2244, Jan. 19, 1984; 64 FR 26286, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Immune Globulin (Human)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.100" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.100   Immune Globulin (Human).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this product shall be Immune Globulin (Human). The product is defined as a sterile solution containing antibodies derived from human plasma.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source material.</I> The source material of Immune Globulin (Human) shall be plasma recovered from Whole Blood prepared as prescribed in §§ 640.1 through 640.5, or Source Plasma prepared as prescribed in §§ 640.60 through 640.76.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additives in source material.</I> The source material shall contain no additives other than citrate or acid citrate dextrose anticoagulant solution, unless it is shown that the processing method yields a product free of the additive to such an extent that the safety, purity, and potency of the product will not be affected adversely.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 64 FR 26287, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.101" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.101   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Heat stability test.</I> Approximately 2 ml. of completely processed material of each lot shall not show any visible sign of gelation after heating in a 12 × 75 mm. stoppered glass tube at 57 °C for 4 hours. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>pH.</I> The pH of final container material shall be 6.8 ±0.4 when measured in a solution diluted to 1 percent protein with 0.15 molar sodium chloride. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Turbidity.</I> The product shall be free of turbidity as determined by visual inspection of final containers. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture is the date of initiating the last valid measles or poliomyelitis antibody test (§ 640.104(b) (2) and (3)) whichever date is earlier. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Labeling.</I> In addition to complying with all applicable labeling required in this subchapter, labeling shall indicate that: 
</P>
<P>(1) There is no prescribed potency for viral hepatitis antibodies. 
</P>
<P>(2) The product is not recommended for intravenous administration. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973; 48 FR 13026, Mar. 29, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 51 FR 15611, Apr. 25, 1986; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 26287, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.102" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.102   Manufacture of Immune Globulin (Human).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing method.</I> The processing method shall be one that has been shown: (1) To be capable of concentrating tenfold from source material at least two different antibodies; (2) not to affect the integrity of the globulins; (3) to consistently yield a product which is safe for subcutaneous and intramuscular injection and (4) not to transmit viral hepatitis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Microbial contamination.</I> Low temperatures or aseptic techniques shall be used to minimize contamination by microorganisms. Preservatives to inhibit growth of microorganisms shall not be used during processing. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bulk storage.</I> The globulin fraction may be stored in bulk prior to further processing provided it is stored in clearly identified hermetically closed vessels. Globulin as either a liquid concentrate or a solid and containing alcohol or more than 5 percent moisture shall be stored at a temperature of −10 °C or lower. Globulin as a solid free from alcohol and containing less than 5 percent moisture, shall be stored at a temperature of 0 °C or lower. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of the lot.</I> Each lot of Immune Globulin (Human) shall represent a pooling of approximately equal amounts of material from not less than 1,000 donors. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sterilization and heating.</I> The final product shall be sterilized promptly after solution. At no time during processing shall the product be exposed to temperatures above 45 °C, and after sterilization the product shall not be exposed to temperatures above 32 °C for more than 72 hours. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 26287, May 14, 1999; 65 FR 13679, Mar. 14, 2000; 65 FR 52018, Aug. 28, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.103" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.103   The final product.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Final solution.</I> The final product shall be a 16.5 ±1.5 percent solution of globulin containing 0.3 molar glycine and a preservative. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protein composition.</I> At least 96 percent of the total protein shall be immunoglobulin G (IgG), as determined by a method that has been approved for each manufacturer by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 64 FR 26287, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.104" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.104   Potency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Antibody levels and tests.</I> Each lot of final product shall contain at least the minimum levels of antibodies for diphtheria, measles, and for at least one type of poliomyelitis. In the event the final bulk solution is stored at a temperature above 5 °C the antibody level tests shall be performed after such storage with a sample of the stored material. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum levels.</I> The minimum antibody levels are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) No less than 2 units of diphtheria antitoxin per ml. 
</P>
<P>(2) A measles neutralizing antibody level that, when compared with that of a reference material designated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), Food and Drug Administration, as indicated in paragraph (c) of this section, demonstrates adequate potency. The Director, CBER, shall notify manufacturers when a new reference material will be used and will advise manufacturers of an appropriate antibody level taking into account a comparison of the new reference material to the previous reference material.
</P>
<P>(3) A poliomyelitis Type 1, Type 2, or Type 3 neutralizing antibody level that, when compared with that of a reference material designated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, as indicated in paragraph (c) of this section, demonstrates adequate potency. The Director, CBER, shall notify manufacturers when a new reference material will be used and will advise manufacturers of an appropriate antibody level taking into account a comparison of the new reference material to the previous reference material.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reference materials.</I> The following reference materials shall be obtained from the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research: 
</P>
<P>(1) Reference Immune Globulin for correlation of measles antibody titers.
</P>
<P>(2) Reference Immune Globulin for correlation of poliomyelitis antibody titers, Types 1, 2, and 3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32089, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 9661, Mar. 13, 1974; 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 50 FR 4140, Jan. 29, 1985; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 63 FR 16685, Apr. 6, 1998; 64 FR 26287, May 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Alternative Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.120" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.120   Alternative procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, may issue an exception or alternative to any requirement in subchapter F of chapter I of title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations regarding blood, blood components, or blood products. The Director may issue such an exception or alternative in response to:
</P>
<P>(1) A written request from an establishment. Licensed establishments must submit such requests in accordance with § 601.12 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) An oral request from an establishment, if there are difficult circumstances and submission of a written request is not feasible. Establishments must follow up such oral request by submitting written requests under paragraph (a)(1) of this section within 5 working days.
</P>
<P>(b) To respond to a public health need, the Director may issue a notice of exception or alternative to any requirement in subchapter F of chapter I of title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations regarding blood, blood components, or blood products, if a variance under this section is necessary to assure that blood, blood components, or blood products will be available in a specified location or locations to address an urgent and immediate need for blood, blood components, or blood products or to provide for appropriate donor screening and testing.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Director issues such an exception or alternative orally, the Director will follow up by issuing a written notice of the exception or alternative. Periodically, FDA will provide a list of approved exceptions and alternative procedures on the FDA Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research Web site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29906, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Definitions and Medical Supervision</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 29906, May 22, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 640.125" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.125   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions set out in § 630.3 of this chapter apply to the use of those defined terms in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 640.130" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.7.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 640.130   Medical supervision.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements for medical supervision established in § 630.5 of this chapter supplement the regulations in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="660" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 660—ADDITIONAL STANDARDS FOR DIAGNOSTIC SUBSTANCES FOR LABORATORY TESTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360c, 360d, 360h, 360i, 371, 372; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263, 263a, 264.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For U.S. Customs Service regulations relating to viruses, serums, and toxins, see 19 CFR 12.21-12.23. For U.S. Postal Service regulations relating to the admissibility to the United States mails see parts 124 and 125 of the Domestic Mail Manual, that is incorporated by reference in 39 CFR part 111.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Antibody to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.1   Antibody to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this product shall be Antibody to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen. The product is defined as a preparation of serum containing antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> The source of this product shall be plasma or blood, obtained aseptically from animals immunized with hepatitis B surface antigen, which have met the applicable requirements of § 600.11 of this chapter, or from human donor whose blood is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 29711, July 15, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.2   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing.</I> The processing method shall be one that has been shown to consistently yield a specific and potent final product free of properties which would adversely affect the test results when the product is tested by the methods recommended by the manufacturer in the package enclosure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ancillary reagents and materials.</I> All ancillary reagents and materials supplied in the package with the product shall meet generally accepted standards of purity and quality and shall be effectively segregated and otherwise manufactured in a manner (such as heating at 60 °C. for 10 hours) that will reduce the risk of contaminating the product and other biological products. Ancillary reagents and materials accompanying the product which are used in the performance of the test as described by the manufacturer's recommended test procedures shall have been shown not to adversely affect the product within the prescribed dating period. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> (1) In addition to the items required by other applicable labeling provisions of this subchapter, the following shall also be included:
</P>
<P>(i) Indication of the source of the product immediately following the proper name on both the final container and package label, <I>e.g.,</I> human, guinea pig.
</P>
<P>(ii) Name of the test method(s) recommended for the product on the package label and on the final container label when capable of bearing a full label (see § 610.60(a) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning on the package label and on the final container label if capable of bearing a full label (see § 610.60(a) of this chapter) indicating that the product and antigen if supplied, shall be handled as if capable of transmitting hepatitis.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the product is dried, the final container label shall indicate “Reconstitution date: ___” and a statement indicating the period within which the product may be used after reconstitution.
</P>
<P>(v) The package shall include a package enclosure providing:
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of all recommended test methods; and
</P>
<P>(C) Warnings as to possible hazards, including hepatitis, in handling the product and any ancillary reagents and materials accompanying the product.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant may provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) A symbol accompanied by explanatory text adjacent to the symbol;
</P>
<P>(ii) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(B) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);
</P>
<P>(B) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;
</P>
<P>(C) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(D) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and
</P>
<P>(E) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used.
</P>
<P>(3) The use of symbols to provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (<I>i.e.,</I> open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:
</P>
<P>(A) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(B) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;
</P>
<P>(C) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and
</P>
<P>(D) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final container.</I> A final container shall be sufficiently transparent to permit visual inspection of the contents for presence of particulate matter and increased turbidity. The effectiveness of the contents of a final container shall be maintained throughout its dating period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture of Antibody to Hepatitis B surface Antigen that has been iodinated with radioactive iodine (
<SU>125</SU>I) shall be the day of labeling the antibody with the radionuclide. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retention samples.</I> Each manufacturer shall retain representative samples of the product in accordance with § 600.13 of this chapter except for that which has been iodinated with radioactive iodine. Retention samples of Antibody to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen iodinated with 
<SU>125</SU>I shall consist of a minimum of two complete finished packages of each lot of the diagnostic test kit and shall be retained for a period of at least 90 days from the date of manufacture.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32098, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 29711, July 15, 1975; 46 FR 36134, July 14, 1981; 49 FR 1684, Jan. 13, 1984; 81 FR 38924, June 15, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.3   Reference panel.</HEAD>
<P>A Reference Hepatitis B Surface Antigen Panel shall be obtained from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Reagents and Standards Shipping, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. G704, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002 and shall be used for determining the potency and specificity of Antibody to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 29711, July 15, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.4" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.4   Potency test.</HEAD>
<P>To be satisfactory for release, each filling of Antibody to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen shall be tested against the Reference Hepatitis B Surface Antigen Panel and shall be sufficiently potent to detect the antigen in the appropriate sera of the reference panel by all test methods recommended by the manufacturer in the package insert.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 29711, July 15, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.5" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.5   Specificity.</HEAD>
<P>Each filling of the product shall be specific for antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen, as determined by specificity tests found acceptable by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 29712, July 15, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.6" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.6   Samples; protocols; official release.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Samples.</I> (1) For the purposes of this section, a sample of product not iodinated with 
<SU>125</SU>I means a sample from each filling of each lot packaged as for distribution, including all ancillary reagents and materials; and a sample of product iodinated with 
<SU>125</SU>I means a sample from each lot of diagnostic test kits in a finished package, including all ancillary reagents and materials. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, determines that the reliability and consistency of the finished product can be assured with a smaller quantity of sample or no sample and specifically reduces or eliminates the required quantity of sample, each manufacturer shall submit the following samples to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter), within 5 working days after the manufacturer has satisfactorily completed all tests on the samples: 
</P>
<P>(i) One sample until written notification of official release is no longer required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) One sample at periodic intervals of 90 days, beginning after written notification of official release is no longer required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The sample submitted at the 90-day interval shall be from the first lot or filling, as applicable, released by manufacturer, under the requirements of § 610.1 of this chapter, after the end of the previous 90-day interval. The sample shall be identified as “surveillance sample” and shall include the date of manufacture. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Samples may at any time be required to be submitted to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, if the Director finds that continued evaluation is necessary to ensure the potency, quality, and reliability of the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protocols.</I> For each sample submitted as required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the manufacturer shall send a protocol that consists of a summary of the history of manufacture of the product, including all results of each test for which test results are requested by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research. The protocols submitted with the samples at periodic intervals as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section shall be identified by the manufacturer as “surveillance test results.” 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official release.</I> (1) The manufacturer shall not distribute the product until written notification of official release is received from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Official release is required for samples from at least five consecutive lots or fillings, as applicable, manufactured after licensure of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) After written notification of official release is received from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, for at least five consecutive lots or fillings, as applicable, manufactured after licensure of the product, and after the manufacturer receives from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, written notification that official release is no longer required, subsequent lots or fillings may be released by the manufacturer under the requirements of § 610.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer shall not distribute lots or fillings, as applicable, of products that required sample submission under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section until written notification of official release or notification that official release is no longer required is received from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 20407, May 6, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 51 FR 15611, Apr. 25, 1986; 55 FR 11013, 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Blood Grouping Reagent</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 12764, Apr. 19, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 660.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.20   Blood Grouping Reagent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this product shall be Blood Grouping Reagent and it shall consist of an antibody-containing fluid containing one or more of the blood grouping antibodies listed in § 660.28(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> The source of this product shall be blood, plasma, serum, or protein-rich fluids, such as those derived from stable immunoglobulin-secreting cell lines maintained either in tissue cultures or in secondary hosts. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 12764, Apr. 19, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 77499, Dec. 12, 2000; 81 FR 38925, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.21" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.21   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing method.</I> (1) The processing method shall be one that has been shown to yield consistently a specific, potent final product, free of properties that would affect adversely the intended use of the product throughout its dating period. Stability testing shall be performed on an adequate number of representative samples of each group of products manufactured in the same fashion.
</P>
<P>(2) Only that material that has been fully processed, thoroughly mixed in a single vessel, and filtered shall constitute a lot.
</P>
<P>(3) A lot may be subdivided into sublots. If lots are to be subdivided, the manufacturer shall include this information in the biologics license application. The manufacturer shall describe the test specifications to verify that each sublot is identical to other sublots of the lot.
</P>
<P>(4) Each lot of Blood Grouping Reagent shall be identified by a lot number. Each sublot shall be identified by that lot number to which a distinctive prefix or suffix shall be added. Final container and package labels shall bear the lot number and all distinctive prefixes and suffixes that have been applied to identify the sublot from which filling was accomplished.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Color coding of reagents.</I> Blood Grouping Reagents may be colored provided the added colorant does not adversely affect the safety, purity, or potency of the product and the colorant is approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final containers and dropper assemblies.</I> Final containers and dropper pipettes shall be colorless and sufficiently transparent to permit observation of the contents to detect particulate matter or increased turbidity during use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Volume of final product.</I> Each manufacturer shall identify the possible final container volumes in the biologics license application.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture shall be the date the manufacturer begins the last entire group of potency tests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 12764, Apr. 19, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 56454, Oct. 20, 1999; 65 FR 77499, Dec. 12, 2000; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.22" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.22   Potency requirements with reference preparations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potency requirements.</I> Products for which reference Blood Grouping Reagents are available shall have a potency titer value at least equal to that of the reference preparation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reference preparations.</I> Reference Blood Grouping Reagents shall be obtained from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Reagents and Standards Shipping, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. G704, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, and shall be used as described in the accompanying package insert for determining the potency of Blood Grouping Reagents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 12764, Apr. 19, 1988, as amended at 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.25" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.25   Potency tests without reference preparations.</HEAD>
<P>Products for which Reference Blood Grouping Reagents are not available shall be tested for potency by a method approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Potency requirements.</I> Blood Grouping Reagents recommended for the test tube methods, including the indirect antiglobulin tests, shall have the following potency titer values, unless other values are approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(1) For Anti-K, Anti-k
<AC T="8"/>, Anti-Jk 
<SU>a</SU>, Anti-Fy 
<SU>a</SU>, Anti-C 
<SU>w</SU>, at least 1 + reaction with a 1:8 dilution of the reagent.
</P>
<P>(2) For Anti-S, Anti-s
<AC T="8"/>, Anti-P<E T="52">1</E>, Anti-M, Anti-I, Anti-e (saline), Anti-c
<AC T="8"/> (saline), and Anti-A<E T="52">1</E>, at least 1 + reaction with a 1:4 dilution of the reagent.
</P>
<P>(3) For Anti-U, Anti-Kp
<SU>a</SU>, Anti-Kp
<SU>b</SU>, Anti-Js
<SU>a</SU>, Anti-Js
<SU>b</SU>, Anti-Fy
<SU>b</SU>, Anti-N, Anti-Le
<SU>a</SU>, Anti-Le
<SU>b</SU>, Anti-Lu
<SU>a</SU>, Anti-Lu
<SU>b</SU>, Anti-Di
<SU>a</SU>, Anti-M
<SU>g</SU>, Anti-Jk
<SU>b</SU>, Anti-Co
<SU>b</SU>, Anti-Wr
<SU>a</SU>, and Anti-Xg
<SU>a</SU>, at least 2 + reaction with undiluted reagent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Products recommended for slide tests or microplate techniques.</I> Blood Grouping Reagent recommended for slide test methods or microplate techniques shall produce clearly positive macroscopic results when both undiluted reagent and reagent diluted with an equal volume of diluent are tested by all methods recommended in the manufacturer's package insert using red blood cells showing heterozygous or diminished expression of the corresponding antigen. The dilution shall be made with an equal volume of compatible serum or approved diluent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Products recomended for use in an automated system.</I> The manufacturer of Blood Grouping Reagent that is recommended for use in an automated system shall demonstrate that its product when used both undiluted and diluted with an equal volume of diluent satisfactorily performs when tested with cells representing heterozygous or diminished expression of the corresponding antigen.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 12764, Apr. 19, 1988, as amended at 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.26" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.26   Specificity tests and avidity tests.</HEAD>
<P>Specificity and avidity tests shall be performed using test procedures approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 12764, Apr. 19, 1988, as amended at 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.28" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.28   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the applicable labeling requirements of §§ 610.62 through 610.65 and § 809.10 of this chapter, and in lieu of the requirements in §§ 610.60 and 610.61 of this chapter, the following requirements shall be met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Final container label</I>—(i) <I>Color coding.</I> The final container label of all Blood Grouping Reagents shall be completely white, except that all or a portion of the final container label of the following Blood Grouping Reagents may be color coded with the specified color which shall be a visual match to a specific color sample designated by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research. Printing on all final container labels shall be in solid black. A logo or company name may be placed on the final container label; however, the logo or company name shall be located along the bottom or end of the label, outside the main panel.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Blood grouping reagent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Color of
<br/>label paper
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yellow.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Slide and rapid tube test blood grouping reagents only:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Anti-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pink.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Anti-D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gray.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Anti-E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brown.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Anti-CDE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orange.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Anti-c
<AC T="8"/></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lavender.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Anti-e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Required information.</I> The proper name “Blood Grouping Reagent” need not appear on the final container label provided the final container is distributed in a package and the package label bears the proper name. The final container label shall bear the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of the antibody or antibodies present as set forth in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Name, address (including ZIP code), and license number of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(C) Lot number, including sublot designations.
</P>
<P>(D) Expiration date.
</P>
<P>(E) Source of product if other than human plasma or serum.
</P>
<P>(F) Test method(s) recommended.
</P>
<P>(G) Recommended storage temperature in degrees Celsius.
</P>
<P>(H) Volume of product if a liquid, or equivalent volume for a dried product if it is to be reconstituted.
</P>
<P>(I) If a dried product, to remind users to record the reconstitution date on the label, the statement “RECONSTITUTION DATE ___. EXPIRES 1 YEAR AFTER RECONSTITUTION DATE.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lettering size.</I> The type size for the specificity of the antibody designation on the labels of a final container with a capacity of less than 5 milliliters shall be not less than 12 point. The type size for the specificity of the antibody designations on the label of a container with a capacity of 5 milliliters or more shall be not less than 18 point.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Visual inspection.</I> When the label has been affixed to the final container, a sufficient area of the container shall remain uncovered for its full length or no less than 5 millimeters of the lower circumference to permit inspection of the contents. The label on a final product container for antibodies Anti-c, Anti-k, or Anti-s shall display a bar immediately over the specificity letter used in the name, <I>i.e.,</I> Anti-c
<AC T="8"/>, Anti-k
<AC T="8"/>, or Anti-s
<AC T="8"/>.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Package label.</I> The following information shall appear either on the package label or on the final container label if it is visible within the package.
</P>
<P>(i) Proper name of the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Name of the antibody or antibodies present as set forth in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Name, address (including ZIP Code), and license number of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(iv) Lot number, including sublot designations.
</P>
<P>(v) Expiration date.
</P>
<P>(vi) Preservative used and its concentration.
</P>
<P>(vii) Number of containers, if more than one.
</P>
<P>(viii) Volume or equivalent volume for dried products when reconstituted, and precautions for adequate mixing when reconstituting.
</P>
<P>(ix) Recommended storage temperature in degrees Celsius.
</P>
<P>(x) Source of the product if other than human serum or plasma.
</P>
<P>(xi) Reference to enclosed package insert.
</P>
<P>(xii) If a dried product, a statement indicating the period within which the product may be used after reconstitution.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The statement: “FOR IN VITRO DIAGNOSTIC USE.”
</P>
<P>(xiv) The statement: “MEETS FDA POTENCY REQUIREMENTS.”
</P>
<P>(xv) If human blood was used in manufacturing the product, the statement: “CAUTION: ALL BLOOD PRODUCTS SHOULD BE TREATED AS POTENTIALLY INFECTIOUS. SOURCE MATERIAL FROM WHICH THIS PRODUCT WAS DERIVED WAS FOUND NEGATIVE WHEN TESTED IN ACCORDANCE WITH CURRENT FDA REQUIRED TESTS. NO KNOWN TEST METHODS CAN OFFER ASSURANCE THAT PRODUCTS DERIVED FROM HUMAN BLOOD WILL NOT TRANSMIT INFECTIOUS AGENTS.”
</P>
<P>(xvi) A statement of an observable indication of an alteration of the product, <I>e.g.,</I> turbidity, color change, precipitate, that may indicate possible deterioration of the product.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Package insert.</I> Each final container of Blood Grouping Reagent shall be accompanied by a package insert meeting the requirements of § 809.10. If two or more final containers requiring identical package inserts are placed in a single package, only one package insert per package is required.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Names of antibodies.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Blood Group Designation for Container Label
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Jk
<sup>b</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-A<E T="52">1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Js
<sup>a</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-A, B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Js
<sup>b</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-A and B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-K
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-k
<AC T="8"/>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Kp
<sup>a</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-C
<sup>w</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Kp
<sup>b</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti- c
<AC T="8"/></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Le
<sup>a</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-CD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Le
<sup>b</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-CDE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Lu
<sup>a</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-Co
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Lu
<sup>b</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-M
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-DE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-M
<sup>g</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-Di
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-N
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-P<E T="52">1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-S
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-Fy
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-s
<AC T="8"/>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-Fy
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-U
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Wr
<sup>a</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-Jk
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anti-Xg
<sup>a</sup></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The applicant may provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) A symbol accompanied by explanatory text adjacent to the symbol;
</P>
<P>(2) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used; or
</P>
<P>(3) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of symbols in device labeling to provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section which do not meet the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (<I>i.e.,</I> open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:
</P>
<P>(i) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;
</P>
<P>(iii) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 38925, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Reagent Red Blood Cells</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 37450, Oct. 7, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 660.30" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.30   Reagent Red Blood Cells.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of the product shall be Reagent Red Blood Cells, which shall consist of a preparation of human red blood cells used to detect or identify human blood-group antibodies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> Reagent Red Blood Cells shall be prepared from human peripheral blood meeting the criteria of §§ 660.31 and 660.32 of this chapter, or from umbilical cord cells which shall be collected and prepared according to the manufacturer's biologics license application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37450, Oct. 7, 1987, as amended at 64 FR 56454, Oct. 20, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.31" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.31   Eligibility of donor.</HEAD>
<P>Donors of peripheral blood for Reagent Red Blood Cells must meet all the criteria for donor eligibility under §§ 630.10 and 630.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 29906, May 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.32" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.32   Collection of source material.</HEAD>
<P>Blood for Reagent Red Blood Cells from donors of peripheral blood shall be collected as prescribed under § 640.4 of this chapter, except that paragraphs (c), (d), (g), and (h) of § 640.4 shall not apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.33" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.33   Testing of source material.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this section, a sample of each blood incorporated into the Reagent Red Blood Cell product shall be individually tested, with no fewer than two donor sources of each antibody specificity employed, to confirm the identification of all blood group antigens specified in the labeling as present or absent. The manufacturer shall perform at least one of the required tests for each factor. The Reagent Red Blood Cell product may be tested with a single donor source of antibody specificity if only one source of antibody is available, and the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, has approved the use of a single donor source of antiserum. Each of these tests shall be conducted and interpreted independently, and any discrepancy between the results of these two tests shall be resolved by testing with at least one additional antiserum before concluding that the antigen is present or absent. Where fewer than three donor sources of an antibody specificity are available, test discrepancies shall be resolved in accordance with the manufacturer's biologics license application. Group O Reagent Red Blood Cells used in the detection or identification of unexpected antibodies shall include at least the following common antigens in each lot of the product: D, C, E, c
<AC T="8"/>, e, K, k
<AC T="8"/>, Fy
<SU>a</SU>, Fy
<SU>b</SU>, Jk
<SU>a</SU>, Jk
<SU>b</SU>, Le
<SU>a</SU>, Le
<SU>b</SU>, P<E T="52">1</E>, M, N, S, and s
<AC T="8"/>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37450, Oct. 7, 1987, as amended at 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 64 FR 56454, Oct. 20, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.34" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.34   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing method.</I> The processing method shall be one that has been shown to yield consistently a product that is capable of detecting, throughout the dating period, alloantibodies corresponding to all required blood group antigens specified in the labeling as present.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Products prepared from pooled red blood cells.</I> If the product is recommended for the detection of unexpected antibodies, the pool shall be prepared by combining equal amounts of cells from no more than two donors. Umbilical cord cells are exempt from this requirement. Pooled cells shall not be recommended for pretransfusion tests, done in lieu of a major crossmatch, to detect unexpected antibodies in patients' samples. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Absence of antibodies.</I> Each lot of final product shall be free of demonstrable antibodies, including anti-A and anti-B, unless the package insert and container lable include instructions to wash the cells before use. The final product shall also be direct antiglobulin test negative when tested with polyspecific anti-human globulin.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final container.</I> The final containers used for each lot of product shall be clean and shall permit observation of the contents for hemolysis or a change in color. The final container label, container cap, and dropper bulb of a Reagent Red Blood Cell product may be color-coded with a visual match to a specific color approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture of the product shall be the date that the blood is withdrawn from the donor or obtained from umbilical cords. The period during which the reagent red blood cell source material is kept by the manufacturer in storage in a frozen state at −65 °C or colder is excluded from the dating period. If the product consists of red blood cells from two or more donors, the date of manufacture of the final product shall be the date of withdrawal of blood from the donor of the oldest constituent blood. When a product consists of more than one container, e.g., cell panel, the date of manufacture of each container of the product shall be the earliest date that blood was withdrawn from a donor for any container of the product.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retention samples.</I> Retention samples shall be maintained as required by § 600.13 of this chapter, except that samples must be retained only throughout the dating period of the product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37450, Oct. 7, 1987, as amended at 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.35" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.35   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the items required by § 809.10 of this chapter and other applicable labeling provisions of this chapter, the following information shall be included in the labeling:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A logo or company name may be placed on the final container label, however, the logo or company name shall be located along the bottom or end of the label, outside of the main panel.
</P>
<P>(ii) If washing the cells is required by the manufacturer, the container label shall include appropriate instructions; if the cells should not be washed before use, <I>e.g.,</I> if washing will adversely affect the product, the package insert shall explain.
</P>
<P>(2) The container label of Group O cells shall state:
</P>
<P>“FOR USE IN DETECTION OF UNEXPECTED ANTIBODIES” or “FOR USE IN IDENTIFICATION OF UNEXPECTED ANTIBODIES” or “NOT FOR USE IN DETECTION OR IDENTIFICATION OF UNEXPECTED ANTIBODIES”.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in this section, the container and package labels shall state the percentage of red blood cells in the suspension either as a discrete figure with a variance of more than [±] 1 percentage unit or as a range the extremes of which differ by no more than 2 percentage units. If the stated red blood cell concentration is less than 2 percent, the variance shall be no more than [±] 0.5 percentage unit.
</P>
<P>(4) The words “pooled cells” shall appear on the container and package labels of products prepared from pooled cells. The package label or package insert shall state that pooled cells are not recommended for pre-transfusion tests, done in lieu of a major crossmatch, to detect unexpected antibodies in patients' samples.
</P>
<P>(5) The package insert of a pooled product intended for detection of unexpected antibodies shall identify the number of donors contributing to the pool. Products designed exclusively for ABO Serum Grouping and umbilical cord cells need not identify the number of donors in the pool.
</P>
<P>(6) When the product is a multicontainer product, <I>e.g.,</I> a cell panel, the container label and package label shall be assigned the same identifying lot number, and shall also bear a number or symbol to distinguish one container from another. Such number or symbol shall also appear on the antigenic constitution matrix.
</P>
<P>(7) The package label or package insert shall state the blood group antigens that have been tested for and found present or absent on the cells of each donor, or refer to such information in an accompanying antigenic constitution matrix. Cells for ABO Serum Grouping are exempt from this requirement. The package insert or antigen constitution matrix shall list each of the antigens tested with only one source of antibody.
</P>
<P>(8) The package label or package insert shall bear the cautionary statement: “The reactivity of the product may decrease during the dating period.”
</P>
<P>(9) The package insert of a product intended for the detection or identification of unexpected antibodies shall note that the rate at which antigen reactivity (<I>e.g.,</I> agglutinability) is lost is partially dependent upon individual donor characteristics that are neither controlled nor predicted by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(10) The package insert shall provide adequate directions for use.
</P>
<P>(11) The package insert shall bear the statement:
</P>
<P>“CAUTION: ALL BLOOD PRODUCTS SHOULD BE TREATED AS POTENTIALLY INFECTIOUS. SOURCE MATERIAL FROM WHICH THIS PRODUCT WAS DERIVED WAS FOUND NEGATIVE WHEN TESTED IN ACCORDANCE WITH CURRENT FDA REQUIRED TESTS. NO KNOWN TEST METHODS CAN OFFER ASSURANCE THAT PRODUCTS DERIVED FROM HUMAN BLOOD WILL NOT TRANSMIT INFECTIOUS AGENTS.”
</P>
<P>(12) The package insert or the antigenic constitution matrix for each lot of product shall specify the date of manufacture or the length of the dating period.
</P>
<P>(13) Manufacturers shall identify with a permanent donor code in the product labeling each donor of peripheral blood used for detection or identification of unexpected antibodies.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant may provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) A symbol accompanied by explanatory text adjacent to the symbol;
</P>
<P>(2) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used; or
</P>
<P>(3) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of symbols in device labeling to provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (<I>i.e.,</I> open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:
</P>
<P>(i) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;
</P>
<P>(iii) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 38926, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.36" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.36   Samples and protocols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following shall be submitted to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research Sample Custodian (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter), within 30 days after each routine establishment inspection by FDA.
</P>
<P>(1) From a lot of final product, samples from a cell panel intended for identification of unexpected antibodies. The sample shall be packaged as for distribution and shall have at least 14 days remaining in the dating period when shipped to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(2) A protocol which shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Complete test records of at least two donors of the samples submitted, including original and confirmation phenotyping records.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bleeding records or receipt records which indicate collection date, volume, and HBsAg test results.
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacturing records which document all steps involved in the preparation of the product.
</P>
<P>(iv) Test results which verify that the final product meets specifications.
</P>
<P>(v) Identity test results.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the antigenic constitution matrix specifying the antigens present or absent shall be submitted to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter), at the time of initial distribution of each lot of Reagent Red Blood Cells for detection or identification of unexpected antibodies. Products designed exclusively to identify Anti-A, Anti-A<E T="52">1</E>, and Anti-B, as well as products composed entirely of umbilical cord cells, are excluded from this requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) Except for umbilical cord samples, whenever a new donor is used, a sample of red blood cells from each new donor used in a cell panel intended for the identification of unexpected antibodies shall be submitted by the manufacturer to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter). The sample should contain a minimum volume of 0.5 milliliter of red blood cells.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37450, Oct. 7, 1987, as amended at 55 FR 11013, 11015, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Hepatitis B Surface Antigen</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 36382, June 22, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 660.40" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.40   Hepatitis B Surface Antigen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this product shall be Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HBsAg), which shall consist of a serum or tissue preparation containing one or more subtypes of the Hepatitis B Surface Antigen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> The source of the product shall be blood, plasma, serum, or tissue, obtained aseptically from nonhuman primates that have met the applicable requirements of § 600.11 of this chapter, or from human donors whose blood is positive for the Hepatitis B Surface Antigen.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.41" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.41   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method.</I> The processing method shall be one that has been shown to yield consistently a specific and potent final product, free of properties which would adversely affect the test results when the product is tested by the methods recommended by the manufacturer in the package insert. The product and all ancillary reagents and materials supplied in the package with the product shall be manufactured in a manner that will reduce the risk of transmitting type B viral hepatitis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ancillary reagents and materials.</I> All ancillary reagents and materials supplied in the package with the product shall meet generally accepted standards of purity and quality and shall be effectively segregated and otherwise manufactured in a manner that will reduce the risk of contaminating the product and other biological products. Ancillary reagents and materials accompanying the product, which are used in the performance of the test as described by the manufacturer's recommended test procedures, shall have been shown not to affect adversely the product within the prescribed dating period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final container.</I> A final container shall be sufficiently transparent to permit visual inspection of the contents for presence of particulate matter and increased turbidity. The effectiveness of the contents of a final container shall be maintained throughout its dating period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture of Hepatitis B Surface Antigen that has been iodinated with radioactive iodine (
<SU>125</SU>I) shall be the day of labeling the antibody with the radionuclide.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 36382, June 22, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 1685, Jan. 13, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.43" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.43   Potency test.</HEAD>
<P>To be satisfactory for release, each filling of Hepatitis B Surface Antigen shall be tested against the Reference Hepatitis B Antiserum Panel and shall be sufficiently potent to be able to detect the antibody in the appropriate sera of the reference panel by all test methods recommended by the manufacturer in the package insert.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.44" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.44   Specificity.</HEAD>
<P>Each filling of the product shall be specific for Hepatitis B Surface Antigen as determined by specificity tests found acceptable to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 36382, June 22, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.45" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.45   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the requirements of §§ 610.60, 610.61, and 809.10 of this chapter, the labeling shall bear the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The “d and y” antigen subtype and the source of the product to follow immediately the proper name on both the final container label and the package label. If the product is intended to identify antibodies to the “r and w” antigen subtype, the antigen subtype designation shall include the “r and w” antigen subtype.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the test method(s) recommended for use of the product on the package label and on the final container label, when capable of bearing a full label (see § 610.60(a) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(3) A warning on the package label and on the final container label stating that the product is capable of transmitting hepatitis and should be handled accordingly.
</P>
<P>(4) The package shall include a package insert providing:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed instructions for use,
</P>
<P>(ii) An adequate description of all recommended test methods, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Warnings as to possible hazards, including hepatitis transmitted in handling the product and any ancillary reagents and materials accompanying the product.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant may provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) A symbol accompanied by explanatory text adjacent to the symbol;
</P>
<P>(2) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used; or
</P>
<P>(3) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of symbols in device labeling to provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (<I>i.e.,</I> open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:
</P>
<P>(i) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;
</P>
<P>(iii) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 38928, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.46" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.46   Samples; protocols; official release.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Samples.</I> (1) For the purposes of this section, a sample of product not iodinated with 
<SU>125</SU>I means a sample from each filling of each lot packaged as for distribution, including all ancillary reagents and materials; and a sample of product iodinated with 
<SU>125</SU>I or unlyophilized HBsAg-coated red blood cells means a sample from each lot of diagnostic test kits in a finished package, including all ancillary reagents and materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, determines that the reliability and consistency of the finished product can be assured with a smaller quantity of sample or no sample and specifically reduces or eliminates the required quantity of sample, each manufacturer shall submit the following samples to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing addresses in § 600.2(c) of this chapter), within 5 working days after the manufacturer has satisfactorily completed all tests on the samples:
</P>
<P>(i) One sample until written notification of official release is no longer required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) One sample of product at periodic intervals of 90 days, beginning after written notification of official release is no longer required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The sample submitted at the 90-day interval shall be from the first lot or filling, as applicable, released by the manufacturer, under the requirements of § 610.1 of this chapter, after the end of the previous 90-day interval. The sample shall be identified as “surveillance sample” and shall include the date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(iii) Samples may at any time be required to be submitted to the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, if the Director finds that continued evaluation is necessary to ensure the potency, quality, and reliability of the product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protocols.</I> For each sample submitted as required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the manufacturer shall send a protocol that consists of a summary of the history of manufacture of the product, including all results of each test for which test results are requested by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research. The protocols submitted with the samples at periodic intervals as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section shall be identified by the manufacturer as “surveillance test results.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official release.</I> (1) The manufacturer shall not distribute the product until written notification of official release is received from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Official release is required for at least five consecutive lots or fillings, as applicable, manufactured after licensure of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) After written notification of official release is received from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, for at least five consecutive lots or fillings manufactured after licensure of the products, and after the manufacturer receives from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, written notification that official release is no longer required, subsequent lots or fillings may be released by the manufacturer under the requirements of § 610.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer shall not distribute lots or fillings, as applicable, of products that require sample submission under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section until written notification of official release or notification that official release is no longer required is received from the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 20407, May 6, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 23834, June 8, 1984; 51 FR 15611, Apr. 25, 1986; 55 FR 11013, 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 70 FR 14985, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Anti-Human Globulin</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.50" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.50   Anti-Human Globulin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper name and definition.</I> The proper name of this product shall be Anti-Human Globulin which shall consist of one or more antiglobulin antibodies identified in § 660.55(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source.</I> The source of this product shall be either serum from animals immunized with one or more human serum globulins or protein-rich fluids derived from stable immunoglobulin-secreting cell lines maintained either in tissue cultures or in secondary hosts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 5579, Feb. 11, 1985, as amended at 65 FR 77499, Dec. 12, 2000; 81 FR 38928, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.51" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.51   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing method.</I> (1) The processing method shall be one that has been shown to yield consistently a specific, potent final product, free of properties that would adversely affect the product for its intended use throughout its dating period.
</P>
<P>(2) Anti-IgG, -C3d (polyspecific) reagents and anti-IgG products may be colored green.
</P>
<P>(3) Only that material which has been fully processed, thoroughly mixed in a single vessel, and filtered shall constitute a lot. Each lot shall be identified by a lot number.
</P>
<P>(4) A lot may be subdivided into sublots which shall be identified by the lot number to which has been added a distinctive prefix or suffix. If lots are to be subdivided, the manufacturer shall include this information in the license application . The manufacturer shall describe the test specifications to verify that each sublot is identical to other sublots of the lot.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final containers and dropper assemblies.</I> (1) Final containers and dropper assemblies shall be clean.
</P>
<P>(2) Final containers and dropper pipettes shall be colorless and sufficiently transparent to permit observation of the contents for presence of particulate matter or increased turbidity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of manufacture.</I> The date of manufacture shall be the date the manufacturer begins the last entire group of potency tests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 5579, Feb. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 16474, Apr. 26, 1985; 65 FR 77499, Dec. 12, 2000; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.52" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.52   Reference preparations.</HEAD>
<P>Reference Anti-Human Globulin preparations shall be obtained from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Reagents and Standards Shipping, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. G704, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, and shall be used as described in the accompanying package insert for determining the potency of Anti-Human Globulin.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 5579, Feb. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 16474, Apr. 26, 1985; 51 FR 15611, Apr. 25, 1986; 55 FR 11015, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14986, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.53" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.53   Controls for serological procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Red blood cells sensitized with complement shall be tested with appropriate positive and negative control antisera. All tests shall be performed in accordance with serological testing procedures approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 5579, Feb. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 16474, Apr. 26, 1985; 51 FR 15611, Apr. 25, 1986; 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14986, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.54" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.54   Potency tests, specificity tests, tests for heterospecific antibodies, and additional tests for nonspecific properties.</HEAD>
<P>The following tests shall be performed using test procedures approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research:
</P>
<P>(a) Potency tests for determining anti-IgG and anti-complement activity.
</P>
<P>(b) Specificity tests, tests for heterospecific antibodies, and additional tests for nonspecific properties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 5579, Feb. 11, 1985, as amended at 50 FR 16474, Apr. 26, 1985; 51 FR 15611, Apr. 25, 1986; 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14986, Mar. 24, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 660.55" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.8.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 660.55   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the applicable labeling requirements of §§ 610.62 through 610.65 and § 809.10 of this chapter, and in lieu of the requirements in §§ 610.60 and 610.61 of this chapter, the following requirements shall be met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Final container label</I>—(i) <I>Color coding.</I> The main panel of the final container label of all Anti-IgG, -C3d (polyspecific) reagents shall be white or colorless and printing shall be solid dark contrasting lettering. The main panel of the final container label of all other Anti-Human Globulin reagents shall be black with solid white lettering. A logo or company name may be placed on the final container label; however, the logo or company name shall be located along the bottom or end of the label, outside of the main panel.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Required information.</I> The proper name “Anti-Human Globulin” need not appear on the final container label provided the final container is distributed in a package and the package label bears the proper name. The final container label shall bear the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of the antibody or antibodies present as set forth in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. Anti-Human Globulin may contain one or more antibodies to either immunoglobulins or complement components but the name of each significant antibody must appear on the final container label (<I>e.g.,</I> anti-C3b, -C3d, -C4d). The final container labels of polyspecific Anti-Human Globulin are not required to identify antibody specificities other than anti-IgG and anti-C3d but the reactivity of the Anti-Human Globulin shall be accurately described in the package insert.
</P>
<P>(B) Name, address, and license number of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(C) Lot number, including any sublot designations.
</P>
<P>(D) Expiration date.
</P>
<P>(E) Source of the product.
</P>
<P>(F) Recommended storage temperature in degrees Celsius.
</P>
<P>(G) Volume of product.
</P>
<P>(H) Appropriate cautionary statement if the Anti-Human Globulin is not polyspecific. For example, “DOES NOT CONTAIN ANTIBODIES TO IMMUNOGLOBULINS” or “DOES NOT CONTAIN ANTIBODIES TO COMPLEMENT COMPONENTS.”
</P>
<P>(I) If the final container is not enclosed in a package, all items required for a package label shall appear on the container label.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lettering size.</I> The type size for the designation of the specific antibody on the label of a final container shall be not less than 12 point, unless otherwise approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research. The prefix anti- and other parts of the name such as polyspecific may appear in smaller type.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Visual inspection.</I> When the label has been affixed to the final container, a sufficient area of the container shall remain uncovered for its full length or for no less than 5 millimeters of the lower circumference to permit inspection of the contents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Package label.</I> The following items shall appear either on the package label or on the final container label if see-through packaging is used:
</P>
<P>(i) Proper name of the product, and the name of the antibody or antibodies as listed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Name, address (including ZIP code), and license number of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lot number, including any sublot designations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Expiration date.
</P>
<P>(v) Preservative(s) used and its concentration.
</P>
<P>(vi) Number of containers, if more than one.
</P>
<P>(vii) Recommended storage temperature in degrees Celsius.
</P>
<P>(viii) Source of the product.
</P>
<P>(ix) Reference to enclosed package insert.
</P>
<P>(x) The statement: “For In Vitro Diagnostic Use.”
</P>
<P>(xi) The statement: “Meets FDA Potency Requirements.”
</P>
<P>(xii) A statement of an observable indication of an alteration of the product, <I>e.g.,</I> turbidity, color change, precipitate, that may indicate possible deterioration of the product.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Appropriate cautions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Package insert.</I> Each final container of Anti-Human Globulin shall be accompanied by a package insert meeting the requirements of § 809.10 of this chapter. If two or more final containers requiring identical package inserts are placed in a single package, only one package insert per package is required.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Names of antibodies.</I> Anti-Human Globulin preparations may contain one or more of the antibody specificities listed in this paragraph as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Antibody designation on
<br/>container label
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definition
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Anti-IgG, -C3d; Polyspecific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains anti-IgG and anti-C3d (may contain other anticomplement and anti-immunoglobulin antibodies).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Anti-IgG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains anti-IgG with no anti-complement activity (not necessarily gamma chain specific).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Anti-IgG; heavy chains</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains only antibodies reactive against human gamma chains.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Anti-C3b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains only C3b antibodies with no anti-immunoglobulin activity. <E T="03">Note:</E> The antibody produced in response to immunization is usually directed against the antigenic determinant which is located in the C3c subunit; some persons have called this antibody “anti-C3c.” In product labeling, this antibody should be designated anti-C3b.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Anti-C3d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains only C3d antibodies with no anti-immunoglobulin activity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Anti-C4b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains only C4b antibodies with no anti-immunoglobulin activity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Anti-C4d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Contains only C4d antibodies with no anti-immunoglobulin activity.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The applicant may provide the labeling information referenced in this section in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) A symbol accompanied by explanatory text adjacent to the symbol;
</P>
<P>(2) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used; or
</P>
<P>(3) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of symbols in device labeling to provide the labeling information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (<I>i.e.,</I> open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:
</P>
<P>(i) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;
</P>
<P>(iii) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 38928, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="680" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 680—ADDITIONAL STANDARDS FOR MISCELLANEOUS PRODUCTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263, 263a, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 32100, Nov. 20, 1973, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For U.S. Customs Service regulations relating to viruses, serums, and toxins, see 19 CFR 12.21-12.23. For U.S. Postal Service regulations relating to the admissibility to the United States mails see parts 124 and 125 of the Domestic Mail Manual, that is incorporated by reference in 39 CFR part 111.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV8 N="§ 680.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 680.1   Allergenic Products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> Allergenic Products are products that are administered to man for the diagnosis, prevention or treatment of allergies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source materials</I>—(1) <I>Criteria for source material.</I> Only specifically identified allergenic source materials that contain no more than a total of 1.0 percent of detectable foreign materials shall be used in the manufacture of Allergenic Products, except that this requirement shall not apply to molds and animals described under paragraphs (b) (2) and (3) of this section, respectively. Source materials such as pelts, feathers, hairs, and danders shall be collected in a manner that will minimize contamination of the source material. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Molds.</I> (i) Molds (excluding rusts and smuts) used as source material in the manufacture of Allergenic Products shall meet the requirements of § 610.18 of this chapter and § 680.2 (a) and (b). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Mold cultures shall be free of contaminating materials (including microorganisms) prior to harvest, and care shall be taken to minimize contamination during harvest and subsequent processing. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Mold manufacturers shall maintain written standard operating procedures, developed by a qualified individual, that will ensure the identity of the seed culture, prescribe adequate processing of the mold, and specify the acceptable limits and kinds of contamination. These limits shall be based on results of appropriate tests performed by the manufacturer on at least three consecutive lots of a mold that is a representative species of mold subject to the standard operating procedures. The tests shall be performed at each manufacturing step during and subsequent to harvest, as specified in the standard operating procedures. Before use of the mold as a source material for Allergenic Products, in accordance with 21 CFR 601.2, the standard operating procedures and test data from the three representative lots described above shall be submitted to and approved by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing address in § 600.2(a) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mammals and birds</I>—(i) <I>Care of animals.</I> Animals intended as a source material for Allergenic Products shall be maintained by competent personnel in facilities or designated areas that will ensure adequate care. Competent veterinary care shall be provided as needed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Health of animals.</I> Only animals in good health and free from detectable skin diseases shall be used as a source material for Allergenic Products. The determination of good health prior to collection of the source material shall be made by a licensed veterinarian or a competent individual under the supervision and instruction of a licensed veterinarian provided that the licensed veterinarian certifies in writing that the individual is capable of determining the good health of the animals.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Immunization against tetanus.</I> Animals of the equine genus intended as a source material for Allergenic Products shall be treated to maintain immunity to tetanus.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reporting of certain diseases.</I> In cases of actual or suspected infection with foot and mouth disease, glanders, tetanus, anthrax, gas gangrene, equine infectious anemia, equine encephalomyelitis, or any of the pock diseases among animals intended for use or used as source material in the manufacture of Allergenic Products, the manufacturer shall immediately notify the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing address in § 600.2(a) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dead animals.</I> Dead animals may be used as source material in the manufacture of Allergenic Products: <I>Provided,</I> That (<I>a</I>) the carcasses shall be frozen or kept cold until the allergen can be collected, or shall be stored under other acceptable conditions so that the postmortal decomposition processes do not adversely affect the allergen, and (<I>b</I>) when alive, the animal met the applicable requirements prescribed in paragraphs (b)(3) (i), (ii), and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Mammals and birds inspected by the U.S. Department of Agriculture.</I> Mammals and birds, subject to inspection by the U.S. Department of Agriculture at the time of slaughter and found suitable as food, may be used as a source material, and the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) (i) through (iv) of this section do not apply in such a case. Notwithstanding U.S. Department of Agriculture inspection, the carcasses of such inspected animals shall be frozen or kept cold until the allergen is collected, or shall be stored under other acceptable conditions so that the postmortal decomposition processes do not adversely affect the allergen.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Listing of source materials and suppliers.</I> Each licensed manufacturer shall initially list with the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see mailing address in § 600.2(a) of this chapter), the name and address of each of the manufacturer's source material suppliers. The listing shall identify each source material obtained from each source material supplier. The licensed manufacturers shall update the listing annually to include new source material suppliers or to delete those no longer supplying source materials. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) Exemptions or modifications from the requirements under paragraph (b) of this section shall be made only upon written approval by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonlicensed source material suppliers are exempt from drug registration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32100, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 49 FR 25432, June 21, 1984; 49 FR 31395, Aug. 7, 1984; 55 FR 11014, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 14986, Mar. 24, 2005; 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 680.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 680.2   Manufacture of Allergenic Products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Extraneous allergenic substances.</I> All manufacturing steps shall be performed so as to insure that the product will contain only the allergenic and other substances intended to be included in the final product. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cultures derived from microorganisms.</I> Culture media into which organisms are inoculated for the manufacture of Allergenic Products shall contain no allergenic substances other than those necessary as a growth requirement. Neither horse protein nor any allergenic derivative of horse protein shall be used in culture media. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liquid products for oral administration.</I> Liquid products intended for oral administration that are filled in multiple dose final containers shall contain a preservative in a concentration adequate to inhibit microbial growth. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Residual pyridine.</I> Products for which pyridine is used in manufacturing shall have no more residual pyridine in the final product than 25 micrograms per milliliter. 
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records.</I> A record of the history of the manufacture or propagation of each lot of source material intended for manufacture of final Allergenic Products shall be available at the establishment of the manufacturer of the source material, as required by § 211.188 of this chapter. A summary of the history of the manufacture or propagation of the source material shall be available at the establishment of the manufacturer of the final product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32100, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 49 FR 25433, June 21, 1984; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 680.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.1.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 680.3   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identity.</I> When a specific identity test meeting the provisions of § 610.14 of this chapter cannot be performed, the manufacture of each lot shall be separated from the manufacture of other products in a manner that will preclude adulteration, and records made in the course of manufacture shall be in sufficient detail to verify the identity of the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sterility.</I> A sterility test shall be performed on each lot of each Allergenic Product as required by § 610.12 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Potency.</I> The potency of each lot of each Allergenic Product shall be determined as prescribed in § 610.10 of this chapter. Except as provided in this section, the potency test methods shall measure the allergenic activity of the product. Until manufacturers are notified by the Director, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, of the existence of a potency test that measures the allergenic activity of an allergenic product, manufacturers may continue to use unstandardized potency designations. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records.</I> The records related to the testing requirements of this section shall be prepared and maintained as required by §§ 211.165, 211.167, 211.188, and 211.194 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32100, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 19777, June 6, 1974; 41 FR 4015, Jan. 28, 1976; 52 FR 37607, Oct. 8, 1987; 55 FR 11013, Mar. 26, 1990; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 77 FR 26175, May 3, 2012; 77 FR 30884, May 24, 2012; 80 FR 37974, July 2, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="21:7.0.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—COSMETICS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="700" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 700—GENERAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 352, 355, 361, 362, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 10054, Mar. 15, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subchapter: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>cosmetic product</I> means a finished cosmetic the manufacture of which has been completed. Any cosmetic product which is also a drug or device or component thereof is also subject to the requirements of Chapter V of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>flavor</I> means any natural or synthetic substance or substances used solely to impart a taste to a cosmetic product. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>fragrance</I> means any natural or synthetic substance or substances used solely to impart an odor to a cosmetic product. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>ingredient</I> means any single chemical entity or mixture used as a component in the manufacture of a cosmetic product. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>proprietary ingredient</I> means any cosmetic product ingredient whose name, composition, or manufacturing process is protected from competition by secrecy, patent, or copyright. 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>chemical description</I> means a concise definition of the chemical composition using standard chemical nomenclature so that the chemical structure or structures of the components of the ingredient would be clear to a practicing chemist. When the composition cannot be described chemically, the substance shall be described in terms of its source and processing. 
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>cosmetic raw material</I> means any ingredient, including an ingredient that is a mixture, which is used in the manufacture of a cosmetic product for commercial distribution and is supplied to a cosmetic product manufacturer, packer, or distributor by a cosmetic raw material manufacturer or supplier. 
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>commercial distribution</I> of a cosmetic product means annual gross sales in excess of $1,000 for that product. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Establishment</I> means a place of business where cosmetic products are manufactured or packaged. 
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>manufacture</I> of a cosmetic product means the making of any cosmetic product by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedures, including manipulation, sampling, testing, or control procedures applied to the product. 
</P>
<P>(l) The term <I>packaging</I> of a cosmetic product means filling or labeling the product container, including changing the immediate container or label (but excluding changing other labeling) at any point in the distribution of the cosmetic product from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate consumer. 
</P>
<P>(m) The term <I>all business trading names used by the establishment</I> means any name which is used on a cosmetic product label and owned by the cosmetic product manufacturer or packer, but is different from the principal name under which the cosmetic product manufacturer or packer is registered. 
</P>
<P>(n) The definitions and interpretations contained in sections 201, 601, and 602 of the act shall be applicable to such terms when used in the regulations in this subchapter. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>System of commercial distribution</I> of a cosmetic product means any distribution outside the establishment manufacturing the product, whether for sale, to promote future sales (including free samples of the product), or to gage consumer acceptance through market testing, in excess of $1,000 in cost of goods. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Filed screening procedure</I> means a procedure that is: 
</P>
<P>(1) On file with the Food and Drug Administration and subject to public inspection; 
</P>
<P>(2) Designed to determine that there is a reasonable basis for concluding that an alleged injury did not occur in conjunction with the use of the cosmetic product; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Which is subject, upon request by the Food and Drug Administration, to an audit conducted by the Food and Drug Administration at reasonable times and, where an audit is conducted, such audit shows that the procedure is consistently being applied and that the procedure is not disregarding reportable information. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Reportable experience</I> means an experience involving any allergic reaction, or other bodily injury, alleged to be the result of the use of a cosmetic product under the conditions of use prescribed in the labeling of the product, under such conditions of use as are customary or reasonably foreseeable for the product or under conditions of misuse, that has been reported to the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the product by the affected person or any other person having factual knowledge of the incident, other than an alleged experience which has been determined to be unfounded or spurious when evaluated by a filed screening procedure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 10054, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 46 FR 38073, July 24, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Cosmetic Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.11" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.11   Cosmetics containing bithionol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bithionol has been used to some extent as an antibacterial agent in cosmetic preparations such as detergent bars, shampoos, creams, lotions, and bases used to hide blemishes. New evidence of clinical experience and photopatch tests indicate that bithionol is capable of causing photosensitivity in man when used topically and that in some instances the photosensitization may persist for prolonged periods as severe reactions without further contact with sensitizing articles. Also, there is evidence to indicate that bithionol may produce cross-sensitization with other commonly used chemicals such as certain halogenated salicylanilides and hexachlorophene. It is, therefore, the view of the Food and Drug Administration that bithionol is a deleterious substance which may render any cosmetic product that contains it injurious to users. Accordingly, any cosmetic containing bithionol is deemed to be adulterated under section 601(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Regulatory proceedings may be initiated with respect to any cosmetic preparation containing bithionol shipped within the jurisdiction of the act after March 15, 1968. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.13" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.13   Use of mercury compounds in cosmetics including use as skinbleaching agents in cosmetic preparations also regarded as drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mercury-containing cosmetic preparations have been represented for many years as skin-bleaching agents or as preparations to remove or prevent freckles and/or brown spots (so-called age spots). Preparations intended for such use are regarded as drugs as well as cosmetics. In addition to such use as skin-bleaching agents, mercury compounds have also been widely used as preservatives in cosmetics such as hand and body creams and lotions; hair shampoos, hair sets and rinses, hair straighteners, hair coloring, and other preparations; bath oils, bubble bath, and other bath preparations; makeup; antiperspirants and deodorants; and eye-area cosmetics. 
</P>
<P>(b) The toxicity of mercury compounds is extensively documented in scientific literature. It is well known that mercury compounds are readily absorbed through the unbroken skin as well as through the lungs by inhalation and by intestinal absorption after ingestion. Mercury is absorbed from topical application and is accumulated in the body, giving rise to numerous adverse effects. Mercury is a potent allergen and sensitizer, and skin irritation is common after topical application. Cosmetic preparations containing mercury compounds are often applied with regularity and frequency for prolonged periods. Such chronic use of mercury-containing skin-bleaching preparations has resulted in the accumulation of mercury in the body and the occurrence of severe reactions. Recently it has also been determined that microorganisms in the environment can convert various forms of mercury into highly toxic methyl mercury which has been found in the food supply and is now considered to be a serious environmental problem. 
</P>
<P>(c) The effectiveness of mercury-containing preparations as skin-bleaching agents is questionable. The Food and Drug Administration has not been provided with well controlled studies to document the effectiveness of these preparations. Although mercurial preservatives are recognized as highly effective, less toxic and satisfactory substitutes are available except in the case of certain eye-area cosmetics. 
</P>
<P>(d) Because of the known hazards of mercury, its questionable efficacy as a skin-bleaching agent, and the availability of effective and less toxic nonmercurial preservatives, there is no justification for the use of mercury in skin-bleaching preparations or its use as a preservative in cosmetics, with the exception of eye-area cosmetics for which no other effective and safe nonmercurial preservative is available. The continued use of mercurial preservatives in such eye-area cosmetics is warranted because mercury compounds are exceptionally effective in preventing <I>Pseudomonas</I> contamination of cosmetics and <I>Pseudomonas</I> infection of the eye can cause serious injury, including blindness. Therefore: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Food and Drug Administration withdraws the opinion expressed in trade correspondence TC-9 (issued May 13, 1939) and concludes that any product containing mercury as a skin-bleaching agent and offered for sale as skin-bleaching, beauty, or facial preparation is misbranded within the meaning of sections 502(a), 502(f)(1) and (2), and 502(j), and may be a new drug without approval in violation of section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Any such preparation shipped within the jurisdiction of the Act after January 5, 1973 will be the subject of regulatory action. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration withdraws the opinion expressed in trade correspondence TC-412 (issued Feb. 11, 1944) and will regard as adulterated within the meaning of section 601(a) of the Act any cosmetic containing mercury unless the cosmetic meets the conditions of paragraph (d)(2) (i) or (ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) It is a cosmetic containing no more than a trace amount of mercury and such trace amount is unavoidable under conditions of good manufacturing practice and is less than 1 part per million (0.0001 percent), calculated as the metal; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) It is a cosmetic intended for use only in the area of the eye, it contains no more than 65 parts per million (0.0065 percent) of mercury, calculated as the metal, as a preservative, and there is no effective and safe nonmercurial substitute preservative available for use in such cosmetic. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.14" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.14   Use of vinyl chloride as an ingredient, including propellant of cosmetic aerosol products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Vinyl chloride has been used as an ingredient in cosmetic aerosol products including hair sprays. Where such aerosol products are used in the confines of a small room, as is often the case, the level of vinyl chloride to which the individual may be exposed could be significantly in excess of the safe level established in connection with occupational exposure. Evidence indicates that vinyl chloride inhalation can result in acute toxicity, manifested by dizziness, headache, disorientation, and unconsciousness where inhaled at high concentrations. Studies also demonstrate carcinogenic effects in animals as a result of inhalation exposure to vinyl chloride. Furthermore, vinyl chloride has recently been linked to liver disease, including liver cancer, in workers engaged in the polymerization of vinyl chloride. It is the view of the Commissioner that vinyl chloride is a deleterious substance which may render any cosmetic aerosol product that contains it as an ingredient injurious to users. Accordingly, any cosmetic aerosol product containing vinyl chloride as an ingredient is deemed to be adulterated under section 601(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any cosmetic aerosol product containing vinyl chloride as an ingredient shipped within the jurisdiction of the Act is subject to regulatory action. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 30830, Aug. 26, 1974] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.15" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.15   Use of certain halogenated salicylanilides as ingredients in cosmetic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Halogenated salicylanilides (tribromsalan (TBS,3,4′,5-tribromosalicylanilide), dibromsalan (DBS,4′5-dibromosalicylanilide), metabromsalan (MBS, 3,5-dibromosalicylanilide) and 3,3′,4,5′-tetrachlorosalicylanilide (TCSA)) have been used as antimicrobial agents for a variety of purposes in cosmetic products. These halogenated salicylanilides are potent photosensitizers and cross-sensitizers and can cause disabling skin disorders. In some instances, the photosensitization may persist for prolonged periods as a severe reaction without further exposure to these chemicals. Safer alternative antimicrobial agents are available. 
</P>
<P>(b) These halogenated salicylanilides are deleterious substances which render any cosmetic that contains them injurious to users. Therefore, any cosmetic product that contains such a halogenated salicylanilide as an ingredient at any level for any purpose is deemed to be adulterated under section 601(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any cosmetic product containing these halogenated salicylanilides as an ingredient that is initially introduced into interstate commerce after December 1, 1975, that is not in compliance with this section is subject to regulatory action. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 50531, Oct. 30, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.16" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.16   Use of aerosol cosmetic products containing zirconium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Zirconium-containing complexes have been used as an ingredient in cosmetics and/or cosmetics that are also drugs, as, for example, aerosol antiperspirants. Evidence indicates that certain zirconium compounds have caused human skin granulomas and toxic effects in the lungs and other organs of experimental animals. When used in aerosol form, some zirconium will reach the deep portions of the lungs of users. The lung is an organ, like skin, subject to the development of granulomas. Unlike the skin, the lung will not reveal the presence of granulomatous changes until they have become advanced and, in some cases, permanent. It is the view of the Commissioner that zirconium is a deleterious substance that may render any cosmetic aerosol product that contains it injurious to users.
</P>
<P>(b) Any aerosol cosmetic product containing zirconium is deemed to be adulterated under section 601(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Any such cosmetic product introduced in interstate commerce after September 15, 1977 is subject to regulatory action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 41376, Aug. 16, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.18" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.18   Use of chloroform as an ingredient in cosmetic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Chloroform has been used as an ingredient in cosmetic products. Recent information has become available associating chloroform with carcinogenic effects in animals. Studies conducted by the National Cancer Institute have demonstrated that the oral administration of chloroform to mice and rats induced hepatocellular carcinomas (liver cancer) in mice and renal tumors in male rats. Scientific literature indicates that chloroform is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, through the respiratory system, and through the skin. The Commissioner concludes that, on the basis of these findings, chloroform is a deleterious substance which may render injurious to users any cosmetic product that contains chloroform as an ingredient. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any cosmetic product containing chloroform as an ingredient is adulterated and is subject to regulatory action under sections 301 and 601(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Any cosmetic product containing chloroform in residual amounts from its use as a processing solvent during manufacture, or as a byproduct from the synthesis of an ingredient, is not, for the purpose of this section, considered to contain chloroform as an ingredient. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 26845, June 29, 1976] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.19" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.19   Use of methylene chloride as an ingredient of cosmetic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Methylene chloride has been used as an ingredient of aerosol cosmetic products, principally hair sprays, at concentrations generally ranging from 10 to 25 percent. In a 2-year animal inhalation study sponsored by the National Toxicology Program, methylene chloride produced a significant increase in benign and malignant tumors of the lung and liver of male and female mice. Based on these findings and on estimates of human exposure from the customary use of hair sprays, the Food and Drug Administration concludes that the use of methylene chloride in cosmetic products poses a significant cancer risk to consumers, and that the use of this ingredient in cosmetic products may render these products injurious to health. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any cosmetic product that contains methylene chloride as an ingredient is deemed adulterated and is subject to regulatory action under sections 301 and 601(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 27342, June 29, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.23" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.23   Chlorofluorocarbon propellants.</HEAD>
<P>The use of chlorofluorocarbons in cosmetics as propellants in self-pressurized containers is prohibited as provided in § 2.125 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11317, Mar. 17, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.25" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.25   Tamper-resistant packaging requirements for cosmetic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Because most cosmetic liquid oral hygiene products and vaginal products are not now packaged in tamper-resistant retail packages, there is the opportunity for the malicious adulteration of those cosmetic products with health risks to individuals who unknowingly purchase adulterated products and with loss of consumer confidence in the security of cosmetic product packages. The Food and Drug Administration has the authority and responsibility under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) to establish a uniform national requirement for tamper-resistant packaging of cosmetic liquid oral hygiene products or products used vaginally that will improve the packaging security and help assure the safety of those products. Such a cosmetic product for retail sale that is not packaged in a tamper-resistant package or that is not properly labeled under this section is adulterated under section 601 of the act or misbranded under section 602 of the act, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for tamper-resistant package.</I> Each manufacturer and packer who packages a cosmetic liquid oral hygiene product or vaginal product for retail sale shall package the product in a tamper-resistant package, if this product is accessible to the public while held for sale. A tamper-resistant package is one having an indicator or barrier to entry which, if breached or missing, can reasonably be expected to provide visible evidence to consumers that tampering has occurred. To reduce the likelihood of substitution of a tamper-resistant feature after tampering, the indicator or barrier to entry is required to be distinctive by design (e.g., an aerosol product container) or by the use of an identifying characteristic (e.g., a pattern, name, registered trademark, logo, or picture). For purposes of this section, the term “distinctive by design” means the packaging cannot be duplicated with commonly available materials or through commonly available processes. For purposes of this section, the term “aerosol product” means a product which depends upon the power of a liquified or compressed gas to expel the contents from the container. A tamper-resistant package may involve an immediate-container and closure system or secondary-container or carton system or any combination of systems intended to provide a visual indication of package integrity. The tamper-resistant feature shall be designed to and shall remain intact when handled in a reasonable manner during manufacture, distribution, and retail display.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> Each retail package of a cosmetic product covered by this section, except aerosol products as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, is required to bear a statement that is prominently placed so that consumers are alerted to the specific tamper-resistant feature of the package. The labeling statement is also required to be so placed that it will be unaffected if the tamper-resistant feature of the package is breached or missing. If the tamper-resistant feature chosen to meet the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is one that uses an identifying characteristic, that characteristic is required to be referred to in the labeling statement. For example, the labeling statement on a bottle with a shrink band could say “For your protection, this bottle has an imprinted seal around the neck.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests for exemptions from packaging and labeling requirements.</I> A manufacturer or packer may request an exemption from the packaging and labeling requirements of this section. A request for an exemption is required to be submitted in the form of a citizen petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and should be clearly identified on the envelope as a “Request for Exemption from Tamper-resistant Rule.” The petition is required to contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons that the product's compliance with the tamper-resistant packaging or labeling requirements of this section is unnecessary or cannot be achieved.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of alternative steps that are available, or that the petitioner has already taken, to reduce the likelihood that the product will be the subject of malicious adulteration.
</P>
<P>(4) Other information justifying an exemption.
</P>
<FP>This information collection requirement has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under number 0910-0149.
</FP>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date.</I> Cosmetic products covered by this section are required to comply with the requirements of this section on the dates listed below except to the extent that a product's manufacturer or packer has obtained an exemption from a packaging or labeling requirement.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial effective date for packaging requirements.</I> (i) The packaging requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is effective on Feburary 7, 1983 for each affected cosmetic product (except vaginal tablets) packaged for retail sale on or after that date, except for the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section for a distinctive indicator or barrier to entry.
</P>
<P>(ii) The packaging requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is effective on May 5, 1983 for each cosmetic product that is a vaginal tablet packaged for retail sale on or after that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial effective date for labeling requirements.</I> The requirement in paragraph (b) of this section that the indicator or barrier to entry be distinctive by design and the requirement in paragraph (c) of this section for a labeling statement are effective on May 5, 1983 for each affected cosmetic product packaged for retail sale on or after that date, except that the requirement for a specific label reference to any identifying characteristic is effective on February 6, 1984 for each affected cosmetic product packaged for retail sale on or after that date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retail level effective date.</I> The tamper-resistant packaging requirement of paragraph (b) of this section is effective February 6, 1984 for each affected cosmetic product held for sale on or after that date that was packaged for retail sale before May 5, 1983. This does not include the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section that the indicator or barrier to entry be distinctive by design. Products packaged for retail sale after May 5, 1983, as required to be in compliance with all aspects of the regulations without regard to the retail level effective date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50451, Nov. 5, 1982; 48 FR 1707, Jan. 14, 1983; 48 FR 11427, Mar. 18, 1983, as amended at 48 FR 16664, Apr. 19, 1983; 48 FR 37624, Aug. 19, 1983]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>See 48 FR 41579, Sept. 16, 1983, for a document announcing an interim stay of the effective date of certain provisions in paragraph (e)(3) of § 700.25.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.27" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.27   Use of prohibited cattle materials in cosmetic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions and interpretations of terms contained in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&amp;C Act) apply to such terms when used in this part. The following definitions also apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prohibited cattle materials</I> mean specified risk materials, small intestine of all cattle except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, material from nonambulatory disabled cattle, material from cattle not inspected and passed, or mechanically separated (MS) (Beef). Prohibited cattle materials do not include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Tallow that contains no more than 0.15 percent insoluble impurities, tallow derivatives, gelatin, hides and hide-derived products, and milk and milk products, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Cattle materials inspected and passed from a country designated under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inspected and passed</I> means that the product has been inspected and passed for human consumption by the appropriate regulatory authority, and at the time it was inspected and passed, it was found to be not adulterated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mechanically separated (MS) (Beef)</I> means a meat food product that is finely comminuted, resulting from the mechanical separation and removal of most of the bone from attached skeletal muscle of cattle carcasses and parts of carcasses that meets the specifications contained in 9 CFR 319.5, the U.S. Department of Agriculture regulation that prescribes the standard of identity for MS (Species).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonambulatory disabled cattle</I> means cattle that cannot rise from a recumbent position or that cannot walk, including, but not limited to, those with broken appendages, severed tendons or ligaments, nerve paralysis, fractured vertebral column, or metabolic conditions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Specified risk material</I> means the brain, skull, eyes, trigeminal ganglia, spinal cord, vertebral column (excluding the vertebrae of the tail, the transverse processes of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, and the wings of the sacrum), and dorsal root ganglia of cattle 30 months of age and older and the tonsils and distal ileum of the small intestine of all cattle.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tallow</I> means the rendered fat of cattle obtained by pressing or by applying any other extraction process to tissues derived directly from discrete adipose tissue masses or to other carcass parts and tissues. Tallow must be produced from tissues that are not prohibited cattle materials or must contain no more than 0.15 percent insoluble impurities as determined by the method entitled “Insoluble Impurities” (AOCS Official Method Ca 3a-46), American Oil Chemists' Society (AOCS), 5th Edition, 1997, incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51, or another method equivalent in accuracy, precision, and sensitivity to AOCS Official Method Ca 3a-46. You may obtain copies of the method from AOCS (<I>http://www.aocs.org</I>) 2211 W. Bradley Ave. Champaign, IL 61821. Copies may be examined at the Food and Drug Administration's Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, Third Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-2039 or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tallow derivative</I> means any chemical obtained through initial hydrolysis, saponification, or trans-esterification of tallow; chemical conversion of material obtained by hydrolysis, saponification, or trans-esterification may be applied to obtain the desired product.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Gelatin</I> means a product that has been obtained by the partial hydrolysis of collagen derived from hides, connective tissue, and/or bone bones of cattle and swine. Gelatin may be either Type A (derived from an acid-treated precursor) or Type B (derived from an alkali-treated precursor) that has gone through processing steps that include filtration and sterilization or an equivalent process in terms of infectivity reduction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) No cosmetic shall be manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contain, prohibited cattle materials.
</P>
<P>(2) The small intestine is not considered prohibited cattle material if the distal ileum is removed by a procedure that removes at least 80 inches of the uncoiled and trimmed small intestine, as measured from the caeco-colic junction and progressing proximally towards the jejunum, or by a procedure that the establishment can demonstrate is equally effective in ensuring complete removal of the distal ileum.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> (1) Manufacturers and processors of a cosmetic that is manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains, material from cattle must establish and maintain records sufficient to demonstrate that the cosmetic is not manufactured from, processed with, or does not otherwise contain, prohibited cattle materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Records must be retained for 2 years after the date they were created.
</P>
<P>(3) Records must be retained at the manufacturing or processing establishment or at a reasonably accessible location.
</P>
<P>(4) The maintenance of electronic records is acceptable. Electronic records are considered to be reasonably accessible if they are accessible from an onsite location.
</P>
<P>(5) Records required by this section and existing records relevant to compliance with this section must be available to FDA for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(6) When filing entry with U.S. Customs and Border Protection, the importer of record of a cosmetic manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing, cattle material must affirm that the cosmetic was manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains, cattle material and must affirm that the cosmetic was manufactured in accordance with this section. If a cosmetic is manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains, cattle material, then the importer of record must, if requested, provide within 5 days records sufficient to demonstrate that the cosmetic is not manufactured from, processed with, or does not otherwise contain, prohibited cattle material.
</P>
<P>(7) Records established or maintained to satisfy the requirements of this subpart that meet the definition of electronic records in § 11.3(b)(6) of this chapter are exempt from the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. Records that satisfy the requirements of this subpart but that are also required under other applicable statutory provisions or regulations remain subject to part 11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adulteration.</I> Failure of a manufacturer or processor to operate in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b) or (c) of this section renders a cosmetic adulterated under section 601(c) of the act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Process for designating countries.</I> A country seeking designation must send a written request to the Director, Office of the Center Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, at the address designated in 21 CFR 5.1100. The request shall include information about a country's bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) case history, risk factors, measures to prevent the introduction and transmission of BSE, and any other information relevant to determining whether specified risk materials, the small intestine of cattle except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, material from nonambulatory disabled cattle, or MS (Beef) from cattle from the country should be considered prohibited cattle materials. FDA shall respond in writing to any such request and may impose conditions in granting any such request. A country designation granted by FDA under this paragraph will be subject to future review by FDA, and may be revoked if FDA determines that it is no longer appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 53068, Sept. 7, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 59668, Oct. 11, 2006; 73 FR 20794, Apr. 17, 2008; 81 FR 5596, Feb. 3, 2016; 81 FR 14732, Mar. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.35" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.35   Cosmetics containing sunscreen ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A product that includes the term “sunscreen” in its labeling or in any other way represents or suggests that it is intended to prevent, cure, treat, or mitigate disease or to affect a structure or function of the body comes within the definition of a drug in section 201(g)(1) of the act. Sunscreen active ingredients affect the structure or function of the body by absorbing, reflecting, or scattering the harmful, burning rays of the sun, thereby altering the normal physiological response to solar radiation. These ingredients also help to prevent diseases such as sunburn and may reduce the chance of premature skin aging, skin cancer, and other harmful effects due to the sun when used in conjunction with limiting sun exposure and wearing protective clothing. When consumers see the term “sunscreen” or similar sun protection terminology in the labeling of a product, they expect the product to protect them in some way from the harmful effects of the sun, irrespective of other labeling statements. Consequently, the use of the term “sunscreen” or similar sun protection terminology in a product's labeling generally causes the product to be subject to regulation as a drug. However, sunscreen ingredients may also be used in some products for nontherapeutic, nonphysiologic uses (e.g., as a color additive or to protect the color of the product). To avoid consumer misunderstanding, if a cosmetic product contains a sunscreen ingredient and uses the term “sunscreen” or similar sun protection terminology anywhere in its labeling, the term must be qualified by describing the cosmetic benefit provided by the sunscreen ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) The qualifying information required under paragraph (a) of this section shall appear prominently and conspicuously at least once in the labeling in conjunction with the term “sunscreen” or other similar sun protection terminology used in the labeling. For example: “Contains a sunscreen—to protect product color.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27693, May 21, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="701" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 701—COSMETIC LABELING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 352, 361, 362, 363, 371, 374; 15 U.S.C. 1454, 1455.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 10056, Mar. 15, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.1   Misbranding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Among representations in labeling of a cosmetic which render such cosmetic misbranded is a false or misleading representation with respect to another cosmetic or a food, drug, or device. 
</P>
<P>(b) The labeling of a cosmetic which contains two or more ingredients may be misleading by reason (among other reasons) of the designation of such cosmetic in such labeling by a name which includes or suggests the name of one or more but not all such ingredients, even though the names of all such ingredients are stated elsewhere in the labeling. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.2   Form of stating labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A word, statement, or other information required by or under authority of the Act to appear on the label may lack that prominence and conspicuousness required by section 602(c) of the Act by reason (among other reasons) of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on the part or panel of the label which is presented or displayed under customary conditions of purchase; 
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on two or more parts or panels of the label, each of which has sufficient space therefor, and each of which is so designed as to render it likely to be, under customary conditions of purchase, the part or panel displayed; 
</P>
<P>(3) The failure of the label to extend over the area of the container or package available for such extension, so as to provide sufficient label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information; 
</P>
<P>(4) Insufficiency of label space (for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information) resulting from the use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the Act to appear on the label; 
</P>
<P>(5) Insufficiency of label space (for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information) resulting from the use of label space to give materially greater conspicuousness to any other word, statement, or information, or to any design or device; 
</P>
<P>(6) Smallness or style of type in which such word, statement, or information appears, insufficient background contrast, obscuring designs or vignettes, or crowding with other written, printed, or graphic matter. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) All words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the Act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear thereon in the English language: <I>Provided, however,</I> That in the case of articles distributed solely in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be substituted for English. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the label contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the Act to appear on the label shall appear thereon in the foreign language. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the labeling contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the Act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear on the labeling in the foreign language. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.3   Designation of ingredients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label on each package of a cosmetic shall bear a declaration of the name of each ingredient in descending order of predominance, except that fragrance or flavor may be listed as fragrance or flavor. An ingredient which is both fragrance and flavor shall be designated by each of the functions it performs unless such ingredient is identified by name. No ingredient may be designated as fragrance or flavor unless it is within the meaning of such term as commonly understood by consumers. Where one or more ingredients is accepted by the Food and Drug Administration as exempt from public disclosure pursuant to the procedure established in § 720.8(a) of this chapter, in lieu of label declaration of identity the phrase “and other ingredients” may be used at the end of the ingredient declaration. 
</P>
<P>(b) The declaration of ingredients shall appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by ordinary individuals under normal conditions of purchase. The declaration shall appear on any appropriate information panel in letters not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> of an inch in height and without obscuring design, vignettes, or crowding. In the absence of sufficient space for such declaration on the package, or where the manufacturer or distributor wishes to use a decorative container, the declaration may appear on a firmly affixed tag, tape, or card. In those cases where there is insufficient space for such declaration on the package, and it is not practical to firmly affix a tag, tape, or card, the Commissioner may establish by regulation an acceptable alternate, e.g., a smaller type size. A petition requesting such a regulation as an amendment to this paragraph shall be submitted pursuant to part 10 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) A cosmetic ingredient shall be identified in the declaration of ingredients by: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name specified in § 701.30 as established by the Commissioner for that ingredient for the purpose of cosmetic ingredient labeling pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the absence of the name specified in § 701.30, the name adopted for that ingredient in the following editions and supplements of the following compendia, listed in order as the source to be utilized:
</P>
<P>(i) CTFA (Cosmetic, Toiletry and Fragrance Association, Inc.) Cosmetic Ingredient Dictionary, Second Ed., 1977 (available from the Cosmetic, Toiletry and Fragrance Association, Inc. 1110 Vermont Ave. NW., Suite 800, Washington, DC 20005, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), which is incorporated by reference, except for the following deletions and revisions. (For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>)
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The following names are not adopted for the purpose of cosmetic ingredient labeling:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid Black 58
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Black 107
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Black 139
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Blue 168
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Blue 170
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Blue 188
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Blue 209
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Brown 19
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Brown 30
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Brown 44
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Brown 45
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Brown 46
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Brown 48
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Brown 224
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Orange 80
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Orange 85
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Orange 86
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Orange 88
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Orange 89
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Orange 116
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Red 131
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Red 213
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Red 252
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Red 259
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Violet 73
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Violet 76
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Violet 99
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Yellow 114
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acid Yellow 127
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Direct Yellow 81
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Solvent Black 5
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Solvent Brown 43
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Solvent Yellow 63
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Solvent Yellow 90</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The following names are adopted for the purpose of cosmetic ingredient labeling, provided the respective monographs are revised to describe their otherwise disclosed chemical compositions, or describe their chemical compositions more precisely, and such revised monographs are published in supplements to this dictionary edition by July 18, 1980.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Acid Black 2
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzophenone-11
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbomer 934
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbomer 934P
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbomer 940
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbomer 941
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbomer 960
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbomer 961
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorofluorocarbon 11S
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethicone Copolyol
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disperse Red 17
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pigment Green 7
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polyamino Sugar Condensate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SD Alcohol (all 27 alphanumeric designations)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium Chondroitin Sulfate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Synthetic Beeswax</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The following names are adopted for the purpose of cosmetic ingredient labeling until January 19, 1981.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Amphoteric (all 20 numeric designations)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Quaternium (all 49 numeric designations)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) United States Pharmacopeia, 19th Ed., 1975, and Second Supplement to the USP XIX and NF XIV, 1976. (Copies are available from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Parkway, Rockville, MD 20852, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) National Formulary, 14th Ed., 1975, and Second Supplement to the USP XIX and NF XIV, 1976. (Copies are available from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Parkway, Rockville, MD 20852, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>).
</P>
<P>(iv) Food Chemicals Codex, 2d Ed., 1972; First Supplement, 1974, and Second Supplement, 1975, which are incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(v) USAN and the USP dictionary of drug names, USAN 1975, 1961-1975 cumulative list. (Copies are available from the U.S. Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc., 12601 Twinbrook Parkway, Rockville, MD 20852, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>)
</P>
<P>(3) In the absence of such a listing, the name generally recognized by consumers. 
</P>
<P>(4) In the absence of any of the above, the chemical or other technical name or description. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where a cosmetic product is also an over-the-counter drug product, the declaration shall declare the active drug ingredients as set forth in § 201.66(c)(2) and (d) of this chapter, and the declaration shall declare the cosmetic ingredients as set forth in § 201.66(c)(8) and (d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Interested persons may submit a petition requesting the establishment of a specific name for a cosmetic ingredient pursuant to part 10 of this chapter. The Commissioner may also propose such a name on his own initiative. 
</P>
<P>(f) As an alternative to listing all ingredients in descending order of predominance, ingredients may be grouped and the groups listed in the following manner and order: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ingredients, other than color additives, present at a concentration greater than 1 percent, in descending order of predominance; followed by 
</P>
<P>(2) Ingredients, other than color additives, present at a concentration of not more than 1 percent, without respect to order of predominance; followed by 
</P>
<P>(3) Color additives, without respect to order of predominance. Ingredients specified in paragraph (f)(2) of this section may be included with those specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section and listed in descending order of predominance. 
</P>
<P>(g) A declaration of ingredients may include an ingredient not in the product if the ingredient is identified by the phrase “may contain” and: 
</P>
<P>(1) It is a color additive added to some batches of the product for purposes of color matching; or 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The same declaration of ingredients is also used for other products similar in composition and intended for the same use, including products which may be assortments of products similar in composition and intended for the same use; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such products are “shaded” products, i.e., those falling within the product categories identified in § 720.4 (c)(3), (7) and (8)(v) of this chapter; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) All products sharing the common declaration of ingredients are sold by the labeler under a common trade name or brand designation, and no trade name or brand designation not common to all such products appears in the labeling of any of them; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The ingredient is a color additive. 
</P>
<P>(h) As an alternative to a declaration of color additive ingredients for each product, the color additives of an assortment of cosmetic products that are sold together in the same package may be declared in a single composite list in a manner that is not misleading and that indicates that the list pertains to all the products. 
</P>
<P>(i) As an alternative to the declaration of ingredients specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the declaration of ingredients may appear in letters not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> of an inch in height in labeling accompanying the product, as for example, on padded sheets or in leaflets, if the total surface area of the package is less than 12 square inches. This paragraph is inapplicable to any packaged cosmetic product enclosed in an outer container, e.g., a folding carton. In addition, this paragraph is applicable only to cosmetic products meeting one of the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) The cosmetic products are held and displayed for sale in tightly compartmented trays or racks of a display unit. The holder of the labeling bearing the declaration of ingredients shall be attached to the display unit; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The cosmetic products are “shaded” products, i.e., those falling within the product categories identified in § 720.4 (c)(3), (7) and (8)(v) of this chapter, and are held for sale in tightly compartmented trays or racks. The holder of the labeling bearing the declaration of ingredients shall be attached to a display chart bearing samples of the product shades, which is displayed to purchasers. Such a display chart shall be of such construction and design as to permit its continuous use as a display, such as on a counter, and shall be designed for the primary purpose of displaying samples of the shades of the products. 
</P>
<P>(j) The holder of labeling bearing a declaration of ingredients and used in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section shall be attached to the display unit or chart and shall meet one of the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling is on the front of the display unit or chart and can be read in full by a purchaser facing the display unit or chart under customary conditions of retail sale; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling is on the front of the display unit or chart, is partially visible, and is accompanied by a conspicuous notice on the front of the display unit or chart describing the location of such labeling in letters not less than 
<FR>3/16</FR> of an inch in height, e.g., “Ingredient lists above”, that can be read by a purchaser facing the display unit or chart under customary conditions of retail sale, or by the notice required by provisions in paragraph (k)(3) of this section, if conspicuous at all times; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling is on a side of the display unit or chart, but not on the top, back, or bottom, and is accompanied by a conspicuous notice on the front of the display unit or chart describing the location of such labeling in letters not less than 
<FR>3/16</FR> of an inch in height, e.g., “Ingredient lists located on right side of display”, that can be read by a purchaser facing the display unit or chart under customary conditions of retail sale. 
</P>
<P>(k) Any use of a display unit or chart bearing labeling under the provisions of paragraph (i) of this section shall meet the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) All articles of labeling bearing ingredient declarations and used in conjunction with any one display unit or chart shall be identical and shall declare the ingredients of all products sold in conjunction with the display unit or chart for which the ingredient declaration is made pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any display unit or chart intended for such use shall be shipped together with the labeling intended to be attached to it. 
</P>
<P>(3) Every display unit or chart and/or labeling system shall be designed so that the words “Federal law requires ingredient lists to be displayed here” in letters not less than 
<FR>3/16</FR> of an inch in height (i) become conspicuous when no ingredient declarations are displayed and when the last list has been taken, or (ii) are conspicuous at all times adjacent to the place where ingredient declarations are to be attached. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any labeling containing a declaration of ingredients which reflects a formulation change and not shipped accompanying a display unit or chart shall be dated. Whenever any formulation change is made, and the labeling containing the declaration of ingredients is thereby required to be used in conjunction with products of both the old and new formulations, the labeling shall declare the ingredients of both the old and new formulations separately in a way that is not misleading and in a way that permits the purchaser to identify the ingredient declaration applicable to each package, or which clearly advises the purchaser that the formulation has been changed and that either declaration may be applicable. 
</P>
<P>(5) Sufficient copies of the declaration of ingredients shall be provided with each shipment of a cosmetic so that a purchaser may obtain a copy of the declaration with each purchase. Display units and replacement labeling for display units shall be accompanied by instructions to the retailer, which when followed will result in compliance with the requirements of this section. Copies of the declaration accompanying refills shall be attached to the specific refill items to which they pertain, or shall be packed with the specific refill items to which they pertain, in a container that does not contain other cosmetic products. 
</P>
<P>(6) The firm whose name appears on a product pursuant to § 701.12 shall promptly mail a copy of the declaration of ingredients to any person requesting it. 
</P>
<P>(7) The display unit or chart shall be designed and located such that the labeling is easily accessible to a purchaser facing the display unit or chart under customary conditions of retail sale. 
</P>
<P>(l) The provisions of this section do not require the declaration of incidental ingredients that are present in a cosmetic at insignificant levels and that have no technical or functional effect in the cosmetic. For the purpose of this paragraph, incidental ingredients are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Substances that have no technical or functional effect in the cosmetic but are present by reason of having been incorporated into the cosmetic as an ingredient of another cosmetic ingredient. 
</P>
<P>(2) Processing aids, which are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Substances that are added to a cosmetic during the processing of such cosmetic but are removed from the cosmetic in accordance with good manufacturing practices before it is packaged in its finished form. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Substances that are added to a cosmetic during processing for their technical or functional effect in the processing, are converted to substances the same as constituents of declared ingredients, and do not significantly increase the concentration of those constituents. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Substances that are added to a cosmetic during the processing of such cosmetic for their technical and functional effect in the processing but are present in the finished cosmetic at insignificant levels and do not have any technical or functional effect in that cosmetic. 
</P>
<P>(m) In the event that there is a current or anticipated shortage of a cosmetic ingredient, the declaration required by this section may specify alternatives to any ingredients that may be affected. An alternative ingredient shall be declared either (1) immediately following the normally used ingredient for which it substitutes, in which case it shall be identified as an alternative ingredient by the word “or” following the name of the normally used ingredient and any other alternative ingredient, or (2) following the declaration of all normally used ingredients, in which case the alternative ingredients in the group so listed shall be listed in expected descending order of predominance or in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section and shall be identified as alternative ingredients by the phrase “may also contain”. This paragraph is inapplicable to any ingredient mentioned in advertising, or in labeling other than in the declaration of ingredients required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(n) In the event that the shortage of a cosmetic ingredient necessitates a formulation change, packages bearing labels declaring the ingredients of the old formulation may be used if the revised ingredient declaration appears (1) on a firmly affixed tag, tape, card, or sticker or similar overlabeling attached to the package and bearing the conspicuous words “new ingredient list” in letters not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> of an inch in height, or (2) on labeling inside an unsealed package and the package bears the conspicuous words, on a sticker or similar overlabeling, “new ingredient list inside” in letters not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> of an inch in height. 
</P>
<P>(o) The ingredients of products that are similar in composition and intended for the same use may be declared as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) The declaration of ingredients for an assortment of such products that are sold together in the same package, e.g., eyeshadows of different colors, may declare the ingredients that are common to all the products, in a single list in their cumulative order of predominance or in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, together with a statement, in terms that are as informative as practicable and that are not misleading, declaring the other ingredients and identifying the products in which they are present. The color additive ingredients of all the products in such an assortment, whether or not common to all the products, may be declared in a single composite list following the declaration of the other ingredients without identifying the products in which they are present. 
</P>
<P>(2) The ingredients of an assortment of such products that are sold together in the same package, e.g., eyeshadows of different colors, may be declared in a single list in their cumulative order of predominance or in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, if the package is designed such that it has a total surface area available to bear labeling of less than 12 square inches. For the purpose of this paragraph, surface area is not available for labeling if physical characteristics of the package surface, e.g., decorative relief, make application of a label impractical. 
</P>
<P>(3) The declaration of ingredients for such a product that is individually packaged and bears a label that is shared with other products pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (g)(2) of this section, e.g., one lipstick in a line of lipsticks, may declare the ingredients that are common to all such products, in a single list in their cumulative order of predominance or in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, together with a statement, in terms that are as informative as practicable and that are not misleading, declaring the other ingredients in such products, and identifying the products in which they are present. The color additive ingredients shall be declared in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) The declaration of ingredients for an assortment of such cosmetic products that bears a label that is shared with other products pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (g)(2) of this section, e.g., one of several compacts in a line of compacts, may declare the ingredients that are common to all such products, in a single list in their cumulative order of predominance or in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, together with a statement, in terms that are as informative as practicable and that are not misleading, declaring the other ingredients in such products and identifying the products in which they are present. The color additive ingredients shall be declared in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(p) As an alternative to the declaration of ingredients in letters not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> of an inch in height, letters may be not less than 
<FR>1/32</FR> of an inch in height if the package is designed such that it has a total surface area available to bear labeling of less than 12 square inches. For the purpose of this paragraph, surface area is not available for labeling if physical characteristics of the package surface, e.g., decorative relief, make application of a label impractical. 
</P>
<P>(q) The inside containers in a multiunit or multicomponent retail cosmetic package are not required to bear a declaration of ingredients when the labeling of the multiunit or multicomponent retail cosmetic package meets all the requirements of this section and the inside containers are not intended to be, and are not customarily, separated from the retail package for retail sale.
</P>
<P>(r) In the case of cosmetics distributed to the consumers by direct mail, as an alternative to the declaration of ingredients on an information panel, the declaration of ingredients may appear in letters not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> of an inch in height in labeling that accompanies and specifically relates to the cosmetic(s) mailed, or in labeling furnished to each consumer for his personal use and from which he orders cosmetics through the mail, e.g., a direct mail sales catalog or brochure, provided all of the following additional requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The declarations of ingredients are conspicuous and presented in a way that permits the consumer to identify the declaration of ingredients applicable to each cosmetic.
</P>
<P>(2) The package mailed to the consumer is accompanied by a notice located on, or affixed to, the top of the package or on top of the contents inside the package, or on the face of the package platform surrounding and holding the product(s), readily visible to the consumer on opening of the package, and provides the following information in letters not less than 
<FR>3/16</FR> of an inch in height:
</P>
<P>(i) The location of the declarations of ingredients, e.g., in an accompanying brochure, or in a sales catalog used for ordering;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that a copy of the declaration of ingredients will be mailed promptly to any person requesting it; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and place of business of the mail order distributor,
</P>
<P>(3) The mail order distributor promptly mails a copy of the declaration of ingredients to any person requesting it.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 10056, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 8922, Mar. 3, 1975; 40 FR 18426, Apr. 28, 1975; 42 FR 4718, Jan. 25, 1977; 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977; 42 FR 24255, May 31, 1977; 42 FR 46516, Sept. 16, 1977; 42 FR 61257, Dec. 2, 1977; 45 FR 3577, Jan. 18, 1980; 47 FR 9397, Mar. 5, 1982; 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989; 64 FR 13297, Mar. 17, 1999; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.9" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.9   Exemptions from labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a shipment or other delivery of a cosmetic which is, in accordance with the practice of the trade, to be processed, labeled, or repacked in substantial quantity at an establishment other than that where originally processed or packed, shall be exempt, during the time of introduction into and movement in interstate commerce and the time of holding in such establishment, from compliance with the labeling requirements of sections 601(a) and 602(b) of the act if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce is the operator of the establishment where such cosmetic is to be processed, labeled, or repacked; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In case such person is not such operator, such shipment or delivery is made to such establishment under a written agreement, signed by and containing the post office addresses of such person and such operator, and containing such specifications for the processing, labeling, or repacking, as the case may be, of such cosmetic in such establishment as will insure, if such specifications are followed, that such cosmetic will not be adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act upon completion of such processing, labeling, or repacking. Such person and such operator shall each keep a copy of such agreement until 2 years after the final shipment or delivery of such cosmetic from such establishment, and shall make such copies available for inspection at any reasonable hour to any officer or employee of the Department who requests them. 
</P>
<P>(b) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a cosmetic under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall, at the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment, become void ab initio if the cosmetic comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed. 
</P>
<P>(c) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a cosmetic under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall become void ab initio with respect to the person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce upon refusal by such person to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such clause. 
</P>
<P>(d) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a cosmetic under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall expire: 
</P>
<P>(1) At the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment if the cosmetic comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Upon refusal by the operator of the establishment where such cosmetic is to be processed, labeled, or repacked, to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such clause. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Package Form</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.10" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.10   Principal display panel.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>principal display panel</I> as it applies to cosmetics in package form and as used in this part, means the part of a label that is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. The principal display panel shall be large enough to accommodate all the mandatory label information required to be placed thereon by this part with clarity and conspicuousness and without obscuring designs, vignettes, or crowding. Where packages bear alternate principal display panels, information required to be placed on the principal display panel shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. For the purpose of obtaining uniform type size in declaring the quantity of contents of all packages of substantially the same size, the term “area of the principal display panel” means the area of the side or surface that bears the principal display panel, which area shall be: 
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a rectangular package where one entire side properly can be considered to be the principal display panel side, the product of the height times the width of that side; 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a cylindrical or nearly cylindrical container, 40 percent of the product of the height of the container times the circumference; and 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of any other shape of container, 40 percent of the total surface of the container: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where such container presents an obvious “principal display panel” such as the top of a triangular or circular package, the area shall consist of the entire top surface. 
</P>
<FP>In determining the area of the principal display panel, exclude tops, bottoms, flanges at the tops and bottoms of cans, and shoulders and necks of bottles or jars. In the case of cylindrical or nearly cylindrical containers, information required by this part to appear on the principal display panel shall appear within that 40 percent of the circumference which is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.11" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.11   Identity labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of a cosmetic in package form shall bear as one of its principal features a statement of the identity of the commodity. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such statement of identity shall be in terms of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The common or usual name of the cosmetic; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An appropriately descriptive name or, when the nature of the cosmetic is obvious, a fanciful name understood by the public to identify such cosmetic; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An appropriate illustration or vignette representing the intended cosmetic use. 
</P>
<P>(c) The statement of identity shall be presented in bold type on the principal display panel, shall be in a size reasonably related to the most prominent printed matter on such panel, and shall be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.12" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.12   Name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a cosmetic in package form shall specify conspicuously the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for declaration of the name of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor shall be deemed to be satisfied in the case of a corporation only by the actual corporate name, which may be preceded or followed by the name of the particular division of the corporation. Abbreviations for “Company,” “Incorporated,” etc., may be used and “The” may be omitted. In the case of an individual, partnership, or association, the name under which the business is conducted shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where the cosmetic is not manufactured by the person whose name appears on the label, the name shall be qualified by a phrase that reveals the connection such person has with such cosmetic; such as, “Manufactured for _______”, “Distributed by ________”, or any other wording that expresses the facts. 
</P>
<P>(d) The statement of the place of business shall include the street address, city, State, and ZIP Code; however, the street address may be omitted if it is shown in a current city directory or telephone directory. The requirement for inclusion of the ZIP Code shall apply only to consumer commodity labels developed or revised after the effective date of this section. In the case of nonconsumer packages, the ZIP Code shall appear either on the label or the labeling (including the invoice). 
</P>
<P>(e) If a person manufactures, packs, or distributes a cosmetic at a place other than his principal place of business, the label may state the principal place of business in lieu of the actual place where such cosmetic was manufactured or packed or is to be distributed, unless such statement would be misleading. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.13" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.13   Declaration of net quantity of contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a cosmetic in package form shall bear a declaration of the net quantity of contents. This shall be expressed in terms of weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of numerical count and weight or measure. The statement shall be in terms of fluid measure if the cosmetic is liquid or in terms of weight if the cosmetic is solid, semisolid, or viscous, or a mixture of solid and liquid. If there is a firmly established, general consumer usage and trade custom of declaring the net quantity of a cosmetic by numerical count, linear measure, or measure of area, such respective term may be used. If there is a firmly established, general consumer usage and trade custom of declaring the contents of a liquid cosmetic by weight, or a solid, semisolid, or viscous cosmetic by fluid measure, it may be used. Whenever the Commissioner determines for a specific packaged cosmetic that an existing practice of declaring net quantity of contents by weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of these does not facilitate value comparisons by consumers, he shall by regulation designate the appropriate term or terms to be used for such cosmetic. 
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of weight shall be in terms of avoirdupois pound and ounce. Statements of fluid measure shall be in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid-ounce subdivisions thereof and shall express the volume at 68 °F. (20 °C.). 
</P>
<P>(c) When the declaration of quantity of contents by numerical count, linear measure, or measure of area does not give accurate information as to the quantity of cosmetic in the package, it shall be augmented by such statement of weight, measure, or size of the individual units or the total weight or measure of the cosmetic as will give such information. 
</P>
<P>(d) The declaration may contain common or decimal fractions. A common fraction shall be in terms of halves, quarters, eighths, sixteenths, or thirty-seconds; except that if there exists a firmly established, general consumer usage and trade custom of employing different common fractions in the net quantity declaration of a particular commodity they may be employed. A common fraction shall be reduced to its lowest terms; a decimal fraction shall not be carried out to more than two places. A statement that includes small fractions of an ounce shall be deemed to permit smaller variations than one which does not include such fractions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The declaration shall be located on the principal display panel of the label; with respect to packages bearing alternate principal display panels, it shall be duplicated on each principal display panel: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) The principal display panel of a cosmetic marketed in a “boudoir-type” container including decorative cosmetic containers of the “cartridge,” “pill box,” “compact,” or “pencil” variety, and those with a capacity of one-fourth ounce or less, may be considered to be a tear-away tag or tape affixed to the decorative container and bearing the mandatory label information as required by this part, but the type size of the net quantity of contents statement shall be governed by the dimensions of the decorative container; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The principal display panel of a cosmetic marketed on a display card to which the immediate container is affixed may be considered to be the display panel of the card, and the type size of the net quantity of content statement is governed by the dimensions of the display card. 
</P>
<P>(f) The declaration shall appear as a distinct item on the principal display panel, shall be separated (by at least a space equal to the height of the lettering used in the declaration) from other printed label information appearing above or below the declaration and (by at least a space equal to twice the width of the letter “N” of the style of type used in the quantity of contents statement) from other printed label information appearing to the left or right of the declaration. It shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count (such as “giant pint” and “full quart”) that tends to exaggerate the amount of the cosmetic in the container. It shall be placed on the principal display panel within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel in line generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) On packages having a principal display panel of 5 square inches or less, the requirement for placement within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel shall not apply when the declaration of net quantity of contents meets the other requirements of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a cosmetic that is marketed with both outer and inner retail containers bearing the mandatory label information required by this part, and the inner container is not intended to be sold separately, the net quantity of contents placement requirement of this section applicable to such inner containers is waived. 
</P>
<P>(g) The declaration shall accurately reveal the quantity of cosmetic in the package exclusive of wrappers and other material packed therewith: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of cosmetics packed in containers designed to deliver the cosmetic under pressure, the declaration shall state the net quantity of the contents that will be expelled when the instructions for use as shown on the container are followed. The propellant is included in the net quantity declaration; and 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a package which contains the integral components making up a complete kit, and which is designed to deliver the components in the manner of an application (for example, a home permanent wave kit), the declaration may state the net quantity of the contents in nondeceptive terms of the number of applications available in the kit when the instructions for use as shown on the container are followed. 
</P>
<P>(h) The declaration shall appear in conspicuous and easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast (by typography, layout, color, embossing, or molding) to other matter on the package; except that a declaration of net quantity blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface is permissible when all label information is so formed on the surface. Requirements of conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio of height to width (of the letter) shall not exceed a differential of 3 units to 1 unit (no more than 3 times as high as it is wide). 
</P>
<P>(2) Letter heights pertain to upper case or capital letters. When upper and lower case or all lower case letters are used, it is the lower case letter “o” or its equivalent that shall meet the minimum standards. 
</P>
<P>(3) When fractions are used, each component numeral shall meet one-half the minimum height standards. 
</P>
<P>(i) The declaration shall be in letters and numerals in a type size established in relationship to the area of the principal display panel of the package and shall be uniform for all packages of substantially the same size by complying with the following type specifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of 5 square inches or less. 
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-eighth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 5 but not more than 25 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(3) Not less than three-sixteenths inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 25 but not more than 100 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(4) Not less than one-fourth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 100 square inches, except not less than one-half inch in height if the area is more than 400 square inches. 
</P>
<FP>Where the declaration is blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface rather than by printing, typing, or coloring, the lettering sizes specified in paragraphs (i)(1) through (4) of this section shall be increased by one-sixteenth of an inch. 
</FP>
<P>(j) On packages containing less than 4 pounds or 1 gallon and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure: 
</P>
<P>(1) The declaration shall be expressed both in ounces, with identification by weight or by liquid measure and, if applicable (1 pound or 1 pint or more), followed in parentheses by a declaration in pounds for weight units, with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound (as set forth in paragraphs (m)(1) and (2) of this section), or in the case of liquid measure, in the largest whole units (quarts, quarts and pints, or pints, as appropriate) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (as set forth in paragraphs (m)(3) and (4) of this section). Net weight or fluid measure of less than 1 ounce shall be expressed in common or decimal fractions of the respective ounce and not in drams. 
</P>
<P>(2) The declaration may appear in more than one line. The term “net weight” shall be used when stating the net quantity of contents in terms of weight. Use of the terms “net” or “net contents” in terms of fluid measure or numerical count is optional. It is sufficient to distinguish avoirdupois ounce from fluid ounce through association of terms; for example, “Net wt. 6 oz.” or “6 oz. net wt.” and “Net contents 6 fl. oz.” or “6 fl. oz.” 
</P>
<P>(k) On packages containing 4 pounds or 1 gallon or more and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure, the declaration shall be expressed in pounds for weight units with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound; in the case of fluid measure, it shall be expressed in the largest whole unit (gallons, followed by common or decimal fractions of a gallon or by the next smaller whole unit or units (quarts or quarts and pints)) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (as set forth in paragraph (m)(5) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(m) Examples: (1) A declaration of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds weight shall be expressed as “Net wt. 24 oz. (1 lb. 8 oz.)”, “Net wt. 24 oz. (1
<FR>1/2</FR> lb.)”, or “Net wt. 24 oz. (1.5 lb.)”. 
</P>
<P>(2) A declaration of three-fourths pound avoirdupois weight shall be expressed as “Net wt. 12 oz.” 
</P>
<P>(3) A declaration of 1 quart liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 32 fl. oz. (1 qt.)”. 
</P>
<P>(4) A declaration of 1
<FR>3/4</FR> quarts liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 56 fl. oz. (1 qt. 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pt.)” or “Net contents 56 fl. oz. (1 qt. 1 pt. 8 oz.)” but not in terms of quart and ounce such as “Net content 56 fl. oz. (1 qt. 24 oz.)”. 
</P>
<P>(5) A declaration of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons liquid measure shall be expressed in the alternative as “Net contents 2 gal. 2 qt.” and not as “2 gal. 4 pt.” 
</P>
<P>(n) For quantities, the following abbreviations and none other may be employed (periods and plural forms are optional):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>weight wt.</LI>
<LI>square sq.</LI>
<LI>fluid fl.</LI>
<LI>yard yd.</LI>
<LI>feet or foot ft.</LI>
<LI>inch in.</LI>
<LI>gallon gal.</LI>
<LI>quart qt.</LI>
<LI>pint pt.</LI>
<LI>ounce oz.</LI>
<LI>pound lb.</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<P>(o) On packages labeled in terms of linear measure, the declaration shall be expressed both in terms of inches and, if applicable (1 foot or more), the largest whole units (yards, yards and feet, feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of inches and any remainder shall be in terms of inches or common or decimal fractions of the foot or yard. Examples are “86 inches (2 yd. 1 ft. 2 inches)”, “90 inches (2
<FR>1/2</FR> yd.)”, “30 inches (2.5 ft.)”, etc. 
</P>
<P>(p) On packages labeled in terms of area measure, the declaration shall be expressed in terms of square inches and, if applicable (1 square foot or more), the largest whole square unit (square yards, square yards and square feet, square feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of square inches and any remainder shall be in terms of square inches or common or decimal fractions of the square foot or square yard; for example, “158 sq. inches (1 sq. ft. 14 sq. inches)”, etc. 
</P>
<P>(q) Nothing in this section shall prohibit supplemental statements at locations other than the principal display panel(s) describing in nondeceptive terms the net quantity of contents, provided that such supplemental statements of net quantity of contents shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count that tends to exaggerate the amount of the cosmetic contained in the package; for example, “giant pint” and “full quart.” Dual or combination declarations of net quantity of contents as provided for in paragraphs (a), (c), and (j) of this section (for example, a combination of net weight plus numerical count) are not regarded as supplemental net quantity statements and shall be located on the principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(r) A separate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system is not regarded as a supplemental statement and an accurate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure may also appear on the principal display panel or on other panels. 
</P>
<P>(s) The declaration of net quantity of contents shall express an accurate statement of the quantity of contents of the package. Reasonable variations caused by loss or gain of moisture during the course of good distribution practice or by unavoidable deviations in good manufacturing practice will be recognized. Variations from stated quantity of contents shall not be unreasonably large. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling of Specific Ingredients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.20" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.20   Detergent substances, other than soap, intended for use in cleansing the body.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In its definition of the term <I>cosmetic,</I> the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act specifically excludes soap. The term <I>soap</I> is nowhere defined in the act. In administering the act, the Food and Drug Administration interprets the term “soap” to apply only to articles that meet the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The bulk of the nonvolatile matter in the product consists of an alkali salt of fatty acids and the detergent properties of the article are due to the alkali-fatty acid compounds; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The product is labeled, sold, and represented only as soap. 
</P>
<P>(b) Products intended for cleansing the human body and which are not “soap” as set out in paragraph (a) of this section are “cosmetics,” and accordingly they are subject to the requirements of the act and the regulations thereunder. For example, such a product in bar form is subject to the requirement, among others, that it shall bear a label containing an accurate statement of the weight of the bar in avoirdupois pounds and ounces, this statement to be prominently and conspicuously displayed so as to be likely to be read under the customary conditions of purchase and use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.30" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.11.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.30   Ingredient names established for cosmetic ingredient labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner establishes the following names for the purpose of cosmetic ingredient labeling pursuant to paragraph (e) of § 701.3:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical name or description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical formula
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Established label name
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichlorofluoromethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CCl<E T="52">3</E>F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chlorofluorocarbon 11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichlorofluoromethane and 0.3 pct nitromethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CCl<E T="52">3</E>F + CH<E T="52">3</E>NO<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chlorofluorocarbon 11 S.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorodifluoromethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CCl<E T="52">2</E>F<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chlorofluorocarbon 12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorodifluoromethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CHClF<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydrochlorofluorocarbon 22.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1, 2-dichloro-1, 1, 2, 2-tetrafluoroethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CClF<E T="52">2</E>CClF<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chlorofluorocarbon 114.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Chloro-1, 1-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CH<E T="52">3</E>CClF<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydrochlorofluorocarbon 142 B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1, 1-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CH<E T="52">3</E>CHF<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydrofluorocarbon 152 A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl ester of hydrolyzed animal protein is the ester of ethyl alcohol and the hydrolysate of collagen or other animal protein, derived by acid, enzyme, or other form of hydrolysis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethyl ester of hydrolyzed animal protein.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 24255, May 13, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 3577, Jan. 18, 1980]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="710" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 710—VOLUNTARY REGISTRATION OF COSMETIC PRODUCT ESTABLISHMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 361, 362, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 10059, Mar. 15, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 710.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.1   Who should register.</HEAD>
<P>The owner or operator of a cosmetic product establishment which is not exempt under § 710.9 and engages in the manufacture or packaging of a cosmetic product is requested to register for each such establishment, whether or not the product enters interstate commerce. This request extends to any foreign cosmetic product establishment whose products are exported for sale in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act. No registration fee is required. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.2   Time for registration.</HEAD>
<P>The owner or operator of an establishment entering into the manufacture or packaging of a cosmetic product should register his establishment within 30 days after the operation begins. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.3   How and where to register.</HEAD>
<P>Form FD-2511 (“Registration of Cosmetic Product Establishment”) is obtainable on request from the Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at any Food and Drug Administration district office. The completed form should be mailed to Cosmetic Product Establishment Registration, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 10059, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.4" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.4   Information requested.</HEAD>
<P>Form FD-2511 requests information on the name and address of the cosmetic product establishment, including post office ZIP code; all business trading names used by the establishment; and the type of business (manufacturer and/or packer). The information requested should be given separately for each establishment as defined in § 700.3(j) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 10059, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 46 FR 38073, July 24, 1981; 54 FR 39640, Sept. 27, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.5" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.5   Amendments to registration.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after a change in any of the information contained on a submitted Form FD-2511, a new Form FD-2511 should be submitted to amend the registration. This amendment is also necessary when a registration is to be canceled because an establishment has changed its name and no longer conducts business under the original name. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.6" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.6   Notification of registrant; cosmetic product establishment registration number.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs will provide the registrant with a validated copy of Form FD-2511 as evidence of registration. This validated copy will be sent only to the location shown for the registering establishment. A permanent registration number will be assigned to each cosmetic product establishment registered in accordance with the regulations in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.7" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.7   Inspection of registrations.</HEAD>
<P>A copy of the Form FD-2511 filed by the registrant will be available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 10059, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.8" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.8   Misbranding by reference to registration or to registration number.</HEAD>
<P>Registration of a cosmetic product establishment or assignment of a registration number does not in any way denote approval of the firm or its products by the Food and Drug Administration. Any representation in labeling or advertising that creates an impression of official approval because of registration or possession of a registration number will be considered misleading. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.9" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.12.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.9   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The following classes of persons are not requested to register in accordance with this part 710 because the Commissioner has found that such registration is not justified: 
</P>
<P>(a) Beauty shops, cosmetologists, retailers, pharmacies, and other persons and organizations that compound cosmetic products at a single location and administer, dispense, or distribute them at retail from that location and who do not otherwise manufacture or package cosmetic products at that location. 
</P>
<P>(b) Physicians, hospitals, clinics, and public health agencies. 
</P>
<P>(c) Persons who manufacture, prepare, compound, or process cosmetic products solely for use in research, pilot plant production, teaching, or chemical analysis, and who do not sell these products. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="720" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 720—VOLUNTARY FILING OF COSMETIC PRODUCT INGREDIENT COMPOSITION STATEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 361, 362, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 10060, Mar. 15, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 720.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.1   Who should file.</HEAD>
<P>Either the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of a cosmetic product is requested to file Form FDA 2512 (“Cosmetic Product Ingredient Statement”), whether or not the cosmetic product enters interstate commerce. This request extends to any foreign manufacturer, packer, or distributor of a cosmetic product exported for sale in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. No filing fee is required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3129, Jan. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.2   Times for filing.</HEAD>
<P>Within 180 days after forms are made available to the industry, Form FDA 2512 should be filed for each cosmetic product being commercially distributed as of the effective date of this part. Form FDA 2512 should be filed within 60 days after the beginning of commercial distribution of any product not covered within the 180-day period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3129, Jan. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.3" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.3   How and where to file.</HEAD>
<P>Forms FDA 2512 and FDA 2514 (“Discontinuance of Commercial Distribution of Cosmetic Product Formulation”) are obtainable on request from the Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, or at any Food and Drug Administration district office. The completed form should be mailed or delivered to: Cosmetic Product Statement, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, according to the instructions provided with the forms.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3129, Jan. 28, 1992, as amended at 68 FR 15355, Mar. 31, 2003; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.4" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.4   Information requested about cosmetic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Form FDA-2512 requests information on: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address, including post office ZIP code of the person (manufacturer, packer, or distributor) designated on the label of the product. 
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address, including post office ZIP code, of the manufacturer or packer of the product if different from the person designated on the label of the product, when the manufacturer or packer submits the information requested under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(3) The brand name or names of the cosmetic product. 
</P>
<P>(4) The cosmetic product category or categories. 
</P>
<P>(5) The ingredients in the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) The person filing Form FDA-2512 should: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the information requested in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Have the form signed by an authorized individual. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide poison control centers with ingredient information and/or adequate diagnostic and therapeutic procedures to permit rapid evaluation and treatment of accidental ingestion or other accidental use of the cosmetic product. 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide ingredient information (and, when requested, ingredient samples) to a licensed physician who, in connection with the treatment of a patient, requests assistance in determining whether an ingredient in the cosmetic product is the cause of the problem for which the patient is being treated. 
</P>
<P>(c) One or more of the following cosmetic product categories should be cited to indicate the product's intended use. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Baby products.</I> (i) Baby shampoos. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Lotions, oils, powders, and creams. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Other baby products. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bath preparations.</I> (i) Bath oils, tablets, and salts. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Bubble baths. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Bath capsules. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Other bath preparations. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eye makeup preparations.</I> (i) Eyebrow pencil. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Eyeliner. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Eye shadow. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Eye lotion. 
</P>
<P>(v) Eye makeup remover. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Mascara. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Other eye makeup preparations. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fragrance preparations.</I> (i) Colognes and toilet waters. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Perfumes. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Powders (dusting and talcum) (excluding aftershave talc). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Sachets. 
</P>
<P>(v) Other fragrance preparations. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hair preparations (noncoloring).</I> (i) Hair conditioners. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hair sprays (aerosol fixatives). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Hair straighteners. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Permanent waves. 
</P>
<P>(v) Rinses (noncoloring). 
</P>
<P>(vi) Shampoos (noncoloring). 
</P>
<P>(vii) Tonics, dressings, and other hair grooming aids. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Wave sets. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Other hair preparations. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Hair coloring preparations.</I> (i) Hair dyes and colors (all types requiring caution statement and patch test). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hair tints. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Hair rinses (coloring). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Hair shampoos (coloring). 
</P>
<P>(v) Hair color sprays (aerosol). 
</P>
<P>(vi) Hair lighteners with color. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Hair bleaches. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Other hair coloring preparations. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Makeup preparations (not eye).</I> (i) Blushers (all types). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Face powders. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Foundations. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Leg and body paints. 
</P>
<P>(v) Lipstick. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Makeup bases. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Rouges. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Makeup fixatives. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Other makeup preparations. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Manicuring preparations.</I> (i) Basecoats and undercoats. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Cuticle softeners. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Nail creams and lotions. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Nail extenders. 
</P>
<P>(v) Nail polish and enamel. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Nail polish and enamel removers. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Other manicuring preparations. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Oral hygiene products.</I> (i) Dentifrices (aerosol, liquid, pastes, and powders). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Mouthwashes and breath fresheners (liquids and sprays). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Other oral hygiene products. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Personal cleanliness.</I> (i) Bath soaps and detergents. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Deodorants (underarm). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Douches. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Feminine hygiene deodorants. 
</P>
<P>(v) Other personal cleanliness products. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Shaving preparations.</I> (i) Aftershave lotions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Beard softeners. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Men's talcum. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Preshave lotions (all types). 
</P>
<P>(v) Shaving cream (aerosol, brushless, and lather). 
</P>
<P>(vi) Shaving soap (cakes, sticks, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(vii) Other shaving preparation products. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Skin care preparations, (creams, lotions, powder, and sprays).</I> (i) Cleansing (cold creams, cleansing lotions, liquids, and pads). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Depilatories. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Face and neck (excluding shaving preparations).
</P>
<P>(iv) Body and hand (excluding shaving preparations).
</P>
<P>(v) Foot powders and sprays.
</P>
<P>(vi) Moisturizing. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Night. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Paste masks (mud packs). 
</P>
<P>(ix) Skin fresheners.
</P>
<P>(x) Other skin care preparations.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Suntan preparations.</I> (i) Suntan gels, creams, and liquids. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Indoor tanning preparations. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Other suntan preparations. 
</P>
<P>(d) Ingredients in the product should be listed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of each ingredient of the cosmetic product in descending order of predominance by weight (except that the fragrance and/or flavor may be designated as such without naming each individual ingredient when the manufacturer or supplier of the fragrance and/or flavor refuses to disclose ingredient data).
</P>
<P>(2) An ingredient should be listed by the name adopted by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the ingredient pursuant to § 701.3(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) In the absence of a name adopted by FDA pursuant to § 701.3(c) of this chapter, its common or usual name, if it has one, or its chemical or technical name should be listed.
</P>
<P>(4) If an ingredient is a mixture, each ingredient of the mixture should be listed in accordance with paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section, unless such mixture is a formulation voluntarily registered on Form FDA 2512, in which case such mixture should be identified as “fragrance,” “flavor,” “fragrance and flavor” or “base formulation,” as appropriate, and by stating its FDA-assigned cosmetic product ingredient statement number.
</P>
<P>(5) When the manufacturer or supplier of a fragrance and/or flavor refuses to disclose ingredient data, the fragrance and/or flavor should be listed as such. The nonconfidential listing of the product name and/or trade name or name of the manufacturer or supplier of each proprietary fragrance and/or flavor mixture is optional.
</P>
<P>(e) A separate Form FDA-2512 should be filed for each different formulation of a cosmetic product. However, except for the hair coloring preparations listed in paragraph (c)(6) of this section for which a statement for each shade of such product is required, a single Form FDA-2512 may be filed for two or more shades of a cosmetic product where only the amounts of the color additive ingredient used are varied or in the case of flavors and fragrances where only the amounts of the flavors and fragrances used are varied.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Information collection requirements in this section were approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB control number 0910-0030)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 10060, Mar. 15, 1974, as amended at 46 FR 38073, July 24, 1981; 57 FR 3129, Jan. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.5" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.5   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.6" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.6   Amendments to statement.</HEAD>
<P>Changes in the information requested under §§ 720.4 (a)(3) and (a)(5) on the ingredients or brand name of a cosmetic product should be submitted by filing an amended Form FDA 2512 within 60 days after the product is entered into commercial distribution. Other changes do not justify immediate amendment, but should be shown by filing an amended Form FDA 2512 within a year after such changes. Notice of discontinuance of commercial distribution of a cosmetic product formulation should be submitted by Form FDA 2514 within 180 days after discontinuance of commercial distribution becomes known to the person filing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3130, Jan. 28, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.7" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.7   Notification of person submitting cosmetic product ingredient statement.</HEAD>
<P>When Form FDA 2512 is received, FDA will either assign a permanent cosmetic product ingredient statement number or a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) reference number in those cases where a permanent number cannot be assigned. Receipt of the form will be acknowledged by sending the individual signing the statement an appropriate notice bearing either the FDA reference number or the permanent cosmetic product ingredient statement number. If the person submitting Form FDA 2512 has not complied with §§ 720.4 (b)(1) and (b)(2), the person will be notified as to the manner in which the statement is incomplete.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3130, Jan. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.8" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.8   Confidentiality of statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Data and information contained in, attached to, or included with Forms FDA 2512 and FDA 2514, and amendments thereto are submitted voluntarily to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Any request for confidentiality of a cosmetic ingredient submitted with such forms or separately will be handled in accordance with the procedure set forth in this section. The request for confidentiality will also be subject to the provisions of § 20.111 of this chapter, as well as to the exemptions in subpart D of part 20 of this chapter and to the limitations on exemption in subpart E of part 20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any request for confidentiality of the identity of a cosmetic ingredient should contain a full statement, in a well-organized format, of the factual and legal grounds for that request, including all data and other information on which the petitioner relies, as well as representative information known to the petitioner that is unfavorable to the petitioner's position. The statement of the factual grounds should include, but should not be limited to, scientific or technical data, reports, tests, and other relevant information addressing the following factors that FDA will consider in determining whether the identity of an ingredient qualifies as a trade secret:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the identity of the ingredient is known outside petitioner's business; 
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which the identity of the ingredient is known by employees and others involved in petitioner's business; 
</P>
<P>(3) The extent of measures taken by the petitioner to guard the secrecy of the information;
</P>
<P>(4) The value of the information about the identity of the claimed trade secret ingredient to the petitioner and to its competitors; 
</P>
<P>(5) The amount of effort or money expended by petitioner in developing the ingredient; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The ease or difficulty with which the identity of the ingredient could be properly acquired or duplicated by others.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for confidentiality should also be accompanied by a statement that the identity of the ingredient for which confidentiality is requested has not previously been published or disclosed to anyone other than as provided in § 20.81(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will return to the petitioner any request for confidentiality that contains insufficient data to permit a review of the merits of the request. FDA will also advise the petitioner about the additional information that is necessary to enable the agency to proceed with its review of the request.
</P>
<P>(e) If, after receiving all of the data that are necessary to make a determination about whether the identity of an ingredient is a trade secret, FDA tentatively decides to deny the request, the Agency will inform the person requesting trade secrecy of its tentative determination in writing. FDA will set forth the grounds upon which it relied in making this tentative determination. The petitioner may submit, within 60 days from the date of receipt of the written notice of the tentative denial, additional relevant information and arguments and request that the Agency reconsider its decision in light of both the additional material and the information that it originally submitted.
</P>
<P>(f) If the petitioner submits new data in response to FDA's tentative denial of trade secret status, the agency will consider that material together with the information that was submitted initially before making its final determination.
</P>
<P>(g) A final determination that an ingredient is not a trade secret within the meaning of § 20.61 of this chapter constitutes final Agency action that is subject to judicial review under 5 U.S.C. Chapter 7. If suit is brought within 30 calendar days after such a determination, FDA will not disclose the records involved or require that the disputed ingredient or ingredients be disclosed in labeling until the matter is finally determined in the courts. If suit is not brought within 30 calendar days after a final determination that an ingredient is not a trade secret within the meaning of § 20.61 of this chapter, the records involved will be available for public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 11444, Apr. 3, 1986, as amended at 57 FR 3130, Jan. 28, 1992; 68 FR 25288, May 12, 2003; 87 FR 55914, Sept. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 720.9" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.13.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 720.9   Misbranding by reference to filing or to statement number.</HEAD>
<P>The filing of Form FDA 2512 or assignment of a number to the statement does not in any way denote approval by the Food and Drug Administration of the firm or the product. Any representation in labeling or advertising that creates an impression of official approval because of such filing or such number will be considered misleading.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 3130, Jan. 28, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="740" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 740—COSMETIC PRODUCT WARNING STATEMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1451-1561; 21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 356b, 360, 360c-360f, 360h-360j, 371, 374, 379e, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 262, 263, 264; sec. 122, Pub. L. 105-115, 111 Stat. 2322 (21 U.S.C. 355 note).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.1" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.1   Establishment of warning statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a cosmetic product shall bear a warning statement whenever necessary or appropriate to prevent a health hazard that may be associated with the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition, may publish a proposal to establish or amend, under subpart B of this part, a regulation prescribing a warning for a cosmetic. Any such petition shall include an adequate factual basis to support the petition, shall be in the form set forth in part 10 of this chapter, and will be published for comment if it contains reasonable grounds for the proposed regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8917, Mar. 3, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.2" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.2   Conspicuousness of warning statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A warning statement shall appear on the label prominently and conspicuously as compared to other words, statements, designs, or devices and in bold type on contrasting background to render it likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use, but in no case may the letters and/or numbers be less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in height, unless an exemption pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section is established. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the label of any cosmetic package is too small to accommodate the information as required by this section, the Commissioner may establish by regulation an acceptable alternative method, e.g., type size smaller than 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in height. A petition requesting such a regulation, as an amendment to this section, shall be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff in the form established in part 10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8917, Mar. 3, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977; 69 FR 13717, Mar. 24, 2004; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Warning Statements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.10" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.10   Labeling of cosmetic products for which adequate substantiation of safety has not been obtained.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each ingredient used in a cosmetic product and each finished cosmetic product shall be adequately substantiated for safety prior to marketing. Any such ingredient or product whose safety is not adequately substantiated prior to marketing is misbranded unless it contains the following conspicuous statement on the principal display panel:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning</I>—The safety of this product has not been determined.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) An ingredient or product having a history of use in or as a cosmetic may at any time have its safety brought into question by new information that in itself is not conclusive. The warning required by paragraph (a) of this section is not required for such an ingredient or product if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The safety of the ingredient or product had been adequately substantiated prior to development of the new information; 
</P>
<P>(2) The new information does not demonstrate a hazard to human health; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate studies are being conducted to determine expeditiously the safety of the ingredient or product. 
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph (b) of this section does not constitute an exemption to the adulteration provisions of the Act or to any other requirement in the Act or this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8917, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.11" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.11   Cosmetics in self-pressurized containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The label of a cosmetic packaged in a self-pressurized container and intended to be expelled from the package under pressure shall bear the following warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Avoid spraying in eyes. Contents under pressure. Do not puncture or incinerate. Do not store at temperature above 120 °F. Keep out of reach of children.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) In the case of products intended for use by children, the phrase “except under adult supervision” may be added at the end of the last sentence in the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of products packaged in glass containers, the word “break” may be substituted for the word “puncture” in the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) The words “Avoid spraying in eyes” may be deleted from the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section in the case of a product not expelled as a spray. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In addition to the warning required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the label of a cosmetic packaged in a self-pressurized container in which the propellant consists in whole or in part of a halocarbon or a hydrocarbon shall bear the following warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Use only as directed. Intentional misuse by deliberately concentrating and inhaling the contents can be harmful or fatal.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The warning required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not required for the following products: 
</P>
<P>(i) Products expelled in the form of a foam or cream, which contain less than 10 percent propellant in the container. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Products in a container with a physical barrier that prevents escape of the propellant at the time of use. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than 2 ozs. that are designed to release a measured amount of product with each valve actuation. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Products of a net quantity of contents of less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> oz. 
</P>
<P>(c) Labeling requirements for cosmetics packaged in a self- pressurized container containing or manufactured with a chlorofluorocarbon propellant or other ozone-depleting substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are set forth in 40 CFR part 82. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8917, Mar. 3, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 22033, Apr. 29, 1977; 54 FR 39640, Sept. 27, 1989; 61 FR 20101, May 3, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.12" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.12   Feminine deodorant sprays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, the term “feminine deodorant spray” means any spray deodorant product whose labeling represents or suggests that the product is for use in the female genital area or for use all over the body. 
</P>
<P>(b) The label of a feminine deodorant spray shall bear the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution</I>—For external use only. Spray at least 8 inches from skin. Do not apply to broken, irritated, or itching skin. Persistent, unusual odor or discharge may indicate conditions for which a physician should be consulted. Discontinue use immediately if rash, irritation, or discomfort develops.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The sentence “Spray at least 8 inches from skin” need not be included in the cautionary statement for products whose expelled contents do not contain a liquified gas propellant such as a halocarbon or hydrocarbon propellant. 
</FP>
<P>(c) Use of the word “hygiene” or “hygienic” or a similar word or words renders any such product misbranded under section 602(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The use of any word or words which represent or suggest that such products have a medical usefulness renders such products misbranded under section 502(a) of the Act and illegal new drugs marketed in violation of section 505 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8929, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.17" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.17   Foaming detergent bath products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this section, a foaming detergent bath product is any product intended to be added to a bath for the purpose of producing foam that contains a surface-active agent serving as a detergent or foaming ingredient.
</P>
<P>(b) The label of foaming detergent bath products within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section, except for those products that are labeled as intended for use exclusively by adults, shall bear adequate directions for safe use and the following caution:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Caution</I>—Use only as directed. Excessive use or prolonged exposure may cause irritation to skin and urinary tract. Discontinue use if rash, redness, or itching occurs. Consult your physician if irritation persists. Keep out of reach of children.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) In the case of products intended for use by children, the phrase “except under adult supervision” may be added at the end of the last sentence in the caution required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 20475, June 5, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.18" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.18   Coal tar hair dyes posing a risk of cancer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of the label and any labeling accompanying a coal tar hair dye containing any ingredient listed in paragraph (b) of this section shall bear, in accordance with the requirements of § 740.2, the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Warning</I>—Contains an ingredient that can penetrate your skin and has been determined to cause cancer in laboratory animals.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Hair dyes containing any of the following ingredients shall comply with the requirements of this section: (1) 4-methoxy-<I>m</I>-phenylenediamine (2,4-diaminoanisole) and (2) 4-methoxy-<I>m</I>-phenylenediamine sulfate (2,4-diaminoanisole sulfate).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 59522, Oct. 16, 1979]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 47 FR 7829, Feb. 23, 1982, § 740.18 was stayed until further notice, effective Sept. 18, 1980.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.19" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.19   Suntanning preparations.</HEAD>
<P>The labeling of suntanning preparations that do not contain a sunscreen ingredient must display the following warning: “Warning—This product does not contain a sunscreen and does not protect against sunburn. Repeated exposure of unprotected skin while tanning may increase the risk of skin aging, skin cancer, and other harmful effects to the skin even if you do not burn.” For purposes of this section, the term “suntanning preparations” includes gels, creams, liquids, and other topical products that are intended to provide cosmetic effects on the skin while tanning through exposure to UV radiation (e.g., moisturizing or conditioning products), or to give the appearance of a tan by imparting color to the skin through the application of approved color additives (e.g., dihydroxyacetone) without the need for exposure to UV radiation. The term “suntanning preparations” does not include products intended to provide sun protection or otherwise intended to affect the structure or any function of the body. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27693, May 21, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="741-799" NODE="21:7.0.1.2.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 741-799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>June 30, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="8" NODE="21:8" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21—Food and Drugs--Volume 8</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>800 


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="21:8.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="H" NODE="21:8.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER H—MEDICAL DEVICES 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 800—GENERAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 334, 351, 352, 355, 360e, 360i, 360j, 360k, 361, 362, 371.
</PSPACE><P>Section 800.30 also issued under Sec. 709, Pub. L. 115-52, 131 Stat. 1065-67.




</P></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Specific Medical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.10   Contact lens solutions; sterility.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Informed medical opinion is in agreement that all preparations offered or intended for ophthalmic use, including contact lens solutions, should be sterile. It is further evident that such preparations purport to be of such purity and quality as to be suitable for safe use in the eye.
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration concludes that all such preparations, if they are not sterile, fall below their professed standard of purity or quality and may be unsafe. In a statement of policy issued on September 1, 1964, the Food and Drug Administration ruled that liquid preparations offered or intended for ophthalmic use that are not sterile may be regarded as adulterated within the meaning of section 501(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), and, further, may be deemed misbranded within the meaning of section 502(j) of the act. By this regulation, this ruling is applicable to all preparations for ophthalmic use that are regulated as medical devices, i.e., contact lens solutions. By the regulation in § 200.50 of this chapter, this ruling is applicable to ophthalmic preparations that are regulated as drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) The containers shall be sterile at the time of filling and closing, and the container or individual carton shall be so sealed that the contents cannot be used without destroying the seal. The packaging and labeling of these solutions shall also comply with § 800.12 on tamper-resistant packaging requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Liquid ophthalmic preparations packed in multiple-dose containers should:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain one or more suitable and harmless substances that will inhibit the growth of microorganisms; or
</P>
<P>(2) Be so packaged as to volume and type of container and so labeled as to duration of use and with such necessary warnings as to afford adequate protection and minimize the hazard of injury resulting from contamination during use.
</P>
<P>(c) Eye cups, eye droppers, and other dispensers intended for ophthalmic use should be sterile, and may be regarded as falling below their professed standard of purity or quality if they are not sterile. These articles, which are regulated as medical devices unless packaged with the drugs with which they are to be used, should be packaged so as to maintain sterility until the package is opened and be labeled, on or within the retail package, so as to afford adequate directions and necessary warnings to minimize the hazard of injury resulting from contamination during use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50455, Nov. 5, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.12   Contact lens solutions and tablets; tamper-resistant packaging.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Unless contact lens solutions used, for example, to clean, disinfect, wet, lubricate, rinse, soak, or store contact lenses and salt tablets or other dosage forms to be used to make any such solutions are packaged in tamper-resistant retail packages, there is the opportunity for the malicious adulteration of these products with risks both to individuals who unknowingly purchase adulterated products and with loss of consumer confidence in the security of the packages of over-the-counter (OTC) health care products. The Food and Drug Administration has the authority and responsibility under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) to establish a uniform national standard for tamper-resistant packaging of those OTC products vulnerable to malicious adulteration that will improve the security of OTC packaging and help assure the safety and effectiveness of the products contained therein. A contact lens solution or tablet or other dosage form to be used to make such a solution for retail sale that is not packaged in a tamper-resistant package and labeled in accordance with this section is adulterated under section 501 of the act or misbranded under section 502 of the act, or both. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for tamper-resistant package.</I> Each manufacturer and packer who packages for retail sale a product regulated as a medical device that is a solution intended for use with contact lenses, e.g., for cleaning, disinfecting, wetting, lubricating, rinsing, soaking, or storing contact lenses or tablets or other dosage forms to be used to make any such solution shall package the product in a tamper-resistant package, if this product is accessible to the public while held for sale. A tamper-resistant package is one having an indicator or barrier to entry which, if breached or missing, can reasonably be expected to provide visible evidence to consumers that tampering has occurred. To reduce the likelihood of substitution of a tamper-resistant feature after tampering, the indicator or barrier to entry is required to be distinctive by design or by the use of an identifying characteristic (e.g., a pattern, name, registered trademark, logo, or picture). For purposes of this section, the term “distinctive by design” means the package cannot be duplicated with commonly available material or through commonly available processes. A tamper-resistant package may involve an immediate-container and closure system or secondary-container or carton system or any combination of systems intended to provide a visual indication of package integrity. The tamper-resistant feature shall be designed to and shall remain intact when handled in a reasonable manner during manufacture, distribution, and retail display. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> Each retail package of a product covered by this section is required to bear a statement that is prominently placed so that consumers are alerted to the tamper-resistant feature of the package. The labeling statement is also required to be so placed that it will be unaffected if the tamper-resistant feature of the package is breached or missing. If the tamper-resistant feature chosen to meet the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is one that uses an identifying characteristic, that characteristic is required to be referred to in the labeling statement. For example, the labeling statement on a bottle with a shrink band could say “For your protection, this bottle has an imprinted seal around the neck.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests for exemptions from packaging and labeling requirements.</I> A manufacturer or packer may request an exemption from the packaging and labeling requirements of this section. A request for an exemption is required to be submitted in the form of a citizen petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and should be clearly identified on the envelope as a “Request for Exemption from Tamper-resistant Rule.” A petition for an exemption from a requirement of this section is required to contain the same kind of information about the product as is specified for OTC drugs in § 211.132(d) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Products subject to approved premarket approval applications.</I> Holders of approved premarket approval applications for products subject to this section are required to submit supplements to provide for changes in packaging to comply with the requirement of paragraph (b) of this section unless these changes do not affect the composition of the container, the torque (tightness) of the container, or the composition of the closure component in contact with the contents (cap liner or innerseal) as these features are described in the approved premarket approval application. Any supplemental premarket approval application under this paragraph is required to include data sufficient to show that these changes do not adversely affect the product.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date.</I> Each product subject to this section is required to comply with the requirements of this section on the dates listed below except to the extent that a product's manufacturer or packer has obtained an exemption from a packaging or labeling requirement:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial effective date for packaging requirements.</I> (i) The packaging requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is effective on February 7, 1983 for each contact lens solution packaged for retail sale on or after that date, except for the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section for a distinctive indicator or barrier to entry.
</P>
<P>(ii) The packaging requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is effective on May 5, 1983 for each tablet that is to be used to make a contact lens solution and that is packaged for retail sale on or after that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial effective date for labeling requirements.</I> The requirement in paragraph (b) of this section that the indicator or barrier to entry be distinctive by design and the requirement in paragraph (c) of this section for a labeling statement are effective on May 5, 1983 for each product subject to this section packaged for retail sale on or after that date, except that the requirement for a specific label reference to any identifying characteristic is effective on February 6, 1984 for each affected product subject to this section packaged for retail sale on or after that date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retail level effective date.</I> The tamper-resistant packaging requirement of paragraph (b) of this section is effective on February 6, 1984 for each product subject to this section that is held for sale at retail level on or after that date that was packaged for retail sale before May 5, 1983. This does not include the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section that the indicator or barrier to entry be distinctive by design. Products packaged for retail sale after May 5, 1983, are required to be in compliance with all aspects of the regulations without regard to the retail level effective date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50455, Nov. 5, 1982; 48 FR 1706, Jan. 14, 1983, as amended at 48 FR 16666, Apr. 19, 1983; 48 FR 37625, Aug. 19, 1983; 53 FR 11252, Apr. 6, 1988; 73 FR 34859, June 19, 2008]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>A document published at 48 FR 41579, Sept. 16, 1983, stayed the effective date of § 800.12(f)(3) until further notice.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.20   Patient examination gloves and surgeons' gloves; sample plans and test method for leakage defects; adulteration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The prevalence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and its risk of transmission in the health care context, have caused the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to look more closely at the quality control of barrier devices, such as surgeons' gloves and patient examination gloves (collectively known as medical gloves) to reduce the risk of transmission of HIV and other blood-borne infectious diseases. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommend that health care workers wear medical gloves to reduce the risk of transmission of HIV and other blood-borne infectious deseases. The CDC recommends that health care workers wear medical gloves when touching blood or other body fluids, mucous membranes, or nonintact skin of all patients; when handling items or surfaces soiled with blood or other body fluids; and when performing venipuncture and other vascular access procedures. Among other things, CDC's recommendation that health care providers wear medical gloves demonstrates the proposition that devices labeled as medical gloves purport to be and are represented to be effective barriers against the transmission of blood- and fluid-borne pathogens. Therefore, FDA, through this regulation, is defining adulteration for patient examination and surgeons' gloves as a means of assuring safe and effective devices.
</P>
<P>(1) For a description of a patient examination glove, see § 880.6250. Finger cots, however, are excluded from the test method and sample plans in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For a description of a surgeons' glove, see § 878.4460 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>General test method.</I> For the purposes of this part, FDA's analysis of gloves for leaks and visual defects will be conducted by a visual examination and by a water leak test method, using 1,000 milliliters (ml) of water.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Units examined.</I> Each medical glove will be analyzed independently. When packaged as pairs, each glove is considered separately, and both gloves will be analyzed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Identification of defects.</I> For this test, defects include leaks detected when tested in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section. A leak is defined as the appearance of water on the outside of the glove. This emergence of water from the glove constitutes a watertight barrier failure. Other defects include tears, embedded foreign objects, extrusions of glove material on the exterior or interior surface of the glove, gloves that are fused together so that individual glove separation is impossible, gloves that adhere to each other and tear when separated, or other visual defects that are likely to affect the barrier integrity.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Factors for counting defects.</I> One defect in one glove is counted as one defect. A defect in both gloves in a pair of gloves is counted as two defects. If multiple defects, as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, are found in one glove, they are counted as one defect. Visual defects and leaks that are observed in the top 40 millimeters (mm) of a glove will not be counted as a defect for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Leak test materials.</I> FDA considers the following to be the minimum materials required for this test :
</P>
<P>(i) A 60 mm by 380 mm (clear) plastic cylinder with a hook on one end and a mark scored 40 mm from the other end (a cylinder of another size may be used if it accommodates both cuff diameter and any water above the glove capacity);
</P>
<P>(ii) Elastic strapping with velcro or other fastening material;
</P>
<P>(iii) Automatic water-dispensing apparatus or manual device capable of delivering 1,000 ml of water;
</P>
<P>(iv) Stand with horizontal rod for hanging the hook end of the plastic tube. The horizontal support rod must be capable of holding the weight of the total number of gloves that will be suspended at any one time, e.g., five gloves suspended will weigh about 5 kilograms (kg);
</P>
<P>(v) Timer capable of measuring two minute intervals.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Visual defects and leak test procedures.</I> Examine the sample and identify code/lot number, size, and brand as appropriate. Continue the visual examination using the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Visual defects examination.</I> Inspect the gloves for visual defects by carefully removing the glove from the wrapper, box, or package. Visually examine each glove for defects. As noted in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a visual defect observed in the top 40 mm of a glove will not be counted as a defect for the purpose of this part. Visually defective gloves do not require further testing, although they must be included in the total number of defective gloves counted for the sample.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Leak test set-up.</I> (A) During this procedure, ensure that the exterior of the glove remains dry. Attach the glove to the plastic fill tube by bringing the cuff end to the 40 mm mark and fastening with elastic strapping to make a watertight seal.
</P>
<P>(B) Add 1,000 ml of room temperature water (i.e., 20 (deg)C to 30 (deg)C) into the open end of the fill tube. The water should pass freely into the glove. (With some larger sizes of long-cuffed surgeons' gloves, the water level may reach only the base of the thumb. With some smaller gloves, the water level may extend several inches up the fill tube.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Leak test examination.</I> Immediately after adding the water, examine the glove for water leaks. Do not squeeze the glove; use only minimum manipulation to spread the fingers to check for leaks. Water drops may be blotted to confirm leaking.
</P>
<P>(A) If the glove does not leak immediately, keep the glove/filling tube assembly upright and hang the assembly vertically from the horizontal rod, using the wire hook on the open end of the fill tube (do not support the filled glove while transferring).
</P>
<P>(B) Make a second observation for leaks 2 minutes after the water is added to the glove. Use only minimum manipulation of the fingers to check for leaks.
</P>
<P>(C) Record the number of defective gloves.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sampling, inspection, acceptance, and adulteration.</I> In performing the test for leaks and other visual defects described in paragraph (b) of this section, FDA will collect and inspect samples of medical gloves, and determine when the gloves are acceptable as set out in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sample plans.</I> FDA will collect samples from lots of medical gloves in accordance with agency sampling plans. These plans are based on sample sizes, levels of sample inspection, and acceptable quality levels (AQLs) found in the International Standard Organization's standard ISO 2859, “Sampling Procedures For Inspection By Attributes.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sample sizes, inspection levels, and minimum AQLs.</I> FDA will use single normal sampling for lots of 1,200 gloves or less and multiple normal sampling for all larger lots. FDA will use general inspection level II in determining the sample size for any lot size. As shown in the tables following paragraph (c)(3) of this section, FDA considers a 1.5 AQL to be the minimum level of quality acceptable for surgeons' gloves and a 2.5 AQL to be the minimum level of quality acceptable for patient examination gloves.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adulteration levels and accept/reject criteria.</I> FDA considers a lot of medical gloves to be adulterated when the number of defective gloves found in the tested sample meets or exceeds the applicable rejection number at the 1.5 AQL for surgeons' gloves or the 2.5 AQL for patient examination gloves. These acceptance and rejection numbers are identified in the tables following paragraph (c)(3) of this section as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Accept/Reject Criteria at 1.5 AQL for Surgeons' Gloves
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number Examined
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number Defective
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Accept
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reject
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 to 90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91 to 280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">281 to 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,201 to 3,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,201 to 10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,001 to 35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">875</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Accept/Reject Criteria at 2.5 AQL for Patient Examination Gloves
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number Examined
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number Defective
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Accept
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reject
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 to 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51 to 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">151 to 280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">281 to 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,201 to 3,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,201 to 10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,001 to 35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35,000 and above</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">First</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Second</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Third</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Fifth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Sixth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Seventh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">875</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance.</I> Lots of gloves that are sampled, tested, and rejected using procedures in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, are considered adulterated within the meaning of section 501(c) of the act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Detention and seizure.</I> Lots of gloves that are adulterated under section 501(c) of the act are subject to administrative and judicial action, such as detention of imported products and seizure of domestic products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reconditioning.</I> FDA may authorize the owner of the product, or the owner's representative, to attempt to recondition, i.e., bring into compliance with the act, a lot or part of a lot of foreign gloves detained at importation, or a lot or part of a lot of seized domestic gloves.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Modified sampling, inspection, and acceptance.</I> If FDA authorizes reconditioning of a lot or portion of a lot of adulterated gloves, testing to confirm that the reconditioned gloves meet AQLs must be performed by an independent testing facility. The following tightened sampling plan must be followed, as described in ISO 2859 “Sampling Procedures for Inspection by Attributes:”
</P>
<P>(A) General inspection level II,
</P>
<P>(B) Single sampling plans for tightened inspection,
</P>
<P>(C) 1.5 AQL for surgeons' gloves, and
</P>
<P>(D) 2.5 AQL for patient examination gloves.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adulteration levels and acceptance criteria for reconditioned gloves.</I> (A) FDA considers a lot or part of a lot of adulterated gloves, that is reconditioned in accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, to be acceptable when the number of defective gloves found in the tested sample does not exceed the acceptance number in the appropriate tables in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section for reconditioned surgeons' gloves or patient examination gloves.
</P>
<P>(B) FDA considers a reconditioned lot of medical gloves to be adulterated within the meaning of section 501(c) of the act when the number of defective gloves found in the tested sample meets or exceeds the applicable rejection number in the tables following paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Accept/Reject Criteria at 1.5 AQL for Reconditioned Surgeons' Gloves
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number Defective
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Accept
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reject
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13 to 90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91 to 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,201 to 3,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,201 to 10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,001 to 35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">315</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35,000 and above</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Accept/Reject Criteria at 2.5 AQL for Reconditioned Patient Examination Gloves
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lot Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number Defective
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Accept
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reject
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 to 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51 to 280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">281 to 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,201 to 3,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,201 to 10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,001 to 35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">315</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35,000 and above</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Single sample</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 51256, Dec. 12, 1990, as amended at 71 FR 75876, Dec. 19, 2006]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.30   Over-the-counter hearing aid controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section specifies the requirements for over-the-counter (OTC) air-conduction hearing aids. Air-conduction hearing aids that satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section are considered “available” over the counter as section 520(q)(1)(A)(v) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act uses the term. Air-conduction hearing aids that do not meet the definition in section 520(q) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or do not satisfy the following requirements are prescription hearing aids. Unless otherwise specified, the requirements in this section are in addition to other applicable requirements, including but not limited to special controls found in the applicable classification regulation in part 874 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions for the purposes of this section.</I> This section uses the following definitions:
</P>
<P><I>Air-conduction hearing aid.</I> An air-conduction hearing aid is a hearing aid that conducts sound to the ear through the air.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing aid.</I> A hearing aid is any wearable device designed for, offered for the purpose of, or represented as aiding persons with or compensating for, impaired hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Licensed person.</I> A licensed person is a person as defined in section 201(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that holds a license or degree for the diagnosis, assessment, or treatment of hearing loss; or that holds a license to sell or distribute hearing aids. A person that must meet generally applicable licensing or operating requirements such as annual health and safety inspections, provided the generally applicable licensing or operating requirement is consistent with this section and other applicable requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, is not a “licensed person” solely for that reason. A person that represents as a marketer, seller, dispenser, distributor, or customer support representative (or an equivalent description) is not a “licensed person” solely by making such representations.
</P>
<P><I>Over-the-counter hearing aid.</I> An over-the-counter (OTC) hearing aid is an air-conduction hearing aid that does not require implantation or other surgical intervention, and is intended for use by a person age 18 or older to compensate for perceived mild to moderate hearing impairment. The device, through tools, tests, or software, allows the user to control the hearing aid and customize it to the user's hearing needs. The device may use wireless technology or may include tests for self-assessment of hearing loss. The device is available over-the-counter, without the supervision, prescription, or other order, involvement, or intervention of a licensed person, to consumers through in-person transactions, by mail, or online, provided that the device satisfies the requirements in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription hearing aid.</I> A prescription hearing aid is a hearing aid that is not an OTC hearing aid as defined in this section or a hearing aid that does not satisfy the requirements in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Rebuilt hearing aid.</I> An OTC hearing aid is “rebuilt” if the manufacturer has inspected and tested the device, made any necessary modifications to ensure it meets applicable regulatory requirements, including the requirements in this section to be available OTC, and adequately reprocessed the device for the next user.
</P>
<P><I>Sale.</I> Sale includes a lease, rental, or any other purchase or exchange for value.
</P>
<P><I>Tools, tests, or software.</I> Tools, tests, or software are components of the device that, individually or in combination, allow a lay user to control the device and customize it sufficiently, such as the device's output, to meet the user's hearing needs.
</P>
<P><I>Used hearing aid.</I> A hearing aid is “used” if a user has worn it for any period of time. However, a hearing aid shall not be “used” merely because a prospective user wore it as part of a bona fide hearing aid evaluation to determine whether to select that particular hearing aid for that prospective user. A hearing aid evaluation is “bona fide” if it was conducted in the presence of the dispenser or a hearing health professional selected by the dispenser to assist the prospective user in making a determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> An OTC hearing aid shall bear all of the following in the labeling:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Outside package labeling.</I> The outside package of an OTC hearing aid shall bear all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Warnings and other important information.</I> All of the following shall appear on the outside package:
</P>
<P>(A) (A) <I>Warning against use in people younger than 18.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.000.gif"/>
<P>(B) <I>Symptoms suggesting perceived mild to moderate hearing loss.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.001.gif"/>
<P>(C) <I>Advice of availability of professional services.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.002.gif"/>
<P>(D) <I>“Red flag” conditions.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.003.gif"/>
<P>(E) <I>Notice of contact information.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.004.gif"/>
<P>(F) <I>Notice of manufacturer's return policy.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.005.gif"/>
<P>(ii) <I>Statement of build condition.</I> If the OTC hearing aid is used or rebuilt, the outside package shall declare that fact. A sticker under and visible through the outer wrapper will suffice to declare such fact.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Statement of OTC availability.</I> The principal display panel shall bear the marks “OTC” and “hearing aid” with the same prominence required under § 801.61(c) of this chapter for the device's statement of identity. The device's common name on the principal display panel may satisfy all or part of this requirement to the extent the common name includes the marks.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Indication of battery information.</I> The outside package shall indicate the type and number of batteries and whether batteries are included in the package.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Indication of control platform.</I> The outside package shall indicate whether a mobile device or other non-included control platform is required. The indication must include the type of platform and how the platform connects to the device.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Labeling, inside the package.</I> The manufacturer or distributor of an OTC hearing aid shall include a user instructional brochure inside the package and shall make an electronic version available for download without site or customer registration and without requiring purchase of any product or service. The user instructional brochure shall include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The following warnings, which shall appear in the following order and prior to any content except the cover page:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Warning against use in people younger than 18.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.006.gif"/>
<P>(B) <I>“Red flag” conditions.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.007.gif"/>
<P>(C) <I>Warning about pain from device placement.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.008.gif"/>
<P>(ii) Any additional warnings the manufacturer may include prior to the cautions and notices to users in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following cautions and notices for users, which shall appear prior to any content except the cover page and the warnings under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Caution about hearing protection.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.009.gif"/>
<P>(B) <I>Caution about excessive sound output.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.010.gif"/>
<P>(C) <I>Caution about components lodging in ear.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.011.gif"/>
<P>(D) <I>Advice to seek professional services.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.012.gif"/>
<P>(E) <I>Note about user expectations.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.013.gif"/>
<P>(E) <I>Note about reporting adverse events to FDA.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.014.gif"/>
<P>(iv) An illustration(s) of the OTC hearing aid that indicates operating controls, user adjustments, and the battery compartment.
</P>
<P>(v) Information on the function of all controls intended for user adjustment.
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of any accessory that accompanies the OTC hearing aid, including but not limited to wax guards and accessories for use with a computer, television, or telephone.
</P>
<P>(vii) Specific instructions for all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Instructions for sizing or inserting the eartip of the OTC hearing aid to prevent insertion past the depth limit and damage to the tympanic membrane.
</P>
<P>(B) The tools, tests, or software that allow the user to control the OTC hearing aid, including self-selection and self-checking the performance of the OTC hearing aid, and customize it to the user's hearing needs, including information about properly fitting eartips.
</P>
<P>(C) Use of the OTC hearing aid with any accompanying accessories.
</P>
<P>(D) Maintenance and care of the OTC hearing aid, including how a lay user can clean, disinfect, and replace parts or how to seek replacements, as well as how to store the hearing aid when it will not be used for an extended period of time.
</P>
<P>(E) If the battery is replaceable or rechargeable, how to replace or recharge the battery, including a generic designation of replacement batteries.
</P>
<P>(F) Expected battery life.
</P>
<P>(G) Any other information necessary for adequate directions for use as defined in § 801.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(viii) Identification of any known physiological side effects associated with the use of the OTC hearing aid that may warrant consultation with a physician, referring to an ear-nose-throat doctor when preferable, including if applicable, skin irritation and accelerated accumulation of cerumen (ear wax).
</P>
<P>(ix) The technical specifications required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) A description of commonly occurring, avoidable events that could adversely affect or damage the OTC hearing aid, including but not limited to, as applicable, ear wax buildup, drops, immersion in water, or exposure to excessive heat.
</P>
<P>(xi) If the hearing aid incorporates wireless technology in its programming or use, appropriate warnings, instructions, and information relating to electromagnetic compatibility and wireless technology and human exposure to non-ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P>(xii) Information on how and where to obtain repair service or replacements, including at least one specific address where the user can go or send the OTC hearing aid to obtain such repair service or replacements.
</P>
<P>(xiii) If clinical or non-clinical studies were conducted by or for the manufacturer to support the performance of the OTC hearing aid, a summary of all such studies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling on the device.</I> The labeling on an OTC hearing aid itself shall bear all of the following clearly and permanently, except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The serial number.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the battery is removable, a “+” symbol to indicate the positive terminal for battery insertion unless the battery's physical design prevents inserting the battery in the reversed position.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the OTC hearing aid is used or rebuilt, the manufacturer shall physically attach a removable tag to the hearing aid declaring that fact.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Technical specifications.</I> All of the following technical specifications shall appear in the user instructional brochure that accompanies the device. You may additionally include it on the outside package:
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum output limit value (Output Sound Pressure Level 90 (OSPL90)).
</P>
<P>(ii) The full-on gain value, which is the gain with a 50 decibel (dB) Sound Pressure Level (SPL) pure-tone input and volume set to full on.
</P>
<P>(iii) The total harmonic distortion value.
</P>
<P>(iv) The self-generated noise value.
</P>
<P>(v) The latency value.
</P>
<P>(vi) The upper and lower cutoff frequencies for bandwidth.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Software device labeling.</I> OTC hearing aid software that is not distributed with the hearing aid or amplification platform shall meet all of the following labeling requirements. With respect to the information required under paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, the information must be provided in the software device labeling, as specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(i) through (v) of this section, rather than the locations (<I>e.g.,</I> outside package labeling) specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4):
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to first use of the software or obtaining payment information for the software, whichever occurs first, the labeling must clearly and prominently present all of the following to the prospective user. For each, the labeling must remain visible until the user dismisses it or proceeds to the next step:
</P>
<P>(A) Compatibility and minimum operating requirements for the software device.
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosures of any fees or payments after first use or initial payment, including but not limited to any fees or payments relating to subscriptions, add-on features, or continued access to features or services. The disclosures must name and briefly describe what each fee or payment covers.
</P>
<P>(C) The information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (iii), and (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to first use of the software, the labeling must clearly and prominently present all of the following to the prospective user:
</P>
<P>(A) The information required under paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section, and it must remain visible until the user acknowledges it.
</P>
<P>(B) The information required under paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(B) and (C), (c)(2)(ii), (iii), and (v), (c)(2)(vii)(B) and (G), and (c)(2)(viii) and (ix) of this section, and the information must remain visible until the user dismisses it or proceeds to the next step.
</P>
<P>(C) All other information required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, to the extent applicable, and the information must remain visible until the user dismisses it or proceeds to the next step.
</P>
<P>(iii) The software device labeling must include the information required under paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) All of the software device labeling must be accessible for review after acknowledgment, dismissal, or proceeding to the next step.
</P>
<P>(v) If there are changes to any of the labeling required under paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the labeling with the changed information must be presented to the user until the user dismisses it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Output limits.</I> The output limit for an OTC hearing aid shall be the device maximum acoustic output sound pressure level (SPL) with an acoustic coupler as described in paragraph (e)(6) of this section when the device input is a 90 dB SPL pure-tone, and the gain/volume control is full on. An OTC hearing aid shall not exceed the following limits at any of the frequencies at which the device is intended to operate:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General output limit.</I> An OTC hearing aid shall not exceed an output limit of 111 dB SPL at any frequency except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Output limit for a device with activated input-controlled compression.</I> An OTC hearing aid that has input-controlled compression activated shall not exceed an output limit of 117 dB SPL at any frequency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Electroacoustic performance limits.</I> An OTC hearing aid shall perform within all of the following electroacoustic limits. Measure each electroacoustic performance characteristic using an acoustic coupler as described in paragraph (e)(6) of this section, where applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Output distortion control limits.</I> Test the output distortion of the OTC hearing aid as follows to ensure that it does not exceed the limit specified in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The total harmonic distortion plus noise shall not exceed 5 percent for output levels within one of the following sets of levels, depending on the test method:
</P>
<P>(A) Using sine wave-based testing, measure at 70 dB SPL and 100 dB SPL; or
</P>
<P>(B) Using a 500-hertz (Hz) one-third-octave pulsed-noise signal, measure at 67 dB SPL and 97 dB SPL.
</P>
<P>(ii) You must measure the total harmonic distortion using a 500-Hz input tone with an analyzer that has a bandwidth at least as wide as the frequency limits of the OTC hearing aid.
</P>
<P>(iii) You must measure the output distortion at the OTC hearing aid's maximum volume and the input sound level to the OTC hearing aid adjusted to produce the required outputs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Self-generated noise level limits.</I> Self-generated noise shall not exceed 32 dBA. You must disable any methods that artificially lower the apparent noise floor for the measurement. Such methods would include but are not limited to auto-muting and downward expansion.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Latency.</I> Latency shall not exceed 15 ms. You must measure the latency with a method that is accurate and repeatable to within 1.5 ms.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Frequency response bandwidth.</I> The lower cutoff frequency shall extend to 250 Hz or below, and the upper cutoff frequency shall extend to 5 kHz or greater. You must measure the frequency response bandwidth as specified in the Method for clause 4.1 in ANSI/CTA-2051:2017.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Frequency response smoothness.</I> No single peak in the one-third-octave frequency response shall exceed 12 dB relative to the average levels of the one-third-octave bands, two-thirds octave above and below the peak. You must measure the frequency response smoothness using values for a diffuse field and the corrected one-third-octave frequency insertion response as specified in the Method for clause 4.1 in ANSI/CTA-2051:2017.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Acoustic coupler choice.</I> Where applicable, use one of the following acoustic couplers to measure electroacoustic performance:
</P>
<P>(i) When compatible with the device design, a 2-cubic centimeter (cm
<SU>3</SU>) acoustic coupler; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When a 2-cm
<SU>3</SU> acoustic coupler is not compatible with the device design, an acoustic coupler that is a scientifically valid and technically equivalent alternative. You must document the rationale for using an alternative acoustic coupler.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Design requirements.</I> An OTC hearing aid must conform to all of the following design requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Insertion depth.</I> The design of an OTC hearing aid shall limit the insertion of the most medial component so that, when inserted, the component is reasonably expected to remain at least 10 millimeters (mm) from the tympanic membrane.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of atraumatic materials.</I> The material for the eartip of an OTC hearing aid shall be atraumatic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Proper physical fit.</I> The design of an OTC hearing aid shall enable consumers to readily achieve a safe, customized, acoustically favorable, and comfortable physical fit in the ear canal and/or external ear.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tools, tests, or software.</I> The OTC hearing aid shall, through tools, tests, or software, permit a lay user to control the device and customize it to the user's hearing needs.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>User-adjustable volume control.</I> The OTC hearing aid shall have a user-adjustable volume control.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Adequate reprocessing.</I> If the OTC hearing aid is used or rebuilt, it must be adequately reprocessed for the next user prior to sale.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conditions for sale of an OTC hearing aid.</I> The sale of an OTC hearing aid is subject to all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Age minimum.</I> Sale to or for a person younger than 18 years of age is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement of OTC availability.</I> Sale of an OTC hearing aid is prohibited unless its labeling bears the statement of OTC availability required under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Effect on State law.</I> Any State or local government requirement for an OTC hearing aid is preempted to the following extent:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preemption.</I> No State or local government shall establish or continue in effect any law, regulation, order, or other requirement specifically related to hearing products that would restrict or interfere with the servicing, marketing, sale, dispensing, use, customer support, or distribution of OTC hearing aids through in-person transactions, by mail, or online, that is different from, in addition to, or otherwise not identical to, the regulations promulgated under section 709(b) of the FDA Reauthorization Act of 2017, including any State or local requirement for the supervision, prescription, or other order, involvement, or intervention of a licensed person for consumers to access OTC hearing aids.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Professional requirements</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> The servicing, marketing, sale, dispensing, customer support, or distribution of OTC hearing aids, or an equivalent activity, whether through in-person transactions, by mail, or online, shall not cause, require, or otherwise obligate a person providing such services to obtain specialized licensing, certification, or any other State or local sanction unless such requirement is generally applicable to the sale of any product or to all places of business regardless of whether they sell OTC hearing aids. However, although a State or local government may not require the order, involvement, or intervention of a licensed person for consumers to access OTC hearing aids, a licensed person may service, market, sell, dispense, provide customer support for, or distribute OTC hearing aids.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sale of OTC hearing aids is not an exemption.</I> The servicing, marketing, sale, dispensing, customer support, or distribution of OTC hearing aids does not exempt a person from any State or local government's professional or establishment requirements that are consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Representations may create professional obligations.</I> A person shall not incur specialized obligations by representing as a servicer, marketer, seller, dispenser, customer support representative, or distributor (or an equivalent description) of OTC hearing aids. However, a person representing as any other defined professional or establishment, or as a State licensed dispenser, is subject to applicable State and local requirements even if the person undertakes commercial or professional activities only in relation to OTC hearing aids.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Private remedies.</I> This section does not modify or otherwise affect the ability of any person to exercise a private right of action under any State or Federal product liability, tort, warranty, contract, or consumer protection law.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> ANSI/CTA-2051, “Personal Sound Amplification Performance Criteria,” dated January 2017 (ANSI/CTA-2051:2017), is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from Consumer Technology Association (CTA), Technology &amp; Standards Department, 1919 S Eads Street, Arlington, VA 22202; phone: 703-907-7600; fax: (703) 907-7693; email: <I>standards@ce.org,</I> website: <I>www.cta.tech</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 50748, Aug. 17, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Practices and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.55" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.55   Administrative detention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section sets forth the procedures for detention of medical devices intended for human use believed to be adulterated or misbranded. Administrative detention is intended to protect the public by preventing distribution or use of devices encountered during inspections that may be adulterated or misbranded, until the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has had time to consider what action it should take concerning the devices, and to initiate legal action, if appropriate. Devices that FDA orders detained may not be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner by any person during the detention period, except as authorized under paragraph (h) of this section, until FDA terminates the detention order under paragraph (j) of this section, or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for ordering detention.</I> Administrative detention of devices may be ordered in accordance with this section when an authorized FDA representative, during an inspection under section 704 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), has reason to believe that a device, as defined in section 201(h) of the act, is adulterated or misbranded.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Detention period.</I> The detention is to be for a reasonable period that may not exceed 20 calendar days after the detention order is issued, unless the FDA Division Director in whose division the devices are located determines that a greater period is required to seize the devices, to institute injunction proceedings, or to evaluate the need for legal action, in which case the Division Director may authorize detention for 10 additional calendar days. The additional 10-calendar-day detention period may be ordered at the time the detention order is issued or at any time thereafter. The entire detention period may not exceed 30 calendar days, except when the detention period is extended under paragraph (g)(6) of this section. An authorized FDA representative may, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, terminate a detention before the expiration of the detention period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Issuance of detention order.</I> (1) The detention order shall be issued in writing, in the form of a detention notice, signed by the authorized FDA representative who has reason to believe that the devices are adulterated or misbranded, and issued to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the devices are located. If the owner or the user of the devices is different from the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the devices are detained, a copy of the detention order shall be provided to the owner or user of the devices if the owner's or user's identity can be readily determined.
</P>
<P>(2) If detention of devices in a vehicle or other carrier is ordered, a copy of the detention order shall be provided to the shipper of record and the owner of the vehicle or other carrier, if their identities can be readily determined.
</P>
<P>(3) The detention order shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the devices identified in the order are detained for the period shown; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A brief, general statement of the reasons for the detention; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The location of the devices; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that these devices are not to be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner during that period, except as permitted under paragraph (h) of this section, without the written permission of an authorized FDA representative; 
</P>
<P>(v) Identification of the detained devices; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The detention order number; 
</P>
<P>(vii) The date and hour of the detention order; 
</P>
<P>(viii) The period of the detention; 
</P>
<P>(ix) The text of section 304(g) of the act and paragraph (g) (1) and (2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(x) A statement that any informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order shall be conducted as a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter, with certain exceptions described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(xi) The mailing address, telephone number, and name of the FDA Division Director.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Approval of detention order.</I> A detention order, before issuance, shall be approved by the FDA Division Director in whose division the devices are located. If prior written approval is not feasible, prior oral approval shall be obtained and confirmed by written memorandum within FDA as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Labeling or marking a detained device.</I> An FDA representative issuing a detention order under paragraph (d) of this section shall label or mark the devices with official FDA tags that include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the devices are detained by the United States Government in accordance with section 304(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 334(g)).
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the devices shall not be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner for the period shown, without the written permission of an authorized FDA representative, except as authorized in paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the violation of a detention order or the removal or alteration of the tag is punishable by fine or imprisonment or both (section 303 of the act, 21 U.S.C. 333). 
</P>
<P>(4) The detention order number, the date and hour of the detention order, the detention period, and the name of the FDA representative who issued the detention order. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appeal of a detention order.</I> (1) A person who would be entitled to claim the devices, if seized, may appeal a detention order. Any appeal shall be submitted in writing to the FDA Division Director in whose division the devices are located within 5 working days of receipt of a detention order. If the appeal includes a request for an informal hearing, as defined in section 201(x) of the act, the appellant shall request either that a hearing be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed or that the hearing be held at a later date, which shall not be later than 20 calendar days after receipt of a detention order.
</P>
<P>(2) The appellant of a detention order shall state the ownership or proprietary interest the appellant has in the detained devices. If the detained devices are located at a place other than an establishment owned or operated by the appellant, the appellant shall include documents showing that the appellant would have legitimate authority to claim the devices if seized. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order shall be conducted as a regulatory hearing pursuant to regulation in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The detention order under paragraph (d) of this section, rather than the notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides notice of opportunity for a hearing under this section and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for a hearing under this section should be addressed to the FDA Division Director.
</P>
<P>(iii) The last sentence of § 16.24(e) of this chapter, stating that a hearing may not be required to be held at a time less than 2 working days after receipt of the request for a hearing, does not apply to a hearing under this section. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Paragraph (g)(4) of this section, rather than § 16.42(a) of this chapter, describes the FDA employees who preside at hearings under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer of a regulatory hearing on an appeal of a detention order, who also shall decide the appeal, shall be an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA Division Director who is permitted by § 16.42(a) of this chapter to preside over the hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) If the appellant requests a regulatory hearing and requests that the hearing be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed, the presiding officer shall, within 5 working days, hold the hearing and render a decision affirming or revoking the detention. 
</P>
<P>(6) If the appellant requests a regulatory hearing and requests that the hearing be held at a date later than within 5 working days after the appeal is filed, but not later than 20 calendar days after receipt of a detention order, the presiding officer shall hold the hearing at a date agreed upon by FDA and the appellant. The presiding officer shall decide whether to affirm or revoke the detention within 5 working days after the conclusion of the hearing. The detention period extends to the date of the decision even if the 5-working-day period for making the decision extends beyond the otherwise applicable 20-calendar-day or 30-calendar-day detention period. 
</P>
<P>(7) If the appellant appeals the detention order but does not request a regulatory hearing, the presiding officer shall render a decision on the appeal affirming or revoking the detention within 5 working days after the filing of the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(8) If the presiding officer affirms a detention order, the devices continue to be detained until FDA terminates the detention under paragraph (j) of this section or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first. 
</P>
<P>(9) If the presiding officer revokes a detention order, FDA shall terminate the detention under paragraph (j) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Movement of detained devices.</I> (1) Except as provided in this paragraph (h), no person shall move detained devices within or from the place where they have been ordered detained until FDA terminates the detention under paragraph (j) of this section or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(2) If detained devices are not in final form for shipment, the manufacturer may move them within the establishment where they are detained to complete the work needed to put them in final form. As soon as the devices are moved for the purpose of the preceding sentence, the individual responsible for their movement shall orally notify the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible division office official, of the movement of the devices. As soon as the devices are put in final form, they shall be segregated from other devices, and the individual responsible for their movement shall orally notify the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible division office official, of their new location. The devices put in final form shall not be moved further without FDA approval.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible division office official, may approve, in writing, the movement of detained devices for any of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) To prevent interference with an establishment's operations or harm to the devices. 
</P>
<P>(ii) To destroy the devices. 
</P>
<P>(iii) To bring the devices into compliance. 
</P>
<P>(iv) For any other purpose that the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or other responsible division office official, believes is appropriate in the case.
</P>
<P>(4) If an FDA representative approves the movement of detained devices under paragraph (h)(3) of this section, the detained devices shall remain segregated from other devices and the person responsible for their movement shall immediately orally notify the official who approved the movement of the devices, or another responsible FDA division office official, of the new location of the detained devices.
</P>
<P>(5) Unless otherwise permitted by the FDA representative who is notified of, or who approves, the movement of devices under this paragraph, the required tags shall accompany the devices during and after movement and shall remain with the devices until FDA terminates the detention or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Actions involving adulterated or misbranded devices.</I> If FDA determines that the detained devices, including any that have been put in final form, are adulterated or misbranded, or both, it may initiate legal action against the devices or the responsible individuals, or both, or request that the devices be destroyed or otherwise brought into compliance with the act under FDA's supervision.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Detention termination.</I> If FDA decides to terminate a detention or when the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, an FDA representative authorized to terminate a detention will issue a detention termination notice releasing the devices to any person who received the original detention order or that person's representative and will remove, or authorize in writing the removal of, the required labels or tags.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> (1) After issuance of a detention order under paragraph (d) of this section, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of any factory, warehouse, other establishment, or consulting laboratory where detained devices are manufactured, processed, packed, or held shall have, or establish, and maintain adequate records relating to how the detained devices may have become adulterated or misbranded, records on any distribution of the devices before and after the detention period, records on the correlation of any in-process detained devices that are put in final form under paragraph (h) of this section to the completed devices, records of any changes in, or processing of, the devices permitted under the detention order, and records of any other movement under paragraph (h) of this section. Records required under this paragraph shall be provided to the FDA on request for review and copying. Any FDA request for access to records required under this paragraph shall be made at a reasonable time, shall state the reason or purpose for the request, and shall identify to the fullest extent practicable the information or type of information sought in the records to which access is requested.
</P>
<P>(2) Records required under this paragraph shall be maintained for a maximum period of 2 years after the issuance of the detention order or for such other shorter period as FDA directs. When FDA terminates the detention or when the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, FDA will advise all persons required under this paragraph to keep records concerning that detention whether further recordkeeping is required for the remainder of the 2-year, or shorter, period. FDA ordinarily will not require further recordkeeping if the agency determines that the devices are not adulterated or misbranded or that recordkeeping is not necessary to protect the public health, unless the records are required under other regulations in this chapter (e.g., the good manufacturing practice regulation in part 820 of this chapter).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 13239, Mar. 9, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 3174, Jan. 26, 1984; 69 FR 17292, Apr. 2, 2004; 79 FR 9412, Feb. 19, 2014; 82 FR 14147, Mar. 17, 2017; 85 FR 16555, Mar. 25, 2020] 

	

	


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.75" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.1.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.75   Requests for supervisory review of certain decisions made by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions shall apply to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>517A decision</I> means a significant decision made by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, as set forth in section 517A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and includes one of the following decisions:
</P>
<P>(i) A substantially equivalent order under § 807.100(a)(1) of this chapter, or a not substantially equivalent order under § 807.100(a)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) An approval order under § 814.44(d) of this chapter, an approvable letter under § 814.44(e) of this chapter, a not approvable letter under § 814.44(f) of this chapter, or an order denying approval under § 814.45 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) An approval order under § 814.116(b) of this chapter, an approvable letter under § 814.116(c) of this chapter, a not approvable letter under § 814.116(d) of this chapter, or an order denying approval under § 814.118 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iv) A grant or denial of a request for breakthrough device designation under section 515B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(v) An approval order under § 812.30(a) of this chapter or a disapproval order under § 812.30(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vi) A failure to reach agreement letter under section 520(g)(7) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(vii) A clinical hold determination under section 520(g)(8) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CDRH</I> means the Center for Devices and Radiological Health.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of request</I>—(1) <I>Review of 517A decisions</I>. (i) An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH of a 517A decision under § 10.75 of this chapter must be addressed to the next organizational level or higher above the individual who made the decision; submitted in electronic format in accordance with section 745A(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; marked “Appeal: Request for Supervisory Review”; and received by CDRH no later than 30 days after the date of the decision involved. Any such request for supervisory review not received by CDRH within 30 days after the date of the decision involved is not eligible for review. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section, FDA will render a decision within 45 days of the request for supervisory review.
</P>
<P>(ii) A person requesting supervisory review under paragraph (b)(1)(i) may request an in-person meeting or teleconference with the supervisor reviewing the request for supervisory review. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, if a request for in-person meeting or teleconference is included in the request for supervisory review to CDRH, CDRH will schedule the meeting or teleconference to occur within 30 days of receipt of the request. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a decision will be rendered within 30 days of such meeting or teleconference.
</P>
<P>(iii) The timeframes for CDRH to render a decision provided in (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, and the timeframe to schedule an in-person meeting or teleconference review in (b)(1)(ii) of this section, do not apply if a matter related to the 517A decision under review is referred by CDRH to external experts, such as an advisory committee, as provided in § 10.75(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supervisory review.</I> An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH under § 10.75 of this chapter of a decision other than a 517A decision that is not received by CDRH within 60 days after the date of the decision involved will be denied as untimely, unless CDRH, for good cause, permits the request to be filed after 60 days. An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH of a decision other than a 517A decision must be addressed to the next organizational level or higher above the individual who made the decision; submitted in electronic format in accordance with section 745A(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, when applicable; marked, “Appeal: Request for Supervisory Review” in the subject line of the electronic request; and sent to the CDRH Ombudsman at <I>CDRHOmbudsman@fda.hhs.gov</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 31477, July 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="801" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 801—LABELING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331-334, 351, 352, 360d, 360i, 360j, 371, 374.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 6896, Feb. 13, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Labeling Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.1   Medical devices; name and place of business of manufacturer, packer or distributor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of a device in package form shall specify conspicuously the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for declaration of the name of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor shall be deemed to be satisfied, in the case of a corporation, only by the actual corporate name which may be preceded or followed by the name of the particular division of the corporation. Abbreviations for “Company,” “Incorporated,” etc., may be used and “The” may be omitted. In the case of an individual, partnership, or association, the name under which the business is conducted shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where a device is not manufactured by the person whose name appears on the label, the name shall be qualified by a phrase that reveals the connection such person has with such device; such as, “Manufactured for ___”, “Distributed by _____”, or any other wording that expresses the facts. 
</P>
<P>(d) The statement of the place of business shall include the street address, city, State, and Zip Code; however, the street address may be omitted if it is shown in a current city directory or telephone directory. The requirement for inclusion of the ZIP Code shall apply only to consumer commodity labels developed or revised after the effective date of this section. In the case of nonconsumer packages, the ZIP Code shall appear on either the label or the labeling (including the invoice). 
</P>
<P>(e) If a person manufactures, packs, or distributes a device at a place other than his principal place of business, the label may state the principal place of business in lieu of the actual place where such device was manufactured or packed or is to be distributed, unless such statement would be misleading. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC)</I> means any technology that conveys the unique device identifier or the device identifier of a device in a form that can be entered into an electronic patient record or other computer system via an automated process.
</P>
<P><I>Center Director</I> means the Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health or the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, depending on which Center has been assigned lead responsibility for the device.
</P>
<P><I>Combination product</I> has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Convenience kit</I> means two or more different medical devices packaged together for the convenience of the user.
</P>
<P><I>Device package</I> means a package that contains a fixed quantity of a particular version or model of a device.
</P>
<P><I>Expiration date</I> means the date by which the label of a device states the device must or should be used.
</P>
<P><I>FDA, we,</I> or <I>us</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Finished device</I> means any device or accessory to any device that is suitable for use or capable of functioning.
</P>
<P><I>Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID)</I> means the database that serves as a repository of information to facilitate the identification of medical devices through their distribution and use.
</P>
<P><I>Human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P><I>Implantable device</I> means a device that is intended to be placed in a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body. A device is regarded as an <I>implantable device</I> for the purpose of this part only if it is intended to remain implanted continuously for a period of 30 days or more, unless the Commissioner of Food and Drugs determines otherwise in order to protect human health.
</P>
<P><I>Label</I> has the meaning set forth in section 201(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Labeler</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who causes a label to be applied to a device with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any intended subsequent replacement or modification of the label; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who causes the label of a device to be replaced or modified with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any subsequent replacement or modification of the label, except that the addition of the name of, and contact information for, a person who distributes the device, without making any other changes to the label, is not a modification for the purposes of determining whether a person is a labeler.
</P>
<P><I>Lot or batch</I> means one <I>finished device</I> or more that consist of a single type, model, class, size, composition, or software version that are manufactured under essentially the same conditions and that are intended to have uniform characteristics and quality within specified limits.
</P>
<P><I>Shipping container</I> means a container used during the shipment or transportation of devices, and whose contents may vary from one shipment to another.
</P>
<P><I>Specification</I> means any requirement with which a device must conform.
</P>
<P><I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Universal product code (UPC)</I> means the product identifier used to identify an item sold at retail in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Version or model</I> means all devices that have specifications, performance, size, and composition, within limits set by the labeler.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58817, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.4   Meaning of intended uses.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20170109" REFID="4">Link to an amendment published at 82 FR 2217, Jan. 9, 2017.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20170207" REFID="3a">This amendment was delayed until Mar. 21, 2017, at 82 FR 9501, Feb. 7, 2017.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20170207" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 19, 2018, at 82 FR 14319, Mar. 20, 2017.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20180316" REFID="7">This amendment delayed indefinitely at 83 FR 11639, Mar. 16, 2018.</XREF>
<P>The words <I>intended uses</I> or words of similar import in §§  801.5, 801.119, 801.122, and 1100.5 of this chapter refer to the objective intent of the persons legally responsible for the labeling of an article (or their representatives). The intent may be shown by such persons' expressions, the design or composition of the article, or by the circumstances surrounding the distribution of the article. This objective intent may, for example, be shown by labeling claims, advertising matter, or oral or written statements by such persons or their representatives. Objective intent may be shown, for example, by circumstances in which the article is, with the knowledge of such persons or their representatives, offered or used for a purpose for which it is neither labeled nor advertised; provided, however, that a firm would not be regarded as intending an unapproved new use for a device approved, cleared, granted marketing authorization, or exempted from premarket notification based solely on that firm's knowledge that such device was being prescribed or used by health care providers for such use. The intended uses of an article may change after it has been introduced into interstate commerce by its manufacturer. If, for example, a packer, distributor, or seller intends an article for different uses than those intended by the person from whom he or she received the article, such packer, distributor, or seller is required to supply adequate labeling in accordance with the new intended uses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 41401, Aug. 2, 2021]
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.5   Medical devices; adequate directions for use.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adequate directions for use</I> means directions under which the layman can use a device safely and for the purposes for which it is intended. Section 801.4 defines <I>intended use.</I> Directions for use may be inadequate because, among other reasons, of omission, in whole or in part, or incorrect specification of: 
</P>
<P>(a) Statements of all conditions, purposes, or uses for which such device is intended, including conditions, purposes, or uses for which it is prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its oral, written, printed, or graphic advertising, and conditions, purposes, or uses for which the device is commonly used; except that such statements shall not refer to conditions, uses, or purposes for which the device can be safely used only under the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law and for which it is advertised solely to such practitioner. 
</P>
<P>(b) Quantity of dose, including usual quantities for each of the uses for which it is intended and usual quantities for persons of different ages and different physical conditions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Frequency of administration or application. 
</P>
<P>(d) Duration of administration or application. 
</P>
<P>(e) Time of administration or application, in relation to time of meals, time of onset of symptoms, or other time factors. 
</P>
<P>(f) Route or method of administration or application. 
</P>
<P>(g) Preparation for use, i.e., adjustment of temperature, or other manipulation or process. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.6" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.6   Medical devices; misleading statements.</HEAD>
<P>Among representations in the labeling of a device which render such device misbranded is a false or misleading representation with respect to another device or a drug or food or cosmetic. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.15   Medical devices; prominence of required label statements; use of symbols in labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A word, statement, or other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label may lack that prominence and conspicuousness required by section 502(c) of the act by reason, among other reasons, of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on the part or panel of the label which is presented or displayed under customary conditions of purchase; 
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on two or more parts or panels of the label, each of which has sufficient space therefor, and each of which is so designed as to render it likely to be, under customary conditions of purchase, the part or panel displayed; 
</P>
<P>(3) The failure of the label to extend over the area of the container or package available for such extension, so as to provide sufficient label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information; 
</P>
<P>(4) Insufficiency of label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information, resulting from the use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label; 
</P>
<P>(5) Insufficiency of label space for the placing of such word, statement, or information, resulting from the use of label space to give materially greater conspicuousness to any other word, statement, or information, or to any design or device; or 
</P>
<P>(6) Smallness or style of type in which such word, statement, or information appears, insufficient background contrast, obscuring designs or vignettes, or crowding with other written, printed, or graphic matter. 
</P>
<P>(b) No exemption depending on insufficiency of label space, as prescribed in regulations promulgated under section 502(b) of the act, shall apply if such insufficiency is caused by: 
</P>
<P>(1) The use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label; 
</P>
<P>(2) The use of label space to give greater conspicuousness to any word, statement, or other information than is required by section 502(c) of the act; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The use of label space for any representation in a foreign language. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1)(i) All words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling for a device shall appear thereon in one or more of the following formats:
</P>
<P>(A) The English language;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be substituted for English;
</P>
<P>(C) A symbol accompanied by adjacent explanatory English text, or text in the predominant language of the Territory, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English;
</P>
<P>(D) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the act;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used;
</P>
<P>(E) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the act;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used;
</P>
<P>(F) The symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” may be used as provided under § 801.109(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) The use of symbols in device labeling which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the act.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (<I>i.e.,</I> open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.
</P>
<P>(B) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.
</P>
<P>(2) If the label contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label shall appear thereon in the foreign language. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the labeling contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear on the labeling in the foreign language. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6896, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 81 FR 38930, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.16   Medical devices; Spanish-language version of certain required statements.</HEAD>
<P>If devices restricted to prescription use only are labeled solely in Spanish for distribution in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico where Spanish is the predominant language, such labeling is authorized under § 801.15(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.18   Format of dates provided on a medical device label.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Whenever the label of a medical device includes a printed expiration date, date of manufacture, or any other date intended to be brought to the attention of the user of the device, the date must be presented in the following format: The year, using four digits; followed by the month, using two digits; followed by the day, using two digits; each separated by hyphens. For example, January 2, 2014, must be presented as 2014-01-02.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) A combination product that properly bears a National Drug Code (NDC) number is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the device is an electronic product to which a standard is applicable under subchapter J of this chapter, Radiological Health, the date of manufacture shall be presented as required by § 1010.3(a)(2)(ii) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Labeling Requirements for Unique Device Identification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.20   Label to bear a unique device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The label of every medical device shall bear a unique device identifier (UDI) that meets the requirements of this subpart and part 830 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Every device package shall bear a UDI that meets the requirements of this subpart and part 830 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Exceptions to the general rule of paragraph (a) of this section are provided by §§ 801.30, 801.45, and 801.128(f)(2), and § 801.55 provides a means to request an exception or alternative not provided by those provisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.30   General exceptions from the requirement for the label of a device to bear a unique device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The following types of devices are excepted from the requirement of § 801.20; a device within one or more of the following exceptions is not required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI):
</P>
<P>(1) A finished device manufactured and labeled prior to the compliance date established by FDA for § 801.20 regarding the device. This exception expires with regard to a particular device 3 years after the compliance date established by FDA for the device.
</P>
<P>(2) A class I device that FDA has by regulation exempted from the good manufacturing practice requirements of part 820 of this chapter, exclusive of any continuing requirement for recordkeeping under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Individual single-use devices, all of a single version or model, that are distributed together in a single device package, intended to be stored in that device package until removed for use, and which are not intended for individual commercial distribution. This exception is not available for any implantable device. The device package containing these individual devices is not excepted from the requirement of § 801.20, and must bear a UDI.
</P>
<P>(4) A device used solely for research, teaching, or chemical analysis, and not intended for any clinical use.
</P>
<P>(5) A custom device within the meaning of § 812.3(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) An investigational device within the meaning of part 812 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) A veterinary medical device not intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other conditions in man, in the cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man, or intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man.
</P>
<P>(8) A device intended for export from the United States.
</P>
<P>(9) A device held by the Strategic National Stockpile and granted an exception or alternative under § 801.128(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(10) A device for which FDA has established a performance standard under section 514(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and has provided therein an exception from the requirement of § 801.20, or for which FDA has recognized all or part of a performance standard under section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and has included an exception from the requirement of § 801.20 within the scope of that recognition.
</P>
<P>(11) A device packaged within the immediate container of a combination product or convenience kit, <I>provided that</I> the label of the combination product or convenience kit bears a UDI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>National Drug Code (NDC) Numbers.</I> If a combination product properly bears an NDC number on its label—
</P>
<P>(1) The combination product is not subject to the requirements of § 801.20.
</P>
<P>(2) A device constituent of such a combination product whose components are physically, chemically, or otherwise combined or mixed and produced as a single entity as described by § 3.2(e)(1) of this chapter is not subject to the requirements of § 801.20.
</P>
<P>(3) Each device constituent of such a combination product, other than one described by § 3.2(e)(1) of this chapter, must bear a UDI on its label unless paragraph (a)(11) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for shipping containers.</I> This rule does not require a UDI to be placed on any shipping container.
</P>
<P>(d) The UDI of a class I device is not required to include a production identifier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013, as amended at 90 FR 55979, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.35   Voluntary labeling of a device with a unique device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeler of a device that is not required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI) may voluntarily comply with § 801.20. If a labeler voluntarily includes a UDI for a device, the labeler may voluntarily provide information concerning the device under subpart E of part 830 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A device may bear both a Universal Product Code (UPC) and a UDI on its label and packages.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.40   Form of a unique device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every unique device identifier (UDI) must meet the technical requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. The UDI must be presented in two forms:
</P>
<P>(1) Easily readable plain-text, and
</P>
<P>(2) Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC) technology.
</P>
<P>(b) The UDI must include a device identifier segment. Whenever a device label includes a lot or batch number, a serial number, a manufacturing date, an expiration date, or for a human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device, a distinct identification code as required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter, the UDI must include a production identifier segment that conveys such information.
</P>
<P>(c) If the AIDC technology is not evident upon visual examination of the label or device package, the label or device package must disclose the presence of AIDC technology.
</P>
<P>(d) A class I device that bears a Universal Product Code (UPC) on its label and device packages is deemed to meet all requirements of subpart B of this part. The UPC will serve as the unique device identifier required by § 801.20.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.45   Devices that must be directly marked with a unique device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A device that must bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label must also bear a permanent marking providing the UDI on the device itself if the device is intended to be used more than once and intended to be reprocessed before each use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>UDI for direct marking.</I> The UDI provided through a direct marking on a device may be:
</P>
<P>(1) Identical to the UDI that appears on the label of the device, or
</P>
<P>(2) A different UDI used to distinguish the unpackaged device from any device package containing the device.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of a UDI when provided as a direct marking.</I> When a device must bear a UDI as a direct marking, the UDI may be provided through either or both of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Easily readable plain-text;
</P>
<P>(2) Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC) technology, or any alternative technology, that will provide the UDI of the device on demand.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirement of paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any device that meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Any type of direct marking would interfere with the safety or effectiveness of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) The device cannot be directly marked because it is not technologically feasible;
</P>
<P>(3) The device is a single-use device and is subjected to additional processing and manufacturing for the purpose of an additional single use.
</P>
<P>(4) The device has been previously marked under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception to be noted in design and development files.</I> A labeler that decides to make use of an exception under paragraph (d) of this section must document the basis of that decision in the design and development files required by § 820.10(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013, as amended at 90 FR 55979, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.50   Labeling requirements for stand-alone software.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Stand-alone software that is not distributed in packaged form (e.g., when downloaded from a Web site) is deemed to meet the UDI labeling requirements of this subpart if it complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and conveys the version number in its production identifier.
</P>
<P>(b) Regardless of whether it is or is not distributed in packaged form, stand-alone software regulated as a medical device must provide its unique device identifier through either or both of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An easily readable plain-text statement displayed whenever the software is started;
</P>
<P>(2) An easily readable plain-text statement displayed through a menu command (e.g., an “About * * *” command).
</P>
<P>(c) Stand-alone software that is distributed in both packaged form and in a form that is not packaged (e.g., when downloaded from a Web site) may be identified with the same device identifier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.55" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.55   Request for an exception from or alternative to a unique device identifier requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A labeler may submit a request for an exception from or alternative to the requirement of § 801.20 or any other requirement of this subpart for a specified device or a specified type of device. A written request for an exception or alternative must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the device or devices that would be subject to the exception or alternative;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the provisions of this subpart that are the subject of the request for an exception or alternative;
</P>
<P>(3) If requesting an exception, explain why you believe the requirements of this subpart are not technologically feasible;
</P>
<P>(4) If requesting an alternative, describe the alternative and explain why it would provide for more accurate, precise, or rapid device identification than the requirements of this subpart or how the alternative would better ensure the safety or effectiveness of the device that would be subject to the alternative;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide, if known, the number of labelers and the number of devices that would be affected if we grant the requested exception or alternative; and
</P>
<P>(6) Provide other requested information that the Center Director needs to clarify the scope and effects of the requested exception or alternative.
</P>
<P>(b) A written request for an exception or alternative must be submitted by sending it:
</P>
<P>(1) If the device is regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), by email to: <I>cberudirequests@fda.hhs.gov</I> or by correspondence to: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(2) In all other cases, by email to: <I>GUDIDSupport@fda.hhs.gov,</I> or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 3293, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(c) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative, either in response to a request or on his or her own initiative, if the Center Director determines that an exception is appropriate because the requirements of this subpart are not technologically feasible, or that an alternative would provide for more accurate, precise, or rapid device identification than the requirements of this subpart or would better ensure the safety or effectiveness of the device that would be subject to the alternative. If we grant an exception or alternative, we may include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate to ensure the adequate identification of the device through its distribution and use. Any labeler may make use of an exception or alternative granted under this section, provided that such use satisfies all safeguards or conditions that are part of the exception or alternative.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may initiate and grant an exception or alternative if we determine that the exception or alternative is in the best interest of the public health. Any such exception or alternative will remain in effect only so long as there remains a public health need for the exception or alternative.
</P>
<P>(e) The Center Director may rescind an exception or alternative granted under this section if, after providing an opportunity for an informal hearing as defined in section 201(x) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under part 16 of this chapter, the Center Director determines that the exception or alternative no longer satisfies the criteria described in this paragraph (e) or that any safeguard or condition required under this paragraph (e) has not been met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58818, Sept. 24, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 18093, Apr. 3, 2015; 81 FR 11428, Mar. 4, 2016; 85 FR 18441, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.57" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.57   Discontinuation of legacy FDA identification numbers assigned to devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On the date your device must bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label, any National Health-Related Item Code (NHRIC) or National Drug Code (NDC) number assigned to that device is rescinded, and you may no longer provide an NHRIC or NDC number on the label of your device or on any device package.
</P>
<P>(b) If your device is not required to bear a UDI on its label, any NHRIC or NDC number assigned to that device is rescinded as of September 24, 2018, and beginning on that date, you may no longer provide an NHRIC or NDC number of the label of your device or on any device package.
</P>
<P>(c) A labeler who has been assigned an FDA labeler code to facilitate use of NHRIC or NDC numbers may continue to use that labeler code under a system for the issuance of UDIs, <I>provided that</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) Such use is consistent with the framework of the issuing agency that operates that system; and
</P>
<P>(2) No later than September 24, 2014, the labeler submits, and obtains FDA approval of, a request for continued use of the assigned labeler code. A request for continued use of an assigned labeler code must be submitted by email to: <I>GUDIDSupport@fda.hhs.gov,</I> or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 3293, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(d) Each request for continued use of an assigned labeler code must provide—
</P>
<P>(1) The name, mailing address, email address, and phone number of the labeler who is currently using the labeler code;
</P>
<P>(2) The owner/operator account identification used by the labeler to submit registration and listing information using FDA's Unified Registration and Listing System (FURLS).
</P>
<P>(3) The FDA labeler code that the labeler wants to continue using.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58820, Sept. 24, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 11428, Mar. 4, 2016; 85 FR 18441, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Labeling Requirements for Over-the-Counter Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.60   Principal display panel.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>principal display panel,</I> as it applies to over-the-counter devices in package form and as used in this part, means the part of a label that is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. The principal display panel shall be large enough to accommodate all the mandatory label information required to be placed thereon by this part with clarity and conspicuousness and without obscuring designs, vignettes, or crowding. Where packages bear alternate principal display panels, information required to be placed on the principal display panel shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. For the purpose of obtaining uniform type size in declaring the quantity of contents for all packages of substantially the same size, the term <I>area of the principal display panel</I> means the area of the side or surface that bears the principal display panel, which area shall be: 
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a rectangular package where one entire side properly can be considered to be the principal display panel side, the product of the height times the width of that side; 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a cylindrical or nearly cylindrical container, 40 percent of the product of the height of the container times the circumference; and 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of any other shape of container, 40 percent of the total surface of the container: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where such container presents an obvious “principal display panel” such as the top of a triangular or circular package, the area shall consist of the entire top surface. 
</P>
<FP>In determining the area of the principal display panel, exclude tops, bottoms, flanges at the tops and bottoms of cans, and shoulders and necks of bottles or jars. In the case of cylindrical or nearly cylindrical containers, information required by this part to appear on the principal display panel shall appear within that 40 percent of the circumference which is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.61" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.61   Statement of identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal display panel of an over-the-counter device in package form shall bear as one of its principal features a statement of the identity of the commodity. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such statement of identity shall be in terms of the common name of the device followed by an accurate statement of the principal intended action(s) of the device. Such statement shall be placed in direct conjunction with the most prominent display of the name and shall employ terms descriptive of the principal intended action(s). The indications for use shall be included in the directions for use of the device, as required by section 502(f)(1) of the act and by the regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The statement of identity shall be presented in bold face type on the principal display panel, shall be in a size reasonably related to the most prominent printed matter on such panel, and shall be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.62" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.62   Declaration of net quantity of contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label of an over-the-counter device in package form shall bear a declaration of the net quantity of contents. This shall be expressed in the terms of weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of numerical count and weight, measure, or size: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a firmly established general consumer usage and trade custom of declaring the quantity of a device in terms of linear measure or measure of area, such respective term may be used. Such term shall be augmented when necessary for accuracy of information by a statement of the weight, measure, or size of the individual units or of the entire device. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the declaration of contents for a device by numerical count does not give accurate information as to the quantity of the device in the package, it shall be augmented by such statement of weight, measure, or size of the individual units or of the total weight, measure, or size of the device as will give such information; for example, “100 tongue depressors, adult size”, “1 rectal syringe, adult size”, etc. Whenever the Commissioner determines for a specific packaged device that an existing practice of declaring net quantity of contents by weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of these does not facilitate value comparisions by consumers, he shall by regulation designate the appropriate term or terms to be used for such article. 
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of weight of the contents shall be expressed in terms of avoirdupois pound and ounce. A statement of liquid measure of the contents shall be expressed in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid-ounce subdivisions thereof, and shall express the volume at 68 °F (20 °C). See also paragraph (p) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The declaration may contain common or decimal fractions. A common fraction shall be in terms of halves, quarters, eighths, sixteenths, or thirty-seconds; except that if there exists a firmly established, general consumer usage and trade custom of employing different common fractions in the net quantity declaration of a particular commodity, they may be employed. A common fraction shall be reduced to its lowest terms; a decimal fraction shall not be carried out to more than two places. A statement that includes small fractions of an ounce shall be deemed to permit smaller variations than one which does not include such fractions. 
</P>
<P>(d) The declaration shall be located on the principal display panel of the label, and with respect to packages bearing alternate principal panels it shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(e) The declaration shall appear as a distinct item on the principal display panel, shall be separated, by at least a space equal to the height of the lettering used in the declaration, from other printed label information appearing above or below the declaration and, by at least a space equal to twice the width of the letter “N” of the style of type used in the quantity of contents statement, from other printed label information appearing to the left or right of the declaration. It shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count, such as “giant pint” and “full quart”, that tends to exaggerate. It shall be placed on the principal display panel within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) On packages having a principal display panel of 5 square inches or less the requirement for placement within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel shall not apply when the declaration of net quantity of contents meets the other requirements of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a device that is marketed with both outer and inner retail containers bearing the mandatory label information required by this part and the inner container is not intended to be sold separately, the net quantity of contents placement requirement of this section applicable to such inner container is waived. 
</P>
<P>(3) The principal display panel of a device marketed on a display card to which the immediate container is affixed may be considered to be the display panel of the card, and the type size of the net quantity of contents statement is governed by the dimensions of the display card. 
</P>
<P>(f) The declaration shall accurately reveal the quantity of device in the package exclusive of wrappers and other material packed therewith. 
</P>
<P>(g) The declaration shall appear in conspicuous and easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast (by typography, layout, color, embossing, or molding) to other matter on the package; except that a declaration of net quantity blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface is permissible when all label information is so formed on the surface. Requirements of conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio of height to width of the letter shall not exceed a differential of 3 units to 1 unit, i.e., no more than 3 times as high as it is wide. 
</P>
<P>(2) Letter heights pertain to upper case or capital letters. When upper and lower case or all lower case letters are used, it is the lower case letter “o” or its equivalent that shall meet the minimum standards. 
</P>
<P>(3) When fractions are used, each component numeral shall meet one-half the minimum height standards. 
</P>
<P>(h) The declaration shall be in letters and numerals in a type size established in relationship to the area of the principal display panel of the package and shall be uniform for all packages of substantially the same size by complying with the following type specifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of 5 square inches or less. 
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than one-eighth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 5 but not more than 25 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(3) Not less than three-sixteenths inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 25 but not more than 100 square inches. 
</P>
<P>(4) Not less than one-fourth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 100 square inches, except not less than one-half inch in height if the area is more than 400 square inches. 
</P>
<FP>Where the declaration is blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface rather than by printing, typing, or coloring, the lettering sizes specified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (4) of this section shall be increased by one-sixteenth of an inch. 
</FP>
<P>(i) On packages containing less than 4 pounds or 1 gallon and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure: 
</P>
<P>(1) The declaration shall be expressed both in ounces, with identification by weight or by liquid measure and, if applicable (1 pound or 1 pint or more) followed in parentheses by a declaration in pounds for weight units, with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound (see examples set forth in paragraphs (k) (1) and (2) of this section), or in the case of liquid measure, in the largest whole units (quarts, quarts and pints, or pints, as appropriate) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (see examples set forth in paragraphs (k) (3) and (4) of this section). If the net weight of the package is less than 1 ounce avoirdupois or the net fluid measure is less than 1 fluid ounce, the declaration shall be in terms of common or decimal fractions of the respective ounce and not in terms of drams. 
</P>
<P>(2) The declaration may appear in more than one line. The term “net weight” shall be used when stating the net quantity of contents in terms of weight. Use of the terms “net” or “net contents” in terms of fluid measure or numerical count is optional. It is sufficient to distinguish avoirdupois ounce from fluid ounce through association of terms; for example, “Net wt. 6 oz” or “6 oz net wt.,” and “6 fl oz” or “net contents 6 fl oz.” 
</P>
<P>(j) On packages containing 4 pounds or 1 gallon or more and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure, the declaration shall be expressed in pounds for weight units with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound; in the case of fluid measure, it shall be expressed in the largest whole unit, i.e., gallons, followed by common or decimal fractions of a gallon or by the next smaller whole unit or units (quarts or quarts and pints), with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart; see paragraph (k)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Examples:</I> (1) A declaration of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds weight shall be expressed as “net wt. 24 oz (1 lb 8 oz),” or “Net wt. 24 oz (1
<FR>1/2</FR> lb)” or “Net wt. 24 oz (1.5 lb).” 
</P>
<P>(2) A declaration of three-fourths pound avoirdupois weight shall be expressed as “Net wt. 12 oz.”. 
</P>
<P>(3) A declaration of 1 quart liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 32 fl oz (1 qt)” or “32 fl oz (1 qt).” 
</P>
<P>(4) A declaration of 1
<FR>3/4</FR> quarts liquid measure shall be expressed as, “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 1 pt 8 oz)” or “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 1.5 pt),” but not in terms of quart and ounce such as “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 24 oz).” 
</P>
<P>(5) A declaration of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gallons liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 2 gal 2 qt”, “Net contents 2.5 gallons,” or “Net contents 2
<FR>1/2</FR> gal” but not as “2 gal 4 pt”. 
</P>
<P>(l) For quantities, the following abbreviations and none other may be employed. Periods and plural forms are optional:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">gallon gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">liter l
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">milliliter ml</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">cubic centimeter cc
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">quart qt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">yard yd
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">pint pt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">feet or foot ft
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ounce oz</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">inch in
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">pound lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">meter m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">grain gr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">centimeter cm
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">kilogram kg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">millimeter mm
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">gram g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">fluid fl
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">milligram mg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">square sq
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">microgram mcg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">weight wt</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(m) On packages labeled in terms of linear measure, the declaration shall be expressed both in terms of inches and, if applicable (1 foot or more), the largest whole units (yards, yards and feet, feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of inches and any remainder shall be in terms of inches or common or decimal fractions of the foot or yard; if applicable, as in the case of adhesive tape, the initial declaration in linear inches shall be preceded by a statement of the width. Examples of linear measure are “86 inches (2 yd 1 ft 2 in)”, “90 inches (2
<FR>1/2</FR> yd)”, “30 inches (2.5 ft)”, “
<FR>3/4</FR> inch by 36 in (1 yd)”, etc. 
</P>
<P>(n) On packages labeled in terms of area measure, the declaration shall be expressed both in terms of square inches and, if applicable (1 square foot or more), the largest whole square unit (square yards, square yards and square feet, square feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of square inches and any remainder shall be in terms of square inches or common or decimal fractions of the square foot or square yard; for example, “158 sq inches (1 sq ft 14 sq in)”. 
</P>
<P>(o) Nothing in this section shall prohibit supplemental statements at locations other than the principal display panel(s) describing in nondeceptive terms the net quantity of contents, provided that such supplemental statements of net quantity of contents shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count that tends to exaggerate the amount of the device contained in the package; for example, “giant pint” and “full quart”. Dual or combination declarations of net quantity of contents as provided for in paragraphs (a) and (i) of this section are not regarded as supplemental net quantity statements and shall be located on the principal display panel. 
</P>
<P>(p) A separate statement of net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure is not regarded as a supplemental statement and an accurate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure may also appear on the principal display panel or on other panels. 
</P>
<P>(q) The declaration of net quantity of contents shall express an accurate statement of the quantity of contents of the package. Reasonable variations caused by loss or gain of moisture during the course of good distribution practice or by unavoidable deviations in good manufacturing practice will be recognized. Variations from stated quantity of contents shall not be unreasonably large. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.63" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.63   Medical devices; warning statements for devices containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons and other class I ozone-depleting substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All over-the-counter devices containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons, halons, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloride, or any other class I substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) shall carry one of the following warnings: 
</P>
<P>(1) The EPA warning statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Warning:</E> Contains [or Manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms public health and environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The alternative statement: 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The indented statement below is required by the Federal government's Clean Air Act for all products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's) [or other class I substance, if applicable]: 
</P>
<P><E T="04">Warning:</E> Contains [or Manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms public health and environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere. 
</P>
<P>CONSULT WITH YOUR PHYSICIAN, HEALTH PROFESSIONAL, OR SUPPLIER IF YOU HAVE ANY QUESTION ABOUT THE USE OF THIS PRODUCT.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase. This provision does not replace or relieve a person from any requirements imposed under 40 CFR part 82. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 20101, May 3, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exemptions From Adequate Directions for Use</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.109" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.109   Prescription devices.</HEAD>
<P>A device which, because of any potentiality for harmful effect, or the method of its use, or the collateral measures necessary to its use is not safe except under the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law to direct the use of such device, and hence for which “adequate directions for use” cannot be prepared, shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(a) The device is: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) In the possession of a person, or his agents or employees, regularly and lawfully engaged in the manufacture, transportation, storage, or wholesale or retail distribution of such device; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the possession of a practitioner, such as physicians, dentists, and veterinarians, licensed by law to use or order the use of such device; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Is to be sold only to or on the prescription or other order of such practitioner for use in the course of his professional practice. 
</P>
<P>(b) The label of the device, other than surgical instruments, bears: 
</P>
<P>(1) The symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” or the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this device to sale by or on the order of a ___”, the blank to be filled with the word “physician”, “dentist”, “veterinarian”, or with the descriptive designation of any other practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which the practitioner practices to use or order the use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(2) The method of its application or use. 
</P>
<P>(c) Labeling on or within the package from which the device is to be dispensed bears information for use, including indications, effects, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration, and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions under which practitioners licensed by law to administer the device can use the device safely and for the purpose for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is advertised or represented: <I>Provided, however,</I> That such information may be omitted from the dispensing package if, but only if, the article is a device for which directions, hazards, warnings, and other information are commonly known to practitioners licensed by law to use the device. Upon written request, stating reasonable grounds therefor, the Commissioner will offer an opinion on a proposal to omit such information from the dispensing package under this proviso. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any labeling, as defined in section 201(m) of the act, whether or not it is on or within a package from which the device is to be dispensed, distributed by or on behalf of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the device, that furnishes or purports to furnish information for use of the device contains adequate information for such use, including indications, effects, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions, under which practitioners licensed by law to employ the device can use the device safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is advertised or represented. This information will not be required on so-called reminder—piece labeling which calls attention to the name of the device but does not include indications or other use information. 
</P>
<P>(e) All labeling, except labels and cartons, bearing information for use of the device also bears the date of the issuance or the date of the latest revision of such labeling. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6896, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 81 FR 38930, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.110   Retail exemption for prescription devices.</HEAD>
<P>A device subject to § 801.109 shall be exempt at the time of delivery to the ultimate purchaser or user from section 502(f)(1) of the act if it is delivered by a licensed practitioner in the course of his professional practice or upon a prescription or other order lawfully issued in the course of his professional practice, with labeling bearing the name and address of such licensed practitioner and the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in such order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.116" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.116   Medical devices having commonly known directions.</HEAD>
<P>A device shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act insofar as adequate directions for common uses thereof are known to the ordinary individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.119" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.119   In vitro diagnostic products.</HEAD>
<P>A product intended for use in the diagnosis of disease and which is an in vitro diagnostic product as defined in § 809.3(a) of this chapter shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this part and section 502(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if it meets the requirements of subpart B of this part and the requirements of § 809.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58820, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.122" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.122   Medical devices for processing, repacking, or manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>A device intended for processing, repacking, or use in the manufacture of another drug or device shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if its label bears the statement “Caution: For manufacturing, processing, or repacking”. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.125" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.125   Medical devices for use in teaching, law enforcement, research, and analysis.</HEAD>
<P>A device subject to § 801.109 shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of this act if shipped or sold to, or in the possession of, persons regularly and lawfully engaged in instruction in pharmacy, chemistry, or medicine not involving clinical use, or engaged in law enforcement, or in research not involving clinical use, or in chemical analysis, or physical testing, and is to be used only for such instruction, law enforcement, research, analysis, or testing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.127" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.127   Medical devices; expiration of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, of a device which is exempt under the regulations in this section is made to a person in whose possession the article is not exempt, or is made for any purpose other than those specified, such exemption shall expire, with respect to such shipment or delivery or part thereof, at the beginning of that shipment or delivery. The causing of an exemption to expire shall be considered an act which results in such device being misbranded unless it is disposed of under circumstances in which it ceases to be a drug or device. 
</P>
<P>(b) The exemptions conferred by §§ 801.119, 801.122, and 801.125 shall continue until the devices are used for the purposes for which they are exempted, or until they are relabeled to comply with section 502(f)(1) of the act. If, however, the device is converted, or manufactured into a form limited to prescription dispensing, no exemption shall thereafter apply to the article unless the device is labeled as required by § 801.109. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.128" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.128   Exceptions or alternatives to labeling requirements for medical devices held by the Strategic National Stockpile.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appropriate FDA Center Director may grant an exception or alternative to any provision listed in paragraph (f) of this section and not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of a medical device, if the Center Director determines that compliance with such labeling requirement could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of such devices that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.
</P>
<P>(b)(1)(i) A Strategic National Stockpile official or any entity that manufactures (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distributes, or stores devices that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile may submit, with written concurrence from a Strategic National Stockpile official, a written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section to the Center Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section on his or her own initiative.
</P>
<P>(2) A written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the specified lots, batches, or other units of the medical device that would be subject to the exception or alternative;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the labeling provision(s) listed in paragraph (f) of this section that are the subject of the exception or alternative request;
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain why compliance with the labeling provision(s) could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of the specified lots, batches, or other units of a medical device that are or will be held in the Strategic National Stockpile;
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe any proposed safeguards or conditions that will be implemented so that the labeling of the device includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the device, given the anticipated circumstances of use of the device;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a draft of the proposed labeling of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the medical device subject to the exception or alternative; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide any other information requested by the Center Director in support of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) The Center Director must respond in writing to all requests under this section. The Center Director may impose appropriate conditions when granting such an exception or alternative under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A grant of an exception or alternative under this section will include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate by the Center Director so that the labeling of devices subject to the exception or alternative includes the information necessary for the safe and effective use of the device, given the anticipated circumstances of use.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Center Director grants a request for an exception or alternative to the labeling requirements under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The Center Director may determine that the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to premarket notification submissions under § 807.81(a)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For a Premarket Approval Application (PMA)-approved device, the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to submission of PMA supplements under § 814.39 of this chapter; however,
</P>
<P>(ii) The grant of the request must be identified in a periodic report under § 814.84 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative under this section to the following provisions of this chapter, to the extent that the requirements in these provisions are not explicitly required by statute:
</P>
<P>(1) § 801.1(d);
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B of this part and part 830 of this chapter in its entirety;
</P>
<P>(3) § 801.60;
</P>
<P>(4) § 801.61;
</P>
<P>(5) § 801.62;
</P>
<P>(6) § 801.63;
</P>
<P>(7) § 801.109; and
</P>
<P>(8) Part 801, subpart H.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 73601, Dec. 28, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 58820, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Other Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.150   Medical devices; processing, labeling, or repacking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a shipment or other delivery of a device which is, in accordance with the practice of the trade, to be processed, labeled, or repacked, in substantial quantity at an establishment other than that where originally processed or packed, shall be exempt, during the time of introduction into and movement in interstate commerce and the time of holding in such establishment, from compliance with the labeling and packaging requirements of section 502(b) and (f) of the act if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce is the operator of the establishment where such device is to be processed, labeled, or repacked; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In case such person is not such operator, such shipment or delivery is made to such establishment under a written agreement, signed by and containing the post office addresses of such person and such operator, and containing such specifications for the processing, labeling, or repacking, as the case may be, of such device in such establishment as will insure, if such specifications are followed, that such device will not be adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act upon completion of such processing, labeling, or repacking. Such person and such operator shall each keep a copy of such agreement until 2 years after the final shipment or delivery of such device from such establishment, and shall make such copies available for inspection at any reasonable hour to any officer or employee of the Department who requests them. 
</P>
<P>(b) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a device under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall, at the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment, become void ab initio if the device comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed. 
</P>
<P>(c) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a device under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall become void ab initio with respect to the person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce upon refusal by such person to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such paragraph (a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(d) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a device under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall expire: 
</P>
<P>(1) At the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment if the device comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Upon refusal by the operator of the establishment where such device is to be processed, labeled, or repacked, to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such clause. 
</P>
<P>(e) As it is a common industry practice to manufacture and/or assemble, package, and fully label a device as sterile at one establishment and then ship such device in interstate commerce to another establishment or to a contract sterilizer for sterilization, the Food and Drug Administration will initiate no regulatory action against the device as misbranded or adulterated when the nonsterile device is labeled sterile, provided all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) There is in effect a written agreement which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Contains the names and post office addresses of the firms involved and is signed by the person authorizing such shipment and the operator or person in charge of the establishment receiving the devices for sterilization. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides instructions for maintaining proper records or otherwise accounting for the number of units in each shipment to insure that the number of units shipped is the same as the number received and sterilized. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Acknowledges that the device is nonsterile and is being shipped for further processing, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) States in detail the sterilization process, the gaseous mixture or other media, the equipment, and the testing method or quality controls to be used by the contract sterilizer to assure that the device will be brought into full compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each pallet, carton, or other designated unit is conspicuously marked to show its nonsterile nature when it is introduced into and is moving in interstate commerce, and while it is being held prior to sterilization. Following sterilization, and until such time as it is established that the device is sterile and can be released from quarantine, each pallet, carton, or other designated unit is conspicuously marked to show that it has not been released from quarantine, e.g., “sterilized—awaiting test results” or an equivalent designation. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts F-G [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Special Requirements for Specific Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.405" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.405   Labeling of articles intended for lay use in the repairing and/or refitting of dentures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The American Dental Association and leading dental authorities have advised the Food and Drug Administration of their concern regarding the safety of denture reliners, repair kits, pads, cushions, and other articles marketed and labeled for lay use in the repairing, refitting, or cushioning of ill-fitting, broken, or irritating dentures. It is the opinion of dental authorities and the Food and Drug Administration that to properly repair and properly refit dentures a person must have professional knowledge and specialized technical skill. Laymen cannot be expected to maintain the original vertical dimension of occlusion and the centric relation essential in the proper repairing or refitting of dentures. The continued wearing of improperly repaired or refitted dentures may cause acceleration of bone resorption, soft tissue hyperplasia, and other irreparable damage to the oral cavity. Such articles designed for lay use should be limited to emergency or temporary situations pending the services of a licensed dentist. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration therefore regards such articles as unsafe and misbranded under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the labeling: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Limits directions for use for denture repair kits to emergency repairing pending unavoidable delay in obtaining professional reconstruction of the denture; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Limits directions for use for denture reliners, pads, and cushions to temporary refitting pending unavoidable delay in obtaining professional reconstruction of the denture; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contains in a conspicuous manner the word “emergency” preceding and modifying each indication-for-use statement for denture repair kits and the word “temporary” preceding and modifying each indication-for-use statement for reliners, pads, and cushions; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Includes a conspicuous warning statement to the effect: 
</P>
<P>(i) For denture repair kits: <I>“Warning—For emergency repairs only.</I> Long term use of home-repaired dentures may cause faster bone loss, continuing irritation, sores, and tumors. This kit for emergency use only. See Dentist Without Delay.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) For denture reliners, pads, and cushions: <I>“Warning—For temporary use only.</I> Longterm use of this product may lead to faster bone loss, continuing irritation, sores, and tumors. For Use Only Until a Dentist Can Be Seen.” 
</P>
<P>(c) Adequate directions for use require full information of the temporary and emergency use recommended in order for the layman to understand the limitations of usefulness, the reasons therefor, and the importance of adhering to the warnings. Accordingly, the labeling should contain substantially the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) For denture repair kits: Special training and tools are needed to repair dentures to fit properly. Home-repaired dentures may cause irritation to the gums and discomfort and tiredness while eating. Long term use may lead to more troubles, even permanent changes in bones, teeth, and gums, which may make it impossible to wear dentures in the future. For these reasons, dentures repaired with this kit should be used only in an emergency until a dentist can be seen. Dentures that don't fit properly cause irritation and injury to the gums and faster bone loss, which is permanent. Dentures that don't fit properly cause gum changes that may require surgery for correction. Continuing irritation and injury may lead to cancer in the mouth. You must see your dentist as soon as possible. 
</P>
<P>(2) For denture reliners, pads, and cushions: Use of these preparations or devices may temporarily decrease the discomfort; however, their use will not make the denture fit properly. Special training and tools are needed to repair a denture to fit properly. Dentures that do not fit properly cause irritation and injury to the gums and faster bone loss, which is permanent and may require a completely new denture. Changes in the gums caused by dentures that do not fit properly may require surgery for correction. Continuing irritation and injury may lead to cancer in the mouth. You must see your dentist as soon as possible. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the denture relining or repairing material forms a permanent bond with the denture, a warning statement to the following effect should be included: “This reliner becomes fixed to the denture and a completely new denture may be required because of its use.” 
</P>
<P>(d) Labeling claims exaggerating the usefulness or the safety of the material or failing to disclose all facts relevant to the claims of usefulness will be regarded as false and misleading under sections 201(n) and 502(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) Regulatory action may be initiated with respect to any article found within the jurisdiction of the act contrary to the provisions of this policy statement after 90 days following the date of publication of this section in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.410   Use of impact-resistant lenses in eyeglasses and sunglasses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Examination of data available on the frequency of eye injuries resulting from the shattering of ordinary crown glass lenses indicates that the use of such lenses constitutes an avoidable hazard to the eye of the wearer. 
</P>
<P>(b) The consensus of the ophthalmic community is that the number of eye injuries would be substantially reduced by the use in eyeglasses and sunglasses of impact-resistant lenses. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) To protect the public more adequately from potential eye injury, eyeglasses and sunglasses must be fitted with impact-resistant lenses, except in those cases where the physician or optometrist finds that such lenses will not fulfill the visual requirements of the particular patient, directs in writing the use of other lenses, and gives written notification thereof to the patient. 
</P>
<P>(2) The physician or optometrist shall have the option of ordering glass lenses, plastic lenses, or laminated glass lenses made impact resistant by any method; however, all such lenses shall be capable of withstanding the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each finished impact-resistant glass lens for prescription use shall be individually tested for impact resistance and shall be capable of withstanding the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Raised multifocal lenses shall be impact resistant but need not be tested beyond initial design testing. Prism segment multifocal, slab-off prism, lenticular cataract, iseikonic, depressed segment one-piece multifocal, bioconcave, myodisc and minus lenticular, custom laminate and cemented assembly lenses shall be impact resistant but need not be subjected to impact testing. To demonstrate that all other types of impact-resistant lenses, including impact-resistant laminated glass lenses (i.e., lenses other than those described in the three preceding sentences of this paragraph (c)(3)), are capable of withstanding the impact test described in this regulation, the manufacturer of these lenses shall subject to an impact test a statistically significant sampling of lenses from each production batch, and the lenses so tested shall be representative of the finished forms as worn by the wearer, including finished forms that are of minimal lens thickness and have been subjected to any treatment used to impart impact resistance. All nonprescription lenses and plastic prescription lenses tested on the basis of statistical significance shall be tested in uncut-finished or finished form. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) For the purpose of this regulation, the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be the “referee test,” defined as “one which will be utilized to determine compliance with a regulation.” The referee test provides the Food and Drug Administration with the means of examining a medical device for performance and does not inhibit the manufacturer from using equal or superior test methods. A lens manufacturer shall conduct tests of lenses using the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section or any equal or superior test. Whatever test is used, the lenses shall be capable of withstanding the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section if the Food and Drug Administration examines them for performance. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the impact test, a 
<FR>5/8</FR>-inch steel ball weighing approximately 0.56 ounce is dropped from a height of 50 inches upon the horizontal upper surface of the lens. The ball shall strike within a 
<FR>5/8</FR>-inch diameter circle located at the geometric center of the lens. The ball may be guided but not restricted in its fall by being dropped through a tube extending to within approximately 4 inches of the lens. To pass the test, the lens must not fracture; for the purpose of this section, a lens will be considered to have fractured if it cracks through its entire thickness, including a laminar layer, if any, and across a complete diameter into two or more separate pieces, or if any lens material visible to the naked eyes becomes detached from the ocular surface. The test shall be conducted with the lens supported by a tube (1-inch inside diameter, 1
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch outside diameter, and approximately 1-inch high) affixed to a rigid iron or steel base plate. The total weight of the base plate and its rigidly attached fixtures shall be not less than 27 pounds. For lenses of small minimum diameter, a support tube having an outside diameter of less than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches may be used. The support tube shall be made of rigid acrylic plastic, steel, or other suitable substance and shall have securely bonded on the top edge a 
<FR>1/8</FR>- by 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch neoprene gasket having a hardness of 40 ±5, as determined by ASTM Method D 1415-88, “Standard Test Method for Rubber Property—International Hardness” a minimum tensile strength of 1,200 pounds, as determined by ASTM Method D 412-98A, “Standard Test Methods for Vulcanized Rubber and Thermoplastic Elastomers—Tension,” and a minimum ultimate elongation of 400 percent, as determined by ASTM Method D 412-68 (Both methods are incorporated by reference and are available from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428, or available for inspection at the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's Library, 9200 Corporate Blvd., Rockville, MD 20850, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The diameter or contour of the lens support may be modified as necessary so that the 
<FR>1/8</FR>- by 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch neoprene gasket supports the lens at its periphery.
</P>
<P>(e) Copies of invoice(s), shipping document(s), and records of sale or distribution of all impact resistant lenses, including finished eyeglasses and sunglasses, shall be kept and maintained for a period of 3 years; however, the names and addresses of individuals purchasing nonprescription eyeglasses and sunglasses at the retail level need not be kept and maintained by the retailer. The records kept in compliance with this paragraph shall be made available upon request at all reasonable hours by any officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration or by any other officer or employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services and such officer or employee shall be permitted to inspect and copy such records, to make such inventories of stock as he deems necessary, and otherwise to check the correctness of such inventories. 
</P>
<P>(f) In addition, those persons conducting tests in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section shall maintain the results thereof and a description of the test method and of the test apparatus for a period of 3 years. These records shall be made available upon request at any reasonable hour by any officer or employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services. The persons conducting tests shall permit the officer or employee to inspect and copy the records, to make such inventories of stock as the officer or employee deems necessary, and otherwise to check the correctness of the inventories. 
</P>
<P>(g) For the purpose of this section, the term “manufacturer” includes an importer for resale. Such importer may have the tests required by paragraph (d) of this section conducted in the country of origin but must make the results thereof available, upon request, to the Food and Drug Administration, as soon as practicable. 
</P>
<P>(h) All lenses must be impact-resistant except when the physician or optometrist finds that impact-resistant lenses will not fulfill the visual requirements for a particular patient. 
</P>
<P>(i) This statement of policy does not apply to contact lenses. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6896, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 20678, Apr. 6, 1979; 47 FR 9397, Mar. 5, 1982; 65 FR 3586, Jan. 24, 2000; 65 FR 44436, July 18, 2000; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.415" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.415   Maximum acceptable level of ozone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ozone is a toxic gas with no known useful medical application in specific, adjunctive, or preventive therapy. In order for ozone to be effective as a germicide, it must be present in a concentration far greater than that which can be safely tolerated by man and animals. 
</P>
<P>(b) Although undesirable physiological effects on the central nervous system, heart, and vision have been reported, the predominant physiological effect of ozone is primary irritation of the mucous membranes. Inhalation of ozone can cause sufficient irritation to the lungs to result in pulmonary edema. The onset of pulmonary edema is usually delayed for some hours after exposure; thus, symptomatic response is not a reliable warning of exposure to toxic concentrations of ozone. Since olfactory fatigue develops readily, the odor of ozone is not a reliable index of atmospheric ozone concentration. 
</P>
<P>(c) A number of devices currently on the market generate ozone by design or as a byproduct. Since exposure to ozone above a certain concentration can be injurious to health, any such device will be considered adulterated and/or misbranded within the meaning of sections 501 and 502 of the act if it is used or intended for use under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) In such a manner that it generates ozone at a level in excess of 0.05 part per million by volume of air circulating through the device or causes an accumulation of ozone in excess of 0.05 part per million by volume of air (when measured under standard conditions at 25 °C (77 °F) and 760 millimeters of mercury) in the atmosphere of enclosed space intended to be occupied by people for extended periods of time, e.g., houses, apartments, hospitals, and offices. This applies to any such device, whether portable or permanent or part of any system, which generates ozone by design or as an inadvertent or incidental product. 
</P>
<P>(2) To generate ozone and release it into the atmosphere in hospitals or other establishments occupied by the ill or infirm. 
</P>
<P>(3) To generate ozone and release it into the atmosphere and does not indicate in its labeling the maximum acceptable concentration of ozone which may be generated (not to exceed 0.05 part per million by volume of air circulating through the device) as established herein and the smallest area in which such device can be used so as not to produce an ozone accumulation in excess of 0.05 part per million. 
</P>
<P>(4) In any medical condition for which there is no proof of safety and effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(5) To generate ozone at a level less than 0.05 part per million by volume of air circulating through the device and it is labeled for use as a germicide or deodorizer. 
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not affect the present threshold limit value of 0.10 part per million (0.2 milligram per cubic meter) of ozone exposure for an 8-hour-day exposure of industrial workers as recommended by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists. 
</P>
<P>(e) The method and apparatus specified in 40 CFR part 50, or any other equally sensitive and accurate method, may be employed in measuring ozone pursuant to this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.417" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.417   Chlorofluorocarbon propellants.</HEAD>
<P>The use of chlorofluorocarbon in devices as propellants in self-pressurized containers is generally prohibited except as provided in § 2.125 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11318, Mar. 17, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.422" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.422   Prescription hearing aid labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section specifies the labeling requirements for prescription hearing aids. Any hearing aid that does not satisfy the requirements of § 800.30 of this chapter shall be a prescription device. Unless otherwise specified, the requirements in this section are in addition to other applicable requirements, including but not limited to special controls found in the applicable classification regulation in part 874 of this chapter. This section does not apply to group auditory trainers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions for the purposes of this section.</I> This section uses the following definitions:
</P>
<P><I>Dispenser.</I> A dispenser is any person, as defined in section 201(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, engaged in the sale of hearing aids to any member of the consuming public or any employee, agent, salesperson, and/or representative of such a person.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing aid.</I> A hearing aid is any wearable device designed for, offered for the purpose of, or represented as aiding persons with or compensating for, impaired hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription hearing aid.</I> A prescription hearing aid is a hearing aid that is not an over-the-counter (OTC) hearing aid as defined in § 800.30 of this chapter or a hearing aid that does not satisfy the requirements in § 800.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Rebuilt hearing aid.</I> A prescription hearing aid is “rebuilt” if the manufacturer has inspected and tested the device, made any necessary modifications to ensure it meets applicable regulatory requirements, including the requirements in this section, and adequately reprocessed the device for the next user.
</P>
<P><I>Sale.</I> Sale includes a lease, rental, or any other purchase or exchange for value.
</P>
<P><I>Used hearing aid.</I> A hearing aid is “used” if a user has worn it for any period of time. However, a hearing aid shall not be “used” merely because a prospective user wore it as part of a bona fide hearing aid evaluation to determine whether to select that particular hearing aid for that prospective user. A hearing aid evaluation is “bona fide” if it was conducted in the presence of the dispenser or a hearing health professional selected by the dispenser to assist the prospective user in making a determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> A prescription hearing aid shall bear all of the following labeling:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Outside package labeling.</I> The outside package of a prescription hearing aid shall bear all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Warnings and other important information.</I> All of the following shall appear on the outside package:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Warning against use in people younger than 18 without prior medical evaluation.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.015.gif"/>
<P>(B) <I>“Red flag” conditions.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.016.gif"/>
<P>(C) <I>Note about device trial options.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.017.gif"/>
<P>(ii) <I>Statement of build condition.</I> If the prescription hearing aid is used or rebuilt, the outside package shall declare that fact. A sticker under and visible through the outer wrapper will suffice to declare such fact.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Indication of battery information.</I> The outside package shall indicate the type and number of batteries and whether batteries are included in the package.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Indication of control platform.</I> That outside package shall indicate whether a mobile device or other non-included control platform is required. The indication must include the type of platform and how the platform connects to the device.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Labeling, inside the package.</I> The manufacturer or distributor of a prescription hearing aid shall include a user instructional brochure inside the package and shall make an electronic version available for download without site or customer registration and without requiring purchase of any product or service. The user instructional brochure shall include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The following warnings, which shall appear in the following order and prior to any content except the cover page:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Warning against use in people younger than 18 without prior medical evaluation.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.018.gif"/>
<P>(B) <I>“Red flag” conditions, addressed to dispensers.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.019.gif"/>
<P>(C) <I>Warning to dispensers about very high-output devices.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.020.gif"/>
<P>(D) <I>Additional warnings.</I> Any additional warnings the manufacturer may include prior to the cautions and notices to users in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following cautions and notices for users, which shall appear prior to any content, except the cover page and the warnings under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Caution about hearing protection.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.021.gif"/>
<P>(B) <I>Caution about excessive sound output.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.022.gif"/>
<P>(C) <I>Caution about components lodging in ear.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.023.gif"/>
<P>(D) <I>Note about user expectations.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.024.gif"/>
<P>(E) <I>Note about reporting adverse events to FDA.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.025.gif"/>
<P>(F) <I>Note about hearing loss in people younger than 18 and fitting devices.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17au22.026.gif"/>
<P>(iii) An illustration(s) of the prescription hearing aid that indicates operating controls, user adjustments, and the battery compartment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on the function of all controls intended for user adjustment.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of any accessory that accompanies the prescription hearing aid, including but not limited to wax guards, and accessories for use with a computer, television, or telephone.
</P>
<P>(vi) Specific instructions for all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of the prescription hearing aid with any accompanying accessories.
</P>
<P>(B) Maintenance and care of the prescription hearing aid, including how a user can clean, disinfect, and replace parts or how to seek replacements, as well as how to store the hearing aid when it will not be used for an extended period of time.
</P>
<P>(C) If the battery is replaceable or rechargeable, how to replace or recharge the battery, including a generic designation of replacement batteries.
</P>
<P>(D) Expected battery life.
</P>
<P>(vii) Identification of any known physiological side effects associated with the use of the prescription hearing aid that may warrant consultation with a physician, referring to an ear-nose-throat doctor when preferable, including if applicable, skin irritation and accelerated accumulation of cerumen (ear wax).
</P>
<P>(viii) The technical specifications required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section unless such specifications appear in separate labeling accompanying the prescription hearing aid.
</P>
<P>(ix) A description of commonly occurring, avoidable events that could adversely affect or damage the prescription hearing aid, including but not limited to, as applicable, ear wax buildup, drops, immersion in water, or exposure to excessive heat.
</P>
<P>(x) If the hearing aid incorporates wireless technology in its programming or use, appropriate warnings, instructions, and information relating to electromagnetic compatibility and wireless technology and human exposure to non-ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P>(xi) Information on how and where to obtain repair service or replacements, including at least one specific address where the user can go or send the prescription hearing aid to obtain such repair service or replacements.
</P>
<P>(xii) If clinical or non-clinical studies were conducted by or for the manufacturer to support the performance of the prescription hearing aid, a summary of all such studies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling on the device.</I> The labeling on a prescription hearing aid itself shall bear all of the following clearly and permanently, except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The serial number.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the battery is removable, a “+” symbol to indicate the positive terminal for battery insertion unless the battery's physical design prevents inserting the battery in the reversed position.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the prescription hearing aid is used or rebuilt, the manufacturer shall physically attach a removable tag to the hearing aid declaring that fact.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Technical specifications.</I> You must determine the technical specification values for the prescription hearing aid labeling in accordance with the test procedures of ANSI/ASA S3.22-2014 (R2020), except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ix) of this section for latency. Technical specifications and their associated values that are useful in selecting, fitting, and checking the performance of the prescription hearing aid shall appear in the user instructional brochure or in separate labeling that accompanies the device, including all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Saturation output curve (Saturation Sound Pressure Level (SSPL) 90 curve).
</P>
<P>(ii) Frequency response curve.
</P>
<P>(iii) Average saturation output (High Frequency (HF)-Average SSPL 90).
</P>
<P>(iv) Average full-on gain (HF-Average full-on gain).
</P>
<P>(v) Reference test gain.
</P>
<P>(vi) Frequency range.
</P>
<P>(vii) Total harmonic distortion.
</P>
<P>(viii) Equivalent input noise.
</P>
<P>(ix) Latency, measured using a method that is accurate and repeatable to within 1.5 ms.
</P>
<P>(x) Battery current drain.
</P>
<P>(xi) Induction coil sensitivity (telephone coil aids only).
</P>
<P>(xii) Input-output curve (only for hearing aids with automatic gain control).
</P>
<P>(xiii) Attack and release times (only for hearing aids with automatic gain control).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Software device labeling.</I> Prescription hearing aid software that is not distributed with the hearing aid or amplification platform shall meet all of the following labeling requirements. With respect to the information required under paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, the information must be provided in the software device labeling, as specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(i) through (v) of this section, rather than the locations (<I>e.g.,</I> outside package labeling) specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4).
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to first use of the software or obtaining payment information for the software, whichever occurs first, the labeling must clearly and prominently present all of the following to the prospective user. For each, the labeling must remain visible until the user dismisses it or proceeds to the next step:
</P>
<P>(A) Compatibility and minimum operating requirements for the software device.
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosures of any fees or payments after first use or initial payment, including but not limited to any fees or payments relating to subscriptions, add-on features, or continued access to features or services. The disclosures must name and briefly describe what each fee or payment covers.
</P>
<P>(C) The information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to first use of the software, the labeling must clearly and prominently present all of the following to the prospective user:
</P>
<P>(A) The information required under paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section, and it must remain visible until the user acknowledges it.
</P>
<P>(B) The information required under paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(B) through (D) and (c)(2)(ii), (iv), (vii), and (viii) of this section, and the information must remain visible until the user dismisses it or proceeds to the next step.
</P>
<P>(C) All other information required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, to the extent applicable, and the information must remain visible until the user dismisses it or proceeds to the next step.
</P>
<P>(iii) The software device labeling must include the information required under paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) All of the software device labeling must be accessible for review after acknowledgment, dismissal, or proceeding to the next step.
</P>
<P>(v) If there are changes to any of the labeling required under paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the labeling with the changed information must be presented to the user until the user dismisses it.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Misbranding.</I> A prescription hearing aid that is not labeled as required under this section and § 801.109 is misbranded under sections 201(n), 502(a), and/or 502(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> ANSI/ASA S3.22-2014 (R2020), “AMERICAN NATIONAL STANDARD Specification of Hearing Aid Characteristics,” dated June 5, 2020, is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the Acoustical Society of America (ASA), 1305 Walt Whitman Road, Suite 300, Melville, NY 11747; phone: (631) 390-0215; fax: (631) 923-2875; email: <I>asastds@acousticalsociety.org.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 50755, Aug. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.430   User labeling for menstrual tampons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to scented or scented deodorized menstrual tampons as identified in § 884.5460 and unscented menstrual tampons as identified in § 884.5470 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Data show that toxic shock syndrome (TSS), a rare but serious and sometimes fatal disease, is associated with the use of menstrual tampons. To protect the public and to minimize the serious adverse effects of TSS, menstrual tampons shall be labeled as set forth in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section and tested for absorbency as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) If the information specified in paragraph (d) of this section is to be included as a package insert, the following alert statement shall appear prominently and legibly on the package label:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Attention:</E> Tampons are associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS). TSS is a rare but serious disease that may cause death. Read and save the enclosed information.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) The labeling of menstrual tampons shall contain the following consumer information prominently and legibly, in such terms as to render the information likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Warning signs of TSS, e.g., sudden fever (usually 102° or more) and vomiting, diarrhea, fainting or near fainting when standing up, dizziness, or a rash that looks like a sunburn;
</P>
<P>(ii) What to do if these or other signs of TSS appear, including the need to remove the tampon at once and seek medical attention immediately;
</P>
<P>(2) The risk of TSS to all women using tampons during their menstrual period, especially the reported higher risks to women under 30 years of age and teenage girls, the estimated incidence of TSS of 1 to 17 per 100,000 menstruating women and girls per year, and the risk of death from contracting TSS;
</P>
<P>(3) The advisability of using tampons with the minimum absorbency needed to control menstrual flow in order to reduce the risk of contracting TSS;
</P>
<P>(4) Avoiding the risk of getting tampon-associated TSS by not using tampons, and reducing the risk of getting TSS by alternating tampon use with sanitary napkin use during menstrual periods; and
</P>
<P>(5) The need to seek medical attention before again using tampons if TSS warning signs have occurred in the past, or if women have any questions about TSS or tampon use.
</P>
<P>(e) The statements required by paragraph (e) of this section shall be prominently and legibly placed on the package label of menstrual tampons in conformance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (unless the menstrual tampons are exempt under paragraph (g) of this section).
</P>
<P>(1) Menstrual tampon package labels shall bear one of the following absorbency terms representing the absorbency of the production run, lot, or batch as measured by the test described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section;
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ranges of absorbency in grams 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Corresponding term of absorbency
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 and under</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Light absorbency
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 to 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Regular absorbency
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 to 12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Super absorbency
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 to 15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Super plus absorbency
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 to 18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ultra absorbency
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No term
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup>These ranges are defined, respectively, as follows: Less than or equal to 6 grams (g); greater than 6 g up to and including 9 g; greater than 9 g up to and including 12 g; greater than 12 g up to and including 15 g; greater than 15 g up to and including 18 g; and greater than 18 g.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The package label shall include an explanation of the ranges of absorbency and a description of how consumers can use a range of absorbency, and its corresponding absorbency term, to make comparisons of absorbency of tampons to allow selection of the tampons with the minimum absorbency needed to control menstrual flow in order to reduce the risk of contracting TSS.
</P>
<P>(f) A manufacturer shall measure the absorbency of individual tampons using the test method specified in paragraph (f)(2) of this section and calculate the mean absorbency of a production run, lot, or batch by rounding to the nearest 0.1 gram.
</P>
<P>(1) A manufacturer shall design and implement a sampling plan that includes collection of probability samples of adequate size to yield consistent tolerance intervals such that the probability is 90 percent that at least 90 percent of the absorbencies of individual tampons within a brand and type are within the range of absorbency stated on the package label.
</P>
<P>(2) In the absorbency test, an unlubricated condom, with tensile strength between 17 Mega Pascals (MPa) and 30 MPa, as measured according to the procedure in the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) D 3492-97, “Standard Specification for Rubber Contraceptives (Male Condoms)” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> for determining tensile strength, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a), is attached to the large end of a glass chamber (or a chamber made from hard transparent plastic) with a rubber band (see figure 1) and pushed through the small end of the chamber using a smooth, finished rod. The condom is pulled through until all slack is removed. The tip of the condom is cut off and the remaining end of the condom is stretched over the end of the tube and secured with a rubber band. A preweighed (to the nearest 0.01 gram) tampon is placed within the condom membrane so that the center of gravity of the tampon is at the center of the chamber. An infusion needle (14 gauge) is inserted through the septum created by the condom tip until it contacts the end of the tampon. The outer chamber is filled with water pumped from a temperature-controlled waterbath to maintain the average temperature at 27±1 °C. The water returns to the waterbath as shown in figure 2. Syngyna fluid (10 grams sodium chloride, 0.5 gram Certified Reagent Acid Fushsin, 1,000 milliliters distilled water) is then pumped through the infusion needle at a rate of 50 milliliters per hour. The test shall be terminated when the tampon is saturated and the first drop of fluid exits the apparatus. (The test result shall be discarded if fluid is detected in the folds of the condom before the tampon is saturated). The water is then drained and the tampon is removed and immediately weighed to the nearest 0.01 gram. The absorbency of the tampon is determined by subtracting its dry weight from this value. The condom shall be replaced after 10 tests or at the end of the day during which the condom is used in testing, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU>The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy from the American Society for Testing and Materials International, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959, 610-832-9578, <I>www.astm.org.</I> You may inspect a copy at the FDA Main Library, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 2, 3d floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-2039, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-2139, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.026.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.027.gif"/>
<P>(3) The Food and Drug Administration may permit the use of an absorbency test method different from the test method specified in this section if each of the following conditions is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacturer presents evidence, in the form of a citizen petition submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 10.30 of this chapter, demonstrating that the alternative test method will yield results that are equivalent to the results yielded by the test method specified in this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA approves the method and has published notice of its approval of the alternative test method in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(g) Any menstrual tampon intended to be dispensed by a vending machine is exempt from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) Any menstrual tampon that is not labeled as required by paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into commerce after March 1, 1990, is misbranded under sections 201(n), 502 (a) and (f) of the act.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Information collection requirements contained in paragraphs (e) and (f) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0257)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 26989, June 22, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 43771, Oct. 26, 1989; 55 FR 17600, Apr. 26, 1990; 65 FR 3586, Jan. 24, 2000; 65 FR 44436, July 18, 2000; 65 FR 62284, Oct. 18, 2000; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 69 FR 52171, Aug. 25, 2004; 75 FR 20914, Apr. 22, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.433" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.433   Warning statements for prescription and restricted device products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons or other ozone-depleting substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All prescription and restricted device products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons, halons, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloride, or any other class I substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) shall, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, bear the following warning statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Warning:</E> Contains [or Manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms public health and environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For prescription and restricted device products, the following alternative warning statement may be used: 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The indented statement below is required by the Federal government's Clean Air Act for all products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's) [or name of other class I substance, if applicable]:
</P>
<P>This product contains [or is manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms the environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere. 
</P>
<P>Your physician has determined that this product is likely to help your personal health. USE THIS PRODUCT AS DIRECTED, UNLESS INSTRUCTED TO DO OTHERWISE BY YOUR PHYSICIAN. If you have any questions about alternatives, consult with your physician.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the warning statement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is used, the following warning statement must be placed on the package labeling intended to be read by the physician (physician package insert) after the “How supplied” section, which describes special handling and storage conditions on the physician labeling: 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The indented statement below is required by the Federal government's Clean Air Act for all products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's) [or name of other class I substance, if applicable]:
</P>
<P><E T="04">Warning:</E> Contains [or Manufactured with, if applicable] [<I>insert name of substance</I>], a substance which harms public health and environment by destroying ozone in the upper atmosphere. 
</P>
<P>A notice similar to the above WARNING has been placed in the information for the patient [or patient information leaflet, if applicable] of this product under Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulations. The patient's warning states that the patient should consult his or her physician if there are questions about alternatives.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) This section does not replace or relieve a person from any requirements imposed under 40 CFR part 82. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 20101, May 3, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.435" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.435   User labeling for latex condoms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to the subset of condoms as identified in § 884.5300 of this chapter, and condoms with spermicidal lubricant as identified in § 884.5310 of this chapter, which products are formed from latex films.
</P>
<P>(b) Data show that the material integrity of latex condoms degrade over time. To protect the public health and minimize the risk of device failure, latex condoms must bear an expiration date which is supported by testing as described in paragraphs (d) and (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The expiration date, as demonstrated by testing procedures required by paragraphs (d) and (h) of this section, must be displayed prominently and legibly on the primary packaging (i.e., individual package), and higher levels of packaging (e.g., boxes of condoms), in order to ensure visibility of the expiration date by consumers.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided under paragraph (f) of this section, the expiration date must be supported by data demonstrating physical and mechanical integrity of the product after three discrete and representative lots of the product have been subjected to each of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Storage of unpackaged bulk product for the maximum amount of time the manufacturer allows the product to remain unpackaged, followed by storage of the packaged product at 70 °C (plus or minus 2 °C) for 7 days;
</P>
<P>(2) Storage of unpackaged bulk product for the maximum amount of time the manufacturer allows the product to remain unpackaged, followed by storage of the packaged product at a selected temperature between 40 and 50 °C (plus or minus 2 °C) for 90 days; and
</P>
<P>(3) Storage of unpackaged bulk product for the maximum amount of time the manufacturer allows the product to remain unpackaged, followed by storage of the packaged product at a monitored or controlled temperature between 15 and 30 °C for the lifetime of the product (real time storage).
</P>
<P>(e) If a product fails the physical and mechanical integrity tests commonly used by industry after the completion of the accelerated storage tests described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section, the product expiration date must be demonstrated by real time storage conditions described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. If all of the products tested after storage at temperatures as described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section pass the manufacturer's physical and mechanical integrity tests, the manufacturer may label the product with an expiration date of up to 5 years from the date of product packaging. If the extrapolated expiration date under paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section is used, the labeled expiration date must be confirmed by physical and mechanical integrity tests performed at the end of the stated expiration period as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. If the data from tests following real time storage described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section fails to confirm the extrapolated expiration date, the manufacturer must, at that time, relabel the product to reflect the actual shelf life.
</P>
<P>(f) Products that already have established shelf life data based upon real time storage and testing and have such storage and testing data available for inspection are not required to confirm such data using accelerated and intermediate aging data described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section. If, however, such real time expiration dates were based upon testing of products that were not first left unpackaged for the maximum amount of time as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the real time testing must be confirmed by testing products consistent with the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section. This testing shall be initiated no later than the effective date of this regulation. Until the confirmation testing in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section is completed, the product may remain on the market labeled with the expiration date based upon previous real time testing.
</P>
<P>(g) If a manufacturer uses testing data from one product to support expiration dating on any variation of that product, the manufacturer must document and provide, upon request, an appropriate justification for the application of the testing data to the variation of the tested product.
</P>
<P>(h) If a latex condom contains a spermicide, and the expiration date based on spermicidal stability testing is different from the expiration date based upon latex integrity testing, the product shall bear only the earlier expiration date.
</P>
<P>(i) The time period upon which the expiration date is based shall start with the date of packaging.
</P>
<P>(j) As provided in part 820 of this chapter, all testing data must be retained in each company's files, and shall be made available upon request for inspection by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(k) Any latex condom not labeled with an expiration date as required by paragraph (c) of this section, and initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the effective date of this regulation is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321(n) and 352(a) and (f)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 50501, Sept. 26, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.437" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.2.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.437   User labeling for devices that contain natural rubber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Data in the Medical Device Reporting System and the scientific literature indicate that some individuals are at risk of severe anaphylactic reactions to natural latex proteins. This labeling regulation is intended to minimize the risk to individuals sensitive to natural latex proteins and protect the public health. 
</P>
<P>(b) This section applies to all devices composed of or containing, or having packaging or components that are composed of, or contain, natural rubber that contacts humans. The term “natural rubber” includes natural rubber latex, dry natural rubber, and synthetic latex or synthetic rubber that contains natural rubber in its formulation. 
</P>
<P>(1) The term “natural rubber latex” means rubber that is produced by the natural rubber latex process that involves the use of natural latex in a concentrated colloidal suspension. Products are formed from natural rubber latex by dipping, extruding, or coating. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term “dry natural rubber” means rubber that is produced by the dry natural rubber process that involves the use of coagulated natural latex in the form of dried or milled sheets. Products are formed from dry natural rubber by compression molding, extrusion, or by converting the sheets into a solution for dipping. 
</P>
<P>(3) The term “contacts humans” means that the natural rubber contained in a device is intended to contact or is likely to contact the user or patient. This includes contact when the device that contains natural rubber is connected to the patient by a liquid path or an enclosed gas path; or the device containing the natural rubber is fully or partially coated with a powder, and such powder may carry natural rubber proteins that may contaminate the environment of the user or patient. 
</P>
<P>(c) Devices containing natural rubber shall be labeled as set forth in paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section. Each required labeling statement shall be prominently and legibly displayed in conformance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 352(c)).
</P>
<P>(d) Devices containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling: 
</P>
<P>“Caution: This Product Contains Natural Rubber Latex Which May Cause Allergic Reactions.”
</P>
<FP>This statement shall appear on all device labels, and other labeling, and shall appear on the principal display panel of the device packaging, the outside package, container or wrapper, and the immediate device package, container, or wrapper. 
</FP>
<P>(e) Devices containing dry natural rubber that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, that are not already subject to paragraph (d) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling: 
</P>
<P>“This Product Contains Dry Natural Rubber.” 
</P>
<FP>This statement shall appear on all device labels, and other labeling, and shall appear on the principal display panel of the device packaging, the outside package, container or wrapper, and the immediate device package, container, or wrapper.
</FP>
<P>(f) Devices that have packaging containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling: 
</P>
<P>“Caution: The Packaging of This Product Contains Natural Rubber Latex Which May Cause Allergic Reactions.” 
</P>
<FP>This statement shall appear on the packaging that contains the natural rubber, and the outside package, container, or wrapper.
</FP>
<P>(g) Devices that have packaging containing dry natural rubber that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling: 
</P>
<P>“The Packaging of This Product Contains Dry Natural Rubber.” 
</P>
<FP>This statement shall appear on the packaging that contains the natural rubber, and the outside package, container, or wrapper.
</FP>
<P>(h) Devices that contain natural rubber that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall not contain the term “hypoallergenic” on their labeling. 
</P>
<P>(i) Any affected person may request an exemption or variance from the requirements of this section by submitting a citizen petition in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j) Any device subject to this section that is not labeled in accordance with paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the effective date of this regulation is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a), (c), and (f) of the act (21 U.S.C. 321(n) and 352(a), (c), and (f)). 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 801.437:</HED>
<P>Paragraphs (f) and (g) are stayed until June 27, 1999, as those regulations relate to device packaging that uses “cold seal” adhesives.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 51029, Sept. 30, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 46175, Aug. 31, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="803" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 803—MEDICAL DEVICE REPORTING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 352, 360, 360i, 360j, 371, 374.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.1   What does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the requirements for medical device reporting for device user facilities, manufacturers, importers, and distributors. If you are a device user facility, you must report deaths and serious injuries that a device has or may have caused or contributed to, establish and maintain adverse event files, and submit summary annual reports. If you are a manufacturer or importer, you must report deaths and serious injuries that your device has or may have caused or contributed to, you must report certain device malfunctions, and you must establish and maintain adverse event files. If you are a manufacturer, you must also submit specified followup. These reports help us to protect the public health by helping to ensure that devices are not adulterated or misbranded and are safe and effective for their intended use. If you are a medical device distributor, you must maintain records (files) of incidents, but you are not required to report these incidents.
</P>
<P>(b) This part supplements and does not supersede other provisions of this chapter, including the provisions of part 820 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.3   How does FDA define the terms used in this part?</HEAD>
<P>Some of the terms we use in this part are specific to medical device reporting and reflect the language used in the statute (law). Other terms are more general and reflect our interpretation of the law. This section defines the following terms as used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ambulatory surgical facility (ASF)</I> means a distinct entity that operates for the primary purpose of furnishing same day outpatient surgical services to patients. An ASF may be either an independent entity (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity). An ASF is subject to this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or regardless of whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the ASF must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the ASF.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Become aware</I> means that an employee of the entity required to report has acquired information that reasonably suggests a reportable adverse event has occurred.
</P>
<P>(1) If you are a device user facility, you are considered to have “become aware” when medical personnel, as defined in this section, who are employed by or otherwise formally affiliated with your facility, obtain information about a reportable event.
</P>
<P>(2) If you are a manufacturer, you are considered to have become aware of an event when any of your employees becomes aware of a reportable event that is required to be reported within 30 calendar days or that is required to be reported within 5 work days because we had requested reports in accordance with § 803.53(b). You are also considered to have become aware of an event when any of your employees with management or supervisory responsibilities over persons with regulatory, scientific, or technical responsibilities, or whose duties relate to the collection and reporting of adverse events, becomes aware, from any information, including any trend analysis, that a reportable MDR event or events necessitates remedial action to prevent an unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health.
</P>
<P>(3) If you are an importer, you are considered to have become aware of an event when any of your employees becomes aware of a reportable event that is required to be reported by you within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Caused or contributed</I> means that a death or serious injury was or may have been attributed to a medical device, or that a medical device was or may have been a factor in a death or serious injury, including events occurring as a result of:
</P>
<P>(1) Failure,
</P>
<P>(2) Malfunction,
</P>
<P>(3) Improper or inadequate design,
</P>
<P>(4) Manufacture,
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling, or
</P>
<P>(6) User error.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Device user facility</I> means a hospital, ambulatory surgical facility, nursing home, outpatient diagnostic facility, or outpatient treatment facility as defined in this section, which is not a physician's office, as defined in this section. School nurse offices and employee health units are not device user facilities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Distributor</I> means any person (other than the manufacturer or importer) who furthers the marketing of a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate user, but who does not repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package. If you repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling, you are considered a manufacturer as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expected life of a device</I> means the time that a device is expected to remain functional after it is placed into use. Certain implanted devices have specified “end of life” (EOL) dates. Other devices are not labeled as to their respective EOL, but are expected to remain operational through activities such as maintenance, repairs, or upgrades, for an estimated period of time.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FDA, we, us, or Agency</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Five-day report</I> means a medical device report that must be submitted by a manufacturer to us under § 803.53 within 5 work days.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hospital</I> means a distinct entity that operates for the primary purpose of providing diagnostic, therapeutic (such as medical, occupational, speech, physical), surgical, and other patient services for specific and general medical conditions. Hospitals include general, chronic disease, rehabilitative, psychiatric, and other special-purpose facilities. A hospital may be either independent (e.g., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or may be operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of another entity). A hospital is covered by this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the hospital must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the hospital.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Importer</I> means any person who imports a device into the United States and who furthers the marketing of a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate user, but who does not repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package. If you repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling, you are considered a manufacturer as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Malfunction</I> means the failure of a device to meet its performance specifications or otherwise perform as intended. Performance specifications include all claims made in the labeling for the device. The intended performance of a device refers to the intended use for which the device is labeled or marketed, as defined in § 801.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, or processes a device by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedure. The term includes any person who either:
</P>
<P>(1) Repackages or otherwise changes the container, wrapper, or labeling of a device in furtherance of the distribution of the device from the original place of manufacture;
</P>
<P>(2) Initiates specifications for devices that are manufactured by a second party for subsequent distribution by the person initiating the specifications;
</P>
<P>(3) Manufactures components or accessories that are devices that are ready to be used and are intended to be commercially distributed and intended to be used as is, or are processed by a licensed practitioner or other qualified person to meet the needs of a particular patient; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is the U.S. agent of a foreign manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Manufacturer or importer report number.</I> This number uniquely identifies each individual adverse event report submitted by a manufacturer or importer. This number consists of the following three parts:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDA registration number for the manufacturing site of the reported device, or the registration number for the importer. If the manufacturing site or the importer does not have an establishment registration number, we will assign a temporary MDR reporting number until the site is registered in accordance with part 807 of this chapter. We will inform the manufacturer or importer of the temporary MDR reporting number;
</P>
<P>(2) The four-digit calendar year in which the report is submitted; and
</P>
<P>(3) The five-digit sequence number of the reports submitted during the year, starting with 00001. (For example, the complete number will appear as follows: 1234567-2011-00001.)
</P>
<P>(n) <I>MDR</I> means medical device report.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>MDR reportable event (or reportable event)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An event that user facilities become aware of that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or
</P>
<P>(2) An event that manufacturers or importers become aware of that reasonably suggests that one of their marketed devices:
</P>
<P>(i) May have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has malfunctioned and that the device or a similar device marketed by the manufacturer or importer would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Medical personnel</I> means an individual who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is licensed, registered, or certified by a State, territory, or other governing body, to administer health care;
</P>
<P>(2) Has received a diploma or a degree in a professional or scientific discipline;
</P>
<P>(3) Is an employee responsible for receiving medical complaints or adverse event reports; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is a supervisor of these persons.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Nursing home</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An independent entity (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or one operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity) that operates for the primary purpose of providing:
</P>
<P>(i) Skilled nursing care and related services for persons who require medical or nursing care;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hospice care to the terminally ill; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Services for the rehabilitation of the injured, disabled, or sick.
</P>
<P>(2) A nursing home is subject to this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the nursing home must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the nursing home.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Outpatient diagnostic facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A distinct entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Operates for the primary purpose of conducting medical diagnostic tests on patients,
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not assume ongoing responsibility for patient care, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides its services for use by other medical personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) Outpatient diagnostic facilities include outpatient facilities providing radiography, mammography, ultrasonography, electrocardiography, magnetic resonance imaging, computerized axial tomography, and in vitro testing. An outpatient diagnostic facility may be either independent (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity). An outpatient diagnostic facility is covered by this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the outpatient diagnostic facility must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the outpatient diagnostic facility.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Outpatient treatment facility</I> means a distinct entity that operates for the primary purpose of providing nonsurgical therapeutic (medical, occupational, or physical) care on an outpatient basis or in a home health care setting. Outpatient treatment facilities include ambulance providers, rescue services, and home health care groups. Examples of services provided by outpatient treatment facilities include the following: Cardiac defibrillation, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, pain control, dialysis, speech or physical therapy, and treatment for substance abuse. An outpatient treatment facility may be either independent (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity). An outpatient treatment facility is covered by this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the outpatient treatment facility must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the outpatient treatment facility.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Patient of the facility</I> means any individual who is being diagnosed or treated and/or receiving medical care at or under the control or authority of the facility. This includes employees of the facility or individuals affiliated with the facility who, in the course of their duties, suffer a device-related death or serious injury that has or may have been caused or contributed to by a device used at the facility.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Physician's office</I> means a facility that operates as the office of a physician or other health care professional for the primary purpose of examination, evaluation, and treatment or referral of patients. Examples of physician offices include: Dentist offices, chiropractor offices, optometrist offices, nurse practitioner offices, school nurse offices, school clinics, employee health clinics, or freestanding care units. A physician's office may be independent, a group practice, or part of a Health Maintenance Organization.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Remedial action means</I> any action other than routine maintenance or servicing of a device where such action is necessary to prevent recurrence of a reportable event.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Serious injury</I> means an injury or illness that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is life-threatening,
</P>
<P>(2) Results in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure, or
</P>
<P>(3) Necessitates medical or surgical intervention to preclude permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure. Permanent means irreversible impairment or damage to a body structure or function, excluding trivial impairment or damage.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>User facility report number</I> means the number that uniquely identifies each report submitted by a user facility to manufacturers and to us. This number consists of the following three parts:
</P>
<P>(1) The user facility's 10-digit Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) number (if the CMS number has fewer than 10 digits, fill the remaining spaces with zeros);
</P>
<P>(2) The four-digit calendar year in which the report is submitted; and
</P>
<P>(3) The four-digit sequence number of the reports submitted for the year, starting with 0001. (For example, a complete user facility report number will appear as follows: 1234560000-2011-0001. If a user facility has more than one CMS number, it must select one that will be used for all of its MDR reports. If a user facility has no CMS number, it should use all zeros in the appropriate space in its initial report (e.g., 0000000000-2011-0001). We will assign a number for future use and send that number to the user facility. This number is used in our record of the initial report, in subsequent reports, and in any correspondence with the user facility. If a facility has multiple sites, the primary site may submit reports for all sites and use one reporting number for all sites if the primary site provides the name, address, and CMS number for each respective site.)
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Work day</I> means Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(z) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A <I>unique device identifier</I> is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 10587, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.9   What information from the reports do we disclose to the public?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We may disclose to the public any report, including any FDA record of a telephone report, submitted under this part. Our disclosures are governed by part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Before we disclose a report to the public, we will delete the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Any personal, medical, and similar information, including the serial number of implanted devices, which would constitute an invasion of personal privacy under § 20.63 of this chapter. However, if a patient requests a report, we will disclose to that patient all the information in the report concerning that patient, as provided in § 20.61 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any names and other identifying information of a third party that voluntarily submitted an adverse event report.
</P>
<P>(c) We may not disclose the identity of a device user facility that makes a report under this part except in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) An action brought to enforce section 301(q) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 331(q)), including the failure or refusal to furnish material or information required by section 519 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360i));
</P>
<P>(2) A communication to a manufacturer of a device that is the subject of a report required to be submitted by a user facility under § 803.30; or
</P>
<P>(3) A disclosure to employees of the Department of Health and Human Services, to the Department of Justice, or to the duly authorized committees and subcommittees of the Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.10   Generally, what are the reporting requirements that apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a device user facility, you must submit reports (described in subpart C of this part), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of a reportable event:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit reports of device-related deaths to us and to the manufacturer, if known, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit reports of device-related serious injuries to the manufacturers or, if the manufacturer is unknown, submit reports to us.
</P>
<P>(2) Submit annual reports (described in § 803.33) to us.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are an importer, you must submit reports (described in subpart D of this part), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of a reportable event:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit reports of device-related deaths or serious injuries to us and to the manufacturer or
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit reports of device-related malfunctions to the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) If you are a manufacturer, you must submit reports (described in subpart E of this part) to us, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of a reportable death, serious injury, or malfunction.
</P>
<P>(2) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 5 work days after the day that you become aware of:
</P>
<P>(i) A reportable event that requires remedial action to prevent an unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health or
</P>
<P>(ii) A reportable event for which we made a written request.
</P>
<P>(3) Submit supplemental reports if you obtain information that you did not submit in an initial report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.11   What form should I use to submit reports of individual adverse events and where do I obtain these forms?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a manufacturer or importer, you must submit reports of individual adverse events to FDA in an electronic format in accordance with § 803.12(a) and § 803.20, unless granted an exemption under § 803.19.
</P>
<P>(b) Importer reports submitted to device manufacturers may be in paper format or an electronic format that includes all required data fields to ensure that the manufacturer has all required information.
</P>
<P>(c) If you are a user facility, you must submit reports of individual adverse events in accordance with § 803.12(b) and § 803.20.
</P>
<P>(d) Form FDA 3500A is available on the internet at <I>https://www.accessdata.fda.gov/scripts/medwatch/index.cfm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 10587, Feb. 27, 2015; 85 FR 18441, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.12   How do I submit initial and supplemental or followup reports?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturers and importers must submit initial and supplemental or followup reports to FDA in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive.
</P>
<P>(b) User facilities that submit their reports and additional information to FDA electronically must use an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. User facilities that submit their reports to FDA on paper must submit any written report or additional information required under this part to FDA, CDRH, Medical Device Reporting, P.O. Box 3002, Rockville, MD 20847-3002, using Form FDA 3500A. Each report must be identified (e.g., “User Facility Report” or “Annual Report”).
</P>
<P>(c) If you are confronted with a public health emergency, this can be brought to FDA's attention by contacting FDA's Office of Crisis Management, Emergency Operations Center by telephone, 24-hours a day, at 301-796-8240 or toll free at 866-300-4374, followed by the submission of an email to: <I>emergency.operations@fda.hhs.gov</I>.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This action does not satisfy your obligation to report under part 803.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) You may submit a voluntary telephone report to the MedWatch office at 800-FDA-1088. You may also obtain information regarding voluntary reporting from the MedWatch office at 800-FDA-1088. You may also find the voluntary Form FDA 3500 and instructions to complete it at: <I>http://www.fda.gov/Safety/MedWatch/HowToReport/DownloadForms/default.htm.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.13   Do I need to submit reports in English?</HEAD>
<P>Yes. You must submit all reports required by this part in English.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.15   How will I know if you require more information about my medical device report?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We will notify you in writing if we require additional information and will tell you what information we need. We will require additional information if we determine that protection of the public health requires additional or clarifying information for medical device reports submitted to us and in cases when the additional information is beyond the scope of FDA reporting forms or is not readily accessible to us.
</P>
<P>(b) In any request under this section, we will state the reason or purpose for the information request, specify the due date for submitting the information, and clearly identify the reported event(s) related to our request. If we verbally request additional information, we will confirm the request in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.16   When I submit a report, does the information in my report constitute an admission that the device caused or contributed to the reportable event?</HEAD>
<P>No. A report or other information submitted by you, and our release of that report or information, is not necessarily an admission that the device, or you or your employees, caused or contributed to the reportable event. You do not have to admit and may deny that the report or information submitted under this part constitutes an admission that the device, you, or your employees, caused or contributed to a reportable event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.17   What are the requirements for developing, maintaining, and implementing written MDR procedures that apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you must develop, maintain, and implement written MDR procedures for the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Internal systems that provide for:
</P>
<P>(1) Timely and effective identification, communication, and evaluation of events that may be subject to MDR requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) A standardized review process or procedure for determining when an event meets the criteria for reporting under this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Timely transmission of complete medical device reports to manufacturers or to us, or to both if required.
</P>
<P>(b) Documentation and recordkeeping requirements for:
</P>
<P>(1) Information that was evaluated to determine if an event was reportable;
</P>
<P>(2) All medical device reports and information submitted to manufacturers and/or us;
</P>
<P>(3) Any information that was evaluated for the purpose of preparing the submission of annual reports; and
</P>
<P>(4) Systems that ensure access to information that facilitates timely followup and inspection by us.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.18   What are the requirements for establishing and maintaining MDR files or records that apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you must establish and maintain MDR event files. You must clearly identify all MDR event files and maintain them to facilitate timely access.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For purposes of this part, “MDR event files” are written or electronic files maintained by user facilities, importers, and manufacturers. MDR event files may incorporate references to other information (e.g., medical records, patient files, engineering reports), in lieu of copying and maintaining duplicates in this file. Your MDR event files must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Information in your possession or references to information related to the adverse event, including all documentation of your deliberations and decision making processes used to determine if a device-related death, serious injury, or malfunction was or was not reportable under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Copies of all reports submitted under this part (whether paper or electronic), and of all other information related to the event that you submitted to us or other entities such as an importer, distributor, or manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Copies of all electronic acknowledgments FDA sends you in response to electronic MDR submissions.
</P>
<P>(2) If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you must permit any authorized FDA employee, at all reasonable times, to access, to copy, and to verify the records required by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If you are a user facility, you must retain an MDR event file relating to an adverse event for a period of 2 years from the date of the event. If you are a manufacturer or importer, you must retain an MDR event file relating to an adverse event for a period of 2 years from the date of the event or a period of time equivalent to the expected life of the device, whichever is greater. If the device is no longer distributed, you still must maintain MDR event files for the time periods described in this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If you are a device distributor, you must establish and maintain device complaint records (files). Your records must contain any incident information, including any written, electronic, or oral communication, either received or generated by you, that alleges deficiencies related to the identity (e.g., labeling), quality, durability, reliability, safety, effectiveness, or performance of a device. You must also maintain information about your evaluation of the allegations, if any, in the incident record. You must clearly identify the records as device incident records and file these records by device name. You may maintain these records in written or electronic format. You must back up any file maintained in electronic format.
</P>
<P>(2) You must retain copies of the required device incident records for a period of 2 years from the date of inclusion of the record in the file or for a period of time equivalent to the expected life of the device, whichever is greater. You must maintain copies of these records for this period even if you no longer distribute the device.
</P>
<P>(3) You must maintain the device complaint files established under this section at your principal business establishment. If you are also a manufacturer, you may maintain the file at the same location as you maintain your complaint file under part 820 of this chapter. You must permit any authorized FDA employee, at all reasonable times, to access, to copy, and to verify the records required by this part.
</P>
<P>(e) If you are a manufacturer, you may maintain MDR event files as part of your complaint file, under part 820 of this chapter, if you prominently identify these records as MDR reportable events. We will not consider your submitted MDR report to comply with this part unless you evaluate an event in accordance with the quality management system requirements described in part 820 of this chapter. You must document and maintain in your MDR event files an explanation of why you did not submit or could not obtain any information required by this part, as well as the results of your evaluation of each event.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 90 FR 55979, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.19" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.19   Are there exemptions, variances, or alternative forms of adverse event reporting requirements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We exempt the following persons from the adverse event reporting requirements in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) A licensed practitioner who prescribes or administers devices intended for use in humans and manufactures or imports devices solely for use in diagnosing and treating persons with whom the practitioner has a “physician-patient” relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) An individual who manufactures devices intended for use in humans solely for this person's use in research or teaching and not for sale. This includes any person who is subject to alternative reporting requirements under the investigational device exemption regulations (described in part 812 of this chapter), which require reporting of all adverse device effects; and
</P>
<P>(3) Dental laboratories or optical laboratories.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are a manufacturer, importer, or user facility, you may request an exemption or variance from any or all of the reporting requirements in this part, including the requirements of § 803.12. You must submit the request to the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) in writing at <I>MDRPolicy@fda.hhs.gov</I>. Your request must include information necessary to identify you and the device; a complete statement of the request for exemption, variance, or alternative reporting; and an explanation why your request is justified. If you are requesting an exemption from the requirement to submit reports to FDA in electronic format under § 803.12(a), your request should indicate for how long you will require this exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) If you are a manufacturer, importer, or user facility, we may grant in writing an exemption or variance from, or alternative to, any or all of the reporting requirements in this part, and may change the frequency of reporting to quarterly, semiannually, annually or other appropriate time period. We may grant these modifications in response to your request, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, or at our discretion. When we grant modifications to the reporting requirements, we may impose other reporting requirements to ensure the protection of public health.
</P>
<P>(d) We may revoke or modify in writing an exemption, variance, or alternative reporting requirement if we determine that revocation or modification is necessary to protect the public health.
</P>
<P>(e) If we grant your request for a reporting modification, you must submit any reports or information required in our approval of the modification. The conditions of the approval will replace and supersede the regular reporting requirement specified in this part until such time that we revoke or modify the alternative reporting requirements in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section or until the date specified in our response granting your variance, at which time the provisions of this part will again apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 85 FR 18441, Apr. 2, 2020; 88 FR 16879, Mar. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Generally Applicable Requirements for Individual Adverse Event Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.20   How do I complete and submit an individual adverse event report?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What form must I complete and submit</I>?
</P>
<P>(1) If you are a health professional or consumer or other entity, you may submit voluntary reports to FDA regarding devices or other FDA-regulated products using the Form FDA 3500.
</P>
<P>(2) To submit a mandatory report in written form, a user facility must use Form FDA 3500A.
</P>
<P>(3) An electronic submission of a mandatory report from a user facility, importer, or manufacturer must contain the information from the applicable blocks of Form FDA 3500A. All electronic submissions must include information about the patient, the event, the device, and the “initial reporter.” An electronic submission from a user facility or importer must include the information from block F. An electronic submission from a manufacturer must include the information from blocks G and H. If you are a manufacturer and you receive a report from a user facility or importer, you must incorporate that information in your electronic submission and include any corrected or missing information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>To whom must I submit reports and when</I>?
</P>
<P>(1) If you are a user facility, you must submit MDR reports to:
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacturer and to us no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a death or
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufacturer no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a serious injury. If the manufacturer is not known, you must submit this report to us.
</P>
<P>(2) If you are an importer, you must submit MDR reports to:
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacturer and to us, no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufacturer, no later than 30 calendar days after receiving information that a device you market has malfunctioned and that this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur.
</P>
<P>(3) If you are a manufacturer, you must submit MDR reports to us:
</P>
<P>(i) No later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests a device has malfunctioned and that this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 5 work days if required by § 803.53.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What kind of information reasonably suggests that a reportable event has occurred?</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Any information, including professional, scientific, or medical facts, observations, or opinions, may reasonably suggest that a device has caused or may have caused or contributed to an MDR reportable event. An MDR reportable event is a death, a serious injury, or, if you are a manufacturer or importer, a malfunction that would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur.
</P>
<P>(2) If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you do not have to report an adverse event if you have information that would lead a person who is qualified to make a medical judgment reasonably to conclude that a device did not cause or contribute to a death or serious injury, or that a malfunction would not be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if it were to recur. Persons qualified to make a medical judgment include physicians, nurses, risk managers, and biomedical engineers. You must keep in your MDR event files (described in § 803.18) the information that the qualified person used to determine whether or not a device-related event was reportable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.21   Where can I find the reporting codes for adverse events that I use with medical device reports?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instruction Manual contains adverse event codes for use with Form FDA 3500A. You may obtain the coding manual from FDA's website at: <I>https://www.fda.gov/medical-devices/mandatory-reporting-requirements-manufacturers-importers-and-device-user-facilities/mdr-adverse-event-codes.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) We may sometimes use additional coding of information on the reporting forms or modify the existing codes. If we do make modifications, we will ensure that we make the new coding information available to all reporters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 85 FR 18441, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.22   What are the circumstances in which I am not required to file a report?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you become aware of information from multiple sources regarding the same patient and same reportable event, you may submit one medical device report.
</P>
<P>(b) You are not required to submit a medical device report if:
</P>
<P>(1) You are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, and you determine that the information received is erroneous in that a device-related adverse event did not occur. You must retain documentation of these reports in your MDR files for the time periods specified in § 803.18.
</P>
<P>(2) You are a manufacturer or importer and you did not manufacture or import the device about which you have adverse event information. When you receive reportable event information in error, you must forward this information to us with a cover letter explaining that you did not manufacture or import the device in question.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.23" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.23   Where can I find information on how to prepare and submit an MDR in electronic format?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may obtain information on how to prepare and submit reports in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive at: <I>http://www.fda.gov/ForIndustry/FDAeSubmitter/ucm107903.htm</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) We may sometimes update information on how to prepare and submit reports electronically. If we do make modifications, we will ensure that we alert reporters by updating the eMDR Web page.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—User Facility Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.30   If I am a user facility, what reporting requirements apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must submit reports to the manufacturer or to us, or both, as specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reports of death.</I> You must submit a report to us as soon as practicable but no more than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information, from any source, that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to the death of a patient of your facility. You must also submit the report to the device manufacturer, if known. You must submit the information required by § 803.32. Reports sent to the Agency must be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reports of serious injury.</I> You must submit a report to the manufacturer of the device no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information, from any source, that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a serious injury to a patient of your facility. If the manufacturer is not known, you must submit the report to us. You must report information required by § 803.32. Reports sent to the Agency must be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12 (b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information does FDA consider “reasonably known” to me?</I> You must submit all information required in this subpart C that is reasonably known to you. This information includes information found in documents that you possess and any information that becomes available as a result of reasonable followup within your facility. You are not required to evaluate or investigate the event by obtaining or evaluating information that you do not reasonably know.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.32" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.32   If I am a user facility, what information must I submit in my individual adverse event reports?</HEAD>
<P>You must include the following information in your report, if reasonably known to you, as described in § 803.30(b). These types of information correspond generally to the elements of Form FDA 3500A:
</P>
<P>(a) Patient information (Form FDA 3500A, Block A). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Patient name or other identifier;
</P>
<P>(2) Patient age at the time of event, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(3) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(4) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(b) Adverse event or product problem (Form FDA 3500A, Block B). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of adverse event or product problem;
</P>
<P>(2) Outcomes attributed to the adverse event (e.g., death or serious injury). An outcome is considered a serious injury if it is:
</P>
<P>(i) A life-threatening injury or illness;
</P>
<P>(ii) A disability resulting in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An injury or illness that requires intervention to prevent permanent impairment of a body structure or function;
</P>
<P>(3) Date of event;
</P>
<P>(4) Date of this report;
</P>
<P>(5) Description of event or problem, including a discussion of how the device was involved, nature of the problem, patient followup or required treatment, and any environmental conditions that may have influenced the event;
</P>
<P>(6) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(7) Description of other relevant history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) Device information (Form FDA 3500A, Block D). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Brand name;
</P>
<P>(2) Product Code, if known, and Common Device Name;
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturer name, city, and state;
</P>
<P>(4) Model number, catalog number, serial number, lot number, or other identifying number; expiration date; and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;
</P>
<P>(5) Operator of the device (health professional, lay user/patient, other);
</P>
<P>(6) Date of device implantation (month, day, year), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(7) Date of device explantation (month, day, year), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (Yes, No)?
</P>
<P>(9) If the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (yes to paragraph (c)(8) of this section), the name and address of the reprocessor;
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the device was available for evaluation and whether the device was returned to the manufacturer; if so, the date it was returned to the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(11) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates. (Do not report products that were used to treat the event.)
</P>
<P>(d) Initial reporter information (Form FDA 3500A, Block E). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the reporter who initially provided information to you, or to the manufacturer or distributor;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the initial reporter is a health professional;
</P>
<P>(3) Occupation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the initial reporter also sent a copy of the report to us, if known.
</P>
<P>(e) User facility information (Form FDA 3500A, Block F). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An indication that this is a user facility report (by marking the user facility box on the form);
</P>
<P>(2) Your user facility number;
</P>
<P>(3) Your address;
</P>
<P>(4) Your contact person;
</P>
<P>(5) Your contact person's telephone number;
</P>
<P>(6) Date that you became aware of the event (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(7) Type of report (initial or followup); if it is a followup, you must include the report number of the initial report;
</P>
<P>(8) Date of your report (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(9) Approximate age of device;
</P>
<P>(10) Event problem codes—patient code and device code (refer to the “MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instructions”);
</P>
<P>(11) Whether a report was sent to us and the date it was sent (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(12) Location where the event occurred;
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the report was sent to the manufacturer and the date it was sent (month, day, year); and
</P>
<P>(14) Manufacturer name and address, if available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 10587, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.33" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.33   If I am a user facility, what must I include when I submit an annual report?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must submit to us an annual report on Form FDA 3419. You must submit an annual report by January 1, of each year. You may obtain this form on the internet at: <I>https://www.fda.gov/media/72292/download.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) You must clearly identify your annual report as such. You must submit your annual report to FDA, CDRH, Medical Device Reporting, P.O. Box 3002, Rockville, MD 20847-3002. Your annual report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Your CMS provider number used for medical device reports, or the number assigned by us for reporting purposes in accordance with § 803.3;
</P>
<P>(2) Reporting year;
</P>
<P>(3) Your name and complete address;
</P>
<P>(4) Total number of reports attached or summarized;
</P>
<P>(5) Date of the annual report and report numbers identifying the range of medical device reports that you submitted during the report period (e.g., 1234567890-2011-0001 through 1000);
</P>
<P>(6) Name, position title, and complete address of the individual designated as your contact person responsible for reporting to us and whether that person is a new contact for you; and
</P>
<P>(7) Information for each reportable event that occurred during the annual reporting period including:
</P>
<P>(i) Report number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Name and address of the device manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Device brand name and common name;
</P>
<P>(iv) Product model, catalog, serial, and lot number and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;
</P>
<P>(v) A brief description of the event reported to the manufacturer and/or us; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Where the report was submitted, i.e., to the manufacturer, importer, or us.
</P>
<P>(c) In lieu of submitting the information in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, you may submit a copy of each medical device report that you submitted to the manufacturers and/or to us during the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(d) If you did not submit any medical device reports to manufacturers or us during the time period, you do not need to submit an annual report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 10587, Feb. 27, 2015; 85 FR 18442, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Importer Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.40   If I am an importer, what reporting requirements apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reports of deaths or serious injuries.</I> You must submit a report to us, and a copy of this report to the manufacturer, as soon as practicable, but no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you receive or otherwise become aware of information from any source, including user facilities, individuals, or medical or scientific literature, whether published or unpublished, that reasonably suggests that one of your marketed devices may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury. You must submit the information required by § 803.42. Reports sent to the Agency must be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports of malfunctions.</I> You must submit a report to the manufacturer as soon as practicable but no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you receive or otherwise become aware of information from any source, including user facilities, individuals, or through your own research, testing, evaluation, servicing, or maintenance of one of your devices, that reasonably suggests that one of your devices has malfunctioned and that this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur. You must submit the information required by § 803.42. Reports to manufacturers may be made in accordance with § 803.11(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.42" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.42   If I am an importer, what information must I submit in my individual adverse event reports?</HEAD>
<P>You must include the following information in your report, if the information is known or should be known to you, as described in § 803.40. These types of information correspond generally to the format of Form FDA 3500A:
</P>
<P>(a) Patient information (Form FDA 3500A, Block A). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Patient name or other identifier;
</P>
<P>(2) Patient age at the time of event, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(3) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(4) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(b) Adverse event or product problem (Form FDA 3500A, Block B). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of adverse event or product problem;
</P>
<P>(2) Outcomes attributed to the adverse event (e.g., death or serious injury). An outcome is considered a serious injury if it is:
</P>
<P>(i) A life-threatening injury or illness;
</P>
<P>(ii) A disability resulting in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An injury or illness that requires intervention to prevent permanent impairment of a body structure or function;
</P>
<P>(3) Date of event;
</P>
<P>(4) Date of this report;
</P>
<P>(5) Description of the event or problem, including a discussion of how the device was involved, nature of the problem, patient followup or required treatment, and any environmental conditions that may have influenced the event;
</P>
<P>(6) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(7) Description of other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) Device information (Form FDA 3500A, Block D). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Brand name;
</P>
<P>(2) Product Code, if known, and Common Device Name;
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturer name, city, and state;
</P>
<P>(4) Model number, catalog number, serial number, lot number, or other identifying number; expiration date; and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;
</P>
<P>(5) Operator of the device (health professional, lay user/patient, other);
</P>
<P>(6) Date of device implantation (month, day, year), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(7) Date of device explanation (month, day, year), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (Yes, No)?
</P>
<P>(9) If the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (yes to paragraph (c)(8) of this section), the name and address of the reprocessor;
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the device was available for evaluation, and whether the device was returned to the manufacturer, and if so, the date it was returned to the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(11) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates. (Do not report products that were used to treat the event.)
</P>
<P>(d) Initial reporter information (Form FDA 3500A, Block E). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the reporter who initially provided information to the manufacturer, user facility, or distributor;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the initial reporter is a health professional;
</P>
<P>(3) Occupation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the initial reporter also sent a copy of the report to us, if known.
</P>
<P>(e) Importer information (Form FDA 3500A, Block F). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An indication that this is an importer report (by marking the importer box on the form);
</P>
<P>(2) Your importer report number;
</P>
<P>(3) Your address;
</P>
<P>(4) Your contact person;
</P>
<P>(5) Your contact person's telephone number;
</P>
<P>(6) Date that you became aware of the event (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(7) Type of report (initial or followup). If it is a followup report, you must include the report number of your initial report;
</P>
<P>(8) Date of your report (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(9) Approximate age of device;
</P>
<P>(10) Event problem codes—patient code and device code (refer to FDA MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instructions);
</P>
<P>(11) Whether a report was sent to us and the date it was sent (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(12) Location where event occurred;
</P>
<P>(13) Whether a report was sent to the manufacturer and the date it was sent (month, day, year); and
</P>
<P>(14) Manufacturer name and address, if available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 10587, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Manufacturer Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.50   If I am a manufacturer, what reporting requirements apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a manufacturer, you must report to us the information required by § 803.52 in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a), no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you receive or otherwise become aware of information, from any source, that reasonably suggests that a device that you market:
</P>
<P>(1) May have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or
</P>
<P>(2) Has malfunctioned and this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury, if the malfunction were to recur.
</P>
<P>(b) What information does FDA consider “reasonably known” to me?
</P>
<P>(1) You must submit all information required in this subpart E that is reasonably known to you. We consider the following information to be reasonably known to you:
</P>
<P>(i) Any information that you can obtain by contacting a user facility, importer, or other initial reporter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any information in your possession; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any information that you can obtain by analysis, testing, or other evaluation of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) You are responsible for obtaining and submitting to us information that is incomplete or missing from reports submitted by user facilities, importers, and other initial reporters.
</P>
<P>(3) You are also responsible for conducting an investigation of each event and evaluating the cause of the event. If you cannot submit complete information on a report, you must provide a statement explaining why this information was incomplete and the steps you took to obtain the information. If you later obtain any required information that was not available at the time you filed your initial report, you must submit this information in a supplemental report under § 803.56 in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.52" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.52   If I am a manufacturer, what information must I submit in my individual adverse event reports?</HEAD>
<P>You must include the following information in your reports, if known or reasonably known to you, as described in § 803.50(b). These types of information correspond generally to the format of Form FDA 3500A:
</P>
<P>(a) Patient information (Form FDA 3500A, Block A). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Patient name or other identifier;
</P>
<P>(2) Patient age at the time of event, or date of birth;
</P>
<P>(3) Patient gender; and
</P>
<P>(4) Patient weight.
</P>
<P>(b) Adverse event or product problem (Form FDA 3500A, Block B). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of adverse event or product problem;
</P>
<P>(2) Outcomes attributed to the adverse event (e.g., death or serious injury). An outcome is considered a serious injury if it is:
</P>
<P>(i) A life-threatening injury or illness;
</P>
<P>(ii) A disability resulting in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An injury or illness that requires intervention to prevent permanent impairment of a body structure or function;
</P>
<P>(3) Date of event;
</P>
<P>(4) Date of this report;
</P>
<P>(5) Description of the event or problem, including a discussion of how the device was involved, nature of the problem, patient followup or required treatment, and any environmental conditions that may have influenced the event;
</P>
<P>(6) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and
</P>
<P>(7) Other relevant patient history including preexisting medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) Device information (Form FDA 3500A, Block D). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Brand name;
</P>
<P>(2) Product Code, if known, and Common Device Name;
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturer name, city, and state;
</P>
<P>(4) Model number, catalog number, serial number, lot number, or other identifying number; expiration date; and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;
</P>
<P>(5) Operator of the device (health professional, lay user/patient, other);
</P>
<P>(6) Date of device implantation (month, day, year), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(7) Date of device explantation (month, day, year), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (Yes, No)?
</P>
<P>(9) If the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (yes to paragraph (c)(8) of this section), the name and address of the reprocessor;
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the device was available for evaluation, and whether the device was returned to the manufacturer, and if so, the date it was returned to the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(11) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates. (Do not report products that were used to treat the event.)
</P>
<P>(d) Initial reporter information (Form FDA 3500A, Block E). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the reporter who initially provided information to you, or to the user facility or importer;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the initial reporter is a health professional;
</P>
<P>(3) Occupation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the initial reporter also sent a copy of the report to us, if known.
</P>
<P>(e) Reporting information for all manufacturers (Form FDA 3500A, Block G). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Your reporting office's contact name and address and device manufacturing site;
</P>
<P>(2) Your contact person's telephone number;
</P>
<P>(3) Your report sources;
</P>
<P>(4) Date received by you (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(5) PMA/510k Number and whether or not the product is a combination product;
</P>
<P>(6) Type of report being submitted (e.g., 5-day, initial, followup); and
</P>
<P>(7) Your report number.
</P>
<P>(f) Device manufacturer information (Form FDA 3500A, Block H). You must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Type of reportable event (death, serious injury, malfunction, etc.);
</P>
<P>(2) Type of followup report, if applicable (e.g., correction, response to FDA request, etc);
</P>
<P>(3) If the device was returned to you and evaluated by you, you must include a summary of the evaluation. If you did not perform an evaluation, you must explain why you did not perform an evaluation;
</P>
<P>(4) Device manufacture date (month, day, year);
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the device was labeled for single use;
</P>
<P>(6) Evaluation codes (including event codes, method of evaluation, result, and conclusion codes) (refer to FDA MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instructions);
</P>
<P>(7) Whether remedial action was taken and the type of action;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the use of the device was initial, reuse, or unknown;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether remedial action was reported as a removal or correction under section 519(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and if it was, provide the correction/removal report number; and
</P>
<P>(10) Your additional narrative; and/or
</P>
<P>(11) Corrected data, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Any information missing on the user facility report or importer report, including any event codes that were not reported, or information corrected on these forms after your verification;
</P>
<P>(ii) For each event code provided by the user facility under § 803.32(e)(10) or the importer under § 803.42(e)(10), you must include a statement of whether the type of the event represented by the code is addressed in the device labeling; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If your report omits any required information, you must explain why this information was not provided and the steps taken to obtain this information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 10587, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.53" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.53   If I am a manufacturer, in which circumstances must I submit a 5-day report?</HEAD>
<P>You must submit a 5-day report to us with the information required by § 803.52 in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a) no later than 5 work days after the day that you become aware that:
</P>
<P>(a) An MDR reportable event necessitates remedial action to prevent an unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health. You may become aware of the need for remedial action from any information, including any trend analysis or
</P>
<P>(b) We have made a written request for the submission of a 5-day report. If you receive such a written request from us, you must submit, without further requests, a 5-day report for all subsequent events of the same nature that involve substantially similar devices for the time period specified in the written request. We may extend the time period stated in the original written request if we determine it is in the interest of the public health.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.56" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.56   If I am a manufacturer, in what circumstances must I submit a supplemental or followup report and what are the requirements for such reports?</HEAD>
<P>If you are a manufacturer, when you obtain information required under this part that you did not provide because it was not known or was not available when you submitted the initial report, you must submit the supplemental information to us within 30 calendar days of the day that you receive this information. You must submit the supplemental or followup report in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a). On a supplemental or followup report, you must:
</P>
<P>(a) Indicate that the report being submitted is a supplemental or followup report;
</P>
<P>(b) Submit the appropriate identification numbers of the report that you are updating with the supplemental information (e.g., your original manufacturer report number and the user facility or importer report number of any report on which your report was based), if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(c) Include only the new, changed, or corrected information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 803.58" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.3.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 803.58   Foreign manufacturers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every foreign manufacturer whose devices are distributed in the United States shall designate a U.S. agent to be responsible for reporting in accordance with § 807.40 of this chapter. The U.S. designated agent accepts responsibility for the duties that such designation entails. Upon the effective date of this regulation, foreign manufacturers shall inform FDA, by letter, of the name and address of the U.S. agent designated under this section and § 807.40 of this chapter, and shall update this information as necessary. Such updated information shall be submitted to FDA, within 5 days of a change in the designated agent information.
</P>
<P>(b) U.S.-designated agents of foreign manufacturers are required to:
</P>
<P>(1) Report to FDA in accordance with §§ 803.50, 803.52, 803.53, and 803.56;
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct, or obtain from the foreign manufacturer the necessary information regarding, the investigation and evaluation of the event to comport with the requirements of § 803.50;
</P>
<P>(3) Forward MDR complaints to the foreign manufacturer and maintain documentation of this requirement;
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain complaint files in accordance with § 803.18; and
</P>
<P>(5) Register, list, and submit premarket notifications in accordance with part 807 of this chapter.


</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 79 FR 8846, Feb. 14, 2014, part 803 was revised. At 79 FR 8855, Feb. 14, 2014, § 803.58 was stayed indefinitely.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="806" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 806—MEDICAL DEVICES; REPORTS OF CORRECTIONS AND REMOVALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 352, 360, 360i, 360j, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 27191, May 19, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 806.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 806.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements the provisions of section 519(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) requiring device manufacturers and importers to report promptly to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) certain actions concerning device corrections and removals, and to maintain records of all corrections and removals regardless of whether such corrections and removals are required to be reported to FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) The following actions are exempt from the reporting requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Actions taken by device manufacturers or importers to improve the performance or quality of a device but that do not reduce a risk to health posed by the device or remedy a violation of the act caused by the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Market withdrawal as defined in § 806.2(i)
</P>
<P>(3) Routine servicing as defined in § 806.2(l).
</P>
<P>(4) Stock recovery as defined in § 806.2(m).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 27191, May 19, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 42232, Aug. 7, 1998; 84 FR 12083, Apr. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 806.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 806.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency</I> or <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consignee</I> means any person or firm that has received, purchased, or used a device subject to correction or removal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Correction</I> means the repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection (including patient monitoring) of a device without its physical removal from its point of use to some other location.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Correction or removal report number</I> means the number that uniquely identifies each report submitted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Importer</I> means, for the purposes of this part, any person who imports a device into the United States.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, or processes a device by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedures. The term includes any person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Repackages or otherwise changes the container, wrapper, or labeling of a device in furtherance of the distribution of the device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate user or consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) Initiates specifications for devices that are manufactured by a second party for subsequent distribution by the person initiating the specifications; or
</P>
<P>(3) Manufactures components or accessories which are devices that are ready to be used and are intended to be commercially distributed and are intended to be used as is, or are processed by a licensed practitioner or other qualified person to meet the needs of a particular patient.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Market withdrawal</I> means a correction or removal of a distributed device that involves a minor violation of the act that would not be subject to legal action by FDA or that involves no violation of the act, e.g., normal stock rotation practices.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Removal</I> means the physical removal of a device from its point of use to some other location for repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Risk to health</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) A reasonable probability that use of, or exposure to, the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death; or
</P>
<P>(2) That use of, or exposure to, the product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences, or an outcome where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Routine servicing</I> means any regularly scheduled maintenance of a device, including the replacement of parts at the end of their normal life expectancy, e.g., calibration, replacement of batteries, and responses to normal wear and tear. Repairs of an unexpected nature, replacement of parts earlier than their normal life expectancy, or identical repairs or replacements of multiple units of a device are not routine servicing.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Stock recovery</I> means the correction or removal of a device that has not been marketed or that has not left the direct control of the manufacturer, i.e., the device is located on the premises owned, or under the control of, the manufacturer, and no portion of the lot, model, code, or other relevant unit involved in the corrective or removal action has been released for sale or use.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A UDI is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 27191, May 19, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 42232, Aug. 7, 1998; 78 FR 58821, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reports and Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 806.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 806.10   Reports of corrections and removals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each device manufacturer or importer shall submit a written report to FDA of any correction or removal of a device initiated by such manufacturer or importer if the correction or removal was initiated:
</P>
<P>(1) To reduce a risk to health posed by the device; or
</P>
<P>(2) To remedy a violation of the act caused by the device which may present a risk to health unless the information has already been provided as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section or the corrective or removal action is exempt from the reporting requirements under § 806.1(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The manufacturer or importer shall submit any report required by paragraph (a) of this section within 10-working days of initiating such correction or removal.
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer or importer shall include the following information in the report:
</P>
<P>(1) The seven digit registration number of the entity responsible for submission of the report of corrective or removal action (if applicable), the month, day, and year that the report is made, and a sequence number (i.e., 001 for the first report, 002 for the second report, 003 etc.), and the report type designation “C” or “R”. For example, the complete number for the first correction report submitted on June 1, 1997, will appear as follows for a firm with the registration number 1234567: 1234567-6/1/97-001-C. The second correction report number submitted by the same firm on July 1, 1997, would be 1234567-7/1/97-002-C etc. For removals, the number will appear as follows: 1234567-6/1/97-001-R and 1234567-7/1/97-002-R, etc. Firms that do not have a seven digit registration number may use seven zeros followed by the month, date, year, and sequence number (i.e. 0000000-6/1/97-001-C for corrections and 0000000-7/1/97-001-R for removals). Reports received without a seven digit registration number will be assigned a seven digit central file number by the district office reviewing the reports.
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the manufacturer or importer, and the name, title, address, and telephone number of the manufacturer or importer representative responsible for conducting the device correction or removal.
</P>
<P>(3) The brand name and the common name, classification name, or usual name of the device and the intended use of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Marketing status of the device, i.e., any applicable premarket notification number, premarket approval number, or indication that the device is a preamendments device, and the device listing number. A manufacturer or importer that does not have an FDA establishment registration number shall indicate in the report whether it has ever registered with FDA.
</P>
<P>(5) The unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package, or the device identifier, universal product code (UPC), model, catalog, or code number of the device and the manufacturing lot or serial number of the device or other identification number.
</P>
<P>(6) The manufacturer's name, address, telephone number, and contact person if different from that of the person submitting the report.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the event(s) giving rise to the information reported and the corrective or removal actions that have been, and are expected to be taken.
</P>
<P>(8) Any illness or injuries that have occurred with use of the device. If applicable, include the medical device report numbers.
</P>
<P>(9) The total number of devices manufactured or distributed subject to the correction or removal and the number in the same batch, lot, or equivalent unit of production subject to the correction or removal.
</P>
<P>(10) The date of manufacture or distribution and the device's expiration date or expected life.
</P>
<P>(11) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of all domestic and foreign consignees of the device and the dates and number of devices distributed to each such consignee.
</P>
<P>(12) A copy of all communications regarding the correction or removal and the names and addresses of all recipients of the communications not provided in accordance with paragraph (c)(11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) If any required information is not immediately available, a statement as to why it is not available and when it will be submitted.
</P>
<P>(d) If, after submitting a report under this part, a manufacturer or importer determines that the same correction or removal should be extended to additional lots or batches of the same device, the manufacturer or importer shall within 10-working days of initiating the extension of the correction or removal, amend the report by submitting an amendment citing the original report number assigned according to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, all of the information required by paragraph (c)(2), and any information required by paragraphs (c)(3) through (c)(12) of this section that is different from the information submitted in the original report. The manufacturer or importer shall also provide a statement in accordance with paragraph (c)(13) of this section for any required information that is not readily available.
</P>
<P>(e) A report submitted by a manufacturer or importer under this section (and any release by FDA of that report or information) does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the manufacturer, importer, or FDA that the report or information constitutes an admission that the device caused or contributed to a death or serious injury. A manufacturer or importer need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted under this section constitutes an admission that the device caused or contributed to a death or serious injury.
</P>
<P>(f) No report of correction or removal is required under this part, if a report of the correction or removal is required and has been submitted under parts 803 or 1004 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 27191, May 19, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 42232, Aug. 7, 1998; 69 FR 11311, Mar. 10, 2004; 78 FR 58821, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 806.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 806.20   Records of corrections and removals not required to be reported.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each device manufacturer or importer who initiates a correction or removal of a device that is not required to be reported to FDA under § 806.10 shall keep a record of such correction or removal.
</P>
<P>(b) Records of corrections and removals not required to be reported to FDA under § 806.10 shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The brand name, common or usual name, classification, name and product code if known, and the intended use of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The unique device identifier (UDI) of the device, or the device identifier, universal product code (UPC), model, catalog, or code number of the device and the manufacturing lot or serial number of the device or other identification number.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the event(s) giving rise to the information reported and the corrective or removal action that has been, and is expected to be taken.
</P>
<P>(4) Justification for not reporting the correction or removal action to FDA, which shall contain conclusions and any followups, and be reviewed and evaluated by a designated person.
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of all communications regarding the correction or removal.
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer or importer shall retain records required under this section for a period of 2 years beyond the expected life of the device, even if the manufacturer or importer has ceased to manufacture or import the device. Records required to be maintained under paragraph (b) of this section must be transferred to the new manufacturer or importer of the device and maintained for the required period of time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 27191, May 19, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 42233, Aug. 7, 1998; 78 FR 58821, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 806.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 806.30   FDA access to records.</HEAD>
<P>Each device manufacturer or importer required under this part to maintain records and every person who is in charge or custody of such records shall, upon request of an officer or employee designated by FDA and under section 704(e) of the act, permit such officer or employee at all reasonable times to have access to, and to copy and verify, such records and reports.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 42233, Aug. 7, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 806.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 806.40   Public availability of reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any report submitted under this part is available for public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Before public disclosure of a report, FDA will delete from the report:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any personnel, medical, or similar information, including the serial numbers of implanted devices, which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy under § 20.63 of this chapter or 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6); provided, that except for the information under § 20.61 of this chapter or 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), FDA will disclose to a patient who requests a report all the information in the report concerning that patient.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="807" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 807—ESTABLISHMENT REGISTRATION AND DEVICE LISTING FOR MANUFACTURERS AND INITIAL IMPORTERS OF DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 360, 360c, 360e, 360e-4, 360i, 360j, 360bbb-8b, 371, 374, 379k-1, 381, 393; 42 U.S.C. 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commercial distribution</I> means any distribution of a device intended for human use which is held or offered for sale but does not include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal or interplant transfer of a device between establishments within the same parent, subsidiary, and/or affiliate company;
</P>
<P>(2) Any distribution of a device intended for human use which has in effect an approved exemption for investigational use under section 520(g) of the act and part 812 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Any distribution of a device, before the effective date of part 812 of this chapter, that was not introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, and that is classified into class III under section 513(f) of the act: <I>Provided,</I> That the device is intended solely for investigational use, and under section 501(f)(2)(A) of the act the device is not required to have an approved premarket approval application as provided in section 515 of the act; or
</P>
<P>(4) For foreign establishments, the distribution of any device that is neither imported nor offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Establishment</I> means a place of business under one management at one general physical location at which a device is manufactured, assembled, or otherwise processed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, assembly, or processing</I> of a device means the making by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedures of any article that meets the definition of device in section 201(h) of the act. These terms include the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Repackaging or otherwise changing the container, wrapper, or labeling of any device package in furtherance of the distribution of the device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) Initial importation of devices manufactured in foreign establishments; or
</P>
<P>(3) Initiation of specifications for devices that are manufactured by a second party for subsequent commercial distribution by the person initiating specifications.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Official correspondent</I> means the person designated by the owner or operator of an establishment as responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The annual registration of the establishment;
</P>
<P>(2) Contact with the Food and Drug Administration for device listing;
</P>
<P>(3) Maintenance and submission of a current list of officers and directors to the Food and Drug Administration upon the request of the Commissioner; and
</P>
<P>(4) The receipt of pertinent correspondence from the Food and Drug Administration directed to and involving the owner or operator and/or any of the firm's establishments. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Owner or operator</I> means the corporation, subsidiary, affiliated company, partnership, or proprietor directly responsible for the activities of the registering establishment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Initial importer</I> means any importer who furthers the marketing of a device from a foreign manufacturer to the person who makes the final delivery or sale of the device to the ultimate consumer or user, but does not repackage, or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package.
</P>
<P>(h) Any term defined in section 201 of the act shall have that meaning. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Restricted device</I> means a device for which a requirement restricting sale, distribution, or use has been established by a regulation issued under section 520(e) of the act, by order as a condition of premarket approval under section 515(d)(1)(B)(ii) of the act, or by a performance standard issued in accordance with sections 514(a)(2)(B)(v) and 514(b) of the act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Classification name</I> means the term used by the Food and Drug Administration and its classification panels to describe a device or class of devices for purposes of classifying devices under section 513 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Product code</I> means the code used by FDA to identify the generic category of a device.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Representative sampling of advertisements</I> means typical advertising material that gives the promotional claims made for the device.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Representative sampling of any other labeling</I> means typical labeling material (excluding labels and package inserts) that gives the promotional claims made for the device.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Material change</I> includes any change or modification in the labeling or advertisements that affects the identity or safety and effectiveness of the device. These changes may include, but are not limited to, changes in the common or usual or proprietary name, declared ingredients or components, intended use, contraindications, warnings, or instructions for use. Changes that are not material may include graphic layouts, grammar, or correction of typographical errors which do not change the content of the labeling, changes in lot number, and, for devices where the biological activity or known composition differs with each lot produced, the labeling containing the actual values for each lot.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>510(k) summary</I> (summary of any information respecting safety and effectiveness) means a summary, submitted under section 513(i) of the act, of the safety and effectiveness information contained in a premarket notification submission upon which a determination of substantial equivalence can be based. Safety and effectiveness information refers to safety and effectiveness data and information supporting a finding of substantial equivalence, including all adverse safety and effectiveness information.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>510(k) statement</I> means a statement, made under section 513(i) of the act, asserting that all information in a premarket notification submission regarding safety and effectiveness will be made available within 30 days of request by any person if the device described in the premarket notification submission is determined to be substantially equivalent. The information to be made available will be a duplicate of the premarket notification submission, including any adverse safety and effectiveness information, but excluding all patient identifiers, and trade secret or confidential commercial information, as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Class III certification</I> means a certification that the submitter of the 510(k) has conducted a reasonable search of all known information about the class III device and other similar, legally marketed devices.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Class III summary</I> means a summary of the types of safety and effectiveness problems associated with the type of device being compared and a citation to the information upon which the summary is based. The summary must be comprehensive and describe the problems to which the type of device is susceptible and the causes of such problems. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>United States</I> agent means a person residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States whom a foreign establishment designates as its agent. This definition excludes mailboxes, answering machines or services, or other places where an individual acting as the foreign establishment's agent is not physically present.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Wholesale distributor</I> means any person (other than the manufacturer or the initial importer) who distributes a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes the final delivery or sale of the device to the ultimate consumer or user.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Fiscal year</I> means the FDA fiscal year, which runs from October 1 through September 30.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>FURLS</I> means the Food and Drug Administration's Unified
</P>
<P>Registration and Listing System,
</P>
<P>(w) <I>FDA premarket submission number</I> means the number assigned by FDA to a premarket device submission, such as a Premarket Approval Application (PMA); Humanitarian Device Exemption (HDE); New Drug Application (NDA); Biologics License Application (BLA); de novo classification petition; or Premarket Notification (510(k)).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Importer</I> means, for purposes of this part, a company or individual in the United States that is an owner, consignee, or recipient, even if not the initial owner, consignee, or recipient, of the foreign establishment's device that is imported into the United States. An importer does not include the consumer or patient who ultimately purchases, receives, or uses the device, unless the foreign establishment ships the device directly to the consumer or patient.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Person who imports or offers for import</I> means, for purposes of this part, an agent, broker, or other entity, other than a carrier, that the foreign establishment uses to facilitate the import of its device into the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 37997, Aug. 25, 1978; 57 FR 18066, Apr. 28, 1992; 58 FR 46522, Sept. 1, 1993; 59 FR 64295, Dec. 14, 1994; 60 FR 63606, Dec. 11, 1995; 63 FR 51826, Sept. 29, 1998; 66 FR 59159, Nov. 27, 2001; 77 FR 45940, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Device Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.20   Who must register and submit a device list?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An owner or operator of an establishment not exempt under section 510(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or subpart D of this part who is engaged in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, assembly, or processing of a device intended for human use shall register and submit listing information for those devices in commercial distribution, except that registration and listing information may be submitted by the parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company for all the domestic or foreign establishments under the control of one of these organizations when operations are conducted at more than one establishment and there exists joint ownership and control among all the establishments. The term “device” includes all in vitro diagnostic products and in vitro diagnostic biological products not subject to licensing under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act. An owner or operator of an establishment located in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall register its name, places of business, and all establishments and list the devices whether or not the output of the establishments or any particular device so listed enters interstate commerce. The registration and listing requirements shall pertain to any person who is engaged in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, assembly, or processing of a device intended for human use, including any person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Initiates or develops specifications for a device that is to be manufactured by a second party;
</P>
<P>(2) Sterilizes or otherwise makes a device for or on behalf of a specifications developer or any other person;
</P>
<P>(3) Repackages or relabels a device;
</P>
<P>(4) Reprocesses a single use device that has previously been used on a patient;
</P>
<P>(5) Acts as an initial importer as defined in § 807.3(g), except that initial importers may fulfill their listing obligation for any device for which they did not initiate or develop the specifications for the device or repackage or relabel the device by submitting the name and address of the manufacturer. Initial importers shall also be prepared to submit, when requested by FDA, the proprietary name, if any, and the common or usual name of each device for which they are the initial importer;
</P>
<P>(6) Manufactures components or accessories that are ready to be used for any intended health-related purpose and are packaged or labeled for commercial distribution for such health-related purpose, e.g. blood filters, hemodialysis tubing, or devices which of necessity must be further processed by a licensed practitioner or other qualified person to meet the needs of a particular patient, e.g., a manufacturer of ophthalmic lens blanks.
</P>
<P>(b) Registration or listing does not constitute an admission or agreement or determination that a product is a device within the meaning of section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Registration and listing requirements shall not pertain to any person who acts as a wholesale distributor, as defined in § 807.3(t), and who does not manufacture, repackage, process, or relabel a device.
</P>
<P>(d) Owners and operators of establishments or persons engaged in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products, as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter, that are regulated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act must register and list those human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products with the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research on Form FDA 3356 following the procedures set out in subpart B of part 1271 of this chapter, instead of the procedures for registration and listing contained in this part, except that the additional listing information requirements of § 807.26 remain applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) Owners and operators of establishments that manufacture devices licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act as well as licensed biological products used in the manufacture of a licensed device must register and list following the procedures set out in part 607 of this chapter, instead of the procedures for registration and listing contained in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45941, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.21   How to register establishments and list devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Owners or operators of establishments that are subject to the registration and listing requirements of this part must provide the following information to us using our electronic device registration and listing system, except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial establishment registration information as required by §§ 807.22(a) and 807.25;
</P>
<P>(2) Updates to registration information as required by §§ 807.22(b) and 807.25;
</P>
<P>(3) Initial device listing information as required by §§ 807.22(a), 807.25, and 807.28;
</P>
<P>(4) Updates to device listing information as required by §§ 807.22(b), 807.25, and 807.28, including updates to reflect the discontinuance or resumption of the commercial distribution of a previously-listed device as specified at paragraphs (d) and (e) of § 807.28.
</P>
<P>(b) If the information under § 807.21(a) cannot be submitted electronically, a waiver may be requested. Waivers will be granted only if use of electronic means is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver. To request a waiver, applicants must send a letter to the Imports and Registration and Listing Team, Division of Regulatory Programs 2, Office of Regulatory Programs, Office of Product Evaluation and Quality, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm.1432, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the device establishment(s) to be registered, a contact person for the owner or operator of the establishment, and the telephone number at which that person can be reached. If the establishment has already registered in the past, the letter should also include the owner or operator number, registration number, and any listing numbers previously assigned by FDA for devices manufactured at that establishment.
</P>
<P>(2) Information about whether the company is an initial importer as defined in § 807.3(g) and, if so, whether it also conducts any other activities or operations relating to devices.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that use of the Internet is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver, and an explanation of why such use is not reasonable. The statement must be signed by the owner or operator of the establishment, or by a person employed by the owner or operator who is authorized to make the declaration on behalf of the owner or operator.
</P>
<P>(c) Those owners or operators who have obtained a waiver from filing registration and listing information electronically should refer to § 807.34 for information on how to submit such information by postal mail.
</P>
<P>(d) When additional device listing information (e.g., copies of labeling or advertisements) is requested by FDA as described at § 807.26(e), such information may be submitted by postal mail or electronically by email, but will not be submitted using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45941, Aug. 2, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 18442, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.22   Times for establishment registration and device listing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial registration and listing.</I> An owner or operator of an establishment who has not previously entered into an operation described in § 807.20(a) shall register within 30 days after entering into such an operation and submit device listing information at that time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registration and listing updates.</I> Owners or operators shall review and update all of their establishment registration and device listing information that is on file at FDA, documenting any changes that were not previously reported as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Annual registration for each fiscal year is required for all establishments. Annual registration shall take place during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31 of each fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(2) Updates to the registration information as described in § 807.25(b) shall be made within 30 days of any change to such information;
</P>
<P>(3) Every fiscal year, during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31, owners or operators shall review and update all of their device listing information that is on file at FDA, reporting any changes or deletions to listings and any new listings that were not previously reported. The accuracy of all information on file must be confirmed each year regardless of whether any changes were made to the owner or operator's list of devices; and
</P>
<P>(4) Changes to listing information may also be made at other times, such as when a device is introduced into commercial distribution, when a change is made to a previously-listed device, or when a previously-listed device is removed from commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to submit required information.</I> Failure to submit any of the required information on time, as specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, will put the establishment in a “failed to register” or “failed to list” status as applicable. The establishment will not be considered active and the establishment registration and device listing information may not appear on the FDA Web site until such time as the owner or operator submits and FDA processes the required information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45942, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.25   Information required for device establishment registration and device listing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All owners or operators that are subject to the registration and listing requirements of this part shall provide such information to us by using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system, unless granted a waiver from electronic submission in accordance with § 807.21(b). Electronic submissions of registration and listing information must comply with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements in § 11.10(b), (c), and (e), and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30 of this chapter. Those owners or operators granted a waiver from electronic submission should refer to paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section and § 807.34 for instructions on how to submit device registration and listing information.
</P>
<P>(b) Registration information required to be submitted includes: The name and mailing address of the device establishment; the Web site address of the device establishment, if any; the name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the owner or operator; the name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the establishment's official correspondent; and all trade names used by the establishment.
</P>
<P>(c) Owners or operators who have been granted a waiver from electronic filing must submit the establishment registration information described in paragraph (b) of this section, except for the Web site and email address information, in paper form using the procedures set forth in § 807.34.
</P>
<P>(d) Each owner or operator is required to maintain a listing of all officers, directors, and partners for each establishment registered by the owner or operator and to furnish this information to FDA upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) For each establishment, an official correspondent must be designated by the owner or operator to serve as a point of contact with FDA on matters relating to the registration of device establishments and the listing of device products. Each owner or operator shall also provide FDA with the name of a contact person at the owner or operator's offices who will be responsible for identifying the official correspondent for each establishment. The owner or operator contact person will be the official correspondent in the event no one else has been properly designated. The official correspondent is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing FDA with all required registration and listing information electronically unless a waiver from electronic submission has been granted in accordance with § 807.21(b);
</P>
<P>(2) Receiving all correspondence from FDA concerning registration and listing;
</P>
<P>(3) Supplying, when requested by FDA, the names of all officers, directors, and partners; and
</P>
<P>(4) Receiving communications from FDA by email, or by postal mail if the owner or operator has been granted a waiver from the requirement to file registration and listing information electronically.
</P>
<P>(f) The designation of an official correspondent does not in any manner affect the liability of the owner or operator of the establishment or any other individual under section 301(p) or any other provision of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(g) Device listing information must be submitted to FDA electronically unless a waiver from electronic submission has been granted in accordance with § 807.21(b). Owners or operators who have been granted a waiver must submit the required device listing information, including information required by this paragraph, § 807.28, and any listing information requested by FDA under § 807.26(e), in paper form using the procedures set forth in § 807.34. The information required for each device listed includes:
</P>
<P>(1) The current registration number and name of each establishment under the ownership and control of the owner or operator where the device is manufactured, repackaged, relabeled, or otherwise processed, or where specifications are developed.
</P>
<P>(2) The product code for each device that is exempt from premarket notification and approval or which was in commercial distribution prior to May 28, 1976.
</P>
<P>(3) The proprietary or brand name(s) under which each device is marketed.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDA-assigned premarket submission number of the approved application, cleared premarket notification, granted de novo classification petition, or approved humanitarian device exemption for each device listed that is subject to sections 505, 510(k), 513(f)(2), 515, or 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which includes devices that are not exempt from premarket notification and approval.
</P>
<P>(5) Each activity or process that is conducted on or done to the device at each establishment, such as manufacturing, repacking, relabeling, developing specifications, remanufacturing, single-use device reprocessing, contract manufacturing, contract sterilizing, or manufacturing for export only.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45942, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.26" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.26   Additional listing information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each owner or operator shall maintain a historical file containing the labeling and advertisements in use on the date of initial listing, and in use after October 10, 1978, but before the date of initial listing, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For each device subject to section 514 or 515 of the act that is not a restricted device, a copy of all labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(2) For each restricted device, a copy of all labeling and advertisements for the device;
</P>
<P>(3) For each device that is neither restricted nor subject to section 514 or 515 of the act, a copy of all labels, package inserts, and a representative sampling of any other labeling.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, each owner or operator shall maintain in the historical file any labeling or advertisements in which a material change has been made anytime after initial listing.
</P>
<P>(c) Each owner or operator may discard labeling and advertisements from the historical file 3 years after the date of the last shipment of a discontinued device by an owner or operator.
</P>
<P>(d) Location of the file:
</P>
<P>(1) Currently existing systems for maintenance of labeling and advertising may be used for the purpose of maintaining the historical file as long as the information included in the systems fulfills the requirements of this section, but only if the labeling and advertisements are retrievable in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(2) The contents of the historical file may be physically located in more than one place in the establishment or in more than one establishment provided there exists joint ownership and control among all the establishments maintaining the historical file. If no joint ownership and control exists, the registered establishment must provide the Food and Drug Administration with a letter authorizing the establishment outside its control to maintain the historical file.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the certification and disclosure statements as required by part 54 of this chapter shall be retained and physically located at the establishment maintaining the historical file.
</P>
<P>(e) Each owner or operator shall be prepared to submit to the Food and Drug Administration, only upon specific request, the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) For a device subject to section 514 or 515 of the act that is not a restricted device, a copy of all labeling for the device.
</P>
<P>(2) For a device that is a restricted device, a copy of all labeling for the device, a representative sampling of advertisements for the device, and for good cause, a copy of all advertisements for a particular device. A request for all advertisements will, where feasible, be accompanied by an explanation of the basis for such request.
</P>
<P>(3) For a device that is neither a restricted device, nor subject to section 514 of 515 of the act, the label and package insert for the device and a representative sampling of any other labeling for the device.
</P>
<P>(4) For a particular device, a statement of the basis upon which the registrant has determined that the device is not subject to section 514 or 515 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(5) For a particular device, a statement of the basis upon which the registrant has determined the device is not a restricted device.
</P>
<P>(6) For a particular device, a statement of the basis for determining that the product is a device rather than a drug.
</P>
<P>(7) For a device that the owner or operator has manufactured for distribution under a label other than its own, the names of all distributors for whom it has been manufactured.
</P>
<P>(f) Labeling, advertisements, and other information to be submitted upon request in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section may be submitted by postal mail or electronically by email, but will not be submitted using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system. Electronic submissions of such information must comply with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements in § 11.10 (a), (c) through (h), and (k), and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30 of this chapter. The information provided in electronic format must be in a form that we can process, review, and archive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 37999, Aug. 25, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 33033, Sept. 18, 1986; 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998. Redesignated and amended at 77 FR 45943, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.28" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.28   Updating device listing information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Updating of device listing information is required if an additional establishment begins to engage in any of the activities described in § 807.3(d) with respect to a listed device, such as manufacturing, developing specifications, repackaging, relabeling, or otherwise processing the device. Updating of the listing is also required if an establishment begins performing another activity on or to the device, or ceases to perform an activity on or to the device that had previously been identified on the device listing.
</P>
<P>(b) An owner or operator shall create a new device listing using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system:
</P>
<P>(1) If introducing into commercial distribution an exempt device identified with a product code that is not currently listed by the owner or operator; or
</P>
<P>(2) If introducing into commercial distribution a non-exempt device with an FDA premarket submission number that is not currently listed by the owner or operator.
</P>
<P>(c) All device listings for foreign establishments must be submitted before the device may be imported or offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) An owner or operator who discontinues commercial distribution of a device shall discontinue the device listing using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system. A device listing is considered discontinued if:
</P>
<P>(1) All devices under an exempt product code have been discontinued or
</P>
<P>(2) All devices associated with an FDA premarket submission number have been discontinued.
</P>
<P>(e) If commercial distribution of a discontinued device is resumed, the owner or operator must reactivate the previously-discontinued listing using the electronic device registration and listing system. Any changes to the listing information for the product that is the subject of the listing such as a new establishment, new activity, or new proprietary name must be made using the electronic device registration and listing system at the time the listing is reactivated.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA will assign one listing number for all devices exempt from premarket notification requirements under a single product code. For products not exempt from premarket notification requirements, a single listing number will be assigned by FDA for each FDA premarket submission number.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45943, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.34" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.34   Summary of requirements for owners or operators granted a waiver from submitting required information electronically.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For initial registration and listing, owners or operators who have been granted a waiver from electronic filing using the procedures set forth in § 807.21(b) must send a letter containing all of the registration and listing information described in §§ 807.22, 807.25 (and § 807.26 when such information is requested by FDA), at the times described in § 807.22, to: The Imports and Registration and Listing Team, Division of Regulatory Programs 2, Office of Regulatory Programs, Office of Product Evaluation and Quality, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1432, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(b) As specified in § 807.22(b)(1) and (b)(3), all owners or operators shall update their establishment registration and device listings annually during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31 of each fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to submit any of the required information on time, as specified in § 807.22(a) and (b), will put the establishment in a “failed to register” or “failed to list” status as applicable.
</P>
<P>The establishment will not be considered active and the establishment registration and device listing information may not appear on the FDA Web site until the required information is submitted to and processed by FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45943, Aug. 2, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 18442, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.35   Notification of registrant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will assign each device establishment a registration number after verifying the initial establishment registration information that has been submitted. The owner or operator of the establishment will also be assigned an identifying number. Both numbers will be sent to the official correspondent by email, or by postal mail if the owner or operator has been granted a waiver from the requirement to file registration and listing information electronically.
</P>
<P>(b) Owners or operators of device establishments who also manufacture or process biological products (including devices licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act) or drug products at the same establishment must also register and list those products under part 607 or part 207 of this chapter, as appropriate. Registration and listing for human blood and blood products, devices licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, and licensed biological products used in the manufacture of a device licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, are subject to part 607 of this chapter; registration and listing for all other drug products (including other biological products that are also regulated as drug products) are subject to part 207 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Although establishment registration and device listing are required to engage in the device activities described in § 807.20, validation of registration and the assignment of a device listing number in itself does not establish that the holder of the registration is legally qualified to deal in such devices and does not represent a determination by the Food and Drug Administration as to the status of any device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 11312, Mar. 10, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 45943, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.37" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.37   Public availability of establishment registration and device listing information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Establishment registration and device listing information is available for public inspection in accordance with section 510(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and will be posted on the FDA website, with the exception of the information identified in paragraph (b) of this section. Requests for information by persons who do not have access to the internet should be directed to the Imports and Registration and Listing Team, Division of Regulatory Programs 2, Office of Regulatory Programs, Office of Product Evaluation and Quality, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm.1432, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. In addition, there will be available for inspection at each of the Food and Drug Administration district offices the same information for firms within the geographical area of such district offices. Upon request, verification of a registration number or location of a registered establishment will be provided.
</P>
<P>(b) The following listing information will not be available for public inspection or posted on the FDA Web site:
</P>
<P>(1) For contract manufacturers, contract sterilizers, and private label manufacturers, the proprietary or brand name(s) under which a device is marketed and the FDA-assigned premarket submission number, if this information would reveal a confidential business relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) FDA-assigned listing numbers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45943, Aug. 2, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 18442, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.39" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.39   Misbranding by reference to establishment registration or to registration number.</HEAD>
<P>Registration of a device establishment or assignment of a registration number does not in any way denote approval of the establishment or its products. Any representation that creates an impression of official approval because of registration or possession of a registration number is misleading and constitutes misbranding. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Foreign Device Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.40   Establishment registration and device listing for foreign establishments importing or offering for import devices into the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any establishment within any foreign country engaged in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing of a device that is imported or offered for import into the United States shall register such establishment and list such devices using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system in conformance with the procedures in this section, § 807.41, and subpart B of this part. The official correspondent for the foreign establishment shall facilitate communication between the foreign establishment's management and representatives of FDA for matters relating to the registration of device establishments and the listing of device products.
</P>
<P>(b) Each foreign establishment required to register under paragraph (a) of this section shall submit the name, address, and phone number of its United States agent as part of its initial and updated registration information in accordance with subpart B of this part. Each foreign establishment shall designate only one United States agent and may designate the United States agent to act as its official correspondent.
</P>
<P>(1) The United States agent shall reside or maintain a place of business in the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request from FDA, the United States agent shall assist FDA in communications with the foreign establishment, respond to questions concerning the foreign establishment's products that are imported or offered for import into the United States, and assist FDA in scheduling inspections of the foreign establishment. If the agency is unable to contact the foreign establishment directly or expeditiously, FDA may provide information or documents to the United States agent, and such an action shall be considered to be equivalent to providing the same information or documents to the foreign establishment.
</P>
<P>(3) The foreign establishment or the United States agent shall report changes in the United States agent's name, address, or phone number to FDA within 10-business days of the change.
</P>
<P>(c) No device may be imported or offered for import into the United States unless it is the subject of a device listing as required under subpart B of this part and is manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed at a registered foreign establishment; however, this restriction does not apply to devices imported or offered for import under the investigational use provisions of part 812 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The device establishment registration and device listing information shall be in the English language.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 59160, Nov. 27, 2001, as amended at 77 FR 45944, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.41" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.41   Identification of importers and persons who import or offer for import.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon initial registration, annually, and at the time of any changes, each foreign establishment required to register and list as provided in § 807.40(a) must, using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system, submit the name, address, telephone and fax numbers, email address, and registration number, if any has been assigned, of any importer (defined in § 807.3(x)) of the establishment's devices that is known to the foreign establishment. The foreign establishment must also specify which of the establishment's listed products each importer receives from the foreign establishment.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon initial registration, annually, and at the time of any changes, each foreign establishment required to register and list as provided in § 807.40(a) must, using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system, submit the name, address, telephone and fax numbers, email address, and registration number, if any has been assigned, of each person who imports or offers for import the establishment's devices into the United States. The term “person who imports or offers for import,” which is defined in § 807.3(y), includes agents, brokers, or other parties used by the foreign establishment to facilitate the import of its device into the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) For each individual or organization identified by the foreign establishment under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the foreign establishment must submit to FDA electronically the current FDA premarket submission number and any other identifying information that is known to the establishment for each device being imported or offered for import by the named individuals or organizations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45944, Aug. 2, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.65" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.65   Exemptions for device establishments.</HEAD>
<P>The following classes of persons are exempt from registration in accordance with § 807.20 under the provisions of section 510(g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of the act, or because the Commissioner of Food and Drugs has found, under section 510(g)(5) of the act, that such registration is not necessary for the protection of the public health. The exemptions in paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (i) of this section are limited to those classes of persons located in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act.
</P>
<P>(a) A manufacturer of raw materials or components to be used in the manufacture or assembly of a device who would otherwise not be required to register under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer of devices to be used solely for veterinary purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer of general purpose articles such as chemical reagents or laboratory equipment whose uses are generally known by persons trained in their use and which are not labeled or promoted for medical uses.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensed practitioners, including physicians, dentists, and optometrists, who manufacture or otherwise alter devices solely for use in their practice.
</P>
<P>(e) Pharmacies, surgical supply outlets, or other similar retail establishments making final delivery or sale to the ultimate user. This exemption also applies to a pharmacy or other similar retail establishment that purchases a device for subsequent distribution under its own name, e.g., a properly labeled health aid such as an elastic bandage or crutch, indicating “distributed by” or “manufactured for” followed by the name of the pharmacy. 
</P>
<P>(f) Persons who manufacture, prepare, propagate, compound, or process devices solely for use in research, teaching, or analysis and do not introduce such devices into commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) Carriers by reason of their receipt, carriage, holding or delivery of devices in the usual course of business as carriers.
</P>
<P>(i) Persons who dispense devices to the ultimate consumer or whose major responsibility is to render a service necessary to provide the consumer (i.e., patient, physician, layman, etc.) with a device or the benefits to be derived from the use of a device; for example, a hearing aid dispenser, optician, clinical laboratory, assembler of diagnostic x-ray systems, and personnel from a hospital, clinic, dental laboratory, orthotic or prosthetic retail facility, whose primary responsibility to the ultimate consumer is to dispense or provide a service through the use of a previously manufactured device. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, as amended at 58 FR 46523, Sept. 1, 1993; 61 FR 44615, Aug. 28, 1996; 65 FR 17136, Mar. 31, 2000; 66 FR 59160, Nov. 27, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Premarket Notification Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.81" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.81   When a premarket notification submission is required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each person who is required to register his establishment pursuant to § 807.20 must submit a premarket notification submission to the Food and Drug Administration at least 90 days before he proposes to begin the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution of a device intended for human use which meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The device is being introduced into commercial distribution for the first time; that is, the device is not of the same type as, or is not substantially equivalent to, (i) a device in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or (ii) a device introduced for commercial distribution after May 28, 1976, that has subsequently been reclassified into class I or II.
</P>
<P>(2) The device is being introduced into commercial distribution for the first time by a person required to register, whether or not the device meets the criteria in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The device is one that the person currently has in commercial distribution or is reintroducing into commercial distribution, but that is about to be significantly changed or modified in design, components, method of manufacture, or intended use. The following constitute significant changes or modifications that require a premarket notification:
</P>
<P>(i) A change or modification in the device that could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device, e.g., a significant change or modification in design, material, chemical composition, energy source, or manufacturing process.
</P>
<P>(ii) A major change or modification in the intended use of the device.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A premarket notification under this subpart is not required for a device for which:
</P>
<P>(i) A premarket approval application under section 515 of the act, or for which a petition to reclassify under section 513(f)(2) of the act, is pending before the Food and Drug Administration, or
</P>
<P>(ii) There is a predetermined change control plan (PCCP) cleared under section 515C of the act, provided that the change is consistent with the PCCP.
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate FDA Center Director may determine that the submission and grant of a written request for an exception or alternative under § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter satisfies the requirement in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to complying with the requirements of this part, owners or operators of device establishments that manufacture radiation-emitting electronic products, as defined in § 1000.3 of this chapter, shall comply with the reporting requirements of part 1002 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, as amended at 72 FR 73601, Dec. 28, 2007; 89 FR 18792, Mar. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.85" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.85   Exemption from premarket notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A custom device is exempt from premarket notification requirements of this subpart if the device is within the meaning of section 520(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(1) It is intended for use by a patient named in the order of the physician or dentist (or other specially qualified person); or
</P>
<P>(2) It is intended solely for use by a physician or dentist (or other specially qualified person) and is not generally available to, or generally used by, other physicians or dentists (or other specially qualified persons).
</P>
<P>(b) A distributor who places a device into commercial distribution for the first time under his own name and a repackager who places his own name on a device and does not change any other labeling or otherwise affect the device shall be exempted from the premarket notification requirements of this subpart if:
</P>
<P>(1) The device was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976; or
</P>
<P>(2) A premarket notification submission was filed by another person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, as amended at 81 FR 70340, Oct. 12, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.87" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.87   Information required in a premarket notification submission.</HEAD>
<P>Each premarket notification submission shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The device name, including both the trade or proprietary name and the common or usual name or classification name of the device.
</P>
<P>(b) The establishment registration number, if applicable, of the owner or operator submitting the premarket notification submission.
</P>
<P>(c) The class in which the device has been put under section 513 of the act and, if known, its appropriate panel; or, if the owner or operator determines that the device has not been classified under such section, a statement of that determination and the basis for the person's determination that the device is not so classified.
</P>
<P>(d) Action taken by the person required to register to comply with the requirements of the act under section 514 for performance standards.
</P>
<P>(e) Proposed labels, labeling, and advertisements sufficient to describe the device, its intended use, and the directions for its use. Where applicable, photographs or engineering drawings should be supplied.
</P>
<P>(f) A statement indicating the device is similar to and/or different from other products of comparable type in commercial distribution, accompanied by data to support the statement. This information may include an identification of similar products, materials, design considerations, energy expected to be used or delivered by the device, and a description of the operational principles of the device.
</P>
<P>(g) Where a person required to register intends to introduce into commercial distribution a device that has undergone a significant change or modification that could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device, or the device is to be marketed for a new or different indication for use, the premarket notification submission must include appropriate supporting data to show that the manufacturer has considered what consequences and effects the change or modification or new use might have on the safety and effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<P>(h) A 510(k) summary as described in § 807.92 or a 510(k) statement as described in § 807.93.
</P>
<P>(i) A financial certification or disclosure statement or both, as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j) For a submission supported by clinical data:
</P>
<P>(1) If the data are from clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with applicable requirements in the protection of human subjects regulations in part 50 of this chapter, the institutional review boards regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and the investigational device exemptions regulations in part 812 of this chapter, or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(2) If the data are from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States, the requirements under § 812.28 of this chapter apply. If any such investigation was not conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP) as described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, include either a waiver request in accordance with § 812.28(c) of the chapter or a brief statement of the reason for not conducting the investigation in accordance with GCP and a description of steps taken to ensure that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected.
</P>
<P>(k) For submissions claiming substantial equivalence to a device which has been classified into class III under section 513(b) of the act:
</P>
<P>(1) Which was introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution before December 1, 1990; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For which no final regulation requiring premarket approval has been issued under section 515(b) of the act, a summary of the types of safety and effectiveness problems associated with the type of devices being compared and a citation to the information upon which the summary is based (class III summary). The 510(k) submitter shall also certify that a reasonable search of all information known or otherwise available about the class III device and other similar legally marketed devices has been conducted (class III certification), as described in § 807.94. This information does not refer to information that already has been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) under section 519 of the act. FDA may require the submission of the adverse safety and effectiveness data described in the class III summary or citation. 
</P>
<P>(l) A statement that the submitter believes, to the best of his or her knowledge, that all data and information submitted in the premarket notification are truthful and accurate and that no material fact has been omitted. 
</P>
<P>(m) Any additional information regarding the device requested by the Commissioner that is necessary for the Commissioner to make a finding as to whether or not the device is substantially equivalent to a device in commercial distribution. A request for additional information will advise the owner or operator that there is insufficient information contained in the original premarket notification submission for the Commissioner to make this determination and that the owner or operator may either submit the requested data or a new premarket notification containing the requested information at least 90 days before the owner or operator intends to market the device, or submit a premarket approval application in accordance with section 515 of the act. If the additional information is not submitted within 30 days following the date of the request, the Commissioner will consider the premarket notification to be withdrawn.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, as amended at 57 FR 18066, Apr. 28, 1992; 59 FR 64295, Dec. 14, 1994; 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998; 83 FR 7385, Feb. 21, 2018; 89 FR 18793, Mar. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.90" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.90   Format of a premarket notification submission.</HEAD>
<P>Each premarket notification submission pursuant to this part shall be submitted in accordance with this section. Each submission shall:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, be addressed to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, be addressed to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm;</I> or for devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, be addressed to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266. Information about devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research is available at <I>https://www.fda.gov/BiologicsBloodVaccines/BloodBloodProducts/ApprovedProducts/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) All inquiries regarding a premarket notification submission should be sent to the address in this section or one of the current addresses displayed on the Food and Drug Administration's website.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Be submitted as a single version in electronic format.
</P>
<P>(d) Be submitted separately for each product the manufacturer intends to market.
</P>
<P>(e) Designated “510(k) Notification” in the cover letter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, as amended at 53 FR 11252, Apr. 6, 1988; 55 FR 11169, Mar. 27, 1990; 65 FR 17137, Mar. 31, 2000; 70 FR 14986, Mar. 24, 2005; 75 FR 20915, Apr. 22, 2010; 80 FR 18094, Apr. 3, 2015; 84 FR 68339, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.92" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.92   Content and format of a 510(k) summary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A 510(k) summary shall be in sufficient detail to provide an understanding of the basis for a determination of substantial equivalence. FDA will accept summaries as well as amendments thereto until such time as FDA issues a determination of substantial equivalence. All 510(k) summaries shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The submitter's name, address, telephone number, a contact person, and the date the summary was prepared;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the device, including the trade or proprietary name if applicable, the common or usual name, and the classification name, if known;
</P>
<P>(3) An identification of the legally marketed device to which the submitter claims equivalence. A legally marketed device to which a new device may be compared for a determination regarding substantial equivalence is a device that was legally marketed prior to May 28, 1976, or a device which has been reclassified from class III to class II or I (the predicate), or a device which has been found to be substantially equivalent through the 510(k) premarket notification process; 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the device that is the subject of the premarket notification submission, such as might be found in the labeling or promotional material for the device, including an explanation of how the device functions, the scientific concepts that form the basis for the device, and the significant physical and performance characteristics of the device, such as device design, material used, and physical properties; 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of the intended use of the device that is the subject of the premarket notification submission, including a general description of the diseases or conditions that the device will diagnose, treat, prevent, cure, or mitigate, including a description, where appropriate, of the patient population for which the device is intended. If the indication statements are different from those of the legally marketed device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the 510(k) summary shall contain an explanation as to why the differences are not critical to the intended therapeutic, diagnostic, prosthetic, or surgical use of the device, and why the differences do not affect the safety and effectiveness of the device when used as labeled; and 
</P>
<P>(6) If the device has the same technological characteristics (i.e., design, material, chemical composition, energy source) as the predicate device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a summary of the technological characteristics of the new device in comparison to those of the predicate device. If the device has different technological characteristics from the predicate device, a summary of how the technological characteristics of the device compare to a legally marketed device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) 510(k) summaries for those premarket submissions in which a determination of substantial equivalence is also based on an assessment of performance data shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A brief discussion of the nonclinical tests submitted, referenced, or relied on in the premarket notification submission for a determination of substantial equivalence; 
</P>
<P>(2) A brief discussion of the clinical tests submitted, referenced, or relied on in the premarket notification submission for a determination of substantial equivalence. This discussion shall include, where applicable, a description of the subjects upon whom the device was tested, a discussion of the safety or effectiveness data obtained from the testing, with specific reference to adverse effects and complications, and any other information from the clinical testing relevant to a determination of substantial equivalence; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The conclusions drawn from the nonclinical and clinical tests that demonstrate that the device is as safe, as effective, and performs as well as or better than the legally marketed device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The summary should be in a separate section of the submission, beginning on a new page and ending on a page not shared with any other section of the premarket notification submission, and should be clearly identified as a “510(k) summary.” 
</P>
<P>(d) Any other information reasonably deemed necessary by the agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 18066, Apr. 28, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 64295, Dec. 14, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.93" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.93   Content and format of a 510(k) statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A 510(k) statement submitted as part of a premarket notification shall state as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I certify that, in my capacity as (the position held in company by person required to submit the premarket notification, preferably the official correspondent in the firm), of (company name), I will make available all information included in this premarket notification on safety and effectiveness within 30 days of request by any person if the device described in the premarket notification submission is determined to be substantially equivalent. The information I agree to make available will be a duplicate of the premarket notification submission, including any adverse safety and effectiveness information, but excluding all patient identifiers, and trade secret and confidential commercial information, as defined in 21 CFR 20.61.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The statement in paragraph (a)(1) of this section should be signed by the certifier, made on a separate page of the premarket notification submission, and clearly identified as “510(k) statement.” 
</P>
<P>(b) All requests for information included in paragraph (a) of this section shall be made in writing to the certifier, whose name will be published by FDA on the list of premarket notification submissions for which substantial equivalence determinations have been made. 
</P>
<P>(c) The information provided to requestors will be a duplicate of the premarket notification submission, including any adverse information, but excluding all patient identifiers, and trade secret and confidential commercial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 64295, Dec. 14, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.94" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.94   Format of a class III certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A class III certification submitted as part of a premarket notification shall state as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I certify, in my capacity as (position held in company), of (company name), that I have conducted a reasonable search of all information known or otherwise available about the types and causes of safety or effectiveness problems that have been reported for the (type of device). I further certify that I am aware of the types of problems to which the (type of device) is susceptible and that, to the best of my knowledge, the following summary of the types and causes of safety or effectiveness problems about the (type of device) is complete and accurate.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The statement in paragraph (a) of this section should be signed by the certifier, clearly identified as “class III certification,” and included at the beginning of the section of the premarket notification submission that sets forth the class III summary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 64296, Dec. 14, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.95" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.95   Confidentiality of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will disclose publicly whether there exists a premarket notification submission under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the device is on the market, i.e., introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution;
</P>
<P>(2) Where the person submitting the premarket notification submission has disclosed, through advertising or any other manner, his intent to market the device to scientists, market analysts, exporters, or other individuals who are not employees of, or paid consultants to, the establishment and who are not in an advertising or law firm pursuant to commercial arrangements with appropriate safeguards for secrecy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Where the device is not on the market and the intent to market the device has not been so disclosed, except where the submission is subject to an exception under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration will not disclose publicly the existence of a premarket notification submission for a device that is not on the market and where the intent to market the device has not been disclosed for 90 days from the date of receipt of the submission, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The person submitting the premarket notification submission requests in the submission that the Food and Drug Administration hold as confidential commercial information the intent to market the device and submits a certification to the Commissioner:
</P>
<P>(i) That the person considers his intent to market the device to be confidential commercial information;
</P>
<P>(ii) That neither the person nor, to the best of his knowledge, anyone else, has disclosed through advertising or any other manner, his intent to market the device to scientists, market analysts, exporters, or other individuals, except employees of, or paid consultants to, the establishment or individuals in an advertising or law firm pursuant to commercial arrangements with appropriate safeguards for secrecy;
</P>
<P>(iii) That the person will immediately notify the Food and Drug Administration if he discloses the intent to market the device to anyone, except employees of, or paid consultants to, the establishment or individuals in an advertising or law firm pursuant to commercial arrangements with appropriate safeguards for secrecy;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the person has taken precautions to protect the confidentiality of the intent to market the device; and
</P>
<P>(v) That the person understands that the submission to the government of false information is prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 21 U.S.C. 331(q); and
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner agrees that the intent to market the device is confidential commercial information.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the Commissioner determines that the person has complied with the procedures described in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a device that is not on the market and where the intent to market the device has not been disclosed, and the Commissioner agrees that the intent to market the device is confidential commercial information, the Commissioner will not disclose the existence of the submission for 90 days from the date of its receipt by the agency. In addition, the Commissioner will continue not to disclose the existence of such a submission for the device for an additional time when any of the following occurs:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner requests in writing additional information regarding the device pursuant to § 807.87(h), in which case the Commissioner will not disclose the existence of the submission until 90 days after the Food and Drug Administration's receipt of a complete premarket notification submission;
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner determines that the device intended to be introduced is a class III device and cannot be marketed without premarket approval or reclassification, in which case the Commissioner will not disclose the existence of the submission unless a petition for reclassification is submitted under section 513(f)(2) of the act and its existence can be disclosed under § 860.5(d) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will make a 510(k) summary of the safety and effectiveness data available to the public within 30 days of the issuance of a determination that the device is substantially equivalent to another device. Accordingly, even when a 510(k) submitter has complied with the conditions set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, confidentiality for a premarket notification submission cannot be granted beyond 30 days after FDA issues a determination of equivalency. 
</P>
<P>(e) Data or information submitted with, or incorporated by reference in, a premarket notification submission (other than safety and effectiveness data that have not been disclosed to the public) shall be available for disclosure by the Food and Drug Administration when the intent to market the device is no longer confidential in accordance with this section, unless exempt from public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter. Upon final classification, data and information relating to safety and effectiveness of a device classified in class I (general controls) or class II (performance standards) shall be available for public disclosure. Data and information relating to safety and effectiveness of a device classified in class III (premarket approval) that have not been released to the public shall be retained as confidential unless such data and information become available for release to the public under § 860.5(d) or other provisions of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 42526, Aug. 23, 1977, as amended at 53 FR 11252, Apr. 6, 1988; 57 FR 18067, Apr. 28, 1992; 59 FR 64296, Dec. 14, 1994; 84 FR 68339, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.97" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.97   Misbranding by reference to premarket notification.</HEAD>
<P>Submission of a premarket notification in accordance with this subpart, and a subsequent determination by the Commissioner that the device intended for introduction into commercial distribution is substantially equivalent to a device in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or is substantially equivalent to a device introduced into commercial distribution after May 28, 1976, that has subsequently been reclassified into class I or II, does not in any way denote official approval of the device. Any representation that creates an impression of official approval of a device because of complying with the premarket notification regulations is misleading and constitutes misbranding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 807.100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.5.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 807.100   FDA action on a premarket notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After review of a premarket notification, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue an order declaring the device to be substantially equivalent to a legally marketed predicate device; 
</P>
<P>(2) Issue an order declaring the device to be not substantially equivalent to any legally marketed predicate device;
</P>
<P>(3) Request additional information; or
</P>
<P>(4) Withhold the decision until a certification or disclosure statement is submitted to FDA under part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Advise the applicant that the premarket notification is not required. Until the applicant receives an order declaring a device substantially equivalent, the applicant may not proceed to market the device.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will determine that a device is substantially equivalent to a predicate device using the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The device has the same intended use as the predicate device; and
</P>
<P>(2) The device:
</P>
<P>(i) Has the same technological characteristics as the predicate device; or
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has different technological characteristics, such as a significant change in the materials, design, energy source, or other features of the device from those of the predicate device; 
</P>
<P>(B) The data submitted establishes that the device is substantially equivalent to the predicate device and contains information, including clinical data if deemed necessary by the Commissioner, that demonstrates that the device is as safe and as effective as a legally marketed device; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Does not raise different questions of safety and effectiveness than the predicate device. 
</P>
<P>(3) The predicate device has not been removed from the market at the initiative of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or has not been determined to be misbranded or adulterated by a judicial order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 58403, Dec. 10, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="808" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 808—EXEMPTIONS FROM FEDERAL PREEMPTION OF STATE AND LOCAL MEDICAL DEVICE REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360j, 360k, 371.
</PSPACE><P>Section 808.1 also issued under Sec. 709, Public Law 115-52, 131 Stat. 1065-67.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 18665, May 2, 1978, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> This part prescribes procedures for the submission, review, and approval of applications for exemption from Federal preemption of State and local requirements applicable to medical devices under section 521 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General rule for State and local requirements respecting devices.</I> Section 521(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act contains special provisions governing the regulation of devices by States and localities. That section prescribes a general rule that after May 28, 1976, no State or political subdivision of a State may establish or continue in effect any requirement with respect to a medical device intended for human use having the force and effect of law (whether established by statute, ordinance, regulation, or court decision), which is different from, or in addition to, any requirement applicable to such device under any provision of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and which relates to the safety or effectiveness of the device or to any other matter included in a requirement applicable to the device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempting from preemption certain State or local requirements respecting devices.</I> Section 521(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act contains a provision whereby the Commissioner of Food and Drugs may, upon application by a State or political subdivision, allow imposition of a requirement which is different from, or in addition to, any requirement applicable under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to the device (and which is thereby preempted) by promulgating a regulation in accordance with this part exempting the State or local requirement from preemption. The granting of an exemption does not affect the applicability to the device of any requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The Commissioner may promulgate an exemption regulation for the preempted requirement if he makes either of the following findings:
</P>
<P>(1) That the requirement is more stringent than a requirement under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applicable to the device; or
</P>
<P>(2) That the requirement is required by compelling local conditions and compliance with the requirement would not cause the device to be in violation of any applicable requirement under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Meaning of “requirements applicable to a device.”</I> State or local requirements are preempted only when the Food and Drug Administration has established specific counterpart regulations or there are other specific requirements applicable to a particular device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, thereby making any existing divergent State or local requirements applicable to the device different from, or in addition to, the specific Food and Drug Administration requirements. There are other State or local requirements that affect devices that are not preempted by section 521(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because they are not “requirements applicable to a device” within the meaning of section 521(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The following are examples of State or local requirements that are not regarded as preempted by section 521 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements of general applicability where the purpose of the requirement relates either to other products in addition to devices (e.g., requirements such as general electrical codes, and the Uniform Commercial Code (warranty of fitness)), or to unfair trade practices in which the requirements are not limited to devices.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements that are equal to, or substantially identical to, requirements imposed by or under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local permits, licensing, registration, certification, or other requirements relating to the approval or sanction of the practice of medicine, dentistry, optometry, pharmacy, nursing, podiatry, or any other of the healing arts or allied medical sciences or related professions or occupations that administer, dispense, or sell devices. However, regulations issued under section 520(e) or (g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act may impose restrictions on the sale, distribution, or use of a device beyond those prescribed in State or local requirements. If there is a conflict between such restrictions and State or local requirements, the Federal regulations shall prevail.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 521(a) does not preempt specifications in contracts entered into by States or localities for procurement of devices.
</P>
<P>(5) Section 521(a) does not preempt criteria for payment of State or local obligations under Medicaid and similar Federal, State or local health-care programs.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements respecting general enforcement, e.g., requirements that State inspection be permitted of factory records concerning all devices, registration, and licensing requirements for manufacturers and others, and prohibition of manufacture of devices in unlicensed establishments. However, Federal regulations issued under sections 519 and 520(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act may impose requirements for records and reports and good manufacturing practices beyond those prescribed in State or local requirements. If there is a conflict between such regulations and State or local requirements, the Federal regulations shall prevail. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Generally, section 521(a) does not preempt a State or local requirement prohibiting the manufacture of adulterated or misbranded devices. Where, however, such a prohibition has the effect of establishing a substantive requirement for a specific device, e.g., a specific labeling requirement, then the prohibition will be preempted if the requirement is different from, or in addition to, a Federal requirement established under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. In determining whether such a requirement is preempted, the determinative factor is how the requirement is interpreted and enforced by the State or local government and not the literal language of the statute, which may be identical to a provision in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(7) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local provisions respecting delegations of authority and related administrative matters relating to devices.
</P>
<P>(8) Section 521(a) does not preempt a State or local requirement whose sole purpose is raising revenue or charging fees for services, registration, or regulatory programs.
</P>
<P>(9) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements of the types that have been developed under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 note), as amended, Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968), and other Federal statutes, until such time as the Food and Drug Administration issues specific requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applicable to these types of devices.
</P>
<P>(10) Part 820 of this chapter (21 CFR part 820) (CGMP requirements) does not preempt remedies created by States or Territories of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of equivalence or difference of requirements applicable to a device.</I> It is the responsibility of the Food and Drug Administration, subject to review by Federal courts, to determine whether a State or local requirement is equal to, or substantially identical to, requirements imposed by or under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or is different from, or in addition to, such requirements, in accordance with the procedures provided by this part. However, it is the responsibility of States and political subdivisions to determine initially whether to seek exemptions from preemption. Any State or political subdivision whose requirements relating to devices are preempted by section 521(a) may petition the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for exemption from preemption, in accordance with the procedures provided by this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability of Federal requirements respecting devices.</I> The Federal requirement with respect to a device applies whether or not a corresponding State or local requirement is preempted or exempted from preemption. As a result, if a State or local requirement that the Food and Drug Administration has exempted from preemption is not as broad in its application as the Federal requirement, the Federal requirement applies to all circumstances not covered by the State or local requirement.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions not applicable to certain State or local government requirements specifically related to hearing products.</I> An exemption under this part shall not apply to any State or local government law, regulation, order, or other requirement specifically related to hearing products, including any requirement for the supervision, prescription, or other order, involvement, or intervention of a licensed person for consumers to access over-the-counter hearing aids, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Would restrict or interfere with the servicing, marketing, sale, dispensing, use, customer support, or distribution of over-the-counter hearing aids, as defined under section 520(q) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, through in-person transactions, by mail, or online; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is different from, in addition to, or otherwise not identical to, the regulations issued under section 709(b) of the FDA Reauthorization Act of 2017.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 18665, May 2, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 67336, Oct. 10, 1980; 61 FR 52654, Oct. 7, 1996; 73 FR 34859, June 19, 2008; 87 FR 50761, Aug. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Compelling local conditions</I> includes any factors, considerations, or circumstances prevailing in, or characteristic of, the geographic area or population of the State or political subdivision that justify exemption from preemption.
</P>
<P><I>More stringent</I> refers to a requirement of greater restrictiveness or one that is expected to afford to those who may be exposed to a risk of injury from a device a higher degree of protection than is afforded by a requirement applicable to the device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Political subdivision</I> or <I>locality</I> means any lawfully established local governmental unit within a State which unit has the authority to establish or continue in effect any requirement having the force and effect of law with respect to a device intended for human use.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State or Territory of the United States, including but not limited to, the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Substantially identical to</I> refers to the fact that a State or local requirement does not significantly differ in effect from a Federal requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.5   Advisory opinions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any State, political subdivision, or other interested person may request an advisory opinion from the Commissioner with respect to any general matter concerning preemption of State or local device requirements or with respect to whether the Food and Drug Administration regards particular State or local requirements, or proposed requirements, as preempted. 
</P>
<P>(1) Such an advisory opinion may be requested and may be granted in accordance with § 10.85 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The Food and Drug Administration, in its discretion and after consultation with the State or political subdivision, may treat a request by a State or political subdivision for an advisory opinion as an application for exemption from preemption under § 808.20.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may issue an advisory opinion relating to a State or local requirement on his own initiative when he makes one of the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(1) A requirement with respect to a device for which an application for exemption from preemption has been submitted under § 808.20 is not preempted by section 521(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because it is: (i) Equal to or substantially identical to a requirement under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applicable to the device, or (ii) is not a requirement within the meaning of section 521 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and therefore is not preempted;
</P>
<P>(2) A proposed State or local requirement with respect to a device is not eligible for exemption from preemption because the State or local requirement has not been issued in final form. In such a case, the advisory opinion may indicate whether the proposed requirement would be preempted and, if it would be preempted, whether the Food and Drug Administration would propose to grant an exemption from preemption;
</P>
<P>(3) Issuance of such an advisory opinion is in the public interest. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 18665, May 2, 1978, as amended at 87 FR 50761, Aug. 17, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemption Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.20   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any State or political subdivision may apply to the Food and Drug Administration for an exemption from preemption for any requirement that it has enacted and that is preempted. An exemption may only be granted for a requirement that has been enacted, promulgated, or issued in final form by the authorized body or official of the State or political subdivision so as to have the force and effect of law. However, an application for exemption may be submitted before the effective date of the requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for exemption shall be in the form of a letter to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and shall be signed by an individual who is authorized to request the exemption on behalf of the State or political subdivision. An original and two copies of the letter and any accompanying material, as well as any subsequent reports or correspondence concerning an application, shall be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. The outside wrapper of any application, report, or correspondence should indicate that it concerns an application for exemption from preemption of device requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) For each requirement for which an exemption is sought, the application shall include the following information to the fullest extent possible, or an explanation of why such information has not been included:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification and a current copy of any statute, rule, regulation, or ordinance of the State or political subdivision considered by the State or political subdivision to be a requirement which is preempted, with a reference to the date of enactment, promulgation, or issuance in final form. The application shall also include, where available, copies of any legislative history or background materials pertinent to enactment, promulgation, or issuance of the requirement, including hearing reports or studies concerning development or consideration of the requirement. If the requirement has been subject to any judicial or administrative interpretations, the State or political subdivision shall furnish copies of such judicial or administrative interpretations.
</P>
<P>(2) A comparison of the requirement of the State or political subdivision and any applicable Federal requirements to show similarities and differences. 
</P>
<P>(3) Information on the nature of the problem addressed by the requirement of the State or political subdivision.
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of which (or both) of the following bases is relied upon for seeking an exemption from preemption:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirement is more stringent than a requirement applicable to a device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. If the State or political subdivision relies upon this basis for exemption from preemption, the application shall include information, data, or material showing how and why the requirement of the State or political subdivision is more stringent than requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement is required by compelling local conditions, and compliance with the requirement would not cause the device to be in violation of any applicable requirement under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. If the State or political subdivision relies upon this basis for exemption from preemption, the application shall include information, data, or material showing why compliance with the requirement of the State or political subdivision would not cause a device to be in violation of any applicable requirement under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and why the requirement is required by compelling local conditions. The application shall also explain in detail the compelling local conditions that justify the requirement.
</P>
<P>(5) The title of the chief administrative or legal officers of that State or local agency that has primary responsibility for administration of the requirement.
</P>
<P>(6) When requested by the Food and Drug Administration, any records concerning administration of any requirement which is the subject of an exemption or an application for an exemption from preemption.
</P>
<P>(7) Information on how the public health may be benefitted and how interstate commerce may be affected, if an exemption is granted.
</P>
<P>(8) Any other pertinent information respecting the requirement voluntarily submitted by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) If litigation regarding applicability of the requirement is pending, the State or political subdivision may so indicate in its application and request expedited action on such application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 18665, May 2, 1978; 43 FR 22010, May 23, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 3646, Jan. 30, 1984; 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 87 FR 50761, Aug. 17, 2022; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.25   Procedures for processing an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of an application for an exemption from preemption submitted in accordance with § 808.20, the Commissioner shall notify the State or political subdivision of the date of such receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commissioner finds that an application does not meet the requirements of § 808.20, he shall notify the State or political subdivision of the deficiencies in the application and of the opportunity to correct such deficiencies. A deficient application may be corrected at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) After receipt of an application meeting the requirements of § 808.20, the Commissioner shall review such application and determine whether to grant or deny an exemption from preemption for each requirement which is the subject of the application. The Commissioner shall then issue in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a proposed regulation either to grant or to deny an exemption from preemption. The Commissioner shall also issue in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of opportunity to request an oral hearing before the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee.
</P>
<P>(d) A request for an oral hearing may be made by the State or political subdivision or any other interested person. Such request shall be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff within the period of time prescribed in the notice and shall include an explanation of why an oral hearing, rather than submission of written comments only, is essential to the presentation of views on the application for exemption from preemption and the proposed regulation. 
</P>
<P>(e) If a timely request for an oral hearing is made, the Commissioner shall review such a request and may grant a legislative-type informal oral hearing pursuant to part 15 of this chapter by publishing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the hearing in accordance with § 15.20 of this chapter. The scope of the oral hearing shall be limited to matters relevant to the application for exemption from preemption and the proposed regulation. Oral or written presentations at the oral hearing which are not relevant to the application shall be excluded from the administrative record of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) If a request for hearing is not timely made or a notice of appearance is not filed pursuant to § 15.21 of this chapter, the Commissioner shall consider all written comments submitted and publish a final rule in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g)(1) The Commissioner shall review all written comments submitted on the proposed rule and the administrative record of the oral hearing, if an oral hearing has been granted, and shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final rule in subpart C of this part identifying any requirement in the application for which exemption from preemption is granted, or conditionally granted, and any requirement in the application for which exemption from preemption is not granted.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner may issue a regulation granting or conditionally granting an application for an exemption from preemption for any requirement if the Commissioner makes either of the following findings:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirement is more stringent than a requirement applicable to the device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement is required by compelling local conditions, and compliance with the requirement would not cause the device to be in violation of any requirement applicable to the device under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner may not grant an application for an exemption from preemption for any requirement with respect to a device if the Commissioner determines that the granting of an exemption would not be in the best interest of public health, taking into account the potential burden on interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(h) An advisory opinion pursuant to § 808.5 or a regulation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section constitutes final agency action. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 18665, May 2, 1978, as amended at 87 FR 50761, Aug. 17, 2022; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.35   Revocation of an exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An exemption from preemption pursuant to a regulation under this part shall remain effective until the Commissioner revokes such exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may by regulation, in accordance with § 808.25, revoke an exemption from preemption for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) An exemption may be revoked upon the effective date of a newly established requirement under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act which, in the Commissioner's view, addresses the objectives of an exempt requirement and which is described, when issued, as preempting a previously exempt State or local requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) An exemption may be revoked upon a finding that there has occurred a change in the bases listed in § 808.20(c)(4) upon which the exemption was granted.
</P>
<P>(3) An exemption may be revoked if it is determined that a condition placed on the exemption by the regulation under which the exemption was granted has not been met or is no longer being met.
</P>
<P>(4) An exemption may be revoked if a State or local jurisdiction fails to submit records as provided in § 808.20(c)(6).
</P>
<P>(5) An exemption may be revoked if a State or local jurisdiction to whom the exemption was originally granted requests revocation.
</P>
<P>(6) An exemption may be revoked if it is determined that it is no longer in the best interests of the public health to continue the exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) An exemption that has been revoked may be reinstated, upon request from the State or political subdivision, if the Commissioner, in accordance with the procedures in § 808.25, determines that the grounds for revocation are no longer applicable except that the Commissioner may permit abbreviated submissions of the documents and materials normally required for an application for exemption under § 808.20. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 18665, May 2, 1978, as amended at 87 FR 50761, Aug. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Listing of Specific State and Local Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.53" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.53   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 808.55" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 808.55   California.</HEAD>
<P>The following California medical device requirements are preempted under section 521(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and FDA has denied them exemption from preemption:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Medical devices; general provisions.</I> Sherman Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Law, Division 21 of the California Health and Safety Code, sections 26207, 26607, 26614, 26615, 26618, 26631, 26640, and 26441, to the extent that they apply to devices; and
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ophthalmic devices; quality standards.</I> California Business and Professions Code, section 2541.3 to the extent that it requires adoption of the American National Standards Institute standards Z-80.1 and Z-80.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 808.57—808.101" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 808.57--808.101   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="809" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 809—IN VITRO DIAGNOSTIC PRODUCTS FOR HUMAN USE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321(h)(1), 331, 351, 352, 360, 360c, 360d, 360e, 360h, 360i, 360j, 371, 372, 374, 381, and 42 U.S.C. 262.




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 809.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In vitro diagnostic products</I> are those reagents, instruments, and systems intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other conditions, including a determination of the state of health, in order to cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease or its sequelae. Such products are intended for use in the collection, preparation, and examination of specimens taken from the human body. These products are devices as defined in section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), and may also be biological products subject to section 351 of the Public Health Service Act.



 
</P>
<P>(b) A <I>product class</I> is all those products intended for use for a particular determination or for a related group of determinations or products with common or related characteristics or those intended for common or related uses. A class may be further divided into subclasses when appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6903, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980; 89 FR 37445, May 6, 2024; 90 FR 45136, Sept. 19, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809.4   Confidentiality of submitted information.</HEAD>
<P>Data and information submitted under § 809.10(c) that are shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter shall be treated as confidential by the Food and Drug Administration and any person to whom the data and information are referred. The Food and Drug Administration will determine whether information submitted will be treated as confidential in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 809.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809.10   Labeling for in vitro diagnostic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The label for an in vitro diagnostic product shall state the following information, except where such information is not applicable, or as otherwise specified in a standard for a particular product class or as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. Section 201(k) of the act provides that “a requirement made by or under authority of this act that any word, statement, or other information appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or other information also appears on the outside container or wrapper, if any there be, of the retail package of such article, or is easily legible through the outside container or wrapper.” 
</P>
<P>(1) The proprietary name and established name (common or usual name), if any. 
</P>
<P>(2) The intended use or uses of the product. 
</P>
<P>(3) For a reagent, a declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any, and quantity, proportion or concentration of each reactive ingredient; and for a reagent derived from biological material, the source and a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration, or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product; and a statement “For In Vitro Diagnostic Use” and any other limiting statements appropriate to the intended use of the product. The limiting statement appropriate to the intended use of a prescription in vitro diagnostic product shall bear the symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” or the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this device to sale by or on the order of a ___”, the blank to be filled with the word “physician”, “dentist”, “veterinarian”, or with the descriptive designation of any other practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which the practitioner practices to use or order the use of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) For a reagent, appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, and other pertinent factors. For products requiring manipulation, such as reconstitution and/or mixing before use, appropriate storage instructions shall be provided for the reconstituted or mixed product which is to be stored in the original container. The basis for such instructions shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(6) For a reagent, a means by which the user may be assured that the product meets appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality and purity at the time of use. This shall be provided, both for the product as provided and for any resultant reconstituted or mixed product, by including on the label one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) An expiration date based upon the stated storage instructions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of an observable indication of an alteration of the product, e.g., turbidity, color change, precipitate, beyond its appropriate standards. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for a simple method by which the user can reasonably determine that the product meets its appropriate standards. 
</P>
<P>(7) For a reagent, a declaration of the net quantity of contents, expressed in terms of weight or volume, numerical count, or any combination of these or other terms which accurately reflect the contents of the package. The use of metric designations is encouraged, wherever appropriate. If more than a single determination may be performed using the product, any statement of the number of tests shall be consistent with instructions for use and amount of material provided. 
</P>
<P>(8) Name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor. 
</P>
<P>(9) A lot or control number, identified as such, from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the product. 
</P>
<P>(i) If it is a multiple unit product, the lot or control number shall permit tracing the identity of the individual units. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For an instrument, the lot or control number shall permit tracing the identity of all functional subassemblies. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For multiple unit products which require the use of included units together as a system, all units should bear the same lot or control number, if appropriate, or other suitable uniform identification should be used. 
</P>
<P>(10) Except that for items in paragraphs (a) (1) through (9) of this section: (i) In the case of immediate containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information and which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for use, the information required by paragraphs (a) (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) (ii), (iii) and (7) of this section may appear in the outer container labeling only. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In any case in which the presence of this information on the immediate container will interfere with the test, the information may appear on the outside container or wrapper rather than on the immediate container label. 
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling accompanying each product, e.g., a package insert, shall state in one place the following information in the format and order specified below, except where such information is not applicable, or as specified in a standard for a particular product class. The labeling for a multiple-purpose instrument used for diagnostic purposes, and not committed to specific diagnostic procedures or systems, may bear only the information indicated in paragraphs (b) (1), (2), (6), (14), and (15) of this section. The labeling for a reagent intended for use as a replacement in a diagnostic system may be limited to that information necessary to identify the reagent adequately and to describe its proper use in the system. 
</P>
<P>(1) The proprietary name and established name, i.e., common or usual name, if any. 
</P>
<P>(2) The intended use or uses of the product and the type of procedure, e.g., qualitative or quantitative. 
</P>
<P>(3) Summary and explanation of the test. Include a short history of the methodology, with pertinent references and a balanced statement of the special merits and limitations of this method or product. If the product labeling refers to any other procedure, appropriate literature citations shall be included and the labeling shall explain the nature of any differences from the original and their effect on the results. 
</P>
<P>(4) The chemical, physical, physiological, or biological principles of the procedure. Explain concisely, with chemical reactions and techniques involved, if applicable. 
</P>
<P>(5) Reagents: 
</P>
<P>(i) A declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any, and quantity, proportion or concentration or each reactive ingredient; and for biological material, the source and a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc. A statement indicating the presence of and characterizing any catalytic or nonreactive ingredients, e.g., buffers, preservatives, stabilizers. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product; and a statement “For In Vitro Diagnostic Use” and any other limiting statements appropriate to the intended use of the product. The limiting statement appropriate to the intended use of a prescription in vitro diagnostic product shall bear the symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” or the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this device to sale by or on the order of a ___”, the blank to be filled with the word “physician”, “dentist”, “veterinarian”, or with the descriptive designation of any other practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which the practitioner practices to use or order the use of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate instructions for reconstitution, mixing, dilution, etc. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, and other pertinent factors. For products requiring manipulation, such as reconstitution and/or mixing before use, appropriate storage instructions shall be provided for the reconstituted or mixed product. The basis for such instructions shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of any purification or treatment required for use. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Physical, biological, or chemical indications of instability or deterioration. 
</P>
<P>(6) Instruments: 
</P>
<P>(i) Use or function. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation procedures and special requirements. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Principles of operation. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance characteristics and specifications. 
</P>
<P>(v) Operating instructions. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Calibration procedures including materials and/or equipment to be used. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Operational precautions and limitations. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Hazards. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Service and maintenance information. 
</P>
<P>(7) Specimen collection and preparation for analysis, including a description of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Special precautions regarding specimen collection including special preparation of the patient as it bears on the validity of the test. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Additives, preservatives, etc., necessary to maintain the integrity of the specimen. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Known interfering substances. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Recommended storage, handling or shipping instructions for the protection and maintenance of stability of the specimen. 
</P>
<P>(8) Procedure: A step-by-step outline of recommended procedures from reception of the specimen to obtaining results. List any points that may be useful in improving precision and accuracy. 
</P>
<P>(i) A list of all materials provided, e.g., reagents, instruments and equipment, with instructions for their use. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of all materials required but not provided. Include such details as sizes, numbers, types, and quality. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the amounts of reagents necessary, times required for specific steps, proper temperatures, wavelengths, etc. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement describing the stability of the final reaction material to be measured and the time within which it shall be measured to assure accurate results. 
</P>
<P>(v) Details of calibration: Identify reference material. Describe preparation of reference sample(s), use of blanks, preparation of the standard curve, etc. The description of the range of calibration should include the highest and the lowest values measurable by the procedure. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Details of kinds of quality control procedures and materials required. If there is need for both positive and negative controls, this should be stated. State what are considered satisfactory limits of performance. 
</P>
<P>(9) Results: Explain the procedure for calculating the value of the unknown. Give an explanation for each component of the formula used for the calculation of the unknown. Include a sample calculation, step-by-step, explaining the answer. The values shall be expressed to the appropriate number of significant figures. If the test provides other than quantitative results, provide an adequate description of expected results. 
</P>
<P>(10) Limitation of the procedure: Include a statement of limitations of the procedure. State known extrinsic factors or interfering substances affecting results. If further testing, either more specific or more sensitive, is indicated in all cases where certain results are obtained, the need for the additional test shall be stated. 
</P>
<P>(11) Expected values: State the range(s) of expected values as obtained with the product from studies of various populations. Indicate how the range(s) was established and identify the population(s) on which it was established. 
</P>
<P>(12) Specific performance characteristics: Include, as appropriate, information describing such things as accuracy, precision, specificity, and sensitivity. These shall be related to a generally accepted method using biological specimens from normal and abnormal populations. Include a statement summarizing the data upon which the specific performance characteristics are based. 
</P>
<P>(13) Bibliography: Include pertinent references keyed to the text. 
</P>
<P>(14) Name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor. 
</P>
<P>(15) Date of issuance of the last revision of the labeling identified as such. 
</P>
<P>(c) A shipment or other delivery of an in vitro diagnostic product shall be exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and from a standard promulgated under part 861 provided that the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a shipment or delivery for an investigation subject to part 812, if there has been compliance with part 812; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a shipment or delivery for an investigation that is not subject to part 812 (see § 812.2(c)), if the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) For a product in the laboratory research phase of development, and not represented as an effective in vitro diagnostic product, all labeling bears the statement, prominently placed: “For Research Use Only. Not for use in diagnostic procedures.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) For a product being shipped or delivered for product testing prior to full commercial marketing (for example, for use on specimens derived from humans to compare the usefulness of the product with other products or procedures which are in current use or recognized as useful), all labeling bears the statement, prominently placed: “For Investigational Use Only. The performance characteristics of this product have not been established.” 
</P>
<P>(d) The labeling of general purpose laboratory reagents (e.g., hydrochloric acid) and equipment (e.g., test tubes and pipettes) whose uses are generally known by persons trained in their use need not bear the directions for use required by § 809.10(a) and (b), if their labeling meets the requirements of this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(1) The label of a reagent shall bear the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) The proprietary name and established name (common or usual name), if any, of the reagent. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any, and quantity, proportion or concentration of the reagent ingredient (e.g., hydrochloric acid: Formula weight 36.46, assay 37.9 percent, specific gravity 1.192 at 60 °F); and for a reagent derived from biological material, the source and where applicable a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the purity and quality of the reagent, including a quantitative declaration of any impurities present. The requirement for this information may be met by a statement of conformity with a generally recognized and generally available standard which contains the same information, e.g., those established by the American Chemical Society, U.S. Pharmacopeia, National Formulary, National Research Council. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product; and a statement “For Laboratory Use.” 
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, and other pertinent factors. The basis for such information shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A declaration of the net quantity of contents, expressed in terms of weight or volume, numerical count, or any combination of these or other terms which accurately reflect the contents of the package. The use of metric designations is encouraged, wherever appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor. 
</P>
<P>(viii) A lot or control number, identified as such, from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the product. 
</P>
<P>(ix) In the case of immediate containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information, and which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for use, the information required by paragraphs (d)(1)(ii), (iii), (iv), (v), and (vi) of this section may appear in the outer container labeling only. 
</P>
<P>(2) The label of general purpose laboratory equipment, e.g., a beaker or a pipette, shall bear a statement adequately describing the product, its composition, and physical characteristics if necessary for its proper use. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The labeling for analyte specific reagents (e.g., monoclonal antibodies, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probes, viral antigens, ligands) shall bear the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The proprietary name and established name (common or usual name), if any, of the reagent;
</P>
<P>(ii) A declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity, proportion, or concentration of the reagent ingredient; and for a reagent derived from biological material, the source and where applicable, a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration, or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc.;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of the purity and quality of the reagent, including a quantitative declaration of any impurities present and method of analysis or characterization. The requirement for this information may be met by a statement of conformity with a generally recognized and generally available standard that contains the same information, e.g., those established by the American Chemical Society, U.S. Pharmacopeia, National Formulary, and National Research Council. The labeling may also include information concerning chemical/molecular composition, nucleic acid sequence, binding affinity, cross-reactivities, and interaction with substances of known clinical significance;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product;
</P>
<P>(vi) The date of manufacture and appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, date of expiration, and other pertinent factors. The basis for such instructions shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods, such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vii) A declaration of the net quantity of contents, expressed in terms of weight or volume, numerical count, or any combination of these or other terms that accurately reflect the contents of the package. The use of metric designations is encouraged, wherever appropriate;
</P>
<P>(viii) The name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor;
</P>
<P>(ix) A lot or control number, identified as such, from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the product;
</P>
<P>(x) For class I exempt ASR's, the statement: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Analytical and performance characteristics are not established”; and
</P>
<P>(xi) For class II and III ASR's, the statement: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Except as a component of the approved/cleared test (Name of approved/cleared test), analytical and performance characteristics of this ASR are not established.”
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of immediate containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information, and which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for use, the information required by paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(6) of this section may appear in the outer container labeling only.
</P>
<P>(f) The labeling for over-the-counter (OTC) test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing shall bear the following information in language appropriate for the intended users: 
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate instructions for specimen collection and handling, and for preparation and mailing of the specimen to the laboratory for testing. 
</P>
<P>(2) An identification system to ensure that specimens are not mixed up or otherwise misidentified at the laboratory, and that user anonymity is maintained. 
</P>
<P>(3) The intended use or uses of the product, including what drugs are to be identified in the specimen, a quantitative description of the performance characteristics for those drugs (e.g., sensitivity and specificity) in terms understandable to lay users, and the detection period. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that confirmatory testing will be conducted on all samples that initially test positive. 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product. 
</P>
<P>(6) Adequate instructions on how to obtain test results from a person who can explain their meaning, including the probability of false positive and false negative results, as well as how to contact a trained health professional if additional information on interpretation of test results from the laboratory or followup counseling is desired. 
</P>
<P>(7) Name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) The applicant may provide the labeling information referenced in this section in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) A symbol accompanied by explanatory text adjacent to the symbol;
</P>
<P>(ii) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the act;
</P>
<P>(B) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used;
</P>
<P>(iii) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);
</P>
<P>(B) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;
</P>
<P>(C) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the act;
</P>
<P>(D) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and
</P>
<P>(E) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” used as provided under paragraphs (a)(4) and (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of symbols in device labeling which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the act.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (g)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (<I>i.e.,</I> open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:
</P>
<P>(A) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;
</P>
<P>(B) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;
</P>
<P>(C) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and
</P>
<P>(D) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6903, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 45 FR 3750, Jan. 18, 1980; 45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980; 47 FR 41107, Sept. 17, 1982; 47 FR 51109, Nov. 12, 1982; 48 FR 34470, July 29, 1983; 62 FR 62259, Nov. 21, 1997; 65 FR 18234, Apr. 7, 2000; 81 FR 38391, June 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809.11   Exceptions or alternatives to labeling requirements for in vitro diagnostic products for human use held by the Strategic National Stockpile.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appropriate FDA Center Director may grant an exception or alternative to any provision listed in paragraph (f) of this section and not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of an in vitro diagnostic product for human use, if the Center Director determines that compliance with such labeling requirement could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of such products that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.
</P>
<P>(b)(1)(i) A Strategic National Stockpile official or any entity that manufactures (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distributes, or stores an in vitro diagnostic product for human use that is or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile may submit, with written concurrence from a Strategic National Stockpile official, a written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section to the Center Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section on his or her own initiative.
</P>
<P>(2) A written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the specified lots, batches, or other units of an in vitro diagnostic product for human use that would be subject to the exception or alternative;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the labeling provision(s) listed in paragraph (f) of this section that are the subject of the exception or alternative request;
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain why compliance with such labeling provision(s) could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the in vitro diagnostic product for human use that are or will be held in the Strategic National Stockpile;
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe any proposed safeguards or conditions that will be implemented so that the labeling of the product includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use of the product;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a draft of the proposed labeling of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the in vitro diagnostic products for human use subject to the exception or alternative; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide any other information requested by the Center Director in support of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) The Center Director must respond in writing to all requests under this section. The Center Director may impose appropriate conditions or safeguards when granting such an exception or alternative under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A grant of an exception or alternative under this section will include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate by the Center Director to ensure that the labeling of the product subject to the exception or alternative includes the information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Center Director grants a request for an exception or alternative to the labeling requirements under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The Center Director may determine that the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to premarket notification submissions under § 807.81(a)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For a Premarket Approval Application (PMA)-approved in vitro diagnostic product for human use, the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to submission of PMA supplements under § 814.39 of this chapter; however,
</P>
<P>(ii) The grant of the request must be identified in a periodic report under § 814.84 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative under this section to the following provisions of this part, to the extent that the requirements in these provisions are not explicitly required by statute:
</P>
<P>(1) § 809.10(a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(9);
</P>
<P>(2) § 809.10(b);
</P>
<P>(3) § 809.10(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(4) § 809.10(d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(v), (d)(1)(viii), and (d)(2); and
</P>
<P>(5) § 809.10(e)(1)(i) through (e)(1)(vi) and (e)(1)(ix) through (e)(1)(xi).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 73601, Dec. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Manufacturers and Producers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 809.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809.20   General requirements for manufacturers and producers of in vitro diagnostic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance with good manufacturing practices.</I> In vitro diagnostic products shall be manufactured in accordance with the good manufacturing practices requirements found in part 820 of this chapter and, if applicable, with § 610.44 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6903, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 42530, Aug. 23, 1977; 43 FR 31527, July 21, 1978; 66 FR 31165, June 11, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809.30   Restrictions on the sale, distribution and use of analyte specific reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Analyte specific reagents (ASR's) (§ 864.4020 of this chapter) are restricted devices under section 520(e) of the Federal Food, Drugs, and Cosmetic Act (the act) subject to the restrictions set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) ASR's may only be sold to:
</P>
<P>(1) In vitro diagnostic manufacturers;
</P>
<P>(2) Clinical laboratories regulated under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA), as qualified to perform high complexity testing under 42 CFR part 493 or clinical laboratories regulated under VHA Directive 1106 (available from Department of Veterans Affairs, Veterans Health Administration, Washington, DC 20420); and
</P>
<P>(3) Organizations that use the reagents to make tests for purposes other than providing diagnostic information to patients and practitioners, e.g., forensic, academic, research, and other nonclinical laboratories.
</P>
<P>(c) ASR's must be labeled in accordance with § 809.10(e).
</P>
<P>(d) Advertising and promotional materials for ASR's:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall include the identity and purity (including source and method of acquisition) of the analyte specific reagent and the identity of the analyte;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall include the statement for class I exempt ASR's: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Analytical and performance characteristics are not established”;
</P>
<P>(3) Shall include the statement for class II or III ASR's: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Except as a component of the approved/cleared test (name of approved/cleared test), analytical and performance characteristics are not established”; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not make any statement regarding analytical or clinical performance.
</P>
<P>(e) The laboratory that develops an in-house test using the ASR shall inform the ordering person of the test result by appending to the test report the statement: “This test was developed and its performance characteristics determined by (Laboratory Name). It has not been cleared or approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.” This statement would not be applicable or required when test results are generated using the test that was cleared or approved in conjunction with review of the class II or III ASR.
</P>
<P>(f) Ordering in-house tests that are developed using analyte specific reagents is limited under section 520(e) of the act to physicians and other persons authorized by applicable State law to order such tests.
</P>
<P>(g) The restrictions in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section do not apply when reagents that otherwise meet the analyte specific reagent definition are sold to: 
</P>
<P>(1) In vitro diagnostic manufacturers; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Organizations that use the reagents to make tests for purposes other than providing diagnostic information to patients and practitioners, e.g., forensic, academic, research, and other nonclinical laboratories.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 62259, Nov. 21, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 809.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.7.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 809.40   Restrictions on the sale, distribution, and use of OTC test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Over-the-counter (OTC) test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing (§ 864.3260 of this chapter) are restricted devices under section 520(e) of the Act subject to the restrictions set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Sample testing shall be performed in a laboratory using screening tests that have been approved, cleared, or otherwise recognized by the Food and Drug Administration as accurate and reliable for the testing of such specimens for identifying drugs of abuse or their metabolites. 
</P>
<P>(c) The laboratory performing the test(s) shall have, and shall be recognized as having, adequate capability to reliably perform the necessary screening and confirmatory tests, including adequate capability to perform integrity checks of the biological specimens for possible adulteration. 
</P>
<P>(d) All OTC test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing shall be labeled in accordance with § 809.10(f) and shall provide an adequate system to communicate the proper interpretation of test results from the laboratory to the lay purchaser.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 18234, Apr. 7, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 810—MEDICAL DEVICE RECALL AUTHORITY 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 332, 333, 334, 351, 352, 355, 360h, 360i, 371, 374, 375.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 59018, Nov. 20, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Part 810 describes the procedures that the Food and Drug Administration will follow in exercising its medical device recall authority under section 518(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency</I> or <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cease distribution and notification strategy</I> or <I>mandatory recall strategy</I> means a planned, specific course of action to be taken by the person named in a cease distribution and notification order or in a mandatory recall order, which addresses the extent of the notification or recall, the need for public warnings, and the extent of effectiveness checks to be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consignee</I> means any person or firm that has received, purchased, or used a device that is subject to a cease distribution and notification order or a mandatory recall order. Consignee does not mean lay individuals or patients, i.e., nonhealth professionals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Correction</I> means repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection (including patient monitoring) of a device, without its physical removal from its point of use to some other location.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Device user facility</I> means a hospital, ambulatory surgical facility, nursing home, or outpatient treatment or diagnostic facility that is not a physician's office.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Health professionals</I> means practitioners, including physicians, nurses, pharmacists, dentists, respiratory therapists, physical therapists, technologists, or any other practitioners or allied health professionals that have a role in using a device for human use.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reasonable probability</I> means that it is more likely than not that an event will occur.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Serious, adverse health consequence</I> means any significant adverse experience, including those that may be either life-threatening or involve permanent or long-term injuries, but excluding injuries that are nonlife-threatening and that are temporary and reasonably reversible.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recall</I> means the correction or removal of a device for human use where FDA finds that there is a reasonable probability that the device would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Removal</I> means the physical removal of a device from its point of use to some other location for repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 59018, Nov. 20, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 58821, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.3   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this part, the day of the act or event from which the designated period of time begins to run shall not be included. The computation of time is based only on working days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.4   Service of orders.</HEAD>
<P>Orders issued under this part will be served in person by a designated employee of FDA, or by certified or registered mail or similar mail delivery service with a return receipt record reflecting receipt, to the named person or designated agent at the named person's or designated agent's last known address in FDA's records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Mandatory Medical Device Recall Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.10   Cease distribution and notification order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after providing the appropriate person with an opportunity to consult with the agency, FDA finds that there is a reasonable probability that a device intended for human use would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, the agency may issue a cease distribution and notification order requiring the person named in the order to immediately:
</P>
<P>(1) Cease distribution of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify health professionals and device user facilities of the order; and
</P>
<P>(3) Instruct these professionals and device user facilities to cease use of the device.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will include the following information in the order:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of the order relating to cessation of distribution and notification of health professionals and device user facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Pertinent descriptive information to enable accurate and immediate identification of the device subject to the order, including, where known:
</P>
<P>(i) The brand name of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The common name, classification name, or usual name of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The model, catalog, or product code numbers of the device; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The manufacturing lot numbers or serial numbers of the device or other identification numbers; and
</P>
<P>(v) The unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the grounds for FDA's finding that there is a reasonable probability that the device would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may also include in the order a model letter for notifying health professionals and device user facilities of the order and a requirement that notification of health professionals and device user facilities be completed within a specified timeframe. The model letter will include the key elements of information that the agency in its discretion has determined, based on the circumstances surrounding the issuance of each order, are necessary to inform health professionals and device user facilities about the order.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may also require that the person named in the cease distribution and notification order submit any or all of the following information to the agency by a time specified in the order:
</P>
<P>(1) The total number of units of the device produced and the timespan of the production;
</P>
<P>(2) The total number of units of the device estimated to be in distribution channels;
</P>
<P>(3) The total number of units of the device estimated to be distributed to health professionals and device user facilities;
</P>
<P>(4) The total number of units of the device estimated to be in the hands of home users;
</P>
<P>(5) Distribution information, including the names and addresses of all consignees;
</P>
<P>(6) A copy of any written communication used by the person named in the order to notify health professionals and device user facilities;
</P>
<P>(7) A proposed strategy for complying with the cease distribution and notification order;
</P>
<P>(8) Progress reports to be made at specified intervals, showing the names and addresses of health professionals and device user facilities that have been notified, names of specific individuals contacted within device user facilities, and the dates of such contacts; and
</P>
<P>(9) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who should be contacted concerning implementation of the order.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will provide the person named in a cease distribution and notification order with an opportunity for a regulatory hearing on the actions required by the cease distribution and notification order and on whether the order should be modified, or vacated, or amended to require a mandatory recall of the device.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA will also provide the person named in the cease distribution and notification order with an opportunity, in lieu of a regulatory hearing, to submit a written request to FDA asking that the order be modified, or vacated, or amended.
</P>
<P>(g) FDA will include in the cease distribution and notification order the name, address, and telephone number of an agency employee to whom any request for a regulatory hearing or agency review is to be addressed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 59018, Nov. 20, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 58821, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.11   Regulatory hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any request for a regulatory hearing shall be submitted in writing to the agency employee identified in the order within the timeframe specified by FDA. Under § 16.22(b) of this chapter, this timeframe ordinarily will not be fewer than 3 working days after receipt of the cease distribution and notification order. However, as provided in § 16.60(h) of this chapter, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or presiding officer may waive, suspend, or modify any provision of part 16 under § 10.19 of this chapter, including those pertaining to the timing of the hearing. As provided in § 16.26(a), the Commissioner or presiding officer may deny a request for a hearing, in whole or in part, if he or she determines that no genuine and substantial issue of fact is raised by the material submitted in the request.
</P>
<P>(b) If a request for a regulatory hearing is granted, the regulatory hearing shall be limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Reviewing the actions required by the cease distribution and notification order, determining if FDA should affirm, modify, or vacate the order, and addressing an appropriate cease distribution and notification strategy; and
</P>
<P>(2) Determining whether FDA should amend the cease distribution and notification order to require a recall of the device that was the subject of the order. The hearing may also address the actions that might be required by a recall order, including an appropriate recall strategy, if FDA later orders a recall.
</P>
<P>(c) If a request by the person named in a cease distribution and notification order for a regulatory hearing is granted, the regulatory hearing will be conducted in accordance with the procedures set out in section 201(x) of the act (21 U.S.C. 321(x)) and part 16 of this chapter, except that the order issued under § 810.10, rather than a notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides the notice of opportunity for a hearing and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter. As provided in § 16.60(h) of this chapter, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or presiding officer may waive, suspend, or modify any provision of part 16 under § 10.19 of this chapter. As provided in § 16.26(b), after the hearing commences, the presiding officer may issue a summary decision on any issue if the presiding officer determines that there is no genuine and substantial issue of fact respecting that issue.
</P>
<P>(d) If the person named in the cease distribution and notification order does not request a regulatory hearing within the timeframe specified by FDA in the cease distribution and notification order, that person will be deemed to have waived his or her right to request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer will ordinarily hold any regulatory hearing requested under paragraph (a) of this section no fewer than 2 working days after receipt of the request for a hearing, under § 16.24(e) of this chapter, and no later than 10 working days after the date of issuance of the cease distribution and notification order. However, FDA and the person named in the order may agree to a later date or the presiding officer may determine that the hearing should be held in fewer than 2 days. Moreover, as provided for in § 16.60(h) of this chapter, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or presiding officer may waive, suspend, or modify any provision of part 16 under § 10.19 of this chapter, including those pertaining to the timing of the hearing. After the presiding officer prepares a written report of the hearing and the agency issues a final decision based on the report, the presiding officer shall provide the requestor written notification of the final decision to affirm, modify, or vacate the order or to amend the order to require a recall of the device within 15 working days of conducting a regulatory hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.12   Written request for review of cease distribution and notification order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In lieu of requesting a regulatory hearing under § 810.11, the person named in a cease distribution and notification order may submit a written request to FDA asking that the order be modified or vacated. Such person shall address the written request to the agency employee identified in the order and shall submit the request within the timeframe specified in the order, unless FDA and the person named in the order agree to a later date.
</P>
<P>(b) A written request for review of a cease distribution and notification order shall identify each ground upon which the requestor relies in asking that the order be modified or vacated, as well as addressing an appropriate cease distribution and notification strategy, and shall address whether the order should be amended to require a recall of the device that was the subject of the order and the actions required by such a recall order, including an appropriate recall strategy.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency official who issued the cease distribution and notification order shall provide the requestor written notification of the agency's decision to affirm, modify, or vacate the order or amend the order to require a recall of the device within 15 working days of receipt of the written request. The agency official shall include in this written notification:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the grounds for the decision to affirm, modify, vacate, or amend the order; and
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of any modified or amended order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.13   Mandatory recall order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the person named in a cease distribution and notification order does not request a regulatory hearing or submit a request for agency review of the order, or, if the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or the presiding officer denies a request for a hearing, or, if after conducting a regulatory hearing under § 810.11 or completing agency review of a cease distribution and notification order under § 810.12, FDA determines that the order should be amended to require a recall of the device with respect to which the order was issued, FDA shall amend the order to require such a recall. FDA shall amend the order to require such a recall within 15 working days of issuance of a cease distribution and notification order if a regulatory hearing or agency review of the order is not requested, or within 15 working days of denying a request for a hearing, or within 15 working days of completing a regulatory hearing under § 810.11, or within 15 working days of receipt of a written request for review of a cease distribution and notification order under § 810.12.
</P>
<P>(b) In a mandatory recall order, FDA may:
</P>
<P>(1) Specify that the recall is to extend to the wholesale, retail, or user level;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify a timetable in accordance with which the recall is to begin and be completed;
</P>
<P>(3) Require the person named in the order to submit to the agency a proposed recall strategy, as described in § 810.14, and periodic reports describing the progress of the mandatory recall, as described in § 810.16; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the person named in the order with a model recall notification letter that includes the key elements of information that FDA has determined are necessary to inform health professionals and device user facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will not include in a mandatory recall order a requirement for:
</P>
<P>(1) Recall of a device from individuals; or
</P>
<P>(2) Recall of a device from device user facilities, if FDA determines that the risk of recalling the device from the facilities presents a greater health risk than the health risk of not recalling the device from use, unless the device can be replaced immediately with an equivalent device.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA will include in a mandatory recall order provisions for notification to individuals subject to the risks associated with use of the device. If a significant number of such individuals cannot be identified, FDA may notify such individuals under section 705(b) of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.14" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.14   Cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall strategy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 shall comply with the order, which FDA will fashion as appropriate for the individual circumstances of the case. The person named in a cease distribution and notification order modified under § 810.11(e) or § 810.12(c) or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 shall develop a strategy for complying with the order that is appropriate for the individual circumstances and that takes into account the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the serious, adverse health consequences related to the device;
</P>
<P>(2) The ease of identifying the device;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the risk presented by the device is obvious to a health professional or device user facility; and
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which the device is used by health professionals and device user facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission and review.</I> (1) The person named in the cease distribution and notification order modified under § 810.11(e) or § 810.12(c) or mandatory recall order shall submit a copy of the proposed strategy to the agency within the timeframe specified in the order.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency will review the proposed strategy and make any changes to the strategy that it deems necessary within 7 working days of receipt of the proposed strategy. The person named in the order shall act in accordance with a strategy determined by FDA to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Elements of the strategy.</I> A proposed strategy shall meet all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The person named in the order shall specify the level in the chain of distribution to which the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order is to extend as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Consumer or user level, e.g., health professionals, consignee, or device user facility level, including any intermediate wholesale or retail level; or
</P>
<P>(B) Retail level, to the level immediately preceding the consumer or user level, and including any intermediate level; or
</P>
<P>(C) Wholesale level.
</P>
<P>(ii) The person named in the order shall not recall a device from individuals; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The person named in the order shall not recall a device from device user facilities if FDA notifies the person not to do so because of a risk determination under § 810.13(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) The person named in a recall order shall ensure that the strategy provides for notice to individuals subject to the risks associated with use of the recalled device. The notice may be provided through the individuals' health professionals if FDA determines that such consultation is appropriate and would be the most effective method of notifying patients.
</P>
<P>(3) Effectiveness checks by the person named in the order are required to verify that all health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, and individuals, as appropriate, have been notified of the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order and of the need to take appropriate action. The person named in the cease distribution and notification order or the mandatory recall order shall specify in the strategy the method(s) to be used in addition to written communications as required by § 810.15, i.e., personal visits, telephone calls, or a combination thereof to contact all health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, and individuals, as appropriate. The agency may conduct additional audit checks where appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.15   Communications concerning a cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 is responsible for promptly notifying each health professional, device user facility, consignee, or individual, as appropriate, of the order. In accordance with § 810.10(c) or § 810.13(b)(4), FDA may provide the person named in the cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall order with a model letter for notifying each health professional, device user facility, consignee, or individual, as appropriate, of the order. However, if FDA does not provide the person named in the cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall order with a model letter, the person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10, or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13, is responsible for providing such notification. The purpose of the communication is to convey:
</P>
<P>(1) That FDA has found that there is a reasonable probability that use of the device would cause a serious, adverse health consequence or death;
</P>
<P>(2) That the person named in the order has ceased distribution of the device;
</P>
<P>(3) That health professionals and device user facilities should cease use of the device immediately;
</P>
<P>(4) Where appropriate, that the device is subject to a mandatory recall order; and
</P>
<P>(5) Specific instructions on what should be done with the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation.</I> The person named in a cease distribution and notification order, or a mandatory recall order, shall notify the appropriate person(s) of the order by verified written communication, e.g., telegram, mailgram, or fax. The written communication and any envelope in which it is sent or enclosed shall be conspicuously marked, preferably in bold red ink: “URGENT—[DEVICE CEASE DISTRIBUTION AND NOTIFICATION ORDER] or [MANDATORY DEVICE RECALL ORDER].” Telephone calls or other personal contacts may be made in addition to, but not as a substitute for, the verified written communication, and shall be documented in an appropriate manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> The person named in the order shall ensure that the notice of a cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order:
</P>
<P>(1) Is brief and to the point;
</P>
<P>(2) Identifies clearly the device, size, lot number(s), code(s), or serial number(s), and any other pertinent descriptive information to facilitate accurate and immediate identification of the device;
</P>
<P>(3) Explains concisely the serious, adverse health consequences that may occur if use of the device were continued;
</P>
<P>(4) Provides specific instructions on what should be done with the device;
</P>
<P>(5) Provides a ready means for the recipient of the communication to confirm receipt of the communication and to notify the person named in the order of the actions taken in response to the communication. Such means may include, but are not limited to, the return of a postage-paid, self-addressed post card or a toll-free call to the person named in the order; and
</P>
<P>(6) Does not contain irrelevant qualifications, promotional materials, or any other statement that may detract from the message.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Followup communications.</I> The person named in the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order shall ensure that followup communications are sent to all who fail to respond to the initial communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Responsibility of the recipient.</I> Health professionals, device user facilities, and consignees who receive a communication concerning a cease distribution and notification order or a mandatory recall order should immediately follow the instructions set forth in the communication. Where appropriate, these recipients should immediately notify their consignees of the order in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.16   Cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall order status reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 shall submit periodic status reports to FDA to enable the agency to assess the person's progress in complying with the order. The frequency of such reports and the agency official to whom such reports shall be submitted will be specified in the order.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified in the order, each status report shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The number and type of health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, or individuals notified about the order and the date and method of notification;
</P>
<P>(2) The number and type of health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, or individuals who have responded to the communication and the quantity of the device on hand at these locations at the time they received the communication;
</P>
<P>(3) The number and type of health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, or individuals who have not responded to the communication;
</P>
<P>(4) The number of devices returned or corrected by each health professional, device user facility, consignee, or individual contacted, and the quantity of products accounted for;
</P>
<P>(5) The number and results of effectiveness checks that have been made; and
</P>
<P>(6) Estimated timeframes for completion of the requirements of the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order.
</P>
<P>(c) The person named in the cease distribution and notification order or recall order may discontinue the submission of status reports when the agency terminates the order in accordance with § 810.17.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.17   Termination of a cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 may request termination of the order by submitting a written request to FDA. The person submitting a request shall certify that he or she has complied in full with all of the requirements of the order and shall include a copy of the most current status report submitted to the agency under § 810.16. A request for termination of a recall order shall include a description of the disposition of the recalled device.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may terminate a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 when the agency determines that the person named in the order:
</P>
<P>(1) Has taken all reasonable efforts to ensure and to verify that all health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, and, where appropriate, individuals have been notified of the cease distribution and notification order, and to verify that they have been instructed to cease use of the device and to take other appropriate action; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has removed the device from the market or has corrected the device so that use of the device would not cause serious, adverse health consequences or death.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will provide written notification to the person named in the order when a request for termination of a cease distribution and notification order or a mandatory recall order has been granted or denied. FDA will respond to a written request for termination of a cease distribution and notification or recall order within 30 working days of its receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.18   Public notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency will make available to the public in the weekly FDA Enforcement Report a descriptive listing of each new mandatory recall issued under § 810.13. The agency will delay public notification of orders when the agency determines that such notification may cause unnecessary and harmful anxiety in individuals and that initial consultation between individuals and their health professionals is essential.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="812" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 812—INVESTIGATIONAL DEVICE EXEMPTIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360c-360f, 360h-360j, 360hh-360pp, 360rr-360ss, 360bbb-8b, 371, 372, 374, 379e, 381, 382; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 262.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to encourage, to the extent consistent with the protection of public health and safety and with ethical standards, the discovery and development of useful devices intended for human use, and to that end to maintain optimum freedom for scientific investigators in their pursuit of this purpose. This part provides procedures for the conduct of clinical investigations of devices. An approved investigational device exemption (IDE) permits a device that otherwise would be required to comply with a performance standard or to have premarket approval to be shipped lawfully for the purpose of conducting investigations of that device. An IDE approved under § 812.30 or considered approved under § 812.2(b) exempts a device from the requirements of the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and the regulations in this chapter issued thereunder: Misbranding under section 502 of the act, registration, listing, and premarket notification under section 510, performance standards under section 514, premarket approval under section 515, a banned device regulation under section 516, records and reports under section 519, restricted device requirements under section 520(e), good manufacturing practice requirements under section 520(f) except for the requirements found in § 820.10(c), if applicable (unless the sponsor states an intention to comply with these requirements under § 812.20(b)(3) or § 812.140(b)(4)(v)) and color additive requirements under section 721. 
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 14366, Mar. 28, 1994; 61 FR 52654, Oct. 7, 1996; 90 FR 55979, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part applies to all clinical investigations of devices to determine safety and effectiveness, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Abbreviated requirements.</I> The following categories of investigations are considered to have approved applications for IDE's, unless FDA has notified a sponsor under § 812.20(a) that approval of an application is required: 
</P>
<P>(1) An investigation of a device other than a significant risk device, if the device is not a banned device and the sponsor: 
</P>
<P>(i) Labels the device in accordance with § 812.5; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtains IRB approval of the investigation after presenting the reviewing IRB with a brief explanation of why the device is not a significant risk device, and maintains such approval; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensures that each investigator participating in an investigation of the device obtains from each subject under the investigator's care, informed consent in accordance with part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Complies with the requirements of § 812.46 with respect to monitoring investigations; 
</P>
<P>(v) Maintains the records required under § 812.140(b) (4) and (5) and makes the reports required under § 812.150(b) (1) through (3) and (5) through (10); 
</P>
<P>(vi) Ensures that participating investigators maintain the records required by § 812.140(a)(3)(i) and make the reports required under § 812.150(a) (1), (2), (5), and (7); and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Complies with the prohibitions in § 812.7 against promotion and other practices. 
</P>
<P>(2) An investigation of a device other than one subject to paragraph (e) of this section, if the investigation was begun on or before July 16, 1980, and to be completed, and is completed, on or before January 19, 1981. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempted investigations.</I> This part, with the exception of § 812.119, does not apply to investigations of the following categories of devices: 
</P>
<P>(1) A device, other than a transitional device, in commercial distribution immediately before May 28, 1976, when used or investigated in accordance with the indications in labeling in effect at that time. 
</P>
<P>(2) A device, other than a transitional device, introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, that FDA has determined to be substantially equivalent to a device in commercial distribution immediately before May 28, 1976, and that is used or investigated in accordance with the indications in the labeling FDA reviewed under subpart E of part 807 in determining substantial equivalence. 
</P>
<P>(3) A diagnostic device, if the sponsor complies with applicable requirements in § 809.10(c) and if the testing: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is noninvasive, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not require an invasive sampling procedure that presents significant risk, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not by design or intention introduce energy into a subject, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not used as a diagnostic procedure without confirmation of the diagnosis by another, medically established diagnostic product or procedure. 
</P>
<P>(4) A device undergoing consumer preference testing, testing of a modification, or testing of a combination of two or more devices in commercial distribution, if the testing is not for the purpose of determining safety or effectiveness and does not put subjects at risk. 
</P>
<P>(5) A device intended solely for veterinary use. 
</P>
<P>(6) A device shipped solely for research on or with laboratory animals and labeled in accordance with § 812.5(c). 
</P>
<P>(7) A custom device as defined in § 812.3(b), unless the device is being used to determine safety or effectiveness for commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limit on certain exemptions.</I> In the case of class II or class III device described in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, this part applies beginning on the date stipulated in an FDA regulation or order that calls for the submission of premarket approval applications for an unapproved class III device, or establishes a performance standard for a class II device.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Investigations subject to IND's.</I> A sponsor that, on July 16, 1980, has an effective investigational new drug application (IND) for an investigation of a device shall continue to comply with the requirements of part 312 until 90 days after that date. To continue the investigation after that date, a sponsor shall comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if the device is not a significant risk device, or shall have obtained FDA approval under § 812.30 of an IDE application for the investigation of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 8956, Jan. 27, 1981; 46 FR 14340, Feb. 27, 1981; 53 FR 11252, Apr. 6, 1988; 62 FR 4165, Jan. 29, 1997; 62 FR 12096, Mar. 14, 1997; 88 FR 88249, Dec. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (sections 201-901, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 301-392)).
</P>
<P>(b) A custom device means a device within the meaning of section 520(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Implant</I> means a device that is placed into a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body if it is intended to remain there for a period of 30 days or more. FDA may, in order to protect public health, determine that devices placed in subjects for shorter periods are also “implants” for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Institution</I> means a person, other than an individual, who engages in the conduct of research on subjects or in the delivery of medical services to individuals as a primary activity or as an adjunct to providing residential or custodial care to humans. The term includes, for example, a hospital, retirement home, confinement facility, academic establishment, and device manufacturer. The term has the same meaning as “facility” in section 520(g) of the act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institutional review board</I> (IRB) means any board, committee, or other group formally designated by an institution to review biomedical research involving subjects and established, operated, and functioning in conformance with part 56. The term has the same meaning as “institutional review committee” in section 520(g) of the act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Investigational device</I> means a device, including a transitional device, that is the object of an investigation.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Investigation</I> means a clinical investigation or research involving one or more subjects to determine the safety or effectiveness of a device.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Investigator</I> means an individual who actually conducts a clinical investigation, i.e., under whose immediate direction the test article is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, a subject, or, in the event of an investigation conducted by a team of individuals, is the responsible leader of that team.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Monitor,</I> when used as a noun, means an individual designated by a sponsor or contract research organization to oversee the progress of an investigation. The monitor may be an employee of a sponsor or a consultant to the sponsor, or an employee of or consultant to a contract research organization. <I>Monitor,</I> when used as a verb, means to oversee an investigation. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Noninvasive,</I> when applied to a diagnostic device or procedure, means one that does not by design or intention: (1) Penetrate or pierce the skin or mucous membranes of the body, the ocular cavity, or the urethra, or (2) enter the ear beyond the external auditory canal, the nose beyond the nares, the mouth beyond the pharynx, the anal canal beyond the rectum, or the vagina beyond the cervical os. For purposes of this part, blood sampling that involves simple venipuncture is considered noninvasive, and the use of surplus samples of body fluids or tissues that are left over from samples taken for noninvestigational purposes is also considered noninvasive.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, scientific or academic establishment, Government agency or organizational unit of a Government agency, and any other legal entity.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Significant risk device</I> means an investigational device that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is intended as an implant and presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject;
</P>
<P>(2) Is purported or represented to be for a use in supporting or sustaining human life and presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject;
</P>
<P>(3) Is for a use of substantial importance in diagnosing, curing, mitigating, or treating disease, or otherwise preventing impairment of human health and presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject; or
</P>
<P>(4) Otherwise presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Sponsor</I> means a person who initiates, but who does not actually conduct, the investigation, that is, the investigational device is administered, dispensed, or used under the immediate direction of another individual. A person other than an individual that uses one or more of its own employees to conduct an investigation that it has initiated is a sponsor, not a sponsor-investigator, and the employees are investigators.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Sponsor-investigator</I> means an individual who both initiates and actually conducts, alone or with others, an investigation, that is, under whose immediate direction the investigational device is administered, dispensed, or used. The term does not include any person other than an individual. The obligations of a sponsor-investigator under this part include those of an investigator and those of a sponsor.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Subject</I> means a human who participates in an investigation, either as an individual on whom or on whose specimen an investigational device is used or as a control. A subject may be in normal health or may have a medical condition or disease.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Termination</I> means a discontinuance, by sponsor or by withdrawal of IRB or FDA approval, of an investigation before completion.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Transitional device</I> means a device subject to section 520(l) of the act, that is, a device that FDA considered to be a new drug or an antibiotic drug before May 28, 1976.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Unanticipated adverse device effect</I> means any serious adverse effect on health or safety or any life-threatening problem or death caused by, or associated with, a device, if that effect, problem, or death was not previously identified in nature, severity, or degree of incidence in the investigational plan or application (including a supplementary plan or application), or any other unanticipated serious problem associated with a device that relates to the rights, safety, or welfare of subjects.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Independent ethics committee (IEC)</I> means an independent review panel that is responsible for ensuring the protection of the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects involved in a clinical investigation and is adequately constituted to ensure that protection. An institutional review board (IRB), as defined in paragraph (f) of this section and subject to the requirements of part 56 of this chapter, is one type of IEC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 8956, Jan. 27, 1981; 48 FR 15622, Apr. 12, 1983; 81 FR 70340, Oct. 12, 2016; 83 FR 7385, Feb. 21, 2018; 83 FR 7385, Feb. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.5   Labeling of investigational devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> An investigational device or its immediate package shall bear a label with the following information: the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor (in accordance with § 801.1), the quantity of contents, if appropriate, and the following statement: “CAUTION—Investigational device. Limited by Federal (or United States) law to investigational use.” The label or other labeling shall describe all relevant contraindications, hazards, adverse effects, interfering substances or devices, warnings, and precautions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions.</I> The labeling of an investigational device shall not bear any statement that is false or misleading in any particular and shall not represent that the device is safe or effective for the purposes for which it is being investigated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Animal research.</I> An investigational device shipped solely for research on or with laboratory animals shall bear on its label the following statement: “CAUTION—Device for investigational use in laboratory animals or other tests that do not involve human subjects.”
</P>
<P>(d) The appropriate FDA Center Director, according to the procedures set forth in § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter, may grant an exception or alternative to the provisions in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, to the extent that these provisions are not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of a device that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 58842, Sept. 5, 1980; 72 FR 73602, Dec. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.7   Prohibition of promotion and other practices.</HEAD>
<P>A sponsor, investigator, or any person acting for or on behalf of a sponsor or investigator shall not:
</P>
<P>(a) Promote or test market an investigational device, until after FDA has approved the device for commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) Commercialize an investigational device by charging the subjects or investigators for a device a price larger than that necessary to recover costs of manufacture, research, development, and handling. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unduly prolong an investigation. If data developed by the investigation indicate in the case of a class III device that premarket approval cannot be justified or in the case of a class II device that it will not comply with an applicable performance standard or an amendment to that standard, the sponsor shall promptly terminate the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(d) Represent that an investigational device is safe or effective for the purposes for which it is being investigated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.10   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request.</I> A sponsor may request FDA to waive any requirement of this part. A waiver request, with supporting documentation, may be submitted separately or as part of an application to the address in § 812.19. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDA action.</I> FDA may by letter grant a waiver of any requirement that FDA finds is not required by the act and is unnecessary to protect the rights, safety, or welfare of human subjects. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of request.</I> Any requirement shall continue to apply unless and until FDA waives it. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.18   Import and export requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Imports.</I> In addition to complying with other requirements of this part, a person who imports or offers for importation an investigational device subject to this part shall be the agent of the foreign exporter with respect to investigations of the device and shall act as the sponsor of the clinical investigation, or ensure that another person acts as the agent of the foreign exporter and the sponsor of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exports.</I> A person exporting an investigational device subject to this part shall obtain FDA's prior approval, as required by section 801(e) of the act or comply with section 802 of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 62 FR 26229, May 13, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.19" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.19   Address for IDE correspondence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are sending an application, supplemental application, report, request for waiver, request for import or export approval, or other correspondence relating to matters covered by this part, you must send the submission to the appropriate address as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send it to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send it to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send it to Central Document Control Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.
</P>
<P>(b) You must state on the outside wrapper of each submission what the submission is, for example, an “IDE application,” a “supplemental IDE application,” or a “correspondence concerning an IDE (or an IDE application).”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 42048, July 25, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 20915, Apr. 22, 2010; 80 FR 18094, Apr. 3, 2015; 84 FR 68339, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Application and Administrative Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.20   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission.</I> (1) A sponsor shall submit an application to FDA if the sponsor intends to use a significant risk device in an investigation, intends to conduct an investigation that involves an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, or if FDA notifies the sponsor that an application is required for an investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor shall not begin an investigation for which FDA's approval of an application is required until FDA has approved the application.
</P>
<P>(3) A sponsor shall submit a signed “Application for an Investigational Device Exemption” (IDE application), together with accompanying materials in electronic format, to one of the addresses in § 812.19, and if eCopy by registered mail or by hand. Subsequent correspondence concerning an application or a supplemental application shall be submitted in electronic format and if eCopy by registered mail or by hand.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A sponsor shall submit a separate IDE for any clinical investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Such a clinical investigation is not permitted to proceed without the prior written authorization of FDA. FDA shall provide a written determination 30 days after FDA receives the IDE or earlier.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the investigation involves an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, the sponsor shall prominently identify on the cover sheet that the investigation is subject to the requirements in § 50.24 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> An IDE application shall include, in the following order: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the sponsor. 
</P>
<P>(2) A complete report of prior investigations of the device and an accurate summary of those sections of the investigational plan described in § 812.25(a) through (e) or, in lieu of the summary, the complete plan. The sponsor shall submit to FDA a complete investigational plan and a complete report of prior investigations of the device if no IRB has reviewed them, if FDA has found an IRB's review inadequate, or if FDA requests them. 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the methods, facilities, and controls used for the manufacture, processing, packing, storage, and, where appropriate, installation of the device, in sufficient detail so that a person generally familiar with good manufacturing practices can make a knowledgeable judgment about the quality control used in the manufacture of the device. 
</P>
<P>(4) An example of the agreements to be entered into by all investigators to comply with investigator obligations under this part, and a list of the names and addresses of all investigators who have signed the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that all investigators who will participate in the investigation have signed the agreement, that the list of investigators includes all the investigators participating in the investigation, and that no investigators will be added to the investigation until they have signed the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(6) A list of the name, address, and chairperson of each IRB that has been or will be asked to review the investigation and a certification of the action concerning the investigation taken by each such IRB. 
</P>
<P>(7) The name and address of any institution at which a part of the investigation may be conducted that has not been identified in accordance with paragraph (b)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(8) If the device is to be sold, the amount to be charged and an explanation of why sale does not constitute commercialization of the device. 
</P>
<P>(9) A claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.34 or an environmental assessment under § 25.40. 
</P>
<P>(10) Copies of all labeling for the device. 
</P>
<P>(11) Copies of all forms and informational materials to be provided to subjects to obtain informed consent. 
</P>
<P>(12) Any other relevant information FDA requests for review of the application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information.</I> FDA may request additional information concerning an investigation or revision in the investigational plan. The sponsor may treat such a request as a disapproval of the application for purposes of requesting a hearing under part 16. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information previously submitted.</I> Information previously submitted to the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, as applicable, in accordance with this chapter ordinarily need not be resubmitted, but may be incorporated by reference.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 8956, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 16669, Apr. 26, 1985; 53 FR 11252, Apr. 6, 1988; 61 FR 51530, Oct. 2, 1996; 62 FR 40600, July 29, 1997; 64 FR 10942, Mar. 8, 1999; 73 FR 49942, Aug. 25, 2008; 84 FR 68339, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.25   Investigational plan.</HEAD>
<P>The investigational plan shall include, in the following order: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The name and intended use of the device and the objectives and duration of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protocol.</I> A written protocol describing the methodology to be used and an analysis of the protocol demonstrating that the investigation is scientifically sound. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk analysis.</I> A description and analysis of all increased risks to which subjects will be exposed by the investigation; the manner in which these risks will be minimized; a justification for the investigation; and a description of the patient population, including the number, age, sex, and condition. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Description of device.</I> A description of each important component, ingredient, property, and principle of operation of the device and of each anticipated change in the device during the course of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Monitoring procedures.</I> The sponsor's written procedures for monitoring the investigation and the name and address of any monitor. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Labeling.</I> Copies of all labeling for the device. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consent materials.</I> Copies of all forms and informational materials to be provided to subjects to obtain informed consent. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>IRB information.</I> A list of the names, locations, and chairpersons of all IRB's that have been or will be asked to review the investigation, and a certification of any action taken by any of those IRB's with respect to the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other institutions.</I> The name and address of each institution at which a part of the investigation may be conducted that has not been identified in paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Additional records and reports.</I> A description of records and reports that will be maintained on the investigation in addition to those prescribed in subpart G. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.27" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.27   Report of prior investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The report of prior investigations shall include reports of all prior clinical, animal, and laboratory testing of the device and shall be comprehensive and adequate to justify the proposed investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific contents.</I> The report also shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A bibliography of all publications, whether adverse or supportive, that are relevant to an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the device, copies of all published and unpublished adverse information, and, if requested by an IRB or FDA, copies of other significant publications. 
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of all other unpublished information (whether adverse or supportive) in the possession of, or reasonably obtainable by, the sponsor that is relevant to an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the device. 
</P>
<P>(3) If information on nonclinical laboratory studies is provided, a statement that all such studies have been conducted in compliance with applicable requirements in the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58, or if any such study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with this requirement does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant nonclinical test study.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) If data from clinical investigations conducted in the United States are provided, a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with applicable requirements in the protection of human subjects regulations in part 50 of this chapter, the institutional review boards regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and the investigational device exemptions regulations in this part, or if any such investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(ii) If data from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States are provided to support the IDE, the requirements under § 812.28 apply. If any such investigation was not conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP) as described in § 812.28(a), the report of prior investigations shall include either a waiver request in accordance with § 812.28(c) or a brief statement of the reason for not conducting the investigation in accordance with GCP and a description of steps taken to ensure that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 50 FR 7518, Feb. 22, 1985; 83 FR 7385, Feb. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.28" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.28   Acceptance of data from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptance of data from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission (an application under section 515 or 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a premarket notification submission under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or a request for De Novo classification under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act).</I> FDA will accept information on a clinical investigation conducted outside the United States to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission if the investigation is well-designed and well-conducted and the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement is provided that the investigation was conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP). For the purposes of this section, GCP is defined as a standard for the design, conduct, performance, monitoring, auditing, recording, analysis, and reporting of clinical investigations in a way that provides assurance that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects are protected. GCP includes review and approval (or provision of a favorable opinion) by an independent ethics committee (IEC) before initiating an investigation, continuing review of an ongoing investigation by an IEC, and obtaining and documenting the freely given informed consent of the subject (or a subject's legally authorized representative, if the subject is unable to provide informed consent) before initiating an investigation. GCP does not require informed consent in life-threatening situations when the IEC reviewing the investigation finds, before initiation of the investigation, that informed consent is not feasible and either that the conditions present are consistent with those described in § 50.23 or § 50.24(a) of this chapter, or that the measures described in the protocol or elsewhere will protect the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the information required elsewhere in parts 807, 812, and 814 of this chapter, as applicable, the information in paragraph (b) of this section is submitted, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For an investigation of a significant risk device, as defined in § 812.3(m), the supporting information as described in paragraph (b) of this section is submitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an investigation of a device, other than a significant risk device, the supporting information as described in paragraphs (b)(1), (4), (5), (7) through (9), and (11) of this section is submitted, and the supporting information as described in paragraph (b)(10) of this section and the rationale for determining the investigation is of a device other than a significant risk device are made available for agency review upon request by FDA.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a device investigation that meets the exemption criteria in § 812.2(c), the supporting information as described in paragraphs (b)(1), (4), (5), (7) through (11) of this section and the rationale for determining the investigation meets the exemption criteria in § 812.2(c) are made available for agency review upon request by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA is able to validate the data from the investigation through an onsite inspection, or through other appropriate means, if the agency deems it necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supporting information.</I> A sponsor or applicant who submits data from a clinical investigation conducted outside the United States to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission, in addition to information required elsewhere in parts 807, 812, and 814 of this chapter, as applicable, shall provide a description of the actions the sponsor or applicant took to ensure that the research conformed to GCP as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The description is not required to duplicate information already submitted in the application or submission. Instead, the description must provide either the following information, as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or a cross-reference to another section of the application or submission where the information is located:
</P>
<P>(1) The names of the investigators and the names and addresses of the research facilities and sites where records relating to the investigation are maintained;
</P>
<P>(2) The investigator's qualifications;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the research facility(ies);
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed summary of the protocol and results of the investigation and, should FDA request, case records maintained by the investigator or additional background data such as hospital or other institutional records;
</P>
<P>(5) Either a statement that the device used in the investigation conducted outside the United States is identical to the device that is the subject of the submission or application, or a detailed description of the device and each important component (including all materials and specifications), ingredient, property, and principle of operation of the device used in the investigation conducted outside the United States and a comparison to the device that is the subject of the submission or application that indicates how the device used in the investigation is similar to and/or different from the device that is the subject of the submission or application;
</P>
<P>(6) If the investigation is intended to support the safety and effectiveness of a device, a discussion demonstrating that the data and information constitute valid scientific evidence within the meaning of § 860.7 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(7) The name and address of the IEC that reviewed the investigation and a statement that the IEC meets the definition in § 812.3(t). The sponsor or applicant must maintain records supporting such statement, including records describing the qualifications of IEC members, and make these records available for agency review upon request;
</P>
<P>(8) A summary of the IEC's decision to approve or modify and approve the investigation, or to provide a favorable opinion;
</P>
<P>(9) A description of how informed consent was obtained;
</P>
<P>(10) A description of what incentives, if any, were provided to subjects to participate in the investigation;
</P>
<P>(11) A description of how the sponsor(s) monitored the investigation and ensured that the investigation was carried out consistently with the protocol; and
</P>
<P>(12) A description of how investigators were trained to comply with GCP (as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) and to conduct the investigation in accordance with the protocol, and a statement on whether written commitments by investigators to comply with GCP and the protocol were obtained. Any signed written commitments by investigators must be maintained by the sponsor or applicant and made available for agency review upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers.</I> (1) A sponsor or applicant may ask FDA to waive any applicable requirements under paragraphs (a)(1) and (b) of this section. A waiver request may be submitted in an IDE or in an amendment or supplement to an IDE, in a device marketing application or submission (an application under section 515 or 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a premarket notification submission under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or a request for De Novo classification under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act) or in an amendment or supplement to a device marketing application or submission, or in a pre-submission. A waiver request is required to contain at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation why the sponsor's or applicant's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary or cannot be achieved;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of an alternative submission or course of action that satisfies the purpose of the requirement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other information justifying a waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may grant a waiver if it finds that doing so would be in the interest of the public health.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> A sponsor or applicant must retain the records required by this section for a clinical investigation conducted outside the United States as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the investigation is submitted in support of an IDE, for 2 years after the termination or completion of the IDE; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the investigation is submitted in support of a premarket approval application, a notice of completion of a product development protocol, a humanitarian device exemption application, a premarket notification submission, or a request for De Novo classification, for 2 years after an agency decision on that submission or application.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Clinical investigations conducted outside of the United States that do not meet conditions.</I> For clinical investigations conducted outside the United States that do not meet the conditions under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA may accept the information from such clinical investigations to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission if FDA believes that the data and results from such clinical investigation are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 7386, Feb. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.30   FDA action on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval or disapproval.</I> FDA will notify the sponsor in writing of the date it receives an application. FDA may approve an investigation as proposed, approve it with modifications, or disapprove it. An investigation may not begin until: 
</P>
<P>(1) Thirty days after FDA receives the application at the address in § 812.19 for the investigation of a device other than a banned device, unless FDA notifies the sponsor that the investigation may not begin; or 
</P>
<P>(2) FDA approves, by order, an IDE for the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for disapproval or withdrawal.</I> FDA may disapprove or withdraw approval of an application if FDA finds that: 
</P>
<P>(1) There has been a failure to comply with any requirement of this part or the act, any other applicable regulation or statute, or any condition of approval imposed by an IRB or FDA. 
</P>
<P>(2) The application or a report contains an untrue statement of a material fact, or omits material information required by this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor fails to respond to a request for additional information within the time prescribed by FDA. 
</P>
<P>(4) There is reason to believe that the risks to the subjects are not outweighed by the anticipated benefits to the subjects and the importance of the knowledge to be gained, or informed consent is inadequate, or the investigation is scientifically unsound, or there is reason to believe that the device as used is ineffective. 
</P>
<P>(5) It is otherwise unreasonable to begin or to continue the investigation owing to the way in which the device is used or the inadequacy of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The report of prior investigations or the investigational plan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The methods, facilities, and controls used for the manufacturing, processing, packaging, storage, and, where appropriate, installation of the device; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitoring and review of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of disapproval or withdrawal.</I> If FDA disapproves an application or proposes to withdraw approval of an application, FDA will notify the sponsor in writing. 
</P>
<P>(1) A disapproval order will contain a complete statement of the reasons for disapproval and a statement that the sponsor has an opportunity to request a hearing under part 16. 
</P>
<P>(2) A notice of a proposed withdrawal of approval will contain a complete statement of the reasons for withdrawal and a statement that the sponsor has an opportunity to request a hearing under part 16. FDA will provide the opportunity for hearing before withdrawal of approval, unless FDA determines in the notice that continuation of testing under the exemption will result in an unreasonble risk to the public health and orders withdrawal of approval before any hearing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 58842, Sept. 5, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.35   Supplemental applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Changes in investigational plan</I>—(1) <I>Changes requiring prior approval.</I> Except as described in paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(4) of this section, a sponsor must obtain approval of a supplemental application under § 812.30(a), and IRB approval when appropriate (see §§ 56.110 and 56.111 of this chapter), prior to implementing a change to an investigational plan. If a sponsor intends to conduct an investigation that involves an exception to informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, the sponsor shall submit a separate investigational device exemption (IDE) application in accordance with § 812.20(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes effected for emergency use.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section regarding FDA approval of a supplement do not apply in the case of a deviation from the investigational plan to protect the life or physical well-being of a subject in an emergency. Such deviation shall be reported to FDA within 5-working days after the sponsor learns of it (see § 812.150(a)(4)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Changes effected with notice to FDA within 5 days.</I> A sponsor may make certain changes without prior approval of a supplemental application under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the sponsor determines that these changes meet the criteria described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(ii) of this section, on the basis of credible information defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, and the sponsor provides notice to FDA within 5-working days of making these changes.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Developmental changes.</I> The requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section regarding FDA approval of a supplement do not apply to developmental changes in the device (including manufacturing changes) that do not constitute a significant change in design or basic principles of operation and that are made in response to information gathered during the course of an investigation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Changes to clinical protocol.</I> The requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section regarding FDA approval of a supplement do not apply to changes to clinical protocols that do not affect:
</P>
<P>(A) The validity of the data or information resulting from the completion of the approved protocol, or the relationship of likely patient risk to benefit relied upon to approve the protocol;
</P>
<P>(B) The scientific soundness of the investigational plan; or
</P>
<P>(C) The rights, safety, or welfare of the human subjects involved in the investigation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Definition of credible information.</I> (A) Credible information to support developmental changes in the device (including manufacturing changes) includes data generated under the design and development activities of § 820.10(c) of this chapter, preclinical/animal testing, peer reviewed published literature, or other reliable information such as clinical information gathered during a trial or marketing.
</P>
<P>(B) Credible information to support changes to clinical protocols is defined as the sponsor's documentation supporting the conclusion that a change does not have a significant impact on the study design or planned statistical analysis, and that the change does not affect the rights, safety, or welfare of the subjects. Documentation shall include information such as peer reviewed published literature, the recommendation of the clinical investigator(s), and/or the data gathered during the clinical trial or marketing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Notice of IDE change.</I> Changes meeting the criteria in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(ii) of this section that are supported by credible information as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section may be made without prior FDA approval if the sponsor submits a notice of the change to the IDE not later than 5-working days after making the change. Changes to devices are deemed to occur on the date the device, manufactured incorporating the design or manufacturing change, is distributed to the investigator(s). Changes to a clinical protocol are deemed to occur when a clinical investigator is notified by the sponsor that the change should be implemented in the protocol or, for sponsor-investigator studies, when a sponsor-investigator incorporates the change in the protocol. Such notices shall be identified as a “notice of IDE change.”
</P>
<P>(A) For a developmental or manufacturing change to the device, the notice shall include a summary of the relevant information gathered during the course of the investigation upon which the change was based; a description of the change to the device or manufacturing process (cross-referenced to the appropriate sections of the original device description or manufacturing process); and, if the design and development activities of § 820.10(c) of this chapter were used to assess the change, a statement that no new risks were identified by appropriate risk analysis and that the verification and validation testing, as appropriate, demonstrated that the design outputs met the design input requirements. If another method of assessment was used, the notice shall include a summary of the information which served as the credible information supporting the change.
</P>
<P>(B) For a protocol change, the notice shall include a description of the change (cross-referenced to the appropriate sections of the original protocol); an assessment supporting the conclusion that the change does not have a significant impact on the study design or planned statistical analysis; and a summary of the information that served as the credible information supporting the sponsor's determination that the change does not affect the rights, safety, or welfare of the subjects.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changes submitted in annual report.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply to minor changes to the purpose of the study, risk analysis, monitoring procedures, labeling, informed consent materials, and IRB information that do not affect:
</P>
<P>(i) The validity of the data or information resulting from the completion of the approved protocol, or the relationship of likely patient risk to benefit relied upon to approve the protocol;
</P>
<P>(ii) The scientific soundness of the investigational plan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The rights, safety, or welfare of the human subjects involved in the investigation. Such changes shall be reported in the annual progress report for the IDE, under § 812.150(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>IRB approval for new facilities.</I> A sponsor shall submit to FDA a certification of any IRB approval of an investigation or a part of an investigation not included in the IDE application. If the investigation is otherwise unchanged, the supplemental application shall consist of an updating of the information required by § 812.20(b) and (c) and a description of any modifications in the investigational plan required by the IRB as a condition of approval. A certification of IRB approval need not be included in the initial submission of the supplemental application, and such certification is not a precondition for agency consideration of the application. Nevertheless, a sponsor may not begin a part of an investigation at a facility until the IRB has approved the investigation, FDA has received the certification of IRB approval, and FDA, under § 812.30(a), has approved the supplemental application relating to that part of the investigation (see § 56.103(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 25909, June 24, 1985; 50 FR 28932, July 17, 1985, as amended at 61 FR 51531, Oct. 2, 1996; 63 FR 64625, Nov. 23, 1998; 90 FR 55980, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.36" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.36   Treatment use of an investigational device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A device that is not approved for marketing may be under clinical investigation for a serious or immediately life-threatening disease or condition in patients for whom no comparable or satisfactory alternative device or other therapy is available. During the clinical trial or prior to final action on the marketing application, it may be appropriate to use the device in the treatment of patients not in the trial under the provisions of a treatment investigational device exemption (IDE). The purpose of this section is to facilitate the availability of promising new devices to desperately ill patients as early in the device development process as possible, before general marketing begins, and to obtain additional data on the device's safety and effectiveness. In the case of a serious disease, a device ordinarily may be made available for treatment use under this section after all clinical trials have been completed. In the case of an immediately life-threatening disease, a device may be made available for treatment use under this section prior to the completion of all clinical trials. For the purpose of this section, an “immediately life-threatening” disease means a stage of a disease in which there is a reasonable likelihood that death will occur within a matter of months or in which premature death is likely without early treatment. For purposes of this section, “treatment use”of a device includes the use of a device for diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> FDA shall consider the use of an investigational device under a treatment IDE if:
</P>
<P>(1) The device is intended to treat or diagnose a serious or immediately life-threatening disease or condition;
</P>
<P>(2) There is no comparable or satisfactory alternative device or other therapy available to treat or diagnose that stage of the disease or condition in the intended patient population;
</P>
<P>(3) The device is under investigation in a controlled clinical trial for the same use under an approved IDE, or such clinical trials have been completed; and
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor of the investigation is actively pursuing marketing approval/clearance of the investigational device with due diligence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications for treatment use.</I> (1) A treatment IDE application shall include, in the following order:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and telephone number of the sponsor of the treatment IDE;
</P>
<P>(ii) The intended use of the device, the criteria for patient selection, and a written protocol describing the treatment use;
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the rationale for use of the device, including, as appropriate, either a list of the available regimens that ordinarily should be tried before using the investigational device or an explanation of why the use of the investigational device is preferable to the use of available marketed treatments;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of clinical procedures, laboratory tests, or other measures that will be used to evaluate the effects of the device and to minimize risk;
</P>
<P>(v) Written procedures for monitoring the treatment use and the name and address of the monitor;
</P>
<P>(vi) Instructions for use for the device and all other labeling as required under § 812.5(a) and (b);
</P>
<P>(vii) Information that is relevant to the safety and effectiveness of the device for the intended treatment use. Information from other IDE's may be incorporated by reference to support the treatment use;
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement of the sponsor's commitment to meet all applicable responsibilities under this part and part 56 of this chapter and to ensure compliance of all participating investigators with the informed consent requirements of part 50 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ix) An example of the agreement to be signed by all investigators participating in the treatment IDE and certification that no investigator will be added to the treatment IDE before the agreement is signed; and
</P>
<P>(x) If the device is to be sold, the price to be charged and a statement indicating that the price is based on manufacturing and handling costs only.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensed practitioner who receives an investigational device for treatment use under a treatment IDE is an “investigator” under the IDE and is responsible for meeting all applicable investigator responsibilities under this part and parts 50 and 56 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FDA action on treatment IDE applications</I>—(1) <I>Approval of treatment IDE's.</I> Treatment use may begin 30 days after FDA receives the treatment IDE submission at the address specified in § 812.19, unless FDA notifies the sponsor in writing earlier than the 30 days that the treatment use may or may not begin. FDA may approve the treatment use as proposed or approve it with modifications.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disapproval or withdrawal of approval of treatment IDE's.</I> FDA may disapprove or withdraw approval of a treatment IDE if:
</P>
<P>(i) The criteria specified in § 812.36(b) are not met or the treatment IDE does not contain the information required in § 812.36(c);
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA determines that any of the grounds for disapproval or withdrawal of approval listed in § 812.30(b)(1) through (b)(5) apply;
</P>
<P>(iii) The device is intended for a serious disease or condition and there is insufficient evidence of safety and effectiveness to support such use;
</P>
<P>(iv) The device is intended for an immediately life-threatening disease or condition and the available scientific evidence, taken as a whole, fails to provide a reasonable basis for concluding that the device:
</P>
<P>(A) May be effective for its intended use in its intended population; or
</P>
<P>(B) Would not expose the patients to whom the device is to be administered to an unreasonable and significant additional risk of illness or injury;
</P>
<P>(v) There is reasonable evidence that the treatment use is impeding enrollment in, or otherwise interfering with the conduct or completion of, a controlled investigation of the same or another investigational device;
</P>
<P>(vi) The device has received marketing approval/clearance or a comparable device or therapy becomes available to treat or diagnose the same indication in the same patient population for which the investigational device is being used;
</P>
<P>(vii) The sponsor of the controlled clinical trial is not pursuing marketing approval/clearance with due diligence;
</P>
<P>(viii) Approval of the IDE for the controlled clinical investigation of the device has been withdrawn; or
</P>
<P>(ix) The clinical investigator(s) named in the treatment IDE are not qualified by reason of their scientific training and/or experience to use the investigational device for the intended treatment use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of disapproval or withdrawal.</I> If FDA disapproves or proposes to withdraw approval of a treatment IDE, FDA will follow the procedures set forth in § 812.30(c).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Safeguards.</I> Treatment use of an investigational device is conditioned upon the sponsor and investigators complying with the safeguards of the IDE process and the regulations governing informed consent (part 50 of this chapter) and institutional review boards (part 56 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The sponsor of a treatment IDE shall submit progress reports on a semi-annual basis to all reviewing IRB's and FDA until the filing of a marketing application. These reports shall be based on the period of time since initial approval of the treatment IDE and shall include the number of patients treated with the device under the treatment IDE, the names of the investigators participating in the treatment IDE, and a brief description of the sponsor's efforts to pursue marketing approval/clearance of the device. Upon filing of a marketing application, progress reports shall be submitted annually in accordance with § 812.150(b)(5). The sponsor of a treatment IDE is responsible for submitting all other reports required under § 812.150.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 48947, Sept. 18, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.38" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.38   Confidentiality of data and information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Existence of IDE.</I> FDA will not disclose the existence of an IDE unless its existence has previously been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, until FDA approves an application for premarket approval of the device subject to the IDE; or a notice of completion of a product development protocol for the device has become effective.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of summaries or data.</I> (1) FDA will make publicly available, upon request, a detailed summary of information concerning the safety and effectiveness of the device that was the basis for an order approving, disapproving, or withdrawing approval of an application for an IDE for a banned device. The summary shall include information on any adverse effect on health caused by the device.
</P>
<P>(2) If a device is a banned device or if the existence of an IDE has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, data or information contained in the file is not available for public disclosure before approval of an application for premarket approval or the effective date of a notice of completion of a product development protocol except as provided in this section. FDA may, in its discretion, disclose a summary of selected portions of the safety and effectiveness data, that is, clinical, animal, or laboratory studies and tests of the device, for public consideration of a specific pending issue.
</P>
<P>(3) If the existence of an IDE file has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the file are available for public disclosure except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, FDA will make available to the public, upon request, the information in the IDE that was required to be filed in Docket Number FDA-1995-S-0036 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, for investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Persons wishing to request this information shall submit a request under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports of adverse effects.</I> Upon request or on its own initiative, FDA shall disclose to an individual on whom an investigational device has been used a copy of a report of adverse device effects relating to that use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other rules.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, the availability for public disclosure of data and information in an IDE file shall be handled in accordance with § 814.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988; 61 FR 51531, Oct. 2, 1996; 88 FR 16880, Mar. 21, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Responsibilities of Sponsors</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.40   General responsibilities of sponsors.</HEAD>
<P>Sponsors are responsible for selecting qualified investigators and providing them with the information they need to conduct the investigation properly, ensuring proper monitoring of the investigation, ensuring that IRB review and approval are obtained, submitting an IDE application to FDA, and ensuring that any reviewing IRB and FDA are promptly informed of significant new information about an investigation. Additional responsibilities of sponsors are described in subparts B and G. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.42" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.42   FDA and IRB approval.</HEAD>
<P>A sponsor shall not begin an investigation or part of an investigation until an IRB and FDA have both approved the application or supplemental application relating to the investigation or part of an investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8957, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.43" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.43   Selecting investigators and monitors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Selecting investigators.</I> A sponsor shall select investigators qualified by training and experience to investigate the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control of device.</I> A sponsor shall ship investigational devices only to qualified investigators participating in the investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obtaining agreements.</I> A sponsor shall obtain from each participating investigator a signed agreement that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) The investigator's curriculum vitae.
</P>
<P>(2) Where applicable, a statement of the investigator's relevant experience, including the dates, location, extent, and type of experience.
</P>
<P>(3) If the investigator was involved in an investigation or other research that was terminated, an explanation of the circumstances that led to termination. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the investigator's commitment to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct the investigation in accordance with the agreement, the investigational plan, this part and other applicable FDA regulations, and conditions of approval imposed by the reviewing IRB or FDA; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Supervise all testing of the device involving human subjects; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the requirements for obtaining informed consent are met.
</P>
<P>(5) Sufficient accurate financial disclosure information to allow the sponsor to submit a complete and accurate certification or disclosure statement as required under part 54 of this chapter. The sponsor shall obtain a commitment from the clinical investigator to promptly update this information if any relevant changes occur during the course of the investigation and for 1 year following completion of the study. This information shall not be submitted in an investigational device exemption application, but shall be submitted in any marketing application involving the device.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Selecting monitors.</I> A sponsor shall select monitors qualified by training and experience to monitor the investigational study in accordance with this part and other applicable FDA regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.45   Informing investigators.</HEAD>
<P>A sponsor shall supply all investigators participating in the investigation with copies of the investigational plan and the report of prior investigations of the device.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.46" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.46   Monitoring investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securing compliance.</I> A sponsor who discovers that an investigator is not complying with the signed agreement, the investigational plan, the requirements of this part or other applicable FDA regulations, or any conditions of approval imposed by the reviewing IRB or FDA shall promptly either secure compliance, or discontinue shipments of the device to the investigator and terminate the investigator's participation in the investigation. A sponsor shall also require such an investigator to dispose of or return the device, unless this action would jeopardize the rights, safety, or welfare of a subject.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unanticipated adverse device effects.</I> (1) A sponsor shall immediately conduct an evaluation of any unanticipated adverse device effect.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor who determines that an unanticipated adverse device effect presents an unreasonable risk to subjects shall terminate all investigations or parts of investigations presenting that risk as soon as possible. Termination shall occur not later than 5 working days after the sponsor makes this determination and not later than 15 working days after the sponsor first received notice of the effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resumption of terminated studies.</I> If the device is a significant risk device, a sponsor may not resume a terminated investigation without IRB and FDA approval. If the device is not a significant risk device, a sponsor may not resume a terminated investigation without IRB approval and, if the investigation was terminated under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, FDA approval. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.47" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.47   Emergency research under § 50.24 of this chapter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sponsor shall monitor the progress of all investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. When the sponsor receives from the IRB information concerning the public disclosures under § 50.24(a)(7)(ii) and (iii) of this chapter, the sponsor shall promptly submit to the IDE file and to Docket Number FDA-1995-S-0036 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, copies of the information that was disclosed, identified by the IDE number.
</P>
<P>(b) The sponsor also shall monitor such investigations to determine when an IRB determines that it cannot approve the research because it does not meet the criteria in the exception in § 50.24(a) of this chapter or because of other relevant ethical concerns. The sponsor promptly shall provide this information in writing to FDA, investigators who are asked to participate in this or a substantially equivalent clinical investigation, and other IRB's that are asked to review this or a substantially equivalent investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 51531, Oct. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 10943, Mar. 8, 1999; 88 FR 16880, Mar. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—IRB Review and Approval</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.60   IRB composition, duties, and functions.</HEAD>
<P>An IRB reviewing and approving investigations under this part shall comply with the requirements of part 56 in all respects, including its composition, duties, and functions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8957, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.62" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.62   IRB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all investigations covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If no IRB exists or if FDA finds that an IRB's review is inadequate, a sponsor may submit an application to FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8957, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.64" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.64   IRB's continuing review.</HEAD>
<P>The IRB shall conduct its continuing review of an investigation in accordance with part 56.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8957, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.65" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.65   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.66" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.66   Significant risk device determinations.</HEAD>
<P>If an IRB determines that an investigation, presented for approval under § 812.2(b)(1)(ii), involves a significant risk device, it shall so notify the investigator and, where appropriate, the sponsor. A sponsor may not begin the investigation except as provided in § 812.30(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8957, Jan. 27, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Responsibilities of Investigators</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.100   General responsibilities of investigators.</HEAD>
<P>An investigator is responsible for ensuring that an investigation is conducted according to the signed agreement, the investigational plan and applicable FDA regulations, for protecting the rights, safety, and welfare of subjects under the investigator's care, and for the control of devices under investigation. An investigator also is responsible for ensuring that informed consent is obtained in accordance with part 50 of this chapter. Additional responsibilities of investigators are described in subpart G.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 8957, Jan. 27, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.110   Specific responsibilities of investigators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Awaiting approval.</I> An investigator may determine whether potential subjects would be interested in participating in an investigation, but shall not request the written informed consent of any subject to participate, and shall not allow any subject to participate before obtaining IRB and FDA approval. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance.</I> An investigator shall conduct an investigation in accordance with the signed agreement with the sponsor, the investigational plan, this part and other applicable FDA regulations, and any conditions of approval imposed by an IRB or FDA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervising device use.</I> An investigator shall permit an investigational device to be used only with subjects under the investigator's supervision. An investigator shall not supply an investigational device to any person not authorized under this part to receive it. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial disclosure.</I> A clinical investigator shall disclose to the sponsor sufficient accurate financial information to allow the applicant to submit complete and accurate certification or disclosure statements required under part 54 of this chapter. The investigator shall promptly update this information if any relevant changes occur during the course of the investigation and for 1 year following completion of the study.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disposing of device.</I> Upon completion or termination of a clinical investigation or the investigator's part of an investigation, or at the sponsor's request, an investigator shall return to the sponsor any remaining supply of the device or otherwise dispose of the device as the sponsor directs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.119" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.119   Disqualification of a clinical investigator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA has information indicating that an investigator (including a sponsor-investigator) has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the requirements of this part, part 50, or part 56 of this chapter, or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research will furnish the investigator written notice of the matter complained of and offer the investigator an opportunity to explain the matter in writing, or, at the option of the investigator, in an informal conference. If an explanation is offered and accepted by the applicable Center, the Center will discontinue the disqualification proceeding. If an explanation is offered but not accepted by the applicable Center, the investigator will be given an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter on the question of whether the investigator is eligible to receive test articles under this part and eligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) After evaluating all available information, including any explanation presented by the investigator, if the Commissioner determines that the investigator has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the requirements of this part, part 50, or part 56 of this chapter, or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Commissioner will notify the investigator, the sponsor of any investigation in which the investigator has been named as a participant, and the reviewing investigational review boards (IRBs) that the investigator is not eligible to receive test articles under this part. The notification to the investigator, sponsor and IRBs will provide a statement of the basis for such determination. The notification also will explain that an investigator determined to be ineligible to receive test articles under this part will be ineligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, including drugs, biologics, devices, new animal drugs, foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, and tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(c) Each application or submission to FDA under the provisions of this chapter containing data reported by an investigator who has been determined to be ineligible to receive FDA-regulated test articles is subject to examination to determine whether the investigator has submitted unreliable data that are essential to the continuation of an investigation or essential to the clearance or approval of a marketing application, or essential to the continued marketing of an FDA-regulated product.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the data remaining are inadequate to support a conclusion that it is reasonably safe to continue the investigation, the Commissioner will notify the sponsor, who shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter. If a danger to the public health exists, however, the Commissioner shall terminate the investigational device exemption (IDE) immediately and notify the sponsor and the reviewing IRBs of the termination. In such case, the sponsor shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA under part 16 of this chapter on the question of whether the IDE should be reinstated. The determination that an investigation may not be considered in support of a research or marketing application or a notification or petition submission does not, however, relieve the sponsor of any obligation under any other applicable regulation to submit to FDA the results of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the continued clearance or approval of the product for which the data were submitted cannot be justified, the Commissioner will proceed to rescind clearance or withdraw approval of the product in accordance with the applicable provisions of the relevant statutes.
</P>
<P>(f) An investigator who has been determined to be ineligible under paragraph (b) of this section may be reinstated as eligible when the Commissioner determines that the investigator has presented adequate assurances that the investigator will employ all test articles, and will conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, solely in compliance with the applicable provisions of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 25360, Apr. 30, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.140   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investigator records.</I> A participating investigator shall maintain the following accurate, complete, and current records relating to the investigator's participation in an investigation: 
</P>
<P>(1) All correspondence with another investigator, an IRB, the sponsor, a monitor, or FDA, including required reports. 
</P>
<P>(2) Records of receipt, use or disposition of a device that relate to: 
</P>
<P>(i) The type and quantity of the device, the dates of its receipt, and the batch number or code mark. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The names of all persons who received, used, or disposed of each device. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Why and how many units of the device have been returned to the sponsor, repaired, or otherwise disposed of. 
</P>
<P>(3) Records of each subject's case history and exposure to the device. Case histories include the case report forms and supporting data including, for example, signed and dated consent forms and medical records including, for example, progress notes of the physician, the individual's hospital chart(s), and the nurses' notes. Such records shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Documents evidencing informed consent and, for any use of a device by the investigator without informed consent, any written concurrence of a licensed physician and a brief description of the circumstances justifying the failure to obtain informed consent. The case history for each individual shall document that informed consent was obtained prior to participation in the study. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All relevant observations, including records concerning adverse device effects (whether anticipated or unanticipated), information and data on the condition of each subject upon entering, and during the course of, the investigation, including information about relevant previous medical history and the results of all diagnostic tests. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A record of the exposure of each subject to the investigational device, including the date and time of each use, and any other therapy. 
</P>
<P>(4) The protocol, with documents showing the dates of and reasons for each deviation from the protocol. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other records that FDA requires to be maintained by regulation or by specific requirement for a category of investigations or a particular investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor records.</I> A sponsor shall maintain the following accurate, complete, and current records relating to an investigation: 
</P>
<P>(1) All correspondence with another sponsor, a monitor, an investigator, an IRB, or FDA, including required reports. 
</P>
<P>(2) Records of shipment and disposition. Records of shipment shall include the name and address of the consignee, type and quantity of device, date of shipment, and batch number or code mark. Records of disposition shall describe the batch number or code marks of any devices returned to the sponsor, repaired, or disposed of in other ways by the investigator or another person, and the reasons for and method of disposal. 
</P>
<P>(3) Signed investigator agreements including the financial disclosure information required to be collected under § 812.43(c)(5) in accordance with part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For each investigation subject to § 812.2(b)(1) of a device other than a significant risk device, the records described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section and the following records, consolidated in one location and available for FDA inspection and copying: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name and intended use of the device and the objectives of the investigation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A brief explanation of why the device is not a significant risk device: 
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and address of each investigator: 
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and address of each IRB that has reviewed the investigation: 
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of the extent to which the good manufacturing practice regulation in part 820 will be followed in manufacturing the device; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other information required by FDA. 
</P>
<P>(5) Records concerning adverse device effects (whether anticipated or unanticipated) and complaints and 
</P>
<P>(6) Any other records that FDA requires to be maintained by regulation or by specific requirement for a category of investigation or a particular investigation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IRB records.</I> An IRB shall maintain records in accordance with part 56 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention period.</I> An investigator or sponsor shall maintain the records required by this subpart during the investigation and for a period of 2 years after the latter of the following two dates: The date on which the investigation is terminated or completed, or the date that the records are no longer required for purposes of supporting a premarket approval application, a notice of completion of a product development protocol, a humanitarian device exemption application, a premarket notification submission, or a request for De Novo classification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records custody.</I> An investigator or sponsor may withdraw from the responsibility to maintain records for the period required in paragraph (d) of this section and transfer custody of the records to any other person who will accept responsibility for them under this part, including the requirements of § 812.145. Notice of a transfer shall be given to FDA not later than 10 working days after transfer occurs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 58843, Sept. 5, 1980; 46 FR 8957, Jan. 27, 1981; 61 FR 57280, Nov. 5, 1996; 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998; 83 FR 7387, Feb. 21, 2018; 83 FR 7387, Feb. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.145" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.145   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Entry and inspection.</I> A sponsor or an investigator who has authority to grant access shall permit authorized FDA employees, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, to enter and inspect any establishment where devices are held (including any establishment where devices are manufactured, processed, packed, installed, used, or implanted or where records of results from use of devices are kept). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records inspection.</I> A sponsor, IRB, or investigator, or any other person acting on behalf of such a person with respect to an investigation, shall permit authorized FDA employees, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, to inspect and copy all records relating to an investigation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records identifying subjects.</I> An investigator shall permit authorized FDA employees to inspect and copy records that identify subjects, upon notice that FDA has reason to suspect that adequate informed consent was not obtained, or that reports required to be submitted by the investigator to the sponsor or IRB have not been submitted or are incomplete, inaccurate, false, or misleading.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 812.150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.9.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 812.150   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investigator reports.</I> An investigator shall prepare and submit the following complete, accurate, and timely reports: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unanticipated adverse device effects.</I> An investigator shall submit to the sponsor and to the reviewing IRB a report of any unanticipated adverse device effect occurring during an investigation as soon as possible, but in no event later than 10 working days after the investigator first learns of the effect. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Withdrawal of IRB approval.</I> An investigator shall report to the sponsor, within 5 working days, a withdrawal of approval by the reviewing IRB of the investigator's part of an investigation. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Progress.</I> An investigator shall submit progress reports on the investigation to the sponsor, the monitor, and the reviewing IRB at regular intervals, but in no event less often than yearly.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Deviations from the investigational plan.</I> An investigator shall notify the sponsor and the reviewing IRB (see § 56.108(a) (3) and (4)) of any deviation from the investigational plan to protect the life or physical well-being of a subject in an emergency. Such notice shall be given as soon as possible, but in no event later than 5 working days after the emergency occurred. Except in such an emergency, prior approval by the sponsor is required for changes in or deviations from a plan, and if these changes or deviations may affect the scientific soundness of the plan or the rights, safety, or welfare of human subjects, FDA and IRB in accordance with § 812.35(a) also is required.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Informed consent.</I> If an investigator uses a device without obtaining informed consent, the investigator shall report such use to the sponsor and the reviewing IRB within 5 working days after the use occurs. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Final report.</I> An investigator shall, within 3 months after termination or completion of the investigation or the investigator's part of the investigation, submit a final report to the sponsor and the reviewing IRB. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Other.</I> An investigator shall, upon request by a reviewing IRB or FDA, provide accurate, complete, and current information about any aspect of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor reports.</I> A sponsor shall prepare and submit the following complete, accurate, and timely reports: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unanticipated adverse device effects.</I> A sponsor who conducts an evaluation of an unanticipated adverse device effect under § 812.46(b) shall report the results of such evaluation to FDA and to all reviewing IRB's and participating investigators within 10 working days after the sponsor first receives notice of the effect. Thereafter the sponsor shall submit such additional reports concerning the effect as FDA requests. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Withdrawal of IRB approval.</I> A sponsor shall notify FDA and all reviewing IRB's and participating investigators of any withdrawal of approval of an investigation or a part of an investigation by a reviewing IRB within 5 working days after receipt of the withdrawal of approval. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Withdrawal of FDA approval.</I> A sponsor shall notify all reviewing IRB's and participating investigators of any withdrawal of FDA approval of the investigation, and shall do so within 5 working days after receipt of notice of the withdrawal of approval. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Current investigator list.</I> A sponsor shall submit to FDA, at 6-month intervals, a current list of the names and addresses of all investigators participating in the investigation. The sponsor shall submit the first such list 6 months after FDA approval. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Progress reports.</I> At regular intervals, and at least yearly, a sponsor shall submit progress reports to all reviewing IRB's. In the case of a significant risk device, a sponsor shall also submit progress reports to FDA. A sponsor of a treatment IDE shall submit semi-annual progress reports to all reviewing IRB's and FDA in accordance with § 812.36(f) and annual reports in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Recall and device disposition.</I> A sponsor shall notify FDA and all reviewing IRB's of any request that an investigator return, repair, or otherwise dispose of any units of a device. Such notice shall occur within 30 working days after the request is made and shall state why the request was made. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Final report.</I> In the case of a significant risk device, the sponsor shall notify FDA within 30 working days of the completion or termination of the investigation and shall submit a final report to FDA and all reviewing the IRB's and participating investigators within 6 months after completion or termination. In the case of a device that is not a significant risk device, the sponsor shall submit a final report to all reviewing IRB's within 6 months after termination or completion. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Informed consent.</I> A sponsor shall submit to FDA a copy of any report by an investigator under paragraph (a)(5) of this section of use of a device without obtaining informed consent, within 5 working days of receipt of notice of such use. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Significant risk device determinations.</I> If an IRB determines that a device is a significant risk device, and the sponsor had proposed that the IRB consider the device not to be a significant risk device, the sponsor shall submit to FDA a report of the IRB's determination within 5 working days after the sponsor first learns of the IRB's determination. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Other.</I> A sponsor shall, upon request by a reviewing IRB or FDA, provide accurate, complete, and current information about any aspect of the investigation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 3751, Jan. 18, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 58843, Sept. 5, 1980; 48 FR 15622, Apr. 12, 1983; 62 FR 48948, Sept. 18, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="813" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 813 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="814" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 814—PREMARKET APPROVAL OF MEDICAL DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 353, 360, 360c-360j, 360bbb-8b, 371, 372, 373, 374, 375, 379, 379e, 379k-1, 381.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section implements sections 515 and 515A of the act by providing procedures for the premarket approval of medical devices intended for human use.
</P>
<P>(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(c) This part applies to any class III medical device, unless exempt under section 520(g) of the act, that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Was not on the market (introduced or delivered for introduction into commerce for commercial distribution) before May 28, 1976, and is not substantially equivalent to a device on the market before May 28, 1976, or to a device first marketed on, or after that date, which has been classified into class I or class II; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is required to have an approved premarket approval application (PMA) or a declared completed product development protocol under a regulation issued under section 515(b) of the act; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Was regulated by FDA as a new drug or antibiotic drug before May 28, 1976, and therefore is governed by section 520(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(d) This part amends the conditions to approval for any PMA approved before the effective date of this part. Any condition to approval for an approved PMA that is inconsistent with this part is revoked. Any condition to approval for an approved PMA that is consistent with this part remains in effect. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish an efficient and thorough device review process— 
</P>
<P>(a) To facilitate the approval of PMA's for devices that have been shown to be safe and effective and that otherwise meet the statutory criteria for approval; and 
</P>
<P>(b) To ensure the disapproval of PMA's for devices that have not been shown to be safe and effective or that do not otherwise meet the statutory criteria for approval. This part shall be construed in light of these objectives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (sections 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended (21 U.S.C. 321-392)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IDE</I> means an approved or considered approved investigational device exemption under section 520(g) of the act and parts 812 and 813. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Master file</I> means a reference source that a person submits to FDA. A master file may contain detailed information on a specific manufacturing facility, process, methodology, or component used in the manufacture, processing, or packaging of a medical device. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>PMA</I> means any premarket approval application for a class III medical device, including all information submitted with or incorporated by reference therein. “PMA” includes a new drug application for a device under section 520(1) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>PMA amendment</I> means information an applicant submits to FDA to modify a pending PMA or a pending PMA supplement. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>PMA supplement</I> means a supplemental application to an approved PMA for approval of a change or modification in a class III medical device, including all information submitted with or incorporated by reference therein. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Person</I> includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, scientific or academic establishment, Government agency, or organizational unit thereof, or any other legal entity. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statement of material fact</I> means a representation that tends to show that the safety or effectiveness of a device is more probable than it would be in the absence of such a representation. A false affirmation or silence or an omission that would lead a reasonable person to draw a particular conclusion as to the safety or effectiveness of a device also may be a false statement of material fact, even if the statement was not intended by the person making it to be misleading or to have any probative effect. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>30-day PMA supplement</I> means a supplemental application to an approved PMA in accordance with § 814.39(e).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reasonable probability</I> means that it is more likely than not that an event will occur.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Serious, adverse health consequences</I> means any significant adverse experience, including those which may be either life-threatening or involve permanent or long term injuries, but excluding injuries that are nonlife-threatening and that are temporary and reasonably reversible. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>HDE</I> means a premarket approval application submitted pursuant to this subpart seeking a humanitarian device exemption from the effectiveness requirements of sections 514 and 515 of the act as authorized by section 520(m)(2) of the act.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>HUD</I> (<I>humanitarian use device</I>) means a medical device intended to benefit patients in the treatment or diagnosis of a disease or condition that affects or is manifested in not more than 8,000 individuals in the United States per year.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Newly acquired information</I> means data, analyses, or other information not previously submitted to the agency, which may include (but are not limited to) data derived from new clinical studies, reports of adverse events, or new analyses of previously submitted data (e.g., meta-analyses) if the studies, events or analyses reveal risks of a different type or greater severity or frequency than previously included in submissions to FDA.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Universal product code (UPC)</I> means the product identifier used to identify an item sold at retail in the United States.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Pediatric patients</I> means patients who are 21 years of age or younger (that is, from birth through the twenty-first year of life, up to but not including the twenty-second birthday) at the time of the diagnosis or treatment.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Readily available</I> means available in the public domain through commonly used public resources for conducting biomedical, regulatory, and medical product research.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 15190, Apr. 5, 1996; 61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996; 73 FR 49610, Aug. 22, 2008; 78 FR 58821, Sept. 24, 2013; 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014; 82 FR 26349, June 7, 2017] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.9   Confidentiality of data and information in a premarket approval application (PMA) file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “PMA file” includes all data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the PMA, any IDE incorporated into the PMA, any PMA supplement, any report under § 814.82, any master file, or any other related submission. Any record in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of this section and part 20. The confidentiality of information in a color additive petition submitted as part of a PMA is governed by § 71.15. 
</P>
<P>(b) The existence of a PMA file may not be disclosed by FDA before an approval order is issued to the applicant unless it previously has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the existence of a PMA file has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, data or information in the PMA file are not available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the existence of a PMA file has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged before an order approving, or an order denying approval of the PMA is issued, data or information contained in the file are not available for public disclosure before such order issues. FDA may, however, disclose a summary of portions of the safety and effectiveness data before an approval order or an order denying approval of the PMA issues if disclosure is relevant to public consideration of a specific pending issue. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, FDA will make available to the public upon request the information in the IDE that was required to be filed in Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., rm. 1-23, Rockville, MD 20857, for investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Persons wishing to request this information shall submit a request under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon issuance of an order approving, or an order denying approval of any PMA, FDA will make available to the public the fact of the existence of the PMA and a detailed summary of information submitted to FDA respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device that is the subject of the PMA and that is the basis for the order. 
</P>
<P>(f) After FDA issues an order approving, or an order denying approval of any PMA, the following data and information in the PMA file are immediately available for public disclosure: 
</P>
<P>(1) All safety and effectiveness data and information previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any protocol for a test or study unless the protocol is shown to constitute trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any adverse reaction report, product experience report, consumer complaint, and other similar data and information, after deletion of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any personnel, medical, and similar information disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy under § 20.63; provided, however, that except for the information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61, FDA will disclose to a patient who requests a report all the information in the report concerning that patient. 
</P>
<P>(4) A list of components previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81. 
</P>
<P>(5) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it does not serve any regulatory purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption in § 20.61 for trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information. 
</P>
<P>(6) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to the PMA file, in accordance with the provisions of §§ 20.103 and 20.104. 
</P>
<P>(g) All safety and effectiveness data and other information not previously disclosed to the public are available for public disclosure if any one of the following events occurs and the data and information do not constitute trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61: 
</P>
<P>(1) The PMA has been abandoned. FDA will consider a PMA abandoned if: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The applicant fails to respond to a request for additional information within 180 days after the date FDA issues the request or 
</P>
<P>(B) Other circumstances indicate that further work is not being undertaken with respect to it, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant fails to communicate with FDA within 7 days after the date on which FDA notifies the applicant that the PMA appears to have been abandoned. 
</P>
<P>(2) An order denying approval of the PMA has issued, and all legal appeals have been exhausted. 
</P>
<P>(3) An order withdrawing approval of the PMA has issued, and all legal appeals have been exhausted. 
</P>
<P>(4) The device has been reclassified. 
</P>
<P>(5) The device has been found to be substantially equivalent to a class I or class II device. 
</P>
<P>(6) The PMA is considered voluntarily withdrawn under § 814.44(g). 
</P>
<P>(h) The following data and information in a PMA file are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81, or they relate to a device for which a PMA has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61: 
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures. 
</P>
<P>(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which are not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 51531, Oct. 2, 1996; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.15   Research conducted outside the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data to support PMA.</I> If data from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States are submitted to support a PMA, the applicant shall comply with the provisions in § 812.28 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>As sole basis for marketing approval.</I> A PMA based solely on foreign clinical data and otherwise meeting the criteria for approval under this part may be approved if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign data are applicable to the U.S. population and U.S. medical practice; 
</P>
<P>(2) The studies have been performed by clinical investigators of recognized competence; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The data may be considered valid without the need for an on-site inspection by FDA or, if FDA considers such an inspection to be necessary, FDA can validate the data through an on-site inspection or other appropriate means. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation between FDA and applicants.</I> Applicants are encouraged to meet with FDA officials in a “presubmission” meeting when approval based solely on foreign data will be sought. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986; 51 FR 40415, Nov. 7, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 43344, Dec. 2, 1986; 83 FR 7387, Feb. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.17   Service of orders.</HEAD>
<P>Orders issued under this part will be served in person by a designated officer or employee of FDA on, or by registered mail to, the applicant or the designated agent at the applicant's or designated agent's last known address in FDA's records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.19" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.19   Product development protocol (PDP).</HEAD>
<P>A class III device for which a product development protocol has been declared completed by FDA under this chapter will be considered to have an approved PMA. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Premarket Approval Application (PMA)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.20   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant or an authorized representative shall sign the PMA. If the applicant does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the PMA shall be countersigned by an authorized representative residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States and shall identify the representative's name and address. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless the applicant justifies an omission in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, a PMA shall include in electronic format:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(2) A table of contents that specifies the volume and page number for each item referred to in the table. A PMA shall include separate sections on nonclinical laboratory studies and on clinical investigations involving human subjects. A PMA shall be submitted as a single version. The applicant shall include information that it believes to be trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information in the PMA and identify the information that it believes to be trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information.
</P>
<P>(3) A summary in sufficient detail that the reader may gain a general understanding of the data and information in the application. The summary shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indications for use.</I> A general description of the disease or condition the device will diagnose, treat, prevent, cure, or mitigate, including a description of the patient population for which the device is intended. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Device description.</I> An explanation of how the device functions, the basic scientific concepts that form the basis for the device, and the significant physical and performance characteristics of the device. A brief description of the manufacturing process should be included if it will significantly enhance the reader's understanding of the device. The generic name of the device as well as any proprietary name or trade name should be included. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Alternative practices and procedures.</I> A description of existing alternative practices or procedures for diagnosing, treating, preventing, curing, or mitigating the disease or condition for which the device is intended. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Marketing history.</I> A brief description of the foreign and U.S. marketing history, if any, of the device, including a list of all countries in which the device has been marketed and a list of all countries in which the device has been withdrawn from marketing for any reason related to the safety or effectiveness of the device. The description shall include the history of the marketing of the device by the applicant and, if known, the history of the marketing of the device by any other person. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Summary of studies.</I> An abstract of any information or report described in the PMA under paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results of technical data submitted under paragraph (b)(6) of this section. Such summary shall include a description of the objective of the study, a description of the experimental design of the study, a brief description of how the data were collected and analyzed, and a brief description of the results, whether positive, negative, or inconclusive. This section shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) A summary of the nonclinical laboratory studies submitted in the application; 
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of the clinical investigations involving human subjects submitted in the application including a discussion of subject selection and exclusion criteria, study population, study period, safety and effectiveness data, adverse reactions and complications, patient discontinuation, patient complaints, device failures and replacements, results of statistical analyses of the clinical investigations, contraindications and precautions for use of the device, and other information from the clinical investigations as appropriate (any investigation conducted under an IDE shall be identified as such). 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Conclusions drawn from the studies.</I> A discussion demonstrating that the data and information in the application constitute valid scientific evidence within the meaning of § 860.7 and provide reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective for its intended use. A concluding discussion shall present benefit and risk considerations related to the device including a discussion of any adverse effects of the device on health and any proposed additional studies or surveillance the applicant intends to conduct following approval of the PMA. 
</P>
<P>(4) A complete description of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The device, including pictorial representations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each of the functional components or ingredients of the device if the device consists of more than one physical component or ingredient; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The properties of the device relevant to the diagnosis, treatment, prevention, cure, or mitigation of a disease or condition; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The principles of operation of the device; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, packing, storage, and, where appropriate, installation of the device, in sufficient detail so that a person generally familiar with current good manufacturing practice can make a knowledgeable judgment about the quality control used in the manufacture of the device. 
</P>
<P>(5) Reference to any performance standard under section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or under section 534 of Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968) in effect or proposed at the time of the submission and to any voluntary standard that is relevant to any aspect of the safety or effectiveness of the device and that is known to or that should reasonably be known to the applicant. The applicant shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide adequate information to demonstrate how the device meets, or justify any deviation from, any performance standard established under section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or under section 534 of Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Explain any deviation from a voluntary standard.
</P>
<P>(6) The following technical sections which shall contain data and information in sufficient detail to permit FDA to determine whether to approve or deny approval of the application: 
</P>
<P>(i) A section containing results of the nonclinical laboratory studies with the device including microbiological, toxicological, immunological, biocompatibility, stress, wear, shelf life, and other laboratory or animal tests as appropriate. Information on nonclinical laboratory studies shall include a statement that each such study was conducted in compliance with part 58, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A section containing results of the clinical investigations involving human subjects with the device including clinical protocols, number of investigators and subjects per investigator, subject selection and exclusion criteria, study population, study period, safety and effectiveness data, adverse reactions and complications, patient discontinuation, patient complaints, device failures and replacements, tabulations of data from all individual subject report forms and copies of such forms for each subject who died during a clinical investigation or who did not complete the investigation, results of statistical analyses of the clinical investigations, device failures and replacements, contraindications and precautions for use of the device, and any other appropriate information from the clinical investigations. Any investigation conducted under an IDE shall be identified as such. Information on clinical investigations involving human subjects shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) For clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement with respect to each investigation that it either was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter; or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) For clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with part 812 of this chapter concerning sponsors of clinical investigations and clinical investigators, or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(C) For clinical investigations conducted outside the United States that are intended to support the PMA, the requirements under § 812.28 of this chapter apply. If any such investigation was not conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP) as described in § 812.28(a), include either a waiver request in accordance with § 812.28(c) or a brief statement of the reason for not conducting the investigation in accordance with GCP and a description of steps taken to ensure that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(7) For a PMA supported solely by data from one investigation, a justification showing that data and other information from a single investigator are sufficient to demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of the device and to ensure reproducibility of test results. 
</P>
<P>(8)(i) A bibliography of all published reports not submitted under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, whether adverse or supportive, known to or that should reasonably be known to the applicant and that concern the safety or effectiveness of the device. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification, discussion, and analysis of any other data, information, or report relevant to an evaluation of the safety and effectiveness of the device known to or that should reasonably be known to the applicant from any source, foreign or domestic, including information derived from investigations other than those proposed in the application and from commercial marketing experience. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Copies of such published reports or unpublished information in the possession of or reasonably obtainable by the applicant if an FDA advisory committee or FDA requests.
</P>
<P>(9) One or more samples of the device and its components, if requested by FDA. If it is impractical to submit a requested sample of the device, the applicant shall name the location at which FDA may examine and test one or more devices. 
</P>
<P>(10) Copies of all proposed labeling for the device. Such labeling may include, e.g., instructions for installation and any information, literature, or advertising that constitutes labeling under section 201(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(11) An environmental assessment under § 25.20(n) prepared in the applicable format in § 25.40, unless the action qualifies for exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.34. If the applicant believes that the action qualifies for exclusion, the PMA shall under § 25.15(a) and (d) provide information that establishes to FDA's satisfaction that the action requested is included within the excluded category and meets the criteria for the applicable exclusion. 
</P>
<P>(12) A financial certification or disclosure statement or both as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Information concerning uses in pediatric patients.</I> The application must include the following information, if readily available:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of any pediatric subpopulations (neonates, infants, children, adolescents) that suffer from the disease or condition that the device is intended to treat, diagnose, or cure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of affected pediatric patients.
</P>
<P>(14) Such other information as FDA may request. If necessary, FDA will obtain the concurrence of the appropriate FDA advisory committee before requesting additional information. 
</P>
<P>(c) Pertinent information in FDA files specifically referred to by an applicant may be incorporated into a PMA by reference. Information in a master file or other information submitted to FDA by a person other than the applicant will not be considered part of a PMA unless such reference is authorized in a record submitted to FDA by the person who submitted the information or the master file. If a master file is not referenced within 5 years after the date that it is submitted to FDA, FDA will return the master file to the person who submitted it.
</P>
<P>(d) If the applicant believes that certain information required under paragraph (b) of this section to be in a PMA is not applicable to the device that is the subject of the PMA, and omits any such information from its PMA, the applicant shall submit a statement that identifies the omitted information and justifies the omission. The statement shall be submitted as a separate section in the PMA and identified in the table of contents. If the justification for the omission is not accepted by the agency, FDA will so notify the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(e) The applicant shall periodically update its pending application with new safety and effectiveness information learned about the device from ongoing or completed studies that may reasonably affect an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the device or that may reasonably affect the statement of contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse reactions in the draft labeling. The update report shall be consistent with the data reporting provisions of the protocol. The applicant shall submit any update report in electronic format and shall include in the report the number assigned by FDA to the PMA. These updates are considered to be amendments to the PMA. The time frame for review of a PMA will not be extended due to the submission of an update report unless the update is a major amendment under § 814.37(c)(1). The applicant shall submit these reports—
</P>
<P>(1) 3 months after the filing date; 
</P>
<P>(2) Following receipt of an approvable letter; and 
</P>
<P>(3) At any other time as requested by FDA. 
</P>
<P>(f) If a color additive subject to section 721 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is used in or on the device and has not previously been listed for such use, then, in lieu of submitting a color additive petition under part 71 of this chapter, at the option of the applicant, the information required to be submitted under part 71 may be submitted as part of the PMA. When submitted as part of the PMA, the information shall be submitted in electronic format. A PMA for a device that contains a color additive that is subject to section 721 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act will not be approved until the color additive is listed for use in or on the device.
</P>
<P>(g) Additional information on FDA policies and procedures, as well as links to PMA guidance documents, is available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/HowtoMarketYourDevice/PremarketSubmissions/PremarketApprovalPMA/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(h) If you are sending a PMA, PMA amendment, PMA supplement, or correspondence with respect to a PMA, you must send the submission to the appropriate address as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send it to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send it to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send it to: Central Document Control Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986; 51 FR 40415, Nov. 7, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 43344, Dec. 2, 1986; 55 FR 11169, Mar. 27, 1990; 62 FR 40600, July 29, 1997; 63 FR 5253, Feb. 2, 1998; 65 FR 17137, Mar. 31, 2000; 65 FR 56480, Sept. 19, 2000; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 71 FR 42048, July 25, 2006; 72 FR 17399, Apr. 9, 2007; 73 FR 34859, June 19, 2008; 74 FR 14478, Mar. 31, 2009; 75 FR 20915, Apr. 22, 2010; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013; 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014; 80 FR 18094, Apr. 3, 2015; 83 FR 7387, Feb. 21, 2018; 84 FR 68339, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.37" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.37   PMA amendments and resubmitted PMAs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may amend a pending PMA or PMA supplement to revise existing information or provide additional information. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) FDA may request the applicant to amend a PMA or PMA supplement with any information regarding the device that is necessary for FDA or the appropriate advisory committee to complete the review of the PMA or PMA supplement.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may request the applicant to amend a PMA or PMA supplement with information concerning pediatric uses as required under §§ 814.20(b)(13) and 814.39(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) A PMA amendment submitted to FDA shall include the PMA or PMA supplement number assigned to the original submission and, if submitted on the applicant's own initiative, the reason for submitting the amendment. FDA may extend the time required for its review of the PMA, or PMA supplement, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the applicant on its own initiative or at FDA's request submits a major PMA amendment (e.g., an amendment that contains significant new data from a previously unreported study, significant updated data from a previously reported study, detailed new analyses of previously submitted data, or significant required information previously omitted), the review period may be extended up to 180 days. 
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant declines to submit a major amendment requested by FDA, the review period may be extended for the number of days that elapse between the date of such request and the date that FDA receives the written response declining to submit the requested amendment.
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant may on its own initiative withdraw a PMA or PMA supplement. If FDA requests an applicant to submit a PMA amendment and a written response to FDA's request is not received within 180 days of the date of the request, FDA will consider the pending PMA or PMA supplement to be withdrawn voluntarily by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(e) An applicant may resubmit a PMA or PMA supplement after withdrawing it or after it is considered withdrawn under paragraph (d) of this section, or after FDA has refused to accept it for filing, or has denied approval of the PMA or PMA supplement. A resubmitted PMA or PMA supplement shall comply with the requirements of § 814.20 or § 814.39, respectively, and shall include the PMA number assigned to the original submission and the applicant's reasons for resubmission of the PMA or PMA supplement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.39" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.39   PMA supplements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After FDA's approval of a PMA, an applicant shall submit a PMA supplement for review and approval by FDA before making a change affecting the safety or effectiveness of the device for which the applicant has an approved PMA, unless the change is of a type for which FDA, under paragraph (e) of this section, has advised that an alternate submission is permitted or is of a type which, under section 515(d)(6)(A) of the act and paragraph (f) of this section, does not require a PMA supplement under this paragraph. While the burden for determining whether a supplement is required is primarily on the PMA holder, changes for which an applicant shall submit a PMA supplement include, but are not limited to, the following types of changes if they affect the safety or effectiveness of the device:
</P>
<P>(1) New indications for use of the device. 
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling changes. 
</P>
<P>(3) The use of a different facility or establishment to manufacture, process, or package the device. 
</P>
<P>(4) Changes in sterilization procedures. 
</P>
<P>(5) Changes in packaging. 
</P>
<P>(6) Changes in the performance or design specifications, circuits, components, ingredients, principle of operation, or physical layout of the device. 
</P>
<P>(7) Extension of the expiration date of the device based on data obtained under a new or revised stability or sterility testing protocol that has not been approved by FDA. If the protocol has been approved, the change shall be reported to FDA under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant may make a change in a device after FDA's approval of a PMA for the device without submitting a PMA supplement if the change does not affect the device's safety or effectiveness and the change is reported to FDA in post approval periodic reports required as a condition to approval of the device, <I>e.g.,</I> an editorial change in labeling which does not affect the safety or effectiveness of the device, or if the change is consistent with a predetermined change control plan (PCCP) approved under section 515C of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) All procedures and actions that apply to an application under § 814.20 also apply to PMA supplements except that the information required in a supplement is limited to that needed to support the change. A summary under § 814.20(b)(3) is required for only a supplement submitted for new indications for use of the device, significant changes in the performance or design specifications, circuits, components, ingredients, principles of operation, or physical layout of the device, or when otherwise required by FDA. The applicant shall submit a PMA supplement in electronic format and shall include information relevant to the proposed changes in the device. A PMA supplement shall include a separate section that identifies each change for which approval is being requested and explains the reason for each such change. The applicant shall submit additional information, if requested by FDA, in electronic format. The time frames for review of, and FDA action on, a PMA supplement are the same as those provided in § 814.40 for a PMA.
</P>
<P>(2) The supplement must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Information concerning pediatric uses as required under § 814.20(b)(13).
</P>
<P>(ii) If information concerning the device that is the subject of the supplement was previously submitted under § 814.20(b)(13) or under this section in a previous supplement, that information may be included by referencing a previous application or submission that contains the information. However, if additional information required under § 814.20(b)(13) has become readily available to the applicant since the previous submission, the applicant must submit that information as part of the supplement.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) After FDA approves a PMA, any change described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section to reflect newly acquired information that enhances the safety of the device or the safety in the use of the device may be placed into effect by the applicant prior to the receipt under § 814.17 of a written FDA order approving the PMA supplement provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The PMA supplement and its mailing cover are plainly marked “Special PMA Supplement—Changes Being Effected”; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The PMA supplement provides a full explanation of the basis for the changes; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant has received acknowledgement from FDA of receipt of the supplement; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The PMA supplement specifically identifies the date that such changes are being effected. 
</P>
<P>(2) The following changes are permitted by paragraph (d)(1) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Labeling changes that add or strengthen a contraindication, warning, precaution, or information about an adverse reaction for which there is reasonable evidence of a causal association.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling changes that add or strengthen an instruction that is intended to enhance the safe use of the device. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Labeling changes that delete misleading, false, or unsupported indications. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes in quality controls or manufacturing process that add a new specification or test method, or otherwise provide additional assurance of purity, identity, strength, or reliability of the device. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) FDA will identify a change to a device for which an applicant has an approved PMA and for which a PMA supplement under paragraph (a) is not required. FDA will identify such a change in an advisory opinion under § 10.85, if the change applies to a generic type of device, or in correspondence to the applicant, if the change applies only to the applicant's device. FDA will require that a change for which a PMA supplement under paragraph (a) is not required be reported to FDA in:
</P>
<P>(i) A periodic report under § 814.84 or
</P>
<P>(ii) A 30-day PMA supplement under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will identify, in the advisory opinion or correspondence, the type of information that is to be included in the report or 30-day PMA supplement. If the change is required to be reported to FDA in a periodic report, the change may be made before it is reported to FDA. If the change is required to be reported in a 30-day PMA supplement, the change may be made 30 days after FDA files the 30-day PMA supplement unless FDA requires the PMA holder to provide additional information, informs the PMA holder that the supplement is not approvable, or disapproves the supplement. The 30-day PMA supplement shall follow the instructions in the correspondence or advisory opinion. Any 30-day PMA supplement that does not meet the requirements of the correspondence or advisory opinion will not be filed and, therefore, will not be deemed approved 30 days after receipt.
</P>
<P>(f) Under section 515(d) of the act, modifications to manufacturing procedures or methods of manufacture that affect the safety and effectiveness of a device subject to an approved PMA do not require submission of a PMA supplement under paragraph (a) of this section and are eligible to be the subject of a 30-day notice. A 30-day notice shall describe in detail the change, summarize the data or information supporting the change, and state that the change has been made in accordance with the requirements of part 820 of this chapter. The manufacturer may distribute the device 30 days after the date on which FDA receives the 30-day notice, unless FDA notifies the applicant within 30 days from receipt of the notice that the notice is not adequate. If the notice is not adequate, FDA shall inform the applicant in writing that a 135-day PMA supplement is needed and shall describe what further information or action is required for acceptance of such change. The number of days under review as a 30-day notice shall be deducted from the 135-day PMA supplement review period if the notice meets appropriate content requirements for a PMA supplement.
</P>
<P>(g) The submission and grant of a written request for an exception or alternative under § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter satisfies the requirement in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 43344, Dec. 2, 1986; 63 FR 54044, Oct. 8, 1998; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 69 FR 11313, Mar. 10, 2004; 72 FR 73602, Dec. 28, 2007; 73 FR 49610, Aug. 22, 2008; 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014; 84 FR 68340, Dec. 16, 2019; 89 FR 18793, Mar. 15, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—FDA Action on a PMA</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.40   Time frames for reviewing a PMA.</HEAD>
<P>Within 180 days after receipt of an application that is accepted for filing and to which the applicant does not submit a major amendment, FDA will review the PMA and, after receiving the report and recommendation of the appropriate FDA advisory committee, send the applicant an approval order under § 814.44(d), an approvable letter under § 814.44(e), a not approvable letter under § 814.44(f), or an order denying approval under § 814.45. The approvable letter and the not approvable letter will provide an opportunity for the applicant to amend or withdraw the application, or to consider the letter to be a denial of approval of the PMA under § 814.45 and to request administrative review under section 515 (d)(4) and (g) of the act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 87 FR 2045, Jan. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.42" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.42   Filing a PMA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The filing of an application means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the application is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review. Within 45 days after a PMA is received by FDA, the agency will notify the applicant whether the application has been filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA does not find that any of the reasons in paragraph (e) of this section for refusing to file the PMA applies, the agency will file the PMA and will notify the applicant in writing of the filing. The notice will include the PMA reference number and the date FDA filed the PMA. The date of filing is the date that a PMA accepted for filing was received by the agency. The 180-day period for review of a PMA starts on the date of filing. 
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA refuses to file a PMA, the agency will notify the applicant of the reasons for the refusal. This notice will identify the deficiencies in the application that prevent filing and will include the PMA reference number. 
</P>
<P>(d) If FDA refuses to file the PMA, the applicant may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Resubmit the PMA with additional information necessary to comply with the requirements of section 515(c)(1) (A)-(G) of the act and § 814.20. A resubmitted PMA shall include the PMA reference number of the original submission. If the resubmitted PMA is accepted for filing, the date of filing is the date FDA receives the resubmission; 
</P>
<P>(2) Request in writing within 10 working days of the date of receipt of the notice refusing to file the PMA, an informal conference with the Director of the associated Office of Health Technology to review FDA's decision not to file the PMA. FDA will hold the informal conference within 10 working days of its receipt of the request and will render its decision on filing within 5 working days after the informal conference. If, after the informal conference, FDA accepts the PMA for filing, the date of filing will be the date of the decision to accept the PMA for filing. If FDA does not reverse its decision not to file the PMA, the applicant may request reconsideration of the decision from the Director of the Office of Product Evaluation and Quality, the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, as applicable. The Director's decision will constitute final administrative action for the purpose of judicial review.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA may refuse to file a PMA if any of the following applies: 
</P>
<P>(1) The application is incomplete because it does not on its face contain all the information required under section 515(c)(1) (A)-(G) of the act;
</P>
<P>(2) The PMA does not contain each of the items required under § 814.20 and justification for omission of any item is inadequate; 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant has a pending premarket notification under section 510(k) of the act with respect to the same device, and FDA has not determined whether the device falls within the scope of § 814.1(c). 
</P>
<P>(4) The PMA contains a false statement of material fact. 
</P>
<P>(5) The PMA is not accompanied by a statement of either certification or disclosure as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 63 FR 5254, Feb. 2, 1998; 73 FR 49942, Aug. 25, 2008; 85 FR 18442, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.44" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.44   Procedures for review of a PMA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will begin substantive review of a PMA after the PMA is accepted for filing under § 814.42. FDA may refer the PMA to a panel on its own initiative, and will do so upon request of an applicant, unless FDA determines that the application substantially duplicates information previously reviewed by a panel. If FDA refers an application to a panel, FDA will forward the PMA, or relevant portions thereof, to each member of the appropriate FDA panel for review. During the review process, FDA may communicate with the applicant as set forth under § 814.37(b), or with a panel to respond to questions that may be posed by panel members or to provide additional information to the panel. FDA will maintain a record of all communications with the applicant and with the panel.
</P>
<P>(b) The advisory committee shall submit a report to FDA which includes the committee's recommendation and the basis for such recommendation on the PMA. Before submission of this report, the committee shall hold a public meeting to review the PMA in accordance with part 14. This meeting may be held by a telephone conference under § 14.22(g). The advisory committee report and recommendation may be in the form of a meeting transcript signed by the chairperson of the committee. 
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will complete its review of the PMA and the advisory committee report and recommendation and, within the later of 180 days from the date of filing of the PMA under § 814.42 or the number of days after the date of filing as determined under § 814.37(c), issue an approval order under paragraph (d) of this section, an approvable letter under paragraph (e) of this section, a not approvable letter under paragraph (f) of this section, or an order denying approval of the application under § 814.45(a). 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) FDA will issue to the applicant an order approving a PMA if none of the reasons in § 814.45 for denying approval of the application applies. FDA will approve an application on the basis of draft final labeling if the only deficiencies in the application concern editorial or similar minor deficiencies in the draft final labeling. Such approval will be conditioned upon the applicant incorporating the specified labeling changes exactly as directed and upon the applicant submitting to FDA a copy of the final printed labeling before marketing. FDA will also give the public notice of the order, including notice of and opportunity for any interested persons to request review under section 515(d)(4) of the act. The notice of approval will be placed on FDA's home page on the Internet (<I>http://www.fda.gov</I>), and it will state that a detailed summary of information respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device, which was the basis for the order approving the PMA, including information about any adverse effects of the device on health, is available on the Internet and has been placed on public display, and that copies are available upon request. When a notice of approval is published, data and information in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for copies of the current PMA approvals and denials document and for copies of summaries of safety and effectiveness shall be sent in writing to the Freedom of Information Staff's address listed on the Agency's website at <I>https://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will send the applicant an approvable letter if the application substantially meets the requirements of this part and the agency believes it can approve the application if specific additional information is submitted or specific conditions are agreed to by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(1) The approvable letter will describe the information FDA requires to be provided by the applicant or the conditions the applicant is required to meet to obtain approval. For example, FDA may require, as a condition to approval: 
</P>
<P>(i) The submission of certain information identified in the approvable letter, e.g., final labeling; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The submission of additional information concerning pediatric uses required by § 814.20(b)(13);
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDA inspection that finds the manufacturing facilities, methods, and controls in compliance with part 820 and, if applicable, that verifies records pertinent to the PMA; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Restrictions imposed on the device under section 515(d)(1)(B)(ii) or 520(e) of the act; 
</P>
<P>(v) Postapproval requirements as described in subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) In response to an approvable letter the applicant may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Amend the PMA as requested in the approvable letter; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Consider the approvable letter to be a denial of approval of the PMA under § 814.45 and request administrative review under section 515(d)(4) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Withdraw the PMA. 
</P>
<P>(f) FDA will send the applicant a not approvable letter if the agency believes that the application may not be approved for one or more of the reasons given in § 814.45(a). The not approvable letter will describe the deficiencies in the application, including each applicable ground for denial under section 515(d)(2) (A)-(E) of the act, and, where practical, will identify measures required to place the PMA in approvable form. In response to a not approvable letter, the applicant may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Amend the PMA as requested in the not approvable letter (such an amendment will be considered a major amendment under § 814.37(c)(1)); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the not approvable letter to be a denial of approval of the PMA under § 814.45 and request administrative review under section 515(d)(4) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Withdraw the PMA. 
</P>
<P>(g) FDA will consider a PMA to have been withdrawn voluntarily if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant fails to respond in writing to a written request for an amendment within 180 days after the date FDA issues such request; 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant fails to respond in writing to an approvable or not approvable letter within 180 days after the date FDA issues such letter; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant submits a written notice to FDA that the PMA has been withdrawn. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 57 FR 58403, Dec. 10, 1992; 63 FR 4572, Jan. 30, 1998; 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014; 87 FR 2045, Jan. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.45   Denial of approval of a PMA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may issue an order denying approval of a PMA if the applicant fails to follow the requirements of this part or if, upon the basis of the information submitted in the PMA or any other information before the agency, FDA determines that any of the grounds for denying approval of a PMA specified in section 515(d)(2) (A)-(E) of the act applies. In addition, FDA may deny approval of a PMA for any of the following reasons: 
</P>
<P>(1) The PMA contains a false statement of material fact; 
</P>
<P>(2) The device's proposed labeling does not comply with the requirements in part 801 or part 809; 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant does not permit an authorized FDA employee an opportunity to inspect at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner the facilities, controls, and to have access to and to copy and verify all records pertinent to the application; 
</P>
<P>(4) A nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the PMA and that is essential to show that the device is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the PMA, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter or GCP referenced in § 814.15(a) and described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected or the supporting data were determined to be otherwise unreliable.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will issue any order denying approval of the PMA in accordance with § 814.17. The order will inform the applicant of the deficiencies in the PMA, including each applicable ground for denial under section 515(d)(2) of the act and the regulations under this part, and, where practical, will identify measures required to place the PMA in approvable form. The order will include a notice of an opportunity to request review under section 515(d)(4) of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will use the criteria specified in § 860.7 to determine the safety and effectiveness of a device in deciding whether to approve or deny approval of a PMA. FDA may use information other than that submitted by the applicant in making such determination. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) FDA will give the public notice of an order denying approval of the PMA. The notice will be placed on the FDA's home page on the Internet (<I>http://www.fda.gov</I>), and it will state that a detailed summary of information respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device, including information about any adverse effects of the device on health, is available on the Internet and has been placed on public display and that copies are available upon request. When a notice of denial of approval is made publicly available, data and information in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for copies of the current PMA approvals and denials document and copies of summaries of safety and effectiveness shall be sent in writing to the Freedom of Information Staff's address listed on the Agency's Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will issue an order denying approval of a PMA after an approvable or not approvable letter has been sent and the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submits a requested amendment but any ground for denying approval of the application under section 515(d)(2) of the act still applies; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Notifies FDA in writing that the requested amendment will not be submitted; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Petitions for review under section 515(d)(4) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 63 FR 4572, Jan. 30, 1998; 73 FR 34859, June 19, 2008; 76 FR 31470, June 1, 2011; 79 FR 68115, Nov. 14, 2014; 83 FR 7387, Feb. 21, 2018; 87 FR 2045, Jan. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.46" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.46   Withdrawal of approval of a PMA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may issue an order withdrawing approval of a PMA if, from any information available to the agency, FDA determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) Any of the grounds under section 515(e)(1) (A)-(G) of the act applies. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any postapproval requirement imposed by the PMA approval order or by regulation has not been met. 
</P>
<P>(3) A nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the PMA and that is essential to show that the device is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the PMA, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter or GCP referenced in § 814.15(a) and described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected or the supporting data were determined to be otherwise unreliable.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) FDA may seek advice on scientific matters from any appropriate FDA advisory committee in deciding whether to withdraw approval of a PMA. 
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may use information other than that submitted by the applicant in deciding whether to withdraw approval of a PMA. 
</P>
<P>(c) Before issuing an order withdrawing approval of a PMA, FDA will issue the holder of the approved application a notice of opportunity for an informal hearing under part 16. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the applicant does not request a hearing or if after the part 16 hearing is held the agency decides to proceed with the withdrawal, FDA will issue to the holder of the approved application an order withdrawing approval of the application. The order will be issued under § 814.17, will state each ground for withdrawing approval, and will include a notice of an opportunity for administrative review under section 515(e)(2) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will give the public notice of an order withdrawing approval of a PMA. The notice will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and will state that a detailed summary of information respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device, including information about any adverse effects of the device on health, has been placed on public display and that copies are available upon request. When a notice of withdrawal of approval is published, data and information in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 83 FR 7387, Feb. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.47" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.47   Temporary suspension of approval of a PMA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section describes the procedures that FDA will follow in exercising its authority under section 515(e)(3) of the act (21 U.S.C. 360e(e)(3)). This authority applies to the original PMA, as well as any PMA supplement(s), for a medical device.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will issue an order temporarily suspending approval of a PMA if FDA determines that there is a reasonable probability that continued distribution of the device would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory hearing.</I> (1) If FDA believes that there is a reasonable probability that the continued distribution of a device subject to an approved PMA would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, FDA may initiate and conduct a regulatory hearing to determine whether to issue an order temporarily suspending approval of the PMA.
</P>
<P>(2) Any regulatory hearing to determine whether to issue an order temporarily suspending approval of a PMA shall be initiated and conducted by FDA pursuant to part 16 of this chapter. If FDA believes that immediate action to remove a dangerous device from the market is necessary to protect the public health, the agency may, in accordance with § 16.60(h) of this chapter, waive, suspend, or modify any part 16 procedure pursuant to § 10.19 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA shall deem the PMA holder's failure to request a hearing within the timeframe specified by FDA in the notice of opportunity for hearing to be a waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Temporary suspension order.</I> If the PMA holder does not request a regulatory hearing or if, after the hearing, and after consideration of the administrative record of the hearing, FDA determines that there is a reasonable probability that the continued distribution of a device under an approved PMA would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, the agency shall, under the authority of section 515(e)(3) of the act, issue an order to the PMA holder temporarily suspending approval of the PMA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permanent withdrawal of approval of the PMA.</I> If FDA issues an order temporarily suspending approval of a PMA, the agency shall proceed expeditiously, but within 60 days, to hold a hearing on whether to permanently withdraw approval of the PMA in accordance with section 515(e)(1) of the act and the procedures set out in § 814.46.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 15190, Apr. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Review [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Postapproval Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.80" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.80   General.</HEAD>
<P>A device may not be manufactured, packaged, stored, labeled, distributed, or advertised in a manner that is inconsistent with any conditions to approval specified in the PMA approval order for the device. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.82" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.82   Postapproval requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may impose postapproval requirements in a PMA approval order or by regulation at the time of approval of the PMA or by regulation subsequent to approval. Postapproval requirements may include as a condition to approval of the device: 
</P>
<P>(1) Restriction of the sale, distribution, or use of the device as provided by section 515(d)(1)(B)(ii) or 520(e) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Continuing evaluation and periodic reporting on the safety, effectiveness, and reliability of the device for its intended use. FDA will state in the PMA approval order the reason or purpose for such requirement and the number of patients to be evaluated and the reports required to be submitted. 
</P>
<P>(3) Prominent display in the labeling of a device and in the advertising of any restricted device of warnings, hazards, or precautions important for the device's safe and effective use, including patient information, e.g., information provided to the patient on alternative modes of therapy and on risks and benefits associated with the use of the device. 
</P>
<P>(4) Inclusion of identification codes on the device or its labeling, or in the case of an implant, on cards given to patients if necessary to protect the public health. 
</P>
<P>(5) Maintenance of records that will enable the applicant to submit to FDA information needed to trace patients if such information is necessary to protect the public health. Under section 519(a)(4) of the act, FDA will require that the identity of any patient be disclosed in records maintained under this paragraph only to the extent required for the medical welfare of the individual, to determine the safety or effectiveness of the device, or to verify a record, report, or information submitted to the agency. 
</P>
<P>(6) Maintenance of records for specified periods of time and organization and indexing of records into identifiable files to enable FDA to determine whether there is reasonable assurance of the continued safety and effectiveness of the device. 
</P>
<P>(7) Submission to FDA at intervals specified in the approval order of periodic reports containing the information required by § 814.84(b). 
</P>
<P>(8) Batch testing of the device. 
</P>
<P>(9) Such other requirements as FDA determines are necessary to provide reasonable assurance, or continued reasonable assurance, of the safety and effectiveness of the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant shall grant to FDA access to any records and reports required under the provisions of this part, and shall permit authorized FDA employees to copy and verify such records and reports and to inspect at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner all manufacturing facilities to verify that the device is being manufactured, stored, labeled, and shipped under approved conditions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to comply with any postapproval requirement constitutes a ground for withdrawal of approval of a PMA. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0231)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 43344, Dec. 2, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.84" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.84   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The holder of an approved PMA shall comply with the requirements of part 803 and with any other requirements applicable to the device by other regulations in this subchapter or by order approving the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless FDA specifies otherwise, any periodic report shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify changes described in § 814.39(a) and changes required to be reported to FDA under § 814.39(b). 
</P>
<P>(2) Contain a summary and bibliography of the following information not previously submitted as part of the PMA: 
</P>
<P>(i) Unpublished reports of data from any clinical investigations or nonclinical laboratory studies involving the device or related devices and known to or that reasonably should be known to the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reports in the scientific literature concerning the device and known to or that reasonably should be known to the applicant. If, after reviewing the summary and bibliography, FDA concludes that the agency needs a copy of the unpublished or published reports, FDA will notify the applicant that copies of such reports shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(3) Identify changes made pursuant to an exception or alternative granted under § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Identify each device identifier currently in use for the device, and each device identifier for the device that has been discontinued since the previous periodic report. It is not necessary to identify any device identifier discontinued prior to December 23, 2013.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 26364, July 22, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 43344, Dec. 2, 1986; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 72 FR 73602, Dec. 28, 2007; 78 FR 58822, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts F-G [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Humanitarian Use Devices</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 814.100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart H implements sections 515A and 520(m) of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of section 520(m) is, to the extent consistent with the protection of the public health and safety and with ethical standards, to encourage the discovery and use of devices intended to benefit patients in the treatment or diagnosis of diseases or conditions that affect or are manifested in not more than 8,000 individuals in the United States per year. This subpart provides procedures for obtaining:
</P>
<P>(1) HUD designation of a medical device; and
</P>
<P>(2) Marketing approval for the HUD notwithstanding the absence of reasonable assurance of effectiveness that would otherwise be required under sections 514 and 515 of the act.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 515A of the act is intended to ensure the submission of readily available information concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) Any pediatric subpopulations (neonates, infants, children, adolescents) that suffer from the disease or condition that the device is intended to treat, diagnose, or cure; and
</P>
<P>(2) The number of affected pediatric patients.
</P>
<P>(d) Although a HUD may also have uses that differ from the humanitarian use, applicants seeking approval of any non-HUD use shall submit a PMA as required under § 814.20, or a premarket notification as required under part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Obtaining marketing approval for a HUD involves two steps:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtaining designation of the device as a HUD from FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Submitting an HDE to the Office of Product Evaluation and Quality (OPEQ), Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) A person granted an exemption under section 520(m) of the act shall submit periodic reports as described in § 814.126(b).
</P>
<P>(g) FDA may suspend or withdraw approval of an HDE after providing notice and an opportunity for an informal hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 59220, Nov. 3, 1998; 73 FR 49942, Aug. 25, 2008; 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014; 82 FR 26349, June 7, 2017; 85 FR 18442, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.102" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.102   Designation of HUD status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for designation.</I> Prior to submitting an HDE application, the applicant shall submit a request for HUD designation to FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development. The request shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the applicant requests HUD designation for a rare disease or condition or a valid subset of a disease or condition which shall be identified with specificity; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the applicant, the name of the applicant's primary contact person and/or resident agent, including title, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the rare disease or condition for which the device is to be used, the proposed indication or indications for use of the device, and the reasons why such therapy is needed. If the device is proposed for an indication that represents a subset of a common disease or condition, a demonstration that the subset is medically plausible should be included;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the device and a discussion of the scientific rationale for the use of the device for the rare disease or condition; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Documentation, with appended authoritative references, to demonstrate that the device is designed to treat or diagnose a disease or condition that affects or is manifested in not more than 8,000 people in the United States per year. If the device is for diagnostic purposes, the documentation must demonstrate that not more than 8,000 patients per year would be subjected to diagnosis by the device in the United States. Authoritative references include literature citations in specialized medical journals, textbooks, specialized medical society proceedings, or governmental statistics publications. When no such studies or literature citations exist, the applicant may be able to demonstrate the prevalence of the disease or condition in the United States by providing credible conclusions from appropriate research or surveys. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDA action.</I> Within 45 days of receipt of a request for HUD designation, FDA will take one of the following actions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Approve the request and notify the applicant that the device has been designated as a HUD based on the information submitted;
</P>
<P>(2) Return the request to the applicant pending further review upon submission of additional information. This action will ensue if the request is incomplete because it does not on its face contain all of the information required under § 814.102(a). Upon receipt of this additional information, the review period may be extended up to 45 days; or
</P>
<P>(3) Disapprove the request for HUD designation based on a substantive review of the information submitted. FDA may disapprove a request for HUD designation if:
</P>
<P>(i) There is insufficient evidence to support the estimate that the disease or condition for which the device is designed to treat or diagnose affects or is manifested in not more than 8,000 people in the United States per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA determines that, for a diagnostic device, more than 8,000 patients in the United States would be subjected to diagnosis using the device per year; or
</P>
<P>(iii) FDA determines that the patient population defined in the request is not a medically plausible subset of a larger population.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Revocation of designation.</I> FDA may revoke a HUD designation if the agency finds that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The request for designation contained an untrue statement of material fact or omitted material information; or
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the evidence available, the device is not eligible for HUD designation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission.</I> The applicant shall submit two copies of a completed, dated, and signed request for HUD designation to: Office of Orphan Products Development (HF-35), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 26349, June 7, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.104" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.104   Original applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>United States applicant or representative.</I> The applicant or an authorized representative shall sign the HDE. If the applicant does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the HDE shall be countersigned by an authorized representative residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States and shall identify the representative's name and address.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> Unless the applicant justifies an omission in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, an HDE shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of or reference to the determination made by FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development (in accordance with § 814.102) that the device qualifies as a HUD;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of why the device would not be available unless an HDE were granted and a statement that no comparable device (other than another HUD approved under this subpart or a device under an approved IDE) is available to treat or diagnose the disease or condition. The application also shall contain a discussion of the risks and benefits of currently available devices or alternative forms of treatment in the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of why the probable benefit to health from the use of the device outweighs the risk of injury or illness from its use, taking into account the probable risks and benefits of currently available devices or alternative forms of treatment. Such explanation shall include a description, explanation, or theory of the underlying disease process or condition, and known or postulated mechanism(s) of action of the device in relation to the disease process or condition;
</P>
<P>(4) All of the information required to be submitted under § 814.20(b), except that:
</P>
<P>(i) In lieu of the summaries, conclusions, and results from clinical investigations required under § 814.20(b)(3)(v)(B), (b)(3)(vi), and the introductory text of (b)(6)(ii), the applicant shall include the summaries, conclusions, and results of all clinical experience or investigations (whether adverse or supportive) reasonably obtainable by the applicant that are relevant to an assessment of the risks and probable benefits of the device and to the extent the applicant includes data from clinical investigations, the applicant shall include the statements described in § 814.20(b)(6)(ii)(A) and (B) with respect to clinical investigations conducted in the United States and the information described in § 814.20(b)(6)(ii)(C) with respect to clinical investigations conducted outside the United States; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the proposed labeling requirement set forth in § 814.20(b)(10), the labeling shall bear the following statement: Humanitarian Device. Authorized by Federal law for use in the [treatment or diagnosis] of [specify disease or condition]. The effectiveness of this device for this use has not been demonstrated;
</P>
<P>(5) The amount to be charged for the device and, if the amount is more than $250, a report by an independent certified public accountant, made in accordance with the Statement on Standards for Attestation established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, or in lieu of such a report, an attestation by a responsible individual of the organization, verifying that the amount charged does not exceed the costs of the device's research, development, fabrication, and distribution. If the amount charged is $250 or less, the requirement for a report by an independent certified public accountant or an attestation by a responsible individual of the organization is waived; and
</P>
<P>(6) Information concerning pediatric uses of the device, as required by § 814.20(b)(13).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Omission of information.</I> If the applicant believes that certain information required under paragraph (b) of this section is not applicable to the device that is the subject of the HDE, and omits any such information from its HDE, the applicant shall submit a statement that identifies and justifies the omission. The statement shall be submitted as a separate section in the HDE and identified in the table of contents. If the justification for the omission is not accepted by the agency, FDA will so notify the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Address for submissions and correspondence.</I> All original HDEs, amendments and supplements, as well as any correspondence relating to an HDE, must be provided in electronic format. These materials must be sent or delivered to one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send it to the current address found on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send it to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send this information to the Central Document Control Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 59220, Nov. 3, 1998; 73 FR 49942, Aug. 25, 2008; 75 FR 20915, Apr. 22, 2010; 79 FR 1740, Jan. 10, 2014; 80 FR 18094, Apr. 3, 2015; 83 FR 7388, Feb. 21, 2018; 84 FR 68340, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.106" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.106   HDE amendments and resubmitted HDE's.</HEAD>
<P>An HDE or HDE supplement may be amended or resubmitted upon an applicant's own initiative, or at the request of FDA, for the same reasons and in the same manner as prescribed for PMA's in § 814.37, except that the timeframes set forth in § 814.37(c)(1) and (d) do not apply. If FDA requests an HDE applicant to submit an HDE amendment, and a written response to FDA's request is not received within 75 days of the date of the request, FDA will consider the pending HDE or HDE supplement to be withdrawn voluntarily by the applicant. Furthermore, if the HDE applicant, on its own initiative or at FDA's request, submits a major amendment as described in § 814.37(c)(1), the review period may be extended up to 75 days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59220, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.108" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.108   Supplemental applications.</HEAD>
<P>After FDA approval of an original HDE, an applicant shall submit supplements in accordance with the requirements for PMA's under § 814.39, except that a request for a new indication for use of a HUD shall comply with requirements set forth in § 814.110. The timeframes for review of, and FDA action on, an HDE supplement are the same as those provided in § 814.114 for an HDE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59220, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.110   New indications for use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant seeking a new indication for use of a HUD approved under this subpart H shall obtain a new designation of HUD status in accordance with § 814.102 and shall submit an original HDE in accordance with § 814.104.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a new indication for use made under § 814.104 may incorporate by reference any information or data previously submitted to the agency under an HDE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.112" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.112   Filing an HDE.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The filing of an HDE means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the application is sufficiently complete to permit substantive review. Within 30 days from the date an HDE is received by FDA, the agency will notify the applicant whether the application has been filed. FDA may refuse to file an HDE if any of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) The application is incomplete because it does not on its face contain all the information required under § 814.104(b);
</P>
<P>(2) FDA determines that there is a comparable device available (other than another HUD approved under this subpart or a device under an approved IDE) to treat or diagnose the disease or condition for which approval of the HUD is being sought; or
</P>
<P>(3) The application contains an untrue statement of material fact or omits material information.
</P>
<P>(4) The HDE is not accompanied by a statement of either certification or disclosure, or both, as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions contained in § 814.42(b), (c), and (d) regarding notification of filing decisions, filing dates, the start of the 75-day review period, and applicant's options in response to FDA refuse to file decisions shall apply to HDE's.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 5254, Feb. 2, 1998; 63 FR 59221, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.114" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.114   Timeframes for reviewing an HDE.</HEAD>
<P>Within 75 days after receipt of an HDE that is accepted for filing and to which the applicant does not submit a major amendment, FDA shall send the applicant an approval order, an approvable letter, a not approvable letter (under § 814.116), or an order denying approval (under § 814.118).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59221, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.116" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.116   Procedures for review of an HDE.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Substantive review.</I> FDA will begin substantive review of an HDE after the HDE is accepted for filing under § 814.112. FDA may refer an original HDE application to a panel on its own initiative, and shall do so upon the request of an applicant, unless FDA determines that the application substantially duplicates information previously reviewed by a panel. If the HDE is referred to a panel, the agency shall follow the procedures set forth under § 814.44, with the exception that FDA will complete its review of the HDE and the advisory committee report and recommendations within 75 days from receipt of an HDE that is accepted for filing under § 814.112 or the date of filing as determined under § 814.106, whichever is later. Within the later of these two timeframes, FDA will issue an approval order under paragraph (b) of this section, an approvable letter under paragraph (c) of this section, a not approvable letter under paragraph (d) of this section, or an order denying approval of the application under § 814.118(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval order.</I> FDA will issue to the applicant an order approving an HDE if none of the reasons in § 814.118 for denying approval of the application applies. FDA will approve an application on the basis of draft final labeling if the only deficiencies in the application concern editorial or similar minor deficiencies in the draft final labeling. Such approval will be conditioned upon the applicant incorporating the specified labeling changes exactly as directed and upon the applicant submitting to FDA a copy of the final printed labeling before marketing. The notice of approval of an HDE will be placed on the FDA's home page on the internet (<I>https://www.fda.gov</I>) in accordance with the rules and policies applicable to PMAs submitted under § 814.20. Following the issuance of an approval order, data and information in the HDE file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9(b) through (h), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approvable letter.</I> FDA will send the applicant an approvable letter if the application substantially meets the requirements of this subpart and the agency believes it can approve the application if specific additional information is submitted or specific conditions are agreed to by the applicant. The approvable letter will describe the information FDA requires to be provided by the applicant or the conditions the applicant is required to meet to obtain approval. For example, FDA may require as a condition to approval:
</P>
<P>(1) The submission of certain information identified in the approvable letter, e.g., final labeling;
</P>
<P>(2) The submission of additional information concerning pediatric uses of the device, as required by § 814.20(b)(13);
</P>
<P>(3) Restrictions imposed on the device under section 520(e) of the act;
</P>
<P>(4) Postapproval requirements as described in subpart E of this part; and
</P>
<P>(5) An FDA inspection that finds the manufacturing facilities, methods, and controls in compliance with part 820 of this chapter and, if applicable, that verifies records pertinent to the HDE. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Not approvable letter.</I> FDA will send the applicant a not approvable letter if the agency believes that the application may not be approved for one or more of the reasons given in § 814.118. The not approvable letter will describe the deficiencies in the application and, where practical, will identify measures required to place the HDE in approvable form. The applicant may respond to the not approvable letter in the same manner as permitted for not approvable letters for PMA's under § 814.44(f), with the exception that if a major HDE amendment is submitted, the review period may be extended up to 75 days.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will consider an HDE to have been withdrawn voluntarily if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant fails to respond in writing to a written request for an amendment within 75 days after the date FDA issues such request;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant fails to respond in writing to an approvable or not approvable letter within 75 days after the date FDA issues such letter; or
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant submits a written notice to FDA that the HDE has been withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 59221, Nov. 3, 1998; 79 FR 1741, Jan. 10, 2014; 87 FR 2045, Jan. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.118" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.118   Denial of approval or withdrawal of approval of an HDE.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may deny approval or withdraw approval of an application if the applicant fails to meet the requirements of section 520(m) of the act or of this part, or of any condition of approval imposed by an IRB or by FDA, or any postapproval requirements imposed under § 814.126. In addition, FDA may deny approval or withdraw approval of an application if, upon the basis of the information submitted in the HDE or any other information before the agency, FDA determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) There is a lack of a showing of reasonable assurance that the device is safe under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) The device is ineffective under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant has not demonstrated that there is a reasonable basis from which to conclude that the probable benefit to health from the use of the device outweighs the risk of injury or illness, taking into account the probable risks and benefits of currently available devices or alternative forms of treatment;
</P>
<P>(4) The application or a report submitted by or on behalf of the applicant contains an untrue statement of material fact, or omits material information;
</P>
<P>(5) The device's labeling does not comply with the requirements in part 801 or part 809 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(6) A nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the HDE and that is essential to show that the device is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 of this chapter and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study;
</P>
<P>(7) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the HDE, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected;
</P>
<P>(8) The applicant does not permit an authorized FDA employee an opportunity to inspect at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner the facilities and controls, and to have access to and to copy and verify all records pertinent to the application; or
</P>
<P>(9) The device's HUD designation should be revoked in accordance with § 814.102(c).
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA issues an order denying approval of an application, the agency will comply with the same notice and disclosure provisions required for PMA's under § 814.45(b) and (d), as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will issue an order denying approval of an HDE after an approvable or not approvable letter has been sent and the applicant:
</P>
<P>(1) Submits a requested amendment but any ground for denying approval of the application under § 814.118(a) still applies;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifies FDA in writing that the requested amendment will not be submitted; or
</P>
<P>(3) Petitions for review under section 515(d)(4) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Before issuing an order withdrawing approval of an HDE, FDA will provide the applicant with notice and an opportunity for a hearing as required for PMA's under § 814.46(c) and (d), and will provide the public with notice in accordance with § 814.46(e), as applicable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 59221, Nov. 3, 1998; 87 FR 2045, Jan. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.120   Temporary suspension of approval of an HDE.</HEAD>
<P>An HDE or HDE supplement may be temporarily suspended for the same reasons and in the same manner as prescribed for PMA's in § 814.47.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59221, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.122" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.122   Confidentiality of data and information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for disclosure.</I> The “HDE file” includes all data and information submitted with or referenced in the HDE, any IDE incorporated into the HDE, any HDE amendment or supplement, any report submitted under § 814.126, any master file, or any other related submission. Any record in the HDE file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of this section and part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extent of disclosure.</I> Disclosure by FDA of the existence and contents of an HDE file shall be subject to the same rules that pertain to PMA's under § 814.9(b) through (h), as applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.124" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.124   Institutional Review Board requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>IRB approval.</I> The HDE holder is responsible for ensuring that a HUD approved under this subpart is administered only in facilities having oversight by an Institutional Review Board (IRB) constituted and acting pursuant to part 56 of this chapter, including continuing review of use of the device. In addition, a HUD may be administered only if such use has been approved by an IRB. If, however, a physician in an emergency situation determines that approval from an IRB cannot be obtained in time to prevent serious harm or death to a patient, a HUD may be administered without prior approval by an IRB. In such an emergency situation, the physician shall, within 5 days after the use of the device, provide written notification to the chairman of the IRB of such use. Such written notification shall include the identification of the patient involved, the date on which the device was used, and the reason for the use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Withdrawal of IRB approval.</I> A holder of an approved HDE shall notify FDA of any withdrawal of approval for the use of a HUD by a reviewing IRB within 5 working days after being notified of the withdrawal of approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 59221, Nov. 3, 1998; 82 FR 26349, June 7, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 814.126" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.11.7.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 814.126   Postapproval requirements and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An HDE approved under this subpart H shall be subject to the postapproval requirements and reports set forth under subpart E of this part, as applicable, with the exception of § 814.82(a)(7). In addition, medical device reports submitted to FDA in compliance with the requirements of part 803 of this chapter shall also be submitted to the IRB of record.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the reports identified in paragraph (a) of this section, the holder of an approved HDE shall prepare and submit the following complete, accurate, and timely reports:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Periodic reports.</I> An HDE applicant is required to submit reports in accordance with the approval order. Unless FDA specifies otherwise, any periodic report shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) An update of the information required under § 814.102(a) in a separately bound volume;
</P>
<P>(ii) An update of the information required under § 814.104(b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(5);
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of devices that have been shipped or sold since initial marketing approval under this subpart H and, if the number shipped or sold exceeds 8,000, an explanation and estimate of the number of devices used per patient. If a single device is used on multiple patients, the applicant shall submit an estimate of the number of patients treated or diagnosed using the device together with an explanation of the basis for the estimate;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information describing the applicant's clinical experience with the device since the HDE was initially approved. This information shall include safety information that is known or reasonably should be known to the applicant, medical device reports made under part 803 of this chapter, any data generated from the postmarketing studies, and information (whether published or unpublished) that is known or reasonably expected to be known by the applicant that may affect an evaluation of the safety of the device or that may affect the statement of contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse reactions in the device's labeling; and
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of any changes made to the device in accordance with supplements submitted under § 814.108. If information provided in the periodic reports, or any other information in the possession of FDA, gives the agency reason to believe that a device raises public health concerns or that the criteria for exemption are no longer met, the agency may require the HDE holder to submit additional information to demonstrate continued compliance with the HDE requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other.</I> An HDE holder shall maintain records of the names and addresses of the facilities to which the HUD has been shipped, correspondence with reviewing IRB's, as well as any other information requested by a reviewing IRB or FDA. Such records shall be maintained in accordance with the HDE approval order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33244, June 26, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 59221, Nov. 3, 1998; 71 FR 16228, Mar. 31, 2006; 82 FR 26349, June 7, 2017]














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 820—QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM REGULATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360, 360c, 360d, 360e, 360h, 360i, 360j, 360l, 371, 374, 381, 383; 42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263a, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 7523, Feb. 2, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Current good manufacturing practice (CGMP) requirements are set forth in this quality management system regulation (QMSR). The requirements in this part govern the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the design, manufacture, packaging, labeling, storage, installation, and servicing of all finished devices intended for human use. The requirements in this part are intended to assure that finished devices will be safe and effective and otherwise in compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and that the use of other terminology, such as “safety and performance,” in this part does not change this statutory standard or the requirements of this part. Any manufacturers engaged in the design, manufacture, packaging, labeling, storage, installation, or servicing of a finished device must establish and maintain a quality management system that is appropriate for its specific device(s). Manufacturers subject to this part include, but are not limited to, manufacturers that perform the functions of contract sterilization, installation, relabeling, remanufacturing, repacking, or specification development, as well as initial distributors of foreign entities that perform these functions. If a manufacturer engages in only some operations subject to the requirements in this part, and not in others, that manufacturer need only comply with those requirements applicable to the operations in which it is engaged.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Finished devices.</I> The provisions of this part shall apply to any finished device, as defined in this part, intended for human use, that is manufactured in any State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or that is imported or offered for import into the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Components or parts.</I> The provisions of this part do not apply to manufacturers of components or parts of finished devices, but such manufacturers are encouraged to consider provisions of this regulation as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Blood and blood components.</I> The provisions of this part do not apply to manufacturers of blood and blood components used for transfusion or for further manufacturing. Such manufacturers are subject to subchapter F of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>HCT/Ps.</I> The provisions of this part apply to manufacturers of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps), as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter, that are devices (subject to premarket review or notification, or exempt from notification, under an application submitted under the device provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or under a biological product license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act). HCT/Ps regulated as devices are also subject to the donor-eligibility requirements set forth in part 1271, subpart C of this chapter and applicable current good tissue practice requirements in part 1271, subpart D of this chapter. In the event of a conflict between applicable regulations in part 1271 and in other parts of this chapter, the regulation specifically applicable to the device in question shall supersede the more general regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conflicts with other requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</I> The QMSR for devices in this part supplements regulations in other parts of this chapter except where explicitly stated otherwise. To the extent that any applicable requirements in this part conflict with requirements in other parts of this chapter, the requirements specifically applicable to the device in question shall supersede the more generally applicable requirements. Moreover, to the extent that any clauses of ISO 13485 (incorporated by reference, see § 820.7) conflict with any provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and/or its other implementing regulations, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and/or its other implementing regulations will control.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign manufacturers.</I> A device that is imported or offered for import into the United States is subject to refusal of admission to the United States under section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if, among other things, it appears to be adulterated as set forth in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions or variances.</I> (1) A manufacturer subject to any requirement under section 520(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including any requirements under this part, may petition for an exemption or variance from such requirement in accordance with section 520(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Petitions for an exemption or variance shall be submitted in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may initiate and grant a variance from any requirement(s) in this part when the Agency determines that such variance is in the best interest of the public health, including that there is a public health need for the device and the device would not likely be made sufficiently available without the variance. Such variance will remain in effect only so long as there remains a public health need for the device and the device would not likely be made sufficiently available without the variance.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in ISO 13485 and in Clause 3 of ISO 9000 (incorporated by reference, see § 820.7) apply to this part, except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and do not affect the meaning of similar terms defined in this title.
</P>
<P>(a) The following terms, which are either not used or not defined in ISO 13485 or in Clause 3 of ISO 9000, also apply for the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Batch</I> or <I>lot</I> means one or more components or finished devices that consist of a single type, model, class, size, composition, or software version that are manufactured under essentially the same conditions and that are intended to have uniform characteristics and quality within specified limits.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> means any raw material, substance, piece, part, software, firmware, labeling, or assembly that is intended to be included as part of the finished, packaged, and labeled device.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Finished device</I> means any device or accessory to any device that is suitable for use or capable of functioning, whether or not it is packaged, labeled, or sterilized.
</P>
<P><I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) of this chapter and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P><I>Remanufacturer</I> means any person who processes, conditions, renovates, repackages, restores, or does any other act to a finished device that significantly changes the finished device's performance or safety specifications, or intended use.
</P>
<P>(b) All definitions in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall apply to the regulation of quality management systems under this part and shall supersede the correlating terms and definitions in ISO 13485 (<I>e.g.,</I> the definitions of device and labeling in section 201(h) and (m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to this part and supersede the definitions for the correlating terms in ISO 13485 (labelling and medical device)). In addition, the following terms and definitions apply to this part and supersede the definitions for the correlating terms in ISO 13485 or ISO 9000:
</P>
<P><I>Implantable medical device</I> shall have the meaning of “implant” as defined in section 860.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means any person who designs, manufactures, fabricates, assembles, or processes a finished device. Manufacturer includes, but is not limited to, those who perform the functions of contract sterilization, installation, relabeling, remanufacturing, repacking, or specification development, and initial distributors of foreign entities performing these functions.
</P>
<P><I>Organization</I> shall have the meaning of “manufacturer” as defined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Rework</I> means action taken on a nonconforming product so that it will fulfill the specified requirements in the medical device file (MDF) before it is released for distribution.
</P>
<P><I>Safety and Performance</I> shall have the meaning of “safety and effectiveness” in Clause 0.1 of ISO 13485. The phrase “safety and performance” does not relieve a manufacturer from any obligation to implement controls or other measures that provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7523, Feb. 2, 2024; 89 FR 82945, Oct. 15, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.5   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.7   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Food and Drug Administration, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FDA at: Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852; 240-402-7500; <I>https://www.regulations.gov/document/FDA-2013-S-0610-0003.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> This material may be obtained from the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), BIBC II, Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; +41-22-749-01-11; <I>customerservice@iso.org, https://www.iso.org/store.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) ISO 9000:2015(E) (“ISO 9000”), <I>Quality Management systems—Fundamentals and vocabulary,</I> Clause 3—<I>Terms and definitions,</I> Fourth edition, September 15, 2015. IBR approved for § 820.3.
</P>
<P>(b) ISO 13485:2016(E) (“ISO 13485”), <I>Medical devices—Quality management systems—Requirements for regulatory purposes,</I> Third edition, March 1, 2016; IBR approved for §§ 820.1, 820.3, 820.10, 820.35, and 820.45.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.10   Requirements for a quality management system.</HEAD>
<P>A manufacturer subject to this part as described by § 820.1(a) must:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Document.</I> Document a quality management system that complies with the applicable requirements of ISO 13485 (incorporated by reference, see § 820.7) and other applicable requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicable regulatory requirements.</I> Comply, as appropriate, with the other applicable regulatory requirements in this title, including, but not limited to the following, to fully comply with the listed ISO 13485 Clause:
</P>
<P>(1) For Clause 7.5.8 in ISO 13485, Identification, the manufacturer must document a system to assign unique device identification to the medical device in accordance with the requirements of part 830 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For Clause 7.5.9.1 in ISO 13485, Traceability—General, the manufacturer must document procedures for traceability in accordance with the requirements of part 821 of this chapter, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) For Clause 8.2.3 in ISO 13485, Reporting to regulatory authorities, the manufacturer must notify FDA of complaints that meet the reporting criteria of part 803 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For Clauses 7.2.3, 8.2.3, and 8.3.3, advisory notices shall be handled in accordance with the requirements of part 806 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Design and development.</I> Manufacturers of class II, class III, and those class I devices listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and table 1 to paragraph (c)(2) of this section must comply with the requirements in Design and Development, Clause 7.3 and its Subclauses in ISO 13485. The class I devices are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Devices automated with computer software; and
</P>
<P>(2) The devices listed in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Device
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">868.6810</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Catheter, Tracheobronchial Suction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">878.4460</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Glove, Non-powdered Surgeon's.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">880.6760</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Restraint, Protective.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">892.5650</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">System, Applicator, Radionuclide, Manual.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">892.5740</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Source, Radionuclide Teletherapy.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Devices that support or sustain life.</I> Manufacturers of devices that support or sustain life, the failure of which to perform when properly used in accordance with instructions for use provided in the labeling can be reasonably expected to result in a significant injury, must comply with the requirements in Traceability for Implantable Devices, Clause 7.5.9.2 in ISO 13485, in addition to all other applicable requirements in this part, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement.</I> The failure to comply with any applicable requirement in this part renders a device adulterated under section 501(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Such a device, as well as any person responsible for the failure to comply, is subject to regulatory action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Supplemental Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 820.20—820.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 820.20--820.30   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.35   Control of records.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements of Clause 4.2.5 in ISO 13485 (incorporated by reference, see § 820.7), Control of Records, the manufacturer must include the following information in certain records:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Records of complaints.</I> In addition to Clause 8.2.2 in ISO 13485, Complaint Handling, the manufacturer shall maintain records of the review, evaluation, and investigation for any complaints involving the possible failure of a device, labeling, or packaging to meet any of its specifications. If an investigation has already been performed for a similar complaint, another investigation is not necessary, and the manufacturer shall maintain records documenting justification for not performing such investigation. For complaints that must be reported to FDA under part 803 of this chapter, complaints that a manufacturer determines must be investigated, and complaints that the manufacturer investigated regardless of those requirements, the manufacturer must record the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) The date the complaint was received;
</P>
<P>(3) Any unique device identifier (UDI) or universal product code (UPC), and any other device identification(s);
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and phone number of the complainant;
</P>
<P>(5) The nature and details of the complaint;
</P>
<P>(6) Any correction or corrective action taken; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any reply to the complainant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records of servicing activities.</I> In adhering to Clause 7.5.4 in ISO 13485, Servicing Activities, the manufacturer must record the following information, at a minimum, for servicing activities:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the device serviced;
</P>
<P>(2) Any UDI or UPC, and any other device identification(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The date of service;
</P>
<P>(4) The individual(s) who serviced the device;
</P>
<P>(5) The service performed; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any test and inspection data.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unique Device Identification.</I> In addition to the requirements of Clauses 7.5.1, 7.5.8, and 7.5.9 in ISO 13485, the UDI must be recorded for each medical device or batch of medical devices.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidentiality.</I> Records deemed confidential by the manufacturer may be marked to aid FDA in determining whether information may be disclosed under the public information regulation in part 20 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.45   Device labeling and packaging controls.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements of Clause 7.5.1 of ISO 13485 (incorporated by reference, see § 820.7), Control of production and service provision, each manufacturer must document and maintain procedures that provide a detailed description of the activities to ensure the integrity, inspection, storage, and operations for labeling and packaging, during the customary conditions of processing, storage, handling, distribution, and, as appropriate, use of the device.
</P>
<P>(a) The manufacturer must ensure labeling and packaging has been examined for accuracy prior to release or storage where applicable, to include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The correct unique device identifier (UDI) or universal product code (UPC), or any other device identification(s);
</P>
<P>(2) Expiration date;
</P>
<P>(3) Storage instructions;
</P>
<P>(4) Handling instructions; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any additional processing instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) The release of the labeling for use must be documented in accordance with Clause 4.2.5 of ISO 13485.
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer must ensure labeling and packaging operations have been established and maintained to prevent mixups, including, but not limited to, inspection of the labeling and packaging before use to assure that all devices have correct labeling and packaging, as specified in the medical device file. Results of such labeling inspection must be documented in accordance with Clause 4.2.5 of ISO 13485.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-O [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="821" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 821—MEDICAL DEVICE TRACKING REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 351, 352, 360, 360e, 360h, 360i, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part implement section 519(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), which provides that the Food and Drug Administration may require a manufacturer to adopt a method of tracking a class II or class III device, if the device meets one of the following three criteria and FDA issues an order to the manufacturer: the failure of the device would be reasonably likely to have serious adverse health consequences; or the device is intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year; or the device is a life-sustaining or life-supporting device used outside a device user facility. A device that meets one of these criteria and is the subject of an FDA order must comply with this part and is referred to, in this part, as a “tracked device.”
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations are intended to ensure that tracked devices can be traced from the device manufacturing facility to the person for whom the device is indicated, that is, the patient. Effective tracking of devices from the manufacturing facility, through the distributor network (including distributors, retailers, rental firms and other commercial enterprises, device user facilities, and licensed practitioners) and, ultimately, to the patient is necessary for the effectiveness of remedies prescribed by the act, such as patient notification (section 518(a) of the act) or device recall (section 518(e) of the act). Although these regulations do not preclude a manufacturer from involving outside organizations in that manufacturer's device tracking effort, the legal responsibility for complying with this part rests with manufacturers who are subject to tracking orders, and that responsibility cannot be altered, modified, or in any way abrogated by contracts or other agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) The primary burden for ensuring that the tracking system works rests upon the manufacturer. A manufacturer or any other person, including a distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor, who distributes a device subject to tracking, who fails to comply with any applicable requirement of section 519(e) of the act or of this part, or any person who causes such failure, misbrands the device within the meaning of section 502(t)(2) of the act and commits a prohibited act within the meaning of sections 301(e) and 301(q)(1)(B) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person subject to this part who permanently discontinues doing business is required to notify FDA at the time the person notifies any government agency, court, or supplier, and provide FDA with a complete set of its tracking records and information. However, if a person ceases distribution of a tracked device but continues to do other business, that person continues to be responsible for compliance with this part unless another person, affirmatively and in writing, assumes responsibility for continuing the tracking of devices previously distributed under this part. Further, if a person subject to this part goes out of business completely, but other persons acquire the right to manufacture or distribute tracked devices, those other persons are deemed to be responsible for continuing the tracking responsibility of the previous person under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 5951, Feb. 8, 2002; 73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.2   Exemptions and variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer, importer, or distributor may seek an exemption or variance from one or more requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for an exemption or variance shall be submitted in the form of a petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and shall comply with the requirements set out therein, except that a response shall be issued in 90 days. The Director or Deputy Directors, CDRH, or the Director or Principal Deputy Director of the Office of Product Evaluation and Quality, CDRH, shall issue responses to requests under this section. The petition shall also contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the device and device class and representative labeling showing the intended use(s) of the device; 
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons that compliance with the tracking requirements of this part is unnecessary; 
</P>
<P>(3) A complete description of alternative steps that are available, or that the petitioner has already taken, to ensure that an effective tracking system is in place; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other information justifying the exemption or variance.
</P>
<P>(c) An exemption or variance is not effective until the Director or Deputy Directors, CDRH, or the Director or Principal Deputy Director of the Office of Product Evaluation and Quality, CDRH, approves the request under § 10.30(e)(2)(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 31138, June 17, 1994; 67 FR 5951, Feb. 8, 2002; 72 FR 17399, Apr. 9, 2007; 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020; 86 FR 17065, Apr. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions and terms apply to this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Importer</I> means the initial distributor of an imported device who is subject to a tracking order. “Importer” does not include anyone who only furthers the marketing, e.g., brokers, jobbers, or warehousers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person, including any importer, repacker and/or relabeler, who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, or processes a device or engages in any of the activities described in § 807.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Device failure</I> means the failure of a device to perform or function as intended, including any deviations from the device's performance specifications or intended use.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Serious adverse health consequences</I> means any significant adverse experience related to a device, including device-related events which are life-threatening or which involve permanent or long-term injuries or illnesses.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Device intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year</I> means a device that is intended to be placed into a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body for more than 1 year to continuously assist, restore, or replace the function of an organ system or structure of the human body throughout the useful life of the device. The term does not include a device that is intended and used only for temporary purposes or that is intended for explantation in 1 year or less.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Life-supporting or life-sustaining device used outside a device user facility</I> means a device which is essential, or yields information that is essential, to the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life that is intended for use outside a hospital, nursing home, ambulatory surgical facility, or diagnostic or outpatient treatment facility. Physicians' offices are not device user facilities and, therefore, devices used therein are subject to tracking if they otherwise satisfy the statutory and regulatory criteria. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Distributor</I> means any person who furthers the distribution of a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes delivery or sale to the ultimate user, i.e., the final or multiple distributor, but who does not repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Final distributor</I> means any person who distributes a tracked device intended for use by a single patient over the useful life of the device to the patient. This term includes, but is not limited to, licensed practitioners, retail pharmacies, hospitals, and other types of device user facilities. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Distributes</I> means any distribution of a tracked device, including the charitable distribution of a tracked device. This term does not include the distribution of a device under an effective investigational device exemption in accordance with section 520(g) of the act and part 812 of this chapter or the distribution of a device for teaching, law enforcement, research, or analysis as specified in § 801.125 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Multiple distributor</I> means any device user facility, rental company, or any other entity that distributes a life-sustaining or life-supporting device intended for use by more than one patient over the useful life of the device. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Licensed practitioner</I> means a physician, dentist, or other health care practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which he or she practices to use or order the use of the tracked device.
</P>
<P>(m) Any term defined in section 201 of the act shall have the same definition in this part. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 5951, Feb. 8, 2002; 78 FR 58822, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.4   Imported devices.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the importer of a tracked device shall be considered the manufacturer and shall be required to comply with all requirements of this part applicable to manufacturers. Importers must keep all information required under this part in the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Tracking Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.20   Devices subject to tracking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer of any class II or class III device that fits within one of the three criteria within § 821.1(a) must track that device in accordance with this part, if FDA issues a tracking order to that manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(b) When responding to premarket notification submissions and premarket approval applications, FDA will notify the sponsor by issuing an order that states that FDA believes the device meets the criteria of section 519(e)(1) of the act and, by virtue of the order, the sponsor must track the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 5951, Feb. 8, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.25   Device tracking system and content requirements: manufacturer requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer of a tracked device shall adopt a method of tracking for each such type of device that it distributes that enables a manufacturer to provide FDA with the following information in writing for each tracked device distributed:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as required by order under section 518(e) of the act, within 3 working days of a request from FDA, prior to the distribution of a tracked device to a patient, the name, address, and telephone number of the distributor, multiple distributor, or final distributor holding the device for distribution and the location of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 working days of a request from FDA for tracked devices that are intended for use by a single patient over the life of the device, after distribution to or implantation in a patient:
</P>
<P>(i) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier necessary to provide for effective tracking of the devices;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the device was shipped by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient receiving the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the device was provided to the patient;
</P>
<P>(v) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician;
</P>
<P>(vi) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the physician regularly following the patient if different than the prescribing physician; and
</P>
<P>(vii) If applicable, the date the device was explanted and the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the explanting physician; the date of the patient's death; or the date the device was returned to the manufacturer, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as required by order under section 518(e) of the act, within 10 working days of a request from FDA for tracked devices that are intended for use by more than one patient, after the distribution of the device to the multiple distributor:
</P>
<P>(i) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier necessary to provide for effective tracking of the devices;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the device was shipped by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name, address, and telephone number of the multiple distributor;
</P>
<P>(iv) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient using the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);
</P>
<P>(v) The location of the device;
</P>
<P>(vi) The date the device was provided for use by the patient;
</P>
<P>(vii) The name, address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician; and
</P>
<P>(viii) If and when applicable, the date the device was returned to the manufacturer, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer of a tracked device shall keep current records in accordance with its standard operating procedure of the information identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2) and (a)(3)(i) through (a)(3)(iii) of this section on each tracked device released for distribution for as long as such device is in use or in distribution for use.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer of a tracked device shall establish a written standard operating procedure for the collection, maintenance, and auditing of the data specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. A manufacturer shall make this standard operating procedure available to FDA upon request. A manufacturer shall incorporate the following into the standard operating procedure:
</P>
<P>(1) Data collection and recording procedures, which shall include a procedure for recording when data which is required under this part is missing and could not be collected and the reason why such required data is missing and could not be collected;
</P>
<P>(2) A method for recording all modifications or changes to the tracking system or to the data collected and maintained under the tracking system, reasons for any modification or change, and dates of any modification or change. Modification and changes included under this requirement include modifications to the data (including termination of tracking), the data format, the recording system, and the file maintenance procedures system; and
</P>
<P>(3) A quality assurance program that includes an audit procedure to be run for each device product subject to tracking, at not less than 6-month intervals for the first 3 years of distribution and at least once a year thereafter. This audit procedure shall provide for statistically relevant sampling of the data collected to ensure the accuracy of data and performance testing of the functioning of the tracking system.
</P>
<P>(d) When a manufacturer becomes aware that a distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor has not collected, maintained, or furnished any record or information required by this part, the manufacturer shall notify the FDA district office responsible for the area in which the distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor is located of the failure of such persons to comply with the requirements of this part. Manufacturers shall have taken reasonable steps to obtain compliance by the distributor, multiple distributor, or final distributor in question before notifying FDA.
</P>
<P>(e) A manufacturer may petition for an exemption or variance from one or more requirements of this part according to the procedures in § 821.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 5951, Feb. 8, 2002; 78 FR 58822, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Additional Requirements and Responsibilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.30   Tracking obligations of persons other than device manufacturers: distributor requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor of any tracked device shall, upon purchasing or otherwise acquiring any interest in such a device, promptly provide the manufacturer tracking the device with the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the distributor, final distributor or multiple distributor;
</P>
<P>(2) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier used by the manufacturer to track the device;
</P>
<P>(3) The date the device was received;
</P>
<P>(4) The person from whom the device was received; 
</P>
<P>(5) If and when applicable, the date the device was explanted, the date of the patient's death, or the date the device was returned to the distributor, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.
</P>
<P>(b) A final distributor, upon sale or other distribution of a tracked device for use in or by the patient, shall promptly provide the manufacturer tracking the device with the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the final distributor,
</P>
<P>(2) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier used by the manufacturer to track the device;
</P>
<P>(3) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient receiving the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);
</P>
<P>(4) The date the device was provided to the patient or for use in the patient;
</P>
<P>(5) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician;
</P>
<P>(6) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the physician regularly following the patient if different than the prescribing physician; and
</P>
<P>(7) When applicable, the date the device was explanted and the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the explanting physician, the date of the patient's death, or the date the device was returned to the manufacturer, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A multiple distributor shall keep written records of the following each time such device is distributed for use by a patient: 
</P>
<P>(i) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier used by the manufacturer to track the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient using the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The location of the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the device was provided for use by the patient;
</P>
<P>(v) The name, address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician;
</P>
<P>(vi) The name, address, and telephone number of the physician regularly following the patient if different than the prescribing physician; and
</P>
<P>(vii) When applicable, the date the device was permanently retired from use or otherwise permanently disposed of.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as required by order under section 518(e) of the act, any person who is a multiple distributor subject to the recordkeeping requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall, within 5 working days of a request from the manufacturer or within 10 working days of a request from FDA for the information identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provide such information to the manufacturer or FDA.
</P>
<P>(d) A distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor shall make any records required to be kept under this part available to the manufacturer of the tracked device for audit upon written request by an authorized representative of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(e) A distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor may petition for an exemption or variance from one or more requirements of this part according to the procedures in § 821.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 5951, Feb. 8, 2002; 78 FR 58822, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records and Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.50   Availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturers, distributors, multiple distributors, and final distributors shall, upon the presentation by an FDA representative of official credentials and the issuance of Form FDA 482 at the initiation of an inspection of an establishment or person under section 704 of the act, make each record and all information required to be collected and maintained under this part and all records and information related to the events and persons identified in such records available to FDA personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) Records and information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section shall be available to FDA personnel for purposes of reviewing, copying, or any other use related to the enforcement of the act and this part. Records required to be kept by this part shall be kept in a centralized point for each manufacturer or distributor within the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 43690, July 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.55" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.55   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any patient receiving a device subject to tracking requirements under this part may refuse to release, or refuse permission to release, the patient's name, address, telephone number, and social security number, or other identifying information for the purpose of tracking.
</P>
<P>(b) Records and other information submitted to FDA under this part shall be protected from public disclosure to the extent permitted under part 20 of this chapter, and in accordance with § 20.63 of this chapter, information contained in such records that would identify patient or research subjects shall not be available for public disclosure except as provided in those parts.
</P>
<P>(c) Patient names or other identifiers may be disclosed to a manufacturer or other person subject to this part or to a physician when the health or safety of the patient requires that such persons have access to the information. Such notification will be pursuant to agreement that the record or information will not be further disclosed except as the health aspects of the patient requires. Such notification does not constitute public disclosure and will not trigger the availability of the same information to the public generally.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43447, Aug. 16, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 5951, Feb. 8, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.13.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.60   Retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Persons required to maintain records under this part shall maintain such records for the useful life of each tracked device they manufacture or distribute. The useful life of a device is the time a device is in use or in distribution for use. For example, a record may be retired if the person maintaining the record becomes aware of the fact that the device is no longer in use, has been explanted, returned to the manufacturer, or the patient has died.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="822" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 822—POSTMARKET SURVEILLANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 331, 352, 360i, 360l, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 38887, June 6, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.1   What does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>This part implements section 522 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act by providing procedures and requirements for postmarket surveillance of class II and class III devices that meet any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) Failure of the device would be reasonably likely to have serious adverse health consequences;
</P>
<P>(b) The device is intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year;
</P>
<P>(c) The device is intended to be used outside a user facility to support or sustain life. If you fail to comply with requirements that we order under section 522 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part, your device is considered misbranded under section 502(t)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and you are in violation of section 301(q)(1)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(d) The device is expected to have significant use in pediatric populations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 38887, June 6, 2002, as amended at 88 FR 16880, Mar. 21, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.2   What is the purpose of this part?</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement our postmarket surveillance authority to maximize the likelihood that postmarket surveillance plans will result in the collection of useful data. These data can reveal unforeseen adverse events, the actual rate of anticipated adverse events, or other information necessary to protect the public health.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.3   How do you define the terms used in this part?</HEAD>
<P>Some of the terms we use in this part are specific to postmarket surveillance and reflect the language used in the statute (law). Other terms are more general and reflect our interpretation of the law. This section of the part defines the following terms:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designated person</I> means the individual who conducts or supervises the conduct of your postmarket surveillance. If your postmarket surveillance plan includes a team of investigators, as defined below, the designated person is the responsible leader of that team.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Device failure</I> means a device does not perform or function as intended, and includes any deviation from the device's performance specifications or intended use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General plan guidance</I> means agency guidance that provides information about the requirement to conduct postmarket surveillance, the submission of a plan to us for approval, the content of the submission, and the conduct and reporting requirements of the surveillance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigator</I> means an individual who collects data or information in support of a postmarket surveillance plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Life-supporting or life-sustaining device used outside a device user facility</I> means that a device is essential to, or yields information essential to, the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life and is used outside a hospital, nursing home, ambulatory surgical facility, or diagnostic or outpatient treatment facility. A physician's office is not a device user facility.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person, including any importer, repacker, and/or relabeler, who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, processes a device, or engages in any of the activities described in § 807.3(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Postmarket surveillance</I> means the active, systematic, scientifically valid collection, analysis, and interpretation of data or other information about a marketed device.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Prospective surveillance</I> means that the subjects are identified at the beginning of the surveillance and data or other information will be collected from that time forward (as opposed to retrospective surveillance).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Serious adverse health consequences</I> means any significant adverse experience related to a device, including device-related events that are life-threatening or that involve permanent or long-term injuries or illnesses.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Specific guidance</I> means guidance that provides information regarding postmarket surveillance for specific types or categories of devices or specific postmarket surveillance issues. This type of guidance may be used to supplement general guidance and may address such topics as the type of surveillance approach that is appropriate for the device and the postmarket surveillance question, sample size, or specific reporting requirements.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Surveillance question</I> means the issue or issues to be addressed by the postmarket surveillance.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Unforeseen adverse event</I> means any serious adverse health consequence that either is not addressed in the labeling of the device or occurs at a rate higher than anticipated.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A UDI is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 38887, June 6, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 58823, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.4   Does this part apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>If we have ordered you to conduct postmarket surveillance of a medical device under section 522 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, this part applies to you. We have the authority to order postmarket surveillance of any class II or class III medical device, including a device reviewed under the licensing provisions of section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, that meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) Failure of the device would be reasonably likely to have serious adverse health consequences;
</P>
<P>(b) The device is intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year;
</P>
<P>(c) The device is intended to be used to support or sustain life and to be used outside a user facility; or
</P>
<P>(d) The device is expected to have significant use in pediatric populations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 38887, June 6, 2002, as amended at 88 FR 16880, Mar. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Notification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.5   How will I know if I must conduct postmarket surveillance?</HEAD>
<P>We will send you a letter (the postmarket surveillance order) notifying you of the requirement to conduct postmarket surveillance. Before we send the order, or as part of the order, we may require that you submit information about your device that will allow us better to define the scope of a surveillance order. We will specify the device(s) subject to the surveillance order and the reason that we are requiring postmarket surveillance of the device under section 522 of the act. We will also provide you with any general or specific guidance that is available to help you develop your plan for conducting postmarket surveillance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.6" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.6   When will you notify me that I am required to conduct postmarket surveillance?</HEAD>
<P>We will notify you as soon as we have determined that postmarket surveillance of your device is necessary, based on the identification of a surveillance question. This may occur during the review of a marketing application for your device, as your device goes to market, or after your device has been marketed for a period of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.7   What should I do if I do not agree that postmarket surveillance is appropriate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you do not agree with our decision to order postmarket surveillance for a particular device, you may request review of our decision by:
</P>
<P>(1) Requesting a meeting with the Director of the Office that issued the order for postmarket surveillance;
</P>
<P>(2) Seeking internal review of the order under § 10.75 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Requesting an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(4) Requesting review by the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee.
</P>
<P>(b) You may obtain guidance documents that discuss these mechanisms from the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's (CDRH's) Web site (<I>http://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CDRH/CDRHOmbudsman/default.htm.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 38887, June 6, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 17399, Apr. 9, 2007; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013; 85 FR 18843, Apr. 2, 2020; 88 FR 16880, Mar. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Postmarket Surveillance Plan</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.8" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.8   When, where, and how must I submit my postmarket surveillance plan?</HEAD>
<P>You must submit your plan to conduct postmarket surveillance within 30 days of the date you receive the postmarket surveillance order. For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send your submission to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send your submission to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B, Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266. For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send your submission to the Document Mail Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. G609, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. When we receive your original submission, we will send you an acknowledgment letter identifying the unique document number assigned to your submission. You must use this number in any correspondence related to this submission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 17950, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.9   What must I include in my submission?</HEAD>
<P>Your submission must include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Organizational/administrative information:
</P>
<P>(1) Your name and address;
</P>
<P>(2) Generic and trade names of your device;
</P>
<P>(3) Name and address of the contact person for the submission;
</P>
<P>(4) Premarket application/submission number and device identifiers for your device;
</P>
<P>(5) Table of contents identifying the page numbers for each section of the submission;
</P>
<P>(6) Description of the device (this may be incorporated by reference to the appropriate premarket application/submission);
</P>
<P>(7) Product codes and a list of all relevant model numbers; and
</P>
<P>(8) Indications for use and claims for the device;
</P>
<P>(b) Postmarket surveillance plan;
</P>
<P>(c) Designated person information;
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and telephone number; and
</P>
<P>(2) Experience and qualifications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 38887, June 6, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 58823, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.10   What must I include in my surveillance plan?</HEAD>
<P>Your surveillance plan must include a discussion of:
</P>
<P>(a) The plan objective(s) addressing the surveillance question(s) identified in our order;
</P>
<P>(b) The subject of the study, e.g., patients, the device, animals;
</P>
<P>(c) The variables and endpoints that will be used to answer the surveillance question, e.g., clinical parameters or outcomes;
</P>
<P>(d) The surveillance approach or methodology to be used;
</P>
<P>(e) Sample size and units of observation;
</P>
<P>(f) The investigator agreement, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(g) Sources of data, e.g., hospital records;
</P>
<P>(h) The data collection plan and forms;
</P>
<P>(i) The consent document, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(j) Institutional Review Board information, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(k) The patient followup plan, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(l) The procedures for monitoring conduct and progress of the surveillance;
</P>
<P>(m) An estimate of the duration of surveillance;
</P>
<P>(n) All data analyses and statistical tests planned;
</P>
<P>(o) The content and timing of reports.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.11   What should I consider when designing my plan to conduct postmarket surveillance?</HEAD>
<P>You must design your surveillance to address the postmarket surveillance question identified in the order you received. You should consider what, if any, patient protection measures should be incorporated into your plan. You should also consider the function, operating characteristics, and intended use of your device when designing a surveillance approach.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.12   Do you have any information that will help me prepare my submission or design my postmarket surveillance plan?</HEAD>
<P>Guidance documents that discuss our current thinking on preparing a postmarket surveillance submission and designing a postmarket surveillance plan are available on the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's website, the Food and Drug Administration main website, and from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Office of Policy, Guidance and Policy Development, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5431, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. They do not establish legally enforceable rights or responsibilities and do not legally bind you or FDA. You may choose to use an approach other than the one set forth in a guidance document, as long as your alternative approach complies with the relevant statutes (laws) and regulations. If you wish, we will meet with you to discuss whether an alternative approach you are considering will satisfy the requirements of the act and regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 20915, Apr. 22, 2010, as amended at 87 FR 17950, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.14" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.14   May I reference information previously submitted instead of submitting it again?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, you may reference information that you have submitted in premarket submissions as well as other postmarket surveillance submissions. You must specify the information to be incorporated and the document number and pages where the information is located.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.15   How long must I conduct postmarket surveillance of my device?</HEAD>
<P>The length of postmarket surveillance will depend on the postmarket surveillance question identified in our order. We may order prospective surveillance for a period up to 36 months; longer periods require your agreement. If we believe that a prospective period of greater than 36 months is necessary to address the surveillance question, and you do not agree, we will use the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel to resolve the matter. You may obtain guidance regarding dispute resolution procedures from the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's (CDRH') Web site (<I>http://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CDRH/CDRHOmbudsman/default.htm.</I>). The 36-month period refers to the surveillance period, not the length of time from the issuance of the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 17400, Apr. 9, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—FDA Review and Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.16   What will you consider in the review of my submission?</HEAD>
<P>First, we will determine that the submission is administratively complete. Then, in accordance with the law, we must determine whether the designated person has appropriate qualifications and experience to conduct the surveillance and whether the surveillance plan will result in the collection of useful data that will answer the surveillance question.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.17   How long will your review of my submission take?</HEAD>
<P>We will review your submission within 60 days of receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.18   How will I be notified of your decision?</HEAD>
<P>We will send you a letter notifying you of our decision and identifying any action you must take.

 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.19" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.19   What kinds of decisions may you make?</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If your plan:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then we will send you:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">And you must:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) Should result in the collection of useful data that will address the postmarket surveillance question</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An approval order, identifying any specific requirements related to your postmarket surveillance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct postmarket surveillance of your device in accordance with the approved plan
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) Should result in the collection of useful data that will address the postmarket surveillance question after specific revisions are made or specific information is provided</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An approvable letter identifying the specific revisions or information that must be submitted before your plan can be approved</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Revise your postmarket surveillance submission to address the concerns in the approvable letter and submit it to us within the specified timeframe. We will determine the timeframe case-by-case, based on the types of revisions or information that you must submit
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) Does not meet the requirements specified in this part</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A letter disapproving your plan and identifying the reasons for disapproval</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Revise your postmarket surveillance submission and submit it to us within the specified timeframe. We will determine the timeframe case-by-case, based on the types of revisions or information that you must submit
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(d) Is not likely to result in the collection of useful data that will address the postmarket surveillance question</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A letter disapproving your plan and identifying the reasons for disapproval</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Revise your postmarket surveillance submission and submit it to us within the specified timeframe. We will determine the timeframe case-by-case, based on the types of revisions or information that you must submit</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.20   What are the consequences if I fail to submit a postmarket surveillance plan, my plan is disapproved and I fail to submit a new plan, or I fail to conduct surveillance in accordance with my approved plan?</HEAD>
<P>The failure to have an approved postmarket surveillance plan or failure to conduct postmarket surveillance in accordance with the approved plan constitutes failure to comply with section 522 of the act. Your failure would be a prohibited act under section 301(q)(1)(C) of the act, and your device would be misbranded under section 502(t)(3) of the act. We have the authority to initiate actions against products that are adulterated or misbranded, and against persons who commit prohibited acts. Adulterated or misbranded devices can be seized. Persons who commit prohibited acts can be enjoined from committing such acts, required to pay civil money penalties, or prosecuted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.21   What must I do if I want to make changes to my postmarket surveillance plan after you have approved it?</HEAD>
<P>You must receive our approval in writing before making changes in your plan that will affect the nature or validity of the data collected in accordance with the plan. To obtain our approval, you must submit the request to make the proposed change and revised postmarket surveillance plan to the applicable address listed in § 822.8. You may reference information already submitted in accordance with § 822.14. In your cover letter, you must identify your submission as a supplement and cite the unique document number that we assigned in our acknowledgment letter for your original submission, specifically identify the changes to the plan, and identify the reasons and justification for making the changes. You must report changes in your plan that will not affect the nature or validity of the data collected in accordance with the plan in the next interim report required by your approval order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 17950, Mar. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.22   What recourse do I have if I do not agree with your decision?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you disagree with us about the content of your plan or if we disapprove your plan, or if you believe there is a less burdensome approach that will answer the surveillance question, you may request review of our decision by:
</P>
<P>(1) Requesting a meeting with the individual who issued the order for postmarket surveillance;
</P>
<P>(2) Seeking internal review of the order under § 10.75 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Requesting an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(4) Requesting review by the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee.
</P>
<P>(b) You may obtain guidance documents that discuss these mechanisms from the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's (CDRH's) Web site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 38887, June 6, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 17400, Apr. 9, 2007; 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.23" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.23   Is the information in my submission considered confidential?</HEAD>
<P>We consider the content of your submission confidential until we have approved your postmarket surveillance plan. After we have approved your plan, the contents of the original submission and any amendments, supplements, or reports may be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act. We will continue to protect trade secret and confidential commercial information after your plan is approved. We will not disclose information identifying individual patients. You may wish to indicate in your submission which information you consider trade secret or confidential commercial.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Responsibilities of Manufacturers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.24" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.24   What are my responsibilities once I am notified that I am required to conduct postmarket surveillance?</HEAD>
<P>You must submit your plan to conduct postmarket surveillance to us within 30 days from receipt of the order (letter) notifying you that you are required to conduct postmarket surveillance of a device. The manufacturer shall commence surveillance not later than 15 months after the day the order was issued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 16880, Mar. 21, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.25   What are my responsibilities after my postmarket surveillance plan has been approved?</HEAD>
<P>After we have approved your plan, you must conduct the postmarket surveillance of your device in accordance with your approved plan. This means that you must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(a) Postmarket surveillance is initiated in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(b) The surveillance is conducted with due diligence;
</P>
<P>(c) The data identified in the plan is collected;
</P>
<P>(d) Any reports required as part of your approved plan are submitted to us in a timely manner; and
</P>
<P>(e) Any information that we request prior to your submission of a report or in response to our review of a report is provided in a timely manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.26" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.26   If my company changes ownership, what must I do?</HEAD>
<P>You must notify us within 30 days of any change in ownership of your company. Your notification should identify any changes to the name or address of the company, the contact person, or the designated person (as defined in § 822.3(b)). Your obligation to conduct postmarket surveillance will generally transfer to the new owner, unless you and the new owner have both agreed that you will continue to conduct the surveillance. If you will continue to conduct the postmarket surveillance, you still must notify us of the change in ownership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.27" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.27   If I go out of business, what must I do?</HEAD>
<P>You must notify us within 30 days of the date of your decision to close your business. You should provide the expected date of closure and discuss your plans to complete or terminate postmarket surveillance of your device. You must also identify who will retain the records related to the surveillance (described in subpart G of this part) and where the records will be kept.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.28" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.28   If I stop marketing the device subject to postmarket surveillance, what must I do?</HEAD>
<P>You must continue to conduct postmarket surveillance in accordance with your approved plan even if you no longer market the device. You may request that we allow you to terminate postmarket surveillance or modify your postmarket surveillance because you no longer market the device. We will make these decisions on a case-by-case basis, and you must continue to conduct the postmarket surveillance unless we notify you that you may stop your surveillance study.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Waivers and Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.29" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.29   May I request a waiver of a specific requirement of this part?</HEAD>
<P>You may request that we waive any specific requirement of this part. You may submit your request, with supporting documentation, separately or as a part of your postmarket surveillance submission to the address in § 822.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.30   May I request exemption from the requirement to conduct postmarket surveillance?</HEAD>
<P>You may request exemption from the requirement to conduct postmarket surveillance for your device or any specific model of that device at any time. You must comply with the requirements of this part unless and until we grant an exemption for your device. Your request for exemption must explain why you believe we should exempt the device or model from postmarket surveillance. You should demonstrate why the surveillance question does not apply to your device or does not need to be answered for the device for which you are requesting exemption. Alternatively, you may provide information that answers the surveillance question for your device, with supporting documentation, to the address in § 822.8.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Records and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.31" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.31   What records am I required to keep?</HEAD>
<P>You must keep copies of:
</P>
<P>(a) All correspondence with your investigators or FDA, including required reports;
</P>
<P>(b) Signed agreements from each of your investigators, if your surveillance plan uses investigators, stating the commitment to conduct the surveillance in accordance with the approved plan, any applicable FDA regulations, and any conditions of approval for your plan, such as reporting requirements;
</P>
<P>(c) Your approved postmarket surveillance plan, with documentation of the date and reason for any deviation from the plan;
</P>
<P>(d) All data collected and analyses conducted in support of your postmarket surveillance plan; and
</P>
<P>(e) Any other records that we require to be maintained by regulation or by order, such as copies of signed consent documents, evidence of Institutional Review Board review and approval, etc.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.32" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.32   What records are the investigators in my surveillance plan required to keep?</HEAD>
<P>Your investigator must keep copies of:
</P>
<P>(a) All correspondence between investigators, FDA, the manufacturer, and the designated person, including required reports.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved postmarket surveillance plan, with documentation of the date and reason for any deviation from the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) All data collected and analyses conducted at that site for postmarket surveillance.
</P>
<P>(d) Any other records that we require to be maintained by regulation or by order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.33" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.33   How long must we keep the records?</HEAD>
<P>You, the designated person, and your investigators must keep all records for a period of 2 years after we have accepted your final report, unless we specify otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.34" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.34   What must I do with the records if the sponsor of the plan or an investigator in the plan changes?</HEAD>
<P>If the sponsor of the plan or an investigator in the plan changes, you must ensure that all records related to the postmarket surveillance have been transferred to the new sponsor or investigator and notify us within 10 working days of the effective date of the change. You must provide the name, address, and telephone number of the new sponsor or investigator, certify that all records have been transferred, and provide the date of transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.35   Can you inspect my manufacturing site or other sites involved in my postmarket surveillance plan?</HEAD>
<P>We can review your postmarket surveillance programs during regularly scheduled inspections, inspections initiated to investigate recalls or other similar actions, and inspections initiated specifically to review your postmarket surveillance plan. We may also inspect any other person or site involved in your postmarket surveillance, such as investigators or contractors. Any person authorized to grant access to a facility must permit authorized FDA employees to enter and inspect any facility where the device is held or where records regarding postmarket surveillance are held.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.36" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.36   Can you inspect and copy the records related to my postmarket surveillance plan?</HEAD>
<P>We may, at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner, inspect and copy any records pertaining to the conduct of postmarket surveillance that are required to be kept by this regulation. You must be able to produce records and information required by this regulation that are in the possession of others under contract with you to conduct the postmarket surveillance. Those who have signed agreements or are under contract with you must also produce the records and information upon our request. This information must be produced within 72 hours of the initiation of the inspection. We generally will redact information pertaining to individual subjects prior to copying those records, unless there are extenuating circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.37" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.37   Under what circumstances would you inspect records identifying subjects?</HEAD>
<P>We can inspect and copy records identifying subjects under the same circumstances that we can inspect any records relating to postmarket surveillance. We are likely to be interested in such records if we have reason to believe that required reports have not been submitted, or are incomplete, inaccurate, false, or misleading.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 822.38" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.14.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 822.38   What reports must I submit to you?</HEAD>
<P>You must submit interim and final reports as specified in your approved postmarket surveillance plan. In addition, we may ask you to submit additional information when we believe that the information is necessary for the protection of the public health and implementation of the act. We will also state the reason or purpose for the request and how we will use the information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 830—UNIQUE DEVICE IDENTIFICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 352, 353, 360, 360d, 360i, 360j, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 58823, Sept. 24, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 58825, Sept. 24, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 830.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC)</I> means any technology that conveys the unique device identifier or the device identifier of a device in a form that can be entered into an electronic patient record or other computer system via an automated process.
</P>
<P><I>Center Director</I> means the Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health or the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, depending on which Center has been assigned lead responsibility for the device.
</P>
<P><I>Device package</I> means a package that contains a fixed quantity of a particular version or model of a device.
</P>
<P><I>Expiration date</I> means the date by which the label of a device states the device must or should be used.
</P>
<P><I>FDA, we,</I> or <I>us</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act</I> means 21 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Finished device</I> means any device or accessory to any device that is suitable for use or capable of functioning.
</P>
<P><I>Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID)</I> means the database that serves as a repository of information to facilitate the identification of medical devices through their distribution and use.
</P>
<P><I>Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device</I> means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.
</P>
<P><I>Issuing agency</I> means an organization accredited by FDA to operate a system for the issuance of unique device identifiers.
</P>
<P><I>Label</I> has the meaning set forth in section 201(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Labeler</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who causes a label to be applied to a device with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any subsequent replacement or modification of the label; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who causes the label of a device to be replaced or modified with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any subsequent replacement or modification of the label, except that the addition of the name of, and contact information for, a person who distributes the device, without making any other changes to the label, is not a modification for the purposes of determining whether a person is a labeler.
</P>
<P><I>Lot or batch</I> means one <I>finished device</I> or more that consist of a single type, model, class, size, composition, or software version that are manufactured under essentially the same conditions and that are intended to have uniform characteristics and quality within specified limits.
</P>
<P><I>Shipping container</I> means a container used during the shipment or transportation of devices, and whose contents may vary from one shipment to another.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a medical device manufacturer with 500 or fewer employees, or a medical device relabeler or repackager with 100 or fewer employees.
</P>
<P><I>Specification</I> means any requirement with which a device must conform.
</P>
<P><I>Unique device identifier (UDI)</I> means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20. A UDI is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>device identifier</I>—a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>production identifier</I>—a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The serial number of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.
</P>
<P>(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Universal product code (UPC)</I> means the product identifier used to identify an item sold at retail in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Version or model</I> means all devices that have specifications, performance, size, and composition, within limits set by the labeler.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for a Unique Device Identifier</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.10   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the Food and Drug Administration must publish notice of change in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 301-827-6860, and is available from the source listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Copies are also available for purchase from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), mailing address: ANSI, Attn: Customer Service Department, 25 West 43rd St., 4th floor, New York, NY 10036, phone: 212-642-4980, and may be ordered online at <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/.</I> The material is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) International Organization for Standardization (ISO), mailing address: ISO, Attn: ISO Central Secretariat, 1, ch. de la Voie-Creuse, Case postale 56, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland, phone (dialing from the United States): 011-41-22-749-0111, and may be ordered online at <I>http://www.standardsinfo.net.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO/IEC 646:1991(E), Information technology—ISO 7-bit coded character set for information interchange (third edition; December 15, 1991), into §§ 830.20(c) and 830.100(b);
</P>
<P>(2) ISO/IEC 15459-2:2006(E), Information technology—Unique identifiers—Part 2: Registration procedures (second edition; March 1, 2006), into §§ 830.20(b) and 830.100(b);
</P>
<P>(3) ISO/IEC 15459-4:2008(E), Information technology—Unique identifiers—Part 4: Individual items (second edition; July 15, 2008), into §§ 830.20(b) and 830.100(b);
</P>
<P>(4) ISO/IEC 15459-6:2007(E), Information technology—Unique identifiers—Part 6: Unique identifier for product groupings (first edition; June 15, 2007), into §§ 830.20(b) and 830.100(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58823, Sept. 24, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.20   Requirements for a unique device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>A unique device identifier (UDI) must:
</P>
<P>(a) Be issued under a system operated by FDA or an FDA-accredited issuing agency;
</P>
<P>(b) Conform to each of the following international standards:
</P>
<P>(1) ISO/IEC 15459-2, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10;
</P>
<P>(2) ISO/IEC 15459-4, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10; and
</P>
<P>(3) ISO/IEC 15459-6, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.
</P>
<P>(c) Use only characters and numbers from the invariant character set of ISO/IEC 646, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58825, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.40   Use and discontinuation of a device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only one device identifier from any particular system for the issuance of unique device identifiers (UDIs) may be used to identify a particular version or model of a device. A particular version or model may be identified by UDIs from two or more systems for the issuance of UDIs.
</P>
<P>(b) A device identifier shall be used to identify only one version or model.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that a version or model of a device is discontinued, its device identifier may not be reassigned to another device. If a discontinued version or model is re-introduced and no changes have been made that would require the use of a new device identifier, the device identifier that was previously in use may be used to identify the device.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that an issuing agency relinquishes or does not renew its accreditation, you may continue to use a previously issued UDI until such time as § 830.50 requires you to assign a new device identifier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58825, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.50   Changes that require use of a new device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever you make a change to a device that is required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label, and the change results in a new version or model, you must assign a new device identifier to the new version or model.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever you create a new device package, you must assign a new device identifier to the new device package.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58825, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.60   Relabeling of a device that is required to bear a unique device identifier.</HEAD>
<P>If you relabel a device that is required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI), you must:
</P>
<P>(a) Assign a new device identifier to the device, and
</P>
<P>(b) Keep a record showing the relationship of the prior device identifier to your new device identifier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58825, Sept. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—FDA Accreditation of an Issuing Agency</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.100   FDA accreditation of an issuing agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> A private organization may apply for accreditation as an issuing agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accreditation criteria.</I> FDA may accredit an organization as an issuing agency, if the system it will operate:
</P>
<P>(1) Will employ unique device identifiers (UDIs) that meet the requirements of this part to adequately identify a device through its distribution and use;
</P>
<P>(2) Conforms to each of the following international standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ISO/IEC 15459-2, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10;
</P>
<P>(ii) ISO/IEC 15459-4, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10;
</P>
<P>(iii) ISO/IEC 15459-6, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.
</P>
<P>(3) Uses only characters and numbers from the invariant character set of ISO/IEC 646, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.
</P>
<P>(4) Will be available to all users according to a single set of consistent, fair, and reasonable terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(5) Will protect against conflicts of interest between the issuing agency (and its officers, employees, and other agents) and labelers (and their officers, employees, and other agents) seeking to use UDIs that may impede the applicant's ability to independently operate a fair and neutral identifier system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.110   Application for accreditation as an issuing agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for initial accreditation.</I> (1) An applicant seeking initial FDA accreditation as an issuing agency shall notify FDA of its desire to be accredited by sending a notification by email to: <I>GUDIDSupport@fda.hhs.gov,</I> or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 3293, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will provide the applicant with additional information to aid in submission of an application for approval as an issuing agency, together with an email address for submission of an application.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant shall furnish to FDA, via email to the email address provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an application containing the following information, materials, and supporting documentation:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and phone number of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed descriptions of any standards or criteria the applicant will apply to participating labelers;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the guidelines that govern assignment of a unique device identifier (UDI) to a device;
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the review and decisionmaking process the applicant will apply when determining whether a particular labeler may use the applicant's UDI system, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Copies of the application forms, guidelines, instructions, and other materials the applicant will send to medical device labelers who wish to use the applicant's unique device identification system;
</P>
<P>(B) Policies and procedures for notifying a labeler of deficiencies in its use of UDIs;
</P>
<P>(C) Procedures for monitoring a labeler's correction of deficiencies in its use of UDIs;
</P>
<P>(D) Policies and procedures for suspending or revoking a labeler's use of the applicant's UDI system, including any appeals process.
</P>
<P>(v) Description of the applicant's electronic data management system with respect to its review and decision processes and the applicant's ability to provide electronic data in a format compatible with FDA data systems;
</P>
<P>(vi) Fee schedules, if any, together with an explanation of any fee waivers or reductions that are available;
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed information regarding any financial or other relationship between the applicant and any labeler(s) or governmental entity(ies); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Other information required by FDA to clarify the application for accreditation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for renewal of accreditation.</I> An accredited issuing agency that intends to continue to serve as an issuing agency beyond its current term shall apply to FDA for renewal or notify FDA of its plans not to apply for renewal in accordance with the following procedures and schedule:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 9 months before the date of expiration of its accreditation, an issuing agency shall inform FDA, at the address given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, of its intent to seek renewal.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify the issuing agency of the relevant information, materials, and supporting documentation that we will require the issuing agency to submit as part of the renewal procedure. We will tailor these requirements to reflect our experience with the issuing agency during the current and any prior period of accreditation. We will limit our request to the types of the information required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, and we will require less information if experience shows that we need only a subset of that information.
</P>
<P>(3) At least 6 months before the date of expiration of its accreditation, an issuing agency shall furnish to FDA, at the email address we provide, a copy of a renewal application containing the information, materials, and supporting documentation requested by FDA in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Any issuing agency that does not plan to renew its accreditation shall so notify FDA at the address given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section at least 9 months before the expiration of the issuing agency's term of accreditation and shall include a description of its plans for allowing continued use of UDIs issued prior to the expiration of the current term of accreditation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FDA action on an application for initial or renewal accreditation.</I> (1) FDA will conduct a review and evaluation to determine whether the applicant meets the requirements of this subpart and whether the UDI system proposed by the applicant will meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 60 days of receipt of an application for accreditation, FDA will notify the applicant of any deficiencies in its application and will request correction of those deficiencies within 60 days. The applicant may request an extension if it needs additional time to correct deficiencies in its application. If the deficiencies are not resolved to FDA's satisfaction within the specified time period, the application for accreditation as an issuing agency may be denied.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA shall notify the applicant whether the application for accreditation has been granted or denied. That notification shall list any conditions of approval or state the reasons for denial.
</P>
<P>(4) If FDA denies an application, we will advise the applicant of the circumstances under which a denied application may be resubmitted.
</P>
<P>(5) If FDA does not reach a final decision on a renewal application before the expiration of an issuing agency's current accreditation, the approval will be deemed extended until FDA reaches a final decision on the application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relinquishment of accreditation.</I> If an issuing agency decides to relinquish its accreditation before expiration of the current term of accreditation, it shall submit a letter of such intent to FDA, at the address provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, at least 9 months before relinquishing its accreditation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of termination of accreditation.</I> An issuing agency that does not apply for renewal of its accreditation, is denied renewal of accreditation by FDA, or relinquishes its accreditation and duties before expiration of the current term of accreditation, shall notify all labelers that are using the issuing agency's UDI system, in a manner and time period approved by FDA, of the date that the issuing agency will cease to serve as an FDA-accredited issuing agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Term of accreditation.</I> The initial term of accreditation for an issuing agency shall be for a period of 3 years. An issuing agency's term of accreditation may be periodically renewed for a period of 7 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58825, Sept. 24, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 11429, Mar. 4, 2016; 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.120   Responsibilities of an FDA-accredited issuing agency.</HEAD>
<P>To maintain its accreditation, an issuing agency must:
</P>
<P>(a) Operate a system for assignment of unique device identifiers (UDIs) that meets the requirements of § 830.20;
</P>
<P>(b) Make available information concerning its system for the assignment of UDIs;
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain a list of labelers that use its system for the assignment of UDIs and provide FDA a copy of such list in electronic form by December 31 of each year;
</P>
<P>(d) Upon request, provide FDA with information concerning a labeler that is employing the issuing agency's system for assignment of UDIs; and
</P>
<P>(e) Remain in compliance with the eligibility and accreditation criteria set forth in § 830.100.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.130   Suspension or revocation of the accreditation of an issuing agency.</HEAD>
<P>FDA may suspend or revoke the accreditation of an issuing agency if FDA finds, after providing the issuing agency with notice and opportunity for an informal hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, that the issuing agency or any officer, employee, or other agent of the issuing agency:
</P>
<P>(a) Has been guilty of misrepresentation or failure to disclose required information in obtaining accreditation;
</P>
<P>(b) Has failed to fulfill the responsibilities outlined in § 830.120;
</P>
<P>(c) Has failed to protect against conflicts of interest that may impede the issuing agency's ability to independently operate a fair and neutral identifier system;
</P>
<P>(d) In the operation of the issuing agency, has engaged in any anticompetitive activity to restrain trade; or
</P>
<P>(e) Has violated or aided and abetted in the violation of any regulation issued under section 510(e) or section 519(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—FDA as an Issuing Agency</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 58826, Sept. 24, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 830.200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.200   When FDA will act as an issuing agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During any period where there is no accredited issuing agency, FDA will act as an issuing agency.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA determines that a significant number of small businesses would be substantially and adversely affected by the fees required by all accredited issuing agencies, FDA will act as an issuing agency.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may, in its discretion, act as an issuing agency if we determine it is necessary for us to do so to ensure the continuity or the effectiveness of the system for the identification of medical devices.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA may, in its discretion, act as an issuing agency if we determine it is appropriate for us to do so in order to facilitate or implement an alternative granted under § 801.55 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.210   Eligibility for use of FDA as an issuing agency.</HEAD>
<P>When FDA acts as an issuing agency, any labeler will be permitted to use FDA's unique device identification system, regardless of whether the labeler is considered a small business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.220   Termination of FDA service as an issuing agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA may end our services as an issuing agency if we determine that the conditions that prompted us to act no longer exist and that ending our services would not be likely to lead to a return of the conditions that prompted us to act.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA has ended our services as an issuing agency, a labeler may continue to use a device identifier assigned under FDA's unique device identification system until such time as § 830.50 requires the use of a new device identifier.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Global Unique Device Identification Database</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 58826, Sept. 24, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 830.300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.300   Devices subject to device identification data submission requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The labeler of a device must provide the information required by this subpart for each version or model required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluntary submission of information.</I> If a labeler voluntarily includes a UDI on the label of a device under § 801.40, the labeler may also voluntarily submit information concerning that device under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusions.</I> FDA may reject or remove any device identification data where:
</P>
<P>(1) The device identifier submitted does not conform to § 830.20;
</P>
<P>(2) The information concerns a device that is neither manufactured in the United States nor in interstate commerce in the United States,
</P>
<P>(3) The information concerns a product that FDA determines is not a device or a combination product that includes a device constituent part,
</P>
<P>(4) The information concerns a device or a combination product that requires, but does not have, FDA premarket approval, licensure, or clearance;
</P>
<P>(5) A device that FDA has banned under section 516 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(6) FDA has suspended the accreditation of the issuing agency that operates the system used by the labeler.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.310   Information required for unique device identification.</HEAD>
<P>The contact for device identification designated under § 830.320(a) shall provide FDA with the following information concerning each version or model of a device required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Concerning the labeler:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the labeler;
</P>
<P>(2) A telephone number or email address that will allow FDA to communicate with the contact for device identification designated under § 830.320(a); and
</P>
<P>(3) The name of each issuing agency whose system is used by the labeler to assign UDIs used by the labeler.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Concerning each version or model of a device with a UDI on its label:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The device identifier portion of the UDI assigned to the version or model;
</P>
<P>(2) When reporting a substitution of a new device identifier that will be used in lieu of a previously reported identifier, the device identifier that was previously assigned to the version or model;
</P>
<P>(3) If § 801.45 of this chapter requires the device to bear a UDI as a permanent marking on the device itself, either:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the device identifier that appears as a permanent marking on the device is identical to that reported under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The device identifier portion of the UDI that appears as a permanent marking on the device;
</P>
<P>(4) The proprietary, trade, or brand name of the device as it appears on the label of the device;
</P>
<P>(5) Any version or model number or similar reference that appears on the label of the device;
</P>
<P>(6) If the device is labeled as sterile, a statement to that effect;
</P>
<P>(7) If the device is labeled as containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, or is labeled as having packaging containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, as described by §§ 801.437(b)(1), 801.437(b)(3), and 801.437(f) of this chapter, a statement to that effect;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether a patient may be safely exposed to magnetic resonance imaging, nuclear magnetic resonance imaging, or magnetic resonance tomography while using the device, or while the device is implanted in patient.
</P>
<P>(9) If the device is available in more than one size, the size of the particular version or model, together with the unit of measure, as it appears on the label of the device;
</P>
<P>(10) The type of production identifiers that appear on the label of the device;
</P>
<P>(11) The FDA premarket submission number of a cleared or approved device, or a statement that FDA has by regulation exempted the device from premarket notification;
</P>
<P>(12) The FDA listing number assigned to the device;
</P>
<P>(13) The Global Medical Device Nomenclature (GMDN) term or code for the device;
</P>
<P>(14) The total number of individual devices contained in the device package.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.320   Submission of unique device identification information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of contact for device identification.</I> Each labeler must designate an individual to serve as the point of contact with FDA on matters relating to the identification of medical devices marketed by the labeler. The contact for device information is responsible for ensuring FDA is provided with all information required by this part. The contact for device information may authorize an issuing agency or any other person to provide information to FDA on behalf of the labeler.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information shall be submitted via electronic means.</I> All information required by this subpart shall be submitted electronically to FDA's Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) in a format that we can process, review, and archive, unless the labeler has obtained a waiver from electronic submission of unique device identifier (UDI) data.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver from electronic submission.</I> (1) A labeler may request a waiver from electronic submission of UDI data by submitting a letter addressed to the appropriate Center Director explaining why electronic submission is not technologically feasible; send the request by email to: <I>udi@fda.hhs.gov,</I> or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 3293, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(2) If the establishment where the labeler is located has obtained a waiver from electronic submission of registration and listing information under section 510(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the labeler is deemed to have a waiver from electronic submission of UDI data.
</P>
<P>(3) A labeler that has a waiver from electronic submission of UDI data must send a letter containing all of the information required by § 830.310, as well as any ancillary information permitted to be submitted under § 830.340 that the labeler wishes to submit, within the time permitted by § 830.330, addressed to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 3293, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 58826, Sept. 24, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.330   Times for submission of unique device identification information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The labeler shall submit to FDA the information required by § 830.310 no later than the date the label of the device must bear a unique device identifier under § 801.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The labeler of a device shall submit to FDA an update to the information required by § 830.310 whenever the information changes. The updated information must be submitted no later than the date a device is first labeled with the changed information. If the information does not appear on the label of a device, the updated information must be submitted within 10 business days of the change.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.340   Voluntary submission of ancillary device identification information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may not submit any information to the Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) other than that specified by § 830.310, except where FDA acts to permit the submission of specified additional types of information, termed ancillary information.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will provide information through the FDA Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/udi/</I> concerning the types of ancillary information that may be submitted to the GUDID.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may periodically change the types of ancillary information that may be submitted to the GUDID. We will announce any change on the FDA Web site at <I>http://www.fda.gov/udi/</I> at least 60 days before making the change.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.350   Correction of information submitted to the Global Unique Device Identification Database.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If FDA becomes aware that any information submitted to the Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) appears to be incorrect or potentially misleading, we may notify the labeler of the specific information that appears to be incorrect, and request that the labeler provide corrected information or explain why the information is correct. The labeler must provide corrected information or provide a satisfactory explanation of why the information is correct within 30 days of receipt of FDA's notification.
</P>
<P>(b) If the labeler does not respond to FDA's notification within 30 days of receipt, or if FDA determines, at any time, that any information in the GUDID is incorrect or could be misleading, we may delete or correct the information. Any action taken by FDA under this paragraph does not relieve the labeler of its responsibility under paragraph (a) of this section to provide corrected information or an explanation of why the information previously submitted is correct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.15.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.360   Records to be maintained by the labeler.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each labeler shall retain, and submit to FDA upon specific request, records showing all unique device identifiers (UDIs) used to identify devices that must bear a UDI on their label, and the particular version or model associated with each device identifier. These records must be retained for 3 years from the date the labeler ceases to market the version or model.
</P>
<P>(b) Compliance with this section does not relieve the labeler of the need to comply with recordkeeping requirements of any other FDA regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 860—MEDICAL DEVICE CLASSIFICATION PROCEDURES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 321(h), 353(g), 360c, 360d, 360e, 360i, 360j, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 860 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008, and at 86 FR 54846, Oct. 5, 2021.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements sections 513, 514(b), 515(b), and 520(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act with respect to the classification and reclassification of devices intended for human use.
</P>
<P>(b) This part prescribes the criteria and procedures to be used by advisory committees, including classification panels, where applicable, in making their recommendations, and by the Commissioner in making the Commissioner's determinations regarding the class of regulatory control (class I, class II, or class III) appropriate for particular devices. Supplementing the general Food and Drug Administration procedures governing advisory committees (part 14 of this chapter), this part also provides procedures for manufacturers, importers, and other interested persons to participate in proceedings to classify and reclassify devices. This part also describes the type of data required for determination of the safety and effectiveness of a device, and the circumstances under which information submitted to advisory committees, including classification panels, or to the Commissioner in connection with classification and reclassification proceedings, will be available to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 86 FR 54846, Oct. 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Class</I> means one of the three categories of regulatory control for medical devices, defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Class I</I> means the class of devices that are subject only to the general controls authorized by or under sections 501 (adulteration), 502 (misbranding), 510 (registration), 516 (banned devices), 518 (notification and other remedies), 519 (records and reports), and 520 (general provisions) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A device is in class I if:
</P>
<P>(1) General controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device, or
</P>
<P>(2) There is insufficient information from which to determine that general controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device or to establish special controls to provide such assurance, but the device is not life-supporting or life-sustaining, or for a use which is of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health, and which does not present a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury.
</P>
<P><I>Class II</I> means the class of devices that is or eventually will be subject to special controls. A device is in class II if general controls alone are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of its safety and effectiveness and there is sufficient information to establish special controls, including the promulgation of performance standards, postmarket surveillance, patient registries, development and dissemination of guidelines (including guidelines for the submission of clinical data in premarket notification submissions in accordance with section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act), recommendations, and other appropriate actions as the Commissioner deems necessary to provide such assurance. For a device that is purported or represented to be for use in supporting or sustaining human life, the Commissioner shall examine and identify the special controls, if any, which are necessary to provide adequate assurance of safety and effectiveness, and describe how such controls provide such assurance.
</P>
<P><I>Class III</I> means the class of devices for which premarket approval is or will be required in accordance with section 515 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A device is in class III if insufficient information exists to determine that general controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of its safety and effectiveness, or that application of special controls described in the definition of “<I>Class II”</I> in this section in addition to general controls, would provide such assurance, and if, in addition, the device is life-supporting or life-sustaining, or for a use which is of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health, or if the device presents a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury.
</P>
<P><I>Classification panel</I> means one of the several advisory committees established by the Commissioner under section 513 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and part 14 of this chapter for the purpose of making recommendations to the Commissioner on the classification and reclassification of devices and for other purposes prescribed by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or by the Commissioner.
</P>
<P><I>Classification regulation</I> means a section under parts 862 through 892 of this chapter that contains the identification (general description and intended use) and classification (class I, II or III) of a single device type or more than one related device type(s).
</P>
<P><I>Commissioner</I> means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, Food and Drug Administration, United States Department of Health and Human Services, or the Commissioner's designee.
</P>
<P><I>De Novo request</I> means any submission under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for a medical device, requesting classification into class I or class II, including all information submitted with or incorporated by reference therein.
</P>
<P><I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P><I>General controls</I> mean the controls authorized by or under sections 501 (adulteration), 502 (misbranding), 510 (registration, listing, and premarket notification), 516 (banned devices), 518 (notification and other remedies), 519 (records, reports, and unique device identification), and 520 (general provisions) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Generic type of device</I> means a grouping of devices that do not differ significantly in purpose, design, materials, energy source, function, or any other feature related to safety and effectiveness, and for which similar regulatory controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P><I>Implant</I> means a device that is placed into a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body. A device is regarded as an implant for the purpose of this part only if it is intended to remain implanted continuously for a period of 30 days or more, unless the Commissioner determines otherwise to protect human health.
</P>
<P><I>Life-supporting or life-sustaining device</I> means a device that is essential to, or that yields information that is essential to, the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life.
</P>
<P><I>Petition</I> means a submission seeking reclassification of a device in accordance with § 860.123.
</P>
<P><I>Special controls</I> mean the controls necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for a generic type of device that is class II. Special controls include performance standards, performance testing, postmarket surveillance, patient registries, development and dissemination of guidelines (including guidelines for the submission of clinical data in premarket notification submissions in accordance with section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act), recommendations, and other appropriate actions, as the Commissioner deems necessary to provide such assurance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 54846, Oct. 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.5   Confidentiality and use of data and information submitted in connection with classification and reclassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section governs the availability for public disclosure and the use by the Commissioner of data and information submitted to classification panels or to the Commissioner in connection with the classification or reclassification of devices under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In general, data and information submitted to classification panels in connection with the classification of devices under § 860.84 will be available immediately for public disclosure upon request. However, except as provided by the special rules in paragraph (c) of this section, this provision does not apply to data and information exempt from public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter: Such data and information will be available only in accordance with part 20.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Safety and effectiveness data submitted to classification panels or to the Commissioner in connection with the classification of a device under § 860.84, which have not been disclosed previously to the public, as described in § 20.81 of this chapter, shall be regarded as confidential if the device is classified in to class III. Because the classification of a device under § 860.84 may be ascertained only upon publication of a final regulation, all safety and effectiveness data that have not been disclosed previously are not available for public disclosure unless and until the device is classified into class I or II, in which case the procedure in paragraph (c)(2) of this section applies. 
</P>
<P>(2) Thirty days after publication of a final regulation under § 860.84 classifying a device into class I or class II, safety and effectiveness data submitted for that device that had been regarded as confidential under paragraph (c)(1) of this section will be available for public disclosure and placed on public display in the office of the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration unless, within that 30-day period, the person who submitted the data demonstrates that the data still fall within the exemption for trade secrets and confidential commercial information described in § 20.61 of this chapter. Safety and effectiveness data submitted for a device that is classified into class III by regulation in accordance with § 860.84 will remain confidential and unavailable for public disclosure so long as such data have not been disclosed to the public as described in § 20.81 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Because device classification affects generic types of devices, in making determinations under § 860.84 concerning the initial classification of a device, the classification panels and the Commissioner may consider safety and effectiveness data developed for another device in the same generic type, regardless of whether such data are regarded currently as confidential under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The fact of its existence and the contents of a petition for reclassification filed in accordance with § 860.130 or § 860.132 are available for public disclosure at the time the petition is received by the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) The fact of the existence of a petition for reclassification filed in accordance with § 860.134 or § 860.136 is available for public disclosure at the time the petition is received by the Food and Drug Administration. The contents of such a petition are not available for public disclosure for the period of time following its receipt (not longer than 30 days) during which the petition is reviewed for any deficiencies preventing the Commissioner from making a decision on it. Once it is determined that the petition contains no deficiencies preventing the Commissioner from making a decision on it, the petition will be filed with the Dockets Management Staff and its entire contents will be available for public disclosure and subject to consideration by classification panels and by the Commissioner in making a decision on the petition. If, during this 30-day period of time, the petition is found to contain deficiencies that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it, the petitioner will be so notified and afforded an opportunity to correct the deficiencies.
</P>
<FP>Thirty days after notice to the petitioner of deficiencies in the petition, the contents of the petition will be available for public disclosure unless, within that 30 days, the petitioner submits supplemental material intended to correct the deficiencies in the petition. The Commissioner, in the Commissioner's discretion, may allow withdrawal of a deficient petition during the 30-day period provided for correcting deficiencies. Any supplemental material submitted by the petitioner, together with the material in the original petition, is considered as a new petition. The new petition is reviewed for deficiencies in the same manner as the original petition, and the same procedures for notification and correction of deficiencies are followed. Once the petitioner has corrected the deficiencies, the entire contents of the petition will be available for public disclosure and subject to consideration by classification panels and by the Commissioner in making a decision on the petition. Deficient petitions which have not been corrected within 180 days after notification of deficiency will be returned to the petitioner and will not be considered further unless resubmitted. 
</FP>
<P>(e) The Commissioner may not disclose, or use as the basis for reclassification of a device from class III to class II, any information reported to or otherwise obtained by the Commissioner under section 513, 514, 515, 516, 518, 519, 520(f), 520(g), or 704 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that falls within the exemption described in § 20.61 of this chapter for trade secrets and confidential commercial information. The exemption described in § 20.61 does not apply to data or information contained in a petition for reclassification submitted in accordance with § 860.130 or § 860.132, or in a petition submitted in accordance with § 860.134 or § 860.136 that has been determined to contain no deficiencies that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it. Accordingly, all data and information contained in such petitions may be disclosed by the Commissioner and used as the basis for reclassification of a device from class III to class II.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of this section, safety and effectiveness data include data and results derived from all studies and tests of a device on animals and humans and from all studies and tests of the device itself intended to establish or determine its safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(g) Confidentiality of data and information in a De Novo file is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A “De Novo file” includes all data and information from the requester submitted with or incorporated by reference in the De Novo request, any De Novo supplement, or any other related submission relevant to the administrative file, as defined in § 10.3(a) of this chapter. Any record in the De Novo file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of this section and part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The existence of a De Novo file may not be disclosed by FDA before an order granting the De Novo request is issued unless it previously has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged by the De Novo requester.
</P>
<P>(3) Before an order granting the De Novo request is issued, data or information contained in the De Novo file is not available for public disclosure, except to the extent the existence of the De Novo file is disclosable under paragraph (g)(2) of this section and such data or information has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged by the De Novo requester.
</P>
<P>(4) After FDA issues an order granting a De Novo request, the data and information in the De Novo file that are not exempt from release under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, are immediately available for public disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 86 FR 54847, Oct. 5, 2021; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.7   Determination of safety and effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The classification panels, in reviewing evidence concerning the safety and effectiveness of a device and in preparing advice to the Commissioner, and the Commissioner, in making determinations concerning the safety and effectiveness of a device, will apply the rules in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the safety and effectiveness of a device for purposes of classification, establishment of special controls for class II devices, and premarket approval of class III devices, the Commissioner and the classification panels will consider the following, among other relevant factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The persons for whose use the device is represented or intended;
</P>
<P>(2) The conditions of use for the device, including conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling or advertising of the device, and other intended conditions of use;
</P>
<P>(3) The probable benefit to health from the use of the device weighed against any probable injury or illness from such use; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The reliability of the device. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Although the manufacturer may submit any form of evidence to the Food and Drug Administration in an attempt to substantiate the safety and effectiveness of a device, the agency relies upon only valid scientific evidence to determine whether there is reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective. After considering the nature of the device and the rules in this section, the Commissioner will determine whether the evidence submitted or otherwise available to the Commissioner is valid scientific evidence for the purpose of determining the safety or effectiveness of a particular device and whether the available evidence, when taken as a whole, is adequate to support a determination that there is reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective for its conditions of use. 
</P>
<P>(2) Valid scientific evidence is evidence from well-controlled investigations, partially controlled studies, studies and objective trials without matched controls, well-documented case histories conducted by qualified experts, and reports of significant human experience with a marketed device, from which it can fairly and responsibly be concluded by qualified experts that there is reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of a device under its conditions of use. The evidence required may vary according to the characteristics of the device, its conditions of use, the existence and adequacy of warnings and other restrictions, and the extent of experience with its use. Isolated case reports, random experience, reports lacking sufficient details to permit scientific evaluation, and unsubstantiated opinions are not regarded as valid scientific evidence to show safety or effectiveness. Such information may be considered, however, in identifying a device with questionable safety or effectiveness.</P>
<P>(d)(1) There is reasonable assurance that a device is safe when it can be determined, based upon valid scientific evidence, that the probable benefits to health from use of the device for its intended uses and conditions of use, when accompanied by adequate directions and warnings against unsafe use, outweigh any probable risks. The valid scientific evidence used to determine the safety of a device shall adequately demonstrate the absence of unreasonable risk of illness or injury associated with the use of the device for its intended uses and conditions of use. 
</P>
<P>(2) Among the types of evidence that may be required, when appropriate, to determine that there is reasonable assurance that a device is safe are investigations using laboratory animals, investigations involving human subjects, nonclinical investigations, and analytical studies for in vitro diagnostic devices.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) There is reasonable assurance that a device is effective when it can be determined, based upon valid scientific evidence, that in a significant portion of the target population, the use of the device for its intended uses and conditions of use, when accompanied by adequate directions for use and warnings against unsafe use, will provide clinically significant results.
</P>
<P>(2) The valid scientific evidence used to determine the effectiveness of a device shall consist principally of well-controlled investigations, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, unless the Commissioner authorizes reliance upon other valid scientific evidence which the Commissioner has determined is sufficient evidence from which to determine the effectiveness of a device, even in the absence of well-controlled investigations. The Commissioner may make such a determination where the requirement of well-controlled investigations in paragraph (f) of this section is not reasonably applicable to the device.
</P>
<P>(f) The following principles have been developed over a period of years and are recognized by the scientific community as the essentials of a well-controlled clinical investigation. They provide the basis for the Commissioner's determination whether there is reasonable assurance that a device is effective based upon well-controlled investigations and are also useful in assessing the weight to be given to other valid scientific evidence permitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan or protocol for the study and the report of the results of a well-controlled investigation shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear statement of the objectives of the study;
</P>
<P>(ii) A method of selection of the subjects that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Provides adequate assurance that the subjects are suitable for the purposes of the study, provides diagnostic criteria of the condition to be treated or diagnosed, provides confirmatory laboratory tests where appropriate and, in the case of a device to prevent a disease or condition, provides evidence of susceptibility and exposure to the condition against which prophylaxis is desired;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Assigns the subjects to test groups, if used, in such a way as to minimize any possible bias;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Assures comparability between test groups and any control groups of pertinent variables such as sex, severity or duration of the disease, and use of therapy other than the test device;
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the methods of observation and recording of results utilized, including the variables measured, quantitation, assessment of any subject's response, and steps taken to minimize any possible bias of subjects and observers;
</P>
<P>(iv) A comparison of the results of treatment or diagnosis with a control in such a fashion as to permit quantitative evaluation. The precise nature of the control must be specified and an explanation provided of the methods employed to minimize any possible bias of the observers and analysts of the data. Level and methods of “blinding,” if appropriate and used, are to be documented. Generally, four types of comparisons are recognized:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) <I>No treatments.</I> Where objective measurements of effectiveness are available and placebo effect is negligible, comparison of the objective results in comparable groups of treated and untreated patients;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Placebo control.</I> Where there may be a placebo effect with the use of a device, comparison of the results of use of the device with an ineffective device used under conditions designed to resemble the conditions of use under investigation as far as possible;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Active treatment control.</I> Where an effective regimen of therapy may be used for comparison, e.g., the condition being treated is such that the use of a placebo or the withholding of treatment would be inappropriate or contrary to the interest of the patient;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Historical control.</I> In certain circumstances, such as those involving diseases with high and predictable mortality or signs and symptoms of predictable duration or severity, or in the case of prophylaxis where morbidity is predictable, the results of use of the device may be compared quantitatively with prior experience historically derived from the adequately documented natural history of the disease or condition in comparable patients or populations who received no treatment or who followed an established effective regimen (therapeutic, diagnostic, prophylactic).
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of the methods of analysis and an evaluation of the data derived from the study, including any appropriate statistical methods utilized.
</P>
<P>(2) To insure the reliability of the results of an investigation, a well-controlled investigation shall involve the use of a test device that is standardized in its composition or design and performance. 
</P>
<P>(g)(1) It is the responsibility of each manufacturer and importer of a device to assure that adequate, valid scientific evidence exists, and to furnish such evidence to the Food and Drug Administration to provide reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective for its intended uses and conditions of use. The failure of a manufacturer or importer of a device to present to the Food and Drug Administration adequate, valid scientific evidence showing that there is reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device, if regulated by general controls alone, or by general controls and special controls, may support a determination that the device be classified into class III.</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner may require that a manufacturer, importer, or distributor make reports or provide other information bearing on the classification of a device and indicating whether there is reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device or whether it is adulterated or misbranded under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. 
</P>
<P>(3) A requirement for a report or other information under this paragraph will comply with section 519 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Accordingly, the requirement will state the reason or purpose for such request; will describe the required report or information as clearly as possible; will not be imposed on a manufacturer, importer, or distributor of a classified device that has been exempted from such a requirement in accordance with § 860.95; will prescribe the time for compliance with the requirement; and will prescribe the form and manner in which the report or information is to be provided. 
</P>
<P>(4) Required information that has been submitted previously to the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, as applicable, need not be resubmitted, but may be incorporated by reference.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988; 73 FR 49942, Aug. 25, 2008; 83 FR 64454, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.10   Implants and life-supporting or life-sustaining devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A classification panel will recommend classification into class III of any implant or life-supporting or life-sustaining device unless the panel determines that such classification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. If the panel recommends classification or reclassification of such a device into a class other than class III, it shall set forth in its recommendation the reasons for so doing and an identification of the risks to health, if any, presented by the device. In the case of such a device being recommended for classification or reclassification into class II, the panel shall describe the special controls that, in addition to general controls, the panel believes are necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device and how such controls provide such assurance.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner will classify an implant or life-supporting or life-sustaining device into class III unless the Commissioner determines that such classification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. If the Commissioner proposes to classify or reclassify such a device into a class other than class III, the regulation or order effecting such classification or reclassification will be accompanied by a full statement of the reasons for so doing. A statement of the reasons for not classifying or retaining the device in class III may be in the form of concurrence with the reasons for the recommendation of the classification panel, together with supporting documentation and data satisfying the requirements of § 860.7 and an identification of the risks to health, if any, presented by the device. In the case of such a device being classified or reclassified into class II, the Commissioner shall describe the special controls that, in addition to general controls, the panel believes are necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device and how such controls provide such assurance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64455, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.15   Exemptions from sections 510, 519, and 520(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A panel recommendation to the Commissioner that a device be classified or reclassified into class I will include a recommendation as to whether the device should be exempted from some or all of the requirements of one or more of the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act: Section 510 (registration, product listing, and premarket notification), section 519 (records and reports) and section 520(f) (good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation), and, in the case of a recommendation for classification into class II, whether the device should be exempted from the premarket notification requirement under section 510.
</P>
<P>(b) A regulation or an order classifying or reclassifying a device into class I will specify which requirements, if any, of sections 510, 519, and 520(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act the device is to be exempted from or, in the case of a regulation or an order classifying or reclassifying a device into class II, whether the device is to be exempted from the premarket notification requirement under section 510, together with the reasons for such exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner will grant exemptions under this section only if the Commissioner determines that the requirements from which the device is exempted are not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64455, Dec. 17, 2018, as amended at 90 FR 55980, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Classification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.84" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.84   Classification procedures for “preamendments devices.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures for the original classification of a generic type of device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Such a device will be classified by regulation into either class I (general controls), class II (special controls) or class III (premarket approval), depending upon the level of regulatory control required to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device (§ 860.3(c)). This subpart does not apply to a device that is classified into class III by statute under section 513(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because the Food and Drug Administration has determined that the device is not “substantially equivalent” to any device subject to this subpart or under section 520(<I>l</I>)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because the device was regarded previously as a new drug. In classifying a <I>preamendments</I> device to which this section applies, the Food and Drug Administration will follow the procedures described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner refers the device to the appropriate classification panel organized and operated in accordance with section 513 (b) and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and part 14 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) In order to make recommendations to the Commissioner on the class of regulatory control (class I, class II, or class III) appropriate for the device, the panel reviews the device for safety and effectiveness. In so doing, the panel: 
</P>
<P>(1) Considers the factors set forth in § 860.7 relating to the determination of safety and effectiveness; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determines the safety and effectiveness of the device on the basis of the types of scientific evidence set forth in § 860.7; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provides, to the maximum extent practicable, an opportunity for interested persons to submit data and views on the classification of the device in accordance with part 14 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) Based upon its review of evidence of the safety and effectiveness of the device, and applying the definition of each class in § 860.3(c), the panel submits to the Commissioner a recommendation regarding the classification of the device. The recommendation will include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the reasons for the recommendation; 
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of the data upon which the recommendation is based;
</P>
<P>(3) An identification of the risks to health (if any) presented by the device; 
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a recommendation for classification into class I, a recommendation as to whether the device should be exempted from the requirements of one or more of the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act: Section 510 (registration, product listing, and premarket notification), section 519 (records and reports), and section 520(f) (good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation) and, in the case of a recommendation for classification into class II, whether the device should be exempted from the premarket notification requirement under section 510, in accordance with § 860.15;
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a recommendation for classification into class II or class III, to the extent practicable, a recommendation for the assignment to the device of a priority for the application of a performance standard or a premarket approval requirement, and in the case of classification into class II, a recommendation on the establishment of special controls and whether the device should be exempted from premarket notification in accordance with § 860.15; and
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of a recommendation for classification of an implant or a life-supporting or life-sustaining device into class I or class II, a statement of why premarket approval is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device and an identification of the risks to health, if any, presented by the device, in accordance with § 860.10.
</P>
<P>(e) A panel recommendation is regarded as preliminary until the Commissioner has reviewed it, discussed it with the panel if appropriate, and published a proposed regulation classifying the device. Preliminary panel recommendations are filed at Dockets Management Staff upon receipt and are available to the public at <I>https://www.regulations.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) The Commissioner publishes the panel's recommendation in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> together with a proposed regulation classifying the device, and other devices of that generic type, and provides interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the recommendation and proposed regulation.
</P>
<P>(g) The Commissioner reviews the comments and issues a final regulation classifying the device and other devices of that generic type. The regulation will:
</P>
<P>(1) If classifying the device into class I, prescribe which, if any, of the requirements of sections 510, 519, and 520(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act will not apply to the device and state the reasons for making the requirements inapplicable, in accordance with § 860.95;
</P>
<P>(2) If classifying the device into class II, establish the special controls for the device and prescribe whether the premarket notification requirement will apply to the device; and
</P>
<P>(3) If classifying an implant, or a life-supporting or life-sustaining device, comply with § 860.10(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 57 FR 58404, Dec. 10, 1992; 64 FR 404, Jan. 5, 1999; 83 FR 64455, Dec. 17, 2018; 90 FR 55980, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.90" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.90   Consultation with panels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Commissioner is required to consult with a panel concerning a classification under § 860.84, the Commissioner will consult with the panel in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Consultation by telephone with at least a majority of current voting panel members and, when possible, nonvoting panel members in a telephone or video conference call; or
</P>
<P>(2) Discussion at a panel meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) The method of consultation chosen by the Commissioner will depend upon the importance and complexity of the subject matter involved and the time available for action. When time and circumstances permit, the Commissioner will consult with a panel through discussion at a panel meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64456, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Reclassification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.120   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sections 513(e) and (f), 514(b), 515(b), and 520(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act provide for reclassification of a device and prescribe the procedures to be followed to effect reclassification. The purposes of subpart C are to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Set forth the requirements as to form and content of petitions for reclassification; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the circumstances in which each of the five statutory reclassification provisions applies; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Explain the procedure for reclassification prescribed in the five statutory reclassification provisions. 
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria for determining the proper class for a device are set forth in § 860.3(c). The reclassification of any device within a generic type of device causes the reclassification of all devices within that generic type. Accordingly, a petition for the reclassification of a specific device will be considered a petition for reclassification of all devices within the same generic type.
</P>
<P>(c) Any interested person may submit a petition for reclassification under section 513(e), 514(b), or 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A manufacturer or importer may submit a petition for reclassification under section 513(f) or 520(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The Commissioner may initiate the reclassification of a device under the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 513(e) (for a classified device other than a device classified into class III under section 513(f)(1) or 520(<I>l</I>)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act);
</P>
<P>(2) Section 513(f)(3) (for a device classified into class III under section 513(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act); or
</P>
<P>(3) Section 520(<I>l</I>)(2) (for a device classified into class III under section 520(<I>l</I>)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 57 FR 58404, Dec. 10, 1992; 83 FR 64456, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.123" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.123   Reclassification petition: Content and form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise provided in writing by the Commissioner, any petition for reclassification of a device, regardless of the section of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act under which it is filed, shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A specification of the type of device for which reclassification is requested; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the action requested by the petitioner, e.g., “It is requested that _ device(s) be reclassified from class III to a class II”; 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the basis for disagreement with the present classification status of the device; 
</P>
<P>(4) A full statement of the reasons, together with supporting data satisfying the requirements of § 860.7, why the device should not be classified into its present classification and how the proposed classification will provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device; 
</P>
<P>(5) Representative data and information known by the petitioner that are unfavorable to the petitioner's position; 
</P>
<P>(6) If the petition is based upon new information under section 513(e), 514(b), or 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a summary of the new information; 
</P>
<P>(7) Copies of source documents from which new information used to support the petition has been obtained (attached as appendices to the petition); and 
</P>
<P>(8) A financial certification or disclosure statement or both as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Each petition submitted pursuant to this section shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Office of Policy Staff, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5445, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; for devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; for devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Central Document Control Room, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Marked clearly with the section of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act under which the petition is being submitted, <I>i.e.,</I> “513(e),” “513(f)(3),” “514(b),” “515(b),” or “520(<I>l</I>) Petition”;
</P>
<P>(3) Bound in a volume or volumes, where necessary; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Submitted in an original and two copies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 14505, Apr. 12, 1984; 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988; 55 FR 11169, Mar. 27, 1990; 63 FR 5254, Feb. 2, 1998; 65 FR 17137, Mar. 31, 2000; 73 FR 49942, Aug. 25, 2008; 75 FR 20916, Apr. 22, 2010; 79 FR 77388, Dec. 24, 2014; 82 FR 39535, Aug. 21, 2017; 83 FR 64456, Dec. 17, 2018; 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.125" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.125   Consultation with panels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Commissioner chooses to refer a reclassification petition to a classification panel for its recommendation under § 860.134(b), or the Commissioner is required to consult with a panel concerning a reclassification petition submitted under § 860.130(d) or received in a proceeding under § 860.133(b), or the Commissioner chooses to consult with a panel with regard to the reclassification of a device initiated by the Commissioner under § 860.134(c) or § 860.136, the Commissioner will distribute a copy of the petition, or its relevant portions, if applicable, to each panel member and will consult with the panel in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Consultation by telephone with at least a majority of current voting panel members and, when possible, nonvoting panel members in a telephone or video conference call; or
</P>
<P>(2) Discussion at a panel meeting. 
</P>
<P>(b) The method of consultation chosen by the Commissioner will depend upon the importance and complexity of the subject matter involved and the time available for action. When time and circumstances permit, the Commissioner will consult with a panel through discussion at a panel meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner will consult with a classification panel prior to changing the classification of a device in a proceeding under section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 860.130 upon the Commissioner's own initiative or upon petition of an interested person, and in the latter case, the Commissioner will distribute a copy of the petition, or its relevant portions, to each panel member.
</P>
<P>(d) When a petition is submitted under § 860.134 for a postamendments, not substantially equivalent, device, if the Commissioner chooses to consult with the panel, the Commissioner will obtain a recommendation that includes the information described in § 860.84(d). In consulting with a panel about a petition submitted under § 860.130(d), § 860.136(a), or received in a proceeding under § 860.133(b), the Commissioner may or may not obtain a formal recommendation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 83 FR 64456, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.130   General procedures under section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applies to reclassification proceedings under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act based upon new information.
</P>
<P>(b) A proceeding to reclassify a device under section 513(e) may be initiated:
</P>
<P>(1) On the initiative of the Commissioner alone;
</P>
<P>(2) On the initiative of the Commissioner in response to a request for change in classification based upon new information, under section 514(b) or 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (see § 860.132); or
</P>
<P>(3) In response to the petition of an interested person, based upon new information, filed in accordance with § 860.123.
</P>
<P>(c) By administrative order published under this section, the Commissioner may change the classification from:
</P>
<P>(1) Class I or class II to class III if the Commissioner determines that the device meets the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c)(3) for a class III device; or
</P>
<P>(2) Class III or class I to class II if the Commissioner determines that the device meets the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c)(2) for a class II device; or
</P>
<P>(3) Class III or class II to class I if the Commissioner determines that the device meets the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c)(1) for a class I device.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The Commissioner shall consult with a classification panel and may secure a recommendation with respect to reclassification of a device from a classification panel. The panel will consider reclassification in accordance with the consultation procedures of § 860.125. A recommendation submitted to the Commissioner by the panel will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> when the Commissioner publishes an administrative order under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner may change the classification of a device by administrative order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> following publication of a proposed reclassification order in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a meeting of a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and consideration of comments to a public docket.
</P>
<P>(e) Within 180 days after the filing of a petition for reclassification under this section, the Commissioner will either deny the petition by order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or give notice of the intent to initiate a change in the classification of the device.
</P>
<P>(f) If a device is reclassified under this section, the administrative order effecting the reclassification may revoke any special control or premarket approval requirement that previously applied to the device but that is no longer applicable because of the change in classification.
</P>
<P>(g) An administrative order under this section changing the classification of a device to class II may provide that such reclassification will not take effect until the effective date of a performance standard for the device established under section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or other special controls established under the order. An order under this section changing the classification of a device to class II may also establish the special controls necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 57 FR 58404, Dec. 10, 1992; 83 FR 64456, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.132" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.132   Procedures when the Commissioner initiates a performance standard or premarket approval proceeding under section 514(b) or 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sections 514(b) and 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act require the Commissioner to provide, by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> an opportunity for interested parties to petition to change the classification of a device based upon new information relevant to its classification when the Commissioner initiates a proceeding to develop a performance standard for the device if in class II or to issue an order requiring premarket approval for the device if in class III.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commissioner agrees that the new information submitted in response to a proposed order to require premarket approval of a device issued under section 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act warrants a change in classification, the Commissioner shall follow the administrative order procedures under section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 860.130 to effect such a change.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commissioner does not agree that the new information submitted in response to a proposed order to require premarket approval of a device issued under section 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act warrants a change in classification, the Commissioner will deny the petition.
</P>
<P>(d) The procedures under section 514(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 30 days after publication of the Commissioner's notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, an interested person files a petition for reclassification in accordance with § 860.123.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner consults with the appropriate classification panel with regard to the petition in accordance with § 860.125.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 60 days after publication of the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the Commissioner either denies the petition or gives notice of the intent to initiate a change in classification in accordance with § 860.130.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 83 FR 64457, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.133" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.133   Procedures when the Commissioner initiates a proceeding to require premarket approval under section 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applies to proceedings to require premarket approval for a class III preamendments device.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner may require premarket approval for a class III preamendments device by administrative order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> following publication of a proposed order in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a meeting of a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and consideration of comments from all affected stakeholders, including patients, payors, and providers. The panel will consider reclassification petitions received in the proceeding in accordance with section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic and the applicable consultation procedures in § 860.125. A recommendation submitted to the Commissioner by the panel will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> when the Commissioner publishes an administrative order under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 64457, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.134" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.134   Procedures for reclassification of “postamendments devices” under section 513(f)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 513(f)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applies to proceedings for reclassification of a device currently in class III by operation of section 513(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This category includes any device that is to be first introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution after May 28, 1976, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) It is substantially equivalent to another device that was in commercial distribution before that date and had not been regulated before that date as a new drug; or 
</P>
<P>(2) It is substantially equivalent to another device that was not in commercial distribution before such date but which has been classified into class I or class II; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner has classified the device into class I or class II in response to a petition for reclassification under this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) The device is classified under a request for De Novo classification under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures for effecting reclassification under section 513(f)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act when initiated by a manufacturer or importer are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer or importer of the device petitions for reclassification of the device in accordance with § 860.123.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days after the petition is filed, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner of any deficiencies in the petition that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it and allows the petitioner to supplement a deficient petition. Within 30 days after any supplemental material is received, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner whether the petition, as supplemented, is adequate for review.
</P>
<P>(3) After determining that the petition contains no deficiencies precluding a decision on it, the Commissioner may for good cause shown refer the petition to the appropriate classification panel for its review and recommendation whether to approve or deny the petition.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 90 days after the date the petition is referred to the panel, following the review procedures set forth in § 860.84(c) for the original classification of a “preamendments device”, the panel submits to the Commissioner its recommendation containing the information set forth in § 860.84(d). A panel recommendation is regarded as preliminary until the Commissioner has reviewed it, discussed it with the panel, if appropriate, and developed a proposed reclassification order. Preliminary panel recommendations are filed at Dockets Management Staff upon receipt and are available to the public and posted at <I>https://www.regulations.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) The panel recommendation is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as soon as practicable and interested persons are provided an opportunity to comment on the recommendation.
</P>
<P>(6) Within 90 days after the panel's recommendation is received (and no more than 210 days after the date the petition was filed), the Commissioner denies or approves the petition by order in the form of a letter to the petitioner. If the Commissioner approves the petition, the order will classify the device into class I or class II in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c) and subject to the applicable requirements of § 860.10, relating to the classification of implants and life-supporting or life-sustaining devices, and § 860.15, relating to exemptions from certain requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(7) Within a reasonable time after issuance of an order under this section, the Commissioner announces the order by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) By administrative order published under section 513(f)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Commissioner may, on the Commissioner's own initiative, change the classification from class III under section 513(f)(1) either to class II, if the Commissioner determines that special controls in addition to general controls are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device and there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide such assurance, or to class I if the Commissioner determines that general controls alone would provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. The procedures for the reclassification proceeding under this paragraph (c) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner publishes a proposed reclassification order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> seeking comment on the proposed reclassification.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner may consult with the appropriate classification panel with respect to the reclassification of the device. The panel will consider reclassification in accordance with the consultation procedures of § 860.125.
</P>
<P>(3) Following consideration of comments to a public docket and any panel recommendations or comments, the Commissioner may change the classification of a device by final administrative order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(d) An administrative order under this section changing the classification of a device from class III to class II may establish the special controls necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 57 FR 58404, Dec. 10, 1992; 73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008; 83 FR 64457, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.136" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.136   Procedures for transitional products under section 520(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 520(<I>l</I>)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applies to reclassification proceedings initiated by the Commissioner or in response to a request by a manufacturer or importer for reclassification of a device currently in class III by operation of section 520(<I>l</I>)(1). This section applies only to devices that the Food and Drug Administration regarded as “new drugs” before May 28, 1976.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures for effecting reclassification under section 520(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act when initiated by a manufacturer or importer are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer or importer of the device files a petition for reclassification of the device in accordance with § 860.123. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days after the petition is filed, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner of any deficiencies in the petition that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it, allowing the petitioner to supplement a deficient petition. Within 30 days after any supplemental material is received, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner whether the petition, as supplemented, is adequate for review. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commissioner consults with the appropriate classification panel with regard to the petition in accordance with § 860.125. 
</P>
<P>(4) Within 180 days after the petition is filed (where the Commissioner has determined it to be adequate for review), the Commissioner, by order in the form of a letter to the petitioner, either denies the petition or classifies the device into class I or class II in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c).
</P>
<P>(5) Within a reasonable time after issuance of an order under this section, the Commissioner announces the order by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) By administrative order, the Commissioner may, on the Commissioner's own initiative, change the classification from class III under section 520(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act either to class II, if the Commissioner determines that special controls in addition to general controls are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device and there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide such assurance, or to class I if the Commissioner determines that general controls alone would provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. The procedures for the reclassification proceeding under this paragraph (c) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner publishes a proposed reclassification order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> seeking comment on the proposed reclassification.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commissioner may consult with the appropriate classification panel with respect to the reclassification of the device. The panel will consider reclassification in accordance with the consultation procedures of § 860.125.
</P>
<P>(3) Following consideration of comments to a public docket and any panel recommendations or comments, the Commissioner may change the classification of a device by final administrative order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(d) An administrative order under this section changing the classification of a device from class III to class II may establish the special controls necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 32993, July 28, 1978, as amended at 83 FR 64458, Dec. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—De Novo Classification</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 54847, Oct. 5, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 860.200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.200   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to establish an efficient, transparent, and thorough process to facilitate De Novo classification into class I or class II for devices for which there is no legally marketed device on which to base a review of substantial equivalence and which meet the definition of class I or class II as described in section 513(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 860.3.
</P>
<P>(b) De Novo requests can be submitted for a single device type:
</P>
<P>(1) After receiving a not substantially equivalent determination in response to a premarket notification (510(k)), or
</P>
<P>(2) If a person determines there is no legally marketed device upon which to base a determination of substantial equivalence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.210   De Novo request format.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each De Novo request or information related to a De Novo request pursuant to this part must be formatted in accordance with this section. Each De Novo request must be provided as a single version in electronic format. These materials must:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, be sent to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, be sent to the current address displayed on the website <I>https://www.fda.gov/about-fda/center-biologics-evaluation-and-research-cber/regulatory-submissions-electronic-and-paper.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Be signed by the requester or an authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(3) Be designated “De Novo Request” in the cover letter.
</P>
<P>(4) Have all content used to support the request written in, or translated into, English.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.220   De Novo request content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the requester justifies an omission in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, a De Novo request must include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Table of contents.</I> A table of contents that specifies the volume (if the De Novo request contains more than one volume) and page number for each item.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Administrative information.</I> The name, address, phone, and email address of the requester and U.S. representative, if applicable. The establishment registration number, if applicable, of the owner or operator submitting the De Novo request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regulatory history.</I> Identify any prior submissions to FDA for the device, including, but not limited to, any premarket notifications (510(k)s) submitted under part 807 of this chapter; applications for premarket approval (PMAs) submitted under part 814 of this chapter; applications for humanitarian device exemption (HDE) submitted under part 814 of this chapter; applications for investigational device exemption (IDEs) submitted under part 812 of this chapter; requests for designation (RFD) under § 3.7 of this chapter; requests for information under section 513(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; applications for emergency use authorization (EUA) under section 564 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; pre-submissions, or previously submitted De Novo requests; or state that there have been no prior submissions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Device name.</I> The generic name of the device as well as any proprietary name or trade name.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Indications for use.</I> A general description of the disease or condition the device is intended to diagnose, treat, prevent, cure or mitigate, or affect the structure or function of the body, including a description of the patient population for which the device is intended. The indications for use include all the labeled patient uses of the device, including if it is prescription or over-the-counter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Device description.</I> A complete description of:
</P>
<P>(i) The device, including, where applicable, pictorial representations, device specifications, and engineering drawings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each of the functional components or ingredients of the device, if the device consists of more than one physical component or ingredient;
</P>
<P>(iii) The properties of the device relevant to the diagnosis, treatment, prevention, cure, or mitigation of a disease or condition and/or the effect of the device on the structure or function of the body;
</P>
<P>(iv) The principles of operation of the device; and
</P>
<P>(v) The relevant FDA assigned reference number(s) for any medical devices (such as accessories or components) that are intended to be used with the device and that are already legally marketed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Alternative practices and procedures.</I> A description of existing alternative practices or procedures that are used in diagnosing, treating, preventing, curing, or mitigating the disease or condition for which the device is intended or which similarly affect the structure or function of the body and that are known or should reasonably be known to the requester.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Classification summary.</I> (i) For devices not the subject of a previous submission under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a complete description of:
</P>
<P>(A) The searches used to establish that no legally marketed device of the same type exists.
</P>
<P>(B) A list of classification regulations, PMAs, HDEs, premarket notifications (510(k)s), EUAs, and/or product codes regarding devices that are potentially similar to the subject device.
</P>
<P>(C) A rationale explaining how the device that is the subject of the De Novo request is different from the devices covered by the classification regulations, PMAs, HDEs, 510(k)s, EUAs, and/or product codes identified in paragraph (a)(8)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices which were the subject of a previous submission under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that were determined not substantially equivalent (NSE), the relevant 510(k) number, along with a summary of the search performed to confirm the device has not been classified or reclassified since the date the NSE order was issued by FDA pursuant to § 807.100(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Summary of risks and mitigations.</I> A summary of probable risks to health associated with use of the device that are known or should reasonably be known to the requester and the proposed mitigations, including general controls and, if the classification recommendation from paragraph (a)(11) of this section is class II, special controls for each risk. For each mitigation measure that involves specific performance testing or labeling, the De Novo request must provide a reference to the associated section or pages for the supporting information in the De Novo request.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Proposed special controls.</I> If the classification recommendation from paragraph (a)(11) of this section is class II, then the summary must include an initial draft proposal for applicable special controls and a description of how those special controls provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Classification recommendation.</I> The recommended class (I or II) must be identified and must be supported by a description of why general controls, or general and special controls, are adequate to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Standards.</I> Reference to any published voluntary consensus standards that are relevant to any aspect of the safety or effectiveness of the device and that are known or should reasonably be known to the requester. Such standards include voluntary consensus standards whether recognized or not yet recognized under section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Provide adequate information to demonstrate how the device meets, or justify any deviation from, the referenced standard.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Summary of studies.</I> An abstract of any information or report described in the De Novo request under paragraph (a)(16)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results of technical data submitted under paragraph (a)(15) of this section. Each such study summary must include a description of the objective of the study, a description of the experimental design of the study, a brief description of how the data were collected and analyzed, and a brief description of the results, whether positive, negative, or inconclusive. This section must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of each nonclinical study submitted in the De Novo request;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of each clinical investigation involving human subjects submitted in the De Novo request, including a discussion of investigation design, subject selection and exclusion criteria, investigation population, investigation period, safety and effectiveness data, adverse reactions and complications, subject discontinuation, subject complaints, device failures (including unexpected software events, if applicable) and replacements, results of statistical analyses of the clinical investigations, contraindications and precautions for use of the device, and other information from the clinical investigations as appropriate. Any investigation conducted under an investigational device exemption (IDE) under part 812 of this chapter must be identified as such.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Benefit and risk considerations.</I> A discussion demonstrating that:
</P>
<P>(i) The data and information in the De Novo request constitute valid scientific evidence within the meaning of § 860.7(c) and
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to § 860.7, when subject to general controls, or general and special controls, the probable benefit to health from use of the device outweighs any probable injury or illness from such use.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Technical sections.</I> The following technical sections, which must contain data and information in sufficient detail to permit FDA to determine whether to grant or decline the De Novo request:
</P>
<P>(i) A section containing the results of the nonclinical studies of the device, including, as appropriate, microbiological, toxicological, immunological, biocompatibility, stress, wear, shelf life, electrical safety, electromagnetic compatibility, and other laboratory or animal tests. Information on nonclinical studies must include protocols and complete test reports for each study. For those nonclinical studies subject to part 58 of this chapter, this section must include a statement that each such study was conducted in compliance with such regulations, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with part 58 of this chapter, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(ii) For all devices that incorporate software, a section containing all relevant software information and testing, including, but not limited to, appropriate device hazard analysis, hardware, and system information.
</P>
<P>(iii) A section containing results of each clinical investigation of the device involving human subjects, including clinical protocols, number of investigators and subjects per investigator, investigation design, subject selection and exclusion criteria, investigation population, investigation period, safety and effectiveness data, adverse reactions and complications, subject discontinuation, subject complaints, device failures (including unexpected software events if applicable) and replacements, tabulations of data from all individual subject report forms and copies of such forms for each subject who died during a clinical investigation or who did not complete the investigation, results of statistical analyses of the results of the clinical investigations, contraindications, warnings, precautions, and other limiting statements relevant to the use of the device type, and any other appropriate information from the clinical investigations. Any investigation conducted under an IDE under part 812 of this chapter must be identified as such. Information on clinical investigations involving human subjects must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) For clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement with respect to each investigation that it either was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105 of this chapter, and that it was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter; or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) For clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with part 812 of this chapter concerning sponsors of clinical investigations and clinical investigators, or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(C) For clinical investigations conducted outside the United States that are intended to support the De Novo request, the requirements under § 812.28 of this chapter apply. If any such investigation was not conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP) as described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, include either a waiver request in accordance with § 812.28(c) of this chapter or a brief statement of the reason for not conducting the investigation in accordance with GCP and a description of steps taken to ensure that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that each investigation has been completed per the protocol or a summary of any protocol deviations.
</P>
<P>(E) A financial certification or disclosure statement or both as required by part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(F) For a De Novo request that relies primarily on data from a single investigator at one investigation site, a justification showing that these data and other information are sufficient to reasonably demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of the device when subject to general controls or general and special controls, and to ensure that the results from a site are applicable to the intended population.
</P>
<P>(G) A discussion of how the investigation data represent clinically significant results, pursuant to § 860.7(e).
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Other information.</I> (i) A bibliography of all published reports not submitted under paragraph (a)(15) of this section, whether adverse or supportive, known to or that should reasonably be known to the requester and that concern the safety or effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification, discussion, and analysis of any other data, information, or report relevant to an evaluation of the safety and effectiveness of the device known to or that should reasonably be known to the requester from any source, foreign or domestic, including information derived from investigations other than those in the request and from commercial marketing experience.
</P>
<P>(iii) Copies of such published reports or unpublished information in the possession of or reasonably obtainable by the requester, if requested by FDA.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Samples.</I> If requested by FDA, one or more samples of the device and its components. If it is impractical to submit a requested sample of the device, the requester must name the location at which FDA may examine and test one or more of the devices.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Labeling and advertisements.</I> Labels, labeling, and advertisements sufficient to describe the device, its intended use, and the directions for its use. Where applicable, photographs or engineering drawings must be supplied.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Other information.</I> Such other information as is necessary to determine whether general controls or general and special controls provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Pertinent information in FDA files specifically referred to by a requester may be incorporated into a De Novo request by reference. Information submitted to FDA by a person other than the requester will not be considered part of a De Novo request unless such reference is authorized in writing by the person who submitted the information.
</P>
<P>(c) If the requester believes that certain information required under paragraph (a) of this section to be in a De Novo request is not applicable to the device that is the subject of the De Novo request, and omits any such information from the De Novo request, the requester must submit a statement that specifies the omitted information and justifies the omission. The statement must be submitted as a separate section in the De Novo request and listed in the table of contents. If the justification for the omission is not accepted by FDA, FDA will so notify the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) The requester must update the pending De Novo request with new safety and effectiveness information learned about the device from ongoing or completed studies and investigations that may reasonably affect an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the device as such information becomes available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.230   Accepting a De Novo request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The acceptance of a De Novo request means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the De Novo request contains the information necessary to permit a substantive review. Within 15 days after a De Novo request is received by FDA, FDA will notify the requester whether the De Novo request has been accepted.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA does not find that any of the reasons in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for refusing to accept the De Novo request apply or FDA fails to complete the acceptance review within 15 days, FDA will accept the De Novo request for review and will notify the requester. The notice will include the De Novo request reference number and the date FDA accepted the De Novo request. The date of acceptance is the date that an accepted De Novo request was received by FDA.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) FDA may refuse to accept a De Novo request if any of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) The requester has an open or pending premarket submission or reclassification petition for the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The De Novo request is incomplete because it does not on its face contain all the information required under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or does not contain each of the items required under this part, or a justification for omission of any item;
</P>
<P>(iii) The De Novo request is not formatted as required under § 860.210;
</P>
<P>(iv) The De Novo request is for multiple devices and those devices are of more than one type; or
</P>
<P>(v) The requester has not responded to, or has failed to provide a rationale for not responding to, deficiencies identified by FDA in previous submissions for the same device, including those submissions described in § 860.220(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA refuses to accept a De Novo request, FDA will notify the requester of the reasons for the refusal. The notice will identify the deficiencies in the De Novo request that prevent accepting and will include the De Novo request reference number.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA refuses to accept a De Novo request, the requester may submit the additional information necessary to comply with the requirements of section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this part. The additional information must include the De Novo request reference number of the original submission. If the De Novo request is subsequently accepted, the date of acceptance is the date FDA receives the additional information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.240   Procedures for review of a De Novo request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will begin substantive review of a De Novo request after the De Novo request is accepted under § 860.230. Within 120 days after receipt of a De Novo request or receipt of additional information that results in the De Novo request being accepted under § 860.230, FDA will review the De Novo request and send the requester an order granting the De Novo request under § 860.260(a) or an order declining the De Novo request under 860.260(b).
</P>
<P>(b) A requester may supplement or amend a pending De Novo request to revise existing information or provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA may require additional information regarding the device that is necessary for FDA to complete the review of the De Novo request.
</P>
<P>(2) Additional information submitted to FDA must include the reference number assigned to the original De Novo request and, if submitted on the requester's own initiative, the reason for submitting the additional information.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to granting or declining a De Novo request, FDA may inspect relevant facilities to help determine:
</P>
<P>(1) That clinical or nonclinical data were collected in a manner that ensures that the data accurately represents the benefits and risks of the device; or
</P>
<P>(2) That implementation of Quality Management System Regulation (part 820 of this chapter) requirements, in addition to other general controls and any specified special controls, provide adequate assurance that critical and/or novel manufacturing processes produce devices that meet specifications necessary to ensure reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 54847, Oct. 5, 2021, as amended at 90 FR 55980, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.250   Withdrawal of a De Novo request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA considers a De Novo request to have been withdrawn if:
</P>
<P>(1) The requester fails to provide a complete response to a request for additional information pursuant to § 860.240(b)(1) within 180 days after the date FDA issues such request;
</P>
<P>(2) The requester fails to provide a complete response to the deficiencies identified by FDA pursuant to § 860.230(c)(2) within 180 days of the date notification was issued by FDA;
</P>
<P>(3) The requester does not permit an authorized FDA employee an opportunity to inspect the facilities, pursuant to § 860.240(c), at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner, and to have access to copy and verify all records pertinent to the De Novo request; or
</P>
<P>(4) The requester submits a written notice to FDA that the De Novo request has been withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(b) If a De Novo request is withdrawn, the Agency will notify the requester. The notice will include the De Novo request reference number and the date FDA considered the De Novo request withdrawn.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.16.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.260   Granting or declining a De Novo request.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) FDA will issue to the requester an order granting a De Novo request if none of the reasons in paragraph (c) of this section for declining the De Novo request applies.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA grants a De Novo request, within 30 days after the issuance of an order granting the De Novo request, FDA will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the classification order, including any special controls.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA declines a De Novo request, FDA will issue a written order to the requester.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA may decline a De Novo request if the requester fails to follow the requirements of this part or if, upon the basis of the information submitted in the De Novo request or any other information before FDA, FDA determines:
</P>
<P>(1) The device does not meet the criteria under section 513(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 860.3 for classification into class I or II;
</P>
<P>(2) The De Novo request contains a false statement of material fact or there is a material omission;
</P>
<P>(3) The device's labeling does not comply with the requirements in parts 801 and 809 of this chapter, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) The product described in the De Novo request does not meet the definition of a device under section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and is not a combination product as defined at § 3.2(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) The device is of a type which has already been approved in existing applications for premarket approval (PMAs) submitted under part 814 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) The device is of a type that has already been classified into class I, class II, or class III;
</P>
<P>(7) An inspection of a relevant facility under § 860.240(c) results in a determination that general or general and special controls would not provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness;
</P>
<P>(8) A nonclinical study subject to part 58 of this chapter that is described in the De Novo request, and that is essential to show there is reasonable assurance of safety, was not conducted in compliance with part 58 of this chapter and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if a reason is provided, the practices used in conducting the study do not support the validity of the study;
</P>
<P>(9) A clinical investigation described in the De Novo request involving human subjects that is subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter, informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter, or GCP described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected or the supporting data were determined to be otherwise unreliable;
</P>
<P>(10) A clinical or nonclinical study necessary to demonstrate that general controls or general and special controls provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness:
</P>
<P>(i) Has not been completed per the study protocol, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Deficiencies related to the investigation and identified in any request for additional information under § 860.240(b)(1) have not been adequately addressed; or
</P>
<P>(11) After a De Novo request is accepted for review under § 860.230(b), the requester makes significant unsolicited changes to the device's:
</P>
<P>(i) Indications for use; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Technological characteristics.
</P>
<P>(d) An order declining a De Novo request will inform the requester of the deficiencies in the De Novo request, including each applicable ground for declining the De Novo request.
</P>
<P>(e) FDA will use the criteria specified in § 860.7 to determine the safety and effectiveness of a device in deciding whether to grant or decline a De Novo request. FDA may use information other than that submitted by the requester in making such determination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="861" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 861—PROCEDURES FOR PERFORMANCE STANDARDS DEVELOPMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360c, 360d, 360gg-360ss, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 262, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to the establishment, amendment, and revocation of performance standards applicable to devices intended for human use.
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration may determine that a performance standard, as described under special controls for class II devices in § 860.7(b) of this chapter, is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Performance standards may be established for: 
</P>
<P>(1) A class II device; 
</P>
<P>(2) A class III device which, upon the effective date of the standard, is reclassified into class II; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A class III device, as a condition to premarket approval under section 515 of the act, to reduce or eliminate a risk or risks associated with such device.
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 23686, Apr. 8, 1980; 57 FR 58404, Dec. 10, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.5   Statement of policy.</HEAD>
<P>In carrying out its duties under this section, the Food and Drug Administration will, to the maximum extent practical:
</P>
<P>(a) Use personnel, facilities, and other technical support available in other Federal agencies;
</P>
<P>(b) Consult with other Federal agencies concerned with standard setting and other nationally or internationally recognized standard-setting entities; and
</P>
<P>(c) Invite participation, through conferences, workshops, or other means, by representatives of scientific, professional, industry, or consumer organizations who can make a significant contribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.7   Contents of standards.</HEAD>
<P>Any performance standard established under this part will include such provisions as the Food and Drug Administration determines are necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device or devices for which it is established. Where necessary to provide such assurance, a standard will address (but need not be limited to):
</P>
<P>(a) Performance characteristics of the device;
</P>
<P>(b) The design, construction, components, ingredients, and properties of the device, and its compatibility with power systems and connections to such systems;
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturing processes and quality control procedures applicable to the device; 
</P>
<P>(d) Testing of the device on either a sample or a 100-percent basis by the manufacturer, or, if it is determined that no other more practical means are available to the Food and Drug Administration to assure the conformity of the device to the standard, providing for testing by the Food and Drug Administration or a third person to ensure that the device conforms to the standard; 
</P>
<P>(e) The publication of the results of each test or of certain tests of the device to show that the device conforms to the portions of the standard for which the test or tests were required; 
</P>
<P>(f) Manufacturers' certification to purchasers or to the Food and Drug Administration that the device conforms to the applicable performance standard; 
</P>
<P>(g) Restrictions on the sale and distribution of the device, but only to the extent authorized under section 520(e) of the act; 
</P>
<P>(h) The use, and the form and content, of labeling for the proper installation, maintenance, operation, and use of the device. Among the provisions that may be required in the labeling are warnings; storage and transportation information; expiration dates; the date and place of manufacture; the results that may be expected if the device is used properly; the ranges of accuracy of diagnostic information; instructions regarding the proper care of, and the proper components, accessories, or other equipment to be used with the device; and statements concerning the appropriate patient population, for example, a statement that the device is considered safe and effective only when used by, or in the treatment of, a patient who has been tested by particular designated procedures and found to have an illness or condition for which use of the device is indicated by a person skilled in the use of the device. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Performance Standards Development and Publication</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.20   Summary of standards development process.</HEAD>
<P>The procedure by which a performance standard for a device may be established, amended, or revoked is as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of proposed rulemaking for the establishment, amendment, or revocation of any performance standard for a device.
</P>
<P>(1) A notice of proposed rulemaking for the establishment or amendment of a performance standard for a device will:
</P>
<P>(i) Set forth a finding, with supporting justification, that the performance standard is appropriate and necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Set forth proposed findings with respect to the risk of illness or injury that the performance standard is intended to reduce or eliminate;
</P>
<P>(iii) Invite interested persons to submit to the Food and Drug Administration, within 30 days of the publication of the notice, requests for changes in the classification of the device pursuant to § 860.132 of this chapter, based on new information relevant to the classification; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Invite interested persons to submit an existing performance standard for the device, including a draft or proposed performance standard, for consideration by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) A notice of proposed rulemaking for the revocation of a performance standard will set forth a finding, with supporting justification, that the performance standard is no longer necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of a device.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice under this section will provide for a comment period of not less than 60 days. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, after publication of a notice under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA receives a request to change the classification of the device, FDA will, within 60 days of the publication of the notice and after consultation with the appropriate panel under § 860.125 of this chapter, either deny the request or give notice of its intent to initiate a change in the classification under § 860.130.
</P>
<P>(d) If FDA initiates a rulemaking proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(1) Complete the proceeding and establish the performance standard for the device in accordance with this part and § 10.40 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate the proceeding by publishing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice announcing such termination and the reasons therefor and, unless the proceeding is terminated because the device is a banned device, initiate a proceeding in accordance with section 513(e) of the act to reclassify the device; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Take other appropriate action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 58404, Dec. 10, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.24" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.24   Existing standard as a proposed standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration may accept an existing standard or a proposed or draft standard if it includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the procedures used to develop the standard and a list of the persons and organizations that participated in its development, to the extent that such information is available or reasonably obtainable; 
</P>
<P>(2) An identification of the specific portions of the existing standard that the person submitting the standard believes are appropriate for adoption as, or inclusion in, the proposed standard; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the test data, or, if requested by the Food and Drug Administration, all such data or other information supporting the specific portions of the standard identified by the person submitting the standard. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating either that it has accepted, or accepted with modification, as a proposed standard, an existing standard or one that has been developed, or that an existing standard is not acceptable, together with the reasons therefor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980, as amended at 57 FR 58405, Dec. 10, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.30   Development of standards.</HEAD>
<P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA), while engaged in the development of a proposed standard under this section will:
</P>
<P>(a) Support its proposed performance standard by such test data or other documents or materials as may reasonably be required;
</P>
<P>(b) Provide interested persons an opportunity to participate in the development of the standard by accepting comments and, where appropriate, holding public meetings on issues relating to development of the standard. Notice of the opportunity to participate in the development of the standard will be furnished in a manner reasonably calculated to reach the majority of persons interested in the development of the standard. This requirement shall be satisfied by publishing such a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Whenever it is appropriate, FDA will use the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to make announcements about the standard development process of standard developers other than Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain records disclosing the course of development of the proposed standard, the comments and other information submitted by a person in connection with such development (including comments and information regarding the need for a standard), and such other information as may be required to evaluate the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980, as amended at 57 FR 58405, Dec. 10, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.34" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.34   Amendment or revocation of a standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will provide for periodic evaluation of performance standards to determine whether such standards should be changed to reflect new medical, scientific, or other technological data. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Food and Drug Administration may, on its own initiative or upon petition of an interested party, amend or revoke by regulation a standard established under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any petition to amend or revoke a standard shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the specific device and standard for which the amendment or revocation is sought; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 10.30. 
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings to amend or revoke a performance standard shall be conducted in accordance with the rulemaking procedures of § 10.40. In addition, a notice of proposed rulemaking to amend or revoke a standard shall set forth proposed findings with respect to the degree of risk or illness to be eliminated or reduced and the benefit the public will derive from the proposed amendment or revocation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.36" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.36   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A regulation establishing, amending, or revoking a performance standard will set forth the date upon which it will take effect. To the extent practical, consistent with the public health and safety, such effective date will be established so as to minimize economic loss to, and disruption or dislocation of, domestic and international trade. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no regulation establishing, amending, or revoking a standard may take effect before 1 year after the date of its publication unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Food and Drug Administration determines that an earlier effective date is necessary to protect the public health and safety; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The standard has been established for a device that, by the effective date of the standard, has been reclassified from class III to class II. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Food and Drug Administration may declare a proposed regulation amending a standard effective on publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if it determines that making the regulation so effective is in the public interest. A proposed amendment of a performance standard made effective upon publication may not prohibit the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of a device that conforms to the standard without the change or changes provided in the proposed amendment until the effective date of any final action on the proposal. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980, as amended at 57 FR 58405, Dec. 10, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.38" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.17.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.38   Standards advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration will establish advisory committees to which proposed regulations may be referred, and these committees shall consider such referrals in accordance with this section and part 14 of this chapter. Such advisory committees, which may not be classification panels, shall be considered ad hoc advisory committees. Their members shall be selected in accordance with §§ 14.82 and 14.84, except that no member may be a regular full-time FDA employee. Each advisory committee established under this section shall include as nonvoting members a representative of consumer interests and a representative of interests of the device manufacturing industry.
</P>
<P>(b) A proposed regulation to establish, amend, or revoke a performance standard shall be referred to an advisory committee for a report and recommendation with respect to any matter involved in the proposed regulation which requires the exercise of scientific judgment if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Food and Drug Administration determines that such referral is necessary or appropriate under the circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(2) Requested by an interested person, in the form of a citizen petition in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter, which is made within the period provided for comment on the proposed regulation and which demonstrates good cause for referral. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a proposed regulation is referred to an advisory committee, the Food and Drug Administration will furnish the committee with the data and information upon which the proposed regulation is based. After independently reviewing the materials furnished by the Food and Drug Administration and any other available data and information, the advisory committee shall, within 60 days of the referral, submit a report and recommendation on the proposed regulation, together with all underlying data and information and a statement of the reason or basis for the recommendation. A copy of the report and recommendation will be publicly displayed in the office of the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(d) Where appropriate, each proposed regulation establishing a standard published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> will include a call for nominations to the advisory committee for that particular standard. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7484, Feb. 1, 1980, as amended at 57 FR 58405, Dec. 10, 1992; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="862" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 862—CLINICAL CHEMISTRY AND CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 862 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of clinical chemistry and clinical toxicology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required in § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(d) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 67 FR 58329, Sept. 16, 2002; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013; 79 FR 50552, Aug. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2   Regulation of calibrators.</HEAD>
<P>Many devices classified in this part are intended to be used with a calibrator. A calibrator has a reference value assigned to it which serves as the basis by which test results of patients are derived or calculated. The calibrator for a device may be (a) manufactured and distributed separately from the device with which it is intended to be used, (b) manufactured and distributed as one of several device components, such as in a kit of reagents, or (c) built-in as an integral part of the device. Because of the central role that a calibrator plays in the measurement process and the critical effect calibrators have on accuracy of test results, elsewhere in this part, all three of these types of calibrators (§§ 862.1150 and 862.3200 of this part) are classified into class II, notwithstanding the classification of the device with which it is intended to be used. Thus, a device and its calibrator may have different classifications, even if the calibrator is built into the device.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only; 
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended: 
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices; 
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism; 
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material; 
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma; 
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2304, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Clinical Chemistry Test Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1020   Acid phosphatase (total or prostatic) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An acid phosphatase (total or prostatic) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the acid phosphatase enzyme in plasma and serum. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1025   Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) test system is a device intended to measure adrenocorticotropic hormone in plasma and serum. ACTH measurements are used in the differential diagnosis and treatment of certain disorders of the adrenal glands such as Cushing's syndrome, adrenocortical insufficiency, and the ectopic ACTH syndrome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1030   Alanine amino transferase (ALT/SGPT) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An alanine amino transferase (ALT/SGPT) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme alanine amino transferase (ALT) (also known as a serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase or SGPT) in serum and plasma. Alanine amino transferase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain liver diseases (e.g., viral hepatitis and cirrhosis) and heart diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1035" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1035   Albumin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An albumin test system is a device intended to measure the albumin concentration in serum and plasma. Albumin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous diseases involving primarily the liver or kidneys.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1040   Aldolase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An aldolase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme aldolase in serum or plasma. Aldolase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of the early stages of acute hepatitis and for certain muscle diseases such as progressive Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1045" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1045   Aldosterone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An aldosterone test system is a device intended to measure the hormone aldosterone in serum and urine. Aldosterone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of primary aldosteronism (a disorder caused by the excessive secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal gland), hypertension caused by primary aldosteronism, selective hypoaldosteronism, edematous states, and other conditions of electrolyte imbalance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1050   Alkaline phosphatase or isoenzymes test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An alkaline phosphatase or isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure alkaline phosphatase or its isoenzymes (a group of enzymes with similar biological activity) in serum or plasma. Measurements of alkaline phosphatase or its isoenzymes are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver, bone, parathyroid, and intestinal diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1055" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1055   Newborn screening test system for amino acids, free carnitine, and acylcarnitines using tandem mass spectrometry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A newborn screening test system for amino acids, free carnitine, and acylcarnitines using tandem mass spectrometry is a device that consists of stable isotope internal standards, control materials, extraction solutions, flow solvents, instrumentation, software packages, and other reagents and materials. The device is intended for the measurement and evaluation of amino acids, free carnitine, and acylcarnitine concentrations from newborn whole blood filter paper samples. The quantitative analysis of amino acids, free carnitine, and acylcarnitines and their relationship with each other provides analyte concentration profiles that may aid in screening newborns for one or more inborn errors of amino acid, free carnitine, and acyl-carnitine metabolism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Newborn Screening Test Systems for Amino Acids, Free Carnitine, and Acylcarnitines Using Tandem Mass Spectrometry.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68255, Nov. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1060   Delta-aminolevulinic acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>delta</I>-aminolevulinic acid test system is a device intended to measure the level of <I>delta</I>-aminolevulinic acid (a precursor of porphyrin) in urine. <I>Delta</I>-aminolevulinic acid measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lead poisoning and certain porphyrias (diseases affecting the liver, gastrointestinal, and nervous systems that are accompanied by increased urinary excretion of various heme compounds including <I>delta</I>-aminolevulinic acid).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1065" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1065   Ammonia test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ammonia test system is a device intended to measure ammonia levels in blood, serum, and plasma, Ammonia measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of severe liver disorders, such as cirrhosis, hepatitis, and Reye's syndrome. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1070   Amylase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An amylase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme amylase in serum and urine. Amylase measurements are used primarily for the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatitis (inflammation of the pancreas).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1075" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1075   Androstenedione test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An androstenedione test system is a device intended to measure androstenedione (a substance secreted by the testes, ovary, and adrenal glands) in serum. Adrostenedione measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of females with excessive levels of androgen (male sex hormone) production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1080   Androsterone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An androsterone test system is a device intended to measure the hormone adrosterone in serum, plasma, and urine. Androsterone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gonadal and adrenal diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1085" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1085   Angiotensin I and renin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An angiotensin I and renin test system is a device intended to measure the level of angiotensin I generated by renin in plasma. Angiotensin I measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain types of hypertension. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1090   Angiotensin converting enzyme (A.C.E.) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An angiotensin converting enzyme (A.C.E.) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of angiotensin converting enzyme in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases such as sarcoidosis, a disease characterized by the formation of nodules in the lungs, bones, and skin, and Gaucher's disease, a hereditary disorder affecting the spleen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1092" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1092   Anti-mullerian hormone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anti-mullerian hormone test system is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure anti-mullerian hormone in human serum and plasma. An anti-mullerian hormone test system is intended to be used for assessing ovarian reserve in women.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An adequate traceability plan to minimize the risk of drift in anti-mullerian hormone test system results over time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of a prospective clinical study to demonstrate clinical performance or, if appropriate, results from an equivalent sample set. This detailed documentation must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Results must demonstrate adequate clinical performance relative to a well-accepted comparator.
</P>
<P>(B) Clinical sample results must demonstrate consistency of device output throughout the device measuring range that is appropriate for the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(C) Clinical study documentation must include the original study protocol (including predefined statistical analysis plan), study report documenting support for the proposed indications for use(s), and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reference intervals generated by testing an adequate number of samples from apparently healthy normal individuals in the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include a warning statement that the device is intended to be used for assessing the ovarian reserve in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings before starting any fertility therapy, and that the device should be used in conjunction with the antral follicle count.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 22850, May 30, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1093" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1093   Menopause test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A menopause test system is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure hormones or other analytes in human clinical specimens as an aid in the determination of menopausal status in women.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A menopause test system must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An appropriate traceability plan to minimize the risk of drift in the menopause test system results over time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of a clinical study to demonstrate clinical performance or, if appropriate, results from an equivalent sample set. This detailed documentation must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Results must demonstrate appropriate clinical performance relative to a well-accepted and appropriate comparator.
</P>
<P>(B) Data must demonstrate accuracy of device output for each indicated specimen type throughout the device measuring range as appropriate for the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement in the indications for use that the device is intended to be used for the determination of menopausal status only in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings prior to any diagnostic or treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(ii) A limiting statement that the device is intended to be used for the determination of menopausal status only in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings prior to any diagnostic or treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(iii) A limiting statement appropriately describing the risks of false test results and that test results should not be relied upon in clinical decision making (<I>e.g.,</I> to discontinue contraceptive use and/or to evaluate patients for the presence of endometrial cancer) without other clinical and laboratory findings.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40708, Aug. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1095" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1095   Ascorbic acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ascorbic acid test system is a device intended to measure the level of ascorbic acid (vitamin C) in plasma, serum, and urine. Ascorbic acid measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of ascorbic acid dietary deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1100   Aspartate amino transferase (AST/SGOT) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An aspartate amino transferase (AST/SGOT) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme aspartate amino transferase (AST) (also known as a serum glutamic oxaloacetic transferase or SGOT) in serum and plasma. Aspartate amino transferase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain types of liver and heart disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1110   Bilirubin (total or direct) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bilirubin (total or direct) test system is a device intended to measure the levels of bilirubin (total or direct) in plasma or serum. Measurements of the levels of bilirubin, an organic compound formed during the normal and abnormal distruction of red blood cells, if used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver, hemolytic hematological, and metabolic disorders, including hepatitis and gall bladder block.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1113" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1113   Bilirubin (total and unbound) in the neonate test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bilirubin (total and unbound) in the neonate test system is a device intended to measure the levels of bilirubin (total and unbound) in the blood (serum) of newborn infants to aid in indicating the risk of bilirubin encephalopathy (kernicterus).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 30206, July 19, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1115" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1115   Urinary bilirubin and its conjugates (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary bilirubin and its conjugates (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to measure the levels of bilirubin conjugates in urine. Measurements of urinary bilirubin and its conjugates (nonquantitative) are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain liver diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1117" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1117   B-type natriuretic peptide test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) test system is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure BNP in whole blood and plasma. Measurements of BNP are used as an aid in the diagnosis of patients with congestive heart failure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is “Class II Special Control Guidance Document for B-Type Natriuretic Peptide Premarket Notifications; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA Reviewers.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 12734, Feb. 28, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1118" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1118   Biotinidase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The biotinidase test system is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme biotinidase in blood. Measurements of biotinidase are used in the treatment and diagnosis of biotinidase deficiency, an inborn error of metabolism in infants, characterized by the inability to utilize dietary protein bound vitamin or to recycle endogenous biotin. The deficiency may result in irreversible neurological impairment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is sale, distribution, and use in accordance with the prescription device requirements in § 801.109 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 16521, Mar. 29, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1120   Blood gases (P<E T="0732">CO2</E>, P<E T="0732">O2</E>) and blood pH test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood gases (P<E T="52">CO2</E>, P<E T="52">O2</E>) and blood pH test system is a device intended to measure certain gases in blood, serum, plasma or pH of blood, serum, and plasma. Measurements of blood gases (P<E T="52">CO2</E>, P<E T="52">O2</E>) and blood pH are used in the diagnosis and treatment of life-threatening acid-base disturbances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1130   Blood volume test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood volume test system is a device intended to measure the circulating blood volume. Blood volume measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of shock, hemorrhage, and polycythemia vera (a disease characterized by an absolute increase in erythrocyte mass and total blood volume).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1135" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1135   C-peptides of proinsulin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A C-peptides of proinsulin test system is a device intended to measure C-peptides of proinsulin levels in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements of C-peptides of proinsulin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with abnormal insulin secretion, including diabetes mellitus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1140   Calcitonin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calcitonin test system is a device intended to measure the thyroid hormone calcitonin (thyrocalcitonin) levels in plasma and serum. Calcitonin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases involving the thyroid and parathyroid glands, including carcinoma and hyperparathyroidism (excessive activity of the parathyroid gland). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1145" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1145   Calcium test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calcium test system is a device intended to measure the total calcium level in serum. Calcium measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of parathyroid disease, a variety of bone diseases, chronic renal disease and tetany (intermittent muscular contractions or spasms).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1150   Calibrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calibrator is a device intended for medical purposes for use in a test system to establish points of reference that are used in the determination of values in the measurement of substances in human specimens. (See also § 862.2 in this part.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1155" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1155   Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test system intended for the early detection of pregnancy</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test system is a device intended for the early detection of pregnancy is intended to measure HCG, a placental hormone, in plasma or urine.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test system intended for any uses other than early detection of pregnancy</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A human chorionic goadotropin (HCG) test system is a device intended for any uses other than early detection of pregnancy (such as an aid in the diagnosis, prognosis, and management of treatment of persons with certain tumors or carcinomas) is intended to measure HCG, a placental hormone, in plasma or urine. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before the device described in paragraph (b)(1) may be commercially distributed. See § 862.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1160   Bicarbonate/carbon dioxide test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bicarbonate/carbon dioxide test system is a device intended to measure bicarbonate/carbon dioxide in plasma, serum, and whole blood. Bicarbonate/carbon dioxide measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous potentially serious disorders associated with changes in body acid-base balance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1163" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1163   Cardiac allograft gene expression profiling test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiac allograft gene expression profiling test system is a device that measures the ribonucleic acid (RNA) expression level of multiple genes and combines this information to yield a signature (pattern, classifier, index, score) to aid in the identification of a low probability of acute cellular rejection (ACR) in heart transplant recipients with stable allograft function.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cardiac Allograft Gene Expression Profiling Test Systems.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 53885, Oct. 21, 2009] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1164" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1164   Setmelanotide eligibility gene variant detection system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A setmelanotide eligibility gene variant detection system is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended to detect germline variants within genes isolated from human specimens for the purpose of identifying patients with obesity who may benefit from treatment with setmelanotide in accordance with the approved therapeutic product labeling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of studies that provide data bridging the efficacy of setmelanotide in the clinical trial patient population identified by the clinical trial assay(s) to the efficacy of setmelanotide in the device intended use population identified by the device using the clinical trial samples, or through an alternative approach determined to be appropriate by FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of studies that provide data demonstrating the accuracy of the device using clinical specimens representing the intended use specimen type(s) and intended use variant type(s) from the intended use population, including the clinical trial samples, or through an alternative approach determined to be appropriate by FDA. Accuracy of the device must be evaluated at the variant level and sample level, through evaluation of variant and non-variant sequences at the nucleotide level as well as variant interpretation, by comparison to validated bidirectional Sanger sequencing methods or through other methods determined to be appropriate by FDA. If the device will be used at more than one site, the data must demonstrate accuracy across multiple intended use sites.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of studies that provide data demonstrating the precision of the device for the intended use specimen type(s) and intended use variant type(s) from the intended use population. Precision must be evaluated at the variant level and sample level, through evaluation of variant and non-variant sequences at the nucleotide level as well as variant interpretation, using multiple reagent lots, operators, and instruments over multiple days, or through an alternative precision study design determined to be appropriate by FDA. If the device will be used at more than one site, data must demonstrate adequate, as determined by FDA, reproducibility across multiple intended use sites.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation of studies that provide data demonstrating the analytical specificity of the device for the intended use specimen type(s), including an evaluation of cross-reactivity and cross contamination.
</P>
<P>(A) Cross-reactivity (<I>e.g.,</I> from homologous regions, paralogs, pseudogenes, repeated sequences, high GC (Guanine and Cytosine) content regions, segmental duplications, and other types of cross-reactive sequences) must be evaluated to assess the detection of unintended alleles or incorrect calls in the target regions covered by the device; and
</P>
<P>(B) Cross-contamination must be evaluated to detect carryover and co-mingling of input specimens throughout the process (<I>e.g.,</I> from sample collection and library preparation to variant interpretation).
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed documentation of studies that provide data demonstrating adequate, as determined by FDA, stability of the specimens used in the design validation studies in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(vi) Detailed documentation of information demonstrating adequate, as determined by FDA, analytical quality metrics and thresholds.
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed documentation of information demonstrating adequate, as determined by FDA, procedures that will be performed for variant interpretation and classification, including the procedures that will be performed for variant interpretation and classification changes that may occur as new scientific information becomes available. The information must indicate how the personnel performing such interpretation and classification are trained.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter and any test report generated must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Limiting statements that:
</P>
<P>(A) Explain that the classification and interpretation of variants identified reflects the current state of scientific understanding at the time the results are issued.
</P>
<P>(B) Explain variants could change classification as new scientific information becomes available, which may impact patient eligibility for therapeutic treatment; and
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, explain sufficient scientific information is not available to assign pathogenicity to variants of uncertain significance (VUS).
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the performance testing, including results, required under paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 21378, Apr. 22, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1165   Catecholamines (total) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catecholamines (total) test system is a device intended to determine whether a group of similar compounds (epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine) are present in urine and plasma. Catecholamine determinations are used in the diagnosis and treatment of adrenal medulla and hypertensive disorders, and for catecholamine-secreting tumors (pheochromo-cytoma, neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroma, and retinoblastoma).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1170   Chloride test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chloride test system is a device intended to measure the level of chloride in plasma, serum, sweat, and urine. Chloride measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of electrolyte and metabolic disorders such as cystic fibrosis and diabetic acidosis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1175   Cholesterol (total) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cholesterol (total) test system is a device intended to measure cholesterol in plasma and serum. Cholesterol measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving excess cholesterol in the blood and lipid and lipoprotein metabolism disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1177" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1177   Cholylglycine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cholylglycine test system is a device intended to measure the bile acid cholylglycine in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disorders, such as cirrhosis or obstructive liver disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1180   Chymotrypsin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chymotrypsin test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme chymotrypsin in blood and other body fluids and in feces. Chymotrypsin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic exocrine insufficiency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1185" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1185   Compound S (11-deoxycortisol) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A compound S (11-dioxycortisol) test system is a device intended to measure the level of compound S (11-dioxycortisol) in plasma. Compound S is a steroid intermediate in the biosynthesis of the adrenal hormone cortisol. Measurements of compound S are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain adrenal and pituitary gland disorders resulting in clinical symptoms of masculinization and hypertension. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1187" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1187   Conjugated sulfolithocholic acid (SLCG) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A conjugated sulfolithocholic acid (SLCG) test system is a device intended to measure the bile acid SLCG in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disorders, such as cirrhosis or obstructive liver disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1190" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1190   Copper test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A copper test system is a device intended to measure copper levels in plasma, serum, and urine. Measurements of copper are used in the diagnosis and treatment of anemia, infections, inflammations, and Wilson's disease (a hereditary disease primarily of the liver and nervous system). Test results are also used in monitoring patients with Hodgkin's disease (a disease primarily of the lymph system). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1195" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1195   Corticoids test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A corticoids test system is a device intended to measure the levels of corticoids (hormones of the adrenal cortex) in serum and p lasma. Measurements of corticoids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the cortex of the adrenal glands, especially those associated with hypertension and electrolyte disturbances. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1200   Corticosterone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A corticosterone test system is a device intended to measure corticosterone (a steroid secreted by the adrenal gland) levels in plasma. Measurements of corticosterone are used in the diagnosis and treatment of adrenal disorders such as adrenal cortex disorders and blocks in cortisol synthesis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1205" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1205   Cortisol (hydrocortisone and hydroxycorticosterone) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cortisol (hydrocortisone and hydroxycorticosterone) test system is a device intended to measure the cortisol hormones secreted by the adrenal gland in plasma and urine. Measurements of cortisol are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the adrenal gland. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1210   Creatine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A creatine test system is a device intended to measure creatine (a substance synthesized in the liver and pancreas and found in biological fluids) in plasma, serum, and urine. Measurements of creatine are used in the diagnosis and treatment of muscle diseases and endocrine disorders including hyperthyroidism. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1215" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1215   Creatine phosphokinase/creatine kinase or isoenzymes test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A creatine phosphokinase/creatine kinase or isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme creatine phosphokinase or its isoenzymes (a group of enzymes with similar biological activity) in plasma and serum. Measurements of creatine phosphokinase and its isoenzymes are used in the diagnosis and treatment of myocardial infarction and muscle diseases such as progressive, Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1220   Acute kidney injury test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An acute kidney injury test system is a device that is intended to measure one or more analytes in human samples as an aid in the assessment of a patient's risk for developing acute kidney injury. Test results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including confirmation by alternative methods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must detail an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered while marketing the device as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of incorrect interpretation of test results.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the risk management activities performed as part of your 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development activities, you must document the appropriate end user device training program provided in your premarket notification submission to satisfy the special control in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that will be offered while marketing the device as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of incorrect interpretation of test results.
</P>
<P>(3) Robust clinical data demonstrating the positive predictive value, negative predictive value, sensitivity and specificity of the test in the intended use population must be submitted as part of the premarket notification submission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50072, Oct. 30, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55980, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1225   Creatinine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A creatinine test system is a device intended to measure creatinine levels in plasma and urine. Creatinine measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of renal diseases, in monitoring renal dialysis, and as a calculation basis for measuring other urine analytes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1230   Cyclic AMP test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cyclic AMP test system is a device intended to measure the level of adenosine 3′, 5′-monophosphate (cyclic AMP) in plasma, urine, and other body fluids. Cyclic AMP measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of endocrine disorders, including hyperparathyroidism (overactivity of the parathyroid gland). Cyclic AMP measurements may also be used in the diagnosis and treatment of Graves' disease (a disorder of the thyroid) and in the differentiation of causes of hypercalcemia (elevated levels of serum calcium.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1235" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1235   Cyclosporine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cyclosporine test system is a device intended to quantitatively determine cyclosporine concentrations as an aid in the management of transplant patients receiving therapy with this drug. This generic type of device includes immunoassays and chromatographic assays for cyclosporine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus Assays; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 58329, Sept. 16, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1240   Cystine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cystine test system is a device intended to measure the amino acid cystine in urine. Cystine measurements are used in the diagnosis of cystinuria (occurrence of cystine in urine). Patients with cystinuria frequently develop kidney calculi (stones). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2305, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1245" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1245   Dehydroepiandrosterone (free and sulfate) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dehydroepiandrosterone (free and sulfate) test system is a device intended to measure dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and its sulfate in urine, serum, plasma, and amniotic fluid. Dehydroepiandrosterone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of DHEA-secreting adrenal carcinomas. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1250   Desoxycorticosterone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A desoxycorticosterone test system is a device intended to measure desoxycorticosterone (DOC) in plasma and urine. DOC measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with hypermineralocorticoidism (excess retention of sodium and loss of potassium) and other disorders of the adrenal gland. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1255" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1255   2,3-Diphosphoglyceric acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid test system is a device intended to measure 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid (2,3-DPG) in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Measurements of 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid are used in the diagnosis and treatment of blood disorders that affect the delivery of oxygen by erythrocytes to tissues and in monitoring the quality of stored blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1260   Estradiol test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An estradiol test system is a device intended to measure estradiol, an estrogenic steroid, in plasma. Estradiol measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various hormonal sexual disorders and in assessing placental function in complicated pregnancy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1265" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1265   Estriol test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An estriol test system is a device intended to measure estriol, an estrogenic steroid, in plasma, serum, and urine of pregnant females. Estriol measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of fetoplacental distress in certain cases of high-risk pregnancy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1270   Estrogens (total, in pregnancy) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> As estrogens (total, in pregnancy) test system is a device intended to measure total estrogens in plasma, serum, and urine during pregnancy. The device primarily measures estrone plus estradiol. Measurements of total estrogens are used to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of fetoplacental distress in certain cases of high-risk pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1275   Estrogens (total, nonpregnancy) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> As estrogens (total, nonpregnancy) test system is a device intended to measure the level of estrogens (total estrone, estradiol, and estriol) in plasma, serum, and urine of males and nonpregnant females. Measurement of estrogens (total, nonpregnancy) is used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous disorders, including infertility, amenorrhea (absence of menses) differentiation of primary and secondary ovarian malfunction, estrogen secreting testicular and ovarian tumors, and precocious puberty in females.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1280   Estrone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An estrone test system is a device intended to measure estrone, an estrogenic steroid, in plasma. Estrone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous disorders, including infertility, amenorrhea, differentiation of primary and secondary ovarian malfunction, estrogen secreting testicular and ovarian tumors, and precocious puberty in females.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1285" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1285   Etiocholanolone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An etiocholanolone test system is a device intended to measure etiocholanolone in serum and urine. Etiocholanolone is a metabolic product of the hormone testosterone and is excreted in the urine. Etiocholanolone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the testes and ovaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1290   Fatty acids test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fatty acids test system is a device intended to measure fatty acids in plasma and serum. Measurements of fatty acids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders of lipid metabolism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1295" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1295   Folic acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A folic acid test system is a device intended to measure the vitamin folic acid in plasma and serum. Folic acid measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by the presence of megaloblasts (an abnormal red blood cell series) in the bone marrow.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987; 53 FR 11645, Apr. 8, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1300   Follicle-stimulating hormone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A follicle-stimulating hormone test system is a device intended to measure follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in plasma, serum, and urine. FSH measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of pituitary gland and gonadal disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1305" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1305   Formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU) test system is a device intended to measure formiminolutamic acid in urine. FIGLU measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis of anemias, such as pernicious anemia and congenital hemolytic anemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1310   Galactose test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A galactose test system is a device intended to measure galactose in blood and urine. Galactose measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of the hereditary disease galactosemia (a disorder of galactose metabolism) in infants.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1315" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1315   Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Measurements of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of the hereditary disease galactosemia (disorder of galactose metabolism) in infants. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1320   Gastric acidity test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastric acidity test system is a device intended to measure the acidity of gastric fluid. Measurements of gastric acidity are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with peptic ulcer, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (peptic ulcer due to gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas), and related gastric disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1325" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1325   Gastrin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastrin test system is a device intended to measure the hormone gastrin in plasma and serum. Measurements of gastrin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with ulcers, pernicious anemia, and the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (peptic ulcer due to a gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1330   Globulin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A globulin test system is a device intended to measure globulins (proteins) in plasma and serum. Measurements of globulin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with numerous illnesses including severe liver and renal disease, multiple myeloma, and other disorders of blood globulins. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1335" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1335   Glucagon test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A glucagon test system is a device intended to measure the pancreatic hormone glucagon in plasma and serum. Glucagon measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with various disorders of carbohydrate metabolism, including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1340   Urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to measure glucosuria (glucose in urine). Urinary glucose (nonquantitative) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1345" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1345   Glucose test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A glucose test system is a device intended to measure glucose quantitatively in blood and other body fluids. Glucose measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, neonatal hypoglycemia, and idiopathic hypoglycemia, and of pancreatic islet cell carcinoma.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is solely intended for use as a drink to test glucose tolerance, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019; 85 FR 18445, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1350   Continuous glucose monitor secondary alarm system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A continuous glucose monitor (CGM) secondary alarm system is identified as a device intended to be used as a secondary alarm for a CGM to enable immediate awareness for potential clinical intervention to help assure patient safety.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Devices being marketed must include appropriate measures to protect against unauthorized access to data and unauthorized modification of data.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling must prominently and conspicuously display a warning that states “Dosing decisions should not be made based on this device. The user should follow instructions on the continuous glucose monitoring system.”
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling for the device must include a statement that reads “This device is not intended to replace self-monitoring practices as advised by a physician.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13550, Mar. 14, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019; 86 FR 20283, Apr. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1355" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1355   Integrated continuous glucose monitoring system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An integrated continuous glucose monitoring system (iCGM) is intended to automatically measure glucose in bodily fluids continuously or frequently for a specified period of time. iCGM systems are designed to reliably and securely transmit glucose measurement data to digitally connected devices, including automated insulin dosing systems, and are intended to be used alone or in conjunction with these digitally connected medical devices for the purpose of managing a disease or condition related to glycemic control.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Robust clinical data demonstrating the accuracy of the device in the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(ii) The clinical data must include a comparison between iCGM values and blood glucose values in specimens collected in parallel that are measured on an FDA-accepted laboratory-based glucose measurement method that is precise and accurate, and that is traceable to a higher order (<I>e.g.,</I> an internationally recognized reference material and/or method).
</P>
<P>(iii) The clinical data must be obtained from a clinical study designed to fully represent the performance of the device throughout the intended use population and throughout the measuring range of the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Clinical study results must demonstrate consistent analytical and clinical performance throughout the sensor wear period.
</P>
<P>(v) Clinical study results in the adult population must meet the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) For all iCGM measurements less than 70 milligrams/deciliter (mg/dL), the percentage of iCGM measurements within ±15 mg/dL of the corresponding blood glucose value must be calculated, and the lower one-sided 95 percent confidence bound must exceed 85 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) For all iCGM measurements from 70 mg/dL to 180 mg/dL, the percentage of iCGM measurements within ±15 percent of the corresponding blood glucose value must be calculated, and the lower one-sided 95 percent confidence bound must exceed 70 percent.
</P>
<P>(C) For all iCGM measurements greater than 180 mg/dL, the percentage of iCGM measurements within ±15 percent of the corresponding blood glucose value must be calculated, and the lower one-sided 95 percent confidence bound must exceed 80 percent.
</P>
<P>(D) For all iCGM measurements less than 70 mg/dL, the percentage of iCGM measurements within ±40 mg/dL of the corresponding blood glucose value must be calculated, and the lower one-sided 95 percent confidence bound must exceed 98 percent.
</P>
<P>(E) For all iCGM measurements from 70 mg/dL to 180 mg/dL, the percentage of iCGM measurements within ±40 percent of the corresponding blood glucose value must be calculated, and the lower one-sided 95 percent confidence bound must exceed 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(F) For all iCGM measurements greater than180 mg/dL, the percentage of iCGM measurements within ±40 percent of the corresponding blood glucose value must be calculated, and the lower one-sided 95 percent confidence bound must exceed 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(G) Throughout the device measuring range, the percentage of iCGM measurements within ±20 percent of the corresponding blood glucose value must be calculated, and the lower one-sided 95 percent confidence bound must exceed 87 percent.
</P>
<P>(H) When iCGM values are less than 70 mg/dL, no corresponding blood glucose value shall read above 180 mg/dL.
</P>
<P>(I) When iCGM values are greater than 180 mg/dL, no corresponding blood glucose value shall read less than 70 mg/dL.
</P>
<P>(J) There shall be no more than 1 percent of iCGM measurements that indicate a positive glucose rate of change greater than 1 mg/dL per minute (/min) when the corresponding true negative glucose rate of change is less than −2 mg/dL/min as determined by the corresponding blood glucose measurements.
</P>
<P>(K) There shall be no more than 1 percent of iCGM measurements that indicate a negative glucose rate of change less than −1 mg/dL/min when the corresponding true positive glucose rate of change is greater than 2 mg/dL/min as determined by the corresponding blood glucose measurements.
</P>
<P>(vi) Data demonstrating similar accuracy and rate of change performance of the iCGM in the pediatric population as compared to that in the adult population, or alternatively a clinical and/or technical justification for why pediatric data are not needed, must be provided and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(vii) Data must demonstrate that throughout the claimed sensor life, the device does not allow clinically significant gaps in sensor data availability that would prevent any digitally connected devices from achieving their intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include a detailed strategy to ensure secure and reliable means of iCGM data transmission to provide real-time glucose readings at clinically meaningful time intervals to devices intended to receive the iCGM glucose data.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include adequate controls established during manufacturing and at product release to ensure the released product meets the performance specifications as defined in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The device must demonstrate clinically acceptable performance in the presence of clinically relevant levels of potential interfering substances that are reasonably present in the intended use population, including but not limited to endogenous substances and metabolites, foods, dietary supplements, and medications.
</P>
<P>(5) The device must include appropriate measures to ensure that disposable sensors cannot be used beyond its claimed sensor wear period.
</P>
<P>(6) Design verification and validation must include results obtained through a usability study that demonstrates that the intended user can use the device safely and obtain the expected glucose measurement accuracy.
</P>
<P>(7) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include a separate description of the following sensor performance data observed in the clinical study performed in conformance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section for each intended use population, in addition to separate sensor performance data for each different iCGM insertion or use sites (<I>e.g.,</I> abdomen, arm, buttock):
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the accuracy in the following blood glucose concentration ranges: less than 54 mg/dL, 54 mg/dL to less than 70 mg/dL, 70 to 180 mg/dL, greater than 180 to 250 mg/dL, and greater than 250 mg/dL.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the accuracy of positive and negative rate of change data.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the frequency and duration of gaps in sensor data.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the true, false, missed, and correct alert rates and a description of the available glucose concentration alert settings, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the observed duration of iCGM life for the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 9238, Feb. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1356" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1356   Interoperable automated glycemic controller.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An interoperable automated glycemic controller is a device intended to automatically calculate drug doses based on inputs such as glucose and other relevant physiological parameters, and to command the delivery of such drug doses from a connected infusion pump. Interoperable automated glycemic controllers are designed to reliably and securely communicate with digitally connected devices to allow drug delivery commands to be sent, received, executed, and confirmed. Interoperable automated glycemic controllers are intended to be used in conjunction with digitally connected devices for the purpose of maintaining glycemic control.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An appropriate, as determined by FDA, clinical implementation strategy, including data demonstrating appropriate, as determined by FDA, clinical performance of the device for its intended use, including all of its indications for use.
</P>
<P>(A) The clinical data must be representative of the performance of the device in the intended use population and in clinically relevant use scenarios and sufficient to demonstrate appropriate, as determined by FDA, clinical performance of the device for its intended use, including all of its indications for use.
</P>
<P>(B) For devices indicated for use with multiple therapeutic agents for the same therapeutic effect (<I>e.g.,</I> more than one type of insulin), data demonstrating performance with each product or, alternatively, an appropriate, as determined by FDA, clinical justification for why such data are not needed.
</P>
<P>(C) When determined to be necessary by FDA, the strategy must include postmarket data collection to confirm safe real-world use and monitor for rare adverse events.
</P>
<P>(ii) Results obtained through a human factors study that demonstrates that an intended user can safely use the device for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed and appropriate, as determined by FDA, strategy to ensure secure and reliable means of data transmission with other intended connected devices.
</P>
<P>(iv) Specifications that are appropriate, as determined by FDA, for connected devices that shall be eligible to provide input to (<I>e.g.,</I> specification of glucose sensor performance) or accept commands from (<I>e.g.,</I> specifications for drug infusion pump performance) the controller, and a detailed strategy for ensuring that connected devices meet these specifications.
</P>
<P>(v) Specifications for devices responsible for hosting the controller, and a detailed and appropriate, as determined by FDA, strategy for ensuring that the specifications are met by the hosting devices.
</P>
<P>(vi) Documentation demonstrating that appropriate, as determined by FDA, measures are in place (<I>e.g.,</I> validated device design features) to ensure that safe therapy is maintained when communication with digitally connected devices is interrupted, lost, or re-established after an interruption. Validation testing results must demonstrate that critical events that occur during a loss of communications (<I>e.g.,</I> commands, device malfunctions, occlusions, etc.) are handled and logged appropriately during and after the interruption to maintain patient safety.
</P>
<P>(vii) A detailed plan and procedure for assigning postmarket responsibilities including adverse event reporting, complaint handling, and investigations with the manufacturers of devices that are digitally connected to the controller.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation documentation must include appropriate design inputs and design outputs that are essential for the proper functioning of the device that have been documented and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Risk control measures to address device system hazards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Design decisions related to how the risk control measures impact essential performance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A traceability analysis demonstrating that all hazards are adequately controlled and that all controls have been validated in the final device design.
</P>
<P>(3) The device shall include appropriate, as determined by FDA, and validated interface specifications for digitally connected devices. These interface specifications shall, at a minimum, provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Secure authentication (pairing) to connected devices;
</P>
<P>(ii) Secure, accurate, and reliable means of data transmission between the controller and connected devices;
</P>
<P>(iii) Sharing of necessary state information between the controller and any connected devices (<I>e.g.,</I> battery level, reservoir level, sensor use life, pump status, error conditions);
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensuring that the controller continues to operate safely when data is received in a manner outside the bounds of the parameters specified;
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed process and procedures for sharing the controller's interface specification with connected devices and for validating the correct implementation of that protocol; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A mechanism for updating the controller software, including any software that is required for operation of the controller in a manner that ensures its safety and performance.
</P>
<P>(4) The device design must ensure that a record of critical events is stored and accessible for an adequate period to allow for auditing of communications between digitally connected devices, and to facilitate the sharing of pertinent information with the responsible parties for those connected devices. Critical events to be stored by the controller must, at a minimum, include:
</P>
<P>(i) Commands issued by the controller, and associated confirmations the controller receives from digitally connected devices;
</P>
<P>(ii) Malfunctions of the controller and malfunctions reported to the controller by digitally connected devices (<I>e.g.,</I> infusion pump occlusion, glucose sensor shut down);
</P>
<P>(iii) Alarms and alerts and associated acknowledgements from the controller as well as those reported to the controller by digitally connected devices; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Connectivity events (<I>e.g.,</I> establishment or loss of communications).
</P>
<P>(5) The device must only receive glucose input from devices cleared under § 862.1355 (integrated continuous glucose monitoring system), unless FDA determines an alternate type of glucose input device is designed appropriately to allow the controller to meet the special controls contained within this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The device must only command drug delivery from devices cleared under § 880.5730 of this chapter (alternate controller enabled infusion pump), unless FDA determines an alternate type of drug infusion pump device is designed appropriately to allow the controller to meet the special controls contained within this section.
</P>
<P>(7) An appropriate, as determined by FDA, training plan must be established for users and healthcare providers to assure the safety and performance of the device when used. This may include, but not be limited to, training on device contraindications, situations in which the device should not be used, notable differences in device functionality or features compared to similar alternative therapies, and information to help prescribers identify suitable candidate patients, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(8) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A contraindication for use in pediatric populations except to the extent clinical performance data or other available information demonstrates that it can be safely used in pediatric populations in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A prominent statement identifying any populations for which use of this device has been determined to be unsafe.
</P>
<P>(iii) A prominent statement identifying by name the therapeutic agents that are compatible with the controller, including their identity and concentration, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) The identity of those digitally connected devices with which the controller can be used, including descriptions of the specific system configurations that can be used, per the detailed strategy submitted under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) A comprehensive description of representative clinical performance in the hands of the intended user, including information specific to use in the pediatric use population, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(vi) A comprehensive description of safety of the device, including, for example, the incidence of severe hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, and other relevant adverse events observed in a study conducted to satisfy paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) For wireless connection enabled devices, a description of the wireless quality of service required for proper use of the device.
</P>
<P>(viii) For any controller with hardware components intended for multiple patient reuse, instructions for safely reprocessing the hardware components between uses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 14172, Mar. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1358" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1358   Insulin therapy adjustment device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An insulin therapy adjustment device is a device intended to incorporate biological inputs, including glucose measurement data from a continuous glucose monitor, to recommend insulin therapy adjustments as an aid in optimizing insulin therapy regimens for patients with diabetes mellitus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A complete description of the required data inputs, including timeframe over which data inputs must be collected and number of data points required for accurate recommendations;
</P>
<P>(ii) A complete description of the types of device outputs and insulin therapy adjustment recommendations, including how the recommendations are generated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Robust data demonstrating the clinical validity of the device outputs and insulin therapy recommendations;
</P>
<P>(iv) A robust assessment of all input data specifications, including accuracy requirements for continuous glucose monitors and other devices generating data inputs, to ensure accurate and reliable therapy adjustment recommendations. This assessment must include adequate clinical justification for each specification;
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed strategy to ensure secure and reliable means of data transmission to and from the device, including data integrity checks, accuracy checks, reliability checks, and security measures;
</P>
<P>(vi) Robust data demonstrating that users can understand and appropriately interpret recommendations generated by the device; and
</P>
<P>(vii) An appropriate mitigation strategy to minimize the occurrence of dosing recommendation errors, and to mitigate the risk to patients of any residual dosing recommendation errors to a clinically acceptable level.
</P>
<P>(2) The device must not be intended for use in implementing automated insulin dosing.
</P>
<P>(3) Your 21 CFR 809.10(b) labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The identification of specific insulin formulations that have been demonstrated to be compatible with use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the specifications of compatible devices that provide acceptable input data (e.g., continuous glucose monitors, insulin pumps) used to provide accurate and reliable therapy adjustment recommendations;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of all types of required data (inputs) and dosing recommendations (outputs) that are provided by the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of device limitations, and instructions to prevent possible disruption of accurate therapy adjustment recommendations (e.g., time zone changes due to travel).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 54874, Nov. 1, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1360   Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and isoenzymes test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGTP) in plasma and serum. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and isoenzymes measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases such as alcoholic cirrhosis and primary and secondary liver tumors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1365" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1365   Glutathione test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A glutathione test system is a device intended to measure glutathione (the tripeptide of glycine, cysteine, and glutamic acid) in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Glutathione measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain drug-induced hemolytic (erythrocyte destroying) anemias due to an inherited enzyme deficiency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1370   Human growth hormone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A human growth hormone test system is a device intended to measure the levels of human growth hormone in plasma. Human growth hormone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1373" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1373   Hemoglobin A1c test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemoglobin A1c test system is a device used to measure the percentage concentration of hemoglobin A1c in blood. Measurement of hemoglobin A1c is used as an aid in the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and as an aid in the identification of patients at risk for developing diabetes mellitus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must have initial and annual standardization verification by a certifying glycohemoglobin standardization organization deemed acceptable by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The premarket notification submission must include performance testing to evaluate precision, accuracy, linearity, and interference, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance testing of device precision must, at a minimum, use blood samples with concentrations near 5.0 percent, 6.5 percent, 8.0 percent, and 12 percent hemoglobin A1c. This testing must evaluate precision over a minimum of 20 days using at least three lots of the device and three instruments, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance testing of device accuracy must include a minimum of 120 blood samples that span the measuring interval of the device and compare results of the new device to results of a standardized test method. Results must demonstrate little or no bias versus the standardized method.
</P>
<P>(iii) Total error of the new device must be evaluated using single measurements by the new device compared to results of the standardized test method, and this evaluation must demonstrate a total error less than or equal to 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance testing must demonstrate that there is little to no interference from common hemoglobin variants, including Hemoglobin C, Hemoglobin D, Hemoglobin E, Hemoglobin A2, and Hemoglobin S.
</P>
<P>(3) When assay interference from Hemoglobin F or interference with other hemoglobin variants with low frequency in the population is observed, a warning statement must be placed in a black box and must appear in all labeling material for these devices describing the interference and any affected populations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 50551, Aug. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1375   Histidine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A histidine test system is a device intended to measure free histidine (an amino acid) in plasma and urine. Histidine measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of hereditary histidinemia characterized by excess histidine in the blood and urine often resulting in mental retardation and disordered speech development.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1377" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1377   Urinary homocystine (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary homocystine (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify homocystine (an analogue of the amino acid cystine) in urine. The identification of urinary homocystine is used in the diagnosis and treatment of homocystinuria (homosystine in urine), a heritable metabolic disorder which may cause mental retardation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1380   Hydroxybutyric dehydrogenase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydroxybutyric dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme alpha-hydroxybutric dehydrogenase (HBD) in plasma or serum. HBD measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of myocardial infarction, renal damage (such as rejection of transplants), certain hematological diseases (such as acute leukemias and megaloblastic anemias) and, to a lesser degree, liver disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38787, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1385" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1385   17-Hydroxycorticosteroids (17-ketogenic steroids) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-ketogenic steroids) test system is a device intended to measure corticosteroids that possess a dihydroxyacetone 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.028.gif"/>
<FP>moiety on the steroid nucleus in urine. Corticosteroids with this chemical configuration include cortisol, cortisone 11-desoxycortisol, desoxycorticosterone, and their tetrahydroderivatives. This group of hormones is synthesized by the adrenal gland. Measurements of 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-ketogenic steroids) are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases of the adrenal or pituitary glands and gonadal disorders. 
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987; 52 FR 29468, Aug. 7, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1390   5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid/serotonin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid/serotonin test system is a device intended to measure 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid/serotonin in urine. Measurements of 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid/serotonin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carcinoid tumors of endocrine tissue. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1395" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1395   17-Hydroxyprogesterone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A 17-hydroxyprogesterone test system is a device intended to measure 17-hydroxyprogesterone (a steroid) in plasma and serum. Measurements of 17-hydroxyprogesterone are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders of the adrenal glands or the ovaries. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1400   Hydroxyproline test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydroxyproline test system is a device intended to measure the amino acid hydroxyproline in urine. Hydroxyproline measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various collagen (connective tissue) diseases, bone disease such as Paget's disease, and endocrine disorders such as hyperparathyroidism and hyperthyroidism. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1405" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1405   Immunoreactive insulin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immunoreactive insulin test system is a device intended to measure immunoreactive insulin in serum and plasma. Immunoreactive insulin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various carbohydrate metabolism disorders, including diabetes mellitus, and hypoglycemia. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2306, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1410   Iron (non-heme) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An iron (non-heme) test system is a device intended to measure iron (non-heme) in serum and plasma. Iron (non-heme) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases such as iron deficiency anemia, hemochromatosis (a disease associated with widespread deposit in the tissues of two iron-containing pigments, hemosiderin and hemofuscin, and characterized by pigmentation of the skin), and chronic renal disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1415" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1415   Iron-binding capacity test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An iron-binding capacity test system is a device intended to measure iron-binding capacity in serum. Iron-binding capacity measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of anemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.92" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1420   Isocitric dehydrogenase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An isocitric dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme isocitric dehydrogenase in serum and plasma. Isocitric dehydrogenase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disease such as viral hepatitis, cirrhosis, or acute inflammation of the biliary tract; pulmonary disease such as pulmonary infarction (local arrest or sudden insufficiency of the blood supply to the lungs), and diseases associated with pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.93" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1430   17-Ketosteroids test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A 17-ketosteroids test system is a device intended to measure 17-ketosteroids in urine. Measurements of 17-ketosteroids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the adrenal cortex and gonads and of other endocrine disorders, including hypertension, diabetes, and hypothyroidism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1435" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.94" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1435   Ketones (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ketones (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify ketones in urine and other body fluids. Identification of ketones is used in the diagnosis and treatment of acidosis (a condition characterized by abnormally high acidity of body fluids) or ketosis (a condition characterized by increased production of ketone bodies such as acetone) and for monitoring patients on ketogenic diets and patients with diabetes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.95" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1440   Lactate dehydrogenase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lactate dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase in serum. Lactate dehydrogenase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases such as acute viral hepatitis, cirrhosis, and metastatic carcinoma of the liver, cardiac diseases such as myocardial infarction, and tumors of the lung or kidneys.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 59225, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1445" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.96" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1445   Lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure the activity of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes (a group of enzymes with similar biological activity) in serum. Measurements of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases, such as viral hepatitis, and myocardial infarction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.97" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1450   Lactic acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lactic acid test system is a device intended to measure lactic acid in whole blood and plasma. Lactic acid measurements that evaluate the acid-base status are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lactic acidosis (abnormally high acidity of the blood).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1455" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.98" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1455   Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid test system is a device intended to measure the lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid. Lecithin and sphingomyelin are phospholipids (fats or fat-like substances containing phosphorus). Measurements of the lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid are used in evaluating fetal maturity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.99" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1460   Leucine aminopeptidase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A leucine aminopeptidase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme leucine amino-peptidase in serum, plasma, and urine. Leucine aminopeptidase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases such as viral hepatitis and obstructive jaundice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1465" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.100" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1465   Lipase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lipase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzymes lipase in serum. Lipase measurements are used in diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the pancreas such as acute pancreatitis and obstruction of the pancreatic duct.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.101" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1470   Lipid (total) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lipid (total) test system is a device intended to measure total lipids (fats or fat-like substances) in serum and plasma. Lipid (total) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases involving lipid metabolism and atherosclerosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1475" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.102" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1475   Lipoprotein test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lipoprotein test system is a device intended to measure lipoprotein in serum and plasma. Lipoprotein measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lipid disorders (such as diabetes mellitus), atherosclerosis, and various liver and renal diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1485" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.103" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1485   Luteinizing hormone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A luteinizing hormone test system is a device intended to measure luteinizing hormone in serum and urine. Luteinizing hormone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gonadal dysfunction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1488" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.104" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1488   Lysosomal storage disorder newborn screening test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lysosomal storage disorder newborn screening test system is intended to measure lysosomal enzyme levels obtained from dried blood spot specimens on filter paper from newborns as an aid in screening newborns for a lysosomal storage disorder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Study results that adequately demonstrate the clinical validity of the device, which must include information supporting the link between the analyte being measured and the condition being screened. The clinical validity of the device must be demonstrated in a clinical validation study using either well-characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens from the intended use population. Testing in the clinical validation study must be performed by operators representative of the types of operators intended to use the test. The study design of the clinical validation study must assess the effects of sample collection and processing steps on test performance. Confirmed positive specimens must have a diagnosis based on confirmatory diagnostic methods or clinically meaningful information regarding the status of the subject must be obtained.
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference interval in the normal newborn population for the analyte or analytes measured by the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Study results demonstrating the level of carryover or drift affecting the device performance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Study results demonstrating the concentrations of the limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantitation of the device. Sample concentrations below the limit of quantitation must not be reported by the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Study results, which must be collected using sample panels from at least three reagent lots and at least three instruments over more than 20 testing days, demonstrating the imprecision of the device. The sample panels must consist of blood spot specimens with a range of analyte concentrations that span the reportable range of the device and must include samples with concentrations in the screen positive range, samples with concentrations at each cutoff, and samples with concentration in the normal range.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that indicates that the test is not intended to diagnose lysosomal storage disorders.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that indicates that test results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including confirmation by alternative methods, and clinical evaluation as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed information on device performance, including the false positive rate and the false negative rate observed in the clinical study.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on device performance in any relevant subgroup (<I>e.g.,</I> age of newborn at time of sample collection, birth weight, sex, gestational age, race, ethnicity) observed in the clinical study.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 27230, June 26, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.105" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1490   Lysozyme (muramidase) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lysozyme (muramidase) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the bacteriolytic enzyme lysozyme (muramidase) in serum, plasma, leukocytes, and urine. Lysozyme measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of monocytic leukemia and kidney disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1493" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.106" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1493   Breast milk macronutrients test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breast milk macronutrients test system is a device intended to quantitatively measure fat, protein, and total carbohydrate content in human breast milk. These measurements, in conjunction with other clinical assessments, may be used to aid in the nutritional management of infants.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An appropriate traceability plan, as determined by FDA, to minimize the risk of drift in the breast milk macronutrient test system results over time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Data that demonstrate appropriate precision, as determined by FDA, of the breast milk macronutrients test system. Precision studies must include assessment of a minimum of three breast milk specimens containing different concentrations (low, medium, and high levels) of fat, carbohydrates, and protein. Precision data must include breast milk specimen measurements that are collected at a minimum of three laboratory sites.
</P>
<P>(iii) Data that demonstrate appropriate measurement accuracy, as determined by FDA, of fat, carbohydrates, and protein in breast milk. Measurement accuracy data must include breast milk specimen measurements that are collected at a minimum of one laboratory site.
</P>
<P>(iv) Data from studies appropriate, as determined by FDA, to demonstrate that the device is free from significant interference from substances that could be present in human milk, including hemoglobin, and medications that are used by breastfeeding subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a limiting statement indicating that the results should be used only as an aid in the nutritional management of infants and not as the sole basis for making nutrition decisions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19628, May 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1495" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.107" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1495   Magnesium test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A magnesium test system is a device intended to measure magnesium levels in serum and plasma. Magnesium measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of hypomagnesemia (abnormally low plasma levels of magnesium) and hypermagnesemia (abnormally high plasma levels of magnesium).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.108" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1500   Malic dehydrogenase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A malic dehydrogenase test system is a device that is intended to measure the activity of the enzyme malic dehydrogenase in serum and plasma. Malic dehydrogenase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of muscle and liver diseases, myocardial infarctions, cancer, and blood disorders such as myelogenous (produced in the bone marrow) leukemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1505" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.109" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1505   Mucopolysaccharides (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mucopolysaccharides (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to measure the levels of mucopolysaccharides in urine. Mucopolysaccharide measurements in urine are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various inheritable disorders that affect bone and connective tissues, such as Hurler's, Hunter's, Sanfilippo's, Scheie's Morquio's and Maroteaux-Lamy syndromes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1506" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.110" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1506   Muscular dystrophy newborn screening test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A muscular dystrophy newborn screening test is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure creatine kinase levels obtained from dried blood spot specimens on filter paper from newborns as an aid in screening newborns for muscular dystrophy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include a clinical validation study that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Results that demonstrate that the analyte being measured identifies a population of newborns who should be subject to follow up diagnostic testing for the condition being screened.
</P>
<P>(ii) Predictive value of the device demonstrated using either well characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens from the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing performed by device users who are representative of the types of operators intended to use the test.
</P>
<P>(iv) A design that assesses the effects of sample collection and processing steps on test performance.
</P>
<P>(v) Tested confirmed positive specimens must have associated diagnostic outcome information based on confirmatory diagnostic methods, or clinically meaningful information regarding the status of the subject must be obtained.
</P>
<P>(vi) Data, provided or referenced, generated in samples from the intended use population, that demonstrates the upper reference interval(s), including sufficient samples to calculate the 97.5th and 99.5th percentile information, for the analyte or analytes measured by the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning which states that test results are not intended to diagnose muscular dystrophies.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning which states that test results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including confirmation by alternative methods, and clinical evaluation as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed information on device performance, including the false positive screen rate and the false negative screen rate observed in the clinical study, and any limitations to the data generated in the clinical study (<I>e.g.,</I> necessity for testing at a specific age).
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on device performance in relevant subgroups (<I>e.g.,</I> age of newborn at time of sample collection, birth weight, sex, gestational age) observed in the clinical study.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 27228, June 26, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1509" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.111" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1509   Methylmalonic acid (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A methylmalonic acid (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify methylmalonic acid in urine. The identification of methylmalonic acid in urine is used in the diagnosis and treatment of methylmalonic aciduria, a heritable metabolic disorder which, if untreated, may cause mental retardation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.112" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1510   Nitrite (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nitrite (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify nitrite in urine. Nitrite identification is used in the diagnosis and treatment of uninary tract infection of bacterial origin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1515" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.113" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1515   Nitrogen (amino-nitrogen) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nitrogen (amino-nitrogen) test system is a device intended to measure amino acid nitrogen levels in serum, plasma, and urine. Nitrogen (amino-nitrogen) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain forms of severe liver disease and renal disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.114" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1520   5′-Nucleotidase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A 5′-nucleotidase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme 5′-nucleotidase in serum and plasma. Measurements of 5′-nucleotidase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases and in the differentiations between liver and bone diseases in the presence of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.115" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1530   Plasma oncometry test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A plasma oncometry test system is a device intended to measure plasma oncotic pressure. Plasma oncotic pressure is that portion of the total fluid pressure contributed by proteins and other molecules too large to pass through a specified membrane. Measurements of plasma oncotic pressure are used in the diagnosis and treatment of dehydration and circulatory disorders related to low serum protein levels and increased capillary permeability, such as edema and shock.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1535" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.116" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1535   Ornithine carbamyl transferase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ornithine carbamyl transferase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme ornithine carbamyl transferase (OCT) in serum. Ornithine carbamyl transferase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases, such as infectious hepatitis, acute cholecystitis (inflammation of the gall bladder), cirrhosis, and liver metastases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.117" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1540   Osmolality test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An osmolality test system is a device intended to measure ionic and nonionic solute concentration in body fluids, such as serum and urine. Osmolality measurement is used as an adjunct to other tests in the evaluation of a variety of diseases, including kidney diseases (e.g., chronic progressive renal failure), diabetes insipidus, other endocrine and metabolic disorders, and fluid imbalances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1542" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.118" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1542   Oxalate test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oxalate test system is a device intended to measure the concentration of oxalate in urine. Measurements of oxalate are used to aid in the diagnosis or treatment of urinary stones or certain other metabolic disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1545" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.119" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1545   Parathyroid hormone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A parathyroid hormone test system is a device intended to measure the levels of parathyroid hormone in serum and plasma. Measurements of parathyroid hormone levels are used in the differential diagnosis of hypercalcemia (abnormally high levels of calcium in the blood) and hypocalcemia (abnormally low levels of calcium in the blood) resulting from disorders of calcium metabolism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.120" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1550   Urinary pH (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary pH (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to estimate the pH of urine. Estimations of pH are used to evaluate the acidity or alkalinity of urine as it relates to numerous renal and metabolic disorders and in the monitoring of patients with certain diets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1555" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.121" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1555   Phenylalanine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phenylalanine test system is a device intended to measure free phenylalanine (an amino acid) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements of phenylalanine are used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital phenylketonuria which, if untreated, may cause mental retardation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.122" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1560   Urinary phenylketones (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary phenylketones (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify phenylketones (such as phenylpyruvic acid) in urine. The identification of urinary phenylketones is used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital phenylketonuria which, if untreated, may cause mental retardation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1565" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.123" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1565   6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase (6 PGD) in serum and erythrocytes. Measurements of 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain liver diseases (such as hepatitis) and anemias.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.124" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1570   Phosphohexose isomerase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phosphohexose isomerase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme phosphohexose isomerase in serum. Measurements of phosphohexose isomerase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of muscle diseases such as muscular dystrophy, liver diseases such as hepatitis or cirrhosis, and metastatic carcinoma.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1575" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.125" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1575   Phospholipid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phospholipid test system is a device intended to measure phospholipids in serum and plasma. Measurements of phospholipids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving lipid (fat) metabolism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.126" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1580   Phosphorus (inorganic) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phosphorus (inorganic) test system is a device intended to measure inorganic phosphorus in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements of phosphorus (inorganic) are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders, including parathyroid gland and kidney diseases, and vitamin D imbalance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1585" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.127" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1585   Human placental lactogen test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A human placental lactogen test system is a device intended to measure the hormone human placental lactogen (HPL), (also known as human chorionic somatomammotrophin (HCS)), in maternal serum and maternal plasma. Measurements of human placental lactogen are used in the diagnosis and clinical management of high-risk pregnancies involving fetal distress associated with placental insufficiency. Measurements of HPL are also used in pregnancies complicated by hypertension, proteinuria, edema, post-maturity, placental insufficiency, or possible miscarriage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.128" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1590   Porphobilinogen test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A porphobilinogen test system is a device intended to measure porphobilinogen (one of the derivatives of hemoglobin which can make the urine a red color) in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of porphyrias (primarily inherited diseases associated with disturbed porphyrine metabolism), lead poisoning, and other diseases characterized by alterations in the heme pathway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2307, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1595" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.129" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1595   Porphyrins test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A porphyrins test system is a device intended to measure porphyrins (compounds formed during the biosynthesis of heme, a constituent of hemoglobin, and related compounds) in urine and feces. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lead poisoning, porphyrias (primarily inherited diseases associated with disturbed porphyrin metabolism), and other diseases characterized by alterations in the heme pathway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.130" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1600   Potassium test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A potassium test system is a device intended to measure potassium in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used to monitor electrolyte balance in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases conditions characterized by low or high blood potassium levels.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1602" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.131" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1602   Prognostic test for development or progression of preeclampsia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prognostic test for development or progression of preeclampsia is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure one or more analytes obtained from human samples. A prognostic test for development or progression of preeclampsia is indicated as an aid in the risk assessment for the development or progression of preeclampsia. This device is not intended for diagnosis of any disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of a study that demonstrates the clinical performance of the device for its intended use, evaluated across multiple intended use sites and broad demographics representative of intended use patients in the United States; or through an alternative approach determined to be appropriate by FDA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of studies that demonstrate the analytical performance of the device for its intended use, including for each analyte and device output. These studies must include precision, reproducibility, metrological accuracy, and analytical specificity studies, or alternative approaches determined to be appropriate by FDA; and
</P>
<P>(iii) As part of the risk management activities, documentation of an appropriate licensed practitioner training program on the proper use of the device and proper interpretation of results that must be offered to licensed practitioners, or an alternative approach determined to be appropriate by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed descriptions of the device studies demonstrating the performance of the device, including results; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Limiting statements including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The test result is intended as an aid in the management of the patient, and not to be used to replace clinical judgement.
</P>
<P>(B) The test result is not to be used to aid in the diagnosis of preeclampsia or conditions resulting from progression of preeclampsia.
</P>
<P>(C) The test result is not to be used to aid in decisions of hospital discharge.
</P>
<P>(D) The test result is not to be used to aid in decisions of pregnancy delivery.
</P>
<P>(E) The test is not intended to inform the healthcare provider about whether or not changes in immediate treatment, including medication or hospitalization, are needed.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 38497, June 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1605" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.132" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1605   Pregnanediol test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pregnanediol test system is a device intended to measure pregnanediol (a major urinary metabolic product of progesterone) in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the ovaries or placenta.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.133" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1610   Pregnanetriol test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pregnanetriol test system is a device intended to measure pregnanetriol (a precursor in the biosynthesis of the adrenal hormone cortisol) in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (congenital enlargement of the adrenal gland).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1615" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.134" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1615   Pregnenolone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pregnenolone test system is a device intended to measure pregnenolone (a precursor in the biosynthesis of the adrenal hormone cortisol and adrenal androgen) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the adrenal cortex or the gonads.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.135" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1620   Progesterone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A progesterone test system is a device intended to measure progesterone (a female hormone) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the ovaries or placenta.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1622" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.136" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1622   Prognostic test for assessment of liver related disease progression.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prognostic test for assessment of liver related disease progression is intended to measure one or more analytes obtained from human samples as an aid in assessing progression of liver related disease. This device is not intended for diagnosis of any disease, for monitoring the effect of any therapeutic product, for assessing progression to hepatocellular carcinoma, or for assessing disease progression in individuals with viral hepatitis. It is also not intended for the detection of viruses, viral antigens, or antibodies to viruses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include clinical validation data providing:
</P>
<P>(i) Information demonstrating clinical performance in a population of patients with liver disease for the different risk categories (<I>e.g.,</I> at lower risk, at higher risk) for progression of their disease using well characterized clinical specimens representing the intended use population collected from multiple intended clinical sites, or an alternative study design determined to be appropriate by FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information demonstrating that the outcomes measured and the length of followup are clinically relevant for the progression of the specified liver disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information demonstrating that the clinical criteria for determining whether the target disease is present and that the exclusion and inclusion criteria for subjects who have the target disease are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information demonstrating test performance of the complete test system, including any sample collection and processing steps.
</P>
<P>(v) Information, provided or referenced, generated in samples from non-diseased individuals, that demonstrate the upper and lower reference intervals for the output provided by the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under 21 CFR 809.10(b) must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement that test results are not intended to diagnose disease or for monitoring the effect of any therapeutic product.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning statement that test results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including information obtained by alternative methods, and clinical evaluation, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning statement that describes any limitations on the clinical interpretation(s) of the test results.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed information on device performance, including any limitations to the data generated in the clinical study(ies) and information on device performance in relevant subgroups (<I>e.g.,</I> severity of liver disease at the beginning of the observation period) observed in the clinical study(ies).
</P>
<P>(v) Information on the analytical performance of the device, including demonstration of reproducibility across multiple sites and multiple reagent lots, or an alternative reproducibility study design determined to be appropriate by FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 2519, Jan. 17, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1625" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.137" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1625   Prolactin (lactogen) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prolactin (lactogen) test system is a device intended to measure the anterior pituitary polypeptide hormone prolactin in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the anterior pituitary gland or of the hypothalamus portion of the brain.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.138" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1630   Protein (fractionation) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A protein (fractionation) test system is a device intended to measure protein fractions in blood, urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and other body fluids. Protein fractionations are used as an aid in recognizing abnormal proteins in body fluids and genetic variants of proteins produced in diseases with tissue destruction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1635" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.139" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1635   Total protein test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A total protein test system is a device intended to measure total protein(s) in serum or plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of a variety of diseases involving the liver, kidney, or bone marrow as well as other metabolic or nutritional disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 59225, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.140" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1640   Protein-bound iodine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A protein-bound iodine test system is a device intended to measure protein-bound iodine in serum. Measurements of protein-bound iodine obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1645" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.141" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1645   Urinary protein or albumin (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary protein or albumin (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify proteins or albumin in urine. Identification of urinary protein or albumin (nonquantitative) is used in the diagnosis and treatment of disease conditions such as renal or heart diseases or thyroid disorders, which are characterized by proteinuria or albuminuria.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.142" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1650   Pyruvate kinase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pyruvate kinase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme pyruvate kinase in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various inherited anemias due to pyruvate kinase deficiency or of acute leukemias.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1655" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.143" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1655   Pyruvic acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pyruvic acid test system is a device intended to measure pyruvic acid (an intermediate compound in the metabolism of carbohydrate) in plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the evaluation of electrolyte metabolism and in the diagnosis and treatment of acid-base and electrolyte disturbances or anoxia (the reduction of oxygen in body tissues).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.144" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1660   Quality control material (assayed and unassayed).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A quality control material (assayed and unassayed) for clinical chemistry is a device intended for medical purposes for use in a test system to estimate test precision and to detect systematic analytical deviations that may arise from reagent or analytical instrument variation. A quality control material (assayed and unassayed) may be used for proficiency testing in interlaboratory surveys. This generic type of device includes controls (assayed and unassayed) for blood gases, electrolytes, enzymes, multianalytes (all kinds), single (specified) analytes, or urinalysis controls.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except when intended for use in donor screening tests, quality control materials (assayed and unassayed) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000, 84 FR 71796, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1665" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.145" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1665   Sodium test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sodium test system is a device intended to measure sodium in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of aldosteronism (excessive secretion of the hormone aldosterone), diabetes insipidus (chronic excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, accompanied by extreme thirst), adrenal hypertension, Addison's disease (caused by destruction of the adrenal glands), dehydration, inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, or other diseases involving electrolyte imbalance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.146" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1670   Sorbitol dehydrogenase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sorbitol dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme sorbitol dehydrogenase in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disorders such as cirrhosis or acute hepatitis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.147" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1675   Blood specimen collection device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood specimen collection device is a device intended for medical purposes to collect and to handle blood specimens and to separate serum from nonserum (cellular) components prior to further testing. This generic type device may include blood collection tubes, vials, systems, serum separators, blood collection trays, or vacuum sample tubes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1676" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.148" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1676   Blood collection device for cell-free nucleic acids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood collection device for cell-free nucleic acids is a device intended for medical purposes to collect, store, transport, and handle blood specimens and to stabilize and isolate cell-free nucleic acid components prior to further testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation documentation must include appropriate design inputs and design outputs that are essential for the proper functioning of the device for its intended use, including all of its indications for use, and must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation demonstrating that appropriate, as determined by FDA, measures are in place (<I>e.g.,</I> validated device design features and specifications) to ensure that users of blood collection device for cell-free nucleic acids devices are not exposed to undue risk of bloodborne pathogen exposure and operator injury during use of the device, including blood collection, transportation, and centrifugation processes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation demonstrating that appropriate, as determined by FDA, measures are in place (<I>e.g.,</I> validated device design features and specifications) to ensure that the device reproducibly and reliably collects, transports, stabilizes, and isolates cell-free nucleic acids of sufficient yield and quality suitable for downstream applications as appropriate for its intended use. At a minimum, these measures must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Data demonstrating that blood samples collected in the device have reproducible cell-free nucleic acid yields that are suitable, as determined by FDA, for downstream testing as appropriate for the intended use, including estimates of within-lot, within-device, and lot-to-lot variability;
</P>
<P>(B) Data demonstrating that cell-free nucleic acid yields isolated from blood specimens collected into the device do not add clinically significant bias to test results obtained using the downstream application(s) described in the intended use. For devices indicated for use with multiple downstream applications, data demonstrating acceptable performance for each type of claimed use or, alternatively, an appropriate, as determined by FDA, clinical justification for why such data are not needed;
</P>
<P>(C) Data demonstrating that the device appropriately stabilizes cell-free nucleic acids after sample collection, during storage, and during transport over the claimed shelf life of the device;
</P>
<P>(D) Data demonstrating that samples collected in the device have minimal levels of contamination with other types of nucleic acids present in cells or cellular components, and that these levels of contamination do not interfere with downstream testing;
</P>
<P>(E) Data from analytical or clinical studies that demonstrate that, when used as intended, the device consistently draws a blood sample volume that is within the indicated fill range;
</P>
<P>(F) Data from analytical or clinical studies that demonstrate that, when used as intended, cell-free nucleic acid yield, stability, and quality are not significantly impacted by interference due to other parts of the device (such as reduced or excess active ingredient) or specimen collection and processing procedures (such as hemolysis, centrifugation, or mixing of blood with anticoagulant or additives); and
</P>
<P>(G) Data from analytical studies that demonstrate that the device is suitable for its intended use across all storage and sample handling conditions described in the device labeling, including device shelf life and shipping conditions (<I>e.g.,</I> temperature, humidity, duration).
</P>
<P>(iii) A protocol, reviewed and determined acceptable by FDA, that specifies the verification and validation activities that will be performed for anticipated device modifications to reevaluate performance claims or performance specifications. This protocol must include a process for assessing whether a modification to technology, engineering, performance, materials, specifications, or indications for use, or any combination thereof, could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device. The protocol must include assessment metrics, acceptance criteria, and analytical methods for the performance testing of changes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 72983, Sept. 9, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1678" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.149" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1678   Tacrolimus test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tacrolimus test system is a device intended to quantitatively determine tacrolimus concentrations as an aid in the management of transplant patients receiving therapy with this drug. This generic type of device includes immunoassays and chromatographic assays for tacrolimus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus Assays; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 58329, Sept. 16, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.150" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1680   Testosterone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A testosterone test system is a device intended to measure testosterone (a male sex hormone) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurement of testosterone are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving the male sex hormones (androgens), including primary and secondary hypogonadism, delayed or precocious puberty, impotence in males and, in females hirsutism (excessive hair) and virilization (masculinization) due to tumors, polycystic ovaries, and adrenogenital syndromes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987; 53 FR 11645, Apr. 8, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1685" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.151" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1685   Thyroxine-binding globulin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thyroxine-binding globulin test system is a device intended to measure thyroxine (thyroid)-binding globulin (TBG), a plasma protein which binds thyroxine, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.152" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1690   Thyroid stimulating hormone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thyroid stimulating hormone test system is a device intended to measure thyroid stimulating hormone, also known as thyrotrophin and thyrotrophic hormone, in serum and plasma. Measurements of thyroid stimulating hormone produced by the anterior pituitary are used in the diagnosis of thyroid or pituitary disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1695" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.153" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1695   Free thyroxine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A free thyroxine test system is a device intended to measure free (not protein bound) thyroxine (thyroid hormone) in serum or plasma. Levels of free thyroxine in plasma are thought to reflect the amount of thyroxine hormone available to the cells and may therefore determine the clinical metabolic status of thyroxine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.154" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1700   Total thyroxine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A total thyroxine test system is a device intended to measure total (free and protein bound) thyroxine (thyroid hormone) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1705" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.155" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1705   Triglyceride test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A triglyceride test system is a device intended to measure triglyceride (neutral fat) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with diabetes mellitus, nephrosis, liver obstruction, other diseases involving lipid metabolism, or various endocrine disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.156" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1710   Total triiodothyronine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A total triiodothyronine test system is a device intended to measure the hormone triiodothyronine in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases such as hyperthyroidism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 62286, Oct. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1715" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.157" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1715   Triiodothyronine uptake test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A triiodothyronine uptake test system is a device intended to measure the total amount of binding sites available for binding thyroid hormone on the thyroxine-binding proteins, thyroid-binding globulin, thyroxine-binding prealbumin, and albumin of serum and plasma. The device provides an indirect measurement of thyrkoxine levels in serum and plasma. Measurements of triiodothyronine uptake are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 64 FR 1124, Jan. 8, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.158" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1720   Triose phosphate isomerase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A triose phosphate isomerase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Triose phosphate isomerase is an enzyme important in glycolysis (the energy-yielding conversion of glucose to lactic acid in various tissues). Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital triose phosphate isomerase enzyme deficiency, which causes a type of hemolytic anemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1725" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.159" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1725   Trypsin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A trypsin test system is a device intended to measure the activity of trypsin (a pancreatic enzyme important in digestion for the breakdown of proteins) in blood and other body fluids and in feces. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.160" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1730   Free tyrosine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A free tyrosine test system is a device intended to measure free tyrosine (an amono acid) in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases such as congenital tyrosinemia (a disease that can cause liver/kidney disorders) and as an adjunct to the measurement of phenylalanine in detecting congenital phenylketonuria (a disease that can cause brain damage).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.161" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1770   Urea nitrogen test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urea nitrogen test system is a device intended to measure urea nitrogen (an end-product of nitrogen metabolism) in whole blood, serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain renal and metabolic diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1775" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.162" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1775   Uric acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A uric acid test system is a device intended to measure uric acid in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous renal and metabolic disorders, including renal failure, gout, leukemia, psoriasis, starvation or other wasting conditions, and of patients receiving cytotoxic drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device, when it is solely intended for use as an acid reduction of ferric ion test, a phosphotungstate reduction test, a gasometric uricase test, an ultraviolet uricase test, or an oxygen rate uricase test, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019; 85 FR 18445, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.163" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1780   Urinary calculi (stones) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary calculi (stones) test system is a device intended for the analysis of urinary calculi. Analysis of urinary calculi is used in the diagnosis and treatment of calculi of the urinary tract. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1785" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.164" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1785   Urinary urobilinogen (nonquantitative) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urinary urobilinogen (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to detect and estimate urobilinogen (a bile pigment degradation product of red cell hemoglobin) in urine. Estimations obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases and hemolytic (red cells) disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.165" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1790   Uroporphyrin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A uroporphyrin test system is a device intended to measure uroporphyrin in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of porphyrias (primarily inherited diseases associated with disturbed porphyrin metabolism), lead poisoning, and other diseases characterized by alterations in the heme pathway. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1795" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.166" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1795   Vanilmandelic acid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vanilmandelic acid test system is a device intended to measure vanilmandelic acid in urine. Measurements of vanilmandelic acid obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of neuroblastoma, pheochromocytoma, and certain hypertensive conditions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1805" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.167" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1805   Vitamin A test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vitamin A test system is a device intended to measure vitamin A in serum or plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of vitamin A deficiency conditions, including night blindness, or skin, eye, or intestinal disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.168" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1810   Vitamin B<E T="9145">12</E> test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> test system is a device intended to measure vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of anemias of gastrointestinal malabsorption. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1815" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.169" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1815   Vitamin E test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vitamin E test system is a device intended to measure vitamin E (tocopherol) in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of infants with vitamin E deficiency syndrome. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.170" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1820   Xylose test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A xylose test system is a device intended to measure xylose (a sugar) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gastrointestinal malabsorption syndrome (a group of disorders in which there is subnormal absorption of dietary constituents and thus excessive loss from the body of the nonabsorbed substances). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1825" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.171" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1825   Vitamin D test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vitamin D test system is a device intended for use in clinical laboratories for the quantitative determination of 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25-OH-D) and other hydroxylated metabolites of vitamin D in serum or plasma to be used in the assessment of vitamin D sufficiency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Vitamin D test systems must comply with the following special controls: 
</P>
<P>(1) Labeling in conformance with 21 CFR 809.10 and 
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with existing standards of the National Committee on Clinical Laboratory Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 40366, July 29, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.1840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.2.1.172" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1840   Total 25-hydroxyvitamin D mass spectrometry test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A total 25-hydroxyvitamin D mass spectrometry test system is a device intended for use in clinical laboratories for the quantitative determination of total 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25-OH-D) in serum or plasma to be used in the assessment of vitamin D sufficiency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E, of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The device must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must have initial and annual standardization verification by a certifying vitamin D standardization organization deemed acceptable by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include detailed descriptions of performance testing conducted to evaluate precision, accuracy, linearity, interference, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance testing of device precision must, at a minimum, use intended sample type with Vitamin D concentrations at medically relevant decision points. At least one sample in the precision studies must be an unmodified patient sample. This testing must evaluate repeatability and reproducibility using a protocol from an FDA-recognized standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance testing of device accuracy must include a minimum of 115 serum or plasma samples that span the measuring interval of the device and compare results of the new device to results of a reference method or a legally marketed standardized mass spectrometry based vitamin D assay. The results must be described in the 21 CFR 809.10(b)(12) compliant labeling of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Interference from vitamin D analogs and metabolites including vitamin D2, vitamin D3, 1-hydroxyvitamin D2, 1-hydroxyvitamin D3, 3-Epi-25-Hydroxyvitamin D2, 3-Epi-25-Hydroxyvitamin D3, 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D2, 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3, 3-Epi-1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D2, and 3-Epi-1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3, 25, 26-Dihydroxyvitamin-D3, 24 (R), 25-dihydroxyvitamin-D3, 23 (R), 25-dihydroxyvitamin-D3 must be described in the 21 CFR 809.10(b)(7) compliant labeling of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must be supported by a reference range study representative of the performance of the device. The study must be conducted using samples collected from apparently healthy male and female adults at least 21 years of age and older from at least 3 distinct climatic regions within the United States in different weather seasons. The ethnic, racial, and gender background of this study population must be representative of the U.S. population demographics.
</P>
<P>(4) The results of the device as provided in the 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling and any test report generated must be reported as only total 25-hydroxyvitamin D.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 51559, Nov. 7, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 25914, June 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Clinical Laboratory Instruments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2050   General purpose laboratory equipment labeled or promoted for a specific medical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> General purpose laboratory equipment labeled or promoted for a specific medical use is a device that is intended to prepare or examine specimens from the human body and that is labeled or promoted for a specific medical use. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is identified in paragraph (a) of this section and is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55980, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2100   Calculator/data processing module for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calculator/data processing module for clinical use is an electronic device intended to process laboratory data.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21449, June 8, 1988; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001; 86 FR 20283, Apr. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2120   Continuous glucose monitor data management system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A continuous glucose monitor data management system is an electronic device intended to acquire, process, and correlate retrospective data from a continuous glucose monitoring device. This device is intended to be used by patients or their healthcare providers when determining therapeutic strategies. A continuous glucose monitor data management system is not a drug dose calculator and does not provide treatment recommendations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 57817, Oct. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2140   Centrifugal chemistry analyzer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A centrifugal chemistry analyzer for clinical use is an automatic device intended to centrifugally mix a sample and a reagent and spectrophotometrically measure concentrations of the sample constituents. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2150   Continuous flow sequential multiple chemistry analyzer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A continuous flow sequential multiple chemistry analyzer for clinical use is a modular analytical instrument intended to simultaneously perform multiple chemical procedures using the principles of automated continuous flow systems. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2308, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2160   Discrete photometric chemistry analyzer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A discrete photometric chemistry analyzer for clinical use is a device intended to duplicate manual analytical procedures by performing automatically various steps such as pipetting, preparing filtrates, heating, and measuring color intensity. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes. Different models of the device incorporate various instrumentation such as micro analysis apparatus, double beam, single, or dual channel photometers, and bichromatic 2-wavelength photometers. Some models of the device may include reagent-containing components that may also serve as reaction units. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2170   Micro chemistry analyzer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A micro chemistry analyzer for clinical use is a device intended to duplicate manual analytical procedures by performing automatically various steps such as pipetting, preparing filtrates, heating, and measuring color intensity. The distinguishing characteristic of the device is that it requires only micro volume samples obtainable from pediatric patients. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2230   Chromatographic separation material for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chromatographic separation material for clinical use is a device accessory (e.g., ion exchange absorbents, ion exchagne resins, and ion papers) intended for use in ion exchange chromatography, a procedure in which a compound is separated from a solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2250   Gas liquid chromatography system for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas liquid chromatography system for clinical use is a device intended to separate one or more drugs or compounds from a mixture. Each of the constituents in a vaporized mixture of compounds is separated according to its vapor pressure. The device may include accessories such as columns, gases, column supports, and liquid coating. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2260   High pressure liquid chromatography system for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A high pressure liquid chromatography system for clinical use is a device intended to separate one or more drugs or compounds from a solution by processing the mixture of compounds (solutes) through a column packed with materials of uniform size (stationary phase) under the influence of a high pressure liquid (mobile phase). Separation of the solutes occurs either by absorption, sieving, partition, or selective affinity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2265" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2265   High throughput genomic sequence analyzer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A high throughput genomic sequence analyzer for clinical use is an analytical instrument system intended to generate, measure and sort signals in order to analyze nucleic acid sequences in a clinical sample. The device may include a signal reader unit; reagent handling, dedicated instrument control, and other hardware components; raw data storage mechanisms; data acquisition software; and software to process detected signals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling for the instrument system must reference legally marketed pre-analytical and analytical reagents to be used with the instrument system and include or reference legally marketed analytical software that includes sequence alignment and variant calling functions, to be used with the instrument system.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling for the instrument system must include a description of the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The specimen type(s) validated as an appropriate source of nucleic acid for this instrument.
</P>
<P>(ii) The type(s) of nucleic acids (<I>e.g.,</I> germline DNA, tumor DNA) validated with this instrument.
</P>
<P>(iii) The type(s) of sequence variations (<I>e.g.</I> single nucleotide variants, insertions, deletions) validated with this instrument.
</P>
<P>(iv) The type(s) of sequencing (<I>e.g.,</I> targeted sequencing) validated with this instrument.
</P>
<P>(v) The appropriate read depth for the sensitivity claimed and validation information supporting those claims.
</P>
<P>(vi) The nucleic acid extraction method(s) validated for use with the instrument system.
</P>
<P>(vii) Limitations must specify the types of sequence variations that the instrument cannot detect with the claimed accuracy and precision (<I>e.g.,</I> insertions or deletions larger than a certain size, translocations).
</P>
<P>(viii) Performance characteristics of the instrument system must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Reproducibility data generated using multiple instruments and multiple operators, and at multiple sites. Samples tested must include all claimed specimen types, nucleic acid types, sequence variation types, and types of sequencing. Variants queried shall be located in varying sequence context (<I>e.g.,</I> different chromosomes, GC-rich regions). Device results shall be compared to reference sequence data with high confidence.
</P>
<P>(B) Accuracy data for all claimed specimen types and nucleic acid types generated by testing a panel of well characterized samples to query all claimed sequence variation types, types of sequencing, and sequences located in varying sequence context (<I>e.g.,</I> different chromosomes, GC-rich regions). The well-characterized sample panel shall include samples from at least two sources that have highly confident sequence based on well-validated sequencing methods. At least one reference source shall have sequence generated independently of the manufacturer with respect to technology and analysis. Percent agreement and percent disagreement with the reference sequences must be described for all regions queried by the instrument.
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, data describing endogenous or exogenous substances that may interfere with the instrument system.
</P>
<P>(D) If applicable, data demonstrating the ability of the system to consistently generate an accurate result for a given sample across different indexing primer combinations.
</P>
<P>(ix) The upper and lower limit of input nucleic acid that will achieve the claimed accuracy and reproducibility. Data supporting such claims must also be summarized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13552, Mar. 14, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2270   Thin-layer chromatography system for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thin-layer chromatography (TLC) system for clinical use is a device intended to separate one or more drugs or compounds from a mixture. The mixture of compounds is absorbed onto a stationary phase or thin layer of inert material (e.g., cellulose, alumina, etc.) and eluted off by a moving solvent (moving phase) until equilibrium occurs between the two phases. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9. Particular components of TLC systems, <I>i.e.,</I> the thin-layer chromatography apparatus, TLC atomizer, TLC developing tanks, and TLC ultraviolet light, are exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55980, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2300   Colorimeter, photometer, or spectrophotometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A colorimeter, a photometer, or a spectrophotometer for clinical use is an instrument intended to measure radiant energy emitted, transmitted, absorbed, or reflected under controlled conditions. The device may include a monochromator to produce light of a specific wavelength.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2310   Clinical sample concentrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clinical sample concentrator is a device intended to concentrate (by dialysis, evaporation, etc.) serum, urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and other body fluids before the fluids are analyzed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38899, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2320   Beta or gamma counter for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A beta or gamma counter for clinical use is a device intended to detect and count beta or gamma radiation emitted by clinical samples. Clinical samples are prepared by addition of a radioactive reagent to the sample. These measurements are useful in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2400   Densitometer/scanner (integrating, reflectance, TLC, or radiochromatogram) for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A densitometer/scanner (integrating, reflectance, thin-layer chromatography, or radiochromatogram) for clinical use is device intended to measure the concentration of a substance on the surface of a film or other support media by either a photocell measurement of the light transmission through a given area of the medium or, in the case of the radiochromatogram scanner, by measurement of the distribution of a specific radio-active element on a radiochromatogram.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2485" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2485   Electrophoresis apparatus for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrophoresis apparatus for clinical use is a device intended to separate molecules or particles, including plasma proteins, lipoproteins, enzymes, and hemoglobulins on the basis of their net charge in specified buffered media. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes as an aid in the diagnosis and treatment of certain disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2500   Enzyme analyzer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An enzyme analyzer for clinical use is a device intended to measure enzymes in plasma or serum by nonkinetic or kinetic measurement of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of enzymes as an aid in the diagnosis and treatment of certain enzyme-related disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2540   Flame emission photometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A flame emission photometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure the concentration of sodium, potassium, lithium, and other metal ions in body fluids. Abnormal variations in the concentration of these substances in the body are indicative of certain disorders (e.g., electrolyte imbalance and heavy metal intoxication) and are, therefore, useful in diagnosis and treatment of those disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2560   Fluorometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fluorometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure by fluorescence certain analytes. Fluorescence is the property of certain substances of radiating, when illuminated, a light of a different wavelength. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2570   Instrumentation for clinical multiplex test systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Instrumentation for clinical multiplex test systems is a device intended to measure and sort multiple signals generated by an assay from a clinical sample. This instrumentation is used with a specific assay to measure multiple similar analytes that establish a single indicator to aid in diagnosis. Such instrumentation may be compatible with more than one specific assay. The device includes a signal reader unit, and may also integrate reagent handling, hybridization, washing, dedicated instrument control, and other hardware components, as well as raw data storage mechanisms, data acquisition software, and software to process detected signals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Instrumentation for Clinical Multiplex Test Systems.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 11868, Mar. 10, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2680   Microtitrator for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microtitrator for clinical use is a device intended for use in micronanalysis to measure the concentration of a substance by reacting it with a measure “micro” volume of a known standardized solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2700   Nephelometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nephelometer for clinical use is a device intended to estimate the concentration of particles in a suspension by measuring their light scattering properties (the deflection of light rays by opaque particles in their path). The device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure the concentration of a variety of analytes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2720   Plasma oncometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A plasma oncometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure plasma oncotic pressure, which is that portion of the total plasma osmotic pressure contributed by protein and other molecules too large to pass through a specified semipermeable membrane. Because variations in plasma oncotic pressure are indications of certain disorders, measurements of the variations are useful in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2730   Osmometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An osmometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure the osmotic pressure of body fluids. Osmotic pressure is the pressure required to prevent the passage of a solution with a lesser solute concentration into a solution with greater solute concentration when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane. The concentration of a solution affects its osmotic pressure, freezing point, and other physiochemical properties. Osmometers determine osmotic pressure by methods such as the measurement of the freezing point. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of body fluid disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2750   Pipetting and diluting system for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pipetting and diluting system for clinical use is a device intended to provide an accurately measured volume of liquid at a specified temperature for use in certain test procedures. This generic type of device system includes serial, manual, automated, and semi-automated dilutors, pipettors, dispensers, and pipetting stations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2800   Refractometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A refractometer for clinical use is a device intended to determine the amount of solute in a solution by measuring the index of refraction (the ratio of the velocity of light in a vacuum to the velocity of light in the solution). The index of refraction is used to measure the concentration of certain analytes (solutes), such a plasma total proteins and urinary total solids. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2850   Atomic absorption spectrophotometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An atomic absorption spectrophotometer for clinical use is a device intended to identify and measure elements and metals (e.g., lead and mercury) in human specimens. The metal elements are identified according to the wavelength and intensity of the light that is absorbed when the specimen is converted to the atomic vapor phase. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2860   Mass spectrometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mass spectrometer for clinical use is a device intended to identify inorganic or organic compounds (e.g., lead, mercury, and drugs) in human specimens by ionizing the compound under investigation and separating the resulting ions by means of an electrical and magnetic field according to their mass.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2900   Automated urinalysis system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated urinalysis system is a device intended to measure certain of the physical properties and chemical constituents of urine by procedures that duplicate manual urinalysis systems. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of urinary analytes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.3.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2920   Plasma viscometer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A plasma viscometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure the viscosity of plasma by determining the time period required for the plasma to flow a measured distance through a calibrated glass tube. Measurements obtained by this device are used to monitor changes in the amount of solids present in plasma in various disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38788, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Clinical Toxicology Test Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3030   Acetaminophen test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An acetaminophen test system is a device intended to measure acetaminophen, an analgestic and fever reducing drug, in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of acetaminophen overdose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3035" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3035   Amikacin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An amikacin test system is a device intended to measure amikacin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of amikacin overdose and in monitoring levels of amikacin to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3040   Alcohol test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An alcohol test system is a device intented to measure alcohol (e.g., ethanol, methanol, isopropanol, etc.) in human body fluids (e.g., serum, whole blood, and urine). Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of alcohol intoxication and poisoning.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3050   Breath-alcohol test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breath-alcohol test system is a device intened to measure alcohol in the human breath. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis of alcohol intoxication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3080   Breath nitric oxide test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breath nitric oxide test system is a device intended to measure fractional nitric oxide in human breath. Measurement of changes in fractional nitric oxide concentration in expired breath aids in evaluating an asthma patient's response to anti-inflammatory therapy, as an adjunct to established clinical and laboratory assessments of asthma. A breath nitric oxide test system combines chemiluminescence detection of nitric oxide with a pneumotachograph, display, and dedicated software.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Breath Nitric Oxide Test System.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 40127, July 7, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3100   Amphetamine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An amphetamine test system is a device intended to measure amphetamine, a central nervous system stimulating drug, in plasma and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of amphetamine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of amphetamine to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). An amphetamine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3110   Antimony test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antimony test system is a device intended to measure antimony, a heavy metal, in urine, blood, vomitus, and stomach contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of antimony poisoning.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3120   Arsenic test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An arsenic test system is a device intended to measure arsenic, a poisonous heavy metal, in urine, vomitus, stomach contents, nails, hair, and blood. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of arsenic poisoning.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3150   Barbiturate test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A barbiturate test system is a device intended to measure barbiturates, a class of hypnotic and sedative drugs, in serum, urine, and gastric contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of barbiturate use or overdose and in monitoring levels of barbiturate to ensure appropriate therapy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A barbiturate test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3170   Benzodiazepine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A benzodiazepine test system is a device intended to measure any of the benzodiazepine compounds, sedative and hypnotic drugs, in blood, plasma, and urine. The benzodiazepine compounds include chlordiazepoxide, diazepam, oxazepam, chlorzepate, flurazepam, and nitrazepam. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of benzodiazepine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of benzodiazepines to ensure appropriate therapy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A benzodiazepine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3200   Clinical toxicology calibrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clinical toxicology calibrator is a device intended for medical purposes for use in a test system to establish points of reference that are used in the determination of values in the measurement of substances in human specimens. A clinical toxicology calibrator can be a mixture of drugs or a specific material for a particular drug (e.g., ethanol, lidocaine, etc.). (See also § 862.2 in this part.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3220   Carbon monoxide test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carbon monoxide test system is a device intended to measure carbon monoxide or carboxyhemoglobin (carbon monoxide bound to the hemoglobin in the blood) in blood. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of or confirmation of carbon monoxide poisoning. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3240   Cholinesterase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cholinesterase test system is a device intended to measure cholinesterase (an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of acetylcholine to choline) in human specimens. There are two principal types of cholinesterase in human tissues. True cholinesterase is present at nerve endings and in erythrocytes (red blood cells) but is not present in plasma. Pseudo cholinesterase is present in plasma and liver but is not present in erythrocytes. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of cholinesterase inhibition disorders (e.g., insecticide poisoning and succinylcholine poisoning). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3245" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3245   Clozapine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clozapine test system is a device intended to measure clozapine in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in monitoring levels of clozapine to ensure appropriate therapy in patients with treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Precision study data that demonstrates precision that is clinically appropriate, as determined by FDA, for the clozapine test system. Precision studies must include a minimum of three samples containing different concentrations of clozapine including near medical decision points and throughout the expected therapeutic range of clozapine. Samples near the medical decision points must be clinical specimens collected from patients taking clozapine;
</P>
<P>(ii) Method comparison data that demonstrates accuracy that is clinically acceptable, as determined by FDA, for the clozapine test system;
</P>
<P>(iii) Data from studies that demonstrate that the device is free from clinically significant interference, as determined by FDA, from commonly co-administered medications that are used in patients with treatment-resistant schizophrenia; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Data from studies that demonstrate that the device is free from clinically significant cross-reactivity, as determined by FDA, from major circulating metabolites found in the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a limiting statement conveying that the assay should only be used in conjunction with information available from clinical evaluations and other diagnostic procedures and that results from the assay alone should not be used in making treatment decisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 75491, Sept. 16, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3250   Cocaine and cocaine metabolite test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cocaine and cocaine metabolite test system is a device intended to measure cocaine and a cocaine metabolite (benzoylecgonine) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of cocaine use or overdose. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A cocaine and cocaine metabolite test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71797, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3270   Codeine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A codeine test system is a device intended to measure codeine (a narcotic pain-relieving drug) in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of codeine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of codeine to ensure appropriate therapy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A codeine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3280   Clinical toxicology control material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clinical toxicology control material is a device intended to provide an estimation of the precision of a device test system and to detect and monitor systematic deviations from accuracy resulting from reagent or instrument defects. This generic type of device includes various single, and multi-analyte control materials. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2309, Jan. 14, 2000, 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3300   Digitoxin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A digitoxin test system is a device intended to measure digitoxin, a cardiovascular drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of digitoxin overdose and in monitoring levels of digitoxin to ensure appropriate therapy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3320   Digoxin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A digoxin test system is a device intended to measure digoxin, a cardiovascular drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of digoxin overdose and in monitoring levels of digoxin to ensure appropriate therapy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3350   Diphenylhydantoin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diphenylhydantoin test system is a device intended to measure diphenylhydantoin, an antiepileptic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diphenylhydantoin overdose and in monitoring levels of diphenylhydantoin to ensure appropriate therapy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3360   Drug metabolizing enzyme genotyping system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A drug metabolizing enzyme genotyping system is a device intended for use in testing deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) extracted from clinical samples to identify the presence or absence of human genotypic markers encoding a drug metabolizing enzyme. This device is used as an aid in determining treatment choice and individualizing treatment dose for therapeutics that are metabolized primarily by the specific enzyme about which the system provides genotypic information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Drug Metabolizing Enzyme Genotyping Test System.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 11867, Mar. 10, 2005]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3364" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3364   Pharmacogenetic assessment system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pharmacogenetic assessment system is a qualitative in vitro molecular diagnostic system intended to detect nucleic acid variants isolated from human specimens for the purpose of assessing the presence of genetic variants that impact the metabolism, exposure, response, risk of adverse events, dosing, or mechanisms of prescription or over-the-counter medications. The intended use of the device must not include an indication for use in supporting or sustaining human life, being of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health, or presenting a potential, unreasonable risk of illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A pharmacogenetic assessment system must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Data appropriate, as determined by FDA, to demonstrate the analytical accuracy and reliability of the device in intended use specimens, including precision, reproducibility, accuracy, limits of detection, and interferences. This information must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Data demonstrating appropriate, as determined by FDA, reproducibility for each genotype using each claimed sample type. Reproducibility data must be evaluated using specimens collected and processed in a manner consistent with the device's instructions for use, or, as determined by FDA, an appropriate alternative sample panel.
</P>
<P>(B) Analytical data demonstrating the limits of detection, including the minimum amount of input deoxy-ribonucleic acid (DNA) that will consistently produce accurate results.
</P>
<P>(C) Data demonstrating no clinically significant effects from endogenous and exogenous interferents relevant to each intended use specimen type. Interference data must also include an assessment of potentially interfering genetic sequences (<I>e.g.,</I> variants proximal to the variant of interest, pseudogenes).
</P>
<P>(D) Validation data appropriate, as determined by FDA, to support specimen collection and handling claims.
</P>
<P>(E) Clinical data generated in intended use patient populations demonstrating the pharmacogenetic association between the genetic variant tested and any clinical claims or therapy-related recommendations associated with that genotype.
</P>
<P>(ii) Results from an appropriate, as determined by FDA, user comprehension study that demonstrate the intended user can use the device safely. The user comprehension study must be designed to include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Study participants from a statistically sufficient sample size and a demographically diverse (<I>e.g.,</I> age, education level) population that is representative of the intended use population and naive to use of the device, and
</P>
<P>(B) An evaluation of all result comprehension concepts that are critical for safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear information, written in language appropriate for the intended user, that describes instructions for how test results should be interpreted. These instructions must be supported by valid scientific evidence and include:
</P>
<P>(A) Appropriate explanation of the claimed pharmacogenetic associations for all variants included in the test, any relevant variants not included in the test (<I>e.g.,</I> that may contribute to false negative results), and specific considerations by ethnicity, and
</P>
<P>(B) Appropriate explanation of non-genetic and non-tested genetic factors that may impact interpretation of the test results;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed descriptions of analytical performance including, as applicable, precision, reproducibility, accuracy, limits of detection, and interferences as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, in language appropriate for the intended user;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning statement that the patient should not use the test results to stop or change any medication, and that medications should always be taken as prescribed by a healthcare professional;
</P>
<P>(iv) A limiting statement explaining that this test is not intended to inform the patient about their current state of health, including whether the patient should or should not take a medication, or how much of a medication the patient should take, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(v) A warning statement that the test does not diagnose any health conditions and is not a substitute for visits to a doctor or other healthcare professional; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A prominent and conspicuous limiting statement that the test provides only a preliminary test result that needs to be confirmed using an independent pharmacogenetic test without such a limitation prior to making any medical decisions. Alternatively, appropriate design verification and validation activities, including the generation of robust analytical data demonstrating appropriate analytical accuracy and reliability of test results for each genetic variant included in the test report, must be performed that demonstrate that the test can be used to make well-informed clinical decisions.
</P>
<P>(3) The test report must include an appropriate description of how the test results should be used by healthcare providers who may receive the test results from their patients, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) Publicly available pre-purchase labeling with unrestricted access that contains the following information must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear description of the test and its technology, the genotypes detected, and relevant clinical claims associated with each genotype;
</P>
<P>(ii) A clear description of what information the test will provide. This includes variant information, the limitations associated with the test, and any precautionary information about the test the user should be aware of before purchase; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A discussion of answers to frequently asked questions that is sufficient to provide intended users with an appropriate understanding of information specific to each pharmacogenetic association that is claimed.
</P>
<P>(5) The genetic test must use a sample collection device that is FDA-cleared or -approved, or classified as 510(k) exempt, with an indication for in vitro diagnostic use in DNA testing.
</P>
<P>(6) The intended use of the device must not include an indication for use in supporting or sustaining human life, being of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health, or presenting a potential, unreasonable risk of illness or injury.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40706, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3380   Ethosuximide test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ethosuximide test system is a device intended to measure ethosuximide, an antiepileptic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of ethosuximide overdose and in monitoring levels of ethosuximide to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3450   Gentamicin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gentamicin test system is a device intended to measure gentamicin, an antibiotic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gentamicin overdose and in monitoring levels of gentamicin to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3460   Plazomicin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A plazomicin test system is a device intended to measure plazomicin in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in monitoring levels of plazomicin to ensure appropriate therapy in patients with complicated urinary tract infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Precision study data that demonstrates clinically appropriate precision of the plazomicin test system. Precision studies must include a minimum of three samples containing different concentrations of plazomicin, including near medical decision points throughout the expected therapeutic range of plazomicin. Samples near the medical decision points must be clinical specimens collected from patients taking plazomicin.
</P>
<P>(ii) Method comparison data that demonstrates clinically appropriate accuracy of the plazomicin test system, as determined by FDA. Method comparison data must be collected at a minimum of three laboratory sites.
</P>
<P>(iii) Data from studies appropriate to demonstrate that the device is free from clinically significant interference from co-administered medications that are used in patients with complicated urinary tract infection, as determined by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The device's labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a warning statement that explains: “This assay should only be used in conjunction with information available from clinical evaluations and other diagnostic procedures.”


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 22629, May 29, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3520   Kanamycin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A kanamycin test system is a device intended to measure kanamycin, an antibiotic drug, in plasma and serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of kanamycin overdose and in monitoring levels of kanamycin to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3550   Lead test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lead test system is a device intended to measure lead, a heavy metal, in blood and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lead poisoning.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3555" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3555   Lidocaine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lidocaine test system is a device intended to measure lidocaine, an antiarrythmic and anticonvulsant drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lidocaine overdose or in monitoring levels of lidocaine to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3560   Lithium test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lithium test system is a device intended to measure lithium (from the drug lithium carbonate) in serum or plasma. Measurements of lithium are used to assure that the proper drug dosage is administered in the treatment of patients with mental disturbances, such as manic-depressive illness (bipolar disorder).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3580   Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) test system is a device intended to measure lysergic acid diethylamide, a hallucinogenic drug, in serum, urine, and gastric contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of LSD use or overdose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3590   Meprobamate test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A meprobamate test system is a device intended to measure meprobamate in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used to detect the presence of meprobamate to diagnose the use or overdose of meprobamate or structurally-related drug compounds (e.g., prodrugs).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Robust data demonstrating the accuracy of the device when used in the intended specimen matrix. The accuracy data must include a comparison between the meprobamate test system results and meprobamate results that are measured on an FDA-accepted measurement method that is specific and accurate (e.g., gas or liquid chromatography combined with tandem mass spectrometry).
</P>
<P>(ii) Robust analytical data demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including, but not limited to, specificity, cross-reactivity to relevant endogenous and exogenous substances, and the reproducibility of analyte detection around the cutoff(s).
</P>
<P>(2) The intended use of the device must not include an indication for use in monitoring therapeutic drug concentrations or informing dosing adjustment decisions.
</P>
<P>(3) Your 21 CFR 809.10 labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If indicated for use as a screening test to identify preliminary results for further confirmation, the intended use must state “This assay provides only a preliminary analytical result. A more specific alternative chemical confirmatory method (e.g., gas or liquid chromatography and mass spectrometry) must be used to obtain a confirmed analytical result. Clinical consideration and professional judgment must be exercised with any drug of abuse test, particularly when the preliminary test result is positive.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A limiting statement that reads as follows: “This test should not be used to monitor therapeutic drug concentrations or to inform dosing adjustment decisions.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 54876, Nov. 1, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3600   Mercury test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mercury test system is a device intended to measure mercury, a heavy metal, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of mercury poisoning.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3610   Methamphetamine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A methamphetamine test system is a device intended to measure methamphetamine, a central nervous system stimulating drug, in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of methamphetamine use or overdose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A methamphetamine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3620   Methadone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A methadone test system is a device intended to measure methadone, an addictive narcotic pain-relieving drug, in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of methadone use or overdose and to determine compliance with regulations in methadone maintenance treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A methadone test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3630   Methaqualone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A methaqualone test system is a device intended to measure methaqualone, a hypnotic and sedative drug, in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of methaqualone use or overdose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A methaqualone test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3640   Morphine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A morphine test system is a device intended to measure morphine, an addictive narcotic pain-relieving drug, and its analogs in serum, urine, and gastric contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of morphine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of morphine and its analogs to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A morphine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3645" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3645   Neuroleptic drugs radioreceptor assay test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neuroleptic drugs radioceptor assay test system is a device intended to measure in serum or plasma the dopamine receptor blocking activity of neuroleptic drugs and their active metabolites. A neuroleptic drug has anti-psychotic action affecting principally psychomotor activity, is generally without hypnotic effects, and is a tranquilizer. Measurements obtained by this device are used to aid in determining whether a patient is taking the prescribed dosage level of such drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3650   Opiate test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An opiate test system is a device intended to measure any of the addictive narcotic pain-relieving opiate drugs in blood, serum, urine, gastric contents, and saliva. An opiate is any natural or synthetic drug that has morphine-like pharmocological actions. The opiates include drugs such as morphine, morphine glucoronide, heroin, codeine, nalorphine, and meperedine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of opiate use or overdose and in monitoring the levels of opiate administration to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). An opiate test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3652" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3652   Organophosphate test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An organophosphate test system is a device intended to measure organophosphate metabolites quantitatively in human urine from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with cholinesterase poisoning. The data obtained by this device is intended to aid in the confirmation and investigation of organophosphate exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The distribution of these devices is limited to laboratories with experienced personnel who are trained to measure and evaluate organophosphate exposure and guide public health response.
</P>
<P>(2) Analytical testing must demonstrate the device has appropriate performance characteristics, including adequate precision and accuracy across the measuring range and near medical decision points.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 48415, Oct. 18, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3660   Phenobarbital test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phenobarbitol test system is a device intended to measure phenobarbital, an antiepileptic and sedative-hypnotic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of phenobarbital use or overdose and in monitoring levels of phenobarbital to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3670   Phenothiazine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phenothiazine test system is a device intended to measure any of the drugs of the phenothiazine class in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of phenothiazine use or overdose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3680   Primidone test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A primidone test system is a device intended to measure primidone, an antiepileptic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of primidone overdose and in monitoring levels of primidone to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3700   Propoxyphene test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A propoxyphene test system is a device intended to measure propoxyphene, a pain-relieving drug, in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of propoxyphene use or overdose or in monitoring levels of propoxyphene to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A propoxyphene test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71798, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3750   Quinine test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A quinine test system is a device intended to measure quinine, a fever-reducing and pain-relieving drug intended in the treatment of malaria, in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of quinine overdose and malaria.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21450, June 8, 1988; 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3800   Reagents for molecular diagnostic instrument test systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Reagents for molecular diagnostic test systems are reagents other than analyte specific reagents used as part of molecular diagnostic test systems, such as polymerases, nucleotides and nucleotide mixes, master mixes in which individual reagents are optimized to be used together, and labeled nucleic acid molecules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedure in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 862.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 61163, Dec. 27, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3830   Salicylate test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A salicylate test system is a device intended to measure salicylates, a class of analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory drugs that includes aspirin, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in diagnosis and treatment of salicylate overdose and in monitoring salicylate levels to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3840   Sirolimus test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sirolimus test system is a device intended to quantitatively determine sirolimus concentrations in whole blood. Measurements are used as an aid in management of transplant patients receiving therapy with sirolimus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Sirolimus Test Systems.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 58259, Sept. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3850   Sulfonamide test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sulfonamide test system is a device intended to measure sulfonamides, any of the antibacterial drugs derived from sulfanilamide, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of sulfonamide overdose and in monitoring sulfonamide levels to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 21450, June 8, 1988; 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3870   Cannabinoid test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cannabinoid test system is a device intended to measure any of the cannabinoids, hallucinogenic compounds endogenous to marihuana, in serum, plasma, saliva, and urine. Cannabinoid compounds include <I>delta</I>-9-tetrahydrocannabinol, cannabidiol, cannabinol, and cannabichromene. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of cannabinoid use or abuse and in monitoring levels of cannabinoids during clinical investigational use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A cannabinoid test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3880   Theophylline test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A theophylline test system is a device intended to measure theophylline (a drug used for stimulation of the muscles in the cardiovascular, respiratory, and central nervous systems) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of theophylline overdose or in monitoring levels of theophylline to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3900   Tobramycin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tobramycin test system is a device intended to measure tobramycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic drug, in plasma and serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of tobramycin overdose and in monitoring levels of tobramycin to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3910   Tricyclic antidepressant drugs test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tricyclic antidepressant drugs test system is a device intended to measure any of the tricyclic antidepressant drugs in serum. The tricyclic antidepressant drugs include imipramine, desipramine, amitriptyline, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and doxepin. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of chronic depression to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A tricyclic antidepressant drugs test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (<I>e.g.,</I> programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16122, May 1, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3950   Vancomycin test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vancomycin test system is a device intended to measure vancomycin, an antibiotic drug, in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of vancomycin overdose and in monitoring the level of vancomycin to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.18.4.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3970   Voriconazole test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A voriconazole test system is a device intended to measure voriconazole in human serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in monitoring levels of voriconazole to ensure appropriate therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Data demonstrating the precision of the voriconazole test system. Precision studies must include a minimum of three samples containing different concentrations of voriconazole, including near medical decision points at the high and low end of the expected therapeutic range. Samples with concentrations near medical decision points must be individual or pooled clinical specimens, collected from patients taking voriconazole.
</P>
<P>(ii) Method comparison data demonstrating accuracy of the voriconazole test system. Method comparison data must be collected at three laboratory sites. The comparator method must not be subject to bias due to nonspecific detection of voriconazole.
</P>
<P>(iii) Data from interference studies performed to evaluate potential interference from co-administered medications used for conditions in which voriconazole is indicated.
</P>
<P>(iv) Data from studies performed to evaluate cross reactivity of the major metabolite, N-oxide voriconazole.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include a warning statement as follows: “This assay should only be used in conjunction with information available from clinical evaluations and other diagnostic procedures.”


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19626, May 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="864" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 864—HEMATOLOGY AND PATHOLOGY DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 864 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of hematology and pathology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(d) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17732, May 11, 1987, as amended at 69 FR 12273, Mar. 16, 2004; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013; 79 FR 50552, Aug. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17732, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Biological Stains</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.1850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.1850   Dye and chemical solution stains.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Dye and chemical solution stains for medical purposes are mixtures of synthetic or natural dyes or nondye chemicals in solutions used in staining cells and tissues for diagnostic histopathology, cytopathology, or hematology.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. These devices are also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60583, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.1860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.1860   Immunohistochemistry reagents and kits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Immunohistochemistry test systems (IHC's) are in vitro diagnostic devices consisting of polyclonal or monoclonal antibodies labeled with directions for use and performance claims, which may be packaged with ancillary reagents in kits. Their intended use is to identify, by immunological techniques, antigens in tissues or cytologic specimens. Similar devices intended for use with flow cytometry devices are not considered IHC's.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification of immunohistochemistry devices.</I> (1) Class I (general controls). Except as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, these devices are exempt from the premarket notification requirements in part 807, subpart E of this chapter. This exemption applies to IHC's that provide the pathologist with adjunctive diagnostic information that may be incorporated into the pathologist's report, but that is not ordinarily reported to the clinician as an independent finding. These IHC's are used after the primary diagnosis of tumor (neoplasm) has been made by conventional histopathology using nonimmunologic histochemical stains, such as hematoxylin and eosin. Examples of class I IHC's are differentiation markers that are used as adjunctive tests to subclassify tumors, such as keratin.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special control, guidance document: “FDA Guidance for Submission of Immunohistochemistry Applications to the FDA,” Center for Devices and Radiologic Health, 1998). These IHC's are intended for the detection and/or measurement of certain target analytes in order to provide prognostic or predictive data that are not directly confirmed by routine histopathologic internal and external control specimens. These IHC's provide the pathologist with information that is ordinarily reported as independent diagnostic information to the ordering clinician, and the claims associated with these data are widely accepted and supported by valid scientific evidence. Examples of class II IHC's are those intended for semiquantitative measurement of an analyte, such as hormone receptors in breast cancer.
</P>
<P>(3) Class III (premarket approval). IHC's intended for any use not described in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is required for any device described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 864.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 30142, June 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.1865" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.1865   Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) test system is a device used to detect a biomarker associated with CIN in human tissues. The device is indicated as an adjunct test and not to be used as a stand-alone device. The test results must be interpreted in the context of the patient's clinical history including, but not limited to, prior and current cervical biopsy results, Papanicolaou (Pap) test results, human papillomavirus (HPV) test results, and morphology on hematoxylin and eosin (H&amp;E) stained sections. This device is not intended to detect the presence of HPV.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The indications for use must specify the biomarker that is intended to be identified and its adjunct use (<I>e.g.,</I> adjunct to examination of H&amp;E stained slides) to improve consistency in the diagnosis of CIN.
</P>
<P>(ii) Summary of professional society recommendations, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed device description including:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of all test components, including all provided reagents and required, but not provided, ancillary reagents.
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or manuals.
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, detailed documentation of the device software, including, but not limited to, stand-alone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed description of appropriate positive and negative controls that are recommended or provided.
</P>
<P>(E) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage.
</P>
<P>(F) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure.
</P>
<P>(G) A description of the assay cutoff (the medical decision point between positive and negative) or other relevant criteria that distinguishes positive and negative results, including the rationale for the chosen cutoff or other relevant criteria and results supporting validation of the cutoff.
</P>
<P>(H) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed information demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Analytical specificity studies such as, but not limited to, antibody characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> Western Blot, peptide inhibition analysis), studies conducted on panels of normal tissues and neoplastic tissues, interference by endogenous and exogenous substances as well as cross-reactivity, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(B) Device analytical sensitivity data generated by testing an adequate number of samples from individuals with the target condition including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantification, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) Device precision/reproducibility data to evaluate within-run, between-run, between-day, between-lot, between-site, between-reader, within-reader and total precision, as applicable, using a panel of samples covering the device measuring range and/or the relevant disease categories (<I>e.g.</I> No CIN, CIN1, CIN2, CIN3, cervical cancer) and testing in replicates across multiple, nonconsecutive days.
</P>
<P>(D) Device robustness/guardbanding studies to assess the tolerance ranges for various critical test and specimen parameters.
</P>
<P>(E) Device stability data, including real-time stability and shipping stability under various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions.
</P>
<P>(F) Data from a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well-characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens, as appropriate, representative of the intended use population. The study must evaluate the consistency of the diagnosis of CIN, for example, by comparing the levels of agreements of diagnoses rendered by community pathologists to those rendered by a panel of expert pathologists. Agreement for each CIN diagnostic category (<I>e.g.,</I> No CIN, CIN1, CIN2, CIN3, cancer) and for alternate diagnostic categories (<I>e.g.,</I> No CIN, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)-histology, high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)-histology, cancer) between reference diagnosis by expert pathologist and community pathologist must be evaluated, as applicable. In addition, agreements for CIN binary categories as ≥CIN2 (<I>i.e.,</I> CIN2 or CIN3 or cancer) and ≤CIN1 (<I>i.e.,</I> No CIN or CIN1) between reference diagnosis by expert pathologist with H&amp;E staining and community pathologist with H&amp;E staining and agreements for alternate CIN binary categories as ≥HSIL-histology (<I>i.e.,</I> HSIL-histology or cancer) and ≤LSIL-histology (<I>i.e.,</I> No CIN or LSIL-histology) between reference diagnosis by an expert pathologist with H&amp;E + [biomarker specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section] and a community pathologist with H&amp;E + [biomarker specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section] must be evaluated and compared, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(G) The staining performance of the device as determined by the community pathologists during review of the study slides must be evaluated. The staining performance criteria assessed must include overall staining acceptability, background staining acceptability, and morphology acceptability, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(H) Appropriate training requirements for users, including interpretation manual, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(I) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The device's 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include a detailed description of the protocol, including the information described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, as applicable, and a detailed description of the performance studies performed and the summary of the results, including those that relate to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 234, Jan. 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.1866" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.1866   Lynch syndrome test systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Lynch syndrome test systems are in vitro diagnostic tests for use with tumor tissue to identify previously diagnosed cancer patients at risk for having Lynch syndrome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of all test components, including all provided reagents, and required but not provided, ancillary reagents.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or manuals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of the device software, including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of quality controls including appropriate positive and negative controls that are recommended or provided.
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure.
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the assay cut-off (<I>i.e.,</I> the medical decision point between positive and negative results) or other relevant criteria that distinguishes positive and negative results, or ordinal classes of marker expression, including the rationale for the chosen cut-off or other relevant criteria and results supporting validation of the cut-off.
</P>
<P>(viii) Detailed specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ix) Detailed information demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Data from an appropriate study demonstrating clinical accuracy using well-characterized clinical specimens representative of the intended use population (<I>i.e.,</I> concordance to Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) sequencing results of the Lynch syndrome associated genes or method comparison to the predicate device using samples with known alterations in genes representative of Lynch syndrome). Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.
</P>
<P>(B) Appropriate device reproducibility data investigating all sources of variance (<I>e.g.,</I> for distributed tests, data generated using a minimum of three sites, of which at least two sites must be external sites). Each site must perform testing over a minimum of 5 nonconsecutive days evaluating a sample panel that spans the claimed measuring range, and includes the clinical threshold. Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.
</P>
<P>(C) Data demonstrating reader reproducibility, both within-reader and between-reader, assessed by three readers over 3 nonconsecutive days at each site, including a 2 week washout period between reads, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(D) Device precision data using clinical samples spanning the measuring range and controls to evaluate the within-lot, between-lot, within-run, between run, and total variation.
</P>
<P>(E) Analytical specificity studies including as appropriate, western blots, peptide inhibition, testing in normal tissues and neoplastic tissues, interference by endogenous and exogenous substances, and cross-reactivity and cross contamination testing.
</P>
<P>(F) Device analytical sensitivity data generated by testing an adequate number of samples from individuals with the target condition such that prevalence of the biomarker in the target population is established.
</P>
<P>(G) Device stability data, including real-time stability and in-use stability, and stability evaluating various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(H) The staining performance criteria assessed must include overall staining acceptability, background staining acceptability, and morphology acceptability, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(I) Appropriate training requirements for users, including interpretation manual, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(J) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The device's § 809.10(b) of this chapter compliant labeling must include a detailed description of the protocol, including the information described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (viii) of this section, as appropriate, and a detailed description of the performance studies performed and the summary of the results, including those that relate to paragraph (b)(1)(ix) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 8357, Feb. 27, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.1870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.1870   Early growth response 1 (EGR1) gene fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) test system for specimen characterization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An early growth response 1 (EGR1) gene fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) test system for specimen characterization is a device intended to detect the EGR1 probe target on chromosome 5q in bone marrow specimens from patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) or myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). The assay results are intended to be interpreted only by a qualified pathologist or cytogeneticist. These devices do not include automated systems that directly report results without review and interpretation by a qualified pathologist or cytogeneticist. These devices also do not include any device intended for use to select patient therapy, predict patient response to therapy, or to screen for disease as well as any device with a claim for a particular diagnosis, prognosis, monitoring, or risk assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must also include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of all probes included in the kit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Purpose of each probe;
</P>
<P>(iii) Probe molecular specificity;
</P>
<P>(iv) Probe specificity;
</P>
<P>(v) Probe limits;
</P>
<P>(vi) Probe sensitivity;
</P>
<P>(vii) Specification of required ancillary reagents, instrumentation, and equipment;
</P>
<P>(viii) Specification of the specimen collection, processing, storage and slide preparation methods;
</P>
<P>(ix) Specification of the assay procedure;
</P>
<P>(x) Specification of control elements that are incorporated into the recommended testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(xi) Specification of risk mitigation elements: Description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing;
</P>
<P>(xii) Specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Device analytical sensitivity data;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Device analytical specificity data;
</P>
<P>(xv) Device reference limit data;
</P>
<P>(xvi) Device precision/reproducibility data;
</P>
<P>(xvii) Device stability data to include:
</P>
<P>(A) Real-time stability,
</P>
<P>(B) Freeze-thaw stability,
</P>
<P>(C) Transport and temperature stability,
</P>
<P>(D) Post-hybridization signal stability,
</P>
<P>(E) Photostability of probe, and
</P>
<P>(xviii) Documentation that demonstrates the clinical validity of the device. The documentation must include data from clinical studies, a minimum of two peer-reviewed published literature references using the specific device seeking marketing clearance, or both. Documentation for the clinical studies and peer-reviewed published literature references cited must include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) Documentation that the sponsor's probe was used in the literature reference,
</P>
<P>(B) Number and type of specimens,
</P>
<P>(C) Target population studied,
</P>
<P>(D) Upper reference limit, and
</P>
<P>(E) Range of positive probe results.
</P>
<P>(2) Your § 809.10(b)(12) of this chapter compliant labeling must include a statement summarizing the data identified in paragraphs (b)(1)(xiii) through (xviii) of this section and a description of the studies supporting the information, including the pre-specified acceptance criteria for these performance studies, justification for the pre-specified acceptance criteria, and whether the pre-specified acceptance criteria were met.
</P>
<P>(3) Your § 809.10 of this chapter compliant labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that reads “The assay results are intended to be interpreted only by a qualified pathologist or cytogeneticist.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that reads “This device is not for high-risk uses such as selecting therapy, predicting therapeutic response or disease screening.”
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning that reads “The use of this device for diagnosis, monitoring or risk assessment has not been established.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 52196, Sept. 3, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.1880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.1880   Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)-based detection of chromosomal abnormalities from patients with hematologic malignancies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)-based detection of chromosomal abnormalities from patients with hematologic malignancies is used to detect chromosomal abnormalities in human specimens from patients with hematologic malignancies. The test is indicated for the clinical management of patients consistent with internationally accepted guidelines (<I>e.g.,</I> World Health Organization guidelines for Classification of Tumours of Haematopoietic and Lymphoid Tissues) and in conjunction with other clinical and clinicopathological criteria. The results are to be interpreted by a pathologist or equivalent professional.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of all probes included in the kit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Purpose of each probe;
</P>
<P>(iii) Probe molecular specificity;
</P>
<P>(iv) Probe specificity;
</P>
<P>(v) Probe limits;
</P>
<P>(vi) Probe sensitivity;
</P>
<P>(vii) Specification of required ancillary reagents, instrumentation, and equipment;
</P>
<P>(viii) Specification of the specimen collection, processing, storage and slide preparation methods;
</P>
<P>(ix) Specification of the assay procedure;
</P>
<P>(x) Specification of control elements that are incorporated into the recommended testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(xi) Specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting;
</P>
<P>(xii) Documentation demonstrating analytical validation that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Device analytical sensitivity data with a minimum of 25 specimens from karyotypically normal males.
</P>
<P>(B) Device analytical specificity data with a minimum of five specimens from karyotypically normal males.
</P>
<P>(C) Description of how the clinical threshold was assigned and verification of the assigned clinical threshold.
</P>
<P>(D) Device precision/reproducibility data with a minimum of six clinical specimens including two negative specimens, two positive specimens near the clinical decision threshold (cut-off) and two positive specimens. The data must include results obtained from three sites (as applicable), with two operators at each site, with the assay run for a minimum of 3-5 non-consecutive days and each specimen run in duplicate for a minimum of 30 replicates.
</P>
<P>(E) Between-reagent lot reproducibility using three reagent lots and three clinical specimens representing negative, near cut-off/low positive, and positive.
</P>
<P>(F) Device stability data to include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Real-time stability,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Freeze-thaw stability,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Transport and temperature stability, as applicable,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Post-hybridization signal stability, and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Photostability of probe.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Documentation demonstrating the clinical validity of the device that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A summary of the prevalence and clinical thresholds reported in three peer-reviewed published literature references for the intended use population of the device and device performance data demonstrating conformance with the published prevalence as reported in peer-reviewed published literature references based on testing clinical specimens, selected without bias (<I>e.g.,</I> consecutively selected) from the intended use population using the specific device seeking marketing clearance. A minimum number of clinical specimens must be tested to ensure sufficient positives are evaluated by the device, or alternatively, in the absence of a sufficient number of positives, an additional comparison of results obtained with the device to clinical truth (<I>e.g.,</I> confirmed clinical diagnosis and/or G-banded karyotyping) with an independent specimen set must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(B) Documentation for peer-reviewed published literature references must include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the specific device was used in the literature reference;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Number and type of specimens;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Target population studied;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Upper reference limit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Prevalence range estimated based on the number of positive probe results.
</P>
<P>(C) In the absence of clinical data obtained from paragraphs (b)(1)(xiii)(A) and (B) of this section, clinical data obtained from a method comparison to the predicate with positives and negative clinical specimens.
</P>
<P>(2) The intended use required on the label under § 809.10(a)(4) of this chapter and on the labeling required under § 809.10(b)(5)(ii) of this chapter must include a statement that “The test is not intended for use as a stand-alone diagnostic, disease screening, or as a companion diagnostic.”
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test, including a detailed summary of the performance studies conducted and their results, as described in paragraphs (b)(1)(iv) through (xiii) of this section. The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include the pre-specified acceptance criteria for these performance studies, justification for the pre-specified acceptance criteria, and whether the pre-specified acceptance criteria were met.
</P>
<P>(4) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include the following limiting statements:
</P>
<P>(i) “Reporting and interpretation of FISH results should be consistent with professional standards of practice and should take into consideration other clinical and diagnostic information. This kit is intended as an adjunct to other diagnostic laboratory tests and therapeutic action should not be initiated on the basis of the FISH result alone. Failure to adhere to the protocol may affect the performance and lead to false results.”
</P>
<P>(ii) “Each lab is responsible for establishing their own cut-off values. Each laboratory should test sufficiently large number of samples to establish normal population distribution of the signal levels and to assign a cut-off value. The product is for professional use only and is intended to be interpreted by a qualified pathologist or cytogeneticist.”


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 27233, June 26, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Cell And Tissue Culture Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.2220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.2220   Synthetic cell and tissue culture media and components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Synthetic cell and tissue culture media and components are substances that are composed entirely of defined components (e.g., amino acids, vitamins, inorganic salts) that are essential for the survival and development of cell lines of humans and other animals. This does not include tissue culture media for human ex vivo tissue and cell culture processing applications as described in § 876.5885 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60583, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 27024, May 16, 2001; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.2240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.2240   Cell and tissue culture supplies and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cell and tissue culture supplies and equipment are devices that are used to examine, propagate, nourish, or grow cells and tissue cultures. These include such articles as slide culture chambers, perfusion and roller apparatus, cell culture suspension systems, and tissue culture flasks, disks, tubes, and roller bottles. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. If the devices are not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, they are exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60584, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.2260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.2260   Chromosome culture kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chromosome culture kit is a device containing the necessary ingredients (e.g., Minimum Essential Media (MEM) of McCoy's 5A culture media, phytohemagglutinin, fetal calf serum, antibiotics, and heparin) used to culture tissues for diagnosis of congenital chromosome abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60585, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.2280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.2280   Cultured animal and human cells.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cultured animal and human cells are in vitro cultivated cell lines from the tissue of humans or other animals which are used in various diagnostic procedures, particularly diagnostic virology and cytogenetic studies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60585, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.2360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.2360   Mycoplasma detection media and components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Mycoplasma detection media and components are used to detect and isolate mycoplasma pleuropneumonia-like organisms (PPLO), a common microbial contaminant in cell cultures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60586, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.2800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.2800   Animal and human sera.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Animal and human sera are biological products, obtained from the blood of humans or other animals, that provide the necessary growth-promoting nutrients in a cell culture system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60586, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.2875" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.2875   Balanced salt solutions or formulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A balanced salt solution or formulation is a defined mixture of salts and glucose in a simple medium. This device is included as a necessary component of most cell culture systems. This media component controls for pH, osmotic pressure, energy source, and inorganic ions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60586, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Pathology Instrumentation and Accessories</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3010   Tissue processing equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Tissue processing equipment consists of devices used to prepare human tissue specimens for diagnostic histological examination by processing specimens through the various stages of decalcifying, infiltrating, sectioning, and mounting on microscope slides. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. The devices are also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60587, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3250   Specimen transport and storage container.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A specimen transport and storage container, which may be empty or prefilled, is a device intended to contain biological specimens, body waste, or body exudate during storage and transport in order that the matter contained therein can be destroyed or used effectively for diagnostic examination. If prefilled, the device contains a fixative solution or other general purpose reagent to preserve the condition of a biological specimen added to the container. This section does not apply to specimen transport and storage containers that are intended for use as part of an over-the-counter test sample collection system for drugs of abuse testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 47206, Nov. 13, 1989, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000; 65 FR 18234, Apr. 7, 2000; 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3260   OTC test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An over-the-counter (OTC) test sample collection system for drugs of abuse testing is a device intended to: Collect biological specimens (such as hair, urine, sweat, or saliva), outside of a medical setting and not on order of a health care professional (e.g., in the home, insurance, sports, or workplace setting); maintain the integrity of such specimens during storage and transport in order that the matter contained therein can be tested in a laboratory for the presence of drugs of abuse or their metabolites; and provide access to test results and counseling. This section does not apply to collection, transport, or laboratory testing of biological specimens for the presence of drugs of abuse or their metabolites that is performed to develop evidence for law enforcement purposes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification requirements in part 807, subpart E of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9 if it is sold, distributed, and used in accordance with the restrictions set forth in § 809.40 of this chapter. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning complaint files under § 820.35(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 18234, Apr. 7, 2000, as amended at 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3300   Cytocentrifuge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cytocentrifuge is a centrifuge used to concentrate cells from biological cell suspensions (e.g., cerebrospinal fluid) and to deposit these cells on a glass microscope slide for cytological examination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60588, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3400   Device for sealing microsections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device for sealing microsections is an automated instrument used to seal stained cells and microsections for histological and cytological examination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60589, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3600   Microscopes and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Microscopes and accessories are optical instruments used to enlarge images of specimens, preparations, and cultures for medical purposes. Variations of microscopes and accessories (through a change in the light source) used for medical purposes include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Phase contrast microscopes, which permit visualization of unstained preparations by altering the phase relationship of light that passes around the object and through the object. 
</P>
<P>(2) Fluorescense microscopes, which permit examination of specimens stained with fluorochromes that fluoresce under ultraviolet light. 
</P>
<P>(3) Inverted stage microscopes, which permit examination of tissue cultures or other biological specimens contained in bottles or tubes with the light source mounted above the specimen. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60590, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001;90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025 ]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3700   Whole slide imaging system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The whole slide imaging system is an automated digital slide creation, viewing, and management system intended as an aid to the pathologist to review and interpret digital images of surgical pathology slides. The system generates digital images that would otherwise be appropriate for manual visualization by conventional light microscopy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The indications for use must specify the tissue specimen that is intended to be used with the whole slide imaging system and the components of the system.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the device and bench testing results at the component level, including for the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Slide feeder;
</P>
<P>(B) Light source;
</P>
<P>(C) Imaging optics;
</P>
<P>(D) Mechanical scanner movement;
</P>
<P>(E) Digital imaging sensor;
</P>
<P>(F) Image processing software;
</P>
<P>(G) Image composition techniques;
</P>
<P>(H) Image file formats;
</P>
<P>(I) Image review manipulation software;
</P>
<P>(J) Computer environment; and
</P>
<P>(K) Display system.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed bench testing and results at the system level, including for the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Color reproducibility;
</P>
<P>(B) Spatial resolution;
</P>
<P>(C) Focusing test;
</P>
<P>(D) Whole slide tissue coverage;
</P>
<P>(E) Stitching error; and
</P>
<P>(F) Turnaround time.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed information demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Precision to evaluate intra-system and inter-system precision using a comprehensive set of clinical specimens with defined, clinically relevant histologic features from various organ systems and diseases. Multiple whole slide imaging systems, multiple sites, and multiple readers must be included.
</P>
<P>(B) Reproducibility data to evaluate inter-site variability using a comprehensive set of clinical specimens with defined, clinically relevant histologic features from various organ systems and diseases. Multiple whole slide imaging systems, multiple sites, and multiple readers must be included.
</P>
<P>(C) Data from a clinical study to demonstrate that viewing, reviewing, and diagnosing digital images of surgical pathology slides prepared from tissue slides using the whole slide imaging system is non-inferior to using an optical microscope. The study should evaluate the difference in major discordance rates between manual digital (MD) and manual optical (MO) modalities when compared to the reference (<I>e.g.,</I> main sign-out diagnosis).
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed human factor engineering process must be used to evaluate the whole slide imaging system user interface(s).
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling compliant with 21 CFR 809.10(b) must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The intended use statement must include the information described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, as applicable, and a statement that reads, “It is the responsibility of a qualified pathologist to employ appropriate procedures and safeguards to assure the validity of the interpretation of images obtained using this device.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the technical studies and the summary of results, including those that relate to paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the performance studies and the summary of results, including those that relate to paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) A limiting statement that specifies that pathologists should exercise professional judgment in each clinical situation and examine the glass slides by conventional microscopy if there is doubt about the ability to accurately render an interpretation using this device alone.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 22, Jan. 2, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3750   Software algorithm device to assist users in digital pathology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A software algorithm device to assist users in digital pathology is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to evaluate acquired scanned pathology whole slide images. The device uses software algorithms to provide information to the user about presence, location, and characteristics of areas of the image with clinical implications. Information from this device is intended to assist the user in determining a pathology diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use on the device's label and labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specimen type;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on the device input(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> scanned whole slide images (WSI), etc.);
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the device output(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> format of the information provided by the device to the user that can be used to evaluate the WSI, etc.);
</P>
<P>(iv) Intended users;
</P>
<P>(v) Necessary input/output devices (<I>e.g.,</I> WSI scanners, viewing software, etc.);
</P>
<P>(vi) A limiting statement that addresses use of the device as an adjunct; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A limiting statement that users should use the device in conjunction with complete standard of care evaluation of the WSI.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device, including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed descriptions of the software device, including the detection/analysis algorithm, software design architecture, interaction with input/output devices, and necessary third-party software;
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed descriptions of the intended user(s) and recommended training for safe use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(C) Clear instructions about how to resolve device-related issues (<I>e.g.,</I> cybersecurity or device malfunction issues).
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the performance testing, including test methods, dataset characteristics, results, and a summary of sub-analyses on case distributions stratified by relevant confounders, such as anatomical characteristics, patient demographics, medical history, user experience, and scanning equipment, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Limiting statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of situations in which the device may fail or may not operate at its expected performance level (<I>e.g.,</I> poor image quality or for certain subpopulations), including any limitations in the dataset used to train, test, and tune the algorithm during device development;
</P>
<P>(B) The data acquired using the device should only be interpreted by the types of users indicated in the intended use statement; and
</P>
<P>(C) Qualified users should employ appropriate procedures and safeguards (e.g., quality control measures, etc.) to assure the validity of the interpretation of images obtained using this device.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device software, including its algorithm and its development, that includes a description of any datasets used to train, tune, or test the software algorithm. This detailed description of the device software must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the technical performance assessment study protocols (e.g., regions of interest (ROI) localization study) and results used to assess the device output(s) (e.g., image overlays, image heatmaps, etc.);
</P>
<P>(B) The training dataset must include cases representing different pre-analytical variables representative of the conditions likely to be encountered when used as intended (e.g., fixation type and time, histology slide processing techniques, challenging diagnostic cases, multiple sites, patient demographics, etc.);
</P>
<P>(C) The number of WSI in an independent validation dataset must be appropriate to demonstrate device accuracy in detecting and localizing ROIs on scanned WSI, and must include subsets clinically relevant to the intended use of the device;
</P>
<P>(D) Emergency recovery/backup functions, which must be included in the device design;
</P>
<P>(E) System level architecture diagram with a matrix to depict the communication endpoints, communication protocols, and security protections for the device and its supportive systems, including any products or services that are included in the communication pathway; and
</P>
<P>(F) A risk management plan, including a justification of how the cybersecurity vulnerabilities of third-party software and services are reduced by the device's risk management mitigations in order to address cybersecurity risks associated with key device functionality (such as loss of image, altered metadata, corrupted image data, degraded image quality, etc.). The risk management plan must also include how the device will be maintained on its intended platform (<I>e.g.</I> a general purpose computing platform, virtual machine, middleware, cloud-based computing services, medical device hardware, etc.), which includes how the software integrity will be maintained, how the software will be authenticated on the platform, how any reliance on the platform will be managed in order to facilitate implementation of cybersecurity controls (such as user authentication, communication encryption and authentication, etc.), and how the device will be protected when the underlying platform is not updated, such that the specific risks of the device are addressed (such as loss of image, altered metadata, corrupted image data, degraded image quality, etc.).
</P>
<P>(ii) Data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, analytical device performance, by conducting analytical studies. For each analytical study, relevant details must be documented (e.g., the origin of the study slides and images, reader/annotator qualifications, method of annotation, location of the study site(s), challenging diagnoses, etc.). The analytical studies must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Bench testing or technical testing to assess device output, such as localization of ROIs within a pre-specified threshold. Samples must be representative of the entire spectrum of challenging cases likely to be encountered when the device is used as intended; and
</P>
<P>(B) Data from a precision study that demonstrates device performance when used with multiple input devices (e.g., WSI scanners) to assess total variability across operators, within-scanner, between-scanner and between-site, using clinical specimens with defined, clinically relevant, and challenging characteristics likely to be encountered when the device is used as intended. Samples must be representative of the entire spectrum of challenging cases likely to be encountered when the device is used as intended. Precision, including performance of the device and reproducibility, must be assessed by agreement between replicates.
</P>
<P>(iii) Data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, clinical validation must be demonstrated by conducting studies with clinical specimens. For each clinical study, relevant details must be documented (e.g., the origin of the study slides and images, reader/annotator qualifications, method of annotation, location of the study site(s) (on-site/remote), challenging diagnoses, etc.). The studies must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A study demonstrating the performance by the intended users with and without the software device (e.g., unassisted and device-assisted reading of scanned WSI of pathology slides). The study dataset must contain sufficient numbers of cases from relevant cohorts that are representative of the scope of patients likely to be encountered given the intended use of the device (e.g., subsets defined by clinically relevant confounders, challenging diagnoses, subsets with potential biopsy appearance modifiers, concomitant diseases, and subsets defined by image scanning characteristics, etc.) such that the performance estimates and confidence intervals for these individual subsets can be characterized. The performance assessment must be based on appropriate diagnostic accuracy measures (e.g., sensitivity, specificity, predictive value, diagnostic likelihood ratio, etc.).
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 7009, Feb. 2, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3800   Automated slide stainer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated slide stainer is a device used to stain histology, cytology, and hematology slides for diagnosis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60591, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25044, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.3875" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.3875   Automated tissue processor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated tissue processor is an automated system used to process tissue specimens for examination through fixation, dehydration, and infiltration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60591, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Specimen Preparation Reagents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.4010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.4010   General purpose reagent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general purpose reagent is a chemical reagent that has general laboratory application, that is used to collect, prepare, and examine specimens from the human body for diagnostic purposes, and that is not labeled or otherwise intended for a specific diagnostic application. It may be either an individual substance, or multiple substances reformulated, which, when combined with or used in conjunction with an appropriate analyte specific reagent (ASR) and other general purpose reagents, is part of a diagnostic test procedure or system constituting a finished in vitro diagnostic (IVD) test. General purpose reagents are appropriate for combining with one or more than one ASR in producing such systems and include labware or disposable constituents of tests; but they do not include laboratory machinery, automated or powered systems. General purpose reagents include cytological preservatives, decalcifying reagents, fixative and adhesives, tissue processing reagents, isotonic solutions and pH buffers. Reagents used in tests for more than one individual chemical substance or ligand are general purpose reagents (e.g., <I>Thermus aquaticus</I> (TAQ) polymerase, substrates for enzyme immunoassay (EIA)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60592, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 62 FR 62260, Nov. 21, 1997; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.4020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.4020   Analyte specific reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Analyte specific reagents (ASR's) are antibodies, both polyclonal and monoclonal, specific receptor proteins, ligands, nucleic acid sequences, and similar reagents which, through specific binding or chemical reaction with substances in a specimen, are intended for use in a diagnostic application for identification and quantification of an individual chemical substance or ligand in biological specimens. ASR's that otherwise fall within this definition are not within the scope of subpart E of this part when they are sold to:
</P>
<P>(1) In vitro diagnostic manufacturers; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Organizations that use the reagents to make tests for purposes other than providing diagnostic information to patients and practitioners, e.g., forensic, academic, research, and other nonclinical laboratories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls). Except as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, these devices are exempt from the premarket notification requirements in part 807, subpart E of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls/guidance documents), when the analyte is used in blood banking tests that have been classified as class II devices (e.g., certain cytomegalovirus serological and treponema pallidum nontreponemal test reagents). Guidance Documents: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>1. “Specifications for Immunological Testing for Infectious Disease; Approved Guideline,” NCCLS Document I/LA18-A, December 1994.
</P>
<P>2. “Assessment of the Clinical Accuracy of Laboratory Tests Using Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) Plots; Tentative Guideline,” NCCLS Document KGP10-T, December 1993.
</P>
<P>3. “Review Criteria for Assessment of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices for Direct Detection of Mycobacterium spp,” FDA, July 6, 1993, and its “Attachment 1,” February 28, 1994.
</P>
<P>4. “Draft Review Criteria for Nucleic Acid Amplification-Based In Vitro Diagnostic Devices for Direct Detection of Infectious Microorganisms,” FDA, July 6, 1993.
</P>
<P>5. The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, FDA, “Points to Consider in the Manufacture and Clinical Evaluation of In Vitro Tests to Detect Antibodies to the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, Type I” (54 FR 48943, November 28, 1989).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Class III (premarket approval), when:
</P>
<P>(i) The analyte is intended as a component in a test intended for use in the diagnosis of a contagious condition that is highly likely to result in a fatal outcome and prompt, accurate diagnosis offers the opportunity to mitigate the public health impact of the condition (e.g., human immunodeficiency virus (HIV/AIDS)or tuberculosis (TB)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The analyte is intended as a component in a test intended for use in donor screening for conditions for which FDA has recommended or required testing in order to safeguard the blood supply or establish the safe use of blood and blood products (e.g., tests for hepatitis or tests for identifying blood groups).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of 510(k), or date of PMA or notice of completion of a product development protocol is required.</I> (1) Preamendments ASR's; No effective date has been established for the requirement for premarket approval for the device described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. See § 864.3.
</P>
<P>(2) For postamendments ASR's; November 23, 1998.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions.</I> Restrictions on the sale, distribution and use of ASR's are set forth in § 809.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 62260, Nov. 21, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.4400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.4400   Enzyme preparations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Enzyme preparations are products that are used in the histopathology laboratory for the following purposes: 
</P>
<P>(1) To disaggregate tissues and cells already in established cultures for preparation into subsequent cultures (e.g., trypsin); 
</P>
<P>(2) To disaggregate fluid specimens for cytological examination (e.g., papain for gastric lavage or trypsin for sputum liquefaction); 
</P>
<P>(3) To aid in the selective staining of tissue specimens (e.g., diastase for glycogen determination). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60592, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Automated and Semi-Automated Hematology Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5200   Automated cell counter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated cell counter is a fully-automated or semi-automated device used to count red blood cells, white blood cells, or blood platelets using a sample of the patient's peripheral blood (blood circulating in one of the body's extremities, such as the arm). These devices may also measure hemoglobin or hematocrit and may also calculate or measure one or more of the red cell indices (the erythrocyte mean corpuscular volume, the mean corpuscular hemoglobin, or the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration). These devices may use either an electronic particle counting method or an optical counting method. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60593, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5220   Automated differential cell counter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated differential cell counter is a device used to identify one or more of the formed elements of the blood. The device may also have the capability to flag, count, or classify immature or abnormal hematopoietic cells of the blood, bone marrow, or other body fluids. These devices may combine an electronic particle counting method, optical method, or a flow cytometric method utilizing monoclonal CD (cluster designation) markers. The device includes accessory CD markers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Premarket Notifications for Automated Differential Cell Counters for Immature or Abnormal Blood Cells; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 1607, Jan. 14, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5240   Automated blood cell diluting apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated blood cell diluting apparatus is a fully automated or semi-automated device used to make appropriate dilutions of a blood sample for further testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60596, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5260   Automated cell-locating device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated cell-locating device is a device used to locate blood cells on a peripheral blood smear, allowing the operator to identify and classify each cell according to type. (Peripheral blood is blood circulating in one of the body's extremities, such as the arm.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60597, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5300   Red cell indices device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A red cell indices device, usually part of a larger system, calculates or directly measures the erythrocyte mean corpuscular volume (MCV), the mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), and the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC). The red cell indices are used for the differential diagnosis of anemias.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60597, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5350   Microsedimentation centrifuge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microsedimentation centrifuge is a device used to sediment red cells for the microsedimentation rate test. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60598, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38789, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5400   Coagulation instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A coagulation instrument is an automated or semiautomated device used to determine the onset of clot formation for in vitro coagulation studies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A fibrometer or coagulation timer intended for use with a coagulation instrument is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60598, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5425   Multipurpose system for in vitro coagulation studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A multipurpose system for in vitro coagulation studies is a device consisting of one automated or semiautomated instrument and its associated reagents and controls. The system is used to perform a series of coagulation studies and coagulation factor assays. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A control intended for use with a multipurpose system for in vitro coagulation studies is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60599, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5430   Coagulation system for the measurement of whole blood viscoelastic properties in perioperative patients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A coagulation system for the measurement of whole blood viscoelastic properties in perioperative patients is an in vitro diagnostic device used to evaluate blood coagulation, fibrinolysis, or both, in perioperative patients, as an aid in the assessment of coagulopathies when used in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include detailed documentation of, and results from, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A study assessing precision using protocols determined to be acceptable by FDA, to cover the measurement range for each reported parameter (test output). Testing must include native specimens with coagulation profiles representative of the intended use population. In order to cover the measuring range, testing may include a limited number of contrived specimens, not to exceed 10 to 20 percent, or as otherwise deemed appropriate by FDA. The contrived specimens must be prepared to resemble clinical specimens. This testing must evaluate repeatability and reproducibility and provide assessments of within-run, within-day, between-run, between-day, between-reagent lot, between-instrument, between-site, and between-operator precision, as applicable to the system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Studies that demonstrate the performance of each parameter (test output) throughout the claimed measurement range, to include linearity studies or dose-response studies, as applicable to the parameter (test output);
</P>
<P>(iii) Potential interferent study that includes evaluation of hemolyzed and lipemic samples as potential interferents; exogenous and endogenous interferents associated with each patient population intended for use with the device, and which might be expected to affect assay performance, must be evaluated; and potential interferents that are specific for, or related to, the technology or methodology of the device. Evaluation of all potential interferents must be performed using a protocol determined to be acceptable to the FDA (<I>e.g.,</I> an FDA-recognized standard) and include both normal and abnormal specimens covering coagulation profiles representative of the intended use population;
</P>
<P>(iv) A study that evaluates specimen stability under the intended conditions for specimen collection, handling, and storage, using samples that cover the coagulation profiles representative of the intended use population, and using protocols determined to be acceptable by FDA;
</P>
<P>(v) A multisite clinical study, determined to be acceptable by FDA, demonstrating performance, relative to clinically relevant and clinically validated laboratory test(s) for each parameter (test output). Further, the study must meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The study must be performed in the intended use population and include representation from all patient populations for whom the device is intended to be used. Potential endogenous and exogenous interferents for each target patient population must be evaluated or known prior to the study;
</P>
<P>(B) The study must be conducted at a minimum of three external sites representative of the intended use setting by the intended operators;
</P>
<P>(C) Test samples must be collected at time intervals relevant to the device's use in the intended use population;
</P>
<P>(D) Clinical specimens, which cover coagulation profiles representative of the intended use population, must be evaluated at each of the three clinical sites in the study;
</P>
<P>(E) Analysis of the concordance of clinical interpretation of patient coagulation status made from individual test parameter (test output) results as compared to clinical interpretation of coagulation status from a clinically relevant laboratory test or tests (<I>e.g.,</I> a comparative viscoelastic device or standard laboratory tests) must be conducted; and
</P>
<P>(F) Expected (reference) values for each parameter (test output) must be demonstrated by testing a statistically appropriate number of samples from apparently healthy normal individuals;
</P>
<P>(vi) For a device with a user interface that has information that needs to be interpreted by the user in correctly using the device to achieve the intended test results or a device that does not provide a final output that is a comprehensive interpretation of all parameter (test output) results, a study evaluating the ability of device users to correctly interpret results;
</P>
<P>(vii) For any device indicated to guide blood product use, a clinical outcome study determined to be acceptable by FDA that specifically validates the device's indicated use in guiding blood product use; and
</P>
<P>(viii) For any device indicated to guide use of medication, a clinical outcome study determined to be acceptable by FDA that specifically validates the device's indicated use in guiding use of medication.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of results from the study required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, including repeatability, reproducibility, and assessments of within-run, within-day, between-run, between-day, between-reagent lot, between-instrument, between-site, and between-operator precision, as applicable to the system.
</P>
<P>(ii) The claimed measurement range of each parameter (test output), as supported by demonstrated performance of the parameter (test output) throughout the claimed measurement range, including studies required by paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) and (v) of this section, and, if applicable, paragraphs (b)(1)(vii) and (viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of known interferents, including all endogenous, exogenous, technology-specific, and patient population-specific interferents, specific to each parameter (test output). The information must include the concentration(s) or level(s) at which interference was found to occur and the concentration range or levels at which interference was not found to occur.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information regarding the multisite clinical study required by paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Each patient population evaluated;
</P>
<P>(B) Each intended use setting and the operators;
</P>
<P>(C) A summary of the results, including the concordance analysis to clinically relevant laboratory test(s); and
</P>
<P>(D) Demonstrated expected (reference) values for each parameter (test output).
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A limiting statement that the result(s) from the device is(are) not intended to be used as the sole basis for a patient diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless appropriate clinical outcome studies are done in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section that specifically validate an indication for the device's use in guiding blood product use, a limiting statement that the device has not been evaluated to guide blood product use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unless appropriate clinical outcome studies are done in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section that specifically validate an indication for the device's use in guiding use of medication, a limiting statement that the device has not been evaluated to guide use of medication.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19630, May 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5600   Automated hematocrit instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated hematocrit instrument is a fully automated or semi-automated device which may or may not be part of a larger system. This device measures the packed red cell volume of a blood sample to distinguish normal from abnormal states, such as anemia and erythrocytosis (an increase in the number of red cells). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60600, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5620   Automated hemoglobin system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated hemoglobin system is a fully automated or semi-automated device which may or may not be part of a larger system. The generic type of device consists of the reagents, calibrators, controls, and instrumentation used to determine the hemoglobin content of human blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60601, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5680   Automated heparin analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated heparin analyzer is a device used to determine the heparin level in a blood sample by mixing the sample with protamine (a heparin-neutralizing substance) and determining photometrically the onset of air-activated clotting. The analyzer also determines the amount of protamine necessary to neutralize the heparin in the patient's circulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60601, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17733, May 11, 1987; 58 FR 51571, Oct. 4, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5700   Automated platelet aggregation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated platelet aggregation system is a device used to determine changes in platelet shape and platelet aggregation following the addition of an aggregating reagent to a platelet-rich plasma. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60602, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5800   Automated sedimentation rate device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated sedimentation rate device is an instrument that measures automatically the erythrocyte sedimentation rate in whole blood. Because an increased sedimentation rate indicates tissue damage or inflammation, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate device is useful in monitoring treatment of a disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60602, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5850   Automated slide spinner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated slide spinner is a device that prepares automatically a blood film on a microscope slide using a small amount of peripheral blood (blood circulating in one of the body's extremities, such as the arm). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60603, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.5950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.5950   Blood volume measuring device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood volume measuring device is a manual, semiautomated, or automated system that is used to calculate the red cell mass, plasma volume, and total blood volume.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60603, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Manual Hematology Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6100   Bleeding time device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bleeding time device is a device, usually employing two spring-loaded blades, that produces two small incisions in the patient's skin. The length of time required for the bleeding to stop is a measure of the effectiveness of the coagulation system, primarily the platelets. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60604, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59225, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6150   Capillary blood collection tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A capillary blood collection tube is a plain or heparinized glass tube of very small diameter used to collect blood by capillary action. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60604, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6160   Manual blood cell counting device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual blood cell counting device is a device used to count red blood cells, white blood cells, or blood platelets. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60605, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6400   Hematocrit measuring device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hematocrit measuring device is a system consisting of instruments, tubes, racks, and a sealer and a holder. The device is used to measure the packed red cell volume in blood to determine whether the patient's total red cell volume is normal or abnormal. Abnormal states include anemia (an abnormally low total red cell volume) and erythrocytosis (an abnormally high total red cell mass). The packed red cell volume is produced by centrifuging a given volume of blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60606, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59225, Nov. 3, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6550   Occult blood test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An occult blood test is a device used to detect occult blood in urine or feces. (Occult blood is blood present in such small quantities that it can be detected only by chemical tests of suspected material, or by microscopic or spectroscopic examination.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A control intended for use with an occult blood test is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60606, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6600   Osmotic fragility test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An osmotic fragility test is a device used to determine the resistance of red blood cells to hemolysis (destruction) in varying concentrations of hypotonic saline solutions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60607, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6650   Platelet adhesion test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A platelet adhesion test is a device used to determine in vitro platelet function. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60608, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6675   Platelet aggregometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A platelet aggregometer is a device, used to determine changes in platelet shape and platelet aggregation following the addition of an aggregating reagent to a platelet rich plasma. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60608, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.6700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.6700   Erythrocyte sedimentation rate test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An erythrocyte sedimentation rate test is a device that measures the length of time required for the red cells in a blood sample to fall a specified distance or a device that measures the degree of sedimentation taking place in a given length of time. An increased rate indicates tissue damage or inflammation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60608, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Hematology Kits and Packages</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7010   Flow cytometric test system for hematopoietic neoplasms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A flow cytometric test for hematopoietic neoplasms is a device that consists of reagents for immunophenotyping of human cells in relation to the level of expression, antigen density, and distribution of specific cellular markers. These reagents are used as an aid in the differential diagnosis or monitoring of hematologically abnormal patients having or suspected of having hematopoietic neoplasms. The results should be interpreted by a pathologist or equivalent professional in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The indications for use must indicate the clinical hematopoietic neoplasms for which the assay was designed and validated, for example, chronic leukemia or lymphoma.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed device description including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of all test components, all required reagents, and all instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of nonstandard equipment or methods.
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed documentation of the device software including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure.
</P>
<P>(D) A description of appropriate internal and external quality control materials that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage.
</P>
<P>(F) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting including pre-established templates.
</P>
<P>(G) If applicable, based on the output of the results, a description of the specific number of events to collect, result outputs, and analytical sensitivity of the assay that will be reported.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Device performance data from either a method comparison study comparing the specific lymphocyte cell markers to a predicate device or data collected through a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well-characterized clinical specimens. Samples must be representative of the intended use population of the device including hematologic neoplasms and the specific sample types for which the test is indicated for use.
</P>
<P>(B) If applicable, device performance data from a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity for parameters not established in a predicate device of this generic type using well-characterized prospectively obtained clinical specimens including all hematologic neoplasms and the specific sample types for which the device is indicated for use.
</P>
<P>(C) Device precision data using clinical samples to evaluate the within-lot, between-lot, within-run, between run, site-to-site and total variation using a minimum of three sites, of which at least two sites must be external sites. Results shall be reported as the standard deviation and percentage coefficient of variation for each level tested.
</P>
<P>(D) Reproducibility data generated using a minimum of three lots of reagents to evaluate mean fluorescence intensity and variability of the recovery of the different markers and/or cell populations.
</P>
<P>(E) Data from specimen and reagent carryover testing performed using well-established methods (<I>e.g.,</I> CLSI H26-A2).
</P>
<P>(F) Specimen and prepared sample stability data established for each specimen matrix in the anticoagulant combinations and storage/use conditions that will be indicated.
</P>
<P>(G) A study testing anticoagulant equivalency in all claimed specimen type/anticoagulant combinations using clinical specimens that are representative of the intended use population of the device.
</P>
<P>(H) Analytic sensitivity data using a dilution panel created from clinical samples.
</P>
<P>(I) Analytical specificity data, including interference and cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(J) Device stability data, including real-time stability of reagents under various storage times and temperatures.
</P>
<P>(K) For devices that include polyclonal antibodies, Fluorescence Minus One (FMO) studies to evaluate non-specific binding for all polyclonal antibodies. Each FMO tube is compared to reagent reference to demonstrate that no additional population appears when one marker is absent. Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.
</P>
<P>(L) For devices indicated for use as a semi-quantitative test, linearity data using a dilution panel created from clinical samples.
</P>
<P>(M) For devices indicated for use as a semi-quantitative test, clinically relevant analytical sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantification.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a detailed description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The intended use statement in the 21 CFR 809.10(a)(2) and (b)(2) compliant labeling must include a statement that the results should be interpreted by a pathologist or equivalent professional in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings. The intended use statement must also include information on what the device detects and measures, whether the device is qualitative, semi-quantitative, and/or quantitative, the clinical indications for which the device is to be used, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the performance studies conducted to comply with paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section and a summary of the results.
</P>
<P>(3) As part of the risk management activities performed under 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development, product labeling and instruction manuals must include clear examples of all expected phenotypic patterns and gating strategies using well-defined clinical samples representative of both abnormal and normal cellular populations. These samples must be selected based upon the indications described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 61165, Dec. 27, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7040   Adenosine triphosphate release assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An adenosine triphosphate release assay is a device that measures the release of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from platelets following aggregation. This measurement is made on platelet-rich plasma using a photometer and a luminescent firefly extract. Simultaneous measurements of platelet aggregation and ATP release are used to evaluate platelet function disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60609, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7060   Antithrombin III assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antithrombin III assay is a device that is used to determine the plasma level of antithrombin III (a substance which acts with the anticoagulant heparin to prevent coagulation). This determination is used to monitor the administration of heparin in the treatment of thrombosis. The determination may also be used in the diagnosis of thrombophilia (a congenital deficiency of antithrombin III).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60609, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7100   Red blood cell enzyme assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Red blood cell enzyme assay is a device used to measure the activity in red blood cells of clinically important enzymatic reactions and their products, such as pyruvate kinase or 2,3-diphosphoglycerate. A red blood cell enzyme assay is used to determine the enzyme defects responsible for a patient's hereditary hemolytic anemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60610, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7140   Activated whole blood clotting time tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An activated whole blood clotting time tests is a device, used to monitor heparin therapy for the treatment of venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism by measuring the coagulation time of whole blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60611, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7250   Erythropoietin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A erythropoietin assay is a device that measures the concentration of erythropoietin (an enzyme that regulates the production of red blood cells) in serum or urine. This assay provides diagnostic information for the evaluation of erythrocytosis (increased total red cell mass) and anemia. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is FDA's “Document for Special Controls for Erythropoietin Assay Premarket Notification (510(k)s).” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60612, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17733, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7275   Euglobulin lysis time tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A euglobulin lysis time test is a device that measures the length of time required for the lysis (dissolution) of a clot formed from fibrinogen in the euglobulin fraction (that fraction of the plasma responsible for the formation of plasmin, a clot lysing enzyme). This test evaluates natural fibrinolysis (destruction of a blood clot after bleeding has been arrested). The test also will detect accelerated fibrinolysis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60612, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7280   Factor V Leiden DNA mutation detection systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Factor V Leiden deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) mutation detection systems are devices that consist of different reagents and instruments which include polymerase chain reaction (PCR) primers, hybridization matrices, thermal cyclers, imagers, and software packages. The detection of the Factor V Leiden mutation aids in the diagnosis of patients with suspected thrombophilia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Factor V Leiden DNA Mutation Detection Systems.” (See § 864.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 12273, Mar. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7290   Factor deficiency test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A factor deficiency test is a device used to diagnose specific coagulation defects, to monitor certain types of therapy, to detect coagulation inhibitors, and to detect a carrier state (a person carrying both a recessive gene for a coagulation factor deficiency such as hemophilia and the corresponding normal gene). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60613, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7293" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7293   Von Willebrand factor assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A von Willebrand factor assay is a prescription device intended for the measurement of von Willebrand factor activity or von Willebrand factor size distribution in human plasma. This device is indicated to aid in the diagnosis and management of patients being evaluated for von Willebrand factor disorders in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of studies demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, analytical performance, including, as applicable, precision, linearity, assay interference, detection capability, specimen and reagent stability, and hook effect, with a sufficient number of specimens tested in order to obtain unbiased estimates of analytical performance. For devices measuring multiple analytes, the detailed documentation must include studies demonstrating the analytical performance of the device in regard to each individual analyte, including precision, linearity, assay interference, cross-reactivity, detection capability, specimen and reagent stability, and hook effect, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of a comparison study of clinical samples demonstrating performance relative to clinically relevant and appropriate, as determined by FDA, clinically validated laboratory tests. Further, the studies must meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) All eligible subjects must meet appropriate study inclusion and exclusion criteria that define the intended use population. Specimens must be representative of the intended use population(s) and must representatively cover the full range of the device output and any clinically relevant decision points, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(B) The study must be conducted at a minimum of three external sites representative of the intended use setting by operators representative of the intended user population;
</P>
<P>(C) For all intended pediatric patient populations, clinical outcome validation studies must study those populations in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section; and (D) Expected (reference) values for test output must be demonstrated by testing a statistically appropriate number of samples from apparently healthy normal individuals in all relevant subpopulations (<I>i.e.,</I> blood group O and non-O, male and female, and, if applicable, pediatric and adults), as applicable to the intended use of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Limiting statements indicating, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) This device should always be used in conjunction with the patient's medical history, clinical presentation, and other laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of any known interferents, including all endogenous, exogenous, technology-specific, and patient population-specific interferents, specific to the test outputs. The information must include the concentration(s) or level(s) of the interferent at which clinically significant interference was found to occur, and the concentration range or levels at which interference was not found to occur.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the performance testing results of analytical and clinical performance testing, including results of concordance evaluation (overall agreement, positive percentage agreement and negative percentage agreement) as required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32338, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7295" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7295   Heparin and direct oral factor Xa inhibitor drug test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A heparin and direct oral factor Xa inhibitor drug test system is intended for the detection of heparin and direct oral factor Xa inhibitors in human specimens collected from patients taking heparin or direct oral factor Xa inhibitors. This device is intended to aid in the management of therapy in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of analytical device performance studies and results demonstrating acceptable analytical performance with a sufficient number of specimens tested in order to obtain unbiased estimates of analytical performance. This documentation shall include the following as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device:
</P>
<P>(A) Studies and results for that demonstrate device precision including repeatability and reproducibility, using quality controls and clinical samples, when appropriate. Precision studies must assess specimens for each indicated drug at concentrations throughout the measuring range of the device including near clinically relevant levels, as appropriate. The study must evaluate different sources of variability including, as appropriate, between-run, between-operator, between-lot, between-instrument, between-day, and between-site;
</P>
<P>(B) Studies and results that demonstrate that the device is free from clinically significant interference, from endogenous and exogenous interferents associated with the target population(s), and interferents that are specific for, or related to, the technology or methodology of the device;
</P>
<P>(C) Data to demonstrate appropriate specimen stability for the intended sample matrices under the intended conditions for specimen collection, handling, and storage described in the device labeling;
</P>
<P>(D) Studies and results that demonstrate the linear range, limit of blank (LoB), limit of detection (LoD), and limit of quantitation (LoQ), as applicable to the technology of the device; and
</P>
<P>(E) For any devices intended for use for near patient testing, studies and results that demonstrate the robustness of the device in the hands of the intended user, including the entire testing procedure, pre-analytical specimen processing steps, and results interpretation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of clinical performance testing in which the performance is analyzed relative to a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate. Specimens must be representative of the intended use population(s) and must cover the full range of the device output and any clinically relevant decision points as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of any known interferents, including all endogenous, exogenous, technology-specific, and patient population-specific interferents, specific to the test outputs. The information must include the concentration(s) or level(s) of the interferent at which clinically significant interference was found to occur, and the concentration range or levels at which interference was not found to occur;
</P>
<P>(ii) A prominent statement that the device is not intended for use in monitoring patients taking heparin or direct oral factor Xa inhibitors; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Limiting statements indicating, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) That the device should only be used in conjunction with information available from clinical evaluations and other diagnostic procedures; and
</P>
<P>(B) That the device is not specific to the direct oral factor Xa inhibitor that has been evaluated and may detect the presence of other direct factor Xa inhibitors that have not been evaluated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 72317, Sept. 5, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7300   Fibrin monomer paracoagulation test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fibrin monomer paracoagulation test is a device used to detect fibrin monomer in the diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (nonlocalized clotting within a blood vessel) or in the differential diagnosis between disseminated intravascular coagulation and primary fibrinolysis (dissolution of the fibrin in a blood clot). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. The special control for this device is FDA's “In Vitro Diagnostic Fibrin Monomer Paracoagulation Test.” See § 864.1(d) for information on obtaining this document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60614, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17733, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000, 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7320   Fibrinogen/fibrin degradation products assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fibrinogen/fibrin degradation products assay is a device used to detect and measure fibrinogen degradation products and fibrin degradation products (protein fragments produced by the enzymatic action of plasmin on fibrinogen and fibrin) as an aid in detecting the presence and degree of intravascular coagulation and fibrinolysis (the dissolution of the fibrin in a blood clot) and in monitoring therapy for disseminated intravascular coagulation (nonlocalized clotting in the blood vessels). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60615, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7340   Fibrinogen determination system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fibrinogen determination system is a device that consists of the instruments, reagents, standards, and controls used to determine the fibrinogen levels in disseminated intravascular coagulation (nonlocalized clotting within the blood vessels) and primary fibrinolysis (the dissolution of fibrin in a blood clot). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A control or fibrinogen standard intended for use with a fibrinogen determination system is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60615, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7360   Erythrocytic glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An erythrocytic glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase assay is a device used to measure the activity of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase or of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase isoenzymes. The results of this assay are used in the diagnosis and treatment of nonspherocytic congenital hemolytic anemia or drug-induced hemolytic anemia associated with a glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. This generic device includes assays based on fluorescence, electrophoresis, methemoglobin reduction, catalase inhibition, and ultraviolet kinetics. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60616, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7375   Glutathione reductase assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A glutathione reductase assay is a device used to determine the activity of the enzyme glutathione reductase in serum, plasma, or erythrocytes by such techniques as fluorescence and photometry. The results of this assay are used in the diagnosis of liver disease, glutathione reductase deficiency, or riboflavin deficiency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60616, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7400   Hemoglobin A<E T="9145">2</E> assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemoglobin A<E T="52">2</E> assay is a device used to determine the hemoglobin A<E T="52">2</E> content of human blood. The measurement of hemoglobin A<E T="52">2</E> is used in the diagnosis of the thalassemias (hereditary hemolytic anemias characterized by decreased synthesis of one or more types of hemoglobin polypeptide chains). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60617, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7415" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7415   Abnormal hemoglobin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An abnormal hemoglobin assay is a device consisting of the reagents, apparatus, instrumentation, and controls necessary to isolate and identify abnormal genetically determined hemoglobin types. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A control intended for use with an abnormal hemoglobin assay is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60618, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7425   Carboxyhemoglobin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carboxyhemoglobin assay is a device used to determine the carboxyhemoglobin (the compound formed when hemoglobin is exposed to carbon monoxide) content of human blood as an aid in the diagnosis of carbon monoxide poisoning. This measurement may be made using methods such as spectroscopy, colorimetry, spectrophotometry, and gasometry. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60619, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7440   Electrophoretic hemoglobin analysis system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrophoretic hemoglobin analysis system is a device that electrophoretically separates and identifies normal and abnormal hemoglobin types as an aid in the diagnosis of anemia or erythrocytosis (increased total red cell mass) due to a hemoglobin abnormality. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60620, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7455" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7455   Fetal hemoglobin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal hemoglobin assay is a device that is used to determine the presence and distribution of fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F) in red cells or to measure the amount of fetal hemoglobin present. The assay may be used to detect fetal red cells in the maternal circulation or to detect the elevated levels of fetal hemoglobin exhibited in cases of hemoglobin abnormalities such as thalassemia (a hereditary hemolytic anemia characterized by a decreased synthesis of one or more types of hemoglobin polypeptide chains). The hemoglobin determination may be made by methods such as electrophoresis, alkali denaturation, column chromatography, or radial immunodiffusion. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A fetal hemoglobin stain intended for use with a fetal hemoglobin assay is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60620, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7470   Glycosylated hemoglobin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A glycosylated hemoglobin assay is a device used to measure the glycosylated hemoglobins (A<E T="52">1a</E>, A<E T="52">1b</E>, and A<E T="52">1c</E>) in a patient's blood by a column chromatographic procedure. Measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin is used to assess the level of control of a patient's diabetes and to determine the proper insulin dosage for a patient. Elevated levels of glycosylated hemoglobin indicate uncontrolled diabetes in a patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60621, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7490   Sulfhemoglobin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sulfhemoglobin assay is a device consisting of the reagents, calibrators, controls, and instrumentation used to determine the sulfhemoglobin (a compound of sulfur and hemoglobin) content of human blood as an aid in the diagnosis of sulfhemoglobinemia (presence of sulfhemoglobin in the blood due to drug administration or exposure to a poison). This measurement may be made using methods such as spectroscopy, colorimetry, spectrophotometry, or gasometry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60621, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7500   Whole blood hemoglobin assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A whole blood hemoglobin assay is a device consisting or reagents, calibrators, controls, or photometric or spectrophotometric instrumentation used to measure the hemoglobin content of whole blood for the detection of anemia. This generic device category does not include automated hemoglobin systems. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). An acid hematin intended for use with whole blood hemoglobin assays is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60622, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71799, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7525" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7525   Heparin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A heparin assay is a device used to determine the level of the anticoagulant heparin in the patient's circulation. These assays are quantitative clotting time procedures using the effect of heparin on activated coagulation factor X (Stuart factor) or procedures based on the neutralization of heparin by protamine sulfate (a protein that neutralizes heparin). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60623, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7660   Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A leukocyte alkaline phosphatase test is a device used to identify the enzyme leukocyte alkaline phosphatase in neutrophilic granulocytes (granular leukocytes stainable by neutral dyes). The cytochemical identification of alkaline phosphatase depends on the formation of blue granules in cells containing alkaline phosphatase. The results of this test are used to differentiate chronic granulocytic leukemia (a malignant disease characterized by excessive overgrowth of granulocytes in the bone marrow) and reactions that resemble true leukemia, such as those occuring in severe infections and polycythemia (increased total red cell mass). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60623, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7675   Leukocyte peroxidase test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A leukocyte peroxidase test is a device used to distinguish certain myeloid cells derived from the bone marrow, i.e., neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes, from lymphoid cells of the lymphatic system and erythroid cells of the red blood cell series on the basis of their peroxidase activity as evidenced by staining. The results of this test are used in the differential diagnosis of the leukemias.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60624, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7695" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7695   Platelet factor 4 radioimmunoassay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A platelet factor 4 radioimmunoassay is a device used to measure the level of platelet factor 4, a protein released during platelet activation by radioimmunoassay. This device measures platelet activiation, which may indicate a coagulation disorder, such as myocardial infarction or coronary artery disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60625, Sept. 12, 1980; 46 FR 14890, Mar. 3, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7720   Prothrombin consumption test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prothrombin consumption tests is a device that measures the patient's capacity to generate thromboplastin in the coagulation process. The test also is an indirect indicator of qualitative or quantitative platelet abnormalities. It is a screening test for thrombocytopenia (decreased number of blood platelets) and hemophilia A and B. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60625, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7735" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7735   Prothrombin-proconvertin test and thrombotest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The prothrombin-proconvertin test and thrombotest are devices used in the regulation of coumarin therapy (administration of a coumarin anticoagulant such as sodium warfarin in the treatment of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism) and as a diagnostic test in conjunction with, or in place of, the Quick prothrombin time test to detect coagulation disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60626, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7750   Prothrombin time test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prothrombin time test is a device used as a general screening procedure for the detection of possible clotting factor deficiencies in the extrinsic coagulation pathway, which involves the reaction between coagulation factors III and VII, and to monitor patients receiving coumarin therapy (the administration of one of the coumarin anticoagulants in the treatment of venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60626, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7825" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7825   Sickle cell test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sickle cell test is a device used to determine the sickle cell hemoglobin content of human blood to detect sickle cell trait or sickle cell diseases. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60627, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7875" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7875   Thrombin time test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thrombin time test is a device used to measure fibrinogen concentration and detect fibrin or fibrinogen split products for the evaluation of bleeding disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60628, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7900   Thromboplastin generation test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thromboplastin generation test is a device used to detect and identify coagulation factor deficiencies and coagulation inhibitors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60628, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.7925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.8.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.7925   Partial thromboplastin time tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A partial thromboplastin time test is a device used for primary screening for coagulation abnormalities, for evaluation of the effect of therapy on procoagulant disorders, and as an assay for coagulation factor deficiencies of the intrinsic coagulation pathway. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60629, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Hematology Reagents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8100   Bothrops atrox reagent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Bothrops atrox reagent is a device made from snake venom and used to determine blood fibrinogen levels to aid in the evaluation of disseminated intravascular coagulation (nonlocalized clotting in the blood vessels) in patients receiving heparin therapy (the administration of the anticoagulant heparin in the treatment of thrombosis) or as an aid in the classification of dysfibrinogenemia (presence in the plasma of functionally defective fibrinogen). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60629, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8150   Calibrator for cell indices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calibrator for cell indices is a device that approximates whole blood or certain blood cells and that is used to set an instrument intended to measure mean cell volume (MCV), mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC), or other cell indices. It is a suspension of particles or cells whose size, shape, concentration, and other characteristics have been precisely and accurately determined. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60631, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8165   Calibrator for hemoglobin or hematocrit measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calibrator for hemoglobin or hematocrit measurement is a device that approximates whole blood, red blood cells, or a hemoglobin derivative and that is used to set instruments intended to measure hemoglobin, the hematocrit, or both. It is a material whose characteristics have been precisely and accurately determined. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60632, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8175   Calibrator for platelet counting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calibrator for platelet counting is a device that resembles platelets in plasma or whole blood and that is used to set a platelet counting instrument. It is a suspension of particles or cells whose size, shape concentration, and other characteristics have been precisely and accurately determined. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60633, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8185" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8185   Calibrator for red cell and white cell counting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calibrator for red cell and white cell counting is a device that resembles red or white blood cells and that is used to set instruments intended to count red cells, white cells, or both. It is a suspension of particles or cells whose size, shape, concentration, and other characteristics have been precisely and accurately determined. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60634, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8200   Blood cell diluent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood cell diluent is a device used to dilute blood for further testing, such as blood cell counting. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60635, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8500   Lymphocyte separation medium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lymphocyte separation medium is a device used to isolate lymphocytes from whole blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60636, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8540   Red cell lysing reagent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A red cell lysing reagent is a device used to lyse (destroy) red blood cells for hemoglobin determinations or aid in the counting of white blood cells. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60636, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8625" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8625   Hematology quality control mixture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hematology quality control mixture is a device used to ascertain the accuracy and precision of manual, semiautomated, and automated determinations of cell parameters such as white cell count (WBC), red cell count (RBC), platelet count (PLT), hemoglobin, hematocrit (HCT), mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Except when intended for use in blood components, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60637, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.8950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.9.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.8950   Russell viper venom reagent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Russell viper venom reagent is a device used to determine the cause of an increase in the prothrombin time. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60637, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Products Used In Establishments That Manufacture Blood and Blood Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9050   Blood bank supplies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Blood bank supplies are general purpose devices intended for in vitro use in blood banking. This generic type of device includes products such as blood bank pipettes, blood grouping slides, blood typing tubes, blood typing racks, and cold packs for antisera reagents. The device does not include articles that are licensed by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research of the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60638, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9100   Empty container for the collection and processing of blood and blood components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An empty container for the collection and processing of blood and blood components is a device intended for medical purposes that is an empty plastic bag or plastic or glass bottle used to collect, store, or transfer blood and blood components for further processing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60638, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9115" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9115   Container system for the processing and storage of Red Blood Cell components under reduced oxygen conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A container system for the processing and storage of Red Blood Cell components under reduced oxygen conditions is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to process and store Red Blood Cell components and reduce oxygen levels in the storage environment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use of the device must specify:
</P>
<P>(i) The Red Blood Cell components that can be processed and stored including acceptable anticoagulants and additive solutions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hold time after Red Blood Cell component collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) The processing capacity (volume) of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The storage temperature and dating period of processed Red Blood Cell components.
</P>
<P>(2) Studies must demonstrate that the device is biocompatible and include detailed documentation of the biocompatibility evaluation.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing and nonclinical studies must include a detailed study of leached materials extracted under conditions similar to clinical usage of the device, and a toxicologic risk assessment of those extracted or leached materials.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must support sterility of the device and include sterilization validation, endotoxin testing, and container closure integrity evaluation.
</P>
<P>(5) Nonclinical and clinical studies must include evaluation of red blood cell quality throughout the duration of storage based on in vitro and in vivo studies, including hemolysis and red blood cell survival and recovery.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance studies must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of functional and mechanical testing, including evaluation of oxygen and, if applicable, carbon dioxide levels during Red Blood Cell components storage; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of device shelf-life testing demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) The labeling must include a contraindication against processing Red Blood Cell components collected from donors with hemoglobin S.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 77199, Nov. 9, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9125" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9125   Vacuum-assisted blood collection system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vacuum-assisted blood collection system is a device intended for medical purposes that uses a vacuum to draw blood for subsequent reinfusion. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The manual device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60639, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9145" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9145   Processing system for frozen blood.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A processing system for frozen blood is a device used to glycerolize red blood cells prior to freezing to minimize hemolysis (disruption of the red cell membrane accompanied by the release of hemoglobin) due to freezing and thawing of red blood cells and to deglycerolize and wash thawed cells for subsequent reinfusion. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60639, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9160   Blood group substances of nonhuman origin for in vitro diagnostic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Blood group substances of nonhuman origin for in vitro diagnostic use are materials, such as blood group specific substances prepared from nonhuman sources (e.g., pigs, cows, and horses) used to detect, identify, or neutralize antibodies to various human blood group antigens. This generic type of device does not include materials that are licensed by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research of the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60640, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988; 63 FR 59225, Nov. 3, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9165   Blood establishment computer software and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Blood establishment computer software (BECS) is a device used in the manufacture of blood and blood components to assist in the prevention of disease in humans by identifying ineligible donors, by preventing the release of unsuitable blood and blood components for transfusion or for further manufacturing into products for human treatment or diagnosis, by performing compatibility testing between donor and recipient, or by performing positive identification of patients and blood components at the point of transfusion to prevent transfusion reactions. This generic type of device may include a BECS accessory, a device intended for use with BECS to augment the performance of the BECS or to expand or modify its indications for use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for these devices are:
</P>
<P>(1) Software performance and functional requirements including detailed design specifications (<I>e.g.,</I> algorithms or control characteristics, alarms, device limitations, and safety requirements).
</P>
<P>(2) Verification and validation testing and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Software limitations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unresolved anomalies, annotated with an explanation of the impact on safety or effectiveness;
</P>
<P>(iii) Revision history; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Hardware and peripheral specifications.
</P>
<P>(4) Traceability matrix must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the system must be performed, including when adding new functional requirements (<I>e.g.,</I> electrical safety, electromagnetic compatibility, or wireless coexistence).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 23217, June 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9175   Automated blood grouping and antibody test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated blood grouping and antibody test system is a device used to group erythrocytes (red blood cells) and to detect antibodies to blood group antigens. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60641, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9185" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9185   Blood grouping view box.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood grouping view box is a device with a glass or plastic viewing surface, which may be illuminated and heated, that is used to view cell reactions in antigen-antibody testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60641, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9195" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9195   Blood mixing devices and blood weighing devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood mixing device is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to mix blood or blood components by agitation. A blood weighing device is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to weigh blood or blood components as they are collected. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The manual device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60642, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9205" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9205   Blood and plasma warming device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nonelectromagnetic blood or plasma warming device</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A nonelectromagnetic blood and plasma warming device is a device that warms blood or plasma, by means other than electromagnetic radiation, prior to administration. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electromagnetic blood and plasma warming device</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An electromagnetic blood and plasma warming device is a device that employs electromagnetic radiation (radiowaves or microwaves) to warm a bag or bottle of blood or plasma prior to administration. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classfication.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> No effective date has been established of the requirement for premarket approval for the device described in paragraph (b)(1). See § 864.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60642, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17733, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9225   Cell-freezing apparatus and reagents for in vitro diagnostic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cell-freezing apparatus and reagents for in vitro diagnostic use are devices used to freeze human red blood cells for in vitro diagnostic use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60643, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9245" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9245   Automated blood cell separator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated blood cell separator is a device that uses a centrifugal or filtration separation principle to automatically withdraw whole blood from a donor, separate the whole blood into blood components, collect one or more of the blood components, and return to the donor the remainder of the whole blood and blood components. The automated blood cell separator device is intended for routine collection of blood and blood components for transfusion or further manufacturing use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is a guidance for industry and FDA staff entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Automated Blood Cell Separator Device Operating by Centrifugal or Filtration Separation Principle.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 67644, Nov. 30, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9275   Blood bank centrifuge for in vitro diagnostic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood bank centrifuge for in vitro diagnostic use is a device used only to separate blood cells for further diagnostic testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60645, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9285" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9285   Automated cell-washing centrifuge for immuno-hematology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated cell-washing centrifuge for immuno-hematology is a device used to separate and prepare cells and sera for further in vitro diagnostic testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60646, Sept. 12, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9300   Automated Coombs test systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated Coombs test system is a device used to detect and identify antibodies in patient sera or antibodies bound to red cells. The Coombs test is used for the diagnosis of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia. The test is also used in crossmatching and in investigating transfusion reactions and drug-induced red cell sensitization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60646, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9320   Copper sulfate solution for specific gravity determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A copper sulfate solution for specific gravity determinations is a device used to determine whether the hemoglobin content of a potential donor's blood meets the required level (12.5 grams per 100 milliliters of blood for women and 13.5 grams per 100 milliliters of blood for men).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60647, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2310, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9400   Stabilized enzyme solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stabilized enzyme solution is a reagent intended for medical purposes that is used to enhance the reactivity of red blood cells with certain antibodies, including antibodies that are not detectable by other techniques. These enzyme solutions include papain, bromelin, ficin, and trypsin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60647, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9550   Lectins and protectins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Lectins and protectins are proteins derived from plants and lower animals that cause cell agglutination in the presence of certain antigens. These substances are used to detect blood group antigens for in vitro diagnostic purposes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60648, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9575" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9575   Environmental chamber for storage of platelet concentrate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An environmental chamber for storage of platelet concentrate is a device used to hold platelet-rich plasma within a preselected temperature range.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60648, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9600   Potentiating media for in vitro diagnostic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Potentiating media for in vitro diagnostic use are media, such as bovine albumin, that are used to suspend red cells and to enhance cell reactions for antigen-antibody testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60649, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9650   Quality control kit for blood banking reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A quality control kit for blood banking reagents is a device that consists of sera, cells, buffers, and antibodies used to determine the specificity, potency, and reactivity of the cells and reagents used for blood banking. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60649, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9700   Blood storage refrigerator and blood storage freezer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood storage refrigerator and a blood storage freezer are devices intended for medical purposes that are used to preserve blood and blood products by storing them at cold or freezing temperatures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60650, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9750   Heat-sealing device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A heat-sealing device is a device intended for medical purposes that uses heat to seal plastic bags containing blood or blood components. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60650, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9875" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.10.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9875   Transfer set.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transfer set is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a piece of tubing with suitable adaptors used to transfer blood or plasma from one container to another. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60651, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Products Used In Establishments That Manufacture Human Cells, Tissues, and Cellular and Tissue-Based Products (HCT/Ps)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 864.9900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.19.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 864.9900   Cord blood processing system and storage container.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cord blood processing system and storage container is a device intended for use in the processing and the storage of cord blood. This device is a functionally closed processing system that includes containers, other soft goods, and a centrifugation system for cord blood concentration, and a final container for the cryopreservation and the storage of a cord blood product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cord Blood Processing System and Storage Container.” For the availability of this guidance document, see § 864.1(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 4638, Feb. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="866" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 866—IMMUNOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 866 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of immunology and microbiology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The indentification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, an immunology and microbiology device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a microbiology device) is listed only in one subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17733, May 11, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 5827, Feb. 5, 2003; 79 FR 50552, Aug. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (Premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) A device identified in a regulation in this part that is classified into class III and that is subject to the transitional provisions of section 520(l) of the act is automatically classified by statute into class III and must have an approval under section 515 of the act before being commercially distributed. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III transitional device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17733, May 11, 1987; 52 FR 22577, June 12, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.1620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.1620   Antimicrobial susceptibility test disc.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antimicrobial susceptibility test disc is a device that consists of antimicrobic-impregnated paper discs used to measure by a disc-agar diffusion technique or a disc-broth elution technique the in vitro susceptibility of most clinically important bacterial pathogens to antimicrobial agents. In the disc-agar diffusion technique, bacterial susceptibility is ascertained by directly measuring the magnitude of a zone of bacterial inhibition around the disc on an agar surface. The disc-broth elution technique is associated with an automated rapid susceptibility test system and employs a fluid medium in which susceptibility is ascertained by photometrically measuring changes in bacterial growth resulting when antimicrobial material is eluted from the disc into the fluid medium. Test results are used to determine the antimicrobial agent of choice in the treatment of bacterial diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.1640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.1640   Antimicrobial susceptibility test powder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antimicrobial susceptibility test powder is a device that consists of an antimicrobial drug powder packaged in vials in specified amounts and intended for use in clinical laboratories for determining in vitro susceptibility of bacterial pathogens to these therapeutic agents. Test results are used to determine the antimicrobial agent of choice in the treatment of bacterial diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.1645" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.1645   Fully automated short-term incubation cycle antimicrobial susceptibility system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fully automated short-term incubation cycle antimicrobial susceptibility system is a device that incorporates concentrations of antimicrobial agents into a system for the purpose of determining in vitro susceptibility of bacterial pathogens isolated from clinical specimens. Test results obtained from short-term (less than 16 hours) incubation are used to determine the antimicrobial agent of choice to treat bacterial diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Test (AST) Systems; Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 5827, Feb. 5, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.1650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.1650   A cellular analysis system for multiplexed antimicrobial susceptibility testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cellular analysis system for multiplexed antimicrobial susceptibility testing is a multiplex qualitative and/or quantitative in vitro diagnostic device intended for the identification and determination of the antimicrobial susceptibility results of organisms detected in samples from patients with suspected microbial infections. This device is intended to aid in the determination of antimicrobial susceptibility or resistance when used in conjunction with other laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description documentation, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, a detailed explanation of the methodology, including primer/probe sequence, design, rationale for sequence selection, and details of the antimicrobial agents, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation from the following analytical and clinical performance studies: limit of detection, inclusivity, precision, reproducibility, interference, cross-reactivity, carryover, and cross-contamination, quality control and additional studies, as applicable to specimen type and assay intended use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation from an appropriate clinical study. The study, performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population, must compare the device performance to results obtained from well-accepted reference methods.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation for device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Limitations and protocols regarding the need for correlation of results by standard laboratory procedures, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for assay performance and troubleshooting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 24963, June 13, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.1655" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.1655   System for detection of microorganisms and antimicrobial resistance using reporter expression.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A system for detection of microorganisms and antimicrobial resistance using reporter expression is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and identification of live microorganisms and the detection of associated antimicrobial drug susceptibility or resistance in specimens from patients at risk of colonization or suspected of infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use for the device in the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a detailed description of the targets the device detects, the type of results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(2) Any device used for specimen collection and transport must be FDA-cleared, approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of the specimen types claimed by this device and for the maintenance of viability of the targeted microorganisms; alternatively, the specimen collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, applicable specimen collection and transport device(s) and control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for handling and processing of specimens and controls to maintain organism viability;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed descriptions of the test procedure, including the preparation and maintenance of quality controls and the interpretation of test results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed discussion of the performance characteristics of the device for all claimed organisms and specimen types based on analytical studies, including evaluation of analytical sensitivity, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, potentially interfering substances and microorganisms, contamination, specimen stability, precision, and reproducibility;
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed discussion of the performance characteristics of the device observed in a clinical study performed on a population that is consistent with the intended use population in comparison to the results obtained by a reference or comparator method determined to be acceptable by FDA, for microbial detection, identification, and antimicrobial susceptibility testing; and
</P>
<P>(v) A limiting statement indicating that a negative test result does not preclude colonization or infection with organisms that do not express detectable levels of the reporter that is identified by the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device, including an explanation of the technology, hardware, software, and consumables, as well as an explanation of the result algorithms and method(s) of data processing from signal acquisition to result assignment;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of the analytical and clinical studies required in paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section, including the study protocols containing descriptions of the test methods, prescribed methods of data analysis and acceptance criteria, final study reports, and data line listings;
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation of quality control procedures, including an explanation of how quality control materials were selected, the recommended frequency of testing, methods of control preparation, acceptance criteria for performance and the results from quality control testing performed during the analytical and clinical studies required under paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed documentation of studies performed to establish onboard and in-use reagent stability, including the test method(s), data analysis plans, acceptance criteria, final study reports, and data line listings;
</P>
<P>(vi) Detailed documentation of studies to establish reagent shelf-life for the assay kit and each applicable specimen collection and transport device, including study protocols containing descriptions of the test method(s), data analysis plans, and acceptance criteria; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Documentation of an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of efforts to assure appropriate conduct of the assay and to mitigate the risk associated with false results, including failure to use the device correctly or correctly interpret results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 6417, Feb. 4, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.1700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.1700   Culture medium for antimicrobial susceptibility tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A culture medium for antimicrobial susceptibility tests is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of any medium capable of supporting the growth of many of the bacterial pathogens that are subject to antimicrobial susceptibility tests. The medium should be free of components known to be antagonistic to the common agents for which susceptibility tests are performed in the treatment of disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Microbiology Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2050   Staphylococcal typing bacteriophage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A staphylococcal typing bacteriophage is a device consisting of a bacterial virus intended for medical purposes to identify pathogenic staphylococcal bacteria through use of the bacteria's susceptibility to destruction by the virus. Test results are used principally for the collection of epidemiological information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2120   Anaerobic chamber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anaerobic chamber is a device intended for medical purposes to maintain an anaerobic (oxygen free) environment. It is used to isolate and cultivate anaerobic microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The device is also exempt from the good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2160   Coagulase plasma.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Coagulase plasma is a device that consists of freeze-dried animal or human plasma that is intended for medical purposes to perform coagulase tests primarily on staphylococcal bacteria. When reconstituted, the fluid plasma is clotted by the action of the enzyme coagulase which is produced by pathogenic staphylococci. Test results are used primarily as an aid in the diagnosis of disease caused by pathogenic bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Staphylococcus</I> and provide epidemiological information on disease caused by these microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2170   Automated colony counter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated colony counter is a mechanical device intended for medical purposes to determine the number of bacterial colonies present on a bacteriological culture medium contained in a petri plate. The number of colonies counted is used in the diagnosis of disease as a measure of the degree of bacterial infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25045, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2180   Manual colony counter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual colony counter is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a printed grid system superimposed on an illuminated screen. Petri plates containing bacterial colonies to be counted are placed on the screen for better viewing and ease of counting. The number of colonies counted is used in the diagnosis of disease as a measure of the degree of bacterial infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The device is also exempt from the good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55981, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2190" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2190   Automated image assessment system for microbial colonies on solid culture media.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated image assessment system for microbial colonies on solid culture media is a system that is intended to assess the presence or absence of microbial colonies on solid microbiological culture medium, and to interpret their number, and phenotypic and morphologic characteristics through analysis of two dimensional digital images as an aid in diagnosis of infectious disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include a detailed description of the device, including the technology employed, components and software modules, as well as a detailed explanation of the result algorithms and any expert rules that are used to assess colony characteristics and enumerate colonies from image capture through end result.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation of the analytical studies performed to characterize device performance to support the intended use, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from clinical studies performed on a population that is consistent with the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical studies must establish the device performance based on comparison to results obtained by an acceptable reference method, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The clinical study documentation must include the study protocol with a predefined statistical analysis plan and the final report documenting support for the Indications for Use and the results of the statistical analysis, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation for device software, including but not limited to software applications and hardware based components that incorporate software, and any decision-making thresholds used to generate results for the device. If a part of a Total Laboratory Automation System, the premarket notification submission must include detailed documentation addressing the instrument and software system integration.
</P>
<P>(5) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation of appropriate instructions for use regarding the intended user's device quality control procedures for the instrument system and components, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(6) The 21 CFR 809.10 compliant device labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed user instructions to mitigate the risk of failure to operate the instrument correctly.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and limitations regarding the need for review of culture plates by a qualified microbiologist, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of performance data obtained from the analytical studies used to support device performance, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of performance data obtained from clinical studies performed on a population that is consistent with the intended use population, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) Under 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development, device manufacturers must, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct human factors/usability validation testing with the final version of the labeling and related materials to adequately mitigate the risk of failure to operate the instrument correctly.
</P>
<P>(ii) Document a device training program that will be offered to the end user to adequately mitigate the risk of failure to operate the instrument correctly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 47969, Oct. 16, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2300   Multipurpose culture medium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A multipurpose culture medium is a device that consists primarily of liquid or solid biological materials intended for medical purposes for the cultivation and identification of several types of pathogenic microorganisms without the need of additional nutritional supplements. Test results aid in the diagnosis of disease and also provide epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2320   Differential culture medium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A differential culture medium is a device that consists primarily of liquid biological materials intended for medical purposes to cultivate and identify different types of pathogenic microorganisms. The identification of these microorganisms is accomplished by the addition of a specific biochemical component(s) to the medium. Microorganisms are identified by a visible change (e.g., a color change) in a specific biochemical component(s) which indicates that specific metabolic reactions have occurred. Test results aid in the diagnosis of disease and also provide epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38790, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2330   Enriched culture medium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An enriched culture medium is a device that consists primarily of liquid or solid biological materials intended for medical purposes to cultivate and identify fastidious microorganisms (those having complex nutritional requirements). The device consists of a relatively simple basal medium enriched by the addition of such nutritional components as blood, blood serum, vitamins, and extracts of plant or animal tissues. The device is used in the diagnosis of disease caused by pathogenic microorganisms and also provides epidemiological information on these diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2350   Microbiological assay culture medium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microbiological assay culture medium is a device that consists primarily of liquid or solid biological materials intended for medical purposes to cultivate selected test microorganisms in order to measure by microbiological procedures the concentration in a patient's serum of certain substances, such as amino acids, antimicrobial agents, and vitamins. The concentration of these substances is measured by their ability to promote or inhibit the growth of the test organism in the innoculated medium. Test results aid in the diagnosis of disease resulting from either deficient or excessive amounts of these substances in a patient's serum. Tests results may also be used to monitor the effects of the administration of certain antimicrobial drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2360   Selective culture medium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A selective culture medium is a device that consists primarily of liquid or solid biological materials intended for medical purposes to cultivate and identify certain pathogenic microorganisms. The device contains one or more components that suppress the growth of certain microorganisms while either promoting or not affecting the growth of other microorganisms. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by pathogenic microorganisms and also provides epidemiological information on these diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2390   Transport culture medium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transport culture medium is a device that consists of a semisolid, usually non-nutrient, medium that maintains the viability of suspected pathogens contained in patient specimens while in transit from the specimen collection area to the laboratory. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by pathogenic microorganisms and also provides epidemiological information on these diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2410   Culture medium for pathogenic <E T="7462">Neisseria</E> spp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A culture medium for pathogenic <I>Neisseria</I> spp. is a device that consists primarily of liquid or solid biological materials used to cultivate and identify pathogenic <I>Neisseria</I> spp. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Neisseria,</I> such as epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis, other meningococcal disease, and gonorrhea, and also provides epidemiological information on these microorganisms. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2420   Oxidase screening test for gonorrhea.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oxidase screening test for gonorrhea is an in vitro device that consists of the articles intended to identify by chemical reaction, cytochrome oxidase, an oxidizing enzyme that is associated with certain bacteria including <I>Neisseria gonorrhoeae.</I> A sample of a male's urethral discharge is obtained on a swab which is placed into a wetting agent containing an ingredient that will react with cytochrome oxidase. When cytochrome oxidase is present, the swab turns a dark purple color within 3 minutes. Because it is unlikely that cytochrome oxidase-positive organisms other than <I>Neisseria gonorrhoeae</I> are present in the urethral discharge of males, the identification of cytochrome oxidase with this device indicates presumptive infection of the patient with the causative agent of gonorrhea. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval) (transitional device). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 866.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17734, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2440   Automated medium dispensing and stacking device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated medium dispensing and stacking device is a device intended for medical purposes to dispense a microbiological culture medium into petri dishes and then mechanically stack the petri dishes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The device is also exempt from the good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2450   Supplement for culture media.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A supplement for culture media is a device, such as a vitamin or sugar mixture, that is added to a solid or liquid basal culture medium to produce a desired formulation and that is intended for medical purposes to enhance the growth of fastidious microorganisms (those having complex nutritional requirements). This device aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by pathogenic microorganisms. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2480   Quality control kit for culture media.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A quality control kit for culture media is a device that consists of paper discs (or other suitable materials), each impregnated with a specified, freeze-dried, viable microorganism, intended for medical purposes to determine if a given culture medium is able to support the growth of that microorganism. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by pathogenic microorganisms and also provides epidemiological information on these diseases. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2500   Microtiter diluting and dispensing device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microtiter diluting and dispensing device is a mechanical device intended for medical purposes to dispense or serially dilute very small quantities of biological or chemical reagents for use in various diagnostic procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2540   Microbiological incubator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microbiological incubator is a device with various chambers or water-filled compartments in which controlled environmental conditions, particularly temperature, are maintained. It is intended for medical purposes to cultivate microorganisms and aid in the diagnosis of disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The device is also exempt from the good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2560   Microbial growth monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microbial growth monitor is a device intended for medical purposes that measures the concentration of bacteria suspended in a liquid medium by measuring changes in light scattering properties, optical density, electrical impedance, or by making direct bacterial counts. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by pathogenic microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. With the exception of automated blood culturing system devices that are used in testing for bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms in blood and other normally sterile body fluids, this device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 60 FR 38482, July 27, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2580   Gas-generating device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas-generating device is a device intended for medical purposes that produces predetermined amounts of selected gases to be used in a closed chamber in order to establish suitable atmospheric conditions for cultivation of microorganisms with special atmospheric requirements. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2600   Wood's fluorescent lamp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Wood's fluorescent lamp is a device intended for medical purposes to detect fluorescent materials (e.g., fluorescein pigment produced by certain microorganisms) as an aid in the identification of these microorganisms. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The device is also exempt from the good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2660   Microorganism differentiation and identification device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microorganism differentiation and identification device is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of one or more components, such as differential culture media, biochemical reagents, and paper discs or paper strips impregnated with test reagents, that are usually contained in individual compartments and used to differentiate and identify selected microorganisms. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2680   <E T="0714">Streptococcus spp.</E> nucleic acid-based assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>Streptococcus spp.</I> nucleic acid-based assay is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended to simultaneously detect and identify various <I>Streptococcus spp.</I> nucleic acids extracted directly from clinical specimens. The device detects specific nucleic acid sequences for organism identification. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Streptococcus</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Pathogenic streptococci are associated with infections, such as sore throat, impetigo (an infection characterized by small pustules on the skin), urinary tract infections, rheumatic fever, and kidney disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed device description documentation, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology including primer/probe sequence, design, and rationale for sequence selection.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from the following analytical and clinical performance studies: Analytical sensitivity (Limit of Detection), reactivity, inclusivity, precision, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, carry-over, and cross contamination.
</P>
<P>(3) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from a clinical study. The study, performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population, must compare the device performance to results obtained from well-accepted reference methods.
</P>
<P>(4) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation for device software, including, but not limited to, software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(5) Premarket notification submissions must include database implementation methodology, construction parameters, and quality assurance protocols, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(6) The device labeling must include limitations regarding the need for culture confirmation of negative specimens, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be included in the device's 21 CFR 809.10(b)(9) compliant labeling.
</P>
<P>(8) Premarket notification submissions must include details on an end user device training program that will be offered while marketing the device, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50074, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2850   Automated zone reader.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated zone reader is a mechanical device intended for medical purposes to measure zone diameters of microbial growth inhibition (or exhibition), such as those observed on the surface of certain culture media used in disc-agar diffusion antimicrobial susceptibility tests. The device aids in decisionmaking respecting the treatment of disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2900   Microbiological specimen collection and transport device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microbiological specimen collection and transport device is a specimen collecting chamber intended for medical purposes to preserve the viability or integrity of microorganisms in specimens during storage of specimens after their collection and during their transport from the collecting area to the laboratory. The device may be labeled or otherwise represented as sterile. The device aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by pathogenic microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device, when solely intended for use in the collection of concentrated parasites from specimens and transport, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019; 85 FR 18445, Apr. 2, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2950   Microbial nucleic acid storage and stabilization device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microbial nucleic acid storage and stabilization device is a device that consists of a container and reagents intended to stabilize microbial nucleic acids in human specimens for subsequent isolation and purification of nucleic acids for further molecular testing. The device is not intended for preserving morphology or viability of microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use for the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a detailed description of microorganisms and types of human specimens intended to be preserved.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all device components;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics from applicable analytical studies, including nucleic acid stability and microorganism inactivation;
</P>
<P>(iii) A limiting statement that erroneous results may occur when the transport device is not compatible with molecular testing; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A limiting statement that the device has only been validated to preserve the representative microorganisms used in the analytical studies.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Overall device design, including all device components and all control elements incorporated into the analytical validation procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Thorough description of the microorganisms and methodology used in the validation of the device including, extraction platforms and assays used for the detection of preserved nucleic acids; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The limit of detection (LoD) of the molecular test used to establish microorganism nucleic acid stability.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19645, May 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.2952" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.3.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.2952   Device to preserve and stabilize relative abundances of microbial nucleic acids in clinical samples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to preserve and stabilize relative abundances of microbial nucleic acids in clinical samples is a device that consists of a container and reagents intended to stabilize microbial nucleic acids for the subsequent assessment of the relative abundance of microbial nucleic acids (<I>i.e.,</I> microbiome) in human specimens by an assay validated for use with the device. The device may also be indicated for sample collection. The device is not intended for preserving morphology or viability of microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use on the device's label and labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a detailed description of the type(s) of human specimens intended for collection and preservation, and the characteristics of the microbial population intended for subsequent analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including reagents, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and all other parts that make up the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning statement that the device is not for the detection of specific microbial pathogens.
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning statement that the device should only be used with legally marketed assays that are indicated for use with the device, including, as appropriate, indicated for the relevant storage and transport conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of the microorganisms used for studies, including the results and performance summaries, required under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation and results from studies used for device validation. This detailed documentation must include a detailed identification of each of the following (which must be representative of the spectrum of situations in which the device might be used that are within the scope of the device's intended use): the panel of microorganisms, the extraction platforms, the assay protocols used to measure the stabilization of relative ratios (relative abundance) of the microorganisms in the sample, and the bioinformatic pipelines used in the validation studies for the determination of relative abundances of preserved nucleic acids.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices intended for the collection of samples, detailed documentation and results from studies that demonstrate the device's usability, including user collection studies that demonstrate that the user instructions are appropriate for the intended collection methods (<I>e.g.,</I> self-collection or clinician/laboratory collection) and users.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 24342, May 6, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Serological Reagents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3010   <E T="7462">Acinetobacter calcoaceticus</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of <I>Acinetobacter calcoaceticus</I> antigens and antisera used to identify this bacterium from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by the bacterium <I>Acinetobacter calcoaceticus</I> and provides epidemiological information on disease caused by this microorganism. This organism becomes pathogenic in patients with burns or with immunologic deficiency, and infection can result in sepsis (blood poisoning).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3020   Adenovirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Adenovirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to adenovirus in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of adenovirus antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye and are used to identify adenoviruses directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by adenoviruses and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Adenovirus infections may cause pharyngitis (inflammation of the throat), acute respiratory diseases, and certain external diseases of the eye (e.g., conjunctivitis).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3035" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3035   <E T="7462">Arizona</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Arizona</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antisera and antigens used to identify <I>Arizona</I> spp. in cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Arizona</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms. <I>Arizona</I> spp. can cause gastroenteritis (food poisoning) and sepsis (blood poisoning).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3040   <E T="7462">Aspergillus</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Aspergillus</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in various serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Aspergillus</I> spp. in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of aspergillosis caused by fungi belonging to the genus <I>Aspergillus.</I> Aspergillosis is a disease marked by inflammatory granulomatous (tumor-like) lessions in the skin, ear, eyeball cavity, nasal sinuses, lungs, and occasionally the bones.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3045" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3045   In vitro diagnostic device for <E T="0714">Bacillus</E> spp. detection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An in vitro diagnostic device for <I>Bacillus</I> species (spp.) detection is a prescription device used to detect and differentiate among <I>Bacillus</I> spp. and presumptively identify <I>B. anthracis</I> and other <I>Bacillus</I> spp. from cultured isolates or clinical specimens as an aid in the diagnosis of anthrax and other diseases caused by <I>Bacillus</I> spp. This device may consist of <I>Bacillus</I> spp. antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to presumptively identify bacillus-like organisms in clinical specimens; bacteriophage used for differentiating <I>B. anthracis</I> from other <I>Bacillus</I> spp. based on susceptibility to lysis by the phage; or antigens used to identify antibodies to <I>B. anthracis</I> (anti-toxin and anti-capsular) in serum. Bacillus infections include anthrax (cutaneous, inhalational, or gastrointestinal) caused by <I>B. anthracis,</I> and gastrointestinal disease and non-gastrointestinal infections caused by<I> B.</I> <I>cereus.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are set forth in FDA's special controls guideline document entitled “In Vitro Diagnostic Devices for <I>Bacillus</I> spp. Detection; Class II Special Controls Guideline for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff.” For availability of the guideline document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restriction on Distribution.</I> The distribution of these devices is limited to laboratories that follow public health guidelines that address appropriate biosafety conditions, interpretation of test results, and coordination of findings with public health authorities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restriction on Use.</I> The use of this device is restricted to prescription use and must comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be in the possession of:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A person, or his agents or employees, regularly and lawfully engaged in the manufacture, transportation, storage, or wholesale or retail distribution of such device; or
</P>
<P>(B) A practitioner, such as a physician, licensed by law to use or order the use of such device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The device must be sold only to or on the prescription or other order of such practitioner for use in the course of his professional practice.
</P>
<P>(2) The label of the device shall bear the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this device to sale by or on the order of a ____”, the blank to be filled with the word “physician” or with the descriptive designation of any other practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which he practices to use or order the use of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Any labeling, as defined in section 201(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, whether or not it is on or within a package from which the device is to be dispensed, distributed by, or on behalf of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the device, that furnishes or purports to furnish information for use of the device contains adequate information for such use, including indications, effects, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions, under which practitioners licensed by law to employ the device can use the device safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is advertised or represented. This information will not be required on so-called reminder-piece labeling which calls attention to the name of the device but does not include indications or other use information.
</P>
<P>(4) All labeling, except labels and cartons, bearing information for use of the device also bears the date of the issuance or the date of the latest revision of such labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12088, Apr. 1, 2019]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3046" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3046   Simple in vitro diagnostic device for the detection of secreted proteins from <I>Bacillus</I> species (spp.) in human clinical samples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A simple <I>in vitro</I> diagnostic device for the detection of secreted proteins from <I>Bacillus</I> species (spp.) is a prescription <I>in vitro</I> diagnostic device used to detect and presumptively identify <I>B. anthracis</I> and other <I>Bacillus</I> spp. in human clinical samples as an aid in the diagnosis of anthrax and other diseases caused by <I>Bacillus</I> spp. This device is simple to use and does not involve sample manipulation or measurement of an analyte that could be affected by conditions such as sample turbidity or cell lysis. This device may be used to aid in the presumptive diagnosis of anthrax in individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with anthrax and a likelihood of exposure. <I>Bacillus</I> infections include anthrax (cutaneous, inhalational, or gastrointestinal) caused by <I>B. anthracis,</I> gastrointestinal disease, non-gastrointestinal infections, and an anthrax-like illness caused by <I>B. cereus.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The distribution of these devices is limited to laboratories that follow public health guidelines that address appropriate biosafety conditions, interpretation of test results, and coordination of findings with public health authorities.
</P>
<P>(2) Any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of the sample types with which this device is intended to be used; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under 21 CFR 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use statement that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of targets the device detects and measures;
</P>
<P>(B) The results provided to the user (<I>i.e.,</I> whether the measurement is qualitative, semi-quantitative, or quantitative);
</P>
<P>(C) The clinical indications appropriate for test use (<I>e.g.,</I> in conjunction with patient history, epidemiological information, clinical observations, and other laboratory evidence to make patient management decisions);
</P>
<P>(D) Sample types with which it is intended for use;
</P>
<P>(E) The specific population(s) with which the device is intended to be used;
</P>
<P>(F) The testing location(s) where the device is to be used (if not intended for all locations);
</P>
<P>(G) A statement that the device results are for the presumptive identification of <I>Bacillus</I> spp., and definitive identification requires additional testing and confirmation procedures in consultation with the appropriate public health authorities;
</P>
<P>(H) A statement that negative results do not preclude infection with <I>Bacillus</I> spp. and should not be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions; and
</P>
<P>(I) A statement that testing is to be performed and reported in accordance with current guidelines provided by the appropriate public health authorities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed instructions for minimizing the risk of user exposure to <I>Bacillus</I> spp. that may be present in test samples and those used as control materials.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed instructions for minimizing the risk of generating false positive test results due to contamination from positive test samples and/or positive control materials.
</P>
<P>(iv) A prominent and conspicuous precaution that interpretation of test results is intended to be performed by experienced healthcare professionals who have training in principles and use of infectious disease diagnostics and the expertise to report results.
</P>
<P>(v) A prominent and conspicuous warning statement that the test results alone do not conclusively establish infection and that additional testing and confirmation procedures may be necessary in consultation with the appropriate public health or other authorities to whom reporting is required.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, all control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of samples.
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed descriptions of the performance characteristics of the device for all claimed sample types as shown by the analytical and clinical studies required under paragraphs (b)(4)(ii) and (b)(4)(iii) of this section, except sample stability performance characteristics.
</P>
<P>(viii) For any devices intended for use in a near-patient setting, a brief reference sheet for healthcare professionals that accompanies the device and that includes the name and intended use of the test, step-by-step instructions of all control and sample testing procedures for the claimed sample types, the result(s) interpretation, warning and limitation statements, and information for troubleshooting or technical assistance with the device.
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement that a nationally notifiable disease caused by a biothreat microbial agent must be reported to public health authorities in accordance with local, state, and federal law.
</P>
<P>(x) Limiting statements indicating, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) Situations where the device has been demonstrated to fail or may not perform at its expected performance level (<I>e.g.,</I> any disease specific circumstances or circumstances identified by human factors or robustness studies);
</P>
<P>(B) Any specific circumstances that pose significant risk to public health, and for which the device has not been validated. For example:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Testing of matrices and patient populations that are not identified in the intended use; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Testing individuals without signs and symptoms of infection, including mass infection screening (such as airport or border screening) that is not limited to individuals who have signs and symptoms and a risk of exposure to biothreat microbial agents.
</P>
<P>(4) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all device parts, control elements incorporated into the test procedure, reagents required but not provided, the principle of device operation and test methodology, and the computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies, as applicable, including those demonstrating limit of detection, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, microbial interference, interfering substances, carryover/cross contamination, sample stability, within lab precision, hook effect, reproducibility, and other studies relevant to the technology (<I>e.g.,</I> linearity), as determined to be appropriate by FDA.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation and results from either a clinical study or, when determined to be acceptable by FDA, a study with an equivalent data set. Documentation from this study must include study reports, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses, including line data of all test samples, and an appropriate justification describing how the sample set is representative of the intended use population. This study must compare the device performance to results obtained from a reference or comparator method that FDA has determined to be appropriate. This study must include prospective (sequentially collected) samples for each intended sample type that are representative of the intended use populations and may, when determined to be acceptable by FDA, include additional characterized clinical samples; or, as an alternative, when determined to be acceptable by FDA, an equivalent sample set. This study must include samples spanning all relevant analyte concentrations for all of the indicated sample type(s) and the targeted analyte(s).
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) For any devices that detect the presence of an analyte directly from sample, detailed documentation and results from a shelf-life assessment that includes samples formulated in the most complex clinical matrix identified in the device's intended use.
</P>
<P>(vi) As part of the risk management activities, if the labeling includes hyperlinks to documents from public health authorities regarding sampling, sample shipment, sample testing, or clinical management of patients suspected of being infected; or if the labeling includes direct contact information for any such public health authority, then the hyperlinks and contact information must be reviewed at least annually and updated to reflect any changes to those hyperlinks or contact information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 36978, June 22, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3050   Beta-glucan serological assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Beta-glucan serological assays are devices that consist of antigens or proteases used in serological assays. The device is intended for use for the presumptive diagnosis of fungal infection. The assay is indicated for use in patients with symptoms of, or medical conditions predisposing the patient to invasive fungal infection. The device can be used as an aid in the diagnosis of deep seated mycoses and fungemias.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Serological Assays for the Detection of Beta-Glucan.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 56936, Sept. 23, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3060   <E T="7462">Blastomyces dermatitidis</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Blastomyces dermatitidis</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Blastomyces determatitidis</I> in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of blastomycosis caused by the fungus <I>Blastomyces dermatitidis.</I> Blastomycosis is a chronic granulomatous (tumor-like) disease, which may be limited to the skin or lung or may be widely disseminated in the body resulting in lesions of the bones, liver, spleen, and kidneys.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3065" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3065   <E T="7462">Bordetella</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Bordetella</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera, including antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye, used in serological tests to identify <I>Bordetella</I> spp. from cultured isolates or directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Bordetella</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. <I>Bordetella</I> spp. cause whooping cough (<I>Bordetella pertussis</I>) and other similiarly contagious and acute respiratory infections characterized by pneumonitis (inflammation of the lungs).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3085" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3085   <E T="7462">Brucella</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Brucella</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used for serological identification of <I>Brucella</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens or to identify antibodies to <I>Brucella</I> spp. in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Brucella</I> spp. directly from clinical specimens or cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of brucellosis (e.g., undulant fever, Malta fever) caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Brucella</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3110   <E T="7462">Campylobacter fetus</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Campylobacter fetus</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye used to identify <I>Campylobacter fetus</I> from clinical specimens or cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by this bacterium and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. <I>Campylobacter fetus</I> is a frequent cause of abortion in sheep and cattle and is sometimes responsible for endocarditis (inflammation of certain membranes of the heart) and enteritis (inflammation of the intestines) in humans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3120   Chlamydia serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Chlamydia serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to chlamydia in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of chlamydia antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye used to identify chlamydia directly from clinical specimens or cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Chlamydia</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Chlamydia are the causative agents of psittacosis (a form of pneumonia), lymphogranuloma venereum (a venereal disease), and trachoma (a chronic disease of the eye and eyelid).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3125" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3125   <E T="7462">Citrobacter</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Citrobacter</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Citrobacter</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Citrobacter</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms. <I>Citrobacter</I> spp. have occasionally been associated with urinary tract infections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3130   Clostridium difficile toxin gene amplification assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>Clostridium difficile</I> toxin gene amplification assay is a device that consists of reagents for the amplification and detection of target sequences in <I>Clostridium difficile</I> toxin genes in fecal specimens from patients suspected of having <I>Clostridium difficile</I> infection (CDI). The detection of clostridial toxin genes, in conjunction with other laboratory tests, aids in the clinical laboratory diagnosis of CDI caused by <I>Clostridium difficile.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are set forth in FDA's guideline document entitled: “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Toxin Gene Amplification Assays for the Detection of <I>Clostridium difficile;</I> Guideline for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff.” See § 866.1(e) for information on obtaining this document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51939, Aug. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3135" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3135   <E T="7462">Coccidioides immitis</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Coccidioides immitis</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Coccidioides immitis</I> in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of coccidioidomycosis caused by a fungus belonging to the genus <I>Coccidioides</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by this microorganism. An infection with <I>Coccidioides immitis</I> produces symptoms varying in severity from those accompanying the common cold to those of influenza.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3140   <E T="7462">Corynebacterium</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Corynebacterium</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye used to identify <I>Corynebacterium</I> spp. from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Corynebacterium</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms. The principal human pathogen of this genus, <I>Corynebacterium diphtheriae,</I> causes diphtheria. However, many other types of corynebacteria form part of the normal flora of the human respiratory tract, other mucus membranes, and skin, and are either nonpathogenic or have an uncertain role.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3145" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3145   Coxsackievirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Coxsackievirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to coxsackievirus in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of coxsackievirus antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye that are used to identify coxsackievirus from clinical specimens or from tissue culture isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of coxsackievirus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Coxsackieviruses produce a variety of infections, including common colds, meningitis (inflammation of brain and spinal cord membranes), herpangina (brief fever accompanied by ulcerated lesions of the throat), and myopericarditis (inflammation of heart tissue).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3165   <E T="7462">Cryptococcus neoformans</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Cryptococcus neoformans</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Cryptococcus neoformans</I> in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) and are used to identify <I>Cryptococcus neoformans</I> directly from clinical specimens or from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of cryptococcosis and provides epidemiological information on this type of disease. Cryptococcosis infections are found most often as chronic meningitis (inflammation of brain membranes) and, if not treated, are usually fatal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3169" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3169   Hepatitis C virus antibody tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody test is identified as an in vitro diagnostic device intended for use with human serum, plasma, or other matrices as a prescription device that aids in the diagnosis of HCV infection in persons with signs and symptoms of hepatitis and in persons at risk for hepatitis C infection. The test is not intended for screening blood, plasma, cell, or tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement that the test is not intended for the screening of blood, plasma, and cell or tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and disease presentation and management. The limitations must include, but are not limited to, statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) When appropriate, the performance characteristics of the test have not been established in populations of immunocompromised or immunosuppressed patients or, other special populations where test performance may be affected.
</P>
<P>(B) The detection of HCV antibodies indicates a present or past infection with hepatitis C virus, but does not differentiate between acute, chronic, or resolved infection.
</P>
<P>(C) The specimen types for which the device has been cleared, and that use of the test with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may result in inaccurate test results.
</P>
<P>(D) Test results are to be interpreted by qualified licensed healthcare professionals in conjunction with the individual's clinical presentation, history, and other laboratory results.
</P>
<P>(E) A non-reactive test result may occur early during acute infection, prior to development of a host antibody response to infection, or when analyte levels are below the limit of detection of the test.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for performing the test.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all parts that make up the device, ancillary reagents required but not provided, an explanation of the device methodology, and design of the antigen(s) and capture antibody(ies) sequences, rationale for the selected epitope(s), degree of amino acid sequence conservation of the target, and the design and nature of all primary, secondary, and subsequent standards used for calibration.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation and characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> supplier, determination of identity, and stability) of all critical reagents (including description of the antigen(s) and capture antibody(ies)), and protocols for maintaining product integrity throughout its labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(iii) Risk analysis and management strategies, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on test performance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured test lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims.
</P>
<P>(v) Stability studies for reagents must include documentation of an assessment of real-time stability for multiple reagent lots using the indicated specimen types and must use acceptance criteria that ensure that analytical and clinical performance characteristics are met when stability is assigned based on the extremes of the acceptance range.
</P>
<P>(vi) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(vii) Final release test results for each lot used in clinical studies.
</P>
<P>(viii) Multisite reproducibility study that includes the testing of three independent production lots.
</P>
<P>(ix) Analytical performance studies and results for determining the limit of blank (LoB), limit of detection (LoD), cutoff, precision (reproducibility) including lot-to-lot and/or instrument-to-instrument precision, interference, cross reactivity, carryover, hook effect, seroconversion panel testing, matrix equivalency, specimen stability, reagent stability, and cross-genotype antibody detection sensitivity, when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(x) Analytical sensitivity of the test is the same or better than that of other cleared or approved tests.
</P>
<P>(xi) Detailed documentation of clinical performance testing from a multisite clinical study. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA cleared or approved HCV antibody test, or a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate. This study must be conducted using appropriate patient samples, with an acceptable number of HCV positive and negative samples in applicable risk categories. Additional relevant patient groups must be validated as appropriate. The samples may be a combination of fresh and repository samples, sourced from geographically diverse areas. The study designs, including number of samples tested, must be sufficient to meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Clinical sensitivity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 95 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) Clinical specificity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 96 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) For any HCV antibody test intended for Point of Care (PoC) use, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Clinical studies must be conducted at PoC sites.
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional labeling must include a brief summary of the instructions for use that are appropriate for use in a PoC environment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66176, Nov. 22, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3170   Nucleic acid-based hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nucleic acid-based hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) test is identified as an in vitro diagnostic device intended for prescription use as an aid in the diagnosis of HCV infection in specified populations, and/or as an aid in the management of HCV-infected patients including guiding the selection of genotype-specific treatment in individuals with chronic HCV infection. The test is intended for use with human serum or plasma. The test is not intended for use as a donor screening test for the presence of HCV antibodies in blood, blood products, or tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) For all nucleic acid-based HCV RNA tests, the labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement that the test is not intended for use as a donor screening test for the presence of HCV RNA from human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for performing the assay.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results.
</P>
<P>(iv) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and disease presentation and management. These limitations must include, but are not limited to, statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) The specimen types for which the device has been cleared and that use of this test kit with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may result in inaccurate test results.
</P>
<P>(B) When applicable, that assay performance characteristics have not been established in populations of immunocompromised or immunosuppressed patients or, other populations where test performance may be affected.
</P>
<P>(C) Test results are to be interpreted by qualified licensed healthcare professionals in conjunction with the individual's clinical presentation, history, and other laboratory results.
</P>
<P>(2) For all nucleic acid-based HCV RNA tests, the design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and an explanation of the device methodology. Additional information appropriate to the technology must be included such as design of primers and probes, rationale for the selected gene targets, specifications for amplicon size, and degree of nucleic acid sequence conservation.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices with assay calibrators, the design and nature of all primary, secondary, and subsequent quantitation standards used for calibration as well as their traceability to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> a recognized consensus standard). In addition, analytical testing must be performed following the release of a new lot of the standard material that was used for device clearance or approval, or when there is a transition to a new calibration standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation and characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> determination of the identity, supplier, purity, and stability) of all critical reagents (including nucleic acid sequences for primers and probes) and protocols for maintaining product integrity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation of analytical performance studies conducted as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including, but not limited to, limit of detection (LoD), upper and lower limits of quantitation (ULoQ and LLoQ, respectively), linearity, precision, endogenous and exogenous interferences, cross reactivity, carryover, matrix equivalency, and sample and reagent stability. Samples selected for use in analytical studies or used to prepare samples for use in analytical studies must be from subjects with clinically relevant circulating genotypes in the United States. Cross-reactivity studies must include samples from HCV RNA negative subjects with other causes of liver disease, including autoimmune hepatitis, alcoholic liver disease, chronic hepatitis B virus, primary biliary cirrhosis, and nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, when applicable. The effect of each claimed nucleic-acid isolation and purification procedure on detection must be evaluated.
</P>
<P>(v) Risk analysis and management strategies, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on test performance.
</P>
<P>(vi) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured test lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims.
</P>
<P>(vii) Multisite reproducibility study that includes the testing of three independent production lots.
</P>
<P>(viii) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(ix) Final release test results for each lot used in clinical studies.
</P>
<P>(x) Analytical sensitivity and specificity of the test must be the same or better than that of other cleared or approved tests.
</P>
<P>(xi) Lot-to-lot precision studies, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) For devices intended for the qualitative detection of HCV RNA, in addition to the special controls listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, the design verification and validation must include detailed documentation of performance from a multisite clinical study. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA cleared or approved qualitative HCV RNA test, or a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate. This study must be conducted using appropriate patient samples, with appropriate numbers of HCV positive and negative samples in applicable risk categories. Additional genotypes must be validated using appropriate numbers and types of samples. The samples may be a combination of fresh and repository samples, sourced from within and outside the United States, as appropriate. The study designs, including number of samples tested, must be sufficient to meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Clinical sensitivity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 95 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical specificity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 96 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) For devices intended for the quantitative detection of HCV RNA, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include a prominent statement that the test is not intended as a diagnostic test to confirm the presence of active HCV infection, when applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed documentation of the following analytical performance studies conducted as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including but not limited to: LoD, ULoQ and LLoQ. LoD, LLoQ, and linearity studies must demonstrate acceptable device performance with all HCV genotypes detected by the device.
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed documentation of clinical performance testing from either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A multisite clinical study with an appropriate number of clinical samples from chronically HCV infected patients in which the results are compared to an FDA-cleared or approved quantitative HCV RNA test, or a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate. This study must include a sufficient number of HCV positive samples containing an analyte concentration near the LLoQ to describe performance at this level. Clinical samples must cover the full range of the device output and must be consistent with the distribution of these genotypes in the U.S. population. Clinical samples may be supplemented with diluted clinical samples for those viral load concentrations that are not sufficiently covered by natural clinical specimens, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A clinical study with prospectively collected samples demonstrating clinical validity of the device.
</P>
<P>(C) Detailed documentation of a qualitative analysis near the lower end of the measuring range demonstrating acceptable performance when used as an aid in diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(5) For devices intended for HCV RNA genotyping, in addition to the special controls listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of an analytical performance study demonstrating the LoD for all HCV genotypes detected by the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation, including results, of a multisite clinical study that assesses genotyping accuracy (<I>i.e.,</I> the proportion of interpretable results that match with the reference method result) and the genotyping rate (<I>i.e.,</I> the proportion of results that were interpretable).
</P>
<P>(6) For any nucleic acid-based HCV RNA test intended for Point of Care (PoC) use, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Clinical studies must be conducted at PoC sites.
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional labeling must include a brief summary of the instructions for use that are appropriate for use in a PoC environment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66172, Nov. 22, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3172" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3172   Qualitative hepatitis B virus antigen assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A qualitative hepatitis B virus (HBV) antigen assay is identified as an in vitro diagnostic device intended for prescription use for qualitative use with human serum, plasma, or other matrices that aids in the diagnosis of chronic or acute HBV infection. HBV surface antigen (HbsAg) is also used for screening of HBV infection in pregnant women to identify neonates who are at risk of acquiring hepatitis B during perinatal period. The assay is not intended for screening of blood, plasma, cells, or tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement that the assay is not intended for the screening of blood, plasma, cells, or tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for performing the assay.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results.
</P>
<P>(iv) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and disease presentation and management. The limitations must include statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) The specimen types for which the device has been cleared, and that use of this assay with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may result in inaccurate assay results.
</P>
<P>(B) When appropriate, performance characteristics of the assay have not been established in populations of immunocompromised or immunosuppressed patients or other populations where assay performance may be affected.
</P>
<P>(C) Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection should not be established on the basis of a single assay result but should be determined by a licensed healthcare professional in conjunction with the clinical presentation, history, and other diagnostic procedures.
</P>
<P>(D) Detection of HBV antigens indicates a current infection with hepatitis B virus but does not differentiate between acute or chronic infection. False reactive HbsAg result may occur for up to 2 weeks after vaccination with HbsAg containing vaccine.
</P>
<P>(E) Current methods for the detection of hepatitis B antigens may not detect all potentially infected individuals. A non-reactive assay result does not exclude the possibility of exposure to or infection with hepatitis B virus. A non-reactive assay result in individuals with prior exposure to hepatitis B may be due to but not limited to antigen levels below the detection limit of this assay or lack of antigen reactivity to the antibodies in this assay. HBV mutants lacking the ability to produce antigens have been reported. These may occur as “escape” mutants in the presence of anti-HBV antibodies and such patients may be infectious.
</P>
<P>(F) Results obtained with this assay may not be used interchangeably with results obtained with a different manufacturer's assay.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all parts that make up the device, ancillary reagents required but not provided, an explanation of the device methodology, design of the capture antibody(ies), external controls, and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported signal and result), as applicable to the detection method and device design.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices with assay calibrators, the design and composition of all primary, secondary, and subsequent quantitation standards used for calibration as well as their traceability to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> a recognized consensus standard). In addition, analytical testing must be performed following the release of a new lot of the standard material that was used for device clearance or approval, or when there is a transition to a new calibration standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation and characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> supplier, determination of identity, purity, and stability) of all critical reagents (including description of the capture antibody(ies)), and protocols for maintaining product integrity throughout its labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk analysis and management strategies, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on assay performance.
</P>
<P>(v) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured assay lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the identified analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as stability.
</P>
<P>(vi) Stability studies for reagents must include documentation of an assessment of real-time stability for multiple reagent lots using the indicated specimen types and must use acceptance criteria that ensure that analytical and clinical performance characteristics are met when stability is assigned based on the extremes of the acceptance range.
</P>
<P>(vii) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(viii) Final release assay results for each lot used in clinical studies.
</P>
<P>(ix) Reproducibility study data that includes the testing of three independent production lots.
</P>
<P>(x) Detailed documentation of analytical performance studies conducted, as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including, the limit of blank (LoB), limit of detection (LoD), cutoff, precision (reproducibility) including lot-to-lot and/or instrument-to-instrument precision, interference, cross reactivity, carryover, hook effect, seroconversion panel testing, matrix equivalency, prominent mutants/variants detection (<I>e.g.,</I> for HbsAg), specimen stability, reagent stability, and cross-genotype antigen detection sensitivity, when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(xi) Analytical sensitivity of the assay that is the same or better than that of other cleared or approved assays.
</P>
<P>(xii) For devices with associated software or instrumentation, documentation must include a detailed description of device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software. The detailed description must include documentation of verification, validation, and hazard analysis and risk assessment activities, including an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users/patients as part of cybersecurity review.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Detailed documentation and results from a clinical study. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA cleared or approved HBV antigen assay or a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate. This study must be conducted using appropriate patient samples, with an appropriate number of HBV reactive and non-reactive samples in applicable risk and disease categories, and any applicable confirmatory testing. Additional relevant patient groups must be validated as appropriate. The samples must include prospective (sequential) samples for each identified specimen type and, as appropriate, additional characterized clinical samples. Samples must be sourced from geographically diverse areas. This study must be conducted in the appropriate settings by the intended users to demonstrate clinical performance.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 44975, Sept. 18, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3173" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3173   Hepatitis B virus antibody assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hepatitis B virus (HBV) antibody assay is identified as an in vitro diagnostic device intended for prescription use in the detection of antibodies to HBV in human serum, plasma, or other matrices, and as a device that aids in the diagnosis of HBV infection in persons with signs and symptoms of hepatitis and in persons at risk for hepatitis B infection. Results from assays may be qualitative or quantitative, such as quantitative anti-HBs. In addition, results from an anti-HBc IgM (IgM antibodies to core antigen) assay indicating the presence of anti-HBc IgM are indicative of recent HBV infection. Anti-HBs (antibodies to surface antigen) assay results may be used as an aid in the determination of susceptibility to HBV infection in individuals prior to or following HBV vaccination or when vaccination status is unknown. The assay is not intended for screening of blood, plasma, cells, or tissue donors. The assay is intended as an aid in diagnosis in conjunction with clinical findings and other diagnostic procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement that the assay is not intended for the screening of blood, plasma, cells, or tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for performing the assay.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results.
</P>
<P>(iv) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and disease presentation and management. The limitations must include statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) When appropriate, performance characteristics of the assay have not been established in populations of immunocompromised or immunosuppressed patients or other special populations where assay performance may be affected.
</P>
<P>(B) Detection of HBV antibodies to a single viral antigen indicates a present or past infection with hepatitis B virus, but does not differentiate between acute, chronic, or resolved infection.
</P>
<P>(C) The specimen types for which the device has been cleared, and that use of the assay with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may result in inaccurate assay results.
</P>
<P>(D) Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection should not be established on the basis of a single assay result but should be determined by a licensed healthcare professional in conjunction with the clinical presentation, history, and other diagnostic procedures.
</P>
<P>(E) A non-reactive assay result may occur early during acute infection, prior to development of a host antibody response to infection, or when analyte levels are below the limit of detection of the assay.
</P>
<P>(F) Results obtained with this assay may not be used interchangeably with results obtained with a different manufacturer's assay.
</P>
<P>(v) For devices intended for the quantitative detection of HBV antibodies (anti-HBs), in addition to the special controls listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The assay calibrators' traceability to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> a recognized consensus standard) and the limit of blank (LoB), limit of detection (LoD), limit of quantitation (LoQ), linearity, and precision to define the analytical measuring interval.
</P>
<P>(B) Performance results of the analytical sensitivity study testing a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> a recognized consensus standard).
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description, including all parts that make up the device, ancillary reagents required but not provided, an explanation of the device methodology, and design of the antigen(s) and capture antibody(ies) sequences, rationale for the selected epitope(s), degree of amino acid sequence conservation of the target, and the design and composition of all primary, secondary and subsequent standards used for calibration.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation and characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> supplier, determination of identity, and stability) of all critical reagents (including description of the antigen(s) and capture antibody(ies)), and protocols for maintaining product integrity throughout its labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(iii) Risk analysis and management strategies, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on assay performance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured assay lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the identified analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as stability.
</P>
<P>(v) Stability studies for reagents must include documentation of an assessment of real-time stability for multiple reagent lots using the indicated specimen types and must use acceptance criteria that ensure that analytical and clinical performance characteristics are met when stability is assigned based on the extremes of the acceptance range.
</P>
<P>(vi) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(vii) When applicable, analytical sensitivity of the assay that is the same or better than that of other cleared or approved assays.
</P>
<P>(viii) Analytical performance studies and results for determining the limit of blank (LoB), limit of detection (LoD), cutoff, precision (reproducibility), including lot-to-lot and/or instrument-to-instrument precision, interference, cross reactivity, carryover, hook effect, seroconversion panel testing, matrix equivalency, specimen stability, reagent stability, and cross-genotype antibody detection sensitivity, when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ix) For devices intended for the detection of antibodies for which a standardized reference material (that FDA has determined is appropriate) is available, the analytical sensitivity study and results testing the standardized reference material. Detailed documentation of that study and its results must be provided, including the study protocol, study report, testing results, and all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(x) For devices with associated software or instrumentation, documentation must include a detailed description of device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software. The detailed description must include documentation of verification, validation, and hazard analysis and risk assessment activities, including an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users/patients as part of cybersecurity review.
</P>
<P>(xi) Detailed documentation of clinical performance testing from a clinical study with an appropriate number of HBV reactive and non-reactive samples in applicable risk categories and conducted in the appropriate settings by the intended users. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA cleared or approved HBV antibody assay or a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate. Additional relevant patient groups must be validated as appropriate. The samples must include prospective (sequential) samples for each identified specimen type and, as appropriate, additional characterized clinical samples. Samples must be sourced from geographically diverse areas.
</P>
<P>(3) For any HBV antibody assay intended for quantitative detection of anti-HBV antibodies, the following special controls, in addition to those special controls listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, also apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of the metrological calibration traceability hierarchy to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of the following analytical performance studies conducted, as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including upper and lower limits of quantitation (UloQ and LloQ, respectively), linearity using clinical samples, and an accuracy study using the recognized international standard material.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 44976, Sept. 18, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3174" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3174   Hepatitis B virus nucleic acid-based assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nucleic acid-based hepatitis B virus (HBV) assay is identified as an in vitro diagnostic device intended for prescription use in the detection of HBV nucleic acid in specimens from individuals with antibody evidence of HBV infection. In these devices, the detection of HBV nucleic acid is used as an aid in the management of HBV-infected individuals. The assay is intended for use with human serum or plasma (and other matrices as applicable) from individuals with HBV. The assay is not intended for use as a donor screening assay for the presence of HBV nucleic acids in blood, blood products, plasma, cells, or tissue donors, or as a diagnostic assay to confirm the presence of HBV infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement that the assay is not intended for use as a screening assay for the presence of HBV DNA in blood or blood products, plasma, cells, or tissue donors, or as a diagnostic assay to confirm the presence of HBV infection.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for performing the assay.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results.
</P>
<P>(iv) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and disease presentation and/or management. These limitations must include statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) Management of patients undergoing HBV treatment should not be established on the basis of a single assay result but should be determined by a licensed healthcare professional in conjunction with the clinical presentation, history, and other diagnostic procedures, <I>e.g.,</I> HBV serologic testing, liver function assays, liver elastography, etc.
</P>
<P>(B) The specimen types for which the device has been cleared, and that use of this assay with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may result in inaccurate assay results.
</P>
<P>(C) The results obtained with this assay may not be used interchangeably with results obtained with a different manufacturer's assay.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and an explanation of the device methodology. Additional information appropriate to the technology must be included such as design of primers and probes, rationale for the selected gene targets, specifications for amplicon size, and degree of nucleic acid sequence conservation.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices with assay calibrators, the design and composition of all primary, secondary, and subsequent quantitation standards used for calibration as well as their traceability to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> a recognized consensus standard). In addition, analytical testing must be performed following the release of a new lot of the standard material that was used for device clearance or approval, or when there is a transition to a new calibration standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation and characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> determination of the identity, supplier, purity, and stability) of all critical reagents (including nucleic acid sequences for primers and probes) and protocols for maintaining product integrity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk analysis and management strategies demonstrating how risk control measures are implemented to address device system hazards, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on assay performance.
</P>
<P>(v) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured assay lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specification will meet the identified analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as stability.
</P>
<P>(vi) Stability studies for reagents must include documentation of an assessment of real-time stability for multiple reagent lots using the indicated specimen types and must use acceptance criteria that ensure that analytical and clinical performance characteristics are met when stability is assigned based on the extremes of the acceptance range.
</P>
<P>(vii) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(viii) Detailed documentation of analytical performance studies conducted as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including limit of detection (LoD), linearity, precision, endogenous and exogenous interferences, cross-reactivity, carryover, matrix equivalency, sample and reagents stability, and as applicable, upper and lower limits of quantitation (ULoQ and LLoQ, respectively). Samples selected for use must be from subjects with clinically relevant circulating genotypes in the United States. Cross-reactivity studies must include samples from HBV nucleic acid negative subjects with other viral or non-viral causes of liver disease, including autoimmune hepatitis, alcoholic liver disease, chronic hepatitis C virus, primary biliary cirrhosis, and nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, when applicable. The effect of each identified nucleic-acid isolation and purification procedure on detection must be evaluated.
</P>
<P>(ix) Analytical sensitivity of the assay that is the same or better than that of other cleared or approved assays.
</P>
<P>(x) For devices with associated software or instrumentation, documentation must include a detailed description of device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software. The detailed description must include documentation of verification, validation, and hazard analysis and risk assessment activities, including an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users/patients as part of cybersecurity review.
</P>
<P>(xi) Detailed documentation of performance from a clinical study with a design and number of clinical samples (appropriately statistically powered) that is appropriate for the intended use of the device as well as conducted in the appropriate settings by the intended users. The samples must include prospective (sequential) samples for each claimed specimen type and, as appropriate, additional characterized clinical samples. Samples must be sourced from geographically diverse areas.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 44977, Sept. 18, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3175   Cytomegalovirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cytomegalovirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to cytomegalovirus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by cytomegaloviruses (principally cytomegalic inclusion disease) and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is a generalized infection of infants and is caused by intrauterine or early postnatal infection with the virus. The disease may cause severe congenital abnormalities, such as microcephaly (abnormal smallness of the head), motor disability, and mental retardation. Cytomegalovirus infection has also been associated with acquired hemolytic anemia, acute and chronic hepatitis, and an infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3180   Quantitative cytomegalovirus nucleic acid tests for transplant patient management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A quantitative cytomegalovirus (CMV) nucleic acid test for transplant patient management is identified as a device intended for prescription use in the detection of CMV and as an aid in the management of transplant patients to measure CMV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) levels in human plasma and/or whole blood using specified specimen processing, amplification, and detection instrumentation. The test is intended for use as an aid in the management of transplant patients with active CMV infection or at risk for developing CMV infection. The test results are intended to be interpreted by qualified healthcare professionals in conjunction with other relevant clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under §  809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement that the device is not intended for use as a donor screening test for the presence of CMV DNA in blood or blood products.
</P>
<P>(ii) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice. The limitations must include, but are not limited to, statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) Test results are to be interpreted by qualified licensed healthcare professionals in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other relevant laboratory results;
</P>
<P>(B) Negative test results do not preclude CMV infection or tissue invasive CMV disease, and that CMV test results must not be the sole basis for patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be provided and include specific warnings regarding the potential for variability in CMV viral load measurement when samples are measured by different devices. Warnings must include the following statement, where applicable: “Due to the potential for variability in CMV viral load measurements across different CMV assays, it is recommended that the same device be used for the quantitation of CMV viral load when managing CMV infection in individual patients.”
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for assay performance.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of the device description, including all parts that make up the device, reagents required for use with the CMV assay but not provided, an explanation of the methodology, design of the primer/probe sequences, rationale for the selected gene target, and specifications for amplicon size, guanine-cytosine content, and degree of nucleic acid sequence conservation. The design and nature of all primary, secondary, and tertiary quantitation standards used for calibration must also be described.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's function.
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation and characterization of all critical reagents (<I>e.g.,</I> determination of the identity, supplier, purity, and stability) and protocols for maintaining product integrity throughout its labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(iv) Stability data for reagents provided with the device and indicated specimen types, in addition to the basis for the stability acceptance criteria at all time points chosen across the spectrum of the device's indicated life cycle, which must include a time point at the end of shelf life.
</P>
<P>(v) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(vi) Final lot release criteria, along with documentation of an appropriate justification that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims.
</P>
<P>(vii) Risk analysis and documentation demonstrating how risk control measures are implemented to address device system hazards, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis. This documentation must include a detailed description of a protocol (including all procedures and methods) for the continuous monitoring, identification, and handling of genetic mutations and/or novel CMV stains (<I>e.g.,</I> regular review of published literature and annual in silico analysis of target sequences to detect possible primer or probe mismatches). All results of this protocol, including any findings, must be documented.
</P>
<P>(viii) Analytical performance testing that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed documentation of the following analytical performance studies: Limit of detection, upper and lower limits of quantitation, inclusivity, precision, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, carryover, quality control, specimen stability studies, and additional studies as applicable to specimen type and intended use for the device.
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of the CMV strains selected for use in analytical studies, which must be representative of clinically relevant circulating strains.
</P>
<P>(C) Inclusivity study results obtained with a variety of CMV genotypes as applicable to the specific assay target and supplemented by in silico analysis.
</P>
<P>(D) Reproducibility studies that include the testing of three independent production lots.
</P>
<P>(E) Documentation of calibration to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate for the quantification of CMV DNA (<I>e.g.,</I> a recognized consensus standard).
</P>
<P>(F) Documentation of traceability performed each time a new lot of the standardized reference material to which the device is traceable is released, or when the field transitions to a new standardized reference material.
</P>
<P>(ix) Clinical performance testing that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed documentation of device performance data from either a method comparison study with a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate, or results from a prospective clinical study demonstrating clinical validity of the device.
</P>
<P>(B) Data from patient samples, with an acceptable number of the CMV positive samples containing an analyte concentration near the lower limit of quantitation and any clinically relevant decision points.
</P>
<P>(C) The method comparison study must include predefined maximum acceptable differences between the test and comparator method across all primary outcome measures in the clinical study protocol.
</P>
<P>(D) The final release test results for each lot used in the clinical study.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 77450, Sept. 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3181" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3181   Cytomegalovirus nucleic acid detection device for congenital cytomegalovirus infection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cytomegalovirus nucleic acid detection device for congenital cytomegalovirus infection is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the qualitative detection of cytomegalovirus DNA in clinical samples from newborn babies to aid in the diagnosis of congenital cytomegalovirus infection. Negative results do not preclude infection and should not be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions. Positive results should be interpreted with consideration of other clinical information and laboratory findings and should not be used as the sole basis for treatment or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use with a detailed description of what the device detects, the type of results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) to be tested.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed device description, including all device components, instrument requirements, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and an explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for specimen processing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance characteristics from analytical and clinical studies required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and criteria for validity of results.
</P>
<P>(v) A limiting statement that device results are not intended to be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(vi) As applicable, a limiting statement and specific sample collection recommendations to indicate that breast milk can result in false positive results for saliva samples if samples are collected less than 1 hour after breastfeeding. Sample collection a minimum of 1 hour from breastfeeding must be recommended.
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed instructions for use that minimize the risk of generating a false result.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description documentation, including methodology from obtaining sample to result, design of primer/probe sequences, rationale for sequence selection, and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies including characterization of the cutoff, analytical sensitivity (limit of detection), inclusivity, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, instrument and method carryover/cross contamination, and sample stability and handling.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation from a clinical study documenting sensitivity and specificity of the device; if the number of positive samples in the clinical study is insufficient to properly estimate device sensitivity, additional pre-selected positive samples must be evaluated to supplement the study. Clinical study subjects must be consistent with the intended use population (<I>i.e.,</I> infants younger than 21 days of age), and device results must be compared to FDA-accepted comparator methods. Documentation from the clinical study must include the clinical study protocol, the clinical study report, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation for device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19636, May 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3183" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3183   Quantitative viral nucleic acid test for transplant patient management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A quantitative viral nucleic acid test for transplant patient management is identified as a device intended for prescription use in the detection of viral pathogens by measurement of viral DNA or RNA using specified specimen processing, amplification, and detection instrumentation. The test is intended for use as an aid in the management of transplant patients with active viral infection or at risk for developing viral infections. The test results are intended to be interpreted by qualified healthcare professionals in conjunction with other relevant clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement that the device is not intended for use as a donor screening test for the presence of viral nucleic acid in blood or blood products.
</P>
<P>(ii) Limitations which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice. These limitations must include, but are not limited to, statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) Test results are to be interpreted by qualified licensed healthcare professionals in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other relevant laboratory results; and
</P>
<P>(B) Negative test results do not preclude viral infection or tissue invasive viral disease and that test results must not be the sole basis for patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be provided and include specific warnings regarding the potential for variability in viral load measurement when samples are measured by different devices. Warnings must include the following statement, where applicable: “Due to the potential for variability in [analyte] measurements across different [analyte] assays, it is recommended that the same device be used for the quantitation of [analyte] when managing individual patients.”
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures for assay performance.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of the device description, including all parts that make up the device, ancillary reagents required for use with the assay but not provided, an explanation of the methodology, design of the primer/probe sequences, rationale for the selected gene target, and specifications for amplicon size, guanine-cytosine content, and degree of nucleic acid sequence conservation. The design and nature of all primary, secondary and tertiary quantitation standards used for calibration must also be described.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation and characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> determination of the identity, supplier, purity, and stability) of all critical reagents and protocols for maintaining product integrity throughout its labeled shelf-life.
</P>
<P>(iv) Stability data for reagents provided with the device and indicated specimen types, in addition to the basis for the stability acceptance criteria at all time points chosen across the spectrum of the device's indicated life cycle, which must include a time point at the end of shelf life.
</P>
<P>(v) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(vi) Final lot release criteria along with documentation of an appropriate justification that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims.
</P>
<P>(vii) Risk analysis and documentation demonstrating how risk control measures are implemented to address device system hazards, such as Failure Mode Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis. This documentation must include a detailed description of a protocol (including all procedures and methods) for the continuous monitoring, identification, and handling of genetic mutations and/or novel viral stains (<I>e.g.,</I> regular review of published literature and annual in silico analysis of target sequences to detect possible primer or probe mismatches). All results of this protocol, including any findings, must be documented.
</P>
<P>(viii) Analytical performance testing that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed documentation of the following analytical performance studies: limit of detection, upper and lower limits of quantitation, inclusivity, precision, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, carry-over, quality control, specimen stability studies, and additional studies as applicable to specimen type and intended use for the device;
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of the viral strains selected for use in analytical studies, which must be representative of clinically relevant circulating strains;
</P>
<P>(C) Inclusivity study results obtained with a variety of viral genotypes as applicable to the specific assay target and supplemented by in silico analysis;
</P>
<P>(D) Reproducibility studies that include the testing of three independent production lots;
</P>
<P>(E) Documentation of calibration to a reference standard that FDA has determined is appropriate for the quantification of viral DNA or RNA (<I>e.g.,</I> a recognized consensus standard); and
</P>
<P>(F) Documentation of traceability performed each time a new lot of the standardized reference material to which the device is traceable is released, or when the field transitions to a new standardized reference material.
</P>
<P>(ix) Clinical performance testing that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed documentation from either a method comparison study with a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate, or results from a prospective clinical study demonstrating clinical validity of the device;
</P>
<P>(B) Data from patient samples, with an acceptable number of the virus-positive samples containing an analyte concentration near the lower limit of quantitation and any clinically relevant decision points. If an acceptable number of virus-positive samples containing an analyte concentration near the lower limit of quantitation and any clinically relevant decision cannot be obtained, contrived samples may be used to supplement sample numbers when appropriate, as determined by FDA;
</P>
<P>(C) The method comparison study must include predefined maximum acceptable differences between the test and comparator method across all primary outcome measures in the clinical study protocol; and
</P>
<P>(D) The final release test results for each lot used in the clinical study.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 75954, Sept. 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3200   <E T="7462">Echinococcus</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Echinococcus</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of <I>Echinococcus</I> spp. antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Echinococcus</I> spp. in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of echinococcosis, caused by parasitic tapeworms belonging to the genus <I>Echinococcus</I> and provides epidemiological information on this disease. Echinococcosis is characterized by the development of cysts in the liver, lung, kidneys, and other organs formed by the larva of the infecting organisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3205" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3205   Echovirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Echovirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to echovirus in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of echovirus antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye used to identify echoviruses from clinical specimens or from tissue culture isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of echovirus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Echoviruses cause illnesses such as meningitis (inflammation of the brain and spinal cord membranes), febrile illnesses (accompanied by fever) with or without rash, and the common cold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3210   Endotoxin assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endotoxin assay is a device that uses serological techniques in whole blood. The device is intended for use in conjunction with other laboratory findings and clinical assessment of the patient to aid in the risk assessment of critically ill patients for progression to severe sepsis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Endotoxin Assay.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 62008, Oct. 31, 2003. Redesignated at 70 FR 53069, Sept. 7, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3215" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3215   Device to detect and measure non-microbial analyte(s) in human clinical specimens to aid in assessment of patients with suspected sepsis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and measure non-microbial analyte(s) in human clinical specimens to aid in assessment of patients with suspected sepsis is identified as an in vitro device intended for the detection and qualitative and/or quantitative measurement of one or more non-microbial analytes in human clinical specimens to aid in the assessment of patients with suspected sepsis when used in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the device's detailed Indications for Use statement describing what the device detects and measures, the results provided to the user, whether the measure is qualitative and/or quantitative, the clinical indications for which the test is to be used, and the specific population(s) for which the device use is intended.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation of the device description, including (as applicable), all device components, software, ancillary reagents required but not provided, explanation of the device principle and methodology, and for molecular devices include detailed documentation of the primer/probe sequence, design, and rationale for sequence selection.
</P>
<P>(3) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation of applicable analytical studies, such as, analytical sensitivity (Limit of Detection, Limit of Blank, and Limit of Quantitation), precision, reproducibility, analytical measuring range, interference, cross-reactivity, and specimen stability.
</P>
<P>(4) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation of a prospective clinical study or, if appropriate, results from an equivalent sample set. This detailed documentation must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Results must demonstrate adequate device performance relative to a well-accepted comparator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical sample results must demonstrate consistency of device output throughout the device measuring range likely to be encountered in the Intended Use population.
</P>
<P>(iii) Clinical study documentation must include the original study protocol (including predefined statistical analysis plan), study report documenting support for the Indications for Use(s), and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(5) Premarket notification submissions must include evaluation of the level of the non-microbial analyte in asymptomatic patients with demographic characteristics (<I>e.g.,</I> age, racial, ethnic, and gender distribution) similar to the Intended Use population.
</P>
<P>(6) As part of the risk management activities performed under 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development, you must document an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of failure to correctly operate the instrument.
</P>
<P>(7) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be included in the device's 21 CFR 809.10(b)(9) compliant labeling, and a detailed explanation of the interpretation of the limitations of the samples (<I>e.g.,</I> collected on day of diagnosis) must be included in the device's 21 CFR 809.10(b)(10) compliant labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 49099, Oct. 24, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3220   <E T="7462">Entamoeba histolytica</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Entamoeba histolytica</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Entamoeba histolytica</I> in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Entamoeba histolytica</I> directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of amebiasis caused by the microscopic protozoan parasite <I>Entamoeba histolytica</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by this parasite. The parasite may invade the skin, liver, intestines, lungs, and diaphragm, causing disease conditions such as indolent ulcers, an amebic hepatitis, amebic dysentery, and pulmonary lesions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982; 47 FR 56846, Dec. 21, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3225   Enterovirus nucleic acid assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An enterovirus nucleic acid assay is a device that consists of primers, probes, enzymes, and controls for the amplification and detection of enterovirus ribonucleic acid (RNA) in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with meningitis or meningoencephalitis. The detection of enterovirus RNA, in conjunction with other laboratory tests, aids in the clinical laboratory diagnosis of viral meningitis caused by enterovirus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Nucleic Acid Amplification Assay for the Detection of Enterovirus RNA.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 8, Jan. 2, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3230   Device to detect and measure non-microbial analytes to aid in the detection and identification of localized human infections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and measure non-microbial analytes to aid in the detection and identification of localized human infections is identified as an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and qualitative measurement, quantitative measurement, or both of one or more non-microbial analytes in human clinical specimens to aid in the assessment, identification, or both of a localized microbial infection when used in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of human specimens; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use with a detailed description of what the device detects and measures, the type of results provided to the user, the sample type, whether the measure is qualitative and/or quantitative, the clinical indications for the test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the performance characteristics of the device for all intended specimen types from the analytical and clinical studies (as applicable) required under paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results, including acceptance criteria for evaluating the validity of individual runs (<I>e.g.,</I> assessment of internal and/or external quality controls, as applicable).
</P>
<P>(iv) The following limiting statements:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a negative test result does not preclude the possibility of infection;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the test results should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data available to the clinician;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that consistent device performance is dependent on adequate specimen collection, transport, storage, and processing. Failure to observe proper procedures in any one of these steps can lead to incorrect results; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that details any limitations associated with the samples, as appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> collected on the day of admission to the intensive care unit).
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including as appropriate, all device parts; control elements incorporated into the test procedure; instrument requirements; reagents required but not provided; and the principle of device operation and test methodology, including all preanalytical methods for the processing of specimens and the methodology from obtaining a sample to the result; design of primer/probe sequences; rationale for target analyte selection; and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies including analytical sensitivity (Limit of Detection, Limit of Quantitation, and Limit of Blank), inclusivity, cross-reactivity, microbial interference, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover/cross-contamination, specimen stability, within-lab precision, reproducibility, and linearity, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation and results either from a clinical study, that includes prospective (sequentially collected) samples for each intended specimen type that are representative of the intended use populations and, when determined to be acceptable by FDA, additional characterized clinical samples; or, when determined to be acceptable by FDA, an equivalent sample set. The clinical study must compare the device performance to results obtained from an FDA-accepted reference method and/or FDA-accepted comparator method, as appropriate. Documentation from the clinical studies must include the clinical study protocol (<I>e.g.,</I> the predefined statistical analysis plan), clinical study report, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(iv) An evaluation of the level of the non-microbial analyte in asymptomatic patients with demographic characteristics (<I>e.g.,</I> age, racial, ethnic, and sex distribution) similar to the intended use population of the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Documentation of an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of efforts to mitigate the risks of false results, failure to operate the device correctly, and failure to interpret test results correctly.
</P>
<P>(vi) An appropriate risk mitigation strategy to ensure that the device does not prevent any other device(s) with which it is indicated for use, including incorporated device(s), from achieving their intended use (<I>e.g.,</I> safety and effectiveness of the functions of the indicated device(s) remain unaffected).
</P>
<P>(vii) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19643, May 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3231" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3231   Device to detect bacterial protease activity in chronic wound fluid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect bacterial protease activity in chronic wound fluid is a lateral flow prescription in vitro diagnostic device that may include a sterile swab. The device is intended for use in patients as an aid in assessing the risk for non-healing of chronic venous, diabetic foot, and pressure ulcers associated with wounds where there are no signs of wound infection and where patients are asymptomatic for clinical signs of infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any swab used to collect a patient specimen must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of wound fluid specimens; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use that includes the following statements:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the device detects and measures bacterial proteases from a swab saturated with wound fluid.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the device provides a qualitative output to aid the user in assessing the risk for non-healing of wounds (<I>e.g.,</I> chronic venous, diabetic foot and pressure ulcers).
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the clinical indications for test use.
</P>
<P>(D) The specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the recommended training (<I>e.g.,</I> knowledge and experience) for safe and effective use of the device and to minimize the risks of incorrect results and misinterpretation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the performance characteristics of the device from the analytical and clinical studies required under paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results.
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning statement describing situations where the device has not been validated or may not perform as identified in the labeling (<I>e.g.,</I> not for use with wounds which are ≥6 months of age and ≥1 cm
<SU>2</SU> in size).
</P>
<P>(v) The following limiting statements:
</P>
<P>(A) That the device is not intended to provide a risk assessment of chronic wound infection status or aid in the diagnosis of infection in chronic wounds, nor is the device intended for monitoring the effectiveness of anti-infective therapy.
</P>
<P>(B) That a negative result does not exclude the presence of bacterial proteases. Therefore, the results should be used in conjunction with clinical findings to make an accurate assessment of risk of nonhealing. The test result should be interpreted in conjunction with other risk factors, along with clinical and laboratory data available to the clinician.
</P>
<P>(C) That the device has been validated using wound fluid samples only. Other sample types (<I>e.g.,</I> whole blood from venous or capillary draws, other body fluids) have not been evaluated.
</P>
<P>(D) That skin flora may secrete bacterial proteases therefore, swab contact with intact skin should be avoided as this may yield false positive results.
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must include a brief reference sheet for healthcare professionals that includes the intended use, summary of clinical performance, results from analytical testing on normal skin and human proteases, and warning and limiting statements.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description (<I>e.g.,</I> all device parts, control elements incorporated into the test procedure, reagents required but not provided, and the principle of device operation and test methodology).
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation and results from analytical studies, including the limit of detection, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, microbial interference, analytical sensitivity for normal skin flora and human proteases, interfering substances, specimen stability, within-lab precision, and reproducibility.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation and results from a clinical study that includes prospective (sequentially collected) samples for the intended specimen type that are representative of the intended use population(s). The clinical study must compare the device performance to results obtained from a reference or comparator method that FDA has determined is appropriate.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 23282, June 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3235" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3235   Epstein-Barr virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Epstein-Barr virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of Epstein-Barr virus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Epstein-Barr viruses are thought to cause infectious mononucleosis and have been associated with Burkitt's lymphoma (a tumor of the jaw in African children and young adults) and postnasal carcinoma (cancer).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3236" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3236   Device to detect or measure nucleic acid from viruses associated with head and neck cancers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect or measure nucleic acid from viruses associated with head and neck cancers is an in vitro diagnostic test for prescription use in the detection of viral nucleic acid in nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal cellular specimens from patients with signs and symptoms of head and neck cancer. The test result is intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical information to aid in assessing the clinical status of virus-associated head and neck cancers and/or the likelihood that head and neck cancer is present.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any device used for specimen collection and transport must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of human specimens; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include, as determined to be appropriate by FDA:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use statement that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The analyte(s) detected by the device;
</P>
<P>(B) Data output of the device (qualitative, semiquantitative, or quantitative);
</P>
<P>(C) The specimen types with which the device is intended for use;
</P>
<P>(D) The clinical indications appropriate for test use (<I>e.g.,</I> in conjunction with endoscopy);
</P>
<P>(E) The intended use populations (<I>e.g.,</I> signs and symptoms, ethnicity); and
</P>
<P>(F) The intended use location(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> specific name and location of testing facility or facilities).
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, specimen collection and transport devices, controls, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results.
</P>
<P>(iv) Limiting statements indicating:
</P>
<P>(A) The device is not intended for use in screening for head and neck cancer in asymptomatic populations.
</P>
<P>(B) Results of the device are not predictive of a patient's future risk of head and neck cancer.
</P>
<P>(C) Patients who test negative for the virus should be managed in accordance with the standard of care, based on the assessment of endoscopy and/or other clinical information by a licensed healthcare professional.
</P>
<P>(D) Results of the device are not intended to be used as the sole basis for determining the need for biopsy or for any other patient management decision.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description including pre-analytical specimen processing, assay technology, target region, primer/probe sequences, reagents, controls, instrument requirements, and the computational path from collected raw data to reported result.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation and results from analytical performance studies, including characterization of the cutoff(s), limit of detection, limit of quantitation, precision (including multisite reproducibility, if applicable), inclusivity, cross-reactivity, interference, carryover/cross-contamination, reagent stability, and specimen/sample stability, as determined to be appropriate by FDA.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of a clinical performance study that includes patients from the intended use population, including the clinical study protocol, with a predefined statistical analysis plan, and a clinical study report with testing results and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and software incorporated in hardware-based devices, on the device's functions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 75493, Sept. 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3240   Equine encephalomyelitis virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Equine encephalomyelitis virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antobodies to equine encephalomyelitis virus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by equine encephalomyelitis viruses and provides epidemiological information on these viruses. Equine encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted to humans by the bite of insects, such as mosquitos and ticks, and may cause encephalitis (inflammation of the brain), rash, acute arthritis, or hepatitis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3250   <E T="7462">Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae</I> from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by this bacterium belonging to the genus <I>Erysipelothrix.</I> This organism is responsible for a variety of inflammations of the skin following skin abrasions from contact with fish, shellfish, or poultry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3255" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3255   <E T="7462">Escherichia coli</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Escherichia coli</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Escherichia coli</I> from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of <I>Escherichia coli</I> antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye used to identify <I>Escherichia coli</I> directly from clinical specimens or cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by this bacterium belonging to the genus <I>Escherichia,</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by this microorganism. Although <I>Escherichia coli</I> constitutes the greater part of the microorganisms found in the intestinal tract in humans and is usually nonpathogenic, those strains which are pathogenic may cause urinary tract infections or epidemic diarrheal disease, especially in children.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38791, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3270   <E T="7462">Flavobacterium</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Flavobacterium</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Flavobacteriuim</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Flavobacterium</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms. Most members of this genus are found in soil and water and, under certain conditions, may become pathogenic to humans. <I>Flavobacterium meningosepticum</I> is highly virulent for the newborn, in whom it may cause epidemics of septicemia (blood poisoning) and meningitis (inflammation of the membranes of the brain) and is usually attributable to contaminated hospital equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25046, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3280   <E T="7462">Francisella tularensis</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Francisella tularensis</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Francisella tularensis</I> in serum or to identify <I>Francisella tularensis</I> in cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Francisella tularensis</I> directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of tularemia caused by <I>Francisella tularensis</I> and provides epidemiological information on this disease. Tularemia is a desease principally of rodents, but may be transmitted to humans through handling of infected animals, animal products, or by the bites of fleas and ticks. The disease takes on several forms depending upon the site of infection, such as skin lesions, lymph node enlargements, or pulmonary infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3290   Gonococcal antibody test (GAT).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gonococcal antibody test (GAT) is an in vitro device that consists of the reagents intended to identify by immunochemical techniques, such as latex agglutination, indirect fluorescent antibody, or radioimmunoassay, antibodies to <I>Neisseria gonorrhoeae</I> in sera of asymptomatic females at low risk of infection. Identification of antibodies with this device may indicate past or present infection of the patient with <I>Neisseria gonorrhoeae.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval) (transitional device).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 866.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17734, May 11, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3300   <E T="7462">Haemophilus</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Haemophilus</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera, including antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye, that are used in serological tests to identify <I>Haemophilus</I> spp. directly from clinical specimens or tissue culture isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Haemophilus</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases cause by these microorganisms. Diseases most often caused by <I>Haemophilus</I> spp. include pneumonia, pharyngitis, sinusitis, vaginitis, chancroid venereal disease, and a contagious form of conjunctivitis (inflammation of eyelid membranes).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59226, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3305" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3305   Herpes simplex virus serological assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Herpes simplex virus serological assays are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in various serological tests to identify antibodies to herpes simplex virus in serum. Additionally, some of the assays consist of herpes simplex virus antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent assays) used to identify herpes simplex virus directly from clinical specimens or tissue culture isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by herpes simplex viruses and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Herpes simplex viral infections range from common and mild lesions of the skin and mucous membranes to a severe form of encephalitis (inflammation of the brain). Neonatal herpes virus infections range from a mild infection to a severe generalized disease with a fatal outcome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is classified as class II (special controls). The special control for the device is FDA's revised guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Herpes Simplex Virus Types 1 and 2 Serological Assays.” For availability of the guidance revised document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 15830, Apr. 3, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 42775, Aug. 25, 2009; 76 FR 48717, Aug. 9, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3307" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3307   Herpes simplex virus nucleic acid-based assay for central nervous system infections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A herpes simplex virus nucleic acid-based assay for central nervous system infections is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and differentiation of HSV-1 and HSV-2 in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples from patients suspected of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infections of the central nervous system (CNS). This test is intended as an aid in the diagnosis of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections of the CNS. Negative results do not preclude HSV-1 or HSV-2 infection and should not be used as the sole basis for treatment or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation for the device description, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including primer design and selection.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation from the following analytical and clinical performance studies: Analytical sensitivity (limit of detection), reactivity, inclusivity, precision, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, carryover, and cross contamination. Documentation must include reagent and sample stability recommendations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation from a clinical study. The study, performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population, must compare the device performance to the results of two polymerase chain reaction methods followed by bidirectional sequencing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation of an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of efforts to mitigate the risk of failure to correctly operate the instrument.
</P>
<P>(v) Quality assurance protocols and detailed documentation for device software, including standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(ii) A limiting statement indicating that negative results do not preclude HSV-1 or HSV-2 infection and should not be used as the sole basis for treatment or other patient management decisions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 27235, June 26, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3309" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3309   Herpes virus nucleic acid-based cutaneous and mucocutaneous lesion panel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A herpes virus nucleic acid-based cutaneous and mucocutaneous lesion panel is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended for the simultaneous detection and differentiation of different herpes viruses in cutaneous and mucocutaneous lesion samples from symptomatic patients suspected of Herpetic infections. Negative results do not preclude infection and should not be used as the sole basis for treatment or other patient management decisions. The assay is not intended for use in cerebrospinal fluid samples.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation for the device description, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology including primer design and selection.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from the following analytical and clinical performance studies: Analytical sensitivity (Limit of Detection), reactivity, inclusivity, precision, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, carry-over, and cross contamination.
</P>
<P>(3) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation of a clinical study using lesion samples in which Herpes Simplex Virus 1, Herpes Simplex Virus 2, or Varicella Zoster Virus DNA detection was requested. The study must compare the device performance to an appropriate well established reference method.
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be included in the device's 21 CFR 809.10(b)(9) compliant labeling.
</P>
<P>(5) The device labeling must include a limitation statement that reads: “The device is not intended for use with cerebrospinal fluid or to aid in the diagnosis of HSV or VZV infections of the central nervous system (CNS).”
</P>
<P>(6) Premarket notification submissions must include quality assurance protocols and a detailed documentation for device software, including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(7) The risk management activities performed as part of the manufacturer's 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development activities must document an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of efforts to mitigate the risk of failure to correctly operate the instrument.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52314, Oct. 17, 2018, as amended at 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3310   Hepatitis A virus (HAV) serological assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> HAV serological assays are devices that consist of antigens and antisera for the detection of hepatitis A virus-specific IgM, IgG, or total antibodies (IgM and IgG), in human serum or plasma. These devices are used for testing specimens from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with acute hepatitis to determine if an individual has been previously infected with HAV, or as an aid to identify HAV-susceptible individuals. The detection of these antibodies aids in the clinical laboratory diagnosis of an acute or past infection by HAV in conjunction with other clinical laboratory findings. These devices are not intended for screening blood or solid or soft tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is “Guidance for Industry and FDA Staff: Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Hepatitis A Virus Serological Assays.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6679, Feb. 9, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3320   <E T="7462">Histoplasma capsulatum</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Histoplasma capsulatum</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Histoplasma capsulatum</I> in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of <I>Histoplasma capsulatum</I> antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Histoplasma capsulatum</I> from clinical specimens or cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of histoplasmosis caused by this fungus belonging to the genus <I>Histoplasma</I> and provides epidemiological information on the diseases caused by this fungus. Histoplasmosis usually is a mild and often asymptomatic respiratory infection, but in a small number of infected individuals the lesions may spread to practically all tissues and organs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3328" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3328   Influenza virus antigen detection test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An influenza virus antigen detection test system is a device intended for the qualitative detection of influenza viral antigens directly from clinical specimens in patients with signs and symptoms of respiratory infection. The test aids in the diagnosis of influenza infection and provides epidemiological information on influenza. Due to the propensity of the virus to mutate, new strains emerge over time which may potentially affect the performance of these devices. Because influenza is highly contagious and may lead to an acute respiratory tract infection causing severe illness and even death, the accuracy of these devices has serious public health implications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device's sensitivity and specificity performance characteristics or positive percent agreement and negative percent agreement, for each specimen type claimed in the intended use of the device, must meet one of the following two minimum clinical performance criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) For devices evaluated as compared to an FDA-cleared nucleic acid based-test or other currently appropriate and FDA accepted comparator method other than correctly performed viral culture method:
</P>
<P>(A) The positive percent agreement estimate for the device when testing for influenza A and influenza B must be at the point estimate of at least 80 percent with a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval that is greater than or equal to 70 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) The negative percent agreement estimate for the device when testing for influenza A and influenza B must be at the point estimate of at least 95 percent with a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval that is greater than or equal to 90 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices evaluated as compared to correctly performed viral culture method as the comparator method:
</P>
<P>(A) The sensitivity estimate for the device when testing for influenza A must be at the point estimate of at least 90 percent with a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval that is greater than or equal to 80 percent. The sensitivity estimate for the device when testing for influenza B must be at the point estimate of at least 80 percent with a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval that is greater than or equal to 70 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) The specificity estimate for the device when testing for influenza A and influenza B must be at the point estimate of at least 95 percent with a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval that is greater than or equal to 90 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When performing testing to demonstrate the device meets the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a currently appropriate and FDA accepted comparator method must be used to establish assay performance in clinical studies.
</P>
<P>(3) Annual analytical reactivity testing of the device must be performed with contemporary influenza strains. This annual analytical reactivity testing must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate strains to be tested will be identified by FDA in consultation with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and sourced from CDC or an FDA-designated source. If the annual strains are not available from CDC, FDA will identify an alternative source for obtaining the requisite strains.
</P>
<P>(ii) The testing must be conducted according to a standardized protocol considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) By July 31 of each calendar year, the results of the last 3 years of annual analytical reactivity testing must be included as part of the device's labeling. If a device has not been on the market long enough for 3 years of annual analytical reactivity testing to have been conducted since the device received marketing authorization from FDA, then the results of every annual analytical reactivity testing since the device received marketing authorization from FDA must be included. The results must be presented as part of the device's labeling in a tabular format, which includes the detailed information for each virus tested as described in the certificate of authentication, either by:
</P>
<P>(A) Placing the results directly in the device's § 809.10(b) of this chapter compliant labeling that physically accompanies the device in a separate section of the labeling where the analytical reactivity testing data can be found; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the device's label or in other labeling that physically accompanies the device, prominently providing a hyperlink to the manufacturer's public Web site where the analytical reactivity testing data can be found. The manufacturer's home page, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's Web site that discusses the device, must provide a prominently placed hyperlink to the Web page containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access.
</P>
<P>(4) If one of the actions listed at section 564(b)(1)(A)-(D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act occurs with respect to an influenza viral strain, or if the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) determines, under section 319(a) of the Public Health Service Act, that a disease or disorder presents a public health emergency, or that a public health emergency otherwise exists, with respect to an influenza viral strain:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized viral samples are available for test evaluation, the manufacturer must have testing performed on the device with those viral samples in accordance with a standardized protocol considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate. The procedure and location of testing may depend on the nature of the emerging virus.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 60 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized viral samples are available for test evaluation and continuing until 3 years from that date, the results of the influenza emergency analytical reactivity testing, including the detailed information for the virus tested as described in the certificate of authentication, must be included as part of the device's labeling in a tabular format, either by:
</P>
<P>(A) Placing the results directly in the device's § 809.10(b) of this chapter compliant labeling that physically accompanies the device in a separate section of the labeling where analytical reactivity testing data can be found, but separate from the annual analytical reactivity testing results; or
</P>
<P>(B) In a section of the device's label or in other labeling that physically accompanies the device, prominently providing a hyperlink to the manufacturer's public Web site where the analytical reactivity testing data can be found. The manufacturer's home page, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's Web site that discusses the device, must provide a prominently placed hyperlink to the Web page containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 3618, Jan. 12, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3330   Influenza virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Influenza virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to influenza in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of influenza (flu) and provides epidemiological information on influenza. Influenza is an acute respiratory tract disease, which is often epidemic.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3332" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3332   Reagents for detection of specific novel influenza A viruses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Reagents for detection of specific novel influenza A viruses are devices that are intended for use in a nucleic acid amplification test to directly detect specific virus RNA in human respiratory specimens or viral cultures. Detection of specific virus RNA aids in the diagnosis of influenza caused by specific novel influenza A viruses in patients with clinical risk of infection with these viruses, and also aids in the presumptive laboratory identification of specific novel influenza A viruses to provide epidemiological information on influenza. These reagents include primers, probes, and specific influenza A virus controls.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Reagents for Detection of Specific Novel Influenza A Viruses.” See § 866.1(e) for information on obtaining this document.
</P>
<P>(2) The distribution of these devices is limited to laboratories with experienced personnel who have training in standardized molecular testing procedures and expertise in viral diagnosis, and appropriate biosafety equipment and containment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14379, Mar. 22, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3336" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3336   John Cunningham Virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> John Cunningham Virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological assays to identify antibodies to John Cunningham Virus in serum and plasma. The identification aids in the risk stratification for the development of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in multiple sclerosis and Crohn's disease patients undergoing natalizumab therapy. These devices are for adjunctive use, in the context of other clinical risk factors for the development of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guideline document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guideline: John Cunningham Virus Serological Reagents.” For availability of the guideline document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 3740, Jan. 23, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3340   <E T="7462">Klebsiella</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Klebsiella</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera, including antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents), that are used in serological tests to identify <I>Klebsiella</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Klebsiella</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. These organisms can cause serious urinary tract and pulmonary infections, particularly in hospitalized patients.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3350   <E T="7462">Leptospira</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Leptospira</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Leptospira</I> spp. in serum or identify <I>Leptospira</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. Additionally, some of these antisera are conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) and used to identify <I>Leptospira</I> spp. directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of leptospirosis caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Leptospira</I> and provides epidemiological information on this disease. <I>Leptospira</I> infections range from mild fever-producing illnesses to severe liver and kidney involvement producing hemorrhage and dysfunction of these organs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3355" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3355   <E T="7462">Listeria</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Listeria</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Listeria</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of <I>Listeria</I> spp. antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Listeria</I> spp. directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of listeriosis, a disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Listeria,</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms. <I>Listeria monocytogenes,</I> the most common human pathogen of this genus, causes meningitis (inflammation of the brain membranes) and meningoencephalitis (inflammation of the brain and brain membranes) and is often fatal if untreated. A second form of human listeriosis is an intrauterine infection in pregnant women that results in a high mortality rate for infants before or after birth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3360   Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses usually cause a mild cerebral meningitis (inflammation of membranes that envelop the brain) and occasionally a mild pneumonia, but in rare instances may produce severe and even fatal illnesses due to complications from cerebral meningitis and pneumonia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3361" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3361   Mass spectrometer system for clinical use for the identification of microorganisms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mass spectrometer system for clinical use for the identification of microorganisms is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended for the identification of microorganisms cultured from human specimens. The device is comprised of an ionization source, a mass analyzer, and a spectral database. The device is indicated for use in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings to aid in the diagnosis of bacterial and fungal infections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation for device software, including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include database implementation methodology, construction parameters, and quality assurance protocols.
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be included in the device's 21 CFR 809.10(b)(9) compliant labeling.
</P>
<P>(4) As part of the risk management activities performed under 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development, you must document an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of failure to correctly operate the instrument.
</P>
<P>(5) Premarket notification submissions must include details on the appropriate end user device training program that will be offered while marketing the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 49101, Oct. 24, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3365" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3365   Multiplex nucleic acid assay for identification of microorganisms and resistance markers from positive blood cultures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A multiplex nucleic acid assay for identification of microorganisms and resistance markers from positive blood cultures is a qualitative in vitro device intended to simultaneously detect and identify microorganism nucleic acids from blood cultures that test positive by Gram stain or other microbiological stains. The device detects specific nucleic acid sequences for microorganism identification as well as for antimicrobial resistance. This device aids in the diagnosis of bloodstream infections when used in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings. However, the device does not replace traditional methods for culture and susceptibility testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guideline document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Multiplex Nucleic Acid Assay for Identification of Microorganisms and Resistance Markers from Positive Blood Cultures.” For availability of the guideline document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 30154, May 27, 2015]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3367" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3367   Device to detect and identify microbial nucleic acids by FISH in clinical specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and identify microbial nucleic acids by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) in clinical specimens is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and identification of microbial pathogens in specimens collected from patients with signs and symptoms of infection. The device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of human disease in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description documentation, including the device components, instrument requirements, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens, probe sequences, and rationale for probe sequence selection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed description of the fluorophores, signal source, detection mechanism, and method of result interpretation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation from the following analytical studies: analytical sensitivity (Limit of Detection), inclusivity, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, and specimen stability; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation from a clinical study that includes prospective (sequential) samples. The study, performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population, must compare the device performance to results obtained from appropriate and well-accepted comparator methods.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the device is intended to be used in conjunction with clinical history, signs, symptoms, and the results of other diagnostic testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A limitation that negative results do not preclude the possibility of infection.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19638, May 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3370   <E T="7462">Mycobacterium tuberculosis</E> immunofluorescent reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> immunofluorescent reagents are devices that consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye used to identify <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of tuberculosis and provides epidemiological information on this disease. <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> is the common causative organism in human tuberculosis, a chronic infectious disease characterized by formation of tubercles (small rounded nodules) and tissue necrosis (destruction), usually occurring in the lung.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3372" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3372   Nucleic acid-based in vitro diagnostic devices for the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in respiratory specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nucleic acid-based in vitro diagnostic devices for the detection of <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> complex in respiratory specimens are qualitative nucleic acid-based in vitro diagnostic devices intended to detect <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> complex nucleic acids extracted from human respiratory specimens. These devices are non-multiplexed and intended to be used as an aid in the diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis when used in conjunction with clinical and other laboratory findings. These devices do not include devices intended to detect the presence of organism mutations associated with drug resistance. Respiratory specimens may include sputum (induced or expectorated), bronchial specimens (e.g., bronchoalveolar lavage or bronchial aspirate), or tracheal aspirates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Nucleic Acid-Based In Vitro Diagnostic Devices for the Detection of <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> Complex in Respiratory Specimens.” For availability of the guideline document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 31027, May 30, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3373" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3373   Nucleic acid-based in vitro diagnostic devices for the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (MTB-complex) and the genetic mutations associated with MTB-complex antibiotic resistance in respiratory specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nucleic acid-based in vitro diagnostic devices for the detection of <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> complex (MTB-complex) and the genetic mutations associated with MTB-complex antibiotic resistance in respiratory specimens are qualitative nucleic acid-based devices that detect the presence of MTB-complex-associated nucleic acid sequences in respiratory samples. These devices are intended to aid in the diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis and the selection of an initial treatment regimen when used in conjunction with clinical findings and other laboratory results. These devices do not provide confirmation of antibiotic susceptibility since other mechanisms of resistance may exist that may be associated with a lack of clinical response to treatment other than those detected by the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDA document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Nucleic Acid-Based In Vitro Diagnostic Devices for the Detection of <I>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</I> Complex and Genetic Mutations Associated with Antibiotic Resistance in Respiratory Specimens,” which addresses the mitigation of risks specific to the detection of MTB-complex. For availability of the document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<P>(2) The following items, which address the mitigation of risks specific to the detection of the genetic mutations associated with antibiotic resistance of MTB-complex:
</P>
<P>(i) The device must include an external positive assay control as appropriate. Acceptable positive assay controls include MTB-complex isolates containing one or more antibiotic-resistance associated target sequences detected by the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) The device must include internal controls as appropriate. An acceptable internal control may include human nucleic acid co-extracted with MTB-complex containing nucleic acid sequences associated with antibiotic resistance and primers amplifying human housekeeping genes (e.g., RNaseP, β-actin).
</P>
<P>(iii) The device's intended use must include a description of the scope of antibiotic resistance targeted by the assay, i.e., the specific drugs and/or drug classes.
</P>
<P>(iv) The specific performance characteristics section of the device's labeling must include information regarding the specificity of the assay oligonucleotides for detecting mutations associated with antibiotic resistance of MTB-complex, and any information indicating the potential for non-specific binding (e.g., BLAST search).
</P>
<P>(v) In demonstrating device performance you must perform:
</P>
<P>(A) Pre-analytical studies that evaluate:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Frozen samples.</I> If there is use of any frozen samples in the device performance studies, or if there is a device claim for the use of frozen samples for testing, the effect of freezing samples prior to testing and the effect of multiple freeze/thaw cycles on both antibiotic susceptible and antibiotic resistant strains of MTB-complex.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Nucleic acid extraction methods.</I> Extraction methods must parallel those used in devices for the detection of MTB-complex nucleic acid and confirm that the detection of the genetic mutations associated with antibiotic resistance is not affected.
</P>
<P>(B) Analytical studies that analyze:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Limit of Detection.</I> Limit of Detection must be determined in the most challenging matrix (e.g., sputum) claimed for use with the device. The Limit of Detection must be determined using both antibiotic susceptible and antibiotic resistant strains of MTB-complex. The antibiotic resistant strains must be those with well characterized genetic mutations associated with antibiotic resistance.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Analytical Reactivity (Inclusivity).</I> Testing must be conducted to evaluate the ability of the device to detect genetic mutations associated with antibiotic resistance in a diversity of MTB-complex strains. Isolates used in testing must be well characterized. Isolate strain characterization must be determined using standardized reference methods recognized by a reputable scientific body and appropriate to the strain lineage.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Within-Laboratory (Repeatability) Precision Testing.</I> Within-laboratory precision studies, if appropriate, must include at least one antibiotic resistant and one antibiotic susceptible strain of MTB-complex.
</P>
<P>(<I>4) Between Laboratory Reproducibility Testing.</I> The protocol for the reproducibility study may vary slightly depending on the assay format; however, the panel must include at least one antibiotic resistant and one antibiotic susceptible strain of MTB-complex.
</P>
<P>(C) Clinical Studies. Clinical performance of the device must be established by conducting prospective clinical studies that include subjects with culture confirmed active tuberculosis. Studies must attempt to enroll subjects at risk for antibiotic-resistant MTB-complex; however, it may be necessary to include supplemental antibiotic resistant retrospective and contrived samples. Clinical studies must compare device results to both phenotypic drug susceptibility testing and genotypic reference methods. The genotypic reference method must be a polymerase chain reaction based method that uses primers different from those in the experimental device and confirmed by bidirectional sequencing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 63036, Oct. 22, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3375   <E T="7462">Mycoplasma</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Mycoplasma</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Mycoplasma</I> spp. in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of <I>Mycoplasma</I> spp. antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Mycoplasma</I> spp. directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Mycoplasma</I> and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms. <I>Mycoplasma</I> spp. are associated with inflammatory conditions of the urinary and respiratory tracts, the genitals, and the mouth. The effects in humans of infection with <I>Mycoplasma pneumoniae</I> range from inapparent infection to mild or severe upper respiratory disease, ear infection, and bronchial pneumonia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3376" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3376   Device to detect and identify fungal nucleic acids directly in respiratory specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and identify fungal nucleic acids directly in respiratory specimens is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and identification of fungal pathogens in respiratory specimens collected from patients with signs or symptoms and suspicion of fungal infection. The device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of fungal disease in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use must include a detailed description of what the device detects, the type of results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) and testing location(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under 21 CFR 809.10(b) must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including the parts that make up the device, instrument requirements, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics from analytical studies, including analytical sensitivity (Limit of Detection), inclusivity, reproducibility, interference, cross-reactivity, interfering substances, carryover/cross-contamination, and specimen stability.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the device is intended to be used in conjunction with clinical history, signs and symptoms and the results of other diagnostic tests.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of test results and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing.
</P>
<P>(v) A limiting statement that negative results do not preclude the possibility of infection, and should not be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation activities must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance characteristics from clinical studies that include prospective (sequential) samples and, if appropriate, additional characterized samples. The study must be performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population and compare the device performance to results obtained from comparator methods. Documentation from the clinical studies must include the clinical study protocol (including predefined statistical analysis plan), clinical study report, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed device description of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Overall device design including all parts that make up the device and all control elements incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(B) Thorough description of the methodology including, primer/probe sequences, primer/probe design and rationale for target sequence selection.
</P>
<P>(C) Computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported signal and result, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed documentation for device software, including, software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 24968, June 13, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3378" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3378   Clinical mass spectrometry microorganism identification and differentiation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clinical mass spectrometry microorganism identification and differentiation system is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended for the identification and differentiation of microorganisms from processed human specimens. The system acquires, processes, and analyzes spectra to generate data specific to a microorganism(s). The device is indicated for use in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings to aid in the diagnosis of bacterial and fungal infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use statement must include a detailed description of what the device detects, the type of results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended, when applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt with an indication for in vitro diagnostic use.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all device components, control elements incorporated into the test procedure, instrument requirements, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology and all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens, and algorithm used to generate a final result. This must include a description of validated inactivation procedure(s) that are confirmed through a viability testing protocol, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics for all claimed sample types from clinical studies with clinical specimens that include prospective samples and/or, if appropriate, characterized samples.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance characteristics of the device for all claimed sample types based on analytical studies, including limit of detection, inclusivity, reproducibility, interference, cross-reactivity, interfering substances, carryover/cross-contamination, sample stability, and additional studies regarding processed specimen type and intended use claims, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of test results for clinical specimens and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing.
</P>
<P>(4) The device's labeling must include a prominent hyperlink to the manufacturer's website where the manufacturer must make available their most recent version of the device's labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter, which must reflect any changes in the performance characteristics of the device. FDA must have unrestricted access to this website, or manufacturers must provide this information to FDA through an alternative method that is considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any clinical studies must be performed with samples representative of the intended use population and compare the device performance to results obtained from an FDA-accepted reference method and/or FDA-accepted comparator method, as appropriate. Documentation from the clinical studies must include the clinical study protocol (including predefined statistical analysis plan, if applicable), clinical study report, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics for analytical and clinical studies for specific identification processes for the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Bacteria,
</P>
<P>(B) Yeasts,
</P>
<P>(C) Molds,
</P>
<P>(D) Mycobacteria,
</P>
<P>(E) Nocardia,
</P>
<P>(F) Direct sample testing (<I>e.g.,</I> blood culture),
</P>
<P>(G) Antibiotic resistance markers, and
</P>
<P>(H) Select agents (<I>e.g.,</I> pathogens of high consequence).
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation that the manufacturer's risk mitigation strategy ensures that their device does not prevent any device(s) with which it is indicated for use, including incorporated device(s), from achieving their intended use (<I>e.g.,</I> safety and effectiveness of the functions of the indicated device(s) remain unaffected).
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed device description, including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Overall device design, including all device components and all control elements incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(B) Algorithm used to generate a final result from raw data (<I>e.g.,</I> how raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed description of device software, including validation activities and outcomes.
</P>
<P>(D) Acquisition parameters (<I>e.g.,</I> mass range, laser power, laser profile and number of laser shots per profile, raster scan, signal-to-noise threshold) used to generate data specific to a microorganism.
</P>
<P>(E) Implementation methodology, construction parameters, and quality assurance protocols, including the standard operating protocol for generation of reference entries for the device.
</P>
<P>(F) For each claimed microorganism characteristic, a minimum of five reference entries for each organism (including the type strain for microorganism identification), or, if there are fewer reference entries, a clinical and/or technical justification, determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate, for why five reference entries are not needed.
</P>
<P>(G) DNA sequence analysis characterizing all type strains and at least 20 percent of the non-type strains of a species detected by the device, or, if there are fewer strain sequences, then a clinical and/or technical justification, determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate, must be provided for the reduced number of strains sequenced.
</P>
<P>(H) As part of the risk management activities, an appropriate end user device training program, which must be offered as an effort to mitigate the risk of failure from user error.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 24965, June 13, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3380   Mumps virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Mumps virus serological reagents consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to mumps virus in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used in serological tests to identify mumps viruses from tissue culture isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of mumps and provides epidemiological information on mumps. Mumps is an acute contagious disease, particularly in children, characterized by an enlargement of one or both of the parotid glands (glands situated near the ear), although other organs may also be involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2311, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3390   <E T="7462">Neisseria</E> spp. direct serological test reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Neisseria</I> spp. direct serological test reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Neisseria</I> spp. from cultured isolates. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of <I>Neisseria</I> spp. antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) which may be used to detect the presence of <I>Neisseria</I> spp. directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Neisseria,</I> such as epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis, meningococcal disease, and gonorrhea, and also provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these microorganisms. The device does not include products for the detection of gonorrhea in humans by indirect methods, such as detection of antibodies or of oxidase produced by gonococcal organisms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3393" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3393   Device to detect nucleic acids from non-viral microorganism(s) causing sexually transmitted infections and associated resistance marker(s).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect nucleic acids from non-viral microorganism(s) causing sexually transmitted infections and associated resistance marker(s) is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and identification of nucleic acids from non-viral microorganism(s) and their associated resistance markers in clinical specimens collected from patients suspected of sexually transmitted infections. The device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of non-viral sexually transmitted infections in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data. These devices do not provide confirmation of antibiotic susceptibility since mechanisms of resistance may exist that are not detected by the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use for the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a detailed description of targets the device detects, the results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(2) Any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of specimen types claimed by this device; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, all control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed discussion of the performance characteristics of the device for all claimed specimen types based on analytical studies, including Limit of Detection, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, within lab precision, and reproducibility, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed descriptions of the test procedure, the interpretation of test results for clinical specimens, and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Limiting statements indicating that:
</P>
<P>(A) A negative test result does not preclude the possibility of infection;
</P>
<P>(B) The test results should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data available to the clinician;
</P>
<P>(C) Reliable results are dependent on adequate specimen collection, transport, storage, and processing. Failure to observe proper procedures in any one of these steps can lead to incorrect results; and
</P>
<P>(D) If appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, by current well-accepted clinical guidelines, or by published peer reviewed research), that the clinical performance is inferior in a specific clinical subpopulation or for a specific claimed specimen type; and
</P>
<P>(v) If the device is intended to detect antimicrobial resistance markers, limiting statements, as appropriate, indicating that:
</P>
<P>(A) Negative results for claimed resistance markers do not indicate susceptibility of detected microorganisms, as resistance markers not measured by the assay or other potential mechanisms of antibiotic resistance may be present;
</P>
<P>(B) Detection of resistance markers cannot be definitively linked to specific microorganisms and the source of a detected resistance marker may be an organism not detected by the assay, including colonizing flora;
</P>
<P>(C) Detection of antibiotic resistance markers may not correlate with phenotypic gene expression; and
</P>
<P>(D) Therapeutic failure or success cannot be determined based on the assay results, since nucleic acid may persist following appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
</P>
<P>(4) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description documentation, including methodology from obtaining sample to result, design of primer/probe sequences, rationale for target sequence selection, and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies, including, Limit of Detection, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, microbial interference, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, within lab precision, and reproducibility, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation and performance results from a clinical study that includes prospective (sequential) samples for each claimed specimen type and, when determined to be appropriate by FDA, additional characterized clinical samples. The study must be performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population and compare the device performance to results obtained from FDA accepted comparator methods. Documentation from the clinical studies must include the clinical study protocol (including a predefined statistical analysis plan) study report, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19633, May 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3395" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3395   Norovirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Norovirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to detect the presence of norovirus antigens in fecal samples. These devices aid in the diagnosis of norovirus infection in the setting of an individual patient with symptoms of acute gastroenteritis when the individual patient is epidemiologically linked to other patients with symptoms of acute gastroenteritis and/or aid in the identification of norovirus as the etiology of an outbreak of acute gastroenteritis in the setting of epidemiologically linked patients with symptoms of acute gastroenteritis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Norovirus Serological Reagents.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 14274, Mar. 9, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3400   Parainfluenza virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Parainfluenza virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to parainfluenza virus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of parainfluenza virus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Parainfluenza viruses cause a variety of respiratory illnesses ranging from the common cold to pneumonia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3402" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3402   Plasmodium species antigen detection assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>Plasmodium</I> species antigen detection assay is a device that employs antibodies for the detection of specific malaria parasite antigens, including histidine-rich protein-2 (HRP2) specific antigens, and pan malarial antigens in human whole blood. These devices are used for testing specimens from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with malaria infection. The detection of these antigens aids in the clinical laboratory diagnosis of malaria caused by the four malaria species capable of infecting humans: <I>Plasmodium falciparum</I>, <I>Plasmodium vivax</I>, <I>Plasmodium ovale</I>, and <I>Plasmodium malariae</I>, and aids in the differential diagnosis of <I>Plasmodium falciparum</I> infections from other less virulent <I>Plasmodium</I> species. The device is intended for use in conjunction with other clinical laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: <I>Plasmodium</I> species Antigen Detection Assays.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 29054, May 20, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3405" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3405   Poliovirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Poliovirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to poliovirus in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of poliovirus antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify polioviruses from clinical specimens or from tissue culture isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of poliomyelitis (polio) and provides epidemiological information on this disease. Poliomyelitis is an acute infectious disease which in its serious form affects the central nervous system resulting in atrophy (wasting away) of groups of muscles, ending in contraction and permanent deformity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3410   <E T="7462">Proteus</E> spp. (Weil-Felix) serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Proteus</I> spp. (Weil-Felix) serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera, including antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents), derived from the bacterium <I>Proteus vulgaris</I> used in agglutination tests (a specific type of antigen-antibody reaction) for the detection of antibodies to rickettsia (virus-like bacteria) in serum. Test results aid in the diagnosis of diseases caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Rickettsiae</I> and provide epidemiological information on these diseases. Rickettsia are generally transmitted by arthropods (e.g., ticks and mosquitoes) and produce infections in humans characterized by rash and fever (e.g., typhus fever, spotted fever, Q fever, and trench fever).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3415" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3415   <E T="7462">Pseudomonas</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Pseudomonas</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera, including antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents), used to identify <I>Pseudomonas</I> spp. from clinical specimens or from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Pseudomonas. Pseudomonas aeruginosa</I> is a major cause of hospital-acquired infections, and has been associated with urinary tract infections, eye infections, burn and wound infections, blood poisoning, abscesses, and meningitis (inflammation of brain membranes). <I>Pseudomonas pseudomallei</I> causes melioidosis, a chronic pneumonia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3460   Rabiesvirus immunofluorescent reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Rabiesvirus immunofluorescent reagents are devices that consist of rabiesvirus antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye used to identify rabiesvirus in specimens taken from suspected rabid animals. The identification aids in the diagnosis of rabies in patients exposed by animal bites and provides epidemiological information on rabies. Rabies is an acute infectious disease of the central nervous system which, if undiagnosed, may be fatal. The disease is commonly transmitted to humans by a bite from a rabid animal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3470   Reovirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Reovirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to reovirus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of reovirus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Reoviruses are thought to cause only mild respiratory and gastrointestinal illnesses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3480   Respiratory syncytial virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Respiratory syncytial virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to respiratory syncytial virus in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of respiratory syncytial virus antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) and used to identify respiratory syncytial viruses from clinical specimens or from tissue culture isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Respiratory syncytial viruses cause a number of respiratory tract infections, including the common cold, pharyngitis, and infantile bronchopneumonia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3490   Rhinovirus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Rhinovirus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to rhinovirus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of rhinovirus infections and provides epidemiological information on diseases caused by these viruses. Rhinoviruses cause common colds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3500   Rickettsia serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Rickettsia serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to rickettsia in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of rickettsial antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify rickettsia directly from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by virus-like bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Rickettsiae</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Rickettsia are generally transmitted by arthropods (e.g., ticks and mosquitoes) and produce infections in humans characterized by rash and fever (e.g., typhus fever, spotted fever, Q fever, and trench fever).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3510   Rubella virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Rubella virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to rubella virus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of rubella (German measles) or confirmation of a person's immune status from past infections or immunizations and provides epidemiological information on German measles. Newborns infected in the uterus with rubella virus may be born with multiple congenital defects (rubella syndrome).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards': 
</P>
<P>(i) 1/LA6 “Detection and Quantitation of Rubella IgG Antibody: Evaluation and Performance Criteria for Multiple Component Test Products, Speciment Handling, and Use of the Test Products in the Clinical Laboratory, October 1997,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) 1/LA18 “Specifications for Immunological Testing for Infectious Diseases, December 1994,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) D13 “Agglutination Characteristics, Methodology, Limitations, and Clinical Validation, October 1993,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) EP5 “Evaluation of Precision Performance of Clinical Chemistry Devices, February 1999,” and 
</P>
<P>(v) EP10 “Preliminary Evaluation of the Linearity of Quantitive Clinical Laboratory Methods, May 1998,” 
</P>
<P>(2) Centers for Disease Control's: 
</P>
<P>(i) Low Titer Rubella Standard, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reference Panel of Well Characterized Rubella Sera, and 
</P>
<P>(3) World Health Organization's International Rubella Standard. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17734, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3520   Rubeola (measles) virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Rubeola (measles) virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to rubeola virus in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of measles and provides epidemiological information on the disease. Measles is an acute, highly infectious disease of the respiratory and reticuloendothelial tissues, particularly in children, characterized by a confluent and blotchy rash.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3550   <E T="7462">Salmonella</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Salmonella</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Salmonella</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Salmonella</I> spp. directly from clinical specimens or cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of salmonellosis caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Salmonella</I> and provides epidemiological information on this disease. Salmonellosis is characterized by high grade fever (“enteric fever”), severe diarrhea, and cramps.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3600   <E T="7462">Schistosoma</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Schistosoma</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Schistosoma</I> spp. in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of schistosomiasis caused by parasitic flatworms of the genus <I>Schistosoma.</I> Schistosomiasis is characterized by a variety of acute and chronic infections. Acute infection is marked by fever, allergic symptoms, and diarrhea. Chronic effects are usually severe and are caused by fibrous degeneration of tissue around deposited eggs of the parasite in the liver, lungs, and central nervous system. Schistosomes can also cause schistosome dermatitis (e.g., swimmer's itch), a skin disease marked by intense itching.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3630   <E T="7462">Serratia</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Serratia</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify <I>Serratia</I> spp. from cultured isolates. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Serratia</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. <I>Serratia</I> spp. are occasionally associated with gastroenteritis (food poisoning) and wound infections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3660   <E T="7462">Shigella</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Shigella</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera, including antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents), used in serological tests to identify <I>Shigella</I> spp. from cultured isolates. The identification aids in the diagnosis of shigellosis caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Shigella</I> and provides epidemiological information on this disease. Shigellosis is characterized by abdominal pain, cramps, diarrhea, and fever. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3680   <E T="7462">Sporothrix schenckii</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Sporothrix schenckii</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Sporothrix schenckii</I> in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of sporothrichosis caused by a fungus belonging to the genus <I>Sporothrix</I> and provides epidemiological information on this disease. Sporothrichosis is a chronic tumorlike infection primarily of the skin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3700   <E T="7462">Staphylococcus aureus</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Staphylococcus aureus</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify enterotoxin (toxin affecting the intestine) producing staphylococci from cultured isolates. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by this bacterium belonging to the genus <I>Staphylococcus</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Certain strains of <I>Staphylococcus aureus</I> produce an enterotoxin while growing in meat, dairy, or bakery products. After ingestion, this enterotoxin is absorbed in the gut and causes destruction of the intestinal lining (gastroenteritis).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3720   <E T="7462">Streptococcus</E> spp. exoenzyme reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Streptococcus</I> spp. exoenzyme reagents are devices used to identify antibodies to <I>Streptococcus</I> spp. exoenzyme in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of disease caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Streptococcus</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Pathogenic streptococci are associated with infections, such as sore throat, impetigo (an infection characterized by small pustules on the skin), urinary tract infections, rheumatic fever, and kidney disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3740   <E T="7462">Streptococcus</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Streptococcus</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera (excluding streptococcal exoenzyme reagents made from enzymes secreted by streptococci) used in serological tests to identify <I>Streptococcus</I> spp. from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Streptococcus</I> and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Pathogenic streptococci are associated with infections, such as sore throat, impetigo (an infection characterized by small pustules on the skin), urinary tract infections, rheumatic fever, and kidney disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3780   <E T="7462">Toxoplasma gondii</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Toxoplasma gondii</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Toxoplasma gondii</I> in serum. Additionally, some of these reagents consist of antisera conjugated with a fluorescent dye (immunofluorescent reagents) used to identify <I>Toxoplasma gondii</I> from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis caused by the parasitic protozoan <I>Toxoplasma gondii</I> and provides epidemiological information on this disease. Congenital toxoplasmosis is characterized by lesions of the central nervous system, which if undetected and untreated may lead to brain defects, blindness, and death of an unborn fetus. The disease is characterized in children by inflammation of the brain and spinal cord.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.92" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3820   <E T="7462">Treponema pallidum</E> nontreponemal test reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Treponema pallidum</I> nontreponemal test reagents are devices that consist of antigens derived from nontreponemal sources (sources not directly associated with treponemal organisms) and control sera (standardized sera with which test results are compared) used in serological tests to identify reagin, an antibody-like agent, which is produced from the reaction of treponema microorganisms with body tissues. The identification aids in the diagnosis of syphilis caused by microorganisms belonging to the genus <I>Treponema</I> and provides epidemiological information on syphilis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.93" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3830   <E T="7462">Treponema pallidum</E> treponemal test reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Treponema pallidum</I> treponemal test reagents are devices that consist of the antigens, antisera and all control reagents (standardized reagents with which test results are compared) which are derived from treponemal sources and that are used in the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS), the <I>Treponema pallidum</I> immobilization test (T.P.I.), and other treponemal tests used to identify antibodies to <I>Treponema pallidum</I> directly from infecting treponemal organisms in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of syphilis caused by bacteria belonging to the genus <I>Treponema</I> and provides epidemiological information on syphilis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.94" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3850   <E T="7462">Trichinella spiralis</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Trichinella spiralis</I> serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Trichinella spiralis</I> in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of trichinosis caused by parasitic roundworms belonging to the genus <I>Trichinella</I> and provides epidemiological information on trichinosis. Trichinosis is caused by ingestion of undercooked, infested meat, especially pork, and characterized by fever, muscle weakness, and diarrhea.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.95" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3860   <E T="7462">Trichomonas vaginalis</E> nucleic acid assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>Trichomonas vaginalis</I> nucleic acid assay is a device that consists of primers, probes, enzymes, and controls for the amplification and detection of trichomonas nucleic acids in endocervical swabs, vaginal swabs, and female urine specimens, from women symptomatic for vaginitis, cervicitis, or urethritis and/or to aid in the diagnosis of trichomoniasis in asymptomatic women. The detection of trichomonas nucleic acids, in conjunction with other laboratory tests, aids in the clinical laboratory diagnosis of trichomoniasis caused by <I>Trichomonas vaginalis</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are set forth in FDA's guideline document entitled: “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Nucleic Acid Amplification Assays for the Detection of <I>Trichomonas vaginalis;</I> Guideline for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff.” See § 866.1(e) for information on obtaining this document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 46192, Aug. 4, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.96" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3870   <E T="7462">Trypanosoma</E> spp. serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Trypanosoma</I> spp. serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to <I>Trypanosoma</I> spp. in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of trypanosomiasis, a disease caused by parasitic protozoans belonging to the genus <I>Trypanosoma.</I> Trypanosomiasis in adults is a chronic disease characterized by fever, chills, headache, and vomiting. Central nervous system involvement produces typical sleeping sickness syndrome: physical exhaustion, inability to eat, tissue wasting, and eventual death. Chagas disease, an acute form of trypanosomiasis in children, most seriously affects the central nervous system and heart muscle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.97" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3900   Varicella-zoster virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Varicella-zoster virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera used in serological tests to identify antibodies to varicella-zoster in serum. The identification aids in the diagnosis of diseases caused by varicella-zoster viruses and provides epidemiological information on these diseases. Varicella (chicken pox) is a mild, highly infectious disease, chiefly of children. Zoster (shingles) is the recurrent form of the disease, occurring in adults who were previously infected with varicella-zoster viruses. Zoster is the response (characterized by a rash) of the partially immune host to a reactivation of varicella viruses present in latent form in the patient's body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.98" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3920   Assayed quality control material for clinical microbiology assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An assayed quality control material for clinical microbiology assays is a device indicated for use in a test system to estimate test precision or to detect systematic analytical deviations that may arise from reagent or analytical instrument variation. This type of device consists of single or multiple microbiological analytes intended for use with either qualitative or quantitative assays.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed device description documentation and information concerning the composition of the quality control material, including, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Analyte concentration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Expected values;
</P>
<P>(iii) Analyte source;
</P>
<P>(iv) Base matrix;
</P>
<P>(v) Added components;
</P>
<P>(vi) Safety and handling information; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation, including line data as well as detailed study protocols and a statistical analysis plan used to establish performance, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Description of the process for value assignment and validation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the protocol(s) used to establish stability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Line data establishing precision/reproducibility.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where applicable, assessment of matrix effects and any significant differences between the quality control material and typical patient samples in terms of conditions known to cause analytical error or affect assay performance.
</P>
<P>(v) Where applicable, identify or define traceability or relationship to a domestic or international standard reference material and/or method.
</P>
<P>(vi) Where applicable, detailed documentation related to studies for surrogate controls.
</P>
<P>(3) Premarket notification submissions must include an adequate mitigation (e.g., real-time stability program) to the risk of false results due to potential modifications to the assays specified in the device's 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling.
</P>
<P>(4) Your 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The intended use of your 21 CFR 809.10(a)(2) and (b)(2) compliant labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Assayed control material analyte(s);
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the material is intended for quantitative or qualitative assays;
</P>
<P>(C) Stating if the material is a surrogate control; and
</P>
<P>(D) The system(s), instrument(s), or test(s) for which the quality control material is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) The intended use in your 21 CFR 809.10(a)(2) and (b)(2) compliant labeling must include the following statement: “This product is not intended to replace manufacturer controls provided with the device.”
</P>
<P>(iii) A limiting statement that reads “Quality control materials should be used in accordance with local, state, federal regulations, and accreditation requirements.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 34850, July 27, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.99" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3930   <E T="7462">Vibrio cholerae</E> serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification. Vibrio cholerae</I> serological reagents are devices that are used in the agglutination (an antigen-antibody clumping reaction) test to identify <I>Vibrio cholerae</I> from cultured isolates derived from clinical specimens. The identification aids in the diagnosis of cholera caused by the bacterium <I>Vibrio cholerae</I> and provides epidemiological information on cholera. Cholera is an acute infectious disease characterized by severe diarrhea with extreme fluid and electrolyte (salts) depletion, and by vomiting, muscle cramps, and prostration. If untreated, the severe dehydration may lead to shock, renal failure, cardiovascular collapse, and death. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3935" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.100" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3935   Zika virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Zika virus serological reagents are <I>in vitro</I> diagnostic devices that consist of antigens or antibodies for the detection of Zika virus or Zika antibodies in human specimens from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with Zika virus infection and/or epidemiological risk factors. The detection aids in the diagnosis of current or recent Zika virus infection or serological status. Negative results obtained with this test do not preclude the possibility of Zika virus infection, past or present. Positive results should be interpreted with consideration of other clinical information and laboratory findings and should not be used as the sole basis for treatment or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use with a detailed description of what the device detects (Zika IgM antibodies, other Zika antibodies, or Zika antigens), the type of results provided to the user, the specimen type for which testing is indicated (<I>e.g.,</I> serum, whole blood), the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the test is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics from analytical and clinical studies required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and criteria for validity of results (<I>e.g.,</I> criteria that internal or external quality controls must meet in order for a test/test run to be valid, minimum signal strength that the sample has to yield to be interpretable as a valid result).
</P>
<P>(iv) Limiting statements indicating that:
</P>
<P>(A) Results are not intended to be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions. The test results should be interpreted in conjunction with clinical observations, patient history, epidemiological information, and other laboratory evidence.
</P>
<P>(B) Device results are intended to be followed up according to the latest professional guidelines (<I>e.g.,</I> recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) for the diagnosis of Zika virus infection.
</P>
<P>(C) Negative test results do not preclude the possibility of Zika virus infection, past or present.
</P>
<P>(D) Specimens can result in false negative results on the device if collected outside of the appropriate response window for specific Zika virus antigens or antibodies, as determined by scientific evidence (<I>e.g.,</I> for IgM &lt;7 days post symptom onset (pso) or risk of exposure and if collected past 84 days pso).
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed instructions for use that minimize the risk of generating a false positive or false negative result (<I>e.g.,</I> co-testing of other matrices).
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all device parts (<I>e.g.,</I> Zika antigen target, other flavivirus antigen target, capture antibodies), instrument requirements, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and the technological characteristics, including all pre-analytical methods for specimen processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation and results from analytical performance studies including: characterization of the cut-off(s), analytical sensitivity to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> World Health Organization reference standard or the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reference standard), class specificity for human antibodies (<I>e.g.,</I> IgM or IgG), analytical specificity (cross reactivity including cross reactivity to other flaviviruses), interference, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, hook effect (if applicable), matrix equivalency (if applicable), freeze-thaw studies (if applicable), and reproducibility.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation and results from clinical studies, including the clinical study protocol (with a description of the testing algorithm and results interpretation table), detailed clinical study report, including line data of the clinical study results, and other appropriate statistical analysis. The samples used in the clinical study must be collected from subjects representative of the full spectrum of the intended use population (<I>e.g.,</I> endemic and non-endemic regions if both are indicated).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 22633, May 29, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.101" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3940   West Nile virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> West Nile virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antisera for the detection of anti-West Nile virus IgM antibodies, in human serum, from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with viral meningitis/encephalitis. The detection aids in the clinical laboratory diagnosis of viral meningitis/encephalitis caused by West Nile virus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Serological Reagents for the Laboratory Diagnosis of West Nile Virus.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61745, Oct. 30, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3945" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.102" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3945   Dengue virus serological reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Dengue virus serological reagents are devices that consist of antigens and antibodies for the detection of dengue virus and dengue antibodies in individuals who have signs and symptoms of dengue fever or dengue hemorrhagic fever. The detection aids in the clinical laboratory diagnosis of dengue fever or dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by dengue virus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guideline entitled “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Dengue Virus Serological Reagents.” For availability of the guideline document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 31023, May 30, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3946" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.103" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3946   Dengue virus nucleic acid amplification test reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Dengue virus nucleic acid amplification test reagents are devices that consist of primers, probes, enzymes, and controls for the amplification and detection of dengue virus serotypes 1, 2, 3, or 4 from viral ribonucleic acid (RNA) in human serum and plasma from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with dengue (mild or severe). The identification of dengue virus serotypes 1, 2, 3, or 4 in human serum and plasma (sodium citrate) collected from human patients with dengue provides epidemiologic information for surveillance of circulating dengue viruses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guideline entitled “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Dengue Virus Nucleic Acid Amplification Test Reagents.” For availability of the guideline document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 53609, Sept. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.104" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3950   In vitro human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) drug resistance genotype assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The in vitro HIV drug resistance genotype assay is a device that consists of nucleic acid reagent primers and probes together with software for predicting drug resistance/susceptibility based on results obtained with these primers and probes. It is intended for use in detecting HIV genomic mutations that confer resistance to specific antiretroviral drugs, as an aid in monitoring and treating HIV infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: In Vitro HIV Drug Resistance Genotype Assay.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 44382, Aug. 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3955" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.105" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3955   Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) drug resistance genotyping assay using next generation sequencing technology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The HIV drug resistance genotyping assay using next generation sequencing (NGS) technology is a prescription in vitro diagnostic device intended for use in detecting HIV genomic mutations that confer resistance to specific antiretroviral drugs. The device is intended to be used as an aid in monitoring and treating HIV infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use of the device must:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify the analyte (RNA or DNA), the genes in which mutations are detected, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, the sample type, and the specific population(s) for which the device in intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) State that the device in not intended for use as an aid in the diagnosis of infection with HIV or to confirm the presence of HIV infection, or for screening donors of blood, plasma, or human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including but not limited to, all procedures from collection of the patient sample to reporting the final result, all device components, the control elements incorporated into the test procedure, instrument requirements, and reagents required for use but not provided as part of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics from analytical studies and all intended specimen types.
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of specific mutations detected.
</P>
<P>(iv) The name and version of the standardized database used for sequence comparison and results derivation.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of test results, including acceptance criteria for evaluating the validity of a test run.
</P>
<P>(vi) A limitation statement that the device is intended to be used in conjunction with clinical history and other laboratory findings. Results of this test are intended to be interpreted by a physician or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(vii) A limitation statement that lack of detection of drug resistance mutations does not preclude the possibility of genetic mutation.
</P>
<P>(viii) A limitation statement indicating the relevant genetic mutations that are included in the standardized database of HIV genomic sequences used for comparison and results derivation but that are not detected by the test.
</P>
<P>(ix) A limitation statement that detection of a genomic drug resistance mutation may not correlate with phenotypic gene expression.
</P>
<P>(x) A limitation statement that the test does not detect all genetic mutations associated with antiviral drugs.
</P>
<P>(xi) A limitation statement listing the HIV types for which the test is not intended, if any.
</P>
<P>(3) Device verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Design of primer sequences and rationale for sequence selection.
</P>
<P>(ii) Computational path from collected raw data to reported result.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies including, but not limited to, characterization of the cutoff, analytical sensitivity, inclusivity, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, instrument and method carryover/cross contamination, sample stability, and handling for all genomic mutations claimed in the intended use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Precision studies that include all genomic mutations claimed in the intended use.
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed documentation of a multisite clinical study evaluating the sensitivity and specificity of the device. Clinical study subjects must represent the intended use population and device results for all targets claimed in the intended use must be compared to Sanger sequencing or other methods found acceptable by FDA. Drug resistance-associated mutations at or above the 20 percent frequency level must detect the mutations in greater than 90 percent of at least 10 replicates, for each of drug class evaluated.
</P>
<P>(vi) Documentation that variant calling is performed at a level of coverage that supports positive detection of all genomic mutations claimed in the intended use.
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed documentation of limit of detection (LoD) studies in which device performance is evaluated by testing a minimum of 100 HIV-positive clinical samples including samples with analyte concentrations near the clinical decision points and near the LoD.
</P>
<P>(A) The LoD for the device must be determined using a minimum of 10 HIV-1 group M genotypes if applicable. A detection rate at 1 × LoD greater than or equal to 95 percent must be demonstrated for mutations with a frequency greater than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) The LoD of genetic mutations at frequency levels less than 20 percent must be established.
</P>
<P>(viii) A predefined HIV genotyping bioinformatics analysis pipeline (BAP). The BAP must adequately describe the bioinformatic analysis of the sequencing data, including but not limited to read alignment, variant calling, assembly, genotyping, quality control, and final result reporting.
</P>
<P>(ix) A clear description of the selection and use of the standardized database that is used for sequence comparison and results derivation.
</P>
<P>(4) Premarket notification submissions must include the information in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) through (ix) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 7217, Feb. 7, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3956" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.106" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3956   Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) serological diagnostic and/or supplemental test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) serological diagnostic and supplemental tests are prescription devices for the qualitative detection of HIV antigen(s) and/or detection of antibodies against HIV in human body fluids or tissues. The tests are intended for use as an aid in the diagnosis of infection with HIV and are for professional use only. The test results are intended to be interpreted in conjunction with other relevant clinical and laboratory findings. These tests are not intended to be used for monitoring patient status, or for screening donors of blood or blood products, or human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) For all HIV serological diagnostic and supplemental tests
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(A) An intended use that states that the device is not intended for use for screening donors of blood or blood products or HCT/Ps.
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures used for performing the assay.
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and recommended actions to take based on results.
</P>
<P>(D) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and disease presentation and management. The limitations must include, but are not limited to, statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The matrices with which the device has been cleared, and that use of this test kit with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may result in inaccurate test results.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The test is not intended to be used to monitor individuals who are undergoing treatment for HIV infection.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A specimen with a reactive result should be investigated further following current guidelines.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) All test results should be interpreted in conjunction with the individual's clinical presentation, history, and other laboratory results.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A test result that is nonreactive does not exclude the possibility of exposure to or infection with HIV. Nonreactive results in this assay may be due to analyte levels that are below the limit of detection of this assay.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed device description, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and an explanation of the methodology. Additional information appropriate to the technology must be included, such as the amino acid sequence of antigen(s) and design of capture antibodies.
</P>
<P>(B) For devices with assay calibrators, the design of all primary, secondary, and subsequent quantitation standards used for calibration as well as their traceability to a reference material. In addition, analytical testing must be performed following the release of a new lot of the standard material that was used for device clearance, or when there is a transition to a new calibration standard.
</P>
<P>(C) Detailed documentation of analytical performance studies conducted as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including, but not limited to, limit of blank, limit of detection, cutoff determination, precision, endogenous and exogenous interferences, cross reactivity, carryover, quality control, matrix equivalency, and sample and reagent stability. Samples selected for use in analytical studies or used to prepare samples for use in analytical studies must be from subjects with clinically relevant circulating genotypes in the United States.
</P>
<P>(D) Multisite reproducibility study that includes the testing of three independent production lots.
</P>
<P>(E) Analytical sensitivity of the test must be the same as or better than that of other cleared or approved tests. Samples tested must include appropriate numbers and types of samples, including real clinical samples near the lower limit of detection. Analytical specificity of the test must be the same as or better than that of other cleared or approved tests. Samples must include appropriate numbers and types of samples from patients with different underlying illnesses or infections and from patients with potential endogenous interfering substances.
</P>
<P>(F) Detailed documentation of performance from a multisite clinical study. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA-cleared or approved comparator. This study must be conducted using patient samples, with an appropriate number of HIV positive and HIV negative samples in applicable risk categories. Additional subgroups or types must be validated using appropriate numbers and types of samples. The samples may be a combination of fresh and repository samples, sourced from within and outside the United States, as appropriate. The study designs, including number of samples tested, must be sufficient to meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Clinical sensitivity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Clinical specificity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(G) Strategies for detection of new strains, types, subtypes, genotypes, and genetic mutations as they emerge.
</P>
<P>(H) Risk analysis and management strategies, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on test performance.
</P>
<P>(I) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured test lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims.
</P>
<P>(J) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(K) Appropriate and acceptable procedure(s) for evaluating customer complaints and other device information that determines when to submit a medical device report.
</P>
<P>(L) Premarket notification submissions must include the information contained in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) through (K) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacturers must submit a log of all complaints. The log must include the following information regarding each complaint if available: The type of event (<I>e.g.,</I> false negative/false nonreactive or false positive/false reactive), lot, date, population, and whether or not the complaint was reported under part 803 of this chapter (Medical Device Reporting). The log must be submitted annually on the anniversary of clearance for 5 years following clearance of a traditional premarket notification.
</P>
<P>(2) If the test is intended for Point of Care (PoC) use, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The PoC labeling must include a statement that the test is intended for PoC use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The PoC labeling must include the following information near the statement of the intended use:
</P>
<P>(A) That the test is for distribution to clinical laboratories that have an adequate quality assurance program, including planned systematic activities that provide adequate confidence that requirements for quality will be met and where there is assurance that operators will receive and use the instructional materials.
</P>
<P>(B) That the test is for use only by an agent of a clinical laboratory.
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions for individuals to receive the “Subject Information Notice” prior to specimen collection and appropriate information when test results are provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) PoC labeling must include instructions to follow current guidelines for informing the individual of the test result and its interpretation.
</P>
<P>(iv) The instructions in the labeling must state that reactive results are considered preliminary and should be confirmed following current guidelines.
</P>
<P>(v) Device verification and validation for PoC use must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed documentation of performance from a multisite clinical study conducted at appropriate PoC sites. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA cleared or approved comparator. This study must be conducted using patient samples, with appropriate numbers of HIV positive and HIV negative samples in applicable risk categories. Additional subgroup or type claims must be validated using appropriate numbers and types of samples. The samples may be a combination of fresh and repository samples, sourced from within and outside the United States, as appropriate. If the test is intended solely for PoC use, the test must meet only the performance criteria in paragraphs (b)(2)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section and not the criteria in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(F) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Clinical sensitivity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 98 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Clinical specificity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 98 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) Premarket notification submissions must include the information contained in paragraph (b)(2)(v)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the test is intended for supplemental use in addition to use as an aid in initial diagnosis, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include a statement that the test is intended for use as an additional test to confirm the presence of HIV antibodies or antigens in specimens found to be repeatedly reactive by a diagnostic screening test.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device validation and verification for supplemental use must include a clinical study, including samples that were initially reactive and repeatedly reactive on a diagnostic test but were negative or indeterminate on a different confirmatory test. Premarket notification submissions must include this information.
</P>
<P>(4) If the test is intended solely as a supplemental test, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, except those in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(F) and (b)(2)(v)(A) of this section, as appropriate, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include a statement that the test is intended for use as an additional test to confirm the presence of HIV antibodies or antigens in specimens found to be repeatedly reactive by a diagnostic screening test.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling must clearly state that the test is not for use for initial diagnosis or is not intended as a first-line test.
</P>
<P>(iii) Device validation and verification must include a clinical study including samples that were initially reactive and repeatedly reactive on a diagnostic test but were negative or indeterminate on a confirmatory test. Premarket notification submissions must include this information.
</P>
<P>(5) If the test is intended to differentiate different HIV types, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, as appropriate, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include the statement that the test is intended for the confirmation of initial results from a diagnostic test and differentiation of different HIV types.
</P>
<P>(ii) The results interpretation in the labeling must include instructions for the user on how to interpret the results, including un-typeable and co-infection results.
</P>
<P>(iii) Device validation and verification must include evaluation of analytical and clinical sensitivity and specificity for each of the HIV types, strains, and subtypes of HIV intended to be differentiated. Premarket notification submissions must include this information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 29665, May 16, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3957" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.107" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3957   Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) nucleic acid (NAT) diagnostic and/or supplemental test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) nucleic acid (NAT) diagnostic and supplemental tests are prescription devices for the qualitative detection of HIV nucleic acid in human body fluids or tissues. The tests are intended for use as an aid in the diagnosis of infection with HIV and are for professional use only. The test results are intended to be interpreted in conjunction with other relevant clinical and laboratory findings. These tests are not intended to be used for monitoring patient status, or for screening donors of blood or blood products, or human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products (HCT/Ps).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) For all HIV NAT diagnostic and/or supplemental tests
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(A) An intended use that states that the device is not intended for use for screening donors of blood or blood products, or HCT/Ps.
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures used for performing the assay.
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and recommended actions to take based on results.
</P>
<P>(D) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and disease presentation and management. The limitations must include, but are not limited to, statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The matrices with which the device has been cleared, and that use of this test kit with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may result in inaccurate test results.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The test is not intended to be used to monitor individuals who are undergoing treatment for HIV infection.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A specimen with a reactive result should be investigated further following current guidelines.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) All test results should be interpreted in conjunction with the individual's clinical presentation, history, and other laboratory results.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A test result that is nonreactive does not exclude the possibility of exposure to or infection with HIV. Nonreactive results in this assay may be due to analyte levels that are below the limit of detection of this assay.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed device description, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and an explanation of the methodology. Additional information appropriate to the technology must be included, such as design of primers and probes.
</P>
<P>(B) For devices with assay calibrators, the design and nature of all primary, secondary, and subsequent quantitation standards used for calibration as well as their traceability to a reference material. In addition, analytical testing must be performed following the release of a new lot of the standard material that was used for device clearance, or when there is a transition to a new calibration standard.
</P>
<P>(C) Detailed documentation of analytical performance studies conducted as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including, but not limited to, limit of blank, limit of detection, cutoff determination, precision, endogenous and exogenous interferences, cross reactivity, carryover, quality control, matrix equivalency, and sample and reagent stability. Samples selected for use in analytical studies or used to prepare samples for use in analytical studies must be from subjects with clinically relevant circulating genotypes in the United States. The effect of each claimed nucleic-acid isolation and purification procedure on detection must be evaluated.
</P>
<P>(D) Multisite reproducibility study that includes the testing of three independent production lots.
</P>
<P>(E) Analytical sensitivity of the test must be the same as or better than that of other cleared or approved tests. Samples tested must include appropriate numbers and types of samples, including real clinical samples near the lower limit of detection. Analytical specificity of the test must be as the same as or better than that of other cleared or approved tests. Samples must include appropriate numbers and types of samples from patients with different underlying illnesses or infections and from patients with potential endogenous interfering substances.
</P>
<P>(F) Detailed documentation of performance from a multisite clinical study. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA cleared or approved comparator. This study must be conducted using appropriate patient samples, with appropriate numbers of HIV positive and negative samples in applicable risk categories. Additional subtype, strain, or types must be validated using appropriate numbers and types of samples. The samples may be a combination of fresh and repository samples, sourced from within and outside the United States, as appropriate. The study designs, including number of samples tested, must be sufficient to meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Clinical sensitivity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Clinical specificity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(G) Strategies for detection of new strains, types, subtypes, genotypes, and genetic mutations as they emerge.
</P>
<P>(H) Risk analysis and management strategies, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on test performance.
</P>
<P>(I) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured test lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims.
</P>
<P>(J) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(K) Appropriate and acceptable procedure(s) for evaluating customer complaints and other device information that determine when to submit a medical device report.
</P>
<P>(L) Premarket notification submissions must include the information contained in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) through (K) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacturers must submit a log of all complaints. The log must include the following information regarding each complaint, if available: The type of event (<I>e.g.,</I> false negative/false nonreactive or false positive/false reactive), lot, date, population, and whether or not the complaint was reported under part 803 of this chapter (Medical Device Reporting). The log must be submitted annually on the anniversary of clearance for 5 years following clearance of a traditional premarket notification.
</P>
<P>(2) If the test is intended for Point of Care (PoC) use, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The PoC labeling must include a statement that the test is intended for PoC use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The PoC labeling must include the following information near the statement of the intended use:
</P>
<P>(A) That the test is for distribution to clinical laboratories that have an adequate quality assurance program, including planned systematic activities that provide adequate confidence that requirements for quality will be met and where there is assurance that operators will receive and use the instructional materials.
</P>
<P>(B) That the test is for use only by an agent of a clinical laboratory.
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions for individuals to receive the “Subject Information Notice” prior to specimen collection and appropriate information when test results are provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) PoC labeling must include instructions to follow current guidelines for informing the individual of the test result and its interpretation.
</P>
<P>(iv) The instructions in the labeling must state that reactive results are considered preliminary and should be confirmed following current guidelines.
</P>
<P>(v) Device verification and validation for PoC use must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed documentation from a well-conducted multisite clinical study conducted at appropriate PoC sites. Performance must be analyzed relative to an FDA cleared or approved comparator. This study must be conducted using patient samples, with appropriate numbers of HIV positive and HIV negative samples in applicable risk categories. Additional subgroup or type claims must be validated using appropriate numbers and types of samples. The samples may be a combination of fresh and repository samples, sourced from within and outside the United States, as appropriate. If the test is intended solely for PoC use, the test must meet only the performance criteria in paragraphs (b)(2)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section and not the criteria in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(F) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Clinical sensitivity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 98 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Clinical specificity of the test must have a lower bound of the 95 percent confidence interval of greater than or equal to 98 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) Premarket notification submissions must include the information contained in paragraph (b)(2)(v)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the test is intended for supplemental use in addition to use as an aid in initial diagnosis, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include a statement that the test is intended for use as an additional test to confirm the presence of HIV viral nucleic acid in specimens found to be repeatedly reactive by a diagnostic screening test.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device validation and verification for supplemental use must include a clinical study, including samples that were initially reactive and repeatedly reactive on a diagnostic test but were negative or indeterminate on a confirmatory test. Premarket notification submissions must include this information.
</P>
<P>(4) If the test is intended solely as a supplemental test, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, except those in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(F) and (b)(2)(v)(A) of this section, as appropriate, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include a statement that the test is intended for use as an additional test to confirm the presence of HIV viral nucleic acid in specimens found to be repeatedly reactive by a diagnostic screening test.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling must clearly state that the test is not for use for initial diagnosis or is not intended as a first-line test.
</P>
<P>(iii) Device validation and verification must include a clinical study including samples that were initially reactive and repeatedly reactive on a diagnostic test but were negative or indeterminate on a confirmatory test. Premarket notification submissions must include this information.
</P>
<P>(5) If the test is intended to differentiate different HIV types, the following special controls, in addition to those listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, as appropriate, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must include the statement that the test is intended for the confirmation of initial results and differentiation of different HIV types.
</P>
<P>(ii) The results interpretation in the labeling must include instructions for the user on how to interpret the results, including un-typeable and co-infection results.
</P>
<P>(iii) Device validation and verification must include evaluation of analytical and clinical sensitivity and specificity for each of the types, strains, and subtypes of HIV intended to be differentiated. Premarket notification submissions must include this information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 29667, May 16, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3958" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.108" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3958   Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) viral load monitoring test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) viral load monitoring test is an in vitro diagnostic prescription device for the quantitation of the amount of HIV ribonucleic acid (RNA) in human body fluids. The test is intended for use in the clinical management of individuals living with HIV and is for professional use only. The test results are intended to be interpreted in conjunction with other relevant clinical and laboratory findings. The test is not intended to be used as an aid in diagnosis or for screening donors of blood or blood products or human cells, tissues, or cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use that states that the device is not intended for use as an aid in diagnosis or for use in screening donors of blood or blood products, or HCT/Ps.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the principles of operation and procedures used for assay performance.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and that recommended actions should be based on current clinical guidelines.
</P>
<P>(iv) Limitations, which must be updated to reflect current clinical practice and patient management. The limitations must include, but are not limited to, statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) The matrices and sample types with which the device has been cleared and that use of this test with specimen types other than those specifically cleared for this device may cause inaccurate test results.
</P>
<P>(B) Mutations in highly conserved regions may affect binding of primers and/or probes resulting in the under-quantitation of virus or failure to detect the presence of virus.
</P>
<P>(C) All test results should be interpreted in conjunction with the individual's clinical presentation, history, and other laboratory results.
</P>
<P>(2) Device verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed device description, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and an explanation of the device methodology. Additional information appropriate to the technology must be included, such as detailed information on the design of primers and probes.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices with assay calibrators, the design and nature of all primary, secondary, and subsequent quantitation standards used for calibration as well as their traceability to a reference material. In addition, analytical testing must be performed following the release of a new lot of the standard material that was used for device clearance, or when there is a transition to a new calibration standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of analytical performance studies conducted as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including but not limited to, limit of blank, limit of detection, limit of quantitation, cutoff determination, precision, linearity, endogenous and exogenous interferences, cross-reactivity, carry-over, quality control, matrix equivalency, sample and reagent stability. Samples selected for use in analytical studies or used to prepare samples for use in analytical studies must be from subjects with clinically relevant genotypes circulating in the United States.
</P>
<P>(iv) Multisite reproducibility study that includes the testing of three independent production lots.
</P>
<P>(v) Analytical sensitivity of the device must demonstrate acceptable performance at current clinically relevant medical decision points. Samples tested to demonstrate analytical sensitivity must include appropriate numbers and types of samples, including real clinical samples near the lower limit of quantitation and any clinically relevant medical decision points. Analytical specificity of the device must demonstrate acceptable performance. Samples tested to demonstrate analytical specificity must include appropriate numbers and types of samples from patients with different underlying illnesses and infection and from patients with potential interfering substances.
</P>
<P>(vi) Detailed documentation of performance from a multisite clinical study or a multisite analytical method comparison study.
</P>
<P>(A) For devices evaluated in a multisite clinical study, the study must use specimens from individuals living with HIV being monitored for changes in viral load, and the test results must be compared to the clinical status of the patients.
</P>
<P>(B) For tests evaluated in a multisite analytical method comparison study, the performance of the test must be compared to an FDA-cleared or approved comparator. The multisite method comparison study must include appropriate numbers and types of samples with analyte concentrations across the measuring range of the assay, representing clinically relevant genotypes. The multisite method comparison study design, including number of samples tested, must be sufficient to meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Agreement between the two tests across the measuring range of the assays must have an r2 of greater than or equal to 0.95.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bias between the test and comparator assay, as determined by difference plots, must be less than or equal to 0.5 log copies/mL.
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed documentation of a single-site analytical method comparison study between the device and an FDA-cleared or approved comparator if a multisite clinical study is performed under paragraph(b)(2)(vi) of this section. The analytical method comparison study must use appropriate numbers and types of samples with analyte concentrations across the measuring range of the assay, representing clinically relevant genotypes. The results must meet the criteria in paragraphs (b)(2)(vi)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Strategies for detection of new strains, types, subtypes, genotypes, and genetic mutations as they emerge.
</P>
<P>(ix) Risk analysis and management strategies, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points summaries and their impact on test performance.
</P>
<P>(x) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured device lots with an appropriate justification that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims.
</P>
<P>(xi) All stability protocols, including acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(xii) Appropriate and acceptable procedure(s) for addressing complaints and other device information that determines when to submit a medical device report.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Premarket notification submissions must include the information contained in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (xii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 66548, Nov. 4, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.109" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3960   Nucleic acid-based device for the amplification, detection, and identification of microbial pathogens directly from whole blood specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nucleic acid-based device for the amplification, detection, and identification of microbial pathogens directly from whole blood specimens is a qualitative in vitro device intended for the amplification, detection, and identification of microbial-associated nucleic acid sequences from patients with suspected bloodstream infections. This device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of bloodstream infection when used in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed device description documentation, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including primer/probe sequence, design, and rationale for sequence selection.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from the following analytical and clinical performance studies: Analytical sensitivity (limit of detection), reactivity, inclusivity, precision, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, carryover, and cross contamination.
</P>
<P>(3) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from a clinical study. The study, performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population, must compare the device performance to results obtained from well-accepted reference methods.
</P>
<P>(4) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation for device software, including, but not limited to, software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(5) The device labeling must include limitations regarding the need for culture confirmation of negative specimens, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(6) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be included in the device's 21 CFR 809.10(b)(9) compliant labeling.
</P>
<P>(7) Premarket notification submissions must include details on an end user device training program that will be offered while marketing the device, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(8) As part of the risk management activities performed under 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development, you must document an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of failure to correctly operate the instrument.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 47967, Oct. 16, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3966" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.110" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3966   Device to detect and identify selected microbial agents that cause acute febrile illness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and identify selected microbial agents that cause acute febrile illness is identified as an in vitro device intended for the detection and identification of microbial agents in human clinical specimens from patients with signs and symptoms of acute febrile illness who are at risk for exposure or who may have been exposed to these agents. It is intended to aid in the diagnosis of acute febrile illness in conjunction with other clinical, epidemiologic, and laboratory data, including patient travel, pathogen endemicity, or other risk factors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of specimen types claimed by this device; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use that includes a detailed description of targets the device detects and measures, the results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) Limiting statements indicating:
</P>
<P>(A) Not all pathogens that cause febrile illness are detected by this test and negative results do not rule out the presence of other infections;
</P>
<P>(B) Evaluation of more common causes of acute febrile illness should be considered prior to evaluation with this test;
</P>
<P>(C) Test results are to be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical, epidemiologic, and laboratory data available to the clinician; and
</P>
<P>(D) When using this test, consider patient travel history and exposure risk, as some pathogens are more common in certain geographical locations.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, all control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed discussion of the performance characteristics of the device for all claimed specimen types as shown by the analytical and clinical studies required under paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section, except specimen stability performance characteristics.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that nationally notifiable results are to be reported to public health authorities in accordance with local, state, and federal law.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description (<I>e.g.,</I> all device parts, control elements incorporated into the test procedure, reagents required but not provided, the principle of device operation and test methodology), and the computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies, including those demonstrating Limit of Detection (LoD), inclusivity, cross-reactivity, microbial interference, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, within lab precision, and reproducibility, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation and performance results from a clinical study that includes prospective (sequentially collected) samples for each claimed specimen type and, when determined to be appropriate by FDA, additional characterized clinical samples. The study must be performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population and compare the device performance to results obtained from FDA-accepted comparator methods. Documentation from the clinical studies must include the clinical study protocol (including a predefined statistical analysis plan), study report, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 66558, Aug. 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.111" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3970   Device to detect and identify microbial pathogen nucleic acids in cerebrospinal fluid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and identify microbial pathogen nucleic acids in cerebrospinal fluid is a qualitative in vitro device intended for the detection and identification of microbial-associated nucleic acid sequences from patients suspected of meningitis or encephalitis. A device to detect and identify microbial pathogen nucleic acids in cerebrospinal fluid is intended to aid in the diagnosis of meningitis or encephalitis when used in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed device description documentation, including the device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including primer/probe sequence, design, and rationale for sequence selection.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from the following analytical studies: Analytical sensitivity (limit of detection), inclusivity, reproducibility, interference, cross reactivity, and specimen stability.
</P>
<P>(3) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation from a clinical study. The study, performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population, must compare the device performance to results obtained from well-accepted comparator methods.
</P>
<P>(4) Premarket notification submissions must include detailed documentation for device software, including, but not limited to, software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(5) The Intended Use statement in the device labeling must include a statement that the device is intended to be used in conjunction with standard of care culture.
</P>
<P>(6) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria must be included in the device's 21 CFR 809.10(b)(9) compliant labeling.
</P>
<P>(7) The device labeling must include a limitation stating that the negative results do not preclude the possibility of central nervous system infection.
</P>
<P>(8) The device labeling must include a limitation stating that device results are not intended to be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(9) The device labeling must include a limitation stating that positive results do not mean that the organism detected is infectious or is the causative agent for clinical symptoms.
</P>
<P>(10) As part of the risk management activities performed under 21 CFR 820.10(c) design and development, you must document an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of failure to correctly operate the instrument.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 48763, Oct. 20, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3975" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.112" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3975   Device that detects nucleic acid sequences from microorganisms associated with vaginitis and bacterial vaginosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device that detects nucleic acid sequences from microorganisms associated with vaginitis and bacterial vaginosis is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection of microbial nucleic acid sequences in vaginal specimens collected from patients with signs and symptoms of vaginitis or bacterial vaginosis. This device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of vaginitis or bacterial vaginosis when used in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation with a detailed device description of device components; ancillary reagents required but not provided; and explanation of the methodology including primer/probe sequence, design, and rationale for sequence selection.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation with information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Limit of Detection;
</P>
<P>(B) Precision (reproductivity);
</P>
<P>(C) Analytical specificity;
</P>
<P>(D) Analytical reactivity (inclusivity);
</P>
<P>(E) Specimen stability; and
</P>
<P>(F) Effects of interfering substances.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation from a prospective clinical study. As appropriate to the intended use, the prospective clinical study must be performed on an appropriate study population, including women of various ages and ethnicities. The prospective clinical study must compare the device performance to results obtained from well-accepted comparator methods.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation for device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of results and acceptance criteria;
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of nucleic acid sequences from bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, clinical performance stratified by patient demographics such as race, ethnicity, age, and pregnancy status.
</P>
<P>(iii) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of nucleic acid sequences from bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, a summary of device results in an asymptomatic population with demographic characteristics appropriate to the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(iv) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of either Candida species or bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, a limitation that <I>Candida</I> species and bacterial compositions associated with bacterial vaginosis can be present as part of normal vaginal flora and results should be considered in conjunction with available clinical information.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40728, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.113" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3980   Respiratory viral panel multiplex nucleic acid assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A respiratory viral panel multiplex nucleic acid assay is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic device intended to simultaneously detect and identify multiple viral nucleic acids extracted from human respiratory specimens or viral culture. The detection and identification of a specific viral nucleic acid from individuals exhibiting signs and symptoms of respiratory infection aids in the diagnosis of respiratory viral infection when used in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings. The device is intended for detection and identification of a combination of the following viruses:
</P>
<P>(1) Influenza A and Influenza B;
</P>
<P>(2) Influenza A subtype H1 and Influenza A subtype H3;
</P>
<P>(3) Respiratory Syncytial Virus subtype A and Respiratory Syncytial Virus subtype B;
</P>
<P>(4) Parainfluenza 1, Parainfluenza 2, and Parainfluenza 3 virus;
</P>
<P>(5) Human Metapneumovirus;
</P>
<P>(6) Rhinovirus; and
</P>
<P>(7) Adenovirus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Respiratory Viral Panel Multiplex Nucleic Acid Assay;”
</P>
<P>(2) For a device that detects and identifies Human Metapneumovirus, FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Testing for Human Metapneumovirus (hMPV) Using Nucleic Acid Assays;” and
</P>
<P>(3) For a device that detects and differentiates Influenza A subtype H1 and subtype H3, FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Testing for Detection and Differentiation of Influenza A Virus Subtypes Using Multiplex Nucleic Acid Assays.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of these guidance documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 52138, Oct. 9, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3981" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.114" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3981   Device to detect and identify nucleic acid targets in respiratory specimens from microbial agents that cause the SARS-CoV-2 respiratory infection and other microbial agents when in a multi-target test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and identify nucleic acid targets in respiratory specimens from microbial agents that cause the SARS-CoV-2 respiratory infection and other microbial agents when in a multi-target test is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and identification of SARS-CoV-2 and other microbial agents when in a multi-target test in human clinical respiratory specimens from patients suspected of respiratory infection who are at risk for exposure or who may have been exposed to these agents. The device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of respiratory infection in conjunction with other clinical, epidemiologic, and laboratory data or other risk factors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use in the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a description of the following: Analytes and targets the device detects and identifies, the specimen types tested, the results provided to the user, the clinical indications for which the test is to be used, the specific intended population(s), the intended use locations including testing location(s) where the device is to be used (if applicable), and other conditions of use as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of specimen types claimed by this device; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, all control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed descriptions of the performance characteristics of the device for each specimen type claimed in the intended use based on analytical studies including the following, as applicable: Limit of Detection, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, precision, reproducibility, and clinical studies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed descriptions of the test procedure(s), the interpretation of test results for clinical specimens, and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning statement that viral culture should not be attempted in cases of positive results for SARS-CoV-2 and/or any similar microbial agents unless a facility with an appropriate level of laboratory biosafety (<I>e.g.,</I> BSL 3 and BSL 3+, etc.) is available to receive and culture specimens; and
</P>
<P>(v) A prominent statement that device performance has not been established for specimens collected from individuals not identified in the intended use population (<I>e.g.,</I> when applicable, that device performance has not been established in individuals without signs or symptoms of respiratory infection).
</P>
<P>(vi) Limiting statements that indicate that:
</P>
<P>(A) A negative test result does not preclude the possibility of infection;
</P>
<P>(B) The test results should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data available to the clinician;
</P>
<P>(C) There is a risk of incorrect results due to the presence of nucleic acid sequence variants in the targeted pathogens;
</P>
<P>(D) That positive and negative predictive values are highly dependent on prevalence;
</P>
<P>(E) Accurate results are dependent on adequate specimen collection, transport, storage, and processing. Failure to observe proper procedures in any one of these steps can lead to incorrect results; and
</P>
<P>(F) When applicable (<I>e.g.,</I> recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, by current well-accepted clinical guidelines, or by published peer-reviewed literature), that the clinical performance may be affected by testing a specific clinical subpopulation or for a specific claimed specimen type.
</P>
<P>(4) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation, including performance results, from a clinical study that includes prospective (sequential) samples for each claimed specimen type and, as appropriate, additional characterized clinical samples. The clinical study must be performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population and compare the device performance to results obtained using a comparator that FDA has determined is appropriate. Detailed documentation must include the clinical study protocol (including a predefined statistical analysis plan), study report, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk analysis and documentation demonstrating how risk control measures are implemented to address device system hazards, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis. This documentation must include a detailed description of a protocol (including all procedures and methods) for the continuous monitoring, identification, and handling of genetic mutations and/or novel respiratory pathogen isolates or strains (<I>e.g.,</I> regular review of published literature and periodic in silico analysis of target sequences to detect possible mismatches). All results of this protocol, including any findings, must be documented and must include any additional data analysis that is requested by FDA in response to any performance concerns identified under this section or identified by FDA during routine evaluation. Additionally, if requested by FDA, these evaluations must be submitted to FDA for FDA review within 48 hours of the request. Results that are reasonably interpreted to support the conclusion that novel respiratory pathogen strains or isolates impact the stated expected performance of the device must be sent to FDA immediately.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the identity, phylogenetic relationship, and other recognized characterization of the respiratory pathogen(s) that the device is designed to detect. In addition, detailed documentation describing how to interpret the device results and other measures that might be needed for a laboratory diagnosis of respiratory infection.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed device description, including device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including molecular target(s) for each analyte, design of target detection reagents, rationale for target selection, limiting factors of the device (<I>e.g.,</I> saturation level of hybridization and maximum amplification and detection cycle number, etc.), internal and external controls, and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported signal and result), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed description of device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software. The detailed description must include documentation of verification, validation, and hazard analysis and risk assessment activities, including an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users/patients as part of cybersecurity review.
</P>
<P>(vi) For devices intended for the detection and identification of microbial agents for which an FDA recommended reference panel is available, design verification and validation must include the performance results of an analytical study testing the FDA recommended reference panel of characterized samples. Detailed documentation must be kept of that study and its results, including the study protocol, study report for the proposed intended use, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(vii) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of Influenza A and Influenza B viruses and/or detection and differentiation between the Influenza A virus subtypes in human clinical specimens, the design verification and validation must include a detailed description of the identity, phylogenetic relationship, or other recognized characterization of the Influenza A and B viruses that the device is designed to detect, a description of how the device results might be used in a diagnostic algorithm and other measures that might be needed for a laboratory identification of Influenza A or B virus and of specific Influenza A virus subtypes, and a description of the clinical and epidemiological parameters that are relevant to a patient case diagnosis of Influenza A or B and of specific Influenza A virus subtypes. An evaluation of the device compared to a currently appropriate and FDA accepted comparator method. Detailed documentation must be kept of that study and its results, including the study protocol, study report for the proposed intended use, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(5) When applicable, performance results of the analytical study testing the FDA recommended reference panel described in paragraph (b)(4)(vi) of this section must be included in the device's labeling under § 809.10(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of Influenza A and Influenza B viruses and/or detection and differentiation between the Influenza A virus subtypes in human clinical specimens in addition to detection of SARS-CoV-2 and similar microbial agents, the required labeling under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Where applicable, a limiting statement that performance characteristics for Influenza A were established when Influenza A/H3 and A/H1-2009 (or other pertinent Influenza A subtypes) were the predominant Influenza A viruses in circulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where applicable, a warning statement that reads if infection with a novel Influenza A virus is suspected based on current clinical and epidemiological screening criteria recommended by public health authorities, specimens should be collected with appropriate infection control precautions for novel virulent influenza viruses and sent to State or local health departments for testing. Viral culture should not be attempted in these cases unless a BSL 3+ facility is available to receive and culture specimens.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the device results interpretation involves combining the outputs of several targets to get the final results, such as a device that both detects Influenza A and differentiates all known Influenza A subtypes that are currently circulating, the device's labeling must include a clear interpretation instruction for all valid and invalid output combinations, and recommendations for any required followup actions or retesting in the case of an unusual or unexpected device result.
</P>
<P>(iv) A limiting statement that if a specimen yields a positive result for Influenza A, but produces negative test results for all specific influenza A subtypes intended to be differentiated (<I>i.e.,</I> H1-2009 and H3), this result requires notification of appropriate local, State, or Federal public health authorities to determine necessary measures for verification and to further determine whether the specimen represents a novel strain of Influenza A.
</P>
<P>(7) If one of the actions listed at section 564(b)(1)(A) through (D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act occurs with respect to an influenza viral strain, or if the Secretary of Health and Human Services determines, under section 319(a) of the Public Health Service Act, that a disease or disorder presents a public health emergency, or that a public health emergency otherwise exists, with respect to an influenza viral strain:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized viral samples are available for test evaluation, the manufacturer must have testing performed on the device with those influenza viral samples in accordance with a standardized protocol considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 60 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized influenza viral samples are available for test evaluation and continuing until 3 years from that date, the results of the influenza emergency analytical reactivity testing, including the detailed information for the virus tested as described in the certificate of authentication, must be included as part of the device's labeling in a tabular format, either by:
</P>
<P>(A) Placing the results directly in the device's labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter that accompanies the device in a separate section of the labeling where analytical reactivity testing data can be found, but separate from the annual analytical reactivity testing results; or
</P>
<P>(B) In a section of the device's label or in other labeling that accompanies the device, prominently providing a hyperlink to the manufacturer's public website where the analytical reactivity testing data can be found. The manufacturer's website, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's website that discusses the device, must provide a prominently placed hyperlink to the website containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 66554, Aug. 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3982" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.115" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3982   Simple point-of-care device to directly detect SARS-CoV-2 viral targets from clinical specimens in near-patient settings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A simple point-of-care device to detect SARS-CoV-2 viral targets directly from clinical specimens in near-patient settings is an in vitro diagnostic device for the direct detection of SARS-CoV-2 in clinical specimens and is intended as an aid in the diagnosis of SARS-CoV-2 infections (COVID-19). The device is simple to use and does not involve sample manipulation, transportation of the sample to another functional area (<I>e.g.,</I> a central laboratory or other specialized area), or measurement of reagents or analytes that could be affected by conditions such as sample turbidity or cell lysis. The design and procedures of the device are appropriate for use by healthcare professionals in near-patient settings outside a centralized laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use in the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a description of the following: analytes the device detects and identifies, the specimen types tested, the results provided to the user, the clinical indications for which the test is to be used, the specific intended population(s), the intended use locations including testing location(s) where the device is to be used (if applicable), and other conditions of use as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The intended use of the device must only include indications for testing of respiratory specimens.
</P>
<P>(3) If sample collection devices are used, any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of specimen types claimed by this device; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(4) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed and comprehensive device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, all control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed descriptions of the performance characteristics of the device for each specimen type claimed in the intended use based on analytical studies including the following, as applicable: limit of detection, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, hook-effect, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, precision, reproducibility, human factors analysis, flex studies, and clinical studies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed descriptions of the test procedure(s), the interpretation of test results for clinical specimens, and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement in the intended use that positive results do not preclude co-infection with bacteria or other viruses and should not be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions;
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed instructions for minimizing the risk of user's exposure to infectious microbial agents that may be present in test specimens and those used as control materials;
</P>
<P>(vi) Detailed instructions for minimizing the risk of generating false positive test results due to carry-over contamination from positive test specimens and/or positive control materials, as applicable to the design of the test device;
</P>
<P>(vii) A brief reference sheet (Quick Reference Instructions) for the intended user(s) that includes, at a minimum, the name and intended use of the test, easy to follow step-by-step instructions of all control and sample testing procedures for the claimed sample types, including graphic illustrations targeted towards lay users (as applicable), the result(s) interpretation guidance, warnings and limitation statements, toxicology information and safety considerations for any hazardous materials, information for troubleshooting (<I>e.g.,</I> Frequently Asked Questions), and technical assistance with the device (<I>e.g.,</I> Help-line contact information);
</P>
<P>(viii) Limiting statements indicating that:
</P>
<P>(A) For those devices intended for testing in symptomatic subjects, a statement that specifies the number of days post symptom onset validated for use of the device and/or a range in which the performance of the test is known;
</P>
<P>(B) A negative test result does not preclude the possibility of infection with other bacteria or viruses;
</P>
<P>(C) The test results should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data available to the healthcare provider (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(D) There is a risk of erroneous results (<I>i.e.,</I> false negatives) due to the presence of novel, emerging respiratory viral variants (<I>e.g.,</I> specific strains or isolates);
</P>
<P>(E) False positive test results are more likely when prevalence of upper respiratory infection is low in the community;
</P>
<P>(F) Accurate results are dependent on adequate specimen collection, transport, storage, and processing (as applicable). Failure to observe proper procedures in any one of these steps can lead to incorrect results;
</P>
<P>(G) This test should not be used beyond the expiration date listed on the packaging. Use of expired tests can lead to incorrect results; and
</P>
<P>(H) The performance characteristics for that analyte were established when [insert predominant strain, subtype, or variant] was prevalent and that due to the propensity of the virus to mutate, new strains emerge over time which may affect the performance of this device and have serious public health implications. Additional testing with a molecular test and/or sequencing should be considered in situations where a new virus strain or variant is suspected.
</P>
<P>(5) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including viral target(s), identification of target detection reagents (<I>e.g.,</I> primers, antibodies), internal and external controls, and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported signal and result), as applicable to the detection method and device design;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of data from a prospective multisite clinical study with a design and performance that is appropriate for the intended use of the device, including performance estimates derived from a sufficient number of samples from the intended use population for each claimed specimen type. Results must be obtained from a geographically diverse population, such that the performance of the test device is appropriately representative of all present, circulating strains of the target respiratory virus, at the time of the study and submission. The clinical study must be consistent with and support the intended use population and intended operators (as applicable) and must be conducted in a representative intended use setting. The clinical study must compare the results of the candidate device to results obtained using an FDA accepted molecular comparator method. Detailed documentation must include the clinical study protocol (including a predefined statistical analysis plan), study report, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses;
</P>
<P>(iii) The clinical study designs, including number of samples tested, must be sufficient to meet either of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The lower bound of the two-sided 95 percent confidence interval of the positive percent agreement must be greater than or equal to 80 percent and appropriate risk mitigation measures are established (<I>e.g.,</I> presumptive negative results); or
</P>
<P>(B) The lower bound of the two-sided 95 percent confidence interval of the positive percent agreement must be greater than or equal to 70 percent and additional and appropriate risk mitigations measures are established (<I>e.g.,</I> presumptive negative results and serial testing).
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation of analytical studies, including those demonstrating the limit of detection, inclusivity (including relevant variants), cross-reactivity, microbial interference, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, specimen stability, within-lab precision, hook effect, carryover, cross contamination, and site-to-site reproducibility, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed documentation and characterization (<I>e.g.,</I> determination of the identity, supplier, purity, and stability) of all critical reagents and protocols for maintaining product integrity throughout its labeled shelf life, <I>i.e.,</I> reagent stability studies. Data and protocols, including acceptance criteria, from a multi-lot reagent stability study must include testing of samples with adequately challenging analyte concentration, be provided as part of the regulatory submission and must include in-use/open-kit stability, shipping stability, and freeze-thaw stability (as applicable). The shelf-life stability assessment must include the most challenging sample type identified in the device's intended use and are formulated using whole virus;
</P>
<P>(vi) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured test lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims;
</P>
<P>(vii) Risk analysis and documentation demonstrating how risk control measures are implemented to address device system hazards, such as Failure Modes Effects Analysis and/or Hazard Analysis.
</P>
<P>(A) This documentation must include a detailed description of a protocol (including all procedures and methods) for the continuous monitoring, identification, and handling of genetic mutations and/or novel isolates or strains (<I>e.g.,</I> regular review of published literature and periodic in silico analysis of target sequences to detect possible mismatches). Protocols must include plans to update labeling with additional performance data. All results of this protocol, including any findings, must be documented and must include any additional data analysis that is requested by FDA in response to any performance concerns identified under this section or identified by FDA during routine evaluation. Additionally, if requested by FDA, these evaluations must be submitted to FDA for FDA review within 48 hours of the request. Results that are reasonably interpreted to support the conclusion that novel respiratory pathogen strains or isolates impact the stated expected performance of the device must be sent to FDA immediately;
</P>
<P>(B) This must include detailed documentation that demonstrates the effectiveness of risk control measures and device robustness, including the entire testing procedure from sampling to result interpretation, based on results from the following studies, as applicable per the intended use of the test device: human factors engineering (<I>e.g.,</I> usability studies and user label comprehension), flex studies, and performance with weakly-reactive samples in the hands of the intended user(s);
</P>
<P>(viii) For devices with associated software or instrumentation, documentation must include a detailed description of device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software. The detailed description must include documentation of verification, validation, and hazard analysis and risk assessment activities, including an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users/patients as part of cybersecurity review; and
</P>
<P>(ix) For devices intended for the detection and identification of an analyte for which an FDA recommended reference material is available, design verification and validation must include the performance results of an analytical study testing the FDA recommended reference material. Detailed documentation must be kept of that study and its results, including the study protocol, study report for the proposed intended use, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(6) If one of the actions listed in section 564(b)(1)(A) through (D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act occurs with respect to one or more of the analytes claimed in the intended use, or if the Secretary of Health and Human Services determines, under section 319(a) of the Public Health Service Act, that a disease or disorder presents a public health emergency, or that a public health emergency otherwise exists, with respect to one or more of the analytes claimed in the intended use:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized samples are available for test evaluation, the manufacturer must have testing performed on the device with those samples in accordance with a standardized protocol considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 60 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized samples are available for test evaluation and continuing until 3 years from that date, the results of the emergency analytical reactivity testing, including the detailed information for the samples tested as described in the certificate of authentication, must be included as part of the device's labeling in a tabular format.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 35389, June 11, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3983" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.116" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3983   SARS-CoV-2 serology test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A SARS-CoV-2 serology test is a prescription in vitro diagnostic device for the detection of specific binding antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 in clinical specimens. The detection of SARS-CoV-2 antibodies is intended to aid in identifying individuals with an adaptive immune response to SARS-CoV-2. The test is not intended for the diagnosis of acute SARS-CoV-2 infection, nor screening blood, plasma, cells, or tissue donors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use in the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a description of the following: Analytes the device detects, the specimen types tested, the results provided to the end user, the clinical indications for which the test is to be used, the specific intended population(s), the intended use locations including testing location(s) where the device is to be used (if applicable), and other conditions of use, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) If sample collection devices are used, any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of specimen types claimed by this device; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, all control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed descriptions of the performance characteristics of the device for each specimen type claimed in the intended use based on analytical studies, including the following, as applicable: Assay cutoff or limit of detection expressed in international standard units, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover and cross contamination, matrix equivalency, hook effect, specimen stability, precision, reproducibility, and clinical studies, including the time period in which the clinical performance was established and the variant(s) prevalent in the United States at the time of performance validation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed descriptions of the test procedure(s), the interpretation of test results for clinical specimens, and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) When applicable, performance results of the analytical study testing of a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate;
</P>
<P>(v) Limiting statements that indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) A negative test result does not preclude the possibility of infection;
</P>
<P>(B) A negative result can occur if the quantity of the anti-SARS-CoV-2 antibodies present in the specimen is below the detection limits of the assay, or the antibodies that are detected are not present during the stage of disease in which a sample is collected;
</P>
<P>(C) There is a risk of erroneous results (<I>i.e.,</I> negative results) due to the presence of novel emerging viral variants circulating in the intended use population;
</P>
<P>(D) The performance characteristics for that analyte were established when [insert predominant strain, subtype, or variant] was prevalent and that due to the propensity of the virus to mutate, new strains emerge over time which may affect the performance of this device and have serious public health implications;
</P>
<P>(E) The test results should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data available to the healthcare provider (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(F) Positive and negative predictive values are highly dependent on prevalence;
</P>
<P>(G) Accurate results are dependent on adequate specimen collection, transport, storage, and processing (as applicable). Failure to observe proper procedures in any one of these steps can lead to incorrect results;
</P>
<P>(H) The test is not intended for donor screening; and
</P>
<P>(I) The test is not intended to diagnose acute SARS-CoV-2 infection. An assay that directly detects the virus should be used to evaluate individuals for acute COVID-19, particularly those who have been in contact with the virus.
</P>
<P>(vi) For devices intended for the quantitative detection of SARS-CoV-2 antibodies, labeling must include a prominent statement that includes the following: the test calibrators' traceability to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate and the limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantitation, with the defined analytical measuring interval.
</P>
<P>(4) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of performance from a multisite clinical study with an appropriate number of clinical samples (<I>i.e.,</I> be appropriately statistically powered) from individuals with recent or prior SARS CoV-2 infection in which the results are compared to results obtained from a comparator that FDA has determined to be appropriate. This study must be conducted in the appropriate laboratory setting to demonstrate clinical performance. For any SARS-CoV-2 serology test intended for use in near-patient settings, a separate clinical study must be conducted in near-patient settings. Documentation from these studies must include study reports with study description, testing results, and all statistical analyses, including an appropriate justification describing how the sample set is representative of the intended use population. These studies must compare the device performance to results obtained from a comparator that FDA has determined to be appropriate. These clinical studies must include testing of unique prospective samples from subjects that are representative of the intended use populations and may, when determined to be acceptable by FDA, include additional characterized clinical samples; or, as an alternative, when determined to be acceptable by FDA, an equivalent sample set;
</P>
<P>(ii) For any SARS-CoV-2 antibody test intended for use in near-patient settings, detailed documentation that demonstrates the effectiveness of risk control measures and device robustness, including flex studies, and performance with weakly-reactive samples when used by the intended operators;
</P>
<P>(iii) Risk analysis and documentation demonstrating how risk control measures are implemented to address device system hazards, such as failure modes effects analysis and hazard analysis. This documentation must include a detailed description of a protocol (including all procedures and methods) for the continuous monitoring, identification, and handling of genetic mutations and/or novel respiratory pathogen isolates or strains (<I>e.g.,</I> regular review of published literature and periodic in silico analysis of target amino acid sequence(s) to detect possible mismatches) that may affect detection of antibody. All results of this protocol, including any findings, must be documented and must include any additional data analysis that is requested by FDA in response to any performance concerns identified under this section or identified by FDA during routine evaluation. Additionally, if requested by FDA, these evaluations must be submitted to FDA within 48 hours of the request for FDA review, and any results that are reasonably interpreted to support the conclusion that novel respiratory pathogen strains or isolates impact the stated expected performance of the device must be sent to FDA immediately to the email address provided in FDA's request;
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation of the specific amino acid sequence of the SARS-CoV-2 target protein(s) that the device utilizes to detect specific antibodies to SARS-CoV-2;
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed device description, including device components, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including protein sequence target(s) for each analyte, design of target detection reagents, internal and external controls, and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported signal and result), as applicable to the detection method and device design;
</P>
<P>(vi) For devices with associated software or instrumentation, documentation must include a detailed description of device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software. The detailed description must include documentation of verification, validation, and hazard analysis and risk assessment activities, including an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users and patients as part of cybersecurity review;
</P>
<P>(vii) For devices intended for the detection of SARS-CoV-2 antibodies for which a standardized reference material (that FDA has determined is appropriate) is available, the performance results of an analytical study testing this standardized reference material. Detailed documentation of that study and its results must be provided, including the study protocol, study report, testing results, and all statistical analyses;
</P>
<P>(viii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies conducted as appropriate to the technology, specimen types tested, and intended use of the device, including precision, endogenous interferences, cross reactivity, carryover, matrix equivalency, class specificity, hook effect, and sample and reagent stability. Samples selected for use in analytical studies or used to prepare contrived samples for use in analytical studies must be from subjects with clinically relevant circulating antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 in the United States. Cross-reactivity studies must include samples from SARS-CoV-2 antibody negative subjects with antibodies to viruses, high prevalence disease agents, and normal or pathogenic flora. Endogenous interference studies must include SARS-CoV-2 antibody negative and low positive samples with endogenous interference substances, including antibodies present in autoimmune diseases that are reasonably likely to be encountered in clinical specimens under actual use conditions. In addition, for devices intended for the quantitative detection of SARS-CoV-2 antibodies, the information provided must also include the metrological calibration traceability hierarchy to a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate. As appropriate to the technology and specimen types tested, the information provided to support quantitative tests must also include studies to support the analytical measuring interval, including a limit of blank study, a limit of detection study, an upper and lower limits of quantitation study, a precision study, and a linearity study using clinical samples, and, using a standardized reference material that FDA has determined is appropriate, an accuracy study;
</P>
<P>(ix) Detailed documentation of data and protocols, including acceptance criteria, from a real-time reagent stability study must include testing of samples with adequately challenging analyte concentrations and must include shelf-life stability and shipping stability, and, as applicable, in-use and open-kit stability and freeze-thaw stability. The shelf-life stability assessment must include a minimum of three lots;
</P>
<P>(x) Detailed documentation of a multisite reproducibility study with testing conducted at a minimum of three sites;
</P>
<P>(xi) Final release criteria to be used for manufactured test lots with appropriate evidence that lots released at the extremes of the specifications will meet the claimed analytical and clinical performance characteristics as well as the stability claims; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Lot-to-lot precision studies, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) For any SARS-CoV-2 antibody test intended for use in near-patient settings, labeling must also include a brief reference sheet (quick reference instructions) for the intended user(s) that includes, at a minimum, the name and intended use of the test, easy to follow step-by-step instructions of all control and sample testing procedures for the claimed sample types, including graphic illustrations targeted towards lay users (as applicable), the result(s) interpretation guidance, warnings and limitation statements, toxicology information and safety considerations for any hazardous materials, information for troubleshooting (<I>e.g.,</I> frequently asked questions), and technical assistance with the device (<I>e.g.,</I> helpline contact information).
</P>
<P>(6) If one of the actions listed in section 564(b)(1)(A) through (D) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act occurs with respect to one or more of the analytes claimed in the intended use, or if the Secretary of Health and Human Services determines, under section 319(a) of the Public Health Service Act, that a disease or disorder presents a public health emergency, or that a public health emergency otherwise exists, with respect to one or more of the analytes claimed in the intended use:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized samples are available for test evaluation, the manufacturer must have testing performed on the device with those samples in accordance with a standardized protocol considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 60 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized samples are available for test evaluation and continuing until 3 years from that date, the results of the emergency analytical reactivity testing, including the detailed information for the samples tested as described in the certificate of authentication, must be included as part of the device's labeling in a tabular format.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 38500, June 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3985" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.117" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3985   Device to detect and identify microorganisms and associated resistance marker nucleic acids directly in respiratory specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and identify microorganisms and associated resistance marker nucleic acids directly from respiratory specimens is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection and identification of microorganisms and associated resistance markers in respiratory specimens collected from patients with signs or symptoms of respiratory infection. The device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of respiratory infection in conjunction with clinical signs and symptoms and other laboratory findings. These devices do not provide confirmation of antibiotic susceptibility since mechanisms of resistance may exist other than those detected by the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use for the 21 CFR 809.10 labeling must include a detailed description of what the device detects, the type of results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(2) The 21 CFR 809.10(b) labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all device components, control elements incorporated into the test procedure, instrument requirements, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics from analytical studies, including, but not limited to, limit of detection, inclusivity, reproducibility, cross reactivity, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, and linearity, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A limiting statement that the device is intended to be used in conjunction with clinical history, signs and symptoms, and results of other diagnostic tests, including culture and antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of the interpretation of test results for clinical specimens and acceptance criteria for any quality control testing.
</P>
<P>(v) A limiting statement that negative results for microorganisms do not preclude the possibility of infection, and should not be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(vi) If applicable, a limiting statement that detected microorganisms may not be the cause of lower respiratory tract infection and may be indicative of colonizing or normal respiratory flora.
</P>
<P>(vii) If applicable, a limiting statement that detection of resistance markers cannot be definitively linked to specific microorganisms and that the source of a detected resistance marker may be an organism not detected by the assay, including colonizing flora.
</P>
<P>(viii) If applicable, a limiting statement that detection of antibiotic resistance markers may not correlate with phenotypic gene expression.
</P>
<P>(3) The 21 CFR 809.10(b) labeling and any test report generated by the device must include a limiting statement that negative results for resistance markers do not indicate susceptibility of detected microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(4) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance characteristics from clinical studies that include prospective (sequential) samples and, if appropriate, additional characterized samples. The study must be performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population and compare the device performance to results obtained from an FDA accepted reference method and/or FDA accepted comparator method, as appropriate. Results from the clinical studies must include the clinical study protocol (including predefined statistical analysis plan, if applicable), clinical study report, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed device description including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Thorough description of the assay methodology including, but not limited to, primer/probe sequences, primer/probe design, and rationale for target sequence selection, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(B) Algorithm used to generate a final result from raw data (e.g., how raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of device software, including, but not limited to, validation activities and outcomes.
</P>
<P>(iv) As part of the risk management activities, an appropriate end user device training program must be offered as an effort to mitigate the risk of failure from user error.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 9228, Mar. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3988" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.118" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3988   Device to detect and identify microorganism nucleic acids and resistance markers from patients with suspected orthopedic infection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device to detect and identify microorganism nucleic acids and resistance markers from patients with suspected orthopedic infection is a qualitative in vitro device intended to simultaneously detect and identify microorganism nucleic acids from human clinical specimens collected from patients with suspected orthopedic infection. The device detects specific nucleic acid sequences for microorganism identification as well as markers for antimicrobial resistance. This device is intended to aid in the diagnosis of orthopedic infections when used in conjunction with other clinical signs and symptoms and other laboratory findings. However, the device does not replace traditional methods for culture and susceptibility testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any sample collection device used must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt (standalone or as part of a test system) for the collection of specimen types claimed by this device; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use that includes a detailed description of targets the device detects and measures, the results provided to the user, the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) Limiting statements, when applicable, indicating:
</P>
<P>(A) The device is intended to be used in conjunction with clinical history, signs and symptoms, and results of other diagnostic tests, including culture and antimicrobial susceptibility testing;
</P>
<P>(B) Detection of resistance markers cannot be definitively linked to specific microorganisms and that the source of a detected resistance marker may be an organism not detected by the assay; and
</P>
<P>(C) Antimicrobial resistance can occur via multiple mechanisms. A not detected result for the antimicrobial resistance gene assays does not indicate antimicrobial susceptibility. Culturing and susceptibility testing of isolates is needed to determine antimicrobial susceptibility.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed device description, including reagents, instruments, ancillary materials, all control elements, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including all pre-analytical methods for processing of specimens.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed descriptions of the performance characteristics of the device for all claimed specimen types as shown by the analytical and clinical studies required under paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (b)(3)(iv) of this section except specimen stability performance characteristics.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all device parts, control elements incorporated into the test procedure, reagents required but not provided, the principle of device operation and test methodology, and the computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported result).
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of analytical studies, including those demonstrating Limit of Detection, inclusivity, cross-reactivity, microbial interference, interfering substances, competitive inhibition, carryover/cross contamination, specimen stability, within lab precision, and reproducibility, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed documentation and performance results from a clinical study that includes prospective (sequentially collected) samples for each claimed specimen type and, when determined to be appropriate by FDA, additional characterized clinical samples. The study must be performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population and compare the device performance to results obtained using a comparator method that FDA has determined to be appropriate. Detailed documentation must include the clinical study protocol (including a predefined statistical analysis plan), study report, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 25785, May 12, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.3990" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.119" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.3990   Gastrointestinal microorganism multiplex nucleic acid-based assay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastrointestinal microorganism multiplex nucleic acid-based assay is a qualitative <I>in vitro</I> diagnostic device intended to simultaneously detect and identify multiple gastrointestinal microbial nucleic acids extracted from human stool specimens. The device detects specific nucleic acid sequences for organism identification as well as for determining the presence of toxin genes. The detection and identification of a specific gastrointestinal microbial nucleic acid from individuals exhibiting signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal infection aids in the diagnosis of gastrointestinal infection when used in conjunction with clinical evaluation and other laboratory findings. A gastrointestinal microorganism multiplex nucleic acid-based assay also aids in the detection and identification of acute gastroenteritis in the context of outbreaks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are set forth in FDA's guideline document entitled: “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Gastrointestinal Microorganism Multiplex Nucleic Acid-Based Assays for Detection and Identification of Microorganisms and Toxin Genes from Human Stool Specimens.” For availability of the guideline document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 67314, Nov. 2, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4001" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.4.1.120" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4001   A multiplex respiratory panel to detect and identify emerging respiratory pathogen(s) and common respiratory pathogens in human clinical specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A multiplex respiratory panel to detect and identify emerging respiratory pathogen(s) and common respiratory pathogens in human clinical specimens is identified as an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the qualitative detection and identification of both emerging and common respiratory pathogens from individuals meeting specific emerging respiratory pathogen clinical and/or epidemiological criteria. For example, clinical signs and symptoms associated with infection of the emerging respiratory pathogen, contact with a probable or confirmed emerging respiratory pathogen case, history of travel to geographic locations where cases of the emerging respiratory pathogen were detected, or other epidemiological links for which testing of the emerging respiratory pathogen may be indicated. A device to detect and identify emerging respiratory pathogen(s) and common respiratory pathogens in human clinical specimens, and in turn to distinguish emerging respiratory pathogen(s) from common respiratory pathogens, is intended to aid in the differential diagnosis of the emerging respiratory pathogen infection, in conjunction with other clinical, epidemiologic, and laboratory data, in accordance with the guidelines provided by the appropriate public health authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use for the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include a description of what the device detects and measures, the specimen types, the results provided to the user, the clinical indications for which the test is to be used, the specific intended population(s), the testing location(s) where the device is to be used (if applicable), and other conditions of use as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A device description, including the parts that make up the device, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and an explanation of the methodology.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance characteristics from analytical studies, including cut-off (if applicable), analytical sensitivity (<I>i.e.,</I> limit of detection), inclusivity, reproducibility, interference, cross-reactivity, instrument carryover/cross-contamination (if applicable), and specimen stability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed instructions for minimizing the risk of potential users' exposure to the emerging respiratory pathogen(s) that may be present in test specimens and those used as control materials.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed instructions for minimizing the risk of generating false positive test results due to carry-over contamination from positive test specimens and/or positive control materials.
</P>
<P>(v) A warning statement that the interpretation of test results requires experienced healthcare professionals who have training in principles and use of infectious disease diagnostics and reporting of results, in conjunction with the patient's medical history, clinical signs and symptoms, and the results of other diagnostic tests.
</P>
<P>(vi) A warning statement that culture should not be attempted in cases of positive results for an emerging respiratory pathogen unless a facility with an appropriate level of laboratory biosafety (<I>e.g.,</I> BSL 3 and BSL 3+) is available to receive and culture specimens.
</P>
<P>(vii) A warning statement that device positive results for one or more common respiratory pathogens do not rule out bacterial infection, or co-infection with other common respiratory pathogens.
</P>
<P>(viii) A warning statement that respiratory pathogen(s) detected may not be the definite cause of disease.
</P>
<P>(ix) A warning statement that the use of additional laboratory testing (<I>e.g.</I> bacterial culture, immunofluorescence, x-ray findings) and clinical presentation must be taken into consideration in order to obtain the final diagnosis of a respiratory infection.
</P>
<P>(x) A limiting statement that device negative results for the common respiratory pathogens do not preclude infection of a respiratory pathogen and should not be used as the sole basis for diagnosis, treatment, or other patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(xi) A limiting statement that analyte targets (<I>e.g.,</I> pathogen nucleic acid sequences or other molecular signatures) may persist in vivo, independent of organism viability. Detection of analyte target(s) does not imply that the corresponding pathogen(s) is infectious, nor is the causative agent(s) for clinical symptoms.
</P>
<P>(xii) A limiting statement that detection of pathogen nucleic acid sequences or other molecular signatures is dependent upon proper specimen collection, handling, transportation, storage and preparation. Failure to observe proper procedures in any one of these steps can lead to incorrect results. There is a risk of false negative values resulting from improperly collected, transported, or handled specimens.
</P>
<P>(xiii) A limiting statement that there is a risk of false positive values resulting from cross-contamination by target organisms, their nucleic acids or amplified product, or from non-specific signals in the assay.
</P>
<P>(xiv) A limiting statement that there is a risk of false negative results due to the presence of nucleic acid sequence variants in the pathogen targets of the device.
</P>
<P>(xv) A limiting statement that device performance was not established in immunocompromised patients.
</P>
<P>(xvi) A limiting statement that positive and negative predictive values are highly dependent on prevalence. The device performance was established during one or more specific respiratory seasons. The performance for some respiratory pathogens may vary depending on the prevalence and patient population tested. False positive test results are likely when prevalence of disease due to a particular respiratory pathogen is low or non-existent in a community.
</P>
<P>(xvii) In situations where the performance of the device was estimated based largely on testing pre-selected banked retrospective clinical specimens and/or contrived clinical specimen, a limiting statement that the estimated device performance of that specific pathogen or pathogen subtype may not reflect the performance or prevalence in the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(xviii) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of emerging respiratory pathogen(s), a limiting statement that testing with the device should not be performed unless the patient meets clinical and/or epidemiologic criteria for testing suspected specimens of the emerging respiratory pathogen.
</P>
<P>(xix) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of emerging respiratory pathogen(s), a limiting statement that positive results obtained with the device for the emerging respiratory pathogen are for the presumptive identification of that pathogen and that the definitive identification of the emerging respiratory pathogen requires additional testing and confirmation procedures in consultation with the appropriate public health authorities (<I>e.g.,</I> local or state public health departments) for whom reporting is necessary.
</P>
<P>(xx) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of emerging respiratory pathogen(s), a limiting statement that negative results for the emerging respiratory pathogen, even in the context of device positive results for one or more of the common respiratory pathogens, do not preclude infection with the emerging respiratory pathogen and should not be used as the sole basis for patient management decisions.
</P>
<P>(xxi) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of emerging respiratory pathogen(s), a limiting statement that negative results for the emerging respiratory pathogen may be due to infection of the emerging respiratory pathogen at a specific respiratory tract location that may not be detected by a particular clinical specimen type. A negative result for the emerging respiratory pathogen in an asymptomatic individual does not rule out the possibility of future illness and does not demonstrate that the individual is not infectious.
</P>
<P>(xxii) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of emerging respiratory pathogen(s), a limiting statement that a nationally notifiable Rare Disease of Public Health Significance caused by an emerging respiratory pathogen must be reported, as appropriate, to public health authorities in accordance with local, state, and federal law.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance results of an appropriate clinical study (<I>e.g.,</I> a prospective clinical study) for each specimen type, and, if appropriate, results from additional characterized samples. The clinical study must be performed on a study population consistent with the intended use population and must compare the device performance to results obtained using FDA-accepted comparator methods or to expected negative results if the infection is not generally expected in the intended use population. Clinical specimens evaluated in the study must contain relevant organism concentrations applicable to the specimen type(s) and the targeted analyte(s). Detailed documentation must be kept of that study and its results, including the study protocol, study report for the proposed intended use, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(ii) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of emerging respiratory pathogen(s) for which an FDA recommended panel is available, design verification and validation must include the performance results of an analytical study testing an FDA recommended reference panel of characterized samples that contain the emerging respiratory pathogen. Detailed documentation must be kept of that study and its results, including the study protocol, study report for the proposed intended use, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(iii) An appropriate risk mitigation strategy, including a detailed description of all procedures and methods, for the post-market identification of genetic mutations and/or novel respiratory pathogen isolates or strains (<I>e.g.,</I> regular review of published literature and annual in silico analysis of target sequences to detect possible mismatches. The required documentation for this device must also include all of the results, including any findings, from the application of this post-market mitigation strategy.
</P>
<P>(iv) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of multiple common respiratory pathogens, in addition to detecting emerging respiratory pathogen(s) in human clinical specimens, a detailed description of the identity, phylogenetic relationship, or other recognized characterization of the common respiratory pathogens that the device is designed to detect is addressed. Also, address in detail how the device results might be used in a diagnostic algorithm and other measures that might be needed for a laboratory diagnosis of respiratory tract infection. Perform an evaluation of the device compared to a currently appropriate and FDA accepted comparator method. Detailed documentation must be kept of that study and its results, including the study protocol, study report for the proposed intended use, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed device description, including the parts that make up the device, ancillary reagents required but not provided, and a detailed explanation of the methodology, including molecular target(s) for each analyte, design of target detection reagents, rationale for target selection, limiting factors of the device (<I>e.g.,</I> saturation level of hybridization and maximum amplification and detection cycle number), internal and external controls, and computational path from collected raw data to reported result (<I>e.g.,</I> how collected raw signals are converted into a reported signal and result), as applicable and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed description of the device software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(vii) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of Influenza A and Influenza B viruses and/or detection and differentiate between the Influenza A virus subtypes in human clinical specimens, in addition to detecting emerging respiratory pathogen(s), a detailed description of the identity, phylogenetic relationship, or other recognized characterization of the Influenza A and B viruses that the device is designed to detect, a description of how the device results might be used in a diagnostic algorithm and other measures that might be needed for a laboratory identification of Influenza A or B virus and of specific Influenza A virus subtypes, and a description of the clinical and epidemiological parameters that are relevant to a patient case diagnosis of Influenza A or B and of specific Influenza A virus subtypes. Perform an evaluation of the device compared to a currently appropriate and FDA accepted comparator method. Detailed documentation must be kept of that study and its results, including the study protocol, study report for the proposed intended use, testing results, and results of all statistical analyses.
</P>
<P>(4) For devices with an intended use that includes detection of Influenza A and Influenza B viruses and/or detection and differentiate between the Influenza A virus subtypes in human clinical specimens, in addition to detecting emerging respiratory pathogen(s), the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Where applicable, a limiting statement that performance characteristics for Influenza A were established when Influenza A/H3 and A/H1-2009 (or other pertinent Influenza A subtypes) were the predominant Influenza A viruses in circulation. When other Influenza A viruses are emerging, performance characteristics may vary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where applicable, a warning statement that reads if infection with a novel Influenza A virus is suspected based on current clinical and epidemiological screening criteria recommended by public health authorities, specimens should be collected with appropriate infection control precautions for novel virulent influenza viruses and sent to state or local health departments for testing. Viral culture should not be attempted in these cases unless a BSL 3+ facility is available to receive and culture specimens.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the device results interpretation involves combining the outputs of several targets to get the final results, such as a device that both detects Influenza A and differentiates all known Influenza A subtypes that are currently circulating, the device's labeling required under § 809.10(b)(9) of this chapter must include a clear interpretation instruction for all valid and invalid output combinations, and recommendations for any required follow up actions or retesting in the case of an unusual or unexpected device result.
</P>
<P>(iv) A limiting statement that if a specimen yields a positive result for Influenza A, but produces negative test results for all specific influenza A subtypes intended to be differentiated (<I>e.g.,</I> H1-2009 and H3), this result requires notification of appropriate local, state, or federal public health authorities to determine necessary measures for verification and to further determine whether the specimen represents a novel strain of Influenza A.
</P>
<P>(5) The manufacturer must perform annual analytical reactivity testing of the device with contemporary influenza strains. This annual analytical reactivity testing must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate strains to be tested will be identified by FDA in consultation with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and sourced from CDC or an FDA designated source. If the annual strains are not available from CDC, FDA will identify an alternative source for obtaining the requisite strains.
</P>
<P>(ii) The testing must be conducted according to a standardized protocol considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) By July 31 of each calendar year, the results of the last 3 years of annual analytical reactivity testing must be included as part of the device's labeling. If a device has not been on the market long enough for 3 years of annual analytical reactivity testing to have been conducted since the device received marketing authorization from FDA, then the results of every annual analytical reactivity testing since the device received marketing authorization from FDA must be included. The results must be presented as part of the device's labeling in a tabular format, which includes the detailed information for each virus tested as described in the certificate of authentication, either by:
</P>
<P>(A) Placing the results directly in the device's labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter that physically accompanies the device in a separate section of the labeling where the analytical reactivity testing data can be found; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the device's label or in other labeling that physically accompanies the device, prominently providing a hyperlink to the manufacturer's public website where the analytical reactivity testing data can be found. The manufacturer's home page, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's website that discusses the device, must provide a prominently placed hyperlink to the web page containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access.
</P>
<P>(6) If one of the actions listed at section 564(b)(1)(A)-(D) of the FD&amp;C Act occurs with respect to an influenza viral strain, or if the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) determines, under section 319(a) of the Public Health Service Act, that a disease or disorder presents a public health emergency, or that a public health emergency otherwise exists, with respect to an influenza viral strain:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized viral samples are available for test evaluation, the manufacturer must have testing performed on the device with those viral samples in accordance with a standardized protocol considered and determined by FDA to be acceptable and appropriate. The procedure and location of testing may depend on the nature of the emerging virus.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 60 days from the date that FDA notifies manufacturers that characterized viral samples are available for test evaluation and continuing until 3 years from that date, the results of the influenza emergency analytical reactivity testing, including the detailed information for the virus tested as described in the certificate of authentication, must be included as part of the device's labeling in a tabular format, either by:
</P>
<P>(A) Placing the results directly in the device's labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter that physically accompanies the device in a separate section of the labeling where analytical reactivity testing data can be found, but separate from the annual analytical reactivity testing results; or
</P>
<P>(B) In a section of the device's label or in other labeling that physically accompanies the device, prominently providing a hyperlink to the manufacturer's public website where the analytical reactivity testing data can be found. The manufacturer's home page, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's website that discusses the device, must provide a prominently placed hyperlink to the web page containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40711, Aug. 21, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Immunology Laboratory Equipment and Reagents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4070   RNA Preanalytical Systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> RNA Preanalytical Systems are devices intended to collect, store, and transport patient specimens, and stabilize intracellular RNA from the specimens, for subsequent isolation and purification of the intracellular RNA for RT-PCR used in in vitro molecular diagnostic testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: RNA Preanalytical Systems (RNA Collection, Stabilization and Purification System for RT-PCR Used in Molecular Diagnostic Testing).” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 49863, Aug. 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4100   Complement reagent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A complement reagent is a device that consists of complement, a naturally occurring serum protein from any warm-blooded animal such as guinea pigs, that may be included as a component part of serological test kits used in the diagnosis of disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4500   Immunoelectrophoresis equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Immunoelectrophoresis equipment for clinical use with its electrical power supply is a device used for separating protein molecules. Immunoelectrophoresis is a procedure in which a complex protein mixture is placed in an agar gel and the various proteins are separated on the basis of their relative mobilities under the influence of an electric current. The separated proteins are then permitted to diffuse through the agar toward a multispecific antiserum, allowing precipitation and visualization of the separate complexes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4520   Immunofluorometer equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Immunofluorometer equipment for clinical use with its electrical power supply is a device used to measure the fluorescence of fluorochrome-labeled antigen-antibody complexes. The concentration of these complexes may be measured by means of reflected light. A beam of light is passed through a solution in which a fluorochrome has been selectively attached to serum protein antibody molecules in suspension. The amount of light emitted by the fluorochrome label is detected by a photodetector, which converts light energy into electrical energy. The amount of electrical energy registers on a readout system such as a digital voltmeter or a recording chart. This electrical readout is called the fluorescence value and is used to measure the concentration of antigen-antibody complexes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4540   Immunonephelometer equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Immunonephelometer equipment for clinical use with its electrical power supply is a device that measures light scattering from antigen-antibody complexes. The concentration of these complexes may be measured by means of reflected light. A beam of light passed through a solution is scattered by the particles in suspension. The amount of light is detected by a photodetector, which converts light energy into electrical energy. The amount of electrical energy registers on a readout system such as a digital voltmeter or a recording chart. This electrical readout is called the light-scattering value and is used to measure the concentration of antigen-antibody complexes. This generic type of device includes devices with various kinds of light sources, such as laser equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4600   Ouchterlony agar plate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ouchterlony agar plate for clinical use is a device containing an agar gel used to examine antigen-antibody reactions. In immunodiffusion, antibodies and antigens migrate toward each other through gel which originally contained neither of these reagents. As the reagents come in contact with each other, they combine to form a precipitate that is trapped in the gel matrix and is immobilized. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4700   Automated fluorescence <E T="7462">in situ</E> hybridization (FISH) enumeration systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated FISH enumeration system is a device that consists of an automated scanning microscope, image analysis system, and customized software applications for FISH assays. This device is intended for in vitro diagnostic use with FISH assays as an aid in the detection, counting and classification of cells based on recognition of cellular color, size, and shape, and in the detection and enumeration of FISH signals in interphase nuclei of formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded human tissue specimens.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Automated Fluorescence <I>in situ</I> Hybridization (FISH) Enumeration Systems.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 14534, Mar. 23, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4750   Automated indirect immunofluorescence microscope and software-assisted system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated indirect immunofluorescence microscope and software assisted system is a device that acquires, analyzes, stores, and displays digital images of indirect immunofluorescent slides. It is intended to be used as an aid in the determination of antibody status in clinical samples. The device may include a fluorescence microscope with light source, a motorized microscope stage, dedicated instrument controls, a camera, a computer, a sample processor, or other hardware components. The device may use fluorescent signal acquisition and processing software, data storage and transferring mechanisms, or assay specific algorithms to suggest results. A trained operator must confirm results generated with the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling for the device must reference legally marketed assays intended for use with the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, and illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or methods, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed documentation of the software, including, but not limited to, stand-alone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed description of appropriate internal and external quality controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the recommended testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(D) Detailed description and specifications for sample preparation, processing, and storage, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(E) Methodology and protocols for detecting fluorescence and visualizing results; and
</P>
<P>(F) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Data demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, which must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A comparison study of the results obtained with the conventional manual method (<I>i.e.,</I> reference standard), the device, and the reading of the digital image without aid of the software, using the same set of patient samples for each. The study must use a legally marketed assay intended for use with the device. Patient samples must be from the assay-specific intended use population and differential diagnosis population. Samples must also cover the assay measuring range, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) Device clinical performance established by comparing device results at multiple U.S. sites to the clinical diagnostic standard used in the United States, using patient samples from the assay-specific intended use population and the differential diagnosis population. For all samples, the diagnostic clinical criteria and the demographic information must be collected and provided. Clinical validation must be based on the determination of clinical sensitivity and clinical specificity using the test results (<I>e.g.,</I> antibody status based on fluorescence to include pattern and titer, if applicable) compared to the clinical diagnosis of the subject from whom the clinical sample was obtained. The data must be summarized in tabular format comparing the result generated by automated, manual, and digital only interpretation to the disease status;
</P>
<P>(C) Device precision/reproducibility data generated from within-run, between-run, between-day, between-lot, between-operator, between-instruments, between-site, and total precision for multiple nonconsecutive days (as applicable) using multiple operators, multiple instruments and at multiple sites. A well-characterized panel of patient samples or pools from the associated assay specific intended use population must be used;
</P>
<P>(D) Device linearity data generated from patient samples covering the assay measuring range, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(E) Device analytical sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantitation, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(F) Device assay specific cutoff, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(G) Device analytical specificity data, including interference by endogenous and exogenous substances, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(H) Device instrument carryover data, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(I) Device stability data including real-time stability under various storage times and temperatures, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(J) Information on traceability to a reference material and description of value assignment of calibrators and controls, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices, incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(3) Your 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement that reads “The device is for use by a trained operator in a clinical laboratory setting”;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning statement that reads “All software-aided results must be confirmed by the trained operator”;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning statement that reads “This device is only for use with reagents that are indicated for use with the device”; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the protocol and performance studies performed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results, if applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 52648, Nov. 14, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 20283, Apr. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4800   Radial immunodiffusion plate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radial immunodiffusion plate for clinical use is a device that consists of a plastic plate to which agar gel containing antiserum is added. In radial immunodiffusion, antigens migrate through gel which originally contains specific antibodies. As the reagents come in contact with each other, they combine to form a precipitate that is trapped in the gel matrix and immobilized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4830   Rocket immunoelectrophoresis equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Rocket immunoelectrophoresis equipment for clinical use is a device used to perform a specific test on proteins by using a procedure called rocket immunoelectrophoresis. In this procedure, an electric current causes the protein in solution to migrate through agar gel containing specific antisera. The protein precipitates with the antisera in a rocket-shaped pattern, giving the name to the device. The height of the peak (or the area under the peak) is proportional to the concentration of the protein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.4900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.4900   Support gel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A support gel for clinical use is a device that consists of an agar or agarose preparation that is used while measuring various kinds of, or parts of, protein molecules by various immunochemical techniques, such as immunoelectrophoresis, immunodiffusion, or chromatography.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38792, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Immunological Test Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5040   Albumin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An albumin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the albumin (a plasma protein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of albumin aids in the diagnosis of kidney and intestinal diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5060   Prealbumin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prealbumin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the prealbumin (a plasma protein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of prealbumin levels in serum may aid in the assessment of the patient's nutritional status.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5065" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5065   Human allotypic marker immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A human allotypic marker immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to identify by immunochemical techniques the inherited human protein allotypic markers (such as nGm, nA<E T="52">2</E> m, and Km allotypes) in serum and other body fluids. The identification may be used while studying population genetics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5080   <E T="7462">Alpha</E>-1-antichymotrypsin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An <I>alpha</I>-1-antichymotrypsin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques <I>alpha</I>-1-antichymotrypsin (a protein) in serum, other body fluids, and tissues. <I>Alpha</I>-1-antichymotrypsin helps protect tissues against proteolytic (protein-splitting) enzymes released during infection. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5090   Antimitochondrial antibody immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antimitochondrial antibody immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the antimitochondrial antibodies in human serum. The measurements aid in the diagnosis of diseases that produce a spectrum of autoantibodies (antibodies produced against the body's own tissue), such as primary biliary cirrhosis (degeneration of liver tissue) and chronic active hepatitis (inflammation of the liver). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5100   Antinuclear antibody immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antinuclear antibody immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the autoimmune antibodies in serum, other body fluids, and tissues that react with cellular nuclear constituents (molecules present in the nucleus of a cell, such as ribonucleic acid, deoxyribonucleic acid, or nuclear proteins). The measurements aid in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (a multisystem autoimmune disease in which antibodies attack the victim's own tissues), hepatitis (a liver disease), rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren's syndrome (arthritis with inflammation of the eye, eyelid, and salivary glands), and systemic sclerosis (chronic hardening and shrinking of many body tissues).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5110   Antiparietal antibody immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antiparietal antibody immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the specific antibody for gastric parietal cells in serum and other body fluids. Gastric parietal cells are those cells located in the stomach that produce a protein that enables vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> to be absorbed by the body. The measurements aid in the diagnosis of vitamin B<E T="52">12</E> deficiency (or pernicious anemia), atrophic gastritis (inflammation of the stomach), and autoimmune connective tissue diseases (diseases resulting when the body produces antibodies against its own tissues).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5120   Antismooth muscle antibody immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antismooth muscle antibody immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the antismooth muscle antibodies (antibodies to nonstriated, involuntary muscle) in serum. The measurements aid in the diagnosis of chronic hepatitis (inflammation of the liver) and autoimmune connective tissue diseases (diseases resulting from antibodies produced against the body's own tissues).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5130   <E T="7462">Alpha</E>-1-antitrypsin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An <I>alpha</I>-1-antitrypsin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the <I>alpha</I>-1-antitrypsin (a plasma protein) in serum, other body fluids, and tissues. The measurements aid in the diagnosis of several conditions including juvenile and adult cirrhosis of the liver. In addition, <I>alpha</I>-1-antitrypsin deficiency has been associated with pulmonary emphysema.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5150   Bence-Jones proteins immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Bence-Jones proteins immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the Bence-Jones proteins in urine and plasma. Immunoglobulin molecules normally consist of pairs of polypeptide chains (subunits) of unequal size (light chains and heavy chains) bound together by several disulfide bridges. In some cancerous conditions, there is a proliferation of one plasma cell (antibody-producing cell) with excess production of light chains of one specific kind (monoclonal light chains). These free homogeneous light chains not associated with an immunoglobulin molecule can be found in urine and plasma, and have been called Bence-Jones proteins. Measurement of Bence-Jones proteins and determination that they are monoclonal aid in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma (malignant proliferation of plasma cells), Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia (increased production of large immunoglobulins by spleen and bone marrow cells), leukemia (cancer of the blood-forming organs), and lymphoma (cancer of the lymphoid tissue).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5160   <E T="7462">Beta</E>-globulin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>beta</I>-globulin immunological test system is a device that consists of reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques beta globulins (serum protein) in serum and other body fluids. <I>Beta</I>-globulin proteins include <I>beta</I>-lipoprotein, transferrin, glycoproteins, and complement, and are rarely associated with specific pathologic disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5170   Breast milk immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breast milk immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the breast milk proteins.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5180   Fecal calprotectin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fecal calprotectin immunological test system is an <I>in vitro</I> diagnostic device that consists of reagents used to quantitatively measure, by immunochemical techniques, fecal calprotectin in human stool specimens. The device is intended for<I>in vitro</I> diagnostic use as an aid in the diagnosis of inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD), specifically Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis, and as an aid in differentiation of IBD from irritable bowel syndrome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for these devices is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Fecal Calprotectin Immunological Test Systems.” For the availability of this guidance document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 42598, July 27, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5200   Carbonic anhydrase B and C immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carbonic anhydrase B and C immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques specific carbonic anhydrase protein molecules in serum and other body fluids. Measurements of carbonic anhydrase B and C aid in the diagnosis of abnormal hemoglobin metabolism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5210   Ceruloplasmin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ceruloplasmin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the ceruloplasmin (copper-transporting serum protein) in serum, other body fluids, or tissues. Measurements of ceruloplasmin aid in the diagnosis of copper metabolism disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5220   Cohn fraction II immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Cohn fraction II immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents that contain or are used to measure that fraction of plasma containing protein gamma globulins, predominantly of the IgG class. The device may be used as a coprecipitant in radioimmunoassay methods, as raw material for the purification of IgG subclasses, and to reduce nonspecific adsorption of plasma proteins in immunoassay techniques. Measurement of these proteins aids in the diagnosis of any disease concerned with abnormal levels of IgG gamma globulins such as agammaglobulinemia or multiple myeloma.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5230   Colostrum immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A colostrum immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the specific proteins in colostrum. Colostrum is a substance excreted by the mammary glands during pregnancy and until production of breast milk begins 1 to 5 days after childbirth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5240   Complement components immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A complement components immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques complement components C<E T="52">1q</E>, C<E T="52">1r</E>, C<E T="52">1s</E>, C<E T="52">2</E>, C<E T="52">3</E>, C<E T="52">4</E>, C<E T="52">5</E>, C<E T="52">6</E>, C<E T="52">7</E>, C<E T="52">8</E>, and C<E T="52">9</E>, in serum, other body fluids, and tissues. Complement is a group of serum proteins which destroy infectious agents. Measurements of these proteins aids in the diagnosis of immunologic disorders, especially those associated with deficiencies of complement components.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5250   Complement C<E T="9145">1</E> inhibitor (inactivator) immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A complement C<E T="52">1</E> inhibitor (inactivator) immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the complement C<E T="52">1</E> inhibitor (a plasma protein) in serum. Complement C<E T="52">1</E> inhibitor occurs normally in plasma and blocks the action of the C<E T="52">1</E> component of complement (a group of serum proteins which destroy infectious agents). Measurement of complement C<E T="52">1</E> inhibitor aids in the diagnosis of hereditary angioneurotic edema (increased blood vessel permeability causing swelling of tissues) and a rare form of angioedema associated with lymphoma (lymph node cancer).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5260   Complement C<E T="9145">3b</E> inactivator immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A complement C<E T="52">3b</E> inactivator immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the complement C<E T="52">3b</E> inactivator (a plasma protein) in serum. Complement is a group of serum proteins that destroy infectious agents. Measurement of complement C<E T="52">3b</E> inactivator aids in the diagnosis of inherited antibody dysfunction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5270   C-reactive protein immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A C-reactive protein immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the C-reactive protein in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of C-reactive protein aids in evaluation of the amount of injury to body tissues.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5320   Properdin factor B immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A properdin factor B immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques properdin factor B in serum and other body fluids. The deposition of properdin factor B in body tissues or a corresponding depression in the amount of properdin factor B in serum and other body fluids is evidence of the involvement of the alternative to the classical pathway of activation of complement (a group of plasma proteins which cause the destruction of cells which are foreign to the body). Measurement of properdin factor B aids in the diagnosis of several kidney diseases, e.g., chronic glomerulonephritis (inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney), lupus nephritis (kidney disease associated with a multisystem autoimmune disease, systemic lupus erythematosus), as well as several skin diseases, e.g., dermititis herpetiformis (presence of vesicles on the skin that burn and itch), and pemphigus vulgaris (large vesicles on the skin). Other diseases in which the alternate pathway of complement activation has been implicated include rheumatoid arthritis, sickle cell anemia, and gram-negative bacteremia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5330   Factor XIII, A, S, immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A factor XIII, A, S, immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the factor XIII (a bloodclotting factor), in platelets (A) or serum (S). Measurements of factor XIII, A, S, aid in the diagnosis and treatment of certain bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of this factor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9. This exemption does not apply to factor deficiency tests classified under § 864.7290 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5340   Ferritin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ferritin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the ferritin (an iron-storing protein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurements of ferritin aid in the diagnosis of diseases affecting iron metabolism, such as hemochromatosis (iron overload) and iron deficiency amemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5350   Fibrinopeptide A immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fibrinopeptide A immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the fibrinopeptide A (a blood-clotting factor) in plasma and other body fluids. Measurement of fibrinopeptide A may aid in the diagnosis and treatment of certain blood-clotting disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5360   Cohn fraction IV immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Cohn fraction IV immunological test system is a device that consists of or measures that fraction of plasma proteins, predominantly <I>alpha-</I> and <I>beta-</I> globulins, used as a raw material for the production of pure <I>alpha-</I> or <I>beta-</I> globulins. Measurement of specific <I>alpha-</I> or <I>beta-</I> globulins aids in the diagnosis of many diseases, such as Wilson's disease (an inherited disease affecting the liver and brain), Tangier's disease (absence of <I>alpha-</I>1-lipoprotein), malnutrition, iron deficiency anemia, red blood cell disorders, and kidney disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982; 47 FR 56846, Dec. 21, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5370   Cohn fraction V immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Cohn fraction V immunological test system is a device that consists of or measures that fraction of plasma containing predominantly albumin (a plasma protein). This test aids in the diagnosis of diseases where albumin levels may be depressed, e.g., nephrosis (disease of the kidney), proteinuria (protein in the urine), gastroenteropathy (disease of the stomach and small intestine), rheumatoid arthritis, and viral hepatitis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5380   Free secretory component immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A free secretory component immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques free secretory component (normally a portion of the secretory IgA antibody molecule) in body fluids. Measurement of free secretory component (protein molecules) aids in the diagnosis or repetitive lung infections and other hypogammaglobulinemic conditions (low antibody levels).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5400   <E T="7462">Alpha</E>-globulin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An <I>alpha-</I>globulin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the <I>alpha-</I>globulin (a serum protein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of <I>alpha-</I>globulin may aid in the diagnosis of inflammatory lesions, infections, severe burns, and a variety of other conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5420   <E T="7462">Alpha</E>-1-glycoproteins immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An <I>alpha-</I>1-glycoproteins immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques <I>alpha-</I>1-glycoproteins (a group of plasma proteins found in the <I>alpha-</I>1 group when subjected to electrophoresis) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of specific <I>alpha-</I>1-glycoproteins may aid in the diagnosis of collagen (connective tissue) disorders, tuberculosis, infections, extensive malignancy, and diabetes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5425   <E T="7462">Alpha</E>-2-glycoproteins immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An <I>alpha</I>-2-glycoproteins immunolgical test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the <I>alpha</I>-2-glycoproteins (a group of plasma proteins found in the <I>alpha-</I>2 group when subjected to electrophoresis) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of <I>alpha</I>-2-glycoproteins aids in the diagnosis of some cancers and genetically inherited deficiencies of these plasma proteins.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5430   <E T="7462">Beta</E>-2-glycoprotein I immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>beta</I>-2-glycoprotein I immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the <I>beta</I>-2-glycoprotein I (a serum protein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of <I>beta</I>-2-glycoprotein I aids in the diagnosis of an inherited deficiency of this serum protein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5440   <E T="7462">Beta</E>-2-glycoprotein III immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>beta</I>-2-glycoprotein III immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the <I>beta</I>-2-glycoprotein III (a serum protein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of <I>beta</I>-2-glycoprotein III aids in the diagnosis of an inherited deficiency of this serum protein and a variety of other conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5460   Haptoglobin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A haptoglobin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the haptoglobin (a protein that binds hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying pigment in red blood cells) in serum. Measurement of haptoglobin may aid in the diagnosis of hemolytic diseases (diseases in which the red blood cells rupture and release hemoglobin) related to the formation of hemoglobin-haptoglobin complexes and certain kidney diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5470   Hemoglobin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Indentification.</I> A hemoglobin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the different types of free hemoglobin (the oxygen-carrying pigment in red blood cells) in blood, urine, plasma, or other body fluids. Measurements of free hemoglobin aid in the diagnosis of various hematologic disorders, such as sickle cell anemia, Fanconi's anemia (a rare inherited disease), aplastic anemia (bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells), and leukemia (cancer of the blood-forming organs).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5490   Hemopexin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Indentification.</I> A hemopexin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the hemopexin (a serum protein that binds heme, a component of hemoglobin) in serum. Measurement of hemopexin aids in the diagnosis of various hematologic disorders, such as hemolytic anemia (anemia due to shortened in vivo survival of mature red blood cells and inability of the bone marrow to compensate for their decreased life span) and sickle cell anemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 59227, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5500   Hypersensitivity pneumonitis immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hypersensitivity pneumonitis immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the immunoglobulin antibodies in serum which react specifically with organic dust derived from fungal or animal protein sources. When these antibodies react with such dusts in the lung, immune complexes precipitate and trigger an inflammatory reaction (hypersensitivity pneumonitis). Measurement of these immunoglobulin G antibodies aids in the diagnosis of hypersensitivity pneumonitis and other allergic respiratory disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5510   Immunoglobulins A, G, M, D, and E immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immunoglobulins A, G, M, D, and E immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the immunoglobulins A, G, M, D, an E (serum antibodies) in serum. Measurement of these immunoglobulins aids in the diagnosis of abnormal protein metabolism and the body's lack of ability to resist infectious agents. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5520   Immunoglobulin G (Fab fragment specific) immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immunoglobulin G (Fab fragment specific) immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the Fab antigen-binding fragment resulting from breakdown of immunoglobulin G antibodies in urine, serum, and other body fluids. Measurement of Fab fragments of immunoglobulin G aids in the diagnosis of lymphoproliferative disorders, such as multiple myeloma (tumor of bone marrow cells), Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia (increased immunoglobulin production by the spleen and bone marrow cells), and lymphoma (tumor of the lymphoid tissues).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5530   Immunoglobulin G (Fc fragment specific) immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immunoglobulin G (Fc fragment specific) immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the Fc (carbohydrate containing) fragment of immunoglobulin G (resulting from breakdown of immunoglobulin G antibodies) in urine, serum, and other body fluids. Measurement of immunoglobulin G Fc fragments aids in the diagnosis of plasma cell antibody-forming abnormalities, e.g., gamma heavy chain disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5540   Immunoglobulin G (Fd fragment specific) immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immunoglobulin G (Fd fragment specific) immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the amino terminal (antigen-binding) end (Fd fragment) of the heavy chain (a subunit) of the immunoglobulin antibody molecule in serum. Measurement of immunoglobulin G Fd fragments aids in the diagnosis of plasma antibody-forming cell abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5550   Immunoglobulin (light chain specific) immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immunoglobulin (light chain specific) immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques both kappa and lambda types of light chain portions of immunoglobulin molecules in serum, other body fluids, and tissues. In some disease states, an excess of light chains are produced by the antibody-forming cells. These free light chains, unassociated with gamma globulin molecules, can be found in a patient's body fluids and tissues. Measurement of the various amounts of the different types of light chains aids in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma (cancer of antibody-forming cells), lymphocytic neoplasms (cancer of lymphoid tissue), Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia (increased production of large immunoglobulins), and connective tissue diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5560   Lactic dehydrogenase immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lactic dehydrogenase immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the activity of the lactic dehydrogenase enzyme in serum. Increased levels of lactic dehydrogenase are found in a variety of conditions, including megaloblastic anemia (decrease in the number of mature red blood cells), myocardial infarction (heart disease), and some forms of leukemia (cancer of the blood-forming organs). However, the diagnostic usefulness of this device is limited because of the many conditions known to cause increased lactic dehydrogenase levels.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5570   Lactoferrin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lactoferrin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the lactoferrin (an iron-binding protein with the ability to inhibit the growth of bacteria) in serum, breast milk, other body fluids, and tissues. Measurement of lactoferrin may aid in the diagnosis of an inherited deficiency of this protein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5580   <E T="7462">Alpha</E>-1-lipoprotein immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An <I>alpha</I>-1-lipoprotein immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the <I>alpha-</I>1-lipoprotein (high-density lipoprotein) in serum and plasma. Measurement of <I>alpha-</I>1-lipoprotein may aid in the diagnosis of Tangier disease (a hereditary disorder of fat metabolism).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5590   Lipoprotein X immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lipoprotein X immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques lipoprotein X (a high-density lipoprotein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of lipoprotein X aids in the diagnosis of obstructive liver disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5600   Low-density lipoprotein immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A low-density lipoprotein immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the low-density lipoprotein in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of low-density lipoprotein in serum may aid in the diagnosis of disorders of lipid (fat) metabolism and help to identify young persons at risk from cardiovascular diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5620   <E T="7462">Alpha</E>-2-macroglobulin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An <I>alpha</I>-2-macroglobulin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the <I>alpha</I>-2-macroglobulin (a serum protein) in plasma. Measurement of <I>alpha</I>-2-macroglobulin may aid in the diagnosis of blood-clotting or clot lysis disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5630   <E T="7462">Beta</E>-2-microglobulin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A <I>beta</I>-2-microglobulin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques <I>beta</I>-2-microglobulin (a protein molecule) in serum, urine, and other body fluids. Measurement of <I>beta</I>-2-microglobulin aids in the diagnosis of active rheumatoid arthritis and kidney disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5640   Infectious mononucleosis immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An infectious mononucleosis immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques heterophile antibodies frequently associated with infectious mononucleosis in serum, plasma, and other body fluids. Measurements of these antibodies aid in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982; 47 FR 56846, Dec. 21, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5660   Multiple autoantibodies immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A multiple autoantibodies immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the autoantibodies (antibodies produced against the body's own tissues) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of multiple autoantibodies aids in the diagnosis of autoimmune disorders (disease produced when the body's own tissues are injured by autoantibodies).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5665" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5665   Aquaporin-4 autoantibody immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An Aquaporin-4 autoantibody immunological test system is a device that consists of reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques autoantibodies in human serum samples that react with Aquaporin-4 (AQP4Ab). The measurements aid in the diagnosis of neuromyelitis optica (NMO) and neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorders (NMOSD) in conjunction with other clinical, laboratory, and radiological (<I>e.g.,</I> magnetic resonance imaging) findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description including:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of all components including all required ancillary reagents in the test;
</P>
<P>(B) If applicable, a detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or manuals;
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, detailed documentation of the device software, including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software;
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed description of appropriate internal and external quality controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the specified testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(E) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage;
</P>
<P>(F) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure;
</P>
<P>(G) A description of how the assay cutoff (the medical decision point between positive and negative) was established and validated as well as supporting data; and
</P>
<P>(H) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed information demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Device precision/reproducibility data generated from within-run, between-run, between-day, between-lot, between-site, and total precision for multiple nonconsecutive days, as applicable. A well characterized panel of patient samples or pools from the indicated population that covers the device measuring range must be used.
</P>
<P>(B) Device linearity data generated from samples covering the device measuring range, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) Information on traceability to a reference material and description of value assignment of calibrators and controls, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(D) Device analytical sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantitation, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) Device analytical specificity data, including interference by endogenous and exogenous substances, as well as cross-reactivity with samples derived from patients with other autoimmune diseases or conditions.
</P>
<P>(F) Device instrument carryover data, when applicable.
</P>
<P>(G) Device stability data, including real-time stability under various storage times and temperatures.
</P>
<P>(H) Specimen stability data, including stability under various storage times, temperatures, freeze-thaw, and transport conditions, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(I) Method comparison data generated by comparison of the results obtained with the device to those obtained with a legally marketed predicate device with similar indications of use. A well-characterized panel of patient samples from the indicated population covering the device measuring range must be used.
</P>
<P>(J) Specimen matrix comparison data, if more than one specimen type or anticoagulant can be tested with the device. Samples used for comparison must be from well-characterized patient samples covering the device measuring range.
</P>
<P>(K) Clinical performance must be established by comparing data generated by testing samples from the indicated population and the differential diagnosis or non-target disease groups with the device to the clinical diagnostic standard.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The diagnosis of NMO and NMOSD must be based on clinical findings, laboratory tests (<I>e.g.,</I> serological tests), and radiological tests (<I>e.g.,</I> magnetic resonance imaging).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The differential diagnosis or non-target disease group must include the applicable diseases or conditions, including but not be limited to the following: Multiple sclerosis, stroke, Lyme disease, shingles, syphilis, human immunodeficiency virus, hepatitis B, tuberculosis, Srgen's syndrome, systemic lupus erythematous, systemic vasculitis, sarcoidosis, Graves' disease, Hashimoto's disease, Type I diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, Addison's disease, and myasthenia gravis.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Diagnosis of diseases or conditions for the differential or non-target disease groups must be based on established diagnostic criteria and clinical evaluation.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) For all samples, the diagnostic clinical criteria and the demographic information must be collected and provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The clinical validation results must demonstrate clinical sensitivity and clinical specificity for the test values based on the presence or absence of NMO and NMOSD.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The data must be summarized in tabular format comparing the interpretation of results to the disease status.
</P>
<P>(L) Expected/reference values generated by testing an adequate number of samples from apparently healthy normal individuals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The device's 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include warnings relevant to the device including:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement that reads “The device is for use by laboratory professionals in a clinical laboratory setting”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning statement that reads “The device is not to be used as a stand-alone device but as an adjunct to other clinical information. A diagnosis of Neuromyelitis Optica (NMO) and Neuromyelitis Optica Spectrum Disorders (NMOSD) should not be made on a single test result. The clinical symptoms, results from physical examination, laboratory tests (<I>e.g.,</I> serological tests), and radiological tests (<I>e.g.</I> Magnetic Resonance Imaging), when appropriate, should always be taken into account when considering the diagnosis of NMO and NMOSD.”
</P>
<P>(3) The device's 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include a detailed description of the protocol and performance studies performed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50076, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5670   Zinc transporter 8 autoantibody immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A zinc transporter 8 autoantibody immunological test system is a device that consists of reagents used to measure, by immunochemical techniques, the autoantibodies in human serum samples that react with Zinc Transporter 8 (ZnT8). The measurements aid in the diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes mellitus (autoimmune mediated diabetes) in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of all components in the test system, including a description of the assay components in the kit and all required ancillary reagents;
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, and illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or methods if applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) Detailed documentation of the device software, including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software where applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed description of appropriate internal and external quality controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the recommended testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(E) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage;
</P>
<P>(F) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure; and
</P>
<P>(G) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Device precision/reproducibility data generated from within-run, between-run, between-day, between-lot, between-operator, between-instruments, between-site, and total precision for multiple nonconsecutive days as applicable. A well characterized panel of patient samples or pools from the intended use population that covers the device measuring range must be used;
</P>
<P>(B) Device linearity data generated from patient samples covering the assay measuring range if applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) Information on traceability to a reference material and description of value assignment of calibrators and controls if applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) Device analytical sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection and limit of quantitation if applicable;
</P>
<P>(E) Device analytical specificity data, including interference by endogenous and exogenous substances, as well as cross-reactivity with samples derived from patients with other autoimmune diseases or conditions;
</P>
<P>(F) Device instrument carryover data when applicable;
</P>
<P>(G) Device stability data including real-time stability under various storage times and temperatures;
</P>
<P>(H) Specimen stability data, including stability under various storage times, temperatures, freeze-thaw, and transport conditions where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(I) Method comparison data generated by comparison of the results obtained with the device to those obtained with a legally marketed predicate device with similar indication of use. Patient samples from the intended use population covering the device measuring range must be used;
</P>
<P>(J) Specimen matrix comparison data if more than one specimen type or anticoagulant can be tested with the device. Samples used for comparison must be from patient samples covering the device measuring range;
</P>
<P>(K) A description of how the assay cut-off (the medical decision point between positive and negative) was established and validated as well as supporting data;
</P>
<P>(L) Clinical performance must be established by comparing data generated by testing samples from the intended use population and the differential diagnosis groups with the device to the clinical diagnostic standard. The diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes mellitus must be based on clinical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests, such as one or more pancreatic or insulin autoantibody test. Because the intended use population for Type 1 diabetes mellitus includes subjects less than 18 years old, samples from representative numbers of these subjects must be included. Representative numbers of samples from all age strata must also be included. The differential diagnosis groups must include, but not be limited to the following: Type 2 diabetes mellitus; metabolic syndrome; latent autoimmune diabetes in adults; other autoimmune diseases such as celiac disease (without a concomitant diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes mellitus), systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, and Hashimoto's thyroiditis; infection; renal disease; and testicular cancer. Diseases for the differential groups must be based on established diagnostic criteria and clinical evaluation. For all samples, the diagnostic clinical criteria and the demographic information must be collected and provided. The clinical validation results must demonstrate clinical sensitivity and clinical specificity for the test values based on the presence or absence of Type 1 diabetes mellitus. The data must be summarized in tabular format comparing the interpretation of results to the disease status; and
</P>
<P>(M) Expected/reference values generated by testing an adequate number of samples from apparently healthy normal individuals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Your 21 CFR 809.10(a) compliant label and 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include warnings relevant to the assay including:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement that reads, “The device is for use by laboratory professionals in a clinical laboratory setting”;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning statement that reads, “The test is not a stand-alone test but an adjunct to other clinical information. A diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes mellitus should not be made on a single test result. The clinical symptoms, results on physical examination, and laboratory tests (<I>e.g.,</I> serological tests), when appropriate, should always be taken into account when considering the diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes mellitus and Type 2 diabetes mellitus”;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning statement that reads, “Absence of Zinc T8 autoantibody does not rule out a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes mellitus”; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning statement that reads, “The assay has not been demonstrated to be effective for monitoring the stage of disease or its response to treatment.”
</P>
<P>(3) Your 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include a description of the protocol and performance studies performed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 49103, Oct. 20, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5680   Myoglobin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A myoglobin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the myoglobin (an oxygen storage protein found in muscle) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of myoglobin aids in the rapid diagnosis of heart or renal disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5700   Whole human plasma or serum immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A whole human plasma or serum immunological test system is a device that consists of reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the proteins in plasma or serum. Measurements of proteins in plasma or serum aid in the diagnosis of any disease concerned with abnormal levels of plasma or serum proteins, e.g., agammaglobulinemia, allergies, multiple myeloma, rheumatoid vasculitis, or hereditary angioneurotic edema.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5715" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5715   Plasminogen immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A plasminogen immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the plasminogen (an inactive substance from which plasmin, a blood-clotting factor, is formed) in serum, other body fluids, and tissues. Measurement of plasminogen levels may aid in the diagnosis of fibrinolytic (blood-clotting) disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5735" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5735   Prothrombin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prothrombin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the prothrombin (clotting factor II) in serum. Measurements of the amount of antigenically competent (ability to react with protein antibodies) prothrombin aid in the diagnosis of blood-clotting disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9. This exemption does not apply to multipurpose systems for in vitro coagulation studies classified under § 864.5425 of this chapter or prothrombin time tests classified under § 864.7750 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5750   Radioallergosorbent (RAST) immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radioallergosorbent immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the allergen antibodies (antibodies which cause an allergic reaction) specific for a given allergen. Measurement of specific allergen antibodies may aid in the diagnosis of asthma, allergies, and other pulmonary disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when intended to detect any of the allergens included in Table 1 in this paragraph, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Class II Exempt Allergens Under § 866.5750—Radioallergosorbent (RAST) Immunological Test Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allergen code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allergen product
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Source
<br/>(taxonomical name)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Grass Pollens</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweet vernal grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anthoxanthum odoratum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cocksfoot grass, Orchard grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Dactylis glomerata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meadow fescue</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Festuca elatior.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rye-grass (perennial rye grass)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lolium perenne.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common reed (common reed grass)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phragmites communis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meadow grass, Kentucky blue (June grass)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Poa pratensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Redtop, Bentgrass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Agrostis stolonifera</E>, <E T="03">Agrostis gigantea</E> (<E T="03">Agrostis alba</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brome grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bromus inermis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cultivated rye (cultivated rye grass)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Secale cereale.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Velvet grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Holcus lanatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cultivated oat (cultivated oat grass)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Avena sativa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cultivated wheat (cultivated wheat grass)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Triticum aestivum</E> (<E T="03">Triticum</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meadow foxtail (meadow foxtail grass)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alopecurus pratensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bahia grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Paspalum notatum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wheat grass, Western</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Agropyron smithii</E> (<E T="03">Elymus smithii</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bluegrass, annual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Poa annua.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wild rye grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Elymus triticoides</E> <E T="03">Elymus condensatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canary grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phalaris arundinacea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barley, cultivated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hordeum vulgare.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maize, corn (cultivated corn)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Zea mays.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salt grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Distichlis spicata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">False oat-grass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Arrhenatherum elatius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g216</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cyn d 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cynodon dactylon.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g701</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phl p 1.0102, Phl p 5.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phleum pratense.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g702</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phl p 7.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phleum pratense.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">g703</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phl p 12.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phleum pratense.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Weed Pollens</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Western ragweed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ambrosia psilostachya.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">False ragweed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ambrosia acanthicarpa</E> (<E T="03">Franseria acanthicarpa</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wormwood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia absinthium</E> <E T="03">Artemisia annua.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mugwort</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marguerite, ox-eye daisy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chrysanthemum leucanthemum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dandelion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Taraxacum vulgare</E>, <E T="03">Taraxacum officinale.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plantain (English), Ribwort</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Plantago lanceolata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goosefoot, lamb's quarters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chenopodium album.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Saltwort (prickly), Russian thistle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salsola kali</E> (<E T="03">Salsola pestifer</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goldenrod</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Solidago virgaurea</E> (<E T="03">Solidago</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cocklebur, common</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Xanthium commune.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common pigweed (rough pigweed)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Amaranthus retroflexus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scale, Lenscale</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Atriplex lentiformis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rough marsh elder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Iva ciliate</E>, <E T="03">Iva annua.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Firebush (Kochia)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Kochia scoparia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheep sorrel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rumex acetosella.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wall pellitory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Parietaria officinalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nettle (Common stinging nettle)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Urtica dioica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wall pellitory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Parietaria judaica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Japanese hop (careless weed)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Humulus japonicas</E> (<E T="03">Humulus scandens</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yellow dock, Yellow dockweed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rumex crispus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spiny pigweed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Amaranthus spinosus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w27</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carnation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Dianthus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rosa rugosa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clover</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trifolium pratense.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mexican tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chenopodium ambrosioides.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rabbit bush</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ambrosia deltoidea</E> (<E T="03">Franseria deltoides</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salt bush, annual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Atriplex wrightii.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water hemp, Western</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Amaranthus rudis</E> (<E T="03">Acnida tamariscina</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Burrobrush</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hymenoclea salsola.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poverty weed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Baccharis neglecta.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common sagebrush</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia tridentata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alfalfa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Medicago sativa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dog fennel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eupatorium capillifolium.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Geranium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Groundsel bush</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Baccharis halimifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodine bush</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allenrolfea occidentalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ragweed, slender</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ambrosia confertiflora.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wing scale (wingscale)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Atriplex canescens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Careless weed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Amaranthus palmeri</E>, <E T="03">Amaranthus hybridus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Japanese hop</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Humulus japonicas</E> (<E T="03">Humulus scandens</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rape (rape pollen)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica napus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sunflower</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Helianthus annuus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Camomile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Matricaria chamomilla.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lupin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lupinus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sugar-beet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Beta vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Par j 2.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Parietaria judaica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Art v 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia vulgaris</E> (Mugwort).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sal k 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salsola kali.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Art v 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisa vulgaris</E> (LTP, Mugwort).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pla l 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Plantago lanceolata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Che a 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chenopodium album.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">w236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mer a 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mercurialis annua.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a753</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Art v 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia vulgaris</E> (Mugwort weed).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Tree Pollens</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Box-elder (Maple)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acer negundo</E>, <E T="03">Acer saccharum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gray alder, speckled alder (alder)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alnus incana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hazel, hazelnut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Corylus avellana</E>, <E T="03">Corylus americana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">American beech (beech)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fagus grandifolia</E> (<E T="03">Fagus americana</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mountain juniper, Mountain cedar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juniperus ashei</E> (<E T="03">Juniperus sabinoides</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ulmus americana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Olive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea europaea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Walnut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juglans californica</E>, <E T="03">Juglans nigra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maple leaf sycamore, London plane, Plane tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Platanus acerifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sycamore</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Platanus occidentalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Willow</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salix caprea</E>, <E T="03">Salix nigra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cottonwood (Eastern Cottonwood/Black Cottonwood)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Populus deltoides.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">White ash</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fraxinus americana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">White pine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus strobus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eucalyptus, gum-tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eucalyptus globulus</E> (<E T="03">Eucalyptus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t19/t26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acacia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acacia longifolia</E> (<E T="03">Acacia</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mesquite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prosopis glandulosa/</E><E T="03">Prosopis juliflora.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melaleuca, cajeput tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melaleuca quinquenervia</E> (<E T="03">Melaleuca leucadendron</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pecan, hickory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carya illinoinensis</E> (<E T="03">Carya pecan</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Italian/Mediterranean/funeral cypress</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cupressus sempervirens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Japanese cypress</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chamaecyparis obtusa</E> (<E T="03">Chamaecyparis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ash</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fraxinus excelsior.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t27</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maple, red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acer rubrum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acacia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acacia</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Birch, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Betula populifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Willow, black</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salix nigra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ash, Arizona</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fraxinus velutina.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cedar, salt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tamarix gallica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bald cypress (white bald cypress)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Taxodium distichum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t38</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elm, Chinese/Siberian</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ulmus pumila.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hazelnut tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Corylus americana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">White hickory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carya alba</E> (<E T="03">Carya tomentosa</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oak, red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quercus rubra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loblolly pine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus taeda.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hackberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Celtis occidentalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cedar elm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ulmus crassifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Juniper, one seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juniperus monosperma.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pine, lodgepole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus contorta.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pine, ponderosa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus ponderosa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beech, European</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fagus sylvatica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tree of Heaven</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ailanthus altissima.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Western white pine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus monticola.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Russian olive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Elaeagnus angustifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scotch broom</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cytisus scoparius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bayberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myrica cerifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t57</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red cedar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juniperus virginiana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Western juniper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juniperus occidentalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sycamore</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Platanus occidentalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mulberry (white mulberry)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Morus alba.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red mulberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Morus rubra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Queen palm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Arecastrum romanzoffiamon.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Australian pine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Casuarina equisetifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oak mix (red, white, black)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quercus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Japanese cypress</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chamaecyparis obtusa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Japanese alder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alnus japonica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mango tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mangifera indica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Walnut, black</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juglans nigra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poplar, white (poplar)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Populus alba.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t103/t218</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Virginia live oak (live oak)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quercus virginiana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pepper tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Schinus molle.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orange tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus sinensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spruce, Norway spruce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Picea abies</E> (<E T="03">Picea excelsa</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alder, smooth</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alnus incana</E> spp.<E T="03"> Rugosa</E> (<E T="03">Alnus rugosa</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horse chestnut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aesculus hippocastanum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sambucus nigra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chestnut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Castanea sativa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Douglas fir</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pseudotsuga menziesii</E> (<E T="03">Pseudotsuga taxifolia</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Linden</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tilia cordata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horn beam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carpinus betulus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Privet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ligustrum vulgare.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweet gum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Liquidambar styraciflua.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cedar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Libocedrus decurrens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pinus radiata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date palm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phoenix canariensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lilac</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Syringa vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t217</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pepper tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Schinus molle.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t217</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red alder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alnus rubra.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t218</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Virginia live oak</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Quercus virginiana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t218</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bayberry (bayberry/sweet gale)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myrica gale.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Palo verde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cercidium floridum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red cedar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Juniperus virginiana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bet v 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Betula verrucosa</E> (Birch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bet v 2.0101, Bet v 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Betula verrucosa</E> (Birch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cypress (Arizona cypress)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cupressus arizonica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil palm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Elaeis guineensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ole e 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea europaea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bet v 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Betula verrucosa</E> (Birch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cup a 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cupressus arizonica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ole e 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea Europaea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aspen, quaking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Populus tremuloides.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eastern hemlock</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tsuga canadensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Redwood (sequoia)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sequoia sempervirens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pussy willow</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salix discolor.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ole e 9.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea Europaea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pla a 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Platanus acerifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pla a 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Platanus acerifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pla a 3.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Platanus acerifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cor a 1.0103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Corylus avellana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aln g 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alnus glutinosa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cry j 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cryptomeria japonica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t280</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Locust tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Robinia pseudoacacia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t401</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brazilian peppertree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Schinus terebinthifolius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t402</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mastic tree</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pistacia lentiscus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t404</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tree of heaven</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ailanthus altissima.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">t406</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date palm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phoenix dactylifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a482</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ole e 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea europaea</E> (Olive Oil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Mites</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">d207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blo t 5.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Blomia tropicalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">d208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lep d 2.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lepidoglyphus destructor.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Microorganisms, Molds, Yeast</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium chrysogenum</E> (<E T="03">Penicillium notatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium chrysogenum</E> (<E T="03">Penicillium notatum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium herbarum</E> (<E T="03">Hormodendrum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium herbarum</E> (<E T="03">Hormodendrum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus fumigatus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus fumigatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mucor racemosus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mucor racemosus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Candida albicans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Candida albicans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Botrytis cinerea</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Botrytis cinerea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Drechslera halodes</E> (<E T="03">Setomelanomma rostrata, Helminthosporium halodes, Helminthosporium interseminatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Drechslera halodes</E> (<E T="03">Setomelanomma rostrata, Helminthosporium halodes.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fusarium moniliforme</E> (<E T="03">Fusarium proliferatum</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fusarium moniliforme</E> (<E T="03">Fusarium proliferatum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stemphylium botryosum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stemphylium herbarum</E> (<E T="03">Stemphylium botryosum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rhizopus nigricans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rhizopus nigricans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aureobasidium pullulans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aureobasidium pullulans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phoma betae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phoma betae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Epicoccum purpurascens</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Epicoccum purpurascens</E> (<E T="03">Epicoccum nigrum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichoderma viride</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichoderma viride.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Curvularia lunata</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Curvularia lunata</E>, <E T="03">Curvularia specifera</E> (<E T="03">K923044</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium fulvum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium fulvum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fusarium culmorum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fusarium culmorum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus versicolor</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus versicolor.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mucor mucedo</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mucor mucedo.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus clavatus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus clavatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Micropolyspora faeni</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula</E> (<E T="03">Micropolyspora faeni</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thermoactinomyces vulgaris</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thermoactinomyces vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stachybotrys atra</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stachybotrys chartarum</E> (<E T="03">Stachybotrys atra</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Paecilomyces</E> spp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Paecilomyces</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus versicolor</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus versicolor.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium brevicompactum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium brevicompactum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium cladosporioides</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium cladosporioides.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium citrinum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium citrinum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m27</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium</E> spp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus repens</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus repens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium roqueforti</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium roqueforti.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium cladosporioides</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium cladosporioides.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Serpula lacrymans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Serpula lacrymans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus terreus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus terreus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton mentagrophytes</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton mentagrophytes.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus amstelodami</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus amstelodami.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharomyces Carlsberg</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharomyces carlsbergensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharomyces cerevisiae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharomyces cerevisiae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hormodendrum hordei</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hormodendrum hordei.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bipolaris spicifera</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bipolaris spicifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus nidulans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus nidulans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus oryzae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus oryzae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fusarium oxysporum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fusarium oxysporum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Micropolyspora faeni</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula</E> (<E T="03">Micropolyspora faeni</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thermoactinomyces vulgaris</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thermoactinomyces vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Microspora canis</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Microsporum canis</E> (<E T="03">Microspora canis</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus flavus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus flavus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Helminthosporium intersemin</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Helminthosporium intersemin.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m66</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mucor plumbeus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mucor plumbeus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mycogone</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mycogone perniciosa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nigrospora oryzae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nigrospora oryzae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rhodotorula</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rhodotorula rubra</E> (<E T="03">Rhodotorula mucilaginosa</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Malassezia furfur</E> (<E T="03">Pityrosporum orbiculare</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Malassezia furfur</E> (<E T="03">Pityrosporum orbiculare</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Spondylocladium</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Spondylocladium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Epidermophyton</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Epidermophyton floccosum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Epicoccum nigrum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Epicoccum purpurascens</E> (<E T="03">Epicoccum nigrum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcal enterotoxin A</E> (<E T="03">Sta a SEA</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Helminthosporium</E> spp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Helminthosporium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcal enterotoxin B</E> (<E T="03">Sta a SEB</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stemphylium solani</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stemphylium solani.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gliocladium fimbriatum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gliocladium fimbriatum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phycomyces blakesleeanus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phycomyces blakesleeanus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tilletia tritici</E> (<E T="03">Ustilago nuda, Ustilago tritici</E>) (Barley smut)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tilletia tritici</E> (<E T="03">Ustilago nuda, Ustilago tritici</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acremonium kiliense</E> (<E T="03">Cephalosporium acremonium</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acremonium kiliense</E> (<E T="03">Cephalosporium acremonium</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichosporon pullulans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichosporon pullulans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ulocladium chartarum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ulocladium chartarum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton rubrum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton rubrum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus niger</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus niger.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chaetomium globosum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chaetomium globosum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium frequentans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium glabrum</E> (<E T="03">Penicillium frequentans</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stachybotrys chartarum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Stachybotrys chartarum</E> (<E T="03">Stachybotrys atra</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. goetzii</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. goetzii.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. interdigitale</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. interdigitale.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oat smut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ustilago avenae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Micropolyspora faeni</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula</E> (<E T="03">Micropolyspora faeni</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Geotrichum candidum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Geotrichum candidum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bermuda grass smut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ustilago cynodontis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Johnson grass smut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sphacelotheca cruenta.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corn smut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ustilago maydis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m218</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asp f 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus fumigatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a3050</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asp r 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus restrictus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asp f 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus fumigatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asp f 3.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus fumigatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asp f 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus fumigatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asp f 6.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus fumigatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcal enterotoxin C</E> (<E T="03">Sta a SEC</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcal enterotoxin D</E> (<E T="03">Sta a SED</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcal enterotoxin TSST</E> (<E T="03">Sta a TSST</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Malassezia</E> spp. (<E T="03">Pityrosporum</E> spp.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Malassezia</E> spp. (<E T="03">Pityrosporum</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus flavus.</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alt a 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alternaria alternata</E> (<E T="03">Alternaria tenuis</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alt a 6.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alternaria alternata</E> (<E T="03">Alternaria tenuis</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cla h 8.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladosporium herbarum</E> (<E T="03">Hormodendrum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eurotium</E> spp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eurotium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m304</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus oryzae</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus oryzae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m305</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium brevicompactum</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Penicillium brevicompactum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m309</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus terreus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus terreus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus nidulans</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus nidulans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m311</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus flavus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus flavus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">m312</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus clavatus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus clavatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Epidermal &amp; Animal</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guinea pig epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cavia porcellus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pigeon droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Columba palumbus</E>, <E T="03">Columba livia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicken serum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gallus domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Gallus gallus domesticus; Gallus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parrot serum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Psittacoidea</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e62</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Camel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Camelus dromedaries.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goose feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anser anser.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mouse epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mus musculus</E> (<E T="03">Mus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rat epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rattus norvegicus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rat urine proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rattus norvegicus</E>, <E T="03">Rattus rattus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rat serum proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rattus norvegicus</E>, <E T="03">Rattus rattus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mouse serum proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mus musculus</E> (<E T="03">Mus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Budgerigar droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melopsittacus undulatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Budgerigar feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melopsittacus undulatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Budgerigar serum proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melopsittacus undulatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goat epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capra hircus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheep epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ovis aries</E> (<E T="03">Ovis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rabbit epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Oryctolagus cuniculus</E> (<E T="03">Oryctolagus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sus scrofa</E> (<E T="03">Sus scrofa domesticus; Sus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hamster epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cricetus cricetus, Mesocricetus auratus, and Phodopus sungorus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicken feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gallus domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Gallus gallus domesticus; Gallus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Duck feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anas platyrhynchos.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rat epithelium, serum proteins, and urine proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rattus norvegicus</E> <E T="03">Rattus rattus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mouse epithelium, serum proteins, and urine proteins (mouse)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mus musculus</E> (<E T="03">Mus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkey feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Meleagris gallopavo.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Budgerigar serum proteins, feathers, and droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Melopsittacus undulatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pigeon serum proteins, feathers, and droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Streptopelia roseogrisea</E>, <E T="03">Psittacidae</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parrot serum proteins, feathers, and droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ara</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pigeon serum proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Streptopelia roseogrisea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fel d 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Felis domesticus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a345</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fel d 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Felis domesticus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parrot droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Psittacoidea</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Can f 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Canis familiaris</E> (<E T="03">Canis domesticus</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a174</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Can f 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Canis familiaris</E> (<E T="03">Canis domesticus</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Can f 2.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Canis familiaris</E> (<E T="03">Canis domesticus</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e196</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parakeet feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nymphicus hollandicus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parakeet droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nymphicus hollandicus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parakeet serum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nymphicus hollandicus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canary bird serum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Serinus canarius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canary bird droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Serinus canarius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canary bird feathers (Canary feathers)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Serinus canarius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reindeer epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rangifer tarandus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mink epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mustela</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bos d 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bos domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Bos taurus; Bos</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horse, serum proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Equus caballus</E> (<E T="03">Equus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rabbit, serum proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Oryctolagus cuniculus</E> (<E T="03">Oryctolagus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chinchilla epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chinchilla laniger.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gerbil epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Meriones unguiculatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fox epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vulpes vulpes.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rabbit, urine proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Oryctolagus cuniculus</E> (<E T="03">Oryctolagus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine, urine proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sus scrofa</E> (<E T="03">Sus scrofa domesticus; Sus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parrot feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ara</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finch feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lonchura domestica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pigeon feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Streptopelia roseogrisea</E> (<E T="03">Streptopelia</E> spp.), <E T="03">Columbia</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e216</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deer epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Dama dama.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e217</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ferret epithelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mustela putorius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e218</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicken droppings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gallus domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Gallus gallus domesticus; Gallus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicken, serum proteins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gallus domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Gallus gallus domesticus; Gallus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fel d 2, Cat serum albumin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Felis domesticus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Can f 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Canis familiaris</E> (<E T="03">Canis domesticus</E>) (<E T="03">Dog serum albumin</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Swine serum albumin (Sus s PSA)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sus scrofa</E> (<E T="03">Sus scrofa domesticus; Sus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lovebird feathers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Psittacoidea agapomis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Can f 5.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Canis familiaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equ c 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Equus caballus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fel d 4.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Felis domesticus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equ c 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Equus caballus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">e231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mus m 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mus musculus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Food</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Oryza sativa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pea (green pea)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pisum sativum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">White bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phaseolus vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cayenne pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum frutescens</E> (<E T="03">Capsicum annum</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sugar cane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharum officinarum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Raspberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rubus idaeus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pork</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sus scrofa</E> (<E T="03">Sus scrofa domesticus; Sus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Watermelon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrullus lanatus</E> (<E T="03">Citrullus vulgaris</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carrot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Daucus carota.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oyster mushroom</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pleurotus ostreatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orange</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus sinensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potato</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Solanum tuberosum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mother's milk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Homo sapiens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Strawberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Fragaria vesca</E> (<E T="03">Fragaria</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yeast, baker's</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharomyces cerevisiae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pepper, Red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum annuum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Garlic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium sativum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Onion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium cepa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apple</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Malus x domestica</E> (<E T="03">Malus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bamboo shoot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phyllostachys pubescens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cacao/chocolate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Theobroma cacao.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweet potato</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ipomoea batatas.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common millet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Panicum miliaceum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Foxtail millet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Setaria italica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f57</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Japanese millet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Echinochloa crus-galli.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f58</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pacific squid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Todarodes pacificus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Octopus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Octopus vulgaris</E> (<E T="03">Octopus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kefir</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parmesan cheese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cheese, cheddar type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cheese, mold type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicken</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gallus domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Gallus gallus domesticus; Gallus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parsley</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Petroselinum crispum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucumis melo Cucumis melo + Citrullus lanatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mutton (lamb)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ovis aries</E> (<E T="03">Ovis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Malt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hordeum vulgare.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Banana</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Musa</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cacao</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Theobroma cacao.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pyrus communis</E> (<E T="03">Pyrus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Dioscorea</E> spp. <E T="03">Dioscorea opposita.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chamomile tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Matricaria chamomilla.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gliadin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Triticum aestivum</E> (<E T="03">Triticum</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cantaloupe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucumis melo var. cantalupensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chocolate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Theobroma cacao.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cottonseed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gossypium hirsutum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Giant radish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Raphanus sativus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f118</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zucchini</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucurbita pepo.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Raphanus sativus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Venison</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capreolus capeolus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pinto bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phaseolus vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cheese, American</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black-eyed pea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vigna unguiculata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black Olive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea europaea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f136</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red beet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Beta vulgaris var. conditiva.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goat's Cheese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capra aegagrus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corn (vegetables)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Zea mays.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green bell pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum annuum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brewer's yeast</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharomyces carlsbergensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Duck</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anas domesticus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anser anser.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Camembert cheese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nectarine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus persica var. nucipersica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f163</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kohlrabi</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica oleracea var. gongylodes.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Perch
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium porrum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cheese (Switzerland) (Swiss cheese)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f174</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fig</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ficus carica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cranberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vaccinium macrocarpon.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Raisin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vitis</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lima bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phaseolus lunatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flaxseed (bruised grain)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Linum usitatissimum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Untreated native milk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bos domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Bos taurus; Bos</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lemon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus limon.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grapefruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus paradisi.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pineapple</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ananas comosus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blackberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rubus fruticosus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mushroom (champignon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Agaricus hortensis</E> (<E T="03">Agaricus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rabbit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Oryctolagus cuniculus</E> (<E T="03">Oryctolagus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spinach</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Spinacia oleracea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lettuce</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lactuca sativa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f216</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cabbage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica oleracea var. capitata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f217</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brussels sprouts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica oleracea var. gem.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f218</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paprika, sweet pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum annuum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fennel seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Foeniculum vulgare.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia officinalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cinnamon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cinnamomum</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coffee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Coffea</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Camellia sinensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green olive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea europaea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summer squash, pumpkin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucurbita pepo.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pumpkin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucurbita maxima.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pumpkin seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucurbita pepo.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sugar-beet seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Beta vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safflower Seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carthamus tinctorius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milk, boiled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bos domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Bos taurus; Bos</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vanilla</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vanilla planifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apricot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus armeniaca.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gouda cheese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cherry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus avium.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cucumber</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucumis sativus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guar, guar gum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cyamopsis tetragonoloba.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Honey</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rosemary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rosmarinus officinalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plaice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pleuronectes platessa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f255</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Prunus domestica</E>, <E T="03">Prunus americana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f258</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Squid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Loligo</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f259</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grape</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vitis vinifera</E> (<E T="03">Vitis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f260</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broccoli</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica oleracea var. italica</E> (<E T="03">Brassica oleracea var. cultivar</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f261</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asparagus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Asparagus officinalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f262</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aubergine, eggplant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Solanum melongena.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f263</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Piper nigrum</E>, <E T="03">Capsicum annuum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f264</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anguilla anguilla.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f265</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Caraway</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carum carvi.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f265</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cumin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cuminum cyminum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f266</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mace</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myristica fragrans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f267</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cardamon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Elettaria cardamomum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f268</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clove</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Syzygium aromaticum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f269</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Basil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ocimum basilicum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f270</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ginger</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Zingiber officinale.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f271</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimpinella anisum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f272</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tarragon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemisia dracunculus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f273</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thyme</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Thymus vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f274</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marjoram</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Origanum majorana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f275</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lovage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Levisticum officinale.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f276</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fennel, fresh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Foeniculum vulgare.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f277</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dill</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anethum graveolens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f278</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bay leaf</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Laurus nobilis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f279</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chili pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Capsicum frutescens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f280</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black pepper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Piper nigrum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f281</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curry (Santa Maria)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f282</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nutmeg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Myristica fragrans.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f283</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oregano</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Origanum vulgare.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f284</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turkey meat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Meleagris gallopavo.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f285</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elk/moose meat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Alces</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f286</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mare's milk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Equus caballus</E> (<E T="03">Equus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f287</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red kidney bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phaseolus vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f288</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blueberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vaccinium myrtillus</E> (<E T="03">Vaccinium</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f289</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phoenix dactylifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f291</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cauliflower</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica oleracea var. botrytis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f292</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guava</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Psidium guajava.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f293</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Papaya</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carica papaya.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f294</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Passion fruit, Maracuja</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Passiflora edulis</E> (<E T="03">Passiflora</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f295</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carambola</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Averrhoa carambola.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f296</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carob</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ceratonia siliqua.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f297</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gum Arabic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Acacia senegal</E> (<E T="03">Acacia</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f298</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tragacanth</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Astragalus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f299</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweet chestnut (chestnut)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Castanea sativa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pinto bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phaseolus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f301</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Persimmon (kaki fruit, sharon)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Diospyros kaki.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f302</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mandarin (tangerine, clementine, satsumas)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus reticulata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f305</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fenugreek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trigonella foenum-graecum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f306</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lime</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrus aurantifolia.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f307</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hake</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Merluccius merluccius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f308</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sardine (pilchard)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sardina pilchardus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blue vetch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lathyrus sativus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f311</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Megrim</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Lepidorhombus whiffiagonis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f315</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Phaseolus vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f316</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rape seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Brassica napus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f317</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coriander</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Coriandrum sativum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f318</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jack fruit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artocarpus heterophyllus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f319</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beetroot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Beta vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f320</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crayfish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Astacus astacus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f321</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horse meat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Equus caballus</E> (<E T="03">Equus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f322</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Red currant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ribes sylvestre.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f324</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hop (fruit cone)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Humulus lupulus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f325</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Saffron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Colchicum autumnale.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f328</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fig</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ficus carica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Watermelon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Citrullus lanatus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f330</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rose hip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rosa</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f331</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Saffron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Crocus sativus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f332</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha piperita.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f333</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Linseed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Linum usitatissimum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f336</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jujube</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ziziphus jujuba.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f336</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wine vinegar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vitis vinifera</E> (<E T="03">Vitis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f337</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Solea solea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f337</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">English sole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Parophrys vetulus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f338</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wine, white</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vitis vinifera</E> (<E T="03">Vitis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f339</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allspice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pimenta dioica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f339</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wine, red</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vitis vinifera</E> (<E T="03">Vitis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f341</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cranberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vaccinium oxycoccus</E>, <E T="03">Vaccinium macrocarpon.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f342</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Olive (black, fresh)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Olea europaea.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f343</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Raspberry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Rubus idaeus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f344</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Salvia officinalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f346</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Allium schoenoprasum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f347</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quinoa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chenopodium quinoa.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f348</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Litchi</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Litchi chinensis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f349</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chum salmon roe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Oncorhynchus keta.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f358</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Artichoke</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cynara scolymus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f360</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yogurt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f368</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black bass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Micropterus dolomieu</E> (<E T="03">Micropterus dolomieui</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f374</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Karaya gum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sterculia urens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horseradish</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Armoracia rusticana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f377</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maple syrup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f379</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Okra</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Abelmoschus esculentus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f382</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beet, sugar</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Beta vulgaris var. altissima.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f401</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loquat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eriobotrya japonica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f402</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fig</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ficus carica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f403</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brewer's yeast</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Saccharomyces cerevisiae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f405</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mint</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Mentha</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">f406</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arugula</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Eruca vesicaria.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">House Dust</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">h1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greer Labs., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">h2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hollister-Stier Labs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">h6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Japan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Venoms &amp; Insects</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Midge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chironomus yoshimatsui.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moth</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bombyx mori</E>, <E T="03">Heterocera</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water flea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Daphnia</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deer fly</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chrysops</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black ant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Camponotus pennsylvanicus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flea mix (dog/cat), common flea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ctenocephalides</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mosquito</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aedes communis</E>, <E T="03">Aedes</E> spp.<E T="03"> and Culex</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green nimitti</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cladotanytarsus lewisi.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blood worm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Chironomus thummi</E>, <E T="03">Chironomusri parius</E>, <E T="03">Chironomus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">European hornet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vespa crabro.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Berlin beetle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Trogoderma angustum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">European paper wasp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Polistes dominulus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fly</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Musca domestica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bumblebee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bombus pennsylvanicus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horse bot fly</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gasterophilus intestinalis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grain weevil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sitophilus granarius.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mediterranean flour moth</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ephestia kuehniella</E> (<E T="03">Anagasta kuehniella</E>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horse fly</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tabanus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bumblebee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bombus terrestris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ves v 5.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vespula vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a670</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ves v 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vespula vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pol d 5.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Polistes dominulus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ves v 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Vespula vulgaris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i216</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i217</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bla g 1.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Blattella germanica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bla g 2.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Blattella germanica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bla g 5.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Blattella germanica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bla g 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Blattella germanica.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Api m 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Apis mellifera.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Miscellaneous</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cotton, crude fibers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gossypium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cotton (treated)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gossypium</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seminal fluid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Homo sapiens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pichia pastoris</E> crude extract customer specific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pichia pastoris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sperm-sediment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Homo sapiens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pichia pastoris</E> crude extr. vector customer specific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pichia pastoris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pichia pastoris</E> with vector customer specific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Pichia pastoris.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tobacco leaf, tobacco dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Nicotiana tabacum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Artemia salina, fish feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Artemia salina.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tetramin, fish feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Daphnia, fish feed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Daphnia</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mealworm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Tenebrio molitor.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Streptavidin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Streptomyces avidini.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MBP (maltose binding protein)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Escherichia coli.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CCD; MUXF3 from bromelain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ananas comosus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enterotoxin A (Sta a SEA)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enterotoxin B (Sta a SEB)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Staphylococcus aureus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Parasites</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ascaris</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ascaris suum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Echinococcus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Echinococcus granulosus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schistosoma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Schistosoma mansoni.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anisakis (Herring Worm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anisakis simplex</E> (<E T="03">Anisakis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Toxocara canis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Toxocara canis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ani s 3.0101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anisakis simplex</E> (<E T="03">Anisakis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ani s 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Anisakis simplex</E> (<E T="03">Anisakis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Occupational</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Threshing dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flax</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hay Dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hop (hops)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Humulus lupulus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grain mill dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kapok</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheep's wool (treated) (wool)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ovis aries</E> (<E T="03">Ovis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheep's wool (Untreated)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ovis aries</E> (<E T="03">Ovis</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Straw Dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oak</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Green coffee bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Coffea</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Castor bean</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ricinus communis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ispaghula</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Plantago psyllium/Plantago ovata.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silk waste</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bombyx mori.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Isocyanate TDI (Toluene diisocyanate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Isocyanate MDI (Diphenylmethane diisocyanate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Isocyanate HDI (Hexamethylen diisocyanate)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethylene oxide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phthalic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formaldehyde/Formalin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ficus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ficus benjamina</E> (<E T="03">Ficus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cotton seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gossypium hirsutum.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sunflower seed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Helianthus annuus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chloramin T</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trimellitic anhydride, TMA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asp o 21, alpha-amylase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Aspergillus oryzae.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orris root</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Iris florentina.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HSA (Human Serum Albumin) (Hom s HSA)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Homo sapiens.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Car p 1, Papain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Carica papaya.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ana c 2, Bromelain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Ananas comosus.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maxatase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bacillus licheniformis.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alcalase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bacillus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Savinase, Protease 1 (Bac l Subtilisin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bacillus</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gal d 4, Lysozyme</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Gallus domesticus</E> (<E T="03">Gallus gallus domesticus; Gallus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hexahydrophtalic anhydrid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maleic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Methyltetrahydrophtalic anhydrid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abachi wood dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Triplochiton scleroxylon.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pepsin (Sus s Pepsin)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Sus scrofa</E> (<E T="03">Sus scrofa domesticus; Sus</E> spp.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TCPA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bougainvillea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Bougainvillea</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horse radish peroxidase (Arm r HRP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Armoracia rusticana.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ascorbate oxidase (Cuc p ascorbate oxidase)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Cucurbita pepo.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k301</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flour dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Triticum</E> spp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k501</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Savinase customer specific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proprietary knowledge of customer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k502</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lipolase customer specific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proprietary knowledge of customer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k503</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Termamyl customer specific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proprietary knowledge of customer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">k504</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clazinase customer specific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proprietary knowledge of customer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71800, Dec. 30, 2019]

 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5760   Tryptase test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tryptase test system is a device that aids in the diagnosis of systemic mastocytosis. It is intended for in vitro diagnostic use as an aid in the clinical diagnosis of patients with a suspicion of systemic mastocytosis in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guideline entitled “Class II Special Controls Guideline: Tryptase Test System as an Aid in the Diagnosis of Systemic Mastocytosis.” For availability of the document, see § 866.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 56010, Sept. 18, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5765" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5765   Retinol-binding protein immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A retinol-binding protein immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the retinol-binding protein that binds and transports vitamin A in serum and urine. Measurement of this protein may aid in the diagnosis of kidney disease and in monitoring patients with kidney transplants.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5775" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5775   Rheumatoid factor immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rheumatoid factor immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the rheumatoid factor (antibodies to immunoglobulins) in serum, other body fluids, and tissues. Measurement of rheumatoid factor may aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5780   Anti-phospholipase A2 receptor immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anti-phospholipase A2 receptor immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the autoantibodies in human blood samples that react with phospholipase A2 receptor. The measurements aid in the diagnosis of primary membranous glomerulonephritis (pMGN), in conjunction with other laboratory and clinical findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of all parts of the test system, including a description of the assay parts in the kit and all required ancillary reagents;
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, and illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or methods if applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) Detailed documentation of the device software, including standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software where applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed description of appropriate internal and external quality controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the recommended testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(E) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage;
</P>
<P>(F) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure; and
</P>
<P>(G) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Device precision/reproducibility data generated from within-run, between-run, between-day, between-lot, between-operator, between-instruments, between-site, and total precision for multiple nonconsecutive days as applicable. A well-characterized panel of patient samples or pools from the intended use population that covers the device measuring range must be used;
</P>
<P>(B) Device linearity data generated from patient samples covering the assay measuring range if applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) Information on traceability to a reference material and description of value assignment of calibrators and controls if applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) Device analytical sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantitation if applicable;
</P>
<P>(E) Device analytical specificity data, including interference by endogenous and exogenous substances, as well as cross-reactivity with samples derived from patients with other autoimmune diseases or conditions;
</P>
<P>(F) Device instrument carryover data when applicable;
</P>
<P>(G) Device stability data including real-time stability under various storage times and temperatures;
</P>
<P>(H) Specimen stability data including stability under various storage times, temperatures, freeze-thaw, and transport conditions where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(I) Method comparison data generated by comparison of the results obtained with the device to those obtained with a legally marketed predicate device with similar indication of use. Patient samples from the intended use population covering the device measuring range must be used;
</P>
<P>(J) Specimen matrix comparison data if more than one specimen type or anticoagulant can be tested with the device. Samples used for comparison must be from patient samples covering the device measuring range;
</P>
<P>(K) A description of how the assay cut-off (the medical decision point between positive and negative) was established and validated as well as supporting data;
</P>
<P>(L) A clinical performance assessment established by comparing data generated by testing samples from the intended use population and differential diagnosis groups with the device to the clinical diagnostic standard. Diagnosis of pMGN must be based primarily on clinical history, physical examination, laboratory tests (including urinalysis), and renal biopsy. Membranous glomerulonephritis is considered to be idiopathic/primary when no secondary cause can be elucidated on the basis of clinical and laboratory criteria. The differential diagnosis groups must include secondary membranous glomerulonephritis, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, lupus nephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, IgA nephritis, diabetic nephropathy, systemic lupus erythematosus, systemic sclerosis, and Goodpasture syndrome. Diagnosis of autoimmune and immune-mediated diseases that are associated with membranous glomerulonephritis must be based on established diagnostic criteria and clinical evaluation. For all samples, clinical criteria, including demographic information, must be considered in the differentiation between pMGN and secondary membranous glomerulonephritis. The clinical validation results must demonstrate correlation clinical sensitivity and clinical specificity between the test values and the presence or absence of pMGN. The data must be summarized in tabular format comparing the interpretation of results to the disease status; and
</P>
<P>(M) Expected/reference values generated by testing an adequate number of samples from apparently healthy normal individuals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The label required under § 809.10(a) and labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include warnings relevant to the assay including:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement that explains: The device is for use by laboratory professionals in a clinical laboratory setting;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning statement that explains: The test is not a standalone test but an adjunct to other clinical information. A diagnosis of pMGN or secondary MGN should not be made based on a single test result. The clinical symptoms, results on physical examination, and laboratory tests (<I>e.g.,</I> serological tests), when appropriate, should always be taken into account when considering the diagnosis of primary versus secondary MGN;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning statement that explains: Absence of circulating PLA2R autoantibody does not rule out a diagnosis of pMGN; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning statement that explains: The assay has not been demonstrated to be effective for monitoring the stage of disease or its response to treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include a description of the protocol and performance studies performed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40725, Aug. 21, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5785" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5785   Anti-<E T="7462">Saccharomyces cerevisiae</E> (<E T="7462">S. cerevisiae</E>) antibody (ASCA) test systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The Anti-<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I> (<I>S. cerevisiae</I>) antibody (ASCA) test system is an in vitro diagnostic device that consists of the reagents used to measure, by immunochemical techniques, antibodies to <I>S. cerevisiae</I> (baker's or brewer's yeast) in human serum or plasma. Detection of <I>S. cerevisiae</I> antibodies may aid in the diagnosis of Crohn's disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's “Guidance for Industry and FDA Reviewers: Class II Special Control Guidance Document for Anti-<I>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</I> (<I>S. cerevisiae</I>) Antibody (ASCA) Premarket Notifications.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 70307, Nov. 22, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5800   Seminal fluid (sperm) immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A seminal fluid (sperm) immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used for legal purposes to identify and differentiate animal and human semen. The test results may be used as court evidence in alleged instances of rape and other sex-related crimes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 25047, June 12, 1989, as amended at 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5820   Systemic lupus erythematosus immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the autoimmune antibodies in serum and other body fluids that react with cellular nuclear double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or other nuclear constituents that are specifically diagnostic of SLE. Measurement of nuclear double-stranded DNA antibodies aids in the diagnosis of SLE (a multisystem autoimmune disease in which tissues are attacked by the person's own antibodies).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5830   Brain trauma assessment test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A brain trauma assessment test is a device that consists of reagents used to detect and measure brain injury biomarkers in human specimens. The measurements aid in the evaluation of patients with suspected mild traumatic brain injury in conjunction with other clinical information to assist in determining the need for head imaging per current standard of care.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include detailed descriptions of and results from performance testing conducted to evaluate precision, accuracy, linearity, analytical sensitivity, interference, and cross-reactivity. This information must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance testing of device precision must, at minimum, use one unmodified clinical specimen from the intended use population with concentration of the brain injury biomarker(s) near the medical decision point. Contrived specimens that have been generated from pooling of multiple samples or spiking of purified analyte to cover the measuring range may be used, but the contrived samples must be prepared to mimic clinical specimens as closely as possible. This testing must evaluate repeatability and reproducibility using a protocol from an FDA-recognized standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device performance data must be demonstrated through a clinical study and must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Data demonstrating clinical validity including the clinical sensitivity and specificity, and positive and negative predictive value of the test in the intended use population of patients with suspected mild traumatic brain injury (<I>i.e.,</I> Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) of 13-15), or equivalent standard of care for determination of severity of traumatic brain injury (TBI).
</P>
<P>(B) Study must be performed using the operators and in settings that are representative of the types of operators and settings for which the device is intended to be used.
</P>
<P>(C) All eligible subjects must meet the well-defined study inclusion and exclusion criteria that define the intended use population. The prevalence of diseased or injured subjects in the study population must reflect the prevalence of the device's intended use population, or alternatively, statistical measures must be used to account for any bias due to enrichment of subpopulations of the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(D) All eligible subjects must have undergone a head computerized tomography (CT) scan or other appropriate clinical diagnostic standard used to determine the presence of an intracranial lesion as part of standard of care and must also be evaluated by the subject device. All clinical diagnostic standards used in the clinical study must follow standard clinical practice in the United States.
</P>
<P>(E) Relevant demographic variables and baseline characteristics including medical history and neurological history. In addition, head injury characteristics, neurological assessments, and physical evidence of trauma must be provided for each subject. This information includes but is not limited to the following: Time since head injury, time from head injury to CT scan, time from head injury to blood draw, GCS score or equivalent, experience of loss of consciousness, presence of confusion, episodes of vomiting, post-traumatic amnesia characteristics, presence of post-traumatic seizures, drug or alcohol intoxication, mechanism of injury, acute intracranial lesion type, neurosurgical lesion, and cranial fracture.
</P>
<P>(F) Each CT scan or other imaging result must be independently evaluated in a blinded manner by at least two board-certified radiologists to determine whether it is positive or negative as defined by the presence or absence of acute intracranial lesions. This independent review must be conducted without access to test results of the device. Prior to conducting the review, the criteria and procedures to be followed for scoring the images must be established, including the mechanism for determining consensus.
</P>
<P>(G) All the clinical samples must be tested with the subject device blinded to the TBI status and the neurological-lesion-status of the subject.
</P>
<P>(H) Details on how missing values in data are handled must be provided.
</P>
<P>(I) For banked clinical samples, details on storage conditions and storage period must be provided. In addition, a specimen stability study must be conducted for the duration of storage to demonstrate integrity of archived clinical samples. The samples evaluated in the assay test development must not be used to establish the clinical validity of the assays.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance testing of device analytical specificity must include the most commonly reported concomitant medications present in specimens from the intended use population. Additionally, potential cross-reacting endogenous analytes must be evaluated at the highest concentration reported in specimens from the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(iv) Expected/reference values generated by testing a statistically appropriate number of samples from apparently healthy normal individuals.
</P>
<P>(2) The 21 CFR 809.10(a) and (b) compliant labeling must include the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(i) A limiting statement that this device is not intended to be used a stand-alone device but as an adjunct to other clinical information to aid in the evaluation of patients who are being considered for standard of care neuroimaging.
</P>
<P>(ii) A limiting statement that reads “A negative result is generally associated with the absence of acute intracranial lesions. An appropriate neuroimaging method is required for diagnosis of acute intracranial lesions.”
</P>
<P>(iii) As applicable, a limiting statement that reads “This device is for use by laboratory professionals in a clinical laboratory setting.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 27701, June 14, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5840   Alzheimer's disease pathology assessment test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An Alzheimer's disease (AD) pathology assessment test is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure one or more analytes in human specimens to assess whether a patient presenting with cognitive impairment and being evaluated for AD and other causes of cognitive decline would test positive or negative for amyloid plaques or neurofibrillary tangles at the time of testing, as measured by FDA-approved positron emission tomography (PET) imaging agents. The device is intended to assess the underlying AD-associated pathology in conjunction with clinical assessment to increase diagnostic certainty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of studies demonstrating analytical performance, including precision, linearity, assay interference, cross-reactivity, detection capability, specimen and reagent stability, and hook effect, as applicable. For devices measuring multiple analytes, the detailed documentation must include studies demonstrating the analytical performance of the device in regard to each individual analyte, including precision, linearity, assay interference, cross-reactivity, detection capability, specimen and reagent stability, and hook effect, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of studies demonstrating clinical performance in the intended use patient population. All eligible subjects must meet the appropriate study inclusion and exclusion criteria that define the intended use population. Relevant demographic and patient characteristics must be documented, including the time from specimen collection for testing with the subject device to PET imaging acquisition; patient cognitive, neurological, and psychiatric assessments; Apolipoprotein E (APOE) carrier status; and patient education level. All specimens must be tested with the users of the subject device blinded to the disease status and PET scan results of the subject from whom the specimen was obtained. Each PET scan must use an FDA-approved PET tracer and must be independently evaluated in a blinded manner and interpreted according to the FDA-required labeling for the PET tracer. For banked specimens, details on storage conditions and storage period must be documented. In addition, documentation must include evidence to support the stability of the archived specimens for the duration of storage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of studies, which are performed using specimens from persons established to be cognitively normal, that establish the upper and lower limits of reference intervals for the output provided by the device. For banked specimens, the detailed documentation must include details on storage conditions and storage period. In addition, the detailed documentation must include evidence to support the stability of the archived specimens for the duration of storage.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use that provides a description of the measurand(s) (<I>i.e.,</I> AD pathology biomarker(s)) the device measures in the specified human specimens, the results provided to the user (including information to facilitate clinical interpretation of all device outputs), the clinical indications appropriate for test use, and the specific population(s) for which the device is intended.
</P>
<P>(ii) Limiting statements indicating that:
</P>
<P>(A) This device is not intended to be used as a stand-alone test and the test results must be interpreted in conjunction with other diagnostic tools and clinical information.
</P>
<P>(B) The safety and effectiveness of the device have not been established for predicting development of dementia or other neurologic conditions or for monitoring the effect of any therapeutic product.
</P>
<P>(C) A positive result is associated with the presence of amyloid plaques or neurofibrillary tangles in the brain but does not establish a diagnosis of AD as would be established by neuropathological examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed summary of the performance testing, including results, required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 21381, Apr. 22, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5860   Total spinal fluid immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A total spinal fluid immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the total protein in cerebrospinal fluid. Measurement of spinal fluid proteins may aid in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and other diseases of the nervous system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5870   Thyroid autoantibody immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thyroid autoantibody immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the thyroid autoantibodies (antibodies produced against the body's own tissues). Measurement of thyroid autoantibodies may aid in the diagnosis of certain thyroid disorders, such as Hashimoto's disease (chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis), nontoxic goiter (enlargement of thyroid gland), Grave's disease (enlargement of the thyroid gland with protrusion of the eyeballs), and cancer of the thyroid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5880   Transferrin immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transferrin immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the transferrin (an iron-binding and transporting serum protein) in serum, plasma, and other body fluids. Measurement of transferrin levels aids in the diagnosis of malnutrition, acute inflammation, infection, and red blood cell disorders, such as iron deficiency anemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5890   Inter-<E T="7462">alpha</E> trypsin inhibitor immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An inter-<I>alpha</I> trypsin inhibitor immunological test system is a device that consists of the reagents used to measure by immunochemical techniques the inter-<I>alpha</I> trypsin inhibitor (a protein) in serum and other body fluids. Measurement of inter-<I>alpha</I> trypsin inhibitor may aid in the diagnosis of acute bacterial infection and inflammation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50823, Nov. 9, 1982, as amended at 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988; 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5900   Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene mutation detection system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The CFTR gene mutation detection system is a device used to simultaneously detect and identify a panel of mutations and variants in the CFTR gene. It is intended as an aid in confirmatory diagnostic testing of individuals with suspected cystic fibrosis (CF), carrier identification, and newborn screening. This device is not intended for stand-alone diagnostic purposes, prenatal diagnostic, pre-implantation, or population screening.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: CFTR Gene Mutation Detection System.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 61738, Oct. 26, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5910   Quality control material for cystic fibrosis nucleic acid assays.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Quality control material for cystic fibrosis nucleic acid assays. A quality control material for cystic fibrosis nucleic acid assays is a device intended to help monitor reliability of a test system by detecting analytical deviations such as those that may arise from reagent or instrument variation in genetic testing. This type of device includes recombinant, synthetic, and cell line-based DNA controls.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Quality Control Material for Cystic Fibrosis Nucleic Acid Assays.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 1176, Jan. 10, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5920   Postnatal chromosomal copy number variation detection system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A postnatal chromosomal copy number variation detection system is a qualitative assay intended for the detection of copy number variations (CNVs) in genomic DNA obtained from whole blood in patients referred for chromosomal testing based on clinical presentation. It is intended for the detection of CNVs associated with developmental delay, intellectual disability, congenital anomalies, or dysmorphic features. Assay results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including confirmation by alternative methods, parental evaluation, clinical genetic evaluation, and counseling, as appropriate. Interpretation of assay results is intended to be performed by qualified healthcare professionals such as clinical cytogeneticists or molecular geneticists. This device is not intended to be used for standalone diagnostic purposes, pre-implantation or prenatal testing or screening, population screening, or for the detection of, or screening for, acquired or somatic genetic aberrations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of all components in the test system that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the assay components, array composition and layout, all required reagents, instrumentation, and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or methods;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the design of the array in terms of chromosomal coverage and probe density for different regions;
</P>
<P>(C) An identification of the number of probes and size of the CNVs reported at the lower range of the assay;
</P>
<P>(D) Detailed documentation of the device software, including standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software;
</P>
<P>(E) Methodology and protocols for detecting copy number and visualizing results;
</P>
<P>(F) A description of the result outputs along with sample reports, and a description of any links to external databases provided by the device to the user or accessed by the device;
</P>
<P>(G) Specifications for the methods to be used in specimen collection, extraction (including DNA criteria for DNA quality and quantity to perform the assay), and storage; and
</P>
<P>(H) A description of appropriate internal and external controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the system, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Device reproducibility data generated, at a minimum, using three sites, with two operators at each site, for three non-consecutive days using at least three instruments. A well-characterized panel of samples that provide a wide range of CNVs (<I>i.e.,</I> gains, losses, adequate size coverage across the range of sizes claimed by the device, adequate chromosomal coverage, challenging regions in the genome, CNVs reported at the lower range of the assay, interstitial, subtelomeric, and pericentromeric rearrangements, aneuploidy, unbalanced translocations, mosaicism, and known syndromic regions) must be used. The results must be itemized for all CNVs detected in each sample across all replicates and summarized in a tabular format stratified by size range and range of probe numbers for gains and losses separately and calculated for overall. The results must be analyzed using pairwise replicate agreement, and summarized as overall pairwise replicate agreement as well as pairwise replicate agreement conditional on replicates having a positive copy number state call (gains or losses), call rate, CNV size variation, and endpoint agreement;
</P>
<P>(B) Device accuracy data using cell lines and clinical samples representing a variety of CNVs and syndromes. In this analytical study, accuracy must be determined for every CNV detected in a particular sample. The accuracy data provided must include the copy number state determination and endpoint accuracy. The accuracy samples must cover different genomic variations across the genome (<I>i.e.,</I> gains, losses, adequate CNV size coverage across the range of sizes claimed by the device, adequate chromosomal coverage, challenging regions in the genome, CNVs reported at the lower range of the assay, interstitial, subtelomeric, and pericentromeric rearrangements, aneuploidy, unbalanced translocations, mosaicism, and known syndromic regions). CNVs identified by the device must be compared to comparator method(s). Agreement between the CNVs detected by the array and the comparator must be summarized in a tabular format that includes the positive percent agreement and false positive rate stratified by size range and range of probe numbers for gains and losses separately and calculated for overall;
</P>
<P>(C) Assay performance data for CNVs reported at the lower range of the assay for both gains and losses;
</P>
<P>(D) Device analytical sensitivity data, including DNA input and limit of detection for mosaicism, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(E) Device analytical specificity data, including interference, carryover, and cross-contamination data;
</P>
<P>(F) Device stability data, including real-time stability under various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions;
</P>
<P>(G) Specimen matrix comparison data if more than one specimen type or anticoagulant can be tested with the device;
</P>
<P>(H) Data that demonstrates the clinical validity, including diagnostic yield, of the device using a minimum of 800 retrospective clinical samples that were collected prospectively and obtained from three or more clinical laboratories, with results interpretation equally divided between two or more qualified healthcare professionals (<I>e.g.,</I> cytogeneticists). Patients must be representative of the intended use population and not limited to common syndromes. Diagnostic yield data must be summarized in tabular format and stratified by the comparison methodologies. Data must also be summarized comparing interpretation of results, with description of reasons for variability in calls between the device and the standard of care methods. Data to support the accuracy of calls for known syndromes must be included; and
</P>
<P>(I) Data that demonstrates device results when a minimum of 100 apparently healthy, phenotypically normal individuals are tested and interpreted by one or more cytogeneticists blinded to the patient status.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement that the device is not intended to be used for standalone diagnostic purposes, pre-implantation or prenatal testing or screening, population screening, or for the detection of, or screening for, acquired or somatic genetic aberrations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Limitations regarding the assay's performance with respect to validated CNVs reported at the lower range of the assay, stratified by size range and range of probe numbers for gains and losses separately; and limitations regarding problematic (hypervariable) regions, loss of heterozygosity, mosaicism, and inability to detect balanced translocations, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning statement that interpretation of assay results is intended to be performed by qualified healthcare professionals such as clinical cytogeneticists or molecular geneticists; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the performance studies performed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40715, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5930   Newborn screening test for severe combined immunodeficiency disorder (SCID).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A newborn screening test for SCID is a prescription device intended to measure T-cell receptor excision circle (TREC) DNA obtained from dried blood spot specimens on filter paper using a polymerase chain reaction based test as an aid in screening newborns for SCID. Presumptive positive results must be followed up by diagnostic confirmatory testing. This test is not intended for use as a diagnostic test, or for screening of SCID-like syndromes, such as DiGeorge syndrome or Omenn syndrome. It is also not intended to screen for less acute SCID syndromes, such as leaky SCID or variant SCID.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The intended use must indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) The test is not intended for diagnostic use, or for screening of SCID-like syndromes, such as DiGeorge syndrome or Omenn syndrome; and
</P>
<P>(B) The test is not intended to screen for less acute SCID syndromes, such as leaky SCID or variant SCID.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of all components in the test that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the test components, all required reagents, instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of nonstandard equipment or methods;
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed documentation of the device software including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software;
</P>
<P>(C) Specifications for the filter paper, which must be appropriately labeled for in vitro diagnostic use, to be used in specimen collection and how it will be used in specimen collection validation. These specifications must include: descriptive characteristics of the filter paper, instructions on how a lab should choose the appropriate filter paper, chemical properties of the filter paper, interference concerns associated with the chemicals in the filter paper, absorption properties of the filter paper, punch size, absorption capacity, testing for homogeneity of punches, diameter of the circle for the dried blood spot aliquot, absorption time, physical composition, and number and size of punches to be tested;
</P>
<P>(D) Methodology and protocols for detection of T-cell receptor excision circles and methods for determination of results. The cutoff must be selected before conducting clinical and analytical studies;
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the result outputs along with sample reports. Sample reports must include the scale used in reporting of results (<I>e.g.,</I> TREC copies/µL) and the range of values that will be reported out; and
</P>
<P>(F) A description of appropriate internal and external controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Data that demonstrates the clinical validity of the device, using well characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens representative of the intended use population. A minimum of 10 to 15 confirmed positive specimens must be obtained from more than 1 site, including relevant annotation, and, at 1 year or beyond, a SCID diagnosis by flow cytometry or clinically meaningful information regarding the status of the subject must be obtained. Additional specimens should have been obtained that are characterized by other disorders that can be found by screening specimens that have low or absent TREC (<I>e.g.,</I> other T-cell lymphopenic disorders) to supplement the range of results. The clinical validation study must have a pre-specified clinical decision point (<I>i.e.,</I> cutoff to distinguish positive and negative results). Results must be summarized in tabular format comparing interpretation of results to the reference method. Point estimates together with two-sided 95 percent confidence intervals must be provided for the positive percent agreement, negative percent agreement, and overall percent agreement. Data must include the retest rate, the false positive rate before retest, the final false positive rate, and the false negative rate;
</P>
<P>(B) Device reproducibility data generated, using a minimum of three sites of which at least two must be external sites, with two operators at each site. Each site must conduct a minimum of five runs per operator over five nonconsecutive days evaluating a minimum of six different relevant TREC concentrations that span and are well distributed over the measuring range and include the clinical cutoff. Specimens must include cord blood and cord blood diluted with ABO matched adult blood specimens. Identical specimens from the same sample panel must be tested at each site. Each specimen must be run in triplicate and include controls run in triplicate. Results must be reported as the standard deviation and percentage coefficient of variation for each level tested. Results must also be displayed as a dichotomous variable around the cutoff. Total variation must be partitioned into the sum of within-lab and between-lab variations with pre-specified acceptance criteria and 95 percent confidence intervals for all data. Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed;
</P>
<P>(C) Device precision data using clinical samples to evaluate the within-lot, between-lot, within-run, between run, and total variation. A range of TREC levels of the specimen must include samples within the measuring range, samples above and below the measuring range, as well as with samples very near above and below the cutoff value. At least three replicates of each specimen must be tested with controls and calibrator(s) according to the device instructions for use. The precision study must use well characterized samples using different lots, instruments, and operators. Results must be summarized in tabular format. Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed;
</P>
<P>(D) Linearity of the test must be demonstrated using a dilution panel from clinical samples. The range of dilution samples must include samples within the measuring range, samples above and below the measuring range, as well as with samples very near above and below the cutoff value. Results of the regression analysis must be summarized in tabular format and fitted into a linear regression model with the individual measurement results against the dilution factors. Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed;
</P>
<P>(E) Device analytic sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantification;
</P>
<P>(F) Device specificity data, including interference, carryover, cross-contamination, and in silico analysis of potential off-target genomic sequences;
</P>
<P>(G) Device stability data, including real-time stability of samples under various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions. A separate shipping stability study must be performed;
</P>
<P>(H) Lot-to-lot reproducibility study of each filter paper that will be validated with the test. The lot-to-lot study must include a minimum of three lots of each blood spot card that will be validated with the test and be conducted over five nonconsecutive days. The sample panel must consist of specimens with a range of TREC levels and include samples within the measuring range, samples above and below the measuring range, and samples very near above and below the cutoff value. Multiple punches must be obtained from each card for demonstration of homogeneity of the analyte across the dried blood spot. Comparability of the test performance for each filter paper must be demonstrated. Stability and storage of TREC DNA on each blood spot card must be demonstrated. Results of the lot-to-lot study must be summarized providing the mean, standard deviation, and percentage coefficient of variation in a tabular format. Data must be calculated for within-run, between-run, within-lot, and between-lot. Data demonstrating the concordance between results across different filter papers must be provided. Study acceptance criteria must be provided and followed; and
</P>
<P>(I) If applicable, a thermocycler reproducibility study must be performed using thermocyclers from three independent thermocyler manufacturers. The sample panel must consist of specimens with a range of TREC levels and must include samples within the measuring range, samples above and below the measuring range, and samples very near above and below the cutoff value. The study must be done using three filter paper lots and conducted over five nonconsecutive days. Results of the thermocycler reproducibility study must be summarized providing the mean, standard deviation, and percentage coefficient of variance in a tabular format. Data must be calculated for the within-run, between-run, within-lot, between-lot, and between thermocycler manufacturer study results. Study acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by your device, including a description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Your § 809.10 compliant labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement that reads “This test is not intended for diagnostic use, preimplantation or prenatal testing, or for screening of SCID-like syndromes, such as DiGeorge syndrome or Omenn syndrome. It is also not intended to screen for less acute SCID syndromes, such as leaky SCID or variant SCID.”;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning statement that reads “Test results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including confirmation by alternative methods and clinical evaluation, as appropriate.”;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the performance studies listed in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) and a summary of the results; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the filter paper specifications required for the test.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50079, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5940   Autosomal recessive carrier screening gene mutation detection system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Autosomal recessive carrier screening gene mutation detection system is a qualitative in vitro molecular diagnostic system used for genotyping of clinically relevant variants in genomic DNA isolated from human specimens intended for prescription use or over-the-counter use. The device is intended for autosomal recessive disease carrier screening in adults of reproductive age. The device is not intended for copy number variation, cytogenetic, or biochemical testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9, except § 866.9(c)(2). Autosomal recessive carrier screening gene mutation detection system must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(1) If the device is offered over-the-counter, the device manufacturer must provide information to a potential purchaser or actual test report recipient about how to obtain access to a board-certified clinical molecular geneticist or equivalent to assist in pre- and post-test counseling.
</P>
<P>(2) The device must use a collection device that is FDA cleared, approved, or classified as 510(k) exempt, with an indication for in vitro diagnostic use in DNA testing.
</P>
<P>(3) The device's labeling must include a prominent hyperlink to the manufacturer's public Web site where the manufacturer shall make the information identified in this section publicly available. The manufacturer's home page, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's Web site that discusses the device, must provide a prominently placed hyperlink to the Web page containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access. If the device can be purchased from the Web site or testing using the device can be ordered from the Web site, the same information must be found on the Web page for ordering the device or provided in a prominently placed and publicly accessible hyperlink on the Web page for ordering the device. Any changes to the device that could significantly affect safety or effectiveness would require new data or information in support of such changes, which would also have to be posted on the manufacturer's Web site. The information must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description including:
</P>
<P>(A) Gene (or list of the genes if more than one) and variants the test detects (using standardized nomenclature, Human Genome Organization (HUGO) nomenclature, and coordinates).
</P>
<P>(B) Scientifically established clinical validity of each variant detected and reported by the test, which must be well-established in peer-reviewed journal articles, authoritative summaries of the literature such as Genetics Home Reference (<I>http://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/</I>), GeneReviews (<I>http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK1116/</I>), or similar summaries of valid scientific evidence, and/or professional society recommendations, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Genotype-phenotype information for the reported mutations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Relevant American College of Medical Genetics (ACMG) or American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) guideline recommending testing of the specific gene(s) and variants the test detects and recommended populations, if available. If not available, a statement stating that professional guidelines currently do not recommend testing for this specific gene(s) and variants.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Table of expected prevalence of carrier status in major ethnic and racial populations and the general population.
</P>
<P>(C) The specimen type (<I>e.g.,</I> saliva, whole blood), matrix, and volume.
</P>
<P>(D) Assay steps and technology used.
</P>
<P>(E) Specification of required ancillary reagents, instrumentation, and equipment.
</P>
<P>(F) Specification of the specimen collection, processing, storage, and preparation methods.
</P>
<P>(G) Specification of risk mitigation elements and description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(H) Information pertaining to the probability of test failure (<I>e.g.,</I> failed quality control) based on data from clinical samples, description of scenarios in which a test can fail (<I>i.e.,</I> low sample volume, low DNA concentration, etc.), how customers will be notified, and followup actions to be taken.
</P>
<P>(I) Specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Accuracy (method comparison) of study results for each claimed specimen type.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Accuracy of the device shall be evaluated with fresh clinical specimens collected and processed in a manner consistent with the device's instructions for use. If this is impractical, fresh clinical samples may be substituted or supplemented with archived clinical samples. Archived samples shall have been collected previously in accordance with the device's instructions for use, stored appropriately, and randomly selected. In some instances, use of contrived samples or human cell line samples may also be appropriate; the contrived or human cell line samples shall mimic clinical specimens as much as is feasible and provide an unbiased evaluation of the device's accuracy.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accuracy must be evaluated as compared to bidirectional sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA. Performance criteria for both the comparator method and device must be predefined and appropriate to the test's intended use. Detailed appropriate study protocols must be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information provided shall include the number and type of specimens, broken down by clinically relevant variants, that were compared to bidirectional sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA. The accuracy, defined as positive percent agreement (PPA) and negative percent agreement (NPA), must be measured; accuracy point estimates must be greater than 99 percent (both per reported variant and overall) and uncertainty of the point estimate must be presented using the 95 percent confidence interval. Clinical specimens must include both homozygous wild type and heterozygous genotypes. The number of clinical specimens for each variant reported that must be included in the accuracy study must be based on the variant prevalence. Common variants (greater than 0.1 percent allele frequency in ethnically relevant population) must have at least 20 unique heterozygous clinical specimens tested. Rare variants (less than or equal to 0.1 percent allele frequency in ethnically relevant population) shall have at least three unique mutant heterozygous specimens tested. Any no calls (<I>i.e.,</I> absence of a result) or invalid calls (<I>e.g.,</I> failed quality control) in the study must be included in accuracy study results and reported separately. Variants that have a point estimate for PPA or NPA of less than 99 percent (incorrect test results as compared to bidirectional sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA) must not be incorporated into test claims and reports. Accuracy measures generated from clinical specimens versus contrived samples or cell lines must be presented separately. Results must be summarized and presented in tabular format, by sample and by genotype. Point estimate of PPA should be calculated as the number of positive results divided by the number of specimens known to harbor variants (mutations) without “no calls” or invalid calls. The point estimate of NPA should be calculated as the number of negative results divided by the number of wild type specimens tested without “no calls” or invalid calls, for each variant that is being reported. Point estimates should be calculated along with 95 percent two-sided confidence intervals.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information shall be reported on the clinical positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) for carrier status (and where possible, for each variant) in each population. Specifically, to calculate PPV and NPV, estimate test coverage (TC) and the percent of persons with variant(s) included in the device among all carriers: PPV = (PPA * TC * π)/(PPA * TC * π + (1 − NPA) * (1 − π)) and NPV = (NPA * (1 − π))/(NPA *(1 − π) + (1 − PPA*TC) * π) where PPA and NPA described either in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>)(<I>i</I>) or in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section and π is prevalence of carriers in the population (pre-test risk to be a carrier for the disease).
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For the point estimates of PPA and NPA less than 100 percent, use the calculated estimates in the PPV and NPV calculations.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Point estimates of 100 percent may have high uncertainty. If these variants are measured using highly multiplexed technology, calculate the random error rate for the overall device and incorporate that rate in the estimation of the PPA and NPA as calculated previously. Then use these calculated estimates in the PPV and NPV calculations. This type of accuracy study is helpful in determining that there is no systematic error in such devices.
</P>
<P>(B) Precision (reproducibility): Precision data must be generated using multiple instruments and multiple operators, on multiple non-consecutive days, and using multiple reagent lots. The sample panel must include specimens with claimed sample type (<I>e.g.</I> saliva samples) representing different genotypes (<I>i.e.,</I> wild type, heterozygous). Performance criteria must be predefined. A detailed study protocol must be created in advance of the study and then followed. The “failed quality control” rate must be indicated. It must be clearly documented whether results were generated from clinical specimens, contrived samples, or cell lines. The study results shall state, in a tabular format, the variants tested in the study and the number of replicates for each variant, and what testing conditions were studied (<I>i.e.,</I> number of runs, days, instruments, reagent lots, operators, specimens/type, etc). The study must include all nucleic acid extraction steps from the claimed specimen type or matrix, unless a separate extraction study for the claimed sample type is performed. If the device is to be used at more than one laboratory, different laboratories must be included in the precision study (and reproducibility must be evaluated). The percentage of “no calls” or invalid calls, if any, in the study must be provided as a part of the precision (reproducibility) study results.
</P>
<P>(C) Analytical specificity data: Data must be generated evaluating the effect on test performance of potential endogenous and exogenous interfering substances relevant to the specimen type, evaluation of cross-reactivity of known cross-reactive alleles and pseudogenes, and assessment of cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(D) Analytical sensitivity data: Data must be generated demonstrating the minimum amount of DNA that will enable the test to perform accurately in 95 percent of runs.
</P>
<P>(E) Device stability data: The manufacturer must establish upper and lower limits of input nucleic acid and sample stability that will achieve the claimed accuracy and reproducibility. Data supporting such claims must be described.
</P>
<P>(F) Specimen type and matrix comparison data: Specimen type and matrix comparison data must be generated if more than one specimen type or anticoagulant can be tested with the device, including failure rates for the different specimen types.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the device is offered over-the-counter, including cases in which the test results are provided direct-to-consumer, the manufacturer must conduct a study that assesses user comprehension of the device's labeling and test process and provide a concise summary of the results of the study. The following items must be included in the user study:
</P>
<P>(A) The test manufacturer must perform pre- and post-test user comprehension studies to assess user ability to understand the possible results of a carrier test and their clinical meaning. The comprehension test questions must directly evaluate the material being presented to the user in the test reports.
</P>
<P>(B) The test manufacturer must provide a carrier testing education module to potential and actual test report recipients. The module must define terms that are used in the test reports and explain the significance of carrier status.
</P>
<P>(C) The user study must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The study participants must be comprised of a statistically justified and demographically diverse population (determined using methods such as quota-based sampling) that is representative of the intended user population. Furthermore, the users must be comprised of a diverse range of age and educational levels that have no prior experience with the test or its manufacturer. These factors shall be well-defined in the inclusion and exclusion criteria.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All sources of bias (<I>e.g.,</I> non-responders) must be predefined and accounted for in the study results with regard to both responders and non-responders.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The testing must follow a format where users have limited time to complete the studies (such as an onsite survey format and a one-time visit with a cap on the maximum amount of time that a participant has to complete the tests).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Users must be randomly assigned to study arms. Test reports given to users must: Define the condition being tested and related symptoms; explain the intended use and limitations of the test; explain the relevant ethnicities regarding the variant tested; explain carrier status and relevance to the user's ethnicity; and provide links to additional information pertaining to situations where the user is concerned about their test results or would like followup information as indicated in test labeling. The study shall assess participants' ability to understand the following comprehension concepts: The test's limitations, purpose, and results.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Study participants must be untrained, naive to the test subject of the study, and be provided only the materials that will be available to them when the test is marketed.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The user comprehension study must meet the predefined primary endpoint criteria, including a minimum of a 90 percent or greater overall comprehension rate (<I>i.e.</I> selection of the correct answer) for each comprehension concept to demonstrate that the education module and test reports are adequate for over-the-counter use.
</P>
<P>(D) A summary of the user comprehension study must be provided and include the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Results regarding reports that are provided for each gene/variant/ethnicity tested.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Statistical methods used to analyze all data sets.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Completion rate, non-responder rate, and reasons for non-response/data exclusion, as well as a summary table of comprehension rates regarding comprehension concepts (purpose of test, test results, test limitations, ethnicity relevance for the test results, etc.) for each study report.
</P>
<P>(4) Your 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling and any test report generated must include the following warning and limitation statements, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that reads “The test is intended only for autosomal recessive carrier screening in adults of reproductive age.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement accurately disclosing the genetic coverage of the test in lay terms, including, as applicable, information on variants not queried by the test, and the proportion of incident disease that is not related to the gene(s) tested. For example, where applicable, the statement would have to include a warning that the test does not or may not detect all genetic variants related to the genetic disease, and that the absence of a variant tested does not rule out the presence of other genetic variants that may be disease-related. Or, where applicable, the statement would have to include a warning that the basis for the disease for which the genetic carrier status is being tested is unknown or believed to be non-heritable in a substantial number of people who have the disease, and that a negative test result cannot rule out the possibility that any offspring may be affected with the disease. The statement would have to include any other warnings needed to accurately convey to consumers the degree to which the test is informative for carrier status.
</P>
<P>(iii) For prescription use tests, the following warnings that read:
</P>
<P>(A) “The results of this test are intended to be interpreted by a board-certified clinical molecular geneticist or equivalent and should be used in conjunction with other available laboratory and clinical information.”
</P>
<P>(B) “This device is not intended for disease diagnosis, prenatal testing of fetuses, risk assessment, prognosis or pre-symptomatic testing, susceptibility testing, or newborn screening.”
</P>
<P>(iv) For over-the-counter tests, a statement that reads “This test is not intended to diagnose a disease, or tell you anything about your risk for developing a disease in the future. On its own, this test is also not intended to tell you anything about the health of your fetus, or your newborn child's risk of developing a particular disease later on in life.”
</P>
<P>(v) For over-the-counter tests, the following warnings that read:
</P>
<P>(A) “This test is not a substitute for visits to a healthcare provider. It is recommended that you consult with a healthcare provider if you have any questions or concerns about your results.”
</P>
<P>(B) “The test does not diagnose any health conditions. Results should be used along with other clinical information for any medical purposes.”
</P>
<P>(C) “The laboratory may not be able to process your sample. The probability that the laboratory cannot process your saliva sample can be up to [actual probability percentage].”
</P>
<P>(D) “Your ethnicity may affect how your genetic health results are interpreted.”
</P>
<P>(vi) For a positive result in an over-the-counter test when the positive predictive value for a specific population is less than 50 percent and more than 5 percent, a warning that reads “The positive result you obtained may falsely identify you as a carrier. Consider genetic counseling and followup testing.”
</P>
<P>(vii) For a positive result in an over-the-counter test when the positive predictive value for a specific population is less than 5 percent, a warning that reads “The positive result you obtained is very likely to be incorrect due to the rarity of this variant. Consider genetic counseling and followup testing.”
</P>
<P>(5) The testing done to comply with paragraph (b)(3) of this section must show the device meets or exceeds each of the following performance specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) The accuracy must be shown to be equal to or greater than 99 percent for both PPA and NPA. Variants that have a point estimate for PPA or NPA of less than 99 percent (incorrect test results as compared to bidirectional sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA) must not be incorporated into test claims and reports.
</P>
<P>(ii) Precision (reproducibility) performance must meet or exceed 99 percent for both positive and negative results.
</P>
<P>(iii) The user comprehension study must obtain values of 90 percent or greater user comprehension for each comprehension concept.
</P>
<P>(6) The distribution of this device, excluding the collection device described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, shall be limited to the manufacturer, the manufacturer's subsidiaries, and laboratories regulated under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 65630, Oct. 27, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 51570, Nov. 7, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5950   Genetic health risk assessment system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A genetic health risk assessment system is a qualitative in vitro molecular diagnostic system used for detecting variants in genomic deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) isolated from human specimens that will provide information to users about their genetic risk of developing a disease to inform lifestyle choices and/or conversations with a health care professional. This assessment system is for over-the-counter use. This device does not determine the person's overall risk of developing a disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The genetic health risk assessment system device, when it has previously received a first-time FDA marketing authorization (<I>e.g.,</I> 510(k) clearance) for the genetic health risk assessment system (a “one-time FDA reviewed genetic health risk assessment system”), is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E, of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 866.9. The device must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(1) The 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling and any prepurchase page and test report generated, unless otherwise specified, must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A section addressed to users with the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The limiting statement explaining that this test provides genetic risk information based on assessment of specific genetic variants but does not report on a user's entire genetic profile. This test [does not/may not, as appropriate] detect all genetic variants related to a given disease, and the absence of a variant tested does not rule out the presence of other genetic variants that may be related to the disease.
</P>
<P>(B) The limiting statement explaining that other companies offering a genetic risk test may be detecting different genetic variants for the same disease, so the user may get different results using a test from a different company.
</P>
<P>(C) The limiting statement explaining that other factors such as environmental and lifestyle risk factors may affect the risk of developing a given disease.
</P>
<P>(D) The limiting statement explaining that some people may feel anxious about getting genetic test health results. This is normal. If the potential user feels very anxious, such user should speak to his or her doctor or other health care professional prior to collection of a sample for testing. This test is not a substitute for visits to a doctor or other health care professional. Users should consult with their doctor or other health care professional if they have any questions or concerns about the results of their test or their current state of health.
</P>
<P>(E) Information about how to obtain access to a genetic counselor, board-certified clinical molecular geneticist, or equivalent health care professional about the results of a user's test.
</P>
<P>(F) The limiting statement explaining that this test is not intended to diagnose a disease, tell you anything about your current state of health, or be used to make medical decisions, including whether or not you should take a medication or how much of a medication you should take.
</P>
<P>(G) A limiting statement explaining that the laboratory may not be able to process a sample, and a description of the next steps to be taken by the manufacturer and/or the customer, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A section in your 21 CFR 809.10 labeling and any test report generated that is for health care professionals who may receive the test results from their patients with the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The limiting statement explaining that this test is not intended to diagnose a disease, determine medical treatment, or tell the user anything about their current state of health.
</P>
<P>(B) The limiting statement explaining that this test is intended to provide users with their genetic information to inform lifestyle decisions and conversations with their doctor or other health care professional.
</P>
<P>(C) The limiting statement explaining that any diagnostic or treatment decisions should be based on testing and/or other information that you determine to be appropriate for your patient.
</P>
<P>(2) The genetic test must use a sample collection device that is FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt, with an indication for in vitro diagnostic use in over-the-counter DNA testing.
</P>
<P>(3) The device's labeling must include a hyperlink to the manufacturer's public Web site where the manufacturer shall make the information identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section publicly available. The manufacturer's home page, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's Web site that discusses the device, must provide a hyperlink to the Web page containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access. If the device can be purchased from the Web site or testing using the device can be ordered from the Web site, the same information must be found on the Web page for ordering the device or provided in a publicly accessible hyperlink on the Web page for ordering the device. Any changes to the device that could significantly affect safety or effectiveness would require new data or information in support of such changes, which would also have to be posted on the manufacturer's Web site. The information must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An index of the material being provided to meet the requirements in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and its location.
</P>
<P>(ii) A section that highlights summary information that allows the user to understand how the test works and how to interpret the results of the test. This section must, at a minimum, be written in plain language understandable to a lay user and include:
</P>
<P>(A) Consistent explanations of the risk of disease associated with all variants included in the test. If there are different categories of risk, the manufacturer must provide literature references that support the different risk categories. If there will be multiple test reports and multiple variants, the risk categories must be defined similarly among them. For example, “increased risk” must be defined similarly between different test reports and different variant combinations.
</P>
<P>(B) Clear context for the user to understand the context in which the cited clinical performance data support the risk reported. This includes, but is not limited to, any risks that are influenced by ethnicity, age, gender, environment, and lifestyle choices.
</P>
<P>(C) Materials that explain the main concepts and terminology used in the test that include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Definitions:</I> Scientific terms that are used in the test reports.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Prepurchase page:</I> This page must contain information that informs the user about what information the test will provide. This includes, but is not limited to, variant information, the condition or disease associated with the variant(s), professional guideline recommendations for general genetic risk testing, the limitations associated with the test (<I>e.g.,</I> test does not detect all variants related to the disease) and any precautionary information about the test the user should be aware of before purchase. When the test reports the risk of a life-threatening or irreversibly debilitating disease or condition for which there are few or no options to prevent, treat, or cure the disease, a user opt-in section must be provided. This opt-in page must be provided for each disease that falls into this category and must provide specific information relevant to each test result. The opt-in page must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An option to accept or decline to receive this specific test result;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Specification of the risk involved if the user is found to have the specific genetic test result;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Professional guidelines that recommend when genetic testing for the associated target condition is or is not recommended; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A recommendation to speak with a health care professional, genetic counselor, or equivalent professional before getting the results of the test.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Frequently asked questions (FAQ) page:</I> This page must provide information that is specific for each variant/disease pair that is reported. Information provided in this section must be scientifically valid and supported by corresponding publications. The FAQ page must explain the health condition/disease being tested, the purpose of the test, the information the test will and will not provide, the relevance of race and ethnicity to the test results, information about the population to which the variants in the test is most applicable, the meaning of the result(s), other risk factors that contribute to disease, appropriate followup procedures, how the results of the test may affect the user's family, including children, and links to resources that provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(iii) A technical information section containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Gene(s) and variant(s) the test detects using standardized nomenclature, Human Genome Organization nomenclature and coordinates as well as Single Nucleotide Polymorphism Database (dbSNP) reference SNP numbers (rs#).
</P>
<P>(B) Scientifically established disease-risk association of each variant detected and reported by the test. This risk association information must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Genotype-phenotype information for the reported variants.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Table of expected frequency and risks of developing the disease in relevant ethnic populations and the general population.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A statement about the current professional guidelines for testing these specific gene(s) and variant(s).
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If professional guidelines are available, provide the recommendations in the professional guideline for the gene, variant, and disease, for when genetic testing should or should not be performed, and cautionary information that should be communicated when a particular gene and variant is detected.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If professional guidelines are not available, provide a statement that the professional guidelines are not available for these specific gene(s) and variant(s).
</P>
<P>(C) The specimen type (<I>e.g.,</I> saliva, capillary whole blood).
</P>
<P>(D) Assay steps and technology used.
</P>
<P>(E) Specification of required ancillary reagents, instrumentation, and equipment.
</P>
<P>(F) Specification of the specimen collection, processing, storage, and preparation methods.
</P>
<P>(G) Specification of risk mitigation elements and description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(H) Information pertaining to the probability of test failure (<I>i.e.,</I> percentage of tests that failed quality control) based on data from clinical samples, a description of scenarios in which a test can fail (<I>i.e.,</I> low sample volume, low DNA concentration, etc.), how users will be notified of a test failure, and the nature of followup actions on a failed test to be taken by the user and the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(I) Specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting.
</P>
<P>(J) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Accuracy of study results for each claimed specimen type.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Accuracy of the test shall be evaluated with fresh clinical specimens collected and processed in a manner consistent with the test's instructions for use. If this is impractical, fresh clinical samples may be substituted or supplemented with archived clinical samples. Archived samples shall have been collected previously in accordance with the instructions for use, stored appropriately, and randomly selected. In some limited circumstances, use of contrived samples or human cell line samples may also be appropriate and used as an acceptable alternative. The contrived or human cell line samples shall mimic clinical specimens as much as is feasible and provide an unbiased evaluation of the device accuracy.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Accuracy must be evaluated by comparison to bidirectional Sanger sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA. Performance criteria for both the comparator method and the device must be predefined and appropriate to the device's intended use. Detailed study protocols must be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Test specimens must include all genotypes that will be included in the tests and reports. The number of samples tested in the accuracy study for each variant reported must be based on the variant frequency using either the minimum numbers of samples identified in this paragraph or, when determined appropriate and identified by FDA, a minimum number of samples determined using an alternative method. When appropriate, the same samples may be used in testing to demonstrate the accuracy of testing for multiple genotypes by generating sequence information at multiple relevant genetic locations. At least 20 unique samples representing the wild-type genotype must be tested. To test samples that are heterozygous for the reported variant(s), common variants (&gt;0.1 percent variant frequency in the relevant population) must be tested with at least 20 unique samples. Rare variants (≤0.1 percent variant frequency in the relevant population) must be tested with at least three unique samples. To test samples that are homozygous for the reported variant(s), variants with ≥2 percent variant frequency in a relevant population must be tested with at least 20 unique samples. Variants with a frequency in the relevant population &lt;2 percent and ≥0.5 percent must be tested with at least 10 unique samples. Variants with a frequency in the relevant population &lt;0.5 percent must be tested with at least three unique samples. If variants with a frequency of &lt;0.5 percent are not found within the relevant population and homozygous samples are not tested, then the test results for this homozygous rare variant must not be reported to the user.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Information about the accuracy study shall include the number and type of samples that were compared to bidirectional Sanger sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA. This information must either be reported in tabular format and arranged by clinically relevant variants or reported using another method identified as appropriate by FDA. As an example, for samples with different genotypes DD, Dd, and dd, the following table represents data from the accuracy study presented in tabular format:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07no17.001.gif"/>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The accuracy represents the degrees of agreement between the device results and the comparator results. The accuracy must be evaluated by measuring different percent agreements (PA) of device results with the comparator results and percent of 'no calls' or 'invalid calls.' Calculate the rate of 'no calls' and 'invalid calls' for each comparator output as %Inv(DD) = A<E T="52">4</E>/N<E T="52">DD,</E> %Inv(Dd) = B<E T="52">4</E>/N<E T="52">Dd</E>, %Inv(dd) = C<E T="52">4</E>/N<E T="52">dd</E>. If 'no calls' or 'invalid calls' are required to be retested according to the device instructions for use, the percent of final 'no calls' or 'invalid calls' must be provided. In the table presenting the results of the accuracy study, use only the final results (<I>i.e.,</I> after retesting the initial 'no calls' or 'invalid calls', if required according to the instructions for use). Samples that resulted in a 'no call' or 'invalid call' after retesting must not be included in the final calculations of agreement. If the percentages of 'no calls' or 'invalid calls' for each comparator output are similar, combine these estimates as (A<E T="52">4</E> + B<E T="52">4</E> + C<E T="52">4</E>)/(N<E T="52">DD</E> + N<E T="52">Dd</E> + N<E T="52">dd</E>) and provide a 95 percent two-sided confidence interval. The percent of final 'no calls' or 'invalid calls' must be clinically acceptable.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Point estimates of percent agreement for each genotype must be calculated as the number of correct calls for that genotype divided by the number of samples known to contain that genotype excluding 'no calls' or 'invalid calls'. The calculations must be performed as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07no17.002.gif"/>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) For percent agreements for DD, Dd and dd (PA(DD|DD), PA(Dd|Dd) and PA(dd|dd)) as described in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(J)(<I>1</I>)(<I>vi</I>) of this section, the 95 percent two-sided confidence intervals must be provided. The accuracy point estimates for percent agreements for DD, Dd and dd must be ≥99 percent per reported variant and overall. Any variants that have a point estimate for either PA(DD|DD), PA(Dd|Dd), or PA(dd|dd) of &lt;99 percent compared to bidirectional sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA must not be incorporated into test claims and reports. Accuracy results generated from clinical specimens versus contrived samples or cell lines must be presented separately. Results must be summarized and presented in tabular format by sample type and by genotype or must be reported using another method identified as appropriate by FDA (see paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(J)(<I>1</I>)(<I>iv</I>) of this section).
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Information must be reported on the Technical Positive Predictive Value (TPPV) related to the analytical (technical) performance of the device for genotypes in each relevant subpopulation (<I>e.g.,</I> ethnicity, gender, age, geographical location, etc.). TPPV is the percentage of individuals with the genotype truly present among individuals whose test reports indicate that this genotype is present. The TPPV depends on the accuracy measures of percent agreements and on the frequency of the genotypes in the subpopulation being studied. The f(DD) is the frequency of DD and f(Dd) is the frequency of Dd in the subpopulation being studied; TPPV must be calculated as described in paragraphs (b)(3)(iii)(J)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ix</I>) through (<I>xi</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) For variants where the point estimates of PA(DD|DD), PA(Dd|Dd) and PA(dd|dd) are less than 100 percent, use these point estimates in TPPV calculations.
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) Point estimates of 100 percent in the accuracy study may have high uncertainty about performance of the test in the population. If these variants are measured using highly multiplexed technology, calculate the random error rate for the overall device. The accuracy study described in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(J) of this section in those cases is more to determine that there is no systematic error in such devices. In those cases, incorporate that rate in the estimation of the percent agreements as calculated in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(J)(<I>1</I>)(<I>vi</I>) of this section and include it in TPPV calculations.
</P>
<P>(<I>xi</I>) The TPPV for subpopulations with genotype frequencies of f(dd), f(Dd) and f(DD) = 1−f(dd)−f(Dd) in the subpopulation is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07no17.003.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Precision and reproducibility data must be provided using multiple instruments and multiple operators, on multiple non-consecutive days, and using multiple reagent lots. The sample panel must either include specimens from the claimed sample type (<I>e.g.,</I> saliva) representing all genotypes for each variant (<I>e.g.,</I> wild type, heterozygous, and homozygous) or, if an alternative panel composition of specimens is identified by FDA as appropriate, a panel composed of those specimens FDA identified as appropriate. A detailed study protocol must be created in advance of the study and must include predetermined acceptance criteria for performance results. The percentage of samples that failed quality control must be indicated (<I>i.e.,</I> the total number of sample replicates for which a sequence variant cannot be called (no calls) or that fail sequencing quality control criteria divided by the total number of replicates tested). It must be clearly documented whether results were generated from clinical specimens, contrived samples, or cell lines. The study results shall report the variants tested in the study and the number of replicates for each variant, and what conditions were tested (<I>i.e.,</I> number of runs, days, instruments, reagent lots, operators, specimens/type, etc.). Results must be evaluated and presented in tabular format and stratified by study parameter (<I>e.g.,</I> by site, instrument(s), reagent lot, operator, and sample variant). The study must include all extraction steps from the claimed specimen type or matrix, unless a separate extraction reproducibility study for the claimed sample type is performed. If the device is to be used at more than one laboratory, different laboratories must be included in the reproducibility study and reproducibility across sites must be evaluated. Any no calls or invalid calls in the study must be listed as a part of the precision and reproducibility study results.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Analytical specificity data:</I> Data must be provided that evaluates the effect of potential endogenous and exogenous interferents on test performance, including specimen extraction and variant detection. Interferents tested must include those reasonably likely to be potentially relevant to the sample type used for the device.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Interfering variant data:</I> Nucleotide mutations that can interfere with the technology must be cited and evaluated. Data must be provided to demonstrate the effect of the interfering variant(s) on the performance of the correct calls. Alternatively, for each suspected interfering mutation for which data is not provided demonstrating the effect of the interfering variant, the manufacturer must identify the suspected interfering variants in the labeling and indicate that the impact that the interfering variants may have on the assay's performance has not been studied by providing a statement that reads “It is possible that the presence of [insert clearly identifying information for the suspected interfering variant] in a sample may interfere with the performance of this test. However, its effect on the performance of this test has not been studied.”
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Analytical sensitivity data:</I> Data must be provided demonstrating the minimum amount of DNA that will enable the test to perform correctly in 95 percent of runs.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Reagent stability:</I> The manufacturer must evaluate reagent stability using wild-type, heterozygous, and homozygous samples. Reagent stability data must demonstrate that the reagents maintain the claimed accuracy and reproducibility. Data supporting such claims must be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Specimen type and matrix comparison data:</I> Specimen type and matrix comparison data must be generated if more than one specimen type can be tested with this device, including failure rates for the different specimens.
</P>
<P>(K) Clinical performance summary.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information to support the clinical performance of each variant reported by the test must be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Manufacturers must organize information by the specific variant combination as appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> wild type, heterozygous, homozygous, compound heterozygous, hemizygous genotypes). For each variant combination, information must be provided in the clinical performance section to support clinical performance for the risk category (<I>e.g.,</I> not at risk, increased risk). For each variant combination, a summary of key results must be provided in tabular format or using another method identified as appropriate by FDA to include the appropriate information regarding variant type, data source, definition of the target condition (<I>e.g.,</I> disease), clinical criteria for determining whether the target disease is present or absent, description of subjects with the target disease present and target disease absent (exclusion or inclusion criteria), and technical method for genotyping. When available, information on the effect of the variant on risk must be provided as the risk of a disease (lifetime risk or lifetime incidences) for an individual compared with the general population risk.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If odds ratios are available, using information about the genotype distribution either among individuals with the target disease absent, or in the general population, or information about the risk variant frequency and odds ratios, the likelihood ratios for the corresponding device results along with 95 percent confidence intervals must be calculated. Using information about pretest risk (π), an estimate of likelihood ratio (LR), and a relationship between post-test risk R as R/(1−R) = LR·π/(1−π), the post-test risk R must be calculated.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) When available, likelihood ratios (LR) for different test results must be presented in a tabular format along with references to the source data or using another method identified as appropriate by FDA as stated in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(K)(2) of this section. When these values are not directly available in published literature, likelihood ratios can be separately calculated along with the 95 percent confidence interval with references to the source data. Note that a minimum requirement for the presence of the variant's effect on the risk is that a corresponding LR is statistically higher than 1 (a lower bound of 95 percent two-sided confidence interval is larger than 1). It means that the post-test risk is statistically higher than the pretest risk (an observed value of the difference between the post-test and pretest risks).
</P>
<P>(L) Materials that explain the main concepts and terminology used in the test that includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Definitions:</I> Scientific terms that are used in the test reports.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Prepurchase page:</I> This page must contain information that informs the user about what the test will provide. This includes, but is not limited to, variant information, the condition or disease associated with the variant(s), professional guideline recommendations for general genetic risk testing, the limitations associated with the test (<I>e.g.,</I> test does not detect all variants related to the disease) and any precautionary information about the test the user should be aware of before purchase. When the test reports the risk of a life-threatening or irreversibly debilitating disease or condition for which there are few or no options to prevent, treat, or cure the disease, a user opt-in section must be provided. This opt-in page must be provided for each disease that falls into this category and must provide specific information relevant to each test result. The opt-in page must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An option to accept or decline to receive this specific test result;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Specification of the risk involved if the user is found to have the specific genetic test result;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Professional guidelines that recommend when genetic testing for the associated target condition is or is not recommended; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A recommendation to speak with a health care professional, genetic counselor, or equivalent professional before getting the results of the test.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Frequently asked questions (FAQ) page: This page must provide information that is specific for each variant/disease pair that is reported. Information provided in this section must be scientifically valid and supported by corresponding publications. The FAQ page must explain the health condition/disease being tested, the purpose of the test, the information the test will and will not provide, the relevance of race and ethnicity on the test results, information about the population to which the variants in the test is most applicable, the meaning of the result(s), other risks factors that contribute to disease, appropriate followup procedures, how the results of the test may affect the user's family, including children, and links to resources that provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(M) User comprehension study: Information on a study that assesses comprehension of the test process and results by potential users of the test must be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The test manufacturer must provide a genetic risk education module to naïve user comprehension study participants prior to their participation in the user comprehension study. The module must define terms that are used in the test reports and explain the significance of genetic risk reports.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The test manufacturer must perform pre- and post-test user comprehension studies. The comprehension test questions must include directly evaluating a representative sample of the material being presented to the user as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The manufacturer must provide a justification from a physician and/or genetic counselor that identifies the appropriate general and variant-specific concepts contained within the material being tested in the user comprehension study to ensure that all relevant concepts are incorporated in the study.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The user study must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The study participants must comprise a statistically sufficient sample size and demographically diverse population (determined using methods such as quota-based sampling) that is representative of the intended user population. Furthermore, the study participants must comprise a diverse range of age and educational levels and have no prior experience with the test or its manufacturer. These factors shall be well defined in the inclusion and exclusion criteria.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) All sources of bias must be predefined and accounted for in the study results with regard to both responders and non-responders.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The testing must follow a format where users have limited time to complete the studies (such as an onsite survey format and a one-time visit with a cap on the maximum amount of time that a participant has to complete the tests).
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Users must be randomly assigned to study arms. Test reports in the user comprehension study given to users must define the target condition being tested and related symptoms, explain the intended use and limitations of the test, explain the relevant ethnicities in regard to the variant tested, explain genetic health risks and relevance to the user's ethnicity, and assess participants' ability to understand the following comprehension concepts: The test's limitations, purpose, appropriate action, test results, and other factors that may have an impact on the test results.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Study participants must be untrained, be naïve to the test subject of the study, and be provided the labeling prior to the start of the user comprehension study.
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) The user comprehension study must meet the predefined primary endpoint criteria, including a minimum of a 90 percent or greater overall comprehension rate (<I>i.e.,</I> selection of the correct answer) for each comprehension concept. Other acceptance criteria may be acceptable depending on the concept being tested. Meeting or exceeding this overall comprehension rate demonstrates that the materials presented to the user are adequate for over-the-counter use.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) The analysis of the user comprehension results must include results regarding reports that are provided for each gene/variant/ethnicity tested, statistical methods used to analyze all data sets, and completion rate, non-responder rate, and reasons for nonresponse/data exclusion. A summary table of comprehension rates regarding comprehension concepts (<I>e.g.,</I> purpose of test, test results, test limitations, ethnicity relevance for the test results, etc.) for each study report must be included.
</P>
<P>(4) The intended use of the device must not include the following indications for use:
</P>
<P>(i) Prenatal testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining predisposition for cancer where the result of the test may lead to prophylactic screening, confirmatory procedures, or treatments that may incur morbidity or mortality to the patient;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assessing the presence of genetic variants that impact the metabolism, exposure, response, risk of adverse events, dosing, or mechanisms of prescription or over-the-counter medications; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Assessing the presence of deterministic autosomal dominant variants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 51561, Nov. 7, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 25914, June 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5960   Human leukocyte antigen typing companion diagnostic test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing companion diagnostic (CDx) test is a prescription genotyping or phenotyping in vitro diagnostic product intended for use as an aid in identifying patients who have specific HLA allele(s) or express specific HLA antigen(s) and may benefit from treatment with a corresponding therapeutic product or are likely to be at increased risk for serious adverse reactions as a result of treatment with a corresponding therapeutic product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use of the device must specify the target HLA allele(s) or antigen(s), the patient population(s), and the corresponding therapeutic product(s).
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed documentation of an analytical accuracy study that uses well-characterized samples including clinical samples from intended use population(s) focusing on the target allele(s) needed for patient selection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed documentation of precision studies (repeatability, reproducibility) that evaluate possible sources of variation that may affect test results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed documentation of a study determining range of input sample concentrations that meet performance specifications;
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed description of the ambiguity resolution method, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(v) For a sequencing-based assay, documentation of coverage and predefined coverage threshold of target genomic regions, pertinent variant types, and sequence contexts;
</P>
<P>(vi) For multiplex assays, documentation of a risk assessment and design specifications that are in place to prevent incorrect reactivity assignment;
</P>
<P>(vii) Description of a plan on how to ensure the performance of the device does not change when new HLA alleles are identified, and/or when reactivity assignments are changed; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Detailed description of device software including standalone software, or software and bioinformatics analysis pipeline, if applicable, incorporated in the instruments, and documentation of software including the level of concern and associated risks, software requirement specifications, software design specifications (<I>e.g.,</I> algorithms, alarms and device limitations), hazard analysis, traceability matrix, verification and validation testing, unresolved anomalies, hardware requirements, and effective cybersecurity management.
</P>
<P>(3) Clinical validity data (which may include summary reports from clinical trials, comparison studies using clinical samples, or through an alternative approach determined to be appropriate by FDA), demonstrating the following, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Which patients identified by the HLA CDx test are most likely to benefit from the corresponding therapeutic product; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which patients identified by the HLA CDx test are likely to be at increased risk for serious adverse reactions as a result of treatment with the corresponding therapeutic product.
</P>
<P>(4) If the HLA test used in the clinical trials is different from the HLA CDx test in the premarket notification submission, the submission must include results of a bridging study, or an alternative approach determined to be appropriate by FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 79252, Dec. 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5970   Inherited nucleotide repeat disorder DNA test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An inherited nucleotide repeat disorder DNA test is a prescription in vitro diagnostic device that is intended to detect and identify the number of nucleotide repeats in a gene using genomic DNA isolated from post-natal patient specimens. It is solely intended as an aid for carrier testing and as an aid for the diagnosis of inherited nucleotide repeat-associated disorders. Assay results are solely intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings. These tests do not include those indicated for use for fetal diagnostic testing or newborn screening.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use on the device's label required under § 809.10(a)(2) of this chapter and device's labeling required under § 809.10(b)(2) of this chapter must include a statement that assay results are solely intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, and that reflex testing, clinical genetic evaluation, and genetic counseling should be offered as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that mosaicism detected in one tissue may not reflect mosaicism in other tissues and that the significance of mosaicism should be interpreted with caution in conjunction with other laboratory and clinical information (<I>e.g.,</I> sex of patient, diagnostic testing or carrier screening, patient symptoms) and should include appropriate genetic counseling.
</P>
<P>(ii) A prominent statement that this test is not indicated for use for fetal diagnostic testing, newborn screening or for stand-alone diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information that addresses how to interpret different result outputs specific to the technology, such as (peaks) in the electropherograms.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate design features and control elements incorporated into the testing procedure that mitigate the risk of incorrect clinical results. These include controls as determined acceptable by FDA that:
</P>
<P>(A) Enable the user to determine when the amplification may yield incorrect results,
</P>
<P>(B) Enable the user to determine when cross contamination may have occurred;
</P>
<P>(C) Software risk control measures that address device system hazards;
</P>
<P>(D) Provide software traceability that ensures all hazards are adequately controlled and that all controls have been validated in the final device design; and
</P>
<P>(E) Ensure the instructions for use and test reports appropriately inform the user about the limitations of the assay.
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated and acceptable, as determined by FDA, criteria for test result interpretation and reporting, including result outputs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Acceptable, as determined by FDA, evidence demonstrating the clinical validity of the device which supports each indicated diagnostic use, including for each genotype and associated phenotype used in providing a clinical determination for the target population.
</P>
<P>(iv) Evidence demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, analytical device performance. Patient specimens must represent the full spectrum of expected clinical results and be obtained through unbiased collection. Specimens must be representative of all categories of results and across the range of repeat sizes (<I>e.g.,</I> categories and repeat sizes for Fragile X syndrome are: normal 1-44 repeats; intermediate 45-54 repeats; premutation 55-200 repeats, full mutation greater than 200 repeats), across a range of allelic combinations, be near decision points, and be from both male and female subjects. The number of specimens tested must be sufficient to obtain unbiased estimates of device performance. Analytical validation must include data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA:
</P>
<P>(A) Agreement with a comparator method(s) determined to be acceptable by FDA. This evidence must demonstrate the accuracy for detecting the size of the nucleotide repeats and the diagnostic categorical calls in DNA in the indicated specimen type(s) from patients that are representative of the intended use population. Accuracy must be assessed for both diagnostic and carrier subsets independently.
</P>
<P>(B) Device precision including repeatability and reproducibility, using clinical samples. The study must evaluate all possible sources of variability including, as appropriate, between-site and between operator at a minimum of three sites of which two must be external with a minimum of two operators per site, between-day on a minimum of 3 non-consecutive days, between-run, within-run, between-lot in a minimum of three lots, and between instrument on a minimum of three instruments. Precision must be demonstrated per specimen and determine for both categorical call and by the size of the repeat (<I>i.e.,</I> the percentage of replicates for which the allele fell within the target precision size range). Precision data must be calculated and presented with and without results determined to be invalid.
</P>
<P>(C) Device performance at the limit of detection of each allele across the range of sizes and as a function of the indicated DNA input for the assay.
</P>
<P>(D) Specificity of the reagents for their targets, absence of cross-reactivity, evaluation of sources of interference relevant to the specimen type, and a demonstration of the absence of cross contamination.
</P>
<P>(E) Performance of the pre-analytical methods, including DNA extraction methods.
</P>
<P>(F) Performance of the device across the range of indicated DNA input concentrations for the assay.
</P>
<P>(G) Specimen stability throughout indicated specimen storage ranges, including under expected storage and transport conditions.
</P>
<P>(v) Robust evidence demonstrating that the number and frequency of incorrect results due to mosaicism are clinically acceptable, as determined by FDA.
</P>
<P>(vi) An appropriate traceability plan to minimize the risk of incorrect results over time, including a description of the molecular size standards and other reagents that may be required for result interpretation, as applicable, that demonstrate the reliable interpretation of the size of the fragments.
</P>
<P>(vii) Acceptable, as determined by FDA, device stability protocols and acceptance criteria, that are sufficient to ensure indicated analytical and clinical performance throughout the indicated device stability period. The protocols and acceptance criteria must be adequate to demonstrate that there is no degradation in signal intensity of full mutations when testing a specimen at the latest indicated time point within the indicated device stability that is comprised of the lowest indicated DNA input that can be used.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 22631, May 29, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.5980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.6.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.5980   Spinal Muscular Atrophy newborn screening test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA) newborn screening test system is a prescription device intended to detect homozygous deletion of exon 7 or other similar mutations in the SMN1 (Survival Motor Neuron 1) gene of DNA obtained from dried blood spot specimens on filter paper using a polymerase chain reaction-based test as an aid in screening newborns for SMA. Presumptive positive results are intended to be followed up by diagnostic confirmatory testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed device description, including all device parts (<I>e.g.,</I> instruments and associated user manuals, device software, reagents, calibrators, controls, and consumables) and their use within the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of the technology, method(s) of data processing from signal acquisition to result assignment, and pre-specified cut-offs used to interpret the data and generate results and sample reports.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of appropriate internal and external controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed specifications for the filter paper to be used as part of the device, which must be appropriately labeled for in vitro diagnostic use. Specifications must include punch size and address any properties of the filter paper that may interfere with obtaining test results.
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed documentation of the following analytical and clinical studies, including the study protocols containing descriptions of the test methods, prescribed methods of data analysis and acceptance criteria, final study reports, and data line listings:
</P>
<P>(A) A study demonstrating the clinical performance of the device using well characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens from the intended use population and include homozygous and heterozygous specimens of sufficient number to be determined to be acceptable to FDA. Confirmed positive specimens must have a diagnosis based on confirmatory diagnostic methods. The confirmed positives must include samples from SMA types 1-4. Additionally, samples with SMN2 (Survival Motor Neuron 2) copy number ranging to 4 must be evaluated to determine the risk of false negative (unaffected) results due to assay cross reactivity with the SMN2 gene. A description of the sample collection strategy and accountability must be included. Specimens used in the study must be from patients other than those used to design the test, and validation testing must be based on a pre-specified clinical decision point (<I>i.e.,</I> cutoff to distinguish positive and negative results). Results must be summarized in a tabular format comparing interpretation of results to the reference method. Point estimates together with two-sided 95 percent confidence intervals must be provided for the positive percent agreement (sensitivity) and negative percent agreement (specificity). Data must include the retest rate, false positive rate before retest, final false positive rate, and false negative rate. Positive predictive value and negative predictive value must be provided based on published reference to prevalence in the target population.
</P>
<P>(B) A study demonstrating device accuracy in comparison to the results obtained by a reference or comparator method determined to be acceptable by FDA.
</P>
<P>(C) A study demonstrating device reproducibility generated using a minimum of three sites, of which at least two must be external sites, with at least two operators at each site using the specified extraction method(s) and protocol. The evaluation must include multiple runs, days, different instruments, and different reagent lots. The study must include heterozygous deleted, homozygous deleted, and unaffected specimens. Identical specimens from the same sample panel must be tested at each site. Results must be summarized in a tabular format and reported as standard deviation and 95 percent confidence intervals for the quantitative result and agreement for qualitative results for between-site, between-operator, between-day/run, and within-run (repeatability) for each specimen.
</P>
<P>(D) A lot-to-lot reproducibility study of each filter paper intended to be used with the test. The lot-to-lot study must include a minimum of three lots of each blood spot card that will be validated with the test and be conducted over five nonconsecutive days. The sample panel must consist of at least one positive and one negative specimen. Multiple punches must be obtained from each card for demonstration of homogeneity of the analyte across the dried blood spot. Comparability of the test performance for each filter paper must be demonstrated. Stability and storage of SMN1 DNA on each blood spot card must be demonstrated. Results of the lot-to-lot study must be summarized by providing the agreement within replicates on the assay final result for positive and negative specimens with pre-specified acceptance criteria and 95 percent confidence intervals for all data. Data must be calculated for within-lot and between-lot reproducibility. Data demonstrating the concordance between results across different filter papers must be provided. Study acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.
</P>
<P>(E) A study demonstrating device specificity, including interference, carryover/cross-contamination, and analysis of potential off-target genomic sequences, including evaluation of SMN2 amplification, to evaluate the risk of clinically false negative or false positive results.
</P>
<P>(F) Studies performed to support the stability of samples using the indicated specimen collection method(s) under various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(G) Studies performed to demonstrate on-board and in-use reagent stability, including the test method(s), data analysis plans, acceptance criteria, final study reports, and data line listings. Such documentation must include studies to demonstrate reagent shelf-life for the assay kit, including study protocols containing descriptions of the test method(s), data analysis plans, and acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(H) Studies performed to evaluate the risk of false positive and false negative results (<I>e.g.,</I> validation of the cycle thresholds or other metric, as applicable, used to define the assay reportable range when assessing a range of DNA input, equivalency of different filter paper, and the limit of blank, when determined appropriate by FDA).
</P>
<P>(I) A shipping stability study, separate from the study described in paragraph (b)(1)(v)(G) of this section, must be performed that demonstrates acceptable stability of the parts that comprise the kit.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed description of the impacts of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's functions.
</P>
<P>(vii) Identification of all risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a detailed description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with using the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use statement that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the target(s) the device detects; and
</P>
<P>(B) The clinical indications appropriate for test use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prominent and conspicuous limiting statements clearly explaining:
</P>
<P>(A) This test is not intended to screen for SMA subtypes other than those specifically stated in the intended use, nor is it intended for carrier screening, as a stand-alone diagnostic test, or for determining eligibility for therapeutic products.
</P>
<P>(B) Test results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including confirmation of presumptive positive results by diagnostic confirmatory testing and clinical evaluation, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Description of the device information required under paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the results of the studies required under paragraphs (b)(1)(v)(A) through (G) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 35386, June 11, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Tumor Associated Antigen immunological Test Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6000" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6000   Whole exome sequencing constituent device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A whole exome sequencing constituent device is for germline whole exome sequencing of genomic deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) isolated from human specimens. The DNA sequence generated by this device is intended as input for clinical germline DNA assays that have FDA marketing authorization and are intended for use with this device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The intended use on the device's label and labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The indicated variant types for which acceptable, as determined by FDA, validation data has been provided. Distinct variant types are considered as single nucleotide variant, insertion, deletion, tandem repeats, copy number variants, or gene rearrangements, and validated for specific sizes and lengths, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The indicated specimen type(s) for which acceptable, as determined by FDA, validation data has been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The identification of, or the specifications for, the collection device or devices to be used for sample collection, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the reportable range, which is the region of the genome for which the assay is intended to provide results, as well as a description of the targeted regions of the genome that have enhanced coverage. This must include a description of any genomic regions that are excluded from the reportable region due to unacceptable risk of erroneous results, or for other reasons. A description of the clinically relevant genes excluded from the reportable range must also be included, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the design features and control elements, including the quality metrics and thresholds which are used for reporting the analytical range (the genomic DNA in the reportable range that passed the quality metrics in the run required for reporting to the user) that are incorporated into the testing procedure, that mitigate the risk of incorrect clinical results. The following metrics are considered applicable in the generation of high confidence data and the established thresholds for these metrics for reporting must be described and be determined to be acceptable by FDA: cluster density and percent of cluster pass quality filter, percent of bases meeting the minimum base quality score, average coverage of reads, percent of reads mapped on target, percent of reportable region with coverage meeting the minimum requirement, percent of unassigned read indices, percent of reads for non-human DNA, allele fraction, and strand bias. Any alternate metrics used must be described and an acceptable, as determined by FDA, rationale for applicability must be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) A representative sample of the device output report(s) provided to users, which must include any relevant limitations of the device, as determined applicable by FDA.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the impact of any software, including software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, on the device's function.
</P>
<P>(ii) Acceptable data, as determined by FDA, demonstrating how the key quality metrics and quality metric thresholds in the list in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section for reporting were established and optimized for accuracy using appropriate DNA standards with established reference genomic sequence. Data must include, as applicable, base quality score, allele fraction for heterozygosity and coverage, and other applicable metrics.
</P>
<P>(iii) Data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, analytical device performance using patient specimens representing the full spectrum of expected variant types reported across the genome and in genomic regions that are difficult to sequence. The number of specimens tested must be sufficient to obtain estimates of device performance that are representative of the device performance that can be expected for the reportable region and clinically relevant subsets of the reportable region, as applicable. For each study, data must include a summary of the key quality metric data; the number and percentage of true positives (TP), false positives (FP), and false negatives (FN); number and percentage of no-calls; positive percent agreement (PPA); negative percent agreement (NPA); positive predictive value (PPV); technical positive percent value (TPPV); and non-reference concordance (NRC). These data must be provided per sample and stratified by variant type. The variant data must also be further stratified by size and zygosity (homozygous common allele, heterozygous, homozygous rare allele). Data demonstrating the accuracy assay based on guanine and cytosine (GC) content, pseudogenes, and proximity to short tandem repeats must also be presented. The data must be presented for the entire exome and also for clinically relevant subsets of the reportable region. For each study, the number of run failures and repeat/requeued specimens must be summarized.
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation of acceptance criteria that are applied to analytical and clinical validation studies, which must be justified based on the estimated risk of erroneous results on clinically significant genes and variants and must be clinically acceptable, as determined by FDA. The acceptance criteria must be pre-specified prior to clinical and analytical validation studies, and all validation testing results must be documented with respect to those acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(v) Analytical validation must be demonstrated by conducting studies that provide:
</P>
<P>(A) Data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, accuracy based on agreement with an acceptable, as determined by FDA, comparator method(s) that has been validated to have high accuracy and reproducibility. Accuracy of the test shall be evaluated with reference standards and clinical specimens for each indicated specimen type of a number determined acceptable by FDA, collected and processed in a manner consistent with the test's instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(B) Data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, precision from a precision study using clinical samples to adequately evaluate intra-run, inter-run, and total variability across operator, instrument, lot, day, and site, as applicable. The samples must include the indicated range of DNA input. Precision, including repeatability and reproducibility, must be assessed by agreement between replicates, and also supported by sequencing quality metrics for targeted regions across the panel. Precision must be demonstrated per specimen and in aggregate. Precision data must be calculated and presented with and without no calls/invalid results.
</P>
<P>(C) Data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, accuracy in the presence of clinically relevant levels of potential interfering substances that are present in the specimen type and intended use population, including, for example, endogenous substances, exogenous substances, and microbes, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(D) Data demonstrating the absence of sample cross contamination due to index swapping (misassignment).
</P>
<P>(E) Data demonstrating that the pre-analytical steps such as DNA extraction are robust such that sources of variability in these steps and procedures do not diminish the accuracy and precision of the device.
</P>
<P>(F) Data demonstrating that acceptable, as determined by FDA, device performance is maintained across the range of claimed DNA input concentrations for the assay.
</P>
<P>(vi) Design verification and validation for software within the whole exome sequencing constituent device must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed description of the software, including specifications and requirements for the format of data input and output, such that users can determine if the device conforms to user needs and intended uses.
</P>
<P>(B) Device design must include a detailed strategy to ensure cybersecurity risks that could lead to loss of genetic data security, are adequately addressed and mitigated (including device interface specifications and how safe reporting of the genetic test is maintained when software is updated). Verification and validation must include security testing to demonstrate effectiveness of the associated controls.
</P>
<P>(C) Device design must ensure that a record of critical events, including a record of all genetic test orders using the whole exome sequencing constituent device, device malfunctions, and associated acknowledgments, is stored and accessible for an adequate period to allow for auditing of communications between the whole exome sequencing constituent device and downstream clinical genetic tests, and to facilitate the sharing of pertinent information with the responsible parties for those devices.
</P>
<P>(vii) A protocol reviewed and determined acceptable by FDA, that specifies the verification and validation activities that will be performed for anticipated bioinformatic software modifications to reevaluate performance claims or performance specifications. This protocol must include a process for assessing whether a modification to the bioinformatics software could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device. The protocol must include assessment metrics, acceptance criteria, and analytical methods for the performance testing of changes, as applicable. The protocol must also include the process for communicating to developers of downstream clinical genetic tests the impact of the bioinformatics software change on the whole exome sequencing constituent system genetic data output so they may implement appropriate corresponding actions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 73566, Sept. 11, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6010   Tumor-associated antigen immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tumor-associated antigen immunological test system is a device that consists of reagents used to qualitatively or quantitatively measure, by immunochemical techniques, tumor-associated antigens in serum, plasma, urine, or other body fluids. This device is intended as an aid in monitoring patients for disease progress or response to therapy or for the detection of recurrent or residual disease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Tumor markers must comply with the following special controls: (1) A guidance document entitled “Guidance Document for the Submission of Tumor Associated Antigen Premarket Notifications (510(k)s) to FDA,” and (2) voluntary assay performance standards issued by the National Committee on Clinical Laboratory Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 66005, Dec. 17, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6020   Immunomagnetic circulating cancer cell selection and enumeration system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immunomagnetic circulating cancer cell selection and enumeration system is a device that consists of biological probes, fluorochromes, and other reagents; preservation and preparation devices; and a semiautomated analytical instrument to select and count circulating cancer cells in a prepared sample of whole blood. This device is intended for adjunctive use in monitoring or predicting cancer disease progression, response to therapy, and for the detection of recurrent disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Immunomagnetic Circulating Cancer Cell Selection and Enumeration System.” See § 866.1(e) for availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 26038, May 11, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6030   AFP-L3% immunological test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AFP-L3% immunological test system is an in vitro device that consists of reagents and an automated instrument used to quantitatively measure, by immunochemical techniques, AFP and AFP-L3 subfraction in human serum. The device is intended for in vitro diagnostic use as an aid in the risk assessment of patients with chronic liver disease for development of hepatocellular carcinoma, in conjunction with other laboratory findings, imaging studies, and clinical assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: AFP-L3% Immunological Test Systems.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 57749, Oct. 4, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6040   Gene expression profiling test system for breast cancer prognosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gene expression profiling test system for breast cancer prognosis is a device that measures the ribonucleic acid (RNA) expression level of multiple genes and combines this information to yield a signature (pattern or classifier or index) to aid in prognosis of previously diagnosed breast cancer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Gene Expression Profiling Test System for Breast Cancer Prognosis.” See § 866.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 26291, May 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6050   Ovarian adnexal mass assessment score test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ovarian/adnexal mass assessment test system is a device that measures one or more proteins in serum or plasma. It yields a single result for the likelihood that an adnexal pelvic mass in a woman, for whom surgery is planned, is malignant. The test is for adjunctive use, in the context of a negative primary clinical and radiological evaluation, to augment the identification of patients whose gynecologic surgery requires oncology expertise and resources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Ovarian Adnexal Mass Assessment Score Test System.” For the availability of this guidance document, <I>see</I> § 866.1(e).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Black box warning.</I> Under section 520(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act these devices are subject to the following restriction: A warning statement must be placed in a black box and must appear in all advertising, labeling, and promotional material for these devices. That warning statement must read:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30de11.007.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 16294, Mar. 23, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 82131, Dec. 30, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6060   BCR-ABL quantitation test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A BCR-ABL quantitation test is identified as a reverse transcription-quantitative polymerase chain reaction (RT-qPCR) test for the quantitation of BCR-ABL1 expressed on the International Scale (IS) and control transcripts in total RNA from whole blood of diagnosed t(9;22) positive chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) patients during monitoring of treatment with tyrosine kinase inhibitors. This test is not intended for the diagnosis of CML.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The indication for use must indicate the variant(s) for which the assay was designed and validated, for example BCR-ABL e13a2 and/or e14a2.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of all components in the test, including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the test components, all required reagents, instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or methods;
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed documentation of the device software including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software;
</P>
<P>(C) Methodology and protocols for control procedures for the assay to allow reporting on the International Scale;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the result outputs, analytical sensitivity of the assay, and the range of values that will be reported; and
</P>
<P>(E) A description of appropriate internal and external controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test, including:
</P>
<P>(A) For indications for use based on a threshold established in a predicate device of this generic type, device performance data from either a method comparison study to the predicate device or through a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well-characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens, as appropriate, representative of the intended use population;
</P>
<P>(B) For indications for use based on a threshold not established in a predicate device of this generic type, device performance data from a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well-characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens, as appropriate, representative of the intended use population;
</P>
<P>(C) Device reproducibility data generated, using a minimum of three sites, of which at least two sites must be external sites, with two operators at each site. Each site must conduct a minimum of three runs per operator over non-consecutive days evaluating a minimum of five different BCR-ABL concentrations that span and are well distributed over the measuring range and include MR3 (0.1 percent IS). Results shall be reported as the standard deviation and percentage coefficient of variation for each level tested. Prespecified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed;
</P>
<P>(D) Device precision data using clinical samples to evaluate the within-lot, between-lot, within-run, between run, and total variation;
</P>
<P>(E) Device linearity data using a dilution panel created from clinical samples;
</P>
<P>(F) Device analytic sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantification;
</P>
<P>(G) Device specificity data, including interference and cross-contamination; and
</P>
<P>(H) Device stability data, including real-time stability of samples under various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by your device, including a detailed description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing using your device.
</P>
<P>(2) Your 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The intended use in your 21 CFR 809.10(a)(2) and (b)(2) complaint labeling must include an indication for use statement that reads “This test is not intended for the diagnosis of CML”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the performance studies conducted to comply with paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section and a summary of the results.
</P>
<P>(3) Your device output must include results on the International Scale (IS) and your assay must include multipoint calibration controls traceable to a relevant international reference panel (<I>e.g.,</I> the World Health Organization International Genetic Reference Panel for quantitation of BCR-ABL mRNA).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50532, Nov. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6070   Mutation detection test for myeloproliferative neoplasms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mutation detection test for myeloproliferative neoplasms is an in vitro diagnostic device intended for the detection of the JAK2 V617F/G1849T allele in genomic DNA extracted from whole blood. The test is intended for use as an adjunct to evaluation of suspected polycythemia vera in conjunction with other clinicopathological factors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of all components in the test, including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or methods, of the test components, including all required reagents, instrumentation, and equipment.
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed documentation of the device software, including standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedures including appropriate internal and external quality controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed specification for sample collection, processing, and storage.
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting including result outputs, analytical sensitivity of the assay, and the values that will be reported.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test, including:
</P>
<P>(A) For indications for use based on a threshold established in a predicate device of this generic type, device performance data from either a method comparison study to the predicate device or through a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well-characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens, as appropriate, representative of the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(B) For indications for use based on a threshold not established in a predicate device of this generic type, device performance data from a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well-characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens, as appropriate, representative of the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(C) Device reproducibility data generated, using a minimum of three sites, of which at least two sites must be external sites, with two operators at each site. Each site must conduct a study that includes at least two operators per site, two runs per operator per day over a minimum of three non-consecutive days evaluating a sample panel that contains allelic frequencies that span the claimed measuring range, and include the clinical threshold allelic frequency. Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.
</P>
<P>(D) Information on device traceability and a description of the value assignment process for calibrators and controls.
</P>
<P>(E) Device precision data using clinical samples and controls to evaluate the within-lot, between-lot, within-run, between-run, and total variation.
</P>
<P>(F) Device linearity data generated from samples covering the device measuring range and for any standards used in the quantitation of allelic frequencies.
</P>
<P>(G) Device analytic sensitivity data, including limit of blank and limit of detection.
</P>
<P>(H) Device specificity data, including interference and cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(I) Device and clinical specimen stability data, including real-time stability (long-term storage and in-use stability) and stability evaluating various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a detailed description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing using the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use statement, including an indication for use that includes the variant(s) for which the assay was designed and validated, for example, JAK2 G1849T.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the performance studies conducted to comply with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40723, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6080   Next generation sequencing based tumor profiling test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A next generation sequencing (NGS) based tumor profiling test is a qualitative in vitro diagnostic test intended for NGS analysis of tissue specimens from malignant solid neoplasms to detect somatic mutations in a broad panel of targeted genes to aid in the management of previously diagnosed cancer patients by qualified health care professionals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of all somatic mutations that are intended to be detected by the test and that are adequately supported in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section and reported in the test results in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A listing of mutations that are cancer mutations with evidence of clinical significance.
</P>
<P>(B) As appropriate, a listing of mutations that are cancer mutations with potential clinical significance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The indications for use must specify the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The test is indicated for previously diagnosed cancer patients.
</P>
<P>(B) The intended specimen type(s) and matrix (<I>e.g.,</I> formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tumor tissue).
</P>
<P>(C) The mutation types (<I>e.g.,</I> single nucleotide variant, insertion, deletion, copy number variation or gene rearrangement) for which validation data has been provided.
</P>
<P>(D) The name of the testing facility or facilities, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed device description including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the test in terms of genomic coverage, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Tabulated summary of all mutations reported, grouped according to gene and target region within each gene, along with the specific cDNA and amino acid positions for each mutation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A description of any within-gene targeted regions that cannot be reported and the data behind such conclusion.
</P>
<P>(B) Specifications for specimen requirements including any specimen collection devices and preservatives, specimen volume, minimum tumor content, specimen handling, DNA extraction, and criteria for DNA quality and quantity metrics that are prerequisite to performing the assay.
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed description of all test components, reagents, instrumentation, and software required. Detailed documentation of the device software including but not limited to, software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed description of the methodology and protocols for each step of the test, including description of the quality metrics, thresholds, and filters at each step of the test that are implemented for final result reporting and a description of the metrics for run-failures, specimen-failures, invalids, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) A list of links provided by the device to the user or accessed by the device for internal or external information (<I>e.g.,</I> decision rules or databases) supporting clinical significance of test results for the panel or its elements in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1)(v) and (b)(2)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) A description of internal and external controls that are recommended or provided and control procedures. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information demonstrating analytical validity of the device according to analytical performance characteristics, evaluated either specifically for each gene/mutation or, when clinically and practically justified, using a representative approach based on other mutations of the same type, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Data that adequately supports the intended specimen type (<I>e.g.,</I> formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tumor tissue), specimen handling protocol, and nucleic acid purification for specific tumor types or for a pan-tumor claim.
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of the empirical evidence obtained to demonstrate how the analytical quality metrics and thresholds were optimized.
</P>
<P>(C) Device precision data using clinical samples to adequately evaluate intra-run, inter-run, and total variability. The samples must cover all mutation types tested (both positive and negative samples) and include samples near the limit of detection of the device. Precision must be assessed by agreement within replicates on the assay final result for each representative mutation, as applicable, and also supported by sequencing quality metrics for targeted regions across the panel.
</P>
<P>(D) Description of the protocols and/or data adequately demonstrating the interchangeability of reagent lots and multiplexing barcodes.
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the nucleic acid assay input concentration range and the evidence to adequately support the range.
</P>
<P>(F) A description of the data adequately supporting the limit of detection of the device.
</P>
<P>(G) A description of the data to adequately support device accuracy using clinical specimens representing the intended specimen type and range of tumor types, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Clinical specimens tested to support device accuracy must adequately represent the list of cancer mutations with evidence of clinical significance to be detected by the device.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For mutations that are designated as cancer mutations with evidence of clinical significance and that are based on evidence established in the intended specimen type (<I>e.g.,</I> tumor tissues) but for a different analyte type (<I>e.g.,</I> protein, RNA) and/or a measurement (<I>e.g.,</I> incorporating a score or copy number) and/or with an alternative technology (<I>e.g.,</I> IHC, RT-qPCR, FISH), evidence of accuracy must include clinically adequate concordance between results for the mutation and the medically established biomarker test (<I>e.g.,</I> evidence generated from an appropriately sized method comparison study using clinical specimens from the target population).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For qualitative DNA mutations not described in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(G)(<I>2</I>) of this section, accuracy studies must include both mutation-positive and wild-type results.
</P>
<P>(H) Adequate device stability information.
</P>
<P>(v) Information that adequately supports the clinical significance of the panel must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Criteria established on what types and levels of evidence will clinically validate a mutation as a cancer mutation with evidence of clinical significance versus a cancer mutation with potential clinical significance.
</P>
<P>(B) For representative mutations of those designated as cancer mutations with evidence of clinical significance, a description of the clinical evidence associated with such mutations, such as clinical evidence presented in professional guidelines, as appropriate, with method comparison performance data as described in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(G) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) For all other mutations designated as cancer mutations with potential clinical significance, a description of the rationale for reporting.
</P>
<P>(2) The 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling and any product information and test report generated, must include the following, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The intended use statement must specify the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The test is indicated for previously diagnosed cancer patients.
</P>
<P>(B) The intended specimen type(s) and matrix (<I>e.g.,</I> formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tumor tissue).
</P>
<P>(C) The mutation types (<I>e.g.,</I> single nucleotide variant, insertion, deletion, copy number variation or gene rearrangement) for which validation data has been provided.
</P>
<P>(D) The name of the testing facility or facilities, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the device and summary of the results of the performance studies performed in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1)(iii), (b)(1)(iv), and (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of applicable test limitations, including, for device specific mutations validated with method comparison data to a medically established test in the same intended specimen type, appropriate description of the level of evidence and/or the differences between next generation sequencing results and results from the medically established test (<I>e.g.,</I> as described in professional guidelines).
</P>
<P>(iv) A listing of all somatic mutations that are intended to be detected by the device and that are reported in the test results under the following two categories or equivalent designations, as appropriate: “cancer mutations panel with evidence of clinical significance” or “cancer mutations panel with potential clinical significance.”
</P>
<P>(v) For mutations reported under the category of “cancer mutations panel with potential clinical significance,” a limiting statement that states “For the mutations listed in [cancer mutations panel with potential clinical significance or equivalent designation], the clinical significance has not been demonstrated [with adequate clinical evidence (<I>e.g.,</I> by professional guidelines) in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section] or with this test.”
</P>
<P>(vi) For mutations under the category of “cancer mutations panel with evidence of clinical significance,” or equivalent designation, link(s) for physicians to access internal or external information concerning decision rules or conclusions about the level of evidence for clinical significance that is associated with the marker in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 28995, June 22, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6090   Cancer predisposition risk assessment system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cancer predisposition risk assessment system is a qualitative in vitro molecular diagnostic system used for determining predisposition for cancer where the result of the test may lead to prophylactic screening, confirmatory procedures, or treatments that may incur morbidity or mortality to the patient. The test could help to inform conversations with a healthcare professional. This assessment system is for over-the-counter use. This device does not determine the person's overall risk of developing any types of cancer. This test is not a substitute for visits to a healthcare provider for recommended screenings or appropriate follow-up and should not be used to determine any treatments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter and any pre-purchase page and test report generated, unless otherwise specified, must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intended use that specifies in the indications for use the genetic variants detected by the test. The specific variants must be appropriately validated as described in paragraphs (b)(4)(xii) and (b)(4)(xiii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A section addressed to users with the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A warning statement accurately disclosing the genetic coverage of the test in lay terms, including information on variants not queried by the test, and the proportion of pathogenic variants in the genes that the assay detects in a specific population as identified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. The warning statement must indicate that the test [does not/may not, as appropriate] detect all genetic variants related to the genetic disease, and that the absence of a variant tested does not rule out the presence of other genetic variants that may impact cancer risk. The warning statement must also include the relevant population for which the variants reported by the test are most relevant.
</P>
<P>(B) A limiting statement explaining that some people may feel anxious about getting genetic test health results. This is normal. If the potential user feels very anxious, such user should speak to his or her doctor or other healthcare professional prior to collection of a sample for testing. This test is not a substitute for visits to a doctor or other healthcare professional. Users should consult with their doctor or other healthcare professional if they have any questions or concerns about the results of their test or their current state of health.
</P>
<P>(C) A limiting statement that a user's ethnicity may affect whether the test is relevant for them and may also affect how their genetic health results are interpreted.
</P>
<P>(D) A warning statement that the test is not a substitute for visits to a healthcare professional for recommended screenings, and should not be used to determine any treatments or medical interventions.
</P>
<P>(E) A warning statement that the test does not diagnose cancer or any other health conditions and should not be used to make medical decisions. The warning statement must indicate that the results should be confirmed in a clinical setting before taking any medical action.
</P>
<P>(F) A limiting statement explaining that other companies offering a genetic risk test may be detecting different genetic variants for the same disease, so the user may get different results using a test from a different company.
</P>
<P>(G) If applicable, a limiting statement that states the test does not test for variants in other genes linked to hereditary cancer.
</P>
<P>(H) A limiting statement explaining that this test does not account for non-genetic factors and that other factors such as environmental and lifestyle risk factors may affect the risk of developing a given disease.
</P>
<P>(I) Information to a potential purchaser or actual test report recipient about how to obtain access to a board-certified clinical molecular geneticist or equivalent to assist in pre- and post-test counseling.
</P>
<P>(J) A limiting statement explaining that this test is not intended to tell you anything about your current state of health, or be used to make medical decisions, including whether or not you should take a medication or how much of a medication you should take.
</P>
<P>(K) A limiting statement explaining that the laboratory may not be able to process a sample, and a description of the next steps to be taken by the manufacturer and/or the customer, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A section in the labeling required under § 809.10 of this chapter and any test report generated that is for healthcare professionals who may receive the test results from their patients with the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A limiting statement explaining that this test is not intended to diagnose a disease, determine medical treatment or other medical intervention, or tell the user anything about their current state of health.
</P>
<P>(B) A limiting statement explaining that this test is intended to provide users with their genetic information to inform health-related lifestyle decisions and conversations with their doctor or other healthcare professional.
</P>
<P>(C) A limiting statement explaining that any diagnostic or treatment decisions should be based on confirmatory prescription testing and/or other information that is determined to be appropriate for the patient (<I>e.g.,</I> additional clinical testing and other risk factors that may affect individual risk and health care).
</P>
<P>(2) The genetic test must use a sample collection device that is FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt, with an indication for in vitro diagnostic use in over-the-counter DNA testing.
</P>
<P>(3) The device's labeling must include a hyperlink to the manufacturer's public website where the manufacturer must make the information identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section publicly available. The manufacturer's home page, as well as the primary part of the manufacturer's website that discusses the device, must provide a hyperlink to the web page containing this information and must allow unrestricted viewing access. If the device can be purchased from the website or testing using the device can be ordered from the website, the same information must be found on the web page for ordering the device or provided in a publicly accessible hyperlink on the web page for ordering the device. Any changes to the device that could significantly affect safety or effectiveness would require new data or information in support of such changes, which must also be posted on the manufacturer's website. The information must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An index of the material being provided to meet the requirements in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and its location.
</P>
<P>(ii) Technical information about the device, as specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A section that highlights summary information that allows the user to understand how the test works and how to interpret the results of the test. This section must, at a minimum, be written in plain language understandable to a lay user and include:
</P>
<P>(A) Consistent explanations of the risk of disease associated with all variants included in the test, variants not included in the test, and specific considerations by ethnicity. If there are different categories of risk, the manufacturer must provide literature references and/or data that support the different risk categories. If there will be multiple test reports and multiple variants, the risk categories must be defined similarly among them. For example, “increased risk” must be defined similarly between different test reports and different variant combinations.
</P>
<P>(B) Clear context for the user to understand the context in which the cited clinical performance data support the risk reported. This includes any risks that are influenced by ethnicity, age, gender, environment, and lifestyle choices.
</P>
<P>(C) Materials that explain the main concepts and terminology used in the test that include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Definitions: scientific terms that are used in the test reports.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Pre-purchase page: this page must contain information that informs the user about what information the test will provide. This includes variant information, the condition(s) or disease(s) associated with the variant(s), professional guideline recommendations for general genetic risk testing, the limitations associated with the test (<I>e.g.,</I> test does not detect all variants related to the disease), relevance of race/ethnicity, and any precautionary information about the test the user should be aware of before purchase. When the test reports the risk of a life-threatening or irreversibly debilitating disease or condition for which there are few or no options to prevent, treat, or cure the disease, a user opt-in page must be provided. This opt-in page must be provided for each disease type that falls into this category and must provide specific information relevant to each test result. The opt-in page must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An option to accept or decline to receive this specific test result;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Specification of the risk involved if the user is found to have the specific genetic test result;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Summary of professional guidelines that recommend when genetic testing for the associated target condition is or is not recommended;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A recommendation to speak with a healthcare professional, genetic counselor, or equivalent professional before getting the results of the test;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The implications of receiving a no variants detected result; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) The statement that the test does not diagnose cancer or any other health conditions and should not be used to make medical decisions. Results should be confirmed in a clinical setting before taking any medical action. Users should consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medical action.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Frequently asked questions (FAQ) page: This page must provide information that is specific for each variant/disease pair that is reported. Information provided in this section must be scientifically valid and supported by corresponding peer-reviewed publications. The FAQ page must explain the health condition/disease being tested, the purpose of the test, the information the test will and will not provide, the relevance of race and ethnicity to the test results, information about the population to which the variants in the test is most applicable, the meaning of the result(s), other risk factors that contribute to disease, appropriate follow-up procedures, how the results of the test may affect the user's family, including children, and links to resources that provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(4) The device labeling must include a technical information section containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Gene(s) and variant(s) the test detects using standardized nomenclature, Human Genome Organization (HUGO) nomenclature and coordinates, as well as Single Nucleotide Polymorphism Database (dbSNP) reference SNP numbers (rs#).
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement indicating that more than 1,000 variants in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are known to increase cancer risk, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Scientifically established disease-risk association of each variant detected and reported by the test. This risk association information must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Genotype-phenotype information for the reported variants.
</P>
<P>(B) When available, a table of expected frequency in the general population and different ethnicities, and risks of developing the disease in relevant ethnic populations and the general population.
</P>
<P>(C) Information such as peer-reviewed published literature and/or professional guidelines used to determine what types and levels of evidence will distinguish whether the selected variants are reported as “are associated with increased risk” versus “may be associated with increased risk” of developing other cancers. All selected variants must be appropriately validated as required under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. For selected variants reported as “are associated with increased risk,” the clinical evidence must be demonstrated with sufficient information (<I>e.g.,</I> professional guidelines and consistent associations in peer-reviewed published literature). For the selected variants reported as “may be associated with increased risk,” the clinical evidence must be reported in professional guidelines, but peer-reviewed published literature may not be consistent.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement about the current professional guidelines for testing these specific gene(s) and variant(s) for the specified disease(s).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If professional guidelines are available, provide the recommendations in the professional guideline(s) for the gene, variant, and disease for when genetic testing should or should not be performed, and cautionary information that should be communicated when a particular gene and variant is detected.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If professional guidelines are not available, provide a statement that the professional guidelines are not available for these specific gene(s) and variant(s).
</P>
<P>(iv) The specimen type (<I>e.g.,</I> saliva, whole blood).
</P>
<P>(v) Assay steps and technology used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Specification of required ancillary reagents, instrumentation, and equipment.
</P>
<P>(vii) Specification of the specimen collection, processing, storage, and preparation methods.
</P>
<P>(viii) Specification of risk mitigation elements and description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
</P>
<P>(ix) Information pertaining to the probability of test failure (<I>e.g.,</I> percentage of tests that failed quality control) based on data from clinical samples, a description of scenarios in which a test can fail (<I>e.g.,</I> low sample volume, low DNA concentration), how users will be notified of a test failure, and the nature of follow-up actions on a failed test to be taken by the user and the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(x) When available, information specifying the probability of a false negative and false positive analytical result and any additional considerations by ethnicity.
</P>
<P>(xi) Specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting, including any distinctions between risk categories (<I>i.e.,</I> increased risk and greatly increased risk; are associated and may be associated).
</P>
<P>(xii) Information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test including:
</P>
<P>(A) Accuracy of study results for each claimed specimen type.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Accuracy of the test must be evaluated with fresh clinical specimens collected and processed in a manner consistent with the test's instructions for use. If this is impractical, fresh clinical samples may be substituted or supplemented with archived clinical samples. Archived samples must have been collected previously in accordance with the instructions for use, stored appropriately, and randomly selected. In some limited circumstances, use of contrived samples or human cell line samples may also be appropriate and used as an acceptable alternative. The contrived or human cell line samples must mimic clinical specimens as much as is feasible and provide an unbiased evaluation of the test's accuracy.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accuracy must be evaluated by comparison to bidirectional Sanger sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA. Performance criteria for both the comparator method and the test must be pre-defined and appropriate to the test's intended use. Detailed study protocols must be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information provided must include the number and type of specimens, broken down by clinically relevant variants for each indicated report that were compared to bidirectional sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA. The accuracy as positive percent agreement (PPA) and negative percent agreement (NPA) must be measured, and accuracy point estimates must be &gt;99 percent (both per reported variant and overall). Uncertainty of the point estimate must be within an acceptable range, as identified by FDA, and must be presented using the 95 percent confidence interval.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Sufficient specimens must be tested per genotype and must include all genotypes that will be included in the tests and reports. The number of samples tested in the accuracy study for each variant reported must be based on the variant frequency.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Any no calls (<I>i.e.,</I> absence of a result) or invalid calls (<I>e.g.,</I> failed quality control) in the study must be included in accuracy study results and reported separately. The percent of final 'no calls' or 'invalid calls' must be clinically acceptable. Variants that have a point estimate for PPA or NPA of &lt;99 percent (incorrect test results compared to bidirectional sequencing or other methods identified as appropriate by FDA) must not be incorporated into test claims and reports. Accuracy measures generated from clinical specimens versus contrived samples or cell lines must be presented separately. Results must be summarized and presented in tabular format, by sample and by genotype.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Point estimate of PPA for each genotype must be calculated as the number of correct calls for that genotype divided by the number of samples known to contain that genotype. The point estimate of NPA for each genotype must be calculated as the number of correct calls that do not contain that genotype divided by the number of samples known to not contain that genotype. 'No calls' must not be included in these calculations. Point estimates must be calculated along with 95 percent two-sided confidence intervals.
</P>
<P>(B) Precision and reproducibility data must be provided using multiple instruments and multiple operators, on multiple non-consecutive days, and using multiple reagent lots. The sample panel must include specimens from the claimed sample type (<I>e.g.,</I> saliva) representing all genotypes for each variant (<I>e.g.,</I> wild type, heterozygous, and homozygous). Performance criteria must be predefined. A detailed study protocol must be created in advance of the study and then followed. The failed quality control rate must be indicated (<I>i.e.,</I> the total number of sample replicates for which a sequence variant cannot be called (no calls) or that fail sequencing quality control criteria divided by the total number of replicates tested). It must be clearly documented whether results were generated from clinical specimens, contrived samples, or cell lines. The study results must state, in a tabular format, the variants tested in the study and the number of replicates for each variant, and what conditions were tested (<I>e.g.,</I> number of runs, days, instruments, reagent lots, operators, specimens/type). The study must include all extraction steps from the claimed specimen type or matrix, unless a separate extraction study for the claimed sample type is performed. If the device is to be used at more than one laboratory, different laboratories must be included in the precision study (and reproducibility across sites must be evaluated). Any no calls or invalid calls in the study must be listed as a part of the precision and reproducibility study results.
</P>
<P>(C) Analytical specificity data: data must be provided evaluating the test performance (<I>e.g.,</I> specimen extraction and variant detection) effect of potential endogenous and exogenous interferents relevant to the specimen type, and assessment of cross-contamination. Alternatively, for each suspected interfering mutation for which data is not provided demonstrating the effect of the interfering variant, the manufacturer must clearly identify the suspected interfering variants in the labeling to user test reports, and indicate that the impact the interfering variants may have on the test's performance has not been studied by providing a statement that reads, “It is possible that the presence of [insert identifying information for the suspected interfering variant] in a sample may interfere with the performance of this test. However, its effect on the performance of this test has not been studied.”
</P>
<P>(D) Analytical sensitivity data: data must be provided demonstrating the minimum amount of DNA that will enable the test to perform correctly in 95 percent of runs.
</P>
<P>(E) Device stability data: the manufacturer must establish upper and lower limits of input nucleic acid, sample, and reagent stability that will achieve the test's claimed accuracy and reproducibility. The manufacturer must evaluate stability using wild-type, heterozygous, and homozygous samples. Data supporting such claims must be provided.
</P>
<P>(F) Specimen type and matrix comparison data: specimen type and matrix comparison data must be generated if more than one specimen type can be tested with this device, including failure rates for the different specimens.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Clinical Performance Summary.
</P>
<P>(A) Information to support the clinical performance of each variant in the specific condition which is labeled as “are associated with increased risk” and reported by the test must be provided, as identified in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Manufacturers must organize information by the specific variant combination as appropriate (<I>e.g.,</I> wild type, heterozygous, homozygous, compound heterozygous, hemizygous genotypes). For each variant combination, information must be provided in the clinical performance section to support clinical performance for the risk category (<I>e.g.,</I> not at risk, increased risk). For each variant combination, a summary of key results must be provided in tabular format or using another method identified as appropriate by FDA to include the appropriate information regarding variant type, data source, definition of the target condition (<I>e.g.,</I> disease), clinical criteria for determining whether the target disease is present or absent, description of subjects with the target disease present and target disease absent (exclusion or inclusion criteria), and technical method for genotyping. When available, information on the effect of the variant on risk must be provided as the risk of a disease (lifetime risk or lifetime incidences) for an individual compared with the general population risk.
</P>
<P>(xiv) User comprehension study: information on a study that assesses comprehension of the test process and results by potential users of the test must be provided, including the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) The test manufacturer must provide a genetic health risk education module to naïve user comprehension study participants prior to their participation in the user comprehension study. The module must define terms that are used in the test reports and explain the significance of genetic risk reports.
</P>
<P>(B) The test manufacturer must perform pre- and post-test user comprehension studies. The comprehension test questions must directly evaluate the material being presented to the user as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) The manufacturer must provide a justification from a physician and/or genetic counselor that identifies the appropriate general and variant-specific concepts contained within the material being tested in the user comprehension study to ensure that all relevant concepts are incorporated in the study.
</P>
<P>(D) The user comprehension study must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The study participants must comprise a statistically sufficient sample size and demographically diverse population (determined using methods such as quota-based sampling) that is representative of the intended user population. Furthermore, the study participants must comprise a diverse range of age and educational levels and have no prior experience with the test or its manufacturer. These factors must be well-defined in the inclusion and exclusion criteria.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All sources of bias (<I>e.g.,</I> non-responders) must be predefined and accounted for in the study results with regard to both responders and non-responders.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The testing must follow a format where users have limited time to complete the studies (such as an on-site survey format and a one-time visit with a cap on the maximum amount of time that a participant has to complete the tests).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Users must be randomly assigned to study arms. Test reports in the user comprehension study given to users must define the target condition being tested and related symptoms, explain the intended use and limitations (including warnings) for the test, explain the relevant ethnicities in regard to the variant tested, explain genetic health risks and relevance to the user's ethnicity, and assess participants' ability to understand the following comprehension concepts: the test's limitations, purpose, appropriate action, test results, and other factors that may have an impact on the test results.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Study participants must be untrained, be naïve to the test subject of the study, and be provided the labeling prior to the start of the user comprehension study.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The user comprehension study must meet the predefined primary endpoint criteria, including a minimum of a 90 percent or greater overall comprehension rate (<I>i.e.,</I> selection of the correct answer) for each comprehension concept. Other acceptance criteria may be acceptable depending on the concept being tested. Meeting or exceeding this overall comprehension rate demonstrates that the materials presented to the user are adequate for over-the-counter use.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The analysis of the user comprehension results must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Results regarding reports that are provided for each gene/variant/ethnicity tested;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Statistical methods used to analyze all data sets; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Completion rate, non-responder rate, and reasons for nonresponse/data exclusion. A summary table of comprehension rates regarding comprehension concepts (<I>e.g.,</I> purpose of test, test results, test limitations, ethnicity relevance for the test results, appropriate actions following receipt of results) for each study report must be included.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40718, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6100   DNA-based test to measure minimal residual disease in hematological malignancies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A DNA-based test to measure minimal residual disease in hematological malignancies is a prescription in vitro diagnostic device that identifies and quantifies specific nucleic acid sequences within human tissues to estimate the percentage of cells that harbor the specific sequence(s). The test is intended to be used as an aid to measure minimal residual disease to assess the change in burden of disease during monitoring of treatment. The test is indicated for use by qualified healthcare professionals in accordance with professional guidelines for clinical decision-making, in conjunction with other clinicopathological features.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of all test components, reagents, instrumentation, and software, including software applications and any hardware-based devices that incorporate software.
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed description of all genomic regions that are detected and quantified by the assay.
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed description of the methodology and protocols for each step of the test, including description of the quality metrics, thresholds, and filters at each step of the test that are implemented for final result reporting and a description of the metrics for run-failures, specimen-failures, and invalids, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(D) Detailed specifications and procedures for sample collection, processing, and storage.
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the internal and external controls that are recommended or provided. The description must identify those control elements that are incorporated into the testing procedure. If appropriate, this description must include a description of the controls and control procedures used during the sequencing and data analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a detailed description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with use of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) As part of the risk management activities, an appropriate end user device training program must be offered as an effort to mitigate the risk of failure from user error, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of analytical and clinical studies, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Device performance data that demonstrates the ability to measure minimal residual disease in the claimed specimen type(s) from patients that are representative of the intended use population. Data can be obtained via:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A method comparison study comparing the device to a predicate device with clinical data for the specified hematological neoplastic indication using the specified specimen type(s); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well characterized clinical specimens from patients with known clinical outcomes using a study design deemed acceptable by FDA.
</P>
<P>(B) Device precision (repeatability and reproducibility) data using clinical samples covering the range of minimal residual disease frequencies reported by the test and covering the stated range of DNA inputs that are indicated as allowable for use with the test. Results shall be reported as the standard deviation and/or percentage coefficient of variation with the 95 percent confidence interval for each level tested. The study must evaluate all sources of variability, including, as appropriate, between-site and between operator (minimum of three sites of which two must be external with a minimum of two operators per site), between-day (minimum of 3 days), between-run, within-run, between-lot (minimum of three lots), between instrument (minimum of three instruments), and total variation.
</P>
<P>(C) Device linearity data generated from samples covering the device measuring range using a dilution panel created from clinical samples.
</P>
<P>(D) Device accuracy by comparison to flow cytometry across the measuring interval or to the predicate method across the measuring interval.
</P>
<P>(E) Device analytic sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantitation, using a dilution panel created from clinical samples.
</P>
<P>(F) Analytical specificity data, including interference and cross-contamination, and index cross-contamination, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(G) Validation of pre-analytical methods, including DNA extraction methods and cell enrichment methods, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(H) Device stability data, including real-time stability of reagents under various storage times and temperatures.
</P>
<P>(I) Specimen and prepared sample stability data established for each specimen matrix in the anticoagulant combinations and storage/use conditions that will be indicated, including specimen transport, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The intended use for the labeling required under § 809.10(a)(4) of this chapter and for the labeling required under § 809.10(b)(5)(ii) of this chapter, as applicable, must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical hematopoietic malignancy for which the assay was designed and validated (<I>e.g.,</I> multiple myeloma or B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia);
</P>
<P>(ii) Specimen type (<I>e.g.,</I> bone marrow);
</P>
<P>(iii) The specific DNA regions that are being identified and quantified (<I>e.g.,</I> rearranged IgH (VDJ), IgH (DJ), IgK, and IgL receptor gene sequences); and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the results are indicated to be interpreted by qualified healthcare professionals in accordance with professional guidelines for clinical decision-making in conjunction with other clinicopathological features.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include information that demonstrates the performance characteristics of the test, including a detailed summary of the performance studies conducted and their results, as described in paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(A) through (I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The device output, including any test report, must include the estimated minimal residual disease (MRD) frequency and an appropriate range of the uncertainty of that frequency based on the amount of DNA that was evaluated by the test and the number of specific nucleic acid sequences that were detected (<I>e.g.,</I> “MRD = 1.2 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> [Range = 0.8 × 10<E T="51">−6</E> to 2.0 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>]”).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 19640, May 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 866.6110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.20.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 866.6110   Circulating tumor cell enrichment device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A circulating tumor cell enrichment device is an in vitro diagnostic device used to enrich circulating tumor cells from the peripheral blood of patients diagnosed with cancer for subsequent in vitro diagnostic testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any device used for specimen collection and transport must be FDA-cleared, -approved, or -classified as 510(k) exempt for the collection of human specimens; alternatively, the sample collection device must be cleared in a premarket submission as a part of this device.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 809.10(b) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed specifications and procedures for sample collection, processing, and storage.
</P>
<P>(ii) An intended use statement that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) The intended specimen type(s) for which acceptable, as determined by FDA, validation data has been provided (<I>e.g.,</I> peripheral whole blood).
</P>
<P>(B) The identification of, or the specifications for, the collection device or devices to be used for sample collection.
</P>
<P>(C) Information on the device output(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> circulating tumor cells (CTCs), other blood cells).
</P>
<P>(D) The specific tumor type(s) for which the device is intended to be used.
</P>
<P>(E) A statement for general downstream diagnostic assays and that end users need to validate use with any subsequent tests and collection devices.
</P>
<P>(F) A statement that the standalone device is not intended for diagnostic, prognostic, or monitoring use with CTCs, including as an aid in any disease management and/or treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Prominent and conspicuous limiting statements clearly explaining:
</P>
<P>(A) The use of the device is intended for the collection of CTCs from previously diagnosed cancer patients.
</P>
<P>(B) The standalone device is not intended for cell enumeration.
</P>
<P>(C) The users for whom the device is intended, including any training specifications.
</P>
<P>(D) The performance characteristics of this device have not been established for general downstream diagnostic assays and that end users need to validate use with any subsequent tests and collection devices.
</P>
<P>(E) An insufficient number of CTCs or even no circulating tumor cells may be collected.
</P>
<P>(F) Results from the standalone device do not provide information to the patient regarding their current state of health.
</P>
<P>(G) The standalone device does not diagnose any health conditions and is not a substitute for visits to a doctor or other healthcare professional.
</P>
<P>(H) The device is intended only for enriching CTC content in specimens so that the enriched specimens can then be used in further processing/analysis using additional independent methods.
</P>
<P>(I) The variability of the number of CTCs and other cells harvested by the device may impact the success of any subsequent analysis.
</P>
<P>(iv) A troubleshooting section that includes clear instructions for resolving any common device-related issues.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the device mechanism of action to enrich CTCs.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed summary of the analytical and clinical performance studies required under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation of studies that provide:
</P>
<P>(A) Data demonstrating acceptable, as determined by FDA, analytical device performance using samples representative of the range of those with which the device is intended for use. The number of specimens tested must be sufficient to obtain estimates of device performance that is representative of the device performance within the full spectrum of the device's intended use.
</P>
<P>(B) Data demonstrating acceptable precision, as determined by FDA, to adequately evaluate intra-run, inter-run, and total variability across operator, instrument, lot, day, and site, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) Data demonstrating the detection limit of the device.
</P>
<P>(D) Recovery study data demonstrating the range of the device.
</P>
<P>(E) Data demonstrating appropriate validation of device design features and specifications such that the device reproducibly and reliably collects and isolates CTCs. At a minimum, the data must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Data, as appropriate for the intended use, including estimates of within-lot, within-device, and lot-to-lot variability, demonstrating that samples collected from the intended use population using the device provide CTCs that are suitable, as determined by FDA, for the intended downstream testing.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Data demonstrating that the device output has no contamination or minimal levels of contamination from other sources, and that any such contamination does not interfere with the recovery of CTCs.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Data demonstrating that the presence of clinically relevant levels of potential interfering substances in the intended specimen type(s) and intended use population, including endogenous and exogenous substances, does not interfere with the recovery of CTCs.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Data demonstrating that blood samples collected for use with the device remain stable under certain storage conditions (<I>e.g.,</I> temperature, time) and do not impact the output of representative downstream testing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of clinical studies using the device on intended use clinical specimens that demonstrate the device can enrich or capture an appropriate number of CTCs, as determined by FDA, to support the intended use of the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 24345, May 6, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="868" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 868—ANESTHESIOLOGY DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 868 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of anesthesiology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, an anesthesiology device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed only in one subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17734, May 11, 1987, as amended at 67 FR 76681, Dec. 13, 2002; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17734, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1030   Manual algesimeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual algesimeter is a mechanical device intended to determine a patient's sensitivity to pain after administration of an anesthetic agent, e.g., by pricking with a sharp point. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989, as amended at 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1040   Powered algesimeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered algesimeter is a device using electrical stimulation intended to determine a patient's sensitivity to pain after administration of an anesthetic agent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1075" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1075   Argon gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An argon gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of argon in a gas mixture to aid in determining the patient's ventilatory status. The device may use techniques such as mass spectrometry or thermal conductivity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1100   Arterial blood sampling kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An arterial blood sampling kit is a device, in kit form, used to obtain arterial blood samples from a patient for blood gas determinations. The kit may include a syringe, needle, cork, and heparin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1120   Indwelling blood oxyhemoglobin concentration analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An indwelling blood oxyhemoglobin concentration analyzer is a photoelectric device used to measure, in vivo, the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin in blood to aid in determining the patient's physiological status. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required. A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before September 21, 2004, for any indwelling blood oxyhemoglobin concentration analyzer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before September 21, 2004, been found to be substantially equivalent to an indwelling blood oxyhemoglobin concentration analyzer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other indwelling blood oxyhemoglobin concentration analyzer shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987; 52 FR 22577, June 12, 1987; 69 FR 34920, June 23, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1150   Indwelling blood carbon dioxide partial pressure (P<E T="9145">2CO2</E>) analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An indwelling blood carbon dioxide partial pressure P<E T="52">CO2</E> analyzer is a device that consists of a catheter-tip P<E T="52">CO2</E> transducer (e.g., P<E T="52">CO2</E> electrode) and that is used to measure, in vivo, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in blood to aid in determining the patient's circulatory, ventilatory, and metabolic status.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Indwelling Blood Gas Analyzers; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982; 47 FR 40410, Sept. 14, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 57368, Nov. 15, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1170   Indwelling blood hydrogen ion concentration (pH) analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An indwelling blood hydrogen ion concentration (pH) analyzer is a device that consists of a catheter-tip pH electrode and that is used to measure, in vivo, the hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood to aid in determining the patient's acid-base balance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Indwelling Blood Gas Analyzers; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 57368, Nov. 15, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1200   Indwelling blood oxygen partial pressure (P<E T="9145">O2</E>) analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An indwelling blood oxygen partial pressure (P<E T="52">O2</E>) analyzer is a device that consists of a catheter-tip P<E T="52">O2</E> transducer (e.g., P<E T="52">O2</E> electrode) and that is used to measure, in vivo, the partial pressure of oxygen in blood to aid in determining the patient's circulatory, ventilatory, and metabolic status. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Indwelling Blood Gas Analyzers; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982; 47 FR 40410, Sept. 14, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 57368, Nov. 15, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1400   Carbon dioxide gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carbon dioxide gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of carbon dioxide in a gas mixture to aid in determining the patient's ventilatory, circulatory, and metabolic status. The device may use techniques such as chemical titration, absorption of infrared radiation, gas chromatography, or mass spectrometry. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1430   Carbon monoxide gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carbon monoxide gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of carbon monoxide in a gas mixture to aid in determining the patient's ventilatory status. The device may use techniques such as infrared absorption or gas chromatography. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1500   Enflurane gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An enflurane gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of enflurane anesthetic in a gas mixture. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1505" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1505   Ventilatory electrical impedance tomograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ventilatory electrical impedance tomograph is a prescription non-invasive, non-radiological ventilatory device that provides an assessment of local impedance variation within a cross-section of a patient's thorax.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of device parameters, including signal-to-noise ratio, voltage accuracy, drift, reciprocity accuracy, amplitude response, position error, and ringing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Real time evaluation of local impedance variation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Plethysmogram accuracy testing; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Use life testing of reusable components.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must validate reprocessing instructions for any reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety and the electromagnetic compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Guidance for interpretation of the images generated;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the device should be removed before use of a defibrillator, or defibrillator interaction information based on defibrillator performance testing with the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) A use life for any reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions for reprocessing any reusable components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 15098, Apr. 15, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1575" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1575   Gas collection vessel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas collection vessel is a container-like device intended to collect a patient's exhaled gases for subsequent analysis. It does not include a sampling pump.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1620   Halothane gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A halothane gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of halothane anesthetic in a gas mixture. The device may use techniques such as mass spectrometry or absorption of infrared or ultraviolet radiation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1640   Helium gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A helium gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of helium in a gas mixture during pulmonary function testing. The device may use techniques such as thermal conductivity, gas chromatography, or mass spectrometry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1670   Neon gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neon gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of neon in a gas mixture exhaled by a patient. The device may use techniques such as mass spectrometry or thermal conductivity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1690   Nitrogen gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nitrogen gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of nitrogen in respiratory gases to aid in determining a patient's ventilatory status. The device may use techniques such as gas chromatography or mass spectrometry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1700   Nitrous oxide gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nitrous oxide gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of nitrous oxide anesthetic in a gas mixture. The device may use techniques such as infrared absorption or mass spectrometry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1720   Oxygen gas analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oxygen gas analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of oxygen in respiratory gases by techniques such as mass spectrometry, polarography, thermal conductivity, or gas chromatography. This generic type of device also includes paramagnetic analyzers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1730   Oxygen uptake computer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oxygen uptake computer is a device intended to compute the amount of oxygen consumed by a patient and may include components for determining expired gas volume and composition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1750   Pressure plethysmograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pressure plethysmograph is a device used to determine a patient's airway resistance and lung volumes by measuring pressure changes while the patient is in an airtight box.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1760   Volume plethysmograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A volume plethysmograph is an airtight box, in which a patient sits, that is used to determine the patient's lung volume changes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1780   Inspiratory airway pressure meter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An inspiratory airway pressure meter is a device used to measure the amount of pressure produced in a patient's airway during maximal inspiration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1800   Rhinoanemometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rhinoanemometer is a device used to quantify the amount of nasal congestion by measuring the airflow through, and differential pressure across, a patient's nasal passages.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1840   Diagnostic spirometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic spirometer is a device used in pulmonary function testing to measure the volume of gas moving in or out of a patient's lungs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1850   Monitoring spirometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A monitoring spirometer is a device used to measure continuously a patient's tidal volume (volume of gas inhaled by the patient during each respiration cycle) or minute volume (the tidal volume multiplied by the rate of respiration for 1 minute) for the evaluation of the patient's ventilatory status.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1860   Peak-flow meter for spirometry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A peak-flow meter for spirometry is a device used to measure a patient's maximum ventilatory flow rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1870   Gas volume calibrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas volume calibrator is a device that is intended for medical purposes and that is used to calibrate the output of gas volume measurement instruments by delivering a known gas volume.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1880   Pulmonary-function data calculator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pulmonary-function data calculator is a device used to calculate pulmonary-function values based on actual physical data obtained during pulmonary-function testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1890   Predictive pulmonary-function value calculator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A predictive pulmonary-function value calculator is a device used to calculate normal pulmonary-function values based on empirical equations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1900   Diagnostic pulmonary-function interpretation calculator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic pulmonary-function interpretation calculator is a device that interprets pulmonary study data to determine clinical significance of pulmonary-function values.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1910   Esophageal stethoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophageal stethoscope is a nonpowered device that is inserted into a patient's esophagus to enable the user to listen to heart and breath sounds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1920   Esophageal stethoscope with electrical conductors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophageal stethoscope with electrical conductors is a device that is inserted into the esophagus to listen to a patient's heart and breath sounds and to monitor electrophysiological signals. The device may also incorporate a thermistor for temperature measurement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1930   Stethoscope head.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stethoscope head is a weighted chest piece used during anesthesia to listen to a patient's heart, breath, and other physiological sounds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1965" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1965   Switching valve (ploss).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A switching valve (ploss) is a three-way valve located between a stethoscope placed over the heart, a blood pressure cuff, and an earpiece. The valve allows the user to eliminate one sound channel and listen only to a patient's heart or korotkoff (blood pressure) sounds through the other channel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55982, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1975" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1975   Water vapor analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A water vapor analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of water vapor in a patient's expired gases by using techniques such as mass spectrometry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38793, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.1980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.1980   Real-time ultrasound anatomy visualization and labeling device for ultrasound guided regional anesthesia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> This device provides real-time interpretation and enhanced visualization of live ultrasound images by highlighting anatomical landmarks in preparation for performing regional anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing under anticipated conditions of use must evaluate the location accuracy of anatomical landmarks identified by the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Human factors testing must demonstrate that the user can correctly use the device to identify anatomical structures, based solely on reading the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed, including demonstrated compatibility with ultrasound devices labeled to be compatible with the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The recommended training for safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pertinent details of the clinical data collected to evaluate the performance of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning against over-reliance on device output.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32340, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Monitoring Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2025   Ultrasonic air embolism monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic air embolism monitor is a device used to detect air bubbles in a patient's blood stream. It may use Doppler or other ultrasonic principles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2200   Adjunctive pain measurement device for anesthesiology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An adjunctive pain measurement device for anesthesiology is a prescription device that includes software algorithms to analyze physiological sensor data and measure response to painful stimuli in patients under general anesthesia. The device may be software-only or it may include hardware such as physiological sensors. This device type is intended for adjunctive use to tailor analgesic administration to a patient's actual response to painful stimuli and is not intended to independently direct decision-making.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must be provided to validate the algorithm in support of the intended use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Comparison of output measure(s) to a reference method to demonstrate the required accuracy and/or sensitivity and specificity of the output measure(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstration of the consistency of the output and representativeness of the range of data sources and data quality likely to be encountered in the intended use population and relevant use conditions in the intended use environment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Evaluation of the type of pain (<I>e.g.,</I> nociceptive, somatic, visceral, neuropathic) that is within the scope of the indicated use; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For devices using algorithms based on machine learning, the clinical validation must be completed using a dataset that is separate from the training dataset.
</P>
<P>(2) Software description, verification, and validation based on comprehensive hazard analysis must be performed. Software documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Full characterization of technical parameters of the software, including any algorithm(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of mechanisms for handling of noisy or missing data and poor signal quality under expected conditions of use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specification of acceptable incoming sensor data quality control measures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Mitigation of impact of user error or failure of any subsystem components (signal detection and analysis, data display, and storage) on output accuracy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Justification for the validity of the algorithm(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> clinical relevance of decision threshold).
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Performance testing under anticipated conditions of use must demonstrate the ability of the device software/algorithm to detect adequate input signal quality and handle noisy or missing data and poor signal quality.
</P>
<P>(4) Usability assessment must be provided to mitigate the risk of misinterpretation of device output.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of any hardware components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the clinical validation data, including demographics and other relevant characteristics of the clinical study participants (including age, sex, race or ethnicity, and patient condition), the anesthetic regimen (including types (<I>e.g.,</I> morphine, hydromorphone, fentanyl) and doses of pain medication used), a summary of results, and information on subpopulations (age, sex, race, or ethnicity) that may experience disparate performance.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user.
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of sensor data used, including specification of compatible sensors for data acquisition.
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings identifying sensor signal-acquisition factors that may impact output.
</P>
<P>(v) Warnings to identify and avoid specific patient conditions or concomitant medical therapies that could mask pain or negatively impact device performance leading to inaccurate measurements.
</P>
<P>(8) Recommendations for clinical interpretation of the output, including warning(s) emphasizing the adjunctive use of the output measure(s).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32342, June 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2250   Monitor for opioid induced impairment of oxygenation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A monitor for opioid induced impairment of oxygenation is a device that uses sensor hardware and software algorithms to detect desaturations of arterial oxygen saturation resulting from opioid overdose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance data under anticipated conditions of use must demonstrate that the device performs as intended and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Comparison to a clinically relevant reference method to demonstrate and support the accuracy and level of sensitivity and specificity for detection of opioid induced impairment of oxygenation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstration of the consistency of the output and representativeness of the range of data sources and data quality likely to be encountered in the intended use population and relevant use conditions in the intended use environment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance reported in clinically significant and distinct subpopulations and intended use environments;
</P>
<P>(iv) For devices using algorithms based on machine learning, the clinical validation must be completed using a dataset that is separate from the training dataset; and
</P>
<P>(v) Simulated use testing of hardware and sensors to characterize accuracy and precision across the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(2) Software description, verification, and validation based on comprehensive hazard analysis must be performed. Software documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Full characterization of technical parameters of the software, including any algorithm(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Specification of acceptable incoming sensor data quality control measures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Justification for the validity of the algorithm(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> clinical relevance/importance of decision threshold).
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance testing of sensor hardware to characterize sensor accuracy and precision; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Compatibility testing of sensors with other hardware and software components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Usability assessment must be provided to demonstrate that intended device users can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(5) All components of the device that contact the skin must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, wireless coexistence, electrical safety, thermal safety, and mechanical safety of any hardware components and sensors of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the clinical validation data, including relevant characteristics of the included subpopulations and use environments in the clinical study, and performance metrics, including sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value for each of the subpopulations, use environments, and opioid types;
</P>
<P>(ii) Principles of sensor operation, including warnings for how to avoid interfering with sensor readings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information for preventing an overdose, recognizing signs of an overdose, and treating an overdose;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings identifying that the device is not designed to differentiate between the target condition (<I>e.g.,</I> opioid-induced respiratory depression) and other conditions that may cause a false reading (<I>e.g.,</I> obstructive sleep apnea);
</P>
<P>(v) Warnings against overreliance on the device; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A warning regarding the need for supervised use with awareness of effective countermeasures (<I>e.g.,</I> naloxone) in case of an overdose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 39461, June 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2300   Bourdon gauge flowmeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bourdon gauge flowmeter is a device intended for medical purposes that is used in conjunction with respiratory equipment to sense gas pressure. The device is calibrated to indicate gas flow rate when the outflow is open to the atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2320   Uncompensated thorpe tube flowmeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An uncompensated thorpe tube flowmeter is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to indicate and control gas flow rate accurately. The device includes a vertically mounted tube and is calibrated when the outlet of the flowmeter is open to the atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2340   Compensated thorpe tube flowmeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A compensated thorpe tube flowmeter is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to control and measure gas flow rate accurately. The device includes a vertically mounted tube, with the outlet of the flowmeter calibrated to a reference pressure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2350   Gas calibration flowmeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas calibration flowmeter is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to calibrate flowmeters and accurately measure gas flow.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2375   Breathing frequency monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breathing (ventilatory) frequency monitor is a device intended to measure or monitor a patient's respiratory rate. The device may provide an audible or visible alarm when the respiratory rate, averaged over time, is outside operator settable alarm limits. This device does not include the apnea monitor classified in § 868.2377.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 46852, July 17, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2376" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2376   Device for sleep apnea testing based on mandibular movement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A device for sleep apnea testing based on mandibular movement is a prescription device intended to aid in evaluation of sleep apnea during sleep in patients suspected of having sleep breathing disorders by analyzing sensor readings of mandibular movement. The device is not intended as a substitute for full polysomnography nor intended to be used as an apnea monitor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must be provided. This assessment must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical data must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or sample limitations must be fully described and justified.
</P>
<P>(ii) The assessment must demonstrate output consistency using the expected range of data sources and data quality encountered in the intended use population and environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The assessment must compare device performance with a clinical comparator device (<I>e.g.,</I> polysomnography).
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) The performance data must be provided to demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) A software description and the results of verification and validation testing based on a comprehensive hazard analysis and risk assessment must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A full characterization of the software technical parameters, including algorithms;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the expected impact of all applicable sensor acquisition hardware characteristics and associated hardware specifications; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of all mitigations for failure of any subsystem components (including signal detection, signal analysis, data display, and storage) on output accuracy.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings identifying sensor acquisition factors or subject conditions or characteristics (<I>e.g.,</I> conditions affecting the anatomy of the recording site, or subject conditions that may affect mandibular movement) that may impact measurement results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Guidance for interpretation of the measurements, including a statement that the device is not intended as a substitute for full polysomnography nor intended to be used as an apnea monitor; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The expected performance of the device for all intended use populations and environments.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 21383, Apr. 22, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2377" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2377   Apnea monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An apnea monitor is a complete system intended to alarm primarily upon the cessation of breathing timed from the last detected breath. The apnea monitor also includes indirect methods of apnea detection such as monitoring of heart rate and other physiological parameters linked to the presence or absence of adequate respiration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Apnea Monitors; Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 46852, July 17, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2380   Nitric oxide analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The nitric oxide analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of nitric oxide in respiratory gas mixtures during administration of nitric oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is FDA's “Guidance Document for Premarket Notification Submissions for Nitric Oxide Administration Apparatus, Nitric Oxide Analyzer, and Nitrogen Dioxide Analyzer.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 14465, Mar. 3, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2385" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2385   Nitrogen dioxide analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The nitrogen dioxide analyzer is a device intended to measure the concentration of nitrogen dioxide in respiratory gas mixtures during administration of nitric oxide. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a standalone nitrogen dioxide analyzer and not those that are components of nitric oxide delivery systems intended to monitor nitrogen dioxide levels during inhaled nitric oxide therapy, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. The special control is FDA's “Guidance Document for Premarket Notification Submissions for Nitric Oxide Administration Apparatus, Nitric Oxide Analyzer, and Nitrogen Dioxide Analyzer.” See § 868.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 11465, Mar. 3, 2000, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2450   Lung water monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lung water monitor is a device used to monitor the trend of fluid volume changes in a patient's lung by measuring changes in thoracic electrical impedance (resistance to alternating current) by means of electrodes placed on the patient's chest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP for a device is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 12, 2000, for any lung water monitor that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 12, 2000, been found to be substantially equivalent to a lung water monitor that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other lung water monitor device shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 19834, Apr. 13, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2480   Cutaneous carbon dioxide (PcCO2) monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cutaneous carbon dioxide (PcCO2) monitor is a noninvasive heated sensor and a pH-sensitive glass electrode placed on a patient's skin, which is intended to monitor relative changes in a hemodynamically stable patient's cutaneous carbon dioxide tension as an adjunct to arterial carbon dioxide tension measurement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cutaneous Carbon Dioxide (PcCO2) and Oxygen (PcO2) Monitors; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 868.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 27160, June 28, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 76681, Dec. 13, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2500   Cutaneous oxygen (PcO2) monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cutaneous oxygen (PcO2) monitor is a noninvasive, heated sensor (e.g., a Clark-type polargraphic electrode) placed on the patient's skin that is intended to monitor relative changes in the cutaneous oxygen tension.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. The special control is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cutaneous Carbon Dioxide (PcCO2) and Oxygen (PcO2) Monitors; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 868.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 76681, Dec. 13, 2002, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2550   Pneumotachometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pneumotachometer is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to determine gas flow by measuring the pressure differential across a known resistance. The device may use a set of capillaries or a metal screen for the resistive element.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2600   Airway pressure monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An airway pressure monitor is a device used to measure the pressure in a patient's upper airway. The device may include a pressure gauge and an alarm.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2610   Gas pressure gauge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas pressure gauge (e.g., bourdon tube pressure gauge) is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to measure gas pressure in a medical gas delivery system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2620   Gas pressure calibrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas pressure calibrator is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to calibrate pressure-measuring instruments by generating a known gas pressure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2700   Pressure regulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pressure regulator is a device, often called a pressure-reducing valve, that is intended for medical purposes and that is used to convert a medical gas pressure from a high variable pressure to a lower, more constant working pressure. This device includes mechanical oxygen regulators.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2775" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2775   Electrical peripheral nerve stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrical peripheral nerve stimulator (neuromuscular blockade monitor) is a device used to apply an electrical current to a patient to test the level of pharmacological effect of anesthetic drugs and gases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2875" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2875   Differential pressure transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A differential pressure transducer is a two-chambered device intended for medical purposes that is often used during pulmonary function testing. It generates an electrical signal for subsequent display or processing that is proportional to the difference in gas pressures in the two chambers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2885" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2885   Gas flow transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas flow transducer is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to convert gas flow rate into an electrical signal for subsequent display or processing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1119, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.2900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.2900   Gas pressure transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas pressure transducer is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to convert gas pressure into an electrical signal for subsequent display or processing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5090   Emergency airway needle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An emergency airway needle is a device intended to puncture a patient's cricothyroid membrane to provide an emergency airway during upper airway obstruction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5095" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5095   Retrograde intubation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A retrograde intubation device is a prescription device used to perform retrograde intubation via the cricothyroid membrane. The device may contain or be labeled for use with guidewires and intubating catheters, in addition to needles (§ 868.5090), syringe (§ 880.5860 of this chapter), and hemostats (§ 878.4800 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Wire guide tensile, flex, fracture, and corrosion testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Catheter tensile strength testing at likely points of failure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Catheter kink radius testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Compatibility of device components that interact, including compatibility in connection, disconnection, and ability to transfer fluids;
</P>
<P>(v) Dimensional validation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Accuracy testing of markings; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Validation of the maximum airway pressure.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Package labels that clearly identify the minimum compatible size of endotracheal tube.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 73678, Dec. 28, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5100   Nasopharyngeal airway.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasopharyngeal airway is a device used to aid breathing by means of a tube inserted into a patient's pharynx through the nose to provide a patent airway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5105" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5105   External negative pressure airway aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external negative pressure airway aid is a prescription device that applies negative pressure to a patient's neck to aid in providing a patent airway during procedures requiring anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must document any adverse events observed during clinical use, including impaired blood flow, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated patient positions, does not fail during use, and does not lose negative pressure capability. The following testing should be performed:
</P>
<P>(i) Ability of the device to maintain a seal during various patient positions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Device leakage testing to demonstrate the device maintains vacuum;
</P>
<P>(iii) Drop testing to ensure the device does not incur functional damage after dropping the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Functional testing after high and low storage temperature.
</P>
<P>(3) All patient contacting components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of clinical testing results, including any adverse events and evidence that effectiveness has been achieved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Technical specifications of the device, including collar sizes, maximum duration of use, operating temperature, and storage temperature range.
</P>
<P>(iii) Technical specifications of the vacuum source, including maximum vacuum level and operational vacuum level.
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions for use that includes how to place the device, determination of size, verification of suction, reference to training materials, and information on troubleshooting the device if it does not attach properly.
</P>
<P>(v) A warning to screen patients for carotid artery disease due to the probable risk of the device to dislodge arterial plaques in the carotid artery.
</P>
<P>(vi) A warning to exclude patients with anatomical abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(vii) A warning not to use the device during medical procedures involving medications that contain propofol.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 60867, Dec. 26, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5110   Oropharyngeal airway.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oropharyngeal airway is a device inserted into a patient's pharynx through the mouth to provide a patent airway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5115" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5115   Device to relieve acute upper airway obstruction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The device is a raised, rounded pad that, in the event of choking on a foreign body, can be applied to the abdomen and pushed upward to generate expulsion pressure to remove the obstruction to relieve acute upper airway obstruction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (“Class II Special Control Guidance Document for Acute Upper Airway Obstruction Devices”). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 39099, June 23, 2000; 65 FR 47669, Aug. 3, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5120   Anesthesia conduction catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthesia conduction catheter is a flexible tubular device used to inject local anesthetics into a patient and to provide continuous regional anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5130   Anesthesia conduction filter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthesia conduction filter is a microporous filter used while administering to a patient injections of local anesthetics to minimize particulate (foreign material) contamination of the injected fluid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5140   Anesthesia conduction kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthesia conduction kit is a device used to administer to a patient conduction, regional, or local anesthesia. The device may contain syringes, needles, and drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5150   Anesthesia conduction needle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthesia conduction needle is a device used to inject local anesthetics into a patient to provide regional anesthesia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5160   Gas machine for anesthesia or analgesia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Gas machine for anesthesia</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A gas machine for anesthesia is a device used to administer to a patient, continuously or intermittently, a general inhalation anesthetic and to maintain a patient's ventilation. The device may include a gas flowmeter, vaporizer, ventilator, breathing circuit with bag, and emergency air supply.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Gas machine for analgesia</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A gas machine for analgesia is a device used to administer to a patient an analgesic agent, such as a nitrous oxide-oxygen mixture (maximum concentration of 70 percent nitrous oxide).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5165   Nitric oxide administration apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The nitric oxide administration apparatus is a device used to add nitric oxide to gases that are to be breathed by a patient. The nitric oxide administration apparatus is to be used in conjunction with a ventilator or other breathing gas administration system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is FDA's “Guidance Document for Premarket Notification Submissions for Nitric Oxide Administration Apparatus, Nitric Oxide Analyzer, and Nitrogen Dioxide Analyzer.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 11465, Mar. 3, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5170   Laryngotracheal topical anesthesia applicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A laryngotracheal topical anesthesia applicator is a device used to apply topical anesthetics to a patient's laryngotracheal area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5180   Rocking bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rocking bed is a device intended for temporary use to help patient ventilation (breathing) by repeatedly tilting the patient, thereby using the weight of the abdominal contents to move the diaphragm.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5220   Blow bottle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blow bottle is a device that is intended for medical purposes to induce a forced expiration from a patient. The patient blows into the device to move a column of water from one bottle to another.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5240   Anesthesia breathing circuit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthesia breathing circuit is a device that is intended to administer medical gases to a patient during anesthesia. It provides both an inhalation and exhalation route and may include a connector, adaptor, and Y-piece.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5250   Breathing circuit circulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breathing circuit circulator is a turbine device that is attached to a closed breathing circuit and that is intended to circulate anesthetic gases continuously by maintaining the unidirectional valves in an open position and reducing mechanical dead space and resistance in the breathing circuit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5260   Breathing circuit bacterial filter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breathing circuit bacterial filter is a device that is intended to remove microbiological and particulate matter from the gases in the breathing circuit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5270   Breathing system heater.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breathing system heater is a device that is intended to warm breathing gases before they enter a patient's airway. The device may include a temperature controller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5273" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5273   Positive airway pressure delivery system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A positive airway pressure delivery system is a prescription noninvasive ventilatory device that delivers expiratory positive airway pressure for patients suffering from obstructive sleep apnea. The system also provides positive airway pressure during incipient apnea. The system may include a dedicated flow generator and a patient interface.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Waveform testing must simulate breathing conditions and evaluate pressure and airflow response over a range and combination of high and low breath rates and tidal volumes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use life testing must demonstrate adequate device performance over the labeled use life of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Device integrity testing must demonstrate that the device can withstand typical forces expected during use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Carbon dioxide rebreathing testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(v) System flow rate, maximum expiratory pressure, inhalation pressure, and intra-mask static pressure testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(vi) Air bolus testing must demonstrate that the device can withstand worst-case scenario air pressures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Maximum limited pressure testing of the flow generator in single fault condition must be performed.
</P>
<P>(viii) Maximum output temperature testing of delivered gas, if humidified, must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must validate reprocessing instructions for any reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety and the electromagnetic compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Therapy pressure range;
</P>
<P>(ii) Use life and replacement schedule for all components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cleaning instructions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions for assembly and connection of device components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52966, Oct. 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5280   Breathing tube support.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breathing tube support is a device that is intended to support and anchor a patient's breathing tube(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5300   Carbon dioxide absorbent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carbon dioxide absorbent is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of an absorbent material (e.g., soda lime) that is intended to remove carbon dioxide from the gases in the breathing circuit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5310   Carbon dioxide absorber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carbon dioxide absorber is a device that is intended for medical purposes and that is used in a breathing circuit as a container for carbon dioxide absorbent. It may include a canister and water drain.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5320   Reservoir bag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A reservoir bag is a device, usually made of conductive rubber, intended for use in a breathing circuit as a reservoir for breathing gas and to assist, control, or monitor a patient's ventilation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5330   Breathing gas mixer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breathing gas mixer is a device intended for use in conjunction with a respiratory support apparatus to control the mixing of gases that are to be breathed by a patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5340   Nasal oxygen cannula.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasal oxygen cannula is a two-pronged device used to administer oxygen to a patient through both nostrils.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5350   Nasal oxygen catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasal oxygen catheter is a device intended to be inserted through a patient's nostril to administer oxygen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5365" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5365   Posture chair for cardiac or pulmonary treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A posture chair for cardiac or pulmonary treatment is a device intended to assist in the rehabilitation and mobilization of patients with chronic heart or lung disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38794, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5375   Heat and moisture condenser (artificial nose).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A heat and moisture condenser (artificial nose) is a device intended to be positioned over a tracheotomy (a surgically created opening in the throat) or tracheal tube (a tube inserted into the trachea) to warm and humidify gases breathed in by a patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5400   Electroanesthesia apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroanesthesia apparatus is a device used for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia during surgical procedures by means of an alternating or pulsed electric current that is passed through electrodes fixed to a patient's head.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any electroanesthesia apparatus that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to an electroanesthesia apparatus that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other electroanesthesia apparatus shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50706, Sept. 27, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5420   Ether hook.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ether hook is a device that fits inside a patient's mouth and that is intended to deliver vaporized ether. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001;90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025 ]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5430   Gas-scavenging apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas-scavenging apparatus is a device intended to collect excess anesthetic, analgesic, or trace gases or vapors from a patient's breathing system, ventilator, or extracorporeal pump-oxygenator, and to conduct these gases out of the area by means of an exhaust system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5440   Portable oxygen generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A portable oxygen generator is a device that is intended to release oxygen for respiratory therapy by means of either a chemical reaction or physical means (e.g., a molecular sieve). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5450   Respiratory gas humidifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A respiratory gas humidifier is a device that is intended to add moisture to, and sometimes to warm, the breathing gases for administration to a patient. Cascade, gas, heated, and prefilled humidifiers are included in this generic type of device. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5454" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5454   High flow humidified oxygen delivery device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A high flow humidified oxygen delivery device is a prescription device that delivers high flow oxygen with humidification for patients who are suffering from respiratory distress and/or hypoxemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions for use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Alarm testing must be performed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Continuous use thermal stability testing must be performed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Humidity output testing must be performed; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Blender performance testing must evaluate fraction of inspired oxygen (<I>Fi</I>O<E T="52">2</E>) blending accuracy.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must validate cleaning instructions for any reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Electrical safety, thermal safety, mechanical safety, electromagnetic compatibility, and radiofrequency identification testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of available <I>Fi</I>O<E T="52">2</E> ranges for different flowrates and inlet gas pressures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for applicable flowrates for all intended populations;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning that patients on high flow oxygen are acute and require appropriate monitoring, to include pulse oximetry;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning regarding the risk of condensation at low set temperatures and certain flows; and
</P>
<P>(v) A description of all alarms and their functions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 54007, Oct. 26, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5460   Therapeutic humidifier for home use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A therapeutic humidifier for home use is a device that adds water vapor to breathing gases and that is intended for respiratory therapy or other medical purposes. The vapor produced by the device pervades the area surrounding the patient, who breathes the vapor during normal respiration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982; 47 FR 40410, Sept. 14, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5470   Hyperbaric chamber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hyperbaric chamber is a device that is intended to increase the environmental oxygen pressure to promote the movement of oxygen from the environment to a patient's tissue by means of pressurization that is greater than atmospheric pressure. This device does not include topical oxygen chambers for extremities (§ 878.5650). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5480   Isocapnic ventilation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An isocapnic ventilation device is a prescription device used to administer a blend of carbon dioxide and oxygen gases to a patient to induce hyperventilation. This device may be labeled for use with breathing circuits made of reservoir bags (§ 868.5320), oxygen cannulas (§ 868.5340), masks (§ 868.5550), valves (§ 868.5870), resuscitation bags (§ 868.5915), and/or tubing (§ 868.5925).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonclinical performance testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following performance characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) Gas concentration accuracy testing for the range of intended concentrations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Airway pressure delivery accuracy testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Supplemental O<E T="52">2</E> flowrate accuracy testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Alarm testing; and
</P>
<P>(v) Use life testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) A precaution that monitoring of capnography is necessary during treatment with non-spontaneously breathing patients; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use life specification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 68397, Dec. 2, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5530   Flexible laryngoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A flexible laryngoscope is a fiberoptic device used to examine and visualize a patient's upper airway and aid placement of a tracheal tube.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41107, Sept. 17, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5540   Rigid laryngoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rigid laryngoscope is a device used to examine and visualize a patient's upper airway and aid placement of a tracheal tube.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41107, Sept. 17, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5550   Anesthetic gas mask.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthetic gas mask is a device, usually made of conductive rubber, that is positioned over a patient's nose or mouth to direct anesthetic gases to the upper airway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41107, Sept. 17, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5560   Gas mask head strap.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas mask head strap is a device used to hold an anesthetic gas mask in position on a patient's face.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41107, Sept. 17, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5570   Nonrebreathing mask.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonrebreathing mask is a device fitting over a patient's face to administer oxygen. It utilizes one-way valves to prevent the patient from rebreathing previously exhaled gases. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5580   Oxygen mask.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oxygen mask is a device placed over a patient's nose, mouth, or tracheostomy to administer oxygen or aerosols. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5590   Scavenging mask.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scavenging mask is a device positioned over a patient's nose to deliver anesthetic or analgesic gases to the upper airway and to remove excess and exhaled gas. It is usually used during dentistry. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5600   Venturi mask.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A venturi mask is a device containing an air-oxygen mixing mechanism that dilutes 100 percent oxygen to a predetermined concentration and delivers the mixed gases to a patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5620   Breathing mouthpiece.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breathing mouthpiece is a rigid device that is inserted into a patient's mouth and that connects with diagnostic or therapeutic respiratory devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5630   Nebulizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nebulizer is a device intended to spray liquids in aerosol form into gases that are delivered directly to the patient for breathing. Heated, ultrasonic, gas, venturi, and refillable nebulizers are included in this generic type of device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5640   Medicinal nonventilatory nebulizer (atomizer).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medicinal nonventilatory nebulizer (atomizer) is a device that is intended to spray liquid medication in aerosol form into the air that a patient will breathe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5650   Esophageal obturator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophageal obturator is a device inserted through a patient's mouth to aid ventilation of the patient during emergency resuscitation by occluding (blocking) the esophagus, thereby permitting positive pressure ventilation through the trachea. The device consists of a closed-end semirigid esophageal tube that is attached to a face mask.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5655" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5655   Portable liquid oxygen unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A portable liquid oxygen unit is a portable, thermally insulated container of liquid oxygen that is intended to supplement gases to be inhaled by a patient, is sometimes accompanied by tubing and an oxygen mask. An empty portable liquid oxygen unit is a device, while the oxygen contained therein is a drug.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5665" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5665   Powered percussor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered percussor is a device that is intended to transmit vibration through a patient's chest wall to aid in freeing mucus deposits in the lung in order to improve bronchial drainage and that may be powered by electricity or compressed gas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5675   Rebreathing device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rebreathing device is a device that enables a patient to rebreathe exhaled gases. It may be used in conjunction with pulmonary function testing or for increasing minute ventilation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5690   Incentive spirometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An incentive spirometer is a device that indicates a patient's breathing volume or flow and that provides an incentive to the patient to improve his or her ventilation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5700   Nonpowered oxygen tent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered oxygen tent is a device that encloses a patient's head and upper body to contain oxygen delivered to the patient for breathing. This generic type of device includes infant oxygen hoods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2313, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5710   Electrically powered oxygen tent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrically powered oxygen tent is a device that encloses a patient's head and, by means of an electrically powered unit, administers breathing oxygen and controls the temperature and humidity of the breathing gases. This generic type device includes the pediatric aerosol tent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5720   Bronchial tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bronchial tube is a device used to differentially intubate a patient's bronchus (one of the two main branches of the trachea leading directly to the lung) in order to isolate a portion of lung distal to the tube. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5730   Tracheal tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tracheal tube is a device inserted into a patient's trachea via the nose or mouth and used to maintain an open airway. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5740   Tracheal/bronchial differential ventilation tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tracheal/bronchial differential ventilation tube is a device used to isolate the left or the right lung of a patient for anesthesia or pulmonary function testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5750   Inflatable tracheal tube cuff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An inflatable tracheal tube cuff is a device used to provide an airtight seal between a tracheal tube and a patient's trachea. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5760   Cuff spreader.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cuff spreader is a device used to install tracheal tube cuffs on tracheal or tracheostomy tubes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5770   Tracheal tube fixation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tracheal tube fixation device is a device used to hold a tracheal tube in place, usually by means of straps or pinch rings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5780   Tube introduction forceps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Tube introduction forceps (e.g., Magill forceps) are a right-angled device used to grasp a tracheal tube and place it in a patient's trachea.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5790   Tracheal tube stylet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tracheal tube stylet is a device used temporarily to make rigid a flexible tracheal tube to aid its insertion into a patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5795" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5795   Tracheal tube cleaning brush.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tracheal tube cleaning brush is a device consisting of a brush with plastic bristles intended to clean tracheal cannula devices after their removal from patients.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40388, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5800   Tracheostomy tube and tube cuff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tracheostomy tube and tube cuff is a device intended to be placed into a surgical opening of the trachea to facilitate ventilation to the lungs. The cuff may be a separate or integral part of the tracheostomy tube and is, when inflated, intended to establish a seal between the tracheal wall and the tracheostomy tube. The cuff is used to prevent the patient's aspiration of substances, such as blood or vomit, or to provide a means for positive-pressure ventilation of the patient. This device is made of either stainless steel or plastic.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5810   Airway connector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An airway connector is a device intended to connect a breathing gas source to a tracheal tube, tracheostomy tube, or mask. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5820   Dental protector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental protector is a device intended to protect a patient's teeth during manipulative procedures within a patient's oral cavity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38795, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5830   Autotransfusion apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An autotransfusion apparatus is a device used to collect and reinfuse the blood lost by a patient due to surgery or trauma. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5860   Pressure tubing and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Pressure tubing and accessories are flexible or rigid devices intended to deliver pressurized medical gases. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5870   Nonrebreathing valve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonrebreathing valve is a one-way valve that directs breathing gas flow to the patient and vents exhaled gases into the atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5880   Anesthetic vaporizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthetic vaporizer is a device used to vaporize liquid anesthetic and deliver a controlled amount of the vapor to the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5895" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5895   Continuous ventilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A continuous ventilator (respirator) is a device intended to mechanically control or assist patient breathing by delivering a predetermined percentage of oxygen in the breathing gas. Adult, pediatric, and neonatal ventilators are included in this generic type of device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5905" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5905   Noncontinuous ventilator (IPPB).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A noncontinuous ventilator (intermittent positive pressure breathing-IPPB) is a device intended to deliver intermittently an aerosol to a patient's lungs or to assist a patient's breathing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5915" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5915   Manual emergency ventilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual emergency ventilator is a device, usually incorporating a bag and valve, intended to provide emergency respiratory support by means of a face mask or a tube inserted into a patient's airway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5925   Powered emergency ventilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered emergency ventilator is a demand valve or inhalator intended to provide emergency respiratory support by means of a face mask or a tube inserted into a patient's airway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5935" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5935   External negative pressure ventilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external negative pressure ventilator (e.g., iron lung, cuirass) is a device chamber that is intended to support a patient's ventilation by alternately applying and releasing external negative pressure over the diaphragm and upper trunk of the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5955" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5955   Intermittent mandatory ventilation attachment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) attachment is a device attached to a mechanical ventilator that allows spontaneous breathing by a patient while providing mechanical ventilation at a preset rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5965" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5965   Positive end expiratory pressure breathing attachment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) breathing attachment is a device attached to a ventilator that is used to elevate pressure in a patient's lungs above atmospheric pressure at the end of exhalation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5975" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5975   Ventilator tubing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Ventilator tubing is a device intended for use as a conduit for gases between a ventilator and a patient during ventilation of the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.5995" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.5.1.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.5995   Tee drain (water trap).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tee drain (water trap) is a device intended to trap and drain water that collects in ventilator tubing during respiratory therapy, thereby preventing an increase in breathing resistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1120, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6100   Anesthetic cabinet, table, or tray.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthetic cabinet, table, or tray is a device intended to store anesthetic equipment and drugs. The device is usually constructed to eliminate build-up of static electrical charges. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6175   Cardiopulmonary emergency cart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary emergency cart is a device intended to store and transport resuscitation supplies for emergency treatment. The device does not include any equipment used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6225   Nose clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nose clip is a device intended to close a patient's external nares (nostrils) during diagnostic or therapeutic procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25048, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6250   Portable air compressor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A portable air compressor is a device intended to provide compressed air for medical purposes, e.g., to drive ventilators and other respiratory devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6400   Calibration gas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calibration gas is a device consisting of a container of gas of known concentration intended to calibrate medical gas concentration measurement devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6700   Anesthesia stool.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthesia stool is a device intended for use as a stool for the anesthesiologist in the operating room. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 25049, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6810   Tracheobronchial suction catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tracheobronchial suction catheter is a device used to aspirate liquids or semisolids from a patient's upper airway.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class 1 (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2314, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6820   Patient position support.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A patient position support is a device intended to maintain the position of an anesthetized patient during surgery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 868.6885" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.21.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 868.6885   Medical gas yoke assembly.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical gas yoke assembly is a device intended to connect medical gas cylinders to regulators or needle valves to supply gases for anesthesia or respiratory therapy. The device may include a particulate filter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 868.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 31142, July 16, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 870—CARDIOVASCULAR DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 870 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of cardiovascular devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a cardiovascular device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed only in one subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 61344, Oct. 28, 2003; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17735, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2314, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Cardiovascular Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1025   Arrhythmia detector and alarm (including ST-segment measurement and alarm).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The arrhythmia detector and alarm device monitors an electrocardiogram and is designed to produce a visible or audible signal or alarm when atrial or ventricular arrhythmia, such as premature contraction or ventricular fibrillation, occurs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Arrhythmia Detector and Alarm” will serve as the special control. See § 870.1 for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61344, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1100   Blood pressure alarm.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood pressure alarm is a device that accepts the signal from a blood pressure transducer amplifier, processes the signal, and emits an alarm when the blood pressure falls outside a pre-set upper or lower limit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1110   Blood pressure computer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood pressure computer is a device that accepts the electrical signal from a blood pressure transducer amplifier and indicates the systolic, diastolic, or mean pressure based on the input signal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1120   Blood pressure cuff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood pressure cuff is a device that has an inflatable bladder in an inelastic sleeve (cuff) with a mechanism for inflating and deflating the bladder. The cuff is used in conjunction with another device to determine a subject's blood pressure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1130   Noninvasive blood pressure measurement system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A noninvasive blood pressure measurement system is a device that provides a signal from which systolic, diastolic, mean, or any combination of the three pressures can be derived through the use of tranducers placed on the surface of the body. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1140   Venous blood pressure manometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A venous blood pressure manometer is a device attached to a venous catheter to indicate manometrically the central or peripheral venous pressure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1200   Diagnostic intravascular catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravascular diagnostic catheter is a device used to record intracardiac pressures, to sample blood, and to introduce substances into the heart and vessels. Included in this generic device are right-heart catheters, left-heart catheters, and angiographic catheters, among others. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1210   Continuous flush catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A continuous flush catheter is an attachment to a catheter-transducer system that permits continuous intravascular flushing at a slow infusion rate for the purpose of eliminating clotting, back-leakage, and waveform damping.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1220   Electrode recording catheter or electrode recording probe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrode recording catheter or an electrode recording probe is a device used to detect an intracardiac electrocardiogram, or to detect cardiac output or left-to-right heart shunts. The device may be unipolar or multipolar for electrocardiogram detection, or may be a platinum-tipped catheter which senses the presence of a special indicator for cardiac output or left-to-right heart shunt determinations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1230   Fiberoptic oximeter catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fiberoptic oximeter catheter is a device used to estimate the oxygen saturation of the blood. It consists of two fiberoptic bundles that conduct light at a desired wavelength through blood and detect the reflected and scattered light at the distal end of the catheter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1240   Flow-directed catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A flow-directed catheter is a device that incorporates a gas-filled balloon to help direct the catheter to the desired position. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1250   Percutaneous catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A percutaneous catheter is a device that is introduced into a vein or artery through the skin using a dilator and a sheath (introducer) or guide wire. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1251" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1251   Temporary catheter for embolic protection during transcatheter intracardiac procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> This device is a single use percutaneous catheter system that has (a) blood filter(s) at the distal end. This device is indicated for use while performing transcatheter intracardiac procedures. The device is used to filter blood in a manner that may prevent embolic material (thrombus/debris) from the transcatheter intracardiac procedure from traveling towards the cerebral circulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Simulated-use testing in a clinically relevant bench anatomic model to assess the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Delivery, deployment, and retrieval, including quantifying deployment and retrieval forces, and procedural time; and
</P>
<P>(B) Device compatibility and lack of interference with the transcatheter intracardiac procedure and device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tensile strengths of joints and components, tip flexibility, torque strength, torque response, and kink resistance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Flow characteristics.
</P>
<P>(A) The ability of the filter to not impede blood flow.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of time the filter can be deployed in position and/or retrieved from its location without disrupting blood flow.
</P>
<P>(iv) Characterization and verification of all dimensions.
</P>
<P>(2) Animal testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be assessed:
</P>
<P>(i) Delivery, deployment, and retrieval, including quantifying procedural time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device compatibility and lack of interference with the transcatheter intracardiac procedure and device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Flow characteristics.
</P>
<P>(A) The ability of the filter to not impede blood flow.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of time the filter can be deployed in position and/or retrieved from its location without disrupting blood flow.
</P>
<P>(iv) Gross pathology and histopathology assessing vascular injury and downstream embolization.
</P>
<P>(3) All patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling for the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Compatible transcatheter intracardiac procedure devices;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed summary of the clinical testing conducted; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life and storage conditions.
</P>
<P>(7) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(i) The ability to safely deliver, deploy, and remove the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ability of the device to filter embolic material while not impeding blood flow;
</P>
<P>(iii) Secure positioning and stability of the position throughout the transcatheter intracardiac procedure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Evaluation of all adverse events including death, stroke, and vascular injury.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 4140, Jan. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1252" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1252   Percutaneous catheter for creation of an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> This device is a single use percutaneous catheter system that creates an arteriovenous fistula in the arm of patients with chronic kidney disease who need hemodialysis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate:
</P>
<P>(i) The ability to safely deliver, deploy, and remove the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ability of the device to create an arteriovenous fistula;
</P>
<P>(iii) The ability of the arteriovenous fistula to attain a blood flow rate and diameter suitable for hemodialysis;
</P>
<P>(iv) The ability of the fistula to be used for vascular access for hemodialysis;
</P>
<P>(v) The patency of the fistula; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The rates and types of all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Animal testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be assessed:
</P>
<P>(i) Delivery, deployment, and retrieval of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Compatibility with other devices labeled for use with the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patency of the fistula;
</P>
<P>(iv) Characterization of blood flow at the time of the fistula creation procedure and at chronic followup; and
</P>
<P>(v) Gross pathology and histopathology assessing vascular injury and downstream embolization.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Simulated-use testing in a clinically relevant bench anatomic model to assess the delivery, deployment, activation, and retrieval of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tensile strengths of joints and components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Accurate positioning and alignment of the device to achieve fistula creation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Characterization and verification of all dimensions.
</P>
<P>(4) Electrical performance, electrical safety, and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) testing must be performed for devices with electrical components.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed for devices that use software.
</P>
<P>(6) All patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling for the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of system components and compatible devices;
</P>
<P>(iii) Expertise needed for the safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the clinical testing conducted and the patient population studied; and
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life and storage conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 9241, Feb. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1255" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1255   Balloon aortic valvuloplasty catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A balloon aortic valvuloplasty catheter is a catheter with a balloon at the distal end of the shaft, which is intended to treat stenosis in the aortic valve when the balloon is expanded.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Sterility and shelf life testing must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components and the shelf life of these components.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance evaluation must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including device delivery, inflation, deflation, and removal.
</P>
<P>(4) In vivo evaluation of the device must demonstrate device performance, including the ability of the device to treat aortic stenosis.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include a detailed summary of the device-related and procedure-related complications pertinent to the use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 34852, July 27, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1270   Intracavitary phonocatheter system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intracavitary phonocatheter system is a system that includes a catheter with an acoustic transducer and the associated device that processes the signal from the transducer; this device records bioacoustic phenomena from a transducer placed within the heart, blood vessels, or body cavities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1280   Steerable catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A steerable catheter is a catheter used for diagnostic and monitoring purposes whose movements are directed by a steering control unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1290   Steerable catheter control system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A steerable catheter control system is a device that is connected to the proximal end of a steerable guide wire that controls the motion of the steerable catheter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1300   Catheter cannula.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catheter cannula is a hollow tube which is inserted into a vessel or cavity; this device provides a rigid or semirigid structure which can be connected to a tube or connector. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1310   Vessel dilator for percutaneous catheterization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vessel dilator for percutaneous catheterization is a device which is placed over the guide wire to enlarge the opening in the vessel, and which is then removed before sliding the catheter over the guide wire. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1330   Catheter guide wire.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catheter guide wire is a coiled wire that is designed to fit inside a percutaneous catheter for the purpose of directing the catheter through a blood vessel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a torque device that is manually operated, non-patient contacting, and intended to manipulate non-cerebral vascular guide wires, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1340   Catheter introducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catheter introducer is a sheath used to facilitate placing a catheter through the skin into a vein or artery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1342" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1342   Reverse central venous recanalization system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A reverse central venous recanalization system is a prescription device for obtaining central venous access to facilitate catheter insertion into the central venous system. Reverse recanalization involves the initiation of an access path from within the vein and then progressing to the skin for patients with upper body venous occlusions or other conditions that preclude central venous access by other methods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate the ability to safely deliver, deploy, and remove the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate all adverse events including death, bleeding, damage to non-target tissue and organs, blood vessel perforation or rupture, and hematoma.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Simulated-use testing in a clinically relevant bench anatomic model to assess the delivery, deployment, and retrieval of the system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Compatibility with other devices labeled for use with the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Tensile strengths of joints and components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Kink resistance of system components;
</P>
<P>(v) Radiopacity of components used to monitor procedure under fluoroscopy;
</P>
<P>(vi) Characterization and verification of all dimensions; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Leakage of air or fluid.
</P>
<P>(3) All patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling for the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including a description of compatible devices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical testing conducted and;
</P>
<P>(iii) Shelf life and storage conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 26991, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1345" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1345   Intravascular bleed monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravascular bleed monitor is a probe, catheter, or catheter introducer that measures changes in bioimpedance and uses an algorithm to detect or monitor progression of potential internal bleeding complications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo animal performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Device performance characteristics;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adverse effects, including gross necropsy and histopathology; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Device usability, including device preparation, device handling, and user interface.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Tensile testing of joints and materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical integrity testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Friction testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Flush testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Air leakage and liquid leakage testing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Latching and unlatching testing;
</P>
<P>(vii) Kink and bend testing;
</P>
<P>(viii) Insertion force testing;
</P>
<P>(ix) Torque testing;
</P>
<P>(x) Corrosion testing; and
</P>
<P>(xi) Dimensional tolerance testing.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, thermal safety, and mechanical safety.
</P>
<P>(8) Human factors performance evaluation must demonstrate that the user can correctly use the device, based solely on reading the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life and storage conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Compatible procedures;
</P>
<P>(iv) A sizing table; and
</P>
<P>(v) Quantification of blood detected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 34778, June 8, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1350   Catheter balloon repair kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catheter balloon repair kit is a device used to repair or replace the balloon of a balloon catheter. The kit contains the materials, such as glue and balloons, necessary to effect the repair or replacement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any catheter balloon repair kit that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a catheter balloon repair kit that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other catheter balloon repair kit shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50706, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1360   Trace microsphere.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A trace microsphere is a radioactively tagged nonbiodegradable particle that is intended to be injected into an artery or vein and trapped in the capillary bed for the purpose of studying blood flow within or to an organ. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any trace microsphere that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a trace microsphere that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other trace microsphere shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50706, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1370   Catheter tip occluder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catheter tip occluder is a device that is inserted into certain catheters to prevent flow through one or more orifices. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1380   Catheter stylet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catheter stylet is a wire that is run through a catheter or cannula to render it stiff. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1390   Trocar.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A trocar is a sharp-pointed instrument used with a cannula for piercing a vessel or chamber to facilitate insertion of the cannula. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Except for trocars that are reprocessed for multiple use, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1405" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1405   Interventional cardiovascular implant simulation software device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An interventional cardiovascular implant simulation software device is a prescription device that provides a computer simulation of an interventional cardiovascular implant device inside a patient's cardiovascular anatomy. It performs computational modeling to predict the interaction of the interventional cardiovascular implant device with the patient-specific anatomical environment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis, with identification of appropriate mitigations, must be performed, including a full verification and validation of the software according to the predefined software specifications.
</P>
<P>(2) Computational modeling verification and validation activities must be performed to establish the predictive capability of the device for its indications for use.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance validation testing must be provided to demonstrate the accuracy and clinical relevance of the modeling methods for the intended implantation simulations, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Computational modeling results must be compared to clinical data supporting the indications for use to demonstrate accuracy and clinical meaningfulness of the simulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Agreement between computational modeling results and clinical data must be assessed and demonstrated across the full intended operating range (<I>e.g.,</I> full range of patient population, implant device sizes and patient anatomic morphologies). Any selection criteria or limitations of the samples must be described and justified;
</P>
<P>(iii) Endpoints (<I>e.g.,</I> performance goals) and sample sizes established must be justified as to how they were determined and why they are clinically meaningful; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Validation must be performed and controls implemented to characterize and ensure consistency (<I>i.e.,</I> repeatability and reproducibility) of modeling outputs:
</P>
<P>(A) Testing must be performed using multiple qualified operators and using the procedure that will be implemented under anticipated conditions of use; and
</P>
<P>(B) The factors (<I>e.g.,</I> medical imaging dataset, operator) must be identified regarding which were held constant and which were varied during the evaluation, and a description must be provided for the computations and statistical analyses used to evaluate the data.
</P>
<P>(4) Human factors evaluation must be performed to evaluate the ability of the user interface and labeling to allow for intended users to correctly use the device and interpret the provided information.
</P>
<P>(5) Device labeling must be provided that describes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Warnings that identify anatomy and image acquisition factors that may impact simulation results and provide cautionary guidance for interpretation of the provided simulation results;
</P>
<P>(ii) Device simulation inputs and outputs, and key assumptions made in the simulation and determination of simulated outputs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The computational modeling performance of the device for presented simulation outputs, and the supporting evidence for this performance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 79803, Dec. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1415" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1415   Coronary vascular physiologic simulation software device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A coronary vascular physiologic simulation software device is a prescription device that provides simulated functional assessment of blood flow in the coronary vascular system using data extracted from medical device imaging to solve algorithms and yield simulated metrics of physiologic information (<I>e.g.,</I> blood flow, coronary flow reserve, fractional flow reserve, myocardial perfusion). A coronary vascular physiologic simulation software device is intended to generate results for use and review by a qualified clinician.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate software verification and validation based on comprehensive hazard analysis, with identification of appropriate mitigations, must be performed, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Full characterization of the technical parameters of the software, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Any proprietary algorithm(s) used to model the vascular anatomy; and
</P>
<P>(B) Adequate description of the expected impact of all applicable image acquisition hardware features and characteristics on performance and any associated minimum specifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate consideration of privacy and security issues in the system design; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate mitigation of the impact of failure of any subsystem components (<I>e.g.,</I> signal detection and analysis, data storage, system communications and cybersecurity) with respect to incorrect patient reports and operator failures.
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate non-clinical performance testing must be provided to demonstrate the validity of computational modeling methods for flow measurement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Clinical data supporting the proposed intended use must be provided, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Output measure(s) must be compared to a clinically acceptable method and must adequately represent the simulated measure(s) the device provides in an accurate and reproducible manner;
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical utility of the device measurement accuracy must be demonstrated by comparison to that of other available diagnostic tests (<I>e.g.,</I> from literature analysis);
</P>
<P>(iii) Statistical performance of the device within clinical risk strata (<I>e.g.,</I> age, relevant comorbidities, disease stability) must be reported;
</P>
<P>(iv) The dataset must be adequately representative of the intended use population for the device (<I>e.g.,</I> patients, range of vessel sizes, imaging device models). Any selection criteria or limitations of the samples must be fully described and justified;
</P>
<P>(v) Statistical methods must consider the predefined endpoints:
</P>
<P>(A) Estimates of probabilities of incorrect results must be provided for each endpoint,
</P>
<P>(B) Where multiple samples from the same patient are used, statistical analysis must not assume statistical independence without adequate justification, and
</P>
<P>(C) The report must provide appropriate confidence intervals for each performance metric;
</P>
<P>(vi) Sensitivity and specificity must be characterized across the range of available measurements;
</P>
<P>(vii) Agreement of the simulated measure(s) with clinically acceptable measure(s) must be assessed across the full range of measurements;
</P>
<P>(viii) Comparison of the measurement performance must be provided across the range of intended image acquisition hardware; and
</P>
<P>(ix) If the device uses a cutoff threshold or operates across a spectrum of disease, it must be established prior to validation, and it must be justified as to how it was determined and clinically validated;
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate validation must be performed and controls implemented to characterize and ensure consistency (<I>i.e.,</I> repeatability and reproducibility) of measurement outputs:
</P>
<P>(i) Acceptable incoming image quality control measures and the resulting image rejection rate for the clinical data must be specified, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Data must be provided within the clinical validation study or using equivalent datasets demonstrating the consistency (<I>i.e.,</I> repeatability and reproducibility) of the output that is representative of the range of data quality likely to be encountered in the intended use population and relevant use conditions in the intended use environment;
</P>
<P>(A) Testing must be performed using multiple operators meeting planned qualification criteria and using the procedure that will be implemented in the production use of the device, and
</P>
<P>(B) The factors (<I>e.g.,</I> medical imaging dataset, operator) must be identified regarding which were held constant and which were varied during the evaluation, and a description must be provided for the computations and statistical analyses used to evaluate the data;
</P>
<P>(5) Human factors evaluation and validation must be provided to demonstrate adequate performance of the user interface to allow for users to accurately measure intended parameters, particularly where parameter settings that have impact on measurements require significant user intervention; and
</P>
<P>(6) Device labeling must be provided that adequately describes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The device's intended use, including the type of imaging data used, what the device measures and outputs to the user, whether the measure is qualitative or quantitative, the clinical indications for which it is to be used, and the specific population for which the device use is intended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate warnings specifying the intended patient population, identifying anatomy and image acquisition factors that may impact measurement results, and providing cautionary guidance for interpretation of the provided measurements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Key assumptions made in the calculation and determination of simulated measurements;
</P>
<P>(iv) The measurement performance of the device for all presented parameters, with appropriate confidence intervals, and the supporting evidence for this performance. Per-vessel clinical performance, including where applicable localized performance according to vessel and segment, must be included as well as a characterization of the measurement error across the expected range of measurement for key parameters based on the clinical data;
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed description of the patients studied in the clinical validation (<I>e.g.,</I> age, gender, race or ethnicity, clinical stability, current treatment regimen) as well as procedural details of the clinical study (<I>e.g.,</I> scanner representation, calcium scores, use of beta-blockers or nitrates); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Where significant human interface is necessary for accurate analysis, adequately detailed description of the analysis procedure using the device and any data features that could affect accuracy of results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 63673, Oct. 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1420   Coronary artery disease risk indicator using acoustic heart signals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A coronary artery disease risk indicator using acoustic heart signals is a device that records heart sounds including murmurs and vibrations to calculate a patient-specific risk of presence of coronary artery disease, as an aid in cardiac analysis and diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing must include a discussion of the patient population and any statistical techniques used for analyzing the data; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or sample limitations must be fully described and justified.
</P>
<P>(2) Acoustic performance testing must evaluate microphone sensitivity, sound acquisition bandwidth, and amplitude accuracy. The acoustic sensor specifications and mechanism used to capture heart sounds must be described.
</P>
<P>(3) A scientific justification for the validity of the algorithm(s) must be provided. This justification must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) All inputs and outputs of the algorithm must be fully described;
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedure for segmenting, characterizing, and classifying the acoustic signal must be fully described; and
</P>
<P>(iii) This justification must include verification of the algorithm calculations and validation using an independent data set.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Human factors/usability testing must demonstrate that the user can correctly use the device, including device placement, based solely on reading the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for proper placement of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions on care and cleaning of the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings identifying sensor acquisition factors that may impact measurement results and instructions for mitigating these factors; and
</P>
<P>(v) The expected performance of the device for all intended use populations and environments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 32990, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1425   Programmable diagnostic computer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A programmable diagnostic computer is a device that can be programmed to compute various physiologic or blood flow parameters based on the output from one or more electrodes, transducers, or measuring devices; this device includes any associated commercially supplied programs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1435" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1435   Single-function, preprogrammed diagnostic computer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A single-function, preprogrammed diagnostic computer is a hard-wired computer that calculates a specific physiological or blood-flow parameter based on information obtained from one or more electrodes, transducers, or measuring devices. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1450   Densitometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A densitometer is a device used to measure the transmission of light through an indicator in a sample of blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1650   Angiographic injector and syringe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An angiographic injector and syringe is a device that consists of a syringe and a high-pressure injector which are used to inject contrast material into the heart, great vessels, and coronary arteries to study the heart and vessels by x-ray photography. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a non-patient contacting balloon inflation syringe intended only to inflate/deflate balloon catheters and monitor pressure within the balloon, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1660   Indicator injector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An indicator injector is an electrically or gas-powered device designed to inject accurately an indicator solution into the blood stream. This device may be used in conjuction with a densitometer or thermodilution device to determine cardiac output. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1670   Syringe actuator for an injector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A syringe actuator for an injector is an electrical device that controls the timing of an injection by an angiographic or indicator injector and synchronizes the injection with the electrocardiograph signal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1750   External programmable pacemaker pulse generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external programmable pacemaker pulse generators is a device that can be programmed to produce one or more pulses at preselected intervals; this device is used in electrophysiological studies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1800   Withdrawal-infusion pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A withdrawal-infusion pump is a device designed to inject accurately drugs into the bloodstream and to withdraw blood samples for use in determining cardiac output. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1875" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1875   Stethoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Manual stethoscope</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A manual stethoscope is a mechanical device used to project the sounds associated with the heart, arteries, and veins and other internal organs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic stethoscope</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An electronic stethoscope is an electrically amplified device used to project the sounds associated with the heart, arteries, and veins and other internal organs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a lung sound monitor, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71811, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1915" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1915   Thermodilution probe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thermodilution probe is a device that monitors cardiac output by use of thermodilution techniques; this device is commonly attached to a catheter that may have one or more probes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Cardiovascular Monitoring Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2050   Biopotential amplifier and signal conditioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A biopotential amplifier and signal conditioner is a device used to amplify or condition an electrical signal of biologic origin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2060   Transducer signal amplifier and conditioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transducer signal amplifier and conditioner is a device used to provide the excitation energy for the transducer and to amplify or condition the signal emitted by the transducer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2100   Cardiovascular blood flowmeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiovascular blood flowmeter is a device that is connected to a flow transducer that energizes the transducer and processes and displays the blood flow signal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2120   Extravascular blood flow probe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extravascular blood flow probe is an extravascular ultrasonic or electromagnetic probe used in conjunction with a blood flowmeter to measure blood flow in a chamber or vessel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2200   Adjunctive cardiovascular status indicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The adjunctive cardiovascular status indicator is a prescription device based on sensor technology for the measurement of a physical parameter(s). This device is intended for adjunctive use with other physical vital sign parameters and patient information and is not intended to independently direct therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Software description, verification, and validation based on comprehensive hazard analysis must be provided, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Full characterization of technical parameters of the software, including any proprietary algorithm(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the expected impact of all applicable sensor acquisition hardware characteristics on performance and any associated hardware specifications;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specification of acceptable incoming sensor data quality control measures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Mitigation of impact of user error or failure of any subsystem components (signal detection and analysis, data display, and storage) on accuracy of patient reports.
</P>
<P>(2) Scientific justification for the validity of the status indicator algorithm(s) must be provided. Verification of algorithm calculations and validation testing of the algorithm using a data set separate from the training data must demonstrate the validity of modeling.
</P>
<P>(3) Usability assessment must be provided to demonstrate that risk of misinterpretation of the status indicator is appropriately mitigated.
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical data must be provided in support of the intended use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Output measure(s) must be compared to an acceptable reference method to demonstrate that the output measure(s) represent(s) the predictive measure(s) that the device provides in an accurate and reproducible manner;
</P>
<P>(ii) The data set must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or limitations of the samples must be fully described and justified;
</P>
<P>(iii) Agreement of the measure(s) with the reference measure(s) must be assessed across the full measurement range; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Data must be provided within the clinical validation study or using equivalent datasets to demonstrate the consistency of the output and be representative of the range of data sources and data quality likely to be encountered in the intended use population and relevant use conditions in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The type of sensor data used, including specification of compatible sensors for data acquisition;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user;
</P>
<P>(iii) Warnings identifying sensor reading acquisition factors that may impact measurement results;
</P>
<P>(iv) Guidance for interpretation of the measurements, including warning(s) specifying adjunctive use of the measurements;
</P>
<P>(v) Key assumptions made in the calculation and determination of measurements;
</P>
<P>(vi) The measurement performance of the device for all presented parameters, with appropriate confidence intervals, and the supporting evidence for this performance; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A detailed description of the patients studied in the clinical validation (<I>e.g.,</I> age, gender, race/ethnicity, clinical stability) as well as procedural details of the clinical study.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 35067, July 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2210   Adjunctive predictive cardiovascular indicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The adjunctive predictive cardiovascular indicator is a prescription device that uses software algorithms to analyze cardiovascular vital signs and predict future cardiovascular status or events. This device is intended for adjunctive use with other physical vital sign parameters and patient information and is not intended to independently direct therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) A software description and the results of verification and validation testing based on a comprehensive hazard analysis and risk assessment must be provided, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A full characterization of the software technical parameters, including algorithms;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the expected impact of all applicable sensor acquisition hardware characteristics and associated hardware specifications;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of sensor data quality control measures;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of all mitigations for user error or failure of any subsystem components (including signal detection, signal analysis, data display, and storage) on output accuracy;
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the expected time to patient status or clinical event for all expected outputs, accounting for differences in patient condition and environment; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value in both percentage and number form.
</P>
<P>(2) A scientific justification for the validity of the predictive cardiovascular indicator algorithm(s) must be provided. This justification must include verification of the algorithm calculations and validation using an independent data set.
</P>
<P>(3) A human factors and usability engineering assessment must be provided that evaluates the risk of misinterpretation of device output.
</P>
<P>(4) A clinical data assessment must be provided. This assessment must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The assessment must include a summary of the clinical data used, including source, patient demographics, and any techniques used for annotating and separating the data.
</P>
<P>(ii) The clinical data must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or sample limitations must be fully described and justified.
</P>
<P>(iii) The assessment must demonstrate output consistency using the expected range of data sources and data quality encountered in the intended use population and environment.
</P>
<P>(iv) The assessment must evaluate how the device output correlates with the predicted event or status.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings identifying sensor acquisition factors that may impact measurement results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Guidance for interpretation of the measurements, including a statement that the output is adjunctive to other physical vital sign parameters and patient information;
</P>
<P>(iv) A specific time or a range of times before the predicted patient status or clinical event occurs, accounting for differences in patient condition and environment;
</P>
<P>(v) Key assumptions made during calculation of the output;
</P>
<P>(vi) The type(s) of sensor data used, including specification of compatible sensors for data acquisition;
</P>
<P>(vii) The expected performance of the device for all intended use populations and environments; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Relevant characteristics of the patients studied in the clinical validation (including age, gender, race or ethnicity, and patient condition) and a summary of validation results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 8191, Feb. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2220   Adjunctive hemodynamic indicator with decision point.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An adjunctive hemodynamic indicator with decision point is a device that identifies and monitors hemodynamic condition(s) of interest and provides notifications at a clinically meaningful decision point. This device is intended to be used adjunctively along with other monitoring and patient information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Software description, verification, and validation based on comprehensive hazard analysis and risk assessment must be provided, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Full characterization of technical parameters of the software, including algorithm(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the expected impact of all applicable sensor acquisition hardware characteristics on performance and any associated hardware specifications;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specification of acceptable incoming sensor data quality control measures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Mitigation of impact of user error or failure of any subsystem components (signal detection and analysis, data display, and storage) on output accuracy; and
</P>
<P>(v) The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value in both percentage and number form for clinically meaningful pre-specified time windows consistent with the device output.
</P>
<P>(2) Scientific justification for the validity of the hemodynamic indicator algorithm(s) must be provided. Verification of algorithm calculations and validation testing of the algorithm must use an independent data set.
</P>
<P>(3) Usability assessment must be provided to demonstrate that risk of misinterpretation of the status indicator is appropriately mitigated.
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical data must support the intended use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The assessment must include a summary of the clinical data used, including source, patient demographics, and any techniques used for annotating and separating the data;
</P>
<P>(ii) Output measure(s) must be compared to an acceptable reference method to demonstrate that the output represents the measure(s) that the device provides in an accurate and reproducible manner;
</P>
<P>(iii) The data set must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or limitations of the samples must be fully described and justified;
</P>
<P>(iv) Where continuous measurement variables are displayed, agreement of the output with the reference measure(s) must be assessed across the full measurement range; and
</P>
<P>(v) Data must be provided within the clinical validation study or using equivalent datasets to demonstrate the consistency of the output and be representative of the range of data sources and data quality likely to be encountered in the intended use population and relevant use conditions in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The type of sensor data used, including specification of compatible sensors for data acquisition, and a clear description of what the device measures and outputs to the user;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings identifying factors that may impact output results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Guidance for interpretation of the outputs, including warning(s) specifying adjunctive use of the measurements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Key assumptions made in the calculation and determination of measurements; and
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of the clinical validation data, including details of the patient population studied (<I>e.g.,</I> age, gender, race/ethnicity), clinical study protocols, and device performance with confidence intervals for all intended use populations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 79254, Dec. 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2300   Cardiac monitor (including cardiotachometer and rate alarm).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiac monitor (including cardiotachometer and rate alarm) is a device used to measure the heart rate from an analog signal produced by an electrocardiograph, vectorcardiograph, or blood pressure monitor. This device may sound an alarm when the heart rate falls outside preset upper and lower limits. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2310   Apex cardiograph (vibrocardiograph).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An apex cardiograph (vibrocardiograph) is a device used to amplify or condition the signal from an apex cardiographic transducer and to produce a visual display of the motion of the heart; this device also provides any excitation energy required by the transducer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2320   Ballistocardiograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ballistocardiograph is a device, including a supporting structure on which the patient is placed, that moves in response to blood ejection from the heart. The device often provides a visual display. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2330   Echocardiograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An echocardiograph is a device that uses ultrasonic energy to create images of cardiovascular structures. It includes phased arrays and two-dimensional scanners. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2340   Electrocardiograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrocardiograph is a device used to process the electrical signal transmitted through two or more electrocardiograph electrodes and to produce a visual display of the electrical signal produced by the heart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2345" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2345   Electrocardiograph software for over-the-counter use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrocardiograph software device for over-the-counter use creates, analyzes, and displays electrocardiograph data and can provide information for identifying cardiac arrhythmias. This device is not intended to provide a diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing under anticipated conditions of use must demonstrate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The ability to obtain an electrocardiograph of sufficient quality for display and analysis; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The performance characteristics of the detection algorithm as reported by sensitivity and either specificity or positive predictive value.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Documentation must include a characterization of the technical specifications of the software, including the detection algorithm and its inputs and outputs.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must validate detection algorithm performance using a previously adjudicated data set.
</P>
<P>(4) Human factors and usability testing must demonstrate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The user can correctly use the device based solely on reading the device labeling; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The user can correctly interpret the device output and understand when to seek medical care.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware platform and operating system requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Situations in which the device may not operate at an expected performance level;
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user; and
</P>
<P>(v) Guidance on interpretation of any results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 2549, Jan. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2350   Electrocardiograph lead switching adaptor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrocardiograph lead switching adaptor is a passive switching device to which electrocardiograph limb and chest leads may be attached. This device is used to connect various combinations of limb and chest leads to the output terminals in order to create standard lead combinations such as leads I, II, and III. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2360   Electrocardiograph electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrocardiograph electrode is the electrical conductor which is applied to the surface of the body to transmit the electrical signal at the body surface to a processor that produces an electrocardiogram or vectorcardiogram. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9. The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Electrocardiograph Electrodes.” See § 870.1(e) for availability information of guidance documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 76 FR 43585, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2370   Electrocardiograph surface electrode tester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrocardiograph surface electrode tester is a device used to test the function and application of electrocardiograph electrodes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2390   Phonocardiograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phonocardiograph is a device used to amplify or condition the signal from a heart sound transducer. This device furnishes the excitation energy for the transducer and provides a visual or audible display of the heart sounds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2400   Vectorcardiograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vectorcardiograph is a device used to process the electrical signal transmitted through electrocardiograph electrodes and to produce a visual display of the magnitude and direction of the electrical signal produced by the heart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2450   Medical cathode-ray tube display.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical cathode-ray tube display is a device designed primarily to display selected biological signals. This device often incorporates special display features unique to a specific biological signal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2600   Signal isolation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A signal isolation system is a device that electrically isolates the patient from equipment connected to the commercial power supply received from a utility company. This isolation may be accomplished, for example, by transformer coupling, acoustic coupling, or optical coupling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2620   Line isolation monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A line isolation monitor is a device used to monitor the electrical leakage current from a power supply electrically isolated from the commercial power supply received from a utility company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2640   Portable leakage current alarm.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A portable leakage current alarm is a device used to measure the electrical leakage current between any two points of an electrical system and to sound an alarm if the current exceeds a certain threshold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2675   Oscillometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oscillometer is a device used to measure physiological oscillations of any kind, e.g., changes in the volume of arteries. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2700   Oximeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oximeter is a device used to transmit radiation at a known wavelength(s) through blood and to measure the blood oxygen saturation based on the amount of reflected or scattered radiation. It may be used alone or in conjunction with a fiberoptic oximeter catheter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2710   Ear oximeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear oximeter is an extravascular device used to transmit light at a known wavelength(s) through blood in the ear. The amount of reflected or scattered light as indicated by this device is used to measure the blood oxygen saturation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2750   Impedance phlebograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An impedance phlebograph is a device used to provide a visual display of the venous pulse or drainage by measuring electrical impedance changes in a region of the body. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2770   Impedance plethysmograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An impedance plethysmograph is a device used to estimate peripheral blood flow by measuring electrical impedance changes in a region of the body such as the arms and legs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a body composition analyzer which is not intended to diagnose or treat any medical condition, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2780   Hydraulic, pneumatic, or photoelectric plethysmographs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydraulic, pneumatic, or photoelectric plethysmograph is a device used to estimate blood flow in a region of the body using hydraulic, pneumatic, or photoelectric measurement techniques. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2785" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2785   Software for optical camera-based measurement of pulse rate, heart rate, breathing rate, and/or respiratory rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The device uses software algorithms to analyze video signal and estimate pulse rate, heart rate, breathing rate, and/or respiratory rate. This device is not intended to independently direct therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) A software description and the results of verification and validation testing based on a comprehensive hazard analysis and risk assessment must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A full characterization of the software technical parameters, including algorithms;
</P>
<P>(ii) If required image acquisition hardware is not included with the device, full specifications of the hardware requirements and testing to demonstrate the specified hardware ensures adequate data for validated and accurate measurements;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the expected impact of all applicable sensor acquisition hardware characteristics and associated hardware specifications;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of all mitigations for user error or failure of any subsystem components (including signal detection, signal analysis, data display, and storage) on output accuracy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Software documentation must include a cybersecurity vulnerability and management process to assure software functionality.
</P>
<P>(2) Clinical data must be provided. This assessment must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical data must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or sample limitations must be fully described and justified.
</P>
<P>(ii) The assessment must demonstrate output consistency using the expected range of data sources and data quality encountered in the intended use population and environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The assessment must compare device output with a clinically accurate patient-contacting relevant comparator device in an accurate and reproducible manner.
</P>
<P>(3) A human factors and usability engineering assessment must be provided that evaluates the risk of improper measurement.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings identifying sensor acquisition factors or subject conditions or characteristics (garment types/textures, motion, etc.) that may impact measurement results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Guidance for interpretation of the measurements, including a statement that the output is adjunctive to other physical vital sign parameters and patient information;
</P>
<P>(iv) The expected performance of the device for all intended use populations and environments; and
</P>
<P>(v) Robust instructions to ensure correct system setup.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 CFR 6167, Jan. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2786" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2786   Hardware and software for optical camera-based measurement of pulse rate, heart rate, breathing rate, and/or respiratory rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The device uses an optical sensor system and software algorithms to obtain and analyze video signal and estimate pulse rate, heart rate, breathing rate, and/or respiratory rates. This device is not intended to independently direct therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) A software description and the results of verification and validation testing based on a comprehensive hazard analysis and risk assessment must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A full characterization of the software technical parameters, including algorithms;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of all mitigations for user error or failure of any subsystem components (including signal detection, signal analysis, data display, and storage) on output accuracy; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Software documentation must include a cybersecurity vulnerability and management process to assure software functionality.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate the safety of any illuminating optics.
</P>
<P>(3) Clinical data must be provided. This assessment must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical data must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or sample limitations must be fully described and justified.
</P>
<P>(ii) The assessment must demonstrate output consistency using the expected range of data sources and data quality encountered in the intended use population and environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The assessment must compare device output with a clinically accurate patient-contacting relevant comparator device in an accurate and reproducible manner.
</P>
<P>(4) A human factors and usability engineering assessment must be provided that evaluates the risk of improper measurement.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings identifying sensor acquisition factors or subject conditions or characteristics (garment types/textures, motion, etc.) that may impact measurement results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Guidance for interpretation of the measurements, including a statement that the output is adjunctive to other physical vital sign parameters and patient information;
</P>
<P>(iv) The expected performance of the device for all intended use populations and environments; and
</P>
<P>(v) Robust instructions to ensure correct system setup.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 976, Jan. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2790   Photoplethysmograph analysis software for over-the-counter use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A photoplethysmograph analysis software device for over-the-counter use analyzes photoplethysmograph data and provides information for identifying irregular heart rhythms. This device is not intended to provide a diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the performance characteristics of the detection algorithm under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Documentation must include a characterization of the technical specifications of the software, including the detection algorithm and its inputs and outputs.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to detect adequate photoplethysmograph signal quality.
</P>
<P>(4) Human factors and usability testing must demonstrate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The user can correctly use the device based solely on reading the device labeling; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The user can correctly interpret the device output and understand when to seek medical care.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware platform and operating system requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Situations in which the device may not operate at an expected performance level;
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of what the device measures and outputs to the user; and
</P>
<P>(v) Guidance on interpretation of any results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 6419, Feb. 4, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2800   Medical magnetic tape recorder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical magnetic tape recorder is a device used to record and play back signals from, for example, physiological amplifiers, signal conditioners, or computers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2810   Paper chart recorder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A paper chart recorder is a device used to print on paper, and create a permanent record of the signal from, for example, a physiological amplifier, signal conditioner, or computer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2840   Apex cardiographic transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An apex cardiographic transducer is a device used to detect motion of the heart (acceleration, velocity, or displacement) by changes in the mechanical or electrical properties of the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2850   Extravascular blood pressure transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extravascular blood pressure transducer is a device used to measure blood pressure by changes in the mechanical or electrical properties of the device. The proximal end of the transducer is connected to a pressure monitor that produces an analog or digital electrical signal related to the electrical or mechanical changes produced in the transducer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2855" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2855   Implantable Intra-aneurysm Pressure Measurement System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Implantable intra-aneurysm pressure measurement system is a device used to measure the intra-sac pressure in a vascular aneurysm. The device consists of a pressure transducer that is implanted into the aneurysm and a monitor that reads the pressure from the transducer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Implantable Intra-Aneurysm Pressure Measurement System.” See § 870.1 (e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 7871, Feb. 15, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2860   Heart sound transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A heart sound transducer is an external transducer that exhibits a change in mechanical or electrical properties in relation to sounds produced by the heart. This device may be used in conjunction with a phonocardiograph to record heart sounds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2870   Catheter tip pressure transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A catheter tip pressure transducer is a device incorporated into the distal end of a catheter. When placed in the bloodstream, its mechanical or electrical properties change in relation to changes in blood pressure. These changes are transmitted to accessory equipment for processing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2880   Ultrasonic transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic transducer is a device applied to the skin to transmit and receive ultrasonic energy that is used in conjunction with an echocardiograph to provide imaging of cardiovascular structures. This device includes phased arrays and two-dimensional scanning transducers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2890   Vessel occlusion transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vessel occlusion transducer is a device used to provide an electrical signal corresponding to sounds produced in a partially occluded vessel. This device includes motion, sound, and ultrasonic transducers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2900   Patient transducer and electrode cable (including connector).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A patient transducer and electrode cable (including connector) is an electrical conductor used to transmit signals from, or power or excitation signals to, patient-connected electrodes or transducers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2910   Radiofrequency physiological signal transmitter and receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiofrequency physiological signal transmitter and receiver is a device used to condition a physiological signal so that it can be transmitted via radiofrequency from one location to another, e.g., a central monitoring station. The received signal is reconditioned by the device into its original format so that it can be displayed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.3.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2920   Telephone electrocardiograph transmitter and receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A telephone electrocardiograph transmitter and receiver is a device used to condition an electrocardiograph signal so that it can be transmitted via a telephone line to another location. This device also includes a receiver that reconditions the received signal into its original format so that it can be displayed. The device includes devices used to transmit and receive pacemaker signals. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Cardiovascular Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3250   Vascular clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vascular clip is an implanted extravascular device designed to occlude, by compression, blood flow in small blood vessels other than intracranial vessels. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3260   Vena cava clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vena cava clip is an implanted extravascular device designed to occlude partially the vena cava for the purpose of inhibiting the flow of thromboemboli through that vessel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3300   Vascular embolization device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vascular embolization device is an intravascular implant intended to control hemorrhaging due to aneurysms, certain types of tumors (e.g., nephroma, hepatoma, uterine fibroids), and arteriovenous malformations. This does not include cyanoacrylates and other embolic agents, which act by polymerization or precipitation. Embolization devices used in neurovascular applications are also not included in this classification, see § 882.5950 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls.) The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Vascular and Neurovascular Embolization Devices.” For availability of this guidance document, see § 870.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 77899, Dec. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3375   Cardiovascular intravascular filter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiovascular intravascular filter is an implant that is placed in the inferior vena cava for the purpose of preventing pulmonary thromboemboli (blood clots generated in the lower limbs and broken loose into the blood stream) from flowing into the right side of the heart and the pulmonary circulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standards Organization's ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(2) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance and Revision of 2/12/90 (K90-1)” and 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Guidance for Cardiovascular Intravascular Filter 510(k) Submissions.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3450   Vascular graft prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vascular graft prosthesis is an implanted device intended to repair, replace, or bypass sections of native or artificial vessels, excluding coronary or cerebral vasculature, and to provide vascular access. It is commonly constructed of materials such as polyethylene terephthalate and polytetrafluoroethylene, and it may be coated with a biological coating, such as albumin or collagen, or a synthetic coating, such as silicone. The graft structure itself is not made of materials of animal origin, including human umbilical cords.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance Document for Vascular Prostheses 510(k) Submissions.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 18542, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3460   Endovascular Suturing System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endovascular suturing system is a medical device intended to provide fixation and sealing between an endovascular graft and the native artery. The system is comprised of the implant device and an endovascular delivery device used to implant the endovascular suture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device should be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(2) Sterility and shelf life testing should demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components and the shelf-life of these components;
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical and clinical performance testing should demonstrate substantial equivalence in safety and effectiveness, including durability, compatibility, migration resistance, corrosion resistance, and delivery and deployment;
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical testing should evaluate the compatibility of the device in an magnetic resonance (MR) environment;
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing should validate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) and electrical safety;
</P>
<P>(6) The sale, distribution, and use of the device are restricted to prescription use in accordance with 21 CFR 801.109 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must bear all information required for the safe and effective use of the device as outlined in § 801.109(c) of this chapter, including a detailed summary of the non-clinical and clinical evaluations pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 8119, Feb. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3470   Intracardiac patch or pledget made of polypropylene, polyethylene terephthalate, or polytetrafluoroethylene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intracardiac patch or pledget made of polypropylene, polyethylene terephthalate, or polytetrafluoroethylene is a fabric device placed in the heart that is used to repair septal defects, for patch grafting, to repair tissue, and to buttress sutures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3535" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3535   Intra-aortic balloon and control system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intra-aortic balloon and control system is a prescription device that consists of an inflatable balloon, which is placed in the aorta to improve cardiovascular functioning during certain life-threatening emergencies, and a control system for regulating the inflation and deflation of the balloon. The control system, which monitors and is synchronized with the electrocardiogram, provides a means for setting the inflation and deflation of the balloon with the cardiac cycle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) when the device is indicated for acute coronary syndrome, cardiac and non-cardiac surgery, or complications of heart failure. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must be conducted to validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(iv) Sterility and shelf-life testing must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components and the shelf life of these components;
</P>
<P>(v) Non-clinical performance evaluation of the device must demonstrate mechanical integrity, durability, and reliability to support its intended purpose; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must include a detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Class III (premarket approval) when the device is indicated for septic shock and pulsatile flow generation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before March 31, 2014, for any intra-aortic balloon and control system indicated for septic shock or pulsatile flow generation that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before March 31, 2014, been found to be substantially equivalent to any intra-aortic balloon and control system indicated for septic shock or pulsatile flow generation that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other intra-aortic balloon and control system indicated for septic shock or pulsatile flow generation shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 79303, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3545" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3545   Ventricular bypass (assist) device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ventricular bypass (assist) device is a device that assists the left or right ventricle in maintaining circulatory blood flow. The device is either totally or partially implanted in the body. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before November 21, 2011, for any ventricular bypass (assist) device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before November 21, 2011, been found to be substantially equivalent to any ventricular bypass (assist) device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other ventricular bypass (assist) device shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 76 FR 50666, Aug. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3600   External pacemaker pulse generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external pacemaker pulse generator (EPPG) is a prescription device that has a power supply and electronic circuits that produce a periodic electrical pulse to stimulate the heart. This device, which is used outside the body, is used as a temporary substitute for the heart's intrinsic pacing system until a permanent pacemaker can be implanted, or to control irregular heartbeats in patients following cardiac surgery or a myocardial infarction. The device may have adjustments for impulse strength, duration, R-wave sensitivity, and other pacing variables.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis/testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) within a hospital environment.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrical bench testing must demonstrate device safety during intended use. This must include testing with the specific power source (<I>i.e.,</I> battery power, AC mains connections, or both).
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing data must demonstrate the performance characteristics of the device. Testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing must demonstrate the accuracy of monitoring functions, alarms, measurement features, therapeutic features, and all adjustable or programmable parameters as identified in labeling;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical bench testing of material strength must demonstrate that the device and connection cables will withstand forces or conditions encountered during use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated use analysis/testing must demonstrate adequate user interface for adjustable parameters, performance of alarms, display screens, interface with external devices (<I>e.g.</I> data storage, printing), and indicator(s) functionality under intended use conditions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Methods and instructions for cleaning the pulse generator and connection cables must be validated.
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must clearly state that these devices are intended for use in a hospital environment and under the supervision of a clinician trained in their use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Connector terminals should be clearly, unambiguously marked on the outside of the EPPG device. The markings should identify positive (+) and negative (−) polarities. Dual chamber devices should clearly identify atrial and ventricular terminals;
</P>
<P>(iii) The labeling must list all pacing modes available in the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Labeling must include a detailed description of any special capabilities (<I>e.g.,</I> overdrive pacing or automatic mode switching); and
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate electromagnetic compatibility information must be included.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22529, Apr. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3605" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3605   Pacing system analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacing system analyzer (PSA) is a prescription device that combines the functionality of a pacemaker electrode function tester (§ 870.3720) and an external pacemaker pulse generator (EPPG) (§ 870.3600). It is connected to a pacemaker lead and uses a power supply and electronic circuits to supply an accurately calibrated, variable pacing pulse for measuring the patient's pacing threshold and intracardiac R-wave potential. A PSA may be a single, dual, or triple chamber system and can simultaneously deliver pacing therapy while testing one or more implanted pacing leads.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis/testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) within a hospital environment.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrical bench testing must demonstrate device safety during intended use. This must include testing with the specific power source (<I>i.e.,</I> battery power, AC mains connections, or both).
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing data must demonstrate the performance characteristics of the device. Testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing must demonstrate the accuracy of monitoring functions, alarms, measurement features, therapeutic features, and all adjustable or programmable parameters as identified in labeling;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical bench testing of material strength must demonstrate that the device and connection cables will withstand forces or conditions encountered during use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated use analysis/testing must demonstrate adequate user interface for adjustable parameters, performance of alarms, display screens, interface with external devices (<I>e.g.</I> data storage, printing), and indicator(s) functionality under intended use conditions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Methods and instructions for cleaning the pulse generator and connection cables must be validated.
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The labeling must clearly state that these devices are intended for use in a hospital environment and under the supervision of a clinician trained in their use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Connector terminals should be clearly, unambiguously marked on the outside of the PSA. The markings should identify positive (+) and negative (−) polarities. Dual chamber devices should clearly identify atrial and ventricular terminals. Triple chamber devices should clearly identify atrial, right ventricular, and left ventricular terminals;
</P>
<P>(iii) The labeling must list all pacing modes available in the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Labeling must include a detailed description of any special capabilities (<I>e.g.,</I> overdrive pacing or automatic mode switching);
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling must limit the use of external pacing to the implant procedure; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Appropriate electromagnetic compatibility information must be included.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22350, Apr. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3610   Implantable pacemaker pulse generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implantable pacemaker pulse generator is a device that has a power supply and electronic circuits that produce a periodic electrical pulse to stimulate the heart. This device is used as a substitute for the heart's intrinsic pacing system to correct both intermittent and continuous cardiac rhythm disorders. This device may include triggered, inhibited, and asynchronous modes and is implanted in the human body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before September 20, 2012, for any implantable pacemaker pulse generator device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before September 20, 2012, been found to be substantially equivalent to any implantable pacemaker pulse generator device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other implantable pacemaker pulse generator device shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 77 FR 37576, June 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3620   Pacemaker lead adaptor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker lead adaptor is a device used to adapt a pacemaker lead so that it can be connected to a pacemaker pulse generator produced by a different manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance for the Submission of Research and Marketing Applications for Permanent Pacemaker Leads and for Pacemaker Lead Adaptor 510(k) Submissions.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 18542, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3630   Pacemaker generator function analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker generator function analyzer is a device that is connected to a pacemaker pulse generator to test any or all of the generator's parameters, including pulse duration, pulse amplitude, pulse rate, and sensing threshold. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3640   Indirect pacemaker generator function analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An indirect pacemaker generator function analyzer is an electrically powered device that is used to determine pacemaker function or pacemaker battery function by periodically monitoring an implanted pacemaker's pulse rate and pulse width. The device is noninvasive, and it detects pacemaker pulse rate and width via external electrodes in contact with the patient's skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3650   Pacemaker polymeric mesh bag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker polymeric mesh bag is an implanted device used to hold a pacemaker pulse generator. The bag is designed to create a stable implant environment for the pulse generator. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3670   Pacemaker charger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker charger is a device used transcutaneously to recharge the batteries of a rechargeable pacemaker. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3680   Cardiovascular permanent or temporary pacemaker electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Temporary pacemaker electrode</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A temporary pacemaker electrode is a device consisting of flexible insulated electrical conductors with one end connected to an <I>external</I> pacemaker pulse generator and the other end applied to the heart. The device is used to transmit a pacing electrical stimulus from the pulse generator to the heart and/or to transmit the electrical signal of the heart to the pulse generator. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permanent pacemaker electrode</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A permanent pacemaker electrode is a device consisting of flexible insulated electrical conductors with one end connected to an implantable pacemaker pulse generator and the other end applied to the heart. The device is used to transmit a pacing electrical stimulus from the pulse generator to the heart and/or to transmit the electrical signal of the heart to the pulse generator. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before October 4, 2012, for any permanent pacemaker electrode device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before October 4, 2012, been found to be substantially equivalent to any permanent pacemaker electrode device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other pacemaker repair or replacement material device shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 77 FR 39927, July 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3690   Pacemaker test magnet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker test magnet is a device used to test an inhibited or triggered type of pacemaker pulse generator and cause an inhibited or triggered generator to revert to asynchronous operation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38796, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3700   Pacemaker programmers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker programmer is a device used to noninvasively change one or more of the electrical operating characteristics of a pacemaker.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before September 20, 2012, for any pacemaker programmer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before September 20, 2012, been found to be substantially equivalent to any pacemaker programmer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other pacemaker programmer shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 77 FR 37573, June 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3710   Pacemaker repair or replacement material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker repair or replacement material is an adhesive, a sealant, a screw, a crimp, or any other material used to repair a pacemaker lead or to reconnect a pacemaker lead to a pacemaker pulse generator. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before November 21, 2011, for any pacemaker repair or replacement material device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before November 21, 2011, been found to be substantially equivalent to any pacemaker repair or replacement material device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other pacemaker repair or replacement material device shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 76 FR 50666, Aug. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3720   Pacemaker electrode function tester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pacemaker electrode function tester is a device which is connected to an implanted pacemaker lead that supplies an accurately calibrated, variable pacing pulse for measuring the patient's pacing threshold and intracardiac R-wave potential. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3730   Pacemaker service tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Pacemaker service tools are devices such as screwdrivers and Allen wrenches, used to repair a pacemaker lead or to reconnect a pacemaker lead to a pacemaker generator. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25049, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3800   Annuloplasty ring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An annuloplasty ring is a rigid or flexible ring implanted around the mitral or tricuspid heart valve for reconstructive treatment of valvular insufficiency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance for Annuloplasty Rings 510(k) Submissions.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 18542, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3850   Carotid sinus nerve stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carotid sinus nerve stimulator is an implantable device used to decrease arterial pressure by stimulating Hering's nerve at the carotid sinus. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any carotid sinus nerve stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a carotid sinus nerve stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other carotid sinus nerve stimulator shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17736, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50706, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3925   Replacement heart valve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A replacement heart valve is a device intended to perform the function of any of the heart's natural valves. This device includes valves constructed of prosthetic materials, biologic valves (e.g., porcine valves), or valves constructed of a combination of prosthetic and biologic materials. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 9, 1987 for any replacement heart valve that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before December 9, 1987 been found to be substantially equivalent to a replacement heart valve that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other replacement heart valve shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 18163, May 13, 1987; 52 FR 23137, June 17, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3935" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3935   Prosthetic heart valve holder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prosthetic heart valve holder is a device used to hold a replacement heart valve while it is being sutured into place. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.3945" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.3945   Prosthetic heart valve sizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prosthetic heart valve sizer is a device used to measure the size of the natural valve opening to determine the size of the appropriate replacement heart valve. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Cardiovascular Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4075" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4075   Endomyocardial biopsy device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endomyocardial biopsy device is a device used in a catheterization procedure to remove samples of tissue from the inner wall of the heart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4100   Extracorporeal circuit and accessories for long-term respiratory/cardiopulmonary failure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extracorporeal circuit and accessories for long-term respiratory/cardiopulmonary support (&gt;6 hours) is a system of devices and accessories that provides assisted extracorporeal circulation and physiologic gas exchange of the patient's blood in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent. The main devices and accessories of the system include, but are not limited to, the console (hardware), software, and disposables, including, but not limited to, an oxygenator, blood pump, heat exchanger, cannulae, tubing, filters, and other accessories (<I>e.g.,</I> monitors, detectors, sensors, connectors).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I>—Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technological characteristics of the device must ensure that the geometry and design parameters are consistent with the intended use, and that the devices and accessories in the circuit are compatible;
</P>
<P>(2) The devices and accessories in the circuit must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(3) Sterility and shelf-life testing must demonstrate the sterility of any patient-contacting devices and accessories in the circuit and the shelf life of these devices and accessories;
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance evaluation of the devices and accessories in the circuit must demonstrate substantial equivalence of the performance characteristics on the bench, mechanical integrity, electromagnetic compatibility (where applicable), software, durability, and reliability;
</P>
<P>(5) In vivo evaluation of the devices and accessories in the circuit must demonstrate their performance over the intended duration of use, including a detailed summary of the clinical evaluation pertinent to the use of the devices and accessories to demonstrate their effectiveness if a specific indication (patient population and/or condition) is identified; and
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include a detailed summary of the non-clinical and in vivo evaluations pertinent to use of the devices and accessories in the circuit and adequate instructions with respect to anticoagulation, circuit setup, performance characteristics with respect to compatibility among different devices and accessories in the circuit, and maintenance during a procedure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 7451, Feb. 12, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4150   Extracorporeal system for carbon dioxide removal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extracorporeal system for carbon dioxide removal is a system of devices and accessories that provides assisted extracorporeal carbon dioxide removal from the patient's blood in patients with acute respiratory failure, where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent. The main devices and accessories of the system include, but are not limited to, the console (hardware), software, and disposables, including, but not limited to, a gas exchanger, blood pump, cannulae, tubing, filters, and other accessories (<I>e.g.,</I> monitors, detectors, sensors, connectors).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo evaluation, which may include animal testing and clinical data, of the devices and accessories in the circuit must demonstrate their performance over the intended duration of use, including a detailed summary of the in vivo evaluation pertinent to the use of the devices and accessories to demonstrate their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(2) The technological characteristics of the device must ensure that the geometry and design parameters are consistent with the intended use, and that the devices and accessories in the circuit are compatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing of the devices and accessories in the circuit must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical integrity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Durability; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reliability.
</P>
<P>(4) All patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must demonstrate the electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of any electrical components.
</P>
<P>(6) Software validation, verification, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance testing must demonstrate the sterility of all patient-contacting components.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance testing must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the non-clinical and in vivo evaluations pertinent to use of the device and accessories in the circuit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate instructions with respect to circuit setup, performance characteristics with respect to compatibility among different devices and accessories in the circuit, and maintenance during a procedure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 80039, Dec. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4200   Cardiopulmonary bypass accessory equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cardiopulmonary bypass accessory equipment is a device that has no contact with blood and that is used in the cardiopulmonary bypass circuit to support, adjoin, or connect components, or to aid in the setup of the extracorporeal line, e.g., an oxygenator mounting bracket or system-priming equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I. The device is classified as class I if it does not involve an electrical connection to the patient. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 870.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls). The device is classified as class II if it involves an electrical connection to the patient. The special controls are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The performance standard under part 898 of this chapter, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The guidance document entitled “Guidance on the Performance Standard for Electrode Lead Wires and Patient Cables.” The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 19319, Apr. 11, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4205" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4205   Cardiopulmonary bypass bubble detector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass bubble detector is a device used to detect bubbles in the arterial return line of the cardiopulmonary bypass circuit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4210   Cardiopulmonary bypass vascular catheter, cannula, or tubing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass vascular catheter, cannula, or tubing is a device used in cardiopulmonary surgery to cannulate the vessels, perfuse the coronary arteries, and to interconnect the catheters and cannulas with an oxygenator. The device includes accessory bypass equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4220   Cardiopulmonary bypass heart-lung machine console.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass heart-lung machine console is a device that consists of a control panel and the electrical power and control circuitry for a heart-lung machine. The console is designed to interface with the basic units used in a gas exchange system, including the pumps, oxygenator, and heat exchanger. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4230   Cardiopulmonary bypass defoamer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass defoamer is a device used in conjunction with an oxygenator during cardiopulmonary bypass surgery to remove gas bubbles from the blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance for Extracorporeal Blood Circuit Defoamer 510(k) Submissions.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 18542, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4240   Cardiopulmonary bypass heat exchanger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass heat exchanger is a device, consisting of a heat exchange system used in extracorporeal circulation to warm or cool the blood or perfusion fluid flowing through the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4250   Cardiopulmonary bypass temperature controller.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass temperature controller is a device used to control the temperature of the fluid entering and leaving a heat exchanger. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4260   Cardiopulmonary bypass arterial line blood filter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass arterial line blood filter is a device used as part of a gas exchange (oxygenator) system to filter nonbiologic particles and emboli (blood clots or pieces of foreign material flowing in the bloodstream which will obstruct circulation by blocking a vessel) out of the blood. It is used in the arterial return line. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance for Cardiopulmonary Bypass Arterial Line Blood Filter 510(k) Submissions.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 18542, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4270   Cardiopulmonary bypass cardiotomy suction line blood filter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass cardiotomy suction line blood filter is a device used as part of a gas exchange (oxygenator) system to filter nonbiologic particles and emboli (a blood clot or a piece of foreign material flowing in the bloodstream which will obstruct circulation by blocking a vessel) out of the blood. This device is intended for use in the cardiotomy suction line. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4280   Cardiopulmonary prebypass filter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary prebypass filter is a device used during priming of the oxygenator circuit to remove particulates or other debris from the circuit prior to initiating bypass. The device is not used to filter blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4290   Cardiopulmonary bypass adaptor, stopcock, manifold, or fitting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass adaptor, stopcock, manifold, or fitting is a device used in cardiovascular diagnostic, surgical, and therapeutic applications to interconnect tubing, catheters, or other devices. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4300   Cardiopulmonary bypass gas control unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass gas control unit is a device used to control and measure the flow of gas into the oxygenator. The device is calibrated for a specific gas. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4310   Cardiopulmonary bypass coronary pressure gauge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass coronary pressure gauge is a device used in cardiopulmonary bypass surgery to measure the pressure of the blood perfusing the coronary arteries. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4320   Cardiopulmonary bypass pulsatile flow generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass pulsatile flow generator is an electrically and pneumatically operated device used to create pulsatile blood flow. The device is placed in a cardiopulmonary bypass circuit downstream from the oxygenator. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required. A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before September 21, 2004, for any cardiopulmonary bypass pulsatile flow generator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before September 21, 2004, been found to be substantially equivalent to any cardiopulmonary bypass pulsatile flow generator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other cardiopulmonary bypass pulsatile flow generator shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987; 69 FR 34920, June 23, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4330   Cardiopulmonary bypass on-line blood gas monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass on-line blood gas monitor is a device used in conjunction with a blood gas sensor to measure the level of gases in the blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4340   Cardiopulmonary bypass level sensing monitor and/or control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass level sensing monitor and/or control is a device used to monitor and/or control the level of blood in the blood reservoir and to sound an alarm when the level falls below a predetermined value. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4350   Cardiopulmonary bypass oxygenator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass oxygenator is a device used to exchange gases between blood and a gaseous environment to satisfy the gas exchange needs of a patient during open-heart surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance for Cardiopulmonary Bypass Oxygenators 510(k) Submissions.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987; 66 FR 18542, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4360   Nonroller-type blood pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nonroller-type cardiopulmonary and circulatory bypass blood pump</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A nonroller-type cardiopulmonary and circulatory bypass blood pump is a prescription device that uses a method other than revolving rollers to pump the blood through an extracorporeal circuit for periods lasting less than 6 hours for the purpose of providing either:
</P>
<P>(i) Full or partial cardiopulmonary bypass (<I>i.e.,</I> circuit includes an oxygenator) during open surgical procedures on the heart or great vessels; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Temporary circulatory bypass for diversion of flow around a planned disruption of the circulatory pathway necessary for open surgical procedures on the aorta or vena cava.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification</I>—Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) Non-clinical performance testing must perform as intended over the intended duration of use and demonstrate the following: Operating parameters, dynamic blood damage, heat generation, air entrapment, mechanical integrity, and durability/reliability;
</P>
<P>(ii) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(iii) Sterility and shelf life testing must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components and the shelf life of these components; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Labeling must include information regarding the duration of use, and a detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonroller-type temporary ventricular support blood pump</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A nonroller-type temporary ventricular support blood pump is a prescription device that uses any method resulting in blood propulsion to provide the temporary ventricular assistance required for support of the systemic and/or pulmonary circulations during periods when there is ongoing or anticipated hemodynamic instability due to immediately reversible alterations in ventricular myocardial function resulting from mechanical or physiologic causes. Duration of use would be less than 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with FDA on or before September 8, 2015, for any nonroller-type temporary ventricular support blood pump that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before September 8, 2015, been found to be substantially equivalent to any nonroller-type temporary ventricular support blood pump that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other nonroller-type temporary ventricular support blood pump shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 32311, June 8, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4370   Roller-type cardiopulmonary bypass blood pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A roller-type cardiopulmonary bypass blood pump is a device that uses a revolving roller mechanism to pump the blood through the cardiopulmonary bypass circuit during bypass surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4380   Cardiopulmonary bypass pump speed control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass pump speed control is a device used that incorporates an electrical system or a mechanical system, or both, and is used to control the speed of blood pumps used in cardiopulmonary bypass surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4390   Cardiopulmonary bypass pump tubing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass pump tubing is polymeric tubing which is used in the blood pump head and which is cyclically compressed by the pump to cause the blood to flow through the cardiopulmonary bypass circuit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4400   Cardiopulmonary bypass blood reservoir.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass blood reservoir is a device used in conjunction with short-term extracorporeal circulation devices to hold a reserve supply of blood in the bypass circulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls), except that a reservoir that contains a defoamer or filter is classified into the same class as the defoamer or filter. The device, when it is a cardiopulmonary bypass blood reservoir that does not contain defoamers or blood filters, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4410   Cardiopulmonary bypass in-line blood gas sensor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass in-line blood gas sensor is a transducer that measures the level of gases in the blood. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4420   Cardiopulmonary bypass cardiotomy return sucker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass cardiotomy return sucker is a device that consists of tubing, a connector, and a probe or tip that is used to remove blood from the chest or heart during cardiopulmonary bypass surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4430   Cardiopulmonary bypass intracardiac suction control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary bypass intracardiac suction control is a device which provides the vacuum and control for a cardiotomy return sucker. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4450   Vascular clamp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vascular clamp is a surgical instrument used to occlude a blood vessel temporarily. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4475" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4475   Surgical vessel dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical vessel dilator is a device used to enlarge or calibrate a vessel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4500   Cardiovascular surgical instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cardiovascular surgical instruments are surgical instruments that have special features for use in cardiovascular surgery. These devices include, e.g., forceps, retractors, and scissors. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25049, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4510   Apical closure device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An apical closure device is a prescription device consisting of a delivery system and implant component that is used for soft tissue approximation of cardiac apical tissue during transcatheter valve replacement procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient contacting materials must be evaluated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must validate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Consistent and reliable implant deployment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessment of implant pull-out force; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Sheath size compatibility with implant.
</P>
<P>(5) In vivo evaluation of the device must demonstrate device performance, including device operation resulting in closure of the myocardial wound.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed information explaining how the device operates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Sheath size that device can accommodate;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of the minimum myocardial wall thickness to ensure optimal device function; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71371, Oct. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4875" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4875   Intraluminal artery stripper.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraluminal artery stripper is a device used to perform an endarterectomy (removal of plaque deposits from arterisclerotic arteries.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.4885" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.5.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.4885   External vein stripper.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external vein stripper is an extravascular device used to remove a section of a vein. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Cardiovascular Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5050   Patient care suction apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A patient care suction apparatus is a device used with an intrathoracic catheter to withdraw fluid from the chest during the recovery period following surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5100   Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) Catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard PTCA Catheter</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A PTCA catheter is a device that operates on the principle of hydraulic pressurization applied through an inflatable balloon attached to the distal end. A PTCA balloon catheter has a single or double lumen shaft. The catheter features a balloon of appropriate compliance for the clinical application, constructed from a polymer. The balloon is designed to uniformly expand to a specified diameter and length at a specific pressure as labeled, with well characterized rates of inflation and deflation and a defined burst pressure. The device generally features a type of radiographic marker to facilitate fluoroscopic visualization of the balloon during use. A PTCA catheter is intended for balloon dilatation of a hemodynamically significant coronary artery or bypass graft stenosis in patients evidencing coronary ischemia for the purpose of improving myocardial perfusion. A PTCA catheter may also be intended for the treatment of acute myocardial infarction; treatment of in-stent restenosis (ISR) and/or post-deployment stent expansion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document for Certain Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) Catheters.” See § 870.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cutting/scoring PTCA Catheter</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A cutting/scoring PTCA catheter is a balloon-tipped catheter with cutting/scoring elements attached, which is used in those circumstances where a high pressure balloon resistant lesion is encountered. A cutting/scoring PTCA catheter is intended for the treatment of hemodynamically significant coronary artery stenosis for the purpose of improving myocardial perfusion. A cutting/scoring PTCA catheter may also be indicated for use in complex type C lesions or for the treatment of in-stent restenosis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 870.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 54496, Sept. 8, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5125" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5125   Laser-powered inferior vena cava filter retrieval catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A laser-powered inferior vena cava (IVC) filter retrieval catheter is a percutaneous catheter that uses a laser to ablate tissue and is intended to facilitate in the detachment and removal of indwelling IVC filters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of major and minor complications associated with IVC filter removal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of success rates of IVC filter removal.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated:
</P>
<P>(i) Dimensional testing must demonstrate that the device is compatible with the intended anatomy and compatible with all labeled accessories.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical testing on all joints must demonstrate that the device can withstand tensile and torsional forces encountered under challenging clinical use conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated use testing must demonstrate that the device can be inserted, tracked, activated, and removed without device damage and that the device is able to function as intended (<I>e.g.,</I> remove IVC filter without damage) under challenging clinical use conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance testing must demonstrate that the product is visible under fluoroscopic techniques.
</P>
<P>(v) Performance testing must demonstrate that the device does not kink when subjected to clinically relevant tortuosity.
</P>
<P>(3) Compatibility testing with laser generators must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Electrical safety, electromagnetic compatibility testing, and electromagnetic interference testing must be conducted for all devices that contain electrical components.
</P>
<P>(ii) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be conducted for all devices that contain software.
</P>
<P>(iii) Laser output characterization and performance testing, including verification of calibration reliability, energy output, and repetition rate, and laser lifetime testing, must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(4) All patient-contacting components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility and non-pyrogenicity of patient contacting components of the device that are provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and system functionality over the established shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) In vivo safety testing must demonstrate that the device does not cause soft tissue damage or device damage under worst case clinical use conditions.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters and materials of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<P>(9) A training program must be provided to ensure that users can safely and reliably use the device per its instructions for use.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 23163, Apr. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5150   Embolectomy catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An embolectomy catheter is a balloon-tipped catheter that is used to remove thromboemboli, i.e., blood clots which have migrated in blood vessels from one site in the vascular tree to another. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5175   Septostomy catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A septostomy catheter is a special balloon catheter that is used to create or enlarge the atrial septal defect found in the heart of certain infants. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5200   External cardiac compressor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external cardiac compressor is an externally applied prescription device that is electrically, pneumatically, or manually powered and is used to compress the chest periodically in the region of the heart to provide blood flow during cardiac arrest. External cardiac compressor devices are used as an adjunct to manual cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) when effective manual CPR is not possible (<I>e.g.,</I> during patient transport or extended CPR when fatigue may prohibit the delivery of effective/consistent compressions to the victim, or when insufficient EMS personnel are available to provide effective CPR).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonclinical performance testing under simulated physiological conditions must demonstrate the reliability of the delivery of specific compression depth and rate over the intended duration of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical training necessary for the safe use of this device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjunctive use only indication prominently displayed on labels physically placed on the device and in any device manuals or other labeling;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the patient population for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective (including patient size and/or age limitations, <I>e.g.,</I> adult, pediatric and/or infant); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on the time necessary to deploy the device as demonstrated in the performance testing.
</P>
<P>(3) For devices that incorporate electrical components, appropriate analysis and testing must demonstrate that the device is electrically safe and electromagnetically compatible in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Human factors testing and analysis must validate that the device design and labeling are sufficient for effective use by the intended user, including an evaluation for the time necessary to deploy the device.
</P>
<P>(5) For devices containing software, software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Components of the device that come into human contact must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 33133, May 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5210   Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CPR aid without feedback</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A CPR aid without feedback is a device that performs a simple function such as proper hand placement and/or simple prompting for rate and/or timing of compressions/breathing for the professionally trained rescuer, but offers no feedback related to the quality of the CPR being provided. These devices are intended for use by persons professionally trained in CPR to assure proper use and the delivery of optimal CPR to the victim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 870.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CPR aid with feedback</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A CPR Aid device with feedback is a device that provides real-time feedback to the rescuer regarding the quality of CPR being delivered to the victim, and provides either audio and/or visual information to encourage the rescuer to continue the consistent application of effective manual CPR in accordance with current accepted CPR guidelines (to include, but not be limited to, parameters such as compression rate, compression depth, ventilation, recoil, instruction for one or multiple rescuers, etc.). These devices may also perform a coaching function to aid rescuers in the sequence of steps necessary to perform effective CPR on a victim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) Nonclinical performance testing under simulated physiological or use conditions must demonstrate the accuracy and reliability of the feedback to the user on specific compression rate, depth and/or respiration over the intended duration, and environment of use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling must include the clinical training, if needed, for the safe use of this device and information on the patient population for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective (including patient size and/or age limitations, <I>e.g.,</I> adult, pediatric and/or infant).
</P>
<P>(iii) For devices that incorporate electrical components, appropriate analysis and testing must demonstrate that the device is electrically safe and electromagnetically compatible in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(iv) For devices containing software, software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(v) Components of the device that come into human contact must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(vi) Human factors testing and analysis must validate that the device design and labeling are sufficient for effective use by the intended user.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Premarket notification.</I> The CPR Aid with feedback device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter if it does not contain software (<I>e.g.,</I> is mechanical or electro-mechanical) and is in compliance with the special controls under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, subject to the limitations of exemptions in § 870.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 33134, May 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5225   External counter-pulsating device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external counter-pulsating device is a noninvasive, prescription device used to assist the heart by applying positive or negative pressure to one or more of the body's limbs in synchrony with the heart cycle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) when the device is intended for the treatment of chronic stable angina that is refractory to optimal anti-anginal medical therapy and without options for revascularization. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) Nonclinical performance evaluation of the device must demonstrate a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for applied pressure, synchronization of therapy with the appropriate phase of the cardiac cycle, and functionality of alarms during a device malfunction or an abnormal patient condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reliabilities of the mechanical and electrical systems must be established through bench testing under simulated use conditions and matched by appropriate maintenance schedules;
</P>
<P>(iii) Software design and verification and validation must be appropriately documented;
</P>
<P>(iv) The skin-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate analysis and testing must be conducted to verify electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility of the device; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must include a detailed summary of the device-related and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Class III (premarket approval) for the following intended uses: Unstable angina pectoris; acute myocardial infarction; cardiogenic shock; congestive heart failure; postoperative treatment of patients who have undergone coronary artery bypass surgery; peripheral arterial disease associated with ischemic ulcers rest pain or claudication, threatened gangrene, insufficient blood supply at an amputation site, persisting ischemia after embolectomy or bypass surgery, and/or pre- and post-arterial reconstruction to improve runoff; diabetes complicated by peripheral arterial disease or other conditions possibly related to arterial insufficiency including nocturnal leg cramps and/or necrobiosis diabeticorum; venous diseases, including prophylaxis of deep vein thrombophlebitis, edema (e.g., chronic lymphedema) and/or induration (e.g., stasis dermatitis) associated with chronic venous stasis, venous stasis ulcers, and/or thrombophlebitis; athletic injuries, including Charley horses, pulled muscles and/or edematous muscles; necrotizing cellulitis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with FDA on or before March 31, 2014, for any external counter-pulsating device, with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before March 31, 2014, been found to be substantially equivalent to any external counter-pulsating device, with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other external counter-pulsating device with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 79307, Dec. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5300   DC-defibrillator (including paddles).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Low-energy DC-defibrillator</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A low-energy DC-defibrillator is a device that delivers into a 50 ohm test load an electrical shock of a maximum of 360 joules of energy used for defibrillating (restoring normal heart rhythm) the atria or ventricles of the heart or to terminate other cardiac arrhythmias. This generic type of device includes low energy defibrillators with a maximum electrical output of less than 360 joules of energy that are used in pediatric defibrillation or in cardiac surgery. The device may either synchronize the shock with the proper phase of the electrocardiogram or may operate asynchronously. The device delivers the electrical shock through paddles placed either directly across the heart or on the surface of the body. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>High-energy DC-defibrillator</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A high-energy DC-defibrillator is a device that delivers into a 50 ohm test load an electrical shock of greater than 360 joules of energy used for defibrillating the atria or ventricles of the heart or to terminate other cardiac arrhythmias. The device may either synchronize the shock with the proper phase of the electrocardiogram or may operate asynchronously. The device delivers the electrical shock through paddles placed either directly across the heart or on the surface of the body. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any DC-defibrillator (including paddles) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a DC-defibrillator (including paddles) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other DC-defibrillator (including paddles) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50706, Sept. 27, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5310   Automated external defibrillator system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automated external defibrillator (AED) system consists of an AED and those accessories necessary for the AED to detect and interpret an electrocardiogram and deliver an electrical shock (<I>e.g.,</I> battery, pad electrode, adapter, and hardware key for pediatric use). An AED system analyzes the patient's electrocardiogram, interprets the cardiac rhythm, and automatically delivers an electrical shock (fully automated AED), or advises the user to deliver the shock (semi-automated or shock advisory AED) to treat ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA will be required to be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration by April 29, 2015, for any AED that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, by April 29, 2015, been found to be substantially equivalent to any AED that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. A PMA will be required to be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration by April 29, 2015, for any AED accessory described in paragraph (a) that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, by April 29, 2015, been found to be substantially equivalent to any AED accessory described in paragraph (a) that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other AED and AED accessory described in paragraph (a), shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61344, Oct. 28, 2003; 69 FR 10615, Mar. 8, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 5682, Feb. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5325" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5325   Defibrillator tester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A defibrillator tester is a device that is connected to the output of a defibrillator and is used to measure the energy delivered by the defibrillator into a standard resistive load. Some testers also provide waveform information. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5550   External transcutaneous cardiac pacemaker (noninvasive).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external transcutaneous cardiac pacemaker (noninvasive) is a device used to supply a periodic electrical pulse intended to pace the heart. The pulse from the device is usually applied to the surface of the chest through electrodes such as defibrillator paddles. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) “American National Standards Institute/American Association for Medical Instrumentation's DF-21 ‘Cardiac Defibrillator Devices’ ” 2d ed., 1996, and 
</P>
<P>(2) “The maximum pulse amplitude should not exceed 200 milliamperes. The maximum pulse duration should not exceed 50 milliseconds.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 7907, Feb. 5, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5600   Adjunctive open loop fluid therapy recommender.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The adjunctive open loop fluid therapy recommender is a prescription device that uses software algorithms to analyze cardiovascular vital signs and predict a patient's estimated response to fluid therapy. The device is intended for adjunctive use with other physical vital sign parameters and patient information and is not intended to independently direct therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing under anticipated conditions of use must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the clinical performance testing must include the relevant patient demographics, and any statistical techniques used for analyzing the data;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subjects must be representative of the intended use population for the device. Any selection criteria or sample limitations must be fully described and justified;
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing must demonstrate the recommendation consistency using the expected range of data sources and data quality encountered in the intended patients, users, and environments; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Testing must evaluate the relationship between algorithm recommendations, therapeutic actions, and predicted physiological event or status.
</P>
<P>(2) A software description and the results of verification and validation testing based on a comprehensive hazard analysis and risk assessment must be provided, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A full characterization of the software technical parameters, including algorithms;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the expected recommendation, accounting for differences in patient condition and environment;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of all mitigations for user error or failure of any subsystem components (including signal detection, signal analysis, data display, and storage) that affect the device's recommendations;
</P>
<P>(iv) A characterization of algorithm sensitivity to variations in user inputs;
</P>
<P>(v) A characterization of sensor accuracy and performance;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of sensor data quality control measures; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Safeguards to reduce the possibility of fluid overload.
</P>
<P>(3) A scientific justification for the validity of the algorithm(s) must be provided. This justification must include non-clinical verification and validation of the algorithm calculations and clinical validation using an independent data set.
</P>
<P>(4) A human factors and usability engineering assessment must be provided.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of what the device measures, how the device decides to issue recommendations, and the expected range of frequency of recommendations, while accounting for differences in patient condition and environment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed information regarding limitations of the device's algorithm, and key assumptions made when the device issues a recommendation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Warnings identifying sensor acquisition factors that may impact measurement results;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings identifying user errors that affect the device's recommendations;
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed information regarding the expected impact of user input errors on the device recommendations;
</P>
<P>(vi) Guidance for interpretation of the device's recommendations, including a description that the recommendation is adjunctive to other physical vital sign parameters and patient information;
</P>
<P>(vii) Description of the impact of the compatible sensor(s) on the device's performance;
</P>
<P>(viii) The expected performance of the device for all intended patients, users, and environments;
</P>
<P>(ix) Relevant characteristics of the patients studied in the clinical validation (such as age, gender, race or ethnicity, and patient condition) and a summary of validation results; and
</P>
<P>(x) Description of the software safeguards that are in place to prevent fluid overload, and description of any limitation of the software safeguards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 72319, Sept. 5, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5700   Steerable cardiac ablation catheter remote control system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A steerable cardiac ablation catheter remote control system is a prescription device that is external to the body and interacts with the manual handle of a steerable cardiac ablation catheter to remotely control the advancement, retraction, rotation, and deflection of a compatible, steerable ablation catheter used for the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias in the right side of the heart. The device allows reversion to manual control of the steerable cardiac ablation catheter without withdrawal of the catheter and interruption of the procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical mechanical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance testing must be performed:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical performance of the system (without catheter connected);
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical performance of the system with compatible catheters connected to verify that the system does not impact catheter function or performance. Assessments must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Side-by-side remote control and manual comparisons of catheter manipulation (including all ranges of motion of catheter deflection and tip curl) for all compatible catheters; must include testing for worst-case conditions, and
</P>
<P>(B) Evaluation of the accuracy and function of all device control safety features; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated-use testing in a bench anatomic model or animal model.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical electrical testing must include validation of electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, thermal safety, and electrical system performance. The following performance testing must be performed:
</P>
<P>(i) Electrical performance of the system with compatible catheters connected to verify that the system does not impact catheter function or performance. Assessments must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Side-by-side remote control and manual comparisons of catheter manipulation (including all ranges of motion of catheter deflection and tip curl) for all compatible catheters; must include testing for worst-case conditions, and
</P>
<P>(B) Evaluation of the accuracy and function of all device control safety features; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical safety between the device and ablation catheter system and with other electrical equipment expected in the catheter lab or operating room.
</P>
<P>(3) In vivo testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including an assessment of the system impact on the functionality and performance of compatible catheters, and documentation of the adverse event profile associated with clinical use. Evidence must be submitted to address the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Manipulation and Positioning: Ability to manipulate compatible catheters to pre-specified cardiac locations and confirm proper anatomic placement and tissue contact, in accordance with the system indications for use and the compatible catheter indications for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety: Assess device-related complication rate and major procedural complication rate (regardless of device relatedness) in comparison to literature and/or a manual comparison group for compatible ablation catheters to support the indications for use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Efficacy: Assess ablation success in comparison to literature and/or a manual comparison group for compatible ablation catheters to support the indications for use; and
</P>
<P>(iv) User assessment of device remote controls and safety features.
</P>
<P>(4) Post-market surveillance (PMS) must be conducted and completed in accordance with FDA agreed upon PMS protocol.
</P>
<P>(5) A training program must be included with sufficient educational elements that, upon completion of the training program, the clinician and supporting staff can:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the safe environments for device use,
</P>
<P>(ii) Use all safety features of device, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Operate the device in simulated or actual use environments representative of indicated environments and use for the indication of compatible catheters.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the sterile disposable components of the system.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device (of the sterile disposable components), package integrity, and device functionality over the requested shelf life.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate instructions, warnings, cautions, limitations, and information related to the intended patient population, compatible ablation catheters, and the device safeguards for the safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific instructions and the clinical training needed for the safe use of the device, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Instructions on assembling the device in all available configurations, including installation and removal of compatible catheters;
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions and explanation of all controls, inputs, and outputs;
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions on all available modes or states of the device;
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions on all safety features of the device; and
</P>
<P>(E) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing/disinfecting any reusable components;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed summary of the mechanical compatibility testing including:
</P>
<P>(A) A table with a complete list of compatible catheters tested (manufacturer trade name and model number), and
</P>
<P>(B) A table with detailed test results, including type of test, acceptance criteria, and test results (<I>i.e.,</I> pass for meeting acceptance criteria);
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the in vivo testing including:
</P>
<P>(A) A table with a complete list of compatible catheters used during testing (manufacturer trade name and model number);
</P>
<P>(B) Adverse events encountered pertinent to use of the device under use conditions;
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications; and
</P>
<P>(D) A summary of study outcomes and endpoints. Information pertinent to the fluoroscopy times/exposure for the procedure, patient, and operator fluoroscopic exposure;
</P>
<P>(v) Other labeling items:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed summary of pertinent non-clinical testing information: EMC, mechanical, electrical, and sterilization of device and components;
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters; and
</P>
<P>(C) An expiration date/shelf life and storage conditions for the sterile accessories; and
</P>
<P>(vi) When available, and according to the timeframe included in the PMS protocol agreed upon with FDA, provide a detailed summary of the PMS data including:
</P>
<P>(A) Updates to the labeling to accurately reflect outcomes or necessary modifications based upon data collected during the PMS experience, and
</P>
<P>(B) Inclusion of results and adverse events associated with utilization of the device during the PMS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 58606, Sept. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5800   Compressible limb sleeve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A compressible limb sleeve is a device that is used to prevent pooling of blood in a limb by inflating periodically a sleeve around the limb.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5900   Thermal regulating system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thermal regulating system is an external system consisting of a device that is placed in contact with the patient and a temperature controller for the device. The system is used to regulate patient temperature. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5910   Esophageal thermal regulation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophageal thermal regulation device is a prescription device used to apply a specified temperature to the endoluminal surface of the esophagus via an external controller. This device may incorporate a mechanism for gastric decompression and suctioning. The device is used to regulate patient temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient contacting materials must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance evaluation must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical integrity testing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing to determine temperature change rate(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing to demonstrate compatibility with the indicated external controller.
</P>
<P>(iv) Shelf life testing.
</P>
<P>(3) Animal testing must demonstrate that the device does not cause esophageal injury and that body temperature remains within appropriate boundaries under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed insertion instructions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Warning against attaching the device to unintended connections, such as external controllers for which the device is not indicated, or pressurized air outlets instead of vacuum outlets for those devices, including gastric suction.
</P>
<P>(iii) The operating parameters, name, and model number of the indicated external controller.
</P>
<P>(iv) The intended duration of use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 49896, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.5925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.22.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.5925   Automatic rotating tourniquet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automatic rotating tourniquet is a device that prevents blood flow in one limb at a time, which temporarily reduces the total blood volume, thereby reducing the normal workload of the heart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="872" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 872—DENTAL DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 872 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of dental devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a dental device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed in one subpart only. 
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 19737, Apr. 22, 2003; 79 FR 50552, Aug. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act, FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(c) A device identified in a regulation in this part that is classified into class III and that is subject to the transitional provisions of section 520(1) of the act is automatically classified by statute into class III and must have an approval under section 515 of the act before being commercially distributed. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III transitional device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2314, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1500   Gingival fluid measurer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gingival fluid measurer is a gauge device intended to measure the amount of fluid in the gingival sulcus (depression between the tooth and gums) to determine if there is a gingivitis condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63007, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1720   Pulp tester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pulp tester is an AC or battery powered device intended to evaluate the pulpal vitality of teeth by employing high frequency current transmitted by an electrode to stimulate the nerve tissue in the dental pulp.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1730   Electrode gel for pulp testers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrode gel for pulp testers is a device intended to be applied to the surface of a tooth before use of a pulp tester to aid conduction of electrical current.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1740   Caries detection device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The caries detection device is a device intended to show the existence of decay in a patient's tooth by use of electrical current.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1745" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1745   Laser fluorescence caries detection device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A laser fluorescence caries detection device is a laser, a fluorescence detector housed in a dental handpiece, and a control console that performs device calibration, as well as variable tone emitting and fluorescence measurement functions. The intended use of the device is to aid in the detection of tooth decay by measuring increased laser induced fluorescence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II, subject to the following special controls: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sale, distribution, and use of this device are restricted to prescription use in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(2) Premarket notifications must include clinical studies, or other relevant information, that demonstrates that the device aids in the detection of tooth decay by measuring increased laser induced fluorescence; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling must include detailed use instructions with precautions that urge users to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Read and understand all directions before using the device, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Store probe tips under proper conditions, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Properly sterilize the emitter-detector handpick before each use, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Properly maintain and handle the instrument in the specified manner and condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 18235, Apr. 7, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1800   Extraoral source x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extraoral source x-ray system is an AC-powered device that produces x-rays and is intended for dental radiographic examination and diagnosis of diseases of the teeth, jaw, and oral structures. The x-ray source (a tube) is located outside the mouth. This generic type of device may include patient and equipment supports and component parts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1810   Intraoral source x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraoral source x-ray system is an electrically powered device that produces x-rays and is intended for dental radiographic examination and diagnosis of diseases of the teeth, jaw, and oral structures. The x-ray source (a tube) is located inside the mouth. This generic type of device may include patient and equipment supports and component parts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1820   Dental x-ray exposure alignment device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental x-ray exposure alignment device is a device intended to position x-ray film and to align the examination site with the x-ray beam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1830   Cephalometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cephalometer is a device used in dentistry during x-ray procedures. The device is intended to place and to hold a patient's head in a standard position during dental x-rays.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1840   Dental x-ray position indicating device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental x-ray position indicating device is a device, such as a collimator, cone, or aperture, that is used in dental radiographic examination. The device is intended to align the examination site with the x-ray beam and to restrict the dimensions of the dental x-ray field by limiting the size of the primary x-ray beam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1850   Lead-lined position indicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lead-lined position indicator is a cone-shaped device lined with lead that is attached to a dental x-ray tube and intended to aid in positioning the tube, to prevent the misfocusing of the x-rays by absorbing divergent radiation, and to prevent leakage of radiation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1870   Sulfide detection device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sulfide detection device is a device consisting of an AC-powered control unit, probe handle, probe tips, cables, and accessories. This device is intended to be used in vivo, to manually measure periodontal pocket probing depths, detect the presence or absence of bleeding on probing, and detect the presence of sulfides in periodontal pockets, as an adjunct in the diagnosis of periodontal diseases in adult patients.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) prescription use in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter; conformance with recognized standards of biocompatibility, electrical safety, and sterility; clinical and analytical performance testing, and proper labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59717, Nov. 5, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.1905" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.1905   Dental x-ray film holder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental x-ray film holder is a device intended to position and to hold x-ray film inside the mouth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.2050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.2050   Dental sonography device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Dental sonography device for monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A dental sonography device for monitoring is an electrically powered device, intended to be used to monitor temporomandibular joint sounds. The device detects and records sounds made by the temporomandibular joint.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification provisions of subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dental sonography device for interpretation and diagnosis</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A dental sonography device for interpretation and diagnosis is an electrically powered device, intended to interpret temporomandibular joint sounds for the diagnosis of temporomandibular joint disorders and associated orofacial pain. The device detects, records, displays, and stores sounds made by the temporomandibular joint during jaw movement. The device interprets these sounds to generate meaningful output, either directly or by connection to a personal computer. The device may be part of a system of devices, contributing joint sound information to be considered with data from other diagnostic components.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Dental Sonography and Jaw Tracking Devices.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 67367, Dec. 2, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.2060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.2060   Jaw tracking device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Jaw tracking device for monitoring mandibular jaw positions relative to the maxilla</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A jaw tracking device for monitoring mandibular jaw positions relative to the maxilla is a nonpowered or electrically powered device that measures and records anatomical distances and angles in three dimensional space, to determine the relative position of the mandible with respect to the location and position of the maxilla, while at rest and during jaw movement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification provisions of subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Jaw tracking device for interpretation of mandibular jaw positions for the diagnosis</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A jaw tracking device for interpretation of mandibular jaw positions relative to the maxilla for the diagnosis of temporomandibular joint disorders and associated orofacial pain is a nonpowered or electrically powered device that measures and records anatomical distances and angles to determine the relative position of the mandible in three dimensional space, with respect to the location and position of the maxilla, while at rest and during jaw movement. The device records, displays, and stores information about jaw position. The device interprets jaw position to generate meaningful output, either directly or by connection to a personal computer. The device may be a part of a system of devices, contributing jaw position information to be considered with data from other diagnostic components.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Dental Sonography and Jaw Tracking Devices.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 67367, Dec. 2, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3060   Noble metal alloy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A noble metal alloy is a device composed primarily of noble metals, such as gold, palladium, platinum, or silver, that is intended for use in the fabrication of cast or porcelain-fused-to-metal crown and bridge restorations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for these devices is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Dental Noble Metal Alloys.” The devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. See § 872.1(e) for availability of guidance information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 51766, Aug. 23, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3070   Dental amalgam, mercury, and amalgam alloy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Dental amalgam is a device that consists of a combination of elemental mercury, supplied as a liquid in bulk, sachet, or predosed capsule form, and amalgam alloy composed primarily of silver, tin, and copper, supplied as a powder in bulk, tablet, or predosed capsule form, for the direct filling of carious lesions or structural defects in teeth. This device also includes the individual component devices, mercury and amalgam alloy, when intended to be combined with each other to form dental amalgam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Dental Amalgam, Mercury, and Amalgam Alloy.” <I>See</I> § 872.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 38714, Aug. 4, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3080   Mercury and alloy dispenser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mercury and alloy dispenser is a device with a spring-activated valve intended to measure and dispense into a mixing capsule a predetermined amount of dental mercury in droplet form and a premeasured amount of alloy pellets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3100   Dental amalgamator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental amalgamator is a device, usually AC-powered, intended to mix, by shaking, amalgam capsules containing mercury and dental alloy particles, such as silver, tin, zinc, and copper. The mixed dental amalgam material is intended for filling dental caries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3110   Dental amalgam capsule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental amalgam capsule is a container device in which silver alloy is intended to be mixed with mercury to form dental amalgam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3130   Preformed anchor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed anchor is a device made of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold or metals of the platinum group intended to be incorporated into a dental appliance, such as a denture, to help stabilize the appliance in the patient's mouth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3140   Resin applicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A resin applicator is a brushlike device intended for use in spreading dental resin on a tooth during application of tooth shade material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, the device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3150   Articulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An articulator is a mechanical device intended to simulate movements of a patient's upper and lower jaws. Plaster casts of the patient's teeth and gums are placed in the device to reproduce the occlusion (bite) and articulation of the patient's jaws. An articulator is intended to fit dentures or provide orthodontic treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, the device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3165   Precision attachment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A precision attachment or preformed bar is a device made of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended for use in prosthetic dentistry in conjunction with removable partial dentures. Various forms of the device are intended to connect a lower partial denture with another lower partial denture, to connect an upper partial denture with another upper partial denture, to connect either an upper or lower partial denture to a tooth or a crown, or to connect a fixed bridge to a partial denture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3200   Resin tooth bonding agent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A resin tooth bonding agent is a device material, such as methylmethacrylate, intended to be painted on the interior of a prepared cavity of a tooth to improve retention of a restoration, such as a filling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3220   Facebow.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A facebow is a device intended for use in denture fabrication to determine the spatial relationship between the upper and lower jaws. This determination is intended for use in placing denture casts accurately into an articulator (§ 872.3150) and thereby aiding correct placement of artificial teeth into a denture base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, the device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38797, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3240   Dental bur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental bur is a rotary cutting device made from carbon steel or tungsten carbide intended to cut hard structures in the mouth, such as teeth or bone. It is also intended to cut hard metals, plastics, porcelains, and similar materials intended for use in the fabrication of dental devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3250   Calcium hydroxide cavity liner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A calcium hydroxide cavity liner is a device material intended to be applied to the interior of a prepared cavity before insertion of restorative material, such as amalgam, to protect the pulp of a tooth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3260   Cavity varnish.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cavity varnish is a device that consists of a compound intended to coat a prepared cavity of a tooth before insertion of restorative materials. The device is intended to prevent penetration of restorative materials, such as amalgam, into the dentinal tissue. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an external cleaning solution, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3275   Dental cement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Zinc oxide-eugenol</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> Zinc oxide-eugenol is a device composed of zinc oxide-eugenol intended to serve as a temporary tooth filling or as a base cement to affix a temporary tooth filling, to affix dental devices such as crowns or bridges, or to be applied to a tooth to protect the tooth pulp. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dental cement other than zinc oxide-eugenol</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> Dental cement other than zinc oxide-eugenol is a device composed of various materials other than zinc oxide-eugenol intended to serve as a temporary tooth filling or as a base cement to affix a temporary tooth filling, to affix dental devices such as crowns or bridges, or to be applied to a tooth to protect the tooth pulp. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2314, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3285" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3285   Preformed clasp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed clasp or a preformed wire clasp is a prefabricated device made of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended to be incorporated into a dental appliance, such as a partial denture, to help stabilize the appliance in the patient's mouth by fastening the appliance to an adjacent tooth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3300   Hydrophilic resin coating for dentures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydrophilic resin coating for dentures is a device that consists of a water-retaining polymer that is intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted into the patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3310   Coating material for resin fillings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A coating material for resin fillings is a device intended to be applied to the surface of a restorative resin dental filling to attain a smooth, glaze-like finish on the surface of the filling. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3330   Preformed crown.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed crown is a prefabricated device made of plastic or austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended to be affixed temporarily to a tooth after removal of, or breakage of, the natural crown (that portion of the tooth that normally protrudes above the gums). It is intended for use as a functional restoration until a permanent crown is constructed. The device also may be intended for use as a functional restoration for a badly decayed deciduous (baby) tooth until the adult tooth erupts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3350   Gold or stainless steel cusp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gold or stainless steel cusp is a prefabricated device made of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group or stainless steel intended to provide a permanent cusp (a projection on the chewing surface of a tooth) to achieve occlusal harmony (a proper bite) between the teeth and a removable denture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3360   Preformed cusp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A performed cusp is a prefabricated device made of plastic or austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended to be used as a temporary cusp (a projection on the chewing surface of a tooth) to achieve occlusal harmony (a proper bite) before permanent restoration of a tooth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3400   Karaya and sodium borate with or without acacia denture adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A karaya and sodium borate with or without acacia denture adhesive is a device composed of karaya and sodium borate with or without acacia intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted into patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls) if the device contains less than 12 percent by weight of sodium borate. The class I device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class III if the device contains 12 percent or more by weight of sodium borate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any karaya and sodium borate with or without acacia denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a karaya and sodium borate with or without acacia denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other karaya and sodium borate with or without acacia denture adhesive shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50706, Sept. 27, 1996; 65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3410   Ethylene oxide homopolymer and/or carboxymethylcellulose sodium denture adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ethylene oxide homopolymer and/or carboxymethylcellulose sodium denture adhesive is a device containing ethylene oxide homopolymer and/or carboxymethylcellulose sodium intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted in a patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3420   Carboxymethylcellulose sodium and cationic polyacrylamide polymer denture adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carboxymethylcellulose sodium and cationic polyacrylamide polymer denture adhesive is a device composed of carboxymethylcellulose sodium and cationic polyacrylamide polymer intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted in a patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any carboxymethylcellulose sodium and cationic polyacrylamide polymer denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a carboxymethylcellulose sodium and cationic polyacrylamide polymer denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other carboxymethylcellulose sodium and cationic polyacrylamide polymer denture adhesive shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50707, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3450   Ethylene oxide homopolymer and/or karaya denture adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Ethylene oxide homopolymer and/or karaya denture adhesive is a device composed of ethylene oxide homopolymer and/or karaya intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted in a patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I if the device is made of wax-impregnated cotton cloth that the patient applies to the base or inner surface of a denture before inserting the denture into the mouth. The device is intended to be discarded following 1 day's use. The class I device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3480   Polyacrylamide polymer (modified cationic) denture adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A polyacrylamide polymer (modified cationic) denture adhesive is a device composed of polyacrylamide polymer (modified cationic) intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted in a patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any polyacrylamide polymer (modified cationic) denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a polyacrylamide polymer (modified cationic) denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other polyacrylamide polymer (modified cationic) denture adhesive shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being place in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50707, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3490   Carboxymethylcellulose sodium and/or polyvinylmethylether maleic acid calcium-sodium double salt denture adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carboxymethylcellulose sodium and/or polyvinylmethylether maleic acid calcium-sodium double salt denture adhesive is a device composed of carboxymethylcellulose sodium and/or polyvinylmethylether maleic acid calcium-sodium double salt intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted in a patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3500   Polyvinylmethylether maleic anhydride (PVM-MA), acid copolymer, and carboxymethylcellulose sodium (NACMC) denture adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Polyvinylmethylether maleic anhydride (PVM-MA), acid copolymer, and carboxymethylcellulose sodium (NACMC) denture adhesive is a device composed of polyvinylmethylether maleic anhydride, acid copolymer, and carboxymethylcellulose sodium intended to be applied to the base of a denture before the denture is inserted in a patient's mouth to improve denture retention and comfort.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any polyvinylmethylether maleic anhydride (PVM-MA), acid copolymer, and carboxymethylcellulose sodium (NACMC) denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a polyvinylmethylether maleic anhydride (PVM-MA), acid copolymer, and carboxymethylcellulose sodium (NACMC) denture adhesive that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other polyvinylmethylether maleic anhydride (PVM-MA), acid copolymer, and carboxymethylcellulose sodium (NACMC) denture adhesive shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50707, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3520   OTC denture cleanser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An OTC denture cleanser is a device that consists of material in the form of a powder, tablet, or paste that is intended to remove debris from removable prosthetic dental appliances, such as bridges or dentures. The dental appliance is removed from the patient's mouth when the appliance is cleaned.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3530   Mechanical denture cleaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mechanical denture cleaner is a device, usually AC-powered, that consists of a container for mechanically agitating a denture cleansing solution. The device is intended to clean a denture by submersion in the agitating cleansing solution in the container.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3540   OTC denture cushion or pad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An OTC denture cushion or pad is a prefabricated or noncustom made disposable device that is intended to improve the fit of a loose or uncomfortable denture, and may be available for purchase over-the-counter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I if the device is made of wax-impregnated cotton cloth that the patient applies to the base or inner surface of a denture before inserting the denture into the mouth. The device is intended to be discarded following 1 day's use. The class I device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) if the OTC denture cushion or pad is made of a material other than wax-impregnated cotton cloth or if the intended use of the device differs from that described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. The special controls for this device are FDA's:
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical—Devices Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(ii) “OTC Denture Reliners, Repair Kits, and Partially Fabricated Denture Kits.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2315, 2000; 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000; 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3560   OTC denture reliner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An OTC denture reliner is a device consisting of a material such as plastic resin that is intended to be applied as a permanent coating or lining on the base or tissue-contacting surface of a denture. The device is intended to replace a worn denture lining and may be available for purchase over the counter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. The special controls for this device are FDA's:
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(2) “OTC Denture Reliners, Repair Kits, and Partially Fabricated Denture Kits.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50707, Sept. 27, 1996; 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000; 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3570   OTC denture repair kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An OTC denture repair kit is a device consisting of a material, such as a resin monomer system of powder and liquid glues, that is intended to be applied permanently to a denture to mend cracks or breaks. The device may be available for purchase over-the counter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The OTC denture repair kit is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to § 872.9. The special controls for this device are FDA's:
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(2) “OTC Denture Reliners, Repair Kits, and Partially Fabricated Denture Kits.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000; 83 FR 11145, Mar. 14, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3580   Preformed gold denture tooth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed gold denture tooth is a device composed of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended for use as a tooth or a portion of a tooth in a fixed or removable partial denture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3590   Preformed plastic denture tooth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed plastic denture tooth is a prefabricated device, composed of materials such as methyl methacrylate, that is intended for use as a tooth in a denture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3600   Partially fabricated denture kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A partially fabricated denture kit is a device composed of connected preformed teeth that is intended for use in construction of a denture. A denture base is constructed using the patient's mouth as a mold, by partially polymerizing the resin denture base materials while the materials are in contact with the oral tissues. After the denture base is constructed, the connected preformed teeth are chemically bonded to the base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. The special controls for this device are FDA's:
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(2) “OTC Denture Reliners, Repair Kits, and Partially Fabricated Denture Kits.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2000; 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3630   Endosseous dental implant abutment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endosseous dental implant abutment is a premanufactured prosthetic component directly connected to the endosseous dental implant and is intended for use as an aid in prosthetic rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Root-Form Endosseous Dental Implants and Endosseous Dental Implant Abutments” will serve as the special control. (See § 872.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 26304, May 12, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3640   Endosseous dental implant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endosseous dental implant is a prescription device made of a material such as titanium or titanium alloy that is intended to be surgically placed in the bone of the upper or lower jaw arches to provide support for prosthetic devices, such as artificial teeth, in order to restore a patient's chewing function.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls). The device is classified as class II if it is a root-form endosseous dental implant. The root-form endosseous dental implant is characterized by four geometrically distinct types: Basket, screw, solid cylinder, and hollow cylinder. The guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Root-Form Endosseous Dental Implants and Endosseous Dental Implant Abutments” will serve as the special control. (See § 872.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is classified as class II if it is a blade-form endosseous dental implant. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical performance (fatigue) testing under simulated physiological conditions to demonstrate maximum load (endurance limit) when the device is subjected to compressive and shear loads;
</P>
<P>(iii) Corrosion testing under simulated physiological conditions to demonstrate corrosion potential of each metal or alloy, couple potential for an assembled dissimilar metal implant system, and corrosion rate for an assembled dissimilar metal implant system;
</P>
<P>(iv) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(v) Sterility testing must demonstrate the sterility of the device;
</P>
<P>(vi) Performance testing to evaluate the compatibility of the device in a magnetic resonance (MR) environment;
</P>
<P>(vii) Labeling must include a clear description of the technological features, how the device should be used in patients, detailed surgical protocol and restoration procedures, relevant precautions and warnings based on the clinical use of the device, and qualifications and training requirements for device users including technicians and clinicians;
</P>
<P>(viii) Patient labeling must contain a description of how the device works, how the device is placed, how the patient needs to care for the implant, possible adverse events and how to report any complications; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Documented clinical experience must demonstrate safe and effective use and capture any adverse events observed during clinical use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 26304, May 12, 2004, as amended at 79 FR 34625, June 18, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3645" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3645   Subperiosteal implant material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Subperiosteal implant material is a device composed of titanium or cobalt chrome molybdenum intended to construct custom prosthetic devices which are surgically implanted into the lower or upper jaw between the periosteum (connective tissue covering the bone) and supporting bony structures. The device is intended to provide support for prostheses, such as dentures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3660   Impression material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Impression material is a device composed of materials such as alginate or polysulfide intended to be placed on a preformed impression tray and used to reproduce the structure of a patient's teeth and gums. The device is intended to provide models for study and for production of restorative prosthetic devices, such as gold inlays and dentures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (Special Controls).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 19738, Apr. 22, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3661" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3661   Optical Impression Systems for CAD/CAM.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An optical impression system for computer assisted design and manufacturing (CAD/CAM) is a device used to record the topographical characteristics of teeth, dental impressions, or stone models by analog or digital methods for use in the computer-assisted design and manufacturing of dental restorative prosthetic devices. Such systems may consist of a camera, scanner, or equivalent type of sensor and a computer with software.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (Special Controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of the chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. The special control for these devices is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Optical Impression Systems for Computer Assisted Design and Manufacturing (CAD/CAM) of Dental Restorations; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” For the availability of this guidance document, see § 872.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 19738, Apr. 22, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3670   Resin impression tray material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Resin impression tray material is a device intended for use in a two-step dental mold fabricating process. The device consists of a resin material, such as methyl methacrylate, and is used to form a custom impression tray for use in cases in which a preformed impression tray is not suitable, such as the fabrication of crowns, bridges, or full dentures. A preliminary plaster or stone model of the patient's teeth and gums is made. The resin impression tray material is applied to this preliminary study model to form a custom tray. This tray is then filled with impression material and inserted into the patient's mouth to make an impression, from which a final, more precise, model of the patient's mouth is cast. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55983, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3680   Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) vitreous carbon materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) vitreous carbon material is a device composed of polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) vitreous carbon intended for use in maxillofacial alveolar ridge augmentation (building up the upper or lower jaw area that contains the sockets in which teeth are rooted) or intended to coat metal surgical implants to be placed in the alveoli (sockets in which the teeth are rooted) or the temporomandibular joints (the joint between the upper and lower jaws).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987; 52 FR 34456, Sept. 11, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3690   Tooth shade resin material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Tooth shade resin material is a device composed of materials such as bisphenol-A glycidyl methacrylate (Bis-GMA) intended to restore carious lesions or structural defects in teeth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3710   Base metal alloy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A base metal alloy is a device composed primarily of base metals, such as nickel, chromium, or cobalt, that is intended for use in fabrication of cast or porcelain-fused-to-metal crown and bridge restorations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Dental Base Metal Alloys.” The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. See § 872.1(e) for availability of guidance information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 51766, Aug. 23, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3730   Pantograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pantograph is a device intended to be attached to a patient's head to duplicate lower jaw movements to aid in construction of restorative and prosthetic dental devices. A marking pen is attached to the lower jaw component of the device and, as the patient's mouth opens, the pen records on graph paper the angle between the upper and the lower jaw.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3740   Retentive and splinting pin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A retentive and splinting pin is a device made of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended to be placed permanently in a tooth to provide retention and stabilization for a restoration, such as a crown, or to join two or more teeth together.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3750   Bracket adhesive resin and tooth conditioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bracket adhesive resin and tooth conditioner is a device composed of an adhesive compound, such as polymethylmethacrylate, intended to cement an orthodontic bracket to a tooth surface. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3760   Denture relining, repairing, or rebasing resin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A denture relining, repairing, or rebasing resin is a device composed of materials such as methylmethacrylate, intended to reline a denture surface that contacts tissue, to repair a fractured denture, or to form a new denture base. This device is not available for over-the-counter (OTC) use. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3765" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3765   Pit and fissure sealant and conditioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pit and fissure sealant and conditioner is a device composed of resin, such as polymethylmethacrylate, intended for use primarily in young children to seal pit and fissure depressions (faults in the enamel) in the biting surfaces of teeth to prevent cavities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3770   Temporary crown and bridge resin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A temporary crown and bridge resin is a device composed of a material, such as polymethylmethacrylate, intended to make a temporary prosthesis, such as a crown or bridge, for use until a permanent restoration is fabricated. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3810   Root canal post.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A root canal post is a device made of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended to be cemented into the root canal of a tooth to stabilize and support a restoration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3820   Root canal filling resin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A root canal filling resin is a device composed of material, such as methylmethacrylate, intended for use during endodontic therapy to fill the root canal of a tooth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II if chloroform is not used as an ingredient in the device. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class III if chloroform is used as an ingredient in the device. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any root canal filling resin described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a root canal filling resin described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other root canal filling resin shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50707, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3830   Endodontic paper point.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endodontic paper point is a device made of paper intended for use during endodontic therapy to dry, or apply medication to, the root canal of a tooth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3840   Endodontic silver point.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endodontic silver point is a device made of silver intended for use during endodontic therapy to fill permanently the root canal of a tooth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3850   Gutta percha.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Gutta percha is a device made from coagulated sap of certain tropical trees intended to fill the root canal of a tooth. The gutta percha is softened by heat and inserted into the root canal, where it hardens as it cools. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3890   Endodontic stabilizing splint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endodontic stabilizing splint is a device made of a material, such as titanium, intended to be inserted through the root canal into the upper or lower jaw bone to stabilize a tooth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3900   Posterior artificial tooth with a metal insert.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A posterior artificial tooth with a metal insert is a porcelain device with an insert made of austenitic alloys or alloys containing 75 percent or greater gold and metals of the platinum group intended to replace a natural tooth. The device is attached to surrounding teeth by a bridge and is intended to provide both an improvement in appearance and functional occlusion (bite). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38798, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3910   Backing and facing for an artificial tooth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A backing and facing for an artificial tooth is a device intended for use in fabrication of a fixed or removable dental appliance, such as a crown or bridge. The backing, which is made of gold, is attached to the dental appliance and supports the tooth-colored facing, which is made of porcelain or plastic. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3920   Porcelain tooth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A porcelain tooth is a prefabricated device made of porcelain powder for clinical use (§ 872.6660) intended for use in construction of fixed or removable prostheses, such as crowns and partial dentures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3930   Bone grafting material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Bone grafting material is a material such as hydroxyapatite, tricalcium phosphate, polylactic and polyglycolic acids, or collagen, that is intended to fill, augment, or reconstruct periodontal or bony defects of the oral and maxillofacial region.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for bone grafting materials that do not contain a drug that is a therapeutic biologic. The special control is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Dental Bone Grafting Material Devices.” (See § 872.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.)
</P>
<P>(2) Class III (premarket approval) for bone grafting materials that contain a drug that is a therapeutic biologic. Bone grafting materials that contain a drug that is a therapeutic biologic, such as biological response modifiers, require premarket approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> Devices described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 21949, Apr. 28, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3940   Total temporomandibular joint prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A total temporomandibular joint prosthesis is a device that is intended to be implanted in the human jaw to replace the mandibular condyle and augment the glenoid fossa to functionally reconstruct the temporomandibular joint.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before March 30, 1999, for any total temporomandibular joint prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before March 30, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to a total temporomandibular joint prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other total temporomandibular joint prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 65478, Dec. 20, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 71746, Dec. 30, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3950   Glenoid fossa prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A glenoid fossa prosthesis is a device that is intended to be implanted in the temporomandibular joint to augment a glenoid fossa or to provide an articulation surface for the head of a mandibular condyle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before March 30, 1999, for any glenoid fossa prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before March 30, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to a glenoid fossa prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other glenoid fossa prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 65478, Dec. 20, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 71746, Dec. 30, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3960   Mandibular condyle prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mandibular condyle prosthesis is a device that is intended to be implanted in the human jaw to replace the mandibular condyle and to articulate within a glenoid fossa.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before March 30, 1999, for any mandibular condyle prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before March 30, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to a mandibular condyle prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other mandibular condyle prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 65478, Dec. 20, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 71746, Dec. 30, 1998; 78 FR 79310, Dec. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3970   Interarticular disc prosthesis (interpositional implant).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An interarticular disc prosthesis (interpositional implant) is a device that is intended to be an interface between the natural articulating surface of the mandibular condyle and glenoid fossa.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before March 30, 1999, for any interarticular disc prosthesis (interpositional implant) that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before March 30, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to an interarticular disc prosthesis (interpositional implant) that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other interarticular disc prosthesis (interpositional implant) shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 65478, Dec. 20, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 71746, Dec. 30, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.3980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.4.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.3980   Endosseous dental implant accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Endosseous dental implant accessories are manually powered devices intended to aid in the placement or removal of endosseous dental implants and abutments, prepare the site for placement of endosseous dental implants or abutments, aid in the fitting of endosseous dental implants or abutments, aid in the fabrication of dental prosthetics, and be used as an accessory with endosseous dental implants when tissue contact will last less than 1 hour. These devices include drill bits, screwdrivers, countertorque devices, placement and removal tools, laboratory pieces used for fabrication of dental prosthetics, and trial abutments. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 60099, Oct. 10, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4120   Bone cutting instrument and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone cutting instrument and accessories is a metal device intended for use in reconstructive oral surgery to drill or cut into the upper or lower jaw and may be used to prepare bone to insert a wire, pin, or screw. The device includes the manual bone drill and wire driver, powered bone drill, rotary bone cutting handpiece, and AC-powered bone saw.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4130   Intraoral dental drill.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraoral dental drill is a rotary device intended to be attached to a dental handpiece to drill holes in teeth to secure cast or preformed pins to retain operative dental appliances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4200   Dental handpiece and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental handpiece and accessories is an AC-powered, water-powered, air-powered, or belt-driven, hand-held device that may include a foot controller for regulation of speed and direction of rotation or a contra-angle attachment for difficult to reach areas intended to prepare dental cavities for restorations, such as fillings, and for cleaning teeth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4465" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4465   Gas-powered jet injector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gas-powered jet injector is a syringe device intended to administer a local anesthetic. The syringe is powered by a cartridge containing pressurized carbon dioxide which provides the pressure to force the anesthetic out of the syringe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4475" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4475   Spring-powered jet injector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spring-powered jet injector is a syringe device intended to administer a local anesthetic. The syringe is powered by a spring mechanism which provides the pressure to force the anesthetic out of the syringe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4535" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4535   Dental diamond instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental diamond instrument is an abrasive device intended to smooth tooth surfaces during the fitting of crowns or bridges. The device consists of a shaft which is inserted into a handpiece and a head which has diamond chips imbedded into it. Rotation of the diamond instrument provides an abrasive action when it contacts a tooth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4565" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4565   Dental hand instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental hand instrument is a hand-held device intended to perform various tasks in general dentistry and oral surgery procedures. The device includes the operative burnisher, operative amalgam carrier, operative dental amalgam carver, surgical bone chisel, operative amalgam and foil condenser, endodontic curette, operative curette, periodontic curette, surgical curette, dental surgical elevator, operative dental excavator, operative explorer surgical bone file, operative margin finishing file, periodontic file, periodontic probe, surgical rongeur forceps, surgical tooth extractor forceps, surgical hemostat, periodontic hoe, operative matrix contouring instrument, operative cutting instrument, operative margin finishing periodontic knife, periodontic marker, operative pliers, endodontic root canal plugger, endodontic root canal preparer, surgical biopsy punch, endodontic pulp canal reamer, crown remover, periodontic scaler, collar and crown scissors, endodontic pulp canal filling material spreader, surgical osteotome chisel, endodontic broach, dental wax carver, endodontic pulp canal file, hand instrument for calculus removal, dental depth gauge instrument, plastic dental filling instrument, dental instrument handle, surgical tissue scissors, mouth mirror, orthodontic band driver, orthodontic band pusher, orthodontic band setter, orthodontic bracket aligner, orthodontic pliers, orthodontic ligature tucking instrument, forceps, for articulation paper, forceps for dental dressing, dental matrix band, matrix retainer, dental retractor, dental retractor accessories, periodontic or endodontic irrigating syringe, and restorative or impression material syringe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). If the device is made of the same materials that were used in the device before May 28, 1976, it is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4600   Intraoral ligature and wire lock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraoral ligature and wire lock is a metal device intended to constrict fractured bone segments in the oral cavity. The bone segments are stabilized by wrapping the ligature (wire) around the fractured bone segments and locking the ends together.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4620   Fiber optic dental light.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fiber optic dental light is a device that is a light, usually AC-powered, that consists of glass or plastic fibers which have special optical properties. The device is usually attached to a dental handpiece and is intended to illuminate a patient's oral structures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4630   Dental operating light.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental operating light, including the surgical headlight, is an AC-powered device intended to illuminate oral structures and operating areas. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4730   Dental injecting needle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental injecting needle is a slender, hollow metal device with a sharp point intended to be attached to a syringe to inject local anesthetics and other drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63008, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4760   Bone plate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone plate is a metal device intended to stabilize fractured bone structures in the oral cavity. The bone segments are attached to the plate with screws to prevent movement of the segments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4770   Temporary mandibular condyle reconstruction plate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A temporary mandibular condyle reconstruction plate is a device that is intended to stabilize mandibular bone and provide for temporary reconstruction of the mandibular condyle until permanent reconstruction is completed in patients who have undergone resective surgical procedures requiring removal of the mandibular condyle and mandibular bone. This device is not intended for treatment of temporomandibular joint disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device is FDA's guideline entitled “Temporary Mandibular Condyle Reconstruction Plate Class II Special Controls Guideline.” See § 872.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 79310, Dec. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4840   Rotary scaler.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rotary scaler is an abrasive device intended to be attached to a powered handpiece to remove calculus deposits from teeth during dental cleaning and periodontal (gum) therapy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4850   Ultrasonic scaler.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic scaler is a device intended for use during dental cleaning and periodontal (gum) therapy to remove calculus deposits from teeth by application of an ultrasonic vibrating scaler tip to the teeth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4880   Intraosseous fixation screw or wire.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraosseous fixation screw or wire is a metal device intended to be inserted into fractured jaw bone segments to prevent their movement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.4920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.4920   Dental electrosurgical unit and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental electrosurgical unit and accessories is an AC-powered device consisting of a controlled power source and a set of cutting and coagulating electrodes. This device is intended to cut or remove soft tissue or to control bleeding during surgical procedures in the oral cavity. An electrical current passes through the tip of the electrode into the tissue and, depending upon the operating mode selected, cuts through soft tissue or coagulates the tissue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5410   Orthodontic appliance and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An orthodontic appliance and accessories is a device intended for use in orthodontic treatment. The device is affixed to a tooth so that pressure can be exerted on the teeth. This device includes the preformed orthodontic band, orthodontic band material, orthodontic elastic band, orthodontic metal bracket, orthodontic wire clamp, preformed orthodontic space maintainer, orthodontic expansion screw retainer, orthodontic spring, orthodontic tube, and orthodontic wire.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5470   Orthodontic plastic bracket.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An orthodontic plastic bracket is a plastic device intended to be bonded to a tooth to apply pressure to a tooth from a flexible orthodontic wire to alter its position. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5500   Extraoral orthodontic headgear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extraoral orthodontic headgear is a device intended for use with an orthodontic appliance to exert pressure on the teeth from outside the mouth. The headgear has a strap intended to wrap around the patient's neck or head and an inner bow portion intended to be fastened to the orthodontic appliance in the patient's mouth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5525" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5525   Preformed tooth positioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed tooth positioner is a plastic device that is an impression of a perfected bite intended to prevent a patient's teeth from shifting position or to move teeth to a final position after orthodontic appliances (braces) have been removed. The patient bites down on the device for several hours a day to force the teeth into a final position or to maintain the teeth in their corrected position. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5550   Teething ring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A teething ring is a divice intended for use by infants for medical purposes to soothe gums during the teething process. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Classification.</I> Class I if the teething ring does not contain a fluid, such as water. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) if the teething ring contains a fluid, such as water. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 84 FR 71812, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5560   Electrical salivary stimulatory system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrical salivary stimulatory system is a prescription intraoral device that is intended to electrically stimulate a relative increase in saliva production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I>—Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that the device design, material composition, and electrical output characteristics are consistent with the intended use;
</P>
<P>(2) Any element of the device that contacts the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis and/or testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety, including the safety of any battery used in the device;
</P>
<P>(4) Software validation, verification, and hazard testing must be performed; and
</P>
<P>(5) Documented clinical experience must demonstrate safe and effective use for stimulating saliva production by addressing the risks of damage to intraoral tissue and of ineffective treatment and must capture any adverse events observed during clinical use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72586, Nov. 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5570   Intraoral devices for snoring and intraoral devices for snoring and obstructive sleep apnea.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Intraoral devices for snoring and intraoral devices for snoring and obstructive sleep apnea are devices that are worn during sleep to reduce the incidence of snoring and to treat obstructive sleep apnea. The devices are designed to increase the patency of the airway and to decrease air turbulence and airway obstruction. The classification includes palatal lifting devices, tongue retaining devices, and mandibular repositioning devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for these devices is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Intraoral Devices for Snoring and/or Obstructive Sleep Apnea; Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 68512, Nov. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5571" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5571   Auto titration device for oral appliances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An auto-titration device for oral appliances is a prescription home use device that determines a target position to be used for a final oral appliance for the reduction of snoring and mild to moderate obstructive sleep apnea.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance characteristics of the algorithm; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions for use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Validation of the closed loop algorithm;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical integrity over the expected use life;
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of maximum force, distance, and speed of device movement; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Movement accuracy of intraoral components.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate the wireless compatibility, electrical safety, and electromagnetic compatibility of the device in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for any reusable components.
</P>
<P>(7) Patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on device use, including placement of sensors and mouthpieces;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of all alarms; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for reprocessing any reusable components.
</P>
<P>(8) A human factors assessment must evaluate simulated use of the device in a home use setting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 5000, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5575" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5575   Neuromuscular tongue muscle stimulator for the reduction of snoring and obstructive sleep apnea.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neuromuscular tongue muscle stimulator for the reduction of snoring and obstructive sleep apnea consists of a removable intraoral mouthpiece that uses electrodes to deliver neuromuscular stimulation to the tongue to strengthen tongue musculature to reduce snoring and obstructive sleep apnea.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance testing must demonstrate the wireless compatibility, electrical safety, battery safety, and electromagnetic compatibility of the device in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on device components, setup, and use of the device including placement of sensors and mouthpieces, and images or illustrations;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of technical specifications;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions on how to clean and maintain the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the patient should maintain regular follow up visits with dentist and sleep specialist; and
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that patients should have a comprehensive dental examination prior to using this device.
</P>
<P>(5) A human factors assessment must evaluate simulated use of the device to demonstrate that the user can correctly use device based on the labeling and instructions for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 71154, Sept. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5580   Oral rinse to reduce the adhesion of dental plaque.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The device is assigned the generic name oral rinse to reduce the adhesion of dental plaque and is identified as a device intended to reduce the presence of bacterial plaque on teeth and oral mucosal surfaces by physical means. The device type includes those devices that act by reducing the attachment and inhibiting the growth of bacterial plaque.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Oral Rinse to Reduce the Adhesion of Dental Plaque.” See § 872.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 55028, Sept. 20, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.5590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.5590   Intraoral cooling device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraoral cooling device is a prescription use device that is intended to cool the mouth for patients to reduce the likelihood of oral mucositis. The device consists of a removable mouthpiece that cools the oral mucosal surfaces.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Thermal testing to evaluate cooling consistency and performance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing of the device to demonstrate material integrity.
</P>
<P>(2) Electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety testing must be performed for any electrical components.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed for any software components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the device specifications, including temperature cooling range and duration of cooling; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions to stop the use of the device if skin irritation or sensitivities develop, or if the device leaks or does not maintain its material integrity.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32344, June 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Miscellaneous Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6010   Abrasive device and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An abrasive device and accessories is a device constructed of various abrasives, such as diamond chips, that are glued to shellac-based paper. The device is intended to remove excessive restorative materials, such as gold, and to smooth rough surfaces from oral restorations, such as crowns. The device is attached to a shank that is held by a handpiece. The device includes the abrasive disk, guard for an abrasive disk, abrasive point, polishing agent strip, and polishing wheel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6030   Oral cavity abrasive polishing agent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oral cavity abrasive polishing agent is a device in paste or powder form that contains an abrasive material, such as silica pumice, intended to remove debris from the teeth. The abrasive polish is applied to the teeth by a handpiece attachment (prophylaxis cup). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6050   Saliva absorber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A saliva absorber is a device made of paper or cotton intended to absorb moisture from the oral cavity during dental procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6070   Ultraviolet activator for polymerization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultraviolet activator for polymerization is a device that produces ultraviolet radiation intended to polymerize (set) resinous dental pit and fissure sealants or restorative materials by transmission of light through a rod. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6080   Airbrush.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An airbrush is an AC-powered device intended for use in conjunction with articulation paper. The device uses air-driven particles to roughen the surfaces of dental restorations. Uneven areas of the restorations are then identified by use of articulation paper. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is International Electrotechnical Commission's IEC 60601-1-AM2 (1995-03), Amendment 2, “Medical Electrical Equipment—Part 1: General Requirements for Safety.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987; 52 FR 49250, Dec. 30, 1987, as amended at 71 FR 17144, Mar. 31, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6100   Anesthetic warmer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anesthetic warmer is an AC-powered device into which tubes containing anesthetic solution are intended to be placed to warm them prior to administration of the anesthetic. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 38900, July 28, 1995; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6140   Articulation paper.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Articulation paper is a device composed of paper coated with an ink dye intended to be placed between the patient's upper and lower teeth when the teeth are in the bite position to locate uneven or high areas. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6200   Base plate shellac.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Base plant shellac is a device composed of shellac intended to rebuild the occlusal rim of full or partial dentures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13830, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6250   Dental chair and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental chair and accessories is a device, usually AC-powered, in which a patient sits. The device is intended to properly position a patient to perform dental procedures. A dental operative unit may be attached. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The dental chair without the operative unit device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6290   Prophylaxis cup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prophylaxis cup is a device made of rubber intended to be held by a dental handpiece and used to apply polishing agents during prophylaxis (cleaning). The dental handpiece spins the rubber cup holding the polishing agent and the user applies it to the teeth to remove debris.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13831, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6300   Rubber dam and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rubber dam and accessories is a device composed of a thin sheet of latex with a hole in the center intended to isolate a tooth from fluids in the mouth during dental procedures, such as filling a cavity preparation. The device is stretched around a tooth by inserting a tooth through a hole in the center. The device includes the rubber dam, rubber dam clamp, rubber dam frame, and forceps for a rubber dam clamp. This classification does not include devices intended for use in preventing transmission of sexually transmitted diseases through oral sex; those devices are classified as condoms in § 884.5300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000, as amended at 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6350   Ultraviolet detector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultraviolet detector is a device intended to provide a source of ultraviolet light which is used to identify otherwise invisible material, such as dental plaque, present in or on teeth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6390   Dental floss.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Dental floss is a string-like device made of cotton or other fibers intended to remove plaque and food particles from between the teeth to reduce tooth decay. The fibers of the device may be coated with wax for easier use. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6475" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6475   Heat source for bleaching teeth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A heat source for bleaching teeth is an AC-powered device that consists of a light or an electric heater intended to apply heat to a tooth after it is treated with a bleaching agent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38799, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6510   Oral irrigation unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oral irrigation unit is an AC-powered device intended to provide a pressurized stream of water to remove food particles from between the teeth and promote good periodontal (gum) condition. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6570   Impression tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An impression tube is a device consisting of a hollow copper tube intended to take an impression of a single tooth. The hollow tube is filled with impression material. One end of the tube is sealed with a softened material, such as wax, the remaining end is slipped over the tooth to make the impression. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13831, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6640   Dental operative unit and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dental operative unit and accessories is an AC-powered device that is intended to supply power to and serve as a base for other dental devices, such as a dental handpiece, a dental operating light, an air or water syringe unit, and oral cavity evacuator, a suction operative unit, and other dental devices and accessories. The device may be attached to a dental chair. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except for dental operative unit, accessories are exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6650   Massaging pick or tip for oral hygiene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A massaging pick or tip for oral hygiene is a rigid, pointed device intended to be used manually to stimulate and massage the gums to promote good periodontal (gum) condition. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13831, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6660   Porcelain powder for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Porcelain powder for clinical use is a device consisting of a mixture of kaolin, felspar, quartz, or other substances intended for use in the production of artificial teeth in fixed or removable dentures, of jacket crowns, facings, and veneers. The device is used in prosthetic dentistry by heating the powder mixture to a high temperature in an oven to produce a hard prosthesis with a glass-like finish. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6670   Silicate protector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A silicate protector is a device made of silicone intended to be applied with an absorbent tipped applicator to the surface of a new restoration to exclude temporarily fluids from its surface. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13831, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6710   Boiling water sterilizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A boiling water sterilizer is an AC-powered device that consists of a container for boiling water. The device is intended to sterilize dental and surgical instruments by submersion in the boiling water in the container.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48439, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 66 FR 46952, Sept. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6730   Endodontic dry heat sterilizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endodontic dry heat sterilizer is a device intended to sterilize endodontic and other dental instruments by the application of dry heat. The heat is supplied through glass beads which have been heated by electricity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application</I> (<I>PMA</I>) <I>or notice of completion of product development protocol</I> (<I>PDP</I>) <I>is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before April 21, 1997, for any endodontic dry heat sterilizer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before April 21, 1997, been found to be substantially equivalent to the endodontic dry heat sterilizer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other endodontic dry heat sterilizer shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 62 FR 2902, Jan. 21, 1997; 62 FR 31512, June 10, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6770   Cartridge syringe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cartridge syringe is a device intended to inject anesthetic agents subcutaneously or intramuscularly. The device consists of a metal syringe body into which a disposable, previously filled, glass carpule (a cylindrical cartridge) containing anesthetic is placed. After attaching a needle to the syringe body and activating the carpule by partially inserting the plunger on the syringe, the device is used to administer an injection to the patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6855" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6855   Manual toothbrush.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual toothbrush is a device composed of a shaft with either natural or synthetic bristles at one end intended to remove adherent plaque and food debris from the teeth to reduce tooth decay. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13831, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55984, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6865" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6865   Powered toothbrush.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered toothbrush is an AC-powered or battery-powered device that consists of a handle containing a motor that provides mechanical movement to a brush intended to be applied to the teeth. The device is intended to remove adherent plaque and food debris from the teeth to reduce tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6866" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6866   Radiofrequency toothbrush.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiofrequency toothbrush is a device that consists of a handle containing a radiofrequency generator to deliver radiofrequency energy to a brush intended to be applied to the teeth. The device is intended to remove adherent plaque and food debris from the teeth to reduce tooth decay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested, and detailed protocols must be provided for each test conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) Validation of the radiofrequency performance specifications including output power, voltage output, radiofrequency, pulse cycle, waveform, and pulse duration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Temperature performance testing to evaluate the temperature change of the device, structures of the oral cavity (including skin, tissue, and dental restorations), and toothpaste under worst-case conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) An assessment of mechanical output specifications and physical properties including vibration frequency, tuft retention, brush head strength, and battery voltage; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Use life and durability testing.
</P>
<P>(2) A label comprehension and self-selection study must demonstrate that the intended user population can understand the package labeling and correctly choose the device for the indicated use.
</P>
<P>(3) Usability performance evaluation must demonstrate that the user can safely and correctly use the device, based solely on reading the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Electrical safety, thermal safety, mechanical safety, battery safety, and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on how the device operates, including images or illustrations;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the device technical specifications;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning which states that the use of this device is not a substitute for regular visits to a dentist for routine clinical care;
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions on how to clean and maintain the device; and
</P>
<P>(v) The use life and disposal of the components of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 72321, Sept. 5, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6870   Disposable fluoride tray.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A disposable fluoride tray is a device made of styrofoam intended to apply fluoride topically to the teeth. To use the tray, the patient bites down on the tray which has been filled with a fluoride solution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13831, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6880   Preformed impression tray.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed impression tray is a metal or plastic device intended to hold impression material, such as alginate, to make an impression of a patient's teeth or alveolar process (bony tooth sockets) to reproduce the structure of a patient's teeth and gums. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 13832, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 872.6890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.23.7.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 872.6890   Intraoral dental wax.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Intraoral dental wax is a device made of wax intended to construct patterns from which custom made metal dental prostheses, such as crowns and bridges, are cast. In orthodontic dentistry, the device is intended to make a pattern of a patient's bite to make study models of the teeth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 872.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 30097, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="874" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 874—EAR, NOSE, AND THROAT DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 874 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of ear, nose, and throat devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provision of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, an ear, nose, and throat device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed in one subpart only. 
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 67 FR 67790, Nov. 7, 2002; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1050   Audiometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An audiometer or automated audiometer is an electroacoustic device that produces controlled levels of test tones and signals intended for use in conducting diagnostic hearing evaluations and assisting in the diagnosis of possible otologic disorders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. Except for the otoacoustic emission device, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, if it is in compliance with American National Standard Institute S3.6-1996, “Specification for Audiometers,” and subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 64 FR 14831, Mar. 29, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1060   Acoustic chamber for audiometric testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An acoustic chamber for audiometric testing is a room that is intended for use in conducting diagnostic hearing evaluations and that eliminates sound reflections and provides isolation from outside sounds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1070   Short increment sensitivity index (SISI) adapter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A short increment sensitivity index (SISI) adapter is a device used with an audiometer in diagnostic hearing evaluations. A SISI adapter provides short periodic sound pulses in specific small decibel increments that are intended to be superimposed on the audiometer's output tone frequency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1080   Audiometer calibration set.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An audiometer calibration set is an electronic reference device that is intended to calibrate an audiometer. It measures the sound frequency and intensity characteristics that emanate from an audiometer earphone. The device consists of an acoustic cavity of known volume, a sound level meter, a microphone with calibration traceable to the National Bureau of Standards, oscillators, frequency counters, microphone amplifiers, and a recorder. The device can measure selected audiometer test frequencies at a given intensity level, and selectable audiometer attenuation settings at a given test frequency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 1121, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1090   Auditory impedance tester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An auditory impedance tester is a device that is intended to change the air pressure in the external auditory canal and measure and graph the mobility characteristics of the tympanic membrane to evaluate the functional condition of the middle ear. The device is used to determine abnormalities in the mobility of the tympanic membrane due to stiffness, flaccidity, or the presence of fluid in the middle ear cavity. The device is also used to measure the acoustic reflex threshold from contractions of the stapedial muscle, to monitor healing of tympanic membrane grafts or stapedectomies, or to monitor followup treatment for inflammation of the middle ear.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a tympanometer or auditory impedance tester that complies with FDA-recognized consensus standard ANSI S3.39, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1100   Earphone cushion for audiometric testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An earphone cushion for audiometric testing is a device that is used to cover an audiometer earphone during audiometric testing to provide an acoustic coupling (sound connection path) between the audiometer earphone and the patient's ear.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 9, 1986; 52 FR 18495, May 15, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 32111, Aug. 25, 1987; 65 FR 2315, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1120   Electronic noise generator for audiometric testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electronic noise generator for audiometric testing is a device that consists of a swept frequency generator, an amplifier, and an earphone. It is intended to introduce a masking noise into the non-test ear during an audiometric evaluation. The device minimizes the non-test ear's sensing of test tones and signals being generated for the ear being tested.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1325" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1325   Electroglottograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroglottograph is an AC-powered device that employs a pair of electrodes that are placed in contact with the skin on both sides of the larynx and held in place by a collar. It is intended to measure the electrical impedance of the larynx to aid in assessing the degree of closure of the vocal cords, confirm larygeal diagnosis, aid behavioral treatment of voice disorders, and aid research concerning the laryngeal mechanism.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1500   Gustometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gustometer is a battery-powered device that consists of two electrodes that are intended to be placed on both sides of the tongue at different taste centers and that provides a galvanic stimulus resulting in taste sensation. It is used for assessing the sense of taste.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1600   Olfactory test device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An olfactory test device is used to determine whether an olfactory loss is present. The device includes one or more odorants that are presented to the patient's nose to subjectively assess the patient's ability to perceive odors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for these devices is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Olfactory Test Device.” For the availability of this guidance document, see § 874.1(e). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9. When indicated for the screening or diagnosis of diseases or conditions other than the loss of olfactory function, the device is not exempt from premarket notification procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 32835, June 7, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1800   Air or water caloric stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An air or water caloric stimulator is a device that delivers a stream of air or water to the ear canal at controlled rates of flow and temperature and that is intended for vestibular function testing of a patient's body balance system. The vestibular stimulation of the semicircular canals produce involuntary eye movements that are measured and recorded by a nystagmograph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1820   Surgical nerve stimulator/locator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical nerve stimulator/locator is a device that is intended to provide electrical stimulation to the body to locate and identify nerves and to test their excitability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.1925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.1925   Toynbee diagnostic tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The toynbee diagnostic tube is a listening device intended to determine the degree of openness of the eustachian tube.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3300   Air-conduction hearing aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An air-conduction hearing aid is a wearable sound-amplifying device intended to compensate for impaired hearing that conducts sound to the ear through the air. An air-conduction hearing aid is subject to the requirements in § 800.30 or § 801.422 of this chapter, as applicable. The air-conduction hearing aid generic type excludes the group hearing aid or group auditory trainer, master hearing aid, and the tinnitus masker, regulated under §§ 874.3320, 874.3330, and 874.3400, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3302" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3302   Bone-conduction hearing aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone-conduction hearing aid is a wearable sound-amplifying device intended to compensate for impaired hearing and that conducts sound to the inner ear through the skull. The non-implantable components of a bone-conduction hearing aid, such as the external sound processor, are subject to the requirements in § 801.422 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3305" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3305   Wireless air-conduction hearing aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wireless air-conduction hearing aid is a wearable sound-amplifying device, intended to compensate for impaired hearing that incorporates wireless technology in its programming or use. A wireless air-conduction hearing aid is subject to the requirements in § 800.30 or § 801.422 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, and thermal safety of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must validate safety of exposure to non-ionizing radiation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must validate wireless technology functions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Premarket notification.</I> The wireless air-conduction hearing aid is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 34846, June 15, 2011, as amended at 87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3310   Hearing aid calibrator and analysis system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hearing aid calibrator and analysis system is an electronic reference device intended to calibrate and assess the electroacoustic frequency and sound intensity characteristics emanating from a hearing aid, master hearing aid, group hearing aid or group auditory trainer. The device consists of an acoustic complex of known cavity volume, a sound level meter, a microphone, oscillators, frequency counters, microphone amplifiers, a distoration analyzer, a chart recorder, and a hearing aid test box. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3315" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3315   Tympanic membrane contact hearing aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tympanic membrane contact hearing aid is a prescription wearable device that compensates for impaired hearing. Amplified sound is transmitted by vibrating the tympanic membrane through a transducer that is in direct contact with the tympanic membrane. A tympanic membrane contact hearing aid is subject to the requirements in § 801.422 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient contacting components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical integrity testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical and thermal safety testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reliability testing consistent with expected device life;
</P>
<P>(v) Electromagnetic compatibility testing; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Validation testing of device output and mechanical force applied to the tympanic membrane in a clinically appropriate model.
</P>
<P>(3) Clinical performance testing must characterize any adverse events observed during clinical use, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(4) Professional training must include the ear impression procedure, correct placement, fitting, monitoring, care, and maintenance of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the adverse events and effectiveness outcomes from the clinical performance testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed instructions on how to fit the device to the patient;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for periodic cleaning of any reusable components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information related to electromagnetic compatibility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Patient labeling that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A patient card that identifies if a patient has been fitted with any non-self- removable components of the device and provides relevant information in cases of emergency;
</P>
<P>(B) Information on how to correctly use and maintain the device;
</P>
<P>(C) The potential risks and benefits associated with the use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(D) Alternative treatments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3326, Jan. 21, 2015, as amended at 87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3320   Group hearing aid or group auditory trainer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A group hearing aid or group auditory trainer is a hearing aid that is intended for use in communicating simultaneously with one or more listeners having hearing impairment. The device is used with an associated transmitter microphone. It may be either monaural or binaural, and it provides coupling to the ear through either earphones or earmolds. The generic type of device includes three types of applications: hardwire systems, inductance loop systems, and wireless systems. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3325" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3325   Self-fitting air-conduction hearing aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A self-fitting air-conduction hearing aid is a wearable sound amplifying device that is intended to compensate for impaired hearing and incorporates technology, including software, that allows users to program their hearing aids. This technology integrates user input with a self-fitting strategy and enables users to independently derive and customize their hearing aid fitting and settings. A self-fitting air-conduction hearing aid is subject to the requirements in § 800.30 or § 801.422 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must evaluate the effectiveness of the self-fitting strategy.
</P>
<P>(2) Electroacoustic parameters, including maximum output limits, distortion levels, self-generated noise levels, latency, and frequency response, must be specified and tested.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) If the device incorporates wireless technology:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance testing must validate safety of exposure to non-ionizing radiation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance data must validate wireless technology functions.
</P>
<P>(6) Usability testing must demonstrate that users can correctly use the device as intended under anticipated conditions of use.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 57612, Oct. 28, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3330   Master hearing aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A master hearing aid is an electronic device intended to simulate a hearing aid during audiometric testing. It has adjustable acoustic output levels, such as those for gain, output, and frequency response. The device is used to select and adjust a person's wearable hearing aid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3340   Active implantable bone conduction hearing system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An active implantable bone conduction hearing system is a prescription device consisting of an implanted transducer, implanted electronics components, and an audio processor. The active implantable bone conduction hearing system is intended to compensate for conductive or mixed hearing losses by conveying amplified acoustic signals to the cochlea via mechanical vibrations on the skull bone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must characterize any adverse events observed during implantation and clinical use, and must also demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance data must validate force output in a clinically relevant model.
</P>
<P>(ii) Impact testing in a clinically relevant anatomic model must be performed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Mechanical integrity testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Reliability testing consistent with expected device life must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must demonstrate the wireless compatibility, electromagnetic compatibility, and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of clinical testing conducted with the device that includes a summary of device-related complications and adverse events;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(iii) A surgical guide for implantation, which includes instructions for imaging to assess bone dimensions;
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life, for device components provided sterile;
</P>
<P>(v) A patient identification card; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A patient user manual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 54009, Oct. 26, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3375   Battery-powered artificial larynx.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A battery-powered artificial larynx is an externally applied device intended for use in the absence of the larynx to produce sound. When held against the skin in the area of the voicebox, the device generates mechanical vibrations which resonate in the oral and nasal cavities and can be modulated by the tongue and lips in a normal manner, thereby allowing the production of speech. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3400   Tinnitus masker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tinnitus masker is an electronic device intended to generate noise of sufficient intensity and bandwidth to mask ringing in the ears or internal head noises. Because the device is able to mask internal noises, it is also used as an aid in hearing external noises and speech. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is patient labeling regarding: 
</P>
<P>(1) Hearing health care professional diagnosis, fitting of the device, and followup care, 
</P>
<P>(2) Risks, 
</P>
<P>(3) Benefits, 
</P>
<P>(4) Warnings for safe use, and 
</P>
<P>(5) Specifications. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 17145, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3410   Combined acoustic and electrical external stimulation device for the relief of tinnitus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A combined acoustic and electrical external stimulation device for the relief of tinnitus is a device that provides acoustic stimulation in the ear and external, electrical stimulation of sensory nerves to relieve tinnitus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate performance as intended under anticipated conditions for use including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of tinnitus symptoms using a validated method; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Verification of specified electrical stimulation parameters; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Verification of specified acoustic stimulation parameters, including maximum output limits, distortion levels, and frequency response.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, battery safety, and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Human factors testing must demonstrate that users can successfully use the device in the intended use environment based solely on its labeling and instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the device is intended to be prescribed by a healthcare professional with expertise in the evaluation and management of tinnitus;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information regarding emotional, psychological, and physical considerations for patient selection; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Device specifications, including the materials of patient-contacting components of the device, electrical output waveform, stimulation peak voltage and current, pulse duration, frequency, maximum current density, maximum phase charge, and power source.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 35140, June 10, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3430   Middle ear mold.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A middle ear mold is a preformed device that is intended to be implanted to reconstruct the middle ear cavity during repair of the tympanic membrane. The device permits an ample air-filled cavity to be maintained in the middle ear and promotes regeneration of the mucous membrane lining of the middle ear cavity. A middle ear mold is made of materials such as polyamide, polytetrafluoroethylene, silicone elastomer, or polyethylene, but does not contain porous polyethylene. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3450   Partial ossicular replacement prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A partial ossicular replacement prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted for the functional reconstruction of segments of the ossicular chain and facilitates the conduction of sound wave from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The device is made of materials such as stainless steel, tantalum, polytetrafluoroethylene, polyethylene, polytetrafluoroethylene with carbon fibers composite, absorbable gelatin material, porous polyethylene, or from a combination of these materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3495" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3495   Total ossicular replacement prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A total ossicular replacement prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted for the total functional reconstruction of the ossicular chain and facilitates the conduction of sound waves from the tympanic membrance to the inner ear. The device is made of materials such as polytetrafluoroethylene, polytetrafluoroethylene with vitreous carbon fibers composite, porous polyethylene, or from a combination of these materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3540   Prosthesis modification instrument for ossicular replacement surgery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prosthesis modification instrument for ossicular replacement surgery is a device intended for use by a surgeon to construct ossicular replacements. This generic type of device includes the ear, nose, and throat cutting block; wire crimper, wire bending die; wire closure forceps; piston cutting jib; gelfoam 
<SU>TM</SU> punch; wire cutting scissors; and ossicular finger vise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 9, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 32111, Aug. 25, 1987; 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3620   Ear, nose, and throat synthetic polymer material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Ear, nose, and throat synthetic polymer material is a device material that is intended to be implanted for use as a space-occupying substance in the reconstructive surgery of the head and neck. The device is used, for example, in augmentation rhinoplasty and in tissue defect closures in the esophagus. The device is shaped and formed by the suregon to conform to the patient's needs. This generic type of device is made of material such as polyamide mesh or foil and porous polyethylene.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3695" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3695   Mandibular implant facial prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mandibular implant facial prosthesis is a device that is intended to be implanted for use in the functional reconstruction of mandibular deficits. The device is made of materials such as stainless steel, tantalum, titanium, cobalt-chromium based alloy, polytetrafluoroethylene, silicone elastomer, polyethylene, polyurethane, or polytetrafluoroethylene with carbon fibers composite.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3730   Laryngeal prosthesis (Taub design).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A laryngeal prosthesis (Taub design) is a device intended to direct pulmonary air flow to the pharynx in the absence of the larynx, thereby permitting esophageal speech. The device is interposed between openings in the trachea and the esophagus and may be removed and replaced each day by the patient. During phonation, air from the lungs is directed to flow through the device and over the esophageal mucosa to provide a sound source that is articulated as speech.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a voice amplification device, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3760   Sacculotomy tack (Cody tack)</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sacculotomy tack (Cody tack) is a device that consists of a pointed stainless steel tack intended to be implanted to relieve the symptoms of vertigo. The device repetitively ruptures the utricular membrane as the membrane expands under increased endolymphatic pressure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3820   Endolymphatic shunt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endolymphatic shunt is a device that consists of a tube or sheet intended to be implanted to relieve the symptons of vertigo. The device permits the unrestricted flow of excess endolymph from the distended end of the endolymphatic system into the mastoid cavity where resorption occurs. This device is made of polytetrafluoroethylene or silicone elastomer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3850   Endolymphatic shunt tube with valve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endolymphatic shunt tube with valve is a device that consists of a pressure-limiting valve associated with a tube intended to be implanted in the inner ear to relieve symptoms of vertigo and hearing loss due to endolymphatic hydrops (increase in endolymphatic fluid) of Meniere's disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Endolymphatic Shunt Tube With Valve; Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20894, Apr. 29, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3880   Tympanostomy tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tympanostomy tube is a device that is intended to be implanted for ventilation or drainage of the middle ear. The device is inserted through the tympanic membrane to permit a free exchange of air between the outer ear and middle ear. A type of tympanostomy tube known as the malleous clip tube attaches to the malleous to provide middle ear ventilation. The device is made of materials such as polytetrafluoroethylene, polyethylene, silicon elastomer, or porous polyethylene. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3900   Nasal dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasal dilator is a device intended to provide temporary relief from transient causes of breathing difficulties resulting from structural abnormalities and/or transient causes of nasal congestion associated with reduced nasal airflow. The device decreases airway resistance and increases nasal airflow. The external nasal dilator is constructed from one or more layers of material upon which a spring material is attached, with a skin adhesive applied to adhere to the skin of the nose; it acts with a pulling action to open the nares. The internal nasal dilator is constructed from metal or plastic and is placed inside the nostrils; it acts by pushing the nostrils open or by gently pressing on the columella.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 10949, Mar. 8, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3930   Tympanostomy tube with semipermeable membrane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tympanostomy tube with a semipermeable membrane is a device intended to be implanted for ventilation or drainage of the middle ear and for preventing fluids from entering the middle ear cavity. The device is inserted through the tympanic membrane to permit a free exchange of air between the outer ear and middle ear. The tube portion of the device is made of silicone elastomer or porous polyethylene, and the membrane portion is made of polytetrafluoroethylene. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is FDA's “Tympanostomy Tubes, Submission Guidance for a 510(k).” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 17145, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.3950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.3950   Transcutaneous air conduction hearing aid system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcutaneous air conduction hearing aid system is a wearable sound-amplifying device intended to compensate for impaired hearing without occluding the ear canal. The device consists of an air conduction hearing aid attached to a surgically fitted tube system, which is placed through soft tissue between the post auricular region and the outer ear canal. A transcutaneous air conduction hearing aid system is subject to the requirements in § 801.422 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Transcutaneous Air Conduction Hearing Aid System (TACHAS); Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 874.1 for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67790, Nov. 7, 2002, as amended at 87 FR 50762, Aug. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4100   Epistaxis balloon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An epistaxis balloon is a device consisting of an inflatable balloon intended to control internal nasal bleeding by exerting pressure against the sphenopalatine artery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4140   Ear, nose, and throat bur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear, nose, and throat bur is a device consisting of an interchangeable drill bit that is intended for use in an ear, nose, and throat electric or pneumatic surgical drill (§ 874.4250) for incising or removing bone in the ear, nose, or throat area. The bur consists of a carbide cutting tip on a metal shank or a coating of diamond on a metal shank. The device is used in mastoid surgery, frontal sinus surgery, and surgery of the facial nerves. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38800, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4175   Nasopharyngeal catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasopharyngeal catheter is a device consisting of a bougie or filiform catheter that is intended for use in probing or dilating the eustachian tube. This generic type of device includes eustachian catheters. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4180   Eustachian tube balloon dilation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Eustachian tube balloon dilation system is a prescription device that includes a flexible catheter attached to an inflatable balloon. The system is intended for use in dilating the cartilaginous portion of the Eustachian tube for treating persistent Eustachian tube dysfunction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing, including tensile and flexural testing of catheter joints and materials.
</P>
<P>(ii) Durability testing, including fatigue and burst pressure testing of the balloon materials and components.
</P>
<P>(iii) Inflation and deflation characterization testing, including time and pressure measurements, and leak testing of the balloon.
</P>
<P>(iv) Verification testing of safety features built into the device must be performed, including the characterization of catheter geometries and distal tip insertion limitation mechanisms.
</P>
<P>(2) Simulated use testing in a clinically relevant model must demonstrate the reliability of the device to remain mechanically functional throughout the anticipated conditions of use, and validate that the design features limit access to only the cartilaginous portion of the Eustachian tube.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Training must include simulated use on cadavers to ensure users can follow the instructions for use to allow safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters, including maximum allowed inflation pressure, allowable catheter geometries, and available balloon sizes.
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 73041, Oct. 24, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4250   Ear, nose, and throat electric or pneumatic surgical drill.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear, nose, and throat electric or pneumatic surgical drill is a rotating drilling device, including the handpiece, that is intended to drive various accessories, such as an ear, nose, and throat bur (§ 874.4140), for the controlled incision or removal of bone in the ear, nose, and throat area. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4350   Ear, nose, and throat fiberoptic light source and carrier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear, nose, and throat fiberoptic light source and carrier is an AC-powered device that generates and transmits light through glass of plastic fibers and that is intended to provide illumination at the tip of an ear, nose, or throat endoscope. Endoscopic devices which utilize fiberoptic light sources and carriers include the bronchoscope, esophagoscope, laryngoscope, mediastinoscope, laryngeal-bronchial telescope, and nasopharyngoscope. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4420   Ear, nose, and throat manual surgical instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear, nose, and throat manual surgical instrument is one of a variety of devices intended for use in surgical procedures to examine or treat the bronchus, esophagus, trachea, larynx, pharynx, nasal and paranasal sinus, or ear. This generic type of device includes the esophageal dilator; tracheal bistour (a long, narrow surgical knife); tracheal dilator; tracheal hook; laryngeal injection set; laryngeal knife; laryngeal saw; laryngeal trocar; laryngectomy tube; adenoid curette; adenotome; metal tongue depressor; mouth gag; oral screw; salpingeal curette; tonsillectome; tonsil guillotine; tonsil screw; tonsil snare; tonsil suction tube; tonsil suturing hook; antom reforator; ethmoid curette; frontal sinus-rasp; nasal curette; nasal rasp; nasal rongeur; nasal saw; nasal scissors; nasal snare; sinus irrigator; sinus trephine; ear curette; ear excavator; ear rasp; ear scissor, ear snare; ear spoon; ear suction tube; malleous ripper; mastoid gauge; microsurgical ear chisel; myringotomy tube inserter; ossici holding clamp; sacculotomy tack inserter; vein press; wire ear loop; microrule; mirror; mobilizer; ear, nose, and throat punch; ear, nose and throat knife; and ear, nose, and throat trocar.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 9, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 32111, Aug. 25, 1987; 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000; 72 FR 17400, Apr. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4450   Powered insertion system for a cochlear implant electrode array.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered insertion system for a cochlear implant electrode array is a prescription device used to assist in placing an electrode array into the cochlea.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including evaluation of all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Verification of cochlear implant attachment force, release force, and insertion speed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing to demonstrate the device does not damage or degrade the cochlear implant (including the lead and array portions of the cochlear implant); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Comparison testing with manual insertion to evaluate:
</P>
<P>(A) Differences in cochlear implant array insertion force associated with use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(B) Intracochlear placement of the cochlear implant array (intended scala placement and array insertion depth, together with minimal array tip foldover and cochlear scala translocation).
</P>
<P>(3) Usability testing in a simulated hospital environment with an anatomically relevant model (<I>e.g.,</I> cadaver testing) that evaluates the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Successful use to aid in placement of the electrode array into the cochlea; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Harms caused by use errors observed.
</P>
<P>(4) Changes in cochlear implant compatibility are determined to significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device and must be validated through performance testing or a rationale for omission of any testing.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be sterile and non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance testing must support the shelf life of device components provided sterile by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(9) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed for any software components of the device.
</P>
<P>(10) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The recommended training for the safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Summary of the relevant clinical and non-clinical testing pertinent to use of the device with compatible electrode arrays; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 979, Jan. 6, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4490   Argon laser for otology, rhinology, and laryngology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The argon laser device for use in otology, rhinology, and laryngology is an electro-optical device which produces coherent, electromagnetic radiation with principal wavelength peaks of 488 and 514 nanometers. In otology, the device is used for the purpose of coagulating and vaporizing soft and fibrous tissues, including osseous tissue. In rhinology and laryngology, the device is used to coagulate and vaporize soft and fibrous tissues, but not including osseous tissues.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29534, May 21, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4500   Ear, nose, and throat microsurgical carbon dioxide laser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear, nose, and throat microsurgical carbon dioxide laser is a device intended for the surgical excision of tissue from the ear, nose, and throat area. The device is used, for example, in microsurgical procedures to excise lesions and tumors of the vocal cords and adjacent areas. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4680   Bronchoscope (flexible or rigid) and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bronchoscope (flexible or rigid) and accessories is a tubular endoscopic device with any of a group of accessory devices which attach to the bronchoscope and is intended to examine or treat the larynx and tracheobronchial tree. It is typically used with a fiberoptic light source and carrier to provide illumination. The device is made of materials such as stainless steel or flexible plastic. This generic type of device includes the rigid ventilating bronchoscope, rigid nonventilating bronchoscope, nonrigid bronchoscope, laryngeal-bronchial telescope, flexible foreign body claw, bronchoscope tubing, flexible biopsy forceps, rigid biopsy curette, flexible biopsy brush, rigid biopsy forceps, flexible biopsy curette, and rigid bronchoscope aspirating tube, but excludes the fiberoptic light source and carrier. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4710   Esophagoscope (flexible or rigid) and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophagoscope (flexible or rigid) and accessories is a tubular endoscopic device with any of a group of accessory devices which attach to the esophagoscope and is intended to examine or treat esophageal malfunction symptoms, esophageal or mediastinal disease, or to remove foreign bodies from the esophagus. When inserted, the device extends from the area of the hypopharynx to the stomach. It is typically used with a fiberoptic light source and carrier to provide illumination. The device is made of materials such as stainless steel or flexible plastic. This generic type of device includes the flexible foreign body claw, flexible biopsy forceps, rigid biopsy curette, flexible biopsy brush, rigid biopsy forceps and flexible biopsy curette, but excludes the fiberoptic light source and carrier. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4720   Mediastinoscope and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mediastinoscope and accessories is a tubular tapered electrical endoscopic device with any of a group of accessory devices which attach to the mediastinoscope and is intended to examine or treat tissue in the area separating the lungs. The device is inserted transthoracicly and is used in diagnosis of tumors and lesions and to determine whether excision of certain organs or tissues is indicated. It is typically used with a fiberoptic light source and carrier to provide illumination. The device is made of materials such as stainless steel. This generic type of device includes the flexible foreign body claw, flexible biopsy forceps, rigid biopsy curette, flexible biopsy brush, rigid biopsy forceps, and flexible biopsy curette, but excludes the fiberoptic light source and carrier.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4750   Laryngostroboscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A laryngostroboscope is a device that is intended to allow observation of glottic action during phonation. The device operates by focusing a stroboscopic light through a lens for direct or mirror reflected viewing of glottic action. The light and microphone that amplifies acoustic signals from the glottic area may or may not contact the patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4760   Nasopharyngoscope (flexible or rigid) and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasopharyngoscope (flexible or rigid) and accessories is a tubular endoscopic device with any of a group of accessory devices which attach to the nasopharyngoscope and is intended to examine or treat the nasal cavity and nasal pharynx. It is typically used with a fiberoptic light source and carrier to provide illumination. The device is made of materials such as stainless steel and flexible plastic. This generic type of device includes the antroscope, nasopharyngolaryngoscope, nasosinuscope, nasoscope, postrhinoscope, rhinoscope, salpingoscope, flexible foreign body claw, flexible biopsy forceps, rigid biopsy curette, flexible biospy brush, rigid biopsy forceps and flexible biopsy curette, but excludes the fiberoptic light source and carrier.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4770   Otoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An otoscope is a device intended to allow inspection of the external ear canal and tympanic membrane under magnification. The device provides illumination of the ear canal for observation by using an AC- or battery-powered light source and an optical magnifying system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9 only when used in the external ear canal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4780   Intranasal splint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intranasal splint is intended to minimize bleeding and edema and to prevent adhesions between the septum and the nasal cavity. It is placed in the nasal cavity after surgery or trauma. The intranasal splint is constructed from plastic, silicone, or absorbent material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 10949, Mar. 8, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.4800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.4800   Bone particle collector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone particle collector is a filtering device intended to be inserted into a suction tube during the early stages of otologic surgery to collect bone particles for future use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 10949, Mar. 8, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5220   Ear, nose, and throat drug administration device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear, nose, and throat drug administration device is one of a group of ear, nose, and throat devices intended specifically to administer medicinal substances to treat ear, nose, and throat disorders. These instruments include the powder blower, dropper, ear wick, manual nebulizer pump, and nasal inhaler.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001;90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025 ]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5300   Ear, nose, and throat examination and treatment unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear, nose, and throat examination and treatment unit is an AC-powered device intended to support a patient during an otologic examination while providing specialized features for examination and treatment. The unit consists of a patient chair and table, drawers for equipment, suction and blowing apparatus, and receptacles for connection of specialized lights and examining instruments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5350   Suction antichoke device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A suction antichoke device is a device intended to be used in an emergency situation to remove, by the application of suction, foreign objects that obstruct a patient's airway to prevent asphyxiation to the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP for a device is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 13, 1999 for any suction antichoke device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 13, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to a suction antichoke device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other suction antichoke device shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 64 FR 18329, Apr. 14, 1999; 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5370   Tongs antichoke device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tongs antichoke device is a device that is intended to be used in an emergency situation to grasp and remove foreign objects that obstruct a patient's airway to prevent asphyxiation of the patient. This generic type of device includes a plastic instrument with serrated ends that is inserted into the airway in a blind manner to grasp and extract foreign objects, and a stainless steel forceps with spoon ends that is inserted under tactile guidance to grasp and extract foreign objects from the airway. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP for a device is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 13, 1999 for any tongs antichoke device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 13, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to a tongs antichoke device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other tongs antichoke device shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 64 FR 18329, Apr. 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5550   Powered nasal irrigator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered nasal irrigator is an AC-powered device intended to wash the nasal cavity by means of a pressure-controlled pulsating stream of water. The device consists of a control unit and pump connected to a spray tube and nozzle. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5800   External nasal splint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external nasal splint is a rigid or partially rigid device intended for use externally for immobilization of parts of the nose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 9, 1986, as amended at 52 FR 32111, Aug. 25, 1987; 59 FR 63009, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5840   Antistammering device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An antistammering device is a device that electronically generates a noise when activated or when it senses the user's speech and that is intended to prevent the user from hearing the sounds of his or her own voice. The device is used to minimize a user's involuntary hesitative or repetitive speech. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 874.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 40389, Nov. 6, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5900   External upper esophageal sphincter compression device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external upper esophageal sphincter compression device is a prescription device used to apply external pressure on the cricoid cartilage for the purpose of reducing the symptoms of laryngopharyngeal reflux disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient contacting components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical integrity testing (<I>e.g.,</I> tensile strength testing, fatigue testing) and
</P>
<P>(ii) Shelf life testing.
</P>
<P>(3) The technical specifications must include pressure measurement accuracy to characterize device performance.
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical performance testing must document any adverse events observed during clinical use, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate warnings and precautions,
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to use of the device including a detailed summary of the device-related complications or adverse events,
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed instructions on how to fit the device to the patient, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components.
</P>
<P>(6) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Relevant warnings, precautions, and adverse effects/complications,
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how to correctly wear the device,
</P>
<P>(iii) The potential risks and benefits associated with the use of the device,
</P>
<P>(iv) Alternative treatments, and
</P>
<P>(v) Reprocessing instructions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 46194, Aug. 4, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.5950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.5950   Oropharyngeal electrical stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oropharyngeal electrical stimulator is a device that stimulates afferent nerve fibers of oropharyngeal mucosa. The device is intended to treat swallowing dysfunction. The device may incorporate a feeding tube.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Electrical output testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical integrity testing of electrical components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing to verify safe use of the electrical stimulator component in the presence of supplementary oxygen; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the device incorporates a feeding tube, feeding tube functionality testing, including mechanical integrity, liquid leakage, flow rate and connector compatibility.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate the sterility of the components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for any reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Software verification, validation and hazard analysis must be performed for any software components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of any electrical components.
</P>
<P>(8) A training program must be included with sufficient educational elements so that upon completion of the training program, the user can correctly operate the device.
</P>
<P>(9) Usability testing must demonstrate that the device can be correctly used as per training and labeling.
</P>
<P>(10) The labeling must include a shelf life for any sterile components.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32346, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 874.6000" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.24.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 874.6000   Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator for the relief of congestion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator for the relief of congestion is a device that electrically stimulates the skin overlying the paranasal sinuses to relieve congestion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including electrical stimulation parameters that must be specified and verified.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, battery safety, and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Human factors testing must demonstrate that users can successfully use the device in the intended use environment based solely on its labeling and instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including images that demonstrate how to use the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Device specifications, including the number of channels, output waveform, stimulation peak voltage and current, pulse duration, frequency, maximum current density, maximum phase charge, and power source; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explanations of the user-interface components.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 20350, Apr. 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="876" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 876—GASTROENTEROLOGY-UROLOGY DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 876 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 876.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of gastroenterology-urology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a gastroenterology-urology device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed only in one subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987; 52 FR 22577, June 12, 1987, as amended at 69 FR 77623, Dec. 28, 2004; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17737, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2316, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1050   Endoscopic transhepatic venous access needle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic transhepatic venous access needle is inserted through the liver into the patient's portal/hepatic venous system under endoscopic ultrasound guidance. It is connected to a separate device intended to measure a physiological parameter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must support the shelf life of device components provided sterile by demonstrating continued sterility and package integrity over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Needle crumple testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tensile testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Dimensional verification for all components; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Simulated use testing.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including specific instructions regarding device preparation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The recommended training for safe use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life for any sterile components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 71145, Dec. 15, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1075" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1075   Gastroenterology-urology biopsy instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastroenterology-urology biopsy instrument is a device used to remove, by cutting or aspiration, a specimen of tissue for microscopic examination. This generic type of device includes the biopsy punch, gastrointestinal mechanical biopsy instrument, suction biopsy instrument, gastro-urology biopsy needle and needle set, and nonelectric biopsy forceps. This section does not apply to biopsy instruments that have specialized uses in other medical specialty areas and that are covered by classification regulations in other parts of the device classification regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the biopsy forceps cover and the non-electric biopsy forceps. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1080   Gastroenterology-urology accessories to a biopsy instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastroenterology-urology accessory to a biopsy instrument is an accessory used to remove a specimen of tissue for microscopic examination by cutting or aspiration. This generic type of device includes a syringe for specimen aspiration and a biopsy channel adaptor. This device does not include accessories to biopsy instruments used in other medical specialty areas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14869, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1300   Ingestible telemetric gastrointestinal capsule imaging system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ingestible telemetric gastrointestinal capsule imaging system is used for visualization of the small bowel mucosa as an adjunctive tool in the detection of abnormalities of the small bowel. The device captures images of the small bowel with a wireless camera contained in a capsule. This device includes an ingestible capsule (containing a light source, camera, transmitter, and battery), an antenna array, a receiving/recording unit, a data storage device, computer software to process the images, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance, “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Ingestible Telemetric Gastrointestinal Capsule Imaging Systems; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 3433, Jan. 24, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1310   Magnetically maneuvered capsule endoscopy system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A magnetically maneuvered capsule endoscopy system consists of an ingestible capsule and magnetic controller and is used for visualization of the stomach and duodenum. The ingestible capsule contains a camera that wirelessly captures images of the mucosa. The magnetic controller is used outside of the patient and is magnetically coupled with the capsule to control its location and viewing direction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing with the device under anticipated conditions of use must evaluate visualization of the intended region and document the adverse event profile.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical testing data must demonstrate the optical, mechanical, and functional integrity of the device under physically stressed conditions. The following performance characteristics must be tested, and detailed protocols must be provided for each test:
</P>
<P>(i) A bite test must be performed to ensure that the capsule can withstand extreme cases of biting;
</P>
<P>(ii) A pH resistance test must be performed to evaluate integrity of the capsule when exposed to a physiological relevant range of pH values;
</P>
<P>(iii) A battery life test must be performed to demonstrate that the capsule's operating time is not constrained by the battery capacity;
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life test must be performed to demonstrate that the device performs as intended at the proposed shelf life date;
</P>
<P>(v) Optical testing must be performed to evaluate fundamental image quality characteristics such as resolution, field of view, depth of field, geometric distortion, signal to noise ratio, dynamic range, and image intensity uniformity;
</P>
<P>(vi) A color performance test must be performed to compare the color differences between the input scene and output image;
</P>
<P>(vii) A photobiological safety analysis must be performed based on maximum (worst-case) light exposure to internal gastrointestinal mucosa, and covering ultraviolet, visible, and near-infrared ranges, as appropriate. A mitigation analysis must be provided;
</P>
<P>(viii) Performance testing must demonstrate that the viewing software clearly presents the current frame rate, which is either adjustable manually by the user or automatically by the device. Testing must demonstrate that the viewing software alerts the user when the video quality is reduced from nominal due to imaging data communication or computation problems;
</P>
<P>(ix) A data transmission test must be performed to verify the robustness of the data transmission between the capsule and the receiver. This test must include controlled signal attenuation for simulating a non-ideal environment; and
</P>
<P>(x) Magnetic field strength testing characterization must be performed to identify the distances from the magnet that are safe for patients and users with ferromagnetic implants, devices, or objects.
</P>
<P>(3) Software validation, verification, and hazard analysis must be provided.
</P>
<P>(4) Electrical safety, thermal safety, mechanical safety, and electromagnetic compatibility testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of any device components labeled sterile.
</P>
<P>(8) Human factors testing must demonstrate that the intended users can safely and correctly use the device, based solely on reading the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(9) Clinician labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions and the clinical and technical expertise needed for the safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to use of the device, including information on effectiveness and device- and procedure-related complications;
</P>
<P>(iii) The patient preparation procedure;
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(v) Magnetic field safe zones;
</P>
<P>(vi) A screening checklist to ensure that all patients and operating staff are screened from bringing ferromagnetic implants, devices, or objects near the external magnet;
</P>
<P>(vii) Reprocessing instructions for reusable components;
</P>
<P>(viii) Shelf life for single use components; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Use life for reusable components.
</P>
<P>(10) Patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of the device and the mechanism of operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The patient preparation procedure;
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief summary of the clinical study; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the device- and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 26993, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1330   Colon capsule endoscopy system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prescription, single-use ingestible capsule designed to acquire video images during natural propulsion through the digestive system. It is specifically designed to visualize the colon for the detection of polyps. It is intended for use only in patients who had an incomplete optical colonoscopy with adequate preparation, and a complete evaluation of the colon was not technically possible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The capsule must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical testing data must demonstrate the mechanical and functional integrity of the device under physically stressed conditions. The following performance characteristics must be tested and detailed protocols must be provided for each test:
</P>
<P>(i) Bite test to ensure that the capsule can withstand extreme cases of biting.
</P>
<P>(ii) pH resistance test to evaluate integrity of the capsule when exposed to a range of pH values.
</P>
<P>(iii) Battery life test to demonstrate that the capsule's operating time is not constrained by the battery capacity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Shelf-life testing to demonstrate that the device performs as intended at the proposed shelf-life date.
</P>
<P>(v) Optical testing to evaluate fundamental image quality characteristics such as resolution, field of view, depth of field, distortion, signal-to-noise ratio, uniformity, and image artifacts. A test must be performed to evaluate the potential of scratches, caused by travelling through the gastrointestinal tract, on the transparent window of the capsule and their impact on the optical and color performance.
</P>
<P>(vi) An optical safety analysis must be performed based on maximum (worst-case) light exposure to internal gastrointestinal mucosa, and covering ultraviolet, visible, and near-infrared ranges, as appropriate. A mitigation analysis must be provided.
</P>
<P>(vii) A color performance test must be provided to compare the color differences between the input scene and output image.
</P>
<P>(viii) The video viewer must clearly present the temporal or spatial relationship between any two frames as a real-time lapse or a travel distance. The video viewer must alert the user when the specific video interval is captured at a frame rate lower than the nominal one due to communication errors.
</P>
<P>(ix) A performance test evaluating the latency caused by any adaptive algorithm such as adjustable frame rate must be provided.
</P>
<P>(x) If the capsule includes a localization module, a localization performance test must be performed to verify the accuracy and precision of locating the capsule position within the colon.
</P>
<P>(xi) A data transmission test must be performed to verify the robustness of the data transmission between the capsule and the recorder. Controlled signal attenuation should be included for simulating a non-ideal environment.
</P>
<P>(xii) Software validation, verification, and hazards analysis must be provided.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Electrical equipment safety, including thermal and mechanical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) testing must be performed. If the environments of intended use include locations outside of hospitals and clinics, appropriate higher immunity test levels must be used. Labeling must include appropriate EMC information.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Information demonstrating immunity from wireless hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) The clinical performance characteristics of the device for the detection of colon polyps must be established. Demonstration of the performance characteristics must include assessment of positive percent agreement and negative percent agreement compared to a clinically acceptable alternative structural imaging method.
</P>
<P>(4) Clinician labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions and the clinical and technical expertise needed for the safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to use of the device, including the percentage of patients in which a polyp was correctly identified by capsule endoscopy, but also the percent of patients in which the capsule either missed or falsely identified a polyp with respect to the clinically acceptable alternative structural imaging method.
</P>
<P>(iii) The colon cleansing procedure.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(vi) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of the device and the mechanism of operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient preparation procedure.
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief summary of the clinical study. The summary should not only include the percentage of patients in which a polyp was correctly identified by capsule endoscopy, but also the percent of patients in which the capsule either missed or falsely identified a polyp with respect to the clinically acceptable alternative structural imaging method.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the device- and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28403, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1390   Ingestible gastrointestinal blood detection capsule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ingestible gastrointestinal blood detection capsule device is a prescription device that uses spectrophotometry (light absorption technology) to detect the presence or absence of blood in the gastrointestinal tract.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must evaluate:
</P>
<P>(i) Detection of presence or absence of blood when compared to endoscopic procedures used to detect upper gastrointestinal bleeding;
</P>
<P>(ii) Capsule excretion and recovery; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Dimensional testing must verify device dimensions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance testing must verify functional aspects of the device design;
</P>
<P>(iii) Battery life testing must be performed to demonstrate the capsule's operating time is not constrained by the battery capacity;
</P>
<P>(iv) Leak testing must verify device integrity under worst-case clinical conditions;
</P>
<P>(v) Bite testing must demonstrate that the device can withstand bite forces;
</P>
<P>(vi) pH resistance testing must evaluate integrity of the capsule when exposed to a physiological relevant range of pH values;
</P>
<P>(vii) Control and monitoring of capsule bioburden must demonstrate the device does not pose an infection risk; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Blood detection testing must demonstrate that the device can detect different forms of blood seen under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(3) Software validation, verification, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Electrical safety, thermal safety, mechanical safety, and electromagnetic compatibility testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Usability assessment must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(6) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance testing must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued package integrity and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(8) Physician labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to use of the device, including information on effectiveness and device- and procedure-related complications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warning that the device is not a standalone diagnostic device and does not replace clinical decision making; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<P>(9) Patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of the device and the mechanism of operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The patient preparation procedure;
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief summary of the clinical study; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the device- and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 36521, June 17, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1400   Stomach pH electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stomach pH electrode is a device used to measure intragastric and intraesophageal pH (hydrogen ion concentration). The pH electrode is at the end of a flexible lead which may be inserted into the esophagus or stomach through the patient's mouth. The device may include an integral gastrointestinal tube.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1450   Esophageal tissue characterization system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophageal tissue characterization system is a device intended for obtaining measurements of electrical properties within esophageal tissue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) All patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate the device can accurately measure the designated electrical characteristics.
</P>
<P>(3) Mechanical safety testing must demonstrate that the device will withstand forces encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety, mechanical safety, and thermal safety of the device must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for any reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions regarding the proper placement and use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An expiration date for single use components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 68399, Dec. 2, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1500   Endoscope and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscope and accessories is a device used to provide access, illumination, and allow observation or manipulation of body cavities, hollow organs, and canals. The device consists of various rigid or flexible instruments that are inserted into body spaces and may include an optical system for conveying an image to the user's eye and their accessories may assist in gaining access or increase the versatility and augment the capabilities of the devices. Examples of devices that are within this generic type of device include cleaning accessories for endoscopes, photographic accessories for endoscopes, nonpowered anoscopes, binolcular attachments for endoscopes, pocket battery boxes, flexible or rigid choledochoscopes, colonoscopes, diagnostic cystoscopes, cystourethroscopes, enteroscopes, esophagogastroduodenoscopes, rigid esophagoscopes, fiberoptic illuminators for endoscopes, incandescent endoscope lamps, biliary pancreatoscopes, proctoscopes, resectoscopes, nephroscopes, sigmoidoscopes, ureteroscopes, urethroscopes, endomagnetic retrievers, cytology brushes for endoscopes, and lubricating jelly for transurethral surgical instruments. This section does not apply to endoscopes that have specialized uses in other medical specialty areas and that are covered by classification regulations in other parts of the device classification regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I>—(1) <I>Class II (special controls).</I> The device, when it is an endoscope disinfectant basin, which consists solely of a container that holds disinfectant and endoscopes and accessories; an endoscopic magnetic retriever intended for single use; sterile scissors for cystoscope intended for single use; a disposable, non-powered endoscopic grasping/cutting instrument intended for single use; a diagnostic incandescent light source; a fiberoptic photographic light source; a routine fiberoptic light source; an endoscopic sponge carrier; a xenon arc endoscope light source; an endoscope transformer; an LED light source; or a gastroenterology-urology endoscopic guidewire, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the photographic accessories for endoscope, miscellaneous bulb adapter for endoscope, binocular attachment for endoscope, eyepiece attachment for prescription lens, teaching attachment, inflation bulb, measuring device for panendoscope, photographic equipment for physiologic function monitor, special lens instrument for endoscope, smoke removal tube, rechargeable battery box, pocket battery box, bite block for endoscope, and cleaning brush for endoscope. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001; 83 FR 25914, June 5, 2018; 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1510   Anchored esophageal sheath.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anchored esophageal sheath is a device used to provide an endoluminal pathway to facilitate insertion of an endoscope or other compatible device into the upper gastrointestinal tract. A distal anchor assists in keeping the sheath in place to facilitate positioning of the endoscope or other compatible device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing must verify all dimensions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing must demonstrate that insertion and removal of any device from the anchored esophageal sheath does not damage the shaft wall or exert force that would cause tissue injury;
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing must demonstrate that the anchoring component can be reliably actuated;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testing must demonstrate compatibility with any other device that the anchored esophageal sheath is intended to be used with; and
</P>
<P>(v) Testing must demonstrate device integrity and functionality in simulated gastric conditions under clinically anticipated forces.
</P>
<P>(3) Simulated use testing using an anatomically accurate gastrointestinal model must demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(i) The device can be inserted and removed safely;
</P>
<P>(ii) The device remains anchored in place;
</P>
<P>(iii) The device can be safely withdrawn after releasing the anchor; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The device location and anchoring status can be observed by the intended user.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate continued device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information as to whether the device can be used for foreign body removal or with instruments alongside the endoscope;
</P>
<P>(ii) Steps needed to prevent injury to the esophagus or gastroesophageal junction (GEJ) during placement, anchoring, and use of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any visualization steps required to confirm the device's placement prior to and after actuating the anchoring component at the GEJ;
</P>
<P>(iv) A precaution to avoid excessive force during insertion;
</P>
<P>(v) Identification of any endoscopes or other devices that have been validated for use with the anchored esophageal sheath; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An expiration date or shelf life.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 54232, Nov. 26, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1520   Gastrointestinal lesion software detection system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastrointestinal lesion software detection system is a computer-assisted detection device used in conjunction with endoscopy for the detection of abnormal lesions in the gastrointestinal tract. This device with advanced software algorithms brings attention to images to aid in the detection of lesions. The device may contain hardware to support interfacing with an endoscope.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including detection of gastrointestinal lesions and evaluation of all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Standalone algorithm performance testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pixel-level comparison of degradation of image quality due to the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assessment of video delay due to marker annotation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assessment of real-time endoscopic video delay due to the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Usability assessment must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety, mechanical safety, and thermal safety testing for any hardware components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be provided. Software description must include a detailed, technical description including the impact of any software and hardware on the device's functions, the associated capabilities and limitations of each part, the associated inputs and outputs, mapping of the software architecture, and a description of the video signal pipeline.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including a detailed description of the device and compatibility information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings to avoid overreliance on the device, that the device is not intended to be used for diagnosis or characterization of lesions, and that the device does not replace clinical decision making;
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device, including detailed definitions of the study endpoints and statistical confidence intervals; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the standalone performance testing and associated statistical analysis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 10, Jan. 3, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1530   Endoscopic light-projecting measuring device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic light-projecting measuring device projects light on a mucosal surface and uses software to determine the dimensions of observable features of interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must evaluate:
</P>
<P>(i) Visualization during the procedure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ease of procedure as reported by the intended user; and
</P>
<P>(iii) User acceptability of imaging time.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Accuracy validation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Endoscope compatibility testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Battery life testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Durability testing; and
</P>
<P>(v) Light safety testing.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(7) Methods and instructions for reprocessing reusable components must be validated.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Device technical parameters, including a description of the accuracy of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information regarding endoscope compatibility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Warning for light hazards and protection for patient and operator; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Validated reprocessing instructions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 36981, June 22, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1620   Urodynamics measurement system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urodynamics measurement system is a device used to measure volume and pressure in the urinary bladder when it is filled through a catheter with carbon dioxide or water. The device controls the supply of carbon dioxide or water and may also record the electrical activity of the muscles associated with urination. The device system may include transducers, electronic signal conditioning and display equipment, a catheter withdrawal device to enable a urethral pressure profile to be obtained, and special catheters for urethral profilometry and electrodes for electromyography. This generic type of device includes the cystometric gas (carbon dioxide) device, the cystometric hydrualic device, and the electrical recording cystometer, but excludes any device that uses air to fill the bladder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1725" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1725   Gastrointestinal motility monitoring system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastrointestinal motility monitoring system is a device used to measure peristalic activity or pressure in the stomach or esophagus by means of a probe with transducers that is introduced through the mouth into the gastrointestinal tract. The device may include signal conditioning, amplifying, and recording equipment. This generic type of device includes the esophageal motility monitor and tube, the gastrointestinal motility (electrical) system, and certain accessories, such as a pressure transducer, amplifier, and external recorder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1735" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1735   Electrogastrography system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrogastrography system (EGG) is a device used to measure gastric myoelectrical activity as an aid in the diagnosis of gastric motility disorders. The device system includes the external recorder, amplifier, skin electrodes, strip chart, cables, analytical software, and other accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (Special Controls). The special controls are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, distribution and use of this device are restricted to prescription use in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling must include specific instructions:
</P>
<P>(i) To describe proper patient set-up prior to the start of the test, including the proper placement of electrodes;
</P>
<P>(ii) To describe how background data should be gathered and used to eliminate artifact in the data signal;
</P>
<P>(iii) To describe the test protocol (including the measurement of baseline data) that may be followed to obtain the EGG signal; and
</P>
<P>(iv) To explain how data results may be interpreted.
</P>
<P>(3) The device design should ensure that the EGG signal is distinguishable from background noise that may interfere with the true gastric myoelectric signal.
</P>
<P>(4) Data should be collected to demonstrate that the device has adequate precision and the EGG signal is reproducible and is interpretable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 51444, Sept. 23, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.1800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.1800   Urine flow or volume measuring system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urine flow or volume measuring system is a device that measures directly or indirectly the volume or flow of urine from a patient, either during the course of normal urination or while the patient is catheterized. The device may include a drip chamber to reduce the risk of retrograde bacterial contamination of the bladder and a transducer and electrical signal conditioning and display equipment. This generic type of device includes the electrical urinometer, mechanical urinometer, nonelectric urinometer, disposable nonelectric urine flow rate measuring device, and uroflowmeter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Monitoring Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.2040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.2040   Enuresis alarm.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An enuresis alarm is a device intended for use in treatment of bedwetting. Through an electrical trigger mechanism, the device sounds an alarm when a small quantity of urine is detected on a sensing pad. This generic type of device includes conditioned response enuresis alarms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.2050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.2050   Prostate lesion documentation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prostate lesion documentation system is a prescription device intended for use in producing an image of the prostate as an aid in documenting prostate abnormalities previously identified during a digital rectal examination. The device uses pressure sensors and image reconstruction software to produce a prostate image that highlights regional differences in intraprostatic tissue elasticity or stiffness. The device is limited to use as a documentation tool and is not intended for diagnostic purposes or for influencing any clinical decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical and clinical performance testing must demonstrate the accuracy and reproducibility of the constructed image.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate analysis/testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, thermal safety, and mechanical safety.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) All elements of the device that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components must be properly validated.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling must include specific information needed to ensure proper use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72900, Nov. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.2100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.2100   Pressure ulcer management tool.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pressure ulcer management tool is a prescription device intended for patients at risk of developing pressure ulcers. The device provides output that supports a user's decision to increase intervention. The device is an adjunct tool for pressure ulcer management that is not intended for detection or diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 70735, Dec. 13, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.3350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.3350   Penile inflatable implant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A penile inflatable implant is a device that consists of two inflatable cylinders implanted in the penis, connected to a reservoir filled with radiopaque fluid implanted in the abdomen, and a subcutaneous manual pump implanted in the scrotum. When the cylinders are inflated, they provide rigidity to the penis. This device is used in the treatment of erectile impotence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 11, 2000, for any penile inflatable implant that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 11, 2000, been found to be substantially equivalent to a penile inflatable implant that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other penile inflatable implant shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 19658, Apr. 12, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.3500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.3500   Penile implant surgical accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Penile implant surgical accessories are manual devices designed to be used for surgical procedures associated with the implantation of a penile inflatable implant or penile rigidity implant. This generic type of device includes the cylinder sizer, cylinder insertion tool and needle, device placement tool, connector assembly tool, incision closing tool, corporeal dilator, tubing passer, measurement tool or tape, tubing plug, blunt needle, and hemostat shod tubing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14869, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.3630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.3630   Penile rigidity implant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A penile rigidity implant is a device that consists of a pair of semi-rigid rods implanted in the corpora cavernosa of the penis to provide rigidity. It is intended to be used in men diagnosed as having erectile dysfunction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is the FDA guidance entitled “Guidance for the Content of Premarket Notifications for Penile Rigidity Implants.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 4882, Feb. 2, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.3750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.3750   Testicular prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A testicular prosthesis is an implanted device that consists of a solid or gel-filled silicone rubber prosthesis that is implanted surgically to resemble a testicle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 5, 1995, for any testicular prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before July 5, 1995, been found to be substantially equivalent to a testicular prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other testicular prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 60 FR 17216, Apr. 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4020   Fiberoptic light ureteral catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fiberoptic light ureteral catheter is a device that consists of a fiberoptic bundle that emits light throughout its length and is shaped so that it can be inserted into the ureter to enable the path of the ureter to be seen during lower abdominal or pelvic surgery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4270   Colostomy rod.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A colostomy rod is a device used during the loop colostomy procedure. A loop of colon is surgically brought out through the abdominal wall and the stiff colostomy rod is placed through the loop temporarily to keep the colon from slipping back through the surgical opening. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4300   Endoscopic electrosurgical unit and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic electrosurgical unit and accessories is a device used to perform electrosurgical procedures through an endoscope. This generic type of device includes the electrosurgical generator, patient plate, electric biopsy forceps, electrode, flexible snare, electrosurgical alarm system, electrosurgical power supply unit, electrical clamp, self-opening rigid snare, flexible suction coagulator electrode, patient return wristlet, contact jelly, adaptor to the cord for transurethral surgical instruments, the electric cord for transurethral surgical instruments, and the transurethral desiccator. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4310   Endoscopic electrosurgical clip cutting system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic electrosurgical clip cutting system is a prescription device that applies electrical energy to fragment metallic clips, which are devices placed in the digestive tract to close gastrointestinal perforations, hemorrhages, or perform resection. The system includes instruments that are then used to remove the fragmented clips from the digestive tract.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance bench testing to evaluate the functionality (including stress, compatibility, usability, and reliability) of the device during use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical and thermal safety testing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Electromagnetic compatibility testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Animal testing must evaluate tissue damage, including thermal effects, during the clip removal procedure. This testing must also evaluate usability and effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device (or the sterile components), package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling of the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life for single use components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 27703, June 14, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4330   Endoscopic pancreatic debridement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic pancreatic debridement device is inserted via an endoscope and placed through a cystogastrostomy fistula into the pancreatic cavity. It is intended for removal of necrotic tissue from a walled off pancreatic necrosis (WOPN) cavity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including evaluation of debridement of walled off pancreatic necrosis and all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must support the shelf life of device components provided sterile by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing of rotational speeds and vacuum pressure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Functional testing including testing with all device components and the ability to torque the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Functional testing in a relevant tissue model to demonstrate the ability to resect and remove tissue.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(9) Training must be provided so that upon completion of the training program, the user can resect and remove tissue of interest while preserving non-target tissue.
</P>
<P>(10) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use, including the creation of a conduit for passage of endoscope and device into a walled off pancreatic necrotic cavity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Unless clinical performance data demonstrates that it can be removed or modified, a boxed warning stating that the device should not be used in patients with known or suspected pancreatic cancer;
</P>
<P>(iv) The recommended training for safe use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life for any sterile components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 72986, Sept. 9, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4340   High intensity ultrasound system for prostate tissue ablation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A high intensity ultrasound system for prostate tissue ablation is a prescription device that transmits high intensity therapeutic ultrasound energy into the prostate to thermally ablate a defined, targeted volume of tissue, performed under imaging guidance. This classification does not include devices that are intended for the treatment of any specific prostate disease and does not include devices that are intended to ablate non-prostatic tissues/organs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of acoustic pressure and power output at clinically relevant levels;
</P>
<P>(ii) Measurement of targeting accuracy and reproducibility of high intensity ultrasound output;
</P>
<P>(iii) Ultrasound-induced heating verification testing at target and non-target tissues;
</P>
<P>(iv) Electrical safety testing; and
</P>
<P>(v) Electromagnetic compatibility testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The elements of the device that may contact the patient's mucosal tissue must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components that contact the patient's mucosal tissue.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device or the sterile components, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the instructions for reprocessing all reusable components.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>In vivo</I> testing must demonstrate that the device thermally ablates targeted tissue in a controlled manner without thermal injury to adjacent, non-target tissues.
</P>
<P>(8) Clinical testing must document the adverse event profile, provide evidence of prostatic ablation, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(9) Training must be provided so that upon completion of the training program, the physician can:
</P>
<P>(i) Use all safety features of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Accurately target the high intensity ultrasound energy within the desired region of the prostate; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Perform the ablation procedure in a manner that minimizes damage to non-target tissues.
</P>
<P>(10) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A section that summarizes the clinical testing results, including the adverse event profile and evidence of prostate ablation achieved; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An expiration date or shelf life for single use components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 45727, Oct. 2, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4350   Fluid jet system for prostate tissue removal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fluid jet system for prostate tissue removal is a prescription device intended for the resection and removal of prostatic tissue for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. The device cuts tissue by using a pressurized jet of fluid delivered to the prostatic urethra. The device is able to image the treatment area, or pairs with an imaging modality, to monitor treatment progress.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) All adverse events associated with the device, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Improvement in lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).
</P>
<P>(2) Physician training must be provided that includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on key aspects and use of the device, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how to override or stop resection.
</P>
<P>(3) Animal testing must demonstrate that the device resects targeted tissue in a controlled manner without injury to adjacent non-target tissues.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Measurement of targeting accuracy and reproducibility of high velocity fluid jet, and
</P>
<P>(ii) High pressure fluid jet verification testing at target and non-target tissues.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) The patient-contacting elements of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate the electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(9) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(10) Performance data must validate the instructions for reprocessing and reliability of reusable components.
</P>
<P>(11) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A section that summarizes the clinical testing results, including the adverse event profile and improvement in LUTS;
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life for single use components;
</P>
<P>(iii) A use life for reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Reprocessing instructions for reusable components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 27897, June 15, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4370   Gastroenterology-urology evacuator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastroenterology-urology evacuator is a device used to remove debris and fluids during gastroenterological and urological procedures by drainage, aspiration, or irrigation. This generic type of device includes the fluid evacuator system, manually powered bladder evacuator, and the AC-powered vacuum pump. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for the gastroenterology-urology evacuator when other than manually powered. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the gastroenterology-urology evacuator when manually powered. The device subject to this paragraph (b)(2) is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25049, June 12, 1989; 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4400   Hemorrhoidal ligator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemorrhoidal ligator is a device used to cut off the blood flow to hemorrhoidal tissue by means of a ligature or band placed around the hemorrhoid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Except for a hemostatic metal clip intended for use in the gastrointestinal tract, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4410   Endoscopic traction device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic traction device is a prescription device that is endoscopically applied to retract tissue in the gastrointestinal tract during dissection procedures to increase visualization of the dissection plane and assist in tissue resection, exposure, and removal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must evaluate:
</P>
<P>(i) Perforation, bleeding, and mucosal injury;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ease of insertion and removal of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Visualization during the procedure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ease of procedure as reported by the intended user.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Device deployment and detachment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ability to retract tissue;
</P>
<P>(iii) Tensile strength;
</P>
<P>(iv) Potential for laceration caused by the device or procedure using the device;
</P>
<P>(v) Dimensional verification; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For devices that contain a magnet, magnet strength verification and safety assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) Usability assessment must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the intended shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The recommended training for safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Anatomical locations and lesion sizes that have been demonstrated to be safe to use with the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 36983, June 22, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4480   Electrohydraulic lithotriptor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrohydraulic lithotriptor is an AC-powered device used to fragment urinary bladder stones. It consists of a high voltage source connected by a cable to a bipolar electrode that is introduced into the urinary bladder through a cystoscope. The electrode is held against the stone in a water-filled bladder and repeated electrical discharges between the two poles of the electrode cause electrohydraulic shock waves which disintegrate the stone. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is FDA's “Guidance for the Content of Premarket Notifications for Intracorporeal Lithotripters.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17145, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4500   Mechanical lithotriptor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mechanical lithotriptor is a device with steel jaws that is inserted into the urinary bladder through the urethra to grasp and crush bladder stones. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a biliary mechanical lithotripter, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4530   Gastroenterology-urology fiberoptic retractor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastroenterology-urology fiberoptic retractor is a device that consists of a mechanical retractor with a fiberoptic light system that is used to illuminate deep surgical sites. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25049, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4560   Ribdam.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ribdam is a device that consists of a broad strip of latex with supporting ribs used to drain surgical wounds where copious urine drainage is expected. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25049, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4590   Interlocking urethral sound.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An interlocking urethral sound is a device that consists of two metal sounds (elongated instruments for exploring or sounding body cavities) with interlocking ends, such as with male and female threads or a rounded point and mating socket, used in the repair of a ruptured urethra. The device may include a protective cap to fit over the metal threads.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4620   Ureteral stent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ureteral stent is a tube-like implanted device that is inserted into the ureter to provide ureteral rigidity and allow the passage of urine. The device may have finger-like protrusions or hooked ends to keep the tube in place. It is used in the treatment of ureteral injuries and ureteral obstruction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4630   Ureteral stent accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Ureteral stent accessories aid in the insertion of the ureteral stent that is placed into the ureter to provide ureteral rigidity and allow the passage of urine. This generic type of device includes the stent positioner, wire guide, and pigtail straightener.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14870, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4650   Water jet renal stone dislodger system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A water jet renal stone dislodger system is a device used to dislodge stones from renal calyces (recesses of the pelvis of the kidney) by means of a pressurized stream of water through a conduit. The device is used in the surgical removal of kidney stones.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4680   Ureteral stone dislodger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ureteral stone dislodger is a device that consists of a bougie or a catheter with an expandable wire basket near the tip, a special flexible tip, or other special construction. It is inserted through a cystoscope and used to entrap and remove stones from the ureter. This generic type of device includes the metal basket and the flexible ureteral stone dislodger.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4730   Manual gastroenterology-urology surgical instrument and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual gastroenterology-urology surgical instrument and accessories is a device designed to be used for gastroenterological and urological surgical procedures. The device may be nonpowered, hand-held, or hand-manipulated. Manual gastroenterology-urology surgical instruments include the biopsy forceps cover, biopsy tray without biopsy instruments, line clamp, nonpowered rectal probe, nonelectrical clamp, colostomy spur-crushers, locking device for intestinal clamp, needle holder, gastro-urology hook, gastro-urology probe and director, nonself-retaining retractor, laparotomy rings, nonelectrical snare, rectal specula, bladder neck spreader, self-retaining retractor, and scoop. A manual surgical instrument that is intended specifically for use as an aid in the insertion, placement, fixation, or anchoring of surgical mesh during urogynecologic procedures are classified under § 884.4910 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25049, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001; 82 FR 12171, Mar. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4770   Urethrotome.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urethrotome is a device that is inserted into the urethra and used to cut urethral strictures and enlarge the urethra. It is a metal instrument equipped with a dorsal-fin cutting blade which can be elevated from its sheath. Some urethrotomes incorporate an optical channel for visual control.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71813, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.4890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.4890   Urological table and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urological table and accessories is a device that consists of a table, stirrups, and belts used to support a patient in a suitable position for endoscopic procedures of the lower urinary tract. The table can be adjusted into position manually or electrically.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for the electrically powered urological table and accessories. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the manually powered table and accessories, and for stirrups for electrically powered table. The device subject to this paragraph (b)(2) is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5010   Biliary catheter and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A biliary catheter and accessories is a tubular flexible device used for temporary or prolonged drainage of the biliary tract, for splinting of the bile duct during healing, or for preventing stricture of the bile duct. This generic type of device may include a bile collecting bag that is attached to the biliary catheter by a connector and fastened to the patient with a strap.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a bile collecting bag or a surgical biliary catheter that does not include a balloon component, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5011" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5011   Metallic biliary stent system for benign strictures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A metallic biliary stent system for benign strictures is a prescription device intended for the treatment of benign biliary strictures. The biliary stents are intended to be left indwelling for a limited amount of time and subsequently removed. The device consists of a metallic stent and a delivery system intended to place the biliary stent in the bile duct. This device type is not intended for use in the vasculature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate or provide the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The ability to safely place and subsequently remove the stent after the maximum labeled indwell period.
</P>
<P>(ii) All adverse event data including bile duct obstruction and trauma to the bile duct.
</P>
<P>(iii) The stent resolves strictures during the maximum labeled indwell period.
</P>
<P>(iv) Stricture resolution is maintained post-stent removal.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) Corrosion testing to demonstrate that the stent maintains its integrity during indwell and does not release potentially toxic levels of leachables.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stent dimensional testing supports the intended use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compression and expansion forces must be characterized.
</P>
<P>(iv) The delivery catheter must deliver the stent to the intended location and the stent must not be adversely impacted by the delivery catheter during deployment and catheter withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(v) The delivery system must withstand clinically anticipated forces.
</P>
<P>(vi) Compatibility in a magnetic resonance environment.
</P>
<P>(3) All patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Shelf life testing must demonstrate that the device maintains its performance characteristics and that packaging maintains sterility for the duration of the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling for the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the clinical testing including device effectiveness, and device- and procedure-related adverse events.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate warning(s) to accurately ensure usage of the device for the intended patient population.
</P>
<P>(iii) Shelf life.
</P>
<P>(iv) Compatibility information for use in the magnetic resonance environment.
</P>
<P>(v) Stent foreshortening information supported by dimensional testing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45231, July 13, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5012" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5012   Biliary stent, drain, and dilator accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Biliary stent, drain, and dilator accessories are manual devices that aid in the introduction and connection of biliary stents, drains, or dilators. This generic type of device includes the guiding catheter, pushing catheter, pigtail straightener, flap protector, nasal transfer tube, and drainage connecting tube.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14870, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5015" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5015   Pancreatic drainage stent and delivery system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pancreatic drainage stent is a prescription device that consists of a self-expanding, covered, metallic stent, intended for placement to facilitate transmural endoscopic drainage of pancreatic pseudocysts. This stent is intended to be removed upon confirmation of pseudocyst resolution. This device may also include a delivery system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device and elements of the delivery device that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the requested shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical testing data must demonstrate that the stent and delivery system perform as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Deployment testing of the stent and delivery system must be conducted under simulated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Removal force testing must be conducted. The removal force testing must demonstrate that the stent can be safely removed, and that the stent will remain in place when subjected to forces encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Expansion force testing must be conducted. The expansion force must demonstrate that the forces exerted by the stent will not damage the tissue surrounding the stent.
</P>
<P>(iv) Compression force testing must be conducted. The compression force must demonstrate that the stent will withstand the forces encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(v) Dimensional verification testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(vi) Tensile testing of joints and materials must be conducted. The minimum acceptance criteria must be adequate for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(vii) Fatigue testing must be conducted. Material strength must demonstrate that the stent will withstand forces encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(viii) Corrosion testing must be conducted. Corrosion resistance must demonstrate that the stent will withstand conditions encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical testing must evaluate the compatibility of the stent in a magnetic resonance (MR) environment.
</P>
<P>(6) Well-documented clinical experience must demonstrate safe and effective use, and capture any adverse events observed during clinical use.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate instructions, warnings, cautions, limitations, and information related to the safe use of the device, including deployment of the device, maintenance of the drainage lumen, and removal of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the safety and patency of the stent has not been established beyond the duration of the documented clinical experience.
</P>
<P>(iii) Specific instructions and the qualifications and clinical training needed for the safe use of the device, including deployment of the device, maintenance of the drainage lumen, and removal of the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on the patient population for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed summary of the clinical experience pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters.
</P>
<P>(vii) A detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(viii) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30724, May 29, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5020   External penile rigidity devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> External penile rigidity devices are devices intended to create or maintain sufficient penile rigidity for sexual intercourse. External penile rigidity devices include vacuum pumps, constriction rings, and penile splints which are mechanical, powered, or pneumatic devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9. The special control for these devices is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: External Penile Rigidity Devices.” See § 876.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 77623, Dec. 28, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5025   Vibrator for climax control of premature ejaculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vibrator for climax control of premature ejaculation is used for males who suffer from premature ejaculation. It is designed to increase the time between arousal and ejaculation using the stimulating vibratory effects of the device on the penis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The labeling must include specific instructions regarding the proper placement and use of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The portions of the device that contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis/testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility safety, electrical safety, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Mechanical safety testing must demonstrate that the device will withstand forces encountered during use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 30355, May 28, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5026" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5026   Non-implanted electrical stimulation device for management of premature ejaculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-implanted electrical stimulation device for management of premature ejaculation is intended to be used in patients with premature ejaculation by delivery of electrical stimulation to the perineal muscles and nerves.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical performance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical stimulation parameters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Battery performance.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must support shelf life by demonstrating continued device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions regarding safe placement and correct use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warning(s) against use by patients with active implanted medical devices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 34166, Apr. 5, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5030   Continent ileostomy catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A continent ileostomy catheter is a flexible tubular device used as a form during surgery for continent ileostomy and it provides drainage after surgery. Additionally, the device may be inserted periodically by the patient for routine care to empty the ileal pouch. This generic type of device includes the rectal catheter for continent ileostomy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5090   Suprapubic urological catheter and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A suprapubic urological catheter and accessories is a flexible tubular device that is inserted through the abdominal wall into the urinary bladder with the aid of a trocar and cannula. The device is used to pass fluids to and from the urinary tract. This generic type of device includes the suprapubic catheter and tube, Malecot catheter, catheter punch instrument, suprapubic drainage tube, and the suprapubic cannula and trocar.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the catheter punch instrument, nondisposable cannula and trocar, and gastro-urological trocar. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5100   Suprapubic catheter accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Suprapubic catheter accessories are manual devices that are used to facilitate the placement of a suprapubic catheter. This generic type of device includes the introducer, access dilator, and peel-away sheath.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14870, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5130   Urological catheter and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urological catheter and accessories is a flexible tubular device that is inserted through the urethra and used to pass fluids to or from the urinary tract. This generic type of device includes radiopaque urological catheters, ureteral catheters, urethral catheters, coudé catheters, balloon retention type catheters, straight catheters, upper urinary tract catheters, double lumen female urethrographic catheters, disposable ureteral catheters, male urethrographic catheters, and urological catheter accessories including ureteral catheter stylets, ureteral catheter adapters, ureteral catheter holders, ureteral catheter stylets, ureteral catheterization trays, and the gastro-urological irrigation tray (for urological use).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the ureteral stylet (guidewire), stylet for gastrourological catheter, ureteral catheter adapter, ureteral catheter connector, and ureteral catheter holder. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38801, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5140   Urethral insert with pump for bladder drainage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urethral insert with pump for bladder drainage is a catheter-like device with internal pump mechanism that is placed in the urethra. Under patient control the internal pump draws urine out of the bladder when voiding is desired, and blocks urine flow when continence is desired. The device is intended for use by women who cannot empty their bladder due to impaired detrusor contractility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The elements of the device that may contact the urinary tract must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components that contact the urinary tract.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device (or the sterile components), package integrity, and device functionality over the requested shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Urine flow rate testing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Valve integrity testing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Bladder neck retention force testing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pump/valve endurance testing.
</P>
<P>(v) Encrustation testing.
</P>
<P>(vi) Remote control reliability, mechanical integrity, and battery life testing.
</P>
<P>(5) Clinical testing must demonstrate safe and effective use, document the device acceptance rate and the adverse event profile associated with clinical use, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions, contraindications, warnings, cautions, limitations, and the clinical training needed for the safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Statement of the maximum insert indwelling period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the patient education and support program prior to and during initial device use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on the patient population for which the device has been demonstrated to be safe and effective.
</P>
<P>(v) Information on how the device operates and the recommended treatment regimen.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications or adverse events pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(vii) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Relevant contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse events/complications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the recommended treatment regimen.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the patient education and support program prior to and during initial device use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on the patient population for which there is clinical evidence of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(v) The potential risks and benefits associated with the use of the device.
</P>
<P>(vi) Post-insertion care instructions.
</P>
<P>(vii) Alternative treatments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 18309, Apr. 6, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5160   Urological clamp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urological clamp for males is a device used to close the urethra of a male to control urinary incontinence or to hold anesthetic or radiography contrast media in the urethra temporarily. It is an external clamp.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except when intended for internal use, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1963, as amended at 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000; 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5210   Enema kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An enema kit is a device intended to instill water or other fluids into the colon through a nozzle inserted into the rectum to promote evacuation of the contents of the lower colon. The device consists of a container for fluid connected to the nozzle either directly or via tubing. This device does not include the colonic irrigation system (§ 876.5220).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9. The device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1963, as amended at 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5220   Colonic irrigation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A colonic irrigation system is a device intended to instill water into the colon through a nozzle inserted into the rectum to cleanse (evacuate) the contents of the lower colon. The system is designed to allow evacuation of the contents of the colon during the administration of the colonic irrigation. The device consists of a container for fluid connected to the nozzle via tubing and includes a system which enables the pressure, temperature, or flow of water through the nozzle to be controlled. The device may include a console-type toilet and necessary fittings to allow the device to be connected to water and sewer pipes. The device may use electrical power to heat the water. The device does not include the enema kit (§ 876.5210).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards) when the device is intended for colon cleansing when medically indicated, such as before radiological or endoscopic examinations.
</P>
<P>(2) Class III (premarket approval) when the device is intended for other uses, including colon cleansing routinely for general well being.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any colonic irrigation system described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a colonic irrigation system described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other colonic irrigation system shall have an approved PMA in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50707, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5250   Urine collector and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urine collector and accessories is a device intended to collect urine. The device and accessories consist of tubing, a suitable receptacle, connectors, mechanical supports, and may include a means to prevent the backflow of urine or ascent of infection. The two kinds of urine collectors are: 
</P>
<P>(1) A urine collector and accessories intended to be connected to an indwelling catheter, which includes the urinary drainage collection kit and the closed urine drainage system and drainage bag; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A urine collector and accessories not intended to be connected to an indwelling catheter, which includes the corrugated rubber sheath, pediatric urine collector, leg bag for external use, urosheath type incontinence device, and the paste-on device for incontinence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I>—(1) <I>Class II (special controls) for a urine collector and accessories intended to be connected to an indwelling catheter.</I> The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Class I (general controls).</I> For a urine collector and accessories not intended to be connected to an indwelling catheter, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998; 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001; 73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5270   Implanted electrical urinary continence device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted electrical urinary device is a device intended for treatment of urinary incontinence that consists of a receiver implanted in the abdomen with electrodes for pulsed-stimulation that are implanted either in the bladder wall or in the pelvic floor, and a battery-powered transmitter outside the body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any implanted electrical urinary continence device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to an implanted electrical urinary continence device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other implanted electrical urinary continence device shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50707, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5280   Implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device is a device used to treat urinary incontinence by the application of continuous or intermittent pressure to occlude the urethra. The totally implanted device may consist of a static pressure pad, or a system with a container of radiopaque fluid in the abdomen and a manual pump and valve under the skin surface that is connected by tubing to an adjustable pressure pad or to a cuff around the urethra. The fluid is pumped as needed from the container to inflate the pad or cuff to pass on the urethra.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 2000, for any implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 2000, been found to be substantially equivalent to an implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 57731, Sept. 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5290   Implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device surgical accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device surgical accessories are manual devices designed to be used for surgical procedures associated with the implantation of an implanted mechanical/hydraulic urinary continence device. This generic type of device includes the measurement tool or tape, connector assembly tool, tubing plug, incision closing tool, tubing passer, blunt needle, and hemostat shod tubing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14870, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5310   Nonimplanted, peripheral electrical continence device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonimplanted, peripheral electrical continence device is a device that consists of an electrode that is connected by an electrical cable to a battery-powered pulse source. The electrode is placed onto or inserted into the body at a peripheral location and used to stimulate the nerves associated with pelvic floor function to maintain urinary continence. When necessary, the electrode may be removed by the user. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II, subject to the following special controls: 
</P>
<P>(1) That sale, distribution, and use of this device are restricted to prescription use in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) That the labeling must bear all information required for the safe and effective use of the device as outlined in § 801.109(c) of this chapter, including a detailed summary of the clinical information upon which the instructions are based.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 18237, Apr. 7, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5320   Nonimplanted electrical continence device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonimplanted electrical continence device is a device that consists of a pair of electrodes on a plug or a pessary that are connected by an electrical cable to a battery-powered pulse source. The plug or pessary is inserted into the rectum or into the vagina and used to stimulate the muscles of the pelvic floor to maintain urinary or fecal continence. When necessary, the plug or pessary may be removed by the user. This device excludes an AC-powered nonimplanted electrical continence device and the powered vaginal muscle stimulator for therapeutic use (§ 884.5940).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5330   Transcutaneous electrical continence device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcutaneous electrical continence device consists of cutaneous electrodes that are used to apply external stimulation to reduce urinary incontinence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must characterize the electrical stimulation, including the following: Waveforms, output modes, maximum output voltage, maximum output current, pulse duration, frequency, net charge per pulse, maximum phase charge at 500 ohms, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting materials must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, thermal safety, and mechanical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including specific instructions regarding the proper placement of electrodes;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of electrical stimulation parameters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Cleaning instructions and reuse information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 73971, Dec. 29, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5340   Nonimplanted nerve stimulator for functional abdominal pain relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonimplanted nerve stimulator for functional abdominal pain relief is a device that stimulates nerves remotely from the source of pain with the intent to relieve functional abdominal pain. This generic type of device does not include devices designed to relieve pelvic pain.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Electrical performance testing of the device and electrodes must be conducted to validate the specified electrical output and duration of stimulation of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Sterility testing of the percutaneous components of the device must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Shelf life testing must be performed to demonstrate continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning stating that the device is only for use on clean, intact skin;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for use, including placement of the device on the patient; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 71143, Dec. 15, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5360   Laparoscopic gastrointestinal sizing tool.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A laparoscopic gastrointestinal sizing tool is a prescription use device intended for laparoscopically measuring an extraluminal dimensional parameter of the indicated gastrointestinal organs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance testing must demonstrate that the sizing tool performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Performance testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Trocar compatibility, which includes shaft bending force characterization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Joint strength tensile testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Distal loop extension/retraction force characterization;
</P>
<P>(iv) Material selection analysis, which includes corrosion and visual inspection; and
</P>
<P>(v) Accuracy of the dimensional measurement.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must support the sterility and/or reprocessing and shelf life of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling of the device must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement regarding metal allergies if the device is made from metallic components;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific instructions for proper device use including information regarding the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Inspection of device prior to use;
</P>
<P>(B) Surgical access techniques or methodologies;
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions for avoiding structural damage to vagus nerve bundle;
</P>
<P>(D) Trocar compatibility;
</P>
<P>(E) Sizing methodology; and
</P>
<P>(F) Minimum and maximum dimensional parameters that the device is capable of measuring.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of the associated parent device with which the sizing tool has been demonstrated to be compatible; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An expiration date.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40730, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5365" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5365   Esophageal dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophageal dilator is a device that consists of a cylindrical instrument that may be hollow and weighted with mercury or a metal olive-shaped weight that slides on a guide, such as a string or wire and is used to dilate a stricture of the esophagus. This generic type of device includes esophageal or gastrointestinal bougies and the esophageal dilator (metal olive).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5450   Rectal dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rectal dilator is a device designed to dilate the anal sphincter and canal when the size of the anal opening may interfere with its function or the passage of an examining instrument.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5470   Ureteral dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ureteral dilator is a device that consists of a specially shaped catheter or bougie and is used to dilate the ureter at the place where a stone has become lodged or to dilate a ureteral stricture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5510   Temporarily-placed urethral opening system for symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A temporarily-placed urethral opening system for symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a prescription use device that is inserted transurethrally and deployed at the prostate. The implant is designed to increase prostatic urethral patency by increasing prostatic opening. It is intended for the treatment of symptoms due to urinary outflow obstruction secondary to BPH in men.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing with the device under anticipated conditions of use must evaluate improvement in urinary outflow symptoms and document the adverse event profile.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Deployment and removal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical strength.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including the recommended training for safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device, including device- and procedure-related adverse events; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 22636, May 29, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5520   Urethral dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A urethral dilator is a device that consists of a slender hollow or solid instrument made of metal, plastic, or other suitable material in a cylindrical form and in a range of sizes and flexibilities. The device may include a mechanism to expand the portion of the device in the urethra and indicate the degree of expansion on a dial. It is used to dilate the urethra. This generic type of device includes the mechanical urethral dilator, urological bougies, metal or plastic urethral sound, urethrometer, filiform, and filiform follower.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls). Except when it is a mechanical urethral dilator, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the urethrometer, urological bougie, filiform and filiform follower, and metal or plastic urethral sound. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5530   Implantable transprostatic tissue retractor system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implantable transprostatic tissue retractor system is a prescription use device that consists of a delivery device and implant. The delivery device is inserted transurethrally and deploys the implant through the prostate. It is designed to increase prostatic urethral patency by providing prostate lobe tissue retraction while preserving the potential for future prostate procedures and is intended for the treatment of symptoms due to urinary outflow obstruction secondary to benign prostatic hyperplasia in men.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The elements of the device that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device (of the patient-contacting components), package integrity, and device functionality over the requested shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Deployment testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical strength must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Resistance-to-degradation testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical testing must evaluate the compatibility of the device in a magnetic resonance environment.
</P>
<P>(6) In vivo testing must demonstrate safe and effective use, assess the impact of the implants on the ability to perform subsequent treatments, document the adverse event profile associated with clinical use, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Deployment testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Implant migration must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must bear all information required for safe and effective use of the device, and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions, warnings, cautions, limitations, and the clinical training needed for the safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on the patient population for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
</P>
<P>(v) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications or adverse events pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 43249, July 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5540   Blood access device and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A blood access device and accessories is a device intended to provide access to a patient's blood for hemodialysis or other chronic uses. When used in hemodialysis, it is part of an artificial kidney system for the treatment of patients with renal failure or toxemic conditions and provides access to a patient's blood for hemodialysis. The device includes implanted blood access devices, nonimplanted blood access devices, and accessories for both the implanted and nonimplanted blood access devices.
</P>
<P>(1) The implanted blood access device is a prescription device and consists of various flexible or rigid tubes, such as catheters, or cannulae, which are surgically implanted in appropriate blood vessels, may come through the skin, and are intended to remain in the body for 30 days or more. This generic type of device includes various catheters, shunts, and connectors specifically designed to provide access to blood. Examples include single and double lumen catheters with cuff(s), fully subcutaneous port-catheter systems, and A-V shunt cannulae (with vessel tips). The implanted blood access device may also contain coatings or additives which may provide additional functionality to the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The nonimplanted blood access device consists of various flexible or rigid tubes, such as catheters, cannulae or hollow needles, which are inserted into appropriate blood vessels or a vascular graft prosthesis (§§ 870.3450 and 870.3460), and are intended to remain in the body for less than 30 days. This generic type of device includes fistula needles, the single needle dialysis set (coaxial flow needle), and the single needle dialysis set (alternating flow needle).
</P>
<P>(3) Accessories common to either type include the shunt adaptor, cannula clamp, shunt connector, shunt stabilizer, vessel dilator, disconnect forceps, shunt guard, crimp plier, tube plier, crimp ring, joint ring, fistula adaptor, and declotting tray (including contents).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for the implanted blood access device. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) Components of the device that come into human contact must be demonstrated to be biocompatible. Material names and specific designation numbers must be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(A) Pressure versus flow rates for both arterial and venous lumens, from the minimum flow rate to the maximum flow rate in 100 milliliter per minute increments, must be established. The fluid and its viscosity used during testing must be stated.
</P>
<P>(B) Recirculation rates for both forward and reverse flow configurations must be established, along with the protocol used to perform the assay, which must be provided.
</P>
<P>(C) Priming volumes must be established.
</P>
<P>(D) Tensile testing of joints and materials must be conducted. The minimum acceptance criteria must be adequate for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(E) Air leakage testing and liquid leakage testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(F) Testing of the repeated clamping of the extensions of the catheter that simulates use over the life of the device must be conducted, and retested for leakage.
</P>
<P>(G) Mechanical hemolysis testing must be conducted for new or altered device designs that affect the blood flow pattern.
</P>
<P>(H) Chemical tolerance of the device to repeated exposure to commonly used disinfection agents must be established.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device for continued sterility, package integrity, and functionality over the requested shelf life that must include tensile, repeated clamping, and leakage testing.
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling of implanted blood access devices for hemodialysis must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Labeling must provide arterial and venous pressure versus flow rates, either in tabular or graphical format. The fluid and its viscosity used during testing must be stated.
</P>
<P>(B) Labeling must specify the forward and reverse recirculation rates.
</P>
<P>(C) Labeling must provide the arterial and venous priming volumes.
</P>
<P>(D) Labeling must specify an expiration date.
</P>
<P>(E) Labeling must identify any disinfecting agents that cannot be used to clean any components of the device.
</P>
<P>(F) Any contraindicated disinfecting agents due to material incompatibility must be identified by printing a warning on the catheter. Alternatively, contraindicated disinfecting agents must be identified by a label affixed to the patient's medical record and with written instructions provided directly to the patient.
</P>
<P>(G) Labeling must include a patient implant card.
</P>
<P>(H) The labeling must contain comprehensive instructions for the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Preparation and insertion of the device, including recommended site of insertion, method of insertion, and a reference on the proper location for tip placement;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Proper care and maintenance of the device and device exit site;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Removal of the device;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Anticoagulation;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Management of obstruction and thrombus formation; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Qualifications for clinical providers performing the insertion, maintenance, and removal of the devices.
</P>
<P>(vi) In addition to Special Controls in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section, implanted blood access devices that include subcutaneous ports must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Labeling must include the recommended type of needle for access as well as detailed instructions for care and maintenance of the port, subcutaneous pocket, and skin overlying the port.
</P>
<P>(B) Performance testing must include results on repeated use of the ports that simulates use over the intended life of the device.
</P>
<P>(C) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate safe and effective use and capture any adverse events observed during clinical use.
</P>
<P>(vii) In addition to Special Controls in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section, implanted blood access devices with coatings or additives must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description and material characterization of the coating or additive material, the purpose of the coating or additive, duration of effectiveness, and how and where the coating is applied.
</P>
<P>(B) An identification in the labeling of any coatings or additives and a summary of the results of performance testing for any coating or material with special characteristics, such as decreased thrombus formation or antimicrobial properties.
</P>
<P>(C) A Warning Statement in the labeling for potential allergic reactions including anaphylaxis if the coating or additive contains known allergens.
</P>
<P>(D) Performance data must demonstrate efficacy of the coating or additive and the duration of effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(viii) The following must be included for A-V shunt cannulae (with vessel tips):
</P>
<P>(A) The device must comply with Special Controls in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section with the exception of paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(B), (b)(1)(ii)(C), (b)(1)(v)(B), and (b)(1)(v)(C), which do not apply.
</P>
<P>(B) Labeling must include Warning Statements to address the potential for vascular access steal syndrome, arterial stenosis, arterial thrombosis, and hemorrhage including exsanguination given that the device accesses the arterial circulation.
</P>
<P>(C) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate safe and effective use and capture any adverse events observed during clinical use.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (performance standards) for the nonimplanted blood access device.
</P>
<P>(3) Class II (performance standards) for accessories for both the implanted and the nonimplanted blood access devices not listed in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Class I for the cannula clamp, disconnect forceps, crimp plier, tube plier, crimp ring, and joint ring, accessories for both the implanted and nonimplanted blood access device. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(4) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 1122, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001; 79 FR 43245, July 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5550   Prostatic artery embolization device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prostatic artery embolization device is an intravascular implant intended to occlude the prostatic arteries to prevent blood flow to the targeted area of the prostate, resulting in a reduction of lower urinary tract symptoms related to benign prostatic hyperplasia. This does not include cyanoacrylates and other embolic agents which act by in situ polymerization or precipitation, or embolization devices used in neurovascular applications (see 21 CFR 882.5950).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of suitability for injection through catheters intended for use in embolization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of the size distribution of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Clinical data must evaluate post-embolization damage due to non-target embolization under anticipated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions on safe device preparation and use;
</P>
<P>(ii) The device shelf life;
</P>
<P>(iii) Data regarding urinary retention; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Data regarding post-prostatic artery embolization syndrome.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 52651, Nov. 14, 2017] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5600   Sorbent regenerated dialysate delivery system for hemodialysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sorbent regenerated dialysate delivery system for hemodialysis is a device that is part of an artificial kidney system for the treatment of patients with renal failure or toxemic conditions, and that consists of a sorbent cartridge and the means to circulate dialysate through this cartridge and the dialysate compartment of the dialyzer. The device is used with the extracorporeal blood system and the dialyzer of the hemodialysis system and accessories (§ 876.5820). The device includes the means to maintain the temperature, conductivity, electrolyte balance, flow rate and pressure of the dialysate, and alarms to indicate abnormal dialysate conditions. The sorbent cartridge may include absorbent, ion exchange and catalytic materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5630   Peritoneal dialysis system and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> (1) A peritoneal dialysis system and accessories is a device that is used as an artificial kidney system for the treatment of patients with renal failure or toxemic conditions, and that consists of a peritoneal access device, an administration set for peritoneal dialysis, a source of dialysate, and, in some cases, a water purification mechanism. After the dialysate is instilled into the patient's peritoneal cavity, it is allowed to dwell there so that undesirable substances from the patient's blood pass through the lining membrane of the peritoneal cavity into this dialysate. These substances are then removed when the dialysate is drained from the patient. The peritoneal dialysis system may regulate and monitor the dialysate temperature, volume, and delivery rate together with the time course of each cycle of filling, dwell time, and draining of the peritoneal cavity or manual controls may be used. This generic device includes the semiautomatic and the automatic peritoneal delivery system.
</P>
<P>(2) The peritoneal access device is a flexible tube that is implanted through the abdominal wall into the peritoneal cavity and that may have attached cuffs to provide anchoring and a skin seal. The device is either a single use peritioneal catheter, intended to remain in the peritoneal cavity for less than 30 days, or a long term peritoneal catheter. Accessories include stylets and trocars to aid in the insertion of the catheter and an obturator to maintain the patency of the surgical fistula in the abdominal wall between treatments.
</P>
<P>(3) The disposable administration set for peritoneal dialysis consists of tubing, an optional reservoir bag, and appropriate connectors. It may include a peritoneal dialysate filter to trap and remove contaminating particles.
</P>
<P>(4) The source of dialysate may be sterile prepackaged dialysate (for semiautomatic peritoneal dialysate delivery systems or “cycler systems”) or dialysate prepared from dialysate concentrate and sterile purified water (for automatic peritoneal dialysate delivery systems or “reverse osmosis” systems). Prepackaged dialysate intended for use with either of the peritoneal dialysate delivery systems is regulated by FDA as a drug.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The following accessories are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9: A catheter finger grip that is non-patient contacting and intended for single use with a peritoneal catheter; a continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) belt; and a catheter stand that does not include weigh scales.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5665" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5665   Water purification system for hemodialysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A water purification system for hemodialysis is a device that is intended for use with a hemodialysis system and that is intended to remove organic and inorganic substances and microbial contaminants from water used to dilute dialysate concentrate to form dialysate. This generic type of device may include a water softener, sediment filter, carbon filter, and water distillation system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a water purification subsystem disinfectant, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5820   Hemodialysis system and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemodialysis system and accessories is a device that is used as an artificial kidney system for the treatment of patients with renal failure or toxemic conditions and that consists of an extracorporeal blood system, a conventional dialyzer, a dialysate delivery system, and accessories. Blood from a patient flows through the tubing of the extracorporeal blood system and accessories to the blood compartment of the dialyzer, then returns through further tubing of the extracorporeal blood system to the patient. The dialyzer has two compartments that are separated by a semipermeable membrane. While the blood is in the blood compartment, undesirable substances in the blood pass through the semipermeable membrane into the dialysate in the dialysate compartment. The dialysate delivery system controls and monitors the dialysate circulating through the dialysate compartment of the dialyzer. 
</P>
<P>(1) The extracorporeal blood system and accessories consists of tubing, pumps, pressure monitors, air foam or bubble detectors, and alarms to keep blood moving safely from the blood access device and accessories for hemodialysis (§ 876.5540) to the blood compartment of the dialyzer and back to the patient. 
</P>
<P>(2) The conventional dialyzer allows a transfer of water and solutes between the blood and the dialysate through the semipermeable membrane. The semipermeable membrane of the conventional dialyzer has a sufficiently low permeability to water that an ultrafiltration controller is not required to prevent excessive loss of water from the patient's blood. This conventional dialyzer does not include hemodialyzers with the disposable inserts (Kiil type) (§ 876.5830) or dialyzers of high permeability (§ 876.5860).
</P>
<P>(3) The dialysate delivery system consists of mechanisms that monitor and control the temperature, conductivity, flow rate, and pressure of the dialysate and circulates dialysate through the dialysate compartment of the dialyzer. The dialysate delivery system includes the dialysate concentrate for hemodialysis (liquid or powder) and alarms to indicate abnormal dialysate conditions. This dialysate delivery system does not include the sorbent regenerated dialysate delivery system for hemodialysis (§ 876.5600), the dialysate delivery system of the peritoneal dialysis system and accessories (§ 876.5630), or the controlled dialysate delivery system of the high permeability hemodialysis system § 876.5860).
</P>
<P>(4) Remote accessories to the hemodialysis system include the unpowered dialysis chair without a scale, the powered dialysis chair without a scale, the dialyzer holder set, dialysis tie gun and ties, and hemodialysis start/stop tray.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards) for hemodialysis systems and all accessories directly associated with the extracorporeal blood system and the dialysate delivery system.
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for other accessories of the hemodialysis system remote from the extracorporeal blood system and the dialysate delivery system, such as the unpowered dialysis chair, hemodialysis start/stop tray, dialyzer holder set, and dialysis tie gun and ties. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5830   Hemodialyzer with disposable insert (Kiil type).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemodialyzer with disposable inserts (Kiil type) is a device that is used as a part of an artificial kidney system for the treatment of patients with renal failure or toxemic conditions and that includes disposable inserts consisting of layers of semipermeable membranes which are sandwiched between support plates. The device is used with the extracorporeal blood system and the dialysate delivery system of the hemodialysis system and accessories (§ 876.5820).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 53 FR 11253, Apr. 6, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5860   High permeability hemodialysis system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A high permeability hemodialysis system is a device intended for use as an artificial kidney system for the treatment of patients with renal failure, fluid overload, or toxemic conditions by performing such therapies as hemodialysis, hemofiltration, hemoconcentration, and hemodiafiltration. Using a hemodialyzer with a semipermeable membrane that is more permeable to water than the semipermeable membrane of the conventional hemodialysis system (§ 876.5820), the high permeability hemodialysis system removes toxins or excess fluid from the patient's blood using the principles of convection (via a high ultrafiltration rate) and/or diffusion (via a concentration gradient in dialysate). During treatment, blood is circulated from the patient through the hemodialyzer's blood compartment, while the dialysate solution flows countercurrent through the dialysate compartment. In this process, toxins and/or fluid are transferred across the membrane from the blood to the dialysate compartment. The hemodialysis delivery machine controls and monitors the parameters related to this processing, including the rate at which blood and dialysate are pumped through the system, and the rate at which fluid is removed from the patient. The high permeability hemodialysis system consists of the following devices: 
</P>
<P>(1) The hemodialyzer consists of a semipermeable membrane with an in vitro ultrafiltration coefficient (K<E T="52">uf</E>) greater than 8 milliliters per hour per conventional millimeter of mercury, as measured with bovine or expired human blood, and is used with either an automated ultrafiltration controller or anther method of ultrafiltration control to prevent fluid imbalance. 
</P>
<P>(2) The hemodialysis delivery machine is similar to the extracorporeal blood system and dialysate delivery system of the hemodialysis system and accessories (§ 876.5820), with the addition of an ultrafiltration controller and mechanisms that monitor and/or control such parameters as fluid balance, dialysate composition, and patient treatment parameters (e.g., blood pressure, hematocrit, urea, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(3) The high permeability hemodialysis system accessories include, but are not limited to, tubing lines and various treatment related monitors (e.g., dialysate pH, blood pressure, hematocrit, and blood recirculation monitors). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Device—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(2) “Guidance for the Content of 510(k)s for Conventional and High Permeability Hemodialyzers,” 
</P>
<P>(3) “Guidance for Industry and CDRH Reviewers on the Content of Premarket Notifications for Hemodialysis Delivery Systems,” 
</P>
<P>(4) “Guidance for the Content of Premarket Notifications for Water Purification Components and Systems for Hemodialysis,” and 
</P>
<P>(5) “Guidance for Hemodialyzer Reuse Labeling.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 17145, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5861" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5861   Pediatric continuous renal replacement therapy system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pediatric continuous renal replacement therapy hemodialysis system is a device intended for use as an artificial kidney system for the management of pediatric patients with acute kidney injury and/or fluid overload by performing such therapies as hemodialysis, hemofiltration, hemodiafiltration, and isolated ultrafiltration. Using a hemodialyzer with a semipermeable membrane, the hemodialysis system removes toxins or excess fluid from the patient's blood using the principles of convection (via ultrafiltration) and/or diffusion (via a concentration gradient in dialysate). The hemodialysis delivery machine, with an automated ultrafiltration controller, controls and monitors the parameters related to this processing, including the rate at which blood and dialysate are pumped through the system, and the rate at which fluid is removed from the patient. During treatment, a patient's blood is circulated through the blood tubing set connected to the hemodialyzer's blood compartment. Blood access devices and accessories for hemodialysis required for the prescribed treatment are regulated under § 876.5540.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must confirm the safety and the accuracy, precision, and reproducibility of the non-clinical performance data under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Usability testing must demonstrate that a user can correctly use the hemodialysis delivery device based solely on reading the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Hemodialysis delivery system performance testing must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Fluid flow accuracy testing; and
</P>
<P>(B) Functional testing of system components including sensors, pumps, and scales to acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hemodialyzer performance testing must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Ultrafiltration;
</P>
<P>(B) Blood and dialysate pressure drop;
</P>
<P>(C) Clearance rates;
</P>
<P>(D) Sieving coefficients;
</P>
<P>(E) Mechanical hemolysis;
</P>
<P>(F) Structural integrity;
</P>
<P>(G) Blood compartment integrity;
</P>
<P>(H) Volume of the blood compartment; and
</P>
<P>(I) Chemical analysis of the dialyzer membrane.
</P>
<P>(iii) Blood tubing set performance testing must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Pressure leak testing;
</P>
<P>(B) Worst-case endurance testing;
</P>
<P>(C) Priming volume assessment;
</P>
<P>(D) Tensile testing of joints and materials of all tubing segments;
</P>
<P>(E) Pressure transducer leak testing;
</P>
<P>(F) Clamp occlusion;
</P>
<P>(G) Mechanical hemolysis; and
</P>
<P>(H) Kink testing.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, and wireless compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) The tissue-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(9) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(10) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(11) Device labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Hemodialysis delivery system labeling must provide detailed information regarding the safe use of the dialysis machine, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Overall description of the device and individual components or accessories labeled for use with the delivery system;
</P>
<P>(B) Description of the safety-related components included in the system;
</P>
<P>(C) Identification of operational parameters;
</P>
<P>(D) Alarms and troubleshooting information;
</P>
<P>(E) Cleaning, disinfection, and preventative maintenance procedures; and
</P>
<P>(F) A statement that the device is intended for use by operators trained in the administration of continuous renal replacement therapy and in the management of its complications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hemodialyzer labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Description of compatibility;
</P>
<P>(B) Shelf life;
</P>
<P>(C) Storage conditions;
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions for the preparation of the hemodialyzer, initiation of dialysis, troubleshooting, and discontinuance of dialysis;
</P>
<P>(E) Membrane surface area, priming (blood) volume, maximum transmembrane pressure, maximum blood flow and maximum dialysate rate for each model;
</P>
<P>(F) Summary of the in vitro performance data; and
</P>
<P>(G) A non-pyrogenic statement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Blood tubing set labeling must provide detailed information regarding the safe use of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Description of compatibility;
</P>
<P>(B) Shelf life;
</P>
<P>(C) Storage conditions;
</P>
<P>(D) Identification of the components in the package;
</P>
<P>(E) Total length of the arterial and venous tubing sets;
</P>
<P>(F) Outer diameter (OD) of the pump segment;
</P>
<P>(G) Priming volume;
</P>
<P>(H) Identification of the hemodialysis delivery systems which are compatible with the blood tubing set;
</P>
<P>(I) Identification of the largest gauge needle that can be used with the injection port, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(J) Identification of the maximum operating pressures for the transducer protectors.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 75496, Sept. 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5862" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5862   Hemodialyzer with expanded solute removal profile.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemodialyzer with expanded solute removal profile is a device intended for use a part of an artificial kidney system for the treatment of patients with renal failure by performing such therapies as hemodialysis, hemofiltration, and hemodiafiltration. A hemodialyzer with expanded solute removal profile includes modifications to the semipermeable membrane that allows for increased removal of uremic retention solutes compared with standard high-flux hemodialyzers of the high permeability hemodialysis system classification (§ 876.5860), including solutes at the upper end of the “middle” molecular weight range (0.5 kDa to 60 kDa). This device is intended to be used with the extracorporeal hemodialysis delivery systems, blood tubing sets, blood access devices, and accessories regulated under §§ 876.5820, 876.5860, 876.5540, and/or 876.5600.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing under anticipated conditions of use must evaluate the solute removal profile and document all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Ultrafiltration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Blood and dialysate pressure drop;
</P>
<P>(iii) Clearance rates;
</P>
<P>(iv) Sieving coefficients;
</P>
<P>(v) Mechanical hemolysis;
</P>
<P>(vi) Structural integrity;
</P>
<P>(vii) Blood compartment integrity;
</P>
<P>(viii) Volume of the blood compartment; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Endotoxin retention of the dialyzer membrane.
</P>
<P>(3) The tissue-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible. Biocompatibility evaluation must include a chemical analysis of the dialyzer membrane.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Device labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Shelf life;
</P>
<P>(ii) Storage conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for the preparation of the hemodialyzer, initiation of dialysis, troubleshooting, and discontinuance of dialysis;
</P>
<P>(iv) Membrane surface area, priming (blood) volume, maximum transmembrane pressure, maximum blood flow and maximum dialysate rate for each model;
</P>
<P>(v) A non-pyrogenic statement;
</P>
<P>(vi) A summary of the in vitro performance data, provided in tabular form; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A summary of the clinical performance data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 72716, Sept. 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5870   Sorbent hemoperfusion system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sorbent hemoperfusion system is a prescription device that consists of an extracorporeal blood system similar to that identified in the hemodialysis system and accessories (§ 876.5820) and a container filled with adsorbent material that removes a wide range of substances, both toxic and normal, from blood flowing through it. The adsorbent materials are usually activated-carbon or resins which may be coated or immobilized to prevent fine particles entering the patient's blood. The generic type of device may include lines and filters specifically designed to connect the device to the extracorporeal blood system. The device is used in the treatment of poisoning, drug overdose, hepatic coma, or metabolic disturbances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) when the device is intended for the treatment of poisoning and drug overdose. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance data must demonstrate the mechanical integrity of the device (e.g., tensile, flexural, and structural strength), including testing for the possibility of leaks, ruptures, release of particles, and/or disconnections under anticipated conditions of use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance data must demonstrate device sterility and shelf life;
</P>
<P>(iv) Bench performance testing must demonstrate device functionality in terms of substances, toxins, and drugs removed by the device, and the extent that these are removed when the device is used according to its labeling, and to validate the device's safeguards;
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of clinical experience with the device that discusses and analyzes device safety and performance, including a list of adverse events observed during the testing, must be provided;
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed summary of the device-related and procedure-related complications pertinent to the use of the device;
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of the performance data provided for the device, including a list of the drugs and/or poisons the device has been demonstrated to remove, and the extent for removal/depletion; and
</P>
<P>(vii) For those devices that incorporate electrical components, appropriate analysis and testing must be conducted to verify electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Class III (premarket approval) when the device is intended for the treatment of hepatic coma and metabolic disturbances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with FDA by April 17, 2014, for any sorbent hemoperfusion system indicated for treatment of hepatic coma or metabolic disturbances that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, by April 17, 2014, been found to be substantially equivalent to any sorbent hemoperfusion device indicated for treatment of hepatic coma or metabolic disturbances that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other sorbent hemoperfusion system device indicated for treatment of hepatic coma or metabolic disturbances shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 3094, Jan. 17, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5880   Isolated kidney perfusion and transport system and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An isolated kidney perfusion and transport system and accessories is a device that is used to support a donated or a cadaver kidney and to maintain the organ in a near-normal physiologic state until it is transplanted into a recipient patient. This generic type of device may include tubing, catheters, connectors, an ice storage or freezing container with or without bag or preservatives, pulsatile or nonpulsatile hypothermic isolated organ perfusion apparatus with or without oxygenator, and disposable perfusion set.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5885" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5885   Tissue culture media for human ex vivo tissue and cell culture processing applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Tissue culture media for human ex vivo tissue and cell culture processing applications consist of cell and tissue culture media and components that are composed of chemically defined components (e.g., amino acids, vitamins, inorganic salts) that are essential for the ex vivo development, survival, and maintenance of tissues and cells of human origin. The solutions are indicated for use in human ex vivo tissue and cell culture processing applications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls): FDA guidance document, “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Tissue Culture Media for Human Ex Vivo Processing Applications; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA Reviewers.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 27025, May 16, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5895" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5895   Ostomy irrigator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ostomy irrigator is a device that consists of a container for fluid, tubing with a cone-shaped tip or a soft and flexible catheter with a retention shield and that is used to wash out the colon through a colostomy, a surgically created opening of the colon on the surface of the body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5900   Ostomy pouch and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ostomy pouch and accessories is a device that consists of a bag that is attached to the patient's skin by an adhesive material and that is intended for use as a receptacle for collection of fecal material or urine following an ileostomy, colostomy, or ureterostomy (a surgically created opening of the small intestine, large intestine, or the ureter on the surface of the body). This generic type of device and its accessories includes the ostomy pouch, ostomy adhesive, the disposable colostomy appliance, ostomy collector, colostomy pouch, urinary ileostomy bag, urine collecting ureterostomy bag, ostomy drainage bag with adhesive, stomal bag, ostomy protector, and the ostomy size selector, but excludes ostomy pouches which incorporate arsenic-containing compounds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5920   Protective garment for incontinence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A protective garment for incontinence is a device that consists of absorbent padding and a fluid barrier and that is intended to protect an incontinent patient's garment from the patient's excreta. This generic type of device does not include diapers for infants.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5930   Rectal control system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rectal control system is a prescription device intended to treat fecal incontinence by controlling the size of the rectal lumen. The device is inserted in the vagina and includes a portion that expands to reduce the rectal lumen to prevent stool leakage and retracts to allow normal passage of stool. The device includes an external regulator to control the state of expansion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical testing must document the device acceptance data and the adverse event profile associated with clinical use, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) The elements of the device that contact vaginal tissue must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) The cleaning and disinfection instructions for the device must be validated.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical (bench) testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical (bench) testing must demonstrate that the device does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Enhance the growth of <I>Staphylococcus aureus.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Increase production of Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 by <I>S. aureus.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) Alter the growth of normal vaginal flora.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions, contraindications, warnings, cautions, limitations, and the clinical training needed for the safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) The intended patient population and the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on how the device is to be fitted, how the device operates, and recommendations on device maintenance.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to the use of the device, including a summary of the device- and procedure-related complications or adverse events related to use of the device, as well as relevant safety and performance information.
</P>
<P>(7) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Relevant contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse events/complications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the recommended device maintenance (<I>i.e.</I>, care instructions), including cleaning and disinfection.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the patient population for which there was a favorable benefit/risk assessment.
</P>
<P>(iv) The potential risks and benefits associated with the use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 30933, June 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5940   Orally ingested transient device for constipation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An orally ingested transient device for constipation is an electric swallowable capsule that naturally passes through the gastrointestinal tract for the treatment of constipation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate the device performs as intended and evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Treatment of constipation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Dimensional testing must verify device dimensions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance bench testing must verify functional aspects of the device design;
</P>
<P>(iii) Leak testing must verify device integrity under worst case clinical conditions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Bite testing must demonstrate that the device can withstand bite forces;
</P>
<P>(v) pH resistance testing must evaluate integrity of the capsule when exposed to a physiological relevant range of pH values; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Bioburden testing must demonstrate the device does not pose an infection risk throughout the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued package integrity and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Software validation, verification, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility testing must be performed for any electrical components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling for the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of clinical data for the device, including a discussion of adverse events and clinical benefit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32349, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5955" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5955   Peritoneo-venous shunt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A peritoneo-venous shunt is an implanted device that consists of a catheter and a pressure activated one-way valve. The catheter is implanted with one end in the peritoneal cavity and the other in a large vein. This device enables ascitic fluid in the peritoneal cavity to flow into the venous system for the treatment of intractable ascites.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(2) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” and 
</P>
<P>(3) Backflow specification and testing to prevent reflux of blood into the shunt. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17145, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5960   Computerized behavioral therapy device for treating symptoms of gastrointestinal conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A computerized behavioral therapy device for treating symptoms of gastrointestinal conditions is a prescription device intended to provide a computerized version of condition-specific therapy as an adjunct to standard of care treatments to patients with gastrointestinal conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must be provided to fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe a model of therapy for the indicated gastrointestinal conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Validate the model of therapy as implemented by the device using a clinically defined endpoint; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Evaluate all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Software must be described in detail in the software requirements specification and software design specification. Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Software documentation must demonstrate that the device effectively implements the behavioral therapy model.
</P>
<P>(3) Usability assessment must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling:
</P>
<P>(i) Labeling must include instructions for use, including images that demonstrate how to interact with the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient and physician labeling must list the minimum operating system requirements that support the software of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning that the device is not intended for use in lieu of a standard therapeutic intervention or to represent a substitution for the patient's medication;
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning to seek medical care if a patient has feelings or thoughts of harming themselves or others; and
</P>
<P>(v) Physician and patient labeling must include a summary of the clinical testing with the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 3636, Jan. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5970   Hernia support.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hernia support is a device, usually made of elastic, canvas, leather, or metal, that is intended to be placed over a hernial opening (a weakness in the abdominal wall) to prevent protrusion of the abdominal contents. This generic type of device includes the umbilical truss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53023, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55985, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5980   Gastrointestinal tube and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gastrointestinal tube and accessories is a device that consists of flexible or semi-rigid tubing used for instilling fluids into, withdrawing fluids from, splinting, or suppressing bleeding of the alimentary tract. This device may incorporate an integral inflatable balloon for retention or hemostasis. This generic type of device includes the hemostatic bag, irrigation and aspiration catheter (gastric, colonic, etc.), rectal catheter, sterile infant gavage set, gastrointestinal string and tubes to locate internal bleeding, double lumen tube for intestinal decompression or intubation, feeding tube, gastroenterostomy tube, Levine tube, nasogastric tube, single lumen tube with mercury weight balloon for intestinal intubation or decompression, and gastro-urological irrigation tray (for gastrological use).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls). The barium enema retention catheter and tip with or without a bag that is a gastrointestinal tube and accessory or a gastronomy tube holder accessory is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 876.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class I (general controls) for the dissolvable nasogastric feed tube guide for the nasogastric tube. The class I device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 876.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 573, Jan. 5, 1984, as amended at 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000; 65 FR 76932, Dec. 8, 2000; 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5981" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5981   Oral removable palatal space occupying device for weight management and/or weight loss.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oral removable palatal space occupying device for weight management and/or weight loss is a prescription device that is worn during meals to limit bite size, thereby reducing the amount of food that is consumed. The device may contain recording sensors for monitoring patient use. This classification does not include devices that are intended to treat any dental diseases or conditions
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions for use, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended for the labeled use life and does not create forces that result in movement of teeth and damage to teeth.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended.
</P>
<P>(iii) Software verification and validation must demonstrate that the device performs as intended.
</P>
<P>(iv) Battery testing must demonstrate that the device battery performs as intended.
</P>
<P>(3) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended and must include an evaluation for choking.
</P>
<P>(4) Device labeling must address the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient labeling must state:
</P>
<P>(A) The clinical benefit of weight management and/or weight loss as assessed by using percent total body weight loss;
</P>
<P>(B) Treatment must be offered in combination with a behavioral modification program;
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions on how to use the device as intended; and
</P>
<P>(D) The use life of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Physician labeling must state:
</P>
<P>(A) The clinical benefit of weight management and/or weight loss as assessed by using percent total body weight loss;
</P>
<P>(B) Treatment must be offered in combination with a behavioral modification program;
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions on how to use the device as intended; and
</P>
<P>(D) The use life of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Training must be provided to health professionals that includes procedures for determining a patient's oral health status, instructions for making the palatal mold, and assessment of issues with the device that may require service by the manufacturer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 35069, July 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5982" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5982   Ingested, transient, space occupying device for weight management and/or weight loss.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> This device is an ingested material that transiently occupies space in the stomach. The device passes from the body via the natural gastrointestinal tract.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions for use, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance bench testing in a simulated use model must evaluate device disintegration and device hydration state throughout the gastrointestinal tract;
</P>
<P>(ii) Bioburden and moisture content assessments must evaluate device infection risk throughout the labeled shelf life; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued package integrity and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(3) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended and evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Weight change;
</P>
<P>(ii) All adverse events, including obstruction, dilation, diarrhea, constipation, and dehydration; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Interaction with representative medications.
</P>
<P>(4) Physician and patient device labeling must state:
</P>
<P>(i) The clinical benefit of the device as assessed by using percent total body weight loss;
</P>
<P>(ii) Treatment must be offered in combination with diet and exercise;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions on how to use the device as intended including how to avoid interaction with medication; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The shelf life of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 70372, Dec. 10, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5983" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5983   Endoscopic suturing device for altering gastric anatomy for weight loss.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic suturing device for altering gastric anatomy for weight loss uses suturing to approximate gastric tissue to restrict the volume of the stomach for the intended purpose of weight loss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Weight change; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance bench testing in a simulated use model must verify functional aspects of the device design and support device durability during clinical use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dimensional specifications must be verified; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Tensile strength testing must be performed for all articulating components.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued package integrity and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Training must be provided so that, upon completion of the training program, the user can use the device correctly to approximate tissue to alter the gastric anatomy for the purpose of weight loss with minimal impact to the safety of the patient.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of clinical performance testing with the device, including a discussion of adverse events and clinical benefit reported as percent total body weight loss; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 31661, May 28, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5985" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5985   Enzyme packed cartridge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An enzyme packed cartridge is an <I>ex vivo</I> prescription device that is used in enzymatic hydrolysis of macronutrients into their essential nutrient forms at the time of delivery. The device consists of an outer casing containing an inert polymer with a covalently bound enzyme through which nutritional formula is directed. The device fits in line with enteral feeding systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>In vivo</I> testing must be performed and must demonstrate that the device causes neither an adverse tissue response nor adverse performance.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing to demonstrate that the device can withstand clinical forces;
</P>
<P>(ii) Flow rate and leakage testing to demonstrate that the device does not impede the flow of enteral formula;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstration of enzymatic effect on intended macronutrient;
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of enzyme that exits the cartridge must be characterized;
</P>
<P>(v) Validation that the device does not adversely impact the nutritional composition of enteral formula; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Validation that the device does not impede flow alarms on enteral feeding pumps.
</P>
<P>(4) Human factors testing must be performed to characterize use error risks.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating package integrity and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of <I>in vivo</I> testing pertinent to use of the device, including device-related adverse events;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of compatible formulas that is supported by non-clinical testing, including the expected enzymatic conversion as a percentage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed instructions on how to place the device into an enteral feeding circuit;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning regarding the possibility for misconnections; and
</P>
<P>(v) Expiration date or shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Relevant warnings, precautions, adverse effects, and complications;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the device and how it operates;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions on how to correctly use the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The benefits and risks associated with the use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 47971, Oct. 16, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 876.5990" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.25.6.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 876.5990   Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extracorporeal shock wave lithotripter is a device that focuses ultrasonic shock waves into the body to noninvasively fragment urinary calculi within the kidney or ureter. The primary components of the device are a shock wave generator, high voltage generator, control console, imaging/localization system, and patient table. Prior to treatment, the urinary stone is targeted using either an integral or stand-alone localization/imaging system. Shock waves are typically generated using electrostatic spark discharge (spark gap), electromagnetically repelled membranes, or piezoelectric crystal arrays, and focused onto the stone with either a specially designed reflector, dish, or acoustic lens. The shock waves are created under water within the shock wave generator, and are transferred to the patient's body using an appropriate acoustic interface. After the stone has been fragmented by the focused shock waves, the fragments pass out of the body with the patient's urine. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (FDA guidance document: “Guidance for the Content of Premarket Notifications (510(k)'s) for Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripters Indicated for the Fragmentation of Kidney and Ureteral Calculi.”)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 48612, Aug. 9, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="878" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 878—GENERAL AND PLASTIC SURGERY DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 878 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of general and plastic surgery devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provision of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a general and plastic surgery device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed in one subpart only. 
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 67 FR 77676, Dec. 19, 2002; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act, FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(c) A device identified in a regulation in this part that is classified into class III and that is subject to the transitional provisions of section 520(l) of the act is automatically classified by statute into class III and must have an approval under section 515 of the act before being commercially distributed. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III transitional device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.1800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.1800   Speculum and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A speculum is a device intended to be inserted into a body cavity to aid observation. It is either nonilluminated or illuminated and may have various accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13827, Apr. 5, 1989; 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.1820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.1820   Software-aided adjunctive diagnostic device for use on skin lesions by physicians trained in the diagnosis and management of skin cancer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A software-aided adjunctive diagnostic device for use on skin lesions by physicians trained in the diagnosis and management of skin cancer is a device that uses a software algorithm to analyze optical or other physical properties of a skin lesion and returns a classification of the skin lesion. The device is intended for prescription use by a physician trained in the clinical diagnosis and management of skin cancer (<I>e.g.,</I> a dermatologist) as an adjunctive device to aid in the evaluation of lesions suspicious for skin cancer following identification of a suspicious skin lesion. The device is not intended for use as a standalone diagnostic and is not for use to confirm a clinical diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Data obtained from premarket clinical performance validation testing, or a combination of premarket clinical performance validation testing and post-market surveillance (in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section), must:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate superior accuracy of device-aided users' diagnostic characterization of the indicated lesions compared to the accuracy of unaided users in the intended patient population and under anticipated conditions of use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include an evaluation of patients across risk factors (including age, body site, skin phototype, and other clinical factors as applicable) that represent the intended patient population under anticipated conditions of use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include standalone device performance testing that demonstrates the accuracy of the device output relative to ground truth in the intended patient population and under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Testing must demonstrate at least 90% sensitivity of the device output for lesions with high metastatic potential, or an alternative clinical consideration must be provided to justify lower sensitivity. Clinical justification must be provided to support the reported specificity.
</P>
<P>(B) Lesions must be selected by representative users (<I>e.g.,</I> dermatologists) and a justification must be provided for the quantity and range of mimic lesions per diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(C) Justification must be provided to support the determination of ground truth.
</P>
<P>(D) Testing must include a representative range of individuals with different risk factors (including age, body site, skin phototype, and other clinical factors as applicable), and analysis of standalone performance must include subgroup analysis by relevant risk factors.
</P>
<P>(2) Data obtained from post-market surveillance must demonstrate, in consideration of the premarket data obtained in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, that the device performs in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, unless FDA determines, based on the totality of the premarket data, that data from post-market surveillance is not required to demonstrate that the device performs as intended. Such post-market surveillance must be conducted per a protocol determined appropriate by FDA to demonstrate that the device performs as intended (in consideration of the premarket data obtained in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section), and must include initiation, enrollment, and reporting requirements to ensure timely periodic updates to FDA on post-market surveillance progress and outcomes.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including compatibility testing of the device software with specific signal or image acquisition hardware. Testing must include a description of compatible hardware and processes, pre-specified compatibility testing protocols, and dataset(s).
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must demonstrate device precision, including repeatability and reproducibility of device performance, across operators and challenging use conditions.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility, and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety of any electrical components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must validate reprocessing instructions for reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Sterilization validation must be conducted for components that must be sterile. Performance testing must also demonstrate continued sterility and package integrity of components that must be sterile, as well as continued device functionality, over the identified shelf life of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(9) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(10) A human factors assessment must demonstrate that the device can be safely used by intended users.
</P>
<P>(11) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of standalone and clinical performance testing conducted with the device. The summary must describe performance measures, including sensitivity and specificity, and statistical confidence intervals, as well as performance of the device for all clinically relevant subgroups within the intended patient population;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the patient population that was used in development or training of the device algorithm;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information related to the limitations of device performance or subpopulations for which the device may not perform as expected or for whom the device has not been validated;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information needed to facilitate interpretation of all device outputs, and identification of the risks associated with misinterpretation of the device outputs;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the device is not intended for use as a standalone diagnostic and is not for use to confirm a clinical diagnosis;
</P>
<P>(vi) User qualifications needed for safe use of the device, including a description of user training required prior to use, and a statement that the device is intended to be used by a physician trained in the clinical diagnosis and management of skin cancer (<I>e.g.,</I> a dermatologist);
</P>
<P>(vii) Warnings to avoid unsafe exposure to any energy-emitting components of the device (<I>e.g.,</I> excluding use of the device on lesions close to the eye); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Instructions for device maintenance and validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 14457, Mar. 25, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3250   External facial fracture fixation appliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external facial fracture fixation appliance is a metal apparatus intended to be used during surgical reconstruction and repair to immobilize maxillofacial bone fragments in their proper facial relationship. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13827, Apr. 5, 1989; 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3300   Surgical mesh.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Surgical mesh is a metallic or polymeric screen intended to be implanted to reinforce soft tissue or bone where weakness exists. Examples of surgical mesh are metallic and polymeric mesh for hernia repair, and acetabular and cement restrictor mesh used during orthopedic surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3500   Polytetrafluoroethylene with carbon fibers composite implant material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A polytetrafluoroethylene with carbon fibers composite implant material is a porous device material intended to be implanted during surgery of the chin, jaw, nose, or bones or tissue near the eye or ear. The device material serves as a space-occupying substance and is shaped and formed by the surgeon to conform to the patient's need. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3510   Carbon dioxide gas controlled tissue expander.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carbon dioxide gas controlled tissue expander is a prescription device intended for temporary subcutaneous or submuscular implantation to stretch the skin for surgical applications, specifically to develop surgical flaps and additional tissue coverage. The device is made of an inflatable elastomer shell and is filled with carbon dioxide gas. The device utilizes a remote controller to administer doses of carbon dioxide gas from an implanted canister inside the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In-vivo performance testing must be conducted to obtain the adverse event profile associated with use, and demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Cycle testing of expander showing that there are no leaks or tears after repeated cycling;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical assessment of implanted carbon dioxide (CO<E T="52">2</E>) canister including high impact testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Leak testing of expander showing that device does not leak CO<E T="52">2</E>;
</P>
<P>(iv) Assessment of gas permeability during expansion and after full expansion; and
</P>
<P>(v) Mechanical assessment of expander (tensile set, breaking force, shell joint test, and fused or adhered joint testing).
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must be provided to demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, and wireless compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device or the sterile components, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(8) Human factors testing and analysis must validate that the device design and labeling are sufficient for the end user.
</P>
<P>(9) Physician labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The operating parameters, name, and model number of the indicated external dosage controller;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the population for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective;
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provisions for choosing an appropriate size implant that would be exchanged for the tissue expander.
</P>
<P>(10) Patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Warnings, precautions, and contraindications, and adverse events/complications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(iii) The probable risks and benefits associated with the use of the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Post-operative care instructions; and
</P>
<P>(v) Alternative treatments.
</P>
<P>(11) Patient training must include instructions for device use, when it may be necessary to contact a physician, and cautionary measures to take when the device is implanted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 6421, Feb. 4, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3530   Silicone inflatable breast prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A silicone inflatable breast prosthesis is a silicone rubber shell made of polysiloxane(s), such as polydimethylsiloxane and polydiphenylsiloxane, that is inflated to the desired size with sterile isotonic saline before or after implantation. The device is intended to be implanted to augment or reconstruct the female breast. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before November 17, 1999, for any silicone inflatable breast prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before November 17, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to a silicone inflatable breast prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other silicone inflatable breast prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 45161, Aug. 19, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3540   Silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification</I>—(1) <I>Single-lumen silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis.</I> A single-lumen silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis is a silicone rubber shell made of polysiloxane(s), such as polydimethylsiloxane and polydiphenylsiloxane. The shell either contains a fixed amount cross-linked polymerized silicone gel, filler, and stabilizers or is filled to the desired size with injectable silicone gel at time of implantation. The device is intended to be implanted to augment or reconstruct the female breast. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Double-lumen silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis.</I> A double lumen silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis is a silicone rubber inner shell and a silicone rubber outer shell, both shells made of polysiloxane(s), such as polydimethylsiloxane and polydiphenylsiloxane. The inner shell contains fixed amounts of cross-linked polymerized silicone gel, fillers, and stabilizers. The outer shell is inflated to the desired size with sterile isotonic saline before or after implantation. The device is intended to be implanted to augment or reconstruct the female breast. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Polyurethane covered silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis.</I> A polyurethane covered silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis is an inner silicone rubber shell made of polysiloxane(s), such as polydimethylsiloxane and polydiphenylsiloxane, with an outer silicone adhesive layer and an outer covering of polyurethane; contained within the inner shell is a fixed amount of cross-linked polymerized silicone gel, fillers, and stabilizers and an inert support structure compartmentalizing the silicone gel. The device is intended to be implanted to augment or reconstruct the female breast. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) is required.</I> A PMA is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 9, 1991 for any silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before July 9, 1991 been found to be substantially equivalent to a silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other silicone gel-filled breast prosthesis shall have an approved PMA in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 14627, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3550   Chin prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chin prosthesis is a silicone rubber solid device intended to be implanted to augment or reconstruct the chin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3590   Ear prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ear prosthesis is a silicone rubber solid device intended to be implanted to reconstruct the external ear. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3610   Esophageal prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esophageal prosthesis is a rigid, flexible, or expandable tubular device made of a plastic, metal, or polymeric material that is intended to be implanted to restore the structure and/or function of the esophagus. The metal esophageal prosthesis may be uncovered or covered with a polymeric material. This device may also include a device delivery system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is FDA's “Guidance for the Content of Premarket Notification Submissions for Esophageal and Tracheal Prostheses.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 17145, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3680   Nose prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nose prosthesis is a silicone rubber solid device intended to be implanted to augment or reconstruct the nasal dorsum. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3720   Tracheal prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The tracheal prosthesis is a rigid, flexible, or expandable tubular device made of a silicone, metal, or polymeric material that is intended to be implanted to restore the structure and/or function of the trachea or trachealbronchial tree. It may be unbranched or contain one or two branches. The metal tracheal prosthesis may be uncovered or covered with a polymeric material. This device may also include a device delivery system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special control for this device is FDA's “Guidance for the Content of Premarket Notification Submissions for Esophageal and Tracheal Prostheses.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 17146, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3750   External prosthesis adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external prosthesis adhesive is a silicone-type adhesive intended to be used to fasten to the body an external aesthetic restoration prosthesis, such as an artificial nose. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3800   External aesthetic restoration prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external aesthetic restoration prosthesis is a device intended to be used to construct an external artificial body structure, such as an ear, breast, or nose. Usually the device is made of silicone rubber and it may be fastened to the body with an external prosthesis adhesive. The device is not intended to be implanted. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9. If the device is intended for use without an external prosthesis adhesive to fasten it to the body, the device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3900   Inflatable extremity splint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An inflatable extremity splint is a device intended to be inflated to immobilize a limb or an extremity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3910   Noninflatable extremity splint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A noninflatable extremity splint is a device intended to immobilize a limb or an extremity. It is not inflatable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13827, Apr. 5, 1989; 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.3925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.3925   Plastic surgery kit and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A plastic surgery kit and accessories is a device intended to be used to reconstruct maxillofacial deficiencies. The kit contains surgical instruments and materials used to make maxillofacial impressions before molding an external prosthesis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13827, Apr. 5, 1989; 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4010   Tissue adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Tissue adhesive for the topical approximation of skin</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A tissue adhesive for the topical approximation of skin is a device intended for topical closure of surgical incisions, including laparoscopic incisions, and simple traumatic lacerations that have easily approximated skin edges. Tissue adhesives for the topical approximation of skin may be used in conjunction with, but not in place of, deep dermal stitches.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: “Tissue Adhesive for the Topical Approximation of Skin.” See § 878.1(e) of this chapter for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tissue adhesive for non-topical use</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A tissue adhesive for non-topical use, including adhesives intended for use in the embolization of brain arteriovenous malformation or for use in ophthalmic surgery, is a device used for adhesion of internal tissues and vessels.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 878.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 31033, May 30, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4011" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4011   Tissue adhesive with adjunct wound closure device for topical approximation of skin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tissue adhesive with adjunct wound closure device intended for the topical approximation of skin is a device indicated for topical application only to hold closed easily approximated skin edges of wounds from surgical incisions, including punctures from minimally invasive surgery, and simple, thoroughly cleansed, trauma-induced lacerations. It may be used in conjunction with, but not in place of, deep dermal stitches. Additionally, the adjunct wound closure device component maintains temporary skin edge alignment along the length of wound during application of the liquid adhesive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Guidance for Industry and FDA Staff; Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Tissue Adhesive with Adjunct Wound Closure Device Intended for the Topical Approximation of Skin.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 68794, Nov. 10, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4014" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4014   Nonresorbable gauze/sponge for external use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonresorbable gauze/sponge for external use is a sterile or nonsterile device intended for medical purposes, such as to be placed directly on a patient's wound to absorb exudate. It consists of a strip, piece, or pad made from open woven or nonwoven mesh cotton cellulose or a simple chemical derivative of cellulose. This classification does not include a nonresorbable gauze/sponge for external use that contains added drugs such as antimicrobial agents, added biologics such as growth factors, or is composed of materials derived from animal sources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53929, Oct. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4015" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4015   Wound dressing with poly (diallyl dimethyl ammonium chloride) (pDADMAC) additive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wound dressing with pDADMAC additive is intended for use as a primary dressing for exuding wounds, 1st and 2d degree burns, and surgical wounds, to secure and prevent movement of a primary dressing, and as a wound packing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is: the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Wound Dressing With Poly (Diallyl Dimethyl Ammonium Chloride) (pDADMAC) Additive.” See § 878.1(e) for availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 53167, Oct. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4018" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4018   Hydrophilic wound dressing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydrophilic wound dressing is a sterile or non-sterile device intended to cover a wound and to absorb exudate. It consists of nonresorbable materials with hydrophilic properties that are capable of absorbing exudate (e.g., cotton, cotton derivatives, alginates, dextran, and rayon). This classification does not include a hydrophilic wound dressing that contains added drugs such as antimicrobial agents, added biologics such as growth factors, or is composed of materials derived from animal sources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53929, Oct. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4020   Occlusive wound dressing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An occlusive wound dressing is a nonresorbable, sterile or non-sterile device intended to cover a wound, to provide or support a moist wound environment, and to allow the exchange of gases such as oxygen and water vapor through the device. It consists of a piece of synthetic polymeric material, such as polyurethane, with or without an adhesive backing. This classification does not include an occlusive wound dressing that contains added drugs such as antimicrobial agents, added biologics such as growth factors, or is composed of materials derived from animal sources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53929, Oct. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4022" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4022   Hydrogel wound dressing and burn dressing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydrogel wound dressing is a sterile or non-sterile device intended to cover a wound, to absorb wound exudate, to control bleeding or fluid loss, and to protect against abrasion, friction, desiccation, and contamination. It consists of a nonresorbable matrix made of hydrophilic polymers or other material in combination with water (at least 50 percent) and capable of absorbing exudate. This classification does not include a hydrogel wound dressing that contains added drugs such as antimicrobial agents, added biologics such as growth factors, or is composed of materials derived from animal sources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53929, Oct. 5, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4025   Silicone sheeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Silicone sheeting is intended for use in the management of closed hyperproliferative (hypertrophic and keloid) scars.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 48148, Aug. 9, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4040   Surgical apparel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Surgical apparel are devices that are intended to be worn by operating room personnel during surgical procedures to protect both the surgical patient and the operating room personnel from transfer of microorganisms, body fluids, and particulate material. Examples include surgical caps, hoods, masks, gowns, operating room shoes and shoe covers, and isolation masks and gowns. Surgical suits and dresses, commonly known as scrub suits, are excluded. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for surgical gowns and surgical masks. A surgical N95 respirator or N95 filtering facepiece respirator is not exempt if it is intended to prevent specific diseases or infections, or it is labeled or otherwise represented as filtering surgical smoke or plumes, filtering specific amounts of viruses or bacteria, reducing the amount of and/or killing viruses, bacteria, or fungi, or affecting allergenicity, or it contains coating technologies unrelated to filtration (e.g., to reduce and or kill microorganisms). Surgical N95 respirators and N95 filtering facepiece respirators are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9, and the following conditions for exemption:
</P>
<P>(i) The user contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Analysis and nonclinical testing must:
</P>
<P>(A) Characterize flammability and be demonstrated to be appropriate for the intended environment of use; and
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrate the ability of the device to resist penetration by fluids, such as blood and body fluids, at a velocity consistent with the intended use of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) NIOSH approved under its regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) Class I (general controls) for surgical apparel other than surgical gowns and surgical masks. The class I device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2317, Jan. 14, 2000; 83 FR 22848, May 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4100   Organ bag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An organ bag is a device that is a flexible plastic bag intended to be used as a temporary receptacle for an organ during surgical procedures to prevent moisture loss. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4160   Surgical camera and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical camera and accessories is a device intended to be used to record operative procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13827, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4165   Wound autofluorescence imaging device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wound autofluorescence imaging device is a tool to view autofluorescence images from skin wounds that are exposed to an excitation light. The device is not intended to provide quantitative or diagnostic information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52968, Oct. 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4200   Introduction/drainage catheter and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An introduction/drainage catheter is a device that is a flexible single or multilumen tube intended to be used to introduce nondrug fluids into body cavities other than blood vessels, drain fluids from body cavities, or evaluate certain physiologic conditions. Examples include irrigation and drainage catheters, pediatric catheters, peritoneal catheters (including dialysis), and other general surgical catheters. An introduction/drainage catheter accessory is intended to aid in the manipulation of or insertion of the device into the body. Examples of accessories include adaptors, connectors, and catheter needles. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4300   Implantable clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implantable clip is a clip-like device intended to connect internal tissues to aid healing. It is not absorbable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4320   Removable skin clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A removable skin clip is a clip-like device intended to connect skin tissues temporarily to aid healing. It is not absorbable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4340   Contact cooling system for aesthetic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A contact cooling system for aesthetic use is a device that is a combination of a cooling pad associated with a vacuum or mechanical massager intended for the disruption of adipocyte cells intended for non-invasive aesthetic use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device is FDA's “Guidance for Industry and FDA Staff; Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Contact Cooling System for Aesthetic Use.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 6553, Feb. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4350   Cryosurgical unit and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification</I>—(1) <I>Cryosurgical unit with a liquid nitrogen cooled cryoprobe and accessories.</I> A cryosurgical unit with a liquid nitrogen cooled cryoprobe and accessories is a device intended to destroy tissue during surgical procedures by applying extreme cold. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cryosurgical unit with a nitrous oxide cooled cryoprobe and accessories.</I> A cryosurgical unit with a nitrous oxide cooled cryoprobe and accessories is a device intended to destroy tissue during surgical procedures, including urological applications, by applying extreme cold. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cryosurgical unit with a carbon dioxide cooled cryoprobe or a carbon dioxide dry ice applicator and accessories.</I> A cryosurgical unit with a carbon dioxide cooled cryoprobe or a carbon dioxide dry ice applicator and accessories is a device intended to destroy tissue during surgical procedures by applying extreme cold. The device is intended to treat disease conditions such as tumors, skin cancers, acne scars, or hemangiomas (benign tumors consisting of newly formed blood vessels) and various benign or malignant gynecological conditions affecting vulvar, vaginal, or cervical tissue. The device is not intended for urological applications. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4360   Scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia is a prescription device intended to reduce the frequency and severity of alopecia during chemotherapy in which alopecia-inducing chemotherapeutic agents are used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I>—Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device meets all design specifications and performance requirements, and that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. This information must include testing to demonstrate accuracy of the temperature control mechanism.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible. Material names must be provided.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement describing the potential risk of developing scalp metastasis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on the patient population and chemotherapeutic agents/regimen for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the non-clinical and/or clinical testing pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the device technical parameters, including temperature cooling range and duration of cooling.
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of the device- and procedure-related adverse events pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(vi) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
</P>
<P>(6) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Relevant contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse effects/complications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the patient population for which there is clinical evidence of effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) The potential risks and benefits associated with use of the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Postoperative care instructions.
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement describing the potential risk of developing scalp metastasis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 7453, Feb. 12, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4370   Surgical drape and drape accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical drape and drape accessories is a device made of natural or synthetic materials intended to be used as a protective patient covering, such as to isolate a site of surgical incision from microbial and other contamination. The device includes a plastic wound protector that may adhere to the skin around a surgical incision or be placed in a wound to cover its exposed edges, and a latex drape with a self-retaining finger cot that is intended to allow repeated insertion of the surgeon's finger into the rectum during performance of a transurethral prostatectomy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an ear, nose, and throat surgical drape, a latex sheet drape with self-retaining finger cot, a disposable urological drape, a Kelly pad, an ophthalmic patient drape, an ophthalmic microscope drape, an internal drape retention ring (wound protector), or a surgical drape that does not include an antimicrobial agent, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4371" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4371   Irrigating wound retractor device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An irrigating wound retractor device is a prescription device intended to be used by a surgeon to retract the surgical incision, to provide access to the surgical wound, to protect and irrigate the surgical wound, and to serve as a conduit for removal of fluid from the surgical wound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible and evaluated for particulate matter.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility and pyrogenicity of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued functionality and sterility of the device over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Performance testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterize the tear resistance, tensile strength, and elongation properties of the barrier material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that the liquid barrier material is resistant to penetration by blood, and is non-flammable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterize the forces required to deploy the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Characterize the device's ranges of operation, including flow rates and maximum suction pressures;
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrate the ability of the device irrigation apparatus to maintain a user defined or preset flow rate to the surgical wound; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Demonstrate the ability of the device to maintain user defined or preset removal rates of fluid from the surgical wound.
</P>
<P>(5) The labeling must include or state the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Device size or incision length range;
</P>
<P>(ii) Method of sterilization;
</P>
<P>(iii) Flammability classification;
</P>
<P>(iv) Non-pyrogenic;
</P>
<P>(v) Shelf life; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Maximum flow rate and suction pressure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 24, Jan. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4380   Drape adhesive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A drape adhesive is a device intended to be placed on the skin to attach a surgical drape.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38802, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4400   Electrosurgical cutting and coagulation device and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrosurgical cutting and coagulation device and accessories is a device intended to remove tissue and control bleeding by use of high-frequency electrical current. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4410   Low energy ultrasound wound cleaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A low energy ultrasound wound cleaner is a device that uses ultrasound energy to vaporize a solution and generate a mist that is used for the cleaning and maintenance debridement of wounds. Low levels of ultrasound energy may be carried to the wound by the saline mist.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Low Energy Ultrasound Wound Cleaner.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 67355, Nov. 7, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4420   Electrosurgical device for over-the-counter aesthetic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrosurgical device for over-the-counter aesthetic use is a device using radiofrequency energy to produce localized heating within tissues for non-invasive aesthetic use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device meets all design specifications and performance requirements. The following performance characteristics must be tested: Over-heating, power accuracy radiofrequency, pulse cycle, waveform, pulse duration, and device characterization parameters.
</P>
<P>(2) Label comprehension and self-selection performance evaluation must demonstrate that the intended over-the-counter users can understand the package labeling and correctly choose the device for the indicated aesthetic use.
</P>
<P>(3) Usability performance evaluation must demonstrate that the over-the-counter user can correctly use the device, based solely on reading the directions for use, to treat the indicated aesthetic use.
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical performance evaluation must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use to achieve the intended aesthetic results.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Instructions for cleaning the device must be validated.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must be provided to demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety, including the mechanical integrity, of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Warnings, precautions, and contraindications to ensure the safe use of the device for the over-the-counter users.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the safety and effectiveness of the device's use for uses other than the indicated aesthetic use are not known.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the clinical information used to establish effectiveness for each indicated aesthetic usage and observed adverse events.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 42244, June 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4425   Skin patch for treatment of hyperhidrosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skin patch for treatment of hyperhidrosis is a prescription topical patch that utilizes a chemical reaction to generate thermal energy in situ for treatment of hyperhidrosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and evaluate:
</P>
<P>(i) Reduction in hyperhidrosis using a validated measure;
</P>
<P>(ii) All adverse events; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Impact of residual chemical on the skin.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Thermal reactivity of the active device component(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) The total energy and energy flux (energy per unit area) of the device that is available to induce heating based on calorimetry; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of the distribution and homogeneity of the chemical(s) on and within the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating device functionality and package integrity over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Patient and physician labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) A listing of known risks including local adverse events, systemic effects, and adverse changes in perspiration; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Information about the known duration of effect.
</P>
<P>(6) Physician labeling must also include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for safe disposal of the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 39463, June 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4430   Microneedling device for aesthetic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microneedling device for aesthetic use is a device using one or more needles to mechanically puncture and injure skin tissue for aesthetic use. This classification does not include devices intended for transdermal delivery of topical products such as cosmetics, drugs, or biologics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical specifications and needle characteristics must be identified, including needle length, geometry, maximum penetration depth, and puncture rate.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Accuracy of needle penetration depth and puncture rate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety features built into the device to protect against cross-contamination, including fluid ingress protection; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of the maximum safe needle penetration depth for the device for the labeled indications for use.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the intended shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must demonstrate the electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of all electrical components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed for all software components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance data must validate the cleaning and disinfection instructions for reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on how to operate the device and its components and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the device technical parameters, including needle length, needle geometry, maximum penetration depth, and puncture rate;
</P>
<P>(iii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Disposal instructions; and
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life.
</P>
<P>(10) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The probable risks and benefits associated with use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Postoperative care instructions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 26577, June 8, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4440   Eye pad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An eye pad is a device that consists of a pad made of various materials, such as gauze and cotton, intended for use as a bandage over the eye for protection or absorption of secretions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4450   Nonabsorbable gauze for internal use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nonabsorbable gauze for internal use is a device made of an open mesh fabric intended to be used inside the body or a surgical incision or applied to internal organs or structures, to control bleeding, absorb fluid, or protect organs or structures from abrasion, drying, or contamination. The device is woven from material made of not less than 50 percent by mass cotton, cellulose, or a simple chemical derivative of cellulose, and contains x-ray detectable elements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4452" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4452   Nonabsorbable expandable hemostatic sponge for temporary internal use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonabsorbable expandable hemostatic sponge for temporary internal use is a prescription device intended to be placed temporarily into junctional, non-compressible wounds, which are not amenable to tourniquet use, to control bleeding until surgical care is acquired. The sponges expand upon contact with blood to fill the wound cavity and provide a physical barrier and pressure that facilitates formation of a clot. The device consists of sterile, nonabsorbable radiopaque compressed sponges and may include an applicator to facilitate delivery into a wound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance data must demonstrate the biocompatibility of patient-contacting components.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components including endotoxin and pyrogenicity assessments.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support device stability by demonstrating continued sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device, package integrity, and device functionality over the requested shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Assessment of material characteristics must be sufficient to support safety under anticipated conditions of use. Assessments must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Material specifications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Immunogenicity.
</P>
<P>(iii) Viral inactivation for animal-derived materials.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Absorption capacity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Extent of swelling.
</P>
<P>(iii) Mechanical properties.
</P>
<P>(iv) Expansion force/pressure.
</P>
<P>(v) Radiopacity.
</P>
<P>(vi) Deployment/applicator functionality.
</P>
<P>(6) In vivo performance data must demonstrate safe and effective use by verifying that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Appropriate analysis/testing must demonstrate that the product: Controls bleeding, does not promote adverse local or systemic effects, and can be completely removed from the wound. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Deployment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Control of bleeding.
</P>
<P>(iii) Radiopacity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Retrieval.
</P>
<P>(v) Assessment of local and systemic effects.
</P>
<P>(7) Human factors testing and analysis must validate that the device design and labeling are sufficient for appropriate use by emergency responders deploying the device as well as surgeons retrieving the device from wounds.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions for deployment by emergency responders and retrieval by surgeons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings, cautions, and limitations needed for safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the in vivo and human factors testing pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate imaging information to ensure complete retrieval of device.
</P>
<P>(vi) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 34224, June 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4454" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4454   Non-absorbable, hemostatic gauze for temporary internal use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-absorbable, hemostatic gauze for temporary internal use is a prescription device intended to be placed temporarily for control of severely bleeding wounds such as surgical wounds and traumatic injuries. The gauze is coated or impregnated with a hemostatic material which may enhance hemostasis by physical means. The device is intended to be removed once the patient is stabilized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Animal performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Specifically testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate that the device is able to achieve hemostasis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that the device can be radiographically detected; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Assess pertinent safety endpoints including vascular obstruction and adhesion formation.
</P>
<P>(2) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following tests must be performed:
</P>
<P>(i) In vitro clot assessment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Particulate release testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Physical characterization, including swelling percent and particulate size;
</P>
<P>(iv) Chemical characterization;
</P>
<P>(v) Radiopacity testing; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Mechanical integrity testing, including tensile strength and tear strength.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including an instruction to remove all visible device components by irrigation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum amount of time the device may be left within the body;
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life;
</P>
<P>(iv) A contraindication for intravascular use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(v) A warning regarding the potential for adhesion formation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 6794, Feb. 15, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4456" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4456   Hemostatic device for intraluminal gastrointestinal use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemostatic device for intraluminal gastrointestinal use is a prescription device that is endoscopically applied to the upper and/or lower gastrointestinal tract and is intended to produce hemostasis via absorption of fluid or by other physical means.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) In vivo performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The testing must evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The ability to deliver the hemostatic material to the bleeding site;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ability to achieve hemostasis in a clinically relevant model of gastrointestinal bleeding; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety endpoints, including thromboembolic events, local and systemic toxicity, tissue trauma, gastrointestinal tract obstruction, and bowel distension and perforation.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated:
</P>
<P>(i) Materials characterization of all components must demonstrate the device meets established specifications, which must include compositional identity and purity, characterization of impurities, physical characteristics, and reactivity with fluids.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance testing must demonstrate the mechanical integrity and functionality of the system used to deliver the device and demonstrate the device meets established specifications, including output pressure for propellant-based systems.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information identifying and explaining how to use the device and its components; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52971, Oct. 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4460   Non-powdered surgeon's glove.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-powdered surgeon's glove is a device intended to be worn on the hands of operating room personnel to protect a surgical wound from contamination. A non-powdered surgeon's glove does not incorporate powder for purposes other than manufacturing. The final finished glove includes only residual powder from manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 46952, Sept. 10, 2001; 81 FR 91730, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4470   Surgeon's gloving cream.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Surgeon's gloving cream is an ointment intended to be used to lubricate the user's hand before putting on a surgeon's glove. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4490   Absorbable hemostatic agent and dressing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable hemostatic agent or dressing is a device intended to produce hemostasis by accelerating the clotting process of blood. It is absorbable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 878.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4493" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4493   Absorbable poly(glycolide/l-lactide) surgical suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable poly(glycolide/l-lactide) surgical suture (PGL suture) is an absorbable sterile, flexible strand as prepared and synthesized from homopolymers of glycolide and copolymers made from 90 percent glycolide and 10 percent l-lactide, and is indicated for use in soft tissue approximation. A PGL suture meets United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.) requirements as described in the U.S.P. “Monograph for Absorbable Surgical Sutures;” it may be monofilament or multifilament (braided) in form; it may be uncoated or coated; and it may be undyed or dyed with an FDA-approved color additive. Also, the suture may be provided with or without a standard needle attached. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47151, Sept. 18, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 32984, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4494" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4494   Absorbable poly(hydroxybutyrate) surgical suture produced by recombinant DNA technology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable poly(hydroxybutyrate) surgical suture is an absorbable surgical suture made of material isolated from prokaryotic cells produced by recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) technology. The device is intended for use in general soft tissue approximation and ligation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Absorbable Poly(hydroxybutyrate) Surgical Suture Produced by Recombinant DNA Technology.” For the availability of this guidance document see § 878.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 43146, Aug. 3, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4495" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4495   Stainless steel suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stainless steel suture is a needled or unneedled nonabsorbable surgical suture composed of 316L stainless steel, in USP sizes 12-0 through 10, or a substantially equivalent stainless steel suture, intended for use in abdominal wound closure, intestinal anastomosis, hernia repair, and sternal closure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a steel monofilament suture that is uncoated and does not incorporate barbs, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9. The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 19836, Apr. 13, 2000, as amended at 68 FR 32984, June 3, 2003; 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4520   Polytetrafluoroethylene injectable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Polytetrafluoroethylene injectable is an injectable paste prosthetic device composed of polytetrafluoroethylene intended to be used to augment or reconstruct a vocal cord. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 878.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4550   Autofluorescence detection device for general surgery and dermatological use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An autofluorescence detection device for general surgery and dermatological use is an adjunct tool that uses autofluorescence to detect tissues or structures. This device is not intended to provide a diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo testing under anticipated conditions of use must characterize the ability of the device to detect autofluorescent signals from tissues or structures consistent with the indications for use.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must support the shelf life of device components provided sterile by demonstrating continued sterility and package integrity over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance testing must demonstrate laser and light safety for eye, tissue, and skin.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) The detection performance characteristics of the device when used as intended; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life for any sterile components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 24273, Apr. 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4580   Surgical lamp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical lamp (including a fixture) is a device intended to be used to provide visible illumination of the surgical field or the patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an operating room lamp, a surgical instrument light, a surgical floor standing light, an endoscopic surgical light, a surgical light connector, a ceiling mounted surgical light, a surgical light carrier, surgical light accessories, a surgical lamp, a remote illuminator, or an incandescent surgical lamp, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4590   Focused ultrasound stimulator system for aesthetic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Focused Ultrasound Stimulator System for Aesthetic Use is a device using focused ultrasound to produce localized, mechanical motion within tissues and cells for the purpose of producing either localized heating for tissue coagulation or for mechanical cellular membrane disruption intended for noninvasive aesthetic use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Focused Ultrasound Stimulator System for Aesthetic Use.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43121, July 20, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4630   Ultraviolet lamp for dermatologic disorders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultraviolet lamp for dermatologic disorders is a device (including a fixture) intended to provide ultraviolet radiation of the body to photoactivate a drug in the treatment of a dermatologic disorder if the labeling of the drug intended for use with the device bears adequate directions for the device's use with that drug. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4635" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4635   Sunlamp products and ultraviolet lamps intended for use in sunlamp products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sunlamp product is any device designed to incorporate one or more ultraviolet (UV) lamps intended for irradiation of any part of the living human body, by UV radiation with wavelengths in air between 200 and 400 nanometers, to induce skin tanning. This definition includes tanning beds and tanning booths. A UV lamp intended for use in sunlamp products is any lamp that produces UV radiation in the wavelength interval of 200 to 400 nanometers in air.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for sunlamp products and UV lamps intended for use in sunlamp products are:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct performance testing that demonstrates the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Device meets appropriate output performance specifications such as wavelengths, energy density, and lamp life; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Device's safety features, such as timers to limit UV exposure and alarms, function properly.
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate that device is mechanically safe to prevent user injury.
</P>
<P>(3) Demonstrate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis.
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrate that device is biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Demonstrate that device is electrically safe and electromagnetically compatible in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Labeling</I>—(i) <I>Sunlamp products.</I> (A) The warning statement below must appear on all sunlamp products and must be placed in a black box. This statement must be permanently affixed or inscribed on the product when fully assembled for use so as to be legible and readily accessible to view by the person who will be exposed to UV radiation immediately before the use of the product. It shall be of sufficient durability to remain legible throughout the expected lifetime of the product. It shall appear on a part or panel displayed prominently under normal conditions of use so that it is readily accessible to view whether the tanning bed canopy (or tanning booth door) is open or closed when the person who will be exposed approaches the equipment and the text shall be at least 10 millimeters (height). Labeling on the device must include the following statement:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Attention: This sunlamp product should not be used on persons under the age of 18 years.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) Manufacturers shall provide validated instructions on cleaning and disinfection of sunlamp products between uses in the user instructions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sunlamp products and UV lamps intended for use in sunlamp products.</I> Manufacturers of sunlamp products and UV lamps intended for use in sunlamp products shall provide or cause to be provided in the user instructions, as well as all consumer-directed catalogs, specification sheets, descriptive brochures, and Web pages in which sunlamp products or UV lamps intended for use in sunlamp products are offered for sale, the following contraindication and warning statements:
</P>
<P>(A) “Contraindication: This product is contraindicated for use on persons under the age of 18 years.”
</P>
<P>(B) “Contraindication: This product must not be used if skin lesions or open wounds are present.”
</P>
<P>(C) “Warning: This product should not be used on individuals who have had skin cancer or have a family history of skin cancer.”
</P>
<P>(D) “Warning: Persons repeatedly exposed to UV radiation should be regularly evaluated for skin cancer.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Performance standard.</I> Sunlamp products and UV lamps intended for use in sunlamp products are subject to the electronic product performance standard at § 1040.20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 31213, June 2, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4660   Skin marker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skin marker is a pen-like device intended to be used to write on the patient's skin, e.g., to outline surgical incision sites or mark anatomical sites for accurate blood pressure measurement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4670   Internal tissue marker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An internal tissue marker is a prescription use device that is intended for use prior to or during general surgical procedures to demarcate selected sites on internal tissues.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible. Material names and specific designation numbers must be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended to mark the tissue for which it is indicated.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating sterility, package integrity, device functionality, and material stability over the requested shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that the device must not be used on a non-sterile surface prior to use internally.
</P>
<P>(ii) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<P>(iii) Single use only labeling must be labeled directly on the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 46486, Aug. 5, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4675   Breast implant suction retrieval system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breast implant suction retrieval system is a prescription surgical device that uses vacuum suction to assist in the removal and containment of a ruptured silicone breast implant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Animal performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended and will not result in tissue injury. Testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate the ability to remove implants of the sizes and types specified in device labeling; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess tissue integrity and injury at multiple time intervals to assess tissue healing response after device use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of the range of device operation, including minimum and maximum vacuum suction parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Durability and integrity testing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of control and variation of suction application.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) The tissue-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Usability testing must demonstrate that intended users can correctly use the device, based solely on reading the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Summary of device specifications, including vacuum suction pressure ranges and bottle capacity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Sizes and types of implants that can be removed with the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 38503, June 26, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4680   Nonpowered, single patient, portable suction apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered, single patient, portable suction apparatus is a device that consists of a manually operated plastic, disposable evacuation system intended to provide a vacuum for suction drainage of surgical wounds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4683" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4683   Non-Powered suction apparatus device intended for negative pressure wound therapy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-powered suction apparatus device intended for negative pressure wound therapy is a device that is indicated for wound management via application of negative pressure to the wound for removal of fluids, including wound exudate, irrigation fluids, and infectious materials. It is further indicated for management of wounds, burns, flaps, and grafts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Non-powered Suction Apparatus Device Intended for Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT).” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 70114, Nov. 17, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4685" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4685   Extracorporeal shock wave device for treatment of chronic wounds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extracorporeal shock wave device for treatment of chronic wounds is a prescription device that focuses acoustic shock waves onto the dermal tissue. The shock waves are generated inside the device and transferred to the body using an acoustic interface.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must be conducted to demonstrate that the system produces anticipated and reproducible acoustic pressure shock waves.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate that the reusable components of the device can be reprocessed for subsequent use.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must be provided to demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the use life of the system by demonstrating continued system functionality over the labeled use life.
</P>
<P>(7) Physician labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the device's technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(iii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions for preventing hearing loss by use of hearing protection.
</P>
<P>(8) Patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Relevant contraindications, warnings, precautions, adverse effects, and complications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(iii) The probable risks and benefits associated with the use of the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Post-procedure care instructions; and
</P>
<P>(v) Alternative treatments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 9699, Mar. 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4700   Surgical microscope and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical microscope and accessories is an AC-powered device intended for use during surgery to provide a magnified view of the surgical field.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4730   Surgical skin degreaser or adhesive tape solvent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical skin degreaser or an adhesive tape solvent is a device that consists of a liquid such as 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane; 1,1,1-trichloroethane; and 1,1,1-trichloroethane with mineral spirits intended to be used to dissolve surface skin oil or adhesive tape.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4740   Surgical stapler.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Surgical stapler for external use.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical stapler for external use is a specialized prescription device used to deliver compatible staples to skin during surgery.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<P>(b) Surgical stapler for internal use.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical stapler for internal use is a specialized prescription device used to deliver compatible staples to internal tissues during surgery for resection, transection, and creating anastomoses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance testing must demonstrate that the stapler, when used with compatible staples, performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Performance testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Evaluation of staple formation characteristics in the maximum and minimum tissue thicknesses for each staple type;
</P>
<P>(B) For manual staplers only, measurement of the worst-case deployment pressures on stapler firing force;
</P>
<P>(C) Measurement of staple line strength;
</P>
<P>(D) Confirmation of staple line integrity; and
</P>
<P>(E) In vivo confirmation of staple line hemostasis.
</P>
<P>(ii) For powered staplers only, appropriate analysis/testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) For powered staplers only, appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Human factors testing must demonstrate that the clinician can correctly select and safely use the device, as identified in the labeling, based on reading the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(v) The elements of the device that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(vi) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(vii) Validation of cleaning and sterilization instructions must demonstrate that any reusable device components can be safely and effectively reprocessed per the recommended cleaning and sterilization protocol in the labeling.
</P>
<P>(viii) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued device functionality, sterility, and package integrity over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(ix) Labeling of the device must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Unless data demonstrates the safety of doing so, contraindications must be identified regarding use of the device on tissues for which the risk of stapling outweighs any reasonably foreseeable benefit due to known complications, including the stapling of tissues that are necrotic, friable, or have altered integrity.
</P>
<P>(B) Unless available information demonstrates that the specific warnings do not apply, the labeling must provide appropriate warnings regarding how to avoid known hazards associated with device use including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Avoidance of use of the stapler to staple tissue outside of the labeled limits for maximum and minimum tissue thickness;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Avoidance of obstructions to the creation of the staple line and the unintended stapling of other anatomic structures;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Avoidance of clamping and unclamping of delicate tissue structures to prevent tissue damage;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Avoidance of use of the stapler on the aorta;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Establishing proximal control of blood vessels prior to stapling where practical and methods of blood vessel control in the event of stapler failure;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Ensuring stapler compatibility with staples; and
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Risks specifically associated with the crossing of staple lines.
</P>
<P>(C) Specific user instructions for proper device use including measures associated with the prevention of device malfunction, and evaluation of the appropriateness of the target tissue for stapling.
</P>
<P>(D) List of staples with which the stapler has been demonstrated to be compatible.
</P>
<P>(E) Identification of key performance parameters and technical characteristics of the stapler and the compatible staples needed for safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(F) Information regarding tissues on which the stapler is intended to be used.
</P>
<P>(G) Identification of safety mechanisms of the stapler.
</P>
<P>(H) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable device components.
</P>
<P>(I) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<P>(x) Package labels must include critical information and technical characteristics necessary for proper device selection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 16204, Oct. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4750   Implantable staple.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implantable staple is a staple-like device intended to connect internal tissues to aid healing. It is not absorbable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4755" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4755   Absorbable lung biopsy plug.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed (polymerized) absorbable lung biopsy plug is intended to provide accuracy in marking a biopsy location for visualization during surgical resection and closure of pleural punctures associated with percutaneous, transthoracic needle lung biopsies. Upon deployment into the biopsy tract, the plug expands to fill the biopsy void and remains in place until resorbed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate deployment as indicated in the accompanying labeling, including the indicated introducer needles, and demonstrate expansion and resorption characteristics in a clinically relevant environment.
</P>
<P>(3) In vivo evaluation must demonstrate performance characteristics of the device, including the ability of the plug to not prematurely resorb or migrate and the rate of pneumothorax.
</P>
<P>(4) Sterility testing must demonstrate the sterility of the device and the effects of the sterilization process on the physical characteristics of the plug.
</P>
<P>(5) Shelf-life testing must demonstrate the shelf-life of the device including the physical characteristics of the plug.
</P>
<P>(6) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include a detailed summary of the device-related and procedure-related complications pertinent to the use of the device and appropriate warnings. Labeling must include identification of compatible introducer needles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 13219, Mar. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4760   Removable skin staple.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A removable skin staple is a staple-like device intended to connect external tissues temporarily to aid healing. It is not absorbable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4780   Powered suction pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered suction pump is a portable, AC-powered or compressed air-powered device intended to be used to remove infectious materials from wounds or fluids from a patient's airway or respiratory support system. The device may be used during surgery in the operating room or at the patient's bedside. The device may include a microbial filter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4783" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4783   Negative pressure wound therapy device for reduction of wound complications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A negative pressure wound therapy device for reduction of wound complications is a powered suction pump intended for wound management and reduction of wound complications via application of negative pressure to the wound, which removes fluids, including wound exudate, irrigation fluids, and infectious materials. This device type is intended for use with wound dressings classified under § 878.4780. This classification does not include devices intended for organ space wounds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Wound complication rates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Usability testing must demonstrate that intended users can correctly use the device, based solely on reading the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(6) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested in a worst-case scenario for the intended use life:
</P>
<P>(i) Ability to maintain pressure levels at the wound site under a worst-case scenario for the intended use life;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fluid removal rate consistent with the wound types specified in the indications for use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Timely triggering of all alarms.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must demonstrate the electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the device technical specifications, including pressure settings, modes (<I>e.g.,</I> continuous or intermittent), alarms, and safety features;
</P>
<P>(iii) Compatible components and devices;
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the clinical evidence for the indications for use;
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life for sterile components; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Use life and intended use environments.
</P>
<P>(10) For devices intended for use outside of a healthcare facility, patient labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on how to operate the device and its components and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on when to contact a healthcare professional; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 70734, Dec. 10, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4790   Powered surgical instrument for improvement in the appearance of cellulite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered surgical instrument for improvement in the appearance of cellulite is a prescription device that is used for the controlled release of subcutaneous tissue for improvement in the appearance of cellulite. The device consists of a cutting tool powered by a motor and a means for instrument guidance to control the areas of subcutaneous tissue cutting underneath the cellulite depressions or dimples.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical testing must be performed to demonstrate that the device meets all design specifications and performance requirements, and to demonstrate durability and mechanical integrity of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) In vivo evaluation of the device must demonstrate device performance, including the safety of the release methodology and blood loss at the treatment sites.
</P>
<P>(3) All elements of the device that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility of the device must be demonstrated.
</P>
<P>(5) The labeling must include a summary of in vivo evaluation data and all the device specific warnings, precautions, and/or contraindications.
</P>
<P>(6) Sterility and shelf-life testing for the device must demonstrate the sterility of patient contacting components and the shelf life of these components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 31861, June 3, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4800   Manual surgical instrument for general use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual surgical instrument for general use is a nonpowered, hand-held, or hand manipulated device, either reusable or disposable, intended to be used in various general surgical procedures. The device includes the applicator, clip applier, biopsy brush, manual dermabrasion brush, scrub brush, cannula, ligature carrier, chisel, clamp, contractor, curette, cutter, dissector, elevator, skin graft expander, file, forceps, gouge, instrument guide, needle guide, hammer, hemostat, amputation hook, ligature passing and knot-tying instrument, knife, mallet, disposable or reusable aspiration and injection needle, disposable or reusable suturing needle, osteotome, pliers, rasp, retainer, retractor, saw, scalpel blade, scalpel handle, one-piece scalpel, snare, spatula, stapler, disposable or reusable stripper, stylet, suturing apparatus for the stomach and intestine, measuring tape, and calipers. A surgical instrument that has specialized uses in a specific medical specialty is classified in separate regulations in parts 868 through 892 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13828, Apr. 5, 1989; 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001; 86 FR 56204, Oct. 8, 2021; 86 FR 66188, Nov. 22, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4805" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4805   Manual percutaneous surgical set assembled in the abdomen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual percutaneous surgical set assembled in the abdomen is a prescription device consisting of a percutaneous surgical set used as a means to penetrate soft tissue to access certain areas of the abdomen. The device's effectors or attachments are provided separately from the percutaneous shaft and are introduced to the site via a traditional conduit such as a trocar. The attachment or effectors are connected to the shaft once the tip of the shaft is inside the abdomen. Once inside the abdomen, the surgical set is used to grasp, hold, and manipulate soft tissues. A surgical instrument that has specialized uses in a specific medical specialty is classified in separate regulations in parts 868 through 892 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the requested shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Dimensional verification testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Force verification testing must be conducted. The force testing must demonstrate the forces necessary to insert and operate each component of the device during use as intended.
</P>
<P>(iii) Functional verification testing of the device components must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) Simulated use testing in an anatomically relevant animal model must demonstrate the device's ability to penetrate soft tissue, be assembled in situ, and to grasp, hold and manipulate soft tissues in the intended treatment area.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including detailed instructions for instrument assembly, disassembly, and removal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 71569, Dec. 17, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4810   Laser surgical instrument for use in general and plastic surgery and in dermatology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> (1) A carbon dioxide laser for use in general surgery and in dermatology is a laser device intended to cut, destroy, or remove tissue by light energy emitted by carbon dioxide. 
</P>
<P>(2) An argon laser for use in dermatology is a laser device intended to destroy or coagulate tissue by light energy emitted by argon. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II.
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for special laser gas mixtures used as a lasing medium for this class of lasers. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4815" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4815   Magnetic surgical instrument system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A magnetic surgical instrument system is a prescription device used in laparoscopic surgical procedures consisting of several components, such as surgical instruments, and a magnetic controller. The magnetic controller is provided separately from the surgical instrument and is used outside the patient. The external magnetic controller is magnetically coupled with the internal surgical instrument(s) at the surgical site to grasp, hold, retract, mobilize, or manipulate soft tissue and organs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to grasp, hold, retract, mobilize, or manipulate soft tissue and organs.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the system performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Magnetic field strength testing characterization to identify the distances from the magnet that are safe for patients and users with ferromagnetic implants, devices, or objects.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ability of the internal surgical instrument(s) to be coupled, de-coupled, and re-coupled with the external magnet over the external magnet use life.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components that are patient-contacting.
</P>
<P>(5) Methods and instructions for reprocessing reusable components must be validated.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device or the sterile components and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Training must be developed and validated by human factors testing and analysis to ensure users can follow the instructions for use to allow safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Magnetic field safe zones.
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for proper device use.
</P>
<P>(iii) A screening checklist to ensure that all patients and operating staff are screened from bringing ferromagnetic implants, devices, or objects near the external magnet.
</P>
<P>(iv) Reprocessing instructions for any reusable components.
</P>
<P>(v) Shelf life.
</P>
<P>(vi) Use life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 64763, Sept. 21, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4820   Surgical instrument motors and accessories/attachments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Surgical instrument motors and accessories are AC-powered, battery-powered, or air-powered devices intended for use during surgical procedures to provide power to operate various accessories or attachments to cut hard tissue or bone and soft tissue. Accessories or attachments may include a bur, chisel (osteotome), dermabrasion brush, dermatome, drill bit, hammerhead, pin driver, and saw blade.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2318, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4825" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4825   General laparoscopic power morcellation containment system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A general laparoscopic power morcellation containment system is a prescription device consisting of an instrument port and tissue containment method that creates a working space allowing for direct visualization during a power morcellation procedure following a laparoscopic procedure for the excision of benign tissue that is not suspected to contain malignancy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the intended shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstration of the device impermeability to tissue, cells, and fluids;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstration that the device allows for the insertion/withdrawal of laparoscopic instruments while maintaining pneumoperitoneum;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstration that the containment system provides adequate space to perform morcellation and adequate visualization of the laparoscopic instruments and tissue specimen relative to the external viscera;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstration that compatible laparoscopic instruments and morcellators do not compromise the integrity of the containment system; and
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstration that users can adequately deploy the device, morcellate a specimen without compromising the integrity of the device, and remove the device without spillage of contents.
</P>
<P>(5) Training must be developed and validated to ensure users can follow the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A contraindication for use in gynecological procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) A contraindication against use of tissue that is known or suspected to contain malignancy;
</P>
<P>(iii) The following boxed warning: “Warning: Information regarding the potential risks of a procedure with this device should be shared with patients. The use of laparoscopic power morcellators may spread cancer. The use of this containment system has not been clinically demonstrated to reduce this risk;”
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement limiting use of device to physicians who have completed the training program; and
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66458, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4830   Absorbable surgical gut suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable surgical gut suture, both plain and chromic, is an absorbable, sterile, flexible thread prepared from either the serosal connective tissue layer of beef (bovine) or the submucosal fibrous tissue of sheep (ovine) intestine, and is intended for use in soft tissue approximation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 50738, Dec. 11, 1989, as amended at 68 FR 32984, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4840   Absorbable polydioxanone surgical suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable polydioxanone surgical suture is an absorbable, flexible, sterile, monofilament thread prepared from polyester polymer poly (p-dioxanone) and is intended for use in soft tissue approximation, including pediatric cardiovascular tissue where growth is expected to occur, and ophthalmic surgery. It may be coated or uncoated, undyed or dyed, and with or without a standard needle attached.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for the device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 77676, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4850   Blood lancets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Single use only blood lancet with an integral sharps injury prevention feature</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A disposable blood lancet intended for a single use that is comprised of a single use blade attached to a solid, non-reusable base (including an integral sharps injury prevention feature) that is used to puncture the skin to obtain a drop of blood for diagnostic purposes. The integral sharps injury prevention feature allows the device to be used once and then renders it inoperable and incapable of further use.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are:
</P>
<P>(i) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that the structure and material composition are consistent with the intended use and must include a sharps injury prevention feature.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical performance testing must demonstrate that the device will withstand forces encountered during use and that the integral sharps injury prevention feature will irreversibly disable the device after one use.
</P>
<P>(iii) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Sterility testing must demonstrate the sterility of any device component that breaches the skin (<I>e.g.,</I> blade).
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed descriptions, with illustrations, of the proper use of the device and its sharps injury prevention feature.
</P>
<P>(B) Handwashing instructions for the user before and after use of the device.
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions on preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> cleaning, disinfection) of the skin to be pierced.
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions for the safe disposal of the device.
</P>
<P>(E) Labeling must be appropriate for the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For those devices intended for health care settings, labeling must address the health care facility use of these devices, including how these lancets are to be used with personal protective equipment, such as gloves.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For those devices intended for use in the home, labeling must be written so that it is understandable to lay users.
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must also include the following statements, prominently placed:
</P>
<P>(A) “For use only on a single patient. Discard the entire device after use.”
</P>
<P>(B) “Warning: Not intended for more than one use. Do not use on more than one patient. Improper use of blood lancets can increase the risk of inadvertent transmission of bloodborne pathogens, particularly in settings where multiple patients are tested.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Single use only blood lancet without an integral sharps injury prevention feature</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A disposable blood lancet intended for a single use that is comprised of a single use blade attached to a solid, non-reusable base that is used to puncture the skin to obtain a drop of blood for diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are:
</P>
<P>(i) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that the structure and material composition are consistent with the intended use and address the risk of sharp object injuries and bloodborne pathogen transmissions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical performance testing must demonstrate that the device will withstand forces encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(iii) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Sterility testing must demonstrate the sterility of any device component that breaches the skin (<I>e.g.,</I> blade).
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed descriptions, with illustrations, of the proper use of the device.
</P>
<P>(B) Handwashing instructions for the user before and after use of the device.
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions on preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> cleaning, disinfection) of the skin to be pierced.
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions for the safe disposal of the device.
</P>
<P>(E) Labeling must be appropriate for the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For those devices intended for health care settings, labeling must address the health care facility use of these devices, including how these lancets are to be used with personal protective equipment, such as gloves.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For those devices intended for use in the home, labeling must be written so that it is understandable to lay users.
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must also include the following statements, prominently placed:
</P>
<P>(A) “For use only on a single patient. Discard the entire device after use.”
</P>
<P>(B) “Warning: Not intended for more than one use. Do not use on more than one patient. Improper use of blood lancets can increase the risk of inadvertent transmission of bloodborne pathogens, particularly in settings where multiple patients are tested.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple use blood lancet for single patient use only</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A multiple use capable blood lancet intended for use on a single patient that is comprised of a single use blade attached to a solid, reusable base that is used to puncture the skin to obtain a drop of blood for diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are:
</P>
<P>(i) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(A) The lancet blade can be changed with every use, either manually or by triggering a blade storage unit to discard the used blade and reload an unused blade into the reusable base; and
</P>
<P>(B) The structure and material composition are consistent with the intended use and address the risk of sharp object injuries and bloodborne pathogen transmissions and allow for validated cleaning and disinfection.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical performance testing must demonstrate that the device will withstand forces encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(iii) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Sterility testing must demonstrate the sterility of any device component that breaches the skin (<I>e.g.,</I> blade).
</P>
<P>(v) Validation testing must demonstrate that the cleaning and disinfection instructions are adequate to ensure that the reusable lancet base can be cleaned and low level disinfected.
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed descriptions, with illustrations, of the proper use of the device.
</P>
<P>(B) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) registered disinfectant's contact time for disinfectant use.
</P>
<P>(C) Handwashing instructions for the user before and after use of the device.
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions on preparation (<I>e.g.,</I> cleaning, disinfection) of the skin to be pierced.
</P>
<P>(E) Instructions on the cleaning and disinfection of the device.
</P>
<P>(F) Instructions for the safe disposal of the device.
</P>
<P>(G) Instructions for use must address the safe storage of the reusable blood lancet base between uses to minimize contamination or damage and the safe storage and disposal of the refill lancet blades.
</P>
<P>(H) Labeling must be appropriate for the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For those devices intended for health care settings, labeling must address the health care facility use of these devices, including how these lancets are to be used with personal protective equipment, such as gloves.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For those devices intended for use in the home, labeling must be written so that it is understandable to lay users.
</P>
<P>(vii) Labeling must also include the following statements, prominently placed:
</P>
<P>(A) “For use only on a single patient. Disinfect reusable components according to manufacturer's instructions between each use.”
</P>
<P>(B) “Used lancet blades must be safely discarded after a single use.”
</P>
<P>(C) “Warning: Do not use on more than one patient. Improper use of blood lancets can increase the risk of inadvertent transmission of bloodborne pathogens, particularly in settings where multiple patients are tested. The cleaning and disinfection instructions for this device are intended only to reduce the risk of local use site infection; they cannot render this device safe for use for more than one patient.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple use blood lancet for multiple patient use</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A multiple use capable blood lancet intended for use on multiple patients that is comprised of a single use blade attached to a solid, reusable base that is used to puncture the skin to obtain a drop of blood for diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required:</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before May 22, 2024, for any multiple use blood lancet for multiple patient use described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before May 22, 2024, been found to be substantially equivalent to a multiple use blood lancet for multiple patient use described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other multiple use blood lancet for multiple patient use shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66188, Nov. 22, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 66179, Nov. 22, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4860   Light based energy source device for topical application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The device emits light energy at near infrared spectrum and is applied externally to the surface of herpes simplex labialis lesions on or around the lips.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical parameters of the device, including wavelength, treatment time, treatment area, energy density, spot size, and power, must be characterized.
</P>
<P>(2) The cleaning and disinfection instructions for the device must be validated.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), ocular safety, and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must direct end-users to contact the device manufacturer and MedWatch if they experience any adverse events when using this device.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include specific information pertinent to use of the device by the intended patient population and the treatment regimen.
</P>
<P>(7) Simulated use testing must include information from a usability, label comprehension and self-selection study to demonstrate that the device can be used by the intended patient population without any assistance.
</P>
<P>(8) Clinical data must show adequate reduction in time to healing and assess risks of redness, discomfort, burns, and blisters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52969, Oct. 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4880   Phototherapy device for reducing the appearance of acute post-surgical incisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> This device consists of a light-emitting device and a photoconverter gel and is intended to employ light energy for reducing the appearance of acute post-surgical incisions. This classification does not include products which contain drugs or biologics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Verification and validation testing of the spectrum and power intensity of the light source;
</P>
<P>(ii) Heat dissipation from the area following device application; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Biophotonic properties of the photoconverter gel, including radiant fluence (transmitted light and fluorescence) delivered through the photoconverter gel by the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must evaluate the sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the photoconverter gel by demonstrating continued sterility and functional performance over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, and thermal safety of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(6) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed for any software components.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the device technical specifications, including light wavelength, irradiance, and application area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warnings for ensuring eye safety, including use of protective eyeglasses used for both the operator and the patient; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life for the photoconverter gel.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 23359, May 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4930   Suture retention device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A suture retention device is a device, such as a retention bridge, a surgical button, or a suture bolster, intended to aid wound healing by distributing suture tension over a larger area in the patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4950   Manual operating table and accessories and manual operating chair and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual operating table and accessories and a manual operating chair and accessories are nonpowered devices, usually with movable components, intended to be used to support a patient during diagnostic examinations or surgical procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13828, Apr. 5, 1989; 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4960   Operating tables and accessories and operating chairs and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Operating tables and accessories and operating chairs and accessories are AC-powered or air-powered devices, usually with movable components, intended for use during diagnostic examinations or surgical procedures to support and position a patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.4961" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.4961   Mountable electromechanical surgical system for transluminal approaches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mountable electromechanical surgical system for transluminal approaches is a software-controlled, patient bed- and/or operating table-mounted electromechanical surgical system with human/device interfaces that allows a qualified user to perform transluminal endoscopic or laparoscopic surgical procedures using surgical instruments attached to an electromechanical arm.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device manufacturer must develop, and update as necessary, a device-specific use training program that ensures proper device setup/use/shutdown, accurate control of instruments to perform the intended surgical procedures, troubleshooting and handling during unexpected events or emergencies, and safe practices to mitigate use error.
</P>
<P>(2) The device manufacturer may only distribute the device to facilities that implement and maintain the device-specific use training program and ensure that users of the device have completed the device-specific use training program.
</P>
<P>(3) The device manufacturer must conduct and complete post-market surveillance, including an impact of the training program on user learning, behavior, and performance, in accordance with an FDA-agreed-upon protocol. The device manufacturer must submit post-market surveillance reports that contain current data and findings in accordance with the FDA-agreed-upon protocol.
</P>
<P>(4) The device manufacturer must submit a report to FDA annually on the anniversary of initial marketing authorization for the device, until such time as FDA may terminate such reporting, which comprises the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Cumulative summary, by year, of complaints and adverse events since date of initial marketing authorization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification and rationale for changes made to the device, labeling or device-specific use training program, which did not require submission of a premarket notification during the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of clinical performance testing conducted with the device, including study population, results, adverse events, and comparisons to any comparator groups identified;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement in the labeling that the safety and effectiveness of the device has not been evaluated for outcomes related to the treatment or prevention of cancer, including but not limited to risk reduction, overall survival, disease-free survival and local recurrence, unless FDA determines that it can be removed or modified based on clinical performance data submitted to FDA;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of compatible devices;
</P>
<P>(iv) The list of surgical procedures for which the device has been determined to be safe with clinical justification;
</P>
<P>(v) Reprocessing instructions for reusable components;
</P>
<P>(vi) A shelf life for any sterile components;
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the device-specific use training program;
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement that the device is only for distribution to facilities that implement and maintain the device-specific use training program and ensure that users of the device have completed the device-specific use training program; and
</P>
<P>(ix) A detailed summary of the post-market surveillance data collected under paragraph (b)(3) of this section and any necessary modifications to the labeling to accurately reflect outcomes based upon the post-market surveillance data collected under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(7) Human factors validation testing must be performed and must demonstrate that the user interfaces of the system support safe use in an operating room environment.
</P>
<P>(8) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Device motion accuracy and precision;
</P>
<P>(ii) System testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instrument reliability;
</P>
<P>(iv) Thermal effects on tissue;
</P>
<P>(v) Human-device interface;
</P>
<P>(vi) Mounting hardware testing;
</P>
<P>(vii) Workspace access testing; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Performance testing with compatible devices.
</P>
<P>(9) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Software documentation must include an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users/patients as part of cybersecurity review.
</P>
<P>(10) Electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(11) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of all patient-contacting device components.
</P>
<P>(12) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device components provided sterile by demonstrating continued sterility and package integrity over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(13) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(14) Performance data must demonstrate that all patient-contacting components of the device are biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(15) Performance data must demonstrate that all patient-contacting components of the device are non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 26995, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5000" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5000   Nonabsorbable poly(ethylene terephthalate) surgical suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nonabsorbable poly(ethylene terephthalate) surgical suture is a multifilament, nonabsorbable, sterile, flexible thread prepared from fibers of high molecular weight, long-chain, linear polyesters having recurrent aromatic rings as an integral component and is indicated for use in soft tissue approximation. The poly(ethylene terephthalate) surgical suture meets U.S.P. requirements as described in the U.S.P. Monograph for Nonabsorbable Surgical Sutures; it may be provided uncoated or coated; and it may be undyed or dyed with an appropriate FDA listed color additive. Also, the suture may be provided with or without a standard needle attached.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24685, May 31, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 32984, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5010   Nonabsorbable polypropylene surgical suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nonabsorbable polypropylene surgical suture is a monofilament, nonabsorbable, sterile, flexible thread prepared from long-chain polyolefin polymer known as polypropylene and is indicated for use in soft tissue approximation. The polypropylene surgical suture meets United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.) requirements as described in the U.S.P. Monograph for Nonabsorbable Surgical Sutures; it may be undyed or dyed with an FDA approved color additive; and the suture may be provided with or without a standard needle attached.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24685, May 31, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 32984, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5020   Nonabsorbable polyamide surgical suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nonabsorbable polyamide surgical suture is a nonabsorbable, sterile, flexible thread prepared from long-chain aliphatic polymers Nylon 6 and Nylon 6,6 and is indicated for use in soft tissue approximation. The polyamide surgical suture meets United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.) requirements as described in the U.S.P. monograph for nonabsorbable surgical sutures; it may be monofilament or multifilament in form; it may be provided uncoated or coated; and it may be undyed or dyed with an appropriate FDA listed color additive. Also, the suture may be provided with or without a standard needle attached.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24685, May 31, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 32985, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5030   Natural nonabsorbable silk surgical suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Natural nonabsorbable silk surgical suture is a nonabsorbable, sterile, flexible multifilament thread composed of an organic protein called fibroin. This protein is derived from the domesticated species <I>Bombyx mori</I> (<I>B. mori</I>) of the family <I>Bombycidae.</I> Natural nonabsorbable silk surgical suture is indicated for use in soft tissue approximation. Natural nonabsorbable silk surgical suture meets the United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.) monograph requirements for Nonabsorbable Surgical Suture (class I). Natural nonabsorbable silk surgical suture may be braided or twisted; it may be provided uncoated or coated; and it may be undyed or dyed with an FDA listed color additive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 57558, Oct. 26, 1993, as amended at 68 FR 32985, June 3, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5035" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5035   Nonabsorbable expanded polytetrafluoroethylene surgical suture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nonabsorbable expanded polytetrafluoroethylene (ePTFE) surgical suture is a monofilament, nonabsorbable, sterile, flexible thread prepared from ePTFE and is intended for use in soft tissue approximation and ligation, including cardiovascular surgery. It may be undyed or dyed with an approved color additive and may be provided with or without an attached needle(s). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Surgical Sutures; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 20735, Apr. 18, 2000, as amended at 68 FR 32985, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5040   Suction lipoplasty system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A suction lipoplasty system is a device intended for aesthetic body contouring. The device consists of a powered suction pump (containing a microbial filter on the exhaust and a microbial in-line filter in the connecting tubing between the collection bottle and the safety trap), collection bottle, cannula, and connecting tube. The microbial filters, tubing, collection bottle, and cannula must be capable of being changed between patients. The powered suction pump has a motor with a minimum of 
<FR>1/3</FR> horsepower, a variable vacuum range from 0 to 29.9 inches of mercury, vacuum control valves to regulate the vacuum with accompanying vacuum gauges, a single or double rotary vane (with or without oil), a single or double diaphragm, a single or double piston, and a safety trap.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Consensus standards and labeling restrictions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 7705, Feb. 17, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.5.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5050   Surgical smoke precipitator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical smoke precipitator is a prescription device intended for clearance of the visual field by precipitation of surgical smoke and other aerosolized particulate matter created during laparoscopic surgery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Adverse tissue reaction must be mitigated through the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Chemical characterization and toxicological risk assessment of the treated surgical smoke.
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstration that the elements of the device that may contact the patient are biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the patient contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the shelf life of the sterile components of the device by demonstrating continued functionality, sterility, and package integrity over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Animal simulated-use testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Device must be demonstrated to be effectively inserted, positioned, and removed from the site of use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device must be demonstrated to precipitate surgical smoke particulates to clear the visual field for laparoscopic surgeries.
</P>
<P>(iii) Device must be demonstrated to be non-damaging to the site of use and animal subject.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must identify the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Detailed instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility information.
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 4143, Jan. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5070   Air-handling apparatus for a surgical operating room.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Air-handling apparatus for a surgical operating room is a device intended to produce a directed, nonturbulent flow of air that has been filtered to remove particulate matter and microorganisms to provide an area free of contaminants to reduce the possibility of infection in the patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an air handling bench apparatus, an air handling room apparatus, or an air handling enclosure apparatus, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 84 FR 71814, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5080   Air-handling apparatus accessory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An air-handling apparatus accessory is a supplementary device that is intended to be used with an air-handling apparatus for a surgical operating room. This device provides an interface between the components of the device or can be used to switch electrical power. This generic type of device includes fittings, adapters, couplers, remote switches, and footswitches.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14870, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5350   Needle-type epilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A needle-type epilator is a device intended to destroy the dermal papilla of a hair by applying electric current at the tip of a fine needle that has been inserted close to the hair shaft, under the skin, and into the dermal papilla. The electric current may be high-frequency AC current, high-frequency AC combined with DC current, or DC current only. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5360   Tweezer-type epilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The tweezer-type epilator is an electrical device intended to remove hair. The energy provided at the tip of the tweezer used to remove hair may be radio frequency, galvanic (direct current), or a combination of radio frequency and galvanic energy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 57060, Oct. 26, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5400   Low level laser system for aesthetic use</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Low Level Laser System for Aesthetic Use is a device using low level laser energy for the disruption of adipocyte cells within the fat layer for the release of fat and lipids from these cells for noninvasive aesthetic use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Low Level Laser System for Aesthetic Use.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 20842, Apr. 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5650   Topical oxygen chamber for extremities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A topical oxygen chamber for extremities is a device that is intended to surround a patient's limb and apply humidified oxygen topically at a pressure slightly greater than atmospheric pressure to aid healing of chronic skin ulcers such as bedsores.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance: Topical Oxygen Chamber for Extremities.” See § 878.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 22807, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5900   Nonpneumatic tourniquet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpneumatic tourniquet is a device consisting of a strap or tubing intended to be wrapped around a patient's limb and tightened to reduce circulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13828, Apr. 5, 1989; 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 878.5910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.26.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 878.5910   Pneumatic tourniquet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pneumatic tourniquet is an air-powered device consisting of a pressure-regulating unit, connecting tubing, and an inflatable cuff. The cuff is intended to be wrapped around a patient's limb and inflated to reduce or totally occlude circulation during surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 878.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23872, June 24, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 880—GENERAL HOSPITAL AND PERSONAL USE DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 880 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of general hospital and personal use devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a general hospital and personal use device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed only in one subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987, as amended at 69 FR 71704, Dec. 8, 2004; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” devices defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17738, May 11, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Hospital and Personal Use Monitoring Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2200   Liquid crystal forehead temperature strip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A liquid crystal forehead temperature strip is a device applied to the forehead that is used to indicate the presence or absence of fever, or to monitor body temperature changes. The device displays the color changes of heat sensitive liquid crystals corresponding to the variation in the surface temperature of the skin. The liquid crystals, which are cholesteric esters, are sealed in plastic.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2400   Bed-patient monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bed-patient monitor is a battery-powered device placed under a mattress and used to indicate by an alarm or other signal when a patient attempts to leave the bed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63010, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2420   Electronic monitor for gravity flow infusion systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electronic monitor for gravity flow infusion systems is a device used to monitor the amount of fluid being infused into a patient. The device consists of an electronic transducer and equipment for signal amplification, conditioning, and display. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2460   Electrically powered spinal fluid pressure monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrically powered spinal fluid pressure monitor is an electrically powered device used to measure spinal fluid pressure by the use of a transducer which converts spinal fluid pressure into an electrical signal. The device includes signal amplification, conditioning, and display equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2500   Spinal fluid manometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spinal fluid manometer is a device used to measure spinal fluid pressure. The device uses a hollow needle, which is inserted into the spinal column fluid space, to connect the spinal fluid to a graduated column so that the pressure can be measured by reading the height of the fluid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2700   Stand-on patient scale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stand-on patient scale is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to weigh a patient who is able to stand on the scale platform.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2720   Patient scale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A patient scale is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to measure the weight of a patient who cannot stand on a scale. This generic device includes devices placed under a bed or chair to weigh both the support and the patient, devices where the patient is lifted by a sling from a bed to be weighed, and devices where the patient is placed on the scale platform to be weighed. The device may be mechanical, battery powered, or AC-powered and may include transducers, electronic signal amplification, conditioning and display equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38803, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2740   Surgical sponge scale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A surgical sponge scale is a nonelectrically powered device used to weigh surgical sponges that have been used to absorb blood during surgery so that, by comparison with the known dry weight of the sponges, an estimate may be made of the blood lost by the patient during surgery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2750   Image processing device for estimation of external blood loss.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An image processing device for estimation of external blood loss is a device to be used as an aid in estimation of patient external blood loss. The device may include software and/or hardware that is used to process images capturing externally lost blood to estimate the hemoglobin mass and/or the blood volume present in the images.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Demonstration of the performance characteristics must include a comparison to a scientifically valid alternative method for measuring deposited hemoglobin mass. The following use conditions must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Lighting conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Range of expected hemoglobin concentrations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Range of expected blood volume absorption; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Presence of other non-sanguineous fluids (<I>e.g.,</I> saline irrigation fluid).
</P>
<P>(2) Human factors testing and analysis must validate that the device design and labeling are sufficient for appropriate use by intended users of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must validate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) and wireless performance of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Software display must include an estimate of the cumulative error associated with estimated blood loss values.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Warnings, cautions, and limitations needed for safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the performance testing pertinent to use of the device, including a description of the bias and variance the device exhibited during testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) The validated surgical materials, range of hemoglobin mass, software, hardware, and accessories that the device is intended to be used with; and
</P>
<P>(iv) EMC and wireless technology instructions and information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 60307, Dec. 20, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2800   Sterilization process indicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Biological sterilization process indicator</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A biological sterilization process indicator is a device intended for use by a health care provider to accompany products being sterilized through a sterilization procedure and to monitor adequacy of sterilization. The device consists of a known number of microorganisms, of known resistance to the mode of sterilization, in or on a carrier and enclosed in a protective package. Subsequent growth or failure of the microorganisms to grow under suitable conditions indicates the adequacy of sterilization. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Physical/chemical sterilization process indicator</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A physical/chemical sterilization process indicator is a device intended for use by a health care provider to accompany products being sterilized through a sterilization procedure and to monitor one or more parameters of the sterilization process. The adequacy of the sterilization conditions as measured by these parameters is indicated by a visible change in the device. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2900   Clinical color change thermometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clinical color change thermometer is a disposable device used to measure a patient's oral, rectal, or axillary (armpit) body temperature. The device records body temperature by use of heat sensitive chemicals which are sealed at the end of a plastic or metal strip. Body heat causes a stable color change in the heat sensitive chemicals. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2910   Clinical electronic thermometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clinical electronic thermometer is a device used to measure the body temperature of a patient by means of a transducer coupled with an electronic signal amplification, conditioning, and display unit. The transducer may be in a detachable probe with or without a disposable cover.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9 and the following conditions for exemption:
</P>
<P>(1) Device is not a clinical thermometer with telethermographic functions;
</P>
<P>(2) Device is not a clinical thermometer with continuous temperature measurement functions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis and testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized editions, as appropriate, of ISO 80601-2-56, “Medical electrical equipment—Part 2-56: Particular requirements for basic safety and essential performance of clinical thermometers for body temperature measurement,” or ASTM E1965, “Standard Specification for Infrared Thermometers for Intermittent Determination of Patient Temperature,” or ASTM E1112, “Standard Specification for Electronic Thermometer for Intermittent Determination of Patient Temperature,” or ASTM E1104, “Standard Specification for Clinical Thermometer Probe Covers and Sheaths”) must validate specifications and performance of the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 90 FR 25891, June 18, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2920   Clinical mercury thermometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clinical mercury thermometer is a device used to measure oral, rectal, or axillary (armpit) body temperature using the thermal expansion of mercury.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59228, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.2930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.2930   Apgar timer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The Apgar timer is a device intended to alert a health care provider to take the Apgar score of a newborn infant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59718, Nov. 5, 1998, as amended at 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—General Hospital and Personal Use Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5025   I.V. container.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An I.V. container is a container made of plastic or glass used to hold a fluid mixture to be administered to a patient through an intravascular administration set.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5045" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5045   Medical recirculating air cleaner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical recirculating air cleaner is a device used to remove particles from the air for medical purposes. The device may function by electrostatic precipitation or filtration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5075" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5075   Elastic bandage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An elastic bandage is a device consisting of either a long flat strip or a tube of elasticized material that is used to support and compress a part of a patient's body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5090   Liquid bandage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A liquid bandage is a sterile device that is a liquid, semiliquid, or powder and liquid combination used to cover an opening in the skin or as a dressing for burns. The device is also used as a topical skin protectant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). When used only as a skin protectant, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5100   AC-powered adjustable hospital bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AC-powered adjustable hospital bed is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a bed with a built-in electric motor and remote controls that can be operated by the patient to adjust the height and surface contour of the bed. The device includes movable and latchable side rails. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5110   Hydraulic adjustable hospital bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydraulic adjustable hospital bed is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a bed with a hydraulic mechanism operated by an attendant to adjust the height and surface contour of the bed. The device includes movable and latchable side rails.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5120   Manual adjustable hospital bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual adjustable hospital bed is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a bed with a manual mechanism operated by an attendant to adjust the height and surface contour of the bed. The device includes movable and latchable side rails.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5130   Infant radiant warmer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The infant radiant warmer is a device consisting of an infrared heating element intended to be placed over an infant to maintain the infant's body temperature by means of radiant heat. The device may also contain a temperature monitoring sensor, a heat output control mechanism, and an alarm system (infant temperature, manual mode if present, and failure alarms) to alert operators of a temperature condition over or under the set temperature, manual mode time limits, and device component failure, respectively. The device may be placed over a pediatric hospital bed or it may be built into the bed as a complete unit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (Special Controls):
</P>
<P>(1) The Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI) Voluntary Standard for the Infant Radiant Warmer;
</P>
<P>(2) A prescription statement in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter (restricted to use by or upon the order of qualified practitioners as determined by the States); and
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling for use only in health care facilities and only by persons with specific training and experience in the use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 33350, June 19, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5140   Pediatric medical crib.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pediatric medical crib is a prescription device intended for medical purposes for use with a pediatric patient that consists of an open crib, fixed end rails, movable and latchable side rail components, and possibly an accompanying mattress. The contour of the crib surface may be adjustable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Crib design and performance testing shall demonstrate the mechanical and structural stability of the crib under expected conditions of use, including the security of latches and other locking mechanisms when engaged;
</P>
<P>(2) Materials used shall be appropriate for the conditions of use, allow for proper sanitation, and be free from surface defects that could result in injuries;
</P>
<P>(3) The height of the rail and end panel as measured from the top of the rail or panel in its highest position to the top of the mattress support in its lowest position shall be at least 26 inches (66 centimeters). Any mattress used in this crib must not exceed a thickness of 6 inches;
</P>
<P>(4) Hardware and fasteners shall be designed and constructed to eliminate mechanical hazards to the patient;
</P>
<P>(5) The distance between components of the side rail (<I>i.e.,</I> slats, spindles, and corner posts) shall not be greater than 2
<FR>3/8</FR> inches (6 centimeters) apart at any point;
</P>
<P>(6) The mattress must fit tightly around all four sides of the crib base, such that entrapment or impingement of occupant is prevented;
</P>
<P>(7) The mattress for the crib shall meet the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) Standard for the flammability of mattresses and mattress pads (FF 4-72, amended) and Standard for the flammability (open flame) of mattress sets, 16 CFR parts 1632 and 1633, respectively; and
</P>
<P>(8) Each device must have the following label(s) affixed:
</P>
<P>(i) Adequate instructions for users to care for, maintain, and clean the crib; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning label on at least two sides of the medical crib with the following language in text of at least 9 millimeters in height:
</P>
<FP-1>WARNING: Never leave a child unsupervised when the moveable side is open or not secured.
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 91737, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5145" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5145   Medical bassinet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical bassinet is a prescription device that is a small bed intended for use with pediatric patients, generally from birth to approximately 5 months of age. It is intended for medical purposes for use in a nursery, labor and delivery unit, or patient room, but may also be used outside of traditional health care settings. A medical bassinet is a non-powered device that consists of two components: The plastic basket or bed component and a durable frame with wheels, which holds the basket or bed component. The basket or bed component is a box-like structure, generally made of a clear, high impact-resistant plastic material, with an open top and four stationary walls to hold the pediatric patient. The frame can include drawers, shelving, or cabinetry that provides space to hold infant care items. The wheels or casters allow the bassinet to transport the infant throughout the care setting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer must conduct performance testing to determine material compatibility with cleansing products labeled to clean the device. Testing must demonstrate that the cleaning instructions provided by the manufacturer do not cause crazing, cracking, or deterioration of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturers shall conduct performance testing to ensure the mechanical and structural stability of the bassinet under expected conditions of use, including transport of patients in the bassinet. Testing must demonstrate that failures such as wheel or caster breakage do not occur and that the device does not present a tipping hazard due to any mechanical failures under expected conditions of use; and
</P>
<P>(3) Each device must have the following label(s) affixed:
</P>
<P>(i) Adequate instructions for users to care for, maintain, and clean the bassinet; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning label on at least two sides of the plastic basket or bed component with the following language in text of at least 9 millimeters in height:
</P>
<FP-1>WARNING: To avoid tipping hazards of this device, make sure that the basket or bed component sits firmly in the base and that all doors, drawers, and casters are secure.
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 91737, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5150   Nonpowered flotation therapy mattress.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered flotation therapy mattress is a mattress intended for medical purposes which contains air, fluid, or other materials that have the functionally equivalent effect of supporting a patient and avoiding excess pressure on local body areas. The device is intended to treat or prevent decubitus ulcers (bed sores).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5160   Therapeutic medical binder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A therapeutic medical binder is a device, usually made of cloth, that is intended for medical purposes and that can be secured by ties so that it supports the underlying part of the body or holds a dressing in place. This generic type of device includes the abdominal binder, breast binder, and perineal binder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5180   Burn sheet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A burn sheet is a device made of a porous material that is wrapped aroung a burn victim to retain body heat, to absorb wound exudate, and to serve as a barrier against contaminants.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5200   Intravascular catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravascular catheter is a device that consists of a slender tube and any necessary connecting fittings and that is inserted into the patient's vascular system for short term use (less than 30 days) to sample blood, monitor blood pressure, or administer fluids intravenously. The device may be constructed of metal, rubber, plastic, or a combination of these materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5210   Intravascular catheter securement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravascular catheter securement device is a device with an adhesive backing that is placed over a needle or catheter and is used to keep the hub of the needle or the catheter flat and securely anchored to the skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5220   Intravenous catheter force-activated separation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravenous catheter force-activated separation device is placed in-line with an intravenous (IV) catheter and an intravascular administration set, including any administration set accessories. It separates into two parts when a specified force is applied. The device is intended to reduce the risk of IV catheter failure(s) requiring IV catheter replacement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance data must be provided to demonstrate clinically acceptable performance for the intended use of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Separation force testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Validation of anti-reconnect features;
</P>
<P>(iii) Air and liquid leakage testing, both before and after separation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Luer connection testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Flow rate testing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Particulate testing; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Microbial ingress testing.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must demonstrate that the device is sterile and non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Device labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A discussion of catheter dressings intended to be used with the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 66560, Aug. 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5240   Medical adhesive tape and adhesive bandage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical adhesive tape or adhesive bandage is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a strip of fabric material or plastic, coated on one side with an adhesive, and may include a pad of surgical dressing without a disinfectant. The device is used to cover and protect wounds, to hold together the skin edges of a wound, to support an injured part of the body, or to secure objects to the skin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5270   Neonatal eye pad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neonatal eye pad is an opaque device used to cover and protect the eye of an infant during therapeutic procedures, such as phototherapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5300   Medical absorbent fiber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical absorbent fiber is a device intended for medical purposes that is made from cotton or synthetic fiber in the shape of a ball or a pad and that is used for applying medication to, or absorbing small amounts of body fluids from, a patient's body surface. Absorbent fibers intended solely for cosmetic purposes are not included in this generic device category.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55986, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5400   Neonatal incubator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neonatal incubator is a device consisting of a rigid boxlike enclosure in which an infant may be kept in a controlled environment for medical care. The device may include an AC-powered heater, a fan to circulate the warmed air, a container for water to add humidity, a control valve through which oxygen may be added, and access ports for nursing care.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5410   Neonatal transport incubator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neonatal transport incubator is a device consisting of a portable rigid boxlike enclosure with insulated walls in which an infant may be kept in a controlled environment while being transported for medical care. The device may include straps to secure the infant, a battery-operated heater, an AC-powered battery charger, a fan to circulate the warmed air, a container for water to add humidity, and provision for a portable oxygen bottle. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5420   Pressure infusor for an I.V. bag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pressure infusor for an I.V. bag is a device consisting of an inflatable cuff which is placed around an I.V. bag. When the device is inflated, it increases the pressure on the I.V. bag to assist the infusion of the fluid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 65 FR 2318, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5430   Nonelectrically powered fluid injector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonelectrically powered fluid injector is a nonelectrically powered device used by a health care provider to give a hypodermic injection by means of a narrow, high velocity jet of fluid which can penetrate the surface of the skin and deliver the fluid to the body. It may be used for mass inoculations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5440   Intravascular administration set.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravascular administration set is a device used to administer fluids from a container to a patient's vascular system through a needle or catheter inserted into a vein. The device may include the needle or catheter, tubing, a flow regulator, a drip chamber, an infusion line filter, an I.V. set stopcock, fluid delivery tubing, connectors between parts of the set, a side tube with a cap to serve as an injection site, and a hollow spike to penetrate and connect the tubing to an I.V. bag or other infusion fluid container.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for pharmacy compounding systems within this classification is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Pharmacy Compounding Systems; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA Reviewers.” Pharmacy compounding systems classified within the intravascular administration set are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of this part and subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 15798, Mar. 21, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5445" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5445   Intravascular administration set, automated air removal system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravascular administration set, automated air removal system, is a prescription device used to detect and automatically remove air from an intravascular administration set with minimal to no interruption in the flow of the intravascular fluid. The device may include an air identification mechanism, software, an air removal mechanism, tubing, apparatus to collect removed air, and safety control mechanisms to address hazardous situations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide an argument demonstrating that all reasonably foreseeable hazards have been adequately addressed with respect to the persons for whose use the device is represented or intended and the conditions of use for the device, which includes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Description of the device indications for use, design, and technology, use environments, and users in sufficient detail to determine that the device complies with all special controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that controls are implemented to address device system hazards and their causes.
</P>
<P>(iii) Include a justification supporting the acceptability criteria for each hazard control.
</P>
<P>(iv) A traceability analysis demonstrating that all credible hazards have at least one corresponding control and that all controls have been verified and validated in the final device design.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The device parts that directly or indirectly contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of fluid path contacting components and the shelf life of these components.
</P>
<P>(5) The device must be designed and tested for electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC).
</P>
<P>(6) Nonclinical performance testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Device system and component reliability testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fluid ingress protection testing must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing of safety controls must be performed to demonstrate adequate mitigation of hazardous situations, including sensor failure, flow control failure, improper device position, device malfunction, infusion delivery error, and release of air to the patient.
</P>
<P>(7) A human factors validation study must demonstrate that use hazards are adequately addressed.
</P>
<P>(8) The labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The device's air identification and removal response time.
</P>
<P>(ii) The device's minimum air volume identification sensitivity.
</P>
<P>(iii) The minimum and maximum flow rates at which the device is capable of reliably detecting and removing air.
</P>
<P>(iv) Quantification of any fluid loss during device air removal operations as a function of flow rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28406, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5450   Patient care reverse isolation chamber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A patient care reverse isolation chamber is a device consisting of a roomlike enclosure designed to prevent the entry of harmful airborne material. This device protects a patient who is undergoing treatment for burns or is lacking a normal immunosuppressive defense due to therapy or congenital abnormality. The device includes fans and air filters which maintain an atmosphere of clean air at a pressure greater than the air pressure outside the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5475" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5475   Jet lavage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A jet lavage is a device used to clean a wound by a pulsatile jet of sterile fluid. The device consists of the pulsing head, tubing to connect to a container of sterile fluid, and a means of propelling the fluid through the tubing, such as an electric roller pump.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5500   AC-powered patient lift.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AC-powered lift is an electrically powered device either fixed or mobile, used to lift and transport patients in the horizontal or other required position from one place to another, as from a bed to a bath. The device includes straps and slings to support the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5510   Non-AC-powered patient lift.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-AC-powered patient lift is a hydraulic, battery, or mechanically powered device, either fixed or mobile, used to lift and transport a patient in the horizontal or other required position from one place to another, as from a bed to a bath. The device includes straps and a sling to support the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5550   Alternating pressure air flotation mattress.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An alternating pressure air flotation mattress is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a mattress with multiple air cells that can be filled and emptied in an alternating pattern by an associated control unit to provide regular, frequent, and automatic changes in the distribution of body pressure. The device is used to prevent and treat decubitus ulcers (bed sores).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5560   Temperature regulated water mattress.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A temperature regulated water mattress is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a mattress of suitable size, filled with water which can be heated or in some cases cooled. The device includes electrical heating and water circulating components, and an optional cooling component. The temperature control may be manual or automatic.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5570   Hypodermic single lumen needle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hypodermic single lumen needle is a device intended to inject fluids into, or withdraw fluids from, parts of the body below the surface of the skin. The device consists of a metal tube that is sharpened at one end and at the other end joined to a female connector (hub) designed to mate with a male connector (nozzle) of a piston syringe or an intravascular administration set.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5580   Acupuncture needle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An acupuncture needle is a device intended to pierce the skin in the practice of acupuncture. The device consists of a solid, stainless steel needle. The device may have a handle attached to the needle to facilitate the delivery of acupuncture treatment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an acupuncture point locator or a single use acupuncture needle, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9. Acupuncture needles must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Labeling for single use only and conformance to the requirements for prescription devices set out in 21 CFR 801.109,
</P>
<P>(2) Device material biocompatibility, and
</P>
<P>(3) Device sterility. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 64617, Dec. 6, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5630   Nipple shield.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nipple shield is a device consisting of a cover used to protect the nipple of a nursing woman. This generic device does not include nursing pads intended solely to protect the clothing of a nursing woman from milk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 33804, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5640   Lamb feeding nipple.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lamb feeding nipple is a device intended for use as a feeding nipple for infants with oral or facial abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38804, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5680   Pediatric position holder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pediatric position holder is a device used to hold an infant or a child in a desired position for therapeutic or diagnostic purposes, e.g., in a crib under a radiant warmer, or to restrain a child while an intravascular injection is administered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except when the device is an infant positioner for prescription use in highly monitored settings or an infant sleep position holder, it is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 46952, Sept. 10, 2001; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5690   Infant supine sleep system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An infant supine sleep system is a device intended to facilitate a supine position during sleep for use in infants that are not yet able to roll over consistently. Infants placed in a supine sleep position are at lower risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) or sudden unexpected infant death (SUID).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Premarket clinical information and, as determined by FDA, postmarket surveillance data acquired under anticipated conditions of use must be collected to fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate that the device holds the infant on the back;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide data on adverse events (including deaths and injuries) and malfunctions to demonstrate the device can be safely used in the intended use population; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide data to demonstrate that use of the device does not increase the rate of SIDS/SUID in the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(2) Human factors testing must demonstrate that the user can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following must be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing to ensure the mechanical and structural stability of the device and demonstrate that the device does not present a tipping hazard due to mechanical failures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Material compatibility testing to demonstrate that the cleaning instructions provided by the manufacturer do not cause crazing, cracking, or deterioration of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Unless clinical performance data demonstrates that it can be removed or modified, a prominent warning that the device has not been demonstrated to reduce the risk of SIDS/SUID. Such warning must appear prominently on all labeling;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of available clinical information with the device, including a discussion of adverse events;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning that the device is only indicated for use with infants who cannot consistently roll over;
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions to ensure proper fit;
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions for cleaning the device; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Information regarding safe sleep practices to ensure the safe use of the device, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Recommendations for safe sleep environments; and
</P>
<P>(B) The level of supervision necessary to monitor a sleeping infant.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 38508, June 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5700   Neonatal phototherapy unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neonatal phototherapy unit is a device used to treat or prevent hyperbilirubinemia (elevated serum bilirubin level). The device consists of one or more lamps that emit a specific spectral band of light, under which an infant is placed for therapy. This generic type of device may include supports for the patient and equipment and component parts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5725" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5725   Infusion pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An infusion pump is a device used in a health care facility to pump fluids into a patient in a controlled manner. The device may use a piston pump, a roller pump, or a peristaltic pump and may be powered electrically or mechanically. The device may also operate using a constant force to propel the fluid through a narrow tube which determines the flow rate. The device may include means to detect a fault condition, such as air in, or blockage of, the infusion line and to activate an alarm.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5730   Alternate controller enabled infusion pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An alternate controller enabled infusion pump (ACE pump) is a device intended for the infusion of drugs into a patient. The ACE pump may include basal and bolus drug delivery at set or variable rates. ACE pumps are designed to reliably and securely communicate with external devices, such as automated drug dosing systems, to allow drug delivery commands to be received, executed, and confirmed. ACE pumps are intended to be used both alone and in conjunction with digitally connected medical devices for the purpose of drug delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence demonstrating that device infusion delivery accuracy conforms to defined user needs and intended uses and is validated to support safe use under actual use conditions.
</P>
<P>(A) Design input requirements must include delivery accuracy specifications under reasonably foreseeable use conditions, including ambient temperature changes, pressure changes (<I>e.g.,</I> head-height, backpressure, atmospheric), and, as appropriate, different drug fluidic properties.
</P>
<P>(B) Test results must demonstrate that the device meets the design input requirements for delivery accuracy under use conditions for the programmable range of delivery rates and volumes. Testing shall be conducted with a statistically valid number of devices to account for variation between devices.
</P>
<P>(ii) Validation testing results demonstrating the ability of the pump to detect relevant hazards associated with drug delivery and the route of administration (<I>e.g.,</I> occlusions, air in line, etc.) within a clinically relevant timeframe across the range of programmable drug delivery rates and volumes. Hazard detection must be appropriate for the intended use of the device and testing must validate appropriate performance under the conditions of use for the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Validation testing results demonstrating compatibility with drugs that may be used with the pump based on its labeling. Testing must include assessment of drug stability under reasonably foreseeable use conditions that may affect drug stability (<I>e.g.,</I> temperature, light exposure, or other factors as needed).
</P>
<P>(iv) The device parts that directly or indirectly contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible. This shall include chemical and particulate characterization on the final, finished, fluid contacting device components demonstrating that risk of harm from device-related residues is reasonably low.
</P>
<P>(v) Evidence verifying and validating that the device is reliable over the ACE pump use life, as specified in the design file, in terms of all device functions and in terms of pump performance.
</P>
<P>(vi) The device must be designed and tested for electrical safety, electromagnetic compatibility, and radio frequency wireless safety and availability consistent with patient safety requirements in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(vii) For any device that is capable of delivering more than one drug, the risk of cross-channeling drugs must be adequately mitigated.
</P>
<P>(viii) For any devices intended for multiple patient use, testing must demonstrate validation of reprocessing procedures and include verification that the device meets all functional and performance requirements after reprocessing.
</P>
<P>(2) Design verification and validation activities must include appropriate design inputs and design outputs that are essential for the proper functioning of the device that have been documented and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Risk control measures shall be implemented to address device system hazards and the design decisions related to how the risk control measures impact essential performance shall be documented.
</P>
<P>(ii) A traceability analysis demonstrating that all hazards are adequately controlled and that all controls have been validated in the final device design.
</P>
<P>(3) The device shall include validated interface specifications for digitally connected devices. These interface specifications shall, at a minimum, provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Secure authentication (pairing) to external devices.
</P>
<P>(ii) Secure, accurate, and reliable means of data transmission between the pump and connected devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sharing of necessary state information between the pump and any digitally connected alternate controllers (<I>e.g.,</I> battery level, reservoir level, pump status, error conditions).
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensuring that the pump continues to operate safely when data is received in a manner outside the bounds of the parameters specified.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed process and procedure for sharing the pump interface specification with digitally connected devices and for validating the correct implementation of that protocol.
</P>
<P>(4) The device must include appropriate measures to ensure that safe therapy is maintained when communications with digitally connected alternate controller devices is interrupted, lost, or re-established after an interruption (<I>e.g.,</I> reverting to a pre-programmed, safe drug delivery rate). Validation testing results must demonstrate that critical events that occur during a loss of communications (<I>e.g.,</I> commands, device malfunctions, occlusions, etc.) are handled appropriately during and after the interruption.
</P>
<P>(5) The device design must ensure that a record of critical events is stored and accessible for an adequate period to allow for auditing of communications between digitally connected devices and to facilitate the sharing of pertinent information with the responsible parties for those connected devices. Critical events to be stored by the system must, at a minimum, include:
</P>
<P>(i) A record of all drug delivery
</P>
<P>(ii) Commands issued to the pump and pump confirmations
</P>
<P>(iii) Device malfunctions
</P>
<P>(iv) Alarms and alerts and associated acknowledgements
</P>
<P>(v) Connectivity events (<I>e.g.,</I> establishment or loss of communications)
</P>
<P>(6) Design verification and validation must include results obtained through a human factors study that demonstrates that an intended user can safely use the device for its intended use.
</P>
<P>(7) Device labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A prominent statement identifying the drugs that are compatible with the device, including the identity and concentration of those drugs as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the minimum and maximum basal rates, minimum and maximum bolus volumes, and the increment size for basal and bolus delivery, or other similarly applicable information about drug delivery parameters.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the pump accuracy at minimum, intermediate, and maximum bolus delivery volumes and the method(s) used to establish bolus delivery accuracy. For each bolus volume, pump accuracy shall be described in terms of the number of bolus doses measured to be within a given range as compared to the commanded volume. An acceptable accuracy description (depending on the drug delivered and bolus volume) may be provided as follows for each bolus volume tested, as applicable: Number of bolus doses with volume that is &lt;25 percent, 25 percent to &lt;75 percent, 75 percent to &lt;95 percent, 95 percent to &lt;105 percent, 105 percent to &lt;125 percent, 125 percent to &lt;175 percent, 175 to 250 percent, and &gt;250 percent of the commanded amount.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the pump accuracy at minimum, intermediate, and maximum basal delivery rates and the method(s) used to establish basal delivery accuracy. For each basal rate, pump accuracy shall be described in terms of the amount of drug delivered after the basal delivery was first commanded, without a warmup period, up to various time points. The information provided must include typical pump performance, as well as worst-case pump performance observed during testing in terms of both over-delivery and under-delivery. An acceptable accuracy description (depending on the drug delivered) may be provided as follows, as applicable: The total volume delivered 1 hour, 6 hours, and 12 hours after starting delivery for a typical pump tested, as well as for the pump that delivered the least and the pump that delivered the most at each time point.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of delivery hazard alarm performance, as applicable. For occlusion alarms, performance shall be reported at minimum, intermediate, and maximum delivery rates and volumes. This description must include the specification for the longest time period that may elapse before an occlusion alarm is triggered under each delivery condition, as well as the typical results observed during performance testing of the pumps.
</P>
<P>(vi) For wireless connection enabled devices, a description of the wireless quality of service required for proper use of the device.
</P>
<P>(vii) For any infusion pumps intended for multiple patient reuse, instructions for safely reprocessing the device between uses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 6424, Feb. 4, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5740   Suction snakebite kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A suction snakebite kit is a device consisting of a knife, suction device, and tourniquet used for first-aid treatment of snakebites by removing venom from the wound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5760   Chemical cold pack snakebite kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chemical cold pack snakebit kit is a device consisting of a chemical cold pack and tourniquet used for first-aid treatment of snakebites.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any chemical cold pack snakebite kit that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a chemical cold pack snakebite kit that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other chemical cold pack snakebite kit shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17739, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5780   Medical support stocking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Medical support stocking to prevent the pooling of blood in the legs</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A medical support stocking to prevent the pooling of blood in the legs is a device that is constructed of elastic material and designed to apply controlled pressure to the leg and that is intended for use in the prevention of pooling of blood in the leg.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical support stocking for general medical purposes</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A medical support stocking for general medical purposes is a device that is constructed of elastic material and designed to apply controlled pressure to the leg and that is intended for medical purposes other than the prevention of pooling of blood in the leg.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5820   Therapeutic scrotal support.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A therapeutic scrotal support is a device intended for medical purposes that consist of a pouch attached to an elastic waistband and that is used to support the scrotum (the sac that contains the testicles).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5860   Piston syringe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A piston syringe is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a calibrated hollow barrel and a movable plunger. At one end of the barrel there is a male connector (nozzle) for fitting the female connector (hub) of a hypodermic single lumen needle. The device is used to inject fluids into, or withdraw fluids from, the body. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5950   Umbilical occlusion device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An umbilical occlusion device is a clip, tie, tape, or other article used to close the blood vessels in the umbilical cord of a newborn infant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5960   Lice removal kit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The lice removal kit is a comb or comb-like device intended to remove and/or kill lice and nits from head and body hair. It may or may not be battery operated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59718, Nov. 5, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5965" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5965   Subcutaneous, implanted, intravascular infusion port and catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A subcutaneous, implanted, intravascular infusion port and catheter is a device that consists of a subcutaneous, implanted reservoir that connects to a long-term intravascular catheter. The device allows for repeated access to the vascular system for the infusion of fluids and medications and the sampling of blood. The device consists of a portal body with a resealable septum and outlet made of metal, plastic, or combination of these materials and a long-term intravascular catheter is either preattached to the port or attached to the port at the time of device placement. The device is available in various profiles and sizes and can be of a single or multiple lumen design. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) Guidance Document: “Guidance on 510(k) Submissions for Implanted Infusion Ports,” FDA October 1990.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 37043, June 13, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.5970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.5.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.5970   Percutaneous, implanted, long-term intravascular catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A percutaneous, implanted, long-term intravascular catheter is a device that consists of a slender tube and any necessary connecting fittings, such as luer hubs, and accessories that facilitate the placement of the device. The device allows for repeated access to the vascular system for long-term use of 30 days or more, and it is intended for administration of fluids, medications, and nutrients; the sampling of blood; and monitoring blood pressure and temperature. The device may be constructed of metal, rubber, plastic, composite materials, or any combination of these materials and may be of single or multiple lumen design. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) Guidance Document: “Guidance on Premarket Notification [510(k)] Submission for Short-Term and Long-Term Intravascular Catheters.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 37043, June 13, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—General Hospital and Personal Use Miscellaneous Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6025   Absorbent tipped applicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbent tipped applicator is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of an absorbent swab on a wooden, paper, or plastic stick. The device is used to apply medications to, or to take specimens from, a patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6050   Ice bag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ice bag is a device intended for medical purposes that is in the form of a container intended to be filled with ice that is used to apply dry cold therapy to an area of the body. The device may include a holder that keeps the bag in place against an external area of the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6060   Medical disposable bedding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Medical disposable bedding is a device intended for medical purposes to be used by one patient for a period of time and then discarded. This generic type of device may include disposable bedsheets, bedpads, pillows and pillowcases, blankets, emergency rescue blankets, or waterproof sheets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6070   Bed board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bed board is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a stiff board used to increase the firmness of a bed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6080   Cardiopulmonary resuscitation board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cardiopulmonary resuscitation board is a device consisting of a rigid board which is placed under a patient to act as a support during cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6085" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6085   Hot/cold water bottle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hot/cold water bottle is a device intended for medical purposes that is in the form of a container intended to be filled with hot or cold water to apply heat or cold to an area of the body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6100   Ethylene oxide gas aerator cabinet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ethyene oxide gas aerator cabinet is a device that is intended for use by a health care provider and consists of a cabinet with a ventilation system designed to circulate and exchange the air in the cabinet to shorten the time required to remove residual ethylene oxide (ETO) from wrapped medical devices that have undergone ETO sterilization. The device may include a heater to warm the circulating air.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6140   Medical chair and table.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical chair or table is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a chair or table without wheels and not electrically powered which, by reason of special shape or attachments, such as food trays or headrests, or special features such as a built-in raising and lowering mechanism or removable arms, is intended for use of blood donors, geriatric patients, or patients undergoing treatment or examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55987, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6150   Ultrasonic cleaner for medical instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic cleaner for medical instruments is a device intended for cleaning medical instruments by the emission of high frequency soundwaves. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device, including any solutions intended for use with the device for cleaning and sanitizing the instruments, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38805, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6175   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6185" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6185   Cast cover.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cast cover is a device intended for medical purposes that is made of waterproof material and placed over a cast to protect it from getting wet during a shower or a bath.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6190" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6190   Mattress cover for medical purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mattress cover for medical purposes is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to protect a mattress. It may be electrically conductive or contain a germicide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6200   Ring cutter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ring cutter is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to cut a ring on a patient's finger so that the ring can be removed. The device incorporates a guard to prevent injury to the patient's finger.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6210   Sharps needle destruction device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sharps needle destruction device is a prescription device that is intended to destroy needles or sharps used for medical purposes by incineration or mechanical means.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance testing must demonstrate the following during operation of the device:
</P>
<P>(i) The device safely contains or ventilates aerosols or fumes from device operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Excessive heat or sparks are not generated that may injure users or patients.
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated use testing must demonstrate sharps and/or needles are completely destroyed using a range of types and sizes of sharps sufficient to represent actual use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Simulated use testing must demonstrate that the device is physically stable on the surface for which it is intended to be mounted to ensure the risk of harm to the patient/user as a result of the device falling is minimized.
</P>
<P>(2) Validation of cleaning and disinfection instructions must demonstrate that the device can be safely and effectively reprocessed after use per the recommended cleaning and disinfection protocol in the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(3) Analysis and/or testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety, including the safety of any battery used in the device, under conditions which are consistent with the intended environment of device use.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear description of the device and its technological features;
</P>
<P>(ii) How the device is to be used, including validated cleaning and disinfection instructions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Relevant precautions and warnings based on performance and in-use testing to ensure proper use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions to install device in adequately ventilated area and stable area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19628, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6230   Tongue depressor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tongue depressor is a device intended to displace the tongue to facilitate examination of the surrounding organs and tissues.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6250   Non-powdered patient examination glove.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-powdered patient examination glove is a disposable device intended for medical purposes that is worn on the examiner's hand or finger to prevent contamination between patient and examiner. A non-powdered patient examination glove does not incorporate powder for purposes other than manufacturing. The final finished glove includes only residual powder from manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device, when it is a finger cot, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 1604, Jan. 13, 1989; 66 FR 46952, Sept. 10, 2001; 81 FR 91730, Dec. 19, 2016; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6260   Filtering facepiece respirator for use by the general public in public health medical emergencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A filtering facepiece respirator for use by the general public in public health medical emergencies is a device that is a disposable half-facepiece non-powered air-purifying particulate respirator intended for use to cover the nose and mouth of the wearer to help reduce wearer exposure to pathogenic biological airborne particulates during a public health medical emergency. The device is made of polymeric materials and is intended to fit closely to the face and to function by filtering particulate material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are:
</P>
<P>(1) Certification by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) as a non-powered air-purifying particulate respirator with a minimum filtration efficiency classification of N95, in accordance with 42 CFR part 84.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDA guidance document entitled: “Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Filtering Facepiece Respirator for use by the General Public in Public Health Medical Emergencies.” See § 880.1(e) for information on obtaining a copy of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 36362, July 3, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6265" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6265   Examination gown.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An examination gown is a device intended for medical purposes that is made of cloth, paper, or other material that is draped over or worn by a patient as a body covering during a medical examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6280   Medical insole.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical insole is a device intended for medical purposes that is placed inside a shoe to relieve the symptoms of athlete's foot infection by absorbing moisture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6300   Implantable radiofrequency transponder system for patient identification and health information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implantable radiofrequency transponder system for patient identification and health information is a device intended to enable access to secure patient identification and corresponding health information. This system may include a passive implanted transponder, inserter, and scanner. The implanted transponder is used only to store a unique electronic identification code that is read by the scanner. The identification code is used to access patient identity and corresponding health information stored in a database.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Implantable Radiofrequency Transponder System for Patient Identification and Health Information.” See § 880.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document. This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 71704, Dec. 10, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6305" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6305   Ingestible event marker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ingestible event marker is a prescription device used to record time-stamped, patient-logged events. The ingestible component links wirelessly through intrabody communication to an external recorder which records the date and time of ingestion as well as the unique serial number of the ingestible device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible and non-toxic;
</P>
<P>(2) Nonclinical, animal, and clinical testing must provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, including device performance, durability, compatibility, usability (human factors testing), event recording, and proper excretion of the device;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility performance, wireless performance, and electrical safety; and
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include a detailed summary of the nonclinical and clinical testing pertinent to use of the device and the maximum number of daily device ingestions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 28734, May 16, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6310   Medical device data system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> (1) A medical device data system (MDDS) is a hardware device that is intended to provide one or more of the following uses, without controlling or altering the functions or parameters of any connected medical devices:
</P>
<P>(i) The electronic transfer of medical device data;
</P>
<P>(ii) The electronic storage of medical device data;
</P>
<P>(iii) The electronic conversion of medical device data from one format to another format in accordance with a preset specification; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The electronic display of medical device data.
</P>
<P>(2) An MDDS may include electronic or electrical hardware such as a physical communications medium (including wireless hardware), modems, and interfaces. This identification does not include hardware devices intended to be used in connection with active patient monitoring. Hardware devices for active patient monitoring are classified under other regulations and are not included in this regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 8649, Feb. 15, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 20283, Apr. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6315" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6315   Remote Medication Management System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A remote medication management system is a device composed of clinical and communications software, a medication delivery unit, and medication packaging. The system is intended to store the patient's prescribed medications in a delivery unit, to permit a health care professional to remotely schedule the patient's prescribed medications, to notify the patient when the prescribed medications are due to be taken, to release the prescribed medications to a tray of the delivery unit accessible to the patient on the patient's command, and to record a history of the event for the health care professional. The system is intended for use as an aid to health care professionals in managing therapeutic regimens for patients in the home or clinic.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is: The FDA guidance document entitled “Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Remote Medication Management System.” See § 880.1(e) for availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 59177, Oct. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6320   AC-powered medical examination light.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AC-powered medical examination light is an AC-powered device intended for medical purposes that is used to illuminate body surfaces and cavities during a medical examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6350   Battery-powered medical examination light.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A battery-powered medical examination light is a battery-powered device intended for medical purposes that is used to illuminate body surfaces and cavities during a medical examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6375   Patient lubricant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A patient lubricant is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to lubricate a body orifice to facilitate entry of a diagnostic or therapeutic device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except when the device is a vaginal patient lubricant or an oral lubricant, it is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 46952, Sept. 10, 2001; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6430   Liquid medication dispenser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Liquid medication dispenser is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to issue a measured amount of liquid medication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6450   Skin pressure protectors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skin pressure protector is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to reduce pressure on the skin over a bony prominence to reduce the likelihood of the patient's developing decubitus ulcers (bedsores).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6500   Medical ultraviolet air purifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical ultraviolet air purifier is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to destroy bacteria in the air by exposure to ultraviolet radiation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6600   Ultraviolet (UV) radiation chamber disinfection device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultraviolet (UV) radiation chamber disinfection device is intended for the low-level surface disinfection of non-porous equipment surfaces by dose-controlled UV irradiation. This classification does not include self-contained open chamber UV radiation disinfection devices intended for whole room disinfection in a health care environment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification</I>—Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance testing must demonstrate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The chamber's ability to control the UV radiation dose during operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The chamber's disinfection performance through microbial challenge testing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence that the equipment intended to be processed is UV compatible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Validation of the cleaning and disinfection procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) The ability of the device to continue to perform to all specification after cleaning and disinfection.
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the device generates ozone (if so, 21 CFR 801.415, Maximum acceptable level of ozone, applies).
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis and/or testing must validate electrical safety, mechanical safety, and electromagnetic compatibility of the device in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) UV hazard warning labels.
</P>
<P>(ii) Explanation of all displays and/or labeling on user interface.
</P>
<P>(iii) Explanation of device safety interlocks.
</P>
<P>(iv) Explanation of all disinfection cycle signals, cautions and warnings.
</P>
<P>(v) Device operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(vi) Identification of the expected UV lamp operational life and instructions for procedures on replacement of the UV lamp when needed.
</P>
<P>(vii) Procedures to follow in case of UV lamp malfunction or failure.
</P>
<P>(viii) Procedures for disposing of mercury-containing UV lamps, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(ix) Identification of specific equipment that is compatible with the UV radiation dose generated by the device and that can safely undergo UV radiation low-level disinfection in the chamber device.
</P>
<P>(x) Description of the required preparation of equipment for disinfection in the UV radiation chamber device.
</P>
<P>(xi) Identification of the specific microbes used in successful performance testing of the device.
</P>
<P>(xii) Validated instructions for cleaning and disinfection of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72588, Nov. 20, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6710   Medical ultraviolet water purifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical ultraviolet water purifier is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to destroy bacteria in water by exposure to ultraviolet radiation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E, of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 83 FR 25915, June 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6730   Body waste receptacle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A body waste receptacle is a device intended for medical purposes that is not attached to the body and that is used to collect the body wastes of a bed patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 38806, July 25, 2001, as amended at 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6740   Vacuum-powered body fluid suction apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vacuum-powered body fluid suction apparatus is a device used to aspirate, remove, or sample body fluids. The device is powered by an external source of vacuum. This generic type of device includes vacuum regulators, vacuum collection bottles, suction catheters and tips, connecting flexible aspirating tubes, rigid suction tips, specimen traps, noninvasive tubing, and suction regulators (with gauge).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6760   Protective restraint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A protective restraint is a device, including but not limited to a wristlet, anklet, vest, mitt, straight jacket, body/limb holder, or other type of strap, that is intended for medical purposes and that limits the patient's movements to the extent necessary for treatment, examination, or protection of the patient or others.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 8439, Mar. 4, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 46952, Sept. 10, 2001; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6775" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6775   Powered patient transfer device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered patient transfer device is a device consisting of a wheeled stretcher and a powered mechanism that has a broad, flexible band stretched over long rollers that can advance itself under a patient and transfer the patient with minimal disturbance in a horizontal position to the stretcher.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6785" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6785   Manual patient transfer device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual patient transfer device is a device consisting of a wheeled stretcher and a mechanism on which a patient can be placed so that the patient can be transferred with minimal disturbance in a horizontal position to the stretcher.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6800   Washers for body waste receptacles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A washer for body waste receptacles is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to clean and sanitize a body waste receptacle, such as a bedpan. The device consists of a wall-mounted plumbing fixture with a door through which a body waste receptacle is inserted. When the door is closed the body waste receptacle is cleaned by hot water, steam, or germicide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6820   Medical disposable scissors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Medical disposable scissors are disposable type general cutting devices intended for medical purposes. This generic type of device does not include surgical scissors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6850   Sterilization wrap.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sterilization wrap (pack, sterilization wrapper, bag, or accessories, is a device intended to be used to enclose another medical device that is to be sterilized by a health care provider. It is intended to allow sterilization of the enclosed medical device and also to maintain sterility of the enclosed device until used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6855" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6855   Rigid sterilization container with electronic monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rigid sterilization container with electronic monitoring is a device intended to be used to enclose medical devices that are to be sterilized by a health care provider. It is intended to allow sterilization of the enclosed medical devices and maintain sterility of the enclosed devices until used. The device provides sterility status of the enclosed medical devices via real time electronic monitoring.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated to ensure device function and integrity during challenging use:
</P>
<P>(i) Vent-to-volume testing must demonstrate adequate sterilant penetration.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sterilization validation must demonstrate that the contents to be sterilized can adequately achieve the proposed Sterility Assurance Level (SAL).
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance testing must demonstrate the device accurately informs the end-user of the sterile status of the contents.
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance testing must demonstrate the device can maintain sterility of the enclosed medical products for a minimum 30-day storage period.
</P>
<P>(v) Battery performance and shelf life testing must demonstrate the device maintains its function throughout its total use-life.
</P>
<P>(vi) Battery performance and shelf life testing must demonstrate the device maintains its function during storage, throughout a minimum 30-day sterile storage period.
</P>
<P>(vii) Moisture/sterilant ingress testing must support that the electronic components are adequately sealed and do not allow moisture/sterilant ingress.
</P>
<P>(viii) Microbial barrier testing must support that the seals, gaskets, valves, etc. provide an adequate barrier to microbial ingress.
</P>
<P>(ix) Seal integrity testing must demonstrate that an adequate seal is created and maintained throughout the sterile storage period.
</P>
<P>(x) Mechanical functionality testing must demonstrate proper function of any valves, gaskets, or other components essential to the function of the device.
</P>
<P>(xi) For devices with handles, handle strength testing must demonstrate the handles can withstand the maximum indicated load weight.
</P>
<P>(xii) Corrosion resistance testing must demonstrate adequate function of any components susceptible to corrosion following the most challenging use.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Dryness evaluation testing must demonstrate the contents to be sterilized are dry prior to storage.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Simulated use testing must evaluate device performance (including maintenance of sterility and accurate sterility status monitoring) under real-world worst-case use conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Device components that may contact medical products must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Human factors testing must be performed to demonstrate that end user(s) can safely and correctly use the device, based solely on the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Warnings, cautions, and limitations for safe use of the device including:
</P>
<P>(A) A precaution that the lids/trays and any accessories should only be used with the sterilization container.
</P>
<P>(B) A precaution that the use of nonabsorbent tray liners can cause condensate to pool.
</P>
<P>(ii) Device operating procedures including:
</P>
<P>(A) Instructions for closures, gaskets, type, sizes, and valve assembly weight as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions for density and distribution of contents, stacking patterns, or any other recommendations pertaining to load configuration of the medical devices to be sterilized.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the validated length of time sterility can be maintained.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of any replaceable components, information about the expected life of these components, and instructions for procedures on replacement when needed.
</P>
<P>(v) Identification of products intended for sterilization that are compatible for use with the device.
</P>
<P>(vi) Description of the required preparation of products intended for sterilization in the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32351, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6860   Ethylene oxide gas sterilizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ethylene gas sterilizer is a nonportable device intended for use by a health care provider that uses ethylene oxide (ETO) to sterilize medical products.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6870   Dry-heat sterilizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dry-heat sterilizer is a device that is intended for use by a health care provider to sterilize medical products by means of dry heat.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6880   Steam sterilizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A steam sterilizer (autoclave) is a device that is intended for use by a health care provider to sterilize medical products by means of pressurized steam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6885" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6885   Liquid chemical sterilants/high level disinfectants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A liquid chemical sterilant/high level disinfectant is a germicide that is intended for use as the terminal step in processing critical and semicritical medical devices prior to patient use. Critical devices make contact with normally sterile tissue or body spaces during use. Semicritical devices make contact during use with mucous membranes or nonintact skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Guidance on the Content and Format of Premarket Notification (510(k)) Submissions for Liquid Chemical Sterilants/High Level Disinfectants, and user information and training.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 36325, June 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6886" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6886   Foam or gel chemical sterilant/high level disinfectant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A foam or gel chemical sterilant/high level disinfectant is a germicide in the form of a foam or gel that is intended for use as the terminal step in high level disinfection of medical devices prior to patient use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated under challenging conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Storage stability testing must demonstrate the real time stability and dynamics of the device formulation within the expiration date (shelf life) of the unopened product and within a use period of the opened container from the date of opening under the proposed storage conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transport stability testing must demonstrate device resilience to transport conditions (such as temperature, pressure, and humidity), environmental factors (such as freeze and thaw), and mechanical impacts (such as the effect of drops on package integrity);
</P>
<P>(iii) Potency testing must demonstrate the sporicidal, mycobactericidal, fungicidal, bactericidal, and virucidal activities of the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Simulated use testing must use the mycobacterium species most resistant to the germicide as the test organism on inoculated instruments to demonstrate a kill of at least 10
<SU>6</SU> inoculated mycobacteria under the labeled contact time;
</P>
<P>(v) In-use testing must test clinically-relevant microorganism on clinically used instruments, in accordance with the labeled contact conditions for high level disinfection, to confirm the results of simulated use testing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Testing must demonstrate compatibility with labeled devices and materials; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Chemical indicator validation must demonstrate a characteristic chemical reaction to the concentration of active ingredients of the germicide.
</P>
<P>(2) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Human factors testing must demonstrate that the device can be used correctly, based solely on the device labeling.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Directions for use, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Instructions for preparation and use of the germicide; cleaning steps in preparation for high level disinfection; high level disinfections of cleaned devices; rinsing, neutralizing, and removing residues, when needed; and reuse of the solution, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) Chemical indicator for monitoring the minimum effective concentration or minimum recommended concentration of the product's active ingredient(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for personal protective equipment to be used with the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for disposal of the germicide and any neutralizers, including an instruction to check local and state regulations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Storage conditions and expiration date information for stock solution, opened containers, activated solution, and use-dilution;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the end user should be trained in the reprocessing (decontamination and sterilization or disinfection) of medical devices and in the handling of toxic substances, such as liquid chemical germicides;
</P>
<P>(vi) The germicide classification scheme;
</P>
<P>(vii) General information on selection and use of germicides for medical device reprocessing;
</P>
<P>(viii) Material and device compatibility and incompatibility information;
</P>
<P>(ix) The microbial mode of action of germicidal activity;
</P>
<P>(x) Precleaning agent/method compatibility and incompatibility; and
</P>
<P>(xi) The toxicology profile of the final product formulation and information on adverse reactions following exposure to the product.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 38505, June 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6887" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6887   Spore test strip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The spore test strip consists of a carrier or strip with a known number of spores, at least 5 log<E T="52">10</E> per strip, of known resistance to a particular liquid chemical sterilant in a liquid chemical sterilant processing system. A “no growth” result from the spore test strip after the specified predetermined incubation period indicates that the liquid chemical sterilization process achieved the conditions necessary to kill the specified minimum number of viable spores on the test strip which is 5 log<E T="52">10</E> spores/strip; it does not confirm the expected full performance of the liquid chemical sterilant processing cycle because full performance is a 6 log<E T="52">10</E> spore kill in a full liquid chemical sterilization cycle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Spore strip characterization.</I> (i) Population of viable spores on strip shall be a minimum of 5 log<E T="52">10</E> after physical wash off of spores from the strip by exposure to liquid chemical sterilant in the liquid chemical sterilant processing system, which should be validated over the claimed shelf life.
</P>
<P>(ii) The resistance characteristics of the viable spores on the strip should be defined and be validated over the claimed shelf life.
</P>
<P>(iii) The spore strip description should address the carrier material, how the spores are placed on the carrier, and whether there is any feature that minimizes spore wash off. Bacteriostasis of the spore strip materials should be evaluated.
</P>
<P>(iv) Incubation time for viable spores on the strip should be validated under the specified incubation conditions over the claimed shelf life.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Simulated Use Testing.</I> Simulated use testing should demonstrate performance of spore test strip in liquid chemical sterilant/high level disinfectant under worst case in use conditions over the claimed shelf life.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labeling.</I> Labeling should specify appropriate instructions, warnings, cautions, limitations, and information relating to viable spore population, resistance characteristics, and interpretation of a “no growth” result.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 8194, Feb. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6890   General purpose disinfectants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A general purpose disinfectant is a germicide intended to process noncritical medical devices and equipment surfaces. A general purpose disinfectant can be used to preclean or decontaminate critical or semicritical medical devices prior to terminal sterilization or high level disinfection. Noncritical medical devices make only topical contact with intact skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 36326, June 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6900   Hand-carried stretcher.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hand-carried stretcher is a device consisting of a lightweight frame, or of two poles with a cloth or metal platform, on which a patient can be carried.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55988, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6910   Wheeled stretcher.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wheeled stretcher is a device consisting of a platform mounted on a wheeled frame that is designed to transport patients in a horizontal position. The device may have side rails, supports for fluid infusion equipment, and patient securement straps. The frame may be fixed or collapsible for use in an ambulance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6920   Syringe needle introducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A syringe needle introducer is a device that uses a spring-loaded mechanism to drive a hypodermic needle into a patient to a predetermined depth below the skin surface.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6960   Irrigating syringe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An irrigating syringe is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a bulb or a piston syringe with an integral or a detachable tube. The device is used to irrigate, withdraw fluid from, or instill fluid into, a body cavity or wound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6970   Liquid crystal vein locator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A liquid crystal vein locator is a device used to indicate the location of a vein by revealing variations in the surface temperature of the skin by displaying the color changes of heat sensitive liquid crystals (cholesteric esters).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25050, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6980   Vein stabilizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vein stabilizer is a device consisting of a flat piece of plastic with two noninvasive prongs. The device is placed on the skin so that the prongs are on either side of a vein and hold it stable while a hypodermic needle is inserted into the vein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 880.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69682, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6990" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6990   Infusion stand.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The infusion stand is a stationary or movable stand intended to hold infusion liquids, infusion accessories, and other medical devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59718, Nov. 5, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6991" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6991   Medical washer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical washer is a device that is intended for general medical purposes to clean and dry surgical instruments, anesthesia equipment, hollowware, and other medical devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Medical Washers and Medical Washer-Disinfectors.” The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 69121, Nov. 15, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 880.6992" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.27.6.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 880.6992   Medical washer-disinfector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical washer-disinfector is a device that is intended for general medical purposes to clean, decontaminate, disinfect, and dry surgical instruments, anesthesia equipment, hollowware, and other medical devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Medical Washers and Medical Washer-Disinfectors.”
</P>
<P>(1) Medical washer-disinfectors that are intended to clean, high level disinfect, and dry surgical instruments, anesthesia equipment, hollowware, and other medical devices.
</P>
<P>(2) Medical washer-disinfectors that are intended to clean, low or intermediate level disinfect, and dry surgical instruments, anesthesia equipment, hollowware, and other medical devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 880.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 69121, Nov. 15, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="882" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 882—NEUROLOGICAL DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 882 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of neurological devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a neurological device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed only in one subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17739, May 11, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 70436, Dec. 18, 2003; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section, 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17739, May 11, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Neurological Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1020   Rigidity analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rigidity analyzer is a device for quantifying the extent of the rigidity of a patient's limb to determine the effectiveness of drugs or other treatments. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1030   Ataxiagraph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ataxiagraph is a device used to determine the extent of ataxia (failure of muscular coordination) by measuring the amount of swaying of the body when the patient is standing erect and with eyes closed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except when the device is intended to provide an interpretation or a clinical implication of the measurement, it is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 66 FR 46952, Sept. 10, 2001; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1200   Two-point discriminator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A two-point discriminator is a device with points used for testing a patient's touch discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 882.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 25051, June 12, 1989; 65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1240   Echoencephalograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An echoencephalograph is an ultrasonic scanning device (including A-scan, B-scan, and doppler systems) that uses noninvasive transducers for measuring intracranial interfaces and blood flow velocity to and in the head. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1275   Electroconductive media.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Electroconductive media are the conductive creams or gels used with external electrodes to reduce the impedance (resistance to alternating current) of the contact between the electrode surface and the skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1310   Cortical electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cortical electrode is an electrode which is temporarily placed on the surface of the brain for stimulating the brain or recording the brain's electrical activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1320   Cutaneous electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cutaneous electrode is an electrode that is applied directly to a patient's skin either to record physiological signals (e.g., the electroencephalogram) or to apply electrical stimulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1330   Depth electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A depth electrode is an electrode used for temporary stimulation of, or recording electrical signals at, subsurface levels of the brain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1340   Nasopharyngeal electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasopharyngeal electrode is an electrode which is temporarily placed in the nasopharyngeal region for the purpose of recording electrical activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1350   Needle electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A needle electrode is a device which is placed subcutaneously to stimulate or to record electrical signals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1400   Electroencephalograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroencephalograph is a device used to measure and record the electrical activity of the patient's brain obtained by placing two or more electrodes on the head. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1410   Electroencephalograph electrode/lead tester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroencephalograph electrode/lead tester is a device used for testing the impedance (resistance to alternating current) of the electrode and lead system of an electroencephalograph to assure that an adequate contact is made between the electrode and the skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1420   Electroencephalogram (EEG) signal spectrum analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroencephalogram (EEG) signal spectrum analyzer is a device used to display the frequency content or power spectral density of the electroencephalogram (EEG) signal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 66 FR 46953, Sept. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1430   Electroencephalograph test signal generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroencephalograph test signal generator is a device used to test or calibrate an electroencephalograph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1440   Neuropsychiatric interpretive electroencephalograph assessment aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The neuropsychiatric interpretive electroencephalograph assessment aid is a prescription device that uses a patient's electroencephalograph (EEG) to provide an interpretation of the patient's neuropsychiatric condition. The neuropsychiatric interpretive EEG assessment aid is used only as an assessment aid for a medical condition for which there exists other valid methods of diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical parameters of the device, hardware and software, must be fully characterized and must demonstrate a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware specifications must be provided. Appropriate verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Software, including any proprietary algorithm(s) used by the device to arrive at its interpretation of the patient's condition, must be described in detail in the software requirements specification and software design specification. Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) The device parts that contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be designed and tested for electrical safety, electromagnetic compatibility, thermal, and mechanical safety.
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the accuracy, precision, reproducibility, of determining the EEG-based interpretation, including any specified equivocal zones (cutoffs).
</P>
<P>(5) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to function as an assessment aid for the medical condition for which the device is indicated. Performance measures must demonstrate device performance characteristics per the intended use in the intended use environment. Performance measurements must include sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value per the device intended use. Repeatability of measurements must be demonstrated using interclass correlation coefficients and illustrated by qualitative scatter plot(s).
</P>
<P>(6) The device design must include safeguards to prevent use of the device as a stand-alone diagnostic.
</P>
<P>(7) The labeling must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that the device is not to be used as a stand-alone diagnostic.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical performance testing, including any adverse events and complications.
</P>
<P>(iii) The qualifications and training requirements for device users including technicians and clinicians.
</P>
<P>(iv) The intended use population and the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(v) Any instructions technicians should convey to patients regarding the collection of EEG data.
</P>
<P>(vi) Information allowing clinicians to gauge clinical risk associated with integrating the EEG interpretive assessment aid into their diagnostic pathway.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where appropriate, validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 9085, Feb. 18, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1450   Brain injury adjunctive interpretive electroencephalograph assessment aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A brain injury adjunctive interpretive electroencephalograph assessment aid is a prescription device that uses a patient's electroencephalograph (EEG) to provide an interpretation of the structural condition of the patient's brain in the setting of trauma. A brain injury adjunctive interpretive EEG assessment aid is for use as an adjunct to standard clinical practice only as an assessment aid for a medical condition for which there exists other valid methods of diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical parameters of the device, hardware and software, must be fully characterized and include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware specifications must be provided. Appropriate verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Software, including any proprietary algorithm(s) used by the device to arrive at its interpretation of the patient's condition, must be described in detail in the software requirements specification (SRS) and software design specification (SDS). Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) The device parts that contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be designed and tested for electrical safety, electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), thermal, and mechanical safety.
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the accuracy, precision-repeatability and reproducibility, of determining the EEG-based interpretation, including any specified equivocal zones (cutoffs).
</P>
<P>(5) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to function as an assessment aid for the medical condition for which the device is indicated. Performance measures must demonstrate device performance characteristics per the intended use in the intended use environment. Performance measurements must include sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV) with respect to the study prevalence per the device intended use.
</P>
<P>(6) The device design must include safeguards to ensure appropriate clinical interpretation of the device output (<I>e.g.,</I> use in appropriate patient population, or for appropriate clinical decision).
</P>
<P>(7) The labeling and training information must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that the device is not to be used as a stand-alone diagnostic.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical performance testing, including any adverse events and complications.
</P>
<P>(iii) The intended use population and the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any instructions technicians should convey to patients regarding the collection of EEG data.
</P>
<P>(v) Information allowing clinicians to gauge clinical risk associated with integrating the EEG interpretive assessment aid into their diagnostic pathway.
</P>
<P>(vi) Information allowing clinicians to understand how to integrate the device output into their diagnostic pathway when the device is unable to provide a classification or final result.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 16268, Mar. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1455" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1455   Traumatic brain injury eye movement assessment aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A traumatic brain injury eye movement assessment aid is a prescription device that uses a patient's tracked eye movements to provide an interpretation of the functional condition of the patient's brain. This device is an assessment aid that is not intended for standalone detection or diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance data under anticipated conditions of use must evaluate tracked eye movement in supporting the indications for use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value using a reference method of diagnosis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of device test-retest reliability; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the development of the reference method of diagnosis, which may include a normative database, to include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A discussion of how the clinical work-up was completed to establish the reference method of diagnosis, including the establishment of inclusion and exclusion criteria; and
</P>
<P>(B) If using a normative database, a description of how the “normal” population was established, and the statistical methods and model assumptions used.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Software documentation must include a description of the algorithms used to generate device output.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate the electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) A light hazard assessment must be performed for all eye-tracking and visual display light sources.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of clinical performance testing conducted with the device, including sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value, and test-retest reliability;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of any normative database that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The clinical definition used to establish a “normal” population and the specific selection criteria;
</P>
<P>(B) The format for reporting normal values;
</P>
<P>(C) Examples of screen displays and reports generated to provide the user results and normative data;
</P>
<P>(D) Statistical methods and model assumptions; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any adjustments for age and gender.
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning that the device should only be used by trained healthcare professionals;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning that the device does not identify the presence or absence of traumatic brain injury or other clinical diagnoses;
</P>
<P>(v) A warning that the device is not a standalone diagnostic; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any instructions to convey to patients regarding the administration of the test and collection of test data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 71384, Dec. 16, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1460   Nystagmograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nystagmograph is a device used to measure, record, or visually display the involuntary movements (nystagmus) of the eyeball. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1470   Computerized cognitive assessment aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The computerized cognitive assessment aid is a prescription device that uses an individual's score(s) on a battery of cognitive tasks to provide an interpretation of the current level of cognitive function. The computerized cognitive assessment aid is used only as an assessment aid to determine level of cognitive functioning for which there exists other valid methods of cognitive assessment and does not identify the presence or absence of clinical diagnoses. The computerized cognitive assessment aid is not intended as a stand-alone or adjunctive diagnostic device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Except when the computerized cognitive assessment aid is intended for diagnostic assessment of specific diseases or conditions and relies on inputs from visual cues, auditory cues, and/or functional use of the hand, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9. The special control(s) for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical parameters of the device's hardware and software must be fully characterized and be accompanied by appropriate non-clinical testing:
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware specifications must be provided. Appropriate verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Software, including any proprietary algorithm(s) used by the device to arrive at its interpretation of the patient's cognitive function, must be described in detail in the software requirements specification (SRS) and software design specification (SDS). Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) The device must be designed and tested for electrical safety.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of any testing conducted to demonstrate how the device functions as an interpretation of the current level of cognitive function. The summary of testing must include the following, if available: Any expected or observed adverse events and complications; any performance measurements including sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV) per the devices intended use; a description of the repeatability of measurements; a description of how the cut-off values for categorization of measurements were determined; and a description of the construct validity of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the device does not identify the presence or absence of clinical diagnoses.
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning that the device is not a stand-alone diagnostic.
</P>
<P>(iv) The intended use population and the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(v) Any instructions technicians must convey to patients regarding the administration of the test and collection of cognitive test data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 49138, Aug. 17, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1471" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1471   Computerized cognitive assessment aid for concussion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The computerized cognitive assessment aid for concussion is a prescription device that uses an individual's score(s) on a battery of cognitive tasks to provide an indication of the current level of cognitive function in response to concussion. The computerized cognitive assessment aid for concussion is used only as an assessment aid in the management of concussion to determine cognitive function for patients after a potential concussive event where other diagnostic tools are available and does not identify the presence or absence of concussion. It is not intended as a stand-alone diagnostic device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Software, including any proprietary algorithm(s) used by the device to arrive at its interpretation of the patient's cognitive function, must be described in detail in the software requirements specification (SRS) and software design specification (SDS). Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) Clinical performance data must be provided that demonstrates how the device functions as an interpretation of the current level of cognitive function in an individual that has recently received an injury that causes concern about a possible concussion. The testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate device output and clinical interpretation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate device test-retest reliability of the device output.
</P>
<P>(iii) Evaluate construct validity of the device cognitive assessments.
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe the construction of the normative database, which includes the following:
</P>
<P>(A) How the clinical workup was completed to establish a “normal” population, including the establishment of inclusion and exclusion criteria.
</P>
<P>(B) Statistical methods and model assumptions used.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of any clinical testing conducted to demonstrate how the device functions as an interpretation of the current level of cognitive function in a patient that has recently received an injury that causes concern about a possible concussion. The summary of testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Device output and clinical interpretation.
</P>
<P>(B) Device test-retest reliability of the device output.
</P>
<P>(C) Construct validity of the device cognitive assessments.
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the normative database, which includes the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) How the clinical workup was completed to establish a “normal” population, including the establishment of inclusion and exclusion criteria.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) How normal values will be reported to the user.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Representative screen shots and reports that will be generated to provide the user results and normative data.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Statistical methods and model assumptions used.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Whether or not the normative database was adjusted due to differences in age and gender.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the device should only be used by health care professionals who are trained in concussion management.
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning that the device does not identify the presence or absence of concussion or other clinical diagnoses.
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning that the device is not a stand-alone diagnostic.
</P>
<P>(v) Any instructions technicians must convey to patients regarding the administration of the test and collection of cognitive test data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 87811, Dec. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1480   Neurological endoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neurological endoscope is an instrument with a light source used to view the inside of the ventricles of the brain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1491" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1491   Pediatric Autism Spectrum Disorder diagnosis aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pediatric Autism Spectrum Disorder diagnosis aid is a prescription device that is intended for use as an aid in the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder in pediatric patients.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including an evaluation of sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value using a reference method of diagnosis and assessment of patient behavioral symptomology.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be provided. Software documentation must include a detailed, technical description of the algorithm(s) used to generate device output(s), and a cybersecurity assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and user(s).
</P>
<P>(3) Usability assessment must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including a detailed description of the device, compatibility information, and information to facilitate clinical interpretation of all device outputs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of any clinical testing conducted to demonstrate how the device functions as an interpretation of patient behavioral symptomology associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder. The summary must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each device output and clinical interpretation;
</P>
<P>(B) Any performance measures, including sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV);
</P>
<P>(C) A description of how the cutoff values used for categorical classification of diagnoses were determined; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any expected or observed adverse events and complications.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the device is not intended for use as a stand-alone diagnostic.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 80445, Dec. 30, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1500   Esthesiometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An esthesiometer is a mechanical device which usually consists of a single rod or fiber which is held in the fingers of the physician or other examiner and which is used to determine whether a patient has tactile sensitivity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 882.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 25051, June 12, 1989; 65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1525" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1525   Tuning fork.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tuning fork is a mechanical device which resonates at a given frequency and is used to diagnose hearing disorders and to test for vibratory sense. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 25051, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1540   Galvanic skin response measurement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A galvanic skin response measurement device is a device used to determine autonomic responses as psychological indicators by measuring the electrical resistance of the skin and the tissue path between two electrodes applied to the skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1550   Nerve conduction velocity measurement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nerve conduction velocity measurement device is a device which measures nerve conduction time by applying a stimulus, usually to a patient's peripheral nerve. This device includes the stimulator and the electronic processing equipment for measuring and displaying the nerve conduction time. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1560   Skin potential measurement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skin potential measurement device is a general diagnostic device used to measure skin voltage by means of surface skin electrodes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1561" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1561   Evoked photon image capture device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An evoked photon image capture device is a prescription, electrically powered device intended for use as a noninvasive measurement tool that applies electricity to detect electrophysiological signals emanating from the skin, which are reported numerically and as images without clinical interpretation. The device is not intended for diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67155, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1565" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1565   Brain temperature measurement system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A brain temperature measurement system is an externally placed, prescription device intended to measure brain temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended for its anticipated conditions of use and can accurately and reliably measure brain temperature compared to a ground truth measurement.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device can accurately measure changes in brain temperature under simulated conditions of use. Testing must assess repeatability within pre- specified, clinically relevant parameters. The technical specifications of the device's hardware and software must be fully characterized.
</P>
<P>(3) Electrical safety, thermal safety, mechanical safety, and electromagnetic compatibility testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Software documentation must include a detailed technical description of the algorithm(s) used to generate the device output(s), and be accompanied by verification and validation testing to ensure device and algorithm functionality as informed by the software requirements and hazard analysis.
</P>
<P>(5) The tissue contacting device components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Usability evaluation must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can safely and correctly use the device, based solely on reading the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including a detailed description of the device and explanation of all device outputs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following warnings:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the device is not intended to measure core body temperature, and to use an independent thermometer to measure core body temperature.
</P>
<P>(B) Conditions of use that may impact the accuracy and reliability of the device measurement.
</P>
<P>(C) Conditions of use that may affect skin integrity or cause skin injury, such as extended wear duration or placement of the device on damaged or compromised skin, skin lesions, or open wounds.
</P>
<P>(D) Limitations of device use to inform diagnosis or therapy.
</P>
<P>(E) Summaries of in vivo testing conducted to demonstrate how the device functions as intended.
</P>
<P>(F) The summary must include the following:
</P>
<P>(G) A description of each device output.
</P>
<P>(H) A description of the study population and the use environment.
</P>
<P>(I) The methods used to collect temperature data.
</P>
<P>(J) Any observed adverse events and complications.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 23165, Apr. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1570   Powered direct-contact temperature measurement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered direct-contact temperature measurement device is a device which contains a power source and is used to measure differences in temperature between two points on the body. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1580   Non-electroencephalogram (EEG) physiological signal based seizure monitoring system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-electroencephalogram (non-EEG) physiological signal based seizure monitoring system is a noninvasive prescription device that collects physiological signals other than EEG to identify physiological signals that may be associated with a seizure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical parameters of the device, hardware and software, must be fully characterized and include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware specifications must be provided. Appropriate verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Software, including any proprietary algorithm(s) used by the device to achieve its intended use, must be described in detail in the Software Requirements Specification (SRS) and Software Design Specification (SDS). Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be designed and tested for electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC).
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to function as an assessment aid for monitoring for seizure-related activity in the intended population and for the intended use setting. Performance measurements must include positive percent agreement and false alarm rate.
</P>
<P>(5) Training must be provided for intended users that includes information regarding the proper use of the device and factors that may affect the collection of the physiologic data.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling must include health care professional labeling and patient-caregiver labeling. The health care professional and the patient-caregiver labeling must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the clinical performance testing, including any adverse events and complications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any instructions technicians and clinicians should convey to patients and caregivers regarding the proper use of the device and factors that may affect the collection of the physiologic data.
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions to technicians and clinicians regarding how to set the device threshold to achieve the intended performance of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50082, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1610   Alpha monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An alpha monitor is a device with electrodes that are placed on a patient's scalp to monitor that portion of the electroencephalogram which is referred to as the alpha wave. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1620   Intracranial pressure monitoring device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intracranial pressure monitoring device is a device used for short-term monitoring and recording of intracranial pressures and pressure trends. The device includes the transducer, monitor, and interconnecting hardware. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1630   Cranial motion measurement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cranial motion measurement device is a prescription device that utilizes accelerometers to measure the motion or acceleration of the skull. These measurements are not to be used for diagnostic purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical parameters of the device, hardware and software, must be fully characterized and include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware specifications must be provided. Additionally, verification and validation testing as well as a hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Software must be described in detail in the Software Requirements Specification (SRS) and Software Design Specification (SDS). Additionally, software verification and validation testing as well as a hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) The device parts that contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be designed and tested for electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety, and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC).
</P>
<P>(4) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the accuracy, precision, stability, and repeatability of measuring cranial motion per the intended use in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(5) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The intended use population and the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for technicians to convey to patients regarding the collection of cranial acceleration data to ensure device measurement accuracy, precision, stability, and repeatability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information allowing clinicians to understand potential sources of variability in the measurement to help recognize and identify changes in the measurement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 35071, July 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1700   Percussor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A percussor is a small hammerlike device used by a physician to provide light blows to a body part. A percussor is used as a diagnostic aid during physical examinations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 25051, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1750   Pinwheel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pinwheel is a device with sharp points on a rotating wheel used for testing pain sensation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 25051, June 12, 1989; 65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1790   Ocular plethysmograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ocular plethysmograph is a device used to measure or detect volume changes in the eye produced by pulsations of the artery, to diagnose carotid artery occlusive disease (restrictions on blood flow in the carotid artery). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required. A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before September 21, 2004, for any ocular plethysmograph that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other ocular plethysmograph shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 17739, May 11, 1987; 69 FR 34920, June 23, 2004] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1825" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1825   Rheoencephalograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rheoencephalograph is a device used to estimate a patient's cerebral circulation (blood flow in the brain) by electrical impedance methods with direct electrical connections to the scalp or neck area. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any rheoencephalograph that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a rheoencephalograph that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other rheoencephalograph shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 17740, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1835" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1835   Physiological signal amplifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A physiological signal amplifier is a general purpose device used to electrically amplify signals derived from various physiological sources (e.g., the electroencephalogram). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1845" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1845   Physiological signal conditioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A physiological signal conditioner is a device such as an integrator or differentiator used to modify physiological signals for recording and processing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1855" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1855   Electroencephalogram (EEG) telemetry system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroencephalogram (EEG) telemetry system consists of transmitters, receivers, and other components used for remotely monitoring or measuring EEG signals by means of radio or telephone transmission systems. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1870   Evoked response electrical stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An evoked response electrical stimulator is a device used to apply an electrical stimulus to a patient by means of skin electrodes for the purpose of measuring the evoked response. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1880   Evoked response mechanical stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An evoked response mechanical stimulator is a device used to produce a mechanical stimulus or a series of mechanical stimuli for the purpose of measuring a patient's evoked response. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1890   Evoked response photic stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An evoked response photic stimulator is a device used to generate and display a shifting pattern or to apply a brief light stimulus to a patient's eye for use in evoked response measurements or for electroencephalogram (EEG) activation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1900   Evoked response auditory stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An evoked response auditory stimulator is a device that produces a sound stimulus for use in evoked response measurements or electroencephalogram activation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1925   Ultrasonic scanner calibration test block.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic scanner calibration test block is a block of material with known properties used to calibrate ultrasonic scanning devices (e.g., the echoencephalograph). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38807, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1935" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1935   Near Infrared (NIR) Brain Hematoma Detector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Near Infrared (NIR) Brain Hematoma Detector is a noninvasive device that employs near-infrared spectroscopy that is intended to be used to evaluate suspected brain hematomas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, distribution, and use of this device are restricted to prescription use in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling must include specific instructions and the clinical training needed for the safe use of this device;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis/testing should validate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, and battery characteristics;
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data should validate accuracy and precision and safety features;
</P>
<P>(5) Any elements of the device that may contact the patient should be demonstrated to be biocompatible; and,
</P>
<P>(6) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis should be performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 16927, Mar. 23, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.1950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.1950   Tremor transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tremor transducer is a device used to measure the degree of tremor caused by certain diseases. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Neurological Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4030   Skull plate anvil.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skull plate anvil is a device used to form alterable skull plates in the proper shape to fit the curvature of a patient's skull. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63011, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4060   Ventricular cannula.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ventricular cannula is a device used to puncture the ventricles of the brain for aspiration or for injection. This device is frequently referred to as a ventricular needle. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4100   Ventricular catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ventricular catheter is a device used to gain access to the cavities of the brain for injection of material into, or removal of material from, the brain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4125" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4125   Neurosurgical chair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neurosurgical chair is an operating room chair used to position and support a patient during neurosurgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4150   Scalp clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scalp clip is a plastic or metal clip used to stop bleeding during surgery on the scalp. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4175   Aneurysm clip applier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An aneurysm clip applier is a device used by the surgeon for holding and applying intracranial aneurysm clips. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4190" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4190   Clip forming/cutting instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clip forming/cutting instrument is a device used by the physician to make tissue clips from wire stock. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4200   Clip removal instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clip removal instrument is a device used to remove surgical clips from the patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4215" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4215   Clip rack.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clip rack is a device used to hold or store surgical clips during surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 25051, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4250   Cryogenic surgical device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cryogenic surgical device is a device used to destroy nervous tissue or produce lesions in nervous tissue by the application of extreme cold to the selected site. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4275   Dowel cutting instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dowel cutting instrument is a device used to cut dowels of bone for bone grafting. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4300   Manual cranial drills, burrs, trephines, and their accessories</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Manual cranial drills, burrs, trephines, and their accessories are bone cutting and drilling instruments that are used without a power source on a patient's skull. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4305" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4305   Powered compound cranial drills, burrs, trephines, and their accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Powered compound cranial drills, burrs, trephines, and their accessories are bone cutting and drilling instruments used on a patient's skull. The instruments employ a clutch mechanism to disengage the tip of the instrument after penetrating the skull to prevent plunging of the tip into the brain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4310   Powered simple cranial drills, burrs, trephines, and their accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Powered simple cranial drills, burrs, trephines, and their accessories are bone cutting and drilling instruments used on a patient's skull. The instruments are used with a power source but do not have a clutch mechanism to disengage the tip after penetrating the skull. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4325" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4325   Cranial drill handpiece (brace).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cranial drill handpiece (brace) is a hand holder, which is used without a power source, for drills, burrs, trephines, or other cutting tools that are used on a patient's skull. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4360   Electric cranial drill motor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electric cranial drill motor is an electrically operated power source used with removable rotating surgical cutting tools or drill bits on a patient's skull. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4370   Pneumatic cranial drill motor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pneumatic cranial drill motor is a pneumatically operated power source used with removable rotating surgical cutting tools or drill bits on a patient's skull. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4400   Radiofrequency lesion generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiofrequency lesion generator is a device used to produce lesions in the nervous system or other tissue by the direct application of radiofrequency currents to selected sites. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4440   Neurosurgical headrests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neurosurgical headrest is a device used to support the patient's head during a surgical procedure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4460   Neurosurgical head holder (skull clamp).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neurosurgical head holder (skull clamp) is a device used to clamp the patient's skull to hold head and neck in a particular position during surgical procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4500   Cranioplasty material forming instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cranioplasty material forming instrument is a roller used in the preparation and forming of cranioplasty (skull repair) materials. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4525" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4525   Microsurgical instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A microsurgical instrument is a nonpowered surgical instrument used in neurological microsurgery procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4535" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4535   Nonpowered neurosurgical instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered neurosurgical instrument is a hand instrument or an accessory to a hand instrument used during neurosurgical procedures to cut, hold, or manipulate tissue. It includes specialized chisels, osteotomes, curettes, dissectors, elevators, forceps, gouges, hooks, surgical knives, rasps, scissors, separators, spatulas, spoons, blades, blade holders, blade breakers, probes, etc. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4545" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4545   Shunt system implantation instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shunt system implantation instrument is an instrument used in the implantation of cerebrospinal fluid shunts, and includes tunneling instruments for passing shunt components under the skin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000; 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4560   Stereotaxic instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stereotaxic instrument is a device consisting of a rigid frame with a calibrated guide mechanism for precisely positioning probes or other devices within a patient's brain, spinal cord, or other part of the nervous system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4565" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4565   Field generator positioning device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A field generator positioning device is a manual, mechanical device intended to position the field generator of an electromagnetic based stereotaxic navigation system in proximity to a patient. The device may operate independently or adapt existing medical equipment, such as a procedure chair or surgical bed, by using a mechanical interface.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 54234, Nov. 26, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4600   Leukotome.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A leukotome is a device used to cut sections out of the brain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4650   Neurosurgical suture needle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neurosurgical suture needle is a needle used in suturing during neurosurgical procedures or in the repair of nervous tissue. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 54 FR 25051, June 12, 1989; 65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4700   Neurosurgical paddie.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A neurosurgical paddie is a pad used during surgery to protect nervous tissue, absorb fluids, or stop bleeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 69 FR 10332, Mar. 5, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4725" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4725   Radiofrequency lesion probe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiofrequency lesion probe is a device connected to a radiofrequency (RF) lesion generator to deliver the RF energy to the site within the nervous system where a lesion is desired. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4750   Skull punch.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skull punch is a device used to punch holes through a patient's skull to allow fixation of cranioplasty plates or bone flaps by wire or other means. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 882.9. This exemption does not apply to powered compound cranial drills, burrs, trephines, and their accessories classified under § 882.4305.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4800   Self-retaining retractor for neurosurgery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A self-retaining retractor for neurosurgery is a self-locking device used to hold the edges of a wound open during neurosurgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4840   Manual rongeur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual rongeur is a manually operated instrument used for cutting or biting bone during surgery involving the skull or spinal column. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4845" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4845   Powered rongeur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered rongeur is a powered instrument used for cutting or biting bone during surgery involving the skull or spinal column. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4900   Skullplate screwdriver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skullplate screwdriver is a tool used by the surgeon to fasten cranioplasty plates or skullplates to a patient's skull by screws. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.4950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.4.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.4950   Diagnostic neurosurgical microscope filter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic neurosurgical microscope filter is a device intended for use during neurosurgery to visualize fluorescence and enhance visualization of tissue associated with a specific disease or condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, and verify and validate filter specifications and functional characteristics, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Spectrum and intensity of the illumination source;
</P>
<P>(ii) Spectrum of the excitation and emission filter modules when integrated in the surgical operating microscope;
</P>
<P>(iii) Excitation power and power density;
</P>
<P>(iv) Optical path loss from illumination source to objective lens or microscope camera;
</P>
<P>(v) Homogeneity of the excitation light at the focal plane;
</P>
<P>(vi) Fluorescence detection sensitivity;
</P>
<P>(vii) Verification of calibration or preoperative procedures; and
</P>
<P>(viii) If camera-based, spectral sensitivity of the camera.
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the filter characteristics in conjunction with a compatible surgical operating microscope, to include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Illumination spectrum and power density; and
</P>
<P>(B) Excitation and emission filter spectra.
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for calibration or preoperative checks to ensure device functionality prior to each use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for use with compatible surgical operating microscopes, external light sources, and cameras;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning that the device should only be used with fluorophores approved for use within the specified spectral ranges; and
</P>
<P>(v) A warning that the device is not a standalone diagnostic.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 73973, Dec. 29, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Neurological Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5030   Methyl methacrylate for aneurysmorrhaphy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Methyl methacrylate for aneurysmorrhaphy (repair of aneurysms, which are balloonlike sacs formed on blood vessels) is a self-curing acrylic used to encase and reinforce intracranial aneurysms that are not amenable to conservative management, removal, or obliteration by aneurysm clip. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5050   Biofeedback device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A biofeedback device is an instrument that provides a visual or auditory signal corresponding to the status of one or more of a patient's physiological parameters (e.g., brain alpha wave activity, muscle activity, skin temperature, etc.) so that the patient can control voluntarily these physiological parameters. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter when it is a prescription battery powered device that is indicated for relaxation training and muscle reeducation and prescription use, subject to § 882.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 63 FR 59229, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5060   Conditioning tool for eating disorders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A conditioning tool for eating disorders is a prescription device that non-invasively measures the mass of food eaten during a meal and provides feedback in the form of eating rate, patient satiety, and eating pattern information to the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonclinical performance testing must demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(i) Device measurement accuracy and repeatability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Device feedback accuracy.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling and patient labeling must be provided which includes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Information identifying and explaining how to use the device and its components; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 68403, Dec. 2, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5070   Bite block.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bite block is a device inserted into a patient's mouth to protect the tongue and teeth while the patient is having convulsions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5150   Intravascular occluding catheter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravascular occluding catheter is a catheter with an inflatable or detachable balloon tip that is used to block a blood vessel to treat malformations, e.g., aneurysms (balloonlike sacs formed on blood vessels) of intracranial blood vessels. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any intravascular occluding catheter that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to an intravascular occluding catheter that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other intravascular occluding catheter shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 17740, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5175   Carotid artery clamp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A carotid artery clamp is a device that is surgically placed around a patient's carotid artery (the principal artery in the neck that supplies blood to the brain) and has a removable adjusting mechanism that protrudes through the skin of the patient's neck. The clamp is used to occlude the patient's carotid artery to treat intracranial aneurysms (balloonlike sacs formed on blood vessels) or other intracranial vascular malformations that are difficult to attach directly by reducing the blood pressure and blood flow to the aneurysm or malformation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5200   Aneurysm clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An aneurysm clip is a device used to occlude an intracranial aneurysm (a balloonlike sac formed on a blood vessel) to prevent it from bleeding or bursting. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5225   Implanted malleable clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted malleable clip is a bent wire or staple that is forcibly closed with a special instrument to occlude an intracranial blood vessel or aneurysm (a balloonlike sac formed on a blood vessel), stop bleeding, or hold tissue or a mechanical device in place in a patient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5235" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5235   Aversive conditioning device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An aversive conditioning device is an instrument used to administer an electrical shock or other noxious stimulus to a patient to modify undesirable behavioral characteristics. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls), except for electrical stimulation devices for self-injurious or aggressive behavior. Electrical stimulation devices for self-injurious or aggressive behavior are banned. See § 895.105 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 85 FR 13354, Mar. 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5250   Burr hole cover.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A burr hole cover is a plastic or metal device used to cover or plug holes drilled into the skull during surgery and to reattach cranial bone removed during surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5275   Nerve cuff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nerve cuff is a tubular silicone rubber sheath used to encase a nerve for aid in repairing the nerve (e.g., to prevent ingrowth of scar tissue) and for capping the end of the nerve to prevent the formation of neuroma (tumors). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5300   Methyl methacrylate for cranioplasty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Methyl methacrylate for cranioplasty (skull repair) is a self-curing acrylic that a surgeon uses to repair a skull defect in a patient. At the time of surgery, the surgeon initiates polymerization of the material and forms it into a plate or other appropriate shape to repair the defect. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5320   Preformed alterable cranioplasty plate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed alterable cranioplasty plate is a device that is implanted into a patient to repair a skull defect. It is constructed of a material, e.g., tantalum, that can be altered or reshaped at the time of surgery without changing the chemical behavior of the material. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5330   Preformed nonalterable cranioplasty plate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed nonalterable cranioplasty plate is a device that is implanted in a patient to repair a skull defect and is constructed of a material, e.g., stainless steel or vitallium, that cannot be altered or reshaped at the time of surgery without changing the chemical behavior of the material. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5360   Cranioplasty plate fastener.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cranioplasty plate fastener is a screw, wire, or other article made of tantalum, vitallium, or stainless steel used to secure a plate to the patient's skull to repair a skull defect. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5500   Lesion temperature monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lesion temperature monitor is a device used to monitor the tissue temperature at the site where a lesion (tissue destruction) is to be made when a surgeon uses a radiofrequency (RF) lesion generator and probe. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5550   Central nervous system fluid shunt and components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A central nervous system fluid shunt is a device or combination of devices used to divert fluid from the brain or other part of the central nervous system to an internal delivery site or an external receptacle for the purpose of relieving elevated intracranial pressure or fluid volume (e.g., due to hydrocephalus). Components of a central nervous system shunt include catheters, valved catheters, valves, connectors, and other accessory components intended to facilitate use of the shunt or evaluation of a patient with a shunt. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5560   Cerebrospinal fluid shunt system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cerebrospinal fluid shunt system is a prescription device used to monitor and divert fluid from the brain or other part of the central nervous system to an internal delivery site or an external receptacle for the purpose of preventing spinal cord ischemia or injury during procedures that require reduction in central nervous system pressure. A cerebrospinal fluid shunt system may include catheters, valved catheters, valves, connectors, and pressure monitors intended to facilitate use of the shunt or evaluation of a patient with a shunt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device description must include a detailed summary of the device technical parameters, including design configuration, dimensions, engineering drawings, and a list of all components with identification of their materials of construction.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Simulated use testing must be conducted to characterize fluid flow and resistance to leakage; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical integrity testing of all connections must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the specified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility and pyrogenicity of patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Contraindications with respect to patients who should not receive a lumbar drain;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the device should have 24-hour-a-day availability of trained personnel to supervise monitoring and drainage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions on proper device setup, positioning, and monitoring;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings and precautions to inform the user of serious hazards and special care associated with the use of the device;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the device is not to be reused, reprocessed, or resterilized when open but unused; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Cleaning instructions for the injection sites.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 73975, Dec. 29, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5600   Neurovascular mechanical thrombectomy device for acute ischemic stroke treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neurovascular mechanical thrombectomy device for acute ischemic stroke treatment is a prescription device used in the treatment of acute ischemic stroke to improve clinical outcomes. The device is delivered into the neurovasculature with an endovascular approach, mechanically removes thrombus from the body, and restores blood flow in the neurovasculature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing to demonstrate the device can withstand anticipated tensile, torsional, and compressive forces.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical testing to evaluate the radial forces exerted by the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Non-clinical testing to verify the dimensions of the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Non-clinical testing must demonstrate the device can be delivered to the target location in the neurovasculature and retrieve simulated thrombus under simulated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(v) Non-clinical testing must demonstrate the device is radiopaque and can be visualized.
</P>
<P>(vi) Non-clinical testing must evaluate the coating integrity and particulates under simulated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(vii) Animal testing must evaluate the safety of the device, including damage to the vessels or tissue under anticipated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the patient contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf-life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the specified shelf-life.
</P>
<P>(5) Clinical performance testing of the device must demonstrate the device performs as intended for use in the treatment of acute ischemic stroke and must capture any adverse events associated with the device and procedure.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on the specific patient population for which the device is intended for use in the treatment of acute ischemic stroke, including but not limited to, specifying time from symptom onset, vessels or location of the neurovasculature that can be accessed for treatment, and limitations on core infarct size.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed instructions on proper device preparation and use for thrombus retrieval from the neurovasculature.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the clinical testing results, including a detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications and adverse events.
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94253, Dec. 23, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5700   Thermal system for insomnia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thermal system for insomnia is a prescription device for use in patients with insomnia that is used to apply a specified temperature to the skin surface.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated:
</P>
<P>(i) Thermal performance of the device, including maintenance of the target temperature, must be evaluated under simulated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical testing to demonstrate the device can withstand forces under anticipated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Mechanical testing to demonstrate the device is resistant to leakage under anticipated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Patient labeling must be provided to convey information regarding safe use of the device, including instructions for assembly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 44772, July 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5705" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5705   Digital therapy device to reduce sleep disturbance for psychiatric conditions.</HEAD>
<P><I>(a) Identification.</I> A digital therapy device to reduce sleep disturbance for psychiatric conditions is a prescription device that is intended to provide stimulation using a general purpose computing platform to reduce sleep disturbance in patients who experience this symptom due to psychiatric conditions such as nightmare disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder.
</P>
<P><I>(b) Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing under the labeled conditions for use must evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The ability of the device to provide therapy for patients with sleep disturbance due to psychiatric conditions, using a validated measure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Worsening of any condition-specific symptoms using a validated measure for assessment of the particular condition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase in symptoms of disturbed sleep or sleepiness using a validated measure.
</P>
<P>(2) Software must clearly describe all features and functions of the software implementing the digital therapy. Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must also be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient and physician labeling must include instructions for use, including images that demonstrate how to interact with the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient and physician labeling must list the minimum operating system and general purpose computing requirements that support the software of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning that the digital therapy device is not intended for use as a stand-alone therapeutic device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning that the digital therapy device does not represent a substitution for the patient's medication; and
</P>
<P>(v) Physician labeling must include a summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 2223, Jan. 13, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5800   Cranial electrotherapy stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cranial electrotherapy stimulator is a prescription device that applies electrical current that is not intended to induce a seizure to a patient's head to treat psychiatric conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) when intended to treat insomnia and/or anxiety. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to use of the device to demonstrate the effectiveness of the device to treat insomnia and/or anxiety.
</P>
<P>(ii) Components of the device that come into human contact must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(iii) The device must be designed and tested for electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(v) The technical parameters of the device, including waveform, output mode, pulse duration, frequency, train delivery, maximum charge, and energy, must be fully characterized and verified.
</P>
<P>(vi) The labeling for the device must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The intended use population and the intended use environment;
</P>
<P>(B) A warning that patients should be monitored by their physician for signs of worsening;
</P>
<P>(C) A warning that instructs patients on how to mitigate the risk of headaches, and what to do should a headache occur;
</P>
<P>(D) A warning that instructs patients on how to mitigate the risk of dizziness, and what to do should dizziness occur;
</P>
<P>(E) A detailed summary of the clinical testing, which includes the clinical outcomes associated with the use of the device, and a summary of adverse events and complications that occurred with the device;
</P>
<P>(F) Instructions for use that address where to place the electrodes, what stimulation parameters to use, and duration and frequency of treatment sessions. This information must be based on the results of clinical studies for the device;
</P>
<P>(G) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters, including waveform, output mode, pulse duration, frequency, train delivery, and maximum charge and energy; and
</P>
<P>(H) Information on validated methods for reprocessing any reusable components between uses.
</P>
<P>(vii) Cranial electrotherapy stimulator devices marketed prior to the effective date of this reclassification must have an amendment submitted to the previously cleared premarket notification (510(k)) demonstrating compliance with these special controls.
</P>
<P>(2) Class III (premarket approval) when intended to treat depression.
</P>
<P>(c) Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required. A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before March 19, 2020, for any cranial electrotherapy stimulator device with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before March 19, 2020, been found to be substantially equivalent to any cranial electrotherapy stimulator device with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other cranial electrotherapy stimulator device with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 70013, Dec. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5801" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5801   Computerized behavioral therapy device for psychiatric disorders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A computerized behavioral therapy device for psychiatric disorders is a prescription only device intended to provide a computerized version of condition-specific behavioral therapy as an adjunct to clinician supervised outpatient treatment to patients with psychiatric conditions. The digital therapy is intended to provide patients access to therapy tools used during treatment sessions to improve recognized treatment outcomes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must be provided to fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe a validated model of behavioral therapy for the psychiatric disorder; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Validate the model of behavioral therapy as implemented by the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Software must be described in detail in the software requirements specification (SRS) and software design specification (SDS). Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Software documentation must demonstrate that the device effectively implements the behavioral therapy model.
</P>
<P>(3) The following labeling must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient and physician labeling must include instructions for use, including images that demonstrate how to interact with the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient and physician labeling must list compatible devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning that the device is not intended for use as a standalone therapy.
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning that the device does not represent a substitution for the patient's medication.
</P>
<P>(v) Physician labeling must include a summary of the clinical testing with the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 61167, Dec. 27, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5802" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5802   Transcranial magnetic stimulation system for neurological and psychiatric disorders and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcranial magnetic stimulation system for neurological and psychiatric disorders and conditions is a prescription, non-implantable device that uses brief duration, rapidly alternating, or pulsed, magnetic fields to induce neural activity in the cerebral cortex. It is not intended for applying or focusing magnetic fields towards brain areas outside cerebral cortex (e.g., cerebellum). A repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation system that is intended to treat major depressive disorder is classified in § 882.5805. A transcranial magnetic stimulation system for headache is classified in § 882.5808.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, and thermal safety.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Magnetic pulse output testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Magnetic and electrical field testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing of the safety features built into the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Testing of the sound levels patients are exposed to during device use.
</P>
<P>(5) The physician and patient labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The risks and benefits associated with use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed instructions to prevent seizures, to monitor the patient for seizure activity during treatment, and to provide seizure management care if one were to occur during treatment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the ear protection to be worn by the patient during use of the device, including the type of protection and its noise reduction rating.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 9230, Mar. 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5803" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5803   Digital therapy device for Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A digital therapy device for Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a software intended to provide therapy for ADHD or any of its individual symptoms as an adjunct to clinician supervised treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate and document the following under the labeled conditions for use, which include considerations for the ability of the device to:
</P>
<P>(i) Use a validated measure to evaluate effectiveness of device to provide therapy for ADHD or any of its individual symptoms; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Capture all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Software must be described and provided in a clear and detailed manner to include all features and functions of the software implementing the digital therapy. Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must also be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) The labeling must include the following items:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient and physician labeling must include instructions for use, including images that demonstrate how to interact with the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient and physician labeling must list the minimum operating system (OS) requirements that support the software of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning that the digital therapy device is not intended for use as a standalone therapeutic device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient and physician labeling must include a warning that the digital therapy device does not represent a substitution for the patient's medication; and
</P>
<P>(v) Physician labeling must include a summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 71156, Sept. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5804" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5804   Computerized behavioral therapy device for the treatment of fibromyalgia symptoms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A computerized behavioral therapy device for the treatment of fibromyalgia symptoms is a prescription device intended to provide a computerized version of behavioral therapy for the treatment of fibromyalgia symptoms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under the anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of improvement in the symptoms of fibromyalgia; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of relevant adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must demonstrate that the device performs as intended.
</P>
<P>(3) Physician and patient labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Recommended treatment regimes, including frequency and duration of use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the clinical data for the device, including a discussion of adverse events.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 38512, June 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5805" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5805   Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation system is an external device that delivers transcranial repetitive pulsed magnetic fields of sufficient magnitude to induce neural action potentials in the prefrontal cortex to treat the symptoms of major depressive disorder without inducing seizure in patients who have failed at least one antidepressant medication and are currently not on any antidepressant therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation System.” See § 882.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 44491, July 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5808" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5808   Transcranial magnetic stimulator for headache.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcranial magnetic stimulator device for headache is a device that delivers brief duration, rapidly alternating, or pulsed, magnetic fields that are externally directed at spatially discrete regions of the brain to induce electrical currents for the treatment of headache.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis/testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, and thermal safety.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed on the device software and firmware.
</P>
<P>(3) The elements of the device that contact the patient must be assessed to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical testing data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. This includes full characterization of the magnetic pulse output and resulting magnetic field map. This also includes characterization of the sound level of the device during use.
</P>
<P>(5) Clinical testing must demonstrate that the device is safe and effective for treating headache in the indicated patient population.
</P>
<P>(6) The physician and patient labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the clinical performance testing, including any adverse events and complications.
</P>
<P>(ii) The intended use population in terms of the types of headaches appropriate for use with the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on how to report adverse events and device malfunctions.
</P>
<P>(iv) A diagram or picture depicting the proper placement of the device on the user.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 38458, July 8, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5810   External functional neuromuscular stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external functional neuromuscular stimulator is an electrical stimulator that uses external electrodes for stimulating muscles in the leg and ankle of partially paralyzed patients (e.g., after stroke) to provide flexion of the foot and thus improve the patient's gait. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5820   Implanted cerebellar stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted cerebellar stimulator is a device used to stimulate electrically a patient's cerebellar cortex for the treatment of intractable epilepsy, spasticity, and some movement disorders. The stimulator consists of an implanted receiver with electrodes that are placed on the patient's cerebellum and an external transmitter for transmitting the stimulating pulses across the patient's skin to the implanted receiver. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before September 26, 1984. Any implanted cerebellar stimulator that was not in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has not on or before September 26, 1984 been found by FDA to be substantially equivalent to an implanted cerebellar stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976 shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before beginning commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 26574, June 28, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5830   Implanted diaphragmatic/phrenic nerve stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted diaphragmatic/phrenic nerve stimulator is a device that provides electrical stimulation of a patient's phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm rhythmically and produce breathing in patients who have hypoventilation (a state in which an abnormally low amount of air enters the lungs) caused by brain stem disease, high cervical spinal cord injury, or chronic lung disease. The stimulator consists of an implanted receiver with electrodes that are placed around the patient's phrenic nerve and an external transmitter for transmitting the stimulating pulses across the patient's skin to the implanted receiver. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 7, 1986 for any implanted diaphragmatic/phrenic nerve stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before July 7, 1986 been found to be substantially equivalent to an implanted diaphragmatic/phrenic nerve stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other implanted diaphragmatic/phrenic nerve stimulator shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 51 FR 12101, Apr. 8, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5840   Implanted intracerebral/subcortical stimulator for pain relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted intracerebral/subcortical stimulator for pain relief is a device that applies electrical current to subsurface areas of a patient's brain to treat severe intractable pain. The stimulator consists of an implanted receiver with electrodes that are placed within a patient's brain and an external transmitter for transmitting the stimulating pulses across the patient's skin to the implanted receiver. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before March 1, 1989, for any implanted intracerebral/subcortical stimulator for pain relief that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before March 1, 1989, been found to be substantially equivalent to an implanted intracerebral/subcortical stimulator for pain relief that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other implanted intracerebral/subcortical stimulator for pain relief shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 48621, Dec. 1, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5850   Implanted spinal cord stimulator for bladder evacuation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted spinal cord stimulator for bladder evacuation is an electrical stimulator used to empty the bladder of a paraplegic patient who has a complete transection of the spinal cord and who is unable to empty his or her bladder by reflex means or by the intermittent use of catheters. The stimulator consists of an implanted receiver with electrodes that are placed on the conus medullaris portion of the patient's spinal cord and an external transmitter for transmitting the stimulating pulses across the patient's skin to the implanted receiver. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any implanted spinal cord stimulator for bladder evacuation that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to an implanted spinal cord stimulator for bladder evacuation that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other implanted spinal cord stimulator for bladder evacuation shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 17740, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5855" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5855   Brain stimulation programming planning software.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The brain stimulation programming planning software is a prescription device intended to assist in planning stimulation programming for implanted brain stimulators.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) Usability assessment must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can safely and correctly use the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The implanted brain stimulators for which the device is compatible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions and explanations of all user-interface components.
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning regarding use of the data with respect to not replacing clinical judgment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 751, Jan. 5, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5860   Implanted neuromuscular stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted neuromuscular stimulator is a device that provides electrical stimulation to a patient's peroneal or femoral nerve to cause muscles in the leg to contract, thus improving the gait in a patient with a paralyzed leg. The stimulator consists of an implanted receiver with electrodes that are placed around a patient's nerve and an external transmitter for transmitting the stimulating pulses across the patient's skin to the implanted receiver. The external transmitter is activated by a switch in the heel in the patient's shoe. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP for a device described in paragraph (b) of this section is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 13, 1999 for any implanted neuromuscular stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 13, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to an implanted neuromuscular stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other implanted neuromuscular stimulator shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 17740, May 11, 1987; 64 FR 18329, Apr. 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5870   Implanted peripheral nerve stimulator for pain relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted peripheral nerve stimulator for pain relief is a device that is used to stimulate electrically a peripheral nerve in a patient to relieve severe intractable pain. The stimulator consists of an implanted receiver with electrodes that are placed around a peripheral nerve and an external transmitter for transmitting the stimulating pulses across the patient's skin to the implanted receiver. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 51730, Sept. 4, 1979, as amended at 78 FR 18234, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5880   Implanted spinal cord stimulator for pain relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implanted spinal cord stimulator for pain relief is a device that is used to stimulate electrically a patient's spinal cord to relieve severe intractable pain. The stimulator consists of an implanted receiver with electrodes that are placed on the patient's spinal cord and an external transmitter for transmitting the stimulating pulses across the patient's skin to the implanted receiver. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5887" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5887   External lower extremity nerve stimulator for Restless Legs Syndrome.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external lower extremity nerve stimulator for Restless Legs Syndrome is a prescription device that uses external electrical stimulators and cutaneous electrodes to stimulate nerves in the lower extremity (<I>e.g.,</I> peroneal nerves) and evoke tonic, sustained muscle activation in the legs to reduce the symptoms of Restless Legs Syndrome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. This testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of the electrical stimulation parameters, including the following: waveforms; output modes; maximum output voltage and maximum output current (at 500Ω, 2kΩ, and 10kΩ loads); pulse duration; frequency; net charge per pulse; and maximum phase charge, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density (at 500Ω);
</P>
<P>(ii) Characterization of the therapy output across sudden and rapid changes in load impedance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of electrode performance, including electrical performance, adhesive integrity, shelf life, reusability, and variation of impedance over the use of therapy.
</P>
<P>(2) The tissue-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety along with electromagnetic compatibility of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Physician and patient labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Recommended treatment regimens, including frequency and duration of use, and identification of application site(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Typical sensations experienced during treatment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Methods for identifying the appropriate stimulation intensity that is needed to reduce symptoms of Restless Legs Syndrome and is tolerable to patients;
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life for the electrode and reuse information;
</P>
<P>(v) Summaries of the electrical stimulation parameters and device technical parameters (including any wireless specifications); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Instructions on how to maintain the device, including all user-interface components.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 38510, June 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5888" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5888   Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator to treat fibromyalgia symptoms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator to treat fibromyalgia symptoms is a prescription device that transcutaneously stimulates a patient's sensory nerves through electrodes placed on the skin to treat fibromyalgia symptoms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. This testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of the electrical stimulation parameters, including the following: waveforms; output modes; maximum output voltage and maximum output current (at 500Ω, 2kΩ, and 10kΩ loads); pulse duration; frequency; net charge per pulse; maximum phase charge, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density (at 500Ω);
</P>
<P>(ii) Characterization of the impedance monitoring system; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of electrode performance, including the electrical performance, adhesive integrity, shelf life, reusability, and current distribution of the electrode surface area.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety along with electromagnetic compatibility of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Recommended treatment regimes, including but not limited to, frequency and duration of use, application site(s), and typical sensations experienced during treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life for the electrode and reuse information;
</P>
<P>(iii) Summaries of the electrical stimulation parameters and device technical parameters (including any wireless specifications); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions on how to correctly use and maintain the device, including all user-interface components.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 31897, May 29, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5889" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5889   Electrical tongue nerve stimulator to treat motor deficits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrical tongue nerve stimulator to treat motor deficits is a prescription device that consists of a non-implantable apparatus to generate electrical pulses for stimulation of the nerves in the tongue to provide treatment of motor deficits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Performance data must demonstrate that all patient-contacting components of the device are biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, battery safety, and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must characterize the electrical stimulation parameters of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Software documentation must include an assessment of the impact of threats and vulnerabilities on device functionality and end users as part of cybersecurity review.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the device's technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cleaning, storage, and charging instructions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Disposal instructions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 59379, Dec. 19, 2025]

 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5890   Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator for pain relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator for pain relief is a device used to apply an electrical current to electrodes on a patient's skin to treat pain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5891" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5891   Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator to treat headache.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator to treat headache is a device used to apply an electrical current to a patient's cranium through electrodes placed on the skin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate analysis/testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety.
</P>
<P>(3) The technical parameters of the device, including waveform, output modes, maximum output voltage and current (with 500, 2,000, and 10,000 ohm loads), pulse duration, frequency, net charge (µC) per pulse, maximum phase charge at 500 ohms, maximum current density (mA/cm
<SU>2</SU>, r.m.s.), maximum average current (mA), maximum average power density (W/cm
<SU>2</SU>), and the type of impedance monitoring system must be fully characterized.
</P>
<P>(4) Electrical performance, adhesive integrity, shelf life, reusability, and current distribution testing of the electrodes must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device is safe and effective as a treatment for headache in the indicated patient population.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate contraindications such as not for use in subjects with an implanted metallic or electronic device in the head, a cardiac pacemaker, or an implanted or wearable defibrillator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate warnings such as not to apply the device on the neck or chest, not to use the device in the presence of electronic monitoring equipment, not to use in the bath or shower, not to use while sleeping, not to use while driving, not to use while operating machinery.
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate precautions such as the long-term effects of chronic use of the device are unknown.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the expected risks and benefits of using the device.
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of the clinical performance data, including information on the patient population for which the device has and has not been demonstrated to be effective, and any adverse events and complications.
</P>
<P>(vi) Information on how the device operates and the typical sensations experienced during treatment.
</P>
<P>(vii) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters.
</P>
<P>(viii) An expiration date/shelf life for the electrodes and the number of times they can be reused.
</P>
<P>(ix) Disposal instructions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 37948, July 3, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5892" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5892   External vagal nerve stimulator for headache.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external vagal nerve stimulator for headache is a prescription device used to apply an electrical current to a patient's vagus nerve through electrodes placed on the skin for the treatment of headache.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical parameters of the device, including waveform, output modes, maximum output voltage and current (with 500, 2,000, and 10,000 ohm loads), pulse duration, frequency, net charge (µC) per pulse, maximum phase charge at 500 ohms, maximum current density (mA/cm
<SU>2</SU>, r.m.s.), maximum average current (mA), maximum average power density (W/cm
<SU>2</SU>), and the type of impedance monitoring system shall be fully characterized through non-clinical performance testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis shall be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Biocompatibility evaluation of the patient-contacting components of the device shall be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) The device shall be tested for electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety, and for electromagnetic compatibility (EMC).
</P>
<P>(5) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for proper use of the device, including placement of the device on the patient; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions on care and cleaning of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 61169, Dec. 27, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5893" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5893   Thermal vestibular stimulator for headache.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The thermal vestibular stimulator for headache is a prescription device used to stimulate the vestibular system by applying thermal waveforms through earpieces placed in a patient's ear canal for the treatment of headache.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety.
</P>
<P>(3) The technical parameters of the device, including waveform outputs and temperature limits, must be identified.
</P>
<P>(4) Cleaning validation of earpieces must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on how the device operates and the typical sensations experienced during treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the device's technical parameters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for maintenance and cleaning of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52973, Oct. 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5894" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5894   Limited output transcutaneous piezoelectric stimulator for skin reactions associated with insect bites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A limited output transcutaneous piezoelectric stimulator for skin reactions associated with insect bites is a device intended to alleviate skin reactions associated with insect bites via cutaneous, piezoelectric stimulation at the local site of the bite.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate testing to characterize the electrical output specifications of the device (<I>i.e.,</I> total charge delivered, maximum instantaneous output current, maximum instantaneous output voltage, pulse duration, charge density) must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(2) Mechanical bench testing must demonstrate that the device will withstand the labeled number duration of uses.
</P>
<P>(3) All elements of the device that may contact the patient must be assessed to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Validated instructions which addresses the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Identification of areas of the body which are appropriate and not appropriate for contact with the device.
</P>
<P>(B) Whether use of the device in conjunction with flammable materials (<I>e.g.,</I> insect repellent) is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) Use of the device on or near implanted devices.
</P>
<P>(D) How to identify the correct type of skin condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) Technical parameters of the device (maximum output voltage (instantaneous), maximum output current (instantaneous), and pulse duration).
</P>
<P>(iii) Language to direct end users to contact the device manufacturer and MedWatch if they experience any adverse events with this device.
</P>
<P>(iv) The anticipated number of device uses prior to failure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 15165, Mar. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5895" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5895   Vibratory counter-stimulation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vibratory counter-stimulation device is a prescription device that provides electrically powered mechanical vibration to improve the quality of sleep in patients with primary Restless Legs Syndrome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 882.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis/testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, and thermal safety.
</P>
<P>(2) If the device contains software or firmware, appropriate verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The elements of the device that contact the patient must be assessed to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical testing data (including vibration frequency, amplitude, and acceleration) must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific information pertinent to use of the device by the intended patient population and the treatment regimen;
</P>
<P>(ii) Warning to only use the device on normal, intact, clean, healthy skin;
</P>
<P>(iii) Warning to not use the device if the user has leg skin disorders, such as eczema, psoriasis, cellulitis, non-healing wounds;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warning to discontinue use if Restless Leg Syndrome symptoms worsen; and
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions for end users to contact the device manufacturer and MedWatch in case they experience any adverse events when using this device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13554, Mar. 14, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 71815, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5896" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5896   Percutaneous nerve stimulator for substance use disorders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A percutaneous nerve stimulator for substance use disorders is a device that stimulates nerves percutaneously to aid in the reduction of withdrawal symptoms associated with substance use disorders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Electrical performance testing of the device and electrodes must be conducted to validate the specified electrical output and duration of stimulation of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Sterility testing of the percutaneous components of the device must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Shelf life testing must be performed to demonstrate continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the specified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning stating that the device is only for use on clean, intact skin;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for use, including placement of the device on the patient; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 5034, Feb. 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5897" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5897   External upper limb tremor stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external upper limb tremor stimulator is a prescription device which is placed externally on the upper limb and designed to aid in tremor symptom relief of the upper limb.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must assess the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of the electrical stimulation, including the following, must be performed: Waveforms, output modes, maximum output voltage, maximum output current, pulse duration, frequency, net charge per pulse, maximum phase charge at 500 ohms, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density.
</P>
<P>(ii) Impedance testing, current distribution across the electrode surface area, adhesive integrity, and shelf life testing of the electrodes and gels must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated use testing of sensor performance and the associated algorithms that determine the stimulation output must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(2) Patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety along with electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Physician and patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Summaries of electrical stimulation parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions on how to correctly use and maintain the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions and explanations of all user-interface components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions on how to clean the device;
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life for the electrodes and gel; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Reuse information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52316, Oct. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5898" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5898   Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a prescription device that stimulates transcutaneously or percutaneously through electrodes placed on the forehead.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following must be performed:
</P>
<P>(i) Electrical performance testing must validate electrical output and duration of stimulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Battery performance testing must be performed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adhesive integrity testing of the electrodes must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(4) The technical parameters of the device including waveform, maximum output current and voltage, pulse duration, frequency, net charge per pulse, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density must be fully characterized.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Shelf life testing of the electrodes must be performed to demonstrate continued package integrity and component functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A contraindication for patients with an implanted metallic or electronic device in the head, a cardiac pacemaker, or an implanted or wearable defibrillator;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the device is only for use on clean, intact skin;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on how the device operates and the typical sensations experienced during treatment;
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life for the electrodes;
</P>
<P>(vi) Instructions for use, including placement of the device on the patient; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Cleaning instructions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 70377, Dec. 10, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5899" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5899   Trunk and limb electrical stimulator to treat headache.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A trunk and limb electrical stimulator to treat headache is a device intended to treat headache through the application of electrical stimulation anywhere on the body of the patient apart from the patient's head or neck through electrodes placed on the skin. The stimulation may be provided transcutaneously or percutaneously.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. This testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of the electrical stimulation, including the following: Waveforms; output modes; maximum output voltage and maximum output current (at 500Ω, 2kΩ, and 10kΩ loads); pulse duration; frequency; net charge per pulse; and maximum phase charge, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density (at 500Ω);
</P>
<P>(ii) Characterization of the impedance monitoring system; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of the electrode performance including the electrical performance, adhesive integrity, shelf-life, reusability, and current distribution of the electrode surface area.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including the typical sensations experienced during treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the electrical stimulation output, and the device technical parameters, including any wireless specifications;
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life for the electrodes and reuse information; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions on care and cleaning of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 68401, Dec. 2, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5900   Preformed craniosynostosis strip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A preformed craniosynostosis strip is a plastic strip used to cover bone edges of craniectomy sites (sites where the skull has been cut) to prevent the bone from regrowing in patients whose skull sutures are abnormally fused together. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5910   Dura substitute.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A dura substitute is a sheet or material that is used to repair the dura mater (the membrane surrounding the brain). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5940   Electroconvulsive therapy device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electroconvulsive therapy device is a prescription device, including the pulse generator and its stimulation electrodes, used for treating severe psychiatric disturbances by inducing in the patient a major motor seizure by applying a brief intense electrical current to the patient's head.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) when the device is intended to treat catatonia or a severe major depressive episode (MDE) associated with major depressive disorder (MDD) or bipolar disorder (BPD) in patients age 13 years and older who are treatment-resistant or who require a rapid response due to the severity of their psychiatric or medical condition. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) The technical parameters of the device, including waveform, output mode, pulse duration, frequency, train delivery, maximum charge and energy, and the type of impedance monitoring system must be fully characterized to ensure that the device performance characteristics are consistent with existing clinical performance data.
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-clinical testing data must confirm the electrical characteristics of the output waveform.
</P>
<P>(iii) Components of the device that come into human contact must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance data must demonstrate electrical and mechanical safety and the functioning of all safety features built into the device including the static and dynamic impedance monitoring system.
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate analysis/testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility.
</P>
<P>(vi) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(vii) Performance data must demonstrate electrical performance, adhesive integrity, and physical and chemical stability of the stimulation electrodes.
</P>
<P>(viii) The labeling for the device must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Information related to generic adverse events associated with electroconvulsive therapy device (ECT) treatment;
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions must contain the following specific recommendations to the user of the device:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Conduct of pre-ECT medical and psychiatric assessment (including pertinent medical and psychiatric history, physical examination, anesthesia assessment, dental assessment, and other studies as clinically appropriate);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Use of patient monitoring during the procedure;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Use of general anesthesia and neuromuscular blocking agents;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Use of mouth/dental protection during the procedure;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Use of EEG monitoring until seizure termination;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Instructions on electrode placement, including adequate skin preparation and use of conductive gel; and
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Cognitive status monitoring prior to beginning ECT and during the course of treatment via formal neuropsychological assessment for evaluating specific cognitive functions (<I>e.g.,</I> orientation, attention, memory, executive function).
</P>
<P>(C) Clinical training needed by users of the device;
</P>
<P>(D) Information on the patient population in which the device is intended to be used;
</P>
<P>(E) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(F) A detailed summary of the clinical testing, which includes the clinical outcomes associated with the use of the device, and a summary of adverse events and complications that occurred with the device;
</P>
<P>(G) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(H) Where appropriate, validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components;
</P>
<P>(I) The following statement, prominently placed: “Warning: ECT device use may be associated with: disorientation, confusion, and memory problems”; and
</P>
<P>(J) Absent performance data demonstrating a beneficial effect of longer term use, generally considered treatment in excess of 3 months, the following statement, prominently placed: “Warning: When used as intended this device provides short-term relief of symptoms. The long-term safety and effectiveness of ECT treatment has not been demonstrated.”
</P>
<P>(ix) Patient labeling must be provided and include:
</P>
<P>(A) Relevant contraindications, warnings, precautions;
</P>
<P>(B) A summation of the clinical testing, which includes the clinical outcomes associated with the use of the device, and a summary of adverse events and complications that occurred with the device;
</P>
<P>(C) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment;
</P>
<P>(D) The potential benefits;
</P>
<P>(E) Alternative treatments;
</P>
<P>(F) The following statement, prominently placed: “Warning: ECT device use may be associated with: Disorientation, confusion, and memory problems”;
</P>
<P>(G) Absent performance data demonstrating a beneficial effect of longer term use, generally considered treatment in excess of 3 months, the following statement, prominently placed: “Warning: When used as intended this device provides short-term relief of symptoms. The long-term safety and effectiveness of ECT treatment has not been demonstrated”; and
</P>
<P>(H) The following statements on known risks of ECT, absent performance data demonstrating that these risks do not apply:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) ECT treatment may be associated with disorientation, confusion and memory loss, including short-term (anterograde) and long-term (autobiographical) memory loss following treatment. Based on the majority of clinical evidence, these side effects tend to go away within a few days to a few months after the last treatment with ECT. Although the incidence of permanent cognitive memory loss was not supported by the clinical literature, some patients have reported a permanent loss of memories of personal life events (<I>i.e.,</I> autobiographical memory);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Patients treated with ECT may experience manic symptoms (including euphoria and/or irritability, impulsivity, racing thoughts, distractibility, grandiosity, increased activity, talkativeness, and decreased need for sleep) or a worsening of the psychiatric symptoms they are being treated for; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The physical risks of ECT may include the following (in order of frequency of occurrence):
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Pain/somatic discomfort (including headache, muscle soreness, and nausea);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Skin burns;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Physical trauma (including fractures, contusions, injury from falls, dental and oral injury);
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Prolonged or delayed onset seizures;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Pulmonary complications (hypoxemia, hypoventilation, aspiration, upper-airway obstruction);
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Cardiovascular complications (cardiac arrhythmias, heart attack, high or low blood pressure, and stroke); and
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Death.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification:</I> Class III (premarket approval) for the following intended uses: schizophrenia, bipolar manic states, schizoaffective disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and catatonia or a severe MDE associated with MDD or BPD in:
</P>
<P>(i) Patients under 13 years or
</P>
<P>(ii) Patients 13 years and older who are not treatment-resistant or who do not require a rapid response due to the severity of their psychiatric or medical condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with FDA on or before March 26, 2019, for any electroconvulsive therapy device with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before March 26, 2019, been found to be substantially equivalent to any electroconvulsive therapy device with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other electroconvulsive therapy device with an intended use described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66123, Dec. 26, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5950   Neurovascular embolization device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A neurovascular embolization device is an intravascular implant intended to permanently occlude blood flow to cerebral aneurysms and cerebral ateriovenous malformations. This does not include cyanoacrylates and other embolic agents, which act by polymerization or precipitation. Embolization devices used in other vascular applications are also not included in this classification, see § 870.3300.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls.) The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Vascular and Neurovascular Embolization Devices.” For availability of this guidance document, see § 882.1(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 77900, Dec. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5955" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5955   Temporary coil embolization assist device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A temporary coil embolization assist device is a prescription device intended for temporary use in the neurovasculature to mechanically assist in the embolization of intracranial aneurysms with embolic coils. The device is delivered into the neurovasculature with an endovascular approach. This device is not intended to be permanently implanted and is removed from the body when the procedure is completed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing of the device must demonstrate the device performs as intended for temporary use as an endovascular device to assist in the coil embolization of intracranial aneurysms and must evaluate all adverse events, including tissue or vessel damage that could lead to dissection, perforation, hemorrhage, or vasospasm, thrombo-embolic events, and coil entanglement.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing to demonstrate the device can withstand anticipated tensile, torsional, compressive, and tip deflection forces;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical testing to evaluate the radial forces exerted by the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated use testing to demonstrate the device can be delivered to the target location in the neurovasculature and is compatible with embolic coils;
</P>
<P>(iv) Dimensional verification testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Radiopacity testing; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Performance testing to evaluate the coating integrity and particulates under simulated use conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Animal testing under anticipated use conditions must evaluate all adverse events, including damage to vessels or tissues.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters, including compatible delivery catheter dimensions and device sizing information;
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the clinical testing results, including a detailed summary of the device- and procedure-related complications and adverse events; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 70733, Dec. 13, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5960   Skull tongs for traction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Skull tongs for traction is an instrument used to immobilize a patient with a cervical spine injury (e.g., fracture or dislocation). The device is caliper shaped with tips that penetrate the skin. It is anchored to the skull and has a heavy weight attached to it that maintains, by traction, the patient's position. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 882.5970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.28.5.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 882.5970   Cranial orthosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cranial orthosis is a device that is intended for medical purposes to apply pressure to prominent regions of an infant's cranium in order to improve cranial symmetry and/or shape in infants from 3 to 18 months of age, with moderate to severe nonsynostotic positional plagiocephaly, including infants with plagiocephalic-, brachycephalic-, and scaphocephalic-shaped heads.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (prescription use in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter, biocompatibility testing, and labeling (contraindications, warnings, precautions, adverse events, instructions for physicians and parents)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 40651, July 30, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="884" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 884—OBSTETRICAL AND GYNECOLOGICAL DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l</I>, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of obstetrical and gynecological devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, an obstetrical and gynecological device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed only in one subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17740, May 11, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 44415, Aug. 27, 2003; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17740, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2319, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Obstetrical and Gynecological Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1040   Viscometer for cervical mucus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A viscometer for cervical mucus is a device that is intended to measure the relative viscoelasticity of cervical mucus collected from a female patient. Measurements of relative viscoelasticity are intended for use as an adjunct in the clinical evaluation of a female with chronic infertility, to determine the time of ovulation and the penetrability of cervical mucus to motile sperm. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 14706, Apr. 6, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 2320, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1050   Endocervical aspirator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endocervical aspirator is a device designed to remove tissue from the endocervix (mucous membrane lining the canal of the cervix of the uterus) by suction with a syringe, bulb and pipette, or catheter. This device is used to evaluate endocervical tissue to detect malignant and premalignant lesions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1060   Endometrial aspirator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endometrial aspirator is a device designed to remove materials from the endometrium (the mucosal lining of the uterus) by suction with a syringe, bulb and pipette, or catheter. This device is used to study endometrial cytology (cells). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” 
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling: 
</P>
<P>(i) Indication: Only to evaluate the endometrium, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contraindications: Pregnancy, history of uterine perforation, or a recent cesarean section, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The sampling component is covered within vagina. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17146, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1100   Endometrial brush.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endometrial brush is a device designed to remove samples of the endometrium (the mucosal lining of the uterus) by brushing its surface. This device is used to study endometrial cytology (cells). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” 
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling: 
</P>
<P>(i) Indication: Only to evaluate the endometrium, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contraindications: Pregnancy, history of uterine perforation, or a recent cesarean section, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Design and testing: 
</P>
<P>(i) The sampling component is covered within the vagina, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) For adherence of the bristles and brush head. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17146, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1175   Endometrial suction curette and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endometrial suction curette is a device used to remove material from the uterus and from the mucosal lining of the uterus by scraping and vacuum suction. This device is used to obtain tissue for biopsy or for menstrual extraction. This generic type of device may include catheters, syringes, and tissue filters or traps. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1185" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1185   Endometrial washer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endometrial washer is a device used to remove materials from the endometrium (the mucosal lining of the uterus) by washing with water or saline solution and then aspirating with negative pressure. This device is used to study endometrial cytology (cells). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Organization for Standardization's ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” and 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” 
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling: 
</P>
<P>(i) Indication: Only to evaluate the endometrium, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contraindications: Pregnancy, history of uterine perforation, or a recent cesarean section, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Warning: Do not attach to a wall or any external suction, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Design and Testing: 
</P>
<P>(i) The sampling component is covered within the vagina, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Intrauterine pressure should not exceed 50 millimeters of mercury. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17146, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1300   Uterotubal carbon dioxide insufflator and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A uterotubal carbon dioxide insufflator and accessories is a device used to test the patency (lack of obstruction) of the fallopian tubes by pressurizing the uterus and fallopian tubes and filling them with carbon dioxide gas. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1425   Perineometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A perineometer is a device consisting of a fluid-filled sack for intravaginal use that is attached to an external manometer. The devices measure the strength of the perineal muscles by offering resistence to a patient's voluntary contractions of these muscles and is used to diagnose and to correct, through exercise, uninary incontinence or sexual dysfunction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1550   Amniotic fluid sampler (amniocentesis tray).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The amniotic fluid sampler (amniocentesis tray) is a collection of devices used to aspirate amniotic fluid from the amniotic sac via a transabdominal approach. Components of the amniocentesis tray include a disposable 3 inch 20 gauge needle with stylet and a 30 cc. syringe, as well as the various sample collection accessories, such as vials, specimen containers, medium, drapes, etc. The device is used at 16-18 weeks gestation for antepartum diagnosis of certain congenital abnormalities or anytime after 24 weeks gestation when used to assess fetal maturity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 33808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1560   Fetal blood sampler.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal blood sampler is a device used to obtain fetal blood transcervically through an endoscope by puncturing the fetal skin with a short blade and drawing blood into a heparinized tube. The fetal blood pH is determined and used in the diagnosis of fetal distress and fetal hypoxia. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1600   Transabdominal amnioscope (fetoscope) and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transabdominal amnioscope is a device designed to permit direct visual examination of the fetus by a telescopic system via abdominal entry. The device is used to ascertain fetal abnormalities, to obtain fetal blood samples, or to obtain fetal tissue. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: trocar and cannula, instruments used through an operating channel or through a separate cannula associated with the amnioscope, light source and cables, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before January 29, 1987 for any transabdominal amnioscope (fetoscope) and accessories that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before January 29, 1987 been found to be substantially equivalent to a transabdominal amnioscope (fetoscope) and accessories that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other transabdominal amnioscope (fetoscope) and accessories shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 39845, Oct. 31, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1630   Colposcope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A colposcope is a device designed to permit direct viewing of the tissues of the vagina and cervix by a telescopic system located outside the vagina. It is used to diagnose abnormalities and select areas for biopsy. This generic type of device may include a light source, cables, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a standard colposcope (or colpomicroscope) that uses only a white light source, does not use filters other than a green filter, does not include image analysis software, and is not smartphone-based, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1640   Culdoscope and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A culdoscope is a device designed to permit direct viewing of the organs within the peritoneum by a telescopic system introduced into the pelvic cavity through the posterior vaginal fornix. It is used to perform diagnostic and surgical procedures on the female genital organs. This generic type of device may include trocar and cannula, instruments used through an operating channel, scope preheaters, light source and cables, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for culdoscope accessories that are not part of a specialized instrument or device delivery system; do not have adapters, connectors, channels, or do not have portals for electrosurgical, laser, or other power sources. Such culdoscope accessory instruments include: lens cleaning brush, biopsy brush, clip applier (without clips), applicator, cannula (without trocar or valves), ligature carrier/needle holder, clamp/hemostat/grasper, curette, instrument guide, ligature passing and knotting instrument, suture needle (without suture), retractor, mechanical (noninflatable), snare, stylet, forceps, dissector, mechanical (noninflatable) scissors, and suction/irrigation probe. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1660   Transcervical endoscope (amnioscope) and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transcervical endoscope is a device designed to permit direct viewing of the fetus and amniotic sac by means of an open tube introduced into the uterus through the cervix. The device may be used to visualize the fetus or amniotic fluid and to sample fetal blood or amniotic fluid. This generic type of device may include obturators, instruments used through an operating channel, light sources and cables, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1690   Hysteroscope and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hysteroscope is a device used to permit direct viewing of the cervical canal and the uterine cavity by a telescopic system introduced into the uterus through the cervix. It is used to perform diagnostic and surgical procedures other than sterilization. This generic type of device may include obturators and sheaths, instruments used through an operating channel, scope preheaters, light sources and cables, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for hysteroscope accessories that are not part of a specialized instrument or device delivery system; do not have adapters, connectors, channels, or do not have portals for electrosurgical, laser, or other power sources. Such hysteroscope accessory instruments include: lens cleaning brush, cannula (without trocar or valves), clamp/hemostat/grasper, curette, instrument guide, forceps, dissector, mechanical (noninflatable), and scissors. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1123, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1700   Hysteroscopic insufflator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hysteroscopic insufflator is a device designed to distend the uterus by filling the uterine cavity with a liquid or gas to facilitate viewing with a hysteroscope. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for tubing and tubing/filter fits which only include accessory instruments that are not used to effect intrauterine access, e.g., hysteroscopic introducer sheaths, etc.; and single-use tubing kits used for only intrauterine insufflation. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1710   Closed loop hysteroscopic insufflator with cutter-coagulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A closed loop hysteroscopic insufflator with cutter-coagulator is a prescription device configured for hysteroscopic insufflation, resection, and coagulation. It is used to perform diagnostic and surgical procedures (<I>i.e.,</I> resection and coagulation). This device type contains a closed-loop recirculating fluid management system for the controlled delivery of filtered distension fluid. This device type also contains a bipolar radiofrequency device used in conjunction with a hysteroscope for resection and coagulation of intrauterine tissues.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control(s) for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Software validation, verification, and hazard analysis must be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) Electrical equipment safety, including appropriate thermal and mechanical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Device components that are labeled sterile must be validated to a sterility assurance level of 10<E T="51">−6</E>.
</P>
<P>(5) Shelf-life testing that demonstrates the device packaging maintains sterility and the functionality of the device is maintained following simulated shipping and handling must be provided to support the proposed shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Non-clinical testing data must demonstrate the performance characteristics of the device. Detailed protocols and the test reports must be provided for each test.
</P>
<P>(i) The following tests must be performed for the resection portion of the device:
</P>
<P>(A) Mechanical testing to assess critical joint strength.
</P>
<P>(B) Device electrode temperature testing.
</P>
<P>(C) Coagulation depth testing.
</P>
<P>(D) Simulated use testing.
</P>
<P>(E) Device durability testing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following tests must be performed for the fluid management portion of the device:
</P>
<P>(A) Mechanical testing to assess tensile strength of connections.
</P>
<P>(B) Pressure testing that demonstrates the following parameters, including accuracy of the pressure displayed; appropriate detection and response to overpressure conditions; activation of a secondary overpressure relief valve at the maximum safe level; and all accessories within the fluid path meet the pressure requirements.
</P>
<P>(C) Fluid delivery volume testing that demonstrates that the maximum fluid volume delivered is below a predefined level.
</P>
<P>(D) Flow rate testing.
</P>
<P>(E) Simulated use testing.
</P>
<P>(F) Filtration testing.
</P>
<P>(G) Blood filtration capacity testing.
</P>
<P>(H) Tissue collection capacity testing.
</P>
<P>(I) Filtrate characterization and testing that demonstrates that the continuous reintroduction of filtrate into the uterus does not pose a safety risk.
</P>
<P>(7) Clinician labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions and the clinical training needed for the safe use of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate warnings, precautions, and information related to overpressurization.
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate EMC information.
</P>
<P>(iv) An expiration date/shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 35073, July 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1720   Gynecologic laparoscope and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gynecologic laparoscope is a device used to permit direct viewing of the organs within the peritoneum by a telescopic system introduced through the abdominal wall. It is used to perform diagnostic and surgical procedures on the female genital organs. This generic type of device may include: Trocar and cannula, instruments used through an operating channel, scope preheater, light source and cables, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for gynecologic laparoscope accessories that are not part of a specialized instrument or device delivery system, do not have adapters, connector channels, or do not have portals for electrosurgical, lasers, or other power sources. Such gynecologic laparosope accessory instruments include: the lens cleaning brush, biopsy brush, clip applier (without clips), applicator, cannula (without trocar or valves), ligature carrier/needle holder, clamp/hemostat/grasper, curette, instrument guide, ligature passing and knotting instrument, suture needle (without suture), retractor, mechanical (noninflatable), snare, stylet, forceps, dissector, mechanical (noninflatable), scissors, and suction/irrigation probe. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38808, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.1730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.1730   Laparoscopic insufflator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A laparoscopic insufflator is a device used to facilitate the use of the laparoscope by filling the peritoneal cavity with gas to distend it. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for tubing and tubing/filter kits which include accessory instruments that are not used to effect intra-abdominal insufflation (pneumoperitoneum). The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Obstetrical and Gynecological Monitoring Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2050   Obstetric data analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric data analyzer (fetal status data analyzer) is a device used during labor to analyze electronic signal data obtained from fetal and maternal monitors. The obstetric data analyzer provides clinical diagnosis of fetal status and recommendations for labor management and clinical interventions. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, electronic interfaces for other equipment, and power supplies and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification:</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before October 3, 2000, for any obstetric data analyzer described in paragraph (a) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has been found, on or before October 3, 2000, to be substantially equivalent to an obstetric data analyzer described in paragraph (a) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other obstetric data analyzer described in paragraph (a) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 41332, July 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2225   Obstetric-gynecologic ultrasonic imager.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric-gynecologic ultrasonic imager is a device designed to transmit and receive ultrasonic energy into and from a female patient by pulsed echoscopy. This device is used to provide a visual representation of some physiological or artificial structure, or of a fetus, for diagnostic purposes during a limited period of time. This generic type of device may include the following: signal analysis and display equipment, electronic interfaces for other equipment, patient and equipment supports, coupling gel, and component parts. This generic type of device does not include devices used to monitor the changes in some physiological condition over long periods of time. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2600   Fetal cardiac monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal cardiac monitor is a device used to ascertain fetal heart activity during pregnancy and labor. The device is designed to separate fetal heart signals from maternal heart signals by analyzing electrocardiographic signals (electrical potentials generated during contraction and relaxation of heart muscle) obtained from the maternal abdomen with external electrodes. This generic type of device may include an alarm that signals when the heart rate crosses a preset threshold. This generic type of device includes the “fetal cardiotachometer (with sensors)” and the “fetal electrocardiographic monitor.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2620   Fetal electroencephalographic monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal electroencephalographic monitor is a device used to detect, measure, and record in graphic form (by means of one or more electrodes placed transcervically on the fetal scalp during labor) the rhythmically varying electrical skin potentials produced by the fetal brain. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any fetal electroencephalographic monitor that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a fetal electroencephalographic monitor in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other fetal electroencephalographic monitor shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2640   Fetal phonocardiographic monitor and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal phonocardiographic monitor is a device designed to detect, measure, and record fetal heart sounds electronically, in graphic form, and noninvasively, to ascertain fetal condition during labor. This generic type of device includes the following accessories: signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, and other component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2660   Fetal ultrasonic monitor and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal ultrasonic monitor is a device designed to transmit and receive ultrasonic energy into and from the pregnant woman, usually by means of continuous wave (doppler) echoscopy. The device is used to represent some physiological condition or characteristic in a measured value over a period of time (e.g., perinatal monitoring during labor) or in an immediately perceptible form (e.g., use of the ultrasonic stethoscope). This generic type of device may include the following accessories: signal analysis and display equipment, electronic interfaces for other equipment, patient and equipment supports, and component parts. This generic type of device does not include devices used to image some relatively unchanging physiological structure or interpret a physiological condition, but does include devices which may be set to alarm automatically at a predetermined threshold value. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2675   Fetal scalp circular (spiral) electrode and applicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal scalp circular (spiral) electrode and applicator is a device used to obtain a fetal electrocardiogram during labor and delivery. It establishes electrical contact between fetal skin and an external monitoring device by a shallow subcutaneous puncture of fetal scalp tissue with a curved needle or needles. This generic type of device includes nonreusable spiral electrodes and reusable circular electrodes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2685" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2685   Fetal scalp clip electrode and applicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal scalp clip electrode and applicator is a device designed to establish electrical contact between fetal skin and an external monitoring device by means of pinching skin tissue with a nonreusable clip. This device is used to obtain a fetal electrocardiogram. This generic type of device may include a clip electrode applicator. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any fetal scalp clip electrode and applicator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a fetal scalp clip electrode and applicator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other fetal scalp clip electrode and applicator shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2700   Intrauterine pressure monitor and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intrauterine pressure monitor is a device designed to detect and measure intrauterine and amniotic fluid pressure with a catheter placed transcervically into the uterine cavity. The device is used to monitor intensity, duration, and frequency of uterine contractions during labor. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2720   External uterine contraction monitor and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external uterine contraction monitor (i.e., the tokodynamometer) is a device used to monitor the progress of labor. It measures the duration, frequency, and relative pressure of uterine contractions with a transducer strapped to the maternal abdomen. This generic type of device may include an external pressure transducer, support straps, and other patient and equipment supports. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2730   Home uterine activity monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A home uterine activity monitor (HUAM) is an electronic system for at home antepartum measurement of uterine contractions. The HUAM system comprises a tocotransducer and an at-home recorder. This device is intended for use in women with a previous preterm delivery to aid in the detection of preterm labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls); guidance document (Class II Special Controls Guidance for Home Uterine Activity Monitors).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 14076, Mar. 9, 2001, as amended at 86 FR 20283, Apr. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2740   Perinatal monitoring system and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A perinatal monitoring system is a device used to show graphically the relationship between maternal labor and the fetal heart rate by means of combining and coordinating uterine contraction and fetal heart monitors with appropriate displays of the well-being of the fetus during pregnancy, labor, and delivery. This generic type of device may include any of the devices subject to §§ 884.2600, 884.2640, 884.2660, 884.2675, 884.2700, and 884.2720. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: Central monitoring system and remote repeaters, signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, and component parts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2800   Computerized Labor Monitoring System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A computerized labor monitoring system is a system intended to continuously measure cervical dilation and fetal head descent and provide a display that indicates the progress of labor. The computerized labor monitoring system includes a monitor and ultrasound transducers. Ultrasound transducers are placed on the maternal abdomen and cervix and on the fetal scalp to provide the matrix of measurements used to produce the display.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls are the FDA guidance document entitled: “Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Computerized Labor Monitoring Systems.” See § 884.1(e) for availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 20227, Apr. 24, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2900   Fetal stethoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal stethoscope is a device used for listening to fetal heart sounds. It is designed to transmit the fetal heart sounds not only through sound channels by air conduction, but also through the user's head by tissue conduction into the user's ears. It does not use ultrasonic energy. This device is designed to eliminate noise interference commonly caused by handling conventional stethoscopes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2960   Obstetric ultrasonic transducer and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric ultrasonic transducer is a device used to apply ultrasonic energy to, and to receive ultrasonic energy from, the body in conjunction with an obstetric monitor or imager. The device converts electrical signals into ultrasonic energy, and vice versa, by means of an assembly distinct from an ultrasonic generator. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: coupling gel, preamplifiers, amplifiers, signal conditioners with their power supply, connecting cables, and component parts. This generic type of device does not include devices used to generate the ultrasonic frequency electrical signals for application. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2980   Telethermographic system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Telethermographic system intended for adjunctive diagnostic screening for detection of breast cancer or other uses</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A telethermographic system for adjunctive diagnostic screening for detection of breast cancer or other uses is an electrically powered device with a detector that is intended to measure, without touching the patient's skin, the self-emanating infrared radiation that reveals the temperature variations of the surface of the body. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Telethermographic system intended for use alone in diagnostic screening for detection of breast cancer or other uses</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A telethermographic system for use as the sole diagnostic screening tool for detection of breast cancer or other uses is an electrically powered device with a detector that is intended to measure, without touching the patient's skin, the self-emanating infrared radiation that reveals the temperature variations of the surface of the body. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before the device described in paragraph (b)(1) may be commercially distributed. See § 884.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1566, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 55 FR 48440, Nov. 20, 1990; 66 FR 46953, Sept. 10, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2982" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2982   Liquid crystal thermographic system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>A nonelectrically powered or an AC-powered liquid crystal thermographic system intended for adjunctive use in diagnostic screening for detection of breast cancer or other uses</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A nonelectrically powered or an AC-powered liquid crystal thermographic system intended for use as an adjunct to physical palpation or mammography in diagnostic screening for detection of breast cancer or other uses is a nonelectrically powered or an AC-powered device applied to the skin that displays the color patterns of heat sensitive cholesteric liquid crystals that respond to temperature variations of the surface of the body. This generic type of device may include patient and equipment supports, a means to ensure thermal contact between the patient's skin and the liquid crystals, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
<P>(b) A nonelectrically powered or an AC-powered liquid crystal thermographic system intended for use alone in diagnostic screening for detection of breast cancer or other uses—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification.</I> A nonelectrically powered or an AC-powered liquid crystal thermographic system intended for use as the sole diagnostic screening tool for detection of breast cancer or other uses is a nonelectrically powered or an AC-powered device applied to the skin that displays the color patterns of heat sensitive cholesteric liquid crystals that respond to temperature variations of the surface of the body. This generic type of device may include image display and recording equipment, patient and equipment supports, a means to ensure thermal contact between the patient's skin and the liquid crystals, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before the device described in paragraph (b)(1) may be commercially distributed. See § 884.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1566, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990; 66 FR 46953, Sept. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.2990" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.2990   Breast lesion documentation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A breast lesion documentation system is a device for use in producing a surface map of the breast as an aid to document palpable breast lesions identified during a clinical breast examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a breast examination recording sheet, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9. The special control is FDA's guidance entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Breast Lesion Documentation System.” See § 884.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 44415, Aug. 27, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Obstetrical and Gynecological Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.3200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.3200   Cervical drain.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cervical drain is a device designed to provide an exit channel for draining discharge from the cervix after pelvic surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.3575" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.3575   Vaginal pessary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vaginal pessary is a removable structure placed in the vagina to support the pelvic organs and is used to treat conditions such as uterine prolapse (falling down of uterus), uterine retroposition (backward displacement), or gynecologic hernia. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.3650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.3650   Fallopian tube prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fallopian tube prosthesis is a device designed to maintain the patency (openness) of the fallopian tube and is used after reconstructive surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.3900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.3900   Vaginal stent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vaginal stent is a device used to enlarge the vagina by stretching, or to support the vagina and to hold a skin graft after reconstructive surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Obstetrical and Gynecological Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4050   Gynecologic laparoscopic power morcellation containment system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gynecologic laparoscopic power morcellation containment system is a prescription device consisting of an instrument port and tissue containment method that creates a working space allowing for direct visualization during a power morcellation procedure following a laparoscopic procedure for the excision of benign gynecologic tissue that is not suspected to contain malignancy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(2) Device components that are labeled sterile must be validated to a sterility assurance level of 10<E T="51">−6</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility of the device or the sterile components, package integrity, and device functionality over the intended shelf life;
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device meets all design specifications and performance requirements. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstration of the device impermeability to tissue, cells, and fluids;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstration that the device allows for the insertion and withdrawal of laparoscopic instruments while maintaining pneumoperitoneum;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstration that the containment system provides adequate space to perform morcellation and adequate visualization of the laparoscopic instruments and tissue specimen relative to the external viscera;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstration that intended laparoscopic instruments and morcellators do not compromise the integrity of the containment system; and
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstration that intended users can adequately deploy the device, morcellate a specimen without compromising the integrity of the device, and remove the device without spillage of contents;
</P>
<P>(5) Training must be developed and validated to ensure users can follow the instructions for use; and
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A contraindication for use in gynecologic surgery in which the tissue to be morcellated is known or suspected to contain malignancy;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless clinical performance data demonstrates that it can be removed or modified, a contraindication for removal of uterine tissue containing suspected fibroids in patients who are: Peri- or postmenopausal, or candidates for en bloc tissue removal, for example, through the vagina or via a mini-laparotomy incision;
</P>
<P>(iii) The following boxed warning: “Warning: Information regarding the potential risks of a procedure with this device should be shared with patients. Uterine tissue may contain unsuspected cancer. The use of laparoscopic power morcellators during fibroid surgery may spread cancer. The use of this containment system has not been clinically demonstrated to reduce this risk.”
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement limiting use of device to physicians who have completed the training program; and
</P>
<P>(v) An expiration date or shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 40183, June 21, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4100   Endoscopic electrocautery and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An endoscopic electrocautery is a device used to perform female sterilization under endoscopic observation. It is designed to coagulate fallopian tube tissue with a probe heated by low-voltage energy. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: electrical generators, probes, and electrical cables. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance 2/12/90 (K-90),” and 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Guidance (‘Guidelines’) for Evaluation of Laproscopic Bipolar and Thermal Coagulators (and Accessories),” 
</P>
<P>(2) International Electrotechnical Commission's IEC 60601-1-AM2 (1995-03), Amendment 2, “Medical Electrical Equipment—Part 1: General Requirements for Safety,” 
</P>
<P>(3) American National Standards Institute/American Association for Medical Instrumentation's HF-18, 1993, “Electrosurgical Devices,” 
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling: 
</P>
<P>(i) Indication: For female tubal sterilization, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use: 
</P>
<P>(A) Destroy at least 2 centimeters of the fallopian tubes, 
</P>
<P>(B) Use a cut or undampened sinusoidal waveform, 
</P>
<P>(C) Use a minimum power of 25 watts, and 
</P>
<P>(D) For devices with ammeters: continue electrode activation for 5 seconds after the visual endpoint (tissue blanching) is reached or current flow ceases indicating adequate tissue destruction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17146, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4120   Gynecologic electrocautery and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gynecologic electrocautery is a device designed to destroy tissue with high temperatures by tissue contact with an electrically heated probe. It is used to excise cervical lesions, perform biopsies, or treat chronic cervicitis under direct visual observation. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: an electrical generator, a probe, and electrical cables. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4150   Bipolar endoscopic coagulator-cutter and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bipolar endoscopic coagulator-cutter is a device used to perform female sterilization and other operative procedures under endoscopic observation. It destroys tissue with high temperatures by directing a high frequency electrical current through tissue between two electrical contacts of a probe. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: an electrical generator, probes, and electrical cables. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance 2/12/90 (K-90),” and 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Guidance (‘Guidelines’) for Evaluation of Laproscopic Bipolar and Thermal Coagulators (and Accessories),” 
</P>
<P>(2) International Electrotechnical Commission's IEC 60601-1-AM2 (1995-03), Amendment 2, “Medical Electrical Equipment—Part 1: General Requirements for Safety,” 
</P>
<P>(3) American National Standards Institute/American Association for Medical Instrumentation's HF-18, 1993, “Electrosurgical Devices,” 
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling: 
</P>
<P>(i) Indication: For female tubal sterilization, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use: 
</P>
<P>(A) Destroy at least 2 centimeters of the fallopian tubes, 
</P>
<P>(B) Use a cut or undampened sinusoidal waveform, 
</P>
<P>(C) Use a minimum power of 25 watts, and 
</P>
<P>(D) For devices with ammeters: continue electrode activation for 5 seconds after the visual endpoint (tissue blanching) is reached or current flow ceases indicating adequate tissue destruction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 17146, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4160   Unipolar endoscopic coagulator-cutter and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A unipolar endoscopic coagulator-cutter is a device designed to destroy tissue with high temperatures by directing a high frequency electrical current through the tissue between an energized probe and a grounding plate. It is used in female sterilization and in other operative procedures under endoscopic observation. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: an electrical generator, probes and electrical cables, and a patient grounding plate. This generic type of device does not include devices used to perform female sterilization under hysteroscopic observation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4250   Expandable cervical dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An expandable cervical dilator is an instrument with two handles and two opposing blades used manually to dilate (stretch open) the cervical os. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any expandable cervical dilator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to an expandable cervical dilator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other expandable cervical dilator shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4260" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4260   Hygroscopic Laminaria cervical dilator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hygroscopic <I>Laminaria</I> cervical dilator is a device designed to dilate (stretch open) the cervical os by cervical insertion of a conical and expansible material made from the root of a seaweed (<I>Laminaria</I> digitata or <I>Laminaria</I> japonica). The device is used to induce abortion. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4270   Vibratory cervical dilators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vibratory cervical dilator is a device designed to dilate the cervical os by stretching it with a power-driven vibrating probe head. The device is used to gain access to the uterus or to induce abortion, but is not to be used during labor when a viable fetus is desired or anticipated. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any vibratory cervical dilator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a vibratory cervical dilator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other vibratory cervical dilator shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50708, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4340   Fetal vacuum extractor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal vacuum extractor is a device used to facilitate delivery. The device enables traction to be applied to the fetal head (in the birth canal) by means of a suction cup attached to the scalp and is powered by an external vacuum source. This generic type of device may include the cup, hosing, vacuum source, and vacuum control. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4350   Fetal head elevator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fetal head elevator is a prescription device consisting of a mechanism that elevates the fetal head to facilitate delivery during a Caesarean section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Reliability testing of device deployment and retrieval under relevant use conditions must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing of the maximum force applied to the fetal head in an anatomic model must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing of uniform application of the elevator mechanism on the fetal head must be conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Contraindication for use in the presence of active genital infection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific instructions regarding the proper placement and use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 60114, Dec. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4400   Obstetric forceps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric forceps is a device consisting of two blades, with handles, designed to grasp and apply traction to the fetal head in the birth passage and facilitate delivery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4500   Obstetric fetal destructive instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric fetal destructive instrument is a device designed to crush or pull the fetal body to facilitate the delivery of a dead or anomalous (abnormal) fetus. This generic type of device includes the cleidoclast, cranioclast, craniotribe, and destructive hook. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4520   Obstetric-gynecologic general manual instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric-gynecologic general manual instrument is one of a group of devices used to perform simple obstetric and gynecologic manipulative functions. This generic type of device consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An episiotomy scissors is a cutting instrument, with two opposed shearing blades, used for surgical incision of the vulvar orifice for obstetrical purposes. 
</P>
<P>(2) A fiberoptic metal vaginal speculum is a metal instrument, with fiberoptic light, used to expose and illuminate the interior of the vagina.
</P>
<P>(3) A metal vaginal speculum is a metal instrument used to expose the interior of the vagina.
</P>
<P>(4) An umbilical scissors is a cutting instrument, with two opposed shearing blades, used to cut the umbilical cord.
</P>
<P>(5) A uterine clamp is an instrument used to hold the uterus by compression.
</P>
<P>(6) A uterine packer is an instrument used to introduce dressing into the uterus or vagina.
</P>
<P>(7) A vaginal applicator is an instrument used to insert medication into the vagina.
</P>
<P>(8) A vaginal retractor is an instrument used to maintain vaginal exposure by separating the edges of the vagina and holding back the tissue.
</P>
<P>(9) A gynecological fibroid hook is an instrument used to exert traction upon a fibroid.
</P>
<P>(10) A pelvimeter (external) is an instrument used to measure the external diameters of the pelvis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25052, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4530   Obstetric-gynecologic specialized manual instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric-gynecologic specialized manual instrument is one of a group of devices used during obstetric-gynecologic procedures to perform manipulative diagnostic and surgical functions (e.g., dilating, grasping, measuring, and scraping), where structural integrity is the chief criterion of device performance. This type of device consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An amniotome is an instrument used to rupture the fetal membranes.
</P>
<P>(2) A circumcision clamp is an instrument used to compress the foreskin of the penis during circumcision of a male infant.
</P>
<P>(3) An umbilical clamp is an instrument used to compress the umbilical cord.
</P>
<P>(4) A uterine curette is an instrument used to scrape and remove material from the uterus.
</P>
<P>(5) A fixed-size cervical dilator is any of a series of bougies of various sizes used to dilate the cervical os by stretching the cervix.
</P>
<P>(6) A uterine elevator is an instrument inserted into the uterus used to lift and manipulate the uterus.
</P>
<P>(7) A gynecological surgical forceps is an instrument with two blades and handles used to pull, grasp, or compress during gynecological examination.
</P>
<P>(8) A cervical cone knife is a cutting instrument used to excise and remove tissue from the cervix.
</P>
<P>(9) A gynecological cerclage needle is a looplike instrument used to suture the cervix.
</P>
<P>(10) A hook-type contraceptive intrauterine device (IUD) remover is an instrument used to remove an IUD from the uterus.
</P>
<P>(11) A gynecological fibroid screw is an instrument used to hold onto a fibroid.
</P>
<P>(12) A uterine sound is an instrument used to determine the depth of the uterus by inserting it into the uterine cavity.
</P>
<P>(13) A cytological cervical spatula is a blunt instrument used to scrape and remove cytological material from the surface of the cervix or vagina.
</P>
<P>(14) A gynecological biopsy forceps is an instrument with two blades and handles used for gynecological biopsy procedures.
</P>
<P>(15) A uterine tenaculum is a hooklike instrument used to seize and hold the cervix or fundus.
</P>
<P>(16) An internal pelvimeter is an instrument used within the vagina to measure the diameter and capacity of the pelvis.
</P>
<P>(17) A nonmetal vaginal speculum is a nonmetal instrument used to expose the interior of the vagina.
</P>
<P>(18) A fiberoptic nonmetal vaginal speculum is a nonmetal instrument, with fiberoptic light, used to expose and illuminate the interior of the vagina. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an umbilical clamp with or without a cutter, a uterine tenaculum which is sterile and does not use suction and is intended for single use, a nonmetal vaginal speculum, or a fiberoptic nonmetal vaginal speculum, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the amniotome, uterine curette, cervical dilator (fixed-size bougies), cerclage needle, IUD remover, uterine sound, and gynecological biopsy forceps. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4550   Gynecologic surgical laser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gynecologic surgical laser is a continuous wave carbon dioxide laser designed to destroy tissue thermally or to remove tissue by radiant light energy. The device is used only in conjunction with a colposcope as part of a gynecological surgical system. A colposcope is a magnifying lens system used to examine the vagina and cervix. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4900   Obstetric table and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric table is a device with adjustable sections designed to support a patient in the various positions required during obstetric and gynecologic procedures. This generic type of device may include the following accessories: patient equipment, support attachments, and cabinets for warming instruments and disposing of wastes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.4910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.4910   Specialized surgical instrumentation for use with urogynecologic surgical mesh.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Specialized surgical instrumentation for use with urogynecologic surgical mesh is a prescription device specifically intended for use as an aid in the insertion, placement, fixation, or anchoring of surgical mesh during urogynecologic procedures. These procedures include transvaginal pelvic organ prolapse repair, sacrocolpopexy (transabdominal pelvic organ prolapse repair), and treatment of female stress urinary incontinence. Examples of specialized surgical instrumentation include needle passers and trocars, needle guides, fixation tools, and tissue anchors. This device is not a manual gastroenterology-urology surgical instrument and accessories (§ 876.4730) or a manual surgical instrument for general use (§ 878.4800).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for specialized surgical instrumentation for use with urogynecologic surgical mesh are:
</P>
<P>(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(2) The device must be demonstrated to be sterile and, if reusable, it must be demonstrated that the device can be adequately reprocessed;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating package integrity and device functionality over the requested shelf life;
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device meets all design specifications and performance requirements, and that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use; and
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information regarding the mesh design that may be used with the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed summary of the clinical evaluations pertinent to use of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Expiration date; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Where components are intended to be sterilized by the user prior to initial use and/or are reusable, validated methods and instructions for sterilization and/or reprocessing of any reusable components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1603, Jan. 6, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Obstetrical and Gynecological Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5050   Metreurynter-balloon abortion system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A metreurynter-balloon abortion system is a device used to induce abortion. The device is inserted into the uterine cavity, inflated, and slowly extracted. The extraction of the balloon from the uterus causes dilation of the cervical os. This generic type of device may include pressure sources and pressure controls. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any metreurynter-balloon abortion system that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a metreurynter-balloon abortion system that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other metreurynter-balloon abortion system shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5070   Vacuum abortion system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vacuum abortion system is a device designed to aspirate transcervically the products of conception or menstruation from the uterus by using a cannula connected to a suction source. This device is used for pregnancy termination or menstrual regulation. This type of device may include aspiration cannula, vacuum source, and vacuum controller. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5100   Obstetric anesthesia set.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An obstetric anesthesia set is an assembly of antiseptic solution, needles, needle guides, syringes, and other accessories, intended for use with an anesthetic drug. This device is used to administer regional blocks (e.g., paracervical, uterosacral, and pudendal) that may be used during labor, delivery, or both. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5150   Nonpowered breast pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered breast pump is a manual suction device used to express milk from the breast. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9, if the device is using either a bulb or telescoping mechanism which does not develop more than 250 mm Hg suction, and the device materials that contact breast or breast milk do not produce cytotoxicity, irritation, or sensitization effects.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5160   Powered breast pump.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered breast pump in an electrically powered suction device used to express milk from the breast. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5200   Hemorrhoid prevention pressure wedge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hemorrhoid prevention pressure wedge provides mechanical support to the perianal region during the labor and delivery process. External mechanical support of the perianal region is intended to help prevent the occurrence of external hemorrhoids associated with vaginal childbirth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, distribution, and use of this device are restricted to prescription use in accordance with § 801.109 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling must include specific instructions regarding the proper placement and use of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Mechanical bench testing of material strength must demonstrate that the device will withstand forces encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(5) Safety and effectiveness data must demonstrate that the device prevents hemorrhoids in women undergoing spontaneous vaginal delivery, in addition to general controls.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 21238, Apr. 15, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5210   Pressure wedge for the reduction of cesarean delivery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pressure wedge for the reduction of cesarean delivery is a prescription device that provides external mechanical support to the perianal region during the labor and vaginal delivery process. External mechanical support of the perianal region is intended to help reduce the occurrence of cesarean delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient contacting materials must be evaluated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonclinical performance data must demonstrate that the device will not break when subjected to the forces it will be exposed to during labor.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must validate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility and package integrity over the labeled shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Clinical performance data must be provided that characterizes the rate of skin/tissue trauma.
</P>
<P>(6) The labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific instructions regarding the proper placement and use of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 61448, Dec. 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5225   Abdominal decompression chamber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An abdominal decompression chamber is a hoodlike device used to reduce pressure on the pregnant patient's abdomen for the relief of abdominal pain during pregnancy or labor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any abdominal decompression chamber that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to an abdominal decompression chamber that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other abdominal decompression chamber shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5250   Cervical cap.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cervical cap is a flexible cuplike receptacle that fits over the cervix to collect menstrual flow or to aid artificial insemination. This generic type of device is not for contraceptive use. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5300   Condom.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A condom is a sheath which completely covers the penis with a closely fitting membrane. The condom is used for contraceptive and for prophylactic purposes (preventing transmission of sexually transmitted infections). The device may also be used to collect semen to aid in the diagnosis of infertility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for condoms made of materials other than natural rubber latex, including natural membrane (skin) or synthetic.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for natural rubber latex condoms. The guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Labeling for Natural Rubber Latex Condoms Classified Under 21 CFR 884.5300” will serve as the special control. See § 884.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66538, Nov. 10, 2008]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5305" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5305   External condom for anal intercourse or vaginal intercourse.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external condom for anal intercourse or vaginal intercourse is a barrier device which covers the penis and is used to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted infections (when used for anal intercourse or vaginal intercourse) and for contraception (when used for vaginal intercourse). This classification does not include condoms intended for vaginal intercourse only.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance data must demonstrate the total rate of clinical failure and rate of individual failure modes of the device based on an acute failure modes study.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The data must include an assessment of mechanical and material integrity, including an evaluation of device failure modes. For devices made of materials other than natural rubber latex, viral penetration testing must be conducted to evaluate barrier effectiveness to sexually transmitted infections.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating device functionality and package integrity over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) If indicated for vaginal intercourse, a contraceptive effectiveness table comparing typical use and perfect use pregnancy rates with the device to other available methods of birth control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Statement regarding compatibility with additional lubricant types;
</P>
<P>(iii) Statement regarding the adverse events associated with the device, including transmission of infection, pregnancy, adverse tissue reaction, mechanical injury, or improper device use;
</P>
<P>(iv) Expiration date; and
</P>
<P>(v) The following information, warnings and precautions:
</P>
<P>(A) The sexually transmitted infections (STIs) for which the device is most protective, the degree of protection the device provides against specific types of STIs, and the STIs the device does not protect against;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the device does not completely eliminate the risks of pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections and that risk can be decreased with correct and consistent use;
</P>
<P>(C) A warning regarding the risk of device failure during anal intercourse if adequate lubricant is not used;
</P>
<P>(D) A warning stating that the device cannot be used multiple times and is limited to one sex act; and
</P>
<P>(E) A precaution stating not to use the device if the user is at risk for material related allergic reactions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 25111, May 8, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5310   Condom with spermicidal lubricant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A condom with spermicidal lubricant is a sheath which completely covers the penis with a closely fitting membrane with a lubricant that contains a spermicidal agent, nonoxynol-9. This condom is used for contraceptive and prophylactic purposes (preventing transmission of venereal disease).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 49022, Oct. 29, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5320   Glans sheath.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A glans sheath device is a sheath which covers only the glans penis or part thereof and may also cover the area in the immediate proximity thereof, the corona and frenulum, but not the entire shaft of the penis. It is indicated only for the prevention of pregnancy and not for the prevention of sexually-transmitted diseases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before September 12, 2002, for any glans sheath that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before September 12, 2002, been found to be substantially equivalent to a glans sheath that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other glans sheath shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 67187, Dec. 29, 1994, as amended at 67 FR 40849, June 14, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5330   Multiple-use female condom.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A multiple-use female condom is a sheath-like device that lines the vaginal wall and is inserted into the vagina prior to the initiation of coitus. At the conclusion of coitus, the device can be reused. It is indicated for contraception and prophylactic (preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted infections) purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before November 21, 2011, for any female condom that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before November 21, 2011, been found to be substantially equivalent to any female condom that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other female condom shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 31455, May 18, 2000, as amended at 76 FR 50667, Aug. 16, 2011; 83 FR 48714, Sept. 27, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5340   Single-use internal condom.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A single-use internal condom is an over-the-counter sheath-like device that lines the vaginal or anal wall and is inserted into the vagina or anus prior to the initiation of coitus. At the conclusion of coitus, it is removed and discarded. It is indicated for contraception and/or prophylactic (preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted infections) purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Rate of clinical failure of the device and rate of individual failure modes of the device based on an acute failure modes study evaluating the intended use (vaginal and/or anal intercourse); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Cumulative pregnancy rate when using the device based on a contraceptive effectiveness study (when the device is indicated for vaginal intercourse).
</P>
<P>(2) Viral penetration testing must demonstrate the device is an effective barrier to sexually transmitted infections.
</P>
<P>(3) Nonclinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing must demonstrate the device can withstand forces under anticipated use conditions, include evaluation of tensile, tear, and burst properties of the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Compatibility testing with personal lubricants must determine whether the physical properties of the device are adversely affected by use of additional lubricants.
</P>
<P>(4) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Shelf-life testing must demonstrate that the device maintains its performance characteristics and the packaging of the device must maintain integrity for the duration of the shelf-life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling of the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Contraceptive effectiveness table comparing typical use and perfect use pregnancy rates with the device to other available methods of birth control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Statement regarding the adverse events associated with the device, including potential transmission of infection, adverse tissue reaction, and ulceration or other physical trauma;
</P>
<P>(iii) Expiration date; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Statement regarding compatibility with additional types of personal lubricants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 48714, Sept. 27, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5350   Contraceptive diaphragm and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A contraceptive diaphragm is a closely fitting membrane placed between the posterior aspect of the pubic bone and the posterior vaginal fornix. The device covers the cervix completely and is used with a spermicide to prevent pregnancy. This generic type of device may include an introducer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5360   Contraceptive intrauterine device (IUD) and introducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A contraceptive intrauterine device (IUD) is a device used to prevent pregnancy. The device is placed high in the uterine fundus with a string extending from the device through the cervical os into the vagina. This generic type of device includes the introducer, but does not include contraceptive IUD's that function by drug activity, which are subject to the new drug provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (see § 310.502). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before August 4, 1986, for any IUD and introducer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before August 4, 1986, been found to be substantially equivalent to an IUD and introducer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other IUD and introducer shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 16649, May 5, 1986; 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5370   Software application for contraception.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A software application for contraception is a device that provides user-specific fertility information for preventing a pregnancy. This device includes an algorithm that performs analysis of patient-specific data (<I>e.g.,</I> temperature, menstrual cycle dates) to distinguish between fertile and non-fertile days, then provides patient-specific recommendations related to contraception.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the contraceptive effectiveness of the software in the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(2) Human factors performance evaluation must be provided to demonstrate that the intended users can self-identify that they are in the intended use population and can correctly use the application, based solely on reading the directions for use for contraception.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Documentation must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A cybersecurity vulnerability and management process to assure software functionality; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the technical parameters of the software, including the algorithm used to determine fertility status and alerts for user inputs outside of expected ranges.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The following warnings and precautions:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that no contraceptive method is 100% effective.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that another form of contraception (or abstinence) must be used on days specified by the application.
</P>
<P>(C) Statements of any factors that may affect the accuracy of the contraceptive information.
</P>
<P>(D) A warning that the application cannot protect against sexually transmitted infections.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hardware platform and operating system requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions identifying and explaining how to use the software application, including required user inputs and how to interpret the application outputs.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the clinical validation study and results, including effectiveness of the application as a stand-alone contraceptive and how this effectiveness compares to other forms of legally marketed contraceptives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 7995, Mar. 6, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5380   Contraceptive tubal occlusion device (TOD) and introducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A contraceptive tubal occlusion device (TOD) and introducer is a device designed to close a fallopian tube with a mechanical structure, e.g., a band or clip on the outside of the fallopian tube or a plug or valve on the inside. The devices are used to prevent pregnancy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 30, 1987, for any TOD and introducer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has on or before December 30, 1987, been found to be substantially equivalent to a TOD and introducer that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other TOD and introducer shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 36883, Oct. 1, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5390   Perineal heater.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A perineal heater is a device designed to apply heat directly by contact, or indirectly from a radiant source, to the surface of the perineum (the area between the vulva and the anus) and is used to soothe or to help heal the perineum after an episiotomy (incision of the vulvar orifice for obstetrical purposes). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5400   Menstrual cup.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A menstrual cup is a receptacle placed in the vagina to collect menstrual flow. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5425   Scented or scented deodorized menstrual pad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scented or scented deodorized menstrual pad is a device that is a pad made of cellulosic or synthetic material which is used to absorb menstrual or other vaginal discharge. It has scent (i.e., fragrance materials) added for aesthetic purposes (scented menstrual pad) or for deodorizing purposes (scented deodorized menstrual pad). This generic type of device includes sterile scented menstrual pads used for medically indicated conditions, but does not include menstrual pads treated with added antimicrobial agents or other drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls) for menstrual pads made of common cellulosic and synthetic material with an established safety profile. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(1) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9. This exemption does not include the intralabial pads and reusable menstrual pads.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for scented or scented deodorized menstrual pads made of materials not described in paragraph (b)(1). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 51185, Aug. 1, 1980; 61 FR 67714, Dec. 24, 1996; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5435" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5435   Unscented menstrual pad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An unscented menstrual pad is a device that is a pad made of cellulosic or synthetic material which is used to absorb menstrual or other vaginal discharge. This generic type of device includes sterile unscented menstrual pads used for medically indicated conditions, but does not include menstrual pads treated with scent (i.e., fragrance materials) or those with added antimicrobial agents or other drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9 only when the device is made of common cellulosic and synthetic material with an established safety profile.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 67714, Dec. 24, 1996; 65 FR 2320, Jan. 14, 2000; 73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008; 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5460   Scented or scented deodorized menstrual tampon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scented or scented deodorized menstrual tampon is a device that is a plug made of cellulosic or synthetic material that is inserted into the vagina and used to absorb menstrual or other vaginal discharge. It has scent (i.e., fragrance materials) added for aesthetic purposes (scented menstrual tampon) or for deodorizing purposes (scented deodorized menstrual tampon). This generic type of device does not include menstrual tampons treated with added antimicrobial agents or other drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 51186, Aug. 1, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5470" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5470   Unscented menstrual tampon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An unscented menstrual tampon is a device that is a plug made of cellulosic or synthetic material that is inserted into the vagina and used to absorb menstrual or other vaginal discharge. This generic type of device does not include menstrual tampons treated with scent (i.e., fragrance materials) or those with added antimicrobial agents or other drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5900   Therapeutic vaginal douche apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A therapeutic vaginal douche apparatus is a device that is a bag or bottle with tubing and a nozzle. The apparatus does not include douche solutions. The apparatus is intended and labeled for use in the treatment of medical conditions except it is not for contraceptive use. After filling the therapeutic vaginal douche apparatus with a solution, the patient uses the device to direct a stream of solution into the vaginal cavity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<P>(2) Class I if the device is operated by gravity feed. Devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5920   Vaginal insufflator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vaginal insufflator is a device used to treat vaginitis by introducing medicated powder from a hand-held bulb into the vagina through an open speculum. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 54 FR 25052, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5940   Powered vaginal muscle stimulator for therapeutic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered vaginal muscle stimulator is an electrically powered device designed to stimulate directly the muscles of the vagina with pulsating electrical current. This device is intended and labeled for therapeutic use in increasing muscular tone and strength in the treatment of sexual dysfunction. This generic type of device does not include devices used to treat urinary incontinence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP for a device is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 12, 2000, for any powered vaginal muscle stimulator for therapeutic use that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 12, 2000, been found to be substantially equivalent to a powered vaginal muscle stimulator that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other powered vaginal muscle stimulator for therapeutic use shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987; 65 FR 19834, Apr. 13, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5960   Genital vibrator for therapeutic use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A genital vibrator for therapeutic use is an electrically operated device intended and labeled for therapeutic use in the treatment of sexual dysfunction or as an adjunct to Kegel's exercise (tightening of the muscles of the pelvic floor to increase muscle tone). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E, of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 83 FR 29215, June 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5970   Clitoral engorgement device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A clitoral engorgement device is designed to apply a vacuum to the clitoris. It is intended for use in the treatment of female sexual arousal disorder. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is a guidance document entitled: “Guidance for Industry and FDA Reviewers: Class II Special Controls Guidance Document for Clitoral Engorgement Devices.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 47306, Aug. 2, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.5980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.6.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.5980   Surgical mesh for transvaginal pelvic organ prolapse repair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Surgical mesh for transvaginal pelvic organ prolapse repair is a prescription device intended to reinforce soft tissue in the pelvic floor. This device is a porous implant that is made of synthetic material, non-synthetic material, or a combination of synthetic and non-synthetic materials. This device does not include surgical mesh for other intended uses (§ 878.3300 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket application approval or notice of completion of a product development protocol is required.</I> A premarket application approval or notice of completion of a product development protocol for a device is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 5, 2018, for any surgical mesh described in paragraph (a) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 5, 2018, been found substantially equivalent to a surgical mesh described in paragraph (a) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other surgical mesh for transvaginal pelvic organ prolapse repair shall have an approved premarket application or declared completed product development protocol in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 361, Jan. 5, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 369, Jan. 5, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Assisted Reproduction Devices</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 48436, Sept. 10, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 884.6100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6100   Assisted reproduction needles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction needles are devices used in in vitro fertilization (IVF), gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), or other assisted reproduction procedures to obtain gametes from the body or introduce gametes, zygote(s), preembryo(s) and/or embryo(s) into the body. This generic type of device may include a single or double lumen needle and component parts, including needle guides, such as those used with ultrasound.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (mouse embryo assay information, endotoxin testing, sterilization validation, design specifications, labeling requirements, biocompatibility testing, and clinical testing).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6110   Assisted reproduction catheters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction catheters are devices used in in vitro fertilization (IVF), gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), or other assisted reproduction procedures to introduce or remove gametes, zygote(s), preembryo(s), and/or embryo(s) into or from the body. This generic type of device may include catheters, cannulae, introducers, dilators, sheaths, stylets, and component parts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (mouse embryo assay information, endotoxin testing, sterilization validation, design specifications, labeling requirements, biocompatibility testing, and clinical testing).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6120   Assisted reproduction accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction accessories are a group of devices used during assisted reproduction procedures, in conjunction with assisted reproduction needles and/or assisted reproduction catheters, to aspirate, incubate, infuse, and/or maintain temperature. This generic type of device may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Powered aspiration pumps used to provide low flow, intermittent vacuum for the aspiration of eggs (ova).
</P>
<P>(2) Syringe pumps (powered or manual) used to activate a syringe to infuse or aspirate small volumes of fluid during assisted reproduction procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) Collection tube warmers, used to maintain the temperature of egg (oocyte) collection tubes at or near body temperature. A dish/plate/microscope stage warmer is a device used to maintain the temperature of the egg (oocyte) during manipulation.
</P>
<P>(4) Embryo incubators, used to store and preserve gametes and/or embryos at or near body temperature.
</P>
<P>(5) Cryopreservation instrumentation and devices, used to contain, freeze, and maintain gametes and/or embryos at an appropriate freezing temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (design specifications, labeling requirements, and clinical testing). The device, when it is a simple embryo incubator with only temperature, gas, and humidity control; a syringe pump; a collection tube warmer; a dish/plate/microscope stage warmer; a controlled-rate cryopreservation freezer; or an assisted reproduction laminar flow workstation is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019; 85 FR 44188, July 22, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6130   Assisted reproduction microtools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction microtools are pipettes or other devices used in the laboratory to denude, micromanipulate, hold, or transfer human gametes or embryos for assisted hatching, intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), or other assisted reproduction methods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (mouse embryo assay information, endotoxin testing, sterilization validation, design specifications, labeling requirements, and clinical testing). The device, when the assisted reproduction microtools (pipettes) are manufactured from glass, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6140   Assisted reproduction micropipette fabrication instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction micropipette fabrication devices are instruments intended to pull, bevel, or forge a micropipette or needle for intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), in vitro fertilization (IVF) or other similar assisted reproduction procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (design specifications, labeling requirements, and clinical testing).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6150   Assisted reproduction micromanipulators and microinjectors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction micromanipulators are devices intended to control the position of an assisted reproduction microtool. Assisted reproduction microinjectors are any device intended to control aspiration or expulsion of the contents of an assisted reproduction microtool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (design specifications, labeling requirements, and clinical testing). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6160   Assisted reproduction labware.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction labware consists of laboratory equipment or supplies intended to prepare, store, manipulate, or transfer human gametes or embryos for in vitro fertilization (IVF), gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), or other assisted reproduction procedures. These include syringes, IVF tissue culture dishes, IVF tissue culture plates, pipette tips, dishes, plates, and other vessels that come into physical contact with gametes, embryos or tissue culture media.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (mouse embryo assay information, endotoxin testing, sterilization validation, design specifications, labeling requirements, and clinical testing). The device, when it is a dish or plate intended for general assisted reproduction technology procedures, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 12684, Feb. 26, 1980, as amended at 84 FR 71816, Dec. 30, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6165" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6165   Intravaginal culture system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intravaginal culture system is a prescription device intended for preparing, holding, and transferring human gametes or embryos during intravaginal in vitro fertilization or intravaginal culture procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Comfort and retention of the intravaginal culture device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adverse vaginal tissue reactions associated with intravaginal culture;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maximum number of gametes and/or embryos that can be placed in a device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Rates of embryo development to the designated stage, implantation rates, clinical pregnancy rates, live birth rates, and any adverse events or outcomes.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonclinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) Mouse embryo assay testing to assess embryotoxicity by evaluating the gamete and embryo-contacting device components effect on the growth and development of mouse embryos to the blastocyst stage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Endotoxin testing on gamete and embryo-contacting components of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cleaning and disinfection validation of reusable device components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Sterility maintenance of the culture media within the device throughout the vaginal incubation period and subsequent embryo extraction; and
</P>
<P>(v) Ability of the device to permit oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between the media contained within the device and the external environment throughout the vaginal incubation period.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device components intended to be provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Shelf life testing must demonstrate that the device maintains its performance characteristics and the packaging of device components labeled as sterile maintain integrity and sterility for the duration of the shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling for the device must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the clinical testing, including device effectiveness, device-related complications, and adverse events;
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of reusable components;
</P>
<P>(iii) The maximum number of gametes or embryos that can be loaded into the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning that informs users that the embryo development is first evaluated following intravaginal culture; and
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that instructs the user to use legally marketed assisted reproductive technology media that contain elements to mitigate the contamination risk (<I>e.g.,</I> antibiotics) and to support continued embryonic development over the intravaginal culture period.
</P>
<P>(7) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Relevant warnings, precautions, and adverse effects and complications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how to use the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The risks and benefits associated with the use of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the principal clinical device effectiveness results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 379, Jan. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6170   Assisted reproduction water and water purification systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction water purification systems are devices specifically intended to generate high quality, sterile, pyrogen-free water for reconstitution of media used for aspiration, incubation, transfer or storage of gametes or embryos for in vitro fertilization (IVF) or other assisted reproduction procedures. These devices may also be intended as the final rinse for labware or other assisted reproduction devices that will contact the gametes or embryos. These devices also include bottled water ready for reconstitution available from a vendor that is specifically intended for reconstitution of media used for aspiration, incubation, transfer, or storage of gametes or embryos for IVF or other assisted reproduction procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (mouse embryo assay information, endotoxin testing, sterilization validation, water quality testing, design specifications, labeling requirements, biocompatibility testing, and clinical testing).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6180   Reproductive media and supplements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Reproductive media and supplement are products that are used for assisted reproduction procedures. Media include liquid and powder versions of various substances that come in direct physical contact with human gametes or embryos (including water, acid solutions used to treat gametes or embryos, rinsing solutions, sperm separation media, supplements, or oil used to cover the media) for the purposes of preparation, maintenance, transfer or storage. Supplements are specific reagents added to media to enhance specific properties of the media (e.g., proteins, sera, antibiotics, etc.).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls) (mouse embryo assay information, endotoxin testing, sterilization validation, design specifications, labeling requirements, biocompatibility testing, and clinical testing). The device, when it is phosphate-buffered saline used for washing, and short-term handling and manipulation of gametes and embryos; culture oil used as an overlay for culture media containing gametes and embryos; and water for assisted reproduction applications, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 48436, Sept. 10, 1998, as amended at 85 FR 44188, July 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6190" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6190   Assisted reproductive microscopes and microscope accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Assisted reproduction microscopes and microscope accessories (excluding microscope stage warmers, which are classified under assisted reproduction accessories) are optical instruments used to enlarge images of gametes or embryos. Variations of microscopes and accessories used for these purposes would include phase contrast microscopes, dissecting microscopes and inverted stage microscopes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 884.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 48436, Sept. 10, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 62977, Nov. 18, 1999; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6195" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6195   Assisted Reproduction Embryo Image Assessment System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An Assisted Reproduction Embryo Image Assessment System is a prescription device that is designed to obtain and analyze light microscopy images of developing embryos. This device provides information to aid in the selection of embryo(s) for transfer when there are multiple embryos deemed suitable for transfer or freezing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control(s) for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device to predict embryo development. Classification performance (sensitivity and specificity) and predictive accuracy (Positive Predictive Value and Negative Predictive Value) must be assessed at the subject and embryo levels.
</P>
<P>(2) Software validation, verification, and hazard analysis must be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing data must demonstrate the performance characteristics of the device. Testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Total light exposure and output testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) A safety analysis must be performed based on maximum (worst-case) light exposure to embryos, which also includes the safety of the light wavelength(s) emitted by the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulated-use testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Mouse Embryo Assay testing to assess whether device operation impacts growth and development of mouse embryos to the blastocyst stage;
</P>
<P>(v) Cleaning and disinfection validation of reusable components;
</P>
<P>(vi) Package integrity and transit testing;
</P>
<P>(vii) Hardware fail-safe validation;
</P>
<P>(viii) Electrical equipment safety and electromagnetic compatibility testing; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Prediction algorithm reproducibility.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of clinical performance testing, including any adverse events;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific instructions, warnings, precautions, and training needed for safe use of the device
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate electromagnetic compatibility information;
</P>
<P>(iv) Validated methods and instructions for cleaning and disinfection of reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information identifying compatible cultureware and explain how they are used with the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 10332, Feb. 26, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 884.6200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.29.7.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 884.6200   Assisted reproduction laser system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The assisted reproduction laser system is a device that images, targets, and controls the power and pulse duration of a laser beam used to ablate a small tangential hole in, or to thin, the zona pellucida of an embryo for assisted hatching or other assisted reproduction procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Assisted Reproduction Laser Systems.” See § 884.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 77624, Dec. 28, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="886" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 886—OPHTHALMIC DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 886 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of ophthalmic devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provision of a regulation in this part but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, an ophthalmic device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed in one subpart only. 
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act, FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(c) A device identified in a regulation in this part that is classified into class III and that is subject to the transitional provisions of section 520(1) of the act is automatically classified by statute into class III and must have an approval under section 515 of the act before being commercially distributed. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III transitional device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2320, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1040   Ocular esthesiometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ocular esthesiometer is a device, such as a single-hair brush, intended to touch the cornea to assess corneal sensitivity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35603, Sept. 14, 1988; 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1050   Adaptometer (biophotometer).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An adaptometer (biophotometer) is an AC-powered device that provides a stimulating light source which has various controlled intensities intended to measure the time required for retinal adaptation (regeneration of the visual purple) and the minimum light threshold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38809, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1070   Anomaloscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An anomaloscope is an AC-powered device intended to test for anomalies of color vision by displaying mixed spectral lines to be matched by the patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1090   Haidinger brush.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Haidinger brush is an AC-powered device that provides two conical brushlike images with apexes touching which are viewed by the patient through a Nicol prism and intended to evaluate visual function. It may include a component for measuring macular integrity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 72 FR 17400, Apr. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1100   Retinal diagnostic software device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A retinal diagnostic software device is a prescription software device that incorporates an adaptive algorithm to evaluate ophthalmic images for diagnostic screening to identify retinal diseases or conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Software verification and validation documentation, based on a comprehensive hazard analysis, must fulfill the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Software documentation must provide a full characterization of technical parameters of the software, including algorithm(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) Software documentation must describe the expected impact of applicable image acquisition hardware characteristics on performance and associated minimum specifications.
</P>
<P>(iii) Software documentation must include a cybersecurity vulnerability and management process to assure software functionality.
</P>
<P>(iv) Software documentation must include mitigation measures to manage failure of any subsystem components with respect to incorrect patient reports and operator failures.
</P>
<P>(2) Clinical performance data supporting the indications for use must be provided, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Clinical performance testing must evaluate sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value for each endpoint reported for the indicated disease or condition across the range of available device outcomes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical performance testing must evaluate performance under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Statistical methods must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Where multiple samples from the same patient are used, statistical analysis must not assume statistical independence without adequate justification.
</P>
<P>(B) Statistical analysis must provide confidence intervals for each performance metric.
</P>
<P>(iv) Clinical data must evaluate the variability in output performance due to both the user and the image acquisition device used.
</P>
<P>(3) A training program with instructions on how to acquire and process quality images must be provided.
</P>
<P>(4) Human factors validation testing that evaluates the effect of the training program on user performance must be provided.
</P>
<P>(5) A protocol must be developed that describes the level of change in device technical specifications that could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use, including a description of how to obtain quality images and how device performance is affected by user interaction and user training;
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of imaging data used, what the device outputs to the user, and whether the output is qualitative or quantitative;
</P>
<P>(iii) Warnings regarding image acquisition factors that affect image quality;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings regarding interpretation of the provided outcomes, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A warning that the device is not to be used to screen for the presence of diseases or conditions beyond its indicated uses;
</P>
<P>(B) A warning that the device provides a screening diagnosis only and that it is critical that the patient be advised to receive followup care; and
</P>
<P>(C) A warning that the device does not treat the screened disease;
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of the clinical performance of the device for each output, with confidence intervals; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device, including a description of the patient population and clinical environment under which it was evaluated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 3205, Jan. 21, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1120   Ophthalmic camera.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic camera is an AC-powered device intended to take photographs of the eye and the surrounding area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a photorefractor or a general-use ophthalmic camera, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1140" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1140   Ophthalmic chair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic chair is an AC-powered or manual device with adjustable positioning in which a patient is to sit or recline during ophthalmological examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The AC-powered device and the manual device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The manual device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1150   Visual acuity chart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A visual acuity chart is a device that is a chart, such as a Snellen chart with block letters or other symbols in graduated sizes, intended to test visual acuity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35603, Sept. 14, 1988; 53 FR 40825, Oct. 18, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1160   Color vision plate illuminator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A color vision plate illuminator is an AC-powered device that is a lamp intended to properly illuminate color vision testing plates. It may include a filter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1170   Color vision tester.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A color vision tester is a device that consists of various colored materials, such as colored yarns or color vision plates (multicolored plates which patients with color vision deficiency would perceive as being of one color), intended to evaluate color vision. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35603, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1190" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1190   Distometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A distometer is a device intended to measure the distance between the cornea and a corrective lens during refraction to help measure the change of the visual image when a lens is in place. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35603, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1200   Optokinetic drum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An optokinetic drum is a drum-like device covered with alternating white and dark stripes or pictures that can be rotated on its handle. The device is intended to elicit and evaluate nystagmus (involuntary rapid movement of the eyeball) in patients. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55989, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1220   Corneal electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A corneal electrode is an AC-powered device, usually part of a special contact lens, intended to be applied directly to the cornea to provide data showing the changes in electrical potential in the retina after electroretinography (stimulation by light). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1250   Euthyscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A euthyscope is a device that is a modified AC-powered or battery-powered ophthalmoscope (a perforated mirror device intended to inspect the interior of the eye) that projects a bright light encompassing an arc of about 30 degrees onto the fundus of the eye. The center of the light bundle is blocked by a black disk covering the fovea (the central depression of the macular retinae where only cones are present and blood vessels are lacking). The device is intended for use in the treatment of amblyopia (dimness of vision without apparent disease of the eye).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls) for the battery-powered device. The battery-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for the AC-powered device. The AC-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1270   Exophthalmometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An exophthalmometer is a device, such as a ruler, gauge, or caliper, intended to measure the degree of exophthalmos (abnormal protrusion of the eyeball). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1290   Fixation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fixation device is an AC-powered device intended for use as a fixation target for the patient during ophthalmological examination. The patient directs his or her gaze so that the visual image of the object falls on the fovea centralis (the center of the macular retina of the eye.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1300   Afterimage flasher.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An afterimage flasher is an AC-powered light that automatically switches on and off to allow performance of an afterimage test in which the patient indicates the positions of afterimages after the light is off. The device is intended to determine harmonious/anomalous retinal correspondence (the condition in which corresponding points on the retina have the same directional value).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1320   Fornixscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fornixscope is a device intended to pull back and hold open the eyelid to aid examination of the conjunctiva. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1330   Amsler grid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An Amsler grid is a device that is a series of charts with grids of different sizes that are held at 30 centimeters distance from the patient and intended to rapidly detect central and paracentral irregularities in the visual field. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1340   Haploscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A haploscope is an AC-powered device that consists of two movable viewing tubes, each containing a slide carrier, a low-intensity light source for the illumination of the slides, and a high-intensity light source for creating afterimages. The device is intended to measure strabismus (eye muscle imbalance), to assess binocular vision (use of both eyes to see), and to treat suppression and amblyopia (dimness of vision without any apparent disease of the eye).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1342" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1342   Strabismus detection device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A strabismus detection device is a prescription device designed to simultaneously illuminate both eyes with polarized light for automated detection of strabismus by analyzing foveal birefringence properties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must be conducted in a representative patient population and clinical setting for the indicated use. Demonstration of clinical performance must include assessment of sensitivity and specificity compared to a clearly defined reference standard (e.g., comprehensive ophthalmological examination comprises age-appropriate visual acuity testing, examination of the external ocular adnexae and orbit, anterior segment evaluation, extraocular motility evaluation, assessment of stereopsis, cycloplegic refraction, and dilated fundus examination).
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following technical characteristics must be evaluated:
</P>
<P>(i) Verification of lowest detectable amount of deviation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Validation of the accuracy and precision at the lowest detectable amount of deviation.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Optical radiation safety testing must demonstrate the device is safe per the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate the electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Summaries of non-clinical and clinical performance testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions on how to correctly use and maintain the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions and explanation of all user-interface components; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information related to electromagnetic compatibility and optical radiation classification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 65280, Sept. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1350   Keratoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A keratoscope is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended to measure and evaluate the corneal curvature of the eye. Lines and circles within the keratoscope are used to observe the corneal reflex. This generic type of device includes the photokeratoscope which records corneal curvature by taking photographs of the cornea.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9. The battery-powered device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48441, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63012, Dec. 7, 1994; 65 FR 2320, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1360   Visual field laser instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A visual field laser instrument is an AC-powered device intended to provide visible laser radiation that produces an interference pattern on the retina to evaluate retinal function. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1375   Bagolini lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Bagolini lens is a device that consists of a plane lens containing almost imperceptible striations that do not obscure visualization of objects. The device is placed in a trial frame and intended to determine harmonious/anomalous retinal correspondence (a condition in which corresponding points on the retina have the same directional values). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1380   Diagnostic condensing lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic condensing lens is a device used in binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy (a procedure that produces an inverted or reversed direct magnified image of the eye) intended to focus reflected light from the fundus of the eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38810, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1385" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1385   Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) diagnostic contact lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) diagnostic contact lens is a device that is a curved shell of PMMA intended to be applied for a short period of time directly on the globe or cornea of the eye for diagnosis or therapy of intraocular abnormalities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1390   Flexible diagnostic Fresnel lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A flexible diagnostic Fresnel lens is a device that is a very thin lens which has its surface a concentric series of increasingly refractive zones. The device is intended to be applied to the back of the spectacle lenses of patients with aphakia (absence of the lens of the eye). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1395" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1395   Diagnostic Hruby fundus lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic Hruby fundus lens is a device that is a 55 diopter lens intended for use in the examination of the vitreous body and the fundus of the eye under slitlamp illumination and magnification. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1400   Maddox lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Maddox lens is a device that is a series of red cylinders that change the size, shape, and color of an image. The device is intended to be handheld or placed in a trial frame to evaluate eye muscle dysfunction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1405" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1405   Ophthalmic trial lens set.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic trial lens set is a device that is a set of lenses of various dioptric powers intended to be handheld or inserted in a trial frame for vision testing to determine refraction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1410   Ophthalmic trial lens clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic trial lens clip is a device intended to hold prisms, spheres, cylinders, or occluders on a trial frame or spectacles for vision testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1415" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1415   Ophthalmic trial lens frame.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An opthalmic trial lens frame is a mechanical device intended to hold trial lenses for vision testing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1420   Ophthalmic lens gauge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic lens gauge is a calibrated device intended to manually measure the curvature of a spectacle lens. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35604, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1425" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1425   Lens measuring instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A lens measuring instrument is an AC-powered device intended to measure the power of lenses, prisms, and their centers (e.g., lensometer).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1430" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1430   Ophthalmic contact lens radius measuring device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic contact lens radius measuring device is an AC-powered device that is a microscope and dial gauge intended to measure the radius of a contact lens.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1435" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1435   Maxwell spot.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Maxwell spot is an AC-powered device that is a light source with a red and blue filter intended to test macular function.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1450   Corneal radius measuring device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A corneal radius measuring device is an AC-powered device intended to measure corneal size by superimposing the image of the cornea on a scale at the focal length of the lens of a small, hand held, single tube penscope or eye gauge magnifier.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9, only when the device does not include computer software in the unit or topographers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1460" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1460   Stereopsis measuring instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stereopsis measuring instrument is a device intended to measure depth perception by illumination of objects placed on different planes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1500   Headband mirror.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A headband mirror is a device intended to be strapped to the head of the user to reflect light for use in examination of the eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1510   Eye movement monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An eye movement monitor is an AC-powered device with an electrode intended to measure and record ocular movements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1570   Ophthalmoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmoscope is an AC-powered or battery-powered device containing illumination and viewing optics intended to examine the media (cornea, aqueous, lens, and vitreous) and the retina of the eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an AC-powered opthalmoscope, a battery-powered opthalmoscope, or a hand-held ophthalmoscope replacement battery, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1605" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1605   Perimeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A perimeter is an AC-powered or manual device intended to determine the extent of the peripheral visual field of a patient. The device projects light on various points of a curved surface, and the patient indicates whether he or she sees the light.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 66 FR 38811, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55990, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1630   AC-powered photostimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AC-powered photostimulator is an AC-powered device intended to provide light stimulus which allows measurement of retinal or visual function by perceptual or electrical methods (e.g., stroboscope). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1640   Ophthalmic preamplifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic preamplifier is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended to amplify electrical signals from the eye in electroretinography (recording retinal action currents from the surface of the eyeball after stimulation by light), electrooculography (testing for retinal dysfunction by comparing the standing potential in the front and the back of the eyeball), and electromyography (recording electrical currents generated in active muscle). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1650   Ophthalmic bar prism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic bar prism is a device that is a bar composed of fused prisms of gradually increasing strengths intended to measure latent and manifest strabismus (eye muscle deviation) or the power of fusion of a patient's eyes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1655" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1655   Ophthalmic Fresnel prism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic Fresnel prism is a device that is a thin plastic sheet with embossed rulings which provides the optical effect of a prism. The device is intended to be applied to spectacle lenses to give a prismatic effect. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1660   Gonioscopic prism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A gonioscopic prism is a device that is a prism intended to be placed on the eye to study the anterior chamber. The device may have angled mirrors to facilitate visualization of anatomical features. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1665" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1665   Ophthalmic rotary prism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic rotary prism is a device with various prismatic powers intended to be handheld and used to measure ocular deviation in patients with latent or manifest strabismus (eye muscle deviation). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1670   Ophthalmic isotope uptake probe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic isotope uptake probe is an AC-powered device intended to measure, by a probe which is placed in close proximity to the eye, the uptake of a radioisotope (phosphorus 32) by tumors to detect tumor masses on, around, or within the eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1680   Ophthalmic projector.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic projector is an AC-powered device intended to project an image on a screen for vision testing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1690   Pupillograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pupillograph is an AC-powered device intended to measure the pupil of the eye by reflected light and record the responses of the pupil.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1700   Pupillometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pupillometer is an AC-powered or manual device intended to measure by reflected light the width or diameter of the pupil of the eye.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The AC-powered device and the manual device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The manual device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1750   Skiascopic rack.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A skiascopic rack is a device that is a rack and a set of attached ophthalmic lenses of various dioptric strengths intended as an aid in refraction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1760   Ophthalmic refractometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic refractometer is an automatic AC-powered device that consists of a fixation system, a measurement and recording system, and an alignment system intended to measure the refractive power of the eye by measuring light reflexes from the retina. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1770   Manual refractor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual refractor is a device that is a set of lenses of varous dioptric powers intended to measure the refractive error of the eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1780   Retinoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A retinoscope is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended to measure the refraction of the eye by illuminating the retina and noting the direction of movement of the light on the retinal surface and of the refraction by the eye of the emergent rays.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for the AC-powered device. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class I (general controls) for the battery-powered device. The class I battery-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9. The battery-powered device is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990; 55 FR 51799, Dec. 17, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2320, Jan. 14, 2000; 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1790   Nearpoint ruler.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nearpoint ruler is a device calibrated in centimeters intended to measure the nearpoint of convergence (the point to which the visual lines are directed when convergence is at its maximum). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 53 FR 40825, Oct. 18, 1988; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1800   Schirmer strip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Schirmer strip is a device made of filter paper or similar material intended to be inserted under a patient's lower eyelid to stimulate and evaluate formation of tears. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). If the device is made of the same materials that were used in the device before May 28, 1976, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1810   Tangent screen (campimeter).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tangent screen (campimeter) is an AC-powered or battery-powered device that is a large square cloth chart with a central mark of fixation intended to map on a flat surface the central 30 degrees of a patient's visual field. This generic type of device includes projection tangent screens, target tangent screens and targets, felt tangent screens, and stereo campimeters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The AC-powered device and the battery-powered device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The battery-powered device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1840   Simulatan (including crossed cylinder).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A simulatan (including crossed cylinder) is a device that is a set of pairs of cylinder lenses that provides various equal plus and minus refractive strengths. The lenses are arranged so that the user can exchange the positions of plus and minus cylinder lenses of equal strengths. The device is intended for subjective refraction (refraction in which the patient judges whether a given object is clearly in focus, as the examiner uses different lenses). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35605, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1850   AC-powered slitlamp biomicroscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AC-powered slitlamp biomicroscope is an AC-powered device that is a microscope intended for use in eye examination that projects into a patient's eye through a control diaphragm a thin, intense beam of light. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is intended only for the visual examination of the anterior segment of the eye, is classified as Group 1 per FDA-recognized consensus standard ANSI Z80.36, does not provide any quantitative output, and is not intended for screening or automated diagnostic indications, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1860   Ophthalmic instrument stand.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic instrument stand is an AC-powered or nonpowered device intended to store ophthalmic instruments in a readily accessible position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The AC-powered device and the battery-powered device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The battery-powered device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38812, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1870   Stereoscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stereoscope is an AC-powered or battery-powered device that combines the images of two similar objects to produce a three-dimensional appearance of solidity and relief. It is intended to measure the angle of strabismus (eye muscle deviation), evaluate binocular vision (usage of both eyes to see), and guide a patient's corrective exercises of eye muscles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The AC-powered device and the battery-powered device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The battery-powered device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1880   Fusion and stereoscopic target.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fusion and stereoscopic target is a device intended for use as a viewing object with a stereoscope (§ 886.1870). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55991, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1905" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1905   Nystagmus tape.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nystagmus tape is a device that is a long, narrow strip of fabric or other flexible material on which a series of objects are printed. The device is intended to be moved across a patient's field of vision to elicit optokinetic nystagmus (abnormal and irregular eye movements) and to test for blindness. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1910   Spectacle dissociation test system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spectacle dissociation test system is an AC-powered or battery-powered device, such as a Lancaster test system, that consists of a light source and various filters, usually red or green filters, intended to subjectively measure imbalance of ocular muscles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The AC-powered device and the battery-powered device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The battery-powered device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48442, Nov. 20, 1990; 55 FR 51799, Dec. 17, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1925   Diurnal pattern recorder system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diurnal pattern recorder system is a nonimplantable, prescription device incorporating a telemetric sensor to detect changes in ocular dimension for monitoring diurnal patterns of intraocular pressure (IOP) fluctuations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device and all of its components perform as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) Ability of the device to detect diurnal changes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tolerability of the system at the corneoscleral interface in the intended use population.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonclinical testing must validate measurements in an appropriate nonclinical testing model to ensure ability to detect changes in intraocular pressure.
</P>
<P>(3) Patient-contacting components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Any component that is intended to contact the eye must be demonstrated to be sterile throughout its intended shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electromagnetic interference of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance testing must demonstrate electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Warning against activities and environments that may put the user at greater risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific instructions for the safe use of the device, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Description of all device components and instructions for assembling the device;
</P>
<P>(B) Explanations of all available programs and instructions for their use;
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions and explanation of all user-interface components;
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions on all safety features of the device; and
</P>
<P>(E) Instructions for properly maintaining the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of nonclinical testing information to describe EMC safety considerations.
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of safety information obtained from clinical testing.
</P>
<P>(v) Patient labeling to convey information regarding appropriate use of device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 34270, May 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1930   Tonometer and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tonometer and accessories is a manual device intended to measure intraocular pressure by applying a known force on the globe of the eye and measuring the amount of indentation produced (Schiotz type) or to measure intraocular tension by applanation (applying a small flat disk to the cornea). Accessories for the device may include a tonometer calibrator or a tonograph recording system. The device is intended for use in the diagnosis of glaucoma. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1940   Tonometer sterilizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tonometer sterilizer is an AC-powered device intended to heat sterilize a tonometer (a device used to measure intraocular pressure).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2321, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.1945" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.2.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.1945   Transilluminator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transilluminator is an AC-powered or battery-powered device that is a light source intended to transmit light through tissues to aid examination of patients. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls) for the battery-powered device. The battery-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for the AC-powered device. The AC-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3100   Ophthalmic tantalum clip.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic tantalum clip is a malleable metallic device intended to be implanted permanently or temporarily to bring together the edges of a wound to aid healing or prevent bleeding from small blood vessels in the eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 59230, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3130   Ophthalmic conformer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic conformer is a device usually made of molded plastic intended to be inserted temporarily between the eyeball and eyelid to maintain space in the orbital cavity and prevent closure or adhesions during the healing process following surgery. ]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 59230, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3200   Artificial eye.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An artificial eye is a device resembling the anterior portion of the eye, usually made of glass or plastic, intended to be inserted in a patient's eye socket anterior to an orbital implant, or the eviscerated eyeball, for cosmetic purposes. The device is not intended to be implanted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9, if the device is made from the same materials, has the same chemical composition, and uses the same manufacturing processes as currently legally marketed devices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3300   Absorbable implant (scleral buckling method).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable implant (scleral buckling method) is a device intended to be implanted on the sclera to aid retinal reattachment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3320   Eye sphere implant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An eye sphere implant is a device intended to be implanted in the eyeball to occupy space following the removal of the contents of the eyeball with the sclera left intact. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an ocular peg which is supplied sterile only, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3340   Extraocular orbital implant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An extraocular orbital implant is a nonabsorbable device intended to be implanted during scleral surgery for buckling or building up the floor of the eye, usually in conjunction with retinal reattachment. Injectable substances are excluded. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3400   Keratoprosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A keratoprosthesis is a device intended to provide a transparent optical pathway through an opacified cornea, either intraoperatively or permanently, in an eye that is not a reasonable candidate for a corneal transplant. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(2) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” and 
</P>
<P>(3) “Guidance on 510(k) Submissions for Keratoprostheses.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 17147, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3600   Intraocular lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraocular lens is a device made of materials such as glass or plastic intended to be implanted to replace the natural lens of an eye. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 886.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3800   Scleral shell.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scleral shell is a device made of glass or plastic that is intended to be inserted for short time periods over the cornea and proximal-cornea sclera for cosmetic or reconstructive purposes. An artificial eye is usually painted on the device. The device is not intended to be implanted. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 59230, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.3920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.3920   Aqueous shunt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An aqueous shunt is an implantable device intended to reduce intraocular pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye in patients with neovascular glaucoma or with glaucoma when medical and conventional surgical treatments have failed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(2) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” and 
</P>
<P>(3) “Aqueous Shunts—510(k) Submissions.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 17147, Mar. 31, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 18542, Apr. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4070   Powered corneal burr.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered corneal burr is an AC-powered or battery-powered device that is a motor and drilling tool intended to remove rust rings from the cornea of the eye.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990; 55 FR 51799, Dec. 17, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2321, Jan. 14, 2000; 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4100   Radiofrequency electrosurgical cautery apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiofrequency electrosurgical cautery apparatus is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended for use during ocular surgery to coagulate tissue or arrest bleeding by a high frequency electric current. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4115" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4115   Thermal cautery unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A thermal cautery unit is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended for use during ocular surgery to coagulate tissue or arrest bleeding by heat conducted through a wire tip. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4150   Vitreous aspiration and cutting instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A vitreous aspiration and cutting instrument is an electrically powered device, which may use ultrasound, intended to remove vitreous matter from the vitreous cavity or remove a crystalline lens. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is phacofragmentation unit replacement tubing, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4155" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4155   Scleral plug.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scleral plug is a prescription device intended to provide temporary closure of a scleral incision during an ophthalmic surgical procedure. These plugs prevent intraocular fluid and pressure loss when instruments are withdrawn from the eye. Scleral plugs include a head portion remaining above the sclera, which can be gripped for insertion and removal, and a shaft that fits inside the scleral incision. Scleral plugs are removed before completing the surgery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for the scleral plug are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9 if the material is a surgical grade stainless steel with or without a gold, silver, or titanium coating. The special controls for the surgical grade stainless steel scleral plug (with or without a gold, silver, or titanium coating) are:
</P>
<P>(i) The device must be demonstrated to be sterile during the labeled shelf life;
</P>
<P>(ii) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Labeling must include all information required for the safe and effective use of the device, including specific instructions regarding the proper sizing, placement, and removal of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) The device is not exempt from premarket notification procedures if it is composed of a material other than surgical grade stainless steel (with or without a gold, silver, or titanium coating). The special controls for scleral plugs made of other materials are:
</P>
<P>(i) The device must be demonstrated to be sterile during the labeled shelf life;
</P>
<P>(ii) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of the device materials must be performed;
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance data must demonstrate acceptable mechanical properties under simulated clinical use conditions including insertion and removal of the device;
</P>
<P>(v) Performance data must demonstrate adequately low levels of the extractables or residues from manufacturing (or processing) of the device; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Labeling must include all information required for the safe and effective use of the device, including specific instructions regarding the proper sizing, placement, and removal of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 68715, Nov. 15, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4170   Cryophthalmic unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cryophthalmic unit is a device that is a probe with a small tip that becomes extremely cold through the controlled use of a refrigerant or gas. The device may be AC-powered. The device is intended to remove cataracts by the formation of an adherent ice ball in the lens, to freeze the eye and adjunct parts for surgical removal of scars, and to freeze tumors. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4230   Ophthalmic knife test drum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic knife test drum is a device intended to test the keenness of ophthalmic surgical knives to determine whether resharpening is needed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4250   Ophthalmic electrolysis unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic electrolysis unit is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended to destroy ocular hair follicles by applying a galvanic electrical current.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls) for the battery-powered device. The battery-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for the AC-powered device. The AC-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4270" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4270   Intraocular gas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraocular gas is a device consisting of a gaseous fluid intended to be introduced into the eye to place pressure on a detached retina. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 886.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4275   Intraocular fluid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraocular fluid is a device consisting of a nongaseous fluid intended to be introduced into the eye to aid performance of surgery, such as to maintain anterior chamber depth, preserve tissue integrity, protect tissue from surgical trauma, or function as a tamponade during retinal reattachment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 886.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4280" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4280   Intraocular pressure measuring device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraocular pressure measuring device is a manual or AC-powered device intended to measure intraocular pressure. Also included are any devices found by FDA to be substantially equivalent to such devices. Accessories for the device may include calibrators or recorders. The device is intended for use in the diagnosis of glaucoma. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 886.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4300   Intraocular lens guide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intraocular lens guide is a device intended to be inserted into the eye during surgery to direct the insertion of an intraocular lens and be removed after insertion is completed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except when used as folders or injectors for soft or foldable intraocular lenses, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2321, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4320   Corneal storage medium with preservatives including antifungals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Corneal storage medium with preservatives including antifungals is a device that is used to temporarily preserve human cornea tissue between harvesting and implantation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(i) The following performance characteristics of the cornea following storage in the device must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(A) Endothelial cell density;
</P>
<P>(B) Endothelial cell morphology;
</P>
<P>(C) Corneal transparency; and
</P>
<P>(D) Central corneal thickness.
</P>
<P>(ii) Antimicrobial activity of the device must be demonstrated at the initial and maximum labeled storage time.
</P>
<P>(iii) Characterization of all preservatives, including antifungals, must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Characterization of impurities, heavy metal analysis, concentration, and dissolution; and
</P>
<P>(B) Chemical activity of all preservatives over the labeled use life of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible and non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the claimed shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility, controlled bioburden, package integrity, and device functionality over the intended shelf life.
</P>
<P>(5) The device and each of its components (<I>e.g.,</I> antifungal, antibiotic, medium) must be demonstrated to be compatible with their respective commercial container closure system/packaging.
</P>
<P>(6) An analysis must be provided that identifies and evaluates any contribution to the development and spread of antimicrobial resistance.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following instructions:
</P>
<P>(i) Rinsing of cornea prior to transplantation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Complete dissolution of all preservatives.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 24347, May 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4335" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4335   Operating headlamp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An operating headlamp is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended to be worn on the user's head to provide a light source to aid visualization during surgical, diagnostic, or therapeutic procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls) for the battery-powered device. The battery-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for the AC-powered device. The AC-powered device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4350   Manual ophthalmic surgical instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual ophthalmic surgical instrument is a nonpowered, handheld device intended to aid or perform ophthalmic surgical procedures. This generic type of device includes the manual corneal burr, ophthalmic caliper, ophthalmic cannula, eyelid clamp, ophthalmic muscle clamp, iris retractor clip, orbital compressor, ophthalmic curette, cystotome, orbital depressor, lachrymal dilator, erisophake, expressor, ophthalmic forcep, ophthalmic hook, sphere introducer, ophthalmic knife, ophthalmic suturing needle, lachrymal probe, trabeculotomy probe, cornea-sclera punch, ophthalmic retractor, ophthalmic ring (Flieringa), lachrymal sac rongeur, ophthalmic scissors, enucleating snare, ophthalmic spatula, ophthalmic specula, ophthalmic spoon, ophthalmic spud, trabeculotome or ophthalmic manual trephine. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 60 FR 15872, Mar. 28, 1995; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4355" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4355   Corneal inlay inserter handle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The corneal inlay inserter handle is a hand-held device intended to be used as an accessory to a corneal inlay inserter. The device extends the length of the inlay inserter to aid in delivering the inlay implant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14870, Apr. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4360   Ocular surgery irrigation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ocular surgery irrigation device is a device intended to be suspended over the ocular area during ophthalmic surgery to deliver continuous, controlled irrigation to the surgical field. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4370   Keratome.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A keratome is an AC-powered or battery-powered device intended to shave tissue from sections of the cornea for a lamellar (partial thickness) transplant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4390   Ophthalmic laser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic laser is an AC-powered device intended to coagulate or cut tissue of the eye, orbit, or surrounding skin by a laser beam. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4392" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4392   Nd:YAG laser for posterior capsulotomy and peripheral iridotomy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The Nd:YAG laser for posterior capsulotomy and peripheral iridotomy consists of a mode-locked or Q-switched solid state Nd:YAG laser intended for disruption of the posterior capsule or the iris via optical breakdown. The Nd:YAG laser generates short pulse, low energy, high power, coherent optical radiation. When the laser output is combined with focusing optics, the high irradiance at the target causes tissue disruption via optical breakdown. A visible aiming system is utilized to target the invisible Nd:YAG laser radiation on or in close proximity to the target tissue. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). Design Parameters: Device must emit a laser beam with the following parameters: wavelength = 1064 nanometers; spot size = 50 to 100 micros; pulse width = 3 to 30 nanoseconds; output energy per pulse = 0.5 to 15 millijoules (mJ); repetition rate = 1 to 10 pulses; and total energy = 20 to 120 mJ. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 6894, Feb. 11, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4400   Electronic metal locator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electronic metal locator is an AC-powered device with probes intended to locate metallic foreign bodies in the eye or eye socket. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4440" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4440   AC-powered magnet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AC-powered magnet is an AC-powered device that generates a magnetic field intended to find and remove metallic foreign bodies from eye tissue. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4445" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4445   Permanent magnet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A permanent magnet is a nonelectric device that generates a magnetic field intended to find and remove metallic foreign bodies from eye tissue. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4570   Ophthalmic surgical marker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic surgical marker is a device intended to mark by use of ink, dye, or indentation the location of ocular or scleral surgical manipulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 59 FR 63013, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4610   Ocular pressure applicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ocular pressure applicator is a manual device that consists of a sphygmomanometer-type squeeze bulb, a dial indicator, a band, and bellows, intended to apply pressure on the eye in preparation for ophthalmic surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4670   Phacofragmentation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A phacofragmentation system is an AC-powered device with a fragmenting needle intended for use in cataract surgery to disrupt a cataract with ultrasound and extract the cataract. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4690   Ophthalmic photocoagulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic photocoagulator is an AC-powered device intended to use the energy from an extended noncoherent light source to occlude blood vessels of the retina, choroid, or iris. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4750   Ophthalmic eye shield.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic eye shield is a device that consists of a plastic or aluminum eye covering intended to protect the eye or retain dressing materials in place. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). When made only of plastic or aluminum, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9. When made only of plastic or aluminum, the devices are exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 65 FR 2321, Jan. 14, 2000; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4770   Ophthalmic operating spectacles (loupes).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Ophthalmic operating spectacles (loupes) are devices that consist of convex lenses or lens systems intended to be worn by a surgeon to magnify the surgical site during ophthalmic surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35606, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38813, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4790   Ophthalmic sponge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic sponge is a device that is an absorbant sponge, pad, or spear made of folded gauze, cotton, cellulose, or other material intended to absorb fluids from the operative field in ophthalmic surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71817, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.4855" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.5.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.4855   Ophthalmic instrument table.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic instrument table is an AC-powered or manual device on which ophthalmic instruments are intended to be placed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The AC-powered device and the manual device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The manual device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5100   Ophthalmic beta radiation source.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic beta radiation source is a device intended to apply superficial radiation to benign and malignant ocular growths. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5120   Low-power binocular loupe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A low-power binocular loupe is a device that consists of two eyepieces, each with a lens or lens system, intended for medical purposes to magnify the appearance of objects. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5200   Eyelid thermal pulsation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An eyelid thermal pulsation system is an electrically-powered device intended for use in the application of localized heat and pressure therapy to the eyelids. The device is used in adult patients with chronic cystic conditions of the eyelids, including meibomian gland dysfunction (MGD), also known as evaporative dry eye or lipid deficiency dry eye. The system consists of a component that is inserted around the eyelids and a component to control the application of heat and pressure to the eyelids.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis/testing should validate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) and safety of exposure to non-ionizing radiation;
</P>
<P>(2) Design, description, and performance data should validate safeguards related to the temperature and pressure aspects of the device, including during fault conditions;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data should demonstrate the sterility of patient-contacting components and the shelf-life of these components;
</P>
<P>(4) The device should be demonstrated to be biocompatible; and
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data should demonstrate that any technological changes do not adversely effect safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 51878, Aug. 19, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5201" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5201   Intense pulsed light device for managing dry eye.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intense pulsed light device for managing dry eye is a prescription device intended for use in the application of intense pulsed light therapy to the skin. The device is used in patients with dry eye disease due to meibomian gland dysfunction, also known as evaporative dry eye or lipid deficiency dry eye.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate adverse events and improvement of dry eye signs and symptoms under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Thermal safety assessment in a worst-case scenario must be performed to validate temperature safeguards.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Physician and patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Device technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the intended treatment area location;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings and instructions regarding the use of safety-protective eyewear for patient and device operator;
</P>
<P>(v) A description of intense pulse light (IPL) radiation hazards and protection for patient and operator;
</P>
<P>(vi) Instructions for use, including an explanation of all user interface components; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Instructions on how to clean and maintain the device and its components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 3638, Jan. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5300   Tear electrostimulation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tear electrostimulation device is a non-implantable, electrostimulation device intended to increase tear production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must assess the following electrical output specifications: waveforms, output modes, maximum output voltage, maximum output current, pulse duration, frequency, net charge per pulse, maximum phase charge at 500 ohms, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density.
</P>
<P>(2) Patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate the electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety along with electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Physician and patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Summaries of electrical stimulation parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions on how to correctly use and maintain the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions and explanations of all user-interface components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information related to electromagnetic compatibility classification; and
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions on how to clean the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 60116, Dec. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5305" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5305   Electromechanical tear stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electromechanical tear stimulator is a non-implantable device intended to increase tear production via mechanical stimulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing under anticipated conditions of use must evaluate tear production and all adverse events, including tissue damage, pain, headache, and discomfort.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following must be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of mechanical output specifications, including vibration amplitude and frequency, pressure and force, and acoustic (noise level) properties;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical safety testing to validate safeguards related to the pressure aspects of the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use life testing.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the electrical safety, thermal safety, and electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of all electrical components of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) All patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Physician and patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the device's technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use, including an explanation of all user-interface components and information regarding proper device placement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information related to electromagnetic compatibility classification;
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions on how to clean and maintain the device;
</P>
<P>(v) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device;
</P>
<P>(vi) Language to direct end users to contact the device manufacturer and MedWatch if they experience any adverse events with this device; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Information on how the device operates and the typical sensations experienced during treatment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 9243, Feb. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5310   Intranasal electrostimulation device for dry eye symptoms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intranasal electrostimulation device for dry eye symptoms is a prescription non-implantable, electrostimulation device intended to increase tear production for improvement in dry eye symptoms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate improvement of dry eye symptoms under anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must assess the following electrical output specifications: waveforms, output modes, maximum output voltage, maximum output current, pulse duration, frequency, net charge per pulse, maximum phase charge at 500 ohms, maximum current density, maximum average current, and maximum average power density.
</P>
<P>(3) Patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must demonstrate the electrical, thermal, and mechanical safety along with electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) of the device in the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Training for the proper use of the device must be provided.
</P>
<P>(7) Physician and patient labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Summaries of electrical stimulation parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions on how to correctly use and maintain the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions and explanations of all user-interface components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information related to electromagnetic compatibility classification;
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions on how to clean the device; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Summaries of clinical performance testing demonstrating safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52975, Oct. 19, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5350   Ultrasound cyclodestructive device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasound cyclodestructive device is a prescription device that reduces intraocular pressure by producing a series of lesions in the ciliary body and/or trabecular meshwork induced by high intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU) energy and that is intended for treatment of glaucoma patients who:
</P>
<P>(1) Are refractory to, or are poor candidates for, Argon laser trabeculoplasty or traditional filtering surgery; and
</P>
<P>(2) Had failures on maximally tolerated drug therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The clinical performance data must demonstrate an appropriate reduction in intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients who:
</P>
<P>(i) Are refractory to, or are poor candidates for, Argon laser trabeculoplasty or traditional filtering surgery; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Had failures on maximally tolerated drug therapy, and an evaluation of all adverse events observed during clinical use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing of device features and characteristics must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Ultrasound field characteristics, which must include the total acoustic power radiated by the transducer(s), the spatial distribution of the ultrasound field (including compressional and rarefactional pressure), and spatial-peak, temporal-average intensity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Thermal and physical safety characteristics of the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Simulated use testing to validate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including eye movements and positioning error.
</P>
<P>(4) Analysis or testing must demonstrate electrical safety in the appropriate use environment.
</P>
<P>(5) Analysis or testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), including wireless coexistence (if applicable) in the appropriate use-environment.
</P>
<P>(6) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed commensurate with the level of concern of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) The patient-contacting components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance data must demonstrate sterility of all patient-contacting components labeled as sterile. If the device contains reusable eye-contact components, the validation tests must demonstrate adequate cleaning and reprocessing of these components.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the patient population for which the device is indicated for use, as well as warnings, and precautions regarding potential for device malfunction and use-error pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical testing, including study outcomes and adverse events.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of all main components of the device including HIFU generator, transducer(s), and controls. The labeling must include the technical specifications of the device including, but not limited to, treatment frequency, total acoustic power delivered by transducer, treatment duration, treatment zone, site targeting, power requirements, weight, and physical dimensions of the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Where appropriate, validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components.
</P>
<P>(vi) Safe-use conditions for electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43746, May 20, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5420   Contact lens inserter/remover.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A contact lens inserter/remover is a handheld device intended to insert or remove contact lenses by surface adhesion or suction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5500   Digital therapy device for amblyopia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A digital therapy device for amblyopia is a device that incorporates dichoptic presentations on visual displays through therapeutic algorithms to treat amblyopia or to improve visual acuity of patients with amblyopia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use with labeled compatible visual display devices, including evaluation of all adverse events and device performance to improve measures of visual function.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed. Documentation must include characterizations of the technical specifications of the software.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. All visual displays intended for use must undergo compatibility testing to ensure adequate display resolution, luminance, contrast, field of view, image quality, appropriate optical image distance, and verify their compatibility with the software and intended user (such as appropriate interpupillary distance).
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The minimum hardware and operating system requirements that support the software of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The models of the visual displays validated to be compatible with this device;
</P>
<P>(iii) The length of treatment and/or retreatment supported by clinical performance testing; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling comprehension testing with intended users must be performed.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 21385, Apr. 22, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5540   Low-vision magnifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A low-vision magnifier is a device that consists of a magnifying lens intended for use by a patient who has impaired vision. The device may be held in the hand or attached to spectacles. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5600   Ptosis crutch.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A ptosis crutch is a device intended to be mounted on the spectacles of a patient who has ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid as a result of faulty development or paralysis) to hold the upper eyelid open.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5700   Eyelid weight.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An eyelid weight is a prescription device made of gold, tantalum, platinum, iridium, or surgical grade stainless steel that is rectangular in shape and contoured to the shape of the eye. The device is intended for the gravity assisted treatment of lagophthalmos (incomplete eyelid closure).
</P>
<P>(1) The external eyelid weight is adhered to the outer skin of the upper eyelid.
</P>
<P>(2) The implantable eyelid weight is implanted into the upper eyelid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for the external eyelid weight. The external eyelid weight is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The special controls for the external eyelid weight are:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing demonstrating the biocompatibility of the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Specific instructions regarding the proper placement, sizing, and removal of the device; and
</P>
<P>(B) A warning stating that the patient should be instructed to remove the device prior to entering a magnetic resonance environment.
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for the implantable eyelid weight. The special controls for the implantable eyelid weight are:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing demonstrating the biocompatibility of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing demonstrating the sterility and shelf life of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Nonclinical testing evaluating the compatibility of the device in a magnetic resonance environment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Patient labeling to convey information regarding the safety and compatibility of the device in a magnetic resonance environment, the conditions under which a patient with the device can be safely scanned, and a mechanism for a healthcare provider to obtain detailed information about magnetic resonance safety and compatibility if needed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 22015, Apr. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5800   Ophthalmic bar reader.
P&gt;(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic bar reader is a device that consists of a magnifying lens intended for use by a patient who has impaired vision. The device is placed directly onto reading material to magnify print.</HEAD>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55992, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5810   Ophthalmic prism reader.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ophthalmic prism reader is a device intended for use by a patient who is in a supine position to change the angle of print to aid reading. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5820   Closed-circuit television reading system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A closed-circuit television reading system is a device that consists of a lens, video camera, and video monitor that is intended for use by a patient who has subnormal vision to magnify reading material. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5838" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5838   Nasolacrimal compression device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nasolacrimal compression device is a prescription device that is fitted to apply mechanical pressure to the nasal aspect of the orbital rim to reduce outflow through the nasolacrimal ducts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 37500, June 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5840   Magnifying spectacles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Magnifying spectacles are devices that consist of spectacle frames with convex lenses intended to be worn by a patient who has impaired vision to enlarge images. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 866.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5842" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5842   Spectacle frame.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spectacle frame is a device made of metal or plastic intended to hold prescription spectacle lenses worn by a patient to correct refractive errors. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5844" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5844   Prescription spectacle lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prescription spectacle lens is a glass or plastic device that is a lens intended to be worn by a patient in a spectacle frame to provide refractive corrections in accordance with a prescription for the patient. The device may be modified to protect the eyes from bright sunlight (i.e., prescription sunglasses). Prescription sunglass lenses may be reflective, tinted, polarizing, or photosensitized. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5850   Sunglasses (nonprescription).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Sunglasses (nonprescription) are devices that consist of spectacle frames or clips with absorbing, reflective, tinted, polarizing, or photosensitized lenses intended to be worn by a person to protect the eyes from bright sunlight but not to provide refractive corrections. This device is usually available over-the-counter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 2321, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5870   Low-vision telescope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A low-vision telescope is a device that consists of an arrangement of lenses or mirrors intended for use by a patient who has impaired vision to increase the apparent size of objects. This generic type of device includes handheld or spectacle telescopes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5900   Electronic vision aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electronic vision aid is an AC-powered or battery-powered device that consists of an electronic sensor/transducer intended for use by a patient who has impaired vision or blindness to translate visual images of objects into tactile or auditory signals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5905" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5905   Oral electronic vision aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An oral electronic vision aid is a battery-powered prescription device that contains an electrode stimulation array to generate electrotactile stimulation patterns that are derived from digital object images captured by a camera. It is intended to aid profoundly blind patients in orientation, mobility, and object recognition as an adjunctive device to other assistive methods such as a white cane or a guide dog.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate an acceptable adverse event profile, including adverse events involving the mouth, tongue, and gums and demonstrate the effect of the stimulation to provide clinically meaningful outcomes. The clinical performance testing must also investigate the anticipated conditions of use, including potential use error, intended environment of use, and duration of use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including simulated moisture ingress, device durability, and battery reliability.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Analysis/testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility.
</P>
<P>(5) Analysis/testing must validate electrical safety.
</P>
<P>(6) Analysis/testing must assess and validate wireless coexistence concerns.
</P>
<P>(7) Any elements of the device that contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(8) Training must include elements to ensure that the healthcare provider and user can identify the safe environments for device use, use all safety features of the device, and operate the device in the intended environment of use.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling for the trainer and user must include a summary of the clinical testing including adverse events encountered under use conditions, summary of study outcomes and endpoints, and information pertinent to use of the device including the conditions under which the device was studied (<I>e.g.,</I> level of supervision or assistance, and environment of use).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 57092, Sept. 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5910   Image intensification vision aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An image intensification vision aid is a battery-powered device intended for use by a patient who has limited dark adaptation or impaired vision to amplify ambient light. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 35607, Sept. 14, 1988; 66 FR 38814, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5915" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5915   Optical vision aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An optical vision aid is a device that consists of a magnifying lens with an accompanying AC-powered or battery-powered light source intended for use by a patient who has impaired vision to increase the apparent size of object detail.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The AC-powered device and the battery-powered device are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 886.9. The battery-powered device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5916" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5916   Rigid gas permeable contact lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rigid gas permeable contact lens is a device intended to be worn directly against the cornea of the eye to correct vision conditions. The device is made of various materials, such as cellulose acetate butyrate, polyacrylate-silicone, or silicone elastomers, whose main polymer molecules generally do not absorb or attract water. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II if the device is intended for daily wear only. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class III if the device is intended for extended wear. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before a device described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be commercially distributed. See § 886.3. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 10284, Mar. 4, 1994] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5918" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5918   Rigid gas permeable contact lens care products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rigid gas permeable contact lens care product is a device intended for use in the cleaning, conditioning, rinsing, lubricating/rewetting, or storing of a rigid gas permeable contact lens. This includes all solutions and tablets used together with rigid gas permeable contact lenses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (Special Controls) Guidance Document: “Guidance for Industry Premarket Notification (510(k)) Guidance Document for Contact Lens Care Products.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 30987, June 6, 1997]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5919" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5919   Hydrophilic re-coating solution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hydrophilic re-coating solution is a home use device intended to restore the hydrophilic coating of rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lenses using reactive coating components.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate device safety as assessed by adverse events, slit lamp findings, and maintenance of visual acuity.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient contacting components of the device and packaging components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance testing must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) Use-related risk analysis must be performed to determine if a self-selection study and human factors validation study must be conducted to demonstrate that users can correctly use the device based solely on reading the directions for use.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate compatibility with each lens and solution labeled for use with the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to restore the coating of compatible lenses.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions on how to correctly use the device, including instructions to use fresh components for each use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Descriptions of compatible contact lenses;
</P>
<P>(iii) Descriptions of compatible care solutions;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning that if patients are not sure of their lens material, they should contact their health care provider prior to use; and
</P>
<P>(v) A precaution against use with lenses that have not been demonstrated to be compatible with the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 72323, Sept. 5, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5925   Soft (hydrophilic) contact lens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A soft (hydrophilic) contact lens is a device intended to be worn directly against the cornea and adjacent limbal and scleral areas of the eye to correct vision conditions or act as a therapeutic bandage. The device is made of various polymer materials the main polymer molecules of which absorb or attract a certain volume (percentage) of water. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II if the device is intended for daily wear only. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class III if the device is intended for extended wear. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before a device described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be commercially distributed. See § 886.3. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33355, Sept. 2, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 10284, Mar. 4, 1994] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5928" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5928   Soft (hydrophilic) contact lens care products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A soft (hydrophilic) contact lens care product is a device intended for use in the cleaning, rinsing, disinfecting, lubricating/rewetting, or storing of a soft (hydrophilic) contact lens. This includes all solutions and tablets used together with soft (hydrophilic) contact lenses and heat disinfecting units intended to disinfect a soft (hydrophilic) contact lens by means of heat.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (Special Controls) Guidance Document: “Guidance for Industry Premarket Notification (510(k)) Guidance Document for Contact Lens Care Products.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 30988, June 6, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 886.5933" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.30.6.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 886.5933   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="888" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 888—ORTHOPEDIC DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l</I>, 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 888 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of orthopedic devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provision of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, an orthopedic device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a surgical device) is listed in one subpart only.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 14137, Mar. 24, 2003; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act, FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(c) A device identified in a regulation in this part that is classified into class III and that is subject to the transitional provisions of section 520(1) of the act is automatically classified by statute into class III and must have an approval under section 515 of the act before being commercially distributed. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III transitional device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.5   Resurfacing technique.</HEAD>
<P>Because of resurfacing techniques, certain joint prostheses require far less bone resection than other devices intended to repair or replace the same joint. The amount of bone resection may or may not affect the safety and effectiveness of the implantation of the prosthesis. When a resurfacing technique is used, the name of the prosthesis includes this information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.6" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.6   Degree of constraint.</HEAD>
<P>Certain joint prostheses provide more constraint of joint movement than others. FDA believes that the degree of constraint is an important factor affecting the safety and effectiveness of orthopedic prostheses. FDA is defining the following standard terms for categorizing the degree of constraint. 
</P>
<P>(a) A “constrained” joint prosthesis is used for joint replacement and prevents dislocation of the prosthesis in more than one anatomic plane and consists of either a single, flexible, across-the-joint component or more than one component linked together or affined. 
</P>
<P>(b) A “semi-constrained” joint prosthesis is used for partial or total joint replacement and limits translation and rotation of the prosthesis in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no across-the-joint linkage. 
</P>
<P>(c) A “non-constrained” joint prosthesis is used for partial or total joint replacement and restricts minimally prosthesis movement in one or more planes. Its components have no across-the-joint linkage. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2321, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.1100   Arthroscope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An arthroscope is an electrically powered endoscope intended to make visible the interior of a joint. The arthroscope and accessories also is intended to perform surgery within a joint. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(2) Class I for the following manual arthroscopic instruments: cannulas, currettes, drill guides, forceps, gouges, graspers, knives, obturators, osteotomes, probes, punches, rasps, retractors, rongeurs, suture passers, suture knotpushers, suture punches, switching rods, and trocars. The devices subject to this paragraph (b)(2) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.1240" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.1240   AC-powered dynamometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An AC-powered dynamometer is an AC-powered device intended for medical purposes to assess neuromuscular function or degree of neuromuscular blockage by measuring, with a force transducer (a device that translates force into electrical impulses), the grip-strength of a patient's hand. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 886.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.1250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.1250   Nonpowered dynamometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered dynamometer is a mechanical device intended for medical purposes to measure the pinch and grip muscle strength of a patient's hand. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.1500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.1500   Goniometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A goniometer is an AC-powered or battery powered device intended to evaluate joint function by measuring and recording ranges of motion, acceleration, or forces exerted by a joint. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class I (general controls) for a goniometer that does not use electrode lead wires and patient cables. This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures of subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 888.9. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls) for a goniometer that uses electrode lead wires and patient cables. The special controls consist of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The performance standard under part 898 of this chapter, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The guidance entitled “Guidance on the Performance Standard for Electrode Lead Wires and Patient Cables.” This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures of subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 19319, Apr. 11, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.1520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.1520   Nonpowered goniometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered goniometer is a mechanical device intended for medical purposes to measure the range of motion of joints. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.1600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.1600   Bone indentation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone indentation device is a device that measures resistance to indentation in bone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must evaluate the risk of bone fracture, soft tissue damage, pain, discomfort, bruising, or bleeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use, including an evaluation of the accuracy and precision of the device with respect to resistance to bone indentation.
</P>
<P>(3) Human factors testing must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can correctly use the device, based on the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(4) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance testing must demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(i) The sterility of the patient-contacting components of the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Validation of reprocessing instructions for any reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance data must be provided to demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(9) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components;
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life for any sterile components;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information regarding limitations of the clinical significance of the device output; and
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed summary of the accuracy and precision of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 755, Jan. 5, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3000" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3000   Bone cap.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone cap is a mushroom-shaped device intended to be implanted made of either silicone elastomer or ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. It is used to cover the severed end of a long bone, such as the humerus or tibia, to control bone overgrowth in juvenile amputees. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 1124, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3010   Bone fixation cerclage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone fixation cerclage is a device intended to be implanted that is made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and that consists of a metallic ribbon or flat sheet or a wire. The device is wrapped around the shaft of a long bone, anchored to the bone with wire or screws, and used in the fixation of fractures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3015" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3015   Bone heterograft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Bone heterograft is a device intended to be implanted that is made from mature (adult) bovine bones and used to replace human bone following surgery in the cervical region of the spinal column. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 888.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3020   Intramedullary fixation rod.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intramedullary fixation rod is a device intended to be implanted that consists of a rod made of alloys such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum and stainless steel. It is inserted into the medullary (bone marrow) canal of long bones for the fixation of fractures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3023" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3023   In vivo cured intramedullary fixation rod.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An in vivo cured intramedullary fixation rod is a prescription implanted device consisting of a balloon that is inserted into the medullary canal of long bones for the fixation of fractures. The balloon is infused with, and completely encapsulates, a liquid monomer that is exposed to a curing agent which polymerizes the monomer within the balloon creating a hardened rigid structure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing must be conducted on the final device to assess burst, abrasion, bending, and torsion in static and dynamic conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical testing must demonstrate the integrity of the balloon including testing for leaks, ruptures, and release of cured/uncured material.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance testing must demonstrate that the device can be inserted and removed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Performance testing must demonstrate the ability, in the event of a leak, to remove the uncured material from its in vivo location.
</P>
<P>(v) Performance testing must demonstrate the reliability and accuracy of the curing method used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Thermal safety testing must be conducted to evaluate the temperature rise during curing.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrical safety, electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) testing, and electromagnetic interference (EMI) testing must be conducted for all electrical components.
</P>
<P>(3) All patient-contacting components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility and pyrogenicity of patient contacting components of the device that are provided sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for any reusable components or instruments.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the system by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and system functionality over the established shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Technological characterization of the device must include materials, curing agents, and a description of the operating principles of the device, including the delivery system and devices which initiate the curing process.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information describing all materials of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information describing how to perform the procedure and use the device, including the delivery system and devices which initiate the curing process, as well as how to remove the device and any uncured materials.
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life.
</P>
<P>(v) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing any reusable components or instruments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 26759, June 8, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3025   Passive tendon prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A passive tendon prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted made of silicon elastomer or a polyester reinforced medical grade silicone elastomer intended for use in the surgical reconstruction of a flexor tendon of the hand. The device is implanted for a period of 2 to 6 months to aid growth of a new tendon sheath. The device is not intended as a permanent implant nor to function as a replacement for the ligament or tendon nor to function as a scaffold for soft tissue ingrowth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3027" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3027   Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) bone cement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) bone cement is a device intended to be implanted that is made from methylmethacrylate, polymethylmethacrylate, esters of methacrylic acid, or copolymers containing polymethylmethacrylate and polystyrene. The device is intended for use in arthroplastic procedures of the hip, knee, and other joints for the fixation of polymer or metallic prosthetic implants to living bone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) Bone Cement.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 46855, July 17, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3030   Single/multiple component metallic bone fixation appliances and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Single/multiple component metallic bone fixation appliances and accessories are devices intended to be implanted consisting of one or more metallic components and their metallic fasteners. The devices contain a plate, a nail/plate combination, or a blade/plate combination that are made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, stainless steel, and titanium, that are intended to be held in position with fasteners, such as screws and nails, or bolts, nuts, and washers. These devices are used for fixation of fractures of the proximal or distal end of long bones, such as intracapsular, intertrochanteric, intercervical, supracondylar, or condylar fractures of the femur; for fusion of a joint; or for surgical procedures that involve cutting a bone. The devices may be implanted or attached through the skin so that a pulling force (traction) may be applied to the skeletal system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3040   Smooth or threaded metallic bone fixation fastener.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A smooth or threaded metallic bone fixation fastener is a device intended to be implanted that consists of a stiff wire segment or rod made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum and stainless steel, and that may be smooth on the outside, fully or partially threaded, straight or U-shaped; and may be either blunt pointed, sharp pointed, or have a formed, slotted head on the end. It may be used for fixation of bone fractures, for bone reconstructions, as a guide pin for insertion of other implants, or it may be implanted through the skin so that a pulling force (traction) may be applied to the skeletal system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3041" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3041   Absorbable metallic bone fixation fastener.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable metallic bone fixation fastener is an implant, such as a bone screw, pin, or Kirschner wire, composed of one or more absorbable metal or metal alloys and intended to provide rigid bone fixation suitable for osteosynthesis. The device is designed to fully absorb after osteosynthesis is achieved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under the anticipated conditions of use. The absorption profile must be characterized to completion (full absorption). The difficulty of any revision surgeries must be documented.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the product performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate the complete degradation profile of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate the initial mechanical performance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Evaluate the mechanical performance as the device degrades.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) The device must be demonstrated to be non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the labeled shelf-life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality (<I>i.e.,</I> degradation profile and mechanical performance) over the established shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Material composition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Absorption byproducts;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed summary of the product's technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(iv) An expiration date/shelf life;
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions for revision surgery;
</P>
<P>(vi) Time to complete absorption; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A summary of clinical data with the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34148, June 5, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3043" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3043   Screw sleeve bone fixation device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A screw sleeve bone fixation device is intended to be implanted in conjunction with a non-resorbable, metallic bone screw where the screw has lost purchase due to loosening, backout, or breakage. The device fits between the screw threads and surrounding bone and provides increased surface area to create an interference fit to restore stability of the implant construct.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) In vivo performance testing under anticipated conditions of use must demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(i) The device provides sufficient stability to allow for fracture healing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A lack of adverse biologic response to the implant through histopathological and histomorphometric assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Assess the stability of the device in a rescue screw scenario;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that the device can be inserted and removed without damage to the implant or associated hardware;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate the device can withstand dynamic loading without device failure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Characterize wear particle generation.
</P>
<P>(3) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) The device must be demonstrated to be non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the labeled shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the established shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of the device technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information describing all materials of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for use, including device removal; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 11294, Mar. 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3044" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3044   Resorbable implant for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) repair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A resorbable implant for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) repair is a degradable material that allows for healing of a torn ACL that is biomechanically stabilized by traditional suturing procedures. The device is intended to protect the biological healing process from the surrounding intraarticular environment and not intended to replace biomechanical fixation via suturing. This classification includes devices that bridge or surround the torn ends of a ruptured ACL.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Post-operative evaluation of knee pain and function; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Durability as assessed by re-tear or re-operation rate.
</P>
<P>(2) Animal performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Device performance characteristics, including resorption and ligament healing at repair site; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Adverse effects as assessed by gross necropsy and histopathology.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Characterization of materials, including chemical composition, resorption profile, and mechanical properties; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Simulated use testing, including device preparation, device handling, compatibility with other ACL repair instrumentation, and user interface.
</P>
<P>(4) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must demonstrate the device to be sterile and non-pyrogenic.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of device materials and specifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the clinical performance testing conducted with the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for use, including compatibility with other ACL repair instrumentation or devices;
</P>
<P>(iv) Warnings regarding post-operative rehabilitation requirements; and
</P>
<P>(v) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 80041, Dec. 29, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3045" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3045   Resorbable calcium salt bone void filler device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A resorbable calcium salt bone void filler device is a resorbable implant intended to fill bony voids or gaps of the extremities, spine, and pelvis that are caused by trauma or surgery and are not intrinsic to the stability of the bony structure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance: Resorbable Calcium Salt Bone Void Filler Device; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 888.1(e) of this chapter for the availability of this guidance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32636, June 2, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3046" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3046   Resorbable calcium salt bone void filler containing a single approved aminoglycoside antibacterial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A resorbable calcium salt bone void filler containing a single approved aminoglycoside antibacterial is a resorbable implant intended to fill bony defects of the extremities where there is an increased risk of infection. It is intended to resorb over time and be replaced by new bone. The product is intended for reduction of recurrence of chronic osteomyelitis of long bones. It is not intended to treat infection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this product are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the product performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Clinical testing must evaluate recurrence of chronic osteomyelitis of long bones. Testing must describe safe aminoglycoside serum levels below toxic concentrations. Imaging data (<I>e.g.,</I> radiographs) must evaluate product resorption and new bone formation at the location where the product has been placed.
</P>
<P>(2) Animal performance testing must demonstrate that the product performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing must characterize the performance of the product in an appropriate animal model. The model must mimic the identified clinical use, <I>e.g.,</I> in a large animal infection model of osteomyelitis. Testing must characterize aminoglycoside serum levels and characterize product resorption and replacement by new bone, including the characterization of the rates of product resorption and new bone formation over clinically relevant timeframes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing must be conducted in a relevant animal model to evaluate the pharmacology and toxicology of the final, finished product.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the product performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must characterize the product in appropriate in vitro models.
</P>
<P>(i) Elution kinetics studies must be conducted to determine the in vitro drug release profile of the aminoglycoside from the product lot(s) used for the clinical performance testing studies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dissolution testing must characterize the resorption profile of the product.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following physical and chemical properties must be characterized for in situ setting products:
</P>
<P>(A) Setting pH and reaction temperature;
</P>
<P>(B) Setting and working times;
</P>
<P>(C) Force required to transfer the product from the mixing container to the site of action;
</P>
<P>(D) Chemical composition of the in vivo-cured product; and
</P>
<P>(E) Dimensional stability of the in vivo-cured product.
</P>
<P>(4) Characterization of the product, including the drug substance and drug constituent part components (as applicable), must demonstrate that critical quality attributes and specifications, including compendial requirements, are met and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of, and justification for, the specification for each individual component (including the drug substance) of the drug constituent part of the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Confirmation that the specifications for the aminoglycoside and drug constituent part components (if present) conform to any corresponding United States Pharmacopeia (USP) monographs. In addition, the aminoglycoside specification must also include other tests that ensure the quality of the product. These tests may, for example, include appearance, solubility, identification, related substances, ratios of active components, assay measured using high performance liquid chromatography, or potency measured using a bioassay.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of, and justification for, the product specification(s) to be met on release of each batch and on stability, including description, identification, aminoglycoside assay, in vitro elution, degradation products, elemental impurities, content uniformity, residual solvents, sterility, and endotoxin. If the aminoglycoside is prepared as a solution before mixing with the other components, that specification must include appearance, pH, and particulates.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of, and justification for, the specifications that apply to the freshly mixed product (pre-setting configuration) and the mixed product administered from the mixing device/device constituent part and allowed to set over a specified time (post-setting configuration). For in vitro elution/drug release specifications, the acceptance criteria must include data from the product lot(s) used in clinical performance (or equivalent) studies.
</P>
<P>(A) The specification must include tests adequate to ensure the quality attributes of the pre-setting configuration considering the product design, including but not limited to, tests for appearance, setting time, and injectability or extrusion force.
</P>
<P>(B) The specification must include tests adequate to ensure the quality attributes of the post-setting configuration considering the product design, including but not limited to, tests for appearance, aminoglycoside assay, aminoglycoside degradants, aminoglycoside elution/drug release, uniformity, sterility, endotoxins, setting reaction temperature, working time, and usable amount of the product.
</P>
<P>(v) For the specifications noted in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (b)(4)(iv) of this section, a description of the analytical procedures and a summary of the analytical procedures development and validation must be provided. For in vitro elution/drug release specifications, data must be provided to demonstrate method adequacy, <I>e.g.,</I> in terms of discriminating power for changes/differences in critical quality attributes that could impact product performance, stability-indicating potential, and/or in vitro-in vivo correlation.
</P>
<P>(5) An analysis must be provided that identifies and evaluates any contribution to the development and spread of antimicrobial resistance.
</P>
<P>(6) Susceptibility testing to the aminoglycoside must be conducted for all bacterial isolates identified during the clinical performance testing specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) If FDA determines that the clinical performance testing specified in special control (b)(1) of this section is insufficient to evaluate long-term safety of the product, post-market surveillance (PMS) must evaluate new bone formation at the location where the product has been placed in accordance with an FDA-agreed upon protocol.
</P>
<P>(8) The product, including the delivery device constituent part(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> delivery syringes) and patient-contacting surgical instruments, must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(9) The product and each of its components (<I>i.e.,</I> aminoglycoside and the drug constituent part components (if present)) must be demonstrated to be compatible with their respective commercial container closure system/packaging.
</P>
<P>(10) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the product. The performance data must confirm that the sterilization process has no significant adverse impact (<I>e.g.,</I> the generation of new degradants) on the drug quality attributes (<I>e.g.,</I> assay, elution) of the product.
</P>
<P>(11) Performance data must support the claimed expiration dating period/shelf life by demonstrating continued sterility, stability (see paragraph (b)(12)(ii) of this section), package integrity, and product functionality over the identified expiration/shelf life. Data to demonstrate continued sterility, stability, and package integrity must be collected for each component and the final, finished product. In addition, product functionality must be demonstrated for the final finished product. Extension of the expiration/shelf life must be submitted in a premarket notification and supported by the data described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(12) Performance data from testing batches at release and on stability must characterize the drug quality attributes of the final, finished product (see paragraph (b)(4) of this section), demonstrate product specifications are consistently met, and support the claimed expiration/shelf-life date. This information must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Batch Release Testing: Batch release data on multiple lots of the final, finished product manufactured using the proposed commercial process must demonstrate that specifications for each component and the final, finished product are met. Data on multiple lots of the mixed product (pre- and post-setting) obtained when the final, finished product is used according to the directions in the instructions for use must demonstrate that the pre- and post-setting specifications are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stability Testing: The final, finished product manufactured using the proposed commercial process and in the proposed commercial packaging must be stored under tightly controlled conditions and periodically tested to demonstrate the stability of the drug constituent part (all components) and the final, finished product. In addition, at each pre-determined stability time point the product must meet the pre- and post-setting specifications. Testing must include three batches placed under long-term storage and accelerated stability conditions and then one batch placed on long-term stability each year. Testing must verify that the acceptance criteria for each specification are met at each stability time point. Parameters that are not expected to change on stability, <I>e.g.,</I> elemental impurities, only need to be tested at batch release, and a justification must be provided.
</P>
<P>(13) Pharmaceutical manufacturing information must be provided, and appropriate documentation be available on inspection or if requested by FDA, for the drug constituent part and the final, finished product to demonstrate that the production processes are properly developed, conducted, controlled, and monitored. This information must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the manufacturing process and controls, including in-process controls, to ensure consistent quality. Such information may be provided by reference to a drug master file (DMF).
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the commercial batch formula, including the quality standard (<I>e.g.,</I> USP/National Formulary) to be met for each excipient, and representative Certificates of Analysis (COAs) for excipients to confirm quality.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information or reference to one or more DMFs regarding the drug substance to understand the impurity profile, and representative COAs for the drug substance to confirm quality.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification and qualification of in-process hold times for the drug constituent part, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of how compliance with the current good manufacturing practice (CGMP) requirements is achieved at the facilities manufacturing the drug constituent part and final, finished product. This includes identification of the activities that occur at each site, and for any facilities for which § 211 of this chapter is not the established CGMP operating system, a description of how the facilities perform the responsibilities related to the subset of § 211 requirements established in § 4 subpart A of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(14) The product must contain a single approved aminoglycoside antibacterial.
</P>
<P>(15) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the maximum volume of the product that may be safely implanted;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the product's technical parameters;
</P>
<P>(iii) An expiration date/shelf life;
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of probable adverse events associated with the use of the product, including those observed during clinical performance studies;
</P>
<P>(v) Warning about the risk of antimicrobial resistance and the risk of systemic adverse effects from the aminoglycoside;
</P>
<P>(vi) Precaution against implanting into patients with calcium metabolism issues; overfilling; adding other substances other than those provided (in absence of data on the use of the product mixed with other substances); overpressuring the product because this may lead to extrusion of the product beyond the site of its intended application and damage to surrounding tissues, and since this may lead to fat embolization or embolization of the product material into the bloodstream; and disturbing the product (over a specific time frame) once it begins to harden;
</P>
<P>(vii) Instructions about proper placement and containment in the desired treatment area; adequate fixation (as necessary); product working time and setting time with any special instructions with respect to drying the surgical field and/or not irrigating the defect site prior to final setting of the product (for a product intended to set in vivo); how and when excess material should be removed from the defect site;
</P>
<P>(viii) When available, and according to the timeframe included in the PMS protocol agreed upon with FDA as specified in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, a detailed summary of the PMS data must be provided, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Updates to the labeling to accurately reflect outcomes or necessary modifications based upon data collected during the PMS experience; and
</P>
<P>(B) Inclusion of results and adverse events associated with utilization of the product during the PMS.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34150, June 5, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3050   Spinal interlaminal fixation orthosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spinal interlaminal fixation orthosis is a device intended to be implanted made of an alloy, such as stainless steel, that consists of various hooks and a posteriorly placed compression or distraction rod. The device is implanted, usually across three adjacent vertebrae, to straighten and immobilize the spine to allow bone grafts to unite and fuse the vertebrae together. The device is used primarily in the treatment of scoliosis (a lateral curvature of the spine), but it also may be used in the treatment of fracture or dislocation of the spine, grades 3 and 4 of spondylolisthesis (a dislocation of the spinal column), and lower back syndrome. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3060   Spinal intervertebral body fixation orthosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spinal intervertebral body fixation orthosis is a device intended to be implanted made of titanium. It consists of various vertebral plates that are punched into each of a series of vertebral bodies. An eye-type screw is inserted in a hole in the center of each of the plates. A braided cable is threaded through each eye-type screw. The cable is tightened with a tension device and it is fastened or crimped at each eye-type screw. The device is used to apply force to a series of vertebrae to correct “sway back,” scoliosis (lateral curvature of the spine), or other conditions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3070   Thoracolumbosacral pedicle screw system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> (1) Rigid pedicle screw systems are comprised of multiple components, made from a variety of materials that allow the surgeon to build an implant system to fit the patient's anatomical and physiological requirements. Such a spinal implant assembly consists of a combination of screws, longitudinal members (<I>e.g.,</I> plates, rods including dual diameter rods, plate/rod combinations), transverse or cross connectors, and interconnection mechanisms (<I>e.g.,</I> rod-to-rod connectors, offset connectors).
</P>
<P>(2) Semi-rigid systems are defined as systems that contain one or more of the following features (including but not limited to): Non-uniform longitudinal elements, or features that allow more motion or flexibility compared to rigid systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls), when intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in skeletally mature patients as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of the following acute and chronic instabilities or deformities of the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine: severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) of the L5-S1 vertebra; degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment; fracture; dislocation; scoliosis; kyphosis; spinal tumor; and failed previous fusion (pseudarthrosis). These pedicle screw spinal systems must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(i) Compliance with material standards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Compliance with mechanical testing standards;
</P>
<P>(iii) Compliance with biocompatibility standards; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Labeling that contains these two statements in addition to other appropriate labeling information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Warning: The safety and effectiveness of pedicle screw spinal systems have been established only for spinal conditions with significant mechanical instability or deformity requiring fusion with instrumentation. These conditions are significant mechanical instability or deformity of the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine secondary to severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) of the L5-S1 vertebra, degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment, fracture, dislocation, scoliosis, kyphosis, spinal tumor, and failed previous fusion (pseudarthrosis). The safety and effectiveness of these devices for any other conditions are unknown.”
</P>
<P>“Precaution: The implantation of pedicle screw spinal systems should be performed only by experienced spinal surgeons with specific training in the use of this pedicle screw spinal system because this is a technically demanding procedure presenting a risk of serious injury to the patient.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Class II (special controls), when a rigid pedicle screw system is intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of degenerative disc disease and spondylolisthesis other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment. These pedicle screw systems must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(i) The design characteristics of the device, including engineering schematics, must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the mechanical function and durability of the implant.
</P>
<P>(iii) Device components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Validation testing must demonstrate the cleanliness and sterility of, or the ability to clean and sterilize, the device components and device-specific instruments.
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A clear description of the technological features of the device including identification of device materials and the principles of device operation;
</P>
<P>(B) Intended use and indications for use, including levels of fixation;
</P>
<P>(C) Identification of magnetic resonance (MR) compatibility status;
</P>
<P>(D) Cleaning and sterilization instructions for devices and instruments that are provided non-sterile to the end user; and
</P>
<P>(E) Detailed instructions of each surgical step, including device removal.
</P>
<P>(3) Class II (special controls), when a semi-rigid system is intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion for any indication. In addition to complying with the special controls in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, these pedicle screw systems must comply with the following special controls:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstration that clinical performance characteristics of the device support the intended use of the product, including assessment of fusion compared to a clinically acceptable fusion rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Semi-rigid systems marketed prior to the effective date of this reclassification must submit an amendment to their previously cleared premarket notification (510(k)) demonstrating compliance with the special controls in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) and paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 28053, May 22, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 96373, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3075" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3075   Posterior cervical screw system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Posterior cervical screw systems are comprised of multiple, interconnecting components, made from a variety of materials that allow an implant system to be built from the occiput to the upper thoracic spine to fit the patient's anatomical and physiological requirements, as determined by preoperative cross-sectional imaging. Such a spinal assembly consists of a combination of bone anchors via screws (<I>i.e.,</I> occipital screws, cervical lateral mass screws, cervical pedicle screws, C2 pars screws, C2 translaminar screws, C2 transarticular screws), longitudinal members (<I>e.g.,</I> plates, rods, including dual diameter rods, plate/rod combinations), transverse or cross connectors, interconnection mechanisms (<I>e.g.,</I> rod-to-rod connectors, offset connectors), and closure mechanisms (<I>e.g.,</I> set screws, nuts). Posterior cervical screw systems are rigidly fixed devices that do not contain dynamic features, including but not limited to: non-uniform longitudinal elements or features that allow more motion or flexibility compared to rigid systems.
</P>
<P>Posterior cervical screw systems are intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in patients as an adjunct to fusion for acute and chronic instabilities of the cervical spine and/or craniocervical junction and/or cervicothoracic junction such as: (1) Traumatic spinal fractures and/or traumatic dislocations; (2) deformities; (3) instabilities; (4) failed previous fusions (<I>e.g.,</I> pseudarthrosis); (5) tumors; (6) inflammatory disorders; (7) spinal degeneration, including neck and/or arm pain of discogenic origin as confirmed by imaging studies (radiographs, CT, MRI); (8) degeneration of the facets with instability; and (9) reconstruction following decompression to treat radiculopathy and/or myelopathy. These systems are also intended to restore the integrity of the spinal column even in the absence of fusion for a limited time period in patients with advanced stage tumors involving the cervical spine in whom life expectancy is of insufficient duration to permit achievement of fusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for posterior cervical screw systems are:
</P>
<P>(1) The design characteristics of the device, including engineering schematics, must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonclinical performance testing must demonstrate the mechanical function and durability of the implant.
</P>
<P>(3) Device components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Validation testing must demonstrate the cleanliness and sterility of, or the ability to clean and sterilize, the device components and device-specific instruments.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear description of the technological features of the device including identification of device materials and the principles of device operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Intended use and indications for use including levels of fixation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Device specific warnings, precautions, and contraindications that include the following statements:
</P>
<P>(A) “Precaution: Preoperative planning prior to implantation of posterior cervical screw systems should include review of cross-sectional imaging studies (<I>e.g.,</I> CT and/or MRI) to evaluate the patient's cervical anatomy including the transverse foramen, neurologic structures, and the course of the vertebral arteries. If any findings would compromise the placement of these screws, other surgical methods should be considered. In addition, use of intraoperative imaging should be considered to guide and/or verify device placement, as necessary.”
</P>
<P>(B) “Precaution: Use of posterior cervical pedicle screw fixation at the C3 through C6 spinal levels requires careful consideration and planning beyond that required for lateral mass screws placed at these spinal levels, given the proximity of the vertebral arteries and neurologic structures in relation to the cervical pedicles at these levels.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of magnetic resonance (MR) compatibility status;
</P>
<P>(v) Cleaning and sterilization instructions for devices and instruments that are provided non-sterile to the end user, and;
</P>
<P>(vi) Detailed instructions of each surgical step, including device removal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 12092, Apr. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3080   Intervertebral body fusion device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intervertebral body fusion device is an implanted single or multiple component spinal device made from a variety of materials, including titanium and polymers. The device is inserted into the intervertebral body space of the cervical or lumbosacral spine, and is intended for intervertebral body fusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II (special controls) for intervertebral body fusion devices that contain bone grafting material. The special control is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Intervertebral Body Fusion Device.” See § 888.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<P>(2) Class III (premarket approval) for intervertebral body fusion devices that include any therapeutic biologic (e.g., bone morphogenic protein). Intervertebral body fusion devices that contain any therapeutic biologic require premarket approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> Devices described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 32172, June 12, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3083" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3083   Spinal spheres for use in intervertebral fusion procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spinal sphere device is an implanted, solid, spherical, prescription device manufactured from metallic or polymeric materials. The device is inserted into the intervertebral body space of the lumbar spine to provide stabilization and to help promote intervertebral body fusion. The device is to be used with bone graft material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before October 30, 2025, for any spinal sphere for use in intervertebral fusion procedures as identified in paragraph (a) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before October 30, 2025, been found to be substantially equivalent to any spinal sphere device for use in intervertebral fusion procedures identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other spinal sphere device for use in intervertebral fusion procedures identified in paragraph (a) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 18990, 18993, Mar. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3085" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3085   Intervertebral body graft containment device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intervertebral body graft containment device is a non-rigid, implanted spinal device that is designed to contain bone graft within its internal cavity. The device is inserted into the intervertebral body space of the spine and is intended as an adjunct to intervertebral body fusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must include an assessment of any adverse events observed during clinical use, as well as intervertebral body fusion, and compare this to a clinically acceptable fusion rate.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the mechanical function and durability of the implant, as well as the ability of the device to be inserted, deployed, and filled with bone graft consistently.
</P>
<P>(3) Device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Validation testing must demonstrate the cleanliness and sterility of, or the ability to clean and sterilize, the device components, and device-specific instruments.
</P>
<P>(5) Design characteristics of the device, including engineering schematics, must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must bear all information required for the safe and effective use of the device, specifically including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear description of the technological features of the device including identification of device materials, compatible components in the fusion construct, and the principles of device operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Intended use and indications for use, including levels of fixation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of magnetic resonance (MR) compatibility status;
</P>
<P>(iv) Cleaning and sterilization instructions for devices and instruments that are provided nonsterile to the end user; and
</P>
<P>(v) Detailed instructions of each surgical step, including device removal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 71158, Sept. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3090   Intraoperative orthopedic strain sensor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A strain sensor device is an adjunct tool intended to measure strain on an orthopedic implant in the intraoperative setting only. The device is not intended to provide diagnostic information or influence clinical decision making.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance testing must be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing to evaluate the effect of the device on the mechanical performance of the implant and to characterize the mechanical limits of the components used with the implant; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Accuracy and repeatability testing of strain measurements.
</P>
<P>(2) Usability testing must evaluate the effect of the device on the performance of the surgical procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance testing must support the sterility and shelf life of the patient-contacting components of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance data must be provided to demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility (EMC) and electrical safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A shelf life;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions for use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reprocessing instructions for any reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the device is not intended to provide diagnostic information or influence clinical decision making.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 68405, Dec. 2, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3100   Ankle joint metal/composite semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ankle joint metal/composite semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace an ankle joint. The device limits translation and rotation: in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a talar resurfacing component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a tibial resurfacing component fabricated from ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene with carbon fibers composite, and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3110   Ankle joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ankle joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace an ankle joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces and has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a talar resurfacing component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a tibial resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3120" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3120   Ankle joint metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ankle joint metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace an ankle joint. The device limits minimally (less than normal anatomic constraints) translation in one or more planes. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a tibial component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a talar component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene, and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any ankle joint metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996, been found to be substantially equivalent to an ankle joint metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other ankle joint metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3150   Elbow joint metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An elbow joint metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace an elbow joint. It is made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, or of these alloys and of an ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene bushing. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and consists of two components that are linked together. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Guidance Document for Testing Orthopedic Implants with Modified Metallic Surfaces Apposing Bone or Bone Cement,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) “Guidance Document for the Preparation of Premarket Notification (510(k)) Application for Orthopedic Devices,” 
</P>
<P>(v) “Guidance Document for Testing Non-articulating, ‘Mechanically Locked’ Modular Implant Components,” 
</P>
<P>(2) International Organization for Standardization's (ISO): 
</P>
<P>(i) ISO 5832-3:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 3: Wrought Titanium 6-Aluminum 4-Vandium Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) ISO 5832-4:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 4: Cobalt-Chromium-Molybdenum Casting Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) ISO 5832-12:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 12: Wrought Cobalt-Chromium-Molybdenum Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) ISO 5833:1992 “Implants for Surgery—Acrylic Resin Cements,” 
</P>
<P>(v) ISO 5834-2:1998 “Implants for Surgery—Ultra High Molecular Weight Polyethylene—Part 2: Moulded Forms,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) ISO 6018:1987 “Orthopaedic Implants—General Requirements for Marking, Packaging, and Labeling,” 
</P>
<P>(vii) ISO 9001:1994 “Quality Systems—Model for Quality Assurance in Design/Development, Production, Installation, and Servicing,” and 
</P>
<P>(viii) ISO 14630:1997 “Non-active Surgical Implants—General Requirements,” 
</P>
<P>(3) American Society for Testing and Materials': 
</P>
<P>(i) F 75-92 “Specification for Cast Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implant Material,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) F 648-98 “Specification for Ultra-High-Molecular-Weight Polyethylene Powder and Fabricated Form for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) F 799-96 “Specification for Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy Forgings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) F 981-93 “Practice for Assessment of Compatibility of Biomaterials (Nonporous) for Surgical Implant with Respect to Effect of Material on Muscle and Bone,” 
</P>
<P>(v) F 1044-95 “Test Method for Shear Testing of Porous Metal Coatings,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) F 1108-97 “Specification for Titanium-6 Aluminum-4 Vanadium Alloy Castings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(vii) F 1147-95 “Test Method for Tension Testing of Porous Metal Coatings, ” and 
</P>
<P>(viii) F 1537-94 “Specification for Wrought Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implants.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 17147, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3160   Elbow joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An elbow joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace an elbow joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a humeral resurfacing component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a radial resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3170   Elbow joint radial (hemi-elbow) polymer prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An elbow joint radial (hemi-elbow) polymer prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted made of medical grade silicone elastomer used to replace the proximal end of the radius. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3180   Elbow joint humeral (hemi-elbow) metallic uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An elbow joint humeral (hemi-elbow) metallic uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, that is used to replace the distal end of the humerus formed by the trochlea humeri and the capitulum humeri. The generic type of device is limited to prostheses intended for use without bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any elbow joint humeral (hemi-elbow) metallic uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to an elbow joint humeral (hemi-elbow) metallic uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other elbow joint humeral (hemi-elbow) metallic uncemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3200   Finger joint metal/metal constrained uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A finger joint metal/metal constrained uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a metacarpophalangeal or proximal interphalangeal (finger) joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and consists of two components which are linked together. This generic type of device includes prostheses made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, or protheses made from alloys and ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. This generic type of device is limited to prostheses intended for use without bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any finger joint metal/metal constrained uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a finger joint metal/metal constrained uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other finger joint metal/metal constrained uncemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3210   Finger joint metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A finger joint metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a metacarpophalangeal (finger) joint. This device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and has components which are linked together. This generic type of device includes prostheses that are made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any finger joint metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a finger joint metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other finger joint metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3220   Finger joint metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A finger joint metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a metacarpophalangeal or proximal interphalangeal (finger) joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane, and consists of two components which are linked together. This generic type of device includes prostheses that are made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene, and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any finger joint metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a finger joint metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other finger joint metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3230   Finger joint polymer constrained prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A finger joint polymer constrained prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a metacarpophalangeal or proximal interphalangeal (finger) joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a single flexible across-the-joint component made from either a silicone elastomer or a combination pf polypropylene and polyester material. The flexible across-the-joint component may be covered with a silicone rubber sleeve. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3300   Hip joint metal constrained cemented or uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal constrained cemented or uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and has components that are linked together. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have components made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and is intended for use with or without bone cement (§ 888.3027). This device is not intended for biological fixation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any hip joint metal constrained cemented or uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a hip joint metal constrained cemented or uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other hip joint metal constrained cemented or uncemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50709, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3310   Hip joint metal/polymer constrained cemented or uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/polymer constrained cemented or uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and has components that are linked together. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and an acetabular component made of ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene with or without a metal shell, made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum and titanium alloys. This generic type of device is intended for use with or without bone cement (§ 888.3027).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is the FDA guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance: Hip Joint Metal/Polymer Constrained Cemented or Uncemented Prosthesis.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 21173, Apr. 30, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3320   Hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained, with a cemented acetabular component, prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained, with a cemented acetabular component, prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a femoral and an acetabular component, both made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before May 18, 2016, for any hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained prosthesis with a cemented acetabular component that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before May 18, 2016, been found to be substantially equivalent to a hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained prosthesis with a cemented acetabular component that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained prosthesis with a cemented acetabular component shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 81 FR 8149, Feb. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3330   Hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained, with an uncemented acetabular component, prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained, with an uncemented acetabular component, prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a femoral and an acetabular component, both made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. The femoral component is intended to be fixed with bone cement. The acetabular component is intended for use without bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before May 18, 2016, for any hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained prosthesis with an uncemented acetabular component that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before May 18, 2016, been found to be substantially equivalent to a hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained prosthesis with an uncemented acetabular component that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other hip joint metal/metal semi-constrained prosthesis with an uncemented acetabular component shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 81 FR 8149, Feb. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3340" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3340   Hip joint metal/composite semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/composite semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and an acetabular component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene with carbon fibers composite. Both components are intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3350   Hip joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and an acetabular resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3353" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3353   Hip joint metal/ceramic/polymer semi-constrained cemented or nonporous uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/ceramic/polymer semi-constrained cemented or nonporous uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. This device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. The two-part femoral component consists of a femoral stem made of alloys to be fixed in the intramedullary canal of the femur by impaction with or without use of bone cement. The proximal end of the femoral stem is tapered with a surface that ensures positive locking with the spherical ceramic (aluminium oxide, A1<E T="52">2</E>0<E T="52">3</E>) head of the femoral component. The acetabular component is made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene or ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene reinforced with nonporous metal alloys, and used with or without bone cement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 48239, Nov. 22, 1989; 54 FR 51342, Dec. 14, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3358" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3358   Hip joint metal/polymer/metal semi-constrained porous-coated uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/polymer/metal semi-constrained porous-coated uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a hip joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across the joint. This generic type of device has a femoral component made of a cobalt-chromium-molybdenum (Co-Cr-Mo) alloy or a titanium-aluminum-vanadium (Ti-6Al-4V) alloy and an acetabular component composed of an ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene articulating bearing surface fixed in a metal shell made of Co-Cr-Mo or Ti-6Al-4V. The femoral stem and acetabular shell have a porous coating made of, in the case of Co-Cr-Mo substrates, beads of the same alloy, and in the case of Ti-6Al-4V substrates, fibers of commercially pure titanium or Ti-6Al-4V alloy. The porous coating has a volume porosity between 30 and 70 percent, an average pore size between 100 and 1,000 microns, interconnecting porosity, and a porous coating thickness between 500 and 1,500 microns. The generic type of device has a design to achieve biological fixation to bone without the use of bone cement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 3228, Jan. 8, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3360   Hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) metallic cemented or uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) metallic cemented or uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a portion of the hip joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. This generic type of device includes designs which are intended to be fixed to the bone with bone cement (§ 888.3027) as well as designs which have large window-like holes in the stem of the device and which are intended for use without bone cement. However, in these latter designs, fixation of the device is not achieved by means of bone ingrowth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3370   Hip joint (hemi-hip) acetabular metal cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint (hemi-hip) acetabular metal cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a portion of the hip joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have an acetabular component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any hip joint (hemi-hip) acetabular metal cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a hip joint (hemi-hip) acetabular metal cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other hip joint metal (hemi-hip) acetabular metal cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50710, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3380   Hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) trunnion-bearing metal/polyacetal cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) trunnion-bearing metal/polyacetal cemented prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace the head and neck of the femur. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a metallic stem made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, with an integrated cylindrical trunnion bearing at the upper end of the stem that fits into a recess in the head of the device. The head of the device is made of polyacetal (polyoxymethylene) and it is covered by a metallic alloy, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. The trunnion bearing allows the head of the device to rotate on its stem. The prosthesis is intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) trunnion-bearing metal/polyacetal cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) trunnion-bearing metal/polyacetal cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) trunnion-bearing metal/polyacetal cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50710, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3390   Hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) metal/polymer cemented or uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) metal/polymer cemented or uncemented prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace the head and neck of the femur. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a snap-fit acetabular component made of an alloy, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. This generic type of device may be fixed to the bone with bone cement (§ 888.3027) or implanted by impaction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3400   Hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) metallic resurfacing prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint femoral (hemi-hip) metallic resurfacing prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a portion of the hip joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral resurfacing component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3410   Hip joint metal/polymer or ceramic/polymer semiconstrained resurfacing cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hip joint metal/polymer or ceramic/polymer semi-constrained resurfacing cemented prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace the articulating surfaces of the hip while preserving the femoral head and neck. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across the joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a femoral cap component made of a metal alloy, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, or a ceramic material, that is placed over a surgically prepared femoral head, and an acetabular resurfacing polymer component. Both components are intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before January 3, 2005, for any hip joint metal/polymer or ceramic/polymer semiconstrained resurfacing cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before January 3, 2005, been found to be substantially equivalent to a hip joint metal/polymer or ceramic/polymer semiconstrained resurfacing cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other hip joint metal/polymer or ceramic/polymer semiconstrained resurfacing cemented prosthesis must have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 59134, Oct. 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3480   Knee joint femorotibial metallic constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femorotibial metallic constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and has components that are linked together. The only knee joint movement allowed by the device is in the sagittal plane. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have an intramedullary stem at both the proximal and distal locations. The upper and lower components may be joined either by a solid bolt or pin, an internally threaded bolt with locking screw, or a bolt retained by circlip. The components of the device are made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. The stems of the device may be perforated, but are intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any knee joint femorotibial metallic constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a knee joint femorotibial metallic constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other knee joint femorotibial metallic constrained cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50710, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3490   Knee joint femorotibial metal/composite non-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femorotibial metal/composite non-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits minimally (less than normal anatomic constraints) translation in one or more planes. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral condylar resurfacing component or components made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a tibial condylar component or components made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene with carbon fibers composite and are intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3500   Knee joint femorotibial metal/composite semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femorotibial metal/composite semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a tibial component with the articulating surfaces made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene with carbon-fibers composite and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3510   Knee joint femorotibial metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femorotibial metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits translation or rotation in one or more planes and has components that are linked together or affined. This generic type of device includes prostheses composed of a ball-and-socket joint located between a stemmed femoral and a stemmed tibial component and a runner and track joint between each pair of femoral and tibial condyles. The ball-and-socket joint is composed of a ball at the head of a column rising from the stemmed tibial component. The ball, the column, the tibial plateau, and the stem for fixation of the tibial component are made of an alloy, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. The ball of the tibial component is held within the socket of the femoral component by the femoral component's flat outer surface. The flat outer surface of the tibial component abuts both a reciprocal flat surface within the cavity of the femoral component and flanges on the femoral component designed to prevent distal displacement. The stem of the femoral component is made of an alloy, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, but the socket of the component is made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. The femoral component has metallic runners which align with the ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene tracks that press-fit into the metallic tibial component. The generic class also includes devices whose upper and lower components are linked with a solid bolt passing through a journal bearing of greater radius, permitting some rotation in the transverse plane, a minimal arc of abduction/adduction. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3520   Knee joint femorotibial metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femorotibial metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits minimally (less than normal anatomic constraints) translation in one or more planes. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral condylar resurfacing component or components made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a tibial component or components made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene and are intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3530" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3530   Knee joint femorotibial metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femorotibial metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a tibial component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3535" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3535   Knee joint femorotibial (uni-compartmental) metal/polymer porous-coated uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femorotibial (uni-compartmental) metal/polymer porous-coated uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surface. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device is designed to achieve biological fixation to bone without the use of bone cement. This identification includes fixed-bearing knee prostheses where the ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene tibial bearing is rigidly secured to the metal tibial baseplate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance: “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Knee Joint Patellofemorotibial and Femorotibial Metal/Polymer Porous-Coated Uncemented Prostheses; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 888.1 for the availability of this guidance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 14137, Mar. 24, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3540   Knee joint patellofemoral polymer/metal semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint patellofemoral polymer/metal semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a two-part device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint in the treatment of primary patellofemoral arthritis or chondromalacia. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes a component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum or austenitic steel, for resurfacing the intercondylar groove (femoral sulcus) on the anterior aspect of the distal femur, and a patellar component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. This generic type of device is limited to those devices intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). The patellar component is designed to be implanted only with its femoral component. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Guidance Document for Testing Orthopedic Implants with Modified Metallic Surfaces Apposing Bone or Bone Cement,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) “Guidance Document for the Preparation of Premarket Notification (510(k)) Applications for Orthopedic Devices,” and 
</P>
<P>(v) “Guidance Document for Testing Non-articulating, ‘Mechanically Locked’ Modular Implant Components,” and 
</P>
<P>(2) International Organization for Standardization's (ISO): 
</P>
<P>(i) ISO 5832-3:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 3: Wrought Titanium 6-Aluminum 4-Vandium Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) ISO 5832-4:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 4: Cobalt-Chromium-Molybdenum Casting Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) ISO 5832-12:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 12: Wrought Cobalt-Chromium-Molybdenum Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) ISO 5833:1992 “Implants for Surgery—Acrylic Resin Cements,” 
</P>
<P>(v) ISO 5834-2:1998 “Implants for Surgery—Ultra-high Molecular Weight Polyethylene—Part 2: Moulded Forms,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) ISO 6018:1987 “Orthopaedic Implants—General Requirements for Marking, Packaging, and Labeling,” 
</P>
<P>(vii) ISO 7207-2:1998 “Implants for Surgery—Components for Partial and Total Knee Joint Prostheses—Part 2: Articulating Surfaces Made of Metal, Ceramic and Plastic Materials,” and 
</P>
<P>(viii) ISO 9001:1994 “Quality Systems—Model for Quality Assurance in Design/Development, Production, Installation, and Servicing,” and 
</P>
<P>(3) American Society for Testing and Materials': 
</P>
<P>(i) F 75-92 “Specification for Cast Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implant Material,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) F 648-98 “Specification for Ultra-High-Molecular-Weight Polyethylene Powder and Fabricated Form for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) F 799-96 “Specification for Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy Forgings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) F 1044-95 “Test Method for Shear Testing of Porous Metal Coatings,” 
</P>
<P>(v) F 1108-97 “Titanium-6 Aluminum-4 Vanadium Alloy Castings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) F 1147-95 “Test Method for Tension Testing of Porous Metal Coatings,” 
</P>
<P>(vii) F 1537-94 “Specification for Wrought Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implants,” and 
</P>
<P>(viii) F 1672-95 “Specification for Resurfacing Patellar Prosthesis.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50710, Sept. 27, 1996; 65 FR 17147, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3550   Knee joint patellofemorotibial polymer/metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint patellofemorotibial polymer/metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a knee joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and has components that are linked together. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral component, a tibial component, a cylindrical bolt and accompanying locking hardware that are all made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a retropatellar resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. The retropatellar surfacing component may be attached to the resected patella either with a metallic screw or bone cement. All stemmed metallic components within this generic type are intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any knee joint patellofemorotibial polymer/metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a knee joint patellofemorotibial polymer/metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other knee joint patellofemorotibial polymer/metal/metal constrained cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50710, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3560   Knee joint patellofemorotibial polymer/metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint patellofemorotibial polymer/metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a knee joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a femoral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a tibial component or components and a retropatellar resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3565" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3565   Knee joint patellofemorotibial metal/polymer porous-coated uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint patellofemorotibial metal/polymer porous-coated uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a knee joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device is designed to achieve biological fixation to bone without the use of bone cement. This identification includes fixed-bearing knee prostheses where the ultra high molecular weight polyethylene tibial bearing is rigidly secured to the metal tibial base plate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance: “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Knee Joint Patellofemorotibial and Femorotibial Metal/Polymer Porous-Coated Uncemented Prostheses; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 888.1 for the availability of this guidance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 14137, Mar. 24, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3570   Knee joint femoral (hemi-knee) metallic uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint femoral (hemi-knee) metallic uncemented prosthesis is a device made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that consist of a femoral component with or without protuberance(s) for the enhancement of fixation and is limited to those prostheses intended for use without bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any knee joint femoral (hemi-knee) metallic uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a knee joint femoral (hemi-knee) metallic uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other knee joint femoral (hemi-knee) metallic uncemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50710, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3580   Knee joint patellar (hemi-knee) metallic resurfacing uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint patellar (hemi-knee) metallic resurfacing uncemented prosthesis is a device made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, intended to be implanted to replace the retropatellar articular surface of the patellofemoral joint. The device limits minimally (less than normal anatomic constraints) translation in one or more planes. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a retropatellar resurfacing component and an orthopedic screw to transfix the patellar remnant. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use without bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> (1) Class II when intended for treatment of degenerative and posttraumatic patellar arthritis. 
</P>
<P>(2) Class III when intended for uses other than treatment of degenerative and posttraumatic patellar arthritis. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any knee joint patellar (hemi-knee) metallic resurfacing uncemented prosthesis described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a knee joint patellar (hemi-knee) metallic resurfacing uncemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other knee joint patellar (hemi-knee) metallic resurfacing uncemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50711, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3590" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3590   Knee joint tibial (hemi-knee) metallic resurfacing uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A knee joint tibial (hemi-knee) metallic resurfacing uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace part of a knee joint. The device limits minimally (less than normal anatomic constraints) translation in one or more planes. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This prosthesis is made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and is intended to resurface one tibial condyle. The generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use without bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3600   Implantable post-surgical kinematic measurement knee device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An implantable post-surgical kinematic measurement knee device is a device that provides objective kinematic data after total knee arthroplasty surgery. The kinematic data provided by the device are used as an adjunct to other physiological parameter measurement tools utilized during the course of patient monitoring and treatment post surgery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following tests must be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical testing must evaluate the mechanical function (mechanical fatigue, static mechanical strength) and durability of the implant.
</P>
<P>(ii) Simulated use testing must evaluate the ability of the device to be sized, inserted, and sufficiently secured to any compatible components.
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing must demonstrate the accuracy, reliability, and reproducibility of kinematic measurements.
</P>
<P>(iv) Testing must demonstrate diagnostic and therapeutic ultrasound conditions for safe use.
</P>
<P>(v) Testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use demonstrating the following performance characteristics, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) Magnetic pulse output testing;
</P>
<P>(B) Magnetic and electrical field testing; and
</P>
<P>(C) Testing of the safety features built into the device.
</P>
<P>(vi) Testing must demonstrate hermeticity of any electronic component enclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must evaluate the compatibility of the device in a magnetic resonance (MR) environment.
</P>
<P>(3) Human factors testing must demonstrate that the intended user(s) can correctly use the device for its intended use, including for implantation and post-procedure data access.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the sterility of the device implant and patient-contacting components.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(7) Design characteristics of the device, including engineering schematics, must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use.
</P>
<P>(8) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility/interference, (EMC/EMI), electrical safety, thermal safety, battery safety, and wireless performance of the device.
</P>
<P>(9) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(10) The labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A shelf life;
</P>
<P>(ii) Physician and patient instructions for use, including images that demonstrate how to interact with the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed instruction of the surgical technique;
</P>
<P>(iv) Hardware and software requirements for interacting with the device;
</P>
<P>(v) A clear description of the technological features of the device including identification of the device materials, compatible components, and the principles of operation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identification of magnetic resonance (MR) compatibility status;
</P>
<P>(vii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement regarding the limitations of the clinical significance of the kinematic data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 753, Jan. 5, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3610   Medial knee implanted shock absorber.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medial knee implanted shock absorber is a device implanted outside of the knee capsule extending from the distal femur to the proximal tibia. It is intended to reduce loads on the intra-articular medial joint surface to improve symptoms of osteoarthritis. The device employs a shock absorbing mechanical system and is biomechanically stabilized by plates and screws. The device is not intended to span the lateral knee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of improvement of knee function and reduction of osteoarthritis symptoms, including pain and function; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of relevant adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of the mechanical function and durability of the implant (including evaluation of absorber unloading capacity, fretting and corrosion, static strength, wear analysis, and fatigue testing); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of worst-case device range of motion.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device components intended to be sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf-life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf-life.
</P>
<P>(7) A training program must be included so that upon completion of the training program, the user can safely and successfully implant the device.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 39009, June 29, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3630   Resorbable shoulder spacer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A resorbable shoulder spacer is intended to act as a temporary spacer, creating a physical barrier between tissues in the shoulder, for the treatment of massive irreparable rotator cuff tears.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of improvement of shoulder function and reduction of symptoms (<I>e.g.,</I> pain and function) for the indications for use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of relevant adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Integrity testing of the device, including mechanical and chemical stability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Characterization of the device degradation profile.
</P>
<P>(3) Animal performance testing must include evaluation of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Adverse effects, including gross necropsy and histopathology; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Device degradation to verify in vitro versus in vivo degradation correlation.
</P>
<P>(4) All patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device components intended to be sterile.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Instruction for use, including specific instructions regarding device selection and placement;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed summary of the clinical performance testing with the device, including procedure- and device-related complications or adverse events; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 981, Jan. 6, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3640   Shoulder joint metal/metal or metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shoulder joint metal/metal or metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a shoulder joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and has components that are linked together. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a humeral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a glenoid component made of this alloy or a combination of this alloy and ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any shoulder joint metal/metal or metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a shoulder joint metal/metal or metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other shoulder joint metal/metal or metal/polymer constrained cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50711, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3650   Shoulder joint metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shoulder joint metal/polymer non-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a shoulder joint. The device limits minimally (less than normal anatomic constraints) translation in one or more planes. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a humeral component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a glenoid resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene, and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Guidance Document for Testing Orthopedic Implants with Modified Metallic Surfaces Apposing Bone or Bone Cement,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) “Guidance Document for the Preparation of Premarket Notification (510(k)) Application for Orthopedic Devices,” and 
</P>
<P>(v) “Guidance Document for Testing Non-articulating, ‘Mechanically Locked’ Modular Implant Components,” 
</P>
<P>(2) International Organization for Standardization's (ISO): 
</P>
<P>(i) ISO 5832-3:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 3: Wrought Titanium 6-Aluminum 4-Vandium Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) ISO 5832-4:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 4: Cobalt-Chromium-Molybdenum Casting Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) ISO 5832-12:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 12: Wrought Cobalt-Chromium-Molybdenum Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) ISO 5833:1992 “Implants for Surgery—Acrylic Resin Cements,” 
</P>
<P>(v) ISO 5834-2:1998 “Implants for Surgery—Ultra-high Molecular Weight Polyethylene—Part 2: Moulded Forms,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) ISO 6018:1987 “Orthopaedic Implants—General Requirements for Marking, Packaging, and Labeling,” and 
</P>
<P>(vii) ISO 9001:1994 “Quality Systems—Model for Quality Assurance in Design/Development, Production, Installation, and Servicing,” and 
</P>
<P>(3) American Society for Testing and Materials': 
</P>
<P>(i) F 75-92 “Specification for Cast Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implant Material,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) F 648-98 “Specification for Ultra-High-Molecular-Weight Polyethylene Powder and Fabricated Form for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) F 799-96 “Specification for Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy Forgings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) F 1044-95 “Test Method for Shear Testing of Porous Metal Coatings,” 
</P>
<P>(v) F 1108-97 “Titanium-6 Aluminum-4 Vanadium Alloy Castings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) F 1147-95 “Test Method for Tension Testing of Porous Metal Coatings,” 
</P>
<P>(vii) F 1378-97 “Specification for Shoulder Prosthesis,” and 
</P>
<P>(viii) F 1537-94 “Specification for Wrought Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implants.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 17148, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3660   Shoulder joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shoulder joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a shoulder joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a humeral resurfacing component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and a glenoid resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene, and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The special controls for this device are: 
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's: 
</P>
<P>(i) “Use of International Standard ISO 10993 ‘Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part I: Evaluation and Testing,’ ” 
</P>
<P>(ii) “510(k) Sterility Review Guidance of 2/12/90 (K90-1),” 
</P>
<P>(iii) “Guidance Document for Testing Orthopedic Implants with Modified Metallic Surfaces Apposing Bone or Bone Cement,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) “Guidance Document for the Preparation of Premarket Notification (510(k)) Application for Orthopedic Devices,” and 
</P>
<P>(v) “Guidance Document for Testing Non-articulating, ‘Mechanically Locked’ Modular Implant Components,” 
</P>
<P>(2) International Organization for Standardization's (ISO): 
</P>
<P>(i) ISO 5832-3:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 3: Wrought Titanium 6-aluminum 4-vandium Alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) ISO 5832-4:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 4: Cobalt-chromium-molybdenum casting alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) ISO 5832-12:1996 “Implants for Surgery—Metallic Materials—Part 12: Wrought Cobalt-chromium-molybdenum alloy,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) ISO 5833:1992 “Implants for Surgery—Acrylic Resin Cements,” 
</P>
<P>(v) ISO 5834-2:1998 “Implants for Surgery—Ultra-high Molecular Weight Polyethylene—Part 2: Moulded Forms,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) ISO 6018:1987 “Orthopaedic Implants—General Requirements for Marking, Packaging, and Labeling,” and 
</P>
<P>(vii) ISO 9001:1994 “Quality Systems—Model for Quality Assurance in Design/Development, Production, Installation, and Servicing,” and 
</P>
<P>(3) American Society for Testing and Materials': 
</P>
<P>(i) F 75-92 “Specification for Cast Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implant Material,” 
</P>
<P>(ii) F 648-98 “Specification for Ultra-High-Molecular-Weight Polyethylene Powder and Fabricated Form for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iii) F 799-96 “Specification for Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy Forgings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(iv) F 1044-95 “Test Method for Shear Testing of Porous Metal Coatings,” 
</P>
<P>(v) F 1108-97 “Specification for Titanium-6 Aluminum-4 Vanadium Alloy Castings for Surgical Implants,” 
</P>
<P>(vi) F 1147-95 “Test Method for Tension Testing of Porous Metal,” 
</P>
<P>(vii) F 1378-97 “Standard Specification for Shoulder Prosthesis,” and 
</P>
<P>(viii) F 1537-94 “Specification for Wrought Cobalt-28 Chromium-6 Molybdenum Alloy for Surgical Implants.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 17148, Mar. 31, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3670   Shoulder joint metal/polymer/metal nonconstrained or semi-constrained porous-coated uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shoulder joint metal/polymer/metal nonconstrained or semi-constrained porous-coated uncemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a shoulder joint. The device limits movement in one or more planes. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have a humeral component made of alloys such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum (Co-Cr-Mo) and titanium-aluminum-vanadium (Ti-6Al-4V) alloys, and a glenoid resurfacing component made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene, or a combination of an articulating ultra-high molecular weight bearing surface fixed in a metal shell made of alloys such as Co-Cr-Mo and Ti-6Al-4V. The humeral component and glenoid backing have a porous coating made of, in the case of Co-Cr-Mo components, beads of the same alloy or commercially pure titanium powder, and in the case of Ti-6Al-4V components, beads or fibers of commercially pure titanium or Ti-6Al-4V alloy, or commercially pure titanium powder. The porous coating has a volume porosity between 30 and 70 percent, an average pore size between 100 and 1,000 microns, interconnecting porosity, and a porous coating thickness between 500 and 1,500 microns. This generic type of device is designed to achieve biological fixation to bone without the use of bone cement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Class II Special Controls Guidance: Shoulder Joint Metal/Polymer/Metal Nonconstrained or Semi-Constrained Porous-Coated Uncemented Prosthesis.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 12737, Feb. 28, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3680   Shoulder joint glenoid (hemi-shoulder) metallic cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shoulder joint glenoid (hemi-shoulder) metallic cemented prosthesis is a device that has a glenoid (socket) component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, or alloys with ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene and intended to be implanted to replace part of a shoulder joint. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any shoulder joint glenoid (hemi-shoulder) metallic cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a shoulder joint glenoid (hemi-shoulder) metallic cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other shoulder joint glenoid (hemi-shoulder) metallic cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50711, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3690   Shoulder joint humeral (hemi-shoulder) metallic uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shoulder joint humeral (hemi-shoulder) metallic uncemented prosthesis is a device made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. It has an intramedullary stem and is intended to be implanted to replace the articular surface of the proximal end of the humerus and to be fixed without bone cement (§ 888.3027). This device is not intended for biological fixation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3695" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3695   Shoulder joint humeral (hemi-shoulder) ceramic head/metallic stem cemented or uncemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A shoulder joint humeral (hemi-shoulder) ceramic head/metallic stem cemented or uncemented prosthesis is a device using a replacement humeral head made of ceramic materials such, as pyrolytic carbon, and a stem made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. It is intended to be implanted to replace the articular surface of the proximal end of the humerus and to be fixed with or without bone cement (§ 888.3027). This device is not intended for use in total shoulder arthroplasty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of improvement of shoulder function and reduction of symptoms, including pain and function, for the indications for use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of adverse events, including pain, unanticipated adverse device effects, subsequent surgical interventions, wear of the native bone, osteolysis, loosening and migration, and revision, including revision due to device wear, component dissociation, or device brittle fracture.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluation of the mechanical function (mechanical fatigue strength including evaluation of fretting and corrosion, static mechanical strength, modular component disassembly strength, and wear analysis) and durability of the implant; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluation of worst-case device range of motion.
</P>
<P>(3) All patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device components intended to be sterile.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A shelf life.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34154, June 5, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3720   Toe joint polymer constrained prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A toe joint polymer constrained prosthesis is a device made of silicone elastomer or polyester reinforced silicone elastomer intended to be implanted to replace the first metatarsophalangeal (big toe) joint. This generic type of device consists of a single flexible across-the-joint component that prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3730   Toe joint phalangeal (hemi-toe) polymer prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A toe joint phalangeal (hemi-toe) polymer prosthesis is a device made of silicone elastomer intended to be implanted to replace the base of the proximal phalanx of the toe. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3750   Wrist joint carpal lunate polymer prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wrist joint carpal lunate prosthesis is a one-piece device made of silicone elastomer intended to be implanted to replace the carpal lunate bone of the wrist. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3760   Wrist joint carpal scaphoid polymer prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wrist joint carpal scaphoid polymer prosthesis is a one-piece device made of silicone elastomer intended to be implanted to replace the carpal scaphoid bone of the wrist. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3770   Wrist joint carpal trapezium polymer prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wrist joint carpal trapezium polymer prosthesis is a one-piece device made of silicone elastomer or silicone elastomer/polyester material intended to be implanted to replace the carpal trapezium bone of the wrist. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3780   Wrist joint polymer constrained prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wrist joint polymer constrained prosthesis is a device made of polyester-reinforced silicone elastomer intended to be implanted to replace a wrist joint. This generic type of device consists of a single flexible across-the-joint component that prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3790   Wrist joint metal constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wrist joint metal constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a wrist joint. The device prevents dislocation in more than one anatomic plane and consists of either a single flexible across-the-joint component or two components linked together. This generic type of device is limited to a device which is made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, and is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any wrist joint metal constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a wrist joint metal constrained cemented prosthesis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other wrist joint metal constrained cemented prosthesis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 50711, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3800   Wrist joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wrist joint metal/polymer semi-constrained cemented prosthesis is a device intended to be implanted to replace a wrist joint. The device limits translation and rotation in one or more planes via the geometry of its articulating surfaces. It has no linkage across-the-joint. This generic type of device includes prostheses that have either a one-part radial component made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum, with an ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene bearing surface, or a two-part radial component made of alloys and an ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene ball that is mounted on the radial component with a trunnion bearing. The metallic portion of the two-part radial component is inserted into the radius. These devices have a metacarpal component(s) made of alloys, such as cobalt-chromium-molybdenum. This generic type of device is limited to those prostheses intended for use with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.3810" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.4.1.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.3810   Wrist joint ulnar (hemi-wrist) polymer prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wrist joint ulnar (hemi-wrist) polymer prosthesis is a mushroom-shaped device made of a medical grade silicone elastomer or ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene intended to be implanted into the intramedullary canal of the bone and held in place by a suture. Its purpose is to cover the resected end of the distal ulna to control bone overgrowth and to provide an articular surface for the radius and carpus. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Surgical Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4150   Calipers for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A caliper for clinical use is a compass-like device intended for use in measuring the thickness or diameter of a part of the body or the distance between two body surfaces, such as for measuring an excised skeletal specimen to determine the proper replacement size of a prosthesis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4200   Cement dispenser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cement dispenser is a nonpowered syringe-like device intended for use in placing bone cement (§ 888.3027) into surgical sites. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 52953, Dec. 29, 1988; 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4210" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4210   Cement mixer for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cement mixer for clinical use is a device consisting of a container intended for use in mixing bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 52953, Dec. 29, 1988; 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4220   Cement monomer vapor evacuator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cement monomer vapor evacuator is a device intended for use during surgery to contain or remove undesirable fumes, such as monomer vapor from bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 52954, Dec. 29, 1988; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4230" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4230   Cement ventilation tube.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cement ventilation tube is a tube-like device usually made of plastic intended to be inserted into a surgical cavity to allow the release of air or fluid from the cavity as it is being filled with bone cement (§ 888.3027). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 52954, Dec. 29, 1988; 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4300   Depth gauge for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A depth gauge for clinical use is a measuring device intended for various medical purposes, such as to determine the proper length of screws for fastening the ends of a fractured bone. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4505" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4505   Orthopedic surgical instrumentation designed for osteochondral implants with press-fit fixation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Orthopedic surgical instruments designed for osteochondral implants with press-fit fixation are hand-held devices intended to manipulate bone and cartilage tissue or the implant for the positioning, alignment, defect creation, and placement of press-fit osteochondral implants that utilize no additional means of fixation (<I>e.g.,</I> suture fixation, adhesives). This type of device includes instruments specific to the geometry of the implant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 888.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Technical specifications regarding geometry of the instruments must be specified and validated to demonstrate that the instruments can safely position and place the implant.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of implant(s) and instruments which have been validated for use together; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing any reusable parts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 57321, Oct. 25, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 44188, July 22, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4510   Manual surgical instrument for appropriate patient selection for orthopedic implant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> This device is an orthopedic manual surgical instrument used to measure an anatomical feature(s) to determine appropriate patient selection for an orthopedic implant. The characteristics of the instrument are defined by the specifications set for the orthopedic implant in terms of geometry, surgical technique and use of the device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Technical specifications regarding geometry of the instruments must be identified and validated to demonstrate that the instruments accurately measure the critical geometry for patient selection of the intended orthopedic implant.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of the instruments is validated to demonstrate that the measurement process does not alter the patient anatomy which is being measured.
</P>
<P>(3) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of orthopedic implant(s) and instruments which have been validated for use together; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing any reusable parts.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 20351, Apr. 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4515" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4515   Orthopedic manual surgical instrumentation for use with total disc replacement devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Orthopedic manual surgical instrumentation for use with total disc replacement devices are non-powered hand-held devices designed specifically for use with a total disc replacement device and interface with the associated implant for the purpose of insertion, removal, placement, or repositioning, or to cut, rasp, or create a defect specific to the features of the associated implant. This type of device includes instruments specific to the geometry of the implant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Technical specifications regarding geometry of the instruments must be specified and validated to demonstrate that the instruments can safely position, place, or remove the implant.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate that reprocessing of reusable devices that are provided non-sterile, or sterilization of devices provided sterile, is validated.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of implant(s) and instruments which have been validated for use together; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing any reusable parts.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40734, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4520   Orthopedic manual surgical instrumentation for use with non-fusion spinous process spacer devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Orthopedic manual surgical instrumentation for use with non-fusion spinous process spacer devices are non-powered hand-held devices designed specifically for use with non-fusion spinous process spacer devices and interface with the associated implant for the purpose of inserting, positioning, or removing the implant. This type of device includes instruments specific to the geometry of the implant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Technical specifications regarding geometry of the instruments must be specified and validated to demonstrate that the instruments can safely position, place, or remove the implant.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate that reprocessing of reusable devices that are provided non-sterile, or sterilization of devices provided sterile, is validated.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of implant(s) and instruments which have been validated for use together; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing any reusable parts.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40732, Aug. 21, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4540   Orthopedic manual surgical instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An orthopedic manual surgical instrument is a nonpowered hand-held device intended for medical purposes to manipulate tissue, or for use with other devices in orthopedic surgery. This generic type of device includes the cerclage applier, awl, bender, drill brace, broach, burr, corkscrew, countersink, pin crimper, wire cutter, prosthesis driver, extractor, file, fork, needle holder, impactor, bending or contouring instrument, compression instrument, passer, socket positioner, probe, femoral neck punch, socket pusher, reamer, rongeur, scissors, screwdriver, bone skid, staple driver, bone screw starter, surgical stripper, tamp, bone tap, trephine, wire twister, and wrench. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4580" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4580   Sonic surgical instrument and accessories/attachments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A sonic surgical instrument is a hand-held device with various accessories or attachments, such as a cutting tip that vibrates at high frequencies, and is intended for medical purposes to cut bone or other materials, such as acrylic. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4600   Protractor for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A protractor for clinical use is a device intended for use in measuring the angles of bones, such as on x-rays or in surgery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.4800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.4800   Template for clinical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A template for clinical use is a device that consists of a pattern or guide intended for medical purposes, such as selecting or positioning orthopedic implants or guiding the marking of tissue before cutting. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.5850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.5850   Nonpowered orthopedic traction apparatus and accessories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered orthopedic traction apparatus is a device that consists of a rigid frame with nonpowered traction accessories, such as cords, pulleys, or weights, and that is intended to apply a therapeutic pulling force to the skeletal system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.5890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.5890   Noninvasive traction component.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A noninvasive traction component is a device, such as a head halter, pelvic belt, or a traction splint, that does not penetrate the skin and is intended to assist in connecting a patient to a traction apparatus so that a therapeutic pulling force may be applied to the patient's body. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 52954, Dec. 29, 1988; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.5940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.5940   Cast component.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cast component is a device intended for medical purposes to protect or support a cast. This generic type of device includes the cast heel, toe cap, cast support, and walking iron. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 52954, Dec. 29, 1988; 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38815, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.5960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.5960   Cast removal instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cast removal instrument is an AC-powered, hand-held device intended to remove a cast from a patient. This generic type of device includes the electric cast cutter and cast vacuum.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 888.5980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.31.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 888.5980   Manual cast application and removal instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual cast application and removal instrument is a nonpowered hand-held device intended to be used in applying or removing a cast. This generic type of device includes the cast knife, cast spreader, plaster saw, plaster dispenser, and casting stand. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 888.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 33702, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 52954, Dec. 29, 1988; 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 890—PHYSICAL MEDICINE DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 890 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of physical medicine devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87. 
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a physical medicine device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., used both as a diagnostic device and as a therapeutic device) is listed only in one subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987, as amended at 73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application of premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device. 
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, includiing a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17741, May 11, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2321, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Physical Medicine Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1175   Electrode cable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrode cable is a device composed of strands of insulated electrical conductors laid together around a central core and intended for medical purposes to connect an electrode from a patient to a diagnostic machine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls consist of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The performance standard under part 898 of this chapter, and 
</P>
<P>(2) The guidance document entitled “Guidance on the Performance Standard for Electrode Lead Wires and Patient Cables.” This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures of subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 65 FR 19319, Apr. 11, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1225   Chronaximeter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chronaximeter is a device intended for medical purposes to measure neuromuscular excitability by means of a strength-duration curve that provides a basis for diagnosis and prognosis of neurological dysfunction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1375" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1375   Diagnostic electromyograph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic electromyograph is a device intended for medical purposes, such as to monitor and display the bioelectric signals produced by muscles, to stimulate peripheral nerves, and to monitor and display the electrical activity produced by nerves, for the diagnosis and prognosis of neuromuscular disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1385" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1385   Diagnostic electromyograph needle electrode.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic electromyograph needle electrode is a monopolar or bipolar needle intended to be inserted into muscle or nerve tissue to sense bioelectrical signals. The device is intended for medical purposes for use in connection with electromyography (recording the intrinsic electrical properties of skeletal muscle).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1450   Powered reflex hammer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered reflex hammer is a motorized device intended for medical purposes to elicit and determine controlled deep tendon reflexes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1575" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1575   Force-measuring platform.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A force-measuring platform is a device intended for medical purposes that converts pressure applied upon a planar surface into analog mechanical or electrical signals. This device is used to determine ground reaction force, centers of percussion, centers of torque, and their variations in both magnitude and direction with time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1600   Intermittent pressure measurement system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An intermittent pressure measurement system is an evaluative device intended for medical purposes, such as to measure the actual pressure between the body surface and the supporting media.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1615" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1615   Miniature pressure transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A miniature pressure transducer is a device intended for medical purposes to measure the pressure between a device and soft tissue by converting mechanical inputs to analog electrical signals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1850   Diagnostic muscle stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic muscle stimulator is a device used mainly with an electromyograph machine to initiate muscle activity. It is intended for medical purposes, such as to diagnose motor nerve or sensory neuromuscular disorders and neuromuscular function.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.1925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.1925   Isokinetic testing and evaluation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An isokinetic testing and evaluation system is a rehabilitative exercise device intended for medical purposes, such as to measure, evaluate, and increase the strength of muscles and the range of motion of joints.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59230, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Physical Medicine Prosthetic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3025" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3025   Prosthetic and orthotic accessory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A prosthetic and orthotic accessory is a device intended for medical purposes to support, protect, or aid in the use of a cast, orthosis (brace), or prosthesis. Examples of prosthetic and orthotic accessories include the following: A pelvic support band and belt, a cast shoe, a cast bandage, a limb cover, a prosthesis alignment device, a postsurgical pylon, a transverse rotator, and a temporary training splint.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3050   External compression device for internal jugular vein compression.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external compression device for internal jugular vein compression is a non-invasive device that is intended to increase intracranial blood volume to reduce the occurrence of specific changes in the brain following head impacts sustained from the environment of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use for the duration of the labeled use life.
</P>
<P>(3) Human factors and usability testing must demonstrate that users can correctly use the device, including the user's ability to correctly determine device size and confirm the proper fit of the device. Users must understand product limitations, warnings, and precautions, including the warning that the device does not prevent head injury and medical treatment should be sought following head injury.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning that the device does not replace, and should be worn with, other protective sports equipment associated with specific sports activities, such as helmets and shoulder pads;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the device should not be worn if it interferes with other existing protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(iii) A warning that users should avoid head and neck impacts to the extent possible;
</P>
<P>(iv) A warning that serious harm can result from persistent, excessive pressure on the neck due to incorrect device size and fit; and
</P>
<P>(v) A warning that the device has not been demonstrated to prevent long-term cognitive function deficits, and the ultimate impact on clinical outcomes has not been evaluated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 71160, Sept. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3075" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3075   Cane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cane is a device intended for medical purposes that is used to provide minimal weight support while walking. Examples of canes include the following: A standard cane, a forearm cane, and a cane with a tripod, quad, or retractable stud on the ground end.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3100   Mechanical chair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mechanical chair is a manually operated device intended for medical purposes that is used to assist a disabled person in performing an activity that the person would otherwise find difficult to do or be unable to do. Examples of mechanical chairs include the following: A chair with an elevating seat used to raise a person from a sitting position to a standing position and a chair with casters used by a person to move from one place to another while sitting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3110   Electric positioning chair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electric positioning chair is a device with a motorized positioning control that is intended for medical purposes and that can be adjusted to various positions. The device is used to provide stability for patients with athetosis (involuntary spasms) and to alter postural positions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The electric positioning chair is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to § 890.9 and the following conditions for exemption:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must demonstrate that the safety controls are adequate to ensure safe use of the device and prevent user falls from the device in the event of a device failure;
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to withstand the rated user weight load with an appropriate factor of safety;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must demonstrate the longevity of the device to withstand external forces applied to the device and provide the user with an expected service life of the device;
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must demonstrate proper environments of use and storage of the device to maximize the longevity of the device;
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized editions of ANSI/AAMI/ES60601-1, “Medical Electrical Equipment—Part 1: General Requirements for Basic Safety and Essential Performance,” and ANSI/AAMI/IEC 60601-1-2, “Medical Electrical Equipment—Part 1-2: General Requirements for Basic Safety and Essential Performance—Collateral Standard: Electromagnetic Disturbances—Requirements and Tests”) must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety;
</P>
<P>(6) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized editions of ANSI/AAMI/ISO 10993-1, “Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part 1: Evaluation and Testing Within a Risk Management Process,” ANSI/AAMI/ISO 10993-5, “Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part 5: Tests for In Vitro Cytotoxicity,” and ANSI/AAMI/ISO 10993-10, “Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices—Part 10: Tests for Irritation and Skin Sensitization”) must validate that the skin-contacting components of the device are biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(7) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized editions of IEC 62304, “Medical Device Software—Software Life Cycle Processes”) must validate the software life cycle and that all processes, activities, and tasks are implemented and documented;
</P>
<P>(8) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must validate that the device components are found to be non-flammable;
</P>
<P>(9) Appropriate analysis and non-clinical testing must validate that the battery in the device (if applicable) performs as intended over the anticipated service life of the device; and
</P>
<P>(10) Adequate patient labeling is provided to the user to document proper use and maintenance of the device to ensure safe use of the device by the patient in the intended use environment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 80 FR 72950, Nov. 20, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3150   Crutch.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A crutch is a device intended for medical purposes for use by disabled persons to provide minimal to moderate weight support while walking. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55993, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3175" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3175   Flotation cushion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A flotation cushion is a device intended for medical purposes that is made of plastic, rubber, or other type of covering, that is filled with water, air, gel, mud, or any other substance allowing a flotation media, used on a seat to lessen the likelihood of skin ulcers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3410   External limb orthotic component.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external limb orthotic component is a device intended for medical purposes for use in conjunction with an orthosis (brace) to increase the function of the orthosis for a patient's particular needs. Examples of external limb orthotic components include the following: A brace-setting twister and an external brace stirrup. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3420   External limb prosthetic component.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external limb prosthetic component is a device intended for medical purposes that, when put together with other appropriate components, constitutes a total prosthesis. Examples of external limb prosthetic components include the following: Ankle, foot, hip, knee, and socket components; mechanical or powered hand, hook, wrist unit, elbow joint, and shoulder joint components; and cable and prosthesis suction valves. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3450" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3450   Upper extremity prosthesis including a simultaneously powered elbow and/or shoulder with greater than two simultaneous powered degrees of freedom and controlled by non-implanted electrical components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A upper extremity prosthesis including a simultaneously powered elbow and/or shoulder with greater than two simultaneous powered degrees of freedom and controlled by non-implanted electrical components, is a prescription device intended for medical purposes, and is intended to replace a partially or fully amputated or congenitally absent upper extremity. It uses electronic inputs (other than simple, manually controlled electrical components such as switches) to provide greater than two independent and simultaneously powered degrees of freedom and includes a simultaneously powered elbow and/or shoulder. Prosthetic arm components that are intended to be used as a system with other arm components must include all degrees of freedom of the total upper extremity prosthesis system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis/testing must validate electronic compatibility, electrical safety, thermal safety, mechanical safety, battery performance and safety, and wireless performance, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Performance testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical bench data, including durability testing, to demonstrate that the device will withstand forces, conditions, and environments encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Simulated use testing to demonstrate performance of arm commands and available safeguard(s) under worst case conditions and after durability testing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Verification and validation of force sensors and hand release button, if applicable, are necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) Device functionality in terms of flame retardant materials, liquid/particle ingress prevention, sensor and actuator performance, and motor and brake performance.
</P>
<P>(v) The accuracy of the device features and safeguards.
</P>
<P>(4) Non-clinical and clinical performance testing must demonstrate the accuracy of device features and safeguards.
</P>
<P>(5) Elements of the device that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(6) Documented clinical experience and human factors testing must demonstrate safe and effective use, capture any adverse events observed during clinical use and demonstrate the accuracy of device features and safeguards.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling for the Prosthetist and User Guide must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate instructions, warning, cautions, limitations, and information related to the necessary safeguards of the device, including warning against activities that may put the user at greater risk (<I>e.g.,</I> driving).
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific instructions and the clinical training needed for the safe use of the device, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Instructions on assembling the device in all available configurations,
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions on fitting the patient,
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions and explanations of all available programs and how to program the device,
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions and explanation of all controls, input, and outputs,
</P>
<P>(E) Instructions on all available modes or states of the device,
</P>
<P>(F) Instructions on all safety features of the device, and
</P>
<P>(G) Instructions for maintaining the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the patient population for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the non-clinical and clinical testing pertinent to use of the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71612, Oct. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3475" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3475   Limb orthosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A limb orthosis (brace) is a device intended for medical purposes that is worn on the upper or lower extremities to support, to correct, or to prevent deformities or to align body structures for functional improvement. Examples of limb orthoses include the following: A whole limb and joint brace, a hand splint, an elastic stocking, a knee cage, and a corrective shoe. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3480" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3480   Powered lower extremity exoskeleton.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered lower extremity exoskeleton is a prescription device that is composed of an external, powered, motorized orthosis that is placed over a person's paralyzed or weakened limbs for medical purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Elements of the device materials that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate analysis/testing must validate electromagnetic compatibility/interference (EMC/EMI), electrical safety, thermal safety, mechanical safety, battery performance and safety, and wireless performance, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Design characteristics must ensure geometry and materials composition are consistent with intended use.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Performance testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical bench testing (including durability testing) to demonstrate that the device will withstand forces, conditions, and environments encountered during use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Simulated use testing (<I>i.e.,</I> cyclic loading testing) to demonstrate performance of device commands and safeguard under worst case conditions and after durability testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verification and validation of manual override controls are necessary, if present;
</P>
<P>(iv) The accuracy of device features and safeguards; and
</P>
<P>(v) Device functionality in terms of flame retardant materials, liquid/particle ingress prevention, sensor and actuator performance, and motor performance.
</P>
<P>(6) Clinical testing must demonstrate a reasonable assurance of safe and effective use and capture any adverse events observed during clinical use when used under the proposed conditions of use, which must include considerations for:
</P>
<P>(i) Level of supervision necessary, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Environment of use (<I>e.g.,</I> indoors and/or outdoors) including obstacles and terrain representative of the intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(7) A training program must be included with sufficient educational elements so that upon completion of training program, the clinician, user, and companion can:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the safe environments for device use,
</P>
<P>(ii) Use all safety features of device, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Operate the device in simulated or actual use environments representative of indicated environments and use.
</P>
<P>(8) Labeling for the Physician and User must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate instructions, warning, cautions, limitations, and information related to the necessary safeguards of the device, including warning against activities and environments that may put the user at greater risk.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific instructions and the clinical training needed for the safe use of the device, which includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Instructions on assembling the device in all available configurations;
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions on fitting the patient;
</P>
<P>(C) Instructions and explanations of all available programs and how to program the device;
</P>
<P>(D) Instructions and explanation of all controls, input, and outputs;
</P>
<P>(E) Instructions on all available modes or states of the device;
</P>
<P>(F) Instructions on all safety features of the device; and
</P>
<P>(G) Instructions for properly maintaining the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on the patient population for which the device has been demonstrated to have a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pertinent non-clinical testing information (<I>e.g.,</I> EMC, battery longevity).
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed summary of the clinical testing including:
</P>
<P>(A) Adverse events encountered under use conditions,
</P>
<P>(B) Summary of study outcomes and endpoints, and
</P>
<P>(C) Information pertinent to use of the device including the conditions under which the device was studied (<I>e.g.,</I> level of supervision or assistance, and environment of use (<I>e.g.,</I> indoors and/or outdoors) including obstacles and terrain).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 25529, May 4, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3490" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3490   Truncal orthosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A truncal orthosis is a device intended for medical purposes to support or to immobilize fractures, strains, or sprains of the neck or trunk of the body. Examples of truncal orthoses are the following: Abdominal, cervical, cervical-thoracic, lumbar, lumbo-sacral, rib fracture, sacroiliac, and thoracic orthoses and clavicle splints.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38816, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3500   External assembled lower limb prosthesis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An external assembled lower limb prosthesis is a device that is intended for medical purposes and is a preassembled external artificial limb for the lower extremity. Examples of external assembled lower limb prostheses are the following: Knee/shank/ankle/foot assembly and thigh/knee/shank/ankle/foot assembly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3520" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3520   Plinth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A plinth is a flat, padded board with legs that is intended for medical purposes. A patient is placed on the device for treatment or examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3610   Rigid pneumatic structure orthosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rigid pneumatic structure orthosis is a device intended for medical purposes to provide whole body support by means of a pressurized suit to help thoracic paraplegics walk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before December 26, 1996 for any rigid pneumatic structure orthosis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before December 26, 1996 been found to be substantially equivalent to a rigid pneumatic structure orthosis that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other rigid pneumatic structure orthosis shall have an approved PMA or a declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17742, May 11, 1987; 61 FR 50711, Sept. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3640   Arm sling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An arm sling is a device intended for medical purposes to immobilize the arm, by means of a fabric band suspended from around the neck.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3665" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3665   Congenital hip dislocation abduction splint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A congenital hip dislocation abduction splint is a device intended for medical purposes to stabilize the hips of a young child with dislocated hips in an abducted position (away from the midline).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3675" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3675   Denis Brown splint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A Denis Brown splint is a device intended for medical purposes to immobilize the foot. It is used on young children with tibial torsion (excessive rotation of the lower leg) or club foot.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3690" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3690   Powered wheeled stretcher.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered wheeled stretcher is a battery-powered table with wheels that is intended for medical purposes for use by patients who are unable to propel themselves independently and who must maintain a prone or supine position for prolonged periods because of skin ulcers or contractures (muscle contractions).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). The powered wheeled stretcher is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to § 890.9, and the following conditions for exemption:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must demonstrate that the safety controls are adequate to ensure safe use of the device and prevent user falls from the device in the event of a device failure;
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must demonstrate the ability of the device to withstand the rated user weight load with an appropriate factor of safety;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must demonstrate the longevity of the device to withstand external forces applied to the device and provide the user with an expected service life of the device;
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must demonstrate proper environments of use and storage of the device to maximize the longevity of the device;
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as outlined in appropriate FDA-recognized consensus standards) must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety;
</P>
<P>(6) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as outlined in appropriate FDA-recognized consensus standards) must validate that the skin-contacting components of the device are biocompatible;
</P>
<P>(7) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as outlined in appropriate FDA-recognized consensus standards) must validate the software life cycle and that all processes, activities, and tasks are implemented and documented;
</P>
<P>(8) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must validate that the device components are found to be nonflammable;
</P>
<P>(9) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as outlined in appropriate FDA-recognized consensus standards) must validate that the battery in the device performs as intended over the anticipated service life of the device;
</P>
<P>(10) Adequate labeling is provided to the user to document proper use and maintenance of the device to ensure safe use of the device in the intended use environment; and
</P>
<P>(11) Appropriate risk assessment including, but not limited to, evaluating the dimensional limits of the gaps in hospital beds, and mitigation strategy to reduce entrapment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 85 FR 2020, Jan. 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3700   Nonpowered communication system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered communication system is a mechanical device intended for medical purposes that is used to assist a patient in communicating when physical impairment prevents writing, telephone use, reading, or talking. Examples of nonpowered communications systems include an alphabet board and a page turner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25052, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3710   Powered communication system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered communication system is an AC- or battery-powered device intended for medical purposes that is used to transmit or receive information. It is used by persons unable to use normal communication methods because of physical impairment. Examples of powered communication systems include the following: a specialized typewriter, a reading machine, and a video picture and word screen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3725" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3725   Powered environmental control system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered environmental control system is an AC- or battery-powered device intended for medical purposes that is used by a patient to operate an environmental control function. Examples of environmental control functions include the following: to control room temperature, to answer a doorbell or telephone, or to sound an alarm for assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3750   Mechanical table.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mechanical table is a device intended for medical purposes that has a flat surface that can be inclined or adjusted to various positions. It is used by patients with circulatory, neurological, or musculoskeletal conditions to increase tolerance to an upright or standing position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3760   Powered table.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered table is a device intended for medical purposes that is an electrically operated flat surface table that can be adjusted to various positions. It is used by patients with circulatory, neurological, or musculoskeletal conditions to increase tolerance to an upright or standing position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3790" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3790   Cane, crutch, and walker tips and pads.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Cane, crutch, and walker tips and pads are rubber (or rubber substitute) device accessories intended for medical purposes that are applied to the ground end of mobility aids to prevent skidding or that are applied to the body contact area of the device for comfort or as an aid in using an ambulatory assist device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3800   Motorized three-wheeled vehicle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A motorized three-wheeled vehicle is a gasoline-fueled or battery-powered device intended for medical purposes that is used for outside transportation by disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3825" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3825   Mechanical walker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mechanical walker is a four-legged device with a metal frame intended for medical purposes to provide moderate weight support while walking. It is used by disabled persons who lack strength, good balance, or endurance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3850   Mechanical wheelchair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mechanical wheelchair is a manually operated device with wheels that is intended for medical purposes to provide mobility to persons restricted to a sitting position. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3860   Powered wheelchair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered wheelchair is a battery-operated device with wheels that is intended for medical purposes to provide mobility to persons restricted to a sitting position. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3880   Special grade wheelchair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A special grade wheelchair is a device with wheels that is intended for medical purposes to provide mobility to persons restricted to a sitting position. It is intended to be used in all environments for long-term use, e.g., for paraplegics, quadraplegics, and amputees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3890   Stair-climbing wheelchair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stair-climbing wheelchair is a device with wheels that is intended for medical purposes to provide mobility to persons restricted to a sitting position. The device is intended to climb stairs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance testing must demonstrate adequate mechanical performance under simulated use conditions and environments. Performance testing must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Fatigue testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Resistance to dynamic loads (impact testing);
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective use of the braking mechanism and how the device stops in case of an electrical brake failure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstration of adequate stability of the device on inclined planes (forward, backward, and lateral);
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstration of the ability of the device to safely ascend and descend obstacles (i.e., stairs, curb); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Demonstration of ability to effectively use the device during adverse temperatures and following storage in adverse temperatures and humidity conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) The skin-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Software design, verification, and validation must demonstrate that the device controls, alarms, and user interfaces function as intended.
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate analysis and performance testing must be conducted to verify electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Performance testing must demonstrate battery safety and evaluate longevity.
</P>
<P>(7) Performance testing must evaluate the flammability of device components.
</P>
<P>(8) Patient labeling must bear all information required for the safe and effective use of the device, specifically including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear description of the technological features of the device and the principles of how the device works;
</P>
<P>(ii) A clear description of the appropriate use environments/conditions, including prohibited environments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Preventive maintenance recommendations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Operating specifications for proper use of the device such as patient weight limitations, device width, and clearance for maneuverability; and
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed summary of the device-related adverse events and how to report any complications.
</P>
<P>(9) Clinician labeling must include all the information in the Patient labeling noted in paragraph (b)(8) of this section but must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of patients who can effectively operate the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Instructions on how to fit, modify, or calibrate the device.
</P>
<P>(10) Usability studies of the device must demonstrate that the device can be used by the patient in the intended use environment with the instructions for use and user training.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20782, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3900   Standup wheelchair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A standup wheelchair is a device with wheels that is intended for medical purposes to provide mobility to persons restricted to a sitting position. The device incorporates an external manually controlled mechanical system that is intended to raise a paraplegic to an upright position by means of an elevating seat.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3910   Wheelchair accessory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wheelchair accessory is a device intended for medical purposes that is sold separately from a wheelchair and is intended to meet the specific needs of a patient who uses a wheelchair. Examples of wheelchair accessories include but are not limited to the following: armboard, lapboard, pusher cuff, crutch and cane holder, overhead suspension sling, head and trunk support, and blanket and leg rest strap.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). If the device is not intended for use as a protective restraint as defined in § 880.6760 of this chapter, it is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 8439, Mar. 4, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55994, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3920   Wheelchair component.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wheelchair component is a device intended for medical purposes that is generally sold as an integral part of a wheelchair, but may also be sold separately as a replacement part. Examples of wheelchair components are the following: Armrest, narrowing attachment, belt, extension brake, curb climber, cushion, antitip device, footrest, handrim, hill holder, leg rest, heel loops, and toe loops.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 63014, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3930   Wheelchair elevator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permanently mounted wheelchair platform lift</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A permanently mounted wheelchair platform lift is a motorized vertical or inclined platform lift device permanently installed in one location that is intended for use in mitigating mobility impairment caused by injury or other disease by providing a guided platform to move a person from one level to another, with or without a wheelchair.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The permanently mounted wheelchair platform lift is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to § 890.9 and the following conditions for exemption:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized edition of ASME A18.1 “Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chair Lifts”) must demonstrate that the safety controls are adequate to prevent a free fall of the platform in the event of a device failure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized edition of ASME A18.1 “Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chair Lifts”) must demonstrate the ability of the device to withstand the rated load with an appropriate factor of safety;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized edition of ASME A18.1 “Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chair Lifts”) must demonstrate the ability of the enclosures to prevent the user from falling from the device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized editions of AAMI/ANSI/IEC 60601-1-2, “Medical Electrical Equipment—Part 1-2: General Requirements for Safety—Collateral Standard: Electromagnetic Compatibility—Requirements and Tests,” and ASME A18.1 “Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chair Lifts”) must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Portable wheelchair elevators</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A portable wheelchair elevator is a motorized lift device that is not permanently mounted in one location and that is intended for use in mitigating mobility impairment caused by injury or other disease by providing a means to move a person, with or without a wheelchair, from one level to another (e.g., portable platform lifts, attendant-operated stair climbing devices for wheelchairs).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 14015, Mar. 4, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.3940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.4.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.3940   Wheelchair platform scale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wheelchair platform scale is a device with a base designed to accommodate a wheelchair. It is intended for medical purposes to weigh a person who is confined to a wheelchair.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 63015, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Physical Medicine Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5050   Daily activity assist device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A daily activity assist device is a modified adaptor or utensil (e.g., a dressing, grooming, recreational activity, transfer, eating, or homemaking aid) that is intended for medical purposes to assist a patient to perform a specific function.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, the device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38817, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5100   Immersion hydrobath.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An immersion hydrobath is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of water agitators and that may include a tub to be filled with water. The water temperature may be measured by a gauge. It is used in hydrotherapy to relieve pain and itching and as an aid in the healing process of inflamed and traumatized tissue, and it serves as a setting for removal of contaminated tissue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a hydromassage bath or a powered sitz bath, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5110   Paraffin bath.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A paraffin bath is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a tub to be filled with liquid paraffin (wax) and maintained at an elevated temperature in which the patient's appendages (e.g., hands or fingers) are placed to relieve pain and stiffness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5125" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5125   Nonpowered sitz bath.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered sitz bath is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a tub to be filled with water for use in external hydrotherapy to relieve pain or pruritis and to accelerate the healing of inflamed or traumatized tissues of the perianal and perineal areas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 25052, June 12, 1989; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5150" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5150   Powered patient transport.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Powered patient stairway chair lifts</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A powered patient stairway chair lift is a motorized lift equipped with a seat and permanently mounted in one location that is intended for use in mitigating mobility impairment caused by injury or other disease by moving a person up and down a stairway.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. The stairway chair lift is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to § 890.9 and the following conditions for exemption:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized edition of American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) A18.1 “Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chair Lifts”) must demonstrate that the safety controls are adequate to prevent a free fall of the chair in the event of a device failure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must demonstrate the ability of the device, including armrests, to withstand the rated load with an appropriate factor of safety;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate restraints must be provided to prevent the user from falling from the device (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized edition of ASME A18.1 “Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chair Lifts”);
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing (such as that outlined in the currently FDA-recognized editions of AAMI/ANSI/IEC 60601-1-2, “Medical Electrical Equipment—Part 1-2: General Requirements for Safety—Collateral Standard: Electromagnetic Compatibility—Requirements and Tests,” and ASME A18.1 “Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chair Lifts”) must validate electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety; and
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate analysis and nonclinical testing must demonstrate the resistance of the device upholstery to ignition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>All other powered patient transport</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A powered patient transport is a motorized device intended for use in mitigating mobility impairment caused by injury or other disease by moving a person from one location or level to another, such as up and down flights of stairs (e.g., attendant-operated portable stair-climbing chairs). This generic type of device does not include motorized three-wheeled vehicles or wheelchairs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 14017, Mar. 4, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5160" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5160   Air-fluidized bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An air-fluidized bed is a device employing the circulation of filtered air through ceramic spherules (small, round ceramic objects) that is intended for medical purposes to treat or prevent bedsores, to treat severe or extensive burns, or to aid circulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5170   Powered flotation therapy bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered flotation therapy bed is a device that is equipped with a mattress that contains a large volume of constantly moving water, air, mud, or sand. It is intended for medical purposes to treat or prevent a patient's bedsores, to treat severe or extensive burns, or to aid circulation. The mattress may be electrically heated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5180   Manual patient rotation bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual patient rotation bed is a device that turns a patient who is restricted to a reclining position. It is intended for medical purposes to treat or prevent bedsores, to treat severe and extensive burns, or to aid circulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1963, as amended at 65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5225" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5225   Powered patient rotation bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered patient rotation bed is a device that turns a patient who is restricted to a reclining position. It is intended for medical purposes to treat or prevent bedsores, to treat severe and extensive burns, urinary tract blockage, and to aid circulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5250" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5250   Moist steam cabinet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A moist steam cabinet is a device intended for medical purposes that delivers a flow of heated, moisturized air to a patient in an enclosed unit. It is used to treat arthritis and fibrosis (a formation of fibrosis tissue) and to increase local blood flow.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5275" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5275   Microwave diathermy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Microwave diathermy for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A microwave diathermy for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions is a device that applies to specific areas of the body electromagnetic energy in the microwave frequency bands of 915 megahertz to 2,450 megahertz and that is intended to generate deep heat within body tissues for the treatment of selected medical conditions such as relief of pain, muscle spasms, and joint contractures, but not for the treatment of malignancies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Microwave diathermy for all other uses</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A microwave diathermy for all other uses except for the treatment of malignancies is a device that applies to the body electromagnetic energy in the microwave frequency bands of 915 megahertz to 2,450 megahertz and that is intended for the treatment of medical conditions by means other than the generation of deep heat within body tissues as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or a notice of completion of a PDP for a device described in paragraph (b) of this section is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 13, 1999, for any microwave diathermy described in paragraph (b) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 13, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to a microwave diathermy described in paragraph (b) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other microwave diathermy described in paragraph (b) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17742, May 11, 1987; 64 FR 18331, Apr. 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5290" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5290   Shortwave diathermy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Shortwave diathermy for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A shortwave diathermy for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions is a device that applies to specific areas of the body electromagnetic energy in the radiofrequency (RF) bands of 13.56 megahertz (MHz) or 27.12 MHz and that is intended to generate deep heat within body tissues for the treatment of selected medical conditions such as relief of pain, muscle spasms, and joint contractures, but not for the treatment of malignancies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonthermal shortwave therapy</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> A nonthermal shortwave therapy is a prescription device that applies to the body pulsed electromagnetic energy in the RF bands of 13.56 MHz or 27.12 MHz and that is intended for adjunctive use in the palliative treatment of postoperative pain and edema of soft tissue by means other than the generation of deep heat within body tissues as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification: Class II (special controls).</I> The device is classified as class II. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) Components of the device that come into human contact must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate analysis/testing must demonstrate that the device is electrically safe and electromagnetically compatible in its intended use environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Non-clinical performance testing must characterize the output waveform of the device and demonstrate that the device meets appropriate output performance specifications. The output characteristics and the methods used to determine these characteristics, including the following, must be determined:
</P>
<P>(A) Peak output power;
</P>
<P>(B) Pulse width;
</P>
<P>(C) Pulse frequency;
</P>
<P>(D) Duty cycle;
</P>
<P>(E) Characteristics of other types of modulation that may be used;
</P>
<P>(F) Average measured output powered into the RF antenna/applicator;
</P>
<P>(G) Specific absorption rates in saline gel test load or other appropriate model;
</P>
<P>(H) Characterization of the electrical and magnetic fields in saline gel test load or other appropriate model for each RF antenna and prescribed RF antenna orientation/position; and
</P>
<P>(I) Characterization of the deposited energy density in saline gel test load or other appropriate model.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to use of the device to demonstrate the effectiveness of the device in its intended use.
</P>
<P>(v) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Output characteristics of the device;
</P>
<P>(B) Recommended treatment regimes, including duration of use; and
</P>
<P>(C) A detailed summary of the clinical testing pertinent to the use of the device and a summary of the adverse events and complications.
</P>
<P>(vi) Nonthermal shortwave therapy devices marketed prior to the effective date of this reclassification must submit an amendment to their previously cleared premarket notification (510(k)) demonstrating compliance with these special controls.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17742, May 11, 1987; 80 FR 61302, Oct. 13, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5300   Ultrasonic diathermy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ultrasonic diathermy for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic diathermy for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions is a device that applies to specific areas of the body ultrasonic energy at a frequency beyond 20 kilohertz and that is intended to generate deep heat within body tissues for the treatment of selected medical conditions such as relief of pain, muscle spasms, and joint contractures, but not for the treatment of malignancies. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ultrasonic diathermy for all other uses</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic diathermy for all other uses except for the treatment of malignancies is a device that applies to the body ultrasonic energy at a frequency beyond 20 kilohertz and that is intended for the treatment of medical conditions by means other than the generation of deep heat within body tissues as described in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP for a device described in paragraph (b) of this section is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 13, 1999, for any ultrasonic diathermy described in paragraph (b) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 13, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to an ultrasonic diathermy described in paragraph (b) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other ultrasonic diathermy described in paragraph (b) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17742, May 11, 1987; 64 FR 18331, Apr. 14, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5350   Exercise component.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An exercise component is a device that is used in conjunction with other forms of exercise and that is intended for medical purposes, such as to redevelope muscles or restore motion to joints or for use as an adjunct treatment for obesity. Examples include weights, dumbbells, straps, and adaptive hand mitts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5360   Measuring exercise equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Measuring exercise equipment consist of manual devices intended for medical purposes, such as to redevelop muscles or restore motion to joints or for use as an adjunct treatment for obesity. These devices also include instrumentation, such as the pulse rate monitor, that provide information used for physical evaluation and physical planning purposes., Examples include a therapeutic exercise bicycle with measuring instrumentation, a manually propelled treadmill with measuring instrumentation, and a rowing machine with measuring instrumentation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is a measuring exerciser or an interactive rehabilitation exercise device for prescription use only, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019; 85 FR 44188, July 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5370   Nonmeasuring exercise equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Nonmeasuring exercise equipment consist of devices intended for medical purposes, such as to redevelop muscles or restore motion to joints or for use as an adjunct treatment for obesity. Examples include a prone scooter board, parallel bars, a mechanical treadmill, an exercise table, and a manually propelled exercise bicycle. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5380   Powered exercise equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Powered exercise equipment consist of powered devices intended for medical purposes, such as to redevelop muscles or restore motion to joints or for use as an adjunct treatment for obesity. Examples include a powered treadmill, a powered bicycle, and powered parallel bars. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5410   Powered finger exerciser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered finger exerciser is a device intended for medical purposes to increase flexion and the extension range of motion of the joints of the second to the fifth fingers of the hand.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5420   Electroencephalography (EEG)-driven upper extremity powered exerciser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An EEG-driven upper extremity powered exerciser is a non-invasive prescription device intended for rehabilitation by driving movement or exercise of an impaired upper extremity in response to the detection of purpose oriented electrical activity produced by the patient's brain.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Testing must capture any adverse events observed during clinical use and must demonstrate that the EEG signal can be translated into intended motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance data must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, battery safety, and wireless compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(4) The device components that contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(5) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions on fitting the device to the patient;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on how the device operates and the typical sensations experienced during treatment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reprocessing instructions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 983, Jan. 6, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5500   Infrared lamp.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An infrared lamp is a device intended for medical purposes that emits energy at infrared frequencies (approximately 700 nanometers to 50,000 nanometers) to provide topical heating. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is an infrared therapeutic heating lamp, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5525" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5525   Iontophoresis device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Iontophoresis device intended for certain specified uses</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An iontophoresis device is a device that is intended to use a direct current to introduce ions of soluble salts or other drugs into the body and induce sweating for use in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis or for other uses if the labeling of the drug intended for use with the device bears adequate directions for the device's use with that drug. When used in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis, the sweat is collected and its composition and weight are determined. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Iontophoresis device intended for any other purposes</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An iontophoresis device intended for any other purposes is a prescription device that is intended to use a current to introduce ions of drugs or non-drug solutions into the body for medical purposes other than those specified in paragraph (a) of this section, meaning that the device is not intended for use in diagnosis of cystic fibrosis, or a specific drug is not specified in the labeling of the iontophoresis device.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is classified as class II. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(i) The following performance testing must be conducted:
</P>
<P>(A) Testing using a drug approved for iontophoretic delivery, or a solution if identified in the labeling, to demonstrate safe use of the device as intended;
</P>
<P>(B) Testing of the ability of the device to maintain a safe pH level; and
</P>
<P>(C) If used in the ear, testing of the device to demonstrate mechanical safety.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeling must include adequate instructions for use, including sufficient information for the health care provider to determine the device characteristics that affect delivery of the drug or solution and to select appropriate drug or solution dosing information for administration by iontophoresis. This includes the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description and/or graphical representation of the electrical output;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the electrode materials and pH buffer;
</P>
<P>(C) When intended for general drug delivery, language referring the user to drug labeling approved for iontophoretic delivery to determine if the drug they intend to deliver is specifically approved for use with that type of device and to obtain relevant dosing information; and
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed summary of the device-related and procedure-related complications pertinent to use of the device, and appropriate warnings and contraindications, including the following warning:
</P>
<P><I>Warning:</I> Potential systemic adverse effects may result from use of this device. Drugs or solutions delivered with this device have the potential to reach the blood stream and cause systemic effects. Carefully read all labeling of the drug or solution used with this device to understand all potential adverse effects and to ensure appropriate dosing information. If systemic manifestations occur, refer to the drug or solution labeling for appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate analysis/testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility, electrical safety, thermal safety, and mechanical safety.
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(v) The elements of the device that may contact the patient must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(vi) The elements of the device that may contact the patient must be assessed for sterility, for devices labeled as sterile.
</P>
<P>(vii) Performance data must support the shelf life of the elements of the device that may be affected by aging by demonstrating continued package integrity and device functionality over the stated shelf life.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17742, May 11, 1987; 81 FR 48706, July 26, 2016; 83 FR 13864, Apr. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5575" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5575   Powered external limb overload warning device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered external limb overload warning device is a device intended for medical purposes to warn a patient of an overload or an underload in the amount of pressure placed on a leg. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5650   Powered inflatable tube massager.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered inflatable tube massager is a powered device intended for medical purposes, such as to relieve minor muscle aches and pains and to increase circulation. It simulates kneading and stroking of tissues with the hands by use of an inflatable pressure cuff. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5660   Therapeutic massager.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A therapeutic massager is an electrically powered device intended for medical purposes, such as to relieve minor muscle aches and pains. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5670   Internal therapeutic massager.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hand-held internal therapeutic massager device is a prescription device intended for medical purposes to manually provide direct pressure applied to localized areas of pain or tenderness in the myofascial tissue associated with chronic pelvic pain syndromes. The device is inserted rectally or vaginally and provides quantitative feedback to the user of the applied force to the target tissue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device, when it is for prescription use only with a quantitative feedback mechanism and a disposable covering, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Labeling must include adequate directions for use.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate electromagnetic compatibility (EMC), electrical safety and mechanical safety.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical durability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Accuracy of the feedback mechanism.
</P>
<P>(4) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 57323, Oct. 25, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 44188, July 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5700   Cold pack.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cold pack is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a compact fabric envelope containing a specially hydrated pliable silicate gel capable of forming to the contour of the body and that provides cold therapy for body surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807. The device also is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]

 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5710   Hot or cold disposable pack.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A hot or cold disposable pack is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a sealed plastic bag incorporating chemicals that, upon activation, provides hot or cold therapy for body surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). Except when intended for use on infants, the device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1963, as amended at 65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5720   Water circulating hot or cold pack.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A water circulating hot or cold pack is a device intended for medical purposes that operates by pumping heated or chilled water through a plastic bag and that provides hot or cold therapy for body surfaces.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5730   Moist heat pack.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A moist heat pack is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of silica gel in a fabric container used to retain an elevated temperature and that provides moist heat therapy for body surfaces.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5740   Powered heating pad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered heating pad is an electrical device intended for medical purposes that provides dry heat therapy for body surfaces. It is capable of maintaining an elevated temperature during use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E part 807 of this chapter subject to § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5760   Nonpowered lower extremity pressure wrap.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonpowered lower extremity pressure wrap is a prescription device that applies mechanical pressure by wrapping around the lower extremity, such as the leg or foot, and is intended for primary Restless Leg Syndrome.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 37950, July 3, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5765" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5765   Pressure-applying device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pressure-applying device is a device intended for medical purposes to apply continuous pressure to the paravertebral tissues for muscular relaxation and neuro-inhibition. It consists of a table with an adjustable overhead weight that, in place of the therapist's hands, presses on the back of a prone patient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 59 FR 63015, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5800" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5800   Virtual reality behavioral therapy device for pain relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A virtual reality behavioral therapy device for pain relief is a device intended to provide behavioral therapy for patients with pain. Therapy is administered via a virtual reality display that utilizes a software program containing the behavioral therapy content.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical performance testing under the labeled conditions for use must validate the model of behavioral therapy as implemented by the device and evaluate all adverse events.
</P>
<P>(2) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) Electromagnetic compatibility and electrical, mechanical, and thermal safety testing must be performed.
</P>
<P>(5) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning regarding the risk of nausea and motion sickness;
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning regarding the risk of discomfort from the device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the clinical testing with the device.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 985, Jan. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5850   Powered muscle stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered muscle stimulator is an electrically powered device intended for medical purposes that repeatedly contracts muscles by passing electrical currents through electrodes contacting the affected body area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5860   Ultrasound and muscle stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ultrasound and muscle stimulator for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasound and muscle stimulator for use in applying therapeutic deep heat for selected medical conditions is a device that applies to specific areas of the body ultrasonic energy at a frequency beyond 20 kilohertz and that is intended to generate deep heat within body tissues for the treatment of selected medical conditions such as relief of pain, muscle spasms, and joint contractures, but not for the treatment of malignancies. The device also passes electrical currents through the body area to stimulate or relax muscles.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ultrasound and muscle stimulator for all other uses</I>—(1) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasound and muscle stimulator for all other uses except for the treatment of malignancies is a device that applies to the body ultrasonic energy at a frequency beyond 20 kilohertz and applies to the body electrical currents and that is intended for the treatment of medical conditions by means other than the generation of deep heat within body tissues and the stimulation or relaxation of muscles as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date PMA or notice of completion of PDP is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP for a device described in paragraph (b) of this section is required to be filed with the Food and Drug Administration on or before July 13, 1999 for any ultrasound and muscle stimulator described in paragraph (b) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, on or before July 13, 1999, been found to be substantially equivalent to an ultrasound and muscle stimulator described in paragraph (b) of this section that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other ultrasound and muscle stimulator described in paragraph (b) of this section shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 17742, May 11, 1987; 64 FR 18331, Apr. 14, 1999]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5870   Non-invasive bone growth stimulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-invasive bone growth stimulator is a prescription device that provides stimulation through electrical, magnetic, or ultrasonic fields. The device is intended to be used externally to promote osteogenesis as an adjunct to primary treatments for fracture fixation and spinal fusion or as a treatment for established nonunions or failed fusions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Imaging data must demonstrate fusion at the treatment site.
</P>
<P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. Critical performance and safety characteristics of the device, considering the operational modality of the device, must be verified and validated to ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Intended design outputs are delivered to the patient;
</P>
<P>(ii) Thermal safety and thermal reliability;
</P>
<P>(iii) Signal characteristics are within safe physiologic limits; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Device reliability is consistent with the expected use-life.
</P>
<P>(3) Patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(4) Performance data must demonstrate the electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility of the device.
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Labeling comprehension testing must demonstrate the patient can correctly use the device based solely on reading the instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(7) Labeling for the device must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Warning against use on compromised skin or when there are known skin sensitivities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate warnings for patients with implanted medical devices;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed summary of the supporting clinical data, which includes the clinical outcomes associated with the use of the device, and a summary of adverse events and complications that occurred with the device;
</P>
<P>(iv) A clear description of the device;
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions on appropriate usage, duration, and frequency of use;
</P>
<P>(vi) Instructions for maintenance and safe disposal;
</P>
<P>(vii) Validated instructions for appropriate cleaning of any reusable components;
</P>
<P>(viii) Specific warnings regarding user burns, electrical shock, and skin irritation; and
</P>
<P>(ix) The risks and benefits associated with use of the device when used as intended.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 20362, Apr. 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5880   Multi-function physical therapy table.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A multi-function physical therapy table is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of a motorized table equipped to provide patients with heat, traction, and muscle relaxation therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5900   Power traction equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Powered traction equipment consists of powered devices intended for medical purposes for use in conjunction with traction accessories, such as belts and harnesses, to exert therapeutic pulling forces on the patient's body. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (performance standards). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5925" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5925   Traction accessory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A traction accessory is a nonpowered accessory device intended for medical purposes to be used with powered traction equipment to aid in exerting therapeutic pulling forces on the patient's body. This generic type of device includes the pulley, strap, head halter, and pelvic belt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5940   Chilling unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A chilling unit is a refrigerative device intended for medical purposes to chill and maintain cold packs at a reduced temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5950   Powered heating unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered heating unit is a device intended for medical purposes that consists of an encased cabinet containing hot water and that is intended to heat and maintain hot packs at an elevated temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 890.5975" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.32.6.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 890.5975   Therapeutic vibrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A therapeutic vibrator is an electrically powered device intended for medical purposes that incorporates various kinds of pads and that is held in the hand or attached to the hand or to a table. It is intended for various uses, such as relaxing muscles and relieving minor aches and pains.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 890.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="892" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 892—RADIOLOGY DEVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360<I>l,</I> 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 892 appear at 73 FR 35341, June 23, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the classification of radiology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provision of a regulation in this part but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid duplicative listings, a radiology device that has two or more types of uses (e.g., use both as a diagnostic device and a therapeutic device) is listed in one subpart only.
</P>
<P>(d) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of this title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(e) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm..</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 73 FR 40969, July 17, 2008; 78 FR 18233, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.3   Effective dates of requirement for premarket approval.</HEAD>
<P>A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.
</P>
<P>(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act, FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.
</P>
<P>(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.9   Limitations of exemptions from section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act).</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:
</P>
<P>(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;
</P>
<P>(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or
</P>
<P>(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;
</P>
<P>(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;
</P>
<P>(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;
</P>
<P>(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;
</P>
<P>(5) For use in diabetes management;
</P>
<P>(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;
</P>
<P>(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;
</P>
<P>(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(9) For near patient testing (point of care).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Diagnostic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1000" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1000   Magnetic resonance diagnostic device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A magnetic resonance diagnostic device is intended for general diagnostic use to present images which reflect the spatial distribution and/or magnetic resonance spectra which reflect frequency and distribution of nuclei exhibiting nuclear magnetic resonance. Other physical parameters derived from the images and/or spectra may also be produced. The device includes hydrogen-1 (proton) imaging, sodium-23 imaging, hydrogen-1 spectroscopy, phosphorus-31 spectroscopy, and chemical shift imaging (preserving simultaneous frequency and spatial information). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A magnetic resonance imaging disposable kit intended for use with a magnetic resonance diagnostic device only is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 5078, Feb. 1, 1989, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1001" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1001   Liver iron concentration imaging companion diagnostic for deferasirox.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> The liver iron concentration imaging companion diagnostic for deferasirox is an image processing device intended to aid in the identification and monitoring of non-transfusion-dependent thalassemia patients receiving therapy with deferasirox. The device calculates a numeric value for liver iron concentration based on magnetic resonance images acquired under controlled conditions. The calculated numeric value is used to assess the need for deferasirox treatment and for monitoring treatment in patients with non-transfusion-dependent thalassemia. The liver iron concentration imaging companion diagnostic for deferasirox is essential to the safe and effective use of deferasirox in patients with non-transfusion-dependent thalassemia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include nonclinical and clinical performance testing demonstrating the bias, precision, repeatability, and reproducibility of liver iron concentration measurements.
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include specifying:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for acceptance testing of images prior to processing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Data processing quality assurance protocols; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sensitivity and specificity of liver iron concentration measurements.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40735, Aug. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1100   Scintillation (gamma) camera.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A scintillation (gamma) camera is a device intended to image the distribution of radionuclides in the body by means of a photon radiation detector. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, radionuclide anatomical markers, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48443, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 66 FR 46953, Sept. 10, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1110" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1110   Positron camera.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A positron camera is a device intended to image the distribution of positron-emitting radionuclides in the body. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, radionuclide anatomical markers, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 66 FR 46953, Sept. 10, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1130" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1130   Nuclear whole body counter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear whole body counter is a device intended to measure the amount of radionuclides in the entire body. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63015, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]
</CITA>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1170" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1170   Bone densitometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone densitometer is a device intended for medical purposes to measure bone density and mineral content by x-ray or gamma ray transmission measurements through the bone and adjacent tissues. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1180" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1180   Bone sonometer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A bone sonometer is a device that transmits ultrasound energy into the human body to measure acoustic properties of bone that indicate overall bone health and fracture risk. The primary components of the device are a voltage generator, a transmitting transducer, a receiving transducer, and hardware and software for reception and processing of the received ultrasonic signal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for this device is FDA's “Guidance for Industry and FDA Staff; Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Bone Sonometers.” See § 892.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 40969, July 17, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1200" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1200   Emission computed tomography system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An emission computed tomography system is a device intended to detect the location and distribution of gamma ray- and positron-emitting radionuclides in the body and produce cross-sectional images through computer reconstruction of the data. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, radionuclide anatomical markers, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1220" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1220   Fluorescent scanner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A fluorescent scanner is a device intended to measure the induced fluorescent radiation in the body by exposing the body to certain x-rays or low-energy gamma rays. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1300   Nuclear rectilinear scanner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear rectilinear scanner is a device intended to image the distribution of radionuclides in the body by means of a detector (or detectors) whose position moves in two directions with respect to the patient. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, radionuclide anatomical markers, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1310" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1310   Nuclear tomography system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear tomography system is a device intended to detect nuclear radiation in the body and produce images of a specific cross-sectional plane of the body by blurring or eliminating detail from other planes. This generic type of devices may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, radionuclide anatomical markers, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1320" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1320   Nuclear uptake probe.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear uptake probe is a device intended to measure the amount of radionuclide taken up by a particular organ or body region. This generic type of device may include a single or multiple detector probe, signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1330" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1330   Nuclear whole body scanner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear whole body scanner is a device intended to measure and image the distribution of radionuclides in the body by means of a wide-aperture detector whose position moves in one direction with respect to the patient. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, radionuclide anatomical markers, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1350" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1350   Nuclear scanning bed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear scanning bed is an adjustable bed intended to support a patient during a nuclear medicine procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63015, Dec. 7, 1994; 65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1360" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1360   Radionuclide dose calibrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radionuclide dose calibrator is a radiation detection device intended to assay radionuclides before their administration to patients. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1370" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1370   Nuclear anthropomorphic phantom.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear anthropomorphic phantom is a human tissue facsimile that contains a radioactive source or a cavity in which a radioactive sample can be inserted. It is intended to calibrate nuclear uptake probes or other medical instruments. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13832, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38818, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1380" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1380   Nuclear flood source phantom.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear flood source phantom is a device that consists of a radiolucent container filled with a uniformly distributed solution of a desired radionuclide. It is intended to calibrate a medical gamma camera-collimator system for uniformity of response. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13832, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1390" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1390   Radionuclide rebreathing system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radionuclide rebreathing system is a device intended to be used to contain a gaseous or volatile radionuclide or a radionuclide-labeled aerosol and permit it to be respired by the patient during nuclear medicine ventilatory tests (testing process of exchange between the lungs and the atmosphere). This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1400" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1400   Nuclear sealed calibration source.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear sealed calibration source is a device that consists of an encapsulated reference radionuclide intended for calibration of medical nuclear radiation detectors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13832, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1410" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1410   Nuclear electrocardiograph synchronizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nuclear electrocardiograph synchronizer is a device intended for use in nuclear radiology to relate the time of image formation to the cardiac cycle during the production of dynamic cardiac images.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2322, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1420" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1420   Radionuclide test pattern phantom.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radionuclide test pattern phantom is a device that consists of an arrangement of radiopaque or radioactive material sealed in a solid pattern intended to serve as a test for a performance characteristic of a nuclear medicine imaging device. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 13832, Apr. 5, 1989; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1540" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1540   Nonfetal ultrasonic monitor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A nonfetal ultrasonic monitor is a device that projects a continuous high-frequency sound wave into body tissue other than a fetus to determine frequency changes (doppler shift) in the reflected wave and is intended for use in the investigation of nonfetal blood flow and other nonfetal body tissues in motion. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1550" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1550   Ultrasonic pulsed doppler imaging system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic pulsed doppler imaging system is a device that combines the features of continuous wave doppler-effect technology with pulsed-echo effect technology and is intended to determine stationary body tissue characteristics, such as depth or location of tissue interfaces or dynamic tissue characteristics such as velocity of blood or tissue motion. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1560" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1560   Ultrasonic pulsed echo imaging system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An ultrasonic pulsed echo imaging system is a device intended to project a pulsed sound beam into body tissue to determine the depth or location of the tissue interfaces and to measure the duration of an acoustic pulse from the transmitter to the tissue interface and back to the receiver. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A biopsy needle guide kit intended for use with an ultrasonic pulsed echo imaging system only is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1570" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1570   Diagnostic ultrasonic transducer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic ultrasonic transducer is a device made of a piezoelectric material that converts electrical signals into acoustic signals and acoustic signals into electrical signals and intended for use in diagnostic ultrasonic medical devices. Accessories of this generic type of device may include transmission media for acoustically coupling the transducer to the body surface, such as acoustic gel, paste, or a flexible fluid container. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1600" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1600   Angiographic x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An angiographic x-ray system is a device intended for radiologic visualization of the heart, blood vessels, or lymphatic system during or after injection of a contrast medium. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1610" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1610   Diagnostic x-ray beam-limiting device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic x-ray beam-limiting device is a device such as a collimator, a cone, or an aperture intended to restrict the dimensions of a diagnostic x-ray field by limiting the size of the primary x-ray beam. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1620" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1620   Cine or spot fluorographic x-ray camera.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cine or spot fluorographic x-ray camera is a device intended to photograph diagnostic images produced by x-rays with an image intensifier. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1630" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1630   Electrostatic x-ray imaging system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An electrostatic x-ray imaging system is a device intended for medical purposes that uses an electrostatic field across a semiconductive plate, a gas-filled chamber, or other similar device to convert a pattern of x-radiation into an electrostatic image and, subsequently, into a visible image. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1640" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1640   Radiographic film marking system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic film marking system is a device intended for medical purposes to add identification and other information onto radiographic film by means of exposure to visible light.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 63015, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1650   Image-intensified fluoroscopic x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An image-intensified fluoroscopic x-ray system is a device intended to visualize anatomical structures by converting a pattern of x-radiation into a visible image through electronic amplification. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). An anthrogram tray or radiology dental tray intended for use with an image-intensified fluoroscopic x-ray system only is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9. In addition, when intended as an accessory to the device described in paragraph (a) of this section, the fluoroscopic compression device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 57369, Nov. 15, 2001; 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1660" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1660   Non-image-intensified fluoroscopic x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A non-image-intensified fluoroscopic x-ray system is a device intended to be used to visualize anatomical structures by using a fluorescent screen to convert a pattern of x-radiation into a visible image. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1670" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1670   Spot-film device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A spot-film device is an electromechanical component of a fluoroscopic x-ray system that is intended to be used for medical purposes to position a radiographic film cassette to obtain radiographs during fluoroscopy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1680" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1680   Stationary x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A stationary x-ray system is a permanently installed diagnostic system intended to generate and control x-rays for examination of various anatomical regions. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A radiographic contrast tray or radiology diagnostic kit intended for use with a stationary x-ray system only is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71818, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1700   Diagnostic x-ray high voltage generator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic x-ray high voltage generator is a device that is intended to supply and control the electrical energy applied to a diagnostic x-ray tube for medical purposes. This generic type of device may include a converter that changes alternating current to direct current, filament transformers for the x-ray tube, high voltage switches, electrical protective devices, or other appropriate elements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1710   Mammographic x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mammographic x-ray system is a device intended to be used to produce radiographs of the breast. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1715" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1715   Full-field digital mammography system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A full-field digital mammography system is a device intended to produce planar digital x-ray images of the entire breast. This generic type of device may include digital mammography acquisition software, full-field digital image receptor, acquisition workstation, automatic exposure control, image processing and reconstruction programs, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special control for the device is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Full-Field Digital Mammography System.” <I>See</I> § 892.1(e) for the availability of this guidance document.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 68203, Nov. 5, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1720   Mobile x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A mobile x-ray system is a transportable device system intended to be used to generate and control x-ray for diagnostic procedures. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1730   Photofluorographic x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A photofluorographic x-ray system is a device that includes a fluoroscopic x-ray unit and a camera intended to be used to produce, then photograph, a fluoroscopic image of the body. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A discography kit intended for use with a photofluorographic x-ray system only is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1740   Tomographic x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A tomographic x-ray system is an x-ray device intended to be used to produce radiologic images of a specific cross-sectional plane of the body by blurring or eliminating detail from other planes. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1750   Computed tomography x-ray system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A computed tomography x-ray system is a diagnostic x-ray system intended to produce cross-sectional images of the body by computer reconstruction of x-ray transmission data from the same axial plane taken at different angles. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1760" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1760   Diagnostic x-ray tube housing assembly.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic x-ray tube housing assembly is an x-ray generating tube encased in a radiation-shielded housing that is intended for diagnostic purposes. This generic type of device may include high voltage and filament transformers or other appropriate components. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1770   Diagnostic x-ray tube mount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A diagnostic x-ray tube mount is a device intended to support and to position the diagnostic x-ray tube housing assembly for a medical radiographic procedure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1820" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1820   Pneumoencephalographic chair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A pneumoencephalographic chair is a chair intended to support and position a patient during pneumoencephalography (x-ray imaging of the brain). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1830" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1830   Radiologic patient cradle.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiologic patient cradle is a support device intended to be used for rotational positioning about the longitudinal axis of a patient during radiologic procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1840   Radiographic film.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Radiographic film is a device that consists of a thin sheet of radiotransparent material coated on one or both sides with a photographic emulsion intended to record images during diagnostic radiologic procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1850" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1850   Radiographic film cassette.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic film cassette is a device intended for use during diagnostic x-ray procedures to hold a radiographic film in close contact with an x-ray intensifying screen and to provide a light-proof enclosure for direct exposure of radiographic film. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1860" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1860   Radiographic film/cassette changer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic film/cassette changer is a device intended to be used during a radiologic procedure to move a radiographic film or cassette between x-ray exposures and to position it during the exposure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1870" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1870   Radiographic film/cassette changer programmer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic film/cassette changer programmer is a device intended to be used to control the operations of a film or cassette changer during serial medical radiography. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1880" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1880   Wall-mounted radiographic cassette holder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A wall-mounted radiographic cassette holder is a device that is a support intended to hold and position radiographic cassettes for a radiographic exposure for medical use. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1890" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1890   Radiographic film illuminator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic film illuminator is a device containing a visible light source covered with a translucent front that is intended to be used to view medical radiographs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1900   Automatic radiographic film processor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An automatic radiographic film processor is a device intended to be used to develop, fix, wash, and dry automatically and continuously film exposed for medical purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1910" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1910   Radiographic grid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic grid is a device that consists of alternating radiolucent and radiopaque strips intended to be placed between the patient and the image receptor to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the image receptor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1920" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1920   Radiographic head holder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic head holder is a device intended to position the patient's head during a radiographic procedure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1940" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1940   Radiologic quality assurance instrument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiologic quality assurance instrument is a device intended for medical purposes to measure a physical characteristic associated with another radiologic device. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1950" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1950   Radiographic anthropomorphic phantom.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic anthropomorphic phantom is a device intended for medical purposes to simulate a human body for positioning radiographic equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality management system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, except for requirements concerning records and complaint files under § 820.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001; 90 FR 55995, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1960" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1960   Radiographic intensifying screen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic intensifying screen is a device that is a thin radiolucent sheet coated with a luminescent material that transforms incident x-ray photons into visible light and intended for medical purposes to expose radiographic film.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1970" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1970   Radiographic ECG/respirator synchronizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiographic ECG/respirator synchronizer is a device intended to be used to coordinate an x-ray film exposure with the signal from an electrocardiograph (ECG) or respirator at a predetermined phase of the cardiac or respiratory cycle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48444, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1980" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1980   Radiologic table.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiologic table is a device intended for medical purposes to support a patient during radiologic procedures. The table may be fixed or tilting and may be electrically powered. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 59231, Nov. 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.1990" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.1990   Transilluminator for breast evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A transilluminator, also known as a diaphanoscope or lightscanner, is an electrically powered device that uses low intensity emissions of visible light and near-infrared radiation (approximately 700-1050 nanometers (nm)), transmitted through the breast, to visualize translucent tissue for the diagnosis of cancer, other conditions, diseases, or abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class III (premarket approval). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date premarket approval (PMA) or notice of completion of product development protocol (PDP) is required.</I> A PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required to be filed with FDA by April 17, 2014, for any transilluminator for breast evaluation that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has, by April 17, 2014, been found to be substantially equivalent to any transilluminator for breast evaluation that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Any other transilluminator for breast evaluation shall have an approved PMA or declared completed PDP in effect before being placed in commercial distribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36639, July 18, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 3094, Jan. 17, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2010" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2010   Medical image storage device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification:</I> A medical image storage device is a hardware device that provides electronic storage and retrieval functions for medical images. Examples include electronic hardware devices employing magnetic and optical discs, magnetic tapes, and digital memory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 23387, Apr. 29, 1998; 63 FR 44998, Aug. 24, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000; 86 FR 20284, Apr. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2020" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2020   Medical image communications device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical image communications device provides electronic transfer of medical image data between medical devices. It may include a physical communications medium, modems, and interfaces. It may provide simple image review software functionality for medical image processing and manipulation, such as grayscale window and level, zoom and pan, user delineated geometric measurements, compression, or user added image annotations. The device does not perform advanced image processing or complex quantitative functions. This does not include electronic transfer of medical image software functions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 23387, Apr. 29, 1998; 63 FR 44998, Aug. 24, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000, 86 FR 20283, Apr. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2030" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2030   Medical image digitizer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical image digitizer is a device intended to convert an analog medical image into a digital format. Examples include Iystems employing video frame grabbers, and scanners which use lasers or charge-coupled devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls; voluntary standards—Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) Std., Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) Std.). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 23387, Apr. 29, 1998, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2040" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2040   Medical image hardcopy device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical image hardcopy device is a device that produces a visible printed record of a medical image and associated identification information. Examples include multiformat cameras and laser printers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls; voluntary standards—Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) Std., Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) Std., Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) Test Pattern). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 23387, Apr. 29, 1998, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2050   Medical image management and processing system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical image management and processing system is a device that provides one or more capabilities relating to the review and digital processing of medical images for the purposes of interpretation by a trained practitioner of disease detection, diagnosis, or patient management. The software components may provide advanced or complex image processing functions for image manipulation, enhancement, or quantification that are intended for use in the interpretation and analysis of medical images. Advanced image manipulation functions may include image segmentation, multimodality image registration, or 3D visualization. Complex quantitative functions may include semi-automated measurements or time-series measurements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls; voluntary standards—Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) Std., Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) Std., Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) Test Pattern).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 23387, Apr. 29, 1998, as amended at 86 FR 20284, Apr. 19, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2055" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2055   Radiological machine learning-based quantitative imaging software with predetermined change control plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiological machine learning based quantitative imaging software with predetermined change control plan is a software-only device which employs machine learning algorithms on radiological images to provide quantitative imaging outputs. The device includes functions to support outputs such as view selection, segmentation and landmarking. The design specifications include planned modifications that may be made to the device consistent with an established predetermined change control plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the image postprocessing algorithms, including a detailed description of the algorithm inputs and outputs, each major component or block, and algorithm limitations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed description of training data including detailed annotation methods and important cohorts (<I>e.g.,</I> subsets defined by patient demographics, clinically relevant confounders, and subsets defined by image acquisition characteristics).
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance testing protocols and results that demonstrate that the underlying algorithms function as intended. The performance assessment must be based on objective performance measures (<I>e.g.,</I> error metrics, Bland-Altman plots, dice similarity coefficient, Hausdorff distance, sensitivity, specificity, predictive value). The test dataset must be independent from data used in training/development and contain sufficient numbers of cases from important cohorts (<I>e.g.,</I> subsets defined by clinically relevant confounders, effect modifiers, concomitant diseases, and subsets defined by image acquisition characteristics) such that the performance estimates and confidence intervals of the device for these individual subsets can be characterized for the intended use population and imaging equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the design verification and validation activities, you must document the planned device modifications of the quantitative imaging software, and the associated methodology for the development, verification, and validation of modifications made consistent with the performance requirements in the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) As part of the risk management activities, you must identify and assess the risks of the planned modification(s) and identify corresponding risk mitigations.
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the patient population for which the device was validated;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the intended user and expertise needed for safe use of the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the device inputs and outputs;
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of compatible imaging hardware and imaging protocols;
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed summary of the current performance of the device and a summary of the performance testing conducted to support safe and effective use of the device including test methods, dataset characteristics (including demographics), testing environment, results (with confidence intervals), and a summary of sub-analyses on case distributions stratified by relevant confounders;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of situations in which the device may fail or may not operate at its expected performance level (<I>e.g.,</I> poor image quality or for certain subpopulations), as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Labeling related to the predetermined change control plan (PCCP), including:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the device has a PCCP;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of modification(s) implemented for quantitative imaging and supporting algorithms, including a summary of current performance, associated inputs, validation requirements, and related evidence; and
</P>
<P>(C) A version history, a description of how device modification(s) will be implemented, and a description of how users will be informed of device modification(s) made in accordance with the PCCP.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 36524, June 17, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2060" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2060   Radiological computer-assisted diagnostic software for lesions suspicious of cancer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiological computer-assisted diagnostic software for lesions suspicious of cancer is an image processing prescription device intended to aid in the characterization of lesions as suspicious for cancer identified on acquired medical images such as magnetic resonance, mammography, radiography, or computed tomography. The device characterizes lesions based on features or information extracted from the images and provides information about the lesion(s) to the user. Diagnostic and patient management decisions are made by the clinical user.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the image analysis algorithms including, but not limited to, a detailed description of the algorithm inputs and outputs, each major component or block, and algorithm limitations.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of pre-specified performance testing protocols and dataset(s) used to assess whether the device will improve reader performance as intended.
</P>
<P>(iii) Results from performance testing protocols that demonstrate that the device improves reader performance in the intended use population when used in accordance with the instructions for use. The performance assessment must be based on appropriate diagnostic accuracy measures (<I>e.g.,</I> receiver operator characteristic plot, sensitivity, specificity, predictive value, and diagnostic likelihood ratio). The test dataset must contain sufficient numbers of cases from important cohorts (<I>e.g.,</I> subsets defined by clinically relevant confounders, effect modifiers, concomitant diseases, and subsets defined by image acquisition characteristics) such that the performance estimates and confidence intervals of the device for these individual subsets can be characterized for the intended use population and imaging equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Standalone performance testing protocols and results of the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate software documentation (<I>e.g.,</I> device hazard analysis; software requirements specification document; software design specification document; traceability analysis; and description of verification and validation activities including system level test protocol, pass/fail criteria, results, and cybersecurity).
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the patient population for which the device is indicated for use.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the intended reading protocol.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the intended user and recommended user training.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the device inputs and outputs.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed description of compatible imaging hardware and imaging protocols.
</P>
<P>(vi) Warnings, precautions, and limitations, including situations in which the device may fail or may not operate at its expected performance level (<I>e.g.,</I> poor image quality or for certain subpopulations), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(vii) Detailed instructions for use.
</P>
<P>(viii) A detailed summary of the performance testing, including: Test methods, dataset characteristics, results, and a summary of sub-analyses on case distributions stratified by relevant confounders (<I>e.g.,</I> lesion and organ characteristics, disease stages, and imaging equipment).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3542, Jan. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2070" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2070   Medical image analyzer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Medical image analyzers, including computer-assisted/aided detection (CADe) devices for mammography breast cancer, ultrasound breast lesions, radiograph lung nodules, and radiograph dental caries detection, is a prescription device that is intended to identify, mark, highlight, or in any other manner direct the clinicians' attention to portions of a radiology image that may reveal abnormalities during interpretation of patient radiology images by the clinicians. This device incorporates pattern recognition and data analysis capabilities and operates on previously acquired medical images. This device is not intended to replace the review by a qualified radiologist, and is not intended to be used for triage, or to recommend diagnosis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the image analysis algorithms including a description of the algorithm inputs and outputs, each major component or block, and algorithm limitations.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of pre-specified performance testing methods and dataset(s) used to assess whether the device will improve reader performance as intended and to characterize the standalone device performance. Performance testing includes one or more standalone tests, side-by-side comparisons, or a reader study, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Results from performance testing that demonstrate that the device improves reader performance in the intended use population when used in accordance with the instructions for use. The performance assessment must be based on appropriate diagnostic accuracy measures (<I>e.g.,</I> receiver operator characteristic plot, sensitivity, specificity, predictive value, and diagnostic likelihood ratio). The test dataset must contain a sufficient number of cases from important cohorts (<I>e.g.,</I> subsets defined by clinically relevant confounders, effect modifiers, concomitant diseases, and subsets defined by image acquisition characteristics) such that the performance estimates and confidence intervals of the device for these individual subsets can be characterized for the intended use population and imaging equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate software documentation (<I>e.g.,</I> device hazard analysis; software requirements specification document; software design specification document; traceability analysis; description of verification and validation activities including system level test protocol, pass/fail criteria, and results; and cybersecurity).
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the patient population for which the device is indicated for use.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the intended reading protocol.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the intended user and user training that addresses appropriate reading protocols for the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the device inputs and outputs.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed description of compatible imaging hardware and imaging protocols.
</P>
<P>(vi) Discussion of warnings, precautions, and limitations must include situations in which the device may fail or may not operate at its expected performance level (<I>e.g.,</I> poor image quality or for certain subpopulations), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(vii) Device operating instructions.
</P>
<P>(viii) A detailed summary of the performance testing, including: test methods, dataset characteristics, results, and a summary of sub-analyses on case distributions stratified by relevant confounders, such as lesion and organ characteristics, disease stages, and imaging equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3548, Jan. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2080" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2080   Radiological computer aided triage and notification software.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> Radiological computer aided triage and notification software is an image processing prescription device intended to aid in prioritization and triage of radiological medical images. The device notifies a designated list of clinicians of the availability of time sensitive radiological medical images for review based on computer aided image analysis of those images performed by the device. The device does not mark, highlight, or direct users' attention to a specific location in the original image. The device does not remove cases from a reading queue. The device operates in parallel with the standard of care, which remains the default option for all cases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the notification and triage algorithms and all underlying image analysis algorithms including, but not limited to, a detailed description of the algorithm inputs and outputs, each major component or block, how the algorithm affects or relates to clinical practice or patient care, and any algorithm limitations.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of pre-specified performance testing protocols and dataset(s) used to assess whether the device will provide effective triage (<I>e.g.,</I> improved time to review of prioritized images for pre-specified clinicians).
</P>
<P>(iii) Results from performance testing that demonstrate that the device will provide effective triage. The performance assessment must be based on an appropriate measure to estimate the clinical effectiveness. The test dataset must contain sufficient numbers of cases from important cohorts (<I>e.g.,</I> subsets defined by clinically relevant confounders, effect modifiers, associated diseases, and subsets defined by image acquisition characteristics) such that the performance estimates and confidence intervals for these individual subsets can be characterized with the device for the intended use population and imaging equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Stand-alone performance testing protocols and results of the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate software documentation (<I>e.g.,</I> device hazard analysis; software requirements specification document; software design specification document; traceability analysis; description of verification and validation activities including system level test protocol, pass/fail criteria, and results).
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the patient population for which the device is indicated for use;
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the intended user and user training that addresses appropriate use protocols for the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Discussion of warnings, precautions, and limitations must include situations in which the device may fail or may not operate at its expected performance level (<I>e.g.,</I> poor image quality for certain subpopulations), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of compatible imaging hardware, imaging protocols, and requirements for input images;
</P>
<P>(v) Device operating instructions; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed summary of the performance testing, including: test methods, dataset characteristics, triage effectiveness (<I>e.g.,</I> improved time to review of prioritized images for pre-specified clinicians), diagnostic accuracy of algorithms informing triage decision, and results with associated statistical uncertainty (<I>e.g.,</I> confidence intervals), including a summary of subanalyses on case distributions stratified by relevant confounders, such as lesion and organ characteristics, disease stages, and imaging equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3544, Jan. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.2090" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.2090   Radiological computer-assisted detection and diagnosis software.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiological computer-assisted detection and diagnostic software is an image processing device intended to aid in the detection, localization, and characterization of fracture, lesions, or other disease-specific findings on acquired medical images (<I>e.g.,</I> radiography, magnetic resonance, computed tomography). The device detects, identifies, and characterizes findings based on features or information extracted from images, and provides information about the presence, location, and characteristics of the findings to the user. The analysis is intended to inform the primary diagnostic and patient management decisions that are made by the clinical user. The device is not intended as a replacement for a complete clinician's review or their clinical judgment that takes into account other relevant information from the image or patient history.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the image analysis algorithm, including a description of the algorithm inputs and outputs, each major component or block, how the algorithm and output affects or relates to clinical practice or patient care, and any algorithm limitations.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of pre-specified performance testing protocols and dataset(s) used to assess whether the device will provide improved assisted-read detection and diagnostic performance as intended in the indicated user population(s), and to characterize the standalone device performance for labeling. Performance testing includes standalone test(s), side-by-side comparison(s), and/or a reader study, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Results from standalone performance testing used to characterize the independent performance of the device separate from aided user performance. The performance assessment must be based on appropriate diagnostic accuracy measures (<I>e.g.,</I> receiver operator characteristic plot, sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values, and diagnostic likelihood ratio). Devices with localization output must include localization accuracy testing as a component of standalone testing. The test dataset must be representative of the typical patient population with enrichment made only to ensure that the test dataset contains a sufficient number of cases from important cohorts (<I>e.g.,</I> subsets defined by clinically relevant confounders, effect modifiers, concomitant disease, and subsets defined by image acquisition characteristics) such that the performance estimates and confidence intervals of the device for these individual subsets can be characterized for the intended use population and imaging equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Results from performance testing that demonstrate that the device provides improved assisted-read detection and/or diagnostic performance as intended in the indicated user population(s) when used in accordance with the instructions for use. The reader population must be comprised of the intended user population in terms of clinical training, certification, and years of experience. The performance assessment must be based on appropriate diagnostic accuracy measures (<I>e.g.,</I> receiver operator characteristic plot, sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values, and diagnostic likelihood ratio). Test datasets must meet the requirements described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Appropriate software documentation, including device hazard analysis, software requirements specification document, software design specification document, traceability analysis, system level test protocol, pass/fail criteria, testing results, and cybersecurity measures.
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the patient population for which the device is indicated for use.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the device instructions for use, including the intended reading protocol and how the user should interpret the device output.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the intended user, and any user training materials or programs that address appropriate reading protocols for the device, to ensure that the end user is fully aware of how to interpret and apply the device output.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed description of the device inputs and outputs.
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed description of compatible imaging hardware and imaging protocols.
</P>
<P>(vi) Warnings, precautions, and limitations must include situations in which the device may fail or may not operate at its expected performance level (<I>e.g.,</I> poor image quality or for certain subpopulations), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(vii) A detailed summary of the performance testing, including test methods, dataset characteristics, results, and a summary of sub-analyses on case distributions stratified by relevant confounders, such as anatomical characteristics, patient demographics and medical history, user experience, and imaging equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 24970, June 13, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="892.2100" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.2.1.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>892.2100   Radiological acquisition and/or optimization guidance system.</HEAD>
<HEAD>892.2100   Radiological acquisition and/or optimization guidance system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiological acquisition and/or optimization guidance system is a device that is intended to aid in the acquisition and/or optimization of images and/or diagnostic signals. The device interfaces with the acquisition system, analyzes its output, and provides guidance and/or feedback to the operator for improving image and/or signal quality.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed, technical device description, including a detailed description of the impact of any software and hardware on the device's functions, the associated capabilities and limitations of each part, and the associated inputs and outputs.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed, technical report on the non-clinical performance testing of the subject device in the intended use environments, using relevant consensus standards when applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed report on the clinical performance testing, obtained from either clinical testing, accepted virtual/physical systems designed to capture clinical variability, comparison to a closely-related device with established clinical performance, or other sources that are justified appropriately. The choice of the method must be justified given the risk of the device and the general acceptance of the test methods. The report must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A thorough description of the testing protocol(s).
</P>
<P>(B) A thorough, quantitative evaluation of the diagnostic utility and quality of images/data acquired, or optimized, using the device.
</P>
<P>(C) A thorough, quantitative evaluation of the performance in a representative user population and patient population, under anticipated conditions and environments of use.
</P>
<P>(D) A thorough discussion on the generalizability of the clinical performance testing results.
</P>
<P>(E) A thorough discussion on use-related risk analysis/human factors data.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed protocol that describes, in the event of a future change, the level of change in the device technical specifications or indications for use at which the change or changes could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device and the risks posed by these changes. The assessment metrics, acceptance criteria, and analytical methods used for the performance testing of changes that are within the scope of the protocol must be included.
</P>
<P>(v) Documentation of an appropriate training program, including instructions on how to acquire and process quality images and video clips, and a report on usability testing demonstrating the effectiveness of that training program on user performance, including acquiring and processing quality images.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 801.109(c) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the device, including information on all required and/or compatible parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the patient population for which the device is indicated for use.
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the intended user population, and the recommended user training.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed instructions for use, including the information provided in the training program used to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) A warning that the images and data acquired using the device are to be interpreted only by qualified medical professionals.
</P>
<P>(vi) A detailed summary of the reports required under paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement on upholding the As Low As Reasonably Achievable (ALARA) principle with a discussion on the associated device controls/options.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 23285, June 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Therapeutic Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5050" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5050   Medical charged-particle radiation therapy system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical charged-particle radiation therapy system is a device that produces by acceleration high energy charged particles (e.g., electrons and protons) intended for use in radiation therapy. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, treatment planning computer programs, component parts, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. When intended for use as a quality control system, the film dosimetry system (film scanning system) included as an accessory to the device described in paragraph (a) of this section, is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 1125, Jan. 8, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5300" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5300   Medical neutron radiation therapy system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A medical neutron radiation therapy system is a device intended to generate high-energy neutrons for radiation therapy. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment support, treatment planning computer programs, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5650" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5650   Manual radionuclide applicator system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A manual radionuclide applicator system is a manually operated device intended to apply a radionuclide source into the body or to the surface of the body for radiation therapy. This generic type of device may include patient and equipment supports, component parts, treatment planning computer programs, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5700" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5700   Remote controlled radionuclide applicator system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A remote controlled radionuclide applicator system is an electromechanical or pneumatic device intended to enable an operator to apply, by remote control, a radionuclide source into the body or to the surface of the body for radiation therapy. This generic type of device may include patient and equipment supports, component parts, treatment planning computer programs, and accessories. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5710" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5710   Radiation therapy beam-shaping block.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiation therapy beam-shaping block is a device made of a highly attenuating material (such as lead) intended for medical purposes to modify the shape of a beam from a radiation therapy source. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5720" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5720   Rectal balloon for prostate immobilization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A rectal balloon for prostate immobilization is a single use, inflatable, non-powered positioning device placed in the rectum to immobilize the prostate in patients undergoing radiation therapy. The device is intended to be used during all the phases of radiation therapy, including treatment planning, image verification, and radiotherapy delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The premarket notification submission must include methodology and results of the following non-clinical and clinical performance testing:
</P>
<P>(i) Biocompatibility testing of the final finished device;
</P>
<P>(ii) If provided sterile, sterilization validation;
</P>
<P>(iii) If not provided sterile, bioburden testing of the final finished device;
</P>
<P>(iv) Shelf life and expiration date validation; and
</P>
<P>(v) Performance testing including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Venting mechanism (if device has a vent mechanism);
</P>
<P>(B) Safety mechanism(s) to prevent advancement beyond its intended safe placement; and
</P>
<P>(C) Structural integrity testing (<I>e.g.,</I> tensile strength, balloon leakage and burst strength).
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling that includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate warnings and contraindications, including, but not limited to the following statements:
</P>
<P>(A) “Do not transport the patient with the rectal balloon inserted. The balloon should be removed prior to transport.”;
</P>
<P>(B) “Failure to perform the standard imaging position verification protocol may cause the device to not perform as intended.”;
</P>
<P>(C) “Reduce the rectal balloon fill volume if the patient experiences discomfort due to the rectal balloon inflation.”; and
</P>
<P>(D) “Do not apply excessive pressure/force on the shaft or tubing of the rectal balloon.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate instructions for use on the proper insertion procedure, positioning, and inflation of the rectal balloon;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the device is sterile or non-sterile; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An expiration date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 61171, Dec. 27, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5725" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5725   Absorbable perirectal spacer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An absorbable perirectal spacer is composed of biodegradable material that temporarily positions the anterior rectal wall away from the prostate during radiotherapy for prostate cancer with the intent to reduce the radiation dose delivered to the anterior rectum. The absorbable spacer maintains space for the entire course of prostate radiotherapy treatment and is completely absorbed by the patient's body over time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) The premarket notification submission must include methodology and results of the following non-clinical and clinical performance testing. For all clinical investigations used to support premarket notification submissions for this type of device, line listings of the study data must be provided.
</P>
<P>(i) Performance bench testing must demonstrate appropriate perirectal space creation and maintenance for the duration of prostate radiotherapy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance bench testing must demonstrate that therapeutic radiation levels do not alter the performance of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance in vivo testing must demonstrate appropriate deployment of spacer as indicated in the accompanying labeling, and demonstrate appropriate expansion and absorption characteristics in a clinically relevant environment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Clinical study must demonstrate appropriate spacer stability and lack of migration for the entire course of radiotherapy, complete absorption, and lack of long term toxicity.
</P>
<P>(v) Sterility testing must demonstrate the sterility of the device and the effects of the sterilization process on the physical characteristics of the spacer.
</P>
<P>(vi) Shelf-life testing must demonstrate the stability of the physical characteristics of the spacer throughout the shelf-life as indicated in the accompanying labeling.
</P>
<P>(vii) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk management activities performed as part of the manufacturer's § 820.10(c) of this chapter design and development activities must document an appropriate end user initial training program which will be offered as part of efforts to mitigate the risk of failure to correctly operate the device, including, but not limited to, documentation of an appropriate end user initial training program on the proper spacer deployment technique.
</P>
<P>(3) The device labeling must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed summary of reported or observed complications related to the use of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate warnings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed instructions for system preparations and detailed implant procedure instructions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An expiration date that is supported by performance data as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 601, Jan. 5, 2018, as amended at 90 FR 55996, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5730" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5730   Radionuclide brachytherapy source.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radionuclide brachytherapy source is a device that consists of a radionuclide which may be enclosed in a sealed container made of gold, titanium, stainless steel, or platinum and intended for medical purposes to be placed onto a body surface or into a body cavity or tissue as a source of nuclear radiation for therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). A prostate seeding kit intended for use with a radionuclide brachytherapy source only is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 53047, Nov. 23, 1983, as amended at 84 FR 71819, Dec. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5740" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5740   Radionuclide teletherapy source.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radionuclide teletherapy source is a device consisting of a radionuclide enclosed in a sealed container. The device is intended for radiation therapy, with the radiation source located at a distance from the patient's body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63015, Dec. 7, 1994; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5750" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5750   Radionuclide radiation therapy system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radionuclide radiation therapy system is a device intended to permit an operator to administer gamma radiation therapy, with the radiation source located at a distance from the patient's body. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, treatment planning computer programs, component parts (including beam-limiting devices), and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5770" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5770   Powered radiation therapy patient support assembly.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powered radiation therapy patient support assembly is an electrically powered adjustable couch intended to support a patient during radiation therapy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5780" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5780   Light beam patient position indicator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A light beam patient position indicator is a device that projects a beam of light (incoherent light or laser) to determine the alignment of the patient with a radiation beam. The beam of light is intended to be used during radiologic procedures to ensure proper positioning of the patient and to monitor alignment of the radiation beam with the patient's anatomy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 66 FR 38819, July 25, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5785" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5785   Radiation therapy marking device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiation therapy marking device is a powered device that transdermally delivers a permanent or temporary colorant to the skin for the purpose of placing marks to guide radiation therapy. This classification does not include devices with reusable or reprocessed needles or devices intended for diagnostic, therapeutic, or aesthetic use or to deliver other products for these uses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation of performance data from studies that demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(A) The indicated colorant is compatible with the device and its method of delivery;
</P>
<P>(B) The device can reproducibly deliver the indicated colorant with the specifications described; and
</P>
<P>(C) The length of time that compatible colorants remain visible on the skin following device application.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of performance data from studies that demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(A) Accuracy and reproducibility of needle penetration depth;
</P>
<P>(B) Device protection from cross-contamination, including fluid ingress protection;
</P>
<P>(C) Adequacy of the cleaning and disinfection instructions to ensure that the reusable components of the device can be cleaned and disinfected; and
</P>
<P>(D) The sterility of all patient-contacting components (<I>e.g.,</I> safety needle).
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation of performance data from studies that demonstrate electrical safety and electromagnetic compatibility of all electrical components of the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation of performance data from studies that demonstrate continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the intended shelf life.
</P>
<P>(v) Documentation of software verification, validation, and hazard analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling required under § 801.109(c) of this chapter must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of the device and the mechanism of operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disposal instructions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A shelf life for all sterile components.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 23167, Apr. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5840" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5840   Radiation therapy simulation system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A radiation therapy simulation system is a fluoroscopic or radiographic x-ray system intended for use in localizing the volume to be exposed during radiation therapy and confirming the position and size of the therapeutic irradiation field produced. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, treatment planning computer programs, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5900" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5900   X-ray radiation therapy system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> An x-ray radiation therapy system is a device intended to produce and control x-rays used for radiation therapy. This generic type of device may include signal analysis and display equipment, patient and equipment supports, treatment planning computer programs, component parts, and accessories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.5930" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.5930   Therapeutic x-ray tube housing assembly.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A therapeutic x-ray tube housing assembly is an x-ray generating tube encased in a radiation-shielded housing intended for use in radiation therapy. This generic type of device may include high-voltage and filament transformers or other appropriate components when contained in radiation-shielded housing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Miscellaneous Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.6500" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.6500   Personnel protective shield.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A personnel protective shield is a device intended for medical purposes to protect the patient, the operator, or other persons from unnecessary exposure to radiation during radiologic procedures by providing an attenuating barrier to radiation. This generic type of device may include articles of clothing, furniture, and movable or stationary structures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 892.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 1567, Jan. 20, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 1125, Jan. 16, 1996; 65 FR 2323, Jan. 14, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 892.6510" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.33.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 892.6510   Cream for x-ray attenuation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A cream for x-ray attenuation is a sterile cream intended for use as a radiation shield. It is intended to be applied to the user's hand before donning gloves, or it may be applied on a glove on the hand, followed by donning a second glove. Cream for x-ray attenuation is intended to be used during medical procedures in which hands are necessarily exposed to radiation to offer some degree of protection from radiation exposure in the diagnostic imaging range of up to 130 kVp. This may include surgical procedures that require the use of fluoroscopy or radiography or other procedures. Cream for x-ray attenuation is not intended to be used in or adjacent to the primary x-ray beam or the transmitted beam and should not be used in lieu of a Radiographic Procedure Glove, which is used in radiography for those studies requiring the physician's hand or forearm be in the direct path of the primary x-ray beam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification.</I> Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
</P>
<P>(1) Design verification and validation must include documentation of results from safety and effectiveness testing. The results from safety and effectiveness testing must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Biocompatibility data consistent with the intended use for the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Sterilization, packaging, and expiration date testing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Nonclinical and/or clinical performance testing representative of “as use” conditions demonstrating:
</P>
<P>(A) Compatibility to the type(s) of surgical glove (<I>e.g.,</I> latex, nitrile, vinyl) to be used with the device;
</P>
<P>(B) Attenuation performance; and
</P>
<P>(C) Proper application of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) Labeling must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the device is sterile and an expiration date.
</P>
<P>(ii) A boxed warning statement prominently placed in all labeling material for these devices. That boxed warning statement must read: “The device is not intended to be used in or adjacent to the primary X-ray beam or transmitted beam and should not be used in lieu of a Radiographic Procedure Glove, which is used in radiography for those studies requiring the physician's hand or forearm be in the direct path of the primary X-ray beam.”
</P>
<P>(iii) The methods and results from nonclinical and/or clinical performance testing representative of “as use” conditions demonstrating the amount of attenuation the device provides to the end user at 60, 80, 100, and 120 kVp.
</P>
<P>(iv) Validated instructions for use for device application and a statement of how often the device must be removed and reapplied for effective shielding.
</P>
<P>(v) Identification of the type(s) of surgical glove (<I>e.g.,</I> latex, nitrile, vinyl) that is compatible for use with the device.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 27238, June 26, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="895" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 895—BANNED DEVICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 352, 360f, 360h, 360i, 371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 29221, May 18, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part describes the procedures by which the Commissioner may institute proceedings to make a device intended for human use that presents substantial deception or an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury a banned device. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to any “device”, as defined in section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (act) that is intended for human use. 
</P>
<P>(c) A device that is made a banned device in accordance with this part is adulterated under section 501(g) of the act. A restricted device that is banned may also be misbranded under section 502(q) of the act. 
</P>
<P>(d) Although this part does not cover devices intended for animal use, the manufacturer, distributor, importer, or any other person(s) responsible for the labeling of the device that is banned cannot avoid the ban by relabeling the device for veterinary use. A device that has been banned from human use but that also has a valid veterinary use may be marketed for use as a veterinary device only under the following conditions: The device shall comply with all requirements applicable to veterinary devices under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and this chapter, and the label for the device shall bear the following statement: “For Veterinary Use Only. Caution: Federal law prohibits the distribution of this device for human use.” A device so labeled, however, that is determined by the Food and Drug Administration to be intended for human use, will be considered to be a banned device. In determining whether such a device is intended for human use, the Food and Drug Administration will consider, among other things, the ultimate destination of the device. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.20   General.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner may initiate a proceeding to make a device a banned device whenever the Commissioner finds, on the basis of all available data and information, that the device presents substantial deception or an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury that the Commissioner determines cannot be, or has not been, corrected or eliminated by labeling or by a change in labeling, or by a change in advertising if the device is a restricted device. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 29221, May 18, 1979, as amended at 57 FR 58405, Dec. 10, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.21   Procedures for banning a device.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before initiating a proceeding to make a device a banned device, the Commissioner shall find that the continued marketing of the device presents a substantial deception or an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury. 
</P>
<P>(1) In determining whether the deception or risk of illness or injury is substantial, the Commissioner will consider whether the deception or risk posed by continued marketing of the device, or continued marketing of the device as presently labeled, is important, material, or significant in relation to the benefit to the public health from its continued marketing. 
</P>
<P>(2) In determining whether a device is deceptive, the Commissioner will consider whether users of the device may be deceived or otherwise harmed by the device. The Commissioner is not required to determine that there was an intent on the part of the manufacturer, distributor, importer, or any other responsible person(s) to mislead or otherwise harm users of the device or that there exists any actual proof of deception of, or injury to, an individual. 
</P>
<P>(3) In determining whether a device presents deception or risk of illness or injury, the Commissioner will consider all available data and information, including data and information that the Commissioner may obtain under other provisions of the act, data and information that may be supplied by the manufacturer, distributor, or importer of the device under § 895.22, and data and information voluntarily submitted by any other interested persons. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before initiating a proceeding to make a device a banned device, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner) may consult with the panel established under section 513 of the act that has expertise with respect to the type of device under consideration. The consultation with the panel may occur at a regular or specially scheduled panel meeting or may be accomplished by correspondence or telephone conversation with panel members. The Commissioner may request that the panel submit in writing any advice on the device under consideration. The Commissioner will record in written memoranda any oral communications with a panel or its members.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commissioner determines that any substantial deception or unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury or any unreasonable, direct, and substantial danger to the health of individuals presented by a device can be corrected or eliminated by labeling or change in labeling, or change in advertising if the device is a restricted device, the Commissioner will notify the responsible person of the required labeling or change in labeling or change in advertising in accordance with § 895.25. If such required relabeling or change in advertising is not accomplished in accordance with § 895.25, the Commissioner may initiate a proceeding to ban the device in accordance with § 895.21(d) and, when appropriate, may establish a special effective date in accordance with § 895.30. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commissioner decides to initiate a proceeding to make a device a banned device, a notice of proposed rulemaking will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to this effect. The notice will briefly summarize—
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner's finding under paragraph (a) of this section that the device presents substantial deception or an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury, and, when appropriate, the Commissioner's determination under § 895.30 that the deception or risk of illness or injury presents an unreasonable, direct, and substantial danger to the health of individuals; 
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons why the Commissioner initiated the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(3) The evaluation of data and information obtained under other provisions of the act, submitted by the manufacturer, distributer, or importer of the device, or voluntarily submitted by any other interested persons under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, if any; 
</P>
<P>(4) The consultation with the panel, if any, under paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) The determination as to whether the deception or risk of illness or injury or the danger to the health of individuals could be corrected by labeling or change in labeling, or change in advertising if the device is a restricted device; 
</P>
<P>(6) The determination of whether the required labeling or change of labeling, or change in advertising if the device is a restricted device, if any, has been made in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(7) The determination as to whether, and the reasons why, the banning should apply to devices already in commercial distribution or those already sold to the ultimate user, or both; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other data and information that the Commissioner believes are pertinent to the proceeding. The notice will afford all interested persons an opportunity to submit written comments within 30 days after the date of publication of the proposed regulation. All nonconfidential information upon which the proposed finding is based, including the recommendations of the panel, will be available for public review in the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) If, after reviewing the administrative record of the regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration, if any, the written comments received on the proposed regulation, and any additional available data and information, the Commissioner determines to ban a device, a final regulation to this effect will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The final regulation will amend subpart B by adding the name or description of the device, or both, to the list of banned devices. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Commissioner determines not to ban the device, a notice of withdrawal and termination of rulemaking proceedings and reasons therefor will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(f) The effective date of a final regulation to make a device a banned device, promulgated under paragraph (e) of this section, will be the date of publication of the final regulation in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless the Commissioner, for reasons stated, determines that the effective date should be later than the date of the publication and specifies that date in the notice. Each such regulation will specify whether devices already in commercial distribution or sold to the ultimate user or both are banned. 
</P>
<P>(g) A regulation promulgated under paragraph (e) of this section is final agency action, subject to judicial review under section 517 of the act. 
</P>
<P>(h) Upon petition of any interested person submitted in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter, or as a matter of discretion, the Commissioner may institute proceedings to amend or revoke a regulation that made a device a banned device if the Commissioner finds that the conditions that constituted the basis for the regulation banning the device are no longer applicable. When appropriate, the procedures in this section will be employed in such proceedings. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 29221, May 18, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 57 FR 58405, Dec. 10, 1992; 65 FR 43690, July 14, 2000; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.22   Submission of data and information by the manufacturer, distributor, or importer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer, distributor, or importer of a device may be required to submit to the Food and Drug Administration all relevant and available data and information to enable the Commissioner to determine whether the device presents substantial deception, unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury, or unreasonable, direct, and substantial danger to the health of individuals. The data and information required by the Commissioner may include scientific or test data, reports, records, or other information, including data and information on whether the device is safe and effective for its intended use or when used as directed, whether the device performs according to the claims made for the device, and information on adulteration or misbranding. Any relevant information that is voluntarily submitted will also be reviewed. 
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer, distributor, or importer of a device required to submit data and information as provided in paragraph (a) of this section will be notified in writing by the Food and Drug Administration that such data and information shall be submitted. The written notification will advise the manufacturer, distributor, or importer of the device that the purpose for the request is to enable the Commissioner to determine whether any of the conditions listed in paragraph (a) of this section or § 895.30(a)(1) exists with respect to the device such that a proceeding should be initiated to make the device a banned device. When the required data and information can be identified by the Food and Drug Administration at the time of the notification, the agency will provide such identification to the manufacturer, distributor, or importer of the device. 
</P>
<P>(c) The required data and information shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration no more than 30 days after the date of receipt of the request, unless the Commissioner determines that the data and information shall be submitted by some other date and so informs the manufacturer, distributor, or importer, in which case the data and information shall be submitted on the date specified by the Commissioner. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the data or information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration is sufficient to persuade the Commissioner that the deception or risk of illness or injury or the danger to the health of individuals presented by a device could be corrected or eliminated by labeling or change in labeling, or change in advertising if the device is a restricted device, the Commissioner will proceed in accordance with § 895.25. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the data or information submitted to the Food and Drug Administration is insufficient to show that the device does not present a substantial deception or an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury, or an unreasonable, direct, and substantial danger to the health of individuals, or if the manufacturer, distributor, or importer fails to submit the required information, the Commissioner may rely upon this insufficiency or failure to submit the required information in considering whether to initiate a proceeding to make the device a banned device under § 895.21(d) and, when appropriate, to establish a special effective date in accordance with § 895.30. The Commissioner may also initiate other regulatory action as provided in the act or this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.25   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Commissioner determines that the substantial deception or unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury or the unreasonable, direct, and substantial danger to the health of individuals presented by a device can be corrected or eliminated by labeling or a change in labeling, or change in advertising if the device is a restricted device, the Commissioner will provide written notice to the manufacturer, distributor, importer, or any other person(s) responsible for the labeling or advertising of the device specifying: 
</P>
<P>(1) The deception or risk of illness or injury or the danger to the health of individuals, 
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling or change in labeling, or change in advertising if the device is a restricted device, necessary to correct the deception or eliminate or reduce such risk or danger, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The period of time within which the labeling, change in labeling, or change in advertising must be accomplished. 
</P>
<P>(b) In specifying the labeling or change in labeling or change in advertising to correct the deception or to eliminate or reduce the risk of illness or injury or the danger to the health of individuals, the Commissioner may require the manufacturer, distributor, importer, or any other person(s) responsible for the labeling or advertising of the device to include in labeling for the device, and in advertising if the device is a restricted device, a statement, notice, or warning. Such statement, notice, or warning shall be in the manner and form prescribed by the Commissioner and shall identify the deception or risk of illness or injury or the unreasonable, direct, and substantial danger to the health of individuals associated with the device as previously labeled. Such statement, notice, or warning shall be used in the labeling and advertising of the device for a time period specified by the Commissioner on the basis of the degree of deception, risk of illness or injury, or danger to health; the frequency of sale of the device; the length of time the device has been on the market; the intended uses of the device; the method of its use; and any other factors that the Commissioner considers pertinent. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commissioner will allow a manufacturer, distributor, importer, or any other person(s) responsible for the labeling or advertising of the device a reasonable time, considering the deception or risk of illness or injury or the danger to the health of individuals presented by the device, within which to accomplish the required labeling, change in labeling, and, if the device is a restricted device, any change in advertising. The Commissioner may, however, request that no additional devices be introduced into commerce until the labeling or change in labeling, or change in advertising is accomplished by the manufacturer, distributor, importer, or other person(s) responsible for the labeling or advertising of the device. 
</P>
<P>(d) If such voluntary action is not taken, the Commissioner may take action under other sections of the act to prevent the introduction of the devices into commerce. The Commissioner may consider the failure of a manufacturer, distributor, importer, or any other person(s) responsible for the labeling or advertising of the device to accomplish the required labeling or change in labeling, or change in advertising in accordance with this section as a basis for initiating a proceeding to make a device a banned device in accordance with § 895.21(d) and when appropriate to establish a special effective date in accordance with § 895.30. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.30   Special effective date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner may declare a proposed regulation under § 895.21(d) to be effective upon its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and until the effective date of any final action taken respecting the regulation if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioner determines, on the basis of all available data and information, that the deception or risk of illness or injury associated with use of the device that is subject to the regulation presents an unreasonable, direct, and substantial danger to the health of individuals, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Before the date of the publication of such regulation, the Commissioner notifies the domestic manufacturer and importer, if any, of the device that the regulation is to be made so effective. If necessary, the Commissioner may also notify the distributor or any other responsible person(s). In addition, the Commissioner will attempt to notify any foreign manufacturer when the name and address of the foreign manufacturer are readily available. 
</P>
<P>(b) This procedure may be used when the Commissioner determines that the potential or actual injury involved is a serious one that the Commissioner believes will endanger the health of individuals who have been, or will be, exposed to the device. In assessing the degree of danger, the Commissioner need not find that the danger is immediate, and it shall be sufficient for the Commissioner to determine that the danger may involve a serious long-term risk. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commissioner makes a proposed regulation effective in accordance with this section, the Commissioner will, as expeditiously as possible, give interested persons prompt notice of this action in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and will provide an opportunity for an informal hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) After the hearing, if any, and after considering any written comments submitted on the proposal and any additional available information and data, the Commissioner will as expeditiously as possible either affirm, modify, or revoke the proposed regulation making the device a banned device. If the Commissioner decides to affirm or modify the proposed regulation to make a device a banned device, the Commissioner will amend subpart B by adding the name or description of the device, or both, to the list of banned devices. If the Commissioner decides to revoke a proposed regulation making a device a banned device, a notice of termination of rulemaking proceedings and reasons therefor will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(e) The Commissioner may declare the special effective date provided by this section to be in effect after the publication of a proposed regulation under § 895.21(d), if, based on new information, or upon reconsideration of previously available information, the Commissioner makes the determination and provides the appropriate notices and an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) Those devices that have been named banned devices under § 895.30 and that have already been sold to the public may be subject to relabeling by the manufacturer, distributor, importer, or any other person(s) responsible for the labeling of the device or may be subject to the provisions of section 518(a) or (b) of the act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 29221, May 18, 1979, as amended at 57 FR 58405, Dec. 10, 1992; 80 FR 31300, June 2, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Listing of Banned Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.101" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.101   Prosthetic hair fibers.</HEAD>
<P>Prosthetic hair fibers are devices intended for implantation into the human scalp to simulate natural hair or conceal baldness. Prosthetic hair fibers may consist of various materials; for example, synthetic fibers, such as modacrylic, polyacrylic, and polyester; and natural fibers, such as processed human hair. Excluded from the banned device are natural hair transplants, in which a person's hair and its surrounding tissue are surgically removed from one location on the person's scalp and then grafted onto another area of the person's scalp.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 25136, June 3, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.102" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.102   Powdered surgeon's glove.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powdered surgeon's glove is a device intended to be worn on the hands of operating room personnel to protect a surgical wound from contamination. A powdered surgeon's glove incorporates powder for purposes other than manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 91731, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.103" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.103   Powdered patient examination glove.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> A powdered patient examination glove is a disposable device intended for medical purposes that is worn on the examiner's hand or finger to prevent contamination between patient and examiner. A powdered patient examination glove incorporates powder for purposes other than manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 91731, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.104" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.104   Absorbable powder for lubricating a surgeon's glove.</HEAD>
<P>Absorbable powder for lubricating a surgeon's glove is a powder made from cornstarch that meets the specifications for absorbable powder in the United States Pharmacopeia (U.S.P.) and that is intended to be used to lubricate the surgeon's hand before putting on a surgeon's glove. The device is absorbable through biological degradation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 91731, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 895.105" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.34.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 895.105   Electrical stimulation devices for self-injurious or aggressive behavior.</HEAD>
<P>Electrical stimulation devices for self-injurious or aggressive behavior are aversive conditioning devices that apply a noxious electrical stimulus to a person's skin to reduce or cease self-injurious or aggressive behavior.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 13354, Mar. 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="898" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 898—PERFORMANCE STANDARD FOR ELECTRODE LEAD WIRES AND PATIENT CABLES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360c, 360d, 360gg-360ss, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 262, 264.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 25497, May 9, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 898.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.35.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 898.11   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Electrode lead wires and patient cables intended for use with a medical device shall be subject to the performance standard set forth in § 898.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 898.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.35.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 898.12   Performance standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any connector in a cable or electrode lead wire having a conductive connection to a patient shall be constructed in such a manner as to comply with subclause 56.3(c) of the following standard:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)
</P>
<P>601-1: Medical Electrical Equipment
</P>
<P>601-1 (1988) Part 1: General requirements for safety
</P>
<P>Amendment No. 1 (1991)
</P>
<P>Amendment No. 2 (1995).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Compliance with the standard shall be determined by inspection and by applying the test requirements and test methods of subclause 56.3(c) of the standard set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 898.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.35.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 898.13   Compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>The dates for compliance with the standard set forth in § 898.12(a) shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) For electrode lead wires and patient cables used with, or intended for use with, the following devices, the date for which compliance is required is May 11, 1998:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Listing of Devices for Which Compliance is Required Effective
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">May 11, 1998
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">21 CFR section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Device name
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73 BZQ</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">868.2375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monitor, Breathing Frequency. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73 FLS</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">868.2375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monitor (Apnea Detector), Ventilatory Effort.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DPS</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.2340</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrocardiograph.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DRG</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.2910</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transmitters and Receivers, Physiological Signal, Radio Frequency.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DRT</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.2300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monitor, Cardiac (including Cardiotachometer and Rate Alarm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DRX</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.2360</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrode, Electrocardiograph.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DSA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.2900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cable, Transducer and Electrode, Patient (including Connector).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DSH</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.2800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Recorder, Magnetic Tape, Medical.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DSI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.1025</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Detector and Alarm, Arrhythmia.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74 DXH</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870.2920</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transmitters and Receivers, Electrocardiograph, Telephone.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) For electrode lead wires and patient cables used with, or intended for use with, any other device, the date for which compliance is required is May 9, 2000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 898.14" NODE="21:8.0.1.1.35.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 898.14   Exemptions and variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for an exemption or variance shall be submitted in the form of a petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and shall comply with the requirements set out therein. The petition shall also contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the device, the class in which the device has been classified, and representative labeling showing the intended uses(s) of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons why compliance with the performance standard is unnecessary or unfeasible;
</P>
<P>(3) A complete description of alternative steps that are available, or that the petitioner has already taken, to ensure that a patient will not be inadvertently connected to hazardous voltages via an unprotected patient cable or electrode lead wire for intended use with the device; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other information justifying the exemption or variance.
</P>
<P>(b) An exemption or variance is not effective until the agency approves the request under § 10.30(e)(2)(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 62 FR 25477, May 9, 1997, § 898.14 was stayed pending Office of Management and Budget approval of information collection and recordkeeping requirements.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="I" NODE="21:8.0.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER I—MAMMOGRAPHY QUALITY STANDARDS ACT


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="900" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 900—MAMMOGRAPHY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360i, 360nn, 374(e); 42 U.S.C. 263b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997, unless otherwise noted. Republished and corrected at 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Accreditation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations set forth in this part implement the Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) (42 U.S.C. 263b). Subpart A of this part establishes procedures whereby an entity can apply to become a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved accreditation body to accredit facilities to be eligible to perform screening or diagnostic mammography services. Subpart A further establishes requirements and standards for accreditation bodies to ensure that all mammography facilities under the jurisdiction of the United States are adequately and consistently evaluated for compliance with national quality standards for mammography. Subpart B of this part establishes minimum national quality standards for mammography facilities to ensure safe, reliable, and accurate mammography. The regulations set forth in this part do not apply to facilities of the Department of Veterans Affairs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to subparts A, B, and C of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accreditation body</I> or <I>body</I> means an entity that has been approved by FDA under § 900.3(d) to accredit mammography facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action limits</I> or <I>action levels</I> means the minimum and maximum values of a quality assurance measurement that can be interpreted as representing acceptable performance with respect to the parameter being tested. Values less than the minimum or greater than the maximum action limit or level indicate that corrective action must be taken by the facility. Action limits or levels are also sometimes called control limits or levels.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adverse event</I> means an undesirable experience associated with mammography activities within the scope of 42 U.S.C. 263b. Adverse events include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Poor image quality;
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to send mammography reports within 30 days to the referring healthcare provider or in a timely manner to the self-referred patient; and


</P>
<P>(3) Use of personnel that do not meet the applicable requirements of § 900.12(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Air kerma</I> means kerma in a given mass of air. The unit used to measure the quantity of air kerma is the Gray (Gy). For X-rays with energies less than 300 kiloelectron volts (keV), 1 Gy = 100 rad. In air, 1 Gy of absorbed dose is delivered by 114 roentgens (R) of exposure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Breast implant</I> means a prosthetic device implanted in the breast.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calendar quarter</I> means any one of the following time periods during a given year: January 1 through March 31, April 1 through June 30, July 1 through September 30, or October 1 through December 31.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Category I</I> means medical educational activities that have been designated as Category I by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education (ACCME), the American Osteopathic Association (AOA), a state medical society, or an equivalent organization.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Certificate</I> means the certificate described in § 900.11(a).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certification</I> means the process of approval of a facility by FDA or a certification agency to provide mammography services.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Clinical image</I> means a mammogram.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual who chooses to comment or complain in reference to a mammography examination, including the patient or representative of the patient (<I>e.g.,</I> family member or referring healthcare provider).


</P>
<P>(l) <I>Continuing education unit</I> or <I>continuing education credit</I> means one contact hour of training.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Contact hour</I> means an hour of training received through direct instruction.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Direct instruction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Face-to-face interaction between instructor(s) and student(s), as when the instructor provides a lecture, conducts demonstrations, or reviews student performance; or
</P>
<P>(2) The administration and correction of student examinations by an instructor(s) with subsequent feedback to the student(s).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Direct supervision</I> means that:
</P>
<P>(1) During joint interpretation of mammograms, the supervising interpreting physician reviews, discusses, and confirms the diagnosis of the physician being supervised and signs the resulting report before it is entered into the patient's records; or
</P>
<P>(2) During the performance of a mammography examination or survey of the facility's equipment and quality assurance program, the supervisor is present to observe and correct, as needed, the performance of the individual being supervised who is performing the examination or conducting the survey.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Established operating level</I> means the value of a particular quality assurance parameter that has been established as an acceptable normal level by the facility's quality assurance program.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Facility</I> means a hospital, outpatient department, clinic, radiology practice, mobile unit, office of a physician, or other facility that conducts mammography activities, including the following: Operation of equipment to produce a mammogram, processing of the mammogram, initial interpretation of the mammogram, and maintaining viewing conditions for that interpretation. This term does not include a facility of the Department of Veterans Affairs.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>First allowable time</I> means the earliest time a resident physician is eligible to take the diagnostic radiology boards from an FDA-designated certifying body. The “first allowable time” may vary with the certifying body.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Interim regulations</I> means the regulations entitled “Requirements for Accrediting Bodies of Mammography Facilities” (58 FR 67558-67565) and “Quality Standards and Certification Requirements for Mammography Facilities” (58 FR 67565-67572), published by FDA on December 21, 1993, and amended on September 30, 1994 (59 FR 49808-49813). These regulations established the standards that had to be met by mammography facilities in order to lawfully operate between October 1, 1994, and April 28, 1999.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Interpreting physician</I> means a licensed physician who interprets mammograms and who meets the requirements set forth in § 900.12(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Kerma</I> means the sum of the initial energies of all the charged particles liberated by uncharged ionizing particles in a material of given mass.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Laterality</I> means the designation of either the right or left breast.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Lead interpreting physician</I> means the interpreting physician assigned the general responsibility for ensuring that a facility's quality assurance program meets all of the requirements of § 900.12(d) through (f). The administrative title and other supervisory responsibilities of the individual, if any, are left to the discretion of the facility.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Mammogram</I> means a radiographic image produced through mammography.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Mammographic modality</I> means a technology, within the scope of 42 U.S.C. 263b, for radiography of the breast. Examples are screen-film mammography, full field digital mammography, and digital breast tomosynthesis.


</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Mammography</I> means radiography of the breast, but, for the purposes of this part, does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiography of the breast performed during invasive interventions for localization or biopsy procedures;


</P>
<P>(2) Radiography of the breast performed with an investigational mammography device as part of a scientific study conducted in accordance with FDA's investigational device exemption regulations in part 812 of this chapter; or


</P>
<P>(3) Computed tomography of the breast.








</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Mammography equipment evaluation</I> means an onsite assessment of mammography unit or image processor performance by a medical physicist for the purpose of making a preliminary determination as to whether the equipment meets all of the applicable standards in § 900.12(b) and (e).
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Mammography medical outcomes audit</I> means a systematic collection of mammography results and the comparison of those results with outcomes data.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Mammography unit</I> or <I>units</I> means an assemblage of components for the production of X-rays for use during mammography, including, at a minimum: An X-ray generator, an X-ray control, a tube housing assembly, a beam limiting device, and the supporting structures for these components.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Mean optical density</I> means the average of the optical densities measured using phantom thicknesses of 2, 4, and 6 centimeters with values of kilovolt peak (kVp) clinically appropriate for those thicknesses.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Medical physicist</I> means a person trained in evaluating the performance of mammography equipment and facility quality assurance programs and who meets the qualifications for a medical physicist set forth in § 900.12(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>MQSA</I> means the Mammography Quality Standards Act.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Multi-reading</I> means two or more physicians, at least one of whom is an interpreting physician, interpreting the same mammogram.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Patient</I> means any individual who undergoes a mammography evaluation in a facility, regardless of whether the person is referred by a healthcare provider or is self-referred.


</P>
<P>(jj) <I>Phantom</I> means a test object used to simulate radiographic characteristics of compressed breast tissue and containing components that radiographically model aspects of breast disease and cancer.
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Phantom image</I> means a radiographic image of a phantom.
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Physical science</I> means physics, chemistry, radiation science (including medical physics and health physics), and engineering.
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Positive mammogram</I> means a mammogram that has an overall assessment of findings that are either “suspicious” or “highly suggestive of malignancy.”
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>Provisional certificate</I> means the provisional certificate described in § 900.11(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(oo) <I>Qualified instructor</I> means an individual whose training and experience adequately prepares him or her to carry out specified training assignments. Interpreting physicians, radiologic technologists, or medical physicists who meet the requirements of § 900.12(a) would be considered qualified instructors in their respective areas of mammography. Other examples of individuals who may be qualified instructors for the purpose of providing training to meet the regulations of this part include, but are not limited to, instructors in a post-high school training institution and manufacturer's representatives.
</P>
<P>(pp) <I>Quality control technologist</I> means an individual meeting the requirements of § 900.12(a)(2) who is responsible for those quality assurance responsibilities not assigned to the lead interpreting physician or to the medical physicist.
</P>
<P>(qq) <I>Radiographic equipment</I> means X-ray equipment used for the production of static X-ray images.
</P>
<P>(rr) <I>Radiologic technologist</I> means an individual specifically trained in the use of radiographic equipment and the positioning of patients for radiographic examinations and who meets the requirements set forth in § 900.12(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ss) <I>Serious adverse event</I> means an adverse advent that may significantly compromise clinical outcomes, or an adverse event for which a facility fails to take appropriate corrective action in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(tt) <I>Serious complaint</I> means a report of a serious adverse event.
</P>
<P>(uu) <I>Standard breast</I> means a 4.2 centimeter (cm) thick compressed breast consisting of 50 percent glandular and 50 percent adipose tissue.
</P>
<P>(vv) <I>Survey</I> means an onsite physics consultation and evaluation of a facility quality assurance program performed by a medical physicist.
</P>
<P>(ww) <I>Time cycle</I> means the film development time.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Traceable to a national standard</I> means an instrument is calibrated at either the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) or at a calibration laboratory that participates in a proficiency program with NIST at least once every 2 years and the results of the proficiency test conducted within 24 months of calibration show agreement within ±3 percent of the national standard in the mammography energy range.
</P>
<P>(yy) <I>Review physician</I> means a physician who, by meeting the requirements set out in § 900.4(c)(5), is qualified to review clinical images on behalf of the accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(zz) <I>Certification agency</I> means a State that has been approved by FDA under § 900.21 to certify mammography facilities.
</P>
<P>(aaa) <I>Performance indicators</I> mean the measures used to evaluate the certification agency's ability to conduct certification, inspection, and compliance activities.
</P>
<P>(bbb) <I>Authorization</I> means obtaining approval from FDA to utilize new or changed State regulations or procedures during the issuance, maintenance, and withdrawal of certificates by the certification agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 56558, Oct. 22, 1998; 64 FR 32407, June 17, 1999; 67 FR 5467, Feb. 6, 2002; 88 FR 15168, Mar. 10, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.3   Application for approval as an accreditation body.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Private nonprofit organizations or State agencies capable of meeting the requirements of this subpart A may apply for approval as accreditation bodies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for initial approval.</I> (1) An applicant seeking initial FDA approval as an accreditation body shall inform the Division of Mammography Quality Standards, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3621, Silver Spring, MD 20993, Attn: Program Management Branch, of its desire to be approved as an accreditation body and of its requested scope of authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Following receipt of the request, FDA will provide the applicant with additional information to aid in submission of an application for approval as an accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant shall furnish to FDA, at the address in § 900.3(b)(1), three copies of an application containing the following information, materials, and supporting documentation:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and phone number of the applicant and, if the applicant is not a State agency, evidence of nonprofit status (i.e., of fulfilling Internal Revenue Service requirements as a nonprofit organization);
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed description of the accreditation standards the applicant will require facilities to meet and a discussion substantiating their equivalence to FDA standards required under § 900.12;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed description of the applicant's accreditation review and decisionmaking process, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Procedures for performing accreditation and reaccreditation clinical image review in accordance with § 900.4(c), random clinical image reviews in accordance with § 900.4(f), and additional mammography review in accordance with § 900.12(j);
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for performing phantom image review;
</P>
<P>(C) Procedures for assessing mammography equipment evaluations and surveys;
</P>
<P>(D) Procedures for initiating and performing onsite visits to facilities;
</P>
<P>(E) Procedures for assessing facility personnel qualifications;
</P>
<P>(F) Copies of the accreditation application forms, guidelines, instructions, and other materials the applicant will send to facilities during the accreditation process, including an accreditation history form that requires each facility to provide a complete history of prior accreditation activities and a statement that all information and data submitted in the application is true and accurate, and that no material fact has been omitted;
</P>
<P>(G) Policies and procedures for notifying facilities of deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(H) Procedures for monitoring corrections of deficiencies by facilities;
</P>
<P>(I) Policies and procedures for suspending or revoking a facility's accreditation;
</P>
<P>(J) Policies and procedures that will ensure processing of accreditation applications and renewals within a timeframe approved by FDA and assurances that the body will adhere to such policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(K) A description of the applicant's appeals process for facilities contesting adverse accreditation status decisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Education, experience, and training requirements for the applicant's professional staff, including reviewers of clinical or phantom images;
</P>
<P>(v) Description of the applicant's electronic data management and analysis system with respect to accreditation review and decision processes and the applicant's ability to provide electronic data in a format compatible with FDA data systems;
</P>
<P>(vi) Resource analysis that demonstrates that the applicant's staffing, funding, and other resources are adequate to perform the required accreditation activities;
</P>
<P>(vii) Fee schedules with supporting cost data;
</P>
<P>(viii) Statement of policies and procedures established to avoid conflicts of interest or the appearance of conflicts of interest by the applicant's board members, commissioners, professional personnel (including reviewers of clinical and phantom images), consultants, administrative personnel, and other representatives of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(ix) Statement of policies and procedures established to protect confidential information the applicant will collect or receive in its role as an accreditation body;
</P>
<P>(x) Disclosure of any specific brand of imaging system or component, measuring device, software package, or other commercial product used in mammography that the applicant develops, sells, or distributes;
</P>
<P>(xi) Description of the applicant's consumer complaint mechanism;
</P>
<P>(xii) Satisfactory assurances that the applicant shall comply with the requirements of § 900.4; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any other information as may be required by FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application for renewal of approval.</I> An approved accreditation body that intends to continue to serve as an accreditation body beyond its current term shall apply to FDA for renewal or notify FDA of its plans not to apply for renewal in accordance with the following procedures and schedule:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 9 months before the date of expiration of a body's approval, the body shall inform FDA, at the address given in § 900.3(b)(1), of its intent to seek renewal.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify the applicant of the relevant information, materials, and supporting documentation required under § 900.3(b)(3) that the applicant shall submit as part of the renewal procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) At least 6 months before the date of expiration of a body's approval, the applicant shall furnish to FDA, at the address in § 900.3(b)(1), three copies of a renewal application containing the information, materials, and supporting documentation requested by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) No later than July 28, 1998, any accreditation body approved under the interim regulations published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of December 21, 1993 (58 FR 67558), that desires to continue to serve as an accreditation body under the final regulations shall apply for renewal of approval in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Any accreditation body that does not plan to renew its approval shall so notify FDA at the address given in paragraph (b)(1) of this section at least 9 months before the expiration of the body's term of approval.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rulings on applications for initial and renewed approval.</I> (1) FDA will conduct a review and evaluation to determine whether the applicant substantially meets the applicable requirements of this subpart and whether the accreditation standards the applicant will require facilities to meet are substantially the same as the quality standards published under subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify the applicant of any deficiencies in the application and request that those deficiencies be rectified within a specified time period. If the deficiencies are not rectified to FDA's satisfaction within the specified time period, the application for approval as an accreditation body may be rejected.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA shall notify the applicant whether the application has been approved or denied. That notification shall list any conditions associated with approval or state the bases for any denial.
</P>
<P>(4) The review of any application may include a meeting between FDA and representatives of the applicant at a time and location mutually acceptable to FDA and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(5) FDA will advise the applicant of the circumstances under which a denied application may be resubmitted.
</P>
<P>(6) If FDA does not reach a final decision on a renewal application in accordance with this paragraph before the expiration of an accreditation body's current term of approval, the approval will be deemed extended until the agency reaches a final decision on the application, unless an accreditation body does not rectify deficiencies in the application within the specified time period, as required in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relinquishment of authority.</I> An accreditation body that decides to relinquish its accreditation authority before expiration of the body's term of approval shall submit a letter of such intent to FDA, at the address in § 900.3(b)(1), at least 9 months before relinquishing such authority.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transfer of records.</I> An accreditation body that does not apply for renewal of accreditation body approval, is denied such approval by FDA, or relinquishes its accreditation authority and duties before expiration of its term of approval, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Transfer facility records and other related information as required by FDA to a location and according to a schedule approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) Notify, in a manner and time period approved by FDA, all facilities accredited or seeking accreditation by the body that the body will no longer have accreditation authority.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Scope of authority.</I> An accreditation body's term of approval is for a period not to exceed 7 years. FDA may limit the scope of accreditation authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 83 FR 13864, Apr. 2, 2018; 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.4   Standards for accreditation bodies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Code of conduct and general responsibilities.</I> The accreditation body shall accept the following responsibilities in order to ensure safe and accurate mammography at the facilities it accredits and shall perform these responsibilities in a manner that ensures the integrity and impartiality of accreditation body actions.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) When an accreditation body receives or discovers information that suggests inadequate image quality, or upon request by FDA, the accreditation body shall review a facility's clinical images or other aspects of a facility's practice to assist FDA in determining whether or not the facility's practice poses a serious risk to human health. Such reviews are in addition to the evaluation an accreditation body performs as part of the initial accreditation or renewal process for facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) If review by the accreditation body demonstrates that a problem does exist with respect to image quality or other aspects of a facility's compliance with quality standards, or upon request by FDA, the accreditation body shall require or monitor corrective actions, or suspend or revoke accreditation of the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) The accreditation body shall inform FDA as soon as possible but in no case longer than 2 business days after becoming aware of equipment or practices that pose a serious risk to human health.
</P>
<P>(3) The accreditation body shall establish and administer a quality assurance (QA) program that has been approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section. Such quality assurance program shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Include requirements for clinical image review and phantom image review;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that clinical and phantom images are evaluated consistently and accurately; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the methods and frequency of training and evaluation for clinical and phantom image reviewers, and the bases and procedures for removal of such reviewers.
</P>
<P>(4) The accreditation body shall establish measures that FDA has approved in accordance with § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section to reduce the possibility of conflict of interest or facility bias on the part of individuals acting on the body's behalf. Such individuals who review clinical or phantom images under the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section or who visit facilities under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section shall not review clinical or phantom images from or visit a facility with which such individuals maintain a relationship, or when it would otherwise be a conflict of interest for them to do so, or when they have a bias in favor of or against the facility.
</P>
<P>(5) The accreditation body may require specific equipment performance or design characteristics that FDA has approved. However, no accreditation body shall require, either explicitly or implicitly, the use of any specific brand of imaging system or component, measuring device, software package, or other commercial product as a condition for accreditation by the body, unless FDA determines that it is in the best interest of public health to do so.
</P>
<P>(i) Any representation, actual or implied, either orally, in sales literature, or in any other form of representation, that the purchase or use of a particular product brand is required in order for any facility to be accredited or certified under § 900.11(b), is prohibited, unless FDA approves such representation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless FDA has approved the exclusive use and promotion of a particular commercial product in accordance with this section, all products produced, distributed, or sold by an accreditation body or an organization that has a financial or other relationship with the accreditation body that may be a conflict of interest or have the appearance of a conflict of interest with the body's accreditation functions, shall bear a disclaimer stating that the purchase or use of such products is not required for accreditation or certification of any facility under § 900.11(b). Any representations about such products shall include a similar disclaimer.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) When an accreditation body denies accreditation to a facility, the accreditation body shall notify the facility in writing and explain the bases for its decision. The notification shall also describe the appeals process available from the accreditation body for the facility to contest the decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a facility has failed to become accredited after three consecutive attempts, no accreditation body shall accept an application for accreditation from the facility for a period of 1 year from the date of the most recent accreditation failure.


</P>
<P>(7) No accreditation body may establish requirements that preclude facilities from being accredited under § 900.11(b) by any other accreditation body, or require accreditation by itself under MQSA if another accreditation body is available to a facility.
</P>
<P>(8) The accreditation body shall obtain FDA authorization for any changes it proposes to make in any standards that FDA has previously accepted under § 900.3(d).
</P>
<P>(9) An accreditation body shall establish procedures to protect confidential information it collects or receives in its role as an accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(i) Nonpublic information collected from facilities for the purpose of carrying out accreditation body responsibilities shall not be used for any other purpose or disclosed, other than to FDA or its duly designated representatives, including State agencies, without the consent of the facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Nonpublic information that FDA or its duly designated representatives, including State agencies, share with the accreditation body concerning a facility that is accredited or undergoing accreditation by that body shall not be further disclosed except with the written permission of FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Monitoring facility compliance with quality standards.</I> (1) The accreditation body shall require that each facility it accredits meet standards for the performance of quality mammography that are substantially the same as those in this subpart and in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The accreditation body shall notify a facility regarding equipment, personnel, and other aspects of the facility's practice that do not meet such standards and advise the facility that such equipment, personnel, or other aspects of the practice should not be used by the facility for activities within the scope of part 900.
</P>
<P>(3) The accreditation body shall specify the actions that facilities shall take to correct deficiencies in equipment, personnel, and other aspects of the practice to ensure facility compliance with applicable standards.
</P>
<P>(4) If deficiencies cannot be corrected to ensure compliance with standards or if a facility is unwilling to take corrective actions, the accreditation body shall immediately so notify FDA, and shall suspend or revoke the facility's accreditation in accordance with the policies and procedures described under § 900.3(b)(3)(iii)(I).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clinical image review for accreditation and reaccreditation</I>—(1) <I>Frequency of review.</I> The accreditation body shall review clinical images from each facility accredited by the body at least once every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for clinical image attributes.</I> The accreditation body shall use the following attributes for all clinical image reviews, unless FDA has approved other attributes:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Positioning.</I> Sufficient breast tissue shall be imaged to ensure that cancers are not likely to be missed because of inadequate positioning.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Compression.</I> Compression shall be applied in a manner that minimizes the potential obscuring effect of overlying breast tissue and motion artifact.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exposure level.</I> Exposure level shall be adequate to visualize breast structures. Images shall be neither underexposed nor overexposed.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Contrast.</I> Image contrast shall permit differentiation of subtle tissue density differences.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sharpness.</I> Margins of normal breast structures shall be distinct and not blurred.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Noise.</I> Noise in the image shall not obscure breast structures or suggest the appearance of structures not actually present.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Artifacts.</I> Artifacts due to lint, processing, scratches, and other factors external to the breast shall not obscure breast structures or suggest the appearance of structures not actually present.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Examination identification.</I> Each image shall have the following information indicated on it in a permanent, legible, and unambiguous manner and placed so as not to obscure anatomic structures:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of the patient and an additional patient identifier.
</P>
<P>(B) Date of examination.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>View and laterality.</I> This information shall be placed on the image in a position near the axilla. Standardized codes specified by the accreditation body and approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section shall be used to identify view and laterality.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Facility name and location.</I> At a minimum, the location shall include the city, State, and zip code of the facility.
</P>
<P>(E) Technologist identification.
</P>
<P>(F) Cassette/screen identification.
</P>
<P>(G) Mammography unit identification, if there is more than one unit in the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scoring of clinical images.</I> Accreditation bodies shall establish and administer a system for scoring clinical images using all attributes specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (c)(2)(viii) of this section or an alternative system that FDA has approved in accordance with § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section. The scoring system shall include an evaluation for each attribute.
</P>
<P>(i) The accreditation body shall establish and employ criteria for acceptable and nonacceptable results for each of the 8 attributes as well as an overall pass-fail system for clinical image review that has been approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) All clinical images submitted by a facility to the accreditation body shall be reviewed independently by two or more review physicians.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Selection of clinical images for review.</I> Unless otherwise specified by FDA, the accreditation body shall require that for each mammography unit in the facility:
</P>
<P>(i) The facility shall submit craniocaudal (CC) and mediolateral oblique (MLO) views from two mammographic examinations that the facility produced during a time period specified by the accreditation body;
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical images submitted from one such mammographic examination for each unit shall be of dense breasts (predominance of glandular tissue) and the other shall be of fat-replaced breasts (predominance of adipose tissue);
</P>
<P>(iii) All clinical images submitted shall be images that the facility's interpreting physician(s) interpreted as negative or benign.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the facility has no clinical images meeting the requirements in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (c)(4)(iii) of this section, it shall so notify the accreditation body, which shall specify alternative clinical image selection methods that do not compromise care of the patient.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Review physicians.</I> Accreditation bodies shall ensure that all of their review physicians:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the interpreting physician requirements specified in § 900.12(a)(1) and meet such additional requirements as have been established by the accreditation body and approved by FDA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are trained and evaluated in the clinical image review process, for the types of clinical images to be evaluated by a review physician, by the accreditation body before designation as review physicians and periodically thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Clearly document their findings and reasons for assigning a particular score to any clinical image and provide information to the facility for use in improving the attributes for which significant deficiencies were identified.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Image management.</I> The accreditation body's QA program shall include a tracking system to ensure the security and return to the facility of all clinical images received and to ensure completion of all clinical image reviews by the body in a timely manner. The accreditation body shall return all clinical images to the facility within 60 days of their receipt by the body, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) If the clinical images are needed earlier by the facility for clinical purposes, the accreditation body shall cooperate with the facility to accommodate such needs.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a review physician identifies a suspicious abnormality on an image submitted for clinical image review, the accreditation body shall ensure that this information is provided to the facility and that the clinical images are returned to the facility. Both shall occur no later than 10-business days after identification of the suspected abnormality.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification of unsatisfactory image quality.</I> If the accreditation body determines that the clinical images received from a facility are of unsatisfactory quality, the body shall notify the facility of the nature of the problem and its possible causes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Phantom image review for accreditation and reaccreditation</I>—(1) <I>Frequency of review.</I> The accreditation body shall review phantom images from each facility accredited by the body at least once every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for the phantom used.</I> The accreditation body shall require that each facility submit for review phantom images that the facility produced using a phantom and methods of use specified by the body and approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scoring phantom images.</I> The accreditation body shall use a system for scoring phantom images that has been approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(b) and (d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Phantom images selected for review.</I> For each mammography unit in the facility, the accreditation body shall require the facility to submit phantom images that the facility produced during a time period specified by the body.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Phantom image reviewers.</I> Accreditation bodies shall ensure that all of their phantom image reviewers:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the requirements specified in § 900.12(a)(3) or alternative requirements established by the accreditation body and approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3 or paragraph (a)(8) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are trained and evaluated in the phantom image review process, for the types of phantom images to be evaluated by a phantom image reviewer, by the accreditation body before designation as phantom image reviewers and periodically thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Clearly document their findings and reasons for assigning a particular score to any phantom image and provide information to the facility for use in improving its phantom image quality with regard to the significant deficiencies identified.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Image management.</I> The accreditation body's QA program shall include a tracking system to ensure the security of all phantom images received and to ensure completion of all phantom image reviews by the body in a timely manner. All phantom images that result in a failure of accreditation shall be returned to the facility.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification measures for unsatisfactory image quality.</I> If the accreditation body determines that the phantom images received from a facility are of unsatisfactory quality, the body shall notify the facility of the nature of the problem and its possible causes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reports of mammography equipment evaluation, surveys, and quality control.</I> The following requirements apply to all facility equipment covered by the provisions of subparts A and B:
</P>
<P>(1) The accreditation body shall require every facility applying for accreditation to submit:
</P>
<P>(i) With its initial accreditation application, a mammography equipment evaluation that was performed by a medical physicist no earlier than 6 months before the date of application for accreditation by the facility. Such evaluation shall demonstrate compliance of the facility's equipment with the requirements in § 900.12(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to accreditation, a survey that was performed no earlier than 6 months before the date of application for accreditation by the facility. Such survey shall assess the facility's compliance with the facility standards referenced in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The accreditation body shall require that all facilities undergo an annual survey to ensure continued compliance with the standards referenced in paragraph (b) of this section and to provide continued oversight of facilities' quality control programs as they relate to such standards. The accreditation body shall require for all facilities that:
</P>
<P>(i) Such surveys be conducted annually;
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilities take reasonable steps to ensure that they receive reports of such surveys within 30 days of survey completion; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Facilities submit the results of such surveys and any other information that the body may require to the body at least annually.
</P>
<P>(3) The accreditation body shall review and analyze the information required in this section and use it to identify necessary corrective measures for facilities and to determine whether facilities should remain accredited by the body.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accreditation body onsite visits and random clinical image reviews.</I> The accreditation body shall conduct onsite visits and random clinical image reviews of a sample of facilities to monitor and assess their compliance with standards established by the body for accreditation. The accreditation body shall submit annually to FDA, at the address given in § 900.3(b)(1), 3 copies of a summary report describing all facility assessments the body conducted under the provisions of this section for the year being reported.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Onsite visits</I>—(i) <I>Sample size.</I> Annually, each accreditation body shall visit at least 5 percent of the facilities it accredits. However, a minimum of 5 facilities shall be visited, and visits to no more than 50 facilities are required, unless problems identified in paragraph (f)(1)(i)(B) of this section indicate a need to visit more than 50 facilities.
</P>
<P>(A) At least 50 percent of the facilities visited shall be selected randomly.
</P>
<P>(B) Other facilities visited shall be selected based on problems identified through State or FDA inspections, serious complaints received from consumers or others, a previous history of noncompliance, or any other information in the possession of the accreditation body, inspectors, or FDA.
</P>
<P>(C) Before, during, or after any facility visit, the accreditation body may require that the facility submit to the body for review clinical images, phantom images, or any other information relevant to applicable standards in this subpart and in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Visit plan.</I> The accreditation body shall conduct facility onsite visits according to a visit plan that has been approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section, unless otherwise directed by FDA in particular circumstances. At a minimum, such a plan shall provide for:
</P>
<P>(A) Assessment of overall clinical image QA activities of the facility;
</P>
<P>(B) Review of facility documentation to determine if appropriate mammography reports are sent to patients and providers as required;


</P>
<P>(C) Selection of a sample of clinical images for clinical image review by the accreditation body. Clinical images shall be selected in a manner specified by the accreditation body and approved by FDA that does not compromise care of the patient as a result of the absence of the selected images from the facility;
</P>
<P>(D) Verification that the facility has a medical audit system in place and is correlating films and pathology reports for positive cases;
</P>
<P>(E) Verification that personnel specified by the facility are the ones actually performing designated personnel functions;
</P>
<P>(F) Verification that equipment specified by the facility is the equipment that is actually being used to perform designated equipment functions;
</P>
<P>(G) Verification that a consumer complaint mechanism is in place and that the facility is following its procedures; and
</P>
<P>(H) Review of all factors related to previously identified concerns or concerns identified during that visit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clinical image review for random sample of facilities</I>—(i) <I>Sample size.</I> In addition to conducting clinical image reviews for accreditation and reaccreditation for all facilities, the accreditation body shall conduct clinical image reviews annually for a randomly selected sample as specified by FDA, but to include at least 3 percent of the facilities the body accredits. Accreditation bodies may count toward this random sample requirement all facilities selected randomly for the onsite visits described in paragraph (f)(1)(i)(A) of this section. Accreditation bodies shall not count toward the random sample requirement any facilities described in paragraph (f)(1)(i)(B) of this section that were selected for a visit because of previously identified concerns.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Random clinical image review.</I> In performing clinical image reviews of the random sample of facilities, accreditation bodies shall evaluate the same attributes as those in paragraph (c) of this section for review of clinical images for accreditation and reaccreditation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Accreditation bodies should not schedule random clinical image reviews at facilities that have received notification of the need to begin the accreditation renewal process or that have completed the accreditation renewal process within the previous 6 months.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Selection of the random sample of clinical images for clinical image review by the accreditation body.</I> Clinical images shall be selected in a manner, specified by the accreditation body and approved by FDA under § 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that does not compromise care of the patient as a result of the absence of the selected images from the facility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer complaint mechanism.</I> The accreditation body shall develop and administer a written and documented system, including timeframes, for collecting and resolving serious consumer complaints that could not be resolved at a facility. Such system shall have been approved by FDA in accordance with§ 900.3(d) or paragraph (a)(8) of this section. Accordingly, all accreditation bodies shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a mechanism for all facilities it accredits to file serious unresolved complaints with the accreditation body;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain a record of every serious unresolved complaint received by the body on all facilities it accredits for a period of at least 3 years from the date of receipt of each such complaint;
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reporting and recordkeeping.</I> All reports to FDA specified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(4) of this section shall be prepared and submitted in a format and medium prescribed by FDA and shall be submitted to a location and according to a schedule specified by FDA. The accreditation body shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Collect and submit to FDA the information required by 42 U.S.C. 263b(d) for each facility when the facility is initially accredited and at least annually when updated, in a manner and at a time specified by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) Accept applications containing the information required in 42 U.S.C. 263b(c)(2) for provisional certificates and in § 900.11(b)(3) for extension of provisional certificates, on behalf of FDA, and notify FDA of the receipt of such information;
</P>
<P>(3) Submit to FDA the name, identifying information, and other information relevant to 42 U.S.C. 263b and specified by FDA for any facility for which the accreditation body denies, suspends, or revokes accreditation, and the reason(s) for such action;
</P>
<P>(4) Submit to FDA an annual report summarizing all serious complaints received during the previous calendar year, their resolution status, and any actions taken in response to them;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide to FDA other information relevant to 42 U.S.C. 263b and required by FDA about any facility accredited or undergoing accreditation by the body.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fees.</I> Fees charged to facilities for accreditation shall be reasonable. Costs of accreditation body activities that are not related to accreditation functions under 42 U.S.C. 263b are not recoverable through fees established for accreditation.
</P>
<P>(1) The accreditation body shall make public its fee structure, including those factors, if any, contributing to variations in fees for different facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) At FDA's request, accreditation bodies shall provide financial records or other material to assist FDA in assessing the reasonableness of accreditation body fees. Such material shall be provided to FDA in a manner and time period specified by the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 32407, June 17, 1999; 88 FR 15168, Mar. 10, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.5   Evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>FDA shall evaluate annually the performance of each accreditation body. Such evaluation shall include an assessment of the reports of FDA or State inspections of facilities accredited by the body as well as any additional information deemed relevant by FDA that has been provided by the accreditation body or other sources or has been required by FDA as part of its oversight initiatives. The evaluation shall include a determination of whether there are major deficiencies in the accreditation body's performance that, if not corrected, would warrant withdrawal of the approval of the accreditation body under the provisions of § 900.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.6" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.6   Withdrawal of approval.</HEAD>
<P>If FDA determines, through the evaluation activities of § 900.5, or through other means, that an accreditation body is not in substantial compliance with this subpart, FDA may initiate the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Major deficiencies.</I> If FDA determines that an accreditation body has failed to perform a major accreditation function satisfactorily, has demonstrated willful disregard for public health, has violated the code of conduct, has committed fraud, or has submitted material false statements to the agency, FDA may withdraw its approval of that accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA shall notify the accreditation body of the agency's action and the grounds on which the approval was withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(2) An accreditation body that has lost its approval shall notify facilities accredited or seeking accreditation by it that its approval has been withdrawn. Such notification shall be made within a time period and in a manner approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minor deficiencies.</I> If FDA determines that an accreditation body has demonstrated deficiencies in performing accreditation functions and responsibilities that are less serious or more limited than the deficiencies in paragraph (a) of this section, FDA shall notify the body that it has a specified period of time to take particular corrective measures directed by FDA or to submit to FDA for approval the body's own plan of corrective action addressing the minor deficiencies. FDA may place the body on probationary status for a period of time determined by FDA, or may withdraw approval of the body as an accreditation body if corrective action is not taken.
</P>
<P>(1) If FDA places an accreditation body on probationary status, the body shall notify all facilities accredited or seeking accreditation by it of its probationary status within a time period and in a manner approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) Probationary status shall remain in effect until such time as the body can demonstrate to the satisfaction of FDA that it has successfully implemented or is implementing the corrective action plan within the established schedule, and that the corrective actions have substantially eliminated all identified problems.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA determines that an accreditation body that has been placed on probationary status is not implementing corrective actions satisfactorily or within the established schedule, FDA may withdraw approval of the accreditation body. The accreditation body shall notify all facilities accredited or seeking accreditation by it of its loss of FDA approval, within a time period and in a manner approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reapplication by accreditation bodies that have had their approval withdrawn.</I> (1) A former accreditation body that has had its approval withdrawn may submit a new application for approval if the body can provide information to FDA to establish that the problems that were grounds for withdrawal of approval have been resolved.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA determines that the new application demonstrates that the body satisfactorily has addressed the causes of its previous unacceptable performance, FDA may reinstate approval of the accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may request additional information or establish additional conditions that must be met by a former accreditation body before FDA approves the reapplication.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA may refuse to accept an application from a former accreditation body whose approval was withdrawn because of fraud or willful disregard of public health.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.7   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Opportunities to challenge final adverse actions taken by FDA regarding approval or reapproval of accreditation bodies, withdrawal of approval of accreditation bodies, or rejection of a proposed fee for accreditation shall be communicated through notices of opportunity for informal hearings in accordance with part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A facility that has been denied accreditation is entitled to an appeals process from the accreditation body. The appeals process shall be specified in writing by the accreditation body and shall have been approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(d) or § 900.4(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(c) A facility that cannot achieve satisfactory resolution of an adverse accreditation decision through the accreditation body's appeals process may appeal to FDA for reconsideration in accordance with § 900.15.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 900.8-900.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 900.8-900.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Quality Standards and Certification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.10   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of subpart B are applicable to all facilities under the regulatory jurisdiction of the United States that provide mammography services, with the exception of the Department of Veterans Affairs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.11   Requirements for certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After October 1, 1994, a certificate issued by FDA is required for lawful operation of all mammography facilities subject to the provisions of this subpart. To obtain a certificate from FDA, facilities are required to meet the quality standards in § 900.12 and to be accredited by an approved accreditation body or other entity as designated by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application</I>—(1) <I>Certificates.</I> (i) In order to qualify for a certificate, a facility must apply to an FDA-approved accreditation body, or to another entity designated by FDA. The facility shall submit to such body or entity the information required in 42 U.S.C. 263b(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) Following the agency's receipt of the accreditation body's decision to accredit a facility, or an equivalent decision by another entity designated by FDA, the agency may issue a certificate to the facility, or renew an existing certificate, if the agency determines that the facility has satisfied the requirements for certification or recertification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisional certificates.</I> (i) A new facility beginning operation after October 1, 1994, is eligible to apply for a provisional certificate. The provisional certificate will enable the facility to perform mammography and to obtain the clinical images needed to complete the accreditation process. To apply for and receive a provisional certificate, a facility must meet the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 263b(c)(4) and submit the necessary information to an approved accreditation body or other entity designated by FDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Following the agency's receipt of the accreditation body's decision that a facility has submitted the required information, FDA may issue a provisional certificate to a facility upon determination that the facility has satisfied the requirements of § 900.11(b)(2)(i). A provisional certificate shall be effective for up to 6 months from the date of issuance. A provisional certificate cannot be renewed, but a facility may apply for a 90-day extension of the provisional certificate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of provisional certificate.</I> (i) To apply for a 90-day extension to a provisional certificate, a facility shall submit to its accreditation body, or other entity designated by FDA, a statement of what the facility is doing to obtain certification and evidence that there would be a significant adverse impact on access to mammography in the geographic area served if such facility did not obtain an extension.
</P>
<P>(ii) The accreditation body shall forward the request, with its recommendation, to FDA within 2 business days after receipt.
</P>
<P>(iii) FDA may issue a 90-day extension for a provisional certificate upon determination that the extension meets the criteria set forth in 42 U.S.C. 263b(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(iv) There can be no renewal of a provisional certificate beyond the 90-day extension.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reinstatement policy.</I> A previously certified facility that has allowed its certificate to expire, that has been refused a renewal of its certificate by FDA, or that has had its certificate suspended or revoked by FDA, may apply to have the certificate reinstated so that the facility may be considered to be a new facility and thereby be eligible for a provisional certificate.
</P>
<P>(1) Unless prohibited from reinstatement under § 900.11(c)(4), a facility applying for reinstatement shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Contact an FDA-approved accreditation body or other entity designated by FDA to determine the requirements for reapplication for accreditation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fully document its history as a previously provisionally certified or certified mammography facility, including the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and address of the facility under which it was previously provisionally certified or certified;
</P>
<P>(B) Name of previous owner/lessor;
</P>
<P>(C) FDA facility identification number assigned to the facility under its previous certification; and
</P>
<P>(D) Expiration date of the most recent FDA provisional certificate or certificate; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Justify application for reinstatement of accreditation by submitting to the accreditation body or other entity designated by FDA, a corrective action plan that details how the facility has corrected deficiencies that contributed to the lapse of, denial of renewal, or revocation of its certificate.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may issue a provisional certificate to the facility if:
</P>
<P>(i) The accreditation body or other entity designated by FDA notifies the agency that the facility has adequately corrected, or is in the process of correcting, pertinent deficiencies; and
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA determines that the facility has taken sufficient corrective action since the lapse of, denial of renewal, or revocation of its previous certificate.
</P>
<P>(3) After receiving the provisional certificate, the facility may lawfully resume performing mammography services while completing the requirements for certification.
</P>
<P>(4) If a facility's certificate was revoked on the basis of an act described in 42 U.S.C. 263b(i)(1), as implemented by § 900.14(a), no person who owned or operated that facility at the time the act occurred may own or operate a mammography facility within 2 years of the date of revocation.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 83 FR 13864, Apr. 2, 2018; 88 FR 15168, Mar. 10, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.12   Quality standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personnel.</I> The following requirements apply to all personnel involved in any aspect of mammography, including the production, processing, and interpretation of mammograms and related quality assurance activities:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interpreting physicians.</I> All physicians interpreting mammograms shall meet the following qualifications:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial qualifications.</I> Unless the exemption in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A) of this section applies, before beginning to interpret mammograms independently, the interpreting physician shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Be licensed to practice medicine in a State;
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Be certified in an appropriate specialty area by a body determined by FDA to have procedures and requirements adequate to ensure that physicians certified by the body are competent to interpret radiological procedures, including mammography; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Have had at least 3 months of documented formal training in the interpretation of mammograms and in topics related to mammography. The training shall include instruction in radiation physics, including radiation physics specific to mammography, radiation effects, and radiation protection. The mammographic interpretation component shall be under the direct supervision of a physician who meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Have a minimum of 60 hours of documented medical education in mammography, which shall include: Instruction in the interpretation of mammograms and education in basic breast anatomy, pathology, physiology, technical aspects of mammography, and quality assurance and quality control in mammography. All 60 of these hours shall be category I and at least 15 of the category I hours shall have been acquired within the 3 years immediately prior to the date that the physician qualifies as an interpreting physician. Hours spent in residency specifically devoted to mammography will be considered as equivalent to Category I continuing medical education credits and will be accepted if documented in writing by the appropriate representative of the training institution; and
</P>
<P>(D) Unless the exemption in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(B) of this section applies, have interpreted or multi-read at least 240 mammographic examinations within the 6-month period immediately prior to the date that the physician qualifies as an interpreting physician. This interpretation or multi-reading shall be under the direct supervision of an interpreting physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Continuing experience and education.</I> All interpreting physicians shall maintain their qualifications by meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Following the second anniversary date of the end of the calendar quarter in which the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section were completed, the interpreting physician shall have interpreted or multi-read at least 960 mammographic examinations during the 24 months immediately preceding the date of the facility's annual MQSA inspection or the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection or any date in-between the two. The facility will choose one of these dates to determine the 24-month period.
</P>
<P>(B) Following the third anniversary date of the end of the calendar quarter in which the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section were completed, the interpreting physician shall have taught or completed at least 15 category I continuing medical education units in mammography during the 36 months immediately preceding the date of the facility's annual MQSA inspection or the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection or any date in between the two. The facility will choose one of these dates to determine the 36-month period. This training shall include at least six category I continuing medical education credits in each mammographic modality used by the interpreting physician in his or her practice; and
</P>
<P>(C) Before an interpreting physician may begin independently interpreting mammograms produced by a new mammographic modality, that is, a mammographic modality in which the physician has not previously been trained, the interpreting physician shall have at least 8 hours of training in the new mammographic modality.
</P>
<P>(D) Units earned through teaching a specific course can be counted only once towards the 15 required by paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, even if the course is taught multiple times during the previous 36 months.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exemptions.</I> (A) Those physicians who qualified as interpreting physicians under paragraph (a)(1) of this section of FDA's interim regulations prior to April 28, 1999, are considered to have met the initial requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. They may continue to interpret mammograms provided they continue to meet the licensure requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) of this section and the continuing experience and education requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Physicians who have interpreted or multi-read at least 240 mammographic examinations under the direct supervision of an interpreting physician in any 6-month period during the last 2 years of a diagnostic radiology residency and who become appropriately board certified at the first allowable time, as defined by an eligible certifying body, are otherwise exempt from paragraph (a)(1)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reestablishing qualifications.</I> Interpreting physicians who fail to maintain the required continuing experience or continuing education requirements shall reestablish their qualifications before resuming the independent interpretation of mammograms, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Interpreting physicians who fail to meet the continuing experience requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section shall:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Interpret or multi-read at least 240 mammographic examinations under the direct supervision of an interpreting physician, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Interpret or multi-read a sufficient number of mammographic examinations, under the direct supervision of an interpreting physician, to bring the physician's total up to 960 examinations for the prior 24 months, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The interpretations required under paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (a)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section shall be done within the 6 months immediately prior to resuming independent interpretation.
</P>
<P>(B) Interpreting physicians who fail to meet the continuing education requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section shall obtain a sufficient number of additional category I continuing medical education credits in mammography to bring their total up to the required 15 credits in the previous 36 months before resuming independent interpretation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Radiologic technologists.</I> All mammographic examinations shall be performed by radiologic technologists who meet the following general requirements, mammography requirements, and continuing education and experience requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>General requirements.</I> (A) Be licensed to perform general radiographic procedures in a State; or
</P>
<P>(B) Have general certification from one of the bodies determined by FDA to have procedures and requirements adequate to ensure that radiologic technologists certified by the body are competent to perform radiologic examinations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Mammography requirements.</I> Have, prior to April 28, 1999, qualified as a radiologic technologist under paragraph (a)(2) of this section of FDA's interim regulations of December 21, 1993, or completed at least 40 contact hours of documented training specific to mammography under the supervision of a qualified instructor. The hours of documented training shall include, but not necessarily be limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Training in breast anatomy and physiology, positioning and compression, quality assurance/quality control techniques, imaging of patients with breast implants;
</P>
<P>(B) The performance of a minimum of 25 examinations under the direct supervision of an individual qualified under paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) At least 8 hours of training in each mammography modality to be used by the technologist in performing mammography exams; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Continuing education requirements.</I> (A) Following the third anniversary date of the end of the calendar quarter in which the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (a)(2)(ii) of this section were completed, the radiologic technologist shall have taught or completed at least 15 continuing education units in mammography during the 36 months immediately preceding the date of the facility's annual MQSA inspection or the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection or any date in between the two. The facility will choose one of these dates to determine the 36-month period.
</P>
<P>(B) Units earned through teaching a specific course can be counted only once towards the 15 required in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, even if the course is taught multiple times during the previous 36 months.
</P>
<P>(C) At least six of the continuing education units required in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section shall be related to each mammographic modality used by the technologist.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Requalification.</I> Radiologic technologists who fail to meet the continuing education requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section shall obtain a sufficient number of continuing education units in mammography to bring their total up to at least 15 in the previous 3 years, at least 6 of which shall be related to each modality used by the technologist in mammography. The technologist may not resume performing unsupervised mammography examinations until the continuing education requirements are completed.
</P>
<P>(E) Before a radiologic technologist may begin independently performing mammographic examinations using a mammographic modality other than one of those for which the technologist received training under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(C) of this section, the technologist shall have at least 8 hours of continuing education units in the new modality.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Continuing experience requirements.</I> (A) Following the second anniversary date of the end of the calendar quarter in which the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (a)(2)(ii) of this section were completed or of April 28, 1999, whichever is later, the radiologic technologist shall have performed a minimum of 200 mammography examinations during the 24 months immediately preceding the date of the facility's annual inspection or the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection or any date in between the two. The facility will choose one of these dates to determine the 24-month period.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Requalification.</I> Radiologic technologists who fail to meet the continuing experience requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(A) of this section shall perform a minimum of 25 mammography examinations under the direct supervision of a qualified radiologic technologist, before resuming the performance of unsupervised mammography examinations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical physicists.</I> All medical physicists conducting surveys of mammography facilities and providing oversight of the facility quality assurance program under paragraph (e) of this section shall meet the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial qualifications.</I> (A) Be State licensed or approved or have certification in an appropriate specialty area by one of the bodies determined by FDA to have procedures and requirements to ensure that medical physicists certified by the body are competent to perform physics survey; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Have a masters degree or higher in a physical science from an accredited institution, with no less than 20 semester hours or equivalent (e.g., 30 quarter hours) of college undergraduate or graduate level physics;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Have 20 contact hours of documented specialized training in conducting surveys of mammography facilities; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Have the experience of conducting surveys of at least 1 mammography facility and a total of at least 10 mammography units. No more than one survey of a specific unit within a period of 60 days can be counted towards the total mammography unit survey requirement. After April 28, 1999, experience conducting surveys must be acquired under the direct supervision of a medical physicist who meets all the requirements of paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Alternative initial qualifications.</I> (A) Have qualified as a medical physicist under paragraph (a)(3) of this section of FDA's interim regulations and retained that qualification by maintenance of the active status of any licensure, approval, or certification required under the interim regulations; and
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to the April 28, 1999, have:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bachelor's degree or higher in a physical science from an accredited institution with no less than 10 semester hours or equivalent of college undergraduate or graduate level physics,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Forty contact hours of documented specialized training in conducting surveys of mammography facilities and,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Have the experience of conducting surveys of at least 1 mammography facility and a total of at least 20 mammography units. No more than one survey of a specific unit within a period of 60 days can be counted towards the total mammography unit survey requirement. The training and experience requirements must be met after fulfilling the degree requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Continuing qualifications.</I> (A) Continuing education. Following the third anniversary date of the end of the calendar quarter in which the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section were completed, the medical physicist shall have taught or completed at least 15 continuing education units in mammography during the 36 months immediately preceding the date of the facility's annual inspection or the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection or any date in between the two. The facility shall choose one of these dates to determine the 36-month period. This continuing education shall include hours of training appropriate to each mammographic modality evaluated by the medical physicist during his or her surveys or oversight of quality assurance programs. Units earned through teaching a specific course can be counted only once towards the required 15 units in a 36-month period, even if the course is taught multiple times during the 36 months.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Continuing experience.</I> Following the second anniversary date of the end of the calendar quarter in which the requirements of paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(ii) of this section were completed or of April 28, 1999, whichever is later, the medical physicist shall have surveyed at least two mammography facilities and a total of at least six mammography units during the 24 months immediately preceding the date of the facility's annual MQSA inspection or the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection or any date in between the two. The facility shall choose one of these dates to determine the 24-month period. No more than one survey of a specific facility within a 10-month period or a specific unit within a period of 60 days can be counted towards this requirement.
</P>
<P>(C) Before a medical physicist may begin independently performing mammographic surveys of a new mammographic modality, that is, a mammographic modality other than one for which the physicist received training to qualify under paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section, the physicist must receive at least 8 hours of training in surveying units of the new mammographic modality.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reestablishing qualifications.</I> Medical physicists who fail to maintain the required continuing qualifications of paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section may not perform the MQSA surveys without the supervision of a qualified medical physicist. Before independently surveying another facility, medical physicists must reestablish their qualifications, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Medical physicists who fail to meet the continuing educational requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section shall obtain a sufficient number of continuing education units to bring their total units up to the required 15 in the previous 3 years.
</P>
<P>(B) Medical physicists who fail to meet the continuing experience requirement of paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B) of this section shall complete a sufficient number of surveys under the direct supervision of a medical physicist who meets the qualifications of paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(iii) of this section to bring their total surveys up to the required two facilities and six units in the previous 24 months. No more than one survey of a specific unit within a period of 60 days can be counted towards the total mammography unit survey requirement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retention of personnel records.</I> Facilities shall maintain records of training and experience relevant to their qualification under MQSA for personnel who work or have worked at the facility as interpreting physicians, radiologic technologists, or medical physicists. These records must be available for review by the MQSA inspectors. Records of personnel no longer employed by the facility must be maintained for no less than 24 months from the date of the departure of an employee, and these records must be available for review at the time of any annual inspection occurring during those 24 months. The facility shall provide copies of these personnel records to current interpreting physicians, radiologic technologists, and medical physicists upon their request. Facilities must provide personnel records to former employees if the former employees communicate their request within 24 months of the date of their departure. If it has been greater than 24 months and the facility has maintained those records, the facility must provide those records to former employees upon request. Before a facility closes or ceases to provide mammography services, it must make arrangements for access by current and former personnel to their MQSA personnel records. This access may be provided by the permanent transfer of these records to the personnel or the transfer of the records to a facility or other entity that will provide access to these records for no less than 24 months from the date of facility closure or cessation of mammography services.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment.</I> Regulations published under §§ 1020.30, 1020.31, and 900.12(e) of this chapter that are relevant to equipment performance should also be consulted for a more complete understanding of the equipment performance requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prohibited equipment.</I> Radiographic equipment designed for general purpose or special nonmammography procedures shall not be used for mammography. This prohibition includes systems that have been modified or equipped with special attachments for mammography. This requirement supersedes the implied acceptance of such systems in § 1020.31(f)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> All radiographic equipment used for mammography shall be specifically designed for mammography and shall be certified pursuant to § 1010.2 of this chapter as meeting the applicable requirements of §§ 1020.30 and 1020.31 of this chapter in effect at the date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(i) All devices used in mammography must have met the applicable FDA premarket authorization requirements for medical devices of that type with that intended use.


</P>
<P>(ii) A mammography unit that is converted from one mammographic modality to another is considered a new unit at the facility under this part and must, prior to clinical use, undergo a mammography equipment evaluation demonstrating compliance with applicable requirements. The facility must also follow its accreditation body's procedures for applying for accreditation of that unit.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Motion of tube-image receptor assembly.</I> (i) The assembly shall be capable of being fixed in any position where it is designed to operate. Once fixed in any such position, it shall not undergo unintended motion.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mechanism ensuring compliance with paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section shall not fail in the event of power interruption.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Image receptor sizes.</I> (i) Systems using screen-film image receptors shall provide, at a minimum, for operation with image receptors of 18 × 24 centimeters (cm) and 24 × 30 cm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Systems using screen-film image receptors shall be equipped with moving grids matched to all image receptor sizes provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) Systems used for magnification procedures shall be capable of operation with the grid removed from between the source and image receptor.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Light fields.</I> For any mammography system with a light beam that passes through the x-ray beam-limiting device, the light shall provide an average illumination of not less than 160 lux (15 foot candles) at 100 cm or the maximum source-image receptor distance (SID), whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Magnification.</I> (i) Systems used to perform noninterventional problem solving procedures shall have radiographic magnification capability available for use by the operator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Systems used for magnification procedures shall provide, at a minimum, at least one magnification value within the range of 1.4 to 2.0.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Focal spot selection.</I> (i) When more than one focal spot is provided, the system shall indicate, prior to exposure, which focal spot is selected.
</P>
<P>(ii) When more than one target material is provided, the system shall indicate, prior to exposure, the preselected target material.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the target material and/or focal spot is selected by a system algorithm that is based on the exposure or on a test exposure, the system shall display, after the exposure, the target material and/or focal spot actually used during the exposure.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Compression.</I> All mammography systems shall incorporate a compression device.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application of compression.</I> Effective October 28, 2002, each system shall provide:
</P>
<P>(A) An initial power-driven compression activated by hands-free controls operable from both sides of the patient; and
</P>
<P>(B) Fine adjustment compression controls operable from both sides of the patient.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Compression paddle.</I> (A) Systems shall be equipped with different sized compression paddles that match the sizes of all full-field image receptors provided for the system. Compression paddles for special purposes, including those smaller than the full size of the image receptor (for “spot compression”) may be provided. Such compression paddles for special purposes are not subject to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(8)(ii)(D) and (b)(8)(ii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section, the compression paddle shall be flat and parallel to the breast support table and shall not deflect from parallel by more than 1.0 cm at any point on the surface of the compression paddle when compression is applied.
</P>
<P>(C) Equipment intended by the manufacturer's design to not be flat and parallel to the breast support table during compression shall meet the manufacturer's design specifications and maintenance requirements.
</P>
<P>(D) The chest wall edge of the compression paddle shall be straight and parallel to the edge of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(E) The chest wall edge may be bent upward to allow for patient comfort but shall not appear on the image.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Technique factor selection and display.</I> (i) Manual selection of milliampere seconds (mAs) or at least one of its component parts (milliapere (mA) and/or time) shall be available.
</P>
<P>(ii) The technique factors (peak tube potential in kilovolt (kV) and either tube current in mA and exposure time in seconds or the product of tube current and exposure time in mAs) to be used during an exposure shall be indicated before the exposure begins, except when automatic exposure controls (AEC) are used, in which case the technique factors that are set prior to the exposure shall be indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) Following AEC mode use, the system shall indicate the actual kilovoltage peak (kVp) and mAs used during the exposure. The mAs may be displayed as mA and time.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Automatic exposure control.</I> (i) Each screen-film system shall provide an AEC mode that is operable in all combinations of equipment configuration provided, e.g., grid, nongrid; magnification, nonmagnification; and various target-filter combinations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The positioning or selection of the detector shall permit flexibility in the placement of the detector under the target tissue.
</P>
<P>(A) The size and available positions of the detector shall be clearly indicated at the X-ray input surface of the breast compression paddle.
</P>
<P>(B) The selected position of the detector shall be clearly indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) The system shall provide means for the operator to vary the selected optical density from the normal (zero) setting.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Film.</I> For facilities using screen-film units, the facility shall use x-ray film for mammography that has been designated by the film manufacturer as appropriate for mammography. For facilities using hardcopy prints of digital images for transfer, retention, or final interpretation purposes, the facility shall use a type of film designated by the film manufacturer as appropriate for these purposes and compatible with the printer being used.


</P>
<P>(12) <I>Intensifying screens.</I> The facility shall use intensifying screens for mammography that have been designated by the screen manufacturer as appropriate for mammography and shall use film that is matched to the screen's spectral output as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Film processing solutions.</I> For processing mammography films, the facility shall use chemical solutions that are capable of developing the films used by the facility in a manner equivalent to the minimum requirements specified by the film manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Lighting.</I> The facility shall make special lights for film illumination, i.e., hot-lights, capable of producing light levels greater than that provided by the view box, available to the interpreting physicians.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Film masking devices.</I> Facilities shall ensure that film masking devices that can limit the illuminated area to a region equal to or smaller than the exposed portion of the film are available to all interpreting physicians interpreting for the facility.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Equipment—other modalities.</I> Systems with image receptor modalities other than screen-film shall demonstrate compliance with quality standards by successful results of quality assurance testing as specified under paragraph (e)(6) of this section.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Medical records and mammography reports</I>—(1) <I>Contents and terminology.</I> Each facility shall prepare a written report of the results of each mammographic examination performed under its certificate. The mammographic examination presented for interpretation must be in the original mammographic modality in which it was performed, and must not consist of digital images produced through copying or digitizing hardcopy original images. The mammography report shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the patient and an additional patient identifier;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of examination, facility name, and location. At a minimum, the location shall include the city, State, ZIP code, and telephone number of the facility;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the interpreting physician who interpreted the mammogram;
</P>
<P>(iv) Overall final assessment of findings, classified in one of the following categories (the assessment statement is only the word or phrase within the quotation marks):
</P>
<P>(A) “Negative.” Nothing to comment upon (if the interpreting physician is aware of clinical findings or symptoms, despite the negative assessment, these shall be documented and addressed);
</P>
<P>(B) “Benign.” Also a normal result, with benign findings present, but no evidence of malignancy (if the interpreting physician is aware of clinical findings or symptoms, despite the benign assessment, these shall be documented and addressed);
</P>
<P>(C) “Probably Benign.” Finding(s) has a high probability of being benign;
</P>
<P>(D) “Suspicious.” Finding(s) without all the characteristic morphology of breast cancer but indicating a definite probability of being malignant;
</P>
<P>(E) “Highly Suggestive of Malignancy.” Finding(s) has a high probability of being malignant;
</P>
<P>(F) “Known Biopsy-Proven Malignancy.” Reserved for known malignancies being mammographically evaluated for definitive therapy; and
</P>
<P>(G) “Post-Procedure Mammogram for Marker Placement.” Reserved for a post-procedure mammogram used to confirm the deployment and position of a breast tissue marker.
</P>
<P>(v) In cases where no final assessment category can be assigned due to incomplete work-up, one of the following classification statements shall be assigned as an assessment and reasons why no final assessment can be made shall be stated by the interpreting physician.
</P>
<P>(A) “Incomplete: Need additional imaging evaluation.” Reserved for examinations where additional imaging needs to be performed before an assessment category identified in paragraphs (c)(1)(iv)(A) through (G) of this section can be given; or
</P>
<P>(B) “Incomplete: Need prior mammograms for comparison.” Reserved for examinations where comparison with prior mammograms should be performed before an assessment category identified in paragraphs (c)(1)(iv)(A) through (G) of this section can be given. If this assessment category is used, a followup report with an assessment category identified in paragraphs (c)(1)(iv)(A) through (E) of this section must be issued within 30 calendar days of the initial report whether or not comparison views can be obtained.
</P>
<P>(vi) Overall assessment of breast density, classified in one of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(A) “The breasts are almost entirely fatty.”
</P>
<P>(B) “There are scattered areas of fibroglandular density.”
</P>
<P>(C) “The breasts are heterogeneously dense, which may obscure small masses.”
</P>
<P>(D) “The breasts are extremely dense, which lowers the sensitivity of mammography.”
</P>
<P>(vii) Recommendations made to the healthcare provider about what additional actions, if any, should be taken. All clinical questions raised by the referring healthcare provider shall be addressed in the report to the extent possible, even if the assessment is negative or benign.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Communication of mammography results to the patients.</I> Each facility shall provide each patient a summary of the mammography report written in lay terms within 30 calendar days of the mammographic examination which shall, at a minimum, include the name of the patient; the name, address, and telephone number of the facility performing the mammographic examination; and an assessment of breast density as described in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii) and (iv) of this section. If the assessment of the mammography report is “Suspicious” or “Highly Suggestive of Malignancy,” the facility shall provide the patient a summary of the mammography report written in lay language within 7 calendar days of the final interpretation of the mammograms.
</P>
<P>(i) Patients who do not name a healthcare provider to receive the mammography report shall be sent the report described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section within 30 days, in addition to the written notification of results in lay terms. If the assessment of the mammography report is “Suspicious” or “Highly Suggestive of Malignancy,” the facility shall send this report to the patient within 7 calendar days of the final interpretation of the mammograms.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each facility that accepts patients who do not have a healthcare provider shall maintain a system for referring such patients to a healthcare provider when clinically indicated, which shall include when such patients' mammogram assessment is either probably benign, suspicious, or highly suggestive of malignancy.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the mammography report identifies the patient's breast density as “The breasts are almost entirely fatty” or “There are scattered areas of fibroglandular density,” the lay summary shall include the statement “Breast tissue can be either dense or not dense. Dense tissue makes it harder to find breast cancer on a mammogram and also raises the risk of developing breast cancer. Your breast tissue is not dense. Talk to your healthcare provider about breast density, risks for breast cancer, and your individual situation.”
</P>
<P>(iv) If the mammography report identifies the breast density as “The breasts are heterogeneously dense, which may obscure small masses” or “The breasts are extremely dense, which lowers the sensitivity of mammography,” the lay summary shall include the statement “Breast tissue can be either dense or not dense. Dense tissue makes it harder to find breast cancer on a mammogram and also raises the risk of developing breast cancer. Your breast tissue is dense. In some people with dense tissue, other imaging tests in addition to a mammogram may help find cancers. Talk to your healthcare provider about breast density, risks for breast cancer, and your individual situation.”


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Communication of mammography results to health care providers.</I> When the patient has a referring health care provider or the patient has named a health care provider, the facility shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide a written report of the mammography examination, including the items listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, to that health care provider as soon as possible, but no later than 30 days from the date of the mammography examination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the assessment is “Suspicious” or “Highly Suggestive of Malignancy,” the facility shall provide a written report of the mammographic examination, including the items listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, to the referring healthcare provider, or if the referring healthcare provider is unavailable, to a responsible designee of the referring healthcare provider within 7 calendar days of the final interpretation of the mammograms.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Each facility that performs mammograms:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall (except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section) maintain the original mammograms and mammography reports in a permanent medical record of the patient for the longest of the following: a period of not less than 5 years, a period of not less than 10 years if no additional mammograms of the patient are performed at the facility, or a period, if any, mandated by State or local law. Facilities shall implement policies and procedures to minimize the possibility of loss of these records. The original mammograms must be retained in retrievable form in the mammographic modality in which they were produced. They cannot be produced by copying or digitizing hardcopy originals.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall upon request by, or on behalf of, the patient, permanently or temporarily transfer the original mammograms and copies of the patient's reports to a medical institution, a physician or healthcare provider of the patient, or to the patient directly during the time specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. Transfer of the mammograms and mammography reports must take place within 15 calendar days of the facility receiving such request. The transferred mammograms must be in the mammographic modality in which they were produced, and cannot be produced by copying or digitizing hardcopy originals. For digital mammograms or digital breast tomosynthesis, if the examination is being transferred for final interpretation purposes, the facility must be able to provide the recipient with original digital images electronically;
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall upon request by, or on behalf of, the patient, provide copies of mammograms and copies of mammogram reports to a medical institution, a physician or healthcare provider of the patient, or to the patient directly during the time specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. Release of the copies must take place within 15 calendar days of the facility receiving such request. For digital mammograms or digital breast tomosynthesis, if the copies are being released for final interpretation purposes, the facility must be able to provide the recipient with digital images electronically;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any fee charged to the patients for providing the services in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section shall not exceed the documented costs associated with this service; and
</P>
<P>(v) Before a facility closes or ceases to provide mammography services, it must make arrangements for access by patients and healthcare providers to their mammographic records. This access may be provided by the permanent transfer of mammographic records to the patient or the patient's healthcare provider or the transfer of the mammographic records to a facility or other entity that will provide access to patients and healthcare providers. Access to the records must be provided by such other facility or entity for the remainder of the time periods specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. If a facility ceases to perform mammography but continues to operate as a medical entity, and is able to satisfy the recordkeeping requirements of paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, it may choose to continue to retain the medical records rather than transfer them to another facility, unless such a transfer is requested by, or on behalf of, the patient. The facility must notify its accreditation body and certification agency in writing of the arrangements it has made and must make reasonable efforts to notify all affected patients.


</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mammographic image identification.</I> Each mammographic image shall have the following information indicated on it in a permanent, legible, and unambiguous manner and placed so as not to obscure anatomic structures:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of patient and an additional patient identifier.
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>View and laterality.</I> This information shall be placed on the image in a position near the axilla. Standardized codes specified by the accreditation body and approved by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(b) or § 900.4(a)(8) shall be used to identify view and laterality.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Facility name and location.</I> At a minimum, the location shall include the city, State, and zip code of the facility.
</P>
<P>(v) Technologist identification.
</P>
<P>(vi) Cassette/screen identification.
</P>
<P>(vii) Mammography unit identification, if there is more than one unit in the facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quality assurance—general.</I> Each facility shall establish and maintain a quality assurance program to ensure the safety, reliability, clarity, and accuracy of mammography services performed at the facility.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Responsible individuals.</I> Responsibility for the quality assurance program and for each of its elements shall be assigned to individuals who are qualified for their assignments and who shall be allowed adequate time to perform these duties.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Lead interpreting physician.</I> The facility shall identify a lead interpreting physician who shall have the general responsibility of ensuring that the quality assurance program meets all requirements of paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section. No other individual shall be assigned or shall retain responsibility for quality assurance tasks unless the lead interpreting physician has determined that the individual's qualifications for, and performance of, the assignment are adequate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interpreting physicians.</I> All interpreting physicians interpreting mammograms for the facility shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Follow the facility procedures for corrective action when the images they are asked to interpret are of poor quality, and
</P>
<P>(B) Participate in the facility's medical outcomes audit program.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Medical physicist.</I> Each facility shall have the services of a medical physicist available to survey mammography equipment and oversee the equipment-related quality assurance practices of the facility. At a minimum, the medical physicist(s) shall be responsible for performing the surveys and mammography equipment evaluations and providing the facility with the reports described in paragraphs (e)(9) and (e)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Quality control technologist.</I> Responsibility for all individual tasks within the quality assurance program not assigned to the lead interpreting physician or the medical physicist shall be assigned to a quality control technologist(s). The tasks are to be performed by the quality control technologist or by other personnel qualified to perform the tasks. When other personnel are utilized for these tasks, the quality control technologist shall ensure that the tasks are completed in such a way as to meet the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quality assurance records.</I> The lead interpreting physician, quality control technologist, and medical physicist shall ensure that records concerning mammography technique and procedures, quality control (including monitoring data, problems detected by analysis of that data, corrective actions, and the effectiveness of the correction actions), safety, protection, and employee qualifications to meet assigned quality assurance tasks are properly maintained and updated. These quality control records shall be kept for each test specified in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section until the next annual inspection has been completed and FDA has determined that the facility is in compliance with the quality assurance requirements or until the test has been performed two additional times at the required frequency, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quality assurance—equipment</I>—(1) <I>Daily quality control tests.</I> Film processors used to develop mammograms shall be adjusted and maintained to meet the technical development specifications for the mammography film in use. A processor performance test shall be performed on each day that clinical films are processed before any clinical films are processed that day. The test shall include an assessment of base plus fog density, mid-density, and density difference, using the mammography film used clinically at the facility.
</P>
<P>(i) The base plus fog density shall be within + 0.03 of the established operating level.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mid-density shall be within ±0.15 of the established operating level.
</P>
<P>(iii) The density difference shall be within ±0.15 of the established operating level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Weekly quality control tests.</I> Facilities with screen-film systems shall perform an image quality evaluation test, using an FDA-approved phantom, at least weekly.
</P>
<P>(i) The optical density of the film at the center of an image of a standard FDA-accepted phantom shall be at least 1.20 when exposed under a typical clinical condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The optical density of the film at the center of the phantom image shall not change by more than ±0.20 from the established operating level.
</P>
<P>(iii) The phantom image shall achieve at least the minimum score established by the accreditation body and accepted by FDA in accordance with § 900.3(d) or § 900.4(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(iv) The density difference between the background of the phantom and an added test object, used to assess image contrast, shall be measured and shall not vary by more than ±0.05 from the established operating level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quarterly quality control tests.</I> Facilities with screen-film systems shall perform the following quality control tests at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fixer retention in film.</I> The residual fixer shall be no more than 5 micrograms per square cm.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Repeat analysis.</I> If the total repeat or reject rate changes from the previously determined rate by more than 2.0 percent of the total films included in the analysis, the reason(s) for the change shall be determined. Any corrective actions shall be recorded and the results of these corrective actions shall be assessed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Semiannual quality control tests.</I> Facilities with screen-film systems shall perform the following quality control tests at least semiannually:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Darkroom fog.</I> The optical density attributable to darkroom fog shall not exceed 0.05 when a mammography film of the type used in the facility, which has a mid-density of no less than 1.2 OD, is exposed to typical darkroom conditions for 2 minutes while such film is placed on the counter top emulsion side up. If the darkroom has a safelight used for mammography film, it shall be on during this test.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Screen-film contact.</I> Testing for screen-film contact shall be conducted using 40 mesh copper screen. All cassettes used in the facility for mammography shall be tested.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Compression device performance.</I> (A) A compression force of at least 111 newtons (25 pounds) shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(B) Effective October 28, 2002, the maximum compression force for the initial power drive shall be between 111 newtons (25 pounds) and 200 newtons (45 pounds).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Annual quality control tests.</I> Facilities with screen-film systems shall perform the following quality control tests at least annually:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Automatic exposure control performance.</I> (A) The AEC shall be capable of maintaining film optical density within ±0.30 of the mean optical density when thickness of a homogeneous material is varied over a range of 2 to 6 cm and the kVp is varied appropriately for such thicknesses over the kVp range used clinically in the facility. If this requirement cannot be met, a technique chart shall be developed showing appropriate techniques (kVp and density control settings) for different breast thicknesses and compositions that must be used so that optical densities within ±0.30 of the average under phototimed conditions can be produced.
</P>
<P>(B) After October 28, 2002, the AEC shall be capable of maintaining film optical density (OD) within ±0.15 of the mean optical density when thickness of a homogeneous material is varied over a range of 2 to 6 cm and the kVp is varied appropriately for such thicknesses over the kVp range used clinically in the facility.
</P>
<P>(C) The optical density of the film in the center of the phantom image shall not be less than 1.20.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Kilovoltage peak (kVp) accuracy and reproducibility.</I> (A) The kVp shall be accurate within ±5 percent of the indicated or selected kVp at:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The lowest clinical kVp that can be measured by a kVp test device;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The most commonly used clinical kVp;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The highest available clinical kVp, and
</P>
<P>(B) At the most commonly used clinical settings of kVp, the coefficient of variation of reproducibility of the kVp shall be equal to or less than 0.02.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Focal spot condition.</I> Until October 28, 2002, focal spot condition shall be evaluated either by determining system resolution or by measuring focal spot dimensions. After October 28, 2002, facilities shall evaluate focal spot condition only by determining the system resolution.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>System resolution.</I> (<I>1</I>) Each X-ray system used for mammography, in combination with the mammography screen-film combination used in the facility, shall provide a minimum resolution of 11 Cycles/millimeter (mm) (line-pairs/mm) when a high contrast resolution bar test pattern is oriented with the bars perpendicular to the anode-cathode axis, and a minimum resolution of 13 line-pairs/mm when the bars are parallel to that axis.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bar pattern shall be placed 4.5 cm above the breast support surface, centered with respect to the chest wall edge of the image receptor, and with the edge of the pattern within 1 cm of the chest wall edge of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) When more than one target material is provided, the measurement in paragraph (e)(5)(iii)(A) of this section shall be made using the appropriate focal spot for each target material.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) When more than one SID is provided, the test shall be performed at SID most commonly used clinically.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Test kVp shall be set at the value used clinically by the facility for a standard breast and shall be performed in the AEC mode, if available. If necessary, a suitable absorber may be placed in the beam to increase exposure times. The screen-film cassette combination used by the facility shall be used to test for this requirement and shall be placed in the normal location used for clinical procedures.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Focal spot dimensions.</I> Measured values of the focal spot length (dimension parallel to the anode cathode axis) and width (dimension perpendicular to the anode cathode axis) shall be within the tolerance limits specified in table 1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Focal Spot Tolerance Limit
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal Focal Spot Size (mm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Maximum Measured Dimensions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Width(mm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Length(mm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) <I>Beam quality and half-value layer (HVL).</I> The HVL shall meet the specifications of § 1020.30(m)(1) of this chapter for the minimum HVL. These values, extrapolated to the mammographic range, are shown in table 2. Values not shown in table 2 may be determined by linear interpolation or extrapolation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">X-ray Tube Voltage (kilovolt peak) and Minimum HVL
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designed Operating Range (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measured Operating Voltage (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum HVL (millimeters of aluminum)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) <I>Breast entrance air kerma and AEC reproducibility.</I> The coefficient of variation for both air kerma and mAs shall not exceed 0.05.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Dosimetry.</I> The average glandular dose delivered during a single cranio-caudal view of an FDA-accepted phantom simulating a standard breast shall not exceed 3.0 milligray (mGy) (0.3 rad) per exposure. The dose shall be determined with technique factors and conditions used clinically for a standard breast.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>X-ray field/light field/image receptor/compression paddle alignment.</I> (A) All systems shall have beam-limiting devices that allow the entire chest wall edge of the x-ray field to extend to the chest wall edge of the image receptor and provide means to assure that the x-ray field does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor by more than 2 percent of the SID.
</P>
<P>(B) If a light field that passes through the X-ray beam limitation device is provided, it shall be aligned with the X-ray field so that the total of any misalignment of the edges of the light field and the X-ray field along either the length or the width of the visually defined field at the plane of the breast support surface shall not exceed 2 percent of the SID.
</P>
<P>(C) The chest wall edge of the compression paddle shall not extend beyond the chest wall edge of the image receptor by more than one percent of the SID when tested with the compression paddle placed above the breast support surface at a distance equivalent to standard breast thickness. The shadow of the vertical edge of the compression paddle shall not be visible on the image.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Uniformity of screen speed.</I> Uniformity of screen speed of all the cassettes in the facility shall be tested and the difference between the maximum and minimum optical densities shall not exceed 0.30. Screen artifacts shall also be evaluated during this test.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>System artifacts.</I> System artifacts shall be evaluated with a high-grade, defect-free sheet of homogeneous material large enough to cover the mammography cassette and shall be performed for all cassette sizes used in the facility using a grid appropriate for the cassette size being tested. System artifacts shall also be evaluated for all available focal spot sizes and target filter combinations used clinically.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Radiation output.</I> (A) The system shall be capable of producing a minimum output of 4.5 mGy air kerma per second (513 milli Roentgen (mR) per second) when operating at 28 kVp in the standard mammography (moly/moly) mode at any SID where the system is designed to operate and when measured by a detector with its center located 4.5 cm above the breast support surface with the compression paddle in place between the source and the detector. After October 28, 2002, the system, under the same measuring conditions shall be capable of producing a minimum output of 7.0 mGy air kerma per second (800 mR per second) when operating at 28 kVp in the standard (moly/moly) mammography mode at any SID where the system is designed to operate.
</P>
<P>(B) The system shall be capable of maintaining the required minimum radiation output averaged over a 3.0 second period.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Decompression.</I> If the system is equipped with a provision for automatic decompression after completion of an exposure or interruption of power to the system, the system shall be tested to confirm that it provides:
</P>
<P>(A) An override capability to allow maintenance of compression;
</P>
<P>(B) A continuous display of the override status; and
</P>
<P>(C) A manual emergency compression release that can be activated in the event of power or automatic release failure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Quality control tests—other modalities.</I> For systems with image receptor modalities other than screen-film, the quality assurance program shall be substantially the same as the quality assurance program recommended by the image receptor manufacturer, except that the maximum allowable dose shall not exceed the maximum allowable dose for screen-film systems in paragraph (e)(5)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Mobile units.</I> The facility shall verify that mammography units used to produce mammograms at more than one location meet the requirements in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(6) of this section. In addition, at each examination location, before any examinations are conducted, the facility shall verify satisfactory performance of such units using a test method that establishes the adequacy of the image quality produced by the unit.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Use of test results.</I> (i) After completion of the tests specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(7) of this section, the facility shall compare the test results to the corresponding specified action limits; or, for nonscreen-film modalities, to the manufacturer's recommended action limits; or, for post-move, preexamination testing of mobile units, to the limits established in the test method used by the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the test results fall outside of the action limits, the source of the problem shall be identified and corrective actions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(A) Before any further examinations are performed or any films are processed using a component of the mammography system that failed any of the tests described in paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(4)(i), (e)(4)(ii), (e)(4)(iii), (e)(5)(vi), (e)(6), or (e)(7) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Within 30 days of the test date for all other tests described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Surveys.</I> (i) At least once a year, each facility shall undergo a survey by a medical physicist or by an individual under the direct supervision of a medical physicist. At a minimum, this survey shall include the performance of tests to ensure that the facility meets the quality assurance requirements of the annual tests described in paragraphs (e)(5) and (e)(6) of this section and the weekly phantom image quality test described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of all tests conducted by the facility in accordance with paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(7) of this section, as well as written documentation of any corrective actions taken and their results, shall be evaluated for adequacy by the medical physicist performing the survey.
</P>
<P>(iii) The medical physicist shall prepare a survey report that includes a summary of this review and recommendations for necessary improvements.
</P>
<P>(iv) The survey report shall be sent to the facility within 30 days of the date of the survey.
</P>
<P>(v) The survey report shall be dated and signed by the medical physicist performing or supervising the survey. If the survey was performed entirely or in part by another individual under the direct supervision of the medical physicist, that individual and the part of the survey that individual performed shall also be identified in the survey report.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Mammography equipment evaluations.</I> Additional evaluations of mammography units or image processors shall be conducted whenever a new unit or processor is installed, a unit or processor is disassembled and reassembled at the same or a new location, or major components of a mammography unit or processor equipment are changed or repaired. These evaluations shall be used to determine whether the new or changed equipment meets the requirements of applicable standards in paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section. All problems shall be corrected before the new or changed equipment is put into service for examinations or film processing. The mammography equipment evaluation shall be performed by a medical physicist or by an individual under the direct supervision of a medical physicist.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Facility cleanliness.</I> (i) The facility shall establish and implement adequate protocols for maintaining darkroom, screen, and view box cleanliness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The facility shall document that all cleaning procedures are performed at the frequencies specified in the protocols.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Calibration of air kerma measuring instruments.</I> Instruments used by medical physicists in their annual survey to measure the air kerma or air kerma rate from a mammography unit shall be calibrated at least once every 2 years and each time the instrument is repaired. The instrument calibration must be traceable to a national standard and calibrated with an accuracy of ±6 percent (95 percent confidence level) in the mammography energy range.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Infection control.</I> Facilities shall establish and comply with a system specifying procedures to be followed by the facility for cleaning and disinfecting mammography equipment after contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials. This system shall specify the methods for documenting facility compliance with the infection control procedures established and shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with all applicable Federal, State, and local regulations pertaining to infection control; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with the manufacturer's recommended procedures for the cleaning and disinfection of the mammography equipment used in the facility; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If adequate manufacturer's recommendations are not available, comply with generally accepted guidance on infection control, until such recommendations become available.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Quality assurance-mammography medical outcomes audit.</I> Each facility shall establish and maintain a mammography medical outcomes audit program to followup positive mammographic assessments and to correlate pathology results with the interpreting physician's findings. This program shall be designed to ensure the reliability, clarity, and accuracy of the interpretation of mammograms.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General requirements.</I> For the purposes of these audit requirements, a mammographic examination consisting of routine views of an asymptomatic patient shall be termed a screening mammogram, while a mammographic examination consisting of individualized views of a patient with breast symptoms, physical signs of breast disease, or abnormal findings on a screening mammogram shall be termed a diagnostic mammogram. Each facility shall establish a system to collect and review outcome data for all mammographic examinations performed, including followup on the disposition of all positive mammograms and correlation of pathology results with the interpreting physician's mammography report. In addition, for cases of breast cancer among patients imaged at the facility that subsequently become known to the facility, the facility shall promptly initiate followup on surgical and/or pathology results and review of the mammographic examinations taken prior to the diagnosis of a malignancy. Analysis of these outcome data shall be made individually and collectively for all interpreting physicians and, at a minimum, shall consist of a determination of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Positive predictive value—percent of patients with positive mammograms who are diagnosed with breast cancer within 1 year of the date of the mammographic examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cancer detection rate—of the patients initially examined with screening mammograms who receive an assessment of “Incomplete: Need additional imaging evaluation,” “Suspicious,” or “Highly Suggestive of Malignancy” on the screening mammogram or on a subsequent diagnostic mammogram, the number of patients who are diagnosed with breast cancer within 1 year of the date of the initial screening mammogram, expressed arithmetically as a ratio per 1,000 patients.
</P>
<P>(iii) Recall rate—percentage of screening mammograms given an assessment of “Incomplete: Need additional imaging evaluation.”


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency of audit analysis.</I> The facility's first audit analysis shall be initiated no later than 12 months after the date the facility becomes certified, or 12 months after April 28, 1999, whichever date is the latest. This audit analysis shall be completed within an additional 12 months to permit completion of diagnostic procedures and data collection. Subsequent audit analyses will be conducted at least once every 12 months.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Audit interpreting physician.</I> Each facility shall designate at least one interpreting physician to review the medical outcomes audit data at least once every 12 months. This individual shall record the dates of the audit period(s) and shall be responsible for analyzing results based on this audit. This individual shall also be responsible for documenting the results and for notifying other interpreting physicians of their results and the facility aggregate results. If followup actions are taken, the audit interpreting physician shall also be responsible for documenting the nature of the followup.
</P>
<P>(4) The records and data required to demonstrate compliance with the requirements in paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section must be retained until the annual inspection that follows the facility's analysis of that information.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mammographic procedure and techniques for mammography of patients with breast implants.</I> (1) Each facility shall have a procedure to inquire whether or not the patient has breast implants prior to the actual mammographic exam.
</P>
<P>(2) Except where contraindicated, or unless modified by a physician's directions, patients with breast implants undergoing mammography shall have mammographic views to maximize the visualization of breast tissue.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consumer complaint mechanism.</I> Each facility shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish a written and documented system for collecting and resolving consumer complaints;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain a record of each serious complaint received by the facility for at least 3 years from the date the complaint was received;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the consumer with adequate directions for filing serious complaints with the facility's accreditation body if the facility is unable to resolve a serious complaint to the consumer's satisfaction;
</P>
<P>(4) Report unresolved serious complaints to the accreditation body in a manner and timeframe specified by the accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Clinical image quality.</I> Clinical images produced by any certified facility must continue to comply with the standards for clinical image quality established by that facility's accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Additional mammography review and patient and referring provider notification.</I> (1) If FDA or the State certification agency believes that mammographic quality at a facility has been compromised and may present a significant risk to human health, the facility shall provide clinical images and other relevant information, as specified by FDA or the State certification agency, for review by the accreditation body or the State certification agency. This additional mammography review will help FDA or the State certification agency determine whether the facility is in compliance with this section and whether there is a need to notify affected patients, their referring physicians or other healthcare providers, and/or the public that there is a significant risk to human health.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the results of the additional mammography review, the facility's failure to comply with the terms of the additional mammography review, or other information, FDA or the State certification agency may determine that the quality of mammography performed by a facility, whether or not certified under § 900.11, was so inconsistent with the quality standards established in this part as to present a significant risk to human health. FDA or the State certification agency may require such a facility to notify all patients who received mammograms at the facility or those patients who are determined to be at risk due to the quality of their mammography, and their referring physicians or other healthcare providers, of the deficiencies and resulting potential harm, appropriate remedial measures, and such other relevant information as FDA or the State certification agency may require. Such notification shall occur within a timeframe and in a manner specified by FDA or the State certification agency. If the facility is unable or unwilling to perform such notification, FDA or the State certification agency may notify patients and their referring physicians or other healthcare providers individually or through the mass media.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 56558, Oct. 22, 1998; 64 FR 18333, Apr. 14, 1999; 64 FR 32408, June 17, 1999; 65 FR 43690, July 14, 2000; 88 FR 15168, Mar. 10, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.13   Revocation of accreditation and revocation of accreditation body approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FDA action following revocation of accreditation.</I> If a facility's accreditation is revoked by an accreditation body, the agency may conduct an investigation into the reasons for the revocation. Following such investigation, the agency may determine that the facility's certificate shall no longer be in effect or the agency may take whatever other action or combination of actions will best protect the public health, including the establishment and implementation of a corrective plan of action that will permit the certificate to continue in effect while the facility seeks reaccreditation. A facility whose certificate is no longer in effect because it has lost its accreditation may not practice mammography.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Withdrawal of FDA approval of an accreditation body.</I> (1) If FDA withdraws approval of an accreditation body under § 900.6, the certificates of facilities previously accredited by such body shall remain in effect for up to 1 year from the date of the withdrawal of approval, unless FDA determines, in order to protect human health or because the accreditation body fraudulently accredited facilities, that the certificates of some or all of the facilities should be revoked or suspended or that a shorter time period should be established for the certificates to remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(2) After 1 year from the date of withdrawal of approval of an accreditation body, or within any shorter period of time established by the agency, the affected facilities must obtain accreditation from another accreditation body, or from another entity designated by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.14" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.14   Suspension or revocation of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, FDA may suspend or revoke a certificate if FDA finds, after providing the owner or operator of the facility with notice and opportunity for a hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, that the facility, owner, operator, or any employee of the facility:


</P>
<P>(1) Has been guilty of misrepresentation in obtaining the certificate;
</P>
<P>(2) Has failed to comply with the standards of § 900.12;
</P>
<P>(3) Has failed to comply with reasonable requests of FDA, the State certification agency, or the accreditation body for records, information, reports, or materials, including clinical images for an additional mammography review under § 900.12(j), that FDA or the State certification agency believes are necessary to determine the continued eligibility of the facility for a certificate or continued compliance with the standards of § 900.12;


</P>
<P>(4) Has refused a reasonable request of a duly designated FDA inspector, State inspector, or accreditation body representative for permission to inspect the facility or the operations and pertinent records of the facility;
</P>
<P>(5) Has violated or aided and abetted in the violation of any provision of or regulation issued pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 263b;




</P>
<P>(6) Has failed to comply with prior sanctions imposed by FDA or the State certification agency under 42 U.S.C. 263b(h), including a directed plan of correction or a patient and referring physician notification; or


</P>
<P>(7) Has failed to comply with requests of current or former facility personnel for records of their training or experience relevant to their qualification under MQSA, in violation of § 900.12(a)(4).


</P>
<P>(b) FDA may suspend the certificate of a facility before holding a hearing if FDA makes a finding described in paragraph (a) of this section and also determines that;
</P>
<P>(1) The failure to comply with required standards presents a serious risk to human health;
</P>
<P>(2) The refusal to permit inspection makes immediate suspension necessary; or
</P>
<P>(3) There is reason to believe that the violation or aiding and abetting of the violation was intentional or associated with fraud.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA suspends a certificate in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall provide the facility with an opportunity for an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter not later than 60 days from the effective date of this suspension;
</P>
<P>(2) The suspension shall remain in effect until the agency determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allegations of violations or misconduct were not substantiated;
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of required standards have been corrected to the agency's satisfaction; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The facility's certificate is revoked in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(d) After providing a hearing in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the agency may revoke the facility's certificate if the agency determines that the facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Is unwilling or unable to correct violations that were the basis for suspension; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has engaged in fraudulent activity to obtain or continue certification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997. Republished and corrected at 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 88 FR 15171, Mar. 10, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.15   Appeals of adverse accreditation or reaccreditation decisions that preclude certification or recertification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appeals procedures described in this section are available only for adverse accreditation or reaccreditation decisions that preclude certification or recertification by FDA. Agency decisions to suspend or revoke certificates that are already in effect will be handled in accordance with § 900.14.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon learning that a facility has failed to become accredited or reaccredited, FDA will notify the facility that the agency is unable to certify that facility without proof of accreditation.
</P>
<P>(c) A facility that has been denied accreditation or reaccreditation is entitled to an appeals process from the accreditation body, in accordance with § 900.7. A facility must avail itself of the accreditation body's appeal process before requesting reconsideration from FDA.
</P>
<P>(d) A facility that cannot achieve satisfactory resolution of an adverse accreditation decision through the accreditation body's appeal process is entitled to further appeal in accordance with procedures set forth in this section and in regulations published in 42 CFR part 498.
</P>
<P>(1) References to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in 42 CFR part 498 should be read as the Division of Mammography Quality Standards (DMQS), Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration.


</P>
<P>(2) References to the Appeals Council of the Social Security Administration in 42 CFR part 498 should be read as references to the Departmental Appeals Board.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B of 42 CFR part 498, a facility that has been denied accreditation following appeal to the accreditation body may request reconsideration of that adverse decision from DMQRP.
</P>
<P>(i) A facility must request reconsideration by DMQS within 60 days of the accreditation body's adverse appeals decision, at the following address: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Division of Mammography Quality Standards, Attn: Facility Accreditation Review Committee, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(ii) The request for reconsideration shall include three copies of the following records:
</P>
<P>(A) The accreditation body's original denial of accreditation.
</P>
<P>(B) All information the facility submitted to the accreditation body as part of the appeals process;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the accreditation body's adverse appeals decision; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement of the basis for the facility's disagreement with the accreditation body's decision.
</P>
<P>(iii) DMQRP will conduct its reconsideration in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B of 42 CFR part 498.
</P>
<P>(4) A facility that is dissatisfied with DMQRP's decision following reconsideration is entitled to a formal hearing in accordance with procedures set forth in subpart D of 42 CFR part 498.
</P>
<P>(5) Either the facility or FDA may request review of the hearing officer's decision. Such review will be conducted by the Departmental Appeals Board in accordance with subpart E of 42 CFR part 498.
</P>
<P>(6) A facility cannot perform mammography services while an adverse accreditation decision is being appealed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 20916, Apr. 22, 2010; 85 FR 18443, Apr. 2, 2020; 88 FR 15171, Mar. 10, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.16   Appeals of denials of certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appeals procedures described in this section are available only to facilities that are denied certification by FDA after they have been accredited by an approved accreditation body. Appeals for facilities that have failed to become accredited are governed by the procedures set forth in § 900.15.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may deny the application if the agency has reason to believe that:
</P>
<P>(1) The facility will not be operated in accordance with standards established under § 900.12;
</P>
<P>(2) The facility will not permit inspections or provide access to records or information in a timely fashion; or
</P>
<P>(3) The facility has been guilty of misrepresentation in obtaining the accreditation.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If FDA denies an application for certification by a faciity that has received accreditation from an approved accreditation body, FDA shall provide the facility with a statement of the grounds on which the denial is based.
</P>
<P>(2) A facility that has been denied accreditation may request reconsideration and appeal of FDA's determination in accordance with the applicable provisions of § 900.15(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.17   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.18   Alternative requirements for § 900.12 quality standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for approval of alternative standards.</I> Upon application by a qualified party as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, FDA may approve an alternative to a quality standard under § 900.12, when the agency determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed alternative standard will be at least as effective in assuring quality mammography as the standard it proposes to replace, and
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed alternative:
</P>
<P>(i) Is too limited in its applicability to justify an amendment to the standard; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Offers an expected benefit to human health that is so great that the time required for amending the standard would present an unjustifiable risk to the human health; and
</P>
<P>(3) The granting of the alternative is in keeping with the purposes of 42 U.S.C. 263b.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicants for alternatives.</I> (1) Mammography facilities and accreditation bodies may apply for alternatives to the quality standards of § 900.12.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal agencies and State governments that are not accreditation bodies may apply for alternatives to the standards of § 900.12(a).
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturers and assemblers of equipment used for mammography may apply for alternatives to the standards of § 900.12(b) and (e).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications for approval of an alternative standard.</I> An application for approval of an alternative standard or for an amendment or extension of the alternative standard shall be submitted in an original and two copies to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Director, Division of Mammography Quality Standards, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. The application for approval of an alternative standard shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the original standard for which the alternative standard is being proposed and an explanation of why the applicant is proposing the alternative;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the manner in which the alternative is proposed to deviate from the original standard;
</P>
<P>(3) A description, supported by data, of the advantages to be derived from such deviation;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation, supported by data, of how such a deviation would ensure equal or greater quality of production, processing, or interpretation of mammograms than the original standard;
</P>
<P>(5) The suggested period of time that the proposed alternative standard would be in effect; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other information required by the Director to evaluate and act on the application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ruling on applications.</I> (1) FDA may approve or deny, in whole or in part, a request for approval of an alternative standard or any amendment or extension thereof, and shall inform the applicant in writing of this action. The written notice shall state the manner in which the requested alternative standard differs from the agency standard and a summary of the reasons for approval or denial of the request. If the request is approved, the written notice shall also include the effective date and the termination date of the approval and a summary of the limitations and conditions attached to the approval and any other information that may be relevant to the approved request. Each approved alternative standard shall be assigned an identifying number.
</P>
<P>(2) Notice of an approved request for an alternative standard or any amendment or extension thereof shall be placed in the public docket file in the Dockets Management Staff and may also be in the form of a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall state the name of the applicant, a description of the published agency standard, and a description of the approved alternative standard, including limitations and conditions attached to the approval of the alternative standard.
</P>
<P>(3) Summaries of the approval of alternative standards, including information on their nature and number, shall be provided to the National Mammography Quality Assurance Advisory Committee.
</P>
<P>(4) All applications for approval of alternative standards and for amendments and extensions thereof and all correspondence (including written notices of approval) on these applications shall be available for public disclosure in the Dockets Management Staff, excluding patient identifiers and confidential commercial information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendment or extension of an alternative standard.</I> An application for amending or extending approval of an alternative standard shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The approval number and the expiration date of the alternative standard;
</P>
<P>(2) The amendment or extension requested and the basis for the amendment or extension; and
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation, supported by data, of how such an amendment or extension would ensure equal or greater quality of production, processing, or interpretation of mammograms than the original standard.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability of the alternative standards.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section, any approval of an alternative standard, amendment, or extension may be implemented only by the entity to which it was granted and under the terms under which it was granted. Other entities interested in similar or identical approvals must file their own application following the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) When an alternative standard is approved for a manufacturer of equipment, any facility using that equipment will also be covered by the alternative standard.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may extend the alternative standard to other entities when FDA determines that expansion of the approval of the alternative standard would be an effective means of promoting the acceptance of measures to improve the quality of mammography. All such determinations will be publicized by appropriate means.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Withdrawal of approval of alternative requirements.</I> FDA shall amend or withdraw approval of an alternative standard whenever the agency determines that this action is necessary to protect the human health or otherwise is justified by § 900.12. Such action will become effective on the date specified in the written notice of the action sent to the applicant, except that it will become effective immediately upon notification of the applicant when FDA determines that such action is necessary to prevent an imminent health hazard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 20916, Apr. 22, 2010; 85 FR 18444, Apr. 2, 2020; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—States as Certifiers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 5467, Feb. 6, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 900.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.20   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations set forth in this part implement the Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) (42 U.S.C. 263b). Subpart C of this part establishes procedures whereby a State can apply to become a FDA-approved certification agency to certify facilities within the State to perform mammography services. Subpart C of this part further establishes requirements and standards for State certification agencies to ensure that all mammography facilities under their jurisdiction are adequately and consistently evaluated for compliance with quality standards at least as stringent as the national quality standards established by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.21   Application for approval as a certification agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> State agencies may apply for approval as a certification agency if they have standards at least as stringent as those of § 900.12, qualified personnel, adequate resources to carry out the States as Certifiers' responsibilities, and the authority to enter into a legal agreement with FDA to accept these responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for approval.</I> (1) An applicant seeking FDA approval as a certification agency shall inform the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Director, Division of Mammography Quality Standards, Attn: Program Management Branch, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, in writing, of its desire to be approved as a certification agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Following receipt of the written request, FDA will provide the applicant with additional information to aid in the submission of an application for approval as a certification agency.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant shall furnish to FDA, at the address in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, three copies of an application containing the following information, materials, and supporting documentation:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and phone number of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed description of the mammography quality standards the applicant will require facilities to meet and, for those standards different from FDA's quality standards, information substantiating that they are at least as stringent as FDA standards under § 900.12;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed description of the applicant's review and decisionmaking process for facility certification, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Policies and procedures for notifying facilities of certificate denials and expirations;
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for monitoring and enforcement of the correction of deficiencies by facilities;
</P>
<P>(C) Policies and procedures for suspending or revoking a facility's certification;
</P>
<P>(D) Policies and procedures that will ensure processing certificates within a timeframe approved by FDA;
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the appeals process for facilities contesting adverse certification status decisions;
</P>
<P>(F) Education, experience, and training requirements of the applicant's professional and supervisory staff;
</P>
<P>(G) Description of the applicant's electronic data management and analysis system;
</P>
<P>(H) Fee schedules;
</P>
<P>(I) Statement of policies and procedures established to avoid conflict of interest;
</P>
<P>(J) Description of the applicant's mechanism for handling facility inquiries and complaints;
</P>
<P>(K) Description of a plan to ensure that certified mammography facilities will be inspected according to MQSA (42 U.S.C. 263b) and procedures and policies for notifying facilities of inspection deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(L) Policies and procedures for monitoring and enforcing the correction of facility deficiencies discovered during inspections or by other means;
</P>
<P>(M) Policies and procedures for additional mammography review and for requesting such reviews from accreditation bodies;
</P>
<P>(N) Policies and procedures for patient notification;
</P>
<P>(O) If a State has regulations that are more stringent than those of § 900.12, an explanation of how adverse actions taken against a facility under the more stringent regulations will be distinguished from those taken under the requirements of § 900.12; and
</P>
<P>(P) Any other information that FDA identifies as necessary to make a determination on the approval of the State as a certification agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rulings on applications for approval.</I> (1) FDA will conduct a review and evaluation to determine whether the applicant substantially meets the applicable requirements of this subpart and whether the certification standards the applicant will require facilities to meet are the quality standards published under subpart B of this part or at least as stringent as those of subpart B.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will notify the applicant of any deficiencies in the application and request that those deficiencies be corrected within a specified time period. If the deficiencies are not corrected to FDA's satisfaction within the specified time period, FDA may deny the application for approval as a certification agency.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA shall notify the applicant whether the application has been approved or denied. The notification shall list any conditions associated with approval or state the bases for any denial.
</P>
<P>(4) The review of any application may include a meeting between FDA and representatives of the applicant at a time and location mutually acceptable to FDA and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(5) FDA will advise the applicant of the circumstances under which a denied application may be resubmitted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of authority.</I> FDA may limit the scope of certification authority delegated to the State in accordance with MQSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55976, Oct. 28, 1997; 62 FR 60614, Nov. 10, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 20916, Apr. 22, 2010; 85 FR 18444, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.22   Standards for certification agencies.</HEAD>
<P>The certification agency shall accept the following responsibilities in order to ensure quality mammography at the facilities it certifies and shall perform these responsibilities in a manner that ensures the integrity and impartiality of the certification agency's actions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest.</I> The certification agency shall establish and implement measures that FDA has approved in accordance with § 900.21(b) to reduce the possibility of conflict of interest or facility bias on the part of individuals acting on the certification agency's behalf.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and inspection responsibilities.</I> Mammography facilities shall be certified and inspected in accordance with statutory and regulatory requirements that are at least as stringent as those of MQSA and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance with quality standards.</I> The scope, timeliness, disposition, and technical accuracy of completed inspections and related enforcement activities shall ensure compliance with facility quality standards required under § 900.12.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> (1) There shall be appropriate criteria and processes for the suspension and revocation of certificates.
</P>
<P>(2) There shall be prompt investigation of and appropriate enforcement action for facilities performing mammography without certificates.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeals.</I> There shall be processes for facilities to appeal inspection findings, enforcement actions, and adverse certification decision or adverse accreditation decisions after exhausting appeals to the accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional mammography review.</I> There shall be a process for the certification agency to request additional mammography review from accreditation bodies for issues related to mammography image quality and clinical practice. The certification agency should request additional mammography review only when it believes that mammography quality at a facility has been compromised and may present a serious risk to human health.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Patient notification.</I> There shall be processes for the certification agency to conduct, or cause to be conducted, patient notifications should the certification agency determine that mammography quality has been compromised to such an extent that it may present a serious risk to human health.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic data transmission.</I> There shall be processes to ensure the timeliness and accuracy of electronic transmission of inspection data and facility certification status information in a format and timeframe determined by FDA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Changes to standards.</I> A certification agency shall obtain FDA authorization for any changes it proposes to make in any standard that FDA has previously accepted under § 900.21 before requiring facilities to comply with the changes as a condition of obtaining or maintaining certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.23" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.23   Evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>FDA shall evaluate annually the performance of each certification agency. The evaluation shall include the use of performance indicators that address the adequacy of program performance in certification, inspection, and enforcement activities. FDA will also consider any additional information deemed relevant by FDA that has been provided by the certification body or other sources or has been required by FDA as part of its oversight mandate. The evaluation also shall include a review of any changes in the standards or procedures in the areas listed in §§ 900.21(b) and 900.22 that have taken place since the original application or the last evaluation, whichever is most recent. The evaluation shall include a determination of whether there are major deficiencies in the certification agency's regulations or performance that, if not corrected, would warrant withdrawal of the approval of the certification agency under the provisions of § 900.24, or minor deficiencies that would require corrective action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.24" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.24   Withdrawal of approval.</HEAD>
<P>If FDA determines, through the evaluation activities of § 900.23, or through other means, that a certification agency is not in substantial compliance with this subpart, FDA may initiate the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Major deficiencies.</I> If, after providing notice and opportunity for corrective action, FDA determines that a certification agency has demonstrated willful disregard for public health, has committed fraud, has failed to provide adequate resources for the program, has submitted material false statements to the agency, has failed to achieve the MQSA goals of quality mammography and access, or has performed or failed to perform a delegated function in a manner that may cause serious risk to human health, FDA may withdraw its approval of that certification agency. The certification agency shall notify, within a time period and in a manner approved by FDA, all facilities certified or seeking certification by it that it has been required to correct major deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(1) FDA shall notify the certification agency of FDA's action and the grounds on which the approval was withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(2) A certification agency that has lost its approval shall notify facilities certified or seeking certification by it, as well as the appropriate accreditation bodies with jurisdiction in the State, that its approval has been withdrawn. Such notification shall be made within a timeframe and in a manner approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minor deficiencies.</I> If FDA determines that a certification agency has demonstrated deficiencies in performing certification functions and responsibilities that are less serious or more limited than the deficiencies in paragraph (a) of this section, including failure to follow the certification agency's own procedures and policies as approved by FDA, FDA shall notify the certification agency that it has a specified period of time to take particular corrective measures as directed by FDA or to submit to FDA for approval the certification agency's own plan of corrective action addressing the minor deficiencies. If the approved corrective actions are not being implemented satisfactorily or within the established schedule, FDA may place the agency on probationary status for a period of time determined by FDA, or may withdraw approval of the certification agency.
</P>
<P>(1) If FDA places a certification agency on probationary status, the certification agency shall notify all facilities certified or seeking certification by it of its probationary status within a time period and in a manner approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) Probationary status shall remain in effect until such time as the certification agency can demonstrate to the satisfaction of FDA that it has successfully implemented or is implementing the corrective action plan within the established schedule, and that the corrective actions have substantially eliminated all identified problems, or
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA determines that a certification agency that has been placed on probationary status is not implementing corrective actions satisfactorily or within the established schedule, FDA may withdraw approval of the certification agency. The certification agency shall notify all facilities certified or seeking certification by it, as well as the appropriate accreditation bodies with jurisdiction in the State, of its loss of FDA approval, within a timeframe and in a manner approved by FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transfer of records.</I> A certification agency that has its approval withdrawn shall transfer facility records and other related information as required by FDA to a location and according to a schedule approved by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.2.36.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.25   Hearings and appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Opportunities to challenge final adverse actions taken by FDA regarding approval of certification agencies or withdrawal of approval of certification agencies shall be communicated through notices of opportunity for informal hearings in accordance with part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A facility that has been denied certification is entitled to an appeals process from the certification agency. The appeals process shall be specified in writing by the certification agency and shall have been approved by FDA in accordance with §§ 900.21 and 900.22.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="J" NODE="21:8.0.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER J—RADIOLOGICAL HEALTH 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1000" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1000—GENERAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360hh-360ss.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28624, Oct. 15, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.37.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1000.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.37.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1000.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>References in this subchapter J to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 33688, Aug. 20, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1000.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.37.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1000.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subchapter J:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accidental radiation occurrence</I> means a single accidental event or series of accidental events that has/have resulted in injurious or potentially injurious exposure of any person to electronic product radiation as a result of the manufacturing, testing, or use of an electronic product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360hh-360ss).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chassis family</I> means a group of one or more models with all of the following common characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) The same circuitry in the high voltage, horizontal oscillator, and power supply sections;
</P>
<P>(2) The same worst component failures; 
</P>
<P>(3) The same type of high voltage hold-down or safety circuits; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The same design and installation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commerce</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Commerce between any place in any State and any place outside thereof, and
</P>
<P>(2) Commerce wholly within the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Component,</I> for the purposes of this part, means an essential functional part of a subassembly or of an assembled electronic product, and which may affect the quantity, quality, direction, or radiation emission of the finished product.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dealer</I> means a person engaged in the business of offering electronic products for sale to purchasers, without regard to whether such person is or has been primarily engaged in such business, and includes persons who offer such products for lease or as prizes or awards.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Director</I> means the Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Distributor</I> means a person engaged in the business of offering electronic products for sale to dealers, without regard to whether such person is or has been primarily or customarily engaged in such business.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Electromagnetic radiation</I> includes the entire electromagnetic spectrum of radiation of any wavelength. The electromagnetic spectrum illustrated in figure 1 includes, but is not limited to, gamma rays, x-rays, ultra-violet, visible, infrared, microwave, radiowave, and low frequency radiation.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.029.gif"/>
<P>(j) <I>Electronic product</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any manufactured or assembled product which, when in operation:
</P>
<P>(i) Contains or acts as part of an electronic circuit and
</P>
<P>(ii) Emits (or in the absence of effective shielding or other controls would emit) electronic product radiation, or
</P>
<P>(2) Any manufactured or assembled article that is intended for use as a component, part, or accessory of a product described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section and which, when in operation, emits (or in the absence of effective shielding or other controls would emit) such radiation.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Electronic product radiation</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any ionizing or nonionizing electromagnetic or particulate radiation, or
</P>
<P>(2) Any sonic, infrasonic, or ultrasonic wave that is emitted from an electronic product as the result of the operation of an electronic circuit in such product.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Federal standard</I> means a performance standard issued pursuant to section 534 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Infrasonic, sonic (or audible) and ultrasonic waves</I> refer to energy transmitted as an alteration (pressure, particle displacement or density) in a property of an elastic medium (gas, liquid or solid) that can be detected by an instrument or listener.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person engaged in the business of manufacturing, assembling, or importing electronic products.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Model</I> means any identifiable, unique electronic product design, and refers to products having the same structural and electrical design characteristics and to which the manufacturer has assigned a specific designation to differentiate between it and other products produced by that manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Model family</I> means products having similar design and radiation characteristics but different manufacturer model numbers.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Modified model</I> means a product that is redesigned so that actual or potential radiation emission, the manner of compliance with a standard, or the manner of radiation safety testing is affected.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Particulate radiation</I> is defined as:
</P>
<P>(1) Charged particles, such as protons, electrons, alpha particles, or heavy particles, which have sufficient kinetic energy to produce ionization or atomic or electron excitation by collision, electrical attractions or electrical repulsion; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Uncharged particles, such as neutrons, which can initiate a nuclear transformation or liberate charged particles having sufficient kinetic energy to produce ionization or atomic or electron excitation.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Purchaser</I> means the first person who, for value, or as an award or prize, acquires an electronic product for purposes other than resale, and includes a person who leases an electronic product for purposes other than subleasing.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>State</I> means a State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48380, Sept. 19, 1995; 61 FR 13422, Mar. 27, 1996, as amended at 88 FR 3652, Jan. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.37.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Statements of Policy and Interpretation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1000.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.37.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1000.15   Examples of electronic products subject to the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968.</HEAD>
<P>The following listed electronic products are intended to serve as illustrative examples of sources of electronic product radiation to which the regulations of this part apply. 
</P>
<P>(a) Examples of electronic products which may emit x-rays and other ionizing electromagnetic radiation, electrons, neutrons, and other particulate radiation include: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Ionizing electromagnetic radiation: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Television receivers. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Accelerators. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>X-ray machines (industrial, medical, research, educational). 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Particulate radiation and ionizing electromagnetic radiation: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Electron microscopes. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Neutron generators.</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Examples of electronic products which may emit ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwaves, radio and low frequency electromagnetic radiation include: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Ultraviolet: 
</FP>
<FP1-2>Biochemical and medical analyzers. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Tanning and therapeutic lamps. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sanitizing and sterilizing devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Black light sources. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Welding equipment. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Visible: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>White light devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Infrared: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Alarm systems. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Diathermy units. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Dryers, ovens, and heaters. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Microwave: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Alarm systems. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Diathermy units. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Dryers, ovens, and heaters. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Medico-biological heaters. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Microwave power generating devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Radar devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Remote control devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Signal generators. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Radio and low frequency: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Cauterizers. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Diathermy units. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Power generation and transmission equipment. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Signal generators. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Electromedical equipment.</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Examples of electronic products which may emit coherent electromagnetic radiation produced by stimulated emission include: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Laser: 
</FP>
<FP1-2>Art-form, experimental and educational devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Biomedical analyzers. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Cauterizing, burning and welding devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Cutting and drilling devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Communications transmitters. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Rangefinding devices. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Maser: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Communications transmitters.</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Examples of electronic products which may emit infrasonic, sonic, and ultrasonic vibrations resulting from operation of an electronic circuit include: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Infrasonic: 
</FP>
<FP1-2>Vibrators. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Sonic: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Electronic oscillators. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sound amplification equipment. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Ultrasonic: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Cauterizers. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Cell and tissue disintegrators. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Cleaners. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Diagnostic and nondestructive testing equipment. 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Ranging and detection equipment.</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1002" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1002—RECORDS AND REPORTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 352, 360, 360i, 360j, 360hh-360ss, 371, 374.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28625, Oct. 15, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are applicable as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) All manufacturers of electronic products are subject to § 1002.20.
</P>
<P>(b) Manufacturers, dealers, and distributors of electronic products are subject to the provisions of part 1002 as set forth in table 1 of this section, unless excluded by paragraph (c) of this section, or unless an exemption has been granted under § 1002.50 or § 1002.51.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of part 1002 as specified in table 1 of this section are not applicable to:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturers of electronic products intended solely for export if such product is labeled or tagged to show that the product meets all the applicable requirements of the country to which such product is intended for export.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturers of electronic products listed in table 1 of this section if such product is sold exclusively to other manufacturers for use as components of electronic products to be sold to purchasers, with the exception that the provisions are applicable to those manufacturers certifying components of diagnostic x-ray systems pursuant to provisions of § 1020.30(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturers of electronic products that are intended for use by the U.S. Government and whose function or design cannot be divulged by the manufacturer for reasons of national security, as evidenced by government security classification.
</P>
<P>(4) Assemblers of diagnostic x-ray equipment subject to the provisions of § 1020.30(d) of this chapter, provided the assembler has submitted the report required by § 1020.30(d)(1) or (d)(2) of this chapter and retains a copy of such report for a period of 5 years from its date.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1002.1—Record and Reporting Requirements by Product
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="7" scope="col">Manufacturer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dealer &amp;


<br/>distributor
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Products
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product


<br/>reports

<br/>1002.10
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplemental


<br/>reports

<br/>1002.11
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Abbreviated


<br/>reports

<br/>1002.12
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual


<br/>reports

<br/>1002.13
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test


<br/>records

<br/>1002.30(a) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distribution


<br/>records

<br/>1002.30(b) 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distribution


<br/>records

<br/>1002.40 and 1002.41
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DIAGNOSTIC X-RAY 
<sup>3</sup> (1020.30, 1020.31, 1020.32, 1020.33):
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Computed tomography</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">X-ray system 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tube housing assembly</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">X-ray control</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">X-ray high voltage generator</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">X-ray table or cradle</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">X-ray film changer</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vertical cassette holders mounted in a fixed location and cassette holders with front panels</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Beam-limiting devices</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spot-film devices and image intensifiers manufactured after April 26, 1977</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cephalometric devices manufactured after February 25, 1978</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Image receptor support devices for mammographic X-ray systems manufactured after September 5, 1978</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CABINET X RAY (1020.40):
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Baggage inspection</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Other</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PRODUCTS INTENDED TO PRODUCE PARTICULATE RADIATION OR X-RAYS OTHER THAN DIAGNOSTIC OR CABINET X-RAY:
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Medical</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Analytical</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Industrial</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TELEVISION PRODUCTS (1020.10):
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">&lt;0.1 milliroentgen per hour (mR/hr) IRLC 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">≥0.1mR/hr IRLC 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MICROWAVE/RF:
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">MW ovens (1030.10)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">MW diathermy</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">MW heating, drying, security systems</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">RF sealers, electromagnetic induction and heating equipment, dielectric heaters (2-500 megahertz)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OPTICAL:
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Laser products (1040.10, 1040.11)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Class I lasers and products containing such lasers 
<sup>7, 9</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Class I laser products containing class IIa, II, IIIa, lasers 
<sup>7, 9</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Class IIa, II, IIIa lasers and products other than class I products containing such lasers 
<sup>7 9</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Class IIIb and IV lasers and products containing such lasers 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SUNLAMP PRODUCTS (1040.20):
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lamps only</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sunlamp products</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mercury vapor lamps (1040.30)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">R lamps and T lamps</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> However, authority to inspect all appropriate documents supporting the adequacy of a manufacturer's compliance testing program is retained.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The requirement includes §§ 1002.31 and 1002.42, if applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Report of Assembly (Form FDA 2579) is required for diagnostic x-ray components; see § 1020.30(d)(1)-(3) of this chapter.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Systems records and reports are required if a manufacturer exercises the option and certifies the system as permitted in § 1020.30(c) of this chapter.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Determined using the isoexposure rate limit curve (IRLC) under phase III test conditions (§ 1020.10(c)(3)(iii)) of this chapter.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Annual report is for production status information only.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Determination of the applicable reporting category for a laser product shall be based on the worst-case hazard present within the laser product.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> Manufacturers are exempt from product reports (§ 1002.10) and abbreviated reports (§ 1002.12), except the first product or abbreviated report for each category of: television products; microwave ovens; and products that are Class I laser under any condition of operation, maintenance, service, or failure (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> Class I optical disc products, laser printers).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>9</sup> Manufacturers that incorporate a certified laser system meeting the conditions of 21 CFR 1010.2(e) are considered distributors of the certified laser and only subject to the applicable distribution recordkeeping requirements under §§ 1002.40 and 1002.41 for the certified products.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48382, Sept. 19, 1995; 61 FR 13423, Mar. 27, 1996, as amended at 88 FR 3652, Jan. 20, 2023]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.3   Notification to user of performance and technical data.</HEAD>
<P>The Director and Deputy Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, as authorized under delegated authority, may require a manufacturer of a radiation emitting electronic product to provide to the ultimate purchaser, at the time of original purchase, such performance data and other technical data related to safety of the product as the Director or Deputy Director finds necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17292, Apr. 2, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.4   Confidentiality of information.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary or his representative shall not disclose any information reported to or otherwise obtained by him, pursuant to this part, which concerns or relates to a trade secret or other matter referred to in section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code, except that such information may be disclosed to other officers or employees of the Department and of the other agencies concerned with carrying out the requirements of the Act. Nothing in this section shall authorize the withholding of information by the Secretary, or by any officers or employees under his control, from the duly authorized committees of the Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.7   Submission of data and reports.</HEAD>
<P>All submissions such as reports, test data, product descriptions, and other information required by this part, or voluntarily submitted to the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, shall be filed with the number of copies as prescribed by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, and shall be signed by the person making the submission. The submissions required by this part shall be addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, ATTN: Electronic Product Reports, Document Mail Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. G609, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(a) In addition to the requirements of this part, all material submitted to the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, shall be submitted pursuant to the provisions of part 20—Public Information, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Where guides or instructions have been issued by the Director for the submission of material required by this part, such as test data, product reports, abbreviated reports, supplemental reports, and annual reports, the material submitted shall conform to the applicable reporting guides or instructions. Where it is not feasible or where it would not be appropriate to conform to any portion of a prescribed reporting guide or instruction, an alternate format for providing the information requested by that portion of the guide or instruction may be used provided the submitter of such information submits adequate explanation and justification for use of an alternate format. If the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, determines that such justification is inadequate and that it is feasible or appropriate to conform to the prescribed reporting guide or instruction, he may require resubmission of the information in conformance with the reporting guide or instruction.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the submission of quality control and testing information is common to more than one model, or model family of the same product category, a “common aspects report” consolidating similar information may be provided, if applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 18062, Apr. 5, 1977, as amended at 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 60 FR 48385, Sept. 19, 1995; 72 FR 17400, Apr. 9, 2007; 75 FR 20916, Apr. 22, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Required Manufacturers' Reports for Listed Electronic Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 48386, Sept. 19, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1002.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.10   Product reports.</HEAD>
<P>Every manufacturer of a product or component requiring a product report as set forth in table 1 of § 1002.1 shall submit a product report to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, ATTN: Electronic Product Reports, Document Mail Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. G609, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, prior to the introduction of such product into commerce. The report shall be distinctly marked “Radiation Safety Product Report of (name of manufacturer)” and shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify which listed product is being reported.
</P>
<P>(b) Identify each model of the listed product together with sufficient information concerning the manufacturer's code or other system of labeling to enable the Director to determine the place of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(c) Include information on all components and accessories provided in, on, or with the listed product that may affect the quantity, quality, or direction of the radiation emissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Describe the function, operational characteristics affecting radiation emissions, and intended and known uses of each model of the listed product. 
</P>
<P>(e) State the standard or design specifications, if any, for each model with respect to electronic product radiation safety. Reference may be made to a Federal standard, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) For each model, describe the physical or electrical characteristics, such as shielding or electronic circuitry, incorporated into the product in order to meet the standards or specifications reported pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Describe the methods and procedures employed, if any, in testing and measuring each model with respect to electronic product radiation safety, including the control of unnecessary, secondary, or leakage electronic product radiation, the applicable quality control procedures used for each model, and the basis for selecting such testing and quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(h) For those products which may produce increased radiation with aging, describe the methods and procedures used, and frequency of testing of each model for durability and stability with respect to electronic product radiation safety. Include the basis for selecting such methods and procedures, or for determining that such testing and quality control procedures are not necessary.
</P>
<P>(i) Provide sufficient results of the testing, measuring, and quality control procedures described in accordance with paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section to enable the Director to determine the effectiveness of those test methods and procedures.
</P>
<P>(j) Report for each model all warning signs, labels, and instructions for installation, operation, and use that relate to electronic product radiation safety.
</P>
<P>(k) Provide, upon request, such other information as the Director may reasonably require to enable him/her to determine whether the manufacturer has acted or is acting in compliance with the Act and any standards prescribed thereunder, and to enable the Director to carry out the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48386, Sept. 19, 1995, as amended at 72 FR 17400, Apr. 9, 2007; 75 FR 20916, Apr. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.11   Supplemental reports.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the introduction into commerce of a new or modified model within a model or chassis family of a product listed in table 1 of § 1002.1 for which a report under § 1002.10 is required, each manufacturer shall submit a report with respect to such new or modified model describing any changes in the information previously submitted in the product report. Reports will be required for changes that:
</P>
<P>(a) Affect actual or potential radiation emission.
</P>
<P>(b) Affect the manner of compliance with a standard or manner of testing for radiation safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.12   Abbreviated reports.</HEAD>
<P>Manufacturers of products requiring abbreviated reports as specified in table 1 of § 1002.1 shall submit, prior to the introduction of such product, a report distinctly marked “Radiation Safety Abbreviated Report” which shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) Firm and model identification.
</P>
<P>(b) A brief description of operational characteristics that affect radiation emissions, transmission, or leakage or that control exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) A list of applications or uses.
</P>
<P>(d) Radiation emission, transmission, or leakage levels.
</P>
<P>(e) If necessary, additional information as may be requested to determine compliance with the Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.13   Annual reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer of products requiring an annual report as specified in table 1 of § 1002.1 shall submit an annual report summarizing the contents of the records required to be maintained by § 1002.30(a) and providing the volume of products produced, sold, or installed.
</P>
<P>(b) Reports are due annually by September 1. Such reports shall cover the 12-month period ending on June 30 preceding the due date of the report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48386, Sept. 19, 1995, as amended at 88 FR 3653, Jan. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Manufacturers' Reports on Accidental Radiation Occurrences</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.20   Reporting of accidental radiation occurrences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturers of electronic products shall, where reasonable grounds for suspecting that such an incident has occurred, report to the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, all accidental radiation occurrences reported to or otherwise known to the manufacturer and arising from the manufacturing, testing, or use of any product introduced or intended to be introduced into commerce by such manufacturer. Reasonable grounds include, but are not necessarily limited to, professional, scientific, or medical facts or opinions documented or otherwise, that conclude or lead to the conclusion that such an incident has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) Such reports shall be submitted either electronically through Center for Devices and Radiological Health eSubmitter or addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, ATTN: Accidental Radiation Occurrence Reports, Document Mail Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. G609, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, and the reports and their envelopes shall be distinctly marked “Report on 1002.20” and shall contain all of the following information where known to the manufacturer:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the accidental radiation occurrence;
</P>
<P>(2) The location at which the accidental radiation occurrence occurred;
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer, type, and model number of the electronic product or products involved;
</P>
<P>(4) The circumstances surrounding the accidental radiation occurrence, including causes;
</P>
<P>(5) The number of persons involved, adversely affected, or exposed during the accidental radiation occurrence, the nature and magnitude of their exposure and/or injuries and, if requested by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the names of the persons involved;
</P>
<P>(6) The actions, if any, which may have been taken by the manufacturer, to control, correct, or eliminate the causes and to prevent reoccurrence; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other pertinent information with respect to the accidental radiation occurrence.
</P>
<P>(c) If a manufacturer:
</P>
<P>(1) Is required to report to the Director under paragraph (a) of this section and also is required to report under part 803 of this chapter, the manufacturer shall report in accordance with part 803; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is required to report to the Director under paragraph (a) of this section and is not required to report under part 803 of this chapter, the manufacturer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately report incidents associated with a death or serious injury in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either immediately report incidents not associated with a death or serious injury individually or compile such incidents for submission in a quarterly summary report with tracking and trending analysis of that data in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. The quarterly report must cover information required under paragraphs (b)(1) through (7) of this section for each occurrence were known to the manufacturer. Occurrences may be grouped to identify the most common circumstances and potential cause(s), including but not limited to, design changes, manufacturing, or user. Planned mitigation(s) with an assessment of effectiveness, or a justification for why mitigation is not necessary, must be associated with each occurrence or grouping of similar occurrences. A manufacturer need not file a separate report under this section if an incident involving an accidental radiation occurrence is associated with a defect or noncompliance and is reported pursuant to § 1003.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 3653, Jan. 20, 2023]
</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Manufacturers' Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.30   Records to be maintained by manufacturers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturers of products listed under table 1 of § 1002.1 shall establish and maintain the following records with respect to such products: 
</P>
<P>(1) Description of the quality control procedures with respect to electronic product radiation safety. 
</P>
<P>(2) Records of the results of tests for electronic product radiation safety, including the control of unnecessary, secondary or leakage electronic product radiation, the methods, devices, and procedures used in such tests, and the basis for selecting such methods, devices, and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(3) For those products displaying aging effects which may increase electronic product radiation emission, records of the results of tests for durability and stability of the product, and the basis for selecting these tests. 
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all written communications between the manufacturer and dealers, distributors, and purchasers concerning radiation safety including complaints, investigations, instructions, or explanations affecting the use, repair, adjustment, maintenance, or testing of the listed product. 
</P>
<P>(5) Data on production and sales volume levels if available.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the records required by paragraph (a) of this section, manufacturers of products listed in table 1 of § 1002.1 shall establish and maintain the following records with respect to such products:
</P>
<P>(1) A record of the manufacturer's distribution of products in a form which will enable the tracing of specific products or production lots to distributors or to dealers in those instances in which the manufacturer distributes directly to dealers. 
</P>
<P>(2) Records received from dealers or distributors pursuant to § 1002.41. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28625, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 60 FR 48386, Sept. 19, 1995; 75 FR 16352, Apr. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.31" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.31   Preservation and inspection of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer required to maintain records pursuant to this part, including records received pursuant to § 1002.41, shall preserve such records for a period of 5 years from the date of the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon reasonable notice by an officer or employee duly designated by the Department, manufacturers shall permit such officer or employee to inspect appropriate books, records, papers, and documents as are relevant to determining whether the manufacturer has acted or is acting in compliance with Federal standards. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon request of the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, a manufacturer of products listed in table 1 of § 1002.1 shall submit to the Director, copies of the records required to be maintained by paragraph (b) of § 1002.30. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28625, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 60 FR 48386, Sept. 19, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Dealer and Distributor Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.40   Records to be obtained by dealers and distributors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Dealers and distributors of electronic products for which there are performance standards and for which the retail price is $50 or more shall obtain such information as is necessary to identify and locate first purchasers if the product is subject to this section by virtue of table 1 of § 1002.1.
</P>
<P>(b) Such information shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and mailing address of the distributor, dealer, or purchaser to whom the product was transferred. 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification and brand name of the product. 
</P>
<P>(3) Model number and serial or other identification number of the product. 
</P>
<P>(4) Date of sale, award, or lease.
</P>
<P>(c) The information obtained pursuant to this section shall be forwarded immediately to the appropriate manufacturer of the electronic product, or preserved as prescribed in § 1002.41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28625, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 42 FR 18063, Apr. 5, 1977; 60 FR 48386, Sept. 19, 1995] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.41" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.41   Disposition of records obtained by dealers and distributors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information obtained by dealers and distributors pursuant to § 1002.40 shall immediately be forwarded to the appropriate manufacturer unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The dealer or distributor elects to hold and preserve such information and to immediately furnish it to the manufacturer when advised by the manufacturer or the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, that such information is required for purposes of section 535 of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dealer or distributor, upon making the election under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, promptly notifies the manufacturer of such election; such notification shall be in writing and shall identify the dealer or distributor and the electronic product or products for which the information is being accumulated and preserved. 
</P>
<P>(b) Every dealer or distributor who elects to hold and preserve information required pursuant to § 1002.40 shall preserve the information for a period of 5 years from the date of the sale, award, or lease of the product, or until the dealer or distributor discontinues dealing in, or distributing the product, whichever is sooner. If the dealer or distributor discontinues dealing in, or distributing the product, such information as obtained pursuant to § 1002.40 shall be furnished at that time, or before, to the manufacturer of the product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28625, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 42 FR 18063, Apr. 5, 1977; 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 75 FR 16352, Apr. 1, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.42" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.42   Confidentiality of records furnished by dealers and distributors.</HEAD>
<P>All information furnished to manufacturers by dealers and distributors pursuant to this part shall be treated by such manufacturers as confidential information which may be used only as necessary to notify persons pursuant to section 535 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16353, Apr. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Exemptions From Records and Reports Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.50   Special exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturers of electronic products may submit to the Director a request, together with accompanying justification, for exemption from any requirements listed in table 1 of § 1002.1. The request must specify each requirement from which an exemption is requested. In addition to other information that is required, the justification must contain documented evidence showing that the product or product type for which the exemption is requested does not pose a public health risk and meets at least one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The products cannot emit electronic product radiation in sufficient intensity or of such quality, under any conditions of operation, maintenance, service, or product failure, to be hazardous;
</P>
<P>(2) The products are produced in small quantities;
</P>
<P>(3) The products are used by trained individuals and are to be used by the same manufacturing corporation or for research, investigation, or training.
</P>
<P>(4) The products are custom designed and used by trained individuals knowledgeable of the hazards; or
</P>
<P>(5) The products are produced in such a way that the requirements are inappropriate or unnecessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may, subject to any conditions that the Director deems necessary to protect the public health, exempt manufacturers from all or part of the record and reporting requirements of this part on the basis of information submitted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section or such other information which the Director may possess if the Director determines that such exemption is in keeping with the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director will provide written notification of the reason for any denial. If the exemption is granted, the Director will provide written notification of:
</P>
<P>(1) The electronic product or products for which the exemption has been granted;
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements from which the product is exempted; and
</P>
<P>(3) Such conditions as are deemed necessary to protect the public health and safety. Copies of exemptions shall be available upon request from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Division of Mammography Quality Standards, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may, on the Director's own motion, exempt certain classes of products from the reporting requirements listed in table 1 of § 1002.1, provided that the Director finds that such exemption is in keeping with the purposes of the act.
</P>
<P>(e) Manufacturers of products for which there is no applicable performance standard under parts 1020 through 1050 of this chapter and for which an investigational device exemption has been approved under § 812.30 of this chapter or for which a premarket approval application has been approved in accordance with § 814.44(d) of this chapter are exempt from submitting all reports listed in table 1 of § 1002.1.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48387, Sept. 19, 1995, as amended at 72 FR 17401, Apr. 9, 2007; 75 FR 20916, Apr. 22, 2010; 85 FR 18444, Apr. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.51" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.38.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.51   Exemptions for manufacturers of products intended for the U.S. Government.</HEAD>
<P>Upon application therefor by the manufacturer, the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, may exempt from the provisions of this part a manufacturer of any electronic product intended for use by departments or agencies of the United States provided such department or agency has prescribed procurement specifications governing emissions of electronic product radiation and provided further that such product is of a type used solely or predominantly by departments or agencies of the United States. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28625, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1003" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1003—NOTIFICATION OF DEFECTS OR FAILURE TO COMPLY 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360hh-360ss.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28628, Oct. 15, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are applicable to electronic products which were manufactured after October 18, 1968. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.2   Defect in an electronic product.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, an electronic product shall be considered to have a defect which relates to the safety of use by reason of the emission of electronic product radiation if: 
</P>
<P>(a) It is a product which does not utilize the emission of electronic product radiation in order to accomplish its purpose, and from which such emissions are unintended, and as a result of its design, production or assembly; 
</P>
<P>(1) It emits electronic product radiation which creates a risk of injury, including genetic injury, to any person, or 
</P>
<P>(2) It fails to conform to its design specifications relating to electronic radiation emissions; or 
</P>
<P>(b) It is a product which utilizes electronic product radiation to accomplish its primary purpose and from which such emissions are intended, and as a result of its design, production or assembly it; 
</P>
<P>(1) Fails to conform to its design specifications relating to the emission of electronic product radiation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Without regard to the design specifications of the product, emits electronic product radiation unnecessary to the accomplishment of its primary purpose which creates a risk of injury, including genetic injury to any person; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Fails to accomplish the intended purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.5   Effect of regulations on other laws.</HEAD>
<P>The remedies provided for in this subchapter shall be in addition to and not in substitution for any other remedies provided by law and shall not relieve any person from liability at common law or under statutory law. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Discovery of Defect or Failure To Comply</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.10   Discovery of defect or failure of compliance by manufacturer; notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Any manufacturer who discovers that any electronic product produced, assembled, or imported by him, which product has left its place of manufacture, has a defect or fails to comply with an applicable Federal standard shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Immediately notify the Secretary in accordance with § 1003.20, and 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as authorized by § 1003.30, furnish notification with reasonable promptness to the following persons: 
</P>
<P>(1) The dealers or distributors to whom such product was delivered by the manufacturer; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The purchaser of such product and any subsequent transferee of such product (where known to the manufacturer or where the manufacturer upon reasonable inquiry to dealers, distributors, or purchasers can identify the present user). 
</P>
<P>(c) If a manufacturer is required to notify the Secretary under paragraph (a) of this section and also is required to report to the Food and Drug Administration under part 803 of this chapter, the manufacturer shall report in accordance with part 803. If a manufacturer is required to notify the Secretary under paragraph (a) of this section and is not required to report to the Food and Drug Administration under part 803, the manufacturer shall notify the Secretary in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28628, Oct. 15, 1973 and 49 FR 36351, Sept. 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.11   Determination by Secretary that product fails to comply or has a defect.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, the Secretary, through testing, inspection, research, or examination of reports or other data, determines that any electronic product does not comply with an applicable Federal standard issued pursuant to the Act or has a defect, he shall immediately notify the manufacturer of the product in writing specifying: 
</P>
<P>(1) The defect in the product or the manner in which the product fails to comply with the applicable Federal standard; 
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary's findings, with references to the tests, inspections, studies, or reports upon which such findings are based; 
</P>
<P>(3) A reasonable period of time during which the manufacturer may present his views and evidence to establish that there is no failure of compliance or that the alleged defect does not exist or does not relate to safety of use of the product by reason of the emission of electronic product radiation.
</P>
<FP>The manufacturer shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter.
</FP>
<P>(b) Every manufacturer who receives a notice under paragraph (a) of this section shall immediately advise the Secretary in writing of the total number of such product units produced and the approximate number of such product units which have left the place of manufacture. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, after the expiration of the period of time specified in the notice, the Secretary determines that the product has a defect or does not comply with an applicable Federal standard and the manufacturer has not applied for an exemption, he shall direct the manufacturer to furnish the notification to the persons specified in § 1003.10(b) in the manner specified in § 1003.21. The manufacturer shall within 14 days from the date of receipt of such directive furnish the required notification. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28628, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 48269, Nov. 2, 1976; 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Notification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.20   Notification by the manufacturer to the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The notification to the Secretary required by § 1003.10(a) shall be confirmed in writing and, in addition to other relevant information which the Secretary may require, shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identification of the product or products involved; 
</P>
<P>(b) The total number of such product units so produced, and the approximate number of such product units which have left the place of manufacture; 
</P>
<P>(c) The expected usage for the product if known to the manufacturer; 
</P>
<P>(d) A description of the defect in the product or the manner in which the product fails to comply with an applicable Federal standard; 
</P>
<P>(e) An evaluation of the hazards reasonably related to defect or the failure to comply with the Federal standard; 
</P>
<P>(f) A statement of the measures to be taken to repair such defect or to bring the product into compliance with the Federal standard; 
</P>
<P>(g) The date and circumstances under which the defect was discovered; and 
</P>
<P>(h) The identification of any trade secret information which the manufacturer desires kept confidential. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.21   Notification by the manufacturer to affected persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notification to the persons specified in § 1003.10(b) shall be in writing and, in addition to other relevant information which the Secretary may require, shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The information prescribed by § 1003.20 (a), (d), and instructions with respect to the use of the product pending the correction of the defect; 
</P>
<P>(2) A clear evaluation in nontechnical terms of the hazards reasonably related to any defect or failure to comply; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The following statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The manufacturer will, without charge, remedy the defect or bring the product into compliance with each applicable Federal standard in accordance with a plan to be approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the details of which will be included in a subsequent communication to you.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP><I>Provided,</I> That if at the time the notification is sent, the Secretary has approved a plan for the repair, replacement or refund of the product, the notification may include the details of the approved plan in lieu of the above statement. 
</FP>
<P>(b) The envelope containing the notice shall not contain advertising or other extraneous material, and such mailings will be made in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) No. 10 white envelopes shall be used, and the name and address of the manufacturer shall appear in the upper left corner of the envelope. 
</P>
<P>(2) The following statement is to appear in the far left third of the envelope in the type and size indicated and in reverse printing, centered in a red rectangle 3
<FR>3/4</FR> inches wide and 2
<FR>1/4</FR> inches high: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Important—Electronic Product Radiation Warning
</HD1>
<FP>The statement shall be in three lines, all capitals, and centered. “Important” shall be in 36-point Gothic Bold type. “Electronic Product” and “Radiation Warning” shall be in 36-point Gothic Condensed type.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Envelopes with markings similar to those prescribed in this section shall not be used by manufacturers for mailings other than those required by this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notification shall be sent: 
</P>
<P>(1) By certified mail to purchasers of the product and to subsequent transferees. 
</P>
<P>(2) By certified mail or other more expeditious means to dealers and distributors. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where products were sold under a name other than that of the manufacturer of the product, the name of the individual or company under whose name the product was sold may be used in the notification required by this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.22   Copies of communications sent to purchasers, dealers or distributors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer of electronic products shall furnish to the Secretary a copy of all notices, bulletins, or other communications sent to the dealers or distributors of such manufacturers or to purchasers (or subsequent transferees) of electronic products of such manufacturer regarding any defect in such product or any failure of such product to comply with an applicable Federal standard. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the event the Secretary deems the content of such notices to be insufficient to protect the public health and safety, the Secretary may require additional notice to such recipients, or may elect to make or cause to be made such notification by whatever means he deems appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exemptions From Notification Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.30   Application for exemption from notification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A manufacturer may at the time of giving the written confirmation required by § 1003.20 or within 15 days of the receipt of any notice from the Secretary pursuant to § 1003.11(a), apply for an exemption from the requirement of notice to the persons specified in § 1003.10(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) The application for exemption shall contain the information required by § 1003.20 and in addition shall set forth in detail the grounds upon which the exemption is sought. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.31" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.39.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.31   Granting the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, in the judgment of the Secretary, the application filed pursuant to § 1003.30 states reasonable grounds for an exemption from the requirement of notice, the Secretary shall give the manufacturer written notice specifying a reasonable period of time during which he may present his views and evidence in support of the application.
</P>
<P>(b) Such views and evidence shall be confined to matters relevant to whether the defect in the product or its failure to comply with an applicable Federal standard is such as to create a significant risk of injury, including genetic injury, to any person and shall be presented in writing unless the Secretary determines that an oral presentation is desirable. Where such evidence includes nonclinical laboratory studies, the data submitted shall include, with respect to each such study, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. When such evidence includes clinical investigations involving human subjects, the data submitted shall include, with respect to each clinical investigation either a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or a statement that the investigation is not subject to such requirements in accordance with § 56.104 or § 56.105, and a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) If, during the period of time afforded the manufacturer to present his views and evidence, the manufacturer proves to the Secretary's satisfaction that the defect or failure to comply does not create a significant risk of injury, including genetic injury, to any person, the Secretary shall issue an exemption from the requirement of notification to the manufacturer and shall notify the manufacturer in writing specifying: 
</P>
<P>(1) The electronic product or products for which the exemption has been issued; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Such conditions as the Secretary deems necessary to protect the public health and safety. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who contests denial of an exemption shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28628, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 48269, Nov. 2, 1976; 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977; 50 FR 7518, Feb. 22, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1004" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1004—REPURCHASE, REPAIRS, OR REPLACEMENT OF ELECTRONIC PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360hh-360ss.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28629, Oct. 15, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1004.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.40.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.1   Manufacturer's obligation to repair, replace, or refund cost of electronic products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any electronic product fails to comply with an applicable Federal standard or has a defect and the notification specified in § 1003.10(b) of this chapter is required to be furnished, the manufacturer of such product shall; 
</P>
<P>(1) Without charge, bring such product into conformity with such standard or remedy such defect and provide reimbursement for any expenses for transportation of such product incurred in connection with having such product brought into conformity or having such defect remedied; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Replace such product with a like or equivalent product which complies with each applicable Federal standard and which has no defect relating to the safety of its use; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Make a refund of the cost of the product to the purchaser. 
</P>
<P>(b) The manufacturer shall take the action required by this section in accordance with a plan approved by the Secretary pursuant to § 1004.6. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.40.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.2   Plans for the repair of electronic products.</HEAD>
<P>Every plan for bringing an electronic product into conformity with applicable Federal standards or for remedying any defect in such product shall be submitted to the Secretary in writing, and in addition to other relevant information which the Secretary may require, shall include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identification of the product involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) The approximate number of defective product units which have left the place of manufacture. 
</P>
<P>(c) The specific modifications, alterations, changes, repairs, corrections, or adjustments to be made to bring the product into conformity or remedy any defect. 
</P>
<P>(d) The manner in which the operations described in paragraph (c) will be accomplished, including the procedure for obtaining access to, or possession of, the products and the location where such operations will be performed. 
</P>
<P>(e) The technical data, test results or studies demonstrating the effectiveness of the proposed remedial action. 
</P>
<P>(f) A time limit, reasonable in light of the circumstances, for completion of the operations. 
</P>
<P>(g) The system by which the manufacturer will provide reimbursement for any transportation expenses incurred in connection with having such product brought into conformity or having any defect remedied. 
</P>
<P>(h) The text of the statement which the manufacturer will send to the persons specified in § 1003.10(b) of this chapter informing such persons; 
</P>
<P>(1) That the manufacturer, at his expense, will repair the electronic product involved, 
</P>
<P>(2) Of the method by which the manufacturer will obtain access to or possession of the product to make such repairs, 
</P>
<P>(3) That the manufacturer will reimburse such persons for any transportation expenses incurred in connection with making such repairs, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Of the manner in which such reimbursement will be effected. 
</P>
<P>(i) An assurance that the manufacturer will provide the Secretary with progress reports on the effectiveness of the plan, including the number of electronic products repaired. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.40.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.3   Plans for the replacement of electronic products.</HEAD>
<P>Every plan for replacing an electronic product with a like or equivalent product shall be submitted to the Secretary in writing, and in addition to other relevant information which the Secretary may require, shall include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identification of the product to be replaced. 
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the replacement product in sufficient detail to support the manufacturer's contention that the replacement product is like or equivalent to the product being replaced. 
</P>
<P>(c) The approximate number of defective product units which have left the place of manufacture. 
</P>
<P>(d) The manner in which the replacement operation will be effected including the procedure for obtaining possession of the product to be replaced. 
</P>
<P>(e) A time limit, reasonable, in light of the circumstances for completion of the replacement. 
</P>
<P>(f) The steps which the manufacturer will take to insure that the defective product will not be reintroduced into commerce, until it complies with each applicable Federal standard and has no defect relating to the safety of its use. 
</P>
<P>(g) The system by which the manufacturer will provide reimbursement for any expenses for transportation of such product incurred in connection with effecting the replacement. 
</P>
<P>(h) The text of the statement which the manufacturer will send to the persons specified in § 1003.10(b) of this chapter informing such persons; 
</P>
<P>(1) That the manufacturer, at its expense, will replace the electronic product involved, 
</P>
<P>(2) Of the method by which the manufacturer will obtain possession of the product and effect the replacement, 
</P>
<P>(3) That the manufacturer will reimburse such persons for any transportation expenses incurred in connection with effecting such replacement, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Of the manner in which such reimbursement will be made. 
</P>
<P>(i) An assurance that the manufacturer will provide the Secretary with progress reports on the effectiveness of the plan, including the number of electronic products replaced. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.40.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.4   Plans for refunding the cost of electronic products.</HEAD>
<P>Every plan for refunding the cost of an electronic product shall be submitted to the Secretary in writing, and in addition to other relevant information which the Secretary may require, shall include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identification of the product involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) The approximate number of defective product units which have left the place of manufacture. 
</P>
<P>(c) The manner in which the refund operation will be effected including the procedure for obtaining possession of the product for which the refund is to be made. 
</P>
<P>(d) The steps which the manufacturer will take to insure that the defective products will not be reintroduced into commerce, until it complies with each applicable Federal standard and has no defect relating to the safety of its use. 
</P>
<P>(e) A time limit, reasonable in light of the circumstances, for obtaining the product and making the refund. 
</P>
<P>(f) A statement that the manufacturer will refund the cost of such product together with the information the manufacturer has used to determine the amount of the refund. 
</P>
<P>(g) The text of the statement which the manufacturer will send to the persons specified in § 1003.10(b) of this chapter informing such persons; 
</P>
<P>(1) That the manufacturer, at his expense, will refund the cost of the electronic product plus any transportation costs, 
</P>
<P>(2) Of the amount to be refunded exclusive of transportation costs, 
</P>
<P>(3) Of the method by which the manufacturer will obtain possession of the product and make the refund. 
</P>
<P>(h) An assurance that the manufacturer will provide the Secretary with progress reports on the effectiveness of the plan, including the number of refunds made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.6" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.40.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.6   Approval of plans.</HEAD>
<P>If, after review of any plan submitted pursuant to this subchapter, the Secretary determines that the action to be taken by the manufacturer will expeditiously and effectively fulfill the manufacturer's obligation under § 1004.1 in a manner designed to encourage the public to respond to the proposal, the Secretary will send written notice of his approval of such plan to the manufacturer. Such approval may be conditioned upon such additional terms as the Secretary deems necessary to protect the public health and safety. Any person who contests denial of a plan shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to part 16 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28629, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 48269, Nov. 2, 1976; 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1005" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1005—IMPORTATION OF ELECTRONIC PRODUCTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 360ii, 360mm.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28630, Oct. 15, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of §§ 1005.1 through 1005.24 are applicable to electronic products which are subject to the standards prescribed under this subchapter and are offered for importation into the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 1005.25 is applicable to every manufacturer of electronic products offering an electronic product for importation into the United States. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28630, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 45 FR 81739, Dec. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>The term <I>owner</I> or <I>consignee</I> means the person who makes entry under the provisions of section 484 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484), namely, the “importer of record.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 85973, Nov. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.3   Importation of noncomplying goods prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>The importation of any electronic product for which standards have been prescribed under section 534 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 360kk) shall be refused admission into the United States unless there is affixed to such product a certification in the form of a label or tag in conformity with section 534(h) of the act (21 U.S.C. 360kk(h)). Merchandise refused admission shall be destroyed or exported under regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury unless a timely and adequate petition for permission to bring the product into compliance is filed and granted under §§ 1005.21 and 1005.22.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 11314, Mar. 10, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Inspection and Testing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.10   Notice of sampling.</HEAD>
<P>When a sample of a product to be offered for importation has been requested by the Secretary, the District Director of Customs having jurisdiction over the shipment shall, upon the arrival of the shipment, procure the sample and shall give to its owner or consignee prompt notice of the delivery or of the intention to deliver such sample to the Secretary. If the notice so requires, the owner or consignee will hold the shipment of which the sample is typical and not release such shipment until he receives notice of the results of the tests of the sample from the Secretary, stating that the product is in compliance with the requirements of the Act. The District Director of Customs will be given the results of the tests. If the Secretary notifies the District Director of Customs that the product does not meet the requirements of the Act, the District Director of Customs shall require the exportation or destruction of the shipment in accordance with customs laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.11   Payment for samples.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Health and Human Services will pay for all import samples of electronic products rendered unsalable as a result of testing, or will pay the reasonable costs of repackaging such samples for sale, if the samples are found to be in compliance with the requirements of Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968). Billing for reimbursement should be made by the owner or consignee to the Food and Drug Administration division where the shipment was offered for import. Payment for samples will not be made if the sample is found to be in violation of the Act, even though subsequently brought into compliance pursuant to terms specified in a notice of permission issued under § 1005.22.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 50783, Aug. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Bonding and Compliance Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.20   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, from an examination of the sample or otherwise, it appears that the product may be subject to a refusal of admission, the Secretary shall give the owner or consignee a written notice to that effect, stating the reasons therefor. The notice shall specify a place and a period of time during which the owner or consignee shall have an opportunity to introduce testimony unless the owner or consignee indicates his intention to bring the product into compliance. Upon timely request, such time and place may be changed. Such testimony shall be confined to matters relevant to the admissibility of the article and may be introduced orally or in writing. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the owner or consignee submits or indicates his intention to submit an application for permission to perform such action as is necessary to bring the product into compliance with the Act, such application shall include the information required by § 1005.21. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the application is not submitted at or prior to the hearing, the Secretary may allow a reasonable time for filing such application. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.21   Application for permission to bring product into compliance.</HEAD>
<P>Application for permission to perform such action as is necessary to bring the product into compliance with the Act may be filed only by the owner, consignee, or manufacturer and, in addition to any other information which the Secretary may reasonably require, shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Contain a detailed proposal for bringing the product into compliance with the Act; 
</P>
<P>(b) Specify the time and place where such operations will be effected and the approximate time for their completion; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Identify the bond required to be filed pursuant to § 1005.23. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.22   Granting permission to bring product into compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When permission contemplated by § 1005.21 is granted, the Secretary shall notify the applicant in writing, specifying: 
</P>
<P>(1) The procedure to be followed; 
</P>
<P>(2) The disposition of the rejected articles or portions thereof; 
</P>
<P>(3) That the operations are to be carried out under the supervision of a representative of the Department of Health and Human Services; 
</P>
<P>(4) A reasonable time limit for completing the operations; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Such other conditions as he finds necessary to maintain adequate supervision and control over the product. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a written request for an extension of time to complete the operations necessary to bring the product into compliance, the Secretary may grant such additional time as he deems necessary. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice of permission may be amended upon a showing of reasonable grounds thereof and the filing of an amended application for permission with the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(d) If ownership of a product included in a notice of permission changes before the operations specified in the notice have been completed, the original owner will remain responsible under its bond, unless the new owner has executed a superseding bond on customs Form 7601 and obtained a new notice. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary will notify the District Director of Customs having jurisdiction over the shipment involved, of the determination as to whether or not the product has in fact been brought into compliance with the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.23" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.23   Bonds.</HEAD>
<P>The bond required under section 360(b) of the Act shall be executed by the owner or consignee on the appropriate form of a customs single-entry bond, customs Form 7551 or term bond, customs Form 7553 or 7595, containing a condition for the redelivery of the shipment or any part thereof not complying with the laws and regulations governing its admission into the commerce of the United States upon demand of the District Director of Customs and containing a provision for the performance of any action necessary to bring the product into compliance with all applicable laws and regulations. The bond shall be filed with the District Director of Customs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.24" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.24   Costs of bringing product into compliance.</HEAD>
<P>The costs of supervising the operations necessary to bring a product into compliance with the Act shall be paid by the owner or consignee who files an application pursuant to § 1005.21 and executes a bond under section 360(b) of the Act. Such costs shall include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Travel expenses of the supervising officer; 
</P>
<P>(b) Per diem in lieu of subsistence of the supervising officer when away from his or her home station, as provided by law;
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The charge for the services of the supervising officer, which shall include administrative support, shall be computed at a rate per hour equal to 267 percent of the hourly rate of regular pay of a grade GS-11/4 employee, except that such services performed by a customs officer and subject to the provisions of the act of February 13, 1911, as amended (section 5, 36 Stat. 901, as amended (19 U.S.C. 267)), shall be calculated as provided in that act.
</P>
<P>(2) The charge for the services of the analyst, which shall include administrative and laboratory support, shall be computed at a rate per hour equal to 267 percent of the hourly rate of regular pay of a grade GS-12/4 employee.
</P>
<P>(3) The rate per hour equal to 267 percent of the equivalent hourly rate of regular pay of the supervising officer (GS-11/4) and the analyst (GS-12/4) is computed as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(c)(3)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hours
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gross number of working hours in 52 40-hour weeks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">10 legal public holidays—New Year's Day, Birthday of Martin Luther King, Jr., Washington's Birthday, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Columbus Day, Veterans Day, Thanksgiving Day, and Christmas Day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Annual Leave—26 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">208
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sick Leave—13 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">392
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Net number of working hours</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,688
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gross number of working hours in 52 40-hour weeks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Working hour equivalent of Government contributions for employee retirement, life insurance, and health benefits computed at 8
<fr>1/2</fr>% of annual rate of pay of employee</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equivalent annual working hours</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Support required to equal to 1 person-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equivalent gross annual working hours charged to Food and Drug appropriation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,512
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Ratio of equivalent gross annual number of working hours charged to Food and Drug appropriation to net number of annual working hours (4,512/1,688) = 267 pct.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) The minimum charge for services of supervising officers shall be not less than the charge for 1 hour and time after the first hour shall be computed in multiples of 1 hour, disregarding fractional parts less than one-half hour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28630, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 42 FR 55207, Oct. 14, 1977; 42 FR 62130, Dec. 9, 1977; 85 FR 50783, Aug. 18, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.41.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.25   Service of process on manufacturers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer of electronic products, prior to offering such product for importation into the United States, shall designate a permanent resident of the United States as the manufacturer's agent upon whom service of all processes, notices, orders, decisions, and requirements may be made for and on behalf of the manufacturer as provided in section 536(d) of Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968) (21 U.S.C. 360mm(d)) and this section. The agent may be an individual, a firm, or a domestic corporation. For purposes of this section, any number of manufacturers may designate the same agent.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer designating an agent must address the designation to the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Document Mail Center—WO66-G609, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. It must be in writing and dated; all signatures must be in ink. The designation must be made in the legal form required to make it valid and binding on the manufacturer under the laws, corporate bylaws, or other requirements governing the making of the designation by the manufacturer at the place and time where it is made, and the persons or person signing the designation shall certify that it is so made. The designation must disclose the manufacturer's full legal name and the name(s) under which the manufacturer conducts the business, if applicable, the principal place of business, and mailing address. If any of the products of the manufacturer do not bear his legal name, the designation must identify the marks, trade names, or other designations of origin which these products bear. The designation must provide that it will remain in effect until withdrawn or replaced by the manufacturer and shall bear a declaration of acceptance duly signed by the designated agent. The full legal name and mailing address of the agent must be stated. Until rejected by the Secretary, designations are binding on the manufacturer even when not in compliance with all the requirements of this section. The designated agent may not assign performance of his function under the designation to another.
</P>
<P>(c) Service of any process, notice, order, requirement, or decision specified in section 536(d) of Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968) (21 U.S.C. 360mm(d)) may be made by registered or certified mail addressed to the agent with return receipt requested, or in any other manner authorized by law. In the absence of such a designation or if for any reason service on the designated agent cannot be effected, service may be made as provided in section 536(d) by posting such process, notice, order, requirement, or decision in the Office of the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health and publishing a notice that such service was made in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28630, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 65 FR 17137, Mar. 31, 2000; 72 FR 17401, Apr. 9, 2007; 73 FR 34860, June 19, 2008; 75 FR 16353, Apr. 1, 2010; 78 FR 18234, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1010" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1010—PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR ELECTRONIC PRODUCTS: GENERAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360, 360e-360j, 360hh-360ss, 371, 381.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28631, Oct. 15, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The standards listed in this subchapter are prescribed pursuant to section 534 of Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968) (21 U.S.C. 360kk) and are applicable to electronic products as specified herein, to control electronic product radiation from such products. Standards so prescribed are subject to amendment or revocation and additional standards may be prescribed as are determined necessary for the protection of the public health and safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 34861, June 19, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.2   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer of an electronic product for which an applicable standard is in effect under this subchapter shall furnish to the dealer or distributor, at the time of delivery of such product, the certification that such product conforms to all applicable standards under this subchapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The certification shall be in the form of a label or tag permanently affixed to or inscribed on such product so as to be legible and readily accessible to view when the product is fully assembled for use, unless the applicable standard prescribes some other manner of certification. All such labels or tags shall be in the English language. 
</P>
<P>(c) Such certification shall be based upon a test, in accordance with the standard, of the individual article to which it is attached or upon a testing program which is in accordance with good manufacturing practices. The Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health may disapprove such a testing program on the grounds that it does not assure the adequacy of safeguards against hazardous electronic product radiation or that it does not assure that electronic products comply with the standards prescribed under this subchapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of products for which it is not feasible to certify in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, upon application by the manufacturer, the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health may approve an alternate means by which such certification may be provided. 
</P>
<P>(e) Laser products under § 1040.10 of this chapter that incorporate a certified laser system (laser product) will be considered to have met the certification requirements in this section if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The incorporated laser system is not a laser product intended for use as a component or replacement as described in § 1040.10(a)(1) and (2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer of the incorporated laser system has certified such laser system under this section and meets the reporting requirements under part 1002 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) The product incorporating the certified laser system is not independently subject to additional reporting or performance standards requirements;
</P>
<P>(4) The incorporated laser system is not modified as defined in § 1040.10(i) of this chapter, and all performance features that apply to the incorporated laser system under § 1040.10(f) are available on the product incorporating the certified laser system;
</P>
<P>(5) All labeling requirements that apply to the incorporated laser system under §§ 1010.2, 1010.3, 1040.10(g), and 1040.11(a)(3) of this chapter are visible on the outside of the product incorporating the certified laser system, with the exception that the certification or identification labels need not be visible on the outside of products incorporating a certified Class I laser;
</P>
<P>(6) The incorporated laser system is installed in accordance with the instructions provided by the manufacturer of the incorporated laser system, including instructions for placing additional externally facing labels found in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, and meeting the other conditions in paragraphs (e)(1) through (8) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) The manufacturer of the product that incorporates the laser system provides the end user with information required under § 1040.10(h)(1) of this chapter as provided to them by the manufacturer of the incorporated laser system; and
</P>
<P>(8) The labeling requirements under part 1010 and § 1040.10(g) of this chapter for the incorporated laser system would be met in any service configuration of the product incorporating the laser system or when the incorporated laser system is removed from the product into which it had been incorporated, and reproductions of such labels are found in the user information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28631, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 32257, July 31, 1975; 42 FR 18063, Apr. 5, 1977; 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 88 FR 3653, Jan. 20, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.3   Identification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer of an electronic product to which a standard under this subchapter is applicable shall set forth the information specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. This information shall be provided in the form of a tag or label permanently affixed or inscribed on such product so as to be legible and readily accessible to view when the product is fully assembled for use or in such other manner as may be prescribed in the applicable standard. Except for foreign equivalent abbreviations as authorized in paragraph (a)(1) of this section all such labels or tags shall be in the English language. 
</P>
<P>(1) The full name and address of the manufacturer of the product; abbreviations such as “Co.,” “Inc.,” or their foreign equivalents and the first and middle initials of individuals may be used. Where products are sold under a name other than that of the manufacturer of the product, the full name and address of the individual or company under whose name the product was sold may be set forth, provided such individual or company has previously suppled the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health with sufficient information to identify the manufacturer of the product. 
</P>
<P>(2) The place and month and year of manufacture: 
</P>
<P>(i) The place of manufacture may be expressed in code provided the manufacturer has previously supplied the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health with the key to such code. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The month and year of manufacture shall be provided clearly and legibly, without abbreviation, and with the year shown as a four-digit number as follows in this paragraph. Alternatively, a manufacturer may utilize a manufacturing symbol and date format that conforms with an applicable FDA recognized consensus standard.
</P>
<HD1>Manufactured: (Insert Month and Year of Manufacture.)
</HD1>
<P>(b) In the case of products for which it is not feasible to affix identification labeling in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, upon application by the manufacturer, the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health may approve an alternate means by which such identification may be provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) Every manufacturer of an electronic product to which a standard under this subchapter is applicable shall provide to the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health a list identifying each brand name which is applied to the product together with the full name and address of the individual or company for whom each product so branded is manufactured. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 32257, July 31, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 18063, Apr. 5, 1977; 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 88 FR 3653, Jan. 20, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.4" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.4   Variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for variances.</I> (1) Upon application by a manufacturer (including an assembler), the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, may grant a variance from one or more provisions of any performance standard under subchapter J of this chapter for an electronic product subject to such standard when the Director determines that granting such a variance is in keeping with the purposes of Subchapter C—Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968), and:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope of the requested variance is so limited in its applicability as not to justify an amendment to the standard, or
</P>
<P>(ii) There is not sufficient time for the promulgation of an amendment to the standard.
</P>
<P>(2) The issuance of the variance shall be based upon a determination that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The product utilizes an alternate means for providing radiation safety or protection equal to or greater than that provided by products meeting all requirements of the applicable standard, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The product performs a function or is intended for a purpose which could not be performed or accomplished if required to meet the applicable standards, and suitable means for assuring radiation safety or protection are provided, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) One or more requirements of the applicable standard are not appropriate, and suitable means for assuring radiation safety or protection are provided. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applications for variances.</I> If you are submitting an application for variances or for amendments or extensions thereof:
</P>
<P>(1) You must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit the variance application and supporting materials to CDRH by email using the <I>RadHealthCustomerService@fda.hhs.gov</I> mailbox; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit an original copy of the variance application by mail to: U.S. Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Document Mail Center, Bldg. 66, Rm. G609, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(2) The application for variance shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the product and its intended use.
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of how compliance with the applicable standard would restrict or be inappropriate for this intended use.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the manner in which it is proposed to deviate from the requirements of the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the advantages to be derived from such deviation.
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of how alternate or suitable means of radiation protection will be provided.
</P>
<P>(vi) The period of time it is desired that the variance be in effect, and, if appropriate, the number of units the applicant wishes to manufacture.
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of prototype or experimental equipment, the proposed location of each unit.
</P>
<P>(viii) Such other information required by regulation or by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, to evaluate and act on the application.
</P>
<P>(ix) With respect to each nonclinical laboratory study contained in the application, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(x) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xi) If the electronic product is used in a clinical investigation involving human subjects, is subject to the requirements for institutional review set forth in part 56 of this chapter, and is subject to the requirements for informed consent set forth in part 50 of this chapter, the investigation shall be conducted in compliance with such requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) The application for amendment or extension of a variance shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The variance number and expiration date.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amendment or extension requested and basis for the amendment or extension.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the effect of the amendment or extension on protection from radiation produced by the product.
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of how alternate or suitable means of protection will be provided.

 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ruling on applications.</I> (1) The Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, may approve or deny, in whole or in part, a requested variance or any amendment or extension thereof, and the director shall inform the applicant in writing of this action on a requested variance or amendment or extension. The written notice will state the manner in which the variance differs from the standard, the effective date and the termination date of the variance, a summary of the requirements and conditions attached to the variance, any other information that may be relevant to the application or variance, and, if appropriate, the number of units or other similar limitations for which the variance is approved. Each variance will be assigned an identifying number. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, shall amend or withdraw a variance whenever the Director determines that this action is necessary to protect the public health or otherwise is justified by this subchapter. Such action will become effective on the date specified in the written notice of the action sent to the applicant, except that it will become effective immediately upon notification to the applicant when the Director determines that such action is necessary to prevent an imminent health hazard. 
</P>
<P>(3) All applications for variances and for amendments and extensions thereof and all correspondence (including written notices of approval) on these applications will be available for public disclosure in the office of the Dockets Management Staff, except for information regarded as confidential under section 537(e) of the act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification of equipment covered by variance.</I> The manufacturer of any product for which a variance is granted shall modify the tag, label, or other certification required by § 1010.2 to state: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the product is in conformity with the applicable standard, except with respect to those characteristics covered by the variance; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the product is in conformity with the provisions of the variance; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The assigned number and effective date of the variance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 13879, Apr. 18, 1974, as amended at 44 FR 48191, Aug. 17, 1979; 50 FR 7518, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 13565, Apr. 5, 1985; 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 53 FR 52683, Dec. 29, 1988; 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 65 FR 17137, Mar. 31, 2000; 73 FR 34861, June 19, 2008; 75 FR 16353, Apr. 1, 2010; 88 FR 3654, Jan. 20, 2023; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023; 90 FR 44979, Sept. 18, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.5   Exemptions for products intended for United States Government use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for exemption.</I> Upon application by a manufacturer (including assembler) or by a U.S. department or agency, the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, may grant an exemption from any performance standard under subchapter J of this chapter for an electronic product, or class of products, otherwise subject to such standard when he determines that such electronic product or class is intended for use by departments or agencies of the United States and meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) (1) or (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The procuring agency shall prescribe procurement specifications for the product or class of products governing emissions of electronic product radiation, and the product or class shall be of a type used solely or predominantly by a department or agency of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) The product or class of products is intended for research, investigations, studies, demonstration, or training, or for reasons of national security.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consultation between the procuring agency and the Food and Drug Administration.</I> The United States department or agency that intends to procure or manufacture a product or class of products subject to electronic product radiation safety standards contained in this subchapter should consult with the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, whenever it is anticipated that the specifications for the product or class must deviate from, or be in conflict with, such applicable standards. Such consultation should occur as early as possible during development of such specifications. The department or agency should include in the specifications all requirements of such standards that are not in conflict with, or are not inappropriate for, the special or unique uses for which the product is intended. The procuring agency should indicate to the Center for Devices and Radiological Health if it desires to be notified of the approval, amendment, or withdrawal of the exemption. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application for exemption.</I> If you are submitting an application for exemption, or for amendment or extension thereof, you must submit two copies (original and redacted version) for confidential petitions to Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. Otherwise, only one copy is necessary. For an exemption under the criteria prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the application shall include the information prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (13) of this section. For an exemption under the criteria prescribed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the application shall include the information prescribed in paragraphs (c)(3) through (13) of this section. An application for exemption, or for amendment or extension thereof, and correspondence relating to such application shall be made available for public disclosure in Dockets Management Staff, except for confidential or proprietary information submitted in accordance with part 20 of this chapter. Information classified for reasons of national security shall not be included in the application. Except as indicated in this paragraph (c), the application for exemption shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The procurement specifications for the product or class of products that govern emissions of electronic product radiation.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that the product or class of products is of a type used solely or predominantly by departments or agencies of the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that such product or class of products is intended for use by a department or agency of the United States.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the product or class of products and its intended use.
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation of how compliance with the applicable standard would restrict or be inappropriate for this intended use. 
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the manner in which it is proposed that the product or class of products shall deviate from the requirements of the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of the advantages to be derived from such deviation.
</P>
<P>(8) An explanation of how means of radiation protection will be provided where the product or class of products deviates from the requirements of the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(9) The period of time it is desired that the exemption be in effect, and, if appropriate, the number of units to be manufactured under the exemption.
</P>
<P>(10) The name, address, and telephone number of the manufacturer or his agent.
</P>
<P>(11) The name, address, and telephone number of the appropriate office of the United States department or agency purchasing the product or class of products.
</P>
<P>(12) Such other information required by regulation or by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, to evaluate and act on the application. Where such information includes nonclinical laboratory studies, the information shall include, with respect to each nonclinical study, either a statement that each study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a statement that describes in detail all differences between the practices used in the study and those required in the regulations. When such information includes clinical investigations involving human subjects, the information shall include, with respect to each clinical investigation, either a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 56 of this chapter, or a statement that the investigation is not subject to such requirements in accordance with § 56.104 or § 56.105 and a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(13) With respect to each nonclinical laboratory study contained in the application, either a statement that the study was conducted in compliance with the requirements set forth in part 58 of this chapter, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment or extension of an exemption.</I> An exemption is granted on the basis of the information contained in the orginal applicaion. Therefore, if changes are needed in the radiation safety specifications for the product, or its use, or related radiation control procedures such that the information in the original application would no longer be correct with respect to radiation safety, the applicant shall submit in advance of such changes a request for an amendment to the exemption. He also shall submit a request for extension of the exemption, if needed, at least 60 days before the expiration date. The application for amendment or extension of an exemption shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The exemption number and expiration date.
</P>
<P>(2) The amendment or extension requested and basis for the amendment or extension.
</P>
<P>(3) If the radiation safety specifications for the product or class of products or the product's or class of products' use or related radiation control procedures differ from the description provided in the original application, a description of such changes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Ruling on an application.</I> (1) The Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, may grant an exemption including in the written notice of exemption such conditions or terms as may be necessary to protect the public health and safety and shall notify the applicant in writing of his action. The conditions or terms of the exemption may include specifications concerning the manufacture, use, control, and disposal of the excess or surplus exempted product of class of products as provided in the Code of Federal Regulations, title 41, subtitle C. Each exemption will be assigned an identifying number.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, shall amend or withdraw an exemption whenever he determines that such action is necessary to protect the public health or otherwise is justified by provisions of the act or this subchapter. Such action shall become effective on the date specified in the written notice of the action sent to the applicant, except that it shall become effective immediately when the Director determines that it is necessary to prevent an imminent health hazard.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Identification of equipment covered by exemption.</I> The manufacturer of any product for which an exemption is granted shall provide the following identification in the form of a tag or label permanently affixed or inscribed on such product so as to be legible and readily accessible to view when the product is fully assembled for use or in such other manner as may be prescribed in the exemption:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Caution
</HD1>
<P>This electronic product has been exempted from Food and Drug Administration radiation safety performance standards prescribed in the Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, chapter I, subchapter J, pursuant to Exemption No. ___, granted on _______</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 44229, Sept. 2, 1977; 42 FR 61257, Dec. 2, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 17657, Mar. 23, 1979; 46 FR 8460, 8958, Jan. 27, 1981; 50 FR 7518, Feb. 22, 1985; 50 FR 13564, Apr. 5, 1985; 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 65 FR 17138, Mar. 31, 2000; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Alternate Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.13   Special test procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, may, on the basis of a written application by a manufacturer, authorize test programs other than those set forth in the standards under this subchapter for an electronic product if he determines that such products are not susceptible to satisfactory testing by the procedures set forth in the standard and that the alternative test procedures assure compliance with the standard. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 32257, July 31, 1975, as amended at 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Exportation of Electronic Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.42.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.20   Electronic products intended for export.</HEAD>
<P>The performance standards prescribed in this subchapter shall not apply to any electronic product which is intended solely for export if: 
</P>
<P>(a) Such product and the outside of any shipping container used in the export of such product are labeled or tagged to show that such product is intended for export, and 
</P>
<P>(b) Such product meets all the applicable requirements of the country to which such product is intended for export. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 32257, July 31, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1020" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1020—PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR IONIZING RADIATION EMITTING PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360e-360j, 360hh-360ss, 371, 381.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28632, Oct. 15, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1020.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1020.10   Television receivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to television receivers with cathode ray tubes manufactured subsequent to January 15, 1970.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>External surface</I> means the cabinet or enclosure provided by the manufacturer as part of the receiver. If a cabinet or enclosure is not provided as part of the receiver, the external surface shall be considered to be a hypothetical cabinet, the plane surfaces of which are located at those minimum distances from the chassis sufficient to enclose all components of the receiver except that portion of the neck and socket of the cathode-ray tube which normally extends beyond the plane surfaces of the enclosure. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum test voltage</I> means 130 root mean square volts if the receiver is designed to operate from nominal 110 to 120 root mean square volt power sources. If the receiver is designed to operate from a power source having some voltage other than from nominal 110 to 120 root mean square volts, maximum test voltage means 110 percent of the nominal root mean square voltage specified by the manufacturer for the power source. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service controls</I> means all of those controls on a television receiver provided by the manufacturer for purposes of adjustment which, under normal usage, are not accessible to the user. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Television receiver</I> means an electronic product designed to receive and display a television picture through broadcast, cable, or closed circuit television. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Usable picture</I> means a picture in synchronization and transmitting viewable intelligence. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>User controls</I> means all of those controls on a television receiver, provided by the manufacturer for purposes of adjustment, which on a fully assembled receiver under normal usage, are accessible to the user. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Exposure rate limit.</I> Radiation exposure rates produced by a television receiver shall not exceed 0.5 milliroentgens per hour at a distance of five (5) centimeters from any point on the external surface of the receiver, as measured in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measurements.</I> Compliance with the exposure rate limit defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be determined by measurements made with an instrument, the radiation sensitive volume of which shall have a cross section parallel to the external surface of the receiver with an area of ten (10) square centimeters and no dimension larger than five (5) centimeters. Measurements made with instruments having other areas must be corrected for spatial nonuniformity of the radiation field to obtain the exposure rate average over a ten (10) square centimeter area. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test conditions.</I> All measurements shall be made with the receiver displaying a usable picture and with the power source operated at supply voltages up to the maximum test voltage of the receiver and, as applicable, under the following specific conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) On television receivers manufactured subsequent to January 15, 1970, measurements shall be made with all user controls adjusted so as to produce maximum x-radiation emissions from the receiver. 
</P>
<P>(ii) On television receivers manufactured subsequent to June 1, 1970, measurements shall be made with all user controls and all service controls adjusted to combinations which result in the production of maximum x-radiation emissions. 
</P>
<P>(iii) On television receivers manufactured subsequent to June 1, 1971, measurements shall be made under the conditions described in paragraph (c)(3) (ii) of this section, together with conditions identical to those which result from that component or circuit failure which maximizes x-radiation emissions. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Critical component warning.</I> The manufacturer shall permanently affix or inscribe a warning label, clearly legible under conditions of service, on all television receivers which could produce radiation exposure rates in excess of the requirements of this section as a result of failure or improper adjustment or improper replacement of a circuit or shield component. The warning label shall include the specification of operating high voltage and an instruction for adjusting the high voltage to the specified value. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28632, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 88 FR 3654, Jan. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1020.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1020.20   Cold-cathode gas discharge tubes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to cold-cathode gas discharge tubes designed to demonstrate the effects of a flow of electrons or the production of x-radiation as specified herein. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Beam blocking device</I> means a movable or removable portion of any enclosure around a cold-cathode gas discharge tube, which may be opened or closed to permit or prevent the emergence of an exit beam. 
</P>
<P><I>Cold-cathode gas discharge tube</I> means an electronic device in which electron flow is produced and sustained by ionization of contained gas atoms and ion bombardment of the cathode. 
</P>
<P><I>Exit beam</I> means that portion of the radiation which passes through the aperture resulting from the opening of the beam blocking device. 
</P>
<P><I>Exposure</I> means the sum of the electrical charges on all of the ions of one sign produced in air when all electrons liberated by photons in a volume element of air are completely stopped in air divided by the mass of the air in the volume element. The special unit of exposure is the roentgen. One (1) roentgen equals 2.58 × 10<E T="51">−4</E> coulombs/kilogram. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Exposure rate limit.</I> (i) Radiation exposure rates produced by cold-cathode gas discharge tubes shall not exceed 10 mR./hr. at a distance of thirty (30) centimeters from any point on the external surface of the tube, as measured in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The divergence of the exit beam from tubes designed primarily to demonstrate the effects of x radiation, with the beam blocking device in the open position, shall not exceed (Pi) steradians. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measurements.</I> (i) Compliance with the exposure rate limit defined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be determined by measurements averaged over an area of one hundred (100) square centimeters with no linear dimension greater than twenty (20) centimeters. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Measurements of exposure rates from tubes in enclosures from which the tubes cannot be removed without destroying the function of the tube may be made at a distance of thirty (30) centimeters from any point on the external surface of the enclosure, provided: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of enclosures containing tubes designed primarily to demonstrate the production of x radiation, measurements shall be made with any beam blocking device in the beam blocking position, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of enclosures containing tubes designed primarily to demonstrate the effects of a flow of electrons, measurements shall be made with all movable or removable parts of such enclosure in the position which would maximize external exposure levels. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test conditions.</I> (i) Measurements shall be made under the conditions of use specified in instructions provided by the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Measurements shall be made with the tube operated under forward and reverse polarity. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Instructions, labels, and warnings.</I> (i) Manufacturers shall provide, or cause to be provided, with each tube to which this section is applicable, appropriate safety instructions, together with instructions for the use of such tube, including the specification of a power source for use with the tube. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each enclosure or tube shall have inscribed on or permanently affixed to it, tags or labels, which identify the intended polarity of the terminals and: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of tubes designed primarily to demonstrate the heat effect, fluorescence effect, or magnetic effect, a warning that application of power in excess of that specified may result in the production of x-rays in excess of allowable limits; and (<I>b</I>) in the case of tubes designed primarily to demonstrate the production of x-radiation, a warning that this device produces x-rays when energized. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The tag or label required by this paragraph shall be located on the tube or enclosure so as to be readily visible and legible when the product is fully assembled for use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1020.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1020.30   Diagnostic x-ray systems and their major components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The provisions of this section are applicable to:
</P>
<P>(i) The following components of diagnostic x-ray systems:
</P>
<P>(A) Tube housing assemblies, x-ray controls, x-ray high-voltage generators, x-ray tables, cradles, film changers, vertical cassette holders mounted in a fixed location and cassette holders with front panels, and beam-limiting devices manufactured after August 1, 1974.
</P>
<P>(B) Fluoroscopic imaging assemblies manufactured after August 1, 1974, and before April 26, 1977, or after June 10, 2006.
</P>
<P>(C) Spot-film devices and image intensifiers manufactured after April 26, 1977.
</P>
<P>(D) Cephalometric devices manufactured after February 25, 1978.
</P>
<P>(E) Image receptor support devices for mammographic x-ray systems manufactured after September 5, 1978.
</P>
<P>(F) Image receptors that are electrically powered or connected with the x-ray system manufactured on or after June 10, 2006.
</P>
<P>(G) Fluoroscopic air kerma display devices manufactured on or after June 10, 2006.
</P>
<P>(ii) Diagnostic x-ray systems, except computed tomography x-ray systems, incorporating one or more of such components; however, such x-ray systems shall be required to comply only with those provisions of this section and §§ 1020.31 and 1020.32, which relate to the components certified in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and installed into the systems.
</P>
<P>(iii) Computed tomography (CT) x-ray systems manufactured before November 29, 1984.
</P>
<P>(iv) CT gantries manufactured after September 3, 1985.
</P>
<P>(2) The following provisions of this section and § 1020.33 are applicable to CT x-ray systems manufactured or remanufactured on or after November 29, 1984:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1020.30(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 1020.30(b) “Technique factors”;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 1020.30(b) “CT,” “Dose,” “Scan,” “Scan time,” and “Tomogram”;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 1020.30(h)(3)(vi) through (h)(3)(viii);
</P>
<P>(v) Section 1020.30(n);
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 1020.33(a) and (b);
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 1020.33(c)(1) as it affects § 1020.33(c)(2); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 1020.33(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of this section and § 1020.33 in its entirety, including those provisions in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, are applicable to CT x-ray systems manufactured or remanufactured on or after September 3, 1985. The date of manufacture of the CT system is the date of manufacture of the CT gantry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section and §§ 1020.31, 1020.32, and 1020.33, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Accessible surface</I> means the external surface of the enclosure or housing provided by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Accessory component</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A component used with diagnostic x-ray systems, such as a cradle or film changer, that is not necessary for the compliance of the system with applicable provisions of this subchapter but which requires an initial determination of compatibility with the system; or
</P>
<P>(2) A component necessary for compliance of the system with applicable provisions of this subchapter but which may be interchanged with similar compatible components without affecting the system's compliance, such as one of a set of interchangeable beam-limiting devices; or
</P>
<P>(3) A component compatible with all x-ray systems with which it may be used and that does not require compatibility or installation instructions, such as a tabletop cassette holder.
</P>
<P><I>Air kerma</I> means kerma in air (see definition of <I>Kerma</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Air kerma rate (AKR)</I> means the air kerma per unit time.
</P>
<P><I>Aluminum equivalent</I> means the thickness of aluminum (type 1100 alloy) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> affording the same attenuation, under specified conditions, as the material in question.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The nominal chemical composition of type 1100 aluminum alloy is 99.00 percent minimum aluminum, 0.12 percent copper, as given in “Aluminum Standards and Data” (1969). Copies may be obtained from The Aluminum Association, New York, NY.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Articulated joint</I> means a joint between two separate sections of a tabletop which joint provides the capacity for one of the sections to pivot on the line segment along which the sections join.
</P>
<P><I>Assembler</I> means any person engaged in the business of assembling, replacing, or installing one or more components into a diagnostic x-ray system or subsystem. The term includes the owner of an x-ray system or his or her employee or agent who assembles components into an x-ray system that is subsequently used to provide professional or commercial services.
</P>
<P><I>Attenuation block</I> means a block or stack of type 1100 aluminum alloy, or aluminum alloy having equivalent attenuation, with dimensions 20 centimeters (cm) or larger by 20 cm or larger by 3.8 cm, that is large enough to intercept the entire x-ray beam.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic exposure control (AEC)</I> means a device which automatically controls one or more technique factors in order to obtain at a preselected location(s) a required quantity of radiation.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic exposure rate control (AERC)</I> means a device which automatically controls one or more technique factors in order to obtain at a preselected location(s) a required quantity of radiation per unit time.
</P>
<P><I>Beam axis</I> means a line from the source through the centers of the x-ray fields.
</P>
<P><I>Beam-limiting device</I> means a device which provides a means to restrict the dimensions of the x-ray field.
</P>
<P><I>C-arm fluoroscope</I> means a fluoroscopic x-ray system in which the image receptor and the x-ray tube housing assembly are connected or coordinated to maintain a spatial relationship. Such a system allows a change in the direction of the beam axis with respect to the patient without moving the patient.
</P>
<P><I>Cantilevered tabletop</I> means a tabletop designed such that the unsupported portion can be extended at least 100 cm beyond the support.
</P>
<P><I>Cassette holder</I> means a device, other than a spot-film device, that supports and/or fixes the position of an x-ray film cassette during an x-ray exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Cephalometric device</I> means a device intended for the radiographic visualization and measurement of the dimensions of the human head.
</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of variation</I> means the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean value of a population of observations. It is estimated using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10jn05.001.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-1>s = Estimated standard deviation of the population.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>X
<AC T="8"/> = Mean value of observations in sample.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>X<E T="52">i</E> = ith observation sampled.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = Number of observations sampled.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P><I>Computed tomography (CT)</I> means the production of a tomogram by the acquisition and computer processing of x-ray transmission data.
</P>
<P><I>Control panel</I> means that part of the x-ray control upon which are mounted the switches, knobs, pushbuttons, and other hardware necessary for manually setting the technique factors.
</P>
<P><I>Cooling curve</I> means the graphical relationship between heat units stored and cooling time.
</P>
<P><I>Cradle</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A removable device which supports and may restrain a patient above an x-ray table; or
</P>
<P>(2) A device;
</P>
<P>(i) Whose patient support structure is interposed between the patient and the image receptor during normal use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Which is equipped with means for patient restraint; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Which is capable of rotation about its long (longitudinal) axis.
</P>
<P><I>CT gantry</I> means tube housing assemblies, beam-limiting devices, detectors, and the supporting structures, frames, and covers which hold and/or enclose these components.
</P>
<P><I>Cumulative air kerma</I> means the total air kerma accrued from the beginning of an examination or procedure and includes all contributions from fluoroscopic and radiographic irradiation.
</P>
<P><I>Diagnostic source assembly</I> means the tube housing assembly with a beam-limiting device attached.
</P>
<P><I>Diagnostic x-ray system</I> means an x-ray system designed for irradiation of any part of the human body for the purpose of diagnosis or visualization.
</P>
<P><I>Dose</I> means the absorbed dose as defined by the International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements. The absorbed dose, D, is the quotient of de by dm, where de is the mean energy imparted to matter of mass dm; thus D = de/dm, in units of J/kg, where the special name for the unit of absorbed dose is gray (Gy).
</P>
<P><I>Equipment</I> means x-ray equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure (X)</I> means the quotient of dQ by dm where dQ is the absolute value of the total charge of the ions of one sign produced in air when all the electrons and positrons liberated or created by photons in air of mass dm are completely stopped in air; thus X = dQ/dm, in units of C/kg. A second meaning of exposure is the process or condition during which the x-ray tube produces x-ray radiation.
</P>
<P><I>Field emission equipment</I> means equipment which uses an x-ray tube in which electron emission from the cathode is due solely to action of an electric field.
</P>
<P><I>Fluoroscopic air kerma display device</I> means a device, subsystem, or component that provides the display of AKR and cumulative air kerma required by § 1020.32(k). It includes radiation detectors, if any, electronic and computer components, associated software, and data displays.
</P>
<P><I>Fluoroscopic imaging assembly</I> means a subsystem in which x-ray photons produce a set of fluoroscopic images or radiographic images recorded from the fluoroscopic image receptor. It includes the image receptor(s), electrical interlocks, if any, and structural material providing linkage between the image receptor and diagnostic source assembly.
</P>
<P><I>Fluoroscopic irradiation time</I> means the cumulative duration during an examination or procedure of operator-applied continuous pressure to the device, enabling x-ray tube activation in any fluoroscopic mode of operation.
</P>
<P><I>Fluoroscopy</I> means a technique for generating x-ray images and presenting them simultaneously and continuously as visible images. This term has the same meaning as the term “radioscopy” in the standards of the International Electrotechnical Commission.
</P>
<P><I>General purpose radiographic x-ray system</I> means any radiographic x-ray system which, by design, is not limited to radiographic examination of specific anatomical regions.
</P>
<P><I>Half-value layer (HVL)</I> means the thickness of specified material which attenuates the beam of radiation to an extent such that the AKR is reduced to one-half of its original value. In this definition the contribution of all scattered radiation, other than any which might be present initially in the beam concerned, is deemed to be excluded.
</P>
<P><I>Image intensifier</I> means a device, installed in its housing, which instantaneously converts an x-ray pattern into a corresponding light image of higher energy density.
</P>
<P><I>Image receptor</I> means any device, such as a fluorescent screen, radiographic film, x-ray image intensifier tube, solid-state detector, or gaseous detector, which transforms incident x-ray photons either into a visible image or into another form which can be made into a visible image by further transformations. In those cases where means are provided to preselect a portion of the image receptor, the term “image receptor” shall mean the preselected portion of the device.
</P>
<P><I>Image receptor support device</I> means, for mammography x-ray systems, that part of the system designed to support the image receptor during a mammographic examination and to provide a primary protective barrier.
</P>
<P><I>Isocenter</I> means the center of the smallest sphere through which the beam axis passes when the equipment moves through a full range of rotations about its common center.
</P>
<P><I>Kerma</I> means the quantity as defined by the International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements. The kerma, K, is the quotient of dE<E T="52">tr</E> by dm, where dE<E T="52">tr</E> is the sum of the initial kinetic energies of all the charged particles liberated by uncharged particles in a mass dm of material; thus K = dE<E T="52">tr</E>/dm, in units of J/kg, where the special name for the unit of kerma is gray (Gy). When the material is air, the quantity is referred to as “air kerma.”
</P>
<P><I>Last-image-hold (LIH) radiograph</I> means an image obtained either by retaining one or more fluoroscopic images, which may be temporally integrated, at the end of a fluoroscopic exposure or by initiating a separate and distinct radiographic exposure automatically and immediately in conjunction with termination of the fluoroscopic exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Lateral fluoroscope</I> means the x-ray tube and image receptor combination in a biplane system dedicated to the lateral projection. It consists of the lateral x-ray tube housing assembly and the lateral image receptor that are fixed in position relative to the table with the x-ray beam axis parallel to the plane of the table.
</P>
<P><I>Leakage radiation</I> means radiation emanating from the diagnostic source assembly except for:
</P>
<P>(1) The useful beam; and
</P>
<P>(2) Radiation produced when the exposure switch or timer is not activated.
</P>
<P><I>Leakage technique factors</I> means the technique factors associated with the diagnostic source assembly which are used in measuring leakage radiation. They are defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For diagnostic source assemblies intended for capacitor energy storage equipment, the maximum-rated peak tube potential and the maximum-rated number of exposures in an hour for operation at the maximum-rated peak tube potential with the quantity of charge per exposure being 10 millicoulombs (or 10 mAs) or the minimum obtainable from the unit, whichever is larger;
</P>
<P>(2) For diagnostic source assemblies intended for field emission equipment rated for pulsed operation, the maximum-rated peak tube potential and the maximum-rated number of x-ray pulses in an hour for operation at the maximum-rated peak tube potential; and
</P>
<P>(3) For all other diagnostic source assemblies, the maximum-rated peak tube potential and the maximum-rated continuous tube current for the maximum-rated peak tube potential.
</P>
<P><I>Light field</I> means that area of the intersection of the light beam from the beam-limiting device and one of the set of planes parallel to and including the plane of the image receptor, whose perimeter is the locus of points at which the illuminance is one-fourth of the maximum in the intersection.
</P>
<P><I>Line-voltage regulation</I> means the difference between the no-load and the load line potentials expressed as a percent of the load line potential; that is,
</P>
<FP-1>Percent line-voltage regulation = 100(V<E T="52">n</E> − V<E T="52">i</E>)/V<E T="52">i</E>
</FP-1>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP>V<E T="52">n</E> = No-load line potential and
</FP>
<FP>V<E T="52">i</E> = Load line potential.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P><I>Maximum line current</I> means the root mean square current in the supply line of an x-ray machine operating at its maximum rating.
</P>
<P><I>Mode of operation</I> means, for fluoroscopic systems, a distinct method of fluoroscopy or radiography provided by the manufacturer and selected with a set of several technique factors or other control settings uniquely associated with the mode. The set of distinct technique factors and control settings for the mode may be selected by the operation of a single control. Examples of distinct modes of operation include normal fluoroscopy (analog or digital), high-level control fluoroscopy, cineradiography (analog or digital), digital subtraction angiography, electronic radiography using the fluoroscopic image receptor, and photospot recording. In a specific mode of operation, certain system variables affecting air kerma, AKR, or image quality, such as image magnification, x-ray field size, pulse rate, pulse duration, number of pulses, source-image receptor distance (SID), or optical aperture, may be adjustable or may vary; their variation per se does not comprise a mode of operation different from the one that has been selected.
</P>
<P><I>Movable tabletop</I> means a tabletop which, when assembled for use, is capable of movement with respect to its supporting structure within the plane of the tabletop.
</P>
<P><I>Non-image-intensified fluoroscopy</I> means fluoroscopy using only a fluorescent screen.
</P>
<P><I>Peak tube potential</I> means the maximum value of the potential difference across the x-ray tube during an exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Primary protective barrier</I> means the material, excluding filters, placed in the useful beam to reduce the radiation exposure for protection purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Pulsed mode</I> means operation of the x-ray system such that the x-ray tube current is pulsed by the x-ray control to produce one or more exposure intervals of duration less than one-half second.
</P>
<P><I>Quick change x-ray tube</I> means an x-ray tube designed for use in its associated tube housing such that:
</P>
<P>(1) The tube cannot be inserted in its housing in a manner that would result in noncompliance of the system with the requirements of paragraphs (k) and (m) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The focal spot position will not cause noncompliance with the provisions of this section or § 1020.31 or 1020.32;
</P>
<P>(3) The shielding within the tube housing cannot be displaced; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any removal and subsequent replacement of a beam-limiting device during reloading of the tube in the tube housing will not result in noncompliance of the x-ray system with the applicable field limitation and alignment requirements of §§ 1020.31 and 1020.32.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation therapy simulation system</I> means a radiographic or fluoroscopic x-ray system intended for localizing the volume to be exposed during radiation therapy and confirming the position and size of the therapeutic irradiation field.
</P>
<P><I>Radiography</I> means a technique for generating and recording an x-ray pattern for the purpose of providing the user with an image(s) after termination of the exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Rated line voltage</I> means the range of potentials, in volts, of the supply line specified by the manufacturer at which the x-ray machine is designed to operate.
</P>
<P><I>Rated output current</I> means the maximum allowable load current of the x-ray high-voltage generator.
</P>
<P><I>Rated output voltage</I> means the allowable peak potential, in volts, at the output terminals of the x-ray high-voltage generator.
</P>
<P><I>Rating</I> means the operating limits specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Recording</I> means producing a retrievable form of an image resulting from x-ray photons.
</P>
<P><I>Scan</I> means the complete process of collecting x-ray transmission data for the production of a tomogram. Data may be collected simultaneously during a single scan for the production of one or more tomograms.
</P>
<P><I>Scan time</I> means the period of time between the beginning and end of x-ray transmission data accumulation for a single scan.
</P>
<P><I>Solid state x-ray imaging device</I> means an assembly, typically in a rectangular panel configuration, that intercepts x-ray photons and converts the photon energy into a modulated electronic signal representative of the x-ray intensity over the area of the imaging device. The electronic signal is then used to create an image for display and/or storage.
</P>
<P><I>Source</I> means the focal spot of the x-ray tube.
</P>
<P><I>Source-image receptor distance (SID)</I> means the distance from the source to the center of the input surface of the image receptor.
</P>
<P><I>Source-skin distance (SSD)</I> means the distance from the source to the center of the entrant x-ray field in the plane tangent to the patient skin surface.
</P>
<P><I>Spot-film device</I> means a device intended to transport and/or position a radiographic image receptor between the x-ray source and fluoroscopic image receptor. It includes a device intended to hold a cassette over the input end of the fluoroscopic image receptor for the purpose of producing a radiograph.
</P>
<P><I>Stationary tabletop</I> means a tabletop which, when assembled for use, is incapable of movement with respect to its supporting structure within the plane of the tabletop.
</P>
<P><I>Technique factors</I> means the following conditions of operation:
</P>
<P>(1) For capacitor energy storage equipment, peak tube potential in kilovolts (kV) and quantity of charge in milliampere-seconds (mAs);
</P>
<P>(2) For field emission equipment rated for pulsed operation, peak tube potential in kV and number of x-ray pulses;
</P>
<P>(3) For CT equipment designed for pulsed operation, peak tube potential in kV, scan time in seconds, and either tube current in milliamperes (mA), x-ray pulse width in seconds, and the number of x-ray pulses per scan, or the product of the tube current, x-ray pulse width, and the number of x-ray pulses in mAs;
</P>
<P>(4) For CT equipment not designed for pulsed operation, peak tube potential in kV, and either tube current in mA and scan time in seconds, or the product of tube current and exposure time in mAs and the scan time when the scan time and exposure time are equivalent; and
</P>
<P>(5) For all other equipment, peak tube potential in kV, and either tube current in mA and exposure time in seconds, or the product of tube current and exposure time in mAs.
</P>
<P><I>Tomogram</I> means the depiction of the x-ray attenuation properties of a section through a body.
</P>
<P><I>Tube</I> means an x-ray tube, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P><I>Tube housing assembly</I> means the tube housing with tube installed. It includes high-voltage and/or filament transformers and other appropriate elements when they are contained within the tube housing.
</P>
<P><I>Tube rating chart</I> means the set of curves which specify the rated limits of operation of the tube in terms of the technique factors.
</P>
<P><I>Useful beam</I> means the radiation which passes through the tube housing port and the aperture of the beam-limiting device when the exposure switch or timer is activated.
</P>
<P><I>Variable-aperture beam-limiting device</I> means a beam-limiting device which has the capacity for stepless adjustment of the x-ray field size at a given SID.
</P>
<P><I>Visible area</I> means the portion of the input surface of the image receptor over which incident x-ray photons are producing a visible image.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray control</I> means a device which controls input power to the x-ray high-voltage generator and/or the x-ray tube. It includes equipment such as timers, phototimers, automatic brightness stabilizers, and similar devices, which control the technique factors of an x-ray exposure.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray equipment</I> means an x-ray system, subsystem, or component thereof. Types of x-ray equipment are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mobile x-ray equipment</I> means x-ray equipment mounted on a permanent base with wheels and/or casters for moving while completely assembled;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Portable x-ray equipment</I> means x-ray equipment designed to be hand-carried; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stationary x-ray equipment means</I> x-ray equipment which is installed in a fixed location.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray field</I> means that area of the intersection of the useful beam and any one of the set of planes parallel to and including the plane of the image receptor, whose perimeter is the locus of points at which the AKR is one-fourth of the maximum in the intersection.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray high-voltage generator</I> means a device which transforms electrical energy from the potential supplied by the x-ray control to the tube operating potential. The device may also include means for transforming alternating current to direct current, filament transformers for the x-ray tube(s), high-voltage switches, electrical protective devices, and other appropriate elements.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray subsystem</I> means any combination of two or more components of an x-ray system for which there are requirements specified in this section and §§ 1020.31 and 1020.32.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray system</I> means an assemblage of components for the controlled production of x-rays. It includes minimally an x-ray high-voltage generator, an x-ray control, a tube housing assembly, a beam-limiting device, and the necessary supporting structures. Additional components which function with the system are considered integral parts of the system.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray table</I> means a patient support device with its patient support structure (tabletop) interposed between the patient and the image receptor during radiography and/or fluoroscopy. This includes, but is not limited to, any stretcher equipped with a radiolucent panel and any table equipped with a cassette tray (or bucky), cassette tunnel, fluoroscopic image receptor, or spot-film device beneath the tabletop.
</P>
<P><I>X-ray tube</I> means any electron tube which is designed for the conversion of electrical energy into x-ray energy.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manufacturers' responsibility.</I> Manufacturers of products subject to §§ 1020.30 through 1020.33 shall certify that each of their products meets all applicable requirements when installed into a diagnostic x-ray system according to instructions. This certification shall be made under the format specified in § 1010.2 of this chapter. Manufacturers may certify a combination of two or more components if they obtain prior authorization in writing from the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health. Manufacturers shall not be held responsible for noncompliance of their products if that noncompliance is due solely to the improper installation or assembly of that product by another person; however, manufacturers are responsible for providing assembly instructions adequate to assure compliance of their components with the applicable provisions of §§ 1020.30 through 1020.33.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assemblers' responsibility.</I> An assembler who installs one or more components certified as required by paragraph (c) of this section shall install certified components that are of the type required by § 1020.31, § 1020.32, or § 1020.33 and shall assemble, install, adjust, and test the certified components according to the instructions of their respective manufacturers. Assemblers shall not be liable for noncompliance of a certified component if the assembly of that component was according to the component manufacturer's instruction.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reports of assembly.</I> All assemblers who install certified components shall file a report of assembly, except as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The report will be construed as the assembler's certification and identification under §§ 1010.2 and 1010.3 of this chapter. The assembler shall affirm in the report that the manufacturer's instructions were followed in the assembly or that the certified components as assembled into the system meet all applicable requirements of §§ 1020.30 through 1020.33. All assembler reports must be on a form (Form FDA 2579 made available at <I>https://www.fda.gov/about-fda/reports-manuals-forms/forms</I>) prescribed by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health. Completed reports must be submitted to the purchaser and, where applicable, to the State agency responsible for radiation protection within 15 days following completion of the assembly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions to reporting requirements.</I> Reports of assembly need not be submitted for any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Reloaded or replacement tube housing assemblies that are reinstalled in or newly assembled into an existing x-ray system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Certified accessory components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Repaired components, whether or not removed from the system and reinstalled during the course of repair, provided the original installation into the system was reported; or
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Components installed temporarily in an x-ray system in place of components removed temporarily for repair, provided the temporarily installed component is identified by a tag or label bearing the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Temporarily Installed Component
</FP>
<FP>This certified component has been assembled, installed, adjusted, and tested by me according to the instructions provided by the manufacturer.
</FP>
<FP>Signature
</FP>
<FP>Company Name
</FP>
<FP>Street Address, P.O. Box
</FP>
<FP>City, State, Zip Code
</FP>
<FP>Date of Installation</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) The replacement of the temporarily installed component by a component other than the component originally removed for repair shall be reported as specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Identification of x-ray components.</I> In addition to the identification requirements specified in § 1010.3 of this chapter, manufacturers of components subject to this section and §§ 1020.31, 1020.32, and 1020.33, except high-voltage generators contained within tube housings and beam-limiting devices that are integral parts of tube housings, shall permanently inscribe or affix thereon the model number and serial number of the product so that they are legible and accessible to view. The word “model” or “type” shall appear as part of the manufacturer's required identification of certified x-ray components. Where the certification of a system or subsystem, consisting of two or more components, has been authorized under paragraph (c) of this section, a single inscription, tag, or label bearing the model number and serial number may be used to identify the product.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Tube housing assemblies.</I> In a similar manner, manufacturers of tube housing assemblies shall also inscribe or affix thereon the name of the manufacturer, model number, and serial number of the x-ray tube which the tube housing assembly incorporates.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Replacement of tubes.</I> Except as specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, the replacement of an x-ray tube in a previously manufactured tube housing assembly certified under paragraph (c) of this section constitutes manufacture of a new tube housing assembly, and the manufacturer is subject to the provisions of paragraph (e)(1) of this section. The manufacturer shall remove, cover, or deface any previously affixed inscriptions, tags, or labels that are no longer applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quick-change x-ray tubes.</I> The requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section shall not apply to tube housing assemblies designed and designated by their original manufacturer to contain quick change x-ray tubes. The manufacturer of quick-change x-ray tubes shall include with each replacement tube a label with the tube manufacturer's name, the model, and serial number of the x-ray tube. The manufacturer of the tube shall instruct the assembler who installs the new tube to attach the label to the tube housing assembly and to remove, cover, or deface the previously affixed inscriptions, tags, or labels that are described by the tube manufacturer as no longer applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Information to be provided to assemblers.</I> Manufacturers of components listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall provide to assemblers subject to paragraph (d) of this section and, upon request, to others at a cost not to exceed the cost of publication and distribution, instructions for assembly, installation, adjustment, and testing of such components adequate to assure that the products will comply with applicable provisions of this section and §§ 1020.31, 1020.32, and 1020.33, when assembled, installed, adjusted, and tested as directed. Such instructions shall include specifications of other components compatible with that to be installed when compliance of the system or subsystem depends on their compatibility. Such specifications may describe pertinent physical characteristics of the components and/or may list by manufacturer model number the components which are compatible. For x-ray controls and generators manufactured after May 3, 1994, manufacturers shall provide:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the rated line voltage and the range of line-voltage regulation for operation at maximum line current;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the maximum line current of the x-ray system based on the maximum input voltage and current characteristics of the tube housing assembly compatible with rated output voltage and rated output current characteristics of the x-ray control and associated high-voltage generator. If the rated input voltage and current characteristics of the tube housing assembly are not known by the manufacturer of the x-ray control and associated high-voltage generator, the manufacturer shall provide information necessary to allow the assembler to determine the maximum line current for the particular tube housing assembly(ies);
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the technique factors that constitute the maximum line current condition described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Information to be provided to users.</I> Manufacturers of x-ray equipment shall provide to purchasers and, upon request, to others at a cost not to exceed the cost of publication and distribution, manuals or instruction sheets which shall include the following technical and safety information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>All x-ray equipment.</I> For x-ray equipment to which this section and §§ 1020.31, 1020.32, and 1020.33 are applicable, there shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Adequate instructions concerning any radiological safety procedures and precautions which may be necessary because of unique features of the equipment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A schedule of the maintenance necessary to keep the equipment in compliance with this section and §§ 1020.31, 1020.32, and 1020.33.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tube housing assemblies.</I> For each tube housing assembly, there shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Statements of the leakage technique factors for all combinations of tube housing assemblies and beam-limiting devices for which the tube housing assembly manufacturer states compatibility, the minimum filtration permanently in the useful beam expressed as millimeters (mm) of aluminum equivalent, and the peak tube potential at which the aluminum equivalent was obtained;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cooling curves for the anode and tube housing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Tube rating charts. If the tube is designed to operate from different types of x-ray high-voltage generators (such as single-phase self rectified, single-phase half-wave rectified, single-phase full-wave rectified, 3-phase 6-pulse, 3-phase 12-pulse, constant potential, capacitor energy storage) or under modes of operation such as alternate focal spot sizes or speeds of anode rotation which affect its rating, specific identification of the difference in ratings shall be noted.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>X-ray controls and generators.</I> For the x-ray control and associated x-ray high-voltage generator, there shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the rated line voltage and the range of line-voltage regulation for operation at maximum line current;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the maximum line current of the x-ray system based on the maximum input voltage and output current characteristics of the tube housing assembly compatible with rated output voltage and rated current characteristics of the x-ray control and associated high-voltage generator. If the rated input voltage and current characteristics of the tube housing assembly are not known by the manufacturer of the x-ray control and associated high-voltage generator, the manufacturer shall provide necessary information to allow the purchaser to determine the maximum line current for his particular tube housing assembly(ies);
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the technique factors that constitute the maximum line current condition described in paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of battery-powered generators, a specification of the minimum state of charge necessary for proper operation;
</P>
<P>(v) Generator rating and duty cycle;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement of the maximum deviation from the preindication given by labeled technique factor control settings or indicators during any radiographic or CT exposure where the equipment is connected to a power supply as described in accordance with this paragraph. In the case of fixed technique factors, the maximum deviation from the nominal fixed value of each factor shall be stated;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement of the maximum deviation from the continuous indication of x-ray tube potential and current during any fluoroscopic exposure when the equipment is connected to a power supply as described in accordance with this paragraph; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement describing the measurement criteria for all technique factors used in paragraphs (h)(3)(iii), (h)(3)(vi), and (h)(3)(vii) of this section; for example, the beginning and endpoints of exposure time measured with respect to a certain percentage of the voltage waveform.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Beam-limiting device.</I> For each variable-aperture beam-limiting device, there shall be provided;
</P>
<P>(i) Leakage technique factors for all combinations of tube housing assemblies and beam-limiting devices for which the beam-limiting device manufacturer states compatibility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement including the minimum aluminum equivalent of that part of the device through which the useful beam passes and including the x-ray tube potential at which the aluminum equivalent was obtained. When two or more filters are provided as part of the device, the statement shall include the aluminum equivalent of each filter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Imaging system information.</I> For x-ray systems manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, that produce images using the fluoroscopic image receptor, the following information shall be provided in a separate, single section of the user's instruction manual or in a separate manual devoted to this information:
</P>
<P>(i) For each mode of operation, a description of the mode and detailed instructions on how the mode is engaged and disengaged. The description of the mode shall identify those technique factors and system controls that are fixed or automatically adjusted by selection of the mode of operation, including the manner in which the automatic adjustment is controlled. This information shall include how the operator can recognize which mode of operation has been selected prior to initiation of x-ray production.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each mode of operation, a descriptive example(s) of any specific clinical procedure(s) or imaging task(s) for which the mode is recommended or designed and how each mode should be used. Such recommendations do not preclude other clinical uses.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Displays of values of AKR and cumulative air kerma.</I> For fluoroscopic x-ray systems manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, the following shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) A schedule of maintenance for any system instrumentation associated with the display of air kerma information necessary to maintain the displays of AKR and cumulative air kerma within the limits of allowed uncertainty specified by § 1020.32(k)(6) and, if the capability for user calibration of the display is provided, adequate instructions for such calibration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the distances along the beam axis:
</P>
<P>(A) From the focal spot to the isocenter, and
</P>
<P>(B) From the focal spot to the reference location to which displayed values of AKR and cumulative air kerma refer according to § 1020.32(k)(4);
</P>
<P>(iii) A rationale for specification of a reference irradiation location alternative to 15 cm from the isocenter toward the x-ray source along the beam axis when such alternative specification is made according to § 1020.32(k)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Warning label.</I> The control panel containing the main power switch shall bear the warning statement, legible and accessible to view:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Warning: This x-ray unit may be dangerous to patient and operator unless safe exposure factors, operating instructions and maintenance schedules are observed.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(k) <I>Leakage radiation from the diagnostic source assembly.</I> The leakage radiation from the diagnostic source assembly measured at a distance of 1 meter in any direction from the source shall not exceed 0.88 milligray (mGy) air kerma (vice 100 milliroentgen (mR) exposure) in 1 hour when the x-ray tube is operated at the leakage technique factors. If the maximum rated peak tube potential of the tube housing assembly is greater than the maximum rated peak tube potential for the diagnostic source assembly, positive means shall be provided to limit the maximum x-ray tube potential to that of the diagnostic source assembly. Compliance shall be determined by measurements averaged over an area of 100 square cm with no linear dimension greater than 20 cm.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Radiation from components other than the diagnostic source assembly.</I> The radiation emitted by a component other than the diagnostic source assembly shall not exceed an air kerma of 18 microGy (vice 2 mR exposure) in 1 hour at 5 cm from any accessible surface of the component when it is operated in an assembled x-ray system under any conditions for which it was designed. Compliance shall be determined by measurements averaged over an area of 100 square cm with no linear dimension greater than 20 cm.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Beam quality</I>—(1) <I>Half-value layer (HVL).</I> The HVL of the useful beam for a given x-ray tube potential shall not be less than the appropriate value shown in table 1 in paragraph (m)(1) of this section under the heading “Specified Dental Systems,” for any dental x-ray system designed for use with intraoral image receptors and manufactured after December 1, 1980; under the heading “I—Other X-Ray Systems,” for any dental x-ray system designed for use with intraoral image receptors and manufactured before December 1, 1980, and all other x-ray systems subject to this section and manufactured before June 10, 2006; and under the heading “II—Other X-Ray Systems,” for all x-ray systems, except dental x-ray systems designed for use with intraoral image receptors, subject to this section and manufactured on or after June 10, 2006. If it is necessary to determine such HVL at an x-ray tube potential which is not listed in table 1 in paragraph (m)(1) of this section, linear interpolation or extrapolation may be made. Positive means 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> shall be provided to ensure that at least the minimum filtration needed to achieve the above beam quality requirements is in the useful beam during each exposure. Table 1 follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> In the case of a system, which is to be operated with more than one thickness of filtration, this requirement can be met by a filter interlocked with the kilovoltage selector which will prevent x-ray emissions if the minimum required filtration is not in place.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">X-Ray Tube Voltage
<br/>(kilovolt peak)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Minimum HVL
<br/>(mm of aluminum)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designed Operating Range
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measured Operating Potential
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specified Dental Systems 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I—Other X-Ray Systems 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">II—Other X-Ray Systems 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51 to 70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Dental x-ray systems designed for use with intraoral image receptors and manufactured after December 1, 1980.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Dental x-ray systems designed for use with intraoral image receptors and manufactured before or on December 1, 1980, and all other x-ray systems subject to this section and manufactured before June 10, 2006.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> All x-ray systems, except dental x-ray systems designed for use with intraoral image receptors, subject to this section and manufactured on or after June 10, 2006.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Optional filtration.</I> Fluoroscopic systems manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, incorporating an x-ray tube(s) with a continuous output of 1 kilowatt or more and an anode heat storage capacity of 1 million heat units or more shall provide the option of adding x-ray filtration to the diagnostic source assembly in addition to the amount needed to meet the HVL provisions of § 1020.30(m)(1). The selection of this additional x-ray filtration shall be either at the option of the user or automatic as part of the selected mode of operation. A means of indicating which combination of additional filtration is in the x-ray beam shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Measuring compliance.</I> For capacitor energy storage equipment, compliance shall be determined with the maximum selectable quantity of charge per exposure.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Aluminum equivalent of material between patient and image receptor.</I> Except when used in a CT x-ray system, the aluminum equivalent of each of the items listed in table 2 in paragraph (n) of this section, which are used between the patient and image receptor, may not exceed the indicated limits. Compliance shall be determined by x-ray measurements made at a potential of 100 kilovolts peak and with an x-ray beam that has an HVL specified in table 1 in paragraph (m)(1) of this section for the potential. This requirement applies to front panel(s) of cassette holders and film changers provided by the manufacturer for patient support or for prevention of foreign object intrusions. It does not apply to screens and their associated mechanical support panels or grids. Table 2 follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum Aluminum Equivalent (millimeters)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Front panel(s) of cassette holders (total of all)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Front panel(s) of film changer (total of all)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Cradle</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Tabletop, stationary, without articulated joints</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Tabletop, movable, without articulated joint(s) (including stationary subtop)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Tabletop, with radiolucent panel having one articulated joint</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Tabletop, with radiolucent panel having two or more articulated joints</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Tabletop, cantilevered</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Tabletop, radiation therapy simulator</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(o) <I>Battery charge indicator.</I> On battery-powered generators, visual means shall be provided on the control panel to indicate whether the battery is in a state of charge adequate for proper operation.
</P>
<P>(p) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Modification of certified diagnostic x-ray components and systems.</I> (1) Diagnostic x-ray components and systems certified in accordance with § 1010.2 of this chapter shall not be modified such that the component or system fails to comply with any applicable provision of this chapter unless a variance in accordance with § 1010.4 of this chapter or an exemption under section 534(a)(5) or 538(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act has been granted.
</P>
<P>(2) The owner of a diagnostic x-ray system who uses the system in a professional or commercial capacity may modify the system, provided the modification does not result in the failure of the system or component to comply with the applicable requirements of this section or of § 1020.31, § 1020.32, or § 1020.33. The owner who causes such modification need not submit the reports required by subpart B of part 1002 of this chapter, provided the owner records the date and the details of the modification in the system records and maintains this information, and provided the modification of the x-ray system does not result in a failure to comply with § 1020.31, § 1020.32, or § 1020.33.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 34028, June 10, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 17401, Apr. 9, 2007; 83 FR 13864, Apr. 2, 2018; 88 FR 3654, Jan. 20, 202]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1020.31" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1020.31   Radiographic equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section apply to equipment for radiography, except equipment for fluoroscopic imaging or for recording images from the fluoroscopic image receptor, or computed tomography x-ray systems manufactured on or after November 29, 1984.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Control and indication of technique factors</I>—(1) <I>Visual indication.</I> The technique factors to be used during an exposure shall be indicated before the exposure begins, except when automatic exposure controls are used, in which case the technique factors which are set prior to the exposure shall be indicated. On equipment having fixed technique factors, this requirement may be met by permanent markings. Indication of technique factors shall be visible from the operator's position except in the case of spot films made by the fluoroscopist.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timers.</I> Means shall be provided to terminate the exposure at a preset time interval, a preset product of current and time, a preset number of pulses, or a preset radiation exposure to the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(i) Except during serial radiography, the operator shall be able to terminate the exposure at any time during an exposure of greater than one-half second. Except during panoramic dental radiography, termination of exposure shall cause automatic resetting of the timer to its initial setting or to zero. It shall not be possible to make an exposure when the timer is set to a zero or off position if either position is provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) During serial radiography, the operator shall be able to terminate the x-ray exposure(s) at any time, but means may be provided to permit completion of any single exposure of the series in process.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Automatic exposure controls.</I> When an automatic exposure control is provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Indication shall be made on the control panel when this mode of operation is selected;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the x-ray tube potential is equal to or greater than 51 kilovolts peak (kVp), the minimum exposure time for field emission equipment rated for pulsed operation shall be equal to or less than a time interval equivalent to two pulses and the minimum exposure time for all other equipment shall be equal to or less than 
<FR>1/60</FR> second or a time interval required to deliver 5 milliampere-seconds (mAs), whichever is greater;
</P>
<P>(iii) Either the product of peak x-ray tube potential, current, and exposure time shall be limited to not more than 60 kilowatt-seconds (kWs) per exposure or the product of x-ray tube current and exposure time shall be limited to not more than 600 mAs per exposure, except when the x-ray tube potential is less than 51 kVp, in which case the product of x-ray tube current and exposure time shall be limited to not more than 2,000 mAs per exposure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A visible signal shall indicate when an exposure has been terminated at the limits described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, and manual resetting shall be required before further automatically timed exposures can be made.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accuracy.</I> Deviation of technique factors from indicated values shall not exceed the limits given in the information provided in accordance with § 1020.30(h)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reproducibility.</I> The following requirements shall apply when the equipment is operated on an adequate power supply as specified by the manufacturer in accordance with the requirements of § 1020.30(h)(3):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Coefficient of variation.</I> For any specific combination of selected technique factors, the estimated coefficient of variation of the air kerma shall be no greater than 0.05.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measuring compliance.</I> Determination of compliance shall be based on 10 consecutive measurements taken within a time period of 1 hour. Equipment manufactured after September 5, 1978, shall be subject to the additional requirement that all variable controls for technique factors shall be adjusted to alternate settings and reset to the test setting after each measurement. The percent line-voltage regulation shall be determined for each measurement. All values for percent line-voltage regulation shall be within ±1 of the mean value for all measurements. For equipment having automatic exposure controls, compliance shall be determined with a sufficient thickness of attenuating material in the useful beam such that the technique factors can be adjusted to provide individual exposures of a minimum of 12 pulses on field emission equipment rated for pulsed operation or no less than one-tenth second per exposure on all other equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Linearity.</I> The following requirements apply when the equipment is operated on a power supply as specified by the manufacturer in accordance with the requirements of § 1020.30(h)(3) for any fixed x-ray tube potential within the range of 40 percent to 100 percent of the maximum rated.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Equipment having independent selection of x-ray tube current (mA).</I> The average ratios of air kerma to the indicated milliampere-seconds product (mGy/mAs) obtained at any two consecutive tube current settings shall not differ by more than 0.10 times their sum. This is: |X<E T="52">1</E> - X<E T="52">2</E>| ≤0.10(X<E T="52">1</E> + X<E T="52">2</E>); where X<E T="52">1</E> and X<E T="52">2</E> are the average mGy/mAs values obtained at each of two consecutive mAs selector settings or at two settings differing by no more than a factor of 2 where the mAs selector provides continuous selection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Equipment having selection of x-ray tube current-exposure time product (mAs).</I> For equipment manufactured after May 3, 1994, the average ratios of air kerma to the indicated milliampere-seconds product (mGy/mAs) obtained at any two consecutive mAs selector settings shall not differ by more than 0.10 times their sum. This is: |X<E T="52">1</E> - X<E T="52">2</E>| ≤0.10 (X<E T="52">1</E> + X<E T="52">2</E>); where X<E T="52">1</E> and X<E T="52">2</E> are the average mGy/mAs values obtained at each of two consecutive mAs selector settings or at two settings differing by no more than a factor of 2 where the mAs selector provides continuous selection.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Measuring compliance.</I> Determination of compliance will be based on 10 exposures, made within 1 hour, at each of the two settings. These two settings may include any two focal spot sizes except where one is equal to or less than 0.45 mm and the other is greater than 0.45 mm. For purposes of this requirement, focal spot size is the focal spot size specified by the x-ray tube manufacturer. The percent line-voltage regulation shall be determined for each measurement. All values for percent line-voltage regulation at any one combination of technique factors shall be within ±1 of the mean value for all measurements at these technique factors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Field limitation and alignment for mobile, portable, and stationary general purpose x-ray systems.</I> Except when spot-film devices are in service, mobile, portable, and stationary general purpose radiographic x-ray systems shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Variable x-ray field limitation.</I> A means for stepless adjustment of the size of the x-ray field shall be provided. Each dimension of the minimum field size at an SID of 100 centimeters (cm) shall be equal to or less than 5 cm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Visual definition.</I> (i) Means for visually defining the perimeter of the x-ray field shall be provided. The total misalignment of the edges of the visually defined field with the respective edges of the x-ray field along either the length or width of the visually defined field shall not exceed 2 percent of the distance from the source to the center of the visually defined field when the surface upon which it appears is perpendicular to the axis of the x-ray beam.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a light localizer is used to define the x-ray field, it shall provide an average illuminance of not less than 160 lux (15 footcandles) at 100 cm or at the maximum SID, whichever is less. The average illuminance shall be based on measurements made in the approximate center of each quadrant of the light field. Radiation therapy simulation systems are exempt from this requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) The edge of the light field at 100 cm or at the maximum SID, whichever is less, shall have a contrast ratio, corrected for ambient lighting, of not less than 4 in the case of beam-limiting devices designed for use on stationary equipment, and a contrast ratio of not less than 3 in the case of beam-limiting devices designed for use on mobile and portable equipment. The contrast ratio is defined as I<E T="52">1</E>/I<E T="52">2</E>, where I<E T="52">1</E> is the illuminance 3 mm from the edge of the light field toward the center of the field; and I<E T="52">2</E> is the illuminance 3 mm from the edge of the light field away from the center of the field. Compliance shall be determined with a measuring aperture of 1 mm.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Field indication and alignment on stationary general purpose x-ray equipment.</I> Except when spot-film devices are in service, stationary general purpose x-ray systems shall meet the following requirements in addition to those prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Means shall be provided to indicate when the axis of the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor, to align the center of the x-ray field with respect to the center of the image receptor to within 2 percent of the SID, and to indicate the SID to within 2 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) The beam-limiting device shall numerically indicate the field size in the plane of the image receptor to which it is adjusted;
</P>
<P>(3) Indication of field size dimensions and SIDs shall be specified in centimeters and/or inches and shall be such that aperture adjustments result in x-ray field dimensions in the plane of the image receptor which correspond to those indicated by the beam-limiting device to within 2 percent of the SID when the beam axis is indicated to be perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor; and
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance measurements will be made at discrete SIDs and image receptor dimensions in common clinical use (such as SIDs of 100, 150, and 200 cm and/or 36, 40, 48, and 72 inches and nominal image receptor dimensions of 13, 18, 24, 30, 35, 40, and 43 cm and/or 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 14, and 17 inches) or at any other specific dimensions at which the beam-limiting device or its associated diagnostic x-ray system is uniquely designed to operate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Field limitation on radiographic x-ray equipment other than general purpose radiographic systems</I>—(1) <I>Equipment for use with intraoral image receptors.</I> Radiographic equipment designed for use with an intraoral image receptor shall be provided with means to limit the x-ray beam such that:
</P>
<P>(i) If the minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD) is 18 cm or more, the x-ray field at the minimum SSD shall be containable in a circle having a diameter of no more than 7 cm; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the minimum SSD is less than 18 cm, the x-ray field at the minimum SSD shall be containable in a circle having a diameter of no more than 6 cm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>X-ray systems designed for one image receptor size.</I> Radiographic equipment designed for only one image receptor size at a fixed SID shall be provided with means to limit the field at the plane of the image receptor to dimensions no greater than those of the image receptor, and to align the center of the x-ray field with the center of the image receptor to within 2 percent of the SID, or shall be provided with means to both size and align the x-ray field such that the x-ray field at the plane of the image receptor does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Systems designed for mammography</I>—(i) Radiographic systems designed only for mammography and general purpose radiography systems, when special attachments for mammography are in service, manufactured on or after November 1, 1977, and before September 30, 1999, shall be provided with means to limit the useful beam such that the x-ray field at the plane of the image receptor does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor at any designated SID except the edge of the image receptor designed to be adjacent to the chest wall where the x-ray field may not extend beyond this edge by more than 2 percent of the SID. This requirement can be met with a system that performs as prescribed in paragraphs (f)(4)(i), (f)(4)(ii), and (f)(4)(iii) of this section. When the beam-limiting device and image receptor support device are designed to be used to immobilize the breast during a mammographic procedure and the SID may vary, the SID indication specified in paragraphs (f)(4)(ii) and (f)(4)(iii) of this section shall be the maximum SID for which the beam-limiting device or aperture is designed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mammographic beam-limiting devices manufactured on or after September 30, 1999, shall be provided with a means to limit the useful beam such that the x-ray field at the plane of the image receptor does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor by more than 2 percent of the SID. This requirement can be met with a system that performs as prescribed in paragraphs (f)(4)(i), (f)(4)(ii), and (f)(4)(iii) of this section. For systems that allow changes in the SID, the SID indication specified in paragraphs (f)(4)(ii) and (f)(4)(iii) of this section shall be the maximum SID for which the beam-limiting device or aperture is designed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each image receptor support device manufactured on or after November 1, 1977, intended for installation on a system designed for mammography shall have clear and permanent markings to indicate the maximum image receptor size for which it is designed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other x-ray systems.</I> Radiographic systems not specifically covered in paragraphs (d), (e), (f)(2), (f)(3), and (h) of this section and systems covered in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, which are also designed for use with extraoral image receptors and when used with an extraoral image receptor, shall be provided with means to limit the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor so that such field does not exceed each dimension of the image receptor by more than 2 percent of the SID, when the axis of the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor. In addition, means shall be provided to align the center of the x-ray field with the center of the image receptor to within 2 percent of the SID, or means shall be provided to both size and align the x-ray field such that the x-ray field at the plane of the image receptor does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor. These requirements may be met with:
</P>
<P>(i) A system which performs in accordance with paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section; or when alignment means are also provided, may be met with either;
</P>
<P>(ii) An assortment of removable, fixed-aperture, beam-limiting devices sufficient to meet the requirement for each combination of image receptor size and SID for which the unit is designed. Each such device shall have clear and permanent markings to indicate the image receptor size and SID for which it is designed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A beam-limiting device having multiple fixed apertures sufficient to meet the requirement for each combination of image receptor size and SID for which the unit is designed. Permanent, clearly legible markings shall indicate the image receptor size and SID for which each aperture is designed and shall indicate which aperture is in position for use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Positive beam limitation (PBL).</I> The requirements of this paragraph shall apply to radiographic systems which contain PBL.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Field size.</I> When a PBL system is provided, it shall prevent x-ray production when:
</P>
<P>(i) Either the length or width of the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor differs from the corresponding image receptor dimension by more than 3 percent of the SID; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the length and width differences as stated in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section without regard to sign exceeds 4 percent of the SID.
</P>
<P>(iii) The beam limiting device is at an SID for which PBL is not designed for sizing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions for PBL.</I> When provided, the PBL system shall function as described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section whenever all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The image receptor is inserted into a permanently mounted cassette holder;
</P>
<P>(ii) The image receptor length and width are less than 50 cm;
</P>
<P>(iii) The x-ray beam axis is within ±3 degrees of vertical and the SID is 90 cm to 130 cm inclusive; or the x-ray beam axis is within ±3 degrees of horizontal and the SID is 90 cm to 205 cm inclusive;
</P>
<P>(iv) The x-ray beam axis is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor to within ±3 degrees; and
</P>
<P>(v) Neither tomographic nor stereoscopic radiography is being performed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Measuring compliance.</I> Compliance with the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section shall be determined when the equipment indicates that the beam axis is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor and the provisions of paragraph (g)(2) of this section are met. Compliance shall be determined no sooner than 5 seconds after insertion of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operator initiated undersizing.</I> The PBL system shall be capable of operation such that, at the discretion of the operator, the size of the field may be made smaller than the size of the image receptor through stepless adjustment of the field size. Each dimension of the minimum field size at an SID of 100 cm shall be equal to or less than 5 cm. Return to PBL function as described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section shall occur automatically upon any change of image receptor size or SID.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Override of PBL.</I> A capability may be provided for overriding PBL in case of system failure and for servicing the system. This override may be for all SIDs and image receptor sizes. A key shall be required for any override capability that is accessible to the operator. It shall not be possible to remove the key while PBL is overridden. Each such key switch or key shall be clearly and durably labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>For X-ray Field Limitation System Failure
</FP>
<FP>The override capability is considered accessible to the operator if it is referenced in the operator's manual or in other material intended for the operator or if its location is such that the operator would consider it part of the operational controls.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) <I>Field limitation and alignment for spot-film devices.</I> The following requirements shall apply to spot-film devices, except when the spot-film device is provided for use with a radiation therapy simulation system:
</P>
<P>(1) Means shall be provided between the source and the patient for adjustment of the x-ray field size in the plane of the image receptor to the size of that portion of the image receptor which has been selected on the spot-film selector. Such adjustment shall be accomplished automatically when the x-ray field size in the plane of the image receptor is greater than the selected portion of the image receptor. If the x-ray field size is less than the size of the selected portion of the image receptor, the field size shall not open automatically to the size of the selected portion of the image receptor unless the operator has selected that mode of operation.
</P>
<P>(2) Neither the length nor the width of the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor shall differ from the corresponding dimensions of the selected portion of the image receptor by more than 3 percent of the SID when adjusted for full coverage of the selected portion of the image receptor. The sum, without regard to sign, of the length and width differences shall not exceed 4 percent of the SID. On spot-film devices manufactured after February 25, 1978, if the angle between the plane of the image receptor and beam axis is variable, means shall be provided to indicate when the axis of the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor, and compliance shall be determined with the beam axis indicated to be perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(3) The center of the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor shall be aligned with the center of the selected portion of the image receptor to within 2 percent of the SID.
</P>
<P>(4) Means shall be provided to reduce the x-ray field size in the plane of the image receptor to a size smaller than the selected portion of the image receptor such that:
</P>
<P>(i) For spot-film devices used on fixed-SID fluoroscopic systems which are not required to, and do not provide stepless adjustment of the x-ray field, the minimum field size, at the greatest SID, does not exceed 125 square cm; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For spot-film devices used on fluoroscopic systems that have a variable SID and/or stepless adjustment of the field size, the minimum field size, at the greatest SID, shall be containable in a square of 5 cm by 5 cm.
</P>
<P>(5) A capability may be provided for overriding the automatic x-ray field size adjustment in case of system failure. If it is so provided, a signal visible at the fluoroscopist's position shall indicate whenever the automatic x-ray field size adjustment override is engaged. Each such system failure override switch shall be clearly labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>For X-ray Field Limitation System Failure</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(i) <I>Source-skin distance</I>—(1) X-ray systems designed for use with an intraoral image receptor shall be provided with means to limit the source-skin distance to not less than:
</P>
<P>(i) Eighteen cm if operable above 50 kVp; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ten cm if not operable above 50 kVp.
</P>
<P>(2) Mobile and portable x-ray systems other than dental shall be provided with means to limit the source-skin distance to not less than 30 cm.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Beam-on indicators.</I> The x-ray control shall provide visual indication whenever x-rays are produced. In addition, a signal audible to the operator shall indicate that the exposure has terminated.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Multiple tubes.</I> Where two or more radiographic tubes are controlled by one exposure switch, the tube or tubes which have been selected shall be clearly indicated before initiation of the exposure. This indication shall be both on the x-ray control and at or near the tube housing assembly which has been selected.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Radiation from capacitor energy storage equipment.</I> Radiation emitted from the x-ray tube shall not exceed:
</P>
<P>(1) An air kerma of 0.26 microGy (vice 0.03 mR exposure) in 1 minute at 5 cm from any accessible surface of the diagnostic source assembly, with the beam-limiting device fully open, the system fully charged, and the exposure switch, timer, or any discharge mechanism not activated. Compliance shall be determined by measurements averaged over an area of 100 square cm, with no linear dimension greater than 20 cm; and
</P>
<P>(2) An air kerma of 0.88 mGy (vice 100 mR exposure) in 1 hour at 100 cm from the x-ray source, with the beam-limiting device fully open, when the system is discharged through the x-ray tube either manually or automatically by use of a discharge switch or deactivation of the input power. Compliance shall be determined by measurements of the maximum air kerma per discharge multiplied by the total number of discharges in 1 hour (duty cycle). The measurements shall be averaged over an area of 100 square cm with no linear dimension greater than 20 cm.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Primary protective barrier for mammography x-ray systems</I>—(1) For x-ray systems manufactured after September 5, 1978, and before September 30, 1999, which are designed only for mammography, the transmission of the primary beam through any image receptor support provided with the system shall be limited such that the air kerma 5 cm from any accessible surface beyond the plane of the image receptor supporting device does not exceed 0.88 microGy (vice 0.1 mR exposure) for each activation of the tube.
</P>
<P>(2) For mammographic x-ray systems manufactured on or after September 30, 1999:
</P>
<P>(i) At any SID where exposures can be made, the image receptor support device shall provide a primary protective barrier that intercepts the cross section of the useful beam along every direction except at the chest wall edge.
</P>
<P>(ii) The x-ray system shall not permit exposure unless the appropriate barrier is in place to intercept the useful beam as required in paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The transmission of the useful beam through the primary protective barrier shall be limited such that the air kerma 5 cm from any accessible surface beyond the plane of the primary protective barrier does not exceed 0.88 microGy (vice 0.1 mR exposure) for each activation of the tube.
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (m)(1) and (m)(2)(iii) of this section for transmission shall be determined with the x-ray system operated at the minimum SID for which it is designed, at the maximum rated peak tube potential, at the maximum rated product of x-ray tube current and exposure time (mAs) for the maximum rated peak tube potential, and by measurements averaged over an area of 100 square cm with no linear dimension greater than 20 cm. The sensitive volume of the radiation measuring instrument shall not be positioned beyond the edge of the primary protective barrier along the chest wall side.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 34036, June 10, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1020.32" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1020.32   Fluoroscopic equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section apply to equipment for fluoroscopic imaging or for recording images from the fluoroscopic image receptor, except computed tomography x-ray systems manufactured on or after November 29, 1984.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Primary protective barrier</I>—(1) <I>Limitation of useful beam.</I> The fluoroscopic imaging assembly shall be provided with a primary protective barrier which intercepts the entire cross section of the useful beam at any SID. The x-ray tube used for fluoroscopy shall not produce x-rays unless the barrier is in position to intercept the entire useful beam. The AKR due to transmission through the barrier with the attenuation block in the useful beam combined with radiation from the fluoroscopic image receptor shall not exceed 3.34 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> percent of the entrance AKR, at a distance of 10 cm from any accessible surface of the fluoroscopic imaging assembly beyond the plane of the image receptor. Radiation therapy simulation systems shall be exempt from this requirement provided the systems are intended only for remote control operation and the manufacturer sets forth instructions for assemblers with respect to control location as part of the information required in § 1020.30(g). Additionally, the manufacturer shall provide to users, under § 1020.30(h)(1)(i), precautions concerning the importance of remote control operation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measuring compliance.</I> The AKR shall be measured in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. The AKR due to transmission through the primary barrier combined with radiation from the fluoroscopic image receptor shall be determined by measurements averaged over an area of 100 square cm with no linear dimension greater than 20 cm. If the source is below the tabletop, the measurement shall be made with the input surface of the fluoroscopic imaging assembly positioned 30 cm above the tabletop. If the source is above the tabletop and the SID is variable, the measurement shall be made with the end of the beam-limiting device or spacer as close to the tabletop as it can be placed, provided that it shall not be closer than 30 cm. Movable grids and compression devices shall be removed from the useful beam during the measurement. For all measurements, the attenuation block shall be positioned in the useful beam 10 cm from the point of measurement of entrance AKR and between this point and the input surface of the fluoroscopic imaging assembly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Field limitation</I>—(1) <I>Angulation.</I> For fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after February 25, 1978, when the angle between the image receptor and the beam axis of the x-ray beam is variable, means shall be provided to indicate when the axis of the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor. Compliance with paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) of this section shall be determined with the beam axis indicated to be perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Further means for limitation.</I> Means shall be provided to permit further limitation of the x-ray field to sizes smaller than the limits of paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5). Beam-limiting devices manufactured after May 22, 1979, and incorporated in equipment with a variable SID and/or the capability of a visible area of greater than 300 square cm, shall be provided with means for stepless adjustment of the x-ray field. Equipment with a fixed SID and the capability of a visible area of no greater than 300 square cm shall be provided with either stepless adjustment of the x-ray field or with a means to further limit the x-ray field size at the plane of the image receptor to 125 square cm or less. Stepless adjustment shall, at the greatest SID, provide continuous field sizes from the maximum obtainable to a field size containable in a square of 5 cm by 5 cm. This paragraph does not apply to non-image-intensified fluoroscopy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-image-intensified fluoroscopy.</I> The x-ray field produced by non-image-intensified fluoroscopic equipment shall not extend beyond the entire visible area of the image receptor. Means shall be provided for stepless adjustment of field size. The minimum field size, at the greatest SID, shall be containable in a square of 5 cm by 5 cm.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fluoroscopy and radiography using the fluoroscopic imaging assembly with inherently circular image receptors.</I> (i) For fluoroscopic equipment manufactured before June 10, 2006, other than radiation therapy simulation systems, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(A) Neither the length nor the width of the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor shall exceed that of the visible area of the image receptor by more than 3 percent of the SID. The sum of the excess length and the excess width shall be no greater than 4 percent of the SID.
</P>
<P>(B) For rectangular x-ray fields used with circular image receptors, the error in alignment shall be determined along the length and width dimensions of the x-ray field which pass through the center of the visible area of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(ii) For fluoroscopic equipment manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, other than radiation therapy simulation systems, the maximum area of the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor shall conform with one of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) When every linear dimension of the visible area of the image receptor measured through the center of the visible area is less than or equal to 34 cm in any direction, at least 80 percent of the area of the x-ray field overlaps the visible area of the image.
</P>
<P>(B) When any linear dimension of the visible area of the image receptor measured through the center of the visible area is greater than 34 cm in any direction, the x-ray field measured along the direction of greatest misalignment with the visible area of the image receptor does not extend beyond the edge of the visible area of the image receptor by more than 2 cm.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fluoroscopy and radiography using the fluoroscopic imaging assembly with inherently rectangular image receptors.</I> For x-ray systems manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) Neither the length nor the width of the x-ray field in the plane of the image receptor shall exceed that of the visible area of the image receptor by more than 3 percent of the SID. The sum of the excess length and the excess width shall be no greater than 4 percent of the SID.
</P>
<P>(ii) The error in alignment shall be determined along the length and width dimensions of the x-ray field which pass through the center of the visible area of the image receptor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Override capability.</I> If the fluoroscopic x-ray field size is adjusted automatically as the SID or image receptor size is changed, a capability may be provided for overriding the automatic adjustment in case of system failure. If it is so provided, a signal visible at the fluoroscopist's position shall indicate whenever the automatic field adjustment is overridden. Each such system failure override switch shall be clearly labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>For X-ray Field Limitation System Failure</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Activation of tube.</I> X-ray production in the fluoroscopic mode shall be controlled by a device which requires continuous pressure by the operator for the entire time of any exposure. When recording serial radiographic images from the fluoroscopic image receptor, the operator shall be able to terminate the x-ray exposure(s) at any time, but means may be provided to permit completion of any single exposure of the series in process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Air kerma rates.</I> For fluoroscopic equipment, the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fluoroscopic equipment manufactured before May 19, 1995</I>—(i) Equipment provided with automatic exposure rate control (AERC) shall not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that will result in an AKR in excess of 88 mGy per minute (vice 10 R/min exposure rate) at the measurement point specified in § 1020.32(d)(3), except as specified in § 1020.32(d)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment provided without AERC shall not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that will result in an AKR in excess of 44 mGy per minute (vice 5 R/min exposure rate) at the measurement point specified in § 1020.32(d)(3), except as specified in § 1020.32(d)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment provided with both an AERC mode and a manual mode shall not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that will result in an AKR in excess of 88 mGy per minute (vice 10 R/min exposure rate) in either mode at the measurement point specified in § 1020.32(d)(3), except as specified in § 1020.32(d)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>(iv) Equipment may be modified in accordance with § 1020.30(q) to comply with § 1020.32(d)(2). When the equipment is modified, it shall bear a label indicating the date of the modification and the statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Modified to comply with 21 CFR 1020.32(h)(2).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) Exceptions:
</P>
<P>(A) During recording of fluoroscopic images, or
</P>
<P>(B) When a mode of operation has an optional high-level control, in which case that mode shall not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that will result in an AKR in excess of the rates specified in § 1020.32(d)(1)(i), (d)(1)(ii), or (d)(1)(iii) at the measurement point specified in § 1020.32(d)(3), unless the high-level control is activated. Special means of activation of high-level controls shall be required. The high-level control shall be operable only when continuous manual activation is provided by the operator. A continuous signal audible to the fluoroscopist shall indicate that the high-level control is being employed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fluoroscopic equipment manufactured on or after May 19, 1995</I>—(i) Shall be equipped with AERC if operable at any combination of tube potential and current that results in an AKR greater than 44 mGy per minute (vice 5 R/min exposure rate) at the measurement point specified in § 1020.32(d)(3). Provision for manual selection of technique factors may be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that will result in an AKR in excess of 88 mGy per minute (vice 10 R/min exposure rate) at the measurement point specified in § 1020.32(d)(3), except as specified in § 1020.32(d)(2)(iii):
</P>
<P>(iii) Exceptions:
</P>
<P>(A) For equipment manufactured prior to June 10, 2006, during the recording of images from a fluoroscopic image receptor using photographic film or a video camera when the x-ray source is operated in a pulsed mode.
</P>
<P>(B) For equipment manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, during the recording of images from the fluoroscopic image receptor for the purpose of providing the user with a recorded image(s) after termination of the exposure. Such recording does not include images resulting from a last-image-hold feature that are not recorded.
</P>
<P>(C) When a mode of operation has an optional high-level control and the control is activated, in which case the equipment shall not be operable at any combination of tube potential and current that will result in an AKR in excess of 176 mGy per minute (vice 20 R/min exposure rate) at the measurement point specified in § 1020.32(d)(3). Special means of activation of high-level controls shall be required. The high-level control shall be operable only when continuous manual activation is provided by the operator. A continuous signal audible to the fluoroscopist shall indicate that the high-level control is being employed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Measuring compliance.</I> Compliance with paragraph (d) of this section shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the source is below the x-ray table, the AKR shall be measured at 1 cm above the tabletop or cradle.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the source is above the x-ray table, the AKR shall be measured at 30 cm above the tabletop with the end of the beam-limiting device or spacer positioned as closely as possible to the point of measurement.
</P>
<P>(iii) In a C-arm type of fluoroscope, the AKR shall be measured at 30 cm from the input surface of the fluoroscopic imaging assembly, with the source positioned at any available SID, provided that the end of the beam-limiting device or spacer is no closer than 30 cm from the input surface of the fluoroscopic imaging assembly.
</P>
<P>(iv) In a C-arm type of fluoroscope having an SID less than 45 cm, the AKR shall be measured at the minimum SSD.
</P>
<P>(v) In a lateral type of fluoroscope, the air kerma rate shall be measured at a point 15 cm from the centerline of the x-ray table and in the direction of the x-ray source with the end of the beam-limiting device or spacer positioned as closely as possible to the point of measurement. If the tabletop is movable, it shall be positioned as closely as possible to the lateral x-ray source, with the end of the beam-limiting device or spacer no closer than 15 cm to the centerline of the x-ray table.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exemptions.</I> Fluoroscopic radiation therapy simulation systems are exempt from the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Indication of potential and current.</I> During fluoroscopy and cinefluorography, x-ray tube potential and current shall be continuously indicated. Deviation of x-ray tube potential and current from the indicated values shall not exceed the maximum deviation as stated by the manufacturer in accordance with § 1020.30(h)(3).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Source-skin distance.</I> (1) Means shall be provided to limit the source-skin distance to not less than 38 cm on stationary fluoroscopes and to not less than 30 cm on mobile and portable fluoroscopes. In addition, for fluoroscopes intended for specific surgical application that would be prohibited at the source-skin distances specified in this paragraph, provisions may be made for operation at shorter source-skin distances but in no case less than 20 cm. When provided, the manufacturer must set forth precautions with respect to the optional means of spacing, in addition to other information as required in § 1020.30(h).
</P>
<P>(2) For stationary, mobile, or portable C-arm fluoroscopic systems manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, having a maximum source-image receptor distance of less than 45 cm, means shall be provided to limit the source-skin distance to not less than 19 cm. Such systems shall be labeled for extremity use only. In addition, for those systems intended for specific surgical application that would be prohibited at the source-skin distances specified in this paragraph, provisions may be made for operation at shorter source-skin distances but in no case less than 10 cm. When provided, the manufacturer must set forth precautions with respect to the optional means of spacing, in addition to other information as required in § 1020.30(h).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fluoroscopic irradiation time, display, and signal.</I> (1)(i) Fluoroscopic equipment manufactured before June 10, 2006, shall be provided with means to preset the cumulative irradiation time of the fluoroscopic tube. The maximum cumulative time of the timing device shall not exceed 5 minutes without resetting. A signal audible to the fluoroscopist shall indicate the completion of any preset cumulative irradiation-time. Such signal shall continue to sound while x-rays are produced until the timing device is reset. Fluoroscopic equipment may be modified in accordance with § 1020.30(q) to comply with the requirements of § 1020.32(h)(2). When the equipment is modified, it shall bear a label indicating the statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Modified to comply with 21 CFR 1020.32(h)(2).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) As an alternative to the requirements of this paragraph, radiation therapy simulation systems may be provided with a means to indicate the total cumulative exposure time during which x-rays were produced, and which is capable of being reset between x-ray examinations.
</P>
<P>(2) For x-ray controls manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, there shall be provided for each fluoroscopic tube:
</P>
<P>(i) A display of the fluoroscopic irradiation time at the fluoroscopist's working position. This display shall function independently of the audible signal described in § 1020.32(h)(2)(ii). The following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(A) When the x-ray tube is activated, the fluoroscopic irradiation time in minutes and tenths of minutes shall be continuously displayed and updated at least once every 6 seconds.
</P>
<P>(B) The fluoroscopic irradiation time shall also be displayed within 6 seconds of termination of an exposure and remain displayed until reset.
</P>
<P>(C) Means shall be provided to reset the display to zero prior to the beginning of a new examination or procedure.
</P>
<P>(ii) A signal audible to the fluoroscopist shall sound for each passage of 5 minutes of fluoroscopic irradiation time during an examination or procedure. The signal shall sound until manually reset or, if automatically reset, for at least 2 second.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mobile and portable fluoroscopes.</I> In addition to the other requirements of this section, mobile and portable fluoroscopes shall provide an image receptor incorporating more than a simple fluorescent screen.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Display of last-image-hold (LIH).</I> Fluoroscopic equipment manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, shall be equipped with means to display LIH image following termination of the fluoroscopic exposure.
</P>
<P>(1) For an LIH image obtained by retaining pretermination fluoroscopic images, if the number of images and method of combining images are selectable by the user, the selection shall be indicated prior to initiation of the fluoroscopic exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For an LIH image obtained by initiating a separate radiographic-like exposure at the termination of fluoroscopic imaging, the techniques factors for the LIH image shall be selectable prior to the fluoroscopic exposure, and the combination selected shall be indicated prior to initiation of the fluoroscopic exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) Means shall be provided to clearly indicate to the user whether a displayed image is the LIH radiograph or fluoroscopy. Display of the LIH radiograph shall be replaced by the fluoroscopic image concurrently with re-initiation of fluoroscopic exposure, unless separate displays are provided for the LIH radiograph and fluoroscopic images.
</P>
<P>(4) The predetermined or selectable options for producing the LIH radiograph shall be described in the information required by § 1020.30(h). The information shall include a description of any technique factors applicable for the selected option and the impact of the selectable options on image characteristics and the magnitude of radiation emissions.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Displays of values of AKR and cumulative air kerma.</I> Fluoroscopic equipment manufactured on or after June 10, 2006, shall display at the fluoroscopist's working position the AKR and cumulative air kerma. The following requirements apply for each x-ray tube used during an examination or procedure:
</P>
<P>(1) When the x-ray tube is activated and the number of images produced per unit time is greater than six images per second, the AKR in mGy/min shall be continuously displayed and updated at least once every second.
</P>
<P>(2) The cumulative air kerma in units of mGy shall be displayed either within 5 seconds of termination of an exposure or displayed continuously and updated at least once every 5 seconds.
</P>
<P>(3) The display of the AKR shall be clearly distinguishable from the display of the cumulative air kerma.
</P>
<P>(4) The AKR and cumulative air kerma shall represent the value for conditions of free-in-air irradiation at one of the following reference locations specified according to the type of fluoroscope. The reference location shall be identified and described specifically in the information provided to users according to § 1020.30(h)(6)(iii).
</P>
<P>(i) For fluoroscopes with x-ray source below the x-ray table, x-ray source above the table, or of lateral type, the reference locations shall be the respective locations specified in § 1020.32(d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(ii), or (d)(3)(v) for measuring compliance with air-kerma rate limits.
</P>
<P>(ii) For C-arm fluoroscopes, the reference location shall be 15 cm from the isocenter toward the x-ray source along the beam axis. Alternatively, the reference location shall be at a point specified by the manufacturer to represent the location of the intersection of the x-ray beam with the patient's skin.
</P>
<P>(5) Means shall be provided to reset to zero the display of cumulative air kerma prior to the commencement of a new examination or procedure.
</P>
<P>(6) The displayed AKR and cumulative air kerma shall not deviate from the actual values by more than ±35 percent over the range of 6 mGy/min and 100 mGy to the maximum indication of AKR and cumulative air kerma, respectively. Compliance shall be determined with an irradiation time greater than 3 seconds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 34039, June 10, 2005, as amended at 80 FR 19532, Apr. 13, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1020.33" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1020.33   Computed tomography (CT) equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The provisions of this section, except for paragraphs (b), (c)(1), and (c)(2) are applicable as specified herein to CT x-ray systems manufactured or remanufactured on or after September 3, 1985.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraphs (b), (c)(1), and (c)(2) are applicable to CT x-ray systems manufactured or remanufactured on or after November 29, 1984.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Computed tomography dose index (CTDI)</I> means the integral of the dose profile along a line perpendicular to the tomographic plane divided by the product of the nominal tomographic section thickness and the number of tomograms produced in a single scan; that is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec01ap93.003.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-1>z = position along a line perpendicular to the tomographic plane.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D(z) = Dose at position z.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T = Nominal tomographic section thickness.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = Number of tomograms produced in a single scan.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>This definition assumes that the dose profile is centered around z = 0 and that, for a multiple tomogram system, the scan increment between adjacent scans is nT.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Contrast scale</I> means the change in linear attenuation coefficient per CT number relative to water; that is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec01ap93.000.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-1>μ<E T="52">w</E> = Linear attenuation coefficient of water.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>μ<E T="52">x</E> = Linear attenuation coefficient of material of interest.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(CT)<E T="52">w</E> = CT number of water.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(CT)<E T="52">x</E> = CT number of material of interest.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>CT conditions of operation</I> means all selectable parameters governing the operation of a CT x-ray system including nominal tomographic section thickness, filtration, and the technique factors as defined in § 1020.30(b)(36).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>CT number</I> means the number used to represent the x-ray attenuation associated with each elemental area of the CT image.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>CT dosimetry phantom</I> means the phantom used for determination of the dose delivered by a CT x-ray system. The phantom shall be a right circular cylinder of polymethl-methacrylate of density 1.19±0.01 grams per cubic centimeter. The phantom shall be at least 14 centimeters in length and shall have diameters of 32.0 centimeters for testing any CT system designed to image any section of the body (whole body scanners) and 16.0 centimeters for any system designed to image the head (head scanners) or for any whole body scanner operated in the head scanning mode. The phantom shall provide means for the placement of a dosimeter(s) along its axis of rotation and along a line parallel to the axis of rotation 1.0 centimeter from the outer surface and within the phantom. Means for the placement of a dosimeter(s) or alignment device at other locations may be provided for convenience. The means used for placement of a dosimeter(s) (i.e., hole size) and the type of dosimeter(s) used is at the discretion of the manufacturer. Any effect on the doses measured due to the removal of phantom material to accommodate dosimeters shall be accounted for through appropriate corrections to the reported data or included in the statement of maximum deviation for the values obtained using the phantom.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Dose profile</I> means the dose as a function of position along a line.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Modulation transfer function</I> means the modulus of the Fourier transform of the impulse response of the system.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Multiple tomogram system</I> means a CT x-ray system which obtains x-ray transmission data simultaneously during a single scan to produce more than one tomogram.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Noise</I> means the standard deviation of the fluctuations in CT number expressed as a percent of the attenuation coefficient of water. Its estimate (S<E T="52">n</E>) is calculated using the following expression:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec01ap93.001.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-1>CS = Contrast scale.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>μ<E T="52">w</E> = Linear attenuation coefficient of water.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>s = Estimated standard deviation of the CT numbers of picture elements in a specified area of the CT image.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(11) <I>Nominal tomographic section thickness</I> means the full-width at half-maximum of the sensitivity profile taken at the center of the cross-sectional volume over which x-ray transmission data are collected.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Picture element</I> means an elemental area of a tomogram.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Remanufacturing</I> means modifying a CT system in such a way that the resulting dose and imaging performance become substantially equivalent to any CT x-ray system manufactured by the original manufacturer on or after November 29, 1984. Any reference in this section to “manufacture”, “manufacturer”, or “manufacturing” includes remanufacture, remanufacturer, or remanufacturing, respectively.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Scan increment</I> means the amount of relative displacement of the patient with respect to the CT x-ray system between successive scans measured along the direction of such displacement.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Scan sequence</I> means a preselected set of two or more scans performed consecutively under preselected CT conditions of operations.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Sensitivity profile</I> means the relative response of the CT x-ray system as a function of position along a line perpendicular to the tomographic plane.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Single tomogram system</I> means a CT x-ray system which obtains x-ray transmission data during a scan to produce a single tomogram.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Tomographic plane</I> means that geometric plane which the manufacturer identifies as corresponding to the output tomogram.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Tomographic section</I> means the volume of an object whose x-ray attenuation properties are imaged in a tomogram.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information to be provided for users.</I> Each manufacturer of a CT x-ray system shall provide the following technical and safety information, in addition to that required under § 1020.30(h), to purchasers and, upon request, to others at a cost not to exceed the cost of publication and distribution of such information. This information shall be identified and provided in a separate section of the user's instruction manual or in a separate manual devoted only to this information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conditions of operation.</I> A statement of the CT conditions of operation used to provide the information required by paragraph (c) (2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dose information.</I> The following dose information obtained by using the CT dosimetry phantom. For any CT x-ray system designed to image both the head and body, separate dose information shall be provided for each application. All dose measurements shall be performed with the CT dosimetry phantom placed on the patient couch or support device without additional attenuating materials present.
</P>
<P>(i) The CTDI at the following locations in the dosimetry phantom:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Along the axis of rotation of the phantom.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Along a line parallel to the axis of rotation and 1.0 centimeter interior to the surface of the phantom with the phantom positioned so that CTDI is the maximum obtainable at this depth.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Along lines parallel to the axis of rotation and 1.0 centimeter interior to the surface of the phantom at positions 90, 180, and 270 degrees from the position in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(<I>b</I>) of this section. The CT conditions of operation shall be the typical values suggested by the manufacturer for CT of the head or body. The location of the position where the CTDI is maximum as specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(<I>b</I>) of this section shall be given by the manufacturer with respect to the housing of the scanning mechanism or other readily identifiable feature of the CT x-ray system in such a manner as to permit placement of the dosimetry phantom in this orientation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CTDI in the center location of the dosimetry phantom for each selectable CT condition of operation that varies either the rate or duration of x-ray exposure. This CTDI shall be presented as a value that is normalized to the CTDI in the center location of the dosimetry phantom from paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, with the CTDI of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section having a value of one. As each individual CT condition of operation is changed, all other independent CT conditions of operation shall be maintained at the typical values described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. These data shall encompass the range of each CT condition of operation stated by the manufacturer as appropriate for CT of the head or body. When more than three selections of a CT condition of operation are available, the normalized CTDI shall be provided, at least, for the minimum, maximum, and mid-range value of the CT condition of operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The CTDI at the location coincident with the maximum CTDI at 1 centimeter interior to the surface of the dosimetry phantom for each selectable peak tube potential. When more than three selections of peak tube potential are available, the normalized CTDI shall be provided, at least, for the minimum, maximum, and a typical value of peak tube potential. The CTDI shall be presented as a value that is normalized to the maximum CTDI located at 1 centimeter interior to the surface of the dosimetry phantom from paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, with the CTDI of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section having a value of one.
</P>
<P>(iv) The dose profile in the center location of the dosimetry phantom for each selectable nominal tomographic section thickness. When more than three selections of nominal tomographic section thicknesses are available, the information shall be provided, at least, for the minimum, maximum, and midrange value of nominal tomographic section thickness. The dose profile shall be presented on the same graph and to the same scale as the corresponding sensitivity profile required by paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of the maximum deviation from the values given in the information provided according to paragraph (c)(2) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section. Deviation of actual values may not exceed these limits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Imaging performance information.</I> The following performance data shall be provided for the CT conditions of operation used to provide the information required by paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. All other aspects of data collection, including the x-ray attenuation properties of the material in the tomographic section, shall be similar to those used to provide the dose information required by paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. For any CT x-ray system designed to image both the head and body, separate imaging performance information shall be provided for each application.
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the noise.
</P>
<P>(ii) A graphical presentation of the modulation transfer function for the same image processing and display mode as that used in the statement of the noise.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the nominal tomographic section thickness(es).
</P>
<P>(iv) A graphical presentation of the sensitivity profile, at the location corresponding to the center location of the dosimetry phantom, for each selectable nominal tomographic section thickness for which the dose profile is given according to paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the phantom or device and test protocol or procedure used to determine the specifications and a statement of the maximum deviation from the specifications provided in accordance with paragraphs (c)(3) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section. Deviation of actual values may not exceed these limits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quality assurance.</I> The manufacturer of any CT x-ray system shall provide the following with each system. All information required by this subsection shall be provided in a separate section of the user's instructional manual.
</P>
<P>(1) A phantom(s) capable of providing an indication of contrast scale, noise, nominal tomographic section thickness, the spatial resolution capability of the system for low and high contrast objects, and measuring the mean CT number of water or a reference material.
</P>
<P>(2) Instructions on the use of the phantom(s) including a schedule of testing appropriate for the system, allowable variations for the indicated parameters, and a method to store as records, quality assurance data.
</P>
<P>(3) Representative images obtained with the phantom(s) using the same processing mode and CT conditions of operation as in paragraph (c)(3) of this section for a properly functioning system of the same model. The representative images shall be of two forms as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Photographic copies of the images obtained from the image display device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Images stored in digital form on a storage medium compatible with the CT x-ray system. The CT x-ray system shall be provided with the means to display these images on the image display device.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control and indication of conditions of operation</I>—(1) <I>Visual indication.</I> The CT conditions of operation to be used during a scan or a scan sequence shall be indicated prior to initiation of a scan or a scan sequence. On equipment having all or some of these conditions of operation at fixed values, this requirement may be met by permanent markings. Indication of the CT conditions of operation shall be visible from any position from which scan initiation is possible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timers.</I> (i) Means shall be provided to terminate the x-ray exposure automatically by either deenergizing the x-ray source or shuttering the x-ray beam in the event of equipment failure affecting data collection. Such termination shall occur within an interval that limits the total scan time to no more than 110 percent of its preset value through the use of either a backup timer or devices which monitor equipment function. A visible signal shall indicate when the x-ray exposure has been terminated through these means and manual resetting of the CT conditions of operation shall be required prior to the initiation of another scan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Means shall be provided so that the operator can terminate the x-ray exposure at any time during a scan, or series of scans under x-ray system control, of greater than one-half second duration. Termination of the x-ray exposure shall necessitate resetting of the CT conditions of operation prior to the initiation of another scan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Tomographic plane indication and alignment.</I> (1) For any single tomogram system, means shall be provided to permit visual determination of the tomographic plane or a reference plane offset from the tomographic plane.
</P>
<P>(2) For any multiple tomogram system, means shall be provided to permit visual determination of the location of a reference plane. The relationship of the reference plane to the planes of the tomograms shall be provided to the user in addition to other information provided according to § 1020.30(h). This reference plane can be offset from the location of the tomographic planes.
</P>
<P>(3) The distance between the indicated location of the tomographic plane or reference plane and its actual location may not exceed 5 millimeters.
</P>
<P>(4) For any offset alignment system, the manufacturer shall provide specific instructions with respect to the use of this system for patient positioning, in addition to other information provided according to § 1020.30(h).
</P>
<P>(5) If a mechanism using a light source is used to satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (g) (1) and (2) of this section, the light source shall allow visual determination of the location of the tomographic plane or reference plane under ambient light conditions of up to 500 lux.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Beam-on and shutter status indicators.</I> (1) Means shall be provided on the control and on or near the housing of the scanning mechanism to provide visual indication when and only when x rays are produced and, if applicable, whether the shutter is open or closed. If the x-ray production period is less than one-half second, the indication of x-ray production shall be actuated for one-half second. Indicators at or near the housing of the scanning mechanism shall be discernible from any point external to the patient opening where insertion of any part of the human body into the primary beam is possible.
</P>
<P>(2) For systems that allow high voltage to be applied to the x-ray tube continuously and that control the emission of x-ray with a shutter, the radiation emitted may not exceed 0.88 milligray (vice 100 milliroentgen exposure) in 1 hour at any point 5 cm outside the external surface of the housing of the scanning mechanism when the shutter is closed. Compliance shall be determined by measurements average over an area of 100 square cm with no linear dimension greater than 20 cm.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Scan increment accuracy.</I> The deviation of indicated scan increment from actual scan increment may not exceed 1 millimeter. Compliance shall be measured as follows: The determination of the deviation of indicated versus actual scan increment shall be based on measurements taken with a mass 100 kilograms or less, on the patient support device. The patient support device shall be incremented from a typical starting position to the maximum incrementation distance or 30 centimeters, whichever is less, and then returned to the starting position. Measurement of actual versus indicated scan increment may be taken anywhere along this travel.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>CT number mean and standard deviation.</I> (1) A method shall be provided to calculate the mean and standard deviation of CT numbers for an array of picture elements about any location in the image. The number of elements in this array shall be under user control.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer shall provide specific instructions concerning the use of the method provided for calculation of CT number mean and standard deviation in addition to other information provided according to § 1020.30(h).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 34712, Aug. 31, 1984; 49 FR 37381, Sept. 24, 1984, as amended at 49 FR 47388, Dec. 4, 1984; 56 FR 36098, Aug. 1, 1991; 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 70 FR 34042, June 10, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1020.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.43.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1020.40   Cabinet x-ray systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to cabinet x-ray systems manufactured or assembled on or after April 10, 1975, except that the provisions as applied to x-ray systems designed primarily for the inspection of carry-on baggage are applicable to such systems manufactured or assembled on or after April 25, 1974. The provisions of this section are not applicable to systems which are designed exclusively for microscopic examination of material, e.g., x-ray diffraction, spectroscopic, and electron microscope equipment or to systems for intentional exposure of humans to x-rays. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Access panel</I> means any barrier or panel which is designed to be removed or opened for maintenance or service purposes, requires tools to open, and permits access to the interior of the cabinet. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aperture</I> means any opening in the outside surface of the cabinet, other than a port, which remains open during generation of x radiation. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cabinet x-ray system</I> means an x-ray system with the x-ray tube installed in an enclosure (hereinafter termed <I>cabinet</I>) which, independently of existing architectural structures except the floor on which it may be placed, is intended to contain at least that portion of a material being irradiated, provide radiation attenuation, and exclude personnel from its interior during generation of x radiation. Included are all x-ray systems designed primarily for the inspection of carry-on baggage at airline, railroad, and bus terminals, and in similar facilities. An x-ray tube used within a shielded part of a building, or x-ray equipment which may temporarily or occasionally incorporate portable shielding is not considered a cabinet x-ray system. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Door</I> means any barrier which is designed to be movable or opened for routine operation purposes, does not generally require tools to open, and permits access to the interior of the cabinet. For the purposes of paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, inflexible hardware rigidly affixed to the door shall be considered part of the door. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposure</I> means the quotient of dQ by dm where dQ is the absolute value of the total charge of the ions of one sign produced in air when all the electrons (negatrons and positrons) liberated by photons in a volume element of air having mass dm are completely stopped in air. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>External surface</I> means the outside surface of the cabinet x-ray system, including the high-voltage generator, doors, access panels, latches, control knobs, and other permanently mounted hardware and including the plane across any aperture or port. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Floor</I> means the underside external surface of the cabinet. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Ground fault</I> means an accidental electrical grounding of an electrical conductor. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Port</I> means any opening in the outside surface of the cabinet which is designed to remain open, during generation of x-rays, for the purpose of conveying material to be irradiated into and out of the cabinet, or for partial insertion for irradiation of an object whose dimensions do not permit complete insertion into the cabinet. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Primary beam</I> means the x radiation emitted directly from the from the target and passing through the window of the x-ray tube. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Safety interlock</I> means a device which is intended to prevent the generation of x radiation when access by any part of the human body to the interior of the cabinet x-ray system through a door or access panel is possible. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>X-ray system</I> means an assemblage of components for the controlled generation of x-rays. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>X-ray tube</I> means any electron tube which is designed for the conversion of electrical energy into x-ray energy. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Emission limit.</I> (i) Radiation emitted from the cabinet x-ray system shall not exceed an exposure of 0.5 milliroentgen in one hour at any point five centimeters outside the external surface. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Compliance with the exposure limit in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be determined by measurements averaged over a cross-sectional area of ten square centimeters with no linear dimension greater than 5 centimeters, with the cabinet x-ray system operated at those combinations of x-ray tube potential, current, beam orientation, and conditions of scatter radiation which produce the maximum x-ray exposure at the external surface, and with the door(s) and access panel(s) fully closed as well as fixed at any other position(s) which will allow the generation of x radiation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Floors.</I> A cabinet x-ray system shall have a permanent floor. Any support surface to which a cabinet x-ray system is permanently affixed may be deemed the floor of the system. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ports and apertures.</I> (i) The insertion of any part of the human body through any port into the primary beam shall not be possible. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The insertion of any part of the human body through any aperture shall not be possible. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safety interlocks.</I> (i) Each door of a cabinet x-ray system shall have a minimum of two safety interlocks. One, but not both of the required interlocks shall be such that door opening results in physical disconnection of the energy supply circuit to the high-voltage generator, and such disconnection shall not be dependent upon any moving part other than the door. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each access panel shall have at least one safety interlock. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Following interruption of x-ray generation by the functioning of any safety interlock, use of a control provided in accordance with paragraph (c)(6)(ii) of this section shall be necessary for resumption of x-ray generation. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Failure of any single component of the cabinet x-ray system shall not cause failure of more than one required safety interlock. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Ground fault.</I> A ground fault shall not result in the generation of x-rays. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Controls and indicators for all cabinet x-ray systems.</I> For all systems to which this section is applicable there shall be provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) A key-actuated control to insure that x-ray generation is not possible with the key removed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A control or controls to initiate and terminate the generation of x-rays other than by functioning of a safety interlock or the main power control. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Two independent means which indicate when and only when x-rays are being generated, unless the x-ray generation period is less than one-half second, in which case the indicators shall be activated for one-half second, and which are discernible from any point at which initiation of x-ray generation is possible. Failure of a single component of the cabinet x-ray system shall not cause failure of both indicators to perform their intended function. One, but not both, of the indicators required by this subdivision may be a milliammeter labeled to indicate x-ray tube current. All other indicators shall be legibly labeled “X-RAY ON”. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Additional means other than milliammeters which indicate when and only when x-rays are being generated, unless the x-ray generation period is less than one-half second in which case the indicators shall be activated for one-half second, as needed to insure that at least one indicator is visible from each door, access panel, and port, and is legibly labeled “X-RAY ON”. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional controls and indicators for cabinet x-ray systems designed to admit humans.</I> For cabinet x-ray systems designed to admit humans there shall also be provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) A control within the cabinet for preventing and terminating x-ray generation, which cannot be reset, overridden or bypassed from the outside of the cabinet. 
</P>
<P>(ii) No means by which x-ray generation can be initiated from within the cabinet. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Audible and visible warning signals within the cabinet which are actuated for at least 10 seconds immediately prior to the first initiation of x-ray generation after closing any door designed to admit humans. Failure of any single component of the cabinet x-ray system shall not cause failure of both the audible and visible warning signals. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A visible warning signal within the cabinet which remains actuated when and only when x-rays are being generated, unless the x-ray generation period is less than one-half second in which case the indicators shall be activated for one-half second. 
</P>
<P>(v) Signs indicating the meaning of the warning signals provided pursuant to paragraphs (c)(7) (iii) and (iv) of this section and containing instructions for the use of the control provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section. These signs shall be legible, accessible to view, and illuminated when the main power control is in the “on” position. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Warning labels.</I> (i) There shall be permanently affixed or inscribed on the cabinet x-ray system at the location of any controls which can be used to initiate x-ray generation, a clearly legible and visible label bearing the statement: 
</P>
<HD1>Caution: X-Rays Produced When Energized 
</HD1>
<P>(ii) There shall be permanently affixed or inscribed on the cabinet x-ray system adjacent to each port a clearly legible and visible label bearing the statement: 
</P>
<HD1>caution: Do Not Insert Any Part of the Body When System is Energized—X-ray Hazard
</HD1>
<P>(9) <I>Instructions.</I> (i) Manufacturers of cabinet x-ray systems shall provide for purchasers, and to others upon request at a cost not to exceed the cost of preparation and distribution, manuals and instructions which shall include at least the following technical and safety information: Potential, current, and duty cycle ratings of the x-ray generation equipment; adequate instructions concerning any radiological safety procedures and precautions which may be necessary because of unique features of the system; and a schedule of maintenance necessary to keep the system in compliance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Manufacturers of cabinet x-ray systems which are intended to be assembled or installed by the purchaser shall provide instructions for assembly, installation, adjustment and testing of the cabinet x-ray system adequate to assure that the system is in compliance with applicable provisions of this section when assembled, installed, adjusted and tested as directed. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Additional requirements for x-ray baggage inspection systems.</I> X-ray systems designed primarily for the inspection of carry-on baggage at airline, railroad, and bus terminals, and at similar facilities, shall be provided with means, pursuant to paragraphs (c)(10) (i) and (ii) of this section, to insure operator presence at the control area in a position which permits surveillance of the ports and doors during generation of x-radiation. 
</P>
<P>(i) During an exposure or preset succession of exposures of one-half second or greater duration, the means provided shall enable the operator to terminate the exposure or preset succession of exposures at any time. 
</P>
<P>(ii) During an exposure or preset succession of exposures of less than one-half second duration, the means provided may allow completion of the exposure in progress but shall enable the operator to prevent additional exposures. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Modification of a certified system.</I> The modification of a cabinet x-ray system, previously certified pursuant to § 1010.2 by any person engaged in the business of manufacturing, assembling or modifying cabinet x-ray systems shall be construed as manufacturing under the act if the modification affects any aspect of the system's performance for which this section has an applicable requirement. The manufacturer who performs such modification shall recertify and reidentify the system in accordance with the provisions of §§ 1010.2 and 1010.3 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 12986, Apr. 10, 1974] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1030" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1030—PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR MICROWAVE AND RADIO FREQUENCY EMITTING PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360, 360e-360j, 360hh-360ss, 371, 381.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1030.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.44.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.10   Microwave ovens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this standard are applicable to microwave ovens manufactured after October 6, 1971. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Microwave oven</I> means a device designed to heat, cook, or dry food through the application of electromagnetic energy at frequencies assigned by the Federal Communications Commission in the normal ISM heating bands ranging from 890 megahertz to 6,000 megahertz. As defined in this standard, “microwave ovens” are limited to those manufactured for use in homes, restaurants, food vending, or service establishments, on interstate carriers, and in similar facilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cavity</I> means that portion of the microwave oven in which food may be heated, cooked, or dried. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Door</I> means the movable barrier which prevents access to the cavity during operation and whose function is to prevent emission of microwave energy from the passage or opening which provides access to the cavity. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safety interlock</I> means a device or system of devices which is intended to prevent generation of microwave energy when access to the cavity is possible. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Service adjustments or service procedures</I> means those servicing methods prescribed by the manufacturer for a specific product model. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Stirrer</I> means that feature of a microwave oven which is intended to provide uniform heating of the load by constantly changing the standing wave pattern within the cavity or moving the load. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>External surface</I> means the outside surface of the cabinet or enclosure provided by the manufacturer as part of the microwave oven, including doors, door handles, latches, and control knobs. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Equivalent plane-wave power density</I> means the square of the root-mean-square (rms) electric field strength divided by the impedance of free space (377 ohms).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Power density limit.</I> The equivalent plane-wave power density existing in the proximity of the external oven surface shall not exceed 1 milliwatt per square centimeter at any point 5 centimeters or more from the external surface of the oven, measured prior to acquisition by a purchaser, and, thereafter, 5 milliwatts per square centimeter at any such point.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safety interlocks.</I> (i) Microwave ovens shall have a minimum of two operative safety interlocks. At least one operative safety interlock on a fully assembled microwave oven shall not be operable by any part of the human body, or any object with a straight insertable length of 10 centimeters. Such interlock must also be concealed, unless its actuation is prevented when access to the interlock is possible. Any visible actuator or device to prevent actuation of this safety interlock must not be removable without disassembly of the oven or its door. A magnetically operated interlock is considered to be concealed, or its actuation is considered to be prevented, only if a test magnet held in place on the oven by gravity or its own attraction cannot operate the safety interlock. The test magnet shall be capable of lifting vertically at zero air gap at least 4.5 kilograms, and at 1 centimeter air gap at least 450 grams when the face of the magnet, which is toward the interlock when the magnet is in the test position, is pulling against one of the large faces of a mild steel armature having dimensions of 80 millimeters by 50 millimeters by 8 millimeters. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure of any single mechanical or electrical component of the microwave oven shall not cause all safety interlocks to be inoperative. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Service adjustments or service procedures on the microwave oven shall not cause the safety interlocks to become inoperative or the microwave radiation emission to exceed the power density limits of this section as a result of such service adjustments or procedures. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Microwave radiation emission in excess of the limits specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall not be caused by insertion of an insulated wire through any opening in the external surfaces of a fully assembled oven into the cavity, waveguide, or other microwave-energy-containing spaces while the door is closed, provided the wire, when inserted, could consist of two straight segments forming an obtuse angle of not less than 170 degrees. 
</P>
<P>(v) One (the primary) required safety interlock shall prevent microwave radiation emission in excess of the requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section; the other (secondary) required safety interlock shall prevent microwave radiation emission in excess of 5 milliwatts per square centimeter at any point 5 centimeters or more from the external surface of the oven. The two required safety interlocks shall be designated as primary or secondary in the service instructions for the oven. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A means of monitoring one or both of the required safety interlocks shall be provided which shall cause the oven to become inoperable and remain so until repaired if the required safety interlock(s) should fail to perform required functions as specified in this section. Interlock failures shall not disrupt the monitoring function. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Measurement and test conditions.</I> (i) Compliance with the power density limit in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be determined by measurement of the equivalent plane-wave power density made with an instrument which reaches 90 percent of its steady-state reading within 3 seconds, when the system is subjected to a step-function input signal. Tests for compliance shall account for all measurement errors and uncertainties to ensure that the equivalent plane-wave power density does not exceed the limit prescribed by paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Microwave ovens shall be in compliance with the power density limits if the maximum reading obtained at the location of greatest microwave radiation emission, taking into account all measurement errors and uncertainties, does not exceed the limit specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, when the emission is measured through at least one stirrer cycle. As provided in § 1010.13 of this chapter, a manufacturer may request alternative test procedures if, as a result of the stirrer characteristics of a microwave oven, such oven is not susceptible to testing by the procedures described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iii) Measurements shall be made with the microwave oven operating at its maximum output and containing a load of 275 ±15 milliliters of tap water initially at 20 ±5 °centigrade placed within the cavity at the center of the load-carrying surface provided by the manufacturer. The water container shall be a low form 600-milliliter beaker having an inside diameter of approximately 8.5 centimeters and made of an electrically nonconductive material such as glass or plastic. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Measurements shall be made with the door fully closed as well as with the door fixed in any other position which allows the oven to operate. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>User instructions.</I> Manufacturers of microwave ovens to which this section is applicable shall provide, or cause to be provided, with each oven, radiation safety instructions which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Occupy a separate section and are an integral part of the regularly supplied users' manual and cookbook, if supplied separately, and are located so as to elicit the attention of the reader. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Are as legible and durable as other instructions with the title emphasized to elicit the attention of the reader by such means as bold-faced type, contrasting color, a heavy-lined border, or by similar means. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Contain the following wording: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Precautions To Avoid Possible Exposure To Excessive Microwave Energy
</HD1>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Do not attempt to operate this oven with the door open since open-door operation can result in harmful exposure to microwave energy. It is important not to defeat or tamper with the safety interlocks. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Do not place any object between the oven front face and the door or allow soil or cleaner residue to accumulate on sealing surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Do not operate the oven if it is damaged. It is particularly important that the oven door close properly and that there is no damage to the: (<I>1</I>) Door (bent), (<I>2</I>) hinges and latches (broken or loosened), (<I>3</I>) door seals and sealing surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The oven should not be adjusted or repaired by anyone except properly qualified service personnel.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Include additional radiation safety precautions or instructions which may be necessary for particular oven designs or models, as determined by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health or the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Service instructions.</I> Manufacturers of microwave ovens to which this section is applicable shall provide or cause to be provided to servicing dealers and distributors and to others upon request, for each oven model, adequate instructions for service adjustments and service procedures, and, in addition, radiation safety instructions which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Occupy a separate section and are an integral part of the regularly supplied service manual and are located so as to elicit the attention of the reader. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Are as legible and durable as other instructions with the title emphasized so as to elicit the attention of the reader by such means as bold-faced type, contrasting color, a heavy-lined border, or by similar means. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Contain the following wording: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Precautions To Be Observed Before And During Servicing To Avoid Possible Exposure To Excessive Microwave Energy
</HD1>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Do not operate or allow the oven to be operated with the door open. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Make the following safety checks on all ovens to be serviced before activating the magnetron or other microwave source, and make repairs as necessary: (<I>1</I>) Interlock operation, (<I>2</I>) proper door closing, (<I>3</I>) seal and sealing surfaces (arcing, wear, and other damage), (<I>4</I>) damage to or loosening of hinges and latches, (<I>5</I>) evidence of dropping or abuse. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Before turning on microwave power for any service test or inspection within the microwave generating compartments, check the magnetron, wave guide or transmission line, and cavity for proper alignment, integrity, and connections. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Any defective or misadjusted components in the interlock, monitor, door seal, and microwave generation and transmission systems shall be repaired, replaced, or adjusted by procedures described in this manual before the oven is released to the owner. 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A Microwave leakage check to verify compliance with the Federal performance standard should be performed on each oven prior to release to the owner.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Include additional radiation safety precautions or instructions which may be necessary for particular oven designs or models, as determined by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health or the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Warning labels.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(iv) of this section, microwave ovens shall have the following warning labels: 
</P>
<P>(i) A label, permanently attached to or inscribed on the oven, which shall be legible and readily viewable during normal oven use, and which shall have the title emphasized and be so located as to elicit the attention of the user. The label shall bear the following warning statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Precautions For Safe Use To Avoid Possible Exposure To Excessive Microwave Energy
</HD1>
<P>DO NOT Attempt to Operate This Oven With: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Object Caught in Door. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Door That Does Not Close Properly. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Damaged Door, Hinge, Latch, or Sealing Surface.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) A label, permanently attached to or inscribed on the external surface of the oven, which shall be legible and readily viewable during servicing, and which shall have the word “CAUTION” emphasized and be so located as to elicit the attention of service personnel. The label shall bear the following warning statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Caution:</E> This Device is to be Serviced Only by Properly Qualified Service Personnel. Consult the Service Manual for Proper Service Procedures to Assure Continued Compliance with the Federal Performance Standard for Microwave Ovens and for Precautions to be Taken to Avoid Possible Exposure to Excessive Microwave Energy.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The labels provided in accordance with paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section shall bear only the statements specified in that paragraph, except for additional radiation safety warnings or instructions which may be necessary for particular oven designs or models, as determined by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health or the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon application by a manufacturer, the Director, Center for Devices and radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, may grant an exemption from one or more of the statements (radiation safety warnings) specified in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section. Such exemption shall be based upon a determination by the Director that the microwave oven model for which the exemption is sought should continue to comply with paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section under the adverse condition of use addressed by such precautionary statement(s). An application shall be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. Copies of the written portion of the application, including supporting data and information, and the Director's action on the application will be maintained by the Dockets Management Branch for public review. The application shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The specific microwave oven model(s) for which the exemption is sought. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The specific radiation safety warning(s) from which exemption is sought. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Data and information which clearly establish that one or more of the radiation safety warnings in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section is not necessary for the specified microwave oven model(s). 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Such other information and a sample of the applicable product if required by regulation or by the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, to evaluate and act on the application. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28640, Oct. 15, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 14752, Apr. 4, 1975; 40 FR 52007, Nov. 7, 1975; 46 FR 8461, Jan. 27, 1981; 48 FR 57482, Dec. 30, 1983; 50 FR 13566, Apr. 5, 1985; 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988; 59 FR 14365, Mar. 28, 1994; 88 FR 3654, Jan. 20, 202] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1040" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1040—PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR LIGHT-EMITTING PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360, 360e-360j, 360hh-360ss, 371, 381.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1040.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.45.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.10   Laser products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section and § 1040.11, as amended, are applicable as specified to all laser products manufactured or assembled after August 1, 1976, except when:
</P>
<P>(1) Such a laser product is either sold to a manufacturer of an electronic product for use as a component (or replacement) in such electronic product, or
</P>
<P>(2) Sold by or for a manufacturer of an electronic product for use as a component (or replacement) in such electronic product, provided that such laser product:
</P>
<P>(i) Is accompanied by a general warning notice that adequate instructions for the safe installation of the laser product are provided in servicing information available from the complete laser product manufacturer under paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section, and should be followed,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is labeled with a statement that it is designated for use solely as a component of such electronic product and therefore does not comply with the appropriate requirements of this section and § 1040.11 for complete laser products, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a removable laser system as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer of such a laser product, if manufactured after August 20, 1986:
</P>
<P>(i) Registers, and provides a listing by type of such laser products manufactured that includes the product name, model number, and laser medium or emitted wavelength(s), and the name and address of the manufacturer. The manufacturer must submit the registration and listing to the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains and allows access to any sales, shipping, or distribution records that identify the purchaser of such a laser product by name and address, the product by type, the number of units sold, and the date of sale (shipment). These records shall be maintained and made available as specified in § 1002.31.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section and § 1040.11, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Accessible emission level</I> means the magnitude of accessible laser or collateral radiation of a specific wavelength and emission duration at a particular point as measured according to paragraph (e) of this section. Accessible laser or collateral radiation is radiation to which human access is possible, as defined in paragraphs (b) (12), (15), and (22) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accessible emission limit</I> means the maximum accessible emission level permitted within a particular class as set forth in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Aperture</I> means any opening in the protective housing or other enclosure of a laser product through which laser or collateral radiation is emitted, thereby allowing human access to such radiation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Aperture stop</I> means an opening serving to limit the size and to define the shape of the area over which radiation is measured.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Class I laser product</I> means any laser product that does not permit access during the operation to levels of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table I of paragraph (d) of this section. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Class I levels of laser radiation are not considered to be hazardous.</P></FTNT>
<P>(6) <I>Class IIa laser product</I> means any laser product that permits human access during operation to levels of visible laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table I, but does not permit human access during operation to levels of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table II-A of paragraph (d) of this section. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Class IIa levels of laser radiation are not considered to be hazardous if viewed for any period of time less than or equal to 1 × 10
<SU>3</SU> seconds but are considered to be a chronic viewing hazard for any period of time greater than 1 × 10 
<SU>3</SU> seconds.</P></FTNT>
<P>(7) <I>Class II laser product</I> means any laser product that permits human access during operation to levels of visible laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table II-A, but does not permit human access during operation to levels of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table II of paragraph (d) of this section. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Class II levels of laser radiation are considered to be a chronic viewing hazard.</P></FTNT>
<P>(8) <I>Class IIIa laser product</I> means any laser product that permits human access during operation to levels of visible laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table II, but does not permit human access during operation to levels of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table III-A of paragraph (d) of this section. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Class IIIa levels of laser radiation are considered to be, depending upon the irradiance, either an acute intrabeam viewing hazard or chronic viewing hazard, and an acute viewing hazard if viewed directly with optical instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(9) <I>Class IIIb laser product</I> means any laser product that permits human access during operation to levels of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of table III-A, but does not permit human access during operation to levels of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table III-B of paragraph (d) of this section. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Class IIIb levels of laser radiation are considered to be an acute hazard to the skin and eyes from direct radiation.</P></FTNT>
<P>(10) <I>Class III laser product</I> means any Class IIIa or Class IIIb laser product.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Class IV laser product</I> means any laser that permits human access during operation to levels of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits contained in table III-B of paragraph (d) of this section. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Class IV levels of laser radiation are considered to be an acute hazard to the skin and eyes from direct and scattered radiation.</P></FTNT>
<P>(12) <I>Collateral radiation</I> means any electronic product radiation, except laser radiation, emitted by a laser product as a result of the operation of the laser(s) or any component of the laser product that is physically necessary for the operation of the laser(s).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Demonstration laser product</I> means any laser product manufactured, designed, intended, or promoted for purposes of demonstration, entertainment, advertising display, or artistic composition. The term “demonstration laser product” does not apply to laser products which are not manufactured, designed, intended, or promoted for such purposes, even though they may be used for those purposes or are intended to demonstrate other applications.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Emission duration</I> means the temporal duration of a pulse, a series of pulses, or continuous operation, expressed in seconds, during which human access to laser or collateral radiation could be permitted as a result of operation, maintenance, or service of a laser product.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Human access</I> means the capacity to intercept laser or collateral radiation by any part of the human body. For laser products that contain Class IIIb or IV levels of laser radiation, “human access” also means access to laser radiation that can be reflected directly by any single introduced flat surface from the interior of the product through any opening in the protective housing of the product.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Integrated radiance</I> means radiant energy per unit area of a radiating surface per unit solid angle of emission, expressed in joules per square centimeter per steradian (Jcm<E T="51">−2</E> sr<E T="51">−1</E>).
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Invisible radiation</I> means laser or collateral radiation having wavelengths of equal to or greater than 180 nm but less than or equal to 400 nm or greater than 710 nm but less than or equal to 1.0 × 10
<SU>6</SU> nm (1 millimeter).
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Irradiance</I> means the time-averaged radiant power incident on an element of a surface divided by the area of that element, expressed in watts per square centimeter (W cm<E T="51">−2</E>).
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Laser</I> means any device that can be made to produce or amplify electromagnetic radiation at wavelenghts greater than 250 nm but less than or equal to 13,000 nm or, after August 20, 1986, at wavelengths equal to or greater than 180 nm but less than or equal to 1.0 × 10
<SU>6</SU> nm primarily by the process of controlled stimulated emission.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Laser energy source</I> means any device intended for use in conjunction with a laser to supply energy for the operation of the laser. General energy sources such as electrical supply mains or batteries shall not be considered to constitute laser energy sources.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Laser product</I> means any manufactured product or assemblage of components which constitutes, incorporates, or is intended to incorporate a laser or laser system. A laser or laser system that is intended for use as a component of an electronic product shall itself be considered a laser product.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Laser radiation</I> means all electromagnetic radiation emitted by a laser product within the spectral range specified in paragraph (b)(19) of this section that is produced as a result of controlled stimulated emission or that is detectable with radiation so produced through the appropriate aperture stop and within the appropriate solid angle of acceptance, as specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Laser system</I> means a laser in combination with an appropriate laser energy source with or without additional incorporated components. See paragraph (c)(2) of this section for an explanation of the term “removable laser system.”
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Maintenance</I> means performance of those adjustments or procedures specified in user information provided by the manufacturer with the laser product which are to be performed by the user for the purpose of assuring the intended performance of the product. It does not include operation or service as defined in paragraph (b) (27) and (38) of this section.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Maximum output</I> means the maximum radiant power and, where applicable, the maximum radiant energy per pulse of accessible laser radiation emitted by a laser product during operation, as determined under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Medical laser product</I> means any laser product which is a medical device as defined in 21 U.S.C. 321(h) and is manufactured, designed, intended or promoted for in vivo laser irradiation of any part of the human body for the purpose of: (i) Diagnosis, surgery, or therapy; or (ii) relative positioning of the human body.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Operation</I> means the performance of the laser product over the full range of its functions. It does not include maintenance or service as defined in paragraphs (b) (24) and (38) of this section.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Protective housing</I> means those portions of a laser product which are designed to prevent human access to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the prescribed accessible emission limits under conditions specified in this section and in § 1040.11.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Pulse duration</I> means the time increment measured between the half-peak-power points at the leading and trailing edges of a pulse.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Radiance</I> means time-averaged radiant power per unit area of a radiating surface per unit solid angle of emission, expressed in watts per square centimeter per steradian (W cm<E T="51">−2</E> sr<E T="51">−1</E>).
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Radiant energy</I> means energy emitted, transferred or received in the form of radiation, expressed in joules (J).
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Radiant exposure</I> means the radiant energy incident on an element of a surface divided by the area of the element, expressed in joules per square centimeter (Jcm<E T="51">−2</E>)
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Radiant power</I> means time-averaged power emitted, transferred or received in the form of radiation, expressed in watts (W).
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Remote interlock connector</I> means an electrical connector which permits the connection of external remote interlocks.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Safety interlock</I> means a device associated with the protective housing of a laser product to prevent human access to excessive radiation in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Sampling interval</I> means the time interval during which the level of accessible laser or collateral radiation is sampled by a measurement process. The magnitude of the sampling interval in units of seconds is represented by the symbol (<I>t</I>). 
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Scanned laser radiation</I> means laser radiation having a time-varying direction, origin or pattern of propagation with respect to a stationary frame of reference. 
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Service</I> means the performance of those procedures or adjustments described in the manufacturer's service instructions which may affect any aspect of the product's performance for which this section and § 1040.11 have applicable requirements. It does not include maintenance or operation as defined in paragraphs (b) (24) and (27) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Surveying, leveling, or alignment laser product</I> means a laser product manufactured, designed, intended or promoted for one or more of the following uses: 
</P>
<P>(i) Determining and delineating the form, extent, or position of a point, body, or area by taking angular measurement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Positioning or adjusting parts in proper relation to one another. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Defining a plane, level, elevation, or straight line. 
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Visible radiation</I> means laser or collateral radiation having wavelengths of greater than 400 nm but less than or equal to 710 nm. 
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Warning logotype</I> means a logotype as illustrated in either figure 1 or figure 2 of paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Wavelength</I> means the propagation wavelength in air of electromagnetic radiation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification of laser products</I>—(1) <I>All laser products.</I> Each laser product shall be classified in Class I, IIa, II, IIIa, IIIb, or IV in accordance with definitions set forth in paragraphs (b) (5) through (11) of this section. The product classification shall be based on the highest accessible emission level(s) of laser radiation to which human access is possible during operation in accordance with paragraphs (d), (e), and (f)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removable laser systems.</I> Any laser system that is incorporated into a laser product subject to the requirements of this section and that is capable, without modification, of producing laser radiation when removed from such laser product, shall itself be considered a laser product and shall be separately subject to the applicable requirements in this subchapter for laser products of its class. It shall be classified on the basis of accessible emission of laser radiation when so removed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accessible emission limits.</I> Accessible emission limits for laser radiation in each class are specified in tables I, II-A, II, III-A, and III-B of this paragraph. The factors, <I>k</I><E T="52">1</E> and <I>k</I><E T="52">2</E> vary with wavelength and emission duration. These factors are given in table IV of this paragraph, with selected numerical values in table V of this paragraph. Accessible emission limits for collateral radiation are specified in table VI of this paragraph.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notes applicable to tables I, II-A, II, III-A and III-B:</HED>
<P>(1) The factors <I>k</I><E T="52">1</E> and <I>k</I><E T="52">2</E> are wavelength-dependent correction factors determined from table IV.
</P>
<P>(2) The variable <I>t</I> in the expressions of emission limits is the magnitude of the sampling interval in units of seconds.</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.031.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.035.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.036.gif"/>
<P>(1) <I>Beam of a single wavelength.</I> Laser or collateral radiation of a single wavelength exceeds the accessible emission limits of a class if its accessible emission level is greater than the accessible emission limit of that class within any of the ranges of emission duration specified in tables I, II-A, II, III-A, and III-B of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beam of multiple wavelengths in same range.</I> Laser or collateral radiation having two or more wavelengths within any one of the wavelength ranges specified in tables I, II-A, II, III-A, and III-B of this paragraph exceeds the accessible emission limits of a class if the sum of the ratios of the accessible emission level to the corresponding accessible emission limit at each such wavelength is greater than unity for that combination of emission duration and wavelength distribution which results in the maximum sum.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beam with multiple wavelengths in different ranges.</I> Laser or collateral radiation having wavelengths within two or more of the wavelength ranges specified in tables I, II-A, II, III-A, and III-B of this paragraph exceeds the accessible emission limits of a class if it exceeds the applicable limits within any one of those wavelength ranges. This determination is made for each wavelength range in accordance with paragraph (d) (1) or (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Class I dual limits.</I> Laser or collateral radiation in the wavelength range of greater than 400 nm but less than or equal to 1.400 nm exceeds the accessible emission limits of Class I if it exceeds both:
</P>
<P>(i) The Class I accessible emission limits for radiant energy within any range of emission duration specified in table I of this paragraph, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Class I accessible emission limits for integrated radiance within any range of emission duration specified in table I of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tests for determination of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Tests for certification.</I> Tests on which certification under § 1010.2 is based shall account for all errors and statistical uncertainties in the measurement process. Because compliance with the standard is required for the useful life of a product such tests shall also account for increases in emission and degradation in radiation safety with age.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test conditions.</I> Except as provided in § 1010.13, tests for compliance with each of the applicable requirements of this section and § 1040.11 shall be made during operation, maintenance, or service as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Under those conditions and procedures which maximize the accessible emission levels, including start-up, stabilized emission, and shut-down of the laser product; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With all controls and adjustments listed in the operation, maintenance, and service instructions adjusted in combination to result in the maximum accessible emission level of radiation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) At points in space to which human access is possible in the product configuration which is necessary to determine compliance with each requirement, e.g., if operation may require removal of portions of the protective housing and defeat of safety interlocks, measurements shall be made at points accessible in that product configuration; and
</P>
<P>(iv) With the measuring instrument detector so positioned and so oriented with respect to the laser product as to result in the maximum detection of radiation by the instrument; and
</P>
<P>(v) For a laser product other than a laser system, with the laser coupled to that type of laser energy source which is specified as compatible by the laser product manufacturer and which produces the maximum emission level of accessible radiation from that product.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Measurement parameters.</I> Accessible emission levels of laser and collateral radiation shall be based upon the following measurements as appropriate, or their equivalent:
</P>
<P>(i) For laser products intended to be used in a locale where the emitted laser radiation is unlikely to be viewed with optical instruments, the radiant power (W) or radiant energy (J) detectable through a circular aperture stop having a diameter of 7 millimeters and within a circular solid angle of acceptance of 1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> steradian with collimating optics of 5 diopters or less. For scanned laser radiation, the direction of the solid angle of acceptance shall change as needed to maximize detectable radiation, with an angular speed of up to 5 radians/second. A 50 millimeter diameter aperture stop with the same collimating optics and acceptance angle stated above shall be used for all other laser products (except that a 7 millimeter diameter aperture stop shall be used in the measurement of scanned laser radiation emitted by laser products manufactured on or before August 20, 1986.
</P>
<P>(ii) The irradiance (W cm<E T="51">−2</E>) or radiant exposure (J cm<E T="51">−2</E> equivalent to the radiant power (W) or radiant energy (J) detectable through a circular aperture stop having a diameter of 7 millimeters and, for irradiance, within a circular solid angle of acceptance of 1 × × 10<E T="51">−3</E> steradian with collimating optics of 5 diopters or less, divided by the area of the aperture stop (cm<E T="51">−2</E>).
</P>
<P>(iii) The radiance (W cm<E T="51">−2</E> sr<E T="51">−1</E>) or integrated radiance (J cm<E T="51">−2</E> sr<E T="51">−1</E>) equivalent to the radiant power (W) or radiant energy (J) detectable through a circular aperture stop having a diameter of 7 millimeters and within a circular solid angle of acceptance of 1 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> steradian with collimating optics of 5 diopters or less, divided by that solid angle (sr) and by the area of the aperture stop (cm<E T="51">−2</E>).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Performance requirements</I>—(1) <I>Protective housing.</I> Each laser product shall have a protective housing that prevents human access during operation to laser and collateral radiation that exceed the limits of Class I and table VI, respectively, wherever and whenever such human access is not necessary for the product to perform its intended function. Wherever and whenever human access to laser radiation levels that exceed the limits of Class I is necessary, these levels shall not exceed the limits of the lowest class necessary to perform the intended function(s) of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safety interlocks.</I> (i) Each laser product, regardless of its class, shall be provided with at least one safety interlock for each portion of the protective housing which is designed to be removed or displaced during operation or maintenance, if removal or displacement of the protective housing could permit, in the absence of such interlock(s), human access to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limit applicable under paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each required safety interlock, unless defeated, shall prevent such human access to laser and collateral radiation upon removal or displacement of such portion of the protective housing
</P>
<P>(iii) Either multiple safety interlocks or a means to preclude removal or displacement of the interlocked portion of the protective housing shall be provided, if failure of a single interlock would allow;
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Human access to a level of laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class IIIa; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class II to be emitted directly through the opening created by removal or displacement of the interlocked portion of the protective housing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Laser products that incorporate safety interlocks designed to allow safety interlock defeat shall incorporate a means of visual or aural indication of interlock defeat. During interlock defeat, such indication shall be visible or audible whenever the laser product is energized, with and without the associated portion of the protective housing removed or displaced.
</P>
<P>(v) Replacement of a removed or displaced portion of the protective housing shall not be possible while required safety interlocks are defeated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Remote interlock connector.</I> Each laser system classified as a Class IIIb or IV laser product shall incorporate a readily available remote interlock connector having an electrical potential difference of no greater than 130 root-mean-square volts between terminals. When the terminals of the connector are not electrically joined, human access to all laser and collateral radiation from the laser product in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI shall be prevented.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Key control.</I> Each laser system classified as a Class IIIb or IV laser product shall incorporate a key-actuated master control. The key shall be removable and the laser shall not be operable when the key is removed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Laser radiation emission indicator.</I> (i) Each laser system classified as a Class II or IIIa laser product shall incorporate an emission indicator that provides a visible or audible signal during emission of accessible laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each laser system classified as a Class IIIb or IV laser product shall incorporate an emission indicator which provides a visible or audible signal during emission of accessible laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I, and sufficiently prior to emission of such radiation to allow appropriate action to avoid exposure to the laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(iii) For laser systems manufactured on or before August 20, 1986, if the laser and laser energy source are housed separately and can be operated at a separation distance of greater than 2 meters, both laser and laser energy source shall incorporate an emission indicator as required in accordance with paragraph (f)(5) (i) or (ii) of this section. For laser systems manufactured after August 20, 1986, each separately housed laser and operation control of a laser system that regulates the laser or collateral radiation emitted by a product during operation shall incorporate an emission indicator as required in accordance with paragraph (f)(5) (i) or (ii) of this section, if the laser or operation control can be operated at a separation distance greater than 2 meters from any other separately housed portion of the laser product incorporating an emission indicator.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any visible signal required by paragraph (f)(5) (i) or (ii) of this section shall be clearly visible through protective eyewear designed specifically for the wavelength(s) of the emitted laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(v) Emission indicators required by paragraph (f)(5) (i) or (ii) of this section shall be located so that viewing does not require human exposure to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Beam attenuator.</I> (i) Each laser system classified as a Class II, III, or IV laser product shall be provided with one or more permanently attached means, other than laser energy source switch(es), electrical supply main connectors, or the key-actuated master control, capable of preventing access by any part of the human body to all laser and collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the configuration, design, or function of the laser product would make unnecessary compliance with the requirement in paragraph (f)(6)(i) of this section, the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, may, upon written application by the manufacturer, approve alternate means to accomplish the radiation protection provided by the beam attenuator.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Location of controls.</I> Each Class IIa, II, III, or IV laser product shall have operational and adjustment controls located so that human exposure to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI is unnecessary for operation or adjustment of such controls.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Viewing optics.</I> All viewing optics, viewports, and display screens incorporated into a laser product, regardless of its class, shall limit the levels of laser and collateral radiation accessible to the human eye by means of such viewing optics, viewports, or display screens during operation or maintenance to less than the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI. For any shutter or variable attenuator incorporated into such viewing optics, viewports, or display screens, a means shall be provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) To prevent access by the human eye to laser and collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI whenever the shutter is opened or the attenuator varied.
</P>
<P>(ii) To preclude, upon failure of such means as required in paragraph (f)(8)(i) of this section, opening the shutter or varying the attenuator when access by the human eye is possible to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Scanning safeguard.</I> Laser products that emit accessible scanned laser radiation shall not, as a result of any failure causing a change in either scan velocity or amplitude, permit human access to laser radiation in excess of:
</P>
<P>(i) The accessible emission limits of the class of the product, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The accessible emission limits of the class of the scanned laser radiation if the product is Class IIIb or IV and the accessible emission limits of Class IIIa would be exceeded solely as result of such failure.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Manual reset mechanism.</I> Each laser system manufactured after August 20, 1986, and classified as a Class IV laser product shall be provided with a manual reset to enable resumption of laser radiation emission after interruption of emission caused by the use of a remote interlock or after an interruption of emission in excess of 5 seconds duration due to the unexpected loss of main electrical power.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> In addition to the requirements of §§ 1010.2 and 1010.3, each laser product shall be subject to the applicable labeling requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Class IIa and II designations and warnings.</I> (i) Each Class IIa laser product shall have affixed a label bearing the following wording: “Class IIa Laser Product—Avoid Long-Term Viewing of Direct Laser Radiation.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Each Class II laser product shall have affixed a label bearing the warning logotype A (figure 1 in this paragraph) and including the following wording:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>[Position I on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“LASER RADIATION—DO NOT STARE INTO BEAM”; and 
</HD3>
<HD3>[Position 3 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“CLASS II LASER PRODUCT”.</HD3></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.037.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Class IIIa and IIIb designations and warnings.</I> (i) Each Class IIIa laser product with an irradiance less than or equal to 2.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> W cm<E T="51">2−</E> shall have affixed a label bearing the warning logotype A (figure 1 of paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section) and including the following wording:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>[Position 1 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“LASER RADIATION—DO NOT STARE INTO BEAM OR VIEW DIRECTLY WITH OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS”; and,
</HD3>
<HD3>[Position 3 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“CLASS IIIa LASER PRODUCT”.</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Each Class IIIa laser product with an irradiance greater than 2.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> W cm<E T="51">−2</E> shall have affixed a label bearing the warning logotype B (figure 2 in this paragraph) and including the following wording:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>[Position 1 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“LASER RADIATION—AVOID DIRECT EYE EXPOSURE”; and,
</HD3>
<HD3>[Position 3 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“CLASS IIIa LASER PRODUCT”.</HD3></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.038.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Each Class IIIb laser product shall have affixed a label bearing the warning logotype B (figure 2 of paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section) and including the following wording:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>[Position 1 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“LASER RADIATION—AVOID DIRECT EXPOSURE TO BEAM”; and,
</HD3>
<HD3>[Position 3 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“CLASS IIIb LASER PRODUCT”.</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Class IV designation and warning.</I> Each Class IV laser product shall have affixed a label bearing the warning logotype B (figure 2 of paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section), and including the following wording:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>[Position 1 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“LASER RADIATION—AVOID EYE OR SKIN EXPOSURE TO DIRECT OR SCATTERED RADIATION”; and,
</HD3>
<HD3>[Position 3 on the logotype]
</HD3>
<HD3>“CLASS IV LASER PRODUCT”.</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Radiation output information on warning logotype.</I> Each Class II, III, and IV laser product shall state in appropriate units, at position 2 on the required warning logotype, the maximum output of laser radiation, the pulse duration when appropriate, and the laser medium or emitted wavelength(s).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Aperture label.</I> Each laser product, except medical laser products and Class IIa laser products, shall have affixed, in close proximity to each aperture through which is emitted accessible laser or collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and table VI of paragraph (d) of this section, a label(s) bearing the following wording as applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) “AVOID EXPOSURE—Laser radiation is emitted from this aperture,” if the radiation emitted through such aperture is laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(ii) “AVOID EXPOSURE—Hazardous electromagnetic radiation is emitted from this aperture,” if the radiation emitted through such aperture is collateral radiation described in table VI, item 1.
</P>
<P>(iii) “AVOID EXPOSURE—Hazardous x-rays are emitted from this aperture,” if the radiation emitted through such aperture is collateral radiation described in table VI, item 2.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Labels for noninterlocked protective housings.</I> For each laser product, labels shall be provided for each portion of the protective housing which has no safety interlock and which is designed to be displaced or removed during operation, maintenance, or service, and thereby could permit human access to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the limits of Class I and table VI. Such labels shall be visible on the protective housing prior to displacement or removal of such portion of the protective housing and visible on the product in close proximity to the opening created by removal or displacement of such portion of the protective housing, and shall include the wording:
</P>
<P>(i) “CAUTION—Laser radiation when open. DO NOT STARE INTO BEAM.” for Class II accessible laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(ii) “CAUTION—Laser radiation when open. DO NOT STARE INTO BEAM OR VIEW DIRECTLY WITH OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS.” for Class IIIa accessible laser radiation with an irradiance less than or equal to 2.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> W cm<E T="51">−2.</E>
</P>
<P>(iii) “DANGER—Laser radiation when open. AVOID DIRECT EYE EXPOSURE.” for Class IIIa accessible laser radiation with an irradiance greater than 2.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> W cm<E T="51">−2.</E>
</P>
<P>(iv) “DANGER—Laser radiation when open. AVOID DIRECT EXPOSURE TO BEAM.” for Class IIIb accessible laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(v) “DANGER—Laser radiation when open. AVOID EYE OR SKIN EXPOSURE TO DIRECT OR SCATTERED RADIATION.” for Class IV accessible laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(vi) “CAUTION—Hazardous electromagnetic radiation when open.” for collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits in table VI, item 1 of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) “CAUTION—Hazardous x-rays when open.” for collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits in table VI, item 2 of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Labels for defeatably interlocked protective housings.</I> For each laser product, labels shall be provided for each defeatably interlocked (as described in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section) portion of the protective housing which is designed to be displaced or removed during operation, maintenance, or service, and which upon interlock defeat could permit human access to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the limits of Class I or table VI. Such labels shall be visible on the product prior to and during interlock defeat and in close proximity to the opening created by the removal or displacement of such portion of the protective housing, and shall include the wording:
</P>
<P>(i) “CAUTION—Laser radiation when open and interlock defeated. DO NOT STARE INTO BEAM.” for Class II accessible laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(ii) “CAUTION—Laser radiation when open and interlock defeated. DO NOT STARE INTO BEAM OR VIEW DIRECTLY WITH OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS.” for Class IIIa accessible laser radiation with an irradiance less than or equal to 2.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> W cm<E T="51">−2.</E>
</P>
<P>(iii) “DANGER—Laser radiation when open and interlock defeated. AVOID DIRECT EYE EXPOSURE.” for Class IIIa accessible laser radiation when an irradiance greater than 2.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> W cm<E T="51">−2.</E>
</P>
<P>(iv) “DANGER—Laser radiation when open and interlock defeated. AVOID DIRECT EXPOSURE TO BEAM.” for Class IIIb accessible laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(v) “DANGER—Laser radiation when open and interlock defeated. AVOID EYE OR SKIN EXPOSURE TO DIRECT OR SCATTERED RADIATION.” for Clas IV accessible laser radiation.
</P>
<P>(vi) “CAUTION—Hazardous electromagnetic radiation when open and interlock defeated.” for collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits in table VI. item 1 of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) “CAUTION—Hazardous x-rays when open and interlock defeated.” for collateral radiation in excess of the accesible emission limits in table VI. item 2 of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Warning for visible and/or invisible radiation.</I> On the labels specified in this paragraph, if the laser or collateral radiation referred to is:
</P>
<P>(i) Invisible radiation, the word “invisible” shall appropriately precede the word “radiation”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Visible and invisible radiation, the words “visible and invisible” or “visible and/or invisible” shall appropriately precede the word “radiation.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Visible laser radiation only, the phrase “laser light” may replace the phrase “laser radiation.”
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Positioning of labels.</I> All labels affixed to a laser product shall be positioned so as to make unnecessary, during reading, human exposure to laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I radiation or the limits of collateral radiation established to table VI of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Label specifications.</I> Labels required by this section and § 1040.11 shall be permanently affixed to, or inscribed on, the laser product, legible, and clearly visible during operation, maintenance, or service, as appropriate. If the size, configuration, design, or function of the laser product would preclude compliance with the requirements for any required label or would render the required wording of such label inappropriate or ineffective, the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, on the Director's own initiative or upon written application by the manufacturer, may approve alternate means of providing such label(s) or alternate wording for such label(s) as applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Informational requirements</I>—(1) <I>User information.</I> Manufacturers of laser products shall provide as an integral part of any user instruction or operation manual which is regularly supplied with the product, or, if not so supplied, shall cause to be provided with each laser product:
</P>
<P>(i) Adequate instructions for assembly, operation, and maintenance, including clear warnings concerning precautions to avoid possible exposure to laser and collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits in tables I, II-A, II, III-A, III-B, and VI of paragraph (d) of this section, and a schedule of maintenance necessary to keep the product in compliance with this section and § 1040.11.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the magnitude, in appropriate units, of the pulse durations(s), maximum radiant power and, where applicable, the maximum radiant energy per pulse of the accessible laser radiation detectable in each direction in excess of the accessible emission limits in table I of paragraph (d) of this section determined under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Legible reproductions (color optional) of all labels and hazard warnings required by paragraph (g) of this section and § 1040.11 to be affixed to the laser product or provided with the laser product, including the information required for positions 1, 2, and 3 of the applicable logotype (figure 1 of paragraph (g)(1)(ii) or figure 2 or paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section). The corresponding position of each label affixed to the product shall be indicated or, if provided with the product, a statement that such labels could not be affixed to the product but were supplied with the product and a statement of the form and manner in which they were supplied shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) A listing of all controls, adjustments, and procedures for operation and maintenance, including the warning “Caution—use of controls or adjustments or performance of procedures other than those specified herein may result in hazardous radiation exposure.”
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of laser products other than laser systems, a statment of the compatibility requirements for a laser energy source that will assure compliance of the laser product with this section and § 1040.11. 
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of laser products classified with a 7 millimeter diameter aperture stop as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, if the use of a 50 millimeter diameter aperture stop would result in a higher classification of the product, the following warning shall be included in the user information: “CAUTION—The use of optical instruments with this product will increase eye hazard.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purchasing and servicing information.</I> Manufacturers of laser products shall provide or cause to be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) In all catalogs, specification sheets, and descriptive brochures pertaining to each laser product, a legible reproduction (color optional) of the class designation and warning required by paragraph (g) of this section to be affixed to that product, including the information required for positions 1, 2, and 3 of the applicable logotype (figure 1 of paragraph (g)(1)(ii) or figure 2 of paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) To servicing dealers and distributors and to others upon request at a cost not to exceed the cost of preparation and distribution, adequate instructions for service adjustments and service procedures for each laser product model, including clear warnings and precautions to be taken to avoid possible exposure to laser and collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits in tables I, II-A, II, III-A, III-B, and VI of paragraph (d) of this section, and a schedule of maintenance necessary to keep the product in compliance with this section and § 1040.11; and in all such service instructions, a listing of those controls and procedures that could be utilized by persons other than the manufacturers or the manufacturer's agents to increase accessible emission levels of radiation and a clear description of the location of displaceable portions of the protective housing that could allow human access to laser or collateral radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits in tables I, II-A, II, III-A, III-B, and VI of paragraph (d) of this section. The instructions shall include protective procedures for service personnel to avoid exposure to levels of laser and collateral radiation known to be hazardous for each procedure or sequence of procedures to be accomplished, and legible reproductions (color optional) of required labels and hazard warnings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Modification of a certified product.</I> The modification of a laser product, previously certified under § 1010.2, by any person engaged in the business of manufacturing, assembling, or modifying laser products shall be construed as manufacturing under the act if the modification affects any aspect of the product's performance or intended function(s) for which this section and § 1040.11 have an applicable requirement. The manufacturer who performs such modification shall recertify and reidentify the product in accordance with the provisions of §§ 1010.2. and 1010.3.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0910-0176)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 33688, Aug. 20, 1985; 50 FR 42156, Oct. 18, 1985; 65 FR 17138, Mar. 31, 2000, as amended at 75 FR 20917, Apr. 22, 2010; 83 FR 13864, Apr. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.45.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.11   Specific purpose laser products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Medical laser products.</I> Each medical laser product shall comply with all of the applicable requirements of § 1040.10 for laser products of its class. In addition, the manufacturer shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporate in each Class III or IV medical laser product a means for the measurement of the level of that laser radiation intended for irradiation of the human body. Such means may have an error in measurement of no more than 20 percent when calibrated in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Indication of the measurement shall be in International System Units. The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to any laser radiation that is all of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Of a level less than the accessible limits of Class IIIa; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Used for relative positioning of the human body; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not used for irradiation of the human eye for ophthalmic purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Supply with each Class III or IV medical laser product instructions specifying a procedure and schedule for calibration of the measurement system required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Affix to each medical laser product, in close proximity to each aperture through which is emitted accessible laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I, a label bearing the wording: “Laser aperture.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Surveying, leveling, and alignment laser products.</I> Each surveying, leveling. or alignment laser product shall comply with all of the applicable requirements of § 1040.10 for a Class I, IIa, II or IIIa laser product and shall not permit human access to laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class IIIa.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Demonstration laser products.</I> Each demonstration laser product shall comply with all of the applicable requirements of § 1040.10 for a Class I, IIa, II, or IIIa laser product and shall not permit human access to laser radiation in excess of the accessible emission limits of Class I and, if applicable, Class IIa, Class II, or Class IIIa.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 33702, Aug. 20, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.45.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.20   Sunlamp products and ultraviolet lamps intended for use in sunlamp products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The provisions of this section, as amended, are applicable as specified herein to the following products manufactured on or after September 8, 1986.
</P>
<P>(i) Any sunlamp product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any ultraviolet lamp intended for use in any sunlamp product.
</P>
<P>(2) Sunlamp products and ultraviolet lamps manufactured on or after May 7, 1980, but before September 8, 1986, are subject to the provisions of this section as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of November 9, 1979 (44 FR 65357). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exposure position</I> means any position, distance, orientation, or location relative to the radiating surfaces of the sunlamp product at which the user is intended to be exposed to ultraviolet radiation from the product, as recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intended</I> means the same as “intended uses” in § 801.4. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Irradiance</I> means the radiant power incident on a surface at a specified location and orientation relative to the radiating surface divided by the area of the surface, as the area becomes vanishingly small, expressed in units of watts per square centimeter (W/cm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maximum exposure time</I> means the greatest continuous exposure time interval recommended by the manufacturer of the product.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Maximum timer interval</I> means the greatest time interval setting on the timer of a product.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Protective eyewear</I> means any device designed to be worn by users of a product to reduce exposure of the eyes to radiation emitted by the product.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Spectral irradiance</I> means the irradiance resulting from radiation within a wavelength range divided by the wavelength range as the range becomes vanishingly small, expressed in units of watts per square centimeter per nanometer (W/(cm
<SU>2</SU>/nm)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Spectral transmittance</I> means the spectral irradiance transmitted through protective eyewear divided by the spectral irradiance incident on the protective eyewear.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Sunlamp product</I> means any electronic product designed to incorporate one or more ultraviolet lamps and intended for irradiation of any part of the living human body, by ultraviolet radiation with wavelengths in air between 200 and 400 nanometers, to induce skin tanning.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Timer</I> means any device incorporated into a product that terminates radiation emission after a preset time interval.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Ultraviolet lamp</I> means any lamp that produces ultraviolet radiation in the wavelength interval of 200 to 400 nanometers in air and that is intended for use in any sunlamp product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Performance requirements</I>—(1) <I>Irradiance ratio limits.</I> For each sunlamp product and ultraviolet lamp, the ratio of the irradiance within the wavelength range of greater than 200 nanometers through 260 nanometers to the irradiance within the wavelength range of greater than 260 nanometers through 320 nanometers may not exceed 0.003 at any distance and direction from the product or lamp.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timer system.</I> (i) Each sunlamp product shall incorporate a timer system with multiple timer settings adequate for the recommended exposure time intervals for different exposure positions and expected results of the products as specified in the label required by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum timer interval(s) may not exceed the manufacturer's recommended maximum exposure time(s) that is indicated on the label required by paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) No timer interval may have an error greater than 10 percent of the maximum timer interval of the product.
</P>
<P>(iv) The timer may not automatically reset and cause radiation emission to resume for a period greater than the unused portion of the timer cycle, when emission from the sunlamp product has been terminated.
</P>
<P>(v) The timer requirements do not preclude a product from allowing a user to reset the timer before the end of the preset time interval.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Control for termination of radiation emission.</I> Each sunlamp product shall incorporate a control on the product to enable the person being exposed to terminate manually radiation emission from the product at any time without disconnecting the electrical plug or removing the ultraviolet lamp.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protective eyewear.</I> (i) Each sunlamp product shall be accompanied by the number of sets of protective eyewear that is equal to the maximum number of persons that the instructions provided under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section recommend to be exposed simultaneously to radiation from such product.
</P>
<P>(ii) The spectral transmittance to the eye of the protective eyewear required by paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section shall not exceed a value of 0.001 over the wavelength range of greater than 200 nanometers 320 nanometers and a value of 0.01 over the wavelength range of greater than 320 nanometers through 400 nanometers, and shall be sufficient over the wavelength greater than 400 nanometers to enable the user to see clearly enough to reset the timer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Compatibility of lamps.</I> An ultraviolet lamp may not be capable of insertion and operation in either the “single-contact medium screw” or the “double-contact medium screw” lampholders described in American National Standard C81.10-1976, Specifications for Electric Lamp Bases and Holders—Screw-Shell Types, which is incorporated by reference. Copies are available from the American National Standards Institute, 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018, or available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Label requirements.</I> In addition to the labeling requirements in part 801 and the certification and identification requirements of §§ 1010.2 and 1010.3, each sunlamp product and ultraviolet lamp shall be subject to the labeling requirements prescribed in this paragraph and paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Labels for sunlamp products.</I> Each sunlamp product shall have a label(s) which contains:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning statement with the words “DANGER—Ultraviolet radiation. Follow instructions. Avoid overexposure. As with natural sunlight, overexposure can cause eye and skin injury and allergic reactions. Repeated exposure may cause premature aging of the skin and skin cancer. WEAR PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR; FAILURE TO MAY RESULT IN SEVERE BURNS OR LONG-TERM INJURY TO THE EYES. Medications or cosmetics may increase your sensitivity to the ultraviolet radiation. Consult physician before using sunlamp if you are using medications or have a history of skin problems or believe yourself especially sensitive to sunlight. If you do not tan in the sun, you are unlikely to tan from the use of this product.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommended exposure position(s). Any exposure position may be expressed either in terms of a distance specified both in meters and in feet (or in inches) or through the use of markings or other means to indicate clearly the recommended exposure position. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Directions for achieving the recommended exposure position(s) and a warning that the use of other positions may result in overexposure. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A recommended exposure schedule including duration and spacing of sequential exposures and maximum exposure time(s) in minutes.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement of the time it may take before the expected results appear.
</P>
<P>(vi) Designation of the ultraviolet lamp type to be used in the product. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Labels for ultraviolet lamps.</I> Each ultraviolet lamp shall have a label which contains:
</P>
<P>(i) The words “Sunlamp—DANGER—Ultraviolet radiation. Follow instructions.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The model identification. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The words “Use ONLY in fixture equipped with a timer.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Label specifications.</I> (i) Any label prescribed in this paragraph for sunlamp products shall be permanently affixed or inscribed on an exterior surface of the product when fully assembled for use so as to be legible and readily accessible to view by the person being exposed immediately before the use of the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any label prescribed in this paragraph for ultraviolet lamps shall be permanently affixed or inscribed on the product so as to be legible and readily accessible to view. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the size, configuration, design, or function of the sunlamp product or ultraviolet lamp would preclude compliance with the requirements for any required label or would render the required wording of such label inappropriate or ineffective, or would render the required label unnecessary, the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, on the center's own initiative or upon written application by the manufacturer, may approve alternate means of providing such label(s), alternate wording for such label(s), or deletion, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) In lieu of permanently affixing or inscribing tags or labels on the ultraviolet lamp as required by §§ 1010.2(b) and 1010.3(a), the manufacturer of the ultraviolet lamp may permanently affix or inscribe such required tags or labels on the lamp packaging uniquely associated with the lamp, if the name of the manufacturer and month and year of manufacture are permanently affixed or inscribed on the exterior surface of the ultraviolet lamp so as to be legible and readily accessible to view. The name of the manufacturer and month and year of manufacture affixed or inscribed on the exterior surface of the lamp may be expressed in code or symbols, if the manufacturer has previously supplied the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, with the key to such code or symbols and the location of the coded information or symbols on the ultraviolet lamp. The label or tag affixed or inscribed on the lamp packaging may provide either the month and year of manufacture without abbreviation, or information to allow the date to be readily decoded.
</P>
<P>(v) A label may contain statements or illustrations in addition to those required by this paragraph if the additional statements are not false or misleading in any particular; e.g., if they do not diminish the impact of the required statements; and are not prohibited by this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Instructions to be provided to users.</I> Each manufacturer of a sunlamp product and ultraviolet lamp shall provide or cause to be provided to purchasers and, upon request, to others at a cost not to exceed the cost of publication and distribution, adequate instructions for use to avoid or to minimize potential injury to the user, including the following technical and safety information as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sunlamp products.</I> The users' instructions for a sunlamp product shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A reproduction of the label(s) required in paragraph (d)(1) of this section prominently displayed at the beginning of the instructions.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the maximum number of people who may be exposed to the product at the same time and a warning that only that number of protective eyewear has been provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) Instructions for the proper operation of the product including the function, use, and setting of the timer and other controls, and the use of protective eyewear.
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions for determining the correct exposure time and schedule for persons according to skin type.
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions for obtaining repairs and recommended replacement components and accessories which are compatible with the product, including compatible protective eyewear, ultraviolet lamps, timers, reflectors, and filters, and which will, if installed or used as instructed, result in continued compliance with the standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ultraviolet lamps.</I> The users' instructions for an ultraviolet lamp not accompanying a sunlamp product shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A reproduction of the label(s) required in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (2) of this section, prominently displayed at the beginning of the instructions.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning that the instructions accompanying the sunlamp product should always be followed to avoid or to minimize potential injury.
</P>
<P>(iii) A clear identification by brand and model designation of all lamp models for which replacement lamps are promoted, if applicable. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Test for determination of compliance.</I> Tests on which certification pursuant to § 1010.2 is based shall account for all errors and statistical uncertainties in the process and, wherever applicable, for changes in radiation emission or degradation in radiation safety with age of the product. Measurements for certification purposes shall be made under those operational conditions, lamp voltage, current, and position as recommended by the manufacturer. For these measurements, the measuring instrument shall be positioned at the recommended exposure position and so oriented as to result in the maximum detection of the radiation by the instrument.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 36550, Sept. 6, 1985, as amended at 67 FR 9587, Mar. 4, 2002; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 75 FR 20917, Apr. 22, 2010; 83 FR 13865, Apr. 2, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.3.45.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.30   High-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section apply to any high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp that is designed, intended, or promoted for illumination purposes and is manufactured or assembled after March 7, 1980, except as described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>High-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp</I> means any lamp including any “mercury vapor” and “metal halide” lamp, with the exception of the tungsten filament self-ballasted mercury vapor lamp, incorporating a high-pressure arc discharge tube that has a fill consisting primarily of mercury and that is contained within an outer envelope. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisement</I> means any catalog, specification sheet, price list, and any other descriptive or commercial brochure and literature, including videotape and film, pertaining to high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamps. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Packaging</I> means any lamp carton, outer wrapping, or other means of containment that is intended for the storage, shipment, or display of a high-intensity mercury vapor lamp and is intended to identify the contents or recommend its use. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Outer envelope</I> means the lamp element, usually glass, surrounding a high-pressure arc discharge tube, that, when intact, attenuates the emission of shortwave ultraviolet radiation. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shortwave ultraviolet radiation</I> means ultraviolet radiation with wavelengths shorter than 320 nanometers. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cumulative operating time</I> means the sum of the times during which electric current passes through the high-pressure arc discharge. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Self-extinguishing lamp</I> means a high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp that is intended to comply with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Reference ballast</I> is an inductive reactor designed to have the operating characteristics as listed in Section 7 in the American National Standard Specifications for High-Intensity Discharge Lamp Reference Ballasts (ANSI C82.5-1977) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or its equivalent. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies are available from American National Standards Institute, 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements for all lamps.</I> (1) Each high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the requirements of either paragraph (d) or paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be permanently labeled or marked in such a manner that the name of the manufacturer and the month and year of manufacture of the lamp can be determined on an intact lamp and after the outer envelope of the lamp is broken or removed. The name of the manufacturer and month and year of manufacture may be expressed in code or symbols, provided the manufacturer has previously supplied the Director, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, with the key to the code or symbols and the location of the coded information or symbols on the lamp.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of permanently affixing or inscribing tags or labels on the product as required by §§ 1010.2(b) and 1010.3(a) of this chapter, the manufacturer of any high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp may permanently affix or inscribe such required tags or labels on the lamp packaging uniquely associated with the applicable lamp.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements for self-extinguishing lamps</I>—(1) <I>Maximum cumulative operating time.</I> (i) Each self-extinguishing lamp manufactured after March 7, 1980 shall cease operation within a cumulative operating time not to exceed 15 minutes following complete breakage or removal of the outer envelope (with the exception of fragments extending 50 millimeters or less from the base shell); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each self-extinguishing lamp manufactured after September 7, 1981, shall cease operation within a cumulative operating time not to exceed 15 minutes following breakage or removal of at least 3 square centimeters of contiguous surface of the outer envelope.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lamp labeling.</I> Each self-extinguishing lamp shall be clearly marked with the letter “T” on the outer envelope and on another part of the lamp in such a manner that it is visible after the outer envelope of the lamp is broken or removed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lamp packaging.</I> Lamp packaging for each self-extinguishing lamp shall clearly and prominently display:
</P>
<P>(i) The letter “T”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The words “This lamp should self-extinguish within 15 minutes after the outer envelope is broken or punctured. If such damage occurs, TURN OFF AND REMOVE LAMP to avoid possible injury from hazardous shortwave ultraviolet radiation.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirements for lamps that are not self-extinguishing lamps</I>—(1) <I>Lamp labeling.</I> Any high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp that does not comply with paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall be clearly and legibly marked with the letter “R” on the outer envelope and on another part of the lamp in such a manner that it is visible after the outer envelope of the lamp is broken or removed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lamp packaging.</I> Lamp packaging for each high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp that does not comply with paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall clearly and prominently display:
</P>
<P>(i) The letter “R”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The words “WARNING: This lamp can cause serious skin burn and eye inflammation from shortwave ultraviolet radiation if outer envelope of the lamp is broken or punctured. Do not use where people will remain for more than a few minutes unless adequate shielding or other safety precautions are used. Lamps that will automatically extinguish when the outer envelope is broken or punctured are commercially available.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lamp advertisement.</I> Advertising for any high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp that does not comply with paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall prominently display the following wording: “WARNING: This lamp can cause serious skin burn and eye inflammation from shortwave ultraviolet radiation if outer envelope of the lamp is broken or punctured. Do not use where people will remain for more than a few minutes unless adequate shielding or other safety precautions are used. Lamps that will automatically extinguish when the outer envelope is broken or punctured are commercially available.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Test conditions.</I> Any high-intensity mercury vapor discharge lamp under test for compliance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall be started and operated under the following conditions as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Lamp voltage, current, and orientation shall be those indicated or recommended by the manufacturer for operation of the intact lamp.
</P>
<P>(2) The lamp shall be operated on a reference ballast.
</P>
<P>(3) The lamp shall be started in air that has a temperature of 25 ±5 °C. Heating and movement of the air surrounding the lamp shall be that produced by the lamp and ballast alone.
</P>
<P>(4) If any test is performed in an enclosure, the enclosure shall be not less than 0.227 cubic meter (8 cubic feet).
</P>
<P>(5) Any lamp designed to be operated only in a specific fixture or luminaire that the lamp manufacturer supplies or specifies shall be tested in that fixture or luminaire. Any other lamp shall be tested with no reflector or other surrounding material. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 52195, Sept. 7, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 11254, Apr. 6, 1988] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="K" NODE="21:8.0.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER K—TOBACCO PRODUCTS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1100" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1100—General
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371, 374, 387a(b), 387e, 387i; Pub. L. 117-103, 136 Stat. 49.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 29102, May 10, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Tobacco Products Subject to FDA Authority</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1100.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1100.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to FDA's authority over cigarettes, cigarette tobacco, roll-your-own tobacco, smokeless tobacco, and any tobacco product containing nicotine not made or derived from tobacco, FDA deems all other products meeting the definition of <I>tobacco product</I> under section 201(rr) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, except accessories of such other tobacco products, to be subject to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 16552, Mar. 20, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1100.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1100.2   Requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Cigarettes, cigarette tobacco, roll-your-own tobacco, smokeless tobacco, and any tobacco product containing nicotine not made or derived from tobacco are subject to chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and its implementing regulations. FDA has deemed all other tobacco products, except accessories of such other tobacco products, subject to chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29102, May 10, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 16552, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1100.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1100.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accessory</I> means any product that is intended or reasonably expected to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product; does not contain tobacco and is not made or derived from tobacco; and meets either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not intended or reasonably expected to affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is intended or reasonably expected to affect or maintain the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product but
</P>
<P>(i) Solely controls moisture and/or temperature of a stored tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Solely provides an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> or <I>part</I> means any software or assembly of materials intended or reasonably expected:
</P>
<P>(1) To alter or affect the tobacco product's performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics; or
</P>
<P>(2) To be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product. Component or part excludes anything that is an accessory of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> or <I>packaging</I> means a pack, box, carton, or container of any kind or, if no other container, any wrapping (including cellophane), in which a tobacco product is offered for sale, sold, or otherwise distributed to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product,</I> as stated in section 201(rr) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in relevant part:
</P>
<P>(1) Means any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product); and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not mean an article that is a drug under section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; a device under section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; a combination product described in section 503(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or a food under 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if such article contains no nicotine or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29102, May 10, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 16552, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1100.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1100.5   Exclusion from tobacco regulation.</HEAD>
<P>If a product made or derived from tobacco that is intended for human consumption is intended for use for any of the purposes described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the product is not a tobacco product as defined in section 201(rr) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and will be subject to regulation as a drug, device, or combination product.
</P>
<P>(a) The product is intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other conditions, or in the cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, including use in the cure or treatment of nicotine addiction (<I>e.g.,</I> smoking cessation), relapse prevention, or relief of nicotine withdrawal symptoms;
</P>
<P>(b) The product is intended to affect the structure or any function of the body in any way that is different from effects related to nicotine that were commonly and legally claimed in the marketing of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products prior to March 21, 2000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2217, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Maintenance of Records Demonstrating That a Tobacco Product Was Commercially Marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007.</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 55411, Oct. 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1100.200" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1100.200   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets out requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for the maintenance of records by tobacco product manufacturers that introduce a Pre-Existing Tobacco Product, or deliver it for introduction, into interstate commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1100.202" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1100.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Commercially marketed</I> means selling or offering for sale a tobacco product in the United States to consumers or to any person for the eventual purchase by consumers in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-Existing Tobacco Product</I> means a tobacco product (including those products in test markets) that was commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007. A Pre-Existing Tobacco Product is not subject to the premarket requirements of section 910 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product</I> means any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product). The term “tobacco product” does not mean an article that under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is: a drug (section 201(g)(1)); a device (section 201(h)); a combination product (section 503(g)); or a food (section 201(f)) if such article contains no nicotine or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product manufacturer</I> means any person, including any repacker or relabeler, who—
</P>
<P>(1) Manufactures, fabricates, assembles, processes, or labels a tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Imports a finished tobacco product for sale or distribution in the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29102, May 10, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 16552, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1100.204" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.46.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1100.204   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(i) Any tobacco product manufacturer that introduces a Pre-Existing Tobacco Product, or delivers it for introduction, into interstate commerce must maintain records that demonstrate that the tobacco product was commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007, as described in this subpart. These records may include items such as:
</P>
<P>(A) Dated copies of advertisements;
</P>
<P>(B) Dated catalog pages;
</P>
<P>(C) Dated promotional material;
</P>
<P>(D) Dated trade publications;
</P>
<P>(E) Dated bills of lading;
</P>
<P>(F) Dated freight bills;
</P>
<P>(G) Dated waybills;
</P>
<P>(H) Dated invoices;
</P>
<P>(I) Dated purchase orders;
</P>
<P>(J) Dated customer receipts;
</P>
<P>(K) Dated manufacturing documents;
</P>
<P>(L) Dated distributor or retailer inventory lists; or
</P>
<P>(M) Any other dated document that demonstrates that the tobacco product was commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007.
</P>
<P>(ii) All records must be legible, in the English language, and available for inspection and copying by officers or employees duly designated by the Secretary. Documents that have been translated from another language into English (<I>e.g.,</I> advertisements written in a language other than English) must be accompanied by the original language version of the document, a signed statement by an authorized representative of the manufacturer certifying that the English language translation is complete and accurate, and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person that made the translation.
</P>
<P>(iii) All records required by this subpart must be retained for a period of not less than 4 years after the date either FDA makes a determination that the product is a Pre-Existing Tobacco Product, or the tobacco product manufacturer permanently ceases the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the tobacco product, whichever occurs sooner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1105" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1105—GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371(a), 387e, 387j, and 387k.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 95869, Dec. 29, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.47.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Submission Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1105.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.47.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1105.10   Refusal to accept a premarket submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will refuse to accept for review, as soon as practicable, a premarket tobacco product application, modified risk tobacco product application, substantial equivalence application, or exemption request or subsequent abbreviated report for the following reasons, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) The submission does not pertain to a tobacco product as defined in 21 U.S.C. 321(rr).
</P>
<P>(2) The submission is not in English or does not contain complete English translations of any information submitted within.
</P>
<P>(3) If submitted in an electronic format, the submission is in a format that FDA cannot process, read, review, and archive.
</P>
<P>(4) The submission does not contain contact information, including the applicant's name and address.
</P>
<P>(5) The submission is from a foreign applicant and does not identify an authorized U.S. agent, including the agent's name and address, for the submission.
</P>
<P>(6) The submission does not contain a required FDA form(s).
</P>
<P>(7) The submission does not contain the following product-identifying information: The manufacturer of the tobacco product; the product name, including the brand and subbrand; the product category and subcategory; package type and package quantity; and characterizing flavor.
</P>
<P>(8) The type of submission is not specified.
</P>
<P>(9) The submission does not contain a signature of a responsible official, authorized to represent the applicant, who either resides in or has a place of business in the United States.
</P>
<P>(10) For premarket tobacco applications, modified risk tobacco product applications, substantial equivalence applications, and exemption requests only: The submission does not include a valid claim of categorical exclusion in accordance with part 25 of this chapter, or an environmental assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA finds that none of the reasons in paragraph (a) of this section exists for refusing to accept a premarket submission, FDA may accept the submission for processing and further review. FDA will send to the submitter an acknowledgement letter stating the submission has been accepted for processing and further review and will provide the premarket submission tracking number.
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA finds that any of the reasons in paragraph (a) of this section exist for refusing to accept the submission, FDA will notify the submitter in writing of the reason(s) and that the submission has not been accepted, unless insufficient contact information was provided.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1107" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1107—EXEMPTION REQUESTS AND SUBSTANTIAL EQUIVALENCE REPORTS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371, 374, 387e(j), 387i, 387j; Pub. L. 117-103, 136 Stat. 49.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 38974, July 5, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.1   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Under section 905(j)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 387e(j)(3)), FDA may exempt from the requirements relating to the demonstration that a tobacco product is substantially equivalent within the meaning of section 910 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 387j), tobacco products that are modified by adding or deleting a tobacco additive, or increasing or decreasing the quantity of an existing tobacco additive, if FDA determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) Such modification would be a minor modification of a tobacco product that can be sold under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (a legally marketed tobacco product);
</P>
<P>(2) A report under section 905(j)(1) intended to demonstrate substantial equivalence is not necessary to ensure that permitting the tobacco product to be marketed would be appropriate for protection of the public health; and
</P>
<P>(3) An exemption is otherwise appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for an exemption under section 905(j)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</I> A request for an exemption from the requirement of demonstrating substantial equivalence may be made only by the manufacturer of a legally marketed tobacco product for a minor modification to that tobacco product. To request an exemption, the manufacturer must submit the request and all information supporting the request in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. If the manufacturer is unable to submit an exemption request in an electronic format, the manufacturer may submit a written request to the Center for Tobacco Products explaining in detail why the manufacturer cannot submit the request in an electronic format and requesting an alternative format. Such request must include an explanation of why an alternative format is necessary. All submissions, including requests to submit the information in an alternative format, requests for exemptions, and all supporting information must be legible and in the English language. An exemption request must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturer's address and contact information;
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the tobacco product(s);
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed explanation of the purpose of the modification;
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed description of the modification, including a statement as to whether the modification involves adding or deleting a tobacco additive, or increasing or decreasing the quantity of an existing tobacco additive;
</P>
<P>(5) A detailed explanation of why the modification is a minor modification of a tobacco product that can be sold under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(6) A detailed explanation of why a report under section 905(j)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act intended to demonstrate substantial equivalence is not necessary to ensure that permitting the tobacco product to be marketed would be appropriate for protection of the public health;
</P>
<P>(7) A certification (<I>i.e.,</I> a signed statement by a responsible official of the manufacturer) summarizing the supporting evidence and providing the rationale for the official's determination that the modification does not increase the tobacco product's appeal to or use by minors, toxicity, addictiveness, or abuse liability;
</P>
<P>(8) Other information justifying an exemption; and
</P>
<P>(9) An environmental assessment under part 25 of this chapter prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 25.40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption determination.</I> FDA will review the information submitted and determine whether to grant or deny an exemption request based on whether the criteria in section 905(j)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are met. FDA may request additional information if necessary to make a determination. FDA will consider the exemption request withdrawn if the information is not provided within the requested timeframe.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rescission of an exemption.</I> FDA may rescind an exemption if it finds that the exemption is not appropriate for the protection of public health. In general, FDA will rescind an exemption only after notice and opportunity for a hearing under part 16 of this chapter is provided. However, FDA may rescind an exemption prior to notice and opportunity for a hearing under part 16 of this chapter if the continuance of the exemption presents a serious risk to public health. In that case, FDA will provide the manufacturer an opportunity for a hearing as soon as possible after the rescission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 38974, July 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.3   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The term “Pre-Existing Tobacco Product” means a tobacco product (including those products in test markets) that was commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007. A Pre-Existing Tobacco Product is not subject to the premarket requirements of section 910 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record maintenance.</I> (1) Each applicant who submits an abbreviated report under section 905(j)(1)(A)(ii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and receives a letter acknowledging the receipt of an abbreviated report from FDA must maintain all records (including those created by third parties on the applicant's behalf) that support the submission. Such records may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the abbreviated report and, if applicable, the exemption request and all amendments thereto.
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the acknowledgement letter issued in response to an abbreviated report and, if applicable, the exemption order issued by FDA.
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents related to formulation of product, design specifications, packaging, and related items.
</P>
<P>(iv) Documents showing design specifications are consistently met.
</P>
<P>(v) Documents related to product packing and storage conditions.
</P>
<P>(vi) Analytical test method records, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Performance criteria.
</P>
<P>(B) Validation or verification documentation; and
</P>
<P>(C) Reports/results from these test methods.
</P>
<P>(vii) Source data and related summaries.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant that submits an abbreviated report for a modification to a Pre-Existing Tobacco Product must also maintain records demonstrating that the Pre-Existing Tobacco Product was commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007, such as the records described in § 1100.204 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant that submits an abbreviated report for a modification to a tobacco product that previously received premarket authorization (<I>i.e.,</I> an exemption (and for which the applicant has submitted an abbreviated report under section 905(j)(1)(A)(ii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a substantially equivalent order under section 910(a), or a marketing granted order under section 910(c)) must maintain a copy of the exemption order, substantially equivalent order, or marketing granted order.
</P>
<P>(4) An applicant that submits an abbreviated report for a modification to a tobacco product that is the subject of a pending SE report and is marketed pursuant to section 910(a)(2)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act must maintain all communications to and from FDA relating to the pending SE Report (<I>e.g.,</I> acknowledgement letter, deficiency letters), including the SE Report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record quality.</I> All records must be legible, in the English language, and available for inspection and copying by officers or employees duly designated by the Secretary. Documents that have been translated from another language into English (<I>e.g.,</I> advertisements written in a language other than English) must be accompanied by the original language version of the document, a signed statement by an authorized representative of the manufacturer certifying that the English language translation is complete and accurate, and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person that made the translation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record retention.</I> All records required by this subpart must be retained for a period of 4 years from the date that an acknowledgement letter is issued by FDA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 55412, Oct. 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 55275, Oct. 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1107.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.10   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subparts B through E of this part apply to a substantial equivalence report (or an SE Report) for a new tobacco product, other than “premium” cigars as defined in § 1107.12, that has:
</P>
<P>(1) Characteristics different from a predicate tobacco product and for which information is submitted to demonstrate it is not appropriate to regulate the product under section 910(b) and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because the new tobacco product does not raise different questions of public health or
</P>
<P>(2) The same characteristics as a predicate tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(b) These subparts set forth procedures and requirements for the submission to FDA of an SE Report under sections 905 and 910 of the Federal, Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; the basic criteria for establishing substantial equivalence; and the general procedures FDA will follow when evaluating submissions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accessory</I> means any product that is intended or reasonably expected to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product; does not contain tobacco and is not made or derived from tobacco; and meets either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not intended or reasonably expected to affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is intended or reasonably expected to affect or maintain the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product but
</P>
<P>(i) Solely controls moisture and/or temperature of a stored product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Solely provides an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Additive</I> means any substance the intended use of which results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristic of any tobacco product (including any substances intended for use as a flavoring or coloring or in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding), except that the term does not include tobacco or a pesticide chemical residue in or on raw tobacco, or a pesticide chemical.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any manufacturer of tobacco products who is subject to chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that submits a premarket application to receive marketing authorization for a new tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Brand</I> means a variety of tobacco product distinguished by the tobacco used, tar content, nicotine content, flavoring used, size, filtration, packaging, logo, registered trademark, brand name(s), identifiable pattern of colors, or any combination of such attributes.
</P>
<P><I>Characteristic</I> means the materials, ingredients, design, composition, heating source, or other features of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial distribution</I> means any distribution of a tobacco product, whether domestic or imported, to consumers or to any person, but does not include interplant transfers of a tobacco product between establishments within the same parent, subsidiary, and/or affiliate company, nor does it include providing a tobacco product for product testing where such product is not made available for personal consumption or resale. “Commercial distribution” does not include the handing or transfer of a tobacco product from one consumer to another for personal consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Commercially marketed</I> means selling or offering for sale a tobacco product in the United States to consumers or to any person for the eventual purchase by consumers in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> or <I>part</I> means any software or assembly of materials intended or reasonably expected:
</P>
<P>(1) To alter or affect the tobacco product's performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics; or
</P>
<P>(2) To be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product. Component or part excludes anything that is an accessory of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Composition</I> means the materials in a tobacco product, including ingredients, additives, and biological organisms. The term includes the manner in which the materials, for example, ingredients, additives, and biological organisms, are arranged and integrated to produce a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Constituent</I> means any chemical or chemical compound in a tobacco product that is or potentially is inhaled, ingested, or absorbed into the body, any chemical or chemical compound in an emission (<I>e.g.,</I> smoke, aerosol, droplets) from a tobacco product, that either transfers from any component or part of the tobacco product to the emission or that is formed by the combustion or heating of tobacco, additives, or other component of the tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Container closure system</I> means any packaging materials that are a component or part of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Design</I> means the form and structure concerning, and the manner in which, components or parts, ingredients, software, and materials are integrated to produce a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Distributor</I> means any person who furthers the distribution of a tobacco product, whether domestic or imported, at any point from the original place of manufacture to the person who sells or distributes the product to individuals for personal consumption. Common carriers are not considered distributors for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Finished tobacco product</I> means a tobacco product, including all components and parts, sealed in final packaging (<I>e.g.,</I> filters or filter tubes sold to consumers separately or as part of kits) or in the final form in which it is intended to be sold to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Harmful or potentially harmful constituent (HPHC)</I> means any chemical or chemical compound in a tobacco product or tobacco smoke or emission that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is or potentially is inhaled, ingested, or absorbed into the body, including as an aerosol or any other emission; and
</P>
<P>(2) Causes or has the potential to cause direct or indirect harm to users or nonusers of tobacco products.
</P>
<P><I>Health information statement</I> means a statement, made under section 910(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, that the health information related to a new tobacco product will be made available upon request by any person.
</P>
<P><I>Health information summary</I> means a summary, submitted under section 910(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, of any health information related to a new tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Heating source</I> means the source of energy used to burn or heat the tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Ingredient</I> means tobacco, substances, compounds, or additives contained within or added to the tobacco, paper, filter, or any other component or part of a tobacco product, including substances and compounds reasonably expected to be formed through a chemical reaction during tobacco product manufacturing.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means an assembly of ingredients. Materials are assembled to form a tobacco product or components or parts of tobacco products.
</P>
<P><I>New tobacco product</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any tobacco product (including those products in test markets) that was not commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any modification (including a change in design, any component, any part, or any constituent, including a smoke constituent, or in the content, delivery or form of nicotine, or any other additive or ingredient) of a tobacco product where the modified product was commercially marketed in the United States after February 15, 2007.
</P>
<P><I>Other features</I> means any distinguishing qualities of a tobacco product similar to those specifically enumerated in section 910(a)(3)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Such other features include harmful and potentially harmful constituents and any other product characteristics that relate to the chemical, biological, and physical properties of the tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> or <I>packaging</I> means a pack, box, carton, or container of any kind or, if no other container, any wrapping (including cellophane), in which a tobacco product is offered for sale, sold, or otherwise distributed to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Predicate tobacco product</I> means a tobacco product that was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007, or a tobacco product that FDA has previously found substantially equivalent under section 910(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Premium cigars</I> means a type of cigar that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is wrapped in whole tobacco leaf;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a 100 percent leaf tobacco binder;
</P>
<P>(3) Contains at least 50 percent (of the filler by weight) long filler tobacco (<I>i.e.,</I> whole tobacco leaves that run the length of the cigar);
</P>
<P>(4) Is handmade or hand rolled (<I>i.e.,</I> no machinery was used apart from simple tools, such as scissors to cut the tobacco prior to rolling);
</P>
<P>(5) Has no filter, nontobacco tip, or nontobacco mouthpiece;
</P>
<P>(6) Does not have a characterizing flavor other than tobacco;
</P>
<P>(7) Contains only tobacco, water, and vegetable gum with no other ingredients or additives; and
</P>
<P>(8) Weighs more than 6 pounds per 1,000 units.
</P>
<P><I>Submission tracking number</I> or <I>STN</I> means the number that FDA assigns to submissions that are received from a manufacturer of tobacco products, such as SE Reports and voluntary requests for determinations that a tobacco product was commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial equivalence</I> or <I>substantially equivalent</I> means, with respect to a new tobacco product being compared to a predicate tobacco product, that FDA by order has found that the new tobacco product:
</P>
<P>(1) Has the same characteristics as the predicate tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has different characteristics and the information submitted contains information, including clinical data if deemed necessary by FDA, that demonstrates that it is not appropriate to require premarket review under section 910(b) and (c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because the new tobacco product does not raise different questions of public health.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial equivalence report</I> or <I>SE Report</I> means a submission under section 905(j)(1)(A)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that includes the basis for the applicant's determination that a new tobacco product is substantially equivalent to a predicate tobacco product. This term includes the initial substantial equivalence report and all subsequent amendments.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product</I> means any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product). The term “tobacco product” does not mean an article that under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is: a drug (section 201(g)(1)); a device (section 201(h)); a combination product (section 503(g)); or a food (section 201(f)) if such article contains no nicotine or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product manufacturer</I> means any person, including a repacker or relabeler, who:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufactures, fabricates, assembles, processes, or labels a tobacco product, or
</P>
<P>(2) Imports a finished tobacco product for sale or distribution in the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 55275, Oct. 4, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 16552, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Substantial Equivalence Reports</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 55275, Oct. 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1107.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.16   Submission of a substantial equivalence report.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may submit an SE Report intended to demonstrate that a new tobacco product is substantially equivalent to a predicate tobacco product. The applicant must submit the SE Report at least 90 calendar days prior to the date the applicant intends to introduce or deliver for introduction a new tobacco product into interstate commerce for commercial distribution. The applicant cannot begin commercial distribution of the new tobacco product until FDA has provided the applicant an order stating that the Agency has determined that the new tobacco product is substantially equivalent to a predicate tobacco product, unless the new tobacco product has received authorization to be marketed through another premarket pathway.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.18   Required content and format of an SE Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overview.</I> The SE Report must provide information uniquely identifying the new tobacco product and the predicate tobacco product, and compare the new tobacco product to either a tobacco product commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007, or a tobacco product that FDA previously found to be substantially equivalent. The SE Report must provide sufficient information as described in this section to enable FDA to determine whether the new tobacco product is substantially equivalent to a tobacco product that was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007. If FDA cites deficiencies and requests information to support a statement in the SE Report, the applicant must provide that information for review to continue, or FDA may issue an order under § 1107.48. FDA generally intends to refuse to accept an SE Report for review if it does not comply with § 1105.10 and this section. The SE Report must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) General information (as described in paragraph (c) of this section);
</P>
<P>(2) Summary (as described in paragraph (d) of this section);
</P>
<P>(3) New tobacco product description (as described in paragraph (e) of this section);
</P>
<P>(4) Predicate tobacco product description (as described in paragraph (f) of this section), including a statement that the predicate tobacco product has not been removed from the market at the initiative of FDA and has not been determined by judicial order to be adulterated or misbranded, and the submission tracking number of the SE order finding the predicate product SE, or the submission tracking number of, or information to support, that the predicate tobacco product was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007;
</P>
<P>(5) Comparison information (as described in paragraph (g) of this section);
</P>
<P>(6) Comparative testing information (as described in paragraph (h) of this section);
</P>
<P>(7) Statement of compliance with applicable tobacco product standards (as described in paragraph (i) of this section);
</P>
<P>(8) Health information summary or statement that such information will be made available upon request (as described in paragraph (j) of this section);
</P>
<P>(9) Compliance with part 25 of this chapter (as described in paragraph (k) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(10) Certification statement (as described in paragraph (<I>l</I>) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format.</I> The applicant must submit the SE Report using the form(s) that FDA provides. The SE Report must contain a comprehensive index and table of contents, be well-organized and legible, and be written in English. As described in § 1107.62, the applicant must submit the SE Report and all information supporting the SE Report in an electronic format that FDA can process, read, review, and archive, unless FDA has provided a waiver under § 1107.62(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General information.</I> The SE Report must include the following information, using the form FDA provides:
</P>
<P>(1) The date the SE Report is submitted;
</P>
<P>(2) Type of submission (<I>e.g.,</I> the SE Report or amendment to a report);
</P>
<P>(3) FDA STN, if previously assigned;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other relevant FDA STN, such as a voluntary request for a determination that a tobacco product was commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007, or SE Report previously found substantially equivalent (if applicable), and cross-references to meetings with FDA regarding the new tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(5) Applicant name, address, and contact information (including email address);
</P>
<P>(6) Authorized representative or U.S. agent (for a foreign applicant), including the name, address, and contact information (including email address);
</P>
<P>(7) For both the new and predicate tobacco products, the following information to uniquely identify the products:
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Product name, including the brand and sub brand (or other commercial name used in commercial distribution); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Product category, product subcategory, and product properties (if the product does not have a listed product property, <I>e.g.,</I> ventilation or characterizing flavor, the report must state “none” for that property) as provided in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1107.18<E T="01">(c)(7)(iii)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tobacco product category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tobacco product subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product properties
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Cigarettes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Filtered</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 89.1 millimeters (mm), 100 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, 10%, 25%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing Flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Non-filtered</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 89.1 mm, 100 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing Flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 89.1 mm, 100 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, 10%, 25%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing Flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Roll-Your-Own Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Roll-Your-Own Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, pouch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20.1 grams (g), 16 ounces (oz.)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Rolling Paper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, booklet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 50 sheets, 200 papers).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 79.1 mm, 100 mm, 110.2 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 28.1 mm, 33 mm, 45.2 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Filtered Cigarette Tube</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 tubes, 200 tubes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 89.1 mm, 100 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, 10%, 25%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Non-Filtered Cigarette Tube</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 tubes, 200 tubes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 89.1 mm, 100 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Filter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 filters, 200 filters).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 8 mm, 12.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) Paper Tip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 200 tips, 275 tips).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 12 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 27.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">7</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, box, booklet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 200 tips, 100 filters, 200 tubes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Smokeless Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Loose Moist Snuff</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 g, 2.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable, <E T="03">e.g.,</E> fine cut, long cut, straight cut).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Portioned Moist Snuff</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 22.5 g, 20 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 15 pouches, 20 pieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1.5 g/pouch, 1 g/piece).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 15 mm, 20.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 5 mm, 7.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Loose Snus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 g, 2.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Portioned Snus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 22.5 g, 20 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 15 pouches, 20 pieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1.5 g/pouch, 1 g/piece).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 15 mm, 20.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 5 mm, 7.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Loose Dry Snuff</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 g, 2.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) Dissolvable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 22.5 g, 20 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 15 sticks, 20 pieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1.5 g/strip, 1 g/piece).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 5 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 3 mm, 4.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">7</E>) Loose Chewing Tobacco</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, pouch, wrapped).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 g, 3.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">8</E>) Portioned Chewing Tobacco</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 22.5 g, 20 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 bits).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 2.1 g/bit).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 8 mm, 10.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 5.1 mm, 7 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">9</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, bag, can).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20.1 g, 22.5 g, 3 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS) (Vapes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Open E-Liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bottle, box, pod).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 bottle, 5 bottles).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 0.5 milliliters (ml)), 2 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Nicotine concentration (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 0 mg/ml), 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/bottle).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Propylene Glycol (PG)/Vegetable Glycerin (VG) ratio (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> not applicable (N/A), 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Closed E-Liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> cartridge, pod).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 cartridge, 5 cartridges).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 0.5 ml, 2 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Nicotine concentration (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/bottle).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PG/VG ratio (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> N/A, 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Closed E-Cigarette</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 e-cigarette, 5 e-cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 mm, 120 mm)
<br/>—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 watts (W), 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 milliampere hours (mAh), 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 0.5 ml, 2 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Nicotine concentration (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/e-cigarette).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PG/VG ratio (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> N/A, 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Open E-Cigarette</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 e-cigarette, 5 e-cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 mm, 120 mm)
<br/>—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 W, 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 0.5 ml, 2 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) ENDS Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 coil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 e-cigarette, 5 bottles).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) Cigars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Filtered, Sheet-Wrapped</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 filtered cigars, 25 filtered cigars).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 89.1 mm, 100 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, 0%, 10%, 25%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Unfiltered, Sheet-Wrapped</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, film sleeve).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 cigar, 5 cigarillos).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100.1 mm, 140 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 8 mm, 10.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Tip (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, wood tips, plastic tips).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Unfiltered, Leaf-Wrapped</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, film, sleeve, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 cigar, 5 cigars).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 150.1 mm, 200 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">h;Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 8 mm, 10.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wrapper material (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> burley tobacco leaf, Connecticut shade grown tobacco leaf).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, whiskey).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Cigar Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, booklet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 wrappers, 20 leaves).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Cigar Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, pouch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 g, 16.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, booklet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 cigar, 5 cigars, 20 leaves, 16 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) Pipe Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Pipe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 pipe).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 200 mm, 300.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 25.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cavendish, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Pipe Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 g, 16.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Tobacco cut style (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> standard cut, such as shag cut, bugler cut, loose cut, etc., or a pressed cut, such as flake, cube cut, roll cake, etc. or a mixture).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, cavendish, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Pipe Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 bowl, 1 stem, 100 filters).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 pipe, 1 bowl, 1 stem, 100 filters).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(G) Waterpipe Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Waterpipe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 waterpipe).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Height (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 200 mm, 500.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100.1 mm, 300 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100.1 mm, 300 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—No. of hoses (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1, 2, 4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Waterpipe Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> bag, pouch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 g, 16.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, apple).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Waterpipe Heat Source</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, film sleeve, bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 150 g, 680 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 fingers, 10 discs, 1 base).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 15 g/finger, 10 g/brick).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 40 mm, 100 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 mm, 40 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 mm, 40 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Source of energy (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> charcoal, battery, electrical).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol, apple).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Waterpipe Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 base, 1 bowl, 1 hose, 10 mouthpieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 base, 1 bowl, 1 hose, 10 mouthpieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(H) Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Closed HTP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 device, 1 HTP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 mm, 120 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 W, 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Open HTP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 device, 1 HTP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 mm, 120 mm)
<br/>—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 W, 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) HTP Consumable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> hard pack, soft pack, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 20 sticks, 25 cartridges).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 60 mm, 82 mm.)
<br/>—Diameter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 6 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, 10%, 25%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) HTP Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 mouthpiece, 1 spacer).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, bag, plastic clamshell, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 base, 5 capsules).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> box, bag, plastic clamshell, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 1 base, 5 capsules).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> none, tobacco, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) Address and the FDA Establishment Identifier number(s) of the establishments involved in the manufacture and/or importation of the new and predicate tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Summary.</I> The SE Report must include a summary at the beginning of the SE Report that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise description of the characteristics of the new tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement as to whether the applicant believes the new tobacco product has the same characteristics as the predicate tobacco product or has different characteristics but any differences in characteristics do not cause the new tobacco product to raise different questions of public health; and
</P>
<P>(3) A concise description of the similarities and differences between the new tobacco product and the predicate tobacco product with respect to their characteristics (materials, ingredients, design, composition, heating source, or other features).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>New tobacco product description.</I> The applicant must identify one new tobacco product in the SE Report for comparison to one predicate tobacco product. The SE Report must describe the new tobacco product in sufficient detail to enable FDA to evaluate its characteristics. This part of the SE Report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A narrative description of the new tobacco product and detailed drawings or schematics of the new tobacco product, including its container closure system, illustrating all components or parts of the product. For a portioned tobacco product, the SE Report must also include a diagram illustrating all components or parts of the individual unit of use;
</P>
<P>(2) A description and the function of each component or part of the new tobacco product, and an explanation of how each component or part is integrated into the design of the new tobacco product; and
</P>
<P>(3) A concise overview of the process used to manufacture the new tobacco product. If the manufacturing process for the new tobacco product does not affect the characteristics of the new tobacco product beyond what is described elsewhere in the SE Report, an applicant must state that to satisfy this provision.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Description of predicate tobacco product.</I> (1) The applicant must identify a predicate tobacco product that is either a tobacco product commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) as of February 15, 2007, or a tobacco product that FDA previously found to be substantially equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) A tobacco product to which a new tobacco product is compared must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have been either:
</P>
<P>(A) Commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007, as shown by either specific information sufficient to support this in the SE Report, including a statement that “I, (insert name and position title of responsible official), confirm that the predicate tobacco product associated with this submission, (insert name of predicate tobacco product), was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007,” and, if applicable, reference to an STN for a previous determination by FDA that the predicate product was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007; or
</P>
<P>(B) Previously determined to be substantially equivalent by FDA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be an individual product and not a composite of multiple products;
</P>
<P>(iii) Not be the subject of a rescission action by FDA, as described in § 1107.50; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not have been removed from the market at the initiative of FDA and not have been determined by judicial order to be adulterated or misbranded.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Comparison information.</I> The SE Report must include a comparison of the characteristics of the new tobacco product and the predicate tobacco product. If the new tobacco product has limited changes to a characteristic(s) when compared to the predicate tobacco product, and all other characteristics are identical (<I>e.g.,</I> a change to product quantity), the applicant must provide comparison information related to any characteristic(s) that have changed, but may certify that the other characteristics are identical under paragraph (l)(2) of this section. The applicant must maintain records supporting the certification consistent with § 1107.58.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Comparative testing information.</I> Other than for characteristics that are identical, and for which the applicant has certified that the characteristics are identical under paragraph (l)(2) of this section, the SE Report must provide comparative testing information that has been demonstrated to be fully validated on the characteristics of the new and predicate tobacco products except where the applicant adequately justifies that such comparative testing information is not necessary to demonstrate that the new product:
</P>
<P>(1) Has the same characteristics as the predicate or
</P>
<P>(2) Does not raise different questions of public health.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statement of compliance with applicable tobacco product standards.</I> The SE Report must either:
</P>
<P>(1) List and describe the action(s) taken by the applicant to comply with applicable requirements under section 907 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) State there are no applicable requirements under section 907 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Health information summary or statement regarding availability of such information.</I> The SE Report must include either a health information summary or a statement that such information will be made available upon request, as provided in section 910(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Health information summary.</I> If including a health information summary with the SE Report, the applicant must provide a copy of the full SE Report that excludes research subject identifiers and trade secret and confidential commercial information as defined in §§ 20.61 and 20.63 of this chapter; and either
</P>
<P>(i) Provide accurate, complete, and not false or misleading, additional health information, including information, research, or data about adverse health effects, that the applicant has or knows about concerning the new tobacco product that is not contained in the SE Report; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the following statement, if true, about the new tobacco product: “Applicant does not have or know of any additional health information, including information, research or data regarding adverse health effects, about the new tobacco product that is the subject of this SE Report.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement regarding availability of health information.</I> If the applicant chooses to make the health information available upon request, the SE Report must include the following statement, with the appropriate applicant information inserted as indicated by parenthetical text, signed by an authorized representative of the applicant, made on a separate page of the SE Report, and clearly identified as “910(a)(4) health information statement”: “I certify that, in my capacity as (<I>the position held in company by person required to submit the SE Report, preferably the responsible official of the applicant</I>) of (<I>company name</I>), I will make available, upon request, the information identified in 21 CFR 1107.18(j)(3) within 30 calendar days of a request.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content of health information.</I> The health information the applicant agrees to make available in paragraph (j)(2) of this section must be a copy of the full SE Report, excluding all research subject identifiers, trade secrets, and confidential commercial information, as defined in §§ 20.61 and 20.63 of this chapter; and either:
</P>
<P>(i) Accurate, complete, and not false or misleading, additional health information, including information, research, or data about adverse health effects, that the applicant has or knows about concerning the new tobacco product and that is not contained in the SE Report; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The following statement, if true, about the new tobacco product: “(<I>Company name</I>) does not have or know of any additional health information, including information, research or data regarding adverse health effects about the new tobacco product that is the subject of the provided SE Report.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requests for information.</I> All requests for information under paragraph (j)(2) of this section must be made in writing to the authorized representative of the applicant, whose contact information will be posted on the FDA website listing substantial equivalence determinations. The applicant must provide FDA any updated information if the contact information changes.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>No modified risk violations.</I> To the extent information is included in the health information summary or health information provided upon request under paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section that is not required by section 910(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or this paragraph (j), that information must not contain a statement that would cause the tobacco product to be in violation of section 911 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act upon the introduction or delivery for introduction of the proposed new product into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Compliance with part 25 of this chapter.</I> (1) The SE Report must include an environmental assessment prepared in accordance with § 25.40 of this chapter, or a valid claim of categorical exclusion. If the applicant believes that the action qualifies for an available categorical exclusion, the applicant must state under § 25.15(a) and (d) of this chapter that the action requested qualifies for a categorical exclusion, citing the particular exclusion that is claimed, and that to the applicant's knowledge, no extraordinary circumstances exist under § 25.21.
</P>
<P>(2) The environmental assessment must include a statement explaining whether the new tobacco product is intended to replace the predicate tobacco product after the new tobacco product receives market authorization, is intended to be a line extension of the predicate tobacco product, is intended to be introduced as an additional product by the same manufacturer, or if the new tobacco product will be introduced as an additional product but by a different manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Certification statement.</I> (1) The SE Report must contain the following certification, with the appropriate information inserted (as indicated by parenthetical text), and be signed by an authorized representative of the applicant: “I (<I>name of responsible official</I>) on behalf of (<I>applicant</I>), hereby certify that (<I>applicant</I>) will maintain all records to substantiate the accuracy of this SE Report for the period of time required in 21 CFR 1107.58 and ensure that such records remain readily available to the FDA upon request. I certify that this information and the accompanying submission are true and correct, that no material fact has been omitted, and that I am authorized to submit this on the applicant's behalf. I understand that under section 1001 of title 18 of the United States Code anyone who knowingly and willfully makes a materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the Government of the United States is subject to criminal penalties.”
</P>
<P>(2) The SE Report must include the following certification, as well as a justification for the certification, if an applicant chooses to certify that certain characteristics are identical in lieu of providing data for each characteristic of the new and predicate tobacco products. This certification must include the appropriate information inserted (as indicated by parenthetical text) and be signed by an authorized representative of the applicant: “I, (<I>name of responsible official</I>), on behalf of (<I>name of company</I>), certify that (<I>new tobacco product name</I>) has the following modification(s) as compared to (<I>name of predicate tobacco product</I>): (<I>describe modification(s), e.g., change in product quantity or change in container closure system</I>). Aside from these modifications, the characteristics of (new tobacco product name) and (name of predicate tobacco product) are identical. I certify that (<I>name of company</I>) understands this means there is no other modification to the materials, ingredients, design features, heating source, or any other feature. I also certify that (<I>name of company</I>) will maintain records to support the comparison information in 21 CFR 1107.19 that substantiate the accuracy of this statement for the period of time required in 21 CFR 1107.58, and ensure that such records remain readily available to FDA upon request.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.19" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.19   Comparison information.</HEAD>
<P>The SE Report must include a comparison of the characteristics of the new tobacco product to the predicate tobacco product. Where test data is submitted, the testing information must include the test protocols, quantitative acceptance criteria, and test results (including means and variances, data sets, and a summary of the results). Comparison testing must be conducted on a sufficient sample size and on test samples that reflect the finished tobacco product composition and design. The SE report must state whether the same test methods were used for the new tobacco product and the predicate product, and if the methods differed, an explanation as to how the results of the different test methods can be compared. The SE report must identify national and international standards used to test the new and predicate tobacco products and explain any deviations from the standard, or state that no standards were used for the testing. The SE report must include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Comparison of product design.</I> The SE Report must include a description of the product designs of the new and predicate tobacco products and an identification of any differences. The SE Report must include, in a tabular format, a side-by-side comparison of each design parameter of the new and predicate tobacco products. The target specification and upper and lower range limits must be provided for each design parameter. Test data (including test protocols, quantitative acceptance criteria, data sets (<I>i.e.,</I> measured values), and a summary of the results) must be provided for the new and predicate tobacco products when the target specification or range limits of the new tobacco product differ from the predicate tobacco product. For tobacco cut size or particle size, when target specifications and range limits are not available, the following alternative information may be submitted in place of this information: A description of the tobacco cutting process (including a complete description of the milling, cutting, and sifting process; the control parameters of the miller or cutter; and any sift specifications) or the measured particle size distribution for the new and predicate tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cigarettes.</I> For cigarettes, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(1)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specification With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette circumference or diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or cuts per inch (CPI)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tipping paper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity (CORESTA unit (CU)) or permeability.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band space (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(1)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture (%) or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Smokeless Tobacco.</I> For portioned and non-portioned smokeless tobacco products, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(2)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specification With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Portioned Smokeless Tobacco Products:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco moisture (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Portion length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Portion width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Portion mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Pouch material thickness (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Pouch material porosity or permeability (CU or L/m
<sup>2</sup>/s) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Pouch material basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>). (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Nicotine dissolution rate (%/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Non-portioned Smokeless Tobacco Products:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco moisture (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(2)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Portioned Smokeless Tobacco Products:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco moisture (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Portion mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Pouch material porosity or permeability (CU or L/m
<sup>2</sup>/s).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Pouch material basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Nicotine dissolution rate (%/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Non-portioned Smokeless Tobacco Products:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco moisture (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Roll-your-own tobacco, rolling papers.</I> For roll-your-own tobacco rolling papers, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(3)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Paper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Paper width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Mass per paper (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band space (mm) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(3)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Mass per paper (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Roll-your-own tobacco, non-filtered tubes.</I> For roll-your-own tobacco non-filtered tubes, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(4)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube circumference or diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band space (mm) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(4)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Roll-your-own tobacco, filtered tubes.</I> For roll-your-own tobacco filtered tubes, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(5)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube circumference or diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tipping paper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(5)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tube mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper base paper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Roll-your-own tobacco.</I> For roll-your-own tobacco, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(6)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture (%) or oven volatiles (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(6)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture (%) or oven volatiles (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(7) <I>Filtered, sheet-wrapped cigars.</I> For filtered, sheet-wrapped cigars, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(7)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar overall diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tipping paper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigar filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter ventilation (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(7)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Puff count.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) <I>Unfiltered, sheet-wrapped cigars.</I> For unfiltered, sheet-wrapped cigars, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(8)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar overall diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar tip mass (mg) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tip length (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tip inner diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band space (mm) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(8)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Puff count.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder porosity or permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder band porosity or permeability (CU) (alternately, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar tip mass (mg) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(9) <I>Unfiltered, leaf-wrapped cigars.</I> For unfiltered, leaf-wrapped cigars, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(9)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Overall diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(9)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Puff count.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(10) <I>Cigar filler.</I> For cigar filler, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(10)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 20 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(10)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(11) <I>Cigar component.</I> For cigar components, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 21 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(11)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper porosity (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 22 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(11)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(12) <I>Pipes.</I> For pipes, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 23 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(12)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Bowl chamber outer diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Bowl chamber inner diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Draught hole diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Draught hole location.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Draught hole shape.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Bowl chamber hole shape.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Bowl chamber volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Stem length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Stem diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Shank length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Shank diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Draught hole area (mm
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Pressure drop through air valve (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Air flow through air valve (cc/min).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter length (mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 24 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(12)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Bowl chamber volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Air flow through air valve (cc/min).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(13) <I>Pipe filler.</I> For pipe filler, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 25 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(13)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 26 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(13)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(14) <I>Waterpipes.</I> For waterpipes, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 27 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(14)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Hose length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Hose internal diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Hose materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Stem length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Stem internal diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Base diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Base volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Base shape.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Water filter efficiency (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Hose air permeability (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head height (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head top diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head bottom diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—No. of holes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating source type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head materials.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 28 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(14)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Hose length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Hose internal diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Stem length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Stem internal diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Base diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Base volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Water filter efficiency (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head height (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head top diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head bottom diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(15) <I>Waterpipe, heating source.</I> For waterpipe heating sources, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 29 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(15)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element resistance (ohms) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—No. of heating elements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element configuration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element diameter (gauge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current rating (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery capacity (mAh) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current operating range (amps) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Power delivery unit (PDU) voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU current operating range (amps) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU wattage operating range (watts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 30 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(15)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element temperature range ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element resistance (ohms) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element diameter (gauge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current rating (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery capacity (mAh) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current operating range (amps) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Power delivery unit (PDU) voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU current operating range (amps) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU wattage operating range (watts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(16) <I>Waterpipe component, head.</I> For waterpipe heads, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 31 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(16)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">—Head height (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head top diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head bottom diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—No. of holes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head materials.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 32 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(16)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head height (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head top diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head bottom diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(17) <I>Waterpipe component, foil.</I> For waterpipe foil, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 33 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(17)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Length (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Width (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Diameter (mm) (for circular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Foil thickness (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—No. of holes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Diameter of the holes (mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 34 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(17)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Length (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Width (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Diameter (mm) (for circular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Foil thickness (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Diameter of the holes (mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(18) <I>Waterpipe filler.</I> For waterpipe filler, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 35 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(18)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 36 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(18)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(19) <I>Electronic Nicotine Delivery System (ENDS).</I> For ENDS (vapes), the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 37 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(19)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Puff count (for full tank/cartridge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Atomizer tank/cartridge volume (mL).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—No. of heating elements (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> coil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element diameter (gauge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element resistance (Ohms).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element temperature range ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element configuration (target only).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery capacity (mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery nominal voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current rating (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery end of discharge voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery maximum charging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery maximum discharging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Power Delivery Unit (PDU) voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU wattage operating range (watts).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 38 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(19)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Puff count (for full tank/cartridge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Atomizer tank/cartridge volume (mL).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element diameter (gauge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element resistance (Ohms).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element temperature range ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU wattage operating range (watts).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery capacity (mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery nominal voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery current rating (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery maximum charging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery maximum discharging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Ventilation (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(20) <I>E-liquids.</I> For e-liquids, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 39 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(20)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—E-liquid volume (ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Count median diameter (nm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 40 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(20)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—E-liquid volume (ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Count median diameter (nm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(21) <I>Heated Tobacco Products (HTP).</I> For HTPs, the required design parameter information to be provided for each predicate and new tobacco product is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 41 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(21)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provide Target Specifications With Upper and Lower Range Limits for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Overall Device:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Height (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Puff count (for full tank/cartridge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Puff volume (mL).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Product volume (mL).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Operational temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Temperature sensor (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material wrapper length (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material wrapper width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material porosity or permeability (CU) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element source/type/approach (electrical, carbon, aerosol, etc.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element temperature range ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element operational temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element maximum temperature (boost temperature) ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element configuration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element location.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—No. of heating elements (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> coil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element diameter (gauge) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element resistance (Ohms) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco/E-liquid:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco mass (mg) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—E-liquid volume (mL) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery (if applicable):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery capacity (mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery voltage operating range (V) or wattage (W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery current charging range (amps).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery nominal voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery current rating (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery end of discharge voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery maximum charging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery maximum discharging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Power Delivery Unit (PDU) voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU wattage operating range (watts).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Aerosol:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Aerosol particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Count median diameter (nm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter (if applicable):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter ventilation (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 42 to § 1107.19<E T="01">(a)(21)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Where Test Data Are Necessary, As Explained in Paragraph (a) of This Section, Provide This Information for the Following Parameters:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Overall device:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Puff count (for full tank/cartridge) (dimensionless).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Product volume (mL).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Operational temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Temperature sensor (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material wrapper length (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material wrapper width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Material porosity or permeability (CU) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Heating element:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element diameter (gauge) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element resistance (Ohms) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Heating element temperature range ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—E-liquid:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—E-liquid volume (ml) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Tobacco:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Tobacco density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Battery:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery voltage operating range (V) or wattage (W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU wattage operating range (watts).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery capacity (mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery nominal voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery current rating (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery maximum charging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery maximum discharging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Aerosol:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Aerosol particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Count median diameter (nm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—Filter (if applicable):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the filter is unchanged (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> DPF, total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">—Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Comparison of heating sources.</I> The SE Report must include a description of the heating source for the new and predicate tobacco products and identify any differences, or state that there is no heating source.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comparison of product composition.</I> The SE Report must include descriptions of the product composition of the new and predicate tobacco products and identify any differences. The SE Report must include, in a tabular format, a side-by-side comparison of the materials and ingredients for each component or part of the new and predicate tobacco products. For each material and ingredient quantity, the target specifications and range of acceptable values, actual measured value (where applicable), and range of measured values (where applicable) reported as mass per component or part, must be provided.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Materials.</I> For each material in the products include:
</P>
<P>(i) The material name and common name(s), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The component or part of the tobacco product where the material is located;
</P>
<P>(iii) The subcomponent or subpart where the material is located, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(iv) The function of the material;
</P>
<P>(v) The quantities (including ranges or means, acceptance limits) of the material(s) in each new tobacco product and predicate tobacco product (with any specification variation, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(vi) The specification(s) (including quality/grades, suppliers) used for the new tobacco product and predicate tobacco product (with any specification variations, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other material properties necessary to characterize the new and predicate tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ingredients other than tobacco.</I> For each ingredient other than tobacco in each material or component or part of the product include:
</P>
<P>(i) The International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) chemical name and common name, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) number(s) or FDA Unique Ingredient Identifier (UNII);
</P>
<P>(iii) The function of the ingredient;
</P>
<P>(iv) The quantity with the unit of measure (including ranges or means, acceptance limits) of the ingredient in the new tobacco product and predicate tobacco product reported as mass per gram of tobacco for non-portioned tobacco products and as mass per portion for portioned tobacco products (with any specification variation, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(v) The specification(s) (including purity or grade and supplier);
</P>
<P>(vi) For complex purchased ingredients, each single chemical substance reported separately; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other ingredient information necessary to characterize the new and predicate tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tobacco ingredients.</I> For tobacco include:
</P>
<P>(i) The type (<I>e.g.,</I> Bright, Burley, reconstituted);
</P>
<P>(ii) The curing method (<I>e.g.,</I> flue cured, dark air cured);
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity of each type with the unit of measure (including ranges or means, acceptance limits) of tobacco in the new tobacco product and predicate tobacco product reported as mass per gram of tobacco for non-portioned tobacco products and as mass per portion for portioned tobacco products;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any genetic engineering of the tobacco; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any other information necessary to characterize the new and predicate tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the new tobacco product does not contain tobacco, then include a statement that the new tobacco product does not contain tobacco.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Container closure system.</I> A description of the container closure system for the new and predicate tobacco products, including a side-by-side quantitative comparison of the components and materials and annotated illustrations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Comparison of other features.</I> The SE Report must include descriptions of any other features of the new and predicate tobacco products, such as those described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, and identify any differences. If a specific feature specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section is not applicable to the product design, this must be stated clearly. If FDA requests a scientific justification explaining why a feature is not applicable, the applicant must provide the justification to FDA. The comparison of other features must include information on:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Constituents.</I> HPHCs and other constituents, as appropriate, to demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(i) The new tobacco product has the same characteristics as the predicate tobacco product, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any differences in characteristics between the new and predicate product do not cause the new tobacco product to raise different questions of public health, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The constituent names in alphabetical order;
</P>
<P>(B) The common name(s);
</P>
<P>(C) The Chemical Abstract Services number(s);
</P>
<P>(D) The mean quantity and variance with unit of measure;
</P>
<P>(E) The number of samples and measurement replicates for each sample;
</P>
<P>(F) The analytical methods used, associated reference(s), and full validation reports for each analytical method;
</P>
<P>(G) The testing laboratory or laboratories and documentation showing that the laboratory or laboratories is (or are) accredited by a nationally or internationally recognized external accreditation organization;
</P>
<P>(H) Length of time between dates of manufacture and date(s) of testing;
</P>
<P>(I) Storage conditions of the tobacco product before it was tested;
</P>
<P>(J) Reference product datasets (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(K) Full test data (including test protocols, any deviation(s) from the test protocols, quantitative acceptance (pass/fail) criteria and complete data sets) for all testing performed. Test data for combusted or inhaled tobacco products must reflect testing conducted using both intense and non-intense smoking or aerosol-generating regimens, where established; and
</P>
<P>(L) Complete descriptions of any smoking or aerosol-generating regimens used for analytical testing that are not standardized or widely accepted by the scientific community, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Any other features.</I> A description and comparison of any other features of the new tobacco product and the predicate tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Comparison of tobacco processing.</I> The SE Report must include information on the tobacco processes in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section for the new and predicate tobacco products, if applicable, and identify any differences.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fermentation process.</I> For smokeless tobacco products and tobacco products that contain fermented tobacco (including naturally fermented tobacco), the SE Report must contain the following information regarding the fermentation process of the new and predicate tobacco products and identify any differences:
</P>
<P>(i) Description of the fermentation process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Composition of the inoculum (starter culture) with genus and species name(s) and concentration(s) (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(iii) Any step(s) taken to reduce microbes already present during processing (<I>e.g.,</I> cleaning of contact surfaces);
</P>
<P>(iv) Specifications and test data for pH, temperature, and moisture content or water activity;
</P>
<P>(v) Frequency of aeration or turning (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(vi) Duration of fermentation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Added ingredients;
</P>
<P>(viii) Method used to stabilize or stop fermentation ((<I>e.g.,</I> heat treatment), if applicable), including parameters of the method (<I>e.g.,</I> length of treatment, temperature) and method validation data; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Storage conditions of the fermented tobacco prior to further processing or packaging and duration of storage (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Heat treatment process.</I> For tobacco products that are heat treated, the SE Report must contain the following information regarding the heat treatment process of the new and predicate tobacco products and identify any differences:
</P>
<P>(i) Description of the heat treatment process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Type of heat treatment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Conditions of heat treatment, including time, temperature, and moisture; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Method validation data, including microbial loads (including bacteria, spores, yeast and fungi) and tobacco-specific nitrosamines (TSNAs) before and after heat treatment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Shelf life and stability information.</I> With the exception of SE Reports for roll-your-own tobacco products and cigarettes that are not HTPs, SE Reports for all tobacco products must contain information on the stability of the new and predicate tobacco products over the shelf life, including the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The length of the shelf life, a description of how shelf life is determined, and a description of how shelf life is indicated on the tobacco product, if applicable. If a tobacco product does not have a defined shelf life, state as such;
</P>
<P>(2) Any known or expected impacts of the differences between the new and predicate products on the product stability. If no impact is known or expected, state that;
</P>
<P>(3) Stability data assessed at the beginning (zero time), middle, and end of the expected shelf life. If a tobacco product does not have a defined shelf life, provide stability data over a specified amount of time and a justification for why that time period is appropriate. Stability testing must be performed for the microbial and chemical endpoints as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Microbial content data including total aerobic microbial count and total yeast and mold count;
</P>
<P>(ii) Water activity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Tobacco-specific nitrosamine yields (total, N-nitrosonornicotine (NNN), and 4-methylnitrosamino)-1-(3-pydridyl)-1-butanone) (NNK)).
</P>
<P>(4) Stability testing details for each microbial and chemical endpoint, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean quantity and variance with unit of measure;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of samples and measurement replicates for each sample;
</P>
<P>(iii) The methods used, associated reference(s), and full validation reports for each method (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(iv) The testing laboratory or laboratories and documentation showing that the laboratory or laboratories is (or are) accredited by a nationally or internationally recognized external accreditation organization;
</P>
<P>(v) Length of time between dates of tobacco product manufacture and date(s) of testing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Storage conditions of the tobacco products before they were tested;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement that the testing was performed on a tobacco product in the same container closure system in which the tobacco product is intended to be marketed; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Full test data (including test protocols, any deviation(s) from the test protocols, quantitative acceptance (pass/fail) criteria, complete data sets, and a summary of the results) for all stability testing performed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicant's basis for substantial equivalence determination.</I> The applicant must state that the new tobacco product has either:
</P>
<P>(1) The same characteristics as the predicate tobacco product and the basis for this determination, or
</P>
<P>(2) Different characteristics than the predicate tobacco product. Where an applicant states that its new tobacco product has different characteristics than the predicate tobacco product, the applicant must also include an explanation as to why a difference in any of the following characteristics do not cause the new product to raise different questions of public health: Product design (paragraph (a) of this section); heating source (paragraph (b) of this section); materials and ingredients (paragraph (c) of this section); and other features (paragraph (d) of this section). In addition, to demonstrate that a new tobacco product is substantially equivalent, an applicant must also explain why any differences in the manufacturing process between the new tobacco product and the predicate tobacco product would not change the characteristics of the new tobacco product such that the new tobacco product could raise different questions of public health (§ 1107.18(e)). Similarly, for smokeless tobacco products and tobacco products that contain fermented tobacco, an applicant must explain why any difference in stability between the new tobacco product and the predicate tobacco product does not cause the new tobacco product to raise different questions of public health (paragraph (f) of this section).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Comparison to original predicate tobacco product.</I> If the applicant is comparing the new tobacco product to a predicate tobacco product that FDA has previously found to be substantially equivalent, FDA may request that the applicant include information related to the original predicate tobacco product that was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007, even if that original predicate tobacco product is back several predicate tobacco products. FDA will request this information when necessary to ensure that any order the Agency issues finding the new tobacco product substantially equivalent complies with section 910(a)(2)(A)(i)(I) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. FDA may need to review the first SE Report that received a finding of substantial equivalence using the original predicate tobacco product as a predicate tobacco product in order to make this finding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.20   Amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the applicant may submit an amendment to an SE Report in accordance with subpart C of this part. If an applicant chose to submit a health information summary with its SE Report under § 1107.18(j)(1), the applicant must submit with the amendment a redacted copy of the amendment that excludes research subject identifiers and trade secret and confidential commercial information as defined in §§ 20.61 and 20.63 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant may not amend an SE Report to change the predicate tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant may not amend an SE Report after FDA has closed the SE Report under § 1107.44 or it has been withdrawn under § 1107.22.
</P>
<P>(d) In general, amendments will be reviewed in the next review cycle as described in § 1107.42.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.22   Withdrawal by applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may at any time make a written request to withdraw an SE Report for which FDA has not issued an order. The withdrawal request must state:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the withdrawal is due to a health or safety concern related to the tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(2) The submission tracking number; and
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the new tobacco product that is the subject of the SE Report.
</P>
<P>(b) An SE Report will be considered withdrawn when FDA issues a notice stating the SE Report has been withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(c) The SE Report is an Agency record, even if withdrawn. FDA will retain the withdrawn SE Report under Federal Agency records schedules. The availability of the withdrawn SE Report will be subject to FDA's public information regulations in part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.24" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.24   Change in ownership of an SE Report.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may transfer ownership of its SE Report. On or before the time of transfer, the new and former applicants are required to submit information to FDA as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The former applicant must sign and submit a notice to FDA that states that all of the former applicant's rights and responsibilities relating to the SE Report have been transferred to the new applicant. This notice must identify the name and address of the new applicant and the SE Report transferred.
</P>
<P>(b) The new applicant must sign and submit a notice to FDA containing the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The new applicant's commitment to agreements, promises, and conditions made by the former applicant and contained in the SE Report;
</P>
<P>(2) The date that the change in ownership is effective;
</P>
<P>(3) Either a statement that the new applicant has a complete copy of the SE Report and order (if applicable), including amendments and records that are required to be kept under § 1107.58, or a request for a copy of the SE Report from FDA's files by submitting a request in accordance with part 20 of this chapter. In accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, FDA will provide a copy of the SE Report to the new applicant under the fee schedule in FDA's public information regulations in § 20.45 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) A certification that no modifications have been made to the new tobacco product since the SE Report was submitted to FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—FDA Review</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 55275, Oct. 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1107.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.40   Communications between FDA and applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General principles.</I> During the course of reviewing an SE Report, FDA may communicate with applicants about relevant matters, including scientific, medical, and procedural issues that arise during the review process. These communications may take the form of telephone conversations, letters, or emails, and will be documented in the SE Report in accordance with § 10.65 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Meeting.</I> Meetings between FDA and applicants may be held to discuss scientific and other issues. Requests for meetings will be directed to the Office of Science, Center for Tobacco Products, and FDA will make every attempt to grant requests for meetings that involve important issues.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acceptance of an SE Report for review.</I> After receiving an SE Report under § 1107.18, FDA will either refuse to accept the SE Report for review or issue an acceptance for review letter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of deficiencies in an SE Report submitted under § 1107.18.</I> FDA will make reasonable efforts to communicate to applicants the procedural, administrative, or scientific deficiencies found in an SE Report and any additional information and data needed for the Agency's review. The applicant must also provide additional comparison information under § 1107.19 if requested by FDA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawal of SE Report.</I> An SE Report will be considered withdrawn when FDA issues a notice stating that the SE Report has been withdrawn.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.42" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.42   Review cycles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial review cycle.</I> FDA intends to review the SE Report and either communicate with the applicant as described in § 1107.40 or take an action under § 1107.44 within 90 calendar days of FDA's receipt of the SE Report, or within 90 calendar days of determining that the predicate was found to be commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States as of February 15, 2007 (if applicable), whichever is later. This 90-day period is called the “initial review cycle.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional review cycles.</I> If FDA issues a deficiency notification under § 1107.40(d) during the initial review cycle, FDA will stop reviewing the SE Report until it receives a response from the applicant or the timeframe specified in the notification of deficiencies for response has elapsed. If the applicant fails to respond within the time period provided in the notification of deficiency, FDA will issue an order denying marketing authorization under the criteria set forth in § 1107.48. If the applicant's response to the notification of deficiencies provides the information FDA requested, but FDA identifies additional deficiencies, FDA may issue an additional deficiency notification. Each response will begin a new 90-day review cycle.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inadequate response.</I> If the applicant's response to FDA's deficiency notification(s) does not provide the information FDA requested, or the applicant provides information but the SE Report is still deficient, FDA generally intends to issue an order denying market authorization under the criteria set forth in § 1107.48. At any time before FDA issues an order, an applicant may make a written request to withdraw an SE Report under § 1107.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.44" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.44   FDA action on an SE Report.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt of an SE Report, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(a) Refuse to accept the SE Report for review if it does not comply with § 1107.18 and § 1105.10 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) Request additional information as provided in § 1107.40(d);
</P>
<P>(c) Issue a letter administratively closing the SE Report if it is not possible to make a determination on an SE Report;
</P>
<P>(d) Issue a letter canceling the SE Report if FDA finds the SE Report was created in error;
</P>
<P>(e) Issue an order as described in § 1107.46 finding the new tobacco product to be substantially equivalent and in compliance with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
</P>
<P>(f) Issue an order as described in § 1107.48 denying marketing authorization because the new tobacco product is:
</P>
<P>(1) Not substantially equivalent to a tobacco product commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States on February 15, 2007, or
</P>
<P>(2) Not in compliance with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.46" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.46   Issuance of an order finding a new tobacco product substantially equivalent.</HEAD>
<P>If FDA finds that the information submitted in the SE Report establishes that the new tobacco product is substantially equivalent to a predicate tobacco product that was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States on February 15, 2007, and finds that the new tobacco product is in compliance with the requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, FDA will send the applicant an order authorizing marketing of the new tobacco product. A marketing authorization order becomes effective on the date the order is issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.48" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.48   Issuance of an order denying marketing authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FDA will issue an order that the new tobacco product cannot be marketed if FDA finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The information submitted in the SE Report does not establish that the new tobacco product is substantially equivalent to a predicate tobacco product that was commercially marketed (other than for test marketing) in the United States on February 15, 2007; or
</P>
<P>(2) The new tobacco product is not in compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basis for order.</I> The order will describe the basis for denying marketing authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.50   Rescission of order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for rescinding a substantially equivalent order.</I> FDA may rescind a substantially equivalent order allowing a new tobacco product to be marketed if FDA determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The tobacco product for which the order has been issued:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not have the same characteristics as the predicate tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has different characteristics and there is insufficient information demonstrating that it is not appropriate to require a premarket tobacco product application under section 910(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because the product does not raise different questions of public health; or
</P>
<P>(2) The SE Report (including any submitted amendments) contains an untrue statement of material fact; or
</P>
<P>(3) Concerning an SE Report that compared the new tobacco product to a tobacco product that FDA previously found substantially equivalent,
</P>
<P>(i) The predicate tobacco product relied on in the SE Report has been found ineligible because its SE Report (including any amendments) contains an untrue statement of material fact; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A predicate tobacco product on which any of the previous substantial equivalence determinations was based, going back to the original predicate tobacco product, has been found ineligible because its SE Report (including any amendments) contains an untrue statement of material fact; or
</P>
<P>(4) FDA or the applicant has removed from the market, due to a health or safety concern related to the tobacco product:
</P>
<P>(i) The predicate tobacco product on which the substantial equivalence determination is based; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A predicate tobacco product on which any of the previous substantial equivalence determinations is based, going back to the original predicate tobacco product, if the substantial equivalence SE Report compared the new tobacco product to a tobacco product that FDA previously found substantially equivalent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opportunity for a hearing.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, FDA will rescind an order only after notice and opportunity for a hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may rescind a substantially equivalent order prior to notice and opportunity for a hearing under part 16 of this chapter if it finds that there is a reasonable probability that continued marketing of the tobacco product presents a serious risk to public health. In that case, FDA will provide the manufacturer an opportunity for a hearing as soon as possible after the rescission.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may rescind a substantially equivalent order without notice and opportunity for a hearing under part 16 of this chapter if the applicant has notified the Agency of a mistake in the application, FDA has determined that the mistake is part of the underlying scientific determination of the order which makes the order invalid, and the applicant has agreed that FDA can rescind the order without providing notice and opportunity for a hearing under part 16 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Miscellaneous</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 55275, Oct. 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1107.58" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.58   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant that receives an order under § 1107.46 authorizing the marketing of a new tobacco product must maintain all records required by this subpart and that support the SE Report for a substantial equivalence order. These records must be legible, in the English language, and available for inspection and copying by officers or employees duly designated by the Secretary. All records must be retained for a period of not less than 4 years from the date of the order even if such product is discontinued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.60   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FDA will determine the public availability of any part of an SE Report and other content related to such an SE Report under this section and part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality of data and information prior to an order.</I> Prior to issuing an order under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will not publicly disclose the existence of an SE Report unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The tobacco product has been introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged the existence of the SE Report (as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81 of this chapter), or has authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, that the applicant has submitted the SE Report to FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will not disclose the existence of or contents of an FDA communication with an applicant regarding its SE Report except to the extent that the applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged, or authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, the existence of or contents of that particular FDA communication.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will not disclose information contained in an SE Report unless the applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged, or authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, that particular information. If the applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged, or authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, that particular information contained in an SE Report, FDA may disclose that particular information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of data and information after issuance of an order under § 1107.46.</I> After FDA issues an order under § 1107.46 finding a new tobacco product substantially equivalent, it will make the following information related to the SE Report and order available for public disclosure upon request or at FDA's own initiative, including information from amendments to the SE Report and FDA's reviews of the SE Report:
</P>
<P>(1) All data previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Any protocol for a test or study, except to the extent it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Information and data submitted to demonstrate that the new tobacco product does not raise different questions of public health, except to the extent it is shown to fall within the exemptions established in § 20.61 of this chapter for trade secrets and confidential commercial information, or in § 20.63 of this chapter for personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(4) Correspondence between FDA and the applicant, including any requests FDA made for additional information and responses to such requests, and all written summaries of oral discussions between FDA and the applicant, except to the extent it is shown to fall within the exemptions in § 20.61 of this chapter for trade secrets and confidential commercial information, or in § 20.63 of this chapter for personal privacy; and
</P>
<P>(5) In accordance with § 25.51 of this chapter, the environmental assessment or, if applicable, the claim of categorical exclusion from the requirement to submit an environmental assessment under part 25 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure of data and information after issuance of an order under § 1107.48.</I> After FDA issues an order under § 1107.48 (denying marketing authorization), FDA may make certain information related to the SE Report and the order available for public disclosure upon request or at FDA's own initiative except to the extent the information is otherwise exempt from disclosure under part 20 of this chapter. Information FDA may disclose includes the tobacco product category (<I>e.g.,</I> cigarette), tobacco product subcategory (<I>e.g.,</I> filtered), package size, and the basis for the order denying marketing authorization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Health information summary or statement.</I> Health information required by section 910(a)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, if submitted as part of the SE Report (which includes any amendments), will be disclosed within 30 calendar days of issuing a substantially equivalent order. If the applicant has instead submitted a 910(a)(4) statement as provided in § 1107.18(j)(2), FDA will make publicly available on FDA's website the responsible official to whom a request for health information may be made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1107.62" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.48.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1107.62   Electronic submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electronic format requirement.</I> Applicants submitting any documents to the Agency under this part must provide all required information to FDA using the Agency's electronic system, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. The SE Report and all supporting information must be in an electronic format that FDA can process, read, review, and archive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers from electronic format requirement.</I> An applicant may submit a written request that is legible and written in English, to the Center for Tobacco Products asking that FDA waive the requirement for electronic format and content. Waivers will be granted if use of electronic means is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver. To request a waiver, applicants can send the written request to the address included on our website (<I>www.fda.gov/tobaccoproducts</I>). The request must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant, list of individuals authorized for the applicant to serve as the contact person, and contact information including an email address. If the applicant has submitted an SE Report previously, the regulatory correspondence must also include any identifying information for the previous submission.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that creation and/or submission of information in electronic format is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver, and an explanation of why creation and/or submission in electronic format is not reasonable. This statement must be signed by the applicant or by an employee of the applicant who is authorized to make the declaration on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Paper submission.</I> An applicant who has obtained a waiver from filing electronically must send a written SE Report through the Document Control Center to the address provided in the FDA documentation granting the waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1114" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1114—PREMARKET TOBACCO PRODUCT APPLICATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371, 374, 387a, 387i, 387j; Pub. L. 117-103, 136 Stat. 49.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 55412, Oct. 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the procedures and requirements for submitting a premarket tobacco product application (PMTA), the general procedures FDA will follow when evaluating a PMTA, and postmarket reporting requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to modified risk tobacco product applications, except that single applications seeking both a marketing granted order under section 910(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and an order under section 911(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act must satisfy the requirements of this part in addition to the requirements of section 911 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to “premium” cigars as defined in § 1114.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accessory</I> means any product that is intended or reasonably expected to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product; does not contain tobacco and is not made or derived from tobacco; and meets either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not intended or reasonably expected to affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is intended or reasonably expected to affect or maintain the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product, but:
</P>
<P>(i) Solely controls moisture and/or temperature of a stored tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Solely provides an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Additive</I> means any substance the intended use of which results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristic of any tobacco product (including any substances intended for use as a flavoring or coloring or in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting, or holding), except that such term does not include tobacco, or a pesticide chemical residue in or on raw tobacco or a pesticide chemical.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse experience</I> means any unfavorable physical or psychological effect in a person that is temporally associated with the use of or exposure to a tobacco product, whether or not the person uses the tobacco product, and whether or not the effect is considered to be related to the use of or exposure to the tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any person that submits a premarket tobacco product application to receive a marketing granted order for a new tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Brand</I> means a variety of tobacco product distinguished by the tobacco used, tar content, nicotine content, flavoring used, size, filtration, packaging, logo, registered trademark, brand name(s), identifiable pattern of colors, or any combination of such attributes.
</P>
<P><I>Characteristics</I> means the materials, ingredients, design, composition, heating source, or other features of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Commercially marketed</I> means selling or offering for sale a tobacco product in the United States to consumers or to any person for the eventual purchase by consumers in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> or <I>part</I> means any software or assembly of materials intended or reasonably expected:
</P>
<P>(1) To alter or affect the tobacco product's performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics; or
</P>
<P>(2) To be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product. Component or part excludes anything that is an accessory of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Composition</I> means the materials in a tobacco product, including ingredients, additives, and biological organisms. The term includes the manner in which the materials, for example, ingredients, additives, and biological organisms, are arranged and integrated to produce a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Constituent</I> means any chemical or chemical compound in a tobacco product that is or potentially is inhaled, ingested, or absorbed into the body, any chemical or chemical compound in an emission (<I>e.g.,</I> smoke, aerosol, droplets) from a tobacco product, that either transfers from any component or part of the tobacco product to the emission or that is formed by the product, including through combustion or heating of tobacco, additives, or other components of the tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Container closure system</I> means any packaging materials that are a component or part of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Design</I> means the form and structure concerning, and the manner in which components or parts, ingredients, software, and materials are integrated to produce a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Finished tobacco product</I> means a tobacco product, including all components and parts, sealed in final packaging (<I>e.g.,</I> filters or filter tubes sold to consumers separately or as part of kits, or e-liquids sealed in final packaging sold to consumers either separately or as part of kits) or in the final form in which it is intended to be sold to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Harmful or potentially harmful constituent</I> or <I>HPHC</I> means any chemical or chemical compound in a tobacco product or tobacco smoke or emission that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is or potentially is inhaled, ingested, or absorbed into the body, including as an aerosol or any other emission; and
</P>
<P>(2) Causes or has the potential to cause direct or indirect harm to users or nonusers of tobacco products.
</P>
<P><I>Heating source</I> means the source of energy used to burn or heat the tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Ingredient</I> means tobacco, substances, compounds, or additives contained within or added to the tobacco, paper, filter, or any other component or part of a tobacco product, including substances and compounds reasonably expected to be formed through a chemical reaction during tobacco product manufacturing.
</P>
<P><I>Label</I> means a display of written, printed, or graphic matter upon the immediate container of any article.
</P>
<P><I>Labeling</I> means all labels and other written, printed, or graphic matter upon any article or any of its containers or wrappers, or accompanying such article.
</P>
<P><I>Line data</I> means an analyzable dataset of observations for each individual study participant, laboratory animal, or test replicate.
</P>
<P><I>Marketing denial order</I> means the order described in section 910(c)(1)(A)(ii) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act stating that the product may not be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Marketing granted order</I> means the order described in section 910(c)(1)(A)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act stating that the new tobacco product may be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means an assembly of ingredients. Materials are assembled to form a tobacco product or components or parts of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>New tobacco product</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any tobacco product (including those products in test markets) that was not commercially marketed in the United States as of February 15, 2007; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any modification (including a change in design, any component, any part, or any constituent, including a smoke constituent, or in the content, delivery or form of nicotine, or any other additive or ingredient) of a tobacco product where the modified product was commercially marketed in the United States after February 15, 2007.
</P>
<P><I>Other features</I> means any distinguishing qualities of a tobacco product similar to those specifically enumerated in section 910(a)(3)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Such other features include harmful and potentially harmful constituents and any other product characteristics that relate to the chemical, biological, and physical properties of the tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> or <I>packaging</I> means a pack, box, carton, or container of any kind or, if no other container, any wrapping (including cellophane), in which a tobacco product is offered for sale, sold, or otherwise distributed to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Premarket tobacco product application</I> or <I>PMTA</I> means the application described in section 910(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. This term includes the initial premarket tobacco product application and all subsequent amendments.
</P>
<P><I>“Premium” cigar</I> means a type of cigar that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is wrapped in whole tobacco leaf;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a 100 percent leaf tobacco binder;
</P>
<P>(3) Contains at least 50 percent (of the filler by weight) long filler tobacco (<I>i.e.,</I> whole tobacco leaves that run the length of the cigar);
</P>
<P>(4) Is handmade or hand rolled (<I>i.e.,</I> no machinery was used apart from simple tools, such as scissors to cut the tobacco prior to rolling);
</P>
<P>(5) Has no filter, nontobacco tip, or nontobacco mouthpiece;
</P>
<P>(6) Does not have a characterizing flavor other than tobacco;
</P>
<P>(7) Contains only tobacco, water, and vegetable gum with no other ingredients or additives; and
</P>
<P>(8) Weighs more than 6 pounds per 1,000 units.
</P>
<P><I>Serious adverse experience</I> means an adverse experience that results in any of the following outcomes:
</P>
<P>(1) Death;
</P>
<P>(2) A life-threatening condition or illness;
</P>
<P>(3) Inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization;
</P>
<P>(4) A persistent or significant incapacity or substantial disruption of the ability to conduct normal life functions;
</P>
<P>(5) A congenital anomaly/birth defect; or
</P>
<P>(6) Any other adverse experience that, based upon appropriate medical judgment, may jeopardize the health of a person and may require medical or surgical intervention to prevent one of the other outcomes listed in this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Submission tracking number</I> or <I>STN</I> means the number that FDA assigns to submissions that are received from an applicant, such as a PMTA and a supplemental PMTA.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product</I> means any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product). The term “tobacco product” does not mean an article that under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is: a drug (section 201(g)(1)); a device (section 201(h)); a combination product (section 503(g)); or a food (section 201(f)) if such article contains no nicotine or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product manufacturer</I> means any person, including a repacker or relabeler, who:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufactures, fabricates, assembles, processes, or labels a tobacco product, or
</P>
<P>(2) Imports a finished tobacco product for sale or distribution in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected adverse experience</I> means an adverse experience occurring in one or more persons in which the nature, severity, or frequency of the experience is not consistent with:
</P>
<P>(1) The known or foreseeable risks of adverse experiences associated with the use or exposure to the tobacco product as described in the PMTA and other relevant sources of information, such as the product labeling and postmarket reports;
</P>
<P>(2) The expected natural progression of any underlying disease, disorder, or condition of the persons(s) experiencing the adverse experience and the person's predisposing risk factor profile for the adverse experience; or
</P>
<P>(3) The results of nonclinical investigations.
</P>
<P><I>Vulnerable populations</I> means groups that are susceptible to tobacco product risk and harm due to disproportionate rates of tobacco product initiation, use, burden of tobacco-related diseases, or decreased cessation. Vulnerable populations can include, but are not limited to, youth and young adults, those with lower socioeconomic status, certain races or ethnicities, sexual or gender minorities, underserved rural populations, those pregnant or trying to become pregnant, those in the military or veterans, and those with mental health conditions or substance use disorders.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 55412, Oct. 4, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 16553, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Premarket Tobacco Product Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.5   Application submission.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may submit a PMTA to demonstrate that a new tobacco product meets the requirements to receive a marketing granted order. A new tobacco product may not be introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce under this part until FDA has issued a marketing granted order for the product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.7   Required content and format.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The PMTA must contain sufficient information for FDA to determine whether any of the grounds for marketing denial order specified in section 910(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply. The application must contain the following sections:
</P>
<P>(1) General information (as described in paragraph (c) of this section);
</P>
<P>(2) Descriptive information (as described in paragraph (d) of this section);
</P>
<P>(3) Product samples (as described in paragraph (e) of this section);
</P>
<P>(4) Labeling and description of marketing plans (as described in paragraph (f) of this section);
</P>
<P>(5) Statement of compliance with 21 CFR part 25 (as described in paragraph (g) of this section);
</P>
<P>(6) Summary (as described in paragraph (h) of this section);
</P>
<P>(7) Product formulation (as described in paragraph (i) of this section);
</P>
<P>(8) Manufacturing (as described in paragraph (j) of this section);
</P>
<P>(9) Health risk investigations (as described in paragraph (k) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(10) The effect on the population as a whole (as described in paragraph (l) of this section);
</P>
<P>(11) Certification statement (as described in paragraph (m) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format.</I> (1) The application must be submitted using the form(s) that FDA provides, contain a comprehensive index (<I>i.e.,</I> a listing of files and data associated with those files) and table of contents, be well-organized and legible, and be written in English. Documents that have been translated from another language into English (<I>e.g.,</I> original study documents written in a language other than English) must be accompanied by: The original language version of the document, signed a statement by an authorized representative of the manufacturer certifying that the English language translation is complete and accurate, and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person that made the translation. As described in § 1114.49, the applicant must submit the application and all information supporting the application in an electronic format that FDA can process, read, review, and archive, unless FDA has granted a waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant may include content in a submission by cross-reference to a tobacco product master file or a pending modified risk tobacco product application for the same tobacco product. Applicants using a master file must provide documentation of their right of reference for the master file and clearly identify the specific content being incorporated into the PMTA submission. Except as provided for in §§ 1114.15 and 1114.17, FDA will not consider content included by cross-reference to other sources of information outside of the submission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General information.</I> The applicant must, by using the form(s) FDA provides, specify the following general information:
</P>
<P>(1) Applicant name, address, and contact information;
</P>
<P>(2) Authorized representative or U.S. agent (for a foreign applicant), including the name, address, and contact information;
</P>
<P>(3) The following information to uniquely identify the product:
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Product name(s), including brand and subbrand (or other commercial name(s) used in commercial distribution); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The product category, product subcategory, and product properties as provided in the following table. If the product does not have a listed product property, such as ventilation or characterizing flavor, the application must state “none” for that property.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tobacco product category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tobacco product subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product properties
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Cigarettes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Filtered</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 89.1 millimeters (mm), 100.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (e.g., none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Non-filtered</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">— Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (e.g., none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Roll-Your-Own Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Roll-Your-Own Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, pouch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.1 grams [g], 16.0 ounces [oz.]).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Rolling Paper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, booklet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 50 sheets, 200 papers).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 79.1 mm, 100.0 mm, 110.2 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Width (e.g., 28.1 mm, 33.0 mm, 45.2 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Cigarette Tube, Filtered</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 100 tubes, 200 tubes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (e.g., none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Cigarette Tube, Non-filtered</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 100 tubes, 200 tubes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Filter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 100 filters, 200 filters).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 8.0 mm, 12.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) Paper Tip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 200 tips, 275 tips).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 12.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Width (e.g., 27.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">7</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 200 tips, 100 filters, 200 tubes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Smokeless Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Moist Snuff, Loose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.0 g, 2.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable, e.g., fine cut, long cut, straight cut).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Moist Snuff, Portioned</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 22.5 g, 20.0 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (e.g., 15 pouches, 20 pieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (e.g., 1.5 g/pouch, 1.0 g/piece).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (e.g., 15.0 mm, 20.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (e.g., 10.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (e.g., 5.0 mm, 7.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Snus, Loose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.0 g, 2.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Snus, Portioned</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 22.5 g, 20.0 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (e.g., 15 pouches, 20 pieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (e.g., 1.5 g/pouch, 1.0 g/piece).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (e.g., 15.0 mm, 20.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (e.g., 10.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (e.g., 5.0 mm, 7.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Dry Snuff, Loose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.0 g, 2.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) Dissolvable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 22.5 g, 20.0 g)
<br/>—Portion count (e.g., 15 sticks, 20 pieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (e.g., 1.5 g/strip, 1.0 g/piece).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (e.g., 10.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (e.g., 5.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (e.g., 3.0 mm, 4.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">7</E>) Chewing Tobacco, Loose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, pouch, wrapped).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.0 g, 3.1 oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">8</E>) Chewing Tobacco, Portioned</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 22.5 g, 20.0 g)
<br/>—Portion count (e.g., 10 bits).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (e.g., 2.1 g/bit).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (e.g., 8.0 mm, 10.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (e.g., 5.1 mm, 7.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">9</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box, can).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.1 g, 22.5 g, 3.0 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry, wintergreen, tobacco).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Electronic Nicotine Delivery System (ENDS) (Also referred to as vapes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) E-Liquid, Open</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bottle, box, pod).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 bottle, 5 bottles).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (e.g., 0.5 milliliters [ml]), 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Nicotine concentration (e.g., 0 milligrams/milliliter [mg/ml], 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/bottle).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Propylene glycol (PG)/vegetable glycerin (VG) ratio (e.g., not applicable [N/A], 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) E-Liquid, Closed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., cartridge, pod).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 cartridge, 5 cartridges).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (e.g., 0.5 ml, 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Nicotine concentration (e.g., 0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 2.0 mg/bottle).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PG/VG ratio (e.g., N/A, 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) E-Cigarette, Closed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 e-cigarette, 5 e-cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (e.g., 100 watts [W], 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (e.g., 100 milliampere hours [mAh], 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (e.g., 0.5 ml, 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Nicotine concentration (e.g., 0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/e-cigarette).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PG/VG ratio (e.g., N/A, 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) E-Cigarette, Open</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 e-cigarette, 5 e-cigarettes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—E-liquid volume (e.g., 0.5 ml, 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (e.g., 100 W, 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (e.g., 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) ENDS Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g.,1 coil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) ENDS Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 e-cigarette, 5 bottles).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, cherry, wintergreen, tobacco, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) Cigars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Cigar, Filtered Sheet-Wrapped</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20 filtered cigars, 25 filtered cigars).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (e.g., none, 0%, 10.0%, 25.0%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Cigar, Unfiltered Sheet-Wrapped</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, film sleeve).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 cigar, 5 cigarillos).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 100.1 mm, 140.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 8.0 mm, 10.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Tip (e.g., none, wood tips, plastic tips).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Cigar, Unfiltered Leaf-Wrapped</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, film, sleeve, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 cigar, 5 cigars).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 150.1 mm, 200.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 8.0 mm, 10.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wrapper material (e.g., burley tobacco leaf, Connecticut shade grown tobacco leaf).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (e.g., none, whiskey).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Cigar Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, booklet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 10 wrappers, 20 leaves).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (e.g., none, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Cigar Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, pouch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.0 g, 16.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor (e.g., none, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">6</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, booklet).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 cigar, 5 cigars, 20 leaves, 16 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) Pipe Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Pipe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 pipe).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 200.0 mm, 300.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 25.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cavendish, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Pipe Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.0 g, 16.1 oz).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Tobacco cut style (e.g., standard cut, such as shag cut, bugler cut, loose cut, etc., or a pressed cut, such as flake, cube cut, roll cake, etc., or a mixture).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cavendish, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Pipe Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 bowl, 1 stem, 100 filters).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 pipe, 1 bowl, 1 stem, 100 filters).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(G) Waterpipe Tobacco Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Waterpipe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 waterpipe).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Height (e.g., 200.0 mm, 500.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Width (e.g., 100.1 mm, 300.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 100.1 mm, 300.0 mm)—Number of hoses (e.g., 1, 2, 4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Waterpipe Tobacco Filler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, pouch).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20.0 g, 16.1 oz.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, apple).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) Waterpipe Heat Source</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, film sleeve, bag, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 150.0 g, 680.0 g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion count (e.g., 20 fingers, 10 discs, 1 base).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion mass (e.g., 15.0 g/finger, 10.0g/brick).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion length (e.g., 40.0 mm, 100.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion width (e.g., 10.0 mm, 40.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Portion thickness (e.g., 10.0 mm, 40.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Source of energy (e.g., charcoal, battery, electrical).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, apple).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Waterpipe Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 base, 1 bowl, 1 hose, 10 mouthpieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Waterpipe Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., bag, box, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 base, 1 bowl, 1 hose, 10 mouthpieces).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(H) Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Closed HTP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 device, 1 HTP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (e.g., 100 W, 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (e.g., 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Open HTP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 device, 1 HTP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Wattage (e.g., 100 W, 200 W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Battery capacity (e.g., 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) HTP Consumable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., hard pack, soft pack, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 20 sticks, 25 cartridges).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Length (e.g., 60.0 mm, 82.0 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Diameter (e.g., 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Ventilation (e.g., none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) HTP Component</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, none, plastic clamshell).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 mouthpiece, 1 spacer).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">5</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, bag, plastic clamshell, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 base, 5 capsules).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(I) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Package type (e.g., box, bag, plastic clamshell, none).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Product quantity (e.g., 1 base, 5 capsules).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Characterizing flavor(s) (e.g., none, tobacco, menthol, cherry).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) The type of PMTA (<I>i.e.,</I> PMTA, supplemental PMTA, or resubmission);
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the applicant requests that FDA refer the PMTA to the Tobacco Products Scientific Advisory Committee (TPSAC);
</P>
<P>(6) Identifying information regarding any prior submissions regarding the tobacco product (<I>e.g.,</I> submissions related to investigational tobacco products, substantial equivalence reports, PMTAs), including submission tracking numbers (STNs) where applicable;
</P>
<P>(7) Dates and purpose of any prior meetings with FDA regarding the new tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(8) If applicable, the dates when the tobacco product was commercially marketed in the United States;
</P>
<P>(9) Address and the Facility Establishment Identifier (FEI) number(s), if available, of the establishment(s) involved in the manufacture of the new tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(10) A brief statement regarding how the PMTA satisfies the content requirements of section 910(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(11) A brief description of how marketing of the new tobacco product would be appropriate for the protection of the public health; and
</P>
<P>(12) A list identifying all enclosures, labels, and labeling being submitted with the application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Descriptive information.</I> The application must contain descriptive information in this section that outlines the major aspects of the new tobacco product, including the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise description of the new tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement identifying all tobacco product standards issued under section 907 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act that are applicable to the new tobacco product and a brief description of how the new tobacco product fully meets any identified tobacco product standard, or if the new tobacco product deviates from a product standard, if applicable, the application must include adequate information to identify and justify those deviations;
</P>
<P>(3) The name(s) of the product as designated on the product's label;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of problems that were identified in prototypes that are the subject of studies in the application and previous or similar versions of the new tobacco product that were marketed, if any. If there are previous or similar versions that are the subject of studies in the application or were marketed, the application must contain a bibliography of all reports regarding the previous or similar version of the product, whether adverse or supportive; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any restrictions on the sale, distribution, advertising, or promotion of the new tobacco product that the applicant proposes to be included as part of a marketing granted order under section 910(c)(1)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to help support a showing that the marketing of the product is appropriate for the protection of the public health. If there are no proposed restrictions, the application must contain a statement to that effect.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Samples of new tobacco products.</I> After FDA accepts a PMTA for review, it may require the submission of samples of the new tobacco product, including its components and parts. If required, the applicant must submit samples of the finished tobacco product or its components or parts in accordance with instructions provided by FDA. FDA may also require the submission of additional samples to further aid in its review.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Labeling and description of marketing plans</I>—(1) <I>Labeling.</I> The application must contain specimens of all proposed labeling for the new tobacco product, including labels, inserts, onserts, instructions, and other accompanying information. The specimens of labeling must include all panels, reflect the actual size and color proposed to be used for the tobacco product, and include any warning label statements and other information required by regulation or statute, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Description of Marketing Plans.</I> A PMTA must contain a description of the applicant's plans to market the new tobacco product, for at least the first year the product would be marketed after receiving a marketing granted order, in way that is both consistent with the applicant's discussion of the increased or decreased likelihood of changes in tobacco product use behavior, including switching, initiation, cessation, and polyuse, under § 1114.7(l), and permits FDA to determine permitting the new tobacco product to be marketed would be appropriate for the protection of public health. The description must include actions to market the product that would be taken by the applicant, on behalf of the applicant, or at the applicant's direction, and also discuss any restrictions on the sales and distribution the applicant proposes to be included in a marketing order under section 910(c)(1)(B) of the Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act. The description of marketing plans must contain, at minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the specific group(s) to which the labeling, advertising, marketing, promotion, and other consumer-directed activities for the new tobacco product would be targeted (<I>i.e.,</I> the intended audience(s));
</P>
<P>(ii) A discussion of how the labeling, advertising, marketing, promotion, and other consumer-directed activities for the new tobacco product would be targeted to reach the intended audience(s) identified in paragraph (i) and what other group(s) would foreseeably be exposed to those materials and activities as a result;
</P>
<P>(iii) A discussion of, for individuals below the minimum age of sale, how access to the new tobacco product would be restricted and exposure to the labeling, advertising, marketing, promotion, and other consumer-directed activities would be limited; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A concluding summary describing how the applicant's plans for marketing the new tobacco product are consistent with the applicant's discussion of the increased or decreased likelihood of changes in tobacco product use behavior, including switching, initiation, cessation, and polyuse, under § 1114.7(l) and permits FDA to determine permitting the new tobacco product to be marketed would be appropriate for the protection of public health.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Statement of compliance with 21 CFR part 25.</I> (1) The application must contain an environmental assessment prepared in accordance with § 25.40 of this chapter, or a valid claim of categorical exclusion, if applicable. If the applicant believes that the action qualifies for an available categorical exclusion, the applicant must state under § 25.15(a) and (d) of this chapter that the action requested qualifies for a categorical exclusion, citing the particular exclusion that is claimed, and that to the applicant's knowledge, no extraordinary circumstances exist under § 25.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Summary.</I> The application must include a summary of all information contained in the application. The summary must include the following items, highlighting the effects on youth, young adults, and other relevant vulnerable populations:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the product formulation section of the application;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of the manufacturing section of the application;
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the health risk investigations section of the application, including all information regarding the following items, and identify areas in which there is a lack of information, where applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The health risks of the tobacco product to both users and nonusers of the product and whether the tobacco product may present less health risk than other tobacco products;
</P>
<P>(ii) The impact the product and its marketing will have on the likelihood of changes in tobacco use behavior, including cessation, switching, and polyuse, of tobacco product users;
</P>
<P>(iii) The impact the product and its marketing will have on the likelihood of tobacco use initiation by tobacco product nonusers;
</P>
<P>(iv) How users and nonusers perceive the risk of the tobacco product based upon its label, labeling, and advertising, to the extent that advertising has been studied;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether users are able to understand the labeling and instructions for use, and use the product in accordance with those instructions; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The impact of human factors on the health risks to product users and nonusers (as described in paragraph (k)(1)(v) of this section);
</P>
<P>(4) A concluding discussion describing how the data and information contained in the PMTA both constitute valid scientific evidence and establish that permitting marketing of the new tobacco product is appropriate for the protection of the public health, as determined with respect to the risks and benefits to the population as a whole, including users and nonusers of the tobacco product. This discussion must specifically describe the effects on youth, young adults, and other relevant vulnerable populations with an emphasis on populations that are most likely to use the new tobacco product. The summary must also identify any key or pivotal studies on which an applicant is relying to establish that permitting the marketing of the new tobacco product would be APPH.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Product formulation.</I> The application must contain a full statement of the components or parts, materials, ingredients, additives, constituents, properties, and the principle or principles of operation, of the tobacco product, including the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Components or parts, materials, ingredients, additives, and constituents.</I> The applicant must provide a full statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Components or parts.</I> The quantity, function, and purpose of, and, where applicable, target specification(s) of, each component or part in the product. Where the tobacco product contains software components, the applicant must provide:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the software or technology (<I>e.g.,</I> Bluetooth);
</P>
<P>(B) The purpose of the software or technology, such as monitoring where tobacco products are located, activated, or used;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the data collected by the software and how it will be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Materials.</I> For each material in the product, include:
</P>
<P>(A) The material name and common name(s), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The component or part of the tobacco product where the material is located;
</P>
<P>(C) The subcomponent or subpart where the material is located, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) The function of the material;
</P>
<P>(E) The quantities (including ranges or means and acceptance limits) of the material(s) in the new tobacco product (with any specification variation, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(F) The specification(s) (including quality/grades and suppliers) used for the new tobacco product (including any specification variations, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(G) Any other material properties to fully characterize the new tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Ingredients other than tobacco.</I> For ingredients other than tobacco in each component or part of the product, include:
</P>
<P>(A) The International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) chemical name and common name, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) number or FDA Unique Ingredient Identifier (UNII), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) The function of the ingredient;
</P>
<P>(D) The quantity of the ingredient in the tobacco product, with the unit of measure (including ranges or means and acceptance limits) reported as mass per gram of tobacco for nonportioned tobacco products and as mass per portion for portioned tobacco products (with any specification variation, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(E) The specification(s) (including purity or grade and supplier); and
</P>
<P>(F) For complex purchased ingredients, each single chemical substance reported separately.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Tobacco ingredients.</I> For tobacco ingredients in each component or part, include the following information or, if applicable, a statement that the product does not contain tobacco ingredients:
</P>
<P>(A) The type(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> Bright, Burley, reconstituted);
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity with the unit of measure (including ranges or means, acceptance limits) of each tobacco ingredient in the tobacco product reported as mass per gram of tobacco for nonportioned tobacco products and as mass per portion for portioned tobacco products (with any specification variation, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(C) The specification of tobacco used for the new tobacco product (with any specification variation, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(D) A description of any genetic engineering of the tobacco that impacts product characteristics.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Constituents.</I> Constituents, including HPHCs and other constituents, contained within, or emitted from (including its smoke or aerosol), the product, including any reaction product from leaching or aging, by providing:
</P>
<P>(A) The constituent names in alphabetical order;
</P>
<P>(B) The common name(s);
</P>
<P>(C) The Chemical Abstract Services number;
</P>
<P>(D) The mean quantity and variance with unit of measure;
</P>
<P>(E) The number of samples and measurement replicates for each sample;
</P>
<P>(F) A description of method procedure, method validation information and rationale for selecting each test method;
</P>
<P>(G) The name and location of the testing laboratory or laboratories and documentation showing that the laboratory or laboratories is (or are) accredited by a nationally or internationally recognized external accreditation organization;
</P>
<P>(H) Length of time between dates of manufacture and date(s) of testing;
</P>
<P>(I) Storage conditions of the tobacco product before it was tested;
</P>
<P>(J) Test data including test protocols, any deviation(s) from the test protocols, quantitative acceptance (pass/fail) criteria, and line data for all testing performed. Test data for combusted or inhaled products must reflect testing conducted using both intense and nonintense smoking or aerosol-generating regimens, where established; and
</P>
<P>(K) Complete descriptions of any smoking or aerosol-generating regimens used for analytical testing that are not standardized or widely accepted by the scientific community, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Container closure system.</I> A description of the container closure system, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Information describing how the container closure system protects and preserves the product from damage during transport, environmental contaminants, and potential leaching and migration of packaging constituents into the new tobacco product; and
</P>
<P>(B) Information describing design features developed to prevent the risk of accidental exposure, if any.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Statement of tobacco blending, reconstitution, or manipulation.</I> Information regarding tobacco blending, reconstitution, or manipulation, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other properties.</I> The applicant must provide a full description of the additional properties of the tobacco product that includes:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Product dimensions and construction.</I> The product dimensions and the overall construction of the product using a diagram or schematic drawing that clearly depicts the finished tobacco product and its components with dimensions, operating parameters, and materials.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Design parameters and test data.</I> (A) All final design parameters of the product, specifying nominal values or the explicit range of values as well as the design tolerance (where appropriate), including, but not limited to, the parameters specified in tables 1 to 22 of this paragraph as applicable. If a design parameter specified in tables 1 to 22 does not apply to the tobacco product, applicants must explain why the required design parameter does not apply or how an alternative design parameter would satisfy the required design parameter. If the product has additional design parameters that are not specified in tables 1 to 22, the application must contain a description of the design specifications as well as test data and processes to demonstrate that the design parameters and their associated processes are adequately controlled; and
</P>
<P>(B) A quantitative description of the performance criteria, including test protocols, line data, and a summary of the results, for each applicable intermediate and final design parameter and manufacturing step, that includes, but is not limited to the test data specified in tables 1 to 22 of this paragraph for the product category as applicable. If the test data specified in the applicable table does not apply to the tobacco product, applicants must explain why the test data does not apply or how alternative test data would satisfy this requirement. Where tobacco cut size or particle size is a required design parameter for a product category or subcategory and the target specifications and range limits are not available, the following alternative information may be submitted in place of this information: a description of the tobacco cutting process (including a complete description of the milling, cutting, and sifting process; the control parameters of the miller or cutter; and any sift specifications), or the measured particle size distribution;
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Cigarettes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigarette length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigarette circumference or diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigarette paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigarette paper band porosity or permeability (CU) or Cigarette paper band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigarette paper length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigarette paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigarette paper band porosity (permeability) (CU) [alternatively, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)] (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (e.g., denier per filament, total denier, and filter density)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigarette paper band width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigarette paper band space (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (e.g., denier per filament, total denier, and filter density)).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tipping paper length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter ventilation (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Portioned and Nonportioned Smokeless Tobacco Products
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Portioned Smokeless Tobacco Products</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Portion length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Portion mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Portion width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Pouch material basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Portion mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Pouch material porosity (CU) (permeability) (L/m
<sup>2</sup>/s).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Portion material thickness (mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Nicotine dissolution rate (%/min).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Pouch material basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Pouch material porosity (permeability) (CU or L/m
<sup>2</sup>/s) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Nicotine dissolution rate (%/min).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Nonportioned Smokeless Tobacco Products</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI) or tobacco particle size (mm or micron).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (i)(2)(ii)—Required Design Parameter Information for RYO Tobacco Rolling Papers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Roll-your-own (RYO) paper length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RYO mass per paper (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RYO paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO mass per paper (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RYO paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RYO paper band porosity (permeability) (CU) or [alternatively, RYO paper band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)] (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper band porosity (permeability) (CU) or [alternatively, RYO paper band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)] (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper band space (mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for RYO Tobacco Tubes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube circumference or diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube paper band porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable) or Tube paper band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper band porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable) or Tube paper band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper band space (mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for RYO Tobacco Filtered Tubes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube circumference or diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tube paper band porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable) or Tube paper band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Nonfilter tube length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper base paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper band porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable) or Tube paper band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tube paper band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter efficiency (%) (If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigarette filter is unchanged (e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>))).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tipping paper length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter ventilation (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for RYO Tobacco
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (mm or CPI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for RYO Tobacco Paper Tips
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper tip length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RYO paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper tip width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RYO paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper tip mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RYO paper tip ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper base paper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• RYO paper tip ventilation (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Filtered Sheet-Wrapped Cigars
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Puff count.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar binder porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar overall diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar minimum diameter (mm) if applicable.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar maximum diameter (mm) if applicable.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper band porosity (permeability) (CU) [alternatively, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)](if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar binder band porosity (permeability) (CU) [alternatively, band diffusivity (cm
<sup>2</sup>/s)] (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper porosity (permeability) (CU).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter efficiency (%) (if no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigar filter is unchanged [e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>)]}.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper band porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder band porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter diameter (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter efficiency (%) {If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigar filter is unchanged [e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>)]}.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tipping paper length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter ventilation (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Unfiltered Sheet-Wrapped Cigars
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Puff count.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar overall diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar minimum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar maximum diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper porosity (permeability) (CU).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar binder porosity (permeability) (CU).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar tip mass (mg) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder porosity (permeability) (CU).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper band porosity (permeability) (CU) [alternately, band diffusivity (cm2/s)] (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder width (mm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar binder band porosity (permeability) (CU) [alternately, band diffusivity (cm2/s)] (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar tip length (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar tip inner diameter (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar tip mass (mg) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder band width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder band space (mm) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper band porosity or permeability (CU) [alternately, band diffusivity (cm2/s)] (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder band porosity (permeability) (CU) [alternately, band diffusivity (cm2/s)] (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Leaf-Wrapped Cigars
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Puff count.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Overall diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar minimum diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar minimum diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar maximum diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar maximum diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco filler mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco rod density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper width (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder width (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar binder basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Cigar Tobacco
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Cigar Wrappers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper width (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/cm
<sup>2</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cigar wrapper basis weight (g/cm
<sup>2</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Waterpipes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Hose length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Hose length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Hose materials.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Hose internal diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Hose internal diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Stem length (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Stem length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Stem internal diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Stem internal diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Base diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Base diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Base volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Base volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Base shape.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Water filter efficiency (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head height (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Water filter efficiency (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head top diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Hose air permeability (CU).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head bottom diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head height (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head top diameter (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head bottom diameter (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Number of holes.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating source type.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head materials.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Waterpipe Tobacco
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Waterpipe Heating Sources
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating element temperature range ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating element temperature range ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating element mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating element mass (mg).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating element density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating element density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating element resistance (ohms) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating element resistance (ohms) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Number of heating elements.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating element diameter (gauge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating element configuration.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery current rating (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating element diameter (gauge) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery capacity (mAh) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery current rating (mA) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery capacity (mAh) (if applicable)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery current operating range (amps) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Power delivery unit (PDU) temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery current operating range (amps) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Power delivery unit (PDU) voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Power delivery unit (PDU) temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PDU current operating range (amps) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Power delivery unit (PDU) voltage operating range (volts) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PDU wattage operating range (watts) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PDU current operating range (amps) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PDU wattage operating range (watts) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Waterpipe Foil
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Foil length (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Foil length (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Foil width (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Foil width (mm) (for square or rectangular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Diameter (mm) (for circular shape foil).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Diameter (mm) (for circular shape foil).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Foil thickness (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Foil thickness (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Number of holes.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Diameter of the holes (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Diameter of the holes (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Waterpipe Head
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head height (mm),</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head height (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head top diameter (mm),</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head top diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head bottom diameter (mm),</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head bottom diameter (mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Number of holes,</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head volume (mm
<sup>3</sup>),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Head materials,</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Pipes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Bowl chamber cover outer diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Bowl chamber volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Bowl chamber cover inner diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Pipe pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Draught hole diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Air flow through air valve (cc/min).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Screen (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Airway volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Draught hole shape.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Draught hole location.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter efficiency (%) {If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigar filter is unchanged [e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>)]}.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Bowl chamber hole shape.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Bowl chamber volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Airway volume (cm
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Stem length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Stem diameter (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Shank length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Shank diameter (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Draught hole dimension.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Pressure drop through air valve (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Air flow through air valve (cc/min).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter efficiency (%) {If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigar filter is unchanged [e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>)]}.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 20 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Pipe Tobacco
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 21 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for ENDS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols,
<br/>quantitative acceptance criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Puff count (for full tank/cartridge).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Atomizer tank/cartridge volume (mL).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Puff count (for full tank/cartridge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Number of heating elements (e.g., coil).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Atomizer tank/cartridge volume (mL).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating Element diameter (gauge).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating Element diameter (gauge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating Element length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating Element resistance (Ohms).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating Element resistance (Ohms).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating Element temperature range ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating Element temperature range ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating Element configuration (target only).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery voltage operating range (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PDU voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery current operating range (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PDU current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery Capacity (mAh).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PDU wattage operating range (watts).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery Nominal Voltage (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PDU Current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery Current rating (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery Capacity (mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery Nominal Voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery end of discharge voltage (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery Current rating (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery maximum charging current (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery maximum discharging current (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery maximum charging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Power Delivery Unit (PDU) voltage operating range (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery maximum discharging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PDU current operating range (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PDU wattage operating range (watts).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PDU Current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PDU Temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Ventilation (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 22 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for E-liquids
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• E-liquid volume (ml).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• E-liquid volume (ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Count median diameter (nm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Count median diameter (nm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 23 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Required Design Parameter Information for Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide target specification with upper and lower range limits for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provide test data (include test protocols, quantitative acceptance
<br/>criteria, data sets, and a summary of the results) for:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Overall Product.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Overall Product.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Mass (mg).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Length (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Puff count (for full tank/cartridge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Width (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Product volume (mL).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Height (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Diameter (mm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Draw resistance (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>0).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Operational Temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Puff Count (for full tank/cartridge).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Temperature sensor (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Puff volume (mL).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Material wrapper length (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Product volume (mL).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Material wrapper width (mm) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Airflow rate (L/min) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Material wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Ventilation (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Material porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Operational Temperature ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Heating element.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Temperature sensor (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Heating Element diameter (gauge).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Material wrapper length (mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Heating Element resistance (Ohms).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Material wrapper width (mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Heating Element temperature range ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Material wrapper basis weight (g/m
<sup>2</sup>) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• E-liquid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Material porosity (permeability) (CU) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Heating element.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ E-liquid volume (ml).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element source/type/approach (electrical, carbon, aerosol, etc.).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Tobacco (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element temperature range ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Tobacco moisture (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element operational temperature ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element maximum temperature (boost temperature) ( °C).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Tobacco density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element material.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Battery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element Configuration (i.e., the shape and design of the heating element. If the heating element is a coil, it is the shape and arrangement of the coil. If the heating element is a novel design, provide the configuration and its design targets.).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element mass (mg).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating element location.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Number of heating elements (e.g., coil) (dimensionless).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating Element diameter (gauge) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery current operating range (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Heating Element resistance (Ohms) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ PDU voltage operating range (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Tobacco/E-liquid.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ PDU current operating range (mA) PCO wattage operating range (W).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Tobacco mass (mg) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Tobacco density (g/cm
<sup>3</sup>) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ PDU Current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Tobacco moisture or oven volatiles (%) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ PDU temperature cut-off ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Tobacco cut size (CPI or mm) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery Capacity (mAh).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ E-liquid volume (mL) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery Nominal Voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ E-liquid viscosity (at 20 °C) (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery Current rating (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Battery (if applicable).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery capacity (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery Voltage Operating Range (V) or Wattage (W).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery maximum charging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery Current Charging range (amps).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery maximum discharging current (mA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery Nominal Voltage (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery Current rating (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Aerosol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery charging temperature limits ( °C).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery discharge temperature limits ( °C).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery end of discharge voltage (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery maximum charging current (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Aerosol Particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery maximum discharging current (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Count median diameter (nm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Battery upper limits charging voltage (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Power Delivery Unit (PDU) voltage operating range (V).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Filter (if applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ PDU current operating range (mA).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Filter efficiency (%) {If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigar filter is unchanged [e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>)]}.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ PDU wattage operating range (watts).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Filter ventilation (%).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ PDU temperature cut-off ( °C) (if applicable)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> ○ Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ PDU Current cut-off (mA) (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Aerosol.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Inhaled aerosol temperature ( °C).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Aerosol Particle number concentration (#/cm
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Count median diameter (nm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Filter (if applicable).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Filter efficiency (%) {If no filter efficiency data is available for the products, include information sufficient to show that the cigar filter is unchanged [e.g., denier per filament (DPF), total denier (g/9000m), and filter density(g/cm
<sup>3</sup>)]}.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Filter pressure drop (mm H<E T="0732">2</E>O).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Filter length (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Filter diameter (mm).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">○ Filter ventilation (%).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Function.</I> How the product is intended to function.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Product pH and nicotine formulation.</I> The pH of the product and the formulation of nicotine in the product, if applicable, including the form (<I>e.g.,</I> unprotonated nicotine, nicotine salts) and quantity.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Fermentation process.</I> For smokeless tobacco products and tobacco products that contain fermented tobacco (including naturally fermented tobacco), information on the fermentation process, including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Description of the fermentation process;
</P>
<P>(B) Composition of the inoculum (starter culture) with genus and species name(s) and concentration(s) (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(C) Any step(s) taken to reduce endogenous microbes (<I>e.g.,</I> cleaning of product contact surfaces);
</P>
<P>(D) Specifications and test data for pH, temperature, moisture content, and water activity;
</P>
<P>(E) Frequency of aeration or turning (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(F) Duration of fermentation;
</P>
<P>(G) Added ingredients;
</P>
<P>(H) Method used to stabilize or stop fermentation (<I>e.g.,</I> heat treatment) (if applicable), including parameters of the method (<I>e.g.,</I> length of treatment, temperature) and method validation data; and
</P>
<P>(I) Storage conditions of the fermented tobacco prior to further processing or packaging and duration of storage (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Heat treatment process.</I> For tobacco products that are heat treated, the application must contain the following information regarding the heat treatment process:
</P>
<P>(A) Description of the heat treatment process;
</P>
<P>(B) Type of heat treatment;
</P>
<P>(C) Conditions of heat treatment, including time, temperature, and moisture; and
</P>
<P>(D) Method validation data, including microbial loads (including bacteria, spores, yeast, and fungi) and TSNAs before and after heat treatment.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Shelf life and stability information.</I> With the exception of applications for roll-your-own tobacco products and cigarettes that are not HTPs, the application must contain information on the stability of the tobacco product over the shelf life and including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The length of the shelf life, a description of how the shelf life is determined, and a description of how shelf life is indicated on the tobacco product, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) Stability data assessed at the beginning (zero time), middle, and end of the expected shelf life. If a tobacco product does not have a defined shelf life, provide stability data over a specified amount of time and a justification for why that time period is appropriate. Stability testing must be performed for the microbial and chemical endpoints as follows: Microbial content data, including total aerobic microbial count and total yeast and mold count; water activity; tobacco-specific nitrosamines (TSNAs) yields (total TSNAs, N′-nitrosonor-nicotine (NNN), 4-(methylnitrosamino)-1-(3-pyridyl)-1-butanone) (NNK)); and preservatives content.
</P>
<P>(C) Stability testing details for each microbial and chemical endpoint, including: The mean quantity and variance with unit of measures; the number of samples and measurement replicates for each sample; the methods used, including any deviation(s) from the methods, associated reference(s), and full validations reports for each method; the testing laboratory or laboratories and documentation showing that the laboratory or laboratories is (or are) accredited by a nationally or internationally recognized external accreditation organization; length of time between date of tobacco product manufacture and date(s) of testing; storage conditions of the tobacco product before it was tested; a statement that the testing was performed on a tobacco product in the same container closure system in which the tobacco product is intended to be marketed; and full test data (including quantitative acceptance (pass/fail) criteria, complete data sets, and a summary for the results) for all stability testing performed.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Product and packaging design risks and misuse hazards.</I> A review and assessment of reasonably foreseeable risks associated with the design of the tobacco product and its package that may occur during normal use of the tobacco product or during any foreseeable misuse of the product, including user error, which may cause illness, injury, or death not normally associated with the use of the tobacco product. The review and assessment must identify the measures taken to reduce or eliminate each risk associated with the design of the tobacco product and package.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Principles of operation.</I> The applicant must provide a full statement of the principle or principles of operation of the tobacco product, including full narrative descriptions of:
</P>
<P>(i) The way in which a typical consumer will use the new tobacco product, including a description of how a consumer operates the product, how long a single unit of product is expected to last (<I>e.g.,</I> total length of time of use to consume a unit, number of use sessions expected per unit), and, where applicable, how a consumer can change the product design and add or subtract ingredients;
</P>
<P>(ii) A justification for an applicant's determination of what constitutes a single unit of product as described in the PMTA; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the product incorporates a heating source, and if so, a description of the heating source.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Product testing and analysis information.</I> Each analysis required in this paragraph must be performed on test samples that reflect the finished tobacco product composition and design, and must be conducted using a sufficient sample size and number of replicates to substantiate the results of the type of testing conducted. Additionally, the applicant must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and location of the testing laboratory or laboratories and documentation showing that the laboratory or laboratories is (or are) accredited by a nationally or internationally recognized external accreditation organization;
</P>
<P>(ii) The length of time between dates of manufacture and date(s) of testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) The storage conditions of the tobacco product before it was tested;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of samples and measurement replicates for each sample;
</P>
<P>(v) A description of method procedure, method validation information and rationale for selecting each test method, including relevant voluntary testing standards, test protocols, quantitative acceptance criteria, line data, and a summary of the results;
</P>
<P>(vi) Reports of product formulation testing that include test protocols, quantitative acceptance criteria, line data, and a summary of the results, for each applicable design parameter; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Complete descriptions of any smoking or aerosol-generating regimens used for analytical testing that are not standardized or widely accepted by the scientific community, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Manufacturing.</I> The application must contain a full description of the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the design (including design validation and design verification, to assess whether the tobacco product, as manufactured, performs in accordance with design specifications), manufacture, packing, and storage of the tobacco product in sufficient detail to demonstrate whether the product meets manufacturing specifications, can be manufactured in a manner consistent with the information submitted in the application, and conforms to the requirements of any regulations issued under section 906(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of all manufacturing, packaging, storage, and control facilities for the product, including the facility name, address, and FEI number, if applicable, and a contact name and telephone number for a representative from each facility;
</P>
<P>(2) A narrative description, accompanied by a list and summary, of all standard operating procedures (SOPs) and examples of relevant forms and records for the following categories of information for all manufacturing, design controls, packing, and storage for the tobacco product:
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturing and production process activities at each establishment, including a description of each establishment, all production steps, and process controls, process specifications with relevant acceptance criteria, and monitoring and acceptance activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Managerial oversight and employee training related to the manufacture, processing, packing, and installation of the tobacco product, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitoring procedures and manufacturing controls for product design, product characteristics, and changes in products, specifications, methods, processes, or procedures, including a hazard analysis that details the correlation of the product design attributes with public health risk, as well as any mitigation strategies implemented;
</P>
<P>(iv) Activities related to identifying and monitoring suppliers and the products supplied (including, for example, purchase controls and product acceptance activities);
</P>
<P>(v) Handling of complaints, nonconforming products and processes, and corrective and preventative actions;
</P>
<P>(vi) Testing procedures carried out before the product is released to market, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A list and summary of any standards used for all testing methods;
</P>
<P>(B) Validation and verification activities for all test methods used to ensure that the tobacco product meets specifications;
</P>
<P>(C) Documentation of accreditation information for all testing laboratories;
</P>
<P>(D) Complete description of smoking or aerosol-generating regimes used for analytical testing, if any; and
</P>
<P>(E) Tobacco product specifications (including any physical, chemical, and biological specifications) and acceptance criteria for those specifications;
</P>
<P>(F) Reports of release testing performed on finished products to demonstrate conformity with established specifications, including test protocols, line data, and a summary of the results for each applicable testing.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Health risk investigations</I>—(1) <I>Study types.</I> The application must contain full reports of all information, both favorable and unfavorable, published or known to, or which should reasonably be known to, the applicant concerning investigations, including nonclinical and human subject studies regarding the following topics. If no substantive information exists regarding the topics specified in § 1114.27(b)(1)(ii), including information from published literature or that may be bridged from an investigation of another tobacco product, an applicant may need to conduct its own investigation(s) to ensure substantive information is included in the PMTA to meet the application filing requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Health risks of the product.</I> The potential health risks of the tobacco product to users and nonusers, including potential exposures and information regarding risks to youth, young adults, and other relevant vulnerable populations, and whether the product may present different risks than other tobacco products, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The health effects of the constituents, including HPHCs, at the quantitative levels delivered to both users and nonusers under the range of conditions under which the product might be used;
</P>
<P>(B) The toxicological profile of the new tobacco product related to the route of administration, including the genotoxicity, carcinogenicity, reproductive toxicity, immunotoxicity, acute toxicity, and repeat dose (chronic) toxicity of the new tobacco product relative to other tobacco products. The toxicological profile also includes information on the toxicity of the ingredients, additives, and HPHCs, relative to the route of administration and the range of potential levels of exposure resulting from the use of, or exposure to, the new tobacco product, including studies which discuss the toxicological effects of any leachables and extractables that can appear from the container closure system and the ingredient mixture, such as additive or synergistic effects;
</P>
<P>(C) The pharmacological profile of the new tobacco product, including the pharmacokinetics, pharamacodynamics, metabolism, and elimination profile, of any of the ingredients, additives, and HPHCs for the range of potential levels of exposure resulting from the use of, or exposure to, the new tobacco product relative to other tobacco products. The applicant must specify whether the studies were conducted in vitro, in vivo, ex vivo, or in silico; and
</P>
<P>(D) The health risks of the tobacco product compared to other tobacco products on the market, never using tobacco products, quitting tobacco product use, and using the tobacco product in conjunction with other tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Impacts on tobacco use behavior of tobacco product users.</I> How the product and its label, labeling, and advertising, to the extent that advertising has been studied, will affect the tobacco use behavior of tobacco product users, specifically considering youth, young adults, and other relevant vulnerable populations, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The abuse liability of the tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(B) How users actually use the product, including use topography, product use frequency, use trends over time, and how such use affects the health risks of the product to individual users;
</P>
<P>(C) The likelihood that users will use the product in conjunction with other tobacco products;
</P>
<P>(D) The likelihood that current tobacco product users will start using the product;
</P>
<P>(E) The likelihood that current tobacco users who adopt the product will switch to or switch back to other tobacco products that may present increased risks to individual health; and
</P>
<P>(F) The likelihood that current tobacco users who may have otherwise quit using tobacco products will instead start or continue to use the product.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Impacts on tobacco use initiation by nonusers, including youth, young adults, and other relevant vulnerable populations.</I> The impact of the tobacco product and its label, labeling, or advertising, to the extent that advertising has been studied, on tobacco use initiation by nonusers, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The likelihood that consumers who have never used tobacco products, particularly youth, young adults, and other relevant vulnerable populations, will initiate use of the tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(B) The likelihood that nonusers of tobacco products who adopt the tobacco product will switch to other tobacco products that may present higher levels of individual health risk; and
</P>
<P>(C) The likelihood that former users of tobacco products will re-initiate use with the tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Perceptions and use intentions.</I> The impact of the product and its label, labeling, and advertising, to the extent that advertising has been studied, on individuals:
</P>
<P>(A) Perception of the product;
</P>
<P>(B) Use intentions; and
</P>
<P>(C) Ability to understand the labeling and instructions for use and use the product in accordance with those instructions.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Human factors.</I> The impact of human factors on product risk, including discussion of use conditions, use environments, use related hazards, estimated use error risk, potential unintended uses, risk controls to ensure that harms and unintended consequences are minimized, and adverse experiences related to such uses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Literature search.</I> The applicant must conduct a literature search for each type of information described in paragraph (k)(1) of this section, and the application must contain a description of the literature search performed, including the databases searched and the date searched, search terms, reasons for inclusion or exclusion of documents, and the strategy for study quality assessment. The application must also contain a bibliography of all published studies and articles referenced in the application. If a literature search was performed and resulted in no information found, the application must contain a statement to that effect.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Study reports.</I> The full report of each study included in the application must describe the specific product studied and include the following items, where applicable and to the extent reasonably available. For applicable items not contained in the full report of an investigation, the applicant must contain a description of the actions taken to obtain the information and why the document is not reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(i) Full copies of any published articles and other reference materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of all actions taken to ensure the reliability of the study. For all studies, to the extent reasonably available or obtainable, the application must contain a certification that investigators do not have, or documentation fully disclosing, any financial conflicts of interest, such as the financial arrangements specified in the Financial Disclosure by Clinical Investigators regulation in part 54 of this chapter. Additionally, for nonclinical laboratory studies, the application must contain, for each study, documentation of all actions taken to ensure the reliability of the study, <I>e.g.,</I> documentation of whether the study was conducted in accordance with good laboratory practices, such as those specified in part 58 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Copies of all versions of protocols and amendments that were used in the study;
</P>
<P>(iv) Copies of all versions of investigator instructions, if any were produced in addition to the protocol;
</P>
<P>(v) The statistical analysis plan, including a detailed description of the statistical analyses used (including all variables, confounders, and subgroup analyses), the scientific rationale for the choice of sample sizes, and any amendments to the plan;
</P>
<P>(vi) Line data, including data definition files that include the names of the variables, codes, and formats in each dataset, and copies of programs and any necessary macro-programs used to create derived datasets, and the results included in the study reports;
</P>
<P>(vii) A list of sites and clinical investigators that conducted the study, including contact information and physical address(es);
</P>
<P>(viii) The location of all source data. If the site where the study was conducted has not maintained all of the source data, indicate where the data are located;
</P>
<P>(ix) The format of the records and data (<I>e.g.,</I> electronic or hard copy);
</P>
<P>(x) A list of all sites that had early termination and the reason for early termination, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(xi) A list of contractors who participated in the study, the role of each contractor, and the initiation and termination dates of the participation of each contractor;
</P>
<P>(xii) A signed full report of all findings;
</P>
<P>(xiii) For human subject studies:
</P>
<P>(A) All versions of study materials (<I>e.g.,</I> consent forms, questionnaires, stimuli) used;
</P>
<P>(B) All versions of case report forms used; and
</P>
<P>(C) Individual case report forms related to participant deaths, other serious and unexpected adverse experiences, withdrawals, and participant discontinuation where the study participant was exposed to the tobacco product that is the subject of the PMTA or similar products; and
</P>
<P>(xiv) For tobacco product perception and use intention studies that use advertising as stimuli, a statement describing whether the advertising used is representative of advertising that the applicant intends to use in marketing the product. If the advertising is not representative of the advertising an applicant intends to use in marketing the product, the applicant must describe whether the study results are still relevant to the likely impact of the advertising on tobacco product perceptions and use intentions.
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) <I>The effect on the population as a whole.</I> The application must contain an analysis and discussion of how the data and information contained in the application establish that permitting the tobacco product to be marketed would be appropriate for the protection of public health determined with respect to the population as a whole, including users and nonusers of the tobacco product. The analysis and discussion must integrate all of the information in the application regarding the product and its likely effects on health, and tobacco use behavior, including tobacco use cessation and initiation, to provide an overall assessment of the likely effect that the marketing of the tobacco product may have on overall tobacco-related morbidity and mortality.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Certification statement.</I> The application must contain the following certification, with the appropriate information inserted (as indicated by parenthetical italicized text), signed by an authorized representative of the applicant:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“I (<I>name of responsible official</I>) on behalf of the applicant, (<I>applicant name</I>), hereby certify that the applicant will maintain all records to substantiate the accuracy of this application for the period of time required in 21 CFR 1114.45 and ensure that such records remain readily available to FDA upon request. I certify that this information and the accompanying submission are true and correct, that no material fact has been omitted, and that I am authorized to submit this on the applicant's behalf. I understand that under section 1001 of title 18 of the United States Code anyone who knowingly and willfully makes a materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the Government of the United States is subject to criminal penalties.”</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.9   Amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FDA may request, or an applicant may submit on its own initiative, an amendment to a PMTA containing information that is necessary for FDA complete the review of a pending PMTA. An amendment must include the appropriate form and specify the STN assigned to the original submission and, if submitted other than at FDA's request, the reason for submitting the amendment. An amendment must also include the certification statement set forth in § 1114.7(m), with the appropriate information inserted, and signed by an authorized representative of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of an amendment.</I> Submission of an amendment may affect the timing of review of an amended submission as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the amendment is a major amendment (<I>e.g.,</I> an amendment that contains significant new data from a previously unreported study, detailed new analyses of previously submitted data, or substantial new manufacturing information), FDA will restart the 180-day review period after receipt of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA requests a minor amendment (<I>i.e.,</I> an amendment that is not a major amendment) and receives a written response submitting the requested amendment, FDA may pause the review period for the number of days elapsed between the date of the request and the date that FDA receives the written response.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to respond to amendment request.</I> If FDA requests an amendment and the applicant does not respond within the time period specified in FDA's request, FDA may consider the applicant to have submitted a request to voluntarily withdraw the pending PMTA under § 1114.11 and issue an acknowledgment letter notifying the applicant of the withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No amendment to closed or withdrawn application.</I> An applicant may not amend an application after FDA has closed the application through an action under § 1114.29 or it has been withdrawn under § 1114.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.11   Withdrawal by applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may at any time make a written request using the appropriate form to withdraw a PMTA that FDA has not acted on as described in § 1114.29. The withdrawal request must state:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the withdrawal is due to a health concern related to the tobacco product and, if so, a description of those concerns, including the extent, duration, and frequency of the health effects, and what gave rise to the concerns, such as reports of adverse experiences;
</P>
<P>(2) The application STN; and
</P>
<P>(3) The name(s) of the new tobacco product that is the subject of the application.
</P>
<P>(b) An application will be considered withdrawn when FDA issues an acknowledgement letter stating that the application has been withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(c) The application is an Agency record, even if withdrawn. FDA will retain the withdrawn application under Federal Agency records schedules. The availability of the withdrawn application will be subject to FDA's public information regulation in Part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.13   Change in ownership of an application.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may transfer ownership of a PMTA. At or before the time of transfer, the new owner and the former owner must submit information to FDA using the appropriate form as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The new and former owner must sign and submit a notice to FDA stating that all of the former applicant's rights and responsibilities relating to the PMTA have been transferred to the new owner. This notice must identify the name and address of the new owner and the PMTA transferred by tobacco product name(s) and STN.
</P>
<P>(b) The new owner must sign and submit a notice to FDA containing the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The new owner's commitment to agreements, promises, and conditions made by the former owner and contained in the application and marketing granted order, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The date that the change in ownership is effective;
</P>
<P>(3) Either a statement that the new owner has a complete copy of the application, including all amendments, the marketing granted order (if applicable), and any records that are required to be kept under § 1114.45, or a request for a copy of the application, including all amendments, and the modified risk order (if applicable) from FDA's files in accordance with part 20 of this chapter. In accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, FDA will provide a copy of the application to the new owner under the fee schedule in FDA's public information regulations in § 20.45 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) A certification that no modifications have been made to the tobacco product since the application, including amendments (if any), was submitted to FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.15   Supplemental applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supplemental PMTA submission.</I> Applicants that have received a marketing granted order for a tobacco product may, as an alternative format of submitting an application that meets the content requirements of § 1114.7, submit a supplemental PMTA to seek marketing authorization for modifications to such product, which result in a new tobacco product under section 910(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Supplemental PMTAs must include new information concerning modifications that create the new tobacco product but allow the applicant to satisfy the remaining application requirements by cross-referencing applicable content from the previously submitted PMTA for the original tobacco product. Applicants may submit supplemental PMTAs only for modifications that require the submission of limited new information or where specified in a rule under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act. Except as permitted in a rule under section 907 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, an applicant may not submit a supplemental PMTA where:
</P>
<P>(1) Modifications to the product that result in the new tobacco product require the submission of new information or revisions to the PMTA for the original product to the extent that reviewing a supplemental application for the new tobacco product would be confusing, cumbersome, or otherwise inefficient and submitting a standard PMTA under § 1114.7 would better facilitate review.
</P>
<P>(2) The marketing granted order for the original tobacco product has been withdrawn; or
</P>
<P>(3) The marketing granted order for the original tobacco product has been temporarily suspended or is subject to temporary suspension or withdrawal proceedings by FDA, except where authorized in writing by FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required format.</I> The supplemental PMTA must comply with format requirements of § 1114.7(b), except that an applicant must include certain content in a supplemental PMTA by cross-referencing a PMTA, or, where applicable, a supplemental PMTA, for an original tobacco product that is owned by that applicant, and may include other content by cross-referencing a tobacco product master file and postmarket reports for the original tobacco product. FDA will not consider content included by cross-reference to other sources of information outside of the submission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required content.</I> The supplemental PMTA must provide sufficient information for FDA to determine whether any of the grounds for denial listed in section 910(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to the application.
</P>
<P>(1) The application must contain the full text of all the information described in the following sections:
</P>
<P>(i) General information that identifies the submission as a supplemental PMTA (as described in § 1114.7(c));
</P>
<P>(ii) New product information (as described in paragraph (d) of this section);
</P>
<P>(iii) Statement of compliance with 21 CFR part 25 (as described in § 1114.7(g));
</P>
<P>(iv) Labeling (as described in § 1114.7(f)) if the labeling is not identical to the labeling submitted in the PMTA or postmarket reports for the original product;
</P>
<P>(v) Postmarket information (as described in paragraph (e) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Certification statement (as described in paragraph (f) of this section);
</P>
<P>(2) The application must include the following sections by cross-reference to the PMTA for the original tobacco product and contain any additional information that is necessary to supplement or update the cross-referenced information:
</P>
<P>(i) Descriptive information (as described in § 1114.7(d));
</P>
<P>(ii) Product samples (as described in § 1114.7(e));
</P>
<P>(iii) Labeling (as described in § 1114.7(f)) if the labeling is identical to the labeling that was submitted in the PMTA or postmarket reports for the original tobacco product;
</P>
<P>(iv) Summary of all research findings (as described in § 1114.7(h));
</P>
<P>(v) Product formulation (as described in § 1114.7(i));
</P>
<P>(vi) Manufacturing (as described in § 1114.7(j)); and
</P>
<P>(vii) Health risk investigations (as described in § 1114.7(k)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>New product information.</I> The application must contain a section that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Full descriptions of each modification to the product and comparisons to the original product version described in the previously authorized PMTA;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement as to whether the new tobacco product, if it receives a marketing granted order, will replace the original tobacco product, will be a line extension of the original tobacco product, or will be introduced as an additional product by the same manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(3) All data and information relating to each modification to the product that would be required in an application under § 1114.7; and
</P>
<P>(4) A concluding summary of how the new tobacco product meets the requirements to receive a marketing granted order, including how the data and information contained in both the supplemental PMTA and cross-referenced from the previously authorized PMTA constitute valid scientific evidence and establishes that the PMTA meets the requirements of section 910(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to receive a marketing granted order, including that permitting the new tobacco product to be marketed would be appropriate for the protection of the public health determined with respect to the risks and benefits to the population as a whole, including users and nonusers of the tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Postmarket reports.</I> (1) If an applicant has submitted postmarket reports for the original tobacco product, the applicant must include all such reports in the application by cross-reference.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant is required to, but has not yet submitted a postmarket report, the applicant must submit a report as part of its application that contains all of the information for the original tobacco product that would otherwise be required in a report under § 1114.41 covering the period of time from when it received a marketing granted order for the original tobacco product to when it submits the supplemental PMTA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Certification statement.</I> The application must contain the following certification, with the appropriate information inserted as indicated by parenthetical italicized text, signed by an authorized representative of the applicant: </P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“I, (<I>name of responsible official</I>), on behalf of (<I>name of applicant</I>), certify that (<I>new tobacco product name</I>) has a different (<I>describe each modification to the product</I>) than (<I>name of original tobacco product</I>) described in (<I>STN of the PMTA for the original product</I>) but is otherwise identical to (<I>name(s) of original tobacco product</I>). I certify that (<I>name of applicant</I>) understands this means there is no other modification to the materials, ingredients, design, composition, heating source, or any other feature of the original tobacco product. I also certify that (<I>name of applicant</I>) will maintain all records that substantiate the accuracy of this application and ensure that such records remain readily available to FDA upon request for the period of time required in 21 CFR 1114.45. I certify that this information and the accompanying submission are true and correct, and that I am authorized to submit this on the applicant's behalf. I understand that under section 1001 of title 18 of the United States Code, anyone who knowingly and willfully makes a materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the Government of the United States is subject to criminal penalties.”</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.17   Resubmissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An applicant may, as an alternative format of submitting an application that meets the content requirements of § 1114.7 or 1114.15 (if applicable), submit a resubmission to address deficiencies set forth in a marketing denial order. The resubmission must contain new information necessary to address application deficiencies and cross-reference applicable content from the PMTA that received the marketing denial order. An applicant may utilize the resubmission format for the same tobacco product for which FDA issued a marketing denial order or a new tobacco product that results from modifications to the product necessary to address the deficiencies described in a marketing denial order. An applicant may not submit a resubmission when:
</P>
<P>(1) It incorporates new information or revisions to the PMTA for the original product to the extent that reviewing a resubmission for the new tobacco product would be confusing, cumbersome, or otherwise inefficient and submitting a standard PMTA under § 1114.7 would better facilitate review; or
</P>
<P>(2) The marketing denial order states that the applicant may not submit a resubmission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required format.</I> The resubmission must comply with format requirements of § 1114.7(b), except that an applicant must include content in the resubmission by cross-referencing the PMTA, or, where applicable, supplemental PMTA, that received the marketing denial order. An applicant may also include content in a resubmission by cross-reference to a TPMF. FDA will not consider content included by cross-reference to other sources of information outside of the submission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required content.</I> The resubmission must provide sufficient information for FDA to determine whether any of the grounds for denial listed in section 910(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply to the application.
</P>
<P>(1) The application must include the full text of the information described in the following paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(i) General information that identifies the submission as a resubmission (as described in paragraph § 1114.7(c));
</P>
<P>(ii) Response to deficiencies (as described in paragraph (d) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Certification statement (as described in paragraph (e) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) The application must include the following sections from the PMTA that received a marketing denial order by cross-reference to the PMTA and contain all additional information, in full text or by reference to a tobacco product master file, that is necessary to supplement or update the cross-referenced information:
</P>
<P>(i) Descriptive information (as described in § 1114.7(d));
</P>
<P>(ii) Product samples (as described in § 1114.7(e));
</P>
<P>(iii) Labeling (as described in § 1114.7(f));
</P>
<P>(iv) Statement of compliance with 21 CFR part 25 (as described in § 1114.7(g));
</P>
<P>(v) Summary of all research findings (as described in § 1114.7(h));
</P>
<P>(vi) Product formulation (as described in § 1114.7(i));
</P>
<P>(vii) Manufacturing (as described in § 1114.7(j)); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Health risk investigations (as described in § 1114.7(k)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Response to deficiencies.</I> (1) The application must include a section that lists and provides a separate response to each deficiency described by FDA in the original marketing denial order, including all data and information necessary to complete each response, and that also addresses any applicant-identified deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(2) Where an applicant modifies the product in a way that would result in a new tobacco product under section 910(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in order to address the deficiencies, the application must also include:
</P>
<P>(i) A full description of each modification to the product and comparisons of that change to the original version of the product described in the previously submitted PMTA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All data and information relating to each modification to the product that would be required in an application under § 1114.7.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification statement.</I> The application must contain one of the two following certifications that corresponds to the application, with the appropriate information inserted as indicated by parenthetical italicized text, signed by an authorized representative of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Same tobacco product certification.</I> An application for the same tobacco product must contain the following certification:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“I, (<I>name of responsible official),</I> on behalf of (<I>name of applicant</I>), certify that this submission for (<I>new tobacco product name(s)</I>) responds to all deficiencies outlined in the marketing denial order issued in response to (<I>STN of the previously submitted PMTA</I>) and the new tobacco product described herein is identical to the product described in the previously submitted PMTA. I certify that (<I>name of applicant</I>) understands this means there is no modification to the materials, ingredients, design, composition, heating source, or any other feature. I also certify that (<I>name of applicant</I>) will maintain all records that substantiate the accuracy of this statement, and ensure that such records remain readily available to FDA upon request for the period of time required in 21 CFR 1114.45. I certify that this information and the accompanying submission are true and correct, and that I am authorized to submit this on the company's behalf. I understand that under section 1001 of title 18 of the United States Code, anyone who knowingly and willfully makes a materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the Government of the United States is subject to criminal penalties.”</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Different tobacco product certification.</I> An application for a different tobacco product than the original tobacco product that results from changes necessary to address the deficiencies must contain the following certification:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“I, (<I>name of responsible official</I>), on behalf of (<I>name of applicant</I>), certify that this submission for (<I>new tobacco product name(s)</I>) responds to all deficiencies outlined in the marketing denial order issued in response to (<I>STN of the previously submitted PMTA</I>) and the new tobacco product described herein has a different (<I>describe each modification to the product</I>) than (<I>name(s) of original tobacco product</I>) described in (<I>STN of the previously submitted PMTA</I>) but is otherwise identical to (<I>name(s) of original tobacco product</I>) described in (<I>STN of the previously submitted PMTA</I>). I certify that (<I>name of applicant</I>) understands this means there is no modification to the materials, ingredients, design features, heating source, or any other feature of the original tobacco product, except for the (<I>describe each modification to the tobacco product</I>). I also certify that (<I>name of applicant</I>) will maintain all records that substantiate the accuracy of this statement, and ensure that such records remain readily available to FDA upon request for the period of time required in 21 CFR 1114.45. I certify that this information and the accompanying submission are true and correct, and that I am authorized to submit this on the company's behalf. I understand that under section 1001 of title 18 of the United States Code, anyone who knowingly and willfully makes a materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the Government of the United States is subject to criminal penalties.”</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—FDA Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.25   Communication between FDA and applicants.</HEAD>
<P>During the course of reviewing an application, FDA may communicate with an applicant about relevant matters, including scientific, medical, and procedural issues that arise during the review process and inspections. These communications may take the form of telephone conversations, letters, electronic communications, or meetings, and will be documented in the administrative file in accordance with § 10.65 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.27" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.27   Review procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptance review.</I> (1) After an applicant submits a PMTA, FDA will perform an initial review of the PMTA to determine whether it may be accepted for further review. FDA may refuse to accept an application that:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not comply with the applicable format requirements in § 1114.7(b), § 1114.15, or § 1114.17 (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not administratively complete because it does not appear to contain the information required by § 1114.7 (excluding product samples), § 1114.15 or § 1114.17, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not pertain to a tobacco product subject to chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (as required by § 1105.10 of this chapter); or
</P>
<P>(iv) FDA can otherwise refuse to accept under § 1105.10.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA accepts an application for further review, FDA will issue an acknowledgement letter to the applicant that specifies the PMTA STN. If FDA determines that it will require product samples as part of the PMTA, it will send instructions on how and where to submit product samples, as described in § 1114.7(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA refuses to accept an application, FDA will issue a letter to the applicant identifying the deficiencies, where practicable, that prevented FDA from accepting the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing review.</I> (1) After accepting a PMTA, FDA will make a threshold determination of whether the application contains sufficient information to permit a substantive review. FDA may refuse to file a PMTA if any of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) The PMTA does not contain sufficient information required by section 910(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and by § 1114.7, § 1114.15, or § 1114.17, as applicable, to permit a substantive review of the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The application does not contain any substantive information, including information from published literature or bridged from an investigation of another tobacco product, regarding each of the following topics.
</P>
<P>(A) The health risks of the new tobacco product as described in either § 1114.7(k)(1)(i)(A), (B), or (C));
</P>
<P>(B) The health risks of the new tobacco product compared to the health risks generally presented by products in the same product category as well as products in at least one different category that are used by the consumers an applicant expects will use its new tobacco product (as described in a portion of § 1114.7(k)(1)(i)(D)).
</P>
<P>(C) The abuse liability of the new tobacco product (as set forth in § 1114.7(k)(1)(ii)(A));
</P>
<P>(D) How consumers would be expected to actually use the product, such as use frequency, use trends over time, and how such use affects the health risks of the product to individual users (as described in § 1114.7(k)(1)(ii)(B));
</P>
<P>(E) The potential impact that the marketing of the new tobacco product would have on the likelihood that current tobacco product users would change their tobacco product use behavior, such as starting to using the new tobacco product, using the product in conjunction with other tobacco products, or, after using the product, switching to or switch back to other tobacco products that may present increased risks to individual health (<I>i.e.,</I> any of the information set forth in either § 1114.7(k)(1)(ii)(C), (D), (E), or (F));
</P>
<P>(F) The impact of the tobacco product and its label, labeling, or advertising, to the extent that advertising has been studied, on tobacco product use behavior of current nonusers of tobacco products (<I>i.e.,</I> any of the information described in § 1114.7(k)(1)(iii));
</P>
<P>(G) The impact of the product and its label, labeling, or advertising, to the extent that advertising has been studied, on individuals' perception of the product and their use intentions (<I>i.e.,</I> any of the information described in § 1114.7(k)(1)(iv)); and
</P>
<P>(H) The ways in which human factors can affect the health risks of the new tobacco product (<I>i.e.,</I> any of the information described in § 1114.7(k)(1)(v));
</P>
<P>(iii) The PMTA contains a false statement of material fact;
</P>
<P>(iv) The PMTA is a supplemental PMTA that does not comply with § 1114.15; or
</P>
<P>(v) The PMTA is a resubmission that does not comply with § 1114.17.
</P>
<P>(2) If FDA refuses to file an application, FDA will issue a letter to the applicant identifying the deficiencies, where practicable, that prevented FDA from filing the application.
</P>
<P>(3) If FDA files an application, FDA will issue a filing letter to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application review.</I> (1) Except as described in this paragraph and § 1114.9(b), within 180 days of receipt of an application described in section 910(b)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act meeting the filing requirements set out in 1114.27(b), FDA will complete its review of the PMTA and act on the application.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA will begin substantive review of the application after it is filed under paragraph (b) of this section. FDA may communicate with the applicant as set forth under § 1114.25 to seek additional or clarifying information.
</P>
<P>(3) FDA may refer the PMTA or portions of the PMTA, upon its own initiative or applicant request, to TPSAC for reference and for the submission of a report and recommendation respecting the application, together with all underlying data and the reasons or basis for the recommendation.
</P>
<P>(4) FDA may conduct inspections of the applicant's manufacturing sites, and sites and entities involved with clinical and nonclinical research (including third parties and contract research organizations) to support FDA's review of the PMTA. Where an applicant prevents FDA from scheduling and conducting inspections that are necessary for FDA to complete its review of the PMTA in a timely manner, FDA may pause the 180-day review period for the number of days necessary to complete the inspection.
</P>
<P>(5) FDA may defer review of a PMTA for a new product that, if introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce, would be adulterated or misbranded due to the manufacturer or importer's failure to comply with user fee payment and reporting requirements under part 1150.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.29" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.29   FDA action on an application.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt of an application, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(a) Refuse to accept the application as described in § 1114.27(a);
</P>
<P>(b) Issue a letter administratively closing the application;
</P>
<P>(c) Issue a letter canceling the application if FDA finds that it mistakenly accepted the application or that the application was submitted in error;
</P>
<P>(d) Refuse to file the application as described in § 1114.27(b);
</P>
<P>(e) Issue a marketing granted order as described in § 1114.31; or
</P>
<P>(f) Issue a marketing denial order as described in § 1114.33.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.31" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.31   Issuance of a marketing granted order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will issue a marketing granted order if it finds that none of the grounds for denial listed in section 910(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply. A marketing granted order becomes effective on the date it is issued.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA may include, as part of the marketing granted order:
</P>
<P>(1) Restrictions on the sale and distribution of the product, including restrictions on the access to, and the advertising and promotion of, the tobacco product, to the extent that it would be authorized to impose such restrictions under a regulation issued under section 906(d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Any restrictions on the sales, distribution, advertising, and promotion of the new tobacco product that the applicant proposed to be included as part of a marketing granted order under section 910(c)(1)(B) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to support a finding by FDA that permitting the product to be marketed would be appropriate for the protection of the public health; and
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements to establish and maintain records, and submit postmarket reports under section 910(f) of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act in addition to those described in § 1114.41, including but not limited to information such as labeling, advertising, marketing, promotional materials, or marketing plans not previously submitted to FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.33" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.33   Issuance of a marketing denial order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> FDA will issue a marketing denial order if:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon the basis of the information submitted as part of the application and any other information before FDA with respect to the new tobacco product, FDA finds that any of the grounds for denial listed in section 910(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant does not permit an authorized FDA employee, at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner, an opportunity to:
</P>
<P>(i) Inspect the facilities and controls described in the application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Have access to, copy, and verify all records pertinent to the application,

which results in FDA finding that one or more of the grounds for denial specified in section 910(c)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of deficiencies.</I> The marketing denial order will, where practicable, identify measures to remove the application from deniable form.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.35   Withdrawal of a marketing granted order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for withdrawal.</I> FDA will withdraw a marketing granted order for a new tobacco product issued under this part if FDA determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) Any of the grounds for withdrawal under section 910(d)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act apply; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any postmarket requirement imposed by the marketing granted order or by this part has not been met, which results in FDA finding that one or more of the grounds for withdrawal specified in section 910(d)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advice and other information.</I> (1) FDA may seek advice on scientific matters from any appropriate FDA advisory committee in deciding whether to withdraw a marketing granted order.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may use information other than that submitted by the applicant in deciding whether to withdraw a marketing granted order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Informal hearing.</I> Prior to withdrawing a marketing granted order, FDA will offer the holder of the marketing granted order an opportunity for an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order issuance.</I> If the applicant does not request a hearing or, if after the part 16 hearing is held, the Agency decides to proceed with the withdrawal, FDA will issue to the holder of the marketing granted order an order withdrawing the marketing granted order for the new tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public notice.</I> FDA will give the public notice of an order withdrawing a marketing granted order for a tobacco product and will announce the basis of the withdrawal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.37" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.37   Temporary suspension of a marketing granted order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will temporarily suspend a marketing granted order if FDA determines that there is a reasonable probability that the continued distribution of such tobacco product would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, that is greater than ordinarily caused by tobacco products on the market.
</P>
<P>(b) Before temporarily suspending a marketing granted order of a tobacco product, FDA will offer the holder of the marketing granted order an opportunity for an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) If, after offering the holder of the marketing granted order an opportunity for a part 16 hearing, the Agency decides to proceed with the temporary suspension, FDA will issue an order temporarily suspending the marketing granted order for a tobacco product.
</P>
<P>(d) After issuing an order temporarily suspending the marketing granted order, FDA will proceed expeditiously to withdraw the marketing granted order for the tobacco product.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Postmarket Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.39" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.39   Postmarket changes.</HEAD>
<P>A marketing granted order authorizes the marketing of a new tobacco product in accordance with the terms of the order. Prior to the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of a new tobacco product that results from modification(s) to the product, an applicant must submit a new PMTA under § 1114.7 or a supplemental PMTA under § 1114.15 and obtain a marketing granted order for the new tobacco product, unless the new tobacco product can be legally marketed through another premarket pathway.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.41" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.41   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required reports.</I> Each applicant that receives a marketing granted order must submit to FDA all information required by the terms of the marketing granted order and by this section as described below. Each postmarket report must be well-organized, legible, and written in English. Documents that have been translated from another language into English (<I>e.g.,</I> original study documents written in a language other than English) must be accompanied by the original language version of the document, a signed statement by an authorized representative of the manufacturer certifying that the English language translation is complete and accurate, and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person that made the translation.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Periodic reports.</I> Each applicant must submit a periodic report to the Center for Tobacco Products (CTP) within 60 calendar days of the reporting dates specified in the applicant's marketing granted order for the life of the order and as may be required for the submission of a supplemental PMTA under § 1114.15. The report must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A cover letter that contains the PMTA STN, tobacco product name(s) (including the original name described in the PMTA if different), company name, date of report, and reporting period;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of all changes made to the manufacturing, facilities, or controls during the reporting period, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A comparison of each change to what was described in the PMTA;
</P>
<P>(B) The rationale for making each change and, if any, a listing of any associated changes; and
</P>
<P>(C) The basis for concluding that each change does not result in a new tobacco product that is outside the scope of the marketing granted order and will not result in a finding that the marketing granted order must be withdrawn or temporarily suspended under section 910(d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) An inventory of ongoing and completed studies about the tobacco product conducted by, or on behalf of, the applicant that are within the scope of § 1114.7(k) and that have not been previously reported;
</P>
<P>(iv) Full reports of information published or known to, or which should be reasonably known to, the applicant concerning scientific investigations and literature about the tobacco product that have not been previously reported, including significant findings from publications not previously reported;
</P>
<P>(v) A summary and analysis of all serious and unexpected adverse experiences associated with the tobacco product that have been reported to the applicant or that the applicant is aware of, accompanied by a statement of any changes to the overall risk associated with the tobacco product, and a summary of any changes in the health risks, including the nature and frequency of the adverse experience, and potential risk factors;
</P>
<P>(vi) A summary of sales and distribution of the tobacco product for the reporting period, to the extent that the applicant collects or receives such data, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Total U.S. sales reported in dollars, units, and volume with breakdowns by U.S. census region, major retail markets, and channels in which the product is sold;
</P>
<P>(B) The Universal Product Code that corresponds to the product(s) identified in the PMTA; and
</P>
<P>(C) Demographic characteristics of product(s) purchasers, such as age, gender, race or ethnicity, geographic region, and tobacco use status;
</P>
<P>(vii) A summary of the implementation and effectiveness of policies and procedures regarding verification of the age and identity of purchasers of the product; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A summary of all formative consumer research studies conducted (if any), among any audiences, in the formation of new labeling, advertising, marketing, or promotional materials, not previously submitted, including qualitative and quantitative research studies used to determine message effectiveness, consumer knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, intentions and behaviors toward using the products, and including the findings or these studies and copies of the stimuli used in testing;
</P>
<P>(xi) A summary of all consumer evaluation research studies conducted (if any), among any audiences, not previously submitted, to determine the effectiveness of labeling, advertising, marketing, or promotional materials and shifts in consumer knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, intentions, and behaviors toward using the products, and including the findings of these studies and copies of the stimuli used in testing;
</P>
<P>(xii) A summary of the creation and dissemination of the products' labeling, advertising, marketing, and promotional materials (if any), including a list of all entities involved and a description of their involvement, including a description of contractual agreements with such entities;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Specimens of all labeling and descriptions of all labeling changes that have not been previously submitted under section 905(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, including the date the labeling was first disseminated and the date when dissemination was completely terminated;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Full color copies of all advertising for the tobacco product that has not been previously submitted, and the original date the materials were first disseminated and the date when their dissemination was completely terminated;
</P>
<P>(xv) A description of the implementation of all advertising and marketing plans, not previously submitted to FDA, by channel and by product, including strategic creative briefs and paid media plans, and the dollar amount(s) and flighting of such plans, by channel and by product, including a description of any of the following activities that an applicant may have engaged in:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of competent and reliable data sources, methodologies, and technologies to establish, maintain, and monitor highly targeted advertising and marketing plans and media buys, including a list of all data sources used to target advertising and marketing plans and media buys;
</P>
<P>(B) Targeting of specific group(s) by age-range(s), including young adults, ages 21 to 24, and other demographic or psychographic characteristics that reflect the intended target audience, including the source of such data;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to individuals below the minimum age of sale, actions taken to restrict access to the products and exposure to the products' labeling, advertising, marketing, or promotion, or other consumer-directed activities;
</P>
<P>(D) Use of owned, earned, shared, or paid media to create labeling for, advertise, market, or promote the product;
</P>
<P>(E) Use of partners, influencers, bloggers, or brand ambassadors to create labeling for, advertise, market, or promote the product;
</P>
<P>(F) Consumer engagements conducted by the applicant, on its behalf, or at its direction, including events at which the products were demonstrated and how access was restricted to individuals at or above the minimum age of sale;
</P>
<P>(G) Use of public-relations or other communications outreach to create labeling for, advertise, market, or promote the products;
</P>
<P>(xvi) A summary of media tracking and optimization, by channel, by product, and by audience demographics (<I>e.g.,</I> age, gender, race/ethnicity, geographic region), including a summary of any real-time digital media monitoring and including a summary of implementation of any corrective and preventive measures to identify, correct, and prevent delivery of advertising to individuals below the minimum age of sale, not previously submitted;
</P>
<P>(xvii) An analysis of the actual delivery of advertising impressions, by channel, by product, and by audience demographics, that have not been previously submitted, and verified against post-launch delivery-verification reports submitted to the applicant from an accredited source, where applicable;
</P>
<P>(xviii) Additional information required to be reported under the terms of a marketing granted order (if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(xix) An overall assessment of how the tobacco product continues to be appropriate for the protection of the public health.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Serious and unexpected adverse experience reporting.</I> The applicant must report all serious and unexpected adverse experiences associated with the tobacco product that have been reported to the applicant or of which the applicant is aware to CTP's Office of Science through the Health and Human Services' Safety Reporting Portal or in another manner designated by FDA (if applicable) within 15 calendar days after the report is received by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDA review of postmarket reports.</I> (1) As part of its review of a postmarket report, FDA may require the applicant to submit additional information to enable it to determine whether a change results in a new tobacco product, or to facilitate a determination of whether there are or may be grounds to withdraw or temporarily suspend the marketing granted order.
</P>
<P>(2) FDA may notify an applicant that FDA has determined that a change described in a periodic report made under this section results in a new tobacco product outside the scope of the marketing granted order, requiring the submission of a new PMTA under § 1114.7 or a supplemental PMTA under § 1114.15 and issuance of a marketing granted order if the applicant seeks to market the new tobacco product, unless the new tobacco product can be legally marketed through a different premarket pathway.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.45   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Record retention by the applicant.</I> (1) Each applicant that receives a marketing granted order must maintain all records necessary to facilitate a determination of whether there are or may be grounds to withdraw or temporarily suspend the marketing granted order, including records related to both the application and postmarket reports, and ensure that such records remain readily available to the Agency upon request (including where records are maintained by a third party on an applicant's behalf). These records include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) All documents submitted to FDA as part of an application, periodic postmarket reports, and adverse experience reports;
</P>
<P>(ii) All documentation demonstrating whether each:
</P>
<P>(A) Nonclinical laboratory study was conducted in accordance with good laboratory practices that support the reliability of the results, such as the records described in part 58 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(B) Clinical investigator has any financial conflicts of interest that may be a source of bias, such as the documentation described in part 54 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) All other documents generated during the course of a study necessary to substantiate the study results, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Communications related to the investigation between the investigator and the sponsor, the monitor, or FDA; and
</P>
<P>(B) All source data for human subject and nonclinical investigations included in the application and postmarket reports, including records of each study subject's case history and exposure to tobacco products used in the investigation, including case report forms, progress notes, hospital records, clinical charts, X-rays, lab reports, and subject diaries; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of each complaint, and a summary and analysis of all complaints, associated with the tobacco product reported to the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) These records must be legible, in the English language, and available for inspection and copying by officers or employees duly designated by the Secretary. Documents that have been translated from another language into English (<I>e.g.,</I> original study documents written in a language other than English) must be accompanied by the original language version of the document, a signed statement by an authorized representative of the manufacturer certifying that the English language translation is complete and accurate, and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person that made the translation.
</P>
<P>(3) All records must be retained as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Records related to and including the PMTA must be retained for a period of at least 4 years from the date that the marketing granted order is issued.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records related to postmarket reports, including both periodic and adverse experience reports, must be retained for a period of at least 4 years from the date the report was submitted to FDA or until FDA inspects the records, whichever occurs sooner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record retention by FDA.</I> FDA will retain information submitted to it in accordance with Federal Agency Records schedules and will provide a copy to persons to whom such information may legally be disclosed on request under the fee schedule in FDA's public information regulations in § 20.45 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.47" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.47   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FDA will determine the public availability of any part of an application and other content related to such an application, including all data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the application, under this section and part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality of data and information prior to an order.</I> Prior to issuing an order under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA will not publicly disclose the existence of an application unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged (as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81 of this chapter), or has authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, that the applicant has submitted an application to FDA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) FDA refers the application to TPSAC.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, FDA will not disclose the existence or contents of an FDA communication with an applicant regarding its application except to the extent that the applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged, or authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, the existence or contents of that particular FDA communication.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, FDA will not disclose the existence or contents of information contained in an application unless the applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged, or authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, the existence or contents of that particular information. If the applicant has publicly disclosed or acknowledged, or authorized FDA in writing to publicly disclose or acknowledge, the existence or contents of that particular information contained in an application, FDA may disclose the existence or contents of that particular information.
</P>
<P>(4) If FDA refers an application to TPSAC, the contents of the application will be available for public disclosure, except information that is exempt from disclosure under part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of data and information after issuance of a marketing granted order.</I> After FDA issues a marketing granted order, it may make the following information related to the application and order available for public disclosure upon request or at FDA's own initiative, including information from amendments to the application and FDA's reviews of the application:
</P>
<P>(1) All data previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Any protocol for a test or study, unless it is shown to fall within the exemption established for trade secrets and confidential commercial information in § 20.61 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Information and data submitted to demonstrate that the new tobacco product is appropriate for the protection of public health, unless the information is shown to fall within the exemptions established in § 20.61 of this chapter for trade secrets and confidential commercial information, or in § 20.63 of this chapter for personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(4) Correspondence between FDA and the applicant, including any requests FDA made for additional information and responses to such requests, and all written summaries of oral discussions between FDA and the applicant, unless it is shown to fall within the exemptions in § 20.61 of this chapter for trade secrets and confidential commercial information, or in § 20.63 of this chapter for personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(5) In accordance with § 25.51(b) of this chapter, the environmental assessment or, if applicable, the claim for categorical exclusion from the requirement to submit an environmental assessment under part 25 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(6) Information and data contained in postmarket reports submitted to FDA, unless the information is shown to fall within the exemptions established in § 20.61 of this chapter for trade secrets and confidential commercial information, or in § 20.63 of this chapter for personal privacy
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure of data and information after the issuance of a marketing denial order.</I> After FDA issues a marketing denial order, FDA may make certain information related to the application and the order available for public disclosure upon request or at FDA's own initiative unless the information is otherwise exempt from disclosure under part 20 of this chapter. Information FDA may disclose includes, but is not limited to the tobacco product category (<I>e.g.,</I> cigarette), tobacco product subcategory (<I>e.g.,</I> filtered, combusted cigarette), package size, product quantity, characterizing flavor, and the basis for the marketing denial order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1114.49" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.49.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1114.49   Electronic submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electronic format requirement.</I> Applicants submitting any documents to the Agency under this part must provide all required information to FDA using the Agency's electronic system, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. The application and all supporting information must be submitted in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers from electronic format requirement.</I> An applicant may submit a written request, that is legible and in English, to the Center for Tobacco Products asking that FDA waive the requirement for electronic format and content. Waivers will be granted if use of electronic means is not reasonable for the applicant. To request a waiver, applicants can send the written request to the address included on our website (<I>www.fda.gov/tobacco-products</I>). The request must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant, a list of individuals authorized by the applicant to serve as the contact person and contact information. If the applicant has submitted a PMTA previously, the regulatory correspondence should also include any identifying information about the previous submission.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that creation and/or submission of information in electronic format is not reasonable for the applicant, and an explanation of why creation and/or submission in electronic format is not reasonable. This statement must be signed by the applicant or by a representative who is authorized to make the declaration on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Paper submission.</I> An applicant who has obtained a waiver from filing electronically must send a written application through the Document Control Center to the address provided in the FDA documentation granting the waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1140" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1140—CIGARETTES, SMOKELESS TOBACCO, AND COVERED TOBACCO PRODUCTS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.;</I> 21 U.S.C. 387a-1; Pub. L. 116-94, div. N, tit. I, subt. F, sec. 603, 133 Stat. 2534, 3123; Pub. L. 117-103, div. P, tit. I, subt. B, sec. 111(a), 136 Stat. 49, 789.










</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 13230, Mar. 19, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets out the restrictions under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act on the sale, distribution, and use of cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, and covered tobacco products. Section 1140.16(d) sets out restrictions on the distribution of free samples for cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, and other tobacco products (as such term is defined in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act).
</P>
<P>(b) The failure to comply with any applicable provision in this part in the sale, distribution, and use of cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, covered tobacco products, or other tobacco products renders the product misbranded under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29102, May 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish restrictions on the sale, distribution, and use of cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, and covered tobacco products in order to reduce the number of children and adolescents who use these products, and to reduce the life-threatening consequences associated with tobacco use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29102, May 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accessory</I> means any product that is intended or reasonably expected to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product; does not contain tobacco and is not made or derived from tobacco; and meets either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not intended or reasonably expected to affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is intended or reasonably expected to affect or maintain the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product but
</P>
<P>(i) Solely controls moisture and/or temperature of a stored product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Solely provides an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Cigarette.</I> (1) Means a product that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a tobacco product and
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets the definition of the term “cigarette” in section 3(1) of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Includes tobacco, in any form, that is functional in the product, which, because of its appearance, the type of tobacco used in the filler, or its packaging and labeling, is likely to be offered to, or purchased by, consumers as a cigarette or as roll-your-own tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Cigarette tobacco</I> means any product that consists of loose tobacco that is intended for use by consumers in a cigarette. Unless otherwise stated, the requirements applicable to cigarettes under this chapter also apply to cigarette tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> or <I>part</I> means any software or assembly of materials intended or reasonably expected:
</P>
<P>(1) To alter or affect the tobacco product's performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics; or
</P>
<P>(2) To be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product. Component or part excludes anything that is an accessory of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Covered tobacco product</I> means any tobacco product deemed to be subject to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act under § 1100.2 of this chapter, but excludes any component or part that is not made or derived from tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Distributor</I> means any person who furthers the distribution of a tobacco product, whether domestic or imported, at any point from the original place of manufacture to the person who sells or distributes the product to individuals for personal consumption. Common carriers are not considered distributors for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Importer</I> means any person who imports any tobacco product that is intended for sale or distribution to consumers in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means any person, including any repacker and/or relabeler, who manufactures, fabricates, assembles, processes, or labels a finished tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Nicotine</I> means the chemical substance named 3-(1-Methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)pyridine or C[10]H[14]N[2], including any salt or complex of nicotine.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> or <I>packaging</I> means a pack, box, carton, or container of any kind or, if no other container, any wrapping (including cellophane) in which a tobacco product is offered for sale, sold, or otherwise distributed to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Point of sale</I> means any location at which a consumer can purchase or otherwise obtain tobacco products for personal consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Retailer</I> means any person who sells tobacco products to individuals for personal consumption, or who operates a facility where vending machines or self-service displays are permitted under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Roll-your-own tobacco</I> means any tobacco product that, because of its appearance, type, packaging, or labeling, is suitable for use and likely to be offered to, or purchased by, consumers as tobacco for making cigarettes.
</P>
<P><I>Smokeless tobacco</I> means any tobacco product that consists of cut, ground, powdered, or leaf tobacco and that is intended to be placed in the oral or nasal cavity.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product,</I> as stated in section 201(rr) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in relevant part:
</P>
<P>(1) Means any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product); and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not mean an article that is a drug under section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; a device under section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; a combination product described in section 503(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or a food under 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if such article contains no nicotine or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29102, May 10, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 16553, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Prohibition of Sale and Distribution to Persons Younger Than 21 Years of Age</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.10   General responsibilities of manufacturers, distributors, and retailers.</HEAD>
<P>Each manufacturer, distributor, importer, and retailer is responsible for ensuring that the cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, or covered tobacco products it manufactures, labels, advertises, packages, distributes, imports, sells, or otherwise holds for sale comply with all applicable requirements under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29103, May 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.12   Additional responsibilities of manufacturers.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the other responsibilities under this part, each manufacturer shall remove from each point of sale all self-service displays, advertising, labeling, and other items that the manufacturer owns that do not comply with the requirements under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.14" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.14   Additional responsibilities of retailers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the other requirements under this part, each cigarette and smokeless tobacco retailer is responsible for ensuring that all sales of cigarettes or smokeless tobacco to any person comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) No retailer may sell cigarettes or smokeless tobacco to any person younger than 21 years of age;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section and in § 1140.16(c)(2)(i), each retailer must verify by means of photographic identification containing the bearer's date of birth that no person purchasing the product is younger than 21 years of age;
</P>
<P>(ii) No such verification is required for any person over the age of 29;
</P>
<P>(3) Except as otherwise provided in § 1140.16(c)(2)(ii), a retailer may sell cigarettes or smokeless tobacco only in a direct, face-to-face exchange without the assistance of any electronic or mechanical device (such as a vending machine);
</P>
<P>(4) No retailer may break or otherwise open any cigarette or smokeless tobacco package to sell or distribute individual cigarettes or a number of unpackaged cigarettes that is smaller than the quantity in the minimum cigarette package size defined in § 1140.16(b), or any quantity of cigarette tobacco or smokeless tobacco that is smaller than the smallest package distributed by the manufacturer for individual consumer use; and
</P>
<P>(5) Each retailer must ensure that all self-service displays, advertising, labeling, and other items, that are located in the retailer's establishment and that do not comply with the requirements of this part, are removed or are brought into compliance with the requirements under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section and in addition to the other requirements under this part, each retailer of covered tobacco products is responsible for ensuring that all sales of such covered tobacco products to any person comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) No retailer may sell covered tobacco products to any person younger than 21 years of age;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section and in § 1140.16(c)(2)(i), each retailer must verify by means of photographic identification containing the bearer's date of birth that no person purchasing the product is younger than 21 years of age;
</P>
<P>(ii) No such verification is required for any person over the age of 29; and
</P>
<P>(3) A retailer may not sell covered tobacco products with the assistance of any electronic or mechanical device (such as a vending machine), except in facilities where the retailer ensures that no person younger than 21 years of age is present, or permitted to enter, at any time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29103, May 10, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 70486, Aug. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.16   Conditions of manufacture, sale, and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restriction on product names.</I> A manufacturer shall not use a trade or brand name of a nontobacco product as the trade or brand name for a cigarette or smokeless tobacco product, except for a tobacco product whose trade or brand name was on both a tobacco product and a nontobacco product that were sold in the United States on January 1, 1995.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum cigarette package size.</I> Except as otherwise provided under this section, no manufacturer, distributor, or retailer may sell or cause to be sold, or distribute or cause to be distributed, any cigarette package that contains fewer than 20 cigarettes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vending machines, self-service displays, mail-order sales, and other “impersonal” modes of sale.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided under this section, a retailer may sell cigarettes and smokeless tobacco only in a direct, face-to-face exchange between the retailer and the consumer. Examples of methods of sale that are not permitted include vending machines and self-service displays.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following methods of sale are permitted:
</P>
<P>(i) Mail-order sales, excluding mail-order redemption of coupons and distribution of free samples through the mail; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Vending machines (including vending machines that sell packaged, single cigarettes) and self-service displays that are located in facilities where the retailer ensures that no person younger than 21 years of age is present, or permitted to enter, at any time.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no manufacturer, distributor, or retailer may distribute or cause to be distributed any free samples of cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, or other tobacco products (as such term is defined in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Paragraph (d)(1) of this section does not prohibit a manufacturer, distributor, or retailer from distributing or causing to be distributed free samples of smokeless tobacco in a qualified adult-only facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (d)(2) of this section does not affect the authority of a State or local government to prohibit or otherwise restrict the distribution of free samples of smokeless tobacco.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, the term “qualified adult-only facility” means a facility or restricted area that:
</P>
<P>(A) Requires each person present to provide to a law enforcement officer (whether on or off duty) or to a security guard licensed by a governmental entity government-issued identification showing a photograph and at least the minimum age established by applicable law for the purchase of smokeless tobacco;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not sell, serve, or distribute alcohol;
</P>
<P>(C) Is not located adjacent to or immediately across from (in any direction) a space that is used primarily for youth-oriented marketing, promotional, or other activities;
</P>
<P>(D) Is a temporary structure constructed, designated, and operated as a distinct enclosed area for the purpose of distributing free samples of smokeless tobacco in accordance with this paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Is enclosed by a barrier that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is constructed of, or covered with, an opaque material (except for entrances and exits);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Extends from no more than 12 inches above the ground or floor (which area at the bottom of the barrier must be covered with material that restricts visibility but may allow airflow) to at least 8 feet above the ground or floor (or to the ceiling); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prevents persons outside the qualified adult-only facility from seeing into the qualified adult-only facility, unless they make unreasonable efforts to do so; and
</P>
<P>(F) Does not display on its exterior:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any tobacco product advertising;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A brand name other than in conjunction with words for an area or enclosure to identify an adult-only facility; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any combination of words that would imply to a reasonable observer that the manufacturer, distributor, or retailer has a sponsorship that would violate § 1140.34(c).
</P>
<P>(iv) Distribution of samples of smokeless tobacco under paragraph (d)(2) of this section permitted to be taken out of the qualified adult-only facility shall be limited to one package per adult consumer containing no more than 0.53 ounces (15 grams) of smokeless tobacco. If such package of smokeless tobacco contains individual portions of smokeless tobacco, the individual portions of smokeless tobacco shall not exceed eight individual portions, and the collective weight of such individual portions shall not exceed 0.53 ounces (15 grams). Any manufacturer, distributor, or retailer who distributes or causes to be distributed free samples also shall take reasonable steps to ensure that the amounts in this paragraph (d)(2)(iv) are limited to one such package per adult consumer per day.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no manufacturer, distributor, or retailer may distribute or cause to be distributed any free samples of smokeless tobacco:
</P>
<P>(i) To a sports team or entertainment group; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At any football, basketball, baseball, soccer, or hockey event or any other sporting or entertainment event determined by the Secretary to be covered by paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary shall implement a program to ensure compliance with paragraph (d) of this section and submit a report to the Congress on such compliance not later than 18 months after the date of enactment of the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in paragraph (d) of this section shall be construed to authorize any person to distribute or cause to be distributed any sample of a tobacco product to any individual who has not attained the minimum age established by applicable law for the purchase of such product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions on labels, labeling, and advertising.</I> No manufacturer, distributor, or retailer may sell or distribute, or cause to be sold or distributed, cigarettes or smokeless tobacco with labels, labeling, or advertising not in compliance with subpart D of this part, and other applicable requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 13230, Mar. 19, 2010, as amended at 89 FR 70486, Aug. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Labeling and Advertising</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.30   Scope of permissible forms of labeling and advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A manufacturer, distributor, or retailer may, in accordance with this subpart D, disseminate or cause to be disseminated advertising or labeling which bears a cigarette or smokeless tobacco brand name (alone or in conjunction with any other word) or any other indicia of tobacco product identification, in newspapers; in magazines; in periodicals or other publications (whether periodic or limited distribution); on billboards, posters, and placards; in nonpoint-of-sale promotional material (including direct mail); in point-of-sale promotional material; and in audio or video formats delivered at a point-of-sale.
</P>
<P>(2) A manufacturer, distributor, or retailer intending to disseminate, or to cause to be disseminated, advertising or labeling for cigarettes or smokeless tobacco in a medium that is not listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, shall notify the agency 30 days prior to the use of such medium. The notice shall describe the medium and discuss the extent to which the advertising or labeling may be seen by persons younger than 18 years of age. The manufacturer, distributor, or retailer shall send this notice to the Office of Compliance and Enforcement, Center for Tobacco Products, Food and Drug Administration, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, Silver Spring, MD 20993.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart D does not apply to cigarette or smokeless tobacco package labels.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 13230, Mar. 19, 2010, as amended at 83 FR 13183, Mar. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.32" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.32   Format and content requirements for labeling and advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each manufacturer, distributor, and retailer advertising or causing to be advertised, disseminating or causing to be disseminated, any labeling or advertising for cigarettes or smokeless tobacco shall use only black text on a white background. This section does not apply to advertising:
</P>
<P>(1) In any facility where vending machines and self- service displays are permitted under this part, provided that the advertising is not visible from outside the facility and that it is affixed to a wall or fixture in the facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) Appearing in any publication (whether periodic or limited distribution) that the manufacturer, distributor, or retailer demonstrates is an adult publication. For the purposes of this section, an adult publication is a newspaper, magazine, periodical, or other publication:
</P>
<P>(i) Whose readers younger than 18 years of age constitute 15 percent or less of the total readership as measured by competent and reliable survey evidence; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That is read by fewer than 2 million persons younger than 18 years of age as measured by competent and reliable survey evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Labeling and advertising in an audio or video format shall be limited as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Audio format shall be limited to words only with no music or sound effects.
</P>
<P>(2) Video formats shall be limited to static black text only on a white background. Any audio with the video shall be limited to words only with no music or sound effects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1140.34" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.50.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1140.34   Sale and distribution of nontobacco items and services, gifts, and sponsorship of events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No manufacturer and no distributor of imported cigarettes or smokeless tobacco may market, license, distribute, sell, or cause to be marketed, licensed, distributed, or sold any item (other than cigarettes or smokeless tobacco or roll-your-own paper) or service, which bears the brand name (alone or in conjunction with any other word), logo, symbol, motto, selling message, recognizable color or pattern of colors, or any other indicia of product identification identical or similar to, or identifiable with, those used for any brand of cigarettes or smokeless tobacco.
</P>
<P>(b) No manufacturer, distributor, or retailer may offer or cause to be offered any gift or item (other than cigarettes or smokeless tobacco) to any person purchasing cigarettes or smokeless tobacco in consideration of the purchase thereof, or to any person in consideration of furnishing evidence, such as credits, proofs-of-purchase, or coupons, of such a purchase.
</P>
<P>(c) No manufacturer, distributor, or retailer may sponsor or cause to be sponsored any athletic, musical, artistic, or other social or cultural event, or any entry or team in any event, in the brand name (alone or in conjunction with any other word), logo, symbol, motto, selling message, recognizable color or pattern of colors, or any other indicia of product identification identical or similar to, or identifiable with, those used for any brand of cigarettes or smokeless tobacco. Nothing in this paragraph prevents a manufacturer, distributor, or retailer from sponsoring or causing to be sponsored any athletic, musical, artistic, or other social or cultural event, or team or entry, in the name of the corporation which manufactures the tobacco product, provided that both the corporate name and the corporation were registered and in use in the United States prior to January 1, 1995, and that the corporate name does not include any brand name (alone or in conjunction with any other word), logo, symbol, motto, selling message, recognizable color or pattern of colors, or any other indicia of product identification identical or similar to, or identifiable with, those used for any brand of cigarettes or smokeless tobacco.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1141" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1141—REQUIRED WARNINGS FOR CIGARETTE PACKAGES AND ADVERTISEMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1333; 21 U.S.C. 371, 374, 387c, 387e, 387i; Secs. 201 and 202, Pub. L. 111-31, 123 Stat. 1776.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 15708, Mar. 18, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1141.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1141.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the requirements for the display of required warnings on cigarette packages and in advertisements for cigarettes.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of this part do not apply to manufacturers or distributors of cigarettes that do not manufacture, package, or import cigarettes for sale or distribution within the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) A cigarette retailer will not be in violation of § 1141.10 for packaging that:
</P>
<P>(1) Contains a warning;
</P>
<P>(2) Is supplied to the retailer by a license- or permit-holding tobacco product manufacturer, or distributor; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is not altered by the retailer in a way that is material to the requirements of section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act (15 U.S.C. 1333) or this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 1141.10(d) applies to a cigarette retailer only if that retailer is responsible for or directs the warnings required under § 1141.10 for advertising. However, this paragraph (d) does not relieve a retailer of liability if the retailer displays, in a location open to the public, an advertisement that does not contain a warning or has been altered by the retailer in a way that is material to the requirements of section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1141.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1141.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Cigarette</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any roll of tobacco wrapped in paper or in any substance not containing tobacco; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any roll of tobacco wrapped in any substance containing tobacco which, because of its appearance, the type of tobacco used in the filler, or its packaging and labeling, is likely to be offered to, or purchased by, consumers as a cigarette described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Commerce</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Commerce between any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Wake Island, Midway Islands, Kingman Reef, or Johnston Island and any place outside thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) Commerce between points in any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Wake Island, Midway Islands, Kingman Reef, or Johnston Island, but through any place outside thereof; or
</P>
<P>(3) Commerce wholly within the District of Columbia, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Wake Island, Midway Island, Kingman Reef, or Johnston Island.
</P>
<P><I>Distributor</I> means any person who furthers the distribution of cigarettes, whether domestic or imported, at any point from the original place of manufacture to the person who sells or distributes the product to individuals for personal consumption. Common carriers are not considered distributors for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Front panel</I> and <I>rear panel</I> mean the two largest sides or surfaces of the package.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means any person, including any repacker or relabeler, who manufactures, fabricates, assembles, processes, or labels a finished cigarette product; or imports any cigarette that is intended for sale or distribution to consumers in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> or <I>packaging</I> means a pack, box, carton, or container of any kind in which cigarettes are offered for sale, sold, or otherwise distributed to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, corporation, or any other business or legal entity.
</P>
<P><I>Retailer</I> means any person who sells cigarettes to individuals for personal consumption, or who operates a facility where vending machines or self-service displays of cigarettes are permitted.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Wake Island, Midway Islands, Kingman Reef, and Johnston Island. The term “State” includes any political division of any State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1141.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1141.5   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at U.S. Food and Drug Administration, Division of Dockets Management, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and is available from the source listed in paragraph (b) of this section. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email <I>fedreg.legal@nara.gov</I> or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Center for Tobacco Products, U.S. Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993; 1-888-463-6332. You may also obtain the material at <I>https://www.fda.gov/cigarette-warning-files.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) “Required Cigarette Health Warnings, 2020”, IBR approved for § 1141.10.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Required Warnings for Cigarette Packages and Advertisements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1141.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1141.10   Required warnings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required warnings.</I> A required warning must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) One of the following textual warning label statements:
</P>
<P>(i) WARNING: Tobacco smoke can harm your children.
</P>
<P>(ii) WARNING: Tobacco smoke causes fatal lung disease in nonsmokers.
</P>
<P>(iii) WARNING: Smoking causes type 2 diabetes, which raises blood sugar.
</P>
<P>(iv) WARNING: Smoking reduces blood flow to the limbs, which can require amputation.
</P>
<P>(v) WARNING: Smoking causes cataracts, which can lead to blindness.
</P>
<P>(vi) WARNING: Smoking causes bladder cancer, which can lead to bloody urine.
</P>
<P>(vii) WARNING: Smoking reduces blood flow, which can cause erectile dysfunction.
</P>
<P>(viii) WARNING: Smoking causes head and neck cancer.
</P>
<P>(ix) WARNING: Smoking can cause heart disease and strokes by clogging arteries.
</P>
<P>(x) WARNING: Smoking during pregnancy stunts fetal growth.
</P>
<P>(xi) WARNING: Smoking causes COPD, a lung disease that can be fatal.
</P>
<P>(2) A color graphic to accompany the textual warning label statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accurately reproduced.</I> Each required warning, comprising a combination of a textual warning label statement and its accompanying color graphic, must be accurately reproduced as shown in the materials contained in “Required Cigarette Health Warnings, 2020,” which is incorporated by reference at § 1141.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Packages.</I> It is unlawful for any person to manufacture, package, sell, offer to sell, distribute, or import for sale or distribution within the United States any cigarettes unless the package of which bears a required warning in accordance with section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(1) The required warning must appear directly on the package and must be clearly visible underneath any cellophane or other clear wrapping.
</P>
<P>(2) The required warning must comprise at least the top 50 percent of the front and rear panels; provided, however, that on cigarette cartons, the required warning must be located on the left side of the front and rear panels of the carton and must comprise at least the left 50 percent of these panels.
</P>
<P>(3) The required warning must be positioned such that the text of the required warning and the other information on that panel of the package have the same orientation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisements.</I> It is unlawful for any manufacturer, distributor, or retailer of cigarettes to advertise or cause to be advertised within the United States any cigarette unless each advertisement bears a required warning in accordance with section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(1) For print advertisements and other advertisements with a visual component (including, for example, advertisements on signs, retail displays, internet web pages, digital platforms, mobile applications, and email correspondence), the required warning must appear directly on the advertisement.
</P>
<P>(2) The required warning must comprise at least 20 percent of the area of the advertisement in a conspicuous and prominent format and location at the top of each advertisement within the trim area, if any.
</P>
<P>(3) The text in each required warning must be in the English language, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an advertisement that appears in a non-English medium, the text in the required warning must appear in the predominant language of the medium whether or not the advertisement is in English; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an advertisement that appears in an English language medium but that is not in English, the text in the required warning must appear in the same language as that principally used in the advertisement.
</P>
<P>(4) For English-language and Spanish-language warnings, each required warning must be accurately reproduced as shown in the materials contained in “Required Cigarette Health Warnings, 2020,” which is incorporated by reference at § 1141.5.
</P>
<P>(5) For non-English-language warnings, other than Spanish-language warnings, each required warning must be accurately reproduced as shown in the materials contained in “Required Cigarette Health Warnings, 2020,” which is incorporated by reference at § 1141.5, including the substitution and insertion of a true and accurate translation of the textual warning label statement in place of the English language version. The inserted textual warning label statement must comply with the requirements of section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act, including area and other formatting requirements, and this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Irremovable or permanent warnings.</I> The required warnings must be indelibly printed on or permanently affixed to the package or advertisement. These warnings, for example, must not be printed or placed on a label affixed to a clear outer wrapper that is likely to be removed to access the product within the package.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sale or distribution.</I> No person may manufacture, package, sell, offer for sale, distribute, or import for sale or distribution within the United States cigarettes whose packages or advertisements are not in compliance with section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part, except as provided by § 1141.1(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Marketing requirements</I>—(1) <I>Random display.</I> The required warnings for packages specified in paragraph (a) of this section must be randomly displayed in each 12-month period, in as equal a number of times as is possible on each brand of the product and be randomly distributed in all areas of the United States in which the product is marketed in accordance with a plan submitted by the tobacco product manufacturer, distributor, or retailer to, and approved by, the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rotation.</I> The required warnings for advertisements specified in paragraph (a) of this section must be rotated quarterly in alternating sequence in advertisements for each brand of cigarettes in accordance with a plan submitted by the tobacco product manufacturer, distributer, retailer to, and approved by, the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> The Food and Drug Administration will review each plan submitted under this section and approve it if the plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Will provide for the equal distribution and display on packaging and the rotation required in advertising under this subsection; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assures that all of the labels required under this section will be displayed by the tobacco product manufacturer, distributor, or retailer at the same time.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record retention.</I> Each tobacco product manufacturer required to randomly and equally display and distribute warnings on packaging or rotate warnings in advertisements in accordance with an FDA-approved plan under section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part must maintain a copy of such FDA-approved plan and make it available for inspection and copying by officers or employees duly designated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services. The FDA-approved plan must be retained while in effect and for a period of not less than 4 years from the date it was last in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1141.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.51.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1141.12   Misbranding of cigarettes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A cigarette will be deemed to be misbranded under section 903(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if its package does not bear one of the required warnings in accordance with section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part. A cigarette will be deemed to be misbranded under section 903(a)(7)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if its advertising does not bear one of the required warnings in accordance with section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A cigarette advertisement and other descriptive printed matter issued or caused to be issued by the manufacturer, packer, or distributor will be deemed to include a brief statement of relevant warnings for the purposes of section 903(a)(8) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if it bears one of the required warnings in accordance with section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part. A cigarette distributed or offered for sale in any State shall be deemed to be misbranded under section 903(a)(8) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act unless the manufacturer, packer, or distributor includes in all advertisements and other descriptive printed matter issued or caused to be issued by the manufacturer, packer, or distributor with respect to the cigarette one of the required warnings in accordance with section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act and this part.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1143" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1143—MINIMUM REQUIRED WARNING STATEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 387a(b), 387f(d), Pub. L. 117-103, 136 Stat. 49.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 29103, May 10, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1143.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1143.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accessory</I> means any product that is intended or reasonably expected to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product; does not contain tobacco and is not made or derived from tobacco; and meets either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not intended or reasonably expected to affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is intended or reasonably expected to affect or maintain the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product but
</P>
<P>(i) Solely controls moisture and/or temperature of a stored tobacco product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Solely provides an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product
</P>
<P><I>Cigar</I> means a tobacco product that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a cigarette and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a roll of tobacco wrapped in leaf tobacco or any substance containing tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Cigarette tobacco</I> means any product that consists of loose tobacco that is intended for use by consumers in a cigarette. Unless otherwise stated, the requirements applicable to cigarettes under this chapter also apply to cigarette tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> or <I>part</I> means any software or assembly of materials intended or reasonably expected:
</P>
<P>(1) To alter or affect the tobacco product's performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics; or
</P>
<P>(2) to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product. Component or part excludes anything that is an accessory of a tobacco product.
</P>
<P><I>Covered tobacco product</I> means any tobacco product deemed to be subject to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act pursuant to § 1100.2 of this chapter, but excludes any component or part that is not made or derived from tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> or <I>packaging</I> means a pack, box, carton, or container of any kind or, if no other container, any wrapping (including cellophane), in which a tobacco product is offered for sale, sold, or otherwise distributed to consumers.
</P>
<P><I>Point of sale</I> means any location at which a consumer can purchase or otherwise obtain tobacco products for personal consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Principal display panels</I> means the panels of a package that are most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined by the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Required warning statement</I> means a textual warning statement required to be on packaging and in advertisements for cigarette tobacco, roll-your-own tobacco, cigars, and other covered tobacco products. 
</P>
<P><I>Retailer</I> means any person who sells tobacco products to individuals for personal consumption, or who operates a facility where vending machines or self-service displays are permitted under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Roll-your-own tobacco</I> means any tobacco product that, because of its appearance, type, packaging, or labeling, is suitable for use and likely to be offered to, or purchased by, consumers as tobacco for making cigarettes.
</P>
<P><I>Tobacco product,</I> as stated in section 201(rr) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in relevant part:
</P>
<P>(1) Means any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product); and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not mean an article that is a drug under section 201(g)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; a device under section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; a combination product described in section 503(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or a food under 201(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if such article contains no nicotine or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29103, May 10, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 16553, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1143.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1143.3   Required warning statement regarding addictiveness of nicotine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Packages.</I> (1) For cigarette tobacco, roll-your-own tobacco, and covered tobacco products other than cigars, it is unlawful for any person to manufacture, package, sell, offer to sell, distribute, or import for sale or distribution within the United States such product unless the tobacco product package bears the following required warning statement on the package label: “WARNING: This product contains nicotine. Nicotine is an addictive chemical.”
</P>
<P>(2) The required warning statement must appear directly on the package and must be clearly visible underneath any cellophane or other clear wrapping as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Be located in a conspicuous and prominent place on the two principal display panels of the package and the warning area must comprise at least 30 percent of each of the principal display panels;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be printed in at least 12-point font size and ensures that the required warning statement occupies the greatest possible proportion of the warning area set aside for the required text;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be printed in conspicuous and legible Helvetica bold or Arial bold type (or other sans serif fonts) and in black text on a white background or white text on a black background in a manner that contrasts by typography, layout, or color, with all other printed material on the package;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be capitalized and punctuated as indicated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Be centered in the warning area in which the text is required to be printed and positioned such that the text of the required warning statement and the other information on the principal display panel have the same orientation.
</P>
<P>(3) A retailer of any tobacco product covered by paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section will not be in violation of this section for packaging that:
</P>
<P>(i) Contains a health warning;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is supplied to the retailer by the tobacco product manufacturer, importer, or distributor, who has the required state, local, or Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB)-issued license or permit, if applicable, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not altered by the retailer in a way that is material to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisements.</I> (1) For cigarette tobacco, roll-your-own tobacco, and covered tobacco products other than cigars, it is unlawful for any such tobacco product manufacturer, packager, importer, distributor, or retailer of the tobacco product to advertise or cause to be advertised within the United States any tobacco product unless each advertisement bears the required warning statement specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For print advertisements and other advertisements with a visual component (including, for example, advertisements on signs, shelf-talkers, Internet Web pages, and electronic mail correspondence), the required warning statement must appear in the upper portion of the area of the advertisement within the trim area as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Occupy at least 20 percent of the area of the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appear in at least 12-point font size and ensures that the required warning statement occupies the greatest possible proportion of the warning area set aside for the required text;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appear in conspicuous and legible Helvetica bold or Arial bold type (or other similar sans serif fonts) and in black text on a white background or white text on a black background in a manner that contrasts by typography, layout, or color, with all other material on the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be capitalized and punctuated as indicated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Be centered in the warning area in which the text is required to appear and positioned such that the text of the required warning statement and the other textual information in the advertisement have the same orientation; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Be surrounded by a rectangular border that is the same color as the text of the required warning statement and that is not less than 3 millimeters (mm) or more than 4 mm.
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph (b) applies to a retailer only if that retailer is responsible for or directs the health warning required under the paragraph. However, this paragraph does not relieve a retailer of liability if the retailer displays, in a location open to the public, an advertisement that does not contain a health warning or contains a health warning that has been altered by the retailer in a way that is material to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-certification.</I> A tobacco product that would otherwise be required to bear the warning in paragraph (a)(1) of this section but does not contain nicotine is not required to bear the warning in paragraph (a)(1) of this section on packages or advertisements if the tobacco product manufacturer has submitted to FDA a confirmation statement certifying to be true and accurate that the product does not contain nicotine and that the tobacco product manufacturer has data to support that assertion. Any product not required to bear the warning in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include the statement “This product is made from tobacco.” on all packages and advertisements in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Small packages.</I> A tobacco product that would otherwise be required to bear the warning in paragraph (a)(1) of this section but is too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear such information is exempt from compliance with the requirement <I>provided</I> that the information and specifications required under paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section appear on the carton or other outer container or wrapper if the carton, outer container, or wrapper has sufficient space to bear the information, or appear on a tag otherwise firmly and permanently affixed to the tobacco product package. In such cases, the carton, outer container, wrapper, or tag will serve as the location of the principal display panels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1143.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1143.5   Required warning statements for cigars.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Packages.</I> (1) It is unlawful for any person to manufacture, package, sell, offer to sell, distribute, or import for sale or distribution within the United States any cigar product unless the product package bears one of the following required warning statements on the package label:
</P>
<P>(i) WARNING: Cigar smoking can cause cancers of the mouth and throat, even if you do not inhale.
</P>
<P>(ii) WARNING: Cigar smoking can cause lung cancer and heart disease.
</P>
<P>(iii) WARNING: Cigars are not a safe alternative to cigarettes.
</P>
<P>(iv) WARNING: Tobacco smoke increases the risk of lung cancer and heart disease, even in nonsmokers.
</P>
<P>(v)(A) WARNING: Cigar use while pregnant can harm you and your baby.; or
</P>
<P>(B) SURGEON GENERAL WARNING: Tobacco Use Increases the Risk of Infertility, Stillbirth and Low Birth Weight.
</P>
<P>(vi) WARNING: This product contains nicotine. Nicotine is an addictive chemical.
</P>
<P>(2) Each required warning statement must appear directly on the package and must be clearly visible underneath any cellophane or other clear wrapping as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Be located in a conspicuous and prominent place on the two principal display panels of the package and the warning area must comprise at least 30 percent of each of the principal display panels;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appear in at least 12-point font size and ensure that the required warning statement occupies the greatest possible proportion of the warning area set aside for the required text;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be printed in conspicuous and legible Helvetica bold or Arial bold type (or other similar sans serif fonts) and in black text on a white background or white text on a black background in a manner that contrasts by typography, layout, or color, with all other printed material on the package;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be capitalized and punctuated as indicated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Be centered in the warning area in which the text is required to be printed and positioned such that the text of the required warning statement and the other information on that principal display panel have the same orientation.
</P>
<P>(3) No person may manufacture, package, sell, offer to sell, distribute, or import for sale or distribution within the United States any cigar without a required warning statement, except for cigars that are sold individually and not in a product package. For cigars that are sold individually and not in a product package, the required warning statements must be posted at the retailer's point-of-sale in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) All of the warnings in paragraph (a) of this section must be placed on a sign that is a minimum of 8.5 x 11 inches, posted on or within 3 inches of each cash register where payment may be made so that the sign(s) are unobstructed in their entirety and can be read easily by each consumer making a purchase;
</P>
<P>(ii) The sign must be clear, legible, and conspicuous and be printed in black Helvetica bold or Arial bold type (or other similar sans serif fonts) against a solid white background in at least 17 point type with appropriate space between the warning statements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be printed in a manner that contrasts by typography, layout, or color, with all other printed material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be capitalized and punctuated as indicated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A retailer of any cigar covered by paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section will not be in violation of this section for packaging that:
</P>
<P>(i) Contains a health warning;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is supplied to the retailer by the tobacco product manufacturer, importer, or distributor who has the required state, local, or Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB)-issued license or permit, if applicable, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not altered by the retailer in a way that is material to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisements.</I> (1) It is unlawful for any tobacco product manufacturer, packager, importer, distributor, or retailer of cigars to advertise or cause to be advertised within the United States any cigar unless each advertisement bears one of the required warning statements specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For print advertisements and other advertisements with a visual component (including, for example, advertisements on signs, shelf-talkers, Internet Web pages, and electronic mail correspondence), each required warning statement must appear in the upper portion of the area of the advertisement within the trim area as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Occupy at least 20 percent of the area of the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appear in at least 12-point font size that ensures that the required warning statement occupies the greatest possible proportion of the warning area set aside for the text required;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appear in conspicuous and legible Helvetica bold or Arial bold type (or other similar sans serif fonts) and in black text on a white background or white text on a black background in a manner that contrasts by typography, layout, or color, with all other material on the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be capitalized and punctuated as indicated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Be centered in the warning area in which the text is required to appear and positioned such that the text of the required warning statement and the other textual information in the advertisement have the same orientation; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Be surrounded by a rectangular border that is the same color as the text of the required warning statement and that is not less than 3 mm or more than 4 mm.
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph (b) applies to a retailer only if that retailer is responsible for or directs the warning statements required under the paragraph. However, this paragraph does not relieve a retailer of liability if the retailer displays, in a location open to the public, an advertisement that does not contain a health warning or contains a health warning that has been altered by the retailer in a way that is material to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Marketing requirements.</I> (1) Except for cigars sold individually and not in a product package, the warning statements required for packages in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be randomly displayed in each 12-month period, in as equal a number of times as is possible on each brand of cigar sold in product packaging and be randomly distributed in all areas of the United States in which the product is marketed in accordance with a plan submitted by the cigar manufacturer, importer, distributor, or retailer to, and approved by, the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) The warning statements required for advertisements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be rotated quarterly in alternating sequence in each advertisement for each brand of cigar in accordance with a plan submitted by the cigar manufacturer, importer, distributor, or retailer to, and approved by, the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) Each person required to randomly display and distribute or rotate warnings in accordance with an FDA-approved plan under this part shall submit a proposed warning plan to FDA no later than either 12 months after May 10, 2016, or 12 months before advertising or commercially marketing a product that is subject to such requirement, whichever is later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1143.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1143.7   Language requirements for required warning statements.</HEAD>
<P>The text in each warning statement required in § 1143.3 or § 1143.5 must be in the English language, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of an advertisement that appears in a non-English medium, the text in the required warning statement must appear in the predominant language of the medium whether or not the advertisement is in English, and;
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an advertisement that appears in an English language medium but that is not in English, the text in the required warning statement must appear in the same language as that principally used in the advertisement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1143.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1143.9   Irremovable or permanent required warning statements.</HEAD>
<P>The warning statements required by this section must be indelibly printed on or permanently affixed to the package or advertisement. These warnings, for example, must not be printed or placed on a product label affixed to a clear outer wrapper that is likely to be removed to access the product within the package.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1143.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1143.11   Does not apply to foreign distribution.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part do not apply to a manufacturer or distributor of tobacco products that does not manufacture, package, or import tobacco products for sale or distribution within the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1143.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.52.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1143.13   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as stated in paragraph (b) of this section, this part will take effect 24 months after May 10, 2016. The effective date will be with respect to the date of manufacture, provided that, in any case, beginning 30 days after the effective date, a manufacturer may not introduce into the domestic commerce of the United States any product, irrespective of the date of manufacture, that is not in conformance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement to submit a warning plan to FDA under § 1143.5(c)(3) will take effect 12 months after May 10, 2016.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1150" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1150—USER FEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 371, 387a, 387b, 387i, 387s, 21 CFR 1100.1.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 39310, July 10, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1150.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes requirements related to tobacco product user fees under section 919 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 387s). The total amount of user fees may not exceed the amount specified for that fiscal year in section 919(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. All domestic manufacturers and importers of tobacco products are required to pay to FDA their percentage share of the total assessment for a fiscal year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions are applicable to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Class of tobacco products</I> means each of the following types of tobacco products as defined in 26 U.S.C. 5702 and for which taxes are required to be paid for the removal of such into domestic commerce: Cigarettes, cigars, snuff, chewing tobacco, pipe tobacco, and roll-your-own tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic manufacturer</I> means a person who is required to obtain a permit from the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau of the Department of the Treasury with respect to the production of tobacco products under title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Fiscal year quarter</I> means a quarter in a fiscal year (the fiscal year is October 1 through September 30). The fiscal year quarters are October 1-December 31, January 1-March 31, April 1-June 30, and July 1-September 30.
</P>
<P><I>Importer</I> means a person who is required to obtain a permit from the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau of the Department of the Treasury with respect to the importation of tobacco products under title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Total assessment</I> means the total amount of user fees (in dollars) authorized to be assessed and collected for a specific fiscal year under section 919 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P><I>Units of product</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of sticks for cigarettes, or
</P>
<P>(2) The weight (measured in pounds) for snuff, chewing tobacco, and roll-your-own tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Units of product</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of sticks for cigarettes and cigars, or
</P>
<P>(2) The weight (measured in pounds) for snuff, chewing tobacco, pipe tobacco, and roll-your-own tobacco.
</P>
<P><I>Yearly class allocation</I> means the amount of user fees (in dollars) assessed for a class of tobacco products for a particular fiscal year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39310, July 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 28715, May 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.5" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.5   Required information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each domestic manufacturer and importer of tobacco products that are part of a class of tobacco products must submit the information described in this section for such products each month, and the information must be received by FDA no later than the 20th day of each month. The information must be submitted using the form that FDA provides. The information must be submitted even if the domestic manufacturer or importer had no removals subject to tax during the prior month. FDA will use the information submitted under this section and any other available information, as FDA determines appropriate, to make tobacco product user fee assessments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> Each domestic manufacturer and importer must submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification information.</I> (i) Its name and the mailing address of its principal place of business;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and a telephone number including area code of an office or individual that FDA may contact for further information;
</P>
<P>(iii) The email address and postal address at which it wishes to receive notifications FDA sends under this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB) Permit Number(s); and
</P>
<P>(v) The Employer Identification Number(s) (EIN).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal information.</I> The units of product, by class, removed and not tax exempt for the prior month and the Federal excise tax it paid, by class, for such removal.
</P>
<P>(i) This information must be reported for each TTB tobacco permit.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the domestic manufacturer or importer did not remove any amount of tobacco product, it must report that no tobacco product was removed into domestic commerce.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certified copies.</I> Certified copies of the returns and forms that relate to:
</P>
<P>(i) The removal of tobacco products into domestic commerce (as defined by section 5702 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment of the Federal excise taxes imposed under chapter 52 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>First report for cigars.</I> Domestic manufacturers and importers of cigars must submit the information described in this section beginning no later than the 20th day of August, 2016. Domestic manufacturers and importers of cigars must submit the information described in this section for each of the prior months of fiscal year 2016 as their first monthly submission. The previous sentence only applies for the first report in fiscal year 2016.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>First report for pipe tobacco.</I> Domestic manufacturers and importers of pipe tobacco must submit the information described in this section beginning no later than the 20th day of August, 2016.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39310, July 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 28715, May 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.7" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.7   Yearly class allocation.</HEAD>
<P>For each fiscal year, FDA will allocate the total assessment among the classes of tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation.</I> FDA will calculate the percentage shares for each class as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Except for cigars, FDA will multiply the units of product removed and not tax exempt for the most recent full calendar year by the 2003 maximum Federal excise tax rate for that class (class dollar figure).
</P>
<P>(2) For cigars, FDA will:
</P>
<P>(i) Multiply the units of small cigars removed and not tax exempt for the most recent full calendar year by the 2003 maximum Federal excise tax rate for small cigars (small cigar subclass dollar figure).
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiply the units of large cigars removed and not tax exempt for the most recent full calendar year by the 2003 maximum Federal excise tax rate for large cigars (large cigar subclass dollar figure).
</P>
<P>(iii) Add the small cigar subclass dollar figure and the large cigar subclass dollar figure (cigar class dollar figure).
</P>
<P>(3) FDA will total the class dollar figures for all tobacco classes for the most recent full calendar year (total dollar figure).
</P>
<P>(4) FDA will divide the class dollar figure by the total dollar figure to determine the percentage share for each class.
</P>
<P>(5) FDA will calculate the allocation for each class of tobacco products by multiplying the percentage share for each class by the total assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reallocation.</I> For any class of tobacco products that is not deemed by FDA to be subject to regulation under chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the amount of user fees that would otherwise be assessed to such class of tobacco products will be reallocated to the classes of tobacco products that are subject to chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act in the same manner and based on the same relative percentages otherwise determined under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39310, July 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 28716, May 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.9" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.9   Domestic manufacturer or importer assessment.</HEAD>
<P>Each quarter, FDA will calculate the assessment owed by each domestic manufacturer or importer for that quarter.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation.</I> (1) For each class of tobacco products except cigars, FDA will calculate the percentage share for each domestic manufacturer and importer by dividing the Federal excise taxes that it paid for the class for the prior quarter by the total excise taxes that all domestic manufacturers and importers paid for the class for that same quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) For the cigar class, FDA will calculate the percentage share for each domestic manufacturer and importer by dividing the Federal excise taxes that it paid for the class for the prior fiscal year by the total excise taxes that all domestic manufacturers and importers paid for the class for the prior fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(3) If the percentage share calculated for a domestic manufacturer or importer in this section, as applicable, is less than 0.0001 percent, the share is excluded from the assessment for that class of tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(4) Within each class of tobacco products, the assessment owed by a domestic manufacturer or importer for the quarter is the yearly class allocation, determined as described in § 1150.7, divided by four, multiplied by the domestic manufacturer's or importer's percentage share, truncated to the fourth decimal place, for that class of tobacco products.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustments.</I> Annually, FDA will make any necessary adjustments to individual domestic manufacturer or importer assessments if needed to account for any corrections (for example, to include domestic manufacturers or importers that were not included in a relevant assessment calculation).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39310, July 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 28716, May 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.11   Notification of assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification.</I> No later than 30 calendar days before the end of each fiscal year quarter, FDA will notify each domestic manufacturer and importer of the amount of the quarterly assessment imposed on the domestic manufacturer or importer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of notification.</I> The notification under paragraph (a) of this section will include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the quarterly assessment imposed on the domestic manufacturer or importer and the date that payment of the assessment must be received by FDA;
</P>
<P>(2) Class assessment information, including each class' initial percentage share, the reallocation amount (if any) and each class' percentage share after any such reallocation, and the quarterly assessment for each class;
</P>
<P>(3) Domestic manufacturer or importer assessment information, including the domestic manufacturer's or importer's percentage share of each relevant class of tobacco products and invoice amount;
</P>
<P>(4) Any adjustments FDA has made under § 1150.9(b);
</P>
<P>(5) The manner in which assessments are to be remitted to FDA;
</P>
<P>(6) Information about the accrual of interest if a payment is late; and
</P>
<P>(7) Information regarding where to send a dispute and when it needs to be sent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.13   Payment of assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Payment of an assessment must be received by FDA no later than the last day of each fiscal year quarter.
</P>
<P>(b) Payments must be submitted to FDA in U.S. dollars and in the manner specified in the notification.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, if an assessment is not received by the last day of the fiscal year quarter, FDA will begin assessing interest on the unpaid amount in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717.
</P>
<P>(d) If FDA does not send the notification described in § 1150.11(a) 30 calendar days before the end of a quarter, no interest will be assessed by FDA under paragraph (c) of this section until 30 calendar days have elapsed from the date FDA sent notification of the amount owed.
</P>
<P>(e) If a domestic manufacturer or importer disputes the amount of an assessment, it must still pay the assessment in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.15   Disputes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A domestic tobacco manufacturer or importer may dispute an FDA assessment. The dispute must include the basis for the dispute, and the dispute must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Submitted in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) Received by FDA no later than 45 days after the date on the assessment notification;
</P>
<P>(3) Legible and in English; and


</P>
<P>(4) Sent to the address found on our website (<I>https://www.fda.gov/tobacco-products/manufacturing/tobacco-user-fees</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) If FDA determines that there was an error related to the assessment and the assessment was too high, FDA will refund the amount assessed in error to the domestic manufacturer or importer.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will provide a dated, written response, and its response will provide information about how to submit a request for further Agency review.
</P>
<P>(d) A request for further Agency review under § 10.75 of this chapter may be submitted. Such a request must be submitted in writing by the domestic manufacturer or importer and received by FDA within 30 days from the date on FDA's response. The request for further Agency review must be legible, in English, and submitted to the address found on our website (<I>https://www.fda.gov/tobacco-products/manufacturing/tobacco-user-fees</I>).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39310, July 10, 2014, as amended at 89 FR 13980, Feb. 26, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1150.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.4.53.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1150.17   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 902(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 387b), a tobacco product is deemed adulterated if the domestic manufacturer or importer of the tobacco product fails to pay a user fee assessed to such manufacturer or importer by the later of the date the assessment is due, 30 days from the date FDA sent notification of the amount owed, or 30 days after final Agency action on a resolution of any dispute as to the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(b) Under section 902(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a tobacco product is deemed adulterated if the domestic manufacturer or importer of the tobacco product fails to report the information required by § 1150.5 to calculate assessments under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The failure to report the information required by § 1150.5 to calculate assessments under this part is a prohibited act under section 301(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Information submitted under § 1150.5 is subject to 18 U.S.C. 1001 and other appropriate civil and criminal statutes.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="L" NODE="21:8.0.1.5" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER L—REGULATIONS UNDER CERTAIN OTHER ACTS ADMINISTERED BY THE FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1210" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1210—REGULATIONS UNDER THE FEDERAL IMPORT MILK ACT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 141-149.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 32104, Nov. 20, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service regulations concerning tubercular cattle, see 9 CFR parts 50 and 77. For Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service regulations, see 9 CFR chapter I. For customs regulations concerning importation of milk and cream, see 19 CFR 12.7. For regulations of the Agricultural Marketing Service (Marketing Agreements and Orders) covering marketing areas for milk, see 7 CFR chapter X.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of the regulations in this part the act (44 Stat. 1101; 21 U.S.C. 141-149) “To regulate the importation of milk and cream into the United States for the purpose of promoting the dairy industry of the United States and protecting the public health” shall be known and referred to as “the Federal Import Milk Act.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.2   Scope of act.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the act apply to all milk and cream offered for import into the continental United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary.</I> Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commissioner.</I> Commissioner means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Milk.</I> For the purposes of the act and of the regulations in this part: 
</P>
<FP>Milk is the whole, fresh, clean, lacteal secretion obtained by the complete milking of one or more healthy cows, properly fed and kept, excluding that obtained within 15 days before and 5 days after calving, or such longer period as may be necessary to render the milk practically colostrum free. 
</FP>
<P>(d) <I>Condensed milk.</I> Condensed milk, as the term is used in section 3, paragraph 2, of the Federal Import Milk Act, includes evaporated milk in the manufacture of which sterilization of the milk and cream is a necessary and usual process; it includes sweetened condensed milk only if it is prepared by a process which insures sterilization of the milk and cream. Condensed milk, as the term is used in section 3, paragraph 3, of the Federal Import Milk Act, means sweetened condensed milk. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sweetened condensed milk.</I> Sweetened condensed milk conforms to the definition and standard of identity for such food as set out in § 131.120 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Evaporated milk.</I> Evaporated milk conforms to the definition and standard of identity for such food as set out in § 131.130 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Cream.</I> Cream is that portion of the milk, rich in milk fat, which rises to the surface of milk on standing or is separated from it by centrifugal force. (See §§ 131.150 through 131.157 of this chapter). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pasteurization.</I> Pasteurization is the process of heating every particle of milk or cream to at least 143 °F., and holding it at such temperature continuously for at least 30 minutes, or to at least 161 °F., and holding it at such temperature continuously for at least 15 seconds. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shipper.</I> A shipper is anyone, other than a common carrier, who ships, transports, or causes to be shipped or transported into the United States milk or cream owned by him. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32104, Nov. 20, 1973, as amended at 42 FR 14091, Mar. 15, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Inspection and Testing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.10   Availability for examination and inspection.</HEAD>
<P>Dairy farms and plants from which milk or cream is shipped or transported into the United States shall be open at all reasonable times to authorized agents for necessary examinations and inspections. Failure to permit such examinations and inspections may be considered cause for the suspension or revocation of the permit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.11   Sanitary inspection of dairy farms.</HEAD>
<P>The sanitary conditions of any dairy farm producing milk or cream to be shipped or transported into the United States or to a plant from which milk or cream is to be shipped or transported into the United States must score at least 50 points out of 100 points, according to the methods for scoring as provided by the score card for sanitary inspection of dairy farms in the form prescribed by the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.12   Physical examination of cows.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Physical examination of any and all cows in herds producing milk or cream which is to be shipped or transported into the United States shall be made by an authorized veterinarian of the United States or of any State or municipality thereof or of the country in which such milk or cream is produced to determine whether such cow or cows are in a healthy condition. Such examination shall be made as often as the Secretary may deem necessary and, in any event, shall have been made within one year previous to the time of the importation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The result of the physical examination shall be set forth in the form prescribed by the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.13   Tuberculin test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 1210.27 any and all animals in herds producing milk or cream which is to be shipped or transported raw into the United States shall be free from tuberculosis, as determined by a tuberculin test applied by an official veterinarian of the United States or of any State or municipality thereof or of the country in which such milk or cream is produced. Such test shall be made as often as the Secretary may deem necessary and, in any event, shall have been made within 1 year previous to the time of the importation. All animals showing positive or suspicious reactions to the tuberculin test must be permanently removed from the herd. 
</P>
<P>(b) The results of the tuberculin test and all facts concerning the disposal of reacting or suspected animals shall be set forth in the form prescribed by the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.14" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.14   Sanitary inspection of plants.</HEAD>
<P>The sanitary conditions of any plant handling milk or cream any part of which is to be shipped or transported into the United States shall score at least 50 points out of 100 points according to the methods for scoring as provided by the score card for sanitary inspection of such plants in the form prescribed by the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.15   Pasteurization; equipment and methods.</HEAD>
<P>All dairy farms and plants at which any milk or cream is pasteurized for shipment or transportation into the United States shall employ adequate pasteurization machinery of a type easily cleaned and of sanitary construction capable of holding every portion of the milk or cream at the required temperature for the required time. Such pasteurizing machinery shall be properly equipped with accurate time and temperature recording devices, which shall be kept at all times in good working order. The temperature at the time of heating and holding must invariably be recorded on thermograph charts, initialed, numbered, and dated by the official having jurisdiction over such farms and plants. All thermograph charts shall be held for a period of 2 years unless within that period they have been examined and released by such authorized agents as are designated by the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.16   Method of bacterial count.</HEAD>
<P>The bacterial count of milk and cream refers to the number of viable bacteria as determined by the standard plate method of the American Public Health Association in use at the time of the examination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.17" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.17   Authority to sample and inspect.</HEAD>
<P>Inspectors engaged in the enforcement of the Federal Import Milk Act are empowered to test for temperature, to take samples of milk or cream, and to use such means as may be necessary for these purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.18" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.18   Scoring.</HEAD>
<P>Scoring of sanitary conditions required by §§ 1210.11, 1210.14 shall be done by an official inspector of the United States or of any State or municipality thereof or of the country in which the dairy farm or plant is located. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Permit Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.20   Application for permit.</HEAD>
<P>Application for a permit to ship or transport milk or cream into the United States shall be made by the actual shipper upon forms prescribed by the Secretary. The request for forms of applications for permits should be addressed to Commissioner of Food and Drugs, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.21   Permit number.</HEAD>
<P>Each permit issued under the Federal Import Milk Act, including each temporary permit, shall bear an individual number. The right to the use of such number is restricted solely to the permittee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.22   Form of tag.</HEAD>
<P>Each container of milk or cream shipped or transported into the United States by such permittee shall have firmly attached thereto a tag in the following form, bearing the required information in clear and legible type: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P-DASH>Product 
</P-DASH>
<P2>(State whether raw milk, pasteurized milk, raw cream, or pasteurized cream.) 
</P2>
<P-DASH>Permit number 
</P-DASH>
<P2>Federal Import Milk Act, Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P2>
<P-DASH>Shipper 
</P-DASH>
<P-DASH>Address of shipper</P-DASH></EXTRACT>
<FP><I>Provided,</I> That in case of unit shipments consisting of milk only or cream only under one permit number, in lieu of each container being so marked, the vehicle of transportation, if sealed, may be tagged with the above tag, which should, in addition, show the number of containers and quantity of contents of each. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.23" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.23   Permits granted on certificates.</HEAD>
<P>In the discretion of the Secretary, a permit may be granted on a duly certified statement signed by a duly accredited official of an authorized department of any foreign government or of any State of the United States or any municipality thereof. Such statement shall be in the form of a certificate prescribed by the Secretary, and shall have attached thereto, as a part thereof, signed copies of reports prescribed by §§ 1210.12, 1230.13, and also by §§ 1210.11, 1210.14, as applicable. The necessary inspections and examinations upon which the reports are based shall be made by persons who are acting under the direct supervision of the certifying official. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.24" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.24   Temporary permits.</HEAD>
<P>A temporary permit will be granted only upon a satisfactory showing that the applicant therefor has been unable to obtain the necessary inspections required by the applicable provisions of section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act. Temporary permits shall be valid until the Secretary shall provide for inspection to ascertain that clauses 1, 2, and 3 of section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act have been complied with. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.25   Permits for pasteurized milk or cream.</HEAD>
<P>Permits to ship or transport pasteurized milk or cream into the United States will be granted only upon compliance with the requirements of clauses 1 and 3 of section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act, §§ 1210.11, 1210.12, 1210.14, as applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.26" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.26   Permits for raw milk or cream.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 1210.27, permits to ship or transport raw milk or cream into the United States will be granted only when the milk or cream comes from dairy farms or plants where pasteurization is not carried on and then only upon compliance with the requirements of clauses 1, 2, and 3 of section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act, §§ 1210.11 to 1210.14 as applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.27" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.27   Permits waiving clauses 2 and 5, section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act.</HEAD>
<P>A permit to ship or transport raw milk into the United States will contain a waiver of clauses 2 and 5 of section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act when the shipper is an operator of a creamery or condensery, or is a producer shipping or transporting to a creamery or condensery and the creamery or condensery is located in the United States within a radius of 20 miles of the point of production of such milk, and the milk, prior to its sale, use, or disposal, is pasteurized, condensed, or evaporated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.28" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.28   Permits waiving clause 4, section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, in his discretion, will issue to a shipper who is an operator of a condensery a permit waiving the requirements of clause 4, of section 2 of the Federal Import Milk Act and allowing milk and cream containing not to exceed 1,200,000 bacteria per cubic centimeter to be shipped or transported into the United States if the condensery is located within a radius of 15 miles of the point of production of the milk and cream and such milk and cream are to be sterilized in the manufacture of condensed milk. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.30   Hearing procedure for permit denial, suspension, and revocation.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who contests denial, suspension, or revocation of a permit shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to subpart F of part 16 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 48269, Nov. 2, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 15676, Mar. 22, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1210.31" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.54.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1210.31   Hearing before prosecution.</HEAD>
<P>Before violation of the act is referred to the Department of Justice for prosecution under section 5 of the Federal Import Milk Act, an opportunity to be heard will be given to the party against whom prosecution is under consideration. The hearing will be private and confined to questions of fact. The party notified may present evidence, either oral or written, in person or by attorney, to show cause why he should not be prosecuted. After a hearing is held, if it appears that the law has been violated, the facts will be reported to the Department of Justice. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 48269, Nov. 2, 1976] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1230" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1230—REGULATIONS UNDER THE FEDERAL CAUSTIC POISON ACT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1261-1276.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For regulations relating to invoices, entry, and assessment of duties, see 19 CFR parts 141, 142, 143, 151, 152. For regulations regarding the examination, classification, and disposition of foods, drugs, devices, cosmetics, insecticides, fungicides, and caustic or corrosive substances, see 19 CFR part 12. For regulations relating to consular invoices, and documentation of merchandise, see 22 CFR parts 91 and 92.</P></CROSSREF>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 32110, Nov. 20, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.2" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.2   Scope of the act.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the act apply to any container which has been shipped or delivered for shipment in interstate or foreign commerce, as defined in section 2(c) of the act (44 Stat. 1407; 15 U.S.C. 402) or which has been received from shipment in such commerce for sale or exchange, or which is sold or offered for sale or held for sale or exchange in any Territory or possession or in the District of Columbia. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The word <I>container</I> as used in the regulations in this part means a retail parcel, package, or container suitable for household use and employed exclusively to hold any dangerous caustic or corrosive substance defined in the act. 
</P>
<P>(b) The words <I>suitable for household use</I> mean and imply adaptability for ready or convenient handling in places where people dwell. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.10   Placement.</HEAD>
<P>The label or sticker shall be so firmly attached to the container that it will remain thereon while the container is being used, and be so placed as readily to attract attention. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.11" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.11   Required wording.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The common name of the dangerous caustic or corrosive substance which shall appear on the label or sticker is the name given in section 2(a) of the act (44 Stat. 1406; 15 U.S.C. 402) or any other name commonly employed to designate and identify such substance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Preparations within the scope of the act bearing trade or fanciful names shall, in addition, be labeled with the common name of the dangerous caustic or corrosive substance contained therein and comply with all the other requirements of the act and of the regulations in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.12" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.12   Manufacturer; distributor.</HEAD>
<P>If the name on the label or sticker is other than that of the manufacturer, it shall be qualified by such words as “packed for,” “packed by,” “sold by,” or “distributed by,” as the case may be, or by other appropriate expression. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.13" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.13   Labeling of “poison”.</HEAD>
<P>The following are styles of uncondensed Gothic capital letters 24-point (type face) size: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe93.039.gif"/>
<FP>When letters of not less than 24-point size are required on a label in stating the word “poison” they must not be smaller than those above set forth. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.14" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.14   Directions for treatment.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 1230.16, the container shall bear in all cases upon the label or sticker thereof, immediately following the word “Poison,” directions for treatment in the case of internal personal injury; in addition, if the substance may cause external injury, directions for appropriate treatment shall be given. The directions shall prescribe such treatments for personal injury as are sanctioned by competent medical authority, and the materials called for by such directions shall be, whenever practicable, such as are usually available in the household. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.15   Responsibility for labeling directions for treatment.</HEAD>
<P>A person who receives from a manufacturer or wholesaler any container which under the conditions set forth in section 2(b)(4) of the act and § 1230.16 does not bear at the time of shipment directions for treatment in the case of personal injury must place such directions on the label or sticker if he offers such container for general sale or exchange. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.16" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.16   Exemption from labeling directions for treatment.</HEAD>
<P>Manufacturers and wholesalers only, at the time of shipment or delivery for shipment, are exempted from placing directions for treatment on the label or sticker of any container for other than household use, but in any event the information required by section 2(b) (1), (2), and (3) of the act (44 Stat. 1407; 15 U.S.C. 402) and the regulations in this part shall be given. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Guaranty</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.20   General guaranty.</HEAD>
<P>In lieu of a particular guaranty for each lot of dangerous caustic or corrosive substances, a general continuing guaranty may be furnished by the guarantor to actual or prospective purchasers. The following are forms of continuing guaranties: 
</P>
<P>(a) Substances for both household use and other than household use: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The undersigned guarantees that the retail parcels, packages, or containers of the dangerous caustic or corrosive substance or substances to be sold to _____ are not misbranded within the meaning of the Federal Caustic Poison Act. 
</P>
<P>(Date)
</P>
<FRP>(Signature and address of 
</FRP>
<FRP>guarantor)</FRP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Substances for other than household use (this form may be issued only by a manufacturer or wholesaler) (§§ 1230.15, 1230.16): 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The dangerous caustic or corrosive substance or substances in retail parcels, packages, or containers suitable for household use to be sold to _____ are for other than household use, and guaranteed not to be misbranded within the meaning of the Federal Caustic Poison Act. 
</P>
<P>(Date)
</P>
<FRP>(Signature and address of 
</FRP>
<FRP>manufacturer or wholesaler)</FRP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.21   Specific guaranty.</HEAD>
<P>If a guaranty in respect to any specific lot of dangerous caustic or corrosive substances be given, it shall be incorporated in or attached to the bill of sale, invoice, or other schedule bearing the date and the name and quantity of the substance sold, and shall not appear on the label or package. The following are forms of specific guaranties: 
</P>
<P>(a) Substances for both household use and other than household use: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The undersigned guarantees that the retail parcels, packages, or containers of the dangerous caustic or corrosive substance or substances listed herein (or specifying the substances) are not misbranded within the meaning of the Federal Caustic Poison Act.
</P>
<FRP>(Signature and address of guarantor)</FRP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Substances for other than household use (this form may be issued only by a manufacturer or wholesaler (§§ 1230.15, 1230.16): 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The dangerous caustic or corrosive substance or substances listed herein (or specifying the substances) in retail parcels, packages, or containers suitable for household use are for other than household use and are guaranteed not to be misbranded within the meaning of the Federal Caustic Poison Act. 
</P>
<FRP>(Name and address of manufacturer 
</FRP>
<FRP>or wholesaler)</FRP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.30   Collection of samples.</HEAD>
<P>Samples for examination by or under the direction and supervision of the Food and Drug Administration shall be collected by: 
</P>
<P>(a) An authorized agent in the employ of the Department of Health and Human Services; 
</P>
<P>(b) Any officer of any State, Territory, or possession, or of the District of Columbia, authorized by the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.31" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.31   Where samples may be collected.</HEAD>
<P>Caustic or corrosive substances within the scope of this act (44 Stat. 1406; 15 U.S.C. 401-411) may be sampled wherever found. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.32" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.32   Analyzing of samples.</HEAD>
<P>Samples collected by an authorized agent shall be analyzed at the laboratory designated by the Food and Drug Administration. Only such samples as are collected in accordance with §§ 1230.30, 1230.31 may be analyzed by or under the direction and supervision of the Food and Drug Administration. Upon request one subdivision of the sample, if available, shall be delivered to the party or parties interested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.33" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.33   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>Authorized agents in the employ of the Department of Health and Human Services may make investigations, including the inspection of premises where dangerous caustic and corrosive substances subject to the act are manufactured, packed, stored, or held for sale or distribution, and make examinations of freight and other transportation records. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.34" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.34   Analysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The methods of examination or analysis employed shall be those prescribed by the Association of Official Agricultural Chemists, when applicable, provided, however, that any method of analysis or examination satisfactory to the Food and Drug Administration may be employed. 
</P>
<P>(b) All percentages stated in the definitions in section 2(a) of the Federal Caustic Poison Act shall be determined by weight. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.35   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever it appears from the inspection, analysis, or test of any container that the provisions of section 3 or 6 of the Federal Caustic Poison Act (44 Stat. 1407, 1409; 15 U.S.C. 403, 406) have been violated and criminal proceedings are contemplated, notice shall be given to the party or parties against whom prosecution is under consideration and to other interested parties, and a date shall be fixed at which such party or parties may be heard. The hearing shall be held at the office of the Food and Drug Administration designated in the notice and shall be private and confined to questions of fact. The parties notified may present evidence, either oral or written, in person or by attorney, to show cause why the matter should not be referred for prosecution as a violation of the Federal Caustic Poison Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.36" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.36   Hearings; when not provided for.</HEAD>
<P>No hearing is provided for when the health, medical, or drug officer or agent of any State, Territory, or possession, or of the District of Columbia, acts under the authority contained in section 8 of the Federal Caustic Poison Act (44 Stat. 1409; 15 U.S.C. 408) in reporting a violation direct to the United States attorney. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.37" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.37   Publication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After judgment of the court in any proceeding under the Federal Caustic Poison Act, notice shall be given by publication. Such notice shall include the findings of the court and may include the findings of the analyst and such explanatory statements of fact as the Secretary of Health and Human Services may deem appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) This publication may be made in the form of a circular, notice, or bulletin, as the Secretary of Health and Human Services may direct. 
</P>
<P>(c) If an appeal be taken from the judgment of the court before such publication, that fact shall appear. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Imports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.40   Required label information.</HEAD>
<P>Containers which are offered for import shall in all cases bear labels or stickers having thereon the information required by section 2(b) (1), (2), and (3) of the Federal Caustic Poison Act and the directions for treatment in the case of personal injury, except such directions need not appear on the label or sticker at the time of shipment by a wholesaler or manufacturer for other than household use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.41" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.41   Delivery of containers.</HEAD>
<P>Containers shall not be delivered to the consignee prior to report of examination, unless a bond has been given on the appropriate form for the amount of the full invoice value of such containers, together with the duty thereon, and the refusal of the consignee to return such containers for any cause to the custody of the District Director of Customs when demanded, for the purpose of excluding them from the country or for any other purpose, the consignee shall pay an amount equal to the sum named in the bond, and such part of the duty, if any, as may be payable, as liquidated damages for failure to return to the District Director of Customs on demand all containers covered by the bond. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.42" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.42   Invoices.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as the importer makes entry, the invoices covering containers and the public stores packages shall be made available, with the least possible delay, for inspection by the representative of the district. When no sample is desired the invoice shall be stamped by the district “No sample desired, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, per (initials of inspecting officer).” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.43" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.43   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement agency.</I> The Federal Caustic Poison Act shall be enforced by the Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement of provisions.</I> The enforcement of the provisions of the Federal Caustic Poison Act as they relate to imported dangerous caustic or corrosive substances, will, as a general rule, be under the direction of the chief of the local inspection district of the Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, and District Directors of Customs acting as administrative officers in carrying out directions relative to the detention, exportation, and sale, or other disposition of such substances and action under the bond in case of noncompliance with the provisions of the Federal Caustic Poison Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chief of district as customs officer.</I> The chief of district shall be deemed a customs officer in enforcing import regulations. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonlaboratory ports.</I> (1) At the ports of entry where there is no district of the Food and Drug Administration, the District Director of Customs or deputy, on the day when the first notice of expected shipment of containers is received, either by invoice or entry, shall notify the chief of district in whose territory the port is located. 
</P>
<P>(2) On the day of receipt of such notice the chief of district shall mail to the District Director of Customs appropriate notice, if no sample is desired. This notice serves as an equivalent to stamping the invoices at district ports with the legend “No sample desired, Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and Human Services, per (initials of inspecting officer).” 
</P>
<P>(3) If samples are desired, the Chief of district shall immediately notify the District Director of Customs. 
</P>
<P>(4) The District Director of Customs at once shall forward samples, accompanied by description of shipment. 
</P>
<P>(5) When samples are desired from each shipment of containers, the chief of district shall furnish to District Director of Customs and deputies at ports within the district's territory a list of such containers, indicating the size of sample necessary. Samples should then be sent promptly on arrival of containers without awaiting special request. 
</P>
<P>(6) In all other particulars the procedure shall be the same at nonlaboratory ports as at laboratory ports, except that the time consumed in delivery of notices by mail shall be allowed for. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.44" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.44   Samples.</HEAD>
<P>On the same day that samples are requested by the district, the District Director of Customs or appraiser shall notify the importer that samples will be taken, that the containers must be held intact pending a notice of the result of inspection and analysis, and that in case the containers do not comply with the requirements of the Federal Caustic Poison Act, they must be returned to the District Director of Customs for disposition. This notification may be given by the District Director of Customs or appraiser through individual notices to the importer or by suitable bulletin notices posted daily in the customhouse. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.45   No violation; release.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as examination of the samples is completed, if no violation of the act is detected, the chief of the district shall send a notice of release to the importer and a copy of this notice to the District Director of Customs for his information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.46" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.46   Violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a violation of the Federal Caustic Poison Act is disclosed, the chief of the district shall send to the importer due notice of the nature of the violation and of the time and place where evidence may be presented, showing that the containers should not be refused admission. At the same time similar notice regarding detention of the containers shall be sent to the District Director of Customs, requesting him to refuse delivery thereof or to require their return to customs custody if by any chance the containers were released without the bond referred to in § 1230.41. The time allowed the importer for representations regarding the shipment may be extended at his request for a reasonable period to permit him to secure such evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the importer does not reply to the notice of hearing in person or by letter within the time allowed on the notice, a second notice, marked “second and last notice,” shall be sent at once by the chief of the district, advising him that failure to reply will cause definite recommendation to the District Director of Customs that the containers be refused admission and that the containers be exported within 3 months under customs supervision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.47" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.47   Rejected containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all cases where the containers are to be refused admission, the chief of the district within 1 day after hearing, or, if the importer does not appear or reply within 3 days after second notice, shall notify the District Director of Customs in duplicate accordingly. 
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than 1 day after receipt of this notice the District Director of Customs shall sign and transmit to the importer one of the copies, which shall serve as notification to the importer that the containers must be exported under customs supervision within 3 months from such date, as provided by law; the other notice shall be retained as office record and later returned as a report to the chief of the district. In all cases the importer shall return his notice to the District Director of Customs, properly certified as to the information required, as the form provides. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.48" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.48   Relabeling of containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If containers are to be released after relabeling, a notice shall be sent by the chief of district direct to the importer, a carbon copy being sent to the District Director of Customs. This notice must state specifically the conditions to be performed, so as to bring the performance thereof under the provisions of the customs bonds on consumption and warehouse entries, these bonds including provisions requiring compliance with all of the requirements of the Federal Caustic Poison Act and all regulations and instructions issued thereunder. The notice will also state the officer to be notified by the importer when the containers are ready for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(b) The importer must return the notice to the District Director of Customs or chief of district, as designated, with the certificate thereon filled out, stating that he has complied with the prescribed conditions and that the containers are ready for inspection at the place named. 
</P>
<P>(c) This notice will be delivered to the inspection officer, who, after inspection, will endorse the result thereof on the back of the notice and return the same to the District Director of Customs or to the chief of district, as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(d) When the conditions to be complied with are under the supervision of the chief of district, and these conditions have been fully met, he shall release the containers to the importer, sending a copy of the notice of release to the District Director of Customs for his information. If the containers have not been properly relabeled within the period allowed, the chief of district shall immediately give notice in duplicate to the District Director of Customs of the results of inspection. The District Director of Customs shall sign and immediately transmit one copy of the notice to the importer and proceed in the usual manner. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the containers are detained subject to relabeling to be performed under the supervision of the District Director of Customs, the District Director of Customs, as soon as relabeling is accomplished, will notify the importer that the containers are released. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the containers have not been properly relabeled within the period allowed, their sale after labeling as required by the act or other disposition must be effected by the District Director of Customs. 
</P>
<P>(g) When the final action has been taken on containers which have been refused admission, sold, or otherwise disposed of as provided for by the act or which have been relabeled under the supervision of the District Director of Customs, he shall send to the chief of district a notice of such final action, giving the date and disposition. 
</P>
<P>(h) When relabeling is allowed the importer must furnish satisfactory evidence as to the identity of the containers before release is given. The relabeling must be done at a stated place and apart from other containers of a similar nature. 
</P>
<P>(i) When containers are shipped to another port for relabeling or exportation, they must be shipped under customs carrier's manifest, in the same manner as shipments in bond. 
</P>
<P>(j) District Directors of Customs will perform the inspection service whenever containers are to be exported, sold, or otherwise disposed of, and in other cases when there is no officer of the district available. 
</P>
<P>(k) District Directors of Customs and representatives of the district will confer and arrange the apportionment of the inspection service according to local conditions. Officers of the district will, whenever feasible, perform the inspection service in connection with relabeling. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.49" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.55.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.49   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In case of failure to comply with the instructions or recommendations of the chief of district as to conditions under which containers may be disposed of, the District Director of Customs shall notify the chief of district in all cases coming to his attention within 3 days after inspection or after the expiration of the 3 months allowed by law if no action is taken. 
</P>
<P>(b) The chief of district, upon receipt of the above-described notice, and in all cases of failure to meet the conditions imposed in order to comply with the provisions of the Federal Caustic Poison Act coming directly under his supervision, shall transmit to the District Director of Customs such evidence as he may have at hand tending to indicate the importer's liability and make a recommendation accordingly. 
</P>
<P>(c) The District Director of Customs, within 3 days of the receipt of this recommendation, whether favorable or otherwise, shall notify the importer that, the legal period of 3 months for exportation or relabeling having expired, action will be taken within 30 days to enforce the terms of the bond. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1240" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1240—CONTROL OF COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 216, 243, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For Department of Health and Human Services regulations relating to foreign quarantine, sanitation measures, and control of communicable diseases, see Centers for Disease Control's requirements as set forth in 42 CFR parts 71 and 72.</P></CROSSREF>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.3   General definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, terms shall have the following meaning: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bactericidal treatment.</I> The application of a method or substance for the destruction of pathogens and other organisms as set forth in § 1240.10. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Communicable diseases.</I> Illnesses due to infectious agents or their toxic products, which may be transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly as from an infected person or animal or indirectly through the agency of an intermediate plant or animal host, vector, or the inanimate environment. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communicable period.</I> The period or periods during which the etiologic agent may be transferred directly or indirectly from the body of the infected person or animal to the body of another. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contamination.</I> The presence of a certain amount of undesirable substance or material, which may contain pathogenic microorganisms. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conveyance.</I> Conveyance means any land or air carrier, or any vessel as defined in paragraph (n) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Garbage.</I> (1) The solid animal and vegetable waste, together with the natural moisture content, resulting from the handling, preparation, or consumption of foods in houses, restaurants, hotels, kitchens, and similar establishments, or (2) any other food waste containing pork. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Incubation period.</I> The period between the implanting of disease organisms in a susceptible person and the appearance of clinical manifestation of the disease. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Interstate traffic.</I> (1) The movement of any conveyance or the transportation of persons or property, including any portion of such movement or transportation which is entirely within a State or possession, 
</P>
<P>(i) From a point of origin in any State or possession to a point of destination in any other State or possession, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Between a point of origin and a point of destination in the same State or possession but through any other State, possession, or contiguous foreign country. 
</P>
<P>(2) Interstate traffic does not include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The movement of any conveyance which is solely for the purpose of unloading persons or property transported from a foreign country, or loading persons or property for transportation to a foreign country. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The movement of any conveyance which is solely for the purpose of effecting its repair, reconstruction, rehabilitation, or storage. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Milk.</I> Milk is the product defined in § 131.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Milk products.</I> Food products made exclusively or principally from the lacteal secretion obtained from one or more healthy milk-producing animals, e.g., cows, goats, sheep, and water buffalo, including, but not limited to, the following: lowfat milk, skim milk, cream, half and half, dry milk, nonfat dry milk, dry cream, condensed or concentrated milk products, cultured or acidified milk or milk products, kefir, eggnog, yogurt, butter, cheese (where not specifically exempted by regulation), whey, condensed or dry whey or whey products, ice cream, ice milk, other frozen dairy desserts and products obtained by modifying the chemical or physical characteristics of milk, cream, or whey by using enzymes, solvents, heat, pressure, cooling, vacuum, genetic engineering, fractionation, or other similar processes, and any such product made by the addition or subtraction of milkfat or the addition of safe and suitable optional ingredients for the protein, vitamin, or mineral fortification of the product.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Minimum heat treatment.</I> The causing of all particles in garbage to be heated to a boiling temperature and held at that temperature for a period of not less than 30 minutes. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Possession.</I> Any of the possessions of the United States, including Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Potable water.</I> Water which meets the standards prescribed in the Environmental Protection Agency's Primary Drinking Water Regulations as set forth in 40 CFR part 141 and the Food and Drug Administration's sanitation requirements as set forth in this part and part 1250 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>State.</I> Any State, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Utensil.</I> Includes any kitchenware, tableware, glassware, cutlery, containers, or equipment with which food or drink comes in contact during storage, preparation, or serving. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Vessel.</I> Any passenger-carrying, cargo, or towing vessel exclusive of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Fishing boats including those used for shell-fishing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Tugs which operate only locally in specific harbors and adjacent waters; 
</P>
<P>(3) Barges without means of self-propulsion; 
</P>
<P>(4) Construction-equipment boats and dredges; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Sand and gravel dredging and handling boats. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Watering point.</I> The specific place or water boat from which potable water is loaded on a conveyance. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Molluscan shellfish.</I> Any edible species of fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, and scallops or edible portions thereof, except when the product consists entirely of the shucked adductor muscle. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Certification number</I> means a unique combination of letters and numbers assigned by a shellfish control authority to a molluscan shellfish processor. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Shellfish control authority</I> means a Federal, State, or foreign agency, or sovereign tribal government, legally responsible for the administration of a program that includes activities such as classification of molluscan shellfish growing areas, enforcement of molluscan shellfish harvesting controls, and certification of molluscan shellfish processors. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Tag</I> means a record of harvesting information attached to a container of shellstock by the harvester or processor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983; 57 FR 57344, Dec. 4, 1992; 60 FR 65201, Dec. 18, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.10   Effective bactericidal treatment.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever, under the provisions of this part, bactericidal treatment is required, it shall be accomplished by one or more of the following methods: 
</P>
<P>(a) By immersion of the utensil or equipment for at least 2 minutes in clean hot water at a temperature of at least 170 °F or for one-half minute in boiling water; 
</P>
<P>(b) By immersion of the utensil or equipment for at least 2 minutes in a lukewarm chlorine bath containing at least 50 ppm of available chlorine if hypochlorites are used or a concentration of equal bactericidal strength if chloramines are used; 
</P>
<P>(c) By exposure of the utensil or equipment in a steam cabinet at a temperature of at least 170 °F for at least 15 minutes or at a temperature of 200 °F for at least 5 minutes; 
</P>
<P>(d) By exposure of the utensil or equipment in an oven or hot air cabinet at a temperature of at least 180 °F for at least 20 minutes; 
</P>
<P>(e) In the case of utensils or equipment so designed or installed as to make immersion or exposure impractical, the equipment may be treated for the prescribed periods of time either at the temperatures or with chlorine solutions as specified above, (1) with live steam from a hose if the steam can be confined, (2) with boiling rinse water, or (3) by spraying or swabbing with chlorine solution; 
</P>
<P>(f) Any other method determined by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, upon application of an owner or operator of a conveyance, to be effective to prevent the spread of communicable disease. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.20   Issuance and posting of certificates following inspections.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may issue certificates based upon inspections provided for in this part and part 1250. Such certificates shall be prominently posted on conveyances. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.30   Measures in the event of inadequate local control.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Commissioner of Food and Drugs determines that the measures taken by health authorities of any State or possession (including political subdivisions thereof) are insufficient to prevent the spread of any of the communicable diseases from such State or possession to any other State or possession, he may take such measures to prevent such spread of the diseases as he deems reasonably necessary, including inspection, fumigation, disinfection, sanitation, pest extermination, and destruction of animals or articles believed to be sources of infection. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.45   Report of disease.</HEAD>
<P>The master of any vessel or person in charge of any conveyance engaged in interstate traffic, on which a case or suspected case of a communicable disease develops shall, as soon as practicable, notify the local health authority at the next port of call, station, or stop, and shall take such measures to prevent the spread of the disease as the local health authority directs. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Specific Administrative Decisions Regarding Interstate Shipments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.60   Molluscan shellfish.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person shall not offer for transportation, or transport, in interstate traffic any molluscan shellfish handled or stored in such an insanitary manner, or grown in an area so contaminated, as to render such molluscan shellfish likely to become agents in, and their transportation likely to contribute to the spread of communicable disease from one State or possession to another. 
</P>
<P>(b) All shellstock shall bear a tag that discloses the date and place they were harvested (by State and site), type and quantity of shellfish, and by whom they were harvested (i.e., the identification number assigned to the harvester by the shellfish control authority, where applicable or, if such identification numbers are not assigned, the name of the harvester or the name or registration number of the harvester's vessel). In place of the tag, bulk shellstock shipments may be accompanied by a bill of lading or similar shipping document that contains the same information. 
</P>
<P>(c) All containers of shucked molluscan shellfish shall bear a label that identifies the name, address, and certification number of the packer or repacker of the molluscan shellfish. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any molluscan shellfish without such a tag, shipping document, or label, or with a tag, shipping document, or label that does not bear all the information required by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, shall be subject to seizure or refusal of entry, and destruction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 60 FR 65202, Dec. 18, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.61" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.61   Mandatory pasteurization for all milk and milk products in final package form intended for direct human consumption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall cause to be delivered into interstate commerce or shall sell, otherwise distribute, or hold for sale or other distribution after shipment in interstate commerce any milk or milk product in final package form for direct human consumption unless the product has been pasteurized or is made from dairy ingredients (milk or milk products) that have all been pasteurized, except where alternative procedures to pasteurization are provided for by regulation, such as in part 133 of this chapter for curing of certain cheese varieties.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the terms “pasteurization,” “pasteurized,” and similar terms shall mean the process of heating every particle of milk and milk product in properly designed and operated equipment to one of the temperatures given in the following table and held continuously at or above that temperature for at least the corresponding specified time:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145 °F (63 °C) 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 minutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">161 °F (72 °C) 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 seconds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">191 °F (89 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 second.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the fat content of the milk product is 10 percent or more, or if it contains added sweeteners, the specified temperature shall be increased by 5 °F (3 °C).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">194 °F (90 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 second.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">201 °F (94 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 second.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">204 °F (96 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 second.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">212 °F (100 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 second.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Eggnog shall be heated to at least the following temperature and time specification:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">155 °F (69 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 minutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175 °F (80 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 seconds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180 °F (83 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 seconds.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Neither paragraph (b) nor (c) of this section shall be construed as barring any other pasteurization process that has been recognized by the Food and Drug Administration to be equally efficient in the destruction of microbial organisms of public health significance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 29514, Aug. 10, 1987, as amended at 57 FR 57344, Dec. 4, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.62" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.62   Turtles intrastate and interstate requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> As used in this section the term “turtles” includes all animals commonly known as turtles, tortoises, terrapins, and all other animals of the order Testudinata, class Reptilia, except marine species (families Dermachelidae and Chelonidae). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sales; general prohibition.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, viable turtle eggs and live turtles with a carapace length of less than 4 inches shall not be sold, held for sale, or offered for any other type of commercial or public distribution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> The provisions of this section are not applicable to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, holding for sale, and distribution of live turtles and viable turtle eggs for bona fide scientific, educational, or exhibitional purposes, other than use as pets. 
</P>
<P>(2) The sale, holding for sale, and distribution of live turtles and viable turtle eggs not in connection with a business. 
</P>
<P>(3) The sale, holding for sale, and distribution of live turtles and viable turtle eggs intended for export only, provided that the outside of the shipping package is conspicuously labeled “For Export Only.” 
</P>
<P>(4) Marine turtles excluded from this regulation under the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section and eggs of such turtles. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Petitions.</I> The Commissioner of Food and Drugs, either on his own initiative or on behalf of any interested person who has submitted a petition, may publish a proposal to amend this regulation. Any such petition shall include an adequate factual basis to support the petition, and will be published for comment if it contains reasonable grounds for the proposed regulation. A petition requesting such a regulation, which would amend this regulation, shall be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 22545, May 23, 1975, as amended at 46 FR 8461, Jan. 27, 1981; 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983; 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 14366, Mar. 28, 1994; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 70 FR 48073, Aug. 18, 2005; 78 FR 44881, July 25, 2013; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.65" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.65   Psittacine birds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term psittacine birds shall include all birds commonly known as parrots, Amazons, Mexican double heads, African grays, cocatoos, macaws, parakeets, love birds, lories, lorikeets, and all other birds of the psittacine family. 
</P>
<P>(b) No person shall transport, or offer for transportation, in interstate traffic any psittacine bird unless the shipment is accompanied by a permit from the State health department of the State of destination where required by such department. 
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the Surgeon General finds that psittacine birds or human beings in any area are infected with psittacosis and there is such danger of transmission of psittacosis from such area as to endanger the public health, he may declare it an area of infection. No person shall thereafter transport, or offer for transportation, in interstate traffic any psittacine bird from such area, except shipments authorized by the Surgeon General for purposes of medical research and accompanied by a permit issued by him, until the Surgeon General finds that there is no longer any danger of transmission of psittacosis from such area. As used in this paragraph, the term “area” includes, but is not limited to, specific premises or buildings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.75" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.75   Garbage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person shall not transport, receive, or cause to be transported or received, garbage in interstate traffic and feed such garbage to swine unless, prior to the feeding, such garbage has received minimum heat treatment. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person transporting garbage in interstate traffic shall not make, or agree to make, delivery thereof to any person with knowledge of the intent or customary practice of such person to feed to swine garbage which has not been subjected to minimum heat treatment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Source and Use of Potable Water</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.80" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.80   General requirements for water for drinking and culinary purposes.</HEAD>
<P>Only potable water shall be provided for drinking and culinary purposes by any operator of a conveyance engaged in interstate traffic, except as provided in § 1250.84(b) of this chapter. Such water shall either have been obtained from watering points approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, or, if treated aboard a conveyance, shall have been subjected to treatment approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.83" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.83   Approval of watering points.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs shall approve any watering point if (1) the water supply threat meets the standards prescribed in the Environmental Protection Agency's Primary Drinking Water Regulations as set forth in 40 CFR part 141, and (2) the methods of and facilities for delivery of such water to the conveyance and the sanitary conditions surrounding such delivery prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may base his approval or disapproval of a watering point upon investigations made by representatives of State departments of health or of the health authorities of contiguous foreign nations. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a watering point has not been approved, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs may permit its temporary use under such conditions as, in his judgment, are necessary to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases. 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon request of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, operators of conveyances shall provide information as to watering points used by them. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983; 48 FR 13978, Apr. 1, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.86" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.86   Protection of pier water system.</HEAD>
<P>No vessel engaged in interstate traffic shall make a connection between its nonpotable water system and any pier potable water system unless provisions are made to prevent backflow from the vessel to the pier. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.90" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.90   Approval of treatment aboard conveyances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The treatment of water aboard conveyances shall be approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs if the apparatus used is of such design and is so operated as to be capable of producing and in fact does produce, potable water. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may base his approval or disapproval of the treatment of water upon investigations made by representatives of State departments of health or of the health authorities of contiguous foreign nations. 
</P>
<P>(c) Overboard water treated on vessels shall be from areas relatively free of contamination and pollution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.95" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.56.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.95   Sanitation of water boats.</HEAD>
<P>No vessel engaged in interstate traffic shall obtain water for drinking and culinary purposes from any water boat unless the tanks, piping, and other appurtenances used by the water boat in the loading, transportation, and delivery of such drinking and culinary water, have been approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5620, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11431, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1250" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1250—INTERSTATE CONVEYANCE SANITATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 216, 243, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross References:</HED>
<P>For Department of Health and Human Services regulations relating to foreign quarantine and control of communicable diseases, see Centers for Disease Control's requirements as set forth in 42 CFR parts 71 and 72.</P></CROSSREF>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, terms shall have the following meaning: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bactericidal treatment.</I> The application of a method or substance for the destruction of pathogens and other organisms as set forth in § 1240.10 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Communicable diseases.</I> Illnesses due to infectious agents or their toxic products, which may be transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly as from an infected person or animal or indirectly through the agency of an intermediate plant or animal host, vector, or the inanimate environment. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communicable period.</I> The period or periods during which the etiologic agent may be transferred directly or indirectly from the body of the infected person or animal to the body of another. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contamination.</I> The presence of a certain amount of undesirable substance or material, which may contain pathogenic microorganisms. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conveyance.</I> Conveyance means any land or air carrier, or any vessel as defined in paragraph (m) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Existing vessel.</I> Any vessel the construction of which was started prior to the effective date of the regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Garbage.</I> (1) The solid animal and vegetable waste, together with the natural moisture content, resulting from the handling, preparation, or consumption of foods in houses, restaurants, hotels, kitchens, and similar establishments, or (2) any other food waste containing pork. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Interstate traffic.</I> (1) The movement of any conveyance or the transportation of persons or property, including any portion of such movement or transportation which is entirely within a State or possession, (i) from a point of origin in any State or possession to a point of destination in any other State or possession, or (ii) between a point of origin and a point of destination in the same State or possession but through any other State, possession, or contiguous foreign country. 
</P>
<P>(2) Interstate traffic does not include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The movement of any conveyance which is solely for the purpose of unloading persons or property transported from a foreign country, or loading persons or property for transportation to a foreign country. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The movement of any conveyance which is solely for the purpose of effecting its repair, reconstruction, rehabilitation, or storage. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Possession.</I> Any of the possessions of the United States, including Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Potable water.</I> Water which meets the standards prescribed in the Environmental Protection Agency's Primary Drinking Water Regulations as set forth in 40 CFR part 141 and the Food and Drug Administration's sanitation regulations as set forth in this part and part 1240 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>State.</I> Any State, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Utensil.</I> Includes any kitchenware, tableware, glassware, cutlery, containers, or equipment with which food or drink comes in contact during storage, preparation, or serving. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Vessel.</I> Any passenger-carrying, cargo, or towing vessel exclusive of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Fishing boats including those used for shell-fishing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Tugs which operate only locally in specific harbors and adjacent waters; 
</P>
<P>(3) Barges without means of self-propulsion; 
</P>
<P>(4) Construction-equipment boats and dredges; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Sand and gravel dredging and handling boats. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Wash water.</I> Water suitable for domestic uses other than for drinking and culinary purposes, and medical care purposes excluding hydrotherapy. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Shellfish.</I> Any fresh, frozen, or incompletely cooked oysters, clams, or mussels, either shucked or in the shell, and any fresh, frozen, or incompletely cooked edible products thereof. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Food Service Sanitation on Land and Air Conveyances, and Vessels</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.20   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>All conveyances engaged in interstate traffic shall comply with the requirements prescribed in this subpart and § 1240.20 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.21   Inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may inspect such conveyance to determine compliance with the requirements of this subpart and § 1240.20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.22   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>All food and drink served on conveyances shall be clean, wholesome, and free from spoilage, and shall be prepared, stored, handled, and served in accordance with the requirements prescribed in this subpart and § 1240.20 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.25   Source identification and inspection of food and drink.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Operators of conveyances shall identify, when requested by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, the vendors, distributors or dealers from whom they have acquired or are acquiring their food supply, including milk, fluid milk products, ice cream and other frozen desserts, butter, cheese, bottled water, sandwiches and box lunches. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may inspect any source of such food supply in order to determine whether the requirements of the regulations in this subpart and in § 1240.20 of this chapter are being met, and may utilize the results of inspections of such sources made by representatives of State health departments or of the health authorities of contiguous foreign nations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.26" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.26   Special food requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Milk, fluid milk products, ice cream and other frozen desserts, butter, cheese, and shellfish served or sold on conveyances shall conform to the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(a) Milk and fluid milk products, including cream, buttermilk, skim milk, milk beverages, and reconstituted milk, shall be pasteurized and obtained from a source of supply approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. The Commissioner of Food and Drugs shall approve any source of supply at or from which milk or fluid milk products are produced, processed, and distributed so as to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases. If a source of supply of milk or fluid milk products has not been approved, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs may permit its temporary use under such conditions as, in his judgment, are necessary to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases. Containers of milk and fluid milk products shall be plainly labeled to show the contents, the word “pasteurized”, and the identity of the plant at which the contents were packaged by name and address, provided that a code may be used in lieu of address. 
</P>
<P>(b) Ice cream, other frozen desserts, and butter shall be manufactured from milk or milk products that have been pasteurized or subjected to equivalent heat treatment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Cheese shall be (1) pasteurized or subjected to equivalent heat treatment, (2) made from pasteurized milk products or from milk products which have been subjected to equivalent heat treatment, or (3) cured for not less than 60 days at a temperature not less than 35 °F. 
</P>
<P>(d) Milk, buttermilk, and milk beverages shall be served in or from the original individual containers in which received from the distributor, or from a bulk container equipped with a dispensing device so designed, constructed, installed, and maintained as to prevent the transmission of communicable diseases. 
</P>
<P>(e) Shellfish purchased for consumption on any conveyance shall originate from a dealer currently listed by the Public Health Service as holding an unexpired and unrevoked certificate issued by a State authority. 
</P>
<P>(f) Shucked shellfish shall be purchased in the containers in which they are placed at the shucking plant and shall be kept therein until used. The State abbreviation and the certificate number of the packers shall be permanently recorded on the container. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.27" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.27   Storage of perishables.</HEAD>
<P>All perishable food or drink shall be kept at or below 50 °F, except when being prepared or kept hot for serving. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.28" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.28   Source and handling of ice.</HEAD>
<P>Ice coming in contact with food or drink and not manufactured on the conveyance shall be obtained from sources approved by competent health authorities. All ice coming in contact with food or drink shall be stored and handled in such manner as to avoid contamination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.30" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.30   Construction, maintenance and use of places where food is prepared, served, or stored.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All kitchens, galleys, pantries, and other places where food is prepared, served, or stored shall be adequately lighted and ventilated: <I>Provided, however,</I> That ventilation of cold storage rooms shall not be required. All such places where food is prepared, served, or stored shall be so constructed and maintained as to be clean and free from flies, rodents, and other vermin. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such places shall not be used for sleeping or living quarters. 
</P>
<P>(c) Water of satisfactory sanitary quality, under head or pressure, and adequate in amount and temperature, shall be easily accessible to all rooms in which food is prepared and utensils are cleaned. 
</P>
<P>(d) All plumbing shall be so designed, installed, and maintained as to prevent contamination of the water supply, food, and food utensils. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.32" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.32   Food-handling operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All food-handling operations shall be accomplished so as to minimize the possibility of contaminating food, drink, or utensils. 
</P>
<P>(b) The hands of all persons shall be kept clean while engaged in handling food, drink, utensils, or equipment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.33" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.33   Utensils and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All utensils and working surfaces used in connection with the preparation, storage, and serving of food or beverages, and the cleaning of food utensils, shall be so constructed as to be easily cleaned and self-draining and shall be maintained in good repair. Adequate facilities shall be provided for the cleaning and bactericidal treatment of all multiuse eating and drinking utensils and equipment used in the preparation of food and beverages. An indicating thermometer, suitably located, shall be provided to permit the determination of the hot water temperature when and where hot water is used as the bactericidal agent. 
</P>
<P>(b) All multiuse eating and drinking utensils shall be thoroughly cleaned in warm water and subjected to an effective bactericidal treatment after each use. All other utensils that come in contact with food and drink shall be similarly treated immediately following the day's operation. All equipment shall be kept clean. 
</P>
<P>(c) After bactericidal treatment, utensils shall be stored and handled in such manner as to prevent contamination before reuse. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.34" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.34   Refrigeration equipment.</HEAD>
<P>Each refrigerator shall be equipped with a thermometer located in the warmest portion thereof. Waste water drains from ice boxes, refrigerating equipment, and refrigerated spaces shall be so installed as to prevent backflow of contaminating liquids. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.35" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.35   Health of persons handling food.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is known or suspected to be in a communicable period or a carrier of any communicable disease shall not be permitted to engage in the preparation, handling, or serving of water, other beverages, or food. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person known or suspected to be suffering from gastrointestinal disturbance or who has on the exposed portion of the body an open lesion or an infected wound shall not be permitted to engage in the preparation, handling, or serving of food or beverages. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.38" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.38   Toilet and lavatory facilities for use of food-handling employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Toilet and lavatory facilities of suitable design and construction shall be provided for use of food-handling employees. Railroad dining car crew lavatory facilities are regulated under § 1250.45. 
</P>
<P>(b) Signs directing food-handling employees to wash their hands after each use of toilet facilities shall be posted so as to be readily observable by such employees. Hand washing facilities shall include soap, sanitary towels and hot and cold running water or warm running water in lieu of hot and cold running water. 
</P>
<P>(c) All toilet rooms shall be maintained in a clean condition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.39" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.39   Garbage equipment and disposition.</HEAD>
<P>Watertight, readily cleanable nonabsorbent containers with close-fitting covers shall be used to receive and store garbage. Garbage and refuse shall be disposed of as frequently as is necessary and practicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Equipment and Operation of Land and Air Conveyances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.40" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.40   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The sanitary equipment and facilities on land and air conveyances engaged in interstate traffic and the use of such equipment and facilities shall comply with the requirements prescribed in this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.41" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.41   Submittal of construction plans.</HEAD>
<P>Plans for the construction or major reconstruction of sanitary equipment or facilities for such conveyances shall be submitted to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for review of the conformity of such plans with the requirements of this subpart, except that submittal of plans shall not be required for any conveyance under reconstruction if the owner or operator thereof has made arrangements satisfactory to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for inspections of such conveyances while under reconstruction for the purpose of determining conformity with those requirements. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.42" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.42   Water systems; constant temperature bottles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The water system, whether of the pressure or gravity type, shall be complete and closed from the filling ends to the discharge taps, except for protected vent openings. The water system shall be protected against backflow. 
</P>
<P>(b) Filling pipes or connections through which water tanks are supplied shall be provided on both sides of all new railway conveyances and on existing conveyances when they undergo heavy repairs. All filling connections shall be easily cleanable and so located and protected as to minimize the hazard of contamination of the water supply. 
</P>
<P>(c) On all new or reconstructed conveyances, water coolers shall be an integral part of the closed system. 
</P>
<P>(d) Water filters if used on dining cars and other conveyances will be permitted only if they are so operated and maintained at all times as to prevent contamination of the water. 
</P>
<P>(e) Constant temperature bottles and other containers used for storing or dispensing potable water shall be kept clean at all times and shall be subjected to effective bactericidal treatment as often as may be necessary to prevent the contamination of water so stored and dispensed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.43" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.43   Ice.</HEAD>
<P>Ice shall not be permitted to come in contact with water in coolers or constant temperature bottles. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.44" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.44   Drinking utensils and toilet articles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No cup, glass, or other drinking utensil which may be used by more than one person shall be provided on any conveyance unless such cup, glass, or drinking utensil shall have been thoroughly cleaned and subjected to effective bactericidal treatment after each individual use. 
</P>
<P>(b) Towels, combs, or brushes for common use shall not be provided. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.45   Food handling facilities on railroad conveyances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Both kitchens and pantries of cars hereafter constructed or reconstructed shall be equipped with double sinks, one of which shall be of sufficient size and depth to permit complete immersion of a basket of dishes during bactericidal treatment; in the pantry a dishwashing machine may be substituted for the double sinks. If chemicals are used for bactericidal treatment, 3-compartment sinks shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(b) A sink shall be provided for washing and handling cracked ice used in food or drink and shall be used for no other purpose. 
</P>
<P>(c) Lavatory facilities for the use of the dining car crew shall be provided on each dining car. Such facilities shall be conveniently located and used for hand and face washing only: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where the kitchen and pantry on a dining car hereafter constructed or reconstructed are so partitioned or separated as to impede free passage between them lavatory facilities shall be provided in both the kitchen and the pantry. 
</P>
<P>(d) Wherever toilet and lavatory facilities required by paragraph (c) of this section are not on the dining car, a lavatory shall be provided on the dining car for the use of employees. The lavatory shall be conveniently located and used only for the purpose for which it is installed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.49" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.49   Cleanliness of conveyances.</HEAD>
<P>Conveyances while in transit shall be kept clean and free of flies and mosquitoes. A conveyance which becomes infected with vermin shall be placed out of service until such time as it shall have been effectively treated for the destruction of the vermin. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.50   Toilet and lavatory facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Where toilet and lavatory facilities are provided on conveyances they shall be so designed as to permit ready cleaning. On conveyances not equipped with retention facilities, toilet hoppers shall be of such design and so located as to prevent spattering of water filling pipes or hydrants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.51" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.51   Railroad conveyances; discharge of wastes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New railroad conveyances.</I> Human wastes, garbage, waste water, or other polluting materials shall not be discharged from any new railroad conveyance except at servicing areas approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. In lieu of retention pending discharge at approved servicing areas, human wastes, garbage, waste water, or other polluting materials that have been suitably treated to prevent the spread of communicable diseases may be discharged from such conveyances, except at stations. For the purposes of this section, “new railroad conveyance” means any such conveyance placed into service for the first time after July 1, 1972, and the terms “waste water or other polluting materials” do not include drainage of drinking water taps or lavatory facilities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonnew railroad conveyances.</I> Human wastes, garbage, waste water, or other polluting materials shall not be discharged from any railroad conveyance, other than passenger conveyances for which an extension has been granted pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, after December 31, 1977, except at servicing areas approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. In lieu of retention pending discharge at approved servicing areas, human wastes, garbage, waste water, or other polluting materials that have been suitably treated to prevent the spread of communicable diseases may be discharged from such conveyances, except at stations. The terms “waste water or other polluting materials” do not include drainage of drinking water taps or lavatory facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Toilets.</I> When railroad conveyances, occupied or open to occupancy by travelers, are at a station or servicing area, toilets shall be kept locked unless means are provided to prevent contamination of the area or station. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of annual report.</I> Each railroad company shall submit to the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-627), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, an annual report of accomplishments made in modifying conveyances to achieve compliance with paragraph (b) of this section. Annual reports shall be required until a report is submitted showing that 100 percent of the company's conveyances can comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; annual reports shall be required subsequent to such report if conveyances not capable of complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are acquired. Every railroad company shall have not less than 10 percent of its nonpassenger conveyances that are in operation capable of complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section by December 31, 1974, not less than 40 percent by December 31, 1975, and not less than 70 percent by December 31, 1976. All conveyances, other than passenger conveyances for which an extension has been granted pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, in operation after December 31, 1977, shall be capable of complying with paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirements of annual report.</I> Annual reports required by paragraph (d) of this section shall be submitted within 60 days of the end of each calendar year. Each report shall contain at least the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Company name and address. 
</P>
<P>(2) Name, title, and address of the company's chief operating official. 
</P>
<P>(3) Name, title, address, and telephone number of the person designated by the company to be directly responsible for compliance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that all new railroad conveyances placed into service after July 1, 1972 meet the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) A complete, factual, narrative statement explaining why retrofitting of noncomplying nonnew conveyances is incomplete, if it is incomplete. 
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of the percentage of conveyances retrofitted with waste discharge facilities in compliance with this section as of the reporting date and the percentage expected to be completed by December 31st of the following year. 
</P>
<P>(7) A tabular report with the following vertical columns: equipment type, e.g., locomotive, caboose, passenger car, and any others having toilets; number of toilets per conveyance; number of each equipment type in operation; and number of each to be retrofitted by December 31st of each year until 100 percent compliance with this section is achieved. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Variances and extensions</I>—(1) <I>Variances.</I> Upon application by a railroad company, the Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, may grant a variance from the compliance schedule prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section for nonpassenger conveyances when the requested variance is required to prevent substantial disruption of the railroad company's operations. Such variance shall not affect the final deadline of compliance established in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extensions.</I> Upon application by a railroad company, the Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, may grant an extension of time for compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section beyond December 31, 1977, for passenger conveyances operated by railroad companies when compliance cannot be achieved without substantial disruption of the railroad company's operations. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application for variance or extension.</I> Application for variances or extensions shall be submitted to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Manager, Interstate Travel Sanitation Sub-Program, HFF-312, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, and shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the proposed deviation from the requirements of paragraphs (b) or (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A report, current to the date of the request for a variance or extension, containing the information required by paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Administration of variances and extensions.</I> (i) Written notification of the granting or refusal of a variance or extension will be provided to the applying railroad company by the Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition. The notification of a granted variance will state the approved deviation from the compliance schedule provided for in paragraph (d) of this section. The notification of a granted extension will state the final date for compliance with the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A public file of requested variances and extensions, their disposition, and information relating to pending actions will be maintained in the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
</P>
<P>(iii) After notice to the railroad company and opportunity for hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, a variance or extension may be withdrawn prior to its scheduled termination if the Director, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, determines that such withdrawal is necessary to protect the public health. 
</P>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>For statutory exemptions for “intercity rail passenger service,” see section 306(i) of 45 U.S.C. 546(i).</P></CROSSREF>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 30110, July 17, 1975; 46 FR 8461, Jan. 27, 1981; 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983; 54 FR 24900, June 12, 1989; 59 FR 14366, Mar. 28, 1994; 61 FR 14481, Apr. 2, 1996; 66 FR 56035, Nov. 6, 2001; 81 FR 49897, July 29, 2016; 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>For a document staying the effectiveness of § 1250.51 (b) and (d), see 42 FR 57122, Nov. 1, 1977.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.52" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.52   Discharge of wastes on highway conveyances.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be no discharge of excrement, garbage, or waste water from a highway conveyance except at servicing areas approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.53" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.53   Discharge of wastes on air conveyances.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be no discharge of excrement or garbage from any air conveyance except at servicing areas approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Servicing Areas for Land and Air Conveyances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.60   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Land and air conveyances engaged in interstate traffic shall use only such servicing areas within the United States as have been approved by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs as being in compliance with the requirements prescribed in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.61" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.61   Inspection and approval.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may inspect any such areas to determine whether they shall be approved. He may base his approval or disapproval on investigations made by representatives of State departments of health. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.62" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.62   Submittal of construction plans.</HEAD>
<P>Plans for construction or major reconstruction of sanitation facilities at servicing areas shall be submitted to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for review of the conformity of the proposed facilities with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.63" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.63   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Servicing areas shall be provided with all necessary sanitary facilities so operated and maintained as to prevent the spread of communicable diseases. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.65" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.65   Drainage.</HEAD>
<P>All platforms and other places at which water or food supplies are loaded onto or removed from conveyances shall be adequately drained so as to prevent pooling. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.67" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.67   Watering equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> All servicing area piping systems, hydrants, taps, faucets, hoses, buckets, and other appurtenances necessary for delivery of drinking and culinary water to a conveyance shall be designed, constructed, maintained and operated in such a manner as to prevent contamination of the water. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outlets for nonpotable water.</I> Outlets for nonpotable water shall be provided with fittings different from those provided for outlets for potable water and each nonpotable water outlet shall be posted with permanent signs warning that the water is unfit for drinking. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ice.</I> If bulk ice is used for the cooling of drinking water or other beverages, or for food preservation purposes, equipment constructed so as not to become a factor in the transmission of communicable diseases shall be provided for the storage, washing, handling, and delivery to conveyances of such bulk ice, and such equipment shall be used for no other purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.70" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.70   Employee conveniences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be adequate toilet, washroom, locker, and other essential sanitary facilities readily accessible for use of employees adjacent to places or areas where land and air conveyances are serviced, maintained, and cleaned. These facilities shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition at all times. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of diners not in a train but with a crew on board, adequate toilet facilities shall be available to the crew within a reasonable distance but not exceeding 500 feet of such diners. 
</P>
<P>(c) Drinking fountains and coolers shall be constructed of impervious, nonoxidizing material, and shall be so designed and constructed as to be easily cleaned. The jet of a drinking fountain shall be slanting and the orifice of the jet shall be protected by a guard in such a manner as to prevent contamination thereof by droppings from the mouth. The orifice of such a jet shall be located a sufficient distance above the rim of the basin to prevent backflow. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.75" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.75   Disposal of human wastes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At servicing areas and at stations where land and air conveyances are occupied by passengers the operations shall be so conducted as to avoid contamination of such areas and stations by human wastes. 
</P>
<P>(b) Toilet wastes shall be disposed of through sanitary sewers or by other methods assuring sanitary disposal of such wastes. All soil cans and removable containers shall be thoroughly cleaned before being returned to use. Equipment for cleaning such containers and for flushing nonremovable containers and waste carts shall be so designed as to prevent backflow into the water line, and such equipment shall be used for no purpose connected with the handling of food, water or ice. 
</P>
<P>(c) All persons who have handled soil cans or other containers which have come in contact with human wastes shall be required to wash their hands thoroughly with soap and warm water and to remove any garments which have become soiled with such wastes before engaging in any work connected with the loading, unloading, transporting or other handling of food, water or ice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.79" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.79   Garbage disposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Water-tight, readily cleanable, nonabsorbent containers with close-fitting covers shall be used to receive and store garbage. 
</P>
<P>(b) Can washing and draining facilities shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) Garbage cans shall be emptied daily and shall be thoroughly washed before being returned for use. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Sanitation Facilities and Conditions on Vessels</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.80" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.80   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The sanitation facilities and the sanitary conditions on vessels engaged in interstate traffic shall comply with the requirements prescribed in this subpart, provided that no major structural change will be required on existing vessels. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.81" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.81   Inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The Commissioner of Food and Drugs may inspect such vessels to determine compliance with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.82" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.82   Potable water systems.</HEAD>
<P>The following conditions must be met by vessel water systems used for the storage and distribution of water which has met the requirements of § 1240.80 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(a) The potable water system, including filling hose and lines, pumps, tanks, and distributing pipes, shall be separate and distinct from other water systems and shall be used for no other purposes. 
</P>
<P>(b) All potable water tanks shall be independent of any tanks holding nonpotable water or other liquid. All potable water tanks shall be independent of the shell of the ship unless (1) the bottom of the tank is at least 2 feet above the maximum load water line, (2) the seams in the shell are continuously welded, and (3) there are no rivets in that part of the shell which forms a side of a tank. A deck may be used as the top of a tank provided there are no access or inspection openings or rivets therein, and the seams are continuously welded. No toilet or urinal shall be installed immediately above that part of the deck which forms the top of a tank. All potable water tanks shall be located at a sufficient height above the bilge to allow for draining and to prevent submergence in bilge water. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each potable water tank shall be provided with a means of drainage and, if it is equipped with a manhole, overflow, vent, or a device for measuring depth of water, provision shall be made to prevent entrance into the tank of any contaminating substance. No deck or sanitary drain or pipe carrying any nonpotable water or liquid shall be permitted to pass through the tank. 
</P>
<P>(d) Tanks and piping shall bear clear marks of identification. 
</P>
<P>(e) There shall be no backflow or cross connection between potable water systems and any other systems. Pipes and fittings conveying potable water to any fixture, apparatus, or equipment shall be installed in such way that backflow will be prevented. Waste pipes from any part of the potable water system, including treatment devices, discharging to a drain, shall be suitably protected against backflow. 
</P>
<P>(f) Water systems shall be cleaned, disinfected, and flushed whenever the Commissioner of Food and Drugs shall find such treatment necessary to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.83" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.83   Storage of water prior to treatment.</HEAD>
<P>The following requirements with respect to the storage of water on vessels prior to treatment must be met in order to obtain approval of treatment facilities under § 1240.90 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(a) The tank, whether independent or formed by the skin of the ship, deck, tank top, or partitions common with other tanks, shall be free of apparent leakage. 
</P>
<P>(b) No sanitary drain shall pass through the tank. 
</P>
<P>(c) The tank shall be adequately protected against both the backflow and discharge into it of bilge or highly contaminated water. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.84" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.84   Water in galleys and medical care spaces.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potable water, hot and cold, shall be available in the galley and pantry except that, when potable water storage is inadequate, nonpotable water may be piped to the galley for deck washing and in connection with garbage disposal. Any tap discharging nonpotable water which is installed for deck washing purposes shall not be more than 18 inches above the deck and shall be distinctly marked “For deck washing only”. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of existing vessels on which heat treated wash water has been used for the washing of utensils prior to the effective date of the regulations in this part, such water may continue to be so used provided controls are employed to insure the heating of all water to at least 170 °F before discharge from the heater. 
</P>
<P>(c) Potable water, hot and cold, shall be available in medical care spaces for hand-washing and for medical care purposes excluding hydrotherapy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.85" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.85   Drinking fountains and coolers; ice; constant temperature bottles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drinking fountains and coolers shall be constructed of impervious, nonoxidizing material, and shall be so designed and constructed as to be easily cleaned. The jet of a drinking fountain shall be slanting and the orifice of the jet shall be protected by a guard in such a manner as to prevent contamination thereof by droppings from the mouth. The orifice of such a jet shall be located a sufficient distance above the rim of the basin to prevent backflow. 
</P>
<P>(b) Ice shall not be permitted to come in contact with water in coolers or constant temperature bottles. 
</P>
<P>(c) Constant temperature bottles and other containers used for storing or dispensing potable water shall be kept clean at all times and shall be subjected to effective bactericidal treatment after each occupancy of the space served and at intervals not exceeding one week. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.86" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.86   Water for making ice.</HEAD>
<P>Only potable water shall be piped into a freezer for making ice for drinking and culinary purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.87" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.87   Wash water.</HEAD>
<P>Where systems installed on vessels for wash water, as defined in § 1250.3(n), do not comply with the requirements of a potable water system, prescribed in § 1250.82, they shall be constructed so as to minimize the possibility of the water therein being contaminated. The storage tanks shall comply with the requirements of § 1250.83, and the distribution system shall not be cross connected to a system carrying water of a lower sanitary quality. All faucets shall be labeled “Unfit for drinking”. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.89" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.89   Swimming pools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Fill and draw swimming pools shall not be installed or used. 
</P>
<P>(b) Swimming pools of the recirculation type shall be equipped so as to provide complete circulation, replacement, and filtration of the water in the pool every six hours or less. Suitable means of chlorination and, if necessary, other treatment of the water shall be provided to maintain the residual chlorine in the pool water at not less than 0.4 part per million and the pH (a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration) not less than 7.0. 
</P>
<P>(c) Flowing-through types of salt water pools shall be so operated that complete circulation and replacement of the water in the pool will be effected every 6 hours or less. The water delivery pipe to the pool shall be independent of all other pipes and shall originate at a point where maximum flushing of the pump and pipe line is effected after leaving polluted waters. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.90" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.90   Toilets and lavatories.</HEAD>
<P>Toilet and lavatory equipment and spaces shall be maintained in a clean condition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.93" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.93   Discharge of wastes.</HEAD>
<P>Vessels operating on fresh water lakes or rivers shall not discharge sewage, or ballast or bilge water, within such areas adjacent to domestic water intakes as are designated by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. 
</P>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>For Environmental Protection Agency's regulations for vessel sanitary discharges as related to authority under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended (33 U.S.C. 1314 <I>et seq.</I>), see 40 CFR part 140.</P></CROSSREF>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 5624, Feb. 6, 1975, as amended at 48 FR 11432, Mar. 18, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.95" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.95   Insect control.</HEAD>
<P>Vessels shall be maintained free of infestation by flies, mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and other insects known to be vectors in the transmission of communicable diseases, through the use of screening, insecticides, and other generally accepted methods of insect control. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.96" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.57.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.96   Rodent control.</HEAD>
<P>Vessels shall be maintained free of rodent infestation through the use of traps, poisons, and other generally accepted methods of rodent control. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1251-1270" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.58" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1251-1270 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1271" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1271—HUMAN CELLS, TISSUES, AND CELLULAR AND TISSUE-BASED PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 216, 243, 263a, 264, 271.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 5466, Jan. 19, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.1" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.1   What are the purpose and scope of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part, in conjunction with §§ 207.9(a)(5), 210.1(c), 210.2, 807.20(d), and 820.1(a) of this chapter, is to create an electronic registration and listing system for establishments that manufacture human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/P's) and to establish donor-eligibility, current good tissue practice, and other procedures to prevent the introduction, transmission, and spread of communicable diseases by HCT/P's.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) If you are an establishment that manufactures HCT/P's that are regulated solely under the authority of section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act), this part requires you to register and list your HCT/P's with the Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research and to comply with the other requirements contained in this part, whether or not the HCT/P enters into interstate commerce. Those HCT/P's that are regulated solely under the authority of section 361 of the PHS Act are described in § 1271.10.
</P>
<P>(2) If you are an establishment that manufactures HCT/P's that are regulated as drugs, devices and/or biological products under section 351 of the PHS Act and/or the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, §§ 207.9(a)(5) and 807.20(d) of this chapter require you to register and list your HCT/P's following the procedures in part 207 (if a drug and/or biological product) of this chapter or part 807 (if a device) of this chapter. Sections 210.1(c), 210.2, 211.1(b), and 820.1(a) of this chapter require you to comply with the donor-eligibility procedures in subpart C of this part and the current good tissue practice procedures in subpart D of this part, in addition to all other applicable regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5466, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 29829, May 25, 2004; 81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.3" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.3   How does FDA define important terms in this part?</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply only to this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Autologous use</I> means the implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer of human cells or tissue back into the individual from whom the cells or tissue were recovered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment</I> means a place of business under one management, at one general physical location, that engages in the manufacture of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products. “Establishment” includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity engaged in the manufacture of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products; and
</P>
<P>(2) Facilities that engage in contract manufacturing services for a manufacturer of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Homologous use</I> means the repair, reconstruction, replacement, or supplementation of a recipient's cells or tissues with an HCT/P that performs the same basic function or functions in the recipient as in the donor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products (HCT/Ps)</I> means articles containing or consisting of human cells or tissues that are intended for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer into a human recipient. Examples of HCT/Ps include, but are not limited to, bone, ligament, skin, dura mater, heart valve, cornea, hematopoietic stem/progenitor cells derived from peripheral and cord blood, manipulated autologous chondrocytes, epithelial cells on a synthetic matrix, and semen or other reproductive tissue. The following articles are not considered HCT/Ps:
</P>
<P>(1) Vascularized human organs for transplantation;
</P>
<P>(2) Whole blood or blood components or blood derivative products subject to listing under parts 607 and 207 of this chapter, respectively;
</P>
<P>(3) Secreted or extracted human products, such as milk, collagen, and cell factors; except that semen is considered an HCT/P;
</P>
<P>(4) Minimally manipulated bone marrow for homologous use and not combined with another article (except for water, crystalloids, or a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent, if the addition of the agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the bone marrow);
</P>
<P>(5) Ancillary products used in the manufacture of HCT/P;
</P>
<P>(6) Cells, tissues, and organs derived from animals other than humans; and
</P>
<P>(7) In vitro diagnostic products as defined in § 809.3(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Blood vessels recovered with an organ, as defined in 42 CFR 121.2, that are intended for use in organ transplantation and labeled “For use in organ transplantation only.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Manufacture means,</I> but is not limited to, any or all steps in the recovery, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, or distribution of any human cell or tissue, and the screening or testing of the cell or tissue donor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Minimal manipulation</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For structural tissue, processing that does not alter the original relevant characteristics of the tissue relating to the tissue's utility for reconstruction, repair, or replacement; and
</P>
<P>(2) For cells or nonstructural tissues, processing that does not alter the relevant biological characteristics of cells or tissues.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transfer</I> means the placement of human reproductive cells or tissues into a human recipient.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Biohazard legend</I> appears on the label as follows and is used to mark HCT/Ps that present a known or suspected relevant communicable disease risk.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25my04.000.gif"/>
<P>(i) <I>Blood component</I> means a product containing a part of human blood separated by physical or mechanical means.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Colloid</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A protein or polysaccharide solution, such as albumin, dextran, or hetastarch, that can be used to increase or maintain osmotic (oncotic) pressure in the intravascular compartment; or
</P>
<P>(2) Blood components such as plasma and platelets.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Crystalloid</I> means an isotonic salt and/or glucose solution used for electrolyte replacement or to increase intravascular volume, such as saline solution, Ringer's lactate solution, or 5 percent dextrose in water.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Directed reproductive donor</I> means a donor of reproductive cells or tissue (including semen, oocytes, and embryos to which the donor contributed the spermatozoa or oocyte) to a specific recipient, and who knows and is known by the recipient before donation. The term directed reproductive donor does not include a sexually intimate partner under § 1271.90.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Donor</I> means a person, living or dead, who is the source of cells or tissue for an HCT/P.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Donor medical history interview means</I> a documented dialog about the donor's medical history and relevant social behavior, including activities, behaviors, and descriptions considered to increase the donor's relevant communicable disease risk:
</P>
<P>(1) With the donor, if the donor is living and able to participate in the interview, or
</P>
<P>(2) If not, with an individual or individuals able to provide the information sought in the interview (e.g., the donor's next-of-kin, the nearest available relative, a member of the donor's household, an individual with an affinity relationship, and/or the primary treating physician).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Physical assessment of a cadaveric donor</I> means a limited autopsy or recent antemortem or postmortem physical examination of the donor to assess for signs of a relevant communicable disease and for signs suggestive of any risk factor for a relevant communicable disease.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Plasma dilution</I> means a decrease in the concentration of the donor's plasma proteins and circulating antigens or antibodies resulting from the transfusion of blood or blood components and/or infusion of fluids.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Quarantine</I> means the storage or identification of an HCT/P, to prevent improper release, in a physically separate area clearly identified for such use, or through use of other procedures, such as automated designation.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Relevant communicable disease agent or disease</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) For all human cells and tissues, a communicable disease or disease agent listed as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Human immunodeficiency virus, types 1 and 2;
</P>
<P>(B) Hepatitis B virus;
</P>
<P>(C) Hepatitis C virus;
</P>
<P>(D) Human transmissible spongiform encephalopathy, including Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease; and
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Treponema pallidum.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) For viable, leukocyte-rich cells and tissues, a cell-associated disease agent or disease listed as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Human T-lymphotropic virus, type I; and
</P>
<P>(B) Human T-lymphotropic virus, type II.
</P>
<P>(iii) For reproductive cells or tissues, a disease agent or disease of the genitourinary tract listed as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Chlamydia trachomatis</I>; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Neisseria gonorrhea.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) A disease agent or disease not listed in paragraph (r)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For which there may be a risk of transmission by an HCT/P, either to the recipient of the HCT/P or to those people who may handle or otherwise come in contact with it, such as medical personnel, because the disease agent or disease:
</P>
<P>(A) Is potentially transmissible by an HCT/P and
</P>
<P>(B) Either of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The disease agent or disease has sufficient incidence and/or prevalence to affect the potential donor population, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The disease agent or disease may have been released accidentally or intentionally in a manner that could place potential donors at risk of infection;
</P>
<P>(ii) That could be fatal or life-threatening, could result in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to body structure, or could necessitate medical or surgical intervention to preclude permanent impairment of body function or permanent damage to a body structure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For which appropriate screening measures have been developed and/or an appropriate screening test for donor specimens has been licensed, approved, or cleared for such use by FDA and is available.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Relevant medical records</I> means a collection of documents that includes a current donor medical history interview; a current report of the physical assessment of a cadaveric donor or the physical examination of a living donor; and, if available, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Laboratory test results (other than results of testing for relevant communicable disease agents required under this subpart);
</P>
<P>(2) Medical records;
</P>
<P>(3) Coroner and autopsy reports; and
</P>
<P>(4) Records or other information received from any source pertaining to risk factors for relevant communicable disease (e.g., social behavior, clinical signs and symptoms of relevant communicable disease, and treatments related to medical conditions suggestive of risk for relevant communicable disease).
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Responsible person</I> means a person who is authorized to perform designated functions for which he or she is trained and qualified.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Urgent medical need</I> means that no comparable HCT/P is available and the recipient is likely to suffer death or serious morbidity without the HCT/P.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>PHS Act</I> means the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Adverse reaction</I> means a noxious and unintended response to any HCT/P for which there is a reasonable possibility that the HCT/P caused the response.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Available for distribution</I> means that the HCT/P has been determined to meet all release criteria.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Complaint</I> means any written, oral, or electronic communication about a distributed HCT/P that alleges:
</P>
<P>(1) That an HCT/P has transmitted or may have transmitted a communicable disease to the recipient of the HCT/P; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other problem with an HCT/P relating to the potential for transmission of communicable disease, such as the failure to comply with current good tissue practice.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Distribution</I> means any conveyance or shipment (including importation and exportation) of an HCT/P that has been determined to meet all release criteria, whether or not such conveyance or shipment is entirely intrastate. If an entity does not take physical possession of an HCT/P, the entity is not considered a distributor.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Establish and maintain</I> means define, document (in writing or electronically), and implement; then follow, review, and, as needed, revise on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>HCT/P deviation</I> means an event:
</P>
<P>(1) That represents a deviation from applicable regulations in this part or from applicable standards or established specifications that relate to the prevention of communicable disease transmission or HCT/P contamination; or
</P>
<P>(2) That is an unexpected or unforeseeable event that may relate to the transmission or potential transmission of a communicable disease or may lead to HCT/P contamination.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Importer of record</I> means the person, establishment, or its representative responsible for making entry of imported goods in accordance with all laws affecting such importation.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Processing</I> means any activity performed on an HCT/P, other than recovery, donor screening, donor testing, storage, labeling, packaging, or distribution, such as testing for microorganisms, preparation, sterilization, steps to inactivate or remove adventitious agents, preservation for storage, and removal from storage.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Quality audit</I> means a documented, independent inspection and review of an establishment's activities related to core CGTP requirements. The purpose of a quality audit is to verify, by examination and evaluation of objective evidence, the degree of compliance with those aspects of the quality program under review.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Quality program</I> means an organization's comprehensive system for manufacturing and tracking HCT/Ps in accordance with this part. A quality program is designed to prevent, detect, and correct deficiencies that may lead to circumstances that increase the risk of introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Recovery</I> means obtaining from a human donor cells or tissues that are intended for use in human implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer.
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>Storage</I> means holding HCT/Ps for future processing and/or distribution.
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Validation</I> means confirmation by examination and provision of objective evidence that particular requirements can consistently be fulfilled. Validation of a process, or <I>process validation</I>, means establishing by objective evidence that a process consistently produces a result or HCT/P meeting its predetermined specifications.
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Verification</I> means confirmation by examination and provision of objective evidence that specified requirements have been fulfilled.
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Importer</I> means a company or individual in the United States that is the owner, consignee, or recipient, at the time of entry, of the foreign establishment's HCT/P that is imported into the United States.
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>United States agent</I> means a person residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States whom a foreign establishment designates as its agent. This definition excludes mailboxes, answering machines or services, or other places where an individual acting as the foreign establishment's agent is not physically present.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5466, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 3826, Jan. 27, 2004; 69 FR 29829, May 25, 2004; 69 FR 68680, Nov. 24, 2004; 81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.10" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.10   Are my HCT/P's regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations in this part, and if so what must I do?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An HCT/P is regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations in this part if it meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The HCT/P is minimally manipulated;
</P>
<P>(2) The HCT/P is intended for homologous use only, as reflected by the labeling, advertising, or other indications of the manufacturer's objective intent;
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacture of the HCT/P does not involve the combination of the cells or tissues with another article, except for water, crystalloids, or a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent, provided that the addition of water, crystalloids, or the sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the HCT/P; and
</P>
<P>(4) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) The HCT/P does not have a systemic effect and is not dependent upon the metabolic activity of living cells for its primary function; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The HCT/P has a systemic effect or is dependent upon the metabolic activity of living cells for its primary function, and:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Is for autologous use;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Is for allogeneic use in a first-degree or second-degree blood relative; or
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Is for reproductive use.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are a domestic or foreign establishment that manufactures an HCT/P described in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) You must register with FDA;
</P>
<P>(2) You must submit to FDA a list of each HCT/P manufactured; and
</P>
<P>(3) You must comply with the other requirements contained in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5466, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 68681, Nov. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.15" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.15   Are there any exceptions from the requirements of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that uses HCT/P's solely for nonclinical scientific or educational purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that removes HCT/P's from an individual and implants such HCT/P's into the same individual during the same surgical procedure.
</P>
<P>(c) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are a carrier who accepts, receives, carries, or delivers HCT/P's in the usual course of business as a carrier.
</P>
<P>(d) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that does not recover, screen, test, process, label, package, or distribute, but only receives or stores HCT/P's solely for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer within your facility.
</P>
<P>(e) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that only recovers reproductive cells or tissue and immediately transfers them into a sexually intimate partner of the cell or tissue donor.
</P>
<P>(f) You are not required to register or list your HCT/P's independently, but you must comply with all other applicable requirements in this part, if you are an individual under contract, agreement, or other arrangement with a registered establishment and engaged solely in recovering cells or tissues and sending the recovered cells or tissues to the registered establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.20" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.20   If my HCT/P's do not meet the criteria in § 1271.10, and I do not qualify for any of the exceptions in § 1271.15, what regulations apply?</HEAD>
<P>If you are an establishment that manufactures an HCT/P that does not meet the criteria set out in § 1271.10(a), and you do not qualify for any of the exceptions in § 1271.15, your HCT/P will be regulated as a drug, device, and/or biological product under the act and/or section 351 of the PHS Act, and applicable regulations in title 21, chapter I. Applicable regulations include, but are not limited to, §§ 207.9(a)(5), 210.1(c), 210.2, 211.1(b), 807.20(d), and 820.1(a) of this chapter, which require you to follow the procedures in subparts C and D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5466, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Registration and Listing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.21" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.21   When do I register, submit an HCT/P list, and submit updates?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must register and submit a list of every HCT/P that your establishment manufactures within 5 days after beginning operations or within 30 days of the effective date of this regulation, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(b) You must update your establishment registration annually in December, except as required by § 1271.26. You may accomplish your annual registration in conjunction with updating your HCT/P list under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c)(i) If no change described in § 1271.25(c) has occurred since you previously submitted an HCT/P list, you are not required to update your listing.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a change described in § 1271.25(c) has occurred, you must update your HCT/P listing with the new information:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) At the time of the change, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Each June or December, whichever month occurs first after the change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68681, Nov. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.22" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.22   How do I register and submit an HCT/P list?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must use the electronic registration and listing system at <I>http://www.fda.gov/cber/tissue/tisreg.htm</I> in accordance with § 1271.25 for:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishment registration,
</P>
<P>(2) HCT/P listings, and
</P>
<P>(3) Updates of registration and HCT/P listing.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA will periodically issue guidance on recommended procedures for providing registration and listing information in electronic format (for example, method of transmission, media, file formats, preparation, and organization of files).
</P>
<P>(c) You must provide the information under paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements in § 11.10(b), (c), and (e) and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60223, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.23" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.23   How is a waiver from the electronic format requirements requested?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may request a waiver from the requirement in § 1271.22 that information must be provided to FDA in electronic format. Submission of a request for waiver does not excuse timely compliance with the registration and listing requirements. FDA will grant a waiver request if FDA determines that the use of electronic means for submission of registration and listing information is not reasonable for the registrant making the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(b) Waiver requests under this section must be submitted in writing and must include the specific reasons why electronic submission is not reasonable for the registrant and a U.S. telephone number and mailing address where FDA can contact the registrant. Waiver requests may be sent to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), Document Control Center (see addresses in § 600.2 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(c) If FDA grants the waiver request, FDA may limit its duration and will specify terms of the waiver and provide information on how to submit establishment registration, listings, other information, and updates, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60224, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.25" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.25   What information is required for establishment registration and HCT/P listing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Your establishment registration must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal name(s) of the establishment;
</P>
<P>(2) Each physical location, including the street address, telephone number, email address, and the postal service ZIP code of the establishment;
</P>
<P>(3) The name, address, telephone number, email address, and title of the reporting official;
</P>
<P>(4) A dated signature by the reporting official affirming that all information contained in the establishment registration and HCT/P listing form is true and accurate, to the best of his or her knowledge.
</P>
<P>(5) Each foreign establishment must also submit the name, address, telephone number, and email address of each importer that is known to the establishment, and the name of each person who imports or offers for import such HCT/P to the United States for purposes of importation; and
</P>
<P>(6) Each foreign establishment must also submit the name, address, telephone number, and email address of its United States agent.
</P>
<P>(i) The United States agent must reside or maintain a place of business in the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon request from FDA, the United States agent must assist FDA in communications with the foreign establishment, respond to questions concerning the foreign establishment's products that are imported or offered for import into the United States, and assist FDA in scheduling inspections of the foreign establishment. If the Agency is unable to contact the foreign establishment directly or expeditiously, FDA may provide information or documents to the United States agent, and such an action is equivalent to providing the same information or documents to the foreign establishment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The foreign establishment or the United States agent must report changes in the United States agent's name, address, telephone number, or email address to FDA within 30 calendar days of the change.
</P>
<P>(b) Your HCT/P listing must include all HCT/P's (including the established name and the proprietary name) that you recover, process, store, label, package, distribute, or for which you perform donor screening or testing. You must also state whether each HCT/P meets the criteria set out in § 1271.10.
</P>
<P>(c) Your HCT/P listing update must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of each HCT/P that you have begun recovering, processing, storing, labeling, packaging, distributing, or for which you have begun donor screening or testing, that has not been included in any list previously submitted. You must provide all of the information required by § 1271.25(b) for each new HCT/P.
</P>
<P>(2) A list of each HCT/P formerly listed in accordance with § 1271.21(a) for which you have discontinued recovery, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, distribution, or donor screening or testing, including for each HCT/P so listed, the identity by established name and proprietary name, and the date of discontinuance. We request but do not require that you include the reason for discontinuance with this information.
</P>
<P>(3) A list of each HCT/P for which a notice of discontinuance was submitted under paragraph (c)(2) of this section and for which you have resumed recovery, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, distribution, or donor screening or testing, including the identity by established name and proprietary name, the date of resumption, and any other information required by § 1271.25(b) not previously submitted.
</P>
<P>(4) Any material change in any information previously submitted. Material changes include any change in registration and listing information, submitted, such as whether the HCT/P meets the criteria set out in § 1271.10.
</P>
<P>(d) If your HCT/P is described under § 1271.20 and is regulated under a BLA, you must submit the information required under part 207 of this chapter using the procedures under subpart E of part 207.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5466, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 60224, Aug. 31, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.26" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.26   When must I amend my establishment registration?</HEAD>
<P>If the ownership or location of your establishment changes, or if there is a change in the United States agent's name, address, telephone number, or email address, you must submit an amendment to registration within 30 calendar days of the change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 60224, Aug. 31, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.27" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.27   Will FDA assign me a registration number?</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDA will assign each location a permanent registration number.
</P>
<P>(b) FDA acceptance of an establishment registration and HCT/P listing form does not constitute a determination that an establishment is in compliance with applicable rules and regulations or that the HCT/P is licensed or approved by FDA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.37" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.37   Will establishment registrations and HCT/P listings be available for inspection, and how do I request information on registrations and listings?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registration on Form FDA 3356 filed in paper or electronic format by each establishment will be available for public inspection through the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research Human Cell and Tissue Establishment Registration—Public Query Web site by using the CBER electronic Web-based application or by going in person to the Food and Drug Administration, Dockets Management Staff Public Reading Room (see address in § 20.120(a) of this chapter). The following information submitted under the HCT/P requirements is illustrative of the type of information that will be available for public disclosure when it is compiled:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of all HCT/P's;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of all HCT/P's manufactured by each establishment;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of all HCT/P's discontinued; and
</P>
<P>(4) All data or information that has already become a matter of public record.
</P>
<P>(b) You should direct your other requests for information regarding HCT/P establishment registrations and HCT/P listings to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3103, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 18094, Apr. 3, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 45067, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Donor Eligibility</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 29830, May 25, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1271.45" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.45   What requirements does this subpart contain?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This subpart sets out requirements for determining donor eligibility, including donor screening and testing. The requirements contained in this subpart are a component of current good tissue practice (CGTP) requirements. Other CGTP requirements are set out in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Donor-eligibility determination required.</I> A donor-eligibility determination, based on donor screening and testing for relevant communicable disease agents and diseases, is required for all donors of cells or tissue used in HCT/Ps, except as provided under § 1271.90. In the case of an embryo or of cells derived from an embryo, a donor-eligibility determination is required for both the oocyte donor and the semen donor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on use.</I> An HCT/P must not be implanted, transplanted, infused, or transferred until the donor has been determined to be eligible, except as provided under §§ 1271.60(d), 1271.65(b), and 1271.90 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability of requirements.</I> If you are an establishment that performs any function described in this subpart, you must comply with the requirements contained in this subpart that are applicable to that function.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 29830, May 25, 2004, as amended at 69 FR 68681, Nov. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.47" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.47   What procedures must I establish and maintain?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You must establish and maintain procedures for all steps that you perform in testing, screening, determining donor eligibility, and complying with all other requirements of this subpart. Establish and maintain means define, document (in writing or electronically), and implement; then follow, review, and as needed, revise on an ongoing basis. You must design these procedures to ensure compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review and approval.</I> Before implementation, a responsible person must review and approve all procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability.</I> Procedures must be readily available to the personnel in the area where the operations to which they relate are performed, or in a nearby area if such availability is impractical.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Departures from procedures.</I> You must record and justify any departure from a procedure relevant to preventing risks of communicable disease transmission at the time of its occurrence. You must not make available for distribution any HCT/P from a donor whose eligibility is determined under such a departure unless a responsible person has determined that the departure does not increase the risks of communicable disease transmission through the use of the HCT/P.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard procedures.</I> You may adopt current standard procedures, such as those in a technical manual prepared by another organization, provided that you have verified that the procedures are consistent with and at least as stringent as the requirements of this part and appropriate for your operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.50" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.50   How do I determine whether a donor is eligible?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination based on screening and testing.</I> If you are the establishment responsible for making the donor-eligibility determination, you must determine whether a donor is eligible based upon the results of donor screening in accordance with § 1271.75 and donor testing in accordance with §§ 1271.80 and 1271.85. A responsible person, as defined in § 1271.3(t), must determine and document the eligibility of a cell or tissue donor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible donor.</I> A donor is eligible under these provisions only if:
</P>
<P>(1) Donor screening in accordance with § 1271.75 indicates that the donor:
</P>
<P>(i) Is free from risk factors for, and clinical evidence of, infection due to relevant communicable disease agents and diseases; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is free from communicable disease risks associated with xenotransplantation; and
</P>
<P>(2) The results of donor testing for relevant communicable disease agents in accordance with §§ 1271.80 and 1271.85 are negative or nonreactive, except as provided in § 1271.80(d)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.55" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.55   What records must accompany an HCT/P after the donor-eligibility determination is complete; and what records must I retain?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accompanying records.</I> Once a donor-eligibility determination has been made, the following must accompany the HCT/P at all times:
</P>
<P>(1) A distinct identification code affixed to the HCT/P container, e.g., alphanumeric, that relates the HCT/P to the donor and to all records pertaining to the HCT/P and, except in the case of autologous donations, directed reproductive donations, or donations made by first-degree or second-degree blood relatives, does not include an individual's name, social security number, or medical record number;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement whether, based on the results of screening and testing, the donor has been determined to be eligible or ineligible; and
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the records used to make the donor-eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Summary of records.</I> The summary of records required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the communicable disease testing was performed by a laboratory:
</P>
<P>(i) Certified to perform such testing on human specimens under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 263a) and 42 CFR part 493; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That has met equivalent requirements as determined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in accordance with those provisions;
</P>
<P>(2) A listing and interpretation of the results of all communicable disease tests performed;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and address of the establishment that made the donor-eligibility determination; and
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of an HCT/P from a donor who is ineligible based on screening and released under paragraph (b) of § 1271.65, a statement noting the reason(s) for the determination of ineligibility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deletion of personal information.</I> The accompanying records required by this section must not contain the donor's name or other personal information that might identify the donor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record retention requirements.</I> (1) You must maintain documentation of:
</P>
<P>(i) Results and interpretation of all testing for relevant communicable disease agents in compliance with §§ 1271.80 and 1271.85, as well as the name and address of the testing laboratory or laboratories;
</P>
<P>(ii) Results and interpretation of all donor screening for communicable diseases in compliance with § 1271.75; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The donor-eligibility determination, including the name of the responsible person who made the determination and the date of the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) All records must be accurate, indelible, and legible. Information on the identity and relevant medical records of the donor, as defined in § 1271.3(s), must be in English or, if in another language, must be retained and translated to English and accompanied by a statement of authenticity by the translator that specifically identifies the translated document.
</P>
<P>(3) You must retain required records and make them available for authorized inspection by or upon request from FDA. Records that can be readily retrieved from another location by electronic means are considered “retained.”
</P>
<P>(4) You must retain the records pertaining to a particular HCT/P at least 10 years after the date of its administration, or if the date of administration is not known, then at least 10 years after the date of the HCT/P's distribution, disposition, or expiration, whichever is latest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 29830, May 25, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 29952, May 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.60" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.60   What quarantine and other requirements apply before the donor-eligibility determination is complete?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Quarantine.</I> You must keep an HCT/P in quarantine, as defined in § 1271.3(q), until completion of the donor-eligibility determination required by § 1271.50. You must quarantine semen from anonymous donors until the retesting required under § 1271.85(d) is complete.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identification of HCT/Ps in quarantine.</I> You must clearly identify as quarantined an HCT/P that is in quarantine pending completion of a donor-eligibility determination. The quarantined HCT/P must be easily distinguishable from HCT/Ps that are available for release and distribution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Shipping of HCT/Ps in quarantine.</I> If you ship an HCT/P before completion of the donor-eligibility determination, you must keep it in quarantine during shipment. The HCT/P must be accompanied by records:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying the donor (e.g., by a distinct identification code affixed to the HCT/P container);
</P>
<P>(2) Stating that the donor-eligibility determination has not been completed; and
</P>
<P>(3) Stating that the product must not be implanted, transplanted, infused, or transferred until completion of the donor-eligibility determination, except under the terms of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use in cases of urgent medical need.</I> (1) This subpart C does not prohibit the implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer of an HCT/P from a donor for whom the donor-eligibility determination is not complete if there is a documented urgent medical need for the HCT/P, as defined in § 1271.3(u).
</P>
<P>(2) If you make an HCT/P available for use under the provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, you must prominently label it “NOT EVALUATED FOR INFECTIOUS SUBSTANCES,” and “ WARNING: Advise patient of communicable disease risks.” The following information must accompany the HCT/P:
</P>
<P>(i) The results of any donor screening required under § 1271.75 that has been completed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of any testing required under § 1271.80 or 1271.85 that has been completed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of any screening or testing required under § 1271.75, 1271.80 or 1271.85 that has not yet been completed.
</P>
<P>(3) If you are the establishment that manufactured an HCT/P used under the provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, you must document that you notified the physician using the HCT/P that the testing and screening were not complete.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of an HCT/P used for an urgent medical need under the provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, you must complete the donor-eligibility determination during or after the use of the HCT/P, and you must inform the physician of the results of the determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.65" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.65   How do I store an HCT/P from a donor determined to be ineligible, and what uses of the HCT/P are not prohibited?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Storage.</I> If you are the establishment that stores the HCT/P, you must store or identify HCT/Ps from donors who have been determined to be ineligible in a physically separate area clearly identified for such use, or follow other procedures, such as automated designation, that are adequate to prevent improper release until destruction or other disposition of the HCT/P in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limited uses of HCT/P from ineligible donor.</I> (1) An HCT/P from a donor who has been determined to be ineligible, based on the results of required testing and/or screening, is not prohibited by subpart C of this part from use for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The HCT/P is for allogeneic use in a first-degree or second-degree blood relative;
</P>
<P>(ii) The HCT/P consists of reproductive cells or tissue from a directed reproductive donor, as defined in § 1271.3(l); or
</P>
<P>(iii) There is a documented urgent medical need as defined in § 1271.3(u).
</P>
<P>(2) You must prominently label an HCT/P made available for use under the provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section with the Biohazard legend shown in § 1271.3(h) with the statement “WARNING: Advise patient of communicable disease risks,” and, in the case of reactive test results, “WARNING: Reactive test results for (name of disease agent or disease).” The HCT/P must be accompanied by the records required under § 1271.55.
</P>
<P>(3) If you are the establishment that manufactured an HCT/P used under the provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, you must document that you notified the physician using the HCT/P of the results of testing and screening.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonclinical use.</I> You may make available for nonclinical purposes an HCT/P from a donor who has been determined to be ineligible, based on the results of required testing and/or screening, provided that it is labeled:
</P>
<P>(1) “For Nonclinical Use Only” and
</P>
<P>(2) With the Biohazard legend shown in § 1271.3(h).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.75" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.75   How do I screen a donor?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>All donors.</I> Except as provided under § 1271.90, if you are the establishment that performs donor screening, you must screen a donor of cells or tissue by reviewing the donor's relevant medical records for:
</P>
<P>(1) Risk factors for, and clinical evidence of, relevant communicable disease agents and diseases, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Human immunodeficiency virus;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hepatitis B virus;
</P>
<P>(iii) Hepatitis C virus;
</P>
<P>(iv) Human transmissible spongiform encephalopathy, including Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Treponema pallidum</I>; and
</P>
<P>(2) Communicable disease risks associated with xenotransplantation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Donors of viable, leukocyte-rich cells or tissue.</I> In addition to the relevant communicable disease agents and diseases for which screening is required under paragraph (a) of this section, and except as provided under § 1271.90, you must screen the donor of viable, leukocyte-rich cells or tissue by reviewing the donor's relevant medical records for risk factors for and clinical evidence of relevant cell-associated communicable disease agents and diseases, including Human T-lymphotropic virus.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Donors of reproductive cells or tissue.</I> In addition to the relevant communicable disease agents and diseases for which screening is required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, as applicable, and except as provided under § 1271.90, you must screen the donor of reproductive cells or tissue by reviewing the donor's relevant medical records for risk factors for and clinical evidence of infection due to relevant communicable diseases of the genitourinary tract. Such screening must include screening for the communicable disease agents listed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section. However, if the reproductive cells or tissues are recovered by a method that ensures freedom from contamination of the cells or tissue by infectious disease organisms that may be present in the genitourinary tract, then screening for the communicable disease agents listed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section is not required. Communicable disease agents of the genitourinary tract for which you must screen include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chlamydia trachomatis</I>; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Neisseria gonorrhea.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ineligible donors.</I> You must determine ineligible a donor who is identified as having either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A risk factor for or clinical evidence of any of the relevant communicable disease agents or diseases for which screening is required under paragraphs (a)(1), (b), or (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any communicable disease risk associated with xenotransplantation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Abbreviated procedure for repeat donors.</I> If you have performed a complete donor screening procedure on a living donor within the previous 6 months, you may use an abbreviated donor screening procedure on repeat donations. The abbreviated procedure must determine and document any changes in the donor's medical history since the previous donation that would make the donor ineligible, including relevant social behavior.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5466, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 14798, Mar. 24, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.80" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.80   What are the general requirements for donor testing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Testing for relevant communicable diseases is required.</I> To adequately and appropriately reduce the risk of transmission of relevant communicable diseases, and except as provided under § 1271.90, if you are the establishment that performs donor testing, you must test a donor specimen for evidence of infection due to communicable disease agents in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. You must test for those communicable disease agents specified in § 1271.85. In the case of a donor 1 month of age or younger, you must test a specimen from the birth mother instead of a specimen from the donor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of specimen collection.</I> You must collect the donor specimen for testing at the time of recovery of cells or tissue from the donor; or up to 7 days before or after recovery, except:
</P>
<P>(1) For donors of peripheral blood stem/progenitor cells, bone marrow (if not excepted under § 1271.3(d)(4)), or oocytes, you may collect the donor specimen for testing up to 30 days before recovery; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a repeat semen donor from whom a specimen has already been collected and tested, and for whom retesting is required under § 1271.85(d), you are not required to collect a donor specimen at the time of each donation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tests.</I> You must test using appropriate FDA-licensed, approved, or cleared donor screening tests, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, to adequately and appropriately reduce the risk of transmission of relevant communicable disease agents or diseases; however, until such time as appropriate FDA-licensed, approved, or cleared donor screening tests for <I>Chlamydia trachomatis</I> and for <I>Neisseria gonorrhea</I> are available, you must use FDA-licensed, approved, or cleared tests labeled for the detection of those organisms in an asymptomatic, low-prevalence population. You must use a test specifically labeled for cadaveric specimens instead of a more generally labeled test when applicable and when available. Required testing under this section must be performed by a laboratory that either is certified to perform such testing on human specimens under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 263a) and 42 CFR part 493, or has met equivalent requirements as determined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ineligible donors.</I> You must determine the following donors to be ineligible:
</P>
<P>(1) A donor whose specimen tests reactive on a screening test for a communicable disease agent in accordance with § 1271.85, except for a donor whose specimen tests reactive on a non-treponemal screening test for syphilis and negative on a specific treponemal confirmatory test;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A donor in whom plasma dilution sufficient to affect the results of communicable disease testing is suspected, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) You test a specimen taken from the donor before transfusion or infusion and up to 7 days before recovery of cells or tissue; or
</P>
<P>(B) You use an appropriate algorithm designed to evaluate volumes administered in the 48 hours before specimen collection, and the algorithm shows that plasma dilution sufficient to affect the results of communicable disease testing has not occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) Clinical situations in which you must suspect plasma dilution sufficient to affect the results of communicable disease testing include but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Blood loss is known or suspected in a donor over 12 years of age, and the donor has received a transfusion or infusion of any of the following, alone or in combination:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) More than 2,000 milliliters (mL) of blood (e.g., whole blood, red blood cells) or colloids within 48 hours before death or specimen collection, whichever occurred earlier, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) More than 2,000 mL of crystalloids within 1 hour before death or specimen collection, whichever occurred earlier.
</P>
<P>(B) Regardless of the presence or absence of blood loss, the donor is 12 years of age or younger and has received a transfusion or infusion of any amount of any of the following, alone or in combination:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Blood (e.g., whole blood, red blood cells) or colloids within 48 hours before death or specimen collection, whichever occurred earlier, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Crystalloids within 1 hour before death or specimen collection, whichever occurred earlier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 29830, May 25, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 29952, May 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.85" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.85   What donor testing is required for different types of cells and tissues?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>All donors.</I> To adequately and appropriately reduce the risk of transmission of relevant communicable diseases, and except as provided under § 1271.90, you must test a specimen from the donor of cells or tissue, whether viable or nonviable, for evidence of infection due to relevant communicable disease agents, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Human immunodeficiency virus, type 1;
</P>
<P>(2) Human immunodeficiency virus, type 2;
</P>
<P>(3) Hepatitis B virus;
</P>
<P>(4) Hepatitis C virus; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Treponema pallidum.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Donors of viable, leukocyte-rich cells or tissue.</I> In addition to the relevant communicable disease agents for which testing is required under paragraph (a) of this section, and except as provided under § 1271.90,
</P>
<P>(1) You must test a specimen from the donor of viable, leukocyte-rich cells or tissue to adequately and appropriately reduce the risk of transmission of relevant cell-associated communicable diseases, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Human T-lymphotropic virus, type I; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Human T-lymphotropic virus, type II.
</P>
<P>(2) You must test a specimen from the donor of viable, leukocyte-rich cells or tissue for evidence of infection due to cytomegalovirus (CMV), to adequately and appropriately reduce the risk of transmission. You must establish and maintain a standard operating procedure governing the release of an HCT/P from a donor whose specimen tests reactive for CMV.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Donors of reproductive cells or tissue.</I> In addition to the communicable disease agents for which testing is required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, as applicable, and except as provided under § 1271.90, you must test a specimen from the donor of reproductive cells or tissue to adequately and appropriately reduce the risk of transmission of relevant communicable disease agents of the genitourinary tract. Such testing must include testing for the communicable disease agents listed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section. However, if the reproductive cells or tissues are recovered by a method that ensures freedom from contamination of the cells or tissue by infectious disease organisms that may be present in the genitourinary tract, then testing for the communicable disease agents listed in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section is not required. Communicable disease agents of the genitourinary tract for which you must test include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chlamydia trachomatis</I>; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Neisseria gonorrhea.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retesting anonymous semen donors.</I> Except as provided under § 1271.90 and except for directed reproductive donors as defined in § 1271.3(l), at least 6 months after the date of donation of semen from anonymous donors, you must collect a new specimen from the donor and test it for evidence of infection due to the communicable disease agents for which testing is required under paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dura mater.</I> For donors of dura mater, you must perform an adequate assessment designed to detect evidence of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.90" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.90   Are there other exceptions and what labeling requirements apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Donor-eligibility determination not required.</I> You are not required to make a donor-eligibility determination under § 1271.50 or to perform donor screening or testing under §§ 1271.75, 1271.80 and 1271.85 for:
</P>
<P>(1) Cells and tissues for autologous use; or
</P>
<P>(2) Reproductive cells or tissue donated by a sexually intimate partner of the recipient for reproductive use; or
</P>
<P>(3) Cryopreserved cells or tissue for reproductive use, other than embryos, originally excepted under paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section at the time of donation, that are subsequently intended for directed donation, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Additional donations are unavailable, for example, due to the infertility or health of a donor of the cryopreserved reproductive cells or tissue; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate measures are taken to screen and test the donor(s) before transfer to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(4) A cryopreserved embryo, originally excepted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section at the time of recovery or cryopreservation, that is subsequently intended for directed or anonymous donation. When possible, appropriate measures should be taken to screen and test the semen and oocyte donors before transfer of the embryo to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions for reproductive use.</I> An embryo originally intended for reproductive use for a specific individual or couple that is subsequently intended for directed or anonymous donation for reproductive use is excepted from the prohibition on use under § 1271.45(c) even when the applicable donor eligibility requirements under subpart C of this part are not met. Nothing in this paragraph creates an exception for deficiencies that occurred in making the donor eligibility determination for either the oocyte donor or the semen donor as required under § 1271.45(b), or for deficiencies in performing donor screening or testing, as required under §§ 1271.75, 1271.80, and 1271.85.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required labeling.</I> As applicable, you must prominently label an HCT/P described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) “FOR AUTOLOGOUS USE ONLY,” if it is stored for autologous use.
</P>
<P>(2) “NOT EVALUATED FOR INFECTIOUS SUBSTANCES,” unless you have performed all otherwise applicable screening and testing under §§ 1271.75, 1271.80, and 1271.85. This paragraph does not apply to reproductive cells or tissue labeled in accordance with paragraph (c)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless the HCT/P is for autologous use only, “WARNING: Advise recipient of communicable disease risks,”
</P>
<P>(i) When the donor-eligibility determination under § 1271.50(a) is not performed or is not completed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the results of any screening or testing performed indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) The presence of relevant communicable disease agents and/or
</P>
<P>(B) Risk factors for or clinical evidence of relevant communicable disease agents or diseases.
</P>
<P>(4) With the Biohazard legend shown in § 1271.3(h), if the results of any screening or testing performed indicate:
</P>
<P>(i) The presence of relevant communicable disease agents and/or
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk factors for or clinical evidence of relevant communicable disease agents or diseases.
</P>
<P>(5) “WARNING: Reactive test results for (name of disease agent or disease),” in the case of reactive test results.
</P>
<P>(6) “Advise recipient that screening and testing of the donor(s) were not performed at the time of recovery or cryopreservation of the reproductive cells or tissue, but have been performed subsequently,” for paragraphs (a)(3) or (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 29830, May 25, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 29952, May 25, 2005; 81 FR 40517, June 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Current Good Tissue Practice</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 68681, Nov. 24, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1271.145" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.145   Prevention of the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases.</HEAD>
<P>You must recover, process, store, label, package, and distribute HCT/Ps, and screen and test cell and tissue donors, in a way that prevents the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.150" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.150   Current good tissue practice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This subpart D and subpart C of this part set forth current good tissue practice (CGTP) requirements. You must follow CGTP requirements to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases by HCT/Ps (e.g., by ensuring that the HCT/Ps do not contain communicable disease agents, that they are not contaminated, and that they do not become contaminated during manufacturing). Communicable diseases include, but are not limited to, those transmitted by viruses, bacteria, fungi, parasites, and transmissible spongiform encephalopathy agents. CGTP requirements govern the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture of HCT/Ps, including but not limited to all steps in recovery, donor screening, donor testing, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, and distribution. The CGTP provisions specifically governing determinations of donor eligibility, including donor screening and testing, are set out separately in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Core CGTP requirements.</I> The following are core CGTP requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements relating to facilities in § 1271.190(a) and (b);
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements relating to environmental control in § 1271.195(a);
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements relating to equipment in § 1271.200(a);
</P>
<P>(4) Requirements relating to supplies and reagents in § 1271.210(a) and (b);
</P>
<P>(5) Requirements relating to recovery in § 1271.215;
</P>
<P>(6) Requirements relating to processing and process controls in § 1271.220;
</P>
<P>(7) Requirements relating to labeling controls in § 1271.250(a) and (b);
</P>
<P>(8) Requirements relating to storage in § 1271.260 (a) through (d);
</P>
<P>(9) Requirements relating to receipt, predistribution shipment, and distribution of an HCT/P in § 1271.265(a) through (d); and
</P>
<P>(10) Requirements relating to donor eligibility determinations, donor screening, and donor testing in §§ 1271.50, 1271.75, 1271.80, and 1271.85.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance with applicable requirements</I>—(1) <I>Manufacturing arrangements</I> (i) If you are an establishment that engages in only some operations subject to the regulations in this subpart and subpart C of this part, and not others, then you need only comply with those requirements applicable to the operations that you perform.
</P>
<P>(ii) If you engage another establishment (e.g., a laboratory to perform communicable disease testing, or an irradiation facility to perform terminal sterilization), under a contract, agreement, or other arrangement, to perform any step in manufacture for you, that establishment is responsible for complying with requirements applicable to that manufacturing step.
</P>
<P>(iii) Before entering into a contract, agreement, or other arrangement with another establishment to perform any step in manufacture for you, you must ensure that the establishment complies with applicable CGTP requirements. If, during the course of this contract, agreement, or other arrangement, you become aware of information suggesting that the establishment may no longer be in compliance with such requirements, you must take reasonable steps to ensure the establishment complies with those requirements. If you determine that the establishment is not in compliance with those requirements, you must terminate your contract, agreement, or other arrangement with the establishment.
</P>
<P>(2) If you are the establishment that determines that an HCT/P meets all release criteria and makes the HCT/P available for distribution, whether or not you are the actual distributor, you are responsible for reviewing manufacturing and tracking records to determine that the HCT/P has been manufactured and tracked in compliance with the requirements of this subpart and subpart C of this part and any other applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) With the exception of §§ 1271.150(c) and 1271.155 of this subpart, the regulations in this subpart are not being implemented for reproductive HCT/Ps described in § 1271.10 and regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations in this part, or for the establishments that manufacture them.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance with parts 210, 211, and 820 of this chapter.</I> With respect to HCT/Ps that are drugs (subject to review under an application submitted under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or under a biological product license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act) or that are devices (subject to premarket review or notification under the device provisions of the act or under a biological product license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act), the procedures contained in this subpart and in subpart C of this part and the current good manufacturing practice regulations in parts 210 and 211 of this chapter and the quality system regulations in part 820 of this chapter supplement, and do not supersede, each other unless the regulations explicitly provide otherwise. In the event that a regulation in part 1271 of this chapter is in conflict with a requirement in parts 210, 211, or 820 of this chapter, the regulations more specifically applicable to the product in question will supersede the more general.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where appropriate.</I> When a requirement is qualified by “where appropriate,” it is deemed to be “appropriate” unless you can document justification otherwise. A requirement is “appropriate” if nonimplementation of the requirement could reasonably be expected to result in the HCT/P not meeting its specified requirements related to prevention of introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases, or in your inability to carry out any necessary corrective action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.155" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.155   Exemptions and alternatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You may request an exemption from or alternative to any requirement in subpart C or D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for exemption or alternative.</I> Submit your request under this section to the Director of the appropriate Center (the Director), e.g., the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research or the Center for Devices and Radiological Health. The request must be accompanied by supporting documentation, including all relevant valid scientific data, and must contain either:
</P>
<P>(1) Information justifying the requested exemption from the requirement, or
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a proposed alternative method of meeting the requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for granting an exemption or alternative.</I> The Director may grant an exemption or alternative if he or she finds that such action is consistent with the goals of protecting the public health and/or preventing the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases and that:
</P>
<P>(1) The information submitted justifies an exemption; or
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed alternative satisfies the purpose of the requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of request.</I> You must ordinarily make your request for an exemption or alternative in writing (hard copy or electronically). However, if circumstances make it difficult (e.g., there is inadequate time) to submit your request in writing, you may make the request orally, and the Director may orally grant an exemption or alternative. You must follow your oral request with an immediate written request, to which the Director will respond in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Operation under exemption or alternative.</I> You must not begin operating under the terms of a requested exemption or alternative until the exemption or alternative has been granted. You may apply for an extension of an exemption or alternative beyond its expiration date, if any.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation.</I> If you operate under the terms of an exemption or alternative, you must maintain documentation of:
</P>
<P>(1) FDA's grant of the exemption or alternative, and
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which you began operating under the terms of the exemption or alternative.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Issuance of an exemption or alternative by the Director.</I> In a public health emergency, the Director may issue an exemption from, or alternative to, any requirement in part 1271. The Director may issue an exemption or alternative under this section if the exemption or alternative is necessary to assure that certain HCT/Ps will be available in a specified location to respond to an unanticipated immediate need for those HCT/Ps.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.160" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.160   Establishment and maintenance of a quality program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If you are an establishment that performs any step in the manufacture of HCT/Ps, you must establish and maintain a quality program intended to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases through the manufacture and use of HCT/Ps. The quality program must be appropriate for the specific HCT/Ps manufactured and the manufacturing steps performed. The quality program must address all core CGTP requirements listed in § 1271.150(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Functions.</I> Functions of the quality program must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing and maintaining appropriate procedures relating to core CGTP requirements, and ensuring compliance with the requirements of § 1271.180 with respect to such procedures, including review, approval, and revision;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensuring that procedures exist for receiving, investigating, evaluating, and documenting information relating to core CGTP requirements, including complaints, and for sharing any information pertaining to the possible contamination of the HCT/P or the potential for transmission of a communicable disease by the HCT/P with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Other establishments that are known to have recovered HCT/Ps from the same donor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Other establishments that are known to have performed manufacturing steps with respect to the same HCT/P; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Relating to consignees, in the case of such information received after the HCT/P is made available for distribution, shipped to the consignee, or administered to the recipient, procedures must include provisions for assessing risk and appropriate followup, and evaluating the effect this information has on the HCT/P and for the notification of all entities to whom the affected HCT/P was distributed, the quarantine and recall of the HCT/P, and/or reporting to FDA, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensuring that appropriate corrective actions relating to core CGTP requirements, including reaudits of deficiencies, are taken and documented, as necessary. You must verify corrective actions to ensure that such actions are effective and are in compliance with CGTP. Where appropriate, corrective actions must include both short-term action to address the immediate problem and long-term action to prevent the problem's recurrence. Documentation of corrective actions must include, where appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the HCT/P affected and a description of its disposition;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature of the problem requiring corrective action;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the corrective action taken; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The date(s) of the corrective action.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensuring the proper training and education of personnel involved in activities related to core CGTP requirements;
</P>
<P>(5) Establishing and maintaining appropriate monitoring systems as necessary to comply with the requirements of this subpart (e.g., environmental monitoring);
</P>
<P>(6) Investigating and documenting HCT/P deviations and trends of HCT/P deviations relating to core CGTP requirements and making reports if required under § 1271.350(b) or other applicable regulations. Each investigation must include a review and evaluation of the HCT/P deviation, the efforts made to determine the cause, and the implementation of corrective action(s) to address the HCT/P deviation and prevent recurrence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Audits.</I> You must periodically perform for management review a quality audit, as defined in § 1271.3(gg), of activities related to core CGTP requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Computers.</I> You must validate the performance of computer software for the intended use, and the performance of any changes to that software for the intended use, if you rely upon the software to comply with core CGTP requirements and if the software either is custom software or is commercially available software that has been customized or programmed (including software programmed to perform a user defined calculation or table) to perform a function related to core CGTP requirements. You must verify the performance of all other software for the intended use if you rely upon it to comply with core CGTP requirements. You must approve and document these activities and results before implementation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.170" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.170   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You must have personnel sufficient to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competent performance of functions.</I> You must have personnel with the necessary education, experience, and training to ensure competent performance of their assigned functions. Personnel must perform only those activities for which they are qualified and authorized.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training.</I> You must train all personnel, and retrain as necessary, to perform their assigned responsibilities adequately.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.180" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.180   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You must establish and maintain procedures appropriate to meet core CGTP requirements for all steps that you perform in the manufacture of HCT/Ps. You must design these procedures to prevent circumstances that increase the risk of the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases through the use of HCT/Ps.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review and approval.</I> Before implementation, a responsible person must review and approve these procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability.</I> These procedures must be readily available to the personnel in the area where the operations to which they relate are performed, or in a nearby area if such availability is impractical.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standard procedures.</I> If you adopt current standard procedures from another organization, you must verify that the procedures meet the requirements of this part and are appropriate for your operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.190" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.190   Facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any facility used in the manufacture of HCT/Ps must be of suitable size, construction, and location to prevent contamination of HCT/Ps with communicable disease agents and to ensure orderly handling of HCT/Ps without mix-ups. You must maintain the facility in a good state of repair. You must provide lighting, ventilation, plumbing, drainage, and access to sinks and toilets that are adequate to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable disease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility cleaning and sanitation.</I> (1) You must maintain any facility used in the manufacture of HCT/Ps in a clean, sanitary, and orderly manner, to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable disease.
</P>
<P>(2) You must dispose of sewage, trash, and other refuse in a timely, safe, and sanitary manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operations.</I> You must divide a facility used in the manufacture of HCT/Ps into separate or defined areas of adequate size for each operation that takes place in the facility, or you must establish and maintain other control systems to prevent improper labeling, mix-ups, contamination, cross-contamination, and accidental exposure of HCT/Ps to communicable disease agents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures and records.</I> (1) You must establish and maintain procedures for facility cleaning and sanitation for the purpose of preventing the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable disease. These procedures must assign responsibility for sanitation and must describe in sufficient detail the cleaning methods to be used and the schedule for cleaning the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) You must document, and maintain records of, all cleaning and sanitation activities performed to prevent contamination of HCT/Ps. You must retain such records 3 years after their creation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.195" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.195   Environmental control and monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Environmental control.</I> Where environmental conditions could reasonably be expected to cause contamination or cross-contamination of HCT/Ps or equipment, or accidental exposure of HCT/Ps to communicable disease agents, you must adequately control environmental conditions and provide proper conditions for operations. Where appropriate, you must provide for the following control activities or systems:
</P>
<P>(1) Temperature and humidity controls;
</P>
<P>(2) Ventilation and air filtration;
</P>
<P>(3) Cleaning and disinfecting of rooms and equipment to ensure aseptic processing operations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintenance of equipment used to control conditions necessary for aseptic processing operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspections.</I> You must inspect each environmental control system periodically to verify that the system, including necessary equipment, is adequate and functioning properly. You must take appropriate corrective action as necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Environmental monitoring.</I> You must monitor environmental conditions where environmental conditions could reasonably be expected to cause contamination or cross-contamination of HCT/Ps or equipment, or accidental exposure of HCT/Ps to communicable disease agents. Where appropriate, you must provide environmental monitoring for microorganisms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> You must document, and maintain records of, environmental control and monitoring activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.200" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.200   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> To prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases, equipment used in the manufacture of HCT/Ps must be of appropriate design for its use and must be suitably located and installed to facilitate operations, including cleaning and maintenance. Any automated, mechanical, electronic, or other equipment used for inspection, measuring, or testing in accordance with this part must be capable of producing valid results. You must clean, sanitize, and maintain equipment according to established schedules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and schedules.</I> You must establish and maintain procedures for cleaning, sanitizing, and maintaining equipment to prevent malfunctions, contamination or cross-contamination, accidental exposure of HCT/Ps to communicable disease agents, and other events that could reasonably be expected to result in the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calibration of equipment.</I> Where appropriate, you must routinely calibrate according to established procedures and schedules all automated, mechanical, electronic, or other equipment used for inspection, measuring, and testing in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inspections.</I> You must routinely inspect equipment for cleanliness, sanitation, and calibration, and to ensure adherence to applicable equipment maintenance schedules.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records.</I> You must document and maintain records of all equipment maintenance, cleaning, sanitizing, calibration, and other activities performed in accordance with this section. You must display records of recent maintenance, cleaning, sanitizing, calibration, and other activities on or near each piece of equipment, or make the records readily available to the individuals responsible for performing these activities and to the personnel using the equipment. You must maintain records of the use of each piece of equipment, including the identification of each HCT/P manufactured with that equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.210" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.210   Supplies and reagents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Verification.</I> You must not use supplies and reagents until they have been verified to meet specifications designed to prevent circumstances that increase the risk of the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases. Verification may be accomplished by the establishment that uses the supply or reagent, or by the vendor of the supply or reagent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reagents.</I> Reagents used in processing and preservation of HCT/Ps must be sterile, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In-house reagents.</I> You must validate and/or verify the processes used for production of in-house reagents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> You must maintain the following records pertaining to supplies and reagents:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of the receipt of each supply or reagent, including the type, quantity, manufacturer, lot number, date of receipt, and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(2) Records of the verification of each supply or reagent, including test results or, in the case of vendor verification, a certificate of analysis from the vendor; and
</P>
<P>(3) Records of the lot of supply or reagent used in the manufacture of each HCT/P.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.215" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.215   Recovery.</HEAD>
<P>If you are an establishment that recovers HCT/Ps, you must recover each HCT/P in a way that does not cause contamination or cross-contamination during recovery, or otherwise increase the risk of the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable disease through the use of the HCT/P.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.220" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.220   Processing and process controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If you are an establishment that processes HCT/Ps, you must process each HCT/P in a way that does not cause contamination or cross-contamination during processing, and that prevents the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable disease through the use of the HCT/P.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pooling.</I> Human cells or tissue from two or more donors must not be pooled (placed in physical contact or mixed in a single receptacle) during manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In-process control and testing.</I> You must ensure that specified requirements, consistent with paragraph (a) of this section, for in-process controls are met, and that each in-process HCT/P is controlled until the required inspection and tests or other verification activities have been completed, or necessary approvals are received and documented. Sampling of in-process HCT/Ps must be representative of the material to be evaluated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dura mater.</I> (1) When there is a published validated process that reduces the risk of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy, you must use this process for dura mater (or an equivalent process that you have validated), unless following this process adversely affects the clinical utility of the dura mater.
</P>
<P>(2) When you use a published validated process, you must verify such a process in your establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.225" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.225   Process changes.</HEAD>
<P>Any change to a process must be verified or validated in accordance with § 1271.230, to ensure that the change does not create an adverse impact elsewhere in the operation, and must be approved before implementation by a responsible person with appropriate knowledge and background. You must communicate approved changes to the appropriate personnel in a timely manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.230" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.230   Process validation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Where the results of processing described in § 1271.220 cannot be fully verified by subsequent inspection and tests, you must validate and approve the process according to established procedures. The validation activities and results must be documented, including the date and signature of the individual(s) approving the validation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written representation.</I> Any written representation that your processing methods reduce the risk of transmission of communicable disease by an HCT/P, including but not limited to, a representation of sterility or pathogen inactivation of an HCT/P, must be based on a fully verified or validated process.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Changes.</I> When changes to a validated process subject to paragraph (a) of this section occur, you must review and evaluate the process and perform revalidation where appropriate. You must document these activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.250" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.250   Labeling controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You must establish and maintain procedures to control the labeling of HCT/Ps. You must design these procedures to ensure proper HCT/P identification and to prevent mix-ups.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Verification.</I> Procedures must include verification of label accuracy, legibility, and integrity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling requirements.</I> Procedures must ensure that each HCT/P is labeled in accordance with all applicable labeling requirements, including those in §§ 1271.55, 1271.60, 1271.65, 1271.90, 1271.290, and 1271.370, and that each HCT/P made available for distribution is accompanied by documentation of the donor eligibility determination as required under § 1271.55.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.260" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.260   Storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Control of storage areas.</I> You must control your storage areas and stock rooms to prevent:
</P>
<P>(1) Mix-ups, contamination, and cross-contamination of HCT/Ps, supplies, and reagents, and
</P>
<P>(2) An HCT/P from being improperly made available for distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Temperature.</I> You must store HCT/Ps at an appropriate temperature.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expiration date.</I> Where appropriate, you must assign an expiration date to each HCT/P based on the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) HCT/P type;
</P>
<P>(2) Processing, including the method of preservation;
</P>
<P>(3) Storage conditions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Packaging.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Corrective action.</I> You must take and document corrective action whenever proper storage conditions are not met.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acceptable temperature limits.</I> You must establish acceptable temperature limits for storage of HCT/Ps at each step of the manufacturing process to inhibit the growth of infectious agents. You must maintain and record storage temperatures for HCT/Ps. You must periodically review recorded temperatures to ensure that temperatures have been within acceptable limits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.265" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.265   Receipt, predistribution shipment, and distribution of an HCT/P.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt.</I> You must evaluate each incoming HCT/P for the presence and significance of microorganisms and inspect for damage and contamination. You must determine whether to accept, reject, or place in quarantine each incoming HCT/P, based upon pre-established criteria designed to prevent communicable disease transmission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Predistribution shipment.</I> If you ship an HCT/P within your establishment or between establishments (e.g., procurer to processor) and the HCT/P is not available for distribution as described in paragraph (c) of this section, you must first determine and document whether pre-established criteria designed to prevent communicable disease transmission have been met, and you must ship the HCT/P in quarantine.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability for distribution.</I> (1) Before making an HCT/P available for distribution, you must review manufacturing and tracking records pertaining to the HCT/P, and, on the basis of that record review, you must verify and document that the release criteria have been met. A responsible person must document and date the determination that an HCT/P is available for distribution.
</P>
<P>(2) You must not make available for distribution an HCT/P that is in quarantine, is contaminated, is recovered from a donor who has been determined to be ineligible or for whom a donor-eligibility determination has not been completed (except as provided under §§ 1271.60, 1271.65, and 1271.90), or that otherwise does not meet release criteria designed to prevent communicable disease transmission.
</P>
<P>(3) You must not make available for distribution any HCT/P manufactured under a departure from a procedure relevant to preventing risks of communicable disease transmission, unless a responsible person has determined that the departure does not increase the risk of communicable disease through the use of the HCT/P. You must record and justify any departure from a procedure at the time of its occurrence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Packaging and shipping.</I> Packaging and shipping containers must be designed and constructed to protect the HCT/P from contamination. For each type of HCT/P, you must establish appropriate shipping conditions to be maintained during transit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures.</I> You must establish and maintain procedures, including release criteria, for the activities in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. You must document these activities. Documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the HCT/P and the establishment that supplied the HCT/P;
</P>
<P>(2) Activities performed and the results of each activity;
</P>
<P>(3) Date(s) of activity;
</P>
<P>(4) Quantity of HCT/P subject to the activity; and
</P>
<P>(5) Disposition of the HCT/P (e.g., identity of consignee).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Return to inventory.</I> You must establish and maintain procedures to determine if an HCT/P that is returned to your establishment is suitable to be returned to inventory.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.270" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.270   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You must maintain records concurrently with the performance of each step required in this subpart and subpart C of this part. Any requirement in this part that an action be documented involves the creation of a record, which is subject to the requirements of this section. All records must be accurate, indelible, and legible. The records must identify the person performing the work and the dates of the various entries, and must be as detailed as necessary to provide a complete history of the work performed and to relate the records to the particular HCT/P involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records management system.</I> You must establish and maintain a records management system relating to core CGTP requirements. Under this system, records pertaining to a particular HCT/P must be maintained in such a way as to facilitate review of the HCT/Ps history before making it available for distribution and, if necessary, subsequent to the HCT/Ps release as part of a followup evaluation or investigation. Records pertinent to the manufacture of HCT/Ps (e.g., labeling and packaging procedures, and equipment logs) must also be maintained and organized under the records management system. If records are maintained in more than one location, then the records management system must be designed to ensure prompt identification, location, and retrieval of all records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of retention.</I> You may maintain records required under this subpart electronically, as original paper records, or as true copies such as photocopies, microfiche, or microfilm. Equipment that is necessary to make the records available and legible, such as computer and reader equipment, must be readily available. Records stored in electronic systems must be backed up.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Length of retention.</I> You must retain all records for 10 years after their creation, unless stated otherwise in this part. However, you must retain the records pertaining to a particular HCT/P at least 10 years after the date of its administration, or if the date of administration is not known, then at least 10 years after the date of the HCT/Ps distribution, disposition, or expiration, whichever is latest. You must retain records for archived specimens of dura mater for 10 years after the appropriate disposition of the specimens.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contracts and agreements.</I> You must maintain the name and address and a list of the responsibilities of any establishment that performs a manufacturing step for you. This information must be available during an inspection conducted under § 1271.400.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.290" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.290   Tracking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If you perform any step in the manufacture of an HCT/P in which you handle the HCT/P, you must track each such HCT/P in accordance with this section, to facilitate the investigation of actual or suspected transmission of communicable disease and take appropriate and timely corrective action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>System of HCT/P tracking.</I> (1) You must establish and maintain a system of HCT/P tracking that enables the tracking of all HCT/Ps from:
</P>
<P>(i) The donor to the consignee or final disposition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consignee or final disposition to the donor.
</P>
<P>(2) Alternatively, if you are an establishment that performs some but not all of the steps in the manufacture of an HCT/P in which you handle the HCT/P, you may participate in a system of HCT/P tracking established and maintained by another establishment responsible for other steps in the manufacture of the same HCT/P, provided that the tracking system complies with all the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distinct identification code.</I> As part of your tracking system, you must ensure: That each HCT/P that you manufacture is assigned and labeled with a distinct identification code, e.g., alphanumeric, that relates the HCT/P to the donor and to all records pertaining to the HCT/P; and that labeling includes information designed to facilitate effective tracking, using the distinct identification code, from the donor to the recipient and from the recipient to the donor. Except as described in § 1271.55(a)(1), you must create such a code specifically for tracking, and it may not include an individual's name, social security number, or medical record number. You may adopt a distinct identification code assigned by another establishment engaged in the manufacturing process, or you may assign a new code. If you assign a new code to an HCT/P, you must establish and maintain procedures for relating the new code to the old code.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tracking from consignee to donor.</I> As part of your tracking system, you must establish and maintain a method for recording the distinct identification code and type of each HCT/P distributed to a consignee to enable tracking from the consignee to the donor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tracking from donor to consignee or final disposition.</I> As part of your tracking system, you must establish and maintain a method for documenting the disposition of each of your HCT/Ps, to enable tracking from the donor to the consignee or final disposition. The information you maintain must permit the prompt identification of the consignee of the HCT/P, if any.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consignees.</I> At or before the time of distribution of an HCT/P to a consignee, you must inform the consignee in writing of the requirements in this section and of the tracking system that you have established and are maintaining to comply with these requirements.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Requirements specific to dura mater donors.</I> You must archive appropriate specimens from each donor of dura mater, under appropriate storage conditions, and for the appropriate duration, to enable testing of the archived material for evidence of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy, and to enable appropriate disposition of any affected nonadministered dura mater tissue, if necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68681, Nov. 24, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 29952, May 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.320" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.320   Complaint file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures.</I> You must establish and maintain procedures for the review, evaluation, and documentation of complaints as defined in § 1271.3(aa), relating to core current good tissue practice (CGTP) requirements, and the investigation of complaints as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint file.</I> You must maintain a record of complaints that you receive in a file designated for complaints. The complaint file must contain sufficient information about each complaint for proper review and evaluation of the complaint (including the distinct identification code of the HCT/P that is the subject of the complaint) and for determining whether the complaint is an isolated event or represents a trend. You must make the complaint file available for review and copying upon request from FDA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review and evaluation of complaints.</I> You must review and evaluate each complaint relating to core CGTP requirements to determine if the complaint is related to an HCT/P deviation or to an adverse reaction, and to determine if a report under § 1271.350 or another applicable regulation is required. As soon as practical, you must review, evaluate, and investigate each complaint that represents an event required to be reported to FDA, as described in § 1271.350. You must review and evaluate a complaint relating to core CGTP requirements that does not represent an event required to be reported to determine whether an investigation is necessary; an investigation may include referring a copy of the complaint to another establishment that performed manufacturing steps pertinent to the complaint. When no investigation is made, you must maintain a record that includes the reason no investigation was made, and the name of the individual(s) responsible for the decision not to investigate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Additional Requirements for Establishments Described in § 1271.10</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 68686, Nov. 24, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1271.330" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.330   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions set forth in this subpart are being implemented for nonreproductive HCT/Ps described in § 1271.10 and regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations in this part, and for the establishments that manufacture those HCT/Ps. HCT/Ps that are drugs or devices regulated under the act, or are biological products regulated under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, are not subject to the regulations set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.350" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.350   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adverse reaction reports.</I> (1) You must investigate any adverse reaction involving a communicable disease related to an HCT/P that you made available for distribution. You must report to FDA an adverse reaction involving a communicable disease if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Is fatal;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is life-threatening;
</P>
<P>(iii) Results in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to body structure; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Necessitates medical or surgical intervention, including hospitalization.
</P>
<P>(2) You must submit each report on a Form FDA-3500A to the address in paragraph (a)(5) of this section within 15 calendar days of initial receipt of the information.
</P>
<P>(3) You must, as soon as practical, investigate all adverse reactions that are the subject of these 15-day reports and must submit followup reports within 15 calendar days of the receipt of new information or as requested by FDA. If additional information is not obtainable, a followup report may be required that describes briefly the steps taken to seek additional information and the reasons why it could not be obtained.
</P>
<P>(4) You may obtain copies of the reporting form (FDA-3500A) from the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (see address in paragraph (a)(5) of this section). Electronic Form FDA-3500A may be obtained at <I>http://www.fda.gov/medwatch</I> or at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/forms.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) You must submit two copies of each report described in this paragraph to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. FDA may waive the requirement for the second copy in appropriate circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports of HCT/P deviations.</I> (1) You must investigate all HCT/P deviations related to a distributed HCT/P for which you performed a manufacturing step.
</P>
<P>(2) You must report any such HCT/P deviation relating to the core CGTP requirements, if the HCT/P deviation occurred in your facility or in a facility that performed a manufacturing step for you under contract, agreement, or other arrangement. Each report must contain a description of the HCT/P deviation, information relevant to the event and the manufacture of the HCT/P involved, and information on all follow-up actions that have been or will be taken in response to the HCT/P deviation (e.g., recalls).
</P>
<P>(3) You must report each such HCT/P deviation that relates to a core CGTP requirement on Form FDA 3486 within 45 days of the discovery of the event either electronically using the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research electronic Web-based application or by mail to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68686, Nov. 24, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 18095, Apr. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.370" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.370   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The following requirements apply in addition to §§ 1271.55, 1271.60, 1271.65, and 1271.90:
</P>
<P>(a) You must label each HCT/P made available for distribution clearly and accurately.
</P>
<P>(b) The following information must appear on the HCT/P label:
</P>
<P>(1) Distinct identification code affixed to the HCT/P container, and assigned in accordance with § 1271.290(c);
</P>
<P>(2) Description of the type of HCT/P;
</P>
<P>(3) Expiration date, if any; and
</P>
<P>(4) Warnings required under § 1271.60(d)(2), § 1271.65(b)(2), or § 1271.90(c), if applicable and physically possible. If it is not physically possible to include these warnings on the label, the warnings must, instead, accompany the HCT/P.
</P>
<P>(c) The following information must either appear on the HCT/P label or accompany the HCT/P:
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address of the establishment that determines that the HCT/P meets release criteria and makes the HCT/P available for distribution;
</P>
<P>(2) Storage temperature;
</P>
<P>(3) Other warnings, where appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(4) Instructions for use when related to the prevention of the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68686, Nov. 24, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 29952, May 25, 2005; 81 FR 40518, June 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Inspection and Enforcement of Establishments Described in § 1271.10</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 68687, Nov. 24, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1271.390" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.390   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions set forth in this subpart are applicable only to HCT/Ps described in § 1271.10 and regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations in this part, and to the establishments that manufacture those HCT/Ps. HCT/Ps that are drugs or devices regulated under the act, or are biological products regulated under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, are not subject to the regulations set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.400" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.400   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are an establishment that manufactures HCT/Ps described in § 1271.10, whether or not under contract, you must permit the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to inspect any manufacturing location at any reasonable time and in a reasonable manner to determine compliance with applicable provisions of this part. The inspection will be conducted as necessary in the judgment of the FDA and may include your establishment, facilities, equipment, finished and unfinished materials, containers, processes, HCT/Ps, procedures, labeling, records, files, papers, and controls required to be maintained under the part. The inspection may be made with or without prior notification and will ordinarily be made during regular business hours.
</P>
<P>(b) The frequency of inspection will be at the agency's discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) FDA will call upon the most responsible person available at the time of the inspection of the establishment and may question the personnel of the establishment as necessary to determine compliance with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) FDA's representatives may take samples, may review and copy any records required to be kept under this part, and may use other appropriate means to record evidence of observations during inspections conducted under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) The public disclosure of records containing the name or other positive identification of donors or recipients of HCT/Ps will be handled in accordance with FDA's procedures on disclosure of information as set forth in parts 20 and 21 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.420" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.420   HCT/Ps offered for import.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, when an HCT/P is offered for import, the importer of record must notify, either before or at the time of importation, the director of the district of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) having jurisdiction over the port of entry through which the HCT/P is imported or offered for import, or such officer of the district as the director may designate to act in his or her behalf in administering and enforcing this part, and must provide sufficient information, including information submitted in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) system or any other electronic data interchange system authorized by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Agency as required in part 1, subpart D of this chapter, for FDA to make an admissibility decision.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, an HCT/P offered for import must be held intact by the importer or consignee, under conditions necessary to prevent transmission of communicable disease, until an admissibility decision is made by FDA. The HCT/P may be transported under quarantine to the consignee, while the FDA district reviews the documentation accompanying the HCT/P. When FDA makes a decision regarding the admissibility of the HCT/P, FDA will notify the importer of record.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to reproductive HCT/Ps regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations in this part, and donated by a sexually intimate partner of the recipient for reproductive use.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not apply to peripheral blood stem/progenitor cells regulated solely under section 361 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations in this part, except that paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section apply when circumstances occur under which such imported peripheral blood stem/progenitor cells may present an unreasonable risk of communicable disease transmission which indicates the need to review the information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68687, Nov. 24, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 85873, Nov. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.440" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.59.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.440   Orders of retention, recall, destruction, and cessation of manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon an agency finding that there are reasonable grounds to believe that an HCT/P is a violative HCT/P because it was manufactured in violation of the regulations in this part and, therefore, the conditions of manufacture of the HCT/P do not provide adequate protections against risks of communicable disease transmission; or the HCT/P is infected or contaminated so as to be a source of dangerous infection to humans; or an establishment is in violation of the regulations in this part and, therefore, does not provide adequate protections against the risks of communicable disease transmission, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) may take one or more of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Serve upon the person who distributed the HCT/P a written order that the HCT/P be recalled and/or destroyed, as appropriate, and upon persons in possession of the HCT/P that the HCT/P must be retained until it is recalled by the distributor, destroyed, or disposed of as agreed by FDA, or the safety of the HCT/P is confirmed;
</P>
<P>(2) Take possession of and/or destroy the violative HCT/P; or
</P>
<P>(3) Serve upon the establishment an order to cease manufacturing until compliance with the regulations of this part has been achieved. When FDA determines there are reasonable grounds to believe there is a danger to health, such order will be effective immediately. In other situations, such order will be effective after one of the following events, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(i) Passage of 5 working days from the establishment's receipt of the order; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the establishment requests a hearing in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section and part 16 of this chapter, a decision in, and in accordance with, those proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) A written order issued under paragraph (a) of this section will state with particularity the facts that justify the order.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A written order issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will ordinarily provide that the HCT/P be recalled and/or destroyed within 5 working days from the date of receipt of the order. After receipt of an order issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the establishment in possession of the HCT/P must not distribute or dispose of the HCT/P in any manner except to recall and/or destroy the HCT/P consistent with the provisions of the order, under the supervision of FDA.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, other arrangements for assuring the proper disposition of the HCT/P may be agreed upon by the person receiving the written order and FDA. Such arrangements may include, among others, providing FDA with records or other written information that adequately ensure that the HCT/P has been recovered, processed, stored, and distributed in conformance with this part, and that, except as provided under §§ 1271.60, 1271.65, and 1271.90, the donor of the cells or tissue for the HCT/P has been determined to be eligible.
</P>
<P>(d) A written order issued under paragraph (a)(3) of this section will specify the regulations with which you must achieve compliance and will ordinarily specify the particular operations covered by the order. After receipt of an order that is in effect and issued under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, you must not resume operations without prior written authorization of FDA.
</P>
<P>(e) The recipient of an order issued under this section may request a hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter. To request a hearing, the recipient of the written order or prior possessor of such HCT/P must make the request within 5 working days of receipt of a written order for retention, recall, destruction, and/or cessation (or within 5 working days of the agency's possession of an HCT/P under paragraph (a)(2) of this section), in accordance with part 16 of this chapter. An order of destruction will be held in abeyance pending resolution of the hearing request. Upon request under part 16 of this chapter, FDA will provide an opportunity for an expedited hearing for an order of cessation that is not stayed by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.
</P>
<P>(f) FDA will not issue an order for the destruction of reproductive tissue under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, nor will it carry out such destruction itself under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1272-1299" NODE="21:8.0.1.5.60" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1272-1299 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 9, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="9" NODE="21:9" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 21-Food and Drugs--Volume 9</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Justice
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1300 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter iii</E>—Office of National Drug Control Policy 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1401 


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="II" NODE="21:9.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—DRUG ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1300" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1300—DEFINITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 802, 821, 822, 823, 829, 871(b), 951, 958(f).




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 13941, Mar. 24, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1300.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1300.01   Definitions relating to controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802), except that certain terms used in part 1316 of this chapter are defined at the beginning of each subpart of that part.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in parts 1301 through 1308, 1312, and 1317 of this chapter, the following terms shall have the meanings specified:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Controlled Substances Act, as amended (84 Stat. 1242; 21 U.S.C. 801) and/or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, as amended (84 Stat. 1285; 21 U.S.C. 951).


</P>
<P><I>Administration</I> means the Drug Enforcement Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration. The Administrator has been delegated authority under the Act by the Attorney General (28 CFR 0.100).
</P>
<P><I>Anabolic steroid</I> means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes (but is not limited to) those substances listed in § 1308.13(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (1)(ii) of this definition, such term does not include an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and that has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) If any person prescribes, dispenses, or distributes such steroid for human use, the person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed, or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of this definition.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Subject to paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition, a drug or hormonal substance (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone) that is not listed in § 1308.13(f) of this chapter and is derived from, or has a chemical structure substantially similar to, one or more anabolic steroids listed in § 1308.13(f) of this chapter shall be considered to be an anabolic steroid for purposes of this chapter if—
</P>
<P>(A) The drug or substance has been created or manufactured with the intent of producing a drug or other substance that either—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Promotes muscle growth; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Otherwise causes a pharmacological effect similar to that of testosterone; or
</P>
<P>(B) The drug or substance has been, or is intended to be, marketed or otherwise promoted in any manner suggesting that consuming it will promote muscle growth or any other pharmacological effect similar to that of testosterone.
</P>
<P>(ii) A substance shall not be considered to be a drug or hormonal substance for purposes of this definition if it—
</P>
<P>(A) Is—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An herb or other botanical;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A concentrate, metabolite, or extract of, or a constituent isolated directly from, an herb or other botanical; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A combination of 2 or more substances described in paragraph (2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(B) Is a dietary ingredient for purposes of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(C) Is not anabolic or androgenic.
</P>
<P>(iii) In accordance with 21 U.S.C. 885(a), any person claiming the benefit of an exemption or exception under paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition shall bear the burden of going forward with the evidence with respect to such exemption or exception.








</P>
<P><I>Automated dispensing system</I> means a mechanical system that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to the storage, packaging, counting, labeling, and dispensing of medications, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.
</P>
<P><I>Basic class</I> means, as to controlled substances listed in Schedules I and II:
</P>
<P>(1) Each of the opiates, including its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, listed in § 1308.11(b) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Each of the opium derivatives, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, listed in § 1308.11(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Each of the hallucinogenic substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, listed in § 1308.11(d) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(4) Each of the following substances, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
</P>
<P>(i) Opium, including raw opium, opium extracts, opium fluid extracts, powdered opium, granulated opium, deodorized opium and tincture of opium;
</P>
<P>(ii) Apomorphine;
</P>
<P>(iii) Codeine;
</P>
<P>(iv) Etorphine hydrochloride;
</P>
<P>(v) Ethylmorphine;
</P>
<P>(vi) Hydrocodone;
</P>
<P>(vii) Hydromorphone;
</P>
<P>(viii) Metopon;
</P>
<P>(ix) Morphine;
</P>
<P>(x) Oxycodone;
</P>
<P>(xi) Oxymorphone;
</P>
<P>(xii) Thebaine;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Mixed alkaloids of opium listed in § 1308.12(b)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Cocaine; and
</P>
<P>(xv) Ecgonine;
</P>
<P>(5) Each of the opiates, including its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, listed in § 1308.12(c) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(6) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers;
</P>
<P>(7) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers;
</P>
<P>(8) Phenmetrazine and its salts;
</P>
<P>(9) Methylphenidate;
</P>
<P>(10) Each of the substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, listed in § 1308.12(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Central fill pharmacy</I> means a pharmacy which is permitted by the state in which it is located to prepare controlled substances orders for dispensing pursuant to a valid prescription transmitted to it by a registered retail pharmacy and to return the labeled and filled prescriptions to the retail pharmacy for delivery to the ultimate user. Such central fill pharmacy shall be deemed “authorized” to fill prescriptions on behalf of a retail pharmacy only if the retail pharmacy and central fill pharmacy have a contractual relationship providing for such activities or share a common owner.
</P>
<P><I>Collection</I> means to receive a controlled substance for the purpose of destruction from an ultimate user, a person lawfully entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property, or a long-term care facility on behalf of an ultimate user who resides or has resided at that facility. The term <I>collector</I> means a registered manufacturer, distributor, reverse distributor, narcotic treatment program, hospital/clinic with an on-site pharmacy, or retail pharmacy that is authorized under this chapter to so receive a controlled substance for the purpose of destruction.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial container</I> means any bottle, jar, tube, ampule, or other receptacle in which a substance is held for distribution or dispensing to an ultimate user, and in addition, any box or package in which the receptacle is held for distribution or dispensing to an ultimate user. The term commercial container does not include any package liner, package insert or other material kept with or within a commercial container, nor any carton, crate, drum, or other package in which commercial containers are stored or are used for shipment of controlled substances.
</P>
<P><I>Competent national authority,</I> for purposes of importation and exportation of controlled substances and listed chemicals, means an entity lawfully entitled to authorize the import and export of controlled substances, and to regulate or enforce national controls over listed chemicals, and included as such in the directory of “Competent National Authorities Under the International Drug Control Treaties” published by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. For purposes of exports of narcotic drugs, the term also includes freely associated states authorized to receive such exports pursuant to 48 U.S.C. 1972.
</P>
<P><I>Compounder</I> means any person engaging in maintenance or detoxification treatment who also mixes, prepares, packages or changes the dosage form of a narcotic drug listed in Schedules II, III, IV or V for use in maintenance or detoxification treatment by another narcotic treatment program.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled substance</I> has the meaning given in section 802(6) of Title 21, United States Code (U.S.C.).
</P>
<P><I>Customs officer</I> means either an Officer of the Customs as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1401(i) (that is, of the U.S. Customs and Border Protection), or any individual duly authorized to accept entries of merchandise, to collect duties, and to enforce the customs laws of any commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Customs territory of the United States</I> means the several States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Detoxification treatment</I> means the dispensing, for a period of time as specified below, of a narcotic drug or narcotic drugs in decreasing doses to an individual to alleviate adverse physiological or psychological effects incident to withdrawal from the continuous or sustained use of a narcotic drug and as a method of bringing the individual to a narcotic drug-free state within such period of time. There are two types of detoxification treatment: Short-term detoxification treatment and long-term detoxification treatment.
</P>
<P>(1) Short-term detoxification treatment is for a period not in excess of 30 days.
</P>
<P>(2) Long-term detoxification treatment is for a period more than 30 days but not in excess of 180 days.
</P>
<P><I>Dispenser</I> means an individual practitioner, institutional practitioner, pharmacy or pharmacist who dispenses a controlled substance.
</P>
<P><I>Export</I> means, with respect to any article, any taking out or removal of such article from the United States (whether or not such taking out or removal constitutes an exportation within the meaning of the customs laws, export control laws enforced by other agencies, or related laws of the United States).
</P>
<P><I>Exporter</I> includes every person who exports, or who acts as an export broker for exportation of, controlled substances listed in any schedule.
</P>
<P><I>Freight forwarding facility</I> means a separate facility operated by a distributing registrant through which sealed, packaged controlled substances in unmarked shipping containers (<I>i.e.</I>, the containers do not indicate that the contents include controlled substances) are, in the course of delivery to, or return from, customers, transferred in less than 24 hours. A distributing registrant who operates a freight forwarding facility may use the facility to transfer controlled substances from any location the distributing registrant operates that is registered with the Administration to manufacture, distribute, or import controlled substances, or, with respect to returns, registered to dispense controlled substances, provided that the notice required by § 1301.12(b)(4) of Part 1301 of this chapter has been submitted and approved. For purposes of this definition, a distributing registrant is a person who is registered with the Administration as a manufacturer, distributor (excluding reverse distributor), and/or importer.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In part 1301 of this chapter, any hearing held for the granting, denial, revocation, or suspension of a registration pursuant to sections 303, 304, and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823, 824 and 958).
</P>
<P>(2) In part 1303 of this chapter, any hearing held regarding the determination of aggregate production quota or the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of a procurement quota or an individual manufacturing quota.
</P>
<P>(3) In part 1308 of this chapter, any hearing held for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule issuable pursuant to section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811).
</P>
<P><I>Import</I> means, with respect to any article, any bringing in or introduction of such article into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or into the United States from any place outside thereof (whether or not such bringing in or introduction constitutes an importation within the meaning of the tariff laws of the United States).
</P>
<P><I>Importer</I> includes every person who imports, or who acts as an import broker for importation of, controlled substances listed in any schedule.
</P>
<P><I>Individual practitioner</I> means a physician, dentist, veterinarian, or other individual licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted, by the United States or the jurisdiction in which he/she practices, to dispense a controlled substance in the course of professional practice, but does not include a pharmacist, a pharmacy, or an institutional practitioner.
</P>
<P><I>Institutional practitioner</I> means a hospital or other person (other than an individual) licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted, by the United States or the jurisdiction in which it practices, to dispense a controlled substance in the course of professional practice, but does not include a pharmacy.
</P>
<P><I>Interested person</I> means any person adversely affected or aggrieved by any rule or proposed rule issuable pursuant to section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811).
</P>
<P><I>Inventory</I> means all factory and branch stocks in finished form of a basic class of controlled substance manufactured or otherwise acquired by a registrant, whether in bulk, commercial containers, or contained in pharmaceutical preparations in the possession of the registrant (including stocks held by the registrant under separate registration as a manufacturer, importer, exporter, or distributor).
</P>
<P><I>Isomer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The optical isomer, except as used in § 1308.11(d) and § 1308.12(b)(4) of this chapter. As used in § 1308.11(d) of this chapter, the term “isomer” means any optical, positional, or geometric isomer. As used in § 1308.12(b)(4) of this chapter, the term “isomer” means any optical or geometric isomer;
</P>
<P>(2) As used in § 1308.11(d) of this chapter, the term “positional isomer” means any substance possessing the same molecular formula and core structure and having the same functional group(s) and/or substituent(s) as those found in the respective Schedule I hallucinogen, attached at any position(s) on the core structure, but in such manner that no new chemical functionalities are created and no existing chemical functionalities are destroyed relative to the respective Schedule I hallucinogen. Rearrangements of alkyl moieties within or between functional group(s) or substituent(s), or divisions or combinations of alkyl moieties, that do not create new chemical functionalities or destroy existing chemical functionalities, are allowed i.e., result in compounds which are positional isomers. For purposes of this definition, the “core structure” is the parent molecule that is the common basis for the class; for example, tryptamine, phenethylamine, or ergoline. Examples of rearrangements resulting in creation and/or destruction of chemical functionalities (and therefore resulting in compounds which are not positional isomers) include, but are not limited to: Ethoxy to <I>alpha</I>-hydroxyethyl, hydroxy and methyl to methoxy, or the repositioning of a phenolic or alcoholic hydroxy group to create a hydroxyamine. Examples of rearrangements resulting in compounds which would be positional isomers include: <I>Tert</I>-butyl to <I>sec</I>-butyl, methoxy and ethyl to isopropoxy, N,N-diethyl to N-methyl-N-propyl, or <I>alpha</I>-methylamino to N-methylamino.
</P>
<P><I>Label</I> means any display of written, printed, or graphic matter placed upon the commercial container of any controlled substance by any manufacturer of such substance.
</P>
<P><I>Labeling</I> means all labels and other written, printed, or graphic matter:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon any controlled substance or any of its commercial containers or wrappers, or
</P>
<P>(2) Accompanying such controlled substance.
</P>
<P><I>Long Term Care Facility (LTCF)</I> means a nursing home, retirement care, mental care or other facility or institution which provides extended health care to resident patients.
</P>
<P><I>Maintenance treatment</I> means the dispensing for a period in excess of twenty-one days, of a narcotic drug or narcotic drugs in the treatment of an individual for dependence upon heroin or other morphine-like drug.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacture</I> means the producing, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing of a drug or other substance or the packaging or repackaging of such substance, or the labeling or relabeling of the commercial container of such substance, but does not include the activities of a practitioner who, as an incident to his/her administration or dispensing such substance in the course of his/her professional practice, prepares, compounds, packages or labels such substance.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means a person who manufactures a drug or other substance, whether under a registration as a manufacturer or under authority of registration as a researcher or chemical analyst.
</P>
<P><I>Marijuana</I> shall have the meaning set forth at 21 U.S.C. 802(16)(A).


</P>
<P><I>Mid-level practitioner</I> means an individual practitioner, other than a physician, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatrist, who is licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted by the United States or the jurisdiction in which he/she practices, to dispense a controlled substance in the course of professional practice. Examples of mid-level practitioners include, but are not limited to, health care providers such as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, nurse anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists and physician assistants who are authorized to dispense controlled substances by the State in which they practice.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile Narcotic Treatment Program</I> means a narcotic treatment program (NTP) operating from a motor vehicle, as defined in this section, that serves as a mobile component (conveyance) and is operating under the registration of the NTP, and engages in maintenance and/or detoxification treatment with narcotic drugs in schedules II-V, at a location or locations remote from, but within the same State as, its registered location. Operating a mobile NTP is a coincident activity of an existing NTP, as listed in § 1301.13(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Motor vehicle</I> means a vehicle propelled under its own motive power and lawfully used on public streets, roads, or highways with more than three wheels in contact with the ground. This term does not include a trailer.
</P>
<P><I>Name</I> means the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name of a substance.
</P>
<P><I>Narcotic drug</I> means any of the following whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
</P>
<P>(1) Opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation. Such term does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium.
</P>
<P>(2) Poppy straw and concentrate of poppy straw.
</P>
<P>(3) Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed.
</P>
<P>(4) Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers.
</P>
<P>(5) Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers.
</P>
<P>(6) Any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Narcotic treatment program</I> means a program engaged in maintenance and/or detoxification treatment with narcotic drugs.
</P>
<P><I>Net disposal</I> means, for a stated period, the quantity of a basic class of controlled substance distributed by the registrant to another person, plus the quantity of that basic class used by the registrant in the production of (or converted by the registrant into) another basic class of controlled substance or a noncontrolled substance, plus the quantity of that basic class otherwise disposed of by the registrant, less the quantity of that basic class returned to the registrant by any purchaser, and less the quantity of that basic class distributed by the registrant to another registered manufacturer of that basic class for purposes other than use in the production of, or conversion into, another basic class of controlled substance or a noncontrolled substance or in the manufacture of dosage forms of that basic class.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes any individual, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, partnership, association, or other legal entity.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacist</I> means any pharmacist licensed by a State to dispense controlled substances, and shall include any other person (e.g., pharmacist intern) authorized by a State to dispense controlled substances under the supervision of a pharmacist licensed by such State.
</P>
<P><I>Port of entry</I> means, unless distinguished as being a foreign port of entry, any place at which a customs officer is duly authorized to accept entries of merchandise, to collect duties, and to enforce the various provisions of the customs laws of the United States (whether or not such place is a port of entry as defined in title 19 of the United States Code or its associated implementing regulations). Examples of ports of entry include, but are not limited to, places designated as ports of entry or customs stations in title 19 of the <I>Code of Federal Regulations</I> or by the governing customs authority of that area. When shipments are transported under U.S. Customs and Border Protection's immediate transportation procedures, the port of entry shall be the port of final destination.
</P>
<P><I>Port of export</I> means, unless distinguished as being a foreign port of export, any place under the control of a customs officer where goods are loaded on an aircraft, vessel or other conveyance for export outside of the United States. For goods loaded aboard an aircraft or vessel in the United States, that stops at several ports before departing the United States, the port of export is the first port where the goods were actually loaded. For goods off-loaded from the original conveyance to another conveyance (even if the aircraft or vessel belongs to the same carrier) at any port subsequent to the port where the first on-loading occurred in the United States, the port where the goods were loaded onto the last conveyance before departing the United States is the port of export.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription</I> means an order for medication which is dispensed to or for an ultimate user but does not include an order for medication which is dispensed for immediate administration to the ultimate user (e.g., an order to dispense a drug to a bed patient for immediate administration in a hospital is not a prescription).
</P>
<P><I>Proceeding</I> means all actions taken for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule issued pursuant to section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811), commencing with the publication by the Administrator of the proposed rule, amended rule, or repeal in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P><I>Purchaser</I> means any registered person entitled to obtain and execute order forms pursuant to §§ 1305.04 and 1305.06.


</P>
<P><I>Qualified practitioner</I> means a practitioner who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is licensed under State law to prescribe controlled substances; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not solely a veterinarian.
</P>
<P><I>Readily retrievable</I> means that certain records are kept by automatic data processing systems or other electronic or mechanized recordkeeping systems in such a manner that they can be separated out from all other records in a reasonable time and/or records are kept on which certain items are asterisked, redlined, or in some other manner visually identifiable apart from other items appearing on the records.
</P>
<P><I>Register</I> and <I>registration</I> refer only to registration required and permitted by sections 303 or 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 or 957).
</P>
<P><I>Registrant</I> means any person who is registered pursuant to either section 303 or section 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 or 958).
</P>
<P><I>Return information</I> means supplemental information required to be reported to the Administration following an import or export transaction containing the particulars of the transaction and any other information as the Administration may specify.
</P>
<P><I>Reverse distribute</I> means to acquire controlled substances from another registrant or law enforcement for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(1) Return to the registered manufacturer or another registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept returns on the manufacturer's behalf; or
</P>
<P>(2) Destruction.
</P>
<P><I>Reverse distributor</I> is a person registered with the Administration as a reverse distributor.


</P>
<P><I>State medical marijuana license</I> means a license issued by a state entity (or by a District of Columbia entity or a federal territorial entity) authorizing the licensee to manufacture, distribute, and/or dispense marijuana or products that contain marijuana for medical purposes.


</P>
<P><I>Supplier</I> means any registered person entitled to fill order forms pursuant to § 1305.06 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographic sense, means all places and waters, continental or insular, subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, which, in addition to the customs territory of the United States, include but are not limited to the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13941, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 44678, July 19, 2000; 68 FR 37409, June 24, 2003; 68 FR 41228, July 11, 2003; 70 FR 25465, May 13, 2005; 70 FR 74656, Dec. 16, 2005; 71 FR 60427, Oct. 13, 2006; 72 FR 67852, Dec. 3, 2007; 74 FR 63609, Dec. 4, 2009; 77 FR 4230, Jan. 27, 2012; 77 FR 44461, July 30, 2012; 79 FR 53559, Sept. 9, 2014; 81 FR 97018, Dec. 30, 2016; 86 FR 33883, June 28, 2021; 88 FR 50039, Aug. , 2023; 91 FR 22721, Apr. 28, 2026; 91 FR 34767, June 9, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1300.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1300.02   Definitions relating to listed chemicals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802), except that certain terms used in part 1316 of this chapter are defined at the beginning of each subpart of that part.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter, the following terms shall have the meaning specified:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Controlled Substances Act, as amended (84 Stat. 1242; 21 U.S.C. 801) and/or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, as amended (84 Stat. 1285; 21 U.S.C. 951).
</P>
<P><I>Administration</I> means the Drug Enforcement Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration. The Administrator has been delegated authority under the Act by the Attorney General (28 CFR 0.100).
</P>
<P><I>At retail,</I> with respect to the sale or purchase of a scheduled listed chemical product, means a sale or purchase for personal use, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Broker</I> and <I>trader</I> mean any individual, corporation, corporate division, partnership, association, or other legal entity which assists in arranging an international transaction in a listed chemical by—
</P>
<P>(1) Negotiating contracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Serving as an agent or intermediary; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fulfilling a formal obligation to complete the transaction by bringing together a buyer and seller, a buyer and transporter, or a seller and transporter, or by receiving any form of compensation for so doing.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical export</I> means transferring ownership or control, or the sending or taking of threshold quantities of listed chemicals out of the United States (whether or not such sending or taking out constitutes an exportation within the meaning of the customs and related laws of the United States).
</P>
<P><I>Chemical exporter</I> is a regulated person who, as the principal party in interest in the export transaction, has the power and responsibility for determining and controlling the sending of the listed chemical out of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical importer</I> is a regulated person who, as the principal party in interest in the import transaction, has the power and responsibility for determining and controlling the bringing in or introduction of the listed chemical into the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical mixture</I> means a combination of two or more chemical substances, at least one of which is not a listed chemical, except that such term does not include any combination of a listed chemical with another chemical that is present solely as an impurity or which has been created to evade the requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Combination ephedrine product</I> means a drug product containing ephedrine or its salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers, and therapeutically significant quantities of another active medicinal ingredient.
</P>
<P><I>Competent national authority,</I> for purposes of importation and exportation of controlled substances and listed chemicals, means an entity lawfully entitled to authorize the import and export of controlled substances, and to regulate or enforce national controls over listed chemicals, and included as such in the directory of “Competent National Authorities Under the International Drug Control Treaties” published by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.
</P>
<P><I>Customs officer</I> means either an Officer of the Customs as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1401(i) (that is, of the U.S. Customs and Border Protection), or any individual duly authorized to accept entries of merchandise, to collect duties, and to enforce the customs laws of any commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Customs territory of the United States</I> means the several States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Drug product</I> means an active ingredient in dosage form that has been approved or otherwise may be lawfully marketed under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act for distribution in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Encapsulating machine</I> means any manual, semi-automatic, or fully automatic equipment which may be used to fill shells or capsules with any powdered, granular, semi-solid, or liquid material.
</P>
<P><I>Established business relationship</I> means the regulated person has imported or exported a listed chemical at least once within the past six months, or twice within the past twelve months from or to a foreign manufacturer, distributor, or end user of the chemical that has an established business with a fixed street address. A person or business that functions as a broker or intermediary is not a customer for purposes of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Established record as an importer</I> means that the regulated person has imported a listed chemical at least once within the past six months, or twice within the past twelve months from a foreign supplier.
</P>
<P><I>Export</I> means, with respect to any article, any taking out or removal of such article from the United States (whether or not such taking out or removal constitutes an exportation within the meaning of the customs laws, export control laws enforced by other agencies, or related laws of the United States).
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> means any hearing held for the granting, denial, revocation, or suspension of a registration pursuant to sections 303, 304, and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823, 824 and 958).
</P>
<P><I>Import</I> means, with respect to any article, any bringing in or introduction of such article into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or into the United States from any place outside thereof (whether or not such bringing in or introduction constitutes an importation within the meaning of the tariff laws of the United States).
</P>
<P><I>International transaction</I> means a transaction involving the shipment of a listed chemical across an international border (other than a United States border) in which a broker or trader located in the United States participates.
</P>
<P><I>Listed chemical</I> means any List I chemical or List II chemical.
</P>
<P><I>List I chemical</I> means a chemical specifically designated by the Administrator in § 1310.02(a) of this chapter that, in addition to legitimate uses, is used in manufacturing a controlled substance in violation of the Act and is important to the manufacture of a controlled substance.
</P>
<P><I>List II chemical</I> means a chemical, other than a List I chemical, specifically designated by the Administrator in § 1310.02(b) of this chapter that, in addition to legitimate uses, is used in manufacturing a controlled substance in violation of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile retail vendor</I> means a person or entity that makes sales at retail from a stand that is intended to be temporary or is capable of being moved from one location to another, whether the stand is located within or on the premises of a fixed facility (such as a kiosk at a shopping center or an airport) or whether the stand is located on unimproved real estate (such as a lot or field leased for retail purposes).
</P>
<P><I>Name</I> means the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name of a substance.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes any individual, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, partnership, association, or other legal entity.
</P>
<P><I>Port of entry,</I> unless distinguished as being a foreign port of entry, means any place at which a customs officer is duly authorized to accept entries of merchandise, to collect duties, and to enforce the various provisions of the customs laws of the United States (whether or not such place is a port of entry as defined in title 19 of the United States Code or its associated implementing regulations). Examples of ports of entry include, but are not limited to, places designated as ports of entry or customs stations in title 19 of the <I>Code of Federal Regulations</I> or by the governing customs authority of that area. When shipments are transported under U.S. Customs and Border Protection immediate transportation procedures, the port of entry shall be the port of final destination.
</P>
<P><I>Port of export</I> means, unless distinguished as being a foreign port of export, any place under the control of a customs officer where goods are loaded on an aircraft, vessel or other conveyance for export outside of the United States. For goods loaded aboard an aircraft or vessel in the United States that stops at several ports before departing the United States, the port of export is the first port where the goods were loaded. For goods off-loaded from the original conveyance to another conveyance (even if the aircraft or vessel belongs to the same carrier) at any port subsequent to the port where the first on-loading occurred in the United States, the port where the goods were loaded onto the last conveyance before departing the United States is the port of export. For reporting purposes, in the case of an otherwise lawful export occurring by mail, the port of export is the place of mailing.
</P>
<P><I>Readily retrievable</I> means that certain records are kept by automatic data processing systems or other electronic or mechanized recordkeeping systems in such a manner that they can be separated out from all other records in a reasonable time and/or records are kept on which certain items are asterisked, redlined, or in some other manner visually identifiable apart from other items appearing on the records.
</P>
<P><I>Register</I> and <I>registration</I> refer only to registration required and permitted by sections 303 or 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 or 957).
</P>
<P><I>Registrant</I> means any person who is registered pursuant to either section 303 or section 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 or 958).
</P>
<P><I>Regular customer</I> means a person with whom the regulated person has an established business relationship for a specified listed chemical or chemicals that has been reported to the Administration subject to the criteria established in part 1313 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Regular importer</I> means, with respect to a listed chemical, a person that has an established record as an importer of that listed chemical that is reported to the Administrator.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated person</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, association, or other legal entity who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a listed chemical, a tableting machine, or an encapsulating machine, or who acts as a broker or trader for an international transaction involving a listed chemical, tableting machine, or encapsulating machine.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated seller</I> means a retail distributor (including a pharmacy or a mobile retail vendor), except that the term does not include an employee or agent of the distributor.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A distribution, receipt, sale, importation, or exportation of a listed chemical, or an international transaction involving shipment of a listed chemical, or if the Administrator establishes a threshold amount for a specific listed chemical, a threshold amount as determined by the Administrator, which includes a cumulative threshold amount for multiple transactions, of a listed chemical, except that such term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A domestic lawful distribution in the usual course of business between agents or employees of a single regulated person; in this context, agents or employees means individuals under the direct management and control of the regulated person;
</P>
<P>(ii) A delivery of a listed chemical to or by a common or contract carrier for carriage in the lawful and usual course of the business of the common or contract carrier, or to or by a warehouseman for storage in the lawful and usual course of the business of the warehouseman, except that if the carriage or storage is in connection with the distribution, importation, or exportation of a listed chemical to a third person, this paragraph does not relieve a distributor, importer, or exporter from compliance with parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1315 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any category of transaction or any category of transaction for a specific listed chemical or chemicals specified by regulation of the Administrator as excluded from this definition as unnecessary for enforcement of the Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any transaction in a listed chemical that is contained in a drug other than a scheduled listed chemical product that may be marketed or distributed lawfully in the United States under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, subject to paragraph (1)(v) of this definition, unless—
</P>
<P>(A) The Administrator has determined pursuant to the criteria in § 1310.10 of this chapter that the drug or group of drugs is being diverted to obtain the listed chemical for use in the illicit production of a controlled substance; and
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity of the listed chemical contained in the drug included in the transaction or multiple transactions equals or exceeds the threshold established for that chemical;
</P>
<P>(v) Any transaction in a scheduled listed chemical product that is a sale at retail by a regulated seller or a distributor required to submit reports under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Any transaction in a chemical mixture designated in §§ 1310.12 and 1310.13 of this chapter that the Administrator has exempted from regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) A distribution, importation, or exportation of a tableting machine or encapsulating machine except that such term does not include a domestic lawful distribution in the usual course of business between agents and employees of a single regulated person; in this context, agents or employees means individuals under the direct management and control of the regulated person.
</P>
<P><I>Retail distributor</I> means a grocery store, general merchandise store, drug store, or other entity or person whose activities as a distributor relating to drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine are limited almost exclusively to sales for personal use, both in number of sales and volume of sales, either directly to walk-in customers or in face-to-face transactions by direct sales. Also for the purposes of this paragraph, a “grocery store” is an entity within Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) code 5411, a “general merchandise store” is an entity within SIC codes 5300 through 5399 and 5499, and a “drug store” is an entity within SIC code 5912.
</P>
<P><I>Return information</I> means supplemental information required to be reported to the Administration following an import or export transaction containing the particulars of the transaction and any other information as the Administration may specify.
</P>
<P><I>Scheduled listed chemical product</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A product that contains ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine and may be marketed or distributed lawfully in the United States under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act as a nonprescription drug. Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine include their salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers.
</P>
<P>(2) Scheduled listed chemical product does not include any product that is a controlled substance under part 1308 of this chapter. In the absence of such scheduling by the Attorney General, a chemical specified in paragraph (1) of this definition may not be considered to be a controlled substance.
</P>
<P><I>Tableting machine</I> means any manual, semi-automatic, or fully automatic equipment which may be used for the compaction or molding of powdered or granular solids, or semi-solid material, to produce coherent solid tablets.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographic sense, means all places and waters, continental or insular, subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, which, in addition to the customs territory of the United States, include but are not limited to the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Valid prescription</I> means a prescription that is issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner licensed by law to administer and prescribe the drugs concerned and acting in the usual course of the practitioner's professional practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16304, Mar. 31, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 4233, Jan. 27, 2012; 81 FR 97019, Dec. 30, 2016; 85 FR 68461, Oct. 29, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1300.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1300.03   Definitions relating to electronic orders for controlled substances and electronic prescriptions for controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this chapter, the following terms shall have the meanings specified:
</P>
<P><I>Application service provider</I> means an entity that sells electronic prescription or pharmacy applications as a hosted service, where the entity controls access to the application and maintains the software and records on its servers.
</P>
<P><I>Audit trail</I> means a record showing who has accessed an information technology application and what operations the user performed during a given period.
</P>
<P><I>Authentication</I> means verifying the identity of the user as a prerequisite to allowing access to the information application.
</P>
<P><I>Authentication protocol</I> means a well specified message exchange process that verifies possession of a token to remotely authenticate a person to an application.
</P>
<P><I>Biometric authentication</I> means authentication based on measurement of the individual's physical features or repeatable actions where those features or actions are both distinctive to the individual and measurable.
</P>
<P><I>Biometric subsystem</I> means the hardware and software used to capture, store, and compare biometric data. The biometric subsystem may be part of a larger application. The biometric subsystem is an automated system capable of:
</P>
<P>(1) Capturing a biometric sample from an end user.
</P>
<P>(2) Extracting and processing the biometric data from that sample.
</P>
<P>(3) Storing the extracted information in a database.
</P>
<P>(4) Comparing the biometric data with data contained in one or more reference databases.
</P>
<P>(5) Determining how well the stored data matches the newly captured data and indicating whether an identification or verification of identity has been achieved.
</P>
<P><I>Cache</I> means to download and store information on a local server or hard drive.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate policy</I> means a named set of rules that sets forth the applicability of the specific digital certificate to a particular community or class of application with common security requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate revocation list (CRL)</I> means a list of revoked, but unexpired certificates issued by a certification authority.
</P>
<P><I>Certification authority (CA)</I> means an organization that is responsible for verifying the identity of applicants, authorizing and issuing a digital certificate, maintaining a directory of public keys, and maintaining a Certificate Revocation List.
</P>
<P><I>Certified information systems auditor (CISA)</I> means an individual who has been certified by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association as qualified to audit information systems and who performs compliance audits as a regular ongoing business activity.
</P>
<P><I>Credential</I> means an object or data structure that authoritatively binds an identity (and optionally, additional attributes) to a token possessed and controlled by a person.
</P>
<P><I>Credential service provider (CSP)</I> means a trusted entity that issues or registers tokens and issues electronic credentials to individuals. The CSP may be an independent third party or may issue credentials for its own use.
</P>
<P><I>CSOS</I> means controlled substance ordering system.
</P>
<P><I>Digital certificate</I> means a data record that, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identifies the certification authority issuing it;
</P>
<P>(2) Names or otherwise identifies the certificate holder;
</P>
<P>(3) Contains a public key that corresponds to a private key under the sole control of the certificate holder;
</P>
<P>(4) Identifies the operational period; and
</P>
<P>(5) Contains a serial number and is digitally signed by the certification authority issuing it.
</P>
<P><I>Digital signature</I> means a record created when a file is algorithmically transformed into a fixed length digest that is then encrypted using an asymmetric cryptographic private key associated with a digital certificate. The combination of the encryption and algorithm transformation ensure that the signer's identity and the integrity of the file can be confirmed.
</P>
<P><I>Digitally sign</I> means to affix a digital signature to a data file.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic prescription</I> means a prescription that is generated on an electronic application and transmitted as an electronic data file.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic prescription application provider</I> means an entity that develops or markets electronic prescription software either as a stand-alone application or as a module in an electronic health record application.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic signature</I> means a method of signing an electronic message that identifies a particular person as the source of the message and indicates the person's approval of the information contained in the message.
</P>
<P><I>False match rate</I> means the rate at which an impostor's biometric is falsely accepted as being that of an authorized user. It is one of the statistics used to measure biometric performance when operating in the verification or authentication task. The false match rate is similar to the false accept (or acceptance) rate.
</P>
<P><I>False non-match rate</I> means the rate at which a genuine user's biometric is falsely rejected when the user's biometric data fail to match the enrolled data for the user. It is one of the statistics used to measure biometric performance when operating in the verification or authentication task. The false match rate is similar to the false reject (or rejection) rate, except that it does not include the rate at which a biometric system fails to acquire a biometric sample from a genuine user.
</P>
<P><I>FIPS</I> means Federal Information Processing Standards. These Federal standards, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, prescribe specific performance requirements, practices, formats, communications protocols, etc., for hardware, software, data, etc.
</P>
<P><I>FIPS 140-2,</I> as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, means the National Institute of Standards and Technology publication entitled “Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules,” a Federal standard for security requirements for cryptographic modules.
</P>
<P><I>FIPS 180-2,</I> as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, means the National Institute of Standards and Technology publication entitled “Secure Hash Standard,” a Federal secure hash standard.
</P>
<P><I>FIPS 180-3,</I> as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, means the National Institute of Standards and Technology publication entitled “Secure Hash Standard (SHS),” a Federal secure hash standard.
</P>
<P><I>FIPS 186-2,</I> as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, means the National Institute of Standards and Technology publication entitled “Digital Signature Standard,” a Federal standard for applications used to generate and rely upon digital signatures.
</P>
<P><I>FIPS 186-3,</I> as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, means the National Institute of Standards and Technology publication entitled “Digital Signature Standard (DSS),” a Federal standard for applications used to generate and rely upon digital signatures.
</P>
<P><I>Hard token</I> means a cryptographic key stored on a special hardware device (e.g., a PDA, cell phone, smart card, USB drive, one-time password device) rather than on a general purpose computer.
</P>
<P><I>Identity proofing</I> means the process by which a credential service provider or certification authority validates sufficient information to uniquely identify a person.
</P>
<P><I>Installed electronic prescription application</I> means software that is used to create electronic prescriptions and that is installed on a practitioner's computers and servers, where access and records are controlled by the practitioner.
</P>
<P><I>Installed pharmacy application</I> means software that is used to process prescription information and that is installed on a pharmacy's computers or servers and is controlled by the pharmacy.
</P>
<P><I>Intermediary</I> means any technology system that receives and transmits an electronic prescription between the practitioner and pharmacy.
</P>
<P><I>Key pair</I> means two mathematically related keys having the properties that:
</P>
<P>(1) One key can be used to encrypt a message that can only be decrypted using the other key; and
</P>
<P>(2) Even knowing one key, it is computationally infeasible to discover the other key.
</P>
<P><I>NIST</I> means the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
</P>
<P><I>NIST SP 800-63-1,</I> as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, means the National Institute of Standards and Technology publication entitled “Electronic Authentication Guideline,” a Federal standard for electronic authentication.
</P>
<P><I>NIST SP 800-76-1,</I> as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08 of this chapter, means the National Institute of Standards and Technology publication entitled “Biometric Data Specification for Personal Identity Verification,” a Federal standard for biometric data specifications for personal identity verification.
</P>
<P><I>Operating point</I> means a point chosen on a receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve for a specific algorithm at which the biometric system is set to function. It is defined by its corresponding coordinates—a false match rate and a false non-match rate. An ROC curve shows graphically the trade-off between the principal two types of errors (false match rate and false non-match rate) of a biometric system by plotting the performance of a specific algorithm on a specific set of data.
</P>
<P><I>Paper prescription</I> means a prescription created on paper or computer generated to be printed or transmitted via facsimile that meets the requirements of part 1306 of this chapter including a manual signature.
</P>
<P><I>Password</I> means a secret, typically a character string (letters, numbers, and other symbols), that a person memorizes and uses to authenticate his identity.
</P>
<P><I>PDA</I> means a Personal Digital Assistant, a handheld computer used to manage contacts, appointments, and tasks.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacy application provider</I> means an entity that develops or markets software that manages the receipt and processing of electronic prescriptions.
</P>
<P><I>Private key</I> means the key of a key pair that is used to create a digital signature.
</P>
<P><I>Public key</I> means the key of a key pair that is used to verify a digital signature. The public key is made available to anyone who will receive digitally signed messages from the holder of the key pair.
</P>
<P><I>Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)</I> means a structure under which a certification authority verifies the identity of applicants; issues, renews, and revokes digital certificates; maintains a registry of public keys; and maintains an up-to-date certificate revocation list.
</P>
<P><I>Readily retrievable</I> means that certain records are kept by automatic data processing applications or other electronic or mechanized recordkeeping systems in such a manner that they can be separated out from all other records in a reasonable time and/or records are kept on which certain items are asterisked, redlined, or in some other manner visually identifiable apart from other items appearing on the records.
</P>
<P><I>SAS 70 Audit</I> means a third-party audit of a technology provider that meets the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) Statement of Auditing Standards (SAS) 70 criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Signing function</I> means any keystroke or other action used to indicate that the practitioner has authorized for transmission and dispensing a controlled substance prescription. The signing function may occur simultaneously with or after the completion of the two-factor authentication protocol that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter. The signing function may have different names (e.g., approve, sign, transmit), but it serves as the practitioner's final authorization that he intends to issue the prescription for a legitimate medical reason in the normal course of his professional practice.
</P>
<P><I>SysTrust</I> means a professional service performed by a qualified certified public accountant to evaluate one or more aspects of electronic systems.
</P>
<P><I>Third-party audit</I> means an independent review and examination of records and activities to assess the adequacy of system controls, to ensure compliance with established policies and operational procedures, and to recommend necessary changes in controls, policies, or procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Token</I> means something a person possesses and controls (typically a key or password) used to authenticate the person's identity.
</P>
<P><I>Trusted agent</I> means an entity authorized to act as a representative of a certification authority or credential service provider in confirming practitioner identification during the enrollment process.
</P>
<P><I>Valid prescription</I> means a prescription that is issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner licensed by law to administer and prescribe the drugs concerned and acting in the usual course of the practitioner's professional practice.
</P>
<P><I>WebTrust</I> means a professional service performed by a qualified certified public accountant to evaluate one or more aspects of Web sites.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16304, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1300.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.1.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1300.04   Definitions relating to the dispensing of controlled substances by means of the Internet.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any term not defined in this part or elsewhere in this chapter shall have the definition set forth in sections 102 and 309 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802, 829).
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>covering practitioner</I> means, with respect to a patient, a practitioner who conducts a medical evaluation (other than an in-person medical evaluation) at the request of a practitioner who:
</P>
<P>(1) Has conducted at least one in-person medical evaluation of the patient or an evaluation of the patient through the practice of telemedicine, within the previous 24 months; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is temporarily unavailable to conduct the evaluation of the patient.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>deliver, distribute, or dispense by means of the Internet</I> refers, respectively, to any delivery, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance that is caused or facilitated by means of the Internet.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>filling new prescriptions for controlled substances in Schedule III, IV, or V</I> means filling a prescription for an individual for a controlled substance in Schedule III, IV, or V, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The pharmacy dispensing that prescription has previously dispensed to the patient a controlled substance other than by means of the Internet and pursuant to the valid prescription of a practitioner that meets the applicable requirements of subsections (b) and (c) of section 309 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829) and §§ 1306.21 and 1306.22 of this chapter (for purposes of this definition, such a prescription shall be referred to as the “original prescription”);
</P>
<P>(2) The pharmacy contacts the practitioner who issued the original prescription at the request of that individual to determine whether the practitioner will authorize the issuance of a new prescription for that individual for the controlled substance described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section (<I>i.e.</I>, the same controlled substance as described in paragraph (d)(1)); and
</P>
<P>(3) The practitioner, acting in the usual course of professional practice, determines there is a legitimate medical purpose for the issuance of the new prescription.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>homepage</I> means the opening or main page or screen of the Web site of an online pharmacy that is viewable on the Internet.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>in-person medical evaluation</I> means a medical evaluation that is conducted with the patient in the physical presence of the practitioner, without regard to whether portions of the evaluation are conducted by other health professionals. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to imply that one in-person medical evaluation demonstrates that a prescription has been issued for a legitimate medical purpose within the usual course of professional practice.
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>Internet</I> means collectively the myriad of computer and telecommunications facilities, including equipment and operating software, which comprise the interconnected worldwide network of networks that employ the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol, or any predecessor or successor protocol to such protocol, to communicate information of all kinds by wire or radio.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>online pharmacy</I> means a person, entity, or Internet site, whether in the United States or abroad, that knowingly or intentionally delivers, distributes, or dispenses, or offers or attempts to deliver, distribute, or dispense, a controlled substance by means of the Internet. The term includes, but is not limited to, a pharmacy that has obtained a modification of its registration pursuant to §§ 1301.13 and 1301.19 of this chapter that currently authorizes it to dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet, regardless of whether the pharmacy is currently dispensing controlled substances by means of the Internet. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturers or distributors registered under subsection (a), (b), (d), or (e) of section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(a), (b), (d), or (e)) (§ 1301.13 of this chapter) who do not dispense controlled substances to an unregistered individual or entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Nonpharmacy practitioners who are registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) (§ 1301.13 of this chapter) and whose activities are authorized by that registration;
</P>
<P>(3) Any hospital or other medical facility that is operated by an agency of the United States (including the Armed Forces), provided such hospital or other facility is registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) (§ 1301.13 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(4) A health care facility owned or operated by an Indian tribe or tribal organization, only to the extent such facility is carrying out a contract or compact under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act;
</P>
<P>(5) Any agent or employee of any hospital or facility referred to in paragraph (h)(3) or (h)(4) of this section, provided such agent or employee is lawfully acting in the usual course of business or employment, and within the scope of the official duties of such agent or employee, with such hospital or facility, and, with respect to agents or employees of health care facilities specified in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, only to the extent such individuals are furnishing services pursuant to the contracts or compacts described in such paragraph;
</P>
<P>(6) Mere advertisements that do not attempt to facilitate an actual transaction involving a controlled substance;
</P>
<P>(7) A person, entity, or Internet site that is not in the United States and does not facilitate the delivery, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance by means of the Internet to any person in the United States;
</P>
<P>(8) A pharmacy registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) (§ 1301.13 of this chapter) whose dispensing of controlled substances via the Internet consists solely of:
</P>
<P>(i) Refilling prescriptions for controlled substances in Schedule III, IV, or V, as defined in paragraph (k) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Filling new prescriptions for controlled substances in Schedule III, IV, or V, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(9)(i) Any registered pharmacy whose delivery, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances by means of the Internet consists solely of filling prescriptions that were electronically prescribed in a manner authorized by this chapter and otherwise in compliance with the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) A registered pharmacy will be deemed to meet this exception if, in view of all of its activities other than those referred to in paragraph (h)(9)(i) of this section, it would fall outside the definition of an online pharmacy; or
</P>
<P>(10)(i) Any registered pharmacy whose delivery, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances by means of the Internet consists solely of the transmission of prescription information between a pharmacy and an automated dispensing system located in a long term care facility when the registration of the automated dispensing system is held by that pharmacy as described in §§ 1301.17 and 1301.27 and the pharmacy is otherwise complying with this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) A registered pharmacy will be deemed to meet this exception if, in view of all of its activities other than those referred to in paragraph (h)(10)(i) of this section, it would fall outside the definition of an online pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(i) Effective January 15, 2010, the term <I>practice of telemedicine</I> means the practice of medicine in accordance with applicable Federal and State laws by a practitioner (other than a pharmacist) who is at a location remote from the patient and is communicating with the patient, or health care professional who is treating the patient, using a telecommunications system referred to in section 1834(m) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m(m)), which practice falls within a category listed in the following paragraphs (i)(1) through (7):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Treatment in a hospital or clinic.</I> The practice of telemedicine is being conducted while the patient is being treated by, and physically located in, a hospital or clinic registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice, who is acting in accordance with applicable State law, and who is registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) in the State in which the patient is located, unless the practitioner:
</P>
<P>(i) Is exempted from such registration in all States under section 302(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822(d); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is an employee or contractor of the Department of Veterans Affairs who is acting in the scope of such employment or contract, and registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) in any State or is utilizing the registration of a hospital or clinic operated by the Department of Veterans Affairs registered under section 303(f);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Treatment in the physical presence of a practitioner.</I> The practice of telemedicine is being conducted while the patient is being treated by, and in the physical presence of, a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice, who is acting in accordance with applicable State law, and who is registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) in the State in which the patient is located, unless the practitioner:
</P>
<P>(i) Is exempted from such registration in all States under section 302(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822(d)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is an employee or contractor of the Department of Veterans Affairs who is acting in the scope of such employment or contract, and registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) in any State or is using the registration of a hospital or clinic operated by the Department of Veterans Affairs registered under section 303(f);
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Indian Health Service or tribal organization.</I> The practice of telemedicine is being conducted by a practitioner who is an employee or contractor of the Indian Health Service, or is working for an Indian tribe or tribal organization under its contract or compact with the Indian Health Service under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act; who is acting within the scope of the employment, contract, or compact; and who is designated as an Internet Eligible Controlled Substances Provider by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under section 311(g)(2) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 831(g)(2));
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public health emergency declared by the Secretary of Health and Human Services.</I> The practice of telemedicine is being conducted during a public health emergency declared by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under section 319 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 247d), and involves patients located in such areas, and such controlled substances, as the Secretary of Health and Human Services, with the concurrence of the Administrator, designates, provided that such designation shall not be subject to the procedures prescribed by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559 and 701-706);
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special registration.</I> The practice of telemedicine is being conducted by a practitioner who has obtained from the Administrator a special registration under section 311(h) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 831(h));
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Department of Veterans Affairs medical emergency.</I> The practice of telemedicine is being conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) In a medical emergency situation:
</P>
<P>(A) That prevents the patient from being in the physical presence of a practitioner registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) who is an employee or contractor of the Veterans Health Administration acting in the usual course of business and employment and within the scope of the official duties or contract of that employee or contractor;
</P>
<P>(B) That prevents the patient from being physically present at a hospital or clinic operated by the Department of Veterans Affairs registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f));
</P>
<P>(C) During which the primary care practitioner of the patient or a practitioner otherwise practicing telemedicine within the meaning of this paragraph is unable to provide care or consultation; and
</P>
<P>(D) That requires immediate intervention by a health care practitioner using controlled substances to prevent what the practitioner reasonably believes in good faith will be imminent and serious clinical consequences, such as further injury or death; and
</P>
<P>(ii) By a practitioner that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is an employee or contractor of the Veterans Health Administration acting within the scope of that employment or contract;
</P>
<P>(B) Is registered under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)) in any State or is utilizing the registration of a hospital or clinic operated by the Department of Veterans Affairs registered under section 303(f); and
</P>
<P>(C) Issues a controlled substance prescription in this emergency context that is limited to a maximum of a five-day supply which may not be extended or refilled; or
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Other circumstances specified by regulation.</I> The practice of telemedicine is being conducted under any other circumstances that the Administrator and the Secretary of Health and Human Services have jointly, by regulation, determined to be consistent with effective controls against diversion and otherwise consistent with the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Temporary definition of practice of telemedicine.</I> Prior to January 15, 2010, or as otherwise specified by regulation prior to that date, instead of the definition in paragraph (i), the term <I>practice of telemedicine</I> means the practice of medicine in accordance with applicable Federal and State laws by a practitioner (as that term is defined in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802)) (other than a pharmacist) who is at a location remote from the patient and is communicating with the patient, or health care professional who is treating the patient, using a telecommunications system referred to in section 1834(m) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m(m)), if the practitioner is using an interactive telecommunications system that satisfies the requirements of section 410.78(a)(3) of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>refilling prescriptions for controlled substances in Schedule III, IV, or V:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Means the dispensing of a controlled substance in Schedule III, IV, or V in accordance with refill instructions issued by a practitioner as part of a valid prescription that meets the requirements of subsections (b) and (c) of section 309 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829) and §§ 1306.21 and 1306.22 of this chapter, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include the issuance of a new prescription to an individual for a controlled substance that individual was previously prescribed.
</P>
<P>(l)(1) The term <I>valid prescription</I> means a prescription that is issued for a legitimate medical purpose in the usual course of professional practice by:
</P>
<P>(i) A practitioner who has conducted at least one in-person medical evaluation of the patient; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A covering practitioner.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this paragraph (l) shall be construed to imply that one in-person medical evaluation demonstrates that a prescription has been issued for a legitimate medical purpose within the usual course of professional practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15619, Apr. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1300.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.1.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1300.05   Definitions relating to the disposal of controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any term not defined in this part or elsewhere in this chapter shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
</P>
<P>(b) As used in part 1317 of this chapter, the following terms shall have the meanings specified:
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an employee as defined under the general common law of agency. Some of the factors relevant to the determination of employee status include: The hiring party's right to control the manner and means by which the product is accomplished; the skill required; the source of the instrumentalities and tools; the location of the work; the duration of the relationship between the parties; whether the hiring party has the right to assign additional projects to the hired party; the extent of the hired party's discretion over when and how long to work; the method of payment; the hired party's role in hiring and paying assistants; whether the work is part of the regular business of the hiring party; whether the hiring party is in business; the provision of employee benefits; and the tax treatment of the hired party. Other applicable factors may be considered and no one factor is dispositive. The following criteria will determine whether a person is an <I>employee</I> of a registrant for the purpose of disposal: The person is directly paid by the registrant; subject to direct oversight by the registrant; required, as a condition of employment, to follow the registrant's procedures and guidelines pertaining to the handling of controlled substances; subject to receive a performance rating or performance evaluation on a regular/routine basis from the registrant; subject to disciplinary action by the registrant; and required to render services at the registrant's registered location.
</P>
<P><I>Law enforcement officer</I> means a person who is described in paragraph (1), (2) or (3) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Employee of either a law enforcement agency, or law enforcement component of a Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is under the direction and control of a Federal, State, tribal, or local government;
</P>
<P>(iii) Acting in the course of his/her official duty; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Duly sworn and given the authority by a Federal, State, tribal, or local government to carry firearms, execute and serve warrants, make arrests without warrant, and make seizures of property;
</P>
<P>(2) Is a Veterans Health Administration (VHA) police officer authorized by the Department of Veterans Affairs to participate in collection activities conducted by the VHA; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is a Department of Defense (DOD) police officer authorized by the DOD to participate in collection activities conducted by the DOD.
</P>
<P><I>Non-retrievable</I> means, for the purpose of destruction, the condition or state to which a controlled substance shall be rendered following a process that permanently alters that controlled substance's physical or chemical condition or state through irreversible means and thereby renders the controlled substance unavailable and unusable for all practical purposes. The process to achieve a non-retrievable condition or state may be unique to a substance's chemical or physical properties. A controlled substance is considered “non-retrievable” when it cannot be transformed to a physical or chemical condition or state as a controlled substance or controlled substance analogue. The purpose of destruction is to render the controlled substance(s) to a non-retrievable state and thus prevent diversion of any such substance to illicit purposes.
</P>
<P><I>On-site</I> means located on or at the physical premises of the registrant's registered location. A controlled substance is destroyed <I>on-site</I> when destruction occurs on the physical premises of the destroying registrant's registered location. A hospital/clinic has an <I>on-site</I> pharmacy when it has a pharmacy located on the physical premises of the registrant's registered location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 53560, Sept. 9, 2014]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1300.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.1.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1300.06   Definitions relating to emergency medical services agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
</P>
<P>(b) As used in parts 1301, 1304, 1306, and 1307 of this chapter, the following terms shall have the meanings specified:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Actively in use</I> means the vehicle is currently engaged in responding to an emergency call, is transporting patients, or is on call as defined in this Part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authorizing medical professional</I> means an emergency or other physician, or other medical professional (including an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant)—
</P>
<P>(i) Who is registered under 21 U.S.C. 823;
</P>
<P>(ii) Who is acting within the scope of the registration; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whose scope of practice under a State license or certification includes the ability to provide verbal orders.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designated location</I> means a location designated by an emergency medical services agency under 21 U.S.C. 823(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency medical services</I> mean emergency medical response and emergency mobile medical services provided outside of a fixed medical facility.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emergency medical services agency</I> means an organization providing emergency medical services, including such an organization that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is governmental (including fire-based and hospital-based agencies), non-governmental (including hospital-based agencies), private, or volunteer-based;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides emergency medical services by ground, air, or otherwise; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is authorized by the State in which the organization is providing such services to provide emergency medical care, including the administering of controlled substances, to members of the general public on an emergency basis.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Emergency medical services professional</I> means a health care professional (including a nurse, paramedic, or emergency medical technician) licensed or certified by the State in which the professional practices and credentialed by a medical director of the respective emergency medical services agency to provide emergency medical services within the scope of the professional's State license or certification.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Emergency medical services vehicle</I> means an ambulance, fire apparatus, supervisor truck, or other vehicle used by an emergency medical services agency for the purpose of providing or facilitating emergency medical care and transport or transporting controlled substances to and from the registered and designated locations.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hospital-based</I> means, with respect to an emergency medical services agency, owned or operated by a hospital.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Medical director</I> means a physician who is registered under 21 U.S.C. 823(g) and provides medical oversight to an emergency medical services agency.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Medical oversight</I> means supervision of the provision of medical care by an emergency medical services agency.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>On call</I> means that the emergency medical services vehicle and its personnel are ready and available to respond but may not be responding to an emergency at that precise moment.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Registered emergency services agency</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) An emergency medical services agency that is registered under 21 U.S.C. 823(k); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A hospital-based emergency medical services agency that is covered by the registration of the hospital under subsection 823(g).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Registered location</I> means, for purposes of emergency medical services, a location that appears on a DEA certificate of registration issued to an emergency medical services agency under 21 U.S.C. 823(k) or 21 U.S.C. 823(g), which shall be where the agency receives controlled substances from distributors.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Specific State authority</I> means a governmental agency or other such authority, including a regional oversight and coordinating body, that, pursuant to State law or regulation, develops clinical protocols regarding the delivery of emergency medical services in the geographic jurisdiction of such agency or authority within the State that may be adopted by medical directors.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Standing order</I> means a written medical protocol in which a medical director determines in advance the medical criteria that must be met before administering controlled substances to individuals in need of emergency medical services.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Stationhouse</I> means an enclosed structure within a State where the emergency medical services agency is registered, which may house EMS vehicles at its premises, and which is actively and primarily being used by that emergency medical services agency.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Verbal order</I> means an oral directive that is given through any method of communication including by radio or telephone, directly to an emergency medical services professional, to contemporaneously administer a controlled substance to individuals in need of emergency medical services outside the physical presence of the medical director or authorizing medical professional.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5239, Feb. 5, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1301" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1301—REGISTRATION OF MANUFACTURERS, DISTRIBUTORS, AND DISPENSERS OF CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 822, 823, 824, 831, 871(b), 875, 877, 886a, 951, 952, 956, 957, 958, 965.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 7778, Apr. 24, 1971, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="1" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.01   Scope of this part 1301.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures governing the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, importers, and exporters of controlled substances pursuant to sections 301-304 and 1007-1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 821-824 and 957-958) are set forth generally by those sections and specifically by the sections of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13945, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.02   Definitions.
Link</HEAD>
<P>Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13945, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.03   Information; special instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Information regarding procedures under these rules and instructions supplementing these rules will be furnished upon request by writing to the Registration Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10676, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.11   Persons required to register; requirement of modification of registration authorizing activity as an online pharmacy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, dispenses, imports, or exports any controlled substance or who proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, importation or exportation of any controlled substance shall obtain a registration unless exempted by law or pursuant to §§ 1301.22 through 1301.26. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, only persons actually engaged in such activities are required to obtain a registration; related or affiliated persons who are not engaged in such activities are not required to be registered. (For example, a stockholder or parent corporation of a corporation manufacturing controlled substances is not required to obtain a registration.)
</P>
<P>(b) Practitioners who dispense narcotic drugs (other than narcotic drugs in schedule III, IV, or V) to individuals for maintenance treatment or detoxification treatment shall obtain annually a separate registration for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(c) As a condition on registration under this part and section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) to dispense controlled substances in schedule II, III, IV, or V, qualified practitioners, as defined in § 1300.01 of this chapter, must meet the training requirements set forth in section 303(m) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(m)). No qualified practitioner is required to complete the training more than once. This requirement applies from the first registration or renewal of registration by a qualified practitioner that occurs on or after June 27, 2023.
</P>
<P>(d) As provided in sections 303(f) and 401(h) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f) and 841(h<I>)</I>), it is unlawful for any person who falls within the definition of “online pharmacy” (as set forth in section 102(52) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(52)) and § 1300.04(h) of this chapter) to deliver, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance by means of the internet if such person is not validly registered with a modification of such registration authorizing such activity (unless such person is exempt from such modified registration requirement under the Act or this chapter). The Act further provides that the Administrator may only issue such modification of registration to a person who is registered as a pharmacy under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)). Accordingly, any pharmacy registered pursuant to § 1301.13 that falls within the definition of an online pharmacy and proposes to dispense controlled substances by means of the internet must obtain a modification of its registration authorizing such activity following the submission of an application in accordance with § 1301.19. This requirement does not apply to a registered pharmacy that does not fall within the definition of an online pharmacy set forth in § 1300.04(h) of this chapter. Under the Act, persons other than registered pharmacies are not eligible to obtain such a modification of registration but remain liable under section 401(h) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 841(h)) if they deliver, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance while acting as an online pharmacy without being validly registered with a modification authorizing such activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34767, June 9, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.12   Separate registrations for separate locations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A separate registration is required for each principal place of business or professional practice at one general physical location where controlled substances are manufactured, distributed, imported, exported, or dispensed by a person.
</P>
<P>(b) The following locations shall be deemed not to be places where controlled substances are manufactured, distributed, or dispensed:
</P>
<P>(1) A warehouse where controlled substances are stored by or on behalf of a registered person, unless such substances are distributed directly from such warehouse to registered locations other than the registered location from which the substances were delivered or to persons not required to register by virtue of subsection 302(c)(2) or subsection 1007(b)(1)(B) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822(c)(2) or 957(b)(1)(B));
</P>
<P>(2) An office used by agents of a registrant where sales of controlled substances are solicited, made, or supervised but which neither contains such substances (other than substances for display purposes or lawful distribution as samples only) nor serves as a distribution point for filling sales orders; and
</P>
<P>(3) An office used by a practitioner (who is registered at another location in the same State in which he or she practices) where controlled substances are prescribed but neither administered nor otherwise dispensed as a regular part of the professional practice of the practitioner at such office, and where no supplies of controlled substances are maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) A freight forwarding facility, as defined in § 1300.01 of this part, provided that the distributing registrant operating the facility has submitted written notice of intent to operate the facility by registered mail, return receipt requested (or other suitable means of documented delivery) and such notice has been approved. The notice shall be submitted to the Special Agent in Charge of the Administration's offices in both the area in which the facility is located and each area in which the distributing registrant maintains a registered location that will transfer controlled substances through the facility. The notice shall detail the registered locations that will utilize the facility, the location of the facility, the hours of operation, the individual(s) responsible for the controlled substances, the security and recordkeeping procedures that will be employed, and whether controlled substances returns will be processed through the facility. The notice must also detail what state licensing requirements apply to the facility and the registrant's actions to comply with any such requirements. The Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Office in the area where the freight forwarding facility will be operated will provide written notice of approval or disapproval to the person within thirty days after confirmed receipt of the notice. Registrants that are currently operating freight forwarding facilities under a memorandum of understanding with the Administration must provide notice as required by this section no later than September 18, 2000 and receive written approval from the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Office in the area in which the freight forwarding facility is operated in order to continue operation of the facility.
</P>
<P>(5) A designated location that a registered emergency medical services agency has identified to the Administration at least 30 days prior to first delivering controlled substances to that unregistered location.


</P>
<P>(c) As provided in 21 U.S.C. 822(e)(2), a registrant who is a veterinarian may transport and dispense controlled substances in the usual course of veterinary practice at a site other than the registrant's registered principal place of business or professional practice without obtaining a separate registration so long as the site of transporting and dispensing is located in a State where the veterinarian is licensed to practice veterinary medicine and is not a principal place of business or professional practice.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13945, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 44678, July 19, 2000; 65 FR 45829, July 25, 2000; 71 FR 69480, Dec. 1, 2006; 81 FR 97019, Dec. 30, 2016; 89 FR 8539, Feb. 8, 2024; 91 FR 5239, Feb. 5, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.13   Application for registration; time for application; expiration date; registration for independent activities; application forms, fees, contents and signature; coincident activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is required to be registered and who is not so registered may apply for registration at any time. No person required to be registered shall engage in any activity for which registration is required until the application for registration is granted and a Certificate of Registration is issued by the Administrator to such person.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who is registered may apply to be reregistered not more than 60 days before the expiration date of his/her registration, except that a bulk manufacturer of Schedule I or II controlled substances or an importer of Schedule I or II controlled substances may apply to be reregistered no more than 120 days before the expiration date of their registration.
</P>
<P>(c) At the time a manufacturer, distributor, reverse distributor, researcher, analytical lab, importer, exporter or narcotic treatment program is first registered, that business activity shall be assigned to one of twelve groups, which shall correspond to the months of the year. The expiration date of the registrations of all registrants within any group will be the last date of the month designated for that group. In assigning any of these business activities to a group, the Administration may select a group the expiration date of which is less than one year from the date such business activity was registered. If the business activity is assigned to a group which has an expiration date less than three months from the date of which the business activity is registered, the registration shall not expire until one year from that expiration date; in all other cases, the registration shall expire on the expiration date following the date on which the business activity is registered.
</P>
<P>(d) At the time a retail pharmacy, hospital/clinic, practitioner, emergency medical services agency or teaching institution is first registered, that business activity shall be assigned to one of twelve groups, which correspond to the months of the year. The expiration date of the registrations of all registrants within any group will be the last day of the month designated for that group. In assigning any of the above business activities to a group, the Administration may select a group the expiration date of which is not less than 28 months nor more than 39 months from the date such business activity was registered. After the initial registration period, the registration expires 36 months from the initial expiration date.


</P>
<P>(d) At the time a retail pharmacy, hospital/clinic, practitioner or teaching institution is first registered, that business activity shall be assigned to one of twelve groups, which shall correspond to the months of the year. The expiration date of the registrations of all registrants within any group will be the last day of the month designated for that group. In assigning any of the above business activities to a group, the Administration may select a group the expiration date of which is not less than 28 months nor more than 39 months from the date such business activity was registered. After the initial registration period, the registration shall expire 36 months from the initial expiration date.
</P>
<P>(e) Any person who is required to be registered and who is not so registered, shall make application for registration for one of the following groups of controlled substances activities, which are deemed to be independent of each other. Application for each registration shall be made on the indicated form, and shall be accompanied by the indicated fee. Generally, the application fees are not refundable; however, they may be issued in limited circumstances at the discretion of the Administrator. These circumstances include: Applicant error, such as duplicate payments, payment for incorrect business activities, or payments made by persons who are exempt under this section from application or renewal fees; DEA error; and death of a registrant within the first year of the three-year registration cycle. Any person, when registered to engage in the activities described in each subparagraph in this paragraph, shall be authorized to engage in the coincident activities described without obtaining a registration to engage in such coincident activities, provided that, unless specifically exempted, he/she complies with all requirements and duties prescribed by law for persons registered to engage in such coincident activities. Any person who engages in more than one group of independent activities shall obtain a separate registration for each group of activities, except as provided in this paragraph under coincident activities. A single registration to engage in any group of independent activities listed below may include one or more controlled substances listed in the schedules authorized in that group of independent activities. A person registered to conduct research with controlled substances listed in Schedule I may conduct research with any substances listed in Schedule I for which he/she has filed and had approved a research protocol.
</P>
<P>(1)
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Summary of Registration Requirements and Limitations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Business activity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Controlled substances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DEA application forms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Application fee
<br/>($)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Registration period
<br/>(years)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coincident activities allowed
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Manufacturing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules I -V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules I-V: May distribute that substance or class for which registration was issued; may not distribute or dispose any substance or class for which not registered.
<br/>Schedules II-V: May conduct chemical analysis and preclinical research (including quality control analysis) with substances listed in those schedules for which authorization as a mfr. was issued.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Distributing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules I-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May acquire Schedules II-V controlled substances from collectors for the purposes of destruction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Reverse distributing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules I-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Dispensing or instructing (includes Practitioner, Hospital/Clinic, Retail Pharmacy, Online Pharmacy, Central Fill Pharmacy, Teaching Institution)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules II-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—224 Renewal—224a Online Pharmacy—224c</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">888</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May conduct research and instructional activities with those controlled substances for which registration was granted, except that a mid-level practitioner may conduct such research only to the extent expressly authorized under State statute. A pharmacist may manufacturer an aqueous or oleaginous solution solid dosage form containing a narcotic controlled substance in Schedule II-V in a proportion not exceeding 20% of the complete solution, compound or mixture. A retail pharmacy may perform central fill pharmacy activities. An online pharmacy may perform activities of retail pharmacy, as well as online pharmacy activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Emergency Medical Services Agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules II-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—224; Renewal—224a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">888</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Research</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedule I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">296</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A researcher may manufacture or import the basic class of substance or substances for which registration was issued, provided that such manufacture or import is set forth in the protocol required in § 1301.18 and to distribute such class to persons registered or authorized to conduct research with such class of substance or registered or authorized to conduct chemical analysis with controlled substances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Research</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules II-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">296</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May conduct chemical analysis with controlled substances in those schedules for which registration was issued; manufacture such substances if and to the extent that such manufacture is set forth in a statement filed with the application for registration or reregistration and provided that the manufacture is not for the purposes of dosage form development; import such substances for research purposes; distribute such substances to persons registered or authorized to conduct chemical analysis, instructional activities or research with such substances, and to persons exempted from registration pursuant to § 1301.24; and conduct instructional activities with controlled substances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) Narcotic Treatment Program (including compounder)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Narcotic Drugs in Schedules II-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New-363
<br/>Renewal-363a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">296</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May operate one or more mobile narcotic treatment programs as defined under § 1300.01(b), provided approval has been obtained under § 1301.13(e)(4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) Importing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules I-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May distribute that substance or class for which registration was issued; may not distribute any substance or class for which not registered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) Exporting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules I-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) Chemical Analysis</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedules I-V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New—225
<br/>Renewal—225a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">296</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May manufacture and import controlled substances for analytical or instructional activities; may distribute such substances to persons registered or authorized to conduct chemical analysis, instructional activities, or research with such substances and to persons exempted from registration pursuant to § 1301.24; may export such substances to persons in other countries performing chemical analysis or enforcing laws related to controlled substances or drugs in those countries; and may conduct instructional activities with controlled substances.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) DEA Forms 224, 225, and 363 may be obtained online at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I> Only applications submitted online through the secure application portal on DEA's website will be accepted for processing.
</P>
<P>(3) DEA will send renewal notifications via email to registrants approximately 60 calendar days prior to their registration expiration date. Registrants are responsible for maintaining a current email address in application portal on DEA's website. DEA Forms 224a, 225a, and 363a may be obtained online at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I> Only renewal applications submitted online through the secure application portal on DEA's website will be accepted for processing.
</P>
<P>(4) For any narcotic treatment program (NTP) intending to operate a mobile NTP, the registrant must notify the local DEA office, in writing, of its intent to do so, and the NTP must receive explicit written approval from the local DEA office prior to operating the mobile NTP. The mobile NTP may only operate in the same State in which the NTP is registered.
</P>
<P>(i) Registrants are not required to obtain a separate registration for conveyances (mobile components) utilized by the registrant to transport controlled substances away from registered locations for dispensing at unregistered locations as part of a mobile NTP. Vehicles must possess valid county/city and State information (<I>e.g.,</I> a vehicle information number (license plate number) on file at the registered location of the NTP. Registrants are also required to provide proper city/county and State licensing and registration to DEA at the time of inspection, and prior to transporting controlled substances away from their registered location.
</P>
<P>(ii) A mobile NTP is not permitted to reverse distribute, share, or transfer controlled substances from one mobile component to another mobile component while deployed away from the registered location. NTPs with mobile components are not allowed to modify their registrations to authorize their mobile components to act as collectors under 21 CFR 1301.51 and 1317.40. Mobile components of NTPs may not function as hospitals, long-term care facilities, or emergency medical service vehicles, and will not transport patients.
</P>
<P>(iii) A mobile NTP may operate at any remote location or locations within the same State as its registered location, including correctional facilities, so long as doing so is otherwise consistent with applicable Federal, State, tribal, and local laws and regulations, and so long as the local DEA office, when notified pursuant to this section, does not otherwise direct.
</P>
<P>(f) Each application for registration to handle any basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I (except to conduct chemical analysis with such classes), and each application for registration to manufacture a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule II shall include the Administration Controlled Substances Code Number, as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, for each basic class to be covered by such registration.
</P>
<P>(g) Each application for registration to import or export controlled substances shall include the Administration Controlled Substances Code Number, as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, for each controlled substance whose importation or exportation is to be authorized by such registration. Registration as an importer or exporter shall not entitle a registrant to import or export any controlled substance not specified in such registration.
</P>
<P>(h) Each application for registration to conduct research with any basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule II shall include the Administration Controlled Substances Code Number, as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, for each such basic class to be manufactured or imported as a coincident activity of that registration. A statement listing the quantity of each such basic class of controlled substance to be imported or manufactured during the registration period for which application is being made shall be included with each such application. For purposes of this paragraph only, manufacturing is defined as the production of a controlled substance by synthesis, extraction or by agricultural/horticultural means.
</P>
<P>(i) Each application shall include all information called for in the form, unless the item is not applicable, in which case this fact shall be indicated.
</P>
<P>(j) Each application, attachment, or other document filed as part of an application, shall be signed by the applicant, if an individual; by a partner of the applicant, if a partnership; or by an officer of the applicant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity. An applicant may authorize one or more individuals, who would not otherwise be authorized to do so, to sign applications for the applicant by filing with the Registration Unit of the Administration a power of attorney for each such individual. The power of attorney shall be signed by a person who is authorized to sign applications under this paragraph and shall contain the signature of the individual being authorized to sign applications. The power of attorney shall be valid until revoked by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical marijuana registrations.</I> The Administration shall establish an expedited review process for entities holding state medical marijuana licenses who seek registration as a marijuana manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. Such applicants shall submit, along with the applicable DEA form or forms, proof of a state medical marijuana license in the form specified by the Administrator. The Administrator shall register an applicant under this subsection unless the Administrator determines that the issuance of such registration is inconsistent with the public interest, taking into account the factors set forth at 21 U.S.C. 823(e) through (g), as applicable, and the requirements of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, including any quota requirement. In general, registration of an applicant that complies with a state-law regime that contains robust protections against diversion, requirements for record-keeping and reporting, and safety and inspection measures will not be inconsistent with the public interest so long as registration is consistent with the Single Convention.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Types of registrations.</I> (i) A registered marijuana manufacturer may cultivate, produce, process, package, label, and transfer marijuana and products containing marijuana to registered distributors or other registered manufacturers, subject to the limitations of its state license.
</P>
<P>(ii) A registered distributor may receive marijuana and products containing marijuana from registered manufacturers and transfer marijuana and products containing marijuana to registered dispensers or other registered distributors, subject to the limitations of its state license.
</P>
<P>(iii) A registered dispenser may dispense marijuana and products containing marijuana to individuals authorized by state law to possess marijuana and products containing marijuana for medical purposes, subject to the limitations of its state license.
</P>
<P>(iv) Registrations under this subpart do not authorize the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, or use of marijuana or products containing marijuana for non-medical purposes.
</P>
<P>(v) A single entity may be granted multiple types of registrations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State licenses as evidence of State authorization.</I> For purposes of 21 U.S.C. 823(e) through (g), and for any other purpose, a state license shall constitute conclusive evidence that the applicant is authorized under state law to engage in the activity for which registration is sought.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspension, revocation, or expiration of State license.</I> A registration issued under this section shall not exceed the scope of the holder's state medical marijuana license. If the state medical marijuana license is suspended, revoked, or expires, the DEA registration is automatically suspended.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reports, records, and order forms.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Administrator shall require registrants under this subsection to submit only such reports and records, and to use only such order forms, as the Administrator concludes are necessary to comply with federal statutory and treaty obligations. The Administrator shall accept state-required reports, records, and forms to the maximum extent permissible.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prescriptions.</I> Notwithstanding part 1306 of this chapter or any other provision of these rules, a certification or other document (including an electronic document) that state law deems sufficient for a user to obtain marijuana or products containing marijuana for medical purposes shall be sufficient to permit dispensing of marijuana or products containing marijuana to a user so long as the certification or other document is dated as of, and signed on, the day when issued; bears the full name and address of the user; and contains the name, address, and state license number of the practitioner who signed the certification or other document and is authorized to do so under state law.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Compliance with Article 23 of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs.</I> Part 1318 of this chapter shall not apply to entities holding valid licenses under this paragraph (k)(6).
</P>
<P>(i) All manufacturers registered under this subsection shall establish a nominal price for the purchase of their marijuana crops. The Administration shall then purchase the entity's crops at that price and sell the crops back to the entity, or a related or subsidiary entity, at the same price with the addition of the administrative fee as calculated under § 1318.06(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) All registered manufacturers shall store marijuana crops in a facility to which the Administration maintains access until the transaction set forth in paragraph (k)(6)(i) of this section is complete. The Administration shall have the right to inspect such facilities on demand.
</P>
<P>(iii) A registration for a manufacturer under this subsection shall specify the areas in which marijuana cultivation is permitted.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Expedition.</I> The Administrator shall make every effort to process all applications submitted within 60 days of the publication of this regulation in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within six months. Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, any applicant that submits an application within 60 days of the publication of this rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> may engage in the manufacture, distribution, and/or dispensing of marijuana or products containing marijuana for medical purposes in conformity with a state-issued license during the pendency of the application.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Labeling, packaging, and sealing.</I> A registrant under this subsection is exempt from the labeling, packaging, and sealing requirements under part 1302 of this chapter, and other provisions of these rules so long as they label, package, and seal marijuana and products containing marijuana in conformity with state law and so long as the label includes the warning required by 21 U.S.C. 825(c), where applicable.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Disposal.</I> Notwithstanding part 1317 of this chapter. or any other provision of these rules, a registrant under this paragraph may dispose of marijuana and products containing marijuana in conformity with state law.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Security Requirements.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of these rules, a registrant under this paragraph has sufficient physical-security requirements if the registrant meets the requirements of state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13946, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 37409, June 24, 2003; 68 FR 41228, July 11, 2003; 68 FR 58598, Oct. 10, 2003; 71 FR 51112, Aug. 29, 2006; 74 FR 15622, Apr. 6, 2009; 75 FR 10676, Mar. 9, 2010; 77 FR 15248, Mar. 15, 2012; 79 FR 53560, Sept. 9, 2014; 85 FR 44732, July 24, 2020; 85 FR 61601, Sept. 30, 2020; 85 FR 67278, Oct. 22, 2020; 86 FR 33883, June 28, 2021; 87 FR 21022, Apr. 11, 2022; 90 FR 47563, Oct. 2, 2025; 91 FR 5239, Feb. 5, 2026; 91 FR 22721, Apr. 28, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.14   Filing of application; acceptance for filing; defective applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applications for registration shall be submitted for filing online using the secure application portal at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Application submitted for filing are dated by the system upon receipt. If found to be complete, the application will be accepted for filing. Applications failing to comply with the requirements of this part will be rejected by the system, with the applicate receiving error messages at the time of application.
</P>
<P>(c) Accepting an application for filing does not preclude any subsequent request for additional information pursuant to § 1301.15 and has no bearing on whether the application will be granted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13948, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 10676, Mar. 9, 2010; 87 FR 21022, Apr. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.15   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may require an applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he/she deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted. The failure of the applicant to provide such documents or statements within a reasonable time after being requested to do so shall be deemed to be a waiver by the applicant of an opportunity to present such documents or facts for consideration by the Administrator in granting or denying the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13948, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.16" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.16   Amendments to and withdrawal of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be amended or withdrawn without permission of the Administrator at any time before the date on which the applicant receives an order to show cause pursuant to § 1301.37. An application may be amended or withdrawn with permission of the Administrator at any time where good cause is shown by the applicant or where the amendment or withdrawal is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) After an application has been accepted for filing, the request by the applicant that it be returned or the failure of the applicant to respond to official correspondence regarding the application, when sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, shall be deemed to be a withdrawal of the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13949, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.17" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.17   Special procedures for certain applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, at the time of application for registration of a new pharmacy, the pharmacy has been issued a license from the appropriate State licensing agency, the applicant may include with his/her application an affidavit as to the existence of the State license in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Affidavit for New Pharmacy
</HD3>
<P>I, __________, the __________ (Title of officer, official, partner, or other position) of __________ (Corporation, partnership, or sole proprietor), doing business as __________ (Store name) at __________ (Number and Street), __________ (City) ______ (State) ______ (Zip code), hereby certify that said store was issued a pharmacy permit No. ____ by the ________ (Board of Pharmacy or Licensing Agency) of the State of ______ on ______ (Date).
</P>
<P>This statement is submitted in order to obtain a Drug Enforcement Administration registration number. I understand that if any information is false, the Administration may immediately suspend the registration for this store and commence proceedings to revoke under 21 U.S.C. 824(a) because of the danger to public health and safety. I further understand that any false information contained in this affidavit may subject me personally and the above-named corporation/partnership/business to prosecution under 21 U.S.C. 843, the penalties for conviction of which include imprisonment for up to 4 years, a fine of not more than $30,000 or both.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature (Person who signs Application for Registration)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>State of
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County of
</FP-DASH>
<P>Subscribed to and sworn before me this _______ day of _______, 19__.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Notary Public</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Whenever the ownership of a pharmacy is being transferred from one person to another, if the transferee owns at least one other pharmacy licensed in the same State as the one the ownership of which is being transferred, the transferee may apply for registration prior to the date of transfer. The Administrator may register the applicant and authorize him to obtain controlled substances at the time of transfer. Such registration shall not authorize the transferee to dispense controlled substances until the pharmacy has been issued a valid State license. The transferee shall include with his/her application the following affidavit:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Affidavit for Transfer of Pharmacy
</HD3>
<P>I, __________, the __________ (Title of officer, official, partner or other position) of __________ (Corporation, partnership, or sole proprietor), doing business as __________ (Store name) hereby certify:
</P>
<P>(1) That said company was issued a pharmacy permit No.______by the __________ (Board of Pharmacy of Licensing Agency) of the State of ______ and a DEA Registration Number __________ for a pharmacy located at __________ (Number and Street) ______ (City) ______ (State) ______ (Zip Code); and
</P>
<P>(2) That said company is acquiring the pharmacy business of __________ (Name of Seller) doing business as__________with DEA Registration Number ______ on or about ______ (Date of Transfer) and that said company has applied (or will apply on ______ (Date) for a pharmacy permit from the board of pharmacy (or licensing agency) of the State of ______ to do business as __________ (Store name) at __________ (Number and Street) __________ (City) ______ (State) ______ (Zip Code).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>This statement is submitted in order to obtain a Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I understand that if a DEA registration number is issued, the pharmacy may acquire controlled substances but may not dispense them until a pharmacy permit or license is issued by the State board of pharmacy or licensing agency.
</P>
<P>I understand that if any information is false, the Administration may immediately suspend the registration for this store and commence proceedings to revoke under 21 U.S.C. 824(a) because of the danger to public health and safety. I further understand that any false information contained in this affidavit may subject me personally to prosecution under 21 U.S.C. 843, the penalties for conviction of which include imprisonment for up to 4 years, a fine of not more than $30,000 or both.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature (Person who signs Application for Registration)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>State of
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County of
</FP-DASH>
<P>Subscribed to and sworn before me this ________ day of _________, 19__.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Notary Public</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) If at the time of application for a separate registration at a long term care facility, the retail pharmacy has been issued a license, permit, or other form of authorization from the appropriate State agency to install and operate an automated dispensing system for the dispensing of controlled substances at the long term care facility, the applicant must include with his/her application for registration (DEA Form 224) an affidavit as to the existence of the State authorization. Exact language for this affidavit may be found at the DEA Diversion Control Program Web site. The affidavit must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title of the corporate officer or official signing the affidavit;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the corporation, partnership or sole proprietorship operating the retail pharmacy;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and complete address (including city, state, and Zip code) of the retail pharmacy;
</P>
<P>(4) The name and complete address (including city, state, and Zip code) of the long term care facility at which DEA registration is sought;
</P>
<P>(5) Certification that the named retail pharmacy has been authorized by the state Board of Pharmacy or licensing agency to install and operate an automated dispensing system for the dispensing of controlled substances at the named long term care facility (including the license or permit number, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(6) The date on which the authorization was issued;
</P>
<P>(7) Statements attesting to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The affidavit is submitted to obtain a Drug Enforcement Administration registration number;
</P>
<P>(ii) If any material information is false, the Administrator may commence proceedings to deny the application under section 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a));
</P>
<P>(iii) Any false or fraudulent material information contained in this affidavit may subject the person signing this affidavit and the above-named corporation/partnership/business to prosecution under section 403 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 843);
</P>
<P>(8) Signature of the person authorized to sign the Application for Registration for the named retail pharmacy;
</P>
<P>(9) Notarization of the affidavit.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator shall follow the normal procedures for approving an application to verify the statements in the affidavit. If the statements prove to be false, the Administrator may revoke the registration on the basis of section 304(a)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1)) and suspend the registration immediately by pending revocation on the basis of section 304(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(d)). At the same time, the Administrator may seize and place under seal all controlled substances possessed by the applicant under section 304(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)). Intentional misuse of the affidavit procedure may subject the applicant to prosecution for fraud under section 403(a)(4) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 843(a)(4)), and obtaining controlled substances through registration by fraudulent means may subject the applicant to prosecution under section 403(a)(3) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 843(a)(3)). The penalties for conviction of either offense include imprisonment for up to 4 years, a fine not exceeding $30,000 or both.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13949, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 70 FR 25465, May 13, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.18" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.18   Research protocols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A protocol to conduct research with controlled substances listed in Schedule I shall be in the following form and contain the following information where applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigator:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and DEA registration number; if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) Institutional affiliation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Qualifications, including a curriculum vitae and an appropriate bibliography (list of publications).
</P>
<P>(2) Research project:
</P>
<P>(i) Title of project.
</P>
<P>(ii) Statement of the purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) Name of the controlled substances or substances involved and the amount of each needed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of the research to be conducted, including the number and species of research subjects, the dosage to be administered, the route and method of administration, and the duration of the project.
</P>
<P>(v) Location where the research will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(vi) Statement of the security provisions for storing the controlled substances (in accordance with § 1301.75) and for dispensing the controlled substances in order to prevent diversion.
</P>
<P>(vii) If the investigator desires to manufacture or import any controlled substance listed in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, a statement of the quantity to be manufactured or imported and the sources of the chemicals to be used or the substance to be imported.
</P>
<P>(3) Authority:
</P>
<P>(i) Institutional approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approval of a Human Research Committee for human studies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Indication of an approved active Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Drug (number).
</P>
<P>(iv) Indication of an approved funded grant (number), if any.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a clinical investigation with controlled substances listed in Schedule I, the applicant shall submit three copies of a Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Drug (IND) together with a statement of the security provisions (as proscribed in paragraph (a)(2)(vi) of this section for a research protocol) to, and have such submission approved by, the Food and Drug Administration as required in 21 U.S.C. 355(i) and § 130.3 of this title. Submission of this Notice and statement to the Food and Drug Administration shall be in lieu of a research protocol to the Administration as required in paragraph (a) of this section. The applicant, when applying for registration with the Administration, shall indicate that such notice has been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration by submitting to the Administration with his/her DEA Form 225 three copies of the following certificate:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I hereby certify that on __________ (Date), pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 355(i) and 21 CFR 130.3, I, __________ (Name and Address of IND Sponsor) submitted a Notice of Claimed Investigational Exemption for a New Drug (IND) to the Food and Drug Administration for:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of Investigational Drug).
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of Applicant).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) In the event that the registrant desires to increase the quantity of a controlled substance used for an approved research project, he/she shall submit a request to the Registration Unit, Drug Enforcement Administration, by registered mail, return receipt requested. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The request shall contain the following information: DEA registration number; name of the controlled substance or substances and the quantity of each authorized in the approved protocol; and the additional quantity of each desired. Upon return of the receipt, the registrant shall be authorized to purchase the additional quantity of the controlled substance or substances specified in the request. The Administration shall review the letter and forward it to the Food and Drug Administration together with the Administration comments. The Food and Drug Administration shall approve or deny the request as an amendment to the protocol and so notify the registrant. Approval of the letter by the Food and Drug Administration shall authorize the registrant to use the additional quantity of the controlled substance in the research project.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event the registrant desires to conduct research beyond the variations provided in the registrant's approved protocol (excluding any increase in the quantity of the controlled substance requested for his/her research project as outlined in paragraph (c) of this section), he/she shall submit three copies of a supplemental protocol in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section describing the new research and omitting information in the supplemental protocol which has been stated in the original protocol. Supplemental protocols shall be processed and approved or denied in the same manner as original research protocols.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13949, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 10676, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.19" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.19   Special requirements for online pharmacies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A pharmacy that has been issued a registration under § 1301.13 may request that the Administrator modify its registration to authorize the pharmacy to dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet as an online pharmacy. The Administrator may deny an application for a modification of registration if the Administrator determines that the issuance of a modification would be inconsistent with the public interest. In determining the public interest, the Administrator will consider the factors listed in section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)).
</P>
<P>(b) Each online pharmacy shall comply with the requirements of State law concerning licensure of pharmacies in each State from which it, and in each State to which it, delivers, distributes, or dispenses, or offers to deliver, distribute, or dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet.
</P>
<P>(c) Application for a modified registration authorizing the dispensing of controlled substances by means of the Internet will be made by an online application process as specified in § 1301.13 of this part. Subsequent online pharmacy registration renewals will be accomplished by an online process.
</P>
<P>(d) A pharmacy that seeks to discontinue its modification of registration authorizing it to dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet as an online pharmacy (but continue its business activity as a non-online pharmacy) shall so notify the Administrator by requesting to modify its registration to reflect the appropriate business activity. Once the registration has been so changed, the pharmacy may no longer dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet. A pharmacy that has so changed its registration status back to that of a non-online pharmacy remains responsible for submitting reports in accordance with § 1304.55 of this chapter with respect to any controlled substances that it dispensed while it was registered with a modification authorizing it to operate as an online pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(e) Registrants applying for modified registrations under this section must comply with notification and reporting requirements set forth in §§ 1304.40, 1304.45, 1304.50, and 1304.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) No person (including a registrant) required to obtain a modification of a registration under §§ 1301.11(b) and 1301.13 of this part authorizing it to operate as an online pharmacy may engage in any activity for which such modification of registration is required until the application for such modified registration is granted and an active Certificate of Registration indicating the modification of the registration has been issued by the Administrator to such person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15622, Apr. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.20" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.20   Registration for emergency medical services agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An emergency medical services agency shall be issued a registration under § 1301.13 if the agency submits an application demonstrating it is authorized to conduct such activity under the laws of each State in which the agency practices, unless the Administration determines that the issuance of such a registration would be inconsistent with the requirements of 21 U.S.C. 823(k) or the public interest based on the factors listed in 21 U.S.C. 823(g).
</P>
<P>(1) An agency has the option of requesting a single registration in each State where the agency administers controlled substances in lieu of a separate registration for each location of the agency within a State.
</P>
<P>(2) If a hospital where an emergency medical services agency is based is registered under § 1301.13, the agency may use the registration of the hospital to administer controlled substances in accordance with § 1306.07(g) of this chapter, without being separately registered as an emergency medical services agency.
</P>
<P>(b) A registered emergency medical services agency may deliver controlled substances from a registered location of the agency to an unregistered location of the agency only if the agency designates the unregistered location as a stationhouse for such delivery; and notifies the Administration at least 30 days prior to the first delivery of controlled substances to the unregistered location. The delivery of controlled substances by a registered emergency medical services agency pursuant to this section shall not be treated as distribution. To notify the Administration, the emergency medical services agency must submit the name and physical address of the designated location online at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5240, Feb. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="3" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exceptions to Registration and Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.21   Exemption from fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall exempt from payment of an application fee for registration or reregistration:
</P>
<P>(1) Any hospital or other institution which is operated by an agency of the United States (including the U.S. Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, Space Force, and Coast Guard), of any State, or any political subdivision or agency thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual practitioner who is required to obtain an individual registration in order to carry out his or her duties as an official of an agency of the United States (including the U.S. Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, Space Force, and Coast Guard), of any State, or any political subdivision or agency thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to claim exemption from payment of a registration or reregistration application fee, the registrant shall have completed the certification on the appropriate application form, wherein the registrant's superior (if the registrant is an individual) or officer (if the registrant is an agency) certifies to the status and address of the registrant and to the authority of the registrant to acquire, possess, or handle controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(c) Exemption from payment of a registration or reregistration application fee does not relieve the registrant of any other requirements or duties prescribed by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13950, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 86 FR 51822, Sept. 17, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.22   Exemption of agents and employees; affiliated practitioners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement of registration is waived for any agent or employee of a person who is registered to engage in any group of independent activities, if such agent or employee is acting in the usual course of his/her business or employment.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual practitioner who is an agent or employee of another practitioner (other than a mid-level practitioner) registered to dispense controlled substances may, when acting in the normal course of business or employment, administer or dispense (other than by issuance of prescription) controlled substances if and to the extent that such individual practitioner is authorized or permitted to do so by the jurisdiction in which he or she practices, under the registration of the employer or principal practitioner in lieu of being registered him/herself.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual practitioner who is an agent or employee of a hospital or other institution may, when acting in the normal course of business or employment, administer, dispense, or prescribe controlled substances under the registration of the hospital or other institution which is registered in lieu of being registered him/herself, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) Such dispensing, administering or prescribing is done in the usual course of his/her professional practice;
</P>
<P>(2) Such individual practitioner is authorized or permitted to do so by the jurisdiction in which he/she is practicing;
</P>
<P>(3) The hospital or other institution by whom he/she is employed has verified that the individual practitioner is so permitted to dispense, administer, or prescribe drugs within the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(4) Such individual practitioner is acting only within the scope of his/her employment in the hospital or institution;
</P>
<P>(5) The hospital or other institution authorizes the individual practitioner to administer, dispense or prescribe under the hospital registration and designates a specific internal code number for each individual practitioner so authorized. The code number shall consist of numbers, letters, or a combination thereof and shall be a suffix to the institution's DEA registration number, preceded by a hyphen (e.g., APO123456-10 or APO123456-A12); and
</P>
<P>(6) A current list of internal codes and the corresponding individual practitioners is kept by the hospital or other institution and is made available at all times to other registrants and law enforcement agencies upon request for the purpose of verifying the authority of the prescribing individual practitioner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13950, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.23   Exemption of certain military and other personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement of registration is waived for any official of the U.S. Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, Space Force, Coast Guard, Public Health Service, or Bureau of Prisons who is authorized to prescribe, dispense, or administer, but not to procure or purchase, controlled substances in the course of his/her official duties. Such officials shall follow procedures set forth in part 1306 of this chapter regarding prescriptions, but shall state the branch of service or agency (<I>e.g.,</I> “U.S. Army” or “Public Health Service”) and the service identification number of the issuing official in lieu of the registration number required on prescription forms. The service identification number for a Public Health Service employee is his/her Social Security identification number.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement of registration is waived for any official or agency of the U.S. Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, Space Force, Coast Guard, or Public Health Service who or which is authorized to import or export controlled substances in the course of his/her official duties.
</P>
<P>(c) If any official exempted by this section also engages as a private individual in any activity or group of activities for which registration is required, such official shall obtain a registration for such private activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13951, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 86 FR 51822, Sept. 17, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.24   Exemption of law enforcement officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement of registration is waived for the following persons in the circumstances described in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Any officer or employee of the Administration, any customs officer, any officer or employee of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, and any other Federal or Insular officer who is lawfully engaged in the enforcement of any Federal law relating to controlled substances, drugs, or customs, and is duly authorized to possess or to import or export controlled substances in the course of his/her official duties; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any officer or employee of any State, or any political subdivision or agency thereof, who is engaged in the enforcement of any State or local law relating to controlled substances and is duly authorized to possess controlled substances in the course of his/her official duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Any official exempted by this section may, when acting in the course of his/her official duties, procure any controlled substance in the course of an inspection, or in the course of any criminal investigation involving the person from whom the substance was procured, and may possess any controlled substance and distribute any such substance to any other official who is also exempted by this section and acting in the course of his/her official duties.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to enable law enforcement agency laboratories, including laboratories of the Administration, to obtain and transfer controlled substances for use as standards in chemical analysis, such laboratories shall obtain annually a registration to conduct chemical analysis. Such laboratories shall be exempted from payment of a fee for registration. Laboratory personnel, when acting in the scope of their official duties, are deemed to be officials exempted by this section and within the activity described in section 515(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 885(d)). For purposes of this paragraph, laboratory activities shall not include field or other preliminary chemical tests by officials exempted by this section.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the activities authorized under a registration to conduct chemical analysis pursuant to § 1301.13(e)(1)(ix), laboratories of the Administration shall be authorized to manufacture or import controlled substances for any lawful purpose, to distribute or export such substances to any person, and to import and export such substances in emergencies without regard to the requirements of part 1312 of this chapter if a report concerning the importation or exportation is made to the Drug Operations Section of the Administration within 30 days of such importation or exportation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13951, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 81 FR 97019, Dec. 30, 2016; 87 FR 66955, Nov. 7, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.25   Registration regarding ocean vessels, aircraft, and other entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If acquired by and dispensed under the general supervision of a medical officer described in paragraph (b) of this section, or the master or first officer of the vessel under the circumstances described in paragraph (d) of this section, controlled substances may be held for stocking, be maintained in, and dispensed from medicine chests, first aid packets, or dispensaries:
</P>
<P>(1) On board any vessel engaged in international trade or in trade between ports of the United States and any merchant vessel belonging to the U.S. Government;
</P>
<P>(2) On board any aircraft operated by an air carrier under a certificate of permit issued pursuant to the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1301); and
</P>
<P>(3) In any other entity of fixed or transient location approved by the Administrator as appropriate for application of this section (e.g., emergency kits at field sites of an industrial firm).
</P>
<P>(b) A medical officer shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensed in a state as a physician;
</P>
<P>(2) Employed by the owner or operator of the vessel, aircraft or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Registered under the Act at either of the following locations:
</P>
<P>(i) The principal office of the owner or operator of the vessel, aircraft or other entity or
</P>
<P>(ii) At any other location provided that the name, address, registration number and expiration date as they appear on his/her Certificate of Registration (DEA Form 223) for this location are maintained for inspection at said principal office in a readily retrievable manner.
</P>
<P>(c) A registered medical officer may serve as medical officer for more than one vessel, aircraft, or other entity under a single registration, unless he/she serves as medical officer for more than one owner or operator, in which case he/she shall either maintain a separate registration at the location of the principal office of each such owner or operator or utilize one or more registrations pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If no medical officer is employed by the owner or operator of a vessel, or in the event such medical officer is not accessible and the acquisition of controlled substances is required, the master or first officer of the vessel, who shall not be registered under the Act, may purchase controlled substances from a registered manufacturer or distributor, or from an authorized pharmacy as described in paragraph (f) of this section, by following the procedure outlined below:
</P>
<P>(1) The master or first officer of the vessel must personally appear at the vendor's place of business, present proper identification (e.g., Seaman's photographic identification card) and a written requisition for the controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(2) The written requisition must be on the vessel's official stationery or purchase order form and must include the name and address of the vendor, the name of the controlled substance, description of the controlled substance (dosage form, strength and number or volume per container) number of containers ordered, the name of the vessel, the vessel's official number and country of registry, the owner or operator of the vessel, the port at which the vessel is located, signature of the vessel's officer who is ordering the controlled substances and the date of the requisition.
</P>
<P>(3) The vendor may, after verifying the identification of the vessel's officer requisitioning the controlled substances, deliver the control substances to that officer. The transaction shall be documented, in triplicate, on a record of sale in a format similar to that outlined in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. The vessel's requisition shall be attached to copy 1 of the record of sale and filed with the controlled substances records of the vendor, copy 2 of the record of sale shall be furnished to the officer of the vessel and retained aboard the vessel, copy 3 of the record of sale shall be forwarded to the nearest DEA Division Office within 15 days after the end of the month in which the sale is made.
</P>
<P>(4) The vendor's record of sale should be similar to, and must include all the information contained in, the below listed format.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Sale of Controlled Substances to Vessels
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>(Name of registrant)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Address of registrant)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(DEA registration number)
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Line No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of packages ordered
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size of packages
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of product
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Packages distributed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date distributed
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Footnote:</E> Line numbers may be continued according to needs of the vendor.</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP-DASH>Number of lines completed
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of vessel
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Vessel's official number
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Vessel's country of registry
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Owner or operator of the vessel
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>Name and title of vessel's officer who presented the requisition _____________
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Signature of vessel's officer who presented the requisition ______________</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) Any medical officer described in paragraph (b) of this section shall, in addition to complying with all requirements and duties prescribed for registrants generally, prepare an annual report as of the date on which his/her registration expires, which shall give in detail an accounting for each vessel, aircraft, or other entity, and a summary accounting for all vessels, aircraft, or other entities under his/her supervision for all controlled substances purchased, dispensed or disposed of during the year. The medical officer shall maintain this report with other records required to be kept under the Act and, upon request, deliver a copy of the report to the Administration. The medical officer need not be present when controlled substances are dispensed, if the person who actually dispensed the controlled substances is responsible to the medical officer to justify his/her actions.
</P>
<P>(f) Any registered pharmacy that wishes to distribute controlled substances pursuant to this section shall be authorized to do so, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The registered pharmacy notifies the nearest Division Office of the Administration of its intention to so distribute controlled substances prior to the initiation of such activity. This notification shall be by registered mail and shall contain the name, address, and registration number of the pharmacy as well as the date upon which such activity will commence; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such activity is authorized by state law; and
</P>
<P>(3) The total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed by the pharmacy during any calendar year in which the pharmacy is registered to dispense does not exceed the limitations imposed upon such distribution by § 1307.11(a)(1)(iv) and (b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) Owners or operators of vessels, aircraft, or other entities described in this section shall not be deemed to possess or dispense any controlled substance acquired, stored and dispensed in accordance with this section. Additionally, owners or operators of vessels, aircraft, or other entities described in this section or in Article 32 of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, or in Article 14 of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, shall not be deemed to import or export any controlled substances purchased and stored in accordance with that section or applicable article.
</P>
<P>(h) The Master of a vessel shall prepare a report for each calendar year which shall give in detail an accounting for all controlled substances purchased, dispensed, or disposed of during the year. The Master shall file this report with the medical officer employed by the owner or operator of his/her vessel, if any, or, if not, he/she shall maintain this report with other records required to be kept under the Act and, upon request, deliver a copy of the report to the Administration.
</P>
<P>(i) Controlled substances acquired and possessed in accordance with this section shall be distributed only to persons under the general supervision of the medical officer employed by the owner or operator of the vessel, aircraft, or other entity, except in accordance with part 1317 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13951, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 79 FR 53561, Sept. 9, 2014; 84 FR 68342, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.26   Exemptions from import or export requirements for personal medical use.</HEAD>
<P>Any individual who has in his/her possession a controlled substance listed in schedules II, III, IV, or V, which he/she has lawfully obtained for his/her personal medical use, or for administration to an animal accompanying him/her, may enter or depart the United States with such substance notwithstanding sections 1002-1005 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952-955), provided the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The controlled substance is in the original container in which it was dispensed to the individual; and
</P>
<P>(b) The individual makes a declaration to an appropriate customs officer stating:
</P>
<P>(1) That the controlled substance is possessed for his/her personal use, or for an animal accompanying him/her; and
</P>
<P>(2) The trade or chemical name and the symbol designating the schedule of the controlled substance if it appears on the container label, or, if such name does not appear on the label, the name and address of the pharmacy or practitioner who dispensed the substance and the prescription number.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to (and not in lieu of) the foregoing requirements of this section, a United States resident may import into the United States no more than 50 dosage units combined of all such controlled substances in the individual's possession that were obtained abroad for personal medical use. (For purposes of this section, a United States resident is a person whose residence (<I>i.e.</I>, place of general abode—meaning one's principal, actual dwelling place in fact, without regard to intent) is in the United States.) This 50 dosage unit limitation does not apply to controlled substances lawfully obtained in the United States pursuant to a prescription issued by a DEA registrant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 55347, Sept. 14, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 97019, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.27   Separate registration by retail pharmacies for installation and operation of automated dispensing systems at long term care facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A retail pharmacy may install and operate automated dispensing systems, as defined in § 1300.01 of this chapter, at long term care facilities, under the requirements of § 1301.17. No person other than a registered retail pharmacy may install and operate an automated dispensing system at a long term care facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Retail pharmacies installing and operating automated dispensing systems at long term care facilities must maintain a separate registration at the location of each long term care facility at which automated dispensing systems are located. If more than one registered retail pharmacy operates automated dispensing systems at the same long term care facility, each retail pharmacy must maintain a registration at the long term care facility.
</P>
<P>(c) A registered retail pharmacy applying for a separate registration to operate an automated dispensing system for the dispensing of controlled substances at a long term care facility is exempt from application fees for any such additional registrations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 25465, May 13, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1301.28-1301.29" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.3.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1301.28-1301.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Action on Application for Registration: Revocation or Suspension of Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.31   Administrative review generally.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may inspect, or cause to be inspected, the establishment of an applicant or registrant, pursuant to subpart A of part 1316 of this chapter. The Administrator shall review the application for registration and other information gathered by the Administrator regarding an applicant in order to determine whether the applicable standards of section 303 (21 U.S.C. 823) or section 1008 (21 U.S.C. 958) of the Act have been met by the applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13953, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.32   Action on applications for research in Schedule I substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of an application for registration to conduct research with controlled substances listed in Schedule I, the Administrator shall process the application and protocol and forward a copy of each to the Secretary of Health and Human Services (Secretary) within 7 days after receipt. The Secretary shall determine the qualifications and competency of the applicant, as well as the merits of the protocol (and shall notify the Administrator of his/her determination) within 21 days after receipt of the application and complete protocol, except that in the case of a clinical investigation, the Secretary shall have 30 days to make such determination and notify the Administrator. The Secretary, in determining the merits of the protocol, shall consult with the Administrator as to effective procedures to safeguard adequately against diversion of such controlled substances from legitimate medical or scientific use.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant whose protocol is defective shall be notified by the Secretary within 21 days after receipt of such protocol from the Administrator (or in the case of a clinical investigation within 30 days), and he/she shall be requested to correct the existing defects before consideration shall be given to his/her submission.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Secretary determines the applicant qualified and competent and the research protocol meritorious, he/she shall notify the Administrator in writing of such determination. The Administrator shall issue a certificate of registration within 10 days after receipt of this notice, unless he/she determines that the certificate of registration should be denied on a ground specified in section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)). In the case of a supplemental protocol, a replacement certificate of registration shall be issued by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Secretary determines that the protocol is not meritorious and/or the applicant is not qualified or competent, he/she shall notify the Administrator in writing setting forth the reasons for such determination. If the Administrator determines that grounds exist for the denial of the application, he/she shall within 10 days issue an order to show cause pursuant to § 1301.37 and, if requested by the applicant, hold a hearing on the application pursuant to § 1301.41. If the grounds for denial of the application include a determination by the Secretary, the Secretary or his duly authorized agent shall furnish testimony and documents pertaining to his determination at such hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) Supplemental protocols will be processed in the same manner as original research protocols. If the processing of an application or research protocol is delayed beyond the time limits imposed by this section, the applicant shall be so notified in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13953, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.33   Application for bulk manufacture of Schedule I and II substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of an application for registration or reregistration to manufacture in bulk a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, the Administrator shall, upon the filing of such application, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice naming the applicant and stating that such applicant has applied to be registered as a bulk manufacturer of a basic class of narcotic or nonnarcotic controlled substance, which class shall be identified. A copy of said notice shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a bulk manufacturer of that basic class and to any other applicant therefor. Any such person may, within 60 days from the date of publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> file with the Administrator written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to provide adequate competition, the Administrator shall not be required to limit the number of manufacturers in any basic class to a number less than that consistent with maintenance of effective controls against diversion solely because a smaller number is capable of producing an adequate and uninterrupted supply.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, this section shall not apply to the manufacture of basic classes of controlled substances listed in Schedule I or II as an incident to research or chemical analysis as authorized in §  1301.13(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) An application for registration to manufacture marihuana that involves the planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of marihuana shall be subject to the requirements of this section and the additional requirements set forth in part 1318 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13953, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 85 FR 82352, Dec. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.34   Application for importation of Schedule I and II substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of an application for registration or reregistration to import a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, under the authority of section 1002(a)(2)(B) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952(a)(2)(B)), the Administrator shall, upon the filing of such application, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice naming the applicant and stating that such applicant has applied to be registered as an importer of a Schedule I or II controlled substance, which substance shall be identified. A copy of said notice shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a bulk manufacturer of that controlled substance and to any other applicant therefor. Any such person may, within 30 days from the date of publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration, and may, at the same time, file a written request for a hearing on the application pursuant to § 1301.43. If a hearing is requested, the Administrator shall hold a hearing on the application in accordance with § 1301.41. Notice of the hearing shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and shall be mailed simultaneously to the applicant and to all persons to whom notice of the application was mailed. Any such person may participate in the hearing by filing a notice of appearance in accordance with § 1301.43 of this chapter. Notice of the hearing shall contain a summary of all comments and objections filed regarding the application and shall state the time and place for the hearing, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of publication of such notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A hearing pursuant to this section may be consolidated with a hearing held pursuant to § 1301.35 or § 1301.36 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator shall register an applicant to import a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II if he/she determines that such registration is consistent with the public interest and with U.S. obligations under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect on May 1, 1971. In determining the public interest, the following factors shall be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintenance of effective controls against diversion of particular controlled substances and any controlled substance in Schedule I or II compounded therefrom into other than legitimate medical, scientific research, or industrial channels, by limiting the importation and bulk manufacture of such controlled substances to a number of establishments which can produce an adequate and uninterrupted supply of these substances under adequately competitive conditions for legitimate medical, scientific, research, and industrial purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with applicable State and local law;
</P>
<P>(3) Promotion of technical advances in the art of manufacturing these substances and the development of new substances;
</P>
<P>(4) Prior conviction record of applicant under Federal and State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of such substances;
</P>
<P>(5) Past experience in the manufacture of controlled substances, and the existence in the establishment of effective control against diversion;
</P>
<P>(6) That the applicant will be permitted to import only:
</P>
<P>(i) Such amounts of crude opium, poppy straw, concentrate of poppy straw, and coca leaves as the Administrator finds to be necessary to provide for medical, scientific, or other legitimate purposes; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such amounts of any controlled substances listed in Schedule I or II as the Administrator shall find to be necessary to provide for the medical, scientific, or other legitimate needs of the United States during an emergency in which domestic supplies of such substances are found by the Administrator to be inadequate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Such amounts of any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II as the Administrator shall find to be necessary to provide for the medical, scientific, or other legitimate needs of the United States in any case in which the Administrator finds that competition among domestic manufacturers of the controlled substance is inadequate and will not be rendered adequate by the registration of additional manufacturers under section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823); or
</P>
<P>(iv) Such limited quantities of any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II as the Administrator shall find to be necessary for scientific, analytical or research uses; and
</P>
<P>(7) Such other factors as may be relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining whether the applicant can and will maintain effective controls against diversion within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section, the Administrator shall consider among other factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Compliance with the security requirements set forth in §§ 1301.71-1301.76; and
</P>
<P>(2) Employment of security procedures to guard against in-transit losses.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether competition among the domestic manufacturers of a controlled substance is adequate within the meaning of paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(6)(iii) of this section, as well as section 1002(a)(2)(B) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952(a)(2)(B)), the Administrator shall consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent of price rigidity in the light of changes in:
</P>
<P>(i) raw materials and other costs and
</P>
<P>(ii) conditions of supply and demand;
</P>
<P>(2) The extent of service and quality competition among the domestic manufacturers for shares of the domestic market including:
</P>
<P>(i) Shifts in market shares and
</P>
<P>(ii) Shifts in individual customers among domestic manufacturers;
</P>
<P>(3) The existence of substantial differentials between domestic prices and the higher of prices generally prevailing in foreign markets or the prices at which the applicant for registration to import is committed to undertake to provide such products in the domestic market in conformity with the Act. In determining the existence of substantial differentials hereunder, appropriate consideration should be given to any additional costs imposed on domestic manufacturers by the requirements of the Act and such other cost-related and other factors as the Administrator may deem relevant. In no event shall an importer's offering prices in the United States be considered if they are lower than those prevailing in the foreign market or markets from which the importer is obtaining his/her supply;
</P>
<P>(4) The existence of competitive restraints imposed upon domestic manufacturers by governmental regulations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may be relevant to the determinations required under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(e) In considering the scope of the domestic market, consideration shall be given to substitute products which are reasonably interchangeable in terms of price, quality and use.
</P>
<P>(f) The fact that the number of existing manufacturers is small shall not demonstrate, in and of itself, that adequate competition among them does not exist.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13953, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 81 FR 97019, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.35   Certificate of registration; denial of registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall issue a Certificate of Registration (DEA Form 223) to an applicant if the issuance of registration or reregistration is required under the applicable provisions of sections 303 or 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 and 958). In the event that the issuance of registration or reregistration is not required, the Administrator shall deny the application. Before denying any application, the Administrator shall issue an order to show cause pursuant to § 1301.37 and, if requested by the applicant, shall hold a hearing on the application pursuant to § 1301.41.
</P>
<P>(b) If in response to a show cause order a hearing is requested by an applicant for registration or reregistration to manufacture in bulk a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, notice that a hearing has been requested shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall be mailed simultaneously to the applicant and to all persons to whom notice of the application was mailed. Any person entitled to file comments or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration pursuant to § 1301.33(a) may participate in the hearing by filing notice of appearance in accordance with § 1301.43. Such persons shall have 30 days to file a notice of appearance after the date of publication of the notice of a request for a hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c) The Certificate of Registration (DEA Form 223) shall contain the name, address, and registration number of the registrant, the activity authorized by the registration, the schedules and/or Administration Controlled Substances Code Number (as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter) of the controlled substances which the registrant is authorized to handle, the amount of fee paid (or exemption), and the expiration date of the registration. The registrant shall maintain the certificate of registration at the registered location in a readily retrievable manner and shall permit inspection of the certificate by any official, agent or employee of the Administration or of any Federal, State, or local agency engaged in enforcement of laws relating to controlled substances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13954, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.36" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.36   Suspension or revocation of registration; suspension of registration pending final order; extension of registration pending final order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For any registration issued under section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823), the Administrator may:
</P>
<P>(1) Suspend the registration pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)) for any period of time.
</P>
<P>(2) Revoke the registration pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)).
</P>
<P>(b) For any registration issued under section 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 958), the Administrator may:
</P>
<P>(1) Suspend the registration pursuant to section 1008(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 958(d)) for any period of time.
</P>
<P>(2) Revoke the registration pursuant to section 1008(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 958(d)) if he/she determines that such registration is inconsistent with the public interest as defined in section 1008 or with the United States obligations under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect on October 12, 1984.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator may limit the revocation or suspension of a registration to the particular controlled substance, or substances, with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exist.
</P>
<P>(d) Before revoking or suspending any registration, the Administrator shall issue an order to show cause pursuant to § 1301.37 and, if requested by the registrant, shall hold a hearing pursuant to § 1301.41.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may suspend any registration simultaneously with or at any time subsequent to the service upon the registrant of an order to show cause why such registration should not be revoked or suspended, in any case where he/she finds that there is an imminent danger to the public health or safety. If the Administrator so suspends, he/she shall serve with the order to show cause pursuant to § 1301.37 an order of immediate suspension which shall contain a statement of his findings regarding the danger to public health or safety.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon service of the order of the Administrator suspending or revoking registration, the registrant shall immediately deliver his/her Certificate of Registration, any order forms, and any import or export permits in his/her possession to the nearest office of the Administration. The suspension or revocation of a registration shall suspend or revoke any individual manufacturing or procurement quota fixed for the registrant pursuant to part 1303 of this chapter and any import or export permits issued to the registrant pursuant to part 1312 of this chapter. Also, upon service of the order of the Administrator revoking or suspending registration, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Deliver all controlled substances in his/her possession to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration; or
</P>
<P>(2) Place all controlled substances in his/her possession under seal as described in sections 304(f) or 1008(d)(6) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f) or 958(d)(6)).
</P>
<P>(g) In the event that revocation or suspension is limited to a particular controlled substance or substances, the registrant shall be given a new Certificate of Registration for all substances not affected by such revocation or suspension; no fee shall be required to be paid for the new Certificate of Registration. The registrant shall deliver the old Certificate of Registration and, if appropriate, any order forms in his/her possession to the nearest office of the Administration. The suspension or revocation of a registration, when limited to a particular basic class or classes of controlled substances, shall suspend or revoke any individual manufacturing or procurement quota fixed for the registrant for such class or classes pursuant to part 1303 of this chapter and any import or export permits issued to the registrant for such class or classes pursuant to part 1312 of this chapter. Also, upon service of the order of the Administrator revoking or suspending registration, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Deliver to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration all of the particular controlled substance or substances affected by the revocation or suspension which are in his/her possession; or
</P>
<P>(2) Place all of such substances under seal as described in sections 304(f) or 958(d)(6) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f) or 958(d)(6)).
</P>
<P>(h) Any suspension shall continue in effect until the conclusion of all proceedings upon the revocation or suspension, including any judicial review thereof, unless sooner withdrawn by the Administrator or dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction. Any registrant whose registration is suspended under paragraph (e) of this section may request a hearing on the revocation or suspension of his/her registration at a time earlier than specified in the order to show cause pursuant to § 1301.37. This request shall be granted by the Administrator, who shall fix a date for such hearing as early as reasonably possible.
</P>
<P>(i) In the event that an applicant for reregistration (who is doing business under a registration previously granted and not revoked or suspended) has applied for reregistration at least 45 days before the date on which the existing registration is due to expire, and the Administrator has issued no order on the application on the date on which the existing registration is due to expire, the existing registration of the applicant shall automatically be extended and continue in effect until the date on which the Administrator so issues his/her order. The Administrator may extend any other existing registration under the circumstances contemplated in this section even though the registrant failed to apply for reregistration at least 45 days before expiration of the existing registration, with or without request by the registrant, if the Administrator finds that such extension is not inconsistent with the public health and safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13955, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.37" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.4.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.37   Order to show cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, upon examination of the application for registration from any applicant and other information gathered by the Administration regarding the applicant, the Administrator is unable to make the determinations required by the applicable provisions of section 303 and/or section 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 and 958) to register the applicant, the Administrator shall serve upon the applicant an order to show cause why the registration should not be denied.
</P>
<P>(b) If, upon information gathered by the Administration regarding any registrant, the Administrator determines that the registration of such registrant is subject to suspension or revocation pursuant to section 304 or section 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824 and 958), the Administrator shall serve upon the registrant an order to show cause why the registration should not be revoked or suspended.
</P>
<P>(c) The order to show cause shall call upon the applicant or registrant to appear before the Administrator at a time and place stated in the order, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of receipt of the order. The order to show cause shall also contain a statement of the legal basis for such hearing and for the denial, revocation, or suspension of registration and a summary of the matters of fact and law asserted.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>When to File: Hearing Request.</I> A party that wishes to request a hearing in response to an order to show cause must file with the Office of the Administrative Law Judges and serve on DEA such request no later than 30 days following the date of receipt of the order to show cause. Service of the request on DEA shall be accomplished by sending it to the address, or email address, provided in the order to show cause.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When to File: Answer.</I> A party requesting a hearing shall also file with the Office of the Administrative Law Judges and serve on DEA an answer to the order to show cause no later than 30 days following the date of receipt of the order to show cause. A party shall also serve its answer on DEA at the address, or the email address, provided in the order to show cause. The presiding officer may, upon a showing of good cause by the party, consider an answer that has been filed out of time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of Answer; Effect of Failure to Deny.</I> For each factual allegation in the order to show cause, the answer shall specifically admit, deny, or state that the party does not have and is unable to obtain sufficient information to admit or deny the allegation. When a party intends in good faith to deny only a part of an allegation, the party shall specify so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder. A statement of a lack of information shall have the effect of a denial. Any factual allegation not denied shall be deemed admitted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Amendments.</I> Prior to the issuance of the prehearing ruling, a party may as a matter of right amend its answer one time. Subsequent to the issuance of the prehearing ruling, a party may amend its answer only with leave of the presiding officer. Leave shall be freely granted when justice so requires.


</P>
<P>(e) When authorized by the Administrator, any agent of the Administration may serve the order to show cause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13955, Mar. 24, 1997; 87 FR 68044, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="5" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.5.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.41   Hearings generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing on any registration or application therefor, the procedures for such hearing shall be governed generally by the adjudication procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by sections 303, 304, and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823-824 and 958), by §§ 1301.42-1301.46 of this part, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Act set forth in §§ 1316.41-1316.67 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any hearing under this part shall be independent of, and not in lieu of, criminal prosecutions or other proceedings under the Act or any other law of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13956, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.5.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.42   Purpose of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If requested by a person entitled to a hearing, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding the issues involved in the denial, revocation, or suspension of any registration, and the granting of any application for registration to import or to manufacture in bulk a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II. Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13956, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.43" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.5.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.43   Request for hearing or appearance; waiver; default.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1301.32 or §§ 1301.34-1301.36 and desiring a hearing shall, within 30 days after the date of receipt of the order to show cause (or the date of publication of notice of the application for registration in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in the case of § 1301.34), file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person entitled to participate in a hearing pursuant to § 1301.34 or § 1301.35(b) and desiring to do so shall, within 30 days of the date of publication of notice of the request for a hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> file with the Administrator a written notice of intent to participate in such hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.48 of this chapter. Any person filing a request for a hearing need not also file a notice of appearance.


</P>
<P>(c)(1) Any person entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1301.32 or 1301.34 through 36 who fails to file a timely request for a hearing shall be deemed to have waived their right to a hearing and to be in default, unless the registrant/applicant establishes good cause for failing to file a timely hearing request. Any person who has failed to timely request a hearing under paragraph (a) of this section may seek to be excused from the default by filing a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges establishing good cause to excuse the default no later than 45 days after the date of receipt of the order to show cause. Thereafter, any person who has failed to timely request a hearing under paragraph (a) of this section and seeks to be excused from the default shall file such motion with the Office of the Administrator, which shall have exclusive authority to rule on the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who has requested a hearing pursuant to this section but who fails to timely file an answer and who fails to demonstrate good cause for failing to timely file an answer, shall be deemed to have waived their right to a hearing and to be in default. Upon motion of DEA, the presiding officer shall then enter an order terminating the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event DEA fails to prosecute or a person who has requested a hearing fails to plead (including by failing to file an answer) or otherwise defend, said party shall be deemed to be in default and the opposing party may move to terminate the proceeding. Upon such motion, the presiding officer shall then enter an order terminating the proceeding, absent a showing of good cause by the party deemed to be in default. Upon termination of the proceeding by the presiding officer, a party may seek relief only by filing a motion establishing good cause to excuse its default with the Office of the Administrator.


</P>
<P>(d) If any person entitled to participate in a hearing pursuant to this section fails to file a notice of appearance either as part of a hearing request or separately, or if such person so files and fails to appear at the hearing, such person shall be deemed to have waived their opportunity to participate in the hearing, unless such person shows good cause for such failure.




</P>
<P>(e) A default, unless excused, shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the registrant's/applicant's right to a hearing and an admission of the factual allegations of the order to show cause.


</P>
<P>(f)(1) In the event that a registrant/applicant is deemed to be in default pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and has not established good cause to be excused from the default, or the presiding officer has issued an order terminating the proceeding pursuant to paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section, DEA may then file a request for final agency action with the Administrator, along with a record to support its request. In such circumstances, the Administrator may enter a default final order pursuant to § 1316.67 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that DEA is deemed to be in default and the presiding officer has issued an order terminating the proceeding pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the presiding officer shall transmit the record to the Administrator for his consideration no later than five business days after the date of issuance of the order. Upon termination of the proceeding by the presiding officer, DEA may seek relief only by filing a motion with the Office of the Administrator establishing good cause to excuse its default.
</P>
<P>(3) A party held to be in default may move to set aside a default final order issued by the Administrator by filing a motion no later than 30 days from the date of issuance by the Administrator of a default final order. Any such motion shall be granted only upon a showing of good cause to excuse the default.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13956, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 87 FR 68044, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.44" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.5.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.44   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any hearing on an application to manufacture any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, the applicant shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such registration pursuant to section 303(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(a)) are satisfied. Any other person participating in the hearing pursuant to § 1301.35(b) shall have the burden of proving any propositions of fact or law asserted by such person in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) At any hearing on the granting or denial of an applicant to be registered to conduct a narcotic treatment program or as a compounder, the applicant shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for each registration pursuant to section 303(g) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(g)) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) At any hearing on the granting or denial of an application to be registered to import or export any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, the applicant shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such registration pursuant to sections 1008(a) and (d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 958 (a) and (d)) are satisfied. Any other person participating in the hearing pursuant to § 1301.34 shall have the burden of proving any propositions of fact or law asserted by him/her in the hearings.
</P>
<P>(d) At any other hearing for the denial of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such registration pursuant to section 303 or section 1008(c) and (d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 or 958(c) and (d)) are not satisfied.
</P>
<P>(e) At any hearing for the revocation or suspension of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such revocation or suspension pursuant to section 304(a) or section 1008(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a) or 958(d)) are satisfied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13956, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.5.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.45   Time and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing will commence at the place and time designated in the order to show cause or notice of hearing published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (unless expedited pursuant to § 1301.36(h)) but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement thereof by the presiding officer at the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13956, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.46" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.5.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.46   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue his/her order on the granting, denial, revocation, or suspension of registration. In the event that an application for registration to import or to manufacture in bulk a basic class of any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II is granted, or any application for registration is denied, or any registration is revoked or suspended, the order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall serve one copy of his/her order upon each party in the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13956, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Modification, Transfer and Termination of Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.51" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.6.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.51   Modification in registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registrant may apply to modify his/her registration to authorize the handling of additional controlled substances or to change his/her name or address by submitting a written request to the Registration Unit, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Additionally, such a request may be submitted on-line at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The request shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The registrant's name, address, and registration number as printed on the certificate of registration;
</P>
<P>(ii) The substances and/or schedules to be added to the registration or the new name or address; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A signature in accordance with § 1301.13(j).
</P>
<P>(2) If the registrant is seeking to handle additional controlled substances listed in Schedule I for the purpose of research or instructional activities, the registrant shall attach three copies of a research protocol describing each research project involving the additional substances, or two copies of a statement describing the nature, extent, and duration of such instructional activities, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Any manufacturer, distributor, reverse distributor, narcotic treatment program, hospital/clinic with an on-site pharmacy, or retail pharmacy registered pursuant to this part, may apply to modify its registration to become authorized as a collector by submitting a written request to the Registration Unit, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Additionally, such request may be submitted on-line at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The request shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The registrant's name, address, and registration number as printed on the certificate of registration;
</P>
<P>(ii) The method(s) of collection the registrant intends to conduct (collection receptacle and/or mail-back program); and
</P>
<P>(iii) A signature in accordance with § 1301.13(j).
</P>
<P>(2) If a hospital/clinic with an on-site pharmacy or retail pharmacy is applying for a modification in registration to authorize such registrant to be a collector to maintain a collection receptacle at a long-term care facility in accordance with § 1317.80 of this chapter, the request shall also include the name and physical location of each long-term care facility at which the hospital/clinic with an on-site pharmacy, or the retail pharmacy, intends to operate a collection receptacle.
</P>
<P>(c) No fee shall be required for modification. The request for modification shall be handled in the same manner as an application for registration. If the modification of registration is approved, the Administrator shall issue a new certificate of registration (DEA Form 223) to the registrant, who shall maintain it with the old certificate of registration until expiration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 53561, Sept. 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.52" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.6.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.52   Termination of registration; transfer of registration; distribution upon discontinuance of business.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the registration of any person, and any modifications of that registration, shall terminate, without any further action by the Administration, if and when such person dies, ceases legal existence, discontinues business or professional practice, or surrenders a registration. Any registrant who ceases legal existence or discontinues business or professional practice shall notify the Administrator promptly of such fact. In the case of a surrender, termination shall occur upon receipt by any employee of the Administration of a duly executed DEA form 104 or any signed writing indicating the desire to surrender a registration.
</P>
<P>(b) No registration or any authority conferred thereby shall be assigned or otherwise transferred except upon such conditions as the Administration may specifically designate and then only pursuant to written consent. Any person seeking authority to transfer a registration shall submit a written request, providing full details regarding the proposed transfer of registration, to the Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(c) Any registrant desiring to discontinue business activities altogether or with respect to controlled substances (without transferring such business activities to another person) shall return for cancellation his/her certificate of registration, and any unexecuted order forms in his/her possession, to the Registration Unit, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Any controlled substances in his/her possession may be disposed of in accordance with part 1317 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Any registrant desiring to discontinue business activities altogether or with respect to controlled substance (by transferring such business activities to another person) shall submit in person or by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the Special Agent in Charge in his/her area, at least 14 days in advance of the date of the proposed transfer (unless the Special Agent in Charge waives this time limitation in individual instances), the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, registration number, and authorized business activity of the registrant discontinuing the business (registrant-transferor);
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, registration number, and authorized business activity of the person acquiring the business (registrant-transferee);
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the business activities will be continued at the location registered by the person discontinuing business, or moved to another location (if the latter, the address of the new location should be listed);
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the registrant-transferor has a quota to manufacture or procure any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II (if so, the basic class or class of the substance should be indicated); and
</P>
<P>(5) The date on which the transfer of controlled substances will occur.
</P>
<P>(e) Unless the registrant-transferor is informed by the Special Agent in Charge, before the date on which the transfer was stated to occur, that the transfer may not occur, the registrant-transferor may distribute (without being registered to distribute) controlled substances in his/her possession to the registrant-transferee in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) On the date of transfer of the controlled substances, a complete inventory of all controlled substances being transferred shall be taken in accordance with § 1304.11 of this chapter. This inventory shall serve as the final inventory of the registrant-transferor and the initial inventory of the registrant-transferee, and a copy of the inventory shall be included in the records of each person. It shall not be necessary to file a copy of the inventory with the Administration unless requested by the Special Agent in Charge. Transfers of any substances listed in Schedule I or II shall require the use of order forms in accordance with part 1305 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) On the date of transfer of the controlled substances, all records required to be kept by the registrant-transferor with reference to the controlled substances being transferred, under part 1304 of this chapter, shall be transferred to the registrant-transferee. Responsibility for the accuracy of records prior to the date of transfer remains with the transferor, but responsibility for custody and maintenance shall be upon the transferee.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of registrants required to make reports pursuant to part 1304 of this chapter, a report marked “Final” will be prepared and submitted by the registrant-transferor showing the disposition of all the controlled substances for which a report is required; no additional report will be required from him, if no further transactions involving controlled substances are consummated by him. The initial report of the registrant-transferee shall account for transactions beginning with the day next succeeding the date of discontinuance or transfer of business by the transferor-registrant and the substances transferred to him shall be reported as receipts in his/her initial report.
</P>
<P>(f) Any registrant that has been authorized as a collector and desires to discontinue its collection of controlled substances from ultimate users shall notify the Administration of its intent by submitting a written notification to the Registration Unit, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Additionally, such notice may be submitted on-line at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I> When ceasing collection activities of an authorized mail-back program, the registrant shall provide the Administration with the name, registered address, and registration number of the collector that will receive the remaining mail-back packages in accordance with § 1317.70(e)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13957, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 15623, Apr. 6, 2009; 75 FR 10676, Mar. 9, 2010; 76 FR 61564, Oct. 5, 2011; 79 FR 53561, Sept. 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Security Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.71" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.71   Security requirements generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applicants and registrants shall provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion of controlled substances. In order to determine whether a registrant has provided effective controls against diversion, the Administrator shall use the security requirements set forth in §§ 1301.72-1301.76 as standards for the physical security controls and operating procedures necessary to prevent diversion. Materials and construction which will provide a structural equivalent to the physical security controls set forth in §§ 1301.72, 1301.73 and 1301.75 may be used in lieu of the materials and construction described in those sections. 
</P>
<P>(b) Substantial compliance with the standards set forth in §§ 1301.72-1301.76 may be deemed sufficient by the Administrator after evaluation of the overall security system and needs of the applicant or registrant. In evaluating the overall security system of a registrant or applicant, the Administrator may consider any of the following factors as he may deem relevant to the need for strict compliance with security requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) The type of activity conducted (e.g., processing of bulk chemicals, preparing dosage forms, packaging, labeling, cooperative buying, etc.); 
</P>
<P>(2) The type and form of controlled substances handled (e.g., bulk liquids or dosage units, usable powders or nonusable powders);
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of controlled substances handled; 
</P>
<P>(4) The location of the premises and the relationship such location bears on security needs; 
</P>
<P>(5) The type of building construction comprising the facility and the general characteristics of the building or buildings; 
</P>
<P>(6) The type of vault, safe, and secure enclosures or other storage system (e.g., automatic storage and retrieval system) used; 
</P>
<P>(7) The type of closures on vaults, safes, and secure enclosures; 
</P>
<P>(8) The adequacy of key control systems and/or combination lock control systems; 
</P>
<P>(9) The adequacy of electric detection and alarm systems, if any including use of supervised transmittal lines and standby power sources; 
</P>
<P>(10) The extent of unsupervised public access to the facility, including the presence and characteristics of perimeter fencing, if any; 
</P>
<P>(11) The adequacy of supervision over employees having access to manufacturing and storage areas; 
</P>
<P>(12) The procedures for handling business guests, visitors, maintenance personnel, and nonemployee service personnel; 
</P>
<P>(13) The availability of local police protection or of the registrant's or applicant's security personnel; 
</P>
<P>(14) The adequacy of the registrant's or applicant's system for monitoring the receipt, manufacture, distribution, and disposition of controlled substances in its operations; and 
</P>
<P>(15) The applicability of the security requirements contained in all Federal, State, and local laws and regulations governing the management of waste.
</P>
<P>(c) When physical security controls become inadequate as a result of a controlled substance being transferred to a different schedule, or as a result of a noncontrolled substance being listed on any schedule, or as a result of a significant increase in the quantity of controlled substances in the possession of the registrant during normal business operations, the physical security controls shall be expanded and extended accordingly. A registrant may adjust physical security controls within the requirements set forth in §§ 1301.72-1301.76 when the need for such controls decreases as a result of a controlled substance being transferred to a different schedule, or a result of a controlled substance being removed from control, or as a result of a significant decrease in the quantity of controlled substances in the possession of the registrant during normal business operations.
</P>
<P>(d) Any registrant or applicant desiring to determine whether a proposed security system substantially complies with, or is the structural equivalent of, the requirements set forth in §§ 1301.72-1301.76 may submit any plans, blueprints, sketches or other materials regarding the proposed security system either to the Special Agent in Charge in the region in which the system will be used, or to the Regulatory Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(e) Physical security controls of locations registered under the Harrison Narcotic Act or the Narcotics Manufacturing Act of 1960 on April 30, 1971, shall be deemed to comply substantially with the standards set forth in §§ 1301.72, 1301.73 and 1301.75. Any new facilities or work or storage areas constructed or utilized for controlled substances, which facilities or work or storage areas have not been previously approved by the Administration, shall not necessarily be deemed to comply substantially with the standards set forth in §§ 1301.72, 1301.73 and 1301.75, notwithstanding that such facilities or work or storage areas have physical security controls similar to those previously approved by the Administration.
</P>
<P>(f) A collector shall not employ, as an agent or employee who has access to or influence over controlled substances acquired by collection, any person who has been convicted of any felony offense relating to controlled substances or who, at any time, had an application for registration with DEA denied, had a DEA registration revoked or suspended, or has surrendered a DEA registration for cause. For purposes of this subsection, “for cause” means in lieu of, or as a consequence of, any Federal or State administrative, civil, or criminal action resulting from an investigation of the individual's handling of controlled substances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 18729, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 46 FR 28841, May 29, 1981; 47 FR 41735, Sept. 22, 1982; 51 FR 5319, Feb. 13, 1986; 68 FR 41228, July 11, 2003; 75 FR 10677, Mar. 9, 2010; 79 FR 53561, Sept. 9, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.72" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.72   Physical security controls for non-practitioners; narcotic treatment programs and compounders for narcotic treatment programs; mobile narcotic treatment programs; storage areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedules I and II.</I> Raw material, bulk materials awaiting further processing, finished products which are controlled substances listed in Schedule I or II (except GHB that is manufactured or distributed in accordance with an exemption under section 505(i) of the Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act which shall be subject to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section), and sealed mail-back packages and inner liners acquired in accordance with part 1317 of this chapter, shall be stored in one of the following secured areas:
</P>
<P>(1) Where small quantities permit, a safe or steel cabinet; 
</P>
<P>(i) Which safe or steel cabinet shall have the following specifications or the equivalent: 30 man-minutes against surreptitious entry, 10 man-minutes against forced entry, 20 man-hours against lock manipulation, and 20 man-hours against radiological techniques; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Which safe or steel cabinet, if it weighs less than 750 pounds, is bolted or cemented to the floor or wall in such a way that it cannot be readily removed; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Which safe or steel cabinet, if necessary, depending upon the quantities and type of controlled substances stored, is equipped with an alarm system which, upon attempted unauthorized entry, shall transmit a signal directly to a central protection company or a local or State police agency which has a legal duty to respond, or a 24-hour control station operated by the registrant, or such other protection as the Administrator may approve. 
</P>
<P>(2) A vault constructed before, or under construction on, September 1, 1971, which is of substantial construction with a steel door, combination or key lock, and an alarm system; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A vault constructed after September 1, 1971: 
</P>
<P>(i) The walls, floors, and ceilings of which vault are constructed of at least 8 inches of reinforced concrete or other substantial masonry, reinforced vertically and horizontally with 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch steel rods tied 6 inches on center, or the structural equivalent to such reinforced walls, floors, and ceilings; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The door and frame unit of which vault shall conform to the following specifications or the equivalent: 30 man-minutes against surreptitious entry, 10 man-minutes against forced entry, 20 man-hours against lock manipulation, and 20 man-hours against radiological techniques; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Which vault, if operations require it to remain open for frequent access, is equipped with a “day-gate” which is self-closing and self-locking, or the equivalent, for use during the hours of operation in which the vault door is open; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The walls or perimeter of which vault are equipped with an alarm, which upon unauthorized entry shall transmit a signal directly to a central station protection company, or a local or State police agency which has a legal duty to respond, or a 24-hour control station operated by the registrant, or such other protection as the Administrator may approve, and, if necessary, holdup buttons at strategic points of entry to the perimeter area of the vault; 
</P>
<P>(v) The door of which vault is equipped with contact switches; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Which vault has one of the following: Complete electrical lacing of the walls, floor and ceilings; sensitive ultrasonic equipment within the vault; a sensitive sound accumulator system; or such other device designed to detect illegal entry as may be approved by the Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Schedules III, IV and V.</I> Raw material, bulk materials awaiting further processing, and finished products which are controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV, and V, and GHB when it is manufactured or distributed in accordance with an exemption under section 505(i) of the FFDCA, shall be stored in the following secure storage areas:
</P>
<P>(1) A safe or steel cabinet as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) A vault as described in paragraph (a)(2) or (3) of this section equipped with an alarm system as described in paragraph (b)(4)(v) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) A building used for storage of Schedules III through V controlled substances with perimeter security which limits access during working hours and provides security after working hours and meets the following specifications: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has an electronic alarm system as described in paragraph (b)(4)(v) of this section, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is equipped with self-closing, self-locking doors constructed of substantial material commensurate with the type of building construction, provided, however, a door which is kept closed and locked at all times when not in use and when in use is kept under direct observation of a responsible employee or agent of the registrant is permitted in lieu of a self-closing, self-locking door. Doors may be sliding or hinged. Regarding hinged doors, where hinges are mounted on the outside, such hinges shall be sealed, welded or otherwise constructed to inhibit removal. Locking devices for such doors shall be either of the multiple-position combination or key lock type and: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In the case of key locks, shall require key control which limits access to a limited number of employees, or; 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In the case of combination locks, the combination shall be limited to a minimum number of employees and can be changed upon termination of employment of an employee having knowledge of the combination; 
</P>
<P>(4) A cage, located within a building on the premises, meeting the following specifications: 
</P>
<P>(i) Having walls constructed of not less than No. 10 gauge steel fabric mounted on steel posts, which posts are: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) At least one inch in diameter; 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Set in concrete or installed with lag bolts that are pinned or brazed; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Which are placed no more than ten feet apart with horizontal one and one-half inch reinforcements every sixty inches; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Having a mesh construction with openings of not more than two and one-half inches across the square, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Having a ceiling constructed of the same material, or in the alternative, a cage shall be erected which reaches and is securely attached to the structural ceiling of the building. A lighter gauge mesh may be used for the ceilings of large enclosed areas if walls are at least 14 feet in height, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Is equipped with a door constructed of No. 10 gauge steel fabric on a metal door frame in a metal door flange, and in all other respects conforms to all the requirements of 21 CFR 1301.72(b)(3)(ii), and 
</P>
<P>(v) Is equipped with an alarm system which upon unauthorized entry shall transmit a signal directly to a central station protection agency or a local or state police agency, each having a legal duty to respond, or to a 24-hour control station operated by the registrant, or to such other source of protection as the Administrator may approve; 
</P>
<P>(5) An enclosure of masonry or other material, approved in writing by the Administrator as providing security comparable to a cage; 
</P>
<P>(6) A building or enclosure within a building which has been inspected and approved by DEA or its predecessor agency, BND, and continues to provide adequate security against the diversion of Schedule III through V controlled substances, of which fact written acknowledgment has been made by the Special Agent in Charge of DEA for the area in which such building or enclosure is situated; 
</P>
<P>(7) Such other secure storage areas as may be approved by the Administrator after considering the factors listed in § 1301.71(b); 
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Schedule III through V controlled substances may be stored with Schedules I and II controlled substances under security measures provided by 21 CFR 1301.72(a); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-controlled drugs, substances and other materials may be stored with Schedule III through V controlled substances in any of the secure storage areas required by 21 CFR 1301.72(b), provided that permission for such storage of non-controlled items is obtained in advance, in writing, from the Special Agent in Charge of DEA for the area in which such storage area is situated. Any such permission tendered must be upon the Special Agent in Charge's written determination that such non-segregated storage does not diminish security effectiveness for Schedules III through V controlled substances. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple storage areas.</I> Where several types or classes of controlled substances are handled separately by the registrant or applicant for different purposes (e.g., returned goods, or goods in process), the controlled substances may be stored separately, provided that each storage area complies with the requirements set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accessibility to storage areas.</I> The controlled substances storage areas shall be accessible only to an absolute minimum number of specifically authorized employees. When it is necessary for employee maintenance personnel, nonemployee maintenance personnel, business guests, or visitors to be present in or pass through controlled substances storage areas, the registrant shall provide for adequate observation of the area by an employee specifically authorized in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mobile Narcotic Treatment Programs.</I> (1) For any conveyance operated as a mobile narcotic treatment program (NTP), a safe must be installed and used to store narcotic drugs in schedules II-V for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment, when not located at the registrant's registered location. The safe must conform to the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The mobile component must also be equipped with an alarm system that conforms to the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section. The storage area of the mobile component must conform to the accessibility requirements in paragraph (d) of this section. The storage area for controlled substances in a mobile component of an NTP must not be accessible from outside of the vehicle. Personnel transporting the controlled substances on behalf of the mobile NTP are required to retain control over all controlled substances when transferring them between the registered location and the conveyance, while en route to and from the dispensing location or locations, and when dispensing at the dispensing location or locations. At all other times during transportation, all controlled substances must be properly secured in the safe. Upon completion of the operation of the mobile NTP on a given day, the conveyance must be immediately returned to the registered location, and all controlled substances must be removed from the conveyance and secured within the registered location. After the conveyance has returned to the registered location and the controlled substances have been removed, the conveyance may be parked until its next use at the registered location or any secure, fenced-in area, once the local DEA office has been notified of the location of this secure, fenced-in area. All NTPs with mobile components shall be required to establish a standard operating procedure to ensure, if the mobile component becomes inoperable (mechanical failure, accidents, fire, etc.), that all controlled substances on the inoperable conveyance are accounted for, removed from the inoperable conveyance, and secured at the registered location.
</P>
<P>(2) With regard to the requirement of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, that upon completion of the operation of the mobile NTP on a given day, the conveyance must be immediately returned to the registered location, and all controlled substances must be removed from the conveyance and secured within the registered location, an NTP may apply for an exception to this requirement as provided in this paragraph. The application for such an exception must be submitted in accordance with § 1307.03 of this chapter and must include the proposed alternate return period, enhanced security measures, and any other factors the applicant wishes the Administrator to consider. The Administrator may grant such an exception in his discretion and will evaluate each application on a case-by-case basis in determining whether the applicant has demonstrated exceptional circumstances that warrant the exception. In making this determination, the Administrator will consider the applicant's security and recordkeeping as well as any other factors he deems relevant to determining whether effective controls against diversion will be maintained.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 18730, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1301.72, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.73" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.73   Physical security controls for non-practitioners; compounders for narcotic treatment programs; manufacturing and compounding areas.</HEAD>
<P>All manufacturing activities (including processing, packaging and labeling) involving controlled substances listed in any schedule and all activities of compounders shall be conducted in accordance with the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) All in-process substances shall be returned to the controlled substances storage area at the termination of the process. If the process is not terminated at the end of a workday (except where a continuous process or other normal manufacturing operation should not be interrupted), the processing area or tanks, vessels, bins or bulk containers containing such substances shall be securely locked, with adequate security for the area or building. If such security requires an alarm, such alarm, upon unauthorized entry, shall transmit a signal directly to a central station protection company, or local or state police agency which has a legal duty to respond, or a 24-hour control station operated by the registrant. 
</P>
<P>(b) Manufacturing activities with controlled substances shall be conducted in an area or areas of clearly defined limited access which is under surveillance by an employee or employees designated in writing as responsible for the area. “Limited access” may be provided, in the absence of physical dividers such as walls or partitions, by traffic control lines or restricted space designation. The employee designated as responsible for the area may be engaged in the particular manufacturing operation being conducted: <I>Provided,</I> That he is able to provide continuous surveillance of the area in order that unauthorized persons may not enter or leave the area without his knowledge. 
</P>
<P>(c) During the production of controlled substances, the manufacturing areas shall be accessible to only those employees required for efficient operation. When it is necessary for employee maintenance personnel, nonemployee maintenance personnel, business guests, or visitors to be present in or pass through manufacturing areas during production of controlled substances, the registrant shall provide for adequate observation of the area by an employee specifically authorized in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 18731, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973 and amended at 39 FR 37984, Oct. 25, 1974] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.74" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.74   Other security controls for non-practitioners; narcotic treatment programs and compounders for narcotic treatment programs; mobile narcotic treatment programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before distributing a controlled substance to any person who the registrant does not know to be registered to possess the controlled substance, the registrant shall make a good faith inquiry either with the Administration or with the appropriate State controlled substances registration agency, if any, to determine that the person is registered to possess the controlled substance. 
</P>
<P>(b) The registrant shall design and operate a system to disclose to the registrant suspicious orders of controlled substances. The registrant shall inform the Field Division Office of the Administration in his area of suspicious orders when discovered by the registrant. Suspicious orders include orders of unusual size, orders deviating substantially from a normal pattern, and orders of unusual frequency. 
</P>
<P>(c) The registrant must notify the Field Division Office of the Administration in his or her area, in writing, of any theft or significant loss of any controlled substances within one business day of discovery of the theft or loss. Unless the theft or loss occurs during an import or export transaction, the supplier is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of controlled substances by their agent or the common or contract carrier selected pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, within one business day of discovery of such theft or loss. In an import transaction, once a shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of entry, the importer is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of controlled substances by their agent or the common or contract carrier selected pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, within one business day of discovery of such theft or loss. In an export transaction, the exporter is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of controlled substances by their agent or the common or contract carrier selected pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section within one business day of discovery of such theft or loss, until the shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of export. The registrant must also file a complete and accurate DEA Form 106 with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application within 45 calendar days after discovery of the theft or loss. Thefts and significant losses must be reported whether or not the controlled substances are subsequently recovered or the responsible parties are identified and action taken against them. When determining whether a loss is significant, a registrant should consider, among others, the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The actual quantity of controlled substances lost in relation to the type of business;
</P>
<P>(2) The specific controlled substances lost;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the loss of the controlled substances can be associated with access to those controlled substances by specific individuals, or whether the loss can be attributed to unique activities that may take place involving the controlled substances;
</P>
<P>(4) A pattern of losses over a specific time period, whether the losses appear to be random, and the results of efforts taken to resolve the losses; and, if known,
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the specific controlled substances are likely candidates for diversion;
</P>
<P>(6) Local trends and other indicators of the diversion potential of the missing controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(d) The registrant shall not distribute any controlled substance listed in Schedules II through V as a complimentary sample to any potential or current customer (1) without the prior written request of the customer, (2) to be used only for satisfying the legitimate medical needs of patients of the customer, and (3) only in reasonable quantities. Such request must contain the name, address, and registration number of the customer and the name and quantity of the specific controlled substance desired. The request shall be preserved by the registrant with other records of distribution of controlled substances. In addition, the requirements of part 1305 of the chapter shall be complied with for any distribution of a controlled substance listed in Schedule II. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “customer” includes a person to whom a complimentary sample of a substance is given in order to encourage the prescribing or recommending of the substance by the person. 
</P>
<P>(e) When shipping controlled substances, a registrant is responsible for selecting common or contract carriers which provide adequate security to guard against in-transit losses. When storing controlled substances in a public warehouse, a registrant is responsible for selecting a warehouseman which will provide adequate security to guard against storage losses; wherever possible, the registrant shall store controlled substances in a public warehouse which complies with the requirements set forth in § 1301.72. In addition, the registrant shall employ precautions (e.g., assuring that shipping containers do not indicate that contents are controlled substances) to guard against storage or in-transit losses. 
</P>
<P>(f) When distributing controlled substances through agents (e.g., detailmen), a registrant is responsible for providing and requiring adequate security to guard against theft and diversion while the substances are being stored or handled by the agent or agents. 
</P>
<P>(g) Before the initial distribution of thiafentanil, carfentanil, etorphine hydrochloride and/or diprenorphine to any person, the registrant must verify that the person is authorized to handle the substance(s) by contacting the Drug Enforcement Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) The acceptance of delivery of narcotic substances by a narcotic treatment program shall be made only by a licensed practitioner employed at the facility or other authorized individuals designated in writing. At the time of delivery, the licensed practitioner or other authorized individual designated in writing (excluding persons currently or previously dependent on narcotic drugs), shall sign for the narcotics and place his specific title (if any) on any invoice. Copies of these signed invoices shall be kept by the distributor. 
</P>
<P>(i) Narcotics dispensed or administered at a narcotic treatment program will be dispensed or administered directly to the patient by either (1) the licensed practitioner, (2) a registered nurse under the direction of the licensed practitioner, (3) a licensed practical nurse under the direction of the licensed practitioner, or (4) a pharmacist under the direction of the licensed practitioner. 
</P>
<P>(j) Persons enrolled in any narcotic treatment program (NTP), including those receiving treatment at a mobile NTP, will be required to wait in an area that is physically separated from the narcotic storage and dispensing area by a physical entrance such as a door or other entryway. Patients must wait outside of a mobile NTP component if that conveyance does not have seating or a reception area that is separated from the narcotic storage and dispensing area. This requirement will be enforced by the program practitioner and NTP employees.
</P>
<P>(k) All NTPs, including mobile NTPs, must comply with standards established by the Secretary of Health and Human Services (after consultation with the Administration) respecting the quantities of narcotic drugs which may be provided to persons enrolled in a NTP or mobile NTP for unsupervised use (<I>e.g.,</I> take home or non-directly observed therapy).
</P>
<P>(l) DEA may exercise discretion regarding the degree of security required in NTPs, including mobile NTPs, based on such factors as the location of a program, the number of patients enrolled in a program, and the number of practitioners, staff members, and security guards. Personnel that are authorized to dispense controlled substances for narcotic treatment must ensure proper security measures and patient dosage. Similarly, DEA will consider such factors when evaluating existing security or requiring new security at a narcotic treatment program or mobile NTP.
</P>
<P>(m) Any controlled substances being transported for disposal from the dispensing location of a mobile NTP shall be secured and disposed of in compliance with part 1317, and all other applicable Federal, State, tribal, and local laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(n) A conveyance used as part of a mobile NTP may only be supplied with narcotic drugs by the registered NTP that operates such conveyance. Persons permitted to dispense controlled substances to mobile NTPs shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Receive controlled substances from other mobile NTPs or any other entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Deliver controlled substances to other mobile NTPs or any other entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct reverse distribution of controlled substances on a mobile NTP.
</P>
<P>(o) A reverse distributor shall not employ, as an agent or employee who has access to or influence over controlled substances, any person who has been convicted of any felony offense relating to controlled substances or who, at any time, had an application for registration with the DEA denied, had a DEA registration revoked or suspended, or has surrendered a DEA registration for cause. For purposes of this subsection, “for cause” means in lieu of, or as a consequence of, any Federal or State administrative, civil, or criminal action resulting from an investigation of the individual's handling of controlled substances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7778, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973; 88 FR, June 22, 2023]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1301.74, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.75" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.75   Physical security controls for practitioners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Controlled substances listed in Schedule I shall be stored in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet. 
</P>
<P>(b) Controlled substances listed in Schedules II, III, IV, and V shall be stored in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet. However, pharmacies and institutional practitioners may disperse such substances throughout the stock of noncontrolled substances in such a manner as to obstruct the theft or diversion of the controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(c) Sealed mail-back packages and inner liners collected in accordance with part 1317 of this chapter shall only be stored at the registered location in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or a securely locked room with controlled access, except as authorized by § 1317.80(d).
</P>
<P>(d) This section shall also apply to nonpractitioners authorized to conduct research or chemical analysis under another registration. 
</P>
<P>(e) Thiafentanil, carfentanil, etorphine hydrochloride and diprenorphine shall be stored in a safe or steel cabinet equivalent to a U.S. Government Class V security container.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 3674, Jan. 29, 1974, as amended at 39 FR 17838, May 21, 1974; 54 FR 33674, Aug. 16, 1989; 62 FR 13957, Mar. 24, 1997; 79 FR 53562, Sept. 9, 2014; 81 FR 58839, Aug. 26, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.76" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.76   Other security controls for practitioners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The registrant shall not employ, as an agent or employee who has access to controlled substances, any person who has been convicted of a felony offense relating to controlled substances or who, at any time, had an application for registration with the DEA denied, had a DEA registration revoked or has surrendered a DEA registration for cause. For purposes of this subsection, the term “for cause” means a surrender in lieu of, or as a consequence of, any federal or state administrative, civil or criminal action resulting from an investigation of the individual's handling of controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(b) The registrant shall notify the Field Division Office of the Administration in his area, in writing, of the theft or significant loss of any controlled substances within one business day of discovery of such loss or theft. The registrant must also file a complete and accurate DEA Form 106 with the Administration through DEA's Diversion Control Division secure network application within 45 days after discovery of the theft or loss.   When determining whether a loss is significant, a registrant should consider, among others, the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The actual quantity of controlled substances lost in relation to the type of business;
</P>
<P>(2) The specific controlled substances lost;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the loss of the controlled substances can be associated with access to those controlled substances by specific individuals, or whether the loss can be attributed to unique activities that may take place involving the controlled substances;
</P>
<P>(4) A pattern of losses over a specific time period, whether the losses appear to be random, and the results of efforts taken to resolve the losses; and, if known,
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the specific controlled substances are likely candidates for diversion;
</P>
<P>(6) Local trends and other indicators of the diversion potential of the missing controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the registrant distributes a controlled substance (without being registered as a distributor as permitted in §§ 1301.13(e)(1), 1307.11, 1317.05, and/or 1317.10 of this chapter), he/she shall comply with the requirements imposed on non-practitioners in § 1301.74(a), (b), and (e).
</P>
<P>(d) Central fill pharmacies must comply with § 1301.74(e) when selecting private, common or contract carriers to transport filled prescriptions to a retail pharmacy for delivery to the ultimate user. When central fill pharmacies contract with private, common or contract carriers to transport filled prescriptions to a retail pharmacy, the central fill pharmacy is responsible for reporting in-transit losses upon discovery of such loss by use of a DEA Form 106. Retail pharmacies must comply with § 1301.74(e) when selecting private, common or contract carriers to retrieve filled prescriptions from a central fill pharmacy. When retail pharmacies contract with private, common or contract carriers to retrieve filled prescriptions from a central fill pharmacy, the retail pharmacy is responsible for reporting in-transit losses upon discovery of such loss by use of a DEA Form 106.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7778, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18731, Sept. 21, 1971; 37 FR 15919, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973; 47 FR 41735, Sept. 22, 1982; 56 FR 36728, Aug. 1, 1991; 62 FR 13957, Mar. 24, 1997; 68 FR 37409, June 24, 2003; 70 FR 47097, Aug. 12, 2005; 79 FR 53562, Sept. 9, 2014; 88 FR 40712, June 22, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.77" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.77   Security controls for freight forwarding facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All Schedule II-V controlled substances that will be temporarily stored at the freight forwarding facility must be either:
</P>
<P>(1) stored in a segregated area under constant observation by designated responsible individual(s); or
</P>
<P>(2) stored in a secured area that meets the requirements of Section 1301.72(b) of this Part. For purposes of this requirement, a facility that may be locked down (<I>i.e.,</I> secured against physical entry in a manner consistent with requirements of Section 1301.72(b)(3)(ii) of this part) and has a monitored alarm system or is subject to continuous monitoring by security personnel will be deemed to meet the requirements of Section 1301.72(b)(3) of this Part.
</P>
<P>(b) Access to controlled substances must be kept to an absolute minimum number of specifically authorized individuals. Non-authorized individuals may not be present in or pass through controlled substances storage areas without adequate observation provided by an individual authorized in writing by the registrant.
</P>
<P>(c) Controlled substances being transferred through a freight forwarding facility must be packed in sealed, unmarked shipping containers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44678, July 19, 2000; 65 FR 45829, July 25, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.78-1301.79" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.78-1301.79   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.80" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.7.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.80   Security controls for emergency medical services agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Secured Storage Locations.</I> A registered emergency medical services agency may store controlled substances at any of the following secured locations:
</P>
<P>(1) A registered location of the agency;
</P>
<P>(2) A designated location of the agency 30 days following notification to DEA in accordance with § 1301.20;
</P>
<P>(3) In an emergency medical services vehicle situated at a registered location or designated location of the agency; or
</P>
<P>(4) In an emergency medical services vehicle used by the agency that is traveling from, or returning to, a registered location or designated location of the agency while responding to an emergency, or when the emergency medical services vehicle is actively in use by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vehicle Locking Requirements.</I> An emergency medical services vehicle storing controlled substances must be locked when parked outside of an enclosed registered or designated location, or when it is actively in use and left unattended during non-emergency stops. An emergency medical services vehicle storing controlled substances does not need to be locked only if:
</P>
<P>(1) It is parked within an enclosed registered or designated location;
</P>
<P>(2) It is at the scene of an emergency; or
</P>
<P>(3) Emergency services personnel are in attendance. This includes situations when personnel are physically present and able to monitor the vehicle; such as when the vehicle is traveling to or from the scene of an emergency, or it is at public displays or educational events.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Storage Components.</I> Except when emergency medical services personnel are carrying controlled substances on their person or in a jump bag as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, a registered emergency medical services agency must store controlled substances in a storage component that is identified as:
</P>
<P>(1) A securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or safe that cannot be readily removed; which is located at a secured location specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) An automated dispensing machine as defined in § 1300.01; which is
</P>
<P>(i) Located at a secured location specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Installed and operated by the emergency medical services agency;
</P>
<P>(iii) Not used to directly dispense controlled substances to an ultimate user; and is
</P>
<P>(iv) In compliance with the requirements of State law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Carrying Controlled Substances During Emergencies.</I> Emergency medical services agency personnel may <I>carry</I> controlled substances on their person or in a jump bag instead of storing the controlled substances in a safe when responding to an emergency. The controlled substances must be returned to a storage component as described in paragraph (c) of this section when emergency medical services agency personnel are not currently engaged in responding to an emergency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5240, Feb. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employee Screening—Non-Practitioners</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.90" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.8.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.90   Employee screening procedures.</HEAD>
<P>It is the position of DEA that the obtaining of certain information by non-practitioners is vital to fairly assess the likelihood of an employee committing a drug security breach. The need to know this information is a matter of business necessity, essential to overall controlled substances security. In this regard, it is believed that conviction of crimes and unauthorized use of controlled substances are activities that are proper subjects for inquiry. It is, therefore, assumed that the following questions will become a part of an employer's comprehensive employee screening program:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Question.</I> Within the past five years, have you been convicted of a felony, or within the past two years, of any misdemeanor or are you presently formally charged with committing a criminal offense? (Do not include any traffic violations, juvenile offenses or military convictions, except by general court-martial.) If the answer is yes, furnish details of conviction, offense, location, date and sentence. 
</P>
<P><I>Question.</I> In the past three years, have you ever knowingly used any narcotics, amphetamines or barbiturates, other than those prescribed to you by a physician? If the answer is yes, furnish details. 
</P>
<P><I>Advice.</I> An authorization, in writing, that allows inquiries to be made of courts and law enforcement agencies for possible pending charges or convictions must be executed by a person who is allowed to work in an area where access to controlled substances clearly exists. A person must be advised that any false information or omission of information will jeopardize his or her position with respect to employment. The application for employment should inform a person that information furnished or recovered as a result of any inquiry will not necessarily preclude employment, but will be considered as part of an overall evaluation of the person's qualifications. The maintaining of fair employment practices, the protection of the person's right of privacy, and the assurance that the results of such inquiries will be treated by the employer in confidence will be explained to the employee.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 17143, Apr. 17, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.91" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.8.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.91   Employee responsibility to report drug diversion.</HEAD>
<P>Reports of drug diversion by fellow employees is not only a necessary part of an overall employee security program but also serves the public interest at large. It is, therefore, the position of DEA that an employee who has knowledge of drug diversion from his employer by a fellow employee has an obligation to report such information to a responsible security official of the employer. The employer shall treat such information as confidential and shall take all reasonable steps to protect the confidentiality of the information and the identity of the employee furnishing information. A failure to report information of drug diversion will be considered in determining the feasibility of continuing to allow an employee to work in a drug security area. The employer shall inform all employees concerning this policy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 17143, Apr. 17, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.92" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.8.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.92   Illicit activities by employees.</HEAD>
<P>It is the position of DEA that employees who possess, sell, use or divert controlled substances will subject themselves not only to State or Federal prosecution for any illicit activity, but shall also immediately become the subject of independent action regarding their continued employment. The employer will assess the seriousness of the employee's violation, the position of responsibility held by the employee, past record of employment, etc., in determining whether to suspend, transfer, terminate or take other action against the employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 17143, Apr. 17, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.93" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.2.0.8.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.93   Sources of information for employee checks.</HEAD>
<P>DEA recommends that inquiries concerning employees' criminal records be made as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Local inquiries.</I> Inquiries should be made by name, date and place of birth, and other identifying information, to local courts and law enforcement agencies for records of pending charges and convictions. Local practice may require such inquiries to be made in person, rather than by mail, and a copy of an authorization from the employee may be required by certain law enforcement agencies. 
</P>
<P><I>DEA inquiries.</I> Inquiries supplying identifying information should also be furnished to DEA Field Division Offices along with written consent from the concerned individual for a check of DEA files for records of convictions. The Regional check will result in a national check being made by the Field Division Office.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 17143, Apr. 17, 1975, as amended at 47 FR 41735, Sept. 22, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1302" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1302—LABELING AND PACKAGING REQUIREMENTS FOR CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 825, 871(b), 958(e).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 7785, Apr. 24, 1971, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1302.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.01   Scope of part 1302.</HEAD>
<P>Requirements governing the labeling and packaging of controlled substances pursuant to sections 1305 and 1008(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 825 and 958(d)) are set forth generally by those sections and specifically by the sections of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1302.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1302.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.03   Symbol required; exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each commercial container of a controlled substance (except for a controlled substance excepted by the Administrator pursuant to § 1308.31 of this chapter) shall have printed on the label the symbol designating the schedule in which such controlled substance is listed. Each such commercial container, if it otherwise has no label, must bear a label complying with the requirement of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each manufacturer shall print upon the labeling of each controlled substance distributed by him the symbol designating the schedule in which such controlled substance is listed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The following symbols shall designate the schedule corresponding thereto:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">Schedule</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schedule I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CI or C-I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schedule II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CII or C-II.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schedule III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CIII or C-III.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schedule IV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CIV or C-IV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schedule V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CV or C-V.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>The word “schedule” need not be used. No distinction need be made between narcotic and nonnarcotic substances. 
</FP>
<P>(d) The symbol is not required on a carton or wrapper in which a commercial container is held if the symbol is easily legible through such carton or wrapper. 
</P>
<P>(e) The symbol is not required on a commercial container too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label, if the symbol is printed on the box or package from which the commercial container is removed upon dispensing to an ultimate user. 
</P>
<P>(f) The symbol is not required on a commercial container containing, or on the labeling of, a controlled substance being utilized in clinical research involving blind and double blind studies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7785, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18731, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1302.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.04   Location and size of symbol on label and labeling.</HEAD>
<P>The symbol shall be prominently located on the label or the labeling of the commercial container and/or the panel of the commercial container normally displayed to dispensers of any controlled substance. The symbol on labels shall be clear and large enough to afford easy identification of the schedule of the controlled substance upon inspection without removal from the dispenser's shelf. The symbol on all other labeling shall be clear and large enough to afford prompt identification of the controlled substance upon inspection of the labeling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1302.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.05   Effective dates of labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>All labels on commercial containers of, and all labeling of, a controlled substance which either is transferred to another schedule or is added to any schedule shall comply with the requirements of § 1302.03, on or before the effective date established in the final order for the transfer or addition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1302.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.06   Sealing of controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>On each bottle, multiple dose vial, or other commercial container of any controlled substance, there shall be securely affixed to the stopper, cap, lid, covering, or wrapper or such container a seal to disclose upon inspection any tampering or opening of the container.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1302.07" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.07   Labeling and packaging requirements for imported and exported substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The symbol requirements of §§ 1302.03 through 1302.05 apply to every commercial container containing, and to all labeling of, controlled substances imported into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or imported into the United States from any place outside thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) The symbol requirements of §§ 1302.03 through 1302.05 do not apply to any commercial containers containing, or any labeling of, a controlled substance intended for export.
</P>
<P>(c) The sealing requirements of § 1302.06 apply to every bottle, multiple dose vial, or other commercial container of any controlled substance listed in schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in schedule III or IV imported into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or imported into the United States from any place outside thereof. The sealing requirements of § 1302.06 apply to every bottle, multiple dose vial, or other commercial container of any controlled substance listed in schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in schedule III or IV, exported or intended for export from the United States. These sealing and labeling requirements are in addition to any sealing requirements required under applicable customs laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97020, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1302.08" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.3.0.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1302.08   False labeling of anabolic steroids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It shall be unlawful to import, export, manufacture, distribute, dispense, or possess with intent to manufacture, distribute, or dispense, an anabolic steroid or product containing an anabolic steroid, unless the steroid or product bears a label clearly identifying an anabolic steroid or product containing an anabolic steroid by the nomenclature used by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A product described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is exempt from the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry nomenclature requirement of this section if such product is labeled in the manner required under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) A product is described in this paragraph (b)(2) if the product—
</P>
<P>(i) Is the subject of an approved application as described in section 505(b) or (j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(b), (j)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is exempt from the provisions of section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act relating to new drugs because—
</P>
<P>(A) It is intended solely for investigational use as described in section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such product is being used exclusively for purposes of a clinical trial that is the subject of an effective investigational new drug application.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 50040, Aug. 1, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1303" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1303—QUOTAS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 826, 871(b). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV7 N="9" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.01   Scope of part 1303.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures governing the establishment of production and manufacturing quotas on basic classes of controlled substances listed in schedules I and II pursuant to section 306 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 826) are governed generally by that section and specifically by the sections of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.03   Types of quotas.</HEAD>
<P>The three types of quotas are:
</P>
<P>(a) Aggregate production quotas, which establish the total quantity of each basic class of schedules I and II controlled substances that may be produced by all manufacturers in a calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) Individual manufacturing quotas, which establish the maximum quantity of each basic class of schedules I and II controlled substances that a registered manufacturer may manufacture during a calendar year. This type of quota is only issued to DEA-registered bulk manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(c) Procurement quotas, which establish the maximum quantity of each basic class of schedules I and II controlled substances that a registered manufacturer may procure during a calendar year for the purpose of manufacturing into dosage-forms or other substances.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60139, Aug. 31, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.04   Subcategories of manufacturing and procurement quotas.</HEAD>
<P>The five subcategories of manufacturing and procurement quotas are:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Quota for commercial sale.</I> This is a quota for the amount of bulk active pharmaceutical ingredients (API) initially acquired by a registrant for the manufacture of approved schedule I or II controlled substance drug products by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and bulk API acquired by outsourcing facilities, manufacturers, etc. This quota category is used to capture bulk API moving from a bulk manufacturer to other registered manufacturers for their commercial manufacturing efforts. This type of quota may only be used to support commercial manufacturing efforts and may not be used to support other manufacturing efforts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quota for transfer.</I> This is a quota for the amount of material moved upstream from one registrant to another and does not include material captured under procurement quota for commercial sale. Examples include:
</P>
<P>(1) Bulk API being transferred back to the original registrant after milling;
</P>
<P>(2) Transfer of in-process material or finished dosage-forms for additional manufacturing efforts (coating, beading, encapsulation, and so forth) back to the preceding registrant; and
</P>
<P>(3) Return of material after the specified manufacturing activity has been completed or return of rejected material to the upstream manufacturer for destruction or additional processing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quota for product development.</I> This is a quota for the amount of material needed for product development and validation of manufacturing efforts. This quota is limited to that activity <I>only</I> and only for the development efforts noted in the application; it shall not be used or substituted for commercial production or the development of a different product. This quota is issued with the understanding that this material is not intended for commercial use, with the exception of post-FDA approved validation batches. Validation batches shall be noted specifically in an application and shall be considered product development material that will be taken into account for net disposal once a product is FDA-approved for commercial sale. No inventory will be granted for these efforts, nor will replacement quota be considered for destroyed material issued under this quota subcategory.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quota for replacement.</I> This is a type of individual manufacturing quota or procurement quota that is granted to a registrant after the registrant disposes of material that was initially intended for commercial sale, but for some reason was unable to be marketed. This quota is separate and shall not count against a registrant's other issued quota. Replacement quota will be granted on a case-by-case basis. The merits of the request will be determined by the specifics of the registrant's justification and situation. DEA will review the submitted DEA Form 41 or DEA Form 222 documenting the destruction of the controlled substance and evaluate the justification for the destruction to determine if replacement quota is warranted and whether or not the destroyed material is required to meet the legitimate demand of the market. Replacement quota is intended to replace material from the current quota year and not a means to replace disposed samples, analytical samples, product development material, or inventory acquired under previous quota years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quota for packaging/repackaging and labeling/relabeling.</I> This is the quota for the amount of material moved to a registrant to undergo packaging and labeling activities. This quota is limited to that activity <I>only</I> and only for the packaging/repackaging and labeling/relabeling noted in the application; it may not be used or substituted for commercial production. Packaging/repackaging and labeling/relabeling quota is intended for tracking of schedules I and II controlled substances as they undergo packaging/labeling activities; however, packaging/repackaging and labeling/relabeling quotas shall not be counted against the aggregate production quotas.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60139, Aug. 31, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.05   Estimation of Diversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In establishing any quota under the sections in this part for a covered controlled substance, the Administrator shall estimate the amount of diversion of the covered controlled substance that occurs in the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) In estimating diversion under the sections in this part, the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall consider information the Administrator, in consultation with the Secretary of Health and Human Services, determines reliable on rates of overdose deaths and abuse and overall public health impact related to the covered controlled substance in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) May take into consideration whatever other sources of information the Administrator determines reliable.
</P>
<P>(c) After estimating the amount of diversion of a covered controlled substance, the Administrator shall make appropriate quota reductions, as determined by the Administrator, from the quota the Administrator would have otherwise established had such diversion not been considered.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this Part, the term “covered controlled substances” refers to fentanyl, oxycodone, hydrocodone, oxymorphone, and hydromorphone.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60139, Aug. 31, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Aggregate Production Quotas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.10.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.11   Aggregate production quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall determine the total quantity of each basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II necessary to be manufactured during the following calendar year to provide for the estimated medical, scientific, research and industrial needs of the United States, for lawful export requirements, and for the establishment and maintenance of reserve stocks. The Administrator may establish an aggregate production quota in terms of pharmaceutical dosage-forms prepared from or containing the schedule I or II controlled substance, if he determines it will assist in avoiding the overproduction, shortages, or diversion of a controlled substance.


</P>
<P>(b) In making his determinations, the Administrator shall consider the following factors: 
</P>
<P>(1) Total net disposal of the class by all manufacturers during the current and 2 preceding years; 
</P>
<P>(2) Trends in the national rate of net disposal of the class; 
</P>
<P>(3) Total actual (or estimated) inventories of the class and of all substances manufactured from the class, and trends in inventory accumulation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Projected demand for such class as indicated by procurement quotas requested pursuant to § 1303.12; 
</P>
<P>(5) The extent of any diversion of the controlled substance in the class;
</P>
<P>(6) Relevant information obtained from the Department of Health and Human Services, including from the Food and Drug Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, and relevant information obtained from the states; and
</P>
<P>(7) Other factors affecting medical, scientific, research, and industrial needs in the United States and lawful export requirements, as the Administrator finds relevant, including changes in the currently accepted medical use in treatment with the class or the substances which are manufactured from it, the economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes, yield and stability problems, potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes), and recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator shall, on or before September 1 of each year, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> general notice of an aggregate production quota for any basic class determined by him under this section. A copy of said notice shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a bulk manufacturer of the basic class and transmitted to each state attorney general. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the proposal and shall designate in the notice the time during which such filings may be made. The Administrator may, but shall not be required to, hold a public hearing on one or more issues raised by the comments and objections filed with him, except that the Administrator shall hold a hearing if he determines it is necessary to resolve an issue of material fact raised by a state objecting to the proposed quantity for the class as excessive for legitimate United States' needs. In the event the Administrator decides to hold a hearing, he shall publish notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> which notice shall summarize the issues to be heard and shall set the time for the hearing, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of publication of the notice. After consideration of any comments or objections, or after a hearing if one is ordered by the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his final order determining the aggregate production quota for the basic class of controlled substances. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. A copy of said order shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a bulk manufacturer of the basic class and transmitted to each state attorney general.


</P>
<P>(d) For any year for which the approved aggregate production quota for a covered controlled substance, as defined in § 1303.05(d), is higher than the approved aggregate production quota for the covered controlled substance for the previous year, the Administrator, in consultation with the Secretary of Health and Human Services, shall include in the final order an explanation of why the public health benefits of increasing the quota clearly outweigh the consequences of having an increased volume of the covered controlled substance available for sale, and potential diversion, in the United States.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15919, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973; 77 FR 4235, Jan. 27, 2012; 83 FR 32789, July 16, 2018; 88 FR 60140, Aug. 31, 2023] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.10.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.12   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.13   Adjustments of aggregate production quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may at any time increase or reduce the aggregate production quota for a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II which he has previously fixed pursuant to § 1303.11. 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining to adjust the aggregate production quota, the Administrator shall consider the following factors: 
</P>
<P>(1) Changes in the demand for that class, changes in the national rate of net disposal of the class, changes in the rate of net disposal of the class by registrants holding individual manufacturing quotas for that class, and changes in the extent of any diversion in the class;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether any increased demand for that class, the national and/or individual rates of net disposal of that class are temporary, short term, or long term; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether any increased demand for that class can be met through existing inventories, increased individual manufacturing quotas, or increased importation, without increasing the aggregate production quota, taking into account production delays and the probability that other individual manufacturing quotas may be suspended pursuant to § 1303.24(b); 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether any decreased demand for that class will result in excessive inventory accumulation by all persons registered to handle that class (including manufacturers, distributors, practitioners, importers, and exporters), notwithstanding the possibility that individual manufacturing quotas may be suspended pursuant to § 1303.24(b) or abandoned pursuant to § 1303.27; 
</P>
<P>(5) Other factors affecting medical, scientific, research, and industrial needs in the United States and lawful export requirements, as the Administrator finds relevant, including changes in the currently accepted medical use in treatment with the class or the substances which are manufactured from it, the economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes, yield and stability problems, potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes), and recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator in the event he determines to increase or reduce the aggregate production quota for a basic class of controlled substance, shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> general notice of an adjustment in the aggregate production quota for that class determined by him under this section. A copy of said notice shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a bulk manufacturer of the basic class and transmitted to each state attorney general. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the proposal and shall designate in the notice the time during which such filings may be made. The Administrator may, but shall not be required to, hold a public hearing on one or more issues raised by the comments and objections filed with him, except that the Administrator shall hold a hearing if he determines it is necessary to resolve an issue of material fact raised by a state objecting to the proposed adjusted quota as excessive for legitimate United States' needs. In the event the Administrator decides to hold a hearing, he shall publish notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> which notice shall summarize the issues to be heard and shall set the time for the hearing, which shall not be less than 10 days after the date of publication of the notice. After consideration of any comments or objections, or after a hearing if one is ordered by the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his final order determining the aggregate production for the basic class of controlled substance. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. A copy of said order shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a bulk manufacturer of the basic class and transmitted to each state attorney general.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 15919, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973; 83 FR 32790, July 16, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.11" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procurement Quotas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.15   Procurement quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to determine the estimated needs for, and to insure an adequate and uninterrupted supply of, basic classes of controlled substances listed in Schedules I and II (except raw opium being imported by the registrant pursuant to an import permit) the Administrator shall issue procurement quotas authorizing persons to procure and use quantities of each basic class of such substances for the purpose of manufacturing such class into dosage forms or into other substances. 

 The Administrator may establish a procurement quota in terms of pharmaceutical dosage-forms prepared from or containing the schedule I or II controlled substance, if they determine it will assist in avoiding the overproduction, shortages, or diversion of a controlled substance.




</P>
<P>(b) Any person who is registered to manufacture controlled substances listed in any schedule and who desires to use during the next calendar year any basic class of controlled substances listed in schedule I or II (except raw opium being imported by the registrant pursuant to an import permit) for purposes of manufacturing, shall apply on DEA Form 250 for procurement quota and shall state separately for each subcategory, as defined in 21 CFR 1303.04, each quantity of such basic class. 

 A separate application must be made for each basic class desired to be procured or used. 

The applicant shall state whether he intends to manufacture the basic class himself or purchase it from another manufacturer.

 The applicant shall state separately each purpose for which the basic class is desired, the quantity desired for that purpose during the next calendar year, and the quantities used and estimated to be used, if any, for that purpose during the current and preceding 2 calendar years.

 If the purpose is to manufacture the basic class into dosage form, the applicant shall state the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name of that form. The Administrator may require additional information from an applicant which, in the Administrator's judgment, may be helpful in detecting or preventing diversion, including customer identities and amounts of the controlled substance sold to each customer.



If the purpose is to manufacture another substance, the applicant shall state the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name of the substance, and, if a controlled substance listed in any schedule, the schedule number and Administration Controlled Substances Code Number, as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, of the substance. If the purpose is to manufacture another basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, the applicant shall also state the quantity of the other basic class which the applicant has applied to manufacture pursuant to § 1303.22 and the quantity of the first basic class necessary to manufacture a specified unit of the second basic class. DEA Form 250 shall be filed on or before April 1 of the year preceding the calendar year for which the procurement quota is being applied. Copies of DEA Form 250 may be obtained from, and shall be filed with, the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator shall, on or before December 1 of the year preceding the calendar year during which the quota shall be effective, issue to each qualified applicant a procurement quota authorizing him to procure and use: 
</P>
<P>(1) All quantities of such class necessary to manufacture all quantities of other basic classes of controlled substances listed in Schedules I and II which the applicant is authorized to manufacture pursuant to § 1303.23; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Such other quantities of such class as the applicant has applied to procure and use and are consistent with his past use, his estimated needs, and the total quantity of such class that will be produced. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person to whom a procurement quota has been issued may at any time request an adjustment in the quota by applying to the Administrator with a statement showing the need for the adjustment. Such application shall be filed with the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The Administrator shall increase or decrease the procurement quota of such person if and to the extent that he finds, after considering the factors enumerated in paragraph (c) of this section and any occurrences since the issuance of the procurement quota, that the need justifies an adjustment.
</P>
<P>(e) The following persons need not obtain a procurement quota: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who is registered to manufacture a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II and who uses all of the quantity he manufactures in the manufacture of a substance not controlled under the Act; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who is registered or authorized to conduct chemical analysis with controlled substances (for controlled substances to be used in such analysis only); and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any person who is registered to conduct research with a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II and who is authorized to manufacture a quantity of such class pursuant to § 1301.13 of this chapter. 


</P>
<P>(f) Any person to whom a procurement quota has been issued, authorizing that person to procure and use a quantity of a basic class of controlled substances listed in Schedules I or II during the current calendar year, shall, at or before the time of giving an order to another manufacturer requiring the distribution of a quantity of such basic class, certify in writing to such other registrant that the quantity of such basic class ordered does not exceed the person's unused and available procurement quota of such basic class for the current calendar year. The written certification shall be executed by the same individual who signed the DEA Form 222 transmitting the order. A registrant shall not fill an order from persons required to apply for a procurement quota under paragraph (b) of this section unless the order is accompanied by a certification as required under this section. The certification required by this section shall contain the following: The date of the certification; the name and address of the registrant to whom the certification is directed; a reference to the number of the DEA Form 222 to which the certification applies; the name of the person giving the order to which the certification applies; the name of the basic class specified in the DEA Form 222 to which the certification applies; the appropriate schedule within which is listed the basic class specified in the DEA Form 222 to which the certification applies; a statement that the quantity (expressed in grams) of the basic class specified in the DEA Form 222 to which the certification applies does not exceed the unused and available procurement quota of such basic class, issued to the person giving the order, for the current calendar year; and the signature of the individual who signed the DEA Form 222 to which the certification applies.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. Redesignated and amended at 88 FR 60140, Aug. 31, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.16" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.16   Inventory allowance for procurement quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of determining procurement quotas pursuant to § 1303.15, each registered manufacturer shall be allowed as part of such quota an amount sufficient to maintain an inventory:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, for current manufacturers, 35 percent of their average estimated net disposal for the current calendar year and the last preceding calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, for new manufacturers, 35 percent of their reasonably estimated net disposal for the next calendar year as determined by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(3) For current liquid injectable dosage-form manufacturers, 50 percent of their average estimated net disposal for the current calendar year and the last preceding calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(4) For new liquid injectable dosage-form manufacturers, 50 percent of their reasonably estimated net disposal for the next calendar year as determined by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during each calendar year, each registered manufacturer receiving a procurement quota shall be allowed to maintain an inventory of a basic class not exceeding 50 percent of his estimated net disposal of that class for that year, as determined at the time their quota for that year was determined. At any time the inventory of a basic class held by a manufacturer exceeds 50 percent of their estimated net disposal, their quota for that class is automatically suspended and shall remain suspended until his inventory is less than 45 percent of their estimated net disposal. The Administrator may, upon application and for good cause shown, permit a manufacturer whose quota is, or is likely to be, suspended pursuant to this paragraph to continue manufacturing and to accumulate an inventory in excess of 50 percent of their estimated net disposal, upon such conditions and within such limitations as the Administrator may find necessary or desirable.
</P>
<P>(c) For liquid injectable dosage-forms, each registered manufacturer receiving a procurement quota shall be allowed to maintain an inventory of a basic class not exceeding 65 percent of their estimated net disposal of that class for that year during each calendar year, as determined at the time their quota for that year was determined. At any time the inventory of a basic class held by a manufacturer exceeds 65 percent of their estimated net disposal, their quota for that class is automatically suspended and shall remain suspended until their inventory is less than 60 percent of his estimated net disposal. The Administrator may, upon application and for good cause shown, permit a manufacturer whose quota is, or is likely to be, suspended pursuant to this paragraph to continue manufacturing and to accumulate an inventory in excess of 65 percent of their estimated net disposal, upon such conditions and within such limitations as the Administrator may find necessary or desirable.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if, during a calendar year, a registrant has procured the entire quantity of a basic class allocated to him under an individual procurement quota, and their inventory of that class is less than 25 percent of his estimated net disposal of that class for that year, the Administrator may, upon application pursuant to § 1303.15(d), increase the quota of such registrant sufficiently to allow restoration of the inventory to 35 percent of the estimated net disposal for that year.
</P>
<P>(e) For liquid injectable dosage-forms, if, during a calendar year, a registrant has procured the entire quantity of a basic class allocated to them under an individual procurement quota, and their inventory of that class is less than 40 percent of their estimated net disposal of that class for that year, the Administrator may, upon application pursuant to § 1303.15(d), increase the quota of such registrant sufficiently to allow restoration of the inventory to 50 percent of the estimated net disposal for that year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60141, Aug. 31, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.17" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.17   Abandonment of procurement quota.</HEAD>
<P>Any manufacturer assigned a procurement quota for any basic class of controlled substance listed in schedule I or II pursuant to § 1303.12 may at any time abandon their right to manufacture all or any part of such quota by filing a notice of such abandonment with the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration in the online Quota Management System. The Administrator may, in their discretion, allocate such amount among the other manufacturers in proportion to their respective quotas.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60141, Aug. 31, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Individual Manufacturing Quotas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.21   Individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall, on or before December 1 of each year, fix for and issue to each person who is registered to manufacture a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, and who applies for a manufacturing quota, an individual manufacturing quota authorizing that person to manufacture during the next calendar year a quantity of that basic class. The Administrator may establish an individual manufacturing quota in terms of pharmaceutical dosage-forms prepared from or containing the schedule I or II controlled substance, if they determine it will assist in avoiding the overproduction, shortages, or diversion of a controlled substance. Any manufacturing quota fixed and issued by the Administrator shall be subject to his authority to reduce or limit it at a later date pursuant to § 1303.26 and to his authority to revoke or suspend it at any time pursuant to § 1301.36 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) No individual manufacturing quota shall be required for registrants listed in § 1303.12(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997; 83 FR32790, July 16, 2018;  88 FR 60141, Aug. 31, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.22   Procedure for applying for individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who is registered to manufacture any basic class of controlled substance listed in schedule I or II and who desires to manufacture a quantity of such class shall apply on DEA Form 189 for a manufacturing quota and shall state separately for each subcategory, as defined in § 1303.04, each quantity of such class. 

 Copies of DEA Form 189 may be obtained from, and shall be filed (on or before May 1 of the year preceding the calendar year for which the manufacturing quota is being applied) with, the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A separate application must be made for each basic class desired to be manufactured. The applicant shall state:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and Administration Controlled Substances Code Number, as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, of the basic class. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the basic class in each of the current and preceding 2 calendar years, 
</P>
<P>(1) The authorized individual manufacturing quota, if any; 
</P>
<P>(2) The actual or estimated quantity manufactured; 
</P>
<P>(3) The actual or estimated net disposal; 
</P>
<P>(4) The actual or estimated inventory allowance pursuant to § 1303.24; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The actual or estimated inventory as of December 31; 
</P>
<P>(c) For the basic class in the next calendar year, 
</P>
<P>(1) The desired individual manufacturing quota; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any additional factors which the applicant finds relevant to the fixing of his individual manufacturing quota, including the trend of (and recent changes in) his and the national rates of net disposal, his production cycle and current inventory position, the economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes, yield and stability problems, potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes) and recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may require additional information from an applicant which, in the Administrator's judgment, may be helpful in detecting or preventing diversion, including customer identities and amounts of the controlled substance sold to each customer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971; 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 46 FR 28841, May 29, 1981; 51 FR 5319, Feb. 13, 1986; 62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10677, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97020, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 32790, July 16, 2018; 88 FR 60141, Aug. 31, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.23   Procedure for fixing individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In fixing individual manufacturing quotas for a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, the Administrator shall allocate to each applicant who is currently manufacturing such class a quota equal to 100 percent of the estimated net disposal of that applicant for the next calendar year, adjusted— 
</P>
<P>(1) By the amount necessary to increase or reduce the estimated inventory of the applicant on December 31 of the current year to his estimated inventory allowance for the next calendar year, pursuant to § 1303.24, and 
</P>
<P>(2) By any other factors which the Administrator deems relevant to the fixing of the individual manufacturing quota of the applicant, including the trend of (and recent changes in) his and the national rates of net disposal, his production cycle and current inventory position, the economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes, yield and stability problems, potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes), the extent of any diversion of the controlled substance, and recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires. 
</P>
<P>(b) In fixing individual manufacturing quotas for a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, the Administrator shall allocate to each applicant who is not currently manufacturing such class a quota equal to 100 percent of the reasonably estimated net disposal of that applicant for the next calendar year, as determined by the Administrator, adjusted— 
</P>
<P>(1) By the amount necessary to provide the applicant his estimated inventory allowance for the next calendar year, pursuant to § 1303.24, and 
</P>
<P>(2) By any other factors which the Administrator deems relevant to the fixing of the individual manufacturing quota of the applicant, including the trend of (and recent changes in) the national rate of net disposal, his production cycle and current inventory position, the economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes, yield and stability problems, potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes), any risk of diversion of the controlled substance, and recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator shall, on or before July 1 of each year, adjust the individual manufacturing quota allocated for that year to each applicant in paragraph (a) of this section by the amount necessary to increase or reduce the actual inventory of the applicant to December 31 of the preceding year to his estimated inventory allowance for the current calendar year, pursuant to § 1303.24.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973; 83 FR 32790, July 16, 2018; 88 FR 60141, Aug. 31, 2023] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.24   Inventory allowance for individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of determining individual manufacturing quotas pursuant to § 1303.23, each registered manufacturer shall be allowed as part of such quota an amount sufficient to maintain an inventory equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) For current manufacturers, 40 percent of their average estimated net disposal for the current calendar year and the last preceding calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(2) For new manufacturers, 40 percent of their reasonably estimated net disposal for the next calendar year as determined by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) During each calendar year, each registered manufacturer shall be allowed to maintain an inventory of a basic class not exceeding 55 percent of their estimated net disposal of that class for that year, as determined at the time their quota for that year was determined. At any time the inventory of a basic class held by a manufacturer exceeds 55 percent of their estimated net disposal, their quota for that class is automatically suspended and shall remain suspended until their inventory is less than 50 percent of their estimated net disposal. The Administrator may, upon application and for good cause shown, permit a manufacturer whose quota is, or is likely to be, suspended pursuant to this paragraph to continue manufacturing and to accumulate an inventory in excess of 55 percent of their estimated net disposal, upon such conditions and within such limitations as the Administrator may find necessary or desirable.
</P>
<P>(c) If, during a calendar year, a registrant has manufactured the entire quantity of a basic class allocated to them under an individual manufacturing quota, and their inventory of that class is less than 30 percent of their estimated net disposal of that class for that year, the Administrator may, upon application pursuant to § 1303.25, increase the quota of such registrant sufficiently to allow restoration of the inventory to 40 percent of the estimated net disposal for that year.</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60142, Aug. 31, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.25   Increase in individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registrant who holds an individual manufacturing quota for a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II may file with the Administrator an application on Administration Form 189 for an increase in such quota in order for him to meet his estimated net disposal, inventory and other requirements during the remainder of such calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator, in passing upon a registrant's application for an increase in his individual manufacturing quota, shall take into consideration any occurrences since the filing of such registrant's initial quota application that may require an increased manufacturing rate by such registrant during the balance of the calendar year. In passing upon such application the Administrator may also take into consideration the amount, if any, by which his determination of the total quantity for the basic class of controlled substance to be manufactured under § 1303.11 exceeds the aggregate of all the individual manufacturing quotas for the basic class of controlled substance, and the equitable distribution of such excess among other registrants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.26   Reduction in individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may at any time reduce an individual manufacturing quota for a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II which he has previously fixed in order to prevent the aggregate of the individual manufacturing quotas and import permits outstanding or to be granted from exceeding the aggregate production quota which has been established for that class pursuant of § 1303.11, as adjusted pursuant to § 1303.13. If a quota assigned to a new manufacturer pursuant to § 1303.23(b), or if a quota assigned to any manufacturer is increased pursuant to § 1303.24(c), or if an import permit issued to an importer pursuant to part 1312 of this chapter, causes the total quantity of a basic class to be manufactured and imported during the year to exceed the aggregate production quota which has been established for that class pursuant to § 1303.11, as adjusted pursuant to § 1303.13, the Administrator may proportionately reduce the individual manufacturing quotas and import permits of all other registrants to keep the aggregate production quota within the limits originally established, or, alternatively, the Administrator may reduce the individual manufacturing quota of any registrant whose quota is suspended pursuant to § 1303.24(b) or § 1301.36 of this chapter, or is abandoned pursuant to § 1303.27.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.12.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.27   Abandonment of quota for Individual Manufacturing Quota.</HEAD>
<P>Any manufacturer assigned an individual manufacturing quota for any basic class of controlled substance listed in schedule I or II pursuant to § 1303.23 may at any time abandon their right to manufacture all or any part of such quota by filing a notice of such abandonment with the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration in the online Quota Management System.



 The Administrator may, in his discretion, allocate such amount among the other manufacturers in proportion to their respective quotas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 46 FR 28841, May 29, 1981; 51 FR 5319, Feb. 13, 1986; 62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997; 88 FR 60142, Aug. 31, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.31   Hearings generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing regarding the determination of an aggregate production quota pursuant to § 1303.11(c), or regarding the adjustment of an aggregate production quota pursuant to § 1303.13(c), the procedures for such hearing shall be governed generally by the rule making procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by section 306 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 826), by §§ 1303.32-1303.37, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Act set forth in §§ 1316.41-1316.67 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing regarding the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of a procurement quota pursuant to § 1303.12, or the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of an individual manufacturing quota pursuant to §§ 1303.21-1303.27, the procedures for such hearing shall be governed generally by the adjudication procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedures Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by section 306 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 826), by §§ 1303.32-1303.37, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Act set forth in §§ 1316.41-1316.67 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.32   Purpose of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may, in his sole discretion, and shall, if determined by the Administrator to be necessary under § 1303.11(c) or 1303.13(c) based on objection by a state, hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding any one or more issues (to be specified by him) involved in the determination or adjustment of any aggregate production quota. 
</P>
<P>(b) If requested by a person applying for or holding a procurement quota or an individual manufacturing quota, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding the issues involved in the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of such quota to such person, but the Administrator need not hold a hearing on the suspension of a quota pursuant to § 1301.36 of this chapter separate from a hearing on the suspension of registration pursuant to those sections. 
</P>
<P>(c) Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997; 83 FR 32790, July 16, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.33   Waiver or modification of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator or the presiding officer (with respect to matters pending before him) may modify or waive any rule in this part by notice in advance of the hearing, if he determines that no party in the hearing will be unduly prejudiced and the ends of justice will thereby be served. Such notice of modification or waiver shall be made a part of the record of the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.34   Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any applicant or registrant who desires a hearing on the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of his procurement and/or individual manufacturing quota shall, within 30 days after the date of receipt of the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of such quota, file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter. Any interested person who desires a hearing on the determination of an aggregate production quota shall, within the time prescribed in § 1303.11(c), file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter, including in the request a statement of the grounds for a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested person who desires to participate in a hearing on the determination or adjustment of an aggregate production quota, which hearing is ordered by the Administrator pursuant to § 1303.11(c) or § 1303.13(c) may do so by filing with the Administrator, within 30 days of the date of publication of notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a written notice of his intention to participate in such hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.48 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person entitled to a hearing or to participate in a hearing pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, may, within the period permitted for filing a request for a hearing of notice of appearance, file with the Administrator a waiver of an opportunity for a hearing or to participate in a hearing, together with a written statement regarding his position on the matters of fact and law involved in such hearing. Such statement, if admissible, shall be made a part of the record and shall be considered in light of the lack of opportunity for cross-examination in determining the weight to be attached to matters of fact asserted therein. 
</P>
<P>(d) If any person entitled to a hearing or to participate in a hearing pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, fails to file a request for a hearing or notice of appearance, or if he so files and fails to appear at the hearing, he shall be deemed to have waived his opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, unless he shows good cause for such failure. 
</P>
<P>(e) If all persons entitled to a hearing or to participate in a hearing waive or are deemed to waive their opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, the Administrator may cancel the hearing, if scheduled, and issue his final order pursuant to § 1303.37 without a hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18731, Sept. 21, 1971; 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.35   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any hearing regarding the determination or adjustment of an aggregate production quota, each interested person participating in the hearing shall have the burden of proving any propositions of fact or law asserted by him in the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) At any hearing regarding the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of a procurement or individual manufacturing quota, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements of this part for such issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial are satisfied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.36" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.36   Time and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any applicant or registrant requests a hearing on the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of his procurement and/or individual manufacturing quota pursuant to § 1303.34, the Administrator shall hold such hearing. Notice of the hearing shall be given to the applicant or registrant of the time and place at least 30 days prior to the hearing, unless the applicant or registrant waives such notice and requests the hearing be held at an earlier time, in which case the Administrator shall fix a date for such hearing as early as reasonably possible. 
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing will commence at the place and time designated in the notice given pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section or in the notice of hearing published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to § 1303.11(c) or § 1303.13 (c), but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement thereof by the presiding officer at the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.37" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.4.0.13.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.37   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue his order on the determination or adjustment of the aggregate production quota or on the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of the procurement quota or individual manufacturing quota, as case may be. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall serve one copy of his order upon each party in the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7786, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1304" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1304—RECORDS AND REPORTS OF REGISTRANTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 823(j), 827, 831, 871(b), 958(e)-(g), and 965, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV7 N="14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.14.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.01   Scope of part 1304.</HEAD>
<P>Inventory and other records and reports required under section 307, section 311, or section 1008(e) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 827, 831, and 958(e)) shall be in accordance with, and contain the information required by, those sections and by the sections of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15623, Apr. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.14.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or § 1300.01, § 1300.03, § 1300.04, or § 1300.05 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97020, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.14.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.03   Persons required to keep records and file reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every registrant, including collectors, shall maintain the records and inventories and shall file the reports required by this part, except as exempted by this section. Any registrant that is authorized to conduct other activities without being registered to conduct those activities, pursuant to §§ 1301.22(b), 1307.11, 1307.13, or part 1317 of this chapter, shall maintain the records and inventories and shall file the reports required by this part for persons registered or authorized to conduct such activities. This latter requirement should not be construed as requiring stocks of controlled substances being used in various activities under one registration to be stored separately, nor that separate records are required for each activity. The intent of the Administration is to permit the registrant to keep one set of records which are adapted by the registrant to account for controlled substances used in any activity. Also, the Administration does not wish to require separate stocks of the same substance to be purchased and stored for separate activities. Otherwise, there is no advantage gained by permitting several activities under one registration. Thus, when a researcher manufactures a controlled item, he must keep a record of the quantity manufactured; when he distributes a quantity of the item, he must use and keep invoices or order forms to document the transfer; when he imports a substance, he keeps as part of his records the documentation required of an importer; and when substances are used in chemical analysis, he need not keep a record of this because such a record would not be required of him under a registration to do chemical analysis. All of these records may be maintained in one consolidated record system. Similarly, the researcher may store all of his controlled items in one place, and every two years take inventory of all items on hand, regardless of whether the substances were manufactured by him, imported by him, or purchased domestically by him, of whether the substances will be administered to subjects, distributed to other researchers, or destroyed during chemical analysis. 
</P>
<P>(b) A registered individual practitioner is required to keep records, as described in § 1304.04, of controlled substances in Schedules II, III, IV, and V which are dispensed, other than by prescribing or administering in the lawful course of professional practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in § 1304.06, a registered individual practitioner is not required to keep records of controlled substances in Schedules II, III, IV, and V that are prescribed in the lawful course of professional practice, unless such substances are prescribed in the course of maintenance or detoxification treatment of an individual.
</P>
<P>(d) A registered individual practitioner is not required to keep records of controlled substances listed in Schedules II, III, IV and V which are administered in the lawful course of professional practice unless the practitioner regularly engages in the dispensing or administering of controlled substances and charges patients, either separately or together with charges for other professional services, for substances so dispensed or administered. Records are required to be kept for controlled substances administered in the course of maintenance or detoxification treatment of an individual.
</P>
<P>(e) Each registered mid-level practitioner shall maintain in a readily retrievable manner those documents required by the state in which he/she practices which describe the conditions and extent of his/her authorization to dispense controlled substances and shall make such documents available for inspection and copying by authorized employees of the Administration. Examples of such documentation include protocols, practice guidelines or practice agreements.
</P>
<P>(f) Registered persons using any controlled substances while conducting preclinical research, in teaching at a registered establishment which maintains records with respect to such substances or conducting research in conformity with an exemption granted under section 505(i) or 512(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(i) or 360b(j)) at a registered establishment which maintains records in accordance with either of those sections, are not required to keep records if he/she notifies the Administration of the name, address, and registration number of the establishment maintaining such records. This notification shall be given at the time the person applies for registration or reregistration and shall be made in the form of an attachment to the application, which shall be filed with the application.
</P>
<P>(g) A distributing registrant who utilizes a freight forwarding facility shall maintain records to reflect transfer of controlled substances through the facility. These records must contain the date, time of transfer, number of cartons, crates, drums or other packages in which commercial containers of controlled substances are shipped and authorized signatures for each transfer. A distributing registrant may, as part of the initial request to operate a freight forwarding facility, request permission to store records at a central location. Approval of the request to maintain central records would be implicit in the approval of the request to operate the facility. Otherwise, a request to maintain records at a central location must be submitted in accordance with § 1304.04 of this part. These records must be maintained for a period of two years.
</P>
<P>(h) A person is required to keep the records and file the reports specified in § 1304.06 and part 1311 of this chapter if they are either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An electronic prescription application provider.
</P>
<P>(2) An electronic pharmacy application provider.
</P>
<P>(i) For each emergency medical services professional employed by a registered emergency services agency, the registered agency must maintain in a readily retrievable manner those documents (as required by the State in which an emergency medical services professional practices), which describe the conditions and extent of the professional's authorization to dispense controlled substances, and must make such documents available for inspection and copying by authorized employees of the Administration. Examples of such documentation include protocols, practice guidelines, or practice agreements.
</P>
<P>(j) A registered emergency medical services agency shall maintain records, as described in § 1304.27, of all controlled substances that are received, administered, or otherwise disposed of pursuant to the agency's registration.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7790, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18731, Sept. 21, 1971; 37 FR 15920, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 50 FR 40523, Oct. 4, 1985; 51 FR 5320, Feb. 13, 1986; 51 FR 26154, July 21, 1986; 58 FR 31175, June 1, 1993; 62 FR 13958, Mar. 24, 1997; 65 FR 44679, July 19, 2000; 75 FR 16306, Mar. 31, 2010; 77 FR 4235, Jan. 27, 2012; 79 FR 53562, Sept. 9, 2014; 91 FR 5240, Feb. 5, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.14.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.04   Maintenance of records and inventories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, every inventory and other record required to be kept under this part must be kept by the registrant and be available for inspection and copying by authorized employees of the Administration, for at least 2 years from the date of such inventory or record.


</P>
<P>(1) Financial and shipping records (such as invoices and packing slips but not executed order forms subject to §§ 1305.17 and 1305.27 of this chapter) may be kept at a central location, rather than at the registered location, if the registrant has notified the Administration of his intention to keep central records. Written notification must be submitted by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, in triplicate, to the Special Agent in Charge of the Administration in the area in which the registrant is located. Unless the registrant is informed by the Special Agent in Charge that permission to keep central records is denied, the registrant may maintain central records commencing 14 days after receipt of his notification by the Special Agent in Charge. All notifications must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the records to be kept centrally.
</P>
<P>(ii) The exact location where the records will be kept.
</P>
<P>(iii) The name, address, DEA registration number and type of DEA registration of the registrant whose records are being maintained centrally.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether central records will be maintained in a manual, or computer readable, form.
</P>
<P>(2) A registered retail pharmacy that possesses additional registrations for automated dispensing systems at long term care facilities may keep all records required by this part for those additional registered sites at the retail pharmacy or other approved central location.
</P>
<P>(3) A collector that is authorized to maintain a collection receptacle at a long-term care facility shall keep all records required by this part relating to those collection receptacles at the registered location, or other approved central location.
</P>
<P>(4) Records shall include records of deliveries of controlled substances between all locations of the agency.
</P>
<P>(5) Records shall be maintained, whether electronically or otherwise, at each registered and designated location of the agency where the controlled substances involved are received, administered, or otherwise disposed of.


</P>
<P>(b) All registrants that are authorized to maintain a central recordkeeping system under paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The records to be maintained at the central record location shall not include executed order forms and inventories, which shall be maintained at each registered location.
</P>
<P>(2) If the records are kept on microfilm, computer media or in any form requiring special equipment to render the records easily readable, the registrant shall provide access to such equipment with the records. If any code system is used (other than pricing information), a key to the code shall be provided to make the records understandable. 
</P>
<P>(3) The registrant agrees to deliver all or any part of such records to the registered location within two business days upon receipt of a written request from the Administration for such records, and if the Administration chooses to do so in lieu of requiring delivery of such records to the registered location, to allow authorized employees of the Administration to inspect such records at the central location upon request by such employees without a warrant of any kind. 
</P>
<P>(4) In the event that a registrant fails to comply with these conditions, the Special Agent in Charge may cancel such central recordkeeping authorization, and all other central recordkeeping authorizations held by the registrant without a hearing or other procedures. In the event of a cancellation of central recordkeeping authorizations under this paragraph the registrant shall, within the time specified by the Special Agent in Charge, comply with the requirements of this section that all records be kept at the registered location. 
</P>
<P>(c) Registrants need not notify the Special Agent in Charge or obtain central recordkeeping approval in order to maintain records on an in-house computer system. 
</P>
<P>(d) ARCOS participants who desire authorization to report from other than their registered locations must obtain a separate central reporting identifier. Request for central reporting identifiers will be submitted to the ARCOS Unit. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(e) All central recordkeeping permits previously issued by the Administration expired September 30, 1980.
</P>
<P>(f) Each registered manufacturer, distributor, importer, exporter, mobile narcotic treatment program, narcotic treatment program and compounder for narcotic treatment program shall maintain inventories and records of controlled substances as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Inventories and records of controlled substances listed in Schedules I and II shall be maintained separately from all of the records of the registrant; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Inventories and records of controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV, and V shall be maintained either separately from all other records of the registrant or in such form that the information required is readily retrievable from the ordinary business records of the registrant. 
</P>
<P>(g) Each registered individual practitioner required to keep records and institutional practitioner shall maintain inventories and records of controlled substances in the manner prescribed in paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(h) Each registered pharmacy shall maintain the inventories and records of controlled substances as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Inventories and records of all controlled substances listed in Schedule I and II shall be maintained separately from all other records of the pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(2) Paper prescriptions for Schedule II controlled substances shall be maintained at the registered location in a separate prescription file.
</P>
<P>(3) Inventories and records of Schedules III, IV, and V controlled substances shall be maintained either separately from all other records of the pharmacy or in such form that the information required is readily retrievable from ordinary business records of the pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(4) Paper prescriptions for Schedules III, IV, and V controlled substances shall be maintained at the registered location either in a separate prescription file for Schedules III, IV, and V controlled substances only or in such form that they are readily retrievable from the other prescription records of the pharmacy. Prescriptions will be deemed readily retrievable if, at the time they are initially filed, the face of the prescription is stamped in red ink in the lower right corner with the letter “C” no less than 1 inch high and filed either in the prescription file for controlled substances listed in Schedules I and II or in the usual consecutively numbered prescription file for noncontrolled substances. However, if a pharmacy employs a computer application for prescriptions that permits identification by prescription number and retrieval of original documents by prescriber name, patient's name, drug dispensed, and date filled, then the requirement to mark the hard copy prescription with a red “C” is waived.
</P>
<P>(5) Records of electronic prescriptions for controlled substances shall be maintained in an application that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter. The computers on which the records are maintained may be located at another location, but the records must be readily retrievable at the registered location if requested by the Administration or other law enforcement agent. The electronic application must be capable of printing out or transferring the records in a format that is readily understandable to an Administration or other law enforcement agent at the registered location. Electronic copies of prescription records must be sortable by prescriber name, patient name, drug dispensed, and date filled.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Authority: 21 U.S.C. 821 and 871(b); 28 CFR 0.100) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7790, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 39 FR 37985, Oct. 25, 1974; 45 FR 44266, July 1, 1980; 47 FR 41735, Sept. 22, 1982; 51 FR 5320, Feb. 13, 1986; 62 FR 13959, Mar. 24, 1997; 70 FR 25466, May 13, 2005; 75 FR 10677, Mar. 9, 2010; 75 FR 16306, Mar. 31, 2010; 79 FR 53562, Sept. 9, 2014; 86 FR 33885, June 28, 2021; 91 FR 5241, Feb. 5, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.14.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.05   Records of authorized central fill pharmacies and retail pharmacies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every retail pharmacy that utilizes the services of a central fill pharmacy must keep a record of all central fill pharmacies, including name, address and DEA number, that are authorized to fill prescriptions on its behalf. The retail pharmacy must also verify the registration for each central fill pharmacy authorized to fill prescriptions on its behalf. These records must be made available upon request for inspection by DEA. 
</P>
<P>(b) Every central fill pharmacy must keep a record of all retail pharmacies, including name, address and DEA number, for which it is authorized to fill prescriptions. The central fill pharmacy must also verify the registration for all retail pharmacies for which it is authorized to fill prescriptions. These records must be made available upon request for inspection by DEA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.14.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.06   Records and reports for electronic prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As required by § 1311.120 of this chapter, a practitioner who issues electronic prescriptions for controlled substances must use an electronic prescription application that retains the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The digitally signed record of the information specified in part 1306 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The internal audit trail and any auditable event identified by the internal audit as required by § 1311.150 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) An institutional practitioner must retain a record of identity proofing and issuance of the two-factor authentication credential, where applicable, as required by § 1311.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) As required by § 1311.205 of this chapter, a pharmacy that processes electronic prescriptions for controlled substances must use an application that retains the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the information required under § 1304.22(c) and part 1306 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The digitally signed record of the prescription as received as required by § 1311.210 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The internal audit trail and any auditable event identified by the internal audit as required by § 1311.215 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) A registrant and application service provider must retain a copy of any security incident report filed with the Administration pursuant to §§ 1311.150 and 1311.215 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) An electronic prescription or pharmacy application provider must retain third party audit or certification reports as required by § 1311.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) An application provider must retain a copy of any notification to the Administration regarding an adverse audit or certification report filed with the Administration on problems identified by the third-party audit or certification as required by § 1311.300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) Unless otherwise specified, records and reports must be retained for two years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16306, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Inventory Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.15.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.11   Inventory requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Each inventory shall contain a complete and accurate record of all controlled substances on hand on the date the inventory is taken, and shall be maintained in written, typewritten, or printed form at the registered location. An inventory taken by use of an oral recording device must be promptly transcribed. Controlled substances shall be deemed to be “on hand” if they are in the possession of or under the control of the registrant, including substances returned by a customer, ordered by a customer but not yet invoiced, stored in a warehouse on behalf of the registrant, and substances in the possession of employees of the registrant and intended for distribution as complimentary samples. A separate inventory shall be made for each registered location and each independent activity registered, except as provided in paragraph (e)(4) of this section. In the event controlled substances in the possession or under the control of the registrant are stored at a location for which he/she is not registered, the substances shall be included in the inventory of the registered location to which they are subject to control or to which the person possessing the substance is responsible. The inventory may be taken either as of opening of business or as of the close of business on the inventory date and it shall be indicated on the inventory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial inventory date.</I> Every person required to keep records shall take an inventory of all stocks of controlled substances on hand on the date he/she first engages in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section as applicable. In the event a person commences business with no controlled substances on hand, he/she shall record this fact as the initial inventory.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Biennial inventory date.</I> After the initial inventory is taken, the registrant shall take a new inventory of all stocks of controlled substances on hand at least every two years. The biennial inventory may be taken on any date which is within two years of the previous biennial inventory date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inventory date for newly controlled substances.</I> On the effective date of a rule by the Administrator pursuant to §§ 1308.45, 1308.46, or 1308.47 of this chapter adding a substance to any schedule of controlled substances, which substance was, immediately prior to that date, not listed on any such schedule, every registrant required to keep records who possesses that substance shall take an inventory of all stocks of the substance on hand. Thereafter, such substance shall be included in each inventory made by the registrant pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inventories of manufacturers, distributors, registrants that reverse distribute, importers, exporters, chemical analysts, dispensers, researchers, and collectors.</I> Each person registered or authorized (by §§ 1301.13, 1307.11, 1307.13, or part 1317 of this chapter) to manufacture, distribute, reverse distribute, dispense, import, export, conduct research or chemical analysis with controlled substances, or collect controlled substances from ultimate users, and required to keep records pursuant to § 1304.03 shall include in the inventory the information listed below.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Inventories of manufacturers.</I> Each person registered or authorized to manufacture controlled substances shall include the following information in the inventory:
</P>
<P>(i) For each controlled substance in bulk form to be used in (or capable of use in) the manufacture of the same or other controlled or non-controlled substances in finished form, the inventory shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the substance and
</P>
<P>(B) The total quantity of the substance to the nearest metric unit weight consistent with unit size.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each controlled substance in the process of manufacture on the inventory date, the inventory shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity of the substance in each batch and/or stage of manufacture, identified by the batch number or other appropriate identifying number; and
</P>
<P>(C) The physical form which the substance is to take upon completion of the manufacturing process (e.g., granulations, tablets, capsules, or solutions), identified by the batch number or other appropriate identifying number, and if possible the finished form of the substance (e.g., 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter) and the number or volume thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each controlled substance in finished form the inventory shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(B) Each finished form of the substance (e.g., 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter);
</P>
<P>(C) The number of units or volume of each finished form in each commercial container (e.g., 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial); and
</P>
<P>(D) The number of commercial containers of each such finished form (e.g. four 100-tablet bottles or six 3-milliliter vials).
</P>
<P>(iv) For each controlled substance not included in paragraphs (e)(1) (i), (ii) or (iii) of this section (e.g., damaged, defective or impure substances awaiting disposal, substances held for quality control purposes, or substances maintained for extemporaneous compoundings) the inventories shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(B) The total quantity of the substance to the nearest metric unit weight or the total number of units of finished form; and
</P>
<P>(C) The reason for the substance being maintained by the registrant and whether such substance is capable of use in the manufacture of any controlled substance in finished form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inventories of distributors.</I> Each person registered or authorized to distribute controlled substances shall include in the inventory the same information required of manufacturers pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inventories of registrants that reverse distribute.</I> Each person registered or authorized to reverse distribute controlled substances shall include in the inventory, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the substance, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The total quantity of the substance:
</P>
<P>(A) For controlled substances in bulk form, to the nearest metric unit weight consistent with unit size;
</P>
<P>(B) For each controlled substance in finished form: Each finished form of the substance (e.g., 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter); the number of units or volume of each finished form in each commercial container (e.g., 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial); and the number of commercial containers of each such finished form (e.g., four 100-tablet bottles or six 3-milliliter vials); and
</P>
<P>(C) For controlled substances in a commercial container, carton, crate, drum, or other receptacle that has been opened: If the substance is listed in Schedule I or II, make an exact count or measure of the contents; or if the substance is listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, make an estimated count or measure of the contents, unless the container holds more than 1,000 tablets or capsules in which case an exact count of the contents shall be made; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For controlled substances acquired from collectors and law enforcement: The number and size (e.g., five 10-gallon liners, etc.) of sealed inner liners on hand, or
</P>
<P>(iv) For controlled substances acquired from law enforcement: the number of sealed mail-back packages on hand.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inventories of importers and exporters.</I> Each person registered or authorized to import or export controlled substances shall include in the inventory the same information required of manufacturers pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1) (iii) and (iv) of this section. Each such person who is also registered as a manufacturer or as a distributor shall include in his/her inventory as an importer or exporter only those stocks of controlled substances that are actually separated from his stocks as a manufacturer or as a distributor (e.g., in transit or in storage for shipment).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Inventories of chemical analysts.</I> Each person registered or authorized to conduct chemical analysis with controlled substances shall include in his inventory the same information required of manufacturers pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1) (iii) and (iv) of this section as to substances which have been manufactured, imported, or received by such person. If less than 1 kilogram of any controlled substance (other than a hallucinogenic controlled substance listed in Schedule I), or less than 20 grams of a hallucinogenic substance listed in Schedule I (other than lysergic acid diethylamide), or less than 0.5 gram of lysergic acid diethylamide, is on hand at the time of inventory, that substance need not be included in the inventory. Laboratories of the Administration may possess up to 150 grams of any hallucinogenic substance in Schedule I without regard to a need for an inventory of those substances. No inventory is required of known or suspected controlled substances received as evidentiary materials for analysis.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Inventories of dispensers and researchers.</I> Each person registered or authorized to dispense or conduct research with controlled substances shall include in the inventory the same information required of manufacturers pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section. In determining the number of units of each finished form of a controlled substance in a commercial container that has been opened, the dispenser or researcher shall do as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the substance is listed in Schedules I or II, make an exact count or measure of the contents; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the substance is listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, make an estimated count or measure of the contents, unless the container holds more than 1,000 tablets or capsules in which case he/she must make an exact count of the contents.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Inventories of collectors.</I> Each registrant authorized to collect controlled substances from ultimate users shall include in the inventory the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) For registrants authorized to collect through a mail-back program, the record shall include the following information about each unused mail-back package and each returned mail-back package on hand awaiting destruction:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the inventory;
</P>
<P>(B) The number of mail-back packages; and
</P>
<P>(C) The unique identification number of each package on hand, whether unused or awaiting destruction.
</P>
<P>(ii) For registrants authorized to collect through a collection receptacle, the record shall include the following information about each unused inner liner on hand and each sealed inner liner on hand awaiting destruction:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the inventory;
</P>
<P>(B) The number and size of inner liners (e.g., five 10-gallon liners, etc.);
</P>
<P>(C) The unique identification number of each inner liner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13959, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 41228, July 11, 2003; 79 FR 53562, Sept. 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Continuing Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.21   General requirements for continuing records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every registrant required to keep records pursuant to § 1304.03 shall maintain, on a current basis, a complete and accurate record of each substance manufactured, imported, received, sold, delivered, exported, or otherwise disposed of by him/her, and each inner liner, sealed inner liner, and unused and returned mail-back package, except that no registrant shall be required to maintain a perpetual inventory.
</P>
<P>(b) Separate records shall be maintained by a registrant for each registered location except as provided in § 1304.04 (a). In the event controlled substances are in the possession or under the control of a registrant at a location for which he is not registered, the substances shall be included in the records of the registered location to which they are subject to control or to which the person possessing the substance is responsible. 
</P>
<P>(c) Separate records shall be maintained by a registrant for each independent activity and collection activity for which he/she is registered or authorized, except as provided in § 1304.22(d).
</P>
<P>(d) In recording dates of receipt, distribution, other transfers, or destruction, the date on which the controlled substances are actually received, distributed, otherwise transferred, or destroyed will be used as the date of receipt, distribution, transfer, or destruction (<I>e.g.,</I> invoices or packing slips, or DEA Form 41). In maintaining records concerning imports and exports, the registrant must record the anticipated date of release by a customs official for permit applications and declarations and the date on which the controlled substances are released by a customs officer at the port of entry or port of export for return information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Record of destruction.</I> In addition to any other recordkeeping requirements, any registered person that destroys a controlled substance pursuant to § 1317.95(d), or causes the destruction of a controlled substance pursuant to § 1317.95(c), shall maintain a record of destruction on a DEA Form 41. The records shall be complete and accurate, and include the name and signature of the two employees who witnessed the destruction. Except, destruction of a controlled substance dispensed by a practitioner for immediate administration at the practitioner's registered location, when the substance is not fully exhausted (e.g., some of the substance remains in a vial, tube, or syringe after administration but cannot or may not be further utilized), shall be properly recorded in accordance with § 1304.22(c), and such record need not be maintained on a DEA Form 41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7792, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13960, Mar. 24, 1997; 79 FR 53563, Sept. 9, 2014; 81 FR 97020, Dec. 30, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.22   Records for manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, researchers, importers, exporters, registrants that reverse distribute, and collectors.</HEAD>
<P>Each person registered or authorized (by §§ 1301.13(e), 1307.11, 1307.13, or part 1317 of this chapter) to manufacture, distribute, dispense, import, export, reverse distribute, destroy, conduct research with controlled substances, or collect controlled substances from ultimate users, shall maintain records with the information listed in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Records for manufacturers.</I> Each person registered or authorized to manufacture controlled substances shall maintain records with the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) For each controlled substance in bulk form to be used in, or capable of use in, or being used in, the manufacture of the same or other controlled or noncontrolled substances in finished form,
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantity manufactured in bulk form by the registrant, including the date, quantity and batch or other identifying number of each batch manufactured;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity received from other persons, including the date and quantity of each receipt and the name, address, and registration number of the other person from whom the substance was received;
</P>
<P>(iv) The quantity imported directly by the registrant (under a registration as an importer) for use in manufacture by him/her, including the date, quantity, and import permit or declaration number for each importation;
</P>
<P>(v) The quantity used to manufacture the same substance in finished form, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The date and batch or other identifying number of each manufacture;
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity used in the manufacture;
</P>
<P>(C) The finished form (e.g., 10-milligram tablets or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter);
</P>
<P>(D) The number of units of finished form manufactured;
</P>
<P>(E) The quantity used in quality control;
</P>
<P>(F) The quantity lost during manufacturing and the causes therefore, if known;
</P>
<P>(G) The total quantity of the substance contained in the finished form;
</P>
<P>(H) The theoretical and actual yields; and
</P>
<P>(I) Such other information as is necessary to account for all controlled substances used in the manufacturing process;
</P>
<P>(vi) The quantity used to manufacture other controlled and noncontrolled substances, including the name of each substance manufactured and the information required in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) The quantity distributed in bulk form to other persons, including the date and quantity of each distribution and the name, address, and registration number of each person to whom a distribution was made;
</P>
<P>(viii) The quantity exported directly by the registrant (under a registration as an exporter), including the date, quantity, and export permit or declaration number of each exportation;
</P>
<P>(ix) The quantity distributed or disposed of in any other manner by the registrant (e.g., by distribution of complimentary samples or by destruction), including the date and manner of distribution or disposal, the name, address, and registration number of the person to whom distributed, and the quantity distributed or disposed; and
</P>
<P>(x) The originals of all written certifications of available procurement quotas submitted by other persons (as required by § 1303.12(f) of this chapter) relating to each order requiring the distribution of a basic class of controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II.
</P>
<P>(2) For each controlled substance in finished form,
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each finished form (e.g., 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter) and the number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container (e.g., 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial);
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of containers of each such commercial finished form manufactured from bulk form by the registrant, including the information required pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of units of finished forms and/or commercial containers acquired from other persons, including the date of and number of units and/or commercial containers in each acquisition to inventory and the name, address, and registration number of the person from whom the units were acquired;
</P>
<P>(v) The number of units of finished forms and/or commercial containers imported directly by the person (under a registration or authorization to import), including the date of, the number of units and/or commercial containers in, and the import permit or declaration number for, each importation;
</P>
<P>(vi) The number of units and/or commercial containers manufactured by the registrant from units in finished form received from others or imported, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The date and batch or other identifying number of each manufacture;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation performed (e.g., repackaging or relabeling);
</P>
<P>(C) The number of units of finished form used in the manufacture, the number manufactured and the number lost during manufacture, with the causes for such losses, if known; and
</P>
<P>(D) Such other information as is necessary to account for all controlled substances used in the manufacturing process;
</P>
<P>(vii) The number of commercial containers distributed to other persons, including the date of and number of containers in each reduction from inventory, and the name, address, and registration number of the person to whom the containers were distributed; (viii) The number of commercial containers exported directly by the registrant (under a registration as an exporter), including the date, number of containers and export permit or declaration number for each exportation; and
</P>
<P>(ix) The number of units of finished forms and/or commercial containers distributed or disposed of in any other manner by the registrant (e.g., by distribution of complimentary samples or by destruction), including the date and manner of distribution or disposal, the name, address, and registration number of the person to whom distributed, and the quantity in finished form distributed or disposed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records for distributors.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, each person registered or authorized to distribute controlled substances shall maintain records with the same information required of manufacturers pursuant to paragraphs (a)(2)(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vii), (viii) and (ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records for dispensers and researchers.</I> Each person registered or authorized to dispense or conduct research with controlled substances shall maintain records with the same information required of manufacturers pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i), (ii), (iv), (vii), and (ix) of this section. In addition, records shall be maintained of the number of units or volume of such finished form dispensed, including the name and address of the person to whom it was dispensed, the date of dispensing, the number of units or volume dispensed, and the written or typewritten name or initials of the individual who dispensed or administered the substance on behalf of the dispenser. In addition to the requirements of this paragraph, practitioners dispensing gamma-hydroxybutyric acid under a prescription must also comply with § 1304.26.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records for importers and exporters.</I> Each person registered or authorized to import or export controlled substances shall maintain records with the same information required of manufacturers pursuant to paragraphs (a)(2) (i), (iv), (v) and (vii) of this section. In addition, the quantity disposed of in any other manner by the registrant (except quantities used in manufacturing by an importer under a registration as a manufacturer), which quantities are to be recorded pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) (iv) and (v) of this section; and the quantity (or number of units or volume in finished form) exported, including the date, quantity (or number of units or volume), and the export permit or declaration number for each exportation, but excluding all quantities (and number of units and volumes) manufactured by an exporter under a registration as a manufacturer, which quantities (and numbers of units and volumes) are to be recorded pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(xiii) or (a)(2)(xiii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records for registrants that reverse distribute.</I> Each person registered or authorized to reverse distribute controlled substances shall maintain records with the following information for each controlled substance:
</P>
<P>(1) For controlled substances acquired for the purpose of return or recall to the manufacturer or another registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept returns on the manufacturer's behalf pursuant to part 1317 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of receipt; the name and quantity of each controlled substance received; the name, address, and registration number of the person from whom the substance was received; and the reason for return (e.g., recall or return); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of return to the manufacturer or other registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept returns on the manufacturer's behalf; the name and quantity of each controlled substance returned; the name, address, and registration number of the person from whom the substance was received; the name, address, and registration number of the registrant to whom the substance was returned; and the method of return (e.g., common or contract carrier).
</P>
<P>(2) For controlled substances acquired from registrant inventory for destruction pursuant to § 1317.05(a)(2), (b)(2), and (b)(4) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of receipt; the name and quantity of each controlled substance received; and the name, address, and registration number of the person from whom the substance was received; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date, place, and method of destruction; the name and quantity of each controlled substance destroyed; the name, address, and registration number of the person from whom the substance was received; and the name and signatures of the two employees of the registrant that witnessed the destruction.
</P>
<P>(3) The total quantity of each controlled substance shall be recorded in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For controlled substances in bulk form: To the nearest metric unit weight or volume consistent with unit size;
</P>
<P>(ii) For controlled substances in finished form: Each finished form (e.g., 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter); the number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container (e.g., 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial); and the number of commercial containers of each such finished form (e.g., four 100-tablet bottles or six 3-milliliter vials); and
</P>
<P>(iii) For controlled substances in a commercial container, carton, crate, drum, or other receptacle that has been opened: If the substance is listed in Schedule I or II make an exact count or measure of the contents; or if the substance is listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, make an estimated count or measure of the contents, unless the container holds more than 1,000 tablets or capsules in which case an exact count of the contents shall be made.
</P>
<P>(4) For each sealed inner liner acquired from collectors or law enforcement and each sealed mail-back package acquired from law enforcement pursuant to § 1317.55 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of sealed inner liners acquired from other persons, including the date of acquisition, the number and, for sealed inner liners the size (e.g., five 10-gallon liners, etc.), of all sealed inner liners and mail-back packages acquired to inventory, the unique identification number of each sealed inner liner and mail-back package, and the name, address, and, for registrants, the registration number of the person from whom the sealed inner liners and mail-back packages were received, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date, place, and method of destruction; the number of sealed inner liners and mail-back packages destroyed; the name, address, and, for registrants, the registration number of the person from whom the sealed inner liners and mail-back packages were received; the number and, for sealed inner liners the size (e.g., five 10-gallon liners, etc.), of all sealed inner liners and mail-back packages destroyed; the unique identification number of each sealed inner liner and sealed mail-back package destroyed; and the name and signatures of the two employees of the registrant that witnessed the destruction.
</P>
<P>(5) For all records, the record of receipt shall be maintained together with the corresponding record of return or destruction (DEA Form 41).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records for collectors.</I> Each person registered or authorized to collect controlled substances from ultimate users shall maintain the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Mail-Back Packages:
</P>
<P>(i) For unused packages that the collector makes available to ultimate users and other authorized non-registrants at the collector's registered address: The date made available, the number of packages, and the unique identification number of each package;
</P>
<P>(ii) For unused packages provided to a third party to make available to ultimate users and other authorized non-registrants: The name of the third party and physical address of the location receiving the unused packages, date sent, and the number of unused packages sent with the corresponding unique identification numbers;
</P>
<P>(iii) For sealed mail-back packages received by the collector: Date of receipt and the unique identification number on the individual package; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For sealed mail-back packages destroyed on-site by the collector: Number of sealed mail-back packages destroyed, the date and method of destruction, the unique identification number of each mail-back package destroyed, and the names and signatures of the two employees of the registrant who witnessed the destruction.
</P>
<P>(2) Collection receptacle inner liners:
</P>
<P>(i) Date each unused inner liner acquired, unique identification number and size (e.g., 5-gallon, 10-gallon, etc.) of each unused inner liner acquired;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date each inner liner is installed, the address of the location where each inner liner is installed, the unique identification number and size (e.g., 5-gallon, 10-gallon, etc.) of each installed inner liner, the registration number of the collector, and the names and signatures of the two employees that witnessed each installation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Date each inner liner is removed and sealed, the address of the location from which each inner liner is removed, the unique identification number and size (e.g., 5-gallon, 10-gallon, etc.) of each inner liner removed, the registration number of the collector, and the names and signatures of the two employees that witnessed each removal;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date each sealed inner liner is transferred to storage, the unique identification number and size (e.g., 5-gallon, 10-gallon, etc.) of each sealed inner liner stored, and the names and signatures of the two employees that transferred each sealed inner liner to storage;
</P>
<P>(v) Date each sealed inner liner is transferred for destruction, the address and registration number of the reverse distributor or distributor to whom each sealed inner liner was transferred, the unique identification number and the size (e.g., 5-gallon, 10-gallon, etc.) of each sealed inner liner transferred, and the names and signatures of the two employees that transferred each sealed inner liner to the reverse distributor or distributor; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For sealed inner liners destroyed on-site by the collector: The same information required of reverse distributors in paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13960, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 41229, July 11, 2003; 70 FR 293, Jan. 4, 2005; 79 FR 53564, Sept. 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.23   Records for chemical analysts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person registered or authorized (by § 1301.22(b) of this chapter) to conduct chemical analysis with controlled substances shall maintain records with the following information (to the extent known and reasonably ascertainable by him) for each controlled substance: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the substance; 
</P>
<P>(2) The form or forms in which the substance is received, imported, or manufactured by the registrant (e.g., powder, granulation, tablet, capsule, or solution) and the concentration of the substance in such form (e.g., C.P., U.S.P., N.F., 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per milliliter); 
</P>
<P>(3) The total number of the forms received, imported or manufactured (e.g., 100 tablets, thirty 1-milliliter vials, or 10 grams of powder), including the date and quantity of each receipt, importation, or manufacture and the name, address, and registration number, if any, of the person from whom the substance was received; 
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity distributed, exported, or destroyed in any manner by the registrant (except quantities used in chemical analysis or other laboratory work), including the date and manner of distribution, exportation, or destruction, and the name, address, and registration number, if any, of each person to whom the substance was distributed or exported. 
</P>
<P>(b) Records of controlled substances used in chemical analysis or other laboratory work are not required. 
</P>
<P>(c) Records relating to known or suspected controlled substances received as evidentiary material for analysis are not required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7793, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971; 36 FR 18732, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated at 62 FR 13961, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.24   Records for maintenance treatment programs, mobile narcotic treatment programs, and detoxification treatment programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person registered or authorized (by § 1301.22 of this chapter) to maintain and/or detoxify controlled substance users in a narcotic treatment program (NTP), including a mobile NTP, shall maintain records with the following information for each narcotic controlled substance:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of substance;
</P>
<P>(2) Strength of substance;
</P>
<P>(3) Dosage form;
</P>
<P>(4) Date dispensed;
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate identification of patient (consumer);
</P>
<P>(6) Amount consumed;
</P>
<P>(7) Amount and dosage form taken home by patient; and
</P>
<P>(8) Dispenser's initials.
</P>
<P>(b) The records required by paragraph (a) of this section will be maintained in a dispensing log at the NTP site, or in the case of a mobile NTP, at the registered site of the NTP, and will be maintained in compliance with § 1304.22 without reference to § 1304.03.
</P>
<P>(1) As an alternative to maintaining a paper dispensing log, an NTP or its mobile component may also use an automated/computerized data processing system for the storage and retrieval of the program's dispensing records, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The automated system maintains the information required in paragraph (a);
</P>
<P>(ii) The automated system has the capability of producing a hard copy printout of the program's dispensing records;
</P>
<P>(iii) The NTP or its mobile component prints a hard copy of each day's dispensing log, which is then initialed appropriately by each person who dispensed medication to the program's patients;
</P>
<P>(iv) The automated system is approved by DEA;
</P>
<P>(v) The NTP or its mobile component maintains an off-site back-up of all computer generated program information; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The automated system is capable of producing accurate summary reports for both the registered site of the NTP and any mobile component, for any time-frame selected by DEA personnel during an investigation. If these summary reports are maintained in hard copy form, they must be kept in a systematically organized file located at the registered site of the NTP.
</P>
<P>(2) The NTP must retain all records for the NTP as well as any mobile component two years from the date of execution, in accordance with § 1304.04(a). However, if the State in which the NTP is located requires that records be retained longer than two years, the NTP should contact its State opioid treatment authority for information about State requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) All sites which compound a bulk narcotic solution from bulk narcotic powder to liquid for on-site use must keep a separate batch record of the compounding. 
</P>
<P>(d) Records of identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of any patients which are maintained in connection with the performance of a narcotic treatment program shall be confidential, except that such records may be disclosed for purposes and under the circumstances authorized by part 310 and 42 CFR part 2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 37985, Oct. 25, 1974. Redesignated and amended at 62 FR 13961, Mar. 24, 1997; 86 FR 33885, June 28, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.25   Records for treatment programs that compound narcotics for treatment programs and other locations.</HEAD>
<P>Each person registered or authorized by § 1301.22 of this chapter to compound narcotic drugs for off-site use in a narcotic treatment program shall maintain records which include the following information for each narcotic drug: 
</P>
<P>(a) For each narcotic controlled substance in bulk form to be used in, or capable of use in, or being used in, the compounding of the same or other noncontrolled substances in finished form: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the substance; 
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity compounded in bulk form by the registrant, including the date, quantity and batch or other identifying number of each batch compounded; 
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity received from other persons, including the date and quantity of each receipt and the name, address and registration number of the other person from whom the substance was received; 
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity imported directly by the registrant (under a registration as an importer) for use in compounding by him, including the date, quantity and import permit or declaration number of each importation; 
</P>
<P>(5) The quantity used to compound the same substance in finished form, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date and batch or other identifying number of each compounding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantity used in the compound; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The finished form (e.g., 10-milligram tablets or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of units of finished form compounded; 
</P>
<P>(v) The quantity used in quality control; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The quantity lost during compounding and the causes therefore, if known; 
</P>
<P>(vii) The total quantity of the substance contained in the finished form; 
</P>
<P>(viii) The theoretical and actual yields; and 
</P>
<P>(ix) Such other information as is necessary to account for all controlled substances used in the compounding process; 
</P>
<P>(6) The quantity used to manufacture other controlled and non-controlled substances; including the name of each substance manufactured and the information required in paragraph (a)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) The quantity distributed in bulk form to other programs, including the date and quantity of each distribution and the name, address and registration number of each program to whom a distribution was made; 
</P>
<P>(8) The quantity exported directly by the registrant (under a registration as an exporter), including the date, quantity, and export permit or declaration number of each exploration; and 
</P>
<P>(9) The quantity disposed of by destruction, including the reason, date, and manner of destruction.
</P>
<P>(b) For each narcotic controlled substance in finished form: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the substance; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each finished form (e.g., 10-milligram tablet or 10 milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter) and the number of units or volume or finished form in each commercial container (e.g., 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial); 
</P>
<P>(3) The number of containers of each such commercial finished form compounded from bulk form by the registrant, including the information required pursuant to paragraph (a)(5) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(4) The number of units of finished forms and/or commercial containers received from other persons, including the date of and number of units and/or commercial containers in each receipt and the name, address and registration number of the person from whom the units were received; 
</P>
<P>(5) The number of units of finished forms and/or commercial containers imported directly by the person (under a registration or authorization to import), including the date of, the number of units and/or commercial containers in, and the import permit or declaration number for, each importation; 
</P>
<P>(6) The number of units and/or commercial containers compounded by the registrant from units in finished form received from others or imported, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date and batch or other identifying number of each compounding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation performed (e.g., repackaging or relabeling); 
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of units of finished form used in the compound, the number compounded and the number lost during compounding, with the causes for such losses, if known; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Such other information as is necessary to account for all controlled substances used in the compounding process; 
</P>
<P>(7) The number of containers distributed to other programs, including the date, the number of containers in each distribution, and the name, address and registration number of the program to whom the containers were distributed; 
</P>
<P>(8) The number of commercial containers exported directly by the registrant (under a registration as an exporter), including the date, number of containers and export permit or declaration number for each exportation; and 
</P>
<P>(9) The number of units of finished forms and/or commercial containers destroyed in any manner by the registrant, including the reason, date, and manner of destruction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 37985, Oct. 25, 1974. Redesignated at 62 FR 13961, Mar. 24, 1997; 79 FR 53564, Sept. 9, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.26   Additional recordkeeping requirements applicable to drug products containing gamma-hydroxybutyric acid.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the recordkeeping requirements for dispensers and researchers provided in § 1304.22, practitioners dispensing gamma-hydroxybutyric acid that is manufactured or distributed in accordance with an application under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act must maintain and make available for inspection and copying by the Attorney General, all of the following information for each prescription:
</P>
<P>(a) Name of the prescribing practitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) Prescribing practitioner's Federal and State registration numbers, with the expiration dates of these registrations.
</P>
<P>(c) Verification that the prescribing practitioner possesses the appropriate registration to prescribe this controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(d) Patient's name and address.
</P>
<P>(e) Patient's insurance provider, if available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 293, Jan. 4, 2005]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.27   Additional recordkeeping requirements applicable to emergency medical services agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each emergency medical services agency registered pursuant to § 1301.20 of this chapter (including a hospital-based emergency medical services agency using a hospital registration under § 1301.20(a)(2) of this chapter) must maintain records for each dose of controlled substances administered or disposed of in the course of providing emergency medical services. The following information shall be included in each record:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(2) Finished form of the substance (<I>e.g.,</I> 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter);
</P>
<P>(3) Date administered or disposed of;
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of the patient (consumer), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) Amount administered;
</P>
<P>(6) Last name or initials of the person who administered the controlled substance;
</P>
<P>(7) Last name or initials of the medical director or authorizing medical professional issuing the standing or verbal order;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether a standing or verbal order was issued and adopted;
</P>
<P>(9) Amount disposed of, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(10) Manner disposed of; and
</P>
<P>(11) Last name or initials of person who disposed and witness to disposal, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) For each acquisition of a controlled substance from another registrant, or each distribution of a controlled substance to another registrant, each emergency medical services agency registered pursuant to § 1301.20 of this chapter must maintain records with all of the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) For each acquisition of a controlled substance from another registrant:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Finished form of the substance (<I>e.g.,</I> 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter);
</P>
<P>(iii) Number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container;
</P>
<P>(iv) Number of commercial containers acquired (<I>e.g.,</I> 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial);
</P>
<P>(v) Date of the acquisition;
</P>
<P>(vi) Name, address, and registration number of the person from whom the substance was acquired; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Name and title of the person acquiring the controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(2) For each distribution of a controlled substance to another registrant:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Finished form of the substance (<I>e.g.,</I> 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter);
</P>
<P>(iii) Number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container (<I>e.g.,</I> 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial);
</P>
<P>(iv) Number of commercial containers distributed;
</P>
<P>(v) Date of the distribution;
</P>
<P>(vi) Name, address, and registration number of the person to whom the substance was distributed; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Name and title of the person in receipt of the distributed controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(3) For each delivery of controlled substances between a designated location and a registered location:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Finished form of the substance (<I>e.g.,</I> 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter);
</P>
<P>(iii) Number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container (<I>e.g.,</I> 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial);
</P>
<P>(iv) Number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container and number of commercial containers delivered (<I>e.g.,</I> 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial);
</P>
<P>(v) Date of the delivery;
</P>
<P>(vi) Name and address of the designated location to which the substance is delivered; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Name and title of the person in receipt of the controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(4) For destruction of a controlled substance:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Finished form of the substance (<I>e.g.,</I> 10-milligram tablet or 10-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter);
</P>
<P>(iii) Number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container (<I>e.g.,</I> 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial);
</P>
<P>(iv) Number of units or volume of finished form in each commercial container and number of commercial containers destroyed (<I>e.g.,</I> 100-tablet bottle or 3-milliliter vial);
</P>
<P>(v) Date of the destruction;
</P>
<P>(vi) Manner of disposal of the substance, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(vii) Name, address, and registration number of the person to whom the substance was distributed, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Name and title of the person destroying the controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(c) A designated location of an emergency medical services agency that receives controlled substances must notify the agency's registered location within 72 hours of receipt of the controlled substances, in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) An emergency medical services vehicle primarily situated at a designated location of the emergency medical services agency acquires controlled substances from a hospital while restocking following an emergency response;
</P>
<P>(2) The designated location of the emergency medical services agency receives controlled substances from another designated location of the same agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5241, Feb. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.17.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.31   Reports from manufacturers importing narcotic raw material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer which imports or manufactures from narcotic raw material (opium, poppy straw, and concentrate of poppy straw) shall submit information which accounts for the importation and for all manufacturing operations performed between importation and the production in bulk or finished marketable products, standardized in accordance with the U.S. Pharmacopeia, National Formulary or other recognized medical standards. Reports shall be signed by the authorized official and submitted quarterly on company letterhead to the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, on or before the 15th day of the month immediately following the period for which it is submitted. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) The following information shall be submitted for each type of narcotic raw material (quantities are expressed as grams of anhydrous morphine alkaloid):
</P>
<P>(1) Beginning inventory;
</P>
<P>(2) Gains on reweighing;
</P>
<P>(3) Imports;
</P>
<P>(4) Other receipts;
</P>
<P>(5) Quantity put into process;
</P>
<P>(6) Losses on reweighing;
</P>
<P>(7) Other dispositions and
</P>
<P>(8) Ending inventory.
</P>
<P>(c) The following information shall be submitted for each narcotic raw material derivative including morphine, codeine, thebaine, oxycodone, hydrocodone, medicinal opium, manufacturing opium, crude alkaloids and other derivatives (quantities are expressed as grams of anhydrous base or anhydrous morphine alkaloid for manufacturing opium and medicinal opium):
</P>
<P>(1) Beginning inventory;
</P>
<P>(2) Gains on reweighing;
</P>
<P>(3) Quantity extracted from narcotic raw material;
</P>
<P>(4) Quantity produced/manufactured/synthesized;
</P>
<P>(5) Quantity sold;
</P>
<P>(6) Quantity returned to conversion processes for reworking;
</P>
<P>(7) Quantity used for conversion;
</P>
<P>(8) Quantity placed in process;
</P>
<P>(9) Other dispositions;
</P>
<P>(10) Losses on reweighing and
</P>
<P>(11) Ending inventory.
</P>
<P>(d) The following information shall be submitted for importation of each narcotic raw material:
</P>
<P>(1) Import permit number;
</P>
<P>(2) Date shipment arrived at the United States port of entry;
</P>
<P>(3) Actual quantity shipped;
</P>
<P>(4) Assay (percent) of morphine, codeine and thebaine and
</P>
<P>(5) Quantity shipped, expressed as anhydrous morphine alkaloid.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon importation of crude opium, samples will be selected and assays made by the importing manufacturer in the manner and according to the method specified in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia. Where final assay data is not determined at the time of rendering report, the report shall be made on the basis of the best data available, subject to adjustment, and the necessary adjusting entries shall be made on the next report.
</P>
<P>(f) Where factory procedure is such that partial withdrawals of opium are made from individual containers, there shall be attached to each container a stock record card on which shall be kept a complete record of all withdrawals therefrom.
</P>
<P>(g) All in-process inventories should be expressed in terms of end-products and not precursors. Once precursor material has been changed or placed into process for the manufacture of a specified end-product, it must no longer be accounted for as precursor stocks available for conversion or use, but rather as end-product in-process inventories.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13961, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 10677, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97020, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.17.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.32   Reports of manufacturers importing coca leaves.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every manufacturer importing or manufacturing from raw coca leaves shall submit information accounting for the importation and for all manufacturing operations performed between the importation and the manufacture of bulk or finished products standardized in accordance with U.S. Pharmacopoeia, National Formulary, or other recognized standards. The reports shall be submitted quarterly on company letterhead to the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, on or before the 15th day of the month immediately following the period for which it is submitted. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) The following information shall be submitted for raw coca leaf, ecgonine, ecgonine for conversion or further manufacture, benzoylecgonine, manufacturing coca extracts (list for tinctures and extracts; and others separately), other crude alkaloids and other derivatives (quantities should be reported as grams of actual quantity involved and the cocaine alkaloid content or equivalency):
</P>
<P>(1) Beginning inventory;
</P>
<P>(2) Imports;
</P>
<P>(3) Gains on reweighing;
</P>
<P>(4) Quantity purchased;
</P>
<P>(5) Quantity produced;
</P>
<P>(6) Other receipts;
</P>
<P>(7) Quantity returned to processes for reworking;
</P>
<P>(8) Material used in purification for sale;
</P>
<P>(9) Material used for manufacture or production;
</P>
<P>(10) Losses on reweighing;
</P>
<P>(11) Material used for conversion;
</P>
<P>(12) Other dispositions and
</P>
<P>(13) Ending inventory.
</P>
<P>(c) The following information shall be submitted for importation of coca leaves:
</P>
<P>(1) Import permit number;
</P>
<P>(2) Date the shipment arrived at the United States port of entry;
</P>
<P>(3) Actual quantity shipped;
</P>
<P>(4) Assay (percent) of cocaine alkaloid and
</P>
<P>(5) Total cocaine alkaloid content.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon importation of coca leaves, samples will be selected and assays made by the importing manufacturer in accordance with recognized chemical procedures. These assays shall form the basis of accounting for such coca leaves, which shall be accounted for in terms of their cocaine alkaloid content or equivalency or their total anhydrous coca alkaloid content. Where final assay data is not determined at the time of submission, the report shall be made on the basis of the best data available, subject to adjustment, and the necessary adjusting entries shall be made on the next report.
</P>
<P>(e) Where factory procedure is such that partial withdrawals of medicinal coca leaves are made from individual containers, there shall be attached to the container a stock record card on which shall be kept a complete record of withdrawals therefrom.
</P>
<P>(f) All in-process inventories should be expressed in terms of end-products and not precursors. Once precursor material has been changed or placed into process for the manufacture of a specified end-product, it must no longer be accounted for as precursor stocks available for conversion or use, but rather as end-product in-process inventories.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13962, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97020, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.17.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.33   Reports to Automation of Reports and Consolidated Orders System (ARCOS).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reports generally.</I> All reports required by this section shall be filed with the Pharmaceutical Investigations Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration on DEA Form 333, or on media which contains the data required by DEA Form 333 and which is acceptable to the Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Frequency of reports.</I> Acquisition/Distribution transaction reports shall be filed every quarter not later than the 15th day of the month succeeding the quarter for which it is submitted; except that a registrant may be given permission to file more frequently (but not more frequently than monthly), depending on the number of transactions being reported each time by that registrant. Inventories shall provide data on the stocks of each reported controlled substance on hand as of the close of business on December 31 of each year, indicating whether the substance is in storage or in process of manufacturing. These reports shall be filed not later than January 15 of the following year. Manufacturing transaction reports shall be filed annually for each calendar year not later than January 15 of the following year, except that a registrant may be given permission to file more frequently (but not more frequently than quarterly).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Persons reporting.</I> For controlled substances in Schedules I, II, narcotic controlled substances in Schedule III, and gamma-hydroxybutyric acid drug product controlled substances in Schedule III, each person who is registered to manufacture in bulk or dosage form, or to package, repackage, label or relabel, and each person who is registered to distribute, including each person who is registered to reverse distribute, shall report acquisition/distribution transactions. In addition to reporting acquisition/distribution transactions, each person who is registered to manufacture controlled substances in bulk or dosage form shall report manufacturing transactions on controlled substances in Schedules I and II, each narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedules III, IV, and V, gamma-hydroxybutyric acid drug product controlled substances in Schedule III, and on each psychotropic controlled substance listed in Schedules III and IV as identified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substances covered.</I> (1) Manufacturing and acquisition/distribution transaction reports shall include data on each controlled substance listed in Schedules I and II, on each narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III (but not on any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing a quantity of a substance having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, which material, compound, mixture or preparation is listed in Schedule III or on any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule V), and on gamma-hydroxybutyric acid drug products listed in Schedule III. Additionally, reports on manufacturing transactions shall include the following psychotropic controlled substances listed in Schedules III and IV: 
</P>
<P>(i) Schedule III
</P>
<P>(A) Benzphetamine;
</P>
<P>(B) Cyclobarbital;
</P>
<P>(C) Methyprylon; and
</P>
<P>(D) Phendimetrazine.
</P>
<P>(ii) Schedule IV
</P>
<P>(A) Barbital;
</P>
<P>(B) Diethylpropion (Amfepramone);
</P>
<P>(C) Ethchlorvynol;
</P>
<P>(D) Ethinamate;
</P>
<P>(E) Lefetamine (SPA);
</P>
<P>(F) Mazindol;
</P>
<P>(G) Meprobamate;
</P>
<P>(H) Methylphenobarbital;
</P>
<P>(I) Phenobarbital;
</P>
<P>(J) Phentermine; and
</P>
<P>(K) Pipradrol.
</P>
<P>(2) Data shall be presented in such a manner as to identify the particular form, strength, and trade name, if any, of the product containing the controlled substancefor which the report is being made. For this purpose, persons filing reports shall utilize the National Drug Code Number assigned to the product under the National Drug Code System of the Food and Drug Administration.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transactions reported.</I> Acquisition/distribution transaction reports shall provide data on each acquisition to inventory (identifying whether it is, e.g., by purchase or transfer, return from a customer, or supply by the Federal Government) and each reduction from inventory (identifying whether it is, e.g., by sale or transfer, theft, destruction or seizure by Government agencies). Manufacturing reports shall provide data on material manufactured, manufacture from other material, use in manufacturing other material and use in producing dosage forms.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) A registered institutional practitioner that repackages or relabels exclusively for distribution or that distributes exclusively to (for dispensing by) agents, employees, or affiliated institutional practitioners of the registrant may be exempted from filing reports under this section by applying to the Pharmaceutical Investigations Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(2) Registrants that acquire recalled controlled substances from ultimate users pursuant to § 1317.85 of this chapter may report as a single transaction all recalled controlled substances of the same name and finished form (e.g., all 10-milligram tablets or all 5-milligram concentration per fluid ounce or milliliter) received from ultimate users for the purpose of reporting acquisition transactions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) Collectors that acquire controlled substances from ultimate users are exempt from the ARCOS reporting requirements only with respect to controlled substances collected through mail-back programs and collection receptacles for the purpose of disposal.
</P>
<P>(2) Reverse distributors and distributors that acquire controlled substances pursuant to § 1317.55(a) or (b) of this chapter are exempt from the ARCOS reporting requirements in this section with regard to any controlled substances acquired pursuant to § 1317.55(a) or (b) of this chapter.


</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1117-0003) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13962, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 41229, July 11, 2003; 70 FR 294, Jan. 4, 2005; 75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010; 79 FR 53564, Sept. 9, 2014; 81 FR 97020, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Online Pharmacies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.40" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.18.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.40   Notification by online pharmacies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Thirty days prior to offering a controlled substance for sale, delivery, distribution, or dispensing by means of the Internet, an online pharmacy shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the Administrator of its intent to do so by submitting an application for a modified registration in accordance with §§ 1301.13 and 1301.19 of this chapter, with such application containing the information required by this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the State boards of pharmacy in any States in which the online pharmacy offers to sell, deliver, distribute, or dispense controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(b) The following information must be included in the notification submitted under paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The pharmacy's Internet Pharmacy Site Disclosure information required to be posted on the homepage of the online pharmacy's Internet site under section 311(c) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 831(c)) and § 1304.45 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Certification that the information disclosed on its Internet site under the Internet Pharmacy Site Disclosure is true and accurate. The statement shall be in a form similar to the following: “The above-named pharmacy, a DEA registrant, certifies, under penalty of perjury, that the information contained in this statement is true and accurate.”
</P>
<P>(3) Each Internet site address utilized by the online pharmacy and a certification that the online pharmacy shall notify the Administrator of any change in any such Internet address at least 30 days in advance. In the event that a pharmacy delivers, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances pursuant to orders made on, through, or on behalf of, more than one Web site, the pharmacy shall provide, for purposes of complying with this paragraph, the Internet site address of each such site.
</P>
<P>(4) The DEA registration numbers of:
</P>
<P>(i) Every pharmacy that delivers, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances pursuant to orders made on, through, or on behalf of, each Web site referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Every practitioner who has a contractual relationship to provide medical evaluations or issue prescriptions for controlled substances, through referrals from the Web site or at the request of the owner or operator of the Web site, or any employee or agent thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) It is unlawful for any online pharmacy to deliver, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance by means of the internet unless such online pharmacy is validly registered with a modification of such registration authorizing such activity.
</P>
<P>(d) On and after the date an online pharmacy makes the notifications required under this section, each online pharmacy shall display on the homepage of its Internet site, a declaration that it has made such notifications to the Administrator in the following form: “In accordance with the Controlled Substances Act and the DEA regulations, this online pharmacy has made the notifications to the DEA Administrator required by 21 U.S.C. 831 and 21 CFR 1304.40.”
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section, if any of the information required to be submitted under this section changes after the online pharmacy submits the notification to the Administrator, the online pharmacy shall notify the Administrator of the updated information no later than 30 days before the change becomes effective via the online process.
</P>
<P>(2) If a pharmacy referred to in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section ceases to deliver, distribute, or dispense controlled substances pursuant to orders made on, through, or on behalf of, each Web site referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the online pharmacy shall notify the Administrator no later than 30 days after the change becomes effective via the online process.
</P>
<P>(3) If a practitioner referred to in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section ceases to have a contractual relationship with the online pharmacy, the online pharmacy shall notify the Administrator no later than 30 days after the change becomes effective via the online process.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15623, Apr. 6, 2009, as amended at 85 FR 61601, Sept. 30, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.18.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.45   Internet Web site disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each online pharmacy shall display, at all times and in a visible and clear manner, on its homepage a statement that it complies with the requirements of section 311 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 831) with respect to the delivery or sale or offer for sale of controlled substances. This statement must include the name of the pharmacy as it appears on the DEA Certificate of Registration.
</P>
<P>(b) Each online pharmacy shall clearly display the following information on the homepage of each Internet site it operates, or on a page directly linked to the homepage. If the information is displayed on a page directly linked to the homepage, that link on the homepage must be visible and clear. The information must be displayed for each pharmacy that delivers, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances pursuant to orders made on, through, or on behalf of that Web site.
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the pharmacy as it appears on the pharmacy's DEA Certificate of Registration.
</P>
<P>(2) The pharmacy's telephone number and e-mail address.
</P>
<P>(3) The name, professional degree, and States of licensure of the pharmacist-in-charge, and a telephone number at which the pharmacist-in-charge can be contacted.
</P>
<P>(4) A list of the States in which the pharmacy is licensed to dispense controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that the pharmacy is registered under part 1301 of this chapter with a modification of its registration authorizing it to deliver, distribute, or dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet.
</P>
<P>(6) The name, address, telephone number, professional degree, and States of licensure with State license number of any practitioner who has a contractual relationship to provide medical evaluations or issue prescriptions for controlled substances, through referrals from the Web site or at the request of the owner or operator of the Web site, or any employee or agent thereof.
</P>
<P>(7) The following statement: “This online pharmacy is obligated to comply fully with the Controlled Substances Act and DEA regulations. As part of this obligation, this online pharmacy has obtained a modified DEA registration authorizing it to operate as an online pharmacy. In addition, this online pharmacy will only dispense a controlled substance to a person who has a valid prescription issued for a legitimate medical purpose based upon a medical relationship with a prescribing practitioner. This includes at least one prior in-person medical evaluation in accordance with section 309 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 829) or a medical evaluation via telemedicine in accordance with section 102(54) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802(54)).”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15623, Apr. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.50" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.18.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.50   Disclosure requirements for Web sites of nonpharmacy practitioners that dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet.</HEAD>
<P>For a Web site to identify itself as being exempt from the definition of an online pharmacy by virtue of section 102(52)(B)(ii) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(52)(B)(ii)) and § 1300.04(h)(2) of this chapter, the Web site shall post in a visible and clear manner on its homepage, or on a page directly linked thereto in which the hyperlink is also visible and clear on the homepage, a list of the DEA-registered nonpharmacy practitioners who are affiliated with the Web site. Any nonpharmacy practitioner affiliated with such a Web site is responsible for compliance with this section. An institutional practitioner that otherwise complies with the requirements of the Act and this chapter will be deemed to meet the requirements of this section if, in lieu of posting the names of each affiliated individual practitioner, it posts its name (as it appears on its Certificate of Registration) in a visible and clear manner on its homepage and in a manner that identifies itself as being responsible for the operation of the Web site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15623, Apr. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.55" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.5.0.18.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.55   Reports by online pharmacies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each online pharmacy shall report to the Administrator the total quantity of each controlled substance that the pharmacy has dispensed each calendar month. The report must include the total quantity of such dispensing by any means, regardless of whether the controlled substances are dispensed by means of the Internet. Thus, such reporting shall include all controlled substances dispensed via Internet transactions, mail-order transactions, face-to-face transactions, or any other means. However, the pharmacy is not required to describe in its report to the Administrator such means of dispensing. Such reporting is required for every calendar month in which the total quantity of controlled substances dispensed by the pharmacy meets or exceeds one of the following thresholds:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 or more prescriptions for controlled substances filled; or
</P>
<P>(2) 5,000 or more dosage units dispensed of all controlled substances combined.
</P>
<P>(b) Each online pharmacy shall report a negative response if, during a given calendar month, its total dispensing of controlled substances falls below both of the thresholds in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The reporting requirements of this section apply to every pharmacy that, at any time during a calendar month, holds a modified registration authorizing it to operate as an online pharmacy, regardless of whether the online pharmacy dispenses any controlled substances by means of the Internet during the month.
</P>
<P>(d) Reports will be submitted to DEA electronically via online reporting, electronic file upload, or other means as approved by DEA.
</P>
<P>(e) Reports shall be filed every month not later than the fifteenth day of the month succeeding the month for which they are submitted.
</P>
<P>(f) An online pharmacy filing a report under paragraph (a) of this section shall utilize the National Drug Code number assigned to the product under the National Drug Code System of the Food and Drug Administration, and indicate the total number of dosage units dispensed for each such National Drug Code number.
</P>
<P>(g) Records required to be kept under this section must be kept by the registrant for at least two years from the date of such records. The information shall be readily retrievable from the ordinary business records of the registrant and available for inspection and copying by authorized employees of the Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15623, Apr. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1305" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1305—ORDERS FOR SCHEDULE I AND II CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 828, 871(b), unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.01   Scope of part 1305.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures governing the issuance, use, and preservation of orders for Schedule I and II controlled substances are set forth generally by section 308 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 828) and specifically by the sections of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in the Act or part 1300 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.03   Distributions requiring a Form 222 or a digitally signed electronic order.</HEAD>
<P>Either a DEA Form 222 or its electronic equivalent as set forth in subpart C of this part and Part 1311 of this chapter is required for each distribution of a Schedule I or II controlled substance except for the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Distributions to persons exempted from registration under Part 1301 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Exports from the United States that conform with the requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Deliveries to a registered analytical laboratory or its agent approved by DEA.
</P>
<P>(d) Delivery from a central fill pharmacy, as defined in § 1300.01 of this chapter, to a retail pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(e) Deliveries to an authorized DEA registrant by an ultimate user, a long-term care facility on behalf of an ultimate user who resides or has resided at that facility, or a person authorized to dispose of the ultimate user decedent's property.
</P>
<P>(f) Distributions to reverse distributors and distributors by collectors and law enforcement pursuant to § 1317.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) Deliveries of controlled substances from ultimate users for the purpose of recalls pursuant to § 1317.85 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 77 FR 4235, Jan. 27, 2012; 79 FR 53564, Sept. 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.04   Persons entitled to order Schedule I and II controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only persons who are registered with DEA under section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) to handle Schedule I or II controlled substances, and persons who are registered with DEA under section 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 958) to export these substances may obtain and use DEA Form 222 (order forms) or issue electronic orders for these substances. Persons not registered to handle Schedule I or II controlled substances and persons registered only to import controlled substances are not entitled to obtain Form 222 or issue electronic orders for these substances.
</P>
<P>(b) An order for Schedule I or II controlled substances may be executed only on behalf of the registrant named on the order and only if his or her registration for the substances being purchased has not expired or been revoked or suspended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.05   Power of attorney.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant may authorize one or more individuals, whether or not located at his or her registered location, to issue orders for Schedule I and II controlled substances on the registrant's behalf by executing a power of attorney for each such individual, if the power of attorney is retained in the files, with executed Forms 222 where applicable, for the same period as any order bearing the signature of the attorney. The power of attorney must be available for inspection together with other order records.
</P>
<P>(b) A registrant may revoke any power of attorney at any time by executing a notice of revocation.




</P>
<P>(c) The power of attorney and notice of revocation must be similar to the following format:
</P>
<HD3>Power of Attorney for DEA Forms 222 and Electronic Orders
</HD3>
<FP>(Name of registrant)
</FP>
<FP>(Address of registrant)
</FP>
<FP>(DEA registration number)
</FP>
<P>I, ______ (name of person granting power), the undersigned (the registrant, if an individual; a partner of the registrant, if a partnership; or an officer of the registrant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity), have made, constituted, and appointed, and by these presents, do make, constitute, and appoint ___ (name of attorney-in-fact), my true and lawful attorney for me in my name, place, and stead, to execute applications for Forms 222 and to sign orders for schedule I and II controlled substances, whether these orders be on Form 222 or electronic, in accordance with 21 U.S.C. 828 and Part 1305 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations. I hereby ratify and confirm all that said attorney must lawfully do or cause to be done by virtue hereof.
</P>
<FP>(Signature of person granting power)
</FP>
<P>I, ______ (name of attorney-in-fact), hereby affirm that I am the person named herein as attorney-in-fact and that the signature affixed hereto is my signature.
</P>
<FP>(signature of attorney-in-fact)
</FP>
<P>Witnesses:
</P>
<P>1. ________
</P>
<P>2. ________
</P>
<P>Signed and dated on the ____ day of ____, (year), at ________.
</P>
<HD1>Notice of Revocation
</HD1>
<P>The foregoing power of attorney is hereby revoked by the undersigned (the registrant, if an individual; a partner of the registrant, if a partnership; or an officer of the registrant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity). Written notice of this revocation has been given to the attorney-in-fact ______ this same day.
</P>
<FP>(Signature of person revoking power)
</FP>
<P>Witnesses:
</P>
<P>1. ____
</P>
<P>2. ____
</P>
<P>Signed and dated on the ____ day of ____, (year), at ________.






</P>
<P>(d) A power of attorney must be executed by:
</P>
<P>(1) The registrant, if an individual; a partner of the registrant, if a partnership; or an officer of the registrant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The person to whom the power of attorney is being granted; and
</P>
<P>(3) Two witnesses.




</P>
<P>(e) A power of attorney must be revoked by:
</P>
<P>(1) The registrant, if an individual; a partner of the registrant, if a partnership; or an officer of the registrant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Two witnesses.
</P>
<P>(f) A power of attorney executed under this section may be signed electronically, by any or all of the persons required to sign.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 51374, Sept. 30, 2019; 91 FR 13499, Mar. 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.06   Persons entitled to fill orders for Schedule I and II controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>An order for Schedule I and II controlled substances, whether on a DEA Form 222 or an electronic order, may be filled only by a person registered with DEA as a manufacturer or distributor of controlled substances listed in Schedule I or II pursuant to section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) or as an importer of such substances pursuant to section 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 958), except for the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A person registered with DEA to dispense the substances, or to export the substances, if he/she is discontinuing business or if his/her registration is expiring without reregistration, may dispose of any Schedule I or II controlled substances in his/her possession with a DEA Form 222 or an electronic order in accordance with § 1301.52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A purchaser who has obtained any Schedule I or II controlled substance by either a DEA Form 222 or an electronic order may return the substance to the supplier of the substance with either a DEA Form 222 or an electronic order from the supplier.
</P>
<P>(c) A person registered to dispense Schedule II substances may distribute the substances to another dispenser with either a DEA Form 222 or an electronic order only in the circumstances described in § 1307.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) A person registered or authorized to conduct chemical analysis or research with controlled substances may distribute a Schedule I or II controlled substance to another person registered or authorized to conduct chemical analysis, instructional activities, or research with the substances with either a DEA Form 222 or an electronic order, if the distribution is for the purpose of furthering the chemical analysis, instructional activities, or research.
</P>
<P>(e) A person registered as a compounder of narcotic substances for use at off-site locations in conjunction with a narcotic treatment program at the compounding location, who is authorized to handle Schedule II narcotics, is authorized to fill either a DEA Form 222 or an electronic order for distribution of narcotic drugs to off-site narcotic treatment programs only.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.07" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.1.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.07   Special procedure for filling certain orders.</HEAD>
<P>A supplier of thiafentanil, carfentanil, etorphine hydrochloride, or diprenorphine, if he or she determines that the purchaser is a veterinarian engaged in zoo and exotic animal practice, wildlife management programs, or research, and is authorized by the Administrator to handle these substances, may fill the order in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1305.17 except that:
</P>
<P>(a) A DEA Form 222 or an electronic order for thiafentanil, carfentanil, etorphine hydrochloride, and diprenorphine must contain only these substances in reasonable quantities.
</P>
<P>(b) The substances must be shipped, under secure conditions using substantial packaging material with no markings on the outside that would indicate the content, only to the purchaser's registered location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 81 FR 58839, Aug. 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—DEA Form 222</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.11   Procedure for obtaining DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DEA Forms 222 are issued in mailing envelopes containing a predetermined number of forms based on the business activity of the registrant, each form consisting of one single-sheet. A limit, which is based on the business activity of the registrant, will be imposed on the number of DEA Forms 222 that will be furnished upon a requisition for order forms unless additional forms are specifically requested and a reasonable need for such additional forms is shown.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person with an active registration that is authorized to order schedule I and II controlled substances is entitled to obtain a DEA Form 222, which will be supplied at any time after the DEA registration is granted. Any person holding a registration authorizing the person to obtain a DEA Form 222 may requisition the forms through a DEA secured network connection or by contacting any Division Office or the Registration Section of the Administration through the customer service center.
</P>
<P>(c) Each requisition must show the name, address, and registration number of the registrant and the number of DEA Forms 222 desired.
</P>
<P>(d) DEA Forms 222 will have an order form number and be issued with the name, address and registration number of the registrant, the authorized activity, and schedules of the registrant. This information cannot be altered or changed by the registrant; the registrant must report any errors to the local Division Office or the Registration Section of the Administration to modify the registration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 51374, Sept. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.12   Procedure for executing DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A purchaser must prepare and execute a DEA Form 222 by use of a typewriter, computer printer, pen, or indelible pencil.
</P>
<P>(b) Only one item may be entered on each numbered line. An item must consist of one or more commercial or bulk containers of the same finished or bulk form and quantity of the same substance. The number of lines completed must be noted on that form at the bottom of the form, in the space provided. DEA Forms 222 for carfentanil, etorphine hydrochloride, and diprenorphine must contain only these substances.
</P>
<P>(c) The name and address of the supplier from whom the controlled substances are being ordered must be entered on the form. Only one supplier may be listed on any form. The supplier's DEA registration number may be entered by the purchaser or the supplier.


</P>
<P>(d) Each DEA Form 222 must be signed and dated by the registrant, if an individual; a partner of the registrant, if a partnership; or an officer of the registrant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity; or a person granted power of attorney to sign a DEA Form 222 under § 1305.05. The name of the purchaser, if different from the individual signing DEA Form 222, must also be inserted in the signature space.


</P>
<P>(e) Unexecuted DEA Forms 222 may be kept and may be executed at a location other than the registered location printed on the form, provided that all unexecuted forms are delivered promptly to the registered location upon an inspection of the location by any officer authorized to make inspections, or to enforce, any Federal, State, or local law regarding controlled substances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 51374, Sept. 30, 2019; 86 FR 38232, July 20, 2021; 91 FR 13500, Mar. 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.13   Procedure for filling DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A purchaser must make a copy of the original DEA Form 222 for its records and then submit the original to the supplier. The copy retained by the purchaser may be in paper or electronic form.
</P>
<P>(b) A supplier may fill the order, if possible and if the supplier desires to do so, and must record on the original DEA Form 222 its DEA registration number (if not previously entered by the purchaser) and the number of commercial or bulk containers furnished on each item and the date on which containers are shipped to the purchaser. If an order cannot be filled in its entirety, it may be filled in part and the balance supplied by additional shipments within 60 days following the date of the DEA Form 222. No DEA Form 222 is valid more than 60 days after its execution by the purchaser, except as specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The controlled substances must be shipped only to the purchaser and the location printed by the Administration on the DEA Form 222, except as specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The supplier must retain the original DEA Form 222 for the supplier's files in accordance with § 1305.17(c). Any supplier who is not required to report acquisition/disposition transactions to the Automation of Reports and Consolidated Orders System (ARCOS) under § 1304.33(c) (such as a practitioner) must make and submit a copy of the original DEA Form 222 to DEA, either by mail to the Registration Section, or by email to <I>DEA.Orderforms@usdoj.gov.</I> The copy must be forwarded at the close of the month during which the order is filled. If an order is filled by partial shipments, the copy must be forwarded at the close of the month during which the final shipment is made or the 60-day validity period expires.
</P>
<P>(e) The purchaser must record on its copy of the DEA Form 222 the number of commercial or bulk containers furnished on each item and the dates on which the containers are received by the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(f) DEA Forms 222 submitted by registered procurement officers of the Defense Supply Center of the Defense Logistics Agency for delivery to armed services establishments within the United States may be shipped to locations other than the location printed on the DEA Form 222, and in partial shipments at different times not to exceed six months from the date of the order, as designated by the procurement officer when submitting the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 51374, Sept. 30, 2019; 86 FR 38232, July 20, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.14   Procedure for endorsing DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A DEA Form 222, made out to any supplier who cannot fill all or a part of the order within the time limitation set forth in § 1305.13, may be endorsed to another supplier for filling. The endorsement must be made only by the supplier to whom the DEA Form 222 was first made, must state (in the spaces provided in Part 3 on the original DEA Form 222) the DEA number of the second supplier, and must be signed and dated by a person authorized to obtain and execute DEA Forms 222 on behalf of the first supplier.

 The first supplier may not fill any part of an order on an endorsed form. The second supplier may fill the order, if possible and if the supplier desires to do so, in accordance with § 1305.13(b), (c), and (d), including shipping all substances directly to the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(b) Distributions made on endorsed DEA Forms 222 must be reported by the second supplier in the same manner as all other distributions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 51375, Sept. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.15   Unaccepted and defective DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A DEA Form 222 must not be filled if either of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The order is not complete, legible, or properly prepared, executed, or endorsed.
</P>
<P>(2) The order shows any alteration, erasure, or change of any description.
</P>
<P>(b) If a DEA Form 222 cannot be filled for any reason under this section, the supplier must return the original DEA Form 222 to the purchaser with a statement as to the reason (<I>e.g.,</I> illegible or altered).
</P>
<P>(c) A supplier may for any reason refuse to accept any order and if a supplier refuses to accept the order, a statement that the order is not accepted is sufficient for purposes of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) When a purchaser receives an unaccepted order, the original DEA Form 222 and the statement must be retained in the files of the purchaser in accordance with § 1305.17. A defective DEA Form 222 may not be corrected; it must be replaced by a new DEA Form 222 for the order to be filled.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 51375, Sept. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.16" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.16   Lost and stolen DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a purchaser ascertains that an unfilled DEA Form 222 has been lost, the purchaser must execute another and attach a statement containing the order form number and date of the lost form, and stating that the goods covered by the first DEA Form 222 were not received through loss of that DEA Form 222. A copy of the second form and a copy of the statement must be retained with a copy of the DEA Form 222 first executed. A copy of the statement must be attached to a copy of the second DEA Form 222 sent to the supplier. If the first DEA Form 222 is subsequently received by the supplier to whom it was directed, the supplier must mark upon the face “Not accepted” and return the original DEA Form 222 to the purchaser, who must attach it to the statement.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever any used or unused DEA Forms 222 are stolen or lost (other than in the course of transmission) by any purchaser or supplier, the purchaser or supplier must immediately upon discovery of the theft or loss, report the theft or loss to the Special Agent in Charge of the Drug Enforcement Administration in the Divisional Office responsible for the area in which the registrant is located, stating the serial number of each form stolen or lost.
</P>
<P>(c) If the theft or loss includes any original DEA Forms 222 received from purchasers and the supplier is unable to state the serial numbers of the DEA Forms 222, the supplier must report the date or approximate date of receipt and the names and addresses of the purchasers.
</P>
<P>(d) If any DEA Forms 222 are lost or stolen, and the purchaser is unable to state the order form numbers of the DEA Forms 222, the purchaser must report, in lieu of numbers of the forms, the date or approximate date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(e) If any unused DEA Form 222 reported stolen or lost is subsequently recovered or found, the Special Agent in Charge of the Drug Enforcement Administration in the Divisional Office responsible for the area in which the registrant is located must immediately be notified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 51375, Sept. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.17" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.17   Preservation of DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purchaser must retain a copy of each executed DEA Form 222 and all copies of unaccepted or defective forms with each statement attached.
</P>
<P>(b) The supplier must retain the original of each DEA Form 222 that it has filled.
</P>
<P>(c) DEA Forms 222 must be maintained separately from all other records of the registrant. DEA Forms 222 are required to be kept available for inspection for a period of two years. If a purchaser has several registered locations, the purchaser must retain a copy of the executed DEA Form 222 and any attached statements or other related documents (not including unexecuted DEA Forms 222, which may be kept elsewhere under § 1305.12(e)), at the registered location printed on the DEA Form 222.
</P>
<P>(d) The supplier of thiafentanil, carfentanil, etorphine hydrochloride, and diprenorphine must maintain DEA Forms 222 for these substances separately from all other DEA Forms 222 and records required to be maintained by the registrant.
</P>
<P>(e) Electronic copies of DEA Forms 222 will be deemed to be maintained separately from all other records of the registrant, for the purposes of this section, if such copies are readily retrievable separately from all other records. Electronic copies of DEA Forms 222 may be stored on a system at a location different from the registered location, provided such copies are readily retrievable at the registered location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 81 FR 58839, Aug. 26, 2016; 84 FR 51375, Sept. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.18" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.18   Return of unused DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>If the registration of any purchaser terminates (because the purchaser dies, ceases legal existence, discontinues business or professional practice, or changes the name or address as shown on the purchaser's registration) or is suspended or revoked under § 1301.36 of this chapter for all Schedule I and II controlled substances for which the purchaser is registered, the purchaser must return all unused DEA Forms 222 to the Registration Section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 51375, Sept. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.19" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.19   Cancellation and voiding of DEA Forms 222.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A purchaser may cancel part or all of an order on a DEA Form 222 by notifying the supplier in writing of the cancellation. The supplier must indicate the cancellation on the original DEA Form 222 sent by the purchaser by drawing a line through the canceled items and printing “canceled” in the space provided for the number of items shipped.
</P>
<P>(b) A supplier may void part or all of an order on a DEA Form 222 by notifying the purchaser in writing of the voiding. The supplier must indicate the voiding in the manner prescribed for cancellation in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16911, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 51375, Sept. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.20" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.2.19.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Electronic Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.21   Requirements for electronic orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be valid, the purchaser must sign an electronic order for a Schedule I or II controlled substance with a digital signature issued to the purchaser, or the purchaser's agent, by DEA as provided in part 1311 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The following data fields must be included on an electronic order for Schedule I and II controlled substances:
</P>
<P>(1) A unique number the purchaser assigns to track the order. The number must be in the following 9-character format: the last two digits of the year, X, and six characters as selected by the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(2) The purchaser's DEA registration number.
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the supplier.
</P>
<P>(4) The complete address of the supplier (may be completed by either the purchaser or the supplier).
</P>
<P>(5) The supplier's DEA registration number (may be completed by either the purchaser or the supplier).
</P>
<P>(6) The date the order is signed.
</P>
<P>(7) The name (including strength where appropriate) of the controlled substance product or the National Drug Code (NDC) number (the NDC number may be completed by either the purchaser or the supplier).
</P>
<P>(8) The quantity in a single package or container.
</P>
<P>(9) The number of packages or containers of each item ordered.
</P>
<P>(c) An electronic order may include controlled substances that are not in schedules I and II and non-controlled substances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.22   Procedure for filling electronic orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A purchaser must submit the order to a specific supplier. The supplier may initially process the order (e.g., entry of the order into the computer system, billing functions, inventory identification, etc.) centrally at any location, regardless of the location's registration with DEA. Following centralized processing, the supplier may distribute the order to one or more registered locations maintained by the supplier for filling. The registrant must maintain control of the processing of the order at all times.
</P>
<P>(b) A supplier may fill the order for a Schedule I or II controlled substance, if possible and if the supplier desires to do so and is authorized to do so under § 1305.06.
</P>
<P>(c) A supplier must do the following before filling the order:
</P>
<P>(1) Verify the integrity of the signature and the order by using software that complies with Part 1311 of this chapter to validate the order.
</P>
<P>(2) Verify that the digital certificate has not expired.
</P>
<P>(3) Check the validity of the certificate holder's certificate by checking the Certificate Revocation List. The supplier may cache the Certificate Revocation List until it expires.
</P>
<P>(4) Verify the registrant's eligibility to order the controlled substances by checking the certificate extension data.
</P>
<P>(d) The supplier must retain an electronic record of every order, and, linked to each order, a record of the number of commercial or bulk containers furnished on each item and the date on which the supplier shipped the containers to the purchaser. The linked record must also include any data on the original order that the supplier completes. Software used to handle digitally signed orders must comply with part 1311 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) If an order cannot be filled in its entirety, a supplier may fill it in part and supply the balance by additional shipments within 60 days following the date of the order. No order is valid more than 60 days after its execution by the purchaser, except as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) A supplier must ship the controlled substances to the registered location associated with the digital certificate used to sign the order, except as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) When a purchaser receives a shipment, the purchaser must create a record of the quantity of each item received and the date received. The record must be electronically linked to the original order and archived.
</P>
<P>(h) Registered procurement officers of the Defense Supply Center of the Defense Logistics Agency may order controlled substances for delivery to armed services establishments within the United States. These orders may be shipped to locations other than the registered location, and in partial shipments at different times not to exceed six months from the date of the order, as designated by the procurement officer when submitting the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.23   Endorsing electronic orders.</HEAD>
<P>A supplier may not endorse an electronic order to another supplier to fill.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.24   Central processing of orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A supplier that has one or more registered locations and maintains a central processing computer system in which orders are stored may have one or more of the supplier's registered locations fill an electronic order if the supplier does the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Assigns each item on the order to a specific registered location for filling.
</P>
<P>(2) Creates a record linked to the central file noting both which items a location filled and the location identity.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensures that no item is filled by more than one location.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintains the original order with all linked records on the central computer system.
</P>
<P>(b) A company that has central processing of orders must assign responsibility for filling parts of orders only to registered locations that the company owns and operates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.25   Unaccepted and defective electronic orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No electronic order may be filled if:
</P>
<P>(1) The required data fields have not been completed.
</P>
<P>(2) The order is not signed using a digital certificate issued by DEA.
</P>
<P>(3) The digital certificate used had expired or had been revoked prior to signature.
</P>
<P>(4) The purchaser's public key will not validate the digital signature.
</P>
<P>(5) The validation of the order shows that the order is invalid for any reason.
</P>
<P>(b) If an order cannot be filled for any reason under this section, the supplier must notify the purchaser and provide a statement as to the reason (e.g., improperly prepared or altered). A supplier may, for any reason, refuse to accept any order, and if a supplier refuses to accept the order, a statement that the order is not accepted is sufficient for purposes of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) When a purchaser receives an unaccepted electronic order from the supplier, the purchaser must electronically link the statement of nonacceptance to the original order. The original order and the statement must be retained in accordance with § 1305.27.
</P>
<P>(d) Neither a purchaser nor a supplier may correct a defective order; the purchaser must issue a new order for the order to be filled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.26   Lost electronic orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a purchaser determines that an unfilled electronic order has been lost before or after receipt, the purchaser must provide, to the supplier, a signed statement containing the unique tracking number and date of the lost order and stating that the goods covered by the first order were not received through loss of that order.
</P>
<P>(b) If the purchaser executes an order to replace the lost order, the purchaser must electronically link an electronic record of the second order and a copy of the statement with the record of the first order and retain them.
</P>
<P>(c) If the supplier to whom the order was directed subsequently receives the first order, the supplier must indicate that it is “Not Accepted” and return it to the purchaser. The purchaser must link the returned order to the record of that order and the statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.27   Preservation of electronic orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A purchaser must, for each order filled, retain the original signed order and all linked records for that order for two years. The purchaser must also retain all copies of each unaccepted or defective order and each linked statement.
</P>
<P>(b) A supplier must retain each original order filled and the linked records for two years.
</P>
<P>(c) If electronic order records are maintained on a central server, the records must be readily retrievable at the registered location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.28" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.28   Canceling and voiding electronic orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A supplier may void all or part of an electronic order by notifying the purchaser of the voiding. If the entire order is voided, the supplier must make an electronic copy of the order, indicate on the copy “Void,” and return it to the purchaser. The supplier is not required to retain a record of orders that are not filled.
</P>
<P>(b) The purchaser must retain an electronic copy of the voided order.
</P>
<P>(c) To partially void an order, the supplier must indicate in the linked record that nothing was shipped for each item voided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1305.29" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.6.3.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1305.29   Reporting to DEA.</HEAD>
<P>A supplier must, for each electronic order filled, forward either a copy of the electronic order or an electronic report of the order in a format that DEA specifies to DEA within two business days.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1306" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1306—PRESCRIPTIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 823(k), 829, 831, 871(b), unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971; 36 FR 13386, July 21, 1971, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="19" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.01   Scope of part 1306.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the process and procedures for dispensing, by way of prescribing and administering controlled substances to ultimate users. The purpose of such procedures is to provide safe and efficient methods for dispensing controlled substances while providing effective controls against diversion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5242, Feb. 5, 2026]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13964, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.03   Persons entitled to issue prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prescription for a controlled substance may be issued only by an individual practitioner who is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Authorized to prescribe controlled substances by the jurisdiction in which he is licensed to practice his profession and 
</P>
<P>(2) Either registered or exempted from registration pursuant to §§ 1301.22(c) and 1301.23 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) A prescription issued by an individual practitioner may be communicated to a pharmacist by an employee or agent of the individual practitioner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18732, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.04   Purpose of issue of prescription.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prescription for a controlled substance to be effective must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of his professional practice. The responsibility for the proper prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances is upon the prescribing practitioner, but a corresponding responsibility rests with the pharmacist who fills the prescription. An order purporting to be a prescription issued not in the usual course of professional treatment or in legitimate and authorized research is not a prescription within the meaning and intent of section 309 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829) and the person knowingly filling such a purported prescription, as well as the person issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of the provisions of law relating to controlled substances. 
</P>
<P>(b) A prescription may not be issued in order for an individual practitioner to obtain controlled substances for supplying the individual practitioner for the purpose of general dispensing to patients. 
</P>
<P>(c) A prescription may be issued by a practitioner for a controlled substance in Schedule III, IV, or V for use in detoxification treatment or maintenance treatment.
</P>
<P>(d) A prescription may be issued by a practitioner in accordance with § 1306.05 for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment for the purposes of administration in accordance with section 309A of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829a) and § 1306.07(f). Such prescription shall not be used to supply any practitioner with a stock of controlled substances for the purpose of general dispensing to patients.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 39 FR 37986, Oct. 25, 1974; 70 FR 36343, June 23, 2005; 85 FR 69167, Nov. 2, 2020; 91 FR 34768, June 9, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.05   Manner of issuance of prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All prescriptions for controlled substances shall be dated as of, and signed on, the day when issued and shall bear the full name and address of the patient, the drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity prescribed, directions for use, and the name, address and registration number of the practitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(c) Where a prescription is for gamma-hydroxybutyric acid, the practitioner shall note on the face of the prescription the medical need of the patient for the prescription.
</P>
<P>(d) A practitioner may sign a paper prescription in the same manner as he would sign a check or legal document (e.g., J.H. Smith or John H. Smith). Where an oral order is not permitted, paper prescriptions shall be written with ink or indelible pencil, typewriter, or printed on a computer printer and shall be manually signed by the practitioner. A computer-generated prescription that is printed out or faxed by the practitioner must be manually signed.
</P>
<P>(e) Electronic prescriptions shall be created and signed using an application that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) A prescription may be prepared by the secretary or agent for the signature of a practitioner, but the prescribing practitioner is responsible in case the prescription does not conform in all essential respects to the law and regulations. A corresponding liability rests upon the pharmacist, including a pharmacist employed by a central fill pharmacy, who fills a prescription not prepared in the form prescribed by DEA regulations.
</P>
<P>(g) An individual practitioner exempted from registration under § 1301.22(c) of this chapter shall include on all prescriptions issued by him the registration number of the hospital or other institution and the special internal code number assigned to him by the hospital or other institution as provided in § 1301.22(c) of this chapter, in lieu of the registration number of the practitioner required by this section. Each paper prescription shall have the name of the practitioner stamped, typed, or handprinted on it, as well as the signature of the practitioner.
</P>
<P>(h) An official exempted from registration under § 1301.23(a) of this chapter must include on all prescriptions issued by him his branch of service or agency (e.g., “U.S. Army” or “Public Health Service”) and his service identification number, in lieu of the registration number of the practitioner required by this section. The service identification number for a Public Health Service employee is his Social Security identification number. Each paper prescription shall have the name of the officer stamped, typed, or handprinted on it, as well as the signature of the officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16307, Mar. 31, 2010, as amended at 91 FR 34768, June 9, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.06   Persons entitled to fill prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>A prescription for a controlled substance may only be filled by a pharmacist, acting in the usual course of his professional practice and either registered individually or employed in a registered pharmacy, a registered central fill pharmacy, or registered institutional practitioner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 36343, June 23, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.07" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.07   Administering or dispensing of narcotic drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A practitioner may administer or dispense directly (but not prescribe) a narcotic drug in Schedule II to a narcotic dependent person for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment if the practitioner meets both of the following conditions:


</P>
<P>(1) The practitioner is separately registered with DEA as a narcotic treatment program.
</P>
<P>(2) The practitioner is in compliance with DEA regulations regarding treatment qualifications, security, records, and unsupervised use of the drugs pursuant to the Act.



 </P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a practitioner, who is not specifically registered to conduct a narcotic treatment program, from dispensing (but not prescribing) narcotic drugs, in accordance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws relating to controlled substances, to one person or for one person's use at one time for the purpose of initiating maintenance treatment or detoxification treatment (or both). Not more than a three-day supply of such medication may be dispensed to the person or for the person's use at one time while arrangements are being made for referral for treatment. Such emergency treatment may not be renewed or extended.


</P>
<P>(c) This section is not intended to impose any limitations on a physician or authorized hospital staff to administer or dispense narcotic drugs in a hospital to maintain or detoxify a person as an incidental adjunct to medical or surgical treatment of conditions other than addiction, or to administer or dispense narcotic drugs to persons with intractable pain in which no relief or cure is possible or none has been found after reasonable efforts.


</P>
<P>(d) A practitioner may administer or dispense (including prescribe) any Schedule III, IV, or V narcotic drug for use in maintenance or detoxification treatment to a narcotic dependent person.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) Notwithstanding the definition of dispense under section 102(10) of the Act (21 U.S.C 802(10)), a pharmacy may deliver a controlled substance to a practitioner, pursuant to a prescription that meets the requirements under § 1306.04 for the purpose of administering the controlled substance by the practitioner if:
</P>
<P>(1) The controlled substance is delivered by the pharmacy to the prescribing practitioner or the practitioner administering the controlled substance (in this paragraph (f) referred to as the “administering practitioner”), as applicable, at the location listed on the practitioner's DEA certificate of registration;
</P>
<P>(2) The controlled substance is a narcotic drug in schedule III, IV, or V to be administered for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment and is to be administered by injection or implantation;
</P>
<P>(3) The pharmacy, the prescribing practitioner, and the administering practitioner (as applicable) are authorized to conduct such activities specified in this paragraph (f) under the law of the State in which such activities take place;


</P>
<P>(4) The prescription is not issued to supply any practitioner with a stock of controlled substances for the purpose of general dispensing to patients;


</P>
<P>(5) The controlled substance is to be administered only to the patient named on the prescription not later than 45 days after the date of receipt of the controlled substance by the practitioner; and
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding any exceptions under section 307 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 827), the prescribing practitioner and the administering practitioner, as applicable, shall maintain complete and accurate records of all controlled substances delivered, received, administered, or otherwise disposed of under this paragraph (f), including the persons to whom the controlled substances were delivered and such other information as may be required under this chapter. Recordkeeping requirements for prescriptions are addressed in §§ 1304.03(c) and 1304.06 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) An emergency medical services professional of a registered emergency medical services agency may administer directly (but not prescribe) controlled substances in schedules II-V outside the physical presence of a medical director or authorizing medical professional while providing emergency medical services if the administration is authorized by law of the State in which it occurs, and is pursuant to:
</P>
<P>(1) A standing order that is issued and adopted by one or more medical directors of the agency, including any such order that may be developed by a specific State's authority; or
</P>
<P>(2) A verbal order that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Issued in accordance with a policy of the agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided by a medical director or an authorizing medical professional in response to a request by the emergency medical services professional with respect to a specific patient --
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a mass casualty incident; or
</P>
<P>(B) To ensure the proper care and treatment of a specific patient.


</P>
<P>(h) An emergency medical services agency shall maintain, at a registered location of the agency, a record of the standing or verbal orders issued or adopted in accordance with § 1304.13 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 37986, Oct. 25, 1974, as amended at 70 FR 36344, June 23, 2005; 85 FR 69167, Nov. 2, 2020; 88 FR 53382, Aug. 8, 2023; 91 FR 5242, Feb. 5, 2026; 91 FR 16167, Apr. 1, 2026; 91 FR 34768, June 9, 2026] 








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.08" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.08   Electronic prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual practitioner may sign and transmit electronic prescriptions for controlled substances provided the practitioner meets all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The practitioner must comply with all other requirements for issuing controlled substance prescriptions in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The practitioner must use an application that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) The practitioner must comply with the requirements for practitioners in part 1311 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A pharmacy may fill an electronically transmitted prescription for a controlled substance provided the pharmacy complies with all other requirements for filling controlled substance prescriptions in this part and with the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) To annotate an electronic prescription, a pharmacist must include all of the information that this part requires in the prescription record.
</P>
<P>(d) If the content of any of the information required under § 1306.05 for a controlled substance prescription is altered during the transmission, the prescription is deemed to be invalid and the pharmacy may not dispense the controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(e) The transfer for initial dispensing of an electronic prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II-V is permissible between retail pharmacies, upon request from the patient, on a one-time basis only. If the transferred prescription is for a controlled substance in Schedule III, IV, or V and includes authorized refills, the refills are transferred with the initial prescription to the pharmacy receiving the transfer.
</P>
<P>(f) The transfer of an electronic prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II-V between retail pharmacies for the purpose of initial dispensing is subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The prescription must be transferred from one retail pharmacy to another retail pharmacy in its electronic form. At no time may an intermediary convert an electronic prescription to another form (<I>e.g.,</I> facsimile) for transmission.
</P>
<P>(2) The contents of the prescription required by this part must not be altered during transfer between retail pharmacies. Any change to the content during transfer, including truncation or removal of data, will render the electronic prescription invalid.
</P>
<P>(3) The transfer must be communicated directly between two licensed pharmacists.
</P>
<P>(4) The transferring pharmacist must add the following to the electronic prescription record:
</P>
<P>(i) Information that the prescription has been transferred.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name, address, and DEA registration number of the pharmacy to which the prescription was transferred and the name of the pharmacist receiving the prescription information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of the transfer and the name of the pharmacist transferring the prescription information.
</P>
<P>(5) The receiving pharmacist must do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Add the word “transfer” to the electronic prescription record at the receiving pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Annotate the prescription record with the name, address, and DEA registration number of the pharmacy from which the prescription was transferred and the name of the pharmacist who transferred the prescription.
</P>
<P>(iii) Record the date of the transfer and the name of the pharmacist receiving the prescription information.
</P>
<P>(6) In lieu of manual data entry, the transferring or receiving pharmacy's prescription processing software may, if capable, capture the information required, as outlined in this paragraph (f), from the electronic prescription and automatically populate the corresponding data fields to document the transfer of an electronic controlled substance prescription between pharmacies. The transferring or receiving pharmacist, as applicable, must ensure that the populated information is complete and accurate.
</P>
<P>(g) The transfer of an electronic prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II-V for the purpose of initial dispensing is permissible only if allowable under existing State or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(h) The electronic records documenting the transfer of the electronic prescription must be maintained for a period of two years from the date of the transfer by both the pharmacy transferring the electronic prescription and the pharmacy receiving the electronic prescription.
</P>
<P>(i) A pharmacy may transfer electronic prescription information for a controlled substance in Schedule III, IV, and V to another pharmacy for the purpose of refill dispensing pursuant to § 1306.25.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16307, Mar. 31, 2010, as amended at 88 FR 48379, July 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.09" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.09   Prescription requirements for online pharmacies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No controlled substance that is a prescription drug may be delivered, distributed, or dispensed by means of the Internet without a valid prescription.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with the Act, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly or intentionally fill a prescription for a controlled substance that was issued in a manner that constitutes dispensing by means of the Internet unless such person is a pharmacist who is acting in the usual course of his professional practice and is acting on behalf of a pharmacy whose registration has been modified under sections 1301.13 and 1301.19 of this chapter to authorize it to operate as an online pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(c) Any online pharmacy that participates in the transfer between pharmacies of prescription information must do so in accordance with the requirements of §§ 1306.15 and 1306.25 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 15624, Apr. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Controlled Substances Listed in Schedule II</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.11   Requirement of prescription.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A pharmacist may dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule II that is a prescription drug as determined under section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(b)) only pursuant to a written prescription signed by the practitioner, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. A paper prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to a pharmacy via facsimile equipment, provided that the original manually signed prescription is presented to the pharmacist for review prior to the actual dispensing of the controlled substance, except as noted in paragraph (e), (f), or (g) of this section. The original prescription shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual practitioner may administer or dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule II in the course of his professional practice without a prescription, subject to § 1306.07. 
</P>
<P>(c) An institutional practitioner may administer or dispense directly (but not prescribe) a controlled substance listed in Schedule II only pursuant to a written prescription signed by the prescribing individual practitioner or to an order for medication made by an individual practitioner that is dispensed for immediate administration to the ultimate user.
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of an emergency situation, as defined by the Secretary in § 290.10 of this title, a pharmacist may dispense a controlled substance listed in Schedule II upon receiving oral authorization of a prescribing individual practitioner, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity prescribed and dispensed is limited to the amount adequate to treat the patient during the emergency period (dispensing beyond the emergency period must be pursuant to a paper or electronic prescription signed by the prescribing individual practitioner);
</P>
<P>(2) The prescription shall be immediately reduced to writing by the pharmacist and shall contain all information required in § 1306.05, except for the signature of the prescribing individual practitioner; 
</P>
<P>(3) If the prescribing individual practitioner is not known to the pharmacist, he must make a reasonable effort to determine that the oral authorization came from a registered individual practitioner, which may include a callback to the prescribing individual practitioner using his phone number as listed in the telephone directory and/or other good faith efforts to insure his identity; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Within 7 days after authorizing an emergency oral prescription, the prescribing individual practitioner shall cause a written prescription for the emergency quantity prescribed to be delivered to the dispensing pharmacist. In addition to conforming to the requirements of § 1306.05, the prescription shall have written on its face “Authorization for Emergency Dispensing,” and the date of the oral order. The paper prescription may be delivered to the pharmacist in person or by mail, but if delivered by mail it must be postmarked within the 7-day period. Upon receipt, the dispensing pharmacist must attach this paper prescription to the oral emergency prescription that had earlier been reduced to writing. For electronic prescriptions, the pharmacist must annotate the record of the electronic prescription with the original authorization and date of the oral order. The pharmacist must notify the nearest office of the Administration if the prescribing individual practitioner fails to deliver a written prescription to him; failure of the pharmacist to do so shall void the authority conferred by this paragraph to dispense without a written prescription of a prescribing individual practitioner.
</P>
<P>(5) Central fill pharmacies shall not be authorized under this paragraph to prepare prescriptions for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II upon receiving an oral authorization from a retail pharmacist or an individual practitioner.
</P>
<P>(e) A prescription prepared in accordance with § 1306.05 written for a Schedule II narcotic substance to be compounded for the direct administration to a patient by parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or intraspinal infusion may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (e) and it shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) A prescription prepared in accordance with § 1306.05 written for Schedule II substance for a resident of a Long Term Care Facility may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (f) and it shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h).
</P>
<P>(g) A prescription prepared in accordance with § 1306.05 written for a Schedule II narcotic substance for a patient enrolled in a hospice care program certified and/or paid for by Medicare under Title XVIII or a hospice program which is licensed by the state may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The practitioner or the practitioner's agent will note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (g) and it shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18733, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973 and amended at 53 FR 4964, Feb. 19, 1988; 59 FR 26111, May 19, 1994; 59 FR 30832, June 15, 1994; 62 FR 13964, Mar. 24, 1997; 65 FR 45713, July 25, 2000; 68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003; 75 FR 16307, Mar. 31, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.12   Refilling prescriptions; issuance of multiple prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The refilling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An individual practitioner may issue multiple prescriptions authorizing the patient to receive a total of up to a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance provided the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Each separate prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice;
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual practitioner provides written instructions on each prescription (other than the first prescription, if the prescribing practitioner intends for that prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill each prescription;
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual practitioner concludes that providing the patient with multiple prescriptions in this manner does not create an undue risk of diversion or abuse;
</P>
<P>(iv) The issuance of multiple prescriptions as described in this section is permissible under the applicable state laws; and
</P>
<P>(v) The individual practitioner complies fully with all other applicable requirements under the Act and these regulations as well as any additional requirements under state law.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this paragraph (b) shall be construed as mandating or encouraging individual practitioners to issue multiple prescriptions or to see their patients only once every 90 days when prescribing Schedule II controlled substances. Rather, individual practitioners must determine on their own, based on sound medical judgment, and in accordance with established medical standards, whether it is appropriate to issue multiple prescriptions and how often to see their patients when doing so.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 64929, Nov. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.20.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.13   Partial filling of prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The partial filling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II is permissible if the pharmacist is unable to supply the full quantity called for in a written or emergency oral prescription and he makes a notation of the quantity supplied on the face of the written prescription, written record of the emergency oral prescription, or in the electronic prescription record. The remaining portion of the prescription may be filled within 72 hours of the first partial filling; however, if the remaining portion is not or cannot be filled within the 72-hour period, the pharmacist shall notify the prescribing individual practitioner. No further quantity may be supplied beyond 72 hours without a new prescription.
</P>
<P>(b) Partial filling of a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance at the request of the prescribing practitioner or patient:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General requirements.</I> A prescription for a schedule II controlled substance may be partially filled if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) It is not prohibited by State law;
</P>
<P>(ii) The prescription is written and filled in accordance with the Act, this chapter, and State law.
</P>
<P>(iii) The partial fill is requested by the patient, by one acting on behalf of the patient (parent or legal guardian of a minor patient, or caregiver of an adult patient named in a medical power of attorney), or by the practitioner who wrote the prescription; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The total quantity dispensed in all partial fillings does not exceed the total quantity prescribed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time limitations on filling the remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance.</I> If all the conditions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section are satisfied, and the prescription is partially filled, remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, if filled, must be filled not later than 30 days after the date on which the prescription is written, except that in the case of an emergency oral prescription, as described in subsection 309(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829(a)), the remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, if filled, must be filled not later than 72 hours after the prescription is issued.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How a practitioner may request that a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance be partially filled.</I> Where a practitioner issues a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance and wants the prescription to be partially filled, the practitioner must specify the quantity to be dispensed in each partial filling on the face of the written prescription, in the written record of the emergency oral prescription, or in the record for an electronic prescription. After consultation with a pharmacist, a practitioner may authorize a partial fill for the prescription at a date after which the prescription was initially issued; however, the prescription must be filled not later than 30 days after the date on which the prescription is written, except that in the case of an emergency oral prescription, as described in subsection 309(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829(a)), the remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, if filled, must be filled not later than 72 hours after the prescription is issued. The pharmacist must notate this subsequent request in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section. All required information in this paragraph, except that of an authorization for partial filling at a later date, must be included on the prescription, along with the other information required by § 1306.05, at the time the practitioner signs the prescription, or in the case of an emergency oral prescription, this information must be communicated by the prescribing practitioner to the pharmacist at the time that the oral communication is taking place.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>How a patient or one acting on a patient's behalf may request that a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance be partially filled.</I> A patient may request that his/her prescription for a schedule II controlled substance be partially filled. A caregiver named in an adult patient's medical power of attorney may request the adult patient's prescription be partially filled. When a patient is a minor (under age 18), a parent or legal guardian of the minor may request the prescription be partially filled. Where a practitioner has requested the partial filling of a prescription in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, neither the patient, the parent or legal guardian (in the case of a minor), nor the caregiver of an adult patient named in a medical power of attorney may request a partial filling in an amount greater than that specified by the practitioner. A request by the patient, the adult patient's caregiver named in the medical power of attorney, or the parent/legal guardian of a minor patient may be made: in person; in writing if signed by the patient, the adult patient's caregiver named in the medical power of attorney, or the parent/legal guardian of a minor patient; or by a phone call to the pharmacist from the patient, the adult patient's caregiver named in the medical power of attorney, or the parent/legal guardian of a minor patient.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>How a pharmacy must record the partial filling of a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance.</I> (i) Upon partially filling a prescription at the request of the prescribing practitioner, as requested when the prescriber issued the prescription, in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the pharmacist must make a notation of the quantity dispensed on the face of the written prescription or in the pharmacy's electronic records, in the written record or the pharmacy's electronic records of the emergency oral prescription, or in the record of the electronic prescription. When the pharmacist partially fills a prescription, after the prescriber has conveyed this request in a consultation with a pharmacist in accordance with paragraph (b)(3), the pharmacist must note the following: “Authorized by Practitioner to Partial Fill,” the name of the practitioner, the date and time of the discussion, and the pharmacist's initials. In addition, for each such partial filling (whether requested by the prescriber on the prescription or after consultation with the pharmacist), the pharmacy must maintain a record of dispensing that includes the date of each dispensing, the name or initials of the individual who dispensed the substance, and all other information required by 21 CFR 1306.22(c) for schedule III and IV prescription refills. For electronic prescriptions specifically, such required information pertaining to the quantity dispensed, date dispensed, and the dispenser must be linked to each electronic controlled substance prescription record.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon partially filling a prescription at the request of the patient, the caregiver of an adult patient who is named in their medical power of attorney, or a parent or legal guardian of a minor patient, in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the pharmacist must make a notation of the following on the face of the written prescription or in the pharmacy's electronic records, in the written record or the pharmacy's electronic records of the emergency oral prescription, or in the record of the electronic prescription: (I) “The [patient, parent or legal guardian of a minor patient, or caregiver of an adult patient named in a medical power of attorney] requested partial fill on [date such request was made]” and (II) the quantity dispensed. In addition, for each such partial filling, the pharmacy must maintain a record of dispensing that includes the date of each dispensing, the name or initials of the individual who dispensed the substance, and all other information required by 21 CFR 1306.22(c) for schedule III and IV prescriptions. For electronic prescriptions specifically, such required information pertaining to the quantity dispensed, date dispensed, and the dispenser must be linked to each electronic controlled substance prescription record.


</P>
<P>(c) A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance written for a patient in a Long Term Care Facility (LTCF) or for a patient with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal illness may be filled in partial quantities to include individual dosage units. If there is any question whether a patient may be classified as having a terminal illness, the pharmacist must contact the practitioner prior to partially filling the prescription. Both the pharmacist and the prescribing practitioner have a corresponding responsibility to assure that the controlled substance is for a terminally ill patient. The pharmacist must record on the prescription whether the patient is “terminally ill” or an “LTCF patient.” A prescription that is partially filled and does not contain the notation “terminally ill” or “LTCF patient” shall be deemed to have been filled in violation of the Act. For each partial filling, the dispensing pharmacist shall record on the back of the prescription (or on another appropriate record, uniformly maintained, and readily retrievable) the date of the partial filling, quantity dispensed, remaining quantity authorized to be dispensed, and the identification of the dispensing pharmacist. The total quantity of Schedule II controlled substances dispensed in all partial fillings must not exceed the total quantity prescribed. Schedule II prescriptions for patients in a LTCF or patients with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal illness shall be valid for a period not to exceed 60 days from the issue date unless sooner terminated by the discontinuance of medication.
</P>
<P>(d) Information pertaining to current Schedule II prescriptions for patients in a LTCF or for patients with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal illness may be maintained in a computerized system if this system has the capability to permit:
</P>
<P>(1) Output (display or printout) of the original prescription number, date of issue, identification of prescribing individual practitioner, identification of patient, address of the LTCF or address of the hospital or residence of the patient, identification of medication authorized (to include dosage, form, strength and quantity), listing of the partial fillings that have been dispensed under each prescription and the information required in § 1306.13(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate (real time) updating of the prescription record each time a partial filling of the prescription is conducted. 
</P>
<P>(3) Retrieval of partially filled Schedule II prescription information is the same as required by § 1306.22(b) (4) and (5) for Schedule III and IV prescription refill information.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Authority: 21 U.S.C. 801, <I>et seq.</I>) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 45 FR 54330, July 15, 1980; 56 FR 25027, June 3, 1991; 62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010; 88 FR 47001, July 21, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.20.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.14   Labeling of substances and filling of prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The pharmacist filling a written or emergency oral prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II shall affix to the package a label showing date of filling, the pharmacy name and address, the serial number of the prescription, the name of the patient, the name of the prescribing practitioner, and directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in such prescription or required by law. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the prescription is filled at a central fill pharmacy, the central fill pharmacy shall affix to the package a label showing the retail pharmacy name and address and a unique identifier, (<I>i.e.</I> the central fill pharmacy's DEA registration number) indicating that the prescription was filled at the central fill pharmacy, in addition to the information required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply when a controlled substance listed in Schedule II is prescribed for administration to an ultimate user who is institutionalized: <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not more than 7-day supply of the controlled substance listed in Schedule II is dispensed at one time; 
</P>
<P>(2) The controlled substance listed in Schedule II is not in the possession of the ultimate user prior to the administration; 
</P>
<P>(3) The institution maintains appropriate safeguards and records regarding the proper administration, control, dispensing, and storage of the controlled substance listed in Schedule II; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The system employed by the pharmacist in filling a prescription is adequate to identify the supplier, the product, and the patient, and to set forth the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in the prescription or required by law.
</P>
<P>(d) All written prescriptions and written records of emergency oral prescriptions shall be kept in accordance with requirements of § 1304.04(h) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) Where a prescription that has been prepared in accordance with section 1306.12(b) contains instructions from the prescribing practitioner indicating that the prescription shall not be filled until a certain date, no pharmacist may fill the prescription before that date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 13368, July 21, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15921, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997; 68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003; 72 FR 64930, Nov. 19, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.20.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.15   Provision of prescription information between retail pharmacies and central fill pharmacies for prescriptions of Schedule II controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>Prescription information may be provided to an authorized central fill pharmacy by a retail pharmacy for dispensing purposes. The following requirements shall also apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) Prescriptions for controlled substances listed in Schedule II may be transmitted electronically from a retail pharmacy to a central fill pharmacy including via facsimile. The retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription information must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Write the words “CENTRAL FILL” on the face of the original paper prescription and record the name, address, and DEA registration number of the central fill pharmacy to which the prescription has been transmitted, the name of the retail pharmacy pharmacist transmitting the prescription, and the date of transmittal. For electronic prescriptions the name, address, and DEA registration number of the central fill pharmacy to which the prescription has been transmitted, the name of the retail pharmacy pharmacist transmitting the prescription, and the date of transmittal must be added to the electronic prescription record.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that all information required to be on a prescription pursuant to Section 1306.05 of this part is transmitted to the central fill pharmacy (either on the face of the prescription or in the electronic transmission of information); 
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain the original prescription for a period of two years from the date the prescription was filled; 
</P>
<P>(4) Keep a record of receipt of the filled prescription, including the date of receipt, the method of delivery (private, common or contract carrier) and the name of the retail pharmacy employee accepting delivery. 
</P>
<P>(b) The central fill pharmacy receiving the transmitted prescription must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Keep a copy of the prescription (if sent via facsimile) or an electronic record of all the information transmitted by the retail pharmacy, including the name, address, and DEA registration number of the retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription; 
</P>
<P>(2) Keep a record of the date of receipt of the transmitted prescription, the name of the pharmacist filling the prescription, and the date of filling of the prescription; 
</P>
<P>(3) Keep a record of the date the filled prescription was delivered to the retail pharmacy and the method of delivery (<I>i.e.</I> private, common or contract carrier).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003, as amended at 75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Controlled Substances Listed in Schedules III, IV, and V</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.21   Requirement of prescription.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A pharmacist may dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V that is a prescription drug as determined under section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(b)) only pursuant to either a paper prescription signed by a practitioner, a facsimile of a signed paper prescription transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the pharmacy, an electronic prescription that meets the requirements of this part and part 1311 of this chapter, or an oral prescription made by an individual practitioner and promptly reduced to writing by the pharmacist containing all information required in § 1306.05, except for the signature of the practitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual practitioner may administer or dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V in the course of his/her professional practice without a prescription, subject to § 1306.07.
</P>
<P>(c) An institutional practitioner may administer or dispense directly (but not prescribe) a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V only pursuant to a paper prescription signed by an individual practitioner, a facsimile of a paper prescription or order for medication transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the institutional practitioner-pharmacist, an electronic prescription that meets the requirements of this part and part 1311 of this chapter, or an oral prescription made by an individual practitioner and promptly reduced to writing by the pharmacist (containing all information required in § 1306.05 except for the signature of the individual practitioner), or pursuant to an order for medication made by an individual practitioner that is dispensed for immediate administration to the ultimate user, subject to § 1306.07.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.22   Refilling of prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV shall be filled or refilled more than six months after the date on which such prescription was issued. No prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV authorized to be refilled may be refilled more than five times.
</P>
<P>(b) Each refilling of a prescription shall be entered on the back of the prescription or on another appropriate document or electronic prescription record. If entered on another document, such as a medication record, or electronic prescription record, the document or record must be uniformly maintained and readily retrievable.
</P>
<P>(c) The following information must be retrievable by the prescription number:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and dosage form of the controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(2) The date filled or refilled.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity dispensed.
</P>
<P>(4) The initials of the dispensing pharmacist for each refill.
</P>
<P>(5) The total number of refills for that prescription.
</P>
<P>(d) If the pharmacist merely initials and dates the back of the prescription or annotates the electronic prescription record, it shall be deemed that the full face amount of the prescription has been dispensed.
</P>
<P>(e) The prescribing practitioner may authorize additional refills of Schedule III or IV controlled substances on the original prescription through an oral refill authorization transmitted to the pharmacist provided the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The total quantity authorized, including the amount of the original prescription, does not exceed five refills nor extend beyond six months from the date of issue of the original prescription.
</P>
<P>(2) The pharmacist obtaining the oral authorization records on the reverse of the original paper prescription or annotates the electronic prescription record with the date, quantity of refill, number of additional refills authorized, and initials the paper prescription or annotates the electronic prescription record showing who received the authorization from the prescribing practitioner who issued the original prescription.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of each additional refill authorized is equal to or less than the quantity authorized for the initial filling of the original prescription.
</P>
<P>(4) The prescribing practitioner must execute a new and separate prescription for any additional quantities beyond the five-refill, six-month limitation.
</P>
<P>(f) As an alternative to the procedures provided by paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, a computer application may be used for the storage and retrieval of refill information for original paper prescription orders for controlled substances in Schedule III and IV, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Any such proposed computerized application must provide online retrieval (via computer monitor or hard-copy printout) of original prescription order information for those prescription orders that are currently authorized for refilling. This shall include, but is not limited to, data such as the original prescription number; date of issuance of the original prescription order by the practitioner; full name and address of the patient; name, address, and DEA registration number of the practitioner; and the name, strength, dosage form, quantity of the controlled substance prescribed (and quantity dispensed if different from the quantity prescribed), and the total number of refills authorized by the prescribing practitioner.
</P>
<P>(2) Any such proposed computerized application must also provide online retrieval (via computer monitor or hard-copy printout) of the current refill history for Schedule III or IV controlled substance prescription orders (those authorized for refill during the past six months). This refill history shall include, but is not limited to, the name of the controlled substance, the date of refill, the quantity dispensed, the identification code, or name or initials of the dispensing pharmacist for each refill and the total number of refills dispensed to date for that prescription order.
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of the fact that the refill information entered into the computer each time a pharmacist refills an original paper, fax, or oral prescription order for a Schedule III or IV controlled substance is correct must be provided by the individual pharmacist who makes use of such an application. If such an application provides a hard-copy printout of each day's controlled substance prescription order refill data, that printout shall be verified, dated, and signed by the individual pharmacist who refilled such a prescription order. The individual pharmacist must verify that the data indicated are correct and then sign this document in the same manner as he would sign a check or legal document (e.g., J.H. Smith, or John H. Smith). This document shall be maintained in a separate file at that pharmacy for a period of two years from the dispensing date. This printout of the day's controlled substance prescription order refill data must be provided to each pharmacy using such a computerized application within 72 hours of the date on which the refill was dispensed. It must be verified and signed by each pharmacist who is involved with such dispensing. In lieu of such a printout, the pharmacy shall maintain a bound log book, or separate file, in which each individual pharmacist involved in such dispensing shall sign a statement (in the manner previously described) each day, attesting to the fact that the refill information entered into the computer that day has been reviewed by him and is correct as shown. Such a book or file must be maintained at the pharmacy employing such an application for a period of two years after the date of dispensing the appropriately authorized refill.
</P>
<P>(4) Any such computerized application shall have the capability of producing a printout of any refill data that the user pharmacy is responsible for maintaining under the Act and its implementing regulations. For example, this would include a refill-by-refill audit trail for any specified strength and dosage form of any controlled substance (by either brand or generic name or both). Such a printout must include name of the prescribing practitioner, name and address of the patient, quantity dispensed on each refill, date of dispensing for each refill, name or identification code of the dispensing pharmacist, and the number of the original prescription order. In any computerized application employed by a user pharmacy the central recordkeeping location must be capable of sending the printout to the pharmacy within 48 hours, and if a DEA Special Agent or Diversion Investigator requests a copy of such printout from the user pharmacy, it must, if requested to do so by the Agent or Investigator, verify the printout transmittal capability of its application by documentation (e.g., postmark).
</P>
<P>(5) In the event that a pharmacy which employs such a computerized application experiences system down-time, the pharmacy must have an auxiliary procedure which will be used for documentation of refills of Schedule III and IV controlled substance prescription orders. This auxiliary procedure must ensure that refills are authorized by the original prescription order, that the maximum number of refills has not been exceeded, and that all of the appropriate data are retained for online data entry as soon as the computer system is available for use again.
</P>
<P>(g) When filing refill information for original paper, fax, or oral prescription orders for Schedule III or IV controlled substances, a pharmacy may use only one of the two applications described in paragraphs (a) through (e) or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) When filing refill information for electronic prescriptions, a pharmacy must use an application that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.23   Partial filling of prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>The partial filling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is permissible, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(a) Each partial filling is recorded in the same manner as a refilling, 
</P>
<P>(b) The total quantity dispensed in all partial fillings does not exceed the total quantity prescribed, and 
</P>
<P>(c) No dispensing occurs after 6 months after the date on which the prescription was issued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 18733, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 51 FR 5320, Feb. 13, 1986; 62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.24   Labeling of substances and filling of prescriptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The pharmacist filling a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V shall affix to the package a label showing the pharmacy name and address, the serial number and date of initial filling, the name of the patient, the name of the practitioner issuing the prescription, and directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in such prescription as required by law.
</P>
<P>(b) If the prescription is filled at a central fill pharmacy, the central fill pharmacy shall affix to the package a label showing the retail pharmacy name and address and a unique identifier, (<I>i.e.</I> the central fill pharmacy's DEA registration number) indicating that the prescription was filled at the central fill pharmacy, in addition to the information required under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply when a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is prescribed for administration to an ultimate user who is institutionalized: Provided, That:
</P>
<P>(1) Not more than a 34-day supply or 100 dosage units, whichever is less, of the controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is dispensed at one time;
</P>
<P>(2) The controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is not in the possession of the ultimate user prior to administration;
</P>
<P>(3) The institution maintains appropriate safeguards and records the proper administration, control, dispensing, and storage of the controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V; and
</P>
<P>(4) The system employed by the pharmacist in filling a prescription is adequate to identify the supplier, the product and the patient, and to set forth the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in the prescription or required by law.
</P>
<P>(d) All prescriptions for controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV, and V shall be kept in accordance with § 1304.04(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 37411, June 24, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.25   Transfer between pharmacies of prescription information for Schedules III, IV, and V controlled substances for refill purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The transfer of original prescription information for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V for the purpose of refill dispensing is permissible between pharmacies on a one-time basis only. However, pharmacies electronically sharing a real-time, online database may transfer up to the maximum refills permitted by law and the prescriber's authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) Transfers are subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The transfer must be communicated directly between two licensed pharmacists.
</P>
<P>(2) The transferring pharmacist must do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Write the word “VOID” on the face of the invalidated prescription; for electronic prescriptions, information that the prescription has been transferred must be added to the prescription record.
</P>
<P>(ii) Record on the reverse of the invalidated prescription the name, address, and DEA registration number of the pharmacy to which it was transferred and the name of the pharmacist receiving the prescription information; for electronic prescriptions, such information must be added to the prescription record.
</P>
<P>(iii) Record the date of the transfer and the name of the pharmacist transferring the information.
</P>
<P>(3) For paper prescriptions and prescriptions received orally and reduced to writing by the pharmacist pursuant to § 1306.21(a), the pharmacist receiving the transferred prescription information must write the word “transfer” on the face of the transferred prescription and reduce to writing all information required to be on a prescription pursuant to § 1306.05 and include:
</P>
<P>(i) Date of issuance of original prescription.
</P>
<P>(ii) Original number of refills authorized on original prescription.
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of original dispensing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Number of valid refills remaining and date(s) and locations of previous refill(s).
</P>
<P>(v) Pharmacy's name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number from which the prescription information was transferred.
</P>
<P>(vi) Name of pharmacist who transferred the prescription.
</P>
<P>(vii) Pharmacy's name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number from which the prescription was originally filled.
</P>
<P>(4) For electronic prescriptions being transferred electronically, the transferring pharmacist must provide the receiving pharmacist with the following information in addition to the original electronic prescription data:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the original dispensing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of refills remaining and the date(s) and locations of previous refills.
</P>
<P>(iii) The transferring pharmacy's name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number for each dispensing.
</P>
<P>(iv) The name of the pharmacist transferring the prescription.
</P>
<P>(v) The name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number from the pharmacy that originally filled the prescription, if different.
</P>
<P>(5) The pharmacist receiving a transferred electronic prescription must create an electronic record for the prescription that includes the receiving pharmacist's name and all of the information transferred with the prescription under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The original and transferred prescription(s) must be maintained for a period of two years from the date of last refill.
</P>
<P>(d) Pharmacies electronically accessing the same prescription record must satisfy all information requirements of a manual mode for prescription transferal.
</P>
<P>(e) The procedure allowing the transfer of prescription information for refill purposes is permissible only if allowable under existing State or other applicable law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16309, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.26   Dispensing without prescription.</HEAD>
<P>A controlled substance listed in Schedules II, III, IV, or V which is not a prescription drug as determined under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, may be dispensed by a pharmacist without a prescription to a purchaser at retail, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(a) Such dispensing is made only by a pharmacist (as defined in part 1300 of this chapter), and not by a nonpharmacist employee even if under the supervision of a pharmacist (although after the pharmacist has fulfilled his professional and legal responsibilities set forth in this section, the actual cash, credit transaction, or delivery, may be completed by a nonpharmacist); 
</P>
<P>(b) Not more than 240 cc. (8 ounces) of any such controlled substance containing opium, nor more than 120 cc. (4 ounces) of any other such controlled substance nor more than 48 dosage units of any such controlled substance containing opium, nor more than 24 dosage units of any other such controlled substance may be dispensed at retail to the same purchaser in any given 48-hour period; 
</P>
<P>(c) The purchaser is at least 18 years of age; 
</P>
<P>(d) The pharmacist requires every purchaser of a controlled substance under this section not known to him to furnish suitable identification (including proof of age where appropriate); 
</P>
<P>(e) A bound record book for dispensing of controlled substances under this section is maintained by the pharmacist, which book shall contain the name and address of the purchaser, the name and quantity of controlled substance purchased, the date of each purchase, and the name or initials of the pharmacist who dispensed the substance to the purchaser (the book shall be maintained in accordance with the recordkeeping requirement of § 1304.04 of this chapter); and 
</P>
<P>(f) A prescription is not required for distribution or dispensing of the substance pursuant to any other Federal, State or local law.
</P>
<P>(g) Central fill pharmacies may not dispense controlled substances to a purchaser at retail pursuant to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18733, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated and amended at 62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997; 68 FR 37411, June 24, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.27   Provision of prescription information between retail pharmacies and central fill pharmacies for initial and refill prescriptions of Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>Prescription information may be provided to an authorized central fill pharmacy by a retail pharmacy for dispensing purposes. The following requirements shall also apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) Prescriptions for controlled substances listed in Schedule III, IV or V may be transmitted electronically from a retail pharmacy to a central fill pharmacy including via facsimile. The retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription information must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Write the word “CENTRAL FILL” on the face of the original prescription and record the name, address, and DEA registration number of the central fill pharmacy to which the prescription has been transmitted and the name of the retail pharmacy pharmacist transmitting the prescription, and the date of transmittal; 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that all information required to be on a prescription pursuant to § 1306.05 of this part is transmitted to the central fill pharmacy (either on the face of the prescription or in the electronic transmission of information); 
</P>
<P>(3) Indicate in the information transmitted the number of refills already dispensed and the number of refills remaining; 
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain the original prescription for a period of two years from the date the prescription was last refilled; 
</P>
<P>(5) Keep a record of receipt of the filled prescription, including the date of receipt, the method of delivery (private, common or contract carrier) and the name of the retail pharmacy employee accepting delivery. 
</P>
<P>(b) The central fill pharmacy receiving the transmitted prescription must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Keep a copy of the prescription (if sent via facsimile) or an electronic record of all the information transmitted by the retail pharmacy, including the name, address, and DEA registration number of the retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription; 
</P>
<P>(2) Keep a record of the date of receipt of the transmitted prescription, the name of the licensed pharmacist filling the prescription, and dates of filling or refilling of the prescription; 
</P>
<P>(3) Keep a record of the date the filled prescription was delivered to the retail pharmacy and the method of delivery (<I>i.e.</I> private, common or contract carrier).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 37411, June 24, 2003]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.28-1306.49" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.21.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.28-1306.49   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Special Circumstances for Telemedicine Prescribing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="1306.51" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.22.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>1306.51   Telemedicine prescribing of schedule III-V medications for the treatment of Opioid Use Disorder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, terms defined in part 1300 of this chapter, elsewhere in this chapter, or in 21 U.S.C. 802 and 829 shall have the definitions set forth therein.
</P>
<P>(b) A practitioner may issue a prescription for schedule III-V controlled substances listed in 42 CFR 8.12(h)(2) as approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in the treatment of Opioid Use Disorder (OUD), defined as the use of an effective medication such as buprenorphine to treat OUD, pursuant to a communication between the prescribing practitioner and the patient using an interactive telecommunications system, including an audio-only telecommunications system, as described in 42 CFR 410.78(a)(3), if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prescription drug monitoring program review.</I> The prescribing practitioner must be authorized to access the applicable prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP) data of the state in which the patient is located at the time of the telemedicine encounter. The prescribing practitioner shall review such data regarding any controlled substance prescriptions issued to the patient in the last year, or, if less than one year of data is available, in the entire available period. The prescribing practitioner shall ensure the date and time of such a review is annotated in the patient's electronic health record (EHR) or paper record. This review, or attempted review, must be conducted prior to issuing a prescription in a manner authorized under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time limit.</I> The practitioner may issue prescriptions to the patient pursuant to this section for a period not to exceed six calendar months beginning on the date the first prescription is issued. The practitioner may issue additional prescriptions to the patient for schedule III-V controlled substances approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of OUD either:
</P>
<P>(i) After the prescribing practitioner has conducted at least one in-person medical evaluation of the patient, as defined in 21 U.S.C. 829(e)(2)(B); or
</P>
<P>(ii) As otherwise authorized by 21 U.S.C. 829(e), including pursuant to any other form of telemedicine as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(54) or pursuant to practices as determined by regulation issued pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 829(e)(3)(B).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>PDMP inaccessible or unavailable.</I> If the PDMP data is inaccessible or unavailable for any reason, the prescribing practitioner shall annotate in the patient's EHR or paper record the date and time that an attempt to view the PDMP data was made and the reason the data could not be reviewed. A practitioner may prescribe a seven-day supply of medication and must perform another PDMP review before prescribing another seven-day supply. Each time the PDMP is reviewed or attempted to be reviewed, the date and time must be annotated in the patient's EHR. A seven-day supply prescribed pursuant to this paragraph (b)(3) counts toward the time limit described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pharmacy identification requirement.</I> The pharmacist shall verify the identity of the patient prior to filling a controlled substance prescription issued under the authority of this section. The pharmacist shall verify the identity of the patient with a state or Federal Government-issued photographic identification card or other form of identification. For the purposes of verifying the identity of the patient, the pharmacist may accept identification in the manner described herein from any qualifying “ultimate user” as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(27) prior to filling the prescription.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prescription only for treatment of OUD.</I> Controlled substance prescriptions issued pursuant to this section may only be issued for the treatment of OUD, and subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Authorization to prescribe.</I> The practitioner must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Authorized under §§ 1301.11, 1301.12(a), and 1301.13(e)(1)(iv) of this chapter to prescribe the basic class of controlled substance specified on the prescription; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exempt from obtaining a registration to dispense controlled substances under 21 U.S.C. 822(d).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Consistent with general prescription requirements.</I> The issuance of the controlled substance prescription otherwise complies with the requirements set forth in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 6522, Nov. 5, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1306.52" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.7.0.22.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1306.52   Other circumstances where Department of Veterans Affairs practitioners may prescribe controlled substances via the practice of telemedicine.</HEAD>
<P>A practitioner may prescribe controlled substance(s) to a patient via the practice of telemedicine under § 1300.04(i)(7) of this chapter if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The practitioner is:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee or contractor of the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) who is acting in the scope of such employment or contract, and registered under section 303(g) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(g)) (§ 1301.13 of this chapter) in any state or is utilizing the registration of a hospital or clinic operated by the VA registered under section 303(f);
</P>
<P>(2) Prescribing to a VA patient who has previously received, at any time, an in-person medical evaluation by any VA practitioner who at the time of the in-person medical evaluation was acting within the scope of their VA employment or contract and had prescribing authority, or would reasonably be expected to have prescribing authority based on their credentials (<I>e.g.,</I> medical doctor) or organizational role (<I>e.g.,</I> primary care provider), as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Not a contracted practitioner located outside a VA facility or clinic providing care via the community care network or conducting disability compensation evaluations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Prescribing a controlled substance(s) for a legitimate medical purpose in the usual course of professional practice, and in accordance with applicable Federal and State law(s).
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to prescribing, the practitioner must conduct a review of both the VA EHR, to include the VA's internal prescription database, and the PDMP data of the state in which the patient is located at the time of the telemedicine encounter (if the state has such a program) for controlled substance prescription(s) for the patient's previous twelve (12) months preceding the controlled substance prescription(s), or if less than a year of data is available, for the entire prescription period.
</P>
<P>(1) Should either the patient's VA electronic health record, to include the VA's internal prescription database, or the PDMP of the state in which the patient is located at the time of the telemedicine encounter (if the state has such a program) be unavailable or non-operational, for any reason, the VA practitioner must limit the prescription to a 7-day supply. Once the VA's internal prescription database and the PDMP are available or operational, a review of the databases as outlined in this paragraph (b) must be completed to continue prescribing the controlled substance(s) to the VA patient.
</P>
<P>(2) If no PDMP exists in the state in which the patient is located at the time of the telemedicine encounter, the VA practitioner must review the VA internal prescription database prior to issuing a controlled substance prescription. A prescription may extend beyond 7 days under this circumstance.
</P>
<P>(3) The VA practitioner must annotate in the VA patient's EHR their attempts to access the PDMP data of the state in which the patient is located, and VA internal prescription database data. If no PDMP exists in the state in which the patient is located at the time of the telemedicine encounter, the prescribing practitioner must annotate that in the VA patient's EHR. If the prescribing VA practitioner fails to access the PDMP data of the state in which the patient is located or VA internal prescription database data as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the VA practitioner must annotate in the VA patient's EHR the dates and times that the VA practitioner attempted to gain access, the reason why the VA practitioner was unable to gain access, and any follow-up attempts made to gain access to the system. The attempts must be recorded in accordance with the VA's internal policies and recordkeeping requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) The controlled substance prescription(s) must be otherwise in conformity with the requirements of the Controlled Substances Act and this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 6539, Jan. 17, 2025]












</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1307" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1307—MISCELLANEOUS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 822(d), 823(k), 871(b), unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 7801, Apr. 24, 1971, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.01   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.02   Application of State law and other Federal law.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as authorizing or permitting any person to do any act which such person is not authorized or permitted to do under other Federal laws or obligations under international treaties, conventions or protocols, or under the law of the State in which he/she desires to do such act nor shall compliance with such parts be construed as compliance with other Federal or State laws unless expressly provided in such other laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.03   Exceptions to regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may apply for an exception to the application of any provision of this chapter by filing a written request with the Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration, stating the reasons for such exception. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The Administrator may grant an exception in his discretion, but in no case shall he/she be required to grant an exception to any person which is otherwise required by law or the regulations cited in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Special Exceptions for Manufacture and Distribution of Controlled Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.11   Distribution by dispenser to another practitioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A practitioner who is registered to dispense a controlled substance may distribute (without being registered to distribute) a quantity of such substance to— 
</P>
<P>(1) Another practitioner for the purpose of general dispensing by the practitioner to patients, provided that— 
</P>
<P>(i) The practitioner to whom the controlled substance is to be distributed is registered under the Act to dispense that controlled substance; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The distribution is recorded by the distributing practitioner in accordance with § 1304.22(c) of this chapter and by the receiving practitioner in accordance with § 1304.22(c) of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the substance is listed in Schedule I or II, an order form is used as required in part 1305 of this chapter; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed by the practitioner pursuant to this section and § 1301.25 of this chapter during each calendar year in which the practitioner is registered to dispense does not exceed 5 percent of the total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed and dispensed by the practitioner during the same calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) If, during any calendar year in which the practitioner is registered to dispense, the practitioner has reason to believe that the total number of dosage units of all controlled substances which will be distributed by him pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section and § 1301.25 of this chapter will exceed 5 percent of this total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed and dispensed by him during that calendar year, the practitioner shall obtain a registration to distribute controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(c) The distributions that a registered retail pharmacy makes to automated dispensing systems at long term care facilities for which the retail pharmacy also holds registrations do not count toward the 5 percent limit in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 41229, July 11, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 25466, May 13, 2005; 79 FR 53565, Sept. 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.13   Incidental manufacture of controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>Any registered manufacturer who, incidentally but necessarily, manufactures a controlled substance as a result of the manufacture of a controlled substance or basic class of controlled substance for which he is registered and has been issued an individual manufacturing quota pursuant to part 1303 of this chapter (if such substance or class is listed in Schedule I or II) shall be exempt from the requirement of registration pursuant to part 1301 of this chapter and, if such incidentally manufactured substance is listed in Schedule I or II, shall be exempt from the requirement of an individual manufacturing quota pursuant to part 1303 of this chapter, if such substances are disposed of in accordance with part 1317 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 53565, Sept. 9, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.14   Delivery of controlled substances to designated locations of emergency medical services agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding the definition of registered location in § 1300.06 of this chapter, a registered emergency medical services agency may receive controlled substances from a hospital for purposes of restocking an emergency medical services vehicle following an emergency response, and without being subject to the requirements of § 1305.03 of this chapter, provided all of the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The registered or designated location of the agency operating the vehicle maintains the record of such receipt in accordance with § 1304.27(b) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The hospital maintains a record of such delivery to the agency in accordance with § 1304.22(c) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the vehicle is primarily situated at a designated location of an emergency medical services agency, such location notifies the registered location of the agency within 72 hours of the vehicle receiving the controlled substances.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5242, Feb. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.15   Delivery of controlled substances in emergency situations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hospitals and emergency medical services agencies' registered locations and designated locations may deliver controlled substances to each other, with written approval from the Special Agent in Charge of DEA for the area or DEA Headquarters, in the event of:
</P>
<P>(1) Shortages of such substances;
</P>
<P>(2) A public health emergency; or
</P>
<P>(3) A mass casualty event.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 5242, Feb. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disposal of Controlled Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.22   Delivery of surrendered and forfeited controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>Any controlled substance surrendered by delivery to the Administration under part 1317 of this chapter or forfeited pursuant to section 511 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 881) may be delivered to any department, bureau, or other agency of the United States or of any State upon proper application addressed to the Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The application shall show the name, address, and official title of the person or agency to whom the controlled drugs are to be delivered, including the name and quantity of the substances desired and the purpose for which intended. The delivery of such controlled drugs shall be ordered by the Administrator, if, in his opinion, there exists a medical or scientific need therefor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 53565, Sept. 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Special Exempt Persons</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.31   Native American Church.</HEAD>
<P>The listing of peyote as a controlled substance in Schedule I does not apply to the nondrug use of peyote in bona fide religious ceremonies of the Native American Church, and members of the Native American Church so using peyote are exempt from registration. Any person who manufactures peyote for or distributes peyote to the Native American Church, however, is required to obtain registration annually and to comply with all other requirements of law. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.27" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Special Exceptions Related to Telemedicine</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1307.41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.8.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1307.41   Temporary extension of certain COVID-19 telemedicine flexibilities for prescription of controlled medications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section is in effect until the end of the day December 31, 2026. The authorization granted in paragraph (b) of this section expires at the end of December 31, 2026.
</P>
<P>(b) During the period May 12, 2023, through December 31, 2026, a DEA-registered practitioner is authorized to prescribe schedule II-V controlled substances via telemedicine, as defined in 21 CFR 1300.04(i), to a patient without having conducted an in-person medical evaluation of the patient if all of the conditions listed in paragraph (c) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(c) A practitioner is only authorized to issue prescriptions for controlled substances pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice;
</P>
<P>(2) The prescription is issued pursuant to a communication between a practitioner and a patient using an interactive telecommunications system referred to in 42 CFR 410.78(a)(3);
</P>
<P>(3) The practitioner is:
</P>
<P>(i) Authorized under their registration under 21 CFR 1301.13(e)(1)(iv) to prescribe the basic class of controlled substance specified on the prescription; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exempt from obtaining a registration to dispense controlled substances under 21 U.S.C. 822(d); and
</P>
<P>(4) The prescription is consistent with all other requirements of 21 CFR part 1306.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 30042, May 10, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 69882, Oct. 10, 2023; 89 FR 91257, Nov. 19, 2024; 90 FR 61306, Dec. 31, 2025]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 90 FR 61306, Dec. 31, 2025, § 1307.41 was revised, effective Jan. 1, 2026 through Dec. 31, 2026.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1308" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1308—SCHEDULES OF CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 811, 812, 871(b), 956(b), unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="28" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.28" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.01   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>Schedules of controlled substances established by section 202 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 812) and nonnarcotic substances, chemical preparations, veterinary anabolic steroid implant products, prescription products, anabolic steroid products, and cannabis plant material and products made therefrom that contain tetrahydrocannabinols excluded pursuant to section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811), as they are changed, updated, and republished from time to time, are set forth in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13967, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.03   Administration Controlled Substances Code Number.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each controlled substance, or basic class thereof, has been assigned an “Administration Controlled Substances Code Number” for purposes of identification of the substances or class on certain Certificates of Registration issued by the Administration pursuant to §§ 1301.35 of this chapter and on certain order forms issued by the Administration pursuant to § 1305.05(d) of this chapter. Applicants for procurement and/or individual manufacturing quotas must include the appropriate code number on the application as required in §§ 1303.12(b) and 1303.22(a) of this chapter. Applicants for import and export permits must include the appropriate code number on the application as required in §§ 1312.12(a) and 1312.22(a) of this chapter. Authorized registrants who desire to import or export a controlled substance for which an import or export permit is not required must include the appropriate Administration Controlled Substances Code Number beneath or beside the name of each controlled substance listed on the DEA Form 236 (Controlled Substance Import/Export Declaration) which is executed for such importation or exportation as required in §§ 1312.18(c) and 1312.27(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as stated in paragraph (a) of this section, no applicant or registrant is required to use the Administration Controlled Substances Code Number for any purpose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973 and amended at 51 FR 15318, Apr. 23, 1986; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="29" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.29" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Schedules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.11   Schedule I.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20251211" REFID="22">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 57542, Dec. 11, 2025.</XREF>
<P>(a) Schedule I shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the DEA Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opiates.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation (for purposes of 3-methylthiofentanyl only, the term isomer includes the optical and geometric isomers):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Acetyl-<E T="03">alpha</E>-methylfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylacetamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9815
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Acetylmethadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9601
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Acetyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylacetamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9821
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Acryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylacrylamide; also known as acryloylfentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9811
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) AH-7921 (3,4-dichloro-<E T="03">N</E>-[(1-dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9551
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Allylprodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9602
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Alphacetylmethadol (except <E T="03">levo</E>-alphacetylmethadol also known as <E T="03">levo</E>-<E T="03">alpha</E>-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9603
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Alphameprodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9604
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Alphamethadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9605
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) <E T="03">alpha′</E>-Methyl butyryl fentanyl (2-methyl-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylbutanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9864
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) <E T="03">alpha</E>-Methylfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[1-(<E T="03">alpha</E>-methyl-<E T="03">beta</E>-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl]propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(<E T="03">N</E>-propanilido)piperidine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9814
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) <E T="03">alpha</E>-Methylthiofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9832
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) Benzethidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9606
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) Betacetylmethadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9607
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) <E T="03">beta</E>-Hydroxyfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9830
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(16) <E T="03">beta</E>-Hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenylethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9831
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(17) <E T="03">beta</E>-Hydroxythiofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[1-[2-hydroxy-2-(thiophen-2-yl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropionamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9836
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(18) Betameprodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9608
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(19) Betamethadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9609
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(20) <E T="03">beta</E>-Methyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-phenyl-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-(2-phenylpropyl)piperidin-4-yl)propionamide; also known as β-methyl fentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9856
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(21) <E T="03">beta-</E>methylacetyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-phenyl-N-(1-(2-phenylpropyl)piperidin-4-yl)acetamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9868


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(22) <E T="03">beta′</E>-Phenyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N,</E>3-diphenylpropanamide; also known as β′-phenyl fentanyl; 3-phenylpropanoyl fentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9842
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(23) Betaprodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9611


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(24) brorphine (1-(1-(1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-1,3-dihydro-2<E T="03">H</E>-benzo[<E T="03">d</E>]imidazol-2-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9098
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(25) Butonitazene (2-(2-(4-butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)-<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethylethan-1-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9751
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(26) Butyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylbutyramide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9822
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(27) Clonitazene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9612
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(28) Crotonyl fentanyl ((<E T="03">E</E>)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylbut-2-enamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9844
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(29) Cyclopentyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylcyclopentanecarboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9847
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(30) Cyclopropyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9845
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(31) Dextromoramide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9613
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(32) Diampromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9615
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(33) Diethylthiambutene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9616
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(34) Difenoxin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9168
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(35) Dimenoxadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9617
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(36) Dimepheptanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9618
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(37) 2′,5′-Dimethoxyfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-(2,5-dimethoxyphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropionamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9861


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(38) Dimethylthiambutene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9619
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(39) Dioxaphetyl butyrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9621
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(40) Dipipanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9622
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(41) Ethylmethylthiambutene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9623
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(42) 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)-<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethylethan-1-amine (Other names: etodesnitazene; etazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9765


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(43) Etonitazene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9624
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(44) Etoxeridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9625
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(45) Fentanyl carbamate (ethyl (1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)(phenyl)carbamate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9851


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(46) Flunitazene (<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethyl-2-(2-(4-fluorobenzyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9756
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(47) 4-Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide; also known as <E T="03">para</E>-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9824
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(48) 2′-Fluoro <E T="03">ortho</E>-fluorofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-(2-fluorophenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(2-fluorophenyl)propionamide; also known as 2′-fluoro 2-fluorofentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9855
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(49) Furanyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylfuran-2-carboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9834
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(50) 3-Furanyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylfuran-3-carboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9860
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(51) Furethidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9626
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(52) Hydroxypethidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9627
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(53) Isobutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylisobutyramide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9827
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(54) Isotonitazene (<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9614
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(55) Isovaleryl fentanyl (3-methyl-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N-</E>phenylbutanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9862


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(56) Ketobemidone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9628
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(57) Levomoramide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9629
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(58) Levophenacylmorphan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9631
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(59)<E T="03"> meta</E>-Fluorofentanyl <E T="03">(N</E>-(3-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9857
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(60) <E T="03">meta</E>-fluorofuranyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(3-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9871


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(61) <E T="03">meta</E>-Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(3-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9858
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(62) Methoxyacetyl fentanyl (2-methoxy-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylacetamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9825
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(63) 4′-Methyl acetyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-(4-methylphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylacetamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9819
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(64) 2-Methyl AP-237 (1-(2-methyl-4-(3-phenylprop-2-en-1-yl)piperazin-1-yl)butan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9664
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(65) 3-Methylfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9813
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(66) 3-Methylthiofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-[3-methyl-1-(2-thienylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(67) Metodesnitazene (<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9764


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(68) Metonitazene (<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9757
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(69) Morpheridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9632
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(70) MPPP (1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9661
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(71) MT-45 (1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9560
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(72) <E T="03">N</E>-Desethyl isotonitazene (<E T="03">N-</E>ethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9760


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(73) Noracymethadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9633
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(74) Norlevorphanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9634
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(75) Normethadone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9635
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(76) Norpipanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9636


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(77) <E T="03">N</E>-Piperidinyl etonitazene (2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(piperidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazole (other names: etonitazepipne)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9761


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(78) 2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazole (Other names: <E T="03">N</E>-pyrrolidino etonitazene; etonitazepyne)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9758


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(79) 2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazole (Other names: <E T="03">N</E>-pyrrolidino metonitazene; metonitazepyne)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9762
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(80) 5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazole (other names: <E T="03">N</E>-pyrrolidino protonitazene; protonitazepyne)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9763


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(81) Ocfentanil (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9838
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(82) <E T="03">ortho</E>-chlorofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-chlorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9828




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(83) <E T="03">ortho</E>-Fluoroacryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acrylamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9852
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(84) <E T="03">ortho</E>-Fluorobutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide; also known as 2-fluorobutyryl fentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9846
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(85) <E T="03">ortho</E>-Fluorofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide); also known as 2-fluorofentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9816


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(86) <E T="03">ortho</E>-Fluorofuranyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9863
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(87) <E T="03">ortho</E>-Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9853
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(88) <E T="03">ortho</E>-Methyl acetylfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-methylphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide; also known as 2-methyl acetylfentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9848
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(89)<E T="03"> ortho-</E>methylcyclopropyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(2-methylphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9849


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(90) <E T="03">ortho</E>-Methyl methoxyacetyl fentanyl (2-methoxy-<E T="03">N</E>-(2-methylphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide; also known as 2-methyl methoxyacetyl fentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9820
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(91) <E T="03">para</E>-Chloroisobutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-chlorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9826
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(92) <E T="03">para</E>-chlorofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-chlorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9818


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(93) <E T="03">para</E>-Fluorobutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9823
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(94) <E T="03">para</E>-Fluorofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]propanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9812
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(95) <E T="03">para</E>-Fluoro furanyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9854
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(96) <E T="03">para</E>-fluoro valeryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-fluorophenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)pentanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9870


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(97) <E T="03">para</E>-Methoxybutyryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-methoxyphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9837
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(98) <E T="03">para</E>-Methoxyfuranyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-methoxyphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9859


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(99) <E T="03">para</E>-Methylcyclopropyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-methylphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9865


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(100) <E T="03">para</E>-Methylfentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(4-methylphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide; also known as 4-methylfentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9817
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(101) PEPAP (1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9663
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(102) Phenadoxone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9637
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(103) Phenampromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9638
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(104) Phenomorphan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9647
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(105) Phenoperidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9641
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(106) Phenyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylbenzamide; also known as benzoyl fentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9841
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(107) Piritramide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9642
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(108) Proheptazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9643
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(109) Properidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9644
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(110) Propiram</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9649
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(111) <E T="03">N,N</E>-diethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (Other name: protonitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9759


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(112) Racemoramide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9645
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(113) Tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9843


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(114) tetrahydrothiofuranyl fentanyl (also known as: tetrahydrothiophene fentanyl) (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenyltetrahydrothiophene-2-carboxamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9869


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(115) Thiofentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-phenyl-<E T="03">N</E>-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]propanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9835
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(116) Thiofuranyl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylthiophene-2-carboxamide; also known as 2-thiofuranyl fentanyl; thiophene fentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9839
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(117) Tilidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(118) Trimeperidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9646
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(119) U-47700 (3,4-dichloro-<E T="03">N</E>-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-<E T="03">N</E>-methylbenzamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9547
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(120) Valeryl fentanyl (<E T="03">N</E>-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpentanamide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9840
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(121) Zipeprol (1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-phenylpropan-2-ol)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9873


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Opium derivatives.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Acetorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9319
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9051
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Benzylmorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9052 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Codeine methylbromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9070
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Codeine-N-Oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9053
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Cyprenorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9054
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Desomorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9055
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Dihydromorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9145
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Drotebanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9056
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Heroin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) Hydromorphinol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9301
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) Methyldesorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9302
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) Methyldihydromorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9304
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) Morphine methylbromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9305
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(16) Morphine methylsulfonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9306
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(17) Morphine-N-Oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9307
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(18) Myrophine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9308
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(19) Nicocodeine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9309
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(20) Nicomorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9312
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(21) Normorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9313
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(22) Pholcodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9314
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(23) Thebacon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9315</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Hallucinogenic substances.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation, which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for purposes of this paragraph only, the term “isomer” includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7249
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: etryptamine; Monase; α-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; α-ET; and AET.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7391
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-α-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) 4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7392
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B, Nexus.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7396
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-α-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphet-amine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7399
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: DOET
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (other name: 2C-T-7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7348
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) 4-methoxyamphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7411
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-α-methylphenethylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine, PMA
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7401
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7395
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade and other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-α-methylphenethylamine; “DOM”; and “STP”
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7405
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)-phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, MDEA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7404
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)-phenethylamine, and N-hydroxy MDA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7402
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) 5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine Some trade or other names: 5-methoxy-3-[2-(dimethylamino)ethyl]indole; 5-MeO-DMT</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7431
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(16) Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7432
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(17) Bufotenine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7433
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade and other names: 3-(β-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(18) Diethyltryptamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7434
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade and other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(19) Dimethyltryptamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7435
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: DMT
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(20) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DIPT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(21) Ibogaine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade and other names: 7-Ethyl-6,6β,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1′, 2′:1,2] azepino [5,4-b] indole; Tabernanthe iboga
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(22) Lysergic acid diethylamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7315
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(23) Marihuana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7360
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(24) Mescaline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7381
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(25) Parahexyl—7374; some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran; Synhexyl.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(26) Peyote</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7415
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as <E T="03">Lophophora williamsii Lemaire,</E> whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">(Interprets 21 USC 812(c), Schedule I(c) (12))
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(27) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7482
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(28) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7484
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(29) Psilocybin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7437
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(30) Psilocyn</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7438
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(31) Tetrahydrocannabinols</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7370
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (i) Meaning tetrahydrocannabinols, except as in paragraph (d)(31)(ii) of this section, naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant), as well as synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the cannabis plant, or in the resinous extractives of such plant, and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity to those substances contained in the plant, such as the following:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">6 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3, 4 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">(Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered.)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"> (ii) Tetrahydrocannabinols does not include any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that falls within the definition of hemp set forth in 7 U.S.C. 1639<E T="03">o</E>.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(32) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7455
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(33) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7458
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(34) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7470
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine, 2-thienylanalog of phencyclidine, TPCP, TCP
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(35) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7473 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some other names: TCPy
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(36) 4-methylmethcathinone (Mephedrone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(37) 3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7535 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(38) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7509 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(39) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-D)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7508 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(40) 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-C)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7519 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(41) 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-I)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7518 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(42) 2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7385 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(43) 2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7532 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(44) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7517 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(45) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine (2C-N)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7521 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(46) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-P)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7524
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(47) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone (Methylone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7540
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(48) (1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (UR-144)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7144)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(49) [1-(5-fluoro-pentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (5-fluoro-UR-144, XLR11)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7011)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(50) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-adamantyl)-1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (APINACA, AKB48)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7048)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(51) quinolin-8-yl 1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole-3-carboxylate (PB-22; QUPIC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7222)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(52) quinolin-8-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole-3-carboxylate (5-fluoro-PB-22; 5F-PB-22)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7225)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(53) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-FUBINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7012)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(54) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (ADB-PINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7035)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(55) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-<E T="03">N-</E>(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25I-NBOMe, 2C-I-NBOMe)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7538)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(56) 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-<E T="03">N-</E>(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25C-NBOMe, 2C-C-NBOMe)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7537)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(57) 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-<E T="03">N-</E>(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25B-NBOMe, 2C-B-NBOMe)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7536)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(58) Marihuana Extract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7350
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Meaning an extract containing one or more cannabinoids that has been derived from any plant of the genus Cannabis, containing greater than 0.3% delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol on a dry weight basis, other than the separated resin (whether crude or purified) obtained from the plant.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(59) 4-methyl-<E T="03">N</E>-ethylcathinone (4-MEC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1249)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(60) 4-methyl-<E T="03">alpha</E>-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4-MePPP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7498)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(61) <E T="03">alpha</E>-pyrrolidinopentiophenone (α-PVP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7545)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(62) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)butan-1-one (butylone, bk-MBDB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7541)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(63) 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (pentedrone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1246)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(64) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)pentan-1-one (pentylone, bk-MBDP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7542)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(65) 4-fluoro-<E T="03">N</E>-methylcathinone (4-FMC; flephedrone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1238)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(66) 3-fluoro-<E T="03">N</E>-methylcathinone (3-FMC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1233)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(67) 1-(naphthalen-2-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (naphyrone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1258)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(68) <E T="03">alpha</E>-pyrrolidinobutiophenone (α-PBP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7546)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(69) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-CHMINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7031)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(70) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-PINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7023)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(71) [1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (THJ-2201)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7024)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(72) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (MAB-CHMINACA; ADB-CHMINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7032)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(73) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (Other names: 5F-ADB; 5F-MDMB-PINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7034
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(74) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate (Other names: 5F-AMB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7033
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(75) <E T="03">N</E>-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other names: 5F-APINACA, 5F-AKB48)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7049
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(76) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other names: ADB-FUBINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(77) methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (Other names: MDMB-CHMICA, MMB-CHMINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7042
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(78) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (Other names: MDMB-FUBINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(79) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate, (FUB-AMB, MMB-FUBINACA, AMB-FUBINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7021)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(80) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one (ethylone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7547


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(81) Naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole-3-carboxylate (Other names: NM2201; CBL2201)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7221
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(82) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other name: 5F-AB-PINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7025
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(83) 1-(4-cyanobutyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other names: 4-CN-CUMYL-BUTINACA; 4-cyano-CUMYL-BUTINACA; 4-CN-CUMYL BINACA; CUMYL-4CN-BINACA; SGT-78)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7089
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(84) methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate (Other names: MMB-CHMICA; AMB-CHMICA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7044
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(85) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-pyrrolo[2,3-b]pyridine-3-carboxamide (Other name: 5F-CUMYL-P7AICA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7085


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(86) <E T="03">N</E>-ethylpentylone (Other names: ephylone, 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)pentan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7543


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(87) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (4F-MDMB-BINACA, 4F-MDMB-BUTINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7043
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(88) 1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-methylpropan-2-amine (other names: <E T="03">para</E>-methoxymethamphetamine, PMMA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1245)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(89) ethyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: 5F-EDMB-PINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7036
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(90) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other names: 5F-MDMB-PICA; 5F-MDMB-2201)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7041
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(91) <E T="03">N</E>-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (other names: FUB-AKB48; FUB-APINACA; AKB48 N-(4-FLUOROBENZYL))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7047
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(92) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-<E T="03">N</E>-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (other names: 5F-CUMYL-PINACA; SGT-25)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7083
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(93) (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (other name: FUB-144)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(94) <E T="03">N</E>-Ethylhexedrone (Other names: α-ethylaminohexanophenone; 2-(ethylamino)-1-phenylhexan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7246
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(95) <E T="03">alpha-</E>Pyrrolidinohexanophenone (Other names: α<E T="03">-</E>PHP; α-pyrrolidinohexanophenone; 1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7544
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(96) 4-Methyl-<E T="03">alpha</E>-ethylaminopentiophenone (Other names: 4-MEAP; 2-(ethylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)pentan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7245
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(97) 4′-Methyl-<E T="03">alpha</E>-pyrrolidinohexiophenone (Other names: MPHP; 4′-methyl-<E T="03">alpha</E>-pyrrolidinohexanophenone; 1-(4-methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7446
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(98) <E T="03">alpha</E>-Pyrrolidinoheptaphenone (Other names: PV8; 1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)heptan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7548
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(99) 4′-Chloro-<E T="03">alpha</E>-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (Other names: 4-chloro-α-PVP; 4′-chloro-α-pyrrolidinopentiophenone; 1-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7443
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(100) 2-(ethylamino)-2-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexan-1-one (methoxetamine, MXE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7286


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(101) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)butan-1-one (other names: eutylone; bk-EBDB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7549


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(102) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-butyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-BUTINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7027


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(103) 4-methyl-1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (other names: α-PiHP; <E T="03">alpha</E>-PiHP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7551


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(104) 2-(methylamino)-1-(3-methylphenyl)propan-1-one (other names: 3-MMC; 3-methylmethcathinone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1259


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(105) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)pentan-1-one (other names: dipentylone; <E T="03">N,N</E>-dimethylpentylone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7552


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(106) 4-Chloromethcathinone (4-CMC, 1-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1239
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(107) 1-pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-018 and AM678)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7118
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(108) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (AM2201)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7201
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(109) 3-methoxyphencyclidine (Other names: 1-(1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl)piperidine; 3-MeO-PCP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7457
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(110) methyl 3,3-dimethyl-2-(1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamido)butanoate (other name: MDMB-4en-PINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7090
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(111) Methyl 2-[[1-(4-fluorobutyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 4F-MDMB-BUTICA; 4F-MDMB-BICA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7091
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(112) <E T="03">N</E>-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-4en-PINACA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7092
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(113) Ethyl 2-[[1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 5F-EDMB-PICA; 5F-EDMB-2201)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7094
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(114) Methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole-3-carboxamido)-3-methyl butanoate (other name: MMB-FUBICA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7095
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(115) 6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6a,7,8,9,10,10a-hexahydro-6<E T="03">H</E>-benzo[<E T="03">c</E>]chromen-1-ol (other names: hexahydrocannabinol, HHC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(116) 5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one (other names: CUMYL-PEGACLONE; SGT-151)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7093


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Depressants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Clonazolam (Other name: 6-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-8-nitro-4<E T="03">H</E>-benzo[<E T="03">f</E>][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-<E T="03">a</E>][1,4]diazepine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2786
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Diclazepam (Other name: 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-1,3-dihydro-2<E T="03">H</E>-benzo[<E T="03">e</E>][1,4]diazepin-2-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2789
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Etizolam (Other name: 4-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-ethyl-9-methyl-6<E T="03">H</E>-thieno[3,2-<E T="03">f</E>][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-<E T="03">a</E>][1,4]diazepine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Flualprazolam (Other name: 8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4<E T="03">H</E>-benzo[<E T="03">f</E>][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-<E T="03">a</E>][1,4]diazepine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2785
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Flubromazolam (Other name: 8-bromo-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4<E T="03">H</E>-benzo[<E T="03">f</E>][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-<E T="03">a</E>][1,4]diazepine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2788
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (some other names include GHB; gamma-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutanoic acid; sodium oxybate; sodium oxybutyrate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2010 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Mecloqualone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2572
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Methaqualone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2565</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Stimulants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Amineptine (7-[(10,11-dihydro-5<E T="03">H</E>-dibenzo[<E T="03">a,d</E>]cyclohepten-5-yl)amino]heptanoic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1219
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Aminorex (Some other names: aminoxaphen; 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; or 4,5-dihydro-5-phenly-2-oxazolamine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1585 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) N-Benzylpiperazine (some other names: BZP, 1-benzylpiperazine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7493
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Cathinone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone, alpha-aminopropiophenone, 2-aminopropiophenone, and norephedrone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) 4,4′-Dimethylaminorex (4,4′-DMAR; 4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-2-oxazolamine; 4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-4,5-dihydro-1,3-oxazol-2-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1595


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Ethylphenidate (ethyl 2-phenyl-2-(piperidin-2-yl)acetate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1727
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Fenethylline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1503


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) 4-Fluoroamphetamine (4-FA, 1-(4-fluorophenyl)propan-2-amine, <E T="03">para</E>-fluoroamphetamine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1476


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Mesocarb (<E T="03">N</E>-phenyl-<E T="03">N</E> ′-(3-(1-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1,2,3-oxadiazol-3-ium-5-yl)carbamimidate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1227


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Methcathinone (Some other names: 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone; alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one; alpha-<E T="03">N</E>-methylaminopropiophenone; monomethylpropion; ephedrone; <E T="03">N</E>-methylcathinone; methylcathinone; AL-464; AL-422; AL-463 and UR1432), its salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1237
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Methiopropamine (<E T="03">N</E>-methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1478


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) (±)<E T="03">cis</E>-4-methylaminorex ((±)<E T="03">cis</E>-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1590 


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) N-ethylamphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1475
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) <E T="03">N,N</E>-dimethylamphetamine (also known as <E T="03">N,N</E>-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine; <E T="03">N,N</E>-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1480</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) <I>Cannabimimetic agents.</I> Unless specifically exempted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of cannabimimetic agents, or which contains their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Cannabimimetic agents</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(i) In this paragraph (g), <E T="03">cannabimimetic agent</E> means any substance that is a cannabinoid receptor type 1 (CB1 receptor) agonist as demonstrated by binding studies and functional assays within any of the following structural classes:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(A) 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl or alkenyl, whether or not substituted on the cyclohexyl ring to any extent.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(B) 3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 3-(1-naphthylmethane)indole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthoyl or naphthyl ring to any extent.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(C) 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring, whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthoyl ring to any extent.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(D) 1-(1-naphthylmethylene)indene by substitution of the 3-position of the indene ring, whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(E) 3-phenylacetylindole or 3-benzoylindole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the phenyl ring to any extent.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ii) The definition of cannabimimetic agent in this paragraph (g) includes, but is not limited to, the following substances:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(A) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (CP-47,497);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(B) 5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (cannabicyclohexanol or CP-47,497 C8-homolog);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(C) 1-butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-073);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(D) 1-hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-019);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(E) 1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(F) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-250);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(G) 1-pentyl-3-[1-(4-methoxynaphthoyl)]indole (JWH-081);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(H) 1-pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-122);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(I) 1-pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-398);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(J) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (AM694);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(K) 1-pentyl-3-[(4-methoxy)-benzoyl]indole (SR-19 and RCS-4);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(L) 1-cyclohexylethyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (SR-18 and RCS-8);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(M) 1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (JWH-203);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(N) (1-((1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (AM-1220);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(O) (2-iodophenyl)(1-((1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)methanone (AM-2233);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(P) (4-ethylnaphthalen-1-yl)(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)methanone (EAM-2201);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(Q) (4-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl)(2-methyl-1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-098);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(R) 3-((4-methylnaphthalen-1-yl)methyl)-1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indole (JWH-184);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(S) (4-methylnaphthalen-1-yl)(1-(2-morpholinoethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-193);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(T) (4-ethylnaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-210);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(U) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)(4-methylnaphthalen-1-yl)methanone (MAM-2201);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(V) (2-methyl-1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (JWH-007);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(W) naphthalen-1-yl(1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-022);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(X) (1-hexyl-5-phenyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-pyrrol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (JWH-147);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(Y) 2-(3-methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)ethan-1-one (JWH-302);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(Z) (5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-pyrrol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (JWH-307);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(AA) (4-fluoronaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-412);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(BB) (5-methyl-3-(morpholinomethyl)-2,3-dihydro-[1,4]oxazino[2,3,4-<E T="03">hi</E>]indol-6-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (WIN 55,212-2);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(CC) 2-(5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl)cyclohexyl)-5-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol (CP-55,940);
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(DD) 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)-5-(2-methylheptan-2-yl)phenol (CP-47,497 C6 homolog); and
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(EE) 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)-5-(2-methyldecan-2-yl)phenol (CP-47,497 C9 homolog).
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) <I>Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling.</I> Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1)-(29) [Reserved]


</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(30) Fentanyl-related substances, their isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers, esters and ethers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9850</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) Fentanyl-related substance means any substance not otherwise listed under another Administration Controlled Substance Code Number, and for which no exemption or approval is in effect under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act [21 U.S.C. 355], that is structurally related to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(A) Replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;
</P>
<P>(B) Substitution in or on the phenethyl group with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;
</P>
<P>(C) Substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;
</P>
<P>(D) Replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle whether or not further substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; and/or
</P>
<P>(E) Replacement of the <I>N</I>-propionyl group by another acyl group.
</P>
<P>(ii) This definition includes, but is not limited to, the following substances: (A)-(B) [Reserved]


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(31)-(64) [Reserved] 




</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(65) 5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names: CUMYL-PEGACLONE; SGT-151)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7093




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(66)-(78) [Reserved]


</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(79) 2-(2-((2,3-dihydrobenzofuran-5-yl)methyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)-<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethylethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: Ethyleneoxynitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9770
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(80) 2-(2-(benzodioxol-5-ylmethyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)-<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethylethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other names: Methylenedioxynitazene; 3′,4′-methylenedioxynitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9766
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(81) 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-methyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)-<E T="03">N,N</E>-diethylethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: 5-methyl etodesnitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9767
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(82) 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-ethylethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: <E T="03">N</E>-desethyl etonitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9768
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(83)<E T="03"> N</E>-ethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: <E T="03">N</E>-desethyl protonitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9769
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(84) 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazol-1-yl)<E T="03">-N,N</E>-dimethylethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: <E T="03">N,N</E>-dimethylamino etonitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(85) 2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1<E T="03">H</E>-benzimidazole, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: <E T="03">N</E>-pyrrolidino isotonitazene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9772
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(86) 8-bromo-1-methyl-6-phenyl-4<E T="03">H</E>-benzo[<E T="03">f</E>][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-<E T="03">a</E>][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (Other name: bromazolam)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2778
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(87) 2-Fluorodeschloroketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (other name: 2-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)cyclohexan-1-one; also known as 2-FDCK)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7284
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22141, June 20, 1974]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1308.11, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Notes:</HED><PSPACE/><P>1.At 83 FR 5191, Feb. 6, 2018, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraph (h)(30), effective Feb. 6, 2018, through Feb. 6, 2020. Effective Feb. 6, 2020, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until May 6, 2021, by Public Law 116-114. Effective May 4, 2021, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until October 22, 2021, by Public Law 117-12. Effective Sept. 30, 2021, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Jan. 28, 2022, by Public Law 117-43. Effective Jan. 13, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Feb. 18, 2022, by Public Law 117-70. Effective Feb. 18, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Mar. 11, 2022, by Public Law 117-86. Effective Mar. 11, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Mar. 15, 2022 by Public Law 117-95. Effective Mar. 15, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Dec. 31, 2022 by Public Law No. 117-103. Effective Dec. 29, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Dec. 31, 2024 by Public Law No. 117-328. Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Mar. 31, 2025 by Public Law No. 116-114. Congress extended the effective period for (h)(30) until Sept. 30, 2025 by Public Law No. 119-4.




</P><P>2. At 88 FR 86045, Dec. 12, 2023, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraphs (h)(62) through (h)(67), effective Dec. 12, 2023 through Dec. 12, 2025. At 90 FR 57356 and 57542, Dec. 11, 2025, paragraphs (h)(62) and (65) were extended through Dec. 12, 2026. At 91 FR 21963, Apr. 24, 2026, (h)(62) was removed.


</P><P>3. At 90 FR 48265, Oct. 15, 2025, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraphs (h)(79) through (85), effective Oct. 15, 2025, until Oct. 15, 2027. 
</P><P>4. At 91 FR 12508, Mar. 16, 2026, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraph (h)(86), effective from Mar. 16, 2026, until Mar. 16, 2028.  
</P><P>5. At 91 FR 30209, May 22, 2026, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraph (h)(87), effective May 22, 2026 through May 22, 2028.
</P></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.12   Schedule II.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Schedule II shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substances, vegetable origin or chemical synthesis.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: 
</P>
<P>(1) Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate excluding apomorphine, thebaine-derived butorphanol, dextrorphan, nalbuphine, naldemedine, nalmefene, naloxegol, naloxone, 6β-naltrexol, naltrexone, and samidorphan, and their respective salts, but including the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Codeine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9050 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Dihydroetorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9334 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Ethylmorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9190 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Etorphine hydrochloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9059 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Granulated opium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9640 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Hydrocodone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9193 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Hydromorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9150 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) Metopon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9260 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) Morphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) Noroxymorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9668
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) Opium extracts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9610 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) Opium fluid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9620 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiii) Oripavine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9330
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiv) Oxycodone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9143 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xv) Oxymorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9652 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvi) Powdered opium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9639 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvii) Raw opium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9600 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xviii) Thebaine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9333 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xix) Tincture of opium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9630</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraph (b) (1) of this section, except that these substances shall not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium. 
</P>
<P>(3) Opium poppy and poppy straw. 
</P>
<P>(4) Coca leaves (9040) and any salt, compound, derivative or preparation of coca leaves (including cocaine (9041) and ecgonine (9180) and their salts, isomers, derivatives and salts of isomers and derivatives), and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, except that the substances shall not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves, which extractions do not contain cocaine or ecgonine;
</P>
<P>(ii) [
<SU>123</SU>I]ioflupane; or
</P>
<P>(iii) [
<SU>18</SU>F]FP-CIT.
</P>
<P>(5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid or powder form which contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy), 9670. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Opiates.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless in another schedule any of the following opiates, including its isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers, esters and ethers whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, dextrorphan and levopropoxyphene excepted: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Alfentanil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9737
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Alphaprodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Anileridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Bezitramide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Bulk dextropropoxyphene (non-dosage forms)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9273
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Carfentanil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9743
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Dihydrocodeine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Diphenoxylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9170
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Fentanyl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9801
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Isomethadone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9226
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Levo-alphacetylmethadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9648
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">[Some other names: levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, LAAM]
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) Levomethorphan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) Levorphanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) Metazocine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) Methadone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(16) Methadone-Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4,4-diphenyl butane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(17) Moramide-Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9802
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(18) Oliceridine (<E T="03">N</E>-[(3-methoxythiophen-2-yl)methyl]({2-[(9<E T="03">R</E>)-9-(pyridin-2-yl)-6-oxaspiro[4.5]decan-9-yl]ethyl})amine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9245
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(19) Pethidine (meperidine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9230
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(20) Pethidine-Intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9232
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(21) Pethidine-Intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9233
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(22) Pethidine-Intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9234
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(23) Phenazocine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9715
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(24) Piminodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9730
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(25) Racemethorphan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9732
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(26) Racemorphan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9733
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(27) Remifentanil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(28) Sufentanil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9740
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(29) Tapentadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(30) Thiafentanil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9729</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Stimulants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1105
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Phenmetrazine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1631
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Methylphenidate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1724
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Lisdexamfetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1205.


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Depressants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Amobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Glutethimide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2550
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Pentobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2270
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Phencyclidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7471
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Secobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2315</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Hallucinogenic substances.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Nabilone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7379 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">[Another name for nabilone: (±)<E T="03">-trans-</E>3-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-6,6a,7,8,10,10a-hexahydro-1-hydroxy-6,6-dimethyl-9H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran-9-one]
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Dronabinol [(-)-delta-9-<E T="03">trans</E> tetrahydrocannabinol] in an oral solution in a drug product approved for marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(7365)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) <I>Immediate precursors.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Phenylacetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8501
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names: phenyl-2-propanone; P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; methyl benzyl ketone;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine (PCP):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7460
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8603</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Immediate precursor to fentanyl:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4-anilino-N-phenethylpiperidine (ANPP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8333
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) <E T="03">N</E>-phenyl-<E T="03">N</E>-(piperidin-4-yl)propionamide (norfentanyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8366</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22142, June 20, 1974]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1308.12, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.13   Schedule III.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Schedule III shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the DEA Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stimulants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, positional, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under § 1308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1405
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Benzphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1228
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Chlorphentermine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1645
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Clortermine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1647
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Phendimetrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1615</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Depressants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Any compound, mixture or preparation containing:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(i) Amobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ii) Secobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2316
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(iii) Pentobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2271
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Any suppository dosage form containing:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(i) Amobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ii) Secobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2316
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(iii) Pentobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2271
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or any salt thereof</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Chlorhexadol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2510
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Embutramide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Any drug product containing gamma hydroxybutyric acid, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, for which an application is approved under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2012 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7285
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">[Some other names for ketamine: (±)-2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone]
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Lysergic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Lysergic acid amide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7310
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Methyprylon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2575
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Perampanel, and its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) Sulfondiethylmethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) Sulfonethylmethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2605
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) Sulfonmethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) Tiletamine and zolazepam or any salt thereof</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7295
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam combination product: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Telazol
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names for tiletamine: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Some trade or other names for zolazepam:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-[3,4-<E T="03">e</E>] [1,4]-diazepin-7(1<E T="03">H</E>)-one, flupyrazapon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Nalorphine 9400. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Narcotic drugs.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(i) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9803 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ii) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9804 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(iii) Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9807 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(iv) Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9808 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(v) Not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9809 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(vi) Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9810 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (2) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts, as set forth below:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(i) Buprenorphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9064
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ii) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Anabolic steroids.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any substance meeting the definition of anabolic steroid as set forth in § 1300.01 of this chapter, including any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, esters and ethers (4000):
</P>
<P>(1) 5α-androstan-3,17-dione;
</P>
<P>(2) 5α-androstan-3,6,17-trione;
</P>
<P>(3) 1-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst-1-ene);
</P>
<P>(4) 1-androstenediol (3α,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst-1-ene);
</P>
<P>(5) 4-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene);
</P>
<P>(6) 5-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene);
</P>
<P>(7) 1-androstenedione (5α-androst-1-en-3,17-dione);
</P>
<P>(8) 4-androstenedione (androst-4-en-3,17-dione);
</P>
<P>(9) 5-androstenedione (androst-5-en-3,17-dione);
</P>
<P>(10) bolasterone (7α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(11) boldenone (17β-hydroxyandrost-1,4-diene-3-one);
</P>
<P>(12) boldione (androsta-1,4-diene-3,17-dione);
</P>
<P>(13) 6-bromo-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17-dione;
</P>
<P>(14) 6-bromo-androstan-3,17-dione;
</P>
<P>(15) calusterone (7β,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(16) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17β-diol;
</P>
<P>(17) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-androst-4-ene-3β,17β-diol;
</P>
<P>(18) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one;
</P>
<P>(19) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-androst-4-ene-3,11-dione;
</P>
<P>(20) clostebol (4-chloro-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(21) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-17β-hydroxy-17α-methyl-androst-1,4-dien-3-one);
</P>
<P>(22) desoxymethyltestosterone (17α-methyl-5α-androst-2-en-17β-ol) (a.k.a. “madol”);
</P>
<P>(23) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-androstan-3-one);
</P>
<P>(24) Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. “1-testosterone”) (17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(25) 3β,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androstane;
</P>
<P>(26) 3α,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androstane;
</P>
<P>(27) 2α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxy-5β-androstan-3-one;
</P>
<P>(28) drostanolone (17β-hydroxy-2α-methyl-5α-androstan-3-one);
</P>
<P>(29) 2α,3α-epithio-17α-methyl-5α-androstan-17β-ol;
</P>
<P>(30) estra-4,9,11-triene-3,17-dione;
</P>
<P>(31) 13β-ethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one;
</P>
<P>(32) ethylestrenol (17α-ethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-ene);
</P>
<P>(33) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17α-methyl-11β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(34) formebolone (2-formyl-17α-methyl-11α,17β-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
</P>
<P>(35) furazabol (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]furazan);
</P>
<P>(36) [3,2-c]furazan-5α-androstan-17β-ol;
</P>
<P>(37) 18a-homo-3-hydroxy-estra-2,5(10)-dien-17-one;
</P>
<P>(38) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(39) 4-hydroxy-androst-4-ene-3,17-dione;
</P>
<P>(40) 17β-hydroxy-androstano[2,3-d]isoxazole;
</P>
<P>(41) 17β-hydroxy-androstano[3,2-c]isoxazole;
</P>
<P>(42) 3β-hydroxy-estra-4,9,11-trien-17-one;
</P>
<P>(43) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(44) mestanolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5α-androstan-3-one);
</P>
<P>(45) mesterolone (1α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5α-androstan-3-one);
</P>
<P>(46) methandienone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
</P>
<P>(47) methandriol (17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-5-ene);
</P>
<P>(48) methasterone (2α,17α-dimethyl-5α-androstan-17β-ol-3-one or 2α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxy-5α-androstan-3-one);
</P>
<P>(49) methenolone (1-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(50) 17α-methyl-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17β-diol;
</P>
<P>(51) 17α-methyl-5α-androstan-17β-ol;
</P>
<P>(52) 17α-methyl-androstan-3-hydroxyimine-17β-ol;
</P>
<P>(53) 6α-methyl-androst-4-ene-3,17-dione;
</P>
<P>(54) 17α-methyl-androst-2-ene-3,17β-diol;
</P>
<P>(55) 17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androstane;
</P>
<P>(56) 17α-methyl-3α,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androstane;
</P>
<P>(57) 17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-ene;
</P>
<P>(58) 17α-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17α-methyl-4-hydroxy-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(59) methyldienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one);
</P>
<P>(60) 17α-methyl-Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-17α-methyl-5α-androst-1-en-3-one) (a.k.a. “17-α-methyl-1-testosterone”);
</P>
<P>(61) methyltestosterone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(62) methyltrienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9,11-trien-3-one);
</P>
<P>(63) mibolerone (7α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(64) nandrolone (17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(65) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);
</P>
<P>(66) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3α,17β-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);
</P>
<P>(67) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);
</P>
<P>(68) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3α,17β-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);
</P>
<P>(69) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione);
</P>
<P>(70) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-en-3,17-dione);
</P>
<P>(71) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-en-3,17-dione);
</P>
<P>(72) norbolethone (13β,17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(73) norclostebol (4-chloro-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(74) norethandrolone (17α-ethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(75) normethandrolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(76) oxandrolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-2-oxa-5α-androstan-3-one);
</P>
<P>(77) oxymesterone (17α-methyl-4,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(78) oxymetholone (17α-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-17β-hydroxy-5α-androstan-3-one);
</P>
<P>(79) prostanozol (17β-hydroxy-5α-androstano[3,2-c]pyrazole or [3,2-c]pyrazole-5α-androstan-17β-ol);
</P>
<P>(80) [3,2-c]pyrazole-androst-4-en-17β-ol;
</P>
<P>(81) stanozolol (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole);
</P>
<P>(82) stenbolone (17β-hydroxy-2-methyl-5α-androst-1-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(83) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic acid lactone);
</P>
<P>(84) testosterone (17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
</P>
<P>(85) tetrahydrogestrinone (13β,17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4,9,11-trien-3-one); and
</P>
<P>(86) trenbolone (17β-hydroxyestr-4,9,11-trien-3-one).


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hallucinogenic substances.</I> (1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product—7369.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>[Some other names for dronabinol: (6a<I>R-trans</I>)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6<I>H</I>-dibenzo [<I>b,d</I>]pyran-1-ol] or (-)-delta-9-(<I>trans</I>)-tetrahydrocannabinol]</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Marijuana, as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(16), in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or subject to a state medical marijuana license—XXXX
</P>
<P>(3) Marijuana extract, as defined in 21 CFR 1308.11(d)(58), in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or subject to a state medical marijuana license—XXXX
</P>
<P>(4) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or in marijuana subject to a state medical marijuana license—XXXX
</P>
<P>(i) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols means those delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols, except as in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, that are naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant).
</P>
<P>(ii) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols do not include any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that falls within the definition of hemp set forth in 7 U.S.C. 1639<I>o.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols do not include any delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols contained in substances excluded from the definition of marijuana as set forth in 21 U.S.C. 802(16)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]—XXXX
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22142, June 20, 1974]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1308.13, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.14   Schedule IV.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Schedule IV shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the DEA Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Narcotic drugs.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9167
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Dextropropoxyphene (alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propionoxybutane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9278
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) 2-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanol, its salts, optical and geometric isomers and salts of these isomers (including tramadol)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9752</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Depressants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Alfaxalone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2731
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Alprazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2882
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Barbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2145
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Brexanolone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Bromazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2748
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Camazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2749
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Carisoprodol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8192
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Chloral betaine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2460
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Chloral hydrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2465
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Chlordiazepoxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2744
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Clobazam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2751
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) Clonazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2737
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) Clorazepate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2768
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) Clotiazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2752
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) Cloxazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2753
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(16) Daridorexant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2410
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(17) Delorazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2754
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(18) Diazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2765
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(19) Dichloralphenazone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2467
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(20) Estazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2756
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(21) Ethchlorvynol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2540
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(22) Ethinamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2545
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(23) Ethyl loflazepate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2758
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(24) Fludiazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2759
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(25) Flunitrazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2763
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(26) Flurazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2767
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(27) Fospropofol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2138
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(28) Halazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2762
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(29) Haloxazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2771
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(30) Ketazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2772
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(31) Lemborexant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2245
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(32) Loprazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2773
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(33) Lorazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2885
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(34) Lormetazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2774
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(35) Mebutamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(36) Medazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2836
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(37) Meprobamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2820
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(38) Methohexital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2264
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(39) Methylphenobarbital (mephobarbital)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(40) Midazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2884
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(41) Nimetazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2837
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(42) Nitrazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2834
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(43) Nordiazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2838
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(44) Oxazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2835
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(45) Oxazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2839
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(46) Paraldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2585
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(47) Petrichloral</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2591
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(48) Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2285
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(49) Pinazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2883
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(50) Prazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2764
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(51) Quazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2881
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(52) Remimazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2846
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(53) Suvorexant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2223
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(54) Temazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2925
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(55) Tetrazepam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2886
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(56) Triazolam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2887
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(57) Zaleplon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2781
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(58) Zolpidem</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2783
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(59) Zopiclone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2784
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(60) Zuranolone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2420</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Lorcaserin.</I> Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Lorcaserin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1625</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Stimulants.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1230
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Diethylpropion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Fencamfamin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1760
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Fenproporex</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1575
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Mazindol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1605
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Mefenorex</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1580
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7)Modafinil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1680
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1530
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Phentermine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1640
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Pipradrol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Serdexmethylphenidate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1729
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) Sibutramine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1675
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) Solriamfetol (2-amino-3-phenylpropyl carbamate; benzenepropanol, beta-amino-, carbamate (ester))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino- 1,2-diphenylethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1635</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) <I>Other substances.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Pentazocine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9709
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Butorphanol (including its optical isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Eluxadoline (5-[[[(<E T="03">2S</E>)-2-amino-3-[4-aminocarbonyl)-2,6-dimethylphenyl]-1-oxopropyl][(<E T="03">1S</E>)-1-(4-phenyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-imidazol-2-yl)ethyl]amino]methyl]-2-methoxybenzoic acid) (including its optical isomers) and its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (9725).</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22143, June 20, 1974]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1308.14, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.15   Schedule V.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Schedule V shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Narcotic drugs.</I> Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs and their salts, as set forth below: 
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Narcotic drugs containing non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients.</I> Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below, which shall include one or more non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by narcotic drugs alone: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams. 
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams. 
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams. 
</P>
<P>(4) Not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit. 
</P>
<P>(5) Not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams. 
</P>
<P>(6) Not more than 0.5 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Stimulants.</I> Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Pyrovalerone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1485.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) [Reserved]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Depressants.</I> Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Brivaracetam ((2S)-2-[(4R)-2-oxo-4-propylpyrrolidin-1-yl] butanamide) (also referred to as BRV; UCB-34714; Briviact) (including its salts)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2710
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Cenobamate ([(1R)-1-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(tetrazol-2-yl)ethyl] carbamate; 2<E T="03">H</E>-tetrazole-2-ethanol, alpha-(2-chlorophenyl)-, carbamate (ester), (alpha<E T="03">R</E>)-; carbamic acid (<E T="03">R</E>)-(+)-1-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(2<E T="03">H</E>-tetrazol-2-yl)ethyl ester)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Ezogabine [N-[2-amino-4-(4-fluorobenzylamino)-phenyl]-carbamic acid ethyl ester]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2779
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Ganaxolone (3α-hydroxy-3β-methyl-5α-pregnan-20-one)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2401
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Lacosamide [(<E T="03">R</E>)-2-acetoamido-<E T="03">N</E>-benzyl-3-methoxy-propionamide]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2746
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Lasmiditan [2,4,6-trifluoro-<E T="03">N</E>-(6-(1-methylpiperidine-4-carbonyl)pyridine-2-yl-benzamide]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2790
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Pregabalin [(S)-3-(aminomethyl)-5-methylhexanoic acid]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2782</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22143, June 20, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 38383, Aug. 28, 1978; 44 FR 40888, July 13, 1979; 47 FR 49841, Nov. 3, 1982; 50 FR 8108, Feb. 28, 1985; 52 FR 5952, Feb. 27, 1987; 53 FR 10870, Apr. 4, 1988; 56 FR 61372, Dec. 3, 1991; 67 FR 62370, Oct. 7, 2002; 70 FR 43635, July 28, 2005; 74 FR 23790, May 21, 2009; 76 FR 77899, Dec. 15, 2011; 81 FR 29491, May 12, 2016; 83 FR 48953, Sept 28, 2018; 85 FR 5562, Jan. 31, 2020; 85 FR 13746, Mar. 10, 2020; 85 FR 51645, Aug. 21, 2020; 87 FR 32996, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="30" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.30" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Excluded Nonnarcotic Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.30.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.21   Application for exclusion of a nonnarcotic substance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person seeking to have any nonnarcotic drug that may, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301), be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription, excluded from any schedule, pursuant to section 201(g)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)(1)), may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for an exclusion under this section shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the substance for which exclusion is sought; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The complete quantitative composition of the substance. 
</P>
<P>(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exclusion under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of his application, and if not accepted, the reason therefore. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth as to be readily understood. If the applicant desires, he may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is issued and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of his order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may at any time revoke any exclusion granted pursuant to section 201(g) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)) by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for handling an application for an exclusion which has been accepted for filing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973, as amended at 70 FR 74657, Dec. 16, 2005; 75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.30.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.22   Excluded substances.</HEAD>
<P>The following nonnarcotic substances which may, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301), be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription, are excluded from all schedules pursuant to section 201(g) (1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g) (1)): 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Excluded Nonnarcotic Products
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Company 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Trade name 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NDC code 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Controlled substance 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(mg or mg/ml)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aphena Pharma Solutions—New York, LLC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nasal Decongestant Inhaler/Vapor Inhaler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IN</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Levmetamfetamine (l-Desoxyephedrine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bioline Laboratories</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Theophed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00719-1945</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Goldline Laboratories</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guiaphed Elixir</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00182-1377</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Goldline Laboratories</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tedrigen Tablets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00182-0134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hawthorne Products Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Choate's Leg Freeze</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">LQ</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chloral hydrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parke-Davis &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tedral</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00071-0230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parke-Davis &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tedral Elixir</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00071-0242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parke-Davis &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tedral S.A.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00071-0231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parke-Davis &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tedral Suspension</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00071-0237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SU</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parmed Pharmacy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asma-Ese</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00349-2018</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Procter &amp; Gamble Co., The</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vicks VapoInhaler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37000-686-01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IN</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Levmetamfetamine (<E T="03">l</E>-Desoxyephedrine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rondex Labs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Azma-Aids</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00367-3153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Smith Kline Consumer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Benzedrex</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49692-0928</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IN</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Propylhexedrine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sterling Drug, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bronkolixir</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00057-1004</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sterling Drug, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bronkotabs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00057-1005</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">White Hall Labs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primatene (P-tablets)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">00573-2940</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenobarbital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8255, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 41 FR 16553, Apr. 20, 1976; 41 FR 53477, Dec. 7, 1976; 46 FR 51603, Oct. 21, 1981; 47 FR 45867, Oct. 14, 1982; 54 FR 2100, Jan. 19, 1989; 55 FR 12162, Mar. 30, 1990; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 74 FR 44283, Aug. 28, 2009; 80 FR 65634, 65637, Oct. 27, 2015; 81 FR 6453, Feb. 8, 2016]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.31" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exempt Chemical Preparations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.31.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.23   Exemption of certain chemical preparations; application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may, by regulation, exempt from the application of all or any part of the Act any chemical preparation or mixture containing one or more controlled substances listed in any schedule, which preparation or mixture is intended for laboratory, industrial, educational, or special research purposes and not for general administration to a human being or other animal, if the preparation or mixture either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contains no narcotic controlled substance and is packaged in such a form or concentration that the packaged quantity does not present any significant potential for abuse (the type of packaging and the history of abuse of the same or similar preparations may be considered in determining the potential for abuse of the preparation or mixture); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Contains either a narcotic or nonnarcotic controlled substance and one or more adulterating or denaturing agents in such a manner, combination, quantity, proportion, or concentration, that the preparation or mixture does not present any potential for abuse. If the preparation or mixture contains a narcotic controlled substance, the preparation or mixture must be formulated in such a manner that it incorporates methods of denaturing or other means so that the preparation or mixture is not liable to be abused or have ill effects, if abused, and so that the narcotic substance cannot in practice be removed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person seeking to have any preparation or mixture containing a controlled substance and one or more noncontrolled substances exempted from the application of all or any part of the Act, pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(c) An application for an exemption under this section shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and registration number, if any, of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and registration number, if any, of the manufacturer or importer of the preparation or mixture, if not the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(3) The exact trade name or other designation of the preparation or mixture; 
</P>
<P>(4) The complete qualitative and quantitative composition of the preparation or mixture (including all active and inactive ingredients and all controlled and noncontrolled substances); 
</P>
<P>(5) The form of the immediate container in which the preparation or mixture will be distributed with sufficient descriptive detail to identify the preparation or mixture (e.g., bottle, packet, vial, soft plastic pillow, agar gel plate, etc.); 
</P>
<P>(6) The dimensions or capacity of the immediate container of the preparation or mixture; 
</P>
<P>(7) The label and labeling, as defined in part 1300 of this chapter, of the immediate container and the commercial containers, if any, of the preparation or mixture; 
</P>
<P>(8) A brief statement of the facts which the applicant believes justify the granting of an exemption under this paragraph, including information on the use to which the preparation or mixture will be put; 
</P>
<P>(9) The date of the application; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Which of the information submitted on the application, if any, is deemed by the applicant to be a trade secret or otherwise confidential and entitled to protection under subsection 402(a)(8) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 842(a) (8)) or any other law restricting public disclosure of information. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may require the applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of his application, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (c) or requested pursuant to paragraph (d) is lacking or is not set forth as to be readily understood. If the applicant desires, he may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of his order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator may at any time revoke or modify any exemption granted pursuant to this section by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (e) of this section for handling an application for an exemption which has been accepted for filing. The Administrator may also modify or revoke the criteria by which exemptions are granted (and thereby modify or revoke all preparations and mixtures granted under the old criteria) and modify the scope of exemptions at any time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 46 FR 28841, May 29, 1981; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.31.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.24   Exempt chemical preparations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The chemical preparations and mixtures approved pursuant to § 1308.23 are exempt from application of sections 302, 303, 305, 306, 307, 308, 309, 1002, 1003 and 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822-823, 825-829, 952-954) and § 1301.74 of this chapter, to the extent described in paragraphs (b) to (h) of this section. Substances set forth in paragraph (j) of this section shall be exempt from the application of sections 305, 306, 307, 308, 309, 1002, 1003 and 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 825-829, 952-954) and §§ 1301.71-1301.73 and 1301.74 (a), (b), (d), (e) and (f) of this chapter to the extent as hereinafter may be provided.
</P>
<P>(b) Registration and security: Any person who manufactures an exempt chemical preparation or mixture must be registered under the Act and comply with all relevant security requirements regarding controlled substances being used in the manufacturing process until the preparation or mixture is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section. Any other person who handles an exempt chemical preparation after it is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section is not required to be registered under the Act to handle that preparation, and the preparation is not required to be stored in accordance with security requirements regarding controlled substances. 
</P>
<P>(c) Labeling: In lieu of the requirements set forth in part 1302 of this chapter, the label and the labeling of an exempt chemical preparation must be prominently marked with its full trade name or other description and the name of the manufacturer or supplier as set forth in paragraph (i) of this section, in such a way that the product can be readily identified as an exempt chemical preparation. The label and labeling must also include in a prominent manner the statement “For industrial use only” or “For chemical use only” or “For in vitro use only—not for human or animal use” or “Diagnostic reagent—for professional use only” or a comparable statement warning the person reading it that human or animal use is not intended. The symbol designating the schedule of the controlled substance is not required on either the label or the labeling of the exempt chemical preparation, nor is it necessary to list all ingredients of the preparation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records and reports:</I> Any person who manufactures an exempt chemical preparation or mixture must keep complete and accurate records and file all reports required under part 1304 of this chapter regarding all controlled substances being used in the manufacturing process until the preparation or mixture is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section. In lieu of records and reports required under part 1304 of this chapter regarding exempt chemical preparations, the manufacturer need only record the name, address, and registration number, if any, of each person to whom the manufacturer distributes any exempt chemical preparation. Each importer or exporter of an exempt narcotic chemical preparation must submit a semiannual report of the total quantity of each substance imported or exported in each calendar half-year within 30 days of the close of the period to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Any other person who handles an exempt chemical preparation after it is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section is not required to maintain records or file reports.
</P>
<P>(e) Quotas, order forms, prescriptions, import, export, and transshipment requirements: Once an exempt chemical preparation is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section, the requirements regarding quotas, order forms, prescriptions, import permits and declarations, export permit and declarations, and transshipment and intransit permits and declarations do not apply. These requirements do apply, however, to any controlled substances used in manufacturing the exempt chemical preparation before it is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) Criminal penalties: No exemption granted pursuant to § 1308.23 affects the criminal liability for illegal manufacture, distribution, or possession of controlled substances contained in the exempt chemical preparation. Distribution, possession, and use of an exempt chemical preparation are lawful for registrants and nonregistrants only as long as such distribution, possession, or use is intended for laboratory, industrial, or educational purposes and not for immediate or subsequent administration to a human being or other animal. 
</P>
<P>(g) Bulk materials: For materials exempted in bulk quantities, the Administrator may prescribe requirements other than those set forth in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section on a case-by-case basis. 
</P>
<P>(h) Changes in chemical preparations: Any change in the quantitative or qualitative composition of the preparation or mixture after the date of application, or change in the trade name or other designation of the preparation or mixture, set forth in paragraph (i) of this section, requires a new application for exemption. 
</P>
<P>(i) A listing of exempt chemical preparations may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(j) The following substances are designated as exempt chemical preparations for the purposes set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chloral.</I> When packaged in a sealed, oxygen-free environment, under nitrogen pressure, safeguarded against exposure to the air.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emit</I>
<SU>R</SU> <I>Phenobarbital Enzyme Reagent B.</I> In one liter quantities each with a 5 ml. retention sample for repackaging as an exempt chemical preparation only.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8255, Mar. 30, 1973]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1308.24, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.32" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Excluded Veterinary Anabolic Steroid Implant Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.32.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.25   Exclusion of a veterinary anabolic steroid implant product; application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person seeking to have any anabolic steroid product, which is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, identified as being excluded from any schedule, pursuant to section 102(41)(B)(i) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(i)), may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration . See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for any exclusion under this section shall be submitted in triplicate and contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the product;
</P>
<P>(3) The chemical structural formula or description for any anabolic steroid contained in the product;
</P>
<P>(4) A complete description of dosage and quantitative composition of the dosage form;.
</P>
<P>(5) The conditions of use including whether or not Federal law restricts this product to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian;
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the delivery system in which the dosage form will be distributed with sufficient detail to identify the product (e.g. 20 cartridge brown plastic belt);
</P>
<P>(7) The label and labeling of the immediate container and the commercial containers, if any, of the product;.
</P>
<P>(8) The name and address of the manufacturer of the dosage form if different from that of the applicant; and
</P>
<P>(9) Evidence that the product has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for administration through implant to cattle or other nonhuman species.
</P>
<P>(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exclusion under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of the application, and if not accepted, the reason therefore. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth as to be readily understood. The applicant may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and have published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is issued and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it will take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may at any time revoke or modify any designation of excluded status granted pursuant to this section by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for handling an application for an exclusion which has been accepted for filing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 42936, Aug. 30, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.32.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.26   Excluded veterinary anabolic steroid implant products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Products containing an anabolic steroid, that are expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which have been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration are excluded from all schedules pursuant to section 102(41)(B)(i) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(i)). A listing of the excluded products may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with section 102(41)(B)(ii) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(ii)) if any person prescribes, dispenses, or distributes a product listed in paragraph (a) of this section for human use, such person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed, or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of section 102(41)(A) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(A)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 42936, Aug. 30, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 19534, May 7, 1992; 58 FR 15088, Mar. 19, 1993; 62 FR 13967, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.33" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exempted Prescription Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.33.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.31   Application for exemption of a nonnarcotic prescription product.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person seeking to have any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any nonnarcotic controlled substance listed in § 1308.12(e), or in § 1308.13(b) or (c), or in § 1308.14, or in § 1308.15, exempted from application of all or any part of the Act pursuant to section 201(g)(3)(A), of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(A)) may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for an exemption under this section shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The complete quantitative composition of the dosage form. 
</P>
<P>(2) Description of the unit dosage form together with complete labeling. 
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the pharmacology of the product including animal investigations and clinical evaluations and studies, with emphasis on the psychic and/or physiological dependence liability (this must be done for each of the active ingredients separately and for the combination product). 
</P>
<P>(4) Details of synergisms and antagonisms among ingredients. 
</P>
<P>(5) Deterrent effects of the noncontrolled ingredients. 
</P>
<P>(6) Complete copies of all literature in support of claims. 
</P>
<P>(7) Reported instances of abuse. 
</P>
<P>(8) Reported and anticipated adverse effects. 
</P>
<P>(9) Number of dosage units produced for the past 2 years. 
</P>
<P>(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or non-acceptance of the application, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth so as to be readily understood. If the applicant desires, he may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If accepted for filing, the Administrator shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> general notice of this proposed rulemaking in granting or denying the application. Such notice shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the rule is proposed, a statement of the proposed rule granting or denying an exemption, and, in the discretion of the Administrator, a summary of the subjects and issues involved. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the proposal and shall designate in the notice of proposed rule making the time during which such filings may be made. After consideration of the application and any comments on or objections to his proposed rulemaking, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his final order on the application, which shall set forth the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect, which shall not be less than 30 days from the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may revoke any exemption granted pursuant to section 201(g)(3)(A) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(A)) by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for handling an application for an exemption which has been accepted for filing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 44 FR 18968, Mar. 30, 1979; 52 FR 9803, Mar. 27, 1987; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.33.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.32   Exempted prescription products.</HEAD>
<P>The compounds, mixtures, or preparations that contain a nonnarcotic controlled substance listed in § 1308.12(e) or in § 1308.13(b) or (c) or in § 1308.14 or in § 1308.15 listed in the Table of Exempted Prescription Products have been exempted by the Administrator from the application of sections 302 through 305, 307 through 309, and 1002 through 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822-825, 827-829, and 952-954) and §§ 1301.13, 1301.22, and §§ 1301.71 through 1301.76 of this chapter for administrative purposes only. An exception to the above is that those products containing butalbital shall not be exempt from the requirement of 21 U.S.C. 952-954 concerning importation, exportation, transshipment and in-transit shipment of controlled substances. Any deviation from the quantitative composition of any of the listed drugs shall require a petition of exemption in order for the product to be exempted. A listing of the Exempted Prescription Products may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.34" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exempt Anabolic Steroid Products</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.34.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.33   Exemption of certain anabolic steroid products; application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator, upon the recommendation of Secretary of Health and Human Services, may, by regulation, exempt from the application of all or any part of the Act any compound, mixture, or preparation containing an anabolic steroid as defined in part 1300 of this chapter, which is intended for administration to a human being or animal, if, because of its concentration, preparation, formulation, or delivery system, it has no significant potential for abuse.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person seeking to have any compound, mixture, or preparation containing an anabolic steroid as defined in part 1300 of this chapter exempted from the application of all or any part of the Act, pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(c) An application for an exemption under this section shall be submitted in triplicate and contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the product;
</P>
<P>(3) The chemical structural formula or description for any anabolic steroid contained in the product;
</P>
<P>(4) The complete description of dosage and quantitative composition of the dosage form;
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the delivery system, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(6) The indications and conditions for use in which species, including whether or not this product is a prescription drug;
</P>
<P>(7) Information to facilitate identification of the dosage form, such as shape, color, coating, and scoring;
</P>
<P>(8) The label and labeling of the immediate container and the commercial containers, if any, of the product;
</P>
<P>(9) The units in which the dosage form is ordinarily available; and
</P>
<P>(10) The facts which the applicant believes justify:
</P>
<P>(i) A determination that the product has no significant potential for abuse and
</P>
<P>(ii) a granting of an exemption under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of the application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of the application, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section is lacking or is not set forth so as to be readily understood. The applicant may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. If accepted for filing, the Administrator will request from the Secretary for Health and Human Services his recommendation, as to whether such product which contains an anabolic steroid should be considered for exemption from certain portions of the Controlled Substances Act. On receipt of the recommendation of the Secretary, the Administrator shall make a determination as to whether the evidence submitted or otherwise available sufficiently establishes that the product possesses no significant potential for abuse. The Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is issued, and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it will take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of his order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may revoke any exemption granted pursuant to section 1903(a) of Public Law 101-647 by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (d) of this section for handling an application for an exemption which has been accepted for filing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 42936, Aug. 30, 1991; 57 FR 10815, Mar. 31, 1992, as amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 70 FR 74657, Dec. 16, 2005; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.34.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.34   Exempt anabolic steroid products.</HEAD>
<P>The list of compounds, mixtures, or preparations that contain an anabolic steroid that have been exempted by the Administrator from application of sections 302 through 309 and 1002 through 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822-829 and 952-954) and §§ 1301.13, 1301.22, and 1301.71 through 1301.76 of this chapter for administrative purposes only may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.35" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exempt Cannabis Plant Material, and Products Made Therefrom, that Contain Tetrahydrocannabinols</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.35.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.35   Exemption of certain cannabis plant material, and products made therefrom, that contain tetrahydrocannabinols.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any processed plant material or animal feed mixture containing any amount of tetrahydrocannabinols (THC) that is both: 
</P>
<P>(1) Made from any portion of a plant of the genus Cannabis excluded from the definition of marijuana under the Act [i.e., the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such mature stalks (except the resin extracted therefrom), fiber, oil, or cake, or the sterilized seed of such plant which is incapable of germination] and 
</P>
<P>(2) Not used, or intended for use, for human consumption, has been exempted by the Administrator from the application of the Act and this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this section, the following terms shall have the meanings specified: 
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>processed plant material</I> means cannabis plant material that has been subject to industrial processes, or mixed with other ingredients, such that it cannot readily be converted into any form that can be used for human consumption. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>animal feed mixture</I> means sterilized cannabis seeds mixed with other ingredients (not derived from the cannabis plant) in a formulation that is designed, marketed, and distributed for animal consumption (and not for human consumption). 
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>used for human consumption</I> means either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ingested orally or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Applied by any means such that THC enters the human body. 
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>intended for use for human consumption</I> means any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Designed by the manufacturer for human consumption; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Marketed for human consumption; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Distributed, exported, or imported, with the intent that it be used for human consumption. 
</P>
<P>(c) In any proceeding arising under the Act or this chapter, the burden of going forward with the evidence that a material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing THC is exempt from control pursuant to this section shall be upon the person claiming such exemption, as set forth in section 515(a)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 885(a)(1)). In order to meet this burden with respect to a product or plant material that has not been expressly exempted from control by the Administrator pursuant to § 1308.23, the person claiming the exemption must present rigorous scientific evidence, including well-documented scientific studies by experts trained and qualified to evaluate the effects of drugs on humans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 51544, Oct. 9, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="36" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.41   Hearings generally.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing on the issuance, amendment, or repeal of rules pursuant to section 201 of the Act, the procedures for such hearing and accompanying proceedings shall be governed generally by the rulemaking procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811), by §§ 1308.42-1308.51, and by §§ 1316.41-1316.67 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.42   Purpose of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If requested by any interested person after proceedings are initiated pursuant to § 1308.43, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence and expert opinion regarding the issues involved in the issuance, amendment or repeal of a rule issuable pursuant to section 201(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a)). Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. Additional information relating to hearings to include waivers or modification of rules, request for hearing, burden of proof, time and place, and final order are set forth in part 1316 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.43" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.43   Initiation of proceedings for rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person may submit a petition to initiate proceedings for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule or regulation issuable pursuant to the provisions of section 201 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Petitions shall be submitted in quintuplicate to the Administrator. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Petitions shall be in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>__________ (Date)
</FP>
<FP>Administrator, Drug Enforcement Administration ______ (Mailing Address)
</FP>
<P>Dear Sir: The undersigned ________ hereby petitions the Administrator to initiate proceedings for the issuance (amendment or repeal) of a rule or regulation pursuant to section 201 of the Controlled Substances Act.
</P>
<P>Attached hereto and constituting a part of this petition are the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The proposed rule in the form proposed by the petitioner. (If the petitioner seeks the amendment or repeal of an existing rule, the existing rule, together with a reference to the section in the Code of Federal Regulations where it appears, should be included.)
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the grounds which the petitioner relies for the issuance (amendment or repeal) of the rule. (Such grounds shall include a reasonably concise statement of the facts relied upon by the petitioner, including a summary of any relevant medical or scientific evidence known to the petitioner.)
</P>
<P>All notices to be sent regarding this petition should be addressed to:
</P>
<FP>__________ (Name)
</FP>
<FP>__________ (Street Address)
</FP>
<FP>__________ (City and State)
</FP>
<P>Respectfully yours,
</P>
<FP>__________ (Signature of petitioner)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of a petition, the Administrator shall notify the petitioner of his acceptance or nonacceptance of the petition, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept a petition for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth so as to be readily understood. If the petitioner desires, he may amend the petition to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If accepted for filing, a petition may be denied by the Administrator within a reasonable period of time thereafter if he finds the grounds upon which the petitioner relies are not sufficient to justify the initiation of proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator shall, before initiating proceedings for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule either to control a drug or other substance, or to transfer a drug or other substance from one schedule to another, or to remove a drug or other substance entirely from the schedules, and after gathering the necessary data, request from the Secretary a scientific and medical evaluation and the Secretary's recommendations as to whether such drug or other substance should be so controlled, transferred, or removed as a controlled substance. The recommendations of the Secretary to the Administrator shall be binding on the Administrator as to such scientific and medical matters, and if the Secretary recommends that a drug or other substance not be controlled, the Administrator shall not control that drug or other substance. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the Administrator determines that the scientific and medical evaluation and recommendations of the Secretary and all other relevant data constitute substantial evidence of potential for abuse such as to warrant control or additional control over the drug or other substance, or substantial evidence that the drug or other substances should be subjected to lesser control or removed entirely from the schedules, he shall initiate proceedings for control, transfer, or removal as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(f) If and when the Administrator determines to initiate proceedings, he shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> general notice of any proposed rule making to issue, amend, or repeal any rule pursuant to section 201 of the Act. Such published notice shall include a statement of the time, place, and nature of any hearings on the proposal in the event a hearing is requested pursuant to § 1308.44. Such hearings may not be commenced until after the expiration of at least 30 days from the date the general notice is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such published notice shall also include a reference to the legal authority under which the rule is proposed, a statement of the proposed rule, and, in the discretion of the Administrator, a summary of the subjects and issues involved. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Administrator may permit any interested persons to file written comments on or objections to the proposal and shall designate in the notice of proposed rule making the time during which such filings may be made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated and amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.44" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.44   Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person desiring a hearing on a proposed rulemaking, shall, within 30 days after the date of publication of notice of the proposed rulemaking in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested person desiring to participate in a hearing pursuant to § 1308.41 shall, within 30 days after the date of publication of the notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> file with the Administrator a written notice of his intention to participate in such hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.48 of this chapter. Any person filing a request for a hearing need not also file a notice of appearance; the request for a hearing shall be deemed to be a notice of appearance. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any interested person may, within the period permitted for filing a request for a hearing, file with the Administrator a waiver of an opportunity for a hearing or to participate in a hearing, together with a written statement regarding his position on the matters of fact and law involved in such hearing. Such statement, if admissible, shall be made a part of the record and shall be considered in light of the lack of opportunity for cross-examination in determining the weight to be attached to matters of fact asserted therein. 
</P>
<P>(d) If any interested person fails to file a request for a hearing; or if he so files and fails to appear at the hearing, he shall be deemed to have waived his opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, unless he shows good cause for such failure. 
</P>
<P>(e) If all interested persons waive or are deemed to waive their opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, the Administrator may cancel the hearing, if scheduled, and issue his final order pursuant to § 1308.45 without a hearing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated and amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.45   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his order in the proceeding, which shall set forth the final rule and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the rule is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect, which shall not be less than 30 days from the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.46" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.46   Control required under international treaty.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 201(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(d)), where control of a substance is required by U.S. obligations under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect on May 1, 1971, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> an order controlling such substance under the schedule he deems most appropriate to carry out obligations. Issuance of such an order shall be without regard to the findings required by subsections 201(a) or 202(b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a) or 812(b)) and without regard to the procedures prescribed by § 1308.41 or subsections 201 (a) and (b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811 (a) and (b)). An order controlling a substance shall become effective 30 days from the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.47" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.47   Control of immediate precursors.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 201(e) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(e)), the Administrator may, without regard to the findings required by subsection 201(a) or 202 (b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a) or 812(b)) and without regard to the procedures prescribed by § 1308.41 or subsections 201 (a) and (b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a) and (b)), issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> an order controlling an immediate precursor. The order shall designate the schedule in which the immediate precursor is to be placed, which shall be the same schedule in which the controlled substance of which it is an immediate precursor is placed or any other schedule with a higher numerical designation. An order controlling an immediate precursor shall become effective 30 days from the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.49" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.49   Temporary scheduling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 811(h) and without regard to the requirements of 21 U.S.C. 811(b) relating to the scientific and medical evaluation of the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the Drug Enforcement Administration may place a substance into Schedule I on a temporary basis, if it determines that such action is necessary to avoid an imminent hazard to the public safety. An order issued under this section may not be effective before the expiration of 30 calendar days from:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of publication by the Administration of a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of its intention to issue such order and the grounds upon which such order is to be issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) The date the Administration has transmitted notification to the Secretary of Health and Human Services of the Administration's intention to issue such order.
</P>
<P>(b) An order issued under this section will be vacated upon the conclusion of a subsequent rulemaking proceeding initiated under section 201(a) (21 U.S.C. 811(a)) with respect to such substance or at the end of two years from the effective date of the order scheduling the substance, except that during the pendency of proceedings under section 201(a) (21 U.S.C. 811(a)) with respect to the substance, the Administration may extend the temporary scheduling for up to one year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1308.50" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.9.0.36.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1308.50   Temporary and permanent scheduling of recently emerged anabolic steroids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may issue a temporary order adding a drug or other substance to the definition of anabolic steroids if the Administrator finds that—
</P>
<P>(1) The drug or other substance satisfies the criteria for being considered an anabolic steroid under 21 U.S.C. 802(41) but is not listed in that section or by regulation of the Attorney General as being an anabolic steroid; and
</P>
<P>(2) Adding such drug or other substance to the definition of anabolic steroids will assist in preventing abuse or misuse of the drug or other substance.
</P>
<P>(b) An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section shall not take effect until 30 days after the date of the publication by the Administrator of a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the intention to issue such order and the grounds upon which such order is to be issued. The order shall expire not later than 24 months after the date it becomes effective, except that the Administrator may, during the pendency of proceedings under paragraph (f) of this section, extend the temporary scheduling order for up to 6 months.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator shall transmit notice of an order proposed to be issued under paragraph (a) of this section to the Secretary of Health and Human Services. In issuing an order under paragraph (a), the Administrator shall take into consideration any comments submitted by the Secretary in response to a notice transmitted pursuant to this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(d) A temporary scheduling order issued under paragraph (a) of this section shall be vacated upon the issuance of a permanent scheduling order under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator may, by rule, issue a permanent order adding a drug or other substance to the definition of anabolic steroids if such drug or other substance satisfies the criteria for being considered an anabolic steroid under 21 U.S.C. 802(41). Such rulemaking may be commenced simultaneously with the issuance of the temporary order issued under paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 50041, Aug. 1, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1309" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1309—REGISTRATION OF MANUFACTURERS, DISTRIBUTORS, IMPORTERS AND EXPORTERS OF LIST I CHEMICALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 802, 821, 822, 823, 824, 830, 871(b), 875, 877, 886a, 952, 953, 957, 958.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="37" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.37" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.01   Scope of part 1309.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures governing the registration of manufacturers, distributors, importers and exporters of List I chemicals pursuant to Sections 102, 302, 303, 1007 and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802, 822, 823, 957 and 958) are set forth generally by those sections and specifically by the sections of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.37.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.37.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.03   Information; special instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Information regarding procedures under these rules and instructions supplementing these rules will be furnished upon request by writing to the Registration Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="38" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Fees for Registration and Reregistration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.38.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.11   Fee Amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each application for registration or reregistration to manufacture for distribution the applicant shall pay an annual fee of $3,699.
</P>
<P>(b) For each application for registration or reregistration to distribute (either retail distribution or non-retail distribution), import, or export a list I chemical, the applicant shall pay an annual fee of $1,850.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 44734, July 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.38.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.12   Time and method of payment; refund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each application for registration or reregistration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export the applicant shall pay the fee when the application for registration or reregistration is submitted for filing online using the secure application portal at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Payment shall be made online by Automated Clearing House funds transfer, by credit card, or by any other means made available at the time of submission using the secure application portal at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 21022, Apr. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.39.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.21   Persons required to register.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless exempted by law or under §§ 1309.24 through 1309.26 or §§ 1310.12 through 1310.13 of this chapter, the following persons must annually obtain a registration specific to the List I chemicals to be handled:
</P>
<P>(1) Every person who manufactures or imports or proposes to manufacture or import a List I chemical or a drug product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.
</P>
<P>(2) Every person who distributes or exports or proposes to distribute or export any List I chemical, other than those List I chemicals contained in a product exempted under paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Only persons actually engaged in the activities are required to obtain a registration; related or affiliated persons who are not engaged in the activities are not required to be registered. (For example, a stockholder or parent corporation of a corporation distributing List I chemicals is not required to obtain a registration.)
</P>
<P>(c) The registration requirements are summarized in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Summary of Registration Requirements and Limitations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Business activity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemicals
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DEA forms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Application fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Registration period
<br/>(years)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coincident activities allowed
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Manufacturing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">List I,
<br/>Drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New-510
<br/>Renewal-510a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May distribute that chemical for which registration was issued; may not distribute any chemical for which not registered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Distributing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">List I,
<br/>Scheduled listed chemical products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New-510
<br/>Renewal-510a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Importing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">List I,
<br/>Drug Products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New-510
<br/>Renewal-510a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May distribute that chemical for which registration was issued; may not distribute any chemical for which not registered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Exporting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">List I,
<br/>Scheduled listed chemical products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New-510
<br/>Renewal-510a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 4980, Feb. 1, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 4236, Jan. 27, 2012; 77 FR 15250, Mar. 15, 2012; 85 FR 44734, July 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.39.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.22   Separate registration for independent activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following groups of activities are deemed to be independent of each other:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing of List I chemicals or drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.
</P>
<P>(2) Distributing of List I chemicals and scheduled listed chemical products.
</P>
<P>(3) Importing List I chemicals or drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.
</P>
<P>(4) Exporting List I chemicals and scheduled listed chemical products.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, every person who engages in more than one group of independent activities must obtain a separate registration for each group of activities, unless otherwise exempted by the Act or §§ 1309.24 through 1309.26.
</P>
<P>(c) A person registered to import any List I chemical shall be authorized to distribute that List I chemical after importation, but no other chemical that the person is not registered to import.
</P>
<P>(d) A person registered to manufacture any List I chemical shall be authorized to distribute that List I chemical after manufacture, but no other chemical that the person is not registered to manufacture.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 4981, Feb. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.39.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.23   Separate registration for separate locations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A separate registration is required for each principal place of business at one general physical location where List I chemicals are manufactured, distributed, imported, or exported by a person.
</P>
<P>(b) The following locations shall be deemed to be places not subject to the registration requirement:
</P>
<P>(1) A warehouse where List I chemicals are stored by or on behalf of a registered person, unless such chemicals are distributed directly from such warehouse to locations other than the registered location from which the chemicals were originally delivered; and
</P>
<P>(2) An office used by agents of a registrant where sales of List I chemicals are solicited, made, or supervised but which neither contains such chemicals (other than chemicals for display purposes) nor serves as a distribution point for filling sales orders.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 75 FR 4981, Feb. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.39.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.24   Waiver of registration requirement for certain activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement of registration is waived for any agent or employee of a person who is registered to engage in any group of independent activities, if the agent or employee is acting in the usual course of his or her business or employment.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement of registration is waived for any person who manufactures or distributes a scheduled listed chemical product or other product containing a List I chemical that is described and included in paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter, if that person is registered with the Administration to engage in the same activity with a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirement of registration is waived for any person who imports or exports a scheduled listed chemical product or other product containing a List I chemical that is described and included in paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter, if that person is registered with the Administration to engage in the same activity with a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirement of registration is waived for any person who only distributes a prescription drug product containing a List I chemical that is regulated pursuant to paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The requirement of registration is waived for any person whose activities with respect to List I chemicals are limited to the distribution of red phosphorus, white phosphorus, or hypophosphorous acid (and its salts) to another location operated by the same firm solely for internal end-use, or an EPA or State licensed waste treatment or disposal firm for the purpose of waste disposal.
</P>
<P>(f) The requirement of registration is waived for any person whose distribution of red phosphorus or white phosphorus is limited solely to residual quantities of chemical returned to the producer, in reusable rail cars and intermodal tank containers which conform to International Standards Organization specifications (with capacities greater than or equal to 2,500 gallons in a single container).
</P>
<P>(g) The requirement of registration is waived for any person whose activities with respect to List I chemicals are limited solely to the distribution of Lugol's Solution (consisting of 5 percent iodine and 10 percent potassium iodide in an aqueous solution) in original manufacturer's packaging of one fluid ounce (30 ml) or less.
</P>
<P>(h) The requirement of registration is waived for any manufacturer of a List I chemical, if that chemical is produced solely for internal consumption by the manufacturer and there is no subsequent distribution or exportation of the List I chemical.
</P>
<P>(i) If any person exempted under paragraph (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section also engages in the distribution, importation, or exportation of a List I chemical, other than as described in such paragraph, the person shall obtain a registration for the activities, as required by § 1309.21.
</P>
<P>(j) The Administrator may, upon finding that continuation of the waiver would not be in the public interest, suspend or revoke a waiver granted under paragraph (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 1309.43 through 1309.46 and §§ 1309.51 through 1309.55. In considering the revocation or suspension of a person's waiver granted pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, the Administrator shall also consider whether action to revoke or suspend the person's controlled substance registration pursuant to section 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824) is warranted.
</P>
<P>(k) Any person exempted from the registration requirement under this section must comply with the security requirements set forth in §§ 1309.71 through 1309.73 and the recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth under Parts 1310, 1313, 1314, and 1315 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 4981, Feb. 1, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 4236, Jan. 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.39.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.25   Temporary exemption from registration for chemical registration applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export a combination ephedrine product is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before July 12, 1997. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in this part 1309 and parts 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export a pseudoephedrine or phenylpropanolamine drug product is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before October 3, 1997. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in this part 1309 and parts 1310 and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person required by sections 302 or 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822 or 957) to obtain a registration to manufacture or import prescription drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before March 3, 2010. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied the application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in this part and parts 1310, 1313, and 1315 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 14860, Mar. 28, 2002, as amended at 75 FR 4982, Feb. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.39.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.26   Exemption of law enforcement officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement of registration is waived for the following persons in the circumstances described in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Any officer or employee of the Administration, any customs officer, any officer or employee of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, and any Federal or Insular officer who is lawfully engaged in the enforcement of any federal law relating to listed chemicals, controlled substances, drugs, or customs, and is duly authorized to possess and distribute List I chemicals in the course of his/her official duties; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any officer or employee of any State, or any political subdivision or agency thereof, who is engaged in the enforcement of any State or local law relating to listed chemicals and controlled substances and is duly authorized to possess and distribute List I chemicals in the course of his official duties. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any official exempted by this section may, when acting in the course of official duties, possess any List I chemical and distribute any such chemical to any other official who is also exempted by this section and acting in the course of official duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Application for Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.40.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.31   Time for application for registration; expiration date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is required to be registered and who is not so registered may apply for registration at any time. No person required to be registered shall engage in any activity for which registration is required until the application for registration is approved and a Certificate of Registration is issued by the Administrator to such person.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who is registered may apply to be reregistered not more than 60 days before the expiration date of his registration.
</P>
<P>(c) At the time a person is first registered, that person shall be assigned to one of twelve groups, which shall correspond to the months of the year. The expiration date of the registrations of all registrants within any group will be the last day of the month designated for that group. In assigning any of the above persons to a group, the Administration may select a group the expiration date of which is less than one year from the date such business activity was registered. If the person is assigned to a group which has an expiration date less than eleven months from the date of which the person is registered, the registration shall not expire until one year from that expiration date; in all other cases, the registration shall expire on the expiration date following the date on which the person is registered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.40.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.32   Application forms; contents; signature.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is required to be registered pursuant to § 1309.21 and is not so registered, shall apply on DEA Form 510 using the secure application portal at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who is registered pursuant to § 1309.21, shall apply for reregistration on DEA Form 510a using the secure application portal at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) DEA Forms 510 and 510a may be obtained online at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.</I> DEA will send renewal notifications via email to registrants approximately calendar 60 days prior to their registration expiration date. Registrants are responsible for keeping their email address current in the secure application portal on DEA's website throughout the duration of their registration. Only applications submitted online through the secure application portal on DEA's website will be accepted for processing.
</P>
<P>(d) Each application for registration must include the Administration Chemical Code Number, as set forth in § 1310.02 of this chapter, for each List I chemical to be manufactured, distributed, imported, or exported.
</P>
<P>(e) Registration shall not entitle a person to engage in any activity with any List I chemical not specified in his or her application.
</P>
<P>(f) Each application shall include all information called for in the form, unless the item is not applicable, in which case this fact shall be indicated.
</P>
<P>(g) Each application, attachment, or other document filed as part of an application, shall be signed by the applicant, if an individual; by a partner of the applicant, if a partnership; or by an officer of the applicant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity. An applicant may authorize one or more individuals, who would not otherwise be authorized to do so, to sign applications for the applicant by filing with the application or other document a power of attorney for each such individual. The power of attorney shall be signed by a person who is authorized to sign applications under this paragraph and shall contain the signature of the individual being authorized to sign the application or other document. The power of attorney shall be valid until revoked by the applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016; 87 FR 21023, Apr. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.40.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.33   Filing of application; joint filings.</HEAD>
<P>All applications for registration shall be submitted online at <I>www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov</I> for filing. The appropriate registration fee and any required attachments must accompany the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 21023, Apr. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.40.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.34   Acceptance for filing; defective applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications submitted for filing are dated upon receipt. If the application is found to be complete, the application will be accepted for filing. Applications failing to comply with the requirements of this part will not be accepted for filing.
</P>
<P>(b) Accepting an application for filing does not preclude any subsequent request for additional information pursuant to § 1309.35 and has no bearing on whether the application will be granted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 87 FR 21023, Apr. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.40.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.35   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may require an applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted. The failure of the applicant to provide such documents or statements within a reasonable time after being requested to do so shall be deemed to be a waiver by the applicant of an opportunity to present such documents or facts for consideration by the Administrator in granting or denying the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.36" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.40.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.36   Amendments to and withdrawals of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be amended or withdrawn without permission of the Administration at any time before the date on which the applicant receives an order to show cause pursuant to § 1309.46. An application may be amended or withdrawn with permission of the Administrator at any time where good cause is shown by the applicant or where the amendment or withdrawal is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) After an application has been accepted for filing, the request by the applicant that it be returned or the failure of the applicant to respond to official correspondence regarding the application, including a request that the applicant submit the required fee, when sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, shall be deemed to be a withdrawal of the application.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Action on Applications for Registration: Revocation or Suspension of Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.41.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.41   Administrative review generally.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may inspect, or cause to be inspected, the establishment of an applicant or registrant, pursuant to subpart A of part 1316 of this chapter. The Administrator shall review the application for registration and other information gathered by the Administrator regarding an applicant in order to determine whether the applicable standards of Section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) have been met by the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.41.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.42   Certificate of registration; denial of registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall issue a Certificate of Registration (DEA Form 511) to an applicant if the issuance of registration or reregistration is required under the applicable provisions of section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823). In the event that the issuance of registration or reregistration is not required, the Administrator shall deny the application. Before denying any application, the Administrator shall issue an order to show cause pursuant to Section 1309.46 and, if requested by the applicant, shall hold a hearing on the application pursuant to § 1309.51.
</P>
<P>(b) The Certificate of Registration (DEA Form 511) shall contain the name, address, and registration number of the registrant, the activity authorized by the registration, the amount of fee paid, and the expiration date of the registration. The registrant shall maintain the certificate of registration at the registered location in a readily retrievable manner and shall permit inspection of the certificate by any official, agent or employee of the Administration or of any Federal, State, or local agency engaged in enforcement of laws relating to List I chemicals or controlled substances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.43" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.41.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.43   Suspension or revocation of registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may suspend any registration pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)) for any period of time he determines.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator may revoke any registration pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)).
</P>
<P>(c) Before revoking or suspending any registration, the Administrator shall issue an order to show cause pursuant to Section 1309.46 and, if requested by the registrant, shall hold a hearing pursuant to Section 1309.51. Notwithstanding the requirements of this Section, however, the Administrator may suspend any registration pending a final order pursuant to § 1309.44.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon service of the order of the Administrator suspending or revoking registration, the registrant shall immediately deliver his or her Certificate of Registration to the nearest office of the Administration. Also, upon service of the order of the Administrator revoking or suspending registration, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Deliver all List I chemicals in his or her possession that were obtained under the authority of a registration or an exemption from registration granted by the Administrator by regulation, to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration; or
</P>
<P>(2) Place all such List I chemicals in his or her possession under seal as described in section 304(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)).
</P>
<P>(e) In the event that revocation or suspension is limited to a particular chemical or chemicals, the registrant shall be given a new Certificate of Registration for all substances not affected by such revocation or suspension; no fee shall be required for the new Certificate of Registration. The registrant shall deliver the old Certificate of Registration to the nearest office of the Administration. Also, upon service of the order of the Administrator revoking or suspending registration with respect to a particular chemical or chemicals, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Deliver to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration all of the particular chemical or chemicals in his or her possession that were obtained under the authority of a registration or an exemption from registration granted by the Administrator by regulation, which are affected by the revocation or suspension; or
</P>
<P>(2) Place all of such chemicals under seal as described in section 304(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 5916, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.44" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.41.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.44   Suspension of registration pending final order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may suspend any registration simultaneously with or at any time subsequent to the service upon the registrant of an order to show cause why such registration should not be revoked or suspended, in any case where he finds that there is an imminent danger to the public health or safety. If the Administrator so suspends, he shall serve with the order to show cause pursuant to § 1309.46 an order of immediate suspension that shall contain a statement of his findings regarding the danger to public health or safety.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon service of the order of immediate suspension, the registrant shall promptly return his Certificate of Registration to the nearest office of the Administration. Also, upon service of the order of immediate suspension, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Deliver to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration all of the particular chemical or chemicals in his or her possession that were obtained under the authority of a registration or an exemption from registration granted by the Administrator by regulation, which are affected by the revocation or suspension; or
</P>
<P>(2) Place all of such chemicals under seal as described in section 304(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)).
</P>
<P>(c) Any suspension shall continue in effect until the conclusion of all proceedings upon the revocation or suspension, including any judicial review thereof, unless sooner withdrawn by the Administrator or dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction. Any registrant whose registration is suspended under this section may request a hearing on the revocation or suspension of his registration at a time earlier than specified in the order to show cause pursuant to Section 1309.46, which request shall be granted by the Administrator, who shall fix a date for such hearing as early as reasonably possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 5916, Feb. 10, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.41.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.45   Extension of registration pending final order.</HEAD>
<P>In the event that an applicant for reregistration (who is doing business under a registration previously granted and not revoked or suspended) has applied for reregistration at least 45 days before the date on which the existing registration is due to expire, and the Administrator has issued no order on the application on the date on which the existing registration is due to expire, the existing registration of the applicant shall automatically be extended and continue in effect until the date on which the Administrator so issues his order. The Administrator may extend any other existing registration under the circumstances contemplated in this section even though the registrant failed to apply for reregistration at least 45 days before expiration of the existing registration, with or without request by the registrant, if the Administrator finds that such extension is not inconsistent with the public health and safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.46" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.41.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.46   Order to show cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, upon examination of the application for registration from any applicant and other information gathered by the Administration regarding the applicant, the Administrator is unable to make the determinations required by the applicable provisions of section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) to register the applicant, the Administrator shall serve upon the applicant an order to show cause why the application for registration should not be denied.
</P>
<P>(b) If, upon information gathered by the Administration regarding any registrant, the Administrator determines that the registration of such registrant is subject to suspension or revocation pursuant to section 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824), the Administrator shall serve upon the registrant an order to show cause why the registration should not be revoked or suspended.
</P>
<P>(c) The order to show cause shall call upon the applicant or registrant to appear before the Administrator at a time and place stated in the order, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of receipt of the order. The order to show cause shall also contain a statement of the legal basis for such hearing and for the denial, revocation, or suspension of registration and a summary of the matters of fact and law asserted.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>When to File: Hearing Request.</I> A party that wishes to request a hearing in response to an order to show cause must file with the Office of the Administrative Law Judges and serve on DEA such request no later than 30 days following the date of receipt of the order to show cause. Service of the request on DEA shall be accomplished by sending it to the address, or email address, provided in the order to show cause.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When to File: Answer.</I> A party requesting a hearing shall also file with the Office of the Administrative Law Judges and serve on DEA an answer to the order to show cause no later than 30 days following the date of receipt of the order to show cause. A party shall also serve its answer on DEA at the address, or email address, provided in the order to show cause. The presiding officer may, upon a showing of good cause by the party, consider an answer that has been filed out of time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of Answer; Effect of Failure to Deny.</I> For each factual allegation in the order to show cause, the answer shall specifically admit, deny, or state that the party does not have, and is unable to obtain, sufficient information to admit or deny the allegation. When a party intends in good faith to deny only a part of an allegation, the party shall specify so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder. A statement of a lack of information shall have the effect of a denial. Any factual allegation not denied shall be deemed admitted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Amendments.</I> Prior to the issuance of the prehearing ruling, a party may as a matter of right amend its answer one time. Subsequent to the issuance of the prehearing ruling, a party may amend its answer only with leave of the presiding officer. Leave shall be freely granted when justice so requires.
</P>
<P>(e) When authorized by the Administrator, any agent of the Administration may serve the order to show cause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016; 87 FR 68044, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.51" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.42.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.51   Hearings generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing on any registration or application therefore, the procedures for such hearing shall be governed generally by the adjudication procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by sections 303 and 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823-824), by §§ 1309.52 through 1309.55, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Act set forth in §§ 1316.41 through 1316.67 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any hearing under this part shall be independent of, and not in lieu of, criminal prosecutions or other proceedings under the Act or any other law of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.52" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.42.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.52   Purpose of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If requested by a person entitled to a hearing, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding the issues involved in the denial, revocation, or suspension of any registration. Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.53" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.42.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.53   Request for hearing or appearance; waiver; default.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entitled to a hearing pursuant to §§ 1309.42 and 1309.43 and desiring a hearing shall, within 30 days after the date of receipt of the order to show cause, file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any person entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1309.42 or 1309.43 who fails to file a timely request for a hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to a hearing and to be in default, unless the registrant/applicant establishes good cause for failing to file a timely hearing request. Any person who has failed to timely request a hearing under paragraph (a) may seek to be excused from the default by filing a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges establishing good cause to excuse the default no later than 45 days after the date of receipt of the order to show cause. Thereafter, any person who has failed to timely request a hearing under paragraph (a) and seeks to be excused from the default, shall file such motion with the Office of the Administrator, which shall have exclusive authority to rule on the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who has requested a hearing pursuant to this section but who fails to timely file an answer and who fails to demonstrate good cause for failing to timely file an answer, shall be deemed to have waived their right to a hearing and to be in default. Upon motion of DEA, the presiding officer shall then enter an order terminating the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event DEA fails to prosecute or a person who has requested a hearing fails to plead (including by failing to file an answer) or otherwise defend, said party shall be deemed to be in default and the opposing party may move to terminate the proceeding. Upon such motion, the presiding officer shall then enter an order terminating the proceeding, absent a showing of good cause by the party deemed to be in default. Upon termination of the proceeding by the presiding officer, a party may seek relief only by filing a motion establishing good cause to excuse its default with the Office of the Administrator.


</P>
<P>(c) If any person entitled to participate in a hearing pursuant to this section fails to file a notice of appearance either as part of a hearing request or separately, or if such person so files and fails to appear at the hearing, such person shall be deemed to have waived their opportunity to participate in the hearing, unless such person shows good cause for such failure.


</P>
<P>(d) A default, unless excused, shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the applicant's/registrant's right to a hearing and an admission of the factual allegations of the order to show cause.


</P>
<P>(e)(1) In the event that a registrant/applicant is deemed to be in default pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section and has not established good cause to be excused from the default, or the presiding officer has issued an order termination the proceeding pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section, DEA may then file a request for final agency action with the Administrator, along with a record to support its request. In such circumstances, the Administrator may enter a default final order pursuant to § 1316.67 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that DEA is deemed to be in default and the presiding officer has issued an order terminating the proceeding pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the presiding officer shall transmit the record to the Administrator for his consideration no later than five business days after the date of issuance of the order. Upon termination of the proceeding by the presiding officer, DEA may seek relief only by filing a motion with the Office of the Administrator establishing good cause to excuse its default.
</P>
<P>(3) A party held to be in default may move to set aside a default final order issued by the Administrator by filing a motion no later than 30 days from the date of issuance by the Administrator of a default final order. Any such motion shall be granted only upon a showing of good cause to excuse the default.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995. Redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 87 FR 68045, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.54" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.42.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.54   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any hearing for the denial of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such registration pursuant to section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) are not satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) At any hearing for the revocation or suspension of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such revocation or suspension pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)) are satisfied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995. Redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.55" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.42.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.55   Time and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing will commence at the place and time designated in the order to show cause or notice of hearing published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (unless expedited pursuant to Section 1309.44(c)) but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement thereof by the presiding officer at the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995. Redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="43" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Modification, Transfer and Termination of Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.61" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.43.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.61   Modification in registration.</HEAD>
<P>Any registrant may apply to modify his or her registration to authorize the handling of additional List I chemicals or to change his or her name or address, by submitting a letter of request to the Registration Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The letter shall contain the registrant's name, address, and registration number as printed on the certificate of registration, and the List I chemicals to be added to his registration or the new name or address and shall be signed in accordance with § 1309.32(g). No fee shall be required to be paid for the modification. The request for modification shall be handled in the same manner as an application for registration. If the modification in registration is approved, the Administrator shall issue a new certificate of registration (DEA Form 511) to the registrant, who shall maintain it with the old certificate of registration until expiration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.62" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.43.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.62   Termination of registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The registration of any person shall terminate, without any further action by the Administration, if and when such person dies, ceases legal existence, discontinues business or professional practice, or surrenders a registration. Any registrant who ceases legal existence or discontinues business or professional practice shall promptly notify the Special Agent in Charge of the Administration in the area in which the person is located of such fact and seek authority and instructions to dispose of any List I chemicals obtained under the authority of that registration. Any registrant who ceases legal existence or discontinues business or professional practice or wishes to surrender a registration shall notify the Special Agent in Charge of the Administration in the area in which the person is located of such fact and seek authority and instructions to dispose of any List I chemicals obtained under the authority of that registration.
</P>
<P>(b) The Special Agent in Charge shall authorize and instruct the person to dispose of the List I chemical in one of the following manners:
</P>
<P>(1) By transfer to person registered under the Act and authorized to possess the substances;
</P>
<P>(2) By delivery to an agent of the Administration or to the nearest office of the Administration;
</P>
<P>(3) By such other means as the Special Agent in Charge may determine to assure that the substance does not become available to unauthorized persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 5916, Feb. 10, 1997; 76 FR 61564, Oct. 5, 2011; 77 FR 4236, Jan. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.63" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.43.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.63   Transfer of registration.</HEAD>
<P>No registration or any authority conferred thereby shall be assigned or otherwise transferred except upon such conditions as the Administrator may specifically designate and then only pursuant to his written consent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Security Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.71" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.44.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.71   General security requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applicants and registrants must provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion of List I chemicals. Chemicals must be stored in containers sealed in such a manner as to indicate any attempts at tampering with the container. Where chemicals cannot be stored in sealed containers, access to the chemicals should be controlled through physical means or through human or electronic monitoring.
</P>
<P>(b) In evaluating the effectiveness of security controls and procedures, the Administrator shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The type, form, and quantity of List I chemicals handled;
</P>
<P>(2) The location of the premises and the relationship such location bears on the security needs;
</P>
<P>(3) The type of building construction comprising the facility and the general characteristics of the building or buildings;
</P>
<P>(4) The availability of electronic detection and alarm systems;
</P>
<P>(5) The extent of unsupervised public access to the facility;
</P>
<P>(6) The adequacy of supervision over employees having access to List I chemicals;
</P>
<P>(7) The procedures for handling business guests, visitors, maintenance personnel, and nonemployee service personnel in areas where List I chemicals are processed or stored; and
</P>
<P>(8) The adequacy of the registrant's or applicant's systems for monitoring the receipt, distribution, and disposition of List I chemicals in its operations.
</P>
<P>(c) Any registrant or applicant desiring to determine whether a proposed system of security controls and procedures is adequate may submit materials and plans regarding the proposed security controls and procedures either to the Special Agent in Charge in the region in which the security controls and procedures will be used, or to the Regulatory Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 67 FR 14861, Mar. 28, 2002; 71 FR 56023, Sept. 26, 2006; 75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.72" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.44.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.72   Felony conviction; employer responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The registrant shall exercise caution in the consideration of employment of persons who will have access to listed chemicals, who have been convicted of a felony offense relating to controlled substances or listed chemicals, or who have, at any time, had an application for registration with the DEA denied, had a DEA registration revoked, or surrendered a DEA registration for cause. (For purposes of this subsection, the term “for cause” means a surrender in lieu of, or as a consequence of, any Federal or State administrative, civil or criminal action resulting from an investigation of the individual's handling of controlled substances or listed chemicals.) The registrant should be aware of the circumstances regarding the action against the potential employee and the rehabilitative efforts following the action. The registrant shall assess the risks involved in employing such persons, including the potential for action against the registrant pursuant to § 1309.43, If such person is found to have diverted listed chemicals, and, in the event of employment, shall institute procedures to limit the potential for diversion of List I chemicals.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the position of DEA that employees who possess, sell, use or divert listed chemicals or controlled substances will subject themselves not only to State or Federal prosecution for any illicit activity, but shall also immediately become the subject of independent action regarding their continued employment. The employer will assess the seriousness of the employee's violation, the position of responsibility held by the employee, past record of employment, etc., in determining whether to suspend, transfer, terminate or take other action against the employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1309.73" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.10.0.44.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1309.73   Employee responsibility to report diversion.</HEAD>
<P>Reports of listed chemical diversion by fellow employees is not only a necessary part of an overall employee security program but also serves the public interest at large. It is, therefore, the position of DEA that an employee who has knowledge of diversion from his employer by a fellow employee has an obligation to report such information to a responsible security official of the employer. The employer shall treat such information as confidential and shall take all reasonable steps to protect the confidentiality of the information and the identity of the employee furnishing information. A failure to report information of chemical diversion will be considered in determining the feasibility of continuing to allow an employee to work in an area with access to chemicals. The employer shall inform all employees concerning this policy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1310" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1310—RECORDS AND REPORTS OF LISTED CHEMICALS AND CERTAIN MACHINES; IMPORTATION AND EXPORTATION OF CERTAIN MACHINES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 802, 827(h), 830, 871(b) 890.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1310.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.01   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.02   Substances covered.</HEAD>
<P>The following chemicals have been specifically designated by the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration as the listed chemicals subject to the provisions of this part and parts 1309 and 1313 of this chapter. Each chemical has been assigned the DEA Chemical Code Number set forth opposite it.
</P>
<P>(a) List I chemicals 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Alpha-phenylacetoacetonitrile and its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers (APAAN)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8512
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Anthranilic acid, its esters, and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8530 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Benzyl cyanide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8735 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8113 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Ergonovine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8675 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Ergotamine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8676 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) N-Acetylanthranilic acid, its esters, and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8522 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Norpseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8317 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Phenylacetic acid, its esters, and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8791 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Phenylpropanolamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1225 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Piperidine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2704 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) Pseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8112 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) 3,4-Methylenedioxyphenyl-2-propanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8502 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) Methylamine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8520 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) Ethylamine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8678 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(16) Propionic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8328 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(17) Isosafrole</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8704 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(18) Safrole</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8323 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(19) Piperonal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8750 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(20) N-Methylephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers (N-Methylephedrine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8115 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(21) N-Methylpseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8119 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(22) Hydriodic Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6695 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(23) Benzaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8256 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(24) Nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6724
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(25) Gamma-Butyrolactone (Other names include: GBL; Dihydro-2 (3H)-furanone; 1,2-Butanolide; 1,4-Butanolide; 4-Hydroxybutanoic acid lactone; gamma-hydroxybutyric acid lactone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(26) Red phosphorus</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6795
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(27) White phosphorus (Other names: Yellow Phosphorus)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6796
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(28) Hypophosphorous acid and its salts (Including ammonium hypophosphite, calcium hypophosphite, iron hypophosphite, potassium hypophosphite, manganese hypophosphite, magnesium hypophosphite and sodium hypophosphite)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6797
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(29) N-phenethyl-4-piperidone (NPP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8332 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(30) Iodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6699
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(31) Ergocristine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8612
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(32)<E T="03">N</E>-(1-benzylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropionamide (benzylfentanyl) and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8334
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(33) <E T="03">N</E>-phenylpiperidin-4-amine (4-anilinopiperidine; <E T="03">N</E>-phenyl-4-piperidinamine; 4-AP), its amides, its carbamates, its halides, its salts, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (34) 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidate (PMK glycidate) and its optical and geometric isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8535
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (35) 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid (PMK glycidic acid) and its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8525
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (36) Alpha-phenylacetoacetamide (APAA) and its optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8515
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(37) methyl <E T="03">alpha</E>-phenylacetoacetate (MAPA; methyl 3-oxo-2-phenylbutanoate) and its optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8795
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(38) 4-piperidone (piperidin-4-one), its acetals, its amides, its carbamates, its salts, and salts of its acetals, its amides, and its carbamates, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8330
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(39) 1-boc-4-AP (<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl 4-(phenylamino)piperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8336
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(40) 1-boc-4-piperidone (tert-butyl 4-oxopiperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8331
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(41) Propionyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8337
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(42) P2P methyl glycidic acid (2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylic acid; BMK glycidic acid) and its esters, its optical and geometric isomers, its salts, salts of its optical and geometric isomers and its esters, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible, including the following:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8526
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(i) Methyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (methyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P methyl glycidicate; BMK methyl glycidicate)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ii) Ethyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (ethyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P ethyl glycidicate; BMK ethyl glycidicate)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(iii) Propyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (propyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P propyl glycidicate; BMK propyl glycidicate)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(iv) Isopropyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (isopropyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P isopropyl glycidicate; BMK isopropyl glycidicate)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(v) Butyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (butyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P butyl glycidicate; BMK butyl glycidicate)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(vi) Isobutyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (isobutyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P isobutyl glycidicate; BMK isobutyl glycidicate)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(vii) sec-Butyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (sec-butyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P sec-butyl glycidicate; BMK sec-butyl glycidicate
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(viii) tert-Butyl ester of P2P methyl glycidic acid (tert-butyl 2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylate; P2P tert-butyl glycidicate; BMK tert-butyl glycidicate
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) List II chemicals:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8519 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Acetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6532 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Benzyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8570 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6584 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Potassium permanganate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6579 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) 2-Butanone (or Methyl Ethyl Ketone or MEK)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6714 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6594 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Hydrochloric acid (including anhydrous hydrogen chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6545
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Sulfuric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6552 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Methyl Isobutyl Ketone (MIBK)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6715
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Sodium Permanganate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6588</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The Administrator may add or delete a substance as a listed chemical by publishing a final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> following a proposal which shall be published at least 30 days prior to the final rule. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person may petition the Administrator to have any substance added or deleted from paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any petition under this section shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the petitioner; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the chemical to which the petition pertains; 
</P>
<P>(3) The name and address of the manufacturer(s) of the chemical (if known); 
</P>
<P>(4) A complete statement of the facts which the petitioner believes justifies the addition or deletion of the substance from paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(5) The date of the petition. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator may require the petitioner to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the petition as he deems necessary in making a determination. 
</P>
<P>(g) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of the petition, the Administrator shall notify the petitioner of his decision and the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept a petition if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section or requested pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section are lacking or are not clearly set forth as to be readily understood. If the petitioner desires, he may amend and resubmit the petition to meet the requirements of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(h) If a petition is granted or the Administrator, upon his own motion, proposes to add or delete substances as listed chemicals as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, he shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a proposal to add or delete a substance as a listed chemical. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments regarding the proposal within 30 days of the date of publication of his order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Administrator will consider any comments filed by interested persons and publish a final rule in accordance with his decision in the matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 48733, Sept. 26, 1991; 57 FR 43615, Sept. 22, 1992; 60 FR 19510, Apr. 19, 1995; 60 FR 32460, June 22, 1995; 62 FR 5917, Feb. 10, 1997; 65 FR 21647, Apr. 24, 2000; 65 FR 47316, Aug. 2, 2000; 66 FR 52675, Oct. 17, 2001; 71 FR 60826, Oct. 17, 2006; 72 FR 20046, Apr. 23, 2007; 72 FR 35391, July 2, 2007; 72 FR 40238, July 24, 2007; 76 FR 17781, Mar. 31, 2011; 82 FR 32460, July 14, 2017; 85 FR 20828, Apr. 15, 2020; 86 FR 24707, May 10, 2021; 86 FR 64366, Nov. 18, 2021; 87 FR 67552, Nov. 9, 2022; 88 FR 21909, Apr. 12, 2023; 88 FR 74358, Oct. 31, 2023; 90 FR 47566, Oct. 2, 2025; 91 FR 16836, Apr. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.03   Persons required to keep records and file reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person who engages in a regulated transaction involving a listed chemical, a tableting machine, or an encapsulating machine shall keep a record of the transaction as specified by § 1310.04 and file reports as specified by § 1310.05. However, a non-regulated person who acquires listed chemicals for internal consumption or “end use” and becomes a regulated person by virtue of infrequent or rare distribution of a listed chemical from inventory, shall not be required to maintain receipt records of listed chemicals under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Each regulated person who manufactures a List I or List II chemical shall file reports regarding such manufacture as specified in § 1310.05.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each regulated person who engages in a transaction with a nonregulated person which:
</P>
<P>(i) Involves ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or gamma hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Uses or attempts to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier must, on a monthly basis, report to the Administration each such transaction conducted during the previous month as specified in §§ 1310.05(e) and 1310.06(k) on DEA Form 453 through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
</P>
<P>(2) Each regulated person who engages in an export transaction which:
</P>
<P>(i) Involves ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or gamma hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Uses or attempts to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier must, on a monthly basis, report each such transaction conducted during the previous month as specified in §§ 1310.05(e) and 1310.06(k) on DEA Form 453 through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 8277, Feb. 28, 1991; 61 FR 14023, Mar. 29, 1996; 67 FR 14861, Mar. 28, 2002; 68 FR 57804, Oct. 7, 2003; 70 FR 294, Jan. 4, 2005; 81 FR 97022, Dec. 30, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.04   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every record required to be kept subject to § 1310.03 for a List I chemical, a tableting machine, or an encapsulating machine shall be kept by the regulated person for 2 years after the date of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) Every record required to be kept subject to Section 1310.03 for List II chemical shall be kept by the regulated person for two years after the date of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(c) A record under this section shall be kept at the regulated person's place of business where the transaction occurred, except that records may be kept at a single, central location of the regulated person if the regulated person has notified the Administration of the intention to do so. Written notification must be submitted by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the records are required to be kept. 
</P>
<P>(d) The records required to be kept under this section shall be readily retrievable and available for inspection and copying by authorized employees of the Administration under the provisions of 21 U.S.C. 880. 
</P>
<P>(e) The regulated person with more than one place of business where records are required to be kept shall devise a system to detect any party purchasing from several individual locations of the regulated person thereby seeking to avoid the application of the cumulative threshold or evading the requirements of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) For those listed chemicals for which thresholds have been established, the quantitative threshold or the cumulative amount for multiple transactions within a calendar month, to be utilized in determining whether a receipt, sale, importation or exportation is a regulated transaction is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) List I chemicals: 
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, the following thresholds have been established for List I chemicals. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by base weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8522</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N-Acetylanthranilic acid, its esters, and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8530</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Anthranilic acid, its esters, and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8256</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Benzaldehyde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8735</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Benzyl cyanide</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kilogram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8675</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ergonovine and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 grams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8676</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ergotamine and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 grams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8678</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethylamine and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kilogram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6695</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydriodic acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 kilograms (or 1 liter by volume).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Isosafrole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8520</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Methylamine and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kilogram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8502</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3,4-Methylenedioxyphenyl-2-propanone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N-Methylephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kilogram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N-Methylpseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kilogram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6724</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nitroethane</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8317</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Norpseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8791</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phenylacetic acid, its esters, and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kilogram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piperidine and its salts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 grams.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8750</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piperonal (also called heliotropine)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8328</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Propionic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 gram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8323</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safrole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 kilograms.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For List I chemicals that are contained in scheduled listed chemical products as defined in § 1300.02 of this chapter, the thresholds established in paragraph (g) of this section apply only to non-retail distribution, import, and export. Sales of these products at retail are subject to the requirements of part 1314 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) List II Chemicals: 
</P>
<P>(i) Imports and Exports 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by volume 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by weight 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,023 kilograms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Acetone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500 kilograms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Benzyl chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 kilograms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,364 kilograms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) Potassium permanganate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 kilograms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) 2-Butanone (MEK)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,455 kilograms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(G) Toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,591 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(H) Sodium permanganate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 kilograms</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Domestic Sales 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by volume
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by weight 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,023 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Acetone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Benzyl chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kilogram.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">135.8 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) Potassium permanganate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) 2-Butanone (MEK)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">145 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(G) Toluene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">159 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(H) Anhydrous Hydrogen chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(I) Sodium permanganate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55 kilograms</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) The cumulative threshold is not applicable to domestic sales of Acetone, 2-Butanone (MEK), and Toluene. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Exports, Transshipments and International Transactions to Designated Countries as Set Forth in § 1310.08(b).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by
<br/>volume 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by weight 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Hydrochloric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 gallons 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(<E T="03">1</E>) Anhydrous Hydrogen chloride</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">27 kilograms. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Sulfuric acid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) Export and International Transactions to Designated Countries, and Importations for Transshipment or Transfer to Designated Countries
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by volume
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold by weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Methyl Isobutyl Ketone (MIBK)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1523 kilograms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Reserved.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) For listed chemicals for which no thresholds have been established, the size of the transaction is not a factor in determining whether the transaction meets the definition of a regulated transaction as set forth in § 1300.02 of this chapter. All such transactions, regardless of size, are subject to recordkeeping and reporting requirements as set forth in this part and notification provisions as set forth in part 1313 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(1) Listed chemicals for which no thresholds have been established: 
</P>
<P>(i) Alpha-phenylacetoacetamide (APAA) and its optical isomers
</P>
<P>(ii) Alpha-phenylacetoacetonitrile and its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers (APAAN)
</P>
<P>(iii) 1-boc-4-AP (<I>tert</I>-butyl 4-(phenylamino)piperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts.
</P>
<P>(iv) 1-boc-4-piperidone (<I>tert</I>-butyl 4-oxopiperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts.
</P>
<P>(v) Ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;
</P>
<P>(vi) Ergocristine and its salts
</P>
<P>(vii) Gamma-Butyrolactone (Other names include: GBL; Dihydro-2(3H)-furanone; 1,2-Butanolide; 1,4-Butanolide; 4-Hydroxybutanoic acid lactone; gamma-hydroxybutyric acid lactone)
</P>
<P>(viii) Hypophosphorous acid and its salts (including ammonium hypophosphite, calcium hypophosphite, iron hypophosphite, potassium hypophosphite, manganese hypophosphite, magnesium hypophosphite, and sodium hypophosphite)
</P>
<P>(ix) Iodine
</P>
<P>(x) 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidate (PMK glycidate) and its optical and geometric isomers
</P>
<P>(xi) 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid (PMK glycidic acid) and its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers
</P>
<P>(xii) methyl <I>alpha</I>-phenylacetoacetate (MAPA; methyl 3-oxo-2-phenylbutanoate) and its optical isomers
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>N</I>-(1-benzylpiperidin-4-yl)-<I>N</I>-phenylpropionamide (benzylfentanyl) and its salts
</P>
<P>(xiv) N-phenethyl-4-piperidone (NPP)
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>N</I>-phenylpiperidin-4-amine (4-anilinopiperidine; <I>N</I>-phenyl-4-piperidinamine; 4-AP), its amides, its carbamates, its halides, its salts, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible.
</P>
<P>(xvi) P2P methyl glycidic acid (2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylic acid; BMK glycidic acid) and its esters, its optical and geometric isomers, its salts, salts of its optical and geometric isomers and its esters, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible
</P>
<P>(xvii) Pseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers
</P>
<P>(xviii) Phenylpropanolamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers
</P>
<P>(xix) 4-piperidone (piperidin-4-one), its acetals, its amides, its carbamates, its salts, and salts of its acetals, its amides, and its carbamates, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible
</P>
<P>(xx) Propionyl chloride


</P>
<P>(xxi) Red phosphorus
</P>
<P>(xxii) White phosphorus (Other names: Yellow Phosphorus)
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) The thresholds and conditions in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section will apply to transactions involving regulated chemical mixtures. For purposes of determining whether the weight or volume of a chemical mixture meets or exceeds the applicable quantitative threshold, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) For chemical mixtures containing List I chemicals or List II chemicals other than those in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the threshold is determined by the weight of the listed chemical in the chemical mixture.
</P>
<P>(2) For the List II chemicals acetone, ethyl ether, 2-butanone, toluene, and methyl isobutyl ketone, the threshold is determined by the weight of the entire chemical mixture.
</P>
<P>(3) If two or more listed chemicals are present in a chemical mixture, and the quantity of any of these chemicals equals or exceeds the threshold applicable to that chemical, then the transaction is regulated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1310.04, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.05   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located any regulated transaction involving an extraordinary quantity of a listed chemical, an uncommon method of payment or delivery, or any other circumstance that the regulated person believes may indicate that the listed chemical will be used in violation of this part. The regulated person will orally report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved and as much in advance of the conclusion of the transaction as possible. The regulated person must file a written report of the transaction(s) with the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office as set forth in § 1310.06 within 15 calendar days after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances of the event.
</P>
<P>(2) Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located any proposed regulated transaction with a person whose description or other identifying characteristic the Administration has previously furnished to the regulated person. The regulated person will orally report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. A transaction may not be completed with a person whose description or identifying characteristic has previously been furnished to the regulated person by the Administration unless the transaction is approved by the Administration.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located any unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical under the control of the regulated person. The regulated person will orally report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. Unless the loss or disappearance occurs during an import or export transaction, the supplier is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of any listed chemical by their agent or the common or contract carrier. In an import transaction, once a shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of entry, the importer is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of any listed chemical by their agent or the common or contract carrier. In an export transaction, the exporter is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of any listed chemical by their agent or the common or contract carrier until the shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of export. The regulated person must also file a complete and accurate DEA Form 107, in accordance with § 1310.06(d), with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application within 15 calendar days after becoming aware of the circumstances requiring the report. Unusual or excessive losses or disappearances must be reported whether or not the listed chemical is subsequently recovered or the responsible parties are identified and action taken against them. When determining whether a loss or disappearance of a listed chemical was unusual or excessive, the regulated persons should consider, among others, the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The actual quantity of a listed chemical;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific listed chemical involved;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the loss or disappearance of the listed chemical can be associated with access to those listed chemicals by specific individuals, or whether the loss or disappearance can be attributed to unique activities that may take place involving the listed chemical; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A pattern of losses or disappearances over a specific time period, whether the losses or disappearances appear to be random, and the result of efforts taken to resolve the losses.
</P>
<P>(v) If known, the regulated person should also consider whether the specific listed chemical was a likely candidate for diversion as well as local trends and other indicators of the diversion potential of the listed chemical.
</P>
<P>(2) Each regulated person must orally report any domestic regulated transaction in a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located when the order is placed with the seller. The regulated person also must file a report of the transaction (on DEA Form 452) with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application within 15 calendar days after the order has been shipped by the seller. A report (DEA Form 452) may list more than one machine for a single transaction. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until a transaction identification number has been issued by the Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Imports and exports of tableting machines and encapsulating machines.</I> (1) Each regulated person who imports or exports a tableting machine, or encapsulating machine, must file a report of such importation or exportation on DEA Form 452 with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, at least 15 calendar days before the anticipated arrival at the port of entry or port of export. In order to facilitate the importation or exportation of any tableting machine or encapsulating machine and implement the purpose of the Act, regulated persons may report to the Administration as far in advance as possible. A separate report (DEA Form 452) must be filed for each shipment, in accordance with § 1310.06(e). Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until a transaction identification number has been issued by the Administration. The importer or exporter may only proceed with the transaction once the transaction identification number has been issued. Any tableting machine or encapsulating machine may be imported or exported if that machine is needed for medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate uses. However, an importation or exportation of a tableting machine or encapsulating machine may not be completed with a person whose description or identifying characteristic has previously been furnished to the regulated person by the Administration unless the transaction is approved by the Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Denied release at the port of entry.</I> In the event that a shipment of tableting or encapsulating machine(s) has been denied release by a customs officer at the port of entry for any reason, the importer who attempted to import the shipment must, within 5 business days of the denial, report to the Administration that the shipment was denied, the basis for denial, and such other information as is required by § 1310.06(g). Such report must be transmitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Upon the importer's report of a denied entry, DEA will assign the report a transaction identification number and the original import notification will be void and of no effect. No shipment of tableting machines or encapsulating machines denied entry for any reason will be allowed entry without a subsequent refiling of an amended DEA Form 452 by the regulated person. In such circumstances, the regulated person may proceed with the release of the tableting machines or encapsulating machines upon receipt of a transaction identification number for the refiled and amended DEA Form 452 without regard to the 15-day advance filing requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, so long as the article is otherwise cleared for entry under U.S. customs laws.
</P>
<P>(d) Each regulated bulk manufacturer of a listed chemical must submit manufacturing, inventory and use data on an annual basis as set forth in § 1310.06(j). This data must be submitted annually to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, on or before the 15th day of March of the year immediately following the calendar year for which submitted. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A business entity which manufactures a listed chemical may elect to report separately by individual location or report as an aggregate amount for the entire business entity provided that they inform the DEA of which method they will use. This reporting requirement does not apply to drugs or other products that are exempted under paragraph (1)(iv) or (v) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter except as set forth in § 1310.06(i)(5). Bulk manufacturers that produce a listed chemical solely for internal consumption are not required to report for that listed chemical. For purposes of these reporting requirements, internal consumption consists of any quantity of a listed chemical otherwise not available for further resale or distribution. Internal consumption includes (but is not limited to) quantities used for quality control testing, quantities consumed in-house, or production losses. Internal consumption does not include the quantities of a listed chemical consumed in the production of exempted products. If an existing standard industry report contains the information required in § 1310.06(j) and such information is separate or readily retrievable from the report, that report may be submitted in satisfaction of this requirement. Each report must be submitted to the DEA under company letterhead and signed by an appropriate, responsible official. For purposes of this paragraph (d) only, the term regulated bulk manufacturer of a listed chemical means a person who manufactures a listed chemical by means of chemical synthesis or by extraction from other substances. The term bulk manufacturer does not include persons whose sole activity consists of the repackaging or relabeling of listed chemical products or the manufacture of drug dosage forms of products which contain a listed chemical.
</P>
<P>(e) Each regulated person required to report pursuant to § 1310.03(c) must file a report containing the transaction identification number for each such transaction (if the regulated person is required to obtain a transaction identification number under part 1313

of this chapter) and information set forth in § 1310.06(k), on or before the 15th day of each month following the month in which the distributions took place.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, the following distributions to nonregulated persons, and the following export transactions, are not subject to the reporting requirements in § 1310.03(c):
</P>
<P>(1) Distributions of sample packages of drug products when those packages contain not more than two solid dosage units or the equivalent of two dosage units in liquid form, not to exceed 10 milliliters of liquid per package, and not more than one package is distributed to an individual or residential address in any 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(2) Distributions of drug products by retail distributors that may not include face-to-face transactions to the extent that such distributions are consistent with the activities authorized for a retail distributor as defined in § 1300.02 of this chapter, except that this paragraph does not apply to sales of scheduled listed chemical products at retail.
</P>
<P>(3) Distributions of drug products to a resident of a long term care facility or distributions of drug products to a long term care facility for dispensing to or for use by a resident of that facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Distributions of drug products in accordance with a valid prescription.
</P>
<P>(5) Exports which have been reported to the Administrator under §§ 1313.31 and 1313.32 of this chapter or which are subject to a waiver granted under § 1313.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) The Administrator may revoke any or all of the exemptions listed in paragraph (f) of this section for an individual regulated person if the Administrator finds that drug products distributed by the regulated person are being used in violation of the regulations in this chapter or the Controlled Substances Act. The Administrator will notify the regulated person of the revocation, as provided in § 1313.41(a) of this chapter. The revocation will be effective upon receipt of the notice by the person. The regulated person has the right to an expedited hearing regarding the revocation, as provided in § 1313.56(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 57 FR 2461, Jan. 22, 1992; 61 FR 14024, Mar. 29, 1996; 61 FR 17958, Apr. 23, 1996; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 67 FR 14862, Mar. 28, 2002; 67 FR 49569, July 31, 2002; 68 FR 57804, Oct. 7, 2003; 71 FR 56024, Sept. 26, 2006; 75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010; 77 FR 4236, Jan. 27, 2012; 81 FR 97022, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.06   Content of records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each record required by § 1310.03(a) must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address (es), etc.), and, if required, DEA registration number of each party to the regulated transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) The date of the regulated transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity, chemical name, and, if applicable, National Drug Code (NDC) number. If NDC number is not applicable, the form of packaging of the listed chemical or a description of the tableting machine or encapsulating machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric).
</P>
<P>(4) The method of transfer (company truck, picked up by customer, etc.).
</P>
<P>(5) The type of identification used by the purchaser and any unique number on that identification.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, normal business records will be considered adequate if they contain the information listed in paragraph (a) of this section and are readily retrievable from other business records of the regulated person. For prescription drug products, prescription and hospital records kept in the normal course of medical treatment will be considered adequate for satisfying the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to dispensing to patients, and records required to be maintained pursuant to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration regulations relating to the distribution of prescription drugs, as set forth in 21 CFR part 205, will be considered adequate for satisfying the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to distributions.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each report required by § 1310.05(a) must include the information as specified by paragraph (a) of this section, the basis for making the report, and, where obtainable, the registration number of the other party, if such party is registered. A report of an uncommon method of payment or delivery submitted in accordance with § 1310.05(a)(1) must also include a reason why the method of payment or delivery was uncommon.
</P>
<P>(2) A suggested format for the reports in § 1310.05(a)(1) is provided below:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Shipping Address (if different than purchaser Address):
</P>
<FP-DASH>Street
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>State
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Shipment
</FP-DASH>
<P>Description of Listed Chemical:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Chemical Name
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Quantity
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>National Drug Code (NDC) Number(s), or Form(s) of Packaging
</FP-DASH>
<P>Other:
</P>
<FP-DASH>The basis (<I>i.e.,</I> reason) for making the report:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Any additional pertinent information:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Each report of an unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical required by § 1310.05(b)(1) (on DEA Form 107), must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address (es), etc.), and, if applicable, DEA registration number of each party to the regulated transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) The date (or estimated date) on which unusual or excessive loss or disappearance occurred, and the actual date on which the unusual or excessive loss or disappearance was discovered by the regulated person.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity, chemical name, and National Drug Code (NDC) number, if applicable or if not the form of packaging of the listed chemical.
</P>
<P>(4) The type of business conducted by the regulated person, (<I>e.g.,</I> grocery store, pharmacy/drug store, discount department store, warehouse club or superstore, convenience store, specialty food store, gas station, mobile retail vendor, mail-order, etc.) if the regulated person is not a DEA registrant.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each report of an importation of a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(c)(1) (on DEA Form 452) must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the regulated person; the name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the import broker or forwarding agent, if any;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of each machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric) and the number of machines being received;
</P>
<P>(iii) The anticipated date of arrival at the port of entry, and the anticipated port of entry;
</P>
<P>(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the consignor in the foreign country of exportation;
</P>
<P>(v) The intended medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate use of the machine; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any proposed changes in identifying information of the imported machines (<I>e.g.,</I> name, brand, serial number, if any, etc.) that will take place after importation.
</P>
<P>(2) Each report of an exportation of a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(c)(1) (on DEA Form 452) must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the regulated person; the name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the export broker (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of each machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric) and the number of machines being received;
</P>
<P>(iii) The anticipated date of arrival at the port of export, the foreign port and country of entry; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the consignee in the country where the shipment is destined; the name(s)/business name(s) and address(es)/business address(es), and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the intermediate consignee(s) (if any).
</P>
<P>(f) Each report of a domestic regulated transaction in a tableting machine or encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(b)(2) (on DEA Form 452) must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the regulated person; the name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the purchaser;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of each machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric) and the number of machines being received; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any changes made by the regulated person in identifying information of the machines (<I>e.g.,</I> name, brand, serial number, etc.).
</P>
<P>(g) Each report of a denied release by a customs officer at the port of entry of a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(c)(2) must include the following information: the quantity of machines denied release; a concise description of the machines denied release; the date on which release was denied; the port where the denial of release was issued from; and the basis for the denial.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Return information.</I> (1) Within 30 calendar days after actual receipt of a tableting or encapsulating machine, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the importer, whichever is sooner, the importer must file a report with the Administration (on DEA Form 452) specifying the particulars of the transaction utilizing the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. This report must include the following information: The date on which a customs officer at the port of entry released the machine(s); the date on which the machine(s) arrived at the final destination; the port of entry where the machine(s) were actually released by a customs officer; the actual quantity of machines released by a customs officer; the actual quantity of machines that arrived at the final destination; a description of each tableting or encapsulating machine imported (including make, model, and serial number, if any); any changes in identifying information of the imported machines (<I>e.g.,</I> name, brand, serial number, if any, etc.) that will take place after importation; and any other information as the Administration may from time to time specify. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to a completed report. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number. A single return declaration may include the particulars of both the importation and distribution. For DEA reporting purposes, import responsibilities are concluded upon the receipt of the machines by the importer. Once machines are received by the importer, domestic transaction reporting requirements commence. Distributions of tableting and encapsulating machines from the importer to their customers must be reported as domestic regulated transactions in accordance with § 1310.05(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 calendar days after the tableting or encapsulating machine is released by a customs officer at the port of export, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the exporter, whichever is sooner, the exporter must file a report with the Administration (on DEA Form 452) through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the machine(s) was (were) released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual quantity of machines released; a description of each tableting or encapsulating machine released (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric); and any other information as the Administration may from time to time specify.
</P>
<P>(i) Declared exports of machines which are refused, rejected, or otherwise deemed undeliverable may be returned to the U.S. exporter of record. A brief written report outlining the circumstances must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, following the return at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. This provision does not apply to shipments that have cleared foreign customs, been delivered, and accepted by the foreign consignee. Returns to third parties in the United States will be regarded as imports.
</P>
<P>(j) Each annual report required by § 1310.05(d) must provide the following information for each listed chemical manufactured:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and chemical registration number (if any) of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate quantity of each listed chemical that the company manufactured during the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(3) The year-end inventory of each listed chemical as of the close of business on the 31st day of December of each year. (For each listed chemical, if the prior period's ending inventory has not previously been reported to DEA, this report should also detail the beginning inventory for the period.) For purposes of this requirement, inventory shall reflect the quantity of listed chemicals, whether in bulk or non-exempt product form, held in storage for later distribution. Inventory does not include waste material for destruction, material stored as an in-process intermediate or other in-process material.
</P>
<P>(4) The aggregate quantity of each listed chemical used for internal consumption during the preceding calendar year, unless the chemical is produced solely for internal consumption.
</P>
<P>(5) The aggregate quantity of each listed chemical manufactured which becomes a component of a product exempted from paragraph (1)(iv) or (v) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter during the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(6) Data shall identify the specific isomer, salt or ester when applicable but quantitative data shall be reported as anhydrous base or acid in kilogram units of measure.
</P>
<P>(k) Each monthly report required by §§ 1310.03(c) and 1310.05(e) (on DEA Form 453) must provide the following information for each transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Supplier name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and registration number.
</P>
<P>(2) Purchaser's name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.).
</P>
<P>(3) Name/business name, address/business address shipped to (if different from purchaser's name/address).
</P>
<P>(4) Chemical name, National Drug Code (NDC) number, if applicable, and total amount shipped.
</P>
<P>(5) Date of shipment.
</P>
<P>(6) Product name (if drug product).
</P>
<P>(7) Dosage form (if drug product) (<I>e.g.,</I> pill, tablet, liquid).
</P>
<P>(8) Dosage strength (if drug product) (<I>e.g.,</I> 30mg, 60mg, per dose etc.).
</P>
<P>(9) Number of dosage units (if drug product) (<I>e.g.,</I> 100 doses per package).
</P>
<P>(10) Package type (if drug product) (<I>e.g.,</I> bottle, blister pack, etc.).
</P>
<P>(11) Number of packages (if drug product) (<I>e.g.,</I> 10 bottles).
</P>
<P>(12) Lot number (if drug product).
</P>
<P>(l) Information provided in reports required by § 1310.05(e) which is exempt from disclosure under section 552(a) of title 5, by reason of section 552(b)(6) of title 5, will be provided the same protections from disclosure as are provided in section 310(c) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 830(c)) for confidential business information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97023, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.07" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.07   Proof of identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person who engages in a regulated transaction must identify the other party to the transaction. For domestic transaction, this shall be accomplished by having the other party present documents which would verify the identity, or registration status if a registrant, of the other party to the regulated person at the time the order is placed. For export transactions, this shall be accomplished by good faith inquiry through reasonably available research documents or publicly available information which would indicate the existence of the foreign customer. No proof of identity is required for foreign suppliers.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulated person must verify the existence and apparent validity of a business entity ordering a listed chemical, tableting machine or encapsulating machine. For domestic transactions, this may be accomplished by such methods as checking the telephone directory, the local credit bureau, the local Chamber of Commerce or the local Better Business Bureau, or, if the business entity is a registrant, by verification of the registration. For export transactions, a good faith inquiry to verify the existence and apparent validity of a foreign business entity may be accomplished by such methods as verifying the business telephone listing through international telephone information, the firm's listing in international or foreign national chemical directories or other commerce directories or trade publications, confirmation through foreign subsidiaries of the U.S. regulated person, verification through the country of destination's embassy Commercial Attache, or official documents provided by the purchaser which confirm the existence and apparent validity of the business entity.
</P>
<P>(c) When transacting business with a new representative of a firm, the regulated person must verify the claimed agency status of the representative.
</P>
<P>(d) For sales to individuals or cash purchasers, the type of documents and other evidence of proof must consist of at least a signature of the purchaser, a driver's license and one other form of identification. Any exports to individuals or exports paid in cash are suspect and should be handled as such. For such exports, the regulated person shall diligently obtain from the purchaser or independently seek to confirm clear documentation which proves the person is properly identified such as through foreign identity documents, driver's license, passport information and photograph, etc. Any regulated person who fails to adequately prove the identity of the other party to the transaction may be subject to the specific penalties provided for violations of law related to regulated transactions in listed chemicals.
</P>
<P>(e) For a new customer who is not an individual or cash customer, the regulated person shall establish the identity of the authorized purchasing agent or agents and have on file that person's signature, electronic password, or other identification. Once the authorized purchasing agent has been established, the agent list may be updated annually rather than on each order. The regulated person must ensure that shipments are not made unless the order is placed by an authorized agent of record.
</P>
<P>(f) With respect to electronic orders, the identity of the purchaser shall consist of a computer password, identification number or some other means of identification consistent with electronic orders and with § 1310.07(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 60 FR 32461, June 22, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.08" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.08   Excluded transactions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 802(39)(A)(iii), regulation of the following transactions has been determined to be unnecessary for the enforcement of the Chemical Diversion and Trafficking Act and, therefore, they have been excluded from the definitions of regulated transactions:
</P>
<P>(a) Domestic and import transactions of hydrochloric and sulfuric acids but not including anhydrous hydrogen chloride.
</P>
<P>(b) Exports, transshipments, and international transactions of hydrochloric (including anhydrous hydrogen chloride) and sulfuric acids, except for exports, transshipments and international transactions to the following countries:
</P>
<P>(1) Argentina
</P>
<P>(2) Bolivia
</P>
<P>(3) Brazil
</P>
<P>(4) Chile
</P>
<P>(5) Colombia
</P>
<P>(6) Ecuador
</P>
<P>(7) French Guiana
</P>
<P>(8) Guyana
</P>
<P>(9) Panama
</P>
<P>(10) Paraguay
</P>
<P>(11) Peru
</P>
<P>(12) Suriname
</P>
<P>(13) Uruguay
</P>
<P>(14) Venezuela
</P>
<P>(c) Domestic transactions of Methyl Isobutyl Ketone (MIBK).
</P>
<P>(d) Import transactions of Methyl Isobutyl Ketone (MIBK) destined for the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) Export transactions, international transactions, and import transactions for transshipment or transfer of Methyl Isobutyl Ketone (MIBK) destined for Canada or any country outside of the Western Hemisphere.
</P>
<P>(f) Domestic and international transactions of Lugol's Solution (consisting of 5 percent iodine and 10 percent potassium iodide in an aqueous solution) in original manufacturer's packaging of one-fluid-ounce (30 milliliters) or less, and no greater than one package per transaction.
</P>
<P>(g) Import transactions of anhydrous hydrogen chloride.
</P>
<P>(h) Domestic distribution of anhydrous hydrogen chloride weighing 12,000 pounds (net weight) or more in a single container.
</P>
<P>(i) Domestic distribution of anhydrous hydrogen chloride by pipeline.
</P>
<P>(j) Domestic and international return shipments of reusable containers from customer to producer containing residual quantities of red phosphorus or white phosphorus in rail cars and intermodal tank containers which conform to International Standards Organization specifications (with capacities greater than or equal to 2,500 gallons in a single container).
</P>
<P>(k) Domestic, import, and export distributions of gamma-butyrolactone weighing 4,000 kilograms (net weight) or more in a single container.
</P>
<P>(l) Domestic and import transactions in chemical mixtures that contain acetone, ethyl ether, 2-butanone, and/or toluene, unless regulated because of being formulated with other List I or List II chemical(s) above the concentration limit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 43615, Sept. 22, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 19510, Apr. 19, 1995; 60 FR 32461, June 22, 1995; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 65 FR 47316, Aug. 2, 2000; 66 FR 52675, Oct. 17, 2001; 68 FR 37414, June 24, 2003; 68 FR 53292, Sept. 10, 2003; 69 FR 74971, Dec. 15, 2004; 72 FR 10928, Mar. 12, 2007; 72 FR 35931, July 2, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.09" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.09   Temporary exemption from registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person required by section 302 of the act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export a combination ephedrine product is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before July 12, 1997. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export a drug product that contains pseudoephedrine or phenylpropanolamine that is regulated pursuant to paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before December 3, 1997.The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person required by section 302 of the act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export GBL is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the DEA receives a proper application for registration on or before July 24, 2000. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export the List I chemicals red phosphorus, white phosphorus, and hypophosphorous acid (and its salts), is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before December 17, 2001. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export regulated chemical mixtures which contain ephedrine, N-methylephedrine, N-methylpseudoephedrine, norpseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and/or pseudoephedrine, pursuant to §§ 1310.12 and 1310.13, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a proper application for registration or application for exemption on or before June 30, 2003. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect. Any person who distributes, imports or exports a chemical mixture whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for these persons, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has not been approved. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(f) Except for chemical mixtures containing the listed chemicals in paragraph (e) of this section, each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export regulated chemical mixtures, pursuant to §§ 1310.12 and 1310.13, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a proper application for registration or application for exemption on or before February 14, 2005. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(g) Any person who distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for these persons, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has not been approved. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(h) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 21 U.S.C. 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated N-phenethyl-4-piperidone (NPP), including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a proper application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing NPP pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before June 22, 2007. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect. Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports or exports a chemical mixture containing N-phenethyl-4-piperidone (NPP) whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose application for exemption are denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(i) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated iodine, including regulated iodine chemical mixtures pursuant to §§ 1310.12 and 1310.13, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the Administration receives a proper application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing iodine on or before August 31, 2007. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect. Any person who distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing iodine whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by the Administration must obtain a registration with the Administration. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for these persons, provided that the Administration receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official Administration notification that the application for exemption has not been approved. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until the Administration takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(j) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated chemical mixtures which contain ephedrine, and/or pseudoephedrine, pursuant to Sections 1310.12 and 1310.13, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption on or before August 24, 2007. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1315 of this chapter remain in full force and effect. Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for these persons, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has not been approved. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) Each person required by sections 302 or 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822, 957) to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated GBL-containing chemical mixtures, pursuant to sections 1310.12 and 1310.13, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption on or before July 29, 2010. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports or exports a GBL-containing chemical mixture whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose applications for exemption are denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(l)(1) Each person required under sections 302 and 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822, 957) to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated ergocristine and its salts, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing ergocristine and its salts pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before May 2, 2011. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing ergocristine and its salts whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose applications for exemption are denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(m)(1) Each person required by Sections 302 or 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822, 957) to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated chemical mixtures which contain red phosphorus, white phosphorus, hypophosphorous acid (and its salts), pursuant to §§ 1310.12 and 1310.13, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption on or before July 5, 2011. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in parts 1309, 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture which contains red phosphorus, white phosphorus, hypophosphorous acid (and its salts) whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose applications are denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has not been approved. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(n)(1) Each person required under sections 302 and 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822, 957) to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated alpha-phenylacetoacetonitrile (APAAN) and its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing alpha-phenylacetoacetonitrile (APAAN) and its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers, pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before August 14, 2017. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports or exports a chemical mixture containing alpha-phenylacetoacetonitrile (APAAN) and its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by the DEA must obtain a registration with the DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose applications for exemption are denied, provided that the DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until the DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(o)(1) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 21 U.S.C. 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated <I>N</I>-(1-benzylpiperidin-4-yl)-<I>N</I>-phenylpropionamide (benzylfentanyl) and its salts, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a proper application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing benzylfentanyl pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before May 15, 2020. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing <I>N</I>-(1-benzylpiperidin-4-yl)-<I>N</I>-phenylpropionamide (benzylfentanyl) and its salts whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose application for exemption is denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(p)(1) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 21 U.S.C. 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated <I>N</I>-phenylpiperidin-4-amine (4-anilinopiperidine; <I>N</I>-phenyl-4-piperidinamine; 4-AP), its amides, its carbamates, its halides, its salts, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing halides of 4-anilinopiperidine pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before November 30, 2023. The exemption would remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing <I>N</I>-phenylpiperidin-4-amine (4-anilinopiperidine; <I>N</I>-phenyl-4-piperidinamine; 4-AP), its amides, its carbamates, its halides, its salts, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible, whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose application for exemption is denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.


</P>
<P>(q)(1) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated forms of 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidate (PMK glycidate), 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid (PMK glycidic acid), and <I>alpha</I>-phenylacetoacetamide (APAA), including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing regulated forms of 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidate (PMK glycidate), 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid (PMK glycidic acid), or <I>alpha</I>-phenylacetoacetamide (APAA) pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before (30 days after publication of a rule implementing regulations regarding these three chemicals). The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports or exports a chemical mixture containing regulated forms of 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidate (PMK glycidate), 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid (PMK glycidic acid), or <I>alpha</I>-phenylacetoacetamide (APAA) whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose applications for exemption are denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(r)(1) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated forms of methyl <I>alpha</I>-phenylacetoacetate (MAPA; methyl 3-oxo-2-phenylbutanoate) and its optical isomers, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing regulated forms of MAPA pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before December 20, 2021. The exemption would remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing regulated forms of methyl <I>alpha</I>-phenylacetoacetate (MAPA; methyl 3-oxo-2-phenylbutanoate) and its optical isomers whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement would also be provided for those persons whose application for exemption is denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons would remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.


</P>
<P>(s)(1) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 21 U.S.C. 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export regulated 4-piperidone (piperidin-4-one), its acetals, its amides, its carbamates, its salts, and salts of its acetals, its amides, and its carbamates, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing 4-piperidone pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before May 12, 2023. The exemption would remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing 4-piperidone (piperidin-4-one), its acetals, its amides, its carbamates, its salts, and salts of its acetals, its amides, and its carbamates, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose application for exemption is denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons will remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(t)(1) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 21 U.S.C. 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export propionyl chloride, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing propionyl chloride pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before 30 days after the publication of a rule finalizing this action. The exemption would remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing propionyl chloride whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement will also be provided for those persons whose application for exemption is denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons would remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.
</P>
<P>(u)(1) Each person required under 21 U.S.C. 822 and 957 to obtain a registration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export P2P methyl glycidic acid (2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylic acid; also known as BMK glycidic acid) and its esters, its optical and geometric isomers, its salts, salts of its optical and geometric isomers and its esters, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible, including regulated chemical mixtures pursuant to § 1310.12, is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration or application for exemption for a chemical mixture containing P2P methyl glycidic acid pursuant to § 1310.13 on or before 30 days after the publication of a rule finalizing this action. The exemption would remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in the Act and parts 1309, 1310, 1313, and 1316 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a chemical mixture containing P2P methyl glycidic acid (2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylic acid; BMK glycidic acid) and its esters, its optical and geometric isomers, its salts, salts of its optical and geometric isomers and its esters, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible, whose application for exemption is subsequently denied by DEA must obtain a registration with DEA. A temporary exemption from the registration requirement would also be provided for those persons whose application for exemption is denied, provided that DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the date of official DEA notification that the application for exemption has been denied. The temporary exemption for such persons would remain in effect until DEA takes final action on their registration application.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 27693, May 21, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 53960, Oct. 17, 1997; 65 FR 21647, Apr. 24, 2000; 66 FR 52675, Oct. 17, 2001; 68 FR 23203, May 1, 2003; 69 FR 74971, Dec. 15, 2004; 72 FR 20046, Apr. 23, 2007; 72 FR 35931, July 2, 2007; 72 FR 40239, July 24, 2007; 72 FR 40744, July 25, 2007; 75 FR 37306, June 29, 2010; 76 FR 17781, Mar. 31, 2011; 76 FR 31829, June 2, 2011; 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012; 82 FR 32460, July 14, 2017; 85 FR 20828, Apr. 15, 2020; 86 FR 24707, May 7, 2021; 86 FR 64366, Nov. 18, 2021; 88 FR 21909, Apr. 12, 2023; 88 FR 74359, Oct. 31, 2023; 91 FR 11455, Mar. 10, 2026; 91 FR 16836, Apr. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.10" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.10   Removal of the exemption of drugs distributed under the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may remove from exemption under paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter any drug or group of drugs that the Administrator finds is being diverted to obtain a listed chemical for use in the illicit production of a controlled substance. In removing a drug or group of drugs from the exemption the Administrator shall consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The scope, duration, and significance of the diversion;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the drug or group of drugs is formulated in such a way that it cannot be easily used in the illicit production of a controlled substance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the listed chemical can be readily recovered from the drug or group of drugs.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon determining that a drug or group of drugs should be removed from the exemption under paragraph (a) of this section, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his proposal to remove the drug or group of drugs from the exemption, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the proposal is based. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the proposal. After considering any comments or objections filed, the Administrator shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his final order.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator shall limit the removal of a drug or group of drugs from exemption under paragraph (a) of this section to the most identifiable type of the drug or group of drugs for which evidence of diversion exists unless there is evidence, based on the pattern of diversion and other relevant factors, that the diversion will not be limited to that particular drug or group of drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) Any manufacturer seeking reinstatement of a particular drug product that has been removed from an exemption may apply to the Administrator for reinstatement of the exemption for that particular drug product on the grounds that the particular drug product is manufactured and distributed in a manner that prevents diversion. In determining whether the exemption should be reinstated the Administrator shall consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) The package sizes and manner of packaging of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(2) The manner of distribution and advertising of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence of diversion of the drug product;
</P>
<P>(4) Any actions taken by the manufacturer to prevent diversion of the drug product; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as are relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety, including the factors described in paragraph (a) of this section as applied to the drug product.
</P>
<P>(e) Within a reasonable period of time after receipt of the application for reinstatement of the exemption, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or non-acceptance of his application, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his order on the reinstatement of the exemption for the particular drug product, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order. If any such comments raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless the Administrator has evidence that the drug product is being diverted, as determined by applying the factors set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, and the Administrator so notifies the applicant, transactions involving a specific drug product will not be considered regulated transactions during the following periods:
</P>
<P>(1) While a bonafide application for reinstatement of exemption under paragraph (d) of this section for the specific drug product is pending resolution, provided that the application for reinstatement is filed not later than 60 days after the publication of the final order removing the exemption; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For a period of 60 days following the Administrator's denial of an application for reinstatement.
</P>
<P>(g) An order published by the Administrator in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, to reinstate an exemption may be modified or revoked with respect to a particular drug product upon a finding that:
</P>
<P>(1) Applying the factors set forth in paragraph (a) of this section to the particular drug product, the drug product is being diverted; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a significant change in the data that led to the issuance of the final rule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32461, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 67 FR 14862, Mar. 28, 2002; 75 FR 38922, July 7, 2010; 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.11   Reinstatement of exemption for drug products distributed under the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator has reinstated the exemption for the drug products listed in paragraph (e) of this section from application of sections 302, 303, 310, 1007, and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822-823, 830, and 957-958), to the extent described in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) No reinstated exemption granted pursuant to 1310.10 affects the criminal liability for illegal possession or distribution of listed chemicals contained in the exempt drug product.
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in exempt drug product compositions: Any change in the quantitative or qualitative composition, trade name or other designation of an exempt drug product listed in paragraph (d) requires a new application for reinstatement of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) The following drug products, in the form and quantity listed in the application submitted (indicated as the “date”) are designated as reinstated exempt drug products for the purposes set forth in this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Exempt Drug Products
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplier
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32462, June 22, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.12   Exempt chemical mixtures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The chemical mixtures meeting the criteria in paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section are exempted by the Administrator from application of sections 302, 303, 310, 1007, 1008, and 1018 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822, 823, 830, 957, 958, and 971) to the extent described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) No exemption granted pursuant to this § 1310.12 or § 1310.13 affects the criminal liability for illegal possession, distribution, exportation, or importation of listed chemicals contained in the exempt chemical mixture or the civil liability for unlawful acts related to exempt chemical mixtures, including distribution in violation of 21 U.S.C. 842(a)(11). 
</P>
<P>(c) Mixtures containing a listed chemical in concentrations equal to or less than those specified in the “Table of Concentration Limits” are designated as exempt chemical mixtures for the purpose set forth in this section. The concentration is determined for liquid-liquid mixtures by using the volume or weight and for mixtures containing solids or gases by using the unit of weight.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table of Concentration Limits 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DEA chemical code number 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Special conditions 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">List I Chemicals</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-Acetylanthranilic acid, its salts and esters</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8522</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration based on any combination of N-acetylanthranilic acid and its salts and esters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha-phenylacetoacetamide (APAA) and its optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8515</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of this chemical are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha-phenylacetoacetonitrile, and its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers. (APAAN)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8512</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of APAAN are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthranilic acid, and its salts and esters</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8530</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration is based on any combination of anthranilic acid and its salts and esters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8256</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50% by Weight or Volume 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl cyanide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8570</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-(1-benzylpiperidin-4-yl)-<E T="03">N</E>-phenylpropionamide (benzylfentanyl), including its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8334</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of benzylfentanyl are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-boc-4-AP (<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl 4-(phenylamino)piperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8336</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of 1-boc-4-AP (<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl 4-(phenylamino)piperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of ephedrine and/or pseudoephedrine, and their salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers are not exempt due to concentration, unless otherwise exempted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ergocristine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8612</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of ergocristine and its salts are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ergonovine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8675</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of ergonovine, including its salts, are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ergotamine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8676</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing amount of any ergotamine, including its salts, are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylamine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8678</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethylamine or its salts in an inert carrier solvent is not considered a mixture. Concentration is based on ethylamine in the mixture and not the combination of ethylamine and carrier solvent, if any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gamma-Butyrolactone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2011</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70% by weight or volume.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydriodic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6695</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hypophosphorous acid and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6797</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30% by weight if a solid, weight or volume if a liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The weight is determined by measuring the mass of hypophosphorous acid and its salts in the mixture, the concentration limit is calculated by summing the concentrations of all forms of hypophosphorous acid and its salts in the mixture. The Administration does not consider a chemical mixture to mean the combination of a listed chemical and an inert carrier. Therefore, any solution consisting of hypophosphorous acid (and its salts), dispersed in water, alcohol, or another inert carrier, is not considered a chemical mixture and is therefore subject to chemical regulatory controls at all concentrations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6699</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calculated as weight/volume (w/v).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isosafrole</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration in a mixture cannot exceed 20% if taken alone or in any combination with safrole.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">methyl <E T="03">alpha</E>-phenylacetoacetate (MAPA; methyl 3-oxo-2-phenylbutanoate) and its optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8795</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of MAPA and its optical isomers are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylamine and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8520</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Methylamine or its salts in an inert carrier solvent is not considered a mixture. Weight is based on methylamine in the mixture and not the combined weight of carrier solvent, if any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,4-Methylenedioxyphenyl-2-propanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8502</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-Methylephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration based on any combination of salts N-methylephedrine, N-methylpseudoephedrine and their salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidate (PMK glycidate) and its optical and geometric isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8535</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of this chemical are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid (PMK glycidic acid) and its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8525</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of this chemical are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P2P methyl glycidic acid (2-methyl-3-phenyloxirane-2-carboxylic acid; BMK glycidic acid) and its esters, its optical and geometric isomers, its salts, salts of its optical and geometric isomers and its esters, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8526</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of P2P methyl glycidic acid are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-Methylpseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration based on any combination of N-methylpseudoephedrine, N-methylephedrine, and their salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6724</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume 


</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Norpseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8317</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration based on any combination of norpseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine and their salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-phenethyl-4-piperidone (NPP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8332</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of NPP are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenylacetic acid, and its salts and esters</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8791</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration is based on any combination of phenylacetic acid and its salts and esters.




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">N</E>-phenylpiperidin-4-amine (4-anilinopiperidine; <E T="03">N</E>-phenyl-4-piperidinamine; 4-AP), its amides, its carbamates, its halides, its salts, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8335</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of 4-anilinopiperidine are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenylpropanolamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6% by Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration based on any combination of phenylpropanolamine, norpseudoephedrine and their salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Piperidine, and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration based on any combination of piperidine and its salts. Concentration based on weight if a solid, weight or volume if a liquid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-boc-4-piperidone (<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl 4-oxopiperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8331</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of 1-boc-4-piperidone (<E T="03">tert</E>-butyl 4-oxopiperidine-1-carboxylate) and its salts are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-piperidone (piperidin-4-one), its acetals, its amides, its carbamates, its salts, and salts of its acetals, its amides, and its carbamates, and any combination thereof, whenever the existence of such is possible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8330</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of 4-piperidone are not exempt.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Piperonal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8750</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propionic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8328</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propionyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8337</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of propionyl chloride are not exempt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of ephedrine and/or pseudoephedrine, and their salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers are not exempt due to concentration, unless otherwise exempted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red Phosphorus</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6795</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80% by weight.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Safrole</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8323</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration in a mixture cannot exceed 20% if taken alone or in any combination with isosafrole.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">White phosphorus</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6796</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not exempt at any concentration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical mixtures containing any amount of white phosphorus are not exempt due to concentration, unless otherwise exempted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">List II Chemicals</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetic Anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8519</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6532</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exports only; Limit applies to acetone or any combination of acetone, ethyl ether, 2-butanone, methyl isobutyl ketone, and toluene if present in the mixture by summing the concentrations for each chemical.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8568</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-butanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6714</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exports only; Limit applies to 2-butanone or any combination of acetone, ethyl ether, 2-butanone, methyl isobutyl ketone, and toluene if present in the mixture by summing the concentrations for each chemical.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6584</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exports only; Limit applies to ethyl ether or any combination of acetone, ethyl ether, 2-butanone, methyl isobutyl ketone, and toluene if present in the mixture by summing the concentrations for each chemical.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrochloric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6545</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydrogen chloride in an inert carrier solvent, such as aqueous or alcoholic solutions, is not considered a mixture. Weight is based on hydrogen chloride in the mixture and not the combined weight of the carrier solvent, if any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isobutyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6715</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exports only pursuant to § 1310.08; Limit applies to methyl isobutyl ketone or any combination of acetone, ethyl ether, 2-butanone, methyl isobutyl ketone, and toluene if present in the mixture by summing the concentrations for each chemical.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium permanganate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6579</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15% by Weight 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium Permanganate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6588</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15% by Weight
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfuric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6552</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sulfuric acid in an inert carrier solvent, such as aqueous or alcoholic solutions, is not considered a mixture. Weight is based on sulfuric acid in the mixture and not the combined weight of the carrier solvent, if any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35% by Weight or Volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exports only; Limit applies to toluene or any combination of acetone, ethyl ether, 2-butanone, methyl isobutyl ketone, and toluene if present in the mixture by summing the concentrations for each chemical.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) The following categories of chemical mixtures are automatically exempt from the provisions of the Controlled Substances Act as described in paragraph (a) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Chemical mixtures that are distributed directly to an incinerator for destruction or directly to an authorized waste recycler or reprocessor where such distributions are documented on United States Environmental Protection Agency Form 8700-22; persons distributing the mixture to the incinerator or recycler must maintain and make available to agents of the Administration, upon request, such documentation for a period of no less than two years.
</P>
<P>(2) Completely formulated paints and coatings: Completely formulated paints and coatings are only those formulations that contain all of the components of the paint or coating for use in the final application without the need to add any additional substances except a thinner if needed in certain cases. A completely formulated paint or coating is defined as any clear or pigmented liquid, liquefiable or mastic composition designed for application to a substrate in a thin layer that is converted to a clear or opaque solid protective, decorative, or functional adherent film after application. Included in this category are clear coats, top-coats, primers, varnishes, sealers, adhesives, lacquers, stains, shellacs, inks, temporary protective coatings and film-forming agents.
</P>
<P>(3) Iodine products classified as iodophors that exist as an iodine complex to include poloxamer-iodine complex, polyvinyl pyrrolidone-iodine complex (<I>i.e.</I>, povidone-iodine), undecoylium chloride iodine, nonylphenoxypoly (ethyleneoxy) ethanol-iodine complex, iodine complex with phosphate ester of alkylaryloxy polyethylene glycol, and iodine complex with ammonium ether sulfate/polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaurate.
</P>
<P>(4) Iodine products that consist of organically bound iodine (a non-ionic complex) (e.g., iopamidol, iohexol, and amiodarone.)
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may, at any time, terminate or modify the exemption for any chemical mixture which has been granted an exemption pursuant to the concentration limits as specified in paragraph (c) of this section or pursuant to the category exemption as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. In terminating or modifying an exemption, the Administrator shall issue, and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> notification of the removal of an exemption for a product or group of products for which evidence of diversion has been found, as well as the date on which the termination of exemption shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested party to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of the order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the order in light of comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, terminate, or amend the original order as determined appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator may modify any part of the criteria for exemption as specified in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section upon evidence of diversion or attempted diversion. In doing so, the Administrator shall issue and publish a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Administrator shall permit any interested persons to file written comments on or objections to the proposal. After considering any comments or objections filed, the Administrator shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23204, May 1, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 74971, Dec. 15, 2004; 71 FR 60826, Oct. 17, 2006; 72 FR 20047, Apr. 23, 2007; 72 FR 35931, July 2, 2007; 72 FR 40745, July 25, 2007; 75 FR 37306, June 29, 2010; 76 FR 17781, Mar. 31, 2011; 76 FR 31830, June 2, 2011; 82 FR 32460, July 14, 2017; 85 FR 20828, Apr. 15, 2020; 86 FR 24708, May 10, 2021; 86 FR 64366, Nov. 18, 2021; 87 FR 67552, Nov. 9, 2022; 88 FR 21909, Apr. 12, 2023; 88 FR 74359, Oct. 31, 2023; 90 FR 47566, Oct. 2, 2024; 91 FR 11455, Mar. 10, 2026; 91 FR 16836, Apr. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.13   Exemption of chemical mixtures; application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may, by publication of a Final Rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> exempt from the application of all or any part of the Act a chemical mixture consisting of two or more chemical components, at least one of which is not a List I or List II chemical, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The mixture is formulated in such a way that it cannot be easily used in the illicit production of a controlled substance; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The listed chemical or chemicals contained in the chemical mixture cannot be readily recovered. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any manufacturer seeking an exemption for a chemical mixture, not exempt under § 1310.12, from the application of all or any part of the Act, may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(c) An application for exemption under this section shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and registration number, if any, of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(2) The date of the application; 
</P>
<P>(3) The exact trade name(s) of the applicant's chemical mixture and: 
</P>
<P>(i) If the applicant formulates or manufactures the chemical mixture for other entities, the exact trade names of the chemical mixtures and the names of the entities for which the chemical mixtures were prepared; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) If a group of mixtures (e.g. formulations having identical function and containing the same listed chemical(s)), the information required in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section and a brief narrative of their use. 
</P>
<P>(4) (i) The complete qualitative and quantitative composition of the chemical mixture (including all listed and all non-listed chemicals); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If a group of mixtures, the concentration range for the listed chemical and a listing of all non-listed chemicals with respective concentration ranges. 
</P>
<P>(5) (i) The chemical and physical properties of the mixture and how they differ from the properties of the listed chemical or chemicals; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) If a group of mixtures, how the group's properties differ from the properties of the listed chemical. 
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that the applicant believes justifies an exemption for the chemical mixture or group of mixtures. The statement must explain how the chemical mixture(s) meets the exemption criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the applicant accepts the right of the Administrator to terminate exemption from regulation for the chemical mixture(s) granted exemption under this section. 
</P>
<P>(8) The identification of any information on the application that is considered by the applicant to be a trade secret or confidential and entitled to protection under U.S. laws restricting the public disclosure of such information. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may require the applicant to submit such additional documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application that he deems necessary for determining if the application should be granted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator will notify the applicant in writing of the acceptance or rejection of the application for filing. If the application is not accepted for filing, an explanation will be provided. The Administrator is not required to accept an application if any information required pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section or requested pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section is lacking or not readily understood. The applicant may, however, amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. If the exemption is subsequently granted, the applicant shall again be notified in writing and the Administrator shall issue, and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> an order on the application. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order. If any comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any findings of fact or conclusions of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator may suspend the effectiveness of the order until he has reconsidered the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, terminate, or amend the original order as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator may, at any time, terminate or modify an exemption for any product pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section. In terminating or modifying an exemption, the Administrator shall issue, and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> notification of the removal of an exempt product or group of exempt products for which evidence of diversion has been found. This order shall specify the date on which the termination of exemption shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested party to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of the order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator may suspend the effectiveness of the order until he has reconsidered the order in light of comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, terminate, or amend the original order as determined appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(g) A manufacturer of an exempted chemical mixture shall notify DEA in writing, of any change in the quantitative or qualitative composition of a chemical mixture that has been granted an exemption by application. Changes include those greater than the range of concentration given in the application or that remove non-listed chemical(s) given in the application as part of the formulation. A new application will be required only if reformulation results in a new product having a different commercial application or can no longer be defined as part of a group of exempted chemicals. DEA must be notified of reformulation at least 30 days in advance of marketing the reformulated mixture. For a change in name or other designation, code, or any identifier, a written notification is required. DEA must be notified of any changes at least 60 days in advance of the effective date for the change. 
</P>
<P>(h) Each manufacturer seeking exemption must apply for such an exemption. A formulation granted exemption by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> will not be exempted for all manufacturers. 
</P>
<P>(i) The following chemical mixtures, in the form and quantity listed in the application submitted (indicated as the “date”) are designated as exempt chemical mixtures for the purposes set forth in this section and are exempted by the Administrator from application of Sections 302, 303, 310, 1007, 1008, and 1018 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822, 823, 830, 957, 958, and 971):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)—Exempt Chemical Mixtures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manufacturer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product name 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerilliant Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1R,2S(-)-Ephedrine hydrochloride 1.0 mg/ml as free base in one of: 1,2-dimethoxyethane, acetonitrile, acetonitrile: water (≥50% acetonitrile), dimethylformamide, ethylene glycol, isopropanol, methanol, methanol/water (50:50), methanol/dimethyl sulfoxide (80:20), methylene chloride, or tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/2/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerilliant Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1S,2R(+)-Ephedrine-D<E T="52">3</E> hydrochloride 0.1 mg/ml as free base in one of: 1,2-dimethoxyethane, acetonitrile, acetonitrile: water (≥50% acetonitrile), dimethylformamide, ethylene glycol, isopropanol, methanol, methanol/water (50:50), methanol/dimethyl sulfoxide (80:20), methylene chloride, or tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/2/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerilliant Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1S,2R(+)-Ephedrine-D<E T="52">3</E> hydrochloride 1.0 mg/ml as free base in one of: 1,2-dimethoxyethane, acetonitrile, acetonitrile: water (≥50% acetonitrile), dimethylformamide, ethylene glycol, isopropanol, methanol, methanol/water (50:50), methanol/dimethyl sulfoxide (80:20), methylene chloride, or tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/2/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerilliant Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1S,2R(+)-Ephedrine hydrochloride 1.0 mg/ml as free base in one of: 1,2-dimethoxyethane, acetonitrile, acetonitrile: water (≥50% acetonitrile), dimethylformamide, ethylene glycol, isopropanol, methanol, methanol/water (50:50), methanol/dimethyl sulfoxide (80:20), methylene chloride, or tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/2/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerilliant Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pseudoephedrine-D<E T="52">3</E> hydrochloride 0.1 mg/ml as free base in one of: 1,2-dimethoxyethane, acetonitrile, acetonitrile: water (≥50% acetonitrile), dimethylformamide, ethylene glycol, isopropanol, methanol, methanol/water (50:50), methanol/dimethyl sulfoxide (80:20), methylene chloride, or tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/2/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerilliant Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R,R(-)-Pseudoephedrine 1.0 mg/ml as free base in one of: 1,2-dimethoxyethane, acetonitrile, acetonitrile: water (≥50% acetonitrile), dimethylformamide, ethylene glycol, isopropanol, methanol, methanol/water (50:50), methanol/dimethyl sulfoxide (80:20) methylene chloride, or tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/2/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerilliant Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">S,S(+)-Pseudoephedrine 1.0 mg/ml as free base in one of: 1,2-dimethoxyethane, acetonitrile, acetonitrile: water (≥50% acetonitrile), dimethylformamide, ethylene glycol, isopropanol, methanol, methanol/water (50:50), methanol/dimethyl sulfoxide (80:20), methylene chloride, or tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/2/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E.I. DuPont deNemours &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RC-5156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4/22/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E.I. DuPont deNemours &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VH-6037</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4/22/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GFS Chemicals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WaterMark® Karl-Fisher Reagent, Pyridine-Free Single Solution, 5 mg/ml</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11/26/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GFS Chemicals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WaterMark® Karl-Fisher Reagent, 5 mg/ml Single Solution NON-HAZ</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11/26/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GFS Chemicals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WaterMark® Karl-Fisher Reagent, Pyridine-Free Single Solution, 2 mg/ml</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11/26/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GFS Chemicals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WaterMark® Karl-Fisher Reagent, 2 mg/ml Single Solution NON-HAZ</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11/26/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GFS Chemicals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WaterMark® Karl-Fisher Reagent, 5 mg/ml, Stabilized, Pyridine-Based</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11/26/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dr. Haces, L.L.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">PodoPhylis, Podiatric Insole</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polyurethane Iodine Insole</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12/15/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hawthorne Products, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sole Pack Hoof Dressing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/14/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hawthorne Products, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sole Pack Hoof Packing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8/14/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lord Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemlok TS701-52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">05/03/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lord Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemlok TS701-53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">05/03/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron AKX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/08/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron AS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/08/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron Titrant SS 1 mg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/08/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron Titrant SS 3 mg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/08/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron Titrant SS 10 mg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/08/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron Titrant SS-Z 1 mg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">09/01/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron Titrant SS-Z 3 mg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">09/01/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitsubishi Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aquamicron Titrant SS-Z 5 mg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/08/2021


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quality Assurance Service Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 to 1000 nanograms per milliliter of ephedrine in blood, serum, or urine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9/26/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quality Assurance Service Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 to 1000 nanograms per milliliter of pseudoephedrine in blood, serum, or urine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9/26/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quality Assurance Service Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 to 1000 nanograms per milliliter of phenylpropanolamine in blood, serum, or urine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9/26/2007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reichhold, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beckosol® 12021-00 AA-200, IA-441, P531-T</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5/05/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reichhold, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Urotuf® L06-30S, F78-50T</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5/05/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reichhold, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beckosol AA-220</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6/14/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sigma-Aldrich</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydranal®-Composite 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5/29/2013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sigma-Aldrich</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydranal®-Composite 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5/29/2013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sigma-Aldrich</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydranal®-Composite 5K</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5/29/2013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sigma-Aldrich</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydranal®-Composite 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5/29/2013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard Homeopathic Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Baby Cough Syrup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9/28/2012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard Homeopathic Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Defend Cough &amp; Cold Night</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9/28/2012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard Homeopathic Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Defend Cough &amp; Cold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9/28/2012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard Homeopathic Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diarrex</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9/28/2012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterbury Companies, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waterbury 332500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4/11/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterbury Companies, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waterbury 332762</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4/11/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterbury Companies, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waterbury 332400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4/11/2005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterbury Companies, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waterbury 346201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4/11/2005
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Designate product line if a group.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23204, May 1, 2003, as amended at 75 FR 10681, Mar. 9, 2010; 75 FR 53869, Sept. 2, 2010; 76 FR 31830, June 2, 2011; 81 FR 97025, Dec. 30, 2016; 85 FR 4586, Jan. 27, 2020; 88 FR 72682, Oct. 23, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.14   Removal of exemption from definition of regulated transaction.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator finds that the following drugs or groups of drugs are being diverted to obtain a listed chemical for use in the illicit production of a controlled substance and removes the drugs or groups of drugs from exemption under paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter pursuant to the criteria listed in § 1310.10 of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Nonprescription drugs containing ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers.
</P>
<P>(b) Nonprescription drugs containing phenylpropanolamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers.
</P>
<P>(c) Nonprescription drugs containing pseudoephedrine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 38922, July 7, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.16" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.16   Exemptions for certain scheduled listed chemical products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the application of a manufacturer of a scheduled listed chemical product, the Administrator may by regulation provide that the product is exempt from part 1314 of this chapter if the Administrator determines that the product cannot be used in the illicit manufacture of a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for an exemption under this section must contain all of the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) The exact trade name of the scheduled listed chemical product for which exemption is sought.
</P>
<P>(3) The complete quantitative and qualitative composition of the drug product.
</P>
<P>(4) A brief statement of the facts that the applicant believes justify the granting of an exemption under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Certification by the applicant that the product may be lawfully marketed or distributed under the Federal, Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(6) The identification of any information on the application that is considered by the applicant to be a trade secret or confidential and entitled to protection under U.S. laws restricting the public disclosure of such information by government employees.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator may require the applicant to submit additional documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application that he deems necessary for determining if the application should be granted.
</P>
<P>(d) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of a completed application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of acceptance or non-acceptance of the application. If the application is not accepted, an explanation will be provided. The Administrator is not required to accept an application if any of the information required in paragraph (b) of this section or requested under paragraph (c) of this section is lacking or not readily understood. The applicant may, however, amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> an order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect.
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order. If any comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any findings of fact or conclusions of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend the original order as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56024, Sept. 26, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.11.0.45.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.21   Sale by Federal departments or agencies of chemicals which could be used to manufacture controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal department or agency may not sell from the stocks of the department or agency any chemical which, as determined by the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration, could be used in the manufacture of a controlled substance, unless the Administrator certifies in writing to the head of the department or agency that there is no reasonable cause to believe that the sale of the specific chemical to a specific person would result in the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance. For purposes of this requirement, reasonable cause to believe means that the Administration has knowledge of facts which would cause a reasonable person to reasonably conclude that a chemical would be diverted to the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal department or agency must request certification by submitting a written request to the Administrator, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A request for certification may be transmitted directly to the Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration, through electronic facsimile media. A request for certification must be submitted no later than fifteen calendar days before the proposed sale is to take place. In order to facilitate the sale of chemicals from Federal departments' or agencies' stocks, Federal departments or agencies may wish to submit requests as far in advance of the fifteen calendar days as possible. The written notification of the proposed sale must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and amount of the chemical to be sold;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the prospective bidder;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and address of the prospective end-user, in cases where a sale is being brokered;
</P>
<P>(4) Point(s) of contact for the prospective bidder and, where appropriate, prospective end-user; and
</P>
<P>(5) The end use of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(c) Within fifteen calendar days of receipt of a request for certification, the Administrator will certify in writing to the head of the Federal department or agency that there is, or is not, reasonable cause to believe that the sale of the specific chemical to the specific bidder and end-user would result in the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance. In making this determination, the following factors must be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) Past experience of the prospective bidder or end-user in the maintenance of effective controls against diversion of listed chemicals into other than legitimate medical, scientific, and industrial channels;
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance of the prospective bidder or end-user with applicable Federal, state and local law;
</P>
<P>(3) Prior conviction record of the prospective bidder or end-user relating to listed chemicals or controlled substances under Federal or state laws; and
</P>
<P>(4) Such other factors as may be relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Administrator certifies to the head of a Federal department or agency that there is no reasonable cause to believe that the sale of a specific chemical to a prospective bidder and end-user will result in the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance, that certification will be effective for one year from the date of issuance with respect to further sales of the same chemical to the same prospective bidder and end-user, unless the Administrator notifies the head of the Federal department or agency in writing that the certification is withdrawn. If the certification is withdrawn, DEA will also provide written notice to the bidder and end-user, which will contain a statement of the legal and factual basis for this determination.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Administrator determines there is reasonable cause to believe the sale of the specific chemical to a specific bidder and end-user would result in the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance, DEA will provide written notice to the head of a Federal department or agency refusing to certify the proposed sale under the authority of 21 U.S.C. 890. DEA also will provide, within fifteen calendar days of receiving a request for certification from a Federal department or agency, the same written notice to the prospective bidder and end-user, and this notice also will contain a statement of the legal and factual basis for the refusal of certification. The prospective bidder and end-user may, within thirty calendar days of receipt of notification of the refusal, submit written comments or written objections to the Administrator's refusal. At the same time, the prospective bidder and end-user also may provide supporting documentation to contest the Administrator's refusal. If such written comments or written objections raise issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the refusal is based, the Administrator will reconsider the refusal of the proposed sale in light of the written comments or written objections filed. Thereafter, within a reasonable time, the Administrator will withdraw or affirm the original refusal of certification as he determines appropriate. The Administrator will provide written reasons for any affirmation of the original refusal. Such affirmation of the original refusal will constitute a final decision for purposes of judicial review under 21 U.S.C. 877.
</P>
<P>(f) If the Administrator determines there is reasonable cause to believe that an existing certification should be withdrawn, DEA will provide written notice to the head of a Federal department or agency of such withdrawal under the authority of 21 U.S.C. 890. DEA also will provide, within fifteen calendar days of withdrawal of an existing certification, the same written notice to the bidder and end-user, and this notice also will contain a statement of the legal and factual basis for the withdrawal. The bidder and end-user may, within thirty calendar days of receipt of notification of the withdrawal of the existing certification, submit written comments or written objections to the Administrator's withdrawal. At the same time, the bidder and end-user also may provide supporting documentation to contest the Administrator's withdrawal. If such written comments or written objections raise issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the withdrawal of the existing certification is based, the Administrator will reconsider the withdrawal of the existing certification in light of the written comments or written objections filed. Thereafter, within a reasonable time, the Administrator will withdraw or affirm the original withdrawal of the existing certification as he determines appropriate. The Administrator will provide written reasons for any affirmation of the original withdrawal of the existing certification. Such affirmation of the original withdrawal of the existing certification will constitute a final decision for purposes of judicial review under 21 U.S.C. 877.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 62737, Nov. 6, 2003, as amended at 75 FR 10681, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1311" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1311—REQUIREMENTS FOR ELECTRONIC ORDERS AND PRESCRIPTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 828, 829, 871(b), 958(e), 965, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 16915, Apr. 1, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.1.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.01   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the rules governing the creation, transmission, and storage of electronic orders and prescriptions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16310, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.1.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16310, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.1.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.05   Standards for technologies for electronic transmission of orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant or a person with power of attorney to sign orders for Schedule I and II controlled substances may use any technology to sign and electronically transmit orders if the technology provides all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Authentication:</I> The system must enable a recipient to positively verify the signer without direct communication with the signer and subsequently demonstrate to a third party, if needed, that the sender's identity was properly verified.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonrepudiation:</I> The system must ensure that strong and substantial evidence is available to the recipient of the sender's identity, sufficient to prevent the sender from successfully denying having sent the data. This criterion includes the ability of a third party to verify the origin of the document.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Message integrity:</I> The system must ensure that the recipient, or a third party, can determine whether the contents of the document have been altered during transmission or after receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) DEA has identified the following means of electronically signing and transmitting order forms as meeting all of the standards set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Digital signatures using Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) technology.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.08" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.1.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.08   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These incorporations by reference were approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be inspected at the Drug Enforcement Administration, 600 Army Navy Drive, Arlington, VA 22202 or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at the Drug Enforcement Administration, call (202) 307-1000. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030 or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) These standards are available from the National Institute of Standards and Technology, Computer Security Division, Information Technology Laboratory, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-8930, (301) 975-6478 or TTY (301) 975-8295, <I>inquiries@nist.gov</I>, and are available at <I>http://csrc.nist.gov/.</I> The following standards are incorporated by reference:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal Information Processing Standard Publication (FIPS PUB) 140-2, Change Notices (12-03-2002), Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, May 25, 2001 (FIPS 140-2) including Annexes A through D; incorporation by reference approved for §§ 1311.30(b), 1311.55(b), 1311.115(b), 1311.120(b), 1311.205(b).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annex A:</I> Approved Security Functions for FIPS PUB 140-2, Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, September 23, 2004.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Annex B:</I> Approved Protection Profiles for FIPS PUB 140-2, Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, November 4, 2004.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Annex C:</I> Approved Random Number Generators for FIPS PUB 140-2, Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, January 31, 2005.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Annex D:</I> Approved Key Establishment Techniques for FIPS PUB 140-2, Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, February 23, 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal Information Processing Standard Publication (FIPS PUB) 180-2, Secure Hash Standard, August 1, 2002, as amended by change notice 1, February 25, 2004 (FIPS 180-2); incorporation by reference approved for §§ 1311.30(b) and 1311.55(b).
</P>
<P>(3) Federal Information Processing Standard Publication (FIPS PUB) 180-3, Secure Hash Standard (SHS), October 2008 (FIPS 180-3); incorporation by reference approved for §§ 1311.120(b) and 1311.205(b).
</P>
<P>(4) Federal Information Processing Standard Publication (FIPS PUB) 186-2, Digital Signature Standard, January 27, 2000, as amended by Change Notice 1, October 5, 2001 (FIPS 186-2); incorporation by reference approved for §§ 1311.30(b) and 1311.55(b).
</P>
<P>(5) Federal Information Processing Standard Publication (FIPS PUB) 186-3, Digital Signature Standard (DSS), June 2009 (FIPS 186-3); incorporation by reference approved for §§ 1311.120(b), 1311.205(b), and 1311.210(c).
</P>
<P>(6) Draft NIST Special Publication 800-63-1, Electronic Authentication Guideline, December 8, 2008 (NIST SP 800-63-1); Burr, W. et al.; incorporation by reference approved for § 1311.105(a).
</P>
<P>(7) NIST Special Publication 800-76-1, Biometric Data Specification for Personal Identity Verification, January 2007 (NIST SP 800-76-1); Wilson, C. et al.; incorporation by reference approved for § 1311.116(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 16310, Mar. 31, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Obtaining and Using Digital Certificates for Electronic Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.10" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.10   Eligibility to obtain a CSOS digital certificate.</HEAD>
<P>The following persons are eligible to obtain a CSOS digital certificate from the DEA Certification Authority to sign electronic orders for controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(a) The person who signed the most recent DEA registration application or renewal application and a person authorized to sign a registration application.
</P>
<P>(b) A person granted power of attorney by a DEA registrant to sign orders for one or more schedules of controlled substances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.15   Limitations on CSOS digital certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A CSOS digital certificate issued by the DEA Certification Authority will authorize the certificate holder to sign orders for only those schedules of controlled substances covered by the registration under which the certificate is issued.
</P>
<P>(b) When a registrant, in a power of attorney letter, limits a certificate applicant to a subset of the registrant's authorized schedules, the registrant is responsible for ensuring that the certificate holder signs orders only for that subset of schedules.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.20" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.20   Coordinators for CSOS digital certificate holders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each registrant, regardless of number of digital certificates issued, must designate one or more responsible persons to serve as that registrant's CSOS coordinator regarding issues pertaining to issuance of, revocation of, and changes to digital certificates issued under that registrant's DEA registration. While the coordinator will be the main point of contact between one or more DEA registered locations and the CSOS Certification Authority, all digital certificate activities are the responsibility of the registrant with whom the digital certificate is associated. Even when an individual registrant, <I>i.e.</I>, an individual practitioner, is applying for a digital certificate to order controlled substances a CSOS Coordinator must be designated; though in such a case, the individual practitioner may also serve as the coordinator.
</P>
<P>(b) If the designated coordinator changes at any time, the Certification Authority must immediately be notified of the change and the new responsibilities assumed by each of the registrant's coordinators, if applicable. New Coordinators must complete the online application as provided in § 1311.25.
</P>
<P>(c) The registrant's coordinator must inform the Certification Authority of all digital certificate applications, renewals and revocations for the registrant's users and approve applicants applying for a power of attorney digital certificate for a DEA registrant by means instructed by the Certification Authority within the system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16915, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 90 FR 47580, Oct. 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.25   Requirements for obtaining a CSOS digital certificate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To obtain a certificate to use for signing electronic orders for controlled substances, a registrant, coordinator, or person with power of attorney authorized to obtain a certificate for signing electronic orders for controlled substances for a registrant must complete the online enrollment process at <I>www.deaecom.gov</I> by:
</P>
<P>(1) Completing the online identification proofing process;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing a current listing of DEA registrations for which the individual has authority to sign controlled substances orders.
</P>
<P>(3) Uploading all copies of the power of attorney forms authorized by the registrant, when applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) Acknowledging that the applicant has read and understands the Subscriber Agreement and agrees to all terms contained in the Statement of Subscriber Obligations contained online.
</P>
<P>(b) When the Certification Authority verifies the applicant's identity and employment and approves the application, it will send the applicant a one-time use reference number and access code, via separate channels, and information on how to use them. Using this information, the applicant must then electronically submit a request for certification of the public digital signature key. After the request is approved, the Certification Authority will provide the applicant with the signed public key certificate.
</P>
<P>(c) Once the applicant has generated the key pair, the Certification Authority must prove that the user has possession of the key. For public keys, the corresponding private key must be used to sign the certificate request. Verification of the signature using the public key in the request will serve as proof of possession of the private key.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 47580, Oct. 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.30" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.30   Requirements for storing and using a private key for digitally signing orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only the certificate holder may access or use his or her digital certificate and private key.
</P>
<P>(b) The certificate holder must provide FIPS-approved secure storage for the private key, as discussed by FIPS 140-2, 180-2, 186-2, and accompanying change notices and annexes, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(c) A certificate holder must ensure that no one else uses the private key. While the private key is activated, the certificate holder must prevent unauthorized use of that private key.
</P>
<P>(d) A certificate holder must not make back-up copies of the private key.
</P>
<P>(e) The certificate holder must report the loss, theft, or compromise of the private key or the password, via a revocation request, to the Certification Authority within 24 hours of substantiation of the loss, theft, or compromise. Upon receipt and verification of a signed revocation request, the Certification Authority will revoke the certificate. The certificate holder must apply for a new certificate under the requirements of § 1311.25.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.35   Number of CSOS digital certificates needed.</HEAD>
<P>A purchaser of Schedule I and II controlled substances must obtain a separate CSOS certificate for each registered location for which the purchaser will order these controlled substances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.40" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.40   Renewal of CSOS digital certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A CSOS certificate holder must generate a new key pair and obtain a new CSOS digital certificate when the registrant's DEA registration expires or whenever the information on which the certificate is based changes. This information includes the registered name and address, the subscriber's name, and the schedules the registrant is authorized to handle. A CSOS certificate will expire on the date on which the DEA registration on which the certificate is based expires.
</P>
<P>(b) The Certification Authority will notify each CSOS certificate holder 45 days in advance of the expiration of the certificate holder's CSOS digital certificate.
</P>
<P>(c) If a CSOS certificate holder applies for a renewal before the certificate expires, the certificate holder may renew online at <I>www.deaecom.gov</I> twice. For every third renewal, the CSOS certificate holder must submit a new application and documentation, as provided in § 1311.25.
</P>
<P>(d) If a CSOS certificate expires before the holder applies for a renewal, the certificate holder must submit a new application and all required documentation, as provided in § 1311.25.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16915, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 90 FR 47580, Oct. 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.45   Requirements for registrants that allow powers of attorney to obtain CSOS digital certificates under their DEA registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant that grants power of attorney must report to the DEA Certification Authority within 6 hours of either of the following (advance notice may be provided, where applicable):
</P>
<P>(1) The person with power of attorney has left the employ of the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) The person with power of attorney has had his or her privileges revoked.
</P>
<P>(b) A registrant must maintain a record that lists each person granted power of attorney to sign controlled substances orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.50" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.50   Requirements for recipients of digitally signed orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The recipient of a digitally signed order must do the following before filling the order:
</P>
<P>(1) Verify the integrity of the signature and the order by having the system validate the order.
</P>
<P>(2) Verify that the certificate holder's CSOS digital certificate has not expired by checking the expiration date against the date the order was signed.
</P>
<P>(3) Check the validity of the certificate holder's certificate by checking the Certificate Revocation List.
</P>
<P>(4) Check the certificate extension data to determine whether the sender has the authority to order the controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient may cache Certificate Revocation Lists for use until they expire.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.55" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.55   Requirements for systems used to process digitally signed orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A CSOS certificate holder and recipient of an electronic order may use any system to write, track, or maintain orders provided that the system has been enabled to process digitally signed documents and that it meets the requirements of paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A system used to digitally sign Schedule I or II orders must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The cryptographic module must be FIPS 140-2, Level 1 validated, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(2) The digital signature system and hash function must be compliant with FIPS 186-2 and FIPS 180-2, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(3) The private key must be stored on a FIPS 140-2 Level 1 validated cryptographic module using a FIPS-approved encryption algorithm, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(4) The system must use either a user identification and password combination or biometric authentication to access the private key. Activation data must not be displayed as they are entered.
</P>
<P>(5) The system must set a 10-minute inactivity time period after which the certificate holder must reauthenticate the password to access the private key.
</P>
<P>(6) For software implementations, when the signing module is deactivated, the system must clear the plain text private key from the system memory to prevent the unauthorized access to, or use of, the private key.
</P>
<P>(7) The system must be able to digitally sign and transmit an order.
</P>
<P>(8) The system must have a time system that is within five minutes of the official National Institute of Standards and Technology time source.
</P>
<P>(9) The system must archive the digitally signed orders and any other records required in part 1305 of this chapter, including any linked data.
</P>
<P>(10) The system must create an order that includes all data fields listed under § 1305.21(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A system used to receive, verify, and create linked records for orders signed with a CSOS digital certificate must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The cryptographic module must be FIPS 140-2, Level 1 validated, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(2) The digital signature system and hash function must be compliant with FIPS 186-2 and FIPS 180-2, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(3) The system must determine that an order has not been altered during transmission. The system must invalidate any order that has been altered.
</P>
<P>(4) The system must validate the digital signature using the signer's public key. The system must invalidate any order in which the digital signature cannot be validated.
</P>
<P>(5) The system must validate that the DEA registration number contained in the body of the order corresponds to the registration number associated with the specific certificate by separately generating the hash value of the registration number and certificate subject distinguished name serial number and comparing that hash value to the hash value contained in the certificate extension for the DEA registration number. If the hash values are not equal the system must invalidate the order.
</P>
<P>(6) The system must check the Certificate Revocation List automatically and invalidate any order with a certificate listed on the Certificate Revocation List.
</P>
<P>(7) The system must check the validity of the certificate and the Certification Authority certificate and invalidate any order that fails these validity checks.
</P>
<P>(8) The system must have a time system that is within five minutes of the official National Institute of Standards and Technology time source.
</P>
<P>(9) The system must check the substances ordered against the schedules that the registrant is allowed to order and invalidate any order that includes substances the registrant is not allowed to order.
</P>
<P>(10) The system must ensure that an invalid finding cannot be bypassed or ignored and the order filled.
</P>
<P>(11) The system must archive the order and associate with it the digital certificate received with the order.
</P>
<P>(12) If a registrant sends reports on orders to DEA, the system must create a report in the format DEA specifies, as provided in § 1305.29 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) For systems used to process CSOS orders, the system developer or vendor must have an initial independent third-party audit of the system and an additional independent third-party audit whenever the signing or verifying functionality is changed to determine whether it correctly performs the functions listed under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. The system developer must retain the most recent audit results and retain the results of any other audits of the software completed within the previous two years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.60" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.2.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.60   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A supplier and purchaser must maintain records of CSOS electronic orders and any linked records for two years. Records may be maintained electronically. Records regarding controlled substances that are maintained electronically must be readily retrievable from all other records.
</P>
<P>(b) Electronic records must be easily readable or easily rendered into a format that a person can read. They must be made available to the Administration upon request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16915, Apr. 1, 2005, as amended at 90 FR 47581, Oct. 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Electronic Prescriptions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 16310, Mar. 31, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1311.100" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.100   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart addresses the requirements that must be met to issue and process Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substance prescriptions electronically.
</P>
<P>(b) A practitioner may issue a prescription for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance electronically if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The practitioner is registered as an individual practitioner or exempt from the requirement of registration under part 1301 of this chapter and is authorized under the registration or exemption to dispense the controlled substance;
</P>
<P>(2) The practitioner uses an electronic prescription application that meets all of the applicable requirements of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(3) The prescription is otherwise in conformity with the requirements of the Act and this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) An electronic prescription for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance created using an electronic prescription application that does not meet the requirements of this subpart is not a valid prescription, as that term is defined in § 1300.03 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) A controlled substance prescription created using an electronic prescription application that meets the requirements of this subpart is not a valid prescription if any of the functions required under this subpart were disabled when the prescription was indicated as ready for signature and signed.
</P>
<P>(e) A registered pharmacy may process electronic prescriptions for controlled substances only if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The pharmacy uses a pharmacy application that meets all of the applicable requirements of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) The prescription is otherwise in conformity with the requirements of the Act and this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this part alters the responsibilities of the practitioner and pharmacy, specified in part 1306 of this chapter, to ensure the validity of a controlled substance prescription.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.102" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.102   Practitioner responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The practitioner must retain sole possession of the hard token, where applicable, and must not share the password or other knowledge factor, or biometric information, with any other person. The practitioner must not allow any other person to use the token or enter the knowledge factor or other identification means to sign prescriptions for controlled substances. Failure by the practitioner to secure the hard token, knowledge factor, or biometric information may provide a basis for revocation or suspension of registration pursuant to section 304(a)(4) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4)).
</P>
<P>(b) The practitioner must notify the individuals designated under § 1311.125 or § 1311.130 within one business day of discovery that the hard token has been lost, stolen, or compromised or the authentication protocol has been otherwise compromised. A practitioner who fails to comply with this provision may be held responsible for any controlled substance prescriptions written using his two-factor authentication credential.
</P>
<P>(c) If the practitioner is notified by an intermediary or pharmacy that an electronic prescription was not successfully delivered, as provided in § 1311.170, he must ensure that any paper or oral prescription (where permitted) issued as a replacement of the original electronic prescription indicates that the prescription was originally transmitted electronically to a particular pharmacy and that the transmission failed.
</P>
<P>(d) Before initially using an electronic prescription application to sign and transmit controlled substance prescriptions, the practitioner must determine that the third-party auditor or certification organization has found that the electronic prescription application records, stores, and transmits the following accurately and consistently:
</P>
<P>(1) The information required for a prescription under § 1306.05(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The indication of signing as required by § 1311.120(b)(17) or the digital signature created by the practitioner's private key.
</P>
<P>(3) The number of refills as required by § 1306.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) If the third-party auditor or certification organization has found that an electronic prescription application does not accurately and consistently record, store, and transmit other information required for prescriptions under this chapter, the practitioner must not create, sign, and transmit electronic prescriptions for controlled substances that are subject to the additional information requirements.
</P>
<P>(f) The practitioner must not use the electronic prescription application to sign and transmit electronic controlled substance prescriptions if any of the functions of the application required by this subpart have been disabled or appear to be functioning improperly.
</P>
<P>(g) If an electronic prescription application provider notifies an individual practitioner that a third-party audit or certification report indicates that the application or the application provider no longer meets the requirements of this part or notifies him that the application provider has identified an issue that makes the application non-compliant, the practitioner must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately cease to issue electronic controlled substance prescriptions using the application.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure, for an installed electronic prescription application at an individual practitioner's practice, that the individuals designated under § 1311.125 terminate access for signing controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(h) If an electronic prescription application provider notifies an institutional practitioner that a third-party audit or certification report indicates that the application or the application provider no longer meets the requirements of this part or notifies it that the application provider has identified an issue that makes the application non-compliant, the institutional practitioner must ensure that the individuals designated under § 1311.130 terminate access for signing controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual practitioner or institutional practitioner that receives a notification that the electronic prescription application is not in compliance with the requirements of this part must not use the application to issue electronic controlled substance prescriptions until it is notified that the application is again compliant and all relevant updates to the application have been installed.
</P>
<P>(j) The practitioner must notify both the individuals designated under § 1311.125 or § 1311.130 and the Administration within one business day of discovery that one or more prescriptions that were issued under a DEA registration held by that practitioner were prescriptions the practitioner had not signed or were not consistent with the prescriptions he signed.
</P>
<P>(k) The practitioner has the same responsibilities when issuing prescriptions for controlled substances via electronic means as when issuing a paper or oral prescription. Nothing in this subpart relieves a practitioner of his responsibility to dispense controlled substances only for a legitimate medical purpose while acting in the usual course of his professional practice. If an agent enters information at the practitioner's direction prior to the practitioner reviewing and approving the information and signing and authorizing the transmission of that information, the practitioner is responsible in case the prescription does not conform in all essential respects to the law and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.105" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.105   Requirements for obtaining an authentication credential—Individual practitioners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual practitioner must obtain a two-factor authentication credential from one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A credential service provider that has been approved by the General Services Administration Office of Technology Strategy/Division of Identity Management to conduct identity proofing that meets the requirements of Assurance Level 3 or above as specified in NIST SP 800-63-1 as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(2) For digital certificates, a certification authority that is cross-certified with the Federal Bridge certification authority and that operates at a Federal Bridge Certification Authority basic assurance level or above.
</P>
<P>(b) The practitioner must submit identity proofing information to the credential service provider or certification authority as specified by the credential service provider or certification authority.
</P>
<P>(c) The credential service provider or certification authority must issue the authentication credential using two channels (e.g., e-mail, mail, or telephone call). If one of the factors used in the authentication protocol is a biometric, or if the practitioner has a hard token that is being enabled to sign controlled substances prescriptions, the credential service provider or certification authority must issue two pieces of information used to generate or activate the authentication credential using two channels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.110" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.110   Requirements for obtaining an authentication credential—Individual practitioners eligible to use an electronic prescription application of an institutional practitioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For any registrant or person exempted from the requirement of registration under § 1301.22(c) of this chapter who is eligible to use the institutional practitioner's electronic prescription application to sign prescriptions for controlled substances, the entity within a DEA-registered institutional practitioner that grants that individual practitioner privileges at the institutional practitioner (e.g., a hospital credentialing office) may conduct identity proofing and authorize the issuance of the authentication credential. That entity must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that photographic identification issued by the Federal Government or a State government matches the person presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the individual practitioner's State authorization to practice and, where applicable, State authorization to prescribe controlled substances, is current and in good standing.
</P>
<P>(3) Either ensure that the individual practitioner's DEA registration is current and in good standing or ensure that the institutional practitioner has granted the individual practitioner exempt from the requirement of registration under § 1301.22 of this chapter privileges to prescribe controlled substances using the institutional practitioner's DEA registration number.
</P>
<P>(4) If the individual practitioner is an employee of a health care facility that is operated by the Department of Veterans Affairs, confirm that the individual practitioner has been duly appointed to practice at that facility by the Secretary of the Department of Veterans Affairs pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 7401-7408.
</P>
<P>(5) If the individual practitioner is working at a health care facility operated by the Department of Veterans Affairs on a contractual basis pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 8153 and, in the performance of his duties, prescribes controlled substances, confirm that the individual practitioner meets the criteria for eligibility for appointment under 38 U.S.C. 7401-7408 and is prescribing controlled substances under the registration of such facility.
</P>
<P>(b) An institutional practitioner that elects to conduct identity proofing must provide authorization to issue the authentication credentials to a separate entity within the institutional practitioner or to an outside credential Service provider or certification authority that meets the requirements of § 1311.105(a).
</P>
<P>(c) When an institutional practitioner is conducting identity proofing and submitting information to a credential service provider or certification authority to authorize the issuance of authentication credentials, the institutional practitioner must meet any requirements that the credential service provider or certification authority imposes on entities that serve as trusted agents.
</P>
<P>(d) An institutional practitioner that elects to conduct identity proofing and authorize the issuance of the authentication credential as provided in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section must do so in a manner consistent with the institutional practitioner's general obligation to maintain effective controls against diversion. Failure to meet this obligation may result in remedial action consistent with § 1301.36 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) An institutional practitioner that elects to conduct identity proofing must retain a record of the identity-proofing. An institutional practitioner that elects to issue the two-factor authentication credential must retain a record of the issuance of the credential.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.115" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.115   Additional requirements for two-factor authentication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To sign a controlled substance prescription, the electronic prescription application must require the practitioner to authenticate to the application using an authentication protocol that uses two of the following three factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Something only the practitioner knows, such as a password or response to a challenge question.
</P>
<P>(2) Something the practitioner is, biometric data such as a fingerprint or iris scan.
</P>
<P>(3) Something the practitioner has, a device (hard token) separate from the computer to which the practitioner is gaining access.
</P>
<P>(b) If one factor is a hard token, it must be separate from the computer to which it is gaining access and must meet at least the criteria of FIPS 140-2 Security Level 1, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08, for cryptographic modules or one-time-password devices.
</P>
<P>(c) If one factor is a biometric, the biometric subsystem must comply with the requirements of § 1311.116.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.116" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.116   Additional requirements for biometrics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If one of the factors used to authenticate to the electronic prescription application is a biometric as described in § 1311.115, it must comply with the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) The biometric subsystem must operate at a false match rate of 0.001 or lower.
</P>
<P>(c) The biometric subsystem must use matching software that has demonstrated performance at the operating point corresponding with the false match rate described in paragraph (b) of this section, or a lower false match rate. Testing to demonstrate performance must be conducted by the National Institute of Standards and Technology or another DEA-approved government or nongovernment laboratory. Such testing must comply with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The biometric subsystem must conform to Personal Identity Verification authentication biometric acquisition specifications, pursuant to NIST SP 800-76-1 as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08, if they exist for the biometric modality of choice.
</P>
<P>(e) The biometric subsystem must either be co-located with a computer or PDA that the practitioner uses to issue electronic prescriptions for controlled substances, where the computer or PDA is located in a known, controlled location, or be built directly into the practitioner's computer or PDA that he uses to issue electronic prescriptions for controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(f) The biometric subsystem must store device ID data at enrollment (<I>i.e.</I>, biometric registration) with the biometric data and verify the device ID at the time of authentication to the electronic prescription application.
</P>
<P>(g) The biometric subsystem must protect the biometric data (raw data or templates), match results, and/or non-match results when authentication is not local. If sent over an open network, biometric data (raw data or templates), match results, and/or non-match results must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Cryptographically source authenticated;
</P>
<P>(2) Combined with a random challenge, a nonce, or a time stamp to prevent replay;
</P>
<P>(3) Cryptographically protected for integrity and confidentiality; and
</P>
<P>(4) Sent only to authorized systems.
</P>
<P>(h) Testing of the biometric subsystem must have the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) The test is conducted by a laboratory that does not have an interest in the outcome (positive or negative) of performance of a submission or biometric.
</P>
<P>(2) Test data are sequestered.
</P>
<P>(3) Algorithms are provided to the testing laboratory (as opposed to scores or other information).
</P>
<P>(4) The operating point(s) corresponding with the false match rate described in paragraph (b) of this section, or a lower false match rate, is tested so that there is at least 95% confidence that the false match and non-match rates are equal to or less than the observed value.
</P>
<P>(5) Results of the testing are made publicly available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.120" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.120   Electronic prescription application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A practitioner may only use an electronic prescription application that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section to issue electronic controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(b) The electronic prescription application must meet the requirements of this subpart including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The electronic prescription application must do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Link each registrant, by name, to at least one DEA registration number.
</P>
<P>(ii) Link each practitioner exempt from registration under § 1301.22(c) of this chapter to the institutional practitioner's DEA registration number and the specific internal code number required under § 1301.22(c)(5) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The electronic prescription application must be capable of the setting of logical access controls to limit permissions for the following functions:
</P>
<P>(i) Indication that a prescription is ready for signing and signing controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Creating, updating, and executing the logical access controls for the functions specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Logical access controls must be set by individual user name or role. If the application sets logical access control by role, it must not allow an individual to be assigned the role of registrant unless that individual is linked to at least one DEA registration number as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The application must require that the setting and changing of logical access controls specified under paragraph (b)(2) of this section involve the actions of two individuals as specified in §§ 1311.125 or 1311.130. Except for institutional practitioners, a practitioner authorized to sign controlled substance prescriptions must approve logical access control entries.
</P>
<P>(5) The electronic prescription application must accept two-factor authentication that meets the requirements of § 1311.115 and require its use for signing controlled substance prescriptions and for approving data that set or change logical access controls related to reviewing and signing controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(6) The electronic prescription application must be capable of recording all of the applicable information required in part 1306 of this chapter for the controlled substance prescription.
</P>
<P>(7) If a practitioner has more than one DEA registration number, the electronic prescription application must require the practitioner or his agent to select the DEA registration number to be included on the prescription.
</P>
<P>(8) The electronic prescription application must have a time application that is within five minutes of the official National Institute of Standards and Technology time source.
</P>
<P>(9) The electronic prescription application must present for the practitioner's review and approval all of the following data for each controlled substance prescription:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The full name of the patient.
</P>
<P>(iii) The drug name.
</P>
<P>(iv) The dosage strength and form, quantity prescribed, and directions for use.
</P>
<P>(v) The number of refills authorized, if applicable, for prescriptions for Schedule III, IV, and V controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(vi) For prescriptions written in accordance with the requirements of § 1306.12(b) of this chapter, the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill each prescription.
</P>
<P>(vii) The name, address, and DEA registration number of the prescribing practitioner.
</P>
<P>(viii) The statement required under § 1311.140(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(10) The electronic prescription application must require the prescribing practitioner to indicate that each controlled substance prescription is ready for signing. The electronic prescription application must not permit alteration of the DEA elements after the practitioner has indicated that a controlled substance prescription is ready to be signed without requiring another review and indication of readiness for signing. Any controlled substance prescription not indicated as ready to be signed shall not be signed or transmitted.
</P>
<P>(11) While the information required by paragraph (b)(9) of this section and the statement required by § 1311.140(a)(3) remain displayed, the electronic prescription application must prompt the prescribing practitioner to authenticate to the application, using two-factor authentication, as specified in § 1311.140(a)(4), which will constitute the signing of the prescription by the practitioner for purposes of § 1306.05(a) and (e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(12) The electronic prescription application must not permit a practitioner other than the prescribing practitioner whose DEA number (or institutional practitioner DEA number and extension data for the individual practitioner) is listed on the prescription as the prescribing practitioner and who has indicated that the prescription is ready to be signed to sign the prescription.
</P>
<P>(13) Where a practitioner seeks to prescribe more than one controlled substance at one time for a particular patient, the electronic prescription application may allow the practitioner to sign multiple prescriptions for a single patient at one time using a single invocation of the two-factor authentication protocol provided the following has occurred: The practitioner has individually indicated that each controlled substance prescription is ready to be signed while the information required by paragraph (b)(9) of this section for each such prescription is displayed along with the statement required by § 1311.140(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(14) The electronic prescription application must time and date stamp the prescription when the signing function is used.
</P>
<P>(15) When the practitioner uses his two-factor authentication credential as specified in § 1311.140(a)(4), the electronic prescription application must digitally sign at least the information required by part 1306 of this chapter and electronically archive the digitally signed record. If the practitioner signs the prescription with his own private key, as provided in § 1311.145, the electronic prescription application must electronically archive a copy of the digitally signed record, but need not apply the application's digital signature to the record.
</P>
<P>(16) The digital signature functionality must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The cryptographic module used to digitally sign the data elements required by part 1306 of this chapter must be at least FIPS 140-2 Security Level 1 validated. FIPS 140-2 is incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(ii) The digital signature application and hash function must comply with FIPS 186-3 and FIPS 180-3, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(iii) The electronic prescription application's private key must be stored encrypted on a FIPS 140-2 Security Level 1 or higher validated cryptographic module using a FIPS-approved encryption algorithm. FIPS 140-2 is incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(iv) For software implementations, when the signing module is deactivated, the application must clear the plain text password from the application memory to prevent the unauthorized access to, or use of, the private key.
</P>
<P>(17) Unless the digital signature created by an individual practitioner's private key is being transmitted to the pharmacy with the prescription, the electronic prescription application must include in the data file transmitted an indication that the prescription was signed by the prescribing practitioner.
</P>
<P>(18) The electronic prescription application must not transmit a controlled substance prescription unless the signing function described in § 1311.140(a)(4) has been used.
</P>
<P>(19) The electronic prescription application must not allow alteration of any of the information required by part 1306 of this chapter after the prescription has been digitally signed. Any alteration of the information required by part 1306 of this chapter after the prescription is digitally signed must cancel the prescription.
</P>
<P>(20) The electronic prescription application must not allow transmission of a prescription that has been printed.
</P>
<P>(21) The electronic prescription application must allow printing of a prescription after transmission only if the printed prescription is clearly labeled as a copy not for dispensing. The electronic prescription application may allow printing of prescription information if clearly labeled as being for informational purposes. The electronic prescription application may transfer such prescription information to medical records.
</P>
<P>(22) If the transmission of an electronic prescription fails, the electronic prescription application may print the prescription. The prescription must indicate that it was originally transmitted electronically to, and provide the name of, a specific pharmacy, the date and time of transmission, and that the electronic transmission failed.
</P>
<P>(23) The electronic prescription application must maintain an audit trail of all actions related to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The creation, alteration, indication of readiness for signing, signing, transmission, or deletion of a controlled substance prescription.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any setting or changing of logical access control permissions related to the issuance of controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notification of a failed transmission.
</P>
<P>(iv) Auditable events as specified in § 1311.150.
</P>
<P>(24) The electronic prescription application must record within each audit record the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The date and time of the event.
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of event.
</P>
<P>(iii) The identity of the person taking the action, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The outcome of the event (success or failure).
</P>
<P>(25) The electronic prescription application must conduct internal audits and generate reports on any of the events specified in § 1311.150 in a format that is readable by the practitioner. Such internal audits may be automated and need not require human intervention to be conducted.
</P>
<P>(26) The electronic prescription application must protect the stored audit records from unauthorized deletion. The electronic prescription application shall prevent modifications to the audit records.
</P>
<P>(27) The electronic prescription application must do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Generate a log of all controlled substance prescriptions issued by a practitioner during the previous calendar month and provide the log to the practitioner no later than seven calendar days after that month.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be capable of generating a log of all controlled substance prescriptions issued by a practitioner for a period specified by the practitioner upon request. Prescription information available from which to generate the log must span at least the previous two years.
</P>
<P>(iii) Archive all logs generated.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that all logs are easily readable or easily rendered into a format that a person can read.
</P>
<P>(v) Ensure that all logs are sortable by patient name, drug name, and date of issuance of the prescription.
</P>
<P>(28) Where the electronic prescription application is required by this part to archive or otherwise maintain records, it must retain such records electronically for two years from the date of the record's creation and comply with all other requirements of § 1311.305.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.125" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.125   Requirements for establishing logical access control—Individual practitioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At each registered location where one or more individual practitioners wish to use an electronic prescription application meeting the requirements of this subpart to issue controlled substance prescriptions, the registrant(s) must designate at least two individuals to manage access control to the application. At least one of the designated individuals must be a registrant who is authorized to issue controlled substance prescriptions and who has obtained a two-factor authentication credential as provided in § 1311.105.
</P>
<P>(b) At least one of the individuals designated under paragraph (a) of this section must verify that the DEA registration and State authorization(s) to practice and, where applicable, State authorization(s) to dispense controlled substances of each registrant being granted permission to sign electronic prescriptions for controlled substances are current and in good standing.
</P>
<P>(c) After one individual designated under paragraph (a) of this section enters data that grants permission for individual practitioners to have access to the prescription functions that indicate readiness for signature and signing or revokes such authorization, a second individual designated under paragraph (a) of this section must use his two-factor authentication credential to satisfy the logical access controls. The second individual must be a DEA registrant.
</P>
<P>(d) A registrant's permission to indicate that controlled substances prescriptions are ready to be signed and to sign controlled substance prescriptions must be revoked whenever any of the following occurs, on the date the occurrence is discovered:
</P>
<P>(1) A hard token or any other authentication factor required by the two-factor authentication protocol is lost, stolen, or compromised. Such access must be terminated immediately upon receiving notification from the individual practitioner.
</P>
<P>(2) The individual practitioner's DEA registration expires, unless the registration has been renewed.
</P>
<P>(3) The individual practitioner's DEA registration is terminated, revoked, or suspended.
</P>
<P>(4) The individual practitioner is no longer authorized to use the electronic prescription application (e.g., when the individual practitioner leaves the practice).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.130" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.130   Requirements for establishing logical access control—Institutional practitioner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The entity within an institutional practitioner that conducts the identity proofing under § 1311.110 must develop a list of individual practitioners who are permitted to use the institutional practitioner's electronic prescription application to indicate that controlled substances prescriptions are ready to be signed and to sign controlled substance prescriptions. The list must be approved by two individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) After the list is approved, it must be sent to a separate entity within the institutional practitioner that enters permissions for logical access controls into the application. The institutional practitioner must authorize at least two individuals or a role filled by at least two individuals to enter the logical access control data. One individual in the separate entity must authenticate to the application and enter the data to grant permissions to individual practitioners to indicate that controlled substances prescriptions are ready to be signed and to sign controlled substance prescriptions. A second individual must authenticate to the application to execute the logical access controls.
</P>
<P>(c) The institutional practitioner must retain a record of the individuals or roles that are authorized to conduct identity proofing and logical access control data entry and execution.
</P>
<P>(d) Permission to indicate that controlled substances prescriptions are ready to be signed and to sign controlled substance prescriptions must be revoked whenever any of the following occurs, on the date the occurrence is discovered:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual practitioner's hard token or any other authentication factor required by the practitioner's two-factor authentication protocol is lost, stolen, or compromised. Such access must be terminated immediately upon receiving notification from the individual practitioner.
</P>
<P>(2) The institutional practitioner's or, where applicable, individual practitioner's DEA registration expires, unless the registration has been renewed.
</P>
<P>(3) The institutional practitioner's or, where applicable, individual practitioner's DEA registration is terminated, revoked, or suspended.
</P>
<P>(4) An individual practitioner is no longer authorized to use the institutional practitioner's electronic prescription application (e.g., when the individual practitioner is no longer associated with the institutional practitioner.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.135" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.135   Requirements for creating a controlled substance prescription.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The electronic prescription application may allow the registrant or his agent to enter data for a controlled substance prescription, provided that only the registrant may sign the prescription in accordance with §§ 1311.120(b)(11) and 1311.140.
</P>
<P>(b) If a practitioner holds multiple DEA registrations, the practitioner or his agent must select the appropriate registration number for the prescription being issued in accordance with the requirements of § 1301.12 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) If required by State law, a supervisor's name and DEA number may be listed on a prescription, provided the prescription clearly indicates who is the supervisor and who is the prescribing practitioner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.140" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.140   Requirements for signing a controlled substance prescription.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For a practitioner to sign an electronic prescription for a controlled substance the following must occur:
</P>
<P>(1) The practitioner must access a list of one or more controlled substance prescriptions for a single patient. The list must display the information required by § 1311.120(b)(9).
</P>
<P>(2) The practitioner must indicate the prescriptions that are ready to be signed.
</P>
<P>(3) While the prescription information required in § 1311.120(b)(9) is displayed, the following statement or its substantial equivalent is displayed: “By completing the two-factor authentication protocol at this time, you are legally signing the prescription(s) and authorizing the transmission of the above information to the pharmacy for dispensing. The two-factor authentication protocol may only be completed by the practitioner whose name and DEA registration number appear above.”
</P>
<P>(4) While the prescription information required in § 1311.120(b)(9) and the statement required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section remain displayed, the practitioner must be prompted to complete the two-factor authentication protocol.
</P>
<P>(5) The completion by the practitioner of the two-factor authentication protocol in the manner provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section will constitute the signing of the prescription by the practitioner for purposes of § 1306.05(a) and (e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) Except as provided under § 1311.145, the practitioner's completion of the two-factor authentication protocol must cause the application to digitally sign and electronically archive the information required under part 1306 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The electronic prescription application must clearly label as the signing function the function that prompts the practitioner to execute the two-factor authentication protocol using his credential.
</P>
<P>(c) Any prescription not signed in the manner required by this section shall not be transmitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.145" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.145   Digitally signing the prescription with the individual practitioner's private key.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual practitioner who has obtained a digital certificate as provided in § 1311.105 may digitally sign a controlled substance prescription using the private key associated with his digital certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) The electronic prescription application must require the individual practitioner to complete a two-factor authentication protocol as specified in § 1311.140(a)(4) to use his private key.
</P>
<P>(c) The electronic prescription application must digitally sign at least all information required under part 1306 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The electronic prescription application must electronically archive the digitally signed record.
</P>
<P>(e) A prescription that is digitally signed with a practitioner's private key may be transmitted to a pharmacy without the digital signature.
</P>
<P>(f) If the electronic prescription is transmitted without the digital signature, the electronic prescription application must check the certificate revocation list of the certification authority that issued the practitioner's digital certificate. If the digital certificate is not valid, the electronic prescription application must not transmit the prescription. The certificate revocation list may be cached until the certification authority issues a new certificate revocation list.
</P>
<P>(g) When the individual practitioner digitally signs a controlled substance prescription with the private key associated with his own digital certificate obtained as provided under § 1311.105, the electronic prescription application is not required to digitally sign the prescription using the application's private key.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.150" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.150   Additional requirements for internal application audits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application provider must establish and implement a list of auditable events. Auditable events must, at a minimum, include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Attempted unauthorized access to the electronic prescription application, or successful unauthorized access where the determination of such is feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) Attempted unauthorized modification or destruction of any information or records required by this part, or successful unauthorized modification or destruction of any information or records required by this part where the determination of such is feasible.
</P>
<P>(3) Interference with application operations of the prescription application.
</P>
<P>(4) Any setting of or change to logical access controls related to the issuance of controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(5) Attempted or successful interference with audit trail functions.
</P>
<P>(6) For application service providers, attempted or successful creation, modification, or destruction of controlled substance prescriptions or logical access controls related to controlled substance prescriptions by any agent or employee of the application service provider.
</P>
<P>(b) The electronic prescription application must analyze the audit trail at least once every calendar day and generate an incident report that identifies each auditable event.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person designated to set logical access controls under §§ 1311.125 or 1311.130 must determine whether any identified auditable event represents a security incident that compromised or could have compromised the integrity of the prescription records. Any such incidents must be reported to the electronic prescription application provider and the Administration within one business day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.170" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.170   Transmission requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The electronic prescription application must transmit the electronic prescription as soon as possible after signature by the practitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) The electronic prescription application may print a prescription that has been transmitted only if an intermediary or the designated pharmacy notifies a practitioner that an electronic prescription was not successfully delivered to the designated pharmacy. If this occurs, the electronic prescription application may print the prescription for the practitioner's manual signature. The printed prescription must include information noting that the prescription was originally transmitted electronically to [name of the specific pharmacy] on [date/time] and that transmission failed.
</P>
<P>(c) The electronic prescription application may print copies of the transmitted prescription if they are clearly labeled: “Copy only—not valid for dispensing.” Data on the prescription may be electronically transferred to medical records, and a list of prescriptions written may be printed for patients if the list indicates that it is for informational purposes only and not for dispensing.
</P>
<P>(d) The electronic prescription application must not allow the transmission of an electronic prescription if an original prescription was printed prior to attempted transmission.
</P>
<P>(e) The contents of the prescription required by part 1306 of this chapter must not be altered during transmission between the practitioner and pharmacy. Any change to the content during transmission, including truncation or removal of data, will render the electronic prescription invalid. The electronic prescription data may be converted from one software version to another between the electronic prescription application and the pharmacy application; conversion includes altering the structure of fields or machine language so that the receiving pharmacy application can read the prescription and import the data.
</P>
<P>(f) An electronic prescription must be transmitted from the practitioner to the pharmacy in its electronic form. At no time may an intermediary convert an electronic prescription to another form (e.g., facsimile) for transmission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.200" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.200   Pharmacy responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before initially using a pharmacy application to process controlled substance prescriptions, the pharmacy must determine that the third-party auditor or certification organization has found that the pharmacy application does the following accurately and consistently:
</P>
<P>(1) Import, store, and display the information required for prescriptions under § 1306.05(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Import, store, and display the indication of signing as required by § 1311.120(b)(17).
</P>
<P>(3) Import, store, and display the number of refills as required by § 1306.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Import, store, and verify the practitioner's digital signature, as provided in § 1311.210(c), where applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) If the third-party auditor or certification organization has found that a pharmacy application does not accurately and consistently import, store, and display other information required for prescriptions under this chapter, the pharmacy must not process electronic prescriptions for controlled substances that are subject to the additional information requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) If a pharmacy application provider notifies a pharmacy that a third-party audit or certification report indicates that the application or the application provider no longer meets the requirements of this part or notifies it that the application provider has identified an issue that makes the application non-compliant, the pharmacy must immediately cease to process controlled substance prescriptions using the application.
</P>
<P>(d) A pharmacy that receives a notification that the pharmacy application is not in compliance with the requirements of this part must not use the application to process controlled substance prescriptions until it is notified that the application is again compliant and all relevant updates to the application have been installed.
</P>
<P>(e) The pharmacy must determine which employees are authorized to enter information regarding the dispensing of controlled substance prescriptions and annotate or alter records of these prescriptions (to the extent such alterations are permitted under this chapter). The pharmacy must ensure that logical access controls in the pharmacy application are set so that only such employees are granted access to perform these functions.
</P>
<P>(f) When a pharmacist fills a prescription in a manner that would require, under part 1306 of this chapter, the pharmacist to make a notation on the prescription if the prescription were a paper prescription, the pharmacist must make the same notation electronically when filling an electronic prescription and retain the annotation electronically in the prescription record or in linked files. When a prescription is received electronically, the prescription and all required annotations must be retained electronically.
</P>
<P>(g) When a pharmacist receives a paper or oral prescription that indicates that it was originally transmitted electronically to the pharmacy, the pharmacist must check its records to ensure that the electronic version was not received and the prescription dispensed. If both prescriptions were received, the pharmacist must mark one as void.
</P>
<P>(h) When a pharmacist receives a paper or oral prescription that indicates that it was originally transmitted electronically to another pharmacy, the pharmacist must check with that pharmacy to determine whether the prescription was received and dispensed. If the pharmacy that received the original electronic prescription had not dispensed the prescription, that pharmacy must mark the electronic version as void or canceled. If the pharmacy that received the original electronic prescription dispensed the prescription, the pharmacy with the paper version must not dispense the paper prescription and must mark the prescription as void.
</P>
<P>(i) Nothing in this part relieves a pharmacy and pharmacist of the responsibility to dispense controlled substances only pursuant to a prescription issued for a legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.205" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.205   Pharmacy application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The pharmacy may only use a pharmacy application that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section to process electronic controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(b) The pharmacy application must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The pharmacy application must be capable of setting logical access controls to limit access for the following functions:
</P>
<P>(i) Annotation, alteration, or deletion of prescription information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Setting and changing the logical access controls.
</P>
<P>(2) Logical access controls must be set by individual user name or role.
</P>
<P>(3) The pharmacy application must digitally sign and archive a prescription on receipt or be capable of receiving and archiving a digitally signed record.
</P>
<P>(4) For pharmacy applications that digitally sign prescription records upon receipt, the digital signature functionality must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The cryptographic module used to digitally sign the data elements required by part 1306 of this chapter must be at least FIPS 140-2 Security Level 1 validated. FIPS 140-2 is incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(ii) The digital signature application and hash function must comply with FIPS 186-3 and FIPS 180-3, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(iii) The pharmacy application's private key must be stored encrypted on a FIPS 140-2 Security Level 1 or higher validated cryptographic module using a FIPS-approved encryption algorithm. FIPS 140-2 is incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(iv) For software implementations, when the signing module is deactivated, the pharmacy application must clear the plain text password from the application memory to prevent the unauthorized access to, or use of, the private key.
</P>
<P>(v) The pharmacy application must have a time application that is within five minutes of the official National Institute of Standards and Technology time source.
</P>
<P>(5) The pharmacy application must verify a practitioner's digital signature (if the pharmacy application accepts prescriptions that were digitally signed with an individual practitioner's private key and transmitted with the digital signature).
</P>
<P>(6) If the prescription received by the pharmacy application has not been digitally signed by the practitioner and transmitted with the digital signature, the pharmacy application must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Verify that the practitioner signed the prescription by checking the data field that indicates the prescription was signed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Display the field for the pharmacist's verification.
</P>
<P>(7) The pharmacy application must read and retain the full DEA number including the specific internal code number assigned to individual practitioners authorized to prescribe controlled substances by the hospital or other institution as provided in § 1301.22(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) The pharmacy application must read and store, and be capable of displaying, all information required by part 1306 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) The pharmacy application must read and store in full the information required under § 1306.05(a) of this chapter. The pharmacy application must either verify that such information is present or must display the information for the pharmacist's verification.
</P>
<P>(10) The pharmacy application must provide for the following information to be added or linked to each electronic controlled substance prescription record for each dispensing:
</P>
<P>(i) Number of units or volume of drug dispensed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Date dispensed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Name or initials of the person who dispensed the prescription.
</P>
<P>(11) The pharmacy application must be capable of retrieving controlled substance prescriptions by practitioner name, patient name, drug name, and date dispensed.
</P>
<P>(12) The pharmacy application must allow downloading of prescription data into a database or spreadsheet that is readable and sortable.
</P>
<P>(13) The pharmacy application must maintain an audit trail of all actions related to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The receipt, annotation, alteration, or deletion of a controlled substance prescription.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any setting or changing of logical access control permissions related to the dispensing of controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Auditable events as specified in § 1311.215.
</P>
<P>(14) The pharmacy application must record within each audit record the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The date and time of the event.
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of event.
</P>
<P>(iii) The identity of the person taking the action, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The outcome of the event (success or failure).
</P>
<P>(15) The pharmacy application must conduct internal audits and generate reports on any of the events specified in § 1311.215 in a format that is readable by the pharmacist. Such an internal audit may be automated and need not require human intervention to be conducted.
</P>
<P>(16) The pharmacy application must protect the stored audit records from unauthorized deletion. The pharmacy application shall prevent modifications to the audit records.
</P>
<P>(17) The pharmacy application must back up the controlled substance prescription records daily.
</P>
<P>(18) The pharmacy application must retain all archived records electronically for at least two years from the date of their receipt or creation and comply with all other requirements of § 1311.305.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.210" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.210   Archiving the initial record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a copy of each electronic controlled substance prescription record that a pharmacy receives must be digitally signed by one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The last intermediary transmitting the record to the pharmacy must digitally sign the prescription immediately prior to transmission to the pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(2) The first pharmacy application that receives the electronic prescription must digitally sign the prescription immediately on receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) If the last intermediary digitally signs the record, it must forward the digitally signed copy to the pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(c) If a pharmacy receives a digitally signed prescription that includes the individual practitioner's digital signature, the pharmacy application must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Verify the digital signature as provided in FIPS 186-3, as incorporated by reference in § 1311.08.
</P>
<P>(2) Check the validity of the certificate holder's digital certificate by checking the certificate revocation list. The pharmacy may cache the CRL until it expires.
</P>
<P>(3) Archive the digitally signed record. The pharmacy record must retain an indication that the prescription was verified upon receipt. No additional digital signature is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.215" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.215   Internal audit trail.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The pharmacy application provider must establish and implement a list of auditable events. The auditable events must, at a minimum, include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Attempted unauthorized access to the pharmacy application, or successful unauthorized access to the pharmacy application where the determination of such is feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) Attempted or successful unauthorized modification or destruction of any information or records required by this part, or successful unauthorized modification or destruction of any information or records required by this part where the determination of such is feasible.
</P>
<P>(3) Interference with application operations of the pharmacy application.
</P>
<P>(4) Any setting of or change to logical access controls related to the dispensing of controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(5) Attempted or successful interference with audit trail functions.
</P>
<P>(6) For application service providers, attempted or successful annotation, alteration, or destruction of controlled substance prescriptions or logical access controls related to controlled substance prescriptions by any agent or employee of the application service provider.
</P>
<P>(b) The pharmacy application must analyze the audit trail at least once every calendar day and generate an incident report that identifies each auditable event.
</P>
<P>(c) The pharmacy must determine whether any identified auditable event represents a security incident that compromised or could have compromised the integrity of the prescription records. Any such incidents must be reported to the pharmacy application service provider, if applicable, and the Administration within one business day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.300" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.300   Application provider requirements—Third-party audits or certifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the application provider of an electronic prescription application or a pharmacy application must have a third-party audit of the application that determines that the application meets the requirements of this part at each of the following times:
</P>
<P>(1) Before the application may be used to create, sign, transmit, or process controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever a functionality related to controlled substance prescription requirements is altered or every two years, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b) The third-party audit must be conducted by one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A person qualified to conduct a SysTrust, WebTrust, or SAS 70 audit.
</P>
<P>(2) A Certified Information System Auditor who performs compliance audits as a regular ongoing business activity.
</P>
<P>(c) An audit for installed applications must address processing integrity and determine that the application meets the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) An audit for application service providers must address processing integrity and physical security and determine that the application meets the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) If a certifying organization whose certification process has been approved by DEA verifies and certifies that an electronic prescription or pharmacy application meets the requirements of this part, certification by that organization may be used as an alternative to the audit requirements of paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, provided that the certification that determines that the application meets the requirements of this part occurs at each of the following times:
</P>
<P>(1) Before the application may be used to create, sign, transmit, or process controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever a functionality related to controlled substance prescription requirements is altered or every two years, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(f) The application provider must make the audit or certification report available to any practitioner or pharmacy that uses the application or is considering use of the application. The electronic prescription or pharmacy application provider must retain the most recent audit or certification results and retain the results of any other audits or certifications of the application completed within the previous two years.
</P>
<P>(g) Except as provided in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section, if the third-party auditor or certification organization finds that the application does not meet one or more of the requirements of this part, the application must not be used to create, sign, transmit, or process electronic controlled substance prescriptions. The application provider must notify registrants within five business days of the issuance of the audit or certification report that they should not use the application for controlled substance prescriptions. The application provider must also notify the Administration of the adverse audit or certification report and provide the report to the Administration within one business day of issuance.
</P>
<P>(h) For electronic prescription applications, the third-party auditor or certification organization must make the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(1) If the information required in § 1306.05(a) of this chapter, the indication that the prescription was signed as required by § 1311.120(b)(17) or the digital signature created by the practitioner's private key, if transmitted, and the number of refills as required by § 1306.22 of this chapter, cannot be consistently and accurately recorded, stored, and transmitted, the third-party auditor or certification organization must indicate that the application does not meet the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If other information required under this chapter cannot be consistently and accurately recorded, stored, and transmitted, the third-party auditor or certification organization must indicate that the application has failed to meet the requirements for the specific information and should not be used to create, sign, and transmit prescriptions that require the additional information.
</P>
<P>(i) For pharmacy applications, the third-party auditor or certification organization must make the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(1) If the information required in § 1306.05(a) of this chapter, the indication that the prescription was signed as required by § 1311.205(b)(6), and the number of refills as required by § 1306.22 of this chapter, cannot be consistently and accurately imported, stored, and displayed, the third-party auditor or certification organization must indicate that the application does not meet the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If the pharmacy application accepts prescriptions with the practitioner's digital signature, the third-party auditor or certification organization must indicate that the application does not meet the requirements of this part if the application does not consistently and accurately import, store, and verify the digital signature.
</P>
<P>(3) If other information required under this chapter cannot be consistently and accurately imported, stored, and displayed, the third-party auditor or certification organization must indicate that the application has failed to meet the requirements for the specific information and should not be used to process electronic prescriptions that require the additional information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.302" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.302   Additional application provider requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an application provider identifies or is made aware of any issue with its application that make the application non-compliant with the requirements of this part, the application provider must notify practitioners or pharmacies that use the application as soon as feasible, but no later than five business days after discovery, that the application should not be used to issue or process electronic controlled substance prescriptions.
</P>
<P>(b) When providing practitioners or pharmacies with updates to any issue that makes the application non-compliant with the requirements of this part, the application provider must indicate that the updates must be installed before the practitioner or pharmacy may use the application to issue or process electronic controlled substance prescriptions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1311.305" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.12.3.45.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1311.305   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a prescription is created, signed, transmitted, and received electronically, all records related to that prescription must be retained electronically.
</P>
<P>(b) Records required by this subpart must be maintained electronically for two years from the date of their creation or receipt. This record retention requirement shall not pre-empt any longer period of retention which may be required now or in the future, by any other Federal or State law or regulation, applicable to practitioners, pharmacists, or pharmacies.
</P>
<P>(c) Records regarding controlled substances prescriptions must be readily retrievable from all other records. Electronic records must be easily readable or easily rendered into a format that a person can read.
</P>
<P>(d) Records required by this part must be made available to the Administration upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) If an application service provider ceases to provide an electronic prescription application or an electronic pharmacy application or if a registrant ceases to use an application service provider, the application service provider must transfer any records subject to this part to the registrant in a format that the registrant's applications are capable of retrieving, displaying, and printing in a readable format.
</P>
<P>(f) If a registrant changes application providers, the registrant must ensure that any records subject to this part are migrated to the new application or are stored in a format that can be retrieved, displayed, and printed in a readable format.
</P>
<P>(g) If a registrant transfers its electronic prescription files to another registrant, both registrants must ensure that the records are migrated to the new application or are stored in a format that can be retrieved, displayed, and printed in a readable format.
</P>
<P>(h) Digitally signed prescription records must be transferred or migrated with the digital signature.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1312" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1312—IMPORTATION AND EXPORTATION OF CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 871(b), 952, 953, 954, 957, 958.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 7815, Apr. 24, 1971, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1312.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.01   Scope of part 1312.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures governing the importation, exportation, transshipment and intransit shipment of controlled substances pursuant to section 1002, 1003, and 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952, 953, and 954) are governed generally by those sections and specifically by the sections of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.03   Forms applicable to this part.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Access/
<br/>submission
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 35, Permit to Import</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 36, Permit to Export</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 161, Application for Permit to Export Controlled Substances</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 161R, Application for Permit to Export Controlled Substances For Subsequent Reexport</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 161R-EEA, Application for Permit to Export Controlled Substances for Subsequent Reexport Among Members of the European Economic Area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 236, Controlled Substances Import/Export Declaration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 357, Application for Permit to Import Controlled Substances for Domestic And/Or Scientific Purposes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97025, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Importation of Controlled Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.11   Requirement of authorization to import.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall import, or cause to be imported, into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or into the United States from any place outside thereof, any controlled substances listed in Schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, or any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III which the Administrator has specifically designated by regulation in § 1312.30 or any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule IV or V which is also listed in Schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and the Administration has issued him or her a permit to do so in accordance with § 1312.13.
</P>
<P>(b) No person shall import, or cause to be imported, into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or into the United States from any place outside thereof, any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, excluding those described in paragraph (a) of this section, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and has filed an import declaration to do so in accordance with § 1312.18.
</P>
<P>(c) A separate permit or declaration is required for each shipment of a controlled substance to be imported.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97026, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.12   Application for import permit; return information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Registered importers, other registrants authorized to import as a coincident activity of their registrations, and persons who in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter are exempt from registration, seeking to import a controlled substance in schedule I or II; any narcotic drug in schedule III, IV, or V; any non-narcotic drug in schedule III that has been specifically designated by regulation in § 1312.30; or any non-narcotic substance listed in schedule IV or V that is also listed in schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, must submit an application for a permit to import controlled substances on DEA Form 357. All applications and supporting materials must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The application must be signed and dated by the importer and must contain the importer's registered address to which the controlled substances will be imported.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant must include on the DEA Form 357 the registration number of the importer and a detailed description of each controlled substance to be imported including the drug name, dosage form, National Drug Code (NDC) number, the Administration Controlled Substance Code Number as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, the number and size of the packages or containers, the name and quantity of the controlled substance contained in any finished dosage units, and the quantity of any controlled substance (expressed in anhydrous acid, base or alkaloid) given in kilograms or parts thereof. The application must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.), and business of the consignor, if known at the time the application is submitted, but if unknown at that time, the fact should be indicated and the name and address afterwards furnished to the Administration as soon as ascertained by the importer;
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign port and country of initial exportation (<I>i.e.,</I> the place where the article will begin its journey of exportation to the United States);
</P>
<P>(3) The port of entry into the United States;
</P>
<P>(4) The latest date said shipment will leave said foreign port or country;
</P>
<P>(5) The stock on hand of the controlled substance desired to be imported;
</P>
<P>(6) The name of the importing carrier or vessel (if known), or if unknown it should be stated whether the shipment will be made by express, freight, or otherwise, imports of controlled substances in Schedules I or II and narcotic drugs in Schedules III, IV, or V by mail being prohibited);
</P>
<P>(7) The total tentative allotment to the importer of such controlled substance for the current calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(8) The total number of kilograms of said allotment for which permits have previously been issued and the total quantity of controlled substance actually imported during the current year to date.
</P>
<P>(c) If desired, alternative foreign ports of exportation within the same country may be indicated upon the application (<I>e.g.,</I> 1. Kolkata, 2. Mumbai). If a permit is issued pursuant to such application, it will bear the names of the two ports in the order given in the application and will authorize shipment from either port. Alternative ports in different countries will not be authorized in the same permit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Return information.</I> Within 30 calendar days after actual receipt of a controlled substance at the importer's registered location, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the importer, whichever is sooner, the importer must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date the controlled substance was released by a customs officer at the port of entry; the date on which the controlled substance arrived at the registered location; the actual quantity of the controlled substance released by a customs officer at the port of entry; and the actual quantity of the controlled substance that arrived at the registered location. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to a completed report. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denied release at the port of entry.</I> In the event that a shipment of controlled substances has been denied release by a customs officer at the port of entry for any reason, the importer who attempted to have the shipment released must, within 5 business days of the denial, report to the Administration that the shipment was denied and the reason for denial. Such report must be transmitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. This report must include the following information: The quantity of the controlled substance denied release; the date on which release was denied; and the basis for the denied release. Upon the importer's report of a denied release at the port of entry, the DEA will assign the report a transaction identification number and the import permit will be void and of no effect. No shipment of controlled substances denied release for any reason will be allowed to be released into the United States unless the importer submits a new DEA Form 357 and the Administration issues a new import permit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97026, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.13   Issuance of import permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may authorize importation of any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II or any narcotic drug listed in Schedule III, IV, or V if he finds: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the substance is crude opium, poppy straw, concentrate of poppy straw, or coca leaves, in such quantity as the Administrator finds necessary to provide for medical, scientific, or other legitimate purposes; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the substance is necessary to provide for medical and scientific needs or other legitimate needs of the United States during an emergency where domestic supplies of such substance or drug are found to be inadequate, or in any case in which the Administrator finds that competition among domestic manufacturers of the controlled substance is inadequate and will not be rendered adequate by the registration of additional manufacturers under section 303 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 823); or 
</P>
<P>(3) That the domestic supply of any controlled substance is inadequate for scientific studies, and that the importation of that substance for scientific purposes is only for delivery to officials of the United Nations, of the United States, or of any State, or to any person registered or exempted from registration under sections 1007 and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 957 and 958). 
</P>
<P>(4) That the importation of the controlled substance is for ballistics or other analytical or scientific purposes, and that the importation of that substance is only for delivery to officials of the United Nations, of the United States, or of any State, or to any person registered or exempted from registration under sections 1007 and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 957 and 958). 
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator may require that such non-narcotic controlled substances in Schedule III as he shall designate by regulation in § 1312.30 of this part be imported only pursuant to the issuance of an import permit. The Administrator may authorize the importation of such substances if he finds that the substance is being imported for medical, scientific or other legitimate uses. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a non-narcotic substance listed in Schedule IV or V is also listed in Schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, it shall be imported only pursuant to the issuance of an import permit. The Administrator may authorize the importation of such substances if it is found that the substance is being imported for medical, scientific or other legitimate uses. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may require an applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted. The failure of the applicant to provide such documents or statements within a reasonable time after being requested to do so shall be deemed to be a waiver by the applicant of an opportunity to present such documents or facts for consideration by the Administrator in granting or denying the application. 
</P>
<P>(e) If an importation is approved, the Administrator will issue an import permit bearing his or her signature or that of his or her delegate. Each permit will be assigned a unique permit number. A permit must not be altered or changed by any person after being signed. Any change or alteration upon the face of any permit after it has been signed renders it void and of no effect. Permits are not transferable. The Administrator or his/her delegate will date and certify on each permit that the importer named therein is thereby permitted as a registrant under the Act, to import, through the port of entry named, one shipment of not to exceed the specified quantity of the named controlled substances, shipment to be made before a specified date. Only one shipment may be made on a single import permit. A single import permit shall authorize a quantity of goods to be imported/exported at one place, at one time, for delivery to one consignee, on a single conveyance, at one place, on one bill of lading, air waybill, or commercial loading document; a single permit shall not authorize a quantity of goods to be imported/exported if the goods are divided onto two or more conveyances. The permit must state that the Administration is satisfied that the consignment proposed to be imported is required for legitimate purposes.
</P>
<P>(f) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, the Administrator shall permit, pursuant to section 1002(a)(1) or 1002(a)(2)(A) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952(a)(1) or (a)(2)(A)), the importation of approved narcotic raw material (opium, poppy straw and concentrate of poppy straw) having as its source:
</P>
<P>(1) Turkey,
</P>
<P>(2) India,
</P>
<P>(3) Spain,
</P>
<P>(4) France,
</P>
<P>(5) Poland,
</P>
<P>(6) Hungary, and
</P>
<P>(7) Australia.
</P>
<P>(g) At least eighty (80) percent of the narcotic raw material imported into the United States shall have as its original source Turkey and India. Except under conditions of insufficient supplies of narcotic raw materials, not more than twenty (20) percent of the narcotic raw material imported into the United States annually shall have as its source Spain, France, Poland, Hungary and Australia.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 23624, Dec. 11, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 46 FR 41776, Aug. 18, 1981; 52 FR 17289, May 7, 1987; 73 FR 6851, Feb. 6, 2008; 81 FR 97027, Dec. 30, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.14   Distribution of import permits.</HEAD>
<P>The Administration shall transmit the import permit to the competent national authority of the exporting country and shall make an official record of the import permit available to the importer through secure electronic means. The importer, or their agent, must submit an official record of the import permit and/or required data concerning the import transaction to a customs officer at the port of entry in compliance with all import control requirements of agencies with import control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. The importer must maintain an official record of the import permit (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after issuance) in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter as the record of authority for the importation and shall transmit an official record of the permit to the foreign exporter. If required by the foreign competent national authority, the importer shall ensure that an official record of the import permit is provided (<I>e.g.,</I> by transmitting an official record of the permit to the foreign exporter who shall transmit such record to the competent national authority of the exporting county). The importer must ensure that an official record of the permit accompanies the shipment of controlled substances to its final destination, the registered location of the importer (<I>i.e.,</I> drop shipments are prohibited).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97027, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.15   Shipments in greater or less amount than authorized.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the shipment made under an import permit is greater than the maximum amount authorized to be imported under the permit, as determined at the weighing by the District Director of the U.S. Customs and Border Protection or customs service of an Insular Area, such difference shall be seized subject to forfeiture, pending an explanation; except that shipments of substances exceeding the maximum authorized amount by less than 1 percent may be released to the importer upon the filing by him of an amended import permit in accordance with § 1312.16(a). If the substance is included in Schedule I, it will be summarily forfeited to the Government. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the shipment made under the permit is less than the maximum amount authorized to be imported under the permit as determined at the weighing by the District Director of the U.S. Customs and Border Protection or customs service of an Insular Area, such difference, when ascertained by the Administration, shall be recredited to the tentative allotment against which the quantity covered by the permit was charged, and the balance of any such tentative allotment with any such recredits will remain available to the importer to whom made (unless previously revoked in whole or in part), for importations pursuant to any permit or permits as are requested and issued during the remainder of the calendar year to which the allotment is applicable. No permit shall be issued for importation of a quantity of controlled substances as a charge against the tentative allotment for a given calendar year, after the close of such calendar year, unless the Administrator decides to make an exception for good cause shown.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7815, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 46 FR 28841, May 29, 1981; 81 FR 97027, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.16" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.16   Amendment, cancellation, expiration of import permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Importers may only request that an import permit or application for an import permit be amended in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section. Requests for an amendment must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section and § 1312.15(a), importers must submit all requests for an amendment at least one full business day in advance of the date of release by a customs officer. Importers must specifically request that an amendment be made; supplementary information submitted by an importer through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically trigger the amendment process. While the request for an amendment is being reviewed by the Administration, the original permit will be temporarily stayed and may not be used to authorize entry of a shipment of controlled substances. If the importer's request for an amendment to an issued permit is granted by the Administration, the Administration will immediately cancel the original permit and re-issue the permit, as amended, with a revised permit number. The DEA and importer will distribute the amended permit in accordance with § 1312.14. If a request for an amendment is denied by the Administration, the temporary stay will be lifted; once lifted, the originally issued permit may immediately be used to authorize entry of a shipment in accordance with the terms of the permit, subject to the shipment being compliant with all other applicable laws.
</P>
<P>(1) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change the National Drug Control number, description of the packaging, or trade name of the product, so long as the description is for the same basic class of controlled substance as in the original permit.
</P>
<P>(2) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change the proposed port of entry, the date of release by a customs officer, or the method of transport.
</P>
<P>(3) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change the justification provided as to why an import shipment is needed to meet the legitimate scientific or medical needs of the United States.
</P>
<P>(4) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change any registrant notes.
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to departure of the shipment from its original foreign location, an importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to increase the total base weight of a controlled substance. At the U.S. port of entry, an importer may request that an import permit be amended in accordance with § 1312.15(a). Importers are not required to amend an import permit for the sole purpose of decreasing the total base weight of a controlled substance authorized to be imported. However, the balance of any unimported authorized quantity of controlled substances on an import permit is void upon entry of a shipment on the issued permit or upon expiration of the unused permit in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, whichever is sooner. Other than for an amendment to an import permit under § 1312.15(a), importers must submit a request for an amendment to increase the total base weight of a controlled substance at least three business days in advance of the date of release by a customs officer.
</P>
<P>(6) An importer may request that an import permit be amended to remove a controlled substance from the permit. However, an importer may not amend an import permit to add or replace a controlled substance/Administration controlled substance code number to the item(s) to be imported. Importers who desire to import a different controlled substance than that contained on their issued import permit or permit application must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.12.
</P>
<P>(7) An importer may not amend the importer's name (as it appears on their DEA certificate of registration) or the name of the foreign exporter as provided in the DEA Form 357. Importers who need to make any changes to any of these fields must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.12.
</P>
<P>(b) An import permit will be void and of no effect after the expiration date specified therein, and in no event will the date be more than 180 calendar days after the date the permit is issued. Amended import permits will retain the original expiration date.
</P>
<P>(c) An import permit may be canceled after being issued, at the request of the importer submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, provided that no shipment has been made thereunder.
</P>
<P>Nothing in this part will affect the right, hereby reserved by the Administration, to cancel a permit at any time for proper cause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97027, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.17" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.17   Special report from importers.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever requested by the Administrator, importers shall render to him not later than 30 days after receipt of the request therefor a statement under oath of the stocks of controlled substances on hand as of the date specified by the Administrator in his request, and, if desired by the Administrator, an estimate of the probable requirements for legitimate uses of the importer for any subsequent period that may be designated by the Administrator. In lieu of any special statement that may be considered necessary, the Administrator may accept the figures given upon the reports subsequent by said importer under part 1304 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7815, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.18" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.18   Import declaration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, not subject to the requirement of an import permit pursuant to § 1312.13 (b) or (c) of this chapter, may be imported if that substance is needed for medical, scientific or other legitimate uses in the United States, and will be imported pursuant to a controlled substances import declaration. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person registered or authorized to import and seeking to import any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedules III, IV, or V which is not subject to the requirement of an import permit as described in paragraph (a) of this section, must file a controlled substances import declaration (DEA Form 236) with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not later than 15 calendar days prior to the anticipated date of release by a customs officer and distribute an official record of the declaration as hereinafter directed in § 1312.19. The declaration must be signed and dated by the importer and must specify the address of the final destination for the shipment, which must be the importer's registered location. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The import declaration is not deemed filed, and therefore is not valid, until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number. The importer may only proceed with the import transaction once the transaction identification number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(c) DEA Form 236 must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and registration number of the importer; and the name and address and registration number of the import broker, if any; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A complete description of the controlled substances to be imported, including drug name, dosage form, National Drug Code (NDC) number, the Administration Controlled Substances Code Number as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, the number and size of packages or containers, the name and quantity of the controlled substance contained in any finished dosage units, and the net quantity of any controlled substance (expressed in anhydrous acid, base, or alkaloid) given in kilograms or parts thereof; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry, the foreign port and country of exportation to the United States, the port of entry, and the name, address, and registration number of the recipient in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name and address of the consignor in the foreign country of exportation, and any registration or license numbers if the consignor is required to have such numbers either by the country of exportation or under U.S. law. 
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding the time limitations included in paragraph (b) of this section, an applicant may obtain a special waiver of these time limitations in emergency or unusual instances, provided that a specific confirmation is received from the Administrator or his delegate advising the registrant to proceed pursuant to the special waiver.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Return information.</I> Within 30 calendar days after actual receipt of a controlled substance at the importer's registered location, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the importer, whichever is sooner, the importer must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the controlled substance was released by a customs officer at the port of entry; the date on which the controlled substance arrived at the registered location; the actual quantity of the controlled substance released by a customs officer at the port of entry; the actual quantity of the controlled substance that arrived at the registered location; and the actual port of entry. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to a completed report. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(f) An importer may amend an import declaration in the same circumstances in which an importer may request amendment to an import permit, as set forth in § 1312.16(a)(1) through (7). Amendments to declarations must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in §§ 1312.16(a)(5) and 1312.15(a), importers must submit all amendments at least one full business day in advance of the date of release by a customs officer. Importers must specifically note that an amendment is being made; supplementary information submitted by an importer through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically be considered an amendment. While the amendment is being processed by the Administration, the original declaration will be temporarily stayed and may not be used to authorize release of a shipment of controlled substances. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. The amendment will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number. The DEA and importer will distribute the amended declaration in accordance with § 1312.19. A filed amendment will not change the date that the declaration becomes void and of no effect pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) An import declaration may be canceled after being filed with the Administration, at the request of the importer by the importer submitting to the Administration the request through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, provided that no shipment has been made thereunder. Import declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Denied release at the port of entry.</I> In the event that a shipment of controlled substances has been denied release by a customs officer at the port of entry for any reason, the importer who attempted to have the shipment released, within 5 business days of the denial, report to the Administration that the shipment was denied release and the reason for denial. Such report must be transmitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. This report must include the following information: The quantity of the controlled substance denied release; the date on which release was denied; and the basis for the denied release. Upon the importer's report of a denied release, the DEA will assign the report a transaction identification number and the import declaration will become void and of no effect. No shipment of controlled substances denied release for any reason will be allowed to be released into the United States until the importer has filed a new import declaration and the Administration has issued a new transaction identification number.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7815, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 45 FR 74715, Nov. 12, 1980; 51 FR 5319, Feb. 13, 1986; 52 FR 17290, May 7, 1987; 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10682, Mar. 9, 2010; 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012; 81 FR 97028, Dec. 30, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.19" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.45.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.19   Distribution of import declaration.</HEAD>
<P>The importer must furnish an official record of the declaration (available through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) to the foreign shipper. The foreign shipper must submit an official record of the declaration to the competent national authority of the exporting country, if required as a prerequisite to export authorization. The importer, or their agent, must submit an official record of the declaration and/or required data concerning the import transaction to a customs officer at the port of entry in compliance with all import control requirements of agencies with import control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. The importer must ensure that an official record of the declaration accompanies the shipment to its final destination, which must only be the registered location of the importer (<I>i.e.,</I> drop shipments are prohibited). The importer must maintain an official record of the declaration in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97029, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="46" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exportation of Controlled Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.21   Requirement of authorization to export.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall in any manner export, or cause to be exported, from the United States any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV, or any non-narcotic controlled substance in Schedule III which the Administrator has specifically designated by regulation in § 1312.30 or any non-narcotic controlled substance in Schedule IV or V which is also listed in Schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and the Administrator has issued him or her a permit to do so in accordance with § 1312.23.
</P>
<P>(b) No person shall in any manner export, or cause to be exported, from the United States any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, excluding those described in paragraph (a) of this section, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule V, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and has furnished an export declaration as provided by section 1003 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(e)) to the Administration in accordance with § 1312.28.
</P>
<P>(c) A separate permit or declaration is required for each shipment of controlled substance to be exported.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97029, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.22   Application for export or reexport permit; return information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Registered exporters, and persons who in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter are exempt from registration, seeking to export controlled substances must submit an application for a permit to export controlled substances on DEA Form 161. Registered exporters, and persons who in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter are exempt from registration, seeking to reexport controlled substances must submit an application for a permit to reexport controlled substances on DEA Form 161R or DEA Form 161R-EEA, whichever applies. All applications and supporting materials must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The application must be signed and dated by the exporter and contain the exporter's registered address from which the controlled substances will be exported. Controlled substances may not be exported until a permit number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(b) Exports of controlled substances by mail are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, each application for a permit to export or reexport must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The exporter's name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address (es), etc.);
</P>
<P>(ii) The exporter's registration number, address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), etc.) from which the controlled substances will be exported;
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of each controlled substance to be exported including the drug name, dosage form, National Drug Code (NDC) number, Administration Controlled Substance Code Number as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, the number and size of the packages or containers, the name and quantity of the controlled substance contained in any finished dosage units, and the quantity of any controlled substance (expressed in anhydrous acid, base, or alkaloid) given in kilograms or parts thereof;
</P>
<P>(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and business of the consignee in the first country (the country to which the controlled substance is exported from the United States), foreign port and country of entry/first country of entry, the port of export, the anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of export, the name of the exporting carrier or vessel (if known), or if unknown it should be stated whether the shipment will be made by express, freight, or otherwise), the date and number, if any, of the supporting foreign import license or permit accompanying the application, and the authority by whom such foreign license or permit was issued; and
</P>
<P>(v) An affidavit that the packages or containers are labeled in conformance with obligations of the United States under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect at the time of the export or reexport. The affidavit shall further state that to the best of the affiant's knowledge and belief, the controlled substances therein are to be applied exclusively to medical or scientific uses within the country to which exported, will not be reexported therefrom and that there is an actual need for the controlled substance for medical or scientific uses within such country, unless the application is submitted for reexport in accordance with paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section. In the case of exportation of crude cocaine, the affidavit may state that to the best of affiant's knowledge and belief, the controlled substances will be processed within the country to which exported, either for medical or scientific use within that country or for reexportation in accordance with the laws of that country to another for medical or scientific use within that country.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to reexports among members of the European Economic Area in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)), the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall apply only with respect to the export from the United States to the first country and not to any subsequent export from that country to another country of the European Economic Area.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the applicant must also submit with the application any import license or permit or a certified copy of any such license or permit issued by the competent national authority in the country of destination, or other documentary evidence deemed adequate by the Administration, showing: That the merchandise is consigned to an authorized permittee; that it is to be applied exclusively to medical or scientific use within the country of destination; that it will not be reexported from such country (unless the application is submitted for reexport in accordance with paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section); and that there is an actual need for the controlled substance for medical or scientific use within such country or countries. If the import license or permit, or the certified copy of such, is not written in English or bilingual with another language and English, the registrant must also submit with their application a certified translation of the permit or license. For purposes of this requirement, certified translation means that the translator has signed the translation legally attesting the accuracy of the translation. (In the case of exportation of bulk coca leaf alkaloid, the applicant need only include with the application the material outlined in paragraph (c) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to reexports among members of the European Economic Area in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)), the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall apply only with respect to the export from the United States to the first country and not to any subsequent export from that country to another country of the European Economic Area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Return information for exports (on a DEA Form 161).</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the exporter, whichever is sooner, the exporter must report to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the controlled substance left the registered location; the date on which the controlled substance was released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual quantity of controlled substance that left the registered location; and the actual quantity of the controlled substance released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual port of export, and any other information as the Administration may from time to time specify. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to a completed report. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reexports outside of the European Economic Area.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, the Administration may authorize any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or any narcotic drug listed in Schedule III or IV, to be exported from the United States to a country for subsequent export from that country to another country, if each of the following conditions is met, in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)):
</P>
<P>(1) Both the country to which the controlled substance is exported from the United States (referred to in this section as the “first country”) and the country to which the controlled substance is exported from the first country (referred to in this section as the “second country”) are parties to the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, and the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971;
</P>
<P>(2) The first country and the second country have each instituted and maintain, in conformity with such Conventions, a system of controls of imports of controlled substances which the Administration deems adequate;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to the first country, the controlled substance is consigned to a holder of such permits or licenses as may be required under the laws of such country, and a permit or license to import the controlled substance has been issued by the country;
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to the second country, substantial evidence is furnished to the Administration by the applicant for the export permit that—
</P>
<P>(i) The controlled substance is to be consigned to a holder of such permits or licenses as may be required under the laws of such country, and a permit or license to import the controlled substance is to be issued by the country; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The controlled substance is to be applied exclusively to medical, scientific, or other legitimate uses within the country;
</P>
<P>(5) The controlled substance will not be exported from the second country;
</P>
<P>(6) The exporter has complied with paragraph (h) of this section and a permit to export the controlled substance from the United States has been issued by the Administration; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Return information for reexports outside of the European Economic Area (on DEA Form 161R)</I>—(i) <I>Return information for export from the United States, for reexport.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the controlled substance left the registered location; the date on which the controlled substance was released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual quantity of controlled substance released by a customs officer at the port of export; and the actual port of export. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number. In determining whether the exporter has complied with the requirement to file within 30 calendar days, the report shall be deemed filed on the first date on which a complete report is filed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Return information for export from a first country that is or is not a member of the European Economic Area to a country outside of the European Economic Area; return information for export from a first country that is not a member of the European Economic Area to a member of the European Economic Area.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is exported from the first country to the second country the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the export from the first country. If the permit issued by the Administration authorized the reexport of a controlled substance from the first country to more than one second country, a report for each individual reexport is required. These reports must include the following information: Name of second country; actual quantity of controlled substance shipped; and the date shipped from the first country, the actual port from which the controlled substances were shipped from the first country. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reexports among members of the European Economic Area (on DEA Form 161R-EEA).</I> The Administration may authorize any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or any narcotic drug listed in Schedule III or IV, to be exported from the United States to a country of the European Economic Area for subsequent export from that country to another country of the European Economic Area, if the following conditions and the conditions of paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) and (6) of this section are met, in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)):
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The controlled substance will not be exported from the second country, except that the controlled substance may be exported from a second country that is a member of the European Economic Area to another country that is a member of the European Economic Area, provided that the first country is also a member of the European Economic Area; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Subsequent to any reexportation described in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, a controlled substance may continue to be exported from any country that is a member of the European Economic Area to any other such country, if—
</P>
<P>(A) The conditions applicable with respect to the first country under paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) and (6) of this section and paragraph (g)(2) are met with respect to each subsequent country from which the controlled substance is exported pursuant to this paragraph (g); and
</P>
<P>(B) The conditions applicable with respect to the second country under paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) and (6) of this section and paragraph (g)(2) of this section are met with respect to each subsequent country to which the controlled substance is exported pursuant to this paragraph (g).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Return information for reexports among members of the European Economic Area</I>—(i) <I>Return information for export from the United States, for reexport among members of the European Economic Area.</I> Exporters must comply with the return reporting requirements of paragraph (f)(7)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reexports among members of the European Economic Area.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is exported from the first country to the second country, and within 30 calendar days of each subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area, if any, the U.S. exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the export. These reports must include the name of country to which the controlled substance was reexported, <I>i.e.,</I> another member of the European Economic Area; the actual quantity of controlled substance shipped; the date shipped from the first country, the name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and business of the consignee; and the name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and business of the exporter. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(h) Where a person is seeking to export a controlled substance for reexport outside of the European Economic Area in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, the requirements of paragraphs (h)(1) through (7) of this section shall apply in addition to (and not in lieu of) the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. Where a person is seeking to export a controlled substance for reexport among members of the European Economic Area in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, the requirements of paragraph (h)(4) of this section shall apply in addition to (and not in lieu of) the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Bulk substances will not be reexported in the same form as exported from the United States, <I>i.e.,</I> the material must undergo further manufacturing process. This further manufactured material may only be reexported to a second country.
</P>
<P>(2) Finished dosage units, if reexported, must be in a commercial package, properly sealed and labeled for legitimate medical use in the second country.
</P>
<P>(3) Any proposed reexportation must be made known to the Administration at the time the initial DEA Form 161R is submitted. In addition, the following information must also be provided where indicated on the form:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the drug or preparation will be reexported in bulk or finished dosage units;
</P>
<P>(ii) The product name, dosage strength, commercial package size, and quantity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of consignee, complete address, and expected shipment date, as well as the name and address of the ultimate consignee in the second country.
</P>
<P>(4) The application must contain an affidavit that the consignee in the second country, and any country of subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area, is authorized under the laws and regulations of the second and/or subsequent country to receive the controlled substances. The affidavit must also contain the following statements, in addition to the statements required under paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) That the packages are labeled in conformance with the obligations of the United States under the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, and any amendments to such treaties in effect;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the controlled substances are to be applied exclusively to medical or scientific uses within the second country, or country of subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area;
</P>
<P>(iii) That the controlled substances will not be further reexported from the second country except as provided by paragraph (f) of section 1003 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)); and
</P>
<P>(iv) That there is an actual need for the controlled substances for medical or scientific uses within the second country, or country of subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area.
</P>
<P>(5) If the applicant proposes that the shipment of controlled substances will be separated into parts after it arrives in the first country and then reexported to more than one second country, the applicant must so indicate on the DEA Form 161R and provide all the information required in this section for each second country.
</P>
<P>(6) Except in the case of reexports among countries of the European Economic Area in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)), the controlled substance will be reexported from the first country to the second country (or second countries) no later than 180 calendar days after the controlled substance was released by a customs officer from the United States.
</P>
<P>(7) Shipments that have been exported from the United States and are refused by the consignee in either the first or second country, or subsequent member of the European Economic Area, or are otherwise unacceptable or undeliverable, may be returned to the registered exporter in the United States upon authorization of the Administration. In these circumstances, the exporter in the United States must submit a written request for the return of the controlled substances to the United States with a brief summary of the facts that warrant the return, along with a completed DEA Form 357 through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The Administration will evaluate the request after considering all the facts as well as the exporter's registration status with the Administration. If the exporter provides sufficient justification, the Administration may issue an import permit for the return of these drugs, and the exporter may then obtain an export permit from the country of original importation. The substance may not be returned to the United States until after a permit has been issued by the Administration.
</P>
<P>(i) In considering whether to grant an application for a permit under paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section, the Administration shall consider whether the applicant has previously obtained such a permit and, if so, whether the applicant complied fully with the requirements of this section with respect to that previous permit.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Denied release at the port of export.</I> In the event that a shipment of controlled substances has been denied release by a customs officer at the port export from the United States for any reason, the exporter who attempted to have the shipment released must, within 5 business days of the denial, report to the Administration that the shipment was denied release and the reason for denial. Such report must be transmitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. This report must include the following information: The quantity of the controlled substance denied release; the date on which release was denied; the basis for the denied release, the port from which the denial was issued, and any other information as the Administration may from time to time specify. Upon the exporter's report of a denied release, DEA will assign the report a transaction identification number and the export permit will be void and of no effect. No shipment of controlled substances denied release for any reason will be allowed to be released from the United States unless the exporter submits a new DEA Form 161, 161R, or 161R-EEA, as appropriate, and the Administration issues a new export permit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97029, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.23   Issuance of export permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may authorize exportation of any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II or any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV if he finds that such exportation is permitted by subsections 1003(a), (b), (c), (d), or (f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(a), (b), (c), (d), or (f).
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator may require that such non-narcotic controlled substances in Schedule III as shall be designated by regulation in § 1312.30 of this part be exported only pursuant to the issuance of an export permit. The Administrator may authorize the exportation of such substances if he finds that such exportation is permitted by section 1003(e) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(e)). 
</P>
<P>(c) If a non-narcotic substance listed in Schedule IV or V is also listed in Schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, it shall be exported only pursuant to the issuance of an export permit. The Administrator may authorize the exportation of such substances if he finds that such exportation is permitted by section 1003(e) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(e)). 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may require an applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted. The failure of the applicant to provide such documents or statements within a reasonable time after being requested to do so shall be deemed to be a waiver by the applicant of an opportunity to present such documents or facts for consideration by the Administrator in granting or denying the application. 
</P>
<P>(e) If an exportation is approved, the Administrator shall issue an export permit bearing his or her signature or that of his or her delegate. Each permit will be assigned a permit number that is a unique, randomly generated identifier. A permit shall not be altered or changed by any person after being signed. Any change or alteration upon the face of any permit after it has been signed renders it void and of no effect. Permits are not transferable. The Administrator or his/her delegate shall date and certify on each permit that the exporter named therein is thereby permitted as a registrant under the Act, to export, through the port of export named, one shipment of not to exceed the specified quantity of the named controlled substances, shipment to be made before a specified date. Only one shipment may be made on a single export permit. A single export permit shall authorize a quantity of goods to be exported at one place, at one time, for delivery to one consignee, on a single conveyance, at one place, on one bill of lading, air waybill, or commercial loading document; a single permit shall not authorize a quantity of goods to be exported if the goods are divided onto two or more conveyances. Each export permit shall be predicated upon, <I>inter alia,</I> an import certificate or other documentary evidence issued by a foreign competent national authority.
</P>
<P>(f) No export permit shall be issued for the exportation, or reexportation, of any controlled substance to any country when the Administration has information to show that the estimates or assessments submitted with respect to that country for the current period, under the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, or the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, have been, or, considering the quantity proposed to be imported, will be exceeded. If it shall appear through subsequent advice received from the International Narcotics Control Board of the United Nations that the estimates or assessments of the country of destination have been adjusted to permit further importation of the controlled substance, an export permit may then be issued if otherwise permissible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 23625, Dec. 11, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 52 FR 17290, May 7, 1987; 72 FR 72929, Dec. 26, 2007; 81 FR 97032, Dec. 30, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.24   Distribution of export permit.</HEAD>
<P>The Administration shall transmit the export permit to the competent national authority of the importing country and shall make available to the exporter an official record of the export permit through secure electronic means. The exporter, or their agent, must submit an official record of the export permit and/or required data concerning the export transaction to a customs officer at the port of export in compliance with all export control requirements of agencies with export control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. The exporter must maintain an official record of the export permit (available from the secure network application on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter as the record of authority for the exportation and shall transmit an official record of the export permit to the foreign importer. The exporter must ensure that an official record of the permit accompanies the shipment to its final destination. No shipment of controlled substances denied release for any reason shall be allowed to be released from the United States without subsequent authorization from the Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97032, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.25   Amendment, cancellation, expiration of export permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Exporters may only request that an export permit or application for an export permit be amended in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section. Requests for an amendment must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section exporters must submit all requests for an amendment at least one full business day in advance of the date of release from the port of export. Exporters must specifically request that an amendment be made; supplementary information submitted by an exporter through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically trigger the amendment process. While the request for an amendment is being reviewed by the Administration, the original permit will be temporarily stayed and may not be used to authorize release of a shipment of controlled substances. If the exporter's request for an amendment to an issued permit is granted by the Administration, the Administration will immediately cancel the original permit and re-issue the permit, as amended, with a revised permit number. The DEA and exporter will distribute the amended permit in accordance with § 1312.24. If a request for an amendment is denied by the Administration, the temporary stay will be lifted; once lifted, the originally issued permit may immediately be used to authorize release of a shipment in accordance with the terms of the permit.
</P>
<P>(1) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change the National Drug Control number, description of the packaging, or trade name of the product, so long as the description is for the same basic class of controlled substance as in the original permit.
</P>
<P>(2) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change the proposed port of export, the anticipated date of release by a customs officer, or the method of transport.
</P>
<P>(3) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change the justification provided as to why an export shipment is needed to meet the legitimate scientific or medical needs of the country of import.
</P>
<P>(4) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change any registrant notes.
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to departure of the shipment from the exporter's registered location, an exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to increase the total base weight of a controlled substance. However, the total base weight or the strength of the product (if listed) of a controlled substance may not exceed that permitted for import as indicated on the import permit from the foreign competent national authority. Exporters are not required to amend an export permit for the sole purpose of decreasing the total base weight of a controlled substance authorized to be exported. However, the balance of any unexported authorized quantity of controlled substances on an export permit is void upon release of a shipment on the issued permit or upon expiration of the unused permit in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, whichever is sooner. Exporters must submit a request for an amendment to increase the total base weight of a controlled substance at least three business days in advance of the date of release from the port of export.
</P>
<P>(6) An exporter may request that an export permit be amended to remove a controlled substance from the permit. However, an exporter may not amend an export permit to add or replace a controlled substance to the item(s) to be exported. Exporters who desire to export a different controlled substance than that contained on their issued export permit or permit application must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.22.
</P>
<P>(7) An exporter may not amend the exporter's name (as it appears on their DEA certificate of registration), the name of the foreign importer(s), or the foreign permit information as provided in the DEA Form 161, 161R, or 161R-EEA. Exporters who need to make any changes to any of these fields must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.22.
</P>
<P>(b) An export permit will be void and of no effect after the date specified therein, which date must conform to the expiration date specified in the supporting import certificate or other documentary evidence upon which the export permit is founded, but in no event will the date be more than 180 calendar days after the date the permit is issued.
</P>
<P>(c) An export permit may be canceled after being issued, at the request of the exporter submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, provided that no shipment has been made thereunder. Nothing in this part will affect the right, hereby reserved by the Administration, to cancel an export permit at any time for proper cause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97032, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.26   Records required of exporter.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to any other records required by this chapter, the exporter must keep a record of any serial numbers that might appear on packages of narcotic drugs in quantities of one ounce or more in such a manner as will identify the foreign consignee, along with an official record of the export permit, in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97033, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.27   Export/reexport declaration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person registered or authorized to export and seeking to export any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, which is not subject to the requirement of an export permit pursuant to § 1312.23(b) or (c), or any person registered or authorized to export and seeking to export any controlled substance in Schedule V, must file a controlled substances export declaration (DEA Form 236) with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not less than 15 calendar days prior to the anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of export, and distribute an official record of the declaration as hereinafter directed in § 1312.28. The declaration must be signed and dated by the exporter and must contain the address of the registered location from which the substances will be shipped for exportation. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will issue a completed declaration a transaction identification number. The export declaration is not deemed filed, and therefore not valid, until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number. The exporter may only proceed with the export transaction once the transaction identification number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) DEA Form 236 must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.), and registration number, if any, of the exporter; and the name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.), and registration number of the export broker, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of each controlled substance to be exported including the drug name, dosage form, National Drug Code (NDC) number, Administration Controlled Substance Code Number as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, the number and size of the packages or containers, the name and quantity of the controlled substance contained in any finished dosage units, and the quantity of any controlled substance (expressed in anhydrous acid, base, or alkaloid) given in kilograms or parts thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) The anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of export, the port of export, the foreign port and country of entry, the carriers and shippers involved, method of shipment, the name of the vessel if applicable, and the name, address, and registration number, if any, of any forwarding agent utilized.
</P>
<P>(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the consignee in the country of destination, and any registration or license number if the consignee is required to have such numbers either by the country of destination or under United States law. In addition, documentation must be provided to show that:
</P>
<P>(A) The consignee is authorized under the laws and regulations of the country of destination to receive the controlled substances; and
</P>
<P>(B) The substance is being imported for consumption within the importing country to satisfy medical, scientific or other legitimate purposes.
</P>
<P>(v) The reexport of non-narcotic controlled substances in Schedules III and IV, and controlled substances in Schedule V is not permitted under the authority of 21 U.S.C. 953(e), except as provided below and in paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Bulk substances will not be reexported in the same form as exported from the United States, <I>i.e.,</I> the material must undergo further manufacturing process. This further manufactured material may only be reexported to a country of ultimate consumption.
</P>
<P>(B) Finished dosage units, if reexported, will be in a commercial package, properly sealed and labeled for legitimate medical use in the country of destination.
</P>
<P>(C) Any reexportation be made known to DEA at the time the initial DEA Form 236, Controlled Substances Import/Export Declaration is completed, by checking the box marked “other” on the certification. The following information will be furnished in the remarks section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Indicate “for reexport”.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Indicate if reexport is bulk or finished dosage units.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Indicate product name, dosage strength, commercial package size, and quantity.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Indicate name of consignee, complete address, and expected shipment date, as well as, the name and address of the ultimate consignee in the country to where the substances will be reexported.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A statement that the consignee in the country of ultimate destination is authorized under the laws and regulations of the country of ultimate destination to receive the controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(D) Shipments that have been exported from the United States and are refused by the consignee in either the first or second country, or subsequent member of the European Economic Area, or are otherwise unacceptable or undeliverable, may be returned to the registered exporter in the United States upon authorization of the Administration. In this circumstance, the exporter in the United States must file a written request for reexport, along with a completed DEA Form 236, with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. A brief summary of the facts that warrant the return of the substance to the United States along with an authorization from the country of export must be included with the request. DEA will evaluate the request after considering all the facts as well as the exporter's registration status with DEA. The substance may be returned to the United States only after affirmative authorization is issued in writing by DEA.
</P>
<P>(vi) The reexport of non-narcotic controlled substances in Schedules III and IV, and controlled substances in Schedule V is permitted among members of the European Economic Area only as provided below:
</P>
<P>(A) The controlled substance will not be exported from the second country or a subsequent country, except that the controlled substance may be exported from a second country or a subsequent country that is a member of the European Economic Area to another country that is a member of the European Economic Area, provided that the first country is also a member of the European Economic Area; each country is a party to the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, as amended; and each country has instituted and maintains, in conformity with such Convention, a system of controls of imports of controlled substances which the Attorney General deems adequate.
</P>
<P>(B) Each shipment of finished dosage units, if reexported, must be in a commercial package, properly sealed and labeled for legitimate medical use in the country of destination.
</P>
<P>(C) Any reexportation must be made known to DEA at the time the initial DEA Form 236, Controlled Substances Import/Export Declaration is completed, by checking the box marked “other” on the certification. In addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, the following information will be furnished in the remarks section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Indicate “for reexport among members of the European Economic Area”.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Indicate if reexport is bulk or finished dosage units.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Indicate product name, dosage strength, commercial package size, and quantity.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Indicate the name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es) and business of the consignee in the first country).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A statement that the consignee in the second country, and any subsequent consignee within the European Economic Area, is authorized under the laws and regulations of the second and/or subsequent country to receive the controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to reexports among members of the European Economic Area, the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall apply only with respect to the export from the United States to the first country and not to any subsequent export from that country to another country of the European Economic Area.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the time limitations included in paragraph (a) of this section, a registrant may obtain a special waiver of these time limitations in emergency or unusual instances; provided that a specific confirmation is received from the Administrator or his delegate advising the registrant to proceed pursuant to the special waiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Return information</I>—(1) <I>Return information for exports.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the exporter, whichever is sooner, the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the controlled substance left the registered location; the date on which the controlled substance was released by a customs officer; the actual quantity of the controlled substance that left the registered location; and the actual quantity of the controlled substance released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual port of export. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Return information for reexports outside of the European Economic Area</I>—(i) <I>Return information for export from the United States, for reexport.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the controlled substance left the registered location; the date on which the controlled substance was released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual quantity of controlled substance released by a customs officer at the port of export; and the actual port of export. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Return information for export from a first country that is or is not a member of the European Economic Area to a country outside of the European Economic Area; return information for export from a first country that is not a member of the European Economic Area to a member of the European Economic Area.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is exported from the first country to the second country the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the export from the first country. If the permit issued by the Administration authorized the reexport of a controlled substance from the first country to more than one second country, a report for each individual reexport is required. These reports must include the following information: Name of second country; actual quantity of controlled substance shipped; the date shipped from the first country; and the actual port from which the controlled substances were shipped from the first country. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reexports among members of the European Economic Area</I>—(i) <I>Return information for exports from the United States, for reexport among members of the European Economic Area.</I> Exporters must comply with the return reporting requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reexports among members of the European Economic Area.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is exported from the first country to the second country, and within 30 calendar days of each subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area, if any, the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the export. These reports must include the name of country to which the controlled substance was reexported to another member of the European Economic Area; the actual quantity of controlled substance shipped; the date shipped from the first country, the name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and business of the consignee; and the name/business name, address/business address, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and business of the exporter. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(e) An exporter may amend an export declaration in the same circumstances in which an exporter may request amendment to an export permit, as set forth in § 1312.25(a)(1) through (7). Amendments to declarations must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in § 1312.25(a)(5) exporters must submit all amendments at least one full business day in advance of the date of release by a customs officer. Exporters must specifically note that an amendment is being made; supplementary information submitted by an exporter through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically be considered an amendment. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. The amendment will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number. The DEA and the exporter will distribute the amended declaration in accordance with § 1312.28. A filed amendment will not change the date that the declaration becomes void and of no effect in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) An export declaration may be canceled after being filed with the Administration, at the request of the exporter, provided no shipment has been made thereunder. Export declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Denied release at the port of export.</I> In the event that a shipment of controlled substances has been denied release by a customs officer at the port of export for any reason, the exporter who attempted to have the shipment released must, within 5 business days of the denial, report to the Administration that the shipment was denied release and the reason for denial. Such report must be transmitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. This report must include the following information: The quantity of the controlled substance denied release; the date on which release was denied; and the basis for the denied release. Upon the exporter's report of a denied release, DEA will assign the report a transaction identification number and the export declaration will be void and of no effect. No shipment of controlled substances denied release for any reason will be allowed to be released unless the exporter files a new declaration and the Administration issues a new transaction identification number.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7815, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 45 FR 74715, Nov. 12, 1980; 51 FR 5319, Feb. 13, 1986; 52 FR 17290, May 7, 1987; 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10683, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97033, Dec. 30, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.28" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.28   Distribution of export declaration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The exporter must ensure that an official record of the export declaration (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) accompanies the shipment of controlled substances to its destination.
</P>
<P>(b) The exporter, or their agent, must submit an official record of the export declaration and/or required data concerning the export transaction to a customs officer at the port of export in compliance with all export control requirements of agencies with export control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The exporter must maintain an official record of the export declaration and return information (both available from the Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) required pursuant to § 1312.27(d) as his or her record of authority for the exportation, in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97035, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.29" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.29   Domestic release prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>An exporter or a forwarding agent acting for an exporter must either deliver the controlled substances to the port or border, or deliver the controlled substances to a bonded carrier approved by the consignor for delivery to the port or border, and may not, under any other circumstances, release a shipment of controlled substances to anyone, including the foreign consignee or his agent, within the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.30" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.46.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.30   Schedule III, IV, and V non-narcotic controlled substances requiring an import and export permit.</HEAD>
<P>The following Schedule III, IV, and V non-narcotic controlled substances have been specifically designated by the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration as requiring import and export permits pursuant to sections 201(d)(1), 1002(b)(2), and 1003(e)(3) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(d)(1), 952(b)(2), and 953(e)(3)):
</P>
<P>(a) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product.
</P>
<P>(b) Marijuana, as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(16), in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or subject to a state medical marijuana license.
</P>
<P>(c) Marijuana extract, as defined in 21 CFR 1308.11(d)(58), in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or subject to a state medical marijuana license.
</P>
<P>(d) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or subject to a state medical marijuana license.
</P>
<P>(1) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols means those delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols, except as in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, that are naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant).
</P>
<P>(2) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols do not include any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that falls within the definition of hemp set forth in 7 U.S.C. 1639<I>o.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Naturally derived delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols do not include any delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinols contained in substances excluded from the definition of marijuana as set forth in 21 U.S.C. 802(16)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 17291, May 7, 1987, as amended at 64 FR 35930, July 2, 1999; 83 FR 48953, Sept. 28, 2018; 85 FR 51645, Aug. 21, 2020; 91 FR 22723, Apr. 28, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="47" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Transshipment and In-Transit Shipment of Controlled Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.47.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.31   Schedule I: Application for prior written approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A controlled substance listed in schedule I may be imported into the United States for transshipment, or may be transferred or transshipped within the United States for immediate exportation, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The controlled substance is necessary for scientific, medical, or other legitimate purposes in the country of destination, and 
</P>
<P>(2) A transshipment permit has been issued by the Administrator. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a transshipment permit must be submitted to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, at least 30 calendar days, or in the case of an emergency as soon as is practicable, prior to the expected date of arrival at the first port in the United States. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A separate permit is required for each shipment of controlled substance to be imported, transferred, or transshipped. Each application must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of execution; 
</P>
<P>(2) The identification and description of the controlled substance; 
</P>
<P>(3) The net quantity thereof; 
</P>
<P>(4) The number and size of the controlled substance containers; 
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and business of the foreign exporter; 
</P>
<P>(6) The foreign port of exportation; 
</P>
<P>(7) The approximate date of exportation; 
</P>
<P>(8) The identification of the exporting carrier; 
</P>
<P>(9) The name, address and business of the importer, transferor, or transshipper; 
</P>
<P>(10) The registration number, if any, of the importer, transferor or transshipper; 
</P>
<P>(11) The U.S. port of entry; 
</P>
<P>(12) The approximate date of entry; 
</P>
<P>(13) The name, address and business of the consignee at the foreign port of entry; 
</P>
<P>(14) The shipping route from the U.S. port of exportation to the foreign port of entry;
</P>
<P>(15) The approximate date of receipt by the consignee at the foreign port of entry; and 
</P>
<P>(16) The signature of the importer, transferor or transshipper, or his agent accompanied by the agent's title. 
</P>
<P>(c) An application shall be accompanied by an export license, permit, or a certified copy of the export license, permit, or other authorization, issued by a competent authority of the country of origin (or other documentary evidence deemed adequate by the Administrator). 
</P>
<P>(d) An application shall be accompanied by an import license or permit or a certified copy of such license or permit issued by a competent authority of the country of destination (or other documentary evidence deemed adequate by the Administrator), indicating that the controlled substance: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is to be applied exclusively to scientific, medical or other legitimate uses within the country of destination; 
</P>
<P>(2) Will not be exported from such country; 
</P>
<P>(3) Is needed therein because there is an actual shortage thereof and a demand therefor for scientific, medical or other legitimate uses within such country; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the import license or permit, or the certified copy of such, is not written in English or bilingual with another language and English, the application must include a certified translation of the permit or license. For purposes of this requirement, certified translation means that the translator has signed the translation legally attesting the accuracy of the translation.
</P>
<P>(e) Verification by an American consular officer of the signatures on a foreign import license or permit shall be required, if such license or permit does not bear the seal of the authority signing them. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator may require an applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted. The failure of the applicant to provide such documents or statements within a reasonable time after being requested to do so shall be deemed to be a waiver by the applicant of an opportunity to present such documents or facts for consideration by the Administrator in granting or denying the application. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Administrator shall, within 21 days from the date of receipt of the application, either grant or deny the application. The applicant shall be accorded an opportunity to amend the application, with the Administrator either granting or denying the amended application within 7 days of its receipt. If the Administrator does not grant or deny the application within 21 days of its receipt, or in the case of an amended application, within 7 days of its receipt, the application shall be deemed approved and the applicant may proceed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7815, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further amended at 45 FR 74715, Nov. 12, 1980; 51 FR 5319, Feb. 13, 1986; 53 FR 48244, Nov. 30, 1988; 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10683, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97035, Dec. 30, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.47.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.32   Schedules II, III, IV: Advance notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A controlled substance listed in Schedules II, III, or IV may be imported into the United States for transshipment, or may be transferred or transshipped within the United States for immediate exportation, provided that written notice is submitted to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, at least 15 calendar days prior to the expected date of date of arrival at the first port in the United States. See the Table of DEA mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing addresses.
</P>
<P>(b) A separate advance notice is required for each shipment of controlled substance to be imported, transferred, or transshipped. Each advance notice must contain those items required by § 1312.31(b) and (c). If the export license, permit, or other authorization, issued by a competent national authority of the country of origin, is not written in English or bilingual with another language and English, the notice must be accompanied by a certified translation of the export license, permit, or other authorization. For purposes of this requirement, certified translation means that the translator has signed the translation legally attesting the accuracy of the translation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97036, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.41   Hearings generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing regarding the denial of an application for an import, export or transshipment permit, the procedures for such hearing shall be governed generally by the adjudication procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by sections 1002 and 1003 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952 and 953), by §§ 1312.42-1312.47, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Act set forth in §§ 1316.41-1316.67 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 23625, Dec. 11, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.42   Purpose of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If requested by a person applying for an import, export, or transshipment permit, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding the issues involved in the issuance or denial of such permit to such person. 
</P>
<P>(b) Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 23625, Dec. 11, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.43" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.43   Waiver or modification of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator of the presiding officer (with respect to matters pending before him) may modify or waive any rule in this part by notice in advance of the hearing, if he determines that no party in the hearing will be unduly prejudiced and the ends of justice will thereby be served. Such notice of modification or waiver shall be made a part of the record of the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 23625, Dec. 11, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.44" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.44   Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any applicant entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1312.42 and who desires a hearing on the denial of his application for an import, export, or transshipment permit shall, within 30 days after the date of receipt of the denial of his application, file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any applicant entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1312.42 may, within the period permitted for filing a request for a hearing, file with the Administrator a waiver of an opportunity for a hearing, together with a written statement regarding his position on the matters of fact and law involved in such hearing. Such statement, if admissible, shall be made a part of the record and shall be considered in light of the lack of opportunity for cross-examination in determining the weight to be attached to matters of fact asserted therein. 
</P>
<P>(c) If any applicant entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1312.42 fails to appear at the hearing, he shall be deemed to have waived his opportunity for the hearing unless he shows good cause for such failure. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the applicant waives or is deemed to have waived this opportunity for the hearing, the Administrator may cancel the hearing, if scheduled, and issue his final order pursuant to § 1312.47 without a hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 15923, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.45   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>At any hearing on the denial of an application for an import, export, or transshipment permit, the Administrator shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such permit pursuant to sections 1002, 1003, and 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952, 953, and 954) are not satisfied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 15924, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.46" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.46   Time and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any applicant for an import, export, or transshipment permit requests a hearing on the issuance or denial of his application, the Administrator shall hold such hearing. Notice of the hearing shall be given to the applicant of the time and place at least 30 days prior to the hearing, unless the applicant waives such notice and requests the hearing be held at an earlier time, in which case the Administrator shall fix a date for such hearing as early as reasonably possible. 
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing will commence at the place and time designated in the notice given pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement thereof by the presiding officer at the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 15924, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1312.47" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.13.0.48.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1312.47   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue his order on the issuance or denial of the application for and import, export, or transshipment permit. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The Administrator shall serve one copy of his order upon the applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 15924, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1313" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1313—IMPORTATION AND EXPORTATION OF LIST I AND LIST II CHEMICALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 802, 830, 871(b), 971.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1313.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.01   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures governing the importation, exportation, transshipment and in-transit shipment of listed chemicals pursuant to section 1018 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 971) are governed generally by that section and specifically by the sections of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 60 FR 32465, June 22, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.03   Forms applicable to this part.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Access/
<br/>submission
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 486, Import/Export Declaration for List I and List II Chemicals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEA Form 486A Import Declaration for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine (including drug products containing these chemicals)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electronic.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97036, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.05   Requirements for an established business relationship.</HEAD>
<P>To document that an importer or exporter has an established business relationship with a customer, the importer or exporter must provide the Administrator with the following information in accordance with the waiver of 15-day advance notice requirements of § 1313.15 or § 1313.24:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and street address of the chemical importer or exporter and of each regular customer;
</P>
<P>(b) The telephone number, contact person, and where available, the facsimile number for the chemical importer or exporter and for each regular customer;
</P>
<P>(c) The nature of the regular customer's business (<I>i.e.</I>, importer, exporter, distributor, manufacturer, etc.), and if known, the use to which the listed chemical or chemicals will be applied;
</P>
<P>(d) The duration of the business relationship;
</P>
<P>(e) The frequency and number of transactions occurring during the preceding 12-month period;
</P>
<P>(f) The amounts and the listed chemical or chemicals involved in regulated transactions between the chemical importer or exporter and regular customer;
</P>
<P>(g) The method of delivery (direct shipment or through a broker or forwarding agent); and
</P>
<P>(h) Other information that the chemical importer or exporter considers relevant for determining whether a customer is a regular customer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 17407, Apr. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.08" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.08   Requirements for establishing a record as an importer.</HEAD>
<P>To establish a record as an importer, the regulated person must provide the Administrator with the following information in accordance with the waiver of the 15-day advance notice requirements of § 1313.15:
</P>
<P>(a) The name, DEA registration number (where applicable), street address, telephone number, and, where available, the facsimile number of the regulated person and of each foreign supplier; and
</P>
<P>(b) The frequency and number of transactions occurring during the preceding 12 month period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 17407, Apr. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="49" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Importation of Listed Chemicals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.12   Notification prior to import.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person who seeks to import a listed chemical that meets or exceeds the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, must notify the Administration of the intended import by filing an import declaration (on DEA Form 486/486A) not later than 15 calendar days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. Regulated persons who seek to import a listed chemical below the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) are not required to file an import declaration in advance of the release by a customs officer.
</P>
<P>(b) A complete and accurate declaration (DEA Form 486/486A) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not later than 15 calendar days prior to the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. The declaration must be signed and dated by the importer and must contain the address of the final destination for the shipment, which for List I chemicals must be a registered location of the importer. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The 15 calendar days shall begin on the date that the regulated person submits a completed declaration, without regard to the date that the Administration assigns a transaction identification number. Listed chemicals meeting or exceeding the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or for which no threshold has been established may not be imported until a transaction identification number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The 15-calendar-day advance notification requirement for listed chemical imports may be waived, in whole or in part, for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any importation that meets both of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The regulated person has satisfied the requirements for reporting to the Administration as a regular importer of the listed chemicals.
</P>
<P>(ii) The importer intends to transfer the listed chemicals to a person who is a regular customer for the chemical, as defined in § 1300.02 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A specific listed chemical, as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section, for which the Administrator determines that advance notification is not necessary for effective chemical diversion control.
</P>
<P>(d) For imports meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the declaration (DEA Form 486/486A) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application at least three business days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. The declaration must be signed and dated by the importer and must contain the address of the final destination for the shipment, which must be a registered location of the importer (for List I chemicals). Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The importer may proceed with the import transaction only once the transaction identification number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(e) For importations where advance notification is waived pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section no DEA Form 486 is required; however, the regulated person must submit quarterly reports to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, not later than the 15th day of the month following the end of each quarter. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The report shall contain the following information regarding each individual importation:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the listed chemical;
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity and date imported;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and full business address of the supplier;
</P>
<P>(4) The foreign port of embarkation; and
</P>
<P>(5) The port of entry.
</P>
<P>(f) The 15 day advance notification requirement set forth in paragraph (a) has been waived for imports of the following listed chemicals: 
</P>
<P>(1) Acetone.
</P>
<P>(2) 2-Butanone (or Methyl Ethyl Ketone or MEK).
</P>
<P>(3) Toluene.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 51367, Oct. 11, 1994; 60 FR 32464, June 22, 1995; 66 FR 46520, Sept. 6, 2001; 67 FR 49569, July 31, 2002; 72 FR 17407, Apr. 9, 2007; 75 FR 10683, Mar. 9, 2010; 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012; 81 FR 97036, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.13   Requirements of import declaration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any List I or List II chemical listed in § 1310.02 of this chapter may be imported if that chemical is necessary for medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate uses within the United States. Chemical importations into the United States for immediate transfer/transshipment outside the United States must comply with the procedures set forth in § 1313.31 and all other applicable laws.
</P>
<P>(b) The DEA Form 486/486A must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the chemical importer; the name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the broker or forwarding agent (if any); and
</P>
<P>(2) The name and description of each listed chemical as it appears on the label or container, the name of each chemical as it is designated in § 1310.02 of this chapter, the size or weight of container, the number of containers, the net weight of each listed chemical given in kilograms or parts thereof, and the gross weight of the shipment given in kilograms or parts thereof; and
</P>
<P>(3) The date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry, the foreign port and country of export, and the port of entry; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the consignor in the foreign country of exportation; and
</P>
<P>(5) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the person or persons to whom the importer intends to transfer the listed chemical and the quantity to be transferred to each transferee.
</P>
<P>(c) Any regulated person importing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine must submit, on the import declaration (DEA Form 486A), all information known to the importer on the chain of distribution of the chemical from the manufacturer to the importer. Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine include each of the salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(d) Import declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97036, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.14" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.14   Disposition of import declaration.</HEAD>
<P>The importer, or their agent, must submit an official record of the import declaration and/or required data concerning the import transaction to a customs officer at the port of entry in compliance with all import control requirements of agencies with import control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. For List I chemicals, the final destination of the import transaction must only be the registered location of the importer (<I>i.e.,</I> drop shipments are prohibited). A regulated person must maintain an official record of the declaration (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) in accordance with part 1310 of this chapter as the record of the import. Official records of import declarations involving listed chemicals must be retained for two years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97037, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.15   Qualification of regular importers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person seeking designation as a “regular importer” shall provide, by certified mail return receipt requested, to the Administration such information as is required under § 1313.08 documenting their status as a regular importer. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each regulated person making application under paragraph (a) of this section shall be considered a “regular importer” 30 calendar days after receipt of the application by the Administration, as indicated on the return receipt, unless the regulated person is otherwise notified in writing by the Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator, may, at any time, disqualify a regulated person's status as a regular importer on the grounds that the chemical being imported may be diverted to the clandestine manufacture of a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the Administration notifies the chemical importer to the contrary, the qualification of a regular importer of any one of these three chemicals, acetone, 2-Butanone (MEK), or toluene, qualifies that importer as a regular importer of all three of these chemicals.
</P>
<P>(e) All chemical importers shall be required to file a DEA Form 486 as required by Section 1313.12.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32464, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997; 72 FR 17407, Apr. 9, 2007; 81 FR 97037, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.16" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.16   Updated notice for change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of a notice under § 1313.12(a) submitted by a regulated person, if the transferee identified in the notice is not a regular customer, the importer may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15-day period beginning on the date on which the notice is submitted to the Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) After a notice under § 1313.12(a) or (d) is submitted to the Administration, if circumstances change and the importer will not be transferring the listed chemical to the transferee identified in the notice, or will be transferring a greater quantity of the chemical than specified in the notice, the importer must update the notice to identify the most recent prospective transferee or the most recent quantity or both (as the case may be) and may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the update is filed with the Administration, or, if the import is being made by a regular importer or intended for transfer to a regular customer, three business days. The preceding sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in an update to the same extent and in the same manner as the sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in the original notice under § 1313.12(a) or (d). Amended declarations must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The amendment must be signed and dated by the importer. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. Such shipment of listed chemicals may not be imported into the United States until the transaction identification number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of a transfer of a listed chemical that is subject to a 15-day restriction, the transferee involved shall, upon the expiration of the 15-day period, be considered to qualify as a regular customer, unless the Administration otherwise notifies the importer involved in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to a transfer of a listed chemical with which a notice or update referred to in § 1313.12(a) or (d) is concerned:
</P>
<P>(1) The Administration—
</P>
<P>(i) May, in accordance with the same procedures as apply under §§ 1313.51 through 1313.57, order the suspension of the transfer of the listed chemical by the importer involved, except for a transfer to a regular customer, on the ground that the chemical may be diverted to the clandestine manufacture of a controlled substance (without regard to the form of the chemical that may be diverted, including the diversion of a finished drug product to be manufactured from bulk chemicals to be transferred), subject to the Administration ordering the suspension before the expiration of the 15-day period with respect to the importation (in any case in which such a period applies); and
</P>
<P>(ii) May, for purposes of this paragraph (d), disqualify a regular customer on that ground.
</P>
<P>(2) From and after the time when the Administration provides written notice of the order under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section (including a statement of the legal and factual basis for the order) to the importer, the importer may not carry out the transfer.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>transfer,</I> with respect to a listed chemical, includes the sale of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>transferee</I> means a person to whom an importer transfers a listed chemical.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 17407, Apr. 9, 2007, as amended at 81 FR 97037, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.17" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.49.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.17   Return declaration for imports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Return information.</I> Within 30 calendar days after actual receipt of a listed chemical at the importer's registered location or place of business if not required to be registered, the importer must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the listed chemical was released by a customs officer at the port of entry; the date on which the listed chemical arrived at the importer's registered location or place of business; the actual quantity of the listed chemical released; the actual quantity of the listed chemical that arrived at the importer's location; the date of any subsequent transfer; a description of the subsequent transfer, including the actual quantity transferred, chemical, container, and name of transferees; the actual port of entry; and any other information as the Administration may specify. A single report may include the particulars of both the importation and distribution. If the importer has not distributed all chemicals imported by the end of the initial 30 calendar day period, the importer must file supplemental reports not later than 30 calendar days from the date of any further distribution, until the distribution or other disposition of all chemicals imported under the import declaration or any amendment or other update is accounted for. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed report a transaction identification number. In determining whether the importer has complied with the requirement to file within 30 calendar days, the report shall be deemed filed on the first date on which a complete report is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) If an importation for which a DEA Form 486/486A has been filed fails to take place, the importer must report to the Administration that the importation did not occur through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denied release at the port of entry.</I> In the event that a shipment of listed chemicals has been denied release by a customs officer at the port of entry for any reason, the importer who attempted to have the shipment released, within 5 business days of the denial, report to the Administration that the shipment was denied release and the reason for denial. Such report must be transmitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. This report must include the following information: The quantity of the listed chemical denied release; the date on which release was denied; and the basis for the denied release. Upon the importer's report of a denied release, the DEA will assign the report a transaction identification number and the import declaration will be void and of no effect. No shipment of listed chemicals denied release for any reason will be allowed entry into the United States without a subsequent refiling of an import declaration. Following such refiling the importer may request release of the listed chemicals immediately after receipt of a transaction identification number without regard to the 15 day advance filing requirement in § 1313.12(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97037, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="50" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exportation of Listed Chemicals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.21   Notification prior to export.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person who seeks to export a listed chemical that meets or exceeds the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter, or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, must notify the Administration of the intended export by filing an export declaration (DEA Form 486) not later than 15 calendar days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of export. Regulated persons who seek to export a listed chemical below the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) are not required to file an export declaration in advance of the export.
</P>
<P>(b) A complete and accurate declaration (DEA Form 486) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not later than 15 calendar days prior to the date of release by a customs officer at the port of export. The declaration must be signed and dated by the exporter and must contain the address from which the listed chemicals will be shipped for exportation. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The 15 calendar days shall begin on the date that the regulated person files a completed declaration without regard to the date that the Administration assigns a transaction identification number. Exporters may not request release of a listed chemical until a transaction identification number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The 15 calendar day advance notification requirement for listed chemical exports may be waived, in whole or in part, for:
</P>
<P>(1) Any regulated person who has satisfied the requirements of § 1313.24 for reporting to the Administration an established business relationship, as defined in § 1300.02 of this chapter, with a foreign customer.
</P>
<P>(2) A specific listed chemical to a specified country, as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section, for which the Administrator determines that advance notification is not necessary for effective chemical diversion control.
</P>
<P>(d) For exports meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the declaration (DEA Form 486) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application at least three business days before the date of release by a customs officer. The declaration must be signed and dated by the exporter and must contain the address from which the listed chemicals will be shipped for exportation. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The exporter may only proceed with the export transaction once the transaction identification number has been issued.
</P>
<P>(e) For exportations where advance notification is waived pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section no DEA Form 486 is required; however, the regulated person must submit quarterly reports with the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, not later than the 15th day of the month following the end of each quarter. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Such report shall contain the following information regarding each individual exportation:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the listed chemical;
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity and date exported;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and full business address of the foreign customer;
</P>
<P>(4) The port of embarkation; and
</P>
<P>(5) The foreign port of entry.
</P>
<P>(f) The 15 day advance notification requirement set forth in paragraph (a) of this section has been waived for exports of the following listed chemicals to the following countries:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of Chemical
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Country
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) No person shall export or cause to be exported any listed chemical, knowing or having reasonable cause to believe the export is in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported or the chemical will be used to manufacture a controlled substance in violation of the Act or the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported. The Administration will publish a notice of foreign import restrictions for listed chemicals of which DEA has knowledge as provided in § 1313.25.
</P>
<P>(h) Export declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 51367, Oct. 11, 1994; 60 FR 32464, June 22, 1995; 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997; 66 FR 46520, Sept. 6, 2001; 67 FR 49569, July 31, 2002; 75 FR 10683, Mar. 9, 2010; 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012; 81 FR 97038, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.22   Export declaration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any List I or List II chemical listed in § 1310.02 of this chapter which meets or exceeds the quantitative threshold criteria established in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, may be exported if that chemical is needed for medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate uses.
</P>
<P>(b) The export declaration (DEA Form 486) must include all the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the chemical exporter; the name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the export broker, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and description of each listed chemical as it appears on the label or container, the name of each listed chemical as it is designated in § 1310.02 of this chapter, the size or weight of container, the number of containers, the net weight of each listed chemical given in kilograms or parts thereof, and the gross weight of the shipment given in kilograms or parts thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) The anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of export, the port of export, and the foreign port and country of entry; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the consignee in the country where the chemical shipment is destined; the name(s) and address(es) of any intermediate consignee(s); and a copy of the foreign permit, license or registration issued by the competent national authority of the consignee and any intermediate consignees.
</P>
<P>(c) Declared exports of listed chemicals which are refused, rejected, or otherwise deemed undeliverable by the foreign competent national authority may be returned to the U.S. chemical exporter of record. The regulated person must provide notification through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (this does not require a DEA Form 486) outlining the circumstances within a reasonable time following the return. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign the completed notice a transaction identification number. The notice will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number. Listed chemicals so returned may not be reexported until the exporter has filed a new DEA Form 486 and the Administration has issued a new transaction identification number. This provision does not apply to shipments that have cleared foreign customs, been delivered, and accepted by the foreign consignee. Returns to third parties in the United States will be regarded as imports.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97038, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.23   Disposition of export declaration.</HEAD>
<P>The exporter, or their agent, must submit an official record of the export declaration and/or required data concerning the export transaction to a customs officer at the port of export in compliance with all export control requirements of agencies with export control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. An official record of the declaration (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) must be maintained by the chemical exporter as the official record of the export in accordance with part 1310 of this chapter. Export declarations involving a listed chemical must be retained for two years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97038, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.24   Waiver of 15-day advance notice for chemical exporters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person shall provide to the Administration the identity and information listed in the definition of established business relationship in § 1300.02 of this chapter for an established business relationship with a foreign customer not later than August 31, 1989.
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than October 31, 1989, each regular customer so identified in notifications made under § 1313.24(a) shall be a regular customer for purposes of waiving the 15-day advance notice requirement, unless the regulated person is otherwise notified in writing by the Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) Each foreign customer identified on an initial DEA Form 486 submitted after the effective date of the implementation of part 1313 shall, after the expiration of the 15-day period, qualify as a regular customer, unless the Administration otherwise notifies the regulated person in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the Administration notifies the chemical exporter to the contrary, the qualification of a regular customer for any one of these three chemicals, acetone, 2-Butanone (MEK), or toluene, qualifies that customer as a regular customer for all three of these chemicals.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may notify any chemical exporter that a regular customer has been disqualified or that a new customer for whom a notification has been submitted is not to be accorded the status of a regular customer. In the event of a disqualification of an established regular customer, the chemical exporter will be notified in writing of the reasons for such action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 55077, Oct. 24, 1991; 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10684, Mar. 9, 2010; 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.25   Foreign import restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Any export from the United States in violation of the law of the country to which the chemical is exported is subject to the penalties of Title 21 United States Code 960(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.26   Updated notice for change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of a notice under § 1313.21(a) submitted by a regulated person, if the transferee identified in the notice, <I>i.e.</I>, the foreign importer, is not a regular customer, the regulated person may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15-day period beginning on the date on which the notice is submitted to the Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) After a notice under § 1313.21(a) is submitted to the Administration, if circumstances change and the exporter will not be transferring the listed chemical to the transferee identified in the notice, or will be transferring a greater quantity of the chemical than specified in the notice, the exporter must update the notice to identify the most recent prospective transferee or the most recent quantity or both (as the case may be). The exporter may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the update is filed with the Administration. Except, if the listed chemical is intended for transfer to a regular customer, the exporter may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of three business days. The preceding sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in an update to the same extent and in the same manner as the sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in the original notice under paragraph (a) of this section. Amended declarations must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The amendment must be signed and dated by the exporter. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. The amendment will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of a transfer of a listed chemical that is subject to a 15-day restriction, the transferee involved shall, upon the expiration of the 15-day period, be considered to qualify as a regular customer, unless the Administration otherwise notifies the exporter involved in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to a transfer of a listed chemical with which a notice or update referred to in § 1313.21(a) is concerned:
</P>
<P>(1) The Administration—
</P>
<P>(i) May, in accordance with the same procedures as apply under §§ 1313.51 through 1313.57, order the suspension of the transfer of the listed chemical by the exporter involved, except for a transfer to a regular customer, on the ground that the chemical may be diverted to the clandestine manufacture of a controlled substance (without regard to the form of the chemical that may be diverted, including the diversion of a finished drug product to be manufactured from bulk chemicals to be transferred), subject to the Administration ordering the suspension before the expiration of the 15-day period with respect to the exportation (in any case in which such a period applies); and
</P>
<P>(ii) May, for purposes of this paragraph (d), disqualify a regular customer on that ground.
</P>
<P>(2) From and after the time when the Administration provides written notice of the order under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section (including a statement of the legal and factual basis for the order) to the exporter, the exporter may not carry out the transfer.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>transfer,</I> with respect to a listed chemical, includes the sale of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>transferee</I> means a person to whom an exporter transfers a listed chemical.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 17408, Apr. 9, 2007, as amended at 81 FR 97039, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.50.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.27   Return declaration for exports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Return information.</I> Within 30 calendar days after a listed chemical is released by a customs officer at the port of export, the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the listed chemical left the registered location or place of business; the date on which the listed chemical was released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual quantity of listed chemical that left the registered location or place of business; the actual quantity of the listed chemical released by a customs officer at the port of export; chemical; container; name of transferees; and any other information as the Administration may specify. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number. In determining whether the exporter has complied with the requirement to file within 30 calendar days, the report shall be deemed filed on the first date on which a complete report is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) If an exportation for which a DEA Form 486 has been filed fails to take place, the exporter must report to the Administration that the exportation did not occur through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denied release at the port of export.</I> In the event that a shipment of listed chemicals has been denied release by a customs officer at the port of export for any reason, the exporter who attempted to have the shipment released must, within 5 business days of the denial, report to the Administration that the shipment was denied release and the reason for denial. Such report must be transmitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. This report must include the following information: The quantity of the listed chemicals denied release; the date on which release was denied; and the basis for the denied release. Upon the exporter's report of a denied release, DEA will assign the report a transaction identification number and the export declaration will be void and of no effect. No shipment of listed chemicals denied release for any reason will be allowed to be released from the United States without a subsequent refiling of a complete and accurate export declaration. Following such refiling, the exporter may request the release of the listed chemicals immediately after receipt of a transaction identification number without regard to the 15 day advance filing required by § 1313.21(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97039, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="51" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Transshipments, In-Transit Shipments and International Transactions Involving Listed Chemicals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.31   Advance notice of importation for transshipment or transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A quantity of a chemical listed in § 1310.02 of this chapter that meets or exceeds the threshold reporting requirements found in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter may be imported into the United States for transshipment, or may be transferred or transshipped within the United States for immediate exportation, provided that advance notice is given to the Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) Advance notification must be provided to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, not later than 15 calendar days prior to the proposed date the listed chemical will transship or transfer through the United States. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A separate notification is required for each shipment of listed chemicals to be transferred or transshipped. The written notification (not a DEA Form 486) must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The date the notice was executed;
</P>
<P>(2) The complete name and description of the listed chemical as it appears on the label or container.
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the listed chemical as designated by § 1310.02 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The number of containers and the size or weight of the container for each listed item;
</P>
<P>(5) The net weight of each listed chemical given in kilograms or parts thereof;
</P>
<P>(6) The gross weight of the shipment given in kilograms or parts thereof;
</P>
<P>(7) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and type of business of the foreign exporter;
</P>
<P>(8) The foreign port and country of export;
</P>
<P>(9) The approximate date of exportation;
</P>
<P>(10) The complete identification of the exporting carrier;
</P>
<P>(11) The name, address, business, telephone number, and, where available, the facsimile number of the importer, transferor, or transshipper;
</P>
<P>(12) The U.S. port of entry;
</P>
<P>(13) The approximate date of entry;
</P>
<P>(14) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) and type of business of the consignee at the foreign port or country of entry;
</P>
<P>(15) The shipping route from the U.S. port of export to the foreign port or country of entry at final destination;
</P>
<P>(16) The approximate date of receipt by the consignee at the foreign port of entry; and
</P>
<P>(17) The signature of the importer, transferor or transshipper, or his agent, accompanied by the agent's title.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless notified to the contrary prior to the expected date of delivery, the importation for transshipment or transfer is considered approved.
</P>
<P>(d) No waiver of the 15-day advance notice will be given for imports of listed chemicals in quantities meeting or exceeding threshold quantities for transshipment or transfer outside the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31665, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 49569, July 31, 2002; 75 FR 10684, Mar. 9, 2010; 77 FR 4237, Jan. 27, 2012; 81 FR 97039, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.32   Notification of international transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A broker or trader must notify the Administration prior to an international transaction involving a listed chemical which meets or exceeds the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, in which the broker or trader participates. Notification must be made not later than 15 calendar days before the transaction is to take place. In order to facilitate an international transaction involving listed chemicals and implement the purpose of the Act, regulated persons may wish to provide advance notification to the Administration as far in advance of the 15 calendar days as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) A completed DEA Form 486 must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, not later than 15 calendar days prior to the international transaction. The DEA Form 486 must be signed and dated by the broker or trader. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed notification. A notification is not deemed filed, and therefore is not valid, until the Administration assigns the notification a transaction identification number. An international transaction may not take place until after a transaction identification number has been assigned and the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the broker or trader submits a complete notification to the Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) No person shall serve as a broker or trader for an international transaction involving a listed chemical knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the transaction is in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported or the chemical will be used to manufacture a controlled substance in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported. The Administration will publish a notice of foreign import restrictions for listed chemicals of which DEA has knowledge as provided in § 1313.25.
</P>
<P>(d) After a notice under paragraph (a) of this section is submitted to the Administration, if circumstances change and the broker or trader will not be transferring the listed chemical to the transferee identified in the notice, or will be transferring a greater quantity of the chemical than specified in the notice, the broker or trader must amend the notice through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application to identify the most recent prospective transferee or the most recent quantity or both (as applicable) and may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the update is submitted to the Administration. The preceding sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in an amendment to the same extent and in the same manner as the sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in the original notice under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>transfer</I>, with respect to a listed chemical, includes the sale of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>transferee</I> means a person to whom an exporter transfers a listed chemical.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97039, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.33   Contents of an international transaction declaration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An international transaction involving a chemical listed in § 1310.02 of this chapter which meets the threshold criteria established in § 1310.04 of this chapter may be arranged by a broker or trader if the chemical is needed for medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate uses.
</P>
<P>(b) Any broker or trader who desires to arrange an international transaction, defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(42), involving a listed chemical which meets the threshold criteria set forth in § 1310.04 of this chapter must notify the Administration through the procedures outlined in § 1313.32(b).
</P>
<P>(c) The DEA Form 486 must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the chemical exporter; the name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the chemical importer;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and description of each listed chemical as it appears on the label or container, the name of each listed chemical as it is designated in § 1310.02 of this chapter, the size or weight of container, the number of containers, the net weight of each listed chemical given in kilograms or parts thereof, and the gross weight of the shipment given in kilograms or parts thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) The anticipated date of release at the foreign port of export, the anticipated foreign port and country of export, and the foreign port and country of entry; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> telephone number(s), email address(es), etc.) of the consignee in the country where the chemical shipment is destined; the name(s) and address(es) of any intermediate consignee(s).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32465, June 22, 1995, as amended at 77 FR 4238, Jan. 27, 2012; 81 FR 97040, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.34   Disposition of the international transaction declaration.</HEAD>
<P>The broker or trader must retain an official record of the declaration (DEA Form 486) (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) as the official record of the international transaction. In accordance with part 1310 of this chapter, declarations involving listed chemicals must be retained for two years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97040, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.35   Return declaration or amendment to Form 486 for international transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 calendar days after an international transaction is completed, the broker or trader must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application about the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date(s) on which the listed chemical was released by the foreign customs officer(s) at the port(s); the actual quantity of listed chemical that left the country of export; the actual quantity of the listed chemical released by a customs officer at the port of entry; chemical; container; name of transferees; and the transaction identification and any other information as the Administration may specify. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
</P>
<P>(b) If an international transaction for which a DEA Form 486 has been filed fails to take place, the broker or trader must report to the Administration that the international transaction did not occur utilizing the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application as soon as the broker or trader becomes aware of the circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97040, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.41   Suspension of shipments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may suspend any importation or exportation of a chemical listed in § 1310.02 of this chapter based on evidence that the chemical proposed to be imported or exported may be diverted to the clandestine manufacture of a controlled substance. If the Administrator so suspends, he shall provide written notice of such suspension to the regulated person. Such notice shall contain a statement of the legal and factual basis for the order.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon service of the order of suspension, the regulated person to whom the order applies under paragraph (a) of this section must, if he desires a hearing, file a written request for a hearing pursuant to §§ 1313.51-1313.57.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.51.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.42   Prohibition of shipments from certain foreign sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Administrator determines that a foreign manufacturer or distributor of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine has refused to cooperate with a request by the Administrator for information known to the manufacturer or distributor on the distribution of the chemical, including sales, the Administrator may issue an order prohibiting the importation of the chemical in any case where the manufacturer or distributor is part of the chain of distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than 60 days prior to issuing the order to prohibit importation, the Administrator shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of intent to issue the order. During the 60-day period, imports from the foreign manufacturer or distributor may not be restricted under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10172, Mar. 5, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="52" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.51" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.51   Hearings generally.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where a regulated person requests a hearing regarding the suspension of a shipment of a listed chemical, the procedures for such hearing shall be governed generally by the procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by section 6053 of the Chemical Diversion and Trafficking Act (Pub. L. 100-690), by 21 CFR 1313.52-1313.57, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Controlled Substances Act set forth in §§ 1316.41-1316.67 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.52" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.52   Purpose of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If requested by a person entitled to a hearing, the Administrator shall cause a hearing to be held for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding the issues involved in the suspension of shipments within 45 days of the date of the request, unless the requesting party requests an extension of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.53" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.53   Waiver of modification of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator or the presiding officer (with respect to matters pending before him) may modify or waive any rule in this part by notice in advance of the hearing, if he determines that no party in the hearing will be unduly prejudiced and the ends of justice will thereby be served. Such notice of modification or waiver shall be made a part of the record of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.54" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.54   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1313.52 and desiring a hearing shall, within 30 days after receipt of the notice to suspend the shipment, file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) If any person entitled to a hearing or to participate in a hearing pursuant to § 1313.41 fails to file a request for a hearing or a notice of appearance, or if he so files and fails to appear at the hearing, he shall be deemed to have waived his opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, unless he shows good cause for such failure.
</P>
<P>(c) If all persons entitled to a hearing or to participate in a hearing waive or are deemed to waive their opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, the Administrator may cancel the hearing, if scheduled, and issue his final order pursuant to § 1313.57.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.55" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.55   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>At any hearing regarding the suspension of shipments, the Agency shall have the burden of proving that the requirements of this part for such suspension are satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.56" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.56   Time and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any regulated person requests a hearing on the suspension of shipments, a hearing will be scheduled no later than 45 days after the request is made, unless the regulated person requests an extension to this date.
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing will commence at the place and time designated in the notice given pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement thereof by the presiding officer at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1313.57" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.14.0.52.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1313.57   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue his order regarding the suspension of shipment. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The Administrator shall serve one copy of his order upon each party in the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1314" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1314—RETAIL SALE OF SCHEDULED LISTED CHEMICAL PRODUCTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 802, 830, 842, 871(b), 875, 877, 886a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 56024, Sept. 26, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.1.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.01   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part specifies the requirements for retail sales of scheduled listed chemical products to individuals for personal use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.1.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.02   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the following regulated persons who sell scheduled listed chemical products for personal use:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulated sellers of scheduled listed chemical products sold at retail for personal use through face-to-face sales at stores or mobile retail vendors.
</P>
<P>(2) Regulated persons who engage in a transaction with a non-regulated person and who ship the products to the non-regulated person by the U.S. Postal Service or by private or common carriers.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements in subpart A apply to all regulated persons subject to this part. The requirements in subpart B apply to regulated sellers as defined in § 1300.02 of this chapter. The requirements in subpart C apply to regulated persons who ship the products to the customer by the U.S. Postal Service or by private or common carriers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.1.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.03   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term “mail-order sale” means a retail sale of scheduled listed chemical products for personal use where a regulated person uses or attempts to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier to deliver the product to the customer. Mail-order sale includes purchase orders submitted by phone, mail, fax, Internet, or any method other than face-to-face transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.1.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.05   Requirements regarding packaging of nonliquid forms.</HEAD>
<P>A regulated seller or mail order distributor may not sell a scheduled listed chemical product in nonliquid form (including gel caps) unless the product is packaged either in blister packs, with each blister containing no more than two dosage units or, if blister packs are technically infeasible, in unit dose packets or pouches.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.10" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.1.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.10   Effect on State laws.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part preempts State law on the same subject matter unless there is a positive conflict between this part and a State law so that the two cannot consistently stand together.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.1.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.15   Loss reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located, any unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a scheduled listed chemical product under the control of the regulated person. The regulated person responsible for reporting a loss in-transit is the supplier.
</P>
<P>(b) Each report submitted under paragraph (a) of this section must, whenever possible, be made orally to the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved.
</P>
<P>(c) Written reports of losses must be filed within 15 days after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances of the event.
</P>
<P>(d) A report submitted under this section must include a description of the circumstances of the loss (in-transit, theft from premises, <I>etc.</I>).
</P>
<P>(e) A suggested format for the report is provided below:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Regulated Person 
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Registration number (if applicable) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Business address 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>State 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Business phone 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of loss 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Type of loss 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Description of circumstances</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Sales by Regulated Sellers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.20" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.20   Restrictions on sales quantity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Without regard to the number of transactions, a regulated seller (including a mobile retail vendor) may not in a single calendar day sell any purchaser more than 3.6 grams of ephedrine base, 3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base, or 3.6 grams of phenylpropanolamine base in scheduled listed chemical products.
</P>
<P>(b) A mobile retail vendor may not in any 30-day period sell an individual purchaser more than 7.5 grams of ephedrine base, 7.5 grams of pseudoephedrine base, or 7.5 grams of phenylpropanolamine base in scheduled listed chemical products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.25   Requirements for retail transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated seller must ensure that sales of a scheduled listed chemical product at retail are made in accordance with this section and § 1314.20.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulated seller must place the product so that customers do not have direct access to the product before the sale is made (in this paragraph referred to as “behind-the-counter” placement). For purposes of this paragraph, a behind-the-counter placement of a product includes circumstances in which the product is stored in a locked cabinet that is located in an area of the facility where customers do have direct access. Mobile retail vendors must place the product in a locked cabinet.
</P>
<P>(c) The regulated seller must deliver the product directly into the custody of the purchaser.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.30" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.30   Recordkeeping for retail transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for purchase by an individual of a single sales package containing not more than 60 milligrams of pseudoephedrine, the regulated seller must maintain, in accordance with criteria issued by the Administrator, a written or electronic list of each scheduled listed chemical product sale that identifies the products by name, the quantity sold, the names and addresses of the purchasers, and the dates and times of the sales (referred to as the “logbook”).
</P>
<P>(b) The regulated seller must not sell a scheduled listed chemical product at retail unless the sale is made in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The purchaser presents an identification card that provides a photograph and is issued by a State or the Federal Government, or a document that, with respect to identification, is considered acceptable for purposes of 8 CFR 274a.2(b)(1)(v)(A) and 274a.2(b)(1)(v)(B).
</P>
<P>(2) The purchaser signs the logbook as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For written logbooks, enters in the logbook his name, address, and the date and time of the sale.
</P>
<P>(ii) For electronic logbooks, provides a signature using one of the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) Signing a device presented by the seller that captures signatures in an electronic format. The device must display the warning notice in paragraph (d) of this section. Any device used must preserve each signature in a manner that clearly links that signature to the other electronically captured logbook information relating to the prospective purchaser providing that signature.
</P>
<P>(B) Signing a bound paper book.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bound paper book must include, for such purchaser, either—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A printed sticker affixed to the bound paper book at the time of sale that either displays the name of each product sold, the quantity sold, the name and address of the purchaser, and the date and time of the sale, or a unique identifier which can be linked to that electronic information, or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A unique identifier that can be linked to that information and that is written into the book by the seller at the time of sale.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The purchaser must sign adjacent to the printed sticker or written unique identifier related to that sale. The bound paper book must display the warning notice in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Signing a printed document that includes, for the purchaser, the name of each product sold, the quantity sold, the name and address of the purchaser, and the date and time of the sale. The document must be printed by the seller at the time of the sale. The document must contain a clearly identified signature line for a purchaser to sign. The printed document must display the warning notice in paragraph (d) of this section. Each signed document must be inserted into a binder or other secure means of document storage immediately after the purchaser signs the document.
</P>
<P>(3) The regulated seller must enter in the logbook the name of the product and the quantity sold. Examples of methods of recording the quantity sold include the weight of the product per package and number of packages of each chemical, the cumulative weight of the product for each chemical, or quantity of product by Universal Product Code. These examples do not exclude other methods of displaying the quantity sold. Such information may be captured through electronic means, including through electronic data capture through bar code reader or similar technology. Such electronic records must be provided pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section in a human readable form such that the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) The logbook maintained by the seller must include the prospective purchaser's name, address, and the date and time of the sale, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the purchaser enters the information, the seller must determine that the name entered in the logbook corresponds to the name provided on the identification and that the date and time entered are correct.
</P>
<P>(2) If the seller enters the information, the prospective purchaser must verify that the information is correct.
</P>
<P>(3) Such information may be captured through electronic means, including through electronic data capture through bar code reader or similar technology.
</P>
<P>(d) The regulated seller must include in the written or electronic logbook or display by the logbook, the following notice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>WARNING: Section 1001 of Title 18, United States Code, states that whoever, with respect to the logbook, knowingly and willfully falsifies, conceals, or covers up by any trick, scheme, or device a material fact, or makes any materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation, or makes or uses any false writing or document knowing the same to contain any materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or entry, shall be fined not more than $250,000 if an individual or $500,000 if an organization, imprisoned not more than five years, or both.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The regulated seller must maintain each entry in the written or electronic logbook for not fewer than two years after the date on which the entry is made.
</P>
<P>(f) A record under this section must be kept at the regulated seller's place of business where the transaction occurred, except that records may be kept at a single, central location of the regulated seller if the regulated seller has notified the Administration of the intention to do so. Written notification must be submitted by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the records are required to be kept.
</P>
<P>(g) The records required to be kept under this section must be readily retrievable and available for inspection and copying by authorized employees of the Administration under the provisions of section 510 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 880).
</P>
<P>(h) A record developed and maintained to comply with a State law may be used to meet the requirements of this section if the record includes the information specified in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 74698, Dec. 1, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.35   Training of sales personnel.</HEAD>
<P>Each regulated seller must ensure that its sales of a scheduled listed chemical product at retail are made in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of individuals who are responsible for delivering the products into the custody of purchasers or who deal directly with purchasers by obtaining payments for the products, the regulated seller has submitted to the Administration a self-certification that all such individuals have, in accordance with criteria issued by the Administration, undergone training provided by the regulated seller to ensure that the individuals understand the requirements that apply under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulated seller maintains a copy of each self-certification and all records demonstrating that individuals referred to in paragraph (a) of this section have undergone the training.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.40" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.40   Self-certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A regulated seller must submit to the Administration the self-certification referred to in § 1314.35(a) in order to sell any scheduled listed chemical product. The certification is not effective for purposes of this section unless, in addition to provisions regarding the training of individuals referred to in § 1314.35(a), the certification includes a statement that the regulated seller understands each of the requirements that apply under this part and agrees to comply with the requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) When a regulated seller files the initial self-certification, the Administration will assign the regulated seller to one of twelve groups. The expiration date of the self-certification for all regulated sellers in any group will be the last day of the month designated for that group. In assigning a regulated seller to a group, the Administration may select a group with an expiration date that is not less than 12 months or more than 23 months from the date of the self-certification. After the initial certification period, the regulated seller must update the self-certifications annually.
</P>
<P>(c) The regulated seller must provide a separate certification for each place of business at which the regulated seller sells scheduled listed chemical products at retail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.42   Self-certification fee; time and method of fee payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A regulated seller must pay a fee for each self-certification. For each initial application to self-certify, and for the renewal of each existing self-certification, a regulated seller shall pay a fee of $21.
</P>
<P>(b) The fee for self-certification shall be waived for any person holding a current, DEA registration in good standing as a pharmacy to dispense controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(c) A regulated seller shall pay the fee at the time of self-certification.
</P>
<P>(d) Payment shall be made by credit card.
</P>
<P>(e) The self-certification fee is not refundable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 79323, Dec. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.45   Privacy protections.</HEAD>
<P>To protect the privacy of individuals who purchase scheduled listed chemical products, the disclosure of information in logbooks under § 1314.30 is restricted as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The information shall be disclosed as appropriate to the Administration and to State and local law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) The information in the logbooks shall not be accessed, used, or shared for any purpose other than to ensure compliance with this title or to facilitate a product recall to protect public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(c) A regulated seller who in good faith releases information in a logbook to Federal, State, or local law enforcement authorities is immune from civil liability for the release unless the release constitutes gross negligence or intentional, wanton, or willful misconduct.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56024, Sept. 26, 2006, as amended at 77 FR 4238, Jan. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.50" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.2.53.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.50   Employment measures.</HEAD>
<P>A regulated seller may take reasonable measures to guard against employing individuals who may present a risk with respect to the theft and diversion of scheduled listed chemical products, which may include, notwithstanding State law, asking applicants for employment whether they have been convicted of any crime involving or related to such products or controlled substances.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Mail-Order Sales</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.100" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.100   Sales limits for mail-order sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person who makes a sale at retail of a scheduled listed chemical product and is required under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter to submit a report of the sales transaction to the Administration may not in a single calendar day sell to any purchaser more than 3.6 grams of ephedrine base, 3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base, or 3.6 grams of phenylpropanolamine base in scheduled listed chemical products.
</P>
<P>(b) Each regulated person who makes a sale at retail of a scheduled listed chemical product and is required under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter to submit a report of the sales transaction to the Administration may not in any 30-day period sell to an individual purchaser more than 7.5 grams of ephedrine base, 7.5 grams of pseudoephedrine base, or 7.5 grams of phenylpropanolamine base in scheduled listed chemical products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.101" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.101   Training of sales personnel.</HEAD>
<P>Each regulated person who makes a sale at retail of a scheduled listed chemical product and is required under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter to submit a report of the sales transaction to the Administration must ensure that its sales of a scheduled listed chemical product at retail are made in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of individuals who are responsible for preparing and packaging scheduled listed chemical products for delivery to purchasers through the Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier or who deal either directly or indirectly with purchasers by obtaining payments for the products, the regulated person has submitted to the Administration a self-certification that all such individuals have, in accordance with criteria issued by the Administration, undergone training provided by the regulated person to ensure that the individuals understand the requirements that apply under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulated person maintains a copy of each self-certification and all records demonstrating that individuals referred to in paragraph (a) of this section have undergone the training.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 20523, Apr. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.102" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.102   Self-certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A regulated person who makes a sale at retail of a scheduled listed chemical product and is required under § 1310.03 of this chapter to submit a report of the sales transaction to the Attorney General must submit to the Administration the self-certification referred to in § 1314.101(a) in order to sell any scheduled listed chemical product. The certification is not effective for purposes of this section unless, in addition to provisions regarding the training of individuals referred to in § 1314.101(a), the certification includes a statement that the regulated person understands each of the requirements that apply in this part and agrees to comply with the requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) When a regulated person files the initial self-certification, the Administration will assign the regulated person to one of twelve groups. The expiration date of the self-certification for all regulated persons in any group will be the last day of the month designated for that group. In assigning a regulated person to a group, the Administration may select a group with an expiration date that is not less than 12 months or more than 23 months from the date of self-certification. After the initial certification period, the regulated person must update the self-certification annually.
</P>
<P>(c) The regulated person who makes a sale at retail of a scheduled listed chemical product and is required under § 1310.03 of this chapter to submit a report of the sales transaction to the Attorney General must provide a separate certification for each place of business at which the regulated person sells scheduled listed chemical products at retail.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 20523, Apr. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.103" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.103   Self-certification fee; time and method of fee payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person who makes a sale at retail of a scheduled listed chemical product and is required under § 1310.03 of this chapter to submit a report of the sales transaction to the Administration must pay a fee for each self-certification. For each initial application to self-certify, and for the renewal of each existing self-certification, a regulated seller shall pay a fee of $21.
</P>
<P>(b) The fee for self-certification shall be waived for any person holding a current, DEA registration in good standing as a pharmacy to dispense controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(c) A regulated person shall pay the fee at the time of self-certification.
</P>
<P>(d) Payment shall be made by credit card.
</P>
<P>(e) The self-certification fee is not refundable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 20523, Apr. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.105" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.105   Verification of identity for mail-order sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person who makes a sale at retail of a scheduled listed chemical product and is required under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter to submit a report of the sales transaction to the Administration must, prior to shipping the product, receive from the purchaser a copy of an identification card that provides a photograph and is issued by a State or the Federal Government, or a document that, with respect to identification, is considered acceptable for purposes of 8 CFR 274a.2(b)(1)(v)(A) and 274a.2(b)(1)(v)(B). Prior to shipping the product, the regulated person must determine that the name and address on the identification correspond to the name and address provided by the purchaser as part of the sales transaction. If the regulated person cannot verify the identities of both the purchaser and the recipient, the person may not ship the scheduled listed chemical product.
</P>
<P>(b) If the product is being shipped to a third party, the regulated person must comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) to verify that both the purchaser and the person to whom the product is being shipped live at the addresses provided. If the regulated person cannot verify the identities of both the purchaser and the recipient, the person may not ship the scheduled listed chemical product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.110" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.110   Reports for mail-order sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each regulated person required to report under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a written report, containing the information set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, on or before the 15th day of each month following the month in which the distributions took place. The report must be submitted under company letterhead, signed by the person authorized to sign on behalf of the regulated seller, to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration (see the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address); or
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request to and approval by the Administration, submit the report in electronic form, either via computer disk or direct electronic data transmission, in such form as the Administration shall direct. Requests to submit reports in electronic form should be submitted to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) Each monthly report must provide the following information for each distribution:
</P>
<P>(1) Supplier name and registration number;
</P>
<P>(2) Purchaser's name and address;
</P>
<P>(3) Name/address shipped to (if different from purchaser's name/address);
</P>
<P>(4) Method used to verify the identity of the purchaser and, where applicable, person to whom product is shipped;
</P>
<P>(5) Name of the chemical contained in the scheduled listed chemical product and total quantity shipped (e.g. pseudoephedrine, 3 grams);
</P>
<P>(6) Date of shipment;
</P>
<P>(7) Product name;
</P>
<P>(8) Dosage form (e.g., tablet, liquid);
</P>
<P>(9) Dosage strength (e.g., 30mg, 60mg, per dose etc.);
</P>
<P>(10) Number of dosage units (e.g., 100 doses per package);
</P>
<P>(11) Package type (blister pack, etc.);
</P>
<P>(12) Number of packages;
</P>
<P>(13) Lot number.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56024, Sept. 26, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 10684, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97040, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.115" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.3.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.115   Distributions not subject to reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following distributions to nonregulated persons are not subject to the reporting requirements in § 1314.110:
</P>
<P>(1) Distributions of sample packages when those packages contain not more than two solid dosage units or the equivalent of two dosage units in liquid form, not to exceed 10 milliliters of liquid per package, and not more than one package is distributed to an individual or residential address in any 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(2) Distributions by retail distributors that may not include face-to-face transactions to the extent that such distributions are consistent with the activities authorized for a retail distributor as specified in the definition of retail distributor in § 1300.02 of this chapter, except that this paragraph (a)(2) does not apply to sales of scheduled listed chemical products at retail.
</P>
<P>(3) Distributions to a resident of a long term care facility or distributions to a long term care facility for dispensing to or for use by a resident of that facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Distributions in accordance with a valid prescription.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator may revoke any or all of the exemptions listed in paragraph (a) of this section for an individual regulated person if the Administrator finds that drug products distributed by the regulated person are being used in violation of the regulations in this chapter or the Controlled Substances Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[[71 FR 56024, Sept. 26, 2006, as amended at 77 FR 4238, Jan. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Order to Show Cause</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.150" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.4.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.150   Order To show cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, upon information gathered by the Administration regarding any regulated seller or a distributor required to submit reports under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter, the Administrator determines that a regulated seller or distributor required to submit reports under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter has sold a scheduled listed chemical product in violation of Section 402 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 842(a)(12) or (13)), the Administrator will serve upon the regulated seller or distributor an order to show cause why the regulated seller or distributor should not be prohibited from selling scheduled listed chemical products.
</P>
<P>(b) The order to show cause shall call upon the regulated seller or distributor to appear before the Administrator at a time and place stated in the order, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of receipt of the order. The order to show cause shall also contain a statement of the legal basis for such hearing and for the prohibition and a summary of the matters of fact and law asserted.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of an order to show cause, the regulated seller or distributor must, if he desires a hearing, file a request for a hearing as specified in subpart D of part 1316 of this chapter. If a hearing is requested, the Administrator shall hold a hearing at the time and place stated in the order, as provided in part 1316 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) When authorized by the Administrator, any agent of the Administration may serve the order to show cause.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1314.155" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.15.4.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1314.155   Suspension pending final order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may suspend the right to sell scheduled listed chemical products simultaneously with, or at any time subsequent to, the service upon the seller or distributor required to file reports under § 1310.03(c) of this chapter of an order to show cause why the regulated seller or distributor should not be prohibited from selling scheduled listed chemical products, in any case where he finds that there is an imminent danger to the public health or safety. If the Administrator so suspends, he shall serve with the order to show cause under § 1314.150 an order of immediate suspension that shall contain a statement of his findings regarding the danger to public health or safety.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon service of the order of immediate suspension, the regulated seller or distributor shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Deliver to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration all of the scheduled listed chemical products in his or her possession; or
</P>
<P>(2) Place all of the scheduled listed chemical products under seal as described in Section 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)).
</P>
<P>(c) Any suspension shall continue in effect until the conclusion of all proceedings upon the prohibition, including any judicial review, unless sooner withdrawn by the Administrator or dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction. Any regulated seller or distributor whose right to sell scheduled listed chemical products is suspended under this section may request a hearing on the suspension at a time earlier than specified in the order to show cause under § 1314.150, which request shall be granted by the Administrator, who shall fix a date for such hearing as early as reasonably possible.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1315" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1315—IMPORTATION AND PRODUCTION QUOTAS FOR EPHEDRINE, PSEUDOEPHEDRINE, AND PHENYLPROPANOLAMINE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 802, 821, 826, 871(b), 952.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, unless otherwise noted.</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part appear at 82 FR 97041, Dec. 30, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.1.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.01   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part specifies procedures governing the establishment of an assessment of annual needs, procurement and manufacturing quotas pursuant to section 306 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 826), and import quotas pursuant to section 1002 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952) for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.1.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>net disposal</I> means, for a stated period, the sum of paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section minus the sum of paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine distributed by the registrant to another person.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of that chemical used by the registrant in the production of (or converted by the registrant into) another chemical or product.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of that chemical otherwise disposed of by the registrant.
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity of that chemical returned to the registrant by any purchaser.
</P>
<P>(5) The quantity of that chemical distributed by the registrant to a registered manufacturer of that chemical for purposes other than use in the production of, or conversion into, another chemical or in the manufacture of dosage forms of that chemical.
</P>
<P>(c) Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine include their salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.1.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.03   Personal use exemption.</HEAD>
<P>A person need not register as an importer, file an import declaration, and obtain an import quota if both of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The person purchases scheduled listed chemical products at retail and imports them for personal use, by means of shipping through any private or commercial carrier or the Postal Service.
</P>
<P>(b) In any 30-day period, the person imports no more than 7.5 grams of ephedrine base, 7.5 grams of pseudoephedrine base, and 7.5 grams of phenylpropanolamine base in scheduled listed chemical products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.1.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.05   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Persons registered to manufacture (including repackaging or relabeling) or to import ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine as bulk chemicals.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons registered to manufacture (including repackaging or relabeling) or to import prescription and over-the-counter drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine that may be lawfully marketed and distributed in the United States under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.1.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.06   Assessment of Annual Needs; Types of quotas.</HEAD>
<P>The four types of quotas are:
</P>
<P>(a) Assessment of annual needs, which establishes the total quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine necessary to be manufactured and imported by all manufacturers and importers in a calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) Individual manufacturing quotas, which establish the maximum quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine that a registered manufacturer may manufacture during a calendar year. This type of quota is only issued to DEA-registered bulk manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(c) Procurement quotas, which establish the maximum quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine that a registered manufacturer may procure during a calendar year for the purpose of manufacturing into dosage-forms or other substances.
</P>
<P>(d) Import quotas, which establish the maximum quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine that a registered importer may import during the calendar year for distribution to their DEA-registered customers.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60142, Aug. 31, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.07" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.1.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.07   Subcategories of manufacturing and procurement quota.</HEAD>
<P>The five subcategories are:
</P>
<P>(a) Quota for Commercial Sale is a quota for the amount of bulk active pharmaceutical ingredients (API) initially acquired by a registrant for the manufacture of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine products and bulk API acquired by outsourcing facilities, manufacturers, etc. This type of quota shall only be used to support commercial manufacturing efforts and shall not be used to support other manufacturing efforts.
</P>
<P>(b) Quota for Transfer is a quota for the amount of material moved from one registrant to another and does not include material captured under procurement quota for commercial sale. Examples include: 1. Bulk API being transferred back to the original registrant after milling; 2. Transfer of in-process material or finished dosage-forms for additional manufacturing efforts (coating, beading, encapsulation, and so forth) back to the preceding registrant; and 3. Return of material after the specified manufacturing activity has been completed.
</P>
<P>(c) Quota for Product Development is a quota for the amount of material needed for product development and validation manufacturing efforts. This quota is limited to that activity <I>only</I> and only for the development efforts noted in the application; it shall not be used or substituted for commercial production or the development of a different product. This quota is issued with the understanding that this material is not intended for commercial use, with the exception of FDA-approved or OTC Monograph validation batches. Validation batches shall be noted specifically in an application and shall be considered product development material that will be taken into account once a product is FDA-approved for commercial sale. No inventory shall be granted for these efforts, nor shall replacement quota be considered for destroyed material issued under this quota subcategory.
</P>
<P>(d) Quota for Replacement is a type of individual manufacturing quota or procurement quota that is granted to a registrant after the registrant disposes of material that was initially intended for commercial sale, but for some reason was unable to be marketed. This quota is separate and shall not count against a registrant's other issued quota. Replacement quota will be granted on a case by case basis. The merits of the request shall be determined by the registrant's justification. Replacement quota is intended to replace material from the current quota year and shall not be used to replace disposed samples, analytical samples, product development material or inventory acquired under previous quota years.
</P>
<P>(e) Quota for Packaging/Repackaging and Labeling/Relabeling is quota for the amount of material moved to a registrant to undergo packaging and labeling activities. This quota is limited to that activity <I>only</I> and only for the packaging/repackaging and labeling/relabeling noted in the application; it shall not be used or substituted for commercial production or the packaging of a different product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60142, Aug. 31, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Assessment of Annual Needs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.2.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.11   Assessment of annual needs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall determine the total quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine, including drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine, necessary to be manufactured and imported during the following calendar year to provide for the estimated medical, scientific, research, and industrial needs of the United States, for lawful export requirements, and for the establishment and maintenance of reserve stocks.
</P>
<P>(b) In making his determinations, the Administrator shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Total net disposal of the chemical by all manufacturers and importers during the current and 2 preceding years;
</P>
<P>(2) Trends in the national rate of net disposal of each chemical;
</P>
<P>(3) Total actual (or estimated) inventories of the chemical and of all substances manufactured from the chemical, and trends in inventory accumulation;
</P>
<P>(4) Projected demand for each chemical as indicated by procurement and import quotas requested pursuant to § 1315.32; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other factors affecting medical, scientific, research, and industrial needs in the United States, lawful export requirements, and the establishment and maintenance of reserve stocks, as the Administrator finds relevant, including changes in the currently accepted medical use in treatment with the chemicals or the substances which are manufactured from them, the economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes, yield and stability problems, potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes), and recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator shall, on or before September 1 of each year, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> general notice of an assessment of annual needs for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine determined by him under this section. A notice of the publication shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered to manufacture or import the chemical.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the proposed assessment of annual needs and shall designate in the notice the time during which the filings may be made.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may, but is not required to, hold a public hearing on one or more issues raised by the comments and objections filed with him. In the event the Administrator decides to hold such a hearing, he shall publish a notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall summarize the issues to be heard and set the time for the hearing, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of publication of the notice.
</P>
<P>(f) After consideration of any comments or objections, or after a hearing if one is ordered by the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the final order determining the assessment of annual needs for the chemicals. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. A notice of the publication shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a manufacturer or importer of the chemical.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 88 FR 60143, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.2.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.13   Adjustments of the assessment of annual needs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may at any time increase or reduce the assessment of annual needs for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine that has been previously fixed pursuant to § 1315.11.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining to adjust the assessment of annual needs, the Administrator shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Changes in the demand for that chemical, changes in the national rate of net disposal of the chemical, and changes in the rate of net disposal of the chemical by registrants holding individual manufacturing or import quotas for that chemical;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether any increased demand for that chemical, the national and/or changes in individual rates of net disposal of that chemical are temporary, short term, or long term;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether any increased demand for that chemical can be met through existing inventories, increased individual manufacturing quotas, or increased importation, without increasing the assessment of annual needs, taking into account production delays and the probability that other individual manufacturing quotas may be suspended pursuant to § 1315.24(b);
</P>
<P>(4) Whether any decreased demand for that chemical will result in excessive inventory accumulation by all persons registered to handle that chemical (including manufacturers, distributors, importers, and exporters), notwithstanding the possibility that individual manufacturing quotas may be suspended pursuant to § 1315.24(b) or abandoned pursuant to § 1315.27;
</P>
<P>(5) Other factors affecting medical, scientific, research, industrial, and importation needs in the United States, lawful export requirements, and reserve stocks, as the Administrator finds relevant, including changes in the currently accepted medical use in treatment with the chemical or the substances that are manufactured from it, the economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes, yield and stability problems, potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes), and recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that the Administrator determines to increase or reduce the assessment of annual needs for a chemical, the Administrator shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> general notice of an adjustment in the assessment of annual needs for that chemical as determined under this section. A notice of the publication shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a manufacturer or importer of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the proposal and shall designate in the notice the time during which such filings may be made.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may, but is not required to, hold a public hearing on one or more issues raised by the comments and objections filed with him. In the event the Administrator decides to hold such a hearing, he shall publish a notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall summarize the issues to be heard and set the time for the hearing, which shall not be less than 10 days after the date of publication of the notice.
</P>
<P>(f) After consideration of any comments or objections, or after a hearing if one is ordered by the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the final order determining the assessment of annual needs for the chemical. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. A notice of the publication shall be mailed simultaneously to each person registered as a manufacturer or importer of the chemical.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Individual Manufacturing Quotas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.21   Individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator shall, on or before December 1 of each year, fix for and issue to each person registered to manufacture in bulk ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine who applies for a manufacturing quota an individual manufacturing quota authorizing that person to manufacture during the next calendar year a quantity of that chemical. Any manufacturing quota fixed and issued by the Administrator is subject to his authority to reduce or limit it at a later date pursuant to § 1315.26 and to his authority to revoke or suspend it at any time pursuant to §§ 1301.36, 1309.43, 1309.44, or 1309.45 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 88 FR 60143, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.22   Procedure for applying for individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who is registered to manufacture ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine and who desires to manufacture a quantity of the chemical must apply on DEA Form 189 for a manufacturing quota for the quantity of the chemical and shall state separately for each subcategory, as defined in § 1315.07, each quantity of such chemical. Copies of DEA Form 189 may be obtained from the Office of Diversion Control Web site, and must be filed (on or before April 1 of the year preceding the calendar year for which the manufacturing quota is being applied) with the UN Reporting &amp; Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A separate application must be made for each chemical desired to be manufactured. The applicant must state the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and DEA Chemical Code Number, as set forth in part 1310 of this chapter, of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(b) For the chemical in each of the current and preceding 2 calendar years,
</P>
<P>(1) The authorized individual manufacturing quota, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) The actual or estimated quantity manufactured;
</P>
<P>(3) The actual or estimated net disposal;
</P>
<P>(4) The actual or estimated inventory allowance pursuant to § 1315.24; and
</P>
<P>(5) The actual or estimated inventory as of December 31.
</P>
<P>(c) For the chemical in the next calendar year,
</P>
<P>(1) The desired individual manufacturing quota; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any additional factors that the applicant finds relevant to the fixing of the individual manufacturing quota, including any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The trend of (and recent changes in) the applicant's and the national rates of net disposal.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant's production cycle and current inventory position.
</P>
<P>(iii) The economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes.
</P>
<P>(iv) Yield and stability problems.
</P>
<P>(v) Potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes).
</P>
<P>(vi) Recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 73555, Dec. 3, 2008; 75 FR 10684, Mar. 9, 2010; 88 FR 60143, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.23   Procedure for fixing individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In fixing individual manufacturing quotas for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine, the Administrator shall allocate to each applicant who is currently manufacturing the chemical a quota equal to 100 percent of the estimated net disposal of that applicant for the next calendar year, adjusted—
</P>
<P>(1) By the amount necessary to increase or reduce the estimated inventory of the applicant on December 31 of the current year to his estimated inventory allowance for the next calendar year, pursuant to § 1315.24, and
</P>
<P>(2) By any other factors which the Administrator deems relevant to the fixing of the individual manufacturing quota of the applicant, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The trend of (and recent changes in) the applicant's and the national rates of net disposal,
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant's production cycle and current inventory position,
</P>
<P>(iii) The economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes,
</P>
<P>(iv) Yield and stability problems,
</P>
<P>(v) Potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes), and
</P>
<P>(vi) Recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires.
</P>
<P>(b) In fixing individual manufacturing quotas for a chemical, the Administrator shall allocate to each applicant who is not currently manufacturing the chemical a quota equal to 100 percent of the reasonably estimated net disposal of that applicant for the next calendar year, as determined by the Administrator, adjusted—
</P>
<P>(1) By the amount necessary to provide the applicant his estimated inventory allowance for the next calendar year, pursuant to § 1315.24; and
</P>
<P>(2) By any other factors which the Administrator deems relevant to the fixing of the individual manufacturing quota of the applicant, including any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The trend of (and recent changes in) the national rate of net disposal.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant's production cycle and current inventory position.
</P>
<P>(iii) The economic and physical availability of raw materials for use in manufacturing and for inventory purposes.
</P>
<P>(iv) Yield and stability problems.
</P>
<P>(v) Potential disruptions to production (including possible labor strikes).
</P>
<P>(vi) Recent unforeseen emergencies such as floods and fires.
</P>
<P>(c) On or before July 1 of each year the Administrator shall adjust the individual manufacturing quota allocated for that year to each applicant in paragraph (a) of this section by the amount necessary to increase or reduce the actual inventory of the applicant to December 31 of the preceding year to his estimated inventory allowance for the current calendar year, pursuant to § 1315.24.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 88 FR 60143, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.24   Inventory allowance for individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of determining individual manufacturing quotas pursuant to § 1315.23, each registered manufacturer shall be allowed as part of such quota an amount sufficient to maintain an inventory:
</P>
<P>(1) For current manufacturers, 40 percent of their average estimated net disposal for the current calendar year and the last preceding calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(2) For new manufacturers, 40 percent of their reasonably estimated net disposal for the next calendar year as determined by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) During each calendar year, each registered manufacturer receiving a manufacturing quota shall be allowed to maintain an inventory of a chemical not exceeding 55 percent of their estimated net disposal of that chemical for that year, as determined at the time his quota for that year was determined. At any time the inventory of a chemical held by a manufacturer exceeds 55 percent of their estimated net disposal, their quota for that chemical is automatically suspended and shall remain suspended until their inventory is less than 50 percent of his estimated net disposal. The Administrator may, upon application and for good cause shown, permit a manufacturer whose quota is, or is likely to be, suspended pursuant to this paragraph to continue manufacturing and to accumulate an inventory in excess of 55 percent of their estimated net disposal, upon such conditions and within such limitations as the Administrator may find necessary or desirable.
</P>
<P>(c) If, during a calendar year, a registrant has manufactured the entire quantity of a chemical allocated to them under an individual manufacturing quota, and their inventory of that chemical is less than 30 percent of his estimated net disposal of that class for that year, the Administrator may, upon application pursuant to § 1315.25, increase the quota of such registrant sufficiently to allow restoration of the inventory to 40 percent of the estimated net disposal for that year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60143, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.25" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.25   Increase in individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registrant who holds an individual manufacturing quota for a chemical may file with the Administrator an application on DEA Form 189 for an increase in the registrant's quota to meet the registrant's estimated net disposal, inventory, and other requirements during the remainder of that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator, in passing upon a registrant's application for an increase in the individual manufacturing quota, shall take into consideration any occurrences since the filing of the registrant's initial quota application that may require an increased manufacturing rate by the registrant during the balance of the calendar year. In passing upon the application the Administrator may also take into consideration the amount, if any, by which his determination of the total quantity for the chemical to be manufactured under § 1315.11 exceeds the aggregate of all the individual manufacturing quotas for the chemical, and the equitable distribution of such excess among other registrants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.26" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.26   Reduction in individual manufacturing quotas.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may at any time reduce an individual manufacturing quota for a chemical that he has previously fixed to prevent the aggregate of the individual manufacturing quotas and import quotas outstanding or to be granted from exceeding the assessment of annual needs that has been established for that chemical pursuant to § 1315.11, as adjusted pursuant to § 1315.13. If a quota assigned to a new manufacturer pursuant to § 1315.23(b), or if a quota assigned to any manufacturer is increased pursuant to § 1315.24(c), or if an import quota issued to an importer pursuant to § 1315.34, causes the total quantity of a chemical to be manufactured and imported during the year to exceed the assessment of annual needs that has been established for that chemical pursuant to § 1315.11, as adjusted pursuant to § 1315.13, the Administrator may proportionately reduce the individual manufacturing quotas and import quotas of all other registrants to keep the assessment of annual needs within the limits originally established, or, alternatively, the Administrator may reduce the individual manufacturing quota of any registrant whose quota is suspended pursuant to § 1315.24(b) or §§ 1301.36, 1309.43, 1309.44, or 1309.45 of this chapter or is abandoned pursuant to § 1315.27.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.27" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.3.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.27   Abandonment of quota.</HEAD>
<P>Any manufacturer assigned an individual manufacturing quota for a chemical pursuant to § 1315.23 may at any time abandon their right to manufacture all or any part of such quota by filing a notice of such abandonment with the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration in the online Quota Management System.

 The Administrator may, in his discretion, allocate the amount among the other manufacturers in proportion to their respective quotas.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 88 FR 60143, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procurement and Import Quotas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.30" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.30   Procurement and import quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To determine the estimated needs for, and to insure an adequate and uninterrupted supply of, ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine the Administrator shall issue procurement and import quotas.
</P>
<P>(b) A procurement quota authorizes a registered manufacturer to procure and use quantities of each chemical for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing the bulk chemical into dosage forms.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturing the bulk chemical into other substances.
</P>
<P>(3) Repackaging or relabeling the chemical or dosage forms.
</P>
<P>(c) An import quota authorizes a registered importer to import quantities of the chemical for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) Distribution of the chemical to a registered manufacturer that has a procurement quota for the chemical.
</P>
<P>(2) Other distribution of the chemical consistent with the legitimate medical and scientific needs of the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.31   Inventory allowance for procurement quotas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of determining procurement quotas pursuant to § 1315.32, each registered manufacturer shall be allowed as part of such quota an amount sufficient to maintain an inventory:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, for current manufacturers, 35 percent of his average estimated net disposal for the current calendar year and the last preceding calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, for new manufacturers, 35 percent of his reasonably estimated net disposal for the next calendar year as determined by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(3) For current liquid injectable dosage-form manufacturers, 50 percent of his average estimated net disposal for the current calendar year and the last preceding calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(4) For new liquid injectable dosage-form manufacturers, 50 percent of his reasonably estimated net disposal for the next calendar year as determined by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during each calendar year, each registered manufacturer receiving a procurement quota shall be allowed to maintain an inventory of a chemical not exceeding 50 percent of his estimated net disposal of that chemical for that year, as determined at the time his quota for that year was determined. At any time the inventory of a chemical held by a manufacturer exceeds 50 percent of his estimated net disposal, his quota for that chemical is automatically suspended and shall remain suspended until his inventory is less than 45 percent of his estimated net disposal. The Administrator may, upon application and for good cause shown, permit a manufacturer whose quota is, or is likely to be, suspended pursuant to this paragraph to continue manufacturing and to accumulate an inventory in excess of 50 percent of his estimated net disposal, upon such conditions and within such limitations as the Administrator may find necessary or desirable.
</P>
<P>(c) For liquid-injectable dosage-forms, during each calendar year, each registered manufacturer receiving a procurement quota shall be allowed to maintain an inventory of a chemical not exceeding 65 percent of his estimated net disposal of that chemical for that year, as determined at the time his quota for that year was determined. At any time the inventory of a chemical held by a manufacturer exceeds 65 percent of his estimated net disposal, his quota for that chemical is automatically suspended and shall remain suspended until his inventory is less than 60 percent of his estimated net disposal. The Administrator may, upon application and for good cause shown, permit a manufacturer whose quota is, or is likely to be, suspended pursuant to this paragraph to continue manufacturing and to accumulate an inventory in excess of 65 percent of his estimated net disposal, upon such conditions and within such limitations as the Administrator may find necessary or desirable.
</P>
<P>(d) If, during a calendar year, a registrant has procured the entire quantity of a chemical allocated to him under an individual procurement quota, and his inventory of that chemical is less than 25 percent of his estimated net disposal of that class for that year, the Administrator may, upon application pursuant to § 1315.25, increase the quota of such registrant sufficiently to allow restoration of the inventory to 35 percent of the estimated net disposal for that year.
</P>
<P>(e) For liquid-injectable dosage-forms, if, during a calendar year, a registrant has procured the entire quantity of a chemical allocated to him under an individual procurement quota, and his inventory of that chemical is less than 40 percent of his estimated net disposal of that class for that year, the Administrator may, upon application pursuant to § 1315.25, increase the quota of such registrant sufficiently to allow restoration of the inventory to 50 percent of the estimated net disposal for that year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60143, Aug. 31, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.32   Obtaining a procurement quota.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is registered to manufacture ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine, or whose requirement of registration is waived pursuant to § 1309.24 of this chapter, and who desires to use during the next calendar year any ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine for purposes of manufacturing (including repackaging or relabeling), must apply on DEA Form 250 for a procurement quota for the chemical and shall state separately for each subcategory, as defined in 21 CFR 1315.07, each quantity of such chemical.

 A separate application must be made for each chemical desired to be procured or used.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant must state separately all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Each purpose for which the chemical is desired.
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity desired for each purpose during the next calendar year.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantities used and estimated to be used, if any, for that purpose during the current and preceding 2 calendar years.
</P>
<P>(c) If the purpose is to manufacture the chemical into dosage form, the applicant must state the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name of that form. If the dosage form produced is a controlled substance listed in any schedule, the applicant must also state the schedule number and National Drug Code Number, of the substance.
</P>
<P>(d) If the purpose is to manufacture another chemical, the applicant must state the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name of the substance and the DEA Chemical Code Number, as set forth in part 1310 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) DEA Form 250 must be filed on or before April 1 of the year preceding the calendar year for which the procurement quota is being applied. Copies of DEA Form 250 may be obtained from the Office of Diversion Control Web site, and must be filed with the UN Reporting &amp; Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrator shall, on or before December 1 of the year preceding the calendar year during which the quota shall be effective, issue to each qualified applicant a procurement quota authorizing him to procure and use:
</P>
<P>(1) All quantities of the chemical necessary to manufacture products that the applicant is authorized to manufacture pursuant to § 1315.23; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such other quantities of the chemical as the applicant has applied to procure and use and are consistent with his past use, his estimated needs, and the total quantity of the chemical that will be produced.
</P>
<P>(g) Any person to whom a procurement quota has been issued may at any time request an adjustment in the quota by applying to the Administrator with a statement showing the need for the adjustment. The application must be filed with the UN Reporting &amp; Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The Administrator shall increase or decrease the procurement quota of the person if and to the extent that he finds, after considering the factors enumerated in paragraph (f) of this section and any occurrences since the issuance of the procurement quota, that the need justifies an adjustment.
</P>
<P>(h) Any person to whom a procurement quota has been issued, authorizing that person to procure and use a quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine during the current calendar year, must, at or before the time of placing an order with another registrant  requiring the distribution of a quantity of the chemical, certify in writing to the other registrant that the quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine ordered does not exceed the person's unused and available procurement quota of the chemical for the current calendar year. The written certification must be executed by a person authorized to sign the registration application pursuant to § 1301.13 or § 1309.32(g) of this chapter or by a person granted power of attorney under § 1315.33 to sign the certifications. A copy of such certification must be retained by the person procuring the quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine for two years from the date of the certification. Registrants must not fill an order from persons required to apply for a procurement quota under paragraph (b) of this section unless the order is accompanied by a certification as required under this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The certification required by paragraph (h) of this section must contain all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the certification.
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the registrant to whom the certification is directed.
</P>
<P>(3) A reference to the purchase order number to which the certification applies.
</P>
<P>(4) The name of the person giving the order to which the certification applies.
</P>
<P>(5) The name of the chemical to which the certification applies.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that the quantity (expressed in grams) of the chemical to which the certification applies does not exceed the unused and available procurement quota of the chemical, issued to the person giving the order, for the current calendar year.
</P>
<P>(7) The signature of the individual authorized to sign a certification as provided in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 73555, Dec. 3, 2008; 75 FR 10684, Mar. 9, 2010; 88 FR 60144, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.33   Power of attorney.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registrant may authorize one or more individuals, whether or not located at his registered location, to sign certifications required under § 1315.32(h) on the registrant's behalf by executing a power of attorney for each such individual. The registrant shall retain the power of attorney in the files, with certifications required by § 1315.32(h), for the same period as any certification bearing the signature of the attorney. The power of attorney must be available for inspection together with other certification records.
</P>
<P>(b) A registrant may revoke any power of attorney at any time by executing a notice of revocation.
</P>
<P>(c) The power of attorney and notice of revocation must be similar to the following format:
</P>
<P>Power of Attorney for certifications of quota for procurement of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>_____________ (Name of registrant)
</FP>
<FP>____________ (Address of registrant)
</FP>
<FP>______ (DEA registration number)
</FP>
<P>I, ____________ (name of person granting power), the undersigned, who am authorized to sign the current application for registration of the above-named registrant under the Controlled Substances Act or Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, have made, constituted, and appointed, and by these presents, do make, constitute, and appoint ______ (name of attorney-in-fact), my true and lawful attorney for me in my name, place, and stead, to sign certifications of quota for procurement of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine in accordance with Part 1315 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations. I hereby ratify and confirm all that said attorney must lawfully do or cause to be done by virtue hereof.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of person granting power)
</FP>
<FP>I, ____________ (name of attorney-in-fact), hereby affirm that I am the person named herein as attorney-in-fact and that the signature affixed hereto is my signature.
</FP>
<FP>(Signature of attorney-in-fact)
</FP>
<FP>Witnesses:
</FP>
<FP>1. ___________
</FP>
<FP>2. ___________
</FP>
<FP>Signed and dated on the __ day of _, (year), at ___________.
</FP>
<HD3>Notice of Revocation
</HD3>
<P>The foregoing power of attorney is hereby revoked by the undersigned, who is authorized to sign the current application for registration of the above-named registrant under the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. Written notice of this revocation has been given to the attorney-in-fact ____________ this same day.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of person revoking power)
</FP>
<FP>Witnesses:
</FP>
<FP>1. ____________
</FP>
<FP>2. ____________
</FP>
<FP>Signed and dated on the __ day of _, (year), at ____________.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) A power of attorney must be executed by the person who signed the most recent application for DEA registration or reregistration; the person to whom the power of attorney is being granted; and two witnesses.
</P>
<P>(e) A power of attorney must be revoked by the person who signed the most recent application for DEA registration or reregistration, and two witnesses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 73555, Dec. 3, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.34   Obtaining an import quota.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is registered to import ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine, or whose requirement of registration is waived pursuant to § 1309.24(c) of this chapter, and who desires to import during the next calendar year any ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine or drug products containing these chemicals, must apply on DEA Form 488 for an import quota for the chemical. A separate application must be made for each chemical desired to be imported.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant must provide the following information in the application:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant's name and DEA registration number.
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of a contact person and contact information (telephone number, fax number, e-mail address).
</P>
<P>(3) Name of the chemical and DEA Chemical Code number.
</P>
<P>(4) Type of product (bulk or finished dosage forms).
</P>
<P>(5) For finished dosage forms, the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name, NDC number, and the authority to market the drug product under the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of each form to be imported.
</P>
<P>(6) The amount requested expressed in terms of base.
</P>
<P>(7) For the current and preceding two calendar years, expressed in terms of base:
</P>
<P>(i) Distribution/Sales—name, address, and registration number (if applicable) of each customer and the amount sold.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inventory as of December 31 (each form—bulk, in-process, finished dosage form).
</P>
<P>(iii) Acquisition—imports.
</P>
<P>(c) For each form of the chemical (bulk or dosage unit), the applicant must state the quantity desired for import during the next calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) DEA Form 488 must be filed on or before April 1 of the year preceding the calendar year for which the import quota is being applied. Copies of DEA Form 488 may be obtained from the Office of Diversion Control Web site, and must be filed with the UN Reporting &amp; Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration . See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may at his discretion request additional information from an applicant.
</P>
<P>(f) On or before December 1 of the year preceding the calendar year during which the quota shall be effective, the Administrator shall issue to each qualified applicant an import quota authorizing him to import:
</P>
<P>(1) All quantities of the chemical necessary to manufacture products that registered manufacturers are authorized to manufacture pursuant to § 1315.23; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such other quantities of the chemical that the applicant has applied to import and that are consistent with his past imports, the estimated medical, scientific, and industrial needs of the United States, the establishment and maintenance of reserve stocks, and the total quantity of the chemical that will be produced.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 75 FR 10684, Mar. 9, 2010; 88 FR 60144, Aug. 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.36" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.36   Amending an import quota.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An import quota authorizes the registered importer to import up to the set quantity of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine and distribute the chemical or drug products on the DEA Form 488. An importer must apply to change the quantity to be imported.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person to whom an import quota has been issued may at any time request an increase in the quota quantity by applying to the Administrator with a statement showing the need for the adjustment. The application must be filed with the UN Reporting &amp; Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The Administrator may increase the import quota of the person if and to the extent that he determines that the approval is necessary to provide for medical, scientific, or other legitimate purposes regarding the chemical. The Administrator shall specify a period of time for which the approval is in effect or shall provide that the approval is in effect until the Administrator notifies the applicant in writing that the approval is terminated.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to the application under paragraph (b) of this section, the Administrator shall approve or deny the application within 60 days of receiving the application. If the Administrator does not approve or deny the application within 60 days of receiving it, the application is deemed to be approved and the approval remains in effect until the Administrator notifies the applicant in writing that the approval is terminated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37448, July 10, 2007, as amended at 75 FR 10685, Mar. 9, 2010]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.37" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.4.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.37   Abandonment of procurement quota.</HEAD>
<P>Any manufacturer assigned a procurement quota for a chemical pursuant to § 1315.23 may at any time abandon his right to manufacture all or any part of such quota by filing a notice of such abandonment with the UN Reporting and Quota Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration in the online Quota Management System. The Administrator may, in his discretion, allocate the amount among the other manufacturers in proportion to their respective quotas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 60144, Aug. 31, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.50" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.50   Hearings generally.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures for the hearing related to assessment of annual needs or to the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of a manufacturing, procurement, or import quota are governed generally by the adjudication procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by section 1002 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 952), by §§ 1315.52 through 1315.62 of this part, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Act set forth in §§ 1316.41 through 1316.67 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.52" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.52   Purpose of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may, in his sole discretion, hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding any one or more issues (to be specified by him) involved in the determination or adjustment of any assessment of national needs.
</P>
<P>(b) If requested by a person applying for or holding a procurement, import, or individual manufacturing quota, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding the issues involved in the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of the quota to the person, but the Administrator need not hold a hearing on suspension of a quota under § 1301.36 or § 1309.43 of this chapter separate from a hearing on the suspension of registration under that section.
</P>
<P>(c) Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence, but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.54" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.54   Waiver or modification of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator or the presiding officer (with respect to matters pending before him) may modify or waive any rule in this part by notice in advance of the hearing, if he determines that no party in the hearing will be unduly prejudiced and the ends of justice will thereby be served. Such notice of modification or waiver shall be made a part of the record of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.56" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.56   Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any applicant or registrant entitled to a hearing under § 1315.52 and who desires a hearing on the issuance, adjustment, suspension or denial of a procurement, import, or individual manufacturing quota must, within 30 days after the date of receipt of the issuance, adjustment, suspension or denial of the application, file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested person who desires a hearing on the determination of an assessment of annual needs must, within the time prescribed in § 1315.11(c), file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter, including in the request a statement of the grounds for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) Any interested person who desires to participate in a hearing on the determination or adjustment of an assessment of annual needs, which hearing is ordered by the Administrator under § 1315.11(c) or § 1315.13(c), may do so by filing with the Administrator, within 30 days of the date of publication of notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a written notice of his intention to participate in the hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.48 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person entitled to a hearing under § 1315.52 or entitled to participate in a hearing under paragraph (c) of this section may, within the period permitted for filing a request for a hearing or notice of appearance, file with the Administrator a waiver of an opportunity for a hearing, together with a written statement regarding his position on the matters of fact and law involved in such hearing. The statement, if admissible, shall be made a part of the record and shall be considered in light of the lack of opportunity for cross-examination in determining the weight to be attached to matters of fact asserted.
</P>
<P>(e) If any person entitled to a hearing under § 1315.52 or entitled to participate in a hearing under paragraph (c) of this section fails to file a request for a hearing or notice of appearance or if he so files and fails to appear at the hearing, he shall be deemed to have waived his opportunity for the hearing unless he shows good cause for such failure.
</P>
<P>(f) If all persons entitled to a hearing or to participate in a hearing waive or are deemed to waive their opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, the Administrator may cancel the hearing, if scheduled, and issue his final order under § 1315.62 without a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.58" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.58   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any hearing regarding the determination or adjustment of an assessment of annual needs each interested person participating in the hearing shall have the burden of proving any propositions of fact or law asserted by him in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) At any hearing regarding the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of a procurement, import, or individual manufacturing quota, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements of this part for such issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial are satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.60" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.60   Time and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any applicant or registrant requests a hearing on the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of his procurement, import, or individual manufacturing quota under § 1315.54, the Administrator shall hold a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Notice of the hearing shall be given to the applicant or registrant of the time and place at least 30 days prior to the hearing, unless the applicant or registrant waives such notice and requests the hearing be held at an earlier time, in which case the Administrator shall fix a date for such hearing as early as reasonably possible.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing shall commence at the place and time designated in the notice given under paragraph (b) of this section or in the notice of hearing published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to § 1315.11(c) or § 1315.13(c), but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement by the presiding officer at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1315.62" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.16.5.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1315.62   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall issue his order on the determination or adjustment of the assessment of annual needs or on the issuance, adjustment, suspension, or denial of the procurement, import, or individual manufacturing quota, as the case may be. The order shall include the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. The order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall serve one copy of his order upon each party in the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1316" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1316—ADMINISTRATIVE FUNCTIONS, PRACTICES, AND PROCEDURES 
</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Administrative Inspections</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 822(f), 830(a), 871(b), 880, 958(f), 965.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1316.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.01   Scope of subpart A.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures regarding administrative inspections and warrants pursuant to sections 302(f), 510, 1008(d), and 1015 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822(f), 880, 958(d), and 965) are governed generally by those sections and specifically by the sections of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meanings specified: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Act</I> means the Controlled Substances Act (84 Stat. 1242; 21 U.S.C. 801) and/or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (84 Stat. 1285; 21 U.S.C. 951). 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Administration</I> means the Drug Enforcement Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>controlled premises</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Places where original or other records or documents required under the Act are kept or required to be kept, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Places, including factories, warehouses, or other establishments and conveyances, where persons registered under the Act or exempted from registration under the Act, or regulated persons may lawfully hold, manufacture, or distribute, dispense, administer, or otherwise dispose of controlled substances or listed chemicals or where records relating to those activities are maintained.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Administration. The Administrator has been delegated authority under the Act by the Attorney General (28 CFR 0.100). 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>inspector</I> means an officer or employee of the Administration authorized by the Administrator to make inspections under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>register</I> and <I>registration</I> refer to registration required and permitted by sections 303 and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823 and 958). 
</P>
<P>(g) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 60 FR 32465, June 22, 1995; 60 FR 36334, July 14, 1995; 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.03   Authority to make inspections.</HEAD>
<P>In carrying out his functions under the Act, the Administrator, through his inspectors, is authorized in accordance with sections 510 and 1015 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 880 and 965) to enter controlled premises and conduct administrative inspections thereof, for the purpose of: 
</P>
<P>(a) Inspecting, copying, and verifying the correctness of records, reports, or other documents required to be kept or made under the Act and regulations promulgated under the Act, including, but not limited to, inventory and other records required to be kept pursuant to part 1304 of this chapter, order form records required to be kept pursuant to part 1305 of this chapter, prescription and distribution records required to be kept pursuant to part 1306 of this chapter, records of listed chemicals, tableting machines, and encapsulating machines required to be kept pursuant to part 1310 of this chapter, import/export records of listed chemicals required to be kept pursuant to part 1313 of this chapter, shipping records identifying the name of each carrier used and the date and quantity of each shipment, and storage records identifying the name of each warehouse used and the date and quantity of each storage.
</P>
<P>(b) Inspecting within reasonable limits and to a reasonable manner all pertinent equipment, finished and unfinished controlled substances, listed chemicals, and other substances or materials, containers, and labeling found at the controlled premises relating to this Act;
</P>
<P>(c) Making a physical inventory of all controlled substances and listed chemicals on-hand at the premises;
</P>
<P>(d) Collecting samples of controlled substances or listed chemicals (in the event any samples are collected during an inspection, the inspector shall issue a receipt for such samples on DEA Form 400 to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the premises);
</P>
<P>(e) Checking of records and information on distribution of controlled substances or listed chemicals by the registrant or regulated person (<I>i.e.</I>, has the distribution of controlled substances or listed chemicals increased markedly within the past year, and if so why);
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided in § 1316.04, all other things therein (including records, files, papers, processes, controls and facilities) appropriate for verification of the records, reports, documents referred to above or otherwise bearing on the provisions of the Act and the regulations thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 51 FR 5319, Feb. 13, 1986; 55 FR 50827, Dec. 11, 1990; 60 FR 32465, June 22, 1995; 77 FR 4238, Jan. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.04   Exclusion from inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the owner, operator or agent in charge of the controlled premises so consents in writing, no inspection authorized by these regulations shall extend to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Financial data: 
</P>
<P>(2) Sales data other than shipping data; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Pricing data. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.05   Entry.</HEAD>
<P>An inspection shall be carried out by an inspector. Any such inspector, upon (a) stating his purpose and (b) presenting to the owner, operator or agent in charge of the premises to be inspected (1) appropriate credentials, and (2) written notice of his inspection authority under § 1316.06 of this chapter, and (c) receiving informed consent under § 1316.08 or through the use of administrative warrant issued under §§ 1316.09-1316.13, shall have the right to enter such premises and conduct inspections at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13387, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973; 62 FR 13970, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.06   Notice of inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The notice of inspection (DEA (or DNB) Form 82) shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(a) The name and title of the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises; 
</P>
<P>(b) The controlled premises name; 
</P>
<P>(c) The address of the controlled premises to be inspected; 
</P>
<P>(d) The date and time of the inspection; 
</P>
<P>(e) A statement that a notice of inspection is given pursuant to section 510 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 880); 
</P>
<P>(f) A reproduction of the pertinent parts of section 510 of the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(g) The signature of the inspector. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.07" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.07   Requirement for administrative inspection warrant; exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>In all cases where an inspection is contemplated, an administrative inspection warrant is required pursuant to section 510 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 880), except that such warrant shall not be required for establishments applying for initial registration under the Act, for the inspection of books and records pursuant to an administrative subpoena issued in accordance with section 506 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 876) nor for entries in administrative inspections (including seizures of property): 
</P>
<P>(a) With the consent of the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises as set forth in § 1316.08; 
</P>
<P>(b) In situations presenting imminent danger to health or safety; 
</P>
<P>(c) In situations involving inspection of conveyances where there is reasonable cause to obtain a warrant; 
</P>
<P>(d) In any other exceptional or emergency circumstance or time or opportunity to apply for a warrant is lacking; or 
</P>
<P>(e) In any other situations where a warrant is not constitutionally required. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.08" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.08   Consent to inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An administrative inspection warrant shall not be required if informed consent is obtained from the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises to be inspected. 
</P>
<P>(b) Wherever possible, informed consent shall consist of a written statement signed by the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the premises to be inspected and witnessed by two persons. The written consent shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) That he (the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the premises) has been informed of his constitutional right not to have an administrative inspection made without an administrative inspection warrant; 
</P>
<P>(2) That he has right to refuse to consent to such an inspection; 
</P>
<P>(3) That anything of an incriminating nature which may be found may be seized and used against him in a criminal prosecution; 
</P>
<P>(4) That he has been presented with a notice of inspection as set forth in § 1316.06; 
</P>
<P>(5) That the consent is given by him is voluntary and without threats of any kind; and 
</P>
<P>(6) That he may withdraw his consent at any time during the course of inspection. 
</P>
<P>(c) The written consent shall be produced in duplicate and be distributed as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) The original will be retained by the inspector; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The duplicate will be given to the person inspected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15924, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.09" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.09   Application for administrative inspection warrant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An administrative inspection warrant application shall be submitted to any judge of the United States or of a State court of record, or any United States magistrate and shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the controlled premises to be inspected; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of statutory authority for the administrative inspection warrant, and that the fact that the particular inspection in question is designed to insure compliance with the Act and the regulations promulgated thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement relating to the nature and extent of the administrative inspection, including, where necessary, a request to seize specified items and/or to collect samples of finished or unfinished controlled substances or listed chemicals;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the establishment either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has not been previously inspected, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Was last inspected on a particular date. 
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall be submitted under oath to an appropriate judge or magistrate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13387, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973; 60 FR 32466, June 22, 1995] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.10" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.10   Administrative probable cause.</HEAD>
<P>If the judge or magistrate is satisfied that “administrative probable cause,” as defined in section 510(d)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 880(d)(1)) exists, he shall issue an administrative warrant. Administrative probable cause shall not mean criminal probable cause as defined by Federal statute or case law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.11" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.11   Execution of warrants.</HEAD>
<P>An administrative inspection warrant shall be executed and returned as required by, and any inventory or seizure made shall comply with the requirements of, section 510(d)(3) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 880(d)(3)). The inspection shall begin as soon as is practicable after the issuance of the administrative inspection warrant and shall be completed with reasonable promptness. The inspection shall be conducted during regular business hours and shall be completed in a reasonable manner. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.12" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.12   Refusal to allow inspection with an administrative warrant.</HEAD>
<P>If a registrant or any person subject to the Act refuses to permit execution of an administrative warrant or impedes the inspector in the execution of that warrant, he shall be advised that such refusal or action constitutes a violation of section 402(a)(6) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 842(a)(6)). If he persists and the circumstances warrant, he shall be arrested and the inspection shall commence or continue. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13970, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.13" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.1.53.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.13   Frequency of administrative inspections.</HEAD>
<P>Except where circumstances otherwise dictate, it is the intent of the Administration to inspect all manufacturers of controlled substances listed in Schedules I and II and distributors of controlled substances listed in Schedule I once each year. Distributors of controlled substances listed in Schedules II through V and manufacturers of controlled substances listed in Schedules III through V shall be inspected as circumstances may require, based in part on the registrant's history of compliance with the requirements of this chapter and maintenance of effective controls and procedures to guard against the diversion of controlled substances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Protection of Researchers and Research Subjects</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 830, 871(b).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1316.21" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.2.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.21   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the following terms shall have the meanings specified:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>investigative personnel</I> includes managers, Diversion Investigators, attorneys, analysts and support personnel employed by the Drug Enforcement Administration who are involved in the processing, reviewing and analyzing of declarations and other relevant documents or data relative to regulated transactions or are involved in conducting investigations initiated pursuant to the receipt of such declarations, documents or data.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>law enforcement personnel</I> means Special Agents employed by the Drug Enforcement Administration who, in the course of their official duties, gain knowledge of information which is confidential under such section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31670, Aug. 1, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.22" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.2.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.22   Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is aggrieved by a disclosure of information in violation of subsection (c)(1) of Section 310 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 830) may bring a civil action against the violator for appropriate relief.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provision of paragraph (a), a civil action may not be brought under such paragraph against investigative or law enforcement personnel of the Drug Enforcement Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31670, Aug. 1, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.23" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.2.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.23   Confidentiality of identity of research subjects.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person conducting a bona fide research project directly related to the enforcement of the laws under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General concerning drugs or other substances which are or may be subject to control under the Controlled Substances Act (84 Stat. 1242; 21 U.S.C. 801) who intends to maintain the confidentiality of the identity of those persons who are the subjects of such research may petition the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration for a grant of confidentiality: <I>Providing,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Attorney General is authorized to carry out such research under the provisions of Section 502(a) (2-6) of the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 (21 U.S.C. 872(a) (2-6)); and the research is being conducted with funds provided in whole or part by the Department of Justice; or
</P>
<P>(2) The research is of a nature that the Attorney General would be authorized to carry out under the provisions of Section 502(a) (2-6) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 872(a) (2-6), and is being conducted with funds provided from sources outside the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(b) All petitions for Grants of Confidentiality shall be addressed to the Administrator, Drug Enforcement Administration (see the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address):
</P>
<P>(1) A statement as to whether the research protocol requires the manufacture, production, import, export, distribution, dispensing, administration, or possession of controlled substances, and if so the researcher's registration number or a statement that an application for such registration has been submitted to DEA;
</P>
<P>(2) The location of the research project;
</P>
<P>(3) The qualifications of the principal investigator;
</P>
<P>(4) A general description of the research or a copy of the research protocol;
</P>
<P>(5) The source of funding for the research project;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement as to the risks posed to the research subjects by the research procedures and what protection will be afforded to the research subjects;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement as to the risks posed to society in general by the research procedures and what measures will be taken to protect the interests of society;
</P>
<P>(8) A specific request to withhold the names and/or any other identifying characteristics of the research subjects; and
</P>
<P>(9) Statements establishing that a grant of confidentiality is necessary to the successful completion of the research project.
</P>
<P>(c) The grant of confidentiality of identity of research subjects shall consist of a letter issued by the Administrator, which shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The researcher's name and address.
</P>
<P>(2) The researcher's registration number, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) The title and purpose of the research.
</P>
<P>(4) The location of the research project.
</P>
<P>(5) An authorization for all persons engaged in the research to withhold the names and identifying characteristics of persons who are the subjects of such research, stating that persons who obtain this authorization may not be compelled in any Federal, State, or local civil, criminal, administrative, legislative, or other proceeding to identify the subjects of such research for which this authorization was obtained.
</P>
<P>(6) The limits of this authorization, if any.
</P>
<P>(7) A statement to the effect that the grant of confidentiality of identity of research subjects shall be perpetual but shall pertain only to the subjects of the research described in the research protocol, the description of the research submitted to DEA, or as otherwise established by DEA.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 30 days of the date of completion of the research project, the researcher shall so notify the Administrator. The Administrator shall issue another letter including the information required in paragraph (c) of this section and stating the starting and finishing dates of the research for which the confidentiality of identity of research subjects was granted; upon receipt of this letter, the research shall return the original letter of exemption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 54946, Oct. 12, 1977. Redesignated at 54 FR 31670, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 62 FR 13970, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10685, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.24" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.2.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.24   Exemption from prosecution for researchers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon registration of an individual to engage in research in controlled substances under the Controlled Substances Act (84 Stat. 1242; 21 U.S.C. 801), the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration, on his own motion or upon request in writing from the Secretary or from the researcher or researching practitioner, may exempt the registrant when acting within the scope of his registration, from prosecution under Federal, State, or local laws for offenses relating to possession, distribution or dispensing of those controlled substances within the scope of his exemption. However, this exemption does not diminish any requirement of compliance with the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301).
</P>
<P>(b) All petitions for Grants of Exemption from Prosecution for the Researcher shall be addressed to the Administrator, Drug Enforcement Administration, (see the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address) and shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The researcher's registration number if any, for the project;
</P>
<P>(2) The location of the research project;
</P>
<P>(3) The qualifications of the principal investigator;
</P>
<P>(4) A general description of the research or a copy of the research protocol;
</P>
<P>(5) The source of funding for the research project;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement as to the risks posed to the research subjects by the research procedures and what protection will be afforded to the research subjects;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement as to the risks posed to society in general by the research procedures and what measures will be taken to protect the interests of society;
</P>
<P>(8) A specific request for exemption from prosecution by Federal, State, or local authorities for offenses related to the possession, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances in accord with the procedures described in the research protocol;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement establishing that a grant of exemption from prosecution is necessary to the successful completion of the research project.
</P>
<P>(c) Any researcher or practitioner proposing to engage in research requesting both exemption from prosecution and confidentiality of identity of research subjects may submit a single petition incorporating the information required in §§ 1316.23(b) and 1316.24(b).
</P>
<P>(d) The exemption shall consist of a letter issued by the Administrator, which shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The researcher's name and address;
</P>
<P>(2) The researcher's registration number for the research project;
</P>
<P>(3) The location of the research project;
</P>
<P>(4) A concise statement of the scope of the researcher's registration;
</P>
<P>(5) Any limits of the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that the exemption shall apply to all acts done in the scope of the exemption while the exemption is in effect. The exemption shall remain in effect until completion of the research project or until the registration of the researcher is either revoked or suspended or his renewal of registration is denied. However, the protection afforded by the grant of exemption from prosecution during the research period shall be perpetual.
</P>
<P>(e) Within 30 days of the date of completion of the research project, the researcher shall so notify the Administrator. The Administrator shall issue another letter including the information required in paragraph (d) of this section and stating the date of which the period of exemption concluded; upon receipt of this letter the researcher shall return the original letter of exemption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 54946, Oct. 12, 1977. Redesignated at 54 FR 31670, Aug. 1, 1989, as amended at 62 FR 13970, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10685, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Enforcement Proceedings</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 871(b), 883. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1316.31" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.3.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.31   Authority for enforcement proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>A hearing may be ordered or granted by any Special Agent in Charge of the Drug Enforcement Administration, at his discretion, to permit any person against whom criminal and/or civil action is contemplated under the Controlled Substances Act (84 Stat. 1242; 21 U.S.C. 801) or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (84 Stat. 1285; 21 U.S.C. 951) an opportunity to present his views and his proposals for bringing his alleged violations into compliance with the law. Such hearing will also permit him to show cause why prosecution should not be instituted, or to present his views on the contemplated proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 47 FR 41735, Sept. 22, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.32" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.3.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.32   Notice of proceeding; time and place.</HEAD>
<P>Appropriate notice designating the time and place for the hearing shall be given to the person. Upon request, timely and properly made, by the person to whom notice has been given, the time or place of the hearing, or both, may be changed if the request states reasonable grounds for such change. Such request shall be addressed to the Special Agent in Charge who issued the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 47 FR 41735, Sept. 22, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.33" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.3.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.33   Conduct of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Presentation of views at a hearing under this subpart shall be private and informal. The views presented shall be confined to matters relevant to bringing violations into compliance with the Act or to other contemplated proceedings under the Act. These views may be presented orally or in writing by the person to whom the notice was given, or by his authorized representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.34" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.3.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.34   Records of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>A formal record, either verbatim or summarized, of the hearing may be made at the discretion of the Special Agent in Charge. If a verbatim record is to be made, the person attending the hearing will be so advised prior to the start of the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 15924, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 47 FR 41735, Sept. 22, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Hearings</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 811, 812, 871(b), 875, 958(d), 965. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1316.41" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.41   Scope of subpart D.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures in any administrative hearing held under the Act are governed generally by the rule making and/or adjudication procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by the procedures set forth in this subpart, except where more specific regulations (set forth in §§ 1301.51-1301.57, §§ 1303.31-1303.37, §§ 1308.41-1308.51, §§ 1311.51-1311.53, §§ 1312.41-1312.47, §§ 1313.51-1313.57, or §§ 1315.50-1315.62) apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 73556, Dec. 3, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.42" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.42   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meanings specified: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Act</I> means the Controlled Substances Act (84 Stat. 1242; 21 U.S.C. 801) and/or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (84 Stat. 1285; 21 U.S.C. 951). 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Administration. The Administrator has been delegated authority under the Act by the Attorney General (28 CFR 0.100). 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>hearing</I> means any hearing held pursuant to the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>Hearing Clerk</I> means the hearing clerk of the Administration. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>person</I> includes an individual, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, partnership, association or other legal entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>presiding officer</I> means an administrative law judge qualified and appointed as provided in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 556). 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>proceeding</I> means all actions involving a hearing, commencing with the publication by the Administrator of the notice of proposed rulemaking or the issuance of an order to show cause.
</P>
<P>(h) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 38 FR 757, Jan. 4, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13969, Mar. 24, 1997; 77 FR 4238, Jan. 27, 2012] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.43" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.43   Information; special instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Information regarding procedure under these rules and instructions supplementing these rules in special instances will be furnished by the Hearing Clerk upon request. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.44" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.44   Waiver or modification of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator or the presiding officer (with respect to matters pending before him) may modify or waive any rule in this subpart by notice in advance of the hearing, if he determines that no party in the hearing will be unduly prejudiced and the ends of justice will thereby be served. Such notice of modification or waiver shall be made a part of the record of the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.45" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.45   Filings; address; hours.</HEAD>
<P>Documents required or permitted to be filed in, and correspondence relating to, hearings governed by the regulations in this chapter shall be filed with the Hearing Clerk, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. This office is open Monday through Friday from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. eastern standard or daylight saving time, whichever is effective in the District of Columbia at the time, except on national legal holidays. Documents shall be dated and deemed filed upon receipt by the Hearing Clerk.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10685, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.46" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.46   Inspection of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The record bearing on any proceeding, except for material described in subsection (b) of this section, shall be available for inspection and copying by any person entitled to participate in such proceeding, during office hours in the office of the Hearing Clerk, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
</P>
<P>(b) The following material shall not be available for inspection as part of the record: 
</P>
<P>(1) A research protocol filed with an application for registration to conduct research with controlled substances listed in Schedule I, pursuant to § 1301.32 (a)(6) of this chapter, if the applicant requests that the protocol be kept confidential; 
</P>
<P>(2) An outline of a production or manufacturing process filed with an application for registration to manufacture a new narcotic controlled substance, pursuant to § 1301.33 of this chapter, if the applicant requests that the outline be kept confidential; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any confidential or trade secret information disclosed in conjunction with an application for registration, or in reports filed while registered, or acquired in the course of an investigation, entitled to protection under subsection 402(a) (8) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 842(a) (8)) or any other law restricting public disclosure of information; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any material contained in any investigatory report, memorandum, or file, or case report compiled by the Administration. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13970, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10645, Mar. 9, 2010]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.47" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.47   Request for hearing; answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entitled to a hearing and desiring a hearing shall, within the period permitted for filing, file a request for a hearing that complies with the following format (see the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Hearing Clerk/OALJ
</FP>
<FP-DASH>(Mailing Address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Subject: Request for Hearing
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>The undersigned ___ (Name of the Person) hereby requests a hearing in the matter of: ___ (Identification of the proceeding).
</P>
<P>(State with particularity the interest of the person in the proceeding.)
</P>
<P>All notices to be sent pursuant to the proceeding should be addressed to:
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Name)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Street Address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(City and State)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Respectfully yours,
</FP>
<FP-DASH>(Signature of Person)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) A party shall file an answer as required under §§ 1301.37(d) or 1309.46(d) of this chapter, as applicable. The presiding officer, upon request and a showing of good cause, may grant a reasonable extension of the time allowed for filing the answer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 68045, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.48" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.48   Notice of appearance.</HEAD>
<P>Any person entitled to a hearing and desiring to appear in any hearing, shall, if he or she has not filed a request for hearing, file within the time specified in the notice of proposed rulemaking, a written notice of appearance in the following format (see the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Hearing Clerk/OALJ
</FP>
<FP-DASH>(Mailing Address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Subject: Notice of Appearance
</FP>
<FP>Dear Sir:
</FP>
<P>Please take notice that _____________ (Name of person) will appear in the matter of: _____________ (Identification of the proceeding).
</P>
<P>(A) (State with particularity the interest of the person in the proceeding.).
</P>
<P>(B) (State with particularity the objections or issues, if any, concerning which the person desires to be heard.).
</P>
<P>(C) (State briefly the position of the person with regard to the particular objections or issues.).
</P>
<P>All notices to be sent pursuant to this appearance should be addressed to:
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Name)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Street Address)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(City and State)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Respectfully yours,
</FP>
<FP-DASH>(Signature of Person)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 97041, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.49" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.49   Waiver of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>In proceedings other than those conducted under part 1301 or part 1309 of this chapter, any person entitled to a hearing may, within the period permitted for filing a request for hearing or notice of appearance, file with the Administrator a waiver of an opportunity for a hearing, together with a written statement regarding his position on the matters of fact and law involved in such hearing. Such statement, if admissible, shall be made a part of the record and shall be considered in light of the lack of opportunity for cross-examination in determining the weight to be attached to matters of fact asserted therein. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 87 FR 68045, Nov. 14, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.50" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.50   Appearance; representation; authorization.</HEAD>
<P>Any person entitled to appear in a hearing may appear in person or by a representative in any proceeding or hearing and may be heard with respect to matters relevant to the issues under consideration. A representative must either be an employee of the person or an attorney at law who is a member of the bar, in good standing, of any State, territory, or the District of Columbia, and admitted to practice before the highest court of that jurisdiction. Any representative may be required by the Administrator or the presiding officer to present a notarized power of attorney showing his authority to act in such representative capacity and/or an affidavit or certificate of admission to practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13387, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.51" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.51   Conduct of hearing and parties; ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hearings shall be conducted in an informal but orderly manner in accordance with law and the directions of the presiding officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) Participants in any hearing and their representatives, whether or not members of the bar, shall conduct themselves in accordance with judicial standards of practice and ethics and the directions of the presiding officer. Refusal to comply with this section shall constitute grounds for immediate exclusion from any hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) If any official of the Administration is contacted by any individual in private or public life concerning any substantive matter which is the subject of any hearing, at any time after the date on which the proceedings commence, the official who is contacted shall prepare a memorandum setting forth the substance of the conversation and shall file this memorandum in the appropriate public docket file. The presiding officer and employees of the Administration shall comply with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 554(d) regarding ex parte communications and participation in any hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.52" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.52   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>A presiding officer, designated by the Administrator, shall preside over all hearings. The functions of the presiding officer shall commence upon his designation and terminate upon the certification of the record to the Administrator. The presiding officer shall have the duty to conduct a fair hearing, to take all necessary action to avoid delay, and to maintain order. He shall have all powers necessary to these ends, including (but not limited to) the power to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Arrange and change the date, time, and place of hearings (other than the time and place prescribed in § 1301.56) and prehearing conferences and issue notice thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) Hold conferences to settle, simplify, or determine the issues in a hearing, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Require parties to state their position in writing with respect to the various issues in the hearing and to exchange such statements with all other parties. 
</P>
<P>(d) Sign and issue subpoenas to compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents and materials to the extent necessary to conduct administrative hearings pending before him.
</P>
<P>(e) Examine witnesses and direct witnesses to testify. 
</P>
<P>(f) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence. 
</P>
<P>(g) Rule on procedural items pending before him. 
</P>
<P>(h) Take any action permitted to the presiding officer as authorized by this part or by the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 42 FR 57457, Nov. 3, 1977; 62 FR 13970, Mar. 24, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.53" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.53   Time and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing will commence at the place and time designated in the notice of hearing published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement thereof by the presiding officer at the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.54" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.54   Prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer on his own motion, or on the motion of any party for good cause shown, may direct all parties to appear at a specified time and place for a conference for: 
</P>
<P>(a) The simplification of the issues. 
</P>
<P>(b) The possibility of obtaining stipulations, admission of facts, and documents. 
</P>
<P>(c) The possibility of limiting the number of expert witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(d) The identification and, if practicable, the scheduling of all witnesses to be called. 
</P>
<P>(e) The advance submission at the prehearing conference of all documentary evidence and affidavits to be marked for identification. 
</P>
<P>(f) Such other matters as may aid in the expeditious disposition of the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.55" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.55   Prehearing ruling.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer may have the prehearing conference reported verbatim and shall make a ruling reciting the action taken at the conference, the agreements made by the parties, the schedule of witnesses, and a statement of the issues for hearing. Such ruling shall control the subsequent course of the hearing unless modified by a subsequent ruling. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.56" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.56   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>At any hearing, the proponent for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule shall have the burden of proof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.57" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.57   Submission of documentary evidence and affidavits and identification of witnesses subsequent to prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>All documentary evidence and affidavits not submitted and all witnesses not identified at the prehearing conference shall be submitted or identified to the presiding officer as soon as possible, with a showing that the offering party had good cause for failing to so submit or identify at the prehearing conference. If the presiding officer determines that good cause does exist, the documents or affidavits shall be submitted or witnesses identified to all parties sufficiently in advance of the offer of such documents or affidavits or witnesses at the hearing to avoid prejudice or surprise to the other parties. If the presiding officer determines that good cause does not exist, he may refuse to admit as evidence such documents or affidavits or the testimony of such witnesses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.58" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.58   Summary of testimony; affidavits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer may direct that summaries of the direct testimony of witnesses be prepared in writing and served on all parties in advance of the hearing. Witnesses will not be permitted to read summaries of their testimony into the record and all witnesses shall be available for cross-examination. Each witness shall, before proceeding to testify, be sworn or make affirmation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Affidavits submitted at the prehearing conference or pursuant to § 1316.57 with good cause may be examined by all parties and opposing affidavits may be submitted to the presiding officer within a period of time fixed by him. Affidavits admitted into evidence shall be considered in light of the lack of opportunity for cross-examination in determining the weight to be attached to statements made therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13387, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.59" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.59   Submission and receipt of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall admit only evidence that is competent, relevant, material and not unduly repetitious. 
</P>
<P>(b) Opinion testimony shall be admitted when the presiding officer is satisfied that the witness is properly qualified. 
</P>
<P>(c) The authenticity of all documents submitted in advance shall be deemed admitted unless written objection thereto is filed with the presiding officer, except that a party will be permitted to challenge such authenticity at a later time upon a showing of good cause for failure to have filed such written objection. 
</P>
<P>(d) Samples, if otherwise admissible into evidence, may be displayed at the hearing and may be described for purposes of the record, or may be admitted in evidence as exhibits. 
</P>
<P>(e) Where official notice is taken or is to be taken of a material fact not appearing in the evidence of record, any party, on timely request, shall be afforded opportunity to controvert such fact. 
</P>
<P>(f) The presiding officer shall file as exhibits copies of the following documents: 
</P>
<P>(1) The order to show cause or notice of hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any notice of waiver or modification of rules made pursuant to § 1316.44 or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any waiver of hearing (together with any statement filed therewith) filed pursuant to § 1316.49 or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(4) The prehearing ruling, if any, made pursuant to § 1316.55; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other document necessary to show the basis for the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.60" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.60   Objections; offer of proof.</HEAD>
<P>If any party in the hearing objects to the admission or rejection of any evidence or to other limitation of the scope of any examination or cross-examination, he shall state briefly the grounds for such objection without extended argument or debate thereon except as permitted by the presiding officer. A ruling of the presiding officer on any such objection shall be a part of the transcript together with such offer of proof as has been made if a proper foundation has been laid for its admission. An offer of proof made in connection with an objection taken to any ruling of the presiding officer rejecting or excluding proffered oral testimony shall consist of a statement of the substance of the evidence which the party contends would be adduced by such testimony; and, if the excluded evidence consists of evidence in documentary or written form a copy of such evidence shall be marked for identification and shall accompany the records as the offer of proof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.61" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.61   Exceptions to rulings.</HEAD>
<P>Exceptions to rulings of the presiding officer are unnecessary. It is sufficient that a party, at the time the ruling of the presiding officer is sought, makes known the action that he desires the presiding officer to take, or his objection to an action taken, and his grounds therefor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.62" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.62   Interlocutory appeals from rulings of the presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>Rulings of the presiding officer may not be appealed to the Administrator prior to his consideration of the entire hearing without first requesting the consent of the presiding officer. Within ten (10) business days of receipt of a party's request for such consent, the presiding officer shall certify on the record or in writing his determination of whether the allowance of an interlocutory appeal is clearly necessary to prevent exceptional delay, expense or prejudice to any party, or substantial detriment to the public interest. If the presiding officer denies an interlocutory appeal, he shall, within three (3) business days, transmit his determination and the parties' filings related to the interlocutory appeal to the Administrator for the Administrator's discretionary review. If an interlocutory appeal is allowed by the presiding officer or if the Administrator determines that an appeal is warranted under this section, any party to the hearing may file a brief in quintuplicate with the Administrator within such period that the Administrator directs. No oral argument will be heard unless the Administrator directs otherwise.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18140, Apr. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.63" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.63   Official transcript; index; corrections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Testimony given at a hearing shall be reported verbatim. The Administration will make provision for a stenographic record of the testimony and for such copies of the transcript thereof as it requires for its own purpose. 
</P>
<P>(b) At the close of the hearing, the presiding officer shall afford the parties and witnesses time (not longer than 30 days, except in unusual cases) in which to submit written proposed corrections of the transcript, pointing out errors that may have been made in transcribing the testimony. The presiding officer shall promptly thereafter order such corrections made as in his judgment are required to make the transcript conform to the testimony.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 13387, July 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 50 FR 2046, Jan. 15, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.64" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.64   Proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.</HEAD>
<P>Any party in the hearing may file in quintuplicate proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law within the time fixed by the presiding officer. Any party so filing shall also serve one copy of his proposed findings and conclusion upon each other party in the hearing. The party shall include a statement of supporting reasons for the proposed findings and conclusions, together with evidence of record (including specific and complete citations of the pages of the transcript and exhibits) and citations of authorities relied upon. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.65" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.65   Report and record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As soon as practicable after the time for the parties to file proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law has expired, the presiding officer shall prepare a report containing the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) His recommended rulings on the proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(2) His recommended findings of fact and conclusions of law, with the reasons therefore; and 
</P>
<P>(3) His recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer shall serve a copy of his report upon each party in the hearing. The report shall be considered to have been served when it is mailed to such party or its attorney of record. 
</P>
<P>(c) Not less than twenty-five days after the date on which he caused copies of his report to be served upon the parties, the presiding officer shall certify to the Administrator the record, which shall contain the transcript of testimony, exhibits, the findings of fact and conclusions of law proposed by the parties, the presiding officer's report, and any exceptions thereto which may have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7778, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973 and amended at 44 FR 55332, Sept. 26, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.66" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.66   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within twenty days after the date upon which a party is served a copy of the report of the presiding officer, such party may file with the Hearing Clerk, Office of the Administrative Law Judge, exceptions to the recommended decision, findings of fact and conclusions of law contained in the report. The party shall include a statement of supporting reasons for such exceptions, together with evidence of record (including specific and complete citations of the pages of the transcript and exhibits) and citations of the authorities relied upon. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Hearing Clerk shall cause such filings to become part of the record of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrative Law Judge may, upon the request of any party to a proceeding, grant time beyond the twenty days provided in paragraph (a) of this section for the filing of a response to the exceptions filed by another party if he determines that no party in the hearing will be unduly prejudiced and that the ends of justice will be served thereby. Provided however, that each party shall be entitled to only one filing under this section; that is, either a set of exceptions or a response thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 55332, Sept. 26, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.67" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.67   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> his final order in the proceeding, which shall set forth the final rule and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the rule is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect, which date shall not be less than 30 days from the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless the Administrator finds that the public interest in the matter necessitates an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to the conditions which led him to conclude that an earlier effective date was required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 42179, July 19, 1979, as amended at 44 FR 55332, Sept. 26, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1316.68" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.17.4.53.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1316.68   Copies of petitions for judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Copies of petitions for judicial review, filed pursuant to section 507 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 877) shall be delivered to and served upon the Administrator in quintuplicate. The Administrator shall certify the record of the hearing and shall file the certified record in the appropriate U.S. Court of Appeals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 7820, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 44 FR 42179, July 19, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1317" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1317—DISPOSAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 821, 822, 823, 827, 828, 871(b), and 958.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 53565, Sept. 9, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1317.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.0.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.01   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the rules for the delivery, collection, and destruction of damaged, expired, returned, recalled, unused, or otherwise unwanted controlled substances that are lawfully possessed by registrants (subpart A) and non-registrants (subpart B). The purpose of such rules is to provide prompt, safe, and effective disposal methods while providing effective controls against the diversion of controlled substances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Disposal of Controlled Substances by Registrants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.1.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.05   Registrant disposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Practitioner inventory.</I> Any registered practitioner in lawful possession of a controlled substance in its inventory that desires to dispose of that substance shall do so in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly destroy that controlled substance in accordance with subpart C of this part using an on-site method of destruction;
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly deliver that controlled substance to a reverse distributor's registered location by common or contract carrier pick-up or by reverse distributor pick-up at the registrant's registered location;
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of return or recall, promptly deliver that controlled substance by common or contract carrier pick-up or pick-up by other registrants at the registrant's registered location to: The registered person from whom it was obtained, the registered manufacturer of the substance, or another registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept returns or recalls on the manufacturer's behalf; or
</P>
<P>(4) Request assistance from the Special Agent in Charge of the Administration in the area in which the practitioner is located.
</P>
<P>(i) The request shall be made by submitting one copy of the DEA Form 41 to the Special Agent in Charge in the practitioner's area. The DEA Form 41 shall list the controlled substance or substances which the registrant desires to dispose.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Special Agent in Charge shall instruct the registrant to dispose of the controlled substance in one of the following manners:
</P>
<P>(A) By transfer to a registrant authorized to transport or destroy the substance;
</P>
<P>(B) By delivery to an agent of the Administration or to the nearest office of the Administration; or
</P>
<P>(C) By destruction in the presence of an agent of the Administration or other authorized person.
</P>
<P>(5) In the event that a practitioner is required regularly to dispose of controlled substances, the Special Agent in Charge may authorize the practitioner to dispose of such substances, in accordance with subparagraph (a)(4) of this section, without prior application in each instance, on the condition that the practitioner keep records of such disposals and file periodic reports with the Special Agent in Charge summarizing the disposals. The Special Agent in Charge may place such conditions as he/she deems proper on practitioner procedures regarding the disposal of controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-practitioner inventory.</I> Any registrant that is a non-practitioner in lawful possession of a controlled substance in its inventory that desires to dispose of that substance shall do so in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly destroy that controlled substance in accordance with subpart C of this part using an on-site method of destruction;
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly deliver that controlled substance to a reverse distributor's registered location by common or contract carrier or by reverse distributor pick-up at the registrant's registered location;
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of return or recall, promptly deliver that controlled substance by common or contract carrier or pick-up at the registrant's registered location to: The registered person from whom it was obtained, the registered manufacturer of the substance, or another registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept returns or recalls on the manufacturer's behalf; or
</P>
<P>(4) Promptly transport that controlled substance by its own means to the registered location of a reverse distributor, the location of destruction, or the registered location of any person authorized to receive that controlled substance for the purpose of return or recall as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If a non-practitioner transports controlled substances by its own means to an unregistered location for destruction, the non-practitioner shall do so in accordance with the procedures set forth at § 1317.95(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a non-practitioner transports controlled substances by its own means to a registered location for any authorized purpose, transportation shall be directly to the authorized registered location and two employees of the transporting non-practitioner shall accompany the controlled substances to the registered destination location. Directly transported means the substances shall be constantly moving towards their final location and unnecessary or unrelated stops and stops of an extended duration shall not occur.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collected controlled substances.</I> Any collector in lawful possession of a controlled substance acquired by collection from an ultimate user or other authorized non-registrant person shall dispose of that substance in the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mail-back program.</I> Upon receipt of a sealed mail-back package, the collector shall promptly:
</P>
<P>(i) Destroy the package in accordance with subpart C of this part using an on-site method of destruction; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Securely store the package and its contents at the collector's registered location in a manner consistent with § 1301.75(c) of this chapter (for practitioners), or in a manner consistent with the security requirements for Schedule II controlled substances (for non-practitioners) until prompt on-site destruction can occur.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Collection receptacles.</I> Upon removal from the permanent outer container, the collector shall seal it and promptly:
</P>
<P>(i) Destroy the sealed inner liner and its contents;
</P>
<P>(ii) Securely store the sealed inner liner and its contents at the collector's registered location in a manner consistent with § 1301.75(c) of this chapter (for practitioners), or in a manner consistent with § 1301.72(a) of this chapter (for non-practitioners) until prompt destruction can occur; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Securely store the sealed inner liner and its contents at a long-term care facility in accordance with § 1317.80(d).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Practitioner methods of destruction.</I> Collectors that are practitioners (<I>i.e.</I>, retail pharmacies and hospitals/clinics) shall dispose of sealed inner liners and their contents by utilizing any method in paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section, or by delivering sealed inner liners and their contents to a distributor's registered location by common or contract carrier pick-up or by distributor pick-up at the collector's authorized collection location.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Non-practitioner methods of destruction.</I> Collectors that are non-practitioners (<I>i.e.</I>, manufacturers, distributors, narcotic treatment programs, and reverse distributors) shall dispose of sealed inner liners and their contents by utilizing any method in paragraph (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(4) of this section, or by delivering sealed inner liners and their contents to a distributor's registered location by common or contract carrier or by distributor pick-up at the collector's authorized collection location for destruction. Freight forwarding facilities may not be utilized to transfer sealed inner liners and their contents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.10" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.1.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.10   Registrant return or recall.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each registrant shall maintain a record of each return or recall transaction in accordance with the information required of manufacturers in § 1304.22(a)(2)(iv) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Each registrant that delivers a controlled substance in Schedule I or II for the purpose of return or recall shall use an order form in the manner described in part 1305 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Deliveries for the purpose of return or recall may be made through a freight forwarding facility operated by the person to whom the controlled substance is being returned provided that advance notice of the return is provided and delivery is directly to an agent or employee of the person to whom the controlled substance is being returned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.15" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.1.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.15   Reverse distributor registration requirements and authorized activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person that reverse distributes a controlled substance shall be registered with the Administration as a reverse distributor, unless exempted by law or otherwise authorized pursuant to this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A reverse distributor shall acquire controlled substances from a registrant pursuant to §§ 1317.05 and 1317.55(a) and (c) in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Pick-up controlled substances from a registrant at the registrant's registered location or authorized collection site; or
</P>
<P>(2) Receive controlled substances delivered by common or contract carrier or delivered directly by a non-practitioner registrant.
</P>
<P>(i) Delivery to the reverse distributor by an authorized registrant directly or by common or contract carrier may only be made to the reverse distributor at the reverse distributor's registered location. Once en route, such deliveries may not be re-routed to any other location or person, regardless of registration status.
</P>
<P>(ii) All controlled substance deliveries to a reverse distributor shall be personally received by an employee of the reverse distributor at the registered location.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon acquisition of a controlled substance by delivery or pick-up, a reverse distributor shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately store the controlled substance, in accordance with the security controls in parts 1301 and 1317 of this chapter, at the reverse distributor's registered location or immediately transfer the controlled substance to the reverse distributor's registered location for secure storage, in accordance with the security controls in parts 1301 and 1317 of this chapter, until timely destruction or prompt return of the controlled substance to the registered manufacturer or other registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept returns or recalls on the manufacturer's behalf;
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly deliver the controlled substance to the manufacturer or another registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept returns or recalls on the manufacturer's behalf; or
</P>
<P>(3) Timely destroy the controlled substance in a manner authorized in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) A reverse distributor shall destroy or cause the destruction of any controlled substance received for the purpose of destruction no later than 30 calendar days after receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Disposal of Controlled Substances Collected From Ultimate Users and Other Non-Registrants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.30" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.30   Authorization to collect from non-registrants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following persons are authorized to collect controlled substances from ultimate users and other non-registrants for destruction in compliance with this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Any registrant authorized by the Administration to be a collector pursuant to § 1317.40; and
</P>
<P>(2) Federal, State, tribal, or local law enforcement when in the course of official duties and pursuant to § 1317.35.
</P>
<P>(b) The following non-registrant persons in lawful possession of a controlled substance in Schedules II, III, IV, or V may transfer that substance to the authorized persons listed in paragraph (a) of this section, and in a manner authorized by this part, for the purpose of disposal:
</P>
<P>(1) An ultimate user in lawful possession of a controlled substance;
</P>
<P>(2) Any person lawfully entitled to dispose of a decedent's property if that decedent was an ultimate user who died while in lawful possession of a controlled substance; and
</P>
<P>(3) A long-term care facility on behalf of an ultimate user who resides or resided at such long-term care facility and is/was in lawful possession of a controlled substance, in accordance with § 1317.80 only.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.35" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.35   Collection by law enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal, State, tribal, or local law enforcement may collect controlled substances from ultimate users and persons lawfully entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property using the following collection methods:
</P>
<P>(1) Take-back events in accordance with § 1317.65;
</P>
<P>(2) Mail-back programs in accordance with § 1317.70; or
</P>
<P>(3) Collection receptacles located inside law enforcement's physical address.
</P>
<P>(b) Law enforcement that conducts a take-back event or a mail-back program or maintains a collection receptacle should maintain any records of removal, storage, or destruction of the controlled substances collected in a manner that is consistent with that agency's recordkeeping requirements for illicit controlled substances evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) Any controlled substances collected by law enforcement through a take-back event, mail-back program, or collection receptacle should be stored in a manner that prevents the diversion of controlled substances and is consistent with that agency's standard procedures for storing illicit controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(d) Any controlled substances collected by law enforcement through a take-back event, mail-back program, or collection receptacle should be transferred to a destruction location in a manner that prevents the diversion of controlled substances and is consistent with that agency's standard procedures for transferring illicit controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(e) Law enforcement that transfers controlled substances collected from ultimate users pursuant to this part to a reverse distributor for destruction should maintain a record that contains the following information: If a sealed inner liner as described in § 1317.60 is used, the unique identification number of the sealed inner liner transferred, and the size of the sealed inner liner transferred (e.g., 5-gallon, 10-gallon, etc.); if a mail-back package as described in § 1317.70 is used, the unique identification number of each package; the date of the transfer; and the name, address, and registration number of the reverse distributor to whom the controlled substances were transferred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.40" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.40   Registrants authorized to collect and authorized collection activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturers, distributors, reverse distributors, narcotic treatment programs, hospitals/clinics with an on-site pharmacy, and retail pharmacies that desire to be collectors shall modify their registration to obtain authorization to be a collector in accordance with § 1301.51 of this chapter. Authorization to be a collector is subject to renewal. If a registrant that is authorized to collect ceases activities as a collector, such registrant shall notify the Administration in accordance with § 1301.52(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Collection by registrants shall occur only at the following locations:
</P>
<P>(1) Those registered locations of manufacturers, distributors, reverse distributors, narcotic treatment programs, hospitals/clinics with an on-site pharmacy, and retail pharmacies that are authorized for collection; and
</P>
<P>(2) Long-term care facilities at which registered hospitals/clinics or retail pharmacies are authorized to maintain collection receptacles.
</P>
<P>(c) Collectors may conduct the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Receive and destroy mail-back packages pursuant to § 1317.70 at an authorized registered location that has an on-site method of destruction;
</P>
<P>(2) Install, manage, and maintain collection receptacles located at their authorized collection location(s) pursuant to §§ 1317.75 and 1317.80; and
</P>
<P>(3) Promptly dispose of sealed inner liners and their contents as provided for in § 1317.05(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.55" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.55   Reverse distributor and distributor acquisition of controlled substances from collectors or law enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reverse distributor is authorized to acquire controlled substances from law enforcement that collected the substances from ultimate users. A reverse distributor is authorized to acquire controlled substances collected through a collection receptacle in accordance with §§ 1317.75 and 1317.80.
</P>
<P>(b) A distributor is authorized to acquire controlled substances collected through a collection receptacle in accordance with §§ 1317.75 and 1317.80.
</P>
<P>(c) A reverse distributor or a distributor that acquires controlled substances in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Acquire the controlled substances in the manner authorized for reverse distributors in § 1317.15(b)(1) and (2);
</P>
<P>(2) Dispose of the controlled substances in the manner authorized for reverse distributors § 1317.15(c) and (d); and
</P>
<P>(3) Securely store the controlled substances in a manner consistent with the security requirements for Schedule II controlled substances until timely destruction can occur.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.60" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.60   Inner liner requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An inner liner shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The inner liner shall be waterproof, tamper-evident, and tear-resistant;
</P>
<P>(2) The inner liner shall be removable and sealable immediately upon removal without emptying or touching the contents;
</P>
<P>(3) The contents of the inner liner shall not be viewable from the outside when sealed;
</P>
<P>(4) The size of the inner liner shall be clearly marked on the outside of the liner (e.g., 5-gallon, 10-gallon, etc.); and
</P>
<P>(5) The inner liner shall bear a permanent, unique identification number that enables the inner liner to be tracked.
</P>
<P>(b) Access to the inner liner shall be restricted to employees of the collector.
</P>
<P>(c) The inner liner shall be sealed by two employees immediately upon removal from the permanent outer container and the sealed inner liner shall not be opened, x-rayed, analyzed, or otherwise penetrated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.65" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.65   Take-back events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal, State, tribal, or local law enforcement may conduct a take-back event and collect controlled substances from ultimate users and persons lawfully entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property in accordance with this section. Any person may partner with law enforcement to hold a collection take-back event in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Law enforcement shall appoint a law enforcement officer employed by the agency to oversee the collection. Law enforcement officers employed and authorized by the law enforcement agency or law enforcement component of a Federal agency conducting a take-back event shall maintain control and custody of the collected substances from the time the substances are collected from the ultimate user or person authorized to dispose of the ultimate user decedent's property until secure transfer, storage, or destruction of the controlled substances has occurred.
</P>
<P>(c) Each take-back event should have at least one receptacle for the collection of controlled substances. The collection receptacle should be a securely locked, substantially constructed container with an outer container and a removable inner liner as specified in § 1317.60 of this chapter. The outer container should include a small opening that allows contents to be added to the inner liner, but that does not allow removal of the inner liner's contents.
</P>
<P>(d) Only those controlled substances listed in Schedule II, III, IV, or V that are lawfully possessed by an ultimate user or person entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property may be collected. Controlled and non-controlled substances may be collected together and be comingled, although comingling is not required.
</P>
<P>(e) Only ultimate users and persons entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property in lawful possession of a controlled substance in Schedule II, III, IV, or V may transfer such substances to law enforcement during the take-back event. No other person may handle the controlled substances at any time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.70" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.70   Mail-back programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A mail-back program may be conducted by Federal, State, tribal, or local law enforcement or any collector. A collector conducting a mail-back program shall have and utilize at their registered location a method of destruction consistent with § 1317.90 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Only those controlled substances listed in Schedule II, III, IV, or V that are lawfully possessed by an ultimate user or person lawfully entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property may be collected. Controlled and non-controlled substances may be collected together and be comingled, although comingling is not required.
</P>
<P>(c) Collectors or law enforcement that conduct a mail-back program shall make packages available (for sale or for free) as specified in this paragraph to ultimate users and persons lawfully entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property, for the collection of controlled substances by common or contract carrier. Any person may partner with a collector or law enforcement to make such packages available in accordance with this section. The packages made available shall meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The package shall be nondescript and shall not include any markings or other information that might indicate that the package contains controlled substances;
</P>
<P>(2) The package shall be water- and spill-proof; tamper-evident; tear-resistant; and sealable;
</P>
<P>(3) The package shall be preaddressed with and delivered to the collector's registered address or the participating law enforcement's physical address;
</P>
<P>(4) The cost of shipping the package shall be postage paid;
</P>
<P>(5) The package shall have a unique identification number that enables the package to be tracked; and
</P>
<P>(6) The package shall include instructions for the user that indicate the process for mailing back the package, the substances that can be sent, notice that packages may only be mailed from within the customs territory of the United States (the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico), and notice that only packages provided by the collector will be accepted for destruction.
</P>
<P>(d) Ultimate users and persons lawfully entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property shall not be required to provide any personally identifiable information when mailing back controlled substances to a collector. The collector or law enforcement may implement a system that allows ultimate users or persons lawfully entitled to dispose of an ultimate user decedent's property to notify the collector or law enforcement that they are sending one of the designated packages by giving the unique identification number on the package.
</P>
<P>(e) A collector that conducts a mail-back program pursuant to paragraph (a) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept only those controlled substances contained within packages that the collector made available for the collection of controlled substances by mail and packages that are lawfully forwarded to the collector pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Within three business days of receipt, notify the Field Division Office of the Administration in their area of the receipt of a package that likely contains controlled substances that the collector did not make available or did not agree to receive pursuant to subparagraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When discontinuing activities as a collector or ceasing an authorized mail-back program:
</P>
<P>(i) Make a reasonable effort to notify the public prior to discontinuing such activities or ceasing the authorized mail-back program; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain the written agreement of another collector that has and utilizes at its registered location a method of destruction consistent with § 1317.90 of this chapter to receive all remaining mail-back packages that were disseminated but not returned and arrange for the forwarding of only such packages to that location.
</P>
<P>(f) Only law enforcement officers employed by the law enforcement agency or law enforcement component of a Federal agency and employees of the collector shall handle packages received through an authorized mail-back program. Upon receipt of a mail-back package by a collector conducting a mail-back program, the package shall not be opened, x-rayed, analyzed, or otherwise penetrated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.75" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.75   Collection receptacles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Collectors or Federal, State, tribal, or local law enforcement may manage and maintain collection receptacles for disposal.
</P>
<P>(b) Only those controlled substances listed in Schedule II, III, IV, or V that are lawfully possessed by an ultimate user or other authorized non-registrant person may be collected. Controlled and non-controlled substances may be collected together and be comingled, although comingling is not required.
</P>
<P>(c) Collectors shall only allow ultimate users and other authorized non-registrant persons in lawful possession of a controlled substance in Schedule II, III, IV, or V to deposit such substances in a collection receptacle at a registered location. Collectors shall not permit an ultimate user to transfer such substance to any person for any reason. Once a substance has been deposited into a collection receptacle, the substance shall not be counted, sorted, inventoried, or otherwise individually handled.
</P>
<P>(d) Collection receptacles shall be securely placed and maintained:
</P>
<P>(1) Inside a collector's registered location, inside law enforcement's physical location, or at an authorized long-term care facility;
</P>
<P>(2) At a registered location, be located in the immediate proximity of a designated area where controlled substances are stored and at which an employee is present (e.g., can be seen from the pharmacy counter). Except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) At a hospital/clinic: A collection receptacle shall be located in an area regularly monitored by employees, and shall not be located in the proximity of any area where emergency or urgent care is provided;
</P>
<P>(ii) At a narcotic treatment program: A collection receptacle shall be located in a room: That does not contain any other controlled substances and is securely locked with controlled access;
</P>
<P>(iii) At a long-term care facility: A collection receptacle shall be located in a secured area regularly monitored by long-term care facility employees.
</P>
<P>(e) A controlled substance collection receptacle shall meet the following design specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Be securely fastened to a permanent structure so that it cannot be removed;
</P>
<P>(2) Be a securely locked, substantially constructed container with a permanent outer container and a removable inner liner as specified in § 1317.60 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) The outer container shall include a small opening that allows contents to be added to the inner liner, but does not allow removal of the inner liner's contents;
</P>
<P>(4) The outer container shall prominently display a sign indicating that only Schedule II-V controlled and non-controlled substances, if a collector chooses to comingle substances, are acceptable substances (Schedule I controlled substances, controlled substances that are not lawfully possessed by the ultimate user, and other illicit or dangerous substances are not permitted); and
</P>
<P>(f) Except at a narcotic treatment program, the small opening in the outer container of the collection receptacle shall be locked or made otherwise inaccessible to the public when an employee is not present (e.g., when the pharmacy is closed), or when the collection receptacle is not being regularly monitored by long-term care facility employees.
</P>
<P>(g) The installation and removal of the inner liner of the collection receptacle shall be performed by or under the supervision of at least two employees of the authorized collector.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.80" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.80   Collection receptacles at long-term care facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A long-term care facility may dispose of controlled substances in Schedules II, III, IV, and V on behalf of an ultimate user who resides, or has resided, at such long-term care facility by transferring those controlled substances into an authorized collection receptacle located at that long-term care facility. When disposing of such controlled substances by transferring those substances into a collection receptacle, such disposal shall occur immediately, but no longer than three business days after the discontinuation of use by the ultimate user. Discontinuation of use includes a permanent discontinuation of use as directed by the prescriber, as a result of the resident's transfer from the long-term care facility, or as a result of death.
</P>
<P>(b) Only authorized retail pharmacies and hospitals/clinics with an on-site pharmacy may install, manage, and maintain collection receptacles at long-term care facilities and remove, seal, transfer, and store, or supervise the removal, sealing, transfer, and storage of sealed inner liners at long-term care facilities. Collectors authorized to install, manage, and maintain collection receptacles at long-term care facilities shall comply with all requirements of this chapter, including §§ 1317.60, 1317.75, and 1317.80.
</P>
<P>(c) The installation, removal, transfer, and storage of inner liners shall be performed either: By or under the supervision of one employee of the authorized collector and one supervisor-level employee of the long-term care facility (e.g., a charge nurse or supervisor) designated by the authorized collector; or, by or under the supervision of two employees of the authorized collector.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon removal, sealed inner liners may only be stored at the long-term care facility for up to three business days in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or a securely locked room with controlled access until transfer in accordance with § 1317.05(c)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>(e) Neither a hospital/clinic with an on-site pharmacy nor a retail pharmacy shall operate a collection receptacle at a long-term care facility until its registration has been modified in accordance with § 1301.51 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.85" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.2.53.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.85   Ultimate user delivery for the purpose of recall or investigational use of drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event of a product recall, an ultimate user in lawful possession of a controlled substance listed in Schedule II, III, IV, or V may deliver the recalled substance to the manufacturer of the substance or another registrant authorized by the manufacturer to accept recalled controlled substances on the manufacturer's behalf.
</P>
<P>(b) An ultimate user who is participating in an investigational use of drugs pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 355(i) and 360b(j) and wishes to deliver any unused controlled substances received as part of that research to the registered dispenser from which the ultimate user obtained those substances may do so in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 355(i) and 360b(j).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Destruction of Controlled Substances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.90" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.3.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.90   Methods of destruction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All controlled substances to be destroyed by a registrant, or caused to be destroyed by a registrant pursuant to § 1317.95(c), shall be destroyed in compliance with applicable Federal, State, tribal, and local laws and regulations and shall be rendered non-retrievable.
</P>
<P>(b) Where multiple controlled substances are comingled, the method of destruction shall be sufficient to render all such controlled substances non-retrievable. When the actual substances collected for destruction are unknown but may reasonably include controlled substances, the method of destruction shall be sufficient to render non-retrievable any controlled substance likely to be present.
</P>
<P>(c) The method of destruction shall be consistent with the purpose of rendering all controlled substances to a non-retrievable state in order to prevent diversion of any such substance to illicit purposes and to protect the public health and safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1317.95" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.18.3.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1317.95   Destruction procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The destruction of any controlled substance shall be in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Transfer to a person registered or authorized to accept controlled substances for the purpose of destruction.</I> If the controlled substances are transferred to a person registered or authorized to accept the controlled substances for the purpose of destruction, two employees of the transferring registrant shall load and unload or observe the loading and unloading of any controlled substances until transfer is complete.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transport to a registered location.</I> If the controlled substances are transported by a registrant to a registered location for subsequent destruction, the following procedures shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(1) Transportation shall be directly to the registered location (the substances shall be constantly moving towards their final location and unnecessary or unrelated stops and stops of an extended duration shall not occur);
</P>
<P>(2) Two employees of the transporting registrant shall accompany the controlled substances to the registered location;
</P>
<P>(3) Two employees of the transporting registrant shall load and unload or observe the loading and unloading of the controlled substances until transfer is complete;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transport to a non-registered location.</I> If the controlled substances are transported by a registrant to a destruction location that is not a registered location, the following procedures shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(1) Transportation shall be directly to the destruction location (the substances shall be constantly moving towards their final destruction location and unnecessary or unrelated stops and stops of an extended duration shall not occur);
</P>
<P>(2) Two employees of the transporting registrant shall accompany the controlled substances to the destruction location;
</P>
<P>(3) Two employees of the transporting registrant shall load and unload or observe the loading and unloading of the controlled substances;
</P>
<P>(4) Two employees of the transporting registrant shall handle or observe the handling of any controlled substance until the substance is rendered non-retrievable; and
</P>
<P>(5) Two employees of the transporting registrant shall personally witness the destruction of the controlled substance until it is rendered non-retrievable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>On-site destruction.</I> If the controlled substances are destroyed at a registrant's registered location utilizing an on-site method of destruction, the following procedures shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(1) Two employees of the registrant shall handle or observe the handling of any controlled substance until the substance is rendered non-retrievable; and
</P>
<P>(2) Two employees of the registrant shall personally witness the destruction of the controlled substance until it is rendered non-retrievable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1318" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1318—CONTROLS TO SATISFY THE REQUIREMENTS OF THE ACT APPLICABLE TO THE MANUFACTURING OF MARIHUANA
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 801(7), 821, 822(a)(1), (b), 823(a), 871(b), 886a.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 82352, Dec. 18, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1318.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19.0.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1318.01   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures governing the registration of manufacturers seeking to plant, grow, cultivate, or harvest marihuana are set forth by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1318.02" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19.0.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1318.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the term <I>cannabis</I> means any plant of the genus Cannabis.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the term <I>medicinal cannabis</I> means a drug product made from the cannabis plant, or derivatives thereof, that can be legally marketed under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the term <I>cannabis preparation</I> means cannabis that was delivered to the Administration and subsequently converted by a registered manufacturer into a mixture (solid or liquid) containing cannabis, cannabis resin, or extracts of cannabis.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the term <I>cannabis resin</I> means the separated resin, whether crude or purified, obtained from the cannabis plant.
</P>
<P>(e) As used in this part, the terms <I>cannabis, medicinal cannabis,</I> and <I>cannabis preparation</I> do not include any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that falls outside the definition of marihuana in section 102(16) of the Controlled Substances Act (the Act) (21 U.S.C. 802(16)).
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>Single Convention</I> means the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 (18 U.S.T. 1407).
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>bona fide supply agreement</I> means a letter of intent, purchase order or contract between an applicant and a researcher or manufacturer registered under the Act.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>registered researcher or manufacturer</I> means a person registered under the Act to perform research or manufacture of marihuana in Schedule I.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1318.03" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19.0.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1318.03   Implementation of statutory requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As provided in section 303(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(a)), the Administrator may grant an application for a registration to manufacture marihuana, including the cultivation of cannabis, only if he determines that such registration is consistent with the public interest and with United States obligations under the Single Convention.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with section 303(a) of the Act and §  1301.44(a) of this chapter, the burden shall be on the applicant to demonstrate that the requirements for such registration have been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1318.04" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19.0.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1318.04   Specific control measures applicable to the bulk manufacture of marihuana.</HEAD>
<P>For a registration to manufacture marihuana that involves the cultivation of cannabis, the following provisions must be satisfied:
</P>
<P>(a) All registered manufacturers who cultivate cannabis shall deliver their total crops of cannabis to the Administration, except as provided in paragraph (d). The Administration shall purchase and take physical possession of such crops as soon as possible, but not later than four months after the end of the harvest. The Administration may accept delivery and maintain possession of such crops at the registered location of the registered manufacturer authorized to cultivate cannabis consistent with the maintenance of effective controls against diversion. In such cases, the Administration shall designate a secure storage mechanism at the registered location in which the Administration may maintain possession of the cannabis, and the Administration will control access to the stored cannabis. If the Administration determines that no suitable location exists at the registered location of the registered manufacturer authorized to cultivate cannabis, then the Administration shall designate a location for the authorized grower to deliver the crop as soon as possible, but not later than four months after the end of the harvest. However, in all cases the registrant must comply with the security requirements specified in part 1301 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administration shall, with respect to cannabis, have the exclusive right of importing, exporting, wholesale trading, and maintaining stocks other than those held by registered manufacturers and distributors of medicinal cannabis or cannabis preparations. Such exclusive right shall not extend to medicinal cannabis or cannabis preparations. The Administration may exercise its exclusive right by authorizing the performance of such activities by appropriately registered persons. The Administration shall require prior written notice of each proposed importation, exportation, or distribution of cannabis that specifies the quantity of cannabis to be imported, exported, or distributed and the name, address, and registration number of the registered manufacturer or researcher to receive the cannabis before authorizing the importation, exportation, or distribution. All importation and exportation shall be performed in compliance with part 1312 of this chapter, as applicable. Under no circumstance shall a registered manufacturer authorized to grow cannabis import, export, or distribute cannabis without the express written authorization of the Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) A registered manufacturer authorized to grow cannabis shall notify in writing the Administration of its proposed date of harvest at least 15 days before the commencement of the harvest.
</P>
<P>(d) A registered manufacturer authorized to grow cannabis may distribute small quantities of cannabis to a registered analytical lab for chemical analysis by such analytical lab prior to the Administration purchasing and taking physical possession of the crop. The cannabis delivered to the analytical lab under such circumstances need not be delivered to the Administration pursuant to paragraph (a), provided such cannabis is destroyed by the analytical lab upon completion of the testing. Any such distribution of cannabis by a registered manufacturer to a registered analytical lab must comply with all applicable requirements of the Act and this subchapter, including but not limited to security and recordkeeping requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1318.05" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19.0.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1318.05   Application of the public interest factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with section 303(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(a)), the Administrator shall consider the public interest factors set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintenance of effective controls against diversion of particular controlled substances and any controlled substance in schedule I or II compounded therefrom into other than legitimate medical, scientific, research, or industrial channels, by limiting the importation and bulk manufacture of such controlled substances to a number of establishments which can produce an adequate and uninterrupted supply of these substances under adequately competitive conditions for legitimate medical, scientific, research, and industrial purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with applicable State and local law;
</P>
<P>(3) Promotion of technical advances in the art of manufacturing these substances and the development of new substances;
</P>
<P>(4) Prior conviction record of applicant under Federal and State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of such substances;
</P>
<P>(5) Past experience in the manufacture of controlled substances, and the existence in the establishment of effective control against diversion; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other factors as may be relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator's determination of which applicants to select will be consistent with the public interest factors set forth in section 303(a), with particular emphasis on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the applicant has demonstrated prior compliance with the Act and this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant's ability to consistently produce and supply cannabis of a high quality and defined chemical composition; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) In determining under section 303(a)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(a)(1)) the number of qualified applicants necessary to produce an adequate and uninterrupted supply of cannabis under adequately competitive conditions, the Administrator shall place particular emphasis on the extent to which any applicant is able to supply cannabis or its derivatives in quantities and varieties that will satisfy the anticipated demand of researchers and other registrants in the United States who wish to obtain cannabis to conduct activities permissible under the Act, as demonstrated through a bona fide supply agreement with a registered researcher or manufacturer as defined in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an applicant seeks registration to grow cannabis for its own research or product development, the applicant must possess registration as a schedule I researcher with respect to marihuana under §  1301.32 of this chapter. As specified in §  1301.13 of this chapter, chemical analysis and preclinical research (including quality control analysis) are not coincident activities of a manufacturing registration for schedule I substances, including cannabis. In determining under section 303(a)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(a)(1)) the number of qualified applicants necessary to produce an adequate and uninterrupted supply of cannabis under adequately competitive conditions, the Administrator shall consider the holding of an approved marihuana research protocol by a registered schedule I researcher seeking to grow cannabis for its own research or product development as evidence of the necessity of the applicant's registration under this factor.
</P>
<P>(c) Applications accepted for filing after January 19, 2021 will not be considered pending for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section until all applications accepted for filing on or before January 19, 2021 have been granted or denied by the Administrator. Where an application is subject to section 303(i) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(i)), that section shall apply in lieu of this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(d) In determining the legitimate demand for cannabis and its derivatives in the United States, the Administrator shall consult with the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, including its components.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1318.06" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19.0.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1318.06   Factors affecting prices for the purchase and sale by the Administration of cannabis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with section 111(b)(3) of Public Law 102-395 (21 U.S.C. 886a(1)(C)), seeking to recover the full costs of operating the aspects of the diversion control program that are related to issuing registrations that comply with the Controlled Substances Act, the Administration shall assess an administrative fee. To set the administrative fee, the Administration shall annually determine the preceding fiscal year's cost of operating the program to cultivate cannabis and shall divide the prior fiscal year's cost by the number of kgs of cannabis authorized to be manufactured in the current year's quota to arrive at the administrative fee per kg. The administrative fee per kg shall be added to the sale price of cannabis purchased from the Administration. The administrative fee shall be paid to the Diversion Control Fee Account.
</P>
<P>(b) As set forth in §  1318.04, the Administration shall have the exclusive right of, among other things, wholesale trading in cannabis that it purchases from registered manufacturers. The Administration will, therefore, buy from such manufacturer, sell cannabis to registered researchers and manufacturers, and establish prices for such purchase and sale. The Administration will set such prices in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Bulk growers of cannabis shall negotiate directly with registered researchers and manufacturers authorized to handle cannabis to determine a sale price for their cannabis. Upon entering into a contract for the provision of bulk cannabis and prior to the exchange of cannabis, the parties shall pay to the Administration an administrative fee assessed based on the number of kgs to be supplied. The administrative fee shall not be recoverable in the event that delivery is rejected by the buyer.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administration shall sell the cannabis to the buyer at the negotiated sale price plus the administrative fee assessed on a per kg basis. Prior to the purchase of the cannabis by the Administration, the buyer shall pay the negotiated purchase price and administrative fee to the Administration. The Administration shall hold funds equal to the purchase price in escrow until the delivery of the cannabis by the grower to the Administration. The administrative fee shall not be recoverable in the event that delivery is rejected by the buyer.
</P>
<P>(3) After receiving the purchase price and administrative fee from the buyer, the Administration shall purchase the cannabis from the grower, on behalf of the buyer, at the negotiated sale price. The Administration shall retain the administrative fee. In the event the buyer fails to pay the purchase price and the administrative fee, the Administration shall have no obligation to purchase the crop and may order the grower to destroy the crop if the grower cannot find an alternative buyer within four months of harvest.
</P>
<P>(4) In instances where the grower of the cannabis is the same entity as the buyer of the cannabis, or a related or subsidiary entity, the entity may establish a nominal price for the purchase of the cannabis. The Administration shall then purchase the entity's cannabis at that price and sell the cannabis back to the entity, or a related or subsidiary entity, at the same price with the addition of the administrative fee.
</P>
<P>(c) Administrative fees set in accordance with this part will be made available, on an updated basis, on the Administration's website, no later than December 15th of the year preceding the year in which the administrative fee will be collected.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section shall prohibit the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services from continuing to fund the acquisition of cannabis for use in research by paying, directly or indirectly, the purchase cost and administrative fee to the Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1318.07" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.19.0.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1318.07   Non-liability of Drug Enforcement Administration.</HEAD>
<P>The Administration shall have no liability with respect to the performance of any contractual terms agreed to by a grower and buyer of bulk cannabis, including but not limited to the quality of any cannabis delivered to a buyer. In the event that a buyer deems the delivered cannabis to be defective, the buyer's sole remedy for damages shall be against the grower and not the Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1321" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1321—DEA MAILING ADDRESSES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 871(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 10685, Mar. 9, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1321.01" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.20.0.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1321.01   DEA mailing addresses.</HEAD>
<P>The following table provides information regarding mailing addresses to be used when sending specified correspondence to the Drug Enforcement Administration.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table of DEA Mailing Addresses
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Code of Federal Regulations Section—Topic
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">DEA mailing address
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEA Administrator</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1308.43(b)—Petition to initiate proceedings for rulemaking.
<br/>1316.23(b)—Petition for grant of confidentiality for research subjects.
<br/>1316.24(b)—Petition for exemption from prosecution for researchers.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Administrator, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEA Diversion Control Division</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1307.03—Exception request filing.
<br/>1307.22—Delivery of surrendered and forfeited controlled substances.
<br/>1310.21(b)—Sale by Federal departments or agencies of chemicals which could be used to manufacture controlled substances certification request.
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Diversion Control Division/DC, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEA Regulatory Section</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1301.71(d)—Security system compliance review for controlled substances.
<br/>1309.71(c)—Security system compliance review for List I chemicals.
<br/>1310.03(c)—Mail-Order reports involving transactions with nonregulated persons or exports.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1310.05(b)(1)—Unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of listed chemicals.
<br/>1310.05(b)(2)—Reports of domestic regulated transactions in a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1310.05(c)(1)—Reports of imports and exports of a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1310.05(c)(2)—Report of declared exports of machines refused, rejected, or returned.
<br/>1312.12(a)—Application for import permit (DEA Form 357).
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1312.18(b)—Import declaration (DEA Form 236) submission.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1312.22(g)(8)—Request for return of unacceptable or undeliverable exported controlled substances.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1312.27(a)—Controlled substances export declaration (DEA Form 236) filing.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1312.31(b)—Controlled substances transshipment permit application.
<br/>1312.32(a)—Advanced notice of importation for transshipment or transfer of controlled substances.
<br/>1313.12(b)—Authorization to import listed chemicals (DEA Form 486/486A).
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1313.12(e)—Quarterly reports of listed chemicals importation.
<br/>1313.21(b)—Authorization to export listed chemicals (DEA Form 486).
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1313.21(e)—Quarterly reports of listed chemicals exportation.
<br/>1313.22(c)—Notice of declared exports of listed chemicals refused, rejected or undeliverable.
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1313.31(b)—Advanced notice of importation for transshipment or transfer of listed chemicals.
<br/>1313.32(b)(1)—International transaction authorization (DEA Form 486).
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>1314.110(a)(1)—Reports for mail-order sales.
<br/>1314.110(a)(2)—Request to submit mail-order sales reports.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Regulatory Section/DRG, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEA Drug &amp; Chemical Evaluation Section</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1308.21(a)—Exclusion of nonnarcotic substance.
<br/>1308.23(b)—Exemption for chemical preparations.
<br/>1308.24(d)—Exempt narcotic chemical preparations importer/exporter reporting.
<br/>1308.24(i)—Exempted chemical preparations listing.
<br/>1308.25(a)—Exclusion of veterinary anabolic steroid implant product application.
<br/>1308.26(a)—Excluded veterinary anabolic steroid implant products listing.
<br/>1308.31(a)—Exemption of a nonnarcotic prescription product application.
<br/>1308.32—Exempted prescription products listing.
<br/>1308.33(b)—Exemption of certain anabolic steroid products application.
<br/>1308.34—Exempted anabolic steroid products listing.
<br/>1310.13(b)—Exemption for chemical preparations.
<br/>1310.05(d)—Bulk manufacturer of listed chemicals reporting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Drug &amp; Chemical Evaluation Section/DRE, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">UN Reporting &amp; Quota Section</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1303.12(b)—Application for controlled substances procurement quota (DEA Form 250) filing and request.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: UN Reporting &amp; Quota Section/DRQ, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1303.12(d)—Controlled substances quota adjustment request.
<br/>1303.22—Application for individual manufacturing quota (DEA Form 189) filing and request for schedule I or II controlled substances.
<br/>1304.31(a)—Manufacturers importing narcotic raw material report submission.
<br/>1304.32(a)—Manufacturers importing coca leaves report submission.
<br/>1315.22—Application for individual manufacturing quota for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine (DEA Form 189) filing and request.
<br/>1315.32(e)—Application for procurement quota for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine (DEA Form 250) filing and request.
<br/>1315.32(g)—Procurement quota adjustment request for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine.
<br/>1315.34(d)—Application for import quota for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine (DEA Form 488) request and filing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1315.36(b)—Request import quota increase for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Pharmaceutical Investigations Section</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1304.04(d)—ARCOS separate central reporting identifier request.
<br/>1304.33(a)—Reports to ARCOS.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: ARCOS Unit/DOPT, P.O. Box 2520, Springfield, VA 22152-2520 OR Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: ARCOS Unit, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEA Registration Section</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1301.03—Procedures information request (controlled substances registration)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Registration Section/DRR P.O. Box 2639, Springfield, VA 22152.
<br/>1301.13(e)(2)—Request DEA Forms 224, 225, and 363.
<br/>1301.14(a)—Controlled substances registration application submission.
<br/>1301.18(c)—Research project controlled substance increase request.

<br/>1301.51—Controlled substances registration modification request.
<br/>1301.52(b)—Controlled substances registration transfer request.

<br/>1301.52(c)—Controlled substances registration discontinuance of business activities notification.
<br/>1309.03—List I chemicals registration procedures information request.

<br/>1309.33(a)—List I chemicals registration application submission.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<br/>1309.61—List I chemicals registration modification request


</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEA Hearing Clerk</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1301.43—Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.
<br/>1303.34—Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.
<br/>1308.44—Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.
<br/>1316.45—Hearings documentation filing.
<br/>1316.46(a)—Inspection of record.
<br/>1316.47(a)—Request for hearing.
<br/>1316.48—Notice of appearance.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Hearing Clerk/OALJ, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">DEA Federal Register Representative</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1301.33(a)—Filing of written comments regarding application for bulk manufacture of Schedule I and II substances.
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>1301.34(a)—Filing of written comments regarding application for importation of Schedule I and II substances.
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>1303.11(c)—Filing of written comments regarding notice of an aggregate production quota.
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>1303.13(c)—Filing of written comments regarding adjustments of aggregate production quotas.
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>1303.13(c)—Filing of written comments regarding adjustments of aggregate production quotas.
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>1308.43(g)—Filing of written comments regarding initiation of proceedings for rulemaking.
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug Enforcement Administration, Attn: Federal Register Representative/DRW, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, VA 22152.
<br/><E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/</E>.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Applications/filings/reports are required to be filed electronically in accordance with this chapter.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Applications/filings/reports may be filed electronically in accordance with this chapter.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 97041, Dec. 30, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 21023, Apr. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1322-1399" NODE="21:9.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1322-1399 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="III" NODE="21:9.0.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER III—OFFICE OF NATIONAL DRUG CONTROL POLICY</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1400" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1400 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1401" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1401—PUBLIC AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 65696, Oct. 16, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Freedom of Information Act Policies and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.1" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to prescribe rules, guidelines and procedures to implement the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.2" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.2   The Office of National Drug Control Policy—organization and functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of National Drug Control Policy (ONDCP or Agency) was created by the Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1988, 21 U.S.C. 1501 <I>et seq.,</I> and reauthorized under the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, 21 U.S.C. 1701 <I>et seq.</I> and several appropriations acts. The mission of ONDCP is to coordinate the anti-drug efforts of the various agencies and departments of the Federal Government, to consult with States and localities and assist their anti-drug efforts, and to annually promulgate the National Drug Control Strategy. ONDCP is headed by the Director of National Drug Control Policy.
</P>
<P>(b) ONDCP's Office of External and Legislative Affairs is responsible for providing information to the press and to the general public. If members of the public have general questions about ONDCP, they may email the Office of External and Legislative Affairs at <I>mediainquiry@ondcp.eop.gov.</I> This email address should not be used to make FOIA requests. All oral requests for information under FOIA will be rejected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.3" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, all the terms defined in the Freedom of Information Act apply.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial use request</I> is a request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. An agency's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information. Agencies will notify requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> means the expense actually expended to search, review, or duplicate in response to a FOIA request. For example, direct costs include 116% of the salary of the employee performing work (<I>i.e.,</I> the basic rate of pay for the employee plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the actual costs incurred while operating equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Duplicate</I> means the process of making a copy of a document. Such copies may take the form of paper, microform, audio-visual materials, or machine-readable documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. Agency may seek verification from the requester that the request furthers scholarly research, and agency will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Fee waiver</I> means the waiver or reduction of processing fees if a requester can demonstrate that certain statutory standards are satisfied, including that the information is in the public interest and is not requested for a commercial interest.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA public liaison</I> means a supervisory agency FOIA official who assists in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and resolving disputes between the requester and ONDCP.
</P>
<P><I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use. Agency will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>OGIS</I> means the Office of Government Information Services of the National Archives and Records Administration. OGIS offers FOIA dispute resolution services, which is a voluntary process. If ONDCP agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by OGIS, ONDCP will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P><I>Records</I> and any other terms used in this part in reference to information includes any information that would be an agency record subject to the requirements of this part when maintained in any format, including electronic format.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or information that would be of interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast “news” to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. A request for records supporting the news-dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be for a commercial use. “Freelance” journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity will be considered as a representative of the news media. A publishing contract would provide the clearest evidence that publication is expected; however, the Agency can also consider a requester's past publication record in making this determination. The Agency will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Request</I> means a letter or other written communication seeking records or information under FOIA.
</P>
<P><I>Requester category</I> means one of the three categories that ONDCP will place requesters in for the purpose of determining whether a requester will be charged fees for search, review, and duplication. The categories are: commercial use requests; non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media requesters; and all other requesters.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> means the process of examining documents that are located during a search to determine if any portion should lawfully be withheld. It is the processing of determining disclosability. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter under § 1401.18, but it does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> means to review, manually or by automated means, agency records for the purpose of locating those records responsive to a request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.4" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.4   Access to information.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of National Drug Control Policy makes available information pertaining to matters issued, adopted, or promulgated by ONDCP, that are within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2). Such information is located at <I>https://www.whitehouse.gov/ondcp.</I> Included in that information are ONDCP's proactive disclosures. Proactive disclosures are records that have been requested three or more times, or that have been released to a requester and that ONDCP determines have become, or are likely to become, the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.5" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.5   Records requiring consultation.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for records that are in ONDCP's custody but in which other agencies have equities shall be reviewed by ONDCP and then ONDCP will either consult with or refer the records to the other agency or agencies for further processing.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originated with ONDCP, but contain within them information of interest to another agency or other Federal government office, ONDCP will consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referral</I>—(1) <I>Determination.</I> When ONDCP believes that a different agency or component is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, ONDCP will refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency. Ordinarily, the agency that originated the record is presumed to be the best agency to make the disclosure determination. However, if the agency processing the request and the originating agency jointly agree that the agency processing the request is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documentation.</I> Whenever ONDCP refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, it must document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. In order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the agency that received the request should coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the disclosability of the record. The release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination should then be conveyed to the requester by the agency that originally received the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classified information.</I> On receipt of any request involving classified information, ONDCP must determine whether the information is currently and properly classified in accordance with applicable classification rules. Whenever a request involves a record containing information that has been classified or may be appropriate for classification by another agency under any applicable executive order concerning the classification of records, the receiving agency must refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the information, or that should consider the information for classification. Whenever an agency's record contains information that has been derivatively classified (for example, when it contains information classified by another agency), the agency must refer the responsibility for responding to that portion of the request to the agency that classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by ONDCP will be handled according to the date that the first agency received the perfected FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreements regarding consultations and referrals.</I> ONDCP may establish agreements with other agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals with respect to particular types of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.6" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.6   How to request records—form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must describe the records you seek in sufficient detail and in writing to enable ONDCP personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. To satisfy this requirement, you should be as detailed as possible when describing the records you seek. To the extent possible, each request must reasonably describe the record(s) sought including the type of document, specific event or action, title or name, author, recipient, subject matter of the record, date or time period, location, and all other pertinent data. Before or after submitting their requests, requesters may contact ONDCP's FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records they seek and for assistance in describing the records. A list of Agency FOIA Public Liaisons is available at <I>https://www.foia.gov/#agency-search.</I>
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If you are making a request for records about yourself, you must comply with the verification of identity provision set forth in § 1401.21(f) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If a request for records pertains to a third party, you may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or an unsworn declaration under 26 U.S.C. 1746 by that individual authorizing disclosure of the records to you. If the other individual is deceased, you should submit proof of death such as a copy of the death certificate or an obituary. As an exercise of administrative discretion, ONDCP may require you to provide additional information if necessary in order to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) Requesters may specify the preferred form or format (including electronic formats) for the records they seek. ONDCP will try to accommodate formatting requests if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever it is appropriate to do so, ONDCP automatically processes a Privacy Act request for access to records under both the Privacy Act and the FOIA, following the rules contained in this part. ONDCP processes a request under both the FOIA and Privacy Act so you will receive the maximum amount of information available to you by law.
</P>
<P>(e) Requests must be received by ONDCP through methods specified on the FOIA page of ONDCP's website: <I>https://www.whitehouse.gov/ondcp/about/foia-and-legal/.</I> Requests may be emailed at any time to <I>FOIA@ondcp.eop.gov</I> or mailed to SSDMD/RDS; ONDCP Office of General Counsel; Joint Base Anacostia-Bolling (JBAB) Bldg. 410/Door 123; 250 Murray Lane SW, Washington, DC 20509. Email requests are strongly preferred.
</P>
<P>(f) The words “FOIA REQUEST” or “REQUEST FOR RECORDS” should be clearly marked on all FOIA request communications. The time limitations imposed by § 1401.7(a) will not begin until ONDCP identifies a communication as a FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(g) You must provide contact information, such as your phone number, email address and mailing address, so we will be able to communicate with you about your request and provide released records. If we cannot contact you, or you do not respond within 20 calendar days to our request for clarification, we will close your request.
</P>
<P>(h) To protect our computer systems, ONDCP reserves the right to not open attachments to emailed request. Please include your request within the body of your email.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.7" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.7   Responses—form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determinations.</I> The General Counsel, or designee, will determine within 20 days (excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) after the receipt of a FOIA request whether it is appropriate to grant the request and will provide written notification to the person making the request. The notification shall also advise the person making the request of any fees assessed under § 1401.11 through 13. ONDCP will inform the requester of the availability of its FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tracking number.</I> ONDCP will assign it an individualized tracking number if it will take longer than 10 working days to process and may assign such a tracking number for less than 10 working days at our discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adverse determinations.</I> If ONDCP makes an adverse determination denying a request in any respect, it must notify the requester of that determination in writing. Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that: The requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of denial.</I> The denial must be signed by the head of the agency or designee and must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied by the agency in denying the request;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation, although such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed to the Director or his/her designee within 90 days of the date of the response. The requirements for making an appeal are specified in § 1401.10.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from the agency's FOIA Public Liaison and the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.8" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.8   Expedited process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. ONDCP must process requests and appeals on an expedited basis whenever it is determined that they involve:
</P>
<P>(1) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally, and the request is made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information.
</P>
<P>(b) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing. For example, under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person who is primarily engaged in information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request, beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. The formality of certification may be waived as a matter of administrative discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 10 days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, ONDCP will decide whether to grant it and will notify the requester of the decision. If a request for expedited treatment is granted, the request will be given priority and will be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision will be acted on expeditiously.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.9" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.9   Extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In unusual circumstances, ONDCP may extend the time limit prescribed in § 1401.7(a), (b) or § 1401.8 by written notice to the FOIA requester. The notice will state the reasons for the extension.
</P>
<P>(b) The phrase “unusual circumstances” means:
</P>
<P>(1) The requested records are located in establishments that are separated from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(2) A voluminous amount of separate and distinct records are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(3) Another agency or two or more components in the same agency have substantial interest in the determination of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever ONDCP cannot meet the statutory time limit for processing a request because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(b)(B), and ONDCP extends the time limit on that basis, the agency must, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which ONDCP estimates processing of the request will be completed. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, ONDCP must, as described by the FOIA, provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. The Agency must make available its designated FOIA contact or its FOIA Public Liaison for this purpose. The Agency must also alert requesters to the availability of the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) to provide dispute resolution services.
</P>
<P>(d) To satisfy unusual circumstances under the FOIA, ONDCP may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. ONDCP cannot aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.10" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.10   Appeal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appeal to the ONDCP must explain the reasoning and factual basis for the appeal. It must be received by email at <I>FOIA@ondcp.eop.gov</I> or another method specified on the FOIA page of ONDCP's website within 90 days of the date of the response. The appeal must be in writing, addressed to SSDMD/RDS; ONDCP Office of General Counsel; Joint Base Anacostia-Bolling (JBAB) Bldg. 410/Door 123; 250 Murray Lane SW, Washington, DC 20509. The communication should clearly be labeled as a “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) The Director or designee will decide the appeal within 20 days (excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays). If the Director or designee deny an appeal in whole or in part, the written determination will contain the reason for the denial, the name and title of the person responsible for the denial, any FOIA exemptions applied, and the provisions for judicial review of the denial and ruling on appeal provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). The denial will also inform the requester of the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS as a non-exclusive alternate to litigation. If ONDCP agrees to participate in voluntary dispute resolution services provided by OGIS, it will actively engage in an attempt to resolve the dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.11" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.11   Fees to be charged—general.</HEAD>
<P>ONDCP will assess a fee to process FOIA requests in accordance with the provisions of this section and Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB Guidelines”). ONDCP shall ensure that searches, review and duplication are conducted in the most efficient and the least expensive manner. ONDCP will ordinarily collect all applicable fees before sending copies of records to a requester. ONDCP will charge the following fees unless a waiver or reduction of fees is granted under § 1401.15, or the total fee to be charged is less than $25.00. ONDCP will notify you if we estimate that charges will exceed $25.00 including a breakdown of the fees for search, review or duplication and whether applicable entitlements to duplication and search at no charge have been provided. ONDCP will not process your request until you either commit in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designate some amount of fees you are willing to pay.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Search for records.</I> ONDCP will charge $77.00 per hour, which is a blended hourly rate for all personnel that respond to FOIA requests plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of records.</I> ONDCP will charge $77.00 per hour, which is a blended hourly rate for all personnel that responded to FOIA requests plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits. Records or portions of records withheld under an exemption subsequently determined not to apply may be reviewed to determine the applicability of exemptions not considered. The cost for a subsequent review is assessable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duplication of records.</I> We will charge duplication fees to all requesters. We will honor your preference for receiving a record in a particular format if we can readily reproduce it in the form or format requested. If we provide photocopies, we will make one copy per request at the cost of $.10 per page. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks or other media, we will charge the direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time. Where we must scan paper documents in order to comply with your preference to receive the records in an electronic format, we will charge you the direct costs associated with scanning those materials. For other forms of duplication, we will charge the direct costs. We will provide the first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media) without charge except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other charges.</I> ONDCP will recover the costs of providing other services such as certifying records or sending records by special methods.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.12" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.12   Fees to be charged—miscellaneous provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Payment for FOIA services may be made by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) ONDCP may require advance payment where the estimated fee exceeds $250, or a requester previously failed to pay within 30 days of the billing date.
</P>
<P>(c) ONDCP may assess interest charges beginning the 31st day of billing. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in section 3717 of title 31 of the United States Code and will accrue from the date of the billing.
</P>
<P>(d) ONDCP may assess search charges where records are not located or where records are exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(e) ONDCP may aggregate individual requests for fee purposes in accordance with 1401.16.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.13" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.13   Fees to be charged—categories of requesters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There are three categories of FOIA requesters: Commercial use requests; educational, non-commercial scientific institutions or representatives of the news media; and all other requesters.
</P>
<P>(b) The specific levels of fees for each of these categories are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use request.</I> ONDCP will recover the full direct cost of providing search, review and duplication services. Commercial use requests will not receive free search-time or free reproduction of documents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational and non-commercial scientific institution request.</I> ONDCP will charge the cost of reproduction, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. Requesters must demonstrate the request is authorized by and under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought for scholarly or scientific research not a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request from representative of the news media.</I> ONDCP will charge the cost of reproduction, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. Requesters must meet the criteria in § 1401.3, and the request must not be made for a commercial use. A request that supports the news dissemination function of the requester shall not be considered a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>All other requesters.</I> ONDCP will recover the full direct cost of the search and the reproduction of records, excluding the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first two hours of search time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.14" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.14   Restrictions on charging fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No search fees will be charged for requests by educational institutions (unless the records are sought for a commercial use), noncommercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media.
</P>
<P>(b) If ONDCP fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, it may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in § 1401.13(b)(2), may not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) If ONDCP determines that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and the agency provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(d) If ONDCP determines that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply, and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the agency may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in § 1401.13(b)(2) of this section, may charge duplication fees if the following steps are taken. ONDCP must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and the agency must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, ONDCP may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(e) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(f) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(g) When, after first deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, a total fee calculated under paragraph (c) of this section is $25.00 or less for any request, no fee will be charged.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.15" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.15   Waiver or reduction of fees.</HEAD>
<P>Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees:
</P>
<P>(a) Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written application demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) ONDCP must furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when it determines, based on all available information, that disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. In deciding whether this standard is satisfied the agency must consider the factors described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure of the requested information would be likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. ONDCP will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, ONDCP will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) ONDCP must identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters must be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is an identified commercial interest, the component must determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of § 1401.15(a) are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. ONDCP ordinarily will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied the requirements of § 1401.15(a), the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(d) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to ONDCP and should address the criteria referenced above. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester shall be required to pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.16" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.16   Aggregation of requests.</HEAD>
<P>When ONDCP reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Agency may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The Agency may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made in order to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, ONDCP will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters cannot be aggregated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.17" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.17   Markings on released documents.</HEAD>
<P>When requested records contain matters that are exempted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b), but such exempted matters can be reasonably segregated from the remainder of the records, the records shall be disclosed by ONDCP with the necessary redactions. If records are disclosed in part, ONDCP will mark them to show the amount and location of information redacted and the exemption(s) under which the redactions were made unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.18" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.1.53.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.18   Confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Confidential commercial information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by ONDCP from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides confidential commercial information, either directly or indirectly to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, at the time of submission, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When notice to submitters is required.</I> (1) ONDCP must promptly provide written notice to the submitter of confidential commercial information whenever records containing such information are requested under the FOIA if ONDCP determines that it may be required to disclose the records, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The requested information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(ii) ONDCP has a reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet determined whether the information is protected from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must either describe the commercial information requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information. In cases involving a voluminous number of submitters, ONDCP may post or publish a notice in a place or manner reasonably likely to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure, instead of sending individual notifications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to submitter notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of this section do not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) ONDCP determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA, and therefore will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such case, ONDCP must give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information within a reasonable number of days prior to a specified disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> (1) ONDCP must specify a reasonable time period within which the submitter must respond to the notice referenced above.
</P>
<P>(2) If a submitter has any objections to disclosure, it should provide ONDCP a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption of the FOIA. In order to rely on Exemption 4 as the basis for nondisclosure, the submitter must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential.
</P>
<P>(3) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. ONDCP is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of objections.</I> ONDCP must consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the requested information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> Whenever ONDCP decides to disclose information over the objection of a submitter, ONDCP must provide the submitter written notice, which must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as ONDCP intends to release them; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which must be a reasonable time after the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information, ONDCP must promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requester notification.</I> ONDCP must notify the requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>No right or benefit.</I> The requirements of this section such as notification do not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any person.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Privacy Act Policies and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.19" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.2.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.19   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Access</I> means making a record available to a subject individual.
</P>
<P><I>Amendmen</I>t means any correction, addition to or deletion of information in a record.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person who either is a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence.
</P>
<P><I>Maintain</I> includes the term “maintain”, collect, use, or disseminate.
</P>
<P><I>Privacy Act Office</I> means the ONDCP officials who are authorized to respond to requests and to process requests for amendment of records ONDCP maintains under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any item, collection or grouping of information about an individual that ONDCP maintains within a system of records and contains the individual's name or the identifying number, symbol or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or photograph.
</P>
<P><I>System of records</I> means a group of records ONDCP maintains or controls from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.20" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.2.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.20   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, a Federal law that requires Federal agencies to protect private information about individuals that the agencies collect or maintain. It establishes ONDCP's rules for access to records in systems of records we maintain that are retrieved by an individual's name or another personal identifier. It describes the procedures by which individuals may request access to records, request amendment or correction of those records, and request an accounting of disclosures of those records by ONDCP. Whenever it is appropriate to do so, ONDCP automatically processes a Privacy Act request for access to records under both the Privacy Act and the FOIA, following the rules contained in this part. ONDCP processes a request under both the Privacy Act and the FOIA so you will receive the maximum amount of information available to you by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.21" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.2.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.21   How do I make a Privacy Act request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You can make a Privacy Act request for records about yourself. You also can make a request on behalf of another individual as the parent or legal guardian of a minor, or as the legal guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do I make a request?</I> (1) <I>Where do I send my written request?</I> To make a request for access to a record, you should write directly to our Office of General Counsel. Heightened security delays mail delivery. To avoid mail delivery delays, we strongly suggest that you email your request to <I>foia@ondcp.eop.gov.</I> Our mailing address is: SSDMD/RDS; ONDCP Office of General Counsel; Joint Base Anacostia-Bolling (JBAB); Bldg. 410/Door 123; 250 Murray Lane SW, Washington, DC 20509. To make sure that the Office of General Counsel receives your request without delay, you should include the notation “Privacy Act Request” in the subject line of your email or on the front of your envelope and also at the beginning of your request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security concerns.</I> To protect our computer systems, we reserve the right not to open attachments to emailed requests. We request that you include your request within the body of the email.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What should my request include?</I> You must describe the record that you seek in enough detail to enable ONDCP to locate the system of records containing the record with a reasonable amount of effort. Include specific information about each record sought, such as the time period in which you believe it was compiled, the name or identifying number of each system of records in which you believe it is kept, and the date, title or name, author, recipient, or subject matter of the record. As a general rule, the more specific you are about the record that you seek, the more likely we will be able to locate it in response to your request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How do I request amendment of a record?</I> If you are requesting an amendment of an ONDCP record, you must identify each particular record in question and the system of records in which the record is located, describe the amendment that you seek, and state why you believe that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely or complete. You may submit any documentation that you think would be helpful, including an annotated copy of the record.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>How do I request an accounting of record disclosures?</I> If you are requesting an accounting of disclosures made by ONDCP to another person, organization or Federal agency, you must identify each system of records in question. An accounting generally includes the date, nature and purpose of each disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person, organization, or Federal agency to which the disclosure was made.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Verification of identity.</I> When making a Privacy Act request, you must verify your identity in accordance with these procedures to protect your privacy or the privacy of the individual on whose behalf you are acting. If you make a Privacy Act request and you do not follow these identity verification procedures, ONDCP cannot process your request.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>How do I verify my own identity?</I> You must include in your request your full name, citizenship status, current address, and date and place of birth. We may request additional information to verify your identity. To verify your own identity, you must provide an unsworn declaration under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury. To fulfill this requirement, you must include the following statement just before the signature on your request:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on [date].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>How do I verify parentage or guardianship?</I> If you make a request as the parent or legal guardian of a minor, or as the legal guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent, for access to records or information about that individual, you must establish:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of the individual who is the subject of the record, by stating the individual's name, citizenship status, current address, and date and place of birth;
</P>
<P>(ii) Your own identity, as required in paragraph (f)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) That you are the parent or legal guardian of the individual, which you may prove by providing a copy of the individual's birth certificate showing your parentage or a court order establishing your guardianship; and
</P>
<P>(iv) That you are acting on behalf of the individual in making the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.22" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.2.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.22   How will ONDCP respond to my Privacy Act request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When will we respond to your request?</I> We will search to determine if the requested records exist in a system of records ONDCP owns or controls. The Office of General Counsel will respond to you in writing within 20 days after we receive your request and/or within ten working days after we receive your request for an amendment, if it meets the requirements of this subpart. We may extend the response time in unusual circumstances, such as the need to consult with another agency about a record or to retrieve a record that is in storage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What will our response include?</I> (1) Our written response will include our determination whether to grant or deny your request in whole or in part, a brief explanation of the reasons for the determination, and the amount of the fee charged, if any, under § 1401.24. If you requested access to records, we will make the records, if any, available to you. If you requested amendment of a record, the response will describe any amendments made and advise you of your right to obtain a copy of the amended record.
</P>
<P>(2) We will also notify the individual who is subject to the record in writing, if, based on your request, any system of records contains a record pertaining to him or her.
</P>
<P>(3) If ONDCP makes an adverse determination with respect to your request, our written response will identify the name and address of the person responsible for the adverse determination, that the adverse determination is not a final agency action, and describe the procedures by which you may appeal the adverse determination under § 1401.23.
</P>
<P>(4) An adverse determination is a response to a Privacy Act request that:
</P>
<P>(i) Withholds any requested record in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Denies a request to amend a record in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Declines to provide an accounting of disclosures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Advises that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located;
</P>
<P>(v) Finds that what you requested is not a record subject to the Privacy Act; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Advises on any disputed fee matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.23" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.2.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.23   What can I do if I am dissatisfied with ONDCP's response to my Privacy Act request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What can I appeal?</I> You can appeal any adverse determination in writing to our Director or designee within 90 calendar days after the date of our response. We provide a list of adverse determinations in § 1401.22(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do I make an appeal?</I> (1) <I>What should I include?</I> You may appeal by submitting a written statement giving the reasons why you believe the Director or designee should overturn the adverse determination. Your written appeal may include as much or as little related information as you wish to provide, as long as it clearly identifies the determination (including the request number, if known) that you are appealing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where do I send my appeal?</I> You should mark both your letter and the envelope, or the subject of your email, “Privacy Act Appeal.” To avoid mail delivery delays caused by heightened security, we strongly suggest that you email any appeal to <I>foia@ondcp.eop.gov.</I> Our mailing address is: SSDMD/RDS; ONDCP Office of General Counsel; Joint Base Anacostia-Bolling (JBAB); Bldg. 410/Door 123; 250 Murray Lane SW, Washington, DC 20509.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Who will decide your appeal?</I> (1) The Director or designee will act on all appeals under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) We ordinarily will not adjudicate an appeal if the request becomes a matter of litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) On receipt of any appeal involving classified information, the Director or designee must take appropriate action to ensure compliance with applicable classification rules.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When will we respond to your appeal?</I> The Director or designee will notify you of its appeal decision in writing within 30 days from the date it receives an appeal that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. We may extend the response time in unusual circumstances, such as the need to consult with another agency about a record or to retrieve a record shipped offsite for storage.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>What will our response include?</I> The written response will include the Director or designee's determination whether to grant or deny your appeal in whole or in part, a brief explanation of the reasons for the determination, and information about the Privacy Act provisions for court review of the determination.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Appeals concerning access to records.</I> If your appeal concerns a request for access to records and the appeal is granted in whole or in part, we will make the records, if any, available to you.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appeals concerning amendments.</I> If your appeal concerns amendment of a record, the response will describe any amendment made and advise you of your right to obtain a copy of the amended record. We will notify all persons, organizations or Federal agencies to which we previously disclosed the record, if an accounting of that disclosure was made, that the record has been amended. Whenever the record is subsequently disclosed, the record will be disclosed as amended. If our response denies your request for an amendment to a record, we will advise you of your right to file a statement of disagreement under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statements of disagreement</I>—(1) <I>What is a statement of disagreement?</I> A statement of disagreement is a concise written statement in which you clearly identify each part of any record that you dispute and explain your reason(s) for disagreeing with our denial in whole or in part of your appeal requesting amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I file a statement of disagreement?</I> You should mark both your letter and the envelope, or the subject of your email, “Privacy Act Statement of Disagreement.” To avoid mail delivery delays caused by heightened security, we strongly suggest that you email a statement of disagreement to <I>foia@ondcp.eop.gov.</I> Our mailing address is: SSDMD/RDS; ONDCP Office of General Counsel; Joint Base Anacostia-Bolling (JBAB); Bldg. 410/Door 123; 250 Murray Lane SW, Washington, DC 20509.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>What will we do with your statement of disagreement?</I> We shall clearly note any portion of the record that is disputed and provide copies of the statement and, if we deem appropriate, copies of our statement that denied your request for an appeal for amendment, to persons or other agencies to whom the disputed record has been disclosed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When appeal is required.</I> Under this section, you generally first must submit a timely administrative appeal, before seeking review of an adverse determination or denial request by a court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.24" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.2.2.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.24   What does it cost to get records under the Privacy Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agreement to pay fees.</I> Your request is an agreement to pay fees. We consider your Privacy Act request as your agreement to pay all applicable fees unless you specify a limit on the amount of fees you agree to pay. We will not exceed the specified limit without your written agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do we calculate fees?</I> We will charge a fee for duplication of a record under the Privacy Act in the same way we charge for duplication of records under the FOIA in § 1401.11(c). There are no fees to search for or review records requested under the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1402" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1402—MANDATORY DECLASSIFICATION REVIEW
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 3.4, E.O. 12356 (3 CFR, 1982 Comp., p. 166), and Information Security Oversight Office Directive No. 1 (32 CFR 2001.32).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 55089, Nov. 24, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1402.1" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3.0.53.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Other government agencies, U.S. citizens or permanent resident aliens may request that classified information in files of the Office of National Drug Control Policy (ONDCP) be reviewed for possible declassification and release. This part prescribes the procedures for such review and subsequent release or denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.2" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3.0.53.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.2   Responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>All requests for the mandatory declassification review of classified information in ONDCP files should be addressed to the Security Officer, Office of National Drug Control Policy, Executive Office of the President, Washington, DC 20500, who will acknowledge receipt of the request. When a request does not reasonably describe the information sought, the requester shall be notified that unless additional information is provided, or the scope of the request is narrowed, no further action will be taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.3" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3.0.53.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.3   Information in the custody of ONDCP.</HEAD>
<P>Information contained in ONDCP files and under the exclusive declassification jurisdiction of ONDCP will be reviewed by the Director of the Office of Planning, Budget, and Administration of ONDCP and/or the office of primary interest to determine whether, under the declassification provisions of section 3.1 of Executive Order 12356 (3 CFR, 1982 Comp., p. 166), the requested information may be declassified. If the information may not be released, in whole or in part, the requester shall be given a brief statement as to the reasons for denial, a notice of the right to appeal the determination to the Director of ONDCP, and a notice that such an appeal must be filed within 60 days in order to be considered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.4" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3.0.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.4   Information classified by another agency.</HEAD>
<P>When a request is received for information that was classified by another agency, the Director of the Office of Planning, Budget, and Administration of ONDCP will forward the request and a copy of the document(s) along with any other related materials, to the appropriate agency for review and determination as to release. Recommendations as to release or denial may be made if appropriate. The requester will be notified of the referral, unless the receiving agency objects on the grounds that its association with the information requires protection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.5" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3.0.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.5   Appeal procedure.</HEAD>
<P>Appeals reviewed as a result of a denial will be routed to the Director of ONDCP, who will take action as necessary to determine whether any part of the information may be declassified. If so, the Director shall notify the requester of this determination and shall make any information available that is declassified and is otherwise releasable. If continued classification is required, the requester shall be notified by the Director of ONDCP of the reasons therefore.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.6" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3.0.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.6   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>There will normally be no fees charged for the mandatory review of classified material for declassification under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.7" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.3.0.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.7   Suggestions and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Suggestions and complaints regarding the information security program of ONDCP should be submitted, in writing, to the Security Officer, Office of National Drug Control Policy, Washington, DC 20500.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1403-1499" NODE="21:9.0.2.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1403-1499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
</BODY>
</TEXT>
</DLPSTEXTCLASS>
